v2.0
Beyoncé
When did Beyonce start becoming popular?
56be85543aeaaa14008c9063
in the late 1990s
269
False
What areas did Beyonce compete in when she was growing up?
56be85543aeaaa14008c9065
singing and dancing
207
False
When did Beyonce leave Destiny's Child and become a solo singer?
56be85543aeaaa14008c9066
2003
526
False
In what city and state did Beyonce  grow up?
56bf6b0f3aeaaa14008c9601
Houston, Texas
166
False
In which decade did Beyonce become famous?
56bf6b0f3aeaaa14008c9602
late 1990s
276
False
In what R&B group was she the lead singer?
56bf6b0f3aeaaa14008c9603
Destiny's Child
320
False
What album made her a worldwide known artist?
56bf6b0f3aeaaa14008c9604
Dangerously in Love
505
False
Who managed the Destiny's Child group?
56bf6b0f3aeaaa14008c9605
Mathew Knowles
360
False
When did Beyoncé rise to fame?
56d43c5f2ccc5a1400d830a9
late 1990s
276
False
What role did Beyoncé have in Destiny's Child?
56d43c5f2ccc5a1400d830aa
lead singer
290
False
What was the first album Beyoncé released as a solo artist?
56d43c5f2ccc5a1400d830ab
Dangerously in Love
505
False
When did Beyoncé release Dangerously in Love?
56d43c5f2ccc5a1400d830ac
2003
526
False
How many Grammy awards did Beyoncé win for her first solo album?
56d43c5f2ccc5a1400d830ad
five
590
False
What was Beyoncé's role in Destiny's Child?
56d43ce42ccc5a1400d830b4
lead singer
290
False
What was the name of Beyoncé's first solo album?
56d43ce42ccc5a1400d830b5
Dangerously in Love
505
False
Beyoncé Giselle Knowles-Carter (/biːˈjɒnseɪ/ bee-YON-say) (born September 4, 1981) is an American singer, songwriter, record producer and actress. Born and raised in Houston, Texas, she performed in various singing and dancing competitions as a child, and rose to fame in the late 1990s as lead singer of R&B girl-group Destiny's Child. Managed by her father, Mathew Knowles, the group became one of the world's best-selling girl groups of all time. Their hiatus saw the release of Beyoncé's debut album, Dangerously in Love (2003), which established her as a solo artist worldwide, earned five Grammy Awards and featured the Billboard Hot 100 number-one singles "Crazy in Love" and "Baby Boy".
After her second solo album, what other entertainment venture did Beyonce explore?
56be86cf3aeaaa14008c9076
acting
207
False
Which artist did Beyonce marry?
56be86cf3aeaaa14008c9078
Jay Z
369
False
To set the record for Grammys, how many did Beyonce win?
56be86cf3aeaaa14008c9079
six
565
False
For what movie did Beyonce receive  her first Golden Globe nomination?
56bf6e823aeaaa14008c9627
Dreamgirls
260
False
When did Beyonce take a hiatus in her career and take control of her management?
56bf6e823aeaaa14008c9629
2010
586
False
Which album was darker in tone from her previous work?
56bf6e823aeaaa14008c962a
Beyoncé
180
False
After what movie portraying Etta James, did Beyonce create Sasha Fierce?
56bf6e823aeaaa14008c962b
Cadillac Records
406
False
When did Destiny's Child end their group act?
56d43da72ccc5a1400d830bd
June 2005
48
False
What was the name of Beyoncé's second solo album?
56d43da72ccc5a1400d830be
B'Day
95
False
What was Beyoncé's first acting job, in 2006?
56d43da72ccc5a1400d830bf
Dreamgirls
260
False
Who is Beyoncé married to?
56d43da72ccc5a1400d830c0
Jay Z
369
False
What is the name of Beyoncé's alter-ego?
56d43da72ccc5a1400d830c1
Sasha Fierce
466
False
Following the disbandment of Destiny's Child in June 2005, she released her second solo album, B'Day (2006), which contained hits "Déjà Vu", "Irreplaceable", and "Beautiful Liar". Beyoncé also ventured into acting, with a Golden Globe-nominated performance in Dreamgirls (2006), and starring roles in The Pink Panther (2006) and Obsessed (2009). Her marriage to rapper Jay Z and portrayal of Etta James in Cadillac Records (2008) influenced her third album, I Am... Sasha Fierce (2008), which saw the birth of her alter-ego Sasha Fierce and earned a record-setting six Grammy Awards in 2010, including Song of the Year for "Single Ladies (Put a Ring on It)". Beyoncé took a hiatus from music in 2010 and took over management of her career; her fourth album 4 (2011) was subsequently mellower in tone, exploring 1970s funk, 1980s pop, and 1990s soul. Her critically acclaimed fifth studio album, Beyoncé (2013), was distinguished from previous releases by its experimental production and exploration of darker themes.
In her music, what are some recurring elements in them?
56be88473aeaaa14008c9080
love, relationships, and monogamy
104
False
Time magazine named her one of the most 100 what people of the century?
56be88473aeaaa14008c9083
influential
935
False
Which magazine declared her the most dominant woman musician?
56be88473aeaaa14008c9084
Forbes
985
False
In which decade did the Recording Industry Association of America recognize Beyonce as the The Top Certified Artist?
56bf725c3aeaaa14008c9643
2000s
736
False
What magazine rated Beyonce as the most powerful female musician in 2015?
56bf725c3aeaaa14008c9644
Forbes
985
False
How did Beyonce describe herself as a feminist?
56bf725c3aeaaa14008c9645
modern-day feminist
18
False
In which years did Time rate Beyonce in the 100 most influential people in the world?
56bf725c3aeaaa14008c9646
2013 and 2014
970
False
How many records has Beyonce sold in her 19 year career?
56bf725c3aeaaa14008c9647
118 million
393
False
How many records did Beyoncé sell as part of Destiny's Child?
56d43f7e2ccc5a1400d830c7
60 million
445
False
After leaving Destiny's Child, how many records did Beyoncé release under her own name?
56d43f7e2ccc5a1400d830c8
118 million
393
False
How many Grammy awards has Beyoncé won?
56d43f7e2ccc5a1400d830c9
20
552
False
What magazine named Beyoncé as the most powerful female musician for 2015?
56d43f7e2ccc5a1400d830cb
Forbes
985
False
A self-described "modern-day feminist", Beyoncé creates songs that are often characterized by themes of love, relationships, and monogamy, as well as female sexuality and empowerment. On stage, her dynamic, highly choreographed performances have led to critics hailing her as one of the best entertainers in contemporary popular music. Throughout a career spanning 19 years, she has sold over 118 million records as a solo artist, and a further 60 million with Destiny's Child, making her one of the best-selling music artists of all time. She has won 20 Grammy Awards and is the most nominated woman in the award's history. The Recording Industry Association of America recognized her as the Top Certified Artist in America during the 2000s decade. In 2009, Billboard named her the Top Radio Songs Artist of the Decade, the Top Female Artist of the 2000s and their Artist of the Millennium in 2011. Time listed her among the 100 most influential people in the world in 2013 and 2014. Forbes magazine also listed her as the most powerful female musician of 2015.
Beyonce's younger sibling also sang with her in what band?
56be892d3aeaaa14008c908b
Destiny's Child
303
False
Where did Beyonce get her name from?
56be892d3aeaaa14008c908c
her mother's maiden name
204
False
What race was Beyonce's father?
56be892d3aeaaa14008c908d
African-American
330
False
Beyonce's childhood home believed in what religion?
56be892d3aeaaa14008c908e
Methodist
578
False
Beyonce's father worked as a sales manager for what company?
56bf74d53aeaaa14008c9659
Xerox
152
False
Beyonce's mother worked in what industry?
56bf74d53aeaaa14008c965a
hairdresser and salon owner
101
False
What younger sister of Beyonce also appeared in Destiny's Child?
56bf74d53aeaaa14008c965b
Solange
255
False
Beyonce is a descendent of what Arcadian leader?
56bf74d53aeaaa14008c965d
Joseph Broussard
540
False
What company did Beyoncé's father work for when she was a child?
56d440df2ccc5a1400d830d1
Xerox
152
False
What did Beyoncé's mother own when Beyoncé was a child?
56d440df2ccc5a1400d830d2
salon
117
False
What is the name of Beyoncé's younger sister?
56d440df2ccc5a1400d830d3
Solange
255
False
Beyoncé is a descendant of which Acadian leader?
56d440df2ccc5a1400d830d4
Joseph Broussard.
540
False
Beyoncé was raised in what religion?
56d440df2ccc5a1400d830d5
Methodist
578
False
Beyoncé Giselle Knowles was born in Houston, Texas, to Celestine Ann "Tina" Knowles (née Beyincé), a hairdresser and salon owner, and Mathew Knowles, a Xerox sales manager. Beyoncé's name is a tribute to her mother's maiden name. Beyoncé's younger sister Solange is also a singer and a former member of Destiny's Child. Mathew is African-American, while Tina is of Louisiana Creole descent (with African, Native American, French, Cajun, and distant Irish and Spanish ancestry). Through her mother, Beyoncé is a descendant of Acadian leader Joseph Broussard. She was raised in a Methodist household.
What town did Beyonce go to school in?
56be8a583aeaaa14008c9094
Fredericksburg
49
False
Who was the first person to notice Beyonce's singing ability?
56be8a583aeaaa14008c9095
Darlette Johnson
165
False
Beyonce moved to which town after she left her first elementary school?
56be8a583aeaaa14008c9097
Houston
507
False
Which of her teachers discovered Beyonce's musical talent?
56bf76ef3aeaaa14008c9664
dance instructor Darlette Johnson
148
False
I which church was Beyonce  a member and soloist  in the choir?
56bf76ef3aeaaa14008c9665
St. John's United Methodist Church
711
False
What type of school was Parker Elementary School?
56bf76ef3aeaaa14008c9666
music magnet school
484
False
Which song did Beyonce sing to win a competition at age 7?
56bf76ef3aeaaa14008c9667
Imagine
385
False
What city was Beyoncé's elementary school located in?
56d443ef2ccc5a1400d830db
Fredericksburg
49
False
What was the name of Beyoncé's first dance instructor?
56d443ef2ccc5a1400d830dc
Darlette Johnson
165
False
How old was Beyoncé when she won a school talent show?
56d443ef2ccc5a1400d830dd
seven
355
False
What choir did Beyoncé sing in for two years?
56d443ef2ccc5a1400d830df
St. John's United Methodist Church
711
False
Beyoncé attended St. Mary's Elementary School in Fredericksburg, Texas, where she enrolled in dance classes. Her singing talent was discovered when dance instructor Darlette Johnson began humming a song and she finished it, able to hit the high-pitched notes. Beyoncé's interest in music and performing continued after winning a school talent show at age seven, singing John Lennon's "Imagine" to beat 15/16-year-olds. In fall of 1990, Beyoncé enrolled in Parker Elementary School, a music magnet school in Houston, where she would perform with the school's choir. She also attended the High School for the Performing and Visual Arts and later Alief Elsik High School. Beyoncé was also a member of the choir at St. John's United Methodist Church as a soloist for two years.
Who decided to place Beyonce's group in Star Search the talent show?
56be8bab3aeaaa14008c909f
Arne Frager
303
False
In 1995, who decided to manage the girls singing group?
56be8bab3aeaaa14008c90a0
Beyoncé's father
542
False
Who was the first record label to give the girls a record deal?
56be8bab3aeaaa14008c90a1
Elektra Records
918
False
Who brought Beyonce to California and enter her group in Star Search?
56bf79c73aeaaa14008c966d
Arne Frager
303
False
In what year did Beyonce's father quit his job to manage her group?
56bf79c73aeaaa14008c966e
1995
537
False
What large record company recorded Beyonce's group's first album?
56bf79c73aeaaa14008c966f
Sony Music
1264
False
What record company first signed Beyonce's group and later cut them?
56bf79c73aeaaa14008c9670
Elektra Records
918
False
At what age did Beyonce meet LaTavia Robertson?
56bf79c73aeaaa14008c9671
age eight
3
False
How old was Beyoncé when she met LaTavia Roberson?
56d45abf2ccc5a1400d830e5
eight
7
False
What was the name of the first group Beyoncé was a part of?
56d45abf2ccc5a1400d830e6
Girl's Tyme
192
False
Who placed Girl's Tyme in Star Search?
56d45abf2ccc5a1400d830e7
Arne Frager
303
False
When did Beyoncé begin to manage the girl group?
56d45abf2ccc5a1400d830e8
1995
537
False
Who signed the girl group on October 5, 1995?
56d45abf2ccc5a1400d830e9
Dwayne Wiggins's Grass Roots Entertainment
1126
False
At age eight, Beyoncé and childhood friend Kelly Rowland met LaTavia Roberson while in an audition for an all-girl entertainment group. They were placed into a group with three other girls as Girl's Tyme, and rapped and danced on the talent show circuit in Houston. After seeing the group, R&B producer Arne Frager brought them to his Northern California studio and placed them in Star Search, the largest talent show on national TV at the time. Girl's Tyme failed to win, and Beyoncé later said the song they performed was not good. In 1995 Beyoncé's father resigned from his job to manage the group. The move reduced Beyoncé's family's income by half, and her parents were forced to move into separated apartments. Mathew cut the original line-up to four and the group continued performing as an opening act for other established R&B girl groups. The girls auditioned before record labels and were finally signed to Elektra Records, moving to Atlanta Records briefly to work on their first recording, only to be cut by the company. This put further strain on the family, and Beyoncé's parents separated. On October 5, 1995, Dwayne Wiggins's Grass Roots Entertainment signed the group. In 1996, the girls began recording their debut album under an agreement with Sony Music, the Knowles family reunited, and shortly after, the group got a contract with Columbia Records.
Which film featured Destiny's Child's first major single?
56be8c8a3aeaaa14008c90a9
Men in Black
215
False
For which song, did Destiny's Child take home the grammy award for best R&B performance?
56be8c8a3aeaaa14008c90ab
"Say My Name"
848
False
Who did Beyonce record with for the movie "The Best Man?"
56be8c8a3aeaaa14008c90ac
Marc Nelson
1212
False
Beyonce's group changed their name to Destiny's Child in what year?
56bf7cb63aeaaa14008c9677
1996
51
False
The name Destiny's Child was based on a quote in which book of the Bible?
56bf7cb63aeaaa14008c9678
Book of Isaiah
85
False
Debut song, "Killing Time" was featured on what movie's sound track?
56bf7cb63aeaaa14008c9679
Men in Black
215
False
What song won Best R&B Performance in the 43 Annual Grammy Awards?
56bf7cb63aeaaa14008c967a
Say My Name
849
False
What singer did Beyonce record a song with for the movie, ''The Best Man"?
56bf7cb63aeaaa14008c967b
Marc Nelson
1212
False
Where did Destiny's Child get their name from?
56d45fcb2ccc5a1400d830f9
Book of Isaiah.
85
False
Destiny's Child song, Killing Time, was included in which film's soundtrack?
56d45fcb2ccc5a1400d830fa
Men in Black.
215
False
What was Destiny's Child's first major song hit?
56d45fcb2ccc5a1400d830fb
No, No, No
330
False
When did Destiny's Child release their second album?
56d45fcb2ccc5a1400d830fc
1999
688
False
Who did Beyoncé sing a duet with for "The Best Man" film?
56d45fcb2ccc5a1400d830fd
Marc Nelson
1212
False
The group changed their name to Destiny's Child in 1996, based upon a passage in the Book of Isaiah. In 1997, Destiny's Child released their major label debut song "Killing Time" on the soundtrack to the 1997 film, Men in Black. The following year, the group released their self-titled debut album, scoring their first major hit "No, No, No". The album established the group as a viable act in the music industry, with moderate sales and winning the group three Soul Train Lady of Soul Awards for Best R&B/Soul Album of the Year, Best R&B/Soul or Rap New Artist, and Best R&B/Soul Single for "No, No, No". The group released their multi-platinum second album The Writing's on the Wall in 1999. The record features some of the group's most widely known songs such as "Bills, Bills, Bills", the group's first number-one single, "Jumpin' Jumpin'" and "Say My Name", which became their most successful song at the time, and would remain one of their signature songs. "Say My Name" won the Best R&B Performance by a Duo or Group with Vocals and the Best R&B Song at the 43rd Annual Grammy Awards. The Writing's on the Wall sold more than eight million copies worldwide. During this time, Beyoncé recorded a duet with Marc Nelson, an original member of Boyz II Men, on the song "After All Is Said and Done" for the soundtrack to the 1999 film, The Best Man.
What mental health issue did Beyonce go through?
56be8d423aeaaa14008c90b2
depression
169
False
What event occured after she was publicly criticized?
56be8d423aeaaa14008c90b3
boyfriend left her
320
False
Who supported Beyonce through her depression?
56be8d423aeaaa14008c90b6
her mother
714
False
What event caused Beyonce's depression?
56bf7e603aeaaa14008c9681
split with Luckett and Rober
194
False
How long was Beyonce depressed?
56bf7e603aeaaa14008c9682
a couple of years
396
False
Who helped Beyonce fight her depression the most?
56bf7e603aeaaa14008c9685
her mother
714
False
Who replaced Luckett and Roberson in Destiny's Child?
56d462f82ccc5a1400d8311f
Farrah Franklin and Michelle Williams.
110
False
Who was blamed for Luckett and Roberson leaving Destiny's Child?
56d462f82ccc5a1400d83120
Beyoncé
149
False
Who helped Beyoncé overcome her depression during the years following the Destiny's Child split?
56d462f82ccc5a1400d83121
her mother
714
False
Which newest member was removed from Destiny's Child?
56d462f82ccc5a1400d83123
Farrah Franklin
110
False
LeToya Luckett and Roberson became unhappy with Mathew's managing of the band and eventually were replaced by Farrah Franklin and Michelle Williams. Beyoncé experienced depression following the split with Luckett and Roberson after being publicly blamed by the media, critics, and blogs for its cause. Her long-standing boyfriend left her at this time. The depression was so severe it lasted for a couple of years, during which she occasionally kept herself in her bedroom for days and refused to eat anything. Beyoncé stated that she struggled to speak about her depression because Destiny's Child had just won their first Grammy Award and she feared no one would take her seriously. Beyoncé would later speak of her mother as the person who helped her fight it. Franklin was dismissed, leaving just Beyoncé, Rowland, and Williams.
"Charlie's Angels" featured which single from the band members?
56be8e353aeaaa14008c90c6
Independent Women Part I
37
False
How many weeks did their single "Independent Women Part I" stay on top?
56be8e353aeaaa14008c90c7
eleven
216
False
For what network, did Beyonce land a major movie role in?
56be8e353aeaaa14008c90c8
MTV
348
False
Their third album, Survivor, sold how many during its first week?
56be8e353aeaaa14008c90c9
663,000 copies
793
False
What French composer wrote the original opera ''Carmen'' in the 19th century?
56bf89cfa10cfb1400551162
Georges Bizet
557
False
What album caused a lawsuit to be filed in 2001?
56bf89cfa10cfb1400551163
Survivor
593
False
Independent Women Part I was on which 2000 film's soundtrack?
56d4831f2ccc5a1400d83154
Charlie's Angels.
115
False
Which film did Beyoncé star in 2001 with Mekhi Phifer?
56d4831f2ccc5a1400d83155
Carmen: A Hip Hopera
378
False
What was the name of Destiny Child's third album?
56d4831f2ccc5a1400d83156
Survivor
593
False
Who filed a lawsuit over Survivor?
56d4831f2ccc5a1400d83157
Luckett and Roberson
628
False
When did Destiny's Child announce their hiatus?
56d4831f2ccc5a1400d83158
October 2001
1070
False
The remaining band members recorded "Independent Women Part I", which appeared on the soundtrack to the 2000 film, Charlie's Angels. It became their best-charting single, topping the U.S. Billboard Hot 100 chart for eleven consecutive weeks. In early 2001, while Destiny's Child was completing their third album, Beyoncé landed a major role in the MTV made-for-television film, Carmen: A Hip Hopera, starring alongside American actor Mekhi Phifer. Set in Philadelphia, the film is a modern interpretation of the 19th century opera Carmen by French composer Georges Bizet. When the third album Survivor was released in May 2001, Luckett and Roberson filed a lawsuit claiming that the songs were aimed at them. The album debuted at number one on the U.S. Billboard 200, with first-week sales of 663,000 copies sold. The album spawned other number-one hits, "Bootylicious" and the title track, "Survivor", the latter of which earned the group a Grammy Award for Best R&B Performance by a Duo or Group with Vocals. After releasing their holiday album 8 Days of Christmas in October 2001, the group announced a hiatus to further pursue solo careers.
Who did Beyonce star with in the movie, "Austin Powers in Goldmember"?
56be8fdf3aeaaa14008c90da
Mike Myers
84
False
Which three countries did Beyonce's song "Work It Out" achieve top ten status?
56be8fdf3aeaaa14008c90db
UK, Norway, and Belgium
331
False
Beyonce starred with Cuba Gooding Jr. in which film?
56be8fdf3aeaaa14008c90dc
The Fighting Temptations
431
False
Who did Beyonce record the lead single with in the movie "The Fighting Temptations"?
56be8fdf3aeaaa14008c90dd
Missy Elliott
705
False
Which other song from the soundtrack did better in the charts?
56be8fdf3aeaaa14008c90de
Summertime
834
False
What film did Beyonce appear in with Mike Myers?
56bf8c8aa10cfb140055116b
Austin Powers in Goldmember
115
False
What large amount did the movie "Goldmember" gross?
56bf8c8aa10cfb140055116c
73 million
210
False
What genre of movie did Beyonce star in with Cuba Gooding, Jr?
56bf8c8aa10cfb140055116d
musical comedy
416
False
What song was the lead single from the film's sound track?
56bf8c8aa10cfb140055116e
Fighting Temptations
435
False
How did the critics view the movie, ''The Fighting Temptations''?
56bf8c8aa10cfb140055116f
mixed reviews
545
False
What film did Beyoncé star in with Mike Myers in 2002?
56d484312ccc5a1400d8315e
Austin Powers in Goldmember
115
False
What was Beyoncé's character called in Austin Powers in Goldmember?
56d484312ccc5a1400d8315f
Foxxy Cleopatra
58
False
Which song did Beyoncé release as the lead single for Austin Powers in Goldmember's soundtrack?
56d484312ccc5a1400d83160
Work It Out
240
False
What musical comedy did Beyoncé star in along with Cuba Gooding, Jr. in 2003?
56d484312ccc5a1400d83161
The Fighting Temptations
431
False
What song did Beyoncé release as the lead single from The Fighting Tempations?
56d484312ccc5a1400d83162
Fighting Temptations
435
False
In July 2002, Beyoncé continued her acting career playing Foxxy Cleopatra alongside Mike Myers in the comedy film, Austin Powers in Goldmember, which spent its first weekend atop the US box office and grossed $73 million. Beyoncé released "Work It Out" as the lead single from its soundtrack album which entered the top ten in the UK, Norway, and Belgium. In 2003, Beyoncé starred opposite Cuba Gooding, Jr., in the musical comedy The Fighting Temptations as Lilly, a single mother whom Gooding's character falls in love with. The film received mixed reviews from critics but grossed $30 million in the U.S. Beyoncé released "Fighting Temptation" as the lead single from the film's soundtrack album, with Missy Elliott, MC Lyte, and Free which was also used to promote the film. Another of Beyoncé's contributions to the soundtrack, "Summertime", fared better on the US charts.
What was the highest Beyonce's first solo recording achieved in the Billboard Hot 100?
56be90ee3aeaaa14008c90e4
number four
123
False
Beyonce's first album by herself was called what?
56be90ee3aeaaa14008c90e5
Dangerously in Love
193
False
How many has "Dangerously in Love" sould worldwide since its debut?
56be90ee3aeaaa14008c90e6
11 million
419
False
Beyonce's first number one song was which song?
56be90ee3aeaaa14008c90e7
Crazy in Love
474
False
How many top five singles came from her first album?
56be90ee3aeaaa14008c90e8
four
130
False
Beyonce's first solo album in the U.S. with what artist in the lead single?
56bf8fc1a10cfb1400551175
Jay Z
48
False
What solo album did Beyonce release in 2003?
56bf8fc1a10cfb1400551176
Dangerously in Love
193
False
The album, Dangerously in Love  achieved what spot on the Billboard Top 100 chart?
56bf8fc1a10cfb1400551177
number four
123
False
"The Closer I get to You" was recorded with which artist?
56bf8fc1a10cfb1400551178
Luther Vandross
1042
False
Which artist was associated with Beyoncé's premiere solo recording?
56d4b9702ccc5a1400d83172
Jay Z
48
False
When did Beyoncé release her first solo album?
56d4b9702ccc5a1400d83173
June 24, 2003
229
False
What is the lead single on Beyoncé's first album?
56d4b9702ccc5a1400d83174
Crazy in Love
474
False
Who helped Beyoncé earn a Grammy award for Best R&B Performance by a Duo or Group at the 46th annual Grammy Awards?
56d4b9702ccc5a1400d83175
Luther Vandross.
1042
False
How many awards did Beyoncé win at the 46th Grammy's Awards?
56d4b9702ccc5a1400d83176
five.
696
False
Beyoncé's first solo recording was a feature on Jay Z's "'03 Bonnie & Clyde" that was released in October 2002, peaking at number four on the U.S. Billboard Hot 100 chart. Her first solo album Dangerously in Love was released on June 24, 2003, after Michelle Williams and Kelly Rowland had released their solo efforts. The album sold 317,000 copies in its first week, debuted atop the Billboard 200, and has since sold 11 million copies worldwide. The album's lead single, "Crazy in Love", featuring Jay Z, became Beyoncé's first number-one single as a solo artist in the US. The single "Baby Boy" also reached number one, and singles, "Me, Myself and I" and "Naughty Girl", both reached the top-five. The album earned Beyoncé a then record-tying five awards at the 46th Annual Grammy Awards; Best Contemporary R&B Album, Best Female R&B Vocal Performance for "Dangerously in Love 2", Best R&B Song and Best Rap/Sung Collaboration for "Crazy in Love", and Best R&B Performance by a Duo or Group with Vocals for "The Closer I Get to You" with Luther Vandross.
Destiny's Child's final album was named what?
56be91b23aeaaa14008c90f0
Destiny Fulfilled
513
False
Destiny's Child got a star on the Hollywood Walk of Fame in what year?
56be91b23aeaaa14008c90f2
2006
1212
False
In what year did Beyonce embark on her Dangerously in Love tour of Europe?
56bf91c6a10cfb140055117f
November 2003
3
False
What was the name of the final album of Destiny's Child?
56bf91c6a10cfb1400551181
Destiny Fulfilled
664
False
It was announced that Destiny's Child would  disban in what European city?
56bf91c6a10cfb1400551182
Barcelona
935
False
When did Destiny's Child get their star on the Hollywood Walk of Fame?
56bf91c6a10cfb1400551183
March 2006
1206
False
What was the name of Beyoncé's European start that started in November 2003?
56d4baf92ccc5a1400d8317c
Dangerously in Love Tour
38
False
Who did Beyoncé tour with for the Verizon Lades First Tour?
56d4baf92ccc5a1400d8317d
Missy Elliott and Alicia Keys
100
False
What major event did Beyoncé perform at on February 1, 2004?
56d4baf92ccc5a1400d8317e
Super Bowl XXXVIII
253
False
What is the name of the final studio album from Destiny's Child?
56d4baf92ccc5a1400d8317f
Destiny Fulfilled.
848
False
In November 2003, she embarked on the Dangerously in Love Tour in Europe and later toured alongside Missy Elliott and Alicia Keys for the Verizon Ladies First Tour in North America. On February 1, 2004, Beyoncé performed the American national anthem at Super Bowl XXXVIII, at the Reliant Stadium in Houston, Texas. After the release of Dangerously in Love, Beyoncé had planned to produce a follow-up album using several of the left-over tracks. However, this was put on hold so she could concentrate on recording Destiny Fulfilled, the final studio album by Destiny's Child. Released on November 15, 2004, in the US and peaking at number two on the Billboard 200, Destiny Fulfilled included the singles "Lose My Breath" and "Soldier", which reached the top five on the Billboard Hot 100 chart. Destiny's Child embarked on a worldwide concert tour, Destiny Fulfilled... and Lovin' It and during the last stop of their European tour, in Barcelona on June 11, 2005, Rowland announced that Destiny's Child would disband following the North American leg of the tour. The group released their first compilation album Number 1's on October 25, 2005, in the US and accepted a star on the Hollywood Walk of Fame in March 2006.
How many albums did Beyonce sell in the first week when she released her second album?
56be932e3aeaaa14008c90f9
541,000
132
False
The lead single from the album was which song?
56be932e3aeaaa14008c90fa
Déjà Vu
303
False
How many countries did her song "Irreplaceable" get number one status in?
56be932e3aeaaa14008c90fb
five
346
False
How many singles did her second album produce?
56be932e3aeaaa14008c90fc
five
346
False
What birthday did Beyonce's album B'Day celebrate?
56bf940da10cfb1400551189
twenty-fifth birthday
101
False
What artist did Beyonce duet with in the single, "Deja Vu''?
56bf940da10cfb140055118a
Jay Z
323
False
How high did ''Deja Vu'' climb on the Billboard chart?
56bf940da10cfb140055118b
top five
342
False
What is the name of Beyoncé's second album?
56d4bc642ccc5a1400d83190
B'Day
28
False
How many copies did B'Day sell during the first week of its release?
56d4bc642ccc5a1400d83191
541,000
132
False
Who collaborated with Beyoncé on the single, Deja Vu?
56d4bc642ccc5a1400d83192
Jay Z
323
False
Which single from B'Day was only released in the U.K.?
56d4bc642ccc5a1400d83193
Green Light
635
False
Beyoncé's second solo album B'Day was released on September 5, 2006, in the US, to coincide with her twenty-fifth birthday. It sold 541,000 copies in its first week and debuted atop the Billboard 200, becoming Beyoncé's second consecutive number-one album in the United States. The album's lead single "Déjà Vu", featuring Jay Z, reached the top five on the Billboard Hot 100 chart. The second international single "Irreplaceable" was a commercial success worldwide, reaching number one in Australia, Hungary, Ireland, New Zealand and the United States. B'Day also produced three other singles; "Ring the Alarm", "Get Me Bodied", and "Green Light" (released in the United Kingdom only).
What movie did Beyonce act in 2006?
56be94703aeaaa14008c9102
The Pink Panther
53
False
Her second movie Beyonce did was what film?
56be94703aeaaa14008c9103
Dreamgirls
171
False
The single, "Listen" was featured in which movie?
56be94703aeaaa14008c9104
Dreamgirls
171
False
Beyonce's first world tour was when?
56be94703aeaaa14008c9105
2007
550
False
How much money did Beyonce's tour make in 2007?
56be94703aeaaa14008c9106
24 million
671
False
How many millions of dollars did ''The Pink Panther'' gross world-wide?
56bf95eaa10cfb1400551194
158.8 million
112
False
What did Beyonce call her first concert tour?
56bf95eaa10cfb1400551195
The Beyoncé Experience
576
False
Who was Beyonce's duet with in ''Beautiful Liar''?
56bf95eaa10cfb1400551196
Shakira
932
False
Which film did Beyoncé star with Steve Martin in?
56d4bd272ccc5a1400d831a0
The Pink Panther
53
False
Beyoncé's role in Dreamgirls was based on what pop singer?
56d4bd272ccc5a1400d831a1
Diana Ross.
436
False
What was the lead single for the Dreamgirls soundtrack?
56d4bd272ccc5a1400d831a2
Listen
487
False
What was the name of Beyoncé's first international tour?
56d4bd272ccc5a1400d831a3
The Beyoncé Experience
576
False
What pop singer did a duet with Beyoncé on Beautiful Liar?
56d4bd272ccc5a1400d831a4
Shakira
932
False
Her first acting role of 2006 was in the comedy film The Pink Panther starring opposite Steve Martin, grossing $158.8 million at the box office worldwide. Her second film Dreamgirls, the film version of the 1981 Broadway musical loosely based on The Supremes, received acclaim from critics and grossed $154 million internationally. In it, she starred opposite Jennifer Hudson, Jamie Foxx, and Eddie Murphy playing a pop singer based on Diana Ross. To promote the film, Beyoncé released "Listen" as the lead single from the soundtrack album. In April 2007, Beyoncé embarked on The Beyoncé Experience, her first worldwide concert tour, visiting 97 venues and grossed over $24 million.[note 1] Beyoncé conducted pre-concert food donation drives during six major stops in conjunction with her pastor at St. John's and America's Second Harvest. At the same time, B'Day was re-released with five additional songs, including her duet with Shakira "Beautiful Liar".
Beyonce got married in 2008 to whom?
56be95823aeaaa14008c910c
Jay Z
34
False
Her third album, "I am...Sasha Fierce" was released when?
56be95823aeaaa14008c910d
November 18, 2008
253
False
For which decade, did Beyonce have more top ten songs than any other woman?
56be95823aeaaa14008c910e
2000s
897
False
Which singer beat out Beyonce for best video performance?
56be95823aeaaa14008c910f
Taylor Swift
1567
False
In 2009, Beyonce started her second world tour and grossed how much money?
56be95823aeaaa14008c9110
119.5 million
1881
False
How did she reveal the marriage?
56bf97aba10cfb140055119e
in a video montage
78
False
When did Beyonce begin her second world tour?
56bf97aba10cfb140055119f
March 2009
1744
False
Who beat out Beyonce for Best Female Video ?
56bf97aba10cfb14005511a0
Taylor Swift
1567
False
How much did the second world tour make in dollars?
56bf97aba10cfb14005511a1
119.5 million
1881
False
When did Beyoncé get married?
56d4bf242ccc5a1400d831be
April 4, 2008
3
False
Who did Beyoncé marry?
56d4bf242ccc5a1400d831bf
Jay Z.
34
False
Who is Beyoncé's alter ego?
56d4bf242ccc5a1400d831c0
Sasha Fierce
156
False
The video for what song won Beyoncé the 2009 MTV Video of the Year award?
56d4bf242ccc5a1400d831c1
Single Ladies
605
False
Which prominent star felt the 2009 Female Video of the Year award should have went to Beyoncé instead of Taylor Swift?
56d4bf242ccc5a1400d831c2
Kanye West
1611
False
On April 4, 2008, Beyoncé married Jay Z. She publicly revealed their marriage in a video montage at the listening party for her third studio album, I Am... Sasha Fierce, in Manhattan's Sony Club on October 22, 2008. I Am... Sasha Fierce was released on November 18, 2008 in the United States. The album formally introduces Beyoncé's alter ego Sasha Fierce, conceived during the making of her 2003 single "Crazy in Love", selling 482,000 copies in its first week, debuting atop the Billboard 200, and giving Beyoncé her third consecutive number-one album in the US. The album featured the number-one song "Single Ladies (Put a Ring on It)" and the top-five songs "If I Were a Boy" and "Halo". Achieving the accomplishment of becoming her longest-running Hot 100 single in her career, "Halo"'s success in the US helped Beyoncé attain more top-ten singles on the list than any other woman during the 2000s. It also included the successful "Sweet Dreams", and singles "Diva", "Ego", "Broken-Hearted Girl" and "Video Phone". The music video for "Single Ladies" has been parodied and imitated around the world, spawning the "first major dance craze" of the Internet age according to the Toronto Star. The video has won several awards, including Best Video at the 2009 MTV Europe Music Awards, the 2009 Scottish MOBO Awards, and the 2009 BET Awards. At the 2009 MTV Video Music Awards, the video was nominated for nine awards, ultimately winning three including Video of the Year. Its failure to win the Best Female Video category, which went to American country pop singer Taylor Swift's "You Belong with Me", led to Kanye West interrupting the ceremony and Beyoncé improvising a re-presentation of Swift's award during her own acceptance speech. In March 2009, Beyoncé embarked on the I Am... World Tour, her second headlining worldwide concert tour, consisting of 108 shows, grossing $119.5 million.
Beyonce portrayed which character in the film, Cadillac Records?
56be96653aeaaa14008c9116
Etta James
69
False
Beyonce gave her entire salary from Cadillac Records to which organization?
56be96653aeaaa14008c9117
Phoenix House
439
False
Which song did Beyonce sing at the first couple's inaugural ball?
56be96653aeaaa14008c9118
At Last
582
False
What genre of film was the movie, Obsessed, in which Beyonce starred in?
56be96653aeaaa14008c9119
thriller
693
False
A fight scene from the movie, Obsessed, won which award for Beyonce?
56be96653aeaaa14008c911a
MTV Movie Award for Best Fight
1101
False
Where did Beyonce donate her salary from the movie Cadillac Records?
56bf99aca10cfb14005511a7
Phoenix House
439
False
What thriller film did Beyonce star in?
56bf99aca10cfb14005511a9
Obsessed
703
False
What was the name of the woman she played in Obsessed?
56bf99aca10cfb14005511aa
Sharon Charles
724
False
How much more that the buget did the film gross?
56bf99aca10cfb14005511ab
60 million
940
False
Which singer did Beyoncé portray in Cadillac Records?
56d4c0452ccc5a1400d831c8
Etta James
69
False
Which organization received Beyoncé's entire Cadillac Records salary?
56d4c0452ccc5a1400d831c9
Phoenix House
439
False
Where did Beyoncé perform on January 20, 2009?
56d4c0452ccc5a1400d831ca
the First Couple's first inaugural ball.
594
False
Which thriller film did Beyoncé star in with Ali Larter?
56d4c0452ccc5a1400d831cb
Obsessed.
703
False
Beyoncé further expanded her acting career, starring as blues singer Etta James in the 2008 musical biopic, Cadillac Records. Her performance in the film received praise from critics, and she garnered several nominations for her portrayal of James, including a Satellite Award nomination for Best Supporting Actress, and a NAACP Image Award nomination for Outstanding Supporting Actress. Beyoncé donated her entire salary from the film to Phoenix House, an organization of rehabilitation centers for heroin addicts around the country. On January 20, 2009, Beyoncé performed James' "At Last" at the First Couple's first inaugural ball. Beyoncé starred opposite Ali Larter and Idris Elba in the thriller, Obsessed. She played Sharon Charles, a mother and wife who learns of a woman's obsessive behavior over her husband. Although the film received negative reviews from critics, the movie did well at the US box office, grossing $68 million—$60 million more than Cadillac Records—on a budget of $20 million. The fight scene finale between Sharon and the character played by Ali Larter also won the 2010 MTV Movie Award for Best Fight.
How many awards was Beyonce nominated for at the 52nd Grammy Awards?
56be973d3aeaaa14008c9120
ten
51
False
Beyonce tied with which artist for most nominations by a female artist?
56be973d3aeaaa14008c9121
Lauryn Hill
242
False
In 2010, Beyonce worked with which other famous singer?
56be973d3aeaaa14008c9122
Lady Gaga
352
False
How many number one singles did Beyonce now have after the song "Telephone"?
56be973d3aeaaa14008c9123
six
457
False
Beyonce tied who for most number one singles by a female?
56be973d3aeaaa14008c9124
Mariah Carey
517
False
Beyonce received how many nominations at the 52nd Annual Grammy Awards?
56bf9b57a10cfb14005511b1
ten nominations
51
False
What song was the sixth first place song for Beyonce?
56bf9b57a10cfb14005511b2
Telephone
372
False
Who else appeared with Beyonce in Telephone?
56bf9b57a10cfb14005511b3
Lady Gaga
352
False
Who did they tie with for six top songs?
56bf9b57a10cfb14005511b4
Mariah Carey
517
False
Who did Beyonce tie with for the most nominations in a year?
56bf9b57a10cfb14005511b5
Lauryn Hill
242
False
How many nominations did Beyoncé receive at the 52nd Grammy Awards ceremony?
56d4c1452ccc5a1400d831dc
ten
51
False
Who did Beyoncé tie with for the most Grammy nominations for female artists?
56d4c1452ccc5a1400d831de
Lauryn Hill
242
False
Beyoncé was a featured artist on which singer's hit, Telephone?
56d4c1452ccc5a1400d831df
Lady Gaga
352
False
Who did Beyoncé and Lady Gaga tie with for the most number one hits since 1992?
56d4c1452ccc5a1400d831e0
Mariah Carey
517
False
At the 52nd Annual Grammy Awards, Beyoncé received ten nominations, including Album of the Year for I Am... Sasha Fierce, Record of the Year for "Halo", and Song of the Year for "Single Ladies (Put a Ring on It)", among others. She tied with Lauryn Hill for most Grammy nominations in a single year by a female artist. In 2010, Beyoncé was featured on Lady Gaga's single "Telephone" and its music video. The song topped the US Pop Songs chart, becoming the sixth number-one for both Beyoncé and Gaga, tying them with Mariah Carey for most number-ones since the Nielsen Top 40 airplay chart launched in 1992. "Telephone" received a Grammy Award nomination for Best Pop Collaboration with Vocals.
Beyonce would take a break from music in which year?
56be97c73aeaaa14008c912a
2010
60
False
Which year did Beyonce and her father part business ways?
56be97c73aeaaa14008c912b
2010
60
False
Which famous landmark did Beyonce see in China?
56be97c73aeaaa14008c912e
the Great Wall of China
300
False
In what year did Beyonce have her hiatus?
56bf9c70a10cfb14005511bb
2010
60
False
Who inspired this hiatus?
56bf9c70a10cfb14005511bc
her mother
74
False
When did she stop using her father as a manager?
56bf9c70a10cfb14005511bd
During the break
143
False
How long did the hiatus last?
56bf9c70a10cfb14005511bf
nine months
244
False
What did Beyoncé announce in January 2010?
56d4c1c12ccc5a1400d831e6
a hiatus
18
False
Who suggested the hiatus for Beyoncé?
56d4c1c12ccc5a1400d831e7
her mother
74
False
Who did Beyoncé part ways with during her hiatus?
56d4c1c12ccc5a1400d831e8
her father
168
False
How long did her hiatus last?
56d4c1c12ccc5a1400d831e9
nine months
244
False
Beyoncé announced a hiatus from her music career in January 2010, heeding her mother's advice, "to live life, to be inspired by things again". During the break she and her father parted ways as business partners. Beyoncé's musical break lasted nine months and saw her visit multiple European cities, the Great Wall of China, the Egyptian pyramids, Australia, English music festivals and various museums and ballet performances.
In which year was reports about Beyonce performing for Muammar Gaddafi surface?
56be99b53aeaaa14008c913e
2011
3
False
Who did Beyonce donate the money to earned from her shows?
56be99b53aeaaa14008c913f
Clinton Bush Haiti Fund
367
False
Beyonce became the first female artist to perform solo in 20 years at which stage?
56be99b53aeaaa14008c9140
the 2011 Glastonbury Festival
486
False
Which organization did Beyonce's spokespeople confirm her donations to?
56be99b53aeaaa14008c9141
The Huffington Post
313
False
Beyonce was listed in 2011 as the highest paid performer per what?
56be99b53aeaaa14008c9142
minute
596
False
Hoe did everyone learn that Beyonce performed for Kaddafi?
56bf9dbda10cfb14005511c5
documents obtained by WikiLeaks
9
False
When did this leak happen?
56bf9dbda10cfb14005511c6
2011
3
False
Who did she tell about the donation?
56bf9dbda10cfb14005511c8
The Huffington Post
313
False
Where did Beyonce perform in 2011?
56bf9dbda10cfb14005511c9
Glastonbury Festival
495
False
Who did Beyoncé perform privately for in 2011?
56d4c2b22ccc5a1400d831f2
Muammar Gaddafi.
137
False
Who released the information about Beyoncé's performance for the Libyan ruler?
56d4c2b22ccc5a1400d831f3
WikiLeaks
31
False
Which organization did Beyoncé donate her pay for the private performance to?
56d4c2b22ccc5a1400d831f4
Clinton Bush Haiti Fund.
367
False
Beyoncé was the first female singer to headline what at the 2011 Glastonbury Festival?
56d4c2b22ccc5a1400d831f5
Pyramid stage
469
False
In 2011, documents obtained by WikiLeaks revealed that Beyoncé was one of many entertainers who performed for the family of Libyan ruler Muammar Gaddafi. Rolling Stone reported that the music industry was urging them to return the money they earned for the concerts; a spokesperson for Beyoncé later confirmed to The Huffington Post that she donated the money to the Clinton Bush Haiti Fund. Later that year she became the first solo female artist to headline the main Pyramid stage at the 2011 Glastonbury Festival in over twenty years, and was named the highest-paid performer in the world per minute.
Beyonce's fourth album debuted in what year?
56be9add3aeaaa14008c9152
2011
51
False
Which single had the most success from that album?
56be9add3aeaaa14008c9153
Love on Top
371
False
Beyonce won an award for which activity in 2011?
56be9add3aeaaa14008c9155
writing
617
False
in 2011, Beyonce performed for four nights where?
56be9add3aeaaa14008c9156
New York's Roseland Ballroom
719
False
When was Beyonce's forth album released?
56bf9f6aa10cfb14005511cf
June 28, 2011
42
False
How many copies did the album sell in its first week?
56bf9f6aa10cfb14005511d0
310,000 copies
74
False
Who awarded Beyonce and award for writing?
56bf9f6aa10cfb14005511d2
New York Association of Black Journalists
640
False
When did she perform at the Roseland ballroom?
56bf9f6aa10cfb14005511d3
2011
51
False
What is the name of Beyoncé's fourth studio album?
56d4c4532ccc5a1400d83204
4
24
False
When was 4 released?
56d4c4532ccc5a1400d83205
June 28, 2011
42
False
How many copies of 4 sold in the first week?
56d4c4532ccc5a1400d83206
310,000
74
False
What magazine did Beyoncé write a story for about her earlier hiatus?
56d4c4532ccc5a1400d83207
Essence
562
False
Where did Beyoncé perform for four nights of standing room only concerts in 2011?
56d4c4532ccc5a1400d83208
New York's Roseland Ballroom
719
False
Her fourth studio album 4 was released on June 28, 2011 in the US. 4 sold 310,000 copies in its first week and debuted atop the Billboard 200 chart, giving Beyoncé her fourth consecutive number-one album in the US. The album was preceded by two of its singles "Run the World (Girls)" and "Best Thing I Never Had", which both attained moderate success. The fourth single "Love on Top" was a commercial success in the US. 4 also produced four other singles; "Party", "Countdown", "I Care" and "End of Time". "Eat, Play, Love", a cover story written by Beyoncé for Essence that detailed her 2010 career break, won her a writing award from the New York Association of Black Journalists. In late 2011, she took the stage at New York's Roseland Ballroom for four nights of special performances: the 4 Intimate Nights with Beyoncé concerts saw the performance of her 4 album to a standing room only.
When did Beyonce have her first child?
56be9bb83aeaaa14008c915c
January 7, 2012
3
False
Where did Beyonce give birth to her first child?
56be9bb83aeaaa14008c915d
Lenox Hill Hospital
91
False
Beyonce's first child is named what?
56be9bb83aeaaa14008c915e
Blue Ivy Carter
71
False
Her first appearance performing since giving birth was where?
56be9bb83aeaaa14008c9160
Revel Atlantic City's Ovation Hall
176
False
When did Beyonce have her first child?
56bfa087a10cfb14005511d9
January 7, 2012
3
False
What was the child's name?
56bfa087a10cfb14005511da
Blue Ivy Carter
71
False
How long was it after the birth of her child before she performed again?
56bfa087a10cfb14005511dc
Five months
124
False
How many nights did she perform at Atlantic City?
56bfa087a10cfb14005511dd
four nights
161
False
When did Beyoncé give birth to a daughter?
56d4c4e72ccc5a1400d83218
January 7, 2012
3
False
What did Beyoncé name her daughter?
56d4c4e72ccc5a1400d83219
Blue Ivy Carter
71
False
Where was Blue Ivy born?
56d4c4e72ccc5a1400d8321a
Lenox Hill Hospital in New York.
91
False
Where was Beyoncé's first public performance after giving birth?
56d4c4e72ccc5a1400d8321b
Revel Atlantic City's Ovation Hall
176
False
How many nights did Beyoncé play at the resort?
56d4c4e72ccc5a1400d8321c
four
161
False
On January 7, 2012, Beyoncé gave birth to her first child, a daughter, Blue Ivy Carter, at Lenox Hill Hospital in New York. Five months later, she performed for four nights at Revel Atlantic City's Ovation Hall to celebrate the resort's opening, her first performances since giving birth to Blue Ivy.
Destiny's Child released a compilation album about which topic?
56be9c863aeaaa14008c9166
romance
81
False
Beyonce's documentary movie was called what?
56be9c863aeaaa14008c9169
Life Is But a Dream
689
False
What did Beyonce sign in 2013?
56be9c863aeaaa14008c916a
global publishing agreement
1163
False
When did Destiny's Child release its album "Love Songs"?
56bfa24ea10cfb14005511e3
January 2013
3
False
What was the title of the added track in Love Songs?
56bfa24ea10cfb14005511e4
Nuclear
158
False
At whose inauguration did she perform the National Anthem?
56bfa24ea10cfb14005511e5
President Obama
258
False
How many Tweets per minute did the half time show get?
56bfa24ea10cfb14005511e7
268,000 tweets per minute
523
False
When did Destiny's Child release Love Songs?
56d4c6b02ccc5a1400d83222
January 2013
3
False
What was the new track for Love Songs?
56d4c6b02ccc5a1400d83223
Nuclear
158
False
What did Beyoncé sing at President Obama's second inauguration?
56d4c6b02ccc5a1400d83224
the American national anthem
186
False
What event did Beyoncé perform at one month after Obama's inauguration?
56d4c6b02ccc5a1400d83225
Super Bowl XLVII halftime show
362
False
What is the name of Beyoncé's documentary film?
56d4c6b02ccc5a1400d83226
Life Is But a Dream
689
False
In January 2013, Destiny's Child released Love Songs, a compilation album of the romance-themed songs from their previous albums and a newly recorded track, "Nuclear". Beyoncé performed the American national anthem singing along with a pre-recorded track at President Obama's second inauguration in Washington, D.C. The following month, Beyoncé performed at the Super Bowl XLVII halftime show, held at the Mercedes-Benz Superdome in New Orleans. The performance stands as the second most tweeted about moment in history at 268,000 tweets per minute. At the 55th Annual Grammy Awards, Beyoncé won for Best Traditional R&B Performance for "Love on Top". Her feature-length documentary film, Life Is But a Dream, first aired on HBO on February 16, 2013. The film, which she directed and produced herself, featured footage from her childhood, her as a mother and businesswoman, recording, rehearsing for live performances, and her return to the spotlight following Blue Ivy's birth. Its DVD release in November 2013 was accompanied by footage from the Revel Presents: Beyoncé Live concerts and a new song, "God Made You Beautiful". In February 2013, Beyoncé signed a global publishing agreement with Warner/Chappell Music, which would cover her future songwriting and then-upcoming studio album.
How many dates did Beyonce's "The Mrs. Carter Show" entail?
56be9d3d3aeaaa14008c9170
132
103
False
One of Beyonce's most successful tours yet was which one?
56be9d3d3aeaaa14008c9172
The Mrs. Carter Show
20
False
Beyonce wrote which song for the movie "Epic"?
56be9d3d3aeaaa14008c9173
Rise Up
560
False
Beyonce voiced a character in which animated film?
56be9d3d3aeaaa14008c9174
Epic
469
False
When did the tour begin?
56bfa3cca10cfb14005511ee
April 15
55
False
Of what event was Beyonce honorary chair?
56bfa3cca10cfb14005511ef
2013 Met Gala
399
False
What part did she voice for the movie Epic?
56bfa3cca10cfb14005511f0
Queen Tara
429
False
What song did Beyonce record for the film Epic?
56bfa3cca10cfb14005511f1
Rise Up
560
False
What was the name of Beyoncé's tour that she started on April 15?
56d4c75a2ccc5a1400d8322c
The Mrs. Carter Show World Tour
20
False
How many dates did the Mrs. Carter Show World Tour have?
56d4c75a2ccc5a1400d8322d
132
103
False
Which Amy Winehouse song did Beyoncé cover and release in May 2014?
56d4c75a2ccc5a1400d8322e
Back to Black
288
False
Beyoncé was an honorary chair of the 2013 what?
56d4c75a2ccc5a1400d8322f
Met Gala.
404
False
Which character in the film, Epic, was voiced by Beyoncé?
56d4c75a2ccc5a1400d83230
Queen Tara
429
False
Beyoncé embarked on The Mrs. Carter Show World Tour on April 15 in Belgrade, Serbia; the tour included 132 dates that ran through to March 2014. It became the most successful tour of her career and one of the most-successful tours of all time. In May, Beyoncé's cover of Amy Winehouse's "Back to Black" with André 3000 on The Great Gatsby soundtrack was released. She was also honorary chair of the 2013 Met Gala. Beyoncé voiced Queen Tara in the 3D CGI animated film, Epic, released by 20th Century Fox on May 24, and recorded an original song for the film, "Rise Up", co-written with Sia.
Where did Beyonce release her 5th album to a huge surprise?
56be9e453aeaaa14008c917a
the iTunes Store
88
False
When did Beyonce get her fifth consecutive number one hit album?
56bfa5b3a10cfb14005511f7
December 13, 2013
3
False
Where was the album released?
56bfa5b3a10cfb14005511f8
the iTunes Store
88
False
Who joined Beyonce on her On The Run Tour?
56bfa5b3a10cfb14005511f9
Jay Z
810
False
Who reported Beyonce to e the top earning woman in music?
56bfa5b3a10cfb14005511fa
Forbes
1344
False
How much more were her earnings that the year before?
56bfa5b3a10cfb14005511fb
more than double her earnings
1471
False
When did Beyoncé release her fifth studio album?
56d4cde92ccc5a1400d83236
December 13, 2013
3
False
How many digital copies of her fifth album did Beyoncé sell in six days?
56d4cde92ccc5a1400d83237
one million
440
False
What song on Beyoncé's fifth studio album featured her husband?
56d4cde92ccc5a1400d83238
Drunk in Love
784
False
What was the name of the tour featuring both Beyoncé and Jay Z?
56d4cde92ccc5a1400d83239
On the Run Tour.
974
False
On December 13, 2013, Beyoncé unexpectedly released her eponymous fifth studio album on the iTunes Store without any prior announcement or promotion. The album debuted atop the Billboard 200 chart, giving Beyoncé her fifth consecutive number-one album in the US. This made her the first woman in the chart's history to have her first five studio albums debut at number one. Beyoncé received critical acclaim and commercial success, selling one million digital copies worldwide in six days; The New York Times noted the album's unconventional, unexpected release as significant. Musically an electro-R&B album, it concerns darker themes previously unexplored in her work, such as "bulimia, postnatal depression [and] the fears and insecurities of marriage and motherhood". The single "Drunk in Love", featuring Jay Z, peaked at number two on the Billboard Hot 100 chart. In April 2014, after much speculation in the weeks before, Beyoncé and Jay Z officially announced their On the Run Tour. It served as the couple's first co-headlining stadium tour together. On August 24, 2014, she received the Video Vanguard Award at the 2014 MTV Video Music Awards. Knowles also took home three competitive awards: Best Video with a Social Message and Best Cinematography for "Pretty Hurts", as well as best collaboration for "Drunk in Love". In November, Forbes reported that Beyoncé was the top-earning woman in music for the second year in a row—earning $115 million in the year, more than double her earnings in 2013. Beyoncé was reissued with new material in three forms: as an extended play, a box set, as well as a full platinum edition.
How many awards did Beyonce take home with her at the 57th Grammy Awards?
56be9eea3aeaaa14008c9184
three
108
False
Which artist beat Beyonce out for Album of the year?
56be9eea3aeaaa14008c9185
Beck
283
False
Which magazine did Beyonce pose on the cover for in August of 2015?
56be9eea3aeaaa14008c9186
Vogue
364
False
Beyonce would perform with who at Superbowl 50?
56be9eea3aeaaa14008c9187
Coldplay
770
False
Beyonce took home how many awards at the 57th Grammy Awards?
56bea1f53aeaaa14008c918e
three
108
False
Beyonce lost to which artist for Album of the year?
56bea1f53aeaaa14008c918f
Beck
283
False
Who did Beyonce perform next to during Superbowl 50?
56bea1f53aeaaa14008c9191
Coldplay
770
False
If Beyonce won three Grammies in 2015, how many was she nominated for?
56bfa761a10cfb1400551201
six awards
77
False
On what magazine was she the cover model?
56bfa761a10cfb1400551202
Vogue
364
False
Who would she perform with at Superbowl 50?
56bfa761a10cfb1400551204
Coldplay
770
False
With what British band did Beyonce perform on their album?
56bfa761a10cfb1400551205
Coldplay
770
False
How many awards was Beyoncé nominated for at the 57th annual Grammys?
56d4ceac2ccc5a1400d83240
six
77
False
How many awards did Beyoncé win at the 57th Annual Grammys?
56d4ceac2ccc5a1400d83241
three
108
False
Beyoncé lost the Album of the Year award to which entertainer?
56d4ceac2ccc5a1400d83242
Beck
283
False
Which magazine did Beyoncé pose for the cover, making her the first black female artist to do so?
56d4ceac2ccc5a1400d83243
Vogue
364
False
Who did Beyonce perform with at Super Bowl 50?
56d4ceac2ccc5a1400d83244
Coldplay
770
False
At the 57th Annual Grammy Awards in February 2015, Beyoncé was nominated for six awards, ultimately winning three: Best R&B Performance and Best R&B Song for "Drunk in Love", and Best Surround Sound Album for Beyoncé. She was nominated for Album of the Year but the award was won by Beck for his Morning Phase album. In August, the cover of the September issue of Vogue magazine was unveiled online, Beyoncé as the cover star, becoming the first African-American artist and third African-American woman in general to cover the September issue. She headlined the 2015 Made in America festival in early September and also the Global Citizen Festival later that month. Beyoncé made an uncredited featured appearance on the track "Hymn for the Weekend" by British rock band Coldplay, on their seventh studio album A Head Full of Dreams (2015), which saw release in December. On January 7, 2016, Pepsi announced Beyoncé would perform alongside Coldplay at Super Bowl 50 in February. Knowles has previously performed at four Super Bowl shows throughout her career, serving as the main headliner of the 47th Super Bowl halftime show in 2013.
Beyonce released the song "Formation" on which online music service?
56bea27b3aeaaa14008c9199
Tidal
140
False
Beyonce's new single released before the super bowl was called what?
56bea27b3aeaaa14008c919a
Formation
154
False
What day did Beyonce release her single, Formation?
56bfa8bba10cfb140055120b
February 6, 2016
3
False
How was the single released?
56bfa8bba10cfb140055120c
exclusively
101
False
What was the name of the streaming service?
56bfa8bba10cfb140055120d
Tidal
140
False
What kind of platform was the song released?
56bfa8bba10cfb140055120f
music streaming
116
False
When did Beyoncé release Formation?
56d4cee32ccc5a1400d8324a
February 6, 2016
3
False
Where did Beyoncé exclusively release her single, Formation?
56d4cee32ccc5a1400d8324b
Tidal
140
False
On February 6, 2016, one day before her performance at the Super Bowl, Beyoncé released a new single exclusively on music streaming service Tidal called "Formation".
As of April 2014, how many albums have Jay Z and Beyonce sold together?
56bea5f23aeaaa14008c91a1
300 million
447
False
Where did Beyonce become pregnant?
56bea5f23aeaaa14008c91a2
Paris
825
False
Beyonce described what as the "hardest thing she had to endure"?
56bea5f23aeaaa14008c91a3
miscarriage
617
False
Who did Beyonce have a relationship with?
56bfaa11a10cfb1400551215
Jay Z
62
False
When were Beyonce and Jay Z married?
56bfaa11a10cfb1400551216
April 4, 2008
332
False
Together how records have they sold ?
56bfaa11a10cfb1400551217
300 million
447
False
How did Beyonce deal with the miscarriage of her child?
56bfaa11a10cfb1400551218
wrote music
736
False
Where was Beyonce when she became pregnant?
56bfaa11a10cfb1400551219
Paris
825
False
In which music video did Beyoncé star as Jay Z's girlfriend, creating speculation about their relationship?
56d4d0c32ccc5a1400d8324e
'03 Bonnie & Clyde
94
False
When were Beyoncé and Jay Z married?
56d4d0c32ccc5a1400d8324f
April 4, 2008
332
False
How many records combined have Beyoncé and Jay Z sold?
56d4d0c32ccc5a1400d83250
300 million
447
False
What did Beyoncé describe as the saddest thing in her life?
56d4d0c32ccc5a1400d83251
miscarriage
617
False
Where did Beyoncé get pregnant?
56d4d0c32ccc5a1400d83252
Paris.
912
False
Beyoncé is believed to have first started a relationship with Jay Z after a collaboration on "'03 Bonnie & Clyde", which appeared on his seventh album The Blueprint 2: The Gift & The Curse (2002). Beyoncé appeared as Jay Z's girlfriend in the music video for the song, which would further fuel speculation of their relationship. On April 4, 2008, Beyoncé and Jay Z were married without publicity. As of April 2014, the couple have sold a combined 300 million records together. The couple are known for their private relationship, although they have appeared to become more relaxed in recent years. Beyoncé suffered a miscarriage in 2010 or 2011, describing it as "the saddest thing" she had ever endured. She returned to the studio and wrote music in order to cope with the loss. In April 2011, Beyoncé and Jay Z traveled to Paris in order to shoot the album cover for her 4, and unexpectedly became pregnant in Paris.
Jay Z and Beyonce attended which event together in August of 2011?
56bea8463aeaaa14008c91a9
MTV Video Music Awards
40
False
Beyonce confirmed what after performing one of her songs?
56bea8463aeaaa14008c91aa
her pregnancy
360
False
How many people watched the 2011 MTV Music Awards?
56bea8463aeaaa14008c91ac
12.4 million
535
False
Where did she announce her pregnancy?
56bfab98a10cfb140055121f
2011 MTV Video Music Awards
35
False
Why was the broadcast the most-watched in history?
56bfab98a10cfb1400551220
Her appearance
417
False
What even was recorded in the Guinness World Records?
56bfab98a10cfb1400551221
most tweets per second
616
False
What was the most searched term in week of Aug 29, 2011?
56bfab98a10cfb1400551222
Beyonce pregnant
719
False
What song did she perform at the MTV Awards?
56bfab98a10cfb1400551223
Love on Top
92
False
Where did Beyoncé announce her pregnancy?
56d4d18d2ccc5a1400d83258
2011 MTV Video Music Awards
35
False
What song did Beyoncé sing prior to announcing her pregnancy?
56d4d18d2ccc5a1400d83259
Love on Top
92
False
How many people watched the 2011 MTV Video Music Awards?
56d4d18d2ccc5a1400d8325a
12.4 million
535
False
What was the most searched term on Google for the week of August 29, 2011?
56d4d18d2ccc5a1400d8325c
Beyonce pregnant
719
False
In August, the couple attended the 2011 MTV Video Music Awards, at which Beyoncé performed "Love on Top" and started the performance saying "Tonight I want you to stand up on your feet, I want you to feel the love that's growing inside of me". At the end of the performance, she dropped her microphone, unbuttoned her blazer and rubbed her stomach, confirming her pregnancy she had alluded to earlier in the evening. Her appearance helped that year's MTV Video Music Awards become the most-watched broadcast in MTV history, pulling in 12.4 million viewers; the announcement was listed in Guinness World Records for "most tweets per second recorded for a single event" on Twitter, receiving 8,868 tweets per second and "Beyonce pregnant" was the most Googled term the week of August 29, 2011.
Jay Z has a website called what?
56bea9043aeaaa14008c91b1
Lifeandtimes.com
216
False
Which song by Jay Z talked about the pregnancy struggles?
56bea9043aeaaa14008c91b3
Glory
160
False
What was the name of Beyonce's daughter?
56bfacdda10cfb1400551229
Blue Ivy Carter
54
False
At what hospital was the baby delivered?
56bfacdda10cfb140055122a
Lenox Hill Hospital
74
False
What was the named of the song  dedicated to the child?
56bfacdda10cfb140055122b
Glory
160
False
What does B.I.C. stand for?
56bfacdda10cfb140055122c
Blue Ivy Carter
54
False
Who was credited for her cries on the song?
56bfacdda10cfb140055122d
B.I.C.
457
False
When did Beyoncé give birth to her daughter?
56d4d2232ccc5a1400d83262
January 7, 2012
3
False
What did Beyoncé and Jay Z name their daughter?
56d4d2232ccc5a1400d83263
Blue Ivy Carter
54
False
What song did Jay Z release two days after Blue Ivy was born?
56d4d2232ccc5a1400d83264
Glory
160
False
What is included at the end of Glory?
56d4d2232ccc5a1400d83265
Blue Ivy's cries
367
False
How was Blue Ivy credited on Glory?
56d4d2232ccc5a1400d83266
B.I.C.
457
False
On January 7, 2012, Beyoncé gave birth to a daughter, Blue Ivy Carter, at Lenox Hill Hospital in New York under heavy security. Two days later, Jay Z released "Glory", a song dedicated to their child, on his website Lifeandtimes.com. The song detailed the couple's pregnancy struggles, including a miscarriage Beyoncé suffered before becoming pregnant with Blue Ivy. Blue Ivy's cries are included at the end of the song, and she was officially credited as "B.I.C." on it. At two days old, she became the youngest person ever to appear on a Billboard chart when "Glory" debuted on the Hot R&B/Hip-Hop Songs chart.
Beyonce and Jay-Z went to a rally for the acquittal of whom?
56beab283aeaaa14008c91cc
George Zimmerman
880
False
Beyonce sang which song during the 2009 presidential inauguration?
56beab283aeaaa14008c91cd
America the Beautiful
112
False
How much did Beyonce raise for Obama at the 40/40 Club?
56bfae97a10cfb1400551234
4 million
398
False
What did she endorse on March 26, 2013?
56bfae97a10cfb1400551235
same sex marriage
700
False
What did they attend in July 2013?
56bfae97a10cfb1400551236
a rally
840
False
What did she sing at the 2009 Presidential Inauguration?
56bfae97a10cfb1400551237
America the Beautiful
112
False
What song did Beyoncé perform at the 2009 inauguration of Obama?
56d4d2f12ccc5a1400d8326c
America the Beautiful
112
False
What song did Beyoncé perform at the first inaugural dance for the Obamas.
56d4d2f12ccc5a1400d8326d
At Last
186
False
What social media platform did Beyoncé upload a picture of her paper ballot on?
56d4d2f12ccc5a1400d8326f
Tumblr
458
False
When did Beyoncé endorse on March 26, 2013?
56d4d2f12ccc5a1400d83270
same sex marriage
700
False
Beyoncé and husband Jay Z are friends with President Barack Obama and First Lady Michelle Obama. She performed "America the Beautiful" at the 2009 presidential inauguration, as well as "At Last" during the first inaugural dance at the Neighborhood Ball two days later. Beyoncé and Jay Z held a fundraiser at the latter's 40/40 Club in Manhattan for Obama's 2012 presidential campaign which raised $4 million. Beyoncé uploaded pictures of her paper ballot on Tumblr, confirming she had voted in support for the Democratic Party and to encourage others to do so. She also performed the American national anthem at his second inauguration, singing along with a pre-recorded track. She publicly endorsed same sex marriage on March 26, 2013, after the Supreme Court debate on California's Proposition 8. In July 2013, Beyoncé and Jay-Z attended a rally in response to the acquittal of George Zimmerman for the shooting of Trayvon Martin.
Beyonce did an interview with which magazine and was asked about feminism?
56beabab3aeaaa14008c91db
Vogue
29
False
Beyonce supported which campaign that encourages leadership in girls?
56beabab3aeaaa14008c91dc
Ban Bossy campaign
514
False
Where was Beyonce quoted as saying that she is a modern-day feminist?
56bfafdba10cfb140055123d
Vogue
29
False
When did she say the she is a feminist?
56bfafdba10cfb140055123e
April 2013
38
False
What campaign did she contribute to?
56bfafdba10cfb140055123f
Ban Bossy
514
False
What song did she release in 2013 in response to a speech?
56bfafdba10cfb1400551240
Flawless
445
False
What does Ban Bossy encourage?
56bfafdba10cfb1400551241
leadership in girls
586
False
Beyoncé used words from which Nigerian author in her song, Flawless?
56d4d3b12ccc5a1400d83277
Chimamanda Ngozi Adichie
365
False
Which campaign does Beyoncé contribute to that encourages leadership in females?
56d4d3b12ccc5a1400d83278
Ban Bossy
514
False
In an interview published by Vogue in April 2013, Beyoncé was asked if she considers herself a feminist, to which she said, "that word can be very extreme... But I guess I am a modern-day feminist. I do believe in equality". She would later align herself more publicly with the movement, sampling "We should all be feminists", a speech delivered by Nigerian author Chimamanda Ngozi Adichie at a TEDxEuston conference in April 2013, in her song "Flawless", released later that year. She has also contributed to the Ban Bossy campaign, which uses television and social media to encourage leadership in girls.
Beyonce signed a letter with who in 2015?
56beb0683aeaaa14008c9211
the ONE Campaign
44
False
An important UN summit took place when?
56beb0683aeaaa14008c9213
September 2015
374
False
The letter Beyonce signed focused on what issue?
56beb0683aeaaa14008c9214
women
191
False
What had to be set in developing funding?
56beb0683aeaaa14008c9215
priorities
313
False
When did Beyonce sign a letter for ONE Campaign?
56bfb10da10cfb1400551247
2015
3
False
To whom was the letter addressed?
56bfb10da10cfb1400551248
Angela Merkel and Nkosazana Dlamini-Zuma
125
False
Who are these women?
56bfb10da10cfb1400551249
head of the G7 in Germany
218
False
When will they meet?
56bfb10da10cfb140055124b
September 2015
374
False
Who did Beyoncé sign a letter for in 2015?
56d4d5ef2ccc5a1400d83286
the ONE Campaign
44
False
Who was the letter addressed to?
56d4d5ef2ccc5a1400d83287
Angela Merkel and Nkosazana Dlamini-Zuma
125
False
What was Angela Merkel serving as in relation to the letter?
56d4d5ef2ccc5a1400d83288
the head of the G7 in Germany
214
False
What did the letter want the two recipients to focus on?
56d4d5ef2ccc5a1400d8328a
women
191
False
In 2015 Beyoncé signed an open letter which the ONE Campaign had been collecting signatures for; the letter was addressed to Angela Merkel and Nkosazana Dlamini-Zuma, urging them to focus on women as they serve as the head of the G7 in Germany and the AU in South Africa respectively, which will start to set the priorities in development funding before a main UN summit in September 2015 that will establish new development goals for the generation.
Beyonce along with Jay Z met with whom's family after their death?
56beb2a43aeaaa14008c9239
Freddie Gray
23
False
Beyonce with Jay Z gave lots of money to bail who out of prison?
56beb2a43aeaaa14008c923a
protesters
132
False
Who's death caused this protest?
56bfb1fca10cfb1400551253
Freddie Gray
23
False
How much bail money did they spend?
56bfb1fca10cfb1400551254
thousands of dollars
186
False
Following the death of Freddie Gray, Beyoncé and Jay-Z, among other notable figures, met with his family. After the imprisonment of protesters of Gray's death, Beyoncé and Jay-Z donated thousands of dollars to bail them out.
Beyonce beat out which musical artists for most paid between June 2007 and June 2008?
56beb4023aeaaa14008c9252
Madonna and Celine Dion
248
False
Beyonce and Jay Z got a Guinness World record for what in 2009?
56beb4023aeaaa14008c9253
highest-earning power couple
1013
False
Beyonce became the highest-paid black musician in which year?
56beb4023aeaaa14008c9254
2014
1460
False
Up until May of 2015, how much is Beyonce's total worth?
56beb4023aeaaa14008c9255
250 million
1880
False
Between 2008 and 2009, which entertainers did Beyonce beat in earnings?
56bfb502a10cfb140055125b
Madonna and Celine Dion
248
False
In 2012 who placed Beyonce at 16 in the Celebrity List?
56bfb502a10cfb140055125c
Forbes
0
False
When did she and Jay Z become the highest paid black celebrity couple?
56bfb502a10cfb140055125d
2011
1112
False
How much did she earn in 2014?
56bfb502a10cfb140055125e
115 million
1660
False
What is Beyonce's net worth in 2015?
56bfb502a10cfb140055125f
250 million
1880
False
Who began reporting Beyoncé's annual earnings, starting in 2008?
56d4d8702ccc5a1400d83294
Forbes
0
False
When did Beyoncé become the highest paid black musician, ever?
56d4d8702ccc5a1400d83296
April 2014.
1557
False
Who predicted that Beyoncé would become the highest paid black entertainer?
56d4d8702ccc5a1400d83297
MTV
1427
False
When did Jay Z and Beyoncé become the first music couple worth over a billion dollars?
56d4d8702ccc5a1400d83298
2013
1204
False
Forbes magazine began reporting on Beyoncé's earnings in 2008, calculating that the $80 million earned between June 2007 to June 2008, for her music, tour, films and clothing line made her the world's best-paid music personality at the time, above Madonna and Celine Dion. They placed her fourth on the Celebrity 100 list in 2009 and ninth on the "Most Powerful Women in the World" list in 2010. The following year, Forbes placed her eighth on the "Best-Paid Celebrities Under 30" list, having earned $35 million in the past year for her clothing line and endorsement deals. In 2012, Forbes placed Beyoncé at number 16 on the Celebrity 100 list, twelve places lower than three years ago yet still having earned $40 million in the past year for her album 4, clothing line and endorsement deals. In the same year, Beyoncé and Jay Z placed at number one on the "World's Highest-Paid Celebrity Couples", for collectively earning $78 million. The couple made it into the previous year's Guinness World Records as the "highest-earning power couple" for collectively earning $122 million in 2009. For the years 2009 to 2011, Beyoncé earned an average of $70 million per year, and earned $40 million in 2012. In 2013, Beyoncé's endorsements of Pepsi and H&M made her and Jay Z the world's first billion dollar couple in the music industry. That year, Beyoncé was published as the fourth most-powerful celebrity in the Forbes rankings. MTV estimated that by the end of 2014, Beyoncé would become the highest-paid black musician in history; she succeeded to do so in April 2014. In June 2014, Beyoncé ranked at #1 on the Forbes Celebrity 100 list, earning an estimated $115 million throughout June 2013 – June 2014. This in turn was the first time she had topped the Celebrity 100 list as well as being her highest yearly earnings to date. As of May 2015, her net worth is estimated to be $250 million.
Beyonce's range in singing is how many octaves?
56beb50f3aeaaa14008c926f
four
28
False
who talked about Beyonce's tone and timbre as distinctive?
56beb50f3aeaaa14008c9270
Jody Rosen
42
False
Which critic called Beyonce's voice "versatile"?
56beb50f3aeaaa14008c9271
The Daily Mail
415
False
Which era was credited to have influenced Beyonce's singing style by Jody Rosen?
56beb50f3aeaaa14008c9272
hip hop
546
False
How many octaves does Beyonce have?
56bfb676a10cfb1400551265
four octaves
28
False
What did the Daily Mail say about Beyonce's voice?
56bfb676a10cfb1400551266
versatile
453
False
What does Rosen claim influenced Beyonce's style?
56bfb676a10cfb1400551267
hip hop
714
False
What do other critics claim?
56bfb676a10cfb1400551269
praise her range and power
883
False
How many octaves does Beyoncé's voice span?
56d4d9392ccc5a1400d8329e
four
28
False
Why is Beyoncé known as the centerpiece of Destiny's Child?
56d4d9392ccc5a1400d8329f
Her vocal abilities
333
False
New York Times' Jon Pareles calls Beyoncé's voice velvety yet what?
56d4d9392ccc5a1400d832a0
tart
630
False
What does Jody Rosen say influenced Beyoncé's vocal style?
56d4d9392ccc5a1400d832a1
the hip hop era
710
False
Beyoncé's vocal range spans four octaves. Jody Rosen highlights her tone and timbre as particularly distinctive, describing her voice as "one of the most compelling instruments in popular music". While another critic says she is a "Vocal acrobat, being able to sing long and complex melismas and vocal runs effortlessly, and in key. Her vocal abilities mean she is identified as the centerpiece of Destiny's Child. The Daily Mail calls Beyoncé's voice "versatile", capable of exploring power ballads, soul, rock belting, operatic flourishes, and hip hop. Jon Pareles of The New York Times commented that her voice is "velvety yet tart, with an insistent flutter and reserves of soul belting". Rosen notes that the hip hop era highly influenced Beyoncé's strange rhythmic vocal style, but also finds her quite traditionalist in her use of balladry, gospel and falsetto. Other critics praise her range and power, with Chris Richards of The Washington Post saying she was "capable of punctuating any beat with goose-bump-inducing whispers or full-bore diva-roars."
Music from Beyonce is generally categorized as what genre?
56beb5b23aeaaa14008c9283
R&B
29
False
Besides R&B, which genres does Beyonce dabble in?
56beb5b23aeaaa14008c9284
pop, soul and funk
60
False
Beyonce mostly releases English songs, but what other language did she release songs?
56beb5b23aeaaa14008c9285
Spanish
307
False
Spanish songs Beyonce released were for what?
56beb5b23aeaaa14008c9286
re-release of B'Day
417
False
Beyonce was coached for her Spanish songs by which American?
56beb5b23aeaaa14008c9287
Rudy Perez
516
False
What kind of music does Beyonce do?
56bfb789a10cfb140055126f
R&B
29
False
What language does she mainly sing?
56bfb789a10cfb1400551271
English
267
False
What other language has she sung?
56bfb789a10cfb1400551272
Spanish
307
False
What album did she re-release in Spanish?
56bfb789a10cfb1400551273
B'Day
369
False
What style of music does Beyoncé usually perform?
56d4d9a92ccc5a1400d832a6
R&B
29
False
What language did Beyoncé release several songs in?
56d4d9a92ccc5a1400d832a7
Spanish
307
False
Who coached Beyoncé for her Spanish recordings?
56d4d9a92ccc5a1400d832a8
Rudy Perez.
516
False
What album did the Spanish songs come from?
56d4d9a92ccc5a1400d832a9
B'Day.
431
False
Beyoncé's music is generally R&B, but she also incorporates pop, soul and funk into her songs. 4 demonstrated Beyoncé's exploration of 90s-style R&B, as well as further use of soul and hip hop than compared to previous releases. While she almost exclusively releases English songs, Beyoncé recorded several Spanish songs for Irreemplazable (re-recordings of songs from B'Day for a Spanish-language audience), and the re-release of B'Day. To record these, Beyoncé was coached phonetically by American record producer Rudy Perez.
Beyonce does not create which aspect of her music?
56beb67d3aeaaa14008c929a
beats
521
False
An example of a song aimed towards a male audience is what?
56beb67d3aeaaa14008c929b
Cater 2 U
338
False
What theme was Beyonce's early music?
56bfb8dca10cfb1400551279
female-empowerment
153
False
With Jay Z what were her new themes?
56bfb8dca10cfb140055127b
man-tending anthems
309
False
What does she get credits for in her music?
56bfb8dca10cfb140055127c
co-producing credits
376
False
What part of production does she do?
56bfb8dca10cfb140055127d
melodies
564
False
Beyoncé's early recordings empowered who?
56d4dd502ccc5a1400d832ae
Women
210
False
In addition to co-writing credits, Beyoncé also got what credits for most of her albums?
56d4dd502ccc5a1400d832b0
co-producing
376
False
Rather than beats, what two things does Beyoncé usually come up with for producers?
56d4dd502ccc5a1400d832b1
melodies and ideas
564
False
She has received co-writing credits for most of the songs recorded with Destiny's Child and her solo efforts. Her early songs were personally driven and female-empowerment themed compositions like "Independent Women" and "Survivor", but after the start of her relationship with Jay Z she transitioned to more man-tending anthems such as "Cater 2 U". Beyoncé has also received co-producing credits for most of the records in which she has been involved, especially during her solo efforts. However, she does not formulate beats herself, but typically comes up with melodies and ideas during production, sharing them with producers.
Pop Songwriter of the Year award in 2001 was awarded to whom?
56beb9203aeaaa14008c92d1
Beyoncé
205
False
Beyonce received the Pop Songwriter of the Year award at which event?
56beb9203aeaaa14008c92d2
American Society of Composers, Authors, and Publishers Pop Music Awards
132
False
Beyonce has the same number of writing credits on number one singles as whom?
56beb9203aeaaa14008c92d4
Diane Warren
436
False
Beyonce joined 2 other women on what list from Billboard magazine in 2011?
56beb9203aeaaa14008c92d5
Top 20 Hot 100 Songwriters
656
False
When did Beyonce become the first African American woman to win Pop songwriter of the year?
56bfbacaa10cfb1400551283
2001
3
False
What place is she tied for in songwriting credits?
56bfbacaa10cfb1400551284
third
221
False
Who listed her at number 17 in their list of  Top 20 hot 100 Songwriters?
56bfbacaa10cfb1400551285
Billboard magazine
587
False
Where does she place in writing credits  for three number one songs?
56bfbacaa10cfb1400551287
third woman
221
False
What did Beyoncé win in 2001, making her the first black woman to do so?
56d4df312ccc5a1400d832b6
Pop Songwriter of the Year award
92
False
Who gave Beyoncé the Pop Songwriter of the Year award in 2001?
56d4df312ccc5a1400d832b7
the American Society of Composers, Authors, and Publishers Pop Music Awards.
128
False
Beyoncé was one of how many women on Billboard magazine's 2011 "Top 20 Hot 100 Songwriters" list.
56d4df312ccc5a1400d832b9
three
260
False
What number was Beyoncé on the Top 20 Hot 100 Songwriters list?
56d4df312ccc5a1400d832ba
17
631
False
In 2001, she became the first African-American woman and second woman songwriter to win the Pop Songwriter of the Year award at the American Society of Composers, Authors, and Publishers Pop Music Awards. Beyoncé was the third woman to have writing credits on three number one songs ("Irreplaceable", "Grillz" and "Check on It") in the same year, after Carole King in 1971 and Mariah Carey in 1991. She is tied with American songwriter Diane Warren at third with nine songwriting credits on number-one singles. (The latter wrote her 9/11-motivated song "I Was Here" for 4.) In May 2011, Billboard magazine listed Beyoncé at number 17 on their list of the "Top 20 Hot 100 Songwriters", for having co-written eight singles that hit number one on the Billboard Hot 100 chart. She was one of only three women on that list.
To whom did Beyonce credit as her major influence on her music?
56beba293aeaaa14008c92ef
Michael Jackson
14
False
How old was Beyonce when she went to her first Michael Jackson concert as a kid?
56beba293aeaaa14008c92f0
five
67
False
Beyonce gave a tribute award to who in 2006?
56beba293aeaaa14008c92f1
Michael Jackson
14
False
Beyonce cites Mariah Carey to making her want to start doing what?
56beba293aeaaa14008c92f2
vocal runs
589
False
Who influenced Beyonce?
56bfbc17a10cfb140055128d
Michael Jackson
14
False
What song by Mariah Carey influenced her?
56bfbc17a10cfb1400551290
Vision of Love
534
False
Who is Beyoncé's biggest musical influence?
56d4dfc82ccc5a1400d832ca
Michael Jackson
14
False
What was Beyoncé's first concert?
56d4dfc82ccc5a1400d832cb
Michael Jackson
14
False
Who does Beyoncé feel is an all-around entertainer?
56d4dfc82ccc5a1400d832cc
Diana Ross
358
False
Who does she credit for the inspiration to "get up there and do what she did"?
56d4dfc82ccc5a1400d832cd
Whitney Houston
404
False
What song caused Beyoncé to practice runs as a child?
56d4dfc82ccc5a1400d832ce
Vision of Love
534
False
Beyoncé names Michael Jackson as her major musical influence. Aged five, Beyoncé attended her first ever concert where Jackson performed and she claims to have realised her purpose. When she presented him with a tribute award at the World Music Awards in 2006, Beyoncé said, "if it wasn't for Michael Jackson, I would never ever have performed." She admires Diana Ross as an "all-around entertainer" and Whitney Houston, who she said "inspired me to get up there and do what she did." She credits Mariah Carey's singing and her song "Vision of Love" as influencing her to begin practicing vocal runs as a child. Her other musical influences include Aaliyah, Prince, Lauryn Hill, Sade Adu, Donna Summer, Mary J. Blige, Janet Jackson, Anita Baker and Rachelle Ferrell.
What themes were influenced by her acting role in Dreamgirls?
56bebba63aeaaa14008c930b
feminism and female empowerment
4
False
Which singer did Beyonce honor by entertaining with her song "Deja Vu"?
56bebba63aeaaa14008c930c
Josephine Baker
134
False
Who motivated Beyonce to explore other areas of music?
56bebba63aeaaa14008c930e
Etta James
399
False
What movie influenced Beyonce towards empowerment themes?
56bfbda3a10cfb1400551297
Dreamgirls
109
False
How did Etta James influence her?
56bfbda3a10cfb140055129a
boldness
418
False
Where did she perform wearing Baker's hula skirt?
56bfbda3a10cfb140055129b
2006 Fashion Rocks concert
211
False
What singer inspired Beyoncé's B'Day album?
56d4e0532ccc5a1400d832d4
Josephine Baker.
134
False
What song did Beyoncé sing at a 2006 concert to honor Josephine Baker?
56d4e0532ccc5a1400d832d5
Déjà Vu
195
False
The feminism and female empowerment themes on Beyoncé's second solo album B'Day were inspired by her role in Dreamgirls and by singer Josephine Baker. Beyoncé paid homage to Baker by performing "Déjà Vu" at the 2006 Fashion Rocks concert wearing Baker's trademark mini-hula skirt embellished with fake bananas. Beyoncé's third solo album I Am... Sasha Fierce was inspired by Jay Z and especially by Etta James, whose "boldness" inspired Beyoncé to explore other musical genres and styles. Her fourth solo album, 4, was inspired by Fela Kuti, 1990s R&B, Earth, Wind & Fire, DeBarge, Lionel Richie, Teena Marie with additional influences by The Jackson 5, New Edition, Adele, Florence and the Machine, and Prince.
Beyonce has noted which first lady with saying "She proves you can do it all"?
56bec1c53aeaaa14008c936b
Michelle Obama
68
False
Which month and year did Beyonce credit Madonna for inspiring her to take control of her career?
56bec1c53aeaaa14008c936c
February 2013
588
False
Beyonce has said that who embodies the "definition of inspiration and a strong woman"?
56bec1c53aeaaa14008c936d
Oprah Winfrey
144
False
Who personally influences Beyonce?
56bfbf2fa10cfb14005512a1
Michelle Obama
68
False
Hoe does she describe Oprah Winfrey?
56bfbf2fa10cfb14005512a2
a strong woman
196
False
How does she describe Jean- Michel Basquiat?
56bfbf2fa10cfb14005512a3
lyrical and raw
567
False
How does Madonna influence her?
56bfbf2fa10cfb14005512a4
to take control of her own career
642
False
How does she describe Jay Z?
56bfbf2fa10cfb14005512a5
continuing inspiration
251
False
Who inspires Beyoncé because "she does it all?"
56d4e0e92ccc5a1400d832da
First Lady Michelle Obama
57
False
Who does Beyoncé describe as the definition of inspiration?
56d4e0e92ccc5a1400d832db
Oprah Winfrey
144
False
Who does Beyoncé describe as lyrical and raw?
56d4e0e92ccc5a1400d832dc
Jean-Michel Basquiat
431
False
Who inspired Beyoncé to take control of her career?
56d4e0e92ccc5a1400d832dd
Madonna
621
False
Beyoncé has stated that she is personally inspired by US First Lady Michelle Obama, saying "She proves you can do it all" and she has described Oprah Winfrey as "the definition of inspiration and a strong woman". She has also discussed how Jay Z is a continuing inspiration to her, both with what she describes as his lyrical genius and in the obstacles he has overcome in his life. Beyoncé has expressed admiration for the artist Jean-Michel Basquiat, posting in a letter "what I find in the work of Jean-Michel Basquiat, I search for in every day in music... he is lyrical and raw". In February 2013, Beyoncé said that Madonna inspired her to take control of her own career. She commented: "I think about Madonna and how she took all of the great things she achieved and started the label and developed other artists. But there are not enough of those women.".
Beyonce had an all-female tour band whose name was what?
56bec29b3aeaaa14008c937f
Suga Mama
53
False
Beyonce had singers in the background known by the name as?
56bec29b3aeaaa14008c9380
The Mamas
216
False
The Mamas members included which 3 musicians?
56bec29b3aeaaa14008c9381
Montina Cooper-Donnell, Crystal Collins and Tiffany Moniqué Riddick
238
False
The Mamas first appearance was when?
56bec29b3aeaaa14008c9382
2006
3
False
What band did Beyonce introduce in 2006?
56bfc0a7a10cfb14005512ab
Suga Mama
53
False
What song name does the band Suga Mama  and a song on the B'Day album share?
56bfc0a7a10cfb14005512ac
Suga Mama
53
False
Where did Suga Mama band make their first appearance?
56bfc0a7a10cfb14005512ad
2006 BET Awards
347
False
What band supports Beyonce in her tours?
56bfc0a7a10cfb14005512af
Suga Mama
53
False
What is the name of Beyoncé's female tour band?
56d4e17f2ccc5a1400d832e2
Suga Mama
53
False
Suga Mama is also a song on which Beyoncé album?
56d4e17f2ccc5a1400d832e3
B'Day
91
False
What are Beyoncé's backup singers called?
56d4e17f2ccc5a1400d832e4
The Mamas
216
False
When did The Mamas make their debut?
56d4e17f2ccc5a1400d832e5
the 2006 BET Awards
343
False
In 2006, Beyoncé introduced her all-female tour band Suga Mama (also the name of a song in B'Day) which includes bassists, drummers, guitarists, horn players, keyboardists and percussionists. Her background singers, The Mamas, consist of Montina Cooper-Donnell, Crystal Collins and Tiffany Moniqué Riddick. They made their debut appearance at the 2006 BET Awards and re-appeared in the music videos for "Irreplaceable" and "Green Light". The band have supported Beyoncé in most subsequent live performances, including her 2007 concert tour The Beyoncé Experience, 2009–2010 I Am... World Tour and 2013–2014 The Mrs. Carter Show World Tour.
What characteristics has Beyonce received acclaim for?
56bec3303aeaaa14008c9391
stage presence and voice
36
False
Which former president of Def Jam called Beyonce the greatest entertainer alive?
56bec3303aeaaa14008c9393
L.A. Reid
445
False
For what does Beyonce receive praise?
56bfc281a10cfb14005512b5
stage presence
36
False
Who chose her as number one on his list of Best singers/ Dancers?
56bfc281a10cfb14005512b6
Jarett Wieselman
87
False
How has L.A. Reid described her?
56bfc281a10cfb14005512b8
greatest entertainer alive
484
False
How does Alice Jones describe her?
56bfc281a10cfb14005512b9
she's almost too good
393
False
Who has Beyoncé at number one on her Five Best Singer/Dancers?
56d4e2142ccc5a1400d832ec
Jarett Wieselman
87
False
Who has said that Beyoncé is the best entertainer alive?
56d4e2142ccc5a1400d832ed
L.A. Reid
445
False
Beyoncé has received praise for her stage presence and voice during live performances. Jarett Wieselman of the New York Post placed her at number one on her list of the Five Best Singer/Dancers. According to Barbara Ellen of The Guardian Beyoncé is the most in-charge female artist she's seen onstage, while Alice Jones of The Independent wrote she "takes her role as entertainer so seriously she's almost too good." The ex-President of Def Jam L.A. Reid has described Beyoncé as the greatest entertainer alive. Jim Farber of the Daily News and Stephanie Classen of Star Phoenix both praised her strong voice and her stage presence.
Beyonce self proclaimed alter ego is named what?
56bec3ea3aeaaa14008c939f
Sasha Fierce
139
False
Her alter ego was born when according to Beyonce?
56bec3ea3aeaaa14008c93a0
making of "Crazy in Love"
378
False
What year did Beyonce do away with Sasha Fierce?
56bec3ea3aeaaa14008c93a2
2010
501
False
Beyonce brought back Sasha Fierce during which event?
56bec3ea3aeaaa14008c93a3
Revel Presents: Beyoncé Live
712
False
How does she describe Sasha?
56bfc420a10cfb14005512c0
too aggressive, too strong
243
False
Later what did she say about Sasha?
56bfc420a10cfb14005512c2
she would bring her back
679
False
What is the name of Beyoncé's alter ego?
56d4e2e12ccc5a1400d832f0
Sasha Fierce.
475
False
When did Beyoncé introduce Sasha Fierce?
56d4e2e12ccc5a1400d832f1
2008
456
False
Sasha Fierce was created during the making of what song?
56d4e2e12ccc5a1400d832f2
Crazy in Love
389
False
Who did Beyoncé tell in February 2010 that Sasha Fierce was no longer needed?
56d4e2e12ccc5a1400d832f3
Allure magazine
542
False
Described as being "sexy, seductive and provocative" when performing on stage, Beyoncé has said that she originally created the alter ego "Sasha Fierce" to keep that stage persona separate from who she really is. She described Sasha as being "too aggressive, too strong, too sassy [and] too sexy", stating, "I'm not like her in real life at all." Sasha was conceived during the making of "Crazy in Love", and Beyoncé introduced her with the release of her 2008 album I Am... Sasha Fierce. In February 2010, she announced in an interview with Allure magazine that she was comfortable enough with herself to no longer need Sasha Fierce. However, Beyoncé announced in May 2012 that she would bring her back for her Revel Presents: Beyoncé Live shows later that month.
Beyonce's sex appeal is characterized as what?
56bec4de3aeaaa14008c93bb
wide-ranging
41
False
Which music journalist described Beyonce as a "crossover sex symbol?"
56bec4de3aeaaa14008c93bc
Touré
88
False
Which word spawned from a term used to describe Beyonce in 2006?
56bec4de3aeaaa14008c93bd
Bootylicious
389
False
Bootylicious was a song from which act that Beyonce performed with?
56bec4de3aeaaa14008c93be
Destiny's Child
497
False
Oxford Dictionary added which word from the 2000s dedicated to Beyonce?
56bec4de3aeaaa14008c93bf
Bootylicious
389
False
What word is often used to describe Beyonce/
56bfc563a10cfb14005512ca
Bootylicious
389
False
When was the term added to the dictionary?
56bfc563a10cfb14005512cc
2006
543
False
What journalist wrote that Beyoncé was a "sex symbol"?
56d4e5022ccc5a1400d832fa
Touré
88
False
Because of Beyoncé's physical shape, what slang term has been used to describe her?
56d4e5022ccc5a1400d832fb
Bootylicious
389
False
In what year was the slang term from a title of a Destiny's Child song that is also used to describe Beyoncé put in the dictionary?
56d4e5022ccc5a1400d832fc
2006
543
False
How does Beyoncé say she likes to dress off-stage?
56d4e5022ccc5a1400d832fd
sexily
242
False
Beyoncé has been described as a having a wide-ranging sex appeal, with music journalist Touré writing that since the release of Dangerously in Love, she has "become a crossover sex symbol". Offstage Beyoncé says that while she likes to dress sexily, her onstage dress "is absolutely for the stage." Due to her curves and the term's catchiness, in the 2000s, the media often used the term "Bootylicious" (a portmanteau of the words booty and delicious) to describe Beyoncé, the term popularized by Destiny's Child's single of the same name. In 2006, it was added to the Oxford English Dictionary.
in September 2010, what career area did Beyonce start exploring?
56bec5d53aeaaa14008c93d9
modelling
43
False
Beyonce's first modelling event was at where?
56bec5d53aeaaa14008c93da
Tom Ford's Spring/Summer 2011 fashion show
62
False
"World's Most Beautiful woman" was declared to Beyonce by which national magazine?
56bec5d53aeaaa14008c93db
People
154
False
Which month and year did GQ feature Beyonce on its cover?
56bec5d53aeaaa14008c93dc
January 2013
228
False
What TV network listed Beyonce as number 1 on its 100 Sexiest Artists list?
56bec5d53aeaaa14008c93dd
VH1
339
False
Who called Beyonce the World's most Beautiful Woman?
56bfc6a6a10cfb14005512d3
People
154
False
Who called her Hottest Female Singer of all Time?
56bfc6a6a10cfb14005512d4
Complex
208
False
When did she appear on the cover of GQ?
56bfc6a6a10cfb14005512d5
2013
236
False
VH1 listed her at what number on their 100 Sexiest Artists list?
56bfc6a6a10cfb14005512d6
number 1
357
False
What year did Beyoncé first model for Tom Ford?
56d4e5922ccc5a1400d83302
2010
13
False
What magazine said Beyoncé was the "World's Most Beautiful Woman"?
56d4e5922ccc5a1400d83303
People
154
False
What title did Complex award Beyoncé?
56d4e5922ccc5a1400d83304
Hottest Female Singer of All Time
170
False
What museum has made several models of Beyoncé in wax?
56d4e5922ccc5a1400d83306
Madame Tussauds Wax Museums
443
False
In September 2010, Beyoncé made her runway modelling debut at Tom Ford's Spring/Summer 2011 fashion show. She was named "World's Most Beautiful Woman" by People and the "Hottest Female Singer of All Time" by Complex in 2012. In January 2013, GQ placed her on its cover, featuring her atop its "100 Sexiest Women of the 21st Century" list. VH1 listed her at number 1 on its 100 Sexiest Artists list. Several wax figures of Beyoncé are found at Madame Tussauds Wax Museums in major cities around the world, including New York, Washington, D.C., Amsterdam, Bangkok, Hollywood and Sydney.
Which parent of Beyonce's help co-write a book?
56bec6763aeaaa14008c93f4
Her mother
134
False
Which African-American woman before Beyonce had posed for SI Swimsuit issue?
56bec6763aeaaa14008c93f7
Tyra Banks
535
False
What was the title of Beyonce's mother's book?
56bfc87ca10cfb14005512dd
Destiny's Style
188
False
When was she on the Sports Illustrated cover?
56bfc87ca10cfb14005512e0
2007
404
False
Who was she the second  African American on the cover after?
56bfc87ca10cfb14005512e1
Tyra Banks
535
False
Beyoncé was the second African American woman featured as a swimsuit cover on the magazine, who was first?
56d4e62e2ccc5a1400d8330f
Tyra Banks
535
False
What magazine said Beyoncé was the "best-dressed celebrity"?
56d4e62e2ccc5a1400d83310
People
551
False
According to Italian fashion designer Roberto Cavalli, Beyoncé uses different fashion styles to work with her music while performing. Her mother co-wrote a book, published in 2002, titled Destiny's Style an account of how fashion had an impact on the trio's success. The B'Day Anthology Video Album showed many instances of fashion-oriented footage, depicting classic to contemporary wardrobe styles. In 2007, Beyoncé was featured on the cover of the Sports Illustrated Swimsuit Issue, becoming the second African American woman after Tyra Banks, and People magazine recognized Beyoncé as the best-dressed celebrity.
Beyonce has a fan base that is referred to as what?
56bec6de3aeaaa14008c9407
The Bey Hive
0
False
Before the Bey Hive, fans of Beyonce were called what?
56bec6de3aeaaa14008c9408
The Beyontourage
83
False
Which social media company proclaimed Beyonce fans are know as the Bey Hive?
56bec6de3aeaaa14008c9409
Twitter
321
False
What is Beyonce's fan base called?
56bfcaf0a10cfb14005512e7
Bey Hive
4
False
What did the fans used to be called?
56bfcaf0a10cfb14005512e8
Beyontourage
87
False
What is the latest term used to describe Beyoncé fans?
56d4e7eb2ccc5a1400d83316
Bey Hive
4
False
What was the former word given to Beyoncé fans?
56d4e7eb2ccc5a1400d83317
Beyontourage
87
False
What word does "Bey Hive" derive from?
56d4e7eb2ccc5a1400d83318
beehive
184
False
The Bey Hive is the name given to Beyoncé's fan base. Fans were previously titled "The Beyontourage", (a portmanteau of Beyoncé and entourage). The name Bey Hive derives from the word beehive, purposely misspelled to resemble her first name, and was penned by fans after petitions on the online social networking service Twitter and online news reports during competitions.
Beyonce has a clothing line known as what?
56bec7b63aeaaa14008c9422
House of Deréon
158
False
Which French magazine did Beyonce show up on the cover of?
56bec7b63aeaaa14008c9423
L'Officiel
237
False
Beyonce was seen wearing what on the french magazine that caused controversy?
56bec7b63aeaaa14008c9424
blackface and tribal makeup
252
False
Which year did PETA spark controversy with Beyonce?
56bec7b63aeaaa14008c9425
2006
3
False
What did PETA criticize Beyonce for in 2006?
56bfcd33a10cfb14005512f1
for wearing and using fur
111
False
What French Magazine cover did the media criticize?
56bfcd33a10cfb14005512f2
L'Officiel
237
False
How was she dressed on the cover of L'Officiel?
56bfcd33a10cfb14005512f4
in blackface and tribal makeup
249
False
What French magazine did Beyoncé appear in wearing blackface and tribal makeup?
56d4e8472ccc5a1400d8331f
L'Officiel
237
False
What clothing line of Beyoncé drew PETA criticism?
56d4e8472ccc5a1400d83320
House of Deréon.
158
False
What type of magazine is L'Officiel?
56d4e8472ccc5a1400d83321
French fashion magazine
213
False
In 2006, the animal rights organization People for the Ethical Treatment of Animals (PETA), criticized Beyoncé for wearing and using fur in her clothing line House of Deréon. In 2011, she appeared on the cover of French fashion magazine L'Officiel, in blackface and tribal makeup that drew criticism from the media. A statement released from a spokesperson for the magazine said that Beyoncé's look was "far from the glamorous Sasha Fierce" and that it was "a return to her African roots".
Which racial community gave criticism to Beyonce?
56bec8a13aeaaa14008c943f
African-American
80
False
Which professor from Northeastern University wrote about how race correlates with these criticisms of Beyonce?
56bec8a13aeaaa14008c9440
Emmett Price
108
False
Which company was accused of coloring Beyonce's hair?
56bec8a13aeaaa14008c9441
L'Oréal
335
False
What did Vogue request?
56bfcf98a10cfb14005512fd
natural pictures be used
615
False
How did L'Oreal respond to accusations of changing pictures?
56bfcf98a10cfb14005512fe
it is categorically untrue
436
False
In addition to her light skin color, what else has made part of the African American community criticize Beyoncé?
56d4e8512ccc5a1400d83326
costuming
33
False
In 2007, which music professor said he believes this criticism does involve race as well?
56d4e8512ccc5a1400d83327
Emmett Price
108
False
Who was accused of lightening Beyoncé's skin for an advertisement?
56d4e8512ccc5a1400d83328
L'Oréal
335
False
What advertisement was Beyoncé's skin supposedly lightened in?
56d4e8512ccc5a1400d83329
Feria hair color advertisements
386
False
Who did Beyoncé tell in 2013 to only use natural pictures of her rather than retouched images?
56d4e8512ccc5a1400d8332a
H&M
505
False
Beyoncé's lighter skin color and costuming has drawn criticism from some in the African-American community. Emmett Price, a professor of music at Northeastern University, wrote in 2007, that he thinks race plays a role in many of these criticisms, saying white celebrities who dress similarly do not attract as many comments. In 2008, L'Oréal was accused of whitening her skin in their Feria hair color advertisements, responding that "it is categorically untrue", and in 2013, Beyoncé herself criticized H&M for their proposed "retouching" of promotional images of her, and according to Vogue requested that only "natural pictures be used".
Artist of the Decade was bestowed upon Beyonce from which magazine?
56bec94f3aeaaa14008c944f
The Guardian
215
False
Whats the first year that Beyonce appear on the Time 100 list?
56bec94f3aeaaa14008c9450
2013
700
False
Beyonce than appeared again on the Time 100 list in what year?
56bec94f3aeaaa14008c9451
2014
1078
False
What did the Guardian name her?
56bfd14ba10cfb1400551306
Artist of the Decade
238
False
When did Beyonce first make the Time 100 List?
56bfd14ba10cfb1400551307
2013
700
False
When was she again on the Time 100 List and on the cover?
56bfd14ba10cfb1400551308
2014
1078
False
Who said that she is the reigning national voice?
56bfd14ba10cfb1400551309
Baz Luhrmann
738
False
Who stated that Beyoncé is the most important musician of the 21st century?
56d4e91b2ccc5a1400d83330
Jody Rosen
31
False
Which publication named Beyoncé the Artist of the Decade?
56d4e91b2ccc5a1400d83331
The Guardian
215
False
What list did Beyoncé make in 2013?
56d4e91b2ccc5a1400d83332
Time 100 list
723
False
Who said Beyoncé is the heir-apparent diva of the United States?
56d4e91b2ccc5a1400d83333
Baz Luhrmann
738
False
What year was Beyoncé featured both on the Time 100 list as well as the cover of the issue?
56d4e91b2ccc5a1400d83334
2014
1078
False
In The New Yorker music critic Jody Rosen described Beyoncé as "the most important and compelling popular musician of the twenty-first century..... the result, the logical end point, of a century-plus of pop." When The Guardian named her Artist of the Decade, Llewyn-Smith wrote, "Why Beyoncé? [...] Because she made not one but two of the decade's greatest singles, with Crazy in Love and Single Ladies (Put a Ring on It), not to mention her hits with Destiny's Child; and this was the decade when singles – particularly R&B singles – regained their status as pop's favourite medium. [...] [She] and not any superannuated rock star was arguably the greatest live performer of the past 10 years." In 2013, Beyoncé made the Time 100 list, Baz Luhrmann writing "no one has that voice, no one moves the way she moves, no one can hold an audience the way she does... When Beyoncé does an album, when Beyoncé sings a song, when Beyoncé does anything, it's an event, and it's broadly influential. Right now, she is the heir-apparent diva of the USA — the reigning national voice." In 2014, Beyoncé was listed again on the Time 100 and also featured on the cover of the issue.
Which rock band cited Beyonce on their third album?
56bec9f13aeaaa14008c9467
White Rabbits
292
False
Which friend learned from Beyonce while preparing for the film, "Country Strong?"
56bec9f13aeaaa14008c9468
Gwyneth Paltrow
385
False
Nicky Minaj became a spokesperson for which brand of soda after seeing Beyonce involved with it?
56bec9f13aeaaa14008c9469
Pepsi
562
False
What influenced Nicki Minaj to join the Pepsi global campaign?
56bfd351a10cfb1400551310
Beyoncé's Pepsi commercial
552
False
Which band listed Beyonce as an inspiration on their latest album?
56bfd351a10cfb1400551311
White Rabbits
292
False
What about Beyonce has influenced many entertainers?
56bfd351a10cfb1400551312
work
10
False
For what film was Paltrow studying Beyonce ?
56bfd351a10cfb1400551313
Country Strong
501
False
Which Indie band said Beyoncé was an inspiration for one of hteir albums?
56d4e9d12ccc5a1400d8333a
White Rabbits
292
False
What was the name of the White Rabbits' album?
56d4e9d12ccc5a1400d8333b
Milk Famous
358
False
Who studied Beyoncé during live concerts for research for a film's music role?
56d4e9d12ccc5a1400d8333c
Gwyneth Paltrow
385
False
What was the name of the film that Gwyneth Paltrow starred in as a musician?
56d4e9d12ccc5a1400d8333d
Country Strong.
501
False
Beyoncé's Pepsi commercial inspired which star to join Pepsi's global campaign in 2012?
56d4e9d12ccc5a1400d8333e
Nicki Minaj
517
False
Beyoncé's work has influenced numerous artists including Adele, Ariana Grande, Lady Gaga, Bridgit Mendler, Rihanna, Kelly Rowland, Sam Smith, Meghan Trainor, Nicole Scherzinger, Rita Ora, Zendaya, Cheryl Cole, JoJo, Alexis Jordan, Jessica Sanchez, and Azealia Banks. American indie rock band White Rabbits also cited her an inspiration for their third album Milk Famous (2012), friend Gwyneth Paltrow studied Beyoncé at her live concerts while learning to become a musical performer for the 2010 film Country Strong. Nicki Minaj has stated that seeing Beyoncé's Pepsi commercial influenced her decision to appear in the company's 2012 global campaign.
VH1 declared what song the "Greatest song of the 2000s?"
56beca973aeaaa14008c9477
Crazy in Love
19
False
How many Grammy awards did "Crazy in Love" win?
56beca973aeaaa14008c9478
two
225
False
How many did Crazy in Love sell to become one of the greatest selling singles in history?
56beca973aeaaa14008c9479
8 million
304
False
What type of organism was named after Beyonce in 2012?
56beca973aeaaa14008c947a
fly
959
False
A place for Beyonce in the Rock and Roll Hall of fame was awarded when?
56beca973aeaaa14008c947b
July 2014
1073
False
Which of Beyonce's songs was called Greatest Song of the 2000s?
56bfd565a10cfb1400551319
Crazy in Love
19
False
How many Grammy awards did Crazy in Love get?
56bfd565a10cfb140055131a
earned two Grammy Awards
218
False
How many copies did Crazy in Love sell?
56bfd565a10cfb140055131b
around 8 million copies
297
False
Who released the single Girls Love Beyonce?
56bfd565a10cfb140055131c
Drake
702
False
Which publication considers Crazy in Love to be one of the top 500 songs of all time?
56d4eaca2ccc5a1400d83345
Rolling Stone
155
False
Who sang "Girls Love Beyoncé" in 2013?
56d4eaca2ccc5a1400d83347
Drake
702
False
What did Bryan Lessard name after Beyoncé?
56d4eaca2ccc5a1400d83348
a species of horse fly
940
False
Her debut single, "Crazy in Love" was named VH1's "Greatest Song of the 2000s", NME's "Best Track of the 00s" and "Pop Song of the Century", considered by Rolling Stone to be one of the 500 greatest songs of all time, earned two Grammy Awards and is one of the best-selling singles of all time at around 8 million copies. The music video for "Single Ladies (Put a Ring on It)", which achieved fame for its intricate choreography and its deployment of jazz hands, was credited by the Toronto Star as having started the "first major dance craze of both the new millennium and the Internet", triggering a number of parodies of the dance choreography and a legion of amateur imitators on YouTube. In 2013, Drake released a single titled "Girls Love Beyoncé", which featured an interpolation from Destiny Child's "Say My Name" and discussed his relationship with women. In January 2012, research scientist Bryan Lessard named Scaptia beyonceae, a species of horse fly found in Northern Queensland, Australia after Beyoncé due to the fly's unique golden hairs on its abdomen. In July 2014, a Beyoncé exhibit was introduced into the "Legends of Rock" section of the Rock and Roll Hall of Fame. The black leotard from the "Single Ladies" video and her outfit from the Super Bowl half time performance are among several pieces housed at the museum.
How many copies of her albums as Beyonce sold in the US?
56becb8d3aeaaa14008c9495
15 million
73
False
Totaling worldwide, how many records as Beyonce sold?
56becb8d3aeaaa14008c9496
118 million
111
False
How many certifications was Beyonce awarded by the RIAA?
56becb8d3aeaaa14008c9497
64
387
False
When Beyonce was with Destiny's Child, how many albums did she manage to sell?
56becb8d3aeaaa14008c9498
60 million
152
False
Who was the first female to achieve the International Artist Award at the American Music Awards?
56becb8d3aeaaa14008c9499
Beyoncé
0
False
How many albums has Beyonce as a solo artist sold in the U.S?
56bfd6f7a10cfb1400551323
15 million
73
False
How many has she sold worldwide?
56bfd6f7a10cfb1400551324
118 million
111
False
How many records has she sold with Destiny's Child?
56bfd6f7a10cfb1400551325
60 million
152
False
When did she receive the Legend Award?
56bfd6f7a10cfb1400551326
2008 World Music Awards
1052
False
How many music certifications has she received in the 2000s?
56bfd6f7a10cfb1400551327
64 certifications
387
False
How many records has Beyoncé sold in the United States?
56d4eb762ccc5a1400d8334e
over 15 million
68
False
How many records has Beyoncé sold throughout the world?
56d4eb762ccc5a1400d8334f
over 118 million
106
False
Who cited Beyoncé as being the top certified artist of the 2000s?
56d4eb762ccc5a1400d83350
The Recording Industry Association of America
261
False
How many certifications did RIAA give Beyoncé?
56d4eb762ccc5a1400d83351
64
387
False
When did Beyoncé receive the Legend Award?
56d4eb762ccc5a1400d83352
the 2008 World Music Awards
1048
False
Beyoncé has received numerous awards. As a solo artist she has sold over 15 million albums in the US, and over 118 million records worldwide (a further 60 million additionally with Destiny's Child), making her one of the best-selling music artists of all time. The Recording Industry Association of America (RIAA) listed Beyoncé as the top certified artist of the 2000s, with a total of 64 certifications. Her songs "Crazy in Love", "Single Ladies (Put a Ring on It)", "Halo", and "Irreplaceable" are some of the best-selling singles of all time worldwide. In 2009, The Observer named her the Artist of the Decade and Billboard named her the Top Female Artist and Top Radio Songs Artist of the Decade. In 2010, Billboard named her in their "Top 50 R&B/Hip-Hop Artists of the Past 25 Years" list at number 15. In 2012 VH1 ranked her third on their list of the "100 Greatest Women in Music". Beyoncé was the first female artist to be honored with the International Artist Award at the American Music Awards. She has also received the Legend Award at the 2008 World Music Awards and the Billboard Millennium Award at the 2011 Billboard Music Awards.
How many Grammys has Beyonce won total with and without Destiny's Child?
56becc903aeaaa14008c949f
20
16
False
Who is the only other woman with more Grammy awards than Beyonce?
56becc903aeaaa14008c94a0
Alison Krauss
159
False
Beyonce has been awarded how many Grammy nominations?
56becc903aeaaa14008c94a1
52
231
False
Beyonce holds the record for how many wins in one night by a female?
56becc903aeaaa14008c94a2
six
586
False
How many awards at the Broadcast Film Critics Association Awards in 2006 did Beyonce bring home?
56becc903aeaaa14008c94a3
two
949
False
How many Grammies has Beyonce won?
56bfd8bda10cfb140055132d
20 Grammy Awards
16
False
How many Grammy nominations does Beyonce have?
56bfd8bda10cfb140055132e
52 nominations
231
False
When did she set the record for most Grammy awards won in one night?
56bfd8bda10cfb140055132f
2010
306
False
Who tied her record for most Grammies won in one night in 2012?
56bfd8bda10cfb1400551330
Adele
705
False
How many Grammys has Beyoncé won?
56d4ebea2ccc5a1400d83358
20
16
False
How many Grammy nominations has Beyoncé had?
56d4ebea2ccc5a1400d8335a
52
231
False
What Beyoncé song was song of the year on 2010?
56d4ebea2ccc5a1400d8335b
"Single Ladies (Put a Ring on It)"
247
False
What movie had Beyoncé nominated as Best Actress for Golden Globe Awards?
56d4ebea2ccc5a1400d8335c
Dreamgirls
756
False
Beyoncé has won 20 Grammy Awards, both as a solo artist and member of Destiny's Child, making her the second most honored female artist by the Grammys, behind Alison Krauss and the most nominated woman in Grammy Award history with 52 nominations. "Single Ladies (Put a Ring on It)" won Song of the Year in 2010 while "Say My Name" and "Crazy in Love" had previously won Best R&B Song. Dangerously in Love, B'Day and I Am... Sasha Fierce have all won Best Contemporary R&B Album. Beyoncé set the record for the most Grammy awards won by a female artist in one night in 2010 when she won six awards, breaking the tie she previously held with Alicia Keys, Norah Jones, Alison Krauss, and Amy Winehouse, with Adele equaling this in 2012. Following her role in Dreamgirls she was nominated for Best Original Song for "Listen" and Best Actress at the Golden Globe Awards, and Outstanding Actress in a Motion Picture at the NAACP Image Awards. Beyoncé won two awards at the Broadcast Film Critics Association Awards 2006; Best Song for "Listen" and Best Original Soundtrack for Dreamgirls: Music from the Motion Picture.
Which soda company has Beyonce partnered with since 2002?
56bed07e3aeaaa14008c94a9
Pepsi
24
False
Pepsi paid Beyonce how much in 2012 for her endorsement?
56bed07e3aeaaa14008c94aa
50 million
172
False
Which organization wrote a letter to Beyonce after her Pepsi endorsement deal?
56bed07e3aeaaa14008c94ab
The Center for Science in the Public Interest (CSPINET)
206
False
What percentage of people were positive about Beyonce's endorsement of Pepsi?
56bed07e3aeaaa14008c94ad
70
535
False
When did Beyonce begin doing Pepsi advetisments?
56bfda91a10cfb1400551337
2002
36
False
Who was in the commercial with Beyonce in 2004?
56bfda91a10cfb1400551338
Britney Spears, Pink, and Enrique Iglesias
101
False
What did she agree to do for 50 million dollars in 2012?
56bfda91a10cfb1400551339
endorse Pepsi
191
False
Who sent her a letter asking that she reconsider the Pepsi deal?
56bfda91a10cfb140055133a
Center for Science in the Public Interest
210
False
What soft drink company has Beyoncé worked with since 2002?
56d4ec422ccc5a1400d83362
Pepsi
24
False
How much did Beyoncé get for a deal with a soft drink company in 2012?
56d4ec422ccc5a1400d83363
$50 million
171
False
Who asked her to change her mind about the soft drink deal due to the nature of the product?
56d4ec422ccc5a1400d83364
The Center for Science in the Public Interest (CSPINET)
206
False
What organization discovered that the advertisements Beyoncé did for the soft drink company were 70% positive?
56d4ec422ccc5a1400d83365
NetBase
437
False
Beyoncé has worked with Pepsi since 2002, and in 2004 appeared in a Gladiator-themed commercial with Britney Spears, Pink, and Enrique Iglesias. In 2012, Beyoncé signed a $50 million deal to endorse Pepsi. The Center for Science in the Public Interest (CSPINET) wrote Beyoncé an open letter asking her to reconsider the deal because of the unhealthiness of the product and to donate the proceeds to a medical organisation. Nevertheless, NetBase found that Beyoncé's campaign was the most talked about endorsement in April 2013, with a 70 per cent positive audience response to the commercial and print ads.
Beyonce worked with who on her perfumes, True Star and True Star Gold?
56bed1243aeaaa14008c94b3
Tommy Hilfiger
24
False
The world's best selling celebrity perfume line belongs to whom?
56bed1243aeaaa14008c94b4
Beyoncé
0
False
Beyonce's first fragrance had what name?
56bed1243aeaaa14008c94b5
Heat
247
False
The Mrs. Carter Show Limited Edition was released in what year?
56bed1243aeaaa14008c94b6
2013
577
False
How much money did The Mrs. Carter Show Limited Edition fragrance make?
56bed1243aeaaa14008c94b7
400 million
750
False
What was Beyonce's 2010  perfume called?
56bfdbf2a10cfb1400551341
Heat
247
False
When was her second perfume, Heat Rush, released?
56bfdbf2a10cfb1400551342
2011
452
False
What was Beyonce's third perfume named?
56bfdbf2a10cfb1400551343
Pulse
535
False
How many editions of Heat have been launched?
56bfdbf2a10cfb1400551344
six editions
654
False
Which Emporio Armani fragrance did Beyoncé promote in 2007?
56d4ee342ccc5a1400d8336d
Diamonds
172
False
What year did Beyoncé introduce her first fragrance?
56d4ee342ccc5a1400d8336e
2010.
255
False
What was Beyoncé's first fragrance called?
56d4ee342ccc5a1400d8336f
Heat
247
False
How many editions of Heat exist?
56d4ee342ccc5a1400d83370
six
654
False
Beyoncé has worked with Tommy Hilfiger for the fragrances True Star (singing a cover version of "Wishing on a Star") and True Star Gold; she also promoted Emporio Armani's Diamonds fragrance in 2007. Beyoncé launched her first official fragrance, Heat in 2010. The commercial, which featured the 1956 song "Fever", was shown after the water shed in the United Kingdom as it begins with an image of Beyoncé appearing to lie naked in a room. In February 2011, Beyoncé launched her second fragrance, Heat Rush. Beyoncé's third fragrance, Pulse, was launched in September 2011. In 2013, The Mrs. Carter Show Limited Edition version of Heat was released. The six editions of Heat are the world's best-selling celebrity fragrance line, with sales of over $400 million.
How young was Beyonce when she acquired deals from American Express and L'Oreal?
56bed17a3aeaaa14008c94bd
18
450
False
What was the name of the video game that was cancelled for Beyonce?
56bed17a3aeaaa14008c94be
Starpower: Beyoncé
28
False
When did Beyonce begin her deals with name brands?
56bfdd3fa10cfb140055134b
since the age of 18
433
False
How many people lost jobs when Beyonce left the video game deal?
56bfdd3fa10cfb140055134d
70 staff
168
False
How was the suit settled?
56bfdd3fa10cfb140055134e
out of court
236
False
What was the name of the video game?
56bfdd3fa10cfb140055134f
Starpower: Beyoncé
28
False
What video game did Beyoncé back out of?
56d4efd92ccc5a1400d83376
Starpower: Beyoncé
28
False
What company was producing the video game?
56d4efd92ccc5a1400d83377
GateFive
109
False
How many people lost their jobs over Beyoncé backing out of the deal?
56d4efd92ccc5a1400d83378
70
168
False
When was the disagreement settled out of court?
56d4efd92ccc5a1400d83379
June 2013
267
False
The release of a video-game Starpower: Beyoncé was cancelled after Beyoncé pulled out of a $100 million with GateFive who alleged the cancellation meant the sacking of 70 staff and millions of pounds lost in development. It was settled out of court by her lawyers in June 2013 who said that they had cancelled because GateFive had lost its financial backers. Beyoncé also has had deals with American Express, Nintendo DS and L'Oréal since the age of 18.
Who did Bayonce's management go into business with in 2014?
56bed22d3aeaaa14008c94c1
fashion retailer Topshop
136
False
After their agreement together, Beyonce's and Topshop" new business was called what?
56bed22d3aeaaa14008c94c2
Parkwood Topshop Athletic Ltd
209
False
What type of clothing does Parkwood Topshop Athletic Ltd produce?
56bed22d3aeaaa14008c94c3
activewear
299
False
The company and products were set to be in stores when?
56bed22d3aeaaa14008c94c4
fall of 2015
698
False
Who did Beyonce partner with in London?
56bfdecca10cfb1400551355
Topshop
153
False
When will the new line launch?
56bfdecca10cfb1400551359
2015
706
False
What is the name of Beyoncé's management company?
56d4f5d32ccc5a1400d83380
Parkwood Entertainment
75
False
Who did Beyoncé and Parkwood Entertainment partner with in October 2014?
56d4f5d32ccc5a1400d83381
Topshop
153
False
Where is Topshop located?
56d4f5d32ccc5a1400d83382
London
123
False
What was the new division of Topshop because of the partnership?
56d4f5d32ccc5a1400d83383
activewear
299
False
In October 2014, it was announced that Beyoncé with her management company Parkwood Entertainment would be partnering with London-based fashion retailer Topshop, in a new 50/50 split subsidiary business named Parkwood Topshop Athletic Ltd. The new division was created for Topshop to break into the activewear market, with an athletic, street wear brand being produced. "Creating a partnership with Beyoncé, one of the most hard-working and talented people in the world, who spends many hours of her life dancing, rehearsing and training is a unique opportunity to develop this category" stated Sir Philip Green on the partnership. The company and collection is set to launch and hit stores in the fall of 2015.
When was it discovered Beyonce was a co-owner of the music service, Tidal?
56bed2993aeaaa14008c94c9
March 30, 2015
3
False
The parent company of Tidal became under the ownership of whom in 2015?
56bed2993aeaaa14008c94cb
Jay Z
230
False
When was it announced that Beyonce was  a co-owner in Tidal?
56bfe0a9a10cfb140055135f
March 30, 2015
3
False
What kind of service is Tidal?
56bfe0a9a10cfb1400551361
music streaming service
105
False
What is a criticism of other streaming services?
56bfe0a9a10cfb1400551363
low payout of royalties
763
False
What music streaming system is Beyoncé part owner of?
56d4f63e2ccc5a1400d8338a
Tidal.
129
False
What is the parent company of the music service Beyoncé owns part of?
56d4f63e2ccc5a1400d8338c
Aspiro
274
False
Who acquired the parent company of the music service Beyoncé owns part of?
56d4f63e2ccc5a1400d8338d
Jay Z
230
False
What music service is accused of providing low royalty amounts?
56d4f63e2ccc5a1400d8338e
Spotify
717
False
On March 30, 2015, it was announced that Beyoncé is a co-owner, with various other music artists, in the music streaming service Tidal. The service specialises in lossless audio and high definition music videos. Beyoncé's husband Jay Z acquired the parent company of Tidal, Aspiro, in the first quarter of 2015. Including Beyoncé and Jay-Z, sixteen artist stakeholders (such as Kanye West, Rihanna, Madonna, Chris Martin, Nicki Minaj and more) co-own Tidal, with the majority owning a 3% equity stake. The idea of having an all artist owned streaming service was created by those involved to adapt to the increased demand for streaming within the current music industry, and to rival other streaming services such as Spotify, which have been criticised for their low payout of royalties. "The challenge is to get everyone to respect music again, to recognize its value", stated Jay-Z on the release of Tidal.
House of Dereon became known through Beyonce and which of Beyonce's relatives?
56bed32f3aeaaa14008c94cf
her mother
12
False
Beyonce's grandma's name was?
56bed32f3aeaaa14008c94d0
Agnèz Deréon
218
False
Beyonce's family's company name is what?
56bed32f3aeaaa14008c94d1
Beyond Productions
408
False
What types of garments are sold by Beyonce's clothing line?
56bed32f3aeaaa14008c94d2
sportswear, denim offerings with fur, outerwear and accessories that include handbags and footwear
670
False
Which two countries can you purchase Beyonce's clothing line?
56bed32f3aeaaa14008c94d3
US and Canada
834
False
Who partnered with Beyonce to start the clothing line, Dereon?
56bfe2a2a10cfb1400551369
her mother
12
False
When did Beyonce and her mother start Dereon?
56bfe2a2a10cfb140055136a
2005
91
False
Who was the business named for in Beyonce's family?
56bfe2a2a10cfb140055136b
grandmother, Agnèz Deréon
205
False
Where were items from the clothing line displayed?
56bfe2a2a10cfb140055136c
in Destiny's Child's shows and tours
572
False
Who shares in the House of Deréon fashion line introduction with Beyoncé?
56d4f6922ccc5a1400d83394
her mother
12
False
What is the name of the House of Deréon junior collection?
56d4f6922ccc5a1400d83397
Deréon.
526
False
Beyoncé and her mother introduced House of Deréon, a contemporary women's fashion line, in 2005. The concept is inspired by three generations of women in their family, the name paying tribute to Beyoncé's grandmother, Agnèz Deréon, a respected seamstress. According to Tina, the overall style of the line best reflects her and Beyoncé's taste and style. Beyoncé and her mother founded their family's company Beyond Productions, which provides the licensing and brand management for House of Deréon, and its junior collection, Deréon. House of Deréon pieces were exhibited in Destiny's Child's shows and tours, during their Destiny Fulfilled era. The collection features sportswear, denim offerings with fur, outerwear and accessories that include handbags and footwear, and are available at department and specialty stores across the US and Canada.
What type of accessory company did Beyonce partner with in 2005?
56bed38e3aeaaa14008c94d9
shoe
51
False
In 2010, Beyonce released Dereon to what country?
56bed38e3aeaaa14008c94da
Brazil
741
False
Back-to-school shopping was introduced in what year of Beyonce's clothing line?
56bed38e3aeaaa14008c94db
2009
294
False
What did Beyonce's Fashion Diva  feature?
56bfe4dfa10cfb1400551374
House of Deréon collection
258
False
What new idea did Beyonce and her mother launch in 2009?
56bfe4dfa10cfb1400551375
Sasha Fierce for Deréon
360
False
When did Beyonce partner with C&A to sell fashion in Brazil?
56bfe4dfa10cfb1400551377
May 27, 2010
638
False
What company did Beyoncé get together with in 2005 to add shoes to her fashions?
56d4f6e02ccc5a1400d8339e
House of Brands
32
False
What was the name of the game put out by Starwave Mobile in 2008 that featured Beyoncé fashions?
56d4f6e02ccc5a1400d8339f
Beyoncé Fashion Diva
159
False
What was the name of the junior fashions launched in 2009 by Beyoncé and her mother?
56d4f6e02ccc5a1400d833a0
Sasha Fierce for Deréon
360
False
Who did Beyoncé team up with in 2010 to get her fashions into Brazil?
56d4f6e02ccc5a1400d833a1
C&A
690
False
Sasha Fierce for Deréon fashions were sold at stores that included Macy's and what other store?
56d4f6e02ccc5a1400d833a2
Dillard's
570
False
In 2005, Beyoncé teamed up with House of Brands, a shoe company, to produce a range of footwear for House of Deréon. In January 2008, Starwave Mobile launched Beyoncé Fashion Diva, a "high-style" mobile game with a social networking component, featuring the House of Deréon collection. In July 2009, Beyoncé and her mother launched a new junior apparel label, Sasha Fierce for Deréon, for back-to-school selling. The collection included sportswear, outerwear, handbags, footwear, eyewear, lingerie and jewelry. It was available at department stores including Macy's and Dillard's, and specialty stores Jimmy Jazz and Against All Odds. On May 27, 2010, Beyoncé teamed up with clothing store C&A to launch Deréon by Beyoncé at their stores in Brazil. The collection included tailored blazers with padded shoulders, little black dresses, embroidered tops and shirts and bandage dresses.
Beyonce, during October 2014, partnered with whom to produce an outdoor line of clothing?
56bed3e63aeaaa14008c94e0
Topshop
110
False
Beyonce and Topshops first products were to be sold in stores when?
56bed3e63aeaaa14008c94e1
autumn 2015
250
False
What is the new business called?
56bfe66ea10cfb140055137e
Parkwood Topshop Athletic Ltd
147
False
What is Beyonce's percentage of ownership in the new venture?
56bfe66ea10cfb1400551380
50
126
False
When will the full line appear?
56bfe66ea10cfb1400551381
April 2016
287
False
What company did Beyoncé contract with to sell clothing in England?
56d4f71e2ccc5a1400d833a8
Topshop
110
False
What is the name of the equal partnership's fashion line between Beyoncé and the British company to come out in 2016?
56d4f71e2ccc5a1400d833a9
Parkwood Topshop Athletic Ltd
147
False
What type of clothing does the British partnership with Beyoncé sell?
56d4f71e2ccc5a1400d833aa
activewear
52
False
In October 2014, Beyoncé signed a deal to launch an activewear line of clothing with British fashion retailer Topshop. The 50-50 venture is called Parkwood Topshop Athletic Ltd and is scheduled to launch its first dance, fitness and sports ranges in autumn 2015. The line will launch in April 2016.
What national disaster caused Beyonce to create the Survivor Foundation?
56bed4553aeaaa14008c94e5
Hurricane Katrina
6
False
How much cash did Beyonce put into the venture, the Survivor Foundation at startup?
56bed4553aeaaa14008c94e7
250,000
191
False
What hurricane years later after Katrina did the organization provide support for?
56bed4553aeaaa14008c94e8
Ike
321
False
What did Beyonce and Rowland found in 2005?
56bfe7eaa10cfb1400551387
the Survivor Foundation
61
False
How much did Beyonce initially contribute to the foundation?
56bfe7eaa10cfb1400551389
$250,000
190
False
How has this foundation changed in recent years?
56bfe7eaa10cfb140055138a
expanded to work with other charities
225
False
What foundation did Beyoncé start after Hurricane Katrina?
56d4f7a22ccc5a1400d833ae
Survivor Foundation
65
False
How much money did Beyoncé contribute at the beginning of her Hurricane Katrina foundation?
56d4f7a22ccc5a1400d833b0
$250,000.
190
False
What other hurricane did Beyoncé's foundation help with?
56d4f7a22ccc5a1400d833b1
Hurricane Ike
311
False
After Hurricane Katrina in 2005, Beyoncé and Rowland founded the Survivor Foundation to provide transitional housing for victims in the Houston area, to which Beyoncé contributed an initial $250,000. The foundation has since expanded to work with other charities in the city, and also provided relief following Hurricane Ike three years later.
Who did Beyonce participate with in the Hope for Haiti Now: A Global Benefit?
56bed4c23aeaaa14008c94ed
George Clooney and Wyclef Jean
24
False
Beyonce opened a cosmetology center in what location?
56bed4c23aeaaa14008c94ee
Brooklyn Phoenix House
356
False
After Osama Bin Laden's death, what single did Beyonce cover?
56bed4c23aeaaa14008c94ef
God Bless the USA
781
False
How much did the T-shirt with Beyonce's image on it make?
56bfeb09a10cfb1400551391
$1 million
253
False
What enterprise did Beyonce and her mother start on March 5, 2010?
56bfeb09a10cfb1400551392
Beyoncé Cosmetology Center at the Brooklyn Phoenix House
322
False
What charity benefited from  the release of the song, God Bless the USA?
56bfeb09a10cfb1400551394
New York Police and Fire Widows' and Children's Benefit Fund
849
False
What did she participate in with George Clooney?
56bfeb09a10cfb1400551395
Hope for Haiti Now: A Global Benefit
57
False
Which two stars did Beyoncé help with their Haiti Earthquake organization?
56d4f9112ccc5a1400d833b6
George Clooney and Wyclef Jean
24
False
What did Beyoncé open at the Brooklyn Phoenix House in 2010?
56d4f9112ccc5a1400d833b7
Beyoncé Cosmetology Center
322
False
What Lee Greenwood song did Beyoncé cover after Osama bin Laden was killed?
56d4f9112ccc5a1400d833ba
God Bless the USA
781
False
Beyoncé participated in George Clooney and Wyclef Jean's Hope for Haiti Now: A Global Benefit for Earthquake Relief telethon and was named the official face of the limited edition CFDA "Fashion For Haiti" T-shirt, made by Theory which raised a total of $1 million. On March 5, 2010, Beyoncé and her mother Tina opened the Beyoncé Cosmetology Center at the Brooklyn Phoenix House, offering a seven-month cosmetology training course for men and women. In April 2011, Beyoncé joined forces with US First Lady Michelle Obama and the National Association of Broadcasters Education Foundation, to help boost the latter's campaign against child obesity by reworking her single "Get Me Bodied". Following the death of Osama bin Laden, Beyoncé released her cover of the Lee Greenwood song "God Bless the USA", as a charity single to help raise funds for the New York Police and Fire Widows' and Children's Benefit Fund.
Which national event caused Beyonce to produce "Demand a Plan?"
56bed5983aeaaa14008c94f3
Sandy Hook Elementary School shooting
280
False
What song did Beyonce contribute to the campaign?
56bed5983aeaaa14008c94f4
I Was Here
412
False
Beyonce is contributing to which food-donation campaign?
56bed5983aeaaa14008c94f5
Miss a Meal
1553
False
On June 1 , 2013 where was the concert held for "a Chime for Change"?
56bed5983aeaaa14008c94f6
London
765
False
Beyonce was speaking about whom when she said her gift was "finding the best qualities in every human being."?
56bed5983aeaaa14008c94f7
her mother
1277
False
The Demand a Plan video campaign followed what tragic event?
56bfed855a85de14001c7864
Sandy Hook Elementary School shooting.
280
False
What was the focus of the Gucci Chime for Change campaign?
56bfed855a85de14001c7866
spread female empowerment
616
False
What crowdfunding platform was used in the concert?
56bfed855a85de14001c7868
Catapult
1409
False
What is the name of the campaign that Beyoncé and others are involved in that deals with gun control?
56d4fa2e2ccc5a1400d833ca
Demand A Plan
108
False
What school shooting prompted the creation of Demand A Plan?
56d4fa2e2ccc5a1400d833cb
Sandy Hook Elementary School
280
False
What song did Beyoncé donate to the 2012 World Humanitarian Day campaign?
56d4fa2e2ccc5a1400d833cc
I Was Here
412
False
Who did Beyoncé work with in 2013 on the Chime for Change campaign?
56d4fa2e2ccc5a1400d833cd
Salma Hayek and Frida Giannini
533
False
In December, Beyoncé along with a variety of other celebrities teamed up and produced a video campaign for "Demand A Plan", a bipartisan effort by a group of 950 US mayors and others designed to influence the federal government into rethinking its gun control laws, following the Sandy Hook Elementary School shooting. Beyoncé became an ambassador for the 2012 World Humanitarian Day campaign donating her song "I Was Here" and its music video, shot in the UN, to the campaign. In 2013, it was announced that Beyoncé would work with Salma Hayek and Frida Giannini on a Gucci "Chime for Change" campaign that aims to spread female empowerment. The campaign, which aired on February 28, was set to her new music. A concert for the cause took place on June 1, 2013 in London and included other acts like Ellie Goulding, Florence and the Machine, and Rita Ora. In advance of the concert, she appeared in a campaign video released on 15 May 2013, where she, along with Cameron Diaz, John Legend and Kylie Minogue, described inspiration from their mothers, while a number of other artists celebrated personal inspiration from other women, leading to a call for submission of photos of women of viewers' inspiration from which a selection was shown at the concert. Beyoncé said about her mother Tina Knowles that her gift was "finding the best qualities in every human being." With help of the crowdfunding platform Catapult, visitors of the concert could choose between several projects promoting education of women and girls. Beyoncé is also taking part in "Miss a Meal", a food-donation campaign, and supporting Goodwill charity through online charity auctions at Charitybuzz that support job creation throughout Europe and the U.S.
Frédéric_Chopin
What was Frédéric's nationalities?
56cbd2356d243a140015ed66
Polish and French
182
False
In what era was Frédéric active in?
56cbd2356d243a140015ed67
Romantic era
276
False
For what instrument did Frédéric write primarily for?
56cbd2356d243a140015ed68
solo piano
318
False
In what area was Frédéric born in?
56cbd2356d243a140015ed69
Duchy of Warsaw
559
False
At what age did Frédéric depart from Poland?
56cbd2356d243a140015ed6a
20
777
False
What year was Chopin born?
56ce0a3762d2951400fa69d6
1810
113
False
What era was Chopin active during?
56ce0a3762d2951400fa69d7
Romantic era
276
False
Where did Chopin grow up?
56ce0a3762d2951400fa69d8
Warsaw
568
False
What instrument did he mostly compose for?
56ce0a3762d2951400fa69d9
solo piano
318
False
At what age did Chopin  leave Poland?
56ce0a3762d2951400fa69da
20
777
False
When did Chopin die?
56cf54a2aab44d1400b89006
17 October 1849
120
False
What was Chopin's full name?
56cf54a2aab44d1400b89008
Fryderyk Franciszek Chopin
143
False
The majority of Chopin's compositions were for what instrument?
56cf54a2aab44d1400b89009
solo piano
318
False
Chopin was active during what era?
56cf54a2aab44d1400b8900a
Romantic era
276
False
In what year was Chopin born?
56d1ca30e7d4791d009021a7
1810
113
False
In what city was Chopin born and raised?
56d1ca30e7d4791d009021a8
Warsaw
568
False
How old was Chopin when he left Poland?
56d1ca30e7d4791d009021a9
20
777
False
In what era of music did Chopin compose?
56d1ca30e7d4791d009021aa
Romantic
276
False
What year did Chopin die?
56d1ca30e7d4791d009021ab
1849
131
False
Frédéric François Chopin (/ˈʃoʊpæn/; French pronunciation: ​[fʁe.de.ʁik fʁɑ̃.swa ʃɔ.pɛ̃]; 22 February or 1 March 1810 – 17 October 1849), born Fryderyk Franciszek Chopin,[n 1] was a Polish and French (by citizenship and birth of father) composer and a virtuoso pianist of the Romantic era, who wrote primarily for the solo piano. He gained and has maintained renown worldwide as one of the leading musicians of his era, whose "poetic genius was based on a professional technique that was without equal in his generation." Chopin was born in what was then the Duchy of Warsaw, and grew up in Warsaw, which after 1815 became part of Congress Poland. A child prodigy, he completed his musical education and composed his earlier works in Warsaw before leaving Poland at the age of 20, less than a month before the outbreak of the November 1830 Uprising.
At what age did Frédéric move to Paris?
56cbd2f96d243a140015ed70
21
14
False
How many public performances was Frédéric estimated to have given during the remainder of his life?
56cbd2f96d243a140015ed71
30
106
False
In what year did Frédéric obtain citizenship in France?
56cbd2f96d243a140015ed72
1835
415
False
In what area had Frédéric's most productive period of composition taken place?
56cbd2f96d243a140015ed73
Majorca
626
False
What was Frédéric's most likely cause of death?
56cbd2f96d243a140015ed74
tuberculosis
939
False
Where did he end up living when he was 21?
56ce0d8662d2951400fa69e8
Paris
31
False
How many public shows did he perform during the last years of his life?
56ce0d8662d2951400fa69e9
30
106
False
What other composer did Chopin develop a friendship with?
56ce0d8662d2951400fa69ea
Franz Liszt
318
False
What year did he gain citizenship in France?
56ce0d8662d2951400fa69eb
1835
415
False
What is the name of the woman he had a relationship with from 1837-847?
56ce0d8662d2951400fa69ec
Maria Wodzińska
481
False
At what age did Chopin move to Paris?
56cf5734aab44d1400b89079
21
14
False
During the last 18 years he lived about how many times did Chopin perform in public?
56cf5734aab44d1400b8907a
30
106
False
What year did Chopin become a citizen of France?
56cf5734aab44d1400b8907c
1835
415
False
In the last years of his life who was the person that supported him financially?
56cf5734aab44d1400b8907d
Jane Stirling
773
False
In what year did Chopin become a French citizen?
56d1cd98e7d4791d009021e6
1835
415
False
Who gave Chopin money in the last years of his life?
56d1cd98e7d4791d009021e7
Jane Stirling
773
False
What was the likely cause of death for Chopin?
56d1cd98e7d4791d009021e8
tuberculosis
939
False
At the age of 21 he settled in Paris. Thereafter, during the last 18 years of his life, he gave only some 30 public performances, preferring the more intimate atmosphere of the salon. He supported himself by selling his compositions and teaching piano, for which he was in high demand. Chopin formed a friendship with Franz Liszt and was admired by many of his musical contemporaries, including Robert Schumann. In 1835 he obtained French citizenship. After a failed engagement to Maria Wodzińska, from 1837 to 1847 he maintained an often troubled relationship with the French writer George Sand. A brief and unhappy visit to Majorca with Sand in 1838–39 was one of his most productive periods of composition. In his last years, he was financially supported by his admirer Jane Stirling, who also arranged for him to visit Scotland in 1848. Through most of his life, Chopin suffered from poor health. He died in Paris in 1849, probably of tuberculosis.
What instrument did every composition by Frédéric include?
56cbd4c56d243a140015ed7a
piano
41
False
What concept was Frédéric credited with creating?
56cbd4c56d243a140015ed7b
instrumental ballade
340
False
Whose music did Frédéric admire the most and thus provide influence on his work?
56cbd4c56d243a140015ed7c
J. S. Bach, Mozart and Schubert
620
False
What features marked Frédéric's performance style and made them unique?
56cbd4c56d243a140015ed7d
nuance and sensitivity
285
False
What establishments did Frédéric frequently visit in Paris that influenced his career?
56cbd4c56d243a140015ed7e
Paris salons
705
False
Which instrument do every one of his compositions include?
56ce0f42aab44d1400b8841e
piano
41
False
What concept did Chopin create?
56ce0f42aab44d1400b8841f
instrumental ballade
340
False
What are two things Chopin's performances were known for?
56ce0f42aab44d1400b88420
nuance and sensitivity
285
False
What three composers influenced Chopin's work?
56ce0f42aab44d1400b88421
J. S. Bach, Mozart and Schubert
620
False
Chopin wrote some music to lyrics, what language were the lyrics?
56ce0f42aab44d1400b88422
Polish
155
False
What instrument is involved in all of Chopin's work?
56cf582eaab44d1400b8909b
piano
41
False
Chopin composed several songs to lyrics of what language?
56cf582eaab44d1400b8909c
Polish
155
False
Chopin's performances were known for what?
56cf582eaab44d1400b8909d
nuance and sensitivity
285
False
What three composers did Chopin take inspiration from?
56cf582eaab44d1400b8909e
J. S. Bach, Mozart and Schubert
620
False
What instrument was all of Chopin's compositions written for?
56d1cf80e7d4791d00902211
piano
41
False
What language were some songs written in that Chopin wrote music for?
56d1cf80e7d4791d00902212
Polish
155
False
Of what venue was Chopin an often invited guest?
56d1cf80e7d4791d00902215
Paris salons
705
False
All of Chopin's compositions include the piano. Most are for solo piano, though he also wrote two piano concertos, a few chamber pieces, and some songs to Polish lyrics. His keyboard style is highly individual and often technically demanding; his own performances were noted for their nuance and sensitivity. Chopin invented the concept of instrumental ballade. His major piano works also include mazurkas, waltzes, nocturnes, polonaises, études, impromptus, scherzos, preludes and sonatas, some published only after his death. Influences on his compositional style include Polish folk music, the classical tradition of J. S. Bach, Mozart and Schubert, the music of all of whom he admired, as well as the Paris salons where he was a frequent guest. His innovations in style, musical form, and harmony, and his association of music with nationalism, were influential throughout and after the late Romantic period.
What was the degree of Frédéric's association with political insurrection?
56cbd8c66d243a140015ed85
indirect
173
False
What parts of Frédéric's personal life influenced his legacy as a leading symbol of the era?
56cbd8c66d243a140015ed86
his love life and his early death
212
False
In which era was Frédéric leave a legacy of as a leading symbol?
56cbd8c66d243a140015ed87
Romantic era
314
False
In what forms of media has Frédéric been the subject of?
56cbd8c66d243a140015ed88
films and biographies
394
False
Where did Chopin create the majority of his compositions?
56ce1138aab44d1400b88428
France
25
False
Chopin is a native of what country?
56ce1138aab44d1400b88429
Poland
14
False
He had a non-direct association with what?
56ce1138aab44d1400b8842a
political insurrection
188
False
Chopin is closely associated with what era?
56ce1138aab44d1400b8842b
Romantic era
314
False
Where did Chopin create most of his works?
56cf5a5aaab44d1400b890dd
France
25
False
Chopin was indirectly related to what?
56cf5a5aaab44d1400b890de
political insurrection
188
False
Chopin is considered a prominent symbol of what?
56cf5a5aaab44d1400b890df
Romantic era
314
False
In his native Poland, in France, where he composed most of his works, and beyond, Chopin's music, his status as one of music's earliest superstars, his association (if only indirect) with political insurrection, his love life and his early death have made him, in the public consciousness, a leading symbol of the Romantic era. His works remain popular, and he has been the subject of numerous films and biographies of varying degrees of historical accuracy.
In what village was Frédéric born in?
56cbda8d6d243a140015ed8e
Żelazowa Wola
28
False
On what date was Frédéric born on?
56cbda8d6d243a140015ed8f
22 February 1810
212
False
Despite the birthdate given by parish baptismal, what date is given by the composer and his family instead?
56cbda8d6d243a140015ed90
1 March
393
False
What was the latin form of Frédéric's full name?
56cbda8d6d243a140015ed91
Fridericus Franciscus
274
False
How many miles was the village Frédéric born in located to the west of Warsaw?
56cbda8d6d243a140015ed92
29
58
False
Where was Chopin born?
56ce1225aab44d1400b88430
Żelazowa Wola
28
False
Who was responsible for the creation of the Duchy of Warsaw?
56ce1225aab44d1400b88431
Napoleon
152
False
When was his birthday recorded as being?
56ce1225aab44d1400b88432
22 February 1810
212
False
What birth date is now considered as his actual birthday?
56ce1225aab44d1400b88433
1 March
393
False
Chopin's given names in Latin are what?
56ce1225aab44d1400b88434
Fridericus Franciscus
274
False
The Duchy of Warsaw was created by whom?
56cf5b40aab44d1400b890fe
Napoleon
152
False
Chopin's birth is recorded as when?
56cf5b40aab44d1400b890ff
22 February 1810
212
False
What birth date is now considered correct for Chopin?
56cf5b40aab44d1400b89100
1 March
393
False
What is the Latin form of Chopin's name?
56cf5b40aab44d1400b89101
Fridericus Franciscus
274
False
Chopin was actually born outside of Warsaw at what location?
56d1d330e7d4791d0090224d
Żelazowa Wola
28
False
What famous French leader had established the Polish state at this time?
56d1d330e7d4791d0090224e
Napoleon
152
False
Fryderyk Chopin was born in Żelazowa Wola, 46 kilometres (29 miles) west of Warsaw, in what was then the Duchy of Warsaw, a Polish state established by Napoleon. The parish baptismal record gives his birthday as 22 February 1810, and cites his given names in the Latin form Fridericus Franciscus (in Polish, he was Fryderyk Franciszek). However, the composer and his family used the birthdate 1 March,[n 2] which is now generally accepted as the correct date.
Who did Frédéric's father marry in 1806?
56cbdbf36d243a140015ed99
Justyna Krzyżanowska
196
False
On what date was Frédéric baptised?
56cbdbf36d243a140015ed9a
23 April 1810
331
False
What language did Frédéric's father, Nicolas, insist on using in the household?
56cbdbf36d243a140015ed9c
Polish
156
False
What was the given name of Chopin's father?
56cf5bfcaab44d1400b89111
Nicolas
19
False
Where was Chopin's father from?
56cf5bfcaab44d1400b89112
Lorraine
56
False
Chopin's father married who?
56cf5bfcaab44d1400b89113
Justyna Krzyżanowska
196
False
What is the name of Chopin's godfather?
56cf5bfcaab44d1400b89114
Fryderyk Skarbek
468
False
What is the name of Chopin's eldest sister?
56cf5bfcaab44d1400b89115
Ludwika
590
False
What was Chopin's father's first name?
56d1d3fee7d4791d00902263
Nicolas
19
False
From where id Chopin's father emigrate from?
56d1d3fee7d4791d00902264
Lorraine
56
False
What is Chopin's older sister's name?
56d1d3fee7d4791d00902266
Ludwika
590
False
Fryderyk's father, Nicolas Chopin, was a Frenchman from Lorraine who had emigrated to Poland in 1787 at the age of sixteen. Nicolas tutored children of the Polish aristocracy, and in 1806 married Justyna Krzyżanowska, a poor relative of the Skarbeks, one of the families for whom he worked. Fryderyk was baptized on Easter Sunday, 23 April 1810, in the same church where his parents had married, in Brochów. His eighteen-year-old godfather, for whom he was named, was Fryderyk Skarbek, a pupil of Nicolas Chopin. Fryderyk was the couple's second child and only son; he had an elder sister, Ludwika (1807–55), and two younger sisters, Izabela (1811–81) and Emilia (1812–27). Nicolas was devoted to his adopted homeland, and insisted on the use of the Polish language in the household.
During what month did Frédéric move to Warsaw with his family?
56cbdcd16d243a140015eda2
October
3
False
What language did Frédéric's father teach after they had moved to Warsaw?
56cbdcd16d243a140015eda3
French
122
False
Where did Frédéric live with his family while they were in Warsaw?
56cbdcd16d243a140015eda4
the Palace grounds
218
False
What two instruments did Frédéric's father play during this time?
56cbdcd16d243a140015eda5
flute and violin
260
False
What was Frédéric prone to during early childhood as a result of his slight build?
56cbdcd16d243a140015eda6
illnesses
445
False
When did Chopin's family move to Warsaw?
56cf5e35aab44d1400b89147
October 1810
3
False
Where did Chopin's father get a teaching position?
56cf5e35aab44d1400b89148
Warsaw Lyceum
136
False
What instruments did Chopin's father play?
56cf5e35aab44d1400b89149
flute and violin
260
False
What instrument did Chopin's mother teach?
56cf5e35aab44d1400b8914a
piano
300
False
How old was Chopin when his family moved to Warsaw?
56d1d4d3e7d4791d00902275
six months
17
False
What language did Chopin's father teach?
56d1d4d3e7d4791d00902276
French
122
False
What two instruments did Chopin's father play?
56d1d4d3e7d4791d00902277
flute and violin
260
False
What instrument did Chopin's mother teach at the boarding house?
56d1d4d3e7d4791d00902278
piano
300
False
Where did Chopin live with his family in Warsaw?
56d1d4d3e7d4791d00902279
Saxon Palace.
170
False
In October 1810, six months after Fryderyk's birth, the family moved to Warsaw, where his father acquired a post teaching French at the Warsaw Lyceum, then housed in the Saxon Palace. Fryderyk lived with his family in the Palace grounds. The father played the flute and violin; the mother played the piano and gave lessons to boys in the boarding house that the Chopins kept. Chopin was of slight build, and even in early childhood was prone to illnesses.
Who was Frédéric's first professional teacher in music?
56cbdea66d243a140015edac
Wojciech Żywny
143
False
Which sister did Frédéric play duets with sometimes while being tutored at this time?
56cbdea66d243a140015edad
Ludwika
176
False
At what age did Frédéric start giving public concerts?
56cbdea66d243a140015edae
7
391
False
What did Frédéric compose during the year of 1817?
56cbdea66d243a140015edaf
two polonaises
405
False
What is the earliest surviving musical notation composed by Frédéric?
56cbdea66d243a140015edb0
a polonaise in A-flat major of 1821
465
False
Who was Chopin's initial piano teacher?
56cf609aaab44d1400b89185
Wojciech Żywny
143
False
Which of his sisters did Chopin sometimes duet with?
56cf609aaab44d1400b89186
Ludwika
176
False
At what age did Chopin start playing publicly?
56cf609aaab44d1400b89187
7
391
False
What year did Chopin compose his first work?
56cf609aaab44d1400b89188
1817
388
False
During what years did Chopin receive instruction from  Żywny?
56cf609aaab44d1400b89189
1816 to 1821
107
False
What is the name of Chopin's first music teacher that was not an amateur musician?
56d20a6ae7d4791d00902618
Wojciech Żywny
143
False
Which of Chopin's sisters would play music with him?
56d20a6ae7d4791d00902619
Ludwika
176
False
How old was Chopin when he began to perform for the public?
56d20a6ae7d4791d0090261a
7
391
False
Who was Chopin's earliest piece of music, that there is a record of, dedicated to?
56d20a6ae7d4791d0090261b
Wojciech Żywny
143
False
Fryderyk may have had some piano instruction from his mother, but his first professional music tutor, from 1816 to 1821, was the Czech pianist Wojciech Żywny. His elder sister Ludwika also took lessons from Żywny, and occasionally played duets with her brother. It quickly became apparent that he was a child prodigy. By the age of seven Fryderyk had begun giving public concerts, and in 1817 he composed two polonaises, in G minor and B-flat major. His next work, a polonaise in A-flat major of 1821, dedicated to Żywny, is his earliest surviving musical manuscript.
In what year was the Saxon Palace taken by the Russian governor for use regarding the military?
56cbdfbf6d243a140015edb6
1817
3
False
What establishment today contains what was known as the Warsaw Lyceum during that time?
56cbdfbf6d243a140015edb7
Warsaw University
178
False
What building was Frédéric's new home adjacent to?
56cbdfbf6d243a140015edb8
Kazimierz Palace
137
False
What palace was Frédéric sometimes invited to as a companion of the ruler's son?
56cbdfbf6d243a140015edb9
Belweder Palace
357
False
What short poem spoke of Frédéric's popularity as a child?
56cbdfbf6d243a140015edba
Nasze Przebiegi
566
False
The Saxon Palace was taken over for military use in what year?
56cf61d3aab44d1400b891a3
1817
3
False
The Warsaw Lyceum was moved to where?
56cf61d3aab44d1400b891a4
Kazimierz Palace
137
False
As a child Chopin was invited to play with the son of whom?
56cf61d3aab44d1400b891a5
Grand Duke Constantine
428
False
What did Chopin create for Grand Duke Constantine?
56cf61d3aab44d1400b891a6
a march
498
False
In one of his works who affirmed the popularity of Chopin as a child?
56cf61d3aab44d1400b891a7
Julian Ursyn Niemcewicz
515
False
What was the place Chopin was invited to as a friend of ruler's son?
56d20bf6e7d4791d00902622
Belweder Palace
357
False
What is the title and name of the ruler whose son Chopin was friends with?
56d20bf6e7d4791d00902623
Grand Duke Constantine
428
False
What type of musical piece did Chopin compose for his friend's ruling father?
56d20bf6e7d4791d00902624
a march
498
False
Who wrote in 1818 about the popularity of Chopin?
56d20bf6e7d4791d00902625
Julian Ursyn Niemcewicz
515
False
In 1817 the Saxon Palace was requisitioned by Warsaw's Russian governor for military use, and the Warsaw Lyceum was reestablished in the Kazimierz Palace (today the rectorate of Warsaw University). Fryderyk and his family moved to a building, which still survives, adjacent to the Kazimierz Palace. During this period, Fryderyk was sometimes invited to the Belweder Palace as playmate to the son of the ruler of Russian Poland, Grand Duke Constantine; he played the piano for the Duke and composed a march for him. Julian Ursyn Niemcewicz, in his dramatic eclogue, "Nasze Przebiegi" ("Our Discourses", 1818), attested to "little Chopin's" popularity.
During what years did Frédéric visit the Warsaw Lyceum for lessons?
56cbe1996d243a140015edc0
1823 to 1826
15
False
Who was Frédéric a student of involving music theory starting in 1826?
56cbe1996d243a140015edc1
Józef Elsner
236
False
What was the name of the mechanical organ Frédéric performed on during 1825?
56cbe1996d243a140015edc2
eolomelodicon
497
False
Which tsar did Frédéric perform for due to his success in previous concerts?
56cbe1996d243a140015edc3
Alexander I
725
False
On what date was Frédéric's first performance that earned international esteem?
56cbe1996d243a140015edc4
10 June 1825
848
False
Who taught Chopin to play the organ?
56cf63b4aab44d1400b891bd
Wilhelm Würfel
119
False
Chopin had three years of lessons with whom?
56cf63b4aab44d1400b891be
Józef Elsner
236
False
What instrument did Chopin play in front of Tsar Alexander I?
56cf63b4aab44d1400b891bf
eolomelodicon
497
False
What gift did Tsar Alexander I give to Chopin?
56cf63b4aab44d1400b891c0
diamond ring
793
False
What was the first of Chopin's works to gain international renown?
56cf63b4aab44d1400b891c1
Rondo Op. 1
883
False
Who gave Chopin instruction on how to play the organ?
56d22055e7d4791d00902683
Wilhelm Würfel
119
False
What was the name of the teacher of Chopin's three year course that began in the fall of 1826?
56d22055e7d4791d00902684
Józef Elsner
236
False
What is th ename of the mechanical organ Chopin played in 1825?
56d22055e7d4791d00902685
eolomelodicon
497
False
What did Tsar Alexander I give to Chopin?
56d22055e7d4791d00902686
a diamond ring.
791
False
What is the title of his first commercially successful work?
56d22055e7d4791d00902687
Rondo Op. 1.
883
False
From September 1823 to 1826 Chopin attended the Warsaw Lyceum, where he received organ lessons from the Czech musician Wilhelm Würfel during his first year. In the autumn of 1826 he began a three-year course under the Silesian composer Józef Elsner at the Warsaw Conservatory, studying music theory, figured bass and composition.[n 3] Throughout this period he continued to compose and to give recitals in concerts and salons in Warsaw. He was engaged by the inventors of a mechanical organ, the "eolomelodicon", and on this instrument in May 1825 he performed his own improvisation and part of a concerto by Moscheles. The success of this concert led to an invitation to give a similar recital on the instrument before Tsar Alexander I, who was visiting Warsaw; the Tsar presented him with a diamond ring. At a subsequent eolomelodicon concert on 10 June 1825, Chopin performed his Rondo Op. 1. This was the first of his works to be commercially published and earned him his first mention in the foreign press, when the Leipzig Allgemeine Musikalische Zeitung praised his "wealth of musical ideas".
Who was Frédéric a guest of during his visit of Szafarnia in 1824 and 1825?
56cbe2fd6d243a140015edcb
Dominik Dziewanowski
139
False
In which village did Frédéric first experience rural Polish folk music?
56cbe2fd6d243a140015edcc
Szafarnia
110
False
To whom did Frédéric write letters to during his stay in Szafarnia?
56cbe2fd6d243a140015edcd
his family
390
False
What did Frédéric write parodies of in his letters?
56cbe2fd6d243a140015edce
Warsaw newspapers
428
False
During his vacation in 1824 and 1825 who did Chopin spend his vacation with?
56cf64e34df3c31400b0d6f9
Dominik Dziewanowski
139
False
What type of music did Chopin discover for the first time while staying in Szafarnia?
56cf64e34df3c31400b0d6fa
Polish rural folk music
228
False
What was the name of the person who hosted Chopin as a guest when he discovered Polish rural folk music?
56d2211ae7d4791d00902693
Dominik Dziewanowski
139
False
What was the title chopin gave of some spoof letters he wrote?
56d2211ae7d4791d00902694
The Szafarnia Courier
314
False
Where did Chopin spend his vacation in 1824 and 1825?
56d2211ae7d4791d00902695
Szafarnia
110
False
During 1824–28 Chopin spent his vacations away from Warsaw, at a number of locales.[n 4] In 1824 and 1825, at Szafarnia, he was a guest of Dominik Dziewanowski, the father of a schoolmate. Here for the first time he encountered Polish rural folk music. His letters home from Szafarnia (to which he gave the title "The Szafarnia Courier"), written in a very modern and lively Polish, amused his family with their spoofing of the Warsaw newspapers and demonstrated the youngster's literary gift.
During what year did Frédéric's youngest sister, Emilia, pass away?
56cbe5df6d243a140015edd4
1827
3
False
What street did Frédéric's family move to after the death of his youngest sister?
56cbe5df6d243a140015edd5
Krakowskie Przedmieście
256
False
What year did Frédéric leave Warsaw after moving with his family to the south annex of Krasiński Palace?
56cbe5df6d243a140015edd6
1830
329
False
What did the Chopin's family business become in the 20th century?
56cbe5df6d243a140015edd7
a museum
467
False
Which artist created the first known portrait of Frédéric?
56cbe5df6d243a140015edd8
Ambroży Mieroszewski
516
False
What year did Chopin's sister Emilia die?
56cf66734df3c31400b0d713
1827
3
False
What year did Chopin leave Warsaw?
56cf66734df3c31400b0d714
1830
329
False
What was the Chopin family's business?
56cf66734df3c31400b0d715
boarding house for male students
381
False
What artist painted the Chopin family?
56cf66734df3c31400b0d717
Ambroży Mieroszewski
516
False
Who in Chopin's family died shortly before they moved in 1827?
56d3123b59d6e41400146204
sister Emilia
51
False
What year did Chopin leave Warsaw?
56d3123b59d6e41400146205
1830
329
False
What was the Chopin boarding house called in English?
56d3123b59d6e41400146206
Chopin Family Parlour
419
False
What artist made portraits of the Chopin family in 1829?
56d3123b59d6e41400146207
Ambroży Mieroszewski
516
False
Was the Chopin family boarding house for male or female students?
56d3123b59d6e41400146208
male
400
False
In 1827, soon after the death of Chopin's youngest sister Emilia, the family moved from the Warsaw University building, adjacent to the Kazimierz Palace, to lodgings just across the street from the university, in the south annex of the Krasiński Palace on Krakowskie Przedmieście,[n 5] where Chopin lived until he left Warsaw in 1830.[n 6] Here his parents continued running their boarding house for male students; the Chopin Family Parlour (Salonik Chopinów) became a museum in the 20th century. In 1829 the artist Ambroży Mieroszewski executed a set of portraits of Chopin family members, including the first known portrait of the composer.[n 7]
Of the individuals that became intimate with Frédéric during their stay at the family apartments, which two became part of Frédéric's social environment in Paris?
56cbe9436d243a140015eddf
Jan Matuszyński and Julian Fontana
116
False
Which singer was cited specifically as someone Frédéric was attracted to?
56cbe9436d243a140015ede0
Konstancja Gładkowska
392
False
What four boys from his family's boarding house became friends with Chopin?
56cf67c74df3c31400b0d72d
Tytus Woyciechowski, Jan Nepomucen Białobłocki, Jan Matuszyński and Julian Fontana
68
False
Which singer did Chopin become fascinated with?
56cf67c74df3c31400b0d72e
Konstancja Gładkowska
392
False
Which of Chopin's works was unknowingly dedicated to Gladkowska?
56cf67c74df3c31400b0d72f
Piano Concerto No. 1 (in E minor)
633
False
When did Chopin receive his last Conservatory report?
56cf67c74df3c31400b0d730
July 1829
799
False
Which two of Chopin's friends became part of his Paris milieu?
56d313b559d6e4140014620e
Jan Matuszyński and Julian Fontana
116
False
What was the name of the singing student Chopin was attracted to?
56d313b559d6e4140014620f
Konstancja Gładkowska
392
False
To whom did Chopin reveal in letters which parts of his work were about the singing student he was infatuated with?
56d313b559d6e41400146210
Tytus Woyciechowski
68
False
What musical piece had a Larghetto dedicated to the female singing student Chopin was infatuated with?
56d313b559d6e41400146211
Piano Concerto No. 1 (in E minor)
633
False
How many boarders of his family's boarding house became intimate friends with Chopin?
56d313b559d6e41400146212
Four
0
False
Four boarders at his parents' apartments became Chopin's intimates: Tytus Woyciechowski, Jan Nepomucen Białobłocki, Jan Matuszyński and Julian Fontana; the latter two would become part of his Paris milieu. He was friendly with members of Warsaw's young artistic and intellectual world, including Fontana, Józef Bohdan Zaleski and Stefan Witwicki. He was also attracted to the singing student Konstancja Gładkowska. In letters to Woyciechowski, he indicated which of his works, and even which of their passages, were influenced by his fascination with her; his letter of 15 May 1830 revealed that the slow movement (Larghetto) of his Piano Concerto No. 1 (in E minor) was secretly dedicated to her – "It should be like dreaming in beautiful springtime – by moonlight." His final Conservatory report (July 1829) read: "Chopin F., third-year student, exceptional talent, musical genius."
Who did Frédéric visit Berlin with in September 1828?
56cbeb396d243a140015ede8
Feliks Jarocki
96
False
Which opera director did Frédéric see works of during his stay in Berlin?
56cbeb396d243a140015ede9
Gaspare Spontini
140
False
Who was Frédéric a guest of during his stay in Berlin in 1829?
56cbeb396d243a140015edeb
Prince Antoni Radziwiłł
299
False
What piece did Frédéric create specifically for the prince and the prince's daughter, Wanda?
56cbeb396d243a140015edec
Introduction and Polonaise brillante in C major for cello and piano, Op. 3
479
False
When did Chopin visit Berlin?
56cf69144df3c31400b0d745
September 1828
3
False
With whom did Chopin go to Berlin?
56cf69144df3c31400b0d746
Feliks Jarocki
96
False
While in Berlin he saw the operatic work of who?
56cf69144df3c31400b0d747
Gaspare Spontini
140
False
In 1829 on a trip back to Berlin Chopin was a guest of who?
56cf69144df3c31400b0d748
Prince Antoni Radziwiłł
299
False
What piece did Chopin create for Prince Antoni?
56cf69144df3c31400b0d749
Introduction and Polonaise brillante in C major for cello and piano, Op. 3
479
False
What year did Chopin visit Berlin while still a student?
56d3148359d6e41400146218
1828
13
False
Who did Chopin go to Berlin with?
56d3148359d6e41400146219
Feliks Jarocki
96
False
What did the person who Chopin went with to Berlin do for his work?
56d3148359d6e4140014621a
zoologist
86
False
Who directed the operas they enjoyed in Berlin?
56d3148359d6e4140014621b
Gaspare Spontini
140
False
What year did Chopin return to Berlin?
56d3148359d6e4140014621c
1829
253
False
In September 1828 Chopin, while still a student, visited Berlin with a family friend, zoologist Feliks Jarocki, enjoying operas directed by Gaspare Spontini and attending concerts by Carl Friedrich Zelter, Felix Mendelssohn and other celebrities. On an 1829 return trip to Berlin, he was a guest of Prince Antoni Radziwiłł, governor of the Grand Duchy of Posen—himself an accomplished composer and aspiring cellist. For the prince and his pianist daughter Wanda, he composed his Introduction and Polonaise brillante in C major for cello and piano, Op. 3.
What did Frédéric compose after hearing Niccolò Paganini perform on the violin?
56cbedde6d243a140015edf2
Souvenir de Paganini
107
False
During what month did Frédéric make his first appearance in Vienna?
56cbedde6d243a140015edf4
August
286
False
How many piano concerts did Frédéric perform in Vienna during this time?
56cbedde6d243a140015edf5
two
400
False
On what date did Frédéric give his first performance of Piano Concerto No. 2 in F minor, Op. 21?
56cbedde6d243a140015edf6
17 March 1830
871
False
What did Chopin compose after hearing Niccolo Paganini?
56cf6af94df3c31400b0d761
Souvenir de Paganini
107
False
Where did Chopin debut after completing his studies?
56cf6af94df3c31400b0d762
Vienna
384
False
What piece did Chopin debut after returning to Warsaw?
56cf6af94df3c31400b0d763
Piano Concerto No. 2 in F minor, Op. 21
828
False
When did Chopin return to Warsaw?
56cf6af94df3c31400b0d764
September 1829
789
False
Why did some critics say that Chopin was too delicate?
56cf6af94df3c31400b0d765
accustomed to the piano-bashing of local artists
547
False
Who did Chopin hear play violin in 1829 that prompted him to write a composisition?
56d315d159d6e41400146222
Niccolò Paganini
39
False
Where did Chopin make his debut after completing his education?
56d315d159d6e41400146223
Vienna
384
False
How many public performances did Chopin do where he made his debut after completing his education?
56d315d159d6e41400146224
two
400
False
How many weeks after completing school was it before Chopin made his public debut?
56d315d159d6e41400146225
three
294
False
Back in Warsaw that year, Chopin heard Niccolò Paganini play the violin, and composed a set of variations, Souvenir de Paganini. It may have been this experience which encouraged him to commence writing his first Études, (1829–32), exploring the capacities of his own instrument. On 11 August, three weeks after completing his studies at the Warsaw Conservatory, he made his debut in Vienna. He gave two piano concerts and received many favourable reviews—in addition to some commenting (in Chopin's own words) that he was "too delicate for those accustomed to the piano-bashing of local artists". In one of these concerts, he premiered his Variations on Là ci darem la mano, Op. 2 (variations on an aria from Mozart's opera Don Giovanni) for piano and orchestra. He returned to Warsaw in September 1829, where he premiered his Piano Concerto No. 2 in F minor, Op. 21 on 17 March 1830.
On what date did Frédéric begin his journey into Western Europe?
56cbef3a6d243a140015edfc
2 November 1830
97
False
Which country did Frédéric go to first after setting out for Western Europe?
56cbef3a6d243a140015edfd
Austria
263
False
In what year did his companion Woyciechowski depart to Poland to enlist for the uprising in Warsaw?
56cbef3a6d243a140015edfe
1830
343
False
What historian commented that the events involving Frédéric's friend in Poland contributed to his maturing?
56cbef3a6d243a140015ee00
Zdzisław Jachimecki
142
False
Who said that Chopin set out "into the wide world, with no very clearly defined aim, forever?"
56cf6ca44df3c31400b0d777
Zdzisław Jachimecki
142
False
Who did Chopin leave for Austria with?
56cf6ca44df3c31400b0d778
Woyciechowski
234
False
Where did Chopin intend to go after Austria?
56cf6ca44df3c31400b0d779
Italy
294
False
Woyciechowski left Chopin to enlist in what?
56cf6ca44df3c31400b0d77a
the November 1830 Uprising
330
False
What geographicla region was opened for Chopin due to his composing and performances?
56d3171959d6e4140014622c
western Europe
66
False
When Chopin started to take his music to the world, what is the last name of the person who went with him to Austria?
56d3171959d6e4140014622d
Woyciechowski
234
False
What year did the uprising begin in Warsaw?
56d3171959d6e4140014622e
1830
108
False
What were the words Chopin wrote to a friend when he was alone and homesick?
56d3171959d6e4140014622f
"I curse the moment of my departure."
500
False
What year did Chopin learn that the uprising in Warsaw was crushed?
56d3171959d6e41400146230
1831
556
False
Chopin's successes as a composer and performer opened the door to western Europe for him, and on 2 November 1830, he set out, in the words of Zdzisław Jachimecki, "into the wide world, with no very clearly defined aim, forever." With Woyciechowski, he headed for Austria, intending to go on to Italy. Later that month, in Warsaw, the November 1830 Uprising broke out, and Woyciechowski returned to Poland to enlist. Chopin, now alone in Vienna, was nostalgic for his homeland, and wrote to a friend, "I curse the moment of my departure." When in September 1831 he learned, while travelling from Vienna to Paris, that the uprising had been crushed, he expressed his anguish in the pages of his private journal: "Oh God! ... You are there, and yet you do not take vengeance!" Jachimecki ascribes to these events the composer's maturing "into an inspired national bard who intuited the past, present and future of his native Poland."
What event was Frédéric a part of when he arrived in Paris during the later part of September in 1831?
56cbf12a6d243a140015ee06
the Polish Great Emigration
122
False
What version of Frédéric's birth name did he begin using after arriving in France?
56cbf12a6d243a140015ee07
French
173
False
In what year did Frédéric officially acquire French citizenship?
56cbf12a6d243a140015ee08
1835
251
False
What were the two kinds of relationships stated as Frédéric having with his fellow Poland natives in exile?
56cbf12a6d243a140015ee09
friends and confidants
355
False
What nationality is stated as the one Frédéric felt most identified by?
56cbf12a6d243a140015ee0a
Polish
126
False
When did Chopin reach Paris?
56cf6d3e4df3c31400b0d781
September 1831
32
False
By not going back to Poland Chopin became part of what?
56cf6d3e4df3c31400b0d782
Polish Great Emigration
126
False
In what year did Chopin become a French citizen?
56cf6d3e4df3c31400b0d783
1835
251
False
What is the name of Chopin's biographer?
56cf6d3e4df3c31400b0d784
Adam Zamoyski
451
False
After 1831, what country did Chopin never return to?
56d318f359d6e41400146236
Poland
73
False
What country's passport did he have from 1835?
56d318f359d6e41400146237
France
154
False
What language was Chopin never completely at ease speaking?
56d318f359d6e41400146238
French
173
False
What biographer of Chopin wrote that Chopin never considered himself French?
56d318f359d6e41400146239
Adam Zamoyski
451
False
Due to the numbers of expatriates of Poland after the uprising, what did it become to be known as?
56d318f359d6e4140014623a
Polish Great Emigration
126
False
Chopin arrived in Paris in late September 1831; he would never return to Poland, thus becoming one of many expatriates of the Polish Great Emigration. In France he used the French versions of his given names, and after receiving French citizenship in 1835, he travelled on a French passport. However, Chopin remained close to his fellow Poles in exile as friends and confidants and he never felt fully comfortable speaking French. Chopin's biographer Adam Zamoyski writes that he never considered himself to be French, despite his father's French origins, and always saw himself as a Pole.
In what city did Frédéric achieve celebrity status?
56cbf37e6d243a140015ee10
Paris
3
False
Who was the principal of the Polish Literary Society that Frédéric became acquainted with?
56cbf37e6d243a140015ee12
Adam Mickiewicz
368
False
What did Frédéric create from verses of the poet Adam Mickiewicz?
56cbf37e6d243a140015ee13
songs
458
False
What poet did Chopin use verses from for songs?
56cf6e0d4df3c31400b0d789
Adam Mickiewicz
368
False
What people did Chopin meet while in Paris?
56cf6e0d4df3c31400b0d78a
Hector Berlioz, Franz Liszt, Ferdinand Hiller, Heinrich Heine, Eugène Delacroix, and Alfred de Vigny
225
False
What was the name of the poet Chopin became acquainted with in Paris?
56d319d459d6e41400146240
Adam Mickiewicz
368
False
What position did the poet who Chopin knew in Paris hold?
56d319d459d6e41400146241
principal of the Polish Literary Society
385
False
In Paris, Chopin encountered artists and other distinguished figures, and found many opportunities to exercise his talents and achieve celebrity. During his years in Paris he was to become acquainted with, among many others, Hector Berlioz, Franz Liszt, Ferdinand Hiller, Heinrich Heine, Eugène Delacroix, and Alfred de Vigny. Chopin was also acquainted with the poet Adam Mickiewicz, principal of the Polish Literary Society, some of whose verses he set as songs.
Which friend of Frédéric failed to achieve success in England?
56cbf5106d243a140015ee18
Julian Fontana
133
False
Who was Frédéric's trusted adviser while in Paris?
56cbf5106d243a140015ee19
Albert Grzymała
218
False
What familial role was Albert Grzymała compared to in regards to Frédéric?
56cbf5106d243a140015ee1a
elder brother
368
False
Who is stated as a jack of all trades in service to Frédéric?
56cbf5106d243a140015ee1b
Julian Fontana
133
False
What nationality were the two friends who served as a pivotal influence in Frédéric's life while in Paris?
56cbf5106d243a140015ee1c
Polish
4
False
Julian Fontana tried to find his way where before moving to Paris?
56cf6f874df3c31400b0d796
England
209
False
Where did Julian Fontana fail to get established?
56d31b3759d6e41400146244
England
209
False
Who did Chopin know that became rich in Paris?
56d31b3759d6e41400146245
Albert Grzymała
218
False
Which friend of Chopin became like an older brother to him?
56d31b3759d6e41400146246
Albert Grzymała
218
False
Which friend took on the role of several jobs to help Chopin including copyist?
56d31b3759d6e41400146247
Julian Fontana
133
False
Where were Chopin and Fontana students together?
56d31b3759d6e41400146248
Warsaw Conservatory
112
False
Two Polish friends in Paris were also to play important roles in Chopin's life there. His fellow student at the Warsaw Conservatory, Julian Fontana, had originally tried unsuccessfully to establish himself in England; Albert Grzymała, who in Paris became a wealthy financier and society figure, often acted as Chopin's adviser and "gradually began to fill the role of elder brother in [his] life." Fontana was to become, in the words of Michałowski and Samson, Chopin's "general factotum and copyist".
Who gave Frédéric his first significant public approval in regards to his compositions?
56cbf7d16d243a140015ee22
Robert Schumann
102
False
On what date did Frédéric give his first performance at the Salle Pleyel?
56cbf7d16d243a140015ee23
26 February 1832
275
False
What is stated as a hindrance for Frédéric's ability to perform in large concert spaces?
56cbf7d16d243a140015ee24
intimate keyboard technique
683
False
Who did Frédéric rely upon financially before earning a great income from his works?
56cbf7d16d243a140015ee25
his father
1166
False
From whom did Chopin receive his first big endorsement?
56cf70c74df3c31400b0d799
Robert Schumann
102
False
When did Chopin debut at Salle Pleyel ?
56cf70c74df3c31400b0d79a
26 February 1832
275
False
What affluent family did Chopin gain a patronage from?
56cf70c74df3c31400b0d79c
Rothschild
802
False
When did Chopin receive his first major endorsement from Robert Schumann?
56d31bfb59d6e4140014624e
1831
14
False
What did Chopin realize was not ideal for larger spaces after his first successful concert in Paris?
56d31bfb59d6e41400146250
keyboard technique
692
False
Once Chopin stopped performing concerts, how did he earn his income?
56d31bfb59d6e41400146252
publishing his works and teaching piano to affluent students
1244
False
At the end of 1831, Chopin received the first major endorsement from an outstanding contemporary when Robert Schumann, reviewing the Op. 2 Variations in the Allgemeine musikalische Zeitung (his first published article on music), declared: "Hats off, gentlemen! A genius." On 26 February 1832 Chopin gave a debut Paris concert at the Salle Pleyel which drew universal admiration. The critic François-Joseph Fétis wrote in the Revue et gazette musicale: "Here is a young man who ... taking no model, has found, if not a complete renewal of piano music, ... an abundance of original ideas of a kind to be found nowhere else ..." After this concert, Chopin realized that his essentially intimate keyboard technique was not optimal for large concert spaces. Later that year he was introduced to the wealthy Rothschild banking family, whose patronage also opened doors for him to other private salons (social gatherings of the aristocracy and artistic and literary elite). By the end of 1832 Chopin had established himself among the Parisian musical elite, and had earned the respect of his peers such as Hiller, Liszt, and Berlioz. He no longer depended financially upon his father, and in the winter of 1832 he began earning a handsome income from publishing his works and teaching piano to affluent students from all over Europe. This freed him from the strains of public concert-giving, which he disliked.
What was Frédéric's favorite environment to perform in?
56cbfa0e6d243a140015ee2d
his own Paris apartment for small groups of friends
218
False
What instrument did Frédéric play in a performance on 23 March 1833?
56cbfa0e6d243a140015ee2e
pianos
738
False
Chopin gave a yearly performance where?
56cf75794df3c31400b0d7d1
Salle Pleyel
107
False
Chopin worked with Liszt on what piece?
56cf75794df3c31400b0d7d2
Hexameron
1080
False
In 1833 with whom with Chopin work to get his music published?
56cf75794df3c31400b0d7d3
Maurice Schlesinger
1234
False
What is the name of Chopin's pupil who performed with him?
56cf75794df3c31400b0d7d4
Adolphe Gutmann
850
False
Where did Chopin prefer to play for people?
56d31dcb59d6e41400146259
apartment
232
False
On March 23, 1833, who headlined and performed with Chopin at a concert?
56d31dcb59d6e4140014625b
Liszt and Hiller
707
False
Who did Chopin contract with for publishing his music?
56d31dcb59d6e4140014625c
Maurice Schlesinger
1234
False
Chopin seldom performed publicly in Paris. In later years he generally gave a single annual concert at the Salle Pleyel, a venue that seated three hundred. He played more frequently at salons, but preferred playing at his own Paris apartment for small groups of friends. The musicologist Arthur Hedley has observed that "As a pianist Chopin was unique in acquiring a reputation of the highest order on the basis of a minimum of public appearances—few more than thirty in the course of his lifetime." The list of musicians who took part in some of his concerts provides an indication of the richness of Parisian artistic life during this period. Examples include a concert on 23 March 1833, in which Chopin, Liszt and Hiller performed (on pianos) a concerto by J.S. Bach for three keyboards; and, on 3 March 1838, a concert in which Chopin, his pupil Adolphe Gutmann, Charles-Valentin Alkan, and Alkan's teacher Joseph Zimmermann performed Alkan's arrangement, for eight hands, of two movements from Beethoven's 7th symphony. Chopin was also involved in the composition of Liszt's Hexameron; he wrote the sixth (and final) variation on Bellini's theme. Chopin's music soon found success with publishers, and in 1833 he contracted with Maurice Schlesinger, who arranged for it to be published not only in France but, through his family connections, also in Germany and England.
Who did Frédéric meet in the spring of 1834 at the Lower Rhenish Music Festival?
56cbfbdd6d243a140015ee36
Felix Mendelssohn
137
False
What two activities did Frédéric do while visiting for a day in Düsseldorf with Mendelssohn and Hiller?
56cbfbdd6d243a140015ee37
playing and discussing music
326
False
Who was the director of the Academy of Art that Frédéric met while in Düsseldorf?
56cbfbdd6d243a140015ee38
Friedrich Wilhelm Schadow
377
False
Where were Frédéric's parents located at when he saw them for the final time in 1835?
56cbfbdd6d243a140015ee39
Carlsbad
540
False
Where did Chopin meet Felix Mendelssohn?
56cf7b8a4df3c31400b0d81f
the Lower Rhenish Music Festival
39
False
Who did Chopin attend the Lower Rhenish Music Festival with?
56cf7b8a4df3c31400b0d820
Hiller
96
False
In 1835 where did Chopin and his parents visit?
56cf7b8a4df3c31400b0d821
Carlsbad
540
False
When did Chopin propose marriage to Maria Wodziński?
56cf7b8a4df3c31400b0d822
July 1836
1268
False
Who was Maria's mother?
56cf7b8a4df3c31400b0d823
Countess Wodzińska
1405
False
Who did Chopin meet at a music festival early in 1834?
56d31f8a59d6e41400146262
Felix Mendelssohn
137
False
Where did Chopin and Hiller go with the person Chopin met in the spring of 1834?
56d31f8a59d6e41400146263
Düsseldorf
194
False
What was Friedrich Wilhelm Schadow position?
56d31f8a59d6e41400146264
director of the Academy of Art
404
False
What was the first name of the girl Chopin proposed to?
56d31f8a59d6e41400146266
Maria
749
False
In the spring of 1834, Chopin attended the Lower Rhenish Music Festival in Aix-la-Chapelle with Hiller, and it was there that Chopin met Felix Mendelssohn. After the festival, the three visited Düsseldorf, where Mendelssohn had been appointed musical director. They spent what Mendelssohn described as "a very agreeable day", playing and discussing music at his piano, and met Friedrich Wilhelm Schadow, director of the Academy of Art, and some of his eminent pupils such as Lessing, Bendemann, Hildebrandt and Sohn. In 1835 Chopin went to Carlsbad, where he spent time with his parents; it was the last time he would see them. On his way back to Paris, he met old friends from Warsaw, the Wodzińskis. He had made the acquaintance of their daughter Maria in Poland five years earlier, when she was eleven. This meeting prompted him to stay for two weeks in Dresden, when he had previously intended to return to Paris via Leipzig. The sixteen-year-old girl's portrait of the composer is considered, along with Delacroix's, as among Chopin's best likenesses. In October he finally reached Leipzig, where he met Schumann, Clara Wieck and Felix Mendelssohn, who organised for him a performance of his own oratorio St. Paul, and who considered him "a perfect musician". In July 1836 Chopin travelled to Marienbad and Dresden to be with the Wodziński family, and in September he proposed to Maria, whose mother Countess Wodzińska approved in principle. Chopin went on to Leipzig, where he presented Schumann with his G minor Ballade. At the end of 1836 he sent Maria an album in which his sister Ludwika had inscribed seven of his songs, and his 1835 Nocturne in C-sharp minor, Op. 27, No. 1. The anodyne thanks he received from Maria proved to be the last letter he was to have from her.
Who was the recipient of Frédéric's letter he wrote on 12 December 1831?
56cbfcda6d243a140015ee40
Woyciechowski
145
False
What are the three names stated in Frédéric's letter that he had shown interest and curiosity in?
56cbfcda6d243a140015ee41
Herz, Liszt, Hiller
274
False
Who is stated as being in attendance of Frédéric's first performance at the Salle Pleyel on 26 February 1832?
56cbfcda6d243a140015ee42
Liszt
55
False
What was the date that LIszt first saw Chopin perform?
56cf75c64df3c31400b0d7d9
26 February 1832
355
False
Which friend received the letter in which Chopin referenced Liszt?
56d3202159d6e4140014626d
Woyciechowski
145
False
Where was Chopin's first concert in Paris held?
56d3202159d6e4140014626f
the Salle Pleyel
375
False
Although it is not known exactly when Chopin first met Liszt after arriving in Paris, on 12 December 1831 he mentioned in a letter to his friend Woyciechowski that "I have met Rossini, Cherubini, Baillot, etc.—also Kalkbrenner. You would not believe how curious I was about Herz, Liszt, Hiller, etc." Liszt was in attendance at Chopin's Parisian debut on 26 February 1832 at the Salle Pleyel, which led him to remark: "The most vigorous applause seemed not to suffice to our enthusiasm in the presence of this talented musician, who revealed a new phase of poetic sentiment combined with such happy innovation in the form of his art."
What address did Frédéric live at during his stay in Paris?
56cbff116d243a140015ee46
38 Rue de la Chaussée-d'Antin
88
False
How far down the road did Liszt live from Frédéric during this time?
56cbff116d243a140015ee47
a few blocks
172
False
How many times did Frédéric and Liszt collaborate in performances during the years of 1833 to 1841?
56cbff116d243a140015ee48
seven
218
False
For whose benefit was the first of these concerts performed for on 2 April 1833?
56cbff116d243a140015ee49
Harriet Smithson
382
False
At which two establishments was the last of these performances conducted at on 25 and 26 April 1841?
56cbff116d243a140015ee4a
Salle Pleyel and the Paris Conservatory
709
False
When was the first time Liszt and Chopin performed together?
56cf7c234df3c31400b0d832
2 April 1833
271
False
What was the charity that Liszt and Chopin last performed for?
56cf7c234df3c31400b0d834
the Beethoven Memorial in Bonn
665
False
Where did Liszt and Chopin last perform together?
56cf7c234df3c31400b0d835
Salle Pleyel and the Paris Conservatory
709
False
When Liszt lived close to Chopin, where did he call home?
56d320bf59d6e41400146274
the Hôtel de France on the Rue Lafitte
132
False
How many times did Chopin and Liszy perform together in public?
56d320bf59d6e41400146276
seven
218
False
Who did the first concert of Chopin and Liszt benefit?
56d320bf59d6e41400146277
Harriet Smithson
382
False
The two became friends, and for many years lived in close proximity in Paris, Chopin at 38 Rue de la Chaussée-d'Antin, and Liszt at the Hôtel de France on the Rue Lafitte, a few blocks away. They performed together on seven occasions between 1833 and 1841. The first, on 2 April 1833, was at a benefit concert organized by Hector Berlioz for his bankrupt Shakespearean actress wife Harriet Smithson, during which they played George Onslow's Sonata in F minor for piano duet. Later joint appearances included a benefit concert for the Benevolent Association of Polish Ladies in Paris. Their last appearance together in public was for a charity concert conducted for the Beethoven Memorial in Bonn, held at the Salle Pleyel and the Paris Conservatory on 25 and 26 April 1841.
What term describes the qualities of the relationship between Frédéric and Liszt?
56cc02376d243a140015ee50
love-hate relationship
128
False
What three qualities of Liszt are stated to have captivated Frédéric?
56cc02376d243a140015ee51
theatricality, showmanship and success
346
False
What did Frédéric receive from Liszt when the latter performed a nocturne with certain embellishments added?
56cc02376d243a140015ee52
an apology
805
False
What did Frédéric introduce Liszt as in when referring to him in his letters up to 1848?
56cc02376d243a140015ee53
my friend Liszt
983
False
What piece did Chopin dedicate to Liszt?
56cfdb3e234ae51400d9bf7d
Op. 10 Études
422
False
What was the name of Liszt's mistress?
56cfdb3e234ae51400d9bf7f
Marie d'Agoult
1168
False
Who did Chopin dedicate the Op. 10 Études to?
56d3227259d6e4140014627e
Liszt
243
False
Who apologized to Chopin for adding embellishments to a musical piece he perforemed that was written by Chopin?
56d3227259d6e4140014627f
Liszt
243
False
What was the name of Liszt's mistress?
56d3227259d6e41400146280
Marie d'Agoult
1168
False
Who did Chopin write to displaying his desire to take away a performers ability to play his music?
56d3227259d6e41400146281
Hiller
499
False
What was the name of the man who biogrpahers think Chopin was concerned about Liszt's growing relationship with?
56d3227259d6e41400146282
George Sand
1302
False
Although the two displayed great respect and admiration for each other, their friendship was uneasy and had some qualities of a love-hate relationship. Harold C. Schonberg believes that Chopin displayed a "tinge of jealousy and spite" towards Liszt's virtuosity on the piano, and others have also argued that he had become enchanted with Liszt's theatricality, showmanship and success. Liszt was the dedicatee of Chopin's Op. 10 Études, and his performance of them prompted the composer to write to Hiller, "I should like to rob him of the way he plays my studies." However, Chopin expressed annoyance in 1843 when Liszt performed one of his nocturnes with the addition of numerous intricate embellishments, at which Chopin remarked that he should play the music as written or not play it at all, forcing an apology. Most biographers of Chopin state that after this the two had little to do with each other, although in his letters dated as late as 1848 he still referred to him as "my friend Liszt". Some commentators point to events in the two men's romantic lives which led to a rift between them; there are claims that Liszt had displayed jealousy of his mistress Marie d'Agoult's obsession with Chopin, while others believe that Chopin had become concerned about Liszt's growing relationship with George Sand.
Who was the host of the gathering where Frédéric was introduced to George Sand?
56cc06496d243a140015ee5a
Marie d'Agoult
30
False
What did Frédéric label the place in which he placed Maria and her mother's letters about the unlikely marriage?
56cc06496d243a140015ee5d
My tragedy
713
False
Who did George Sand write to when admitting having a strong affection for Frédéric?
56cc06496d243a140015ee5e
Grzymała
747
False
What is the name of the author Chopin met at a gathering put on by Marie d'Agoult?
56cfdc7f234ae51400d9bf8b
George Sand
75
False
What was a possible reason for Chopin's failed engagement to Maria Wodzińska?
56cfdc7f234ae51400d9bf8e
his poor health
503
False
What did Chopin write on the box of letters from Maria and her mother?
56cfdc7f234ae51400d9bf8f
My tragedy
713
False
Who hosted the party whre Chopin met George Sand?
56d3234159d6e41400146288
Marie d'Agoult
30
False
What year did Maria Wodzińska's mother tell Chopin that he likely would not marry her daughter?
56d3234159d6e41400146289
1837
327
False
What did Chopin write on the package that contained letters from Maria and her mother?
56d3234159d6e4140014628b
My tragedy
713
False
Who did Sand confide to in a letter about her feelings for Chopin in June, 1838?
56d3234159d6e4140014628c
Grzymała
747
False
In 1836, at a party hosted by Marie d'Agoult, Chopin met the French author George Sand (born [Amantine] Aurore [Lucile] Dupin). Short (under five feet, or 152 cm), dark, big-eyed and a cigar smoker, she initially repelled Chopin, who remarked, "What an unattractive person la Sand is. Is she really a woman?" However, by early 1837 Maria Wodzińska's mother had made it clear to Chopin in correspondence that a marriage with her daughter was unlikely to proceed. It is thought that she was influenced by his poor health and possibly also by rumours about his associations with women such as d'Agoult and Sand. Chopin finally placed the letters from Maria and her mother in a package on which he wrote, in Polish, "My tragedy". Sand, in a letter to Grzymała of June 1838, admitted strong feelings for the composer and debated whether to abandon a current affair in order to begin a relationship with Chopin; she asked Grzymała to assess Chopin's relationship with Maria Wodzińska, without realising that the affair, at least from Maria's side, was over.
What city did Frédéric visit in June 1837?
56cc07886d243a140015ee64
London
28
False
What event occurred on Frédéric's return to Paris?
56cc07886d243a140015ee65
his association with Sand began in earnest
214
False
How many years older was George Sand compared to Frédéric?
56cc07886d243a140015ee66
six
324
False
What adjective is used to describe Frédéric and Sand's time together during the winter of 1838?
56cc07886d243a140015ee67
miserable
660
False
Where did Frédéric and Sand venture to after Majorca became unlivable when it was discovered they were not married?
56cc07886d243a140015ee68
Valldemossa
1194
False
With whom did Chopin go to London with in 1837?
56cfdd64234ae51400d9bf97
Camille Pleyel
86
False
What was James Broadwood's occupation?
56cfdd64234ae51400d9bf98
piano maker
161
False
How much older was George Sands than Chopin?
56cfdd64234ae51400d9bf99
six years
324
False
During Sands and Chopin's visit to Majorca who were they fleeing?
56cfdd64234ae51400d9bf9a
Félicien Mallefille
932
False
After it became known that Sands and Chopin were unmarried where did they end up taking up shelter?
56cfdd64234ae51400d9bf9b
a former Carthusian monastery
1161
False
When did Chopin and Sand become lovers?
56d323fb59d6e41400146292
June 1838
276
False
Where did Chopin and Sand go between November 1838 and February 1839?
56d323fb59d6e41400146293
Majorca
680
False
Who joined Chopin and Sand on their trip to Majorca?
56d323fb59d6e41400146294
Sand's two children
748
False
One of the reasons Chopin and Sand went to Majorca was to escape the threats of who?
56d323fb59d6e41400146295
Félicien Mallefille.
932
False
Where did Chopin and Sand stay in Valldemossa?
56d323fb59d6e41400146296
a former Carthusian monastery
1161
False
In June 1837 Chopin visited London incognito in the company of the piano manufacturer Camille Pleyel where he played at a musical soirée at the house of English piano maker James Broadwood. On his return to Paris, his association with Sand began in earnest, and by the end of June 1838 they had become lovers. Sand, who was six years older than the composer, and who had had a series of lovers, wrote at this time: "I must say I was confused and amazed at the effect this little creature had on me ... I have still not recovered from my astonishment, and if I were a proud person I should be feeling humiliated at having been carried away ..." The two spent a miserable winter on Majorca (8 November 1838 to 13 February 1839), where, together with Sand's two children, they had journeyed in the hope of improving the health of Chopin and that of Sand's 15-year-old son Maurice, and also to escape the threats of Sand's former lover Félicien Mallefille. After discovering that the couple were not married, the deeply traditional Catholic people of Majorca became inhospitable, making accommodation difficult to find. This compelled the group to take lodgings in a former Carthusian monastery in Valldemossa, which gave little shelter from the cold winter weather.
How many doctors saw Frédéric by the 3rd of December?
56cc08eb6d243a140015ee6e
Three
103
False
What did Frédéric have trouble playing as a result of his growing illness?
56cc08eb6d243a140015ee6f
piano
272
False
What condition did Frédéric describe the piano that arrived to him through many dangerous obstacles?
56cc08eb6d243a140015ee70
best possible condition
475
False
How many doctors visited Chopin?
56cfddc4234ae51400d9bfa1
3
3
False
What month did Chopin's piano arrive?
56cfddc4234ae51400d9bfa2
December
5
False
What did Chopin compalin about?
56d347fb59d6e4140014629c
his bad health
39
False
What did Chopin have a hard time getting delivered to Majorca?
56d347fb59d6e4140014629d
his Pleyel piano
261
False
What month did Chopin's Pleyel piano arrive in Majorca?
56d347fb59d6e4140014629f
December
5
False
Who did Chopin send his Preludes to?
56d347fb59d6e414001462a0
Pleyel
265
False
On 3 December, Chopin complained about his bad health and the incompetence of the doctors in Majorca: "Three doctors have visited me ... The first said I was dead; the second said I was dying; and the third said I was about to die." He also had problems having his Pleyel piano sent to him. It finally arrived from Paris in December. Chopin wrote to Pleyel in January 1839: "I am sending you my Preludes [(Op. 28)]. I finished them on your little piano, which arrived in the best possible condition in spite of the sea, the bad weather and the Palma customs." Chopin was also able to undertake work on his Ballade No. 2, Op. 38; two Polonaises, Op. 40; and the Scherzo No. 3, Op. 39.
What is stated as having a negative effect on Frédéric's health during this productive time?
56cc0d816d243a140015ee78
bad weather
46
False
What culture of French people did Sand sell the piano to?
56cc0d816d243a140015ee79
Canuts
232
False
What city did the group travel to in order to help Frédéric recover?
56cc0d816d243a140015ee7a
Marseilles
292
False
Where was Sand's estate located where they stayed for the summers until 1846?
56cc0d816d243a140015ee7b
Nohant
424
False
Where did Frédéric and Sand move to in 1842 in buildings next to each other?
56cc0d816d243a140015ee7c
Square d'Orléans
726
False
Who did Sand sell Chopin's piano to?
56cfde92234ae51400d9bfb7
the Canuts
228
False
Where did the group travel to after Barcelona?
56cfde92234ae51400d9bfb8
Marseilles
292
False
Where was Sand's home?
56cfde92234ae51400d9bfb9
Nohant
424
False
After returning to Paris where was Chopin's apartment?
56cfde92234ae51400d9bfba
5 rue Tronchet
536
False
In 1842 where did Chopin and Sand move?
56cfde92234ae51400d9bfbb
Square d'Orléans
726
False
What had a negative effect on Chopin's health?
56d34c7c59d6e414001462a6
the bad weather
42
False
Who did Sand sell the piano to?
56d34c7c59d6e414001462a7
the Canuts.
228
False
Where did they travel after leaving Barcelona?
56d34c7c59d6e414001462a8
Marseilles
292
False
Where did Chopin and Sand move to in 1842?
56d34c7c59d6e414001462a9
Square d'Orléans
726
False
Where did they spend most summers until 1846?
56d34c7c59d6e414001462aa
Nohant
424
False
Although this period had been productive, the bad weather had such a detrimental effect on Chopin's health that Sand determined to leave the island. To avoid further customs duties, Sand sold the piano to a local French couple, the Canuts.[n 8] The group traveled first to Barcelona, then to Marseilles, where they stayed for a few months while Chopin convalesced. In May 1839 they headed for the summer to Sand's estate at Nohant, where they spent most summers until 1846. In autumn they returned to Paris, where Chopin's apartment at 5 rue Tronchet was close to Sand's rented accommodation at the rue Pigalle. He frequently visited Sand in the evenings, but both retained some independence. In 1842 he and Sand moved to the Square d'Orléans, living in adjacent buildings.
What event were Chopin and Sand at on 26 July 1840?
56cc0f056d243a140015ee83
Berlioz's Grande symphonie funèbre et triomphale
240
False
What anniversary was the July Revolution that Sand and Chopin were present at a dress rehearsal for?
56cc0f056d243a140015ee84
tenth
318
False
At whose funeral did Chopin play in 1839?
56cfdf00234ae51400d9bfc7
Adolphe Nourrit
28
False
What instrument did Chopin play at  Adolphe Nourrit's funeral?
56cfdf00234ae51400d9bfc8
organ
99
False
What piece did Chopin play at  Adolphe Nourrit's funeral?
56cfdf00234ae51400d9bfc9
Franz Schubert's lied Die Gestirne
133
False
Chopin attended the funeral of who in 1839?
56d34dea59d6e414001462b0
Adolphe Nourrit
28
False
What did Chopin play at the funeral?
56d34dea59d6e414001462b1
Franz Schubert's lied Die Gestirne.
133
False
What was the dress rehearsal for?
56d34dea59d6e414001462b3
Berlioz's Grande symphonie funèbre et triomphale
240
False
It was in commemoration of the tenth anniversary of what?
56d34dea59d6e414001462b4
the July Revolution.
339
False
At the funeral of the tenor Adolphe Nourrit in Paris in 1839, Chopin made a rare appearance at the organ, playing a transcription of Franz Schubert's lied Die Gestirne. On 26 July 1840 Chopin and Sand were present at the dress rehearsal of Berlioz's Grande symphonie funèbre et triomphale, composed to commemorate the tenth anniversary of the July Revolution. Chopin was reportedly unimpressed with the composition.
What is the example given of a work produced by Frédéric during calm summers at Nohant?
56cc100b6d243a140015ee8a
Polonaise in A-flat major, Op. 53
152
False
Which of the two people that visited Chopin were tutored by him on piano?
56cc100b6d243a140015ee8c
Pauline Viardot
253
False
On what date did Delacroix write a letter based on his visit at Nohant?
56cc100b6d243a140015ee8d
7 June 1842
393
False
What did Chopin help Pauline Viardot with?
56cfdf7b234ae51400d9bfd6
piano technique and composition
297
False
Who were two visitors to Chopin while in Nohant?
56d34ffe59d6e414001462bb
Delacroix and the mezzo-soprano Pauline Viardot
221
False
What two things did Chopin advise Viardot on?
56d34ffe59d6e414001462bc
piano technique and composition.
297
False
Who wrote a letter on June 7, 1842 about a stay in Nohant?
56d34ffe59d6e414001462bd
Delacroix
221
False
During the summers at Nohant, particularly in the years 1839–43, Chopin found quiet, productive days during which he composed many works, including his Polonaise in A-flat major, Op. 53. Among the visitors to Nohant were Delacroix and the mezzo-soprano Pauline Viardot, whom Chopin had advised on piano technique and composition. Delacroix gives an account of staying at Nohant in a letter of 7 June 1842:
In which year did Chopin begin experiencing a serious decline in health?
56cc12376d243a140015ee92
1842
5
False
To whom did Chopin write a letter on 21 February 1842 about his agonizing pain?
56cc12376d243a140015ee93
Grzymała
122
False
What performance was Chopin forced to decline due to his increasing ill health?
56cc12376d243a140015ee94
Beethoven Seventh Symphony arrangement at Erard's
324
False
What instrument did Chopin play for Charles Hallé when the latter visited him?
56cc12376d243a140015ee95
piano
591
False
What has current day research suggested that Chopin was suffering from alongside his other illnesses?
56cc12376d243a140015ee96
temporal lobe epilepsy
786
False
Starting in what year did Chopin start showing evidence of very bad health?
56cfe09e234ae51400d9bfd9
1842
5
False
What second performance did Chopin have to decline to play?
56cfe09e234ae51400d9bfda
Beethoven Seventh Symphony arrangement
324
False
What specific illness does modern evidence point to Chopin having?
56cfe09e234ae51400d9bfdb
temporal lobe epilepsy
786
False
When did Chopin show signs of serious illness?
56d3536159d6e414001462c2
From 1842 onwards
0
False
Chopin wrote in 1842 that he had to lie in bed all day because what ached so much?
56d3536159d6e414001462c3
mouth and tonsils
171
False
Chopin had to decline who's invitation in 1843 to particpate in a performance at Erard's?
56d3536159d6e414001462c4
Alkan
272
False
Who visited Chopin in 1844 and wrote about his inability to move?
56d3536159d6e414001462c5
Charles Hallé
405
False
Modern medicine indicates Chopin may have suffered from what condition?
56d3536159d6e414001462c6
temporal lobe epilepsy.
786
False
From 1842 onwards, Chopin showed signs of serious illness. After a solo recital in Paris on 21 February 1842, he wrote to Grzymała: "I have to lie in bed all day long, my mouth and tonsils are aching so much." He was forced by illness to decline a written invitation from Alkan to participate in a repeat performance of the Beethoven Seventh Symphony arrangement at Erard's on 1 March 1843. Late in 1844, Charles Hallé visited Chopin and found him "hardly able to move, bent like a half-opened penknife and evidently in great pain", although his spirits returned when he started to play the piano for his visitor. Chopin's health continued to deteriorate, particularly from this time onwards. Modern research suggests that apart from any other illnesses, he may also have suffered from temporal lobe epilepsy.
What was the name of Sand's daughter's fiance that contributed to deteriorating the relationship between Sand and Chopin?
56cc13956d243a140015ee9c
Auguste Clésinger
149
False
What was the interest Sand had that Chopin showed apathy towards?
56cc13956d243a140015ee9d
radical political pursuits
330
False
What did Sand begin referring to Chopin as as his illness got worse?
56cc13956d243a140015ee9e
third child
535
False
What was the name of Sand's novel she published in reference to her situation with Chopin?
56cc13956d243a140015ee9f
Lucrezia Floriani
731
False
In what year did Chopin and Sand ultimately bring their relationship to a close?
56cc13956d243a140015eea0
1847
701
False
When did Chopin's relationship with Sand start to deteriorate?
56cfe169234ae51400d9bfeb
1846
44
False
Whom did Sand's daughter Solange become engaged to?
56cfe169234ae51400d9bfec
Auguste Clésinger
149
False
What novel did Sand write in 1847?
56cfe169234ae51400d9bfed
Lucrezia Floriani
731
False
Who was the fortune hunter engaged to Sand's daughter?
56d354c659d6e414001462cd
Auguste Clésinger.
149
False
What role did Sand take on as her relationship with Chopin progressed?
56d354c659d6e414001462ce
nurse
497
False
What was the name of Sand's book where the main characters can be interpreted as Sand and Chopin?
56d354c659d6e414001462cf
Lucrezia Floriani
731
False
When did Chopin end his relationship with Sand?
56d354c659d6e414001462d0
1847
701
False
Chopin's relations with Sand were soured in 1846 by problems involving her daughter Solange and Solange's fiancé, the young fortune-hunting sculptor Auguste Clésinger. The composer frequently took Solange's side in quarrels with her mother; he also faced jealousy from Sand's son Maurice. Chopin was utterly indifferent to Sand's radical political pursuits, while Sand looked on his society friends with disdain. As the composer's illness progressed, Sand had become less of a lover and more of a nurse to Chopin, whom she called her "third child". In letters to third parties, she vented her impatience, referring to him as a "child," a "little angel", a "sufferer" and a "beloved little corpse." In 1847 Sand published her novel Lucrezia Floriani, whose main characters—a rich actress and a prince in weak health—could be interpreted as Sand and Chopin; the story was uncomplimentary to Chopin, who could not have missed the allusions as he helped Sand correct the printer's galleys. In 1847 he did not visit Nohant, and he quietly ended their ten-year relationship following an angry correspondence which, in Sand's words, made "a strange conclusion to nine years of exclusive friendship." The two would never meet again.
What was the name of the single piece of work he wrote in 1844?
56cc15956d243a140015eea8
Op. 58 sonata
222
False
What can be said of these works compared to his work in other years even though the quantity was less?
56cc15956d243a140015eea9
more refined than many of his earlier compositions
315
False
How many pieces did Chopin write in 1841?
56cfe1d7234ae51400d9bff7
a dozen
119
False
How many pieces did Chopin compose in 1842?
56cfe1d7234ae51400d9bff8
six
139
False
What piece did Chopin compose in 1844?
56cfe1d7234ae51400d9bff9
Op. 58 sonata
222
False
How many works did Chopin write in 1842?
56d3af3e2ccc5a1400d82e41
six
139
False
How many works did Chopin write in 1843?
56d3af3e2ccc5a1400d82e42
six shorter pieces
168
False
How many works did Chopin write in 1845?
56d3af3e2ccc5a1400d82e44
three mazurkas
264
False
Chopin's output as a composer throughout this period declined in quantity year by year. Whereas in 1841 he had written a dozen works, only six were written in 1842 and six shorter pieces in 1843. In 1844 he wrote only the Op. 58 sonata. 1845 saw the completion of three mazurkas (Op. 59). Although these works were more refined than many of his earlier compositions, Zamoyski opines that "his powers of concentration were failing and his inspiration was beset by anguish, both emotional and intellectual."
In what month and year did Chopin give his final performance?
56cc16bb6d243a140015eeb1
February 1848
202
False
With whom did Chopin perform his final concert?
56cc16bb6d243a140015eeb2
Auguste Franchomme
234
False
When did Chopin last perform?
56cfe20f234ae51400d9c003
February 1848
202
False
Who did Chopin last perform with?
56cfe20f234ae51400d9c004
Auguste Franchomme
234
False
Plitical strife, popularity decline, instability of era and fewer students caused Chopin to what?
56d3ae792ccc5a1400d82e3a
struggle financially.
177
False
Who did Chopin have at his last Parisian concert in 1848?
56d3ae792ccc5a1400d82e3b
Auguste Franchomme
234
False
What instrument did Auguste Franchomme play?
56d3ae792ccc5a1400d82e3c
Cello
324
False
Chopin's public popularity as a virtuoso began to wane, as did the number of his pupils, and this, together with the political strife and instability of the time, caused him to struggle financially. In February 1848, with the cellist Auguste Franchomme, he gave his last Paris concert, which included three movements of the Cello Sonata Op. 65.
What television station made a documentary on Chopin?
56cea7efaab44d1400b888f5
BBC
31
False
What two people created a documentary on Chopin for Italian tv?
56cea7efaab44d1400b888f6
Angelo Bozzolini and Roberto Prosseda
132
False
What was the title of the documentary the BBC released?
56cea7efaab44d1400b888f7
The Women Behind The Music
59
False
What television station released a documentary on Chopin?
56cf4d7eaab44d1400b88f80
BBC
31
False
What was the name of the documentary released by the BBC?
56cf4d7eaab44d1400b88f81
Chopin – The Women Behind The Music
50
False
What are the names of the two people that created a documentary for Italian tele vision?
56cf4d7eaab44d1400b88f82
Angelo Bozzolini and Roberto Prosseda
132
False
Who did a work for Italian television about Chopin's life?
56d3ad7a2ccc5a1400d82e2f
Angelo Bozzolini and Roberto Prosseda
132
False
Chopin's life was covered in a BBC TV documentary Chopin – The Women Behind The Music (2010), and in a 2010 documentary realised by Angelo Bozzolini and Roberto Prosseda for Italian television.
What was the name of the 1945 movie released about Chopin?
56cf4e5faab44d1400b88f90
A Song to Remember
119
False
What is the name of the actor who received and Oscar nomination for his role as Chopin?
56cf4e5faab44d1400b88f91
Cornel Wilde
145
False
What year was  La valse de l'adieu released?
56cf4e5faab44d1400b88f92
1928
301
False
Who starred as Chopin in Impromptu?
56cf4e5faab44d1400b88f93
Hugh Grant
384
False
Chopins relations with whom have been fictionalized in movies?
56cf4e5faab44d1400b88f94
George Sand
37
False
What 1945 film was a fictionalized accounting of the relationship between Chopin and Sand?
56d3ad1d2ccc5a1400d82e24
A Song to Remember
119
False
Who portrayed Chopin in A Song to Remember?
56d3ad1d2ccc5a1400d82e25
Cornel Wilde
145
False
Who portrayed Chopin in the 1928 film, La valse de l'adieu?
56d3ad1d2ccc5a1400d82e27
Pierre Blanchar
330
False
Who portrayed Chopin in the 1991 film, Impromptu?
56d3ad1d2ccc5a1400d82e28
Hugh Grant
384
False
Chopin's life and his relations with George Sand have been fictionalized in numerous films. The 1945 biographical film A Song to Remember earned Cornel Wilde an Academy Award nomination as Best Actor for his portrayal of the composer. Other film treatments have included: La valse de l'adieu (France, 1928) by Henry Roussel, with Pierre Blanchar as Chopin; Impromptu (1991), starring Hugh Grant as Chopin; La note bleue (1991); and Chopin: Desire for Love (2002).
When was the first fictionalized account of Chopin's life?
56cf4ee2aab44d1400b88fac
1901
188
False
Where was the first fictionalized account of Chopin's life created?
56cf4ee2aab44d1400b88fad
Milan
179
False
Who is responsible for the first fictionalized account of Chopin's life?
56cf4ee2aab44d1400b88fae
Giacomo Orefice
147
False
What is thought to be the first fictionalized work about Chopin?
56d3ac8e2ccc5a1400d82e1a
Chopin
56
False
What style is the fictionalized "Chopin" in?
56d3ac8e2ccc5a1400d82e1b
opera
85
False
Who wrote the fictionalized "Chopin?"
56d3ac8e2ccc5a1400d82e1c
Giacomo Orefice
147
False
When was the fictionalized "Chopin" produced?
56d3ac8e2ccc5a1400d82e1d
1901.
188
False
Where was the fictionalized "Chopin" produced?
56d3ac8e2ccc5a1400d82e1e
Milan
179
False
Possibly the first venture into fictional treatments of Chopin's life was a fanciful operatic version of some of its events. Chopin was written by Giacomo Orefice and produced in Milan in 1901. All the music is derived from that of Chopin.
An 1830 sonnet was written about Chopin by what man?
56cf50b2aab44d1400b88fbd
Leon Ulrich
205
False
Aside from George Sands what two French authors have written about Chopin?
56cf50b2aab44d1400b88fbe
Marcel Proust and André Gide
275
False
Leon Ulrich wrote about Chopin in what format?
56cf50b2aab44d1400b88fbf
sonnet
185
False
What is the earliest sighting of Chopin in Polish Literature?
56d3abf72ccc5a1400d82e02
sonnet on Chopin by Leon Ulrich
185
False
When did Ulrich do his sonnet on Chopin?
56d3abf72ccc5a1400d82e03
1830
180
False
In addition to Polish and French, what other language has numerous biogrpahies of Chopin?
56d3abf72ccc5a1400d82e04
English
422
False
Chopin has figured extensively in Polish literature, both in serious critical studies of his life and music and in fictional treatments. The earliest manifestation was probably an 1830 sonnet on Chopin by Leon Ulrich. French writers on Chopin (apart from Sand) have included Marcel Proust and André Gide; and he has also featured in works of Gottfried Benn and Boris Pasternak. There are numerous biographies of Chopin in English (see bibliography for some of these).
The Warsaw Chopin Society holds the Grand prix du disque de F. Chopin how often?
56cf5187aab44d1400b88fc4
every five years.
449
False
What is the name of the event that The Warsaw Chopin Society holds?
56cf5187aab44d1400b88fc5
Grand prix du disque de F. Chopin
379
False
On Chopin's 200th anniversary critics of what publication made recommendations on recordings of Chopin's work?
56cf5187aab44d1400b88fc6
The New York Times
115
False
Who organizes the Grand prix du disque de F. Chopin for notable Chopin recordings?
56d3ab7e2ccc5a1400d82dfc
The Warsaw Chopin Society
339
False
How often is the Grand prix du disque de F. Chopin for notable Chopin recordings held?
56d3ab7e2ccc5a1400d82dfd
every five years.
449
False
Upon Chopin's bicentenary, who recommended a list of who should perform Chopin?
56d3ab7e2ccc5a1400d82dfe
The New York Times
115
False
Numerous recordings of Chopin's works are available. On the occasion of the composer's bicentenary, the critics of The New York Times recommended performances by the following contemporary pianists (among many others): Martha Argerich, Vladimir Ashkenazy, Emanuel Ax, Evgeny Kissin, Murray Perahia, Maurizio Pollini and Krystian Zimerman. The Warsaw Chopin Society organizes the Grand prix du disque de F. Chopin for notable Chopin recordings, held every five years.
What year was the earliest Chopin recording created?
56cf5284aab44d1400b88fca
1895
145
False
What is the title of the earliest known recording of Chopin's work?
56cf5284aab44d1400b88fcb
Nocturne in E major Op. 62 No. 2
183
False
Who played the earlier known recording of Chopin's work?
56cf5284aab44d1400b88fcc
Paul Pabst
165
False
What has stated that every pianist in the recording era has used Chopin's music?
56d3aab62ccc5a1400d82dea
The British Library
0
False
When did Pabst record his Chopin performance?
56d3aab62ccc5a1400d82dec
1895
145
False
Who has given a discography of pianists' representation of Chopin's pedagogic style?
56d3aab62ccc5a1400d82ded
Methuen-Campbell
586
False
The British Library notes that "Chopin's works have been recorded by all the great pianists of the recording era." The earliest recording was an 1895 performance by Paul Pabst of the Nocturne in E major Op. 62 No. 2. The British Library site makes available a number of historic recordings, including some by Alfred Cortot, Ignaz Friedman, Vladimir Horowitz, Benno Moiseiwitsch, Paderewski, Arthur Rubinstein, Xaver Scharwenka and many others. A select discography of recordings of Chopin works by pianists representing the various pedagogic traditions stemming from Chopin is given by Methuen-Campbell in his work tracing the lineage and character of those traditions.
What is the name of the oldest music essay competition?
56cf5376aab44d1400b88fd8
International Chopin Piano Competition
152
False
What year was the International Chopin Piano Competition founded?
56cf5376aab44d1400b88fd9
1927
203
False
Where is the International Chopin Piano Competition held?
56cf5376aab44d1400b88fda
Warsaw
237
False
How often is the International Chopin Piano Competition held?
56cf5376aab44d1400b88fdb
every five years
217
False
The Fryderyk Chopin Institute of Poland includes approximately how many recordings of Chopin's work from Youtube?
56cf5376aab44d1400b88fdc
1,500
415
False
What is the world's oldest monographic music competition?
56d3aa352ccc5a1400d82de2
the International Chopin Piano Competition
148
False
When was the International Chopin Piano Competition established?
56d3aa352ccc5a1400d82de3
1927
203
False
There are over 80 societies throughout the world that have been established because of Chopin and his music according to who?
56d3aa352ccc5a1400d82de4
The Fryderyk Chopin Institute of Poland
245
False
How many known works of Chopin's music were on YouTube up to the beginning of 2014?
56d3aa352ccc5a1400d82de5
nearly 1,500
408
False
Chopin's music remains very popular and is regularly performed, recorded and broadcast worldwide. The world's oldest monographic music competition, the International Chopin Piano Competition, founded in 1927, is held every five years in Warsaw. The Fryderyk Chopin Institute of Poland lists on its website over eighty societies world-wide devoted to the composer and his music. The Institute site also lists nearly 1,500 performances of Chopin works on YouTube as of January 2014.
What is the name of the ballet that included Chopin's work?
56cf5433aab44d1400b88fee
Chopiniana
43
False
Who choreographed a ballet which included Chopin's work?
56cf5433aab44d1400b88fef
Michel Fokine
72
False
Chopiniana later went by a different name, what is that name?
56cf5433aab44d1400b88ff0
Les Sylphides
297
False
Who orchestrated Chopiniana?
56cf5433aab44d1400b88ff1
Alexander Glazunov
106
False
What year was the Chopiniana released?
56cf5433aab44d1400b88ff2
1909
31
False
Which 1909 ballet used Chopin's music?
56d3a9bb2ccc5a1400d82dda
Chopiniana
43
False
Who choreographed Chopiniana?
56d3a9bb2ccc5a1400d82ddb
Michel Fokine
72
False
Who orchestrated Chopiniana?
56d3a9bb2ccc5a1400d82ddc
Alexander Glazunov.
106
False
Sergei Diaghilev obtained additional orchestrations for subsequent productions, using which title?
56d3a9bb2ccc5a1400d82ddd
Les Sylphides.
297
False
Chopin's music was used in the 1909 ballet Chopiniana, choreographed by Michel Fokine and orchestrated by Alexander Glazunov. Sergei Diaghilev commissioned additional orchestrations—from Stravinsky, Anatoly Lyadov, Sergei Taneyev and Nikolai Tcherepnin—for later productions, which used the title Les Sylphides.
Where did Chopin head to during the Revolution of 1848?
56cfe4a4234ae51400d9c015
London
62
False
Who provided the majority of funds for his concert tour in London?
56cfe4a4234ae51400d9c016
Jane Stirling
206
False
Where did Chopin go in the spring of 1848?
56d3711659d6e414001463ce
London
62
False
What two people suggested the 1848 tour?
56d3711659d6e414001463cf
Jane Stirling and her elder sister
206
False
Who paid for most of the 1848 music tour of Chopin?
56d3711659d6e414001463d0
Jane Stirling
206
False
What was happening in April 1848 in Paris?
56d3711659d6e414001463d1
Revolution
21
False
What was Jane Stirling's national heritage?
56d3711659d6e414001463d2
Scottish
191
False
In April, during the Revolution of 1848 in Paris, he left for London, where he performed at several concerts and at numerous receptions in great houses. This tour was suggested to him by his Scottish pupil Jane Stirling and her elder sister. Stirling also made all the logistical arrangements and provided much of the necessary funding.
Where did Chopin stay while in London?
56cfe6cf234ae51400d9c03b
Dover Street
34
False
What company provided Chopin with a piano while in London?
56cfe6cf234ae51400d9c03c
Broadwood
66
False
Where was Chopin's initial performance?
56cfe6cf234ae51400d9c03d
Stafford House
147
False
What two notable guests were present during his premiere performance at Stafford House?
56cfe6cf234ae51400d9c03e
Queen Victoria and Prince Albert
185
False
What date did he perform with Viardot?
56cfe6cf234ae51400d9c03f
7 July
647
False
What steet did Chopin stay on in London?
56d372e959d6e41400146401
Dover Street
34
False
What did Broadway provide for Chopin?
56d372e959d6e41400146402
a grand piano.
94
False
What two dignitaries where at his first performance in London?
56d372e959d6e41400146403
Queen Victoria and Prince Albert.
185
False
In addition to hearing him play, what else did people seek from Chopin in London?
56d372e959d6e41400146404
piano lessons
463
False
Who sang chopin arrangements on July 7 of the year Chopin was in London?
56d372e959d6e41400146405
Viardot
682
False
In London Chopin took lodgings at Dover Street, where the firm of Broadwood provided him with a grand piano. At his first engagement, on 15 May at Stafford House, the audience included Queen Victoria and Prince Albert. The Prince, who was himself a talented musician, moved close to the keyboard to view Chopin's technique. Broadwood also arranged concerts for him; among those attending were Thackeray and the singer Jenny Lind. Chopin was also sought after for piano lessons, for which he charged the high fee of one guinea (£1.05 in present British currency) per hour, and for private recitals for which the fee was 20 guineas. At a concert on 7 July he shared the platform with Viardot, who sang arrangements of some of his mazurkas to Spanish texts.
Where did Jane Stirling invite Chopin?
56cfe792234ae51400d9c05b
Scotland
56
False
What doctor was with Chopin when he wrote out his will?
56cfe792234ae51400d9c05c
Adam Łyszczyński
777
False
Where was Chopin invited to in late summer?
56d3740c59d6e41400146423
Scotland
56
False
What city did Chopin perform at on September 27?
56d3740c59d6e41400146426
Glasgow
554
False
What did Chopin write while staying with Doctor Adam Łyszczyński?
56d3740c59d6e41400146427
will
817
False
In late summer he was invited by Jane Stirling to visit Scotland, where he stayed at Calder House near Edinburgh and at Johnstone Castle in Renfrewshire, both owned by members of Stirling's family. She clearly had a notion of going beyond mere friendship, and Chopin was obliged to make it clear to her that this could not be so. He wrote at this time to Grzymała "My Scottish ladies are kind, but such bores", and responding to a rumour about his involvement, answered that he was "closer to the grave than the nuptial bed." He gave a public concert in Glasgow on 27 September, and another in Edinburgh, at the Hopetoun Rooms on Queen Street (now Erskine House) on 4 October. In late October 1848, while staying at 10 Warriston Crescent in Edinburgh with the Polish physician Adam Łyszczyński, he wrote out his last will and testament—"a kind of disposition to be made of my stuff in the future, if I should drop dead somewhere", he wrote to Grzymała.
When did Chopin last appear in public?
56cfe7f4234ae51400d9c05f
16 November 1848
86
False
Where was Chopin's last public performance?
56cfe7f4234ae51400d9c060
Guildhall
73
False
Who were the beneficiaries of his last public concert?
56d375b859d6e41400146468
Polish refugees.
169
False
What was the diagnosis of Chopin's health condition at this time?
56d375b859d6e41400146469
terminal
329
False
Where was Chopin's last public performance?
56d375b859d6e4140014646b
London's Guildhall
64
False
Chopin made his last public appearance on a concert platform at London's Guildhall on 16 November 1848, when, in a final patriotic gesture, he played for the benefit of Polish refugees. By this time he was very seriously ill, weighing under 99 pounds (i.e. less than 45 kg), and his doctors were aware that his sickness was at a terminal stage.
Who did Chopin play for while she sang?
56cfe87e234ae51400d9c06d
Delfina Potocka
241
False
In 1849 where did Chopin live?
56cfe87e234ae51400d9c06e
Chaillot
340
False
Who was anonymously paying for Chopin's apartment?
56cfe87e234ae51400d9c06f
Princess Obreskoff
439
False
When did Chopin return to Paris?
56d381b459d6e41400146591
November
14
False
Chopin accompanied which singer for friends?
56d381b459d6e41400146592
Delfina Potocka
241
False
Where did his friends found Chopin an apartment in 1849?
56d381b459d6e41400146593
Chaillot
340
False
Who paid for Chopin's apartment in Chaillot?
56d381b459d6e41400146594
Princess Obreskoff.
439
False
When did Jenny Lind visit Chopin?
56d381b459d6e41400146595
June 1849
467
False
At the end of November, Chopin returned to Paris. He passed the winter in unremitting illness, but gave occasional lessons and was visited by friends, including Delacroix and Franchomme. Occasionally he played, or accompanied the singing of Delfina Potocka, for his friends. During the summer of 1849, his friends found him an apartment in Chaillot, out of the centre of the city, for which the rent was secretly subsidised by an admirer, Princess Obreskoff. Here in June 1849 he was visited by Jenny Lind.
When did his sister come to stay with Chopin?
56cfe911234ae51400d9c085
June 1849
91
False
In September 1849 where did Chopin take up residence?
56cfe911234ae51400d9c086
Place Vendôme 12
247
False
Which family member came to Paris in June 1849?
56d3823659d6e414001465b6
his sister
101
False
Who accompanied Chopin's sister to Paris?
56d3823659d6e414001465b7
her husband and daughter
139
False
Who gave Chopin a loan in September for an apartment?
56d3823659d6e414001465b8
Jane Stirling
208
False
What did Parisian ladies consider proper etiquette when in Chopin's room?
56d3823659d6e414001465b9
to faint
493
False
With his health further deteriorating, Chopin desired to have a family member with him. In June 1849 his sister Ludwika came to Paris with her husband and daughter, and in September, supported by a loan from Jane Stirling, he took an apartment at Place Vendôme 12. After 15 October, when his condition took a marked turn for the worse, only a handful of his closest friends remained with him, although Viardot remarked sardonically that "all the grand Parisian ladies considered it de rigueur to faint in his room."
Why did Chopin request being cut open after his death?
56cfe9df234ae51400d9c0a1
fear of being buried alive
167
False
What did Chopin reply to the doctor when asked is he was suffering?
56cfe9df234ae51400d9c0a3
"No longer"
492
False
Who made Chopin's death mask?
56cfe9df234ae51400d9c0a4
Clésinger
781
False
Why did Chopin want his body opened when he died?
56d38a4a59d6e414001466bb
fear of being buried alive
167
False
What did Solange's husband make hours after Chopin's death along with his death mask?
56d38a4a59d6e414001466bf
a cast of his left hand.
820
False
Some of his friends provided music at his request; among them, Potocka sang and Franchomme played the cello. Chopin requested that his body be opened after death (for fear of being buried alive) and his heart returned to Warsaw where it rests at the Church of the Holy Cross. He also bequeathed his unfinished notes on a piano tuition method, Projet de méthode, to Alkan for completion. On 17 October, after midnight, the physician leaned over him and asked whether he was suffering greatly. "No longer", he replied. He died a few minutes before two o'clock in the morning. Those present at the deathbed appear to have included his sister Ludwika, Princess Marcelina Czartoryska, Sand's daughter Solange, and his close friend Thomas Albrecht. Later that morning, Solange's husband Clésinger made Chopin's death mask and a cast of his left hand.
What is listed as Chopin's official cause of death?
56cfeaa3234ae51400d9c0b3
tuberculosis
124
False
What was the name of Chopin's doctor?
56cfeaa3234ae51400d9c0b4
Jean Cruveilhier
157
False
What has the Polish government not allowed to find true cause of death?
56cfeaa3234ae51400d9c0b5
DNA testing
450
False
What was the cause of death on Chopin's death certificate?
56d38ac959d6e414001466cf
tuberculosis
124
False
Who was Chopin's physician?
56d38ac959d6e414001466d0
Jean Cruveilhier
157
False
Other possiblities for Chopin's death include cirrhosis, alpha 1-antitrypsin deficiency, and what?
56d38ac959d6e414001466d1
cystic fibrosis
279
False
Who has denied testing Chopin's DNA to determine the actual cause of death?
56d38ac959d6e414001466d2
the Polish government.
518
False
Chopin's disease and the cause of his death have since been a matter of discussion. His death certificate gave the cause as tuberculosis, and his physician, Jean Cruveilhier, was then the leading French authority on this disease. Other possibilities have been advanced including cystic fibrosis, cirrhosis and alpha 1-antitrypsin deficiency. However, the attribution of tuberculosis as principal cause of death has not been disproved. Permission for DNA testing, which could put the matter to rest, has been denied by the Polish government.
Where was Chopin's funeral held?
56cfeae2234ae51400d9c0b9
Church of the Madeleine
25
False
How long was Chopin's funeral delayed?
56cfeae2234ae51400d9c0ba
two weeks
78
False
How many people arrived for Chopin's funeral?
56cfeae2234ae51400d9c0bb
Over 3,000
189
False
Where was Chopin's funeral held?
56d38ba459d6e414001466e7
the Church of the Madeleine in Paris
21
False
How long was Chopin's funeral delayed?
56d38ba459d6e414001466e8
two weeks
78
False
How many people arrived without an invitation?
56d38ba459d6e414001466eb
Over 3,000
189
False
The funeral, held at the Church of the Madeleine in Paris, was delayed almost two weeks, until 30 October. Entrance was restricted to ticket holders as many people were expected to attend. Over 3,000 people arrived without invitations, from as far as London, Berlin and Vienna, and were excluded.
What song was sung at Chopin's funeral?
56cfeb52234ae51400d9c0bf
Mozart's Requiem
0
False
Who was the organist at Chopin's funeral?
56cfeb52234ae51400d9c0c0
Louis Lefébure-Wély
291
False
Who led Chopin's funeral procession?
56cfeb52234ae51400d9c0c1
Prince Adam Czartoryski
422
False
What was played at his graveside?
56cfeb52234ae51400d9c0c2
Funeral March from Chopin's Piano Sonata No. 2
537
False
What Mozart song was sung at Chopin's funeral?
56d38c2b59d6e41400146703
Mozart's Requiem
0
False
Who was the organist for Chopin's funeral?
56d38c2b59d6e41400146704
Louis Lefébure-Wély
291
False
Which cemetery was Chopin buried in?
56d38c2b59d6e41400146705
Père Lachaise Cemetery
338
False
Who led the funeral procession?
56d38c2b59d6e41400146706
Prince Adam Czartoryski
422
False
What was played at Chopin's graveside?
56d38c2b59d6e41400146707
the Funeral March from Chopin's Piano Sonata No. 2
533
False
Mozart's Requiem was sung at the funeral; the soloists were the soprano Jeanne-Anais Castellan, the mezzo-soprano Pauline Viardot, the tenor Alexis Dupont, and the bass Luigi Lablache; Chopin's Preludes No. 4 in E minor and No. 6 in B minor were also played. The organist at the funeral was Louis Lefébure-Wély. The funeral procession to Père Lachaise Cemetery, which included Chopin's sister Ludwika, was led by the aged Prince Adam Czartoryski. The pallbearers included Delacroix, Franchomme, and Camille Pleyel. At the graveside, the Funeral March from Chopin's Piano Sonata No. 2 was played, in Reber's instrumentation.
Who sculpted Chopin's tombstone?
56cfec4b234ae51400d9c0cd
Clésinger
115
False
What is the name of the muse carved on Chopin's tombstone?
56cfec4b234ae51400d9c0ce
Euterpe
49
False
How much did Chopin's funeral cost?
56cfec4b234ae51400d9c0cf
5,000 francs
181
False
Who paid for Chopin's funeral?
56cfec4b234ae51400d9c0d0
Jane Stirling
211
False
Chopin's sister Ludwika took his heart back to Warsaw preserved in what?
56cfec4b234ae51400d9c0d1
alcohol
351
False
Who designed Chopin's tombstone?
56d38cc659d6e4140014672b
Clésinger.
115
False
How much did Chopin's funeral and monument cost?
56d38cc659d6e4140014672c
5,000 francs
181
False
Who paid for Chopin's funeral?
56d38cc659d6e4140014672d
Jane Stirling
211
False
Who took Chopin's heart to Poland?
56d38cc659d6e4140014672e
sister
273
False
Who ended up with the 200 letters from Sand to Chopin?
56d38cc659d6e4140014672f
Sand
444
False
Chopin's tombstone, featuring the muse of music, Euterpe, weeping over a broken lyre, was designed and sculpted by Clésinger. The expenses of the funeral and monument, amounting to 5,000 francs, were covered by Jane Stirling, who also paid for the return of the composer's sister Ludwika to Warsaw. Ludwika took Chopin's heart in an urn, preserved in alcohol, back to Poland in 1850.[n 9] She also took a collection of two hundred letters from Sand to Chopin; after 1851 these were returned to Sand, who seems to have destroyed them.
How many of Chopin's works still exist?
56cfec7b234ae51400d9c0d7
Over 230
0
False
All of his pieces include what instrument?
56cfec7b234ae51400d9c0d8
piano
121
False
How many Chopin pieces are known to have survived?
56d38cfe59d6e4140014673b
Over 230
0
False
Only a few of Chopin's pieces involve more than the piano, including piano concertos, songs and what?
56d38cfe59d6e4140014673c
chamber music.
210
False
Over 230 works of Chopin survive; some compositions from early childhood have been lost. All his known works involve the piano, and only a few range beyond solo piano music, as either piano concertos, songs or chamber music.
Whose piano method did Chopin teach his students?
56cfed0f234ae51400d9c0db
Clementi
69
False
Whose piano method did Chopin use with his students?
56d38d6559d6e4140014674f
Clementi
69
False
Who did Chopin say were the two most important composers in his own music influences?
56d38d6559d6e41400146750
Bach and Mozart
235
False
Chopin looked to Beethoven, Mozart, Clementi and who for his own music education?
56d38d6559d6e41400146751
Haydn
51
False
Chopin was educated in the tradition of Beethoven, Haydn, Mozart and Clementi; he used Clementi's piano method with his own students. He was also influenced by Hummel's development of virtuoso, yet Mozartian, piano technique. He cited Bach and Mozart as the two most important composers in shaping his musical outlook. Chopin's early works are in the style of the "brilliant" keyboard pieces of his era as exemplified by the works of Ignaz Moscheles, Friedrich Kalkbrenner, and others. Less direct in the earlier period are the influences of Polish folk music and of Italian opera. Much of what became his typical style of ornamentation (for example, his fioriture) is taken from singing. His melodic lines were increasingly reminiscent of the modes and features of the music of his native country, such as drones.
Who is credited with creating the nocturne?
56cfed8a234ae51400d9c0e1
John Field
80
False
Chopin was the first person to create what as singular concert pieces?
56cfed8a234ae51400d9c0e2
ballades and scherzi
155
False
What new genre di John Field invent?
56d38fa059d6e41400146771
nocturne
39
False
Chopin was first in writing what for concerts?
56d38fa059d6e41400146772
ballades and scherzi
155
False
What musical concept did Chopin exploit?
56d38fa059d6e41400146773
concert étude
370
False
What three other musicians were developing the new genre?
56d38fa059d6e41400146774
Liszt, Clementi and Moscheles
435
False
Chopin took the new salon genre of the nocturne, invented by the Irish composer John Field, to a deeper level of sophistication. He was the first to write ballades and scherzi as individual concert pieces. He essentially established a new genre with his own set of free-standing preludes (Op. 28, published 1839). He exploited the poetic potential of the concept of the concert étude, already being developed in the 1820s and 1830s by Liszt, Clementi and Moscheles, in his two sets of studies (Op. 10 published in 1833, Op. 25 in 1837).
How many polonaises were published while Chopin lived?
56cfee5d234ae51400d9c0f7
seven
363
False
How many polonaises were published after Chopin died?
56cfee5d234ae51400d9c0f8
nine
415
False
Chopin was credited for making what more internationally known?
56cfee5d234ae51400d9c0f9
mazurkas
96
False
What is different about Chopin's waltzes versus a ballroom waltz?
56cfee5d234ae51400d9c0fa
faster tempos
660
False
What did Chopin add to the modern dance of his era?
56d390b559d6e41400146789
greater range of melody and expression.
47
False
Chopin's Polish dance music was developed for what type of hall?
56d390b559d6e4140014678a
concert hall
243
False
What was Chopin responsible for making popular with Euorpeans?
56d390b559d6e4140014678b
the mazurka
307
False
How many Chopin polonaises were published after his death?
56d390b559d6e4140014678c
nine
415
False
What dance music of Chopin was written more for recitals than ballrooms?
56d390b559d6e4140014678d
waltzes
545
False
Chopin also endowed popular dance forms with a greater range of melody and expression. Chopin's mazurkas, while originating in the traditional Polish dance (the mazurek), differed from the traditional variety in that they were written for the concert hall rather than the dance hall; "it was Chopin who put the mazurka on the European musical map." The series of seven polonaises published in his lifetime (another nine were published posthumously), beginning with the Op. 26 pair (published 1836), set a new standard for music in the form. His waltzes were also written specifically for the salon recital rather than the ballroom and are frequently at rather faster tempos than their dance-floor equivalents.
What is another title Op. 10, No. 12 has garnered?
56cfef3c234ae51400d9c10d
the Revolutionary Étude
77
False
What is the only piece Chopin gave an actual title to?
56cfef3c234ae51400d9c10e
Funeral March
192
False
The Funeral March was written as part of what piece?
56cfef3c234ae51400d9c10f
Sonata No. 2
623
False
How many instrumental works did Chopin give a descriptive name to?
56d3913859d6e41400146793
one
650
False
What descriptive name was Op. 10, No. 12 given?
56d3913859d6e41400146795
Revolutionary Étude
81
False
What descriptive name was Op. 64, No. 1 given?
56d3913859d6e41400146796
Minute Waltz
127
False
Some of Chopin's well-known pieces have acquired descriptive titles, such as the Revolutionary Étude (Op. 10, No. 12), and the Minute Waltz (Op. 64, No. 1). However, with the exception of his Funeral March, the composer never named an instrumental work beyond genre and number, leaving all potential extramusical associations to the listener; the names by which many of his pieces are known were invented by others. There is no evidence to suggest that the Revolutionary Étude was written with the failed Polish uprising against Russia in mind; it merely appeared at that time. The Funeral March, the third movement of his Sonata No. 2 (Op. 35), the one case where he did give a title, was written before the rest of the sonata, but no specific event or death is known to have inspired it.
What was the last number Chopin gave to an opus?
56cff00f234ae51400d9c113
65
50
False
Who was Chopin's musical executor?
56cff00f234ae51400d9c115
Julian Fontana
259
False
How many unfinished pieces did Julian Fontana make into eight more opus numbers?
56cff00f234ae51400d9c116
23
283
False
Op. 74 is made up of how many Polish songs?
56cff00f234ae51400d9c117
17
402
False
What is the last opus number that Chopin used?
56d3929359d6e4140014679d
65
50
False
Who grouped 23 unpublished pieces and published them as Opp. 66-73 in 1855?
56d3929359d6e4140014679f
Julian Fontana
259
False
When was Op. 74 published?
56d3929359d6e414001467a1
1857
396
False
The last opus number that Chopin himself used was 65, allocated to the Cello Sonata in G minor. He expressed a deathbed wish that all his unpublished manuscripts be destroyed. At the request of the composer's mother and sisters, however, his musical executor Julian Fontana selected 23 unpublished piano pieces and grouped them into eight further opus numbers (Opp. 66–73), published in 1855. In 1857, 17 Polish songs that Chopin wrote at various stages of his life were collected and published as Op. 74, though their order within the opus did not reflect the order of composition.
The Kobylańska Catalogue was named for who?
56cff0c3234ae51400d9c123
Krystyna Kobylańska
285
False
Pieces published after what year stopped receiving opus numbers?
56cff0c3234ae51400d9c124
1857
22
False
What have pieces published after 1857 been given rather than opus numbers?
56d3946659d6e414001467af
alternative catalogue designations
41
False
What is the current musicologist reference for Chopin's pieces?
56d3946659d6e414001467b0
the Kobylańska Catalogue
168
False
What is the shortened reference for the Kobylańska Catalogue?
56d3946659d6e414001467b1
KK
231
False
Who compiled the Kobylańska Catalogue?
56d3946659d6e414001467b2
Krystyna Kobylańska.
285
False
Works published since 1857 have received alternative catalogue designations instead of opus numbers. The present standard musicological reference for Chopin's works is the Kobylańska Catalogue (usually represented by the initials 'KK'), named for its compiler, the Polish musicologist Krystyna Kobylańska.
Who released the first collection of Chopin's works?
56cff179234ae51400d9c131
Breitkopf & Härtel
187
False
Who edited the Polish "National Edition" of Chopin's works?
56cff179234ae51400d9c133
Jan Ekier
403
False
Maurice Schlesinger and Camille Pleyel were what to Chopin?
56d3971459d6e414001467cd
original publishers
9
False
Where did Chopin's work start t oshow up?
56d3971459d6e414001467ce
popular 19th-century piano anthologies.
112
False
What was the name under scholarly publications of Chopin's work form 1937 to 1966?
56d3971459d6e414001467cf
Paderewski
303
False
Who edited the Polish National Edition?
56d3971459d6e414001467d0
Jan Ekier
403
False
Chopin's original publishers included Maurice Schlesinger and Camille Pleyel. His works soon began to appear in popular 19th-century piano anthologies. The first collected edition was by Breitkopf & Härtel (1878–1902). Among modern scholarly editions of Chopin's works are the version under the name of Paderewski published between 1937 and 1966 and the more recent Polish "National Edition", edited by Jan Ekier, both of which contain detailed explanations and discussions regarding choices and sources.
What is central to Chopin's process?
56cff256234ae51400d9c145
Improvisation
0
False
Rosen suggests that a central part of Chopin's uniqueness is how he handles what?
56cff256234ae51400d9c146
the four-bar phrase
879
False
What is central to Chopin's creativeness?
56d398a859d6e414001467e5
Improvisation
0
False
Who wrote that "improvisation is designed for an audience"?
56d398a859d6e414001467e6
Nicholas Temperley
116
False
What did Rosen suggest was important about chopin's personality?
56d398a859d6e414001467e7
his flexible handling of the four-bar phrase as a structural unit.
854
False
Improvisation stands at the centre of Chopin's creative processes. However, this does not imply impulsive rambling: Nicholas Temperley writes that "improvisation is designed for an audience, and its starting-point is that audience's expectations, which include the current conventions of musical form." The works for piano and orchestra, including the two concertos, are held by Temperley to be "merely vehicles for brilliant piano playing ... formally longwinded and extremely conservative". After the piano concertos (which are both early, dating from 1830), Chopin made no attempts at large-scale multi-movement forms, save for his late sonatas for piano and for cello; "instead he achieved near-perfection in pieces of simple general design but subtle and complex cell-structure." Rosen suggests that an important aspect of Chopin's individuality is his flexible handling of the four-bar phrase as a structural unit.
What piece does J. Barrie Jones pinpoint as a great example of Chopin's palette?
56cff2e0234ae51400d9c14b
the Barcarolle Op. 60
154
False
What does J. Barrie Jones feel stands supreme of Chopin's concert pieces?
56d3997e59d6e414001467ed
the four ballades and four scherzos
87
False
What form does Temperley feel that Chopin's ballades and scherzos are based on?
56d3997e59d6e414001467ef
departure and return
426
False
J. Barrie Jones suggests that "amongst the works that Chopin intended for concert use, the four ballades and four scherzos stand supreme", and adds that "the Barcarolle Op. 60 stands apart as an example of Chopin's rich harmonic palette coupled with an Italianate warmth of melody." Temperley opines that these works, which contain "immense variety of mood, thematic material and structural detail", are based on an extended "departure and return" form; "the more the middle section is extended, and the further it departs in key, mood and theme, from the opening idea, the more important and dramatic is the reprise when it at last comes."
Chopin's mazurkas contain more of what than his other compositions?
56cff351234ae51400d9c14d
folk features
135
False
What form are Chopin's mazurkas and waltzes in?
56d39a6a59d6e414001467f3
straightforward ternary or episodic form, sometimes with a coda.
41
False
Which of Chopin's works shows more folk aspects?
56d39a6a59d6e414001467f4
mazurkas
9
False
What type of bass do Chopin's mazurkas exhibit?
56d39a6a59d6e414001467f5
drone bass
241
False
What does Chopin's Op. 63 No. 3 have that is rare?
56d39a6a59d6e414001467f6
a canon at one beat's distance
344
False
Chopin's mazurkas and waltzes are all in straightforward ternary or episodic form, sometimes with a coda. The mazurkas often show more folk features than many of his other works, sometimes including modal scales and harmonies and the use of drone basses. However, some also show unusual sophistication, for example Op. 63 No. 3, which includes a canon at one beat's distance, a great rarity in music.
What time are Chopin's polonaises written in?
56cff390234ae51400d9c151
triple time
193
False
Chopin's ability to create an advanced polonasises surpassed even two of his teachers, Zywny and who?
56d39abf59d6e414001467fd
Elsner
127
False
Chopin's polonaise often have what kind of rhythm in their melodies?
56d39abf59d6e414001467fe
martial
229
False
Chopin's polonaises needed what kind of playing technique?
56d39abf59d6e414001467ff
formidable
345
False
Chopin's polonaises show a marked advance on those of his Polish predecessors in the form (who included his teachers Zywny and Elsner). As with the traditional polonaise, Chopin's works are in triple time and typically display a martial rhythm in their melodies, accompaniments and cadences. Unlike most of their precursors, they also require a formidable playing technique.
How many nocturnes did Chopin compose?
56cff3f4234ae51400d9c153
21
4
False
What is it about the middle of Chopin's nocturnes that increases their drama?
56cff3f4234ae51400d9c154
agitated expression
177
False
Chopin's nocturnes were more structured than who?
56d39bdf59d6e41400146807
Field
84
False
What year did Chopin meet Field?
56d39bdf59d6e41400146808
1833
110
False
Which type of Chopin's compositons were difficult for perfomers due to their middle sections?
56d39bdf59d6e41400146809
nocturnes
7
False
The 21 nocturnes are more structured, and of greater emotional depth, than those of Field (whom Chopin met in 1833). Many of the Chopin nocturnes have middle sections marked by agitated expression (and often making very difficult demands on the performer) which heightens their dramatic character.
What pieces of his did Chopin use to teach his technique?
56cff427234ae51400d9c157
études
9
False
What form are most of Chopin's études in?
56d39c5359d6e4140014680d
straightforward ternary
31
False
Chopin often taught his piano technique using what form of music he wrote?
56d39c5359d6e4140014680e
études
9
False
Chopin's études are largely in straightforward ternary form. He used them to teach his own technique of piano playing—for instance playing double thirds (Op. 25, No. 6), playing in octaves (Op. 25, No. 10), and playing repeated notes (Op. 10, No.  7).
What piece of Bach's did Chopin take inspiration for his preludes?
56cff49a234ae51400d9c161
The Well-Tempered Clavier
211
False
Who suggested that Chopin's preludes were not intended to be played as a group?
56cff49a234ae51400d9c162
Kenneth Hamilton
588
False
What was described as "the beginning of studies" by Schumann?
56d39cea59d6e41400146811
The preludes
0
False
What inspired Chopin for his preludes?
56d39cea59d6e41400146812
J.S. Bach's The Well-Tempered Clavier
199
False
Kenneth Hamilton suggests that the preludes may not have been meant as a group but rather as what?
56d39cea59d6e41400146813
generic preludes to others of his pieces
506
False
Who did a recording where Étude Op. 10 No. 5. follows relude Op. 28 No. 7?
56d39cea59d6e41400146814
Ferruccio Busoni
643
False
The preludes, many of which are very brief (some consisting of simple statements and developments of a single theme or figure), were described by Schumann as "the beginnings of studies". Inspired by J.S. Bach's The Well-Tempered Clavier, Chopin's preludes move up the circle of fifths (rather than Bach's chromatic scale sequence) to create a prelude in each major and minor tonality. The preludes were perhaps not intended to be played as a group, and may even have been used by him and later pianists as generic preludes to others of his pieces, or even to music by other composers, as Kenneth Hamilton suggests: he has noted a recording by Ferruccio Busoni of 1922, in which the Prelude Op. 28 No. 7 is followed by the Étude Op. 10 No. 5.
How many movements are No. 2, Op. 35 and No. 3, Op 58 in?
56cff536234ae51400d9c165
four
104
False
What two people claimed that Op 58 was "worthy of Brahms"?
56cff536234ae51400d9c166
Kornel Michałowski and Jim Samson
693
False
How many movements are in No. 2, Op. 35 and No. 3, Op 58?
56d39ed559d6e41400146825
four
104
False
Which movement was found lacking in musicality by Schumann?
56d39ed559d6e41400146826
The last movement
349
False
According to music historians, which sonata is similar to German tradition and worthy of Brahms?
56d39ed559d6e41400146827
Op. 58
72
False
The two mature piano sonatas (No. 2, Op. 35, written in 1839 and No. 3, Op. 58, written in 1844) are in four movements. In Op. 35, Chopin was able to combine within a formal large musical structure many elements of his virtuosic piano technique—"a kind of dialogue between the public pianism of the brilliant style and the German sonata principle". The last movement, a brief (75-bar) perpetuum mobile in which the hands play in unmodified octave unison throughout, was found shocking and unmusical by contemporaries, including Schumann. The Op. 58 sonata is closer to the German tradition, including many passages of complex counterpoint, "worthy of Brahms" according to the music historians Kornel Michałowski and Jim Samson.
Chopin's chord progressions are similar in style to what other composer?
56cff5a8234ae51400d9c173
Claude Debussy
512
False
What likely arose due to Chopin's technique with keyboards?
56d39fa059d6e41400146831
harmonic innovations
9
False
Who wrote about Chopin's "novel harmonic effects"?
56d39fa059d6e41400146832
Temperley
96
False
Chopin's harmonic innovations may have arisen partly from his keyboard improvisation technique. Temperley says that in his works "novel harmonic effects frequently result from the combination of ordinary appoggiaturas or passing notes with melodic figures of accompaniment", and cadences are delayed by the use of chords outside the home key (neapolitan sixths and diminished sevenths), or by sudden shifts to remote keys. Chord progressions sometimes anticipate the shifting tonality of later composers such as Claude Debussy, as does Chopin's use of modal harmony.
What was Chopin's style based upon?
56cff635234ae51400d9c184
independent finger technique
523
False
Who wrote about a Chopin 1841 recital?
56d3a0d159d6e41400146835
Léon Escudier
9
False
What writing of Chopin talks about everything about piano playing has to do with proper fingering?
56d3a0d159d6e41400146837
his Projet de méthode
556
False
In 1841, Léon Escudier wrote of a recital given by Chopin that year, "One may say that Chopin is the creator of a school of piano and a school of composition. In truth, nothing equals the lightness, the sweetness with which the composer preludes on the piano; moreover nothing may be compared to his works full of originality, distinction and grace." Chopin refused to conform to a standard method of playing and believed that there was no set technique for playing well. His style was based extensively on his use of very independent finger technique. In his Projet de méthode he wrote: "Everything is a matter of knowing good fingering ... we need no less to use the rest of the hand, the wrist, the forearm and the upper arm." He further stated: "One needs only to study a certain position of the hand in relation to the keys to obtain with ease the most beautiful quality of sound, to know how to play short notes and long notes, and [to attain] unlimited dexterity." The consequences of this approach to technique in Chopin's music include the frequent use of the entire range of the keyboard, passages in double octaves and other chord groupings, swiftly repeated notes, the use of grace notes, and the use of contrasting rhythms (four against three, for example) between the hands.
According to J. Barrie Jones who was the only true successor to Chopin?
56cff6f3234ae51400d9c191
Karol Szymanowski
183
False
Many people were considered influenced by Chopin's what?
56cff6f3234ae51400d9c192
national modes and idioms
392
False
Who was Alexander Scriabin's teacher?
56cff6f3234ae51400d9c193
Nikolai Zverev
584
False
Who was Chopin's worthy successor according to Jones?
56d3a9282ccc5a1400d82dc8
Karol Szymanowski
183
False
Who was devoted to the music of Chopin?
56d3a9282ccc5a1400d82dc9
Alexander Scriabin
419
False
Who was Alexander Scriabin's teacher?
56d3a9282ccc5a1400d82dca
Nikolai Zverev
584
False
Polish composers of the following generation included virtuosi such as Moritz Moszkowski, but, in the opinion of J. Barrie Jones, his "one worthy successor" among his compatriots was Karol Szymanowski (1882–1937). Edvard Grieg, Antonín Dvořák, Isaac Albéniz, Pyotr Ilyich Tchaikovsky and Sergei Rachmaninoff, among others, are regarded by critics as having been influenced by Chopin's use of national modes and idioms. Alexander Scriabin was devoted to the music of Chopin, and his early published works include nineteen mazurkas, as well as numerous études and preludes; his teacher Nikolai Zverev drilled him in Chopin's works to improve his virtuosity as a performer. In the 20th century, composers who paid homage to (or in some cases parodied) the music of Chopin included George Crumb, Bohuslav Martinů, Darius Milhaud, Igor Stravinsky and Heitor Villa-Lobos.
Who wrote that the current large concert style conflicts with Chopin's preference of intimate performances?
56cff817234ae51400d9c1a3
Jonathan Bellman
0
False
What did Chopin tend to avoid?
56cff817234ae51400d9c1a4
rigid procedures
500
False
What has been falsely credited to Chopin?
56cff817234ae51400d9c1a5
"always crescendo to a high note"
566
False
What did Chopin tell a student is given up in concerts?
56d3a1e959d6e41400146841
hearing in them all the most beautiful things of art
378
False
Who wrote about Chopin's "chromatic embroidery"?
56d3a1e959d6e41400146842
Berlioz
699
False
Who wrote that Chopin's music, when played by him, became a "colorful wreath of flowers"?
56d3a1e959d6e41400146843
Hiller
944
False
Jonathan Bellman writes that modern concert performance style—set in the "conservatory" tradition of late 19th- and 20th-century music schools, and suitable for large auditoria or recordings—militates against what is known of Chopin's more intimate performance technique. The composer himself said to a pupil that "concerts are never real music, you have to give up the idea of hearing in them all the most beautiful things of art." Contemporary accounts indicate that in performance, Chopin avoided rigid procedures sometimes incorrectly attributed to him, such as "always crescendo to a high note", but that he was concerned with expressive phrasing, rhythmic consistency and sensitive colouring. Berlioz wrote in 1853 that Chopin "has created a kind of chromatic embroidery ... whose effect is so strange and piquant as to be impossible to describe ... virtually nobody but Chopin himself can play this music and give it this unusual turn". Hiller wrote that "What in the hands of others was elegant embellishment, in his hands became a colourful wreath of flowers."
Chopin's compositions are often played with what?
56cff885234ae51400d9c1b3
rubato
41
False
What does rubato mean?
56cff885234ae51400d9c1b4
the practice in performance of disregarding strict time
50
False
In Chopin's music where strict timing is disregarded, what is it called?
56d3a2cd59d6e41400146849
rubato
41
False
What type of Chopin's music had the most disregard for strict timing according to Charles Rosen?
56d3a2cd59d6e4140014684a
mazurkas
366
False
Chopin's music is frequently played with rubato, "the practice in performance of disregarding strict time, 'robbing' some note-values for expressive effect". There are differing opinions as to how much, and what type, of rubato is appropriate for his works. Charles Rosen comments that "most of the written-out indications of rubato in Chopin are to be found in his mazurkas ... It is probable that Chopin used the older form of rubato so important to Mozart ... [where] the melody note in the right hand is delayed until after the note in the bass ... An allied form of this rubato is the arpeggiation of the chords thereby delaying the melody note; according to Chopin's pupil, Karol Mikuli, Chopin was firmly opposed to this practice."
According to who did Chopin demand strictly sticking with rhythm?
56cff905234ae51400d9c1b7
Friederike Müller
0
False
Which student said Chopin made sure his students knew his legato, cantabile style of playing?
56d3a32259d6e4140014684f
Friederike Müller
0
False
According to Friederike Müller, Chopin insisted his students have the strictest adherence to what?
56d3a32259d6e41400146851
rhythm.
364
False
Friederike Müller, a pupil of Chopin, wrote: "[His] playing was always noble and beautiful; his tones sang, whether in full forte or softest piano. He took infinite pains to teach his pupils this legato, cantabile style of playing. His most severe criticism was 'He—or she—does not know how to join two notes together.' He also demanded the strictest adherence to rhythm. He hated all lingering and dragging, misplaced rubatos, as well as exaggerated ritardandos ... and it is precisely in this respect that people make such terrible errors in playing his works."
Chopin was noted as introducing music to what?
56cffa2a234ae51400d9c1cf
sense of nationalism
91
False
What year did Schumann review Chopin's piano concertos?
56cffa2a234ae51400d9c1d0
1836
130
False
In his review Schumann made note of Chopin's emotions for what?
56cffa2a234ae51400d9c1d1
Poland
224
False
Why did Schumann say the Poles were in mourning?
56cffa2a234ae51400d9c1d2
the failure of the November 1830
293
False
A biography on Chopin released under Franz Liszt's name was likely written by who?
56cffa2a234ae51400d9c1d3
Carolyne zu Sayn-Wittgenstein
730
False
Chopin was able to bring about a new sense of nationalism with his music because of his mazurkas and what?
56d3a3df59d6e4140014685f
polonaises
22
False
Who wrote a glowing review of Chopin's love for his country through his music in 1836?
56d3a3df59d6e41400146860
Schumann
113
False
Schumann described Chopin's music as cannons buried in what?
56d3a3df59d6e41400146861
flowers
623
False
Though Franz Liszt is credited with Chopin's 1863 biography, who probably actually wrote it?
56d3a3df59d6e41400146862
Carolyne zu Sayn-Wittgenstein
730
False
With his mazurkas and polonaises, Chopin has been credited with introducing to music a new sense of nationalism. Schumann, in his 1836 review of the piano concertos, highlighted the composer's strong feelings for his native Poland, writing that "Now that the Poles are in deep mourning [after the failure of the November 1830 rising], their appeal to us artists is even stronger ... If the mighty autocrat in the north [i.e. Nicholas I of Russia] could know that in Chopin's works, in the simple strains of his mazurkas, there lurks a dangerous enemy, he would place a ban on his music. Chopin's works are cannon buried in flowers!" The biography of Chopin published in 1863 under the name of Franz Liszt (but probably written by Carolyne zu Sayn-Wittgenstein) claims that Chopin "must be ranked first among the first musicians ... individualizing in themselves the poetic sense of an entire nation."
Who said that Chopin's familiarity with Polish music was more "urbanised"  than true folk music?
56cffb2b234ae51400d9c1e1
Barbara Milewski
300
False
George Golos references what two musicians when claiming Chopin's nationalism was overrated?
56cffb2b234ae51400d9c1e2
Michał Kleofas Ogiński and Franciszek Lessel
212
False
Who said Chopin's works were modeled after Bach, Beethoven, Schubert and Field?
56d3a46a59d6e41400146869
Richard Taruskin
543
False
Some modern commentators have argued against exaggerating Chopin's primacy as a "nationalist" or "patriotic" composer. George Golos refers to earlier "nationalist" composers in Central Europe, including Poland's Michał Kleofas Ogiński and Franciszek Lessel, who utilised polonaise and mazurka forms. Barbara Milewski suggests that Chopin's experience of Polish music came more from "urbanised" Warsaw versions than from folk music, and that attempts (by Jachimecki and others) to demonstrate genuine folk music in his works are without basis. Richard Taruskin impugns Schumann's attitude toward Chopin's works as patronizing and comments that Chopin "felt his Polish patriotism deeply and sincerely" but consciously modelled his works on the tradition of Bach, Beethoven, Schubert and Field.
William Atwood suggested that Chopin's music wasn't purposely patriotic but what?
56cffba5234ae51400d9c1f1
intuitive
443
False
A modern commentator, William Atwood, feels Poles not only sought solace in Chopin's music but also found them a source of strength as they continued to fight for what?
56d3a51459d6e41400146877
freedom
386
False
Where were Poles scattered to?
56d3a51459d6e41400146878
Europe and the New World
249
False
A reconciliation of these views is suggested by William Atwood: "Undoubtedly [Chopin's] use of traditional musical forms like the polonaise and mazurka roused nationalistic sentiments and a sense of cohesiveness amongst those Poles scattered across Europe and the New World ... While some sought solace in [them], others found them a source of strength in their continuing struggle for freedom. Although Chopin's music undoubtedly came to him intuitively rather than through any conscious patriotic design, it served all the same to symbolize the will of the Polish people ..."
Arthur Hutchings stated that Chopin's lack of what made him special?
56cffc2b234ae51400d9c1ff
Byronic flamboyance
716
False
Who were two of Chopin's contemporaries?
56cffc2b234ae51400d9c200
Liszt and Henri Herz
838
False
What place was considered lucky for Chopin to have arrived at considering how much he charged for piano lessons?
56d3a65259d6e41400146888
Paris
214
False
Who said Chopin was unlike his romantic contemporaries Liszt and Henri Herz?
56d3a65259d6e4140014688a
Arthur Hutchings
670
False
Jones comments that "Chopin's unique position as a composer, despite the fact that virtually everything he wrote was for the piano, has rarely been questioned." He also notes that Chopin was fortunate to arrive in Paris in 1831—"the artistic environment, the publishers who were willing to print his music, the wealthy and aristocratic who paid what Chopin asked for their lessons"—and these factors, as well as his musical genius, also fuelled his contemporary and later reputation. While his illness and his love-affairs conform to some of the stereotypes of romanticism, the rarity of his public recitals (as opposed to performances at fashionable Paris soirées) led Arthur Hutchings to suggest that "his lack of Byronic flamboyance [and] his aristocratic reclusiveness make him exceptional" among his romantic contemporaries, such as Liszt and Henri Herz.
In what suite did Schumann name a work for Chopin?
56cffcf3234ae51400d9c20d
Carnaval
138
False
What piece of Chopin's work was dedicated to Schumann?
56cffcf3234ae51400d9c20e
Ballade No. 2 in F major
179
False
How many of Chopin's Polish songs did Liszt transliterate for piano?
56cffcf3234ae51400d9c20f
six
324
False
With who did Chopin feel comfortable speaking of folk music with?
56cffcf3234ae51400d9c210
Alkan
389
False
What was recognized about Chopin from his musical peers?
56d3a74159d6e414001468a1
qualities as a pianist and composer
9
False
What Schumann suite contained the name of a piece Schumann named for Chopin?
56d3a74159d6e414001468a2
Carnaval
138
False
What piece did Chopin dedicate to Schumann?
56d3a74159d6e414001468a3
Ballade No. 2 in F major
179
False
What other musician shows to have elements of Chopin in his work?
56d3a74159d6e414001468a4
Liszt
269
False
Chopin's qualities as a pianist and composer were recognized by many of his fellow musicians. Schumann named a piece for him in his suite Carnaval, and Chopin later dedicated his Ballade No. 2 in F major to Schumann. Elements of Chopin's music can be traced in many of Liszt's later works. Liszt later transcribed for piano six of Chopin's Polish songs. A less fraught friendship was with Alkan, with whom he discussed elements of folk music, and who was deeply affected by Chopin's death.
Who dedicated his 1915 piano Études to Chopin?
56cffdaa234ae51400d9c226
Debussy
392
False
For what publisher to Debussy edit Chopin's music for?
56cffdaa234ae51400d9c227
Jacques Durand
612
False
Who was a student of Chopin's former students and actually recorded some Chopin music?
56d3a85259d6e414001468aa
Raoul Koczalski
197
False
What music did Debussy play a lot at the Paris Conservatoire?
56d3a85259d6e414001468ac
Chopin's
7
False
Two of Chopin's long-standing pupils, Karol Mikuli (1821–1897) and Georges Mathias, were themselves piano teachers and passed on details of his playing to their own students, some of whom (such as Raoul Koczalski) were to make recordings of his music. Other pianists and composers influenced by Chopin's style include Louis Moreau Gottschalk, Édouard Wolff (1816–1880) and Pierre Zimmermann. Debussy dedicated his own 1915 piano Études to the memory of Chopin; he frequently played Chopin's music during his studies at the Paris Conservatoire, and undertook the editing of Chopin's piano music for the publisher Jacques Durand.
Sino-Tibetan_relations_during_the_Ming_dynasty
Who were Wang Jiawei and Nyima Gyaincain?
56cc239e6d243a140015eeb7
Mainland Chinese scholars
274
False
The exact nature of relations between Tibet and the Ming dynasty of China (1368–1644) is unclear. Analysis of the relationship is further complicated by modern political conflicts and the application of Westphalian sovereignty to a time when the concept did not exist. Some Mainland Chinese scholars, such as Wang Jiawei and Nyima Gyaincain, assert that the Ming dynasty had unquestioned sovereignty over Tibet, pointing to the Ming court's issuing of various titles to Tibetan leaders, Tibetans' full acceptance of these titles, and a renewal process for successors of these titles that involved traveling to the Ming capital. Scholars within China also argue that Tibet has been an integral part of China since the 13th century and that it was thus a part of the Ming Empire. But most scholars outside China, such as Turrell V. Wylie, Melvin C. Goldstein, and Helmut Hoffman, say that the relationship was one of suzerainty, that Ming titles were only nominal, that Tibet remained an independent region outside Ming control, and that it simply paid tribute until the Jiajing Emperor (1521–1566), who ceased relations with Tibet.
What important trade did the Ming Dynasty have with Tibet?
56cc27346d243a140015eeba
horse trade
338
False
During what years did the Mongol leader Kublai Khan rule?
56cc27346d243a140015eebb
1402–1424
739
False
Who did the Yongle Emperor try to build a religious alliance with?
56cc27346d243a140015eebc
Deshin Shekpa
821
False
Deshin Shekpa was the head of what school?
56cc27346d243a140015eebd
the Karma Kagyu school
863
False
The Tibetan leaders had a diplomacy with what neighboring state?
56cc27346d243a140015eebe
Nepal
162
False
Some scholars note that Tibetan leaders during the Ming frequently engaged in civil war and conducted their own foreign diplomacy with neighboring states such as Nepal. Some scholars underscore the commercial aspect of the Ming-Tibetan relationship, noting the Ming dynasty's shortage of horses for warfare and thus the importance of the horse trade with Tibet. Others argue that the significant religious nature of the relationship of the Ming court with Tibetan lamas is underrepresented in modern scholarship. In hopes of reviving the unique relationship of the earlier Mongol leader Kublai Khan (r. 1260–1294) and his spiritual superior Drogön Chögyal Phagpa (1235–1280) of the Sakya school of Tibetan Buddhism, the Yongle Emperor (r. 1402–1424) made a concerted effort to build a secular and religious alliance with Deshin Shekpa (1384–1415), the Karmapa of the Karma Kagyu school. However, the Yongle Emperor's attempts were unsuccessful.
What did the Tibetans use against Ming forays?
56cc306b6d243a140015eec5
armed resistance
158
False
Who were the armed protectors for the Gelug Dalai Lama?
56cc306b6d243a140015eec6
the Mongols
503
False
Which regime did Güshi Khan help establish?
56cc306b6d243a140015eec7
the Ganden Phodrang
727
False
When was the Mongol-Tibetan alliance started?
56cc306b6d243a140015eec8
1578
328
False
The Ming initiated sporadic armed intervention in Tibet during the 14th century, but did not garrison permanent troops there. At times the Tibetans also used armed resistance against Ming forays. The Wanli Emperor (r. 1572–1620) made attempts to reestablish Sino-Tibetan relations after the Mongol-Tibetan alliance initiated in 1578, which affected the foreign policy of the subsequent Qing dynasty (1644–1912) of China in their support for the Dalai Lama of the Gelug school. By the late 16th century, the Mongols were successful armed protectors of the Gelug Dalai Lama, after increasing their presence in the Amdo region. This culminated in Güshi Khan's (1582–1655) conquest of Tibet from 1637–1642 and the establishment of the Ganden Phodrang regime by the 5th Dalai Lama with his help.
In what century did the Tibetan Empire fall?
56cc36926d243a140015eece
the 9th century
112
False
Who signed multiple peace treaties with the Tang?
56cc36926d243a140015eecf
The Yarlung rulers of Tibet
185
False
What did one of the treaties between the Tang and Tibet help fix?
56cc36926d243a140015eed0
the borders between Tibet and China
305
False
Who was the Tangs biggest rival?
56cc36926d243a140015eed1
Tibet
0
False
What year did Tang and Tibet sign a treaty to fix the borders?
56cc36926d243a140015eed2
821
290
False
Tibet was once a strong power contemporaneous with Tang China (618–907). Until the Tibetan Empire's collapse in the 9th century, it was the Tang's major rival in dominating Inner Asia. The Yarlung rulers of Tibet also signed various peace treaties with the Tang, culminating in a treaty in 821 that fixed the borders between Tibet and China.
When did the Five Dynasties and Ten Kingdoms period of China take place?
56cc3ad16d243a140015eed8
907–960
60
False
When did the Song dynasty take place?
56cc3ad16d243a140015eed9
960–1279
318
False
What dynasty was concerned with countering northern enemy states?
56cc3ad16d243a140015eeda
Song dynasty
304
False
Who ruled the Liao dynasty?
56cc3ad16d243a140015eedb
the Khitan
403
False
Who ruled the  Jin dynasty?
56cc3ad16d243a140015eedc
Jurchen
448
False
During the Five Dynasties and Ten Kingdoms period of China (907–960), while the fractured political realm of China saw no threat in a Tibet which was in just as much political disarray, there was little in the way of Sino-Tibetan relations. Few documents involving Sino-Tibetan contacts survive from the Song dynasty (960–1279). The Song were far more concerned with countering northern enemy states of the Khitan-ruled Liao dynasty (907–1125) and Jurchen-ruled Jin dynasty (1115–1234).
Which ruler took Western Xia under their control?
56cc41416d243a140015eee2
Genghis Khan
26
False
Who was Genghis Khan's successor?
56cc41416d243a140015eee4
Ögedei Khan
407
False
What years did Ögedei Khan rule?
56cc41416d243a140015eee5
1229–1241
423
False
Who invaded Tibet?
56cc41416d243a140015eee6
Ögedei Khan
407
False
In 1207, the Mongol ruler Genghis Khan (r. 1206–1227) conquered and subjugated the ethnic Tangut state of the Western Xia (1038–1227). In the same year, he established diplomatic relations with Tibet by sending envoys there. The conquest of the Western Xia alarmed Tibetan rulers, who decided to pay tribute to the Mongols. However, when they ceased to pay tribute after Genghis Khan's death, his successor Ögedei Khan (r. 1229–1241) launched an invasion into Tibet.
Who was the Mongol prince?
56cc44b76d243a140015eeec
Godan
18
False
Who was the leader of the Sakya school of Tibetan Buddhism?
56cc44b76d243a140015eeed
Sakya Pandita
126
False
Who was the regent of the Mongol Empire?
56cc44b76d243a140015eeee
Töregene Khatun
382
False
In what years was Töregene Khatun the regent of the Mongol Empire?
56cc44b76d243a140015eeef
1241–1246
399
False
The Mongol prince Godan, a grandson of Genghis Khan, raided as far as Lhasa. During his attack in 1240, Prince Godan summoned Sakya Pandita (1182–1251), leader of the Sakya school of Tibetan Buddhism, to his court in what is now Gansu in Western China. With Sakya Pandita's submission to Godan in 1247, Tibet was officially incorporated into the Mongol Empire during the regency of Töregene Khatun (1241–1246). Michael C. van Walt van Praag writes that Godan granted Sakya Pandita temporal authority over a still politically fragmented Tibet, stating that "this investiture had little real impact" but it was significant in that it established the unique "Priest-Patron" relationship between the Mongols and the Sakya lamas.
How many states were ruled by myriarchies?
56cc50756d243a140015eef6
thirteen
815
False
What title did prince Kublai rule as from 1260 to 1294?
56cc50756d243a140015eef7
Khagan
63
False
Who was the superior of prince Kublai?
56cc50756d243a140015eef8
Ögedei Khan
147
False
Who became the second Karmapa Lama?
56cc50756d243a140015eef9
Karma Pakshi
160
False
With whom did Kublai Khan have a unique relationship with?
56cc50756d243a140015eefa
the Phagpa lama
470
False
Starting in 1236, the Mongol prince Kublai, who later ruled as Khagan from 1260–1294, was granted a large appanage in North China by his superior, Ögedei Khan. Karma Pakshi, 2nd Karmapa Lama (1203–1283)—the head lama of the Karma Kagyu lineage of Tibetan Buddhism—rejected Kublai's invitation, so instead Kublai invited Drogön Chögyal Phagpa (1235–1280), successor and nephew of Sakya Pandita, who came to his court in 1253. Kublai instituted a unique relationship with the Phagpa lama, which recognized Kublai as a superior sovereign in political affairs and the Phagpa lama as the senior instructor to Kublai in religious affairs. Kublai also made Drogön Chögyal Phagpa the director of the government agency known as the Bureau of Buddhist and Tibetan Affairs and the ruling priest-king of Tibet, which comprised thirteen different states ruled by myriarchies.
When did Kublai Khan conquer the song dynasty?
56cc52186d243a140015ef00
1279
66
False
When did the Yuan dynasty rule?
56cc52186d243a140015ef01
1271–1368
230
False
Which dynasty ruled all of china?
56cc52186d243a140015ef02
the Yuan dynasty
212
False
What did Khubilai claim for a while?
56cc52186d243a140015ef03
universal rule
765
False
Where did Khubilai seek support as Emperor?
56cc52186d243a140015ef04
China
54
False
Kublai Khan did not conquer the Song dynasty in South China until 1279, so Tibet was a component of the early Mongol Empire before it was combined into one of its descendant empires with the whole of China under the Yuan dynasty (1271–1368). Van Praag writes that this conquest "marked the end of independent China," which was then incorporated into the Yuan dynasty that ruled China, Tibet, Mongolia, Korea, parts of Siberia and Upper Burma. Morris Rossabi, a professor of Asian history at Queens College, City University of New York, writes that "Khubilai wished to be perceived both as the legitimate Khan of Khans of the Mongols and as the Emperor of China. Though he had, by the early 1260s, become closely identified with China, he still, for a time, claimed universal rule", and yet "despite his successes in China and Korea, Khubilai was unable to have himself accepted as the Great Khan". Thus, with such limited acceptance of his position as Great Khan, Kublai Khan increasingly became identified with China and sought support as Emperor of China.
What year was the Sakya viceregal regime eradicated?
56cc59cd6d243a140015ef34
1358
3
False
Who placed the Sakya viceregal regime position of authority?
56cc59cd6d243a140015ef35
the Mongols in Tibet
49
False
Who eradicated the Sakya viceregal regime?
56cc59cd6d243a140015ef36
the Phagmodru myriarch Tai Situ Changchub Gyaltsen
103
False
Which dynasty became ruler of Tibet?
56cc59cd6d243a140015ef37
the Phagmodrupa Dynasty
277
False
In 1358, the Sakya viceregal regime installed by the Mongols in Tibet was overthrown in a rebellion by the Phagmodru myriarch Tai Situ Changchub Gyaltsen (1302–1364). The Mongol Yuan court was forced to accept him as the new viceroy, and Changchub Gyaltsen and his successors, the Phagmodrupa Dynasty, gained de facto rule over Tibet.
Who created the Ming Dynasty?
56cc5e026d243a140015ef3c
Zhu Yuanzhang
106
False
Who caused the Yuan dynasty to fall?
56cc5e026d243a140015ef3d
the Red Turban Rebellion
39
False
Who ruled as the the Hongwu Emperor?
56cc5e026d243a140015ef3e
Zhu Yuanzhang
106
False
What years did Zhu Yuanzhang rule as the Hongwu Emperor?
56cc5e026d243a140015ef3f
1368–1398
188
False
Who did the Hongwu Emperor send convoys to?
56cc5e026d243a140015ef40
Yuan officeholders
617
False
In 1368, a Han Chinese revolt known as the Red Turban Rebellion toppled the Mongol Yuan dynasty in China. Zhu Yuanzhang then established the Ming dynasty, ruling as the Hongwu Emperor (r. 1368–1398). It is not clear how much the early Ming court understood the civil war going on in Tibet between rival religious sects, but the first emperor was anxious to avoid the same trouble that Tibet had caused for the Tang dynasty. Instead of recognizing the Phagmodru ruler, the Hongwu Emperor sided with the Karmapa of the nearer Kham region and southeastern Tibet, sending envoys out in the winter of 1372–1373 to ask the Yuan officeholders to renew their titles for the new Ming court.
Who was the fourth Karmapa Lama?
56cc5fd66d243a140015ef50
Rolpe Dorje
139
False
Who rejected an invitation by the Hongwu Emperor?
56cc5fd66d243a140015ef52
Rolpe Dorje
139
False
What did the the Hongwu Emperor want to continue to promote?
56cc5fd66d243a140015ef53
the Buddhist link between Tibet and China
72
False
Who did Rolpe Dorje send as envoys to court in Nanjing?
56cc5fd66d243a140015ef54
disciples
249
False
As evident in his imperial edicts, the Hongwu Emperor was well aware of the Buddhist link between Tibet and China and wanted to foster it. Rolpe Dorje, 4th Karmapa Lama (1340–1383) rejected the Hongwu Emperor's invitation, although he did send some disciples as envoys to the court in Nanjing. The Hongwu Emperor also entrusted his guru Zongluo, one of many Buddhist monks at court, to head a religious mission into Tibet in 1378–1382 in order to obtain Buddhist texts.
Who created a law that did not allow Han Chinese to learn the beliefs of Tibetan Buddhism?
56cccb3c62d2951400fa64be
Ming government
19
False
What years did the Yongle Emperor reign?
56cccb3c62d2951400fa64bf
1402–1424
372
False
Who worked towards obtaining a extension of relations with Tibet?
56cccb3c62d2951400fa64c0
the Yongle Emperor
349
False
However, the early Ming government enacted a law, later rescinded, which forbade Han Chinese to learn the tenets of Tibetan Buddhism. There is little detailed evidence of Chinese—especially lay Chinese—studying Tibetan Buddhism until the Republican era (1912–1949). Despite these missions on behalf of the Hongwu Emperor, Morris Rossabi writes that the Yongle Emperor (r. 1402–1424) "was the first Ming ruler actively to seek an extension of relations with Tibet."
What years did the Qing dynasty rule?
56ccd5bc62d2951400fa64c6
1644–1912
118
False
what year was the history of Ming produced?
56ccd5bc62d2951400fa64c7
1739
81
False
What did the Ming dynasty create?
56ccd5bc62d2951400fa64c8
É-Lì-Sī Army-Civilian Marshal Office
164
False
How many Qianhu offices were there?
56ccd5bc62d2951400fa64c9
seventeen Qianhu offices
638
False
where was the É-Lì-Sī Army-Civilian Marshal Office established?
56ccd5bc62d2951400fa64ca
western Tibet
225
False
According to the official Twenty-Four Histories, the History of Ming compiled in 1739 by the subsequent Qing dynasty (1644–1912), the Ming dynasty established the "É-Lì-Sī Army-Civilian Marshal Office" (Chinese: 俄力思軍民元帥府) in western Tibet and installed the "Ü-Tsang Itinerant High Commandery" and "Amdo-Kham Itinerant High Commandery" to administer Kham. The Mingshi states that administrative offices were set up under these high commanderies, including one Itinerant Commandery, three Pacification Commissioner's Offices, six Expedition Commissioner's Offices, four Wanhu offices (myriarchies, in command of 10,000 households each) and seventeen Qianhu offices (chiliarchies, each in command of 1,000 households).
How many princes of Dharma were assigned by the Ming court?
56ccd9b562d2951400fa64d0
three
25
False
Who established the Tibetan law code?
56ccd9b562d2951400fa64d2
Tai Situ Changchub Gyaltsen
522
False
Who was the Phagmodru ruler?
56ccd9b562d2951400fa64d3
Tai Situ Changchub Gyaltsen
522
False
The Ming court appointed three Princes of Dharma (法王) and five Princes (王), and granted many other titles, such as Grand State Tutors (大國師) and State Tutors (國師), to the important schools of Tibetan Buddhism, including the Karma Kagyu, Sakya, and Gelug. According to Wang Jiawei and Nyima Gyaincain, leading officials of these organs were all appointed by the central government and were subject to the rule of law. Yet Van Praag describes the distinct and long-lasting Tibetan law code established by the Phagmodru ruler Tai Situ Changchub Gyaltsen as one of many reforms to revive old Imperial Tibetan traditions.
who was a professor of the University of Washington?
56ccde7862d2951400fa64d8
Turrell V. Wylie
9
False
Who had a large amount of contacts with china during Yuan?
56ccde7862d2951400fa64d9
Tibet
193
False
Who believed that Tibet barely had any diplomatic relations with the Ming?
56ccde7862d2951400fa64da
Morris Rossabi
757
False
The late Turrell V. Wylie, a former professor of the University of Washington, and Li Tieh-tseng argue that the reliability of the heavily censored History of Ming as a credible source on Sino-Tibetan relations is questionable, in the light of modern scholarship. Other historians also assert that these Ming titles were nominal and did not actually confer the authority that the earlier Yuan titles had. Van Praag writes that the "numerous economically motivated Tibetan missions to the Ming Court are referred to as 'tributary missions' in the Ming Shih." Van Praag writes that these "tributary missions" were simply prompted by China's need for horses from Tibet, since a viable horse market in Mongol lands was closed as a result of incessant conflict. Morris Rossabi also writes that "Tibet, which had extensive contacts with China during the Yuan, scarcely had diplomatic relations with the Ming."
Who supported van Praag's beliefs?
56ccea7c62d2951400fa64de
historian Tsepon W. D. Shakabpa
309
False
Who did not agree with van Praag and Shakabpa?
56ccea7c62d2951400fa64df
Wang Jiawei and Nyima Gyaincain
381
False
Historians disagree on what the relationship was between the Ming court and Tibet and whether or not Ming China had sovereignty over Tibet. Van Praag writes that Chinese court historians viewed Tibet as an independent foreign tributary and had little interest in Tibet besides a lama-patron relationship. The historian Tsepon W. D. Shakabpa supports van Praag's position. However, Wang Jiawei and Nyima Gyaincain state that these assertions by van Praag and Shakabpa are "fallacies".
Who believed that the Ming court had full sovereignty over Tibet?
56ccea7f62d2951400fa64e2
Wang and Nyima
0
False
What year did Wang and Nyima believe that the Mongol Prince Punala went to Nanjing?
56ccea7f62d2951400fa64e3
1371
398
False
What did the lamas called themselves?
56ccea7f62d2951400fa64e5
princes
691
False
What edicts did the Ming issue?
56ccea7f62d2951400fa64e6
imperial edicts
805
False
Wang and Nyima argue that the Ming emperor sent edicts to Tibet twice in the second year of the Ming dynasty, and demonstrated that he viewed Tibet as a significant region to pacify by urging various Tibetan tribes to submit to the authority of the Ming court. They note that at the same time, the Mongol Prince Punala, who had inherited his position as ruler of areas of Tibet, went to Nanjing in 1371 to pay tribute and show his allegiance to the Ming court, bringing with him the seal of authority issued by the Yuan court. They also state that since successors of lamas granted the title of "prince" had to travel to the Ming court to renew this title, and since lamas called themselves princes, the Ming court therefore had "full sovereignty over Tibet." They state that the Ming dynasty, by issuing imperial edicts to invite ex-Yuan officials to the court for official positions in the early years of its founding, won submission from ex-Yuan religious and administrative leaders in the Tibetan areas, and thereby incorporated Tibetan areas into the rule of the Ming court. Thus, they conclude, the Ming court won the power to rule Tibetan areas formerly under the rule of the Yuan dynasty.
Who wrote the book The Story of Tibet?
56cceda862d2951400fa64ec
Journalist and author Thomas Laird
0
False
who colonized India and New Zealand?
56cceda862d2951400fa64ed
the British
608
False
Who's viewpoint does Thomas Laird believe Wang and Nyima present?
56cceda862d2951400fa64ee
the government viewpoint of the People's Republic of China
138
False
Journalist and author Thomas Laird, in his book The Story of Tibet: Conversations with the Dalai Lama, writes that Wang and Nyima present the government viewpoint of the People's Republic of China in their Historical Status of China's Tibet, and fail to realize that China was "absorbed into a larger, non-Chinese political unit" during the Mongol Yuan dynasty, which Wang and Nyima paint as a characteristic Chinese dynasty succeeded by the Ming. Laird asserts that the ruling Mongol khans never administered Tibet as part of China and instead ruled them as separate territories, comparing the Mongols with the British who colonized India and New Zealand, yet stating this does not make India part of New Zealand as a consequence. Of later Mongol and Tibetan accounts interpreting the Mongol conquest of Tibet, Laird asserts that "they, like all non-Chinese historical narratives, never portray the Mongol subjugation of Tibet as a Chinese one."
How did the The Columbia Encyclopedia describe the Yuan dynasty?
56ccf12b62d2951400fa64f2
A Mongol dynasty of China
189
False
How did the Encyclopedia Americana describe the Yuan Dynasty?
56ccf12b62d2951400fa64f3
the line of Mongol rulers in China
444
False
What did Thomas Laird dismiss the Yuan dynasty as?
56ccf12b62d2951400fa64f4
a non-Chinese polity
846
False
Who wrote the book Khubilai Khan?
56ccf12b62d2951400fa64f5
Rossabi
1168
False
When did the yuan dynasty start and end?
56ccf12b62d2951400fa64f6
1271 to 1368
231
False
The Columbia Encyclopedia distinguishes between the Yuan dynasty and the other Mongol Empire khanates of Ilkhanate, Chagatai Khanate and the Golden Horde. It describes the Yuan dynasty as "A Mongol dynasty of China that ruled from 1271 to 1368, and a division of the great empire conquered by the Mongols. Founded by Kublai Khan, who adopted the Chinese dynastic name of Yüan in 1271." The Encyclopedia Americana describes the Yuan dynasty as "the line of Mongol rulers in China" and adds that the Mongols "proclaimed a Chinese-style Yüan dynasty at Khanbaliq (Beijing)." The Metropolitan Museum of Art writes that the Mongol rulers of the Yuan dynasty "adopted Chinese political and cultural models; ruling from their capitals in Dadu, they assumed the role of Chinese emperors," although Tibetologist Thomas Laird dismissed the Yuan dynasty as a non-Chinese polity and plays down its Chinese characteristics. The Metropolitan Museum of Art also noted that in spite of the gradual assimilation of Yuan monarchs, the Mongol rulers largely ignored the literati and imposed harsh policies discriminating against southern Chinese. In his Kublai Khan: His Life and Times, Rossabi explains that Kublai "created government institutions that either resembled or were the same as the traditional Chinese ones", and he "wished to signal to the Chinese that he intended to adopt the trappings and style of a Chinese ruler".
When did Ayurbarwada Buyantu Khan reign?
56ccf53362d2951400fa64fd
1311–1320
447
False
During the Yuan what existed between China and Tibet?
56ccf53362d2951400fa64ff
a licensed border market
1450
False
Who was granted higher status than the Han Chinese majority?
56ccf53362d2951400fa6500
the Mongols and other ethnicities
60
False
Nevertheless, the ethno-geographic caste hierarchy favoring the Mongols and other ethnicities were accorded higher status than the Han Chinese majority. Although Han Chinese who were recruited as advisers were often actually more influential than high officials, their status was not as well defined. Kublai also abolished the imperial examinations of China's civil service legacy, which was not reinstated until Ayurbarwada Buyantu Khan's reign (1311–1320). Rossabi writes that Kublai recognized that in order to rule China, "he had to employ Chinese advisors and officials, yet he could not rely totally on Chinese advisers because he had to maintain a delicate balancing act between ruling the sedentary civilization of China and preserving the cultural identity and values of the Mongols." And "in governing China, he was concerned with the interests of his Chinese subjects, but also with exploiting the resources of the empire for his own aggrandizement. His motivations and objectives alternated from one to the other throughout his reign," according to Rossabi. Van Praag writes in The Status of Tibet that the Tibetans and Mongols, on the other hand, upheld a dual system of rule and an interdependent relationship that legitimated the succession of Mongol khans as universal Buddhist rulers, or chakravartin. Van Praag writes that "Tibet remained a unique part of the Empire and was never fully integrated into it," citing examples such as a licensed border market that existed between China and Tibet during the Yuan.
Who abolished the policy council?
56ccf96562d2951400fa6506
the Ming
99
False
What was the Tibetan leader  Choskunskyabs  appointed as?
56ccf96562d2951400fa6507
the General of the Ngari Military and Civil Wanhu Office
798
False
Who governed most areas of Tibet?
56ccf96562d2951400fa6509
Ming dynasty's Ü-Tsang Commanding Office
328
False
The official position of the Ministry of Foreign Affairs of the People's Republic of China is that the Ming implemented a policy of managing Tibet according to conventions and customs, granting titles and setting up administrative organs over Tibet. The State Council Information Office of the People's Republic states that the Ming dynasty's Ü-Tsang Commanding Office governed most areas of Tibet. It also states that while the Ming abolished the policy council set up by the Mongol Yuan to manage local affairs in Tibet and the Mongol system of Imperial Tutors to govern religious affairs, the Ming adopted a policy of bestowing titles upon religious leaders who had submitted to the Ming dynasty. For example, an edict of the Hongwu Emperor in 1373 appointed the Tibetan leader Choskunskyabs as the General of the Ngari Military and Civil Wanhu Office, stating:
Where is the China Tibetology Research Center located?
56cd480b62d2951400fa650e
Beijing
128
False
Who was the Director of the History Studies Institute?
56cd480b62d2951400fa650f
Chen Qingying
0
False
How many households were the offices of Qianhu in charge of?
56cd480b62d2951400fa6510
1,000 households
690
False
How many households were the offices of Wanhu in charge of?
56cd480b62d2951400fa6511
10,000 households
744
False
Chen Qingying, Professor of History and Director of the History Studies Institute under the China Tibetology Research Center in Beijing, writes that the Ming court conferred new official positions on ex-Yuan Tibetan leaders of the Phachu Kargyu and granted them lower-ranking positions. Of the county (zong or dzong) leaders of Neiwo Zong and Renbam Zong, Chen states that when "the Emperor learned the actual situation of the Phachu Kargyu, the Ming court then appointed the main Zong leaders to be senior officers of the Senior Command of Dbus and Gtsang." The official posts that the Ming court established in Tibet, such as senior and junior commanders, offices of Qianhu (in charge of 1,000 households), and offices of Wanhu (in charge of 10,000 households), were all hereditary positions according to Chen, but he asserts that "the succession of some important posts still had to be approved by the emperor," while old imperial mandates had to be returned to the Ming court for renewal.
What was the name of the Tibetologist?
56cd4a5162d2951400fa6516
John Powers
26
False
Who did the Ming emperors send invitations to?
56cd4a5162d2951400fa6517
ruling lamas
416
False
When the lamas received an invite from the emperors, who did they send instead?
56cd4a5162d2951400fa6518
subordinates
449
False
According to Tibetologist John Powers, Tibetan sources counter this narrative of titles granted by the Chinese to Tibetans with various titles which the Tibetans gave to the Chinese emperors and their officials. Tribute missions from Tibetan monasteries to the Chinese court brought back not only titles, but large, commercially valuable gifts which could subsequently be sold. The Ming emperors sent invitations to ruling lamas, but the lamas sent subordinates rather than coming themselves, and no Tibetan ruler ever explicitly accepted the role of being a vassal of the Ming.
What was the western regions composed of?
56cd556f62d2951400fa651c
the Tarim Basin and oasis of Turpan
260
False
Who believed that they were the true Han Western representatives?
56cd556f62d2951400fa651d
foreign officials
139
False
Hans Bielenstein writes that as far back as the Han dynasty (202 BCE–220 CE), the Han Chinese government "maintained the fiction" that the foreign officials administering the various "Dependent States" and oasis city-states of the Western Regions (composed of the Tarim Basin and oasis of Turpan) were true Han representatives due to the Han government's conferral of Chinese seals and seal cords to them.
What title was given by the Yuan court to Tai Situ Changchub Gyaltsen ?
56cd58c362d2951400fa6520
Education Minister
52
False
What Tibetan title was hardly ever mentioned when referring to Tai Situ Changchub Gyaltsen?
56cd58c362d2951400fa6521
Degsi
242
False
What dynasty kept a Central-local government relation with the Yuan imperial court?
56cd58c362d2951400fa6522
Phagmodrupa Dynasty
419
False
What two people claim the title of Education Minister was often seen next to Tai Situ Changchub Gyaltsen's name in Tibetan texts?
56cd58c362d2951400fa6523
Wang and Nyima
0
False
Who wrote in their will that they received loving care from the emperor in the east?
56cd58c362d2951400fa6524
The Tai Situpa
488
False
Wang and Nyima state that after the official title "Education Minister" was granted to Tai Situ Changchub Gyaltsen (1302–1364) by the Yuan court, this title appeared frequently with his name in various Tibetan texts, while his Tibetan title "Degsi" (sic properly sde-srid or desi) is seldom mentioned. Wang and Nyima take this to mean that "even in the later period of the Yuan dynasty, the Yuan imperial court and the Phagmodrupa Dynasty maintained a Central-local government relation." The Tai Situpa is even supposed to have written in his will: "In the past I received loving care from the emperor in the east. If the emperor continues to care for us, please follow his edicts and the imperial envoy should be well received."
Who divided Central Tibet into districts?
56cd5ccc62d2951400fa6532
Changchub Gyaltsen
91
False
Who strongly believed Changchub Gyaltsen wanted to restore the glories of its Imperial age to Tibet?
56cd5ccc62d2951400fa6533
Van Praag
889
False
What university was Lok-Ham Chan a professor at?
56cd5ccc62d2951400fa6535
the University of Washington
49
False
What did Lok-Ham Chan claim  Changchub Gyaltsen wanted to remove?
56cd5ccc62d2951400fa6536
all traces of Mongol suzerainty
270
False
However, Lok-Ham Chan, a professor of history at the University of Washington, writes that Changchub Gyaltsen's aims were to recreate the old Tibetan Kingdom that existed during the Chinese Tang dynasty, to build "nationalist sentiment" amongst Tibetans, and to "remove all traces of Mongol suzerainty." Georges Dreyfus, a professor of religion at Williams College, writes that it was Changchub Gyaltsen who adopted the old administrative system of Songtsän Gampo (c. 605–649)—the first leader of the Tibetan Empire to establish Tibet as a strong power—by reinstating its legal code of punishments and administrative units. For example, instead of the 13 governorships established by the Mongol Sakya viceroy, Changchub Gyaltsen divided Central Tibet into districts (dzong) with district heads (dzong dpon) who had to conform to old rituals and wear clothing styles of old Imperial Tibet. Van Praag asserts that Changchub Gyaltsen's ambitions were to "restore to Tibet the glories of its Imperial Age" by reinstating secular administration, promoting "national culture and traditions," and installing a law code that survived into the 20th century.
Who did the Hongwu Emperor grant the title Initiation State Master to?
56cd5f5b62d2951400fa654c
Sagya Gyaincain
415
False
Who suggested to the emperor that an official title be granted to second Phagmodru ruler?
56cd5f5b62d2951400fa654d
the Ming officer of Hezhou
19
False
Who was the second Phagmodru ruler?
56cd5f5b62d2951400fa654e
Jamyang Shakya Gyaltsen
238
False
Who told the emperor that the situation in Dbus and Gtsang were under control?
56cd5f5b62d2951400fa654f
the Ming officer of Hezhou
19
False
Where were the envoys sent?
56cd5f5b62d2951400fa6550
to the Ming court
461
False
According to Chen, the Ming officer of Hezhou (modern day Linxia) informed the Hongwu Emperor that the general situation in Dbus and Gtsang "was under control," and so he suggested to the emperor that he offer the second Phagmodru ruler, Jamyang Shakya Gyaltsen, an official title. According to the Records of the Founding Emperor, the Hongwu Emperor issued an edict granting the title "Initiation State Master" to Sagya Gyaincain, while the latter sent envoys to the Ming court to hand over his jade seal of authority along with tribute of colored silk and satin, statues of the Buddha, Buddhist scriptures, and sarira.
Who lost their power over Tibet?
56cd606a62d2951400fa6556
the Phagmodrupa
26
False
What year did the Phagmodrupa lose their power over Tibet?
56cd606a62d2951400fa6557
1434
84
False
What year did the 5th Dalai lama start to dominate over Tibet?
56cd606a62d2951400fa6558
1642
190
False
What did the other families fail to establish?
56cd606a62d2951400fa6559
hegemonies
138
False
Dreyfus writes that after the Phagmodrupa lost its centralizing power over Tibet in 1434, several attempts by other families to establish hegemonies failed over the next two centuries until 1642 with the 5th Dalai Lama's effective hegemony over Tibet.
The Ming Dynasty granted what titles to lamas of schools?
56cd62e262d2951400fa655e
the Karmapa Kargyu
60
False
Who did the Ming Dynasty decline titles from after receiving invitations?
56cd62e262d2951400fa655f
Mongol
119
False
Who was the founder of the Gelug school?
56cd62e262d2951400fa6560
Je Tsongkhapa
194
False
Who invited Je Tsongkhapa to come pay tribute?
56cd62e262d2951400fa6561
the Ming Yongle Emperor
162
False
Who wrote the letter declining the Emperor's invitation?
56cd62e262d2951400fa6562
Tsongkhapa
197
False
The Ming dynasty granted titles to lamas of schools such as the Karmapa Kargyu, but the latter had previously declined Mongol invitations to receive titles. When the Ming Yongle Emperor invited Je Tsongkhapa (1357–1419), founder of the Gelug school, to come to the Ming court and pay tribute, the latter declined. Wang and Nyima write that this was due to old age and physical weakness, and also because of efforts being made to build three major monasteries. Chen Qingying states that Tsongkhapa wrote a letter to decline the Emperor's invitation, and in this reply, Tsongkhapa wrote:
When did the Ming first request Tsongkhapa to come to court?
56cd64e762d2951400fa6569
1407
282
False
When did the Ming court send a second request to Tsongkhapa?
56cd64e762d2951400fa656a
1413
331
False
Who did Tsongkhapa send in his place to Nanjing?
56cd64e762d2951400fa656b
his disciple Chosrje Shākya Yeshes
525
False
When was Chosrje Shākya Yeshes sent to Nanjing?
56cd64e762d2951400fa656c
1414
574
False
A. Tom Grunfeld says that Tsongkhapa claimed ill health in his refusal to appear at the Ming court, while Rossabi adds that Tsongkhapa cited the "length and arduousness of the journey" to China as another reason not to make an appearance. This first request by the Ming was made in 1407, but the Ming court sent another embassy in 1413, this one led by the eunuch Hou Xian (候顯; fl. 1403–1427), which was again refused by Tsongkhapa. Rossabi writes that Tsongkhapa did not want to entirely alienate the Ming court, so he sent his disciple Chosrje Shākya Yeshes to Nanjing in 1414 on his behalf, and upon his arrival in 1415 the Yongle Emperor bestowed upon him the title of "State Teacher"—the same title earlier awarded the Phagmodrupa ruler of Tibet. The Xuande Emperor (r. 1425–1435) even granted this disciple Chosrje Shākya Yeshes the title of a "King" (王). This title does not appear to have held any practical meaning, or to have given its holder any power, at Tsongkhapa's Ganden Monastery. Wylie notes that this—like the Karma Kargyu—cannot be seen as a reappointment of Mongol Yuan offices, since the Gelug school was created after the fall of the Yuan dynasty.
Who believed the Ming reappointed old Yuan dynasty officials in Tibet?
56cd669562d2951400fa6572
Dawa Norbu
0
False
Dawa Norbu argues that modern Chinese Communist historians tend to be in favor of the view that the Ming simply reappointed old Yuan dynasty officials in Tibet and perpetuated their rule of Tibet in this manner. Norbu writes that, although this would have been true for the eastern Tibetan regions of Amdo and Kham's "tribute-cum-trade" relations with the Ming, it was untrue if applied to the western Tibetan regions of Ü-Tsang and Ngari. After the Phagmodrupa Changchub Gyaltsen, these were ruled by "three successive nationalistic regimes," which Norbu writes "Communist historians prefer to ignore."
Who did the Ming appoint titles to?
56cd682162d2951400fa658c
eastern Tibetan princes
47
False
What didn't the Ming send to replace the Mongols when they left Tibet?
56cd682162d2951400fa658d
an army
260
False
What does Yiu Yung-chin claim the Ming did not possess?
56cd682162d2951400fa658e
Tibet
55
False
Laird writes that the Ming appointed titles to eastern Tibetan princes, and that "these alliances with eastern Tibetan principalities are the evidence China now produces for its assertion that the Ming ruled Tibet," despite the fact that the Ming did not send an army to replace the Mongols after they left Tibet. Yiu Yung-chin states that the furthest western extent of the Ming dynasty's territory was Gansu, Sichuan, and Yunnan while "the Ming did not possess Tibet."
What was the name of the  eunuch?
56cd6a3d62d2951400fa659c
Yang Sanbao
68
False
Where did the Yongle Emperor send Yang Sanbao?
56cd6a3d62d2951400fa659d
Tibet
85
False
When did Yongle Emperor send Yang Sanbao into Tibet?
56cd6a3d62d2951400fa659e
1413
94
False
Why did Yongle Emperor send Yang Sanbao into Tibet?
56cd6a3d62d2951400fa659f
the allegiance of various Tibetan princes
107
False
Why did the emperor pay a small fortune in gifts?
56cd6a3d62d2951400fa65a0
to maintain the loyalty of neighboring vassal states
234
False
Shih-Shan Henry Tsai writes that the Yongle Emperor sent his eunuch Yang Sanbao into Tibet in 1413 to gain the allegiance of various Tibetan princes, while the Yongle Emperor paid a small fortune in return gifts for tributes in order to maintain the loyalty of neighboring vassal states such as Nepal and Tibet. However, Van Praag states that Tibetan rulers upheld their own separate relations with the kingdoms of Nepal and Kashmir, and at times "engaged in armed confrontation with them."
Who did the Gelug exchange gifts with?
56cd6b0562d2951400fa65a6
the Ming court
64
False
Until what year frame did the Gelug exchange gifts with the the Ming?
56cd6b0562d2951400fa65a7
1430s
92
False
What was the Gelug not mentioned in?
56cd6b0562d2951400fa65a8
the Mingshi or the Mingshi Lu
130
False
Even though the Gelug exchanged gifts with and sent missions to the Ming court up until the 1430s, the Gelug was not mentioned in the Mingshi or the Mingshi Lu. On this, historian Li Tieh-tseng says of Tsongkhapa's refusal of Ming invitations to visit the Yongle Emperor's court:
Regardless of their sectarian affiliations, who did the Ming grant titles to?
56cd6e9062d2951400fa65ac
various lamas
173
False
Who was the viceregal Sakya regime overthrown by?
56cd6e9062d2951400fa65ad
the Phagmodru myriarchy
573
False
Wylie asserts that this type of censorship of the History of Ming distorts the true picture of the history of Sino-Tibetan relations, while the Ming court granted titles to various lamas regardless of their sectarian affiliations in an ongoing civil war in Tibet between competing Buddhist factions. Wylie argues that Ming titles of "King" granted indiscriminately to various Tibetan lamas or even their disciples should not be viewed as reappointments to earlier Yuan dynasty offices, since the viceregal Sakya regime established by the Mongols in Tibet was overthrown by the Phagmodru myriarchy before the Ming existed.
Who believed that the Ming had no real authority over Tibet?
56cd70e962d2951400fa65b2
Melvyn C. Goldstein
243
False
What years did the Rinpungpa regime start and end?
56cd70e962d2951400fa65b3
1435–1565
729
False
Who believed that the titles given to Tibetan leaders did not confer authority?
56cd70e962d2951400fa65b4
Melvyn C. Goldstein
243
False
What years did the Tsangpa start and end?
56cd70e962d2951400fa65b5
1565–1642
754
False
Helmut Hoffman states that the Ming upheld the facade of rule over Tibet through periodic missions of "tribute emissaries" to the Ming court and by granting nominal titles to ruling lamas, but did not actually interfere in Tibetan governance. Melvyn C. Goldstein writes that the Ming had no real administrative authority over Tibet, as the various titles given to Tibetan leaders did not confer authority as the earlier Mongol Yuan titles had. He asserts that "by conferring titles on Tibetans already in power, the Ming emperors merely recognized political reality." Hugh Edward Richardson writes that the Ming dynasty exercised no authority over the succession of Tibetan ruling families, the Phagmodru (1354–1435), Rinpungpa (1435–1565), and Tsangpa (1565–1642).
What year did the Jianwen Emperor reign start and end?
56cd727662d2951400fa65ba
1398–1402
61
False
Who aided the Yongle Emperor?
56cd727662d2951400fa65bb
the Buddhist monk Yao Guangxiao
105
False
Who was Yongle Emperor's father?
56cd727662d2951400fa65bc
the Hongwu Emperor
159
False
When did the Yongle Emperor invite Deshin Shekpa to his court?
56cd727662d2951400fa65bd
March 10, 1403
255
False
In his usurpation of the throne from the Jianwen Emperor (r. 1398–1402), the Yongle Emperor was aided by the Buddhist monk Yao Guangxiao, and like his father, the Hongwu Emperor, the Yongle Emperor was "well-disposed towards Buddhism", claims Rossabi. On March 10, 1403, the Yongle Emperor invited Deshin Shekpa, 5th Karmapa Lama (1384–1415), to his court, even though the fourth Karmapa had rejected the invitation of the Hongwu Emperor. A Tibetan translation in the 16th century preserves the letter of the Yongle Emperor, which the Association for Asian Studies notes is polite and complimentary towards the Karmapa. The letter of invitation reads,
Who did the Yongle Emperor send to Tibet?
56cd73b562d2951400fa65cc
Hou Xian and the Buddhist monk Zhi Guang
75
False
Why did the Yongle Emperor send Hou Xian and Zhi Guang to Tibet?
56cd73b562d2951400fa65cd
to seek out the Karmapa
9
False
When did Hou Xian and Zhi Guang return to Nanjing?
56cd73b562d2951400fa65ce
1407
265
False
Where did Hou Xian and Zhi Guang travel through on their way to the Karmapa?
56cd73b562d2951400fa65cf
through Qinghai or via the Silk Road to Khotan
162
False
In order to seek out the Karmapa, the Yongle Emperor dispatched his eunuch Hou Xian and the Buddhist monk Zhi Guang (d. 1435) to Tibet. Traveling to Lhasa either through Qinghai or via the Silk Road to Khotan, Hou Xian and Zhi Guang did not return to Nanjing until 1407.
When did Deshin Shekpa travels start?
56cd779762d2951400fa65dc
1403
32
False
Where did the Yongle Emperor greet the Karmapa?
56cd779762d2951400fa65dd
Nanjing
115
False
Who did the Emperor give the place of honor at his left to?
56cd779762d2951400fa65de
the Karmapa
388
False
Who sat on a lower platform than the Tibetan cleric?
56cd779762d2951400fa65df
Kublai
643
False
Who showed a great amount of respect to Deshin Shekpa?
56cd779762d2951400fa65e0
the Yongle Emperor
160
False
During his travels beginning in 1403, Deshin Shekpa was induced by further exhortations by the Ming court to visit Nanjing by April 10, 1407. Norbu writes that the Yongle Emperor, following the tradition of Mongol emperors and their reverence for the Sakya lamas, showed an enormous amount of deference towards Deshin Shekpa. The Yongle Emperor came out of the palace in Nanjing to greet the Karmapa and did not require him to kowtow like a tributary vassal. According to Karma Thinley, the emperor gave the Karmapa the place of honor at his left, and on a higher throne than his own. Rossabi and others describe a similar arrangement made by Kublai Khan and the Sakya Phagpa lama, writing that Kublai would "sit on a lower platform than the Tibetan cleric" when receiving religious instructions from him.
At what temple did the ceremonies for the Yongle Emperor's deceased parents take place?
56cd798262d2951400fa65f6
Linggu Temple
104
False
Where was the Linggu Temple located?
56cd798262d2951400fa65f7
Nanjing
121
False
What title was Deshin Shekpa given at Nanjing?
56cd798262d2951400fa65f8
Great Treasure Prince of Dharma
437
False
Who did Deshin Shekpa persuade the Yongle Emperor to give the title to?
56cd798262d2951400fa65fa
religious leaders of other Tibetan Buddhist sects
943
False
Throughout the following month, the Yongle Emperor and his court showered the Karmapa with presents. At Linggu Temple in Nanjing, he presided over the religious ceremonies for the Yongle Emperor's deceased parents, while twenty-two days of his stay were marked by religious miracles that were recorded in five languages on a gigantic scroll that bore the Emperor's seal. During his stay in Nanjing, Deshin Shekpa was bestowed the title "Great Treasure Prince of Dharma" by the Yongle Emperor. Elliot Sperling asserts that the Yongle Emperor, in bestowing Deshin Shekpa with the title of "King" and praising his mystical abilities and miracles, was trying to build an alliance with the Karmapa as the Mongols had with the Sakya lamas, but Deshin Shekpa rejected the Yongle Emperor's offer. In fact, this was the same title that Kublai Khan had offered the Sakya Phagpa lama, but Deshin Shekpa persuaded the Yongle Emperor to grant the title to religious leaders of other Tibetan Buddhist sects.
Who imposed on the military might on Tibet in the past?
56cd7c1962d2951400fa661e
the Mongols
113
False
Hok-Lam Chan states that Deshin Skekpa was only invited for what purpose?
56cd7c1962d2951400fa661f
religious purposes
560
False
What was said to be the  Yongle Emperor plans?
56cd7c1962d2951400fa6620
to send a military force into Tibet
238
False
Why was the Yongle Emperor said to have been planning to send military forces into Tibet?
56cd7c1962d2951400fa6621
to forcibly give the Karmapa authority over all the Tibetan Buddhist schools
274
False
Who convinced the Yongle emperor not to send military forces into Tibet?
56cd7c1962d2951400fa6622
Deshin Shekpa
20
False
Tibetan sources say Deshin Shekpa also persuaded the Yongle Emperor not to impose his military might on Tibet as the Mongols had previously done. Thinley writes that before the Karmapa returned to Tibet, the Yongle Emperor began planning to send a military force into Tibet to forcibly give the Karmapa authority over all the Tibetan Buddhist schools but Deshin Shekpa dissuaded him. However, Hok-Lam Chan states that "there is little evidence that this was ever the emperor's intention" and that evidence indicates that Deshin Skekpa was invited strictly for religious purposes.
Who did the Yongle Emperor have a conflict with?
56cd7dda62d2951400fa6640
Jianwen Emperor
261
False
Who aided the legitimacy of the Yongle Emperor's rule?
56cd7dda62d2951400fa6641
Deshin Shekpa
27
False
What served as a legitimizing tool for the emperor's succession to the throne?
56cd7dda62d2951400fa6644
Deshin Shekpa's miracles
27
False
Marsha Weidner states that Deshin Shekpa's miracles "testified to the power of both the emperor and his guru and served as a legitimizing tool for the emperor's problematic succession to the throne," referring to the Yongle Emperor's conflict with the previous Jianwen Emperor. Tsai writes that Deshin Shekpa aided the legitimacy of the Yongle Emperor's rule by providing him with portents and omens which demonstrated Heaven's favor of the Yongle Emperor on the Ming throne.
According to Norbu who failed to realize the significance of the religious aspect of the Ming-Tibetan relationship?
56cd8d1462d2951400fa66b8
Chinese Communist historians
118
False
What were the items of tribute?
56cd8d1462d2951400fa66b9
Buddhist artifacts
502
False
Who believe that the Ming dynasty did not exercise any direct political control over Tibet?
56cd8d1462d2951400fa66bb
Josef Kolmaš
582
False
With the example of the Ming court's relationship with the fifth Karmapa and other Tibetan leaders, Norbu states that Chinese Communist historians have failed to realize the significance of the religious aspect of the Ming-Tibetan relationship. He writes that the meetings of lamas with the Emperor of China were exchanges of tribute between "the patron and the priest" and were not merely instances of a political subordinate paying tribute to a superior. He also notes that the items of tribute were Buddhist artifacts which symbolized "the religious nature of the relationship." Josef Kolmaš writes that the Ming dynasty did not exercise any direct political control over Tibet, content with their tribute relations that were "almost entirely of a religious character." Patricia Ann Berger writes that the Yongle Emperor's courting and granting of titles to lamas was his attempt to "resurrect the relationship between China and Tibet established earlier by the Yuan dynastic founder Khubilai Khan and his guru Phagpa." She also writes that the later Qing emperors and their Mongol associates viewed the Yongle Emperor's relationship with Tibet as "part of a chain of reincarnation that saw this Han Chinese emperor as yet another emanation of Manjusri."
What years did the Zhengtong Emperor reign?
56cd8d1a62d2951400fa66c2
1435–1449
103
False
Who maintains an edict of the Zhengtong Emperor?
56cd8d1a62d2951400fa66c3
The Information Office of the State Council of the PRC
0
False
Who was the edict addressed to?
56cd8d1a62d2951400fa66c4
the Karmapa
127
False
Who had a message delivered to them by Zhengtong?
56cd8d1a62d2951400fa66c5
Great Treasure Prince of Dharma
277
False
When was the edict written?
56cd8d1a62d2951400fa66c6
after the latter's agent had brought holy relics to the Ming court
156
False
The Information Office of the State Council of the PRC preserves an edict of the Zhengtong Emperor (r. 1435–1449) addressed to the Karmapa in 1445, written after the latter's agent had brought holy relics to the Ming court. Zhengtong had the following message delivered to the Great Treasure Prince of Dharma, the Karmapa:
Who did the Ming cut off all relations with?
56cd8d2162d2951400fa66cc
the Karmapa hierarchs
126
False
What year did the Ming cut off the Karmapa hierarchs?
56cd8d2162d2951400fa66cd
1446
78
False
When did  Deshin Shekpa  die?
56cd8d2162d2951400fa66ce
1415
214
False
Who did the Ming court think the representatives were sent by?
56cd8d2162d2951400fa66cf
the Karmapa
126
False
Despite this glowing message by the Emperor, Chan writes that a year later in 1446, the Ming court cut off all relations with the Karmapa hierarchs. Until then, the court was unaware that Deshin Shekpa had died in 1415. The Ming court had believed that the representatives of the Karma Kagyu who continued to visit the Ming capital were sent by the Karmapa.
Why did Yongle order the construction?
56cd8d2462d2951400fa66d5
to facilitate trade with Tibet
196
False
What did Yongle want to trade with Tibet?
56cd8d2462d2951400fa66d6
tea, horses, and salt
230
False
where did the trade route pass through?
56cd8d2462d2951400fa66d7
through Sichuan and crossed Shangri-La County in Yunnan
276
False
Tsai writes that shortly after the visit by Deshin Shekpa, the Yongle Emperor ordered the construction of a road and of trading posts in the upper reaches of the Yangzi and Mekong Rivers in order to facilitate trade with Tibet in tea, horses, and salt. The trade route passed through Sichuan and crossed Shangri-La County in Yunnan. Wang and Nyima assert that this "tribute-related trade" of the Ming exchanging Chinese tea for Tibetan horses—while granting Tibetan envoys and Tibetan merchants explicit permission to trade with Han Chinese merchants—"furthered the rule of the Ming dynasty court over Tibet". Rossabi and Sperling note that this trade in Tibetan horses for Chinese tea existed long before the Ming. Peter C. Perdue says that Wang Anshi (1021–1086), realizing that China could not produce enough militarily capable steeds, had also aimed to obtain horses from Inner Asia in exchange for Chinese tea. The Chinese needed horses not only for cavalry but also as draft animals for the army's supply wagons. The Tibetans required Chinese tea not only as a common beverage but also as a religious ceremonial supplement. The Ming government imposed a monopoly on tea production and attempted to regulate this trade with state-supervised markets, but these collapsed in 1449 due to military failures and internal ecological and commercial pressures on the tea-producing regions.
Why does Van Praag believe the Ming court set up a diplomatic delegation with Tibet?
56cd8d2762d2951400fa66de
to secure urgently needed horses
90
False
What shops were catered to the Tibetan market?
56cd8d2762d2951400fa66df
Silk workshops
1980
False
What visual images and symbols were on furnishings from the silk workshops?
56cd8d2762d2951400fa66e0
Tibetan Buddhist
2103
False
who were the Tibetan areas were ruled by?
56cd8d2762d2951400fa66e1
the Ming
22
False
Wang and Nyima believed horses were collected from Tibet as what kind of tax?
56cd8d2762d2951400fa66e2
a mandatory "corvée" tax
343
False
Van Praag states that the Ming court established diplomatic delegations with Tibet merely to secure urgently needed horses. Wang and Nyima argue that these were not diplomatic delegations at all, that Tibetan areas were ruled by the Ming since Tibetan leaders were granted positions as Ming officials, that horses were collected from Tibet as a mandatory "corvée" tax, and therefore Tibetans were "undertaking domestic affairs, not foreign diplomacy". Sperling writes that the Ming simultaneously bought horses in the Kham region while fighting Tibetan tribes in Amdo and receiving Tibetan embassies in Nanjing. He also argues that the embassies of Tibetan lamas visiting the Ming court were for the most part efforts to promote commercial transactions between the lamas' large, wealthy entourage and Ming Chinese merchants and officials. Kolmaš writes that while the Ming maintained a laissez-faire policy towards Tibet and limited the numbers of the Tibetan retinues, the Tibetans sought to maintain a tributary relationship with the Ming because imperial patronage provided them with wealth and power. Laird writes that Tibetans eagerly sought Ming court invitations since the gifts the Tibetans received for bringing tribute were much greater in value than the latter. As for the Yongle Emperor's gifts to his Tibetan and Nepalese vassals such as silver wares, Buddha relics, utensils for Buddhist temples and religious ceremonies, and gowns and robes for monks, Tsai writes "in his effort to draw neighboring states to the Ming orbit so that he could bask in glory, the Yongle Emperor was quite willing to pay a small price". The Information Office of the State Council of the PRC lists the Tibetan tribute items as oxen, horses, camels, sheep, fur products, medical herbs, Tibetan incenses, thangkas (painted scrolls), and handicrafts; while the Ming awarded Tibetan tribute-bearers an equal value of gold, silver, satin and brocade, bolts of cloth, grains, and tea leaves. Silk workshops during the Ming also catered specifically to the Tibetan market with silk clothes and furnishings featuring Tibetan Buddhist iconography.
Who did the Ming trade horses with?
56cd8d2962d2951400fa66e8
Tibet
42
False
Who was the leader of the Tümed Mongols?
56cd8d2962d2951400fa66e9
Altan Khan
242
False
Who did Altan Khan overthrow?
56cd8d2962d2951400fa66ea
the Oirat Mongol confederation's hegemony
307
False
Who did Altan Khan make peace with?
56cd8d2962d2951400fa66eb
the Ming dynasty
6
False
Who convinced the Ming to reopen their border markets in 1573?
56cd8d2962d2951400fa66ec
Altan Khan
242
False
While the Ming dynasty traded horses with Tibet, it upheld a policy of outlawing border markets in the north, which Laird sees as an effort to punish the Mongols for their raids and to "drive them from the frontiers of China." However, after Altan Khan (1507–1582)—leader of the Tümed Mongols who overthrew the Oirat Mongol confederation's hegemony over the steppes—made peace with the Ming dynasty in 1571, he persuaded the Ming to reopen their border markets in 1573. This provided the Chinese with a new supply of horses that the Mongols had in excess; it was also a relief to the Ming, since they were unable to stop the Mongols from periodic raiding. Laird says that despite the fact that later Mongols believed Altan forced the Ming to view him as an equal, Chinese historians argue that he was simply a loyal Chinese citizen. By 1578, Altan Khan formed a formidable Mongol-Tibetan alliance with the Gelug that the Ming viewed from afar without intervention.
When did the Hongwu Emperor use military force in Tibet?
56cd8f8962d2951400fa6716
the 14th century
597
False
When was the Marquis Mu Ying commissioned to quell?
56cd8f8962d2951400fa6717
November 1378
823
False
How many Tibetan prisoners did Mu Ying capture?
56cd8f8962d2951400fa6718
30,000
955
False
How many animals did Mu Ying capture?
56cd8f8962d2951400fa6719
200,000
984
False
Who was ordered to force a Tibetan assault into Sichuan?
56cd8f8962d2951400fa671a
Ming general Qu Neng
1047
False
Patricia Ebrey writes that Tibet, like Joseon Korea and other neighboring states to the Ming, settled for its tributary status while there were no troops or governors of Ming China stationed in its territory. Laird writes that "after the Mongol troops left Tibet, no Ming troops replaced them." Wang and Nyima state that, despite the fact that the Ming refrained from sending troops to subdue Tibet and refrained from garrisoning Ming troops there, these measures were unnecessary so long as the Ming court upheld close ties with Tibetan vassals and their forces. However, there were instances in the 14th century when the Hongwu Emperor did use military force to quell unrest in Tibet. John D. Langlois writes that there was unrest in Tibet and western Sichuan, which the Marquis Mu Ying (沐英) was commissioned to quell in November 1378 after he established a Taozhou garrison in Gansu. Langlois notes that by October 1379, Mu Ying had allegedly captured 30,000 Tibetan prisoners and 200,000 domesticated animals. Yet invasion went both ways; the Ming general Qu Neng, under the command of Lan Yu, was ordered to repel a Tibetan assault into Sichuan in 1390.
What did the mid Ming dynasty discussion focus mainly on?
56cd982562d2951400fa6770
recovery of the Ordos region
69
False
Who used the the Ordos region as a place to stage raids?
56cd982562d2951400fa6771
the Mongols
105
False
Where were the Mongols trying to raise?
56cd982562d2951400fa6772
Ming China
161
False
Why did P. Christiaan Klieger believe that the Ming court supported high Tibetan lamas?
56cd982562d2951400fa6774
to help stabilize border regions and protect trade routes
957
False
Discussions of strategy in the mid Ming dynasty focused primarily on recovery of the Ordos region, which the Mongols used as a rallying base to stage raids into Ming China. Norbu states that the Ming dynasty, preoccupied with the Mongol threat to the north, could not spare additional armed forces to enforce or back up their claim of sovereignty over Tibet; instead, they relied on "Confucian instruments of tribute relations" of heaping unlimited number of titles and gifts on Tibetan lamas through acts of diplomacy. Sperling states that the delicate relationship between the Ming and Tibet was "the last time a united China had to deal with an independent Tibet," that there was a potential for armed conflict at their borders, and that the ultimate goal of Ming foreign policy with Tibet was not subjugation but "avoidance of any kind of Tibetan threat." P. Christiaan Klieger argues that the Ming court's patronage of high Tibetan lamas "was designed to help stabilize border regions and protect trade routes."
What policy does Luciano Petech and Sato Hisashi claim the Ming held towards the Tibet?
56cdaa2662d2951400fa67ec
divide-and-rule
73
False
When did the Ming hold the divide and rule policy?
56cdaa2662d2951400fa67ed
after the Sakya regime had fallen
145
False
Who did Yongle Emperor fail to build a solid relationship with?
56cdaa2662d2951400fa67ee
fifth Karmapa
952
False
Who did the Yongle Emperor give patronage to?
56cdaa2662d2951400fa67ef
many different Tibetan lamas
1144
False
Historians Luciano Petech and Sato Hisashi argue that the Ming upheld a "divide-and-rule" policy towards a weak and politically fragmented Tibet after the Sakya regime had fallen. Chan writes that this was perhaps the calculated strategy of the Yongle Emperor, as exclusive patronage to one Tibetan sect would have given it too much regional power. Sperling finds no textual evidence in either Chinese or Tibetan sources to support this thesis of Petech and Hisashi. Norbu asserts that their thesis is largely based on the list of Ming titles conferred on Tibetan lamas rather than "comparative analysis of developments in China and Tibet." Rossabi states that this theory "attributes too much influence to the Chinese," pointing out that Tibet was already politically divided when the Ming dynasty began. Rossabi also discounts the "divide-and-rule" theory on the grounds of the Yongle Emperor's failed attempt to build a strong relationship with the fifth Karmapa—one which he hoped would parallel Kublai Khan's earlier relationship with the Sakya Phagpa lama. Instead, the Yongle Emperor followed the Karmapa's advice of giving patronage to many different Tibetan lamas.
Who were the Rinpungpa leaders related to?
56cdac5e62d2951400fa67f4
the Phagmodrupa
440
False
When did the the prince of Rinbung occupy Lhasa?
56cdac5e62d2951400fa67f6
1498
615
False
What was the most important event to the Gelug?
56cdac5e62d2951400fa67f7
New Years ceremonies and prayers
658
False
When was Gelug was given the right to conduct the New Years prayer?
56cdac5e62d2951400fa67f8
1518
893
False
The Association for Asian Studies states that there is no known written evidence to suggest that later leaders of the Gelug—Gendün Drup (1391–1474) and Gendün Gyatso (1475–1571)—had any contacts with Ming China. These two religious leaders were preoccupied with an overriding concern for dealing with the powerful secular Rinpungpa princes, who were patrons and protectors of the Karma Kargyu lamas. The Rinpungpa leaders were relatives of the Phagmodrupa, yet their authority shifted over time from simple governors to rulers in their own right over large areas of Ü-Tsang. The prince of Rinbung occupied Lhasa in 1498 and excluded the Gelug from attending New Years ceremonies and prayers, the most important event in the Gelug. While the task of New Years prayers in Lhasa was granted to the Karmapa and others, Gendün Gyatso traveled in exile looking for allies. However, it was not until 1518 that the secular Phagmodru ruler captured Lhasa from the Rinbung, and thereafter the Gelug was given rights to conduct the New Years prayer. When the Drikung Kagyu abbot of Drigung Monastery threatened Lhasa in 1537, Gendün Gyatso was forced to abandon the Drepung Monastery, although he eventually returned.
When did the Zhengde Emperor rule?
56cdae5962d2951400fa67fe
1505–1521
24
False
Who's company did the Zhengde Emperor enjoy?
56cdae5962d2951400fa67ff
the company of lamas
48
False
Who was the 8th Karmapa Lama?
56cdae5962d2951400fa6800
Mikyö Dorje
245
False
The Zhengde Emperor (r. 1505–1521), who enjoyed the company of lamas at court despite protests from the censorate, had heard tales of a "living Buddha" which he desired to host at the Ming capital; this was none other than the Rinpung-supported Mikyö Dorje, 8th Karmapa Lama then occupying Lhasa. Zhengde's top advisors made every attempt to dissuade him from inviting this lama to court, arguing that Tibetan Buddhism was wildly heterodox and unorthodox. Despite protests by the Grand Secretary Liang Chu, in 1515 the Zhengde Emperor sent his eunuch official Liu Yun of the Palace Chancellery on a mission to invite this Karmapa to Beijing. Liu commanded a fleet of hundreds of ships requisitioned along the Yangtze, consuming 2,835 g (100 oz) of silver a day in food expenses while stationed for a year in Chengdu of Sichuan. After procurring necessary gifts for the mission, he departed with a cavalry force of about 1,000 troops. When the request was delivered, the Karmapa lama refused to leave Tibet despite the Ming force brought to coerce him. The Karmapa launched a surprise ambush on Liu Yun's camp, seizing all the goods and valuables while killing or wounding half of Liu Yun's entire escort. After this fiasco, Liu fled for his life, but only returned to Chengdu several years later to find that the Zhengde Emperor had died.
Who said Tibet  wasn't an integral part of of China?
56ce1d0caab44d1400b8845e
Chinese writers of the early 20th century
280
False
What does Sperling claim did not have any control over Tibet?
56ce1d0caab44d1400b8845f
China's intervening Ming dynasty
707
False
Since what century has Sperling described Ming and Tibet's relation being problematic for China?
56ce1d0caab44d1400b88460
the 13th century
216
False
When was the Manchu Qing dynasty invasion?
56ce1d0caab44d1400b88461
the 18th century
421
False
Elliot Sperling, a specialist of Indian studies and the director of the Tibetan Studies program at Indiana University’s Department of Central Eurasia Studies, writes that "the idea that Tibet became part of China in the 13th century is a very recent construction." He writes that Chinese writers of the early 20th century were of the view that Tibet was not annexed by China until the Manchu Qing dynasty invasion during the 18th century. He also states that Chinese writers of the early 20th century described Tibet as a feudal dependency of China, not an integral part of it. Sperling states that this is because "Tibet was ruled as such, within the empires of the Mongols and the Manchus" and also that "China's intervening Ming dynasty ... had no control over Tibet." He writes that the Ming relationship with Tibet is problematic for China’s insistence of its unbroken sovereignty over Tibet since the 13th century. As for the Tibetan view that Tibet was never subject to the rule of the Yuan or Qing emperors of China, Sperling also discounts this by stating that Tibet was "subject to rules, laws and decisions made by the Yuan and Qing rulers" and that even Tibetans described themselves as subjects of these emperors.
During Which dynasty does Josef Kolmaš claim Tibet was considered an organic part of China?
56ce1e45aab44d1400b8847a
the Qing dynasty
152
False
Josef Kolmaš  states that Tibet became subject to what government?
56ce1e45aab44d1400b8847b
the Chinese central government
321
False
Josef Kolmaš, a sinologist, Tibetologist, and Professor of Oriental Studies at the Academy of Sciences of the Czech Republic, writes that it was during the Qing dynasty "that developments took place on the basis of which Tibet came to be considered an organic part of China, both practically and theoretically subject to the Chinese central government." Yet he states that this was a radical change in regards to all previous eras of Sino-Tibetan relations.
Who does P. Christiaan Klieger claim to have had a mutual role of religious prelate?
56ce2752aab44d1400b884d2
the Tibetan lamas and Mongol khans
304
False
Who does P. Christiaan Klieger believe undertook the former imperial tributaries?
56ce2752aab44d1400b884d3
the Republic of China and its Communist successors
534
False
Where does P. Christiaan Klieger work?
56ce2752aab44d1400b884d4
the California Academy of Sciences in San Francisco
56
False
Who was the  vice royalty of the Sakya regime established by?
56ce2752aab44d1400b884d5
the Mongols
171
False
The Sakya regime established what kind of relationship between the Tibetans and Mongol converts?
56ce2752aab44d1400b884d6
patron and priest relationship
197
False
P. Christiaan Klieger, an anthropologist and scholar of the California Academy of Sciences in San Francisco, writes that the vice royalty of the Sakya regime installed by the Mongols established a patron and priest relationship between Tibetans and Mongol converts to Tibetan Buddhism. According to him, the Tibetan lamas and Mongol khans upheld a "mutual role of religious prelate and secular patron," respectively. He adds that "Although agreements were made between Tibetan leaders and Mongol khans, Ming and Qing emperors, it was the Republic of China and its Communist successors that assumed the former imperial tributaries and subject states as integral parts of the Chinese nation-state."
When was Tibet included into the territory of Yuan dynasty's China?
56ce2b2daab44d1400b884f0
the 13th century
202
False
Who was said to have gained the right to rule Tibet?
56ce2b2daab44d1400b884f1
the Ming dynasty
320
False
When was China Daily started?
56ce2b2daab44d1400b884f2
1981
54
False
Who does the article claim had two itinerant high commands over Tibet?
56ce2b2daab44d1400b884f3
the Ming
320
False
According to article Tibet has remained under what jurisdiction?
56ce2b2daab44d1400b884f4
the central government of China
266
False
China Daily, a CCP-controlled news organization since 1981, states in a 2008 article that although there were dynastic changes after Tibet was incorporated into the territory of Yuan dynasty's China in the 13th century, "Tibet has remained under the jurisdiction of the central government of China." It also states that the Ming dynasty "inherited the right to rule Tibet" from the Yuan dynasty, and repeats the claims in the Mingshi about the Ming establishing two itinerant high commands over Tibet. China Daily states that the Ming handled Tibet's civil administration, appointed all leading officials of these administrative organs, and punished Tibetans who broke the law. The party-controlled People's Daily, the state-controlled Xinhua News Agency, and the state-controlled national television network China Central Television posted the same article that China Daily had, the only difference being their headlines and some additional text.
When did the Jiajing Emperor reign?
56ce3406aab44d1400b8856c
1521–1567
44
False
What ideology was sponsored at the Ming court?
56ce3406aab44d1400b8856d
the native Chinese ideology of Daoism
56
False
Who stopped their trips to Ming China?
56ce3406aab44d1400b8856e
the Tibetan lamas
248
False
Who was the Grand Secretary under Jiajing?
56ce3406aab44d1400b8856f
Yang Tinghe
350
False
Who broke the eunuch influence at court?
56ce3406aab44d1400b88570
Yang Tinghe
350
False
During the reign of the Jiajing Emperor (r. 1521–1567), the native Chinese ideology of Daoism was fully sponsored at the Ming court, while Tibetan Vajrayana and even Chinese Buddhism were ignored or suppressed. Even the History of Ming states that the Tibetan lamas discontinued their trips to Ming China and its court at this point. Grand Secretary Yang Tinghe under Jiajing was determined to break the eunuch influence at court which typified the Zhengde era, an example being the costly escort of the eunuch Liu Yun as described above in his failed mission to Tibet. The court eunuchs were in favor of expanding and building new commercial ties with foreign countries such as Portugal, which Zhengde deemed permissible since he had an affinity for foreign and exotic people.
Who was Zhengde's successor?
56ce362faab44d1400b885c6
Jiajing
43
False
What establishment did the politics at court shift in favor of?
56ce362faab44d1400b885c7
Neo-Confucian establishment
98
False
Which embassy did the Neo-Confucian establishment reject?
56ce362faab44d1400b885c8
the Portuguese embassy
150
False
Who did the Neo-Confucian establishment have animosity towards?
56ce362faab44d1400b885c9
Tibetan Buddhism and lamas
251
False
Evelyn S. Rawski claims that Ming's relationship with Tibetan prelates ended during who's reign?
56ce362faab44d1400b885ca
Jiajing
43
False
With the death of Zhengde and ascension of Jiajing, the politics at court shifted in favor of the Neo-Confucian establishment which not only rejected the Portuguese embassy of Fernão Pires de Andrade (d. 1523), but had a predisposed animosity towards Tibetan Buddhism and lamas. Evelyn S. Rawski, a professor in the Department of History of the University of Pittsburgh, writes that the Ming's unique relationship with Tibetan prelates essentially ended with Jiajing's reign while Ming influence in the Amdo region was supplanted by the Mongols.
What region did the Tumed Mongols move into?
56ce3d3aaab44d1400b885ea
the Kokonor region
47
False
Which frontier did the Tumed Mongols raid?
56ce3d3aaab44d1400b885eb
the Ming Chinese frontier
92
False
The presence of the Altan Khan in the west reduced whos influence?
56ce3d3aaab44d1400b885ec
the Ming
92
False
When did Altan Khan make peace with the Ming dynasty?
56ce3d3aaab44d1400b885ed
1571
356
False
Who did Altan Khan invite to meet him in Amdo?
56ce3d3aaab44d1400b885ee
the third hierarch of the Gelug—Sönam Gyatso
373
False
Meanwhile, the Tumed Mongols began moving into the Kokonor region (modern Qinghai), raiding the Ming Chinese frontier and even as far as the suburbs of Beijing under Altan Khan (1507–1582). Klieger writes that Altan Khan's presence in the west effectively reduced Ming influence and contact with Tibet. After Altan Khan made peace with the Ming dynasty in 1571, he invited the third hierarch of the Gelug—Sönam Gyatso (1543–1588)—to meet him in Amdo (modern Qinghai) in 1578, where he accidentally bestowed him and his two predecessors with the title of Dalai Lama—"Ocean Teacher". The full title was "Dalai Lama Vajradhara", "Vajradhara" meaning "Holder of the Thunderbolt" in Sanskrit. Victoria Huckenpahler notes that Vajradhara is considered by Buddhists to be the primordial Buddha of limitless and all-pervasive beneficial qualities, a being that "represents the ultimate aspect of enlightenment." Goldstein writes that Sönam Gyatso also enhanced Altan Khan's standing by granting him the title "king of religion, majestic purity". Rawski writes that the Dalai Lama officially recognized Altan Khan as the "Protector of the Faith".
What practice did Altan Khan put to an end?
56ce3ed1aab44d1400b885fe
the native Mongol practices of shamanism and blood sacrifice
39
False
Who did Altan Khan persuade to convert to Gelug Buddhism?
56ce3ed1aab44d1400b885ff
the Mongol princes and subjects
107
False
What did Altan Khan threaten the Mongol princes and subjects with if they did not convert?
56ce3ed1aab44d1400b88600
execution
198
False
Who did the Mongol princes ask to grant them titles?
56ce3ed1aab44d1400b88601
the Dalai Lama
322
False
Why did the Mongol princes ask for titles?
56ce3ed1aab44d1400b88602
Committed to their religious leader
253
False
Laird writes that Altan Khan abolished the native Mongol practices of shamanism and blood sacrifice, while the Mongol princes and subjects were coerced by Altan to convert to Gelug Buddhism—or face execution if they persisted in their shamanistic ways. Committed to their religious leader, Mongol princes began requesting the Dalai Lama to bestow titles on them, which demonstrated "the unique fusion of religious and political power" wielded by the Dalai Lama, as Laird writes. Kolmaš states that the spiritual and secular Mongol-Tibetan alliance of the 13th century was renewed by this alliance constructed by Altan Khan and Sönam Gyatso. Van Praag writes that this restored the original Mongol patronage of a Tibetan lama and "to this day, Mongolians are among the most devout followers of the Gelugpa and the Dalai Lama." Angela F. Howard writes that this unique relationship not only provided the Dalai Lama and Panchen Lama with religious and political authority in Tibet, but that Altan Khan gained "enormous power among the entire Mongol population."
Who was Altan Khan's nominal superior?
56ce4100aab44d1400b88612
Tümen Khan
157
False
To make the Mongol-Tibetan alliance stronger who became the 4th Dalai Lama?
56ce4100aab44d1400b88613
the great-grandson of Altan Khan
217
False
Who was the first Dalai Lama to have political control over Tibet?
56ce4100aab44d1400b88614
the 5th Dalai Lama
322
False
When did the 5th Dalai Lama gain political control over Tibet?
56ce4100aab44d1400b88615
In 1642
313
False
Rawski writes that Altan Khan's conversion to the Gelug "can be interpreted as an attempt to expand his authority in his conflict with his nominal superior, Tümen Khan." To further cement the Mongol-Tibetan alliance, the great-grandson of Altan Khan—the 4th Dalai Lama (1589–1616)—was made the fourth Dalai Lama. In 1642, the 5th Dalai Lama (1617–1682) became the first to wield effective political control over Tibet.
Who was given the grandiose title?
56ce42afaab44d1400b88620
Sonam Gyatso
0
False
Who granted Sonam Gyatso the title of grandiose?
56ce42afaab44d1400b88621
Altan Khan
57
False
Who did Sonam Gyatso send gifts to?
56ce42afaab44d1400b88622
Zhang Juzheng
161
False
Who was the Ming Chinese official?
56ce42afaab44d1400b88623
Zhang Juzheng
161
False
Where did Sonam Gyatso die?
56ce42afaab44d1400b88624
Mongolia
1050
False
Sonam Gyatso, after being granted the grandiose title by Altan Khan, departed for Tibet. Before he left, he sent a letter and gifts to the Ming Chinese official Zhang Juzheng (1525–1582), which arrived on March 12, 1579. Sometime in August or September of that year, Sonam Gyatso's representative stationed with Altan Khan received a return letter and gift from the Wanli Emperor (r. 1572–1620), who also conferred upon Sonam Gyatso a title; this was the first official contact between a Dalai Lama and a government of China. However, Laird states that when Wanli invited him to Beijing, the Dalai Lama declined the offer due to a prior commitment, even though he was only 400 km (250 mi) from Beijing. Laird adds that "the power of the Ming emperor did not reach very far at the time." Although not recorded in any official Chinese records, Sonam Gyatso's biography states that Wanli again conferred titles on Sonam Gyatso in 1588, and invited him to Beijing for a second time, but Sonam Gyatso was unable to visit China as he died the same year in Mongolia working with Altan Khan's son to further the spread of Buddhism.
Who did the Ming dynasty showed favors to?
56ce43ebaab44d1400b88632
the third Dalai Lama
3
False
What was the the third Dalai Lama allowed to do?
56ce43ebaab44d1400b88633
pay tribute
111
False
What title was Sonam Gyatso granted in 1587?
56ce43ebaab44d1400b88634
the title Dorjichang or Vajradhara Dalai Lama
177
False
In 1653 who did the Qing emperor grant a title to?
56ce43ebaab44d1400b88635
the fifth Dalai Lama
525
False
In 1713 who did the Qing emperor grant a title to?
56ce43ebaab44d1400b88636
the fifth Panchen Lama
572
False
Of the third Dalai Lama, China Daily states that the "Ming dynasty showed him special favor by allowing him to pay tribute." China Daily then says that Sonam Gyatso was granted the title Dorjichang or Vajradhara Dalai Lama in 1587 [sic!], but China Daily does not mention who granted him the title. Without mentioning the role of the Mongols, China Daily states that it was the successive Qing dynasty which established the title of Dalai Lama and his power in Tibet: "In 1653, the Qing emperor granted an honorific title to the fifth Dalai Lama and then did the same for the fifth Panchen Lama in 1713, officially establishing the titles of the Dalai Lama and the Panchen Erdeni, and their political and religious status in Tibet."
What title was the fourth Dalai Lama granted?
56ce451caab44d1400b8863c
Master of Vajradhara
76
False
Who was the fourth Dalai Lama?
56ce451caab44d1400b8863d
Yonten Gyatso
39
False
When did the Wanli Emperor grant the title Master of Vajradhara to Yonten Gyatso?
56ce451caab44d1400b8863e
1616
143
False
Who did the Wanli Emperor invite to Beijing in 1616?
56ce451caab44d1400b8863f
Yonten Gyatso
39
False
Why didn't Yonten Gyatso make it to Beijing?
56ce451caab44d1400b88640
he died
389
False
Chen states that the fourth Dalai Lama Yonten Gyatso was granted the title "Master of Vajradhara" and an official seal by the Wanli Emperor in 1616. This was noted in the Biography of the Fourth Dalai Lama, which stated that one Soinam Lozui delivered the seal of the Emperor to the Dalai Lama. The Wanli Emperor had invited Yonten Gyatso to Beijing in 1616, but just like his predecessor he died before being able to make the journey.
Who's presence increased in Tibet?
56ce4821aab44d1400b88656
the Mongols
291
False
What were the Mongols trying to reclaim?
56ce4821aab44d1400b88657
their old vassal of Tibet
336
False
When did the conquest of Tibet reach its peak?
56ce4821aab44d1400b88658
1642
122
False
Who's lack of concern helped the Mongols jump at a chance to reclaim their old vassal of Tibet?
56ce4821aab44d1400b88659
the Ming court
221
False
Kolmaš writes that, as the Mongol presence in Tibet increased, culminating in the conquest of Tibet by a Mongol leader in 1642, the Ming emperors "viewed with apparent unconcern these developments in Tibet." He adds that the Ming court's lack of concern for Tibet was one of the reasons why the Mongols pounced on the chance to reclaim their old vassal of Tibet and "fill once more the political vacuum in that country." On the mass Mongol conversion to Tibetan Buddhism under Altan Khan, Laird writes that "the Chinese watched these developments with interest, though few Chinese ever became devout Tibetan Buddhists."
When were the Rinbung princes overthrown?
56ce4a58aab44d1400b88668
1565
3
False
Who took control of the whole of Central Tibet?
56ce4a58aab44d1400b88669
Karma Phuntsok Namgyal
247
False
When did Karma Phuntsok Namgyal reign?
56ce4a58aab44d1400b8866a
1611–1621
339
False
Who did Ü-Tsang king have an alliance with?
56ce4a58aab44d1400b8866b
the Karmapa
490
False
Who refused an audience with the Ü-Tsang king?
56ce4a58aab44d1400b8866c
The fourth Dalai Lama
623
False
In 1565, the powerful Rinbung princes were overthrown by one of their own ministers, Karma Tseten who styled himself as the Tsangpa, "the one of Tsang", and established his base of power at Shigatse. The second successor of this first Tsang king, Karma Phuntsok Namgyal, took control of the whole of Central Tibet (Ü-Tsang), reigning from 1611–1621. Despite this, the leaders of Lhasa still claimed their allegiance to the Phagmodru as well as the Gelug, while the Ü-Tsang king allied with the Karmapa. Tensions rose between the nationalistic Ü-Tsang ruler and the Mongols who safeguarded their Mongol Dalai Lama in Lhasa. The fourth Dalai Lama refused to give an audience to the Ü-Tsang king, which sparked a conflict as the latter began assaulting Gelug monasteries. Chen writes of the speculation over the fourth Dalai Lama's mysterious death and the plot of the Ü-Tsang king to have him murdered for "cursing" him with illness, although Chen writes that the murder was most likely the result of a feudal power struggle. In 1618, only two years after Yonten Gyatso died, the Gelug and the Karma Kargyu went to war, the Karma Kargyu supported by the secular Ü-Tsang king. The Ü-Tsang ruler had a large number of Gelugpa lamas killed, occupied their monasteries at Drepung and Sera, and outlawed any attempts to find another Dalai Lama. In 1621, the Ü-Tsang king died and was succeeded by his young son Karma Tenkyong, an event which stymied the war effort as the latter accepted the six-year-old Lozang Gyatso as the new Dalai Lama. Despite the new Dalai Lama's diplomatic efforts to maintain friendly relations with the new Ü-Tsang ruler, Sonam Rapten (1595–1657), the Dalai Lama's chief steward and treasurer at Drepung, made efforts to overthrow the Ü-Tsang king, which led to another conflict. In 1633, the Gelugpas and several thousand Mongol adherents defeated the Ü-Tsang king's troops near Lhasa before a peaceful negotiation was settled. Goldstein writes that in this the "Mongols were again playing a significant role in Tibetan affairs, this time as the military arm of the Dalai Lama."
Who did the 5th Dalai Lama beg for help from?
56ce4b8baab44d1400b8867a
the Mongol prince Güshi Khan
137
False
What role did Güshi Khan take on?
56ce4b8baab44d1400b8867b
protector
309
False
Which enemies did Güshi Khan defeat?
56ce4b8baab44d1400b8867c
the Gelugpas
60
False
Where did Güshi Khan resettle his tribe?
56ce4b8baab44d1400b8867d
Amdo
389
False
When did the  Ü-Tsang forces surrender?
56ce4b8baab44d1400b8867e
1642
623
False
When an ally of the Ü-Tsang ruler threatened destruction of the Gelugpas again, the fifth Dalai Lama Lozang Gyatso pleaded for help from the Mongol prince Güshi Khan (1582–1655), leader of the Khoshut (Qoshot) tribe of the Oirat Mongols, who was then on a pilgrimage to Lhasa. Güshi Khan accepted his role as protector, and from 1637–1640 he not only defeated the Gelugpas' enemies in the Amdo and Kham regions, but also resettled his entire tribe into Amdo. Sonam Chöpel urged Güshi Khan to assault the Ü-Tsang king's homebase of Shigatse, which Güshi Khan agreed upon, enlisting the aid of Gelug monks and supporters. In 1642, after a year's siege of Shigatse, the Ü-Tsang forces surrendered. Güshi Khan then captured and summarily executed Karma Tenkyong, the ruler of Ü-Tsang, King of Tibet.
Who did Güshi Khan organize a welcome ceremony for?
56ce4d2baab44d1400b8868e
Lozang Gyatso
81
False
What did Güshi Khan present as a gift to the Dalai Lama?
56ce4d2baab44d1400b8868f
his conquest of Tibet
150
False
Who did Güshi Khan enthrone the ruler of Tibet?
56ce4d2baab44d1400b88690
the Dalai Lama
185
False
Who did Güshi Khan grant the governing authority to?
56ce4d2baab44d1400b88691
the regent Sonam Chöpel
381
False
The title of 'King of Tibet belonged to whom?
56ce4d2baab44d1400b88692
Güshi Khan
35
False
Soon after the victory in Ü-Tsang, Güshi Khan organized a welcoming ceremony for Lozang Gyatso once he arrived a day's ride from Shigatse, presenting his conquest of Tibet as a gift to the Dalai Lama. In a second ceremony held within the main hall of the Shigatse fortress, Güshi Khan enthroned the Dalai Lama as the ruler of Tibet, but conferred the actual governing authority to the regent Sonam Chöpel. Although Güshi Khan had granted the Dalai Lama "supreme authority" as Goldstein writes, the title of 'King of Tibet' was conferred upon Güshi Khan, spending his summers in pastures north of Lhasa and occupying Lhasa each winter. Van Praag writes that at this point Güshi Khan maintained control over the armed forces, but accepted his inferior status towards the Dalai Lama. Rawski writes that the Dalai Lama shared power with his regent and Güshi Khan during his early secular and religious reign. However, Rawski states that he eventually "expanded his own authority by presenting himself as Avalokiteśvara through the performance of rituals," by building the Potala Palace and other structures on traditional religious sites, and by emphasizing lineage reincarnation through written biographies. Goldstein states that the government of Güshi Khan and the Dalai Lama persecuted the Karma Kagyu sect, confiscated their wealth and property, and even converted their monasteries into Gelug monasteries. Rawski writes that this Mongol patronage allowed the Gelugpas to dominate the rival religious sects in Tibet.
Who did the the Chinese Ming dynasty fall to?
56ce4f64aab44d1400b886a2
the rebellion of Li Zicheng
44
False
According to Kolmaš who accepted an invite from a Manchu to send envoys to the capital at Mukden?
56ce4f64aab44d1400b886a5
the Dalai Lama
373
False
Who was said to have treated the Dalai Lama as an independent sovereign of Tibet?
56ce4f64aab44d1400b886a6
Shunzhi
630
False
Meanwhile, the Chinese Ming dynasty fell to the rebellion of Li Zicheng (1606–1645) in 1644, yet his short-lived Shun dynasty was crushed by the Manchu invasion and the Han Chinese general Wu Sangui (1612–1678). China Daily states that when the following Qing dynasty replaced the Ming dynasty, it merely "strengthened administration of Tibet." However, Kolmaš states that the Dalai Lama was very observant of what was going on in China and accepted a Manchu invitation in 1640 to send envoys to their capital at Mukden in 1642, before the Ming collapsed. Dawa Norbu, William Rockhill, and George N. Patterson write that when the Shunzhi Emperor (r. 1644–1661) of the subsequent Qing dynasty invited the fifth Dalai Lama Lozang Gyatso to Beijing in 1652, Shunzhi treated the Dalai Lama as an independent sovereign of Tibet. Patterson writes that this was an effort of Shunzhi to secure an alliance with Tibet that would ultimately lead to the establishment of Manchu rule over Mongolia. In this meeting with the Qing emperor, Goldstein asserts that the Dalai Lama was not someone to be trifled with due to his alliance with Mongol tribes, some of which were declared enemies of the Qing. Van Praag states that Tibet and the Dalai Lama's power was recognized by the "Manchu Emperor, the Mongolian Khans and Princes, and the rulers of Ladakh, Nepal, India, Bhutan, and Sikkim."
Who tried to spread their territory into Tibet?
56ce5125aab44d1400b886ac
the Dzungar Mongols
5
False
Who helped the Tibetan?
56ce5125aab44d1400b886ad
the Kangxi Emperor
99
False
When did the Kangxi Emperor occupy Lhasa?
56ce5125aab44d1400b886ae
1720
221
False
When was The Qing dynasty garrison established in Tibet?
56ce5125aab44d1400b886af
1751
230
False
When did the Qianlong Emperor reign?
56ce5125aab44d1400b886b0
1735–1796
281
False
When the Dzungar Mongols attempted to spread their territory from what is now Xinjiang into Tibet, the Kangxi Emperor (r. 1661–1722) responded to Tibetan pleas for aid with his own expedition to Tibet, occupying Lhasa in 1720. By 1751, during the reign of the Qianlong Emperor (r. 1735–1796), a protectorate and permanent Qing dynasty garrison was established in Tibet. As of 1751, Albert Kolb writes that "Chinese claims to suzerainty over Tibet date from this time."
IPod
Which company produces the iPod?
56cc55856d243a140015ef0a
Apple
105
False
When was the original iPod released?
56cc55856d243a140015ef0b
October 23, 2001
147
False
How many different types of iPod are currently available?
56cc55856d243a140015ef0c
three
302
False
What kind of device is the iPod?
56cc55856d243a140015ef0d
portable media players
22
False
The iPod Touch uses what kind of interface?
56cc55856d243a140015ef0e
touchscreen
400
False
In what year was the first iPod released?
56ce726faab44d1400b88791
2001
159
False
What company manufactures the iPod?
56ce726faab44d1400b88792
Apple
105
False
How many versions of the iPod currently exist?
56ce726faab44d1400b88793
3
156
False
Which is the smallest version of the iPod?
56ce726faab44d1400b88794
Shuffle
361
False
In what year was the iPod most recently redesigned?
56ce726faab44d1400b88795
2015
286
False
The iPod is a line of portable media players and multi-purpose pocket computers designed and marketed by Apple Inc. The first line was released on October 23, 2001, about 8½ months after iTunes (Macintosh version) was released. The most recent iPod redesigns were announced on July 15, 2015. There are three current versions of the iPod: the ultra-compact iPod Shuffle, the compact iPod Nano and the touchscreen iPod Touch.
In addition to playing music, what other function can the iPod perform?
56cc55fa6d243a140015ef14
data storage
62
False
What is the smallest data capacity for an iPod product?
56cc55fa6d243a140015ef15
2 GB
131
False
What is the largest data capacity for an iPod product?
56cc55fa6d243a140015ef16
128 GB
160
False
Which iPod product features the smallest data storage capacity?
56cc55fa6d243a140015ef17
iPod Shuffle
144
False
Which current iPod product features the largest data storage capacity?
56cc55fa6d243a140015ef18
iPod Touch
175
False
What's the storage capacity of the iPod Shuffle?
56ce72ecaab44d1400b8879b
2 GB
131
False
What's the storage capacity for the iPod Touch?
56ce72ecaab44d1400b8879c
128 GB
160
False
Like other digital music players, iPods can serve as external data storage devices. Storage capacity varies by model, ranging from 2 GB for the iPod Shuffle to 128 GB for the iPod Touch (previously 160 GB for the iPod Classic, which is now discontinued).
What Apple program is used to communicate between computers and portable devices?
56cc56856d243a140015ef1e
iTunes
8
False
Which operating systems are compatible with iTunes?
56cc56856d243a140015ef1f
Apple Macintosh and Microsoft Windows
261
False
What's the name of the software used to manage music and other media on Apple devices?
56ce732faab44d1400b8879f
iTunes
8
False
Apple's iTunes software (and other alternative software) can be used to transfer music, photos, videos, games, contact information, e-mail settings, Web bookmarks, and calendars, to the devices supporting these features from computers using certain versions of Apple Macintosh and Microsoft Windows operating systems.
Prior to iOS 5, how many apps were required to play music and videos on iPhone and iPad?
56cc57466d243a140015ef24
one
98
False
In mid-2010, which Apple device had higher sales than iPod?
56cc57466d243a140015ef26
iPhone
95
False
With what iOS release did Apple standardize media apps on all their products?
56ce73d1aab44d1400b887ab
iOS 5
22
False
In what year did iPhone sales surpass those of iPods?
56ce73d1aab44d1400b887ac
2010
444
False
What are the titles of the standard media apps on current Apple devices?
56ce73d1aab44d1400b887ad
"Music" and "Videos"
207
False
Before the release of iOS 5, the iPod branding was used for the media player included with the iPhone and iPad, a combination of the Music and Videos apps on the iPod Touch. As of iOS 5, separate apps named "Music" and "Videos" are standardized across all iOS-powered products. While the iPhone and iPad have essentially the same media player capabilities as the iPod line, they are generally treated as separate products. During the middle of 2010, iPhone sales overtook those of the iPod.
What processor model is used in the iPod Touch?
56cc58436d243a140015ef2a
A8
230
False
Which generation of iPod Touch was made availalbe in July of 2015?
56cc58436d243a140015ef2c
sixth
136
False
What's the most recent generation of iPod Touch?
56ce750daab44d1400b887b1
sixth
136
False
In what year was the most recent iPod Touch released?
56ce750daab44d1400b887b2
2015
7
False
What type of processor does the current iPod Touch use?
56ce750daab44d1400b887b3
A8
230
False
In how many colors is the current iPod Touch available?
56ce750daab44d1400b887b4
5
10
False
In mid-2015, a new model of the iPod Touch was announced by Apple, and was officially released on the Apple store on July 15, 2015. The sixth generation iPod Touch includes a wide variety of spec improvements such as the upgraded A8 processor and higher-quality screen. The core is over 5 times faster than previous models and is built to be roughly on par with the iPhone 5S. It is available in 5 different colors: Space grey, pink, gold, silver and Product (red).
In what year was the iPod first introduced?
56cc5f3f6d243a140015ef46
2001
32
False
In what year did iPod sales show improvement?
56cc5f3f6d243a140015ef47
2004
116
False
Which Apple engineer led original iPod design group?
56cc5f3f6d243a140015ef48
Jon Rubinstein
601
False
What radio was the primary inspiration for the look of the iPod?
56cc5f3f6d243a140015ef49
Braun T3 transistor radio
1045
False
What was the storage capacity of the first iPod?
56cc5f3f6d243a140015ef4a
5 GB
1369
False
in what year was the original iPod released?
56ce75d4aab44d1400b887bd
2001
32
False
How large was the hard drive on the original iPod?
56ce75d4aab44d1400b887be
5 GB
1369
False
What other popular music player did Apple compare their new product to?
56ce75d4aab44d1400b887bf
the Walkman
1203
False
What is the name of Apple's hardware engineering chief who helped design the iPod?
56ce75d4aab44d1400b887c0
Jon Rubinstein
601
False
Who manufactured the hard drives for the first iPods?
56ce75d4aab44d1400b887c1
Toshiba
807
False
Though the iPod was released in 2001, its price and Mac-only compatibility caused sales to be relatively slow until 2004. The iPod line came from Apple's "digital hub" category, when the company began creating software for the growing market of personal digital devices. Digital cameras, camcorders and organizers had well-established mainstream markets, but the company found existing digital music players "big and clunky or small and useless" with user interfaces that were "unbelievably awful," so Apple decided to develop its own. As ordered by CEO Steve Jobs, Apple's hardware engineering chief Jon Rubinstein assembled a team of engineers to design the iPod line, including hardware engineers Tony Fadell and Michael Dhuey, and design engineer Sir Jonathan Ive. Rubinstein had already discovered the Toshiba disk drive when meeting with an Apple supplier in Japan, and purchased the rights to it for Apple, and had also already worked out how the screen, battery, and other key elements would work. The aesthetic was inspired by the 1958 Braun T3 transistor radio designed by Dieter Rams, while the wheel based user interface was prompted by Bang & Olufsen's BeoCom 6000 telephone. The product ("the Walkman of the twenty-first century" ) was developed in less than one year and unveiled on October 23, 2001. Jobs announced it as a Mac-compatible product with a 5 GB hard drive that put "1,000 songs in your pocket."
Which company worked with Apple in creating the user interface for the iPod?
56cc60186d243a140015ef5a
Pixo
363
False
What was the name of the font used prior to the release of the iPod Mini?
56cc60186d243a140015ef5b
Chicago
577
False
In what year was the 6th gen iPod Classic released?
56cc60186d243a140015ef5c
2007
858
False
The 6th gen iPod Classic and 3rd gen iPod nano featured which font?
56cc60186d243a140015ef5d
Helvetica
1018
False
Who supervised the design and implementation of the iPod user interface?
56ce78c5aab44d1400b887d1
Steve Jobs
449
False
What software did Apple use as the basis for their iPod software?
56ce78c5aab44d1400b887d2
PortalPlayer
73
False
What typeface does the current iPod use?
56ce78c5aab44d1400b887d3
Helvetica
1018
False
Apple did not develop the iPod software entirely in-house, instead using PortalPlayer's reference platform based on two ARM cores. The platform had rudimentary software running on a commercial microkernel embedded operating system. PortalPlayer had previously been working on an IBM-branded MP3 player with Bluetooth headphones. Apple contracted another company, Pixo, to help design and implement the user interface under the direct supervision of Steve Jobs. As development progressed, Apple continued to refine the software's look and feel. Starting with the iPod Mini, the Chicago font was replaced with Espy Sans. Later iPods switched fonts again to Podium Sans—a font similar to Apple's corporate font, Myriad. iPods with color displays then adopted some Mac OS X themes like Aqua progress bars, and brushed metal meant to evoke a combination lock. In 2007, Apple modified the iPod interface again with the introduction of the sixth-generation iPod Classic and third-generation iPod Nano by changing the font to Helvetica and, in most cases, splitting the screen in half by displaying the menus on the left and album artwork, photos, or videos on the right (whichever was appropriate for the selected item).
In what year was a special edition of the iPod produced?
56cc60a36d243a140015ef64
2006
3
False
For what musical group was a special edition of the iPod first made?
56cc60a36d243a140015ef65
U2
73
False
What color was the metal on the U2 version of the iPod?
56cc60a36d243a140015ef66
black
274
False
What type of media was included with purchase of the U2 version of the iPod?
56cc60a36d243a140015ef67
video
398
False
Of what band did Apple present a special edition iPod 5G?
56ce792caab44d1400b887d7
U2
73
False
What color was the special U2 iPod model?
56ce792caab44d1400b887d8
black
274
False
In what year did apple release the special U2 model of the iPod?
56ce792caab44d1400b887d9
2006
3
False
In 2006 Apple presented a special edition for iPod 5G of Irish rock band U2. Like its predecessor, this iPod has engraved the signatures of the four members of the band on its back, but this one was the first time the company changed the colour of the metal (not silver but black). This iPod was only available with 30GB of storage capacity. The special edition entitled purchasers to an exclusive video with 33 minutes of interviews and performance by U2, downloadable from the iTunes Store.
Apple was involved in a lawsuit with which company in 2007?
56cc61346d243a140015ef6e
Burst.com
64
False
Who previously applied for a patent for an iPod-like device?
56cc61346d243a140015ef6f
Kane Kramer
157
False
In what country did Kane Kramer apply for his patent?
56cc61346d243a140015ef70
UK
183
False
In what year did Kane Kramer apply for his patent?
56cc61346d243a140015ef71
1981
236
False
What did Kane Kramer call the device for which he wanted a patent?
56cc61346d243a140015ef72
IXI
262
False
What patent holding company sued Apple in 2007?
56ce7ae2aab44d1400b887e7
Burst.com
64
False
What was the name of the previously-patented music player from 1981?
56ce7ae2aab44d1400b887e8
IXI
262
False
Who was the holder of the previous patent for the "plastic music box"?
56ce7ae2aab44d1400b887e9
Kane Kramer
157
False
In September 2007, during a lawsuit with patent holding company Burst.com, Apple drew attention to a patent for a similar device that was developed in 1979. Kane Kramer applied for a UK patent for his design of a "plastic music box" in 1981, which he called the IXI. He was unable to secure funding to renew the US$120,000 worldwide patent, so it lapsed and Kramer never profited from his idea.
Who came up with the name for Apple's portable mp3 player?
56cc62406d243a140015ef78
Vinnie Chieco
30
False
What was Vinnie Chieco's profession?
56cc62406d243a140015ef79
freelance copywriter
47
False
What film inspired the name of the iPod?
56cc62406d243a140015ef7a
2001: A Space Odyssey
222
False
Who first trademarked the iPod name?
56cc62406d243a140015ef7b
Joseph N. Grasso
593
False
In what year was Apple given rights to the iPod name?
56cc62406d243a140015ef7c
2005
1035
False
What movie inspired the iPod name?
56ce7bf4aab44d1400b887f3
2001: A Space Odyssey
222
False
What was the name of the copywriter that proposed the name "iPod"?
56ce7bf4aab44d1400b887f4
Vinnie Chieco
30
False
Who held the original trademark for the iPod name?
56ce7bf4aab44d1400b887f5
Joseph N. Grasso
593
False
The name iPod was proposed by Vinnie Chieco, a freelance copywriter, who (with others) was called by Apple to figure out how to introduce the new player to the public. After Chieco saw a prototype, he thought of the movie 2001: A Space Odyssey and the phrase "Open the pod bay door, Hal!", which refers to the white EVA Pods of the Discovery One spaceship. Chieco saw an analogy to the relationship between the spaceship and the smaller independent pods in the relationship between a personal computer and the music player. Apple researched the trademark and found that it was already in use. Joseph N. Grasso of New Jersey had originally listed an "iPod" trademark with the U.S. Patent and Trademark Office (USPTO) in July 2000 for Internet kiosks. The first iPod kiosks had been demonstrated to the public in New Jersey in March 1998, and commercial use began in January 2000, but had apparently been discontinued by 2001. The trademark was registered by the USPTO in November 2003, and Grasso assigned it to Apple Computer, Inc. in 2005.
When were images of new iPod colors leaked?
56cc62ce6d243a140015ef82
mid-2015
3
False
Who leaked the photos of new iPod colors?
56cc62ce6d243a140015ef83
Pierre Dandumont
273
False
What version of iTunes contained the leaked photos of new iPod colors?
56cc62ce6d243a140015ef84
12.2
120
False
What was the latest version of iTunes as of mid-2015?
56ce7c4baab44d1400b887fd
12.2
120
False
Who first leaked the photos of the new iPod color scheme?
56ce7c4baab44d1400b887fe
Pierre Dandumont
273
False
In mid-2015, several new color schemes for all of the current iPod models were spotted in the latest version of iTunes, 12.2. Belgian website Belgium iPhone originally found the images when plugging in an iPod for the first time, and subsequent leaked photos were found by Pierre Dandumont.
What audio deficiency was found in the 3rd gen iPods?
56cc643d6d243a140015ef88
weak bass response
32
False
What kind of headphones could partially mitigate the bass response issues of the 3rd gen iPods?
56cc643d6d243a140015ef8a
high-impedance
360
False
What is an example of a device that could entirely mitigate the bass response issues of the 3rd gen iPods?
56cc643d6d243a140015ef8b
external headphone amplifier
470
False
What part of audio output was substandard on 3rd generation iPods?
56ce81bdaab44d1400b88817
bass
37
False
What component was to blame for the weak bass of the 3rd generation iPod?
56ce81bdaab44d1400b88818
undersized DC-blocking capacitors
100
False
The third-generation iPod had a weak bass response, as shown in audio tests. The combination of the undersized DC-blocking capacitors and the typical low-impedance of most consumer headphones form a high-pass filter, which attenuates the low-frequency bass output. Similar capacitors were used in the fourth-generation iPods. The problem is reduced when using high-impedance headphones and is completely masked when driving high-impedance (line level) loads, such as an external headphone amplifier. The first-generation iPod Shuffle uses a dual-transistor output stage, rather than a single capacitor-coupled output, and does not exhibit reduced bass response for any load.
What acoustic element could be distorted by different audio settings in iPods prior to 2007?
56cc655c6d243a140015ef92
Bass
215
False
Name four sound profiles that would result in bass distortion on pre-2007 iPods.
56cc655c6d243a140015ef93
R&B, Rock, Acoustic, and Bass Booster
190
False
What specific problem caused the issue with bass distortion?
56cc655c6d243a140015ef94
clipping
334
False
iPods released before what year had issues with distorted bass?
56ce8214aab44d1400b88823
2006
26
False
What EQ settings were known to have issues with bass distortion?
56ce8214aab44d1400b88824
R&B, Rock, Acoustic, and Bass Booster
190
False
For all iPods released in 2006 and earlier, some equalizer (EQ) sound settings would distort the bass sound far too easily, even on undemanding songs. This would happen for EQ settings like R&B, Rock, Acoustic, and Bass Booster, because the equalizer amplified the digital audio level beyond the software's limit, causing distortion (clipping) on bass instruments.
What type of sensory issue was a concern prior to the release of 5th gen iPods?
56cc66326d243a140015ef98
hearing loss
115
False
In what markets did 6th gen iPods limit the highest volume of the player?
56cc66326d243a140015ef99
EU
233
False
What was the limit imposed on how loud the iPod could play sounds in the EU?
56cc66326d243a140015ef9a
100 dB
223
False
In what country did Apple have to recall iPods?
56cc66326d243a140015ef9b
France
298
False
What is the highest volume output level of European 6th-generation iPods?
56ce829baab44d1400b88828
100 dB
223
False
What country originally pulled iPods due to higher-than-allowed volume levels?
56ce829baab44d1400b88829
France
298
False
From the fifth-generation iPod on, Apple introduced a user-configurable volume limit in response to concerns about hearing loss. Users report that in the sixth-generation iPod, the maximum volume output level is limited to 100 dB in EU markets. Apple previously had to remove iPods from shelves in France for exceeding this legal limit. However, users that have bought a new sixth-generation iPod in late 2013 have reported a new option that allowed them to disable the EU volume limit. It has been said that these new iPods came with an updated software that allowed this change. Older sixth-generation iPods, however, are unable to update to this software version.
What was the first type of connection used by the iPod to charge and transfer files?
56cc66d16d243a140015efa2
FireWire
14
False
What was an alternate method of charging the iPod?
56cc66d16d243a140015efa3
power adapter
146
False
What type of connector was originally required to upload songs or recharge the iPod?
56ce82cdaab44d1400b8882d
FireWire
14
False
Originally, a FireWire connection to the host computer was used to update songs or recharge the battery. The battery could also be charged with a power adapter that was included with the first four generations.
In which generation did iPod start providing compatibility with USB?
56cc6e346d243a140015efa8
third generation
4
False
What iPod feature allowed for USB connections with the device?
56cc6e346d243a140015efa9
30-pin dock connector
39
False
Which generation of iPod Classic was the first to abandon use of FireWire in transferring files?
56cc6e346d243a140015efaa
fifth
388
False
Starting with which generation of iPod Nano was FireWire charging functionality no longer available?
56cc6e346d243a140015efab
fourth
628
False
What kind of connection is provided on the iPod Shuffle for both audio output and file transfer?
56cc6e346d243a140015efac
3.5 mm minijack
771
False
Which generation iPod was the first to include the 30-pin dock connector?
56ce88c8aab44d1400b88849
third generation
4
False
Which model of iPod combined the headphone jack and data port?
56ce88c8aab44d1400b8884a
Shuffle
749
False
What interface was gradually phased out for both charging and data transfer?
56ce88c8aab44d1400b8884b
FireWire
75
False
What interface replaced FireWire in later iterations of the iPod?
56ce88c8aab44d1400b8884c
USB
87
False
The third generation began including a 30-pin dock connector, allowing for FireWire or USB connectivity. This provided better compatibility with non-Apple machines, as most of them did not have FireWire ports at the time. Eventually Apple began shipping iPods with USB cables instead of FireWire, although the latter was available separately. As of the first-generation iPod Nano and the fifth-generation iPod Classic, Apple discontinued using FireWire for data transfer (while still allowing for use of FireWire to charge the device) in an attempt to reduce cost and form factor. As of the second-generation iPod Touch and the fourth-generation iPod Nano, FireWire charging ability has been removed. The second-, third-, and fourth-generation iPod Shuffle uses a single 3.5 mm minijack phone connector which acts as both a headphone jack and a data port for the dock.
Which iPod accessory was made by Apple but is no longer produced?
56cc7f9c6d243a140015efb2
iPod Hi-Fi
196
False
What are two companies that make iPod accessories?
56cc7f9c6d243a140015efb3
Belkin and Griffin
259
False
What part of the iPod is needed to communicate with peripherals?
56cc7f9c6d243a140015efb4
dock connector
4
False
What is the condition for third parties using the dock connector?
56cc7f9c6d243a140015efb5
paying royalties
461
False
The majority of peripherals for iPod are produced by what kinds of companies?
56cc7f9c6d243a140015efb6
third parties
237
False
What's the name of the now-discontinued accessory manufactured by Apple, that connected via the iPod's dock connector?
56ce8b36aab44d1400b88865
iPod Hi-Fi
196
False
The dock connector also allowed the iPod to connect to accessories, which often supplement the iPod's music, video, and photo playback. Apple sells a few accessories, such as the now-discontinued iPod Hi-Fi, but most are manufactured by third parties such as Belkin and Griffin. Some peripherals use their own interface, while others use the iPod's own screen. Because the dock connector is a proprietary interface, the implementation of the interface requires paying royalties to Apple.
What new connector did Apple unveil on September 12, 2012?
56cc803f6d243a140015efbc
Lightning
51
False
What other Apple product was unveiled on September 12, 2012?
56cc803f6d243a140015efbd
seventh generation iPod Nano
166
False
How man pins did the pre-Lightning dock connecter use?
56cc803f6d243a140015efbe
30
255
False
How many pins did the Lightning connector have?
56cc803f6d243a140015efbf
8
23
False
On how many sides of the Lightning connector are the pins located?
56cc803f6d243a140015efc0
both sides
354
False
What's Apple's code name for the newer 8-pin dock connector?
56ce8bfbaab44d1400b88867
Lightning
51
False
What was the first iPod Touch generation to feature the Lightning connector?
56ce8bfbaab44d1400b88869
fifth generation
129
False
Apple introduced a new 8-pin dock connector, named Lightning, on September 12, 2012 with their announcement of the iPhone 5, the fifth generation iPod Touch, and the seventh generation iPod Nano, which all feature it. The new connector replaces the older 30-pin dock connector used by older iPods, iPhones, and iPads. Apple Lightning cables have pins on both sides of the plug so it can be inserted with either side facing up.
What is the name of an Apple-produced iPod accessory?
56cc81246d243a140015efc6
iPod Hi-Fi
128
False
What is an example of an iPod accessory made work exercise?
56cc81246d243a140015efc7
Nike+iPod pedometer
384
False
What are six companies that made some of the first peripherals for the iPod?
56cc81246d243a140015efc8
Griffin Technology, Belkin, JBL, Bose, Monster Cable, and SendStation
614
False
What can A/V cables be used to connect the iPod to?
56cc81246d243a140015efc9
TV
319
False
Who manufactures a pedometer accessory for the iPod?
56ce8d5daab44d1400b88875
Nike
384
False
Which company manufactures the iPod Hi-Fi accessory?
56ce8d5daab44d1400b88876
Apple
152
False
Many accessories have been made for the iPod line. A large number are made by third party companies, although many, such as the iPod Hi-Fi, are made by Apple. Some accessories add extra features that other music players have, such as sound recorders, FM radio tuners, wired remote controls, and audio/visual cables for TV connections. Other accessories offer unique features like the Nike+iPod pedometer and the iPod Camera Connector. Other notable accessories include external speakers, wireless remote controls, protective case, screen films, and wireless earphones. Among the first accessory manufacturers were Griffin Technology, Belkin, JBL, Bose, Monster Cable, and SendStation.
What company was first to create a means of connecting the iPod to an automobile?
56cc81e06d243a140015efd0
BMW
0
False
In what year did Apple reveal that it would provide compatibility with a wide range of auto manufacturers?
56cc81e06d243a140015efd1
2005
209
False
Which company provides the ability to connect to iPods as a standard feature in their automobiles?
56cc81e06d243a140015efd2
Scion
403
False
Which car company released the first automobile interface for the iPod?
56ce8da8aab44d1400b88879
BMW
0
False
Which car company first offered iPod connectivity as a standard feature on their whole product line?
56ce8da8aab44d1400b8887a
Scion
403
False
BMW released the first iPod automobile interface, allowing drivers of newer BMW vehicles to control an iPod using either the built-in steering wheel controls or the radio head-unit buttons. Apple announced in 2005 that similar systems would be available for other vehicle brands, including Mercedes-Benz, Volvo, Nissan, Toyota, Alfa Romeo, Ferrari, Acura, Audi, Honda, Renault, Infiniti and Volkswagen. Scion offers standard iPod connectivity on all their cars.
What companies have developed iPod interfacing for their stereo systems?
56cc83056d243a140015efd8
JVC, Pioneer, Kenwood, Alpine, Sony, and Harman Kardon
48
False
What type of transmitter is used in the iTrip?
56cc83056d243a140015efd9
FM
278
False
What has become a standard inclusion in cars for several different auto companies?
56cc83056d243a140015efda
audio input jacks
255
False
Which type of iPod car integration product is illegal in certain countries?
56cfb353234ae51400d9be99
FM transmitters
278
False
What audio integration feature has become standard on many car models?
56cfb353234ae51400d9be9a
audio input jacks
255
False
Some independent stereo manufacturers including JVC, Pioneer, Kenwood, Alpine, Sony, and Harman Kardon also have iPod-specific integration solutions. Alternative connection methods include adapter kits (that use the cassette deck or the CD changer port), audio input jacks, and FM transmitters such as the iTrip—although personal FM transmitters are illegal in some countries. Many car manufacturers have added audio input jacks as standard.
In 2007, which airlines made deals to include iPod connections on their planes?
56cc84ab6d243a140015efe2
United, Continental, Delta, and Emirates
44
False
Where can people using iPods on planes view the device's interface?
56cc84ab6d243a140015efe3
individual seat-back displays
245
False
What are two airlines that considered implementing iPod connections but did not join the 2007 agreement?
56cc84ab6d243a140015efe4
KLM and Air France
287
False
Which airlines first agreed to install seat connections for iPods?
56cfb3e3234ae51400d9be9d
United, Continental, Delta, and Emirates
44
False
In what year did airlines first start to accommodate the iPod?
56cfb3e3234ae51400d9be9e
2007
17
False
Beginning in mid-2007, four major airlines, United, Continental, Delta, and Emirates, reached agreements to install iPod seat connections. The free service will allow passengers to power and charge an iPod, and view video and music libraries on individual seat-back displays. Originally KLM and Air France were reported to be part of the deal with Apple, but they later released statements explaining that they were only contemplating the possibility of incorporating such systems.
What is the name of an audio format developed by Apple?
56cc858b6d243a140015efe8
Apple Lossless
123
False
Which product enabled users to view images on the device?
56cc858b6d243a140015efe9
iPod photo
143
False
What Microsoft media format is not natively supported by Apple devices?
56cc858b6d243a140015efeb
WMA
674
False
What does DRM stand for?
56cc858b6d243a140015efec
Digital Rights Management
729
False
What computer OS did iPod software exclusively work with at launch?
56cfb618234ae51400d9bebb
Mac OS
515
False
What are some examples of audio formats supported by the iPod?
56cfb618234ae51400d9bebd
MP3, AAC/M4A, Protected AAC, AIFF, WAV, Audible audiobook, and Apple Lossless
60
False
What was the first model to support JPEG and other still image formats?
56cfb618234ae51400d9bebe
iPod photo
143
False
The iPod line can play several audio file formats including MP3, AAC/M4A, Protected AAC, AIFF, WAV, Audible audiobook, and Apple Lossless. The iPod photo introduced the ability to display JPEG, BMP, GIF, TIFF, and PNG image file formats. Fifth and sixth generation iPod Classics, as well as third generation iPod Nanos, can additionally play MPEG-4 (H.264/MPEG-4 AVC) and QuickTime video formats, with restrictions on video dimensions, encoding techniques and data-rates. Originally, iPod software only worked with Mac OS; iPod software for Microsoft Windows was launched with the second generation model. Unlike most other media players, Apple does not support Microsoft's WMA audio format—but a converter for WMA files without Digital Rights Management (DRM) is provided with the Windows version of iTunes. MIDI files also cannot be played, but can be converted to audio files using the "Advanced" menu in iTunes. Alternative open-source audio formats, such as Ogg Vorbis and FLAC, are not supported without installing custom firmware onto an iPod (e.g., Rockbox).
How many hosts are recognized by an iPod the first time they're used?
56cc86f26d243a140015eff2
one
48
False
What will be erased if an iPod is set to sync with a different computer?
56cc86f26d243a140015eff5
library
287
False
What must an iPod be connected to before iTunes can synchronize?
56cfb6b8234ae51400d9bec9
host computer
52
False
During installation, an iPod is associated with one host computer. Each time an iPod connects to its host computer, iTunes can synchronize entire music libraries or music playlists either automatically or manually. Song ratings can be set on an iPod and synchronized later to the iTunes library, and vice versa. A user can access, play, and add music on a second computer if an iPod is set to manual and not automatic sync, but anything added or edited will be reversed upon connecting and syncing with the main computer and its library. If a user wishes to automatically sync music with another computer, an iPod's library will be entirely wiped and replaced with the other computer's library.
How many buttons do most iPods use?
56cc88386d243a140015effc
five
195
False
On what part of newer iPods can you find the buttons?
56cc88386d243a140015effd
click wheel
271
False
Where are the controls located on the 3rd gen iPod Shuffle?
56cc88386d243a140015effe
earphone cable
708
False
What kind of interface does the iPod touch use instead of the click wheel?
56cc88386d243a140015efff
touch screen
872
False
What other device shares the interface used by the iPod Touch?
56cc88386d243a140015f000
iPhone
1084
False
Most iPods feature how many buttons?
56cfb7f9234ae51400d9bed7
five
195
False
The 3rd generation of which iPod model had its controls only on the earphone cable?
56cfb7f9234ae51400d9bed8
Shuffle
129
False
Which other Apple product does the iPod Touch share an interface and OS with?
56cfb7f9234ae51400d9bed9
iPhone
1084
False
iPods with color displays use anti-aliased graphics and text, with sliding animations. All iPods (except the 3rd-generation iPod Shuffle, the 6th & 7th generation iPod Nano, and iPod Touch) have five buttons and the later generations have the buttons integrated into the click wheel – an innovation that gives an uncluttered, minimalist interface. The buttons perform basic functions such as menu, play, pause, next track, and previous track. Other operations, such as scrolling through menu items and controlling the volume, are performed by using the click wheel in a rotational manner. The 3rd-generation iPod Shuffle does not have any controls on the actual player; instead it has a small control on the earphone cable, with volume-up and -down buttons and a single button for play and pause, next track, etc. The iPod Touch has no click-wheel; instead it uses a 3.5" touch screen along with a home button, sleep/wake button and (on the second and third generations of the iPod Touch) volume-up and -down buttons. The user interface for the iPod Touch is identical to that of the iPhone. Differences include a lack of a phone application. Both devices use iOS.
When was the Apple iTunes Store launched?
56cc88a56d243a140015f006
April 29, 2003
29
False
What program is required to access the iTunes Store?
56cc88a56d243a140015f007
iTunes
4
False
When were videos made available through the iTunes store?
56cc88a56d243a140015f008
October 12, 2005
229
False
When did Apple begin selling entire films through the iTunes store?
56cc88a56d243a140015f009
September 12, 2006
286
False
In what year was the iTunes store established?
56cfb830234ae51400d9bedd
2003
39
False
In what year did videos first become available on iTunes?
56cfb830234ae51400d9bede
2005
241
False
When were full-length moved added to the iTunes store?
56cfb830234ae51400d9bedf
2006
300
False
The iTunes Store (introduced April 29, 2003) is an online media store run by Apple and accessed through iTunes. The store became the market leader soon after its launch and Apple announced the sale of videos through the store on October 12, 2005. Full-length movies became available on September 12, 2006.
When the iTunes store was launched, what type of file format was used?
56cc89c46d243a140015f00e
AAC
69
False
How many computers were allowed to play files that used the FairPlay DRM system?
56cc89c46d243a140015f00f
five
143
False
In what category could files without digital rights management be found on the iTunes store?
56cc89c46d243a140015f010
iTunes Plus
512
False
When did Apple reveal that most of the iTunes selection was free from DRM?
56cc89c46d243a140015f011
January 6, 2009
850
False
By what time did Apple project its entire catalog would be free of DRM?
56cc89c46d243a140015f012
April 2009
987
False
What was the original format for purchased audio files on iTunes?
56cfb8e5234ae51400d9beeb
AAC
69
False
What was the name of the DRM system originally used by Apple and iTunes?
56cfb8e5234ae51400d9beec
FairPlay
116
False
What was the name of the premium service that offered higher quality and DRM-free songs?
56cfb8e5234ae51400d9beed
iTunes Plus
512
False
In what year was DRM completely eliminated from the iTunes offerings?
56cfb8e5234ae51400d9beef
2009
861
False
At the time the store was introduced, purchased audio files used the AAC format with added encryption, based on the FairPlay DRM system. Up to five authorized computers and an unlimited number of iPods could play the files. Burning the files with iTunes as an audio CD, then re-importing would create music files without the DRM. The DRM could also be removed using third-party software. However, in a deal with Apple, EMI began selling DRM-free, higher-quality songs on the iTunes Stores, in a category called "iTunes Plus." While individual songs were made available at a cost of US$1.29, 30¢ more than the cost of a regular DRM song, entire albums were available for the same price, US$9.99, as DRM encoded albums. On October 17, 2007, Apple lowered the cost of individual iTunes Plus songs to US$0.99 per song, the same as DRM encoded tracks. On January 6, 2009, Apple announced that DRM has been removed from 80% of the music catalog, and that it would be removed from all music by April 2009.
What are two stores which sell files with DRM not compatible with iPods?
56cc8b576d243a140015f023
Napster and MSN Music
172
False
For what device's sales does Apple leverage the iTunes store?
56cc8b576d243a140015f025
iPods
0
False
The iPod can play music from other online stores as long as they don't contain what feature?
56cfb97c234ae51400d9bf03
DRM
73
False
iPods cannot play music files from competing music stores that use rival-DRM technologies like Microsoft's protected WMA or RealNetworks' Helix DRM. Example stores include Napster and MSN Music. RealNetworks claims that Apple is creating problems for itself by using FairPlay to lock users into using the iTunes Store. Steve Jobs stated that Apple makes little profit from song sales, although Apple uses the store to promote iPod sales. However, iPods can also play music files from online stores that do not use DRM, such as eMusic or Amie Street.
What company ended its deal with Apple's music store in July of 2007?
56cc911e6d243a140015f02a
Universal Music Group
0
False
What entity did Universal have a contract with prior to July of 2007?
56cc911e6d243a140015f02b
iTunes Store
67
False
In what year did Universal Music Group let their contract with iTunes lapse?
56cfb99b234ae51400d9bf05
2007
91
False
Universal Music Group decided not to renew their contract with the iTunes Store on July 3, 2007. Universal will now supply iTunes in an 'at will' capacity.
What was the name of the event at which the iTunes Wi-Fi store was launched?
56cc91b56d243a140015f030
The Beat Goes On...
94
False
On what date was the iTunes Wi-Fi Music Store launched?
56cc91b56d243a140015f033
September 5, 2007
46
False
In what year was the iTunes Wi-Fi Music Store introduced?
56cfb9f7234ae51400d9bf0d
2007
59
False
Which Apple device has the ability to sync with iTunes via the phone network?
56cfb9f7234ae51400d9bf0e
iPhone
183
False
Apple debuted the iTunes Wi-Fi Music Store on September 5, 2007, in its Media Event entitled "The Beat Goes On...". This service allows users to access the Music Store from either an iPhone or an iPod Touch and download songs directly to the device that can be synced to the user's iTunes Library over a WiFi connection, or, in the case of an iPhone, the telephone network.
On what devices can video games be used?
56cc92346d243a140015f038
iPods
48
False
What was included on the first iPod?
56cc92346d243a140015f039
Brick
86
False
Who created Brick?
56cc92346d243a140015f03a
Steve Wozniak
135
False
What are three games, in addition to Brick, which have been included with the iPod?
56cc92346d243a140015f03b
Parachute, Solitaire, and Music Quiz
295
False
What is another phrase meaning hidden feature?
56cc92346d243a140015f03c
easter egg
165
False
What was the first, hidden game included with the original iPod?
56cfba3b234ae51400d9bf11
Brick
86
False
What other games were later added to the original iPod?
56cfba3b234ae51400d9bf12
Parachute, Solitaire, and Music Quiz
295
False
Video games are playable on various versions of iPods. The original iPod had the game Brick (originally invented by Apple's co-founder Steve Wozniak) included as an easter egg hidden feature; later firmware versions added it as a menu option. Later revisions of the iPod added three more games: Parachute, Solitaire, and Music Quiz.
In what year did the iTunes store begin allowing users to buy video games?
56cca2066d243a140015f042
2006
13
False
Which version of iTunes was introduced with the ability to purchase games?
56cca2066d243a140015f043
iTunes 7
100
False
What was the first generation of iPod Classic on which games like Mahjong and Tetris could be played?
56cca2066d243a140015f045
5th generation
390
False
On which generation of iPod Nano can games be played?
56cca2066d243a140015f046
4th generation
434
False
In what year did iTunes 7 launch, along with a plethora of additional games?
56cfba85234ae51400d9bf15
2006
13
False
Which generation iPod was required to enjoy the new games available on iTunes 7?
56cfba85234ae51400d9bf16
fifth
130
False
In September 2006, the iTunes Store began to offer additional games for purchase with the launch of iTunes 7, compatible with the fifth generation iPod with iPod software 1.2 or later. Those games were: Bejeweled, Cubis 2, Mahjong, Mini Golf, Pac-Man, Tetris, Texas Hold 'Em, Vortex, Asphalt 4: Elite Racing and Zuma. Additional games have since been added. These games work on the 6th and 5th generation iPod Classic and the 5th and 4th generation iPod Nano.
What are the names of companies producing video games for Apple's MP3 player?
56cca27d6d243a140015f04c
Namco, Square Enix, Electronic Arts, Sega, and Hudson Soft
24
False
What market can Apple participate in now that it has a variety of games available for iPod?
56cca27d6d243a140015f04d
video game handheld console market
170
False
What two publications have covered iPod games?
56cca27d6d243a140015f04e
GamePro and EGM
237
False
With third parties like Namco, Square Enix, Electronic Arts, Sega, and Hudson Soft all making games for the iPod, Apple's MP3 player has taken steps towards entering the video game handheld console market. Even video game magazines like GamePro and EGM have reviewed and rated most of their games as of late.
What format is used for iPod game files?
56cca3676d243a140015f052
.ipg
29
False
What file format is being covered up by the use of ipg files?
56cca3676d243a140015f053
.zip
60
False
What does SDK stand for?
56cca3676d243a140015f054
software development kit
272
False
What is the only operating system on which iPhone SDK-made games can be played?
56cca3676d243a140015f055
iOS
397
False
What file format are iPod games distributed in?
56cfbaed234ae51400d9bf23
.ipg
29
False
An app produced with the iPhone SDK can only run on what devices?
56cfbaed234ae51400d9bf24
iPod Touch and iPhone
408
False
Is the Apple SDK available to third-party game publishers?
56cfbaed234ae51400d9bf25
not
248
False
The games are in the form of .ipg files, which are actually .zip archives in disguise[citation needed]. When unzipped, they reveal executable files along with common audio and image files, leading to the possibility of third party games. Apple has not publicly released a software development kit (SDK) for iPod-specific development. Apps produced with the iPhone SDK are compatible only with the iOS on the iPod Touch and iPhone, which cannot run clickwheel-based games.
What kind program is commonly used to move files between iTunes and an iPod?
56cd59a162d2951400fa652a
iTunes
321
False
What kind of other applications enable communication between iTunes and an iPod?
56cd59a162d2951400fa652b
third-party
393
False
Rather than copying media files directly to it, what software must be used for this purpose so that they are accessible?
56cfc4d6234ae51400d9bf4b
iTunes
321
False
Unlike many other MP3 players, simply copying audio or video files to the drive with a typical file management application will not allow an iPod to properly access them. The user must use software that has been specifically designed to transfer media files to iPods, so that the files are playable and viewable. Usually iTunes is used to transfer media to an iPod, though several alternative third-party applications are available on a number of different platforms.
What kind of security determines if files moved to a computer can be played?
56cd5a7362d2951400fa652f
DRM
134
False
What minimum version of iTunes is required to transfer purchased media from an iPod to an authorized computer?
56cfc516234ae51400d9bf4d
iTunes 7
0
False
iTunes 7 and above can transfer purchased media of the iTunes Store from an iPod to a computer, provided that computer containing the DRM protected media is authorized to play it.
In what kind of folder are files located in the iPod?
56cd5d3a62d2951400fa653c
hidden
39
False
On what kind of operating system can hidden iPod files be accessed?
56cd5d3a62d2951400fa653d
host
136
False
What method of file recovery is used to retrieve data from the iPod?
56cd5d3a62d2951400fa653e
manual
234
False
Media files are stored on an iPod in a hidden folder, along with a proprietary database file. The hidden content can be accessed on the host operating system by enabling hidden files to be shown. The media files can then be recovered manually by copying the files or folders off the iPod. Many third-party applications also allow easy copying of media files off of an iPod.
In what year did Apple face multiple intellectual property lawsuits?
56cd5df262d2951400fa6542
2005
3
False
What did the 2005 lawsuits accuse Apple of doing?
56cd5df262d2951400fa6543
patent infringement
43
False
What other companies were named in the suit filed by Pat-rights?
56cd5df262d2951400fa6545
Sony, RealNetworks, Napster, and Musicmatch
426
False
On whose behalf did Pat-rights take Apple to court?
56cd5df262d2951400fa6546
Ho Keung Tse
355
False
Which company sued Apple for breach of a "music jukebox" patent in 2005?
56cfd4b6234ae51400d9bf67
Advanced Audio Devices
113
False
Which Apple technology did Pat-rights complain breached their patent in a lawsuit?
56cfd4b6234ae51400d9bf68
FairPlay
298
False
In 2005, Apple faced two lawsuits claiming patent infringement by the iPod line and its associated technologies: Advanced Audio Devices claimed the iPod line breached its patent on a "music jukebox", while a Hong Kong-based IP portfolio company called Pat-rights filed a suit claiming that Apple's FairPlay technology breached a patent issued to inventor Ho Keung Tse. The latter case also includes the online music stores of Sony, RealNetworks, Napster, and Musicmatch as defendants.
What interface component did Apple attempt to patent in 2005?
56cd66bc62d2951400fa6574
rotational user inputs
86
False
When did Apple receive a decision on its attempt to patent rotational user inputs?
56cd66bc62d2951400fa6575
August 2005
190
False
Which competitor sued Apple over rights to part of the software user interface?
56cd66bc62d2951400fa6576
Creative Technology
224
False
What was the name of the patent over which Creative asserted its ownership?
56cd66bc62d2951400fa6577
Zen Patent
432
False
From which entity did Creative request an investigation into Apple importing their devices to the US?
56cd66bc62d2951400fa6578
United States International Trade Commission
634
False
What interface feature did Apple unsuccessfully try to patent?
56cfd515234ae51400d9bf6b
rotational user inputs
86
False
Which rival company sued Apple in 2005 and 2006?
56cfd515234ae51400d9bf6c
Creative Technology
224
False
Apple's application to the United States Patent and Trademark Office for a patent on "rotational user inputs", as used on the iPod interface, received a third "non-final rejection" (NFR) in August 2005. Also in August 2005, Creative Technology, one of Apple's main rivals in the MP3 player market, announced that it held a patent on part of the music selection interface used by the iPod line, which Creative Technology dubbed the "Zen Patent", granted on August 9, 2005. On May 15, 2006, Creative filed another suit against Apple with the United States District Court for the Northern District of California. Creative also asked the United States International Trade Commission to investigate whether Apple was breaching U.S. trade laws by importing iPods into the United States.
When did Creative and Apple come to an agreement over their intellectual property issues?
56cd673a62d2951400fa657e
August 24, 2006
3
False
How much money did Apple have to pay to Creative as a result of their agreement?
56cd673a62d2951400fa657f
$100 million
123
False
What program did Creative join in order to make iPod peripherals?
56cd673a62d2951400fa6580
Made for iPod
412
False
How much did Apple pay to Creative Technologies to settle their 2006 suit?
56cfd66d234ae51400d9bf6f
$100 million
123
False
What's the name of the program by which 3rd parties sell iPod accessories?
56cfd66d234ae51400d9bf70
the Made for iPod program
408
False
On August 24, 2006, Apple and Creative announced a broad settlement to end their legal disputes. Apple will pay Creative US$100 million for a paid-up license, to use Creative's awarded patent in all Apple products. As part of the agreement, Apple will recoup part of its payment, if Creative is successful in licensing the patent. Creative then announced its intention to produce iPod accessories by joining the Made for iPod program.
What share of the US digital music player market does iPod hold?
56cd67e662d2951400fa6584
90%
107
False
When did iPod become the leader in digital music device sales?
56cd67e662d2951400fa6585
2004
14
False
How much of the market did iPod claim as of January 2007?
56cd67e662d2951400fa6586
72.7%
441
False
Who reported Apple's market share in 2007?
56cd67e662d2951400fa6587
Bloomberg Online
460
False
Approximately what percentage of the hard drive-based music player sales does iPod have since 2004?
56cfd6f8234ae51400d9bf73
90%
107
False
Approximately what percentage of the overall music player market does the iPod line have?
56cfd6f8234ae51400d9bf74
70%
163
False
What did the iPod's US market share peak at in 2005?
56cfd6f8234ae51400d9bf75
74%
390
False
Since October 2004, the iPod line has dominated digital music player sales in the United States, with over 90% of the market for hard drive-based players and over 70% of the market for all types of players. During the year from January 2004 to January 2005, the high rate of sales caused its U.S. market share to increase from 31% to 65% and in July 2005, this market share was measured at 74%. In January 2007 the iPod market share reached 72.7% according to Bloomberg Online.
When did HP unveil their own edition of the iPod?
56cd687562d2951400fa6592
January 8, 2004
3
False
What does HP stand for?
56cd687562d2951400fa6593
Hewlett-Packard
20
False
What major retailer sold HP-branded iPod devices?
56cd687562d2951400fa6594
Wal-Mart
175
False
HP-branded iPods accounted for what share of iPod purchases?
56cd687562d2951400fa6595
5%
219
False
What kind of terms and conditions led HP to leave the iPod market?
56cd687562d2951400fa6596
unfavorable
287
False
Which computer company sold iPods from 2004-05 as part of a license agreement with Apple?
56cfd727234ae51400d9bf79
HP
37
False
On January 8, 2004, Hewlett-Packard (HP) announced that they would sell HP-branded iPods under a license agreement from Apple. Several new retail channels were used—including Wal-Mart—and these iPods eventually made up 5% of all iPod sales. In July 2005, HP stopped selling iPods due to unfavorable terms and conditions imposed by Apple.
How many iPods did Apple reveal it sold in April of 2007?
56cd73af62d2951400fa65c4
hundred million
63
False
How much of Apple's revenue was generated by iPod purchases in Q2 of 2007?
56cd73af62d2951400fa65c5
32%
232
False
What is an item that owners of iPods may also purchase?
56cd73af62d2951400fa65c6
Mac computers
374
False
How much revenue did Apple announce for Q2 2007?
56cd73af62d2951400fa65c7
$5.2 billion
209
False
In which year did Apple top sales of 100,000,000 iPods?
56d12cc017492d1400aabb58
2007
12
False
As of 2007, what percentage of Apple's revenue came from iPod sales?
56d12cc017492d1400aabb59
32%
232
False
On April 9, 2007, it was announced that Apple had sold its one-hundred millionth iPod, making it the biggest selling digital music player of all time. In April 2007, Apple reported second quarter revenue of US$5.2 billion, of which 32% was made from iPod sales. Apple and several industry analysts suggest that iPod users are likely to purchase other Apple products such as Mac computers.
What was Apple's revenue for Q3 2007?
56cd742662d2951400fa65d4
$6.22 billion
59
False
Desktop computers made up how much of Apple's revenue in the third quarter of 2007?
56cd742662d2951400fa65d5
19.22%
122
False
How much money did Apple make in 2007?
56cd742662d2951400fa65d6
$3.5 billion
236
False
What was the value of Apple's cash assets at the end of 2007?
56cd742662d2951400fa65d7
$15.4 billion
301
False
With the help of strong iPod sales, how much profit did they turn in 2007?
56d12d1e17492d1400aabb64
$3.5 billion
236
False
On October 22, 2007, Apple reported quarterly revenue of US$6.22 billion, of which 30.69% came from Apple notebook sales, 19.22% from desktop sales and 26% from iPod sales. Apple's 2007 year revenue increased to US$24.01 billion with US$3.5 billion in profits. Apple ended the fiscal year 2007 with US$15.4 billion in cash and no debt.
When did Apple reveal it had achieved its highest quarterly earnings to date?
56cd788162d2951400fa65e6
January 22, 2008
3
False
What was Apple's highest quarterly profit as of Q1 2008?
56cd788162d2951400fa65e7
$1.58 billion
184
False
How much of Apple's revenue resulted from purchases of laptop computers in Q1 2008?
56cd788162d2951400fa65e8
21%
293
False
What percentage of Apples revenue in 1Q08 came from iPods, more than doubling the percentage of notebook sales?
56d12dc117492d1400aabb76
42%
199
False
On January 22, 2008, Apple reported the best quarter revenue and earnings in Apple's history so far. Apple posted record revenue of US$9.6 billion and record net quarterly profit of US$1.58 billion. 42% of Apple's revenue for the First fiscal quarter of 2008 came from iPod sales, followed by 21% from notebook sales and 16% from desktop sales.
Who was Chief Financial Officer of Apple in July of 2009?
56cd796762d2951400fa65ed
Peter Oppenheimer
384
False
From what year did iPod purchases begin to continuously decline?
56cd796762d2951400fa65ef
2009
141
False
How much revenue did iPod sales account for in Q4 2008?
56cd796762d2951400fa65f0
14.21%
46
False
Approximately how many total iPods had been sold by late 2009?
56d12e4917492d1400aabb84
220 million
252
False
Which was the first year since iPod's introduction that no new model was released?
56d12e4917492d1400aabb86
2013
646
False
On October 21, 2008, Apple reported that only 14.21% of total revenue for fiscal quarter 4 of year 2008 came from iPods. At the September 9, 2009 keynote presentation at the Apple Event, Phil Schiller announced total cumulative sales of iPods exceeded 220 million. The continual decline of iPod sales since 2009 has not been a surprising trend for the Apple corporation, as Apple CFO Peter Oppenheimer explained in June 2009: "We expect our traditional MP3 players to decline over time as we cannibalize ourselves with the iPod Touch and the iPhone." Since 2009, the company's iPod sales have continually decreased every financial quarter and in 2013 a new model was not introduced onto the market.
What rank did iPod achieve among various computer products in 2006?
56cd7a3f62d2951400fa6600
fourth
127
False
What kind of reviews do iPods tend to get?
56cd7a3f62d2951400fa6601
favorable
185
False
What two companies use the AAC format for music files?
56cd7a3f62d2951400fa6602
Sony Ericsson and Nokia
535
False
What file format is not supported by Sony Ericsson and Nokia?
56cd7a3f62d2951400fa6603
WMA
593
False
Which publication praised iPods for revolutionizing the industry?
56cd7a3f62d2951400fa6604
PC World
253
False
Which phone manufacturers adopted the AAC file format to become better iPod-compatible?
56d12f4217492d1400aabb9a
Sony Ericsson and Nokia
535
False
Which PC magazine praised the iPod for having "altered the landscape for portable audio players"?
56d12f4217492d1400aabb9b
PC World
253
False
iPods have won several awards ranging from engineering excellence,[not in citation given] to most innovative audio product, to fourth best computer product of 2006. iPods often receive favorable reviews; scoring on looks, clean design, and ease of use. PC World says that iPod line has "altered the landscape for portable audio players". Several industries are modifying their products to work better with both the iPod line and the AAC audio format. Examples include CD copy-protection schemes, and mobile phones, such as phones from Sony Ericsson and Nokia, which play AAC files rather than WMA.
Aside from recreational use, in what other arena have iPods found use?
56cd7ab462d2951400fa660a
business
103
False
What are two purposes for which iPods are used in business?
56cd7ab462d2951400fa660b
communication and training
261
False
What is the name of a company that uses iPods as part of its training?
56cd7ab462d2951400fa660c
Royal and Western Infirmaries
301
False
Where is Royal and Western Infirmaries located?
56cd7ab462d2951400fa660d
Glasgow, Scotland
334
False
Besides earning a reputation as a respected entertainment device, the iPod has also been accepted as a business device. Government departments, major institutions and international organisations have turned to the iPod line as a delivery mechanism for business communication and training, such as the Royal and Western Infirmaries in Glasgow, Scotland, where iPods are used to train new staff.
What University gave an iPod to first year students in 2004?
56cd7b4162d2951400fa6613
Duke
284
False
What publication lauded the iPod for enabling people to listen to thousands of songs on a portable player?
56cd7b4162d2951400fa6614
Entertainment Weekly
418
False
Which major university began issuing iPods to all incoming freshmen starting in 2004?
56d12fe417492d1400aabbac
Duke
284
False
Which magazine placed the iPod on its Best of the Decade list for the 00's?
56d12fe417492d1400aabbad
Entertainment Weekly
418
False
iPods have also gained popularity for use in education. Apple offers more information on educational uses for iPods on their website, including a collection of lesson plans. There has also been academic research done in this area in nursing education and more general K-16 education. Duke University provided iPods to all incoming freshmen in the fall of 2004, and the iPod program continues today with modifications. Entertainment Weekly put it on its end-of-the-decade, "best-of" list, saying, "Yes, children, there really was a time when we roamed the earth without thousands of our favorite jams tucked comfortably into our hip pockets. Weird."
What period of music did the iPod help bring to a close?
56cd7bc062d2951400fa6618
the Album Era
259
False
In which industry did the iPod have a major impact?
56cd7bc062d2951400fa6619
music industry
68
False
What did the iPod promote that prompted a big change in the music industry?
56cd7bc062d2951400fa661a
digital music storage
113
False
The ease of collecting singles with the iPod and iTunes is credited with ending what "era" in pop music?
56d130df17492d1400aabbc0
the Album Era
259
False
The iPod has also been credited with accelerating shifts within the music industry. The iPod's popularization of digital music storage allows users to abandon listening to entire albums and instead be able to choose specific singles which hastened the end of the Album Era in popular music.
How long were 5th generation iPods marketed as being able to function before needing to be charged?
56cd7ca662d2951400fa6629
14 hours
168
False
Which website criticized Apple's battery life claims?
56cd7ca662d2951400fa662a
MP3.com
199
False
In what year was Apple sued for issues relating to its battery life?
56cd7ca662d2951400fa662b
2003
372
False
Discrepancy in what spec brought about a class action suit against Apple in 2003?
56d1314517492d1400aabbce
battery life
15
False
How many hours of real-time battery life did the 5th-generation iPod test at, compared to its advertised 14 hours?
56d1314517492d1400aabbcf
8 hours
347
False
The advertised battery life on most models is different from the real-world achievable life. For example, the fifth generation 30 GB iPod is advertised as having up to 14 hours of music playback. An MP3.com report stated that this was virtually unachievable under real-life usage conditions, with a writer for MP3.com getting on average less than 8 hours from an iPod. In 2003, class action lawsuits were brought against Apple complaining that the battery charges lasted for shorter lengths of time than stated and that the battery degraded over time. The lawsuits were settled by offering individuals either US$50 store credit or a free battery replacement.
Whose directions can be followed to interact with iPod batteries?
56cd7d3262d2951400fa6632
third-party vendors
171
False
What did Apple originally tell consumers to purchase when their iPod batteries no longer worked?
56cd7d3262d2951400fa6633
refurbished replacement iPod
356
False
What kind of battery does the iPod use?
56cd7d3262d2951400fa6634
lithium-ion
438
False
Which iPod component did Apple somewhat inconveniently made non-replaceable?
56d131c817492d1400aabbe0
batteries
5
False
What type of rechargeable battery does Apple use in its iPods?
56d131c817492d1400aabbe1
lithium-ion
438
False
iPod batteries are not designed to be removed or replaced by the user, although some users have been able to open the case themselves, usually following instructions from third-party vendors of iPod replacement batteries. Compounding the problem, Apple initially would not replace worn-out batteries. The official policy was that the customer should buy a refurbished replacement iPod, at a cost almost equivalent to a brand new one. All lithium-ion batteries lose capacity during their lifetime even when not in use (guidelines are available for prolonging life-span) and this situation led to a market for third-party battery replacement kits.
What did Apple launch on November 14, 2003?
56cd7db262d2951400fa6638
battery replacement program
18
False
How much did iPod owners originally have to pay for replacement batteries?
56cd7db262d2951400fa6639
$99
165
False
What was needed to replace an iPod Nano battery?
56cd7db262d2951400fa663a
soldering tools
293
False
What generation saw iPod batterys being affixed with glue?
56cd7db262d2951400fa663b
Fifth generation
373
False
In what year did Apple begin a formal battery replacement program?
56d1321f17492d1400aabbf4
2003
62
False
What was the original price for a replacement battery from Apple?
56d1321f17492d1400aabbf5
$99
165
False
Which iPod model has its battery soldered into the unit?
56d1321f17492d1400aabbf6
Nano
287
False
Apple announced a battery replacement program on November 14, 2003, a week before a high publicity stunt and website by the Neistat Brothers. The initial cost was US$99, and it was lowered to US$59 in 2005. One week later, Apple offered an extended iPod warranty for US$59. For the iPod Nano, soldering tools are needed because the battery is soldered onto the main board. Fifth generation iPods have their battery attached to the backplate with adhesive.
What part of the iPod Nano was the cause of the overheating issue?
56cd7e4462d2951400fa664b
battery
175
False
What program allowed users to exchange iPod Nanos which suffered from overheating problems with new safe models?
56cd7e4462d2951400fa664d
Apple product replacement program
312
False
The first generation iPod Nano may overheat and pose a health and safety risk. Affected iPod Nanos were sold between September 2005 and December 2006. This is due to a flawed battery used by Apple from a single battery manufacturer. Apple recommended that owners of affected iPod Nanos stop using them. Under an Apple product replacement program, affected Nanos were replaced with current generation Nanos free of charge.
What are two subjects of criticism of iPods?
56cd7ef762d2951400fa6652
short life-span and fragile hard drives
39
False
What website ran a survey to learn how often iPods ceased working?
56cd7ef762d2951400fa6653
MacInTouch
111
False
How often did MacInTouch discover iPods stopped working, according to their survey?
56cd7ef762d2951400fa6654
13.7%
186
False
When did iPod owners take issue with the fragility of the iPod screen?
56cd7ef762d2951400fa6655
late 2005
524
False
What did Apple include with the iPod to resolve the screen problem?
56cd7ef762d2951400fa6656
protective sleeves
802
False
Which type of iPod storage proved more reliable than hard drive storage?
56d133d517492d1400aabc2b
flash memory
478
False
The first generation nano suffered from which component getting damaged easily?
56d133d517492d1400aabc2c
screen
651
False
iPods have been criticized for alleged short life-span and fragile hard drives. A 2005 survey conducted on the MacInTouch website found that the iPod line had an average failure rate of 13.7% (although they note that comments from respondents indicate that "the true iPod failure rate may be lower than it appears"). It concluded that some models were more durable than others. In particular, failure rates for iPods employing hard drives was usually above 20% while those with flash memory had a failure rate below 10%. In late 2005, many users complained that the surface of the first generation iPod Nano can become scratched easily, rendering the screen unusable. A class action lawsuit was also filed. Apple initially considered the issue a minor defect, but later began shipping these iPods with protective sleeves.[citation needed]
What publication revealed information about the working conditions of iPod labor?
56cd7f9162d2951400fa665c
The Mail on Sunday
38
False
What governs iPod manufacturers' labor policies?
56cd7f9162d2951400fa665f
Apple's Code of Conduct
292
False
What percentage of the time did The Mail on Sunday claim workers labored for at least seven straight days?
56cd7f9162d2951400fa6660
25
438
False
Which British tabloid accused Apple of unfair worker conditions in 2006?
56d13443e7d4791d00901feb
The Mail
38
False
What percentage of Apple's manufacturing employees worked over 60 hour weeks?
56d13443e7d4791d00901fec
35%
375
False
On June 11, 2006, the British tabloid The Mail on Sunday reported that iPods are mainly manufactured by workers who earn no more than US$50 per month and work 15-hour shifts. Apple investigated the case with independent auditors and found that, while some of the plant's labour practices met Apple's Code of Conduct, others did not: employees worked over 60 hours a week for 35% of the time, and worked more than six consecutive days for 25% of the time.
Who did Apple partner with to monitor its labor policies?
56cd81df62d2951400fa6666
Verité
310
False
What organization did Apple join to monitor its labor policies?
56cd81df62d2951400fa6667
Electronic Industry Code of Conduct Implementation Group
333
False
What company was found to be violating Apple's labor policies?
56cd81df62d2951400fa6668
Foxconn
0
False
Where was the Foxconn plant located?
56cd81df62d2951400fa6669
Longhua, Shenzhen
471
False
What was the name of Apple's manufacturing company that was accused of overworking its employees?
56d134c2e7d4791d00901ff7
Foxconn
0
False
What auditor company did Apple hire to oversee worker conditions following the controversy?
56d134c2e7d4791d00901ff8
Verité
310
False
In what year did Foxconn workers first unionize?
56d134c2e7d4791d00901ff9
2006
431
False
Foxconn, Apple's manufacturer, initially denied the abuses, but when an auditing team from Apple found that workers had been working longer hours than were allowed under Chinese law, they promised to prevent workers working more hours than the code allowed. Apple hired a workplace standards auditing company, Verité, and joined the Electronic Industry Code of Conduct Implementation Group to oversee the measures. On December 31, 2006, workers at the Foxconn factory in Longhua, Shenzhen formed a union affiliated with the All-China Federation of Trade Unions, the Chinese government-approved union umbrella organization.
In what year did Chinese Foxconn emplyees kill themselves?
56cd828562d2951400fa6670
2010
3
False
What disappeared in 2009 prior to the suicide of a Foxconn employee?
56cd828562d2951400fa6672
Apple prototype
257
False
In what year did several Foxconn workers commit suicide?
56d13543e7d4791d00902004
2010
3
False
In 2010, a number of workers committed suicide at a Foxconn operations in China. Apple, HP, and others stated that they were investigating the situation. Foxconn guards have been videotaped beating employees. Another employee killed himself in 2009 when an Apple prototype went missing, and claimed in messages to friends, that he had been beaten and interrogated.
What attribute of the United States could be thought to lead more international and less domestic employment opportunities?
56cd834d62d2951400fa668a
innovation
340
False
As of 2006, the iPod was produced by about 14,000 workers in the U.S. and 27,000 overseas. Further, the salaries attributed to this product were overwhelmingly distributed to highly skilled U.S. professionals, as opposed to lower skilled U.S. retail employees or overseas manufacturing labor. One interpretation of this result is that U.S. innovation can create more jobs overseas than domestically.
To work as a boot disk for a Mac, what file system must an iPod be formatted with?
56cfc488234ae51400d9bf47
HFS+
287
False
If connected to a Windows PC when first set up, what file system will an iPod be formatted with?
56cfc488234ae51400d9bf48
FAT32
407
False
All iPods except for the iPod Touch can function in "disk mode" as mass storage devices to store data files but this may not be the default behavior, and in the case of the iPod Touch, requires special software.[citation needed] If an iPod is formatted on a Mac OS computer, it uses the HFS+ file system format, which allows it to serve as a boot disk for a Mac computer. If it is formatted on Windows, the FAT32 format is used. With the release of the Windows-compatible iPod, the default file system used on the iPod line switched from HFS+ to FAT32, although it can be reformatted to either file system (excluding the iPod Shuffle which is strictly FAT32). Generally, if a new iPod (excluding the iPod Shuffle) is initially plugged into a computer running Windows, it will be formatted with FAT32, and if initially plugged into a Mac running Mac OS it will be formatted with HFS+.
The_Legend_of_Zelda:_Twilight_Princess
What category of game is Legend of Zelda: Twilight Princess?
56cd8a5f62d2951400fa668e
action-adventure
128
False
What consoles can be used to play Twilight Princess?
56cd8a5f62d2951400fa668f
GameCube and Wii
194
False
When was Twilight Princess launched in North America?
56cd8a5f62d2951400fa6691
November 2006
569
False
When could GameCube owners purchase Twilight Princess?
56cd8a5f62d2951400fa6692
December 2006
688
False
What company developed Legend of Zelda: Twilight Princess?
56d1159e17492d1400aab8cc
Nintendo
177
False
What year was the Legend of Zelda:Twilight Princess originally planned for release?
56d1159e17492d1400aab8ce
2005
364
False
What year was the Wii version of Legend of Zelda: Twilight Princess released?
56d1159e17492d1400aab8cf
2006
578
False
action-adventure
128
What category of game is Legend of Zelda: Australia Twilight?
5a8d7bf7df8bba001a0f9ab1
True
GameCube and Wii
194
What consoles can be used to play Australia Twilight?
5a8d7bf7df8bba001a0f9ab2
True
November 2006
569
When was Australia Twilight launched in North America?
5a8d7bf7df8bba001a0f9ab3
True
November 2006
569
When could GameCube owners purchase Australian Princess?
5a8d7bf7df8bba001a0f9ab4
True
2005
364
What year was the Legend of Zelda: Australian Princess originally planned for release?
5a8d7bf7df8bba001a0f9ab5
True
The Legend of Zelda: Twilight Princess (Japanese: ゼルダの伝説 トワイライトプリンセス, Hepburn: Zeruda no Densetsu: Towairaito Purinsesu?) is an action-adventure game developed and published by Nintendo for the GameCube and Wii home video game consoles. It is the thirteenth installment in the The Legend of Zelda series. Originally planned for release on the GameCube in November 2005, Twilight Princess was delayed by Nintendo to allow its developers to refine the game, add more content, and port it to the Wii. The Wii version was released alongside the console in North America in November 2006, and in Japan, Europe, and Australia the following month. The GameCube version was released worldwide in December 2006.[b]
Who is the main character of the story?
56cd8ad162d2951400fa6698
Link
40
False
What land does Link serve to protect?
56cd8ad162d2951400fa6699
Hyrule
67
False
What character helped Link in Twilight Princess?
56cd8ad162d2951400fa669b
Midna
261
False
Who is the protagonist is Legend of Zelda?
56d1162317492d1400aab8ec
Link
40
False
What is the name of the mysterious creature that assists Link?
56d1162317492d1400aab8ee
Midna
261
False
This storyline takes place alternate from what storyline?
56d1162317492d1400aab8ef
The Wind Waker
378
False
Hyrule
67
What land does Ocarina serve to protect?
5a8d800edf8bba001a0f9abb
True
Midna
261
What character helped Link in Ocarina Princess?
5a8d800edf8bba001a0f9abc
True
Link
40
Who is the protagonist of Midna of Time?
5a8d800edf8bba001a0f9abd
True
The Wind Waker
378
From what alternate dimension does this dimension take place from?
5a8d800edf8bba001a0f9abe
True
hundreds of years after Ocarina of Time
289
When does the Waker take place?
5a8d800edf8bba001a0f9abf
True
The story focuses on series protagonist Link, who tries to prevent Hyrule from being engulfed by a corrupted parallel dimension known as the Twilight Realm. To do so, he takes the form of both a Hylian and a wolf, and is assisted by a mysterious creature named Midna. The game takes place hundreds of years after Ocarina of Time and Majora's Mask, in an alternate timeline from The Wind Waker.
What accolade did Twilight Princess receive after its release?
56cd8b5862d2951400fa66a2
Game of the Year
278
False
Under which brand was Twilight Princess for the Nintendo Wii published?
56cd8b5862d2951400fa66a3
Nintendo Selects
405
False
When is the HD version of Twilight Princess slated for launch?
56cd8b5862d2951400fa66a4
March 2016
530
False
At the time of release which episode of the Legend of Zelda series was considered the greatest entry?
56d116d717492d1400aab8f4
Twilight Princess
28
False
How many Game of the Year awards did Twilight Princess receive?
56d116d717492d1400aab8f5
several
270
False
What year was Twilight Princess the most critically acclaimed game?
56d116d717492d1400aab8f6
2006
349
False
What year will the game release a high-definition port for the Wii U console?
56d116d717492d1400aab8f7
2016
536
False
Game of the Year
278
What accolade did Radar Princess receive after its release?
5a8d8412df8bba001a0f9ac5
True
Nintendo Selects
405
Under which brand was Radar Princess for the Nintendo Wii published?
5a8d8412df8bba001a0f9ac6
True
March 2016
530
When is the HD version of Radar Princess slated for launch?
5a8d8412df8bba001a0f9ac7
True
Twilight Princess
28
At the time of release what episode of Legend of Radar series was considered the greatest story?
5a8d8412df8bba001a0f9ac8
True
several
270
How many Game of the Year awards did Radar Princess receive?
5a8d8412df8bba001a0f9ac9
True
At the time of its release, Twilight Princess was considered the greatest entry in the Zelda series by many critics, including writers for 1UP.com, Computer and Video Games, Electronic Gaming Monthly, Game Informer, GamesRadar, IGN, and The Washington Post. It received several Game of the Year awards, and was the most critically acclaimed game of 2006. In 2011, the Wii version was rereleased under the Nintendo Selects label. A high-definition port for the Wii U, The Legend of Zelda: Twilight Princess HD, will be released in March 2016.
What are the three main activities in The Legend of Zelda: Twilight Princess?
56cd8c5762d2951400fa66a8
combat, exploration, and item collection
78
False
Twilight Princess uses the control setup first employed in which previous game?
56cd8c5762d2951400fa66a9
Ocarina of Time
167
False
What can be used to shoot without the need to manually target enemies?
56cd8c5762d2951400fa66aa
L-targeting
231
False
What is Link's main weapon?
56cd8c5762d2951400fa66ab
sword
509
False
What secondary weapon in Twilight Princess is analogous to a weapon featured in previous games?
56cd8c5762d2951400fa66ac
Clawshot
640
False
What genre of game is Twilight Princess?
56d118ce17492d1400aab924
action-adventure
45
False
Twilight Princess follows the control scheme introduced in what game?
56d118ce17492d1400aab925
Ocarina of Time
167
False
What 2 main weapons does Link use in combat?
56d118ce17492d1400aab926
sword and shield
509
False
What control can be used while targeting that allows the player to forego manual targeting?
56d118ce17492d1400aab927
L-targeting
231
False
combat, exploration, and item collection
78
What are the three main activities in The Legend of Zelda: Clawshot Princess?
5a8d8513df8bba001a0f9acf
True
Ocarina of Time
167
Clawshot Princess uses the control setup first employed in which previous game?
5a8d8513df8bba001a0f9ad0
True
sword
509
What is Clawshot's main weapon?
5a8d8513df8bba001a0f9ad1
True
Clawshot
640
What secondary weapon in Clawshot Princess is analogous to a weapon featured in previous games?
5a8d8513df8bba001a0f9ad2
True
action-adventure
45
What genre of games is Clawshot Princess?
5a8d8513df8bba001a0f9ad3
True
The Legend of Zelda: Twilight Princess is an action-adventure game focused on combat, exploration, and item collection. It uses the basic control scheme introduced in Ocarina of Time, including context-sensitive action buttons and L-targeting (Z-targeting on the Wii), a system that allows the player to keep Link's view focused on an enemy or important object while moving and attacking. Link can walk, run, and attack, and will automatically jump when running off of or reaching for a ledge.[c] Link uses a sword and shield in combat, complemented with secondary weapons and items, including a bow and arrows, a boomerang, bombs, and the Clawshot (similar to the Hookshot introduced earlier in the The Legend of Zelda series).[d] While L-targeting, projectile-based weapons can be fired at a target without the need for manual aiming.[c]
Many different types of interaction can be controlled by how many buttons?
56cd8d0662d2951400fa66b2
one
45
False
Where can players see what action will be performed in different scenarios?
56cd8d0662d2951400fa66b3
on-screen display
172
False
If Link is not moving, where will he put the projectile he's carrying?
56cd8d0662d2951400fa66b4
on the ground
441
False
What mechanic allows one button to serve many functions?
56d1195d17492d1400aab93b
context-sensitive button mechanic
4
False
What shows what action the button will trigger?
56d1195d17492d1400aab93c
on-screen display
172
False
one
45
Many different types of interaction can be controlled by how many rocks?
5a8d867bdf8bba001a0f9ad9
True
on-screen display
172
Where can players see what action will be performed in different rocks?
5a8d867bdf8bba001a0f9ada
True
on the ground
441
If Link is not moving, where will he put the enemy he's carrying?
5a8d867bdf8bba001a0f9adb
True
context-sensitive button mechanic
4
What mechanic allows two buttons to serve many functions?
5a8d867bdf8bba001a0f9adc
True
on-screen display
172
What shows what action the rock will trigger?
5a8d867bdf8bba001a0f9add
True
The context-sensitive button mechanic allows one button to serve a variety of functions, such as talking, opening doors, and pushing, pulling, and throwing objects.[e] The on-screen display shows what action, if any, the button will trigger, determined by the situation. For example, if Link is holding a rock, the context-sensitive button will cause Link to throw the rock if he is moving or targeting an object or enemy, or place the rock on the ground if he is standing still.[f]
Where is the speaker located on the Wii console?
56cd8dbf62d2951400fa66f2
Wii Remote
171
False
What sound do users here when uncovering secrets in the game?
56cd8dbf62d2951400fa66f3
chime
323
False
What part of the Wii is employed to use weapons?
56cd8dbf62d2951400fa66f4
Wii Remote
171
False
Aside from the sword, what is another weapon that Link can use?
56cd8dbf62d2951400fa66f5
Nunchuk
477
False
How many weapons can be equipped by Link if playing Twilight Princess on a GameCube?
56cd8dbf62d2951400fa66f6
two
682
False
The Wii version makes use of what kind of sensors?
56d11a1b17492d1400aab95d
motion
128
False
What device on the Wii allows for sounds of a bowstring to be heard?
56d11a1b17492d1400aab95e
Wii Remote
171
False
Wii Remote
405
Where is the speaker located on the Midna console?
5a8d8744df8bba001a0f9ae3
True
chime
323
What sound do users hear when uncovering weapons in the game?
5a8d8744df8bba001a0f9ae4
True
Wii Remote
171
What part of the Midna is employed to use weapons?
5a8d8744df8bba001a0f9ae5
True
Nunchuk
477
Aside from the sword, what is another weapon that Midna can use?
5a8d8744df8bba001a0f9ae6
True
two
682
How many weapons can be equipped by Midna if playing Twilight Princess on a GameCube?
5a8d8744df8bba001a0f9ae7
True
The GameCube and Wii versions feature several minor differences in their controls. The Wii version of the game makes use of the motion sensors and built-in speaker of the Wii Remote. The speaker emits the sounds of a bowstring when shooting an arrow, Midna's laugh when she gives advice to Link, and the series' trademark "chime" when discovering secrets. The player controls Link's sword by swinging the Wii Remote. Other attacks are triggered using similar gestures with the Nunchuk. Unique to the GameCube version is the ability for the player to control the camera freely, without entering a special "lookaround" mode required by the Wii; however, in the GameCube version, only two of Link's secondary weapons can be equipped at a time, as opposed to four in the Wii version.[g]
How many dungeon instances are provided in Twilight Princess?
56cd8e2362d2951400fa66fc
nine
18
False
What does Link fight in dungeons?
56cd8e2362d2951400fa66fd
enemies
74
False
What provides a bridge between the different dungeons?
56cd8e2362d2951400fa66fe
overworld
274
False
What is the name of Link's steed?
56cd8e2362d2951400fa66ff
Epona
337
False
What must Link solve throughout the game?
56d11a7017492d1400aab968
puzzles
110
False
Who must Link fight at the end of a dungeon level?
56d11a7017492d1400aab969
boss
162
False
What connects the dungeons?
56d11a7017492d1400aab96a
overworld
274
False
nine
18
How many dungeon instances are provided in Epona Princess?
5a8d8836df8bba001a0f9aed
True
enemies
74
What does Epona fight in dungeons?
5a8d8836df8bba001a0f9aee
True
overworld
274
What provides a bridge between the different items?
5a8d8836df8bba001a0f9aef
True
Epona
337
What is the name of Link's enemy?
5a8d8836df8bba001a0f9af0
True
puzzles
110
What must Epona solve throughout the game?
5a8d8836df8bba001a0f9af1
True
The game features nine dungeons—large, contained areas where Link battles enemies, collects items, and solves puzzles. Link navigates these dungeons and fights a boss at the end in order to obtain an item or otherwise advance the plot. The dungeons are connected by a large overworld, across which Link can travel on foot; on his horse, Epona; or by teleporting.
What form does Link take in the Twilight Realm?
56cd8ec662d2951400fa6704
Wolf
351
False
What is Link's main form of offense in wolf form?
56cd8ec662d2951400fa6705
biting
291
False
Hostile spirits are also known as what?
56cd8ec662d2951400fa6706
Poes
1014
False
Who provides helpful information to Link?
56cd8ec662d2951400fa6707
Midna
633
False
Link's wolf form is faster than what other form?
56cd8ec662d2951400fa6708
human
435
False
What does Link transform into when he enters the Twilight Realm?
56d11af517492d1400aab987
Wolf
351
False
Who is Midna?
56d11af517492d1400aab989
small imp-like creature
642
False
What are Poes?
56d11af517492d1400aab98b
enemy ghosts
995
False
Wolf
351
What form does Epona take in the Twilight Realm?
5a8d89b5df8bba001a0f9af7
True
biting
291
What is Epona's main form of offense in wolf form?
5a8d89b5df8bba001a0f9af8
True
Poes
1014
Hostile Eponas are also known as what?
5a8d89b5df8bba001a0f9af9
True
Midna
633
Who provides helpful information to Poes?
5a8d89b5df8bba001a0f9afa
True
human
435
Link's Edna form is faster than what other form?
5a8d89b5df8bba001a0f9afb
True
When Link enters the Twilight Realm, the void that corrupts parts of Hyrule, he transforms into a wolf.[h] He is eventually able to transform between his Hylian and wolf forms at will. As a wolf, Link loses the ability to use his sword, shield, or any secondary items; he instead attacks by biting, and defends primarily by dodging attacks. However, "Wolf Link" gains several key advantages in return—he moves faster than he does as a human (though riding Epona is still faster) and digs holes to create new passages and uncover buried items, and has improved senses, including the ability to follow scent trails.[i] He also carries Midna, a small imp-like creature who gives him hints, uses an energy field to attack enemies, helps him jump long distances, and eventually allows Link to "warp" to any of several preset locations throughout the overworld.[j] Using Link's wolf senses, the player can see and listen to the wandering spirits of those affected by the Twilight, as well as hunt for enemy ghosts named Poes.[k]
What does AI stand for?
56cd8f4b62d2951400fa670e
artificial intelligence
4
False
What is a game whose enemies have more rudimentary programming than those in Twilight Princess?
56cd8f4b62d2951400fa670f
The Wind Waker
106
False
What do enemies do to defeated companions?
56cd8f4b62d2951400fa6711
react
130
False
What feature of the enemies in Twilight Princess is more advanced?
56d1283617492d1400aabac2
artificial intelligence
4
False
Who can enemies detect from a greater distance than in previous games?
56d1283617492d1400aabac3
Link
223
False
The Wind Waker
106
What is a game whose enemies have more rudimentary programming than those in Twilight Enemies?
5a8d9051df8bba001a0f9b01
True
react
130
What does do previous games do to defeated companions?
5a8d9051df8bba001a0f9b02
True
artificial intelligence
4
What feature of the enemies in Twilight Enemies is more advanced?
5a8d9051df8bba001a0f9b03
True
Link
223
Who can enemies detect from a greater distance than in Twilight Enemies?
5a8d9051df8bba001a0f9b04
True
Enemies
122
Who reacts to artificial intelligence that passes by?
5a8d9051df8bba001a0f9b05
True
The artificial intelligence (AI) of enemies in Twilight Princess is more advanced than that of enemies in The Wind Waker. Enemies react to defeated companions and to arrows or slingshot pellets that pass by, and can detect Link from a greater distance than was possible in previous games.
Through what can Link's reaction and mood can be discerned?
56cd8ffa62d2951400fa6720
nods and facial expressions
253
False
Which person has the most spoken dialogue in the game?
56cd8ffa62d2951400fa6721
Midna
434
False
Who provided the basis for Midna's voice?
56cd8ffa62d2951400fa6722
Akiko Kōmoto
659
False
What country does Akiko Komoto come from?
56cd8ffa62d2951400fa6723
Japan
636
False
What does Link say when attacking?
56d128ed17492d1400aabad9
grunts
133
False
How does Link express emotions?
56d128ed17492d1400aabada
nods and facial expressions
253
False
What character has the most voice acting?
56d128ed17492d1400aabadb
Midna
434
False
Who does the voice of Midna?
56d128ed17492d1400aabadc
Akiko Kōmoto
659
False
nods and facial expressions
253
Through what can Link's verbalizations be discerned?
5a8d914edf8bba001a0f9b0b
True
Midna
434
Which person has the most nods in the game?
5a8d914edf8bba001a0f9b0c
True
Akiko Kōmoto
659
Who provided the basis for Zelda's voice?
5a8d914edf8bba001a0f9b0d
True
Japan
636
What country does Zelda come from?
5a8d914edf8bba001a0f9b0e
True
grunts
133
What does Zelda say when attacking?
5a8d914edf8bba001a0f9b0f
True
There is very little voice acting in the game, as is the case in most Zelda titles to date. Link remains silent in conversation, but grunts when attacking or injured and gasps when surprised. His emotions and responses are largely indicated visually by nods and facial expressions. Other characters have similar language-independent verbalizations, including laughter, surprised or fearful exclamations, and screams. The character of Midna has the most voice acting—her on-screen dialog is often accompanied by a babble of pseudo-speech, which was produced by scrambling the phonemes of English phrases[better source needed] sampled by Japanese voice actress Akiko Kōmoto.
What is Link's job at the start of Twilight Princess?
56cd92e562d2951400fa6728
ranch hand
144
False
What do the Bulbins take from Ordon?
56cd92e562d2951400fa672a
children
247
False
Who releases Link from the Realm of Twilight?
56cd92e562d2951400fa672b
Midna
494
False
What does Link have to gather in order to complete each area?
56cd92e562d2951400fa672c
Tears of Light
940
False
Where is Link working as a ranch hand?
56d1298217492d1400aabaf8
Ordon Village
158
False
Who attacks the village?
56d1298217492d1400aabaf9
Bulblins
209
False
What must Link collect?
56d1298217492d1400aabafb
Tears of Light
940
False
ranch hand
144
What is the Light Spirits job at the start of Twilight Princess?
5a8d9520df8bba001a0f9b15
True
children
247
What do the Bulbins take from Link?
5a8d9520df8bba001a0f9b16
True
Midna
494
Who releases Bulbins from the Realm of Twilight?
5a8d9520df8bba001a0f9b17
True
Tears of Light
940
What dos Midna have to gather in order to complete each area?
5a8d9520df8bba001a0f9b18
True
Ordon Village
158
Where is Midna working as a ranch hand?
5a8d9520df8bba001a0f9b19
True
Twilight Princess takes place several centuries after Ocarina of Time and Majora's Mask, and begins with a youth named Link who is working as a ranch hand in Ordon Village. One day, the village is attacked by Bulblins, who carry off the village's children with Link in pursuit before he encounters a wall of Twilight. A Shadow Beast pulls him beyond the wall into the Realm of Twilight, where he is transformed into a wolf and imprisoned. Link is soon freed by an imp-like Twilight being named Midna, who dislikes Link but agrees to help him if he obeys her unconditionally. She guides him to Princess Zelda. Zelda explains that Zant, the King of the Twilight, has stolen the light from three of the four Light Spirits and conquered Hyrule. In order to save Hyrule, Link must first restore the Light Spirits by entering the Twilight-covered areas and, as a wolf, recover the Spirits' lost light. He must do this by collecting the multiple "Tears of Light"; once all the Tears of Light are collected for one area, he restores that area's Light Spirit. As he restores them, the Light Spirits return Link to his Hylian form.
What does Link assist Midna in collection?
56cd937162d2951400fa6732
Fused Shadows
49
False
Who attacks Link and Midna when they've finished their collection tasks?
56cd937162d2951400fa6733
Zant
355
False
What weapon can transform Link back to his original self?
56cd937162d2951400fa6734
Master Sword
689
False
Who saves Midna?
56cd937162d2951400fa6735
Zelda
657
False
Where do the Zoras come from?
56cd937162d2951400fa6736
Lanayru
247
False
What does Link help Midna find?
56d12a1317492d1400aabb10
Fused Shadows
49
False
Who ambushes Link and Midna?
56d12a1317492d1400aabb12
Zant
355
False
What does Link discover he needs to find to return to human form?
56d12a1317492d1400aabb13
Master Sword
689
False
Who sacrifices herself to save Midna?
56d12a1317492d1400aabb14
Zelda
657
False
Fused Shadows
319
What does Link assist Gorons in collecting?
5a8d9a35df8bba001a0f9b1f
True
Zant
355
Who attacks Gorons and Eldin when they've finished their collection?
5a8d9a35df8bba001a0f9b20
True
Master Sword
689
What weapon can transform Zelda back to his original self?
5a8d9a35df8bba001a0f9b21
True
Zelda
727
Who saves Link?
5a8d9a35df8bba001a0f9b22
True
Lanayru
247
Where do the Eldin come from?
5a8d9a35df8bba001a0f9b23
True
During this time, Link also helps Midna find the Fused Shadows, fragments of a relic containing powerful dark magic. In return, she helps Link find Ordon Village's children while helping the monkeys of Faron, the Gorons of Eldin, and the Zoras of Lanayru. Once Link has restored the Light Spirits and Midna has all the Fused Shadows, they are ambushed by Zant. After he relieves Midna of the Fused Shadow fragments, she ridicules him for abusing his tribe's magic, but Zant reveals that his power comes from another source as he uses it to turn Link back into a wolf, and then leaves Midna in Hyrule to die from the world's light. Bringing a dying Midna to Zelda, Link learns he needs the Master Sword to return to human form. Zelda sacrifices herself to heal Midna with her power before vanishing mysteriously. Midna is moved by Zelda's sacrifice, and begins to care more about Link and the fate of the light world.
What does Link obtain that gives him control over his transformations?
56cd942362d2951400fa673c
Shadow Crystal
104
False
Where does Midna take Link after he acquires the Master Sword?
56cd942362d2951400fa673d
Mirror of Twilight
205
False
Who was the Mirror of Twilight used to fight prior to Zant?
56cd942362d2951400fa673e
Ganondorf
620
False
Where is Ganondorf located after Zant's defeat?
56cd942362d2951400fa673f
Hyrule Castle
1432
False
Whose body is used as a proxy by Ganondorf in order to fight Link?
56cd942362d2951400fa6740
Zelda's
1531
False
What allows Link to switch between his two forms?
56d12adf17492d1400aabb28
Shadow Crystal
104
False
What is the only known gateway between Twilight Realm & Hyrule?
56d12adf17492d1400aabb29
Gerudo Desert
248
False
Who is revealed as the true ruler of Twilight Realm?
56d12adf17492d1400aabb2a
Midna
192
False
Who did Zant form a pact with?
56d12adf17492d1400aabb2b
Ganondorf
620
False
What does Ganondorf transform into?
56d12adf17492d1400aabb2c
beast
1582
False
Shadow Crystal
104
What does Link obtain that gives him control over Hyrule?
5a8d9f46df8bba001a0f9b29
True
Mirror of Twilight
205
Where does Midna take Link after he acquires a beast?
5a8d9f46df8bba001a0f9b2a
True
Ganondorf
620
Who was the Mirror of Twilight used to fight prior to the Fused Shadows?
5a8d9f46df8bba001a0f9b2b
True
Hyrule Castle
1432
Where is Link located after Zant's defeat?
5a8d9f46df8bba001a0f9b2c
True
Zelda's
1531
Whose body is used as a proxy by Link in order to fight Ganondorf?
5a8d9f46df8bba001a0f9b2d
True
After gaining the Master Sword, Link is cleansed of the magic that kept him in wolf form, obtaining the Shadow Crystal. Now able to use it to switch between both forms at will, Link is led by Midna to the Mirror of Twilight located deep within the Gerudo Desert, the only known gateway between the Twilight Realm and Hyrule. However, they discover that the mirror is broken. The Sages there explain that Zant tried to destroy it, but he was only able to shatter it into fragments; only the true ruler of the Twili can completely destroy the Mirror of Twilight. They also reveal that they used it a century ago to banish Ganondorf, the Gerudo leader who attempted to steal the Triforce, to the Twilight Realm when executing him failed. Assisted by an underground resistance group they meet in Castle Town, Link and Midna set out to retrieve the missing shards of the Mirror, defeating those they infected. Once the portal has been restored, Midna is revealed to be the true ruler of the Twilight Realm, usurped by Zant when he cursed her into her current form. Confronting Zant, Link and Midna learn that Zant's coup was made possible when he forged a pact with Ganondorf, who asked for Zant's assistance in conquering Hyrule. After Link defeats Zant, Midna recovers the Fused Shadows, but destroys Zant after learning that only Ganondorf's death can release her from her curse. Returning to Hyrule, Link and Midna find Ganondorf in Hyrule Castle, with a lifeless Zelda suspended above his head. Ganondorf fights Link by possessing Zelda's body and eventually by transforming into a beast, but Link defeats him and Midna is able to resurrect Zelda.
What possession of Midna does Ganondorf destroy?
56cd953262d2951400fa6746
helmet
230
False
Where does Link depart from at the end of the game?
56cd953262d2951400fa6747
Ordon Village
816
False
Which character helps Link get Ganondorf off of his horse?
56cd953262d2951400fa6748
Zelda
53
False
To what part of his body does Link deliver the killing blow to Ganondorf?
56cd953262d2951400fa6749
chest
463
False
Who resurrects Midna after the fight with Ganondorf?
56cd953262d2951400fa674a
Light Spirits
306
False
Who does Midna teleport?
56d12bda17492d1400aabb44
Link and Zelda
44
False
What does Ganondorf crush?
56d12bda17492d1400aabb45
Midna's helmet
222
False
What does Midna destroy?
56d12bda17492d1400aabb47
Mirror of Twilight
661
False
helmet
230
What possession of Link does Ganondorf destroy?
5a8da394df8bba001a0f9b33
True
Ordon Village
816
Where does Ganondorf depart from at the end of the game?
5a8da394df8bba001a0f9b34
True
Zelda
292
Which character helps Midna get Ganandorf off of her horse?
5a8da394df8bba001a0f9b35
True
chest
463
To what part of his body does Zelda deliver the killing blow to Ganondorf?
5a8da394df8bba001a0f9b36
True
Light Spirits
306
Who resurrects Zelda after the fight with Ganondorf?
5a8da394df8bba001a0f9b37
True
Ganondorf then revives, and Midna teleports Link and Zelda outside the castle so she can hold him off with the Fused Shadows. However, as Hyrule Castle collapses, it is revealed that Ganondorf was victorious as he crushes Midna's helmet. Ganondorf engages Link on horseback, and, assisted by Zelda and the Light Spirits, Link eventually knocks Ganondorf off his horse and they duel on foot before Link strikes down Ganondorf and plunges the Master Sword into his chest. With Ganondorf dead, the Light Spirits not only bring Midna back to life, but restore her to her true form. After bidding farewell to Link and Zelda, Midna returns home before destroying the Mirror of Twilight with a tear to maintain balance between Hyrule and the Twilight Realm. Near the end, as Hyrule Castle is rebuilt, Link is shown leaving Ordon Village heading to parts unknown.
In what year did Nintendo reveal the start of development on what would become Twilight Princess?
56cd95f562d2951400fa6750
2003
3
False
At what event was a potential follow-up to The Wind Waker mentioned?
56cd95f562d2951400fa6751
Game Developers Conference
187
False
What region of the world did Nintendo want to design the next Legend of Zelda game for?
56cd95f562d2951400fa6752
North American
454
False
What was one feature that could not be implemented in Ocarina of Time?
56cd95f562d2951400fa6753
horseback combat
1059
False
What year did Nintendo announce a new Legend of Zelda was in the works for Gamecube?
56d12ceb17492d1400aabb5c
2003
3
False
Who was the director that unintentionally announced a Zelda game was in the works?
56d12ceb17492d1400aabb5d
Eiji Aonuma
224
False
What was the specific area of gameplay that had not been done in Ocarina of Time?
56d12ceb17492d1400aabb5f
horseback combat
1059
False
2003
3
In what year did Nintendo reveal the start of development on what would become The Wind Waker?
5a8da6c7df8bba001a0f9b3d
True
Game Developers Conference
187
At what event was a potential follow-up to Shigeru Miyamoto mentioned?
5a8da6c7df8bba001a0f9b3e
True
North American
454
What region of the wold did Nintendo want to design the next Legend of Shigeru game for?
5a8da6c7df8bba001a0f9b3f
True
horseback combat
1059
What was one feature that could not be implemented in Shigeru Miyamoto?
5a8da6c7df8bba001a0f9b40
True
2003
3
What year did Nintendo announce a new Legend of Zelda was in the works for horseback combat?
5a8da6c7df8bba001a0f9b41
True
In 2003, Nintendo announced that a new The Legend of Zelda game was in the works for the GameCube by the same team that had created the cel-shaded The Wind Waker. At the following year's Game Developers Conference, director Eiji Aonuma unintentionally revealed that the game's sequel was in development under the working title The Wind Waker 2; it was set to use a similar graphical style to that of its predecessor. Nintendo of America told Aonuma that North American sales of The Wind Waker were sluggish because its cartoon appearance created the impression that the game was designed for a young audience. Concerned that the sequel would have the same problem, Aonuma expressed to producer Shigeru Miyamoto that he wanted to create a realistic Zelda game that would appeal to the North American market. Miyamoto, hesitant about solely changing the game's presentation, suggested the team's focus should instead be on coming up with gameplay innovations. He advised that Aonuma should start by doing what could not be done in Ocarina of Time, particularly horseback combat.[l]
How long did it take to implement riding horses in a believable manner?
56cd96c162d2951400fa6758
four
3
False
Where did Nintendo preview the horseback riding feature?
56cd96c162d2951400fa6759
Electronic Entertainment Expo 2004
142
False
What console was home to the sequel for The Wind Waker?
56cd96c162d2951400fa675a
Nintendo DS
321
False
What was the name of the second Wind Waker game?
56cd96c162d2951400fa675b
Phantom Hourglass
357
False
When did the company release a trailer of the horseback riding aspect?
56d12d5117492d1400aabb71
2004
172
False
four months
3
How long did it take to implement riding Phantoms in a believable manner?
5a8da7d2df8bba001a0f9b47
True
Electronic Entertainment Expo 2004
142
Where did Nintendo preview the Phantom riding feature?
5a8da7d2df8bba001a0f9b48
True
Nintendo DS
321
What console was home to the sequel for Aonuma?
5a8da7d2df8bba001a0f9b49
True
Phantom Hourglass
357
What was the name of the second Aonuma game?
5a8da7d2df8bba001a0f9b4a
True
2004
172
When did the company release a trailer of the Phantom riding aspect?
5a8da7d2df8bba001a0f9b4b
True
In four months, Aonuma's team managed to present realistic horseback riding,[l] which Nintendo later revealed to the public with a trailer at Electronic Entertainment Expo 2004. The game was scheduled to be released the next year, and was no longer a follow-up to The Wind Waker; a true sequel to it was released for the Nintendo DS in 2007, in the form of Phantom Hourglass. Miyamoto explained in interviews that the graphical style was chosen to satisfy demand, and that it better fit the theme of an older incarnation of Link. The game runs on a modified The Wind Waker engine.
What does Link morph into in A Link to the Past?
56cd976762d2951400fa6761
rabbit
420
False
Aonuma left the Twilight Princess development team to work on which other game?
56cd976762d2951400fa6762
The Minish Cap
786
False
What was the working name for the Wii prior to release?
56cd976762d2951400fa6763
Revolution
1219
False
Who proposed that the Wii Remote be used in the control scheme for Twilight Princess?
56cd976762d2951400fa6764
Miyamoto
1232
False
Who created the script for the story scenes?
56d12e4a17492d1400aabb8b
Mitsuhiro Takano
572
False
What device seemed well-suited for Link's arrow shooting ability?
56d12e4a17492d1400aabb8c
Wii Remote
1292
False
rabbit
420
What does Zelda morph into in A Link to the Past?
5a8da94adf8bba001a0f9b51
True
The Minish Cap
786
Aonuma left the A Link to the Past development team to work on which other game?
5a8da94adf8bba001a0f9b52
True
Revolution
1219
What was the working name for A Link to the Past prior to release?
5a8da94adf8bba001a0f9b53
True
Miyamoto
1232
Who proposed that the Game Boy Advance Remote be used in the control scheme for Twilight Princess?
5a8da94adf8bba001a0f9b54
True
Mitsuhiro Takano
572
Who created the scripts for the Game Boy Advance?
5a8da94adf8bba001a0f9b55
True
Prior Zelda games have employed a theme of two separate, yet connected, worlds. In A Link to the Past, Link travels between a "Light World" and a "Dark World"; in Ocarina of Time, as well as in Oracle of Ages, Link travels between two different time periods. The Zelda team sought to reuse this motif in the series' latest installment. It was suggested that Link transform into a wolf, much like he metamorphoses into a rabbit in the Dark World of A Link to the Past.[m] The story of the game was created by Aonuma, and later underwent several changes by scenario writers Mitsuhiro Takano and Aya Kyogoku. Takano created the script for the story scenes, while Kyogoku and Takayuki Ikkaku handled the actual in-game script. Aonuma left his team working on the new idea while he directed The Minish Cap for the Game Boy Advance. When he returned, he found the Twilight Princess team struggling. Emphasis on the parallel worlds and the wolf transformation had made Link's character unbelievable. Aonuma also felt the gameplay lacked the caliber of innovation found in Phantom Hourglass, which was being developed with touch controls for the Nintendo DS. At the same time, the Wii was under development with the code name "Revolution". Miyamoto thought that the Revolution's pointing device, the Wii Remote, was well suited for aiming arrows in Zelda, and suggested that Aonuma consider using it.[n]
What kind of interface was used for in-game archery?
56cd97f862d2951400fa676a
pointing-based
190
False
What was the originally-planned launch year for Twilight Princess?
56cd97f862d2951400fa676b
2005
570
False
Which Nintendo employee was confident in the potential of developing two versions of Twilight Princess?
56cd97f862d2951400fa676c
Satoru Iwata
618
False
What was the original release date for Gamecube?
56d12ed617492d1400aabb96
2005
570
False
pointing-based
190
What kind of control schemes were used for in-game archery?
5a8dab7cdf8bba001a0f9b5b
True
2005
570
What was the originally-planned launch year for Twilight Princess?
5a8dab7cdf8bba001a0f9b5c
True
Satoru Iwata
618
Which Nintendo employee was confident in the potential of developing two versions of Aonuma?
5a8dab7cdf8bba001a0f9b5d
True
2005
570
What was the original release date for Satoru?
5a8dab7cdf8bba001a0f9b5e
True
Aonuma
242
Who found that aiming directly at the GameCube gave the game a new feel?
5a8dab7cdf8bba001a0f9b5f
True
Aonuma had anticipated creating a Zelda game for what would later be called the Wii, but had assumed that he would need to complete Twilight Princess first. His team began work developing a pointing-based interface for the bow and arrow, and Aonuma found that aiming directly at the screen gave the game a new feel, just like the DS control scheme for Phantom Hourglass. Aonuma felt confident this was the only way to proceed, but worried about consumers who had been anticipating a GameCube release. Developing two versions would mean delaying the previously announced 2005 release, still disappointing the consumer. Satoru Iwata felt that having both versions would satisfy users in the end, even though they would have to wait for the finished product. Aonuma then started working on both versions in parallel.[o]
What console boasted compatibility with the Wii?
56cd9df862d2951400fa677a
GameCube
13
False
Where did Nintendo provide a limited number of Twilight Princess previews?
56cd9df862d2951400fa677b
E3 2005
142
False
At E3 in 2005, what console did Nintendo reveal the next Zelda game would be developed for?
56cd9df862d2951400fa677c
Wii
41
False
When did Nintendo announce Zelda would appear on the Wii?
56d12fb517492d1400aabba1
At E3 2005
139
False
GameCube
13
What console boasted compatibility with Twilight Princess?
5a8dad7edf8bba001a0f9b65
True
E3 2005
142
Where did Nintendo provide a limited number of Wii previews?
5a8dad7edf8bba001a0f9b66
True
At E3 2005
139
When did Nintendo announce Zelda would appear on the GameCube?
5a8dad7edf8bba001a0f9b67
True
Wii
313
At E3 in 2005, what console did Nintendo reveal the next Revolution game would be developed for?
5a8dad7edf8bba001a0f9b68
True
Nintendo DS game cards
187
What kind of cards contained a preview trailer for Revolution?
5a8dad7edf8bba001a0f9b69
True
Transferring GameCube development to the Wii was relatively simple, since the Wii was being created to be compatible with the GameCube.[o] At E3 2005, Nintendo released a small number of Nintendo DS game cards containing a preview trailer for Twilight Princess. They also announced that Zelda would appear on the Wii (then codenamed "Revolution"), but it was not clear to the media if this meant Twilight Princess or a different game.
What kind of movement interfaced with the sword in Twilight Princess?
56cd9ed662d2951400fa6780
swinging gesture
150
False
Who provided information about the game's controls in December of 2005?
56cd9ed662d2951400fa6781
NGC Magazine
566
False
What ended up not being supported in the GameCube version of Twilight Princess?
56cd9ed662d2951400fa6782
Wii controller
895
False
In what year did Nintendo reveal that the two different releases of Twilight Princess were planned for launch at the same time as the Wii?
56cd9ed662d2951400fa6783
2006
959
False
How long was the GameCube version of Twilight Princess delayed?
56cd9ed662d2951400fa6784
a month
1152
False
What magazine mentioned players would be able to use the Revolution controller?
56d1307b17492d1400aabbb1
NGC Magazine
566
False
When did Nintendo announce both versions of Twilight Princess would be available at the Wii launch?
56d1307b17492d1400aabbb2
E3 2006
956
False
swinging gesture
150
What kind of movement interfaced with the sword in Nintendo?
5a8dae8adf8bba001a0f9b6f
True
NGC Magazine
566
Who provided information about the game's controls in December of 2006?
5a8dae8adf8bba001a0f9b70
True
Wii controller
895
What ended up not being supported in the Wii version of Twilight Princess?
5a8dae8adf8bba001a0f9b71
True
2006
959
In what year did Nintendo reveal that the two different releases of Twilight Princess were planned for launch at the same time as NGC?
5a8dae8adf8bba001a0f9b72
True
a month
1152
How long was the Wii version of Twilight Princess delayed?
5a8dae8adf8bba001a0f9b73
True
The team worked on a Wii control scheme, adapting camera control and the fighting mechanics to the new interface. A prototype was created that used a swinging gesture to control the sword from a first-person viewpoint, but was unable to show the variety of Link's movements. When the third-person view was restored, Aonuma thought it felt strange to swing the Wii Remote with the right hand to control the sword in Link's left hand, so the entire Wii version map was mirrored.[p] Details about Wii controls began to surface in December 2005 when British publication NGC Magazine claimed that when a GameCube copy of Twilight Princess was played on the Revolution, it would give the player the option of using the Revolution controller. Miyamoto confirmed the Revolution controller-functionality in an interview with Nintendo of Europe and Time reported this soon after. However, support for the Wii controller did not make it into the GameCube release. At E3 2006, Nintendo announced that both versions would be available at the Wii launch, and had a playable version of Twilight Princess for the Wii.[p] Later, the GameCube release was pushed back to a month after the launch of the Wii.
What did early users find hard to use about the game?
56cda06d62d2951400fa678a
control scheme
87
False
Using items in the game took over the controls used for what weapon?
56cda06d62d2951400fa678b
sword
546
False
Who wanted gestures implemented for sword control?
56cda06d62d2951400fa678c
E3 attendees
627
False
When Twilight Princess was finally released for Wii, in what hand did Link wield his sword?
56cda06d62d2951400fa678d
right
719
False
What features did Aonuma work to improve after the demo complaints?
56d1314217492d1400aabbc9
comfort and ease
324
False
control scheme
87
What did early users find hard to use about the sword?
5a8db1e5df8bba001a0f9b79
True
sword
763
Using a left-handed swing in the game took over the controls used for what weapon
5a8db1e5df8bba001a0f9b7a
True
sword
546
Who wanted gestures implemented for hand control?
5a8db1e5df8bba001a0f9b7b
True
right
719
When Twilight Princess was finally released for Wii, in what hand did Aonuma wield his sword?
5a8db1e5df8bba001a0f9b7c
True
comfort and ease
324
What features did Aonuma work to improve after Miyamoto's complaints?
5a8db1e5df8bba001a0f9b7d
True
Nintendo staff members reported that demo users complained about the difficulty of the control scheme. Aonuma realized that his team had implemented Wii controls under the mindset of "forcing" users to adapt, instead of making the system intuitive and easy to use. He began rethinking the controls with Miyamoto to focus on comfort and ease.[q] The camera movement was reworked and item controls were changed to avoid accidental button presses.[r] In addition, the new item system required use of the button that had previously been used for the sword. To solve this, sword controls were transferred back to gestures—something E3 attendees had commented they would like to see. This reintroduced the problem of using a right-handed swing to control a left-handed sword attack. The team did not have enough time before release to rework Link's character model, so they instead flipped the entire game—everything was made a mirror image.[s] Link was now right-handed, and references to "east" and "west" were switched around. The GameCube version, however, was left with the original orientation. The Twilight Princess player's guide focuses on the Wii version, but has a section in the back with mirror-image maps for GameCube users.[t]
Who wrote the music for Twilight Princess?
56cda10262d2951400fa6792
Toru Minegishi and Asuka Ohta
33
False
Who was in charge of overseeing audio production?
56cda10262d2951400fa6793
Koji Kondo
84
False
Who worked adapting the score for performance by an orchestra?
56cda10262d2951400fa6794
Michiru Ōshima
396
False
Who wrote the music used in the game's trailer and demo?
56cda10262d2951400fa6795
Koji Kondo
84
False
Who created orchestral arrangements for the game?
56d131c217492d1400aabbdb
Michiru Ōshima
396
False
Who was to conduct the ensemble that would perform the pieces?
56d131c217492d1400aabbdc
Yasuzo Takemoto
521
False
Toru Minegishi and Asuka Ohta
33
Who wrote the music for Twilight Kondo?
5a8db41fdf8bba001a0f9b83
True
Koji Kondo
84
Who was in charge of overseeing trailer production?
5a8db41fdf8bba001a0f9b84
True
Michiru Ōshima
396
Who worked adapting the score for performance by the game's title screen?
5a8db41fdf8bba001a0f9b85
True
Koji Kondo
84
Who wrote the music used in the games trailer and title screen?
5a8db41fdf8bba001a0f9b86
True
Yasuzo Takemoto
521
Who was to conduct the ensemble that would supervise the title screen?
5a8db41fdf8bba001a0f9b87
True
The game's score was composed by Toru Minegishi and Asuka Ohta, with series regular Koji Kondo serving as the sound supervisor. Minegishi took charge of composition and sound design in Twilight Princess, providing all field and dungeon music under the supervision of Kondo. For the trailers, three pieces were written by different composers, two of which were created by Mahito Yokota and Kondo. Michiru Ōshima created orchestral arrangements for the three compositions, later to be performed by an ensemble conducted by Yasuzo Takemoto. Kondo's piece was later chosen as music for the E3 2005 trailer and for the demo movie after the game's title screen.
What kind of instruments are favored by Kondo?
56cda41362d2951400fa679a
live
167
False
How many people would be in the orchestra Kondo imagined using for the soundtrack?
56cda41362d2951400fa679b
50
217
False
When was the soundtrack of Twilight Princess made available?
56cda41362d2951400fa679c
November 19, 2006
561
False
Which publication was associated with the soundtrack release?
56cda41362d2951400fa679e
Nintendo Power
593
False
Who made the requests for Kondo to use orchestral music throughout the game?
56d1324717492d1400aabbfa
Media
0
False
When were track versions of the game's sountrack released?
56d1324717492d1400aabbfb
November 19, 2006
561
False
What were replicas of the Master Sword and Hylian Shield bundled with?
56d1324717492d1400aabbfc
soundtrack
533
False
live
167
What kind of instruments are favored by Hylian?
5a8db51fdf8bba001a0f9b8d
True
50
217
How many people would be in the orchestra Hylian imagined using for the soundtrack?
5a8db51fdf8bba001a0f9b8e
True
November 19, 2006
561
When was the soundtrack of Hylian made available?
5a8db51fdf8bba001a0f9b8f
True
Nintendo Power
593
Which publication was associated with the media requests?
5a8db51fdf8bba001a0f9b90
True
soundtrack
533
What were replicas of the media requests bundled with?
5a8db51fdf8bba001a0f9b91
True
Media requests at the trade show prompted Kondo to consider using orchestral music for the other tracks in the game as well, a notion reinforced by his preference for live instruments. He originally envisioned a full 50-person orchestra for action sequences and a string quartet for more "lyrical moments", though the final product used sequenced music instead. Kondo later cited the lack of interactivity that comes with orchestral music as one of the main reasons for the decision. Both six- and seven-track versions of the game's soundtrack were released on November 19, 2006, as part of a Nintendo Power promotion and bundled with replicas of the Master Sword and the Hylian Shield.
What kind of error was found in Twilight Princess for Wii?
56cda4aa62d2951400fa67a4
buffer overflow vulnerability
29
False
What does ELF stand for?
56cda4aa62d2951400fa67a6
Executable and Linkable Format
335
False
Which issue of the Wii Menu fixed the issue with Twilight Princess?
56cda4aa62d2951400fa67a7
4.0
562
False
What was the name of the hack discovered?
56d132b717492d1400aabc08
Twilight Hack
125
False
What versions of the Wii Menu prevented copying the exploited files?
56d132b717492d1400aabc09
3.3 and 3.4
421
False
What version of the Wii patched the hack vulnerability?
56d132b717492d1400aabc0a
4.0
562
False
buffer overflow vulnerability
29
What kind of error was found in Twilight Princess for SD?
5a8db6e3df8bba001a0f9b97
True
Executable and Linkable Format
335
What does Wii mean?
5a8db6e3df8bba001a0f9b98
True
4.0
562
Which issue of the Wii Menu fixed the issue with the Wii Menu?
5a8db6e3df8bba001a0f9b99
True
Twilight Hack
125
What was the name of the console discovered?
5a8db6e3df8bba001a0f9b9a
True
4.0
562
What version of ELF patched the hack vulnerability?
5a8db6e3df8bba001a0f9b9b
True
Following the discovery of a buffer overflow vulnerability in the Wii version of Twilight Princess, an exploit known as the "Twilight Hack" was developed, allowing the execution of custom code from a Secure Digital (SD) card on the console. A properly designed save file would cause the game to load unsigned code, which could include Executable and Linkable Format (ELF) programs and homebrew Wii applications. Versions 3.3 and 3.4 of the Wii Menu prevented copying exploited save files onto the console until circumvention methods were discovered, and version 4.0 of the Wii Menu patched the vulnerability.
Which company is responsible for the HD version of Twilight Princess?
56cda50b62d2951400fa67ac
Tantalus Media
105
False
For which console is Twilight Princess HD being made?
56cda50b62d2951400fa67ad
Wii U
128
False
When were plans for Twilight Princess HD revealed?
56cda50b62d2951400fa67ae
November 12, 2015
197
False
On what date is Twilight Princess HD scheduled for Australian release?
56cda50b62d2951400fa67af
March 5, 2016
360
False
What is the name of the remastered game?
56d1335f17492d1400aabc14
The Legend of Zelda: Twilight Princess HD
40
False
What company is developing the remaster?
56d1335f17492d1400aabc15
Tantalus Media
105
False
What kind of functionality will the remaster feature?
56d1335f17492d1400aabc16
Amiibo
250
False
When will the game be released in America?
56d1335f17492d1400aabc17
March 4, 2016
329
False
Tantalus Media
105
Which company is responsible for the HD version of Nintendo Direct?
5a8db847df8bba001a0f9ba1
True
Wii U
128
For which console is Nintendo Direct being made?
5a8db847df8bba001a0f9ba2
True
March 5, 2016
360
On what date is Nintendo Direct scheduled for European release?
5a8db847df8bba001a0f9ba3
True
November 12, 2015
197
When were plans for Nintendo Direct revealed?
5a8db847df8bba001a0f9ba4
True
The Legend of Zelda: Twilight Princess HD
40
What is the name of the remastered Amiibo?
5a8db847df8bba001a0f9ba5
True
A high-definition remaster of the game, The Legend of Zelda: Twilight Princess HD, is being developed by Tantalus Media for the Wii U. Officially announced during a Nintendo Direct presentation on November 12, 2015, it features enhanced graphics and Amiibo functionality. The game will be released in North America and Europe on March 4, 2016; in Australia on March 5, 2016; and in Japan on March 10, 2016.
What special item is included with certain versions of Twilight Princess HD?
56cda5a862d2951400fa67b4
Wolf Link Amiibo figurine
38
False
Which two Amiibo figures reload Link's stock of arrows?
56cda5a862d2951400fa67b5
Link and Toon Link
253
False
Which two Amiibo figures heal Link?
56cda5a862d2951400fa67b6
Zelda and Sheik
290
False
Which Amiibo figure makes Link lose more health when attacked?
56cda5a862d2951400fa67b7
Ganondorf
333
False
What is the name of the area that players with the Wolf Link Amiibo can access?
56cda5a862d2951400fa67b8
Cave of Shadows
117
False
What will special bundles of the game contain?
56d133d017492d1400aabc20
Wolf Link Amiibo
38
False
What is the level called that the special Amiibo will unlock?
56d133d017492d1400aabc21
Cave of Shadows
117
False
What characters will be able to replenish arrows?
56d133d017492d1400aabc22
Link and Toon
253
False
What figures restore health?
56d133d017492d1400aabc23
Zelda and Sheik
290
False
Wolf Link Amiibo figurine
38
What special item is included with certain versions of Sheik?
5a8db90bdf8bba001a0f9bab
True
Link and Toon Link
253
Which two Amiibo figures reload Zelda's stock of arrows?
5a8db90bdf8bba001a0f9bac
True
Zelda and Sheik
290
Which two Amiibo figures heal Zelda?
5a8db90bdf8bba001a0f9bad
True
Ganondorf
333
Which Amiibo figure makes Zelda loser more health when attacked?
5a8db90bdf8bba001a0f9bae
True
Cave of Shadows
117
What is the name of the area that players with the Sheik can access?
5a8db90bdf8bba001a0f9baf
True
Special bundles of the game contain a Wolf Link Amiibo figurine, which unlocks a Wii U-exclusive dungeon called the "Cave of Shadows" and can carry data over to the upcoming 2016 Zelda game. Other Zelda-related Amiibo figurines have distinct functions: Link and Toon Link replenish arrows, Zelda and Sheik restore Link's health, and Ganondorf causes Link to take twice as much damage.
What company included the soundtrack as a reward for ordering the game prior to release?
56cda64a62d2951400fa67be
GameStop
71
False
How many tracks were recorded on the preorder CD?
56cda64a62d2951400fa67bf
20
16
False
In what areas is the content of the GameStop bonus CD provided for all versions of the game?
56cda64a62d2951400fa67c0
Japan, Europe, and Australia
150
False
What was included as a Gamestop preorder item?
56d13400e7d4791d00901fdd
CD
2
False
GameStop
71
What company included the soundtrack as a reward for ordering the CD prior to release?
5a8dbd49df8bba001a0f9bb5
True
20
16
How many tracks were recorded on the post order CD?
5a8dbd49df8bba001a0f9bb6
True
Japan, Europe, and Australia
150
In what areas is the content of the GameStop bonus SC provided for all versions of the CD?
5a8dbd49df8bba001a0f9bb7
True
CD
2
What was included as a Gamestop post order item?
5a8dbd49df8bba001a0f9bb8
True
CD
2
What is included in all selections?
5a8dbd49df8bba001a0f9bb9
True
A CD containing 20 musical selections from the game was available as a GameStop preorder bonus in the United States; it is included in all bundles in Japan, Europe, and Australia.[citation needed]
What kind of scores did Twilight Princess receive from many video game review sources?
56cda75062d2951400fa67c4
perfect
97
False
Which sites gave the Wii copy of Twilight Princess scores of 95% and 95?
56cda75062d2951400fa67c5
GameRankings and Metacritic
272
False
Who counted the game among the best ever made?
56cda75062d2951400fa67c6
GameTrailers
423
False
What was the reception of Twilight Princess?
56d13482e7d4791d00901fef
universal critical acclaim
34
False
What scores did it receive from major game publications?
56d13482e7d4791d00901ff0
perfect
97
False
What is the average score of Twilight Princess on Metacritic?
56d13482e7d4791d00901ff1
95
341
False
What reviewer called Twilight Princess "One of the greatest games ever created"?
56d13482e7d4791d00901ff2
GameTrailers
423
False
perfect
97
What kind of scores did GameTrailers receive from many video game review sources?
5a8dbfa2df8bba001a0f9bbf
True
GameRankings and Metacritic
272
Which sites gave the Wii copy of GameTrailers scores of 97% and 95?
5a8dbfa2df8bba001a0f9bc0
True
GameTrailers
423
Who counted Gamespy among the best ever made?
5a8dbfa2df8bba001a0f9bc1
True
universal critical acclaim
34
What was the reception of GameTrailers?
5a8dbfa2df8bba001a0f9bc2
True
perfect
97
What scores did GameTrailers receive from major game publications?
5a8dbfa2df8bba001a0f9bc3
True
Twilight Princess was released to universal critical acclaim and commercial success. It received perfect scores from major publications such as 1UP.com, Computer and Video Games, Electronic Gaming Monthly, Game Informer, GamesRadar, and GameSpy. On the review aggregators GameRankings and Metacritic, Twilight Princess has average scores of 95% and 95 for the Wii version and scores of 95% and 96 for the GameCube version. GameTrailers in their review called it one of the greatest games ever created.
Which publications reported some issues with the graphics of Twilight Princess?
56cda80362d2951400fa67ca
IGN and GameSpy
723
False
Which journalist criticized the Wii version for its controls?
56cda80362d2951400fa67cb
Jeff Gerstmann
1153
False
Which game publication does Jeff Gerstmann work for?
56cda80362d2951400fa67cc
GameSpot
1142
False
Which game journalist was perturbed by a lack of voiced dialogue?
56cda80362d2951400fa67cd
Javier Glickman
1532
False
Which publication does Javier Glickman write for?
56cda80362d2951400fa67ce
Hyper
1524
False
What 2 critics suggested the game had blurry textures and low resolution?
56d1352fe7d4791d00901ffd
IGN and GameSpy
723
False
What critic considered the CD to be the best of the generation?
56d1352fe7d4791d00901ffe
Gaming Nexus
1313
False
Who specifically commended the game for the very long quests?
56d1352fe7d4791d00901fff
Javier Glickman
1532
False
IGN and GameSpy
723
Which publications reported some issues with the graphics of Gerstmann?
5a8dc135df8bba001a0f9bc9
True
Javier Glickman
1532
Which journalist criticized IGN for its controls?
5a8dc135df8bba001a0f9bca
True
GameSpot
1142
Which publication does Jeff Nexus work for?
5a8dc135df8bba001a0f9bcb
True
Javier Glickman
1532
Which game journalist was preturbed by a lack of silent dialogue?
5a8dc135df8bba001a0f9bcc
True
Hyper
1524
Which publication does Javier Nexus write for?
5a8dc135df8bba001a0f9bcd
True
On release, Twilight Princess was considered to be the greatest Zelda game ever made by many critics including writers for 1UP.com, Computer and Video Games, Electronic Gaming Monthly, Game Informer, GamesRadar, IGN and The Washington Post. Game Informer called it "so creative that it rivals the best that Hollywood has to offer". GamesRadar praised Twilight Princess as "a game that deserves nothing but the absolute highest recommendation". Cubed3 hailed Twilight Princess as "the single greatest videogame experience". Twilight Princess's graphics were praised for the art style and animation, although the game was designed for the GameCube, which is technically lacking compared to the next generation consoles. Both IGN and GameSpy pointed out the existence of blurry textures and low-resolution characters. Despite these complaints, Computer and Video Games felt the game's atmosphere was superior to that of any previous Zelda game, and regarded Twilight Princess's Hyrule as the best version ever created. PALGN praised the game's cinematics, noting that "the cutscenes are the best ever in Zelda games". Regarding the Wii version, GameSpot's Jeff Gerstmann said the Wii controls felt "tacked-on", although 1UP.com said the remote-swinging sword attacks were "the most impressive in the entire series". Gaming Nexus considered Twilight Princess's soundtrack to be the best of this generation, though IGN criticized its MIDI-formatted songs for lacking "the punch and crispness" of their orchestrated counterparts. Hyper's Javier Glickman commended the game for its "very long quests, superb Wii controls and being able to save anytime". However, he criticised it for "no voice acting, no orchestral score and slightly outdated graphics".
The version of Twilight Princess fo which console won three IGN awards?
56cda8a662d2951400fa67d4
GameCube
124
False
What was Twilight Princess's rank among all Nintendo games according to Nintendo Magazine?
56cda8a662d2951400fa67d5
16th
660
False
Where did Twilight Princess place among Wii titles according to IGN?
56cda8a662d2951400fa67d6
4th
777
False
Where did Twilight Princess rank on Nintendo Power's list of Nintendo games in the 2000s?
56cda8a662d2951400fa67d7
third
834
False
What 2 critics gave Twilight Princess awards for Best Graphics and Best Story?
56d135e0e7d4791d00902015
IGN and Nintendo Power
147
False
What award did Game Critics Awards and GameSpy give Twilight Princess?
56d135e0e7d4791d00902016
Best Console Game
586
False
What place did the game take in Nintendo's Official list of 100 Greatest Nintendo Games of All Time?
56d135e0e7d4791d00902017
16th
660
False
What place did IGN give the game on the Wii console?
56d135e0e7d4791d00902018
4th
777
False
16th
660
What was Game Radar's rank among all Nintendo games according to Nintendo Magazine?
5a8dc231df8bba001a0f9bd3
True
4th
777
Where did Twilight Princess place among Nintendo Power titles according to IGN?
5a8dc231df8bba001a0f9bd4
True
third
834
Where did Twilight Princess rank on Game Radar's list of Nintendo games in the 2000s?
5a8dc231df8bba001a0f9bd5
True
IGN and Nintendo Power
147
What 2 critics gave Game Radar awards for Best Graphics and Best Story?
5a8dc231df8bba001a0f9bd6
True
Best Console Game
586
What award did Game Radars Awards and GameSpy give Twilight Princess?
5a8dc231df8bba001a0f9bd7
True
Twilight Princess received the awards for Best Artistic Design, Best Original Score, and Best Use of Sound from IGN for its GameCube version. Both IGN and Nintendo Power gave Twilight Princess the awards for Best Graphics and Best Story. Twilight Princess received Game of the Year awards from GameTrailers, 1UP.com, Electronic Gaming Monthly, Game Informer, Games Radar, GameSpy, Spacey Awards, X-Play and Nintendo Power. It was also given awards for Best Adventure Game from the Game Critics Awards, X-Play, IGN, GameTrailers, 1UP.com, and Nintendo Power. The game was considered the Best Console Game by the Game Critics Awards and GameSpy. The game placed 16th in Official Nintendo Magazine's list of the 100 Greatest Nintendo Games of All Time. IGN ranked the game as the 4th-best Wii game. Nintendo Power ranked the game as the third-best game to be released on a Nintendo system in the 2000s decade.
What is the name of the area which includes most countries not located in North, Central or South America?
56cda92362d2951400fa67dc
PAL
7
False
How many units of the Wii version of Twilight Princess had been purchased by the end of March 2011?
56cda92362d2951400fa67dd
5.82 million
239
False
How many units of the GameCube version of Twilight Princess had been purchased by the end of March 2007?
56cda92362d2951400fa67de
1.32 million
304
False
What region is Twilight Princess the best -selling Zelda entry?
56d13669e7d4791d0090201d
PAL region
7
False
How many copies of the game had been sold as of March 2011?
56d13669e7d4791d0090201f
5.82 million
239
False
How many copies of the game had been sold on Gamecube as of March 2007?
56d13669e7d4791d00902020
1.32 million
304
False
5.82 million
239
How many unites of the CameCube version of Twilight Princess had been purchased by the end of March 2011?
5a8dc34ddf8bba001a0f9bdd
True
1.32 million
304
How many units of the Wii version of Twilight Princess had been purchased by the end of March 2007?
5a8dc34ddf8bba001a0f9bde
True
PAL region
7
In what region is Twilight Princess the best-selling Wii entry?
5a8dc34ddf8bba001a0f9bdf
True
5.82 million
239
How many copies of PAL had been sold as of March 2011?
5a8dc34ddf8bba001a0f9be0
True
PAL
7
What is the name of the area which includes most countries located in North, Central, and South America?
5a8dc34ddf8bba001a0f9be1
True
In the PAL region, which covers most of Africa, Asia, Europe, and Oceania, Twilight Princess is the best-selling entry in the Zelda series. During its first week, the game was sold with three of every four Wii purchases. The game had sold 5.82 million copies on the Wii as of March 31, 2011[update], and 1.32 million on the GameCube as of March 31, 2007[update].
Who wrote and provided art for a Twilight Princess comic book series?
56cda9c462d2951400fa67e2
Akira Himekawa
85
False
The Twilight Princess manga was only available in what country?
56cda9c462d2951400fa67e3
Japan
2
False
Who published the Twilight Princess comic book series?
56cda9c462d2951400fa67e4
Shogakukan
186
False
What kind of device can access the Twilight Princess manga?
56cda9c462d2951400fa67e5
mobile
208
False
Akira Himekawa
85
Who wrote and provided high-definition for a Twilight Princess comic book series?
5a8dc46bdf8bba001a0f9be7
True
Japan
2
The Twilight Princess game was only available in what country?
5a8dc46bdf8bba001a0f9be8
True
Shogakukan
186
Who published the high-definition comic book series?
5a8dc46bdf8bba001a0f9be9
True
mobile
208
What kind of device can access the high-definition manga?
5a8dc46bdf8bba001a0f9bea
True
February 8, 2016
123
When was a high-definition manga based on Twilight Princess first released?
5a8dc46bdf8bba001a0f9beb
True
A Japan-exclusive manga series based on Twilight Princess, penned and illustrated by Akira Himekawa, was first released on February 8, 2016. The series is available solely via publisher Shogakukan's MangaOne mobile application. While the manga adaptation began almost ten years after the initial release of the game on which it is based, it launched only a month before the release of the high-definition remake.
Spectre_(2015_film)
Which company made Spectre?
56cdaf0362d2951400fa6808
Eon Productions
64
False
Who is the star of Spectre?
56cdaf0362d2951400fa6809
Daniel Craig
93
False
What role does Daniel Craig play in Spectre?
56cdaf0362d2951400fa680a
James Bond
36
False
What 007 movie did Sam Mendes previously direct?
56cdaf0362d2951400fa680b
Skyfall
333
False
How much money did it take to make Spectre?
56cdaf0362d2951400fa680c
$245
504
False
How many James Bond films has Eon Productions produced?
56cf2e15aab44d1400b88dc9
twenty-four
22
False
Which Bond film was the most expensive ever made?
56cf2e15aab44d1400b88dca
Spectre
0
False
How many films has Daniel Craig appeared in as James Bond?
56cf2e15aab44d1400b88dcb
four
29
False
Which two movie studios distributed the James Bond film Spectre?
56cf2e15aab44d1400b88dcc
Metro-Goldwyn-Mayer and Columbia Pictures
440
False
Who directed Spectre?
56cf2e15aab44d1400b88dcd
Sam Mendes
282
False
Spectre
0
What is the name of the thirty-fourth James Bond film?
5ad21ef0d7d075001a42849a
True
2015
9
In what year was the thirty-fourth James Bond film produced?
5ad21ef0d7d075001a42849b
True
Spectre
0
Daniel Craig stars as Ernst Stavro Blofeld in what 2015 film?
5ad21ef0d7d075001a42849c
True
Spectre
0
Sam Mendes wrote what 2015 film?
5ad21ef0d7d075001a42849d
True
Spectre
0
John Logan directed what 2015 film?
5ad21ef0d7d075001a42849e
True
Spectre (2015) is the twenty-fourth James Bond film produced by Eon Productions. It features Daniel Craig in his fourth performance as James Bond, and Christoph Waltz as Ernst Stavro Blofeld, with the film marking the character's re-introduction into the series. It was directed by Sam Mendes as his second James Bond film following Skyfall, and was written by John Logan, Neal Purvis, Robert Wade and Jez Butterworth. It is distributed by Metro-Goldwyn-Mayer and Columbia Pictures. With a budget around $245 million, it is the most expensive Bond film and one of the most expensive films ever made.
What group is the enemy of the protagonist?
56cdb27562d2951400fa6812
Spectre
68
False
Which movie was Spectre originally featured in?
56cdb27562d2951400fa6813
Diamonds Are Forever
154
False
Which three personalities from previous films appear in Spectre?
56cdb27562d2951400fa6814
M, Q and Eve Moneypenny
306
False
Which actor plays the role of Mr. Hinx?
56cdb27562d2951400fa6815
Dave Bautista
400
False
What role is performed by Monica Bellucci?
56cdb27562d2951400fa6816
Lucia Sciarra
478
False
Which recurring James Bond characters appear in Spectre?
56cf2f22aab44d1400b88dd4
M, Q and Eve Moneypenny
306
False
What actress portrays Dr. Madeleine Swann in Spectre?
56cf2f22aab44d1400b88dd5
Léa Seydoux
364
False
What actor portrays Mr. Hinx in Spectre?
56cf2f22aab44d1400b88dd6
Dave Bautista
400
False
When was Diamonds are Forever released?
56cf2f22aab44d1400b88dd7
1971
147
False
Bond
15
Spectre is pitted against which global crime organization?
5ad21fd7d7d075001a4284b4
True
1971
147
Diamonds Aren't Forever was released in what year?
5ad21fd7d7d075001a4284b5
True
Spectre
68
M, Q, and Eva Moneypenny return in what 2015 film?
5ad21fd7d7d075001a4284b6
True
Spectre
68
Dave Bautista portrays Max Denbigh in which James Bond film?
5ad21fd7d7d075001a4284b7
True
Spectre
68
Andrew Scott portrays Mr. Hinx in which James Bond film?
5ad21fd7d7d075001a4284b8
True
The story sees Bond pitted against the global criminal organisation Spectre, marking the group's first appearance in an Eon Productions film since 1971's Diamonds Are Forever,[N 2] and tying Craig's series of films together with an overarching storyline. Several recurring James Bond characters, including M, Q and Eve Moneypenny return, with the new additions of Léa Seydoux as Dr. Madeleine Swann, Dave Bautista as Mr. Hinx, Andrew Scott as Max Denbigh and Monica Bellucci as Lucia Sciarra.
On what date was Spectre first shown in the UK?
56cdb36c62d2951400fa681c
26 October 2015
24
False
Where was the first screening of Spectre?
56cdb36c62d2951400fa681d
Royal Albert Hall in London
109
False
What was the US release date for Spectre?
56cdb36c62d2951400fa681e
6 November 2015
211
False
What were two subjects of accolades for Spectre?
56cdb36c62d2951400fa681f
action sequences and cinematography
521
False
For what category did Spectre receive a Golden Globe award?
56cdb36c62d2951400fa6820
Best Original Song
710
False
What was the first James Bond film to be screened at IMAX theaters?
56cf306caab44d1400b88df0
Skyfall
301
False
What was the theme song for the James Bond film Spectre?
56cf306caab44d1400b88df1
Writing's on the Wall
575
False
Spectre
0
What James Bond movie was released on 16 October 2015?
5ad220dcd7d075001a4284c8
True
Spectre
0
What James Bond movie was released on 26 October 2015 in the US?
5ad220dcd7d075001a4284c9
True
Spectre
0
Which 2015 James Bond film received overwhelmingly positive reviews?
5ad220dcd7d075001a4284ca
True
Best Original Song
710
Spectre won an Academy Award in which category?
5ad220dcd7d075001a4284cb
True
Spectre
0
What James Bond movie was released on 6 November 2015 in the UK?
5ad220dcd7d075001a4284cc
True
Spectre was released on 26 October 2015 in the United Kingdom on the same night as the world premiere at the Royal Albert Hall in London, followed by a worldwide release. It was released in the United States on 6 November 2015. It became the second James Bond film to be screened in IMAX venues after Skyfall, although it was not filmed with IMAX cameras. Spectre received mixed reviews upon its release; although criticised for its length, lack of screen time for new characters, and writing, it received praise for its action sequences and cinematography. The theme song, "Writing's on the Wall", received mixed reviews, particularly compared to the previous theme; nevertheless, it won the Golden Globe for Best Original Song and was nominated for the Academy Award in the same category. As of 20 February 2016[update], Spectre has grossed over $879 million worldwide.
On what holiday do insurgents plan to detonate a bomb?
56cdcf7d62d2951400fa686c
Day of the Dead
209
False
Who removed James Bond from active service?
56cdcf7d62d2951400fa686d
M
18
False
Who is M's rival?
56cdcf7d62d2951400fa686e
C
67
False
What group does C support England joining?
56cdcf7d62d2951400fa6870
Nine Eyes
743
False
Which character is promoted to M?
56cf318aaab44d1400b88dff
Garreth Mallory
10
False
Which holiday was the terrorist bombing planned for?
56cf318aaab44d1400b88e00
Day of the Dead
209
False
Which two intelligence groups merged to form Joint Intelligence Service?
56cf318aaab44d1400b88e01
MI5 and MI6
669
False
What does Bond take from Marco Sciarra?
56cf318aaab44d1400b88e03
his ring
333
False
Mexico
60
007 James Bond kills four men in a mission in which city?
5ad222fbd7d075001a4284fa
True
Marco Sciarra
244
Bond steals which assassin's necklace?
5ad222fbd7d075001a4284fb
True
octopus
379
Marco Scciarra's necklace has what animal on it?
5ad222fbd7d075001a4284fc
True
Bond
473
Q suspends whom from field duty?
5ad222fbd7d075001a4284fd
True
Joint Intelligence Service
607
What consists of the recently merged MI55 and MI66?
5ad222fbd7d075001a4284fe
True
Following Garreth Mallory's promotion to M, on a mission in Mexico City unofficially ordered by a posthumous message from the previous M, 007 James Bond kills three men plotting a terrorist bombing during the Day of the Dead and gives chase to Marco Sciarra, an assassin who survived the attack. In the ensuing struggle, Bond steals his ring, which is emblazoned with a stylised octopus, and then kills Sciarra by kicking him out of a helicopter. Upon returning to London, Bond is indefinitely suspended from field duty by M, who is in the midst of a power struggle with C, the head of the privately-backed Joint Intelligence Service, consisting of the recently merged MI5 and MI6. C campaigns for Britain to form alongside 8 other countries "Nine Eyes ", a global surveillance and intelligence co-operation initiative between nine member states, and uses his influence to close down the '00' section, believing it to be outdated.
Where does Bond go after his suspension?
56cdcfee62d2951400fa6876
Rome
39
False
What group did Sciarra belong to?
56cdcfee62d2951400fa6877
Spectre
139
False
Who is the head of Spectre?
56cdcfee62d2951400fa6878
Franz Oberhauser
271
False
What is Mr. Hinx's job?
56cdcfee62d2951400fa6879
assassin
378
False
Who performs research for Bond?
56cdcfee62d2951400fa687a
Moneypenny
388
False
Where does Sciarra's funeral take place?
56cf33afaab44d1400b88e25
Rome
39
False
Who is the leader of Spectre?
56cf33afaab44d1400b88e27
Franz Oberhauser
271
False
What is the name of the Spectre assassin who tracks Bond?
56cf33afaab44d1400b88e28
Mr. Hinx
358
False
Which member of Spectre had been presumed to be dead?
56cf33afaab44d1400b88e29
Franz Oberhauser
271
False
Bond
0
Who disobeys Q's orders and travels to Rome?
5ad22377d7d075001a42850e
True
Lucia
112
Whose wife belonged to a criminal organization?
5ad22377d7d075001a42850f
True
Bond
315
Who is pursued by Mr. Oberhauser, a Spectre assasin?
5ad22377d7d075001a428510
True
Mr. White
455
Who is a current member of Quantum?
5ad22377d7d075001a428511
True
Bond disobeys M's order and travels to Rome to attend Sciarra's funeral. That evening he visits Sciarra's widow Lucia, who tells him about Spectre, a criminal organisation to which her husband belonged. Bond infiltrates a Spectre meeting, where he identifies the leader, Franz Oberhauser. When Oberhauser addresses Bond by name, he escapes and is pursued by Mr. Hinx, a Spectre assassin. Moneypenny informs Bond that the information he collected leads to Mr. White, former member of Quantum, a subsidiary of Spectre. Bond asks her to investigate Oberhauser, who was presumed dead years earlier.
What is White suffering from when Bond finds him?
56cdd05a62d2951400fa688a
thallium poisoning
55
False
Who is White's daughter?
56cdd05a62d2951400fa688b
Dr. Madeline Swann
171
False
How does White deal with his condition?
56cdd05a62d2951400fa688c
commits suicide
275
False
Where does JAmes find Dr. Swann?
56cdd05a62d2951400fa688d
Hoffler Klinik
318
False
Where is L'Americain located?
56cdd05a62d2951400fa688e
Tangier
599
False
What is Mr. White dying of?
56cf34b0aab44d1400b88e3f
thallium poisoning.
55
False
Who does Mr. White ask James Bond to protect?
56cf34b0aab44d1400b88e40
his daughter, Dr. Madeline Swann
157
False
Where is the L'Americain hotel?
56cf34b0aab44d1400b88e41
Tangier.
599
False
Who kidnaps Dr. Swann?
56cf34b0aab44d1400b88e42
Hinx.
357
False
Bond
0
Who travels to Australia to find Mr. White?
5ad2240ed7d075001a428516
True
White
32
Who is dying of potassium poisoning?
5ad2240ed7d075001a428517
True
White
32
Who wants his son protected?
5ad2240ed7d075001a428518
True
White
32
Whose son is abducted by Hinx?
5ad2240ed7d075001a428519
True
Bond travels to Austria to find White, who is dying of thallium poisoning. He admits to growing disenchanted with Quantum and tells Bond to find and protect his daughter, Dr. Madeline Swann, who will take him to L'Américain; this will in turn lead him to Spectre. White then commits suicide. Bond locates Swann at the Hoffler Klinik, but she is abducted by Hinx. Bond rescues her and the two meet Q, who discovers that Sciarra's ring links Oberhauser to Bond's previous missions, identifying Le Chiffre, Dominic Greene and Raoul Silva as Spectre agents. Swann reveals that L'Américain is a hotel in Tangier.
What method of transportation is used to get to Oberhauser's base?
56cdd17262d2951400fa68a8
train
161
False
Who is the link between Oberhauser and Bond?
56cdd17262d2951400fa68aa
Hannes
778
False
What did Oberhauser call himself after he faked his death?
56cdd17262d2951400fa68ab
Ernst Stavro Blofeld
951
False
After staging his own death, what name did Hanz Oberhauser begin to use?
56cf35f7aab44d1400b88e5d
Ernst Stavro Blofeld
951
False
Oberhauser
677
Who has an operations base in the forest?
5ad224b1d7d075001a428528
True
Spectre
463
Who has been creating a need for the Ten Eyes programme?
5ad224b1d7d075001a428529
True
Spectre
579
Who will be given unlimited access to intelligence gathered by Ten Eyes?
5ad224b1d7d075001a42852a
True
Oberhauser
677
Swann is tortured as who discusses their shared history?
5ad224b1d7d075001a42852b
True
Bond
832
Oberhauser killed whose mother?
5ad224b1d7d075001a42852c
True
The two travel to the hotel and discover White's secret room where they find co-ordinates pointing to Oberhauser's operations base in the desert. They travel by train to the nearest station, but are once again confronted by Hinx; they engage in a fight throughout the train in which Mr Hinx is eventually thrown off the train by Bond with Swann's assistance. After arriving at the station, Bond and Swann are escorted to Oberhauser's base. There, he reveals that Spectre has been staging terrorist attacks around the world, creating a need for the Nine Eyes programme. In return Spectre will be given unlimited access to intelligence gathered by Nine Eyes. Bond is tortured as Oberhauser discusses their shared history: after the younger Bond was orphaned, Oberhauser's father, Hannes, became his temporary guardian. Believing that Bond supplanted his role as son, Oberhauser killed his father and staged his own death, subsequently adopting the name Ernst Stavro Blofeld and going on to form Spectre. Bond and Swann escape, destroying the base in the process, leaving Blofeld to apparently die during the explosion.
Where is Bond brought after he is kidnapped?
56cdd28562d2951400fa68ba
the old MI6 building
524
False
Who does Bond meet in the MI6 building?
56cdd28562d2951400fa68bb
Blofeld
667
False
Where does Blofeld get arrested?
56cdd28562d2951400fa68bc
Westminster Bridge
929
False
Who does M fight with?
56cdd28562d2951400fa68bd
C
105
False
Who prevents Nine Eyes from going online?
56cf3727aab44d1400b88e79
Q
64
False
Which characters falls to their death, M or C?
56cf3727aab44d1400b88e7a
C
105
False
Bond
0
Who intends to stop Ten Eyes from going online?
5ad22547d7d075001a428532
True
Swann
145
Who wants to have espionage in their life?
5ad22547d7d075001a428533
True
Q
362
Who prevents Ten Eyes from going online?
5ad22547d7d075001a428534
True
Bond
507
Who is taken to the old MI66 building?
5ad22547d7d075001a428535
True
Blofeld
667
Who tells Bond he has five minutes to escape the building?
5ad22547d7d075001a428536
True
Bond and Swann return to London where they meet M, Bill Tanner, Q, and Moneypenny; they intend to arrest C and stop Nine Eyes from going online. Swann leaves Bond, telling him she cannot be part of a life involving espionage, and is subsequently kidnapped. On the way, the group is ambushed and Bond is kidnapped, but the rest still proceed with the plan. After Q succeeds in preventing the Nine Eyes from going online, a brief struggle between M and C ends with the latter falling to his death. Meanwhile, Bond is taken to the old MI6 building, which is scheduled for demolition, and frees himself. Moving throughout the ruined labyrinth, he encounters a disfigured Blofeld, who tells him that he has three minutes to escape the building before explosives are detonated or die trying to save Swann. Bond finds Swann and the two escape by boat as the building collapses. Bond shoots down Blofeld's helicopter, which crashes onto Westminster Bridge. As Blofeld crawls away from the wreckage, Bond confronts him but ultimately leaves him to be arrested by M. Bond leaves the bridge with Swann.
What did SPECTRE originally stand for?
56cdd33262d2951400fa68c2
SPecial Executive for Counter-intelligence, Terrorism, Revenge and Extortion
89
False
Who fought over the movie rights for Thunderball?
56cdd33262d2951400fa68c3
Ian Fleming and Kevin McClory
262
False
In what year did McClory and Fleming reach an agreement?
56cdd33262d2951400fa68c4
1963
615
False
Which movie was a modern version of Thunderball?
56cdd33262d2951400fa68c5
Never Say Never Again
874
False
What was the name of a proposed remake of Thunderball that was never made?
56cdd33362d2951400fa68c6
Warhead 2000 A.D.
971
False
In what year did Fleming settle with McClory?
56cf38a9aab44d1400b88e97
1963
615
False
What was the name of the remake of Thunderball?
56cf38a9aab44d1400b88e99
Never Say Never Again
874
False
Which Bond novel first featured Spectre?
56cf38a9aab44d1400b88e9a
Thunderball.
326
False
Spectre
21
What organization has faced litigation issues since 1981?
5ad227efd7d075001a428550
True
Fleming
363
Who incorporated elements of an undeveloped film script written by Saltzman into Thuderball?
5ad227efd7d075001a428551
True
McClory
694
Who became a producer on the 1985 film Thunderball?
5ad227efd7d075001a428552
True
Warhead 2000 A.D.
971
What was planned for release in the 1980s but then abandoned?
5ad227efd7d075001a428553
True
The ownership of the Spectre organisation—originally stylised "SPECTRE" as an acronym of SPecial Executive for Counter-intelligence, Terrorism, Revenge and Extortion—and its characters, had been at the centre of long-standing litigation starting in 1961 between Ian Fleming and Kevin McClory over the film rights to the novel Thunderball. The dispute began after Fleming incorporated elements of an undeveloped film script written by McClory and screenwriter Jack Whittingham—including characters and plot points—into Thunderball, which McClory contested in court, claiming ownership over elements of the novel. In 1963, Fleming settled out of court with McClory, in an agreement which awarded McClory the film rights. This enabled him to become a producer for the 1965 film Thunderball—with Albert R. Broccoli and Harry Saltzman as executive producers—and the non-Eon film Never Say Never Again, an updated remake of Thunderball, in 1983.[N 3] A second remake, entitled Warhead 2000 A.D., was planned for production and release in the 1990s before being abandoned. Under the terms of the 1963 settlement, the literary rights stayed with Fleming, allowing the Spectre organisation and associated characters to continue appearing in print.
Who ended up with ownership of Spectre?
56cdd83862d2951400fa68e0
MGM
17
False
What was Spectre's original name?
56cdd83862d2951400fa68e1
SPECTRE
354
False
Which company is Danjaq, LLC associated with?
56cdd83862d2951400fa68e2
Eon Productions
106
False
In what year were rights to Spectre worked out?
56cdd83862d2951400fa68e3
2013
12
False
Which film studio won the full copyright film rights to Spectre?
56cf39c4aab44d1400b88eba
MGM
17
False
How was the Spectre acronym originally written?
56cf39c4aab44d1400b88ebb
Spectre
190
False
What is the name of the LLC sister company of Eon Productions?
56cf39c4aab44d1400b88ebc
Danjaq
76
False
MGM and the McClory estate
17
Which two parties settled the issue in November 2003?
5ad22870d7d075001a428558
True
MGM
127
Who got partial film rights to Spectre?
5ad22870d7d075001a428559
True
Danjaq, LLC
76
The McClintock estate settled the issue with whom?
5ad22870d7d075001a42855a
True
Danjaq, LLC
76
Who is a brother company to Eon Productions?
5ad22870d7d075001a42855b
True
In November 2013 MGM and the McClory estate formally settled the issue with Danjaq, LLC—sister company of Eon Productions—with MGM acquiring the full copyright film rights to the concept of Spectre and all of the characters associated with it. With the acquisition of the film rights and the organisation's re-introduction to the series' continuity, the SPECTRE acronym was discarded and the organisation reimagined as "Spectre".
What company was targeted by leaks of company information?
56cdd8ba62d2951400fa68e8
Sony Pictures Entertainment
18
False
Who was responsible for leaks of Sony movie projects?
56cdd8ba62d2951400fa68e9
hackers
62
False
Which film writer's work was included in leaks of Spectre information?
56cdd8ba62d2951400fa68ea
John Logan
353
False
Which company verified contents of the leaked information?
56cdd8ba62d2951400fa68eb
Eon Productions
417
False
When did hackers get into the Sony Pictures e-mail system?
56cf3cd2aab44d1400b88ec8
November 2014
3
False
Who wrote the early drafts of the script for Spectre?
56cf3cd2aab44d1400b88ec9
John Logan
353
False
What company confirmed that an early version of the Spectre script had been leaked?
56cf3cd2aab44d1400b88ecb
Eon Productions
417
False
Sony Pictures Entertainment
18
Which company was targeted by hackers in November 2004?
5ad228d2d7d075001a428574
True
hackers
62
Who released details of confidential email between ABC executives?
5ad228d2d7d075001a428575
True
Spectre
256
What film was under budget?
5ad228d2d7d075001a428576
True
Sony
18
Who was not frustrated with the Spectre project?
5ad228d2d7d075001a428577
True
In November 2014, Sony Pictures Entertainment was targeted by hackers who released details of confidential e-mails between Sony executives regarding several high-profile film projects. Included within these were several memos relating to the production of Spectre, claiming that the film was over budget, detailing early drafts of the script written by John Logan, and expressing Sony's frustration with the project. Eon Productions later issued a statement confirming the leak of what they called "an early version of the screenplay".
Which actor portrayed Franz Oberhauser?
56cdd97f62d2951400fa68f0
Christoph Waltz
142
False
In what year was Hannes Oberhauser identified as a guardian of James Bond?
56cdd97f62d2951400fa68f1
1983
410
False
Who were the writers of Spectre?
56cdd97f62d2951400fa68f2
Neal Purvis and Robert Wade
627
False
Which group in previous Bond films was changed to be a part of Spectre instead of its own entity?
56cdd97f62d2951400fa68f3
Quantum
757
False
What is the name of the short story in which Hannes Oberhauser appeared?
56cdd97f62d2951400fa68f4
Octopussy
253
False
Who was Bond's full time guardian?
56cf3e29aab44d1400b88ed0
Charmian Bond
427
False
In which Bond story did the name Oberhauser first appear?
56cf3e29aab44d1400b88ed1
Octopussy
253
False
What actor portrayed Franz Oberhauser?
56cf3e29aab44d1400b88ed2
Christoph Waltz.
142
False
In which movie was the Quantum organization first introduced?
56cf3e29aab44d1400b88ed3
Quantum of Solace
824
False
Quantum is a division of what other organization?
56cf3e29aab44d1400b88ed4
Spectre
33
False
Spectre
33
What was considered a copycat story?
5ad2299ed7d075001a42859a
True
Hannes Oberhauser
191
Who has permanent legal custody of Bond in 1983?
5ad2299ed7d075001a42859b
True
a minor retcon to the continuity of the previous films
692
Producer Neal Purvis revealed that the film would provide what?
5ad2299ed7d075001a42859c
True
the Quantum organisation
753
What is alluded to in Royale Casino?
5ad2299ed7d075001a42859d
True
Despite being an original story, Spectre draws on Ian Fleming's source material, most notably in the character of Franz Oberhauser, played by Christoph Waltz. Oberhauser shares his name with Hannes Oberhauser, a background character in the short story "Octopussy" from the Octopussy and The Living Daylights collection, and who is named in the film as having been a temporary legal guardian of a young Bond in 1983. Similarly, Charmian Bond is shown to have been his full-time guardian, observing the back story established by Fleming. With the acquisition of the rights to Spectre and its associated characters, screenwriters Neal Purvis and Robert Wade revealed that the film would provide a minor retcon to the continuity of the previous films, with the Quantum organisation alluded to in Casino Royale and introduced in Quantum of Solace reimagined as a division within Spectre rather than an independent organisation.
What is the name of a location in Spectre which draws its inspiration from an Ian Fleming short story?
56cdda0062d2951400fa68fa
Hildebrand Rarities and Antiques
103
False
Who wrote the book Colonel Sun?
56cdda0062d2951400fa68fb
Kingsley Amis
334
False
What short story inspired the name Hildebrand Rarities and Antiques?
56cdda0062d2951400fa68fc
The Hildebrand Rarity
170
False
"The Hildebrand Rarity"  is from what short story collection?
56cf3eabaab44d1400b88eda
For Your Eyes Only
202
False
Which character tortures Bond?
56cf3eabaab44d1400b88edb
Blofeld
280
False
What is the name of the MI6 safehouse?
56cf3eabaab44d1400b88edc
Hildebrand Rarities and Antiques
103
False
Hildebrand Rarities and Antiques
103
An MI66 safehouse is called what?
5ad22a18d7d075001a4285b6
True
Hildebrand Rarities and Antiques
103
What is a reference to the long story "The Hildebrand Rarity"?
5ad22a18d7d075001a4285b7
True
his torture by the title character of Kingsley Amis' continuation novel Colonel Sun
296
Blofeld's torture by Bond reflects what?
5ad22a18d7d075001a4285b8
True
Fleming's
22
References to whose material can not be found anywhere in the film?
5ad22a18d7d075001a4285b9
True
Further references to Fleming's material can be found throughout the film; an MI6 safehouse is called "Hildebrand Rarities and Antiques", a reference to the short story "The Hildebrand Rarity" from the For Your Eyes Only short story collection.[citation needed] Bond's torture by Blofeld mirrors his torture by the title character of Kingsley Amis' continuation novel Colonel Sun.[citation needed]
When were the actors in Spectre announced?
56cdda5762d2951400fa6900
December 2014
30
False
Which actor portrayed M?
56cdda5762d2951400fa6901
Ralph Fiennes
151
False
Which actress portrayed Eve Moneypenny?
56cdda5762d2951400fa6902
Naomie Harris
166
False
Which actor portrayed Q?
56cdda5762d2951400fa6903
Ben Whishaw
184
False
Which actor portrayed Bill Tanner?
56cdda5762d2951400fa6904
Rory Kinnear
294
False
How many times has Daniel Craig portrayed James Bond in films?
56cf4113aab44d1400b88ee0
four
112
False
Which actor portrays Bill Tanner?
56cf4113aab44d1400b88ee1
Rory Kinnear
294
False
Which three actors reprised supporting roles for Spectre?
56cf4113aab44d1400b88ee3
Ralph Fiennes, Naomie Harris and Ben Whishaw
151
False
main cast
4
What was revealed in December 2004?
5ad22ad5d7d075001a4285e4
True
007 Stage at Pinewood Studios
51
Where was the main cast revealed in December 2004?
5ad22ad5d7d075001a4285e5
True
Daniel Craig
82
Who returned for his eighth appearance as James Bond?
5ad22ad5d7d075001a4285e6
True
Fiennes
157
Ralph who reprised his role as Bill Tanner?
5ad22ad5d7d075001a4285e7
True
The main cast was revealed in December 2014 at the 007 Stage at Pinewood Studios. Daniel Craig returned for his fourth appearance as James Bond, while Ralph Fiennes, Naomie Harris and Ben Whishaw reprised their roles as M, Eve Moneypenny and Q respectively, having been established in Skyfall. Rory Kinnear also reprised his role as Bill Tanner in his third appearance in the series.
Who did Christoph Waltz portray in Spectre?
56cddc2a62d2951400fa690a
Franz Oberhauser
40
False
What is Franz Oberhauser's other name?
56cddc2a62d2951400fa690b
Ernst Stavro Blofeld
171
False
Who played Severine in the previous Bond film?
56cddc2a62d2951400fa690c
Bérénice Lim Marlohe
311
False
In what movie was Mr. White originally supposed to die?
56cddc2a62d2951400fa690d
Quantum of Solace
785
False
How old was Monica Bellucci when she filmed Spectre?
56cddc2a62d2951400fa690e
fifty
584
False
Which actress was cast in the role of Severine in Skyfall?
56cf44e7aab44d1400b88ee9
Bérénice Lim Marlohe
311
False
In what movie was it originally planned to kill the character Mr. White?
56cf44e7aab44d1400b88eeb
Quantum of Solace.
785
False
Christoph Waltz
0
Who commented on the nature of Franz Oberhauser?
5ad22b6bd7d075001a4285f6
True
Waltz
10
Christoph who was cast as Mr. Hinx?
5ad22b6bd7d075001a4285f7
True
Mendes
378
Who wanted an inexperienced actor for the role of Madeleine Swann?
5ad22b6bd7d075001a4285f8
True
Monica Bellucci
510
Who was the youngest actress to be a Bond girl?
5ad22b6bd7d075001a4285f9
True
Jesper Christensen
690
Who would not be reprising his role as Mr. White?
5ad22b6bd7d075001a4285fa
True
Christoph Waltz was cast in the role of Franz Oberhauser, though he refused to comment on the nature of the part. It was later revealed with the film's release that he is Ernst Stavro Blofeld. Dave Bautista was cast as Mr. Hinx after producers sought an actor with a background in contact sports. After casting Bérénice Lim Marlohe, a relative newcomer, as Sévérine in Skyfall, Mendes consciously sought out a more experienced actor for the role of Madeleine Swann, ultimately casting Léa Seydoux in the role. Monica Bellucci joined the cast as Lucia Sciarra, becoming, at the age of fifty, the oldest actress to be cast as a Bond girl. In a separate interview with Danish website Euroman, Jesper Christensen revealed he would be reprising his role as Mr. White from Casino Royale and Quantum of Solace. Christensen's character was reportedly killed off in a scene intended to be used as an epilogue to Quantum of Solace, before it was removed from the final cut of the film, enabling his return in Spectre.
How many actual people were used for the opening sequence of Spectre?
56cddcae62d2951400fa6914
fifteen hundred
209
False
Which actor portrayed Marco Sciarra?
56cddcae62d2951400fa6915
Alessandro Cremona
35
False
Estrella was played by which actress?
56cddcae62d2951400fa6916
Stephanie Sigman
81
False
When was the opening scene of Spectre filmed?
56cddcae62d2951400fa6917
February 2015
190
False
Where was the pre-title scene in Spectre filmed?
56cf45bcaab44d1400b88ef3
Mexico
277
False
In which country were the scenes with Detlef Bothe shot?
56cf45bcaab44d1400b88ef4
Austria.
178
False
Who was cast as Marco Sciarra?
56cf45bcaab44d1400b88ef5
Alessandro Cremona
35
False
What character did Stephanie Sigma portray?
56cf45bcaab44d1400b88ef6
Estrella
110
False
Cremona
46
Alessandro who was cast as Estrella?
5ad22be1d7d075001a428608
True
Detlef Bothe
124
Who was cast as a hero for scenes set in Austria?
5ad22be1d7d075001a428609
True
the pre-title sequence set in Mexico
247
Over one hundred extras were hired for what?
5ad22be1d7d075001a42860a
True
fifteen hundred
209
In February 2005, how many extras were hired for the pre-title sequence?
5ad22be1d7d075001a42860b
True
In addition to the principal cast, Alessandro Cremona was cast as Marco Sciarra, Stephanie Sigman was cast as Estrella, and Detlef Bothe was cast as a villain for scenes shot in Austria. In February 2015 over fifteen hundred extras were hired for the pre-title sequence set in Mexico, though they were duplicated in the film, giving the effect of around ten thousand extras.
Who was the last person to direct two James Bond movies in a row before Mendes?
56cddd4562d2951400fa691e
John Glen
363
False
Who served as production designer for Spectre?
56cddd4562d2951400fa691f
Dennis Gassner
676
False
Who did Hoyte van Hoytema replace as cinematographer?
56cddd4562d2951400fa6920
Roger Deakins
790
False
Which two consecutive Bond films did Mendes direct?
56cf469eaab44d1400b88efc
Skyfall and Spectre
265
False
Which film had a larger production staff, Spectre or Skyfall?
56cf469eaab44d1400b88efd
Spectre
277
False
Which Bond film is Daniel Craig listed as a co-producer?
56cf469eaab44d1400b88efe
Spectre
277
False
Who directed The Living Daylights and Licence to Kill?
56cf469eaab44d1400b88eff
John Glen
363
False
Neal Purvis and Robert Wade have worked on how many Bond films?
56cf469eaab44d1400b88f00
six
572
False
Mendes
14
Who said he would return to direct Bond 24 in March 2013?
5ad22c77d7d075001a428610
True
Mendes
14
Who did not find the long-term future of the franchise appealing?
5ad22c77d7d075001a428611
True
Mendes
286
Who became the first director to oversee three consecutive Bond films?
5ad22c77d7d075001a428612
True
Spectre
857
The combined crew of what movie numbered over three thousand?
5ad22c77d7d075001a428613
True
In March 2013 Mendes said he would not return to direct the next film in the series, then known as Bond 24; he later recanted and announced that he would return, as he found the script and the plans for the long-term future of the franchise appealing. In directing Skyfall and Spectre, Mendes became the first director to oversee two consecutive Bond films since John Glen directed The Living Daylights and Licence to Kill in 1987 and 1989. Skyfall writer John Logan resumed his role of scriptwriter, collaborating with Neal Purvis and Robert Wade, who returned for their sixth Bond film.[N 4] The writer Jez Butterworth also worked on the script, alongside Mendes and Craig. Dennis Gassner returned as the film's production designer, while cinematographer Hoyte van Hoytema took over from Roger Deakins. In July 2015 Mendes noted that the combined crew of Spectre numbered over one thousand, making it a larger production than Skyfall. Craig is listed as co-producer.
What were three sites used for filming Spectre?
56cdddb862d2951400fa6924
London, Mexico City and Rome
177
False
What kind of film was used to shoot the movie?
56cdddb862d2951400fa6925
Kodak 35 mm
236
False
Where did initial shoots for the film take place?
56cdddb862d2951400fa6926
Pinewood Studios
66
False
How long did it take to film Spectre?
56cf4745aab44d1400b88f0b
seven months.
104
False
What type of film was used?
56cf4745aab44d1400b88f0c
Kodak 35 mm film stock
236
False
In what film studio was some of the film shot?
56cf4745aab44d1400b88f0e
Pinewood Studios
66
False
production
21
What began at Pinewood Studios on 8 December 2004?
5ad22ce3d7d075001a428620
True
filming
89
What took eight months to complete?
5ad22ce3d7d075001a428621
True
Van Hoytema
207
Who shot the film on Kodak 45 mm film stock?
5ad22ce3d7d075001a428622
True
Pinewood
288
Later filming took place at which studio?
5ad22ce3d7d075001a428623
True
Mendes revealed that production would begin on 8 December 2014 at Pinewood Studios, with filming taking seven months. Mendes also confirmed several filming locations, including London, Mexico City and Rome. Van Hoytema shot the film on Kodak 35 mm film stock. Early filming took place at Pinewood Studios, and around London, with scenes variously featuring Craig and Harris at Bond's flat, and Craig and Kinnear travelling down the River Thames.
When did Spectre begin production in Austria?
56cde1d962d2951400fa6954
December 2014
30
False
When did the Austrian filming of Spectre finish?
56cde1d962d2951400fa6955
February 2015
256
False
What location was the focus of the Austrian leg of Spectre's production?
56cde1d962d2951400fa6956
Ice Q Restaurant
311
False
What part of his body did Craig injure?
56cde1d962d2951400fa6958
knee
600
False
What building was used in the film as the Hoffler Klinik?
56cf4815aab44d1400b88f1b
Ice Q Restaurant
311
False
Where was the Hoffler Klinik supposed to be located?
56cf4815aab44d1400b88f1c
Austrian Alps.
407
False
Near what glacier in Austria was filming done?
56cf4815aab44d1400b88f1e
Rettenbach glacier
129
False
December 2014
30
Filming started in Australia when?
5ad22d64d7d075001a42863c
True
Ice Q Restaurant
311
Scenes filmed in Australia centered on what?
5ad22d64d7d075001a42863d
True
Ice Q Restaurant
311
What stood in for the real Hoffler Klinik?
5ad22d64d7d075001a42863e
True
clinic
393
The fictional Hoffler Klinik is a public medical what?
5ad22d64d7d075001a42863f
True
Austrian Alps
407
Where is the real Hoffler Klinik located?
5ad22d64d7d075001a428640
True
Filming started in Austria in December 2014, with production taking in the area around Sölden—including the Ötztal Glacier Road, Rettenbach glacier and the adjacent ski resort and cable car station—and Obertilliach and Lake Altaussee, before concluding in February 2015. Scenes filmed in Austria centred on the Ice Q Restaurant, standing in for the fictional Hoffler Klinik, a private medical clinic in the Austrian Alps. Filming included an action scene featuring a Land Rover Defender Bigfoot and a Range Rover Sport. Production was temporarily halted first by an injury to Craig, who sprained his knee whilst shooting a fight scene, and later by an accident involving a filming vehicle that saw three crew members injured, at least one of them seriously.
What are two landmarks in Rome used in filming Spectre?
56cde39b62d2951400fa697c
Ponte Sisto bridge and the Roman Forum
234
False
Which group was responsible for the C-X75s featured in Spectre?
56cde39b62d2951400fa697e
Williams
1113
False
For which auto maker did Williams first develop the C-X75?
56cde39b62d2951400fa697f
Jaguar
644
False
How many engines did the C-X75 originally have?
56cde39b62d2951400fa6980
four
727
False
Where in England were scenes shot that represented a location in Rome?
56cf4925aab44d1400b88f38
Blenheim Palace in Oxfordshire
59
False
What bridge in Rome was a filming location?
56cf4925aab44d1400b88f39
the Ponte Sisto bridge
230
False
What two cars were featured in a chase scene along the banks of the Tiber River?
56cf4925aab44d1400b88f3a
Aston Martin DB10 and a Jaguar C-X75
620
False
Which Formula One racing team developed the C-X75's used for filming.
56cf4925aab44d1400b88f3b
Williams
1113
False
What company did the Williams Formula One team originally build the C-X75 prototype for?
56cf4925aab44d1400b88f3c
Jaguar.
1166
False
special interest
324
The production faced support from a variety of what groups?
5ad22fe9d7d075001a4286a4
True
city
352
The production faced support from a variety of what authorities?
5ad22fe9d7d075001a4286a5
True
Tiber
564
A car crash was set along which river?
5ad22fe9d7d075001a4286a6
True
Blenheim
59
What palace in France was used for filming?
5ad22fe9d7d075001a4286a7
True
Filming temporarily returned to England to shoot scenes at Blenheim Palace in Oxfordshire, which stood in for a location in Rome, before moving on to the city itself for a five-week shoot across the city, with locations including the Ponte Sisto bridge and the Roman Forum. The production faced opposition from a variety of special interest groups and city authorities, who were concerned about the potential for damage to historical sites around the city, and problems with graffiti and rubbish appearing in the film. A car chase scene set along the banks of the Tiber River and through the streets of Rome featured an Aston Martin DB10 and a Jaguar C-X75. The C-X75 was originally developed as a hybrid electric vehicle with four independent electric engines powered by two jet turbines, before the project was cancelled. The version used for filming was converted to use a conventional internal combustion engine, to minimise the potential for disruption from mechanical problems with the complex hybrid system. The C-X75s used for filming were developed by the engineering division of Formula One racing team Williams, who built the original C-X75 prototype for Jaguar.
Where did Spectre filming take place after Rome?
56cdf49362d2951400fa69c0
Mexico City
52
False
Which celebration was featured in the Mexico City part of the production?
56cdf49362d2951400fa69c1
Day of the Dead
143
False
Which areas were shown in the Day of the Dead scene in Spectre?
56cdf49362d2951400fa69c2
the Zócalo and the Centro Histórico district
189
False
How many additional actors were needed for the shoot in Mexico City?
56cdf49362d2951400fa69c3
1,500
544
False
Where were the scenes featuring planes shot?
56cdf49362d2951400fa69c4
Palenque
681
False
What festival was included in the scenes shot in Mexico?
56cf49ebaab44d1400b88f4c
the Day of the Dead festival
139
False
What type of helicopter was used for the flight scenes?
56cf49ebaab44d1400b88f4f
a Messerschmitt-Bölkow-Blohm Bo 105 helicopter
340
False
Where in Mexico were the Day of the Dead scenes shot?
56cf49ebaab44d1400b88f50
Zócalo and the Centro Histórico district
193
False
Mexico
52
Filming moved to which city in late May?
5ad2306ed7d075001a4286c8
True
Mexico
52
In which city was the film's closing sequence filmed?
5ad2306ed7d075001a4286c9
True
city square
267
What was closed in order to film a fight sequence using a boat?
5ad2306ed7d075001a4286ca
True
city
267
The scene in which square required about 2,500 extras?
5ad2306ed7d075001a4286cb
True
With filming completed in Rome, production moved to Mexico City in late March to shoot the film's opening sequence, with scenes to include the Day of the Dead festival filmed in and around the Zócalo and the Centro Histórico district. The planned scenes required the city square to be closed for filming a sequence involving a fight aboard a Messerschmitt-Bölkow-Blohm Bo 105 helicopter flown by stunt pilot Chuck Aaron, which called for modifications to be made to several buildings to prevent damage. This particular scene in Mexico required 1,500 extras, 10 giant skeletons and 250,000 paper flowers. Reports in the Mexican media added that the film's second unit would move to Palenque in the state of Chiapas, to film aerial manoeuvres considered too dangerous to shoot in an urban area.
Where did Craig go to deal with his injury?
56cdf52c62d2951400fa69ca
New York
78
False
When did Craig go back to work?
56cdf52c62d2951400fa69cb
22 April
247
False
In what city did Daniel Craig have minor surgery to repair his knee?
56cf4a71aab44d1400b88f5e
New York
78
False
Craig
59
Who was flown to New Mexico to undergo minor surgery?
5ad230ebd7d075001a4286ee
True
New York
78
Craig underwent major surgery in what city?
5ad230ebd7d075001a4286ef
True
Craig
59
Filming was affected by whose surgery?
5ad230ebd7d075001a4286f0
True
Craig
59
Who underwent minor surgery to fix his arm?
5ad230ebd7d075001a4286f1
True
Craig
59
Who returned to filming on 12 April?
5ad230ebd7d075001a4286f2
True
Following filming in Mexico, and during a scheduled break, Craig was flown to New York to undergo minor surgery to fix his knee injury. It was reported that filming was not affected and he had returned to filming at Pinewood Studios as planned on 22 April.
Which bridges were shut down because of filming?
56ced14baab44d1400b88acd
Westminster and Lambeth Bridges
327
False
Which organization provided water for weather effects?
56ced14baab44d1400b88ace
London Fire Brigade
545
False
Which river was used in some of the shoots taking place in London?
56ced14baab44d1400b88acf
Thames
136
False
Where is MI6 based?
56ced14baab44d1400b88ad0
Vauxhall Cross
422
False
Filming closed which two bridges in London?
56cf4b67aab44d1400b88f6a
Westminster and Lambeth Bridges
327
False
Who helped the filmakers simulate rain while shooting in London?
56cf4b67aab44d1400b88f6b
The London Fire Brigade
541
False
Where were the scenes of Ralph Fiennes in a restaurant shot?
56cf4b67aab44d1400b88f6c
Covent Garden.
787
False
Where stunt scenes on the Thames shot during the day or the night?
56cf4b67aab44d1400b88f6d
night
282
False
London's
17
Whose city hall was used for filming on 8 April 2015?
5ad23161d7d075001a42870c
True
Westminster
250
Stunt scenes on an airplane were filmed near which bridge?
5ad23161d7d075001a42870d
True
Vauxhall Cross
422
Scenes were shot near MI66's headquarters where?
5ad23161d7d075001a42870e
True
London Fire Brigade
545
Who was used to simulate snow?
5ad23161d7d075001a42870f
True
A brief shoot at London's City Hall was filmed on 18 April 2015, while Mendes was on location. On 17 May 2015 filming took place on the Thames in London. Stunt scenes involving Craig and Seydoux on a speedboat as well as a low flying helicopter near Westminster Bridge were shot at night, with filming temporarily closing both Westminster and Lambeth Bridges. Scenes were also shot on the river near MI6's headquarters at Vauxhall Cross. The crew returned to the river less than a week later to film scenes solely set on Westminster Bridge. The London Fire Brigade was on set to simulate rain as well as monitor smoke used for filming. Craig, Seydoux, and Waltz, as well as Harris and Fiennes, were seen being filmed. Prior to this, scenes involving Fiennes were shot at a restaurant in Covent Garden. Filming then took place in Trafalgar Square. In early June, the crew, as well as Craig, Seydoux, and Waltz, returned to the Thames for a final time to continue filming scenes previously shot on the river.
Which three locations in Morocco were used in filming?
56ced973aab44d1400b88afd
Oujda, Tangier and Erfoud
100
False
What Guinness record was set during the filming of Spectre?
56ced973aab44d1400b88afe
Largest film stunt explosion
267
False
Who was the Guinness record attributed to?
56ced973aab44d1400b88aff
Chris Corbould
367
False
How long did it take to shoot Spectre?
56ced973aab44d1400b88b00
128 days
531
False
Where did production go to after leaving London?
56cf4fe6aab44d1400b88fb2
Morocco
54
False
What Guinness World Record does the film hold?
56cf4fe6aab44d1400b88fb3
Largest film stunt explosion
267
False
How many day did filming take
56cf4fe6aab44d1400b88fb5
128 days.
531
False
The Guinness World record was credited to which production designer?
56cf4fe6aab44d1400b88fb6
Chris Corbould
367
False
Largest film stunt explosion
267
An explosion filmed in Mexico holds the Guinness World Record for what?
5ad231e3d7d075001a42873a
True
Chris Corbould
367
The record was credited to which screenwriter?
5ad231e3d7d075001a42873b
True
wrap-up party
433
What was held in post-production before entering commemoration?
5ad231e3d7d075001a42873d
True
Filming
518
What took 182 days?
5ad231e3d7d075001a42873e
True
Morocco
220
An explosion filmed in what city holds the Guinness World Record for "Smallest film stunt explosion"?
5ad23d95d7d075001a428898
True
Largest film stunt explosion
267
Mexico was the site for which Guinness World Record?
5ad23d95d7d075001a428899
True
Largest film stunt explosion
267
Screenwriter Chris Corbould was credited with what Guinness World Record?
5ad23d95d7d075001a42889a
True
5 July 2015
418
Principal photography began on what date?
5ad23d95d7d075001a42889b
True
After wrapping up in England, production travelled to Morocco in June, with filming taking place in Oujda, Tangier and Erfoud, after preliminary work was completed by the production's second unit. An explosion filmed in Morocco holds a Guinness World Record for the "Largest film stunt explosion" in cinematic history, with the record credited to production designer Chris Corbould. Principal photography concluded on 5 July 2015. A wrap-up party for Spectre was held in commemoration before entering post-production. Filming took 128 days.
How much money were possible changes to the Mexico City section of the film rumored to have saved the production?
56cedc9caab44d1400b88b2b
$20 million
372
False
Which Bond producer would not confirm that the film had been changed to accommodate Mexican authorities?
56cedc9caab44d1400b88b2c
Michael G. Wilson
426
False
In what other country, besides Mexico, did the film experience administrative issues with local authorities?
56cedc9caab44d1400b88b2d
India
777
False
Which country did Skyfall move its pre-title sequence filming to?
56cf5415aab44d1400b88fe8
Istanbul
800
False
Mexico
18
Which city wanted their citizens portrayed in a "negative light"?
5ad23f8fd7d075001a4288f4
True
$20 million
372
The film received tax support over what amount?
5ad23f8fd7d075001a4288f5
True
Wilson
437
The film's screenwriter was Michael G. whom?
5ad23f8fd7d075001a4288f6
True
production
520
Who was attracted to the imagery of the Night of the Dead?
5ad23f8fd7d075001a4288f7
True
Whilst filming in Mexico City, speculation in the media claimed that the script had been altered to accommodate the demands of Mexican authorities—reportedly influencing details of the scene and characters, casting choices, and modifying the script in order to portray the country in a "positive light"—in order to secure tax concessions and financial support worth up to $20 million for the film. This was denied by producer Michael G. Wilson, who stated that the scene had always been intended to be shot in Mexico as production had been attracted to the imagery of the Day of the Dead, and that the script had been developed from there. Production of Skyfall had previously faced similar problems while attempting to secure permits to shoot the film's pre-title sequence in India before moving to Istanbul.
Who wrote the music for Spectre?
56cedd47aab44d1400b88b47
Thomas Newman
0
False
When was the soundtrack of Spectre first available for purchase in the UK?
56cedd47aab44d1400b88b48
23 October 2015
400
False
What company published the Spectre soundtrack?
56cedd47aab44d1400b88b49
Decca Records
464
False
Who composed the score for the film?
56cf54f0aab44d1400b89014
Thomas Newman
0
False
Which record label was the soundtrack album released on?
56cf54f0aab44d1400b89015
Decca Records
464
False
Did Thomas Newman compose the score after filming or during filming?
56cf54f0aab44d1400b89016
during filming.
138
False
When was the theatrical trailer of the movie released?
56cf54f0aab44d1400b89017
July 2015
189
False
composer
36
Newman Thomas was Spectre's what?
5ad24014d7d075001a428910
True
Thomas Newman
0
Who composed the score after the film had moved into post-production?
5ad24014d7d075001a428911
True
theatrical
158
What trailer was released in July 2016?
5ad24014d7d075001a428912
True
Spectre's
26
Which film has more than two hundred minutes of music?
5ad24014d7d075001a428913
True
Thomas Newman returned as Spectre's composer. Rather than composing the score once the film had moved into post-production, Newman worked during filming. The theatrical trailer released in July 2015 contained a rendition of John Barry's On Her Majesty's Secret Service theme. Mendes revealed that the final film would have more than one hundred minutes of music. The soundtrack album was released on 23 October 2015 in the UK and 6 November 2015 in the USA on the Decca Records label.
What was the name of the song played during the opening credits?
56ceddd1aab44d1400b88b58
Writing's on the Wall
124
False
How many recording sessions did it take to complete the song?
56ceddd1aab44d1400b88b59
one
224
False
Which version of the theme was used in the actual movie?
56ceddd1aab44d1400b88b5a
demo
308
False
Who is the vocalist on Writing's on the Wall?
56cf55adaab44d1400b8902a
Sam Smith
40
False
Sam Smith and regular collaborator Jimmy Napes had written the film's title theme
40
What was announced in September 2005?
5ad2407bd7d075001a428936
True
theme
116
Jimmy Naples performed what for the film?
5ad2407bd7d075001a428937
True
Sam Smith
40
Who said that the song came together in two sessions?
5ad2407bd7d075001a428938
True
Sam Smith and regular collaborator Jimmy Napes
40
Who wrote the song in under fifteen minutes?
5ad2407bd7d075001a428939
True
demo
346
What was not used in the final release?
5ad2407bd7d075001a42893a
True
In September 2015 it was announced that Sam Smith and regular collaborator Jimmy Napes had written the film's title theme, "Writing's on the Wall", with Smith performing it for the film. Smith said the song came together in one session and that he and Napes wrote it in under half an hour before recording a demo. Satisfied with the quality, the demo was used in the final release.
When was the main theme of Spectre made available in digital format?
56cedf84aab44d1400b88ba3
25 September 2015
47
False
What song was the Spectre theme comapred to unfavorably?
56cedf84aab44d1400b88ba4
Skyfall
154
False
What former Bond theme singer was the subject of extensive activity on Twitter when the Spectre theme was released?
56cedf84aab44d1400b88ba5
Shirley Bassey
203
False
What group wrote music for the film that ended up not being used?
56cedf84aab44d1400b88ba6
Radiohead
359
False
What artist performed the theme song for Skyfall?
56cf5674aab44d1400b8904c
Adele
145
False
The release of Writing's on the Wall caused what name to trend on Twitter?
56cf5674aab44d1400b8904f
Shirley Bassey
203
False
Which English band also composed a song for the film?
56cf5674aab44d1400b89050
Radiohead
359
False
song
4
What was released as a digital download on 15 September 2015?
5ad24104d7d075001a42894a
True
song
4
What received all positive reviews from critics?
5ad24104d7d075001a42894b
True
Shirley Bassey
203
Who was not trending on Twitter the day the song was released?
5ad24104d7d075001a42894c
True
song
4
What became the second Bond theme to reach number one in the UK Singles Chart?
5ad24104d7d075001a42894d
True
song
385
Radiohead composed what which was used in the film?
5ad24104d7d075001a42894e
True
The song was released as a digital download on 25 September 2015. It received mixed reviews from critics and fans, particularly in comparison to Adele's "Skyfall". The mixed reception to the song led to Shirley Bassey trending on Twitter on the day it was released. It became the first Bond theme to reach number one in the UK Singles Chart. The English band Radiohead also composed a song for the film, which went unused.
Which companies revealed Spectre's official car?
56cee58daab44d1400b88c1b
Aston Martin and Eon
75
False
How many DB10s were made for the movie?
56cee58daab44d1400b88c1c
10
115
False
Which team displayed the Bond logo during the Mexican Grand Prix?
56cee58daab44d1400b88c1d
Williams F1
526
False
What were the two DB10s that were not needed for filming used for?
56cee58daab44d1400b88c1e
promotional work
461
False
How many DB10's were produced?
56cf5710aab44d1400b89061
10
115
False
What logo did the Williams race team have on their cars for the 2015 Mexican Grand Prix?
56cf5710aab44d1400b89063
007
550
False
2014
20
The press conference announcing the start of the filming was in October of what year?
5ad24169d7d075001a428968
True
film
146
Honda was the official car of what?
5ad24169d7d075001a428969
True
car
134
Aston Martin produced only 20 of what for the film?
5ad24169d7d075001a42896a
True
DB10
113
The unofficial car of the film was what?
5ad24169d7d075001a42896b
True
During the December 2014 press conference announcing the start of filming, Aston Martin and Eon unveiled the new DB10 as the official car for the film. The DB10 was designed in collaboration between Aston Martin and the filmmakers, with only 10 being produced especially for Spectre as a celebration of the 50th anniversary of the company's association with the franchise. Only eight of those 10 were used for the film, however; the remaining two were used for promotional work. After modifying the Jaguar C-X75 for the film, Williams F1 carried the 007 logo on their cars at the 2015 Mexican Grand Prix, with the team playing host to the cast and crew ahead of the Mexican premiere of the film.
Images of what item were posted by Eon while the movie was being made?
56cee5f0aab44d1400b88c2d
clapperboards
121
False
For what film did Eon first use this method of promotion?
56cee5f0aab44d1400b88c2e
Skyfall
71
False
On which social media accounts was the film promoted?
56cf578aaab44d1400b89084
Eon's official social media accounts.
154
False
What other Bond film was promoted on social media?
56cf578aaab44d1400b89085
Skyfall
71
False
production
21
Who released moving images to promote the film?
5ad241d7d7d075001a428982
True
production
21
Who released still images of motherboards to promote the film?
5ad241d7d7d075001a428983
True
Eon's
154
On whose unofficial social media account did production promote the film?
5ad241d7d7d075001a428984
True
promote the film
3
Production released text blogs to do what?
5ad241d7d7d075001a428985
True
To promote the film, production continued the trend established during Skyfall's production of releasing still images of clapperboards and video blogs on Eon's official social media accounts.
What comedy production did Spectre actors appear in?
56cee6ebaab44d1400b88c41
Comic Relief's Red Nose Day
231
False
On what TV station did Red Nose Day appear?
56cee6ebaab44d1400b88c42
BBC One
262
False
In what month was the preview of Spectre released in movie theaters?
56cee6ebaab44d1400b88c43
July
469
False
When was the first teaser trailer of Spectre released?
56cf58c1aab44d1400b890ab
March 2015
6
False
What show did several members of the cast and crew appear on in March 2015?
56cf58c1aab44d1400b890ad
Comic Relief's Red Nose Day
231
False
Who wrote the comedy sketch for the cast and crew?
56cf58c1aab44d1400b890ae
David Walliams and the Dawson Brothers
188
False
13 March 2015
3
Several members of the cast appeared on BBC Two on what date?
5ad24276d7d075001a42899c
True
several members of the cast and crew
18
Who filmed a behind-the scenes documentary of the filming of Spectre?
5ad24276d7d075001a42899d
True
first
360
Which teaser trailer for Spectre was released in February 2015?
5ad24276d7d075001a42899e
True
David Walliams
188
Who produced the sketch for BBC One?
5ad24276d7d075001a42899f
True
On 13 March 2015, several members of the cast and crew, including Craig, Whishaw, Wilson and Mendes, as well as previous James Bond actor, Sir Roger Moore, appeared in a sketch written by David Walliams and the Dawson Brothers for Comic Relief's Red Nose Day on BBC One. In the sketch, they film a behind-the-scenes mockumentary on the filming of Spectre. The first teaser trailer for Spectre was released worldwide in March 2015, followed by the theatrical trailer in July and the final trailer in October.
Where was the first showing of Spectre held?
56cee7a2aab44d1400b88c5f
Royal Albert Hall
67
False
On what date was Spectre first shown for general audiences?
56cee7a2aab44d1400b88c60
26 October 2015
44
False
What movie prompted IMAX to show Spectre?
56cee7a2aab44d1400b88c62
Skyfall
437
False
What film opening was changed so it didn't compete with Spectre?
56cf597faab44d1400b890c6
Mission: Impossible – Rogue Nation
271
False
Which film had a wider release in the UK, Skyfall or Spectre?
56cf597faab44d1400b890c8
Spectre.
330
False
2015
55
Spectre had its world premiere on 26 December of what year?
5ad24303d7d075001a4289c2
True
Spectre
0
Who had its world premiere at Westminster Hall?
5ad24303d7d075001a4289c3
True
Paramount Pictures
221
Who pushed back the release of Mission: Impossible - Rogue Nation to avoid competing with Spectre?
5ad24303d7d075001a4289c4
True
2015
348
IMAX announced that Spectre would be screened in its cinemas in January of what year?
5ad24303d7d075001a4289c5
True
Skyfall
516
In the UK, Spectre received a smaller release than what?
5ad24303d7d075001a4289c6
True
Spectre had its world premiere in London on 26 October 2015 at the Royal Albert Hall, the same day as its general release in the United Kingdom and Republic of Ireland. Following the announcement of the start of filming, Paramount Pictures brought forward the release of Mission: Impossible – Rogue Nation to avoid competing with Spectre. In March 2015 IMAX corporation announced that Spectre would be screened in its cinemas, following Skyfall's success with the company. In the UK it received a wider release than Skyfall, with a minimum of 647 cinemas including 40 IMAX screens, compared to Skyfall's 587 locations and 21 IMAX screens.
How much money had Spectre made by 2/21/2016?
56cee809aab44d1400b88c6f
$879.3 million
51
False
How much revenue did Spectre generate from the United States, Mexico and Canada by 2/21/2016?
56cee809aab44d1400b88c70
$199.8 million
150
False
How much revenue did Spectre produce from the British, Scottish, and Irish market by 2/21/2016?
56cee809aab44d1400b88c71
$138.1 million
77
False
$879.3 million
51
As of 21 February 2006, Spectre has grossed how much worldwide?
5ad24378d7d075001a4289f8
True
market
139
$138.1 million has been generated from the French what?
5ad24378d7d075001a4289f9
True
market
139
$199.8 million has been generated from the Greek what?
5ad24378d7d075001a4289fa
True
21 February 2016
6
Spectre grossed $929.3 million worldwide as of what date?
5ad24378d7d075001a4289fb
True
As of 21 February 2016[update] Spectre has grossed $879.3 million worldwide; $138.1 million of the takings have been generated from the UK market and $199.8 million from North America.
How much did Spectre make in its first week?
56ceea40aab44d1400b88c99
£41.7 million ($63.8 million)
289
False
Which movie previously had the highest earnings for its first seven days?
56ceea40aab44d1400b88c9a
Harry Potter and the Prisoner of Azkaban
382
False
What movie did Spectre unseat as having the highest earnings for IMAX screenings in the UK?
56ceea40aab44d1400b88c9b
Avatar
795
False
How much money did Spectre gross on it's opening day in the UK?
56cf5adaaab44d1400b890ed
$9.2 million
129
False
What film previously held the UK record for highest first week opening gross?
56cf5adaaab44d1400b890ee
Harry Potter and the Prisoner of Azkaban
382
False
Spectre passed which movie to become the highest grossing IMAX release in the UK?
56cf5adaaab44d1400b890f0
Avatar
795
False
Spectre passed which movie to have the largest per screen opening average?
56cf5adaaab44d1400b890f1
The Dark Knight
690
False
United Kingdom
7
The film grossed $6.4 million from its Tuesday screenings in what country?
5ad243f0d7d075001a428a2a
True
63.8 million
305
In the film's first eight days it grossed how much?
5ad243f0d7d075001a428a2b
True
31.2 million
511
The film's Friday-Sunday gross was how much?
5ad243f0d7d075001a428a2c
True
31 million
563
Skyfall's Friday-Sunday gross was how much?
5ad243f0d7d075001a428a2d
True
In the United Kingdom, the film grossed £4.1 million ($6.4 million) from its Monday preview screenings. It grossed £6.3 million ($9.2 million) on its opening day and then £5.7 million ($8.8 million) on Wednesday, setting UK records for both days. In the film's first seven days it grossed £41.7 million ($63.8 million), breaking the UK record for highest first-week opening, set by Harry Potter and the Prisoner of Azkaban's £23.88 million ($36.9 million) in 2004. Its Friday–Saturday gross was £20.4 million ($31.2 million) compared to Skyfall's £20.1 million ($31 million). The film also broke the record for the best per-screen opening average with $110,000, a record previously held by The Dark Knight with $100,200. It has grossed a total of $136.3 million there. In the U.K., it surpassed Avatar to become the country's highest-grossing IMAX release ever with $10.09 million.
Terrorist activity in what French city impacted Spectre's earnings?
56ceeb34aab44d1400b88ca9
Paris
268
False
How much more did Spectre earn compared with Skyfall in the Indian market?
56ceeb34aab44d1400b88caa
4%
849
False
In Paris, what movie has generated more ticket revenue than Spectre?
56ceeb34aab44d1400b88cab
Spider-Man 3
1275
False
How much did Spectre make in its opening in South Korea?
56ceeb34aab44d1400b88cac
$8.2 million
209
False
What is the only film to have a higher ticket sale in Paris than Spectre?
56cf5b91aab44d1400b8910b
Spider-Man 3
1275
False
What movie did Spectre beat to become top movie of the year in Switzerland?
56cf5b91aab44d1400b8910d
Minions
1046
False
Spectre
0
What opened in Greece with $25.45 million?
5ad2446bd7d075001a428a56
True
Spectre
0
What set a new record for the biggest Sunday of all time in Germany?
5ad2446bd7d075001a428a57
True
8.2
210
North Korea opened to how many million?
5ad2446bd7d075001a428a58
True
France
406
Where did the film open with $14.6 million despite the 11 November Paris attacks?
5ad2446bd7d075001a428a59
True
Spectre opened in Germany with $22.45 million (including previews), which included a new record for the biggest Saturday of all time, Australia with $8.7 million (including previews) and South Korea opened to $8.2 million (including previews). Despite the 13 November Paris attacks, which led to numerous theaters being closed down, the film opened with $14.6 million (including $2 million in previews) in France. In Mexico, where part of the film was shot, it debuted with more than double that of Skyfall with $4.5 million. It also bested its predecessor's opening in various Nordic regions where MGM is distributing, such as in Finland ($2.66 million) and Norway ($2.91 million), and in other markets like Denmark ($4.2 million), the Netherlands ($3.38 million), and Sweden ($3.1 million). In India, it opened at No. 1 with $4.8 million which is 4% above the opening of Skyfall. It topped the German-speaking Switzerland box office for four weeks and in the Netherlands, it has held the No. 1 spot for seven weeks straight where it has topped Minions to become the top movie of the year. The top earning markets are Germany ($70.3 million) and France ($38.8 million). In Paris, it has the second highest ticket sales of all time with $4.1 million tickets sold only behind Spider-Man 3 which sold over $6.32 million tickets in 2007.
How many Imax screens showed Spectre on its opening weekend in the US and Canada?
56ceebf8aab44d1400b88cbb
374
613
False
How much money did Spectre make in its first weekend in the US and Canada?
56ceebf8aab44d1400b88cbc
$70.4 million
396
False
How much money did preview showings generate in the US and Canada?
56ceebf8aab44d1400b88cbd
$5.25
226
False
Which film grossed more money for its opening weekend in the North American market, Skyfall or Spectre?
56cf5c5faab44d1400b89127
Skyfall
462
False
How many IMAX screens was Spectre shown on in North America?
56cf5c5faab44d1400b89128
374
613
False
What day of the week was Spectre released in North America?
56cf5c5faab44d1400b89129
Thursday
255
False
2015
63
In the United States, the film opened on 16 November of what year?
5ad244f4d7d075001a428a80
True
United States and Canada
7
Where was the film projected to gross $80-85 million in its opening weekend?
5ad244f4d7d075001a428a81
True
the film
33
What grossed about $20 million more than Skyfall's debut?
5ad244f4d7d075001a428a82
True
the film
33
What finished second at the box office?
5ad244f4d7d075001a428a83
True
In the United States and Canada, the film opened on 6 November 2015, and in its opening weekend, was originally projected to gross $70–75 million from 3,927 screens, the widest release for a Bond film. However, after grossing $5.25 million from its early Thursday night showings and $28 million on its opening day, weekend projections were increased to $75–80 million. The film ended up grossing $70.4 million in its opening weekend (about $20 million less than Skyfall's $90.6 million debut, including IMAX previews), but nevertheless finished first at the box office. IMAX generated $9.1 million for Spectre at 374 screens, premium large format made $8 million from 429 cinemas, reaping 11% of the film's opening, which means that Spectre earned $17.1 million (23%) of its opening weekend total in large-format venues. Cinemark XD generated $1.85 million in 112 XD locations.
On what day and month was Spectre released to the Chinese market?
56ceed3baab44d1400b88ccb
12 November
23
False
How much more money did Spectre make during its first weekend in China than Skyfall?
56ceed3baab44d1400b88ccc
198%
400
False
By the weekend after its China release, how much had revenue decreased?
56ceed3baab44d1400b88ccd
75%
680
False
How much had Spectre made in its first month in China?
56ceed3baab44d1400b88cce
$84.7 million
802
False
Spectre came in second in opening day gross in China behind what movie?
56cf5d43aab44d1400b89136
Mission: Impossible – Rogue Nation
187
False
How much money did Spectre gross after four weekends in China?
56cf5d43aab44d1400b89139
$84.7 million
802
False
November
26
The film opened on 11 of what month in China?
5ad24581d7d075001a428aa8
True
China
3
The film occupied 53% of all screens in what country?
5ad24581d7d075001a428aa9
True
China
3
The film took in $890,000 in advance night screenings in what country?
5ad24581d7d075001a428aaa
True
China
3
The film fell by 85% in its second weekend in what country?
5ad24581d7d075001a428aab
True
In China, it opened on 12 November and earned $15 million on its opening day, which is the second biggest 2D single day gross for a Hollywood film behind the $18.5 million opening day of Mission: Impossible – Rogue Nation and occupying 43% of all available screens which included $790,000 in advance night screenings. Through its opening weekend, it earned $48.1 million from 14,700 screens which is 198% ahead of Skyfall, a new record for a Hollywood 2D opening. IMAX contributed $4.6 million on 246 screens, also a new record for a three-day opening for a November release (breaking Interstellar's record). In its second weekend, it added $12.1 million falling precipitously by 75% which is the second worst second weekend drop for any major Hollywood release in China of 2015. It grossed a total of $84.7 million there after four weekends. Albeit a strong opening it failed to attain the $100 million mark as projected.
What was Metacritics score for Spectre?
56ceee04aab44d1400b88cd3
60 out of 100
654
False
How many individual ratings contributed to Metacritics score?
56ceee04aab44d1400b88cd4
48
678
False
What percentage of Spectre reviews did Rotten Tomatoes find to be in favor of the film?
56ceee04aab44d1400b88cd5
64%
389
False
Who did CinemaScore ask for input on the film?
56ceee04aab44d1400b88cd6
Audiences
729
False
What percentage of review on Rotten Tomatoes were positive?
56cf5dccaab44d1400b8913f
64
389
False
What was the movie's rating on Metacritic?
56cf5dccaab44d1400b89140
60 out of 100
654
False
Spectre
0
What film received all positive reviews?
5ad245e3d7d075001a428ab8
True
scene
164
Many critics praised the film's ending what?
5ad245e3d7d075001a428ab9
True
Skyfall
333
In all early review, the film was compared favorably with what movie?
5ad245e3d7d075001a428aba
True
100
664
On Metacritic, the film has a rating of 70 out of what?
5ad245e3d7d075001a428abb
True
Spectre has received mixed reviews, with many reviewers either giving the film highly positive or highly negative feedback. Many critics praised the film's opening scene, action sequences, stuntwork, cinematography and performances from the cast. In some early reviews, the film received favourable comparisons with its predecessor, Skyfall. Rotten Tomatoes sampled 274 reviews and judged 64% of the critiques to be positive, saying that the film "nudges Daniel Craig's rebooted Bond closer to the glorious, action-driven spectacle of earlier entries, although it's admittedly reliant on established 007 formula." On Metacritic, the film has a rating of 60 out of 100, based on 48 critics, indicating "mixed or average reviews". Audiences polled by CinemaScore gave the film an average grade of "A−" on an A+ to F scale.
Who gave Spectre a perfect rating in The Daily Telegraph?
56ceef67aab44d1400b88ce6
Robbie Collin
507
False
A writer for which publication rated the film 7.2/10?
56ceef67aab44d1400b88ce7
IGN
695
False
What score did Mark Kermode give Spectre?
56ceef67aab44d1400b88ce8
four out of five stars
120
False
How many stars did Mark Kermode of the Guardian aware Spectre prior to its release?
56cf5e5eaab44d1400b8914f
four out of five
120
False
UK
13
Spectre received mostly positive reviews prior to its release in what country?
5ad24658d7d075001a428aee
True
four
120
John Kermode from the Guardian, gave the film how many out of five stars?
5ad24658d7d075001a428aef
True
a swaggering show of confidence
543
The Daily Mail's Robbie Collin described the film as what?
5ad24658d7d075001a428af0
True
solid if unspectacular
733
GIN's Chris Tully said what about the film?
5ad24658d7d075001a428af1
True
Prior to its UK release, Spectre mostly received positive reviews. Mark Kermode, writing in The Guardian, gave the film four out of five stars, observing that the film did not live up to the standard set by Skyfall, but was able to tap into audience expectations. Writing in the same publication, Peter Bradshaw gave the film a full five stars, calling it "inventive, intelligent and complex", and singling out Craig's performance as the film's highlight. In another five star review, The Daily Telegraph's Robbie Collin described Spectre as "a swaggering show of confidence'", lauding it as "a feat of pure cinematic necromancy." In an otherwise positive, but overall less enthusiastic review, IGN's Chris Tilly considered Spectre "solid if unspectacular", and gave the film a 7.2 score (out of a possible 10), saying that "the film falls frustratingly short of greatness."
Which journalist considered Spectre the worst James Bond movie in three decades?
56cef51daab44d1400b88d11
Scott Mendelson
515
False
Which writer for the San Francisco Chronicle awarded Spectre with a perfect score?
56cef51daab44d1400b88d12
Mick LaSalle
1373
False
What score did the writer from the Chicago Tribune give to Spectre?
56cef51daab44d1400b88d13
75
2118
False
The reviewer from Variety compares Spectre to which other Bond movie?
56cef51daab44d1400b88d14
Skyfall
2982
False
United States
48
Critics were entirely positive about the film in what country?
5ad246ecd7d075001a428b08
True
2.5
136
On Today.com, Matt Zoller Seitz gave the film how many stars?
5ad246ecd7d075001a428b09
True
Matt Zoller Seitz
104
Who described the film as consistent and capable of capitalizing on its potential?
5ad246ecd7d075001a428b0a
True
007 movie
598
Forbes' Scott Mendelson described the movie as the best what in 30 years?
5ad246ecd7d075001a428b0b
True
Critical appraisal of the film was mixed in the United States. In a lukewarm review for RogerEbert.com, Matt Zoller Seitz gave the film 2.5 stars out of 4, describing Spectre as inconsistent and unable to capitalise on its potential. Kenneth Turan, reviewing the film for Los Angeles Times, concluded that Spectre "comes off as exhausted and uninspired". Manohla Dargis of The New York Times panned the film as having "nothing surprising" and sacrificing its originality for the sake of box office returns. Forbes' Scott Mendelson also heavily criticised the film, denouncing Spectre as "the worst 007 movie in 30 years". Darren Franich of Entertainment Weekly viewed Spectre as "an overreaction to our current blockbuster moment", aspiring "to be a serialized sequel" and proving "itself as a Saga". While noting that "[n]othing that happens in Spectre holds up to even minor logical scrutiny", he had "come not to bury Spectre, but to weirdly praise it. Because the final act of the movie is so strange, so willfully obtuse, that it deserves extra attention." In a positive review Rolling Stone, Peter Travers gave the film 3.5 stars out of 4, describing "The 24th movie about the British MI6 agent with a license to kill is party time for Bond fans, a fierce, funny, gorgeously produced valentine to the longest-running franchise in movies". Other positive reviews from Mick LaSalle from the San Francisco Chronicle, gave it a perfect 100 score, stating: “One of the great satisfactions of Spectre is that, in addition to all the stirring action, and all the timely references to a secret organization out to steal everyone’s personal information, we get to believe in Bond as a person.” Stephen Whitty from the New York Daily News, gave it an 80 grade, saying: “Craig is cruelly efficient. Dave Bautista makes a good, Oddjob-like assassin. And while Lea Seydoux doesn’t leave a huge impression as this film’s “Bond girl,” perhaps it’s because we’ve already met — far too briefly — the hypnotic Monica Bellucci, as the first real “Bond woman” since Diana Rigg.” Richard Roeper from the Chicago Sun-Times, gave it a 75 grade. He stated: “This is the 24th Bond film and it ranks solidly in the middle of the all-time rankings, which means it’s still a slick, beautifully photographed, action-packed, international thriller with a number of wonderfully, ludicrously entertaining set pieces, a sprinkling of dry wit, myriad gorgeous women and a classic psycho-villain who is clearly out of his mind but seems to like it that way.” Michael Phillips over at the Chicago Tribune, gave it a 75 grade. He stated: “For all its workmanlike devotion to out-of-control helicopters, “Spectre” works best when everyone’s on the ground, doing his or her job, driving expensive fast cars heedlessly, detonating the occasional wisecrack, enjoying themselves and their beautiful clothes.” Guy Lodge from Variety, gave it a 70 score, stating: “What’s missing is the unexpected emotional urgency of “Skyfall,” as the film sustains its predecessor’s nostalgia kick with a less sentimental bent.”
Which Atlantic writer gave a negative review of Spectre?
56cef65baab44d1400b88d35
Christopher Orr
0
False
What adjective did Lawrence Toppman use to describe Craig's portrayal of James Bond?
56cef65baab44d1400b88d36
Bored
201
False
What publication does Alyssa Rosenberg write for?
56cef65baab44d1400b88d37
The Washington Post
252
False
What was the catch phrase Lawrence Toppman of the Charlotte Observer used for the film?
56cf6093aab44d1400b89180
Bored, James Bored
201
False
backslides on virtually every [aspect]
89
Christopher Orr of the New Yorker said what about Spectre?
5ad24762d7d075001a428b32
True
Bored, James Bored
201
Lawrence Toppman of The Boston Observer called Craig's performance what?
5ad24762d7d075001a428b33
True
a disappointingly conventional Bond film
307
Alyssa Rosenberg of The Washington Observer said what about the film?
5ad24762d7d075001a428b34
True
Observer
164
Lawrence Orr writes for The Charlotte what?
5ad24762d7d075001a428b35
True
Christopher Orr, writing in The Atlantic, also criticised the film, saying that Spectre "backslides on virtually every [aspect]". Lawrence Toppman of The Charlotte Observer called Craig's performance "Bored, James Bored." Alyssa Rosenberg, writing for The Washington Post, stated that the film turned into "a disappointingly conventional Bond film."
Whic organization is responsible for filtering movie content in India?
56cef6ccaab44d1400b88d48
Indian Central Board of Film Certification
35
False
Which social media site was used for complaining about the Indian censoring?
56cf6133aab44d1400b89191
Twitter.
257
False
India
3
What country censored hand-holding scenes?
5ad247c0d7d075001a428b4c
True
Indian Central Board of Film Certification
35
Who censored talking scenes?
5ad247c0d7d075001a428b4d
True
India
3
Profanity was not muted in which country?
5ad247c0d7d075001a428b4e
True
Twitter
257
Where was support expressed for the censored film?
5ad247c0d7d075001a428b4f
True
In India, it was reported that the Indian Central Board of Film Certification (CBFC) censored kissing scenes featuring Monica Bellucci, Daniel Craig, and Léa Seydoux. They also muted all profanity. This prompted criticism of the board online, especially on Twitter.
Christoph Waltz's appearance in future Bond movies is contingent on the appearance of which other actor?
56cef706aab44d1400b88d4f
Craig
234
False
When will work being on the follow-up to Spectre?
56cef706aab44d1400b88d50
spring 2016
46
False
When will the sequel to Spectre being development?
56cf61b5aab44d1400b8919d
spring 2016.
46
False
spring 2016
46
A prequel to Spectre will begin when?
5ad24827d7d075001a428b54
True
Sam Mendes
59
Who will return to direct the next 007 film?
5ad24827d7d075001a428b55
True
Christoph Waltz
129
Who has signed on for three more films in the series?
5ad24827d7d075001a428b56
True
Christoph Waltz
129
Whose return depends on whether or not Sam Mendes returns to portray Bond?
5ad24827d7d075001a428b57
True
A sequel to Spectre will begin development in spring 2016. Sam Mendes has stated he will not return to direct the next 007 film. Christoph Waltz has signed on for two more films in the series, but his return depends on whether or not Craig will again portray Bond.
2008_Sichuan_earthquake
In what year did the earthquake in Sichuan occur?
56cdca7862d2951400fa6826
2008
4
False
What was the earthquake named?
56cdca7862d2951400fa6827
the Great Sichuan earthquake
31
False
How many people were killed as a result?
56cdca7862d2951400fa6828
69,197
206
False
What year did the Sichuan earthquake take place?
56d4f9902ccc5a1400d833c0
2008
4
False
What did the quake measure?
56d4f9902ccc5a1400d833c1
8.0 Ms and 7.9 Mw
73
False
What day did the earthquake occur?
56d4f9902ccc5a1400d833c2
May 12
171
False
What time of the day did the quake happen?
56d4f9902ccc5a1400d833c3
02:28:01 PM China Standard Time
108
False
How many people died?
56d4f9902ccc5a1400d833c4
69,197
206
False
The 2008 Sichuan earthquake or the Great Sichuan earthquake, measured at 8.0 Ms and 7.9 Mw, and occurred at 02:28:01 PM China Standard Time at epicenter (06:28:01 UTC) on May 12 in Sichuan province, killed 69,197 people and left 18,222 missing.
Which far away cities in other countries could feel the earthquake?
56cdcb2c62d2951400fa6830
Beijing and Shanghai
407
False
What was the focal depth of the earthquake?
56cdcb2c62d2951400fa6833
19 km
319
False
How long after the earthquake were aftershocks felt?
56cdcb2c62d2951400fa6834
months after
601
False
What is another name for the earthquake in Sichuan?
56d4fb6f2ccc5a1400d833d4
the Wenchuan earthquake
20
False
Where was the epicenter of the earthquake?
56d4fb6f2ccc5a1400d833d5
Wenchuan County, Sichuan
180
False
How far was it from Chengdu?
56d4fb6f2ccc5a1400d833d6
80 kilometres
224
False
What was the focal depth of the quake?
56d4fb6f2ccc5a1400d833d7
19 km
319
False
It is also known as the Wenchuan earthquake (Chinese: 汶川大地震; pinyin: Wènchuān dà dìzhèn; literally: "Great Wenchuan earthquake"), after the location of the earthquake's epicenter, Wenchuan County, Sichuan. The epicenter was 80 kilometres (50 mi) west-northwest of Chengdu, the provincial capital, with a focal depth of 19 km (12 mi). The earthquake was also felt in nearby countries and as far away as both Beijing and Shanghai—1,500 km (930 mi) and 1,700 km (1,060 mi) away—where office buildings swayed with the tremor. Strong aftershocks, some exceeding magnitude 6, continued to hit the area even months after the main quake, causing new casualties and damage.
How many people were confirmed dead?
56cdcbb762d2951400fa683a
69,197
61
False
How many people were confirmed dead only in the Sichuan province?
56cdcbb762d2951400fa683b
68,636
99
False
How many people were left homeless because of the earthquake?
56cdcbb762d2951400fa683c
4.8 million
205
False
How many people lived in the affected area?
56cdcbb762d2951400fa683d
15 million
298
False
How much money was dedicated to rebuild ravaged areas?
56cdcbb762d2951400fa683e
1 trillion RMB
708
False
How many people died in Sichuan Province?
56d4fca52ccc5a1400d833de
68,636
99
False
How many were injured in Sichuan?
56d4fca52ccc5a1400d833df
374,176
131
False
How many people are listed as missing?
56d4fca52ccc5a1400d833e0
18,222
153
False
How many people are homeless because of the quake?
56d4fca52ccc5a1400d833e1
4.8 million
205
False
How high could the homeless number possibly go?
56d4fca52ccc5a1400d833e2
11 million
272
False
Official figures (as of July 21, 2008 12:00 CST) stated that 69,197 were confirmed dead, including 68,636 in Sichuan province, and 374,176 injured, with 18,222 listed as missing. The earthquake left about 4.8 million people homeless, though the number could be as high as 11 million. Approximately 15 million people lived in the affected area. It was the deadliest earthquake to hit China since the 1976 Tangshan earthquake, which killed at least 240,000 people, and the strongest in the country since the 1950 Chayu earthquake, which registered at 8.5 on the Richter magnitude scale. It is the 21st deadliest earthquake of all time. On November 6, 2008, the central government announced that it would spend 1 trillion RMB (about US $146.5 billion) over the next three years to rebuild areas ravaged by the earthquake, as part of the Chinese economic stimulus program.
Where was the epicenter?
56cdcc5562d2951400fa6845
Wenchuan County, Ngawa Tibetan and Qiang Autonomous Prefecture
74
False
How long did the earthquake last?
56cdcc5562d2951400fa6847
2 minutes
317
False
What percentage of buildings were destroyed?
56cdcc5562d2951400fa6848
80%
348
False
What was the magnitude of the earthquake?
56d4fe332ccc5a1400d833e8
8.0 Ms and 7.9 Mw
34
False
How long did the main tremor last?
56d4fe332ccc5a1400d833eb
2 minutes
317
False
What percentage of buildings were destroyed during the quake?
56d4fe332ccc5a1400d833ec
almost 80%
341
False
The earthquake had a magnitude of 8.0 Ms and 7.9 Mw. The epicenter was in Wenchuan County, Ngawa Tibetan and Qiang Autonomous Prefecture, 80 km west/northwest of the provincial capital of Chengdu, with its main tremor occurring at 14:28:01.42 China Standard Time (06:28:01.42 UTC), on May 12, 2008 lasting for around 2 minutes, in the quake almost 80% of buildings were destroyed.
On what fault did the earthquake occur?
56cdccd962d2951400fa684e
Longmenshan fault
101
False
Where is the Longmenshan fault located?
56cdccd962d2951400fa684f
along the border of the Indo-Australian Plate and Eurasian Plate
139
False
How long did the rupture last?
56cdccd962d2951400fa6850
120 sec
323
False
How deep was the focus of the earthquake?
56cdccd962d2951400fa6852
10 km
613
False
Along what fault line did the quake happen?
56d5005d2ccc5a1400d833f2
Longmenshan fault
101
False
On which fracture did the quake focus?
56d5005d2ccc5a1400d833f4
Yingxiu-Beichuan fracture
267
False
When wasmost of the energy released during the initial eruption?
56d5005d2ccc5a1400d833f5
first 80 sec.
376
False
What was the most displacement caused by the earthquake?
56d5005d2ccc5a1400d833f6
9 meters
577
False
According to a study by the China Earthquake Administration (CEA), the earthquake occurred along the Longmenshan fault, a thrust structure along the border of the Indo-Australian Plate and Eurasian Plate. Seismic activities concentrated on its mid-fracture (known as Yingxiu-Beichuan fracture). The rupture lasted close to 120 sec, with the majority of energy released in the first 80 sec. Starting from Wenchuan, the rupture propagated at an average speed of 3.1 kilometers per second 49° toward north east, rupturing a total of about 300 km. Maximum displacement amounted to 9 meters. The focus was deeper than 10 km.
When was the confidential written report sent to the State Seismological Bureau?
56cdce0b62d2951400fa6858
April 30, 2008
233
False
When was Geng's drought-earthquake correlation theory released?
56cdce0b62d2951400fa685b
1972
840
False
What did researcher Geng Qingguo say was sent to the State Seismological Bureau?
56d67a8d1c8504140094714d
written report
172
False
What did this report warn about?
56d67a8d1c8504140094714e
significant earthquake in Ngawa Prefecture
292
False
What was the predicted time of the quake?
56d67a8d1c8504140094714f
around May 8
353
False
What did Geng long try to establish as a relationship with earthquakes?
56d67a8d1c85041400947150
droughts
684
False
What did an official with the Seismological Bureau deny receiving?
56d67a8d1c85041400947151
reports predicting the earthquake
1290
False
Malaysia-based Yazhou Zhoukan conducted an interview with former researcher at the China Seismological Bureau Geng Qingguo (耿庆国), in which Geng claimed that a confidential written report was sent to the State Seismological Bureau on April 30, 2008, warning about the possible occurrence of a significant earthquake in Ngawa Prefecture region of Sichuan around May 8, with a range of 10 days before or after the quake. Geng, while acknowledging that earthquake prediction was broadly considered problematic by the scientific community, believed that "the bigger the earthquake, the easier it is to predict." Geng had long attempted to establish a correlation between the occurrence of droughts and earthquakes; Premier Zhou Enlai reportedly took an interest in Geng's work. Geng's drought-earthquake correlation theory was first released in 1972, and said to have successfully predicted the 1975 Haicheng and 1976 Tangshan earthquakes. The same Yazhou Zhoukan article pointed out the inherent difficulties associated with predicting earthquakes. In response, an official with the Seismological Bureau stated that "earthquake prediction is widely acknowledged around the world to be difficult from a scientific standpoint." The official also denied that the Seismological Bureau had received reports predicting the earthquake.
How large was the displacement?
56cdcebe62d2951400fa6862
up to 9 meters
122
False
Who warned of possible seismic activity in the area beforehand?
56cdcebe62d2951400fa6866
Tom Parsons
426
False
What did the United States Geological Survey show as the amount of displacement?
56d5027a9d1b871400ae05e1
9 meters
128
False
How long was the fault where the quake occurred?
56d5027a9d1b871400ae05e2
240 km long
165
False
How deep is the fault?
56d5027a9d1b871400ae05e3
20 km deep
180
False
Where on the fault is the possibility of future earthquakes increased?
56d5027a9d1b871400ae05e4
northeastern and southwestern ends
348
False
What did Tom Parsons consider as the risk factor for strong future quakes?
56d5027a9d1b871400ae05e5
high risk
460
False
In a United States Geological Survey (USGS) study, preliminary rupture models of the earthquake indicated displacement of up to 9 meters along a fault approximately 240 km long by 20 km deep. The earthquake generated deformations of the surface greater than 3 meters and increased the stress (and probability of occurrence of future events) at the northeastern and southwestern ends of the fault. On May 20, USGS seismologist Tom Parsons warned that there is "high risk" of a major M>7 aftershock over the next weeks or months.
How many people were killed in the Hanshin earthquake?
56cdcff062d2951400fa6884
6,000 people
423
False
How did Yuji Yagi say the quake happened?
56d504539d1b871400ae05eb
in two stages
95
False
What fault tore in two places?
56d504539d1b871400ae05ec
Longmenshan Fault
124
False
Besides the population density, what else contributed to the severity of the quake?
56d504539d1b871400ae05ed
shallowness of the epicenter
461
False
How much greater was the energy of this quake than that released in the earthquake of 1995 in Japan?
56d504539d1b871400ae05ee
30 times
335
False
Why did the seismic waves travel so far?
56d504539d1b871400ae05ef
firmness of the terrain
736
False
Japanese seismologist Yuji Yagi at the University of Tsukuba said that the earthquake occurred in two stages: "The 155-mile Longmenshan Fault tore in two sections, the first one ripping about seven yards, followed by a second one that sheared four yards." His data also showed that the earthquake lasted about two minutes and released 30 times the energy of the Great Hanshin earthquake of 1995 in Japan, which killed over 6,000 people. He pointed out that the shallowness of the epicenter and the density of population greatly increased the severity of the earthquake. Teruyuki Kato, a seismologist at the University of Tokyo, said that the seismic waves of the quake traveled a long distance without losing their power because of the firmness of the terrain in central China. According to reports from Chengdu, the capital of Sichuan province, the earthquake tremors lasted for "about two or three minutes".
How many aftershocks were there?
56cdd08862d2951400fa6894
Between 64 and 104
0
False
When were the aftershocks recorded?
56cdd08862d2951400fa6896
within 72 hours of the main quake.
90
False
When did the latest magnitude 6 aftershock occur?
56cdd08862d2951400fa6898
on August 5, 2008
421
False
How many aftershocks were there within 72 hours?
56d505f99d1b871400ae05f5
Between 64 and 104
0
False
What do the Chinese say is the total number of shocks after the quake?
56d505f99d1b871400ae05f6
42,719
210
False
What did the strongest aftershock measure?
56d505f99d1b871400ae05f7
6.4 MS
326
False
How many shocks ranged from 4.0 MS to 4.9 MS?
56d505f99d1b871400ae05f8
246
245
False
At what date did the most recent aftershock above 6 MS occur?
56d505f99d1b871400ae05f9
August 5, 2008
424
False
Between 64 and 104 major aftershocks, ranging in magnitude from 4.0 to 6.1, were recorded within 72 hours of the main quake. According to Chinese official counts, "by 12:00 CST, November 6, 2008 there had been 42,719 total aftershocks, of which 246 ranged from 4.0 MS to 4.9 MS, 34 from 5.0 MS to 5.9 MS, and 8 from 6.0 Ms to 6.4 MS; the strongest aftershock measured 6.4 MS." The latest aftershock exceeding M6 occurred on August 5, 2008.
When did this earthquake occur?
56cdd10962d2951400fa689f
August 30, 2008
26
False
Where did this earthquake occur?
56cdd10962d2951400fa68a0
southern Sichuan
45
False
Why was it not included in the series?
56cdd10962d2951400fa68a1
because it was caused by a different fault.
90
False
Where should you look for more details?
56cdd10962d2951400fa68a2
2008 Panzhihua earthquake
138
False
Where was the August 30, 2008 quake?
56d507269d1b871400ae05ff
southern Sichuan
45
False
What was the magnitude of the southern Sichuan quake?
56d507269d1b871400ae0600
Ms 6.1
5
False
What earthquake happened in southern Sichuan?
56d507269d1b871400ae0602
Panzhihua earthquake
143
False
(The Ms 6.1 earthquake on August 30, 2008 in southern Sichuan was not part of this series because it was caused by a different fault. See 2008 Panzhihua earthquake for details.)
Who published the map of the earthquakes intensity?
56cdd21562d2951400fa68b0
CEA
45
False
What was the intensity scaled at?
56cdd21562d2951400fa68b2
XI
123
False
What does the China Seismic Intensity Scale call the earthquake?
56d5098a9d1b871400ae0607
very destructive
185
False
How did the USGS rate the earthquake?
56d5098a9d1b871400ae0608
very disastrous
371
False
What town was closest to the main epicenter?
56d5098a9d1b871400ae0609
Yingxiu, Wenchuan
456
False
The map of earthquake intensity published by CEA after surveying 500,000 km2 of the affected area shows a maximum liedu of XI on the China Seismic Intensity Scale (CSIS), described as "very destructive" on the European Macroseismic Scale (EMS) from which CSIS drew reference. (USGS, using the Modified Mercalli intensity scale (CC), also placed maximum intensity at XI, "very disastrous".) Two south-west-north-east stripes of liedu XI are centered around Yingxiu, Wenchuan (the town closest to the epicenter of the main quake) and Beichuan (the town repeatedly struck by strong aftershocks including one registering MS 6.1 on Aug 1, 2008), both in Sichuan Province, occupying a total of 2,419 km2. The Yingxiu liedu-XI zone is about 66 km long and 20 km wide along Wenchuan–Dujiangyan–Pengzhou; the Beichuan liedu-XI zone is about 82 km long and 15 km wide along An County–Beichuan–Pingwu. The area with liedu X (comparable to X on EMS, "destructive" and X on MM, "disastrous") spans 3,144 km2. The area affected by earthquakes exceeding liedu VI totals 440,442 km2, occupying an oval 936 km long and 596 km wide, spanning three provinces and one autonomous region.
Where is the Longmenshan Fault located?
56cdd4d762d2951400fa68cc
the eastern border of the Tibetan Plateau
45
False
What is the average slip in the Beichuan Fault?
56cdd4d762d2951400fa68cd
3.5 metres
329
False
How large was the slip 30 km northeast of the fault?
56cdd4d762d2951400fa68ce
3 metres
626
False
What was the vertical average slip on the Guanxian-Anxian fault?
56cdd4d762d2951400fa68cf
2 metres
703
False
What was the horizontal average slip on the Guanxian-Anxian fault?
56cdd4d762d2951400fa68d0
2.3 metres
737
False
Where is the Longmen shan fault located?
56d516439d1b871400ae0611
Tibetan Plateau
71
False
Where are the Beichuan and Guanxian-Anxian Faults?
56d516439d1b871400ae0612
Longmen Shan Fault System
4
False
What was the average vertical slip in the Beichaun Fault?
56d516439d1b871400ae0613
3.5 metres
329
False
What was the horizontal slippage in the Beichuan Fault at the epicenter?
56d516439d1b871400ae0614
3.5 metres
329
False
What was the horizontal slippage perpendicular to the fault?
56d516439d1b871400ae0615
4.8 metres
415
False
The Longmen Shan Fault System is situated in the eastern border of the Tibetan Plateau and contains several faults. This earthquake ruptured at least two imbricate structures in Longmen Shan Fault System, i.e. the Beichuan Fault and the Guanxian–Anxian Fault. In the epicentral area, the average slip in Beichuan Fault was about 3.5 metres (11 ft) vertical, 3.5 metres (11 ft) horizontal-parallel to the fault, and 4.8 metres (16 ft) horizontal-perpendicular to the fault. In the area about 30 kilometres (19 mi) northeast of the epicenter, the surface slip on Beichuan Fault was almost purely dextral strike-slip up to about 3 metres (9.8 ft), while the average slip in Guanxian–Anxian Fault was about 2 metres (6 ft 7 in) vertical and 2.3 metres (7 ft 7 in) horizontal.
Where were office buildings evacuated?
56cdd63a62d2951400fa68d6
Shanghai's financial district
20
False
How did a receptionist describe the atmosphere after the evacuation?
56cdd63a62d2951400fa68d7
calm
193
False
How long were workers in Ford Plant evacuated for?
56cdd63a62d2951400fa68d8
10 minutes
308
False
Which airport was shut down?
56cdd63a62d2951400fa68d9
Chengdu Shuangliu International Airport
320
False
When did the airport re-open?
56cdd63a62d2951400fa68da
May 12
691
False
What happened to office buildings in Shanghai?
56d5185a9d1b871400ae061b
evacuated
215
False
Which airport was shut down?
56d5185a9d1b871400ae061c
Chengdu Shuangliu International Airport
320
False
Why were flights delayed and diverted?
56d5185a9d1b871400ae061d
disruption in air traffic services
596
False
What were they using the airport to stage for?
56d5185a9d1b871400ae061f
relief operations
778
False
Office buildings in Shanghai's financial district, including the Jin Mao Tower and the Hong Kong New World Tower, were evacuated. A receptionist at the Tibet Hotel in Chengdu said things were "calm" after the hotel evacuated its guests. Meanwhile, workers at a Ford plant in Sichuan were evacuated for about 10 minutes. Chengdu Shuangliu International Airport was shut down, and the control tower and regional radar control evacuated. One SilkAir flight was diverted and landed in Kunming as a result. Cathay Pacific delayed both legs of its quadruple daily Hong Kong to London route due to this disruption in air traffic services. Chengdu Shuangliu Airport reopened later on the evening of May 12, offering limited service as the airport began to be used as a staging area for relief operations.
Where did the reporters say they saw cracks on walls of some buildings?
56cddec762d2951400fa692c
in Chengdu
10
False
Where were office towers evacuated?
56cddec762d2951400fa692d
Beijing
137
False
Where did a cargo train derail as a result?
56cddec762d2951400fa692e
Hui County, Gansu
375
False
What happened to the cargo train?
56cddec762d2951400fa692f
caught on fire
398
False
What was reported in Chengdu?
56d519a82593cc1400307a6b
cracks on walls
35
False
What was evacuated in Beijing?
56d519a82593cc1400307a6c
office towers
145
False
What part of the Olympic area was not damaged?
56d519a82593cc1400307a6d
venues
292
False
Where did a cargo train derail?
56d519a82593cc1400307a6e
Hui County, Gansu
375
False
Why did the train catch fire?
56d519a82593cc1400307a6f
rail was distorted
423
False
Reporters in Chengdu said they saw cracks on walls of some residential buildings in the downtown areas, but no buildings collapsed. Many Beijing office towers were evacuated, including the building housing the media offices for the organizers of the 2008 Summer Olympics. None of the Olympic venues were damaged. Meanwhile, a cargo train carrying 13 petrol tanks derailed in Hui County, Gansu, and caught on fire after the rail was distorted.
How many highways leading into Wenchuan were damaged?
56cddf9e62d2951400fa6934
All of the highways
0
False
What percentage of building collapsed in Beichuan?
56cddf9e62d2951400fa6936
80%
156
False
Where did two chemical plants collapse?
56cddf9e62d2951400fa6937
Dujiangyan
379
False
How many students out of the 900 in the school, survived the collapse?
56cddf9e62d2951400fa6938
60
485
False
What highways into Wenchuan  were damaged?
56d51b832593cc1400307a75
All of the highways
0
False
What did the damaged roadways cause to the rescue operations?
56d51b832593cc1400307a76
delayed arrival
98
False
How many of the buildings in Beichuan collapsed?
56d51b832593cc1400307a77
80%
156
False
What leaked liquid ammonia in Shifang?
56d51b832593cc1400307a78
two chemical plants
253
False
How many of the 900 students buried in a Dujiangyan school collapse survived?
56d51b832593cc1400307a79
fewer than 60
474
False
All of the highways into Wenchuan, and others throughout the province, were damaged, resulting in delayed arrival of the rescue troops. In Beichuan County, 80% of the buildings collapsed according to Xinhua News. In the city of Shifang, the collapse of two chemical plants led to leakage of some 80 tons of liquid ammonia, with hundreds of people reported buried. In the city of Dujiangyan, south-east of the epicenter, a whole school collapsed with 900 students buried and fewer than 60 survived. The Juyuan Middle School, where many teenagers were buried, was excavated by civilians and cranes. Dujiangyan is home of the Dujiangyan Irrigation System, an ancient water diversion project which is still in use and is a UNESCO World Heritage Site. The project's famous Fish Mouth was cracked but not severely damaged otherwise.
Where were the exchanges based?
56cddfff62d2951400fa693f
southwestern China
105
False
What metal rose in value?
56cddfff62d2951400fa6940
Copper
125
False
What natural resource dropped in value?
56cddfff62d2951400fa6941
oil
214
False
What did the Shanghai Stock Exchange do?
56d51d272593cc1400307a7f
suspended trading
65
False
Where were companies located that had their stock trading suspended?
56d51d272593cc1400307a80
southwestern China
105
False
What metal rose due to speculation?
56d51d272593cc1400307a81
Copper
125
False
Besides the Shanghai Stock Exchange, what other exchange suspended trading of southwestern China stock?
56d51d272593cc1400307a83
Shenzhen Stock Exchange
41
False
Both the Shanghai Stock Exchange and the Shenzhen Stock Exchange suspended trading of companies based in southwestern China. Copper rose over speculations that production in southwestern China may be affected, and oil prices dropped over speculations that demand from China would fall.
What kinds of telecommunications were cut?
56cde07662d2951400fa6946
mobile and terrestrial
40
False
What capabilities were cut to the entire Sichuan area?
56cde07662d2951400fa6947
internet
138
False
How long did it take for these capabilities to be restored?
56cde07662d2951400fa6948
months
291
False
What was cut after the earthquake?
56d51ea52593cc1400307a89
telecommunications
63
False
Where were the internet cut?
56d51ea52593cc1400307a8a
Sichuan area
171
False
Who restored communications over a period of months?
56d51ea52593cc1400307a8b
the government
237
False
What internet services were decreased in the area?
56d51ea52593cc1400307a8c
news and media websites
390
False
What services were finally online again?
56d51ea52593cc1400307a8d
major news and media
384
False
Immediately after the earthquake event, mobile and terrestrial telecommunications were cut to the affected and surrounding area, with all internet capabilities cut to the Sichuan area too. Elements of telecommunications were restored by the government piece by piece over the next number of months as the situation in the Sichuan province gradually improved. Eventually, a handful of major news and media websites were made accessible online in the region, albeit with dramatically pared back webpages.
How many base stations did China Mobile have suspended?
56cde11f62d2951400fa694c
2,300
27
False
How many Unicom towers were suspended?
56cde11f62d2951400fa694f
more than 700
278
False
How many China Mobile base stations stopped working?
56d5202a2593cc1400307a93
2,300
27
False
Besides power disruption, what caused telecommunications to be suspended?
56d5202a2593cc1400307a94
traffic congestion
109
False
How many wireless communications failed in Sichuan?
56d5202a2593cc1400307a95
Half
129
False
Whose service in Wenchuan was cut off?
56d5202a2593cc1400307a96
China Unicom
200
False
How many of China Unicom's towers were cut?
56d5202a2593cc1400307a97
700
288
False
China Mobile had more than 2,300 base stations suspended due to power disruption or severe telecommunication traffic congestion. Half of the wireless communications were lost in the Sichuan province. China Unicom's service in Wenchuan and four nearby counties was cut off, with more than 700 towers suspended.
What place could officials not contact?
56cde1f462d2951400fa695e
the Wolong National Nature Reserve
44
False
How many pandas live at the Reserve?
56cde1f462d2951400fa695f
around 280
88
False
How many British visitors to the Reserve left unharmed?
56cde1f462d2951400fa6960
31
170
False
How many pandas were injured?
56cde1f462d2951400fa6961
2
95
False
What nature center was cutoff?
56d521ee2593cc1400307a9d
Wolong National Nature Reserve
48
False
How many pandas escaped the reserve?
56d521ee2593cc1400307a9f
Six
470
False
How many security guards died at the reserve?
56d521ee2593cc1400307aa0
five
834
False
What famous panda was killed under the rubble?
56d521ee2593cc1400307aa1
Mao Mao
813
False
Initially, officials were unable to contact the Wolong National Nature Reserve, home to around 280 giant pandas. However, the Foreign Ministry later said that a group of 31 British tourists visiting the Wolong Panda Reserve in the quake-hit area returned safe and uninjured to Chengdu. Nonetheless, the well-being of an even greater number of pandas in the neighbouring panda reserves remained unknown. Five security guards at the reserve were killed by the earthquake. Six pandas escaped after their enclosures were damaged. By May 20, two pandas at the reserve were found to be injured, while the search continued for another two adult pandas that went missing after the quake. By May 28, 2008, one panda was still missing. The missing panda was later found dead under the rubble of an enclosure. Nine-year-old Mao Mao, a mother of five at the breeding center, was discovered on Monday, her body crushed by a wall in her enclosure. Panda keepers and other workers placed her remains in a small wooden crate and buried her outside the breeding centre.
What power plant was damaged?
56cde29b62d2951400fa6968
Hydropower Plant
13
False
How far away was the plant located from the epicenter?
56cde29b62d2951400fa6969
20 km east
94
False
How many troops were allocated to Zipingpu?
56cde29b62d2951400fa696b
2,000
327
False
How many dams were damaged?
56cde29b62d2951400fa696c
391
432
False
What power plant was damaged by the earthquake?
56d523bd2593cc1400307aa7
Zipingpu Hydropower Plant
4
False
How near to the epicenter was the power plant?
56d523bd2593cc1400307aa8
20 km
94
False
What has a recent inspection found about the damage to the power plant?
56d523bd2593cc1400307aa9
less severe
185
False
What might possibly collapse upstream from the power plant?
56d523bd2593cc1400307aaa
Tulong reservoir
269
False
What is the total number of dams damaged?
56d523bd2593cc1400307aab
391
432
False
The Zipingpu Hydropower Plant (simplified Chinese: 紫坪铺水库; traditional Chinese: 紫坪鋪水庫) located 20 km east of the epicenter was damaged. A recent inspection indicated that the damage was less severe than initially feared, and it remains structurally stable and safe. The Tulong reservoir upstream is in danger of collapse. About 2,000 troops have been allocated to Zipingpu, trying to release the pressure through spillway. In total, 391 dams, most of them small, were reported damaged by the quake.
How many deaths were reported?
56cde34662d2951400fa6972
69,180
55
False
How many deaths were reported only in the Sichuan province?
56cde34662d2951400fa6973
68,636
85
False
How many people were listed as missing?
56cde34662d2951400fa6974
18,498
113
False
How many people were injured?
56cde34662d2951400fa6975
374,176
154
False
How many earthquake relief workers were killed?
56cde34662d2951400fa6976
158
270
False
How many died in Sichuan?
56d525192593cc1400307ab1
68,636
85
False
What is the total tally of known deaths caused by the earthquake?
56d525192593cc1400307ab2
69,180
55
False
What is the number of missing persons?
56d525192593cc1400307ab3
18,498
113
False
How many people were injured?
56d525192593cc1400307ab4
374,176
154
False
What were the 158 relief workers doing when they were killed?
56d525192593cc1400307ab5
tried to repair roads
338
False
According to Chinese state officials, the quake caused 69,180 known deaths including 68,636 in Sichuan province; 18,498 people are listed as missing, and 374,176 injured, but these figures may further increase as more reports come in.[dated info] This estimate includes 158 earthquake relief workers who were killed in landslides as they tried to repair roads.
How many survivors were there from Yingxiu?
56ceb9c4aab44d1400b8892b
2,300
30
False
Where is Yingxiu located?
56ceb9c4aab44d1400b8892c
in Wenchuan
71
False
How many people in total lived in Yingxiu?
56ceb9c4aab44d1400b8892d
9,000
126
False
How many people were killed in Beichuan County?
56ceb9c4aab44d1400b8892e
3,000 to 5,000
133
False
How many people were injured in Beichuan County?
56ceb9c4aab44d1400b8892f
10,000
224
False
How many survivors were there in the town of Yingxiu?
56d5307f2593cc1400307abb
2,300
30
False
What was the previous population of Yingxiu?
56d5307f2593cc1400307abc
about 9,000
120
False
How many residents were killed in Beichuan County?
56d5307f2593cc1400307abd
3,000 to 5,000
133
False
How large was the number of injured in Beichuan County?
56d5307f2593cc1400307abe
10,000
224
False
What is the number of schools that collapsed in Dujiangyan?
56d5307f2593cc1400307abf
Eight schools
395
False
One rescue team reported only 2,300 survivors from the town of Yingxiu in Wenchuan County, out of a total population of about 9,000. 3,000 to 5,000 people were killed in Beichuan County, Sichuan alone; in the same location, 10,000 people were injured and 80% of the buildings were destroyed. The old county seat of Beichuan was abandoned and preserved as part of the Beichuan Earthquake Museum. Eight schools were toppled in Dujiangyan. A 56-year-old was killed in Dujiangyan during a rescue attempt on the Lingyanshan Ropeway, where due to the earthquake 11 tourists from Taiwan had been trapped inside cable cars since May 13. A 4-year-old boy named Zhu Shaowei (traditional Chinese: 朱紹維; simplified Chinese: 朱绍维; pinyin: Zhū Shàowéi) was also killed in Mianzhu City when a house collapsed on him and another was reported missing.
What is poor about inland areas such as Sichuan?
56ceba72aab44d1400b88935
Health care
122
False
Who was the Vice Minister of Health?
56ceba72aab44d1400b88936
Gao Qiang
292
False
What did Gao Qiang tell reporters in Beijing?
56ceba72aab44d1400b88937
public health care system in China is insufficient
338
False
How economically forward has this area been?
56d5324d2593cc1400307ac5
neglected and untouched
72
False
Where is health care poor in China?
56d5324d2593cc1400307ac6
inland areas
145
False
What did the Vice Minster of Health call the public health system in China?
56d5324d2593cc1400307ac7
insufficient
376
False
What should the government of China be responsible for providing to earthquake survivors?
56d5324d2593cc1400307ac9
medical treatment
603
False
Experts point out that the earthquake hit an area that has been largely neglected and untouched by China's economic rise. Health care is poor in inland areas such as Sichuan, highlighting the widening gap between prosperous urban dwellers and struggling rural people. Vice Minister of Health Gao Qiang told reporters in Beijing that the "public health care system in China is insufficient." The Vice Minister of Health also suggested that the government would pick up the costs of care to earthquake victims, many of whom have little or no insurance: "The government should be responsible for providing medical treatment to them," he said.
How many school children died due to shoddy construction?
56cebae8aab44d1400b8893d
thousands
31
False
How many schools collapsed in Mianyang City?
56cebae8aab44d1400b8893e
seven
111
False
How many people were buried in the collapsed schools?
56cebae8aab44d1400b8893f
1,700
153
False
How many school buildings collapsed in the province?
56cebae8aab44d1400b88940
7,000
176
False
How many students were buried in a school in Hanwang?
56cebae8aab44d1400b88941
700
155
False
What caused the deaths of many school children?
56d533a52593cc1400307acf
shoddy construction
72
False
How many schools collapsed in Mianyang City
56d533a52593cc1400307ad0
seven
111
False
How many people were buried under rubble in Mianyang City?
56d533a52593cc1400307ad1
1,700
153
False
How many school buildings fell in the entire province?
56d533a52593cc1400307ad2
7,000
176
False
How many were killed at the Juyuan Elementary School?
56d533a52593cc1400307ad3
600
300
False
In terms of school casualties, thousands of school children died due to shoddy construction. In Mianyang City, seven schools collapsed, burying at least 1,700 people. At least 7,000 school buildings throughout the province collapsed. Another 700 students were buried in a school in Hanwang. At least 600 students and staff died at Juyuan Elementary School. Up to 1,300 children and teachers died at Beichuan Middle School.
When did an investigation occur under school casualties?
56cebb71aab44d1400b88951
December 2008
81
False
When was the official tally of students killed in the earthquake released?
56cebb71aab44d1400b88952
May 7, 2009
300
False
How many students were killed in Xinhua?
56cebb71aab44d1400b88953
5,335
418
False
How many students were disabled in Xinhua?
56cebb71aab44d1400b88954
546
450
False
What date were the official numbers of students killed in the earthquake released?
56d5357b2593cc1400307ad9
May 7, 2009
300
False
Who kept a blog about the school deaths?
56d5357b2593cc1400307ada
Ai Weiwei
140
False
What is the total of school children killed?
56d5357b2593cc1400307adb
5,335
418
False
How many children are disabled?
56d5357b2593cc1400307adc
546
450
False
Where did the Chinese government decide that parents who had lost children could go for free treatment?
56d5357b2593cc1400307add
fertility clinics
617
False
Details of school casualties had been under non-governmental investigation since December 2008 by volunteers including artist and architect Ai Weiwei, who had been constantly posting updates on his blog since March 2009. The official tally of students killed in the earthquake was not released until May 7, 2009, almost a year after the earthquake. According to the state-run Xinhua news agency, the earthquake killed 5,335 students and left another 546 children disabled. In the aftermath of the earthquake, the Chinese government declared that parents who had lost their only children would get free treatment from fertility clinics to reverse vasectomies and tubal ligations conducted by family planning authorities.
How many people were left without housing?
56cebbdeaab44d1400b88959
5 million
29
False
How many people could be potentially without housing?
56cebbdeaab44d1400b8895a
11 million
103
False
How many animals were killed?
56cebbdeaab44d1400b8895b
12.5 million
208
False
How many pigs died in Sichuan?
56cebbdeaab44d1400b8895c
1 million
104
False
Because of the earthquake, how many people did not have housing?
56d5372f2593cc1400307ae3
at least 5 million
20
False
How many people might actually be homeless?
56d5372f2593cc1400307ae4
11 million
103
False
How much livestock was lost?
56d5372f2593cc1400307ae5
12.5 million animals
208
False
How many pigs died from the earthquake in Sichuan ?
56d5372f2593cc1400307ae6
a million
268
False
The earthquake left at least 5 million people without housing, although the number could be as high as 11 million. Millions of livestock and a significant amount of agriculture were also destroyed, including 12.5 million animals, mainly birds. In the Sichuan province a million pigs died out of 60 million total. Catastrophe modeling firm AIR Worldwide reported official estimates of insurers' losses at US$1 billion from the earthquake; estimated total damages exceed US$20 billion. It values Chengdu, at the time having an urban population of 4.5 million people, at around US$115 billion, with only a small portion covered by insurance.
Who was a professor of civil and environmental engineering at Georgia Tech?
56cebcb4aab44d1400b88963
Reginald DesRoches
0
False
What is the profession of Reginald DesRoches?
56d538bc2593cc1400307aed
professor of civil and environmental engineering
22
False
When did China create a seismic design code for building?
56d538bc2593cc1400307aee
1976
265
False
What catastrophe inspired them to make a building design code/
56d538bc2593cc1400307aef
Tangshan earthquake
270
False
Reginald DesRoches, a professor of civil and environmental engineering at Georgia Tech, pointed out that the massive damage of properties and houses in the earthquake area was because China did not create an adequate seismic design code until after the devastating 1976 Tangshan earthquake. DesRoches said: "If the buildings were older and built prior to that 1976 earthquake, chances are they weren't built for adequate earthquake forces."
What happened days following the disaster?
56cebd0faab44d1400b88971
an international reconnaissance team of engineers was dispatched to the region
36
False
What did the team of engineers do?
56cebd0faab44d1400b88972
make a detailed preliminary survey of damaged buildings
118
False
What did their findings show?
56cebd0faab44d1400b88973
a variety of reasons why many constructions failed to withstand the earthquake.
195
False
After the quake what kind of international team was sent to the area?
56d53a0e2593cc1400307af5
team of engineers
68
False
What was the team sent to China to make?
56d53a0e2593cc1400307af6
survey of damaged buildings
146
False
What kind of reasons do their findings show?
56d53a0e2593cc1400307af7
variety of reasons
197
False
In the days following the disaster, an international reconnaissance team of engineers was dispatched to the region to make a detailed preliminary survey of damaged buildings. Their findings show a variety of reasons why many constructions failed to withstand the earthquake.
What areas were the hardest hit?
56cebd8aaab44d1400b88977
the poorer, rural villages
27
False
Who was an assistant professor of civil engineering and geophysics at the California Institute of Technology?
56cebd8aaab44d1400b88978
Swaminathan Krishnan
72
False
What part of China did the earthquake occur in?
56d53bf82593cc1400307afd
rural part
230
False
What did Swaminathan Krishnan mean when he said the buildings were just built?
56d53bf82593cc1400307afe
not designed
312
False
What manner of building codes are there in China?
56d53bf82593cc1400307aff
very strong
387
False
What were many of these old buildings built without?
56d53bf82593cc1400307b01
regulations
579
False
News reports indicate that the poorer, rural villages were hardest hit. Swaminathan Krishnan, assistant professor of civil engineering and geophysics at the California Institute of Technology said: "the earthquake occurred in the rural part of China. Presumably, many of the buildings were just built; they were not designed, so to speak." Swaminathan Krishnan further added: "There are very strong building codes in China, which take care of earthquake issues and seismic design issues. But many of these buildings presumably were quite old and probably were not built with any regulations overseeing them."
What is an estimate of the economic loss from the quake?
56cebdd0aab44d1400b8897f
$75 billion
143
False
What damage did the major Sichuan cities have?
56d53d9a2593cc1400307b07
minor damage
60
False
What is an estimate of losses to economics?
56d53d9a2593cc1400307b08
US$75 billion
141
False
Whose is this one of the costliest disasters in history of?
56d53d9a2593cc1400307b09
Chinese history
220
False
Which cities in Sichuan had minor damage?
56d53d9a2593cc1400307b0a
five largest cities
14
False
Even with the five largest cities in Sichuan suffering only minor damage from the quake, some estimates of the economic loss run higher than US$75 billion, making the earthquake one of the costliest natural disasters in Chinese history.
How many buildings collapsed as a result of the May 27th aftershocks?
56cebe75aab44d1400b88985
420,000
431
False
How strong was the May 25 aftershock in Qingchuan county?
56d540072593cc1400307b0f
6.0 Mw
101
False
How many people were injured in the May 25 aftershock?
56d540072593cc1400307b10
1000
240
False
How many homes were destroyed because of the May 27 aftershocks?
56d540072593cc1400307b11
more than 420,000
421
False
During the May 27 aftershock, how many people were injured?
56d540072593cc1400307b12
63
457
False
Where was the aftershock of August 5 that caused widespread hill slides?
56d540072593cc1400307b13
Qingchuan, Sichuan
1123
False
Strong aftershocks continued to strike even months after the main quake. On May 25, an aftershock of 6.0 Mw (6.4 Ms according to CEA) hit northeast of the original earthquake's epicenter, in Qingchuan County, Sichuan, causing eight deaths, 1000 injuries, and destroying thousands of buildings. On May 27, two aftershocks, one 5.2 Mw in Qingchuan County and one 5.7 Mw in Ningqiang County, Shaanxi, led to the collapse of more than 420,000 homes and injured 63 people. The same area suffered two more aftershocks of 5.6 and 6.0 Ms (5.8 and 5.5 Mw, respectively, according to USGS) on July 23, resulting in 1 death, 6 serious injuries, collapse of hundreds of homes and damaging kilometers of highways. Pingwu County and Beichuan County, Sichuan, also northeast of Wenchuan and close to the epicenter of a 7.2 Ms earthquake in 1976, suffered a 6.1 Ms aftershock (5.7 Mw according to USGS) on August 1; it caused 2 deaths, 345 injuries, collapse of 707 homes, damages to over 1,000 homes, and blocked 25 kilometres (16 mi) of country roads. As late as August 5, yet another aftershock of 6.1 Ms (6.2 Mw according to USGS) hit Qingchuan, Sichuan, causing 1 death, 32 injuries, telecommunication interruptions, and widespread hill slides blocking roads in the area including a national highway.
Who was the executive vice governor?
56cebef6aab44d1400b88997
Wei Hong
24
False
How many homes were rebuilt?
56cebef6aab44d1400b88999
200,000
157
False
How many homes were left without permanent shelter?
56cebef6aab44d1400b8899a
1.94 million
232
False
How many schools were reconstructed?
56cebef6aab44d1400b8899b
1,300
294
False
Who spoke about the dead and missing people on November 21, 2008?
56d548552593cc1400307b19
Wei Hong
24
False
How many people did Wei Hong say were dead or missing?
56d548552593cc1400307b1a
90,000
79
False
How many homes had been rebuilt?
56d548552593cc1400307b1b
200,000
157
False
How many houses were still under construction?
56d548552593cc1400307b1c
685,000
193
False
How many families were still without permanent homes?
56d548552593cc1400307b1d
1.94 million
232
False
Executive vice governor Wei Hong confirmed on November 21, 2008 that more than 90,000 people in total were dead or missing in the earthquake. He stated that 200,000 homes had been rebuilt, and 685,000 were under reconstruction, but 1.94 million households were still without permanent shelter. 1,300 schools had been reconstructed, with initial relocation of 25 townships, including Beichuan and Wenchuan, two of the most devastated areas. The government spent $441 billion on relief and reconstruction efforts.
Who flew to the earthquake area 90 minutes after it hit?
56cebf6aaab44d1400b889a1
Premier Wen Jiabao
133
False
What was Premier Wen Jiabao's background in?
56cebf6aaab44d1400b889a2
geomechanics
187
False
What did Jiabao oversee in the region?
56cebf6aaab44d1400b889a3
the rescue work
240
False
How many troops were dispatched by the Chengdu military?
56cebf6aaab44d1400b889a4
50,000
430
False
How soon after the earthquake was Premier Wen Jiabao on his way to the area?
56d54a582593cc1400307b23
90 minutes after
100
False
How many medical teams were sent to Wenchuan county?
56d54a582593cc1400307b25
ten
318
False
How many troops were sent to the area for relief work?
56d54a582593cc1400307b26
50,000
430
False
Besides the rough terrain, why was it difficult to get to the area?
56d54a582593cc1400307b27
proximity of the quake's epicenter
559
False
General Secretary and President Hu Jintao announced that the disaster response would be rapid. Just 90 minutes after the earthquake, Premier Wen Jiabao, who has an academic background in geomechanics, flew to the earthquake area to oversee the rescue work. Soon afterward, the Ministry of Health said that it had sent ten emergency medical teams to Wenchuan County. On the same day, the Chengdu Military Region Command dispatched 50,000 troops and armed police to help with disaster relief work in Wenchuan County. However, due to the rough terrain and close proximity of the quake's epicenter, the soldiers found it very difficult to get help to the rural regions of the province.
What did the National Disaster Relief Commission initiate?
56cebfcaaab44d1400b889a9
Level II emergency contingency plan
53
False
What does a Level II emergency contingency plan cover?
56cebfcaaab44d1400b889aa
the most serious class of natural disasters
104
False
When did the plan rise to Level I?
56cebfcaaab44d1400b889ab
at 22:15 CST, May 12
174
False
What level alert was instated for the quake?
56d54bc82593cc1400307b2d
Level II emergency
53
False
What class of disasters is a level II emergency?
56d54bc82593cc1400307b2e
most serious
108
False
What level was the disaster set at 22:15 CST, May 12?
56d54bc82593cc1400307b2f
Level II
53
False
What department initiated the emergency contingency plan?
56d54bc82593cc1400307b30
National Disaster Relief Commission
4
False
The National Disaster Relief Commission initiated a "Level II emergency contingency plan", which covers the most serious class of natural disasters. The plan rose to Level I at 22:15 CST, May 12.
How many people were in the earthquake emergency relief team?
56cec033aab44d1400b889af
184
39
False
How many of the relief team were from the State Seismological Bureau?
56cec033aab44d1400b889b0
12
65
False
How many of the team were from the military?
56cec033aab44d1400b889b1
150
112
False
How many of the team were from the police?
56cec033aab44d1400b889b2
22
160
False
What kind of team left Beijing to go to Wenchuan?
56d5d41b1c85041400946e0c
earthquake emergency relief
3
False
How many people comprised the relief team?
56d5d41b1c85041400946e0d
184
39
False
How many soldiers were from the Beijing Military?
56d5d41b1c85041400946e0e
150
112
False
Where did 22 of the relief team come from?
56d5d41b1c85041400946e0f
Armed Police General Hospital
172
False
How did the relief team travel to Wenchuan county?
56d5d41b1c85041400946e10
in two military transport planes
249
False
An earthquake emergency relief team of 184 people (consisting of 12 people from the State Seismological Bureau, 150 from the Beijing Military Area Command, and 22 from the Armed Police General Hospital) left Beijing from Nanyuan Airport late May 12 in two military transport planes to travel to Wenchuan County.
What did the China Digital Times report?
56cec11faab44d1400b889c7
a close analysis by an alleged Chinese construction engineer
46
False
Who was the construction engineer known as?
56cec11faab44d1400b889c8
Book Blade
124
False
Where was an article reported about the scandal?
56d64d231c85041400947089
China Digital Times
7
False
What was the name of the person who published a report in the China Digital Times?
56d64d231c8504140094708b
Book Blade
124
False
In the China Digital Times an article reports a close analysis by an alleged Chinese construction engineer known online as “Book Blade” (书剑子), who stated:
What was June 1, 2008 called?
56cec174aab44d1400b889cb
Children's Day
3
False
Where were most of the surviving children?
56cec174aab44d1400b889cd
living in relief centres
145
False
What did these children do on that day?
56cec174aab44d1400b889ce
performed ceremonies
171
False
Where did parents go to mourn their children?
56d64dca1c8504140094708f
rubble of schools
58
False
When is Children's Day?
56d64dca1c85041400947090
June 1
19
False
Where were surviving children living?
56d64dca1c85041400947091
in relief centres
152
False
On Children's Day, June 1, 2008, many parents went to the rubble of schools to mourn for their children. The surviving children, who were mostly living in relief centres, performed ceremonies marking the special day, but also acknowledging the earthquake.
How much did central state-owned enterprises donate?
56cec1ffaab44d1400b889dd
more than $48.6 million
60
False
How much did China National Petroleum Corp and Sinopec donate?
56cec1ffaab44d1400b889de
10 million yuan
135
False
How much have Central state enterprises donated?
56d6647b1c850414009470ed
48.6 million
71
False
How much did China National Petroleum and Sinopec donate?
56d6647b1c850414009470ee
10 million yuan each
135
False
Central State-owned enterprises have accumulatively donated more than $48.6 million. China National Petroleum Corp and Sinopec donated 10 million yuan each to the disaster area.
How much did China receive in donated money and goods?
56cec2a1aab44d1400b889e1
$457 million
44
False
How many countries donated?
56cec2a1aab44d1400b889e2
19 countries
138
False
How many international organizations donated?
56cec2a1aab44d1400b889e3
four
155
False
What country was the largest aid donor to China?
56cec2a1aab44d1400b889e4
Saudi Arabia
189
False
How much financial assistance did Saudi Arabia give China?
56cec2a1aab44d1400b889e5
€40,000,000
257
False
How much money was donated from foreign sources?
56d6696d1c850414009470fb
83 million
122
False
What country was the largest aid donor to China?
56d6696d1c850414009470fc
Saudi Arabia
189
False
How many international organizations made donations?
56d6696d1c850414009470fe
four
155
False
On May 16 China stated it had also received $457 million in donated money and goods for rescue efforts so far, including $83 million from 19 countries and four international organizations. Saudi Arabia was the largest aid donor to China, providing close to €40,000,000 in financial assistance, and an additional €8,000,000 worth of relief materials.
What did the State Council establish in 2008?
56cec34faab44d1400b889f9
a counterpart support plan
35
False
How long did the plan last?
56cec34faab44d1400b889fb
3 years
243
False
What did the state council set up in 2008?
56d66f3e1c85041400947115
counterpart support plan
37
False
What is the basis for this plan?
56d66f3e1c85041400947117
one province to one affected county
182
False
How long is the plan due to last?
56d66f3e1c85041400947118
3 years
243
False
What is the cost per province's budget?
56d66f3e1c85041400947119
one percent
274
False
In 2008, State Council established a counterpart support plan (《汶川地震灾后恢复重建对口支援方案》). The plan is to arrange 19 eastern and central province and municipalitie to help 18 counties, on "one province to one affected county" basis. The plan spanned 3 years, and cost no less than one percent of the province or municipality's budget.
What was concluded about the construction?
56cec3e8aab44d1400b88a02
that the sudden shift of a huge quantity of water into the region could have relaxed the tension between the two sides of the fault, allowing them to move apart, and could have increased the direct pressure on it, causing a violent rupture
187
False
What structure did an article contemplate could have caused the quake?
56d677f31c85041400947143
Zipingpu Dam
73
False
What was the affect of the dam on the stresses in that area?
56d677f31c85041400947144
25 times more
444
False
Who disregarded warnings about dams in the area?
56d677f31c85041400947145
The government
521
False
What type of area is Sichuan?
56d677f31c85041400947146
seismically active
605
False
What have researchers been denied?
56d677f31c85041400947147
access to seismological and geological data
659
False
An article in Science suggested that the construction and filling of the Zipingpu Dam may have triggered the earthquake. The chief engineer of the Sichuan Geology and Mineral Bureau said that the sudden shift of a huge quantity of water into the region could have relaxed the tension between the two sides of the fault, allowing them to move apart, and could have increased the direct pressure on it, causing a violent rupture. The effect was "25 times more" than a year's worth of natural stress from tectonic movement. The government had disregarded warnings about so many large-scale dam projects in a seismically active area. Researchers have been denied access to seismological and geological data to examine the cause of the quake further.
What did the earthquake allow?
56cec484aab44d1400b88a07
opportunities for researchers to retrofit data in order to model future earthquake predictions
29
False
What did the professors predict?
56cec484aab44d1400b88a09
the time of the 2008 Sichuan earthquake
530
False
What did they try to establish?
56d675ed1c8504140094713c
time prediction method
372
False
What did they collect to use in this method?
56d675ed1c8504140094713d
statistics
415
False
The earthquake also provided opportunities for researchers to retrofit data in order to model future earthquake predictions. Using data from the Intermagnet Lanzhou geomagnetic observatory, geologists Lazo Pekevski from the Ss. Cyril and Methodius University of Skopje in Macedonia and Strachimir Mavrodiev from the Bulgarian Academy of Sciences attempted to establish a "time prediction method" through collecting statistics on geomagnetism with tidal gravitational potential. Using this method, they were said to have predicted the time of the 2008 Sichuan earthquake with an accuracy of ±1 day. The same study, however, acknowledges the limitation of earthquake prediction models, and does not mention that the location of the quake could be accurately predicted.
What was stated in the press conference?
56cec4d0aab44d1400b88a0f
that earthquake prediction was a global issue
192
False
What do many geologists believe about earthquake prediction?
56d674591c85041400947133
no proven methods exist
257
False
What kind of issue is earthquake prediction?
56d674591c85041400947134
a global issue
223
False
What was received before the quake occurred?
56d674591c85041400947135
no prediction notification
291
False
What did  seismologist Gary Gibson have to say about the prediction of the quake?
56d674591c85041400947136
did not see anything
455
False
In a press conference held by the State Council Information Office the day after the earthquake, geologist Zhang Xiaodong, deputy director of CEA's Seismic Monitoring Network Center, restated that earthquake prediction was a global issue, in the sense that no proven methods exist, and that no prediction notification was received before the earthquake. Seismologist Gary Gibson of Monash University in Australia told Deutsche Presse-Agentur that he also did not see anything that could be regarded as having 'predicted' the earthquake's occurrence.
When was a Seismic Risk Analysis published?
56cec548aab44d1400b88a13
In 2002
0
False
Who published the Seismic Risk Analysis?
56cec548aab44d1400b88a14
Chen Xuezhong
27
False
Who published a Seismic Risk Analysis Study?
56d672d21c85041400947129
Chen Xuezhong
27
False
In what year did Chen Xuezhong publish an earthquake study?
56d672d21c8504140094712a
2002
3
False
What strength did he predict the next quake in Sichuan to be?
56d672d21c8504140094712c
over 7.0
223
False
In 2002, Chinese geologist Chen Xuezhong published a Seismic Risk Analysis study in which he came to the conclusion that beginning with 2003, attention should be paid to the possibility of an earthquake with a magnitude of over 7.0 occurring in Sichuan region. He based his study on statistical correlation. That Sichuan is a seismically active area has been discussed for years prior to the quake, though few studies point to a specific date and time.
How long had it been since an earthquake of similar magnitude?
56cec5d1aab44d1400b88a23
over 30 years
59
False
How long since the Sichuan area has had  a severe quake?
56d6713f1c8504140094711f
30 years
64
False
Does the scientific community agree that earthquake prediction is possible?
56d6713f1c85041400947120
no consensus
404
False
People wanted to know if the study of what math could produce better predictions?
56d6713f1c85041400947122
statistics
244
False
What is not an established science?
56d6713f1c85041400947123
Earthquake prediction
340
False
The earthquake was the worst to strike the Sichuan area in over 30 years. Following the quake, experts and the general public sought information on whether or not the earthquake could have been predicted in advance, and whether or not studying statistics related to the quake could result in better prediction of earthquakes in the future. Earthquake prediction is not yet established science; there was no consensus within the scientific community that earthquake "prediction" is possible.
What department was ready to join the rescue effort by Wednesday?
56cec6e9aab44d1400b88a29
the Taipei Fire Department
37
False
How many Tibetan villagers were stranded?
56cec6e9aab44d1400b88a2d
over 300
1025
False
What was the reason that many rescue teams could not join the relief efforts?
56d5db271c85041400946e40
the traffic problem
257
False
What action did the Red Cross recommend ?
56d5db271c85041400946e41
donating cash
474
False
What problem continued to stop rescue teams from reaching affected areas?
56d5db271c85041400946e42
landslides
619
False
Where were the soldiers under commander Yang Wenyao trying to go?
56d5db271c85041400946e43
Tibetan village of Sier
866
False
Many rescue teams, including that of the Taipei Fire Department from Taiwan, were reported ready to join the rescue effort in Sichuan as early as Wednesday. However, the Red Cross Society of China said that (on May 13) "it was inconvenient currently due to the traffic problem to the hardest hit areas closest to the epicenter." The Red Cross Society of China also stated that the disaster areas need tents, medical supplies, drinking water and food; however it recommended donating cash instead of other items, as it had not been possible to reach roads that were completely damaged or places that were blocked off by landslides. Landslides continuously threatened the progress of a search and rescue group of 80 men, each carrying about 40 kg of relief supplies, from a motorized infantry brigade under commander Yang Wenyao, as they tried to reach the ethnically Tibetan village of Sier at a height of 4000 m above sea level in Pingwu county. The extreme terrain conditions precluded the use of helicopter evacuation, and over 300 of the Tibetan villagers were stranded in their demolished village for five days without food and water before the rescue group finally arrived to help the injured and stranded villagers down the mountain.
What natural disasters were occurring in Wenchuan County?
56cec79caab44d1400b88a33
landslides
26
False
How many helicopters were deployed?
56cec79caab44d1400b88a34
20
152
False
How many militia reservists joined in on rescue efforts?
56cec79caab44d1400b88a35
15,600
356
False
How many survivors were found?
56cec79caab44d1400b88a36
around 3,000
540
False
How many troops parachuted into Mao County?
56cec79caab44d1400b88a37
15
356
False
What were the biggest difficulties in reaching affected areas?
56d5ecf21c85041400946e5a
heavy rain and landslides
11
False
How many helicopters were sent to deliver aid to the affected areas?
56d5ecf21c85041400946e5b
20
152
False
By May 13, how many troops had been added to the rescue efforts?
56d5ecf21c85041400946e5c
15,600
356
False
How people were reported to be survivors in Yingxiu Town?
56d5ecf21c85041400946e5d
around 3,000
540
False
How many persons were still unaccounted for in Yingxiu?
56d5ecf21c85041400946e5e
around 9,000
618
False
Persistent heavy rain and landslides in Wenchuan County and the nearby area badly affected rescue efforts. At the start of rescue operations on May 12, 20 helicopters were deployed for the delivery of food, water, and emergency aid, and also the evacuation of the injured and reconnaissance of quake-stricken areas. By 17:37 CST on May 13, a total of over 15,600 troops and militia reservists from the Chengdu Military Region had joined the rescue force in the heavily affected areas. A commander reported from Yingxiu Town, Wenchuan, that around 3,000 survivors were found, while the status of the other inhabitants (around 9,000) remained unclear. The 1,300 rescuers reached the epicenter, and 300 pioneer troops reached the seat of Wenchuan at about 23:30 CST. By 12:17 CST, May 14, 2008, communication in the seat of Wenchuan was partly revived. On the afternoon of May 14, 15 Special Operations Troops, along with relief supplies and communications gear, parachuted into inaccessible Mao County, northeast of Wenchuan.
What did Premier Wen Jiabao order?
56cec801aab44d1400b88a3d
the deployment of an additional 90 helicopters
38
False
How many helicopters were provided by the PLAAF?
56cec801aab44d1400b88a3e
60
95
False
How many helicopter were to be provided by the civil aviation industry?
56cec801aab44d1400b88a3f
30
136
False
How many aircraft were there in total?
56cec801aab44d1400b88a40
over 150
308
False
What is the total number of aircraft used in the relief operation?
56d60cd01c85041400946eea
over 150
308
False
How many helicopters came from the PLAAF?
56d60cd01c85041400946eec
60
95
False
Who provided the other 30 helicopters?
56d60cd01c85041400946eed
civil aviation industry
166
False
What kind of operation did this massing of aircraft produce?
56d60cd01c85041400946eee
non-combat airlifting
343
False
By May 15, Premier Wen Jiabao ordered the deployment of an additional 90 helicopters, of which 60 were to be provided by the PLAAF, and 30 were to be provided by the civil aviation industry, bringing the total of number of aircraft deployed in relief operations by the air force, army, and civil aviation to over 150, resulting in the largest non-combat airlifting operation in People's Liberation Army history.
What Foundation wanted to aid Beijing?
56cec88baab44d1400b88a45
the Tzu Chi Foundation
28
False
Where was the foundation based?
56cec88baab44d1400b88a46
Taiwan
56
False
When did Beijing agree to aid from Taiwan?
56d60ddf1c85041400946ef4
late on May 13
63
False
What was the first group from outside China to join in the relief operation?
56d60ddf1c85041400946ef5
Tzu Chi Foundation
32
False
What did China say they would accept?
56d60ddf1c85041400946ef6
international help
218
False
What did China need help for?
56d60ddf1c85041400946ef7
cope with the quake
240
False
Beijing accepted the aid of the Tzu Chi Foundation from Taiwan late on May 13. Tzu Chi was the first force from outside the People's Republic of China to join the rescue effort. China stated it would gratefully accept international help to cope with the quake.
Who made a direct chartered cargo flight?
56cec8e2aab44d1400b88a55
China Airlines
44
False
What date did the cargo flight leave?
56cec8e2aab44d1400b88a57
May 15
388
False
When did a rescue team depart?
56cec8e2aab44d1400b88a58
May 16
585
False
How did the move the relief supplies from Taiwan to the stricken area?
56d613011c85041400946efc
chartered cargo flight
9
False
From what airport did the chartered flight leave?
56d613011c85041400946efd
Taiwan Taoyuan International Airport
64
False
Where did the chartered flight from Taiwan land?
56d613011c85041400946efe
Chengdu
104
False
What Red Cross team left Taipei on May 16
56d613011c85041400946eff
rescue team
434
False
Where did the Red Cross team from Taiwan land?
56d613011c85041400946f00
Chengdu
104
False
A direct chartered cargo flight was made by China Airlines from Taiwan Taoyuan International Airport to Chengdu Shuangliu International Airport sending some 100 tons of relief supplies donated by the Tzu Chi Foundation and the Red Cross Society of Taiwan to the affected areas. Approval from mainland Chinese authorities was sought, and the chartered flight departed Taipei at 17:00 CST, May 15 and arrived in Chengdu by 20:30 CST. A rescue team from the Red Cross in Taiwan was also scheduled to depart Taipei on a Mandarin Airlines direct chartered flight to Chengdu at 15:00 CST on May 16.
What did the US share?
56cec9e1aab44d1400b88a62
satellite images of the quake-stricken areas
151
False
Who did the US share the satellite images with?
56cec9e1aab44d1400b88a63
Chinese authorities
201
False
How many Chinese troops were involved in the rescue efforts?
56cec9e1aab44d1400b88a65
135,000
363
False
When did groups from South Korea, Japan, and others arrive in China?
56d61a451c85041400946f10
May 16
3
False
What did the U.S. share with China?
56d61a451c85041400946f11
satellite images
151
False
What was included in the the Air Force C-17 supplies?
56d61a451c85041400946f13
tents and generators
325
False
How many Chinese troops and medics were involved in the relief efforts?
56d61a451c85041400946f14
135,000
363
False
On May 16, rescue groups from South Korea, Japan, Singapore, Russia and Taiwan arrived to join the rescue effort. The United States shared some of its satellite images of the quake-stricken areas with Chinese authorities. During the weekend, the US sent into China two U.S. Air Force C-17's carrying supplies, which included tents and generators. Xinhua reported 135,000 Chinese troops and medics were involved in the rescue effort across 58 counties and cities.
What was extensively used to pass information to aid rescue and recovery efforts?
56ceccc7aab44d1400b88a7d
The Internet
0
False
What did the Xinhua news agency set up?
56ceccc7aab44d1400b88a7e
an online rescue request center
146
False
What was the purpose of this online rescue request center?
56ceccc7aab44d1400b88a7f
to find the blind spots of disaster recovery
187
False
Where did rescue helicopters have trouble landing?
56ceccc7aab44d1400b88a80
Wenchuan
318
False
What was used as a communications aid in the relief efforts?
56d61c4e1c85041400946f1a
The Internet
0
False
Who set up an online site to focus on blind spots in recovery?
56d61c4e1c85041400946f1b
news agency Xinhua
120
False
What person suggested a landing spot for helicopters near the epicenter?
56d61c4e1c85041400946f1c
a student
328
False
What kind of information were websites set up to store?
56d61c4e1c85041400946f1d
contact information
514
False
On what date did a rescue helicopter crash with no survivors?
56d61c4e1c85041400946f1e
May 31
563
False
The Internet was extensively used for passing information to aid rescue and recovery efforts. For example, the official news agency Xinhua set up an online rescue request center in order to find the blind spots of disaster recovery. After knowing that rescue helicopters had trouble landing into the epicenter area in Wenchuan, a student proposed a landing spot online and it was chosen as the first touchdown place for the helicopters[not in citation given]. Volunteers also set up several websites to help store contact information for victims and evacuees. On May 31, a rescue helicopter carrying earthquake survivors and crew members crashed in fog and turbulence in Wenchuan county. No-one survived.
What was done for the anniversary?
56cecd53aab44d1400b88a88
a moment of silence
70
False
Where did the government open access to?
56cecd53aab44d1400b88a89
the sealed ruins of the Beichuan county seat
176
False
How long was it opened for?
56cecd53aab44d1400b88a8a
three days
225
False
What did China do to mark the first anniversary of the quake?
56d66b221c85041400947103
a moment of silence
70
False
What will the Beichuan county seat be used for?
56d66b221c85041400947104
earthquake relic museum
286
False
What kind of event were given to raise money for quake survivors?
56d66b221c85041400947105
several concerts
370
False
What is the Beichuan museum meant to remind people of?
56d66b221c85041400947106
the terrible disaster
331
False
On May 12, 2009, China marked the first anniversary of the quake with a moment of silence as people across the nation remembered the dead. The government also opened access to the sealed ruins of the Beichuan county seat for three days, after which it will be frozen in time as a state earthquake relic museum, to remind people of the terrible disaster. There were also several concerts across the country to raise money for the survivors of the quake.
What was also donated?
56cecdf0aab44d1400b88a93
blood
172
False
What companies received the money?
56cecdf0aab44d1400b88a95
China Unicom and China Mobile
331
False
After the quake, people from where in China made donations?
56d666041c850414009470f1
all over mainland China
61
False
What caused long lines in most major cities?
56d666041c850414009470f2
donated blood
164
False
What were the Chinese setting up to take in donations?
56d666041c850414009470f3
booths
91
False
How did a lot of people donate using mobile phones?
56d666041c850414009470f4
text messaging
277
False
How much had the Chinese government designated by May 16?
56d666041c850414009470f5
$772 million
420
False
Following the earthquake, donations were made by people from all over mainland China, with booths set up in schools, at banks, and around gas stations. People also donated blood, resulting in according to Xinhua long line-ups in most major Chinese cities. Many donated through text messaging on mobile phones to accounts set up by China Unicom and China Mobile By May 16, the Chinese government had allocated a total of $772 million for earthquake relief so far, up sharply from $159 million from May 14.
How many tents were flown to the region?
56cece5caab44d1400b88a9b
557
36
False
How many quilts were flown to the region?
56cece5caab44d1400b88a9c
2,500
50
False
How much were both supplies worth?
56cece5caab44d1400b88a9d
788,000 yuan
73
False
What county were the supplies flown to?
56cece5caab44d1400b88a9e
Wenchuan County
102
False
How many tents did the Sichuan Ministry provide for the homeless?
56cece5caab44d1400b88a9f
30,000
297
False
What group took tents and quilts to Wenchuan county?
56d663b11c850414009470e3
Red Cross Society of China
4
False
How much has the Amity Foundation designated for disaster relief?
56d663b11c850414009470e4
US$143,000
198
False
How many tents did the Sichuan Ministry of Affairs provide?
56d663b11c850414009470e5
30,000
297
False
What were all these tents and quilts for?
56d663b11c850414009470e6
those left homeless
314
False
What foundation had already begun relief work in the area?
56d663b11c850414009470e7
The Amity Foundation
119
False
The Red Cross Society of China flew 557 tents and 2,500 quilts valued at 788,000 yuan (US$113,000) to Wenchuan County. The Amity Foundation already began relief work in the region and has earmarked US$143,000 for disaster relief. The Sichuan Ministry of Civil Affairs said that they have provided 30,000 tents for those left homeless.
How many schoolrooms collapsed in the quake?
56cecf68aab44d1400b88ab7
7,000
43
False
What catch-phrase was invented as a result of collapsed schools?
56cecf68aab44d1400b88ab8
tofu-dregs schoolhouses
168
False
Why did so many schools collapse during the earthquake?
56d64a821c85041400947075
inadequately engineered
49
False
What are the estimations of how many schoolrooms collapsed?
56d64a821c85041400947076
over 7,000
38
False
What has the citizenry started calling these type of schools?
56d64a821c85041400947077
tofu-dregs schoolhouses
168
False
What can illegal children be registered as in place of their dead siblings?
56d64a821c85041400947079
legal replacements
685
False
The central government estimates that over 7,000 inadequately engineered schoolrooms collapsed in the earthquake. Chinese citizens have since invented a catch phrase: "tofu-dregs schoolhouses" (Chinese: 豆腐渣校舍), to mock both the quality and the quantity of these inferior constructions that killed so many school children. Due to the one-child policy, many families lost their only child when schools in the region collapsed during the earthquake. Consequently, Sichuan provincial and local officials have lifted the restriction for families whose only child was either killed or severely injured in the disaster. So-called "illegal children" under 18 years of age may be registered as legal replacements for their dead siblings; if the dead child was illegal, no further outstanding fines would apply. Reimbursement would not, however, be offered for fines that were already levied.
What did CCTV-1 host on the evening of May 18th?
56cecff4aab44d1400b88abd
four-hour program called The Giving of Love
50
False
Who was the show hosted by?
56cecff4aab44d1400b88abe
Bai Yansong
234
False
How large were the donations from the program?
56cecff4aab44d1400b88abf
Donations of the evening totalled 1.5 billion Chinese Yuan
392
False
How much did Jackie Chan donate to support?
56cecff4aab44d1400b88ac0
$1.57 million
720
False
What was the name of the music video that Jackie Chan made for the event?
56cecff4aab44d1400b88ac1
Promise
803
False
What was the program that CCTV-1 hosted?
56d6477c1c85041400947065
The Giving of Love
75
False
What did the donations total for the program?
56d6477c1c85041400947066
US$208 million
453
False
What company gave the most?
56d6477c1c85041400947067
CCTV
26
False
How much did actor Jackie Chan donate?
56d6477c1c85041400947068
1.57 million
721
False
What was the name of Chan's music video?
56d6477c1c85041400947069
Promise
803
False
On the evening of May 18, CCTV-1 hosted a special four-hour program called The Giving of Love (simplified Chinese: 爱的奉献; traditional Chinese: 愛的奉獻), hosted by regulars from the CCTV New Year's Gala and round-the-clock coverage anchor Bai Yansong. It was attended by a wide range of entertainment, literary, business and political figures from mainland China, Hong Kong, Singapore and Taiwan. Donations of the evening totalled 1.5 billion Chinese Yuan (~US$208 million). Of the donations, CCTV gave the biggest corporate contribution at ¥50 million. Almost at the same time in Taiwan, a similarly themed programme was on air hosted by the sitting president Ma Ying-jeou. In June, Hong Kong actor Jackie Chan, who donated $1.57 million to the victims, made a music video alongside other artists entitled "Promise"; the song was composed by Andy Lau. The Artistes 512 Fund Raising Campaign, an 8-hour fundraising marathon, was held on June 1 in Hong Kong; it was attended by some 200 Sinosphere musicians and celebrities. In Singapore, MediaCorp Channel 8 hosted a 'live' programme 让爱川流不息 to raise funds for the victims.
What did a professor at the Peking University say about the handling of the earthquake?
56cedd04aab44d1400b88b3c
This is the first time [that] the Chinese media has lived up to international standards
365
False
What did Myanmar block after Cyclone Nargis?
56d61fc11c85041400946f24
foreign aid
134
False
What did a Peking professor say about Chinese media coverage?
56d61fc11c85041400946f25
up to international standards
423
False
Who praised Chinese media coverage as being democratic?
56d61fc11c85041400946f26
Los Angeles Times
455
False
In which previous catastrophe not live up to international standards?
56d61fc11c85041400946f27
1976 Tangshan earthquake
220
False
Rescue efforts performed by the Chinese government were praised by western media, especially in comparison with Myanmar's blockage of foreign aid during Cyclone Nargis, as well as China's previous performance during the 1976 Tangshan earthquake. China's openness during the media coverage of the Sichuan earthquake led a professor at the Peking University to say, “This is the first time [that] the Chinese media has lived up to international standards”. Los Angeles Times praised China's media coverage of the quake of being "democratic".
What formed behind blockages?
56cedd7daab44d1400b88b4e
quake lakes
161
False
How many quake lakes formed?
56cedd7daab44d1400b88b50
34
506
False
How many of the lakes were a danger to people?
56cedd7daab44d1400b88b51
28
606
False
What was the magnitude of the Sichuan earthquake?
56d624261c85041400946f2c
7.9
29
False
What blocked many of the area's rivers?
56d624261c85041400946f2d
large landslides
107
False
What formed behind the blocked rivers?
56d624261c85041400946f2e
quake lakes
161
False
By May 27, how many earthquake lakes had formed up behind landslide debris?
56d624261c85041400946f2f
34
506
False
What had to be evacuated due to potential flooding?
56d624261c85041400946f30
Entire villages
669
False
As a result of the magnitude 7.9 earthquake and the many strong aftershocks, many rivers became blocked by large landslides, which resulted in the formation of "quake lakes" behind the blockages; these massive amounts of water were pooling up at a very high rate behind the natural landslide dams and it was feared that the blockages would eventually crumble under the weight of the ever-increasing water mass, potentially endangering the lives of millions of people living downstream. As of May 27, 2008, 34 lakes had formed due to earthquake debris blocking and damming rivers, and it was estimated that 28 of them were still of potential danger to the local people. Entire villages had to be evacuated because of the resultant flooding.
Where was the most precarious quake lake located?
56ceddf6aab44d1400b88b67
Mount Tangjia in Beichuan County, Sichuan
99
False
How could you only get to this quake lake?
56ceddf6aab44d1400b88b68
by foot or air
158
False
What machinery was airlifted into the location?
56ceddf6aab44d1400b88b69
tractors
304
False
How many people were evacuated downstream?
56ceddf6aab44d1400b88b6b
200,000
719
False
What was the fear that caused 200,000 people to be evacuated from Mianyang?
56d62b0f1c85041400946f5e
the dam bursting
792
False
Where was the worst of the quake lakes located?
56d62b0f1c85041400946f5f
Mount Tangjia
99
False
Where is Mount Tangjia?
56d62b0f1c85041400946f60
Beichuan County, Sichuan
116
False
How many soldiers had to travel to the area by foot?
56d62b0f1c85041400946f62
1,200
497
False
The most precarious of these quake-lakes was the one located in the extremely difficult terrain at Mount Tangjia in Beichuan County, Sichuan, accessible only by foot or air; an Mi-26T heavy lift helicopter belonging to the China Flying Dragon Special Aviation Company was used to bring heavy earthmoving tractors to the affected location. This operation was coupled with the work done by PLAAF Mi-17 helicopters bringing in PLA engineering corps, explosive specialists and other personnel to join 1,200 soldiers who arrived on site by foot. Five tons of fuel to operate the machinery was airlifted to the site, where a sluice was constructed to allow the safe discharge of the bottlenecked water. Downstream, more than 200,000 people were evacuated from Mianyang by June 1 in anticipation of the dam bursting.
Who declared the mourning period?
56cede78aab44d1400b88b7c
The State Council
0
False
What did the State Council declare a period of?
56d62ce51c85041400946f7a
national mourning
49
False
This was the biggest display of mourning since the death of who?
56d62ce51c85041400946f7b
Mao Zedong
435
False
When did the Chinese hold a moment of silence?
56d62ce51c85041400946f7c
May 19, 2008
103
False
What came to a halt during the moment of silence?
56d62ce51c85041400946f7d
Cars and trucks
687
False
How long was the national mourning for the quake victims to last?
56d62ce51c85041400946f7e
three-day period
29
False
The State Council declared a three-day period of national mourning for the quake victims starting from May 19, 2008; the PRC's National Flag and Regional Flags of Hong Kong and Macau Special Administrative Regions flown at half mast. It was the first time that a national mourning period had been declared for something other than the death of a state leader, and many have called it the biggest display of mourning since the death of Mao Zedong. At 14:28 CST on May 19, 2008, a week after the earthquake, the Chinese public held a moment of silence. People stood silent for three minutes while air defense, police and fire sirens, and the horns of vehicles, vessels and trains sounded. Cars and trucks on Beijing's roads also came to a halt. People spontaneously burst into cheering "Zhongguo jiayou!" (Let's go, China!) and "Sichuan jiayou" (Let's go, Sichuan!) afterwards.
What was suspended for the duration of the mourning period?
56cedecdaab44d1400b88b8d
Olympic torch relay
47
False
Where was the relay scheduled to take place?
56cedecdaab44d1400b88b8e
Ningbo
4
False
What was suspended during the period of mourning?
56d62e501c85041400946f94
Beijing Olympic torch relay
39
False
Where was the torch relay supposed to take place?
56d62e501c85041400946f95
in Ningbo
117
False
What part of the relay did they change?
56d62e501c85041400946f96
The route
212
False
Where was there a minute of silence during the relay?
56d62e501c85041400946f97
Ruijin, Jiangxi
343
False
The Ningbo Organizing Committee of the Beijing Olympic torch relay announced that the relay, scheduled to take place in Ningbo during national morning, would be suspended for the duration of the mourning period. The route of the torch through the country was scaled down, and there was a minute of silence when the next leg started in city of Ruijin, Jiangxi on the Wednesday after the quake.
What colors did many websites convert their home pages to?
56cedf2faab44d1400b88b9d
black and white
43
False
What did internet portals remove from their home pages?
56d62ff91c85041400946fbb
all advertisements
153
False
Many of what shut down completely?
56d62ff91c85041400946fbc
various gaming sites
472
False
What did the crowds in Tiananmen Square do after the moment of silence?
56d62ff91c85041400946fbd
burst out cheering
695
False
What business closed in Macau?
56d62ff91c85041400946fbe
Casinos
760
False
Many websites converted their home page to black and white; Sina.com and Sohu, major internet portals, limited their homepages to news items and removed all advertisements. Chinese video sharing websites Youku and Tudou displayed a black background and placed multiple videos showing earthquake footage and news reports. The Chinese version of MSN, cn.msn.com, also displayed banner ads about the earthquake and the relief efforts. Other entertainment websites, including various gaming sites, such as the Chinese servers for World of Warcraft, had shut down altogether, or had corresponding links to earthquake donations. After the moments of silence, in Tiananmen Square, crowds spontaneously burst out cheering various slogans, including "Long Live China". Casinos in Macau closed down.
Who was the principal of Sangzao Middle School?
56cee003aab44d1400b88bb1
Ye Zhiping
0
False
What was the principal credited with?
56cee003aab44d1400b88bb2
proactive action that spared the lives of all 2,323 pupils in attendance when the earthquake happened
119
False
How many students attended the school?
56cee003aab44d1400b88bb3
2,323
165
False
How much money was used to strengthen the construction of the school?
56cee003aab44d1400b88bb5
400,000 yuan
351
False
What school principal strengthened his school?
56d64f7c1c85041400947095
Ye Zhiping
0
False
Where is the Sangzao Middle School?
56d64f7c1c85041400947097
Sangzao
29
False
The Sangzao school is one of the biggest in what county?
56d64f7c1c85041400947098
An County
85
False
How many years was Ye Zhiping involved in the school overhaul?
56d64f7c1c85041400947099
three-year period
231
False
Ye Zhiping, the principal of Sangzao Middle School in Sangzao, one of the largest in An County, has been credited with proactive action that spared the lives of all 2,323 pupils in attendance when the earthquake happened. During a three-year period that ended in 2007, he oversaw a major overhaul of his school. During that time he obtained more than 400,000 yuan (US$60,000) from the county education department, money used to widen and strengthen concrete pillars and the balcony railing of all four storeys of his school, as well as secure its concrete floors.
Why were the schools inspected?
56cee069aab44d1400b88bbc
to gain first-hand material of construction quality
164
False
What was to be carried out at schools after the quake?
56cee069aab44d1400b88bbd
safety checks
362
False
Who has joined an official inquiry into the school scandal?
56d658061c850414009470a7
Chinese prosecutors
49
False
What investigation are the prosecutors pursuing?
56d658061c850414009470a8
professional crime
316
False
Where are the Chinese going to perform safety checks?
56d658061c850414009470a9
schools across China
402
False
What group reported that Chinese prosecutors were involved in investigating the schoolhouse collapses?
56d658061c850414009470aa
Reuters
9
False
However, Reuters reported in June that, to date, Chinese prosecutors have joined an official inquiry into ten collapsed schools during May's devastating earthquake to gain first-hand material of construction quality at the collapsed schools, launch preliminary inquiries and prepare for possible investigations into professional crime. It was also reported that safety checks were to be carried out at schools across China after last month's earthquake.
What was given in exchange of signing the document?
56cee0eeaab44d1400b88bc3
money
553
False
What other methods were used to break up protests?
56cee0eeaab44d1400b88bc5
riot police
861
False
Who did the New York Times report was investigating the school collapses?
56d65a4b1c850414009470af
government officials
34
False
What are officials seeking to do about protesting parents?
56d65a4b1c850414009470b0
limit protests
435
False
What are officials offering parents in exchange of protests?
56d65a4b1c850414009470b1
money
553
False
What has happened to some who refuse to agree to not protest?
56d65a4b1c850414009470b2
were threatened
589
False
What did officials order Chinese news media to stop reporting?
56d65a4b1c850414009470b3
on school collapses
1026
False
The New York Times reported that "government officials in Beijing and Sichuan have said they are investigating the collapses. In an acknowledgment of the weakness of building codes in the countryside, the National Development and Reform Commission said on May 27 that it had drafted an amendment to improve construction standards for primary and middle schools in rural areas. Experts are reviewing the draft, the commission said." To limit protests, officials pushed parents to sign a document, which forbade them from holding protests, in exchange of money, but some who refused to sign were threatened. The payment amounts varied from school to school but were approximately the same. In Hanwang, parents were offered a package valued at 8,800 USD in cash and a per-parent pension of nearly 5,600 USD. Furthermore, officials used other methods of silencing: riot police officers broke up protests by parents; the authorities set up cordons around the schools; and officials ordered the Chinese news media to stop reporting on school collapses.
Who was a Sichuan school teacher?
56cee14aaab44d1400b88bcb
Liu Shaokun
17
False
What was Liu's family told?
56cee14aaab44d1400b88bcd
that he was being investigated on suspicion of the crime of inciting subversion
205
False
What was Liu Shaokun's profession?
56d65c671c850414009470b9
Sichuan school teacher
38
False
Why was he investigated?
56d65c671c850414009470ba
crime of inciting subversion
256
False
What did Liu Shankun do with the pictures he took of collapsed schools?
56d65c671c850414009470bb
put them online
368
False
Where did he call the schoolhouses shoddy?
56d65c671c850414009470bc
in a media interview
462
False
What was his assigned punishment ?
56d65c671c850414009470bd
one year of re-education
508
False
Besides parents, Liu Shaokun (刘绍坤), a Sichuan school teacher, was detained on June 25, 2008 for "disseminating rumors and destroying social order" about the Sichuan earthquake. Liu’s family was later told that he was being investigated on suspicion of the crime of inciting subversion. Liu had travelled to the Shifang, taken photos of collapsed school buildings, and put them online. He had also expressed his anger at “the shoddy tofu-dregs buildings” (豆腐渣工程) in a media interview. He was ordered to serve one year of re-education through labor (RTL). According to the organization Human Rights in China, Liu has been released to serve his RTL sentence outside of the labor camp.
When did the sentencing occur?
56cee1e4aab44d1400b88be0
in 2007
255
False
When was the article published about the case?
56cee1e4aab44d1400b88be1
January 2010
3
False
What did he think that the poor construction led to?
56d65f691c850414009470cf
massive casualties
159
False
In January 2010, Hong Kong-based English newspaper The Standard reported that writer Tan Zuoren attempted to document shoddy construction that may have led to massive casualties in schools, was sentenced to in prison ostensibly for his writing an article in 2007 in support of the pro-democracy movement in 1989.
What did UNICEF report?
56cee23caab44d1400b88be6
that China formally requested the support of the international community
212
False
What did foreign nations offer China because of the severity of the quake?
56d660e91c850414009470d3
condolences and assistance
157
False
When did China formally ask for help from the international community?
56d660e91c850414009470d4
May 14
188
False
What organization reported that China asked for help?
56d660e91c850414009470d5
UNICEF
196
False
Why did the world community notice the need for help?
56d660e91c850414009470d6
magnitude of the quake
15
False
Because of the magnitude of the quake, and the media attention on China, foreign nations and organizations immediately responded to the disaster by offering condolences and assistance. On May 14, UNICEF reported that China formally requested the support of the international community to respond to the needs of affected families.
How much did Yao Ming donate?
56cee294aab44d1400b88bec
$214,000 and $71,000
228
False
How much did the Red Cross collect in donations?
56cee294aab44d1400b88bed
$26 million
330
False
How much money had been donated by May 14?
56d6622d1c850414009470db
10.7 billion yuan
53
False
What group donated the 10.7 yuan?
56d6622d1c850414009470dc
the Chinese public
122
False
What famous basketball player made two large donations to the crisis?
56d6622d1c850414009470dd
Yao Ming
165
False
How much has the Red Cross Society  collected?
56d6622d1c850414009470de
26 million
331
False
By May 14, the Ministry of Civil Affairs stated that 10.7 billion yuan (approximately US$1.5 billion) had been donated by the Chinese public. Houston Rockets center Yao Ming, one of the country's most popular sports icons, gave $214,000 and $71,000 to the Red Cross Society of China. The association has also collected a total of $26 million in donations so far. Other multinational firms located in China have also announced large amounts of donations.
What did Francis Marcus say of the Chinese relief effort?
56d614dd1c85041400946f06
swift and very efficient
102
False
What uncharacteristic attitude did China display?
56d614dd1c85041400946f07
openness
388
False
What kind of attitude did Burma display in response to a cyclone a few days earlier?
56d614dd1c85041400946f08
secretive
427
False
How long before the quake did Cyclone Nargis strike Burma?
56d614dd1c85041400946f09
10 days
495
False
What organization did Francis Marcus represent?
56d614dd1c85041400946f0a
International Federation of the Red Cross
22
False
Francis Marcus of the International Federation of the Red Cross praised the Chinese rescue effort as "swift and very efficient" in Beijing on Tuesday. But he added the scale of the disaster was such that "we can't expect that the government can do everything and handle every aspect of the needs". The Economist noted that China reacted to the disaster "rapidly and with uncharacteristic openness", contrasting it with Burma's secretive response to Cyclone Nargis, which devastated that country 10 days before the earthquake.
What did stations replace programming with?
56d646091c8504140094705d
live earthquake footage
235
False
What was the source of the live feeds?
56d646091c8504140094705e
CCTV-1
264
False
What about pay TV channels?
56d646091c8504140094705f
programmes suspended
365
False
All Mainland Chinese television stations (along with some stations in Hong Kong and expatriate communities) cancelled all regularly-scheduled programming, displayed their logo in grayscale, and replaced their cancelled programmes with live earthquake footage from CCTV-1 for multiple days after the quake. Even pay television channels (such as Channel V) had their programmes suspended.
What government blocked aid after Cyclone Nargis?
56d6488e1c8504140094706f
Myanmar
113
False
Over what scandal did the Chinese government lose in public opinion?
56d6488e1c85041400947070
school construction scandal
233
False
What was the Chinese government first praised for?
56d6488e1c85041400947071
response to the quake
62
False
Although the Chinese government was initially praised for its response to the quake (especially in comparison to Myanmar's ruling military junta's blockade of aid during Cyclone Nargis), it then saw an erosion in confidence over the school construction scandal.
What did parents accuse builders of doing?
56d64c331c85041400947080
cutting corners
236
False
As of July 17, 2008 what did parents complain of not receiving?
56d64c331c85041400947081
any reports
578
False
What kind of stories were being censored in the media?
56d64c331c85041400947083
poorly built schools
737
False
On May 29, 2008, government officials began inspecting the ruins of thousands of schools that collapsed, searching for clues about why they crumbled. Thousands of parents around the province have accused local officials and builders of cutting corners in school construction, citing that after the quake other nearby buildings were little damaged. In the aftermath of the quake, many local governments promised to formally investigate the school collapses, but as of July 17, 2008 across Sichuan, parents of children lost in collapsed schools complained they had yet to receive any reports. Local officials urged them not to protest but the parents demonstrated and demanded an investigation. Furthermore, censors discouraged stories of poorly built schools from being published in the media and there was an incident where police drove the protestors away.
Who has ignored the school issue?
56d650911c8504140094709f
state-controlled media
26
False
Who gave instructions to ignore the school issue?
56d650911c850414009470a0
propaganda bureau
101
False
What media source has reported this happening?
56d650911c850414009470a2
The AP
0
False
The AP reported that "The state-controlled media has largely ignored the issue, apparently under the propaganda bureau's instructions. Parents and volunteers who have questioned authorities have been detained and threatened."
Why are the buildings so shoddily built?
56d65e391c850414009470c4
builders cut corners
148
False
What did builder's use in place of steel rods as re-inforcement?
56d65e391c850414009470c6
thin iron wires
198
False
Who was supposed to inspect building to see if they met national standards?
56d65e391c850414009470c7
supervising agencies
384
False
On May 15, 2008 Geoffery York of the Globeandmail.com reported that the shoddily constructed buildings are commonly called "tofu buildings" because builders cut corners by replacing steel rods with thin iron wires for concrete re-inforcement; using inferior grade cement, if any at all; and using fewer bricks than they should. One local was quoted in the article as saying that "the supervising agencies did not check to see if it met the national standards."
Who has not been brought to justice?
56d66c621c8504140094710b
corrupt government officials
47
False
Who is still looking for compensation and justice?
56d66c621c8504140094710c
many families
126
False
What has the government threatened people with to keep them from protesting?
56d66c621c8504140094710d
threat of arrest
332
False
What media reported the threat of arrest?
56d66c621c8504140094710e
the Times
245
False
What did many families lose in the earthquake?
56d66c621c8504140094710f
their only child
149
False
However questions still remain, as some of the corrupt government officials have still not been brought to justice, while the many families who lost their only child, are still seeking compensation and justice to what had happened. According to the Times, many parents were warned by the government not to stage a protest under the threat of arrest.
New_York_City
What city in the United States has the highest population?
56ce304daab44d1400b8850e
New York
0
False
In what city is the United Nations based?
56ce304daab44d1400b8850f
New York
0
False
What city has been called the cultural capital of the world?
56ce304daab44d1400b88510
New York
0
False
What American city welcomes the largest number of legal immigrants?
56ce304daab44d1400b88511
New York
0
False
The major gateway for immigration has been which US city?
56cf5d41aab44d1400b89130
New York City
22
False
The most populated city in the United States is which city?
56cf5d41aab44d1400b89131
New York City
22
False
New York—often called New York City or the City of New York to distinguish it from the State of New York, of which it is a part—is the most populous city in the United States and the center of the New York metropolitan area, the premier gateway for legal immigration to the United States and one of the most populous urban agglomerations in the world. A global power city, New York exerts a significant impact upon commerce, finance, media, art, fashion, research, technology, education, and entertainment, its fast pace defining the term New York minute. Home to the headquarters of the United Nations, New York is an important center for international diplomacy and has been described as the cultural and financial capital of the world.
How many boroughs comprise New York City?
56ce3124aab44d1400b8852a
five
82
False
In what year were the five boroughs combined into one city?
56ce3124aab44d1400b8852b
1898
271
False
In 2014, what did the census estimate the population of New York City to be?
56ce3124aab44d1400b8852c
8,491,079
320
False
What is the size of New York City in square miles?
56ce3124aab44d1400b8852d
305
367
False
What is the population of New York's Combined Statistical Area?
56ce3124aab44d1400b8852e
23.6 million
826
False
How man boroughs does New York City contain?
56cf9d81234ae51400d9be1b
five
82
False
The five boroughs of New York City are named what?
56cf9d81234ae51400d9be1c
Brooklyn, Queens, Manhattan, the Bronx, and Staten Island
171
False
All five boroughs of New York City formed into one city on what date?
56cf9d81234ae51400d9be1d
1898
271
False
What is the population of New York City as of 2014?
56cf9d81234ae51400d9be1e
8,491,079
320
False
How many languages are spoken by the people of New York City?
56cf9d81234ae51400d9be1f
800
478
False
Situated on one of the world's largest natural harbors, New York City consists of five boroughs, each of which is a separate county of New York State. The five boroughs – Brooklyn, Queens, Manhattan, the Bronx, and Staten Island – were consolidated into a single city in 1898. With a census-estimated 2014 population of 8,491,079 distributed over a land area of just 305 square miles (790 km2), New York is the most densely populated major city in the United States. As many as 800 languages are spoken in New York, making it the most linguistically diverse city in the world. By 2014 census estimates, the New York City metropolitan region remains by a significant margin the most populous in the United States, as defined by both the Metropolitan Statistical Area (20.1 million residents) and the Combined Statistical Area (23.6 million residents). In 2013, the MSA produced a gross metropolitan product (GMP) of nearly US$1.39 trillion, while in 2012, the CSA generated a GMP of over US$1.55 trillion, both ranking first nationally by a wide margin and behind the GDP of only twelve and eleven countries, respectively.
What was the trading post that preceded New York City called?
56ce31baaab44d1400b8853a
New Amsterdam
119
False
What nation founded New Amsterdam?
56ce31baaab44d1400b8853b
the Dutch Republic
86
False
In what year did New York become the largest city in the United States?
56ce31baaab44d1400b8853c
1790
276
False
When did the English take over the area from the Dutch?
56ce31baaab44d1400b8853d
1664
202
False
In what year did New York cease the be the capital of the United States?
56ce31baaab44d1400b8853e
1790
276
False
When was New York City established?
56cf9df0234ae51400d9be25
1624
38
False
New Amsterdam became the title of New York City in what past date?
56cf9df0234ae51400d9be26
1626
136
False
The English occupied New York City beginning on what date?
56cf9df0234ae51400d9be27
1664
202
False
New York City is the biggest city in the United States since what historical date?
56cf9df0234ae51400d9be29
1790
276
False
New York City traces its roots to its 1624 founding as a trading post by colonists of the Dutch Republic and was named New Amsterdam in 1626. The city and its surroundings came under English control in 1664. New York served as the capital of the United States from 1785 until 1790. It has been the country's largest city since 1790. The Statue of Liberty greeted millions of immigrants as they came to the Americas by ship in the late 19th and early 20th centuries and is a globally recognized symbol of the United States and its democracy.
How many tourists visited New York in 2014?
56ce32e7aab44d1400b88550
56 million
101
False
How many stations are operated by the New York City Subway?
56ce32e7aab44d1400b88551
469
1303
False
In what borough is Wall Street located?
56ce32e7aab44d1400b88552
Manhattan
677
False
How many school and universities are in NYC?
56cf9f16234ae51400d9be30
120
1386
False
NYC has the two largest stock exchanges in the world which are called what?
56cf9f16234ae51400d9be31
New York Stock Exchange and NASDAQ
906
False
Many districts and landmarks in New York City have become well known, and the city received a record 56 million tourists in 2014, hosting three of the world's ten most visited tourist attractions in 2013. Several sources have ranked New York the most photographed city in the world. Times Square, iconic as the world's "heart" and its "Crossroads", is the brightly illuminated hub of the Broadway Theater District, one of the world's busiest pedestrian intersections, and a major center of the world's entertainment industry. The names of many of the city's bridges, skyscrapers, and parks are known around the world. Anchored by Wall Street in the Financial District of Lower Manhattan, New York City has been called both the most economically powerful city and the leading financial center of the world, and the city is home to the world's two largest stock exchanges by total market capitalization, the New York Stock Exchange and NASDAQ. Manhattan's real estate market is among the most expensive in the world. Manhattan's Chinatown incorporates the highest concentration of Chinese people in the Western Hemisphere, with multiple signature Chinatowns developing across the city. Providing continuous 24/7 service, the New York City Subway is one of the most extensive metro systems worldwide, with 469 stations in operation. New York City's higher education network comprises over 120 colleges and universities, including Columbia University, New York University, and Rockefeller University, which have been ranked among the top 35 in the world.
What island was once a part of Long Island?
56ce3348aab44d1400b88560
Staten Island
350
False
During what period was the area around New York City located at the edge of an ice sheet 1,000 feet deep?
56ce3348aab44d1400b88561
the Wisconsinan glaciation
7
False
Long Island and Staten Island were split in half by what geographical phenomenon?
56cf9f4b234ae51400d9be35
ice sheet
96
False
During the Wisconsinan glaciation, the New York City region was situated at the edge of a large ice sheet over 1,000 feet in depth. The ice sheet scraped away large amounts of soil, leaving the bedrock that serves as the geologic foundation for much of New York City today. Later on, the ice sheet would help split apart what are now Long Island and Staten Island.
What was the name of the Lenape homeland?
56ce33aaaab44d1400b8856a
Lenapehoking
182
False
In the precolonial era, the area of present-day New York City was inhabited by various bands of Algonquian tribes of Native Americans, including the Lenape, whose homeland, known as Lenapehoking, included Staten Island; the western portion of Long Island, including the area that would become Brooklyn and Queens; Manhattan; the Bronx; and the Lower Hudson Valley.
In what year did the first European arrive in the New York area?
56ce345caab44d1400b88580
1524
48
False
What was the name of the first European who arrived in the New York area?
56ce345caab44d1400b88581
Giovanni da Verrazzano
56
False
What was the name of Giovanni da Verrazzano's ship?
56ce345caab44d1400b88582
La Dauphine
158
False
What nation did Giovanni da Verrazzano serve?
56ce345caab44d1400b88583
France
216
False
What did Giovanni da Verrazzano call the area when he staked claim on it?
56ce345caab44d1400b88584
Nouvelle Angoulême
237
False
When was the first European to visit the area of NYC?
56cfa06a234ae51400d9be39
1524
48
False
Giovanni da Verrazzano's ship that sailed to New York was named what?
56cfa06a234ae51400d9be3a
La Dauphine
158
False
Giovani da Verrazzano was an explorer from which country?
56cfa06a234ae51400d9be3b
France
216
False
The first documented visit by a European was in 1524 by Giovanni da Verrazzano, a Florentine explorer in the service of the French crown, who sailed his ship La Dauphine into New York Harbor. He claimed the area for France and named it "Nouvelle Angoulême" (New Angoulême).
In what year did a Spanish expedition visit New York Harbor?
56ce34c7aab44d1400b88594
1525
133
False
Who commanded the Spanish expedition?
56ce34c7aab44d1400b88595
Estêvão Gomes
36
False
What was the nationality of Estêvão Gomes?
56ce34c7aab44d1400b88596
Portuguese
53
False
What monarch did Estêvão Gomes serve?
56ce34c7aab44d1400b88597
Charles V
84
False
What was the name of Estêvão Gomes's ship?
56ce34c7aab44d1400b88598
La Anunciada
172
False
The front of the Hudson River was named what by Estevao Gomes?
56cfa4d8234ae51400d9be3f
Rio de San Antonio
244
False
What was the first map to show the whole North American East coast?
56cfa4d8234ae51400d9be40
Padrón Real
454
False
A Spanish expedition led by captain Estêvão Gomes, a Portuguese sailing for Emperor Charles V, arrived in New York Harbor in January 1525 aboard the purpose-built caravel "La Anunciada" and charted the mouth of the Hudson River, which he named Rio de San Antonio. Heavy ice kept him from further exploration, and he returned to Spain in August. The first scientific map to show the North American East coast continuously, the 1527 world map known as the Padrón Real, was informed by Gomes' expedition, and labeled the Northeast as Tierra de Esteban Gómez in his honor.
What was the name of the explorer who visited the area in 1609?
56ce3569aab44d1400b885aa
Henry Hudson
26
False
Who was Henry Hudson working for?
56ce3569aab44d1400b885ab
Dutch East India Company
225
False
In what year did the Netherlands claim the area between Delaware Bay and Cape Cod?
56ce3569aab44d1400b885ac
1614
702
False
How many days did Henry Hudson spend exploring the region?
56ce3569aab44d1400b885ad
ten
626
False
What did Henry Hudson call the river that is now called the Hudson River?
56ce3569aab44d1400b885ae
North River
293
False
Henry Hudson worked for which company in the 1600s?
56cfab96234ae51400d9be43
Dutch East India Company
225
False
In what year was the land between Cape Cod and Delaware Bay claimed by the Dutch?
56cfab96234ae51400d9be44
1614
702
False
Which explorer sailed his ship into New York harbor in 1609?
56cfab96234ae51400d9be45
Henry Hudson
26
False
In 1609, English explorer Henry Hudson re-discovered the region when he sailed his ship the Halve Maen ("Half Moon" in Dutch) into New York Harbor while searching for the Northwest Passage to the Orient for his employer, the Dutch East India Company. He proceeded to sail up what he named the North River, also called the Mauritis River, and now known as the Hudson River, to the site of the present-day New York State capital of Albany in the belief that it might represent an oceanic tributary. When the river narrowed and was no longer saline, he realized it was not a maritime passage and sailed back downriver. He made a ten-day exploration of the area and claimed the region for his employer. In 1614, the area between Cape Cod and Delaware Bay would be claimed by the Netherlands and called Nieuw-Nederland (New Netherland).
Where was Juan Rodriguez born?
56ce362aaab44d1400b885bc
Santo Domingo
175
False
What did the Dutch call Juan Rodriguez?
56ce362aaab44d1400b885bd
Jan Rodrigues
151
False
What was Juan Rodriguez's occupation?
56ce362aaab44d1400b885be
trader
101
False
What is the street that is named after Juan Rodriguez?
56ce362aaab44d1400b885bf
Juan Rodriguez Way
425
False
During what season did Juan Rodriguez first come to New York?
56ce362aaab44d1400b885c0
winter
259
False
Who was the first non-Indian person to live in what is now NYC?
56cfabed234ae51400d9be49
Juan Rodriguez
108
False
Which street in NYC today is now named after Juan Rodriguez?
56cfabed234ae51400d9be4b
Broadway, from 159th Street to 218th Street
371
False
The first non-Native American inhabitant of what would eventually become New York City was Dominican trader Juan Rodriguez (transliterated to Dutch as Jan Rodrigues). Born in Santo Domingo of Portuguese and African descent, he arrived in Manhattan during the winter of 1613–1614, trapping for pelts and trading with the local population as a representative of the Dutch. Broadway, from 159th Street to 218th Street, is named Juan Rodriguez Way in his honor.
On what island did the Dutch set up a settlement to trade furs?
56cedbb9aab44d1400b88b0f
Governors Island
241
False
On what island was Fort Amsterdam built?
56cedbb9aab44d1400b88b10
Manhattan Island
330
False
In what year did construction begin on Fort Amsterdam?
56cedbb9aab44d1400b88b11
1625
262
False
What person bought Manhattan from the Canarsie for the Dutch?
56cedbb9aab44d1400b88b12
Peter Minuit
530
False
In what year did the Dutch buy Manhattan?
56cedbb9aab44d1400b88b13
1626
627
False
New Netherland established a permanent European presence in what year?
56cfb206234ae51400d9be8f
1624
57
False
What year did building begin of Fort Amsterdam on Manhattan Island?
56cfb206234ae51400d9be90
1625
262
False
What was the myth that Manhattan was bought for by General Peter Minuit ?
56cfb206234ae51400d9be91
glass beads
752
False
A permanent European presence in New Netherland began in 1624 – making New York the 12th oldest continuously occupied European-established settlement in the continental United States  – with the founding of a Dutch fur trading settlement on Governors Island. In 1625, construction was started on a citadel and a Fort Amsterdam on Manhattan Island, later called New Amsterdam (Nieuw Amsterdam). The colony of New Amsterdam was centered at the site which would eventually become Lower Manhattan. The Dutch colonial Director-General Peter Minuit purchased the island of Manhattan from the Canarsie, a small band of the Lenape, in 1626 for a value of 60 guilders (about $1000 in 2006); a disproved legend says that Manhattan was purchased for $24 worth of glass beads.
What did the English call New Amsterdam after its capture?
56cedc10aab44d1400b88b19
New York
190
False
What was the regnal name of the Duke of York?
56cedc10aab44d1400b88b1a
James II
235
False
What person gave up New Amsterdam to the English?
56cedc10aab44d1400b88b1b
Peter Stuyvesant
9
False
What was Peter Stuyvesant's title?
56cedc10aab44d1400b88b1c
Director-General
31
False
In what year did the English take over New Amsterdam?
56cedc10aab44d1400b88b1d
1664
3
False
Who gave up New Amsterdam to the English without a fight in 1664?
56cfb240234ae51400d9be96
Peter Stuyvesant
9
False
In 1664, Peter Stuyvesant, the Director-General of the colony of New Netherland, surrendered New Amsterdam to the English without bloodshed. The English promptly renamed the fledgling city "New York" after the Duke of York (later King James II).
What was the regnal name of the Prince of Orange?
56cedc8eaab44d1400b88b23
William III
164
False
What was the date of Anthonio Colve's capture of New York?
56cedc8eaab44d1400b88b24
August 24, 1673
3
False
What did Colve call New York after he captured it?
56cedc8eaab44d1400b88b25
New Orange
116
False
In what year did the Dutch give New York back to the English?
56cedc8eaab44d1400b88b26
1674
324
False
August 24, 1673 is when which Dutch officer  took control of NYC?
56cfb43d234ae51400d9beab
Anthonio Colve
34
False
The Dutch gave back the island to which country in 1674 after their trade routes had been destroyed?
56cfb43d234ae51400d9beac
England
87
False
New York was called New Orange for a period based off which historical figure?
56cfb43d234ae51400d9bead
King William III
159
False
On August 24, 1673, Dutch captain Anthonio Colve took over the colony of New York from England and rechristened it "New Orange" to honor the Prince of Orange, King William III. However, facing defeat from the British and French, who had teamed up to destroy Dutch trading routes, the Dutch returned the island to England in 1674.
After what war did the English receive New Amsterdam?
56cedd1caab44d1400b88b41
Second Anglo-Dutch War
18
False
How many Lenape lived in the area in 1700?
56cedd1caab44d1400b88b42
200
405
False
What was the name of the island the English traded to the Dutch in return for New Amsterdam?
56cedd1caab44d1400b88b43
Run
136
False
In 1700, the Lenape Native American population had dwindled to how many?
56cfb502234ae51400d9beb1
200
405
False
After which war did England gain New York in exchange for Run, an Indonesian island?
56cfb502234ae51400d9beb2
Second Anglo-Dutch War
18
False
At the end of the Second Anglo-Dutch War, the English gained New Amsterdam (New York) in North America in exchange for Dutch control of Run, an Indonesian island. Several intertribal wars among the Native Americans and some epidemics brought on by contact with the Europeans caused sizable population losses for the Lenape between the years 1660 and 1670. By 1700, the Lenape population had diminished to 200.
In 1730, what percentage of New York households were slave-holding?
56ceddd9aab44d1400b88b5f
42%
132
False
In 1730, what American city had the highest percentage of slaveholders?
56ceddd9aab44d1400b88b60
Charleston, South Carolina
210
False
Near what square was the African Burial Ground unearthed?
56ceddd9aab44d1400b88b61
Foley Square
594
False
What was being built that resulted in the discovery of the African Burial Ground?
56ceddd9aab44d1400b88b62
courthouse
578
False
Which city in North America held the most slaves in the 1700s?
56cfb5cb234ae51400d9beb6
Charleston, South Carolina
210
False
When was as African burial ground discovered after the building of new courthouse?
56cfb5cb234ae51400d9beb7
1990s
534
False
New York grew in importance as a trading port while under British rule in the early 1700s. It also became a center of slavery, with 42% of households holding slaves by 1730, more than any other city other than Charleston, South Carolina. Most slaveholders held a few or several domestic slaves, but others hired them out to work at labor. Slavery became integrally tied to New York's economy through the labor of slaves throughout the port, and the banks and shipping tied to the South. Discovery of the African Burying Ground in the 1990s, during construction of a new federal courthouse near Foley Square, revealed that tens of thousands of Africans had been buried in the area in the colonial years.
In what year was John Peter Zenger tried?
56cede40aab44d1400b88b71
1735
47
False
On what island did Zenger's trial occur?
56cede40aab44d1400b88b72
Manhattan
13
False
In what year was Columbia University chartered?
56cede40aab44d1400b88b73
1754
118
False
Under what king did the founding of Columbia University occur?
56cede40aab44d1400b88b74
George II
178
False
What was the original name of Columbia University?
56cede40aab44d1400b88b75
King's College
191
False
Which trial in Manhatten helped establish the right of freedom of the press?
56cfb691234ae51400d9bec3
John Peter Zenger
26
False
Columbia University of New York was founded in what year?
56cfb691234ae51400d9bec4
1754
118
False
The Stamp Act Congress had a meeting in 1765 in which US city?
56cfb691234ae51400d9bec5
New York
256
False
The trial in Manhattan of John Peter Zenger in 1735 helped to establish the freedom of the press in North America. In 1754, Columbia University was founded under charter by King George II as King's College in Lower Manhattan. The Stamp Act Congress met in New York in October 1765 as the Sons of Liberty organized in the city, skirmishing over the next ten years with British troops stationed there.
What was the biggest battle of the American Revolution?
56cedf11aab44d1400b88b93
Battle of Long Island
4
False
In what borough did the Battle of Long Island occur?
56cedf11aab44d1400b88b94
Brooklyn
149
False
In what month and year was the Battle of Long Island fought?
56cedf11aab44d1400b88b95
August 1776
95
False
About how many escaped slaves were in New York during the time the British occupied it?
56cedf11aab44d1400b88b96
10,000
539
False
In what year did the American Revolutionary War end?
56cedf11aab44d1400b88b97
1783
675
False
Which battle was the largest battle of the American Revolutionary war?
56cfb897234ae51400d9bee3
The Battle of Long Island
0
False
Which borough of New York was the Battle of Long Island fought?
56cfb897234ae51400d9bee4
Brooklyn
149
False
When did the English army start to retreat and evacuate NYC during the Battle of Long Island?
56cfb897234ae51400d9bee6
1783
675
False
The Battle of Long Island, the largest battle of the American Revolutionary War, was fought in August 1776 entirely within the modern-day borough of Brooklyn. After the battle, in which the Americans were defeated, leaving subsequent smaller armed engagements following in its wake, the city became the British military and political base of operations in North America. The city was a haven for Loyalist refugees, as well as escaped slaves who joined the British lines for freedom newly promised by the Crown for all fighters. As many as 10,000 escaped slaves crowded into the city during the British occupation. When the British forces evacuated at the close of the war in 1783, they transported 3,000 freedmen for resettlement in Nova Scotia. They resettled other freedmen in England and the Caribbean.
On what date did the peace conference on Staten Island occur?
56cee30faab44d1400b88bf1
September 11, 1776
193
False
Who was the British representative at the Conference House meeting?
56cee30faab44d1400b88bf2
Lord Howe
180
False
What notable catastrophe took place under the British occupation?
56cee30faab44d1400b88bf3
Great Fire of New York
261
False
In what modern-day borough did the Great Fire happen?
56cee30faab44d1400b88bf4
Manhattan
342
False
What noted religious building was destroyed in the Great Fire?
56cee30faab44d1400b88bf5
Trinity Church
425
False
Who was the English general who met with Benjamin Franklin on Septermber 11, 1776?
56cfb961234ae51400d9beff
Lord Howe
180
False
Which natural disaster happened after English occupation of Lower Manhattan?
56cfb961234ae51400d9bf00
the Great Fire of New York
257
False
The only attempt at a peaceful solution to the war took place at the Conference House on Staten Island between American delegates, including Benjamin Franklin, and British general Lord Howe on September 11, 1776. Shortly after the British occupation began, the Great Fire of New York occurred, a large conflagration on the West Side of Lower Manhattan, which destroyed about a quarter of the buildings in the city, including Trinity Church.
In what year did New York become the United States capital?
56cee398aab44d1400b88bfb
1785
3
False
Who was the United States' first President?
56cee398aab44d1400b88bfc
George Washington
313
False
In what building did the Supreme Court of the United States first sit?
56cee398aab44d1400b88bfd
Federal Hall
517
False
On what street did the writing of the Bill of Rights occur?
56cee398aab44d1400b88bfe
Wall Street
533
False
What was the second largest city in the United States in 1790?
56cee398aab44d1400b88bff
Philadelphia
578
False
Which organization made New York the national capital in 1785?
56cfbab4234ae51400d9bf19
Congress of the Confederation
29
False
New York City became the first what under the new Constitution of the United States?
56cfbab4234ae51400d9bf1b
capital
86
False
The first president, George Washington, took office in what year?
56cfbab4234ae51400d9bf1c
1789
265
False
By which year, did New York City become the largest city in the United States?
56cfbab4234ae51400d9bf1d
1790
549
False
In 1785, the assembly of the Congress of the Confederation made New York the national capital shortly after the war. New York was the last capital of the U.S. under the Articles of Confederation and the first capital under the Constitution of the United States. In 1789, the first President of the United States, George Washington, was inaugurated; the first United States Congress and the Supreme Court of the United States each assembled for the first time, and the United States Bill of Rights was drafted, all at Federal Hall on Wall Street. By 1790, New York had surpassed Philadelphia as the largest city in the United States.
In what year did the state of New York pass a law to free the slaves?
56cee43eaab44d1400b88c05
1799
48
False
What borough was home to a notable population of free African-Americans?
56cee43eaab44d1400b88c06
Manhattan
340
False
Along with John Jay, who founded the New York Manumission Society?
56cee43eaab44d1400b88c07
Alexander Hamilton
400
False
In what year did the state of New York eliminate slavery?
56cee43eaab44d1400b88c08
1827
571
False
In 1840, about how many African-Americans lived in New York City?
56cee43eaab44d1400b88c09
16,000
846
False
The gradual abolition act in New York was formed in what year?
56cfbb5f234ae51400d9bf2b
1799
48
False
When was slavery completely outlawed in the state of New York?
56cfbb5f234ae51400d9bf2c
1827
571
False
Under New York State's gradual abolition act of 1799, children of slave mothers were born to be eventually liberated but were held in indentured servitude until their mid-to-late twenties. Together with slaves freed by their masters after the Revolutionary War and escaped slaves, a significant free-black population gradually developed in Manhattan. Under such influential United States founders as Alexander Hamilton and John Jay, the New York Manumission Society worked for abolition and established the African Free School to educate black children. It was not until 1827 that slavery was completely abolished in the state, and free blacks struggled afterward with discrimination. New York interracial abolitionist activism continued; among its leaders were graduates of the African Free School. The city's black population reached more than 16,000 in 1840.
What plan of 1811 spread a grid of streets across Manhattan?
56cee4d1aab44d1400b88c0f
Commissioners' Plan
162
False
In what year did the Erie Canal finish building?
56cee4d1aab44d1400b88c10
1825
262
False
What political machine controlled New York politics in this era?
56cee4d1aab44d1400b88c11
Tammany Hall
501
False
Along with German immigrants, immigrants of what nationality supported Tammany Hall?
56cee4d1aab44d1400b88c12
Irish
548
False
The Erie Canal was finished being built in what year?
56cfbc57234ae51400d9bf31
1825
262
False
In the 19th century, the city was transformed by development relating to its status as a trading center, as well as by European immigration. The city adopted the Commissioners' Plan of 1811, which expanded the city street grid to encompass all of Manhattan. The 1825 completion of the Erie Canal through central New York connected the Atlantic port to the agricultural markets and commodities of the North American interior via the Hudson River and the Great Lakes. Local politics became dominated by Tammany Hall, a political machine supported by Irish and German immigrants.
What was the name of the first urban landscaped park in the United States?
56cee50caab44d1400b88c17
Central Park
333
False
In what year was Central Park founded?
56cee50caab44d1400b88c18
1857
356
False
Central park, in 1857, became the first park in America to become what?
56cfbc81234ae51400d9bf3b
first landscaped
372
False
Several prominent American literary figures lived in New York during the 1830s and 1840s, including William Cullen Bryant, Washington Irving, Herman Melville, Rufus Wilmot Griswold, John Keese, Nathaniel Parker Willis, and Edgar Allan Poe. Public-minded members of the contemporaneous business elite lobbied for the establishment of Central Park, which in 1857 became the first landscaped park in an American city.
What event brought many Irish immigrants to the United States?
56cee5a1aab44d1400b88c23
Great Irish Famine
4
False
In 1860, approximately how many people of Irish extraction were in New York?
56cee5a1aab44d1400b88c24
200,000
72
False
In 1860, what fraction of the city population was composed of Irish immigrants?
56cee5a1aab44d1400b88c25
a quarter
124
False
In 1860, what percentage of the city population was composed of German immigrants?
56cee5a1aab44d1400b88c26
25%
297
False
What events provoked the immigration of people from Germany?
56cee5a1aab44d1400b88c27
revolutions
230
False
Which event brought upon a lot of Irish immigrants to NYC?
56cfbef5234ae51400d9bf41
Great Irish Famine
4
False
How many immigrants that were Irish were living in New York in 1860?
56cfbef5234ae51400d9bf42
Over 200,000
67
False
The Great Irish Famine brought a large influx of Irish immigrants. Over 200,000 were living in New York by 1860, upwards of a quarter of the city's population. There was also extensive immigration from the German provinces, where revolutions had disrupted societies, and Germans comprised another 25% of New York's population by 1860.
Who was the mayor of New York City in 1861?
56cee638aab44d1400b88c31
Fernando Wood
150
False
What was the commutation fee to avoid being conscripted during the American Civil War?
56cee638aab44d1400b88c32
$300
441
False
People of what ethnicity most visibly participated in the Draft Riots of 1863?
56cee638aab44d1400b88c33
Irish
591
False
About how many people died during the Draft Riots of 1863?
56cee638aab44d1400b88c34
120
1073
False
What was the approximate African-American population of New York City in 1865?
56cee638aab44d1400b88c35
10,000
1304
False
The Draft Riots caused which building to burn down in 1863?
56cfcf61234ae51400d9bf5c
Colored Orphan Asylum
836
False
Democratic Party candidates were consistently elected to local office, increasing the city's ties to the South and its dominant party. In 1861, Mayor Fernando Wood called on the aldermen to declare independence from Albany and the United States after the South seceded, but his proposal was not acted on. Anger at new military conscription laws during the American Civil War (1861–1865), which spared wealthier men who could afford to pay a $300 (equivalent to $5,766 in 2016) commutation fee to hire a substitute, led to the Draft Riots of 1863, whose most visible participants were ethnic Irish working class. The situation deteriorated into attacks on New York's elite, followed by attacks on black New Yorkers and their property after fierce competition for a decade between Irish immigrants and blacks for work. Rioters burned the Colored Orphan Asylum to the ground, but more than 200 children escaped harm due to efforts of the New York City Police Department, which was mainly made up of Irish immigrants. According to historian James M. McPherson (2001), at least 120 people were killed. In all, eleven black men were lynched over five days, and the riots forced hundreds of blacks to flee the city for Williamsburg, Brooklyn, as well as New Jersey; the black population in Manhattan fell below 10,000 by 1865, which it had last been in 1820. The white working class had established dominance. Violence by longshoremen against black men was especially fierce in the docks area. It was one of the worst incidents of civil unrest in American history.
In what year was the modern City of New York founded?
56cee6a3aab44d1400b88c3b
1898
3
False
In what year did the subway begin operation?
56cee6a3aab44d1400b88c3c
1904
280
False
Portions of what modern-day borough were included in the County of New York?
56cee6a3aab44d1400b88c3d
the Bronx
166
False
The subway of New York was first available in what year?
56cfcffa234ae51400d9bf5f
1904
280
False
In 1898, the modern City of New York was formed with the consolidation of Brooklyn (until then a separate city), the County of New York (which then included parts of the Bronx), the County of Richmond, and the western portion of the County of Queens. The opening of the subway in 1904, first built as separate private systems, helped bind the new city together. Throughout the first half of the 20th century, the city became a world center for industry, commerce, and communication.
In what year did the General Slocum disaster occur?
56cee70daab44d1400b88c51
1904
3
False
How many people died on the General Slocum?
56cee70daab44d1400b88c52
1,021
77
False
In what building did the city's deadliest industrial disaster occur?
56cee70daab44d1400b88c53
Triangle Shirtwaist Factory
113
False
How many people died in the Triangle Shirtwaist Factory fire?
56cee70daab44d1400b88c54
146
203
False
The growth of what organization was prompted by the Triangle Shirtwaist Factory fire?
56cee70daab44d1400b88c55
International Ladies' Garment Workers' Union
253
False
A catastrophe in 1911 that killed 146 workers was called what?
56cfd219234ae51400d9bf64
Triangle Shirtwaist Factory fire
113
False
In 1904, the steamship General Slocum caught fire in the East River, killing 1,021 people on board. In 1911, the Triangle Shirtwaist Factory fire, the city's worst industrial disaster, took the lives of 146 garment workers and spurred the growth of the International Ladies' Garment Workers' Union and major improvements in factory safety standards.
How many non-white people lived in New York in 1890?
56cee774aab44d1400b88c5b
36,620
36
False
What was the name of the Prohibition-era African-American cultural flourishing in New York?
56cee774aab44d1400b88c5c
Harlem Renaissance
291
False
What was the population of people in New York that were not Caucasian in 1890?
56cfda93234ae51400d9bf7b
36,620
36
False
New York's non-white population was 36,620 in 1890. New York City was a prime destination in the early twentieth century for African Americans during the Great Migration from the American South, and by 1916, New York City was home to the largest urban African diaspora in North America. The Harlem Renaissance of literary and cultural life flourished during the era of Prohibition. The larger economic boom generated construction of skyscrapers competing in height and creating an identifiable skyline.
In the early 1920s, what was the second most highly populated city in the world?
56cee7edaab44d1400b88c67
London
93
False
What is the term for a city with a population of over 10 million?
56cee7edaab44d1400b88c68
megacity
192
False
Who was mayor of New York during the Great Depression?
56cee7edaab44d1400b88c69
Fiorello La Guardia
292
False
For about how many years did Tammany Hall control New York political life?
56cee7edaab44d1400b88c6a
eighty
356
False
In the 1930s, New York City had more than 10 million people becoming the first what in history?
56cfdb8d234ae51400d9bf83
megacity
192
False
New York became the most populous urbanized area in the world in the early 1920s, overtaking London. The metropolitan area surpassed the 10 million mark in the early 1930s, becoming the first megacity in human history. The difficult years of the Great Depression saw the election of reformer Fiorello La Guardia as mayor and the fall of Tammany Hall after eighty years of political dominance.
When was construction finished on the United Nations Headquarters?
56cee873aab44d1400b88c75
1952
332
False
Prior to New York, what city was the center of the world of art?
56cee873aab44d1400b88c76
Paris
483
False
What artistic movement caused New York to overtake Paris as the global art center?
56cee873aab44d1400b88c77
abstract expressionism
408
False
The headquarters what organization was done being build in 1952 in New York?
56cfdc1e234ae51400d9bf85
United Nations
287
False
Returning World War II veterans created a post-war economic boom and the development of large housing tracts in eastern Queens. New York emerged from the war unscathed as the leading city of the world, with Wall Street leading America's place as the world's dominant economic power. The United Nations Headquarters was completed in 1952, solidifying New York's global geopolitical influence, and the rise of abstract expressionism in the city precipitated New York's displacement of Paris as the center of the art world.
The Stonewall riots are named after what building?
56cee90caab44d1400b88c85
the Stonewall Inn
191
False
In what neighborhood did the Stonewall riots occur?
56cee90caab44d1400b88c86
Greenwich Village
216
False
On what date did the Stonewall riots take place?
56cee90caab44d1400b88c87
June 28, 1969
173
False
In what borough did the Stonewall riots happen?
56cee90caab44d1400b88c88
Manhattan
256
False
What event provoked the Stonewall riots?
56cee90caab44d1400b88c89
a police raid
113
False
Where did the Stonewall riots happen?
56cfdc71234ae51400d9bf88
Stonewall Inn in the Greenwich Village neighborhood of Lower Manhattan
195
False
The Stonewall riots were a series of spontaneous, violent demonstrations by members of the gay community against a police raid that took place in the early morning hours of June 28, 1969, at the Stonewall Inn in the Greenwich Village neighborhood of Lower Manhattan. They are widely considered to constitute the single most important event leading to the gay liberation movement and the modern fight for LGBT rights in the United States.
In what year did the population of New York first reach an all-time high in this period?
56ceeaf2aab44d1400b88c9f
2000
704
False
In what year did the population of New York reach an all-time high for the second time in this period?
56ceeaf2aab44d1400b88ca0
2010
738
False
What was the name of a new sector of the New York economy that appeared in the 1990s?
56ceeaf2aab44d1400b88ca1
Silicon Alley
606
False
In what decade did the crime rate drop significantly?
56ceeaf2aab44d1400b88ca2
1990s
332
False
In what decade was there a significant decline in industrial jobs?
56ceeaf2aab44d1400b88ca3
1970s
7
False
Which decade did massive job losses happen in NYC due to industrial issues?
56cfdceb234ae51400d9bf95
1970s
7
False
In the 1970s, job losses due to industrial restructuring caused New York City to suffer from economic problems and rising crime rates. While a resurgence in the financial industry greatly improved the city's economic health in the 1980s, New York's crime rate continued to increase through that decade and into the beginning of the 1990s. By the mid 1990s, crime rates started to drop dramatically due to revised police strategies, improving economic opportunities, gentrification, and new residents, both American transplants and new immigrants from Asia and Latin America. Important new sectors, such as Silicon Alley, emerged in the city's economy. New York's population reached all-time highs in the 2000 Census and then again in the 2010 Census.
What was the name of the aircraft that crashed into the World Trade Center's North Tower on September 11, 2001?
56ceeb94aab44d1400b88cb1
American Airlines Flight 11
215
False
What was the name of the aircraft that crashed into the World Trade Center's South Tower on September 11, 2001?
56ceeb94aab44d1400b88cb2
United Airlines Flight 175
294
False
How many firefighters died in the World Trade Center attack?
56ceeb94aab44d1400b88cb3
343
420
False
On what date did the World Trade Center PATH begin operation?
56ceeb94aab44d1400b88cb4
July 19, 1909
727
False
How tall is One World Trade Center in meters?
56ceeb94aab44d1400b88cb5
541.3
1154
False
The Hudson Terminal which was also demolished was build in what year?
56cfdde6234ae51400d9bfa6
1909
736
False
How many leader terrorists of Al Quada were involved with the 9/11 attacks directly that day?
56cfdde6234ae51400d9bfa8
10
158
False
What was the plane named that crashed into the World Trade Center?
56cfdde6234ae51400d9bfa9
American Airlines Flight 11
215
False
The city and surrounding area suffered the bulk of the economic damage and largest loss of human life in the aftermath of the September 11, 2001 attacks when 10 of the 19 terrorists associated with Al-Qaeda piloted American Airlines Flight 11 into the North Tower of the World Trade Center and United Airlines Flight 175 into the South Tower of the World Trade Center, and later destroyed them, killing 2,192 civilians, 343 firefighters, and 71 law enforcement officers who were in the towers and in the surrounding area. The rebuilding of the area, has created a new One World Trade Center, and a 9/11 memorial and museum along with other new buildings and infrastructure. The World Trade Center PATH station, which opened on July 19, 1909 as the Hudson Terminal, was also destroyed in the attack. A temporary station was built and opened on November 23, 2003. A permanent station, the World Trade Center Transportation Hub, is currently under construction. The new One World Trade Center is the tallest skyscraper in the Western Hemisphere and the fourth-tallest building in the world by pinnacle height, with its spire reaching a symbolic 1,776 feet (541.3 m) in reference to the year of American independence.
On what date did the Occupy Wall Street protests commence?
56cef300aab44d1400b88cff
September 17, 2011
103
False
In what park did the Occupy Wall Street protests occur?
56cef300aab44d1400b88d00
Zuccotti Park
35
False
In what borough did the Occupy Wall Street protests take place?
56cef300aab44d1400b88d01
Manhattan
84
False
In what district of Manhattan were the Occupy Wall Street protests?
56cef300aab44d1400b88d02
Financial District
56
False
The Occupy Wall Street protests that took place in Zuccotti Park was on which date?
56cfde18234ae51400d9bfaf
September 17, 2011
103
False
The Occupy Wall Street protests in Zuccotti Park in the Financial District of Lower Manhattan began on September 17, 2011, receiving global attention and spawning the Occupy movement against social and economic inequality worldwide.
What individual established the National Review?
56cef532aab44d1400b88d19
William F. Buckley, Jr.
283
False
In what year was the National Review founded?
56cef532aab44d1400b88d1a
1955
310
False
What public figure defended New York in January 2016?
56cef532aab44d1400b88d1b
Donald Trump
128
False
A presidential candidate from what party derided the city for its liberalism?
56cef532aab44d1400b88d1c
Republican
9
False
When one Republican presidential candidate for the 2016 election ridiculed the liberalism of "New York values" in January 2016, Donald Trump, leading in the polls, vigorously defended his city. The National Review, a conservative magazine published in the city since its founding by William F. Buckley, Jr. in 1955, commented, "By hearkening back to New York's heart after 9/11, for a moment Trump transcended politics. How easily we forget, but for weeks after the terror attacks, New York was America."
In what geographical region of the United States is New York City located?
56cef595aab44d1400b88d21
Northeastern
33
False
In what geographical region of New York state is New York City located?
56cef595aab44d1400b88d22
southeastern
64
False
New York City is about half the distance between Washington DC and what city?
56cef595aab44d1400b88d23
Boston
144
False
New York City is adjacent to what ocean?
56cef595aab44d1400b88d24
Atlantic
263
False
What river is New York City located on?
56cef595aab44d1400b88d25
Hudson River
185
False
New York City is at the base of which American river?
56cfde76234ae51400d9bfb1
Hudson
185
False
The Hudson River flows into which body of water?
56cfde76234ae51400d9bfb2
Atlantic Ocean
263
False
The three islands that make up New York city are named what?
56cfde76234ae51400d9bfb3
Long Island, Manhattan, and Staten Island.
394
False
New York City is situated in the Northeastern United States, in southeastern New York State, approximately halfway between Washington, D.C. and Boston. The location at the mouth of the Hudson River, which feeds into a naturally sheltered harbor and then into the Atlantic Ocean, has helped the city grow in significance as a trading port. Most of New York City is built on the three islands of Long Island, Manhattan, and Staten Island.
The Hudson River serves as a dividing line between New York and what state?
56cef613aab44d1400b88d2b
New Jersey
194
False
What river flows between the Hudson and East Rivers?
56cef613aab44d1400b88d2c
Harlem River
325
False
What is the city's sole fresh water river?
56cef613aab44d1400b88d2d
Bronx River
444
False
Into what body of water does the Hudson River terminate?
56cef613aab44d1400b88d2e
New York Bay
54
False
Between New York City and what city is the Hudson River an estuary?
56cef613aab44d1400b88d2f
Troy, New York
94
False
The Hudson River separates NYC from which US state?
56cfdef3234ae51400d9bfc1
New Jersey
194
False
The single only freshwater river in NYC is what river?
56cfdef3234ae51400d9bfc2
The Bronx River
440
False
Which river seperates The Bronx from Manhatten?
56cfdef3234ae51400d9bfc3
The Harlem River
321
False
The Hudson River flows through the Hudson Valley into New York Bay. Between New York City and Troy, New York, the river is an estuary. The Hudson River separates the city from the U.S. state of New Jersey. The East River—a tidal strait—flows from Long Island Sound and separates the Bronx and Manhattan from Long Island. The Harlem River, another tidal strait between the East and Hudson Rivers, separates most of Manhattan from the Bronx. The Bronx River, which flows through the Bronx and Westchester County, is the only entirely fresh water river in the city.
What Manhattan development is the product of land reclamation?
56cef671aab44d1400b88d3b
Battery Park City
231
False
The city's land has been altered substantially by human intervention, with considerable land reclamation along the waterfronts since Dutch colonial times; reclamation is most prominent in Lower Manhattan, with developments such as Battery Park City in the 1970s and 1980s. Some of the natural relief in topography has been evened out, especially in Manhattan.
What is the total area of New York City in square miles?
56cef84faab44d1400b88d53
468.9
25
False
In square miles, how much of the city's total area is composed of water?
56cef84faab44d1400b88d54
164.1
57
False
In square miles, how much of the city's total area is land?
56cef84faab44d1400b88d55
304.8
100
False
What is the name of New York City's highest point?
56cef84faab44d1400b88d56
Todt Hill
164
False
On what island is New York City's highest point located?
56cef84faab44d1400b88d57
Staten Island
177
False
How many square miles in NYC?
56cfe133234ae51400d9bfdf
468.9
25
False
How many square miles are water in NYC?
56cfe133234ae51400d9bfe0
164.1
57
False
How many square miles are land in NYC?
56cfe133234ae51400d9bfe1
304.8
100
False
The highest peak in the city is what location?
56cfe133234ae51400d9bfe2
Todt Hill
164
False
How many feet above sea level is Todt Hil?
56cfe133234ae51400d9bfe3
409.8
202
False
The city's total area is 468.9 square miles (1,214 km2). 164.1 sq mi (425 km2) of this is water and 304.8 sq mi (789 km2) is land. The highest point in the city is Todt Hill on Staten Island, which, at 409.8 feet (124.9 m) above sea level, is the highest point on the Eastern Seaboard south of Maine. The summit of the ridge is mostly covered in woodlands as part of the Staten Island Greenbelt.
What structure is an example of saltbox architecture?
56cf1988aab44d1400b88d71
Pieter Claesen Wyckoff House
131
False
In what borough is the Pieter Claesen Wyckoff House located?
56cf1988aab44d1400b88d72
Brooklyn
163
False
What building is the priciest office tower in the world?
56cf1988aab44d1400b88d73
One World Trade Center
230
False
In what borough is One World Trade Center located?
56cf1988aab44d1400b88d74
Manhattan
293
False
In what year did construction on the oldest part of Pieter Claesen Wyckoff House begin?
56cf1988aab44d1400b88d75
1656
210
False
The most expensive office tower built in the world today is what?
56cfe15f234ae51400d9bfe9
One World Trade Center
230
False
New York has architecturally noteworthy buildings in a wide range of styles and from distinct time periods, from the saltbox style Pieter Claesen Wyckoff House in Brooklyn, the oldest section of which dates to 1656, to the modern One World Trade Center, the skyscraper at Ground Zero in Lower Manhattan and currently the most expensive new office tower in the world.
How many high-rises were present in New York City in 2011?
56cf1a05aab44d1400b88d7b
5,937
182
False
What city has the most high-rise buildings in the world?
56cf1a05aab44d1400b88d7c
Hong Kong
311
False
How many structures in New York City are over 100m tall?
56cf1a05aab44d1400b88d7d
550
218
False
In what year was the Woolworth Building completed?
56cf1a05aab44d1400b88d7e
1913
425
False
How many buildings in New York City are over 200m high?
56cf1a05aab44d1400b88d7f
50
219
False
NYC has the highest quantity of skyscrapers after which other world city?
56cfe1ae234ae51400d9bff3
Hong Kong
311
False
How many buildings located in NYC are at least 330 feet in height?
56cfe1ae234ae51400d9bff4
550
218
False
Manhattan's skyline, with its many skyscrapers, is universally recognized, and the city has been home to several of the tallest buildings in the world. As of 2011, New York City had 5,937 high-rise buildings, of which 550 completed structures were at least 330 feet (100 m) high, both second in the world after Hong Kong, with over 50 completed skyscrapers taller than 656 feet (200 m). These include the Woolworth Building (1913), an early gothic revival skyscraper built with massively scaled gothic detailing.
In what year was the Empire State Building completed?
56cf1aa6aab44d1400b88d85
1931
242
False
The Chrysler Building reflects what architectural style?
56cf1aa6aab44d1400b88d86
Art Deco
168
False
What floor of the Chrysler Building has sculptures of eagles at its corners?
56cf1aa6aab44d1400b88d87
61st
413
False
What building known for its bronze-tinted I-beams was completed in 1957?
56cf1aa6aab44d1400b88d88
Seagram Building
604
False
What is the full name of the organization known by the acronym AIA?
56cf1aa6aab44d1400b88d89
American Institute of Architects
855
False
Which animal decorates the corners of the Chrysler Building?
56cfe201234ae51400d9bffd
eagles
384
False
When was the Empire State Building constructed?
56cfe201234ae51400d9bffe
1931
242
False
When was the Chrysler building built in NYC?
56cfe201234ae51400d9bfff
1930
209
False
The 1916 Zoning Resolution required setbacks in new buildings, and restricted towers to a percentage of the lot size, to allow sunlight to reach the streets below. The Art Deco style of the Chrysler Building (1930) and Empire State Building (1931), with their tapered tops and steel spires, reflected the zoning requirements. The buildings have distinctive ornamentation, such as the eagles at the corners of the 61st floor on the Chrysler Building, and are considered some of the finest examples of the Art Deco style. A highly influential example of the international style in the United States is the Seagram Building (1957), distinctive for its façade using visible bronze-toned I-beams to evoke the building's structure. The Condé Nast Building (2000) is a prominent example of green design in American skyscrapers and has received an award from the American Institute of Architects as well as AIA New York State for its design.
In what borough is the Riverdale neighborhood located?
56cf1ba9aab44d1400b88d8f
the Bronx
373
False
In what borough is the Ditmas Park neighborhood located?
56cf1ba9aab44d1400b88d90
Brooklyn
401
False
In what borough is the Douglaston neighborhood located?
56cf1ba9aab44d1400b88d91
Queens
431
False
Brownstone rowhouse construction is most often associated with the period beginning in 1870 and ending in what year?
56cf1ba9aab44d1400b88d92
1930
209
False
Along with Tudor Revival, what is a common architectural style of single-family houses in New York?
56cf1ba9aab44d1400b88d93
Victorian
535
False
What type of housing structure makes up most of the large residential districts of NYC?
56cfe293234ae51400d9c007
brownstone rowhouses
88
False
The character of New York's large residential districts is often defined by the elegant brownstone rowhouses and townhouses and shabby tenements that were built during a period of rapid expansion from 1870 to 1930. In contrast, New York City also has neighborhoods that are less densely populated and feature free-standing dwellings. In neighborhoods such as Riverdale (in the Bronx), Ditmas Park (in Brooklyn), and Douglaston (in Queens), large single-family homes are common in various architectural styles such as Tudor Revival and Victorian.
What event led to the decline in wooden construction in New York City?
56cf1c12aab44d1400b88d99
the Great Fire of 1835
139
False
In the 19th century, New York city required water towers in the roofs of buildings that were more than how many stories tall?
56cf1c12aab44d1400b88d9a
six
334
False
What area was known for its garden apartments?
56cf1c12aab44d1400b88d9b
Jackson Heights
542
False
After the Great Fire of 1835, what became the most widespread building materials?
56cfe340234ae51400d9c009
Stone and brick
0
False
To prevent high water pressures at lower elevations what were built on many of the city's buildings?
56cfe340234ae51400d9c00a
wooden roof-mounted water towers
224
False
Stone and brick became the city's building materials of choice after the construction of wood-frame houses was limited in the aftermath of the Great Fire of 1835. A distinctive feature of many of the city's buildings is the wooden roof-mounted water towers. In the 1800s, the city required their installation on buildings higher than six stories to prevent the need for excessively high water pressures at lower elevations, which could break municipal water pipes. Garden apartments became popular during the 1920s in outlying areas, such as Jackson Heights.
When did the United States Geological Survey released its seismic hazard analysis?
56cf1c53aab44d1400b88d9f
July 2014
91
False
According to the United States Geological Survey, an updated analysis of seismic hazard in July 2014 revealed a "slightly lower hazard for tall buildings" in New York City than previously assessed. Scientists estimated this lessened risk based upon a lower likelihood than previously thought of slow shaking near the city, which would be more likely to cause damage to taller structures from an earthquake in the vicinity of the city.
How many of New York's boroughs would be counted among the United States' ten most populated cities if they were independent?
56cf1caaaab44d1400b88da1
four
201
False
How many boroughs does New York City have?
56cf1caaaab44d1400b88da2
five
60
False
Which four boroughs of NYC would be among the the most populous cities in the US if they were independent cities?
56cfe3ae234ae51400d9c00d
Brooklyn, Queens, Manhattan, and the Bronx
223
False
There are hundreds of distinct neighborhoods throughout the five boroughs of New York City, many with a definable history and character to call their own. If the boroughs were each independent cities, four of the boroughs (Brooklyn, Queens, Manhattan, and the Bronx) would be among the ten most populous cities in the United States.
What is the name of New York City's climate using the Köppen climate classification?
56cf1d3baab44d1400b88da5
humid subtropical
133
False
How many sunny days does New York average each year?
56cf1d3baab44d1400b88da6
234
421
False
How many hours of sunshine does New York receive every year?
56cf1d3baab44d1400b88da7
2,535
529
False
The suburbs of the city lie between the humid subtropical and what other climate zone?
56cf1d3baab44d1400b88da8
humid continental
370
False
What month in New York City is the coldest?
56cf1d3baab44d1400b88da9
January
79
False
What type of climate does NYC possess?
56cfe43c234ae51400d9c00f
humid subtropical
133
False
How many days on average does NYC get sunshine annually?
56cfe43c234ae51400d9c010
234
421
False
What planting zone does the city land in?
56cfe43c234ae51400d9c011
USDA 7b
585
False
Under the Köppen climate classification, using the 0 °C (32 °F) coldest month (January) isotherm, New York City itself experiences a humid subtropical climate (Cfa) and is thus the northernmost major city on the North American continent with this categorization. The suburbs to the immediate north and west lie in the transition zone from a humid subtropical (Cfa) to a humid continental climate (Dfa). The area averages 234 days with at least some sunshine annually, and averages 57% of possible sunshine annually, accumulating 2,535 hours of sunshine per annum. The city falls under USDA 7b Plant Hardiness zone.
What mountains serve as a barrier to keep New York City comparatively warmer in the winter?
56cf2b33aab44d1400b88daf
Appalachians
196
False
What is New York City's daily January mean temperature in degrees celsius?
56cf2b33aab44d1400b88db0
0.3
436
False
What is the average humidity in July as a percentage?
56cf2b33aab44d1400b88db1
72%
838
False
On average, how often do New York temperatures exceed 90 degrees Fahrenheit each year?
56cf2b33aab44d1400b88db2
17
985
False
On what date did New York record its highest temperature ever?
56cf2b33aab44d1400b88db3
July 9, 1936
1297
False
What is the highest temperature recorded in NYC?
56cfe4b4234ae51400d9c01b
106
1279
False
When was the lowest temperature recorded in NYC?
56cfe4b4234ae51400d9c01c
1934
1267
False
The highest temperature ever recorded in NYC was in what year?
56cfe4b4234ae51400d9c01d
1936
1305
False
Winters are cold and damp, and prevailing wind patterns that blow offshore minimize the moderating effects of the Atlantic Ocean; yet the Atlantic and the partial shielding from colder air by the Appalachians keep the city warmer in the winter than inland North American cities at similar or lesser latitudes such as Pittsburgh, Cincinnati, and Indianapolis. The daily mean temperature in January, the area's coldest month, is 32.6 °F (0.3 °C); however, temperatures usually drop to 10 °F (−12 °C) several times per winter, and reach 50 °F (10 °C) several days each winter month. Spring and autumn are unpredictable and can range from chilly to warm, although they are usually mild with low humidity. Summers are typically warm to hot and humid, with a daily mean temperature of 76.5 °F (24.7 °C) in July and an average humidity level of 72%. Nighttime conditions are often exacerbated by the urban heat island phenomenon, while daytime temperatures exceed 90 °F (32 °C) on average of 17 days each summer and in some years exceed 100 °F (38 °C). In the warmer months, the dew point, a measure of atmospheric moisture, ranges from 57.3 °F (14.1 °C) in June to 62.0 °F (16.7 °C) in August. Extreme temperatures have ranged from −15 °F (−26 °C), recorded on February 9, 1934, up to 106 °F (41 °C) on July 9, 1936.
In millimeters, how much precipitation does New York receive a year?
56cf2ba4aab44d1400b88db9
1,270
31
False
In centimeters, what is the average winter snowfall?
56cf2ba4aab44d1400b88dba
66
180
False
When did Hurricane Sandy strike New York?
56cf2ba4aab44d1400b88dbb
October 29, 2012
456
False
How many inches of precipitation does NYC get in a year?
56cfe53a234ae51400d9c023
49.9
18
False
Which natural disaster occurred on October 29, 2012 in NYC?
56cfe53a234ae51400d9c024
Hurricane Sandy
371
False
The mean snowfall between 1981 and 2010 in NYC has been how many inches?
56cfe53a234ae51400d9c025
25.8
167
False
The city receives 49.9 inches (1,270 mm) of precipitation annually, which is fairly spread throughout the year. Average winter snowfall between 1981 and 2010 has been 25.8 inches (66 cm), but this varies considerably from year to year. Hurricanes and tropical storms are rare in the New York area, but are not unheard of and always have the potential to strike the area. Hurricane Sandy brought a destructive storm surge to New York City on the evening of October 29, 2012, flooding numerous streets, tunnels, and subway lines in Lower Manhattan and other areas of the city and cutting off electricity in many parts of the city and its suburbs. The storm and its profound impacts have prompted the discussion of constructing seawalls and other coastal barriers around the shorelines of the city and the metropolitan area to minimize the risk of destructive consequences from another such event in the future.
What is the name of the New York City department that operates the park system?
56cf2c09aab44d1400b88dbf
New York City Department of Parks and Recreation
188
False
What is the state office that operates New York City parks?
56cf2c09aab44d1400b88dc0
New York State Office of Parks, Recreation and Historic Preservation
110
False
What federal service operates New York City parks?
56cf2c09aab44d1400b88dc1
National Park Service
83
False
The City of New York has a complex park system, with various lands operated by the National Park Service, the New York State Office of Parks, Recreation and Historic Preservation, and the New York City Department of Parks and Recreation.
What city was rated as having the best park system by The Trust for Public Land?
56cf2c48aab44d1400b88dc5
Minneapolis
202
False
What city had the second highest ParkScore rating?
56cf2c48aab44d1400b88dc6
New York City
90
False
The 2013 ParkScore rating for NYC made NYC second in best park system to what other US city?
56cfe594234ae51400d9c02d
Minneapolis
202
False
In its 2013 ParkScore ranking, The Trust for Public Land reported that the park system in New York City was the second best park system among the 50 most populous U.S. cities, behind the park system of Minneapolis. ParkScore ranks urban park systems by a formula that analyzes median park size, park acres as percent of city area, the percent of city residents within a half-mile of a park, spending of park services per resident, and the number of playgrounds per 10,000 residents.
How large is the Gateway National recreation Area in hectares?
56cf2fb5aab44d1400b88ddd
10,521.83
61
False
About how large is the Jamaica Bay Wildlife Refuge in acres?
56cf2fb5aab44d1400b88dde
9,000
196
False
What fort is located on the Rockaway Peninsula?
56cf2fb5aab44d1400b88ddf
Fort Tilden
407
False
What park is located on the Rockaway Peninsula?
56cf2fb5aab44d1400b88de0
Jacob Riis Park
387
False
What body of water is Jamaica Bay Wildlife Refuge adjacent to?
56cf2fb5aab44d1400b88de1
Jamaica Bay
139
False
How many acres of land does Gateway Nation Recreation contain?
56cfe608234ae51400d9c02f
over 26,000
42
False
Gateway National Recreation Area contains over 26,000 acres (10,521.83 ha) in total, most of it surrounded by New York City, including the Jamaica Bay Wildlife Refuge in Brooklyn and Queens, over 9,000 acres (36 km2) of salt marsh, islands, and water, including most of Jamaica Bay. Also in Queens, the park includes a significant portion of the western Rockaway Peninsula, most notably Jacob Riis Park and Fort Tilden. In Staten Island, the park includes Fort Wadsworth, with historic pre-Civil War era Battery Weed and Fort Tompkins, and Great Kills Park, with beaches, trails, and a marina.
What body administers the Ellis Island Immigration Museum?
56cf306baab44d1400b88de7
National Park Service
95
False
What is the common name for the General Grant National Memorial?
56cf306baab44d1400b88de8
Grant's Tomb
476
False
In what neighborhood is the Stonewall Inn located?
56cf306baab44d1400b88de9
Greenwich Village
736
False
What movement is the Stonewall Inn most famously associated with?
56cf306baab44d1400b88dea
gay rights movement
784
False
The Statue of Liberty is taken care of by what organization?
56cfe6d2234ae51400d9c045
National Park Service
95
False
The Statue of Liberty is also in what other US state?
56cfe6d2234ae51400d9c046
New Jersey
160
False
Ellis Island is considered in New York state and which other?
56cfe6d2234ae51400d9c047
New Jersey
160
False
Which landmark is considered the spark for LGBT rights?
56cfe6d2234ae51400d9c048
Stonewall Inn
719
False
The landmark, General Grant National Memorial, is also called what?
56cfe6d2234ae51400d9c049
Grant's Tomb
476
False
The Statue of Liberty National Monument and Ellis Island Immigration Museum are managed by the National Park Service and are in both the states of New York and New Jersey. They are joined in the harbor by Governors Island National Monument, in New York. Historic sites under federal management on Manhattan Island include Castle Clinton National Monument; Federal Hall National Memorial; Theodore Roosevelt Birthplace National Historic Site; General Grant National Memorial ("Grant's Tomb"); African Burial Ground National Monument; and Hamilton Grange National Memorial. Hundreds of private properties are listed on the National Register of Historic Places or as a National Historic Landmark such as, for example, the Stonewall Inn in Greenwich Village as the catalyst of the modern gay rights movement.
How many state parks exist in New York City?
56cf30beaab44d1400b88df9
seven
10
False
How large is Riverbank State Park in acres?
56cf30beaab44d1400b88dfa
28
195
False
How many meters is Riverbank State Park elevated above the Hudson River?
56cf30beaab44d1400b88dfb
21
245
False
How many New York state parks are within New York City?
56cfe709234ae51400d9c04f
seven
10
False
Riverbank State park's highest point is how high above the Hudson River?
56cfe709234ae51400d9c050
69 feet
236
False
There are seven state parks within the confines of New York City, including Clay Pit Ponds State Park Preserve, a natural area which includes extensive riding trails, and Riverbank State Park, a 28-acre (110,000 m2) facility that rises 69 feet (21 m) over the Hudson River.
New York has approximately how many acres of parks?
56cf322eaab44d1400b88e09
28,000
23
False
How many miles of public beach are located in New York City?
56cf322eaab44d1400b88e0a
14
72
False
What is the biggest public park in the city?
56cf322eaab44d1400b88e0b
Pelham Bay Park
281
False
How large is Pelham Bay Park in hectares?
56cf322eaab44d1400b88e0c
1,093
315
False
New York City has how many acres of land dedicated to parks?
56cfe77b234ae51400d9c053
over 28,000
18
False
How long are all the public beaches together in miles?
56cfe77b234ae51400d9c054
14
72
False
What is the largest park in New York City?
56cfe77b234ae51400d9c055
Pelham Bay Park
281
False
How many acres of land does Pelham Bay park have?
56cfe77b234ae51400d9c056
2,700
302
False
New York City has over 28,000 acres (110 km2) of municipal parkland and 14 miles (23 km) of public beaches. Parks in New York City include Central Park, Prospect Park, Flushing Meadows–Corona Park, Forest Park, and Washington Square Park. The largest municipal park in the city is Pelham Bay Park with 2,700 acres (1,093 ha).
What is the name of the military base in New York City?
56cf3297aab44d1400b88e11
Fort Hamilton
25
False
In what year was Fort Hamilton founded?
56cf3297aab44d1400b88e12
1825
122
False
In what borough is Fort Hamilton located?
56cf3297aab44d1400b88e13
Brooklyn
130
False
What division is based at Fort Hamilton?
56cf3297aab44d1400b88e14
North Atlantic Division
320
False
What brigade is headquartered at Fort Hamilton?
56cf3297aab44d1400b88e15
1179th Transportation Brigade
463
False
The U.S. military has only one active location in NYC named what?
56cfe836234ae51400d9c063
Fort Hamilton
25
False
When was Fort Hamilton built?
56cfe836234ae51400d9c064
1825
122
False
Which borough can Fort Hamilton be found?
56cfe836234ae51400d9c065
Brooklyn
130
False
Fort Wadsworth and Fort Totten are located in which area of New York City?
56cfe836234ae51400d9c067
Queens
771
False
New York City is home to Fort Hamilton, the U.S. military's only active duty installation within the city. Established in 1825 in Brooklyn on the site of a small battery utilized during the American Revolution, it is one of America's longest serving military forts. Today Fort Hamilton serves as the headquarters of the North Atlantic Division of the United States Army Corps of Engineers as well as for the New York City Recruiting Battalion. It also houses the 1179th Transportation Brigade, the 722nd Aeromedical Staging Squadron, and a military entrance processing station. Other formerly active military reservations still utilized for National Guard and military training or reserve operations in the city include Fort Wadsworth in Staten Island and Fort Totten in Queens.
What was the population of New York City in 2014?
56cf331faab44d1400b88e1b
8,491,079
95
False
What is the US city with the second largest population?
56cf331faab44d1400b88e1c
Los Angeles
322
False
How many people moved to New York City between April 2010 and July 2014?
56cf331faab44d1400b88e1d
316,000
433
False
Approximately what percentage is New York City's population of the entire state's population?
56cf331faab44d1400b88e1e
40%
512
False
About what percentage is New York City's population of the New York metropolitan area's population?
56cf331faab44d1400b88e1f
40%
512
False
What is the population of NYC as of 2014?
56cfe890234ae51400d9c07d
8,491,079
95
False
The second largest city in the US is what?
56cfe890234ae51400d9c07e
Los Angeles
322
False
What percentage of people that live in the state of New York live in New York City?
56cfe890234ae51400d9c07f
40
512
False
New York City is the most-populous city in the United States, with an estimated record high of 8,491,079 residents as of 2014, incorporating more immigration into the city than outmigration since the 2010 United States Census. More than twice as many people live in New York City as in the second-most populous U.S. city (Los Angeles), and within a smaller area. New York City gained more residents between April 2010 and July 2014 (316,000) than any other U.S. city. New York City's population amounts to about 40% of New York State's population and a similar percentage of the New York metropolitan area population.
How many people live in a square mile of New York City?
56cf33c4aab44d1400b88e2f
27,858
57
False
What is the population density of Manhattan per square kilometer?
56cf33c4aab44d1400b88e30
27,673
486
False
Some cities in what county have a higher population density than New York City?
56cf33c4aab44d1400b88e31
Hudson County
282
False
In 2014, the city had an estimated population density of 27,858 people per square mile (10,756/km²), rendering it the most densely populated of all municipalities housing over 100,000 residents in the United States; however, several small cities (of fewer than 100,000) in adjacent Hudson County, New Jersey are more dense overall, as per the 2000 Census. Geographically co-extensive with New York County, the borough of Manhattan's population density of 71,672 people per square mile (27,673/km²) makes it the highest of any county in the United States and higher than the density of any individual American city.
What percentage of the city's population is Caucasian?
56cf3442aab44d1400b88e35
44%
34
False
What percentage of the city's population is African-American?
56cf3442aab44d1400b88e36
25.5%
72
False
What ethnicity is growing the quickest in New York City?
56cf3442aab44d1400b88e37
Asians
214
False
What percentage of the population identifies as Hispanic?
56cf3442aab44d1400b88e38
28.6%
183
False
By what percentage did the non-Hispanic white population decrease?
56cf3442aab44d1400b88e39
3
45
False
As of 2010, what percentage made up white people in NYC?
56cfe931234ae51400d9c089
44
34
False
Since what event did the first time black people decline in living in NYC?
56cfe931234ae51400d9c08a
the Civil War
434
False
Which race of people made it the highest growing ethnicity between 2000-2010 in NYC?
56cfe931234ae51400d9c08b
Asians
214
False
What percentage of Africans make up NYC?
56cfe931234ae51400d9c08c
25.5
72
False
The city's population in 2010 was 44% white (33.3% non-Hispanic white), 25.5% black (23% non-Hispanic black), 0.7% Native American, and 12.7% Asian. Hispanics of any race represented 28.6% of the population, while Asians constituted the fastest-growing segment of the city's population between 2000 and 2010; the non-Hispanic white population declined 3 percent, the smallest recorded decline in decades; and for the first time since the Civil War, the number of blacks declined over a decade.
How many immigrants arrived at Ellis Island from 1892 to 1924?
56cf34c5aab44d1400b88e49
12 million
113
False
'Melting pot' was first used to describe neighborhoods in what area of the city?
56cf34c5aab44d1400b88e4a
Lower East Side
298
False
What ethnicity comprised the largest number of immigrants at the beginning of the twentieth century?
56cf34c5aab44d1400b88e4b
Germans
324
False
What percentage of the population was Caucasian in 1940?
56cf34c5aab44d1400b88e4c
92%
444
False
What was the ethnicity of the second largest group of immigrants in 1900?
56cf34c5aab44d1400b88e4d
Irish
389
False
Between 1892-1924, how many immigrants came through Ellis Island?
56cfe987234ae51400d9c099
more than 12 million
103
False
In the year 1942, what percentage of white Americans made up New York City?
56cfe987234ae51400d9c09b
92
184
False
Throughout its history, the city has been a major port of entry for immigrants into the United States; more than 12 million European immigrants were received at Ellis Island between 1892 and 1924. The term "melting pot" was first coined to describe densely populated immigrant neighborhoods on the Lower East Side. By 1900, Germans constituted the largest immigrant group, followed by the Irish, Jews, and Italians. In 1940, whites represented 92% of the city's population.
What percentage of the population was born outside the United States?
56cf3569aab44d1400b88e53
37%
14
False
From what country did the largest number of foreign-born immigrants originate as of 2011?
56cf3569aab44d1400b88e54
Dominican Republic
206
False
About how many immigrants from Bangladesh lived in the city in 2013?
56cf3569aab44d1400b88e55
74,000
428
False
What country was the second largest source of foreign-born New Yorkers in 2011?
56cf3569aab44d1400b88e56
China
226
False
What percentage of the population of NYC was born in another country?
56cfe9c0234ae51400d9c09f
37
14
False
Approximately 37% of the city's population is foreign born. In New York, no single country or region of origin dominates. The ten largest sources of foreign-born individuals in the city as of 2011 were the Dominican Republic, China, Mexico, Guyana, Jamaica, Ecuador, Haiti, India, Russia, and Trinidad and Tobago, while the Bangladeshi immigrant population has since become one of the fastest growing in the city, counting over 74,000 by 2013.
What New York borough contains the highest population of Asian-Americans?
56cf3629aab44d1400b88e64
Queens
268
False
What borough housed the first Chinatown in New York?
56cf3629aab44d1400b88e65
Manhattan
624
False
As of 2012, what percentage of the New York City population was ethnically Chinese?
56cf3629aab44d1400b88e66
6.3%
1077
False
What borough is home to a large Tibetan population?
56cf3629aab44d1400b88e67
Queens
268
False
What percentage of the New York City population is Japanese?
56cf3629aab44d1400b88e68
0.3%
1536
False
Asian Americans in New York City, according to the 2010 Census, number more than one million, greater than the combined totals of San Francisco and Los Angeles. New York contains the highest total Asian population of any U.S. city proper. The New York City borough of Queens is home to the state's largest Asian American population and the largest Andean (Colombian, Ecuadorian, Peruvian, and Bolivian) populations in the United States, and is also the most ethnically diverse urban area in the world. The Chinese population constitutes the fastest-growing nationality in New York State; multiple satellites of the original Manhattan Chinatown (紐約華埠), in Brooklyn (布鲁克林華埠), and around Flushing, Queens (法拉盛華埠), are thriving as traditionally urban enclaves, while also expanding rapidly eastward into suburban Nassau County (拿騷縣) on Long Island (長島), as the New York metropolitan region and New York State have become the top destinations for new Chinese immigrants, respectively, and large-scale Chinese immigration continues into New York City and surrounding areas. In 2012, 6.3% of New York City was of Chinese ethnicity, with nearly three-fourths living in either Queens or Brooklyn, geographically on Long Island. A community numbering 20,000 Korean-Chinese (Chaoxianzu (Chinese: 朝鲜族) or Joseonjok (Hangul: 조선족)) is centered in Flushing, Queens, while New York City is also home to the largest Tibetan population outside China, India, and Nepal, also centered in Queens. Koreans made up 1.2% of the city's population, and Japanese 0.3%. Filipinos were the largest Southeast Asian ethnic group at 0.8%, followed by Vietnamese, who made up 0.2% of New York City's population in 2010. Indians are the largest South Asian group, comprising 2.4% of the city's population, with Bangladeshis and Pakistanis at 0.7% and 0.5%, respectively. Queens is the preferred borough of settlement for Asian Indians, Koreans, and Filipinos, as well as Malaysians and other Southeast Asians; while Brooklyn is receiving large numbers of both West Indian as well as Asian Indian immigrants.
How many non-Hispanic whites lived in New York City in 2012?
56cf36e5aab44d1400b88e6e
2.7 million
98
False
What is the non-Hispanic white population of Houston?
56cf36e5aab44d1400b88e6f
550,000
272
False
How many New Yorkers are of Polish ancestry?
56cf36e5aab44d1400b88e70
201,000
511
False
How many New York City residents are of Greek heritage?
56cf36e5aab44d1400b88e71
65,000
250
False
What borough has the largest population of ethnic Albanians?
56cf36e5aab44d1400b88e72
the Bronx
1437
False
NYC has the largest white population by how many people?
56cfed4d234ae51400d9c0df
2.7 million
98
False
New York City has the largest European and non-Hispanic white population of any American city. At 2.7 million in 2012, New York's non-Hispanic white population is larger than the non-Hispanic white populations of Los Angeles (1.1 million), Chicago (865,000), and Houston (550,000) combined. The European diaspora residing in the city is very diverse. According to 2012 Census estimates, there were roughly 560,000 Italian Americans, 385,000 Irish Americans, 253,000 German Americans, 223,000 Russian Americans, 201,000 Polish Americans, and 137,000 English Americans. Additionally, Greek and French Americans numbered 65,000 each, with those of Hungarian descent estimated at 60,000 people. Ukrainian and Scottish Americans numbered 55,000 and 35,000, respectively. People identifying ancestry from Spain numbered 30,838 total in 2010. People of Norwegian and Swedish descent both stood at about 20,000 each, while people of Czech, Lithuanian, Portuguese, Scotch-Irish, and Welsh descent all numbered between 12,000–14,000 people. Arab Americans number over 160,000 in New York City, with the highest concentration in Brooklyn. Central Asians, primarily Uzbek Americans, are a rapidly growing segment of the city's non-Hispanic white population, enumerating over 30,000, and including over half of all Central Asian immigrants to the United States, most settling in Queens or Brooklyn. Albanian Americans are most highly concentrated in the Bronx.
About how many people live in New York City's metropolitan area?
56cf37b9aab44d1400b88e82
20 million
53
False
As of 2012, how many Jewish people lived in the New York metropolitan area?
56cf37b9aab44d1400b88e83
1.5 million
567
False
What percentage of the total Indian-American population of the United States lives in the New York metropolitan area?
56cf37b9aab44d1400b88e84
20%
713
False
How many Hispanic people live in the New York metropolitan area?
56cf37b9aab44d1400b88e85
4.8 million
1147
False
Approximately how many Chinatowns exist in New York City?
56cf37b9aab44d1400b88e86
6
1182
False
The wider New York City metropolitan area, with over 20 million people, about 50% greater than the second-place Los Angeles metropolitan area in the United States, is also ethnically diverse. The New York region continues to be by far the leading metropolitan gateway for legal immigrants admitted into the United States, substantially exceeding the combined totals of Los Angeles and Miami, the next most popular gateway regions. It is home to the largest Jewish as well as Israeli communities outside Israel, with the Jewish population in the region numbering over 1.5 million in 2012 and including many diverse Jewish sects from around the Middle East and Eastern Europe. The metropolitan area is also home to 20% of the nation's Indian Americans and at least 20 Little India enclaves, as well as 15% of all Korean Americans and four Koreatowns; the largest Asian Indian population in the Western Hemisphere; the largest Russian American, Italian American, and African American populations; the largest Dominican American, Puerto Rican American, and South American and second-largest overall Hispanic population in the United States, numbering 4.8 million; and includes at least 6 established Chinatowns within New York City alone, with the urban agglomeration comprising a population of 779,269 overseas Chinese as of 2013 Census estimates, the largest outside of Asia.
In 2013, how many people of Puerto Rican ancestry lived in New York City?
56cf3862aab44d1400b88e8c
1.3 million
444
False
What nation provided the most legal immigrants to New York City in the Caribbean?
56cf3862aab44d1400b88e8d
the Dominican Republic
151
False
Out of all African nations, which provided the most legal immigrants in 2013?
56cf3862aab44d1400b88e8e
Egypt
233
False
Out of all nations in Central America, which provided the most legal immigrants in 2013?
56cf3862aab44d1400b88e8f
El Salvador
276
False
Of all the countries in South America, which provided the most legal immigrants in 2013?
56cf3862aab44d1400b88e90
Ecuador
0
False
Ecuador, Colombia, Guyana, Peru, and Brazil were the top source countries from South America for legal immigrants to the New York City region in 2013; the Dominican Republic, Jamaica, Haiti, and Trinidad and Tobago in the Caribbean; Egypt, Ghana, and Nigeria from Africa; and El Salvador, Honduras, and Guatemala in Central America. Amidst a resurgence of Puerto Rican migration to New York City, this population had increased to approximately 1.3 million in the metropolitan area as of 2013.
How many self-identified LGB people live in the New York metropolitan area?
56cf38dcaab44d1400b88ea0
568,903
101
False
On what date did New York legalize gay marriage?
56cf38dcaab44d1400b88ea1
June 24, 2011
236
False
How many days after gay marriage was legalized were gay marriages allowed to take place?
56cf38dcaab44d1400b88ea2
30
294
False
How many people identify as gay or bisexual in NYC?
56cfedcd234ae51400d9c0e5
568,903
101
False
Same-sex marriage became legal on what date in New York?
56cfedcd234ae51400d9c0e7
June 24, 2011
236
False
Since Gay marriage became legal, how many days did people have to wait to marry?
56cfedcd234ae51400d9c0e8
30
294
False
The New York metropolitan area is home to a self-identifying gay and bisexual community estimated at 568,903 individuals, the largest in the United States and one of the world's largest. Same-sex marriages in New York were legalized on June 24, 2011 and were authorized to take place beginning 30 days thereafter.
What percentage of New Yorkers are Christians?
56cf3934aab44d1400b88ea6
59%
14
False
What percentage of New Yorkers follow the Catholic faith?
56cf3934aab44d1400b88ea7
33%
46
False
About how many Jews live in New York City?
56cf3934aab44d1400b88ea8
1.1 million
160
False
What borough has the largest population of Jewish people?
56cf3934aab44d1400b88ea9
Brooklyn
215
False
What is the third most popular faith in New York City?
56cf3934aab44d1400b88eaa
Islam
225
False
What was the most prominent religion in New York as of 2014?
56cfee38234ae51400d9c0ed
Christianity
0
False
The second most prominent religion in New York is what?
56cfee38234ae51400d9c0ee
Judaism
132
False
Half the population of Jews live in what borough of New York City?
56cfee38234ae51400d9c0ef
Brooklyn
215
False
What percentage of people in 2014 had no religion?
56cfee38234ae51400d9c0f0
24
483
False
The third most popular religion in NYC is what?
56cfee38234ae51400d9c0f1
Islam
225
False
Christianity (59%), particularly Catholicism (33%), was the most prevalently practiced religion in New York as of 2014, followed by Judaism, with approximately 1.1 million Jews in New York City, over half living in Brooklyn. Islam ranks third in New York City, with official estimates ranging between 600,000 and 1,000,000 observers and including 10% of the city's public schoolchildren, followed by Hinduism, Buddhism, and a variety of other religions, as well as atheism. In 2014, 24% self-identified with no organized religious affiliation.
What is New York City's Gini Coefficient?
56cf39b4aab44d1400b88eb0
0.5
92
False
What borough has a Gini Coefficient of 0.6?
56cf39b4aab44d1400b88eb1
Manhattan
129
False
What previous mayor of New York is a billionaire?
56cf39b4aab44d1400b88eb2
Michael R. Bloomberg
599
False
In 2014, millionaires made up what percentage of New York City's population?
56cf39b4aab44d1400b88eb3
4.6%
722
False
What is the average weekly wage in Manhattan?
56cf39b4aab44d1400b88eb4
$2,749
358
False
The average weekly earnings for a worker in NYC was what in 2014?
56cfee80234ae51400d9c0ff
2,749
359
False
By 2013, which city had the most billionaires living in the city?
56cfee80234ae51400d9c100
New York City
0
False
New York City has a high degree of income disparity as indicated by its Gini Coefficient of 0.5 for the city overall and 0.6 for Manhattan. The disparity is driven by wage growth in high-income brackets, while wages have stagnated for middle and lower-income brackets. In the first quarter of 2014, the average weekly wage in New York County (Manhattan) was $2,749, representing the highest total among large counties in the United States. In 2013, New York City had the highest number of billionaires of any city in the world, higher than the next five U.S. cities combined, including former Mayor Michael R. Bloomberg. New York also had the highest density of millionaires per capita among major U.S. cities in 2014, at 4.6% of residents. Lower Manhattan has been experiencing a baby boom, with the area south of Canal Street witnessing 1,086 births in 2010, 12% greater than 2009 and over twice the number born in 2001.
What is the common name for New York's high technology sector?
56cf3aa2aab44d1400b88ec0
Silicon Alley
632
False
Who created the Global Economic Power Index that ranked New York first?
56cf3aa2aab44d1400b88ec1
The Atlantic
147
False
In what year did the Port of New York and New Jersey deal with unprecedented cargo volume?
56cf3aa2aab44d1400b88ec2
2014
852
False
In what year was New York ranked first on the Global Economic Power Index?
56cf3aa2aab44d1400b88ec3
2012
68
False
New York is a global hub of international business and commerce. In 2012, New York City topped the first Global Economic Power Index, published by The Atlantic (to be differentiated from a namesake list published by the Martin Prosperity Institute), with cities ranked according to criteria reflecting their presence on similar lists as published by other entities. The city is a major center for banking and finance, retailing, world trade, transportation, tourism, real estate, new media as well as traditional media, advertising, legal services, accountancy, insurance, theater, fashion, and the arts in the United States; while Silicon Alley, metonymous for New York's broad-spectrum high technology sphere, continues to expand. The Port of New York and New Jersey is also a major economic engine, handling record cargo volume in the first half of 2014.
What fraction of New Yorkers in the private sector are employed by foreign companies?
56cf4722aab44d1400b88f06
One out of ten
113
False
What publication ranked New York first in the 2013 American Cities of the Future rankings?
56cf4722aab44d1400b88f07
FDi Magazine
372
False
Many Fortune 500 corporations are headquartered in New York City, as are a large number of foreign corporations. One out of ten private sector jobs in the city is with a foreign company. New York City has been ranked first among cities across the globe in attracting capital, business, and tourists. This ability to attract foreign investment helped New York City top the FDi Magazine American Cities of the Future ranking for 2013.
What was the 2015 assessed value of all the property in New York?
56cf4837aab44d1400b88f24
US$914.8 billion
117
False
How much was Time Warner Center worth in 2006?
56cf4837aab44d1400b88f25
US$1.1 billion
252
False
What was the price per square foot of 450 Park Avenue when it sold in July 2007?
56cf4837aab44d1400b88f26
$1,589
432
False
What was the price per square meter of 660 Madison Avenue in June 2007?
56cf4837aab44d1400b88f27
$15,887
565
False
Of the top 10 zip codes with the most expensive housing prices in the United States, how many are in Manhattan?
56cf4837aab44d1400b88f28
six
678
False
Which building has the highest market value in NYC?
56cff16a234ae51400d9c128
Time Warner Center
164
False
The previous record beaten by Park Avenue was for what real estate?
56cff16a234ae51400d9c12a
660 Madison Avenue
606
False
Real estate is a major force in the city's economy, as the total value of all New York City property was assessed at US$914.8 billion for the 2015 fiscal year. The Time Warner Center is the property with the highest-listed market value in the city, at US$1.1 billion in 2006. New York City is home to some of the nation's—and the world's—most valuable real estate. 450 Park Avenue was sold on July 2, 2007 for US$510 million, about $1,589 per square foot ($17,104/m²), breaking the barely month-old record for an American office building of $1,476 per square foot ($15,887/m²) set in the June 2007 sale of 660 Madison Avenue. According to Forbes, in 2014, Manhattan was home to six of the top ten zip codes in the United States by median housing price.
What is the popular name of New York's advertising industry?
56cf48a3aab44d1400b88f2e
Madison Avenue
295
False
About how many people work in the New York fashion industry?
56cf48a3aab44d1400b88f2f
180,000
363
False
About how much does it cost per year to pay workers in the New York fashion industry?
56cf48a3aab44d1400b88f30
$11 billion
386
False
With Interpublic Group, what company has a combined annual revenue of roughly US$21 billion?
56cf48a3aab44d1400b88f31
Omnicom Group
47
False
NYC's fashion industry employs how many people?
56cff1bb234ae51400d9c137
180,000
363
False
The Two highest advertising agencies in the world located in NYC are called what?
56cff1bb234ae51400d9c138
Omnicom Group and Interpublic Group
47
False
As of 2013, the global advertising agencies of Omnicom Group and Interpublic Group, both based in Manhattan, had combined annual revenues of approximately US$21 billion, reflecting New York City's role as the top global center for the advertising industry, which is metonymously referred to as "Madison Avenue". The city's fashion industry provides approximately 180,000 employees with $11 billion in annual wages.
How many New Yorkers work in the food processing field?
56cf49d7aab44d1400b88f46
19,000
324
False
What is the annual revenue of the food processing industry?
56cf49d7aab44d1400b88f47
US$5 billion
279
False
In what borough is the garment business prominent?
56cf49d7aab44d1400b88f48
Brooklyn
248
False
Other important sectors include medical research and technology, non-profit institutions, and universities. Manufacturing accounts for a significant but declining share of employment, although the city's garment industry is showing a resurgence in Brooklyn. Food processing is a US$5 billion industry that employs more than 19,000 residents.
What dollar amount of chocolate does New York export annually?
56cf4a29aab44d1400b88f56
US$234 million
71
False
Where is the "Chocolate District" located?
56cf4a29aab44d1400b88f57
Brooklyn
167
False
In what borough is Godiva based?
56cf4a29aab44d1400b88f58
Manhattan
276
False
What is the number one specialty food export of New York?
56cf4a29aab44d1400b88f59
Chocolate
0
False
What type of food is NYC's leading food export?
56cff221234ae51400d9c13f
Chocolate
0
False
Which one of the world's largest chocolate makers is stationed in Manhattan?
56cff221234ae51400d9c140
Godiva
194
False
Chocolate is New York City's leading specialty-food export, with up to US$234 million worth of exports each year. Entrepreneurs were forming a "Chocolate District" in Brooklyn as of 2014, while Godiva, one of the world's largest chocolatiers, continues to be headquartered in Manhattan.
As of 2013, how many people worked for a securities business in New York?
56cf4ed5aab44d1400b88fa2
163,400
195
False
What percentage of New York private sector jobs are in the securities industry?
56cf4ed5aab44d1400b88fa3
5
350
False
How much tax revenue does the securities industry generate?
56cf4ed5aab44d1400b88fa4
US$3.8 billion
408
False
What is the average income in the New York securities industry?
56cf4ed5aab44d1400b88fa5
US$360,700
517
False
What percentage of the city's wages does the securities industry provide?
56cf4ed5aab44d1400b88fa6
22
448
False
22 Percent of NYC's total wages are from what industry?
56cff29a234ae51400d9c149
The city's securities
151
False
New York City's most important economic sector lies in its role as the headquarters for the U.S.financial industry, metonymously known as Wall Street. The city's securities industry, enumerating 163,400 jobs in August 2013, continues to form the largest segment of the city's financial sector and an important economic engine, accounting in 2012 for 5 percent of the city's private sector jobs, 8.5 percent (US$3.8 billion) of its tax revenue, and 22 percent of the city's total wages, including an average salary of US$360,700. Many large financial companies are headquartered in New York City, and the city is also home to a burgeoning number of financial startup companies.
On what street is the New York Stock Exchange headquartered?
56cf5478aab44d1400b88ffc
Wall Street
131
False
What is the street address of NASDAQ?
56cf5478aab44d1400b88ffd
165 Broadway
163
False
In 2012, how many investment banking fees were paid out to Wall Street?
56cf5478aab44d1400b88ffe
$40 billion
450
False
In 2013-4, what percentage of New York state tax revenues came from the securities business on Wall Street?
56cf5478aab44d1400b88fff
19%
667
False
Who was the previous overseer of the London interbank offered rate?
56cf5478aab44d1400b89000
British Bankers Association
1036
False
The New York Stock exchange is located where in NYC?
56cff54e234ae51400d9c16a
Wall Street
131
False
The NASDAQ is located on what street in NYC?
56cff54e234ae51400d9c16b
165 Broadway
163
False
Lower Manhattan is the third-largest central business district in the United States and is home to the New York Stock Exchange, on Wall Street, and the NASDAQ, at 165 Broadway, representing the world's largest and second largest stock exchanges, respectively, when measured both by overall average daily trading volume and by total market capitalization of their listed companies in 2013. Investment banking fees on Wall Street totaled approximately $40 billion in 2012, while in 2013, senior New York City bank officers who manage risk and compliance functions earned as much as $324,000 annually. In fiscal year 2013–14, Wall Street's securities industry generated 19% of New York State's tax revenue. New York City remains the largest global center for trading in public equity and debt capital markets, driven in part by the size and financial development of the U.S. economy.:31–32 In July 2013, NYSE Euronext, the operator of the New York Stock Exchange, took over the administration of the London interbank offered rate from the British Bankers Association. New York also leads in hedge fund management; private equity; and the monetary volume of mergers and acquisitions. Several investment banks and investment mangers headquartered in Manhattan are important participants in other global financial centers.:34–35 New York is also the principal commercial banking center of the United States.
How many square meters of office space does Manhattan have?
56cf552daab44d1400b89022
46.5 million
126
False
About how many million square feet of office space is present in Midtown Manhattan?
56cf552daab44d1400b89023
400
263
False
How much office space did Manhatten possess in 2015?
56cff567234ae51400d9c16f
500 million square feet
101
False
Many of the world's largest media conglomerates are also based in the city. Manhattan contained over 500 million square feet (46.5 million m2) of office space in 2015, making it the largest office market in the United States, while Midtown Manhattan, with nearly 400 million square feet (37.2 million m2) in 2015, is the largest central business district in the world.
In what borough is Silicon Alley located?
56cf55aeaab44d1400b89030
Manhattan
27
False
What is the street address of the headquarters of Verizon Communciations?
56cf55aeaab44d1400b89031
140 West Street
1090
False
How much did Verizon spend on fiber optic upgrades in New York City?
56cf55aeaab44d1400b89032
US$3 billion
1174
False
Approximately how many tech sector jobs are in New York City?
56cf55aeaab44d1400b89033
300,000
1284
False
The technology sector of work in NYC has how many employees in its service?
56cff593234ae51400d9c171
300,000
1284
False
Silicon Alley, centered in Manhattan, has evolved into a metonym for the sphere encompassing the New York City metropolitan region's high technology industries involving the Internet, new media, telecommunications, digital media, software development, biotechnology, game design, financial technology ("fintech"), and other fields within information technology that are supported by its entrepreneurship ecosystem and venture capital investments. In the first half of 2015, Silicon Alley generated over US$3.7 billion in venture capital investment across a broad spectrum of high technology enterprises, most based in Manhattan, with others in Brooklyn, Queens, and elsewhere in the region. High technology startup companies and employment are growing in New York City and the region, bolstered by the city's position in North America as the leading Internet hub and telecommunications center, including its vicinity to several transatlantic fiber optic trunk lines, New York's intellectual capital, and its extensive outdoor wireless connectivity. Verizon Communications, headquartered at 140 West Street in Lower Manhattan, was at the final stages in 2014 of completing a US$3 billion fiberoptic telecommunications upgrade throughout New York City. As of 2014, New York City hosted 300,000 employees in the tech sector.
Along with Cornell University, what institution is involved in the building of Cornell Tech?
56cf566aaab44d1400b89042
Technion-Israel Institute of Technology
268
False
What is the cost to build Cornell Tech?
56cf566aaab44d1400b89043
US$2 billion
319
False
On what island is Cornell Tech located?
56cf566aaab44d1400b89044
Roosevelt Island
391
False
About how much capital did Accelerator raise as of the middle of 2014?
56cf566aaab44d1400b89045
US$30 million
571
False
How large is the Alexandria Center for Life Science in square meters?
56cf566aaab44d1400b89046
65,000
810
False
In 2011, what school was built on Roosevelt Island?
56cff61d234ae51400d9c17f
Cornell Tech
375
False
The biotechnology sector is also growing in New York City, based upon the city's strength in academic scientific research and public and commercial financial support. On December 19, 2011, then Mayor Michael R. Bloomberg announced his choice of Cornell University and Technion-Israel Institute of Technology to build a US$2 billion graduate school of applied sciences called Cornell Tech on Roosevelt Island with the goal of transforming New York City into the world's premier technology capital. By mid-2014, Accelerator, a biotech investment firm, had raised more than US$30 million from investors, including Eli Lilly and Company, Pfizer, and Johnson & Johnson, for initial funding to create biotechnology startups at the Alexandria Center for Life Science, which encompasses more than 700,000 square feet (65,000 m2) on East 29th Street and promotes collaboration among scientists and entrepreneurs at the center and with nearby academic, medical, and research institutions. The New York City Economic Development Corporation's Early Stage Life Sciences Funding Initiative and venture capital partners, including Celgene, General Electric Ventures, and Eli Lilly, committed a minimum of US$100 million to help launch 15 to 20 ventures in life sciences and biotechnology.
How many tourists visited New York in 2011?
56cf56b2aab44d1400b89056
51 million
158
False
How many people came to visit New York in 2013?
56cf56b2aab44d1400b89057
54 million
187
False
What is the record number of tourists that have visited New York in a year?
56cf56b2aab44d1400b89058
56.4 million
220
False
How much money did tourism create for New York in 2014?
56cf56b2aab44d1400b89059
US$61.3 billion
277
False
How many tourists that visited NYC in 2014 broke the record?
56cff665234ae51400d9c187
56.4 million
220
False
How many tourists visited NYC in 2013?
56cff665234ae51400d9c189
54 million
187
False
Tourism is a vital industry for New York City, which has witnessed a growing combined volume of international and domestic tourists – receiving approximately 51 million tourists in 2011, 54 million in 2013, and a record 56.4 million in 2014. Tourism generated an all-time high US$61.3 billion in overall economic impact for New York City in 2014.
What English phrase does I ❤ NY represent?
56cf571faab44d1400b89069
I Love New York
0
False
When was I ❤ NY first used in advertisements?
56cf571faab44d1400b8906a
1977
131
False
Who owns the trademark to I ❤ NY?
56cf571faab44d1400b8906b
New York State Empire State Development
249
False
What is the state song of New York?
56cf571faab44d1400b8906c
I Love New York
0
False
I Love New York was established as advertising in what year?
56cff6a7234ae51400d9c18d
1977
131
False
What is the state song of New York?
56cff6a7234ae51400d9c18e
I Love New York
0
False
I Love New York (stylized I ❤ NY) is both a logo and a song that are the basis of an advertising campaign and have been used since 1977 to promote tourism in New York City, and later to promote New York State as well. The trademarked logo, owned by New York State Empire State Development, appears in souvenir shops and brochures throughout the city and state, some licensed, many not. The song is the state song of New York.
In what neighborhood does the Halloween Parade take place?
56cf578daab44d1400b89089
Greenwich Village
422
False
What company sponsors the Thanksgiving Day parade?
56cf578daab44d1400b8908a
Macy's
445
False
At what location is a Christmas tree famously lit every year?
56cf578daab44d1400b8908b
Rockefeller Center
285
False
Where in Central Park are performances offered at no cost?
56cf578daab44d1400b8908c
Summerstage
705
False
In what borough is the Unisphere located?
56cf578daab44d1400b8908d
Queens
828
False
Major tourist destinations include Times Square; Broadway theater productions; the Empire State Building; the Statue of Liberty; Ellis Island; the United Nations Headquarters; museums such as the Metropolitan Museum of Art; greenspaces such as Central Park and Washington Square Park; Rockefeller Center; the Manhattan Chinatown; luxury shopping along Fifth and Madison Avenues; and events such as the Halloween Parade in Greenwich Village; the Macy's Thanksgiving Day Parade; the lighting of the Rockefeller Center Christmas Tree; the St. Patrick's Day parade; seasonal activities such as ice skating in Central Park in the wintertime; the Tribeca Film Festival; and free performances in Central Park at Summerstage. Major attractions in the boroughs outside Manhattan include Flushing Meadows-Corona Park and the Unisphere in Queens; the Bronx Zoo; Coney Island, Brooklyn; and the New York Botanical Garden in the Bronx. The New York Wheel, a 630-foot ferris wheel, was under construction at the northern shore of Staten Island in 2015, overlooking the Statue of Liberty, New York Harbor, and the Lower Manhattan skyline.
About how many hotel rooms are there in Manhattan?
56cf57c2aab44d1400b89093
90,000
44
False
What was the percentage increase of Manhattan hotel rooms between 2013 and 2014?
56cf57c2aab44d1400b89094
10%
85
False
Who owns the Waldorf Astoria?
56cf57c2aab44d1400b89095
Anbang Insurance Group
130
False
What was the October 2014 purchase price of the Waldorf Astoria?
56cf57c2aab44d1400b89096
US$1.95 billion
213
False
The hotel that sold for the most money in 2014 was which in NYC?
56cff757234ae51400d9c199
Waldorf Astoria New York
184
False
How many hotel rooms are located in NYC as of the end of 2014?
56cff757234ae51400d9c19a
90,000
44
False
Who bought the Waldorf Astoria hotel in NYC in 2014?
56cff757234ae51400d9c19b
Anbang Insurance Group
130
False
The Waldorf Astoria hotel sold for how many dollars?
56cff757234ae51400d9c19c
1.95 billion
216
False
Manhattan was on track to have an estimated 90,000 hotel rooms at the end of 2014, a 10% increase from 2013. In October 2014, the Anbang Insurance Group, based in China, purchased the Waldorf Astoria New York for US$1.95 billion, making it the world's most expensive hotel ever sold.
Approximately how many feature films are made in New York City every year?
56cfac79234ae51400d9be4f
200
285
False
How many New Yorkers work in the television and film industry?
56cfac79234ae51400d9be50
130,000
323
False
How much money does the New York film and television industry create every year?
56cfac79234ae51400d9be51
$7.1 billion
372
False
What United States city is the second most popular for pilot episode location filming?
56cfac79234ae51400d9be52
Los Angeles
815
False
New York is a prominent location for the American entertainment industry, with many films, television series, books, and other media being set there. As of 2012, New York City was the second largest center for filmmaking and television production in the United States, producing about 200 feature films annually, employing 130,000 individuals, and generating an estimated $7.1 billion in direct expenditures, and by volume, New York is the world leader in independent film production; one-third of all American independent films are produced in New York City. The Association of Independent Commercial Producers is also based in New York. In the first five months of 2014 alone, location filming for television pilots in New York City exceeded the record production levels for all of 2013, with New York surpassing Los Angeles as the top North American city for the same distinction during the 2013/2014 cycle.
Along with Warner Music Group, what top three record label is based in New York City?
56cfacff234ae51400d9be57
Sony Music Entertainment
596
False
What city is North America's biggest media market?
56cfacff234ae51400d9be58
New York City
0
False
Out of the top eight advertising agency networks in the world, how many are based in New York?
56cfacff234ae51400d9be59
Seven
427
False
New York City is additionally a center for the advertising, music, newspaper, digital media, and publishing industries and is also the largest media market in North America. Some of the city's media conglomerates and institutions include Time Warner, the Thomson Reuters Corporation, the Associated Press, Bloomberg L.P., the News Corporation, The New York Times Company, NBCUniversal, the Hearst Corporation, AOL, and Viacom. Seven of the world's top eight global advertising agency networks have their headquarters in New York. Two of the top three record labels' headquarters are in New York: Sony Music Entertainment and Warner Music Group. Universal Music Group also has offices in New York. New media enterprises are contributing an increasingly important component to the city's central role in the media sphere.
How many people work in the New York publishing industry?
56cfad77234ae51400d9be5d
25,000
122
False
Which New York-based newspaper has won the Pulitzer Prize for journalism?
56cfad77234ae51400d9be5e
The New York Times
250
False
Along with the New York Times, what national daily newspaper is based in New York?
56cfad77234ae51400d9be5f
The Wall Street Journal
222
False
What was the founding year of the New York Daily News?
56cfad77234ae51400d9be60
1919
417
False
Who was the founder of the New York Post?
56cfad77234ae51400d9be61
Alexander Hamilton
491
False
How many newspaper offices are located in New York?
56cffb63234ae51400d9c1e5
More than 200
0
False
How many magazines can call NYC home?
56cffb63234ae51400d9c1e6
350
29
False
How many national newspapers out of the three are from New York?
56cffb63234ae51400d9c1e7
2
10
False
Which two national newspapers are located in New York?
56cffb63234ae51400d9c1e8
The Wall Street Journal and The New York Times
222
False
When was the New York Daily News founded?
56cffb63234ae51400d9c1e9
1919
417
False
More than 200 newspapers and 350 consumer magazines have an office in the city, and the publishing industry employs about 25,000 people. Two of the three national daily newspapers in the United States are New York papers: The Wall Street Journal and The New York Times, which has won the most Pulitzer Prizes for journalism. Major tabloid newspapers in the city include: The New York Daily News, which was founded in 1919 by Joseph Medill Patterson and The New York Post, founded in 1801 by Alexander Hamilton. The city also has a comprehensive ethnic press, with 270 newspapers and magazines published in more than 40 languages. El Diario La Prensa is New York's largest Spanish-language daily and the oldest in the nation. The New York Amsterdam News, published in Harlem, is a prominent African American newspaper. The Village Voice is the largest alternative newspaper.
Along with ABC and NBC, what other major broadcaster is based in New York?
56cfafaf234ae51400d9be67
CBS
183
False
What is the name of the city's public television service?
56cfafaf234ae51400d9be68
NYCTV
392
False
What comedy channel on cable television is headquartered in New York?
56cfafaf234ae51400d9be69
Comedy Central
318
False
What cable news channel is based in New York?
56cfafaf234ae51400d9be6a
Fox News
263
False
The television industry developed in New York and is a significant employer in the city's economy. The three major American broadcast networks are all headquartered in New York: ABC, CBS, and NBC. Many cable networks are based in the city as well, including MTV, Fox News, HBO, Showtime, Bravo, Food Network, AMC, and Comedy Central. The City of New York operates a public broadcast service, NYCTV, that has produced several original Emmy Award-winning shows covering music and culture in city neighborhoods and city government.
What is the name of the first public-access TV channel in the country?
56cfb021234ae51400d9be6f
Manhattan Neighborhood Network
142
False
In what year did the Manhattan Neighborhood Network begin?
56cfb021234ae51400d9be70
1971
185
False
What is the primary public television station in New York?
56cfb021234ae51400d9be71
WNET
191
False
What is the largest public radio station in the US by audience size?
56cfb021234ae51400d9be72
WNYC
333
False
In what year did the city cease to own WNYC?
56cfb021234ae51400d9be73
1997
386
False
The public-assess TV channel that has been around the longest in the US in what?
56cffbdd234ae51400d9c1f3
Manhattan Neighborhood Network
142
False
When was the Manhattan Neighborhood Network created?
56cffbdd234ae51400d9c1f4
1971
185
False
The largest public radio station by listeners is what in New York?
56cffbdd234ae51400d9c1f5
WNYC
333
False
New York is also a major center for non-commercial educational media. The oldest public-access television channel in the United States is the Manhattan Neighborhood Network, founded in 1971. WNET is the city's major public television station and a primary source of national Public Broadcasting Service (PBS) television programming. WNYC, a public radio station owned by the city until 1997, has the largest public radio audience in the United States.
What city department runs the public school system?
56cfb0ab234ae51400d9be79
New York City Department of Education
56
False
How many students are in New York City public schools?
56cfb0ab234ae51400d9be7a
1.1 million
167
False
About how many public schools are there in New York City?
56cfb0ab234ae51400d9be7b
1,700
201
False
How many high schools for gifted students does New York City have?
56cfb0ab234ae51400d9be7c
nine
288
False
How many students regularly attend schools in NYC?
56cffc18234ae51400d9c1f9
1.1 million
167
False
How many highschools are specialized in NYC?
56cffc18234ae51400d9c1fb
nine
288
False
The New York City Public Schools system, managed by the New York City Department of Education, is the largest public school system in the United States, serving about 1.1 million students in more than 1,700 separate primary and secondary schools. The city's public school system includes nine specialized high schools to serve academically and artistically gifted students.
What institution aids in the creation of charter schools in New York?
56cfb0d5234ae51400d9be81
New York City Charter School Center
4
False
About how many private schools does New York have?
56cfb0d5234ae51400d9be82
900
106
False
The New York City Charter School Center assists the setup of new charter schools. There are approximately 900 additional privately run secular and religious schools in the city.
About how many students attend schools in the City University of New York system?
56cfb1a2234ae51400d9be85
half million
162
False
What fraction of Manhattan residents graduated from college?
56cfb1a2234ae51400d9be86
three out of five
248
False
What fraction of Manhattan residents have graduate degrees?
56cfb1a2234ae51400d9be87
one out of four
314
False
The City University of New York system consists of how many institutions?
56cfb1a2234ae51400d9be88
24
761
False
How many students in New York partcipate in higher education?
56cfb1a2234ae51400d9be89
600,000
5
False
Over 600,000 students are enrolled in New York City's over 120 higher education institutions, the highest number of any city in the United States, including over half million in the City University of New York (CUNY) system alone in 2014. In 2005, three out of five Manhattan residents were college graduates, and one out of four had a postgraduate degree, forming one of the highest concentrations of highly educated people in any American city. New York City is home to such notable private universities as Barnard College, Columbia University, Cooper Union, Fordham University, New York University, New York Institute of Technology, Pace University, and Yeshiva University. The public CUNY system is one of the largest universities in the nation, comprising 24 institutions across all five boroughs: senior colleges, community colleges, and other graduate/professional schools. The public State University of New York (SUNY) system also serves New York City, as well as the rest of the state. The city also has other smaller private colleges and universities, including many religious and special-purpose institutions, such as St. John's University, The Juilliard School, Manhattan College, The College of Mount Saint Vincent, The New School, Pratt Institute, The School of Visual Arts, The King's College, and Wagner College.
What is the largest library in the United States?
56cffcb0234ae51400d9c208
The New York Public Library
0
False
What is the second largest library in the US?
56cffcb0234ae51400d9c209
Queens Borough Public Library
185
False
What is the name of the library system in Queens?
56d103ff17492d1400aab728
Queens Borough Public Library
185
False
What is Brooklyn's public library system called?
56d103ff17492d1400aab729
Brooklyn Public Library
277
False
Along with Staten Island and the Bronx, what borough is served by the New York Public Library?
56d103ff17492d1400aab72a
Manhattan
120
False
The New York Public Library, which has the largest collection of any public library system in the United States, serves Manhattan, the Bronx, and Staten Island. Queens is served by the Queens Borough Public Library, the nation's second largest public library system, while the Brooklyn Public Library serves Brooklyn.
The largest municipal healthcare in the US is what?
56cffd07234ae51400d9c215
New York City Health and Hospitals Corporation
4
False
How many hospitals does HHC operate?
56cffd07234ae51400d9c217
11
538
False
What is the yearly revenue of the New York City Health and Hospitals Corporation?
56d1046317492d1400aab734
$6.7 billion
151
False
How many patients are served annually by HHC?
56d1046317492d1400aab735
1.4 million
260
False
How many uninsured New Yorkers take advantage of HHC?
56d1046317492d1400aab736
475,000
302
False
In what year was the New York City Health and Hospitals Corporation founded?
56d1046317492d1400aab737
1969
355
False
How many nursing homes does HHC operate?
56d1046317492d1400aab738
five
563
False
The New York City Health and Hospitals Corporation (HHC) operates the public hospitals and clinics in New York City. A public benefit corporation with $6.7 billion in annual revenues, HHC is the largest municipal healthcare system in the United States serving 1.4 million patients, including more than 475,000 uninsured city residents. HHC was created in 1969 by the New York State Legislature as a public benefit corporation (Chapter 1016 of the Laws 1969). It is similar to a municipal agency but has a Board of Directors. HHC operates 11 acute care hospitals, five nursing homes, six diagnostic and treatment centers, and more than 70 community-based primary care sites, serving primarily the poor and working class. HHC's MetroPlus Health Plan is one of the New York area's largest providers of government-sponsored health insurance and is the plan of choice for nearly half million New Yorkers.
The public hospital that has been around the longest in the US is what?
56cffd56234ae51400d9c21d
Bellevue Hospital
50
False
Who is the president of HHC?
56cffd56234ae51400d9c21e
Ramanathan Raju
309
False
What was the first public hospital founded in the United States?
56d1053c17492d1400aab748
Bellevue Hospital
50
False
If the Prime Minister of the United Kingdom becomes sick in New York City, what hospital does he go to?
56d1053c17492d1400aab749
Bellevue Hospital
50
False
Who is the HHC president?
56d1053c17492d1400aab74a
Ramanathan Raju, MD
309
False
In what state did the president of HHC previously work?
56d1053c17492d1400aab74b
Illinois
391
False
What was the president of HHC's previous job title?
56d1053c17492d1400aab74c
CEO
351
False
The most well-known hospital in the HHC system is Bellevue Hospital, the oldest public hospital in the United States. Bellevue is the designated hospital for treatment of the President of the United States and other world leaders if they become sick or injured while in New York City. The president of HHC is Ramanathan Raju, MD, a surgeon and former CEO of the Cook County health system in Illinois.
The largest police presence in the US is NYPD with how many people?
56cffd93234ae51400d9c221
35,000
133
False
NYPD officers have a nickname that is known as what?
56cffd93234ae51400d9c222
New York's Finest
273
False
What does the acronym NYPD stand for?
56d1057217492d1400aab75c
New York City Police Department
4
False
About how many police work for the NYPD?
56d1057217492d1400aab75d
35,000
133
False
What is the nickname given to New York City Police Department officers?
56d1057217492d1400aab75e
New York's Finest
273
False
The New York City Police Department (NYPD) has been the largest police force in the United States by a significant margin, with over 35,000 sworn officers. Members of the NYPD are frequently referred to by politicians, the media, and their own police cars by the nickname, New York's Finest.
What was the low record for homicides in 2014 in NYC?
56cffde2234ae51400d9c22b
328
1033
False
What percentage decrease in violent crime did the city see between 1993 and 2005?
56d1062317492d1400aab76a
75%
258
False
As of 2002, to what city did New York have a comparable crime rate?
56d1062317492d1400aab76b
Provo, Utah
422
False
In what year did the city have less than 500 homicides?
56d1062317492d1400aab76c
2007
599
False
How many homicides were there in New York City in 2014?
56d1062317492d1400aab76d
328
1033
False
In the first half of 2010, what percentage of shooting victims were African-American or Hispanic?
56d1062317492d1400aab76e
95.9%
789
False
In 2012, New York City had the lowest overall crime rate and the second lowest murder rate among the largest U.S. cities, having become significantly safer after a spike in crime in the 1970s through 1990s. Violent crime in New York City decreased more than 75% from 1993 to 2005, and continued decreasing during periods when the nation as a whole saw increases. By 2002, New York City's crime rate was similar to that of Provo, Utah, and was ranked 197th in crime among the 216 U.S. cities with populations greater than 100,000. In 2005 the homicide rate was at its lowest level since 1966, and in 2007 the city recorded fewer than 500 homicides for the first time ever since crime statistics were first published in 1963. In the first six months of 2010, 95.1% of all murder victims and 95.9% of all shooting victims in New York City were black or Hispanic; additionally, 90.2 percent of those arrested for murder and 96.7 percent of those arrested for shooting someone were black or Hispanic. New York experienced a record low of 328 homicides in 2014 and has a far lower murder rate than other major American cities.
The first major crime groups in NYC were in the 1820s known as what?
56cffe23234ae51400d9c22d
Forty Thieves and the Roach Guards
80
False
What group controlled the Mafia in New York in the 20th century?
56d1070517492d1400aab778
the Five Families
203
False
The Forth Thieves and Roach Guards were two gangs that operated in what area of New York in the 1820s?
56d1070517492d1400aab779
the Five Points
118
False
What was a notable 20th century gang in New York?
56d1070517492d1400aab77a
the Black Spades
253
False
Organized crime has long been associated with New York City, beginning with the Forty Thieves and the Roach Guards in the Five Points in the 1820s. The 20th century saw a rise in the Mafia, dominated by the Five Families, as well as in gangs, including the Black Spades. The Mafia presence has declined in the city in the 21st century.
What is the largest fire department force in the world?
56cffe95234ae51400d9c22f
Tokyo Fire Department
366
False
What is the second largest fire department force in the world?
56cffe95234ae51400d9c230
The New York City Fire Department
0
False
What is the The New York City Fire Department's motto?
56cffe95234ae51400d9c232
New York's Bravest
516
False
What does FDNY stand for?
56d1076317492d1400aab78c
New York City Fire Department
4
False
What city is home to the largest municipal fire department in the world?
56d1076317492d1400aab78d
Tokyo
366
False
How many firefighters work for the New York City Fire Department?
56d1076317492d1400aab78e
11,080
420
False
The FDNY employs about how many paramedics and EMTs?
56d1076317492d1400aab78f
3,300
459
False
What is the motto of the New York City Fire Department?
56d1076317492d1400aab790
New York's Bravest
516
False
The New York City Fire Department (FDNY), provides fire protection, technical rescue, primary response to biological, chemical, and radioactive hazards, and emergency medical services for the five boroughs of New York City. The New York City Fire Department is the largest municipal fire department in the United States and the second largest in the world after the Tokyo Fire Department. The FDNY employs approximately 11,080 uniformed firefighters and over 3,300 uniformed EMTs and paramedics. The FDNY's motto is New York's Bravest.
New York is home to what largest transportation system in the world?
56cfff2d234ae51400d9c237
subway systems
397
False
What types of fires can start in parks and woodlands?
56d107ab17492d1400aab796
brush fires
340
False
The New York City Fire Department faces highly multifaceted firefighting challenges in many ways unique to New York. In addition to responding to building types that range from wood-frame single family homes to high-rise structures, there are many secluded bridges and tunnels, as well as large parks and wooded areas that can give rise to brush fires. New York is also home to one of the largest subway systems in the world, consisting of hundreds of miles of tunnel with electrified track.
What is the address for The New York City Fire Department headquarters?
56cfff79234ae51400d9c239
9 MetroTech Center
36
False
Which island is home to the Fire academy in NYC?
56cfff79234ae51400d9c23a
Randalls Island
117
False
Which borough of NYC is home to the The New York City Fire Department headquarters?
56cfff79234ae51400d9c23b
Brooklyn
67
False
What is the street address of the New York Fire Department headquarters?
56d1081117492d1400aab798
9 MetroTech Center
36
False
In what borough is the FDNY headquartered?
56d1081117492d1400aab799
Brooklyn
67
False
Where is the fire department's training academy located?
56d1081117492d1400aab79a
Randalls Island
117
False
What is the street address of the Bureau of Fire Communications alarm office in Brooklyn?
56d1081117492d1400aab79b
11 Metrotech Center
265
False
The FDNY headquarters is located at 9 MetroTech Center in Downtown Brooklyn, and the FDNY Fire Academy is located on Randalls Island. There are three Bureau of Fire Communications alarm offices which receive and dispatch alarms to appropriate units. One office, at 11 Metrotech Center in Brooklyn, houses Manhattan/Citywide, Brooklyn, and Staten Island Fire Communications. The Bronx and Queens offices are in separate buildings.
Jazz became popular during which decade in NYC?
56cfffb0234ae51400d9c23f
1940s
207
False
Which decade did hip hop start to surface in NYC?
56cfffb0234ae51400d9c240
1970s
288
False
What was the name of the cultural development that defined the black American literary canon?
56d108f917492d1400aab7b4
the Harlem Renaissance
70
False
What musical style was prominent in New York in the 1940s?
56d108f917492d1400aab7b5
jazz
195
False
What artistic style was prominent in New York in the 1950s?
56d108f917492d1400aab7b6
abstract expressionism
214
False
What was the name of the new musical style that emerged from New York in the 1970s?
56d108f917492d1400aab7b7
hip hop
273
False
Numerous major American cultural movements began in the city, such as the Harlem Renaissance, which established the African-American literary canon in the United States. The city was a center of jazz in the 1940s, abstract expressionism in the 1950s, and the birthplace of hip hop in the 1970s. The city's punk and hardcore scenes were influential in the 1970s and 1980s. New York has long had a flourishing scene for Jewish American literature.
The fashion capital of the world is what city in the US?
56d000c5234ae51400d9c24d
New York City
268
False
One of the biggest fashion shows in the world is named what in New York?
56d000c5234ae51400d9c24e
New York Fashion Week
494
False
By what other name is abstract expressionism known?
56d1099d17492d1400aab7c4
the New York School
156
False
What is the name of the prominent fashion event that occurs in New York?
56d1099d17492d1400aab7c5
New York Fashion Week
494
False
Who ranked New York as the fashion capital of the world?
56d1099d17492d1400aab7c6
the Global Language Monitor
722
False
The city is the birthplace of many cultural movements, including the Harlem Renaissance in literature and visual art; abstract expressionism (also known as the New York School) in painting; and hip hop, punk, salsa, disco, freestyle, Tin Pan Alley, and Jazz in music. New York City has been considered the dance capital of the world. The city is also widely celebrated in popular lore, frequently the setting for books, movies (see List of films set in New York City), and television programs. New York Fashion Week is one of the world's preeminent fashion events and is afforded extensive coverage by the media. New York has also frequently been ranked the top fashion capital of the world on the annual list compiled by the Global Language Monitor.
The Broadway Musical began in what decade?
56d0036a234ae51400d9c252
1880s
507
False
Approximately how many galleries of art are in New York City?
56d10a4717492d1400aab7d4
500
80
False
Along with Broadway, what New York thoroughfare is associated with Broadway musicals?
56d10a4717492d1400aab7d5
42nd Street
559
False
Who was Hart's writing partner?
56d10a4717492d1400aab7d6
Harrigan
722
False
About how many cultural and artistic organizations are in New York City?
56d10a4717492d1400aab7d7
2,000
28
False
What technological development led resulted in elaborate stage productions?
56d10a4717492d1400aab7d8
electric lighting
440
False
New York City has more than 2,000 arts and cultural organizations and more than 500 art galleries of all sizes. The city government funds the arts with a larger annual budget than the National Endowment for the Arts. Wealthy business magnates in the 19th century built a network of major cultural institutions, such as the famed Carnegie Hall and The Metropolitan Museum of Art, that would become internationally established. The advent of electric lighting led to elaborate theater productions, and in the 1880s, New York City theaters on Broadway and along 42nd Street began featuring a new stage form that became known as the Broadway musical. Strongly influenced by the city's immigrants, productions such as those of Harrigan and Hart, George M. Cohan, and others used song in narratives that often reflected themes of hope and ambition.
How many people attended Broadway shows during the 2013-2014 season?
56d003cd234ae51400d9c257
12.21 million
446
False
What is the nickname of the Times Square Theater District?
56d10ab417492d1400aab7e4
The Great White Way
200
False
What was the dollar amount of the tickets sold on Broadway in 2013-14?
56d10ab417492d1400aab7e5
US$1.27 billion
290
False
What was the percentage increase in the Broadway ticket revenue from 2012-3 to 2013-4?
56d10ab417492d1400aab7e6
11.4%
351
False
How many people attended a Broadway show in the 2013-4 season?
56d10ab417492d1400aab7e7
12.21 million
446
False
In 2012-3, what number of people saw a show on Broadway?
56d10ab417492d1400aab7e8
11.57 million
518
False
Forty of the city's theaters, with more than 500 seats each, are collectively known as Broadway, after the major thoroughfare that crosses the Times Square Theater District, sometimes referred to as "The Great White Way". According to The Broadway League, Broadway shows sold approximately US$1.27 billion worth of tickets in the 2013–2014 season, an 11.4% increase from US$1.139 billion in the 2012–2013 season. Attendance in 2013–2014 stood at 12.21 million, representing a 5.5% increase from the 2012–2013 season's 11.57 million.
How many restaurants are there in NYC?
56d00431234ae51400d9c25b
24,000
776
False
How many mobile food vendors operate in New York City?
56d10c8c17492d1400aab810
4,000
366
False
How many restaurants is New York home to?
56d10c8c17492d1400aab811
24,000
776
False
What public department inspects the restaurants of New York?
56d10c8c17492d1400aab812
New York City Department of Health and Mental Hygiene
686
False
According to Michelin, about how many fine dining restaurants exist in New York?
56d10c8c17492d1400aab813
one thousand
575
False
New York City's food culture includes a variety of international cuisines influenced by the city's immigrant history. Central European and Italian immigrants originally made the city famous for bagels, cheesecake, and New York-style pizza, while Chinese and other Asian restaurants, sandwich joints, trattorias, diners, and coffeehouses have become ubiquitous. Some 4,000 mobile food vendors licensed by the city, many immigrant-owned, have made Middle Eastern foods such as falafel and kebabs popular examples of modern New York street food. The city is also home to nearly one thousand of the finest and most diverse haute cuisine restaurants in the world, according to Michelin. The New York City Department of Health and Mental Hygiene assigns letter grades to the city's 24,000 restaurants based upon their inspection results.
The Brooklyn Dodgers were created in what year?
56d004e5234ae51400d9c266
1882
473
False
Which four of the world's most expensive stadiums are located in NYC?
56d004e5234ae51400d9c268
MetLife Stadium, the new Yankee Stadium, Madison Square Garden, and Citi Field
691
False
Which two sports stadiums of New York City were featured on US stamps?
56d004e5234ae51400d9c269
the original Yankee Stadium and Ebbets Field
869
False
In what year were the Brooklyn Dodgers founded?
56d10dd217492d1400aab838
1882
473
False
What professional soccer organization is headquartered in New York?
56d10dd217492d1400aab839
Major League Soccer
167
False
How many professional sports leagues have their headquarters in New York?
56d10dd217492d1400aab83a
five
256
False
About how many major professional sports teams have been based at one time or another in New York?
56d10dd217492d1400aab83b
forty
512
False
New York City is home to the headquarters of the National Football League, Major League Baseball, the National Basketball Association, the National Hockey League, and Major League Soccer. The New York metropolitan area hosts the most sports teams in these five professional leagues. Participation in professional sports in the city predates all professional leagues, and the city has been continuously hosting professional sports since the birth of the Brooklyn Dodgers in 1882. The city has played host to over forty major professional teams in the five sports and their respective competing leagues, both current and historic. Four of the ten most expensive stadiums ever built worldwide (MetLife Stadium, the new Yankee Stadium, Madison Square Garden, and Citi Field) are located in the New York metropolitan area. Madison Square Garden, its predecessor, as well as the original Yankee Stadium and Ebbets Field, are some of the most famous sporting venues in the world, the latter two having been commemorated on U.S. postage stamps.
NYC is known as the Capital of which sport?
56d00567234ae51400d9c273
Baseball
47
False
How many Major League Baseball World Series has NYC teams won?
56d00567234ae51400d9c274
35
74
False
It is one of only five areas to contain two teams of what sport?
56d00567234ae51400d9c275
Baseball
47
False
How many minor league baseball teams are there in NYC?
56d00567234ae51400d9c277
two
288
False
How many World Series have New York teams won?
56d10e4617492d1400aab840
35
74
False
How many Major League baseball league pennants have New York teams won?
56d10e4617492d1400aab841
73
116
False
How many professional baseball teams are located in New York?
56d10e4617492d1400aab842
two
288
False
How many times have two teams from New York played against each other in the World Series?
56d10e4617492d1400aab843
14
338
False
What is the nickname for a World Series where two New York teams play against each other?
56d10e4617492d1400aab844
Subway Series
417
False
New York has been described as the "Capital of Baseball". There have been 35 Major League Baseball World Series and 73 pennants won by New York teams. It is one of only five metro areas (Los Angeles, Chicago, Baltimore–Washington, and the San Francisco Bay Area being the others) to have two baseball teams. Additionally, there have been 14 World Series in which two New York City teams played each other, known as a Subway Series and occurring most recently in 2000. No other metropolitan area has had this happen more than once (Chicago in 1906, St. Louis in 1944, and the San Francisco Bay Area in 1989). The city's two current Major League Baseball teams are the New York Mets, who play at Citi Field in Queens, and the New York Yankees, who play at Yankee Stadium in the Bronx. who compete in six games of interleague play every regular season that has also come to be called the Subway Series. The Yankees have won a record 27 championships, while the Mets have won the World Series twice. The city also was once home to the Brooklyn Dodgers (now the Los Angeles Dodgers), who won the World Series once, and the New York Giants (now the San Francisco Giants), who won the World Series five times. Both teams moved to California in 1958. There are also two Minor League Baseball teams in the city, the Brooklyn Cyclones and Staten Island Yankees.
The New York Giants and the New York Jets place at which stadium in NYC?
56d005a1234ae51400d9c27e
MetLife Stadium
147
False
When was the most recent superbowl held in NYC for football?
56d005a1234ae51400d9c27f
2014
236
False
Along what the New York Jets, what NFL team is based in New York?
56d10e8f17492d1400aab84a
New York Giants
63
False
What stadium do the New York Jets call home?
56d10e8f17492d1400aab84b
MetLife Stadium
147
False
What city is MetLife Stadium located in?
56d10e8f17492d1400aab84c
East Rutherford, New Jersey
173
False
What Super Bowl took place at MetLife Stadium?
56d10e8f17492d1400aab84d
Super Bowl XLVIII
215
False
In what year did a Super Bowl occur at MetLife Stadium?
56d10e8f17492d1400aab84e
2014
236
False
The city is represented in the National Football League by the New York Giants and the New York Jets, although both teams play their home games at MetLife Stadium in nearby East Rutherford, New Jersey, which hosted Super Bowl XLVIII in 2014.
There are two hockey teams located in NYC. What are they?
56d005d9234ae51400d9c283
The New York Islanders and the New York Rangers
0
False
Which town do the New Jersey Devils hockey team play?
56d005d9234ae51400d9c284
Newark
178
False
In what city are the New Jersey Devils located?
56d10ec217492d1400aab854
Newark, New Jersey
178
False
What sport do the New York Rangers play?
56d10ec217492d1400aab855
Hockey
83
False
Along with the New York Rangers, what NHL franchise is based in New York?
56d10ec217492d1400aab856
New York Islanders
4
False
The New York Islanders and the New York Rangers represent the city in the National Hockey League. Also within the metropolitan area are the New Jersey Devils, who play in nearby Newark, New Jersey.
Which two national basketball teams play in NYC?
56d00638234ae51400d9c291
the Brooklyn Nets and the New York Knicks
53
False
New York City's women's basketball team is called what?
56d00638234ae51400d9c292
New York Liberty
106
False
The first college basketball championship took place in NYC in what year?
56d00638234ae51400d9c293
1938
296
False
What Women's National Basketball Association team is based in New York?
56d10f0617492d1400aab864
New York Liberty
106
False
What is the name of the collegiate basketball championship that takes place in New York?
56d10f0617492d1400aab865
National Invitation Tournament
240
False
In what year was the inaugural National Invitation Tournament?
56d10f0617492d1400aab866
1938
296
False
Along with the Brooklyn Nets, what NBA team is based in New York?
56d10f0617492d1400aab867
New York Knicks
79
False
The city's National Basketball Association teams are the Brooklyn Nets and the New York Knicks, while the New York Liberty is the city's Women's National Basketball Association. The first national college-level basketball championship, the National Invitation Tournament, was held in New York in 1938 and remains in the city. The city is well known for its links to basketball, which is played in nearly every park in the city by local youth, many of whom have gone on to play for major college programs and in the NBA.
Which borough of New York hosts the US Open Tennis championships?
56d006f6234ae51400d9c29b
Queens
183
False
The Wanamaker Mile is an event by which annual track and field meeting?
56d006f6234ae51400d9c29c
Millrose Games
390
False
The oldest, longest horse races in the US are located in NYC called what?
56d006f6234ae51400d9c29d
Belmont Stakes
686
False
Which years did NYC host the PGA golf championships?
56d006f6234ae51400d9c29e
1930 and 1939
921
False
The Amateur Boxing Golden Gloves are held at which location in NYC?
56d006f6234ae51400d9c29f
Madison Square Garden
609
False
In what borough is the National Tennis Center located?
56d1100317492d1400aab880
Queens
183
False
What tennis Grand Slam event is held at the National Tennis Center?
56d1100317492d1400aab881
United States Open Tennis Championships
11
False
How many people completed the New York Marathon in 2006?
56d1100317492d1400aab882
37,866
360
False
What annual sporting competition features the Wanamaker Mile?
56d1100317492d1400aab883
Millrose Games
390
False
At what venue does the Amateur Boxing Golden Gloves take place?
56d1100317492d1400aab884
Madison Square Garden
609
False
The annual United States Open Tennis Championships is one of the world's four Grand Slam tennis tournaments and is held at the National Tennis Center in Flushing Meadows-Corona Park, Queens. The New York Marathon is one of the world's largest, and the 2004–2006 events hold the top three places in the marathons with the largest number of finishers, including 37,866 finishers in 2006. The Millrose Games is an annual track and field meet whose featured event is the Wanamaker Mile. Boxing is also a prominent part of the city's sporting scene, with events like the Amateur Boxing Golden Gloves being held at Madison Square Garden each year. The city is also considered the host of the Belmont Stakes, the last, longest and oldest of horse racing's Triple Crown races, held just over the city's border at Belmont Park on the first or second Sunday of June. The city also hosted the 1932 U.S. Open golf tournament and the 1930 and 1939 PGA Championships, and has been host city for both events several times, most notably for nearby Winged Foot Golf Club.
A version of baseball played in city streets was nicknamed was in the 1930s?
56d0071a234ae51400d9c2a5
Stickball
66
False
What street was renamed in the late 2000s to commemorate the street version of baseball?
56d1104317492d1400aab88a
Stickball Boulevard
185
False
In what borough is Stickball Boulevard located?
56d1104317492d1400aab88b
the Bronx
163
False
Many sports are associated with New York's immigrant communities. Stickball, a street version of baseball, was popularized by youths in the 1930s, and a street in the Bronx was renamed Stickball Boulevard in the late 2000s to memorialize this.
Which subway system is considered the largest in the world?
56d007a6234ae51400d9c2a7
New York City Subway system
11
False
How many stations does the  New York City Subway system contain?
56d007a6234ae51400d9c2a8
469
133
False
Which station is known as the world's biggest railroad station?
56d007a6234ae51400d9c2a9
Grand Central Station
588
False
How many people rode the New York City Subway in 2014?
56d110db17492d1400aab899
1.75 billion
488
False
What is the nickname given to Grand Central Terminal?
56d110db17492d1400aab89a
Grand Central Station
588
False
The iconic New York City Subway system is the largest rapid transit system in the world when measured by stations in operation, with 469, and by length of routes. New York's subway is notable for nearly the entire system remaining open 24 hours a day, in contrast to the overnight shutdown common to systems in most cities, including Hong Kong, London, Paris, Seoul, and Tokyo. The New York City Subway is also the busiest metropolitan rail transit system in the Western Hemisphere, with 1.75 billion passengers rides in 2014, while Grand Central Terminal, also popularly referred to as "Grand Central Station", is the world's largest railway station by number of train platforms.
How many minutes does it take the average New Yorker to get to work?
56d00813234ae51400d9c2ad
38.4
314
False
What percentage of New Yorkers use public transportation to get to work?
56d00813234ae51400d9c2af
54.6
48
False
What percentage of people living in Manhattan own a car?
56d00813234ae51400d9c2b0
22
502
False
In 2005, what percentage of New York residents used mass transit to get to work?
56d114ae17492d1400aab8ba
54.6%
48
False
What percentage of Americans drive cars to work?
56d114ae17492d1400aab8bb
90%
180
False
In minutes, how long does it take for the average New Yorker to get to work?
56d114ae17492d1400aab8bc
38.4
314
False
What percentage of New York households don't own an automobile?
56d114ae17492d1400aab8bd
52%
459
False
What percentage of Manhattan residents own an automobile?
56d114ae17492d1400aab8be
22%
502
False
Public transport is essential in New York City. 54.6% of New Yorkers commuted to work in 2005 using mass transit. This is in contrast to the rest of the United States, where about 90% of commuters drive automobiles to their workplace. According to the US Census Bureau, New York City residents spend an average of 38.4 minutes a day getting to work, the longest commute time in the nation among large cities. New York is the only US city in which a majority (52%) of households do not have a car; only 22% of Manhattanites own a car. Due to their high usage of mass transit, New Yorkers spend less of their household income on transportation than the national average, saving $19 billion annually on transportation compared to other urban Americans.
The busiest bus station in the world in the world is called what?
56d0090d234ae51400d9c2b7
Port Authority Bus Terminal
74
False
How many buses visit the Port Authority Bus Terminal each day?
56d1179117492d1400aab90c
7,000
155
False
How many New Yorkers ride the bus on a daily basis?
56d1179117492d1400aab90d
200,000
171
False
What is New York's primary bus terminal?
56d1179117492d1400aab90e
Port Authority Bus Terminal
74
False
New York City's public bus fleet is the largest in North America, and the Port Authority Bus Terminal, the main intercity bus terminal of the city, serves 7,000 buses and 200,000 commuters daily, making it the busiest bus station in the world.
The three airports that have the most people come through them in NYC are which?
56d009f6234ae51400d9c2b9
John F. Kennedy International Airport, Newark Liberty International Airport, and LaGuardia Airport
186
False
What is the second busiest airport in the New York metro area?
56d1186417492d1400aab912
Newark Liberty International Airport
225
False
In 2011, what airport did the most international travelers in North America visit?
56d1186417492d1400aab913
John F. Kennedy International Airport
186
False
What city is Stewart International Airport located close to?
56d1186417492d1400aab914
Newburgh, New York
717
False
How many travelers visited JFK, LaGuardia and Newark Liberty in 2012?
56d1186417492d1400aab915
109 million
286
False
New York's airspace is the busiest in the United States and one of the world's busiest air transportation corridors. The three busiest airports in the New York metropolitan area include John F. Kennedy International Airport, Newark Liberty International Airport, and LaGuardia Airport; 109 million travelers used these three airports in 2012, and the city's airspace is the busiest in the nation. JFK and Newark Liberty were the busiest and fourth busiest U.S. gateways for international air passengers, respectively, in 2012; as of 2011, JFK was the busiest airport for international passengers in North America. Plans have advanced to expand passenger volume at a fourth airport, Stewart International Airport near Newburgh, New York, by the Port Authority of New York and New Jersey. Plans were announced in July 2015 to entirely rebuild LaGuardia Airport in a multibillion-dollar project to replace its aging facilities.
The world's most popular ferry route is which in NYC?
56d00a2d234ae51400d9c2bb
The Staten Island Ferry
0
False
How many hours a day does the The Staten Island Ferry run?
56d00a2d234ae51400d9c2bc
24
190
False
In kilometers, how long is the Staten Island Ferry route?
56d118e717492d1400aab92c
8.4
122
False
Staring in State Island, in what borough does the Staten Island Ferry's route terminate?
56d118e717492d1400aab92d
Manhattan
168
False
How many passengers ride the Staten Island Ferry annually?
56d118e717492d1400aab92e
20 million
83
False
The Staten Island Ferry is the world's busiest ferry route, carrying approximately 20 million passengers on the 5.2-mile (8.4 km) route between Staten Island and Lower Manhattan and running 24 hours a day. Other ferry systems shuttle commuters between Manhattan and other locales within the city and the metropolitan area.
Which bridge in NYC is the busiest in the world?
56d00b23234ae51400d9c2c3
The George Washington Bridge
0
False
The biggest suspension bridge in the US is what?
56d00b23234ae51400d9c2c4
The Verrazano-Narrows Bridge
125
False
The bridge made with steel-wire is which in NYC?
56d00b23234ae51400d9c2c5
The Brooklyn Bridge
235
False
The Brooklyn Bridge was the worlds largest until what date?
56d00b23234ae51400d9c2c6
1903
590
False
What is the busiest bridge for cars in the world?
56d11aec17492d1400aab97d
George Washington Bridge
4
False
Starting in Manhattan, the George Washington Bridge terminates in what New Jersey county?
56d11aec17492d1400aab97e
Bergen
98
False
What is the longest suspension bridge in the United States?
56d11aec17492d1400aab97f
Verrazano-Narrows Bridge
129
False
What style of architecture was used to design the Brooklyn Bridge?
56d11aec17492d1400aab980
neo-Gothic
408
False
In what year did the Brooklyn Bridge cease to be the world's longest suspension bridge?
56d11aec17492d1400aab981
1903
590
False
The George Washington Bridge is the world's busiest motor vehicle bridge, connecting Manhattan to Bergen County, New Jersey. The Verrazano-Narrows Bridge is the longest suspension bridge in the Americas and one of the world's longest. The Brooklyn Bridge is an icon of the city itself. The towers of the Brooklyn Bridge are built of limestone, granite, and Rosendale cement, and their architectural style is neo-Gothic, with characteristic pointed arches above the passageways through the stone towers. This bridge was also the longest suspension bridge in the world from its opening until 1903, and is the first steel-wire suspension bridge.
Which tunnel do 120,000 vehicles travel through a day in NYC?
56d00bc5234ae51400d9c2cb
The Lincoln Tunnel
104
False
The Holland Tunnel opened in what year?
56d00bc5234ae51400d9c2cc
1927
614
False
The Queens-Midtown Tunnel was finished in what year?
56d00bc5234ae51400d9c2cd
1940
810
False
Who was the first person to drive through The Queens-Midtown Tunnel?
56d00bc5234ae51400d9c2ce
President Franklin D. Roosevelt
816
False
How many vehicles utilize the Lincoln Tunnel daily?
56d11bca17492d1400aab9a1
120,000
138
False
What body of water is above the Lincoln Tunnel?
56d11bca17492d1400aab9a2
Hudson River
171
False
What borough is connected to New Jersey via the Lincoln Tunnel?
56d11bca17492d1400aab9a3
Manhattan
0
False
In what New Jersey city does the Holland Tunnel terminate?
56d11bca17492d1400aab9a4
Jersey City
508
False
Who drove through the Queens-Midtown Tunnel before anyone else?
56d11bca17492d1400aab9a5
Franklin D. Roosevelt
826
False
Manhattan Island is linked to New York City's outer boroughs and New Jersey by several tunnels as well. The Lincoln Tunnel, which carries 120,000 vehicles a day under the Hudson River between New Jersey and Midtown Manhattan, is the busiest vehicular tunnel in the world. The tunnel was built instead of a bridge to allow unfettered passage of large passenger and cargo ships that sailed through New York Harbor and up the Hudson River to Manhattan's piers. The Holland Tunnel, connecting Lower Manhattan to Jersey City, New Jersey, was the world's first mechanically ventilated vehicular tunnel when it opened in 1927. The Queens-Midtown Tunnel, built to relieve congestion on the bridges connecting Manhattan with Queens and Brooklyn, was the largest non-federal project in its time when it was completed in 1940. President Franklin D. Roosevelt was the first person to drive through it. The Hugh L. Carey Tunnel runs underneath Battery Park and connects the Financial District at the southern tip of Manhattan to Red Hook in Brooklyn.
How many daily bicycle riders are there in NYC?
56d00beb234ae51400d9c2d3
200,000
49
False
Each day, about how many New Yorkers bike?
56d11cb517492d1400aab9b5
200,000
49
False
About what percentage of New York City travel is done by bike or on foot?
56d11cb517492d1400aab9b6
21%
226
False
What company paid for 10,000 bikes for the city's bicycle sharing program?
56d11cb517492d1400aab9b7
Citibank
435
False
Research by what institution of higher learning showed that most New Yorkers support bicycle sharing?
56d11cb517492d1400aab9b8
Quinnipiac University
576
False
Who ranked New York as the most walkable large US city in 2015?
56d11cb517492d1400aab9b9
Walk Score
353
False
New York's high rate of public transit use, over 200,000 daily cyclists as of 2014, and many pedestrian commuters make it the most energy-efficient major city in the United States. Walk and bicycle modes of travel account for 21% of all modes for trips in the city; nationally the rate for metro regions is about 8%. In both its 2011 and 2015 rankings, Walk Score named New York City the most walkable large city in the United States. Citibank sponsored the introduction of 10,000 public bicycles for the city's bike-share project in the summer of 2013. Research conducted by Quinnipiac University showed that a majority of New Yorkers support the initiative. New York City's numerical "in-season cycling indicator" of bicycling in the city hit an all-time high in 2013.
Who supplies NYC with drinkable water?
56d00c3f234ae51400d9c2d6
Catskill Mountains watershed
63
False
From what mountain range does New York's drinking water come from?
56d11dd317492d1400aab9c9
Catskill Mountains
63
False
How much is being spent on a water purification plant at the Croton Watershed?
56d11dd317492d1400aab9ca
US$3.2 billion
424
False
After the water purification plant at the Croton Watershed is built, how much more water will be added to the city's supply each day?
56d11dd317492d1400aab9cb
290 million gallons
520
False
What percent increase in water supply will the city see after the Croton Watershed plant is finished?
56d11dd317492d1400aab9cc
20%
575
False
In what geographical direction would a New Yorker travel to reach the Croton Watershed?
56d11dd317492d1400aab9cd
north
374
False
New York City is supplied with drinking water by the protected Catskill Mountains watershed. As a result of the watershed's integrity and undisturbed natural water filtration system, New York is one of only four major cities in the United States the majority of whose drinking water is pure enough not to require purification by water treatment plants. The Croton Watershed north of the city is undergoing construction of a US$3.2 billion water purification plant to augment New York City's water supply by an estimated 290 million gallons daily, representing a greater than 20% addition to the city's current availability of water. The ongoing expansion of New York City Water Tunnel No. 3, an integral part of the New York City water supply system, is the largest capital construction project in the city's history.
How many members are on the NYC city council?
56d00cce234ae51400d9c2de
51
114
False
How many terms can the mayjor of NYC serve in total?
56d00cce234ae51400d9c2df
three
269
False
What is the duration of a New York City councilperson's term?
56d11f3717492d1400aab9e0
four-year
45
False
How many councilors sit on the City Council?
56d11f3717492d1400aab9e1
51
114
False
How many terms in a row can a person serve as mayor?
56d11f3717492d1400aab9e2
three
269
False
What is the official journal of New York City?
56d11f3717492d1400aab9e3
the City Record
407
False
If someone serves three consecutive terms as mayor and wants to run again, how many years must they wait?
56d11f3717492d1400aab9e4
four
45
False
The Mayor and council members are elected to four-year terms. The City Council is a unicameral body consisting of 51 council members whose districts are defined by geographic population boundaries. Each term for the mayor and council members lasts four years and has a three consecutive-term limit, but can resume after a four-year break. The New York City Administrative Code, the New York City Rules, and the City Record are the code of local laws, compilation of regulations, and official journal, respectively.
Which political party holds the majority of most office terms in NYC?
56d00d6d234ae51400d9c2e4
Democrats
121
False
In 2008, what percentage of voters were democrats?
56d00d6d234ae51400d9c2e5
67
80
False
Which US president became the first to receive over 80 percent of NYC votes?
56d00d6d234ae51400d9c2e6
Barack Obama
304
False
What was the last year that a republican candidate won all four boroughs of NYC?
56d00d6d234ae51400d9c2e7
1924
280
False
Which president won all of NYC in 1924?
56d00d6d234ae51400d9c2e8
Calvin Coolidge
239
False
What party are most public officials of New York members of?
56d120c117492d1400aaba0d
Democratic Party
4
False
In November 2008, how many New Yorkers were registered as Democrats?
56d120c117492d1400aaba0e
67%
80
False
In what year was the last presidential election when a Republican won New York City?
56d120c117492d1400aaba0f
1924
280
False
How many boroughs did Barack Obama win in the 2012 presidential election?
56d120c117492d1400aaba10
five
263
False
What political party was Calvin Coolidge a member of?
56d120c117492d1400aaba11
Republican
172
False
The Democratic Party holds the majority of public offices. As of November 2008, 67% of registered voters in the city are Democrats. New York City has not been carried by a Republican in a statewide or presidential election since President Calvin Coolidge won the five boroughs in 1924. In 2012, Democrat Barack Obama became the first presidential candidate of any party to receive more than 80% of the overall vote in New York City, sweeping all five boroughs. Party platforms center on affordable housing, education, and economic development, and labor politics are of importance in the city.
As of 2012, how many physicians were working in New York City?
56d101b117492d1400aab712
43,523
276
False
Where is the Cornell University/Technion-Israel Institute of Technology located?
56d101b117492d1400aab713
Roosevelt Island
673
False
As of 2004, how many Nobel Prize winners had roots in New York institutions?
56d101b117492d1400aab714
127
194
False
Much of the scientific research in the city is done in medicine and the life sciences. New York City has the most post-graduate life sciences degrees awarded annually in the United States, with 127 Nobel laureates having roots in local institutions as of 2004; while in 2012, 43,523 licensed physicians were practicing in New York City. Major biomedical research institutions include Memorial Sloan–Kettering Cancer Center, Rockefeller University, SUNY Downstate Medical Center, Albert Einstein College of Medicine, Mount Sinai School of Medicine, and Weill Cornell Medical College, being joined by the Cornell University/Technion-Israel Institute of Technology venture on Roosevelt Island.
How many people are admitted to HHC institutions annually?
56d104d117492d1400aab73e
225,000
41
False
How many people visit HHC emergency rooms every year?
56d104d117492d1400aab73f
one million
61
False
How many people visit HHC clinics annually?
56d104d117492d1400aab740
five million
99
False
What fraction of general hospital discharges receive treatment at HHC?
56d104d117492d1400aab741
one-fifth
170
False
What fraction of emergency room visits receive treatment at HHC?
56d104d117492d1400aab742
one third
229
False
Each year HHC's facilities provide about 225,000 admissions, one million emergency room visits and five million clinic visits to New Yorkers. HHC facilities treat nearly one-fifth of all general hospital discharges and more than one third of emergency room and hospital-based clinic visits in New York City.
Being exposed to what type of pollution has been theorized to increase aggression?
56d106be17492d1400aab774
lead
395
False
The decrease in crime in New York is sometimes attributed to the decline of what street drug?
56d106be17492d1400aab775
crack
281
False
Sociologists and criminologists have not reached consensus on the explanation for the dramatic decrease in the city's crime rate. Some attribute the phenomenon to new tactics used by the NYPD, including its use of CompStat and the broken windows theory. Others cite the end of the crack epidemic and demographic changes, including from immigration. Another theory is that widespread exposure to lead pollution from automobile exhaust, which can lower intelligence and increase aggression levels, incited the initial crime wave in the mid-20th century, most acutely affecting heavily trafficked cities like New York. A strong correlation was found demonstrating that violent crime rates in New York and other big cities began to fall after lead was removed from American gasoline in the 1970s. Another theory cited to explain New York City's falling homicide rate is the inverse correlation between the number of murders and the increasingly wetter climate in the city.
Who commented on New York that "culture just seems to be in the air, like part of the weather"?
56d1089117492d1400aab7ac
Tom Wolfe
355
False
In what library can the book New York, culture capital of the world, 1940–1965 be found?
56d1089117492d1400aab7ad
the National Library of Australia
289
False
What institution of higher education has described New York as the cultural capital of the world?
56d1089117492d1400aab7ae
Baruch College
139
False
Along with Latvia, the consulate of what country has called New York the cultural capital of the world?
56d1089117492d1400aab7af
Iceland
102
False
New York City has been described as the cultural capital of the world by the diplomatic consulates of Iceland and Latvia and by New York's Baruch College. A book containing a series of essays titled New York, culture capital of the world, 1940–1965 has also been published as showcased by the National Library of Australia. In describing New York, author Tom Wolfe said, "Culture just seems to be in the air, like part of the weather."
In what borough is the Lincoln Center for the Performing Arts located?
56d10b9a17492d1400aab7f8
Manhattan
91
False
In what part of Manhattan can you find Lincoln Square?
56d10b9a17492d1400aab7f9
Upper West Side
72
False
In what square is the theater named after Lee Strasberg located?
56d10b9a17492d1400aab7fa
Union Square
417
False
At what institution of higher education is the Tisch School of the Arts located?
56d10b9a17492d1400aab7fb
New York University
472
False
In what New York park can one find performances at no cost?
56d10b9a17492d1400aab7fc
Central Park
499
False
Lincoln Center for the Performing Arts, anchoring Lincoln Square on the Upper West Side of Manhattan, is home to numerous influential arts organizations, including the Metropolitan Opera, New York City Opera, New York Philharmonic, and New York City Ballet, as well as the Vivian Beaumont Theater, the Juilliard School, Jazz at Lincoln Center, and Alice Tully Hall. The Lee Strasberg Theatre and Film Institute is in Union Square, and Tisch School of the Arts is based at New York University, while Central Park SummerStage presents performances of free plays and music in Central Park.
What New York thoroughfare is Museum Mile located on?
56d10c1f17492d1400aab806
Fifth Avenue
161
False
In what borough is Museum Mile located?
56d10c1f17492d1400aab807
Manhattan
235
False
When was the Guggenheim built?
56d10c1f17492d1400aab808
1959
672
False
In what year was the grand opening of the Museum for African Art on 110th Street?
56d10c1f17492d1400aab809
2012
693
False
In what part of Manhattan is the Museum Mile located?
56d10c1f17492d1400aab80a
Upper East Side
216
False
New York City is home to hundreds of cultural institutions and historic sites, many of which are internationally known. Museum Mile is the name for a section of Fifth Avenue running from 82nd to 105th streets on the Upper East Side of Manhattan, in an area sometimes called Upper Carnegie Hill. The Mile, which contains one of the densest displays of culture in the world, is actually three blocks longer than one mile (1.6 km). Ten museums occupy the length of this section of Fifth Avenue. The tenth museum, the Museum for African Art, joined the ensemble in 2009, however its Museum at 110th Street, the first new museum constructed on the Mile since the Guggenheim in 1959, opened in late 2012. In addition to other programming, the museums collaborate for the annual Museum Mile Festival, held each year in June, to promote the museums and increase visitation. Many of the world's most lucrative art auctions are held in New York City.
Along with New Yorkese, what is another name for the New York dialect?
56d10ccf17492d1400aab820
Brooklynese
119
False
The New York area is home to a distinctive regional speech pattern called the New York dialect, alternatively known as Brooklynese or New Yorkese. It has generally been considered one of the most recognizable accents within American English. The classic version of this dialect is centered on middle and working-class people of European descent. However, the influx of non-European immigrants in recent decades has led to changes in this distinctive dialect, and the traditional form of this speech pattern is no longer as prevalent among general New Yorkers as in the past.
What sitcom did the Archie Bunker character feature in?
56d10d4e17492d1400aab828
All in the Family
1120
False
What actor performed the role of Archie Bunker?
56d10d4e17492d1400aab829
Carroll O'Connor
1149
False
What is the transliteration of the way in which New Yorkers are perceived to pronounce the name of their city?
56d10d4e17492d1400aab82a
New Yawk
212
False
The traditional New York area accent is characterized as non-rhotic, so that the sound [ɹ] does not appear at the end of a syllable or immediately before a consonant; hence the pronunciation of the city name as "New Yawk." There is no [ɹ] in words like park [pɑək] or [pɒək] (with vowel backed and diphthongized due to the low-back chain shift), butter [bʌɾə], or here [hiə]. In another feature called the low back chain shift, the [ɔ] vowel sound of words like talk, law, cross, chocolate, and coffee and the often homophonous [ɔr] in core and more are tensed and usually raised more than in General American. In the most old-fashioned and extreme versions of the New York dialect, the vowel sounds of words like "girl" and of words like "oil" became a diphthong [ɜɪ]. This would often be misperceived by speakers of other accents as a reversal of the er and oy sounds, so that girl is pronounced "goil" and oil is pronounced "erl"; this leads to the caricature of New Yorkers saying things like "Joizey" (Jersey), "Toidy-Toid Street" (33rd St.) and "terlet" (toilet). The character Archie Bunker from the 1970s sitcom All in the Family (played by Carroll O'Connor) was a notable example of having used this pattern of speech, which continues to fade in its overall presence.
What Major League Soccer franchise is based in New York?
56d10f6117492d1400aab86c
New York City FC
43
False
What stadium does the New York City FC call home?
56d10f6117492d1400aab86d
Yankee Stadium
113
False
In what city are the New York Red Bulls based?
56d10f6117492d1400aab86e
Harrison, New Jersey
202
False
What famous soccer player played for the New York Cosmos?
56d10f6117492d1400aab86f
Pelé
366
False
At what institution of higher education is James M. Shuart Stadium located?
56d10f6117492d1400aab870
Hofstra University
629
False
In soccer, New York City is represented by New York City FC of Major League Soccer, who play their home games at Yankee Stadium. The New York Red Bulls play their home games at Red Bull Arena in nearby Harrison, New Jersey. Historically, the city is known for the New York Cosmos, the highly successful former professional soccer team which was the American home of Pelé, one of the world's most famous soccer players. A new version of the New York Cosmos was formed in 2010, and began play in the second division North American Soccer League in 2013. The Cosmos play their home games at James M. Shuart Stadium on the campus of Hofstra University, just outside the New York City limits in Hempstead, New York.
What fraction of United States rail riders call the New York City Metropolitan Area home?
56d1109d17492d1400aab894
two-thirds
146
False
Mass transit in New York City, most of which runs 24 hours a day, accounts for one in every three users of mass transit in the United States, and two-thirds of the nation's rail riders live in the New York City Metropolitan Area.
How many rail lines are there on New York City's commuter rail network?
56d115a317492d1400aab8d4
20
335
False
About how many stations does New York City's commuter rail network have?
56d115a317492d1400aab8d5
250
318
False
The AirTrain has a station at what airport?
56d115a317492d1400aab8d6
JFK International Airport
412
False
What Amtrak station in New York sees the most use?
56d115a317492d1400aab8d7
Pennsylvania Station
275
False
In what borough is Pennsylvania Station located?
56d115a317492d1400aab8d8
Manhattan
771
False
New York City's commuter rail network is the largest in North America. The rail network, connecting New York City to its suburbs, consists of the Long Island Rail Road, Metro-North Railroad, and New Jersey Transit. The combined systems converge at Grand Central Terminal and Pennsylvania Station and contain more than 250 stations and 20 rail lines. In Queens, the elevated AirTrain people mover system connects JFK International Airport to the New York City Subway and the Long Island Rail Road; a separate AirTrain system is planned alongside the Grand Central Parkway to connect LaGuardia Airport to these transit systems. For intercity rail, New York City is served by Amtrak, whose busiest station by a significant margin is Pennsylvania Station on the West Side of Manhattan, from which Amtrak provides connections to Boston, Philadelphia, and Washington, D.C. along the Northeast Corridor, as well as long-distance train service to other North American cities.
How many 24-hour rapid transit systems are located in New York?
56d1170417492d1400aab8fc
three
326
False
What 24-hour rapid transit system is in Philadelphia?
56d1170417492d1400aab8fd
PATCO Speedline
496
False
What 24-hour rapid transit system is outside the United States?
56d1170417492d1400aab8fe
Copenhagen Metro
542
False
What does the acronym PATH stand for?
56d1170417492d1400aab8ff
Port Authority Trans-Hudson
106
False
The Staten Island Railway rapid transit system solely serves Staten Island, operating 24 hours a day. The Port Authority Trans-Hudson (PATH train) links Midtown and Lower Manhattan to northeastern New Jersey, primarily Hoboken, Jersey City, and Newark. Like the New York City Subway, the PATH operates 24 hours a day; meaning three of the six rapid transit systems in the world which operate on 24-hour schedules are wholly or partly in New York (the others are a portion of the Chicago 'L', the PATCO Speedline serving Philadelphia, and the Copenhagen Metro).
Along with the East Side Access project and 7 Subway Extension, what heavy-rail project is being built in New York City?
56d1174417492d1400aab904
the Second Avenue Subway
89
False
Multibillion US$ heavy-rail transit projects under construction in New York City include the Second Avenue Subway, the East Side Access project, and the 7 Subway Extension.
About how many yellow cabs operate in New York?
56d1191d17492d1400aab932
12,000
79
False
Where does the aerial tramway that starts on Roosevelt Island terminate?
56d1191d17492d1400aab933
Manhattan Island
240
False
Other features of the city's transportation infrastructure encompass more than 12,000 yellow taxicabs; various competing startup transportation network companies; and an aerial tramway that transports commuters between Roosevelt Island and Manhattan Island.
What industry is Broadway associated with?
56d1196917492d1400aab93f
the theater
357
False
What industry is Wall Street associated with?
56d1196917492d1400aab940
finance
370
False
What industry is Madison Avenue associated with?
56d1196917492d1400aab941
advertising
379
False
What New York street is associated with fashion?
56d1196917492d1400aab942
Seventh Avenue
285
False
Despite New York's heavy reliance on its vast public transit system, streets are a defining feature of the city. Manhattan's street grid plan greatly influenced the city's physical development. Several of the city's streets and avenues, like Broadway, Wall Street, Madison Avenue, and Seventh Avenue are also used as metonyms for national industries there: the theater, finance, advertising, and fashion organizations, respectively.
At what time are drivers in New York most likely to experience traffic jams?
56d119ec17492d1400aab947
rush hour
477
False
What geographical portion of Connecticut is linked to New York via highway?
56d119ec17492d1400aab948
southwestern
186
False
What part of New Jersey can be reached from New York by taking the expressway?
56d119ec17492d1400aab949
northern
128
False
New York City also has an extensive web of expressways and parkways, which link the city's boroughs to each other as well as to northern New Jersey, Westchester County, Long Island, and southwestern Connecticut through various bridges and tunnels. Because these highways serve millions of outer borough and suburban residents who commute into Manhattan, it is quite common for motorists to be stranded for hours in traffic jams that are a daily occurrence, particularly during rush hour.
What island is the borough of Brooklyn located on?
56d11a7617492d1400aab96f
Long Island
248
False
Queens is located on what part of Long Island?
56d11a7617492d1400aab970
the west end
221
False
The borough of Staten Island is primarily located on what island?
56d11a7617492d1400aab971
Staten Island
106
False
New York City is located on one of the world's largest natural harbors, and the boroughs of Manhattan and Staten Island are (primarily) coterminous with islands of the same names, while Queens and Brooklyn are located at the west end of the larger Long Island, and The Bronx is located at the southern tip of New York State's mainland. This situation of boroughs separated by water led to the development of an extensive infrastructure of bridges and tunnels. Nearly all of the city's major bridges and tunnels are notable, and several have broken or set records.
What architectural style does the Throgs Neck Bridge reflect?
56d11b4a17492d1400aab993
Structural Expressionism
182
False
The Queensboro Bridge utilized what type of construction?
56d11b4a17492d1400aab994
cantilever
47
False
The Queensboro Bridge is an important piece of cantilever architecture. The Manhattan Bridge, Throgs Neck Bridge, Triborough Bridge, and Verrazano-Narrows Bridge are all examples of Structural Expressionism.
How many clean diesel and hybrid taxicabs did New York City have in 2010?
56d11c0717492d1400aab9ab
3,715
184
False
What percentage of the New York City cab fleet was clean diesel or hybrid in 2010?
56d11c0717492d1400aab9ac
28%
256
False
New York City has focused on reducing its environmental impact and carbon footprint. Mass transit use in New York City is the highest in the United States. Also, by 2010, the city had 3,715 hybrid taxis and other clean diesel vehicles, representing around 28% of New York's taxi fleet in service, the most of any city in North America.
What percent reduction of greenhouse gases does Mayor de Blasio want to see by 2050?
56d11d3317492d1400aab9c3
80%
353
False
What is the name of a notable green office building in New York?
56d11d3317492d1400aab9c4
Hearst Tower
285
False
What legal case sought to compel the Environmental Protection Agency to regular greenhouse gases?
56d11d3317492d1400aab9c5
Massachusetts v. Environmental Protection Agency
53
False
The city government was a petitioner in the landmark Massachusetts v. Environmental Protection Agency Supreme Court case forcing the EPA to regulate greenhouse gases as pollutants. The city is also a leader in the construction of energy-efficient green office buildings, including the Hearst Tower among others. Mayor Bill de Blasio has committed to an 80% reduction in greenhouse gas emissions between 2014 and 2050 to reduce the city's contributions to climate change, beginning with a comprehensive "Green Buildings" plan.
How long is Newtown Creek in kilometers?
56d11e7b17492d1400aab9d3
6
27
False
How many cubic meters of oil is supposed to be in Newtown Creek?
56d11e7b17492d1400aab9d4
110,000
519
False
What notable accidental fossil fuel discharge occurred at Newtown Creek?
56d11e7b17492d1400aab9d5
the Greenpoint oil spill
557
False
Newtown Creek, a 3.5-mile (6-kilometer) a long estuary that forms part of the border between the boroughs of Brooklyn and Queens, has been designated a Superfund site for environmental clean-up and remediation of the waterway's recreational and economic resources for many communities. One of the most heavily used bodies of water in the Port of New York and New Jersey, it had been one of the most contaminated industrial sites in the country, containing years of discarded toxins, an estimated 30 million US gallons (110,000 m3) of spilled oil, including the Greenpoint oil spill, raw sewage from New York City's sewer system, and other accumulation.
What type of government does New York City have?
56d11eb317492d1400aab9d9
mayor-council
58
False
In what year did New York City adopt the mayor-council form of government?
56d11eb317492d1400aab9da
1898
118
False
New York City has been a metropolitan municipality with a mayor-council form of government since its consolidation in 1898. The government of New York is more centralized than that of most other U.S. cities. In New York City, the city government is responsible for public education, correctional institutions, public safety, recreational facilities, sanitation, water supply, and welfare services.
What numbered department of the Supreme Court is located in Brooklyn?
56d11faa17492d1400aab9eb
Second
329
False
In what borough is the Appellate Division of the Supreme Court located?
56d11faa17492d1400aab9ec
Manhattan
226
False
What branch of government are the administrative courts a part of?
56d11faa17492d1400aab9ed
executive
418
False
Each borough is coextensive with a judicial district of the state Unified Court System, of which the Criminal Court and the Civil Court are the local courts, while the New York Supreme Court conducts major trials and appeals. Manhattan hosts the First Department of the Supreme Court, Appellate Division while Brooklyn hosts the Second Department. There are also several extrajudicial administrative courts, which are executive agencies and not part of the state Unified Court System.
In what borough is the main courthouse of the District Court for the Southern District of New York located?
56d1204617492d1400aab9f9
Manhattan
255
False
What federal district court has its main courthouse in Brooklyn?
56d1204617492d1400aab9fa
the Eastern District of New York
349
False
What square is home to the US Court of International Trade?
56d1204617492d1400aab9fb
Foley Square
224
False
What federal district court has jurisdiction over Staten Island?
56d1204617492d1400aab9fc
the District Court for the Eastern District of New York
326
False
In what borough is the New York City Hall found?
56d1204617492d1400aab9fd
Manhattan
255
False
Uniquely among major American cities, New York is divided between, and is host to the main branches of, two different US district courts: the District Court for the Southern District of New York, whose main courthouse is on Foley Square near City Hall in Manhattan and whose jurisdiction includes Manhattan and the Bronx, and the District Court for the Eastern District of New York, whose main courthouse is in Brooklyn and whose jurisdiction includes Brooklyn, Queens, and Staten Island. The US Court of Appeals for the Second Circuit and US Court of International Trade are also based in New York, also on Foley Square in Manhattan.
Four-fifths of the ZIP codes that provide the highest amount of political contributions in the United States are located in what borough?
56d1218c17492d1400aaba1d
Manhattan
168
False
What ZIP code was responsible for the greatest amount of contributions in the 2004 presidential election for both candidates?
56d1218c17492d1400aaba1e
10021
197
False
How much money in cents does New York City receive for every dollar paid in federal taxes?
56d1218c17492d1400aaba1f
83
419
False
How much more money does the city give to the state of New York annually than it receives?
56d1218c17492d1400aaba20
$11 billion
593
False
Each year, how much more money does New York City give to the federal government than it gets back?
56d1218c17492d1400aaba21
$11.4 billion
516
False
New York is the most important source of political fundraising in the United States, as four of the top five ZIP codes in the nation for political contributions are in Manhattan. The top ZIP code, 10021 on the Upper East Side, generated the most money for the 2004 presidential campaigns of George W. Bush and John Kerry. The city has a strong imbalance of payments with the national and state governments. It receives 83 cents in services for every $1 it sends to the federal government in taxes (or annually sends $11.4 billion more than it receives back). The city also sends an additional $11 billion more each year to the state of New York than it receives back.
What is the new name of the Sister City Program of the City of New York, Inc.?
56d121d817492d1400aaba2d
New York City Global Partners
92
False
In what year did the Sister City Program of the City of New York, Inc. have its name changed?
56d121d817492d1400aaba2e
2006
3
False
In 2006, the Sister City Program of the City of New York, Inc. was restructured and renamed New York City Global Partners. New York City has expanded its international outreach via this program to a network of cities worldwide, promoting the exchange of ideas and innovation between their citizenry and policymakers, according to the city's website. New York's historic sister cities are denoted below by the year they joined New York City's partnership network.
To_Kill_a_Mockingbird
When did To Kill a Mockingbird first get circulated?
56ce30f5aab44d1400b88520
1960
60
False
What prize did To Kill a Mockingbird win?
56ce30f5aab44d1400b88521
Pulitzer Prize
109
False
Who wrote To Kill a Mockingbird?
56ce30f5aab44d1400b88523
Harper Lee
36
False
Who wrote the novel To Kill a Mockingbird?
56d1073817492d1400aab786
Harper Lee
36
False
What year was To Kill a Mockingbird first published?
56d1073817492d1400aab787
1960
60
False
Whom did Lee base the characters in To Kill a Mockingbird on?
56d1073817492d1400aab788
her family and neighbors
255
False
To Kill a Mockingbird is a novel by Harper Lee published in 1960. It was immediately successful, winning the Pulitzer Prize, and has become a classic of modern American literature. The plot and characters are loosely based on the author's observations of her family and neighbors, as well as on an event that occurred near her hometown in 1936, when she was 10 years old.
To Kill a Mockingbird is widely read in which countries schools?
56ce31f5aab44d1400b8854a
United States
322
False
What genre of book is To Kill a Mockingbird?
56ce31f5aab44d1400b8854b
Southern Gothic novel
5
False
Some of the central themes of the book are what exactly?
56ce31f5aab44d1400b8854c
racial injustice and the destruction of innocence
100
False
Which region of America was the novel set in?
56d10cda17492d1400aab823
Deep South
266
False
What has caused  the use of the novel in classrooms to be challenged?
56d10cda17492d1400aab824
racial epithets
535
False
As a Southern Gothic novel and a Bildungsroman, the primary themes of To Kill a Mockingbird involve racial injustice and the destruction of innocence. Scholars have noted that Lee also addresses issues of class, courage, compassion, and gender roles in the American Deep South. The book is widely taught in schools in the United States with lessons that emphasize tolerance and decry prejudice. Despite its themes, To Kill a Mockingbird has been subject to campaigns for removal from public classrooms, often challenged for its use of racial epithets.
Who gathered impressions of To Kill a Mockingbird from other authors and famous people?
56ce330daab44d1400b88556
Mary McDonough Murphy
171
False
In which year did British librarians rank To Kill a Mockingbird ahead of the Bible?
56ce330daab44d1400b88557
2006
343
False
When was To Kill a Mockingbird made into a movie?
56ce330daab44d1400b88558
1962
498
False
When did a play for the book begin to perform every year in Monroeville, Alabama?
56ce330daab44d1400b88559
1990
573
False
Who was the director of the adaptation of the movie?
56ce330daab44d1400b8855a
Robert Mulligan
515
False
British librarians in 2006 ranked the book ahead of what famous volume?
56d114b117492d1400aab8c4
Bible
397
False
Who wrote the screenplay for the 1962 film?
56d114b117492d1400aab8c5
Horton Foote
553
False
Who directed the 1962 film?
56d114b117492d1400aab8c6
Robert Mulligan
515
False
What is Harper Lee's hometown?
56d114b117492d1400aab8c7
Monroeville, Alabama
661
False
Reaction to the novel varied widely upon publication. Literary analysis of it is sparse, considering the number of copies sold and its widespread use in education. Author Mary McDonough Murphy, who collected individual impressions of To Kill a Mockingbird by several authors and public figures, calls the book, "an astonishing phenomenon". In 2006, British librarians ranked the book ahead of the Bible as one "every adult should read before they die". It was adapted into an Oscar-winning film in 1962 by director Robert Mulligan, with a screenplay by Horton Foote. Since 1990, a play based on the novel has been performed annually in Harper Lee's hometown of Monroeville, Alabama.
When did Harper Lee pass away?
56ce3363aab44d1400b88565
February 2016
217
False
What is the only other work Harper Lee published?
56ce3363aab44d1400b88566
Go Set a Watchman
58
False
What is the name of Lee's second published work?
56d1161117492d1400aab8de
Go Set a Watchman
58
False
When was the second book published?
56d1161117492d1400aab8df
July 14, 2015
137
False
When did Lee die?
56d1161117492d1400aab8e0
February 2016
217
False
To Kill a Mockingbird was Lee's only published book until Go Set a Watchman, an earlier draft of To Kill a Mockingbird, was published on July 14, 2015. Lee continued to respond to her work's impact until her death in February 2016, although she had refused any personal publicity for herself or the novel since 1964.
Who did Harper Lee become childhood friends with?
56ce349aaab44d1400b8858a
Truman Capote
140
False
What year did Harper Lee pack up to go live in New York City?
56ce349aaab44d1400b8858c
1950
569
False
What job did Harper Lee start in New York City?
56ce349aaab44d1400b8858d
reservation clerk
625
False
Which state did Harper Lee spend her childhood?
56ce349aaab44d1400b8858e
Alabama
70
False
What year was Harper Lee born?
56d11a1217492d1400aab953
1926
8
False
Who was the famous writer Lee became close friends with?
56d11a1217492d1400aab954
Truman Capote
140
False
Where did Lee attend college?
56d11a1217492d1400aab955
Huntingdon College
168
False
Where did Lee attend law school?
56d11a1217492d1400aab956
University of Alabama
240
False
What publishing company bought To Kill a Mockingbird?
56d11a1217492d1400aab957
J. B. Lippincott
894
False
Born in 1926, Harper Lee grew up in the Southern town of Monroeville, Alabama, where she became close friends with soon-to-be famous writer Truman Capote. She attended Huntingdon College in Montgomery (1944–45), and then studied law at the University of Alabama (1945–49). While attending college, she wrote for campus literary magazines: Huntress at Huntingdon and the humor magazine Rammer Jammer at the University of Alabama. At both colleges, she wrote short stories and other works about racial injustice, a rarely mentioned topic on such campuses at the time. In 1950, Lee moved to New York City, where she worked as a reservation clerk for British Overseas Airways Corporation; there, she began writing a collection of essays and short stories about people in Monroeville. Hoping to be published, Lee presented her writing in 1957 to a literary agent recommended by Capote. An editor at J. B. Lippincott , who bought the manuscript, advised her to quit the airline and concentrate on writing. Donations from friends allowed her to write uninterrupted for a year.
The first draft of To Kill a Mockingbird was named what?
56ce355eaab44d1400b8859e
Go Set a Watchman
102
False
Who was the editor who got their hands on the first draft of To Kill a Mockingbird?
56ce355eaab44d1400b8859f
Tay Hohoff
197
False
What was the name of  the editor who helped Lee finish her book?
56d11b1c17492d1400aab991
Therese von Hohoff Torrey
145
False
After finishing the first draft and returning it to Lippincott, the manuscript, at that point titled "Go Set a Watchman", fell into the hands of Therese von Hohoff Torrey — known professionally as Tay Hohoff — a small, wiry veteran editor in her late 50s. Hohoff was impressed. “[T]he spark of the true writer flashed in every line,” she would later recount in a corporate history of Lippincott. But as Hohoff saw it, the manuscript was by no means fit for publication. It was, as she described it, “more a series of anecdotes than a fully conceived novel.” During the next couple of years, she led Lee from one draft to the next until the book finally achieved its finished form and was retitled To Kill a Mockingbird.
What ailment did Harper Lee's mother suffer from?
56ce35b2aab44d1400b885b4
mental illness
43
False
What profession did Harper Lee's father hold?
56ce35b2aab44d1400b885b5
lawyer
130
False
Lee modeled the character Atticus after what laywer?
56d11b8d17492d1400aab997
Her father
116
False
Lee had lost her mother, who suffered from mental illness, six years before she met Hohoff at Lippincott’s offices. Her father, a lawyer on whom Atticus was modeled, would die two years after the publication of To Kill a Mockingbird.
What date did To Kill a Mockingbird begin to circulate?
56ce3631aab44d1400b885d1
July 11, 1960
105
False
How long did Lee spend writing the book?
56d11d0f17492d1400aab9bf
over two and a half years
22
False
What publication's partial reprinting gave the book wide public exposure?
56d11d0f17492d1400aab9c0
Reader's Digest Condensed Books
917
False
Ultimately, Lee spent over two and a half years writing To Kill a Mockingbird. The book was published on July 11, 1960. After rejecting the "Watchman" title, it was initially re-titled Atticus, but Lee renamed it "To Kill a Mockingbird" to reflect that the story went beyond just a character portrait. The editorial team at Lippincott warned Lee that she would probably sell only several thousand copies. In 1964, Lee recalled her hopes for the book when she said, "I never expected any sort of success with 'Mockingbird.' ... I was hoping for a quick and merciful death at the hands of the reviewers but, at the same time, I sort of hoped someone would like it enough to give me encouragement. Public encouragement. I hoped for a little, as I said, but I got rather a whole lot, and in some ways this was just about as frightening as the quick, merciful death I'd expected." Instead of a "quick and merciful death", Reader's Digest Condensed Books chose the book for reprinting in part, which gave it a wide readership immediately. Since the original publication, the book has never been out of print.
Where is the setting for To Kill a Mockingbird?
56ce623aaab44d1400b88721
Maycomb, Alabama
112
False
How many years does the story of To Kill a Mockingbird take place?
56ce623aaab44d1400b88722
three
29
False
How many children does the protagonist, Atticus Finch, have?
56ce623aaab44d1400b88723
two
778
False
Atticus Finch's children make friends with whom during the story?
56ce623aaab44d1400b88724
Dill
343
False
What is the name of the town the story takes place in?
56d11fcf17492d1400aab9f1
Maycomb, Alabama
112
False
In what historical era does the book take place?
56d11fcf17492d1400aab9f2
the Great Depression
54
False
Who is the main character of the book?
56d11fcf17492d1400aab9f3
Jean Louise Finch (Scout)
185
False
The story takes place during three years (1933–35) of the Great Depression in the fictional "tired old town" of Maycomb, Alabama, the seat of Maycomb County. It focuses on six-year-old Jean Louise Finch (Scout), who lives with her older brother, Jem, and their widowed father, Atticus, a middle-aged lawyer. Jem and Scout befriend a boy named Dill, who visits Maycomb to stay with his aunt each summer. The three children are terrified of, and fascinated by, their neighbor, the reclusive Arthur "Boo" Radley. The adults of Maycomb are hesitant to talk about Boo, and, for many years few have seen him. The children feed one another's imagination with rumors about his appearance and reasons for remaining hidden, and they fantasize about how to get him out of his house. After two summers of friendship with Dill, Scout and Jem find that someone leaves them small gifts in a tree outside the Radley place. Several times the mysterious Boo makes gestures of affection to the children, but, to their disappointment, he never appears in person.
What was the name of the woman who was allegedly raped in the book?
56ce6318aab44d1400b8872d
Mayella Ewell
118
False
What is the name of Atticus' client in the rape trial?
56d121d317492d1400aaba27
Tom Robinson
40
False
Who stopped the mob by shaming them?
56d121d317492d1400aaba29
Scout, Jem, and Dill
508
False
Judge Taylor appoints Atticus to defend Tom Robinson, a black man who has been accused of raping a young white woman, Mayella Ewell. Although many of Maycomb's citizens disapprove, Atticus agrees to defend Tom to the best of his ability. Other children taunt Jem and Scout for Atticus's actions, calling him a "nigger-lover". Scout is tempted to stand up for her father's honor by fighting, even though he has told her not to. Atticus faces a group of men intent on lynching Tom. This danger is averted when Scout, Jem, and Dill shame the mob into dispersing by forcing them to view the situation from Atticus' and Tom's points of view.
What are the names of Atticus Finch's children in the book?
56ce63f7aab44d1400b88735
Jem and Scout
22
False
Where do Jem, Scout, and Dill observe the trial of Tom Robinson?
56ce63f7aab44d1400b88736
balcony
191
False
Where do the three children watch the trial?
56d1232217492d1400aaba45
the colored balcony
179
False
What happens to Tom when he attempts to escape prison?
56d1232217492d1400aaba47
shot and killed
584
False
Atticus does not want Jem and Scout to be present at Tom Robinson's trial. No seat is available on the main floor, so by invitation of Rev. Sykes, Jem, Scout, and Dill watch from the colored balcony. Atticus establishes that the accusers—Mayella and her father, Bob Ewell, the town drunk—are lying. It also becomes clear that the friendless Mayella made sexual advances toward Tom, and that her father caught her and beat her. Despite significant evidence of Tom's innocence, the jury convicts him. Jem's faith in justice becomes badly shaken, as is Atticus', when the hapless Tom is shot and killed while trying to escape from prison.
Who did Bob Ewell attack during the story?
56ce6488aab44d1400b8873e
Jem and Scout
326
False
What event did Jem and Scout attend right before they were attacked at night?
56ce6488aab44d1400b8873f
Halloween pageant
394
False
Who saved Jem and Scout from Bob Ewell?
56ce6488aab44d1400b88740
Boo Radley
590
False
Who attacked Scout and Jem?
56d123c417492d1400aaba4b
Bob Ewell
26
False
Who rescued Scout and Jem?
56d123c417492d1400aaba4c
Boo Radley
590
False
Despite Tom's conviction, Bob Ewell is humiliated by the events of the trial, Atticus explaining that he "destroyed [Ewell's] last shred of credibility at that trial." Ewell vows revenge, spitting in Atticus' face, trying to break into the judge's house, and menacing Tom Robinson's widow. Finally, he attacks the defenseless Jem and Scout while they walk home on a dark night after the school Halloween pageant. One of Jem's arms is broken in the struggle, but amid the confusion someone comes to the children's rescue. The mysterious man carries Jem home, where Scout realizes that he is Boo Radley.
What was the name of the police officer who discovered Bob Ewell's body?
56ce6635aab44d1400b8874f
Sheriff Tate
0
False
According to Sheriff Tate's story, how did Ewell die?
56d1255017492d1400aaba75
fell on his own knife
309
False
Sheriff Tate arrives and discovers that Bob Ewell has died during the fight. The sheriff argues with Atticus about the prudence and ethics of charging Jem (whom Atticus believes to be responsible) or Boo (whom Tate believes to be responsible). Atticus eventually accepts the sheriff's story that Ewell simply fell on his own knife. Boo asks Scout to walk him home, and after she says goodbye to him at his front door he disappears again. While standing on the Radley porch, Scout imagines life from Boo's perspective, and regrets that they had never repaid him for the gifts he had given them.
Harper Lee has stated that To Kill a Mockingbird is not what genre of book?
56ce67f4aab44d1400b88761
autobiography
50
False
What year did Harper Lee's father represent two black men accused of murder?
56ce67f4aab44d1400b88762
1919
344
False
At what age did Harper Lee's mother die?
56ce67f4aab44d1400b88764
25
733
False
What titles did Lee's father maintain at the local newspaper?
56d126c117492d1400aaba94
editor and publisher
508
False
Lee has said that To Kill a Mockingbird is not an autobiography, but rather an example of how an author "should write about what he knows and write truthfully". Nevertheless, several people and events from Lee's childhood parallel those of the fictional Scout. Lee's father, Amasa Coleman Lee, was an attorney, similar to Atticus Finch, and in 1919, he defended two black men accused of murder. After they were convicted, hanged and mutilated, he never tried another criminal case. Lee's father was also the editor and publisher of the Monroeville newspaper. Although more of a proponent of racial segregation than Atticus, he gradually became more liberal in his later years. Though Scout's mother died when she was a baby, Lee was 25 when her mother, Frances Cunningham Finch, died. Lee's mother was prone to a nervous condition that rendered her mentally and emotionally absent. Lee had a brother named Edwin, who—like the fictional Jem—was four years older than his sister. As in the novel, a black housekeeper came daily to care for the Lee house and family.
Where did Truman Capote live in relation to Lee?
56ce68dcaab44d1400b8876c
next door
123
False
What year did Lee and Capote go to Kansas together?
56ce68dcaab44d1400b8876d
1960
734
False
Murders were the base for which story that Capote wrote?
56ce68dcaab44d1400b8876e
In Cold Blood
869
False
Who was the character Dill modeled after?
56d128d017492d1400aabace
Truman Capote
59
False
What did Lee and Capote write their childhood stories on?
56d128d017492d1400aabacf
old Underwood typewriter
568
False
What term did Capote use to describe Lee and himself?
56d128d017492d1400aabad0
apart people
716
False
Lee modeled the character of Dill on her childhood friend, Truman Capote, known then as Truman Persons. Just as Dill lived next door to Scout during the summer, Capote lived next door to Lee with his aunts while his mother visited New York City. Like Dill, Capote had an impressive imagination and a gift for fascinating stories. Both Lee and Capote were atypical children: both loved to read. Lee was a scrappy tomboy who was quick to fight, but Capote was ridiculed for his advanced vocabulary and lisp. She and Capote made up and acted out stories they wrote on an old Underwood typewriter Lee's father gave them. They became good friends when both felt alienated from their peers; Capote called the two of them "apart people". In 1960, Capote and Lee traveled to Kansas together to investigate the multiple murders that were the basis for Capote's nonfiction novel In Cold Blood.
At what age was Lee when a white woman accused a black guy of rape?
56ce6aabaab44d1400b88775
10
136
False
What was the name of the black man who was accused of rape in Lee's town when she was 10?
56ce6aabaab44d1400b88776
Walter Lett
207
False
What was the name of the black teenager that Tom Robinson was supposedly based on?
56ce6aabaab44d1400b88777
Emmett Till
870
False
Emmett Till's death sparked which political movement in the '50s?
56ce6aabaab44d1400b88778
Civil Rights Movement
1023
False
What purpose did Tom Robinson's trial serve in the book?
56d12cb517492d1400aabb54
display Southern prejudices
841
False
Who's death was a catalyst for the Civil Rights Movement?
56d12cb517492d1400aabb55
Emmett Till
870
False
The origin of Tom Robinson is less clear, although many have speculated that his character was inspired by several models. When Lee was 10 years old, a white woman near Monroeville accused a black man named Walter Lett of raping her. The story and the trial were covered by her father's newspaper which reported that Lett was convicted and sentenced to death. After a series of letters appeared claiming Lett had been falsely accused, his sentence was commuted to life in prison. He died there of tuberculosis in 1937. Scholars believe that Robinson's difficulties reflect the notorious case of the Scottsboro Boys, in which nine black men were convicted of raping two white women on negligible evidence. However, in 2005, Lee stated that she had in mind something less sensational, although the Scottsboro case served "the same purpose" to display Southern prejudices. Emmett Till, a black teenager who was murdered for flirting with a white woman in Mississippi in 1955, and whose death is credited as a catalyst for the Civil Rights Movement, is also considered a model for Tom Robinson.
What two forms of humor are most found in To Kill a Mockingbird?
56ce6d47aab44d1400b8877d
Satire and irony
1137
False
Lee uses which writing styles to express humor in a tragic story?
56d13b3ae7d4791d00902049
parody, satire, and irony
498
False
Writing about Lee's style and use of humor in a tragic story, scholar Jacqueline Tavernier-Courbin states: "Laughter ... [exposes] the gangrene under the beautiful surface but also by demeaning it; one can hardly ... be controlled by what one is able to laugh at." Scout's precocious observations about her neighbors and behavior inspire National Endowment of the Arts director David Kipen to call her "hysterically funny". To address complex issues, however, Tavernier-Courbin notes that Lee uses parody, satire, and irony effectively by using a child's perspective. After Dill promises to marry her, then spends too much time with Jem, Scout reasons the best way to get him to pay attention to her is to beat him up, which she does several times. Scout's first day in school is a satirical treatment of education; her teacher says she must undo the damage Atticus has wrought in teaching her to read and write, and forbids Atticus from teaching her further. Lee treats the most unfunny situations with irony, however, as Jem and Scout try to understand how Maycomb embraces racism and still tries sincerely to remain a decent society. Satire and irony are used to such an extent that Tavernier-Courbin suggests one interpretation for the book's title: Lee is doing the mocking—of education, the justice system, and her own society by using them as subjects of her humorous disapproval.
Where does Jem trap a fellow peer of school in the story?
56ce6dabaab44d1400b8877f
church basement
139
False
What is the name of the maid who works in the Finch's household?
56ce6dabaab44d1400b88780
Calpurnia
236
False
How does Scout respond to the audience?
56d14361e7d4791d00902051
distracted and embarrassed
510
False
What saves Scout's life?
56d14361e7d4791d00902052
ham costume
572
False
Critics also note the entertaining methods used to drive the plot. When Atticus is out of town, Jem locks a Sunday school classmate in the church basement with the furnace during a game of Shadrach. This prompts their black housekeeper Calpurnia to escort Scout and Jem to her church, which allows the children a glimpse into her personal life, as well as Tom Robinson's. Scout falls asleep during the Halloween pageant and makes a tardy entrance onstage, causing the audience to laugh uproariously. She is so distracted and embarrassed that she prefers to go home in her ham costume, which saves her life.
What genre of book is To Kill a Mockingbird typically called?
56ce6f81aab44d1400b8878b
Southern Gothic and coming-of-age or Bildungsroman novel
60
False
What term did Lee use to describe the town's courthouse?
56d147d5e7d4791d00902057
Gothic
69
False
Who does Scout revere above everyone else?
56d147d5e7d4791d00902058
Atticus
731
False
Scholars have characterized To Kill a Mockingbird as both a Southern Gothic and coming-of-age or Bildungsroman novel. The grotesque and near-supernatural qualities of Boo Radley and his house, and the element of racial injustice involving Tom Robinson contribute to the aura of the Gothic in the novel. Lee used the term "Gothic" to describe the architecture of Maycomb's courthouse and in regard to Dill's exaggeratedly morbid performances as Boo Radley. Outsiders are also an important element of Southern Gothic texts and Scout and Jem's questions about the hierarchy in the town cause scholars to compare the novel to Catcher in the Rye and Adventures of Huckleberry Finn. Despite challenging the town's systems, Scout reveres Atticus as an authority above all others, because he believes that following one's conscience is the highest priority, even when the result is social ostracism. However, scholars debate about the Southern Gothic classification, noting that Boo Radley is in fact human, protective, and benevolent. Furthermore, in addressing themes such as alcoholism, incest, rape, and racial violence, Lee wrote about her small town realistically rather than melodramatically. She portrays the problems of individual characters as universal underlying issues in every society.
What was the name of the neighbor that Jem speaks too after Tom Robinson's trial?
56ce70aaaab44d1400b8878f
Miss Maudie
215
False
What des Jem struggle to understand?
56d18bcde7d4791d0090205e
separations of race and class
459
False
As children coming of age, Scout and Jem face hard realities and learn from them. Lee seems to examine Jem's sense of loss about how his neighbors have disappointed him more than Scout's. Jem says to their neighbor Miss Maudie the day after the trial, "It's like bein' a caterpillar wrapped in a cocoon ... I always thought Maycomb folks were the best folks in the world, least that's what they seemed like". This leads him to struggle with understanding the separations of race and class. Just as the novel is an illustration of the changes Jem faces, it is also an exploration of the realities Scout must face as an atypical girl on the verge of womanhood. As one scholar writes, "To Kill a Mockingbird can be read as a feminist Bildungsroman, for Scout emerges from her childhood experiences with a clear sense of her place in her community and an awareness of her potential power as the woman she will one day be."
When did the Montgomery Bus Boycott take place?
56ce98e7aab44d1400b888bf
1955
531
False
Many reviewers consider the second part of the book to be about what issue?
56d198dce7d4791d0090206f
race relations
291
False
The second part of the novel deals with what book reviewer Harding LeMay termed "the spirit-corroding shame of the civilized white Southerner in the treatment of the Negro". In the years following its release, many reviewers considered To Kill a Mockingbird a novel primarily concerned with race relations. Claudia Durst Johnson considers it "reasonable to believe" that the novel was shaped by two events involving racial issues in Alabama: Rosa Parks' refusal to yield her seat on a city bus to a white person, which sparked the 1955 Montgomery Bus Boycott, and the 1956 riots at the University of Alabama after Autherine Lucy and Polly Myers were admitted (Myers eventually withdrew her application and Lucy was expelled, but reinstated in 1980). In writing about the historical context of the novel's construction, two other literary scholars remark: "To Kill a Mockingbird was written and published amidst the most significant and conflict-ridden social change in the South since the Civil War and Reconstruction. Inevitably, despite its mid-1930s setting, the story told from the perspective of the 1950s voices the conflicts, tensions, and fears induced by this transition."
The main jurors in Tom Robinson's trial were all which race?
56ce996caab44d1400b888c1
white
371
False
How did Tom Robinson die in the novel?
56ce996caab44d1400b888c2
shot seventeen times
1237
False
At the time of the novel's setting, what punishment was often received by black males for percieved sexual contact with a white woman?
56d19bdee7d4791d00902073
death
453
False
Who comprised Tom's jury?
56d19bdee7d4791d00902074
poor white farmers
511
False
How many times was Tom shot?
56d19bdee7d4791d00902075
seventeen
1242
False
Scholar Patrick Chura, who suggests Emmett Till was a model for Tom Robinson, enumerates the injustices endured by the fictional Tom that Till also faced. Chura notes the icon of the black rapist causing harm to the representation of the "mythologized vulnerable and sacred Southern womanhood". Any transgressions by black males that merely hinted at sexual contact with white females during the time the novel was set often resulted in a punishment of death for the accused. Tom Robinson's trial was juried by poor white farmers who convicted him despite overwhelming evidence of his innocence, as more educated and moderate white townspeople supported the jury's decision. Furthermore, the victim of racial injustice in To Kill a Mockingbird was physically impaired, which made him unable to commit the act he was accused of, but also crippled him in other ways. Roslyn Siegel includes Tom Robinson as an example of the recurring motif among white Southern writers of the black man as "stupid, pathetic, defenseless, and dependent upon the fair dealing of the whites, rather than his own intelligence to save him". Although Tom is spared from being lynched, he is killed with excessive violence during an attempted escape from prison, shot seventeen times.
Atticus is tasked with killing what animal in the novel?
56ce99a5aab44d1400b888c5
a rabid dog
105
False
What is Atticus shooting the rabid dog symbolic of?
56d19cf4e7d4791d00902079
fight against the town's racism
308
False
The theme of racial injustice appears symbolically in the novel as well. For example, Atticus must shoot a rabid dog, even though it is not his job to do so. Carolyn Jones argues that the dog represents prejudice within the town of Maycomb, and Atticus, who waits on a deserted street to shoot the dog, must fight against the town's racism without help from other white citizens. He is also alone when he faces a group intending to lynch Tom Robinson and once more in the courthouse during Tom's trial. Lee even uses dreamlike imagery from the mad dog incident to describe some of the courtroom scenes. Jones writes, "[t]he real mad dog in Maycomb is the racism that denies the humanity of Tom Robinson .... When Atticus makes his summation to the jury, he literally bares himself to the jury's and the town's anger."
Who does the cooking at the Finch's house?
56cf477faab44d1400b88f14
Calpurnia
298
False
Who is Atticus Finch's sibling?
56cf477faab44d1400b88f15
Aunt Alexandra
474
False
Who does Scout Tease and humiliate at their house?
56cf477faab44d1400b88f16
Walter Cunningham
252
False
Which author did Lee aspire to be like?
56d19e43e7d4791d0090207b
Jane Austen
73
False
Both authors valued what over social standing?
56d19e43e7d4791d0090207c
individual worth
168
False
In a 1964 interview, Lee remarked that her aspiration was "to be ... the Jane Austen of South Alabama." Both Austen and Lee challenged the social status quo and valued individual worth over social standing. When Scout embarrasses her poorer classmate, Walter Cunningham, at the Finch home one day, Calpurnia, their black cook, chastises and punishes her for doing so. Atticus respects Calpurnia's judgment, and later in the book even stands up to his sister, the formidable Aunt Alexandra, when she strongly suggests they fire Calpurnia. One writer notes that Scout, "in Austenian fashion", satirizes women with whom she does not wish to identify. Literary critic Jean Blackall lists the priorities shared by the two authors: "affirmation of order in society, obedience, courtesy, and respect for the individual without regard for status".
Are the Ewell's considered rich or poor?
56cf48feaab44d1400b88f36
poor
117
False
What two factors did Lee demonstrate intensified prejudice?
56d1a128e7d4791d0090207f
gender and class
170
False
The children's non-judgmental attitude gave them a greater understanding of what?
56d1a128e7d4791d00902081
people's motives and behavior
1038
False
Scholars argue that Lee's approach to class and race was more complex "than ascribing racial prejudice primarily to 'poor white trash' ... Lee demonstrates how issues of gender and class intensify prejudice, silence the voices that might challenge the existing order, and greatly complicate many Americans' conception of the causes of racism and segregation." Lee's use of the middle-class narrative voice is a literary device that allows an intimacy with the reader, regardless of class or cultural background, and fosters a sense of nostalgia. Sharing Scout and Jem's perspective, the reader is allowed to engage in relationships with the conservative antebellum Mrs. Dubose; the lower-class Ewells, and the Cunninghams who are equally poor but behave in vastly different ways; the wealthy but ostracized Mr. Dolphus Raymond; and Calpurnia and other members of the black community. The children internalize Atticus' admonition not to judge someone until they have walked around in that person's skin, gaining a greater understanding of people's motives and behavior.
Mrs. Dubose suffers from an addiction to what?
56cf4943aab44d1400b88f42
morphine
473
False
Who is the moral center of the novel?
56d1a35fe7d4791d00902085
Atticus
144
False
The novel explores various forms of what trait?
56d1a35fe7d4791d00902086
courage
76
False
The novel has been noted for its poignant exploration of different forms of courage. Scout's impulsive inclination to fight students who insult Atticus reflects her attempt to stand up for him and defend him. Atticus is the moral center of the novel, however, and he teaches Jem one of the most significant lessons of courage. In a statement that foreshadows Atticus' motivation for defending Tom Robinson and describes Mrs. Dubose, who is determined to break herself of a morphine addiction, Atticus tells Jem that courage is "when you're licked before you begin but you begin anyway and you see it through no matter what".
Who has written the only biography of Harper Lee?
56cf4ad1aab44d1400b88f64
Charles Shields
0
False
Who wrote the only book length- biography of Harper Lee?
56d2021be7d4791d009025e2
Charles Shields
0
False
According to Shields, which of the books lessons are fundamental and universal?
56d2021be7d4791d009025e3
human dignity and respect for others
176
False
Who does Scout think could be lonelier than Boo Radley?
56d2021be7d4791d009025e4
Mayella Ewell
493
False
Charles Shields, who has written the only book-length biography of Harper Lee to date, offers the reason for the novel's enduring popularity and impact is that "its lessons of human dignity and respect for others remain fundamental and universal". Atticus' lesson to Scout that "you never really understand a person until you consider things from his point of view—until you climb around in his skin and walk around in it" exemplifies his compassion. She ponders the comment when listening to Mayella Ewell's testimony. When Mayella reacts with confusion to Atticus' question if she has any friends, Scout offers that she must be lonelier than Boo Radley. Having walked Boo home after he saves their lives, Scout stands on the Radley porch and considers the events of the previous three years from Boo's perspective. One writer remarks, "... [w]hile the novel concerns tragedy and injustice, heartache and loss, it also carries with it a strong sense [of] courage, compassion, and an awareness of history to be better human beings."
Who are the main female role models for Scout during the story?
56cf4b12aab44d1400b88f68
Calpurnia and Miss Maudie
1103
False
Who are Scout's two primary female models?
56d20469e7d4791d009025fc
Calpurnia and Miss Maudie
1103
False
Who chastis Scout for the way she dresse and accuses her of ruining her family name?
56d20469e7d4791d009025fd
Mrs. Dubose
817
False
Tomboy Scout grows up tto become what?
56d20469e7d4791d009025fe
feminist
1203
False
Just as Lee explores Jem's development in coming to grips with a racist and unjust society, Scout realizes what being female means, and several female characters influence her development. Scout's primary identification with her father and older brother allows her to describe the variety and depth of female characters in the novel both as one of them and as an outsider. Scout's primary female models are Calpurnia and her neighbor Miss Maudie, both of whom are strong willed, independent, and protective. Mayella Ewell also has an influence; Scout watches her destroy an innocent man in order to hide her desire for him. The female characters who comment the most on Scout's lack of willingness to adhere to a more feminine role are also those who promote the most racist and classist points of view. For example, Mrs. Dubose chastises Scout for not wearing a dress and camisole, and indicates she is ruining the family name by not doing so, in addition to insulting Atticus' intentions to defend Tom Robinson. By balancing the masculine influences of Atticus and Jem with the feminine influences of Calpurnia and Miss Maudie, one scholar writes, "Lee gradually demonstrates that Scout is becoming a feminist in the South, for with the use of first-person narration, she indicates that Scout/ Jean Louise still maintains the ambivalence about being a Southern lady she possessed as a child."
In the book, which character was expected of molesting their child?
56cf4b72aab44d1400b88f75
Bob Ewell
273
False
Who was the only non-abusive father mentioned?
56d2581659d6e41400145edc
Atticus
229
False
Absent mothers and abusive fathers are another theme in the novel. Scout and Jem's mother died before Scout could remember her, Mayella's mother is dead, and Mrs. Radley is silent about Boo's confinement to the house. Apart from Atticus, the fathers described are abusers. Bob Ewell, it is hinted, molested his daughter, and Mr. Radley imprisons his son in his house until Boo is remembered only as a phantom. Bob Ewell and Mr. Radley represent a form of masculinity that Atticus does not, and the novel suggests that such men as well as the traditionally feminine hypocrites at the Missionary Society can lead society astray. Atticus stands apart as a unique model of masculinity; as one scholar explains: "It is the job of real men who embody the traditional masculine qualities of heroic individualism, bravery, and an unshrinking knowledge of and dedication to social justice and morality, to set the society straight."
Which character is chastised in the book for marrying a black woman?
56cf4ba7aab44d1400b88f78
Dolphus Raymond
755
False
Who does Charles Lamb speculate were once children?
56d25ca259d6e41400145ef0
Lawyers
399
False
What is another name for Scout's pink cotton penitentiary?
56d25ca259d6e41400145ef2
frilly clothes
1185
False
Allusions to legal issues in To Kill a Mockingbird, particularly in scenes outside of the courtroom, has drawn the attention from legal scholars. Claudia Durst Johnson writes that "a greater volume of critical readings has been amassed by two legal scholars in law journals than by all the literary scholars in literary journals". The opening quote by the 19th-century essayist Charles Lamb reads: "Lawyers, I suppose, were children once." Johnson notes that even in Scout and Jem's childhood world, compromises and treaties are struck with each other by spitting on one's palm and laws are discussed by Atticus and his children: is it right that Bob Ewell hunts and traps out of season? Many social codes are broken by people in symbolic courtrooms: Mr. Dolphus Raymond has been exiled by society for taking a black woman as his common-law wife and having interracial children; Mayella Ewell is beaten by her father in punishment for kissing Tom Robinson; by being turned into a non-person, Boo Radley receives a punishment far greater than any court could have given him. Scout repeatedly breaks codes and laws and reacts to her punishment for them. For example, she refuses to wear frilly clothes, saying that Aunt Alexandra's "fanatical" attempts to place her in them made her feel "a pink cotton penitentiary closing in on [her]". Johnson states, "[t]he novel is a study of how Jem and Scout begin to perceive the complexity of social codes and how the configuration of relationships dictated by or set off by those codes fails or nurtures the inhabitants of (their) small worlds."
Which animal serves as a symbol throughout the book?
56cf4ccdaab44d1400b88f7a
Songbirds
0
False
Harper Lee's mother's maiden name was what?
56cf4ccdaab44d1400b88f7b
Finch
96
False
Which bird does Atticus Finch say is a "sin to kill?"
56cf4ccdaab44d1400b88f7c
mockingbird
154
False
According to Atticus, which bird is it a sin to shoot?
56d25eb659d6e41400145f06
mockingbird
154
False
According to Miss Maudie, which bird is never harmful?
56d25eb659d6e41400145f07
mockingbird
154
False
Symbolically, killing a mockingbird is killing what according to Edwin Bruell?
56d25eb659d6e41400145f08
that which is innocent and harmless
835
False
Songbirds and their associated symbolism appear throughout the novel. The family's last name of Finch also shares Lee's mother's maiden name. The titular mockingbird is a key motif of this theme, which first appears when Atticus, having given his children air-rifles for Christmas, allows their Uncle Jack to teach them to shoot. Atticus warns them that, although they can "shoot all the bluejays they want", they must remember that "it's a sin to kill a mockingbird". Confused, Scout approaches her neighbor Miss Maudie, who explains that mockingbirds never harm other living creatures. She points out that mockingbirds simply provide pleasure with their songs, saying, "They don't do one thing but sing their hearts out for us." Writer Edwin Bruell summarized the symbolism when he wrote in 1964, "'To kill a mockingbird' is to kill that which is innocent and harmless—like Tom Robinson." Scholars have noted that Lee often returns to the mockingbird theme when trying to make a moral point.
Reader's Digest included To Kill a Mockingbird in what program of theirs?
56cf4debaab44d1400b88f8c
Book of the Month Club
306
False
The book's availablity increased through inclusion in what book service?
56d2675b59d6e41400145f76
Book of the Month Club
306
False
Despite her editors' warnings that the book might not sell well, it quickly became a sensation, bringing acclaim to Lee in literary circles, in her hometown of Monroeville, and throughout Alabama. The book went through numerous subsequent printings and became widely available through its inclusion in the Book of the Month Club and editions released by Reader's Digest Condensed Books.
After one year when To Kill a Mockingbird first came out, how many languages has it been printed in?
56cf52eeaab44d1400b88fd2
ten
78
False
Up til today, how many languages has To Kill a Mockingbird been printed in?
56cf52eeaab44d1400b88fd3
40
188
False
How many copies has To Kill a Mockingbird sold since it first came out?
56cf52eeaab44d1400b88fd4
30 million
135
False
How many copies of the book have been sold?
56d3965159d6e414001467c9
more than 30 million
125
False
How many languages has the book been translated into?
56d3965159d6e414001467ca
more than 40
178
False
One year after its publication To Kill a Mockingbird had been translated into ten languages. In the years since, it has sold more than 30 million copies and been translated into more than 40 languages. The novel has never been out of print in hardcover or paperback, and has become part of the standard literature curriculum. A 2008 survey of secondary books read by students between grades 9–12 in the U.S. indicates the novel is the most widely read book in these grades. A 1991 survey by the Book of the Month Club and the Library of Congress Center for the Book found that To Kill a Mockingbird was rated behind only the Bible in books that are "most often cited as making a difference".[note 1] It is considered by some to be the Great American Novel.
Public figure's impressions of the novel were formed into a book called what?
56cf5398aab44d1400b88fe2
Scout, Atticus, and Boo
341
False
Who was Harper Lee's sister?
56cf5398aab44d1400b88fe3
Alice Lee
232
False
What book compiled Adults'  impressions and their impressions as children about the novel?
56d3996b59d6e414001467eb
Scout, Atticus, and Boo
341
False
Many writers compare their perceptions of To Kill a Mockingbird as adults with when they first read it as children. Mary McDonagh Murphy interviewed celebrities including Oprah Winfrey, Rosanne Cash, Tom Brokaw, and Harper's sister Alice Lee, who read the novel and compiled their impressions of it as children and adults into a book titled Scout, Atticus, and Boo.
Atticus Finch's integrity has become a model for which job?
56cf542daab44d1400b88fec
lawyer
373
False
Atticus Finch is a model of what for legal professionals?
56d39a7759d6e414001467fb
integrity
94
False
One of the most significant impacts To Kill a Mockingbird has had is Atticus Finch's model of integrity for the legal profession. As scholar Alice Petry explains, "Atticus has become something of a folk hero in legal circles and is treated almost as if he were an actual person." Morris Dees of the Southern Poverty Law Center cites Atticus Finch as the reason he became a lawyer, and Richard Matsch, the federal judge who presided over the Timothy McVeigh trial, counts Atticus as a major judicial influence. One law professor at the University of Notre Dame stated that the most influential textbook he taught from was To Kill a Mockingbird, and an article in the Michigan Law Review claims, "No real-life lawyer has done more for the self-image or public perception of the legal profession," before questioning whether, "Atticus Finch is a paragon of honor or an especially slick hired gun".
What year was a statue of Atticus build in Alabama?
56cf5472aab44d1400b88ff8
1997
474
False
Harper Lee was given a membership to what in 2008?
56cf5472aab44d1400b88ff9
Alabama State Bar
484
False
What did the Alabama State Bar bestow on Lee in 2008?
56d39b8159d6e41400146804
honorary special membership
675
False
In 1992, an Alabama editorial called for the death of Atticus, saying that as liberal as Atticus was, he still worked within a system of institutionalized racism and sexism and should not be revered. The editorial sparked a flurry of responses from attorneys who entered the profession because of him and esteemed him as a hero. Critics of Atticus maintain he is morally ambiguous and does not use his legal skills to challenge the racist status quo in Maycomb. However, in 1997, the Alabama State Bar erected a monument to Atticus in Monroeville, marking his existence as the "first commemorative milestone in the state's judicial history". In 2008, Lee herself received an honorary special membership to the Alabama State Bar for creating Atticus who "has become the personification of the exemplary lawyer in serving the legal needs of the poor".
To Kill a Mockingbird was first studied in American schools in what year?
56cf54baaab44d1400b89010
1963
126
False
The American Library Associated ranked To Kill a Mockingbird where on its most frequently challenged books of 2000-2009?
56cf54baaab44d1400b89011
21
380
False
In what year did the book become a subject of classroom study?
56d39d2359d6e41400146821
1963
126
False
According to The American Library Association, what rank did the book have among the most frequently challenged books from 2000 to 2009?
56d39d2359d6e41400146822
21
380
False
To Kill a Mockingbird has been a source of significant controversy since its being the subject of classroom study as early as 1963. The book's racial slurs, profanity, and frank discussion of rape have led people to challenge its appropriateness in libraries and classrooms across the United States. The American Library Association reported that To Kill a Mockingbird was number 21 of the 100 most frequently challenged books of 2000–2009.
When was the first major controversy that surfaced from the book?
56cf550faab44d1400b8901e
1966
85
False
What event in the novel was heavily criticized for being a plot device?
56cf550faab44d1400b8901f
rape
126
False
In letters to local newspapers, what subplot in the book received the most complaints?
56d3a1c459d6e4140014683d
Mayella Ewell's attraction to Tom Robinson
322
False
According to the National Education Association, what was the only book to receive more complaints in 1968?
56d3a1c459d6e4140014683e
Little Black Sambo
827
False
One of the first incidents of the book being challenged was in Hanover, Virginia, in 1966: a parent protested that the use of rape as a plot device was immoral. Johnson cites examples of letters to local newspapers, which ranged from amusement to fury; those letters expressing the most outrage, however, complained about Mayella Ewell's attraction to Tom Robinson over the depictions of rape. Upon learning the school administrators were holding hearings to decide the book's appropriateness for the classroom, Harper Lee sent $10 to The Richmond News Leader suggesting it to be used toward the enrollment of "the Hanover County School Board in any first grade of its choice". The National Education Association in 1968 placed the novel second on a list of books receiving the most complaints from private organizations—after Little Black Sambo.
What movement in the '60s did the novel help spark?
56cf55e2aab44d1400b89038
civil rights movement
53
False
Which book was credited with sparking the US Civil War?
56cf55e2aab44d1400b89039
Uncle Tom's Cabin
909
False
What other book did Mark Childress compare it to?
56d3df022ccc5a1400d82f02
Uncle Tom's Cabin
909
False
The novel is cited as a factor in the success of the civil rights movement in the 1960s, however, in that it "arrived at the right moment to help the South and the nation grapple with the racial tensions (of) the accelerating civil rights movement". Its publication is so closely associated with the Civil Rights Movement that many studies of the book and biographies of Harper Lee include descriptions of important moments in the movement, despite the fact that she had no direct involvement in any of them. Civil Rights leader Andrew Young comments that part of the book's effectiveness is that it "inspires hope in the midst of chaos and confusion" and by using racial epithets portrays the reality of the times in which it was set. Young views the novel as "an act of humanity" in showing the possibility of people rising above their prejudices. Alabama author Mark Childress compares it to the impact of Uncle Tom's Cabin, a book that is popularly implicated in starting the U.S. Civil War. Childress states the novel "gives white Southerners a way to understand the racism that they've been brought up with and to find another way. And most white people in the South were good people. Most white people in the South were not throwing bombs and causing havoc ... I think the book really helped them come to understand what was wrong with the system in the way that any number of treatises could never do, because it was popular art, because it was told from a child's point of view."
Who was Truman Capote's father?
56cf5655aab44d1400b8903c
Archulus Persons
442
False
Who was speculated to have wrote the book instead of Harper Lee?
56cf5655aab44d1400b8903d
Truman Capote
31
False
What was the name of Harper Lee's sister?
56cf5655aab44d1400b8903e
Alice
851
False
Who was rumored to have written the book instead of Lee?
56d3e2ac2ccc5a1400d82f13
Truman Capote
31
False
Lee's notes to whom help disclaim this rumor?
56d3e2ac2ccc5a1400d82f14
her editor
760
False
Lee's childhood friend, author Truman Capote, wrote on the dust jacket of the first edition, "Someone rare has written this very fine first novel: a writer with the liveliest sense of life, and the warmest, most authentic sense of humor. A touching book; and so funny, so likeable." This comment has been construed to suggest that Capote wrote the book or edited it heavily. In 2003, a Tuscaloosa newspaper quoted Capote's biological father, Archulus Persons, as claiming that Capote had written "almost all" of the book. In 2006, a Capote letter was donated to Monroeville's literary heritage museum; in a letter to a neighbor in Monroeville in 1959, Capote mentioned that Lee was writing a book that was to be published soon. Extensive notes between Lee and her editor at Lippincott also refute the rumor of Capote's authorship. Lee's older sister, Alice, responded to the rumor, saying: "That's the biggest lie ever told."
Which year did To Kill a Mockingbird win the Pulitzer Prize?
56cf572daab44d1400b89071
1961
208
False
How many weeks did To Kill a Mockingbird remain on the bestsellers list when it won the Pulitzer Prize?
56cf572daab44d1400b89072
41
252
False
Paperback of the Year award from Bestsellers magazine was awarded when?
56cf572daab44d1400b89073
1962
502
False
When did Harper Lee begin refusing interviews and questions about the book?
56cf572daab44d1400b89074
1964
520
False
What major award did the book receive in 1961?
56d3e4762ccc5a1400d82f21
the Pulitzer Prize
301
False
In what year did Lee stop giving interviews about the book?
56d3e4762ccc5a1400d82f22
1964
520
False
During the years immediately following the novel's publication, Harper Lee enjoyed the attention its popularity garnered her, granting interviews, visiting schools, and attending events honoring the book. In 1961, when To Kill a Mockingbird was in its 41st week on the bestseller list, it was awarded the Pulitzer Prize, stunning Lee. It also won the Brotherhood Award of the National Conference of Christians and Jews in the same year, and the Paperback of the Year award from Bestsellers magazine in 1962. Starting in 1964, Lee began to turn down interviews, complaining that the questions were monotonous, and grew concerned that attention she received bordered on the kind of publicity celebrities sought. Since the, she declined talking with reporters about the book. She also steadfastly refused to provide an introduction, writing in 1995: "Introductions inhibit pleasure, they kill the joy of anticipation, they frustrate curiosity. The only good thing about Introductions is that in some cases they delay the dose to come. Mockingbird still says what it has to say; it has managed to survive the years without preamble."
Which year was Lee awarded an induction into the Alabama Academy of Honor?
56cf586faab44d1400b890a5
2001
3
False
In 2004, the novel as been picked by how many communities for citywide reading programs more than any other book?
56cf586faab44d1400b890a6
25
386
False
In 2001, what city's mayor picked To Kill a Mockingbird as their favorite book?
56cf586faab44d1400b890a7
Chicago
79
False
Which city's mayor initiated a reading program with the book?
56d3e5de2ccc5a1400d82f2f
Chicago
79
False
By 2004, how many communities were using the book as part of their reading programs?
56d3e5de2ccc5a1400d82f30
25
386
False
In 2001, Lee was inducted into the Alabama Academy of Honor. In the same year, Chicago mayor Richard M. Daley initiated a reading program throughout the city's libraries, and chose his favorite book, To Kill a Mockingbird, as the first title of the One City, One Book program. Lee declared that "there is no greater honor the novel could receive". By 2004, the novel had been chosen by 25 communities for variations of the citywide reading program, more than any other novel. David Kipen of the National Endowment of the Arts, who supervised The Big Read, states "people just seem to connect with it. It dredges up things in their own lives, their interactions across racial lines, legal encounters, and childhood. It's just this skeleton key to so many different parts of people's lives, and they cherish it."
Which school granted Lee an honory doctorate in 2006?
56cf593eaab44d1400b890bf
University of Notre Dame
56
False
Which president of the US awarded Lee the Presidential Medal of Freedom?
56cf593eaab44d1400b890c0
George W. Bush
335
False
When did Lee receive a  Presidential Medal of Freedom?
56cf593eaab44d1400b890c1
2007
317
False
What university awarded Lee an honorary doctorate in 2006?
56d3e7442ccc5a1400d82f3d
Notre Dame
70
False
In 2007, which president awarded Lee the Presidential Medal of Freedom?
56d3e7442ccc5a1400d82f3e
George W. Bush
335
False
In 2006, Lee was awarded an honorary doctorate from the University of Notre Dame. During the ceremony, the students and audience gave Lee a standing ovation, and the entire graduating class held up copies of To Kill a Mockingbird to honor her.[note 5] Lee was awarded the Presidential Medal of Freedom on November 5, 2007 by President George W. Bush. In his remarks, Bush stated, "One reason To Kill a Mockingbird succeeded is the wise and kind heart of the author, which comes through on every page ... To Kill a Mockingbird has influenced the character of our country for the better. It's been a gift to the entire world. As a model of good writing and humane sensibility, this book will be read and studied forever."
A movie adaptation of the book was released in what year?
56cf59eaaab44d1400b890d1
1962
41
False
Who played Atticus Finch in the 1962 movie of the same title?
56cf59eaaab44d1400b890d2
Gregory Peck
81
False
Which actor received An Oscar for his role of Atticus Finch in the 1962 movie of the book?
56d3e8402ccc5a1400d82f43
Gregory Peck
81
False
The book was made into the well-received 1962 film with the same title, starring Gregory Peck as Atticus Finch. The film's producer, Alan J. Pakula, remembered Universal Pictures executives questioning him about a potential script: "They said, 'What story do you plan to tell for the film?' I said, 'Have you read the book?' They said, 'Yes.' I said, 'That's the story.'" The movie was a hit at the box office, quickly grossing more than $20 million from a $2-million budget. It won three Oscars: Best Actor for Gregory Peck, Best Art Direction-Set Decoration, Black-and-White, and Best Writing, Screenplay Based on Material from Another Medium for Horton Foote. It was nominated for five more Oscars including Best Actress in a Supporting Role for Mary Badham, the actress who played Scout.
What item did Lee give the actor Gregory Peck after portraying Atticus Finch?
56cf5a6aaab44d1400b890e3
father's pocketwatch
403
False
Which one of Gregory Peck's relatives was named after Harper Lee?
56cf5a6aaab44d1400b890e4
grandson
847
False
What personal effect did Lee give to Peck?
56d3e9702ccc5a1400d82f51
her father's pocketwatch
399
False
Which one of Peck's relatives was named Harper in honor of Lee?
56d3e9702ccc5a1400d82f52
grandson
847
False
Harper Lee was pleased with the movie, saying: "In that film the man and the part met... I've had many, many offers to turn it into musicals, into TV or stage plays, but I've always refused. That film was a work of art." Peck met Lee's father, the model for Atticus, before the filming. Lee's father died before the film's release, and Lee was so impressed with Peck's performance that she gave him her father's pocketwatch, which he had with him the evening he was awarded the Oscar for best actor. Years later, he was reluctant to tell Lee that the watch was stolen out of his luggage in London Heathrow Airport. When Peck eventually did tell Lee, he said she responded, "'Well, it's only a watch.' Harper—she feels deeply, but she's not a sentimental person about things." Lee and Peck shared a friendship long after the movie was made. Peck's grandson was named "Harper" in her honor.
When did Lee randomly show up at the Los Angeles  Public Library?
56cf5ab3aab44d1400b890e9
May 2005
3
False
What did Peck's widow call Lee?
56d3ead62ccc5a1400d82f55
a national treasure
158
False
In May 2005, Lee made an uncharacteristic appearance at the Los Angeles Public Library at the request of Peck's widow Veronique, who said of Lee: "She's like a national treasure. She's someone who has made a difference...with this book. The book is still as strong as it ever was, and so is the film. All the kids in the United States read this book and see the film in the seventh and eighth grades and write papers and essays. My husband used to get thousands and thousands of letters from teachers who would send them to him."
Who turned the novel into a play?
56cf5b0eaab44d1400b890f7
Christopher Sergel
44
False
When was the play for To Kill a Mockingbird first performed?
56cf5b0eaab44d1400b890f8
1990
78
False
What town labeled itself "The Literary Capital of Alabama"?
56d3ec6d2ccc5a1400d82f59
Monroeville
86
False
Who makes up the cast of the annual play based on the book performed in Monroeville?
56d3ec6d2ccc5a1400d82f5a
townspeople
221
False
During the courtroom scene, what happens to the audience?
56d3ec6d2ccc5a1400d82f5b
racially segregated
433
False
The book has also been adapted as a play by Christopher Sergel. It debuted in 1990 in Monroeville, a town that labels itself "The Literary Capital of Alabama". The play runs every May on the county courthouse grounds and townspeople make up the cast. White male audience members are chosen at the intermission to make up the jury. During the courtroom scene the production moves into the Monroe County Courthouse and the audience is racially segregated. Author Albert Murray said of the relationship of the town to the novel (and the annual performance): "It becomes part of the town ritual, like the religious underpinning of Mardi Gras. With the whole town crowded around the actual courthouse, it's part of a central, civic education—what Monroeville aspires to be."
What country did Sergel's play tour around in and perform in 2006?
56cf5b8eaab44d1400b89107
the UK
24
False
The play was the opening act for the starting of the 2013 season at which location?
56cf5b8eaab44d1400b89108
Regent's Park Open Air Theatre
240
False
Who played Atticus Finch in the UK theater productions of the film in 2006 and 2011?
56d3ee6e2ccc5a1400d82f5f
Duncan Preston
167
False
Sergel's play toured in the UK starting at West Yorkshire Playhouse in Leeds in 2006, and again in 2011 starting at the York Theatre Royal, both productions featuring Duncan Preston as Atticus Finch. The play also opened the 2013 season at Regent's Park Open Air Theatre in London where it played to full houses and starred Robert Sean Leonard as Atticus Finch, his first London appearance in 22 years. The production is returning to the venue to close the 2014 season, prior to a UK Tour.
When was Go Set a Watchman introduced to the public?
56cf5c2caab44d1400b8911b
July 14, 2015
101
False
Go Set a Watchman was finished in what year?
56cf5c2caab44d1400b8911c
1957
151
False
How many years after To Kill a Mockingbird is the setting of Go Set A Watchman?
56cf5c2caab44d1400b8911d
20
110
False
Who was Harper Lee's lawyer?
56cf5c2caab44d1400b8911e
Tonja Carter
554
False
What is the earlier draft of the book titled?
56d3f37f2ccc5a1400d82f83
Go Set a Watchman
50
False
What year was Watchman completed?
56d3f37f2ccc5a1400d82f84
1957
151
False
How many years after Mockingbird was Watchman set?
56d3f37f2ccc5a1400d82f85
20
110
False
An earlier draft of To Kill a Mockingbird, titled Go Set a Watchman, was controversially released on July 14, 2015. This draft, which was completed in 1957, is set 20 years after the time period depicted in To Kill a Mockingbird but is not a continuation of the narrative. This earlier version of the story follows an adult Scout Finch who travels from New York to visit her father, Atticus Finch, in Maycomb, Alabama, where she is confronted by the intolerance in her community. The Watchman manuscript was believed to have been lost until Lee's lawyer Tonja Carter discovered it; although this claim has been widely disputed. Watchman contains early versions of many of the characters from To Kill a Mockingbird. According to Lee's agent Andrew Nurnberg, Mockingbird was originally intended to be the first book of a trilogy: "They discussed publishing Mockingbird first, Watchman last, and a shorter connecting novel between the two." This assertion has been discredited however by the rare books expert James S. Jaffe, who reviewed the pages at the request of Lee's attorney and found them to be only another draft of "To Kill a Mockingbird". The statement was also contrary to Jonathan Mahler's description of how "Watchman" was seen as just the first draft of "Mockingbird". Instances where many passages overlap between the two books, in some case word for word, also refutes this assertion.
What two serious moral issues are dealt with in the novel?
56d1085d17492d1400aab7a8
rape and racial inequality
91
False
Who is the protagonist of the novel?
56d1085d17492d1400aab7a9
Atticus Finch
142
False
The novel is renowned for its warmth and humor, despite dealing with the serious issues of rape and racial inequality. The narrator's father, Atticus Finch, has served as a moral hero for many readers and as a model of integrity for lawyers. One critic explains the novel's impact by writing, "In the twentieth century, To Kill a Mockingbird is probably the most widely read book dealing with race in America, and its protagonist, Atticus Finch, the most enduring fictional image of racial heroism."
What is Lee's strongest style of writing?
56d133a017492d1400aabc1c
narration
82
False
What narrative technique does Lee use to combine the adult's perspective with the child's observations??
56d133a017492d1400aabc1d
flashback
593
False
The strongest element of style noted by critics and reviewers is Lee's talent for narration, which in an early review in Time was called "tactile brilliance". Writing a decade later, another scholar noted, "Harper Lee has a remarkable gift of story-telling. Her art is visual, and with cinematographic fluidity and subtlety we see a scene melting into another scene without jolts of transition." Lee combines the narrator's voice of a child observing her surroundings with a grown woman's reflecting on her childhood, using the ambiguity of this voice combined with the narrative technique of flashback to play intricately with perspectives. This narrative method allows Lee to tell a "delightfully deceptive" story that mixes the simplicity of childhood observation with adult situations complicated by hidden motivations and unquestioned tradition. However, at times the blending causes reviewers to question Scout's preternatural vocabulary and depth of understanding. Both Harding LeMay and the novelist and literary critic Granville Hicks expressed doubt that children as sheltered as Scout and Jem could understand the complexities and horrors involved in the trial for Tom Robinson's life.
According to Lee, her book simply expressed a Christian code of honor and conduct inherit to whom?
56d1900ee7d4791d00902065
all Southerners
449
False
Harper Lee has remained famously detached from interpreting the novel since the mid-1960s. However, she gave some insight into her themes when, in a rare letter to the editor, she wrote in response to the passionate reaction her book caused: "Surely it is plain to the simplest intelligence that To Kill a Mockingbird spells out in words of seldom more than two syllables a code of honor and conduct, Christian in its ethic, that is the heritage of all Southerners."
Besides the children's fascination with Boo, the first part of the book was concerned about their feelings for what?
56d196b2e7d4791d00902067
the neighborhood
263
False
Lee's detailed explanations of the characters' behaviors caused one writer to catagorize the book as what?
56d196b2e7d4791d00902068
Southern romantic regionalism
489
False
Scout defined people doing the best they could with what they had as who?
56d196b2e7d4791d00902069
fine folks
1110
False
What drives the plot of the book more than the characters?
56d196b2e7d4791d0090206a
The South itself
1197
False
When the book was released, reviewers noted that it was divided into two parts, and opinion was mixed about Lee's ability to connect them. The first part of the novel concerns the children's fascination with Boo Radley and their feelings of safety and comfort in the neighborhood. Reviewers were generally charmed by Scout and Jem's observations of their quirky neighbors. One writer was so impressed by Lee's detailed explanations of the people of Maycomb that he categorized the book as Southern romantic regionalism. This sentimentalism can be seen in Lee's representation of the Southern caste system to explain almost every character's behavior in the novel. Scout's Aunt Alexandra attributes Maycomb's inhabitants' faults and advantages to genealogy (families that have gambling streaks and drinking streaks), and the narrator sets the action and characters amid a finely detailed background of the Finch family history and the history of Maycomb. This regionalist theme is further reflected in Mayella Ewell's apparent powerlessness to admit her advances toward Tom Robinson, and Scout's definition of "fine folks" being people with good sense who do the best they can with what they have. The South itself, with its traditions and taboos, seems to drive the plot more than the characters.
Who is the main example of an innocent destroyed in the novel?
56d261f359d6e41400145f36
Tom Robinson
0
False
What  does Scout see symbollically as a mockingbird?
56d261f359d6e41400145f37
Boo Radley
182
False
According to Atticus, most people are how when you truly view them?
56d261f359d6e41400145f38
real nice
747
False
Tom Robinson is the chief example among several innocents destroyed carelessly or deliberately throughout the novel. However, scholar Christopher Metress connects the mockingbird to Boo Radley: "Instead of wanting to exploit Boo for her own fun (as she does in the beginning of the novel by putting on gothic plays about his history), Scout comes to see him as a 'mockingbird'—that is, as someone with an inner goodness that must be cherished." The last pages of the book illustrate this as Scout relates the moral of a story Atticus has been reading to her, and in allusions to both Boo Radley and Tom Robinson states about a character who was misunderstood, "when they finally saw him, why he hadn't done any of those things ... Atticus, he was real nice," to which he responds, "Most people are, Scout, when you finally see them."
Reviewer R. A. Dave classified the novel how?
56d2639159d6e41400145f48
classical tragedy
183
False
The novel exposes the loss of innocence so frequently that reviewer R. A. Dave claims that because every character has to face, or even suffer defeat, the book takes on elements of a classical tragedy. In exploring how each character deals with his or her own personal defeat, Lee builds a framework to judge whether the characters are heroes or fools. She guides the reader in such judgments, alternating between unabashed adoration and biting irony. Scout's experience with the Missionary Society is an ironic juxtaposition of women who mock her, gossip, and "reflect a smug, colonialist attitude toward other races" while giving the "appearance of gentility, piety, and morality". Conversely, when Atticus loses Tom's case, he is last to leave the courtroom, except for his children and the black spectators in the colored balcony, who rise silently as he walks underneath them, to honor his efforts.
What newspaper wrote that the novel has strong contemporary national significance?
56d3949f59d6e414001467b8
The Chicago Sunday Tribune
589
False
Initial reactions to the novel were varied. The New Yorker declared it "skilled, unpretentious, and totally ingenious", and The Atlantic Monthly's reviewer rated it as "pleasant, undemanding reading", but found the narrative voice—"a six-year-old girl with the prose style of a well-educated adult"—to be implausible. Time magazine's 1960 review of the book states that it "teaches the reader an astonishing number of useful truths about little girls and about Southern life" and calls Scout Finch "the most appealing child since Carson McCullers' Frankie got left behind at the wedding". The Chicago Sunday Tribune noted the even-handed approach to the narration of the novel's events, writing: "This is in no way a sociological novel. It underlines no cause ... To Kill a Mockingbird is a novel of strong contemporary national significance."
Which reviewer called the book melodramatic and contrived?
56d3958659d6e414001467c5
Granville Hicks
125
False
Which Southern writer deemed it a child's book?
56d3958659d6e414001467c6
Flannery O'Connor
238
False
Not all reviewers were enthusiastic. Some lamented the use of poor white Southerners, and one-dimensional black victims, and Granville Hicks labeled the book "melodramatic and contrived". When the book was first released, Southern writer Flannery O'Connor commented, "I think for a child's book it does all right. It's interesting that all the folks that are buying it don't know they're reading a child's book. Somebody ought to say what it is." Carson McCullers apparently agreed with the Time magazine review, writing to a cousin: "Well, honey, one thing we know is that she's been poaching on my literary preserves."
Chimamanda Ngozi Adichie vompared Lee to whom?
56d3977059d6e414001467d5
William Faulkner
734
False
Rosemary  Goring connected Lee to whom?
56d3977059d6e414001467d6
Jane Austen
891
False
The 50th anniversary of the novel's release was met with celebrations and reflections on its impact. Eric Zorn of the Chicago Tribune praises Lee's "rich use of language" but writes that the central lesson is that "courage isn't always flashy, isn't always enough, but is always in style". Jane Sullivan in the Sydney Morning Herald agrees, stating that the book "still rouses fresh and horrified indignation" as it examines morality, a topic that has recently become unfashionable. Chimamanda Ngozi Adichie writing in The Guardian states that Lee, rare among American novelists, writes with "a fiercely progressive ink, in which there is nothing inevitable about racism and its very foundation is open to question", comparing her to William Faulkner, who wrote about racism as an inevitability. Literary critic Rosemary Goring in Scotland's The Herald notes the connections between Lee and Jane Austen, stating the book's central theme, that "one’s moral convictions are worth fighting for, even at the risk of being reviled" is eloquently discussed.
Who criticized Lee in The Wall Street Journal?
56d3988759d6e414001467e1
Allen Barra
17
False
Who wrote that the book forces readers to question issues without resolving them?
56d3988759d6e414001467e2
Akin Ajayi
957
False
Native Alabamian Allen Barra sharply criticized Lee and the novel in The Wall Street Journal calling Atticus a "repository of cracker-barrel epigrams" and the novel represents a "sugar-coated myth" of Alabama history. Barra writes, "It's time to stop pretending that To Kill a Mockingbird is some kind of timeless classic that ranks with the great works of American literature. Its bloodless liberal humanism is sadly dated". Thomas Mallon in The New Yorker criticizes Atticus' stiff and self-righteous demeanor, and calls Scout "a kind of highly constructed doll" whose speech and actions are improbable. Although acknowledging that the novel works, Mallon blasts Lee's "wildly unstable" narrative voice for developing a story about a content neighborhood until it begins to impart morals in the courtroom drama, following with his observation that "the book has begun to cherish its own goodness" by the time the case is over.[note 2] Defending the book, Akin Ajayi writes that justice "is often complicated, but must always be founded upon the notion of equality and fairness for all." Ajayi states that the book forces readers to question issues about race, class, and society, but that it was not written to resolve them.
Which character has some critics deemed a variation of a contented slave?
56d3d0c42ccc5a1400d82eac
Calpurnia
197
False
According to one consultant, which group found the book demoralizing?
56d3d0c42ccc5a1400d82ead
black students
930
False
Michael Lund criticized the novel for demonizing whom?
56d3d0c42ccc5a1400d82eae
poor rural "white trash"
1090
False
Furthermore, despite the novel's thematic focus on racial injustice, its black characters are not fully examined. In its use of racial epithets, stereotyped depictions of superstitious blacks, and Calpurnia, who to some critics is an updated version of the "contented slave" motif and to others simply unexplored, the book is viewed as marginalizing black characters. One writer asserts that the use of Scout's narration serves as a convenient mechanism for readers to be innocent and detached from the racial conflict. Scout's voice "functions as the not-me which allows the rest of us—black and white, male and female—to find our relative position in society". A teaching guide for the novel published by The English Journal cautions, "what seems wonderful or powerful to one group of students may seem degrading to another". A Canadian language arts consultant found that the novel resonated well with white students, but that black students found it "demoralizing". Another criticism, articulated by Michael Lind, is that the novel indulges in classist stereotyping and demonization of poor rural "white trash".
According to Diane McWhorter, every child in the South had to face what?
56d3e0852ccc5a1400d82f0f
the harsh reality of inequality
271
False
McWhorter wrote that the existance of the book was what?
56d3e0852ccc5a1400d82f10
an act of protest
579
False
Diane McWhorter, Pulitzer Prize-winning historian of the Birmingham civil rights campaign, asserts that To Kill a Mockingbird condemns racism instead of racists, and states that every child in the South has moments of racial cognitive dissonance when they are faced with the harsh reality of inequality. This feeling causes them to question the beliefs with which they have been raised, which for many children is what the novel does. McWhorter writes of Lee, "for a white person from the South to write a book like this in the late 1950s is really unusual—by its very existence an act of protest."[note 4] Author James McBride calls Lee brilliant but stops short of calling her brave: "I think by calling Harper Lee brave you kind of absolve yourself of your own racism ... She certainly set the standards in terms of how these issues need to be discussed, but in many ways I feel ... the moral bar's been lowered. And that's really distressing. We need a thousand Atticus Finches." McBride, however, defends the book's sentimentality, and the way Lee approaches the story with "honesty and integrity".
How do the citizens of Monroeville quote lines of the book?
56d3f1872ccc5a1400d82f75
like Scripture
115
False
What do the Monroeville townspeople call tourists to their town?
56d3f1872ccc5a1400d82f77
Mockingbird groupies
779
False
According to a National Geographic article, the novel is so revered in Monroeville that people quote lines from it like Scripture; yet Harper Lee herself refused to attend any performances, because "she abhors anything that trades on the book's fame". To underscore this sentiment, Lee demanded that a book of recipes named Calpurnia's Cookbook not be published and sold out of the Monroe County Heritage Museum. David Lister in The Independent states that Lee's refusal to speak to reporters made them desire to interview her all the more, and her silence "makes Bob Dylan look like a media tart". Despite her discouragement, a rising number of tourists made to Monroeville a destination, hoping to see Lee's inspiration for the book, or Lee herself. Local residents call them "Mockingbird groupies", and although Lee was not reclusive, she refused publicity and interviews with an emphatic "Hell, no!"
Solar_energy
Where does solar energy come from?
56ce55feaab44d1400b886ce
the Sun
44
False
What kind of energy consists of the light and heat provided by the Sun?
56ce55feaab44d1400b886cf
Solar energy
0
False
What technologies are used to harness solar energy from the sun?
56ce9034aab44d1400b8888f
solar heating, photovoltaics, solar thermal energy, solar architecture and artificial photosynthesis
114
False
What is solar energy?
56ce9034aab44d1400b88890
radiant light and heat from the Sun
16
False
Solar energy is radiant light and heat from the Sun harnessed using a range of ever-evolving technologies such as solar heating, photovoltaics, solar thermal energy, solar architecture and artificial photosynthesis.
How many terawatts of solar radiation does the Earth receive?
56ce59c8aab44d1400b886dc
174,000
19
False
What percentage of solar radiation is reflected back by the atmosphere?
56ce59c8aab44d1400b886dd
30%
122
False
The areas that people live in typically receive what range of kWh/m2 per day?
56ce59c8aab44d1400b886de
3.5 to 7.0
476
False
How many terrawatts of radiation does the earth receive?
56cfb6bb234ae51400d9becf
174,000
19
False
How much of the solar radiation is reflected back into space?
56cfb6bb234ae51400d9bed0
Approximately 30%
108
False
What are the insolation levels of most populated areas?
56cfb6bb234ae51400d9bed1
150 to 300 watts per square meter or 3.5 to 7.0 kWh/m2 per day
439
False
Where is the solar radiation not reflected back to space absorbed?
56cfb6bb234ae51400d9bed2
clouds, oceans and land masses
183
False
The Earth receives 174,000 terawatts (TW) of incoming solar radiation (insolation) at the upper atmosphere. Approximately 30% is reflected back to space while the rest is absorbed by clouds, oceans and land masses. The spectrum of solar light at the Earth's surface is mostly spread across the visible and near-infrared ranges with a small part in the near-ultraviolet. Most people around the world live in areas with insolation levels of 150 to 300 watts per square meter or 3.5 to 7.0 kWh/m2 per day.
The Earth's oceans cover what percentage of the globe?
56ce5a8faab44d1400b886e2
71
84
False
What is the average temperature of the Earth's surface in Celsius?
56ce5a8faab44d1400b886e3
14
623
False
What is the process by which green plants convert solar energy to stored energy?
56ce5a8faab44d1400b886e4
photosynthesis
633
False
How much of the earth is covered by oceans?
56cfb8ea234ae51400d9bef5
about 71%
78
False
What is the cause of atmospheric circulation?
56cfb8ea234ae51400d9bef6
Warm air containing evaporated water from the oceans rises
119
False
How does the water vapor that rises in warm air turn into clouds?
56cfb8ea234ae51400d9bef7
When the air reaches a high altitude, where the temperature is low, water vapor condenses into clouds
226
False
What creates wind, cyclones and anti-cyclones?
56cfb8ea234ae51400d9bef8
The latent heat of water condensation amplifies convection
394
False
What is the process in which plants convert solar energy into stored energy called?
56cfb8ea234ae51400d9bef9
photosynthesis
633
False
Solar radiation is absorbed by the Earth's land surface, oceans – which cover about 71% of the globe – and atmosphere. Warm air containing evaporated water from the oceans rises, causing atmospheric circulation or convection. When the air reaches a high altitude, where the temperature is low, water vapor condenses into clouds, which rain onto the Earth's surface, completing the water cycle. The latent heat of water condensation amplifies convection, producing atmospheric phenomena such as wind, cyclones and anti-cyclones. Sunlight absorbed by the oceans and land masses keeps the surface at an average temperature of 14 °C. By photosynthesis green plants convert solar energy into chemically stored energy, which produces food, wood and the biomass from which fossil fuels are derived.
Each year the Earth absorbs how much solar energy in exajoules?
56ce5b66aab44d1400b886e8
3,850,000
95
False
In 2002, the Sun provided more energy in one hour than humans used in what span of time?
56ce5b66aab44d1400b886e9
one year
195
False
How much energy in exajoules does photosynthesis capture each year?
56ce5b66aab44d1400b886ea
3,000
243
False
Twice the amount of energy obtainable by all the non-renewable sources  on Earth can be provided by the Sun in what span of time?
56ce5b66aab44d1400b886eb
one year
195
False
What is the amount of solar energy absorbed by the earth?
56cfb9bf234ae51400d9bf07
approximately 3,850,000 exajoules (EJ) per year
81
False
How much solar energy is captured by photosynthesis?
56cfb9bf234ae51400d9bf08
approximately 3,000 EJ per year
229
False
The amount of solar energy per year is twice as much as the energy that will ever be produced from what resources?
56cfb9bf234ae51400d9bf09
coal, oil, natural gas, and mined uranium combined
465
False
The total solar energy absorbed by Earth's atmosphere, oceans and land masses is approximately 3,850,000 exajoules (EJ) per year. In 2002, this was more energy in one hour than the world used in one year. Photosynthesis captures approximately 3,000 EJ per year in biomass. The amount of solar energy reaching the surface of the planet is so vast that in one year it is about twice as much as will ever be obtained from all of the Earth's non-renewable resources of coal, oil, natural gas, and mined uranium combined,
Where do the majority of renewable energies derive their energy from?
56ce5ce6aab44d1400b886f5
the Sun
436
False
How are solar technologies defined?
56cfc773234ae51400d9bf53
passive or active
55
False
What is one way that characterizes solar technologies as passive or active?
56cfc773234ae51400d9bf54
depending on the way they capture, convert and distribute sunlight
73
False
Which renewable energies do not acquire their energy from the sun?
56cfc773234ae51400d9bf55
geothermal and tidal
389
False
How do renewable energies acquire energy from the sun?
56cfc773234ae51400d9bf56
direct or indirect
449
False
Solar technologies are broadly characterized as either passive or active depending on the way they capture, convert and distribute sunlight and enable solar energy to be harnessed at different levels around the world, mostly depending on distance from the equator. Although solar energy refers primarily to the use of solar radiation for practical ends, all renewable energies, other than geothermal and tidal, derive their energy from the Sun in a direct or indirect way.
Are supply side solar technologies generally active or passive?
56ce5d70aab44d1400b886f7
Active
0
False
Are demand side solar technologies generally active or passive?
56ce5d70aab44d1400b886f8
Passive
152
False
What is an active solar technique used to generate energy?
56cfdf65234ae51400d9bfce
designing spaces that naturally circulate air
240
False
What does an active solar technique do?
56cfdf65234ae51400d9bfcf
increase the supply of energy
368
False
What does a passive solar technique do?
56cfdf65234ae51400d9bfd0
reduce the need for alternate resources
476
False
Active solar techniques use photovoltaics, concentrated solar power, solar thermal collectors, pumps, and fans to convert sunlight into useful outputs. Passive solar techniques include selecting materials with favorable thermal properties, designing spaces that naturally circulate air, and referencing the position of a building to the Sun. Active solar technologies increase the supply of energy and are considered supply side technologies, while passive solar technologies reduce the need for alternate resources and are generally considered demand side technologies.
What was the name of the inventor who built a solar engine in 1897?
56ce5df9aab44d1400b886fd
Frank Shuman
9
False
In what year was the Sun Power Company formed?
56ce5df9aab44d1400b886fe
1908
320
False
Shuman patented his solar engine system in what year?
56ce5df9aab44d1400b886ff
1912
833
False
Who is Frank Shuman?
56cfe67b234ae51400d9c031
a U.S. inventor, engineer and solar energy pioneer
23
False
In what year did solar engine build his solar engine?
56cfe67b234ae51400d9c032
1897
3
False
What was the solar engine used to power?
56cfe67b234ae51400d9c033
steam engine
303
False
In what year was the Sun Power Company established?
56cfe67b234ae51400d9c034
1908
320
False
In what year did Frank Shuman patent his solar engine?
56cfe67b234ae51400d9c035
1912
833
False
In 1897, Frank Shuman, a U.S. inventor, engineer and solar energy pioneer built a small demonstration solar engine that worked by reflecting solar energy onto square boxes filled with ether, which has a lower boiling point than water, and were fitted internally with black pipes which in turn powered a steam engine. In 1908 Shuman formed the Sun Power Company with the intent of building larger solar power plants. He, along with his technical advisor A.S.E. Ackermann and British physicist Sir Charles Vernon Boys, developed an improved system using mirrors to reflect solar energy upon collector boxes, increasing heating capacity to the extent that water could now be used instead of ether. Shuman then constructed a full-scale steam engine powered by low-pressure water, enabling him to patent the entire solar engine system by 1912.
Where did Shuman build the world's first solar thermal power station?
56ce5e5baab44d1400b88703
Maadi, Egypt
62
False
How many liters of water per minute did Shuman's engine pump in litres?
56ce5e5baab44d1400b88704
22,000
204
False
In what decade were Shuman's ideas about solar energy revived?
56ce5e5baab44d1400b88705
the 1970s
494
False
Where was the first solar thermal power plant built?
56cfe88d234ae51400d9c073
Maadi, Egypt
62
False
What was used to power the plants engine?
56cfe88d234ae51400d9c074
parabolic troughs
119
False
From what river did the engine pump water?
56cfe88d234ae51400d9c075
Nile River
277
False
What slowed down the growth of solar energy?
56cfe88d234ae51400d9c076
the outbreak of World War I and the discovery of cheap oil
324
False
When was the interest in solar energy restored?
56cfe88d234ae51400d9c077
the 1970s
494
False
Shuman built the world’s first solar thermal power station in Maadi, Egypt, between 1912 and 1913. Shuman’s plant used parabolic troughs to power a 45–52 kilowatts (60–70 hp) engine that pumped more than 22,000 litres (4,800 imp gal; 5,800 US gal) of water per minute from the Nile River to adjacent cotton fields. Although the outbreak of World War I and the discovery of cheap oil in the 1930s discouraged the advancement of solar energy, Shuman’s vision and basic design were resurrected in the 1970s with a new wave of interest in solar thermal energy. In 1916 Shuman was quoted in the media advocating solar energy's utilization, saying:
According to Shuman, up to what percentage of domestic hot water can be  provided by solar heating systems?
56ce5e92aab44d1400b88709
70
112
False
What do Solar hot water systems use to heat water?
56cfe96c234ae51400d9c091
sunlight
28
False
How much hot water can be produced by solar heating systems in low geographical latitudes?
56cfe96c234ae51400d9c092
60 to 70% of the domestic hot water
106
False
What is a common type of solar water heater?
56cfe96c234ae51400d9c093
evacuated tube collectors
267
False
What type of solar water heater is used to heat pools?
56cfe96c234ae51400d9c094
unglazed plastic collectors
381
False
Solar hot water systems use sunlight to heat water. In low geographical latitudes (below 40 degrees) from 60 to 70% of the domestic hot water use with temperatures up to 60 °C can be provided by solar heating systems. The most common types of solar water heaters are evacuated tube collectors (44%) and glazed flat plate collectors (34%) generally used for domestic hot water; and unglazed plastic collectors (21%) used mainly to heat swimming pools.
What was the total capacity of solar hot water systems in 2007 in gigawatts?
56ce5f4aaab44d1400b8870b
154
85
False
Over 90% of homes use solar hot water systems in which two countries?
56ce5f4aaab44d1400b8870c
Israel and Cyprus
236
False
What is the capacity of a solar hot water system?
56cfea9a234ae51400d9c0ab
approximately 154 thermal gigawatt
71
False
What country is the leader in the implementation of solar powered hot water systems?
56cfea9a234ae51400d9c0ac
China
114
False
What percentage of households use solar hot water systems in Israel and Cyprus?
56cfea9a234ae51400d9c0ad
over 90%
324
False
In what countries is the use to solar hot water used mainly for w=swimming pools?
56cfea9a234ae51400d9c0ae
United States, Canada and Australia
361
False
As of 2007, the total installed capacity of solar hot water systems is approximately 154 thermal gigawatt (GWth). China is the world leader in their deployment with 70 GWth installed as of 2006 and a long-term goal of 210 GWth by 2020. Israel and Cyprus are the per capita leaders in the use of solar hot water systems with over 90% of homes using them. In the United States, Canada and Australia heating swimming pools is the dominant application of solar hot water with an installed capacity of 18 GWth as of 2005.
What percentage of energy in commercial buildings comes from HVAC systems?
56ce5f72aab44d1400b8870f
50
162
False
How much energy does an HVAC system use in commercial locations?
56cfebbd234ae51400d9c0c7
30% (4.65 EJ/yr)
91
False
How much energy does an HVAC system use in residential locations?
56cfebbd234ae51400d9c0c8
50% (10.1 EJ/yr)
162
False
What can be used to balance out a portion of the energy used by HVAC systems?
56cfebbd234ae51400d9c0c9
Solar heating, cooling and ventilation technologies
224
False
In the United States, heating, ventilation and air conditioning (HVAC) systems account for 30% (4.65 EJ/yr) of the energy used in commercial buildings and nearly 50% (10.1 EJ/yr) of the energy used in residential buildings. Solar heating, cooling and ventilation technologies can be used to offset a portion of this energy.
Materials that can be used to store heat are known as what kind of mass?
56ce5ff2aab44d1400b88711
Thermal
0
False
What is thermal mass?
56cfee97234ae51400d9c103
any material that can be used to store heat
16
False
What are typical thermal mass material?
56cfee97234ae51400d9c104
stone, cement and water
145
False
How is thermal mass used to keep buildings cool?
56cfee97234ae51400d9c105
by absorbing solar energy during the day and radiating stored heat to the cooler atmosphere at night
269
False
What is a something that determines the size of thermal mass?
56cfee97234ae51400d9c106
climates
211
False
What does thermal mass reduce the need for?
56cfee97234ae51400d9c107
auxiliary heating and cooling equipment
685
False
Thermal mass is any material that can be used to store heat—heat from the Sun in the case of solar energy. Common thermal mass materials include stone, cement and water. Historically they have been used in arid climates or warm temperate regions to keep buildings cool by absorbing solar energy during the day and radiating stored heat to the cooler atmosphere at night. However, they can be used in cold temperate areas to maintain warmth as well. The size and placement of thermal mass depend on several factors such as climate, daylighting and shading conditions. When properly incorporated, thermal mass maintains space temperatures in a comfortable range and reduces the need for auxiliary heating and cooling equipment.
What kind of system is a solar chimney?
56ce602faab44d1400b88713
passive solar ventilation
59
False
What is a solar chimney?
56cff05a234ae51400d9c11d
a passive solar ventilation system
57
False
What is a solar chimney made of?
56cff05a234ae51400d9c11e
a vertical shaft connecting the interior and exterior of a building
104
False
How can the performance of a solar chimney be improved?
56cff05a234ae51400d9c11f
by using glazing and thermal mass materials in a way that mimics greenhouses
304
False
A solar chimney (or thermal chimney, in this context) is a passive solar ventilation system composed of a vertical shaft connecting the interior and exterior of a building. As the chimney warms, the air inside is heated causing an updraft that pulls air through the building. Performance can be improved by using glazing and thermal mass materials in a way that mimics greenhouses.
The placement of deciduous trees on the Equator facing side of a building can have a negative effect on solar availability in which season?
56ce60e4aab44d1400b88715
winter
321
False
What is something that is used to control solar heating and cooling?
56cff48f234ae51400d9c159
trees and plants
10
False
How much solar radiation is blocked by leafless trees?
56cff48f234ae51400d9c15a
1/3 to 1/2
362
False
Why should trees not be planted on the side of a building facing the equator?
56cff48f234ae51400d9c15b
they will interfere with winter solar availability
637
False
What side of a building should trees be planted without greatly affecting solar gain in the winter?
56cff48f234ae51400d9c15c
east and west
723
False
Deciduous trees and plants have been promoted as a means of controlling solar heating and cooling. When planted on the southern side of a building in the northern hemisphere or the northern side in the southern hemisphere, their leaves provide shade during the summer, while the bare limbs allow light to pass during the winter. Since bare, leafless trees shade 1/3 to 1/2 of incident solar radiation, there is a balance between the benefits of summer shading and the corresponding loss of winter heating. In climates with significant heating loads, deciduous trees should not be planted on the Equator facing side of a building because they will interfere with winter solar availability. They can, however, be used on the east and west sides to provide a degree of summer shading without appreciably affecting winter solar gain.
Horace de Saussure built the first box cooker in what year?
56ce61a4aab44d1400b88718
1767
247
False
Reflector cookers can reach temperatures in Celsius of up to what?
56ce61a4aab44d1400b88719
315
749
False
What are solar cookers used for?
56cff5ff234ae51400d9c175
cooking, drying and pasteurization
31
False
What are the 3 main categories of solar cookers?
56cff5ff234ae51400d9c176
box cookers, panel cookers and reflector cookers
116
False
Who created the box cooker?
56cff5ff234ae51400d9c177
Horace de Saussure
225
False
What is the typical temperature range for a box cooker?
56cff5ff234ae51400d9c178
90–150 °C (194–302 °F)
429
False
What do reflector cookers require to function?
56cff5ff234ae51400d9c179
direct light
787
False
Solar cookers use sunlight for cooking, drying and pasteurization. They can be grouped into three broad categories: box cookers, panel cookers and reflector cookers. The simplest solar cooker is the box cooker first built by Horace de Saussure in 1767. A basic box cooker consists of an insulated container with a transparent lid. It can be used effectively with partially overcast skies and will typically reach temperatures of 90–150 °C (194–302 °F). Panel cookers use a reflective panel to direct sunlight onto an insulated container and reach temperatures comparable to box cookers. Reflector cookers use various concentrating geometries (dish, trough, Fresnel mirrors) to focus light on a cooking container. These cookers reach temperatures of 315 °C (599 °F) and above but require direct light to function properly and must be repositioned to track the Sun.
The Solar Total Energy Project had a field of how many parabolic dishes?
56ce6232aab44d1400b8871d
114
273
False
Are transpired collectors more or less cost-effective than glazed collection systems?
56ce6232aab44d1400b8871e
more
1444
False
What are some examples of solar concentrating technologies?
56cff819234ae51400d9c1a9
parabolic dish, trough and Scheffler reflectors
41
False
What was the first commercial solar concentrating system?
56cff819234ae51400d9c1aa
Solar Total Energy Project (STEP) in Shenandoah, Georgia, USA
194
False
What is one of the oldest uses of solar energy?
56cff819234ae51400d9c1ab
use of evaporation ponds to obtain salt from sea water
686
False
What are some items used to dry clothes without the use of electricity?
56cff819234ae51400d9c1ac
Clothes lines, clotheshorses, and clothes racks
913
False
What are Unglazed transpired collectors?
56cff819234ae51400d9c1ad
perforated sun-facing walls used for preheating ventilation air
1178
False
Solar concentrating technologies such as parabolic dish, trough and Scheffler reflectors can provide process heat for commercial and industrial applications. The first commercial system was the Solar Total Energy Project (STEP) in Shenandoah, Georgia, USA where a field of 114 parabolic dishes provided 50% of the process heating, air conditioning and electrical requirements for a clothing factory. This grid-connected cogeneration system provided 400 kW of electricity plus thermal energy in the form of 401 kW steam and 468 kW chilled water, and had a one-hour peak load thermal storage. Evaporation ponds are shallow pools that concentrate dissolved solids through evaporation. The use of evaporation ponds to obtain salt from sea water is one of the oldest applications of solar energy. Modern uses include concentrating brine solutions used in leach mining and removing dissolved solids from waste streams. Clothes lines, clotheshorses, and clothes racks dry clothes through evaporation by wind and sunlight without consuming electricity or gas. In some states of the United States legislation protects the "right to dry" clothes. Unglazed transpired collectors (UTC) are perforated sun-facing walls used for preheating ventilation air. UTCs can raise the incoming air temperature up to 22 °C (40 °F) and deliver outlet temperatures of 45–60 °C (113–140 °F). The short payback period of transpired collectors (3 to 12 years) makes them a more cost-effective alternative than glazed collection systems. As of 2003, over 80 systems with a combined collector area of 35,000 square metres (380,000 sq ft) had been installed worldwide, including an 860 m2 (9,300 sq ft) collector in Costa Rica used for drying coffee beans and a 1,300 m2 (14,000 sq ft) collector in Coimbatore, India, used for drying marigolds.
In what year was a large scale solar distillation project constructed in Las Salinas?
56ce6382aab44d1400b88732
1872
212
False
What is used to make saline or brackish water drinkable?
56d0007f234ae51400d9c243
Solar distillation
0
False
By who was the first record of solar distillation done by?
56d0007f234ae51400d9c244
16th-century Arab alchemists
116
False
When was the first large solar distillation plant created?
56d0007f234ae51400d9c245
1872
212
False
How much water was produced by the plant?
56d0007f234ae51400d9c246
22,700 L (5,000 imp gal; 6,000 US gal) per day
351
False
What is an example of a solar distillation design?
56d0007f234ae51400d9c247
single-slope
457
False
Solar distillation can be used to make saline or brackish water potable. The first recorded instance of this was by 16th-century Arab alchemists. A large-scale solar distillation project was first constructed in 1872 in the Chilean mining town of Las Salinas. The plant, which had solar collection area of 4,700 m2 (51,000 sq ft), could produce up to 22,700 L (5,000 imp gal; 6,000 US gal) per day and operate for 40 years. Individual still designs include single-slope, double-slope (or greenhouse type), vertical, conical, inverted absorber, multi-wick, and multiple effect. These stills can operate in passive, active, or hybrid modes. Double-slope stills are the most economical for decentralized domestic purposes, while active multiple effect units are more suitable for large-scale applications.
Solar water disinfection is recommended by which organization?
56ce64a8aab44d1400b88745
the World Health Organization
292
False
How long should the plastic bottles filled with water be exposed to sunlight during Solar water disinfection?
56d004ab234ae51400d9c25f
a minimum of six hours to two days during fully overcast conditions
202
False
What does the World Health Organization say about Solar water disinfection?
56d004ab234ae51400d9c260
a viable method for household water treatment and safe storage
325
False
How many people use Solar water disinfection to disinfect their drinking water?
56d004ab234ae51400d9c261
Over two million people in developing countries
389
False
Solar water disinfection (SODIS) involves exposing water-filled plastic polyethylene terephthalate (PET) bottles to sunlight for several hours. Exposure times vary depending on weather and climate from a minimum of six hours to two days during fully overcast conditions. It is recommended by the World Health Organization as a viable method for household water treatment and safe storage. Over two million people in developing countries use this method for their daily drinking water.
What is a possible negative effect of algae in water stabilization ponds?
56ce659aaab44d1400b88749
toxic chemicals
250
False
For what reason would solar energy be used in a water stabilisation pond?
56d0051e234ae51400d9c26f
to treat waste water without chemicals or electricity
55
False
What is a reason why the water from a water stabilisation pond may be unusable?
56d0051e234ae51400d9c270
algae may produce toxic chemicals
232
False
Solar energy may be used in a water stabilisation pond to treat waste water without chemicals or electricity. A further environmental advantage is that algae grow in such ponds and consume carbon dioxide in photosynthesis, although algae may produce toxic chemicals that make the water unusable.
By what year is solar power expected to become the world's greatest source of electricity?
56ce6629aab44d1400b8874d
2050
82
False
When is solar power is foreseen to become the largest source of electricity?
56d00697234ae51400d9c297
2050
82
False
Solar power is anticipated to become the world's largest source of electricity by 2050, with solar photovoltaics and concentrated solar power contributing 16 and 11 percent to the global overall consumption, respectively.
The largest solar power plant in the world is located in what desert?
56ce666caab44d1400b88755
the Mojave Desert
116
False
Less than 1% of the world's total grid electricity was generated by solar energy in what year?
56ce666caab44d1400b88756
2013
686
False
What is the largest solar power plant in the world?
56d074ff234ae51400d9c2ee
354 MW SEGS CSP
83
False
Where is the largest solar power plant in the world located?
56d074ff234ae51400d9c2ef
Mojave Desert of California
120
False
What are the largest photovoltaic solar power plants?
56d074ff234ae51400d9c2f0
The 250 MW Agua Caliente Solar Project, in the United States, and the 221 MW Charanka Solar Park in India
325
False
Commercial CSP plants were first developed in the 1980s. Since 1985 the eventually 354 MW SEGS CSP installation, in the Mojave Desert of California, is the largest solar power plant in the world. Other large CSP plants include the 150 MW Solnova Solar Power Station and the 100 MW Andasol solar power station, both in Spain. The 250 MW Agua Caliente Solar Project, in the United States, and the 221 MW Charanka Solar Park in India, are the world’s largest photovoltaic plants. Solar projects exceeding 1 GW are being developed, but most of the deployed photovoltaics are in small rooftop arrays of less than 5 kW, which are grid connected using net metering and/or a feed-in tariff. In 2013 solar generated less than 1% of the worlds total grid electricity.
In the 1880s, who constructed the first solar cell?
56ce66aeaab44d1400b88759
Charles Fritts
327
False
In what year was the crystalline silicon solar cell constructed?
56ce66aeaab44d1400b8875a
1954
819
False
What has happened to photovoltaic in the past 20 years?
56d07aa6234ae51400d9c314
evolved from a pure niche market of small scale applications towards becoming a mainstream electricity source
73
False
What is a solar cell?
56d07aa6234ae51400d9c315
a device that converts light directly into electricity
200
False
Who created the first solar cell?
56d07aa6234ae51400d9c316
Charles Fritts
327
False
Who created the first solar cell using silver selenide in place of copper oxide?
56d07aa6234ae51400d9c317
Dr Bruno Lange
383
False
Who created the crystalline silicon solar cell?
56d07aa6234ae51400d9c318
Gerald Pearson, Calvin Fuller and Daryl Chapin
726
False
In the last two decades, photovoltaics (PV), also known as solar PV, has evolved from a pure niche market of small scale applications towards becoming a mainstream electricity source. A solar cell is a device that converts light directly into electricity using the photoelectric effect. The first solar cell was constructed by Charles Fritts in the 1880s. In 1931 a German engineer, Dr Bruno Lange, developed a photo cell using silver selenide in place of copper oxide. Although the prototype selenium cells converted less than 1% of incident light into electricity, both Ernst Werner von Siemens and James Clerk Maxwell recognized the importance of this discovery. Following the work of Russell Ohl in the 1940s, researchers Gerald Pearson, Calvin Fuller and Daryl Chapin created the crystalline silicon solar cell in 1954. These early solar cells cost 286 USD/watt and reached efficiencies of 4.5–6%. By 2012 available efficiencies exceed 20% and the maximum efficiency of research photovoltaics is over 40%.
In all the different CSP systems, concentrated sunlight is used to heat what?
56ce66e4aab44d1400b8875d
a working fluid
491
False
What do Concentrating Solar Power systems use?
56d07c41234ae51400d9c31e
lenses or mirrors and tracking systems
44
False
What is the heat generated from a Concentrating Solar Power system used for?
56d07c41234ae51400d9c31f
a heat source for a conventional power plant
174
False
What is one of the most developed Concentrating Solar Power technologies?
56d07c41234ae51400d9c320
the Stirling dish
360
False
What do Concentrating Solar Power technologies have in common?
56d07c41234ae51400d9c321
a working fluid is heated by the concentrated sunlight
491
False
Concentrating Solar Power (CSP) systems use lenses or mirrors and tracking systems to focus a large area of sunlight into a small beam. The concentrated heat is then used as a heat source for a conventional power plant. A wide range of concentrating technologies exists; the most developed are the parabolic trough, the concentrating linear fresnel reflector, the Stirling dish and the solar power tower. Various techniques are used to track the Sun and focus light. In all of these systems a working fluid is heated by the concentrated sunlight, and is then used for power generation or energy storage.
Socrate's what is a classic example of passive solar design?
56ce6ea0aab44d1400b88785
Megaron House
351
False
What is a common feature of passive solar architecture?
56d08052234ae51400d9c32c
orientation relative to the Sun
54
False
What is produced when the features of passive solar architecture are customized to the environment?
56d08052234ae51400d9c32d
well-lit spaces that stay in a comfortable temperature range
279
False
What is an example of passive solar design?
56d08052234ae51400d9c32e
Socrates' Megaron House
341
False
What kind of equipment can improve system performance?
56d08052234ae51400d9c32f
pumps, fans and switchable windows
609
False
The common features of passive solar architecture are orientation relative to the Sun, compact proportion (a low surface area to volume ratio), selective shading (overhangs) and thermal mass. When these features are tailored to the local climate and environment they can produce well-lit spaces that stay in a comfortable temperature range. Socrates' Megaron House is a classic example of passive solar design. The most recent approaches to solar design use computer modeling tying together solar lighting, heating and ventilation systems in an integrated solar design package. Active solar equipment such as pumps, fans and switchable windows can complement passive design and improve system performance.
UHI is an abbreviation of what?
56ce6efbaab44d1400b88787
Urban heat islands
0
False
A program in Los Angeles believes that with $1 billion, city temperatures could be reduced by approximately how many degrees in Celsius?
56ce6efbaab44d1400b88788
3
597
False
What are the metropolitan areas with higher temperatures than the surrounding areas called?
56d0817d234ae51400d9c334
Urban heat islands
0
False
What materials absorb sunlight and create higher temperatures than natural materials?
56d0817d234ae51400d9c335
asphalt and concrete
222
False
What is a way to reduce the high temperatures created in urban heat islands?
56d0817d234ae51400d9c336
paint buildings and roads white and plant trees
398
False
Urban heat islands (UHI) are metropolitan areas with higher temperatures than that of the surrounding environment. The higher temperatures are a result of increased absorption of the Solar light by urban materials such as asphalt and concrete, which have lower albedos and higher heat capacities than those in the natural environment. A straightforward method of counteracting the UHI effect is to paint buildings and roads white and plant trees. Using these methods, a hypothetical "cool communities" program in Los Angeles has projected that urban temperatures could be reduced by approximately 3 °C at an estimated cost of US$1 billion, giving estimated total annual benefits of US$530 million from reduced air-conditioning costs and healthcare savings.
During the Little Ice Age, what did English and French farmers use to increase collection of solar energy?
56ce7352aab44d1400b887a3
fruit walls
506
False
Vinters have adopted solar technology to do what?
56ce7352aab44d1400b887a4
power grape presses
1168
False
Why do agriculture and horticulture seek to make the most use of the solar energy captured?
56d086c9234ae51400d9c340
to optimize the productivity of plants
83
False
What are some techniques used to improve crop production?
56d086c9234ae51400d9c341
timed planting cycles, tailored row orientation, staggered heights between rows and the mixing of plant varieties
142
False
What did French and English farmers do during the Little Ice Age to gain more solar energy?
56d086c9234ae51400d9c342
employed fruit walls
497
False
What was the purpose of the fruit walls built by French and English farmers?
56d086c9234ae51400d9c343
acted as thermal masses and accelerated ripening by keeping plants warm
574
False
Agriculture and horticulture seek to optimize the capture of solar energy in order to optimize the productivity of plants. Techniques such as timed planting cycles, tailored row orientation, staggered heights between rows and the mixing of plant varieties can improve crop yields. While sunlight is generally considered a plentiful resource, the exceptions highlight the importance of solar energy to agriculture. During the short growing seasons of the Little Ice Age, French and English farmers employed fruit walls to maximize the collection of solar energy. These walls acted as thermal masses and accelerated ripening by keeping plants warm. Early fruit walls were built perpendicular to the ground and facing south, but over time, sloping walls were developed to make better use of sunlight. In 1699, Nicolas Fatio de Duillier even suggested using a tracking mechanism which could pivot to follow the Sun. Applications of solar energy in agriculture aside from growing crops include pumping water, drying crops, brooding chicks and drying chicken manure. More recently the technology has been embraced by vinters, who use the energy generated by solar panels to power grape presses.
When were the first greenhouses used?
56ce7376aab44d1400b887a7
Roman times
238
False
In what century were the first modern greenhouses constructed?
56ce7376aab44d1400b887a8
the 16th
367
False
What do greenhouses do with solar energy?
56d0875b234ae51400d9c348
convert solar light to heat
12
False
What is one purpose of a greenhouse?
56d0875b234ae51400d9c349
enabling year-round production and the growth (in enclosed environments) of specialty crops
41
False
What was one of the first uses of a greenhouse?
56d0875b234ae51400d9c34a
produce cucumbers year-round for the Roman emperor Tiberius
253
False
Where were the first modern greenhouses built?
56d0875b234ae51400d9c34b
Europe
357
False
Greenhouses convert solar light to heat, enabling year-round production and the growth (in enclosed environments) of specialty crops and other plants not naturally suited to the local climate. Primitive greenhouses were first used during Roman times to produce cucumbers year-round for the Roman emperor Tiberius. The first modern greenhouses were built in Europe in the 16th century to keep exotic plants brought back from explorations abroad. Greenhouses remain an important part of horticulture today, and plastic transparent materials have also been used to similar effect in polytunnels and row covers.
What is the name of the solar powered car race held every two years?
56ce759eaab44d1400b887b9
The World Solar Challenge
81
False
What was the winner of the World Solar Challenge's average speed in 2007 in km/h?
56ce759eaab44d1400b887ba
90.87
430
False
What is The World Solar Challenge?
56d0880f234ae51400d9c350
a biannual solar-powered car race
110
False
When was The World Solar Challenge started?
56d0880f234ae51400d9c351
1987
285
False
What was the average speed of a winning solar powered car in 1987?
56d0880f234ae51400d9c352
67 kilometres per hour (42 mph)
343
False
What was the average speed of a winning solar powered car by 2007?
56d0880f234ae51400d9c353
90.87 kilometres per hour (56.46 mph)
430
False
What are some other similar car races that use solar powered vehicles?
56d0880f234ae51400d9c354
The North American Solar Challenge and the planned South African Solar Challenge
469
False
Development of a solar-powered car has been an engineering goal since the 1980s. The World Solar Challenge is a biannual solar-powered car race, where teams from universities and enterprises compete over 3,021 kilometres (1,877 mi) across central Australia from Darwin to Adelaide. In 1987, when it was founded, the winner's average speed was 67 kilometres per hour (42 mph) and by 2007 the winner's average speed had improved to 90.87 kilometres per hour (56.46 mph). The North American Solar Challenge and the planned South African Solar Challenge are comparable competitions that reflect an international interest in the engineering and development of solar powered vehicles.
The first practical solar boat was constructed in what year?
56ce75e2aab44d1400b887c7
1975
3
False
When was the first solar powered boat made?
56d088be234ae51400d9c35a
1975
3
False
Who first crossed the Pacific ocean using a solar powered boat?
56d088be234ae51400d9c35b
Kenichi Horie
172
False
What was the name of the first solar powered boat that crossed the Atlantic ocean?
56d088be234ae51400d9c35c
the sun21 catamaran
250
False
In 1975, the first practical solar boat was constructed in England. By 1995, passenger boats incorporating PV panels began appearing and are now used extensively. In 1996, Kenichi Horie made the first solar powered crossing of the Pacific Ocean, and the sun21 catamaran made the first solar powered crossing of the Atlantic Ocean in the winter of 2006–2007. There were plans to circumnavigate the globe in 2010.
What altitude did the Solar Riser reach in feet?
56ce7645aab44d1400b887c9
40
224
False
What is the name of the aircraft circling the globe in 2015 via solar power?
56ce7645aab44d1400b887ca
Solar Impulse
963
False
When was the first unmanned flight by a solar powered plane made?
56d089e6234ae51400d9c360
1974
3
False
When was the first solar powered manned flight made?
56d089e6234ae51400d9c361
29 April 1979
80
False
When did the Solar Challenger cross the English Channel?
56d089e6234ae51400d9c362
July 1981
421
False
Where did Eric Scott Raymond fly using a solar powered plane in 1990?
56d089e6234ae51400d9c363
California to North Carolina
480
False
How long is the solar powered plane Solar Impulse able to remain in the air?
56d089e6234ae51400d9c364
36 hours
1193
False
In 1974, the unmanned AstroFlight Sunrise plane made the first solar flight. On 29 April 1979, the Solar Riser made the first flight in a solar-powered, fully controlled, man carrying flying machine, reaching an altitude of 40 feet (12 m). In 1980, the Gossamer Penguin made the first piloted flights powered solely by photovoltaics. This was quickly followed by the Solar Challenger which crossed the English Channel in July 1981. In 1990 Eric Scott Raymond in 21 hops flew from California to North Carolina using solar power. Developments then turned back to unmanned aerial vehicles (UAV) with the Pathfinder (1997) and subsequent designs, culminating in the Helios which set the altitude record for a non-rocket-propelled aircraft at 29,524 metres (96,864 ft) in 2001. The Zephyr, developed by BAE Systems, is the latest in a line of record-breaking solar aircraft, making a 54-hour flight in 2007, and month-long flights were envisioned by 2010. As of 2015, Solar Impulse, an electric aircraft, is currently circumnavigating the globe. It is a single-seat plane powered by solar cells and capable of taking off under its own power. The designed allows the aircraft to remain airborne for 36 hours.
What is a possible alternative to making carbon-based fuels from reduction of carbon dioxide?
56ce771daab44d1400b887cf
hydrogen production from protons
547
False
What process converts solar energy into storable and transportable fuels?
56d08e3e234ae51400d9c384
Solar chemical processes
0
False
What solar process can be used to produce different fuels?
56d08e3e234ae51400d9c385
artificial photosynthesis
350
False
Solar chemical processes use solar energy to drive chemical reactions. These processes offset energy that would otherwise come from a fossil fuel source and can also convert solar energy into storable and transportable fuels. Solar induced chemical reactions can be divided into thermochemical or photochemical. A variety of fuels can be produced by artificial photosynthesis. The multielectron catalytic chemistry involved in making carbon-based fuels (such as methanol) from reduction of carbon dioxide is challenging; a feasible alternative is hydrogen production from protons, though use of water as the source of electrons (as plants do) requires mastering the multielectron oxidation of two water molecules to molecular oxygen. Some have envisaged working solar fuel plants in coastal metropolitan areas by 2050 –  the splitting of sea water providing hydrogen to be run through adjacent fuel-cell electric power plants and the pure water by-product going directly into the municipal water system. Another vision involves all human structures covering the earth's surface (i.e., roads, vehicles and buildings) doing photosynthesis more efficiently than plants.
What is the name of the process under development at the Weizmann Institute?
56ce799daab44d1400b887dd
The Solzinc process
688
False
The Solznic process produces what?
56ce799daab44d1400b887de
pure zinc
882
False
What has been a main area of solar chemical research since the 1970s?
56d08f34234ae51400d9c388
Hydrogen production technologies
0
False
What is one of the thermochemical processes that has been explored besides electrolysis?
56d08f34234ae51400d9c389
uses concentrators to split water into oxygen and hydrogen at high temperatures
245
False
What is the name of the process being developed by the Weizmann Institute?
56d08f34234ae51400d9c38a
Solzinc process
692
False
Hydrogen production technologies been a significant area of solar chemical research since the 1970s. Aside from electrolysis driven by photovoltaic or photochemical cells, several thermochemical processes have also been explored. One such route uses concentrators to split water into oxygen and hydrogen at high temperatures (2,300–2,600 °C or 4,200–4,700 °F). Another approach uses the heat from solar concentrators to drive the steam reformation of natural gas thereby increasing the overall hydrogen yield compared to conventional reforming methods. Thermochemical cycles characterized by the decomposition and regeneration of reactants present another avenue for hydrogen production. The Solzinc process under development at the Weizmann Institute uses a 1 MW solar furnace to decompose zinc oxide (ZnO) at temperatures above 1,200 °C (2,200 °F). This initial reaction produces pure zinc, which can subsequently be reacted with water to produce hydrogen.
In what form do thermal mass systems store solar energy?
56ce79c4aab44d1400b887e1
heat
59
False
What is the system called that can store solar energy in the form of heat?
56d09004234ae51400d9c38e
Thermal mass systems
0
False
What are some of the materials used in thermal storage systems?
56d09004234ae51400d9c38f
water, earth and stone
247
False
What is something that can be accomplished by a thermal mass system?
56d09004234ae51400d9c390
reduce overall heating and cooling requirements
356
False
Thermal mass systems can store solar energy in the form of heat at domestically useful temperatures for daily or interseasonal durations. Thermal storage systems generally use readily available materials with high specific heat capacities such as water, earth and stone. Well-designed systems can lower peak demand, shift time-of-use to off-peak hours and reduce overall heating and cooling requirements.
Paraffin wax is an example of what kind of storage media?
56ce7a03aab44d1400b887e3
thermal
75
False
The first Glauber's salt heating system was first used where?
56ce7a03aab44d1400b887e4
The "Dover House"
232
False
What are some examples of phase change materials?
56d09106234ae51400d9c394
paraffin wax and Glauber's salt
31
False
What are the approximate temperatures that can be delivered by phase change materials?
56d09106234ae51400d9c395
64 °C or 147 °F
214
False
What was the name of the heating system that first used Glauber's salt?
56d09106234ae51400d9c396
Dover House
237
False
Why are salts good  for thermal storage?
56d09106234ae51400d9c397
they are low-cost, have a high specific heat capacity and can deliver heat at temperatures compatible with conventional power systems
458
False
How much energy was the Solar Two able to store using salts?
56d09106234ae51400d9c398
1.44 terajoules (400,000 kWh)
664
False
Phase change materials such as paraffin wax and Glauber's salt are another thermal storage media. These materials are inexpensive, readily available, and can deliver domestically useful temperatures (approximately 64 °C or 147 °F). The "Dover House" (in Dover, Massachusetts) was the first to use a Glauber's salt heating system, in 1948. Solar energy can also be stored at high temperatures using molten salts. Salts are an effective storage medium because they are low-cost, have a high specific heat capacity and can deliver heat at temperatures compatible with conventional power systems. The Solar Two used this method of energy storage, allowing it to store 1.44 terajoules (400,000 kWh) in its 68 cubic metres storage tank with an annual storage efficiency of about 99%.
Where do off-grid PV systems store excess electricity?
56ce7ba4aab44d1400b887ed
rechargeable batteries
44
False
What do off-grid PV systems use to store excess electricity?
56d09249234ae51400d9c39e
rechargeable batteries
44
False
What are the programs that gives credit to households for delivering electricity to the grid called?
56d09249234ae51400d9c39f
Net metering programs
241
False
How is the credit to households accomplished?
56d09249234ae51400d9c3a0
by 'rolling back' the meter whenever the home produces more electricity than it consumes
357
False
Why is a second meter usually unnecessary to monitor electricity use?
56d09249234ae51400d9c3a1
Most standard meters accurately measure in both directions
747
False
Off-grid PV systems have traditionally used rechargeable batteries to store excess electricity. With grid-tied systems, excess electricity can be sent to the transmission grid, while standard grid electricity can be used to meet shortfalls. Net metering programs give household systems a credit for any electricity they deliver to the grid. This is handled by 'rolling back' the meter whenever the home produces more electricity than it consumes. If the net electricity use is below zero, the utility then rolls over the kilowatt hour credit to the next month. Other approaches involve the use of two meters, to measure electricity consumed vs. electricity produced. This is less common due to the increased installation cost of the second meter. Most standard meters accurately measure in both directions, making a second meter unnecessary.
When water is released due to high demand, the pump become swhat?
56ce7bd2aab44d1400b887f1
a hydroelectric power generator
250
False
Pumped-storage hydroelectricity stores energy in what form?
56d092a1234ae51400d9c3a6
water pumped when energy is available from a lower elevation reservoir to a higher elevation one
61
False
How is the energy stored by pumped-storage hydroelectricity recovered?
56d092a1234ae51400d9c3a7
by releasing the water, with the pump becoming a hydroelectric power generator
203
False
Pumped-storage hydroelectricity stores energy in the form of water pumped when energy is available from a lower elevation reservoir to a higher elevation one. The energy is recovered when demand is high by releasing the water, with the pump becoming a hydroelectric power generator.
The oil embargo in what year was a contributing factor to the reorganization of energy policies?
56ce7c26aab44d1400b887fb
1973
4
False
What brought attention to solar technologies in the 1970s?
56d097fb234ae51400d9c3ae
The 1973 oil embargo and 1979 energy crisis
0
False
What are the names of some of the incentive programs used to promote solar technology?
56d097fb234ae51400d9c3af
the Federal Photovoltaic Utilization Program in the US and the Sunshine Program in Japan
228
False
What is the name of the solar energy research facility in the US?
56d097fb234ae51400d9c3b0
SERI, now NREL
389
False
What is the name of the solar energy research facility in Japan?
56d097fb234ae51400d9c3b1
NEDO
413
False
What is the name of the solar energy research facility in Germany?
56d097fb234ae51400d9c3b2
Fraunhofer Institute for Solar Energy Systems ISE
433
False
The 1973 oil embargo and 1979 energy crisis caused a reorganization of energy policies around the world and brought renewed attention to developing solar technologies. Deployment strategies focused on incentive programs such as the Federal Photovoltaic Utilization Program in the US and the Sunshine Program in Japan. Other efforts included the formation of research facilities in the US (SERI, now NREL), Japan (NEDO), and Germany (Fraunhofer Institute for Solar Energy Systems ISE).
The solar water heaters introduced in the US in the 1890s saw growth until what time period?
56ce7c97aab44d1400b88801
the 1920s
121
False
Since 1999, what average rate has the solar water heating sector progressed at?
56ce7c97aab44d1400b88802
20% per year
503
False
When did the use of solar water heaters in the US first begin?
56d098d8234ae51400d9c3b8
in the 1890s
68
False
Why did interest in solar water heating decrease in the 1980s?
56d098d8234ae51400d9c3b9
falling petroleum prices
359
False
Growth of solar water heating development has averaged how much per year since 1999
56d098d8234ae51400d9c3ba
20%
503
False
What was the estimated capacity of solar water heating and cooling in 2007?
56d098d8234ae51400d9c3bb
154 GW
677
False
Commercial solar water heaters began appearing in the United States in the 1890s. These systems saw increasing use until the 1920s but were gradually replaced by cheaper and more reliable heating fuels. As with photovoltaics, solar water heating attracted renewed attention as a result of the oil crises in the 1970s but interest subsided in the 1980s due to falling petroleum prices. Development in the solar water heating sector progressed steadily throughout the 1990s and growth rates have averaged 20% per year since 1999. Although generally underestimated, solar water heating and cooling is by far the most widely deployed solar technology with an estimated capacity of 154 GW as of 2007.
Which organization believes that solar energy can solve some of our most pressing issues?
56ce7cbbaab44d1400b88805
The International Energy Agency
0
False
Who said that solar energy can help solve some of the most urgent problems in the world?
56d0990e234ae51400d9c3c0
The International Energy Agency
0
False
The International Energy Agency has said that solar energy can make considerable contributions to solving some of the most urgent problems the world now faces:
ISO 9050 relates to standards for what?
56ce7d1aaab44d1400b88809
glass in building
158
False
ISO 10217 relates to standards for what?
56ce7d1aaab44d1400b8880a
materials used in solar water heaters
207
False
What is the name of the standard related to glass in building?
56d09a77234ae51400d9c3c6
ISO 9050
138
False
What is the name of the standard related to the materials used in solar water heaters?
56d09a77234ae51400d9c3c7
ISO 10217
182
False
The International Organization for Standardization has established a number of standards relating to solar energy equipment. For example, ISO 9050 relates to glass in building while ISO 10217 relates to the materials used in solar water heaters.
What are the technologies used to capture solar energy characterized as?
56ce9211aab44d1400b88893
passive solar or active solar
103
False
What are some active solar techniques used to harness solar energy?
56ce9211aab44d1400b88894
photovoltaic systems, concentrated solar power and solar water heating
270
False
What is an example of a passive solar technique?
56ce9211aab44d1400b88895
orienting a building to the Sun
397
False
It is an important source of renewable energy and its technologies are broadly characterized as either passive solar or active solar depending on the way they capture and distribute solar energy or convert it into solar power. Active solar techniques include the use of photovoltaic systems, concentrated solar power and solar water heating to harness the energy. Passive solar techniques include orienting a building to the Sun, selecting materials with favorable thermal mass or light dispersing properties, and designing spaces that naturally circulate air.
What was the total worldwide energy consumption in 2012?
56ce9464aab44d1400b88899
559.8 EJ
335
False
What is solar energy's yearly potential?
56ce9464aab44d1400b8889a
1,575–49,837 exajoules (EJ)
226
False
What makes solar energy an appealing source of electricity>
56ce9464aab44d1400b8889b
The large magnitude of solar energy available
0
False
Who estimated the annual potential of solar energy in 2000?
56ce9464aab44d1400b8889c
The United Nations Development Programme
97
False
The large magnitude of solar energy available makes it a highly appealing source of electricity. The United Nations Development Programme in its 2000 World Energy Assessment found that the annual potential of solar energy was 1,575–49,837 exajoules (EJ). This is several times larger than the total world energy consumption, which was 559.8 EJ in 2012.
How will solar energy increase energy security?
56cfb40b234ae51400d9bea3
through reliance on an indigenous, inexhaustible and mostly import-independent resource
214
False
What costs will solar energy lower?
56cfb40b234ae51400d9bea4
the costs of mitigating global warming
351
False
What should the cost of incentives for producing solar energy be considered?
56cfb40b234ae51400d9bea5
learning investments
557
False
What effect will solar energy have on the price of fossil fuels?
56cfb40b234ae51400d9bea6
keep fossil fuel prices lower than otherwise
395
False
In 2011, the International Energy Agency said that "the development of affordable, inexhaustible and clean solar energy technologies will have huge longer-term benefits. It will increase countries’ energy security through reliance on an indigenous, inexhaustible and mostly import-independent resource, enhance sustainability, reduce pollution, lower the costs of mitigating global warming, and keep fossil fuel prices lower than otherwise. These advantages are global. Hence the additional costs of the incentives for early deployment should be considered learning investments; they must be wisely spent and need to be widely shared".
Why does the amount of usable solar energy differ from the amount near the planets surface?
56cfbb5c234ae51400d9bf29
geography, time variation, cloud cover, and the land available to humans
159
False
The potential solar energy that could be used by humans differs from the amount of solar energy present near the surface of the planet because factors such as geography, time variation, cloud cover, and the land available to humans limits the amount of solar energy that we can acquire.
Why does geography have an effect of the amount of solar energy available?
56cfbc7f234ae51400d9bf33
areas that are closer to the equator have a greater amount of solar radiation
49
False
What is the process called that can increase solar energy in areas further away from the earth's equator?
56cfbc7f234ae51400d9bf34
photovoltaics
148
False
Why does time have an effect of the amount of available solar energy?
56cfbc7f234ae51400d9bf35
during the nighttime there is little solar radiation on the surface of the Earth for solar panels to absorb
361
False
What effect does cloud coverage have on the amount of solar energy available?
56cfbc7f234ae51400d9bf36
clouds block incoming light from the sun and reduce the light available for solar cells
605
False
Geography effects solar energy potential because areas that are closer to the equator have a greater amount of solar radiation. However, the use of photovoltaics that can follow the position of the sun can significantly increase the solar energy potential in areas that are farther from the equator. Time variation effects the potential of solar energy because during the nighttime there is little solar radiation on the surface of the Earth for solar panels to absorb. This limits the amount of energy that solar panels can absorb in one day. Cloud cover can effect the potential of solar panels because clouds block incoming light from the sun and reduce the light available for solar cells.
Why does land availability have an effect on solar energy?
56cfbd75234ae51400d9bf3d
solar panels can only be set up on land that is unowned and suitable for solar panels
88
False
Why are roofs a good place for solar panels?
56cfbd75234ae51400d9bf3e
many people have discovered that they can collect energy directly from their homes this way
240
False
In addition, land availability has a large effect on the available solar energy because solar panels can only be set up on land that is unowned and suitable for solar panels. Roofs have been found to be a suitable place for solar cells, as many people have discovered that they can collect energy directly from their homes this way. Other areas that are suitable for solar cells are lands that are unowned by businesses where solar plants can be established.
What factors were taken into account in the estimate published in 2000 on solar energy?
56cfe547234ae51400d9c029
insolation, cloud cover, and the land that is usable by humans
252
False
What was the total potential of solar energy found in the estimate?
56cfe547234ae51400d9c02a
1,575–49,837 EJ per year
379
False
In 2000, the United Nations Development Programme, UN Department of Economic and Social Affairs, and World Energy Council published an estimate of the potential solar energy that could be used by humans each year that took into account factors such as insolation, cloud cover, and the land that is usable by humans. The estimate found that solar energy has a global potential of 1,575–49,837 EJ per year (see table below).
What is solar power?
56d005e1234ae51400d9c287
conversion of sunlight into electricity
19
False
How is sunlight converted into electricity?
56d005e1234ae51400d9c288
either directly using photovoltaics (PV), or indirectly using concentrated solar power (CSP)
60
False
What does a concentrated solar power system use?
56d005e1234ae51400d9c289
lenses or mirrors and tracking systems
170
False
What is the purpose of a concentrated solar power system?
56d005e1234ae51400d9c28a
focus a large area of sunlight into a small beam
212
False
What method does the photovoltaics system use to turn light into electricity?
56d005e1234ae51400d9c28b
photoelectric effect
312
False
Solar power is the conversion of sunlight into electricity, either directly using photovoltaics (PV), or indirectly using concentrated solar power (CSP). CSP systems use lenses or mirrors and tracking systems to focus a large area of sunlight into a small beam. PV converts light into electric current using the photoelectric effect.
What has influenced the design since the beginning of architectural history?
56d07d26234ae51400d9c326
Sunlight
0
False
Who first utilized solar architecture?
56d07d26234ae51400d9c327
Greeks and Chinese
168
False
In which direction were the buildings built by the Greeks and Chinese facing?
56d07d26234ae51400d9c328
toward the south
217
False
Sunlight has influenced building design since the beginning of architectural history. Advanced solar architecture and urban planning methods were first employed by the Greeks and Chinese, who oriented their buildings toward the south to provide light and warmth.
What is a solar balloon?
56d08aa8234ae51400d9c36a
a black balloon that is filled with ordinary air
19
False
What happens when sunlight shines on a solar balloon?
56d08aa8234ae51400d9c36b
the air inside is heated and expands causing an upward buoyancy force
104
False
What is the use of solar balloons typically limited to?
56d08aa8234ae51400d9c36c
the toy market
314
False
Why is the use of solar balloons typically limited to the toy market?
56d08aa8234ae51400d9c36d
the surface-area to payload-weight ratio is relatively high
332
False
A solar balloon is a black balloon that is filled with ordinary air. As sunlight shines on the balloon, the air inside is heated and expands causing an upward buoyancy force, much like an artificially heated hot air balloon. Some solar balloons are large enough for human flight, but usage is generally limited to the toy market as the surface-area to payload-weight ratio is relatively high.
Why was solar technology developed in the 1860s?
56d09354234ae51400d9c3aa
driven by an expectation that coal would soon become scarce
236
False
What slowed the development of solar technologies in the early 20th century?
56d09354234ae51400d9c3ab
increasing availability, economy, and utility of coal and petroleum
395
False
Beginning with the surge in coal use which accompanied the Industrial Revolution, energy consumption has steadily transitioned from wood and biomass to fossil fuels. The early development of solar technologies starting in the 1860s was driven by an expectation that coal would soon become scarce. However, development of solar technologies stagnated in the early 20th century in the face of the increasing availability, economy, and utility of coal and petroleum.
According to a report in 2011, by what year could solar energy provide a third of the world's energy?
56d09a0e234ae51400d9c3c2
2060
205
False
What could the sun's energy do to help limit climate change?
56d09a0e234ae51400d9c3c3
could play a key role in de-carbonizing the global economy alongside improvements in energy efficiency and imposing costs on greenhouse gas emitters
284
False
In 2011, a report by the International Energy Agency found that solar energy technologies such as photovoltaics, solar hot water and concentrated solar power could provide a third of the world’s energy by 2060 if politicians commit to limiting climate change. The energy from the sun could play a key role in de-carbonizing the global economy alongside improvements in energy efficiency and imposing costs on greenhouse gas emitters. "The strength of solar is the incredible variety and flexibility of applications, from small scale to big scale".
Kanye_West
What year was Kanye born?
56cf4da7aab44d1400b88f86
1977
43
False
What kind of music does Kanye West perform?
56d0f35817492d1400aab693
hip hop
64
False
What is Kanye West's middle name?
56d0f35817492d1400aab694
Omari
6
False
When is Kanye West's birthday?
56d0f35817492d1400aab695
June 8, 1977
35
False
Kanye Omari West (/ˈkɑːnjeɪ/; born June 8, 1977) is an American hip hop recording artist, record producer, rapper, fashion designer, and entrepreneur. He is among the most acclaimed musicians of the 21st century, attracting both praise and controversy for his work and his outspoken public persona.
What was the first label that Kanye produced for?
56cf4e9aaab44d1400b88f9a
Roc-A-Fella Records
92
False
Who are some well known artists that Kanye produced for early in his career?
56cf4e9aaab44d1400b88f9b
Jay-Z and Alicia Keys
174
False
How many albums has Kanye released since starting his solo career in 2004?
56cf4e9aaab44d1400b88f9c
7
562
False
With which artists that Kanye formerly produced for did he go on to collaborate with?
56cf4e9aaab44d1400b88f9d
Jay-Z
174
False
Where did Kanye West live as a child?
56d0f47a17492d1400aab699
Chicago
10
False
What was Kanye West's first job title after art school?
56d0f47a17492d1400aab69a
producer
79
False
What year did Kanye West release his first rap CD?
56d0f47a17492d1400aab69b
2004
296
False
How many total CDs has Kanye West released in his career so far?
56d0f47a17492d1400aab69d
7
562
False
Raised in Chicago, West briefly attended art school before becoming known as a producer for Roc-A-Fella Records in the early 2000s, producing hit singles for artists such as Jay-Z and Alicia Keys. Intent on pursuing a solo career as a rapper, West released his debut album The College Dropout in 2004 to widespread commercial and critical success, and founded record label GOOD Music. He went on to explore a variety of different musical styles on subsequent albums that included the baroque-inflected Late Registration (2005), the arena-inspired Graduation (2007), and the starkly polarizing 808s & Heartbreak (2008). In 2010, he released his critically acclaimed fifth album, the maximalist My Beautiful Dark Twisted Fantasy, and the following year he collaborated with Jay-Z on the joint LP Watch the Throne (2011). West released his abrasive sixth album, Yeezus, to further critical praise in 2013. Following a series of recording delays and work on non-musical projects, West's seventh album, The Life of Pablo, was released in 2016.
How many albums has Kanye sold?
56cf58f7aab44d1400b890b5
32 million
75
False
How many downloads do Kanye's tracks have across the globe?
56cf58f7aab44d1400b890b6
100 million
97
False
Kanye is known for having the most of what type of award for his age?
56cf58f7aab44d1400b890b7
Grammy
163
False
How many albums does Kanye have on the "500 Greatest Albums of All Time" list?
56cf58f7aab44d1400b890b8
3
75
False
What popular magazine placed Kanye on their annual list in 2005 and 2015?
56cf58f7aab44d1400b890b9
Time
357
False
How many CDs has Kanye West sold?
56d0f8a117492d1400aab6ad
32 million
75
False
How many Grammy Awards has Kanye West won?
56d0f8a117492d1400aab6ae
21
160
False
How many of Kanye West's albums were recognized by Rolling Stone Magazine?
56d0f8a117492d1400aab6af
3
75
False
Which years was Kanye West mentioned in Time Magazine?
56d0f8a117492d1400aab6b0
2005 and 2015
617
False
West is one of the best-selling artists of all time, having sold more than 32 million albums and 100 million digital downloads worldwide. He has won a total of 21 Grammy Awards, making him one of the most awarded artists of all time and the most Grammy-awarded artist of his age. Three of his albums rank on Rolling Stone's 2012 "500 Greatest Albums of All Time" list; two of his albums feature at first and eighth, respectively, in Pitchfork Media's The 100 Best Albums of 2010–2014. He has also been included in a number of Forbes annual lists. Time named him one of the 100 most influential people in the world in 2005 and 2015.
What subject did Kanye's mother teach at her university?
56cf5e7eaab44d1400b89158
English
504
False
What Georgia city was Kanye West born?
56d0fb0317492d1400aab6c9
Atlanta
45
False
What was the name of the business that Kanye West helped fund in 2006?
56d0fb0317492d1400aab6cb
Good Water Store and Café
351
False
Where did Kanye West's mother work before becoming his manager?
56d0fb0317492d1400aab6cc
Chicago State University
584
False
What was the name of Kanye West's high school?
56d0fb0317492d1400aab6cd
Polaris High School
706
False
Kanye Omari West was born on June 8, 1977 in Atlanta, Georgia. His parents divorced when he was three and he and his mother moved to Chicago, Illinois. His father, Ray West, is a former Black Panther and was one of the first black photojournalists at The Atlanta Journal-Constitution. Ray West was later a Christian counselor, and in 2006, opened the Good Water Store and Café in Lexington Park, Maryland with startup capital from his son. West's mother, Dr. Donda C. (Williams) West, was a professor of English at Clark Atlanta University, and the Chair of the English Department at Chicago State University before retiring to serve as his manager. West was raised in a middle-class background, attending Polaris High School in suburban Oak Lawn, Illinois after living in Chicago.
Where did Kanye and his mother relocate when he was 10?
56cf5ee8aab44d1400b8915d
Nanjing, China
48
False
While staying in China, Kanye was the only what in his class?
56cf5ee8aab44d1400b8915e
foreigner
184
False
How well did Kanye do in high school?
56cf5ee8aab44d1400b8915f
A's and B's
373
False
At what age did Kanye West relocate to China?
56d0fb7817492d1400aab6dd
10
14
False
What University was the cause of West's mother moving the family to China?
56d0fb7817492d1400aab6de
Nanjing University
90
False
At the age of 10, West moved with his mother to Nanjing, China, where she was teaching at Nanjing University as part of an exchange program. According to his mother, West was the only foreigner in his class, but settled in well and quickly picked up the language, although he has since forgotten most of it. When asked about his grades in high school, West replied, "I got A's and B's. And I'm not even frontin'."
What was Kanye creating when he was five?
56cf5f6daab44d1400b89163
poetry
77
False
What was one of the first tracks written by Kanye when he was 13?
56cf5f6daab44d1400b89164
"Green Eggs and Ham"
499
False
Who did Kanye meet early in his career who later mentored him?
56cf5f6daab44d1400b89165
DJ No I.D.
821
False
What activity did Kanye West start doing when he was five?
56d0fccf17492d1400aab6f5
writing poetry
69
False
What was the name of the song he wrote at age thirteen?
56d0fccf17492d1400aab6f7
Green Eggs and Ham
500
False
What was the name of the producer that helped Kanye West?
56d0fccf17492d1400aab6f8
No I.D.
824
False
West demonstrated an affinity for the arts at an early age; he began writing poetry when he was five years old. His mother recalled that she first took notice of West's passion for drawing and music when he was in the third grade. Growing up in the city,[which?] West became deeply involved in its hip hop scene. He started rapping in the third grade and began making musical compositions in the seventh grade, eventually selling them to other artists. At age thirteen, West wrote a rap song called "Green Eggs and Ham" and began to persuade his mother to pay $25 an hour for time in a recording studio. It was a small, crude basement studio where a microphone hung from the ceiling by a wire clothes hanger. Although this wasn't what West's mother wanted, she nonetheless supported him. West crossed paths with producer/DJ No I.D., with whom he quickly formed a close friendship. No I.D. soon became West's mentor, and it was from him that West learned how to sample and program beats after he received his first sampler at age 15.
Where did Kanye receive a scholarship to attend?
56cf5fc7aab44d1400b89173
American Academy of Art
83
False
How old was Kanye when he dropped out of college?
56cf5fc7aab44d1400b89174
20
316
False
What school did Kanye West go to in 1997?
56d0fdf617492d1400aab6fd
Chicago's American Academy of Art
73
False
What subject was Kanye West's focus at Chicago State University?
56d0fdf617492d1400aab6fe
English
217
False
At what age did Kanye West leave school to follow his musical passion?
56d0fdf617492d1400aab6ff
20
316
False
What was the name of the CD that Kanye recorded based on his failed college experience?
56d0fdf617492d1400aab700
College Dropout
636
False
After graduating from high school, West received a scholarship to attend Chicago's American Academy of Art in 1997 and began taking painting classes, but shortly after transferred to Chicago State University to study English. He soon realized that his busy class schedule was detrimental to his musical work, and at 20 he dropped out of college to pursue his musical dreams. This action greatly displeased his mother, who was also a professor at the university. She later commented, "It was drummed into my head that college is the ticket to a good life... but some career goals don't require college. For Kanye to make an album called College Dropout it was more about having the guts to embrace who you are, rather than following the path society has carved out for you."
Who were the beats Kanye made in the 90's originally intended for?
56cf6057aab44d1400b89177
local artists
101
False
What types of records did Kanye sample in his early career.
56cf6057aab44d1400b89178
classic soul records
191
False
What music group did Kanye join when he couldn't release his solo album?
56cf6057aab44d1400b8917a
Go-Getters
587
False
In what time period did Kanye begin producing?
56d0fe7217492d1400aab705
mid-1990s
52
False
When did Kanye West start his production career?
56d45f882ccc5a1400d830ef
mid-1990s
52
False
For which artist did Kanye West act as a ghost producer?
56d45f882ccc5a1400d830f0
Deric "D-Dot" Angelettie
427
False
What late 1990s Chicago rap group was Kanye West a member of?
56d45f882ccc5a1400d830f1
Go-Getters
587
False
What firm managed Kanye West's rap group?
56d45f882ccc5a1400d830f2
Hustle Period
793
False
What year was the first Go-Getters album released?
56d45f882ccc5a1400d830f3
1999
978
False
Kanye West began his early production career in the mid-1990s, making beats primarily for burgeoning local artists, eventually developing a style that involved speeding up vocal samples from classic soul records. His first official production credits came at the age of nineteen when he produced eight tracks on Down to Earth, the 1996 debut album of a Chicago rapper named Grav. For a time, West acted as a ghost producer for Deric "D-Dot" Angelettie. Because of his association with D-Dot, West wasn't able to release a solo album, so he formed and became a member and producer of the Go-Getters, a late-1990s Chicago rap group composed of him, GLC, Timmy G, Really Doe, and Arrowstar. His group was managed by John "Monopoly" Johnson, Don Crowley, and Happy Lewis under the management firm Hustle Period. After attending a series of promotional photo shoots and making some radio appearances, The Go-Getters released their first and only studio album World Record Holders in 1999. The album featured other Chicago-based rappers such as Rhymefest, Mikkey Halsted, Miss Criss, and Shayla G. Meanwhile, the production was handled by West, Arrowstar, Boogz, and Brian "All Day" Miller.
Kanye produced the third song from the second album of what artist?
56cf6141aab44d1400b89195
Foxy Brown
123
False
What rappers were featured in the songs that Kanye produced for Tell 'Em Why U Madd?
56cf6141aab44d1400b89198
Ma$e, Raekwon, and Eminem.
1117
False
Which U.S. Billboard 200 chart topper did Kanye West produce a song for?
56d100b517492d1400aab708
Foxy Brown
123
False
What was the name of the CD produced by Kanye that was by a made-up character?
56d100b517492d1400aab70a
Tell 'Em Why U Madd
845
False
West spent much of the late-1990s producing records for a number of well-known artists and music groups. The third song on Foxy Brown's second studio album Chyna Doll was produced by West. Her second effort subsequently became the very first hip-hop album by a female rapper to debut at the top of the U.S. Billboard 200 chart in its first week of release. West produced three of the tracks on Harlem World's first and only album The Movement alongside Jermaine Dupri and the production duo Trackmasters. His songs featured rappers Nas, Drag-On, and R&B singer Carl Thomas. The ninth track from World Party, the last Goodie Mob album to feature the rap group's four founding members prior to their break-up, was co-produced by West with his manager Deric "D-Dot" Angelettie. At the close of the millennium, West ended up producing six songs for Tell 'Em Why U Madd, an album that was released by D-Dot under the alias of The Madd Rapper; a fictional character he created for a skit on The Notorious B.I.G.'s second and final studio album Life After Death. West's songs featured guest appearances from rappers such as Ma$e, Raekwon, and Eminem.
What label did Kanye begin to work for in 2000?
56cf61d7aab44d1400b891ad
Roc-A-Fella Records
81
False
What album did Kanye receive production credits on in 2001?
56cf61d7aab44d1400b891ae
The Blueprint
255
False
In what year did Roc-A-Fella make Kanye West known?
56d1015e17492d1400aab70e
2000
35
False
What was the name of the CD West produced for Jay Z in 2001?
56d1015e17492d1400aab70f
The Blueprint
255
False
West got his big break in the year 2000, when he began to produce for artists on Roc-A-Fella Records. West came to achieve recognition and is often credited with revitalizing Jay-Z's career with his contributions to the rap mogul's influential 2001 album The Blueprint. The Blueprint is consistently ranked among the greatest hip-hop albums, and the critical and financial success of the album generated substantial interest in West as a producer. Serving as an in-house producer for Roc-A-Fella Records, West produced records for other artists from the label, including Beanie Sigel, Freeway, and Cam'ron. He also crafted hit songs for Ludacris, Alicia Keys, and Janet Jackson.
Although Kanye was achieving fame by producing, what did he actually want to be?
56cf626faab44d1400b891b3
rapper
70
False
What label declined to work with Kanye after many meetings?
56cf626faab44d1400b891b4
Capitol Records
410
False
What career was Kanye's ultimate dream?
56d101c417492d1400aab718
rapper
70
False
What did Kanye West not have that made record companies turn him down?
56d101c417492d1400aab719
gangsta image
319
False
Which record company turned Kanye down after many meetings?
56d101c417492d1400aab71a
Capitol Records
410
False
Despite his success as a producer, West's true aspiration was to be a rapper. Though he had developed his rapping long before he began producing, it was often a challenge for West to be accepted as a rapper, and he struggled to attain a record deal. Multiple record companies ignored him because he did not portray the gangsta image prominent in mainstream hip hop at the time. After a series of meetings with Capitol Records, West was ultimately denied an artist deal.
Who almost picked up Kanye but was ultimately swayed?
56cf637caab44d1400b891b7
Joe Weinberger
35
False
What label finally (although reluctantly) picked up Kanye?
56cf637caab44d1400b891b8
Roc-A-Fella
294
False
What did Kanye's peers see him as while he tried to pursue his rap career?
56cf637caab44d1400b891b9
a producer
436
False
What man was almost ready to give Kanye a record deal?
56d1021117492d1400aab71e
Joe Weinberger
35
False
What record company eventually signed Kanye West?
56d1021117492d1400aab71f
Roc-A-Fella
294
False
According to Capitol Record's A&R, Joe Weinberger, he was approached by West and almost signed a deal with him, but another person in the company convinced Capitol's president not to. Desperate to keep West from defecting to another label, then-label head Damon Dash reluctantly signed West to Roc-A-Fella Records. Jay-Z later admitted that Roc-A-Fella was initially reluctant to support West as a rapper, claiming that many saw him as a producer first and foremost, and that his background contrasted with that of his labelmates.
What track did Kanye compose and perform while injured from his accident?
56cf6438aab44d1400b891c8
Through The Wire
478
False
What was the name of Kanye's 2002 mixtape that he wrote while in the hospital?
56cf6438aab44d1400b891c9
Get Well Soon...
836
False
After dropping his mixtape, Kanye revealed the name of his debut album to be what?
56cf6438aab44d1400b891ca
The College Dropout
958
False
What was the date of Kanye's car wreck?
56d1034017492d1400aab722
October 23, 2002
41
False
What song did Kanye record about his experience with what happened after the wreck?
56d1034017492d1400aab723
"Through The Wire"
477
False
What was the name of the mixtape Kanye released in December of 2002?
56d1034017492d1400aab724
Get Well Soon
836
False
West's breakthrough came a year later on October 23, 2002, when, while driving home from a California recording studio after working late, he fell asleep at the wheel and was involved in a near-fatal car crash. The crash left him with a shattered jaw, which had to be wired shut in reconstructive surgery. The accident inspired West; two weeks after being admitted to the hospital, he recorded a song at the Record Plant Studios with his jaw still wired shut. The composition, "Through The Wire", expressed West's experience after the accident, and helped lay the foundation for his debut album, as according to West "all the better artists have expressed what they were going through". West added that "the album was my medicine", as working on the record distracted him from the pain. "Through The Wire" was first available on West's Get Well Soon... mixtape, released December 2002. At the same time, West announced that he was working on an album called The College Dropout, whose overall theme was to "make your own decisions. Don't let society tell you, 'This is what you have to do.'"
What happened to Kanye's debut album that caused him to remaster most of it?
56cf64d24df3c31400b0d6f3
it was leaked
313
False
How many times was the release date for Kanye's first album pushed back?
56cf64d24df3c31400b0d6f5
3
972
False
In what city did West finish recording his first album?
56d1042317492d1400aab72e
Los Angeles
228
False
How many times was The College Dropout's release put off?
56d1042317492d1400aab72f
3
972
False
What was supposed to be the original release date for The College Dropout?
56d1042317492d1400aab730
August 2003
962
False
Carrying a Louis Vuitton backpack filled with old disks and demos to the studio and back, West crafted much of his production for his debut album in less than fifteen minutes at a time. He recorded the remainder of the album in Los Angeles while recovering from the car accident. Once he had completed the album, it was leaked months before its release date. However, West decided to use the opportunity to review the album, and The College Dropout was significantly remixed, remastered, and revised before being released. As a result, certain tracks originally destined for the album were subsequently retracted, among them "Keep the Receipt" with Ol' Dirty Bastard and "The Good, the Bad, and the Ugly" with Consequence. West meticulously refined the production, adding string arrangements, gospel choirs, improved drum programming and new verses. West's perfectionism led The College Dropout to have its release postponed three times from its initial date in August 2003.
What place on the Billboard chart did Kanye's album debut at?
56cf657b4df3c31400b0d6ff
2
69
False
How many publications voted The College Dropout for album of the year?
56cf657b4df3c31400b0d700
2
69
False
What was the name of the single off the debut album that gave Kanye mainstream attention?
56cf657b4df3c31400b0d701
Jesus Walks
635
False
What label did Kanye create following the success of his first album's release?
56cf657b4df3c31400b0d703
GOOD Music
1201
False
When was The College Dropout finally released?
56d1056017492d1400aab752
February 2004
60
False
What song was the second released off of Kanye's The College Dropout album?
56d1056017492d1400aab754
"Slow Jamz"
231
False
How many Grammy nominations did The College Dropout receive?
56d1056017492d1400aab755
10
205
False
What was the name of the record label that West founded?
56d1056017492d1400aab756
GOOD Music
1201
False
The College Dropout was eventually issued by Roc-A-Fella in February 2004, shooting to number two on the Billboard 200 as his debut single, "Through the Wire" peaked at number fifteen on the Billboard Hot 100 chart for five weeks. "Slow Jamz", his second single featuring Twista and Jamie Foxx, became an even bigger success: it became the three musicians' first number one hit. The College Dropout received near-universal critical acclaim from contemporary music critics, was voted the top album of the year by two major music publications, and has consistently been ranked among the great hip-hop works and debut albums by artists. "Jesus Walks", the album's fourth single, perhaps exposed West to a wider audience; the song's subject matter concerns faith and Christianity. The song nevertheless reached the top 20 of the Billboard pop charts, despite industry executives' predictions that a song containing such blatant declarations of faith would never make it to radio. The College Dropout would eventually be certified triple platinum in the US, and garnered West 10 Grammy nominations, including Album of the Year, and Best Rap Album (which it received). During this period, West also founded GOOD Music, a record label and management company that would go on to house affiliate artists and producers, such as No I.D. and John Legend. At the time, the focal point of West's production style was the use of sped-up vocal samples from soul records. However, partly because of the acclaim of The College Dropout, such sampling had been much copied by others; with that overuse, and also because West felt he had become too dependent on the technique, he decided to find a new sound.
What kind of ensemble did Kanye hire to work on his second album?
56cf66344df3c31400b0d70a
string orchestra
561
False
What composer worked alongside Kanye on the album's production?
56cf66344df3c31400b0d70b
Jon Brion
670
False
What was the name of Kanye's second studio album?
56cf66344df3c31400b0d70c
Late Registration
599
False
How many copies of Late Registration sold in its first year?
56cf66344df3c31400b0d70d
2.3 million
1048
False
What English music group was an inspiration for Kanye West on his second album?
56d1060e17492d1400aab763
Portishead
223
False
What was the name of West's second album?
56d1060e17492d1400aab764
Late Registration
599
False
How many copies of Late Registration were sold in the United States?
56d1060e17492d1400aab765
2.3 million
1048
False
Beginning his second effort that fall, West would invest two million dollars and take over a year to craft his second album. West was significantly inspired by Roseland NYC Live, a 1998 live album by English trip hop group Portishead, produced with the New York Philharmonic Orchestra. Early in his career, the live album had inspired him to incorporate string arrangements into his hip-hop production. Though West had not been able to afford many live instruments around the time of his debut album, the money from his commercial success enabled him to hire a string orchestra for his second album Late Registration. West collaborated with American film score composer Jon Brion, who served as the album's co-executive producer for several tracks. Although Brion had no prior experience in creating hip-hop records, he and West found that they could productively work together after their first afternoon in the studio where they discovered that neither confined his musical knowledge and vision to one specific genre. Late Registration sold over 2.3 million units in the United States alone by the end of 2005 and was considered by industry observers as the only successful major album release of the fall season, which had been plagued by steadily declining CD sales.
The loss of which award caused Kanye to leave the American Music Awards?
56cf67034df3c31400b0d71d
Best New Artist
122
False
Kanye participated alongside Mike Meyers in a relief benefit show for what natural disaster?
56cf67034df3c31400b0d71e
Hurricane Katrina
265
False
What magazine did Kanye don a thorn crown for the cover of in 2006?
56cf67034df3c31400b0d720
Rolling Stone
875
False
In which AMA category did Kanye lose in 2004?
56d1071617492d1400aab77e
Best New Artist
122
False
Which actor was alongside Kanye West when he insulted President Bush?
56d1071617492d1400aab77f
Mike Myers
431
False
What magazine did Kanye West pose for in 2006 that caused another controversy?
56d1071617492d1400aab780
Rolling Stone
875
False
What broadcast for NBC was Kanye presenting for when he spoke negatively about President Bush?
56d1071617492d1400aab781
A Concert for Hurricane Relief
325
False
While West had encountered controversy a year prior when he stormed out of the American Music Awards of 2004 after losing Best New Artist, the rapper's first large-scale controversy came just days following Late Registration's release, during a benefit concert for Hurricane Katrina victims. In September 2005, NBC broadcast A Concert for Hurricane Relief, and West was a featured speaker. When West was presenting alongside actor Mike Myers, he deviated from the prepared script. Myers spoke next and continued to read the script. Once it was West's turn to speak again, he said, "George Bush doesn't care about black people." West's comment reached much of the United States, leading to mixed reactions; President Bush would later call it one of the most "disgusting moments" of his presidency. West raised further controversy in January 2006 when he posed on the cover of Rolling Stone wearing a crown of thorns.
What band did Kanye tour with for a year?
56cf67ca4df3c31400b0d735
U2
60
False
What setting did Kanye want his next tracks to perform well in?
56cf67ca4df3c31400b0d736
large arenas
174
False
Who did Kanye study in order to develop his lyrical skills?
56cf67ca4df3c31400b0d738
Bob Dylan and Johnny Cash
713
False
Which band did Kanye West travel with for the Vertigo Tour?
56d1084017492d1400aab7a0
U2
60
False
What decade of music inspired Kanye West after his tour with U2?
56d1084017492d1400aab7a1
1980s
358
False
Other than U2 and Led Zeppelin, what other band inspired Kanye West?
56d1084017492d1400aab7a2
The Rolling Stones
444
False
What other country singer besides Johnny Cash did Kanye listen to?
56d1084017492d1400aab7a3
Bob Dylan
713
False
Fresh off spending the previous year touring the world with U2 on their Vertigo Tour, West felt inspired to compose anthemic rap songs that could operate more efficiently in large arenas. To this end, West incorporated the synthesizer into his hip-hop production, utilized slower tempos, and experimented with electronic music and influenced by music of the 1980s. In addition to U2, West drew musical inspiration from arena rock bands such as The Rolling Stones and Led Zeppelin in terms of melody and chord progression. To make his next effort, the third in a planned tetralogy of education-themed studio albums, more introspective and personal in lyricism, West listened to folk and country singer-songwriters Bob Dylan and Johnny Cash in hopes of developing methods to augment his wordplay and storytelling ability.
What was the name of Kanye's third album?
56cf68594df3c31400b0d73d
Graduation
27
False
Kanye released Graduation at the same time of what other famous rapper, thus drawing media comparison?
56cf68594df3c31400b0d73e
50 Cent
136
False
How many copies did Graduation sell in its first week of release?
56cf68594df3c31400b0d73f
957,000
302
False
What famous electronic duo did Kanye sample on his third album?
56cf68594df3c31400b0d740
Daft Punk
555
False
What was the name of Kanye West's third CD?
56d1091117492d1400aab7bc
Graduation
27
False
What artist was Kanye's third album release competing against?
56d1091117492d1400aab7bd
50 Cent
136
False
What music group was in Kanye's first release off of Graduation?
56d1091117492d1400aab7bf
Daft Punk
555
False
West's third studio album, Graduation, garnered major publicity when its release date pitted West in a sales competition against rapper 50 Cent's Curtis. Upon their September 2007 releases, Graduation outsold Curtis by a large margin, debuting at number one on the U.S. Billboard 200 chart and selling 957,000 copies in its first week. Graduation once again continued the string of critical and commercial successes by West, and the album's lead single, "Stronger", garnered the rapper his third number-one hit. "Stronger", which samples French house duo Daft Punk, has been accredited to not only encouraging other hip-hop artists to incorporate house and electronica elements into their music, but also for playing a part in the revival of disco and electro-infused music in the late 2000s. Ben Detrick of XXL cited the outcome of the sales competition between 50 Cent's Curtis and West's Graduation as being responsible for altering the direction of hip-hop and paving the way for new rappers who didn't follow the hardcore-gangster mold, writing, "If there was ever a watershed moment to indicate hip-hop's changing direction, it may have come when 50 Cent competed with Kanye in 2007 to see whose album would claim superior sales."
Following the loss of his mother, who did Kanye end his long-term relationship with?
56cf694f4df3c31400b0d750
Alexis Phifer
207
False
What vocal technology did Kanye pick up for his next set of artistic endeavors?
56cf694f4df3c31400b0d751
Auto-Tune
545
False
In what year did Kanye West's mother pass away?
56d109f317492d1400aab7ca
2007
170
False
What was the name of Kanye's ex-fiance?
56d109f317492d1400aab7cb
Alexis Phifer
207
False
What was the name of Kanye's 2008 music tour?
56d109f317492d1400aab7cc
Glow in the Dark Tour
378
False
In what state did Kanye West record them majority of his fourth album?
56d109f317492d1400aab7cd
Hawaii
799
False
What was the first song released off of Kanye's fourth album?
56d109f317492d1400aab7ce
"Love Lockdown"
946
False
West's life took a different direction when his mother, Donda West, died of complications from cosmetic surgery involving abdominoplasty and breast reduction in November 2007. Months later, West and fiancée Alexis Phifer ended their engagement and their long-term intermittent relationship, which had begun in 2002. The events profoundly affected West, who set off for his 2008 Glow in the Dark Tour shortly thereafter. Purportedly because his emotions could not be conveyed through rapping, West decided to sing using the voice audio processor Auto-Tune, which would become a central part of his next effort. West had previously experimented with the technology on his debut album The College Dropout for the background vocals of "Jesus Walks" and "Never Let Me Down." Recorded mostly in Honolulu, Hawaii in three weeks, West announced his fourth album, 808s & Heartbreak, at the 2008 MTV Video Music Awards, where he performed its lead single, "Love Lockdown". Music audiences were taken aback by the uncharacteristic production style and the presence of Auto-Tune, which typified the pre-release response to the record.
What label pushed out Kanye's fourth studio album?
56cf6a0f4df3c31400b0d757
Island Def Jam
164
False
Which album by Kanye West featured the song "Love Lockdown"?
56d10a6617492d1400aab7de
808s & Heartbreak
0
False
808s & Heartbreak was released by what company?
56d460ca2ccc5a1400d83103
Island Def Jam
164
False
When was 808s & Heartbreaks released?
56d460ca2ccc5a1400d83104
November 2008
220
False
What was the second song released off of 808s?
56d460ca2ccc5a1400d83105
Heartless
546
False
The major usage of musical machine on 808s was described as eponymous?
56d460ca2ccc5a1400d83107
Roland TR-808 drum machine
65
False
808s & Heartbreak, which features extensive use of the eponymous Roland TR-808 drum machine and contains themes of love, loneliness, and heartache, was released by Island Def Jam to capitalize on Thanksgiving weekend in November 2008. Reviews were positive, though slightly more mixed than his previous efforts. Despite this, the record's singles demonstrated outstanding chart performances. Upon its release, the lead single "Love Lockdown" debuted at number three on the Billboard Hot 100 and became a "Hot Shot Debut", while follow-up single "Heartless" performed similarly and became his second consecutive "Hot Shot Debut" by debuting at number four on the Billboard Hot 100. While it was criticized prior to release, 808s & Heartbreak had a significant effect on hip-hop music, encouraging other rappers to take more creative risks with their productions.
What journalist gave "808s and Hearbreak" critical acclimation 4 years after its release?
56cf6aa44df3c31400b0d75f
Matthew Trammell
34
False
What was the name of the journalist that wrote about Kanye's album in 2012?
56d10ab617492d1400aab7ee
Matthew Trammell
34
False
In 2012, Rolling Stone journalist Matthew Trammell asserted that the record was ahead of its time and wrote, "Now that popular music has finally caught up to it, 808s & Heartbreak has revealed itself to be Kanye’s most vulnerable work, and perhaps his most brilliant."
Where did Kanye's famous mic-grab incident occur at?
56cf6b6f4df3c31400b0d76b
2009 MTV Video Music Awards
56
False
From who did Kanye grab the mic from to make his statement?
56cf6b6f4df3c31400b0d76c
Taylor Swift
266
False
Kanye's tour with what artist was cancelled following his outburst at the VMA's?
56cf6b6f4df3c31400b0d76e
Lady Gaga
538
False
In what year did Kanye's biggest controversy so far take place?
56d10b8517492d1400aab7f0
2009
56
False
What artist did Kanye West interrupt Taylor Swift to defend?
56d10b8517492d1400aab7f1
Beyoncé
315
False
Which artist was Kanye supposed to tour with, but couldn't due to the Taylor Swift controversy?
56d10b8517492d1400aab7f2
Lady Gaga
538
False
What awards ceremony did Kanye not receive any nominations for after the MTV controversy?
56d10b8517492d1400aab7f3
52nd Grammy Awards
710
False
West's controversial incident the following year at the 2009 MTV Video Music Awards was arguably his biggest controversy, and led to widespread outrage throughout the music industry. During the ceremony, West crashed the stage and grabbed the microphone from winner Taylor Swift in order to proclaim that, instead, Beyoncé's video for "Single Ladies (Put a Ring on It)", nominated for the same award, was "one of the best videos of all time". He was subsequently withdrawn from the remainder of the show for his actions. West's tour with Lady Gaga was cancelled in response to the controversy, and it was suggested that the incident was partially responsible for 808s & Heartbreak's lack of nominations at the 52nd Grammy Awards.
Where did Kanye base himself to create his next album?
56cf6c824df3c31400b0d773
Hawaii
128
False
What industry did Kanye turn to after taking a break from recording music?
56d10be817492d1400aab802
fashion
100
False
What state did Kanye West hide in while writing his next album?
56d10be817492d1400aab803
Hawaii
128
False
Following the highly publicized incident, West took a brief break from music and threw himself into fashion, only to hole up in Hawaii for the next few months writing and recording his next album. Importing his favorite producers and artists to work on and inspire his recording, West kept engineers behind the boards 24 hours a day and slept only in increments. Noah Callahan-Bever, a writer for Complex, was present during the sessions and described the "communal" atmosphere as thus: "With the right songs and the right album, he can overcome any and all controversy, and we are here to contribute, challenge, and inspire." A variety of artists contributed to the project, including close friends Jay-Z, Kid Cudi and Pusha T, as well as off-the-wall collaborations, such as with Justin Vernon of Bon Iver.
What is the name of Kanye's album released in 2010?
56cf6e364df3c31400b0d78d
My Beautiful Dark Twisted Fantasy
0
False
What award was My Beautiful Dark Twisted Fantasy omitted from?
56cf6e364df3c31400b0d790
Album of the Year
902
False
What was the name of Kanye's fifth album?
56d10ca817492d1400aab818
My Beautiful Dark Twisted Fantasy
0
False
When was Kanye West's fifth album debuted?
56d10ca817492d1400aab819
November 2010
78
False
What song off of Kanye's fifth album was a hit internationally?
56d10ca817492d1400aab81a
"All of the Lights"
405
False
What was the name of the free music promotion on Kanye's website in 2010?
56d10ca817492d1400aab81b
GOOD Fridays
603
False
My Beautiful Dark Twisted Fantasy, West's fifth studio album, was released in November 2010 to rave reviews from critics, many of whom described it as his best work that solidified his comeback. In stark contrast to his previous effort, which featured a minimalist sound, Dark Fantasy adopts a maximalist philosophy and deals with themes of celebrity and excess. The record included the international hit "All of the Lights", and Billboard hits "Power", "Monster", and "Runaway", the latter of which accompanied a 35-minute film of the same name. During this time, West initiated the free music program GOOD Fridays through his website, offering a free download of previously unreleased songs each Friday, a portion of which were included on the album. This promotion ran from August 20 - December 17, 2010. Dark Fantasy went on to go platinum in the United States, but its omission as a contender for Album of the Year at the 54th Grammy Awards was viewed as a "snub" by several media outlets.
What festival did Kanye headline in 2011?
56cf71134df3c31400b0d7a3
Coachella
30
False
With what other hiphop artist did Kanye collaborate with?
56cf71134df3c31400b0d7a4
Jay-Z
197
False
Where did Kanye premier a film directed by himself in 2012?
56cf71134df3c31400b0d7a5
Cannes Film Festival
831
False
What event did Kanye headline in 2011?
56d10dc217492d1400aab82e
Coachella
30
False
What was the name of the joint album Kanye made with Jay Z?
56d10dc217492d1400aab82f
Watch the Throne
175
False
What was the top single off the album "Watch the Throne"?
56d10dc217492d1400aab830
"Niggas in Paris"
402
False
In what year was "Cruel Summer" released?
56d10dc217492d1400aab831
2012
517
False
What film festival did Kanye West premier a film called "Cruel Summer"?
56d10dc217492d1400aab832
2012 Cannes Film Festival
826
False
Following a headlining set at Coachella 2011 that was described by The Hollywood Reporter as "one of greatest hip-hop sets of all time", West released the collaborative album Watch the Throne with Jay-Z. By employing a sales strategy that released the album digitally weeks before its physical counterpart, Watch the Throne became one of the few major label albums in the Internet age to avoid a leak. "Niggas in Paris" became the record's highest charting single, peaking at number five on the Billboard Hot 100. In 2012, West released the compilation album Cruel Summer, a collection of tracks by artists from West's record label GOOD Music. Cruel Summer produced four singles, two of which charted within the top twenty of the Hot 100: "Mercy" and "Clique". West also directed a film of the same name that premiered at the 2012 Cannes Film Festival in custom pyramid-shaped screening pavilion featuring seven screens.
Where did Kanye begin production on his sixth album?
56cf71dc4df3c31400b0d7a9
Paris
116
False
What became the name of his sixth studio album?
56cf71dc4df3c31400b0d7ac
Yeezus
653
False
Who did Kanye tour alongside of in order to promote the efforts of Yeezus?
56cf71dc4df3c31400b0d7ad
Kendrick Lamar
1079
False
In what year did Kanye West begin working on his sixth album?
56d10ec717492d1400aab85a
2013
67
False
What was the inspiration behind Kanye West's decision to call Rick Rubin?
56d10ec717492d1400aab85b
architecture
333
False
What was the name of Kanye's sixth album?
56d10ec717492d1400aab85c
Yeezus
653
False
On what date was Yeezus released?
56d10ec717492d1400aab85d
June 18, 2013
694
False
What artist did Kanye go on tour with while promoting album number six?
56d10ec717492d1400aab85e
Kendrick Lamar
1079
False
Sessions for West's sixth solo effort begin to take shape in early 2013 in his own personal loft's living room at a Paris hotel. Determined to "undermine the commercial", he once again brought together close collaborators and attempted to incorporate Chicago drill, dancehall, acid house, and industrial music. Primarily inspired by architecture, West's perfectionist tendencies led him to contact producer Rick Rubin fifteen days shy of its due date to strip down the record's sound in favor of a more minimalist approach. Initial promotion of his sixth album included worldwide video projections of the album's music and live television performances. Yeezus, West's sixth album, was released June 18, 2013 to rave reviews from critics. It became the rapper's sixth consecutive number one debut, but also marked his lowest solo opening week sales. Def Jam issued "Black Skinhead" to radio in July 2013 as the album's lead single. On September 6, 2013, Kanye West announced he would be headlining his first solo tour in five years, to support Yeezus, with fellow American rapper Kendrick Lamar accompanying him along the way.
What was the name of Kanye's first child with Kim Kardashian?
56cf737e4df3c31400b0d7b3
North
103
False
What brand set to collaborate on an apparel line with Kanye?
56cf737e4df3c31400b0d7b4
Adidas
369
False
What famous British artist worked with Kanye on multiple singles?
56cf737e4df3c31400b0d7b5
Paul McCartney
675
False
Where did Kanye perform his single "All Day" with a menagerie of other artists?
56cf737e4df3c31400b0d7b6
2015 BRIT Awards
1317
False
Who is the mother of Kanye's first child?
56d10fb217492d1400aab876
Kim Kardashian
46
False
What is Kanye West's first child's name?
56d10fb217492d1400aab877
North
103
False
In what Italian city were Kim Kardashian and Kanye West wed?
56d10fb217492d1400aab878
Florence
555
False
What musician joined Kanye West on the song "Only One"?
56d10fb217492d1400aab879
Paul McCartney
675
False
What was the name of the Adidas clothing line by Kanye West that he released in 2013?
56d10fb217492d1400aab87a
Yeezy Season 1
1078
False
In June 2013, West and television personality Kim Kardashian announced the birth of their first child, North. In October 2013, the couple announced their engagement to widespread media attention. November 2013, West stated that he was beginning work on his next studio album, hoping to release it by mid-2014, with production by Rick Rubin and Q-Tip. In December 2013, Adidas announced the beginning of an official apparel collaboration with West, to be premiered the following year. In May 2014, West and Kardashian were married in a private ceremony in Florence, Italy, with a variety of artists and celebrities in attendance. West released a single, "Only One", featuring Paul McCartney, on December 31, 2014. "FourFiveSeconds", a single jointly produced with Rihanna and McCartney, was released in January 2015. West also appeared on the Saturday Night Live 40th Anniversary Special, where he premiered a new song entitled "Wolves", featuring Sia Furler and fellow Chicago rapper, Vic Mensa. In February 2015, West premiered his clothing collaboration with Adidas, entitled Yeezy Season 1, to generally positive reviews. This would include West's Yeezy Boost sneakers. In March 2015, West released the single "All Day" featuring Theophilus London, Allan Kingdom and Paul McCartney. West performed the song at the 2015 BRIT Awards with a number of US rappers and UK grime MC's including: Skepta, Wiley, Novelist, Fekky, Krept & Konan, Stormzy, Allan Kingdom, Theophilus London and Vic Mensa. He would premiere the second iteration of his clothing line, Yeezy Season 2, in September 2015 at New York Fashion Week.
What did Kanye change the title of his next planned album from So Help Me God to?
56cf741f4df3c31400b0d7bb
SWISH
170
False
From which institution did Kanye receive an honorary doctorate?
56cf741f4df3c31400b0d7bc
Art Institute of Chicago
255
False
How many people signed a petition to keep Kanye from performing at Glastonbury Festival?
56cf741f4df3c31400b0d7bd
135,000
487
False
What was the original name of Kanye's album "SWISH"?
56d1109717492d1400aab88e
So Help Me God
48
False
What school awarded Kanye west an honorary doctorate?
56d1109717492d1400aab88f
School of the Art Institute of Chicago
241
False
How many people petitioned his show at the Glastonbury Music Festival in the UK?
56d1109717492d1400aab890
135,000
487
False
Having initially announced a new album entitled So Help Me God slated for a 2014 release, in March 2015 West announced that the album would instead be tentatively called SWISH. Later that month, West was awarded an honorary doctorate by the School of the Art Institute of Chicago for his contributions to music, fashion, and popular culture, officially making him an honorary DFA. The next month, West headlined at the Glastonbury Festival in the UK, despite a petition signed by almost 135,000 people against his appearance. At one point, he told the audience: "You are now watching the greatest living rock star on the planet." Media outlets, including social media sites such as Twitter, were sharply divided on his performance. NME stated, "The decision to book West for the slot has proved controversial since its announcement, and the show itself appeared to polarise both Glastonbury goers and those who tuned in to watch on their TVs." The publication added that "he's letting his music speak for and prove itself." The Guardian said that "his set has a potent ferocity – but there are gaps and stutters, and he cuts a strangely lone figure in front of the vast crowd."
What was the tentative release date announced for Kanye's next studio album?
56cf74cf4df3c31400b0d7c1
February 11
127
False
What was Kanye's next album renamed again to?
56cf74cf4df3c31400b0d7c2
Waves
414
False
With what other rapper did Kanye west have a Twitter feud with in early 2016?
56cf74cf4df3c31400b0d7c3
Wiz Khalifa
658
False
What became the final title of Kanye's next album?
56cf74cf4df3c31400b0d7c4
The Life of Pablo
1072
False
What platform was The Life of Pablo officially released on?
56cf74cf4df3c31400b0d7c5
Tidal
1508
False
What song  by West was debuted in December 2015?
56d1119817492d1400aab89e
"Facts"
46
False
On January 26, 2016, Kanye told the world he changed the name of his next album from SWISH to what?
56d1119817492d1400aab8a0
Waves
414
False
What artist did Kanye West have a feud with over Amber Rose?
56d1119817492d1400aab8a1
Wiz Khalifa
658
False
What was the name of Kanye's clothing line premiered at Madison Square Garden?
56d1119817492d1400aab8a2
Yeezy Season 3
459
False
In December 2015, West released a song titled "Facts". He announced in January 2016 on Twitter that SWISH would be released on February 11, after releasing new song "Real Friends" and a snippet of "No More Parties in L.A." with Kendrick Lamar. This also revived the GOOD Fridays initiative in which Kanye releases new singles every Friday. On January 26, 2016, West revealed he had renamed the album from SWISH to Waves, and also announced the premier of his Yeezy Season 3 clothing line at Madison Square Garden. In early 2016, several weeks prior to the release of his new album, West became embroiled in a short-lived social media altercation with rapper Wiz Khalifa on Twitter that eventually involved their mutual ex-partner, Amber Rose, who protested to West's mention of her and Khalifa's child. The feud involved allegations by Rose concerning her sexual relationship with West, and received significant media attention. As of February 2, 2016, West and Khalifa had reconciled. Several days ahead of the album's release, West again changed the title, this time to The Life of Pablo. On February 11, West premiered the album at Madison Square Garden as part of the presentation of his Yeezy Season 3 clothing line. Following the preview, West announced that he would be modifying the track list once more before its release to the public, and further delayed its release to finalize the recording of the track "Waves" at the behest of co-writer Chance the Rapper. He released the album exclusively on Tidal on 14 February 2016 following a performance on SNL.
What English musician did Kanye cite as one of his biggest inspirations?
56cf755f4df3c31400b0d7cb
David Bowie
396
False
Kanye has stated that members from which rap group influenced his early style?
56cf755f4df3c31400b0d7cc
Wu-Tang Clan
908
False
What name did Kanye's early production style coin.
56cf755f4df3c31400b0d7cd
chipmunk soul
601
False
What artist was named by Kanye West to be his "most important inspiration"?
56d1126f17492d1400aab8a8
David Bowie
396
False
Who was Kanye's greatest cultural figure?
56d1126f17492d1400aab8a9
Puff Daddy
472
False
What was the name of the song that first featured Kanye's "chipmunk soul" style?
56d1126f17492d1400aab8aa
"This Can't Be Life"
817
False
West's musical career has been defined by frequent stylistic shifts, and has seen him develop and explore a variety of different musical approaches and genres throughout his work. When asked about his musical inspirations, he has named A Tribe Called Quest, Stevie Wonder, Michael Jackson, George Michael, LL Cool J, Phil Collins and Madonna as early interests. He has further described musician David Bowie as one of his "most important inspirations," and named producer Puff Daddy as the "most important cultural figure in my life." Early in his career, West pioneered a style of production dubbed "chipmunk soul" which utilized pitched-up vocal samples, usually from soul and R&B songs, along with his own drums and instrumentation. His first major release featuring his trademark soulful vocal sampling style was "This Can't Be Life", a track from Jay-Z’s The Dynasty: Roc La Familia. West has said that Wu-Tang Clan producer RZA influenced him in his style, and has named Wu-Tang rappers Ghostface Killah and Ol' Dirty Bastard as inspirations. RZA spoke positively of the comparisons, stating in an interview for Rolling Stone, "All good. I got super respect for Kanye [...] [he] is going to inspire people to be like him." West further developed his style on his 2004 debut album, The College Dropout. After a rough version was leaked, he meticulously refined the production, adding string arrangements, gospel choirs, and improved drum programming.
What composer did Kanye collaborate with for his second record?
56cf75e24df3c31400b0d7db
Jon Brion
89
False
What classical elements did Brion bring to the production of Kanye's album?
56cf75e24df3c31400b0d7dc
orchestral elements, including string arrangements, piano chords, brass flecks, and horn riffs among other symphonic instrumentation
371
False
What sort of orchestra did Kanye tour with while promoting his second album?
56cf75e24df3c31400b0d7dd
a string section
1112
False
What composer did Kanye West work with for his second album?
56d1134017492d1400aab8ae
Jon Brion
89
False
What English trip-hop group helped influence Kanye on his second album?
56d1134017492d1400aab8af
Portishead
173
False
For his second album, Late Registration (2005), he collaborated with film score composer Jon Brion and drew influence from non-rap influences such as English trip hop group Portishead. Blending West's primary soulful hip hop production with Brion's elaborate chamber pop orchestration, the album experimentally incorporated a wide array of different genres and prominent orchestral elements, including string arrangements, piano chords, brass flecks, and horn riffs among other symphonic instrumentation. It also incorporated a myriad of foreign and vintage instruments not typical in popular music, let alone hip hop, such as a celesta, harpsichord, Chamberlin, CS-80 analog synthesizer, Chinese bells and berimbau, vibraphones, and marimba. Rolling Stone described Late Registration as West claiming "the whole world of music as hip-hop turf" chronicling the album as "his mad quest to explode every cliché about hip-hop identity." Critic Robert Christgau wrote that "there's never been hip-hop so complex and subtle musically." For a period of time, Kanye West stood as the sole current pop star to tour with a string section, as audible on his 2006 live album Late Orchestration.
What was the name of Kanye's third record?
56cf76924df3c31400b0d7e1
Graduation
22
False
What musical direction did Kanye take with his third album?
56cf76924df3c31400b0d7e2
more atmospheric, rock-tinged, electronic-influenced soundscape
111
False
Kanye drew inspiration from The Rolling Stones, U2, and Led Zeppelin in what ways?
56cf76924df3c31400b0d7e3
melody and chord progression
778
False
What year was Kanye West's third album released?
56d113b717492d1400aab8b2
2007
34
False
With his third album, Graduation (2007), West moved away from the sound of his previous releases and towards a more atmospheric, rock-tinged, electronic-influenced soundscape. The musical evolution arose from him listening to music genres encompassing European Britpop and Euro-disco, American alternative and indie-rock, and his native Chicago house. Towards this end, West retracted much of the live instrumentation that characterized his previous album and replaced it with heavy, gothic synthesizers, distorted synth-chords, rave stabs, house beats, electro-disco rhythms, and a wide array of modulated electronic noises and digital audio-effects. In addition, West drew musical inspiration from arena rock bands such as The Rolling Stones, U2, and Led Zeppelin in terms of melody and chord progression.
What kind of sound did Kanye abandon a rap and hiphop one for with his fourth album?
56cf77214df3c31400b0d7e7
electropop
184
False
Who did Kanye become inspired by while creating 808s & Heartbreak?
56cf77214df3c31400b0d7e8
Gary Numan, TJ Swan and Boy George
345
False
What types of instruments are present on his fourth album?
56cf77214df3c31400b0d7e9
dense drums, lengthy strings, droning synthesizers, and somber piano
810
False
What other artist besides Gary Numan and TJ Swan helped inspire Kanye's fourth album?
56d114a717492d1400aab8b4
Boy George
369
False
What other type of 1980s group was Kanye's fourth album compared to other than new wave?
56d114a717492d1400aab8b5
post-punk
922
False
The article about Kanye's fourth album written by Matthew Trammell was published in what magazine?
56d114a717492d1400aab8b6
Rolling Stone
1043
False
West's fourth studio album, 808s & Heartbreak (2008), marked an even more radical departure from his previous releases, largely abandoning rap and hip hop stylings in favor of a stark electropop sound composed of virtual synthesis, the Roland TR-808 drum machine, and explicitly auto-tuned vocal tracks. Drawing inspiration from artists such as Gary Numan, TJ Swan and Boy George, and maintaining a "minimal but functional" approach towards the album's studio production, West explored the electronic feel produced by Auto-Tune and utilized the sounds created by the 808, manipulating its pitch to produce a distorted, electronic sound; he then sought to juxtapose mechanical sounds with the traditional sounds of taiko drums and choir monks. The album's music features austere production and elements such as dense drums, lengthy strings, droning synthesizers, and somber piano, and drew comparisons to the work of 1980s post-punk and new wave groups, with West himself later confessing an affinity with British post-punk group Joy Division. Rolling Stone journalist Matthew Trammell asserted that the record was ahead of its time and wrote in a 2012 article, "Now that popular music has finally caught up to it, 808s & Heartbreak has revealed itself to be Kanye’s most vulnerable work, and perhaps his most brilliant."
What is Kanye's fifth album titled?
56cf776c4df3c31400b0d7ed
My Beautiful Dark Twisted Fantasy
20
False
What journalist drew comparisons between My Beautiful Dark Twisted Fantasy and other Kanye albums?
56cf776c4df3c31400b0d7ee
Simon Vozick-Levinson
201
False
What musician collaborated with Kanye West for his album Late Registration?
56d1162117492d1400aab8e4
Jon Brion
688
False
What artist worked with Kanye on his album Graduation?
56d1162117492d1400aab8e5
DJ Toomp
721
False
Kid Cudi joined Kanye for which album?
56d1162117492d1400aab8e6
808s & Heartbreak
462
False
Which album by Kanye West has been talked about by writers for having maximalist aesthetic?
56d1162117492d1400aab8e7
My Beautiful Dark Twisted Fantasy
20
False
West's fifth album, My Beautiful Dark Twisted Fantasy, has been noted by writers for its maximalist aesthetic and its incorporation of elements from West's previous four albums. Entertainment Weekly's Simon Vozick-Levinson perceives that such elements "all recur at various points", namely "the luxurious soul of 2004's The College Dropout, the symphonic pomp of Late Registration, the gloss of 2007's Graduation, and the emotionally exhausted electro of 2008's 808s & Heartbreak". Sean Fennessey of The Village Voice writes that West "absorb[ed] the gifts of his handpicked collaborators, and occasionally elevat[ed] them" on previous studio albums, noting collaborators and elements as Jon Brion for Late Registration, DJ Toomp for Graduation, and Kid Cudi for 808s & Heartbreak.
What did Kanye state that Yeezus was?
56cf77e34df3c31400b0d7f1
a protest to music
52
False
What artist did Kanye draw inspiration from when crafting Yeezus?
56cf77e34df3c31400b0d7f3
Le Corbusier
235
False
In what year was Kanye West's sixth album released?
56d1177617492d1400aab907
2013
42
False
What was the title of Kanye's sixth album?
56d1177617492d1400aab908
Yeezus
34
False
Describing his sixth studio album Yeezus (2013) as "a protest to music," West embraced an abrasive style that incorporated industrial music, acid house, dancehall, punk, electro, and Chicago drill. Inspired by the minimalist design of Le Corbusier and primarily electronic in nature, the album features distorted drum machines and "synthesizers that sound like they're malfunctioning, low-resolution samplers that add a pixelated digital aura to the most analog sounds." To this end, the album incorporates glitches reminiscent of CD skips or corrupted MP3's, and Auto-Tuned vocals are modulated to a point in which they are difficult to decipher. It also continues West's practice of eclectic samples: he employs a sample of Nina Simone's "Strange Fruit," an obscure Hindi sample on "I Am a God", and a sample of 1970s Hungarian rock group Omega on "New Slaves". "On Sight" interpolates a melody from "Sermon (He'll Give Us What We Really Need)" by the Holy Name of Mary Choral Family. Rolling Stone called the album a "brilliant, obsessive-compulsive career auto-correct".
What did Kanye announce he would release after acquiring a Grammy in 2005?
56cf78874df3c31400b0d7f7
clothing line
207
False
What finally become of Kanye's clothing line in 2009?
56cf78874df3c31400b0d7f9
cancelled
367
False
When did Kanye West annouce his Pastelle Clothing line?
56d118a217492d1400aab91a
September 2005
3
False
What year was Kanye's Pastelle Clothing Line scrapped?
56d118a217492d1400aab91c
2009
380
False
What company worked with Kanye in 2009 to create his own shoe line?
56d118a217492d1400aab91d
Nike
418
False
For what brand did Kanye design a shoe meant for Paris Fashion Week?
56d118a217492d1400aab91e
Louis Vuitton
570
False
In September 2005, West announced that he would release his Pastelle Clothing line in spring 2006, claiming "Now that I have a Grammy under my belt and Late Registration is finished, I am ready to launch my clothing line next spring." The line was developed over the following four years – with multiple pieces teased by West himself – before the line was ultimately cancelled in 2009. In 2009, West collaborated with Nike to release his own shoe, the Air Yeezys, with a second version released in 2012. In January 2009, West introduced his first shoe line designed for Louis Vuitton during Paris Fashion Week. The line was released in summer 2009. West has additionally designed shoewear for Bape and Italian shoemaker Giuseppe Zanotti.
Form whom was Kanye's 2011 fashion label designed for?
56cf78de4df3c31400b0d7ff
women
45
False
What kind of reviews did Kanye's fashion line spark?
56cf78de4df3c31400b0d800
mixed-to-negative reviews
311
False
When did Kanye debut his second effort in the fashion world?
56cf78de4df3c31400b0d801
March 6, 2012
563
False
On what day was Kanye's women's clothing line debuted?
56d1191f17492d1400aab936
October 1, 2011
3
False
What was the name of Kanye West's women's clothing line?
56d1191f17492d1400aab937
DW Kanye West
68
False
On what day was Kanye's women's line premiered at Paris fashion week?
56d461fc2ccc5a1400d83117
October 1, 2011
3
False
What was the name of West's fashion line for women?
56d461fc2ccc5a1400d83118
DW Kanye West
68
False
The fashion line shown in Paris received what sort of reviews?
56d461fc2ccc5a1400d83119
mixed-to-negative
311
False
On what day did West release his second fashion line?
56d461fc2ccc5a1400d8311a
March 6, 2012
563
False
On October 1, 2011, Kanye West premiered his women's fashion label, DW Kanye West at Paris Fashion Week. He received support from DSquared2 duo Dean and Dan Caten, Olivier Theyskens, Jeremy Scott, Azzedine Alaïa, and the Olsen twins, who were also in attendance during his show. His debut fashion show received mixed-to-negative reviews, ranging from reserved observations by Style.com to excoriating commentary by The Wall Street Journal, The New York Times, the International Herald Tribune, Elleuk.com, The Daily Telegraph, Harper's Bazaar and many others. On March 6, 2012, West premiered a second fashion line at Paris Fashion Week. The line's reception was markedly improved from the previous presentation, with a number of critics heralding West for his "much improved" sophomore effort.
What brand struck a deal with Kanye and sparked a new clothing line?
56cf796e4df3c31400b0d805
Adidas
21
False
How many "seasons" of clothing did Kanye release?
56cf796e4df3c31400b0d806
3
12
False
What were the shoes designed by Kanye and released by Adidas called?
56cf796e4df3c31400b0d807
Adidas Yeezy Boosts
165
False
How many pairs of shoes were sold in the initial release in New York City?
56cf796e4df3c31400b0d808
9000
627
False
What shoe was announced on Twitter by Kanye West?
56d119ff17492d1400aab94d
Adidas Yeezy Boosts
165
False
In what year did Kanye premier his Season line?
56d119ff17492d1400aab94e
2015
259
False
What album release coincided with Kanye's Yeezy Season 3 clothing line?
56d119ff17492d1400aab94f
The Life of Pablo
1085
False
On December 3, 2013, Adidas officially confirmed a new shoe collaboration deal with West. After months of anticipation and rumors, West confirmed the release of the Adidas Yeezy Boosts with a Twitter announcement directing fans to the domain yeezy.supply. In 2015, West unveiled his Yeezy Season clothing line, premiering Season 1 in collaboration with Adidas early in the year. The release of the Yeezy Boosts and the full Adidas collaboration was showcased in New York City on February 12, 2015, with free streaming to 50 cinemas in 13 countries around the world. An initial release of the Adidas Yeezy Boosts was limited to 9000 pairs to be available only in New York City via the Adidas smartphone app; the Adidas Yeezy Boosts were sold out within 10 minutes. The shoes released worldwide on February 28, 2015, were limited to select boutique stores and the Adidas UK stores. He followed with Season 2 later that year at New York Fashion Week. On February 11, West premiered his Yeezy Season 3 clothing line at Madison Square Garden in conjunction with the previewing of his album The Life of Pablo.
What restaurant chain did Kanye aspire to open in his native Chicago?
56cf79be4df3c31400b0d80d
Fatburger
47
False
How many restaurants did Kanye open?
56cf79be4df3c31400b0d80e
2
10
False
What happened to the Fatburger chains that Kanye established?
56cf79be4df3c31400b0d80f
shut down
424
False
What was the name of the restaurant Kanye annouced he was opening?
56d11a9217492d1400aab975
Fatburger
47
False
How many  of Kanye's Fatburger restaurants were actually opened?
56d11a9217492d1400aab976
2
10
False
When was Kanye's last Fatburger restaurant closed?
56d11a9217492d1400aab977
2011
413
False
What is the name of Kanye West's food company?
56d11a9217492d1400aab978
KW Foods LLC
287
False
In August 2008, West revealed plans to open 10 Fatburger restaurants in the Chicago area; the first was set to open in September 2008 in Orland Park. The second followed in January 2009, while a third location is yet to be revealed, although the process is being finalized. His company, KW Foods LLC, bought the rights to the chain in Chicago. Ultimately, in 2009, only two locations actually opened. In February 2011, West shut down the Fatburger located in Orland Park. Later that year, the remaining Beverly location also was shuttered.
What did Kanye call the label he founded in 2004?
56cf7a5a4df3c31400b0d813
GOOD Music
53
False
As of 2015, who did Kanye choose as the new president of GOOD Music?
56cf7a5a4df3c31400b0d816
Pusha T
282
False
What year did Kanye West open his GOOD Music production company and record label?
56d11bb017492d1400aab999
2004
67
False
What other artist besides Kanye West and Common was among the first to record at GOOD Music?
56d11bb017492d1400aab99a
John Legend
165
False
Who did Kanye name President of GOOD Music in 2015?
56d11bb017492d1400aab99c
Pusha T
282
False
West founded the record label and production company GOOD Music in 2004, in conjunction with Sony BMG, shortly after releasing his debut album, The College Dropout. John Legend, Common, and West were the label's inaugural artists. The label houses artists including West, Big Sean, Pusha T, Teyana Taylor, Yasiin Bey / Mos Def, D'banj and John Legend, and producers including Hudson Mohawke, Q-Tip, Travis Scott, No I.D., Jeff Bhasker, and S1. GOOD Music has released ten albums certified gold or higher by the Recording Industry Association of America (RIAA). In November 2015, West appointed Pusha T the new president of GOOD Music.
What was the goal of Kanye's new creative company DONDA?
56cf7b7e4df3c31400b0d81c
to make products and experiences that people want and can afford
377
False
Kanye's creative content company DONDA was named after who?
56d11c3317492d1400aab9af
mother Donda West
113
False
On what date did Kanye go public with his DONDA company?
56d11c3317492d1400aab9b0
January 5, 2012
3
False
On January 5, 2012, West announced his establishment of the creative content company DONDA, named after his late mother Donda West. In his announcement, West proclaimed that the company would "pick up where Steve Jobs left off"; DONDA would operate as "a design company which will galvanize amazing thinkers in a creative space to bounce their dreams and ideas" with the "goal to make products and experiences that people want and can afford." West is notoriously secretive about the company's operations, maintaining neither an official website nor a social media presence. In stating DONDA's creative philosophy, West articulated the need to "put creatives in a room together with like minds" in order to "simplify and aesthetically improve everything we see, taste, touch, and feel.". Contemporary critics have noted the consistent minimalistic aesthetic exhibited throughout DONDA creative projects.
What platform was Kanye named  a co-owner of in 2015?
56cf7bf44df3c31400b0d829
Tidal
126
False
What longtime friend of Kanye acquired Tidal in 2015?
56cf7bf44df3c31400b0d82a
Jay-Z
313
False
What criticisms of other streaming platforms does Tidal stand to challenge?
56cf7bf44df3c31400b0d82c
low payout of royalties
739
False
What music streaming service is Kanye West a co-owner of?
56d11c7317492d1400aab9b3
Tidal
126
False
What is Tidal's specialization?
56d463112ccc5a1400d8312a
lossless audio and high definition music videos
160
False
Which famous rapper bought Aspiro?
56d463112ccc5a1400d8312b
Jay Z
209
False
What music service is a huge competitor for Tidal?
56d463112ccc5a1400d8312c
Spotify
693
False
On March 30, 2015, it was announced that West is a co-owner, with various other music artists, in the music streaming service Tidal. The service specialises in lossless audio and high definition music videos. Jay Z acquired the parent company of Tidal, Aspiro, in the first quarter of 2015. Including Beyoncé and Jay-Z, sixteen artist stakeholders (such as Rihanna, Beyoncé, Madonna, Chris Martin, Nicki Minaj and more) co-own Tidal, with the majority owning a 3% equity stake. The idea of having an all artist owned streaming service was created by those involved to adapt to the increased demand for streaming within the current music industry, and to rival other streaming services such as Spotify, which have been criticised for their low payout of royalties. "The challenge is to get everyone to respect music again, to recognize its value", stated Jay-Z on the release of Tidal.
With the help of his mom, what foundation did Kanye create early in his career?
56cf7c394df3c31400b0d83b
Kanye West Foundation
41
False
What is the goal of the Kanye West Foundation?
56cf7c394df3c31400b0d83c
battle dropout and illiteracy rates, while partnering with community organizations to provide underprivileged youth access to music education
109
False
What was founded by Kanye West and his mother?
56d11ed617492d1400aab9dd
Kanye West Foundation
41
False
In What year did the Kanye West Foundation Partner with Strong American Schools?
56d4647c2ccc5a1400d83130
2007
255
False
Where was the "Kanye West Foundation" founded?
56d4647c2ccc5a1400d83131
Chicago
67
False
What other mission besides dropout and illiteracy rates did the Kanye West Foundation seek to improve?
56d4647c2ccc5a1400d83132
music education
235
False
What campaign did the Kanye West Foundation partner with in 2007?
56d4647c2ccc5a1400d83133
"Ed in '08"
345
False
In what month was the inaugural concert held for the "Ed in '08" campaign?
56d4647c2ccc5a1400d83134
August
497
False
West, alongside his mother, founded the "Kanye West Foundation" in Chicago in 2003, tasked with a mission to battle dropout and illiteracy rates, while partnering with community organizations to provide underprivileged youth access to music education. In 2007, the West and the Foundation partnered with Strong American Schools as part of their "Ed in '08" campaign. As spokesman for the campaign, West appeared in a series of PSAs for the organization, and hosted an inaugural benefit concert in August of that year.
What was the Kanye West Foundation renamed to in 2008?
56cf7c634df3c31400b0d83f
The Dr. Donda West Foundation
80
False
What year did the foundation end its run?
56cf7c634df3c31400b0d840
2011
149
False
In what year did Kanye West's mother pass away?
56d464a92ccc5a1400d8313a
2008
3
False
Kanye's foundation was changed to what name following his mother's death?
56d464a92ccc5a1400d8313b
The Dr. Donda West Foundation
80
False
What year did the foundation stop operating?
56d464a92ccc5a1400d8313c
2008
3
False
In 2008, following the death of West's mother, the foundation was rechristened "The Dr. Donda West Foundation."  The foundation ceased operations in 2011.
What are some charitable efforts Kanye west has participated in?
56cf7cb54df3c31400b0d843
100 Black Men of America, a Live Earth concert benefit, World Water Day rally
200
False
West has additionally appeared and participated in many fundraisers, benefit concerts, and has done community work for Hurricane Katrina relief, the Kanye West Foundation, the Millions More Movement, 100 Black Men of America, a Live Earth concert benefit, World Water Day rally and march, Nike runs, and a MTV special helping young Iraq War veterans who struggle through debt and PTSD a second chance after returning home.
During what show did Kanye take an opportunity to criticize the efforts of a U.S. President?
56cf7d1f4df3c31400b0d845
A Concert for Hurricane Relief
298
False
Which U.S. President did Kanye criticize after the events of Hurricane Katrina?
56cf7d1f4df3c31400b0d846
George W. Bush
374
False
Which President did Kanye West accuse of "Not caring for black people"?
56d1216117492d1400aaba17
George W. Bush
374
False
On what day did the Kanye's famous George W. Bush criticism take place?
56d1216117492d1400aaba18
September 2, 2005
217
False
West has been an outspoken and controversial celebrity throughout his career, receiving both criticism and praise from many, including the mainstream media, other artists and entertainers, and two U.S. presidents. On September 2, 2005, during a benefit concert for Hurricane Katrina relief on NBC, A Concert for Hurricane Relief, West (a featured speaker) accused President George W. Bush of not "car[ing] about black people". When West was presenting alongside actor Mike Myers, he deviated from the prepared script to criticize the media's portrayal of hurricane victims, saying:
What happened after Kanye made his controversial statement?
56cf7d414df3c31400b0d849
Rick Kaplan cut off the microphone and then cut away to Chris Tucker
180
False
Who did Kanye West say doesn't care about black people?
56d123f217492d1400aaba4f
George Bush
101
False
Myers spoke next and continued to read the script. Once it was West's turn to speak again, he said, "George Bush doesn't care about black people." At this point, telethon producer Rick Kaplan cut off the microphone and then cut away to Chris Tucker, who was unaware of the cut for a few seconds. Still, West's comment reached much of the United States.
How did George W. Bush describe Kanye's controversial statement?
56cf7db14df3c31400b0d84b
"one of the most disgusting moments" of his presidency
49
False
To which reporter did Kanye West express regret for his remark about President Bush?
56d1247817492d1400aaba5a
Matt Lauer
149
False
Bush stated in an interview that the comment was "one of the most disgusting moments" of his presidency. In November 2010, in a taped interview with Matt Lauer for the Today show, West expressed regret for his criticism of Bush. "I would tell George Bush in my moment of frustration, I didn't have the grounds to call him a racist", he told Lauer. "I believe that in a situation of high emotion like that we as human beings don't always choose the right words." The following day, Bush reacted to the apology in a live interview with Lauer saying he appreciated the rapper's remorse. "I'm not a hater", Bush said. "I don't hate Kanye West. I was talking about an environment in which people were willing to say things that hurt. Nobody wants to be called a racist if in your heart you believe in equality of races." Reactions were mixed, but some felt that West had no need to apologize. "It was not the particulars of your words that mattered, it was the essence of a feeling of the insensitivity towards our communities that many of us have felt for far too long", argued Def Jam co-founder Russell Simmons. Bush himself was receptive to the apology, saying, "I appreciate that. It wasn't just Kanye West who was talking like that during Katrina, I cited him as an example, I cited others as an example as well. You know, I appreciate that."
Kanye was criticized by human rights groups for performing in what country?
56cf7e194df3c31400b0d851
Kazakhstan
84
False
How much was Kanye paid to perform in Kazakhstan?
56cf7e194df3c31400b0d852
$3 million
456
False
How is Kazakhstan's human rights record compared to the rest of the world?
56cf7e194df3c31400b0d853
one of the poorest
207
False
What country's President paid Kanye West to perform at his grandson's wedding?
56d4662d2ccc5a1400d83140
Kazakhstan
84
False
Kanye, Shakira, and Rage Against the Machine refused to perform in what state due to a new law against illegal aliens?
56d4662d2ccc5a1400d83142
Arizona
614
False
For what reason did Sting and other artists cancel their scheduled performances in Kazakhstan?
56d4662d2ccc5a1400d83143
human rights concerns
406
False
In September 2013, West was widely rebuked by human rights groups for performing in Kazakhstan at the wedding of authoritarian President Nursultan Nazarbayev's grandson. He traveled to Kazakhstan, which has one of the poorest human rights records in the world, as a personal guest of Nazarbayev. Other notable Western performers, including Sting, have previously cancelled performances in the country over human rights concerns. West was reportedly paid US$3 million for his performance. West had previously participated in cultural boycotts, joining Shakira and Rage Against The Machine in refusing to perform in Arizona after the 2010 implementation of stop and search laws directed against potential illegal aliens.
What TV show lampooned one of Kanye's BBC Radio 1 interviews?
56cf7e584df3c31400b0d857
Jimmy Kimmel Live!
111
False
What did Kanye demand from Jimmy Kimmel in regards to the sketch?
56cf7e584df3c31400b0d858
an apology
378
False
What person was Kanye's rant on Twitter directed at?
56d4672e2ccc5a1400d83148
Jimmy Kimmel
76
False
The skit on JImmy Kimmel Live! was a depiction of Kanye West and what reporter?
56d4672e2ccc5a1400d83149
Zane Lowe
223
False
On what radio station did Kanye West deem himself "the biggest rockstar on the planet"?
56d4672e2ccc5a1400d8314a
BBC Radio 1
237
False
Later in 2013, West launched a tirade on Twitter directed at talk show host Jimmy Kimmel after his ABC program Jimmy Kimmel Live! ran a sketch on September 25 involving two children re-enacting West's recent interview with Zane Lowe for BBC Radio 1 in which he calls himself the biggest rock star on the planet. Kimmel reveals the following night that West called him to demand an apology shortly before taping.
What president did Kanye comment on as having trouble pushing policies while in office?
56cf7f014df3c31400b0d85b
Obama
90
False
What type of people did Kanye state had more power than Black people?
56cf7f014df3c31400b0d85c
Jewish people
404
False
On what day did Kanye do an interview about President Obama pushing policies in Washington?
56d126e117492d1400aaba96
November 26, 2013
9
False
On what day did Kanye take back his original comment about Jews?
56d126e117492d1400aaba97
December 21, 2013
667
False
During a November 26, 2013 radio interview, West explained why he believed that President Obama had problems pushing policies in Washington: "Man, let me tell you something about George Bush and oil money and Obama and no money. People want to say Obama can't make these moves or he's not executing. That's because he ain't got those connections. Black people don't have the same level of connections as Jewish people...We ain't Jewish. We don't got family that got money like that." In response to his comments, the Anti-Defamation League stated: "There it goes again, the age-old canard that Jews are all-powerful and control the levers of power in government." On December 21, 2013, West backed off of the original comment and told a Chicago radio station that "I thought I was giving a compliment, but if anything it came off more ignorant. I don’t know how being told you have money is an insult."
What celebrity knee-deep in controversy did Kanye endorse in a 2016 tweet?
56cf7f274df3c31400b0d85f
Bill Cosby
104
False
What actor was Kanye defending on Twitter in February 2016?
56d1270917492d1400aaba9a
Bill Cosby
104
False
In February 2016, West again became embroiled in controversy when he posted a tweet seemingly asserting Bill Cosby's innocence in the wake of over 50 women making allegations of sexual assault directed at Cosby.
To who did Kanye lose the Best New Artist award in 2004?
56cf7fa24df3c31400b0d861
Gretchen Wilson
225
False
The video for what song failed to win an award for again in 2006, leading to an onstage outburst by Kanye?
56cf7fa24df3c31400b0d862
Touch the Sky
696
False
What artist did Kanye West lose "Best New Artist" to at the 2004 AMAs?
56d127d617492d1400aabaac
Gretchen Wilson
225
False
Which Kanye West video failed to win Best Video at the MTV Europe Music Awards?
56d127d617492d1400aabaad
Touch the Sky
696
False
On what day did Kanye apologize for his ranting at the MTV Europe Awards?
56d127d617492d1400aabaae
November 7, 2006
991
False
What show did Kanye perform a spoof about the incident at the MTV Europe Awards?
56d127d617492d1400aabaaf
Saturday Night Live
1197
False
In 2004, West had his first of a number of public incidents during his attendance at music award events. At the American Music Awards of 2004, West stormed out of the auditorium after losing Best New Artist to country singer Gretchen Wilson. He later commented, "I felt like I was definitely robbed [...] I was the best new artist this year." After the 2006 Grammy nominations were released, West said he would "really have a problem" if he did not win the Album of the Year, saying, "I don't care what I do, I don't care how much I stunt – you can never take away from the amount of work I put into it. I don't want to hear all of that politically correct stuff." On November 2, 2006, when his "Touch the Sky" failed to win Best Video at the MTV Europe Music Awards, West went onto the stage as the award was being presented to Justice and Simian for "We Are Your Friends" and argued that he should have won the award instead. Hundreds of news outlets worldwide criticized the outburst. On November 7, 2006, West apologized for this outburst publicly during his performance as support act for U2 for their Vertigo concert in Brisbane. He later spoofed the incident on the 33rd season premiere of Saturday Night Live in September 2007.
What did Kanye believe was a contributing factor in him not opening for the 2007 MTV VMAs?
56cf7ff54df3c31400b0d865
race
46
False
With what song did Kanye aspire to open the VMAs with?
56cf7ff54df3c31400b0d866
Stronger
583
False
What factor did Kanye West accuse of being the reason for his being excluded for the opening of the 2007 VMAs?
56d1285417492d1400aabac6
his race
42
False
What song was Kanye's dream to perform on the VMAs?
56d1285417492d1400aabac8
"Stronger"
582
False
On September 9, 2007, West suggested that his race had something to do with his being overlooked for opening the 2007 MTV Video Music Awards (VMAs) in favor of Britney Spears; he claimed, "Maybe my skin’s not right." West was performing at the event; that night, he lost all five awards that he was nominated for, including Best Male Artist and Video of the Year. After the show, he was visibly upset that he had lost at the VMAs two years in a row, stating that he would not come back to MTV ever again. He also appeared on several radio stations saying that when he made the song "Stronger" that it was his dream to open the VMAs with it. He has also stated that Spears has not had a hit in a long period of time and that MTV exploited her for ratings.
What artist's award reception did Kanye interrupt onstage at the 2009 MTV VMAs?
56cf80a34df3c31400b0d869
Taylor Swift
68
False
Which U.S. President criticized Kanye for his VMA outburst?
56cf80a34df3c31400b0d86b
Obama
682
False
Which President called Kanye West a jackass for his behavior at the 2009 VMAs?
56d128e817492d1400aabad5
President Barack Obama
665
False
On September 13, 2009, during the 2009 MTV Video Music Awards while Taylor Swift was accepting her award for Best Female Video for "You Belong with Me", West went on stage and grabbed the microphone to proclaim that Beyoncé's video for "Single Ladies (Put a Ring on It)", nominated for the same award, was "one of the best videos of all time". He was subsequently removed from the remainder of the show for his actions. When Beyoncé later won the award for Best Video of the Year for "Single Ladies (Put a Ring on It)", she called Swift up on stage so that she could finish her acceptance speech. West was criticized by various celebrities for the outburst, and by President Barack Obama, who called West a "jackass". In addition, West's VMA disruption sparked a large influx of Internet photo memes with blogs, forums and "tweets" with the "Let you finish" photo-jokes. He posted a Tweet soon after the event where he stated, "Everybody wanna booooo me but I'm a fan of real pop culture... I'm not crazy y'all, I'm just real." He then posted two apologies for the outburst on his personal blog; one on the night of the incident, and the other the following day, when he also apologized during an appearance on The Jay Leno Show. After Swift appeared on The View two days after the outburst, partly to discuss the matter, West called her to apologize personally. Swift said she accepted his apology.
To which artist did Kanye profusely apologize to?
56cf80ec4df3c31400b0d871
Taylor Swift
907
False
What song did Kanye end up writing that referenced his outburst against Taylor Swift?
56cf80ec4df3c31400b0d872
Famous
619
False
When did Kanye West post to Twitter apoloizing to Taylor Swift?
56d1297b17492d1400aabaf2
September 2010
3
False
When did Kanye take back his apology to Taylor Swift, saying that he was being "selfless"?
56d1297b17492d1400aabaf3
November 8, 2010
383
False
What album by Kanye was released in 2016?
56d1297b17492d1400aabaf4
The Life of Pablo
656
False
In September 2010, West wrote a series of apologetic tweets addressed to Swift including "Beyonce didn't need that. MTV didn't need that and Taylor and her family friends and fans definitely didn't want or need that" and concluding with "I'm sorry Taylor." He also revealed he had written a song for Swift and if she did not accept the song, he would perform it himself. However, on November 8, 2010, in an interview with a Minnesota radio station, he seemed to recant his past apologies by attempting to describe the act at the 2009 awards show as "selfless" and downgrade the perception of disrespect it created. In "Famous," a track from his 2016 album The Life of Pablo, West implies that this incident led to Swift's stardom, rapping, "I feel like me and Taylor might still have sex/ Why? I made that bitch famous." After some media backlash about the reference, West posted on Twitter "I did not diss Taylor Swift and I've never dissed her...First thing is I'm an artist and as an artist I will express how I feel with no censorship." He continued by adding that he had asked both Swift and his wife, Kim Kardashian, for permission to publish the line.
Which artist's award reception did Kanye interrupt at the 57th Grammy Awards?
56cf818d234ae51400d9bdc5
Beck
79
False
To who did Kanye state that Beck should hand his award over to?
56cf818d234ae51400d9bdc6
Beyoncé
351
False
What artist's acceptance speech did Kanye interrupt by walking on stage at the 57th Grammys?
56d129e517492d1400aabb02
Beck
79
False
What day did Kanye apologize to Beck on Twitter?
56d129e517492d1400aabb03
February 26, 2015
364
False
On February 8, 2015, at the 57th Annual Grammy Awards, West walked on stage as Beck was accepting his award for Album of the Year and then walked off stage, making everyone think he was joking around. After the awards show, West stated in an interview that he was not joking and that "Beck needs to respect artistry, he should have given his award to Beyoncé". On February 26, 2015, he publicly apologized to Beck on Twitter.
What award did Kanye capture at the 2015 MTV VMAs?
56cf81bf234ae51400d9bdc9
Michael Jackson Video Vanguard Award
48
False
When does Kanye intend to run for president?
56cf81bf234ae51400d9bdca
2020
390
False
What award was presented to Kanye West on August 30, 2015?
56d12a1817492d1400aabb1a
Michael Jackson Video Vanguard Award
48
False
On August 30, 2015, West was presented with the Michael Jackson Video Vanguard Award at the MTV Video Music Awards. In his acceptance speech, he stated, "Y'all might be thinking right now, 'I wonder did he smoke something before he came out here?' And the answer is: 'Yes, I rolled up a little something. I knocked the edge off.'" At the end of his speech, he announced, "I have decided in 2020 to run for president."
For what event was the largest amount of signatures collected in an attempt to keep Kanye from performing at it?
56cf822f234ae51400d9bdcd
Glastonbury Festival 2015
161
False
What was another event that garnered a large amount of protest for Kanye's removal of headliner status?
56cf822f234ae51400d9bdce
2015 Pan American Games
375
False
What website have music fans been using to try to block Kanye West's performance at different events?
56d12aa917492d1400aabb22
Change.org
26
False
What festival was the largest failed petition to keep Kanye from performing?
56d12aa917492d1400aabb23
Glastonbury Festival
161
False
How many signatures were gathered for Kanye's removal from the 2015 Pan American Games?
56d12aa917492d1400aabb24
50,000
435
False
Music fans have turned to Change.org around the globe to try and block West's participation at various events. The largest unsuccessful petition has been to the Glastonbury Festival 2015 with 133,000+ voters stating they would prefer a rock band to headline. On July 20, 2015, within five days of West's announcement as the headlining artist of the closing ceremonies of the 2015 Pan American Games, Change.org user XYZ collected over 50,000 signatures for West's removal as headliner citing the headlining artist should be Canadian. In his Pan American Games Closing Ceremony performance, close to the end of his performance, West closed the show by tossing his faulty microphone in the air and walked off stage.
Kanye's first engagement was to which well-known designer?
56cf829c234ae51400d9bdd1
Alexis Phifer
52
False
What model did Kanye begin to date in 2008?
56cf829c234ae51400d9bdd2
Amber Rose
195
False
Who has Kanye finally settled with an married in 2014?
56cf829c234ae51400d9bdd3
Kim Kardashian
293
False
How many children does Kanye have with Kim?
56cf829c234ae51400d9bdd4
2
69
False
What year did Kanye West begin his relationship with Alexis Phifer?
56d12b6b17492d1400aabb38
2002
69
False
When did Alexis Phifer and Kanye West get engaged?
56d12b6b17492d1400aabb39
August 2006
102
False
Who did Kanye date from 2008 to 2010?
56d12b6b17492d1400aabb3a
Amber Rose
195
False
When did Kanye West start dating Kim Kardashian?
56d12b6b17492d1400aabb3b
April 2012
311
False
Where in Jerusalem did Kardashian and West have their daughter North baptised?
56d12b6b17492d1400aabb3c
Armenian Apostolic Church at the Cathedral of St. James
782
False
West began an on-and-off relationship with designer Alexis Phifer in 2002, and they became engaged in August 2006. The pair ended their 18-month engagement in 2008. West subsequently dated model Amber Rose from 2008 until the summer of 2010. West began dating reality star and longtime friend Kim Kardashian in April 2012. West and Kardashian became engaged in October 2013, and married on May 24, 2014 at Fort di Belvedere in Florence, Italy. Their private ceremony was subject to widespread mainstream coverage, with West taking issue with the couple's portrayal in the media. They have two children: daughter North "Nori" West (born June 15, 2013) and son Saint West (born December 5, 2015). In April 2015, West and Kardashian traveled to Jerusalem to have North baptized in the Armenian Apostolic Church at the Cathedral of St. James. The couple's high status and respective careers have resulted in their relationship becoming subject to heavy media coverage; The New York Times referred to their marriage as "a historic blizzard of celebrity."
How old was Kanye's mother when she died?
56cf8304234ae51400d9bdd9
58
341
False
What doctor did Donda West ignore the recommendation of to invest her heart condition?
56cf8304234ae51400d9bddb
Andre Aboolian
597
False
At approximately what time did paramedics receive the call about Kanye West's mother, Donda?
56d12c3d17492d1400aabb4c
7:35 pm
39
False
What condition along with complications for the plastic surgery caused the death of Donda West?
56d12c3d17492d1400aabb4d
heart disease
428
False
What doctor originally turned Donda West down for her plastic surgery operation?
56d12c3d17492d1400aabb4e
Andre Aboolian
597
False
What was the name of the doctor who performed the surgery that ended up killing Donda West?
56d12c3d17492d1400aabb4f
Jan Adams
900
False
On November 10, 2007, at approximately 7:35 pm, paramedics responding to an emergency call transported West's mother, Donda West, to the nearby Centinela Freeman Hospital in Marina del Rey, California. She was unresponsive in the emergency room, and after resuscitation attempts, doctors pronounced her dead at approximately 8:30 pm, at age 58. The Los Angeles County coroner's office said in January 2008 that West had died of heart disease while suffering "multiple post-operative factors" after plastic surgery. She had undergone liposuction and breast reduction. Beverly Hills plastic surgeon Andre Aboolian had refused to do the surgery because West had a health condition that placed her at risk for a heart attack. Aboolian referred her to an internist to investigate her cardiac issue. She never met with the doctor recommended by Aboolian and had the procedures performed by a third doctor, Jan Adams.
What talk show did the doctor who performed Donda West's plastic surgery appear on?
56cf8368234ae51400d9bddf
Larry King Live
378
False
What was the final cause of Donda's death determined by the coroner?
56cf8368234ae51400d9bde0
"coronary artery disease and multiple post-operative factors due to or as a consequence of liposuction and mammoplasty"
692
False
What was the name of the West's family's attorney during the incident surrounding the death of Donda West?
56d12d3c17492d1400aabb68
Ed McPherson
160
False
What reasons did West's family give for filing complaints against Adams and Aboolian?
56d12d3c17492d1400aabb69
violating patient confidentiality
245
False
On what show did Adams appear to "defend himself"?
56d12d3c17492d1400aabb6a
Larry King Live
378
False
On what day did the final coroner's report show that Donda died from heart disease and complications from surgery?
56d12d3c17492d1400aabb6b
January 10, 2008
640
False
Adams sent condolences to Donda West's family but declined to publicly discuss the procedure, citing confidentiality. West’s family, through celebrity attorney Ed McPherson, filed complaints with the Medical Board against Adams and Aboolian for violating patient confidentiality following her death. Adams had previously been under scrutiny by the medical board. He appeared on Larry King Live on November 20, 2007, but left before speaking. Two days later, he appeared again, with his attorney, stating he was there to "defend himself". He said that the recently released autopsy results "spoke for themselves". The final coroner's report January 10, 2008, concluded that Donda West died of "coronary artery disease and multiple post-operative factors due to or as a consequence of liposuction and mammoplasty".
Where was Donda West's funeral?
56cf83a7234ae51400d9bde3
Oklahoma City
50
False
What songs did Kanye dedicate to his late mother as his performance at The O2 in London?
56cf83a7234ae51400d9bde4
"Hey Mama", as well as a cover of Journey's "Don't Stop Believin'"
204
False
In what city was the funeral and burial for Donda West held?
56d12dcf17492d1400aabb78
Oklahoma City
50
False
On what day was the funeral of Donda West?
56d12dcf17492d1400aabb79
November 20, 2007
67
False
What day was Kanye's first concert after the death of his mother?
56d12dcf17492d1400aabb7a
November 22
161
False
On what tour did Kanye perform "Hey Mama" and his version of Journey's "Don't Stop Believing" in memory of his mother?
56d12dcf17492d1400aabb7b
Glow in the Dark tour
324
False
The funeral and burial for Donda West was held in Oklahoma City on November 20, 2007. West played his first concert following the funeral at The O2 in London on November 22. He dedicated a performance of "Hey Mama", as well as a cover of Journey's "Don't Stop Believin'", to his mother, and did so on all other dates of his Glow in the Dark tour.
Where did Kanye first speak on his mother's death?
56cf83db234ae51400d9bde7
New Zealand
39
False
Where did Kanye West first speak about his mother's death?
56d12e3817492d1400aabb81
New Zealand
39
False
At a December 2008 press conference in New Zealand, West spoke about his mother's death for the first time. "It was like losing an arm and a leg and trying to walk through that", he told reporters.
What famous governor signed legislation in honor of Donda West's death?
56cf8400234ae51400d9bde9
Arnold Schwarzenegger
20
False
What governor passed a law in honor of Donda West?
56d12ea017492d1400aabb90
Arnold Schwarzenegger
20
False
What was the name of the law passed by Arnold Schwarzenegger?
56d12ea017492d1400aabb91
"Donda West Law"
53
False
California governor Arnold Schwarzenegger signed the "Donda West Law", legislation which makes it mandatory for patients to provide medical clearance for elective cosmetic surgery.
What famous stuntman sued Kanye for purported use of his likeness in 2006?
56cf8472234ae51400d9bdeb
Robert "Evel" Knievel
18
False
When was the suit settled?
56cf8472234ae51400d9bdec
days before his death in November 2007
651
False
Which celebrity sued West in 2006 for trademark infrigement?
56d12fe017492d1400aabba6
Robert "Evel" Knievel
18
False
What was the name of the nickname Kanye West took on in his video "Touch the Sky"?
56d12fe017492d1400aabba7
Evel Kanyevel
204
False
When did Knievel settle the argument with West?
56d12fe017492d1400aabba8
November 2007
676
False
In December 2006, Robert "Evel" Knievel sued West for trademark infringement in West's video for "Touch the Sky". Knievel took issue with a "sexually charged video" in which West takes on the persona of "Evel Kanyevel" and attempts flying a rocket over a canyon. The suit claimed infringement on Knievel's trademarked name and likeness. Knievel also claimed that the "vulgar and offensive" images depicted in the video damaged his reputation. The suit sought monetary damages and an injunction to stop distribution of the video. West's attorneys argued that the music video amounted to satire and therefore was covered under the First Amendment. Just days before his death in November 2007, Knievel amicably settled the suit after being paid a visit from West, saying, "I thought he was a wonderful guy and quite a gentleman."
What was Kanye arrested for in 2008?
56cf84c1234ae51400d9bdef
felony vandalism
156
False
How much was Kanye's bail bond?
56cf84c1234ae51400d9bdf0
$20,000
381
False
What was Kanye finally charged with?
56cf84c1234ae51400d9bdf1
one count of misdemeanor vandalism, one count of grand theft and one count of battery
633
False
On what day was Kanye West arrested at the Los Angeles International Airport?
56d1308d17492d1400aabbb8
September 11, 2008
3
False
What were the charges filed against Kanye West?
56d1308d17492d1400aabbb9
felony vandalism
156
False
What was the name of the bodyguard also accused of vandalism?
56d1308d17492d1400aabbba
Don "Don C." Crowley
59
False
What was the dollar amount of Kanye's bond?
56d1308d17492d1400aabbbb
$20,000
381
False
On September 11, 2008, West and his road manager/bodyguard Don "Don C." Crowley were arrested at Los Angeles International Airport and booked on charges of felony vandalism after an altercation with the paparazzi in which West and Crowley broke the photographers' cameras. West was later released from the Los Angeles Police Department's Pacific Division station in Culver City on $20,000 bail bond. On September 26, 2008, the Los Angeles County District Attorney's Office said it would not file felony counts against West over the incident. Instead the case file was forwarded to the city attorney's office, which charged West with one count of misdemeanor vandalism, one count of grand theft and one count of battery and his manager with three counts of each on March 18, 2009. West's and Crowley's arraignment was delayed from an original date of April 14, 2009.
What was Kanye second arrest for?
56cf84e0234ae51400d9bdf5
scuffle involving a photographer outside the famous Tup Tup Palace nightclub in Newcastle
94
False
What was the date of Kanye's second arrest?
56d130f217492d1400aabbc2
November 14, 2008
27
False
Where was Kanye arrested at for the second time?
56d130f217492d1400aabbc3
Hilton hotel near Gateshead
52
False
At what location did the incident leading to West's second arrest take place?
56d130f217492d1400aabbc4
Tup Tup Palace nightclub
146
False
West was arrested again on November 14, 2008 at the Hilton hotel near Gateshead after another scuffle involving a photographer outside the famous Tup Tup Palace nightclub in Newcastle upon Tyne. He was later released "with no further action", according to a police spokesperson.
What paparazzi member did Kanye attack at LAX in 2013?
56cf85c7234ae51400d9bdf7
Daniel Ramos
137
False
What was Kanye convicted for after his paparazzi attack?
56cf85c7234ae51400d9bdf8
misdemeanor criminal battery and attempted grand theft
844
False
What was the name of the man who was hassling West outside of LAX that West later attacked?
56d131ad17492d1400aabbd2
Daniel Ramos
137
False
How many years' probation was Kanye supposed to serve for this altercation?
56d131ad17492d1400aabbd3
2
12
False
He had to attend 24 sessions of what kind of therapy?
56d131ad17492d1400aabbd4
anger management
1029
False
How many hours of community service did Kanye receive?
56d131ad17492d1400aabbd5
250
359
False
On July 19, 2013, West was leaving LAX as he was surrounded by dozens of paparazzi. West became increasingly agitated as a photographer, Daniel Ramos, continued to ask him why people were not allowed to speak in his presence. West then says, "I told you don't talk to me, right? You trying to get me in trouble so I steal off on you and have to pay you like $250,000 and shit." Then he allegedly charged the man and grabbed him and his camera. The incident captured by TMZ, took place for a few seconds before a female voice can be heard telling West to stop. West then released the man, and his camera, and drove away from the scene. Medics were later called to the scene on behalf of the photographer who was grabbed. It was reported West could be charged with felony attempted robbery behind the matter. However, the charges were reduced to misdemeanor criminal battery and attempted grand theft. In March 2014, West was sentenced to serve two years' probation for the misdemeanor battery conviction and required to attend 24 anger management sessions, perform 250 hours of community service and pay restitution to Ramos.
What are Kanye's religious beliefs?
56cf85ec234ae51400d9bdfd
Christian
302
False
"Jesus Walks" was on which of Kanye's albums?
56d1320f17492d1400aabbf0
The College Dropout
59
False
September of 2014, Kanye called himself a what during one of his concerts?
56d1320f17492d1400aabbf1
Christian
302
False
After the success of his song "Jesus Walks" from the album The College Dropout, West was questioned on his beliefs and said, "I will say that I'm spiritual. I have accepted Jesus as my Savior. And I will say that I fall short every day." More recently, in September 2014, West referred to himself as a Christian during one of his concerts.
How is Kanye viewed as a 21st century artist?
56cf86a3234ae51400d9bdff
among the most critically acclaimed
8
False
What famous English artist was Kanye compared to by The Guardian?
56cf86a3234ae51400d9be00
David Bowie
1105
False
What reporter compared Kanye West to a lightning rod?
56d1328117492d1400aabc02
Jon Caramanic
486
False
Who said Kanye West was the greatest hip hop artist of all time?
56d1328117492d1400aabc03
Ben Westhoff
791
False
What magazine compared Kanye to David Bowie?
56d1328117492d1400aabc04
The Guardian
1071
False
West is among the most critically acclaimed artists of the twenty-first century, receiving praise from music critics, fans, fellow musicians, artists, and wider cultural figures for his work. AllMusic editor Jason Birchmeier writes of his impact, "As his career progressed throughout the early 21st century, West shattered certain stereotypes about rappers, becoming a superstar on his own terms without adapting his appearance, his rhetoric, or his music to fit any one musical mold." Jon Caramanic of The New York Times said that West has been "a frequent lightning rod for controversy, a bombastic figure who can count rankling two presidents among his achievements, along with being a reliably dyspeptic presence at award shows (when he attends them)." Village Voice Media senior editor Ben Westhoff dubbed him the greatest hip hop artist of all time, writing that "he's made the best albums and changed the game the most, and his music is the most likely to endure," while Complex called him the 21st century's "most important artist of any art form, of any genre." The Guardian has compared West to David Bowie, arguing that "there is nobody else who can sell as many records as West does (30m-odd album sales and counting) while remaining so resolutely experimental and capable of stirring things up culturally and politically."
What overabundance of themes did Kanye criticize early in his career?
56cf87a1234ae51400d9be03
homophobia in hip hop
222
False
The shift away from what genre of rap is Kanye credited for?
56cf87a1234ae51400d9be04
gangsta rap
624
False
What kind of background did Kanye West grow up in?
56d1333517492d1400aabc0e
middle-class
7
False
Who did Kanye West have a sales competition with during his album release of Graduation?
56d1333517492d1400aabc0f
50 Cent
282
False
Who said that Kanye West effectively led a new wave of artists that weren't only interested in rapping about gunplay or drug dealing?
56d1333517492d1400aabc10
Ben Detrick
1668
False
West's middle-class background, flamboyant fashion sense and outspokenness have additionally set him apart from other rappers. Early in his career, he was among the first rappers to publicly criticize the preponderance of homophobia in hip hop. The sales competition between rapper 50 Cent's Curtis and West's Graduation altered the direction of hip hop and helped pave the way for new rappers who did not follow the hardcore-gangster mold. Rosie Swash of The Guardian viewed the sales competition as a historical moment in hip-hop, because it "highlighted the diverging facets of hip-hop in the last decade; the former was gangsta rap for the noughties, while West was the thinking man's alternative." Rolling Stone credited West with transforming hip hop's mainstream, "establishing a style of introspective yet glossy rap [...]", and called him "as interesting and complicated a pop star as the 2000s produced—a rapper who mastered, upped and moved beyond the hip-hop game, a producer who created a signature sound and then abandoned it to his imitators, a flashy, free-spending sybarite with insightful things to say about college, culture and economics, an egomaniac with more than enough artistic firepower to back it up." His 2008 album 808s & Heartbreak polarized both listeners and critics upon its release, but was commercially successful and impacted hip hop and pop stylistically, as it laid the groundwork for a new wave of artists who generally eschewed typical rap braggadocio for intimate subject matter and introspection, including Frank Ocean, The Weeknd, Drake, Future, Kid Cudi, Childish Gambino, Lil Durk, Chief Keef, and Soulja Boy. According to Ben Detrick of XXL magazine, West effectively led a new wave of artists, including Kid Cudi, Wale, Lupe Fiasco, Kidz in the Hall, and Drake, who lacked the interest or ability to rap about gunplay or drug-dealing.
A number of artists have cited Kanye as being what to them?
56cf87de234ae51400d9be07
influential
1130
False
Who complimented West in Time Magazine?
56d133ee17492d1400aabc30
inventor Elon Musk
1053
False
A substantial number of artists and other figures have been influenced by, or complimented, West's work, including hip hop artists RZA of Wu-Tang Clan, Chuck D of Public Enemy, and DJ Premier of Gang Starr. Both Drake and Casey Veggies have acknowledged being influenced directly by West. Non-rap artists such as English singer-songwriters Adele and Lily Allen, New Zealand artist Lorde, rock band Arctic Monkeys, pop singer Halsey, Sergio Pizzorno of English rock band Kasabian and American indie rock group MGMT have cited West as an influence. Experimental and electronic artists such as James Blake Daniel Lopatin, and Tim Hecker have also cited West's work as an inspiration. Experimental rock pioneer and Velvet Underground founder Lou Reed, in a review of West's album Yeezus, wrote that "the guy really, really, really is talented. He's really trying to raise the bar. No one's near doing what he’s doing, it’s not even on the same planet." Musicians such as Paul McCartney and Prince have also commended West's work. Famed Tesla Motors CEO and inventor Elon Musk complimented West in a piece for Time Magazine's 100 most influential people list, writing that:
How many songs has Kanye had that have exceeded 3 million digital sales?
56cf884a234ae51400d9be0a
6
388
False
How many songs has Kanye sold digitally in his career?
56cf884a234ae51400d9be0b
over 30 million
648
False
How many of West's six albums have gone platinum?
56d137b1e7d4791d0090202d
6
388
False
What was Kanye's fifth consecutive number one album?
56d137b1e7d4791d0090202e
Yeezus
180
False
As of 2012, how many downloads have there been of "Golddigger"?
56d137b1e7d4791d0090202f
3,086,000
384
False
What rank is West in total sales for the last decade?
56d137b1e7d4791d00902030
third
585
False
How many total digital songs has Kanye West sold in the US?
56d137b1e7d4791d00902031
30 million
653
False
West's first six solo studio albums, all of which have gone platinum, have received numerous awards and critical acclaim. All of his albums have been commercially successful, with Yeezus, his sixth solo album, becoming his fifth consecutive No. 1 album in the U.S. upon release. West has had six songs exceed 3 million in digital sales as of December 2012, with "Gold Digger" selling 3,086,000, "Stronger" selling 4,402,000, "Heartless" selling 3,742,000, "E.T." selling over 4,000,000, "Love Lockdown" selling over 3,000,000, and "Niggas in Paris" selling over 3,000,000, placing him third in overall digital sales of the past decade. He has sold over 30 million digital songs in the United States making him one of the best-selling digital artists of all-time.
How many Grammies has Kanye won as of 2013?
56cf88bf234ae51400d9be0f
21
36
False
With which artist does Kanye tie with for reaching the top of the annual Pazz & Jop Critic Poll?
56cf88bf234ae51400d9be10
Bob Dylan
455
False
How many times has Kanye placed in the annual Time Magazine people list?
56cf88bf234ae51400d9be11
twice
610
False
In 2013, West had won how many total Grammy Awards?
56d138c3e7d4791d00902037
21
36
False
What rank did About.com give Kanye "Top 50 Hip-Hop Producers" list?
56d138c3e7d4791d00902038
8
142
False
On what day did MTV name Kanye as the year's Number 1 "Hottest MC in the Game."?
56d138c3e7d4791d00902039
May 16, 2008
189
False
December 17, 2010 was the day Kanye was nominated by MTV for what?
56d138c3e7d4791d0090203a
MTV Man of the Year
329
False
What musician did West tie with for topping the annual Pazz & Jop critic poll 4 times each?
56d138c3e7d4791d0090203b
Bob Dylan
455
False
As of 2013, West has won a total of 21 Grammy Awards, making him one of the most awarded artists of all-time. About.com ranked Kanye West No. 8 on their "Top 50 Hip-Hop Producers" list. On May 16, 2008, Kanye West was crowned by MTV as the year's No. 1 "Hottest MC in the Game." On December 17, 2010, Kanye West was voted as the MTV Man of the Year by MTV. Billboard ranked Kanye West No. 3 on their list of Top 10 Producers of the Decade. West ties with Bob Dylan for having topped the annual Pazz & Jop critic poll the most number of times ever, with four number-one albums each. West has also been included twice in the Time 100 annual lists of the most influential people in the world as well as being listed in a number of Forbes annual lists.
How many of Kanye's albums placed on the 2012 Rolling Stone list?
56cf8915234ae51400d9be15
3
216
False
How many of West's albums were included on Rolling Stone's 500 Greatest Albums of All Time list?
56d13983e7d4791d00902041
3
216
False
In its 2012 list of "500 Greatest Albums of All Time, Rolling Stone included three of West's albums—The College Dropout at number 298, Late Registration at number 118, and My Beautiful Dark Twisted Fantasy at number 353.
Which one of Kanye's albums won The Pitchfork's Album of the Decade (so far) award?
56cf8955234ae51400d9be17
My Beautiful Dark Twisted Fantasy
46
False
What place did Yeezus secure on the list of 100 albums?
56cf8955234ae51400d9be18
eighth
202
False
What online music publication ranked Kanye's album "My Beautiful Dark Twisted Fantasy" as the world's best album so far?
56d139fee7d4791d00902043
The Pitchfork
0
False
What album was ranked 8 on a list of 100 albums?
56d139fee7d4791d00902044
Yeezus
177
False
What song was ranked third in a list of 200 "best tracks" since 2010?
56d139fee7d4791d00902045
"Runaway"
274
False
The Pitchfork online music publication ranked My Beautiful Dark Twisted Fantasy as the world's best album of the decade "so far"—between 2010 and 2014—on August 19, 2014, while Yeezus was ranked in the eighth position of a list of 100 albums. During the same week, the song "Runaway" (featuring Pusha T) was ranked in the third position in the publication's list of the 200 "best tracks" released since 2010.
What President did Kanye West insult on air in 2005?
56d0f72317492d1400aab6a3
George W. Bush
313
False
Whose speech did Kanye West ruin at the 2009 MTV Awards?
56d0f72317492d1400aab6a4
Taylor Swift
463
False
What fashion items does Kanye West design?
56d0f72317492d1400aab6a5
clothing and footwear
609
False
What company did Kanye West begin?
56d0f72317492d1400aab6a6
DONDA
791
False
What year did Kanye West begin working with Adidas?
56d0f72317492d1400aab6a7
2013
726
False
West's outspoken views and ventures outside of music have received significant mainstream attention. He has been a frequent source of controversy and public scrutiny for his conduct at award shows, on social media, and in other public settings. His more publicized comments include his declaration that President George W. Bush "doesn't care about black people" during a live 2005 television broadcast for Hurricane Katrina relief, and his interruption of singer Taylor Swift at the 2009 MTV Video Music Awards. West's efforts as a designer include collaborations with Nike, Louis Vuitton, and A.P.C. on both clothing and footwear, and have most prominently resulted in the Yeezy Season collaboration with Adidas beginning in 2013. He is the founder and head of the creative content company DONDA.
Buddhism
What type of religion is Buddhism?
56cff91b234ae51400d9c1bb
nontheistic
25
False
What are the practices of Buddhism based on?
56cff91b234ae51400d9c1bc
teachings attributed to Gautama Buddha
202
False
Where did the Buddha live?
56cff91b234ae51400d9c1bd
present-day Nepal
402
False
How do Buddhists believe their suffering can be ended?
56cff91b234ae51400d9c1be
through the direct understanding and perception of dependent origination and the Four Noble Truths
706
False
What did the Buddha teach should be given up to end suffering?
56cff91b234ae51400d9c1bf
ignorance and craving
639
False
What type of religion is Buddhism?
56d0c933234ae51400d9c43c
nontheistic religion
25
False
Who's teaching is Buddhism based upon?
56d0c933234ae51400d9c43d
Gautama Buddha
226
False
When was Buddha alive?
56d0c933234ae51400d9c43e
between the 6th and 4th centuries BCE
429
False
Where did Buddha reside when he was alive?
56d0c933234ae51400d9c43f
present-day Nepal
402
False
Who's teachings is Buddhism based upon?
56d0d6db17492d1400aab662
Gautama Buddha
226
False
Where was Buddha thought to live?
56d0d6db17492d1400aab663
Nepal
414
False
When approximately was Buddha alive?
56d0d6db17492d1400aab664
sometime between the 6th and 4th centuries BCE
420
False
Buddhism is based on the teaching of who?
56d1b926e7d4791d009020cd
Gautama Buddha
226
False
How many noble truths are there?
56d1b926e7d4791d009020cf
4
449
False
Buddha was part of what subcontinent?
56d1b926e7d4791d009020d0
Indian
381
False
Who is "the awakened one"
56d1b926e7d4791d009020d1
Buddha
234
False
Buddhism /ˈbudɪzəm/ is a nontheistic religion[note 1] or philosophy (Sanskrit: धर्म dharma; Pali: धम्म dhamma) that encompasses a variety of traditions, beliefs and spiritual practices largely based on teachings attributed to Gautama Buddha, commonly known as the Buddha ("the awakened one"). According to Buddhist tradition, the Buddha lived and taught in the eastern part of the Indian subcontinent, present-day Nepal sometime between the 6th and 4th centuries BCE.[note 1] He is recognized by Buddhists as an awakened or enlightened teacher who shared his insights to help sentient beings end their suffering through the elimination of ignorance and craving. Buddhists believe that this is accomplished through the direct understanding and perception of dependent origination and the Four Noble Truths.
What are the two major branches of Buddhism?
56cffa20234ae51400d9c1c5
Theravada ("The School of the Elders") and Mahayana ("The Great Vehicle")
76
False
What is sometimes viewed as the third branch of Buddhism?
56cffa20234ae51400d9c1c6
Vajrayana
151
False
Where does Theravada have the largest following?
56cffa20234ae51400d9c1c7
Sri Lanka and Southeast Asia
314
False
Mahayana includes which practices of Buddhism?
56cffa20234ae51400d9c1c8
Pure Land, Zen, Nichiren Buddhism, Shingon, and Tiantai (Tendai)
386
False
What is the estimated number of Buddhists in the world?
56cffa20234ae51400d9c1c9
488 million[web 1] and 535 million
677
False
Which branch practices the teachings of Zen?
56d0e08817492d1400aab66d
Mahayana
119
False
What minor branch is sometimes attributed to Mahayana?
56d0e08817492d1400aab66e
Vajrayana
151
False
What kind of teachings does Tibetan Buddhism preserve?
56d1ba3ee7d4791d009020de
Vajrayana
151
False
Vajrayana is attributed to who?
56d1ba3ee7d4791d009020e0
Indian siddhas
196
False
Theravada means what?
56d1ba3ee7d4791d009020e1
The School of the Elders
88
False
Two major extant branches of Buddhism are generally recognized by scholars: Theravada ("The School of the Elders") and Mahayana ("The Great Vehicle"). Vajrayana, a body of teachings attributed to Indian siddhas, may be viewed as a third branch or merely a part of Mahayana. Theravada has a widespread following in Sri Lanka and Southeast Asia. Mahayana which includes the traditions of Pure Land, Zen, Nichiren Buddhism, Shingon, and Tiantai (Tendai) is found throughout East Asia. Tibetan Buddhism, which preserves the Vajrayana teachings of eighth century India, is practiced in regions surrounding the Himalayas, Mongolia and Kalmykia. Buddhists number between an estimated 488 million[web 1] and 535 million, making it one of the world's major religions.
What is the goal of Theravada Buddhism?
56cffaa0234ae51400d9c1d9
the attainment of the sublime state of Nirvana
44
False
How is Nirvana achieved?
56cffaa0234ae51400d9c1da
practicing the Noble Eightfold Path (also known as the Middle Way)
104
False
What is the bodhisattva path?
56cffaa0234ae51400d9c1db
a state wherein one remains in this cycle to help other beings reach awakening
310
False
What is the goal of Tibetan Buddhism?
56cffaa0234ae51400d9c1dc
Buddhahood or rainbow body
418
False
How is Nirvana attained?
56d0e19c17492d1400aab676
by practicing the Noble Eightfold Path
101
False
In what buddhism is the goal a state of nirvana?
56d1bc77e7d4791d009020f3
Theravada
3
False
What buddhism has a goal of Buddhahood or rainbow body?
56d1bc77e7d4791d009020f4
Tibetan
390
False
The Noble Eightfold Path is also known as what?
56d1bc77e7d4791d009020f5
the Middle Way
155
False
Mahayana aspires to Buddhahood through what path?
56d1bc77e7d4791d009020f6
bodhisattva
292
False
Theravada escapes what cycle?
56d1bc77e7d4791d009020f7
suffering and rebirth
213
False
In Theravada Buddhism, the ultimate goal is the attainment of the sublime state of Nirvana, achieved by practicing the Noble Eightfold Path (also known as the Middle Way), thus escaping what is seen as a cycle of suffering and rebirth. Mahayana Buddhism instead aspires to Buddhahood via the bodhisattva path, a state wherein one remains in this cycle to help other beings reach awakening. Tibetan Buddhism aspires to Buddhahood or rainbow body.
What are the Three Jewels of the Buddhist tradition?
56d07602234ae51400d9c2f4
the Buddha, the Dharma (the teachings), and the Sangha (the community)
369
False
What is one of the Ten Meritorious Deeds of Buddhism?
56d07602234ae51400d9c2f5
cultivation of higher wisdom and discernment
856
False
What other practices do Buddhists adhere to?
56d0e34017492d1400aab682
Ten Meritorious Deeds
639
False
What is one of the Ten Meritorious Deeds?
56d0e34017492d1400aab683
renouncing conventional living and becoming a monastic
741
False
Buddhism denies what kind of deity?
56d1be69e7d4791d009020fe
creator
197
False
Of the Ten Meritorious Deeds, giving charity reduces what?
56d1be69e7d4791d009020ff
greediness
701
False
Invocation of buddhas and bodhisattvas is in what tradition?
56d1be69e7d4791d00902101
Mahayana
968
False
Buddhist schools vary on the exact nature of the path to liberation, the importance and canonicity of various teachings and scriptures, and especially their respective practices. Buddhism denies a creator deity and posits that mundane deities such as Mahabrahma are misperceived to be a creator. The foundations of Buddhist tradition and practice are the Three Jewels: the Buddha, the Dharma (the teachings), and the Sangha (the community). Taking "refuge in the triple gem" has traditionally been a declaration and commitment to being on the Buddhist path, and in general distinguishes a Buddhist from a non-Buddhist. Other practices are Ten Meritorious Deeds including, giving charity to reduce the greediness; following ethical precepts; renouncing conventional living and becoming a monastic; the development of mindfulness and practice of meditation; cultivation of higher wisdom and discernment; study of scriptures; devotional practices; ceremonies; and in the Mahayana tradition, invocation of buddhas and bodhisattvas.
The Nidānakathā of the Jataka tales of the Theravada is attributed to who?
56d0772c234ae51400d9c2f8
Nidānakathā of the Jataka tales of the Theravada
28
False
What are some other biographies that differ from the Jataka tales?
56d0772c234ae51400d9c2f9
Buddhacarita, the Lokottaravādin Mahāvastu, and the Sarvāstivādin Lalitavistara Sūtra
166
False
What do scholars recognize about the life of the Buddha?
56d0772c234ae51400d9c2fa
Most accept that he lived, taught and founded a monastic order
376
False
When was the Buddhagohosa written?
56d0e42e17492d1400aab689
5th century CE
118
False
What is one of the earlier biographies on Buddhism?
56d0e42e17492d1400aab68a
the Buddhacarita
162
False
Who founded a monastic order in his life?
56d0e42e17492d1400aab68c
Buddha
99
False
Scholars do not make claims without evidence about who's life?
56d1c2d2e7d4791d0090211f
Buddha
99
False
Most accept that Buddha lived and taught in what type of order?
56d1c2d2e7d4791d00902120
monastic
424
False
The Jataka tales of the Theravada happened in what century?
56d1c2d2e7d4791d00902121
5th ce
118
False
This narrative draws on the Nidānakathā of the Jataka tales of the Theravada, which is ascribed to Buddhaghoṣa in the 5th century CE. Earlier biographies such as the Buddhacarita, the Lokottaravādin Mahāvastu, and the Sarvāstivādin Lalitavistara Sūtra, give different accounts. Scholars are hesitant to make unqualified claims about the historical facts of the Buddha's life. Most accept that he lived, taught and founded a monastic order, but do not consistently accept all of the details contained in his biographies.
Who said "the outline of the life must be true: birth, maturity, renunciation, search, awakening and liberation, teaching, death."?
56d077d6234ae51400d9c2fe
Michael Carrithers
20
False
What are some of the outlines of life?
56d0f9af17492d1400aab6b5
birth, maturity, renunciation
142
False
Who wrote a biography of Buddha?
56d0f9af17492d1400aab6b6
Karen Armstrong
265
False
What do some say is Buddha's real name?
56d0f9af17492d1400aab6b8
Siddhatta Gotama
512
False
What are the helpers called that helped Buddha?
56d0f9af17492d1400aab6b9
disciples
559
False
Who believes "the outline of the life must be true" in reference to Buddha?
56d1c3cae7d4791d0090212b
Michael Carrithers
20
False
Karen Armstrong wrote a biography on who?
56d1c3cae7d4791d0090212c
the Buddha
253
False
Karen Armstrong has said that we can be confident who existed?
56d1c3cae7d4791d0090212d
Siddhatta Gotama
512
False
According to author Michael Carrithers, while there are good reasons to doubt the traditional account, "the outline of the life must be true: birth, maturity, renunciation, search, awakening and liberation, teaching, death." In writing her biography of the Buddha, Karen Armstrong noted, "It is obviously difficult, therefore, to write a biography of the Buddha that meets modern criteria, because we have very little information that can be considered historically sound... [but] we can be reasonably confident Siddhatta Gotama did indeed exist and that his disciples preserved the memory of his life and teachings as well as they could."[dubious – discuss]
According to early texts, when was Siddhārtha Gautama born?
56d07874234ae51400d9c300
fifth century BCE
199
False
According to early texts, where was Siddhārtha Gautama born?
56d07874234ae51400d9c301
in a community that was on the periphery, both geographically and culturally, of the northeastern Indian subcontinent
74
False
What type of community was Siddhārtha Gautama raised in?
56d07874234ae51400d9c302
It was either a small republic, in which case his father was an elected chieftain, or an oligarchy, in which case his father was an oligarch.
218
False
Where was Siddhārtha Gautama born?
56d0fa6417492d1400aab6bf
the northeastern Indian subcontinent
155
False
When did Siddhārtha Gautama live?
56d0fa6417492d1400aab6c0
fifth century BCE
199
False
What size was Siddhārtha Gautama's birthplace?
56d0fa6417492d1400aab6c1
a small republic
232
False
Where did we find proof of his existence?
56d0fa6417492d1400aab6c2
early texts
20
False
What was most likely Siddhārtha Gautama's father?
56d0fa6417492d1400aab6c3
an oligarchy
304
False
Who was born in a northeastern part of India/
56d1c49ce7d4791d00902139
Siddhārtha Gautama
46
False
If Siddhartha lived in a small republic, his father would have been a what?
56d1c49ce7d4791d0090213b
elected chieftain
282
False
The evidence of the early texts suggests that Siddhārtha Gautama was born in a community that was on the periphery, both geographically and culturally, of the northeastern Indian subcontinent in the fifth century BCE. It was either a small republic, in which case his father was an elected chieftain, or an oligarchy, in which case his father was an oligarch.
What was the name of the astrologer who visited Prince Gautama's father?
56d0791d234ae51400d9c306
Asita
98
False
What was the prediction made by Asita?
56d0791d234ae51400d9c307
Siddhartha would either become a great king or renounce the material world to become a holy man
171
False
According to Asita, how would Siddhartha decide which path to take in life?
56d0791d234ae51400d9c308
depending on whether he saw what life was like outside the palace walls
268
False
What was the occupation of the person who visited Gautama?
56d0fb0717492d1400aab6d3
an astrologer
78
False
What was the name of his father?
56d0fb0717492d1400aab6d4
Suddhodana
139
False
What was Buddha predicted to become contrary with his life as we know it?
56d0fb0717492d1400aab6d5
a great king
202
False
What was the name of the astrologer that visited Gautama's father?
56d1c549e7d4791d00902149
Asita
98
False
What is Gautama's fathers name?
56d1c549e7d4791d0090214a
Suddhodana
139
False
Asita prophesied that Siddhartha would be a kind or a what?
56d1c549e7d4791d0090214b
holy man
258
False
According to this narrative, shortly after the birth of young prince Gautama, an astrologer named Asita visited the young prince's father, Suddhodana, and prophesied that Siddhartha would either become a great king or renounce the material world to become a holy man, depending on whether he saw what life was like outside the palace walls.
What did Śuddhodana do to ensure that his son became a king instead of a holy man?
56d079e1234ae51400d9c30c
prevented him from leaving the palace grounds
62
False
How old was Gautama when he first left the palace grounds?
56d079e1234ae51400d9c30d
29
120
False
What happened when Gautama left the palace grounds?
56d079e1234ae51400d9c30e
he learned of the suffering of ordinary people
278
False
What are the four sights in Buddhism?
56d079e1234ae51400d9c30f
encountering an old man, a sick man, a corpse and, finally, an ascetic holy man
326
False
What did Buddha's father want him to become?
56d0fbb717492d1400aab6e1
a king
48
False
By what age was he venturing outside?
56d0fbb717492d1400aab6e3
29
120
False
What were his first four encounters called?
56d0fbb717492d1400aab6e4
the four sights
262
False
What did Gautama do after learning about the outside world?
56d0fbb717492d1400aab6e5
abandon royal life
493
False
Suddhodana wanted his son to become what?
56d1c664e7d4791d00902151
a king
48
False
At what age did Gautama venture out from the palace area?
56d1c664e7d4791d00902152
29
120
False
How many "sights" did Gautama have that are well known?
56d1c664e7d4791d00902153
four
266
False
Gautama encountered an old man, a sick man, a holy man, and a what?
56d1c664e7d4791d00902154
corpse
365
False
Śuddhodana was determined to see his son become a king, so he prevented him from leaving the palace grounds. But at age 29, despite his father's efforts, Gautama ventured beyond the palace several times. In a series of encounters—known in Buddhist literature as the four sights—he learned of the suffering of ordinary people, encountering an old man, a sick man, a corpse and, finally, an ascetic holy man, apparently content and at peace with the world. These experiences prompted Gautama to abandon royal life and take up a spiritual quest.
What was the first thing Gautama did on his spiritual quest?
56d08581234ae51400d9c33a
went to study with famous religious teachers of the day
14
False
What is the path of moderation between the extremes of self-indulgence and self-mortification called?
56d08581234ae51400d9c33b
the Middle Way
785
False
What are some of the practices Gautama underwent on his quest?
56d08581234ae51400d9c33c
prolonged fasting, breath-holding, and exposure to pain
385
False
What was the first skill Gautama learnt?
56d0fc6417492d1400aab6eb
meditation
725
False
What almost killed Gautama in his pursuit?
56d0fc6417492d1400aab6ec
asceticism
249
False
What did he receive from the locals that changed his approach?
56d0fc6417492d1400aab6ee
milk and rice
631
False
What is the path of moderation called he followed?
56d0fc6417492d1400aab6ef
Middle Way
789
False
Gautama didn't like the religious teaching he initially found because of why?
56d1c755e7d4791d00902179
they did not provide a permanent end to suffering
142
False
What did Gautama accept from a village girl?
56d1c755e7d4791d0090217b
milk and rice
631
False
Gautama devoted himself to what type of meditation?
56d1c755e7d4791d0090217c
anapanasati
713
False
Buddhists call anapanasati what?
56d1c755e7d4791d0090217d
the Middle Way
785
False
Gautama first went to study with famous religious teachers of the day, and mastered the meditative attainments they taught. But he found that they did not provide a permanent end to suffering, so he continued his quest. He next attempted an extreme asceticism, which was a religious pursuit common among the śramaṇas, a religious culture distinct from the Vedic one. Gautama underwent prolonged fasting, breath-holding, and exposure to pain. He almost starved himself to death in the process. He realized that he had taken this kind of practice to its limit, and had not put an end to suffering. So in a pivotal moment he accepted milk and rice from a village girl and changed his approach. He devoted himself to anapanasati meditation, through which he discovered what Buddhists call the Middle Way (Skt. madhyamā-pratipad): a path of moderation between the extremes of self-indulgence and self-mortification.[web 2][web 3]
How old was Gautama when he sat under the Bodhi Tree?
56d08c3c234ae51400d9c372
35
74
False
What kind of tree was the Bodhi Tree?
56d08c3c234ae51400d9c373
Ficus religiosa
116
False
What did Gautama spend the rest of his life doing after reaching enlightenment?
56d08c3c234ae51400d9c374
he spent the rest of his life teaching the path of awakening he had discovered
539
False
How old was the Buddha at the time of his death?
56d08c3c234ae51400d9c375
80
713
False
What is the south branch of the tree Gautama sat under called?
56d08c3c234ae51400d9c376
Jaya Sri Maha Bodhi
843
False
What was the tree called he sat under?
56d1221517492d1400aaba32
Ficus religiosa
116
False
What was the tree renamed that Gautama achieved enlightenment under?
56d1221517492d1400aaba33
Bodhi Tree
152
False
At what age did Gautama come to pass?
56d1221517492d1400aaba35
80
713
False
When he was 35 Gautama sat in meditation under what tree?
56d1c8b3e7d4791d00902187
Bodhi Tree
152
False
What type of tree was the Bodhi Tree?
56d1c8b3e7d4791d00902188
Ficus religiosa
116
False
What town was the Bodhi Tree in?
56d1c8b3e7d4791d00902189
Bodh Gaya
178
False
The south branch of the original fig tree is known as?
56d1c8b3e7d4791d0090218a
Jaya Sri Maha Bodhi
843
False
Gautama was now determined to complete his spiritual quest. At the age of 35, he famously sat in meditation under a Ficus religiosa tree now called the Bodhi Tree in the town of Bodh Gaya and vowed not to rise before achieving enlightenment. After many days, he finally destroyed the fetters of his mind, thereby liberating himself from the cycle of suffering and rebirth, and arose as a fully enlightened being (Skt. samyaksaṃbuddha). Soon thereafter, he attracted a band of followers and instituted a monastic order. Now, as the Buddha, he spent the rest of his life teaching the path of awakening he had discovered, traveling throughout the northeastern part of the Indian subcontinent, and died at the age of 80 (483 BCE) in Kushinagar, India. The south branch of the original fig tree available only in Anuradhapura Sri Lanka is known as Jaya Sri Maha Bodhi.
What is samsara?
56d08d0a234ae51400d9c37c
the continual repetitive cycle of birth and death
39
False
What is avidya?
56d08d0a234ae51400d9c37d
ignorance
462
False
What is dukkha?
56d08d0a234ae51400d9c37e
suffering, anxiety, dissatisfaction
505
False
Is liberation from samsara possible?
56d08d0a234ae51400d9c37f
In the Buddhist view, liberation from samsara is possible by following the Buddhist path.
543
False
The cycle of birth and death is called what in Buddhism?
56d120b717492d1400aaba03
Samsara
432
False
How many realms of existence are there in Buddhism?
56d120b717492d1400aaba04
six
272
False
avidya is what kind of samsara?
56d120b717492d1400aaba06
ignorance
462
False
How can you be freed from samsara?
56d120b717492d1400aaba07
by following the Buddhist path
601
False
What is samsara defined as?
56d1c9c7e7d4791d00902199
the continual repetitive cycle of birth and death
39
False
How many realms of existance are within the cycle of rebirths?
56d1c9c7e7d4791d0090219a
six
272
False
Realms can be understood as physical realms of what type of states?
56d1c9c7e7d4791d0090219b
psychological
363
False
Samsara is caused by what?
56d1c9c7e7d4791d0090219c
avidya
454
False
A person can get away from samsara by doing what?
56d1c9c7e7d4791d0090219d
following the Buddhist path
604
False
Within Buddhism, samsara is defined as the continual repetitive cycle of birth and death that arises from ordinary beings' grasping and fixating on a self and experiences. Specifically, samsara refers to the process of cycling through one rebirth after another within the six realms of existence,[note 2] where each realm can be understood as physical realm or a psychological state characterized by a particular type of suffering. Samsara arises out of avidya (ignorance) and is characterized by dukkha (suffering, anxiety, dissatisfaction). In the Buddhist view, liberation from samsara is possible by following the Buddhist path.
What does the Sanskrit term Karma translate as?
56d09f06234ae51400d9c3ca
action, work
36
False
What is karma according to Buddhism?
56d09f06234ae51400d9c3cb
the force that drives saṃsāra
54
False
What is theavoidance of unwholesome actions and the cultivation of positive actions called?
56d09f06234ae51400d9c3cc
sīla
404
False
What actions does karma refer to in Buddhism?
56d09f06234ae51400d9c3cd
actions of body, speech or mind that spring from mental intent
445
False
What is the definition of Karma from Sanskrit?
56d1247917492d1400aaba5c
action, work
36
False
What is the avoidance of bad acts called?
56d1247917492d1400aaba5e
sīla
404
False
Karma's actions come from what?
56d1247917492d1400aaba5f
cetanā
509
False
What is the result of Karma called?
56d1247917492d1400aaba60
vipāka
568
False
What is Karma?
56d1caf1e7d4791d009021b9
the force that drives saṃsāra
54
False
Avoidance of unwholesome actions and use of positive actions is called what?
56d1caf1e7d4791d009021bc
sīla
404
False
what does vipaka mean?
56d1caf1e7d4791d009021bd
result
576
False
In Buddhism, Karma (from Sanskrit: "action, work") is the force that drives saṃsāra—the cycle of suffering and rebirth for each being. Good, skillful deeds (Pali: "kusala") and bad, unskillful (Pāli: "akusala") actions produce "seeds" in the mind that come to fruition either in this life or in a subsequent rebirth. The avoidance of unwholesome actions and the cultivation of positive actions is called sīla. Karma specifically refers to those actions of body, speech or mind that spring from mental intent (cetanā), and bring about a consequence or phala "fruit" or vipāka "result".
In which branch of Buddhism is it believed that there can be no divine salvation or forgiveness for karma?
56d0a077234ae51400d9c3d2
Theravada Buddhism
3
False
In Mahayana Buddhism, what are some Mahayana sutras that are believed to remove negative karma just by the hearing of the texts?
56d0a077234ae51400d9c3d3
the Lotus Sutra, the Aṅgulimālīya Sūtra and the Mahāyāna Mahāparinirvāṇa Sūtra
258
False
The reciting of mantras as a means for removing past negative karma is a part of which branch of Buddhism?
56d0a077234ae51400d9c3d4
Vajrayana
483
False
According to Genshin, who has the power to destroy karma?
56d0a077234ae51400d9c3d5
Amitābha
633
False
What Buddhism says that salvation is unattainable?
56d125a117492d1400aaba7d
Theravada Buddhism
3
False
Who has the power to destroy bad karma?
56d125a117492d1400aaba81
Amitābha
633
False
What type of sutra is the Lotus Sutra?
56d1cc5ae7d4791d009021cc
Mahayana
193
False
Some mantras are used for cutting off what type of karma?
56d1cc5ae7d4791d009021cd
negative
430
False
Who was the Japanese Pure Land teacher?
56d1cc5ae7d4791d009021ce
Genshin
613
False
According to Genshin, whats has the power to destroy karma?
56d1cc5ae7d4791d009021cf
Amitābha
633
False
In Theravada Buddhism there can be no divine salvation or forgiveness for one's karma, since it is a purely impersonal process that is a part of the makeup of the universe.[citation needed] In Mahayana Buddhism, the texts of certain Mahayana sutras (such as the Lotus Sutra, the Aṅgulimālīya Sūtra and the Mahāyāna Mahāparinirvāṇa Sūtra) claim that the recitation or merely the hearing of their texts can expunge great swathes of negative karma. Some forms of Buddhism (for example, Vajrayana) regard the recitation of mantras as a means for cutting off of previous negative karma. The Japanese Pure Land teacher Genshin taught that Amitābha has the power to destroy the karma that would otherwise bind one in saṃsāra.
What is the process in which beings go through cycles of lifetimes as many forms of sentient life?
56d0a1ea234ae51400d9c3da
Rebirth
0
False
Which doctrine denies the concept of a permanent self or soul?
56d0a1ea234ae51400d9c3db
The doctrine of anattā (Sanskrit anātman)
167
False
In Buddhism, rebirth into consecutive lives is determined by what?
56d0a1ea234ae51400d9c3dc
the laws of cause and effect
708
False
Sentient life according to Buddhism runs between what two points?
56d1271017492d1400aaba9d
from conception to death.
141
False
The laws of cause and effect can also be called?
56d1cda5e7d4791d009021ef
karma
738
False
What is the name for the process of a succession of lifetimes?
56d1cda5e7d4791d009021f0
Rebirth
0
False
What doctrine rejects the idea of permanent self?
56d1cda5e7d4791d009021f1
anatta
496
False
"dependent arising" is the meaning of what word?
56d1cda5e7d4791d009021f2
pratītyasamutpāda
654
False
Hinduism and Christianity use what term for a permanent self?
56d1cda5e7d4791d009021f3
eternal soul
268
False
Rebirth refers to a process whereby beings go through a succession of lifetimes as one of many possible forms of sentient life, each running from conception to death. The doctrine of anattā (Sanskrit anātman) rejects the concepts of a permanent self or an unchanging, eternal soul, as it is called in Hinduism and Christianity. According to Buddhism there ultimately is no such thing as a self independent from the rest of the universe. Buddhists also refer to themselves as the believers of the anatta doctrine—Nairatmyavadin or Anattavadin. Rebirth in subsequent existences must be understood as the continuation of a dynamic, ever-changing process of pratītyasamutpāda ("dependent arising") determined by the laws of cause and effect (karma) rather than that of one being, reincarnating from one existence to the next.
Rebirth into the Śuddhāvāsa Worlds or Pure Abodes can only be attained by who?
56d0a257234ae51400d9c3e0
skilled Buddhist practitioners known as anāgāmis (non-returners)
180
False
Rebirth into the formless realms can only be attained by who?
56d0a257234ae51400d9c3e1
those who can meditate on the arūpajhānas, the highest object of meditation
316
False
How many planes of existence are there?
56d127f317492d1400aabab4
31
38
False
What are the higher heavens called?
56d127f317492d1400aabab5
Pure Abodes
143
False
What are skilled Buddhists called?
56d127f317492d1400aabab6
anāgāmis
220
False
What is another name for Ārūpyadhātu?
56d127f317492d1400aabab7
formless realms
275
False
What is the highest object of meditation called?
56d127f317492d1400aabab8
arūpajhānas
346
False
How many planes of existence?
56d1cf79e7d4791d00902207
31
38
False
Skilled buddhist practictioners that can get to the higher heavens are known as what?
56d1cf79e7d4791d00902209
anāgāmis
220
False
What is the highest object of meditation?
56d1cf79e7d4791d0090220a
arūpajhānas
346
False
What does arupyadhatu mean?
56d1cf79e7d4791d0090220b
formless realms
275
False
The above are further subdivided into 31 planes of existence.[web 4] Rebirths in some of the higher heavens, known as the Śuddhāvāsa Worlds or Pure Abodes, can be attained only by skilled Buddhist practitioners known as anāgāmis (non-returners). Rebirths in the Ārūpyadhātu (formless realms) can be attained by only those who can meditate on the arūpajhānas, the highest object of meditation.
There is a transitional state between one life and the next according to what branches of Buddhism?
56d0a384234ae51400d9c3e4
East Asian and Tibetan
13
False
What branch of Buddhism rejects that there is a transitional state between lives?
56d0a384234ae51400d9c3e5
Theravada
139
False
Passages in what teaching support the idea that the Buddha taught of a stage between lives?
56d0a384234ae51400d9c3e6
Samyutta Nikaya of the Pali Canon
206
False
What is the state called between lives?
56d128f817492d1400aabae2
bardo
87
False
Which major part of Buddhism rejects bardo?
56d128f817492d1400aabae3
Theravada
139
False
What book discusses bardo?
56d128f817492d1400aabae4
Samyutta Nikaya
206
False
Other than Tibetan Buddhism, what other Buddhism supports bardo?
56d128f817492d1400aabae5
East Asian
13
False
There is an intermediate state between one life and the next according to what Buddism?
56d1d04ce7d4791d0090221b
East Asian and Tibetan
13
False
What type of Theravada rejects the intermediate state idea?
56d1d04ce7d4791d0090221c
orthodox
130
False
Some passages of what Canon support the idea of intermediate stages?
56d1d04ce7d4791d0090221d
Pali
229
False
According to East Asian and Tibetan Buddhism, there is an intermediate state (Tibetan "bardo") between one life and the next. The orthodox Theravada position rejects this; however there are passages in the Samyutta Nikaya of the Pali Canon that seem to lend support to the idea that the Buddha taught of an intermediate stage between one life and the next.[page needed]
What is considered to be central to the teachings of Buddhism?
56d0a422234ae51400d9c3ea
the Four Noble Truths
17
False
What do the Four Noble Truths explain?
56d0a422234ae51400d9c3eb
the nature of dukkha (suffering, anxiety, unsatisfactoriness), its causes, and how it can be overcome
188
False
What teachings are the most important to Buddhism?
56d12a0417492d1400aabb06
the Four Noble Truths
17
False
What part of Dukkha deals with pain?
56d12a0417492d1400aabb0a
suffering
210
False
What is considered central to the teachings of Buddhism?
56d1d0bbe7d4791d00902227
Four Noble Truths
21
False
The four truths explain the nature of what?
56d1d0bbe7d4791d00902228
dukkha
202
False
The teachings on the Four Noble Truths are regarded as central to the teachings of Buddhism, and are said to provide a conceptual framework for Buddhist thought. These four truths explain the nature of dukkha (suffering, anxiety, unsatisfactoriness), its causes, and how it can be overcome. The four truths are:[note 4]
What does the first of the Four Noble Truths explain?
56d0a458234ae51400d9c3ee
the nature of dukkha
25
False
What is Dukkha?
56d0a458234ae51400d9c3ef
"suffering", "anxiety", "unsatisfactoriness", "unease", etc.
80
False
What does the first truth cover?
56d131e817492d1400aabbe6
Dukkha
47
False
What is another word for Dukkha?
56d131e817492d1400aabbe7
suffering
81
False
What is another nature of Dukkha?
56d131e817492d1400aabbe8
anxiety
94
False
How many aspects are there to Dukkha?
56d131e817492d1400aabbe9
three
179
False
Dukkha can be translated as what word in regards to unhappiness?
56d131e817492d1400aabbea
unsatisfactoriness
105
False
Suffering, anxiety, unsatisfactoriness, and unease is the translation of what word?
56d1d169e7d4791d00902235
Dukkha
47
False
How many aspects does dukkha have?
56d1d169e7d4791d00902236
three
179
False
The first truth explains the nature of dukkha. Dukkha is commonly translated as "suffering", "anxiety", "unsatisfactoriness", "unease", etc., and it is said to have the following three aspects:
What does the second of the Four Noble Truths explain?
56d0a5bf234ae51400d9c3f2
that the origin of dukkha can be known
20
False
What is the origin of dukkha?
56d0a5bf234ae51400d9c3f3
craving (Pali: tanha) conditioned by ignorance (Pali: avijja)
151
False
What is the third of the Four Noble Truths explain?
56d0a5bf234ae51400d9c3f4
the complete cessation of dukkha is possible
360
False
What is the fourth of the Four Noble Truths explain?
56d0a5bf234ae51400d9c3f5
identifies a path to this cessation
433
False
What is the second truth?
56d1341de7d4791d00901fe1
dukkha can be known.
39
False
How is the meaning of Dukkha explained?
56d1341de7d4791d00901fe2
craving
151
False
What is a contributing factor to Dukkha?
56d1341de7d4791d00901fe3
ignorance
188
False
The second truth is?
56d1d2c4e7d4791d00902243
the origin of dukkha can be known
25
False
The origin of dukkha is explained as craving conditioned by what?
56d1d2c4e7d4791d00902244
ignorance
188
False
The root cause of dukkha is identified as ignorance of what?
56d1d2c4e7d4791d00902245
true nature of things
307
False
The third noble truth is that the complete cessation of what is possible?
56d1d2c4e7d4791d00902246
dukkha
39
False
The second truth is that the origin of dukkha can be known. Within the context of the four noble truths, the origin of dukkha is commonly explained as craving (Pali: tanha) conditioned by ignorance (Pali: avijja). On a deeper level, the root cause of dukkha is identified as ignorance (Pali: avijja) of the true nature of things. The third noble truth is that the complete cessation of dukkha is possible, and the fourth noble truth identifies a path to this cessation.[note 7]
What is the fourth of the Buddha's Four Noble Truths?
56d0a745234ae51400d9c3fa
The Noble Eightfold Path
0
False
What is the purpose of the Noble Eightfold Path?
56d0a745234ae51400d9c3fb
lead to the cessation of dukkha
160
False
What are the eight factors of the Noble Eightfold Path?
56d0a745234ae51400d9c3fc
Right View (or Right Understanding), Right Intention (or Right Thought), Right Speech, Right Action, Right Livelihood, Right Effort, Right Mindfulness, and Right Concentration
218
False
The Noble Eightfold Path is which of Buddha's Truths?
56d1358ee7d4791d00902007
the fourth
25
False
The fourth truth consists of how many factors?
56d1358ee7d4791d00902008
Eight
10
False
What is the end goal of the Fourth Truth?
56d1358ee7d4791d00902009
the cessation of dukkha
168
False
What is one of the eight factors?
56d1358ee7d4791d0090200a
Right Action
305
False
The Noble Eightfold Path is which Noble Truth?
56d1d3e4e7d4791d0090225b
the fourth
25
False
The noble Eightfold path is a set of how many inerconnected factors?
56d1d3e4e7d4791d0090225c
eight
86
False
When the eight factors are developed together, is leads to the cessation of what?
56d1d3e4e7d4791d0090225d
dukkha
185
False
The Noble Eightfold Path—the fourth of the Buddha's Noble Truths—consists of a set of eight interconnected factors or conditions, that when developed together, lead to the cessation of dukkha. These eight factors are: Right View (or Right Understanding), Right Intention (or Right Thought), Right Speech, Right Action, Right Livelihood, Right Effort, Right Mindfulness, and Right Concentration.
Who describes the Noble Eightfold Path as "a mandala of interconnected factors that support and moderate each other."?
56d0a894234ae51400d9c400
Ajahn Sucitto
0
False
How are the eight factors of the Noble Eightfold Path to be understood?
56d0a895234ae51400d9c401
as eight significant dimensions of one's behaviour
269
False
What can one's behaviour be divided into?
56d1d4cce7d4791d00902270
mental, spoken, and bodily
320
False
Who describes the path as "a mandala of interconnected factor that support and moderate each other"?
56d1d4cce7d4791d00902271
Ajahn Sucitto
0
False
Ajahn Sucitto describes the path as "a mandala of interconnected factors that support and moderate each other." The eight factors of the path are not to be understood as stages, in which each stage is completed before moving on to the next. Rather, they are understood as eight significant dimensions of one's behaviour—mental, spoken, and bodily—that operate in dependence on one another; taken together, they define a complete path, or way of living.
During his search for enlightenment, Gautama combined what teachings?
56d0a987234ae51400d9c404
the yoga practice of his teacher Kalama with what later became known as "the immeasurables"
54
False
What was the new kind of human invented by Gautama?
56d0a987234ae51400d9c405
one without egotism
209
False
What are the Four Immeasurable Minds also known as?
56d0a987234ae51400d9c406
brahmaviharas, divine abodes, or simply as four immeasurables
387
False
What is the best known of the four immeasurables?
56d0a987234ae51400d9c407
mettā or loving-kindness meditation
521
False
The Four Immeasurables are taught as a form of meditation that cultivates what?
56d0a987234ae51400d9c408
wholesome attitudes towards all sentient beings
666
False
Gautama combined the yoga practice of what teacher?
56d1d5e8e7d4791d0090227f
Kalama
87
False
Gautama invented a new kind of human without what?
56d1d5e8e7d4791d00902280
egotism
221
False
What are the "four Immeasurable minds"?
56d1d5e8e7d4791d00902281
love, compassion, joy, and equanimity
309
False
Who calls the four immeasurable minds "four limitless ones"?
56d1d5e8e7d4791d00902282
Pema Chödrön
457
False
The Four Immeasurables are taught as a form of what?
56d1d5e8e7d4791d00902283
meditation
546
False
While he searched for enlightenment, Gautama combined the yoga practice of his teacher Kalama with what later became known as "the immeasurables".[dubious – discuss] Gautama thus invented a new kind of human, one without egotism.[dubious – discuss] What Thich Nhat Hanh calls the "Four Immeasurable Minds" of love, compassion, joy, and equanimity[full citation needed] are also known as brahmaviharas, divine abodes, or simply as four immeasurables.[web 5] Pema Chödrön calls them the "four limitless ones". Of the four, mettā or loving-kindness meditation is perhaps the best known.[web 5] The Four Immeasurables are taught as a form of meditation that cultivates "wholesome attitudes towards all sentient beings."[web 6][web 7]
When did Gautama Buddha discover the Middle Way?
56d0a9c3234ae51400d9c40e
prior to his enlightenment
144
False
An important guiding priciple of Buddhist practice is what?
56d1d643e7d4791d00902289
the Middle Way
55
False
Guatama discovered the middle path before his what?
56d1d643e7d4791d0090228a
enlightenment
157
False
An important guiding principle of Buddhist practice is the Middle Way (or Middle Path), which is said to have been discovered by Gautama Buddha prior to his enlightenment. The Middle Way has several definitions:
What are some of the theories and philosophies produced by Buddhist scholars?
56d0aa5a234ae51400d9c410
Abhidharma, Buddhist philosophy and Reality in Buddhism
123
False
Does Buddhism encourage or discourage doctrinal studies?
56d0aa5a234ae51400d9c411
Some schools of Buddhism discourage doctrinal study, and some regard it as essential practice.
181
False
Who has produced a number of theories and concepts such as Abhidharma and Reality in Buddhism?
56d1d6fae7d4791d0090228d
Buddhist scholars
0
False
Some schools within Buddhism discourage what type of study?
56d1d6fae7d4791d0090228e
doctrinal
217
False
Buddhist scholars have produced a number of intellectual theories, philosophies and world view concepts (see, for example, Abhidharma, Buddhist philosophy and Reality in Buddhism). Some schools of Buddhism discourage doctrinal study, and some regard it as essential practice.
What is the goal of the Buddhist path?
56d0ac6c234ae51400d9c414
liberation
15
False
Upon awakening to the true nature of the self, what is one is liberated from?
56d0ac6c234ae51400d9c415
suffering (dukkha) and the cycle of incessant rebirths (saṃsāra)
331
False
Liberation is know as what?
56d1d7cbe7d4791d00902291
nirvāṇa
27
False
What is the goal of the buddhist path?
56d1d7cbe7d4791d00902292
nirvāṇa
27
False
In awakening to the true nature of the self, one no longer care about what?
56d1d7cbe7d4791d00902293
objects
288
False
Buddha recommended viewing thing by how many marks of existence?
56d1d7cbe7d4791d00902294
three
472
False
The concept of liberation (nirvāṇa)—the goal of the Buddhist path—is closely related to overcoming ignorance (avidyā), a fundamental misunderstanding or mis-perception of the nature of reality. In awakening to the true nature of the self and all phenomena one develops dispassion for the objects of clinging, and is liberated from suffering (dukkha) and the cycle of incessant rebirths (saṃsāra). To this end, the Buddha recommended viewing things as characterized by the three marks of existence.
What is the meaning of impermanence in Buddhism?
56d0b63c234ae51400d9c418
all compounded or conditioned phenomena (all things and experiences) are inconstant, unsteady, and impermanent
63
False
According to the Buddhist doctrine of impermanence, how does life express impermanence?
56d0b63c234ae51400d9c419
in the aging process, the cycle of rebirth (saṃsāra), and in any experience of loss
609
False
Why is attachment to things futile?
56d0b63c234ae51400d9c41a
because things are impermanent
720
False
What is in a constant flux?
56d1e224e7d4791d0090233a
Everything
175
False
Everything is continuously coming into being and what?
56d1e224e7d4791d0090233b
ceasing to be
440
False
The cycle of rebirth is also called what?
56d1e224e7d4791d0090233c
saṃsāra
653
False
According to doctrine, because all thing don't last, attachment can lead to what?
56d1e224e7d4791d0090233d
suffering
794
False
Impermanence (Pāli: anicca) expresses the Buddhist notion that all compounded or conditioned phenomena (all things and experiences) are inconstant, unsteady, and impermanent. Everything we can experience through our senses is made up of parts, and its existence is dependent on external conditions. Everything is in constant flux, and so conditions and the thing itself are constantly changing. Things are constantly coming into being, and ceasing to be. Since nothing lasts, there is no inherent or fixed nature to any object or experience. According to the doctrine of impermanence, life embodies this flux in the aging process, the cycle of rebirth (saṃsāra), and in any experience of loss. The doctrine asserts that because things are impermanent, attachment to them is futile and leads to suffering (dukkha).
The term dukkha corresponds to what English terms?
56d0b98f234ae51400d9c41e
suffering, pain, unsatisfactoriness, sorrow, affliction, anxiety, dissatisfaction, discomfort, anguish, stress, misery, and frustration
163
False
Dukkha is often translated as suffering, but the philosophical meaning of dukkha of more closely related to what term?
56d0b98f234ae51400d9c41f
disquietude
402
False
Buddhism seeks to be neither pessimistic or optimistic, but what?
56d0b98f234ae51400d9c420
realistic
683
False
Suffering is a central concept in what?
56d1e3efe7d4791d00902343
Buddhism
82
False
The philosophical meaning of suffering is close what term?
56d1e3efe7d4791d00902344
disquietude
402
False
The condition of being disturbed is what?
56d1e3efe7d4791d00902345
disquietude
402
False
In translation what term is often left untranslated to keep of fuller definition?
56d1e3efe7d4791d00902346
dukkha
23
False
Suffering (Pāli: दुक्ख dukkha; Sanskrit दुःख duḥkha) is also a central concept in Buddhism. The word roughly corresponds to a number of terms in English including suffering, pain, unsatisfactoriness, sorrow, affliction, anxiety, dissatisfaction, discomfort, anguish, stress, misery, and frustration. Although the term is often translated as "suffering", its philosophical meaning is more analogous to "disquietude" as in the condition of being disturbed. As such, "suffering" is too narrow a translation with "negative emotional connotations"[web 9] that can give the impression that the Buddhist view is pessimistic, but Buddhism seeks to be neither pessimistic nor optimistic, but realistic. In English-language Buddhist literature translated from Pāli, "dukkha" is often left untranslated, so as to encompass its full range of meaning.[note 8]
What is the third mark of existence in Buddhism?
56d0bb66234ae51400d9c424
Not-self (Pāli: anatta; Sanskrit: anātman)
0
False
The Buddha rejected the metaphysical assertions "I have a Self" and "I have no Self" as views that bind one to what?
56d0bb66234ae51400d9c425
suffering
315
False
What was the answer given when the Buddha was asked if the body is the same as the self?
56d0bb66234ae51400d9c426
the Buddha refused to answer
537
False
What is the conclusion that one comes to when analyzing the changing physical and mental components or  person or thing?
56d0bb66234ae51400d9c427
neither the respective parts nor the person as a whole comprise a self
717
False
What is the 3rd mark of existence?
56d1e4f7e7d4791d00902391
Not-self
0
False
In what form is anatta not meant as a metaphysical assertion?
56d1e4f7e7d4791d00902392
Nikayas
214
False
Buddha rejected the assertion "I have a Self" and what other related assertion?
56d1e4f7e7d4791d00902393
"I have no Self"
411
False
What is the term for constantly changing physical and mental parts?
56d1e4f7e7d4791d00902394
skandhas
638
False
Not-self (Pāli: anatta; Sanskrit: anātman) is the third mark of existence. Upon careful examination, one finds that no phenomenon is really "I" or "mine"; these concepts are in fact constructed by the mind. In the Nikayas anatta is not meant as a metaphysical assertion, but as an approach for gaining release from suffering. In fact, the Buddha rejected both of the metaphysical assertions "I have a Self" and "I have no Self" as ontological views that bind one to suffering.[note 9] When asked if the self was identical with the body, the Buddha refused to answer. By analyzing the constantly changing physical and mental constituents (skandhas) of a person or object, the practitioner comes to the conclusion that neither the respective parts nor the person as a whole comprise a self.
What is the name of the Buddhist doctrine that states that phenomena arise together in a mutually interdependent web of cause and effect?
56d0bc53234ae51400d9c42c
pratītyasamutpāda, (Sanskrit; Pali: paticcasamuppāda; Tibetan Wylie: rten cing 'brel bar 'byung ba; Chinese: 緣起)
16
False
Translated into English, what does pratītyasamutpāda mean?
56d0bc53234ae51400d9c42d
"dependent origination", "conditioned genesis", "dependent relationship", "dependent co-arising", "interdependent arising", or "contingency"
310
False
The doctrine of pratityasumatupada is a important part of what type of metaphysics?
56d1e7abe7d4791d00902407
Buddhist
153
False
The doctrine of pratītyasamutpāda, (Sanskrit; Pali: paticcasamuppāda; Tibetan Wylie: rten cing 'brel bar 'byung ba; Chinese: 緣起) is an important part of Buddhist metaphysics. It states that phenomena arise together in a mutually interdependent web of cause and effect. It is variously rendered into English as "dependent origination", "conditioned genesis", "dependent relationship", "dependent co-arising", "interdependent arising", or "contingency".
What is the most common application of the concept of pratītyasamutpāda?
56d0bc8f234ae51400d9c430
the scheme of Twelve Nidānas
66
False
What does the scheme of Twelve Nidānas explain?
56d0bc8f234ae51400d9c431
the continuation of the cycle of suffering and rebirth (saṃsāra) in detail.
177
False
An application of the idea of pratityasamutpada is the scheme of what?
56d1e81be7d4791d00902429
Twelve Nidānas
80
False
What doe nidana mean?
56d1e81be7d4791d0090242a
cause, foundation, source or origin
124
False
The best-known application of the concept of pratītyasamutpāda is the scheme of Twelve Nidānas (from Pāli "nidāna" meaning "cause, foundation, source or origin"), which explain the continuation of the cycle of suffering and rebirth (saṃsāra) in detail.[note 10]
What describes the connection between the conditions of cyclic existence?
56d0bcc5234ae51400d9c434
The Twelve Nidānas
0
False
What describes the causal connection between the subsequent conditions of cyclic existance?
56d1e851e7d4791d00902443
The Twelve Nidānas
0
False
The Twelve Nidānas describe a causal connection between the subsequent characteristics or conditions of cyclic existence, each one giving rise to the next:
How are sentient beings freed from suffering?
56d0bd38234ae51400d9c436
by attaining Nirvana
105
False
What is the first Nidāna?
56d0bd38234ae51400d9c437
ignorance
164
False
The absence of ignorance leads to what?
56d0bd38234ae51400d9c438
the absence of the others
183
False
Who always suffers throughout samsara?
56d1e8c3e7d4791d00902463
Sentient beings
0
False
What is suffering also called?
56d1e8c3e7d4791d00902464
dukkha
97
False
How do you free yourself of dukkha?
56d1e8c3e7d4791d00902465
attaining Nirvana
108
False
What is the first Nidana?
56d1e8c3e7d4791d00902466
ignorance
164
False
Sentient beings always suffer throughout saṃsāra until they free themselves from this suffering (dukkha) by attaining Nirvana. Then the absence of the first Nidāna—ignorance—leads to the absence of the others.
Nagarjuna's main contribution was the exposition of the concept of what?
56d1e9ace7d4791d009024b2
śūnyatā
274
False
What does sunyata mean?
56d1e9ace7d4791d009024b3
emptiness
287
False
Nagarjuna said that sentient beings are empty of what?
56d1e9ace7d4791d009024b4
ātman
643
False
What does dharmas mean?
56d1e9ace7d4791d009024b5
phenomena
654
False
Mahayana Buddhism received significant theoretical grounding from Nagarjuna (perhaps c. 150–250 CE), arguably the most influential scholar within the Mahayana tradition. Nagarjuna's primary contribution to Buddhist philosophy was the systematic exposition of the concept of śūnyatā, or "emptiness", widely attested in the Prajñāpāramitā sutras that emerged in his era. The concept of emptiness brings together other key Buddhist doctrines, particularly anatta and dependent origination, to refute the metaphysics of Sarvastivada and Sautrantika (extinct non-Mahayana schools). For Nagarjuna, it is not merely sentient beings that are empty of ātman; all phenomena (dharmas) are without any svabhava (literally "own-nature" or "self-nature"), and thus without any underlying essence; they are "empty" of being independent; thus the heterodox theories of svabhava circulating at the time were refuted on the basis of the doctrines of early Buddhism. Nagarjuna's school of thought is known as the Mādhyamaka. Some of the writings attributed to Nagarjuna made explicit references to Mahayana texts, but his philosophy was argued within the parameters set out by the agamas. He may have arrived at his positions from a desire to achieve a consistent exegesis of the Buddha's doctrine as recorded in the Canon. In the eyes of Nagarjuna the Buddha was not merely a forerunner, but the very founder of the Mādhyamaka system.
What teaching were criticized by Nagarjuna?
56d1eab6e7d4791d00902515
Sarvastivada teachings
0
False
What scholars reformed Sarvastivada teachings?
56d1eab6e7d4791d00902516
Vasubandhu and Asanga
96
False
What is the doctrine that says that the mind and only the mind are real?
56d1eab6e7d4791d00902517
cittamatra
396
False
What Yogacarins asserted that the mind was not truly existent?
56d1eab6e7d4791d00902518
Vasubandhu and Asanga
96
False
Sarvastivada teachings—which were criticized by Nāgārjuna—were reformulated by scholars such as Vasubandhu and Asanga and were adapted into the Yogacara school. While the Mādhyamaka school held that asserting the existence or non-existence of any ultimately real thing was inappropriate, some exponents of Yogacara asserted that the mind and only the mind is ultimately real (a doctrine known as cittamatra). Not all Yogacarins asserted that mind was truly existent; Vasubandhu and Asanga in particular did not.[web 11] These two schools of thought, in opposition or synthesis, form the basis of subsequent Mahayana metaphysics in the Indo-Tibetan tradition.
What does tathagatagarbha mean?
56d1ebdfe7d4791d00902577
Buddha-nature
124
False
what does prajnaparamita mean?
56d1ebdfe7d4791d00902578
perfected spiritual insight
75
False
According to what school is tathgatagarbha the inseparability of clairty and emptiness of one's mind?
56d1ebdfe7d4791d00902579
Sakya
374
False
According to what school does it refer to the innate qualities of the mind that express themselves as omniscience?
56d1ebdfe7d4791d0090257a
Jonang
732
False
What type of sutras were generally ignored in india?
56d1ebdfe7d4791d0090257b
tathāgatagarbha
139
False
Besides emptiness, Mahayana schools often place emphasis on the notions of perfected spiritual insight (prajñāpāramitā) and Buddha-nature (tathāgatagarbha). There are conflicting interpretations of the tathāgatagarbha in Mahāyāna thought. The idea may be traced to Abhidharma, and ultimately to statements of the Buddha in the Nikāyas. In Tibetan Buddhism, according to the Sakya school, tathāgatagarbha is the inseparability of the clarity and emptiness of one's mind. In Nyingma, tathāgatagarbha also generally refers to inseparability of the clarity and emptiness of one's mind. According to the Gelug school, it is the potential for sentient beings to awaken since they are empty (i.e. dependently originated). According to the Jonang school, it refers to the innate qualities of the mind that expresses themselves as omniscience etc. when adventitious obscurations are removed. The "Tathāgatagarbha Sutras" are a collection of Mahayana sutras that present a unique model of Buddha-nature. Even though this collection was generally ignored in India, East Asian Buddhism provides some significance to these texts.
What term means cessation?
56d1ec45e7d4791d00902581
Nirvana
0
False
What term means awakening?
56d1ec45e7d4791d00902582
nirvana
307
False
What is the term for someone who has achieved nirvana?
56d1ec45e7d4791d00902583
arahant
341
False
Nirvana (Sanskrit; Pali: "Nibbāna") means "cessation", "extinction" (of craving and ignorance and therefore suffering and the cycle of involuntary rebirths (saṃsāra)), "extinguished", "quieted", "calmed"; it is also known as "Awakening" or "Enlightenment" in the West. The term for anybody who has achieved nirvana, including the Buddha, is arahant.
What is the term applied to the experience of the awakening of arahants?
56d1ece4e7d4791d00902587
Bodhi
0
False
In early Buddhism Bodhi used a meaning synonymous to what word?
56d1ece4e7d4791d00902588
nirvana
269
False
What is the term for greed or craving?
56d1ece4e7d4791d00902589
raga
374
False
what is the word for hate or aversion?
56d1ece4e7d4791d0090258a
dosa
405
False
What does moha mean?
56d1ece4e7d4791d0090258b
delusion
445
False
Bodhi (Pāli and Sanskrit, in devanagari: बॊधि) is a term applied to the experience of Awakening of arahants. Bodhi literally means "awakening", but it is more commonly translated into English as "enlightenment". In Early Buddhism, bodhi carried a meaning synonymous to nirvana, using only some different metaphors to describe the experience, which implies the extinction of raga (greed, craving),[web 12] dosa (hate, aversion)[web 13] and moha (delusion).[web 14] In the later school of Mahayana Buddhism, the status of nirvana was downgraded in some scriptures, coming to refer only to the extinction of greed and hate, implying that delusion was still present in one who attained nirvana, and that one needed to attain bodhi to eradicate delusion:
What has achieved nirvana and also liberation from delusion?
56d1ee4ae7d4791d00902591
bodhisattva
130
False
If bodhi is attained what do you become?
56d1ee4ae7d4791d00902592
a buddha
245
False
In theravada buddhism, bodhi and what term have the same meaning?
56d1ee4ae7d4791d00902593
nirvana
73
False
Therefore, according to Mahayana Buddhism, the arahant has attained only nirvana, thus still being subject to delusion, while the bodhisattva not only achieves nirvana but full liberation from delusion as well. He thus attains bodhi and becomes a buddha. In Theravada Buddhism, bodhi and nirvana carry the same meaning as in the early texts, that of being freed from greed, hate and delusion.
What term is used for the complete nirvana attained by the arahant at death?
56d1eeece7d4791d00902597
parinirvana
9
False
The term parinirvana is also encountered in Buddhism, and this generally refers to the complete nirvana attained by the arahant at the moment of death, when the physical body expires.
Who is a fully awakened being who has purified his mind of the three poisons of desire, aversion, and ignorance?
56d1ef6ae7d4791d00902599
a Buddha
33
False
A Buddha is no longer bound by what?
56d1ef6ae7d4791d0090259a
Samsara
192
False
What do unawakend people experience?
56d1ef6ae7d4791d0090259b
suffering
218
False
According to Buddhist traditions a Buddha is a fully awakened being who has completely purified his mind of the three poisons of desire, aversion and ignorance. A Buddha is no longer bound by Samsara and has ended the suffering which unawakened people experience in life.
How many Buddhas are considered to have existed in the Pali Canon?
56d1f064e7d4791d0090259f
28
136
False
A Theravada and Mahayana belief is that the next Buddha will be one named what?
56d1f064e7d4791d009025a0
Maitreya
470
False
Mahayana has many Buddhas of what origin?
56d1f064e7d4791d009025a1
celestial
211
False
Buddhists do not consider Siddhartha Gautama to have been the only Buddha. The Pali Canon refers to many previous ones (see List of the 28 Buddhas), while the Mahayana tradition additionally has many Buddhas of celestial, rather than historical, origin (see Amitabha or Vairocana as examples, for lists of many thousands Buddha names see Taishō Shinshū Daizōkyō numbers 439–448). A common Theravada and Mahayana Buddhist belief is that the next Buddha will be one named Maitreya (Pali: Metteyya).
A person can awaken from the "sleep of ignorance" by acknowledging the true nature of what?
56d1f14be7d4791d009025a5
reality
114
False
At the end of the cycle of rebirth a person is called what?
56d1f14be7d4791d009025a6
arahants
146
False
In Theravada doctrine, a person may awaken from the "sleep of ignorance" by directly realizing the true nature of reality; such people are called arahants and occasionally buddhas. After numerous lifetimes of spiritual striving, they have reached the end of the cycle of rebirth, no longer reincarnating as human, animal, ghost, or other being. The commentaries to the Pali Canon classify these awakened beings into three types:
Nirvana and what term carry the same meaning?
56d1f214e7d4791d009025ab
Bodhi
0
False
What is the term for extinction of only hatred and greed, with residue of delusion?
56d1f214e7d4791d009025ac
anagami
290
False
Bodhi and nirvana carry the same meaning, that of being freed from craving, hate, and delusion. In attaining bodhi, the arahant has overcome these obstacles. As a further distinction, the extinction of only hatred and greed (in the sensory context) with some residue of delusion, is called anagami.
In the Mahayana, who is thought to be an omnipresent being?
56d1f2b4e7d4791d009025af
Buddha
21
False
Who is thought to be beyond the range and reach of thought?
56d1f2b4e7d4791d009025b0
Buddha
21
False
In what sutras are the Buddha, Dharma, and Sangha viewed as One?
56d1f2b4e7d4791d009025b1
Mahayana
7
False
In the Mahayana, the Buddha tends not to be viewed as merely human, but as the earthly projection of a beginningless and endless, omnipresent being (see Dharmakaya) beyond the range and reach of thought. Moreover, in certain Mahayana sutras, the Buddha, Dharma and Sangha are viewed essentially as One: all three are seen as the eternal Buddha himself.
Buddha's death is seen as an illusion, as he is living in other planes of what?
56d1f365e7d4791d009025b5
existence
78
False
Who is permitted to offer "new truths" based on Buddhas input?
56d1f365e7d4791d009025b6
monks
93
False
What is the term for the idea of ultimately nothing has existance?
56d1f365e7d4791d009025b7
śūnyatā
220
False
Who are enlightened people who vow to continue being reborn?
56d1f365e7d4791d009025b8
bodhisattvas
290
False
The Buddha's death is seen as an illusion, he is living on in other planes of existence, and monks are therefore permitted to offer "new truths" based on his input. Mahayana also differs from Theravada in its concept of śūnyatā (that ultimately nothing has existence), and in its belief in bodhisattvas (enlightened people who vow to continue being reborn until all beings can be enlightened).
What is characterized by the deep truts in the "other-power" of Amitabha Buddha
56d1f453e7d4791d009025bd
Pure Land
146
False
What is perhaps the most faith-oriented for of Buddhism?
56d1f453e7d4791d009025be
Pure Land
146
False
What Buddha vowed to rescue all beings from samsaric suffering?
56d1f453e7d4791d009025bf
Amitabha
229
False
The method of self-exertion or "self-power"—without reliance on an external force or being—stands in contrast to another major form of Buddhism, Pure Land, which is characterized by utmost trust in the salvific "other-power" of Amitabha Buddha. Pure Land Buddhism is a very widespread and perhaps the most faith-orientated manifestation of Buddhism and centres upon the conviction that faith in Amitabha Buddha and the chanting of homage to his name liberates one at death into the Blissful (安樂), Pure Land (淨土) of Amitabha Buddha. This Buddhic realm is variously construed as a foretaste of Nirvana, or as essentially Nirvana itself. The great vow of Amitabha Buddha to rescue all beings from samsaric suffering is viewed within Pure Land Buddhism as universally efficacious, if only one has faith in the power of that vow or chants his name.
Who is believed to have achieved enlightenment first?
56d1f5e8e7d4791d009025c3
Gautama Buddha
18
False
What is the term for the stretch of history during which people rmember and practice the teachings of the earliest known buddha?
56d1f5e8e7d4791d009025c4
A Buddha era
153
False
Who is the Buddha of this Buddha era?
56d1f5e8e7d4791d009025c5
Gautama Buddha
18
False
Who taught directly or indirectly to all other Buddhas?
56d1f5e8e7d4791d009025c6
Gautama Buddha
18
False
Buddhists believe Gautama Buddha was the first to achieve enlightenment in this Buddha era and is therefore credited with the establishment of Buddhism. A Buddha era is the stretch of history during which people remember and practice the teachings of the earliest known Buddha. This Buddha era will end when all the knowledge, evidence and teachings of Gautama Buddha have vanished. This belief therefore maintains that many Buddha eras have started and ended throughout the course of human existence.[web 15][web 16] The Gautama Buddha, therefore, is the Buddha of this era, who taught directly or indirectly to all other Buddhas in it (see types of Buddhas).
Who believes there are innumerable other Buddhas in other universes?
56d1f685e7d4791d009025cb
Mahayana Buddhists
13
False
What buddhist belief says that Buddhas come one at a time and not within other eras?
56d1f685e7d4791d009025cc
Theravada
98
False
In addition, Mahayana Buddhists believe there are innumerable other Buddhas in other universes. A Theravada commentary says that Buddhas arise one at a time in this world element, and not at all in others. The understandings of this matter reflect widely differing interpretations of basic terms, such as "world realm", between the various schools of Buddhism.
What form of Buddhism has declined to the point where few are capable of following the path?
56d1f878e7d4791d009025cf
Pure Land
111
False
The idea of the decline and gradual disappearance of the teaching has been influential in East Asian Buddhism. Pure Land Buddhism holds that it has declined to the point where few are capable of following the path, so it may be best to rely on the power of Amitābha.
What does Bodhisattva mean?
56d1fc6ae7d4791d009025d1
enlightenment being
19
False
What is the term for the spontaneous wish to attain Buddhahood for the benefit of all beings?
56d1fc6ae7d4791d009025d2
bodhicitta
192
False
Bodhisattva means "enlightenment being", and generally refers to one who is on the path to buddhahood. Traditionally, a bodhisattva is anyone who, motivated by great compassion, has generated bodhicitta, which is a spontaneous wish to attain Buddhahood for the benefit of all sentient beings. Theravada Buddhism primarily uses the term in relation to Gautama Buddha's previous existences, but has traditionally acknowledged and respected the bodhisattva path as well.[web 17]
What term means "great vehicle"?
56d1fd7ee7d4791d009025d6
Mahayana
206
False
What is an honorary synonym for Bodhisattvayana?
56d1fd7ee7d4791d009025d7
Mahayana
206
False
The Astasahasrika Prajnaparamita Sutra is an important text of what type?
56d1fd7ee7d4791d009025d8
Mahayana
206
False
According to Jan Nattier, the term Mahāyāna "Great Vehicle" was originally even an honorary synonym for Bodhisattvayāna "Bodhisattva Vehicle." The Aṣṭasāhasrikā Prajñāpāramitā Sūtra, an early and important Mahayana text, contains a simple and brief definition for the term bodhisattva: "Because he has enlightenment as his aim, a bodhisattva-mahāsattva is so called."
What buddhism encourages everyone to become bodhisattvas?
56d1fe20e7d4791d009025dc
Mahayana
0
False
What is the idea there the practitioner promises to work for the complete enlightenment of all beings by practicing the six paramitas?
56d1fe20e7d4791d009025dd
bodhisattva vow
77
False
What are the six perfections under Mahayana teachings?
56d1fe20e7d4791d009025de
dāna, śīla, kṣanti, vīrya, dhyāna, and prajñā
268
False
Mahayana Buddhism encourages everyone to become bodhisattvas and to take the bodhisattva vow, where the practitioner promises to work for the complete enlightenment of all beings by practicing the six pāramitās. According to Mahayana teachings, these perfections are: dāna, śīla, kṣanti, vīrya, dhyāna, and prajñā.
Which Dalai Lama cites Shantideva's famous saying?
56d20c26e7d4791d0090262c
the 14th Dalai Lama
83
False
A famous saying by the 8th-century Indian Buddhist scholar-saint Shantideva, which the 14th Dalai Lama often cites as his favourite verse, summarizes the Bodhisattva's intention (Bodhicitta) as follows: "For as long as space endures, and for as long as living beings remain, until then may I too abide to dispel the misery of the world."[citation needed]
Devotion is an important part of the practice of most what?
56d20c93e7d4791d0090262f
Buddhists
54
False
What are the devotional practices?
56d20c93e7d4791d00902630
bowing, offerings, pilgrimage, and chanting
94
False
Devotion is an important part of the practice of most Buddhists. Devotional practices include bowing, offerings, pilgrimage, and chanting. In Pure Land Buddhism, devotion to the Buddha Amitabha is the main practice. In Nichiren Buddhism, devotion to the Lotus Sutra is the main practice.
Buddhism traditionally incorporates states of what type of absorption?
56d20db9e7d4791d00902635
meditative
46
False
The most acient yogic ideas is found in the early sermons of who?
56d20db9e7d4791d00902636
the Buddha
182
False
The difference between the Buddha's teaching and the yoga presented in what what type of texts is significant?
56d20db9e7d4791d00902637
Brahminic
388
False
According to the Buddha event he highest meditative state is not what?
56d20db9e7d4791d00902638
liberating
289
False
Buddhism traditionally incorporates states of meditative absorption (Pali: jhāna; Skt: dhyāna). The most ancient sustained expression of yogic ideas is found in the early sermons of the Buddha. One key innovative teaching of the Buddha was that meditative absorption must be combined with liberating cognition. The difference between the Buddha's teaching and the yoga presented in early Brahminic texts is striking. Meditative states alone are not an end, for according to the Buddha, even the highest meditative state is not liberating. Instead of attaining a complete cessation of thought, some sort of mental activity must take place: a liberating cognition, based on the practice of mindful awareness.
Meditation was an aspect of the practice of who?
56d2124ce7d4791d0090263d
the yogis
44
False
In Buddhism, what must be developed at all times?
56d2124ce7d4791d0090263e
mindfulness and clear awareness
252
False
Meditation was an aspect of the practice of the yogis in the centuries preceding the Buddha. The Buddha built upon the yogis' concern with introspection and developed their meditative techniques, but rejected their theories of liberation. In Buddhism, mindfulness and clear awareness are to be developed at all times; in pre-Buddhist yogic practices there is no such injunction. A yogi in the Brahmanical tradition is not to practice while defecating, for example, while a Buddhist monastic should do so.
Religious knowledge is also known as what?
56d21aa5e7d4791d00902643
vision
24
False
What type of techniques were shared with other traditions of his day?
56d21aa5e7d4791d00902644
meditative
337
False
There is an idea where ethics are causally related to the attainment of what?
56d21aa5e7d4791d00902645
transcendent wisdom
473
False
Religious knowledge or "vision" was indicated as a result of practice both within and outside of the Buddhist fold. According to the Samaññaphala Sutta, this sort of vision arose for the Buddhist adept as a result of the perfection of "meditation" coupled with the perfection of "discipline" (Pali sīla; Skt. śīla). Some of the Buddha's meditative techniques were shared with other traditions of his day, but the idea that ethics are causally related to the attainment of "transcendent wisdom" (Pali paññā; Skt. prajñā) was original.[web 18]
What are probably the earliest texts describing meditation techniques?
56d21b46e7d4791d00902649
Buddhist texts
4
False
What describes meditative states exising before the Buddha?
56d21b46e7d4791d0090264a
Buddhist texts
4
False
What two items were written after the rise of Buddhism?
56d21b46e7d4791d0090264b
Upanishads
210
False
The Buddhist texts are probably the earliest describing meditation techniques. They describe meditative practices and states that existed before the Buddha as well as those first developed within Buddhism. Two Upanishads written after the rise of Buddhism do contain full-fledged descriptions of yoga as a means to liberation.
In pre-buddhist early Brahminic texts there is no evidence for what?
56d21c3ae7d4791d0090264f
meditation
42
False
The upanishads statements reflect what type of tradition?
56d21c3ae7d4791d00902651
contemplative
479
False
What contains evidence for a contemplative tradition?
56d21c3ae7d4791d00902652
Nasadiya Sukta
523
False
While there is no convincing evidence for meditation in pre-Buddhist early Brahminic texts, Wynne argues that formless meditation originated in the Brahminic or Shramanic tradition, based on strong parallels between Upanishadic cosmological statements and the meditative goals of the two teachers of the Buddha as recorded in the early Buddhist texts. He mentions less likely possibilities as well. Having argued that the cosmological statements in the Upanishads also reflect a contemplative tradition, he argues that the Nasadiya Sukta contains evidence for a contemplative tradition, even as early as the late Rig Vedic period.
What is the first step in a school of Buddhism?
56d21d1fe7d4791d00902657
the Three Jewels
81
False
What mentions taking refuge on behalf of young or unborn children?
56d21d1fe7d4791d00902658
Majjhima Nikaya
285
False
What type of Buddhism adds a fourth refuge?
56d21d1fe7d4791d00902659
Tibetan
369
False
The Three Jewels are preceived as possessed of an eternal and unchanging what?
56d21d1fe7d4791d0090265a
essence.
915
False
What has an irreversable effect?
56d21d1fe7d4791d0090265b
The Three Jewels
699
False
Traditionally, the first step in most Buddhist schools requires taking refuge in the Three Jewels (Sanskrit: tri-ratna, Pāli: ti-ratana)[web 19] as the foundation of one's religious practice. The practice of taking refuge on behalf of young or even unborn children is mentioned in the Majjhima Nikaya, recognized by most scholars as an early text (cf. Infant baptism). Tibetan Buddhism sometimes adds a fourth refuge, in the lama. In Mahayana, the person who chooses the bodhisattva path makes a vow or pledge, considered the ultimate expression of compassion. In Mahayana, too, the Three Jewels are perceived as possessed of an eternal and unchanging essence and as having an irreversible effect: "The Three Jewels have the quality of excellence. Just as real jewels never change their faculty and goodness, whether praised or reviled, so are the Three Jewels (Refuges), because they have an eternal and immutable essence. These Three Jewels bring a fruition that is changeless, for once one has reached Buddhahood, there is no possibility of falling back to suffering.
Who presented himself as a model?
56d21dcce7d4791d00902661
Gautama Buddha
29
False
What offers a refuge by providing guidelines for the alleviation of suffering?
56d21dcce7d4791d00902662
Dharma
78
False
What provides refuge by preserving the authentic teachings of the Buddha?
56d21dcce7d4791d00902663
Sangha
193
False
According to the scriptures, Gautama Buddha presented himself as a model. The Dharma offers a refuge by providing guidelines for the alleviation of suffering and the attainment of Nirvana. The Sangha is considered to provide a refuge by preserving the authentic teachings of the Buddha and providing further examples that the truth of the Buddha's teachings is attainable.
What is an action committed through the body and involves intentional effort?
56d21fd7e7d4791d00902672
Śīla
0
False
Sila is the second what?
56d21fd7e7d4791d00902673
pāramitā
317
False
Śīla (Sanskrit) or sīla (Pāli) is usually translated into English as "virtuous behavior", "morality", "moral discipline", "ethics" or "precept". It is an action committed through the body, speech, or mind, and involves an intentional effort. It is one of the three practices (sīla, samādhi, and paññā) and the second pāramitā. It refers to moral purity of thought, word, and deed. The four conditions of śīla are chastity, calmness, quiet, and extinguishment.
What keeps the cultivator from rebirth in the four realms of existance?
56d2207ee7d4791d0090268d
keeping the precepts
266
False
What is the foundation of Samadhi/Bhavana?
56d2207ee7d4791d0090268e
Śīla
0
False
What promotes not only the peace of mind but also peace in the community?
56d2207ee7d4791d0090268f
keeping the precepts
266
False
Śīla is the foundation of Samādhi/Bhāvana (Meditative cultivation) or mind cultivation. Keeping the precepts promotes not only the peace of mind of the cultivator, which is internal, but also peace in the community, which is external. According to the Law of Karma, keeping the precepts is meritorious and it acts as causes that would bring about peaceful and happy effects. Keeping these precepts keeps the cultivator from rebirth in the four woeful realms of existence.
What does sila refer to?
56d2392cb329da140004ec14
overall principles of ethical behavior
15
False
Lay people tend to live by the five what?
56d2392cb329da140004ec15
precepts
132
False
Schools can undertake eight precepts, which add basic what?
56d2392cb329da140004ec17
asceticism.
448
False
Śīla refers to overall principles of ethical behavior. There are several levels of sīla, which correspond to "basic morality" (five precepts), "basic morality with asceticism" (eight precepts), "novice monkhood" (ten precepts) and "monkhood" (Vinaya or Patimokkha). Lay people generally undertake to live by the five precepts, which are common to all Buddhist schools. If they wish, they can choose to undertake the eight precepts, which add basic asceticism.
Precepts are not created as imperatives, but as what?
56d23abcb329da140004ec26
training rules
55
False
The cultivation of dana and what kind of conduct refine consciousness?
56d23abcb329da140004ec27
ethical
180
False
Even if there is no further Buddhist practice, what heavens is still likely?
56d23abcb329da140004ec28
lower
271
False
The precepts are not formulated as imperatives, but as training rules that laypeople undertake voluntarily to facilitate practice. In Buddhist thought, the cultivation of dana and ethical conduct themselves refine consciousness to such a level that rebirth in one of the lower heavens is likely, even if there is no further Buddhist practice. There is nothing improper or un-Buddhist about limiting one's aims to this level of attainment.
Of the eight precepts which one is on sexual misconduct?
56d23b26b329da140004ec2e
third
27
False
What is the third strict precept on sexual misconduct?
56d23b26b329da140004ec2f
a precept of celibacy
95
False
In the eight precepts, the third precept on sexual misconduct is made more strict, and becomes a precept of celibacy. The three additional precepts are:
How many precepts are on the list?
56d23c30b329da140004ec3c
ten
21
False
In the complete list of precepts, which one is partitioned into two?
56d23c30b329da140004ec3e
seventh
109
False
The complete list of ten precepts may be observed by laypeople for short periods. For the complete list, the seventh precept is partitioned into two, and a tenth added:
How many basic precepts are there for monastics?
56d23cc4b329da140004ec42
the ten precepts
368
False
What is the specific moral code for monks and nuns?
56d23cc4b329da140004ec43
vinaya
167
False
How many rules dows the patimokkha have?
56d23cc4b329da140004ec44
227
91
False
What are the scriptures on vinaya called?
56d23cc4b329da140004ec45
vinayapitaka
167
False
Vinaya is the specific moral code for monks and nuns. It includes the Patimokkha, a set of 227 rules for monks in the Theravadin recension. The precise content of the vinayapitaka (scriptures on Vinaya) differs slightly according to different schools, and different schools or subschools set different standards for the degree of adherence to Vinaya. Novice-monks use the ten precepts, which are the basic precepts for monastics.
Regarding the monastic rules, the Buddha reminds his hearers that it is the spirit that what?
56d23d72b329da140004ec4c
counts
99
False
The rules themselves are designed to assure a satisfying what?
56d23d72b329da140004ec4d
life
183
False
The rules are a perfect springboard for what?
56d23d72b329da140004ec4e
higher attainments
231
False
Monastics are instructed by the Buddha to live as what?
56d23d72b329da140004ec4f
islands unto themselves
302
False
Regarding the monastic rules, the Buddha constantly reminds his hearers that it is the spirit that counts. On the other hand, the rules themselves are designed to assure a satisfying life, and provide a perfect springboard for the higher attainments. Monastics are instructed by the Buddha to live as "islands unto themselves". In this sense, living life as the vinaya prescribes it is, as one scholar puts it: "more than merely a means to an end: it is very nearly the end in itself."
Distinctive Vinaya and ethics are contained within what sutra?
56d23eaeb329da140004ec54
Mahayana Brahmajala
88
False
Bodhisattvas are not encouraged to eat what?
56d23eaeb329da140004ec55
meat
219
False
Where is the monastic vinaya displaced and clergy is allowed to marry?
56d23eaeb329da140004ec57
Japan
317
False
In Eastern Buddhism, there is also a distinctive Vinaya and ethics contained within the Mahayana Brahmajala Sutra (not to be confused with the Pali text of that name) for Bodhisattvas, where, for example, the eating of meat is frowned upon and vegetarianism is actively encouraged (see vegetarianism in Buddhism). In Japan, this has almost completely displaced the monastic vinaya, and allows clergy to marry.
In Chinese Buddhism what meditation is more popular?
56d24042b329da140004ec6a
Zen
367
False
Evidence has shown some lay people got to proficiency in all eight what?
56d24042b329da140004ec6c
jhānas
926
False
Buddhist meditation is fundamentally concerned with two themes: transforming the mind and using it to explore itself and other phenomena. According to Theravada Buddhism the Buddha taught two types of meditation, samatha meditation (Sanskrit: śamatha) and vipassanā meditation (Sanskrit: vipaśyanā). In Chinese Buddhism, these exist (translated chih kuan), but Chán (Zen) meditation is more popular. According to Peter Harvey, whenever Buddhism has been healthy, not only monks, nuns, and married lamas, but also more committed lay people have practiced meditation. According to Routledge's Encyclopedia of Buddhism, in contrast, throughout most of Buddhist history before modern times, serious meditation by lay people has been unusual. The evidence of the early texts suggests that at the time of the Buddha, many male and female lay practitioners did practice meditation, some even to the point of proficiency in all eight jhānas (see the next section regarding these).[note 11]
What does the word samyaksamadhi mean?
56d240dbb329da140004ec76
right concentration
63
False
Meditation is the primary means of cultivating what?
56d240dbb329da140004ec77
samādhi
51
False
Upon development of samadhi, a person gets rid of what?
56d240dbb329da140004ec78
defilement, calm, tranquil, and luminous
201
False
In the language of the Noble Eightfold Path, samyaksamādhi is "right concentration". The primary means of cultivating samādhi is meditation. Upon development of samādhi, one's mind becomes purified of defilement, calm, tranquil, and luminous.
What is powerful concentration called?
56d2415fb329da140004ec7c
jhāna
65
False
What is the term when the mind is ready to penetrate and gain insight?
56d2415fb329da140004ec7d
vipassanā
145
False
Mindfulness is essential to concentration, which is neede to achieve what?
56d2415fb329da140004ec7e
insight
136
False
Once the meditator achieves a strong and powerful concentration (jhāna, Sanskrit ध्यान dhyāna), his mind is ready to penetrate and gain insight (vipassanā) into the ultimate nature of reality, eventually obtaining release from all suffering. The cultivation of mindfulness is essential to mental concentration, which is needed to achieve insight.
Samatha meditation starts from being mindful of an object or what?
56d24217b329da140004ec8a
idea
61
False
What is the term for tranquility?
56d24217b329da140004ec8b
jhāna
189
False
Samatha meditation starts from being mindful of an object or idea, which is expanded to one's body, mind and entire surroundings, leading to a state of total concentration and tranquility (jhāna). There are many variations in the style of meditation, from sitting cross-legged or kneeling to chanting or walking. The most common method of meditation is to concentrate on one's breath (anapanasati), because this practice can lead to both samatha and vipassana'.
In Buddhism, samatha meditation can calm the what?
56d2429fb329da140004ec92
mind
76
False
Vipassana meditation can reveal how the mind was what?
56d2429fb329da140004ec93
disturbed
136
False
What is the term for insight knowledge?
56d2429fb329da140004ec94
jñāna
203
False
What is the term for understanding?
56d2429fb329da140004ec95
prajñā
240
False
What eradicates the defilements completely?
56d2429fb329da140004ec96
understanding
225
False
In Buddhist practice, it is said that while samatha meditation can calm the mind, only vipassanā meditation can reveal how the mind was disturbed to start with, which is what leads to insight knowledge (jñāna; Pāli ñāṇa) and understanding (prajñā Pāli paññā), and thus can lead to nirvāṇa (Pāli nibbāna). When one is in jhana, all defilements are suppressed temporarily. Only understanding (prajñā or vipassana) eradicates the defilements completely. Jhanas are also states that Arahants abide in order to rest.
In Theravada Buddhism, what is the cause of human existence and suffering?
56d244ddb329da140004ecb0
craving
83
False
What does craving carry with it?
56d244ddb329da140004ecb1
defilements
126
False
Deeply rooted afflictions of the mind create what?
56d244ddb329da140004ecb3
suffering and stress
293
False
What is the ultimate goal for Theravadins?
56d244ddb329da140004ecb4
Nibbāna
652
False
In Theravāda Buddhism, the cause of human existence and suffering is identified as craving, which carries with it the various defilements. These various defilements are traditionally summed up as greed, hatred and delusion. These are believed deeply rooted afflictions of the mind that create suffering and stress. To be free from suffering and stress, these defilements must be permanently uprooted through internal investigation, analyzing, experiencing, and understanding of the true nature of those defilements by using jhāna, a technique of the Noble Eightfold Path. It then leads the meditator to realize the Four Noble Truths, Enlightenment and Nibbāna. Nibbāna is the ultimate goal of Theravadins.
How many Noble Truths are there?
56d24619b329da140004ecbf
Four
108
False
Prajna is the wisom that is able to extinguish afflictions and bring about what?
56d24619b329da140004ecc0
bodhi
236
False
What is listed as the sixth of the six paramitas of the mahayana?
56d24619b329da140004ecc1
Prajñā
0
False
Prajñā (Sanskrit) or paññā (Pāli) means wisdom that is based on a realization of dependent origination, The Four Noble Truths and the three marks of existence. Prajñā is the wisdom that is able to extinguish afflictions and bring about bodhi. It is spoken of as the principal means of attaining nirvāṇa, through its revelation of the true nature of all things as dukkha (unsatisfactoriness), anicca (impermanence) and anatta (not-self). Prajñā is also listed as the sixth of the six pāramitās of the Mahayana.
Initially prajna is attained at a conceptual level by means of listening to what?
56d246e7b329da140004ecce
sermons
77
False
In theory when can one attain Nirvana during practice?
56d246e7b329da140004eccf
at any point
394
False
What can be applied to daily life once it is attained?
56d246e7b329da140004ecd0
conceptual understanding
194
False
Initially, prajñā is attained at a conceptual level by means of listening to sermons (dharma talks), reading, studying, and sometimes reciting Buddhist texts and engaging in discourse. Once the conceptual understanding is attained, it is applied to daily life so that each Buddhist can verify the truth of the Buddha's teaching at a practical level. Notably, one could in theory attain Nirvana at any point of practice, whether deep in meditation, listening to a sermon, conducting the business of one's daily life, or any other activity.
Zen Buddhism is known as what in Korea?
56d24773b329da140004ecd4
seon
46
False
What form of buddhism lays special emphasis on meditation?
56d24773b329da140004ecd5
Zen
0
False
What form of Buddhism places less emphasis on scriptures?
56d24773b329da140004ecd6
Zen
0
False
Zen focuses on what type of breakthroughs?
56d24773b329da140004ecd7
spiritual
369
False
Zen Buddhism (禅), pronounced Chán in Chinese, seon in Korean or zen in Japanese (derived from the Sanskrit term dhyāna, meaning "meditation") is a form of Buddhism that became popular in China, Korea and Japan and that lays special emphasis on meditation.[note 12] Zen places less emphasis on scriptures than some other forms of Buddhism and prefers to focus on direct spiritual breakthroughs to truth.
Zen Buddhism is divided into how many main schools?
56d2485bb329da140004ece0
two
29
False
Which schools of Zen likes the use of meditation on the koan for spiritual breakthroughs?
56d2485bb329da140004ece2
Rinzai
47
False
Zen Buddhism is divided into two main schools: Rinzai (臨済宗) and Sōtō (曹洞宗), the former greatly favouring the use in meditation on the koan (公案, a meditative riddle or puzzle) as a device for spiritual break-through, and the latter (while certainly employing koans) focusing more on shikantaza or "just sitting".[note 13]
What Buddhist teachings are often full of paradox?
56d249a4b329da140004ecf1
Zen
0
False
What type of self is equated with the Buddha?
56d249a4b329da140004ecf3
True Self
143
False
What is not allowed to confine and bind oneself?
56d249a4b329da140004ecf4
Thinking and thought
615
False
Zen Buddhist teaching is often full of paradox, in order to loosen the grip of the ego and to facilitate the penetration into the realm of the True Self or Formless Self, which is equated with the Buddha himself.[note 14] According to Zen master Kosho Uchiyama, when thoughts and fixation on the little "I" are transcended, an Awakening to a universal, non-dual Self occurs: "When we let go of thoughts and wake up to the reality of life that is working beyond them, we discover the Self that is living universal non-dual life (before the separation into two) that pervades all living creatures and all existence." Thinking and thought must therefore not be allowed to confine and bind one.
What type of Buddhism is Tibeto-Mongolian based on?
56d24a6fb329da140004ecfd
Mahayana
18
False
What is the English term for Vajrayana?
56d24a6fb329da140004ecfe
Diamond Vehicle
104
False
What type of Buddhism is concerned with ritual and meditative practices?
56d24a6fb329da140004ecff
Tantric
166
False
Psycho-physical energy is harnessed through what?
56d24a6fb329da140004ed00
ritual
291
False
Though based upon Mahayana, Tibeto-Mongolian Buddhism is one of the schools that practice Vajrayana or "Diamond Vehicle" (also referred to as Mantrayāna, Tantrayāna, Tantric Buddhism, or esoteric Buddhism). It accepts all the basic concepts of Mahāyāna, but also includes a vast array of spiritual and physical techniques designed to enhance Buddhist practice. Tantric Buddhism is largely concerned with ritual and meditative practices. One component of the Vajrayāna is harnessing psycho-physical energy through ritual, visualization, physical exercises, and meditation as a means of developing the mind. Using these techniques, it is claimed that a practitioner can achieve Buddhahood in one lifetime, or even as little as three years. In the Tibetan tradition, these practices can include sexual yoga, though only for some very advanced practitioners.
What time period was the beginning of Buddhism?
56d24b65b329da140004ed11
second half of the first millennium BCE
93
False
Scholars believe that karma originated in what?
56d24b65b329da140004ed12
the shramanas
788
False
What groups broke with Brahmanic tradition?
56d24b65b329da140004ed13
shramanas
523
False
Shramanas were a continuation of what type of trand of Indian thought?
56d24b65b329da140004ed14
non-Vedic
559
False
Historically, the roots of Buddhism lie in the religious thought of ancient India during the second half of the first millennium BCE. That was a period of social and religious turmoil, as there was significant discontent with the sacrifices and rituals of Vedic Brahmanism.[note 15] It was challenged by numerous new ascetic religious and philosophical groups and teachings that broke with the Brahmanic tradition and rejected the authority of the Vedas and the Brahmans.[note 16] These groups, whose members were known as shramanas, were a continuation of a non-Vedic strand of Indian thought distinct from Indo-Aryan Brahmanism.[note 17] Scholars have reasons to believe that ideas such as samsara, karma (in the sense of the influence of morality on rebirth), and moksha originated in the shramanas, and were later adopted by Brahmin orthodoxy.[note 18][note 19][note 20][note 21][note 22][note 23]
Buddhism arose in what area?
56d24c8bb329da140004ed19
Greater Magadha
98
False
Greater magadha stretched from Sravasti in the north-west to what area in the south-east?
56d24c8bb329da140004ed1a
Rajagrha
190
False
What time period did the eastward spread of Brahmanism start?
56d24c8bb329da140004ed1b
2nd or 3rd centuries
477
False
This view is supported by a study of the region where these notions originated. Buddhism arose in Greater Magadha, which stretched from Sravasti, the capital of Kosala in the north-west, to Rajagrha in the south east. This land, to the east of aryavarta, the land of the Aryas, was recognized as non-Vedic. Other Vedic texts reveal a dislike of the people of Magadha, in all probability because the Magadhas at this time were not Brahmanised.[page needed] It was not until the 2nd or 3rd centuries BCE that the eastward spread of Brahmanism into Greater Magadha became significant. Ideas that developed in Greater Magadha prior to this were not subject to Vedic influence. These include rebirth and karmic retribution that appear in a number of movements in Greater Magadha, including Buddhism. These movements inherited notions of rebirth and karmic retribution from an earlier culture[page needed]
Movements were influenced by philosophical thought within the Vedic tradition such as what?
56d24e17b329da140004ed33
in the Upanishads
153
False
The movement included atomists such as what?
56d24e17b329da140004ed34
Pakudha Kaccayana
284
False
What is the term for agnostics?
56d24e17b329da140004ed36
Ajnanas
516
False
What movement focused on the idea that the sould must be freed from matter?
56d24e17b329da140004ed37
Jains
544
False
At the same time, these movements were influenced by, and in some respects continued, philosophical thought within the Vedic tradition as reflected e.g. in the Upanishads. These movements included, besides Buddhism, various skeptics (such as Sanjaya Belatthiputta), atomists (such as Pakudha Kaccayana), materialists (such as Ajita Kesakambali), antinomians (such as Purana Kassapa); the most important ones in the 5th century BCE were the Ajivikas, who emphasized the rule of fate, the Lokayata (materialists), the Ajnanas (agnostics) and the Jains, who stressed that the soul must be freed from matter. Many of these new movements shared the same conceptual vocabulary—atman ("Self"), buddha ("awakened one"), dhamma ("rule" or "law"), karma ("action"), nirvana ("extinguishing"), samsara ("eternal recurrence") and yoga ("spiritual practice").[note 24] The shramanas rejected the Veda, and the authority of the brahmans, who claimed they possessed revealed truths not knowable by any ordinary human means. Moreover, they declared that the entire Brahmanical system was fraudulent: a conspiracy of the brahmans to enrich themselves by charging exorbitant fees to perform bogus rites and give useless advice.
A criticism the Buddha gave dealing with animals was?
56d24f27b329da140004ed47
Vedic animal sacrifice
41
False
The Buddha mocked what hymn of the Vedic?
56d24f27b329da140004ed48
hymn of the cosmic man
99
False
The original Veda of the rishis was altered by a few Brahmins who introduced what?
56d24f27b329da140004ed49
animal sacrifices
454
False
The Buddha refused to pay respect to who, during their time of animal sacrifice?
56d24f27b329da140004ed4a
Vedas
575
False
A particular criticism of the Buddha was Vedic animal sacrifice.[web 18] He also mocked the Vedic "hymn of the cosmic man". However, the Buddha was not anti-Vedic, and declared that the Veda in its true form was declared by "Kashyapa" to certain rishis, who by severe penances had acquired the power to see by divine eyes. He names the Vedic rishis, and declared that the original Veda of the rishis[note 25] was altered by a few Brahmins who introduced animal sacrifices. The Buddha says that it was on this alteration of the true Veda that he refused to pay respect to the Vedas of his time. However, he did not denounce the union with Brahman,[note 26] or the idea of the self uniting with the Self. At the same time, the traditional Hindu itself gradually underwent profound changes, transforming it into what is recognized as early Hinduism.
What is in dispute regarding the research into the core of the teachings?
56d25056b329da140004ed51
The reliability
245
False
Information of the oldest teachings may be obtained by analysis of the oldest texts. One method to obtain information on the oldest core of Buddhism is to compare the oldest extant versions of the Theravadin Pali Canon and other texts.[note 27] The reliability of these sources, and the possibility to draw out a core of oldest teachings, is a matter of dispute.[page needed][page needed][page needed][page needed] According to Vetter, inconsistencies remain, and other methods must be applied to resolve those inconsistencies.[note 28]
A large problem in the study of early Buddhism is the relationship of dhyana and what else?
56d25b1c59d6e41400145eea
insight
81
False
Liberating insight is attained after mastering what?
56d25b1c59d6e41400145eeb
Rupa Jhanas
361
False
Later edition of texts such as what has the Rupa Jhanas?
56d25b1c59d6e41400145eec
Majjhima Nikaya
411
False
A core problem in the study of early Buddhism is the relation between dhyana and insight. Schmithausen, in his often-cited article On some Aspects of Descriptions or Theories of 'Liberating Insight' and 'Enlightenment' in Early Buddhism notes that the mention of the four noble truths as constituting "liberating insight", which is attained after mastering the Rupa Jhanas, is a later addition to texts such as Majjhima Nikaya 36.[page needed]
According the Bronkhorst, intentions and desire are responsible for what?
56d25ee359d6e41400145f0c
rebirth
299
False
Bronkhurst says that Buddha had a view of 'what' much different then current day?
56d25ee359d6e41400145f0d
karma
63
False
Bruce Matthews notes that there is no cohesive presentation of karma in the Sutta Pitaka, which may mean that the doctrine was incidental to the main perspective of early Buddhist soteriology. Schmithausen is a notable scholar who has questioned whether karma already played a role in the theory of rebirth of earliest Buddhism.[page needed][note 32] According to Vetter, "the Buddha at first sought "the deathless" (amata/amrta), which is concerned with the here and now. According to Vetter, only after this realization did he become acquainted with the doctrine of rebirth." Bronkhorst disagrees, and concludes that the Buddha "introduced a concept of karma that differed considerably from the commonly held views of his time." According to Bronkhorst, not physical and mental activities as such were seen as responsible for rebirth, but intentions and desire.
What was the earliest Buddhism type?
56d25f6e59d6e41400145f14
dhyana
109
False
Buddha's way to release was by means of what type of practices?
56d25f6e59d6e41400145f15
meditative
219
False
According to Tilmann Vetter, the core of earliest Buddhism is the practice of dhyāna. Bronkhorst agrees that dhyana was a Buddhist invention, whereas Norman notes that "the Buddha's way to release [...] was by means of meditative practices." Discriminating insight into transiency as a separate path to liberation was a later development.
From which jhana did Buddha gain bodhi?
56d2600c59d6e41400145f18
fourth
53
False
A logic problem arises when noting that the four truths constitute what?
56d2600c59d6e41400145f19
liberating insight
352
False
The four truths depict what type of path of practice?
56d2600c59d6e41400145f1a
linear
433
False
According to the Mahāsaccakasutta,[note 33] from the fourth jhana the Buddha gained bodhi. Yet, it is not clear what he was awakened to.[page needed] "Liberating insight" is a later addition to this text, and reflects a later development and understanding in early Buddhism.[page needed][page needed] The mentioning of the four truths as constituting "liberating insight" introduces a logical problem, since the four truths depict a linear path of practice, the knowledge of which is in itself not depicted as being liberating.[note 34]
What is the Sanskrit form of Nibbana?
56d2606959d6e41400145f1e
Nirvāna
30
False
Many terms for Nibbana can be found throughout the what?
56d2606959d6e41400145f1f
Nikayas
142
False
The desired goal for buddhism is what?
56d2606959d6e41400145f20
Nirvāna
30
False
Although "Nibbāna" (Sanskrit: Nirvāna) is the common term for the desired goal of this practice, many other terms can be found throughout the Nikayas, which are not specified.[note 35]
A description of the Buddhist path may have been as simplistic as what term?
56d260ee59d6e41400145f2c
the middle way
105
False
The description of buddhism was broadened resulting in what path?
56d260ee59d6e41400145f2d
eightfold
206
False
According to Vetter, the description of the Buddhist path may initially have been as simple as the term "the middle way". In time, this short description was elaborated, resulting in the description of the eightfold path.
Authors Bronkhorst and Anderson claim the four truths bacame a substitution for what?
56d2641d59d6e41400145f52
prajna
85
False
What is prajna called in english?
56d2641d59d6e41400145f53
liberating insight
97
False
Gotamas teachings may have been personal and adjusted to the need of each what?
56d2641d59d6e41400145f54
person
413
False
According to both Bronkhorst and Anderson, the four truths became a substitution for prajna, or "liberating insight", in the suttas in those texts where "liberating insight" was preceded by the four jhanas. According to Bronkhorst, the four truths may not have been formulated in earliest Buddhism, and did not serve in earliest Buddhism as a description of "liberating insight". Gotama's teachings may have been personal, "adjusted to the need of each person."
How many marks of existence reflect Upanishadic influences?
56d2647159d6e41400145f58
three
4
False
The three marks of existence may reflect Upanishadic or other influences. K.R. Norman supposes that the these terms were already in use at the Buddha's time, and were familiair to his hearers.
The periods of Buddhisma in India is divided into how many periods?
56d2652a59d6e41400145f5a
five
51
False
What is the first period of Buddhism called?
56d2652a59d6e41400145f5b
Early Buddhism
65
False
What is another name for Nikaya buddhism?
56d2652a59d6e41400145f5c
Sectarian
145
False
What is the last period of Buddhism?
56d2652a59d6e41400145f5d
Esoteric Buddhism
261
False
What is Esoteric Buddhism also called?
56d2652a59d6e41400145f5e
Vajrayana
292
False
The history of Indian Buddhism may be divided into five periods: Early Buddhism (occasionally called Pre-sectarian Buddhism), Nikaya Buddhism or Sectarian Buddhism: The period of the Early Buddhist schools, Early Mahayana Buddhism, Later Mahayana Buddhism, and Esoteric Buddhism (also called Vajrayana Buddhism).
Was is the earliest phase of buddhism?
56d265eb59d6e41400145f6a
Pre-sectarian
0
False
Gautama Buddha most likely taught the idea of Karma and what?
56d265eb59d6e41400145f6c
rebirth
419
False
Gautama buddha taught what Path concept?
56d265eb59d6e41400145f6d
Noble Eightfold
455
False
Pre-sectarian Buddhism is the earliest phase of Buddhism, recognized by nearly all scholars. Its main scriptures are the Vinaya Pitaka and the four principal Nikayas or Agamas. Certain basic teachings appear in many places throughout the early texts, so most scholars conclude that Gautama Buddha must have taught something similar to the Three marks of existence, the Five Aggregates, dependent origination, karma and rebirth, the Four Noble Truths, the Noble Eightfold Path, and nirvana. Some scholars disagree, and have proposed many other theories.
Soon after the parinirvana of Gautama Buddha, what type of council was held?
56d2675b59d6e41400145f72
Buddhist
127
False
Who was cousin of the Buddha?
56d2675b59d6e41400145f73
Ānanda
389
False
What are the discourses of the Buddha called?
56d2675b59d6e41400145f74
sūtras
490
False
Some sources say that discourse of who else were recited along with Buddha's?
56d2675b59d6e41400145f75
abhidhamma
562
False
According to the scriptures, soon after the parinirvāṇa (from Sanskrit: "highest extinguishment") of Gautama Buddha, the first Buddhist council was held. As with any ancient Indian tradition, transmission of teaching was done orally. The primary purpose of the assembly was to collectively recite the teachings to ensure that no errors occurred in oral transmission. In the first council, Ānanda, a cousin of the Buddha and his personal attendant, was called upon to recite the discourses (sūtras, Pāli suttas) of the Buddha, and, according to some sources, the abhidhamma. Upāli, another disciple, recited the monastic rules (vinaya). Most scholars regard the traditional accounts of the council as greatly exaggerated if not entirely fictitious.[note 36]Richard Gombrich noted Sariputta led communal recitations of the Buddha's teaching for preservation in the Buddha's lifetime in Sangiti Sutta (Digha Nikaya #33), and something similar to the First Council must have taken place to compose Buddhist scriptures.
The Sangha began to break into separte factions after what council?
56d267f859d6e41400145f7c
the Second
49
False
According to the Dipavamsa they started immediately after what council?
56d267f859d6e41400145f7d
the Second Council
49
False
The Mahasanghika places the breakup at what time?
56d267f859d6e41400145f7e
100 BCE
477
False
According to most scholars, at some period after the Second Council the Sangha began to break into separate factions.[note 37] The various accounts differ as to when the actual schisms occurred. According to the Dipavamsa of the Pāli tradition, they started immediately after the Second Council, the Puggalavada tradition places it in 137 AN, the Sarvastivada tradition of Vasumitra says it was in the time of Ashoka and the Mahasanghika tradition places it much later, nearly 100 BCE.
The major schism was between the Sthaviras and what other group?
56d2693359d6e41400145f8e
Mahasanghikas
390
False
The Dipavamsa says that the losing party broke away in protest and formed what?
56d2693359d6e41400145f8f
Mahasanghika
355
False
The Mahasanghikas argued that the Sthaviras were trying to expand what?
56d2693359d6e41400145f90
the vinaya
530
False
The root schism was between the Sthaviras and the Mahāsāṅghikas. The fortunate survival of accounts from both sides of the dispute reveals disparate traditions. The Sthavira group offers two quite distinct reasons for the schism. The Dipavamsa of the Theravāda says that the losing party in the Second Council dispute broke away in protest and formed the Mahasanghika. This contradicts the Mahasanghikas' own vinaya, which shows them as on the same, winning side. The Mahāsāṅghikas argued that the Sthaviras were trying to expand the vinaya and may also have challenged what they perceived were excessive claims or inhumanly high criteria for arhatship. Both parties, therefore, appealed to tradition.
Who gave rise to the Theravada school?
56d269b759d6e41400145f96
Sthaviras
4
False
Monks following different schools of thought seem to have lived happily together in the same what?
56d269b759d6e41400145f97
monasteries
243
False
By the latest at around 100 CE, schisms were being caused by what type of desagreements?
56d269b759d6e41400145f98
doctrinal
333
False
The Sthaviras gave rise to several schools, one of which was the Theravāda school. Originally, these schisms were caused by disputes over vinaya, and monks following different schools of thought seem to have lived happily together in the same monasteries, but eventually, by about 100 CE if not earlier, schisms were being caused by doctrinal disagreements too.
What is a detailed scholastic reworking of doctrinal material called?
56d26abd59d6e41400145fa2
Abhidharma
79
False
The abhidharma texts do not contain treatises, but what?
56d26abd59d6e41400145fa3
summaries or numerical lists
288
False
The Abhidharma texts are from what time?
56d26abd59d6e41400145fa4
3rd century BCE
368
False
There is a disagreement on whether a school had an Abhidhamma or not, which school is it?
56d26abd59d6e41400145fa5
Mahasanghika
804
False
Following (or leading up to) the schisms, each Saṅgha started to accumulate an Abhidharma, a detailed scholastic reworking of doctrinal material appearing in the Suttas, according to schematic classifications. These Abhidharma texts do not contain systematic philosophical treatises, but summaries or numerical lists. Scholars generally date these texts to around the 3rd century BCE, 100 to 200 years after the death of the Buddha. Therefore the seven Abhidharma works are generally claimed not to represent the words of the Buddha himself, but those of disciples and great scholars.[note 38] Every school had its own version of the Abhidharma, with different theories and different texts. The different Abhidharmas of the various schools did not agree with each other. Scholars disagree on whether the Mahasanghika school had an Abhidhamma Pitaka or not.[note 38]
Which sutras are among the earliest Mahayana sutras?
56d26b3159d6e41400145faa
Prajñāpāramitā
41
False
The Prajnaparamita sutras were developed along the krsna river in what region of South India?
56d26b3159d6e41400145fab
Āndhra
172
False
Several scholars have suggested that the Prajñāpāramitā sūtras, which are among the earliest Mahāyāna sūtras, developed among the Mahāsāṃghika along the Kṛṣṇa River in the Āndhra region of South India.
The earliest Mahayana sutra include the very first version of what genre?
56d26bde59d6e41400145fb4
Prajñāpāramitā
71
False
Texts concerning Aksobhya Buddha were written down in what century?
56d26bde59d6e41400145fb5
1st century BCE
178
False
Author Warder believes that the Mahayana originated in the south of India in what area?
56d26bde59d6e41400145fb6
Āndhra
362
False
The earliest Mahāyāna sūtras to include the very first versions of the Prajñāpāramitā genre, along with texts concerning Akṣobhya Buddha, which were probably written down in the 1st century BCE in the south of India. Guang Xing states, "Several scholars have suggested that the Prajñāpāramitā probably developed among the Mahāsāṃghikas in southern India, in the Āndhra country, on the Kṛṣṇa River." A.K. Warder believes that "the Mahāyāna originated in the south of India and almost certainly in the Āndhra country."
The ancient buddhist site  in the lower Krsna Valley can be traced to at least what century BCE?
56d26d7d59d6e41400145fc7
third
475
False
Evidence suggests that many Early mahayana scriptures originated in what part of India?
56d26d7d59d6e41400145fc8
South
605
False
Anthony Barber and Sree Padma note that "historians of Buddhist thought have been aware for quite some time that such pivotally important Mahayana Buddhist thinkers as Nāgārjuna, Dignaga, Candrakīrti, Āryadeva, and Bhavaviveka, among many others, formulated their theories while living in Buddhist communities in Āndhra." They note that the ancient Buddhist sites in the lower Kṛṣṇa Valley, including Amaravati, Nāgārjunakoṇḍā and Jaggayyapeṭa "can be traced to at least the third century BCE, if not earlier." Akira Hirakawa notes the "evidence suggests that many Early Mahayana scriptures originated in South India."
There is no evidence that Mahayana ever referred to a separate school of what?
56d26e4b59d6e41400145fcc
Buddhism
88
False
The mahayana never tried to have separte what?
56d26e4b59d6e41400145fcd
Vinaya
366
False
We know that both Mahayana and non Mahayana monks live in the same what?
56d26e4b59d6e41400145fce
monasteries
869
False
There is no evidence that Mahāyāna ever referred to a separate formal school or sect of Buddhism, but rather that it existed as a certain set of ideals, and later doctrines, for bodhisattvas. Initially it was known as Bodhisattvayāna (the "Vehicle of the Bodhisattvas"). Paul Williams has also noted that the Mahāyāna never had nor ever attempted to have a separate Vinaya or ordination lineage from the early schools of Buddhism, and therefore each bhikṣu or bhikṣuṇī adhering to the Mahāyāna formally belonged to an early school. This continues today with the Dharmaguptaka ordination lineage in East Asia, and the Mūlasarvāstivāda ordination lineage in Tibetan Buddhism. Therefore Mahāyāna was never a separate rival sect of the early schools. From Chinese monks visiting India, we now know that both Mahāyāna and non-Mahāyāna monks in India often lived in the same monasteries side by side.
Most of the early extant evidence for the origins of Mhayana comes from what type of translations?
56d2706859d6e41400145fdc
Chinese
79
False
The Mahayana teachings were first propagated into China by who?
56d2706859d6e41400145fdd
Lokakṣema
180
False
The earliest Mahayana sutras included the very first versions of what series?
56d2706859d6e41400145fde
Prajñāpāramitā
395
False
Texts concerning Aksobhya Buddha were probably composed in what century BCE?
56d2706859d6e41400145fdf
1st
499
False
Much of the early extant evidence for the origins of Mahāyāna comes from early Chinese translations of Mahāyāna texts. These Mahāyāna teachings were first propagated into China by Lokakṣema, the first translator of Mahāyāna sūtras into Chinese during the 2nd century CE.[note 39] Some scholars have traditionally considered the earliest Mahāyāna sūtras to include the very first versions of the Prajñāpāramitā series, along with texts concerning Akṣobhya Buddha, which were probably composed in the 1st century BCE in the south of India.[note 40]
What four types of thought developed during the period of late mahayna buddhism?
56d2726659d6e41400145ff8
Madhyamaka, Yogacara, Tathagatagarbha, and Buddhist Logic
84
False
What was the latest thought type?
56d2726659d6e41400145ff9
Buddhist Logic
127
False
In India the two main philosophical schools of the Mahayana were Madhyamaka and what else?
56d2726659d6e41400145ffa
Yogacara
96
False
During the period of Late Mahayana Buddhism, four major types of thought developed: Madhyamaka, Yogacara, Tathagatagarbha, and Buddhist Logic as the last and most recent. In India, the two main philosophical schools of the Mahayana were the Madhyamaka and the later Yogacara. According to Dan Lusthaus, Madhyamaka and Yogacara have a great deal in common, and the commonality stems from early Buddhism. There were no great Indian teachers associated with tathagatagarbha thought.
Buddhism may have spread quickly because of what Mauryan emperor?
56d2733d59d6e41400146000
Ashoka
84
False
The support of Asoka and his descendants led to what being built more?
56d2733d59d6e41400146001
stūpas
209
False
What does stupas mean in English?
56d2733d59d6e41400146002
Buddhist religious memorials
217
False
Buddhism may have spread only slowly in India until the time of the Mauryan emperor Ashoka, who was a public supporter of the religion. The support of Aśoka and his descendants led to the construction of more stūpas (Buddhist religious memorials) and to efforts to spread Buddhism throughout the enlarged Maurya empire and even into neighboring lands—particularly to the Iranian-speaking regions of Afghanistan and Central Asia, beyond the Mauryas' northwest border, and to the island of Sri Lanka south of India. These two missions, in opposite directions, would ultimately lead, in the first case to the spread of Buddhism into China, and in the second case, to the emergence of Theravāda Buddhism and its spread from Sri Lanka to the coastal lands of Southeast Asia.
Emissaries were sent to various countries to what direct from India?
56d273d059d6e41400146006
west
143
False
Scholars disagree on whether emissaries were accompanied by Buddhist what?
56d273d059d6e41400146007
missionaries
426
False
What were the emissaries used for?
56d273d059d6e41400146008
to spread Buddhism
157
False
This period marks the first known spread of Buddhism beyond India. According to the edicts of Aśoka, emissaries were sent to various countries west of India to spread Buddhism (Dharma), particularly in eastern provinces of the neighboring Seleucid Empire, and even farther to Hellenistic kingdoms of the Mediterranean. It is a matter of disagreement among scholars whether or not these emissaries were accompanied by Buddhist missionaries.
The gradual spread of Buddhism exposed it to a variety of influences including what civilization?
56d2779759d6e4140014601a
Persian and Greek
182
False
Who was the Greek king immortalized in Buddhist canon?
56d2779759d6e4140014601c
Menander
520
False
The gradual spread of Buddhism into adjacent areas meant that it came into contact with new ethnical groups. During this period Buddhism was exposed to a variety of influences, from Persian and Greek civilization, to changing trends in non-Buddhist Indian religions—themselves influenced by Buddhism. Striking examples of this syncretistic development can be seen in the emergence of Greek-speaking Buddhist monarchs in the Indo-Greek Kingdom, and in the development of the Greco-Buddhist art of Gandhāra. A Greek king, Menander, has even been immortalized in the Buddhist canon.
The Theravada school spread south from india in what century BCE?
56d277f759d6e41400146020
3rd century
52
False
The Dharmagupta schol spread in what century to Kashmir?
56d277f759d6e41400146021
3rd century
52
False
The Theravada school spread south from India in the 3rd century BCE, to Sri Lanka and Thailand and Burma and later also Indonesia. The Dharmagupta school spread (also in 3rd century BCE) north to Kashmir, Gandhara and Bactria (Afghanistan).
When was the first documented translation efforts by foreign Buddhist monks in China?
56d2786c59d6e41400146025
2nd century CE
279
False
The Silk Road transmission of Buddhism to China is most commonly thought to have started in the late 2nd or the 1st century CE, though the literary sources are all open to question.[note 41] The first documented translation efforts by foreign Buddhist monks in China were in the 2nd century CE, probably as a consequence of the expansion of the Kushan Empire into the Chinese territory of the Tarim Basin.
Mahayana Sutras spread to China during what century?
56d278ee59d6e41400146028
2nd century CE
7
False
What two countries after China was the Mahayana sutras spread?
56d278ee59d6e41400146029
Korea and Japan
68
False
When did Buddhism apread from India to Tibet?
56d278ee59d6e4140014602a
8th century onwards
175
False
In the 2nd century CE, Mahayana Sutras spread to China, and then to Korea and Japan, and were translated into Chinese. During the Indian period of Esoteric Buddhism (from the 8th century onwards), Buddhism spread from India to Tibet and Mongolia.
China and India are now starting to fund what type of shrines in various Asian countries?
56d28a5d59d6e41400146055
Buddhist
215
False
By the late Middle Ages, Buddhism had become virtually extinct in India, although it continued to exist in surrounding countries. It is now again gaining strength worldwide. China and India are now starting to fund Buddhist shrines in various Asian countries as they compete for influence in the region.[web 20]
What is the Dharma?
56d28b0659d6e41400146063
the teachings of the Buddha
205
False
What is the Sangha?
56d28b0659d6e41400146064
the Buddhist community
251
False
West Buddhism is often seen as exotic and what?
56d28b0659d6e41400146065
progressive
503
False
New forms of Buddhism are created because of what reason?
56d28b0659d6e41400146066
Modern influences
751
False
Formal membership varies between communities, but basic lay adherence is often defined in terms of a traditional formula in which the practitioner takes refuge in The Three Jewels: the Buddha, the Dharma (the teachings of the Buddha), and the Sangha (the Buddhist community). At the present time, the teachings of all three branches of Buddhism have spread throughout the world, and Buddhist texts are increasingly translated into local languages. While in the West Buddhism is often seen as exotic and progressive, in the East it is regarded as familiar and traditional. Buddhists in Asia are frequently well organized and well funded. In countries such as Cambodia and Bhutan, it is recognized as the state religion and receives government support. Modern influences increasingly lead to new forms of Buddhism that significantly depart from traditional beliefs and practices.
When did a number of modern movement in Buddhism emerge?
56d28b6559d6e4140014606c
second half of the 20th Century
74
False
What is the Dalit buddhist movement sometimes called?
56d28b6559d6e4140014606d
neo-Buddhism
169
False
A number of modern movements or tendencies in Buddhism emerged during the second half of the 20th Century, including the Dalit Buddhist movement (also sometimes called 'neo-Buddhism'), Engaged Buddhism, and the further development of various Western Buddhist traditions.
What Buddhism emerged in the second half of the 20th century in Japan?
56d28bf559d6e4140014607a
Nichiren Buddhism: Soka Gakkai
60
False
What does Soka Gakkai mean in English?
56d28bf559d6e4140014607b
Value Creation Society
92
False
What Buddhist movement has linked more than 12 million people?
56d28bf559d6e4140014607c
Soka Gakkai International
172
False
What is the largest Buddhist movement in the world?
56d28bf559d6e4140014607d
SGI
199
False
In the second half of the 20th Century a modern movement in Nichiren Buddhism: Soka Gakkai (Value Creation Society) emerged in Japan and spread further to other countries. Soka Gakkai International (SGI) is a lay Buddhist movement linking more than 12 million people around the world, and is currently described as "the most diverse" and "the largest lay Buddhist movement in the world".[web 21]
What religion is practiced by an estimated 488 to 535 million people?
56d28c4259d6e41400146082
Buddhism
0
False
Buddhism is practiced by an estimated 488 million,[web 1] 495 million, or 535 million people as of the 2010s, representing 7% to 8% of the world's total population.
What country has the largest population of Buddhists?
56d28c9259d6e41400146086
China
0
False
How many Buddhists are in China?
56d28c9259d6e41400146087
244 million
77
False
China is the country with the largest population of Buddhists, approximately 244 million or 18.2% of its total population.[web 1] They are mostly followers of Chinese schools of Mahayana, making this the largest body of Buddhist traditions. Mahayana, also practiced in broader East Asia, is followed by over half of world Buddhists.[web 1]
How may adherents does Mahayana have?
56d28ce759d6e41400146092
360 million
82
False
How many adherents does Thervada have?
56d28ce759d6e41400146093
150 million
119
False
How many Buddists are outside of Asia?
56d28ce759d6e41400146095
Seven million
184
False
According to a demographic analysis reported by Peter Harvey (2013): Mahayana has 360 million adherents; Theravada has 150 million adherents; and Vajrayana has 18,2 million adherents. Seven million additional Buddhists are found outside of Asia.
How many Buddhists were there in 1910?
56d28d3d59d6e4140014609a
138 million
73
False
How many Buddhists are there in 2010?
56d28d3d59d6e4140014609b
495 million
142
False
How many buddhists are in Asia?
56d28d3d59d6e4140014609c
487 million
172
False
According to Johnson and Grim (2013), Buddhism has grown from a total of 138 million adherents in 1910, of which 137 million were in Asia, to 495 million in 2010, of which 487 million are in Asia. According to them, there was a fast annual growth of Buddhism in Pakistan, Saudi Arabia, Lebanon and several Western European countries (1910–2010). More recently (2000–2010), the countries with highest growth rates are Qatar, the United Arab Emirates, Iran and some African countries.
What does Hinayana mean in English?
56d28e7059d6e414001460a8
lesser vehicle
117
False
What is used by Mahayana followers to name the early schools?
56d28e7059d6e414001460a9
Hinayana
96
False
Some scholars[note 44] use other schemes. Buddhists themselves have a variety of other schemes. Hinayana (literally "lesser vehicle") is used by Mahayana followers to name the family of early philosophical schools and traditions from which contemporary Theravada emerged, but as this term is rooted in the Mahayana viewpoint and can be considered derogatory, a variety of other terms are increasingly used instead, including Śrāvakayāna, Nikaya Buddhism, early Buddhist schools, sectarian Buddhism, conservative Buddhism, mainstream Buddhism and non-Mahayana Buddhism.
Each tradition has its own core what?
56d28ecf59d6e414001460b2
concepts
87
False
there are common concepts to both major buddhist branches according to what organization?
56d28ecf59d6e414001460b3
Buddhist ecumenical organization
244
False
Not all traditions of Buddhism share the same philosophical outlook, or treat the same concepts as central. Each tradition, however, does have its own core concepts, and some comparisons can be drawn between them. For example, according to one Buddhist ecumenical organization,[web 23] several concepts common to both major Buddhist branches:
What is the oldest surviving Buddhist school?
56d28f5159d6e414001460b7
Theravada
0
False
Where does the name theravada come from?
56d28f5159d6e414001460b8
ancestral Sthāvirīya
207
False
Sinhalese buddhist reformer portrayed what Canon as the original version of scripture?
56d28f5159d6e414001460b9
Pali Canon
616
False
Theravada ("Doctrine of the Elders", or "Ancient Doctrine") is the oldest surviving Buddhist school. It is relatively conservative, and generally closest to early Buddhism. The name Theravāda comes from the ancestral Sthāvirīya, one of the early Buddhist schools, from which the Theravadins claim descent. After unsuccessfully trying to modify the Vinaya, a small group of "elderly members", i.e. sthaviras, broke away from the majority Mahāsāṃghika during the Second Buddhist council, giving rise to the Sthavira sect. Sinhalese Buddhist reformers in the late nineteenth and early twentieth centuries portrayed the Pali Canon as the original version of scripture. They also emphasized Theravada being rational and scientific.
Where is there a growing presence of Theravada?
56d291c759d6e414001460be
the west
184
False
Theravāda is primarily practiced today in Sri Lanka, Burma, Laos, Thailand, Cambodia as well as small portions of China, Vietnam, Malaysia and Bangladesh. It has a growing presence in the west.
What type of Buddhists believe that personal effort is required to realize rebirth?
56d2924159d6e414001460c2
Theravadin
0
False
Laypersons can perform good actions, producing what?
56d2924159d6e414001460c4
merit
210
False
Theravadin Buddhists believe that personal effort is required to realize rebirth. Monks follow the vinaya: meditating, teaching and serving their lay communities. Laypersons can perform good actions, producing merit.
What was the most important Mahayana centre of learning?
56d2929e59d6e414001460c9
Nālandā University
185
False
Mahayana Buddhism flourished in India from the 5th century CE onwards, during the dynasty of the Guptas. Mahāyāna centres of learning were established, the most important one being the Nālandā University in north-eastern India.
Mahayana schools recognize all or part of what?
56d293b759d6e414001460cc
Mahayana Sutras
46
False
A few of the sutras for Mahayanists became a manifestation of who?
56d293b759d6e414001460cd
the Buddha
126
False
Faith in and veneration of Mahayana are stated in what sutras?
56d293b759d6e414001460ce
Lotus Sutra and the Mahaparinirvana Sutra
225
False
Mahayana schools recognize all or part of the Mahayana Sutras. Some of these sutras became for Mahayanists a manifestation of the Buddha himself, and faith in and veneration of those texts are stated in some sutras (e.g. the Lotus Sutra and the Mahaparinirvana Sutra) to lay the foundations for the later attainment of Buddhahood itself.
Native Mahayana buddhism is also called what?
56d2946f59d6e414001460d2
Eastern Buddhism
146
False
The Buddhism practiced in Tibet, the Himalayan regions and Mongolia are often referred to as?
56d2946f59d6e414001460d3
Northern Buddhism
348
False
What is the most widely practised Eastern Buddhism?
56d2946f59d6e414001460d4
the Pure Land school of Mahayana
431
False
Native Mahayana Buddhism is practiced today in China, Japan, Korea, Singapore, parts of Russia and most of Vietnam (also commonly referred to as "Eastern Buddhism"). The Buddhism practiced in Tibet, the Himalayan regions, and Mongolia is also Mahayana in origin, but is discussed below under the heading of Vajrayana (also commonly referred to as "Northern Buddhism"). There are a variety of strands in Eastern Buddhism, of which "the Pure Land school of Mahayana is the most widely practised today.". In most of this area however, they are fused into a single unified form of Buddhism. In Japan in particular, they form separate denominations with the five major ones being: Nichiren, peculiar to Japan; Pure Land; Shingon, a form of Vajrayana; Tendai, and Zen. In Korea, nearly all Buddhists belong to the Chogye school, which is officially Son (Zen), but with substantial elements from other traditions.
The royal courts sponsored both Buddhism and what?
56d2955559d6e414001460e2
Saivism
107
False
Mantras taught in the Saiva, Garuda, and Vaisnava tantra will be effective if applied by who?
56d2955559d6e414001460e3
Buddhists
290
False
What work is associated with Guhyasamaja tradition?
56d2955559d6e414001460e4
The Guhyasiddhi of Padmavajra
352
False
Various classes of Vajrayana literature developed as a result of royal courts sponsoring both Buddhism and Saivism. The Mañjusrimulakalpa, which later came to classified under Kriyatantra, states that mantras taught in the Saiva, Garuda and Vaisnava tantras will be effective if applied by Buddhists since they were all taught originally by Manjushri. The Guhyasiddhi of Padmavajra, a work associated with the Guhyasamaja tradition, prescribes acting as a Saiva guru and initiating members into Saiva Siddhanta scriptures and mandalas. The Samvara tantra texts adopted the pitha list from the Saiva text Tantrasadbhava, introducing a copying error where a deity was mistaken for a place.
There is a great variety of what type of scripture?
56d295de59d6e414001460e8
Buddhist
0
False
Some schools venerate certain texts as religious what?
56d295de59d6e414001460e9
objects
200
False
Buddhist scriptures and other texts exist in great variety. Different schools of Buddhism place varying levels of value on learning the various texts. Some schools venerate certain texts as religious objects in themselves, while others take a more scholastic approach. Buddhist scriptures are mainly written in Pāli, Tibetan, Mongolian, and Chinese. Some texts still exist in Sanskrit and Buddhist Hybrid Sanskrit.
Unlike most religions, Buddhism has no single central what?
56d296f259d6e414001460f8
text
54
False
Tibetan Buddhists have not even translated most of the what?
56d296f259d6e414001460fa
āgamas
447
False
Some scholars say there is no universally accepted common what?
56d296f259d6e414001460fb
core
229
False
What has been seen by some as a hinderance to understanding Buddhist philosophy?
56d296f259d6e414001460fc
size and complexity of the Buddhist canons
656
False
Unlike many religions, Buddhism has no single central text that is universally referred to by all traditions. However, some scholars have referred to the Vinaya Pitaka and the first four Nikayas of the Sutta Pitaka as the common core of all Buddhist traditions.[page needed] This could be considered misleading, as Mahāyāna considers these merely a preliminary, and not a core, teaching. The Tibetan Buddhists have not even translated most of the āgamas (though theoretically they recognize them) and they play no part in the religious life of either clergy or laity in China and Japan. Other scholars say there is no universally accepted common core. The size and complexity of the Buddhist canons have been seen by some (including Buddhist social reformer Babasaheb Ambedkar) as presenting barriers to the wider understanding of Buddhist philosophy.
In Sri Lanka, what was determined to be the best unifying scripture?
56d2981a59d6e41400146112
Dhammapada
341
False
There have been attempts to create a single text with all the main ideas of what religion?
56d2981a59d6e41400146113
Buddhism
135
False
condensed study texts where created in what tradition?
56d2981a59d6e41400146114
Theravada
152
False
Over the years, various attempts have been made to synthesize a single Buddhist text that can encompass all of the major principles of Buddhism. In the Theravada tradition, condensed 'study texts' were created that combined popular or influential scriptures into single volumes that could be studied by novice monks. Later in Sri Lanka, the Dhammapada was championed as a unifying scripture.
Goddard collected mainly what type of Buddhist scripture?
56d298dd59d6e41400146118
Zen
79
False
Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar attempted to create a single combined document with all Buddhist principles and called it?
56d298dd59d6e4140014611a
The Buddha and His Dhamma
312
False
Dwight Goddard collected a sample of Buddhist scriptures, with the emphasis on Zen, along with other classics of Eastern philosophy, such as the Tao Te Ching, into his 'Buddhist Bible' in the 1920s. More recently, Dr. Babasaheb Ambedkar attempted to create a single, combined document of Buddhist principles in "The Buddha and His Dhamma". Other such efforts have persisted to present day, but currently there is no single text that represents all Buddhist traditions.
What means "three baskets"?
56d29a9a59d6e4140014611e
Pāli Tipitaka
4
False
What does the "three baskets" refer to?
56d29a9a59d6e4140014611f
the Vinaya Pitaka, the Sutta Pitaka, and the Abhidhamma Pitaka
58
False
What contains disciplinary rules for Buddhist Monks and nuns?
56d29a9a59d6e41400146120
Vinaya Pitaka
62
False
What contains discourses ascribed to Gautama Buddha?
56d29a9a59d6e41400146121
the Sutta Pitaka
77
False
What contains material ofen described as systematic expositions of the Gautama Buddha teachings?
56d29a9a59d6e41400146122
Abhidhamma Pitaka
103
False
The Pāli Tipitaka, which means "three baskets", refers to the Vinaya Pitaka, the Sutta Pitaka, and the Abhidhamma Pitaka. The Vinaya Pitaka contains disciplinary rules for the Buddhist monks and nuns, as well as explanations of why and how these rules were instituted, supporting material, and doctrinal clarification. The Sutta Pitaka contains discourses ascribed to Gautama Buddha. The Abhidhamma Pitaka contains material often described as systematic expositions of the Gautama Buddha's teachings.
What is the only Tipitaka to survive intact in its original language?
56d29b0e59d6e41400146128
Pāli Tipitaka
4
False
Is is said that some early schools of buddhism had how many pitakas?
56d29b0e59d6e41400146129
five or seven
461
False
The Pāli Tipitaka is the only early Tipitaka (Sanskrit: Tripiṭaka) to survive intact in its original language, but a number of early schools had their own recensions of the Tipitaka featuring much of the same material. We have portions of the Tipitakas of the Sārvāstivāda, Dharmaguptaka, Sammitya, Mahāsaṅghika, Kāśyapīya, and Mahīśāsaka schools, most of which survive in Chinese translation only. According to some sources, some early schools of Buddhism had five or seven pitakas.
Which monk presided after the death of the Buddha?
56d29bca59d6e4140014612c
Mahākāśyapa
115
False
What was the goal of the council?
56d29bca59d6e4140014612d
to record the Buddha's teachings
185
False
the vinaya was recited by?
56d29bca59d6e4140014612e
Upāli
219
False
Who was the Buddha's personal attendant?
56d29bca59d6e4140014612f
Ānanda
245
False
Ananda was called upon to recite what?
56d29bca59d6e41400146130
dhamma
316
False
According to the scriptures, soon after the death of the Buddha, the first Buddhist council was held; a monk named Mahākāśyapa (Pāli: Mahākassapa) presided. The goal of the council was to record the Buddha's teachings. Upāli recited the vinaya. Ānanda, the Buddha's personal attendant, was called upon to recite the dhamma. These became the basis of the Tripitaka. However, this record was initially transmitted orally in form of chanting, and was committed to text in the last century BCE. Both the sūtras and the vinaya of every Buddhist school contain a wide variety of elements including discourses on the Dharma, commentaries on other teachings, cosmological and cosmogonical texts, stories of the Gautama Buddha's previous lives, and various other subjects.
Much of the material in the Canon is not specifically what?
56d29c7059d6e41400146136
Theravadin
55
False
Who may have added texts to the Canon for some time?
56d29c7059d6e41400146137
The Theravadins
288
False
Much of the material in the Canon is not specifically "Theravadin", but is instead the collection of teachings that this school preserved from the early, non-sectarian body of teachings. According to Peter Harvey, it contains material at odds with later Theravadin orthodoxy. He states: "The Theravadins, then, may have added texts to the Canon for some time, but they do not appear to have tampered with what they already had from an earlier period."
What are considered the original teachings of the Buddha?
56d29d4659d6e41400146144
Mahayana sutras
4
False
What is a very broad genre of Buddhist scripture?
56d29d4659d6e41400146145
Mahayana sutras
4
False
What teaching was criticized by Nagarjuna?
56d29d4659d6e41400146146
Sarvastivada Abhidharma
229
False
The Mahayana sutras are a very broad genre of Buddhist scriptures that the Mahayana Buddhist tradition holds are original teachings of the Buddha. Some adherents of Mahayana accept both the early teachings (including in this the Sarvastivada Abhidharma, which was criticized by Nagarjuna and is in fact opposed to early Buddhist thought) and the Mahayana sutras as authentic teachings of Gautama Buddha, and claim they were designed for different types of persons and different levels of spiritual understanding.
What sutras are reserved for those who follow the bodhisattva path?
56d29dd059d6e4140014614a
Mahayana
4
False
What does Mahayana mean?
56d29dd059d6e4140014614b
the Great Vehicle
281
False
What path is described as being built upon the motivation to liberate all living beings?
56d29dd059d6e4140014614c
bodhisattva path
126
False
The Mahayana sutras often claim to articulate the Buddha's deeper, more advanced doctrines, reserved for those who follow the bodhisattva path. That path is explained as being built upon the motivation to liberate all living beings from unhappiness. Hence the name Mahāyāna (lit., the Great Vehicle).
What sutras were transmitted in secret?
56d29e6759d6e41400146150
Mahayana
13
False
What sutras could have been preserved in non-human worlds?
56d29e6759d6e41400146151
Mahayana
13
False
What tradition says that sutras might have come from other Buddhas or Bodhisattvas?
56d29e6759d6e41400146152
Mahayana tradition
13
False
According to Mahayana tradition, the Mahayana sutras were transmitted in secret, came from other Buddhas or Bodhisattvas, or were preserved in non-human worlds because human beings at the time could not understand them:
How many Mahayana sutras have survivied in Sanskrit or in Chinese or Tibetan translations?
56d29ed559d6e41400146156
six hundred
14
False
What buddhism recognizes sutras of Chinese origin?
56d29ed559d6e41400146157
East Asian Buddhism
120
False
Approximately six hundred Mahayana sutras have survived in Sanskrit or in Chinese or Tibetan translations. In addition, East Asian Buddhism recognizes some sutras regarded by scholars as of Chinese rather than Indian origin.
When did Mahayana sutras start to influence the behavior of mainstream buddhists in India?
56d29fc959d6e4140014615c
after the 5th century CE
389
False
What was the pejorative label for those that rejected Mahayana sutras?
56d29fc959d6e4140014615d
Hinayana
900
False
Generally, scholars conclude that the Mahayana scriptures were composed from the 1st century CE onwards: "Large numbers of Mahayana sutras were being composed in the period between the beginning of the common era and the fifth century", five centuries after the historical Gautama Buddha. Some of these had their roots in other scriptures composed in the 1st century BCE. It was not until after the 5th century CE that the Mahayana sutras started to influence the behavior of mainstream Buddhists in India: "But outside of texts, at least in India, at exactly the same period, very different—in fact seemingly older—ideas and aspirations appear to be motivating actual behavior, and old and established Hinnayana groups appear to be the only ones that are patronized and supported." These texts were apparently not universally accepted among Indian Buddhists when they appeared; the pejorative label Hinayana was applied by Mahayana supporters to those who rejected the Mahayana sutras.
What school does not include the Mahayava scriptures in its canon?
56d2a05e59d6e41400146162
the Theravada
5
False
The modern Theravada school stablished itself in what country?
56d2a05e59d6e41400146163
Sri Lanka
191
False
What Mahayana related label is considered derogatory?
56d2a05e59d6e41400146164
hinayana
323
False
Only the Theravada school does not include the Mahayana scriptures in its canon. As the modern Theravada school is descended from a branch of Buddhism that diverged and established itself in Sri Lanka prior to the emergence of the Mahayana texts, debate exists as to whether the Theravada were historically included in the hinayana designation; in the modern era, this label is seen as derogatory, and is generally avoided.
The mahayana occasionally referred to early Buddhism as what?
56d2a16f59d6e41400146168
Hinayana
441
False
What term was more politically correct term for the word Hinayana?
56d2a16f59d6e4140014616a
Śrāvakayāna
308
False
Scholar Isabelle Onians asserts that although "the Mahāyāna ... very occasionally referred contemptuously to earlier Buddhism as the Hinayāna, the Inferior Way," "the preponderance of this name in the secondary literature is far out of proportion to occurrences in the Indian texts." She notes that the term Śrāvakayāna was "the more politically correct and much more usual" term used by Mahāyānists. Jonathan Silk has argued that the term "Hinayana" was used to refer to whomever one wanted to criticize on any given occasion, and did not refer to any definite grouping of Buddhists.
What provides chances for comparative study with a large range of subjects?
56d2a28059d6e4140014616e
Buddhism
0
False
Buddhism's emphasis on the Middle Way provides a guideline for what?
56d2a28059d6e4140014616f
ethics
185
False
Buddism has what kind of parallels withother systems of thought?
56d2a28059d6e41400146170
moral and spiritual
369
False
Buddhism had similiar tenets to what other common religion?
56d2a28059d6e41400146171
Christianity
465
False
Buddhist concept of dependent origination has been compared to what modern thought?
56d2a28059d6e41400146172
scientific
600
False
Buddhism provides many opportunities for comparative study with a diverse range of subjects. For example, Buddhism's emphasis on the Middle way not only provides a unique guideline for ethics but has also allowed Buddhism to peacefully coexist with various differing beliefs, customs and institutions in countries where it has resided throughout its history. Also, its moral and spiritual parallels with other systems of thought—for example, with various tenets of Christianity—have been subjects of close study. In addition, the Buddhist concept of dependent origination has been compared to modern scientific thought, as well as Western metaphysics.
What school of thought is questioned on whether or not it is a religion?
56d2a34459d6e41400146178
Buddhism
67
False
What is often referred to as a religion by many sources?
56d2a34459d6e41400146179
Buddhism
67
False
There are differences of opinion on the question of whether or not Buddhism should be considered a religion. Many sources commonly refer to Buddhism as a religion. For example:
American_Idol
Who is the creator of American Idol?
56d21eb1e7d4791d00902667
Simon Fuller
67
False
What company produces American idol?
56d21eb1e7d4791d00902668
19 Entertainment
96
False
What year did American Idol begin airing?
56d21eb1e7d4791d00902669
2002
201
False
What British show is American Idols format based on?
56d21eb1e7d4791d0090266a
Pop Idol
270
False
What television network does American Idol air on?
56d21eb1e7d4791d0090266b
Fox
185
False
What company produces American Idol?
56d3661659d6e414001462d7
19 Entertainment
96
False
What British series is American Idols format based on?
56d3661659d6e414001462d8
Pop Idol
270
False
Who created American Idol?
56daebe7e7c41114004b4b15
Simon Fuller
67
False
Who produced American Idol?
56daebe7e7c41114004b4b16
19 Entertainment
96
False
When did American Idol first air on TV?
56daebe7e7c41114004b4b18
June 11, 2002
192
False
What British show was American Idol based on?
56daebe7e7c41114004b4b19
Pop Idol
270
False
American Idol is an American singing competition series created by Simon Fuller and produced by 19 Entertainment, and is distributed by FremantleMedia North America. It began airing on Fox on June 11, 2002, as an addition to the Idols format based on the British series Pop Idol and has since become one of the most successful shows in the history of American television. The concept of the series is to find new solo recording artists, with the winner being determined by the viewers in America. Winners chosen by viewers through telephone, Internet, and SMS text voting were Kelly Clarkson, Ruben Studdard, Fantasia Barrino, Carrie Underwood, Taylor Hicks, Jordin Sparks, David Cook, Kris Allen, Lee DeWyze, Scotty McCreery, Phillip Phillips, Candice Glover, Caleb Johnson, and Nick Fradiani.
What record producer was an original judge on American Idol?
56d2202ce7d4791d00902679
Randy Jackson
143
False
What comedian was an original host on American Idol?
56d2202ce7d4791d0090267a
Brian Dunkleman
480
False
What actress is a judge on the most current season of American Idol?
56d2202ce7d4791d0090267c
Jennifer Lopez
350
False
Who was a host on all seasons of American Idol?
56d2202ce7d4791d0090267d
Ryan Seacrest
453
False
What comedian was an original host on American Idol?
56d3665c59d6e414001462e1
Brian Dunkleman
480
False
What pop singer was an original judge on American Idol?
56d3665c59d6e414001462e2
Paula Abdul
187
False
What actress is a judge on the most current season of American Idol?
56d3665c59d6e414001462e3
Jennifer Lopez
350
False
Which original judge was a record producer and music manager?
56daec56e7c41114004b4b1f
Randy Jackson
143
False
Which original judge was a choreographer?
56daec56e7c41114004b4b20
Paula Abdul
187
False
Which original judge was a music executive?
56daec56e7c41114004b4b21
Simon Cowell
231
False
Which judge is a country music singer?
56daec56e7c41114004b4b22
Keith Urban
318
False
Which judge is a jazz singer?
56daec56e7c41114004b4b23
Harry Connick, Jr.
382
False
American Idol employs a panel of judges who critique the contestants' performances. The original judges were record producer and music manager Randy Jackson, pop singer and choreographer Paula Abdul and music executive and manager Simon Cowell. The judging panel for the most recent season consisted of country singer Keith Urban, singer and actress Jennifer Lopez, and jazz singer Harry Connick, Jr. The show was originally hosted by radio personality Ryan Seacrest and comedian Brian Dunkleman, with Seacrest continuing on for the rest of the seasons.
How many Billboard hits did American Idol produce in its first ten years?
56d22394e7d4791d0090269b
345
377
False
Who called American Idol "the most impactful show in the history of television"?
56d22394e7d4791d0090269d
a rival TV executive
119
False
Who was a pop idol that started on American Idol?
56d366bb59d6e414001462ee
Fantasia
493
False
How many Billboard chart toppers did American Idol contestants have within the first ten seasons?
56daece1e7c41114004b4b29
345
377
False
Who said that American Idol is "the most impactful show in the history of televsion?
56daece1e7c41114004b4b2a
a rival TV executive
119
False
The success of American Idol has been described as "unparalleled in broadcasting history". The series was also said by a rival TV executive to be "the most impactful show in the history of television". It has become a recognized springboard for launching the career of many artists as bona fide stars. According to Billboard magazine, in its first ten years, "Idol has spawned 345 Billboard chart-toppers and a platoon of pop idols, including Kelly Clarkson, Carrie Underwood, Chris Daughtry, Fantasia, Ruben Studdard, Jennifer Hudson, Clay Aiken, Adam Lambert and Jordin Sparks while remaining a TV ratings juggernaut."
What year did FOX announce that American Idol was cancelled?
56d223d5e7d4791d009026a5
2015
267
False
What year did FOX announce the cancellation of American Idol?
56d366ee59d6e414001462f4
2015
267
False
For how many seasons did American Idol air?
56d366ee59d6e414001462f6
15
269
False
How many consecutive years did American Idol been ranked number one in ratings?
56daed37e7c41114004b4b2d
eight
21
False
When did Fox announce that American Idol is ending?
56daed37e7c41114004b4b2e
May 11, 2015
259
False
For an unprecedented eight consecutive years, from the 2003–04 television season through the 2010–11 season, either its performance or result show had been ranked number one in U.S. television ratings. The popularity of American Idol however declined, and on May 11, 2015, Fox announced that the series would conclude its run in its fifteenth season.
What show in New Zealand was the inspiration for the British Series Pop Idol?
56d367d259d6e414001462fa
Popstars
155
False
Who was the creator of British Series Pop Idol?
56d367d259d6e414001462fb
Simon Fuller
64
False
What year did Pop Idol make its television debut?
56d367d259d6e414001462fc
2001
620
False
Who was a judge on the British series Pop Idol in 2001?
56d367d259d6e414001462fd
Simon Cowell
716
False
Wha was the executive producer of Pop Idol in 2001?
56d367d259d6e414001462fe
Nigel Lythgoe
185
False
What show was Pop Idols based on?
56daedd8e7c41114004b4b33
Popstars
155
False
Who saw Popstars while in Australia and wanted Britain to have the same thing?
56daedd8e7c41114004b4b34
Nigel Lythgoe
185
False
In addition to back stories and drama, what did Fuller add to the show?
56daedd8e7c41114004b4b35
telephone voting
402
False
When did Pop Idol premiere in Britain?
56daedd8e7c41114004b4b36
2001
620
False
Who was the executive producer of Pop Idol?
56daedd8e7c41114004b4b37
Lythgoe
191
False
American Idol was based on the British show Pop Idol created by Simon Fuller, which was in turn inspired by the New Zealand television singing competition Popstars. Television producer Nigel Lythgoe saw it in Australia and helped bring it over to Britain. Fuller was inspired by the idea from Popstars of employing a panel of judges to select singers in audition. He then added other elements, such as telephone voting by the viewing public (which at the time was already in use in shows such as the Eurovision Song Contest), the drama of backstories and real-life soap opera unfolding in real time. The show debuted in 2001 in Britain with Lythgoe as showrunner‍—‌the executive producer and production leader‍—‌and Simon Cowell as one of the judges, and was a big success with the viewing public.
For how many seasons was American Idol the most watched show in the US?
56d3686b59d6e41400146304
seven
884
False
What year did American Idol first air on FOX?
56d3686b59d6e41400146305
2002
432
False
What year did producers attempt to sell the Pop Idol format in the United States?
56d3686b59d6e41400146307
2001
3
False
Who talked Rupert Murdoch into buying American Idol for FOX?
56d3686b59d6e41400146308
his daughter Elisabeth
281
False
Who is the head of Fox's parent company?
56daeed2e7c41114004b4b3d
Rupert Murdoch
202
False
What was Pop Idol renamed to for its American debut?
56daeed2e7c41114004b4b3f
American Idol: The Search for a Superstar
361
False
In 2001, Fuller, Cowell, and TV producer Simon Jones attempted to sell the Pop Idol format to the United States, but the idea was met with poor response from United States television networks. However, Rupert Murdoch, head of Fox's parent company, was persuaded to buy the show by his daughter Elisabeth, who was a fan of the British show. The show was renamed American Idol: The Search for a Superstar and debuted in the summer of 2002. Cowell was initially offered the job as showrunner but refused; Lythgoe then took over that position. Much to Cowell's surprise, it became one of the hit shows for the summer that year. The show, with the personal engagement of the viewers with the contestants through voting, and the presence of the acid-tongued Cowell as a judge, grew into a phenomenon. By 2004, it had become the most-watched show in the U.S., a position it then held on for seven consecutive seasons.
For how many seasons were the three original judges on American Idol?
56d368b859d6e4140014630e
eight
606
False
How many judges were originally planned for American Idol?
56d368b859d6e4140014630f
four
42
False
What New York radio personalty was hired as a judge for American Idol in season two but declined?
56d368b859d6e41400146310
Angie Martinez
383
False
What radio DJ was originally hired as a judge in season one but declined?
56d368b859d6e41400146311
Stryker
259
False
How many judges were originally intended for the show?
56daf04ae7c41114004b4b47
four
42
False
Which judge quit before the premiere, citing image concerns?
56daf04ae7c41114004b4b48
DJ Stryker
256
False
During Season two, which judge quit after a few days?
56daf04ae7c41114004b4b49
Angie Martinez
383
False
When did American Idol change to a four-judge panel?
56daf04ae7c41114004b4b4b
season eight
599
False
The show had originally planned on having four judges following the Pop Idol format; however, only three judges had been found by the time of the audition round in the first season, namely Randy Jackson, Paula Abdul and Simon Cowell. A fourth judge, radio DJ Stryker, was originally chosen but he dropped out citing "image concerns". In the second season, New York radio personality Angie Martinez had been hired as a fourth judge but withdrew only after a few days of auditions due to not being comfortable with giving out criticism. The show decided to continue with the three judges format until season eight. All three original judges stayed on the judging panel for eight seasons.
Who was added as a fourth judge in the eighth season of American Idol?
56d3692959d6e41400146316
Kara DioGuardi
84
False
Who replaced Paula Abdul as a judge in season nine of American Idol?
56d3692959d6e41400146317
Ellen DeGeneres
325
False
For how many seasons was Steven Tyler a judge on American Idol?
56d3692959d6e41400146318
two
143
False
What year did Simon Cowell announce that he was leaving American Idol?
56d3692959d6e41400146319
2010
426
False
What show did Simon Cowell launch in 2011 after leaving American Idol?
56d3692959d6e4140014631a
The X Factor
539
False
Who was added as a fourth judge for the eighth season?
56daf1b9e7c41114004b4b51
Kara DioGuardi
84
False
When did Paula Abdul quit as a judge?
56daf1b9e7c41114004b4b52
before season nine
218
False
When did Simon Cowell announce he was no longer going to be a judge?
56daf1b9e7c41114004b4b53
January 11, 2010
414
False
Which talk show host replaced Paula Abdul?
56daf1b9e7c41114004b4b54
Ellen DeGeneres
325
False
When did Steven Tyler become a judge?
56daf1b9e7c41114004b4b55
season ten
180
False
In season eight, Latin Grammy Award-nominated singer–songwriter and record producer Kara DioGuardi was added as a fourth judge. She stayed for two seasons and left the show before season ten. Paula Abdul left the show before season nine after failing to agree terms with the show producers. Emmy Award-winning talk show host Ellen DeGeneres replaced Paula Abdul for that season, but left after just one season. On January 11, 2010, Simon Cowell announced that he was leaving the show to pursue introducing the American version of his show The X Factor to the USA for 2011. Jennifer Lopez and Steven Tyler joined the judging panel in season ten, but both left after two seasons. They were replaced by three new judges, Mariah Carey, Nicki Minaj and Keith Urban, who joined Randy Jackson in season 12. However both Carey and Minaj left after one season, and Randy Jackson also announced that he would depart the show after twelve seasons as a judge but would return as a mentor. Urban is the only judge from season 12 to return in season 13. He was joined by previous judge Jennifer Lopez and former mentor Harry Connick, Jr.. Lopez, Urban and Connick, Jr. all returned as judges for the show's fourteenth and fifteenth seasons.
In what season was Lionel Richie a guest judge on American Idol?
56d369ca59d6e41400146320
season two
48
False
Which season eight contestant was a guest judge in season fourteen?
56d369ca59d6e41400146321
Adam Lambert
576
False
In what season was Donna Summer a guest judge on American Idol?
56d369ca59d6e41400146322
season three
128
False
In which season was Shania Twain a guest judge on American Idol?
56d369ca59d6e41400146323
season six
440
False
Which season of American Idol featured Katy Perry as a guest judge?
56d369ca59d6e41400146324
season nine
535
False
Who were the guest judges in season two?
56daf26ae7c41114004b4b5b
Lionel Richie and Robin Gibb
81
False
When was Shania Twain a guest judge for auditions?
56daf26ae7c41114004b4b5c
season eight
468
False
When did Donna Summer help the contestants during the final rounds?
56daf26ae7c41114004b4b5e
season three
128
False
Guest judges may occasionally be introduced. In season two, guest judges such as Lionel Richie and Robin Gibb were used, and in season three Donna Summer, Quentin Tarantino and some of the mentors also joined as judges to critique the performances in the final rounds. Guest judges were used in the audition rounds for seasons four, six, nine, and fourteen such as Gene Simmons and LL Cool J in season four, Jewel and Olivia Newton-John in season six, Shania Twain in season eight, Neil Patrick Harris, Avril Lavigne and Katy Perry in season nine, and season eight runner-up, Adam Lambert, in season fourteen.
Who was the only host of American Idol after season one?
56d369f459d6e4140014632b
Ryan Seacrest
34
False
Which host quit after the first season?
56daf29ee7c41114004b4b66
Brian Dunkleman
52
False
The first season was co-hosted by Ryan Seacrest and Brian Dunkleman. Dunkleman quit thereafter, making Seacrest the sole emcee of the show starting with season two.
Who was a mentor to the contestants on American Idol in its thirteenth season?
56d36a6c59d6e4140014632e
Randy Jackson
253
False
Who mentored contestants in the fourteenth and fifteenth seasons of American Idol?
56d36a6c59d6e41400146330
Scott Borchetta
312
False
What two things did the mentors help the contestants with?
56daf310e7c41114004b4b74
song choice and performance
145
False
Who was the mentor for seasons 10 - 12?
56daf310e7c41114004b4b75
Jimmy Iovine
174
False
Who was the mentor for season 13?
56daf310e7c41114004b4b76
Randy Jackson
253
False
Who was the mentor for seasons 14 and 15?
56daf310e7c41114004b4b77
Scott Borchetta
312
False
Beginning in the tenth season[citation needed], permanent mentors were brought in during the live shows to help guide the contestants with their song choice and performance. Jimmy Iovine was the mentor in the tenth through twelfth seasons, former judge Randy Jackson was the mentor for the thirteenth season and Scott Borchetta was the mentor for the fourteenth and fifteenth season. The mentors regularly bring in guest mentors to aid them, including Akon, Alicia Keys, Lady Gaga, and current judge Harry Connick, Jr..
What is the upper age limit for contestants on American Idol?
56d36a9f59d6e41400146339
twenty-eight
63
False
When was the age limit increased to 28?
56daf3c0e7c41114004b4b89
season four
214
False
Currently, contestants can not have a recording track by what stage of the competition?
56daf3c0e7c41114004b4b8b
semi-final stage
462
False
The eligible age-range for contestants is currently fifteen to twenty-eight years old. The initial age limit was sixteen to twenty-four in the first three seasons, but the upper limit was raised to twenty-eight in season four, and the lower limit was reduced to fifteen in season ten. The contestants must be legal U.S. residents, cannot have advanced to particular stages of the competition in previous seasons (varies depending on the season, currently by the semi-final stage until season thirteen), and must not hold any current recording or talent representation contract by the semi-final stage (in previous years by the audition stage).
How many auditions are there before contestants audition for the judges?
56d36b3d59d6e4140014633f
at least three
23
False
Which audition stage is televised?
56d36b3d59d6e41400146340
the judges
438
False
How many contestants make it through the initial auditions in each city?
56d36b3d59d6e41400146341
a few hundred
236
False
What is the only televised portion of the preliminary audition rounds?
56daf479e7c41114004b4b91
in front of the judges
426
False
How many rounds can a contestant make it through before Hollywood?
56daf479e7c41114004b4b92
three
32
False
Who do contestants sing for in the second round of cuts during auditions?
56daf479e7c41114004b4b93
producers
169
False
If contestants get approval from the judges, where do they go next?
56daf479e7c41114004b4b94
Hollywood
545
False
Contestants go through at least three sets of cuts. The first is a brief audition with a few other contestants in front of selectors which may include one of the show's producers. Although auditions can exceed 10,000 in each city, only a few hundred of these make it past the preliminary round of auditions. Successful contestants then sing in front of producers, where more may be cut. Only then can they proceed to audition in front of the judges, which is the only audition stage shown on television. Those selected by the judges are sent to Hollywood. Between 10–60 people in each city may make it to Hollywood[citation needed].
Which season did not have a group round in Hollywood?
56d36bc559d6e41400146346
seven
634
False
In which seasons were contestants required to write original lyrics?
56d36bc559d6e41400146347
two and three
500
False
How many Hollywood rounds were there in the first nine seasons?
56d36bc559d6e41400146348
usually three
121
False
In which season were contestants separated by gender to form groups?
56d36bc559d6e41400146349
twelve
831
False
How many rounds of cuts were in the Hollywood stage until season ten?
56daf539e7c41114004b4ba4
three
129
False
What was eliminated from the Hollywood round in Season seven?
56daf539e7c41114004b4ba5
groups
62
False
Which seasons did contestants have to write an original lyric or melody?
56daf539e7c41114004b4ba7
seasons two and three
492
False
Once in Hollywood, the contestants perform individually or in groups in a series of rounds. Until season ten, there were usually three rounds of eliminations in Hollywood. In the first round the contestants emerged in groups but performed individually. For the next round, the contestants put themselves in small groups and perform a song together. In the final round, the contestants perform solo with a song of their choice a cappella or accompanied by a band‍—‌depending on the season. In seasons two and three, contestants were also asked to write original lyrics or melody in an additional round after the first round. In season seven, the group round was eliminated and contestants may, after a first solo performance and on judges approval, skip a second solo round and move directly to the final Hollywood round. In season twelve, the executive producers split up the females and males and chose the members to form the groups in the group round.
In what city did contestants perform an additional round in seasons ten and eleven?
56d36c0559d6e4140014634e
Las Vegas
56
False
What was the Las Vegas round called in season twelve?
56d36c0559d6e4140014634f
Sudden Death
352
False
In which season was the "Hollywood or Home" round added to the competition?
56d36c0559d6e41400146350
twelve
316
False
In seasons ten and eleven, a further round was added in Las Vegas, where the contestants perform in groups based on a theme, followed by one final solo round to determine the semi-finalists. At the end of this stage of the competition, 24 to 36 contestants are selected to move on to the semi-final stage. In season twelve the Las Vegas round became a Sudden Death round, where the judges had to choose five guys and five girls each night (four nights) to make the top twenty. In season thirteen, a new round called "Hollywood or Home" was added, where if the judges were uncertain about some contestants, those contestants were required to perform soon after landing in Los Angeles, and those who failed to impress were sent back home before they reached Hollywood.
How many text message votes were there in season eight?
56d36c4859d6e41400146355
178 million
1137
False
In which season was online voting introduced?
56d36c4859d6e41400146356
ten
833
False
What company counts the votes on American Idol?
56d36c4859d6e41400146357
Telescope Inc
1270
False
At what point does the public begin voting for contestants?
56daf672e7c41114004b4bb5
the semi-finals
5
False
How many votes were cast for contestants in the first season?
56daf672e7c41114004b4bb7
Over 110 million
765
False
How many votes were cast by season ten for all contestants?
56daf672e7c41114004b4bb8
nearly 750 million
873
False
From the semi-finals onwards, the fate of the contestants is decided by public vote. During the contestant's performance as well as the recap at the end, a toll-free telephone number for each contestant is displayed on the screen. For a two-hour period after the episode ends (up to four hours for the finale) in each US time zone, viewers may call or send a text message to their preferred contestant's telephone number, and each call or text message is registered as a vote for that contestant. Viewers are allowed to vote as many times as they can within the two-hour voting window. However, the show reserves the right to discard votes by power dialers. One or more of the least popular contestants may be eliminated in successive weeks until a winner emerges. Over 110 million votes were cast in the first season, and by season ten the seasonal total had increased to nearly 750 million. Voting via text messaging was made available in the second season when AT&T Wireless joined as a sponsor of the show, and 7.5 million text messages were sent to American Idol that season. The number of text messages rapidly increased, reaching 178 million texts by season eight. Online voting was offered for the first time in season ten. The votes are counted and verified by Telescope Inc.
How many finalists were there on the first season of American Idol?
56d36ce959d6e4140014635e
ten
173
False
What is the name of the round that gives failed contestants another chance?
56d36ce959d6e41400146360
wildcard
367
False
How were the semi-finalists split up to perform in season one?
56daf725e7c41114004b4bc7
three groups of ten
157
False
How were the semi-finalists split up to perform in seasons two and three?
56daf725e7c41114004b4bc8
four groups of eight
281
False
When did the wildcard round become a factor?
56daf725e7c41114004b4bc9
season one
134
False
How many finalists were chosen for season one?
56daf725e7c41114004b4bca
ten
173
False
How many finalists made it to the finals for seasons two and three?
56daf725e7c41114004b4bcb
12
689
False
In the first three seasons, the semi-finalists were split into different groups to perform individually in their respective night. In season one, there were three groups of ten, with the top three contestants from each group making the finals. In seasons two and three, there were four groups of eight, and the top two of each selected. These seasons also featured a wildcard round, where contestants who failed to qualify were given another chance. In season one, only one wildcard contestant was chosen by the judges, giving a total of ten finalists. In seasons two and three, each of the three judges championed one contestant with the public advancing a fourth into the finals, making 12 finalists in all.
How many semi-finalists were there in season 4?
56d36d2859d6e41400146366
twenty-four
41
False
How were the semi-finalists divided in season four?
56d36d2859d6e41400146367
by gender
81
False
How many men were in the top twelve on season five of American Idol?
56d36d2859d6e41400146368
six
282
False
How many women were in the top twelve on season nine of American Idol?
56d36d2859d6e41400146369
six
282
False
How many women were semi-finalists on season six of American Idol?
56d36d2859d6e4140014636a
twelve
146
False
From seasons four to seven and nine, the twenty-four semi-finalists were divided by gender in order to ensure an equal gender division in the top twelve. The men and women sang separately on consecutive nights, and the bottom two in each groups were eliminated each week until only six of each remained to form the top twelve.
How many wildcards were chosen by the judges in season eight?
56d36d5f59d6e41400146370
four
223
False
How many wildcard contestants were advanced in the competition in season ten?
56d36d5f59d6e41400146371
three
64
False
How many women were in the top ten in season twelve?
56d36d5f59d6e41400146372
five
382
False
How many finalists were there in season eight?
56d36d5f59d6e41400146373
thirteen
626
False
What season saw the return of the Wild Card round?
56daf8e2e7c41114004b4bd9
season eight
31
False
How many contestants moved forward from each round?
56daf8e2e7c41114004b4bdb
three
64
False
How many wildcard contestants were chosen?
56daf8e2e7c41114004b4bdc
four
223
False
How many contestants were finalists for season 12?
56daf8e2e7c41114004b4bdd
10
612
False
The wildcard round returned in season eight, wherein there were three groups of twelve, with three contestants moving forward – the highest male, the highest female, and the next highest-placed singer - for each night, and four wildcards were chosen by the judges to produce a final 13. Starting season ten, the girls and boys perform on separate nights. In seasons ten and eleven, five of each gender were chosen, and three wildcards were chosen by the judges to form a final 13. In season twelve, the top twenty semifinalists were split into gender groups, with five of each gender advancing to form the final 10. In season thirteen, there were thirty semifinalists, but only twenty semifinalists (ten for each gender) were chosen by the judges to perform on the live shows, with five in each gender and three wildcards chosen by the judges composing the final 13.
Where studio hosts the live final rounds on American Idol?
56d36db659d6e41400146378
CBS Television City
44
False
Who was the mentor on season ten of American Idol?
56d36db659d6e41400146379
Jimmy Iovine
732
False
How many weeks did the finals of season thirteen last?
56d36db659d6e4140014637a
thirteen
312
False
How many weeks did the finals last in the first season?
56d36db659d6e4140014637c
eight
134
False
Where are the finals broadcast from?
56daf966e7c41114004b4be3
CBS Television City
44
False
Who was a mentor for the contestants in Season 10?
56daf966e7c41114004b4be5
Jimmy Iovine
732
False
How many songs do contestants sing initially in the finals?
56daf966e7c41114004b4be6
one
156
False
When do contestants start singing two songs?
56daf966e7c41114004b4be7
top four or five
879
False
The finals are broadcast in prime time from CBS Television City in Los Angeles, in front of a live studio audience. The finals lasted eight weeks in season one, eleven weeks in subsequent seasons until seasons ten and eleven which lasted twelve weeks except for season twelve, which lasted ten weeks, and season thirteen, which lasted for thirteen weeks. Each finalist performs songs based on a weekly theme which may be a musical genre such as Motown, disco, or big band, songs by artists such as Michael Jackson, Elvis Presley or The Beatles, or more general themes such as Billboard Number 1 hits or songs from the contestant's year of birth. Contestants usually work with a celebrity mentor related to the theme. In season ten, Jimmy Iovine was brought in as a mentor for the season. Initially the contestants sing one song each week, but this is increased to two songs from top four or five onwards, then three songs for the top two or three.
In what season was the "Judges Save" introduced to give contestants a second chance?
56d36e2059d6e41400146382
eight
708
False
How many time can the judges save be used each season?
56d36e2059d6e41400146386
once
837
False
When three are called, one is often sent to what?
56db01c5e7c41114004b4c26
safety
255
False
Which season was the Idol Gives Back episode?
56db01c5e7c41114004b4c29
season six
535
False
The most popular contestants are usually not revealed in the results show. Instead, typically the three contestants (two in later rounds) who received the lowest number of votes are called to the center of the stage. One of these three is usually sent to safety; however the two remaining are not necessarily the bottom two. The contestant with the fewest votes is then revealed and eliminated from the competition. A montage of the eliminated contestant's time on the show is played and they give their final performance. However, in season six, during the series' first ever Idol Gives Back episode, no contestant was eliminated, but on the following week, two were sent home. Moreover, starting in season eight, the judges may overturn viewers' decision with a "Judges' Save" if they unanimously agree to. "The save" can only be used once, and only up through the top five. In the eighth, ninth, tenth, and fourteenth seasons, a double elimination then took place in the week following the activation of the save, but in the eleventh and thirteenth seasons, a regular single elimination took place. The save was not activated in the twelfth season and consequently, a non-elimination took place in the week after its expiration with the votes then carrying over into the following week.
In which season was the "Fan Save" first used?
56d36e4b59d6e4140014638c
fourteen
37
False
How do people vote using the fan save?
56d36e4b59d6e4140014638d
Twitter
182
False
What was introduced in season 14 to allow the fans to help save a contestant?
56db0286e7c41114004b4c2f
Fan Save
5
False
How do viewers vote for a contestant using Fan Save?
56db0286e7c41114004b4c31
Twitter
182
False
When does the Fan Save start?
56db0286e7c41114004b4c32
Top 8
274
False
The "Fan Save" was introduced in the fourteenth season. During the finals, viewers are given a five-minute window to vote for the contestants in danger of elimination by using their Twitter account to decide which contestant will move on to the next show, starting with the Top 8.
What venue was the American Idol season seven finale held at?
56d36e9659d6e41400146393
the Nokia Theatre
401
False
How many people can attend an American Idol finale at the Dolby Theatre?
56d36e9659d6e41400146394
3,400
231
False
In what episode is the winner of American Idol revealed?
56d36e9659d6e41400146396
The finale
0
False
Where was the season one finale broadcast from?
56db031de7c41114004b4c41
Dolby Theatre
168
False
How many audience members can fit in Dolby Theatre?
56db031de7c41114004b4c42
3,400
231
False
What is the capacity for Gibson Ampitheatre?
56db031de7c41114004b4c44
6,000
342
False
For seasons 7-13, the season finale was held where?
56db031de7c41114004b4c45
Nokia Theatre
405
False
The finale is the two-hour last episode of the season, culminating in revealing the winner. For seasons one, three through six, and fourteen, it was broadcast from the Dolby Theatre, which has an audience capacity of approximately 3,400. The finale for season two took place at the Gibson Amphitheatre, which has an audience capacity of over 6,000. In seasons seven through thirteen, the venue was at the Nokia Theatre, which holds an audience of over 7,000.
Which company manages the winners of American Idol?
56d36fa259d6e4140014639c
19 Management
153
False
What record label signed the winner of season fourteen of American Idol?
56d36fa259d6e4140014639d
Big Machine Records
795
False
How long does the record company have the right of first refusal for contestants on American Idol?
56d36fa259d6e4140014639f
three months
693
False
What does the winner of American Idol receive?
56db059de7c41114004b4c59
a record deal
20
False
The winner also receives a management contract with which company?
56db059de7c41114004b4c5a
19 Management
153
False
In season 14, the winner was signed to which company?
56db059de7c41114004b4c5c
Big Machine Records
795
False
The winner receives a record deal with a major label, which may be for up to six albums, and secures a management contract with American Idol-affiliated 19 Management (which has the right of first refusal to sign all contestants), as well as various lucrative contracts. All winners prior to season nine reportedly earned at least $1 million in their first year as winner. All the runners-up of the first ten seasons, as well as some of other finalists, have also received record deals with major labels. However, starting in season 11, the runner-up may only be guaranteed a single-only deal. BMG/Sony (seasons 1–9) and UMG (season 10–) had the right of first refusal to sign contestants for three months after the season's finale. Starting in the fourteenth season, the winner was signed with Big Machine Records. Prominent music mogul Clive Davis also produced some of the selected contestants' albums, such as Kelly Clarkson, Clay Aiken, Fantasia Barrino and Diana DeGarmo. All top 10 (11 in seasons 10 and 12) finalists earn the privilege of going on a tour, where the participants may each earn a six-figure sum.
What is given to contestants who make it past the audition round?
56d36fe159d6e414001463a7
a golden ticket
247
False
In the audition rounds, what do contestants who win the approval of the judges receive?
56db0637e7c41114004b4c63
a golden ticket
247
False
Who votes for the winning contestants starting with the semi-final round?
56db0637e7c41114004b4c65
the public
692
False
Each season premieres with the audition round, taking place in different cities. The audition episodes typically feature a mix of potential finalists, interesting characters and woefully inadequate contestants. Each successful contestant receives a golden ticket to proceed on to the next round in Hollywood. Based on their performances during the Hollywood round (Las Vegas round for seasons 10 onwards), 24 to 36 contestants are selected by the judges to participate in the semifinals. From the semifinal onwards the contestants perform their songs live, with the judges making their critiques after each performance. The contestants are voted for by the viewing public, and the outcome of the public votes is then revealed in the results show typically on the following night. The results shows feature group performances by the contestants as well as guest performers. The Top-three results show also features the homecoming events for the Top 3 finalists. The season reaches its climax in a two-hour results finale show, where the winner of the season is revealed.
In which season were contestants first allowed to use musical instruments?
56d3702e59d6e414001463af
seven
443
False
Who was in charge of the American Idol band in season eleven?
56d3702e59d6e414001463b0
Ray Chew
275
False
In what season did American Idol start airing on Thursday nights?
56d3702e59d6e414001463b1
ten
262
False
Who was the leader of the American Idol band in season five?
56d3702e59d6e414001463b2
Rickey Minor
236
False
Who led the American Idol band between seasons four and nine?
56db06dae7c41114004b4c6e
Rickey Minor
236
False
Who led the American Idol band after Rickey Minor's departure?
56db06dae7c41114004b4c6f
Ray Chew
275
False
What season were contestants allowed use a musical instrument when they sing?
56db06dae7c41114004b4c70
seven
443
False
With the exception of seasons one and two, the contestants in the semifinals onwards perform in front of a studio audience. They perform with a full band in the finals. From season four to season nine, the American Idol band was led by Rickey Minor; from season ten onwards, Ray Chew. Assistance may also be given by vocal coaches and song arrangers, such as Michael Orland and Debra Byrd to contestants behind the scene. Starting with season seven, contestants may perform with a musical instrument from the Hollywood rounds onwards. In the first nine seasons, performances were usually aired live on Tuesday nights, followed by the results shows on Wednesdays in the United States and Canada, but moved to Wednesdays and Thursdays in season ten.
What network aired the first season of American Idol?
56d3705759d6e414001463b8
Fox
91
False
What year did American Idol first debut?
56d3705759d6e414001463b9
2002
79
False
Who was Ryan Seacrests co-host in the first season of American Idol?
56d3705759d6e414001463ba
Brian Dunkleman
142
False
When did American Idol debut?
56db0710e7c41114004b4c77
June 2002
74
False
What network did American Idol debut on?
56db0710e7c41114004b4c78
Fox
91
False
Who co-hosted American Idol?
56db0710e7c41114004b4c79
Ryan Seacrest and Brian Dunkleman
124
False
The first season of American Idol debuted as a summer replacement show in June 2002 on the Fox network. It was co-hosted by Ryan Seacrest and Brian Dunkleman.
How many contestants made it past the first round of auditions?
56d370aa59d6e414001463be
121
24
False
How many people initially auditioned?
56d370aa59d6e414001463bf
around 10,000
59
False
Who was the first known homosexual contestant on American Idol?
56d370aa59d6e414001463c0
Jim Verraros
589
False
Which contestant was surprisingly eliminated during the top four episode?
56d370aa59d6e414001463c1
Tamyra Gray
297
False
Where was Christina Christian at when she was eliminated from the show?
56d370aa59d6e414001463c2
the hospital
575
False
How many contestants were chosen from the 10,000 that auditioned?
56db079fe7c41114004b4c7d
121
24
False
Of the 121 chosen, how many became semi-finalists?
56db079fe7c41114004b4c7e
30
119
False
Which contestant was disqualified for lying about his age?
56db079fe7c41114004b4c7f
Delano Cagnolatti
192
False
When was Tamyra Gray eliminated?
56db079fe7c41114004b4c80
top four
332
False
Who was eliminated while she was in the hospital due to chest pains?
56db079fe7c41114004b4c81
Christina Christian
430
False
In the audition rounds, 121 contestants were selected from around 10,000 who attended the auditions. These were cut to 30 for the semifinal, with ten going on to the finals. One semifinalist, Delano Cagnolatti, was disqualified for lying to evade the show's age limit. One of the early favorites, Tamyra Gray, was eliminated at the top four, the first of several such shock eliminations that were to be repeated in later seasons. Christina Christian was hospitalized before the top six result show due to chest pains and palpitations, and she was eliminated while she was in the hospital. Jim Verraros was the first openly gay contestant on the show; his sexual orientation was revealed in his online journal, however it was removed during the competition after a request from the show producers over concerns that it might be unfairly influencing votes.
What year did Kelly Clarkson win?
56d370d259d6e414001463c8
2002
374
False
Who was the runner up to Kelly Clarkson?
56d370d259d6e414001463c9
Justin Guarini
31
False
What month did Kelly Clarkson win?
56d370d259d6e414001463ca
September
361
False
Of the final two, which was an early favorite to win?
56db07fae7c41114004b4c88
Justin Guarini
31
False
Who won the first season of American Idol?
56db07fae7c41114004b4c89
Kelly Clarkson
79
False
When did Clarkson win the crown?
56db07fae7c41114004b4c8a
September 4, 2002
361
False
The final showdown was between Justin Guarini, one of the early favorites, and Kelly Clarkson. Clarkson was not initially thought of as a contender, but impressed the judges with some good performances in the final rounds, such as her performance of Aretha Franklin's "Natural Woman", and Betty Hutton's "Stuff Like That There", and eventually won the crown on September 4, 2002.
What was the fist song released by Kelly Clarkson after winning American Idol?
56d371e359d6e414001463d8
A Moment Like This
164
False
What film did Kelly Clarkson and Justin Guarini star in after they were on American Idol?
56d371e359d6e414001463d9
From Justin to Kelly
456
False
How many albums has Kelly Clarkson sold around the world?
56d371e359d6e414001463da
more than 23 million
637
False
What song did Kelly Clarkson perform during the finale?
56d371e359d6e414001463db
A Moment Like This
164
False
What did Clarkson sing during the finale?
56db0888e7c41114004b4c8f
the coronation song
54
False
What was the name of the song?
56db0888e7c41114004b4c90
A Moment Like This
164
False
Which record did the song break, which was the biggest leap to the top of the Billboard charts?
56db0888e7c41114004b4c91
The Beatles
231
False
What was the name of the film that the two finalists made together?
56db0888e7c41114004b4c92
From Justin to Kelly
456
False
How many worldwide album sales has Kelly Clarkson had since winning Idol?
56db0888e7c41114004b4c93
more than 23 million
637
False
In what was to become a tradition, Clarkson performed the coronation song during the finale, and released the song immediately after the season ended. The single, "A Moment Like This", went on to break a 38-year-old record held by The Beatles for the biggest leap to number one on the Billboard Hot 100. Guarini did not release any song immediately after the show and remains the only runner-up not to do so. Both Clarkson and Guarini made a musical film, From Justin to Kelly, which was released in 2003 but was widely panned. Clarkson has since become the most successful Idol contestant internationally, with worldwide album sales of more than 23 million.
What year did season two of American Idol first air?
56d3721359d6e414001463e1
2003
86
False
Who was a correspondent on season two of American Idol?
56d3721359d6e414001463e3
Kristin Adams
248
False
When did season two air?
56db08b8e7c41114004b4c99
January 2003
78
False
Who was a correspondent for season two?
56db08b8e7c41114004b4c9b
Kristin Adams
248
False
Following the success of season one, the second season was moved up to air in January 2003. The number of episodes increased, as did the show's budget and the charge for commercial spots. Dunkleman left the show, leaving Seacrest as the lone host. Kristin Adams was a correspondent for this season.
Which judge did Corey Clark claim to have had an affair with?
56d3726559d6e414001463e7
Paula Abdul
126
False
Which contestant was removed from the competition for having been a model on an adult website?
56d3726559d6e414001463e8
Frenchie Davis
492
False
Which contestant was removed from the competition for not revealing his police record?
56d3726559d6e414001463e9
Corey Clark
0
False
Which contestant had previously been arrested and charged with assault?
56d3726559d6e414001463eb
Jaered Andrews
437
False
Who was disqualified for having a police record?
56db0942e7c41114004b4c9f
Corey Clark
0
False
Which contestant was removed from the show for modelling for an adult website?
56db0942e7c41114004b4ca1
Frenchie Davis
492
False
Which contestant was disqualified because of an assault charge?
56db0942e7c41114004b4ca2
Jaered Andrews
437
False
Corey Clark was disqualified during the finals for having an undisclosed police record; however, he later alleged that he and Paula Abdul had an affair while on the show and that this contributed to his expulsion. Clark also claimed that Abdul gave him preferential treatment on the show due to their affair. The allegations were dismissed by Fox after an independent investigation. Two semi-finalists were also disqualified that year – Jaered Andrews for an arrest on an assault charge, and Frenchie Davis for having previously modelled for an adult website.
Who was the season two winner of American Idol?
56d372a659d6e414001463f1
Ruben Studdard
0
False
How many votes were cast during the final week?
56d372a659d6e414001463f2
24 million
94
False
Who was the runner up on season two of American Idol?
56d372a659d6e414001463f3
Clay Aiken
46
False
How many votes did Ruben Studdard win by?
56d372a659d6e414001463f4
134,000
135
False
What was the name of the shows executive producer?
56d372a659d6e414001463f5
Nigel Lythgoe
329
False
Who won season two?
56db09ace7c41114004b4ca7
Ruben Studdard
0
False
Who was the runner up for season two?
56db09ace7c41114004b4ca8
Clay Aiken
46
False
How many more votes did Studdard have at the finale?
56db09ace7c41114004b4ca9
134,000
135
False
How many votes were cast for the finale?
56db09ace7c41114004b4caa
24 million
94
False
Who did Nigel Lythgoe say was a fan favorite for the majority of the season?
56db09ace7c41114004b4cab
Clay Aiken
46
False
Ruben Studdard emerged as the winner, beating Clay Aiken by a small margin. Out of a total of 24 million votes, Studdard finished just 134,000 votes ahead of Aiken. This slim margin of victory was controversial due to the large number of calls that failed to get through. In an interview prior to season five, executive producer Nigel Lythgoe indicated that Aiken had led the fan voting from the wildcard week onward until the finale.
What is the first song that Ruben Studdard released after winning American Idol?
56d372d559d6e414001463fb
Flying Without Wings
97
False
What contestant came in fourth on season two of American Idol?
56d372d559d6e414001463fc
Josh Gracin
251
False
What song did Clay Aiken first release after losing American Idol?
56d372d559d6e414001463fd
This Is the Night
158
False
What was the name of Studdard's coronation song?
56db0b29e7c41114004b4cbb
Flying Without Wings
97
False
What was Aiken's single release named?
56db0b29e7c41114004b4cbc
This Is the Night
158
False
Which of the final two had more success with his first album?
56db0b29e7c41114004b4cbd
Aiken
49
False
Who finished fourth on season two?
56db0b29e7c41114004b4cbe
Josh Gracin
251
False
Both finalists found success after the show, but Aiken out-performed Studdard's coronation song "Flying Without Wings" with his single release from the show "This Is the Night", as well as in their subsequent album releases. The fourth-place finisher Josh Gracin also enjoyed some success as a country singer.
What year did the third season of American Idol first air?
56d3730659d6e4140014640b
2004
38
False
Which contestant was best known for his bad audition of "She Bangs"?
56d3730659d6e4140014640c
William Hung
117
False
Which contestant sold more albums than all except two from season three of American Idol?
56d3730659d6e4140014640d
William Hung
117
False
When did season three premiere?
56db0b9be7c41114004b4cc3
January 19, 2004
26
False
Which contestant sang an off-key "She Bangs"?
56db0b9be7c41114004b4cc4
William Hung
117
False
Which contestant was number three in sales from season three?
56db0b9be7c41114004b4cc5
William Hung
117
False
Season three premiered on January 19, 2004. One of the most talked-about contestants during the audition process was William Hung whose off-key rendition of Ricky Martin's "She Bangs" received widespread attention. His exposure on Idol landed him a record deal and surprisingly he became the third best-selling singer from that season.
What were the three black female contestants on season three of American Idol commonly referred to as?
56d3733e59d6e41400146411
the Three Divas
141
False
Which contestant was eliminated during the week of the top seven?
56d3733e59d6e41400146412
Jennifer Hudson
117
False
What famous singer made claims of racism after Jennifer Hudson was eliminated from American Idol?
56d3733e59d6e41400146413
Elton John
278
False
Which season three contestant on American Idol was the recipient of reported death threats?
56d3733e59d6e41400146414
John Stevens
406
False
What were Fantasia Barrino, LaToya London and Jennifer Hudson called?
56db18bae7c41114004b4cf1
the Three Divas
141
False
Which of the three was eliminated?
56db18bae7c41114004b4cf3
Jennifer Hudson
117
False
Who said that the results were racist?
56db18bae7c41114004b4cf4
Elton John
278
False
Which contestant reportedly received a death threat on the show?
56db18bae7c41114004b4cf5
John Stevens
406
False
Much media attention on the season had been focused on the three black singers, Fantasia Barrino, LaToya London, and Jennifer Hudson, dubbed the Three Divas. All three unexpectedly landed on the bottom three on the top seven result show, with Hudson controversially eliminated. Elton John, who was one of the mentors that season, called the results of the votes "incredibly racist". The prolonged stays of John Stevens and Jasmine Trias in the finals, despite negative comments from the judges, had aroused resentment, so much so that John Stevens reportedly received a death threat, which he dismissed as a joke 'blown out of proportion'.
Who was the runner up on the third season of American Idol?
56d3738f59d6e4140014641b
Diana DeGarmo
219
False
What was the name of the first single that Fantasia released after winning American Idol?
56d3738f59d6e4140014641c
I Believe
346
False
What was the first song released by Diana DeGarmo after coming in second on American Idol?
56d3738f59d6e4140014641d
Dreams
434
False
What song did Fantasia sing on the Top 8 show?
56db193ce7c41114004b4cfb
Summertime
20
False
Who has said that Barrino's rendition of Summertime has been his top moment of all seasons?
56db193ce7c41114004b4cfc
Simon Cowell
111
False
Who were the final two contestants?
56db193ce7c41114004b4cfd
Fantasia and Diana DeGarmo
206
False
Who was declared the season winner?
56db193ce7c41114004b4cfe
Fantasia
67
False
What was Fantasia's coronation song?
56db193ce7c41114004b4cff
I Believe
346
False
The performance of "Summertime" by Barrino, later known simply as "Fantasia", at Top 8 was widely praised, and Simon Cowell considered it as his favorite Idol moment in the nine seasons he was on the show. Fantasia and Diana DeGarmo were the last two finalists, and Fantasia was crowned as the winner. Fantasia released as her coronation single "I Believe", a song co-written by season one finalist Tamyra Gray, and DeGarmo released "Dreams". Fantasia went on to gain some successes as a recording artist, while Hudson, who placed seventh, became the only Idol contestant so far to win both an Academy Award and a Grammy.
Who got a spot in the top 12 after Mario Vasquez dropped out?
56d3741959d6e4140014642f
Nikko Smith
121
False
Who replaced Vasquez as a finalist?
56db1a27e7c41114004b4d10
Nikko Smith
121
False
What company produces the show?
56db1a27e7c41114004b4d11
Freemantle Media
156
False
A former employee states he was fired after complaining about which finalist?
56db1a27e7c41114004b4d12
Vazquez
47
False
The top 12 finalists originally included Mario Vazquez, but he dropped out citing 'personal reasons' and was replaced by Nikko Smith. Later, an employee of Freemantle Media, which produces the show, sued the company for wrongful termination, claiming that he was dismissed after complaining about lewd behavior by Vazquez toward him during the show.
During what week was there a problem with voting?
56d3743659d6e41400146433
top 11 week
11
False
When did the results show happen?
56db1a7de7c41114004b4d1a
the following night
178
False
During the top 11 week, due to a mix-up with the contestants' telephone number, voting was repeated on what was normally the result night, with the result reveal postponed until the following night.
What year did Carrie Underwood win American Idol?
56d3747759d6e41400146437
2005
7
False
How many record has Carrie Underwood sold since winning American Idol?
56d3747759d6e41400146439
65 million
181
False
What was the first song released by Carrie Underwood after winning American Idol?
56d3747759d6e4140014643a
Inside Your Heaven
135
False
Which American Idol contestant has won the biggest number of Grammy Awards?
56d3747759d6e4140014643b
Carrie Underwood
13
False
When was the winner declared?
56db1ae3e7c41114004b4d1f
May 2005
3
False
Who was the winner of this season?
56db1ae3e7c41114004b4d20
Carrie Underwood
13
False
What song did the two finalists release?
56db1ae3e7c41114004b4d22
Inside Your Heaven
135
False
How many records has Underwood sold in America?
56db1ae3e7c41114004b4d23
14 million
284
False
In May 2005, Carrie Underwood was announced the winner, with Bice the runner-up. Both Underwood and Bice released the coronation song "Inside Your Heaven". Underwood has since sold 65 million records worldwide, and become the most successful Idol contestant in the U.S., selling over 14 million albums copies in the U.S. and has more  Underwood has won seven Grammy Awards, the most Grammys by an "American Idol" alumnus.
Which season of American Idol stands out for having the highest ratings?
56d374a259d6e41400146442
Season five
0
False
Which two contestants were removed from the show for accusations of identity theft?
56d374a259d6e41400146443
the Brittenum twins
171
False
Which season has been the highest rated of all American Idol seasons?
56db1b5ee7c41114004b4d33
Season five
0
False
When did season five premiere?
56db1b5ee7c41114004b4d34
January 17, 2006
21
False
Which two contestants were kicked off the show for identity theft?
56db1b5ee7c41114004b4d35
the Brittenum twins
171
False
Season five began on January 17, 2006. It remains the highest-rated season in the show's run so far. Two of the more prominent contestants during the Hollywood round were the Brittenum twins who were later disqualified for identity theft.
Which contestant did the band Fuel ask to be their new lead singer?
56d374c959d6e41400146447
Chris Daughtry
0
False
Which season five contestant caused controversy with their performance of I Walk the Line?
56d374c959d6e41400146448
Chris Daughtry
0
False
Which contestant was surprisingly eliminated during the week of the top four?
56d374c959d6e41400146449
Chris Daughtry
0
False
Who performed a Fuel song on this season?
56db1bd0e7c41114004b4d3f
Chris Daughtry
0
False
Fuel asked Chris Daughtry to become what?
56db1bd0e7c41114004b4d40
lead singer
153
False
Who was eliminated in the Top 4 show?
56db1bd0e7c41114004b4d41
Chris Daughtry
0
False
Which song performance did he receive both praise and criticism for?
56db1bd0e7c41114004b4d42
I Walk the Line
231
False
Why did he receive criticism for I Walk the Line
56db1bd0e7c41114004b4d43
not crediting the arrangement to Live
322
False
Chris Daughtry's performance of Fuel's "Hemorrhage (In My Hands)" on the show was widely praised and led to an invitation to join the band as Fuel's new lead singer, an invitation he declined. His performance of Live's version of "I Walk the Line" was well received by the judges but later criticized in some quarters for not crediting the arrangement to Live. He was eliminated at the top four in a shocking result.
Who was the winner American Idol in 2006?
56d3753559d6e4140014644d
Taylor Hicks
17
False
What was the name of the first song that Taylor Hicks released after winning American Idol?
56d3753559d6e4140014644f
Do I Make You Proud
93
False
What was the first song that Katherine McPhee released after coming in second on American Idol?
56d3753559d6e41400146450
My Destiny
168
False
Who was the winner for this season?
56db1c21e7c41114004b4d4a
Taylor Hicks
17
False
What was Hick's debut single?
56db1c21e7c41114004b4d4c
Do I Make You Proud
93
False
What was McPhee's first single?
56db1c21e7c41114004b4d4d
My Destiny
168
False
On May 30, 2006, Taylor Hicks was named American Idol, with Katharine McPhee the runner-up. "Do I Make You Proud" was released as Hicks' first single and McPhee's was "My Destiny".
Which season five contestant has had the most success after the show?
56d3754d59d6e41400146455
Chris Daughtry
48
False
What is the name if the band that has Chris Daughtry as its lead singer?
56d3754d59d6e41400146456
Daughtry
54
False
Who was the most successful artist from this season?
56db1c56e7c41114004b4d53
Chris Daughtry
48
False
What band does Chris Daughtry sing for?
56db1c56e7c41114004b4d54
Daughtry
54
False
Despite being eliminated earlier in the season, Chris Daughtry (as lead of the band Daughtry) became the most successful recording artist from this season. Other contestants, such as Hicks, McPhee, Bucky Covington, Mandisa, Kellie Pickler, and Elliott Yamin have had varying levels of success.
What year did the sixth season of American Idol first air?
56d3757559d6e41400146459
2007
41
False
How many people watched the season premiere of American Idol in 2007?
56d3757559d6e4140014645a
37.3 million
87
False
When did season six premiere?
56db1c9de7c41114004b4d57
January 16, 2007
29
False
How many overall viewers did the first show of the season generate?
56db1c9de7c41114004b4d58
37.3 million
87
False
Season six began on Tuesday, January 16, 2007. The premiere drew a massive audience of 37.3 million viewers, peaking in the last half hour with more than 41 million viewers.
Who was the most discussed singer in American Idols sixth season?
56d375b159d6e4140014645d
Sanjaya Malakar
9
False
What celebrity asked his fans to vote for Sanjaya Malakar on American Idol?
56d375b159d6e4140014645e
Howard Stern
227
False
What is the name of the blog that tried to rally votes for Sanjaya Malakar on American Idol?
56d375b159d6e4140014645f
Vote for the Worst
176
False
What date was Sanjaya Malakar eliminated on American Idol?
56d375b159d6e41400146460
April 18
295
False
What season six American Idol contestant was known for his strange hairstyles?
56d375b159d6e41400146461
Sanjaya Malakar
9
False
Which contestant was talked about more than any other this season?
56db1d2fe7c41114004b4d67
Sanjaya Malakar
9
False
What was the main reason Sanjaya garnered such attention?
56db1d2fe7c41114004b4d68
hair
87
False
Which weblog helped Sanjaya survive elimination week over and over again?
56db1d2fe7c41114004b4d69
Vote for the Worst
176
False
Which shock jock urged people to vote for Sanjaya?
56db1d2fe7c41114004b4d6a
Howard Stern
227
False
When was Sanjaya eliminated?
56db1d2fe7c41114004b4d6b
April 18
295
False
Teenager Sanjaya Malakar was the season's most talked-about contestant for his unusual hairdo, and for managing to survive elimination for many weeks due in part to the weblog Vote for the Worst and satellite radio personality Howard Stern, who both encouraged fans to vote for him. However, on April 18, Sanjaya was voted off.
What was the name of the charity event on season six of American Idol?
56d3760759d6e41400146471
Idol Gives Back
26
False
How much money did the Idol Gives Back event raise in 2007?
56d3760759d6e41400146472
$76 million
90
False
What singer came in third on the sixth season of American Idol?
56d3760759d6e41400146474
Melinda Doolittle
246
False
What was the charity event that occurred this season?
56db1d92e7c41114004b4d71
Idol Gives Back
26
False
Which two contestants were eliminated the following week?
56db1d92e7c41114004b4d73
Phil Stacey and Chris Richardson
186
False
Who was eliminated on the Top 3 show?
56db1d92e7c41114004b4d74
Melinda Doolittle
246
False
This season saw the first Idol Gives Back telethon-inspired event, which raised more than $76 million in corporate and viewer donations. No contestant was eliminated that week, but two (Phil Stacey and Chris Richardson) were eliminated the next. Melinda Doolittle was eliminated in the final three.
Who was the winner of American Idols sixth season?
56d3762f59d6e41400146479
Jordin Sparks
29
False
Who came in second on season six of American Idol?
56d3762f59d6e4140014647a
Blake Lewis
92
False
On what date did American Idol air its season six finale?
56d3762f59d6e4140014647b
May 23
7
False
When was the finale aired?
56db1dbfe7c41114004b4d79
May 23
7
False
Which contestant won the season?
56db1dbfe7c41114004b4d7a
Jordin Sparks
29
False
In the May 23 season finale, Jordin Sparks was declared the winner with the runner-up being Blake Lewis. Sparks has had some success as a recording artist post-Idol.
What year did season four of American Idol first air?
56d3765559d6e4140014647f
2005
37
False
How many contestants auditioned for the fourth season of American Idol?
56d3765559d6e41400146480
over 100,000
254
False
What was the oldest that you could be to qualify as a contestant on the fourth season of American Idol?
56d3765559d6e41400146481
28
332
False
What  was the first full season of American Idol to air in high definition?
56d3765559d6e41400146482
Season four
0
False
In which season was Bo Bice a contestant on American Idol?
56d3765559d6e41400146483
Season four
0
False
When did season four premiere?
56db19b5e7c41114004b4d05
January 18, 2005
25
False
Season four was the first full season to be aired in what?
56db19b5e7c41114004b4d06
high definition
98
False
How many people auditioned to be on American Idol?
56db19b5e7c41114004b4d07
over 100,000
254
False
What was the maximum age a contestant could be starting this season?
56db19b5e7c41114004b4d08
28
332
False
Season four premiered on January 18, 2005; this was the first season of the series to be aired in high definition, although the finale of season three was also aired in high definition. The number of those attending the auditions by now had increased to over 100,000 from the 10,000 of the first season. The age limit was raised to 28 in this season, and among those who benefited from this new rule were Constantine Maroulis and Bo Bice, the two rockers of the show.
In what year did American Idol begin a contest to decide the winners single?
56d3768e59d6e41400146489
2007
363
False
What is the first song released by Jordin Sparks after winning American Idol?
56d3768e59d6e4140014648a
This Is My Now
262
False
How was "This is My Now" decided as the first single for the American Idol winner in 2007?
56d3768e59d6e4140014648b
public vote
230
False
Which contest started during this season?
56db1e20e7c41114004b4d87
American Idol Songwriter contest
39
False
Fans could vote for what during this contest?
56db1e20e7c41114004b4d88
coronation song
107
False
Of the thousands of songs entered, how many were the public able to vote for?
56db1e20e7c41114004b4d89
20
202
False
What song won the contest?
56db1e20e7c41114004b4d8a
This Is My Now
262
False
When did Sparks release her version of the song?
56db1e20e7c41114004b4d8b
May 24, 2007
355
False
This season also saw the launch of the American Idol Songwriter contest which allows fans to vote for the "coronation song". Thousands of recordings of original songs were submitted by songwriters, and 20 entries selected for the public vote. The winning song, "This Is My Now", was performed by both finalists during the finale and released by Sparks on May 24, 2007.
What year did season seven of American Idol first air?
56d376c859d6e4140014648f
2008
38
False
Which season seven contestant had worked as a stripper before his time on American Idol?
56d376c859d6e41400146491
David Hernandez
328
False
Which contestant was talked about most for having a record deal before being a contestant on American Idol?
56d376c859d6e41400146492
Carly Smithson
270
False
When did season seven premiere?
56db1edbe7c41114004b4d91
January 15, 2008
26
False
Which contestant drew attention because he was a former stripper?
56db1edbe7c41114004b4d93
David Hernandez
328
False
Why did many of the contestants draw the attention of the media?
56db1edbe7c41114004b4d94
professional status
104
False
Which contestant garnered the most attention because of a prior recording contract?
56db1edbe7c41114004b4d95
Carly Smithson
270
False
Season seven premiered on January 15, 2008, for a two-day, four-hour premiere. The media focused on the professional status of the season seven contestants, the so-called 'ringers', many of whom, including Kristy Lee Cook, Brooke White, Michael Johns, and in particular Carly Smithson, had prior recording contracts. Contestant David Hernandez also attracted some attention due to his past employment as a stripper.
What song did David Cook sing on American Idol during the week of the top ten?
56d3772859d6e41400146497
Billie Jean
153
False
Which American Idol contestant was hospitalized after singing during the week of the top nine?
56d3772859d6e41400146498
David Cook
124
False
Who arranged the version of "Billie Jean" that David Cook performed on American Idol?
56d3772859d6e41400146499
Chris Cornell
267
False
On what date did the American Idol finals begin?
56d3772859d6e4140014649a
March 11, 2008
78
False
When did American Idol showcase a new set and stage?
56db1f69e7c41114004b4da3
March 11, 2008
78
False
Which arrangement was used for Cook's version of Billie Jean?
56db1f69e7c41114004b4da5
Chris Cornell
267
False
Who was taken to the hospital after the top nine show?
56db1f69e7c41114004b4da6
David Cook
124
False
For the finals, American Idol debuted a new state-of-the-art set and stage on March 11, 2008, along with a new on-air look. David Cook's performance of "Billie Jean" on top-ten night was lauded by the judges, but provoked controversy when they apparently mistook the Chris Cornell arrangement to be David Cook's own even though the performance was introduced as Cornell's version. Cornell himself said he was 'flattered' and praised David Cook's performance. David Cook was taken to the hospital after the top-nine performance show due to heart palpitations and high blood pressure.
Which contestant sang "Imagine" on season seven of American Idol?
56d3776759d6e4140014649f
David Archuleta
0
False
In which season of American Idol did Jennifer Lopez become a judge?
56d3776759d6e414001464a0
season ten
163
False
What song did Jason Castro receive praise for singing during the semi-finals on American Idol?
56d3776759d6e414001464a1
Hallelujah
279
False
Whose recording of Hallelujah became successful again after being performed on American Idol?
56d3776759d6e414001464a2
Jeff Buckley
346
False
On what digital platform were contestants performances released to after airing on American Idol?
56d3776759d6e414001464a3
iTunes
507
False
Which David Archuletta cover was thought to be the best of the season by many?
56db2011e7c41114004b4dab
John Lennon's "Imagine"
33
False
Who said it Archuletta's rendition is one that she will never forget?
56db2011e7c41114004b4dac
Jennifer Lopez
114
False
Which finalist sang "Hallelujah" during the semi-finals?
56db2011e7c41114004b4dad
Jason Castro
237
False
Castro's performance sent which singer's version to the top of a Billboard chart?
56db2011e7c41114004b4dae
Jeff Buckley
346
False
For the first time, recordings of the contestant's songs could be purchased where?
56db2011e7c41114004b4daf
iTunes
507
False
David Archuleta's performance of John Lennon's "Imagine" was considered by many as one of the best of the season. Jennifer Lopez, who was brought in as a judge in season ten, called it a beautiful song-moment that she will never forget. Jason Castro's semi-final performance of "Hallelujah" also received considerable attention, and it propelled Jeff Buckley's version of the song to the top of the Billboard digital song chart. This was the first season in which contestants' recordings were released onto iTunes after their performances, and although sales information was not released so as not to prejudice the contest, leaked information indicated that contestants' songs frequently reached the top of iTunes sales charts.
Who won season seven of American Idol?
56d3788a59d6e414001464aa
David Cook
39
False
Who was the first Rock and Roll artist to win American Idol?
56d3788a59d6e414001464ad
David Cook
39
False
When was the winner announced?
56db2056e7c41114004b4db6
May 21, 2008
78
False
Who was the winner?
56db2056e7c41114004b4db7
David Cook
39
False
The finalists were Cook and Archuleta. David Cook was announced the winner on May 21, 2008, the first rocker to win the show. Both Cook and Archuleta had some success as recording artists with both selling over a million albums in the U.S.
What was the name of the first song released by David Cook after winning American Idol?
56d378bb59d6e414001464b3
The Time of My Life
256
False
How was the winning single chose on season seven of American Idol?
56d378bb59d6e414001464b4
The American Idol Songwriter contest
0
False
What year did David Cook release the single, "The Time of My Life"?
56d378bb59d6e414001464b5
2008
329
False
What was the coronation song?
56db20bae7c41114004b4dc8
The Time of My Life
256
False
When did Cook release his version of The Time of My Life?
56db20bae7c41114004b4dc9
May 22, 2008
321
False
The American Idol Songwriter contest was also held this season. From ten of the most popular submissions, each of the final two contestants chose a song to perform, although neither of their selections was used as the "coronation song". The winning song, "The Time of My Life", was recorded by David Cook and released on May 22, 2008.
What year did the eighth season of American Idol first air?
56d378f459d6e414001464b9
2009
38
False
Which contestant from season eight suffered the loss of a spouse?
56d378f459d6e414001464ba
Danny Gokey
258
False
What was Mike Darnells position at Fox in 2009?
56d378f459d6e414001464bb
president of alternative programming
62
False
What month did American Idol begin airing its eighth season?
56d378f459d6e414001464bc
January
26
False
When did season eight premiere?
56db2120e7c41114004b4dcd
January 13, 2009
26
False
Who was the president of alternative programming at Fox?
56db2120e7c41114004b4dce
Mike Darnell
44
False
Which contestant received a lot of attention because of his widowhood?
56db2120e7c41114004b4dd0
Danny Gokey
258
False
Season eight premiered on January 13, 2009. Mike Darnell, the president of alternative programming for Fox, stated that the season would focus more on the contestants' personal life. Much early attention on the show was therefore focused on the widowhood of Danny Gokey.[citation needed]
Who was brought in as a new judge during American Idols eighth season?
56d3793a59d6e414001464c1
Kara DioGuardi
64
False
How long did the Hollywood round air for in season eight of American Idol?
56d3793a59d6e414001464c2
two weeks
341
False
What show did Nigel Lythgoe leave American Idol to produce?
56d3793a59d6e414001464c3
So You Think You Can Dance
228
False
What venue hosted the Hollywood round on American Idol for the first time in 2009?
56d3793a59d6e414001464c4
the Kodak Theatre
289
False
Why did American Idol choose not to have its Idol Gives Back special in 2009?
56d3793a59d6e414001464c5
the global recession
404
False
How many judges were on the panel for this season?
56db2190e7c41114004b4dd5
four
50
False
Which judge joined the panel?
56db2190e7c41114004b4dd6
Kara DioGuardi
64
False
Nigel Lythgoe quit the show to focus on what other show?
56db2190e7c41114004b4dd7
So You Think You Can Dance
228
False
Where was the Hollywood round moved to?
56db2190e7c41114004b4dd8
Kodak Theatre
293
False
What was canceled for this year of Idol?
56db2190e7c41114004b4dd9
Idol Gives Back
352
False
In the first major change to the judging panel, a fourth judge, Kara DioGuardi, was introduced. This was also the first season without executive producer Nigel Lythgoe who left to focus on the international versions of his show So You Think You Can Dance. The Hollywood round was moved to the Kodak Theatre for 2009 and was also extended to two weeks. Idol Gives Back was canceled for this season due to the global recession at the time.
How many finalists were there on season eight of American Idol?
56d37a4159d6e414001464cb
13
11
False
Who was the first contestant to benefit from the Judges Save?
56d37a4159d6e414001464cc
Matt Giraud
154
False
How many contestants were eliminated during the first week after the judges save?
56d37a4159d6e414001464cd
two
41
False
How many contestants were sent home during the first week of finals?
56d37a4159d6e414001464ce
two
41
False
Who was sent home the week after the judges saved Matt Giraud?
56d37a4159d6e414001464cf
Lil Rounds and Anoop Desai
274
False
How many finalists were on this season?
56db221be7c41114004b4ddf
13
11
False
How many finalists were eliminated during the first results show?
56db221be7c41114004b4de0
two
41
False
Which contestant was saved with the first Judges' Save?
56db221be7c41114004b4de1
Matt Giraud
154
False
There were 13 finalists this season, but two were eliminated in the first result show of the finals. A new feature introduced was the "Judges' Save", and Matt Giraud was saved from elimination at the top seven by the judges when he received the fewest votes. The next week, Lil Rounds and Anoop Desai were eliminated.
Who were the final two contestants on season eight of American Idol?
56d37ac659d6e414001464d5
Kris Allen and Adam Lambert
23
False
Who won season eight of American Idol?
56d37ac659d6e414001464d6
Kris Allen
23
False
What state is American Idol winner Kris Allen from?
56d37ac659d6e414001464d7
Arkansas
328
False
How many votes were cast in the American Idol finale in season eight?
56d37ac659d6e414001464d9
100 million
260
False
Who won the season?
56db229de7c41114004b4dea
Kris Allen
23
False
The only prior season to have matching controversy over the winner was?
56db229de7c41114004b4deb
season two
192
False
How many votes were cast for the final two?
56db229de7c41114004b4dec
100 million
260
False
Who was accused of teaching the public how to power text for the winner?
56db229de7c41114004b4ded
AT&T employees
353
False
The two finalists were Kris Allen and Adam Lambert, both of whom had previously landed in the bottom three at the top five. Allen won the contest in the most controversial voting result since season two. It was claimed, later retracted, that 38 million of the 100 million votes cast on the night came from Allen's home state of Arkansas alone, and that AT&T employees unfairly influenced the votes by giving lessons on power-texting at viewing parties in Arkansas.
What was the name of the song that Kris Allen and Adam Lamber released after American Idol?
56d37afb59d6e414001464df
No Boundaries
54
False
Who helped write the song "No Boundaries"?
56d37afb59d6e414001464e1
DioGuardi
93
False
What was the coronation song for this season?
56db2305e7c41114004b4df3
No Boundaries
54
False
Who co-wrote the coronation song?
56db2305e7c41114004b4df4
DioGuardi
93
False
Unlike every previous winner, the winner of this season failed to achieve what status?
56db2305e7c41114004b4df5
gold album status
167
False
How many contestants from this season reached platinum album status?
56db2305e7c41114004b4df6
none
190
False
Both Allen and Lambert released the coronation song, "No Boundaries" which was co-written by DioGuardi. This is the first season in which the winner failed to achieve gold album status, and none from that season achieved platinum album status in the U.S.[citation needed]
What year did season nine of American Idol first air?
56d37b7659d6e414001464e5
2010
37
False
Who filled the judges spot vacated by Paula Abdul on season nine of American Idol?
56d37b7659d6e414001464e6
Ellen DeGeneres
88
False
At what point during season 9 of American Idol did Ellen Degeneres become a judge?
56d37b7659d6e414001464e7
Hollywood Week
161
False
When did season nine premiere?
56db25f5e7c41114004b4e0f
January 12, 2010
25
False
Which original judge left prior to the start of the season?
56db25f5e7c41114004b4e10
Paula Abdul
133
False
Who replaced Abdul?
56db25f5e7c41114004b4e11
Ellen DeGeneres
88
False
When did Ellen join the judges' panel?
56db25f5e7c41114004b4e12
Hollywood Week
161
False
Season nine premiered on January 12, 2010. The upheaval at the judging panel continued. Ellen DeGeneres joined as a judge to replace Paula Abdul at the start of Hollywood Week.
Which contestant had to go to the hospital during the week of the top 20?
56d37bac59d6e414001464eb
Crystal Bowersox
0
False
What producer wanted to remove Crystal Bowersox from the competition?
56d37bac59d6e414001464ec
Ken Warwick
300
False
Why was Crystal Bowersox in the hospital during the week of the top 20 on American Idol?
56d37bac59d6e414001464ee
diabetic ketoacidosis
59
False
Which contestant had Type-I diabetes?
56db2664e7c41114004b4e17
Crystal Bowersox
0
False
When was Crystal hospitalized?
56db2664e7c41114004b4e18
top 20 week
135
False
What was changed so she could still qualify?
56db2664e7c41114004b4e19
The schedule
169
False
Who did Bowersox later reveal wanted her to be disqualified?
56db2664e7c41114004b4e1a
Ken Warwick
300
False
What role does Warwick have on the show?
56db2664e7c41114004b4e1b
producer
322
False
Crystal Bowersox, who has Type-I diabetes, fell ill due to diabetic ketoacidosis on the morning of the girls performance night for the top 20 week and was hospitalized. The schedule was rearranged so the boys performed first and she could perform the following night instead; she later revealed that Ken Warwick, the show producer, wanted to disqualify her but she begged to be allowed to stay on the show.
Which contestant was saved by the judges in season nine of American Idol?
56d37bf859d6e414001464f3
Michael Lynche
0
False
At what point did the judges use their save on American Idols ninth season?
56d37bf859d6e414001464f4
top nine
45
False
Who was the first American Idol contestant to return to the show as a mentor?
56d37bf859d6e414001464f5
Adam Lambert
160
False
How much money was brought in by the Idol Gives Back special on season nine of American Idol?
56d37bf859d6e414001464f6
$45 million
303
False
Who was saved with the Judges' Save?
56db26c6e7c41114004b4e22
Michael Lynche
0
False
Which former contestant was a mentor this season?
56db26c6e7c41114004b4e24
Adam Lambert
160
False
Michael Lynche was the lowest vote getter at top nine and was given the Judges' Save. The next week Katie Stevens and Andrew Garcia were eliminated. That week, Adam Lambert was invited back to be a mentor, the first Idol alum to do so. Idol Gives Back returned this season on April 21, 2010, and raised $45 million.
Who had their final season in the show in season nine?
56d37c1b59d6e414001464fd
Simon Cowell
21
False
Why did Paula Abdul appear on the season nine finale of American Idol?
56d37c1b59d6e414001464fe
tribute to Simon Cowell
10
False
Who had a special tribute at the finale?
56db2703e7c41114004b4e2b
Simon Cowell
21
False
Which former Idol star made an appearance for Cowell's tribute?
56db2703e7c41114004b4e2d
Paula Abdul
143
False
A special tribute to Simon Cowell was presented in the finale for his final season with the show. Many figures from the show's past, including Paula Abdul, made an appearance.
Who was the winner of American Idols ninth season?
56d37c5a59d6e41400146502
Lee DeWyze
31
False
What U2 song was released by Lee DeWyze after winning American Idol?
56d37c5a59d6e41400146504
Beautiful Day
239
False
When was the finale held?
56db275ae7c41114004b4e3c
May 26
98
False
What song did DeWyze cover for his first release?
56db275ae7c41114004b4e3e
Beautiful Day
239
False
Which song did Bowersox cover for her first release?
56db275ae7c41114004b4e3f
Up to the Mountain
291
False
The final two contestants were Lee DeWyze and Bowersox. DeWyze was declared the winner during the May 26 finale. No new song was used as coronation song this year; instead, the two finalists each released a cover song – DeWyze chose U2's "Beautiful Day", and Bowersox chose Patty Griffin's "Up to the Mountain". This is the first season where neither finalist achieved significant album sales.
What year did season ten of American Idol first air?
56d37ccd59d6e41400146509
2011
50
False
In which season of American Idol did Steven Tyler and Jennifer Lopez become judges?
56d37ccd59d6e4140014650a
ten
7
False
Who replace weekly mentors as a more permanent mentor on American Idols tenth season?
56d37ccd59d6e4140014650b
Jimmy Iovine
424
False
What show did Simon Cowell join after leaving American Idol?
56d37ccd59d6e4140014650c
The X Factor
288
False
Who was the executive producer of American Idols tenth season?
56d37ccd59d6e4140014650d
Nigel Lythgoe
378
False
When did season ten premiere?
56db27dfe7c41114004b4e45
January 19, 2011
38
False
Who returned as executive producer this season?
56db27dfe7c41114004b4e46
Nigel Lythgoe
378
False
Which two new judges joined Randy Jackson on the judges' panel?
56db27dfe7c41114004b4e48
Jennifer Lopez and Steven Tyler
144
False
Who was the in-house mentor this season?
56db27dfe7c41114004b4e49
Jimmy Iovine
424
False
Season ten of the series premiered on January 19, 2011. Many changes were introduced this season, from the format to the personnel of the show. Jennifer Lopez and Steven Tyler joined Randy Jackson as judges following the departures of Simon Cowell (who left to launch the U.S. version of The X Factor), Kara DioGuardi (whose contract was not renewed) and Ellen DeGeneres, while Nigel Lythgoe returned as executive producer. Jimmy Iovine, chairman of the Interscope Geffen A&M label group, the new partner of American Idol, acted as the in-house mentor in place of weekly guest mentors, although in later episodes special guest mentors such as Beyoncé, will.i.am and Lady Gaga were brought in.
What was the first season of American Idol to feature online auditions?
56d37d0c59d6e41400146513
Season ten
0
False
What website hosted auditions for American Idols tenth season?
56d37d0c59d6e41400146514
Myspace
114
False
How did Karen Rodriguez audition for American Idol season ten?
56d37d0c59d6e41400146515
Myspace
114
False
This is the first season to have what kind of auditions?
56db2880e7c41114004b4e59
online
35
False
Where could contestants submit a video audition?
56db2880e7c41114004b4e5a
Myspace
114
False
Season ten is the first to include online auditions where contestants could submit a 40-second video audition via Myspace. Karen Rodriguez was one such auditioner and reached the final rounds.
Which contestant had a fiancé that had suffered brain damage?
56d37d7f59d6e41400146519
Chris Medina
52
False
In which round was Chris Medina eliminated n season ten of American Idol?
56d37d7f59d6e4140014651a
Top 40
170
False
Which season ten contestant was in the hospital instead of at the Top 13 results show?
56d37d7f59d6e4140014651b
Casey Abrams
184
False
Which contestants did the judges save on season ten of American Idol?
56d37d7f59d6e4140014651d
Casey Abrams
184
False
Which contestant cared for his brain-damaged fiancee?
56db290be7c41114004b4e61
Chris Medina
52
False
When was Medina eliminated from the competition?
56db290be7c41114004b4e62
Top 40 round
170
False
Which contestant suffered from ulcerative colitis?
56db290be7c41114004b4e63
Casey Abrams
184
False
Which show did Abrams miss because he was in the hospital?
56db290be7c41114004b4e64
Top 13 result show
273
False
One of the more prominent contestants this year was Chris Medina, whose story of caring for his brain-damaged fiancée received widespread coverage. Medina was cut in the Top 40 round. Casey Abrams, who suffers from ulcerative colitis, was hospitalized twice and missed the Top 13 result show. The judges used their one save on Abrams on the Top 11, and as a result this was the first season that 11 finalists went on tour instead of 10. In the following week, Naima Adedapo and Thia Megia were both eliminated the following week.
What contestant came in ninth on season ten of American Idol?
56d37db259d6e41400146523
Pia Toscano
0
False
What actor was upset when Pia Toscano was eliminated on American Idol?
56d37db259d6e41400146524
Tom Hanks
229
False
Which fan favorite was unexpectedly eliminated earlier than expected?
56db295ae7c41114004b4e75
Pia Toscano
0
False
Which actor criticized Toscano's elimination?
56db295ae7c41114004b4e77
Tom Hanks
229
False
Pia Toscano, one of the presumed favorites to advance far in the season, was unexpectedly eliminated on April 7, 2011, finishing in ninth place. Her elimination drew criticisms from some former Idol contestants, as well as actor Tom Hanks.
What genre of music did season ten American Idol contestant Lauren Alaina sing?
56d37de759d6e41400146527
country
79
False
Who was the winner of American Idols tenth season?
56d37de759d6e41400146528
Scotty McCreery
49
False
What song did Scotty McCreery first release after winning American Idol?
56d37de759d6e41400146529
I Love You This Big
255
False
What song did Lauren Alaina release after coming in second on American Idol?
56d37de759d6e4140014652a
Like My Mother Does
322
False
What is the name of the successful album that Ruben Studdard released in 2003?
56d37de759d6e4140014652b
Soulful
491
False
When was the season finale of Idol?
56db29dae7c41114004b4e7d
May 25
128
False
Scotty's first album reached the top Billboard spot, the first time for an Idol winner since when?
56db29dae7c41114004b4e7f
Ruben Studdard
474
False
The two finalists in 2011 were Lauren Alaina and Scotty McCreery, both teenage country singers. McCreery won the competition on May 25, being the youngest male winner and the fourth male in a row to win American Idol. McCreery released his first single, "I Love You This Big", as his coronation song, and Alaina released "Like My Mother Does". McCreery's debut album, Clear as Day, became the first debut album by an Idol winner to reach No. 1 on the US Billboard 200 since Ruben Studdard's Soulful in 2003, and he became the youngest male artist to reach No. 1 on the Billboard 200.
In what year did American Idol first air its eleventh season?
56d37e1f59d6e41400146531
2012
35
False
How many contestants made it to the finals on season 11 of American Idol?
56d37e1f59d6e41400146532
25
137
False
What contestant was removed from the competition for concealing legal troubles?
56d37e1f59d6e41400146533
Jermaine Jones
154
False
When did season 11 premiere?
56db2a39e7c41114004b4e85
January 18, 2012
23
False
Who joined the finalists, making it a Top 25?
56db2a39e7c41114004b4e86
Jermaine Jones
154
False
When was Jones removed from the show?
56db2a39e7c41114004b4e87
March 14
182
False
Why was Jones disqualified?
56db2a39e7c41114004b4e88
concealing arrests and outstanding warrants
233
False
Season 11 premiered on January 18, 2012. On February 23, it was announced that one more finalist would join the Top 24 making it the Top 25, and that was Jermaine Jones. However, on March 14, Jones was disqualified in 12th place for concealing arrests and outstanding warrants. Jones denied the accusation that he concealed his arrests.
Which season 11 contestant had to go to the hospital before the Top 13 Results?
56d37e5059d6e41400146539
Phillip Phillips
9
False
Why was Phillip Phillips hospitalized during his time on American Idol?
56d37e5059d6e4140014653a
kidney stones
185
False
How many times did Phillip Phillips have surgery when he was on American Idol?
56d37e5059d6e4140014653b
eight
224
False
Which contestant thought about leaving the contest because of pain in his kidney?
56d37e5059d6e4140014653c
Phillip Phillips
9
False
Which contestant had eight surgeries during his Idol run?
56db2be3e7c41114004b4e97
Phillip Phillips
9
False
What kind of pain did Phillips endure?
56db2be3e7c41114004b4e98
kidney pain
40
False
Finalist Phillip Phillips suffered from kidney pain and was taken to the hospital before the Top 13 results show, and later received medical procedure to alleviate a blockage caused by kidney stones. He was reported to have eight surgeries during his Idol run, and had considered quitting the show due to the pain. He underwent surgery to remove the stones and reconstruct his kidney soon after the season had finished.
Which contestant was saved by the judges on season 11 of American Idol?
56d37eb059d6e41400146541
Jessica Sanchez
0
False
Who was the first female to be saved by the judges on American Idol?
56d37eb059d6e41400146542
Jessica Sanchez
0
False
Who was eliminated the week after judges saved Jessica Sanchez on American Idol?
56d37eb059d6e41400146543
Colton Dixon
229
False
How far did Jessica Sanchez make it on American Idol?
56d37eb059d6e41400146544
final two
300
False
When did the judges use their save this season?
56db2c52e7c41114004b4e9d
Top 7
63
False
Who was the recipient of the Judges' Save?
56db2c52e7c41114004b4e9e
Jessica Sanchez
0
False
Which contestant was sent home the following week?
56db2c52e7c41114004b4ea0
Colton Dixon
229
False
Jessica Sanchez received the fewest number of votes during the Top 7 week, and the judges decided to use their "save" option on her, making her the first female recipient of the save. The following week, unlike previous seasons, Colton Dixon was the only contestant sent home. Sanchez later made the final two, the first season where a recipient of the save reached the finale.
What former contestant did Ace Young ask to marry him?
56d37eef59d6e4140014654b
Diana DeGarmo
161
False
In what season was Ace Young a finalist on American Idol?
56d37eef59d6e4140014654c
five
93
False
In What season did Diana DeGarmo come in second on American Idol?
56d37eef59d6e4140014654d
three
145
False
Which season was Ace Young on?
56db2c98e7c41114004b4eb3
season five
86
False
Which season was Diana DeGarmo on?
56db2c98e7c41114004b4eb4
season three
138
False
Phillips became the winner, beating Sanchez. Prior to the announcement of the winner, season five finalist Ace Young proposed marriage to season three runner-up Diana DeGarmo on stage – which she accepted.
What is the first song that Phillip Phliips released after winning American Idol?
56d37f1a59d6e41400146553
Home
19
False
What is the name of the song that Jessica Sanchez released first after American Idol?
56d37f1a59d6e41400146554
Change Nothing
73
False
What was Phillip's coronation song?
56db2cc2e7c41114004b4eb9
Home
19
False
What song did Sanchez release?
56db2cc2e7c41114004b4eba
Change Nothing
73
False
Which song is the best selling coronation song of all Idol seasons?
56db2cc2e7c41114004b4ebb
Home
19
False
Phillips released "Home" as his coronation song, while Sanchez released "Change Nothing". Phillips' "Home" has since become the best selling of all coronation songs.
What year did season 12 of American Idol first air?
56d37f7059d6e41400146559
2013
35
False
What was Mariah Careys position on season 12 of American Idol?
56d37f7059d6e4140014655b
Judges
41
False
What website showed video of an altercation between Mariah Carey and Nicki Minaj?
56d37f7059d6e4140014655c
TMZ
463
False
When did season 12 premiere?
56db2d28e7c41114004b4ec7
January 16, 2013
23
False
How many judges did this season have?
56db2d28e7c41114004b4ec9
four
275
False
Season 12 premiered on January 16, 2013. Judges Jennifer Lopez and Steven Tyler left the show after two seasons. This season's judging panel consisted of Randy Jackson, along with Mariah Carey, Keith Urban and Nicki Minaj. This was the first season since season nine to have four judges on the panel. The pre-season buzz and the early episodes of the show were dominated by the feud between the judges Minaj and Carey after a video of their dispute was leaked to TMZ.
How many girls were in the top 10 on season 12 of American Idol?
56d37fda59d6e41400146563
five
36
False
Who was the last guy to be sent home on season 12 of American Idol?
56d37fda59d6e41400146564
Lazaro Arbos
144
False
How many contestants did this season have?
56db2da5e7c41114004b4ed1
10
8
False
How many weeks in a row were male contestants eliminated?
56db2da5e7c41114004b4ed2
five
36
False
Who as the last man to be eliminated?
56db2da5e7c41114004b4ed3
Lazaro Arbos
144
False
How many contestants were able to perform for two weeks without any eliminations?
56db2da5e7c41114004b4ed5
four
343
False
The top 10 contestants started with five males and five females, however, the males were eliminated consecutively in the first five weeks, with Lazaro Arbos the last male to be eliminated. For the first time in the show's history, the top 5 contestants were all female. It was also the first time that the judges' "save" was not used, the top four contestants were therefore given an extra week to perform again with their votes carried over with no elimination in the first week.
Who was the winner of American Idols twelfth season?
56d3802e59d6e41400146577
Candice Glover
12
False
Which contestant came in second on season 12 of American Idol?
56d3802e59d6e41400146578
Kree Harrison
47
False
What was the first song released by Candice Glover after winning American Idol?
56d3802e59d6e41400146579
I Am Beautiful
174
False
What song did Kree Harrison first release after being on American Idol?
56d3802e59d6e4140014657b
All Cried Out
227
False
Who was the runner up?
56db2df9e7c41114004b4edc
Kree Harrison
47
False
What was Glover's first single?
56db2df9e7c41114004b4edd
I Am Beautiful
174
False
What was Harrison's first single?
56db2df9e7c41114004b4ede
All Cried Out
227
False
This is the first season when what did not happen to the first runner up?
56db2df9e7c41114004b4edf
not signed by a music label
368
False
23-year-old Candice Glover won the season with Kree Harrison taking the runner-up spot. Glover is the first female to win American Idol since Jordin Sparks. Glover released "I Am Beautiful" as a single while Harrison released "All Cried Out" immediately after the show. Glover sold poorly with her debut album, and this is also the first season that the runner-up was not signed by a music label.
Which long time judge decided to leave his position at the end of the season?
56d3805859d6e41400146581
Randy Jackson
31
False
How many seasons was Mariah Carey a judge on American Idol?
56d3805859d6e41400146582
one
244
False
Who announced this would be his final year as a judge?
56db2e2de7c41114004b4eeb
Randy Jackson
31
False
Who were the other judges to leave after this season?
56db2e2de7c41114004b4eec
Mariah Carey and Nicki Minaj
187
False
Towards the end of the season, Randy Jackson, the last remaining of the original judges, announced that he would no longer serve as a judge to pursue other business ventures. Both judges Mariah Carey and Nicki Minaj also decided to leave after one season to focus on their music careers.
What year did season 13 of American Idol first air?
56d380a459d6e41400146587
2014
47
False
Who was the host of American idol in its thirteenth season?
56d380a459d6e41400146588
Ryan Seacrest
58
False
What new role did Randy Jackson assume during American Idols thirteenth season?
56d380a459d6e41400146589
in-mentor
190
False
Who directed the thirteenth season of American Idol?
56d380a459d6e4140014658b
Gregg Gelfand
582
False
When did season 13 premiere?
56db2eaae7c41114004b4eef
January 15, 2014
35
False
Who was the mentor this season?
56db2eaae7c41114004b4ef0
Randy Jackson
91
False
Which former judge came back to the judges' panel this season?
56db2eaae7c41114004b4ef1
Jennifer Lopez
276
False
Which former mentor joined the judges' panel this season?
56db2eaae7c41114004b4ef2
Harry Connick, Jr.
309
False
Per Blankens, Jesse Ignjatovic, and Evan Pragger replaced which two executives?
56db2eaae7c41114004b4ef3
Nigel Lythgoe and Ken Warwick
361
False
The thirteenth season premiered on January 15, 2014, with Ryan Seacrest returning as host. Randy Jackson and Keith Urban returned, though Jackson moved from the judging panel to the role of in-mentor. Mariah Carey and Nicki Minaj left the panel after one season. Former judge Jennifer Lopez and former mentor Harry Connick, Jr. joined Urban on the panel. Also, Nigel Lythgoe and Ken Warwick were replaced as executive producers by Per Blankens, Jesse Ignjatovic and Evan Pragger. Bill DeRonde replaced Warwick as a director of the audition episodes, while Louis J. Horvitz replaced Gregg Gelfand as a director of the show.
Which contestant was saved by the judges after getting the least votes on season 13 of American Idol?
56d381bd59d6e4140014659d
Sam Woolf
137
False
At what point in season 13 did American Idol air its 500th show?
56d381bd59d6e4140014659e
Top 3 performance night
263
False
Contestants could perform what in the final rounds for the first time ever?
56db30ede7c41114004b4f0b
songs they wrote themselves
94
False
Who received the Judges' Save this season?
56db30ede7c41114004b4f0c
Sam Woolf
137
False
When did the judges use their save on Woolf?
56db30ede7c41114004b4f0d
Top 8
130
False
What episode was the 500th of the entire series?
56db30ede7c41114004b4f0e
Top 3 performance night
263
False
This was the first season where the contestants were permitted to perform in the final rounds songs they wrote themselves. In the Top 8, Sam Woolf received the fewest votes, but he was saved from elimination by the judges. The 500th episode of the series was the Top 3 performance night.
Who won season 13 of American Idol?
56d3823359d6e414001465ad
Caleb Johnson
0
False
Who came in second on season 13 of American Idol?
56d3823359d6e414001465ae
Jena Irene
55
False
What song did Caleb Johnson first release after winning American Idol?
56d3823359d6e414001465af
As Long as You Love Me
102
False
What song did Jena Irene release after coming in second on American Idol?
56d3823359d6e414001465b0
We Are One
173
False
Who was the runner up this season?
56db3123e7c41114004b4f14
Jena Irene
55
False
What was Johnson's coronation song?
56db3123e7c41114004b4f15
As Long as You Love Me
102
False
What was Irene's coronation song?
56db3123e7c41114004b4f16
We Are One
173
False
Caleb Johnson was named the winner of the season, with Jena Irene as the runner-up. Johnson released "As Long as You Love Me" as his coronation single while Irene released "We Are One".
What year did American Idol first air its fourteenth season?
56d3827a59d6e414001465bf
2015
46
False
Who was the host of American Idol in its fourteenth season?
56d3827a59d6e414001465c0
Ryan Seacrest
52
False
Which former contestant replaced Keith Urban for auditions in New York City?
56d3827a59d6e414001465c1
Adam Lambert
239
False
What was Keith Urbans position on American Idol in its fourteenth season?
56d3827a59d6e414001465c2
judges
207
False
Who did not come back as a mentor in season 14?
56d3827a59d6e414001465c3
Randy Jackson
308
False
When did season 14 premiere?
56db3174e7c41114004b4f1b
January 7, 2015
35
False
Who took Urban's spot at the New York auditions?
56db3174e7c41114004b4f1c
Adam Lambert
239
False
The fourteenth season premiered on January 7, 2015. Ryan Seacrest returned to host, while Jennifer Lopez, Keith Urban and Harry Connick, Jr. returned for their respective fourth, third and second seasons as judges. Eighth season runner-up Adam Lambert filled in for Urban during the New York City auditions. Randy Jackson did not return as the in-house mentor for this season.
How many episodes did American Idol have each week of the top ten?
56d382b159d6e414001465c9
one
40
False
What drink company ended their relationship with American Idol in season 14?
56d382b159d6e414001465ca
Coca Cola
81
False
What car company had a relationship with American Idol in season 14?
56d382b159d6e414001465cb
Ford Motor Company
140
False
What record label had a contract with the winner of American Idols fourteenth season?
56d382b159d6e414001465cc
Big Machine Records
251
False
Starting this season, how many episodes of Idol aired every week?
56db31c5e7c41114004b4f1f
one
40
False
Who ended their sponsorship this season?
56db31c5e7c41114004b4f20
Coca Cola
81
False
What other company reduced their sponsorship this season?
56db31c5e7c41114004b4f21
Ford Motor Company
140
False
This season, the winner won a recording contract with what company?
56db31c5e7c41114004b4f22
Big Machine Records
251
False
Changes this season include only airing one episode a week during the final ten. Coca Cola ended their longtime sponsorship of the show and Ford Motor Company maintained a reduced role. The winner of the season also received a recording contract with Big Machine Records.
Who won American Idols fourteenth season?
56d3831159d6e414001465d1
Nick Fradiani
0
False
Who came in second on American Idol in season 14?
56d3831159d6e414001465d2
Clark Beckham
40
False
Who came in third on American Idol in season 14?
56d3831159d6e414001465d3
Jax
222
False
What was the name of Nick Fradianis victory song?
56d3831159d6e414001465d4
Beautiful Life
146
False
What song did Jax release after coming in third on American Idol?
56d3831159d6e414001465d5
Forcefield
284
False
Who won this season of Idol?
56db3c93e7c41114004b4f77
Nick Fradiani
0
False
Who was the runner up of Idol?
56db3c93e7c41114004b4f78
Clark Beckham
40
False
What was Nick's coronation song?
56db3c93e7c41114004b4f79
Beautiful Life
146
False
What was Beckham's first release?
56db3c93e7c41114004b4f7a
Champion
211
False
Which contestant came in third place?
56db3c93e7c41114004b4f7b
Jax
222
False
Nick Fradiani won the season, defeating Clark Beckham. By winning, Fradiani became the first winner from the Northeast region. Fradiani released "Beautiful Life" as his coronation single while Beckham released "Champion". Jax, the third place finalist, also released a single called "Forcefield".
What year did Fox announce the cancellation of American Idol?
56d383b159d6e414001465e5
2015
25
False
How many seasons of American Idol have there been?
56d383b159d6e414001465e6
15
27
False
How many seasons was Jennifer Lopez a judge on American Idol?
56d383b159d6e414001465e7
5
28
False
What was Keith Urbans role on American Idols fifteenth season?
56d383b159d6e414001465e8
judges
343
False
Who hosted American Idol in its last season?
56d383b159d6e414001465e9
Ryan Seacrest
185
False
When did Fox announce that Season 15 would be the final season?
56db3d0ce7c41114004b4f82
May 11, 2015
17
False
Who is returning as host?
56db3d0ce7c41114004b4f83
Ryan Seacrest
185
False
Fox announced on May 11, 2015 that the fifteenth season would be the final season of American Idol; as such, the season is expected to have an additional focus on the program's alumni. Ryan Seacrest returns as host, with Harry Connick Jr., Keith Urban, and Jennifer Lopez all returning for their respective third, fourth, and fifth seasons as judges.
As of 2012, how many finalists did American Idol have?
56d3841059d6e414001465ef
131
365
False
When did American Idol begin?
56d3841059d6e414001465f0
2002
30
False
What region of the United States were American Idols first five winners from?
56d3841059d6e414001465f1
Southern
115
False
What state is American Idol contestant Clay Aiken from?
56d3841059d6e414001465f2
North Carolina
321
False
What state is American Idol contestant Chris Daughtry from?
56d3841059d6e414001465f3
North Carolina
321
False
How many Idol winners have come from the southern part of America?
56db3d7fe7c41114004b4f89
ten
36
False
In addition to Clay Aiken and Kellie Pickler, which other Idol is from North Carolina?
56db3d7fe7c41114004b4f8a
Chris Daughtry
288
False
Since the show's inception in 2002, ten of the fourteen Idol winners, including its first five, have come from the Southern United States. A large number of other notable finalists during the series' run have also hailed from the American South, including Clay Aiken, Kellie Pickler, and Chris Daughtry, who are all from North Carolina. In 2012, an analysis of the 131 contestants who have appeared in the finals of all seasons of the show up to that point found that 48% have some connection to the Southern United States.
How many CDs from American Idol contestants had been sold at the beginning of 2010?
56d3844659d6e414001465f9
47 million
370
False
In the same study, how much more likely was someone from Kentucky to tune into the show?
56db3e49e7c41114004b4f90
16 percent
242
False
How many CDS were sold by Idol contestants up to 2010?
56db3e49e7c41114004b4f91
47 million
370
False
Of the CDs sold, how many were by the contestants with southern ties?
56db3e49e7c41114004b4f92
85 percent
432
False
The show itself is popular in the Southern United States, with households in the Southeastern United States 10% more likely to watch American Idol during the eighth season in 2009, and those in the East Central region, such as Kentucky, were 16 percent more likely to tune into the series. Data from Nielsen SoundScan, a music-sales tracking service, showed that of the 47 million CDs sold by Idol contestants through January 2010, 85 percent were by contestants with ties to the American South.
Who won season five of American Idol?
56d3847159d6e414001465fd
Taylor Hicks
626
False
What state is Taylor Hicks from?
56d3847159d6e414001465fe
Alabama
665
False
Where do people in the Southern United States often begin singing?
56d3847159d6e414001465ff
church
421
False
Where do a lot of people get their start in singing in the south?
56db3ebee7c41114004b4f97
church
421
False
Where is Taylor Hicks from?
56db3ebee7c41114004b4f99
Alabama
665
False
Theories given for the success of Southerners on Idol have been: more versatility with musical genres, as the Southern U.S. is home to several music genre scenes; not having as many opportunities to break into the pop music business; text-voting due to the South having the highest percentage of cell-phone only households; and the strong heritage of music and singing, which is notable in the Bible Belt, where it is in church that many people get their start in public singing. Others also suggest that the Southern character of these contestants appeal to the South, as well as local pride. According to season five winner Taylor Hicks, who is from the state of Alabama, "People in the South have a lot of pride ... So, they're adamant about supporting the contestants who do well from their state or region."
What does the acronym WGWG stand for?
56d384b059d6e41400146603
White guy with guitar
151
False
Who won season eleven of American Idol?
56d384b059d6e41400146604
Phillip Phillips
242
False
What is the name of the book written by Richard Rushfield about American Idol?
56d384b059d6e41400146605
American Idol: The Untold Story
319
False
How many seasons in a row were won by caucasian guitar playing males?
56d384b059d6e41400146606
five
4
False
What instrument did the winners for five seasons in a row play?
56db3f2ce7c41114004b4f9d
guitar
106
False
What is the WGWG factor?
56db3f2ce7c41114004b4f9e
White guy with guitar
151
False
Who wrote American Idol: The Untold Story?
56db3f2ce7c41114004b4f9f
Richard Rushfield
281
False
Who was named the winner of Season 11?
56db3f2ce7c41114004b4fa0
Phillip Phillips
242
False
For five consecutive seasons, starting in season seven, the title was given to a white male who plays the guitar – a trend that Idol pundits call the "White guy with guitar" or "WGWG" factor. Just hours before the season eleven finale, where Phillip Phillips was named the winner, Richard Rushfield, author of the book American Idol: The Untold Story, said, "You have this alliance between young girls and grandmas and they see it, not necessarily as a contest to create a pop star competing on the contemporary radio, but as .... who's the nicest guy in a popularity contest," he says, "And that has led to this dynasty of four, and possibly now five, consecutive, affable, very nice, good-looking white boys."
What company are contestants required to sign a contract with on American Idol?
56d384e559d6e4140014660b
19 Entertainment
129
False
The show had been criticized in earlier seasons over the onerous contract contestants had to sign that gave excessive control to 19 Entertainment over their future career, and handed a large part of their future earnings to the management.
Who won season two of American Idol?
56d3852a59d6e41400146619
Ruben Studdard
159
False
Who came in second on season two of American Idol?
56d3852a59d6e4140014661a
Clay Aiken
179
False
What year did Vote for the Worst cease operations?
56d3852a59d6e4140014661b
2013
552
False
How many more text votes were there in season eight of American Idol over season seven?
56d3852a59d6e4140014661c
100 million
269
False
Which season had the biggest voting controversy?
56db401ae7c41114004b4fab
season two
143
False
Which season had a voting controversy because of a huge increase in text votes?
56db401ae7c41114004b4fac
season eight
214
False
Which voting concern has been present since the first season?
56db401ae7c41114004b4fad
power voting
359
False
When did Vote for the Girls start?
56db401ae7c41114004b4fae
2010
591
False
When did Vote for the Worst close?
56db401ae7c41114004b4faf
2013
552
False
Voting results have been a consistent source of controversy. The mechanism of voting had also aroused considerable criticisms, most notably in season two when Ruben Studdard beat Clay Aiken in a close vote, and in season eight, when the massive increase in text votes (100 million more text votes than season 7) fueled the texting controversy. Concerns about power voting have been expressed from the very first season. Since 2004, votes also have been affected to a limited degree by online communities such as DialIdol, Vote for the Worst (closed in 2013), and Vote for the Girls (started 2010).
What is the name of the special that raises money for charities on American Idol?
56d3856959d6e41400146621
Idol Gives Back
0
False
How much money has American Idol raised for charity with its Idol Gives Back specials?
56d3856959d6e41400146623
$185 million
214
False
What is the name of the charity that Idol has?
56db407de7c41114004b4fb5
Idol Gives Back
0
False
When was the first Idol Gives Back?
56db407de7c41114004b4fb7
season six
54
False
Idol Gives Back is a special charity event started in season six featuring performances by celebrities and various fund-raising initiatives. This event was also held in seasons seven and nine and has raised nearly $185 million in total.
What year did American Idol being to air on television?
56d385c459d6e41400146629
2002
32
False
How many people watched the first episode of American Idol?
56d385c459d6e4140014662a
9.9 million
106
False
How many people on average watched the American Idol finale in its first season?
56d385c459d6e4140014662b
23 million
274
False
What season of the year did American Idol first air on television?
56d385c459d6e4140014662d
summer
61
False
When did American Idol premiere?
56db410fe7c41114004b4fc5
June 2002
27
False
How many people watched the first episode of American Idol?
56db410fe7c41114004b4fc6
9.9 million
106
False
What was the average for viewership by finale night?
56db410fe7c41114004b4fc7
23 million
274
False
American Idol premiered in June 2002 and became the surprise summer hit show of 2002. The first show drew 9.9 million viewers, giving Fox the best viewing figure for the 8.30 pm spot in over a year. The audience steadily grew, and by finale night, the audience had averaged 23 million, with more than 40 million watching some part of that show. That episode was placed third amongst all age groups, but more importantly it led in the 18–49 demographic, the age group most valued by advertisers.
How many people watched the first episode of American Idols second season?
56d3863559d6e41400146633
26.5 million
78
False
How many people on average tuned in to watch American Idol in its second season?
56d3863559d6e41400146634
21.7 million
127
False
What contestant won the second season of American Idol?
56d3863559d6e41400146635
Ruben Studdard
230
False
During what season did American Idol become the highest rated show across all demographics?
56d3863559d6e41400146636
season four
588
False
Which season of American Idol was watched by the most people?
56d3863559d6e41400146637
season five
778
False
How many people watched the second season premiere of American Idol?
56db419ee7c41114004b4fcb
26.5 million
78
False
How many people watched on average for season two?
56db419ee7c41114004b4fcc
21.7 million
127
False
By what season was American Idol the most watched show on TV?
56db419ee7c41114004b4fcf
four
595
False
The growth continued into the next season, starting with a season premiere of 26.5 million. The season attracted an average of 21.7 million viewers, and was placed second overall amongst the 18–49 age group. The finale night when Ruben Studdard won over Clay Aiken was also the highest-rated ever American Idol episode at 38.1 million for the final hour. By season three, the show had become the top show in the 18–49 demographic a position it has held for all subsequent years up to and including season ten, and its competition stages ranked first in the nationwide overall ratings. By season four, American Idol had become the most watched series amongst all viewers on American TV for the first time, with an average viewership of 26.8 million. The show reached its peak in season five with numbers averaging 30.6 million per episode, and season five remains the highest-rated season of the series.
Which season premier of American Idol was the most watched?
56d3867b59d6e4140014663d
Season six
720
False
During which season to American Idols rating begin to fall?
56d3867b59d6e4140014663e
Season six
720
False
What did other television networks refer to American Idol as because of its ratings?
56d3867b59d6e4140014663f
the Death Star
453
False
Which television network originally aired The Cosby Show?
56d3867b59d6e41400146640
NBC
410
False
Which season premiere was the most watched of all seasons?
56db42dee7c41114004b4fd5
Season six
0
False
What was the show called by other networks?
56db42dee7c41114004b4fd6
the Death Star
453
False
Season six saw what for the first time in viewership?
56db42dee7c41114004b4fd8
decline
596
False
Season six was the first season where what had more viewers?
56db42dee7c41114004b4fd9
results show
772
False
Season six premiered with the series' highest-rated debut episode and a few of its succeeding episodes rank among the most watched episodes of American Idol. During this time, many television executives begun to regard the show as a programming force unlike any seen before, as its consistent dominance of up to two hours two or three nights a week exceeded the 30- or 60-minute reach of previous hits such as NBC's The Cosby Show. The show was dubbed "the Death Star", and competing networks often rearranged their schedules in order to minimize losses. However, season six also showed a steady decline in viewership over the course of the season. The season finale saw a drop in ratings of 16% from the previous year. Season six was the first season wherein the average results show rated higher than the competition stages (unlike in the previous seasons), and became the second highest-rated of the series after the preceding season.
During which season of American Idol did Fox beat the other networks in ratings for the first time?
56d386a959d6e41400146645
season seven
35
False
Why were television ratings down across the board during American Idols seventh season?
56d386a959d6e41400146646
Writers Guild of America strike
818
False
On what season was Kristy Lee Cook a contestant on American Idol?
56d386a959d6e41400146647
season seven
35
False
Who was eliminated during the lowest rated show since season one?
56db43dae7c41114004b4fdf
Kristy Lee Cook
126
False
What was the series' third most watched finale?
56db43dae7c41114004b4fe0
season seven
35
False
Because of the rebound in viewers, Fox became what for the first time?
56db43dae7c41114004b4fe1
the most watched TV network
490
False
What happened in 2007-2008 that had a drop in viewers for all networks?
56db43dae7c41114004b4fe2
Writers Guild of America strike
818
False
The loss of viewers continued into season seven. The premiere was down 11% among total viewers, and the results show in which Kristy Lee Cook was eliminated delivered its lowest-rated Wednesday show among the 18–34 demo since the first season in 2002. However, the ratings rebounded for the season seven finale with the excitement over the battle of the Davids, and improved over season six as the series' third most watched finale. The strong finish of season seven also helped Fox become the most watched TV network in the country for the first time since its inception, a first ever in American television history for a non-Big Three major broadcast network. Overall ratings for the season were down 10% from season six, which is in line with the fall in viewership across all networks due in part to the 2007–2008 Writers Guild of America strike.
Which television network aired the Winter Olympics in 2010?
56d386e359d6e4140014664b
NBC
261
False
Which television network originally aired All in the Family?
56d386e359d6e4140014664d
CBS
592
False
In what year did NBC beat American Idol in the ratings for the first time?
56d386e359d6e4140014664e
2010
283
False
What finally beat Idol in the ratings during season nine?
56db44cbe7c41114004b4fe8
2010 Winter Olympics
283
False
How many people watched the 2010 Winter Olympics on February 17 as compared to the 18.4 million who tuned into Idol?
56db44cbe7c41114004b4fe9
30.1 million
356
False
At the end of season nine, American Idol remained on top as the most watched show for how many years in a row?
56db44cbe7c41114004b4fea
six
190
False
The declining trend however continued into season eight, as total viewers numbers fell by 5–10% for early episodes compared to season seven, and by 9% for the finale. In season nine, Idol's six-year extended streak of perfection in the ratings was broken, when NBC's coverage of the 2010 Winter Olympics on February 17 beat Idol in the same time slot with 30.1 million viewers over Idol's 18.4 million. Nevertheless, American Idol overall finished its ninth season as the most watched TV series for the sixth year running, breaking the previous record of five consecutive seasons achieved by CBS' All in the Family and NBC's The Cosby Show.
What was the average age of American Idols viewers in its first season?
56d3870b59d6e4140014665d
32.1
563
False
What was the average age of American Idols viewers in its tenth season?
56d3870b59d6e4140014665e
47.2
530
False
What is the median age of viewers this season?
56db5c62e7c41114004b4ff3
47.2
530
False
What was the median age for viewers for season one?
56db5c62e7c41114004b4ff4
32.1
563
False
In season ten, the total viewer numbers for the first week of shows fell 12–13%, and by up to 23% in the 18–49 demo compared to season nine. Later episodes, however, retained viewers better, and the season ended on a high with a significant increase in viewership for the finale – up 12% for the adults 18–49 demo and a 21% increase in total viewers from the season nine finale. While the overall viewer number has increased this season, its viewer demographics have continued to age year on year – the median age this season was 47.2 compared to a median age of 32.1 in its first season. By the time of the 2010–11 television season, Fox was in its seventh consecutive season of victory overall in the 18–49 demographic ratings in the United States.
For how many years was American Idol the top rated show on television?
56d3876659d6e41400146663
eight
530
False
What program saw more viewers than American Idol this season?
56db5cece7c41114004b4ffb
Sunday Night Football
660
False
How long did Fox reign in the 18-49 demographics in the Nielsen ratings?
56db5cece7c41114004b4ffc
eight years
530
False
Season eleven, however, suffered a steep drop in ratings, a drop attributed by some to the arrival of new shows such as The Voice and The X-Factor. The ratings for the first two episodes of season eleven fell 16–21% in overall viewer numbers and 24–27% in the 18/49 demo, while the season finale fell 27% in total viewer number and 30% in the 18-49 demo. The average viewership for the season fell below 20 million viewers the first time since 2003, a drop of 23% in total viewers and 30% in the 18/49 demo. For the first time in eight years, American Idol lost the leading position in both the total viewers number and the 18/49 demo, coming in second to NBC Sunday Night Football, although the strengths of Idol in its second year in the Wednesday-Thursday primetime slots helped Fox achieve the longest period of 18-49 demographic victory in the Nielsen ratings, standing at 8 straight years from 2004 to 2012.
How many people on average watched season 12 of American Idol?
56d3878f59d6e41400146667
13.3 million
254
False
During which season did American Idol fall out of the top ten shows in ratings?
56d3878f59d6e41400146668
13
254
False
When did American Idol first air on television?
56d3878f59d6e41400146669
2002
717
False
The season finale for season 12 had how many fewer viewers than season 11?
56db5d64e7c41114004b5001
7.2 million
130
False
How many viewers watched on average this season?
56db5d64e7c41114004b5002
13.3 million
254
False
The loss of viewers continued into season 12, which saw the show hitting a number of series low in the 18-49 demo. The finale had 7.2 million fewer viewers than the previous season, and saw a drop of 44% in the 18-49 demo. The season viewers averaged at 13.3 million, a drop of 24% from the previous season. The thirteenth season suffered a huge decline in the 18–49 demographic, a drop of 28% from the twelfth season, and American Idol lost its Top 10 position in the Nielsen ratings by the end of the 2013–14 television season for the first time since its entry to the rankings in 2003 as a result, although the entire series to date had not yet been dropped from the Nielsen Top 30 rankings since its inception in 2002.
What drink company ended its relationship with American Idol during season 14?
56d3881459d6e4140014666d
Coca-Cola
87
False
How many people watched American Idols finale in season 14?
56d3881459d6e4140014666f
8.03 million
621
False
After what season will American Idol be cancelled?
56d3881459d6e41400146671
15
345
False
When did Fox announce the following season would be Idol's last?
56db5db6e7c41114004b500a
May 11, 2015
335
False
How many people watched the season 14 finale?
56db5db6e7c41114004b500b
8.03 million
621
False
The continuing decline influenced further changes for season 14, including the loss of Coca-Cola as the show's major sponsor, and a decision to only broadcast one, two-hour show per week during the top 12 rounds (with results from the previous week integrated into the performance show, rather than having a separate results show). On May 11, 2015, prior to the fourteenth season finale, Fox announced that the fifteenth season of American Idol would be its last. Despite these changes, the show's ratings would decline more sharply. The fourteenth season finale was the lowest-rated finale ever, with an average of only 8.03 million viewers watching the finale.
For how many years was American Idol the highest rated reality show on television?
56d3883859d6e41400146678
9
294
False
The enormous success of the show and the revenue it generated was transformative for Fox Broadcasting Company. American Idol and fellow competing shows Survivor and Who Wants to Be a Millionaire were altogether credited for expanding reality television programming in the United States in the 1990s and 2000s, and Idol became the most watched non-scripted primetime television series for almost a decade, from 2003 to 2012, breaking records on U.S. television (dominated by drama shows and sitcoms in the preceding decades).
For how many years was Fox the highest rated network with young adults because of American Idol?
56d3887c59d6e4140014667b
8
77
False
What television network originally aired the show Glee?
56d3887c59d6e4140014667c
Fox
16
False
What television network originally aired the show House?
56d3887c59d6e4140014667d
Fox
16
False
Who created American Idol?
56d3887c59d6e4140014667e
Simon Fuller
495
False
The show pushed Fox to become the number one U.S. TV network amongst adults 18–49, the key demographic coveted by advertisers, for an unprecedented eight consecutive years by 2012. Its success also helped lift the ratings of other shows that were scheduled around it such as House and Bones, and Idol, for years, had become Fox's strongest platform primetime television program for promoting eventual hit shows of the 2010s (of the same network) such as Glee and New Girl. The show, its creator Simon Fuller claimed, "saved Fox".
What dancing show featuring celebrities has been helped by American Idol?
56d3889e59d6e41400146683
Dancing with the Stars
279
False
What is another singing show similar to American Idol?
56d3889e59d6e41400146684
The Voice
152
False
The show's massive success in the mid-2000s and early 2010s spawned a number of imitating singing-competition shows, such as Rock Star, Nashville Star, The Voice, Rising Star, The Sing-Off, and The X Factor. Its format also served as a blueprint for non-singing TV shows such as Dancing with the Stars and So You Think You Can Dance, most of which contribute to the current highly competitive reality TV landscape on American television.
What show helped launched the career of Kelly Clarkson?
56d388cf59d6e41400146691
American Idol
64
False
What show helped launched the career of Carrie Underwood?
56d388cf59d6e41400146692
American Idol
64
False
What show helped launched the career of Daughtry?
56d388cf59d6e41400146693
American Idol
64
False
As one of the most successful shows on U.S. television history, American Idol has a strong impact not just on television, but also in the wider world of entertainment. It helped create a number of highly successful recording artists, such as Kelly Clarkson, Daughtry and Carrie Underwood, as well as others of varying notability.
How many number one Billboard singles were released by American Idol contestants in the shows first decade?
56d3893659d6e41400146697
345
114
False
Who is the president of Mediabase?
56d3893659d6e41400146698
Rich Meyer
607
False
Who was the most successful American Idol winner on radio as of 2010?
56d3893659d6e41400146699
Kelly Clarkson
688
False
How many number ones have Idol singers achieved on Billboard charts in just the first ten years?
56db5ff1e7c41114004b5021
345
114
False
Who authored books on Billboard charts?
56db5ff1e7c41114004b5022
Fred Bronson
191
False
How many contestants had at least one million radio spins by 2010?
56db5ff1e7c41114004b5024
four
628
False
How many radio spins did Kelly Clarkson have by 2010?
56db5ff1e7c41114004b5025
over four million
726
False
Various American Idol alumni had success on various record charts around the world; in the U.S. they had achieved 345 number ones on the Billboard charts in its first ten years. According to Fred Bronson, author of books on the Billboard charts, no other entity has ever created as many hit-making artists and best-selling albums and singles. In 2007, American Idol alums accounted for 2.1% of all music sales. Its alumni have a massive impact on radio; in 2007, American Idol had become "a dominant force in radio" according to the president of the research company Mediabase which monitors radio stations Rich Meyer. By 2010, four winners each had more than a million radio spins, with Kelly Clarkson leading the field with over four million spins.
How many albums have been sold by American Idol contestants up until 2013?
56d3895c59d6e4140014669d
59 million
82
False
How many single have been sold by American Idol contestants up until 2013?
56d3895c59d6e4140014669e
120 million
104
False
How many albums have Idol contestants created as of 2013?
56db60b7e7c41114004b502b
59 million
82
False
How many singles and digital downloads have Idol contestants created as of 2013?
56db60b7e7c41114004b502c
120 million
104
False
As of 2013, the American Idol alumni in their post-Idol careers have amassed over 59 million albums and 120 million singles and digital track downloads in the United States alone.
Which American Idol contestant won an Oscar for Dreamgirls?
56d3897859d6e414001466a1
Jennifer Hudson
402
False
What job does Debra Byrd do on American Idol?
56d3897859d6e414001466a2
vocal coach
457
False
In what area of the entertainment industry have some Idol contestants found success?
56db6122e7c41114004b502f
musical theatre
53
False
Which Idol won an Academy Award?
56db6122e7c41114004b5031
Jennifer Hudson
402
False
What film did Jennifer Hudson win an Academy Award for?
56db6122e7c41114004b5032
Dreamgirls
495
False
Who recommended the role for Hudon?
56db6122e7c41114004b5033
Debra Byrd
469
False
The impact of American Idol is also strongly felt in musical theatre, where many of Idol alumni have forged successful careers. The striking effect of former American Idol contestants on Broadway has been noted and commented on. The casting of a popular Idol contestant can lead to significantly increased ticket sales. Other alumni have gone on to work in television and films, the most notable being Jennifer Hudson who, on the recommendation of the Idol vocal coach Debra Byrd, won a role in Dreamgirls and subsequently received an Academy Award for her performance.
What publication does Ken Tucker work for?
56d389a959d6e414001466a5
Entertainment Weekly
60
False
What did American Idols first winner sing at the Lincoln Memorial in 2002?
56d389a959d6e414001466a7
the national anthem
850
False
Which journalist felt Idol produced entertaining TV more than entertaining music?
56db61d2e7c41114004b5039
Ken Tucker
46
False
Which publication did Tucker work for?
56db61d2e7c41114004b503a
Entertainment Weekly
60
False
Who called American Idol a conniving multimedia monster?
56db61d2e7c41114004b503b
Karla Peterson
586
False
Where did the season one winner sing the national anthem that received huge criticism?
56db61d2e7c41114004b503c
Lincoln Memorial
877
False
Early reviews were mixed in their assessment. Ken Tucker of Entertainment Weekly considered that "As TV, American Idol is crazily entertaining; as music, it's dust-mote inconsequential". Others, however, thought that "the most striking aspect of the series was the genuine talent it revealed". It was also described as a "sadistic musical bake-off", and "a romp in humiliation". Other aspects of the show have attracted criticisms. The product placement in the show in particular was noted, and some critics were harsh about what they perceived as its blatant commercial calculations – Karla Peterson of The San Diego Union-Tribune charged that American Idol is "a conniving multimedia monster" that has "absorbed the sin of our debauched culture and spit them out in a lump of reconstituted evil". The decision to send the season one winner to sing the national anthem at the Lincoln Memorial on the first anniversary of the September 11 attacks in 2002 was also poorly received by many. Lisa de Moraes of The Washington Post noted sarcastically that "The terrorists have won" and, with a sideswipe at the show's commercialism and voting process, that the decision as to who "gets to turn this important site into just another cog in the 'Great American Idol Marketing Mandala' is in the hands of the millions of girls who have made American Idol a hit. Them and a handful of phone-redialer geeks who have been clocking up to 10,000 calls each week for their contestant of choice (but who, according to Fox, are in absolutely no way skewing the outcome)."
What publication does Michael Slezak write for?
56d389de59d6e414001466ab
Entertainment Weekly
86
False
Who was accused of being mean and cruel on American Idol?
56d389de59d6e414001466ac
Simon Cowell
842
False
What singer had bad things to say about contestants on American Idol?
56d389de59d6e414001466ad
John Mayer
1039
False
What magazine does Ramin Wetoodeh write for?
56d389de59d6e414001466ae
Newsweek
819
False
Sheryl Crow felt the show undermined art and promoted what?
56db6246e7c41114004b5043
commercialism
448
False
Who said that American Idol has reshaped the American songbook?
56db6246e7c41114004b5044
Ann Powers
481
False
Who was accused of helping meanness thrive?
56db6246e7c41114004b5045
Simon Cowell
842
False
Which singer said the contestants are not real artists with self respect?
56db6246e7c41114004b5046
John Mayer
1039
False
Some of the later writers about the show were more positive, Michael Slezak, again of Entertainment Weekly, thought that "for all its bloated, synthetic, product-shilling, money-making trappings, Idol provides a once-a-year chance for the average American to combat the evils of today's music business." Singer Sheryl Crow, who was later to act as a mentor on the show, however took the view that the show "undermines art in every way and promotes commercialism". Pop music critic Ann Powers nevertheless suggested that Idol has "reshaped the American songbook", "led us toward a new way of viewing ourselves in relationship to mainstream popular culture", and connects "the classic Hollywood dream to the multicentered popular culture of the future." Others focused on the personalities in the show; Ramin Setoodeh of Newsweek accused judge Simon Cowell's cruel critiques in the show of helping to establish in the wider world a culture of meanness, that "Simon Cowell has dragged the rest of us in the mud with him." Some such as singer John Mayer disparaged the contestants, suggesting that those who appeared on Idol are not real artists with self-respect.
What famous singer declined an offer to be a judge on American Idol after having been a mentor?
56d38a1559d6e414001466b3
Elton John
1037
False
What year did Carrie Underwood win a Country Music Award for Best Female Artist?
56d38a1559d6e414001466b4
2006
891
False
What singer criticized Carrie Underwood for winning a Country Music Award?
56d38a1559d6e414001466b5
LeAnn Rimes
777
False
Who felt that American Idol helped the true art form of music get lost?
56db62cce7c41114004b504b
Usher
88
False
Who won the Best Female Artist in Country Music Awards in 2006?
56db62cce7c41114004b504c
Carrie Underwood
804
False
Who did Carrie beat out for the award?
56db62cce7c41114004b504d
Faith Hill
877
False
Who said that Carrie had not paid her dues to win that award?
56db62cce7c41114004b504e
LeAnn Rimes
777
False
Who was a mentor but later turned down the opportunity to judge Idol?
56db62cce7c41114004b504f
Elton John
1037
False
Some in the entertainment industry were critical of the star-making aspect of the show. Usher, a mentor on the show, bemoaning the loss of the "true art form of music", thought that shows like American Idol made it seem "so easy that everyone can do it, and that it can happen overnight", and that "television is a lie". Musician Michael Feinstein, while acknowledging that the show had uncovered promising performers, said that American Idol "isn't really about music. It's about all the bad aspects of the music business – the arrogance of commerce, this sense of 'I know what will make this person a star; artists themselves don't know.' " That American Idol is seen to be a fast track to success for its contestants has been a cause of resentment for some in the industry. LeAnn Rimes, commenting on Carrie Underwood winning Best Female Artist in Country Music Awards over Faith Hill in 2006, said that "Carrie has not paid her dues long enough to fully deserve that award". It is a common theme that has been echoed by many others. Elton John, who had appeared as a mentor in the show but turned down an offer to be a judge on American Idol, commenting on talent shows in general, said that "there have been some good acts but the only way to sustain a career is to pay your dues in small clubs".
Which music genre has had the most success from American Idol?
56d38a2359d6e414001466b9
country
305
False
Which genre has felt the impact of Idol the most?
56db6302e7c41114004b5055
country music
305
False
The success of the show's alumni however has led to a more positive assessment of the show, and the show was described as having "proven it has a valid way to pick talent and a proven way to sell records". While the industry is divided on the show success, its impact is felt particularly strongly in the country music format. According to a CMT exec, reflecting on the success of Idol alumni in the country genre, "if you want to try and get famous fast by going to a cattle call audition on TV, Idol reasonably remains the first choice for anyone," and that country music and Idol "go together well".
How many nominations has American Idol received for Outstanding Reality Competition Program?
56d38b4e59d6e414001466d7
9
231
False
What director win an Emmy Award for his work on American Idol?
56d38b4e59d6e414001466d8
Bruce Gower
122
False
How many total Emmy Awards has American Idol won?
56d38b4e59d6e414001466d9
8
293
False
What American Idol special received a Governors Award in 2007?
56d38b4e59d6e414001466da
Idol Gives Back
374
False
How many times was American Idol nominated for an Emmy?
56db635fe7c41114004b5059
nine
87
False
What award did American Idol win for its Idol Gives Back charity work?
56db635fe7c41114004b505b
Governor's Award in 2007
341
False
American Idol was nominated for the Emmy's Outstanding Reality Competition Program for nine years but never won. Director Bruce Gower won a Primetime Emmy Award for Outstanding Directing For A Variety, Music Or Comedy Series in 2009, and the show won a Creative Arts Emmys each in 2007 and 2008, three in 2009, and two in 2011, as well as a Governor's Award in 2007 for its Idol Gives Back edition. It won the People's Choice Award, which honors the popular culture of the previous year as voted by the public, for favorite competition/reality show in 2005, 2006, 2007, 2010, 2011 and 2012. It won the first Critics' Choice Television Award in 2011 for Best Reality Competition.
How much money did American Idol make in 2004?
56d38b8959d6e414001466df
$900 million
145
False
How much money did American Idol generate from its first eight seasons?
56d38b8959d6e414001466e0
$6.4 billion
479
False
What is the name of the American Idol theme attraction with Disney?
56d38b8959d6e414001466e1
The American Idol Experience
932
False
How much money did American Idol generate from ads in its seventh season?
56d38b8959d6e414001466e2
$900 million
145
False
Who did Idol partner with to create The American Idol Experience?
56db63dbe7c41114004b5064
Disney
896
False
The dominance of American Idol in the ratings had made it the most profitable show in U.S. TV for many years. The show was estimated to generate $900 million for the year 2004 through sales of TV ads, albums, merchandise and concert tickets. By season seven, the show was estimated to earn around $900 million from its ad revenue alone, not including ancillary sponsorship deals and other income. One estimate puts the total TV revenue for the first eight seasons of American at $6.4 billion. Sponsors that bought fully integrated packages can expect a variety of promotions of their products on the show, such as product placement, adverts and product promotion integrated into the show, and various promotional opportunities. Other off-air promotional partners pay for the rights to feature "Idol" branding on their packaging, products and marketing programs. American Idol also partnered with Disney in its theme park attraction The American Idol Experience.
In which season did American Idol become the costliest show for advertising on television?
56d38bc459d6e414001466f1
season four
94
False
How much did advertisers spend for a 30 second ad spot on the American Idol season four finale?
56d38bc459d6e414001466f2
$1.3 million
293
False
How much did advertisers spend for a 30 second ad spot during American Idol in 2014?
56d38bc459d6e414001466f3
less than $300,000
952
False
How much did advertisers spend for a 30 second ad spot during American Idol in its seventh season?
56d38bc459d6e414001466f4
$737,000
370
False
By what season was Idol the  highest advertising cost of all shows?
56db6457e7c41114004b5069
four
101
False
How much did Idol earn in ad revenue alone for season 8?
56db6457e7c41114004b506d
800 million
626
False
American Idol became the most expensive series on broadcast networks for advertisers starting season four, and by the next season, it had broken the record in advertising rate for a regularly scheduled prime-time network series, selling over $700,000 for a 30-seconds slot, and reaching up to $1.3 million for the finale. Its ad prices reached a peak in season seven at $737,000. Estimated revenue more than doubled from $404 million in season three to $870 million in season six. While that declined from season eight onwards, it still earned significantly more than its nearest competitor, with advertising revenue topping $800 million annually the next few seasons. However, the sharp drop in ratings in season eleven also resulted in a sharp drop in advertising rate for season twelve, and the show lost its leading position as the costliest show for advertisers. By 2014, ad revenue from had fallen to $427 million where a 30-second spot went for less than $300,000.
In which season did Coca-Cola become a sponsor of American Idol?
56d38c1059d6e414001466f9
season one
150
False
In which season did Ford Motor Company become a sponsor of American Idol?
56d38c1059d6e414001466fa
season one
150
False
Which mobile carrier became a sponsor of American Idol in its second season?
56d38c1059d6e414001466fb
AT&T Wireless
266
False
When did Coca-Cola stop being a sponsor of American Idol?
56d38c1059d6e414001466fc
after season 13
382
False
In which season did iTunes begin a partnership with American Idol?
56d38c1059d6e414001466fd
seven
492
False
How much did it cost each company for the first season?
56db64ace7c41114004b5074
10 million
136
False
How much did it cost each company in season 7?
56db64ace7c41114004b5075
35 million
173
False
Who was the third largest sponsor?
56db64ace7c41114004b5076
AT&T
266
False
Ford Motor Company and Coca-Cola were two of the first sponsors of American Idol in its first season. The sponsorship deal cost around $10 million in season one, rising to $35 million by season 7, and between $50 to $60 million in season 10. The third major sponsor AT&T Wireless joined in the second season but ended after season 12, and Coca-Cola officially ended its sponsorship after season 13 amidst the declining ratings of Idol in the mid-2010s. iTunes sponsored the show since season seven.
What service did AT&T promote on American Idol as a way of voting?
56d38c2d59d6e4140014670d
text-messaging
291
False
How many product placements had Idol shown by season six?
56db64e9e7c41114004b507d
4,349
134
False
American Idol prominent display of its sponsors' logo and products had been noted since the early seasons. By season six, Idol showed 4,349 product placements according to Nielsen Media Research. The branded entertainment integration proved beneficial to its advertisers – promotion of AT&T text-messaging as a means to vote successfully introduced the technology into the wider culture, and Coca-Cola has seen its equity increased during the show.
Which major drink manufacturer decided at the beginning of American Idol not to be a sponsor?
56d38c6559d6e41400146711
PepsiCo
22
False
What show did PepsiCo begin sponsoring in hopes of not missing another opportunity like American Idol?
56d38c6559d6e41400146712
The X Factor
352
False
Which soda company did not want to sponsor American Idol?
56db6544e7c41114004b507f
PepsiCo
22
False
In hopes of not repeating another mistake, which show did PepsiCo sponsor?
56db6544e7c41114004b5080
The X Factor
352
False
PepsiCo fell to what place by 2010, which is in part credited with refusing to sponsor American Idol?
56db6544e7c41114004b5081
third
255
False
Coca-Cola's archrival PepsiCo declined to sponsor American Idol at the show's start. What the Los Angeles Times later called "missing one of the biggest marketing opportunities in a generation" contributed to Pepsi losing market share, by 2010 falling to third place from second in the United States. PepsiCo sponsored the American version of Cowell's The X Factor in hopes of not repeating its Idol mistake until its cancellation.
Which season of American Idol had the highest profit on its tour?
56d38cab59d6e41400146721
season five
352
False
What company was a sponsor of the American Idol tour in its ninth season?
56d38cab59d6e41400146725
M&M's Pretzel Chocolate Candies
277
False
Who was added to the tour in season 12?
56db65ace7c41114004b5086
a semi-finalist who won a sing-off
96
False
Who sponsored the first seven tours?
56db65ace7c41114004b5087
Kellogg's Pop-Tarts
159
False
Who sponsored the ninth tour?
56db65ace7c41114004b5088
M&M's Pretzel Chocolate Candies
277
False
Which was the most successful tour?
56db65ace7c41114004b5089
season five
352
False
The top ten (eleven in season ten) toured at the end of every season. In the season twelve tour a semi-finalist who won a sing-off was also added to the tour. Kellogg's Pop-Tarts was the sponsor for the first seven seasons, and Guitar Hero was added for the season seven tour. M&M's Pretzel Chocolate Candies was a sponsor of the season nine tour. The season five tour was the most successful tour with gross of over $35 million.
When did iTunes become a sponsor on American Idol?
56d38cd959d6e41400146735
season seven
591
False
For how many seasons did American Idol put out a compilation of hits at seasons end?
56d38cd959d6e41400146736
five
154
False
What company has released studio recordings from American Idol since season seven?
56d38cd959d6e41400146737
iTunes
691
False
Idol releases both the performances as well as what for sale?
56db6621e7c41114004b508f
the winner's coronation single
99
False
How were the recordings released for the initial five seasons?
56db6621e7c41114004b5090
as a compilation album
197
False
Because all five were in the top ten of Billboard's charts, this made Idol what?
56db6621e7c41114004b5091
the most successful soundtrack franchise
338
False
Who joined Idol as a sponsor in season seven?
56db6621e7c41114004b5092
iTunes
691
False
American Idol has traditionally released studio recordings of contestants' performances as well as the winner's coronation single for sale. For the first five seasons, the recordings were released as a compilation album at the end of the season. All five of these albums reached the top ten in Billboard 200 which made then American Idol the most successful soundtrack franchise of any motion picture or television program. Starting late in season five, individual performances were released during the season as digital downloads, initially from the American Idol official website only. In season seven the live performances and studio recordings were made available during the season from iTunes when it joined as a sponsor. In Season ten the weekly studio recordings were also released as compilation digital album straight after performance night.
What company has the right to all recordings from contestants on American Idol?
56d38d1a59d6e4140014673f
19 Recordings
0
False
What company took over as American Idols music label in 2010?
56d38d1a59d6e41400146740
UMG
670
False
What company had released music from American Idol in addition to Sony Music Entertainment?
56d38d1a59d6e41400146741
BMG
198
False
Who owns 19 Recordings?
56db66a2e7c41114004b5097
19 Entertainment
42
False
Who owns the rights to all phonographic material done by the contestants?
56db66a2e7c41114004b5098
19 Recordings
0
False
Who did 19 initially partner with to distribute the recordings?
56db66a2e7c41114004b5099
BMG
198
False
Who did BMG partner with in 2005-2007?
56db66a2e7c41114004b509a
Sony Music Entertainment
350
False
Who replaced Sony in 2010 as Idol's music label?
56db66a2e7c41114004b509b
UMG's Interscope-Geffen-A&M Records
670
False
19 Recordings, a recording label owned by 19 Entertainment, currently hold the rights to phonographic material recorded by all the contestants. 19 originally partnered with Bertelsmann Music Group (BMG) to promote and distribute the recordings through its labels RCA Records, Arista Records, J Records, Jive Records. In 2005-2007, BMG partnered with Sony Music Entertainment to form a joint venture known as Sony BMG Music Entertainment. From 2008-2010, Sony Music handled the distribution following their acquisition of BMG. Sony Music was partnered with American Idol and distribute its music, and In 2010, Sony was replaced by as the music label for American Idol by UMG's Interscope-Geffen-A&M Records.
What company has a them park attraction known as The American Idol Experience?
56d38d5a59d6e41400146747
The Walt Disney Company
22
False
In what year did The Walt Disney Company open The American Idol Experience?
56d38d5a59d6e41400146748
2009
16
False
In what year did The Walt Disney Company close The American Idol Experience?
56d38d5a59d6e41400146749
2014
956
False
What company had a partnership with The Walt Disney Company for The American Idol Experience?
56d38d5a59d6e4140014674a
19 Entertainment
214
False
When did the American Idol Experience open?
56db670ce7c41114004b50a1
February 14, 2009
3
False
Where did it open?
56db670ce7c41114004b50a2
Walt Disney World
137
False
What did the winner win?
56db670ce7c41114004b50a4
Dream Ticket
821
False
When did the Experience close?
56db670ce7c41114004b50a5
August 30, 2014
945
False
On February 14, 2009, The Walt Disney Company debuted "The American Idol Experience" at its Disney's Hollywood Studios theme park at the Walt Disney World Resort in Florida. In this live production, co-produced by 19 Entertainment, park guests chose from a list of songs and auditioned privately for Disney cast members. Those selected then performed on a stage in a 1000-seat theater replicating the Idol set. Three judges, whose mannerisms and style mimicked those of the real Idol judges, critiqued the performances. Audience members then voted for their favorite performer. There were several preliminary-round shows during the day that culminated in a "finals" show in the evening where one of the winners of the previous rounds that day was selected as the overall winner. The winner of the finals show received a "Dream Ticket" that granted them front-of-the-line privileges at any future American Idol audition. The attraction closed on August 30, 2014.
How many different countries air American Idol on television?
56d38d9359d6e41400146757
over 100
30
False
What network broadcasted American Idol live in Canada for thirteen seasons?
56d38d9359d6e41400146758
CTV
247
False
In what year did CTV stop showing live broadcasts of American Idol?
56d38d9359d6e41400146759
2014
349
False
What Canadian network began airing American Idol in 2015?
56d38d9359d6e4140014675a
Yes TV
355
False
How many nations receive the Idol broadcast?
56db6760e7c41114004b50ab
over 100
30
False
Who aired the first thirteen seasons in Canada?
56db6760e7c41114004b50ac
CTV and/or CTV Two
247
False
Who stated in August 2014 that they picked up the rights beginning in its 2015 season?
56db6760e7c41114004b50ae
Yes TV
355
False
American Idol is broadcast to over 100 nations outside of the United States. In most nations these are not live broadcasts and may be tape delayed by several days or weeks. In Canada, the first thirteen seasons of American Idol were aired live by CTV and/or CTV Two, in simulcast with Fox. CTV dropped Idol after its thirteenth season and in August 2014, Yes TV announced that it had picked up Canadian rights to American Idol beginning in its 2015 season.
What network in Italy aired American Idol in season twelve?
56d38dcc59d6e4140014675f
La3
1116
False
How many days does someone in the United Kingdom have to wait to watch American Idol after its original broadcast?
56d38dcc59d6e41400146760
one
707
False
What television network in Asia shows American Idol?
56d38dcc59d6e41400146761
STAR World
126
False
On what days of the week does American Idol air in the Philippines?
56d38dcc59d6e41400146762
Thursday and Friday
143
False
Who broadcasts Idol in southeast Asia?
56db67d3e7c41114004b50b3
STAR World
126
False
Who broadcast the 12th season in Italy?
56db67d3e7c41114004b50b7
La3
1116
False
In Latin America, the show is broadcast and subtitled by Sony Entertainment Television. In southeast Asia, it is broadcast by STAR World every Thursday and Friday nine or ten hours after. In Philippines, it is aired every Thursday and Friday nine or ten hours after its United States telecast; from 2002 to 2007 on ABC 5; 2008–11 on QTV, then GMA News TV; and since 2012 on ETC. On Philippine television history. In Australia, it is aired a few hours after the U.S. telecast. It was aired on Network Ten from 2002 to 2007 and then again in 2013, from 2008 to 2012 on Fox8, from season 13 onwards it airs on digital channel, Eleven, a sister channel to Network Ten. In the United Kingdom, episodes are aired one day after the U.S. broadcast on digital channel ITV2. As of season 12, the episodes air on 5*. It is also aired in Ireland on TV3 two days after the telecast. In Brazil and Israel, the show airs two days after its original broadcast. In the instances where the airing is delayed, the shows may sometimes be combined into one episode to summarize the results. In Italy, the twelfth season was broadcast by La3.
Producers have been accused of planting what within the show?
56db3f98e7c41114004b4fa7
ringers
108
False
Individual contestants have generated controversy in this competition for their past actions, or for being 'ringers' planted by the producers. A number of contestants had been disqualified for various reasons, such as for having an existing contract or undisclosed criminal records, although the show had been accused of double standard for disqualifying some but not others.
How many consecutive years was American Idol the top rated show?
56db40d4e7c41114004b4fc0
seven
290
False
How many consecutive years did either the performance or results show rank number one?
56db40d4e7c41114004b4fc1
eight
318
False
Seasonal rankings (based on average total viewers per episode) of American Idol. It holds the distinction of having the longest winning streak in the Nielsen annual television ratings; it became the highest-rated of all television programs in the United States overall for an unprecedented seven consecutive years, or eight consecutive (and total) years when either its performance or result show was ranked number one overall.
Dog
What is the three word Latin name for domesticated dogs?
56d47d7d2ccc5a1400d8314e
Canis lupus familiaris
18
False
What is Canis familiaris?
56d99788dc89441400fdb580
domestic dog
4
False
How long has the domestic dog been selectively bred?
56d99788dc89441400fdb581
millennia
122
False
Along with various behaviors and physical attributes, what were domestic dogs bred for?
56d99788dc89441400fdb582
sensory capabilities
155
False
The domestic dog (Canis lupus familiaris or Canis familiaris) is a domesticated canid which has been selectively bred for millennia for various behaviors, sensory capabilities, and physical attributes.
What decade had significant studies of dog genes to determine origins?
56d4a7a72ccc5a1400d83168
2010s
212
False
Testing revealed today's dogs trace back by how many years?
56d4a7a72ccc5a1400d83169
40,000
289
False
What is the region where domesticated dogs ancestry traces to?
56d4a7a72ccc5a1400d8316a
Eurasia
281
False
What type of diet can modern domesticated dogs thrive eating that other dogs cannot?
56d4a7a72ccc5a1400d8316b
starch-rich
462
False
What was undertaken in 2010 to determine where dogs originated from?
56d997d0dc89441400fdb590
extensive genetic studies
164
False
Although initially thought to have originated as a manmade variant of an extant canid species (variously supposed as being the dhole, golden jackal, or gray wolf), extensive genetic studies undertaken during the 2010s indicate that dogs diverged from an extinct wolf-like canid in Eurasia 40,000 years ago. Being the oldest domesticated animal, their long association with people has allowed dogs to be uniquely attuned to human behavior, as well as thrive on a starch-rich diet which would be inadequate for other canid species.
What is the most common phrase, or nickname, used by people in the United States to describe dogs in general?
56d4bb172ccc5a1400d83186
man's best friend
245
False
What moniker has been given to dogs in Western cultures?
56d9984fdc89441400fdb592
man's best friend
245
False
Dogs are a source of what in some cultures?
56d9984fdc89441400fdb593
meat
334
False
Dogs perform many roles for people, such as hunting, herding, pulling loads, protection, assisting police and military, companionship, and, more recently, aiding handicapped individuals. This impact on human society has given them the nickname "man's best friend" in the Western world. In some cultures, however, dogs are a source of meat.
What is the Proto-Germanic word that "dog" may have come from?
56d4bc242ccc5a1400d8318b
dukkōn
244
False
What may be the earliest vocabulary that the word "dog" came from?
56d4bc242ccc5a1400d8318c
Proto-Indo-European
521
False
Where does the word dog originate?
56d998c8dc89441400fdb597
Old English docga
151
False
Dog could also come from the original layer of what vocabulary?
56d998c8dc89441400fdb598
Proto-Indo-European
521
False
The term "domestic dog" is generally used for both of the domesticated and feral varieties. The English word dog comes from Middle English dogge, from Old English docga, a "powerful dog breed". The term may possibly derive from Proto-Germanic *dukkōn, represented in Old English finger-docce ("finger-muscle"). The word also shows the familiar petname diminutive -ga also seen in frogga "frog", picga "pig", stagga "stag", wicga "beetle, worm", among others. The term dog may ultimately derive from the earliest layer of Proto-Indo-European vocabulary.
What was the common 14th-century word for dogs for those who spoke English?
56d4bcef2ccc5a1400d8319a
hound
25
False
What breed was so prolific it became a prototype of hound?
56d4bcef2ccc5a1400d8319b
mastiff.
165
False
In what century did "hound" start to only apply to hunting dogs?
56d4bcef2ccc5a1400d8319c
16th
287
False
What was the common term for all domesticated dogs in England during the 14th century?
56d99962dc89441400fdb5a6
hound
25
False
When did the word dog become the common term for canines?
56d99962dc89441400fdb5a7
16th century
287
False
Hound became the term for dogs who did what activity during this time?
56d99962dc89441400fdb5a8
hunting
386
False
What Proto-Indo-European word is hound from?
56d99962dc89441400fdb5a9
*kwon- "dog"
468
False
In 14th-century England, hound (from Old English: hund) was the general word for all domestic canines, and dog referred to a subtype of hound, a group including the mastiff. It is believed this "dog" type was so common, it eventually became the prototype of the category "hound". By the 16th century, dog had become the general word, and hound had begun to refer only to types used for hunting. The word "hound" is ultimately derived from the Proto-Indo-European word *kwon- "dog".
What are a single birth group of puppies of a dog called collectively?
56d4bdcd2ccc5a1400d831aa
a litter.
200
False
What is the male who is father of the pups called?
56d4bdcd2ccc5a1400d831ab
sire
247
False
What is the French word that "puppy" comes from?
56d4bdcd2ccc5a1400d831ac
poupée
350
False
What is giving birth to dogs called?
56d4bdcd2ccc5a1400d831ad
whelping
415
False
What is the English word for female dog that has also become profanity?
56d4bdcd2ccc5a1400d831ae
bitch
87
False
A male canine is called a dog while a female canine is called a what in reference to breeding?
56d999dcdc89441400fdb5ae
bitch
87
False
What are canine offspring referred as?
56d999dcdc89441400fdb5af
litter
202
False
What is the father of a litter referred as?
56d999dcdc89441400fdb5b0
sire
247
False
What is the mother of a litter referred as?
56d999dcdc89441400fdb5b1
dam
282
False
What are the individual litter canines called?
56d999dcdc89441400fdb5b2
pups
321
False
In breeding circles, a male canine is referred to as a dog, while a female is called a bitch (Middle English bicche, from Old English bicce, ultimately from Old Norse bikkja). A group of offspring is a litter. The father of a litter is called the sire, and the mother is called the dam. Offspring are, in general, called pups or puppies, from French poupée, until they are about a year old. The process of birth is whelping, from the Old English word hwelp.
What is the Latin term for "dog.?"
56d4befa2ccc5a1400d831b4
Canis
109
False
What year are dogs first listed in Systema Naturae?
56d4befa2ccc5a1400d831b5
1758
3
False
Who published Systema Naturae?
56d4befa2ccc5a1400d831b6
Linnaeus
24
False
What is the modern single English word for Canis lupus?
56d4befa2ccc5a1400d831b7
wolf
372
False
What 1982 publication listed regular family dogs under wolves?
56d4befa2ccc5a1400d831b8
Mammal Species of the World
731
False
What is the Latin word for dog?
56d99aa4dc89441400fdb5b8
Canis
109
False
Canis familiaris is the classification for dogs, and is known as what?
56d99aa4dc89441400fdb5b9
family dog
327
False
What is the Latin name for a wolf?
56d99aa4dc89441400fdb5ba
Canis lupus
380
False
Feral dogs have what Latin classification?
56d99aa4dc89441400fdb5bb
Canis dingo
507
False
What year was Canis familiaris listed under Canis lupus?
56d99aa4dc89441400fdb5bc
1982
704
False
In 1758, the taxonomist Linnaeus published in Systema Naturae a categorization of species which included the Canis species. Canis is a Latin word meaning dog, and the list included the dog-like carnivores: the domestic dog, wolves, foxes and jackals. The dog was classified as Canis familiaris, which means "Dog-family" or the family dog. On the next page he recorded the wolf as Canis lupus, which means "Dog-wolf". In 1978, a review aimed at reducing the number of recognized Canis species proposed that "Canis dingo is now generally regarded as a distinctive feral domestic dog. Canis familiaris is used for domestic dogs, although taxonomically it should probably be synonymous with Canis lupus." In 1982, the first edition of Mammal Species of the World listed Canis familiaris under Canis lupus with the comment: "Probably ancestor of and conspecific with the domestic dog, familiaris. Canis familiaris has page priority over Canis lupus, but both were published simultaneously in Linnaeus (1758), and Canis lupus has been universally used for this species", which avoided classifying the wolf as the family dog. The dog is now listed among the many other Latin-named subspecies of Canis lupus as Canis lupus familiaris.
What year was it decided that if wolves and dogs were one species, then their scientific name is the name of the wild variety?
56d4c13d2ccc5a1400d831d2
2003
3
False
What 2005 publication in its third edition kept to that ruling?
56d4c13d2ccc5a1400d831d3
Mammal Species of the World
243
False
What Latin dog term is still used because wild and domesticated dogs are recognizably different?
56d4c13d2ccc5a1400d831d4
Canis familiaris.
775
False
What official body recognizes both Canis lupus and Canis familiaris?
56d4c13d2ccc5a1400d831d5
ICZN
13
False
Many researchers prefer what term?
56d4c13d2ccc5a1400d831d6
Canis familiaris.
775
False
Who ruled in 2003 that scientific names for wild animals share the same scientific name as their domestic counterparts?
56d99b58dc89441400fdb5c2
ICZN
13
False
What was this decision called?
56d99b58dc89441400fdb5c3
Opinion 2027
31
False
In 2003, the ICZN ruled in its Opinion 2027 that if wild animals and their domesticated derivatives are regarded as one species, then the scientific name of that species is the scientific name of the wild animal. In 2005, the third edition of Mammal Species of the World upheld Opinion 2027 with the name Lupus and the note: "Includes the domestic dog as a subspecies, with the dingo provisionally separate - artificial variants created by domestication and selective breeding". However, Canis familiaris is sometimes used due to an ongoing nomenclature debate because wild and domestic animals are separately recognizable entities and that the ICZN allowed users a choice as to which name they could use, and a number of internationally recognized researchers prefer to use Canis familiaris.
What indicated dogs and gray wolves developed as two monophyletic clades?
56d4c2102ccc5a1400d831ee
genetic studies
6
False
The common relative of dogs and existing wolves is now considered what?
56d4c2102ccc5a1400d831ef
extinct.
183
False
Later genetic studies strongly supported dogs and gray wolves forming two sister monophyletic clades within the one species, and that the common ancestor of dogs and extant wolves is extinct.
Modern dogs likely began when human beings were considered to be what?
56d4c3ba2ccc5a1400d831fd
hunter-gatherers
306
False
Due to admixture, what species are many Arctic dogs related to?
56d4c3ba2ccc5a1400d831ff
Taimyr wolf of North Asia
606
False
Rather than with agriculturists, dogs seemingly were during the time of who?
56d99c62dc89441400fdb5e2
human hunter-gatherers
300
False
Most breeds share a genetic likeness to what animal?
56d99c62dc89441400fdb5e3
gray wolf
142
False
Some Arctic breeds are more like what wolf rather than the gray wolf?
56d99c62dc89441400fdb5e4
Taimyr
606
False
The origin of the domestic dog (Canis lupus familiaris or Canis familiaris) is not clear. Whole genome sequencing indicates that the dog, the gray wolf and the extinct Taymyr wolf diverged at around the same time 27,000–40,000 years ago. These dates imply that the earliest dogs arose in the time of human hunter-gatherers and not agriculturists. Modern dogs are more closely related to ancient wolf fossils that have been found in Europe than they are to modern gray wolves. Nearly all dog breeds' genetic closeness to the gray wolf are due to admixture, except several Arctic dog breeds are close to the Taimyr wolf of North Asia due to admixture.
What species shows more difference in size, looks and actions than any other?
56d4c4bd2ccc5a1400d8320e
Modern dog breeds
125
False
What are dog teeth best suited for?
56d4c4bd2ccc5a1400d8320f
catching and tearing.
434
False
Dogs are considered to be predators and what else?
56d4c4bd2ccc5a1400d83210
scavengers
252
False
What bones in dog legs are fused?
56d4c4bd2ccc5a1400d83211
wrist
339
False
A dog's heart and vascular ability if best suited for sprinting and what else?
56d4c4bd2ccc5a1400d83212
endurance
409
False
What are a dog's teeth mainly used for?
56d99cfedc89441400fdb5eb
catching and tearing
434
False
Dogs originated as predators and what?
56d99cfedc89441400fdb5ec
scavengers
252
False
Domestic dogs have been selectively bred for millennia for various behaviors, sensory capabilities, and physical attributes. Modern dog breeds show more variation in size, appearance, and behavior than any other domestic animal. Dogs are predators and scavengers, and like many other predatory mammals, the dog has powerful muscles, fused wrist bones, a cardiovascular system that supports both sprinting and endurance, and teeth for catching and tearing.
Dogs show an extreme range in what two characteristics?
56d4d4b82ccc5a1400d8327c
height and weight.
28
False
What breed was the largest dog known to have lived?
56d4d4b82ccc5a1400d8327f
English Mastiff
267
False
What is the biggest known dog?
56d99d69dc89441400fdb5f4
English Mastiff
267
False
Dogs are highly variable in height and weight. The smallest known adult dog was a Yorkshire Terrier, that stood only 6.3 cm (2.5 in) at the shoulder, 9.5 cm (3.7 in) in length along the head-and-body, and weighed only 113 grams (4.0 oz). The largest known dog was an English Mastiff which weighed 155.6 kg (343 lb) and was 250 cm (98 in) from the snout to the tail. The tallest dog is a Great Dane that stands 106.7 cm (42.0 in) at the shoulder.
Which coat is more common with dogs living in colder climates?
56d5aeea1c85041400946db3
double
50
False
Along with a gruff guard hair, what else makes up the double coat?
56d5aeea1c85041400946db4
soft down hair
172
False
What is the more common coat for dogs from colder climates?
56d99dcfdc89441400fdb608
double
50
False
What is a single coat?
56d99dcfdc89441400fdb609
topcoat only
210
False
The coats of domestic dogs are of two varieties: "double" being common with dogs (as well as wolves) originating from colder climates, made up of a coarse guard hair and a soft down hair, or "single", with the topcoat only.
When a dog has a camouflage pattern on its coat, this is called what?
56d5af531c85041400946dba
countershading
44
False
A dog with countershading has dark coloring where?
56d5af531c85041400946dbb
upper surfaces
151
False
A natural camo pattern is known as what?
56d99e45dc89441400fdb60e
countershading
44
False
What color is on a dogs upper surfaces if it has countershading?
56d99e45dc89441400fdb60f
dark coloring
130
False
What is reduced when a dog has countershading?
56d99e45dc89441400fdb610
visibility
218
False
Domestic dogs often display the remnants of countershading, a common natural camouflage pattern. A countershaded animal will have dark coloring on its upper surfaces and light coloring below, which reduces its general visibility. Thus, many breeds will have an occasional "blaze", stripe, or "star" of white fur on their chest or underside.
What part of a dog can be straight, curly or cork-screwed?
56d5afb81c85041400946dc2
tails
40
False
What does a dog communicate with its tail?
56d5afb81c85041400946dc3
emotional state
191
False
What part of a dog can be straight, curled, or cork-screwed?
56d99ea7dc89441400fdb620
tails
40
False
There are many different shapes for dog tails: straight, straight up, sickle, curled, or cork-screw. As with many canids, one of the primary functions of a dog's tail is to communicate their emotional state, which can be important in getting along with others. In some hunting dogs, however, the tail is traditionally docked to avoid injuries. In some breeds, such as the Braque du Bourbonnais, puppies can be born with a short tail or no tail at all.
What are some dogs prone to?
56d5c9061c85041400946dca
genetic ailments
41
False
What are all dogs susceptible to?
56d5c9061c85041400946dcc
parasites
437
False
Pyometra usually affects what type of female dog?
56d5c9061c85041400946dcd
unspayed
245
False
Who does pyometra affect?
56d9a0cadc89441400fdb637
unspayed females
245
False
What are fleas, ticks and mites called?
56d9a0cadc89441400fdb639
parasites
437
False
Some breeds of dogs are prone to certain genetic ailments such as elbow and hip dysplasia, blindness, deafness, pulmonic stenosis, cleft palate, and trick knees. Two serious medical conditions particularly affecting dogs are pyometra, affecting unspayed females of all types and ages, and bloat, which affects the larger breeds or deep-chested dogs. Both of these are acute conditions, and can kill rapidly. Dogs are also susceptible to parasites such as fleas, ticks, and mites, as well as hookworms, tapeworms, roundworms, and heartworms.
Some foods that are okay for people to eat are what to dogs?
56d5ca321c85041400946dd2
toxic
61
False
Grapes, raisins, onions, garlic and what common sugar alcohol (sweetener) is toxic to dogs?
56d5ca321c85041400946dd3
xylitol
231
False
What type of nut is poisonous to dogs?
56d5ca321c85041400946dd4
macadamia
215
False
What is the chemical in chocolate that is poisonous to dogs?
56d5ca321c85041400946dd5
theobromine
104
False
Some human foods can be what to dogs?
56d9a199dc89441400fdb64e
toxic
61
False
What in tobacco can hurt dogs?
56d9a199dc89441400fdb64f
nicotine
312
False
What form of chocolate is especially toxic to dogs?
56d9a199dc89441400fdb652
dark
890
False
A number of common human foods and household ingestibles are toxic to dogs, including chocolate solids (theobromine poisoning), onion and garlic (thiosulphate, sulfoxide or disulfide poisoning), grapes and raisins, macadamia nuts, xylitol, as well as various plants and other potentially ingested materials. The nicotine in tobacco can also be dangerous. Dogs can get it by scavenging in garbage or ashtrays; eating cigars and cigarettes. Signs can be vomiting of large amounts (e.g., from eating cigar butts) or diarrhea. Some other signs are abdominal pain, loss of coordination, collapse, or death. Dogs are highly susceptible to theobromine poisoning, typically from ingestion of chocolate. Theobromine is toxic to dogs because, although the dog's metabolism is capable of breaking down the chemical, the process is so slow that even small amounts of chocolate can be fatal, especially dark chocolate.
Mutts, dogs that have several breed characteristics, live how much longer than purebred dogs?
56d5cba21c85041400946dde
1.2 years
57
False
Do bigger dogs typically have longer or shorter lives?
56d5cba21c85041400946ddf
shorter
195
False
When was a study done that discovered mixed breeds tend to live longer than pure breeds?
56d9a21edc89441400fdb65a
2013
3
False
Typically, how much longer do mixed breeds live?
56d9a21edc89441400fdb65b
1.2 years longer
57
False
In 2013, a study found that mixed breeds live on average 1.2 years longer than pure breeds, and that increasing body-weight was negatively correlated with longevity (i.e. the heavier the dog the shorter its lifespan).
What is the median lifespan of canines?
56d5cc661c85041400946de2
10 to 13 years.
187
False
The typical lifespan of dogs varies widely among breeds, but for most the median longevity, the age at which half the dogs in a population have died and half are still alive, ranges from 10 to 13 years. Individual dogs may live well beyond the median of their breed.
What is the canine breed with shortest median lifespan?
56d5cd181c85041400946de4
Dogue de Bordeaux
131
False
What is the median length of life for the canine breed that lives the least amount of years?
56d5cd181c85041400946de5
5.2 years
183
False
What is the average lifespan of an Irish Wolfhound?
56d5cd181c85041400946de6
6 to 7 years.
337
False
Which dog has the shortest lifespan?
56d9a294dc89441400fdb662
Dogue de Bordeaux
131
False
What is the average lifespan for a Dogue de Borddeaux?
56d9a294dc89441400fdb663
5.2 years
183
False
The breed with the shortest lifespan (among breeds for which there is a questionnaire survey with a reasonable sample size) is the Dogue de Bordeaux, with a median longevity of about 5.2 years, but several breeds, including Miniature Bull Terriers, Bloodhounds, and Irish Wolfhounds are nearly as short-lived, with median longevities of 6 to 7 years.
What is the average length of years of life for canines with long lifespans?
56d5ceda1c85041400946dea
14 to 15 years.
131
False
What is the name of the canine that is reported to have lived the longest?
56d5ceda1c85041400946deb
Bluey
360
False
What is the name of the dog in the Guinness Book of World Records for longest lived?
56d5ceda1c85041400946dec
Pusuke
468
False
What year did the dog die that is reported to be the longest lived but not officially in a record book?
56d5ceda1c85041400946dee
1939
380
False
What was the name of the dog who lived to be 29.5 years?
56d9a315dc89441400fdb66d
Bluey
360
False
When did Bluey die?
56d9a315dc89441400fdb66e
1939
380
False
Who did the Guinness Book of World Records say was the oldest dog in 2011?
56d9a315dc89441400fdb66f
Pusuke
468
False
The longest-lived breeds, including Toy Poodles, Japanese Spitz, Border Terriers, and Tibetan Spaniels, have median longevities of 14 to 15 years. The median longevity of mixed-breed dogs, taken as an average of all sizes, is one or more years longer than that of purebred dogs when all breeds are averaged. The dog widely reported to be the longest-lived is "Bluey", who died in 1939 and was claimed to be 29.5 years old at the time of his death. On 5 December 2011, Pusuke, the world's oldest living dog recognized by Guinness Book of World Records, died aged 26 years and 9 months.
How many times per year do female dogs go into heat?
56d5d0101c85041400946df5
two
152
False
What does going into heat (estrous) prepare a female dog for?
56d5d0101c85041400946df6
pregnancy.
358
False
Some larger breeds could take how long to become sexually mature?
56d9a527dc89441400fdb681
two years
152
False
What does a female dog experience at sexual maturity?
56d9a527dc89441400fdb682
first estrous cycle
243
False
In domestic dogs, sexual maturity begins to happen around age six to twelve months for both males and females, although this can be delayed until up to two years old for some large breeds. This is the time at which female dogs will have their first estrous cycle. They will experience subsequent estrous cycles biannually, during which the body prepares for pregnancy. At the peak of the cycle, females will come into estrus, being mentally and physically receptive to copulation. Because the ova survive and are capable of being fertilized for a week after ovulation, it is possible for a female to mate with more than one male.
How long do female dogs carry before delivering puppies?
56d5d0cb1c85041400946dfe
58 to 68 days
32
False
What is the average length of dog pregnancy?
56d5d0cb1c85041400946dff
63 days
86
False
What is the average number of pups in a litter?
56d5d0cb1c85041400946e00
about six
168
False
For small dogs, what is the average number of pups in a litter?
56d5d0cb1c85041400946e02
one to four
283
False
What is the average for a dog to bear her litter?
56d9a582dc89441400fdb68a
63 days
86
False
What is the average number of pups per litter?
56d9a582dc89441400fdb68b
six
174
False
Smaller dogs tend to have how many pups per litter?
56d9a582dc89441400fdb68c
one to four
283
False
Dogs bear their litters roughly 58 to 68 days after fertilization, with an average of 63 days, although the length of gestation can vary. An average litter consists of about six puppies, though this number may vary widely based on the breed of dog. In general, toy dogs produce from one to four puppies in each litter, while much larger breeds may average as many as twelve.
What is it called when an animal is altered to prevent procreation?
56d5d6521c85041400946e16
Neutering
0
False
According to the text, what agency recommends altering dogs to prevent pregnancies?
56d5d6521c85041400946e17
the American Society for the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals (ASPCA)
293
False
What is typically surgically removed on male dogs to prevent procreation?
56d5d6521c85041400946e18
testicles
83
False
What is usually removed in female dogs to prevent pregnancy?
56d5d6521c85041400946e19
ovaries and uterus
109
False
In neutering, what is removed in a male dog?
56d9a7b5dc89441400fdb6b2
testicles
83
False
In neutering, what is removed in female dogs?
56d9a7b5dc89441400fdb6b3
ovaries and uterus
109
False
What does the ASPCA recommend for dogs who are not used for breeding purposes?
56d9a7b5dc89441400fdb6b4
neutered
425
False
Neutering refers to the sterilization of animals, usually by removal of the male's testicles or the female's ovaries and uterus, in order to eliminate the ability to procreate and reduce sex drive. Because of the overpopulation of dogs in some countries, many animal control agencies, such as the American Society for the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals (ASPCA), advise that dogs not intended for further breeding should be neutered, so that they do not have undesired puppies that may have to later be euthanized.
Hypersexual behavior in male dogs is diminished by what?
56d5d7fa1c85041400946e24
Neutering
0
False
According to the text, what is a possible side effect of neutering a female dog?
56d5d7fa1c85041400946e26
urinary incontinence
253
False
Female dogs are less likely to develop cancer if what happens?
56d9a9e3dc89441400fdb6bc
Spayed
78
False
What is increased in female dogs with neutering?
56d9a9e3dc89441400fdb6bd
urinary incontinence
253
False
What is increased in male dogs with neutering?
56d9a9e3dc89441400fdb6be
prostate cancer
294
False
Neutering reduces problems caused by hypersexuality, especially in male dogs. Spayed female dogs are less likely to develop some forms of cancer, affecting mammary glands, ovaries, and other reproductive organs. However, neutering increases the risk of urinary incontinence in female dogs, and prostate cancer in males, as well as osteosarcoma, hemangiosarcoma, cruciate ligament rupture, obesity, and diabetes mellitus in either sex.
What is the name of the dog that could ID over 200 things?
56d5d92a1c85041400946e2c
Rico
183
False
What is the name of the Border collie that knew over 1000 words?
56d5d92a1c85041400946e2d
Chaser
517
False
In addition to interpreting body language and verbal commands dogs can also interpret what two other things?
56d5d92a1c85041400946e2e
gesturing and pointing
685
False
What wild canine did better at a problem-solving experiment?
56d5d92a1c85041400946e2f
Australian dingos
849
False
What is one thing, according to the text, that domesticated dogs use humans for?
56d5d92a1c85041400946e30
to solve their problems for them.
1297
False
Perceiving information and retaining it is what?
56d9aa93dc89441400fdb6c2
intelligence
4
False
How many labels does Rico the dog know?
56d9aa93dc89441400fdb6c3
over 200
222
False
What kind of memory skills do dogs have?
56d9aa93dc89441400fdb6c4
advanced
416
False
How many words did Chaser know?
56d9aa93dc89441400fdb6c5
over 1,000
590
False
Dog intelligence is the ability of the dog to perceive information and retain it as knowledge for applying to solve problems. Dogs have been shown to learn by inference. A study with Rico showed that he knew the labels of over 200 different items. He inferred the names of novel items by exclusion learning and correctly retrieved those novel items immediately and also 4 weeks after the initial exposure. Dogs have advanced memory skills. A study documented the learning and memory capabilities of a border collie, "Chaser", who had learned the names and could associate by verbal command over 1,000 words. Dogs are able to read and react appropriately to human body language such as gesturing and pointing, and to understand human voice commands. Dogs demonstrate a theory of mind by engaging in deception. A study showed compelling evidence that Australian dingos can outperform domestic dogs in non-social problem-solving experiment, indicating that domestic dogs may have lost much of their original problem-solving abilities once they joined humans. Another study indicated that after undergoing training to solve a simple manipulation task, dogs that are faced with an insoluble version of the same problem look at the human, while socialized wolves do not. Modern domestic dogs use humans to solve their problems for them.
Dogs are estimated to be domesticated as far back as what date range of years on the calendar?
56d5da871c85041400946e36
9,000–30,000 years BCE
221
False
Dog minds have been shaped by thousands of years of contact with what species?
56d5da871c85041400946e37
humans.
320
False
What do some dog skills parallel in human beings?
56d5da871c85041400946e38
social-cognitive skills of human children
826
False
Dogs are  very well attuned to what other species' behaviors?
56d5da871c85041400946e39
humans.
320
False
Dogs can understand and communicate with what other species?
56d5da871c85041400946e3a
humans.
320
False
What is a dog's responses to stimuli known as?
56d9b01bdc89441400fdb6cc
Dog behavior
0
False
More than any other species, dogs are able to do what with people?
56d9b01bdc89441400fdb6ce
understand and communicate
443
False
Dogs have some social skills that parallel what?
56d9b01bdc89441400fdb6cf
human children
853
False
Dog behavior is the internally coordinated responses (actions or inactions) of the domestic dog (individuals or groups) to internal and/or external stimuli. As the oldest domesticated species, with estimates ranging from 9,000–30,000 years BCE, the minds of dogs inevitably have been shaped by millennia of contact with humans. As a result of this physical and social evolution, dogs, more than any other species, have acquired the ability to understand and communicate with humans and they are uniquely attuned to our behaviors. Behavioral scientists have uncovered a surprising set of social-cognitive abilities in the otherwise humble domestic dog. These abilities are not possessed by the dog's closest canine relatives nor by other highly intelligent mammals such as great apes. Rather, these skills parallel some of the social-cognitive skills of human children.
What is gustatory communication include in dogs?
56d5dcee1c85041400946e4a
scents, pheromones and taste
356
False
People communicate with dogs by voice commands, body language or posture and what else?
56d5dcee1c85041400946e4b
hand signals
439
False
Eye gaze, vocalization and body posture are examples of what?
56d9b06edc89441400fdb6de
Dog communication
0
False
In addition to vocalization and body posture, how do people communicate with dogs?
56d9b06edc89441400fdb6df
hand signals
439
False
Dog communication is about how dogs "speak" to each other, how they understand messages that humans send to them, and how humans can translate the ideas that dogs are trying to transmit.:xii These communication behaviors include eye gaze, facial expression, vocalization, body posture (including movements of bodies and limbs) and gustatory communication (scents, pheromones and taste). Humans communicate with dogs by using vocalization, hand signals and body posture.
Which typically has thicker skin, dogs or wolves?
56d5debf1c85041400946e53
dogs.
160
False
Dogs having ears that are not erect may be due to what?
56d5debf1c85041400946e54
atrophy of the jaw muscles.
1018
False
What kind of features differentiate gray wolves from dogs?
56d9b374dc89441400fdb6e2
diagnostic features
95
False
How often do female wolves enter estrus?
56d9b374dc89441400fdb6e6
once a year.
911
False
Despite their close genetic relationship and the ability to inter-breed, there are a number of diagnostic features to distinguish the gray wolves from domestic dogs. Domesticated dogs are clearly distinguishable from wolves by starch gel electrophoresis of red blood cell acid phosphatase. The tympanic bullae are large, convex and almost spherical in gray wolves, while the bullae of dogs are smaller, compressed and slightly crumpled. Compared to equally sized wolves, dogs tend to have 20% smaller skulls and 30% smaller brains.:35 The teeth of gray wolves are also proportionately larger than those of dogs; the premolars and molars of wolves are much less crowded and have more complex cusp patterns. Wolves do not have dewclaws on their back legs, unless there has been admixture with dogs. Dogs lack a functioning pre-caudal gland, and most enter estrus twice yearly, unlike gray wolves which only do so once a year. Dogs require fewer calories to function than wolves. The dog's limp ears may be the result of atrophy of the jaw muscles. The skin of domestic dogs tends to be thicker than that of wolves, with some Inuit tribes favoring the former for use as clothing due to its greater resistance to wear and tear in harsh weather.
Instead of genetic traits for production, dogs are bred for what?
56d5f6b21c85041400946e64
behaviors.
130
False
How many "fixed" genes demonstrate the differences between the wolf and dog?
56d5f6b21c85041400946e65
11
185
False
The gene differences indicate what two things done by selection in dogs during breeding for domestication?
56d5f6b21c85041400946e66
morphology and behavior
360
False
What is the common trait selected for dogs in overall breeding?
56d5f6b21c85041400946e67
tameness
586
False
What do most dogs show less of than wolves?
56d5f6b21c85041400946e68
fear and aggression
651
False
Most domestic animals were selected for what traits?
56d9b439dc89441400fdb6f6
production-related traits
64
False
Why were dogs initially selected?
56d9b439dc89441400fdb6f7
for their behaviors.
120
False
For wolves and dogs, how many fixed genes show a variation?
56d9b439dc89441400fdb6f8
11
185
False
Dogs show less fear and what as opposed to wolves?
56d9b439dc89441400fdb6f9
aggression
660
False
Unlike other domestic species which were primarily selected for production-related traits, dogs were initially selected for their behaviors. In 2016, a study found that there were only 11 fixed genes that showed variation between wolves and dogs. These gene variations were unlikely to have been the result of natural evolution, and indicate selection on both morphology and behavior during dog domestication. These genes have been shown to have an impact on the catecholamine synthesis pathway, with the majority of the genes affecting the fight-or-flight response (i.e. selection for tameness), and emotional processing. Dogs generally show reduced fear and aggression compared to wolves. Some of these genes have been associated with aggression in some dog breeds, indicating their importance in both the initial domestication and then later in breed formation.
What is the larger count for numbers of dogs considered to populate the planet?
56d5f7181c85041400946e6e
525 million
42
False
How many dogs are estimated to be in the world?
56d9b4b3dc89441400fdb704
525 million
42
False
What are dog population estimates based on other than land uses?
56d9b4b3dc89441400fdb705
human population densities
227
False
The global dog population is estimated at 525 million:225 based on a transparent methodology, as opposed to other estimates where the methodology has not been made available – all dog population estimates are based on regional human population densities and land uses.
Like wolves, big domesticated dogs are considered what type of predator?
56d5f9181c85041400946e7a
apex
43
False
Wolves may act in what behavioral manner when attacking dogs?
56d5f9181c85041400946e7d
fearless
671
False
What animal is reported to be killed more often than sheep by wolves in Croatia?
56d5f9181c85041400946e7e
dogs
20
False
Like wolves, what kind of predators are large dogs?
56d9b5eddc89441400fdb71a
apex
43
False
Dogs die as a result of Croatian wolf encounters more than what kind of animal?
56d9b5eddc89441400fdb71b
sheep
324
False
What limits the feral dog population in Russia?
56d9b5eddc89441400fdb71c
Wolves
331
False
Although large wild dogs, like wolves, are apex predators, they can be killed in territory disputes with wild animals. Furthermore, in areas where both dogs and other large predators live, dogs can be a major food source for big cats or canines. Reports from Croatia indicate wolves kill dogs more frequently than they kill sheep. Wolves in Russia apparently limit feral dog populations. In Wisconsin, more compensation has been paid for dog losses than livestock. Some wolf pairs have been reported to prey on dogs by having one wolf lure the dog out into heavy brush where the second animal waits in ambush. In some instances, wolves have displayed an uncharacteristic fearlessness of humans and buildings when attacking dogs, to the extent that they have to be beaten off or killed.
What large cat has a particular taste for dogs no matter how big the dog is?
56d5fa0e1c85041400946e84
leopards.
318
False
What is a typical predator of dogs in places such as Turkmenistan?
56d5fa0e1c85041400946e85
Striped hyenas
328
False
What two reptiles kill dogs and consume them?
56d5fa0e1c85041400946e86
alligators and pythons
438
False
What big cat has a tendency to attack dogs?
56d9b69cdc89441400fdb726
Leopards
58
False
What big cats in Indonesia also attack dogs?
56d9b69cdc89441400fdb727
Tigers
214
False
What type of reptiles eat dogs?
56d9b69cdc89441400fdb728
alligators and pythons
438
False
What is a known predator of village dogs in India?
56d9b69cdc89441400fdb729
Striped hyenas
328
False
Coyotes and big cats have also been known to attack dogs. Leopards in particular are known to have a predilection for dogs, and have been recorded to kill and consume them regardless of the dog's size or ferocity. Tigers in Manchuria, Indochina, Indonesia, and Malaysia are reputed to kill dogs with the same vigor as leopards. Striped hyenas are major predators of village dogs in Turkmenistan, India, and the Caucasus. Reptiles such as alligators and pythons have been known to kill and eat dogs.
Dogs exhibit carnivore as well as what other type of dietary behavior?
56d5fb031c85041400946e8a
omnivores
145
False
Dogs can digest meat as well as what else?
56d5fb031c85041400946e8c
vegetables and grains
471
False
Cats are known as what type of carnivore?
56d5fb031c85041400946e8e
obligate
163
False
Because of what they eat, dogs are classified as what?
56d9b75edc89441400fdb73a
carnivores or omnivores
131
False
Dogs do not require a very high level of what when eating?
56d9b75edc89441400fdb73b
protein
319
False
Dogs have genes that allow them to thrive on what when compared to wolves, who cannot?
56d9b75edc89441400fdb73c
starch
623
False
Despite their descent from wolves and classification as Carnivora, dogs are variously described in scholarly and other writings as carnivores or omnivores. Unlike obligate carnivores, such as the cat family with its shorter small intestine, dogs can adapt to a wide-ranging diet, and are not dependent on meat-specific protein nor a very high level of protein in order to fulfill their basic dietary requirements. Dogs will healthily digest a variety of foods, including vegetables and grains, and can consume a large proportion of these in their diet. Comparing dogs and wolves, dogs have adaptations in genes involved in starch digestion that contribute to an increased ability to thrive on a starch-rich diet.
The majority of dog breeds have only been around for how long?
56d5fbbd1c85041400946e94
a few hundred years
31
False
People selected dogs they wanted based on what two things?
56d5fbbd1c85041400946e95
particular morphologies and behaviors
94
False
Hundreds of different dog breeds exist because of what?
56d5fbbd1c85041400946e96
selective breeding
186
False
Height measurements in dogs go from six inches for Chihuahuas to 30 inches in what breed?
56d5fbbd1c85041400946e97
Irish Wolfhound
471
False
How old are most dog breeds?
56d9b7e2dc89441400fdb74a
a few hundred years old
31
False
How many different breeds are there?
56d9b7e2dc89441400fdb74b
hundreds
233
False
Gray color is often called what when referring to dogs?
56d9b7e2dc89441400fdb74d
blue
543
False
Most breeds of dog are at most a few hundred years old, having been artificially selected for particular morphologies and behaviors by people for specific functional roles. Through this selective breeding, the dog has developed into hundreds of varied breeds, and shows more behavioral and morphological variation than any other land mammal. For example, height measured to the withers ranges from 15.2 centimetres (6.0 in) in the Chihuahua to about 76 cm (30 in) in the Irish Wolfhound; color varies from white through grays (usually called "blue") to black, and browns from light (tan) to dark ("red" or "chocolate") in a wide variation of patterns; coats can be short or long, coarse-haired to wool-like, straight, curly, or smooth. It is common for most breeds to shed this coat.
Natural selection and what makes certain dogs behave certain ways?
56d5fc2a1c85041400946e9e
selective breeding
67
False
What distinguishes different types of dogs from one another?
56d5fc2a1c85041400946ea0
breed
77
False
Who keeps classifications of different dog breeds?
56d5fc2a1c85041400946ea1
modern kennel clubs.
497
False
What is responsible for different dog types and breeds today?
56d9bf08dc89441400fdb774
natural selection and selective breeding
45
False
Animals that share characteristics that are different than what other animals in that species have is known as what?
56d9bf08dc89441400fdb775
breeds
191
False
Modern dog breeds are what type of classification which is maintained by modern kennel clubs?
56d9bf08dc89441400fdb776
non-scientific
450
False
While all dogs are genetically very similar, natural selection and selective breeding have reinforced certain characteristics in certain populations of dogs, giving rise to dog types and dog breeds. Dog types are broad categories based on function, genetics, or characteristics. Dog breeds are groups of animals that possess a set of inherited characteristics that distinguishes them from other animals within the same species. Modern dog breeds are non-scientific classifications of dogs kept by modern kennel clubs.
The methods kennel clubs used to classify dogs is what?
56d5ff441c85041400946ea6
unsystematic.
148
False
A scientific study of dog genetics has shown only how many  types of dogs being determinably distinct?
56d5ff441c85041400946ea7
four
218
False
What, according to the text, are two examples of "old world" dogs?
56d5ff441c85041400946ea8
Malamute and Shar Pei
332
False
the Border collie is an example of what type of dog?
56d5ff441c85041400946ea9
herding
397
False
How many main types of dogs are there?
56d9bf81dc89441400fdb784
four
218
False
What type of dogs are Shar Peis?
56d9bf81dc89441400fdb785
old world dogs
309
False
What are the other modern and hunting types of dogs called?
56d9bf81dc89441400fdb788
all others
439
False
Purebred dogs of one breed are genetically distinguishable from purebred dogs of other breeds, but the means by which kennel clubs classify dogs is unsystematic. Systematic analyses of the dog genome has revealed only four major types of dogs that can be said to be statistically distinct. These include the "old world dogs" (e.g., Malamute and Shar Pei), "Mastiff"-type (e.g., English Mastiff), "herding"-type (e.g., Border Collie), and "all others" (also called "modern"- or "hunting"-type).
What is one of the complex behaviors pet dogs have gotten from wolves?
56d600eb1c85041400946eb8
bite inhibition
51
False
What may make dogs have the ability to be trained by, play with and fit in with people?
56d600eb1c85041400946eb9
sophisticated forms of social cognition and communication
164
False
Higher social attributes  and human relationships may have caused dogs to reach what as a species?
56d600eb1c85041400946eba
one of the most successful species on the planet today.
431
False
What is a complex behavior that dogs inherited from wolves?
56d9c0c0dc89441400fdb798
bite inhibition
51
False
Domestic dogs inherited complex behaviors, such as bite inhibition, from their wolf ancestors, which would have been pack hunters with complex body language. These sophisticated forms of social cognition and communication may account for their trainability, playfulness, and ability to fit into human households and social situations, and these attributes have given dogs a relationship with humans that has enabled them to become one of the most successful species on the planet today.:pages95-136
Dogs had a worth to what type of early humans?
56d601b61c85041400946ec8
hunter-gatherers
31
False
Dogs have hunted with and done other things for people for a long time, but what is a more recent help to people they provide?
56d601b61c85041400946eca
aiding handicapped individuals.
266
False
Because of a dog's resourcefulness to people, they have been given what nickname?
56d9c11cdc89441400fdb79c
man's best friend
356
False
Some cultures treat dogs as what rather than companions?
56d9c11cdc89441400fdb79d
a source of meat
438
False
The dogs' value to early human hunter-gatherers led to them quickly becoming ubiquitous across world cultures. Dogs perform many roles for people, such as hunting, herding, pulling loads, protection, assisting police and military, companionship, and, more recently, aiding handicapped individuals. This impact on human society has given them the nickname "man's best friend" in the Western world. In some cultures, however, dogs are also a source of meat.
What did dogs clean up to help with keeping habitations of people clean?
56d626661c85041400946f36
food scraps.
156
False
What do Australian aborigines call a frigid night?
56d626661c85041400946f37
three dog night
256
False
What did a dog's good hearing help humans with?
56d626661c85041400946f38
early warning.
424
False
How could dogs have helped with sanitation issues in camps?
56d9c3c7dc89441400fdb7be
cleaning up food scraps
144
False
What is the Australian Aboriginal expression that indicates a very cold night?
56d9c3c7dc89441400fdb7bf
three dog night
256
False
Humans would also have derived enormous benefit from the dogs associated with their camps. For instance, dogs would have improved sanitation by cleaning up food scraps. Dogs may have provided warmth, as referred to in the Australian Aboriginal expression "three dog night" (an exceptionally cold night), and they would have alerted the camp to the presence of predators or strangers, using their acute hearing to provide an early warning.
What type of hunting is it called when humans and dogs hunt together?
56d627261c85041400946f3e
cooperative hunting
401
False
What year was research completed to demonstrate humans benefited by having dogs hunt with them?
56d627261c85041400946f3f
2004
284
False
What would have been the top benefit for dogs in camps?
56d9c483dc89441400fdb7ca
sense of smell
93
False
The successful mixing of dogs with hunting is often given as a primary reason for what?
56d9c483dc89441400fdb7cc
the domestication of the wolf
247
False
Anthropologists believe the most significant benefit would have been the use of dogs' robust sense of smell to assist with the hunt. The relationship between the presence of a dog and success in the hunt is often mentioned as a primary reason for the domestication of the wolf, and a 2004 study of hunter groups with and without a dog gives quantitative support to the hypothesis that the benefits of cooperative hunting was an important factor in wolf domestication.
What type of working dog may have been the reason so many humans were able to get into North America 12,000 tears ago?
56d629291c85041400946f48
sled dogs
160
False
What did ancient people walk across from Siberia into North America?
56d629291c85041400946f49
Bering land bridge
46
False
How old are the oldest findings of dogs in North America?
56d629291c85041400946f4a
9,400 years
373
False
Evidence places dogs in North America when?
56d9c708dc89441400fdb7fa
12,000 years ago
256
False
Dogs were the only domesticated animals for what North American population?
56d9c708dc89441400fdb7fb
Athabascan
438
False
Dogs contributed to what migration 1400 years ago?
56d9c708dc89441400fdb7fc
Apache and Navajo tribes
578
False
People still used dogs as pack animals even after what other animal began being used for this purpose?
56d9c708dc89441400fdb7fd
horse
712
False
Emigrants from Siberia that walked across the Bering land bridge into North America may have had dogs in their company, and one writer suggests that the use of sled dogs may have been critical to the success of the waves that entered North America roughly 12,000 years ago, although the earliest archaeological evidence of dog-like canids in North America dates from about 9,400 years ago.:104 Dogs were an important part of life for the Athabascan population in North America, and were their only domesticated animal. Dogs also carried much of the load in the migration of the Apache and Navajo tribes 1,400 years ago. Use of dogs as pack animals in these cultures often persisted after the introduction of the horse to North America.
A grave from 12,000 BC was found to contain an older person and what else?
56d62acb1c85041400946f54
puppy
325
False
What two species have the most widespread bonding?
56d62acb1c85041400946f55
humans and dogs
65
False
When did more people begin to keep dogs as pets?
56d62acb1c85041400946f56
after World War II
408
False
What decade showed a change in the way people kept dogs as pets?
56d62acb1c85041400946f57
1980s
785
False
In the 1950s and 1960s most dogs where kept where?
56d62acb1c85041400946f58
outside
496
False
Historically, who in particular had dogs as companions?
56d9c9f6dc89441400fdb818
elites
137
False
Dogs were kept where in the 1950s and 1960s as compared to today?
56d9c9f6dc89441400fdb81a
outside
496
False
When did the role of dogs change to be more than guardians or walking companions?
56d9c9f6dc89441400fdb81b
1980s
785
False
"The most widespread form of interspecies bonding occurs between humans and dogs" and the keeping of dogs as companions, particularly by elites, has a long history. (As a possible example, at the Natufian culture site of Ain Mallaha in Israel, dated to 12,000 BC, the remains of an elderly human and a four-to-five-month-old puppy were found buried together). However, pet dog populations grew significantly after World War II as suburbanization increased. In the 1950s and 1960s, dogs were kept outside more often than they tend to be today (using the expression "in the doghouse" to describe exclusion from the group signifies the distance between the doghouse and the home) and were still primarily functional, acting as a guard, children's playmate, or walking companion. From the 1980s, there have been changes in the role of the pet dog, such as the increased role of dogs in the emotional support of their human guardians. People and dogs have become increasingly integrated and implicated in each other's lives, to the point where pet dogs actively shape the way a family and home are experienced.
Shaping dogs to what people want is called what?
56d62ba51c85041400946f68
commodification
93
False
The idea of what constitutes a family, from the human perspective, has enlarged to include what?
56d62ba51c85041400946f69
dogs.
63
False
How many big trends are involved in how much the position of dogs has changed in human civilization?
56d62ba51c85041400946f6a
two
16
False
When a person shapes a dog to conform to his expectations of behavior, it is called what?
56d9ca63dc89441400fdb828
commodification
93
False
A second major trend has been increasing the idea of family and home to include dogs in what?
56d9ca63dc89441400fdb829
everyday routines
304
False
There have been two major trends in the changing status of pet dogs. The first has been the 'commodification' of the dog, shaping it to conform to human expectations of personality and behaviour. The second has been the broadening of the concept of the family and the home to include dogs-as-dogs within everyday routines and practices.
It is easy to turn a canine into the perfect companion because so much of what is available?
56d62c011c85041400946f6e
commodity forms
26
False
Dog training can be researched back to what century?
56d62c011c85041400946f6f
18th
414
False
How do dogs establish their territory as far as scent is concerned?
56d62c011c85041400946f70
urine marking
597
False
How far back can dog training be found?
56d9cadedc89441400fdb82c
18th century
414
False
How do dogs mark their territory?
56d9cadedc89441400fdb82d
urine marking
597
False
What has become important to ensure dogs do not do things that humans don't want them to do, such as jumping?
56d9cadedc89441400fdb82e
training
354
False
There are a vast range of commodity forms available to transform a pet dog into an ideal companion. The list of goods, services and places available is enormous: from dog perfumes, couture, furniture and housing, to dog groomers, therapists, trainers and caretakers, dog cafes, spas, parks and beaches, and dog hotels, airlines and cemeteries. While dog training as an organized activity can be traced back to the 18th century, in the last decades of the 20th century it became a high profile issue as many normal dog behaviors such as barking, jumping up, digging, rolling in dung, fighting, and urine marking (which dogs do to establish territory through scent), became increasingly incompatible with the new role of a pet dog. Dog training books, classes and television programs proliferated as the process of commodifying the pet dog continued.
How do most people describe the relationship with their dogs?
56d62ca31c85041400946f74
part of the family
68
False
What television show uses a dominance model of dog and human relationships?
56d62ca31c85041400946f75
Dog Whisperer.
337
False
Most people today describe their dogs as what?
56d9cb52dc89441400fdb83c
part of the family
68
False
What TV show promotes a dominance model for the relationships people have with their dogs?
56d9cb52dc89441400fdb83d
Dog Whisperer
337
False
The majority of contemporary people with dogs describe their pet as part of the family, although some ambivalence about the relationship is evident in the popular reconceptualization of the dog–human family as a pack. A dominance model of dog–human relationships has been promoted by some dog trainers, such as on the television program Dog Whisperer. However it has been disputed that "trying to achieve status" is characteristic of dog–human interactions. Pet dogs play an active role in family life; for example, a study of conversations in dog–human families showed how family members use the dog as a resource, talking to the dog, or talking through the dog, to mediate their interactions with each other.
A study showed that a task dogs do is bringing in what from the lawn?
56d62d1e1c85041400946f84
newspaper
233
False
Dogs often help clean in the kitchen by licking what?
56d62d1e1c85041400946f85
plates
187
False
In addition to dog dancing, what is another activity that families are doing that is centered around their pet?
56d62d1e1c85041400946f86
dog yoga.
446
False
What do many dogs have to do in the families where they live?
56d9e5a0dc89441400fdb8c0
set tasks or routines
63
False
What are dogs often taught to bring in from outdoors?
56d9e5a0dc89441400fdb8c1
the newspaper
229
False
Another study of dogs' roles in families showed many dogs have set tasks or routines undertaken as family members, the most common of which was helping with the washing-up by licking the plates in the dishwasher, and bringing in the newspaper from the lawn. Increasingly, human family members are engaging in activities centered on the perceived needs and interests of the dog, or in which the dog is an integral partner, such as dog dancing and dog yoga.
The National Pet Owner Survey reported how many people had pet dogs in America between 2009 and 2010?
56d62dc31c85041400946f8a
77.5 million
162
False
How many people in the United States are said to own dog?
56d9e5dfdc89441400fdb8c6
77.5 million
162
False
According to statistics published by the American Pet Products Manufacturers Association in the National Pet Owner Survey in 2009–2010, it is estimated there are 77.5 million people with pet dogs in the United States. The same survey shows nearly 40% of American households own at least one dog, of which 67% own just one dog, 25% two dogs and nearly 9% more than two dogs. There does not seem to be any gender preference among dogs as pets, as the statistical data reveal an equal number of female and male dog pets. Yet, although several programs are undergoing to promote pet adoption, less than a fifth of the owned dogs come from a shelter.
What type of imaging was used to study the relationship between humans and dogs?
56d62e521c85041400946f9c
magnetic resonance imaging
23
False
An MRI study on dogs proved that dogs have the same response as humans to what?
56d62e521c85041400946f9d
voices
123
False
An MRI study on dogs proved that dogs use the same parts of what as humans?
56d62e521c85041400946f9e
the brain
156
False
Because dogs respond to voices the same way humans do, they are able to recognize what in human sounds, making them social?
56d62e521c85041400946f9f
emotion
227
False
What technology was used to show that dogs respond to voices in the same brain parts as people?
56d9e5f9dc89441400fdb8ce
MRI
51
False
Dogs have the ability to recognize what type of human sounds?
56d9e5f9dc89441400fdb8cf
emotional
227
False
The latest study using magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) to humans and dogs together proved that dogs have same response to voices and use the same parts of the brain as humans to do so. This gives dogs the ability to recognize emotional human sounds, making them friendly social pets to humans.
What nickname have dogs earned for their relationship to humans?
56d62f3e1c85041400946fa4
man's best friend
100
False
Pointers and hounds are bred to do what?
56d62f3e1c85041400946fa5
hunt
205
False
Certain dogs are bred to help fishermen with what?
56d62f3e1c85041400946fa6
nets
290
False
Who was the first dog to orbit the earth in 1957?
56d62f3e1c85041400946fa7
Laika
408
False
What breed was Laika?
56d62f3e1c85041400946fa8
husky-terrier mix
384
False
What phrase describing dogs is used in different languages?
56d9e644dc89441400fdb8d2
man's best friend
100
False
What dog types, in the text, are used for hunting?
56d9e644dc89441400fdb8d3
pointers and hounds
219
False
Some dogs help fishermen with what?
56d9e644dc89441400fdb8d4
nets
290
False
What is the name of the dog to first orbit the Earth?
56d9e644dc89441400fdb8d5
Laika
408
False
What year was the first dog sent into space?
56d9e644dc89441400fdb8d6
1957
376
False
Dogs have lived and worked with humans in so many roles that they have earned the unique nickname, "man's best friend", a phrase used in other languages as well. They have been bred for herding livestock, hunting (e.g. pointers and hounds), rodent control, guarding, helping fishermen with nets, detection dogs, and pulling loads, in addition to their roles as companions. In 1957, a husky-terrier mix named Laika became the first animal to orbit the Earth.
What kind of dogs help people with physical or mental disabilities?
56d62f941c85041400946fae
Service dogs
0
False
Early warning allows epileptics to get to safety, get medication or what else?
56d9e67edc89441400fdb8de
medical care.
393
False
Service dogs such as guide dogs, utility dogs, assistance dogs, hearing dogs, and psychological therapy dogs provide assistance to individuals with physical or mental disabilities. Some dogs owned by epileptics have been shown to alert their handler when the handler shows signs of an impending seizure, sometimes well in advance of onset, allowing the guardian to seek safety, medication, or medical care.
What are conformation shows also known as?
56d62ff01c85041400946fb2
breed shows
43
False
Who evaluates dogs at breed shows?
56d62ff01c85041400946fb3
a judge
56
False
What is the judge looking for in specific breeds?
56d62ff01c85041400946fb4
conformity with their established breed
140
False
What is the only standard judged?
56d62ff01c85041400946fb5
externally observable qualities
263
False
What is another word for "breed shows"?
56d9e6b9dc89441400fdb8e2
conformation shows.
442
False
What is the evaluator called in a breed show?
56d9e6b9dc89441400fdb8e3
a judge
56
False
The breed standard only is about what?
56d9e6b9dc89441400fdb8e4
externally observable qualities
263
False
Abilities and what else are not tested at breed shows?
56d9e6b9dc89441400fdb8e5
health
403
False
In conformation shows, also referred to as breed shows, a judge familiar with the specific dog breed evaluates individual purebred dogs for conformity with their established breed type as described in the breed standard. As the breed standard only deals with the externally observable qualities of the dog (such as appearance, movement, and temperament), separately tested qualities (such as ability or health) are not part of the judging in conformation shows.
Where do some people eat dogs?
56d630a31c85041400946fc4
East Asian countries
29
False
In addition to others, Western culture considers eating dog meat as what?
56d630a31c85041400946fc6
taboo.
429
False
In rural Poland areas, what is considered medicinal for lungs?
56d630a31c85041400946fc7
dog fat
495
False
What do people who eat dog meat consider Western culture, since people there do eat many different animals?
56d630a31c85041400946fc8
western hypocrisy
738
False
The West, South Asia and Middle East think eating dogs is what?
56d9e6f0dc89441400fdb8eb
taboo
429
False
Dog fat in some parts of Poland is thought to have what?
56d9e6f0dc89441400fdb8ec
medicinal properties
523
False
Dog meat is consumed in some East Asian countries, including Korea, China, and Vietnam, a practice that dates back to antiquity. It is estimated that 13–16 million dogs are killed and consumed in Asia every year. Other cultures, such as Polynesia and pre-Columbian Mexico, also consumed dog meat in their history. However, Western, South Asian, African, and Middle Eastern cultures, in general, regard consumption of dog meat as taboo. In some places, however, such as in rural areas of Poland, dog fat is believed to have medicinal properties—being good for the lungs for instance. Dog meat is also consumed in some parts of Switzerland. Proponents of eating dog meat have argued that placing a distinction between livestock and dogs is western hypocrisy, and that there is no difference with eating the meat of different animals.
What is the best known Korean dish made with dog meat?
56d6311c1c85041400946fce
gaejang-guk
36
False
What is Gaejang-guk?
56d6311c1c85041400946fcf
a spicy stew
73
False
Why do people eat Gaejang-guk in the summer months?
56d6311c1c85041400946fd0
to balance the body's heat
92
False
What is dog meat boiled with to create Gaejang-guk?
56d6311c1c85041400946fd1
scallions and chili powder.
360
False
When is the Korean dog recipe usually eaten?
56d9e727dc89441400fdb8f3
the summer months
126
False
What are two other ingredients in the dog meat recipe in Korea?
56d9e727dc89441400fdb8f4
scallions and chili powder.
360
False
The most popular Korean dog dish is gaejang-guk (also called bosintang), a spicy stew meant to balance the body's heat during the summer months; followers of the custom claim this is done to ensure good health by balancing one's gi, or vital energy of the body. A 19th century version of gaejang-guk explains that the dish is prepared by boiling dog meat with scallions and chili powder. Variations of the dish contain chicken and bamboo shoots. While the dishes are still popular in Korea with a segment of the population, dog is not as widely consumed as beef, chicken, and pork.
How many people are bitten by dogs every year in America?
56d631b61c85041400946fd6
4.5 million
80
False
During the 1980s and 1990s, how many people were killed annually because of dog bites?
56d631b61c85041400946fd7
17
256
False
In the 2000s, how many people died every year because of dog bites?
56d631b61c85041400946fd8
26
321
False
According to a 2008 CDC report, how many are bitten in the United States annually?
56d9e79adc89441400fdb8f8
4.5 million
80
False
What decade saw an increase from 17 to 26 deaths caused by dogs?
56d9e79adc89441400fdb8fa
2000s
293
False
Citing a 2008 study, the U.S. Center for Disease Control estimated in 2015 that 4.5 million people in the USA are bitten by dogs each year. A 2015 study estimated that 1.8% of the U.S. population is bitten each year. In the 1980s and 1990s the US averaged 17 fatalities per year, while in the 2000s this has increased to 26. 77% of dog bites are from the pet of family or friends, and 50% of attacks occur on the property of the dog's legal owner.
According to a Colorado study, dog bites are what in children as compared to adults?
56d632371c85041400946fe0
less severe
46
False
Out of 10,000 people, how many people are bitten by dogs in the United States?
56d632371c85041400946fe1
12.9
120
False
Out of 10,000 boys between five and nine years old, how many are bitten annually by dogs?
56d632371c85041400946fe2
60.7
197
False
Children are often bit where by dogs?
56d632371c85041400946fe3
the face or neck.
275
False
A dog scratch can lead to what medical condition?
56d632371c85041400946fe4
infections.
396
False
Where was the study done that showed dog bites were less serious in children than adults?
56d9e7e4dc89441400fdb902
Colorado
2
False
About 12.9 out of 10,000 are bit by dogs, but what is the number in 10,000 for young boys from 5 to 9?
56d9e7e4dc89441400fdb903
60.7
197
False
According to the text, dog scratches can cause what?
56d9e7e4dc89441400fdb905
infections.
396
False
A Colorado study found bites in children were less severe than bites in adults. The incidence of dog bites in the US is 12.9 per 10,000 inhabitants, but for boys aged 5 to 9, the incidence rate is 60.7 per 10,000. Moreover, children have a much higher chance to be bitten in the face or neck. Sharp claws with powerful muscles behind them can lacerate flesh in a scratch that can lead to serious infections.
In addition to dogs, what other animal is responsible for over 86,000 falls every year?
56d6328b1c85041400946fea
cats
22
False
Vehicle accidents with resulting injuries that involve dogs are more common with what type of vehicle?
56d6328b1c85041400946fec
two-wheeled vehicles.
361
False
What sort of vehicle is most likely associated with accidents involving dogs?
56d9e518dc89441400fdb8bb
two-wheeled vehicles
361
False
In the United States, cats and dogs are a factor in more than 86,000 falls each year. It has been estimated around 2% of dog-related injuries treated in UK hospitals are domestic accidents. The same study found that while dog involvement in road traffic accidents was difficult to quantify, dog-associated road accidents involving injury more commonly involved two-wheeled vehicles.
What is the common name of the species that causes Toxocariasis?
56d6339d1c85041400946ff0
dog roundworm
16
False
How are Toxicara canis infections spread?
56d6339d1c85041400946ff1
dog feces
39
False
About how many people get a Toxocara infection each year?
56d6339d1c85041400946ff2
10,000
101
False
Toxocariasis can lead to what in humans?
56d6339d1c85041400946ff4
retinal damage and decreased vision.
341
False
Toxocariasis is caused by what kind of eggs in dog feces?
56d9d2e5dc89441400fdb856
roundworm
20
False
What percentage of people in America are infected with the Toxocara infection?
56d9d2e5dc89441400fdb857
14
181
False
How many Toxocara infection cases are reported annually in the US?
56d9d2e5dc89441400fdb858
10,000
101
False
What percentage of soil contained T. canis eggs in Great Britain public parks?
56d9d2e5dc89441400fdb859
24
239
False
If toxocariasis is left untreated, what can happen to a person?
56d9d2e5dc89441400fdb85a
retinal damage and decreased vision
341
False
Toxocara canis (dog roundworm) eggs in dog feces can cause toxocariasis. In the United States, about 10,000 cases of Toxocara infection are reported in humans each year, and almost 14% of the U.S. population is infected. In Great Britain, 24% of soil samples taken from public parks contained T. canis eggs. Untreated toxocariasis can cause retinal damage and decreased vision. Dog feces can also contain hookworms that cause cutaneous larva migrans in humans.
What year did a publication come out indicating having a pet does not mean lower risk of heart disease in the elderly?
56d636bb1c85041400946fff
2005
2
False
What is lowered in children who have pets?
56d636bb1c85041400947000
absenteeism from school
346
False
What year did a report state that research did not support better health for elderly people who own pets?
56d9db72dc89441400fdb864
2005
2
False
A 2005 paper states "recent research has failed to support earlier findings that pet ownership is associated with a reduced risk of cardiovascular disease, a reduced use of general practitioner services, or any psychological or physical benefits on health for community dwelling older people. Research has, however, pointed to significantly less absenteeism from school through sickness among children who live with pets." In one study, new guardians reported a highly significant reduction in minor health problems during the first month following pet acquisition, and this effect was sustained in those with dogs through to the end of the study.
People with dogs get more of what than people with cats or no animals?
56d637a01c85041400947005
exercise
66
False
People with dogs do what more than people who have cats or no pets?
56d9dc00dc89441400fdb86a
exercise
66
False
In addition, people with pet dogs took considerably more physical exercise than those with cats and those without pets. The results provide evidence that keeping pets may have positive effects on human health and behaviour, and that for guardians of dogs these effects are relatively long-term. Pet guardianship has also been associated with increased coronary artery disease survival, with human guardians being significantly less likely to die within one year of an acute myocardial infarction than those who did not own dogs.
What do humans get exposed to with pets that may help them not get sick?
56d638e71c8504140094700c
immune-stimulating microorganisms
308
False
Dogs can act as a facilitator of what between human beings?
56d638e71c8504140094700d
social interactions
623
False
What year was the study done that indicated people with pets are more likely to get to know neighbors?
56d638e71c8504140094700f
2015
823
False
What is lessened when people are with their pet dogs?
56d9ddf4dc89441400fdb86f
anxiety
249
False
People in wheelchairs have better social interactions with who when dogs are involved?
56d9ddf4dc89441400fdb871
strangers
751
False
The health benefits of dogs can result from contact with dogs in general, and not solely from having dogs as pets. For example, when in the presence of a pet dog, people show reductions in cardiovascular, behavioral, and psychological indicators of anxiety. Other health benefits are gained from exposure to immune-stimulating microorganisms, which, according to the hygiene hypothesis, can protect against allergies and autoimmune diseases. The benefits of contact with a dog also include social support, as dogs are able to not only provide companionship and social support themselves, but also to act as facilitators of social interactions between humans. One study indicated that wheelchair users experience more positive social interactions with strangers when they are accompanied by a dog than when they are not. In 2015, a study found that pet owners were significantly more likely to get to know people in their neighborhood than non-pet owners.
Dogs were taken where to help people with mental disorders socialize?
56d639a01c85041400947016
mental institutions
137
False
Therapy dogs can help increase what in people suffering with Alzheimer's?
56d639a01c85041400947017
social behaviors
308
False
What was decreased in children with ADHD when they were exposed to therapy dogs?
56d639a01c85041400947018
antisocial and violent behavior
618
False
When did people start using dogs as therapy?
56d9e23ddc89441400fdb890
the late 18th century
80
False
Where were dogs introduced then to help people socialize people?
56d9e23ddc89441400fdb891
mental institutions
137
False
Children who have ADHD or conduct disorders respond better when what is a part of their treatment plan?
56d9e23ddc89441400fdb892
dogs
22
False
People with Alzheimer's smile and laugh more with what kind of therapy?
56d9e23ddc89441400fdb893
animal-assisted therapy
260
False
The practice of using dogs and other animals as a part of therapy dates back to the late 18th century, when animals were introduced into mental institutions to help socialize patients with mental disorders. Animal-assisted intervention research has shown that animal-assisted therapy with a dog can increase social behaviors, such as smiling and laughing, among people with Alzheimer's disease. One study demonstrated that children with ADHD and conduct disorders who participated in an education program with dogs and other animals showed increased attendance, increased knowledge and skill objectives, and decreased antisocial and violent behavior compared to those who were not in an animal-assisted program.
What can trained dogs detect by sniffing a person or a sample of their urine?
56d63a1e1c8504140094701d
diseases
48
False
How much larger is a dog brain olfactory cortex when compared to humans?
56d63a1e1c8504140094701e
40 times larger
243
False
A dog can detect smells in one part per what?
56d63a1e1c8504140094701f
trillion
165
False
How much larger is a dog's olfactory cortex than a person's?
56d9e308dc89441400fdb899
40 times larger
243
False
How many cancer patients has Daisy detected?
56d9e308dc89441400fdb89b
551
598
False
Medical detection dogs are capable of detecting diseases by sniffing a person directly or samples of urine or other specimens. Dogs can detect odour in one part per trillion, as their brain's olfactory cortex is (relative to total brain size) 40 times larger than humans. Dogs may have as many as 300 million odour receptors in their nose, while humans may have only 5 million. Each dog is trained specifically for the detection of single disease from the blood glucose level indicative to diabetes to cancer. To train a cancer dog requires 6 months. A Labrador Retriever called Daisy has detected 551 cancer patients with an accuracy of 93 percent and received the Blue Cross (for pets) Medal for her life-saving skills.
What is the name of the dog with three heads in Greek mythology?
56d63b2c1c8504140094702f
Cerberus
20
False
What did Cerberus guard?
56d63b2c1c85041400947030
the gates of Hades.
67
False
What is the name of the dog with four eyes in Norse mythology?
56d63b2c1c85041400947031
Garmr
138
False
What is the name of the dog in Philippine mythology who is responsible for lightning?
56d63b2c1c85041400947032
Kimat
252
False
Kimat is the dog of Tadaklan, who is the god of what?
56d63b2c1c85041400947033
thunder
293
False
In what mythology do two canines watch over the Chinvat Bridge?
56d9e3e8dc89441400fdb8a8
Persian
163
False
Who is the three headed watchdog guarding Hades?
56d9e3e8dc89441400fdb8a9
Cerberus
20
False
Who is the dog that guards Helheim?
56d9e3e8dc89441400fdb8aa
Garmr
138
False
Who is Tadaklan?
56d9e3e8dc89441400fdb8ab
god of thunder
286
False
Who is Tadaklan's pet that is responsible for lightning?
56d9e3e8dc89441400fdb8ac
Kimat
252
False
In Greek mythology, Cerberus is a three-headed watchdog who guards the gates of Hades. In Norse mythology, a bloody, four-eyed dog called Garmr guards Helheim. In Persian mythology, two four-eyed dogs guard the Chinvat Bridge. In Philippine mythology, Kimat who is the pet of Tadaklan, god of thunder, is responsible for lightning. In Welsh mythology, Annwn is guarded by Cŵn Annwn.
In Hindu mythology, what do the two dogs who are owned by the god of death watch over?
56d63b901c85041400947039
the gates of Naraka.
111
False
What is the name of the god of death?
56d63b901c8504140094703b
Yama
20
False
Offerings at the Muthappan Temple shrine take on what form?
56d63b901c8504140094703c
bronze dog figurines.
316
False
Who owns two dogs with four eyes each in Hindu mythology?
56d9e452dc89441400fdb8b2
Yama
20
False
What do Yama's dogs watch over?
56d9e452dc89441400fdb8b3
the gates of Naraka
111
False
What does Muthappan use for his hunting dog for?
56d9e452dc89441400fdb8b4
mount
214
False
Offerings left at the Muthappan Temple shrine take on what form?
56d9e452dc89441400fdb8b5
bronze dog figurines
316
False
In Hindu mythology, Yama, the god of death owns two watch dogs who have four eyes. They are said to watch over the gates of Naraka. Hunter god Muthappan from North Malabar region of Kerala has a hunting dog as his mount. Dogs are found in and out of the Muthappan Temple and offerings at the shrine take the form of bronze dog figurines.
How are dogs viewed in Islam?
56d63c501c85041400947041
as unclean
26
False
Why are dogs viewed as unclean in Islam?
56d63c501c85041400947042
scavengers
64
False
What city made owing dogs illegal in 2015?
56d63c501c85041400947043
The Hague
115
False
In Britain, a dog used in a search at a mosque or a home occupied by Muslims must wear what?
56d63c501c85041400947045
leather dog booties
478
False
Why are dogs seen as unclean in Islam?
56d9e156dc89441400fdb886
scavengers
64
False
When did it become illegal for a person to own a dog in The Hague?
56d9e156dc89441400fdb887
2015
79
False
Where did activists want dogs kept out of neighborhoods because it violated religious freedom?
56d9e156dc89441400fdb888
Lérida, Spain
204
False
What are sniffer dogs used by British police allowed to touch instead of a passenger?
56d9e156dc89441400fdb889
their luggage
437
False
In Islam, dogs are viewed as unclean because they are viewed as scavengers. In 2015 city councillor Hasan Küçük of The Hague called for dog ownership to be made illegal in that city. Islamic activists in Lérida, Spain, lobbied for dogs to be kept out of Muslim neighborhoods, saying their presence violated Muslims' religious freedom. In Britain, police sniffer dogs are carefully used, and are not permitted to contact passengers, only their luggage. They are required to wear leather dog booties when searching mosques or Muslim homes.
What do dogs represent to Christians?
56d63cd11c8504140094704b
faithfulness.
243
False
Jewish law dictates that anyone owning a dog must feed the dog before who?
56d63cd11c8504140094704c
themselves
137
False
If a Jewish person owns a dog, he must do what to do the dog before he does it to himself?
56d9dfc9dc89441400fdb880
feed
86
False
What does a dog represent in the Christian culture?
56d9dfc9dc89441400fdb882
faithfulness
243
False
Jewish law does not prohibit keeping dogs and other pets. Jewish law requires Jews to feed dogs (and other animals that they own) before themselves, and make arrangements for feeding them before obtaining them. In Christianity, dogs represent faithfulness.
Three Asian countries see dogs as what?
56d63d3a1c85041400947051
kind protectors.
71
False
What country has the dog as part of its 12 animals that represent years?
56d63d3a1c85041400947052
China
27
False
How are dogs viewed in Asian countries?
56d9de64dc89441400fdb876
as kind protectors
68
False
In Asian countries such as China, Korea, and Japan, dogs are viewed as kind protectors. The role of the dog in Chinese mythology includes a position as one of the twelve animals which cyclically represent years (the zodiacal dog).
Thousands of years ago, dogs were depicted on the walls of what?
56d63d821c85041400947055
caves.
110
False
What scenes were popular in art during the Middle Ages?
56d63d821c85041400947057
Hunting
250
False
Dogs were depicted as art on the walls of what?
56d9df78dc89441400fdb87a
caves
110
False
What kind of art scene was popular in the Middle Ages?
56d9df78dc89441400fdb87b
Hunting scenes
250
False
As relationships between people and dogs got closer, what happened to the art that had dogs in it?
56d9df78dc89441400fdb87c
became more elaborate
141
False
Cultural depictions of dogs in art extend back thousands of years to when dogs were portrayed on the walls of caves. Representations of dogs became more elaborate as individual breeds evolved and the relationships between human and canine developed. Hunting scenes were popular in the Middle Ages and the Renaissance. Dogs were depicted to symbolize guidance, protection, loyalty, fidelity, faithfulness, watchfulness, and love.
Dogs can have the same health issues as who?
56d9a1bbdc89441400fdb658
humans
66
False
Dogs are also vulnerable to some of the same health conditions as humans, including diabetes, dental and heart disease, epilepsy, cancer, hypothyroidism, and arthritis.
Which dog is not able to mount a female dog?
56d9a5d0dc89441400fdb692
Male French Bulldogs
98
False
Some dog breeds have acquired traits through selective breeding that interfere with reproduction. Male French Bulldogs, for instance, are incapable of mounting the female. For many dogs of this breed, the female must be artificially inseminated in order to reproduce.
When these feral dogs are approached by a person, they tend to do this 52% of the time?
56d9b546dc89441400fdb713
run away
360
False
When these feral dogs are approached by a person, they tend to do this 11% of the time?
56d9b546dc89441400fdb714
respond with aggression
378
False
Dog cognition has been studied on what kind of dogs?
56d9b546dc89441400fdb715
pet dogs living in human homes.
610
False
Although it is said that the "dog is man's best friend" regarding 17–24% of dogs in the developed countries, in the developing world they are feral, village or community dogs, with pet dogs uncommon. These live their lives as scavengers and have never been owned by humans, with one study showing their most common response when approached by strangers was to run away (52%) or respond with aggression (11%). We know little about these dogs, nor about the dogs that live in developed countries that are feral, stray or are in shelters, yet the great majority of modern research on dog cognition has focused on pet dogs living in human homes.
What would wolves have gotten from living with humans?
56d9c243dc89441400fdb7aa
significant benefits
54
False
Wolves, and their dog descendants, would have derived significant benefits from living in human camps—more safety, more reliable food, lesser caloric needs, and more chance to breed. They would have benefited from humans' upright gait that gives them larger range over which to see potential predators and prey, as well as color vision that, at least by day, gives humans better visual discrimination. Camp dogs would also have benefited from human tool use, as in bringing down larger prey and controlling fire for a range of purposes.
What has likely led to human success?
56d9c649dc89441400fdb7e3
the domestication of dogs
116
False
The cohabitation of dogs and humans would have greatly improved the chances of survival for early human groups, and the domestication of dogs may have been one of the key forces that led to human success.
Studies that people are better off with dogs have been criticized for being what?
56d9d357dc89441400fdb860
poorly controlled
254
False
People who have cats or dogs make fewer visits where?
56d9d357dc89441400fdb861
to the doctor
596
False
The scientific evidence is mixed as to whether companionship of a dog can enhance human physical health and psychological wellbeing. Studies suggesting that there are benefits to physical health and psychological wellbeing have been criticised for being poorly controlled, and finding that "[t]he health of elderly people is related to their health habits and social supports but not to their ownership of, or attachment to, a companion animal." Earlier studies have shown that people who keep pet dogs or cats exhibit better mental and physical health than those who do not, making fewer visits to the doctor and being less likely to be on medication than non-guardians.
2008_Summer_Olympics_torch_relay
When did the tradition of people carrying the Olympic torch before the Olympic games begin?
56d89c3ebfea0914004b76f1
1936 Summer Olympics.
457
False
How many days did people carry the Olympic torch before the 2008 Summer Olympics?
56d89c3ebfea0914004b76f2
129 days
308
False
What was the theme for the torch relay?
56d89c3ebfea0914004b76f4
one world, one dream
135
False
What did the organizers of the torch relay call it?
56d89c3ebfea0914004b76f5
Journey of Harmony
280
False
What was the 2008 Olympic slogan?
56daf2b6e7c41114004b4b6a
one world, one dream
135
False
Where were the details of the torch relay made known?
56daf2b6e7c41114004b4b6b
Beijing, China.
215
False
What was the torch relay referred to as by organizers?
56daf2b6e7c41114004b4b6c
"Journey of Harmony"
279
False
How many miles was the Olympic torch relayed?
56daf2b6e7c41114004b4b6d
85,000 mi
351
False
The 2008 Summer Olympics torch relay was run from March 24 until August 8, 2008, prior to the 2008 Summer Olympics, with the theme of "one world, one dream". Plans for the relay were announced on April 26, 2007, in Beijing, China. The relay, also called by the organizers as the "Journey of Harmony", lasted 129 days and carried the torch 137,000 km (85,000 mi) – the longest distance of any Olympic torch relay since the tradition was started ahead of the 1936 Summer Olympics.
What day was the Olympic torch lit for the 2008 games?
56d89fbcbfea0914004b76fb
March 24
77
False
Where did the Olympics originate?
56d89fbcbfea0914004b76fc
Olympia, Greece
58
False
When did the Olympic torch reach Beijing?
56d89fbcbfea0914004b76fd
March 31
178
False
How many continents did the torch visit after Beijing?
56d89fbcbfea0914004b76fe
six
250
False
The torch was on what road to symbolize historic links between China and the world?
56d89fbcbfea0914004b76ff
Silk Road
305
False
Where was the Olympic torch lit?
56daf3b2e7c41114004b4b7d
Olympia, Greece
58
False
What date was the Olympic torch lit?
56daf3b2e7c41114004b4b7e
March 24
77
False
What is the name of the stadium in Greece were the torch was taken to?
56daf3b2e7c41114004b4b7f
Panathinaiko Stadium
113
False
What date did the Olympic torch arrive at its destination in China?
56daf3b2e7c41114004b4b80
March 31.
178
False
What mountain was the torch taken up?
56daf3b2e7c41114004b4b81
Mount Everest
446
False
After being lit at the birthplace of the Olympic Games in Olympia, Greece on March 24, the torch traveled to the Panathinaiko Stadium in Athens, and then to Beijing, arriving on March 31. From Beijing, the torch was following a route passing through six continents. The torch has visited cities along the Silk Road, symbolizing ancient links between China and the rest of the world. The relay also included an ascent with the flame to the top of Mount Everest on the border of Nepal and Tibet, China from the Chinese side, which was closed specially for the event.
How many people protested on the San Francisco torch route?
56d8a0ddbfea0914004b7706
hundreds
324
False
How many people protested at the Pyongyang torch route?
56d8a0ddbfea0914004b7707
effectively none
364
False
What were some groups doing along the torch route that was not supportive of the Olympics?
56daf4e0e7c41114004b4b9b
protesting
181
False
Who put out the torch along the route for protection?
56daf4e0e7c41114004b4b9d
Chinese security officials
513
False
In many cities along the North American and European route, the torch relay was protested by advocates of Tibetan independence, animal rights, and legal online gambling, and people protesting against China's human rights record, resulting in confrontations at a few of the relay locations. These protests, which ranged from hundreds of people in San Francisco, to effectively none in Pyongyang, forced the path of the torch relay to be changed or shortened on a number of occasions. The torch was extinguished by Chinese security officials several times during the Paris leg for security reasons, and once in protest in Paris.
Who condemned the various attacks on the torch relay route?
56d8a732bfea0914004b770f
the Chinese government
79
False
In San Francisco, who had a larger presence than the protesters?
56d8a732bfea0914004b7711
supporters
540
False
Who overwhelmed the protesters in Japan?
56d8a732bfea0914004b7712
counter-protesters
639
False
Who amassed in large scale against protesters?
56daf68de7c41114004b4bbf
counter-protesters
639
False
What was said to have occurred between some supporters and protesters?
56daf68de7c41114004b4bc1
skirmishes
698
False
What three areas of the globe were protests reported as not big?
56daf68de7c41114004b4bc2
Latin America, Africa, and Western Asia
800
False
The attacks on the torch in London and Paris were described as "despicable" by the Chinese government, condemning them as "deliberate disruptions... who gave no thought to the Olympic spirit or the laws of Britain and France" and who "tarnish the lofty Olympic spirit", and vowed they would continue with the relay and not allow the protests to "impede the Olympic spirit". Large-scale counter-protests by overseas Chinese and foreign-based Chinese nationals became prevalent in later segments of the relay. In San Francisco, the number of supporters were much more than the number of protesters, and in Australia, Japan, South Korea, the counter-protesters overwhelmed the protesters. A couple of skirmishes between the protesters and supporters were reported. No major protests were visible in the Latin America, Africa, and Western Asia legs of the torch relay.
Who is the president of the International Olympic Committee?
56d8a84abfea0914004b7719
Jacques Rogge
128
False
Athletes wearing what kind of flag at any Olympic venue faced the possibility of expulsion from the Olympics?
56d8a84abfea0914004b771b
Tibetan
241
False
Because of the relay issues, IOC decided to no longer have what in subsequent Olympics?
56d8a84abfea0914004b771d
global relays
474
False
What is the name of the man who said the protesting of the torch relay as a "crisis"?
56daf993e7c41114004b4bed
Jacques Rogge
128
False
What could happen to Olympic sports participants who showed a Tibetan flag at events?
56daf993e7c41114004b4bee
could be expelled
273
False
Who asked that the torch relay be ended?
56daf993e7c41114004b4bef
IOC members.
397
False
What was halted with the torch relay for future Olympics?
56daf993e7c41114004b4bf0
global relays
474
False
Prompted by the chaotic torch relays in Western Europe and North America, the president of the International Olympic Committee, Jacques Rogge described the situation as a "crisis" for the organization and stated that any athletes displaying Tibetan flags at Olympic venues could be expelled from the games. though he stopped short of cancelling the relay altogether despite calls to do so by some IOC members. The outcome of the relay influenced the IOC's decision to scrap global relays in future editions of the games.
The international torch relay was canceled for what event in June 2008?
56d8d444bfea0914004b7723
Paralympic Games
115
False
For what events was the torch relay decided to not be held?
56dafa15e7c41114004b4bf5
Paralympic Games
115
False
In June 2008, the Beijing Games' Organizing Committee announced that the planned international torch relay for the Paralympic Games had been cancelled. The Committee stated that the relay was being cancelled to enable the Chinese government to "focus on the rescue and relief work" following the Sichuan earthquake.
What is the Chinese design used on the Olympic Torch?
56d8d4e7bfea0914004b7727
Lucky Cloud
98
False
What is the Olympic Torch made from?
56d8d4e7bfea0914004b7728
aluminum.
128
False
How much does the Olympic Torch weigh?
56d8d4e7bfea0914004b7729
985 grams
175
False
What is used to light the flame on the Olympic Torch?
56d8d4e7bfea0914004b772b
An ignition key
330
False
What was the design name of the Chinese Olympic Torch?
56dafad1e7c41114004b4bf9
Lucky Cloud
98
False
What metal is the torch constructed from?
56dafad1e7c41114004b4bfa
aluminum.
128
False
What wind speed will the torch flame still stay lit in MPH?
56dafad1e7c41114004b4bfb
37
248
False
How much rainfall in inches per hour can the torch stay lit under?
56dafad1e7c41114004b4bfc
2
145
False
What fuel is used for the torch?
56dafad1e7c41114004b4bfd
propane.
421
False
The Olympic Torch is based on traditional scrolls and uses a traditional Chinese design known as "Lucky Cloud". It is made from aluminum. It is 72 centimetres high and weighs 985 grams. The torch is designed to remain lit in 65 kilometre per hour (37 mile per hour) winds, and in rain of up to 50 millimetres (2 inches) per hour. An ignition key is used to ignite and extinguish the flame. The torch is fueled by cans of propane. Each can will light the torch for 15 minutes. It is designed by a team from Lenovo Group. The Torch is designed in reference to the traditional Chinese concept of the 5 elements that make up the entire universe.
When it was necessary for the Olympic Torch to be on an airplane, which one was used?
56d8d5babfea0914004b7735
a chartered Air China Airbus A330
66
False
What color was the chartered plane?
56d8d5babfea0914004b7736
red and yellow
136
False
When was it decided that Air China would be the official torch carrier?
56d8d5babfea0914004b7737
March 2008
290
False
How many days did the plane travel?
56d8d5babfea0914004b7739
130 days
430
False
What type of aircraft did the Torch team travel in?
56dafc53e7c41114004b4c07
Airbus A330
88
False
What colors was the aircraft painted?
56dafc53e7c41114004b4c08
red and yellow
136
False
What was the name of the airline that transported the Olympic Torch?
56dafc53e7c41114004b4c09
Air China
78
False
How many days did the plane travel with the Torch team?
56dafc53e7c41114004b4c0a
130
430
False
How many different places were visited by the aircraft taking the Torch team?
56dafc53e7c41114004b4c0b
21
447
False
Internationally, the torch and its accompanying party traveled in a chartered Air China Airbus A330 (registered B-6075), painted in the red and yellow colors of the Olympic Games. Air China was chosen by the Beijing Committees of the Olympic Game as the designated Olympic torch carrier in March 2008 for its long-standing participation in the Olympic cause. The plane traveled a total of 137,000 km (85,000 mi) for a duration of 130 days through 21 countries and regions.
How many continents did the torch visit?
56d8d809dc89441400fdb326
six
36
False
What was the stop that was to happen between Ho Chi Minh City and Hong Kong?
56d8d809dc89441400fdb327
Taipei
143
False
The Republic of China felt that the wrong decision could place Taiwan on the same level as what two areas?
56d8d809dc89441400fdb329
Hong Kong and Macau
585
False
The torch route covered six what?
56db003ae7c41114004b4c11
continents
40
False
What government disagreed on the language used to describe the torch route?
56db003ae7c41114004b4c12
Taiwan.
816
False
What two places did Taiwan not want to be considered equal with in the language of the torch's route description?
56db003ae7c41114004b4c14
Hong Kong and Macau
585
False
How many kilometers was the torch supposed to go through Taiwan?
56db003ae7c41114004b4c15
24
795
False
The route carried the torch through six continents from March 2008 to May 2008 to August 2008. The planned route originally included a stop in Taipei between Ho Chi Minh City and Hong Kong, but there was disagreement in Beijing and Taipei over language used to describe whether it was an international or a domestic part of the route. While the Olympic committees of China and Chinese Taipei reached initial consensus on the approach, the government of the Republic of China in Taiwan intervened, stating that this placement could be interpreted as placing Taiwan on the same level as Hong Kong and Macau, an implication it objected to. The Beijing Organizing Committee attempted to continue negotiation, but further disputes arose over the flag or the anthem of the Republic of China along the 24 km torch route in Taiwan. By the midnight deadline for concluding the negotiation on September 21, 2007, Taiwan and China were unable to come to terms with the issue of the Torch Relay. In the end, both sides of the Taiwan Strait decided to eliminate the Taipei leg.
On what date did the Olympic Flame get lit?
56d8d8d0dc89441400fdb330
March 24, 2008
12
False
Where did the Olympic Flame get lit?
56d8d8d0dc89441400fdb331
Olympia, Greece.
691
False
Who was the first person to carry the torch?
56d8d8d0dc89441400fdb332
Alexandros Nikolaidis
279
False
Who initially lit the Olympic Torch?
56d8d8d0dc89441400fdb333
Maria Nafpliotou
125
False
When did demonstrators yell for Tibet to be freed?
56d8d8d0dc89441400fdb334
March 30, 2008
804
False
Where is the location of the original Olympic events?
56db0184e7c41114004b4c1b
Olympia, Greece.
691
False
What is the name of the woman who lit the torch for the new games?
56db0184e7c41114004b4c1c
Maria Nafpliotou
125
False
What medal did the first torchbearer have from prior games?
56db0184e7c41114004b4c1d
silver
222
False
What is the name of the first torchbearer for the 2008 Olympics?
56db0184e7c41114004b4c1e
Alexandros Nikolaidis
279
False
What place had police experience violent problems with protesters?
56db0184e7c41114004b4c1f
Nepal.
1175
False
Greece: On March 24, 2008, the Olympic Flame was ignited at Olympia, Greece, site of the ancient Olympic Games. The actress Maria Nafpliotou, in the role of a High Priestess, ignited the torch of the first torchbearer, a silver medalist of the 2004 Summer Olympics in taekwondo Alexandros Nikolaidis from Greece, who handed the flame over to the second torchbearer, Olympic champion in women's breaststroke Luo Xuejuan from China. Following the recent unrest in Tibet, three members of Reporters Without Borders, including Robert Ménard, breached security and attempted to disrupt a speech by Liu Qi, the head of Beijing's Olympic organising committee during the torch lighting ceremony in Olympia, Greece. The People's Republic of China called this a "disgraceful" attempt to sabotage the Olympics. On March 30, 2008 in Athens, during ceremonies marking the handing over of the torch from Greek officials to organizers of the Beijing games, demonstrators shouted 'Free Tibet' and unfurled banners; some 10 of the 15 protesters were taken into police detention. After the hand-off, protests continued internationally, with particularly violent confrontations with police in Nepal.
Action was taken to boycott which company?
56d8d9cddc89441400fdb33b
Carrefour
234
False
Who was the biggest shareholder of Carrefour?
56d8d9cddc89441400fdb33c
the LVMH Group
417
False
What did some protesters burn?
56d8d9cddc89441400fdb33d
the French flag
1099
False
Where were anti-protesters blocked from entering a Carrefour store with Chinese flags?
56d8d9cddc89441400fdb33e
Kunming
932
False
Who was said to have given money to the Dalai Lama?
56db02f4e7c41114004b4c38
the LVMH Group
417
False
What method did the Chinese government use to ease the boycott situation?
56db02f4e7c41114004b4c39
censorship
694
False
What French company was being boycotted?
56db02f4e7c41114004b4c3a
Carrefour
234
False
China: In China, the torch was first welcomed by Politburo Standing Committee member Zhou Yongkang and State Councilor Liu Yandong. It was subsequently passed onto CPC General Secretary Hu Jintao. A call to boycott French hypermart Carrefour from May 1 began spreading through mobile text messaging and online chat rooms amongst the Chinese over the weekend from April 12, accusing the company's major shareholder, the LVMH Group, of donating funds to the Dalai Lama. There were also calls to extend the boycott to include French luxury goods and cosmetic products. According to the Washington Times on April 15, however, the Chinese government was attempting to "calm the situation" through censorship: "All comments posted on popular Internet forum Sohu.com relating to a boycott of Carrefour have been deleted." Chinese protesters organized boycotts of the French-owned retail chain Carrefour in major Chinese cities including Kunming, Hefei and Wuhan, accusing the French nation of pro-secessionist conspiracy and anti-Chinese racism. Some burned French flags, some added Nazism's Swastika to the French flag, and spread short online messages calling for large protests in front of French consulates and embassy. The Carrefour boycott was met with anti-boycott demonstrators who insisted on entering one of the Carrefour stores in Kunming, only to be blocked by boycotters wielding large Chinese flags and hit by water bottles. The BBC reported that hundreds of people demonstrated in Beijing, Wuhan, Hefei, Kunming and Qingdao.
In what publication were Chinese people asked to be orderly and legal because of the protests and demonstrations?
56d8da16dc89441400fdb344
People's Daily
55
False
What is the name of the publication where Chinese people were advised to be calm and rational about patriotism?
56db0372e7c41114004b4c4b
People's Daily
55
False
The Chinese people were told to show patriotism in an orderly and what manner?
56db0372e7c41114004b4c4c
legal
206
False
In response to the demonstrations, an editorial in the People's Daily urged Chinese people to "express [their] patriotic enthusiasm calmly and rationally, and express patriotic aspiration in an orderly and legal manner".
What virgin site did the torch visit on April 2?
56d8dab9dc89441400fdb346
Almaty
39
False
Who was the first person to be handed the torch in Almaty?
56d8dab9dc89441400fdb347
Nursultan Nazarbaev.
147
False
Who is Nursultan Nazarbaev?
56d8dab9dc89441400fdb348
the President of Kazakhstan
119
False
The route in Almaty went from Medeo Stadium to where?
56d8dab9dc89441400fdb349
Astana Square.
210
False
What kind of activists were arrested in Almaty?
56d8dab9dc89441400fdb34a
Uighur activists
249
False
What country did the torch get to for the first time?
56db0495e7c41114004b4c4f
Kazakhstan
2
False
What is the name of the president who was the first torchbearer in Almaty?
56db0495e7c41114004b4c50
Nursultan Nazarbaev.
147
False
What was the distance in kilometers for the route in Kazakhstan?
56db0495e7c41114004b4c52
20
182
False
What activists were reported to have been arrested?
56db0495e7c41114004b4c53
Uighur
249
False
Kazakhstan: The first torchbearer in Almaty, where the Olympic torch arrived for the first time ever on April 2, was the President of Kazakhstan Nursultan Nazarbaev. The route ran 20 km from Medeo stadium to Astana Square. There were reports that Uighur activists were arrested and some were deported back to China.
When was the torch in Istanbul?
56d8dc9cdc89441400fdb350
April 3
51
False
Where did the torch end up in Istanbul?
56d8dc9cdc89441400fdb351
Taksim Square
106
False
Where did the torch start in Instanbul?
56d8dc9cdc89441400fdb352
Sultanahmet Square
71
False
Who protested for their compatriots who were in Xinjiang?
56d8dc9cdc89441400fdb353
Uyghurs living in Turkey
121
False
What city was the Olympic Torch at on April 3rd?
56db0a87e7c41114004b4cb1
Istanbul
33
False
What is the name of the place in the city where the torch relay started in Turkey?
56db0a87e7c41114004b4cb2
Sultanahmet Square
71
False
Where did the torch relay finish in Turkey?
56db0a87e7c41114004b4cb3
Taksim Square.
106
False
What people in Turkey protested for their people living in China?
56db0a87e7c41114004b4cb4
Uyghurs
121
False
What happened to protesters who tried to interrupt the carrying of the torch?
56db0a87e7c41114004b4cb5
arrested
282
False
Turkey: The torch relay leg in Istanbul, held on April 3, started on Sultanahmet Square and finished in Taksim Square. Uyghurs living in Turkey protested at Chinese treatment of their compatriots living in Xinjiang. Several protesters who tried to disrupt the relay were promptly arrested by the police.
When did the torch arrive in Saint Petersburg?
56d8dd47dc89441400fdb358
April 5
13
False
Where was the start of the torch route in Saint Petersburg?
56d8dd47dc89441400fdb35a
Victory Square
157
False
Where did the torch route end in Saint Petersburg?
56d8dd47dc89441400fdb35b
Palace Square
190
False
Who is the first MMA fighter to participate in carrying the Olympic torch?
56d8dd47dc89441400fdb35c
Fedor Emelianenko
267
False
Where in Russia was the first stop for the relay?
56db0c05e7c41114004b4cca
Saint Petersburg
50
False
What city location did the torch relay begin in Russia?
56db0c05e7c41114004b4ccb
Victory Square
157
False
What was the last location for the relay in Russia?
56db0c05e7c41114004b4ccc
Palace Square.
190
False
What is the name of the MMA fighter who carried the torch in Russia?
56db0c05e7c41114004b4ccd
Fedor Emelianenko
267
False
Russia: On April 5 the Olympic torch arrived at Saint Petersburg, Russia. The length of the torch relay route in the city was 20 km, with the start at the Victory Square and finish at the Palace Square. Mixed martial arts icon and former PRIDE Heavyweight Champion Fedor Emelianenko was one the torch bearers. This gives him the distinction of the being the first active MMA fighter to carry the Olympic flame.
Which city hosted the 2012 Summer Olympics?
56d8decfdc89441400fdb362
London
45
False
When did the torch route begin in London?
56d8decfdc89441400fdb363
April 6
99
False
How much did security cost for the torch relay in London?
56d8decfdc89441400fdb366
£750,000
923
False
What city held the Olympics in 2012?
56db0ce9e7c41114004b4cd3
London
45
False
Where did the torch relay begin in London for the 2008 Olympics?
56db0ce9e7c41114004b4cd4
Wembley Stadium
116
False
Where did the relay end in London?
56db0ce9e7c41114004b4cd5
O2 Arena
192
False
How many miles was the relay in England?
56db0ce9e7c41114004b4cd6
30 mi
245
False
What word was used by London officials to describe Chinese security guards for their treatment of protesters?
56db0ce9e7c41114004b4cd7
thugs
830
False
Great Britain: The torch relay leg held in London, the host city of the 2012 Summer Olympics, on April 6 began at Wembley Stadium, passed through the City of London, and eventually ended at O2 Arena in the eastern part of the city. The 48 km (30 mi) leg took a total of seven and a half hours to complete, and attracted protests by pro-Tibetan independence and pro-Human Rights supporters, prompting changes to the planned route and an unscheduled move onto a bus, which was then briefly halted by protestors. Home Secretary Jacqui Smith has officially complained to Beijing Organising Committee about the conduct of the tracksuit-clad Chinese security guards. The Chinese officials, seen manhandling protesters, were described by both the London Mayor Ken Livingstone and Lord Coe, chairman of the London Olympic Committee as "thugs". A Metropolitan police briefing paper revealed that security for the torch relay cost £750,000 and the participation of the Chinese security team had been agreed in advance, despite the Mayor stating, "We did not know beforehand these thugs were from the security services. Had I known so, we would have said no."
How many torchbearers took part in the London route?
56d8df98dc89441400fdb36c
80
7
False
Who was the first person to hold the torch for the London route?
56d8df98dc89441400fdb36d
Sir Steve Redgrave
35
False
Along with Francesca Martinez, who decided to not carry the torch?
56d8df98dc89441400fdb36e
Richard Vaughan
241
False
Who was outside at 10 Downing Street to welcome the torch without actually touching it?
56d8df98dc89441400fdb36f
Prime Minister Gordon Brown
475
False
Who got emails asking him to boycott the torch relay?
56db0de5e7c41114004b4cdd
Sir Steve Redgrave
35
False
How many people carried the torch in England for the 2008 Olympics?
56db0de5e7c41114004b4cde
80
7
False
What two people in England declined to bear the torch?
56db0de5e7c41114004b4cdf
Francesca Martinez and Richard Vaughan
218
False
Where did Gordon Brown welcome the torch?
56db0de5e7c41114004b4ce0
10 Downing Street
530
False
Where was an attempt made to take the torch?
56db0de5e7c41114004b4ce1
Ladbroke Grove
777
False
Of the 80 torch-bearers in London, Sir Steve Redgrave, who started the relay, mentioned to the media that he had received e-mailed pleas to boycott the event and could "see why they would like to make an issue" of it. Francesca Martinez and Richard Vaughan refused to carry the torch, while Konnie Huq decided to carry it and also speak out against China. The pro-Tibetan Member of Parliament Norman Baker asked all bearers to reconsider. Amid pressure from both directions, Prime Minister Gordon Brown welcomed the torch outside 10 Downing Street without holding or touching it. The London relay saw the torch surrounded by what the BBC described as "a mobile protective ring." Protests began as soon as Redgrave started the event, leading to at least thirty-five arrests. In Ladbroke Grove a demonstrator attempted to snatch the torch from Konnie Huq in a momentary struggle, and in a separate incident, a fire extinguisher was set off near the torch. The Chinese ambassador carried the torch through Chinatown after an unpublicized change to the route amid security concerns. The torch made an unscheduled move onto a bus along Fleet Street amid security concerns and efforts to evade the protesters. In an effort to counter the pro-Tibet protesters and show their support for the 2008 Beijing Olympics, more than 2,000 Chinese also gathered on the torch route and demonstrated with signs, banners and Chinese flags. A large number of supporters were concentrated in Trafalgar Square, displaying the Olympic slogan "One World, One Dream".
When did the torch relay in Paris occur?
56d8e071dc89441400fdb376
April 7
48
False
Where did the Paris route start for the torch relay?
56d8e071dc89441400fdb377
the Eiffel Tower
85
False
Rather than being carried by an athlete, how did the torch end its route in Paris?
56d8e071dc89441400fdb379
by bus
555
False
The flame of the torch was put out when David Douillet was ready to hand it to who?
56d8e071dc89441400fdb37a
Teddy Riner
1898
False
What date did the torch relay begin in France?
56db0f17e7c41114004b4ce7
April 7
48
False
What city in France did the torch relay start at?
56db0f17e7c41114004b4ce8
Paris
33
False
Where location was the torch relay started in the city in Paris?
56db0f17e7c41114004b4ce9
Eiffel Tower
89
False
About how many police were said to have protected the torch in France?
56db0f17e7c41114004b4cea
3,000
1015
False
How many times was the torch put out in France die to security concerns?
56db0f17e7c41114004b4ceb
five
1343
False
France: The torch relay leg in Paris, held on April 7, began on the first level of the Eiffel Tower and finished at the Stade Charléty. The relay was initially supposed to cover 28 km, but it was shortened at the demand of Chinese officials following widespread protests by pro-Tibet and human rights activists, who repeatedly attempted to disrupt, hinder or halt the procession. A scheduled ceremony at the town hall was cancelled at the request of the Chinese authorities, and, also at the request of Chinese authorities, the torch finished the relay by bus instead of being carried by athletes. Paris City officials had announced plans to greet the Olympic flame with peaceful protest when the torch was to reach the French capital. The city government attached a banner reading "Paris defends human rights throughout the world" to the City Hall, in an attempt to promote values "of all humanity and of human rights." Members from Reporters Without Borders turned out in large numbers to protest. An estimated 3,000 French police protected the Olympic torch relay as it departed from the Eiffel Tower and criss-crossed Paris amid threat of protests. Widespread pro-Tibet protests, including an attempt by more than one demonstrator to extinguish the flame with water or fire extinguishers, prompted relay authorities to put out the flame five times (according to the police authorities in Paris) and load the torch onto a bus, at the demand of Chinese officials. This was later denied by the Chinese Ministry of Foreign Affairs, despite video footage broadcast by French television network France 2 which showed Chinese flame attendants extinguishing the torch. Backup flames are with the relay at all times to relight the torch. French judoka and torchbearer David Douillet expressed his annoyance at the Chinese flame attendants who extinguished the torch which he was about to hand over to Teddy Riner: "I understand they're afraid of everything, but this is just annoying. They extinguished the flame despite the fact that there was no risk, and they could see it and they knew it. I don't know why they did it."
Who threw a a Tibetan flag from a City Hall window?
56d8e127dc89441400fdb380
Green Party officials.
137
False
Which torchbearer was in a wheelchair?
56d8e127dc89441400fdb381
Jin Jing
200
False
What was Jin Jing called by ethnic Chinese?
56d8e127dc89441400fdb383
Angel in Wheelchair
551
False
What was stopped due to protest interruptions?
56db1b38e7c41114004b4d29
torch relay ceremony
31
False
What is the name of the handicapped bearer of the torch?
56db1b38e7c41114004b4d2a
Jin Jing
200
False
What did the ethnic Chinese call the disabled torch bearer?
56db1b38e7c41114004b4d2b
Angel in Wheelchair
551
False
Who put a flag of Tibet out of the window at City Hall?
56db1b38e7c41114004b4d2d
Green Party officials.
137
False
Chinese officials canceled the torch relay ceremony amidst disruptions, including a Tibetan flag flown from a window in the City Hall by Green Party officials. The third torchbearer in the Paris leg, Jin Jing, who was disabled and carried the torch on a wheelchair, was assaulted several times by unidentified protestors seemingly from the pro-Tibet independent camp. In interviews, Jin Jing said that she was "tugged at, scratched" and "kicked", but that she "did not feel the pain at the time." She received praise from ethnic Chinese worldwide as "Angel in Wheelchair". The Chinese government gave the comment that "the Chinese respect France a lot" but "Paris [has slapped] its own face."
Which organization planned several protests?
56d8e18ddc89441400fdb38a
Reporters Without Borders
0
False
What did Reporters Without Borders scale in order to put a protest banner on it?
56d8e18ddc89441400fdb38b
the Eiffel Tower
81
False
Which cathedral did Reporters Without Borders hang another protest banner?
56d8e18ddc89441400fdb38c
Notre Dame cathedral
173
False
What was hung from the Eiffel Tower?
56db1ba8e7c41114004b4d39
banner
116
False
Who climbed the Eiffel Tower to hang a protest banner?
56db1ba8e7c41114004b4d3a
Reporters Without Borders
0
False
Where else was a copy of the banner at Eiffel Tower hung?
56db1ba8e7c41114004b4d3b
Notre Dame cathedral.
173
False
Reporters Without Borders organised several symbolic protests, including scaling the Eiffel Tower to hang a protest banner from it, and hanging an identical banner from the Notre Dame cathedral.
Where did hundreds of pro-Tibet protesters meet?
56d8e40fdc89441400fdb390
the Trocadéro
49
False
Who spoke to the media about China's lack of freedom of speech?
56d8e40fdc89441400fdb392
Jane Birkin
195
False
Who is the President of the French Tibetan community that urged protesters to remain peaceful?
56d8e40fdc89441400fdb393
Thupten Gyatso
296
False
Where did pro-Tibetan protesters get together?
56db1cbee7c41114004b4d5d
Trocadéro
53
False
The Trocadéro was not disruptive of the relay and said to have been what?
56db1cbee7c41114004b4d5e
peaceful
120
False
Who, of the Trocadéro protest, spoke to the media?
56db1cbee7c41114004b4d5f
Jane Birkin
195
False
What did the person who spoke to the media at Trocadéro say China lacked?
56db1cbee7c41114004b4d60
freedom of speech
250
False
Several hundred pro-Tibet protesters gathered at the Trocadéro with banners and Tibetan flags, and remained there for a peaceful protest, never approaching the torch relay itself. Among them was Jane Birkin, who spoke to the media about the "lack of freedom of speech" in China. Also present was Thupten Gyatso, President of the French Tibetan community, who called upon pro-Tibet demonstrators to "remain calm, non-violent, peaceful".
What did the political parties request a brief stop in?
56d8e49edc89441400fdb399
the National Assembly's session
230
False
What text was on the banner that the politicians unrolled outside?
56d8e49edc89441400fdb39a
Respect for Human Rights in China
345
False
What did MPs yell when the torch passed them?
56d8e49edc89441400fdb39b
Freedom for Tibet!
492
False
Various French politicians started protests including members of what?
56db1df1e7c41114004b4d7f
Parliament
18
False
All the French political factions requested a temporary halt to what?
56db1df1e7c41114004b4d80
National Assembly's session
234
False
Why did the banner say that was unveiled during the temporary halt?
56db1df1e7c41114004b4d81
Respect for Human Rights in China
345
False
What did the Parliamentary members yell as the relay passed?
56db1df1e7c41114004b4d82
Freedom for Tibet!
492
False
French members of Parliament and other French politicians also organised a protest. All political parties in Parliament—UMP, Socialists, New Centre, Communists, Democratic Movement (centre) and Greens—jointly requested a pause in the National Assembly's session, which was granted, so that MPs could step outside and unfurl a banner which read "Respect for Human Rights in China". The coach containing the torch drove past the National Assembly and the assembled protesting MPs, who shouted "Freedom for Tibet!" several times as it passed.
What did French police take from demonstrators?
56d8e547dc89441400fdb3a0
Tibetan flags
93
False
Which newspaper reported that only the Chinese could express themselves?
56d8e547dc89441400fdb3a1
Libération
141
False
Where was the only place the Tibetan flag could be held?
56d8e547dc89441400fdb3a2
the Trocadéro
295
False
Who was the Minister of the Interior?
56d8e547dc89441400fdb3a3
Michèle Alliot-Marie
336
False
What did French law enforcement take from protesters?
56db1f11e7c41114004b4d9b
Tibetan flags
93
False
Where was the only place Tibetan flags were permitted?
56db1f11e7c41114004b4d9c
the Trocadéro.
295
False
Who said the police acted on their own in taking the flags?
56db1f11e7c41114004b4d9d
Michèle Alliot-Marie
336
False
Who rendered a France 2 camera person unconscious?
56db1f11e7c41114004b4d9e
a police officer
517
False
French police were criticised for their handling of the events, and notably for confiscating Tibetan flags from demonstrators. The newspaper Libération commented: "The police did so much that only the Chinese were given freedom of expression. The Tibetan flag was forbidden everywhere except on the Trocadéro." Minister of the Interior Michèle Alliot-Marie later stated that the police had not been ordered to do so, and that they had acted on their own initiative. A cameraman for France 2 was struck in the face by a police officer, knocked unconscious, and had to be sent to hospital.
Where did the torch start it's North American route?
56d8e665dc89441400fdb3aa
San Francisco
76
False
What day did the torch arrive in San Francisco?
56d8e665dc89441400fdb3ab
April 9
105
False
What is the name of the first North American torchbearer?
56d8e665dc89441400fdb3ac
Lin Li
360
False
The route end was changed from Justin Herman plaza to what?
56d8e665dc89441400fdb3ad
San Francisco International Airport
470
False
Who was the head of the U.S. Olympic Committee?
56d8e665dc89441400fdb3ae
Peter Ueberroth
1330
False
What city in the United States held the 2008 Olympic Torch relay?
56db205be7c41114004b4dbd
San Francisco
76
False
What was the date of the relay in the United States?
56db205be7c41114004b4dbe
April 9.
105
False
What is the name of the person who handed off the torch to the torchbearer in the United States 2008 Olympic relay?
56db205be7c41114004b4dbf
Norman Bellingham
233
False
What is the name of the location where the relay ending event was canceled?
56db205be7c41114004b4dc0
Justin Herman Plaza
400
False
United States of America: The torch relay's North American leg occurred in San Francisco, California on April 9. On the day of the relay officials diverted the torch run to an unannounced route. The start was at McCovey Cove, where Norman Bellingham of the U.S. Olympic Committee gave the torch to the first torchbearer, Chinese 1992 Olympic champion swimmer Lin Li. The planned closing ceremony at Justin Herman Plaza was cancelled and instead, a ceremony was held at San Francisco International Airport, where the torch was to leave for Buenos Aires. The route changes allowed the run to avoid large numbers of China supporters and protesters against China. As people found out there would be no closing ceremony at Justin Herman Plaza, there were angry reactions. One demonstrator was quoted as saying that the route changes were an effort to "thwart any organized protest that had been planned." San Francisco Board of Supervisors President Aaron Peskin, a critic of Mayor Gavin Newsom, said that it was a "cynical plan to please the Bush State Department and the Chinese government because of the incredible influence of money." Newsom, on the other hand, said he felt it was in "everyone's best interest" and that he believed people had been "afforded the right to protest and support the torch" despite the route changes. Peter Ueberroth, head of the U.S. Olympic Committee, praised the route changes, saying, "The city of San Francisco, from a global perspective, will be applauded." People who saw the torch were surprised and cheered as shown from live video of CBS and NBC. The cost to the city for hosting the event was reported to be USD $726,400, nearly half of which has been recovered by private fundraising. Mayor Gavin Newsom said that "exponential" costs associated with mass arrests were avoided by his decision to change the route in consultation with police chief Heather Fong.
Who approved a resolution concerning human rights on April 1, 2008?
56d8e72adc89441400fdb3b4
San Francisco Board of Supervisors
22
False
The concern was over what in China and Tibet?
56d8e72adc89441400fdb3b5
human rights abuses
408
False
What date was the protest which was led by Gere and Tutu?
56d8e72adc89441400fdb3b7
April 8
461
False
When was a resolution agreed to about Chinese human rights issues in San Francisco?
56db2356e7c41114004b4dfb
April 1, 2008
3
False
Who approved the resolution?
56db2356e7c41114004b4dfc
San Francisco Board of Supervisors
22
False
Where was a protest planned in San Francisco?
56db2356e7c41114004b4dfe
United Nations Plaza
529
False
What actor was scheduled to attend a San Francisco Olympic protest?
56db2356e7c41114004b4dff
Richard Gere
563
False
On April 1, 2008, the San Francisco Board of Supervisors approved a resolution addressing human rights concerns when the Beijing Olympic torch arrives in San Francisco on April 9. The resolution would welcome the torch with "alarm and protest at the failure of China to meet its past solemn promises to the international community, including the citizens of San Francisco, to cease the egregious and ongoing human rights abuses in China and occupied Tibet." On April 8, numerous protests were planned including one at the city's United Nations Plaza led by actor Richard Gere and Archbishop Desmond Tutu.
Three protester climbed what to hang two banners on April 7, 2008?
56d8e7d8dc89441400fdb3bd
Golden Gate Bridge
353
False
Laurel Sutherlin spoke to which TV station about his concerns?
56d8e7d8dc89441400fdb3be
KPIX-CBS5
565
False
Who asked that the San Francisco relay route be shortened?
56db2495e7c41114004b4e05
China
143
False
What famous bridge had two banners hung from it by protesters?
56db2495e7c41114004b4e06
Golden Gate Bridge
353
False
Who spoke to station KPIX-CBS5 about the bridge banner protests?
56db2495e7c41114004b4e07
Laurel Sutherlin
513
False
How many supporters face charges for the bridge stunt?
56db2495e7c41114004b4e08
five
883
False
How many activists may be charged with crimes for the bridge stunt?
56db2495e7c41114004b4e09
three
278
False
Some advocates for Tibet, Darfur, and the spiritual practice Falun Gong, planned to protest the April 9 arrival of the torch in San Francisco. China had already requested the torch route in San Francisco be shortened. On April 7, 2008, two days prior to the actual torch relay, three activists carrying Tibetan flags scaled the suspension cables of the Golden Gate Bridge to unfurl two banners, one saying "One World, One Dream. Free Tibet", and the other, "Free Tibet '08". Among them was San Francisco resident Laurel Sutherlin, who spoke to the local TV station KPIX-CBS5 live from a cellphone, urging the International Olympic Committee to ask China not to allow the torch to go through Tibet. "Sutherlin said he was worried that the torch's planned route through Tibet would lead to more arrests and Chinese officials would use force to stifle dissent." The three activists and five supporters face charges related to trespassing, conspiracy and causing a public nuisance.
Where did the first relay runner disappear to with the torch??
56d8e895dc89441400fdb3c5
a warehouse
250
False
Which wheelchair-bound torchbearer was ejected from the relay for showing a Tibetan flag?
56d8e895dc89441400fdb3c8
Andrew Michael
1037
False
What wheelchair-bound bearer of the Olympic torch displayed a Tibetan flag?
56db2747e7c41114004b4e31
Andrew Michael
1037
False
Where was the last part of the San Francisco torch relay carried through before getting on a bus?
56db2747e7c41114004b4e32
Marina district
1515
False
Where was a makeshift closing ceremony held for the torch relay in San Francisco?
56db2747e7c41114004b4e33
San Francisco International Airport
1560
False
After the bearer of the torch disappeared into a warehouse, what road did the relay reappear on?
56db2747e7c41114004b4e34
Van Ness Avenue
708
False
The torch was lit at a park outside at AT&T Park at about 1:17 pm PDT (20:17 UTC), briefly held aloft by American and Chinese Olympic officials. The relay descended into confusion as the first runner in the elaborately planned relay disappeared into a warehouse on a waterfront pier where it stayed for a half-an-hour. There were clashes between thousands of pro-China demonstrators, many of whom said they were bused in by the Chinese Consulate and other pro-China groups, and both pro-Tibet and Darfur protesters. The non-Chinese demonstrators were reported to have been swamped and trailed by angry crowds. Around 2 pm PDT (21:00 UTC), the torch resurfaced about 3 km (1.9 mi) away from the stadium along Van Ness Avenue, a heavily trafficked thoroughfare that was not on official route plans. Television reports showed the flame flanked by motorcycles and uniformed police officers. Two torchbearers carried the flame running slowly behind a truck and surrounded by Olympic security guards. During the torch relay, two torchbearers, Andrew Michael who uses a wheelchair and is the Vice President for Sustainable Development for the Bay Area Council and Director of Partnerships For Change, and an environmental advocate, Majora Carter, managed to display Tibetan flags in protest, resulting in their ejection from the relay. The closing ceremony at Justin Herman Plaza was canceled due to the presence of large numbers of protesters at the site. The torch run ended with a final stretch through San Francisco's Marina district and was then moved by bus to San Francisco International Airport for a makeshift closing ceremony at the terminal, from which the free media was excluded. San Jose Mercury News described the "deceiving" event as "a game of Where's Waldo, played against the landscape of a lovely city." International Olympic Committee President Jacques Rogge said the San Francisco relay had "fortunately" avoided much of the disruptions that marred the legs in London and Paris, but "was, however, not the joyous party that we had wished it to be."
When did the Olympic torch relay begin in Buenos Aires?
56d8e922dc89441400fdb3ce
April 11
68
False
Where did the torch route start in Buenos Aires?
56d8e922dc89441400fdb3cf
the Lola Mora amphitheatre
109
False
Who was the mayor of Buenos Aires?
56d8e922dc89441400fdb3d0
Mauricio Macri
203
False
Where did the Olympic torch relay begin in Argentina?
56db2841e7c41114004b4e4f
Buenos Aires
35
False
What place held an opening show for the relay?
56db2841e7c41114004b4e50
Lola Mora amphitheatre
113
False
What is the name of the mayor who passed off the torch to the first bearer in Argentina?
56db2841e7c41114004b4e51
Mauricio Macri
203
False
Who was the first bearer of the torch in Argentina?
56db2841e7c41114004b4e52
Carlos Espínola.
259
False
What was showered along the route in some places?
56db2841e7c41114004b4e53
confetti
1083
False
Argentina: The torch relay leg in Buenos Aires, Argentina, held on April 11, began with an artistic show at the Lola Mora amphitheatre in Costanera Sur. In the end of the show the mayor of Buenos Aires Mauricio Macri gave the torch to the first torchbearer, Carlos Espínola. The leg finished at the Buenos Aires Riding Club in the Palermo district, the last torchbearer being Gabriela Sabatini. The 13.8 km route included landmarks like the obelisk and Plaza de Mayo. The day was marked by several pro-Tibet protests, which included a giant banner reading "Free Tibet", and an alternative "human rights torch" that was lit by protesters and paraded along the route the flame was to take. Most of these protests were peaceful in nature, and the torch was not impeded. Chinese immigrants also turned out in support of the Games, but only minor scuffles were reported between both groups. Runners surrounded by rows of security carried the Olympic flame past thousands of jubilant Argentines in the most trouble-free torch relay in nearly a week. People showered the parade route with confetti as banks, government offices and businesses took an impromptu half-day holiday for the only Latin American stop on the flame's five-continent journey.
What is the name of the activist who promised peaceful protests?
56d9618ddc89441400fdb3d9
Jorge Carcavallo
229
False
What route was planned for an alternative march?
56d9618ddc89441400fdb3da
from the Obelisk to the city hall
436
False
What was on the banner that was displayed where the torchbearers would carry the torch?
56d9618ddc89441400fdb3db
Free Tibet
537
False
What is the name of the protester who said they would not try to extinguish the torch?
56db2941e7c41114004b4e6b
Jorge Carcavallo.
229
False
Where did the other march travel form and to?
56db2941e7c41114004b4e6c
Obelisk to the city hall
445
False
What was the name given to the torch carried on the alternative march?
56db2941e7c41114004b4e6d
Human Rights Torch.
492
False
What did the large banner say that was along the alternative march route?
56db2941e7c41114004b4e6e
Free Tibet
537
False
What was the unsanctioned alternative relay called?
56db2941e7c41114004b4e6f
Human Rights Torch Relay
632
False
Argentine activists told a news conference that they would not try to snuff out the torch's flame as demonstrators had in Paris and London. "I want to announce that we will not put out the Olympic torch," said pro-Tibet activist Jorge Carcavallo. "We'll be carrying out surprise actions throughout the city of Buenos Aires, but all of these will be peaceful." Among other activities, protesters organized an alternative march that went from the Obelisk to the city hall, featuring their own "Human Rights Torch." A giant banner reading "Free Tibet" was also displayed on the torch route. According to a representative from the NGO 'Human Rights Torch Relay', their objective was to "show the contradiction between the Olympic Games and the presence of widespread human rights violations in China"
Who was the outreach director of HRTR?
56d96652dc89441400fdb3e2
Susan Prager
31
False
What was the non profit that was funded by Mark Palmer?
56d96652dc89441400fdb3e3
Friends of Falun Gong
84
False
Which footballer decided to not be a torchbearer because of the controversy?
56d96652dc89441400fdb3e4
Diego Maradona
271
False
How many police officers were in place to avoid controversy along the torch route?
56d96652dc89441400fdb3e5
1200
572
False
What was thrown to try and put out the flame?
56d96652dc89441400fdb3e6
water balloons
774
False
What is Susan Prager communication director of?
56db2b7fe7c41114004b4e8d
Friends of Falun Gong
84
False
What football star backed out due to relay controversy?
56db2b7fe7c41114004b4e8e
Diego Maradona
271
False
How many police officers were part of the security operative?
56db2b7fe7c41114004b4e8f
1200
572
False
What was tossed at the torch trying to put it out?
56db2b7fe7c41114004b4e90
water balloons
774
False
The protests were considered to be overall what in nature?
56db2b7fe7c41114004b4e91
peaceful
686
False
The outreach director of HRTR, Susan Prager, is also the communication director of "Friends of Falun Gong", a quasi-government non-profit funded by fmr. Congressman Tom Lanto's wife and Ambassador Mark Palmer of NED. A major setback to the event was caused by footballer Diego Maradona, scheduled to open the relay through Buenos Aires, pulling out in an attempt to avoid the Olympic controversy. Trying to avoid the scenes that marred the relay in the UK, France and the US, the city government designed a complex security operative to protect the torch relay, involving 1200 police officers and 3000 other people, including public employees and volunteers. Overall, the protests were peaceful in nature, although there were a few incidents such as the throwing of several water balloons in an attempt to extinguish the Olympic flame, and minor scuffles between Olympic protesters and supporters from Chinese immigrant communities.
Where was the only African destination for the torch?
56d966bbdc89441400fdb3ec
Dar es Salaam
11
False
When did the torch arrive in Dar es Salaam?
56d966bbdc89441400fdb3ed
April 13
65
False
Where did the route start for the torch in Dar es Salaam?
56d966bbdc89441400fdb3ee
the TAZARA Railway
116
False
Where was the solitary place the relay was held in Africa?
56db2c84e7c41114004b4ea7
Dar es Salaam
11
False
What is the name of the railway where the Olympic torch relay began in Africa?
56db2c84e7c41114004b4ea8
TAZARA
120
False
Where did the relay terminate in Africa?
56db2c84e7c41114004b4ea9
Benjamin Mkapa National Stadium
247
False
What country paid for the stadium through aid money?
56db2c84e7c41114004b4eaa
China
146
False
Who it the torch in Africa?
56db2c84e7c41114004b4eab
Vice-President Ali Mohamed Shein.
353
False
Tanzania: Dar es Salaam was the torch's only stop in Africa, on April 13. The relay began at the grand terminal of the TAZARA Railway, which was China's largest foreign aid project of the 1970s, and continued for 5 km through the old city to the Benjamin Mkapa National Stadium in Temeke, which was built with Chinese aid in 2005. The torch was lit by Vice-President Ali Mohamed Shein. About a thousand people followed the relay, waving the Olympic flag. The only noted instance of protest was Nobel Peace Prize laureate Wangari Maathai's withdrawal from the list of torchbearers, in protest against human rights abuses in Tibet.
Which Middle East location was the only area the torch visited?
56d9670fdc89441400fdb3f6
Muscat
21
False
When did the torch arrive in Muscat?
56d9670fdc89441400fdb3f8
April 14
77
False
Which actress carried the torch for part of the route?
56d9670fdc89441400fdb3f9
Sulaf Fawakherji
195
False
Where was the only place the Olympic torch was carried in the Middle East?
56db2ce6e7c41114004b4ebf
Muscat
21
False
How far was the relay route in kilometers in the Middle East?
56db2ce6e7c41114004b4ec0
20
105
False
What is the name of the Syrian actress who was one to bear the torch?
56db2ce6e7c41114004b4ec1
Sulaf Fawakherji.
195
False
Sultanate of Oman: Muscat was the torch's only stop in the Middle East, on April 14. The relay covered 20 km. No protests or incidents were reported. One of the torchbearers was Syrian actress Sulaf Fawakherji.
When did the torch arrive in Islamabad?
56d967bbdc89441400fdb3fe
April 16
75
False
Where was an indoor ceremony held since the outdoor relay was cancelled?
56d967bbdc89441400fdb401
Jinnah Stadium
563
False
Who spoke at the opening ceremony in Islamabad in addition to President Musharraf?
56d967bbdc89441400fdb402
Prime Minister Yousaf Raza Gillani
116
False
Where did the Olympic torch relay start in Pakistan?
56db2d05e7c41114004b4ec5
Islamabad
38
False
Instead of a traditinal relay, where was the track the torch was carried in Pakistan?
56db2e27e7c41114004b4ee7
Jinnah Stadium.
563
False
Pakistan: The Olympic torch reached Islamabad for the first time ever on April 16. President Pervez Musharraf and Prime Minister Yousaf Raza Gillani spoke at the opening ceremony of the relay. Security was high, for what one newspaper called the "most sensitive leg" of the torch's Olympic journey. The relay was initially supposed to carry the torch around Islamabad, but the entire relay was cancelled due to security concerns regarding "militant threats or anti-China protests", and replaced by an indoors ceremony with the torch carried around the track of Jinnah Stadium. In fear of violent protests and bomb attacks, the torch relay in Pakistan took place in a stadium behind closed doors. Although the relay was behind closed doors, thousands of policemen and soldiers guarded the flame. As a consequence, no incidents arose.
When did the torch visit New Delhi?
56d96856dc89441400fdb408
April 17
82
False
How many runners carried the torch in New Delhi?
56d96856dc89441400fdb40a
70
162
False
Which football captain did not participate in the relay to show support for Tibet?
56d96856dc89441400fdb40b
Baichung Bhutia
630
False
How many torchbearers did not participate because of their concerns with Tibet?
56d96856dc89441400fdb40c
five
290
False
Where did the torch relay happen in India?
56db2f9be7c41114004b4ef9
New Delhi
69
False
How long was the route in India in miles?
56db2f9be7c41114004b4efa
1.5
125
False
How many bearers of the torch were used in India?
56db2f9be7c41114004b4efb
70
162
False
How many bearers decided not to participate?
56db2f9be7c41114004b4efc
five
290
False
What is the name of the footballer who refused to be a part of the relay?
56db2f9be7c41114004b4efd
Baichung Bhutia
630
False
India: Due to concerns about pro-Tibet protests, the relay through New Delhi on April 17 was cut to just 2.3 km (less than 1.5 miles), which was shared amongst 70 runners. It concluded at the India Gate. The event was peaceful due to the public not being allowed at the relay. A total of five intended torchbearers -Kiran Bedi, Soha Ali Khan, Sachin Tendulkar, Bhaichung Bhutia and Sunil Gavaskar- withdrew from the event, citing "personal reasons", or, in Bhutia's case, explicitly wishing to "stand by the people of Tibet and their struggle" and protest against the PRC "crackdown" in Tibet. Indian national football captain, Baichung Bhutia refused to take part in the Indian leg of the torch relay, citing concerns over Tibet. Bhutia, who is Sikkimese, is the first athlete to refuse to run with the torch. Indian film star Aamir Khan states on his personal blog that the "Olympic Games do not belong to China" and confirms taking part in the torch relay "with a prayer in his heart for the people of Tibet, and ... for all people across the world who are victims of human rights violations". Rahul Gandhi, son of the Congress President Sonia Gandhi and scion of the Nehru-Gandhi family, also refused to carry the torch.
The security given to the torch relay in New Delhi is reminiscent of the security of what?
56d96901dc89441400fdb412
Republic Day celebrations
158
False
The Chinese presented a list of vulnerable relay locations to who?
56d96901dc89441400fdb413
Nirupama Sen.
396
False
Who supposedly cancelled a trip to Beijing in protest?
56d96901dc89441400fdb414
India's Commerce Minister
654
False
Who was said to have canceled an official trip to China in protest?
56db30ebe7c41114004b4f03
Kamal Nath
681
False
At what time in the middle of the night was the diplomat summoned?
56db30ebe7c41114004b4f04
2 am
549
False
The Olympic relay had the same security precautions taken as what other special day?
56db30ebe7c41114004b4f05
Republic Day
158
False
What kind of targets do Republic Day events present as?
56db30ebe7c41114004b4f06
terrorist targets.
206
False
Wary of protests, the Indian authorities have decided to shorten the route of the relay in New Delhi, and have given it the security normally associated with Republic Day celebrations, which are considered terrorist targets. Chinese intelligence's expectations of points on the relay route that would be particularly 'vulnerable' to protesters were presented to the Indian ambassador to Beijing, Nirupama Sen. The Indian media responded angrily to the news that the ambassador, a distinguished lady diplomat, was summoned to the Foreign Ministry at 2 am local time; the news was later denied by anonymous sources in Delhi. The Indian media reported that India's Commerce Minister, Kamal Nath, cancelled an official trip to Beijing in protest, though both Nath and Chinese sources have denied it.
How many people comprised the Tibetan exile community?
56d969badc89441400fdb418
150,000
72
False
India refused China's request that the Tibetan exile community be avoided because they said India is what?
56d969badc89441400fdb419
a democracy
232
False
Where is the exiled Tibetan government?
56d969badc89441400fdb41a
India
0
False
How many Tibetan exiles are said to be in India?
56db3241e7c41114004b4f27
150,000
72
False
A wholesale ban on what was denied?
56db3241e7c41114004b4f28
protests
269
False
What Olympic group was denied by India?
56db3241e7c41114004b4f29
Olympic Holy Flame Protection Unit
387
False
What deteriorated between India and China?
56db3241e7c41114004b4f2a
relations
474
False
Who said they did not support relay interruptions?
56db3241e7c41114004b4f2b
the Tibetan government in exile
520
False
India rejected Chinese demands that the torch route be clear of India's 150,000-strong Tibetan exile community, by which they required a ban on congregation near the curtailed 3 km route. In response Indian officials said India was a democracy, and "a wholesale ban on protests was out of the question". Contradicting some other reports, Indian officials also refused permission to the "Olympic Holy Flame Protection Unit". The combined effect is a "rapid deterioration" of relations between India and China. Meanwhile, the Tibetan government in exile, which is based in India, has stated that it did not support the disruption of the Olympic torch relay.
Who did not want to participate in the relay as 'caged woman'?
56d96a31dc89441400fdb420
Kiran Bedi
83
False
Where was Bedi retired from?
56d96a31dc89441400fdb421
Indian Police Service
47
False
Which actress decided to not participate on April 15?
56d96a31dc89441400fdb422
Soha Ali Khan
212
False
When did a protest in Delhi occur to protest against Chinese repression in Tibet?
56d96a31dc89441400fdb423
April 16
307
False
What retired police officer refused to carry the torch in India?
56db3337e7c41114004b4f31
Kiran Bedi
83
False
What actress removed herself from participation in the relay?
56db3337e7c41114004b4f32
Soha Ali Khan
212
False
Where was a protest organized about the Olympic relay in India?
56db3337e7c41114004b4f33
Delhi
344
False
Who disbanded the protest in Delhi?
56db3337e7c41114004b4f34
police.
414
False
The retired police officer said she would not run as what?
56db3337e7c41114004b4f35
caged woman
166
False
The noted Indian social activist and a retired Indian Police Service (IPS) officer Kiran Bedi refused to participate saying "she doesn’t want to run in the event as ‘caged woman’." On April 15, Bollywood actress Soha Ali Khan pulled out of the Olympic torch relay, citing “very strong personal reasons”. On April 16, a protest was organised in Delhi "against Chinese repression in Tibet", and was broken up by the police.
When did the Olympic torch reach Bangkok?
56d96ab0dc89441400fdb428
April 18
16
False
Who is the Green World Foundation chairwoman who refused to participate in the relay?
56d96ab0dc89441400fdb42a
M.R. Narisa Chakrabongse
268
False
The media was told that the Chinese supplied with shirts and transportation?
56d96ab0dc89441400fdb42b
students
937
False
When did the torch go through Bankok?
56db3449e7c41114004b4f3b
April 18
16
False
The relay route was a little over how many kilometers?
56db3449e7c41114004b4f3c
10
124
False
Who were told they would be banned from reentering Thailand?
56db3449e7c41114004b4f3e
foreign protesters
532
False
What scheduled bearer of the torch boycotted?
56db3449e7c41114004b4f3f
Mom Rajawongse Narissara Chakrabongse
821
False
Thailand: The April 18 relay through Bangkok was the Olympic flame's first visit to Thailand. The relay covered just over 10 km, and included Bangkok's Chinatown. The torch was carried past Democracy Monument, Chitralada Palace and a number of other city landmarks. M.R. Narisa Chakrabongse, Green World Foundation (GWF) chairwoman, withdrew from the torch-running ceremony, protesting against China's actions in Tibet. Several hundred protesters were present, along with Olympic supporters. Thai authorities threatened to arrest foreign protesters and ban them from future entry into Thailand. A coalition of Thai human rights groups announced that it would organise a "small demonstration" during the relay, and several hundred people did indeed take part in protests, facing Beijing supporters. Intended torchbearer Mom Rajawongse Narissara Chakrabongse boycotted the relay, to protest against China's actions in Tibet. In Bangkok, students told the media that the Chinese Embassy provided them with transportation and gave them shirts to wear.
When did the torch visit Malaysia?
56d96b3edc89441400fdb430
April 21
69
False
What is the capital city of Malaysia?
56d96b3edc89441400fdb431
Kuala Lumpur
52
False
Where did the route begin in Malaysia?
56d96b3edc89441400fdb433
Independence Square
126
False
Prior to the 2008 games, when did Malaysia last see an Olympic torch relay?
56d96b3edc89441400fdb434
1964
563
False
What is the location of the start of the relay in Malaysia?
56db3546e7c41114004b4f46
Independence Square
126
False
Where did the relay end in Malaysia?
56db3546e7c41114004b4f47
Petronas Twin Towers.
227
False
What year was the last torch relay event in Malaysia?
56db3546e7c41114004b4f48
1964
563
False
How many Special Police protected the relay event?
56db3546e7c41114004b4f49
1000
386
False
Malaysia: The event was held in the capital city, Kuala Lumpur, on April 21. The 16.5 km long-relay began from the historic Independence Square, passed in front of several city landmarks before coming to an end at the iconic Petronas Twin Towers. Among the landmarks the Olympic flame passed next to were the Parliament House, National Mosque, KL Tower and Merdeka Stadium. A team of 1000 personnel from the Malaysian police Special Action Squad guarded the event and escorted the torchbearers. The last time an Olympic torch relay was held in Malaysia was the 1964 Tokyo edition.
Which supporters protested near the Chinese embassy in Malaysia?
56d96bdbdc89441400fdb43a
Falun Gong
41
False
Supporters of what demonstrated at the Chinese embassy in Malaysia?
56db3639e7c41114004b4f4f
Falun Gong
41
False
What were a Japanese family who unveiled a Tibetan flag hit with?
56db3639e7c41114004b4f50
plastic air-filled batons
379
False
What did the Chinese group yell?
56db3639e7c41114004b4f51
Taiwan and Tibet belong to China.
551
False
What did Chinese volunteers take from two Malaysian demonstrators?
56db3639e7c41114004b4f53
placards
652
False
Just days before the relay supporters of Falun Gong demonstrated in front of the Chinese embassy in the Malaysian capital. As many as 1,000 personnel from the special police unit were expected to be deployed on the day of the relay. A Japanese family with Malaysian citizenship and their 5-year-old child who unfurled a Tibetan flag were hit by a group of Chinese nationals with plastic air-filled batons and heckled by a crowd of Chinese citizens during the confrontation at Independence Square where the relay began, and the Chinese group shouted: "Taiwan and Tibet belong to China." Later during the day, the Chinese volunteers forcefully took away placards from two other Malaysians protesting at the relay. One of the protesting Malaysian was hit in the head.
When did the Olympic torch visit Jakarta?
56d96c56dc89441400fdb440
April 22
50
False
Who requested that the original route be cancelled?
56d96c56dc89441400fdb443
the Chinese embassy
160
False
Along with invited people, who were the only other people allowed in the stadium?
56d96c56dc89441400fdb444
journalists
587
False
Where did the torch relay begin in Indonesia?
56db36f7e7c41114004b4f59
Jakarta
39
False
How many kilometers was the planned route that was cancelled?
56db36f7e7c41114004b4f5a
20
73
False
Why was the first route not taken?
56db36f7e7c41114004b4f5b
security worries
123
False
What type of facility was the torch carried at instead.
56db36f7e7c41114004b4f5c
stadium.
428
False
Where did protests occur when non one except invited guests and the press were allowed inside the stadium?
56db36f7e7c41114004b4f5d
outside the stadium.
653
False
Indonesia: The Olympic flame reached Jakarta on April 22. The original 20 km relay through Jakarta was cancelled due to "security worries", at the request of the Chinese embassy, and the torch was instead carried round the city main's stadium, as it had been in Islamabad. Several dozen pro-Tibet protesters gathered near the stadium, and were dispersed by the police. The event was held in the streets around the city main's stadium. The cancelling of the relay through the city itself was decided due to security concerns and at the request of the Chinese embassy. Only invitees and journalists were admitted inside the stadium. Protests took place outside the stadium.
When did the torch arrive in Canberra?
56d96d01dc89441400fdb44a
April 24
77
False
Who received the flame from Chinese officials in Canberra?
56d96d01dc89441400fdb44c
Agnes Shea
298
False
What did Agnes Shea give to the Chinese in return?
56d96d01dc89441400fdb44d
a message stick
362
False
Who publicly argued at a press conference?
56d96d01dc89441400fdb44e
Australian and Chinese officials
698
False
Where was the relay held in Australia?
56db37c5e7c41114004b4f63
Canberra
35
False
How many kilometers was the route in Australia?
56db37c5e7c41114004b4f64
16
106
False
What was the location of the beginning of the Olympic torch route in Australia?
56db37c5e7c41114004b4f65
Reconciliation Place
146
False
Who kept the demonstrators separated?
56db37c5e7c41114004b4f66
Australian Federal Police.
562
False
What is the name of the Aboriginal elder who received the torch from Chinese officials?
56db37c5e7c41114004b4f67
Agnes Shea
298
False
Australia: The event was held in Canberra, Australian Capital Territory on April 24, and covered around 16 km of Canberra's central areas, from Reconciliation Place to Commonwealth Park. Upon its arrival in Canberra, the Olympic flame was presented by Chinese officials to local Aboriginal elder Agnes Shea, of the Ngunnawal people. She, in turn, offered them a message stick, as a gift of peace and welcome. Hundreds of pro-Tibet protesters and thousands of Chinese students reportedly attended. Demonstrators and counter-demonstrators were kept apart by the Australian Federal Police. Preparations for the event were marred by a disagreement over the role of the Chinese flame attendants, with Australian and Chinese officials arguing publicly over their function and prerogatives during a press conference.
Who did the Chinese want to deploy to Canberra to protect the flame?
56d96e76dc89441400fdb454
People's Liberation Army personnel
94
False
Chinese Australian students were told to defend what against scum and separatists?
56d96e76dc89441400fdb456
sacred torch
500
False
Who was the chairman of the Australian Council of Chinese Organisations?
56d96e76dc89441400fdb457
Tony Goh
575
False
Who was the Foreign Minister who said he was okay with protests as long as they were peaceful?
56d96e76dc89441400fdb458
Stephen Smith
1065
False
What group did China want along the relay route in Canberra?
56db3994e7c41114004b4f6d
People's Liberation Army
94
False
Who was given permission to search attendees of the relay?
56db3994e7c41114004b4f6e
Australian police
315
False
Who said that thousands of pro-Beijing supporters would be bused in?
56db3994e7c41114004b4f6f
Tony Goh
575
False
Who told the media that Chinese diplomats were arranging a "peaceful show of strength"?
56db3994e7c41114004b4f70
Zhang Rongan
769
False
Who was the Foreign Minister who indicated Chinese officials wanted supporting demonstrators to show up and show their point of view?
56db3994e7c41114004b4f71
Stephen Smith
1065
False
Following the events in Olympia, there were reports that China requested permission to deploy People's Liberation Army personnel along the relay route to protect the flame in Canberra. Australian authorities stated that such a request, if it were to be made, would be refused. Chinese officials labeled it a rumor. Australian police have been given powers to search relay spectators, following a call by the Chinese Students and Scholars Association for Chinese Australian students to "go defend our sacred torch" against "ethnic degenerate scum and anti-China separatists". Tony Goh, chairman of the Australian Council of Chinese Organisations, has said the ACCO would be taking "thousands" of pro-Beijing demonstrators to Canberra by bus, to support the torch relay. Zhang Rongan, a Chinese Australian student organising pro-Beijing demonstrations, told the press that Chinese diplomats were assisting with the organization of buses, meals and accommodation for pro-Beijing demonstrators, and helping them organise a "peaceful show of strength". Foreign Minister Stephen Smith said Chinese officials were urging supporters to "turn up and put a point of view", but that he had no objection to it as long as they remained peaceful.
Who withdrew as a torchbearer because of her concerns about human rights?
56d96ec6dc89441400fdb45e
Lin Hatfield Dodds
21
False
Who said Dodds' withdrawal was a good example of peacefully protesting?
56d96ec6dc89441400fdb45f
Foreign Minister Stephen Smith
146
False
Who withdrew from the torch event?
56db6be6e7c41114004b50d1
Lin Hatfield Dodds
21
False
Who was the foreign minister that said her decision was a good example of peacefully making a point?
56db6be6e7c41114004b50d3
Stephen Smith
163
False
Intended torchbearer Lin Hatfield Dodds withdrew from the event, explaining that she wished to express concern about China's human rights record. Foreign Minister Stephen Smith said her decision was "a very good example of peacefully making a point".
Who was the head of the Canberra torch relay committee?
56d96fb4dc89441400fdb462
Ted Quinlan
176
False
How many supporters of Tibet were expected in Canberra to protest?
56d96fb4dc89441400fdb464
600
6
False
ACT Chief Minister Jon Stanhope said which organization intended to ensure that China supporters outweighed Tibet supporters?
56d96fb4dc89441400fdb465
the Chinese embassy
501
False
Which athlete carried the torch for the final leg?
56d96fb4dc89441400fdb466
Ian Thorpe
685
False
How many supporters of Tibet were expected to attend the torch relay?
56db6c7ce7c41114004b50d7
Up to 600
0
False
It was thought that how many Chinese supporters would attend the torch relay?
56db6c7ce7c41114004b50d8
between 2,000 and 10,000
77
False
Who did not expect that reaction from the Chinese community?
56db6c7ce7c41114004b50d9
Ted Quinlan
176
False
Who was involved to ensure the pro Chinese demonstrators outweighed the Tibetan demonstrators?
56db6c7ce7c41114004b50da
the Chinese embassy
501
False
Up to 600 pro-Tibet protesters were expected to attend the relay, along with between 2,000 and 10,000 Chinese supporters. Taking note of the high number of Chinese supporters, Ted Quinlan, head of the Canberra torch relay committee, said: "We didn't expect this reaction from the Chinese community. It is obviously a well-coordinated plan to take the day by weight of numbers. But we have assurances that it will be done peacefully.". Also, Australia's ACT Chief Minister, Jon Stanhope confirmed that the Chinese embassy was closely involve to ensure that "pro-China demonstrators vastly outnumbered Tibetan activists." Australian freestyle swimmer and five-time Olympic gold medalist Ian Thorpe ended the Australian leg of the torch relay April 24, 2008, touching the flame to light a cauldron after a run that was only marginally marked by protests. People demonstrated both for China and for Tibet. At least five people were arrested during the torch relay. Police said "the five were arrested for interfering with the event under special powers enacted in the wake of massive protests against Chinese policy toward Tibet." At one point, groups of Chinese students surrounded and intimidated pro-Tibet protesters. One person had to be pulled aboard a police launch when a group of pro-Chinese students looked like they might force him into the lake.
Who hosted the 1998 Winter Olympics?
56d97098dc89441400fdb46c
Nagano
31
False
When did the torch arrive in Nagano?
56d97098dc89441400fdb46d
April 26
81
False
Where was the torch relay held in Japan?
56db6d76e7c41114004b50e1
Nagano
31
False
Which Olympics did Nagano host?
56db6d76e7c41114004b50e2
1998 Winter Olympics
56
False
What location was supposed to be the start of the relay event in Nagano?
56db6d76e7c41114004b50e3
Japanese Buddhist temple Zenkō-ji
91
False
When monks pulled out of the event, where was the new starting point for the relay?
56db6d76e7c41114004b50e4
a municipal building
631
False
How many Chinese guards were allowed to go with the torch?
56db6d76e7c41114004b50e5
two
1603
False
Japan: The event was held in Nagano, which hosted the 1998 Winter Olympics, on April 26. Japanese Buddhist temple Zenkō-ji, which was originally scheduled to be the starting point for the Olympic torch relay in Nagano, refused to host the torch and pulled out of the relay plans, amid speculation that monks there sympathized with anti-Chinese government protesters. as well as the risk of disruption by violent protests. Parts of Zenkō-ji temple's main building (Zenkō-ji Hondō), reconstructed in 1707 and one of the National Treasures of Japan, was then vandalized with spraypaint. A new starting point, previously the site of a municipal building and now a parking lot, was chosen by the city. An event the city had planned to hold at the Minami Nagano Sports Park following the torch relay was also canceled out of concern about disruptions caused by demonstrators protesting against China's recent crackdown in Tibet. Thousands of riot police were mobilized to protect the torch along its route. The show of force kept most protesters in check, but slogans shouted by pro-China or pro-Tibet demonstrators, Japanese nationalists, and human rights organizations flooded the air. Five men were arrested and four injured amidst scenes of mob violence. The torch route was packed with mostly peaceful demonstrators. The public was not allowed at the parking lot where the relay started. After the Zenkoji monks held a prayer ceremony for victims of the recent events in Tibet. More than 100 police officers ran with the torch and riot police lined the streets while three helicopters flew above. Only two Chinese guards were allowed to accompany the torch because of Japan's concern over their treatment of demonstrators at previous relays. A man with a Tibetan flag tried to stop the torch at the beginning of the relay but was dragged off by police. Some raw eggs were also thrown from the crowd.
Where was the torch relay event held in South Korea?
56d97163dc89441400fdb476
Seoul
36
False
When did Seoul host the Olympics?
56d97163dc89441400fdb477
1988 Summer Olympics
60
False
Where was the start point for the relay?
56d97163dc89441400fdb479
Olympic Park
324
False
Who became violent during the relay route and was promised deportation when caught?
56d97163dc89441400fdb47a
Chinese students
435
False
Where was the relay event held in South Korea?
56db6df1e7c41114004b50eb
Seoul
36
False
Which Olympics did Seoul host?
56db6df1e7c41114004b50ec
1988 Summer Olympics
60
False
South Korea: The event was held in Seoul, which hosted the 1988 Summer Olympics, on April 27. Intended torchbearers Choi Seung-kook and Park Won-sun boycotted the event to protest against the Chinese government's crackdown in Tibet. More than 8,000 riot police were deployed to guard the 24-kilometre route, which began at Olympic Park, which was built when Seoul hosted the 1988 Summer Games. On the day of the torch relay in Seoul, Chinese students clashed with protesters, throwing rocks, bottles, and punches. A North Korean defector whose brother defected to China but was captured and executed by the DPRK, attempted to set himself on fire in protest of China's treatment of North Korean refugees. He poured gasoline on himself but police quickly surrounded him and carried him away. Two other demonstrators tried to storm the torch but failed. Fighting broke out near the beginning of the relay between a group of 500 Chinese supporters and approximately 50 protesters who carried a banner that read: "Free North Korean refugees in China." The students threw stones and water bottles as approximately 2,500 police tried to keep the groups separated. Police said they arrested five people, including a Chinese student who was arrested for allegedly throwing rocks. Thousands of Chinese followed the torch on its 4.5 hour journey, some chanting, "Go China, go Olympics!" By the end of the relay, Chinese students became violent, and it was reported in Korean media that they were "lynching" everyone who was disagreeing with them. One police man was also rushed to hospital after being attacked by Chinese students. On Apr 29, the Secretary of Justice, Kim Kyung Han, told the prime minister that he will find "every single Chinese who was involved and bring them to justice." Later in the day, South Korea's Prosecutor's Office, National Police Agency, Ministry of Foreign Affairs and National Intelligence Service made a joint statement saying that they will be deporting every Chinese student that was involved in the incident. China defended the conduct of the students.
When did the torch arrive in Pyongyang?
56d971ebdc89441400fdb480
April 28
50
False
Who presided over the torch event in North Korea?
56d971ebdc89441400fdb481
Kim Yong Nam
416
False
Who was the first torchbearer in North Korea?
56d971ebdc89441400fdb482
Pak Du Ik
630
False
Where did the relay start?
56d971ebdc89441400fdb484
the Juche Tower
815
False
Where was the relay event held in North Korea?
56db6e95e7c41114004b50f5
Pyongyang.
740
False
What date did the torch relay event take place?
56db6e95e7c41114004b50f6
April 28.
50
False
What did people in the crowd wave at the beginning of the relay?
56db6e95e7c41114004b50f7
pink paper flowers and small flags
162
False
Who was the first runner with the torch?
56db6e95e7c41114004b50f8
Pak Du Ik
630
False
North Korea: The event was held in Pyongyang on April 28. It was the first time that the Olympic torch has traveled to North Korea. A crowd of thousands waving pink paper flowers and small flags with the Beijing Olympics logo were organized by the authoritarian regime watched the beginning of the relay in Pyongyang, some waving Chinese flags. The event was presided over by the head of the country's parliament, Kim Yong Nam. The North, an ally of China, has been critical of disruptions to the torch relay elsewhere and has supported Beijing in its actions against protests in Tibet. Kim passed the torch to the first runner Pak Du Ik, who played on North Korea's 1966 World Cup soccer team, as he began the 19-kilometre route through Pyongyang. The relay began from the large sculpted flame of the obelisk of the Juche Tower, which commemorates the national ideology of Juche, or "self-reliance", created by the country's late founding President Kim Il Sung, father of leader Kim Jong Il, who did not attend.
The United Nations Organization and UNICEF felt the relay could be used as what?
56d97261dc89441400fdb48a
a propaganda stunt.
245
False
North Korea is often listed among the worst offenders in the world in what regard?
56d97261dc89441400fdb48b
against human rights.
410
False
What is the children's agency of the United Nations Organization?
56db6f0ce7c41114004b50ff
UNICEF
58
False
Both organizations withdrew what?
56db6f0ce7c41114004b5100
their staff
74
False
What is the mission of the organizations?
56db6f0ce7c41114004b5101
raising awareness of conditions for children
150
False
Who is often listed amongst the world's worst offenders when it comes to human rights?
56db6f0ce7c41114004b5102
North Korea
343
False
The United Nations Organization and its children's agency UNICEF withdrew their staff, saying that it wasn't sure the event would help its mission of raising awareness of conditions for children and amid concerns that the relay would be used as a propaganda stunt. "It was unconscionable," said a UN official who was briefed on the arguments. North Korea is frequently listed among the world’s worst offenders against human rights.
When did the torch arrive in Vietnam?
56d972eadc89441400fdb48e
April 29
52
False
Where was the torch event held in Vietnam?
56d972eadc89441400fdb48f
Ho Chi Minh City
32
False
How many torchbearers carried the torch in Vietnam?
56d972eadc89441400fdb490
60
67
False
Where did the torch event begin in Vietnam?
56d972eadc89441400fdb491
the downtown Opera House
106
False
Where did the torch event end?
56d972eadc89441400fdb492
the Military Zone 7 Competition Hall stadium
134
False
Where was the torch event held in Vietnam?
56db6ae2e7c41114004b50bd
Ho Chi Minh City.
608
False
What areas are involved in the dispute between Vietnam and China?
56db6ae2e7c41114004b50be
the Spratly and Paracel Islands
344
False
The Chinese government established what city in this disputed area?
56db6ae2e7c41114004b50bf
Sansha
501
False
As a result, demonstrations were held in what two cities in December 2007?
56db6ae2e7c41114004b50c0
Hanoi and Ho Chi Minh City.
598
False
Who was the Prime Minister of Vietnam?
56db6ae2e7c41114004b50c1
Nguyễn Tấn Dũng
784
False
Vietnam: The event was held in Ho Chi Minh City on April 29. Some 60 torchbearers carried the torch from the downtown Opera House to the Military Zone 7 Competition Hall stadium near Tan Son Nhat International Airport along an undisclosed route. Vietnam is involved in a territorial dispute with China (and other countries) for sovereignty of the Spratly and Paracel Islands; tensions have risen recently[when?] following reports that the Chinese government had established a county-level city named Sansha in the disputed territories, resulting in anti-Chinese demonstrations in December 2007 in Hanoi and Ho Chi Minh City. However to sustain its relationship with China the Vietnamese government has actively sought to head off protests during the torch relay, with Prime Minister Nguyễn Tấn Dũng warning government agencies that "hostile forces" may try to disrupt the torch relay.
How many people protesting China were arrested in Hanoi prior to the rally?
56d973fedc89441400fdb498
seven
20
False
Which blogger calling for demonstrations was arrested for tax evasion?
56d973fedc89441400fdb499
Điếu Cày
277
False
Which torchbearer sent a letter of protest to the president of the International Olympic Committee?
56d973fedc89441400fdb49a
Lê Minh Phiếu
542
False
How many protesters were arrested in Hanoi prior to the rally?
56db6b68e7c41114004b50c7
seven
20
False
What is blogger Điếu Cày's real name?
56db6b68e7c41114004b50c8
Nguyễn Văn Hải
297
False
Though he urged for demonstrations in Vietnam, Nguyễn Văn Hải was charged with what crime?
56db6b68e7c41114004b50c9
tax evasion.
431
False
What is the name of the torchbearer who wrote a letter to the IOC president about discrepancies on a website?
56db6b68e7c41114004b50ca
Lê Minh Phiếu
542
False
What was removed from the website that Lê Minh Phiếu had written about?
56db6b68e7c41114004b50cb
disputed islands and dotted lines marking China's maritime claims
1001
False
Prior to the rally, seven anti-China protestors were arrested in Hanoi after unfurling a banner and shouting "Boycott the Beijing Olympics" through a loudhailer at a market. A Vietnamese American was deported for planning protests against the torch, while a prominent blogger, Điếu Cày (real name Nguyễn Văn Hải), who blogged about protests around the world and who called for demonstrations in Vietnam, was arrested on charges of tax evasion. Outside Vietnam, there were protests by overseas Vietnamese in Paris, San Francisco and Canberra. Lê Minh Phiếu, a torchbearer who is a Vietnamese law student studying in France, wrote a letter to the president of the International Olympic Committee protesting China's "politicisation of the Olympics", citing maps of the torch relay at the official Beijing Olympic website depicting the disputed islands as Chinese territory and posted it on his blog. One day before the relay was to start, the official website appeared to have been updated to remove the disputed islands and dotted lines marking China's maritime claims in the South China Sea.
When did the torch arrive in Hong Kong?
56d9749adc89441400fdb4a0
May 2
47
False
Who was the first torchbearer in Hong Kong?
56d9749adc89441400fdb4a1
Lee Lai Shan
215
False
Where was the torch event started in Hong Kong?
56d9749adc89441400fdb4a2
Hong Kong Cultural Centre
82
False
Where did the torch relay end in Hong Kong?
56d9749adc89441400fdb4a3
Golden Bauhinia Square in Wan Chai
521
False
How many torchbearers participated in the relay event in Hong Kong?
56d9749adc89441400fdb4a4
120
568
False
When was the relay event held in Hong Kong?
56db7092e7c41114004b5107
May 2.
47
False
Who handed the torch to Lee Lai Shan, the first torchbearer?
56db7092e7c41114004b5108
Donald Tsang
142
False
What was used to get the torch across the Shing Mun River?
56db7092e7c41114004b5109
a dragon boat
330
False
How many torchbearers carried the torch?
56db7092e7c41114004b510a
120
568
False
The torchbearers included athletes, celebrities and who?
56db7092e7c41114004b510b
pro-Beijing camp politicians.
667
False
Hong Kong: The event was held in Hong Kong on May 2. In the ceremony held at the Hong Kong Cultural Centre in Tsim Sha Tsui, Chief Executive Donald Tsang handed the torch to the first torchbearer, Olympic medalist Lee Lai Shan. The torch relay then traveled through Nathan Road, Lantau Link, Sha Tin (crossed Shing Mun River via a dragon boat, which had been never used before in the history of Olympic torch relays), Victoria Harbour (crossed by Tin Hau, a VIP vessel managed by the Marine Department) before ending in Golden Bauhinia Square in Wan Chai. A total of 120 torchbearers were selected to participate in the event consisting of celebrities, athletes and pro-Beijing camp politicians. No politicians from the pro-democracy camp were selected as torchbearers. One torchbearer could not participate due to flight delay. It was estimated that more than 200,000 spectators came out and watched the relay. Many enthusiastic supporters wore red shirts and waved large Chinese flags. According to Hong Kong Chief Secretary for Administration Henry Tang, 3,000 police were deployed to ensure order.
What did Hong Kong Alliance in Support of Patriotic Democratic Movements in China members wave to symbolize democracy?
56d97560dc89441400fdb4aa
plastic Olympic flames
215
False
This group wanted accountability for what 1989 event?
56d97560dc89441400fdb4ab
Tiananmen Square protests
312
False
Who wrapped a Tibetan flag around her body and later waved it?
56d97560dc89441400fdb4ac
Christina Chan
1242
False
Who removed Chan from the protest?
56d97560dc89441400fdb4ad
police
1531
False
Why is Chan suing the Hong Kong government?
56d97560dc89441400fdb4ae
her human rights were breached.
1640
False
Some people waved plastic inflated flames, saying they symbolize what?
56db70ebe7c41114004b5111
democracy.
266
False
Who was proud that Hong Kong still has brave people speaking out?
56db70ebe7c41114004b5112
Leung Kwok-hung
446
False
What did radio host Christina Chan wear before waving it?
56db70ebe7c41114004b5114
Tibetan snow lion flag
1269
False
There were several protests along the torch relay route. Members of the Hong Kong Alliance in Support of Patriotic Democratic Movements in China, including pro-democracy activist Szeto Wah, waved novelty inflatable plastic Olympic flames, which they said symbolised democracy. They wanted accountability for the Tiananmen Square protests of 1989 and the implementation of democracy in Hong Kong. Political activist and Legislative Council member Leung Kwok-hung (Longhair) also joined the protest, saying "I'm very proud that in Hong Kong we still have people brave enough to speak out." Pro-democracy activists were overwhelmed by a crowd of torch supporters with insults like "running dog," "traitor," "get out!," and "I love the Communist Party." At the same time, about 10 members of the Civil Human Rights Front had orange banners calling for human rights improvements and universal suffrage. Onlookers were saying "Aren't you Chinese?" in Mandarin putonghua as they tried to cover the orange banners with a large Chinese national flag. One woman had an orange sign that said, "Olympic flame for democracy", while a man carried a poster with a tank and the slogan "One world, two dreams". A university student and former RDHK radio host Christina Chan wrapped the Tibetan snow lion flag around her body and later began waving it. Several onlookers heckled Chan, shouting "What kind of Chinese are you?" and "What a shame!" In the end, she and some of the protesters were taken away against their will by the authorities via a police vehicle "for their own protection." Chan is currently[when?] suing the Hong Kong government, claiming her human rights were breached. (case number HCAL139/08)
Which group did Jens Galschiøt lead?
56d97631dc89441400fdb4b4
The Color Orange democracy group
0
False
What did Galschiøt construct in Hong Kong in reference to the Tiananmen Square protests?
56d97631dc89441400fdb4b5
Pillar of Shame
144
False
Galschiøt and two fellow protesters were denied to entry to Hong Kong for what reason?
56d97631dc89441400fdb4b6
immigration reasons
344
False
Which American actress was questioned at the Hong Kong airport?
56d97631dc89441400fdb4b7
Mia Farrow
661
False
A legislator said that by allowing Farrow to enter Hong Kong while denying others was a violation to what policy?
56d97631dc89441400fdb4b8
one country, two systems
1110
False
What group did Jens Galschiøt lead?
56db715ce7c41114004b511a
The Color Orange
0
False
What structure did Jens Galschiøt build to monumentalize the Tianamen Square protests in 1989?
56db715ce7c41114004b511b
Pillar of Shame
144
False
Why was Jens Galschiøt made to leave Hong Kong?
56db715ce7c41114004b511c
immigration reasons
344
False
Which actress from America was initially held and then gave a speech about China and Sudan?
56db715ce7c41114004b511d
Mia Farrow
661
False
The Color Orange democracy group, led by Danish sculptor Jens Galschiøt, originally planned to join the Hong Kong Alliance relay and paint the "Pillar of Shame", a structure he built in Hong Kong to commemorate the 1989 Tiananmen Square protests. However, Galschiøt and two other people were denied entry to Hong Kong on April 26, 2008 due to "immigration reasons" and were forced to leave Hong Kong. In response, Lee Cheuk Yan, vice chairman of the Hong Kong Alliance in Support of Patriotic Democratic Movements in China, said, "It's outrageous that the government is willing to sacrifice the image of Hong Kong because of the torch relay." Hollywood actress Mia Farrow was also briefly questioned at the Hong Kong airport though officials allowed her to enter. She later gave a speech criticizing China's relations with Sudan in Hong Kong, as there was also a small minority of people protesting about China's role in the crisis of Darfur. Legislator Cheung Man Kwong have also said the government's decision allowing Farrow to enter while denying others is a double standard and a violation to Hong Kong's one country, two systems policy.
When did the torch visit Macao?
56d976addc89441400fdb4be
May 3
39
False
Where was the torch ceremony held in Macao?
56d976addc89441400fdb4bf
Macau Fisherman's Wharf
137
False
How many torchbearers participated in Macao?
56d976addc89441400fdb4c0
120
570
False
Who was the first torchbearer in Macao?
56d976addc89441400fdb4c1
Leong Hong Man
650
False
A newspaper article criticized that there were not enough of what kind of person among the torchbearers?
56d976addc89441400fdb4c2
athletes
906
False
When was the torch relay event held in Macao?
56db74aae7c41114004b512d
May 3
39
False
How many torchbearers carried the torch in Macao?
56db74aae7c41114004b512e
120
570
False
Who was the first person to carry the torch in Macao?
56db74aae7c41114004b512f
Leong Hong Man
650
False
Which casino tycoon participated in the torch relay event?
56db74aae7c41114004b5130
Stanley Ho.
638
False
Which publication was unhappy with the amount of non-athlete torchbearers?
56db74aae7c41114004b5131
Macao Daily News
772
False
Macao: The event was held in Macau on May 3. It was the first time that the Olympic torch had traveled to Macau. A ceremony was held at Macau Fisherman's Wharf. Afterward, the torch traveled through Macau, passing by a number of landmarks including A-Ma Temple, Macau Tower, Ponte Governador Nobre de Carvalho, Ponte de Sai Van, Macau Cultural Centre, Macau Stadium and then back to the Fisherman's Wharf for the closing ceremony. Parts of the route near Ruins of St. Paul's and Taipa was shortened due to large crowds of supporters blocking narrow streets. A total of 120 torchbearers participated in this event including casino tycoon Stanley Ho. Leong Hong Man and Leong Heng Teng were the first and last torchbearer in the relay respectively. An article published on Macao Daily News criticized that the list of the torchbearers could not fully represent the Macanese and that there were too many non-athletes among the torchbearers. (some of whom had already been torchbearers of other sporting events)
A Macau citizen was arrested for posting a plea to disrupt the relay on what website?
56d97744dc89441400fdb4ca
cyberctm.com
67
False
In addition to cyberctm.com, what other website was shut down for two days?
56d97744dc89441400fdb4cb
orchidbbs.com
126
False
Who was arrested on April 26 for posting an online message?
56db756ce7c41114004b513d
A Macau resident
0
False
Where was the message posted?
56db756ce7c41114004b513e
cyberctm.com
67
False
Who denied the shutdown was motivated by politics?
56db756ce7c41114004b5141
The head of the Bureau of Telecommunications Regulation
291
False
A Macau resident was arrested on April 26 for posting a message on cyberctm.com encouraging people to disrupt the relay. Both orchidbbs.com and cyberctm.com Internet forums were shut down from May 2 to 4. This fueled speculation that the shutdowns were targeting speeches against the relay. The head of the Bureau of Telecommunications Regulation has denied that the shutdowns of the websites were politically motivated. About 2,200 police were deployed on the streets, there were no interruptions.
After its April departure, when did the torch return to China?
56d9779ddc89441400fdb4d0
May 4
106
False
What actor attended a torch celebration in China?
56d9779ddc89441400fdb4d1
Jackie Chan
217
False
When did the torch reach Sanya, Hainan?
56db75c2e7c41114004b5147
May 4
106
False
When was the last time the torch had been in China?
56db75c2e7c41114004b5148
April.
61
False
Who attended the celebrations?
56db75c2e7c41114004b5149
IOC
175
False
Which actor also attended the celebrations?
56db75c2e7c41114004b514a
Jackie Chan.
217
False
China: The torch returned to China for the first time since April. The torch arrived in Sanya, Hainan on May 4 with celebrations attended by International Olympic Committee (IOC) officials and Chinese big names like Jackie Chan. The entire relay through Mainland China was largely a success with many people welcoming the arrival of the torch along the way.
The Chinese coverage of torch relay events has been accused by Western reporters as being what?
56d97bf6dc89441400fdb4d4
partial and censored
253
False
In turn, Chinese supporters have accused Western media of being what in their coverage?
56d97bf6dc89441400fdb4d5
biased.
473
False
Which French newspaper was accused of being biased by Chinese State press agency Xinhua?
56d97bf6dc89441400fdb4d6
Libération
502
False
What was under scrutiny?
56db7278e7c41114004b5123
media coverage
86
False
Coverage in China is reported to be partial and what?
56db7278e7c41114004b5124
censored
265
False
What organization interrupted the relay and was not broadcast by the Chinese media?
56db7278e7c41114004b5125
Reporters Without Borders
324
False
Chinese State Press said what French newspaper was biased?
56db7278e7c41114004b5126
Libération
502
False
The Chinese State Press said the French newspaper was supporting a handful of what?
56db7278e7c41114004b5127
saboteurs
743
False
The coverage of the events by the media came under scrutiny during the relay. Chinese media coverage of the torch relay has been distinct in a number of ways from coverage elsewhere. Western reporters in Beijing have described Chinese media coverage as partial and censored (for example when Chinese media did not broadcast Reporters Without Borders' disruption of the torch lighting ceremony), whereas Chinese netizens have in turn accused Western media coverage of being biased. The French newspaper Libération was criticised by the Chinese State press agency Xinhua for its allegedly biased reporting; Xinhua suggested that Libération needed "a stinging slap in the face" for having "insulted the Olympic flame" and "supported a handful of saboteurs".
What did the Chinese media focus on as far as human rights protesters?
56d97c68dc89441400fdb4dc
the more disruptive protesters
85
False
In response to pro-Tibet and pro-human rights protests, the Chinese media focused on the more disruptive protesters, referring for example to "a very small number of 'Tibet independence' secessionists and a handful of so-called human rights-minded NGO activists" intent on "disrupting and sabotaging the Beijing Olympic Games". However, the Chinese media published articles about crowds supporting the torch relay.
Xinhua and CCTV focused on people who what?
56d97d10dc89441400fdb4de
condemned the protests
44
False
Which athlete was ignored by media for supporting the protesters?
56d97d10dc89441400fdb4df
Marie-José Pérec
388
False
What did Xinhua call protesters?
56d97d10dc89441400fdb4e0
radicals
668
False
Which athlete showed support for the people protesting?
56db76b7e7c41114004b5153
Marie-José Pérec
388
False
Which publication said that protesters were trampling human rights?
56db76b7e7c41114004b5154
Xinhua
0
False
Xinhua and CCTV quoted relay spectators who condemned the protests, to a greater extent than most Western media, but did not quote any alternate viewpoints, providing no coverage of support for the protests by some ordinary citizens in Western countries. It quoted athletes who expressed pride at taking part in the relays, to a greater extent than Western media, but not those who, like Marie-José Pérec, expressed understanding and support for the protestors. The Beijing Organising Committee for the Games mentioned the "smiling faces of the elderly, children and the artists on the streets", of cheering and supportive Londoners. Xinhua said that protesters were "radicals" who "trampled human rights" and whose activities were condemned by "the people of the world who cordially love the Olympic spirit".
Though several torchbearers withdrew from the torch relay, the official website for China stated that Indian torch participants vowed to run for what?
56d97d8ddc89441400fdb4e4
spirit of Olympics
267
False
What did Ayaan Ali Khan and Manavjit Singh Sandhu say should not be mixed?
56d97d8ddc89441400fdb4e5
sports and politics
409
False
Though four withdrew, it was reported that Indian torchbearers vowed to what?
56db76fde7c41114004b515a
run for spirit of Olympics
259
False
Several torchbearers said what two things should not be combined?
56db76fde7c41114004b515b
sports and politics
409
False
Reports on the Delhi relay were similarly distinct. Despite intended torchbearers Kiran Bedi, Soha Ali Khan, Sachin Tendulkar and Bhaichung Bhutia all withdrawing from the event, the official Chinese website for the relay reported "Indian torchbearers vow to run for spirit of Olympics", and quoted torchbearers Manavjit Singh Sandhu, Abhinav Bindra, Ayaan Ali Khan and Rajinder Singh Rahelu all stating that sports and politics should not be mixed.
Which United Kingdom newspaper published a Chinese ambassador's opinion that Western media had demonized China with torch coverage?
56d97e69dc89441400fdb4ea
The Daily Telegraph
79
False
What French newspaper did the Chinese media accuse of bias?
56d97e69dc89441400fdb4eb
Libération
856
False
Some Chinese have accused Western media of what in their reportings?
56db779ee7c41114004b5163
Western media bias.
59
False
Who was the Chinese ambassador to the U.K.?
56db779ee7c41114004b5164
Fu Ying
175
False
Which newspaper published these accusations?
56db779ee7c41114004b5166
The Daily Telegraph
79
False
What other newspaper was accused of bias?
56db779ee7c41114004b5167
Libération
856
False
Some Western media have reported on Chinese accusations of Western media bias. The Daily Telegraph published an opinion piece by the Chinese ambassador to the United Kingdom, Fu Ying, who accused Western media of "demonising" China during their coverage of the torch relays. The Telegraph also asked its readers to send their views in response to the question "Is the West demonising China?" The BBC reported on a demonstration in Sydney by Chinese Australians "voicing support for Beijing amid controversy over Tibet" and protesting against what they saw as Western media bias. The report showed demonstrators carrying signs which read "Shame on some Western media", "BBC CNN lies too" and "Stop media distortion!". One demonstrator interviewed by the BBC stated: "I saw some news from CNN, from the BBC, some media [inaudible], and they are just lying." Libération also reported that it had been accused of bias by the Chinese media.
Who did Xinhua accuse of biased reporting on April 17?
56d9868bdc89441400fdb4ee
CNN
147
False
Who was accused of bias on April 17 by Xinhua?
56db785ee7c41114004b516d
CNN
147
False
Who wanted CNN to apologize for its insult to Chinese people?
56db785ee7c41114004b516e
the Chinese government
168
False
On April 17, Xinhua condemned what it called "biased coverage of the Lhasa riots and the Olympic torch relay by the U.S.-based Cable News Network (CNN)". The same day, the Chinese government called on CNN to "apologise" for having allegedly insulted the Chinese people, and for "attempting to incite the Chinese people against the government". CNN issued a statement on April 14, responded to China over 'thugs and goons' comment by Jack Cafferty.
What article did BBC put out about China just days earlier?
56d987b2dc89441400fdb4f4
The challenges of reporting in China
236
False
Who stated that Chinese people could access the BBC news website after years of not being able to?
56d987b2dc89441400fdb4f5
Paul Danahar
318
False
How many people gathered in protest at these two buildings?
56db78b8e7c41114004b5172
1,300
35
False
Who commented that Chinese people can look at the BBC news site for the first time?
56db78b8e7c41114004b5173
Paul Danahar
318
False
Where is BBC banned from reporting?
56db78b8e7c41114004b5174
Tibet
630
False
On April 19, the BBC reported that 1,300 people had gathered outside BBC buildings in Manchester and London, protesting against what they described as Western media bias. Several days earlier, the BBC had published an article entitled "The challenges of reporting in China", responding to earlier criticism. The BBC's Paul Danahar noted that Chinese people were now "able to access the BBC News website for the first time, after years of strict censorship", and that "many were critical of our coverage". He provided readers with a reminder of censorship in China, and added: "People who criticise the media for their coverage in Tibet should acknowledge that we were and still are banned from reporting there." He also quoted critical Chinese responses, and invited readers to comment.
Who published "Overseas Chinese rally against biased media coverage" on April 20?
56d98814dc89441400fdb4fa
People's Daily
17
False
Which publication published a report about the Chinese rallying against media bias?
56db78e9e7c41114004b5179
People's Daily
17
False
On April 20, the People's Daily published a report entitled "Overseas Chinese rally against biased media coverage, for Olympics". It included images of Chinese people demonstrating in France, the United Kingdom, Germany and the United States. One picture showed Chinese demonstrators holding a sign which claimed, incorrectly, that the BBC had not reported on Jin Jing. The People's Daily quoted one protestor who claimed the "BBC on some of the recent events has misled the British public and the rest of the world by providing intensive untruthful reports and biased coverage."
What was the Chinese government reported running on April 4?
56d98886dc89441400fdb4fe
an anti-CNN website
79
False
Who supposedly created the site?
56d98886dc89441400fdb4ff
a Beijing citizen.
202
False
Who takes credit for creating the site?
56db792ce7c41114004b517e
a Beijing citizen.
202
False
Who felt that the government was involved in the website?
56db792ce7c41114004b517f
foreign correspondents
230
False
On April 4, it was reported that the Chinese government appeared to be running an anti-CNN website that criticizes the cable network’s coverage of recent events. The site claims to have been created by a Beijing citizen. However, foreign correspondents in Beijing voiced suspicions that Anti-cnn may be a semi-government-made website. A Chinese government spokesman insisted the site was spontaneously set up by a Chinese citizen angered over media coverage.
How many attendants accompanied the flame during it's travels?
56d98906dc89441400fdb502
30
60
False
When were the 30 team members sworn in?
56d98906dc89441400fdb503
August 2007
282
False
What were their official team outfits?
56d98906dc89441400fdb505
matching blue tracksuits
472
False
Which team member has his own fan following?
56d98906dc89441400fdb506
Second Right Brother
597
False
How many attendants were used from the People's Armed Police for the flame's entire journey?
56db7a68e7c41114004b5183
30
60
False
When were these 30 sworn in?
56db7a68e7c41114004b5185
August 2007
282
False
What did these 30 attendants wear?
56db7a68e7c41114004b5186
blue tracksuits
481
False
What is the attendant who has a large fan base called?
56db7a68e7c41114004b5187
Second Right Brother
597
False
The Beijing Olympic Organizing Committee sent out a team of 30 unarmed attendants selected from the People's Armed Police to escort the flame throughout its journey. According to Asian Times, sworn in as the "Beijing Olympic Games Sacred Flame Protection Unit" during a ceremony in August 2007, their main job is to keep the Olympic flame alight throughout the journey and to assist in transferring the flame between the torches, the lanterns and the cauldrons. They wear matching blue tracksuits and are intended to accompany the torch every step of the way. One of the torch attendants, dubbed "Second Right Brother," has developed a significant online fan-base, particularly among China's female netizens.
Which French company was boycotted?
56d98998dc89441400fdb518
Carrefour
45
False
Carrefour was boycotted because of which shareholder?
56d98998dc89441400fdb519
LVMH Group
232
False
Who was the LVMH Group accused of supporting?
56d98998dc89441400fdb51a
the Dalai Lama
265
False
What was burned during these boycotts?
56d98998dc89441400fdb51b
the French flag
688
False
Who was accused of helping the Dalai Lama?
56db7bd2e7c41114004b5192
LVMH Group
232
False
Boycotters accused France of being pro-seccessionist and what?
56db7bd2e7c41114004b5193
anti-Chinese racism.
582
False
In China, a call to boycott French hypermart Carrefour from May 1 began spreading through mobile text messaging and online chat rooms amongst the Chinese over the weekend from April 12, accusing the company's major shareholder, the LVMH Group, of donating funds to the Dalai Lama. There were also calls to extend the boycott to include French luxury goods and cosmetic products. Chinese protesters organized boycotts of the French-owned retail chain Carrefour in major Chinese cities including Kunming, Hefei and Wuhan, accusing the French nation of pro-secessionist conspiracy and anti-Chinese racism. Some burned French flags, some added Swastika (due to its conotaions with Nazism) to the French flag, and spread short online messages calling for large protests in front of French consulates and embassy. Some shoppers who insisted on entering one of the Carrefour stores in Kunming were blocked by boycotters wielding large Chinese flags and hit by water bottles. Hundreds of people joined Anti-French rallies in Beijing, Wuhan, Hefei, Kunming and Qingdao, which quickly spread to other cities like Xi'an, Harbin and Jinan. Carrefour denied any support or involvement in the Tibetan issue, and had its staff in its Chinese stores wear uniforms emblazoned with the Chinese national flag and caps with Olympic insignia and as well as the words "Beijing 2008" to show its support for the games. The effort had to be ceased when the BOCOG deemed the use of official Olympic insignia as illegal and a violation of copyright.
The Chinese government tried to tamper the boycott, trying to avoid a similar outcome to which protests in 2005?
56d98a32dc89441400fdb522
anti-Japanese protests
194
False
Which newspaper urged citizens to protest peacefully?
56d98a32dc89441400fdb523
People's Daily
307
False
Which website had mentions of the Carrefour boycott removed by the government?
56d98a32dc89441400fdb524
Sohu.com
554
False
When did protests in front of Carrefour's stores occur in China?
56d98a32dc89441400fdb525
May 1
953
False
The Chinese government did not want a repeat of what protests?
56db7c39e7c41114004b519b
the anti-Japanese protests in 2005.
190
False
Which newspaper asked the Chinese people to protest peacefully?
56db7c39e7c41114004b519c
People's Daily
307
False
Who removed Carrefour boycott comments from some websites?
56db7c39e7c41114004b519d
the Chinese government
35
False
What day did protests occur in front of Carrefour stores?
56db7c39e7c41114004b519f
May 1.
953
False
In response to the demonstrations, the Chinese government attempted to calm the situation, possibly fearing the protests may spiral out of control as has happened in recent years, including the anti-Japanese protests in 2005. State media and commentaries began to call for calm, such as an editorial in the People's Daily which urged Chinese people to "express [their] patriotic enthusiasm calmly and rationally, and express patriotic aspiration in an orderly and legal manner". The government also began to patrol and censor the internet forums such as Sohu.com, with comments related to the Carrefour boycott removed. In the days prior to the planned boycott, evidence of efforts by Chinese authorities to choke the mass boycott's efforts online became even more evident, including barring searches of words related to the French protests, but protests broke out nonetheless in front of Carrefour's stores at Beijing, Changsha, Fuzhou and Shenyang on May 1.
Who was the mayor of Nagano?
56d98b11dc89441400fdb534
Shoichi Washizawa
31
False
How did Washizawa refer to the city having the torch relay?
56d98b11dc89441400fdb535
great nuisance
76
False
What was vandalized after a relay event was cancelled there?
56d98b11dc89441400fdb536
a major Buddhist temple
659
False
Who was the mayor of Nagano?
56db7c94e7c41114004b51a5
Shoichi Washizawa
31
False
What did he call the opportunity for Nagano to host the torch event?
56db7c94e7c41114004b51a6
great nuisance
76
False
Where was the inital opening ceremony to be held in Nagano?
56db7c94e7c41114004b51a7
a major Buddhist temple
659
False
In Japan, the Mayor of Nagano, Shoichi Washizawa said that it has become a "great nuisance" for the city to host the torch relay prior to the Nagano leg. Washizawa's aides said the mayor's remark was not criticism about the relay itself but about the potential disruptions and confusion surrounding it.　A city employee of the Nagano City Office ridiculed the protests in Europe, he said "They are doing something foolish", in a televised interview. Nagano City officially apologized later and explained what he had wanted to say was "Such violent protests were not easy to accept". Also citing concerns about protests as well as the recent violence in Tibet, a major Buddhist temple in Nagano cancelled its plans to host the opening stage of the Olympic torch relay, this temple was vandalised by an un-identified person the day after in apparent revenge,
In what is the torch flame kept lit when the torch must be off?
56dafb7de7c41114004b4c03
lanterns.
244
False
The torch is put out at night, on aircraft, during storms and what else?
56dafb7de7c41114004b4c04
during protests
139
False
The Olympic Flame is supposed to remain lit for the whole relay. When the Torch is extinguished at night, on airplanes, in bad weather, or during protests (such as the several occasions in Paris), the Olympic Flame is kept alight in a set of 8 lanterns.[citation needed]
Who was Michael Mak Kwok-fung?
56db74fee7c41114004b5138
Hong Kong legislator
70
False
A union planned to protest at the relay for better living conditions. Hong Kong legislator Michael Mak Kwok-fung and activist Chan Cheong, both members of the League of Social Democrats, were not allowed to enter Macau.
Which athlete did the official website call an angel?
56db772fe7c41114004b515f
Jin Jing
36
False
Which media outlets gave Jin Jing little notice?
56db772fe7c41114004b5160
Western media
138
False
Chinese media have also reported on Jin Jing, whom the official Chinese torch relay website described as "heroic" and an "angel", whereas Western media initially gave her little mention – despite a Chinese claim that "Chinese Paralympic athlete Jin Jing has garnered much attention from the media".
How many additional teams will help with the Mainland China route?
56db7a9ee7c41114004b518d
Two
0
False
How many members are on each of these two teams?
56db7a9ee7c41114004b518e
40
24
False
Two additional teams of 40 attendants each will accompany the flame on its Mainland China route. This arrangement has however sparked several controversies.
Genome
In what fields of science is the genome studied?
56dc544814d3a41400c267bf
molecular biology and genetics
10
False
What is the content of the human genome?
56dc544814d3a41400c267c0
DNA
108
False
What constitutes the viral genome?
56dc544814d3a41400c267c1
RNA
116
False
the genetic material of an organism
56
How do scientists classify RNA as?
5a591bbb3e1742001a15cf90
True
both the genes and the non-coding sequences of the DNA/RNA
157
What does a molecule contain?
5a591bbb3e1742001a15cf91
True
the non-coding sequences of the DNA
176
What is one thing that genes have?
5a591bbb3e1742001a15cf92
True
both the genes and the non-coding sequences of the DNA/RNA
157
What is included in virus RNA?
5a591bbb3e1742001a15cf93
True
molecular biology and genetics
10
What fields study molecule formation?
5a591bbb3e1742001a15cf94
True
In modern molecular biology and genetics, the genome is the genetic material of an organism. It consists of DNA (or RNA in RNA viruses). The genome includes both the genes and the non-coding sequences of the DNA/RNA.
Who coined the word genome?
56dc54a514d3a41400c267c5
Hans Winkler
32
False
In what year was the word genome first created?
56dc54a514d3a41400c267c6
1920
24
False
At what university was Hans Winkler employed when he created the word genome?
56dc54a514d3a41400c267c7
University of Hamburg
73
False
Which two similar words share etymology with genome?
56dc54a514d3a41400c267c8
biome, rhizome
293
False
genome
341
What word was created to be used in the study of botany in 1920?
5a591d523e1742001a15cf9a
True
1920
24
In what year was Hans Winkler hired in Oxford as professor of botany?
5a591d523e1742001a15cf9b
True
the name to be a blend of the words gene and chromosome
136
How did the University of Hamburg in Germany suggest genome came about?
5a591d523e1742001a15cf9c
True
biome, rhizome
293
What two other words were used as botany terms frequently at the University of Hamburg?
5a591d523e1742001a15cf9d
True
omics
206
What discussion about botany terms was taking place in 1920?
5a591d523e1742001a15cf9e
True
The term was created in 1920 by Hans Winkler, professor of botany at the University of Hamburg, Germany. The Oxford Dictionary suggests the name to be a blend of the words gene and chromosome. However, see omics for a more thorough discussion. A few related -ome words already existed—such as biome, rhizome, forming a vocabulary into which genome fits systematically.
A gamate has how many chromosomes relative to a somatic cell?
56dc552f14d3a41400c267cd
half
186
False
What process splits the chromosome between gametes?
56dc552f14d3a41400c267ce
meiosis
415
False
What are two cellular organelles which contain genetic material?
56dc552f14d3a41400c267cf
mitochondria and chloroplasts
512
False
diploid, triploid, tetraploid
52
What are examples of terms used to describe a virus type?
5a5923c33e1742001a15cfb8
True
half the number
186
How many chromosomes do the organelles have compared to the chloroplasts?
5a5923c33e1742001a15cfb9
True
by the segregation of homologous chromosomes during meiosis
363
How is halving genetic material in linear chains of DNA accomplished?
5a5923c33e1742001a15cfba
True
what is stored on a complete set of nuclear DNA
750
What is one thing the term transposable elements can be applied to mean?
5a5923c33e1742001a15cfbb
True
viruses, plasmids, and transposable elements
1058
What three non-chromosomal genetic elements can bacteria comprise?
5a5923c33e1742001a15cfbc
True
Some organisms have multiple copies of chromosomes: diploid, triploid, tetraploid and so on. In classical genetics, in a sexually reproducing organism (typically eukarya) the gamete has half the number of chromosomes of the somatic cell and the genome is a full set of chromosomes in a diploid cell. The halving of the genetic material in gametes is accomplished by the segregation of homologous chromosomes during meiosis. In haploid organisms, including cells of bacteria, archaea, and in organelles including mitochondria and chloroplasts, or viruses, that similarly contain genes, the single or set of circular or linear chains of DNA (or RNA for some viruses), likewise constitute the genome. The term genome can be applied specifically to mean what is stored on a complete set of nuclear DNA (i.e., the "nuclear genome") but can also be applied to what is stored within organelles that contain their own DNA, as with the "mitochondrial genome" or the "chloroplast genome". Additionally, the genome can comprise non-chromosomal genetic elements such as viruses, plasmids, and transposable elements.
What is the science that deals with the common genetic characteristics of related organisms called?
56dc561414d3a41400c267d3
genomics
656
False
In contrast to genomics, genetics usually studies what?
56dc561414d3a41400c267d4
single genes or groups of genes
745
False
What is the catalog of contents of a particular species' genetic makeup?
56dc561414d3a41400c267d5
sequenced
76
False
may be a composite read from the chromosomes of various individuals
355
In both sexes of a species what may a properties of genes be?
5a592d173e1742001a15cfe0
True
"sequenced"
75
What term is used to show how the sex chromosomes of a species are found?
5a592d173e1742001a15cfe1
True
genomics
656
What is known as the study of autosomes of related organisms?
5a592d173e1742001a15cfe2
True
genetics
694
What is known as the study of the properties of single or groups of sex chromosomes?
5a592d173e1742001a15cfe3
True
they are referring to a determination of the sequences of one set of autosomes and one of each type of sex chromosome
98
What are people referring to when they say species exist in one sex?
5a592d173e1742001a15cfe4
True
When people say that the genome of a sexually reproducing species has been "sequenced", typically they are referring to a determination of the sequences of one set of autosomes and one of each type of sex chromosome, which together represent both of the possible sexes. Even in species that exist in only one sex, what is described as a "genome sequence" may be a composite read from the chromosomes of various individuals. Colloquially, the phrase "genetic makeup" is sometimes used to signify the genome of a particular individual or organism.[citation needed] The study of the global properties of genomes of related organisms is usually referred to as genomics, which distinguishes it from genetics which generally studies the properties of single genes or groups of genes.
What is the relation between the number of base pairs and total complement of genes in a species called?
56dc56a414d3a41400c267d9
C-value paradox
178
False
Which organism has the most genes?
56dc56a414d3a41400c267da
trichomoniasis
286
False
How many genes is the trichomoniasis estimated to have?
56dc56a414d3a41400c267db
60,000
252
False
Relative to the human genome, how many more genes does trichomoniasis have?
56dc56a414d3a41400c267dc
three times
352
False
60,000
252
What is the highest known number of species?
5a5933933e1742001a15d008
True
around 60,000
245
How many genes are in the human genome?
5a5933933e1742001a15d009
True
the number of base pairs and the number of genes
5
What two things vary in the protozoan causing trichomoniasis?
5a5933933e1742001a15d00a
True
a rough correlation between the two
113
What is the relationship between base pairs and trichomoniasis?
5a5933933e1742001a15d00b
True
the C-value paradox
174
What is the relation between base pairs and the human genome called?
5a5933933e1742001a15d00c
True
Both the number of base pairs and the number of genes vary widely from one species to another, and there is only a rough correlation between the two (an observation known as the C-value paradox). At present, the highest known number of genes is around 60,000, for the protozoan causing trichomoniasis (see List of sequenced eukaryotic genomes), almost three times as many as in the human genome.
Who was the first person to sequence a viral genome?
56dc575814d3a41400c267e1
Walter Fiers
9
False
Which viral genome did Fiers sequence?
56dc575814d3a41400c267e2
Bacteriophage MS2
142
False
Who was first to sequence a DNA-based genome?
56dc575814d3a41400c267e3
Fred Sanger
176
False
What organization first sequenced a bacterial genome?
56dc575814d3a41400c267e4
Institute for Genomic Research
495
False
In what year was the archaeon genome sequenced?
56dc575814d3a41400c267e5
1996
836
False
1976
3
In what year did Fred Sanger first establish the complete nucleotide sequence of  a viral RNA genome?
5a5934dc3e1742001a15d012
True
1996
836
When was The Institute for Genome Research founded?
5a5934dc3e1742001a15d013
True
The first genome sequence for an archaeon
750
What did Walter Fiers complete in 1996?
5a5934dc3e1742001a15d014
True
The first bacterial genome to be sequenced
389
What did Fred Sanger complete when part of a team in 1995?
5a5934dc3e1742001a15d015
True
Haemophilus influenzae
444
What was the name of the first bacterial genome sequenced by Fred Sanger in 1995?
5a5934dc3e1742001a15d016
True
In 1976, Walter Fiers at the University of Ghent (Belgium) was the first to establish the complete nucleotide sequence of a viral RNA-genome (Bacteriophage MS2). The next year Fred Sanger completed the first DNA-genome sequence: Phage Φ-X174, of 5386 base pairs. The first complete genome sequences among all three domains of life were released within a short period during the mid-1990s: The first bacterial genome to be sequenced was that of Haemophilus influenzae, completed by a team at The Institute for Genomic Research in 1995. A few months later, the first eukaryotic genome was completed, with sequences of the 16 chromosomes of budding yeast Saccharomyces cerevisiae published as the result of a European-led effort begun in the mid-1980s. The first genome sequence for an archaeon, Methanococcus jannaschii, was completed in 1996, again by The Institute for Genomic Research.
Which U.S. government agency keeps a large amount of information on genomes?
56dc57f714d3a41400c267eb
US National Institutes of Health
166
False
What is a mammal whose genome has been sequenced?
56dc57f714d3a41400c267ec
mouse
358
False
What is a fish whose genome has been sequenced?
56dc57f714d3a41400c267ed
puffer fish
401
False
When was the Neanderthal's genome sequenced?
56dc57f714d3a41400c267ee
December 2013
443
False
How old in years was the material that was used to sequence the Neanderthal genome?
56dc57f714d3a41400c267ef
130,000
599
False
sequencing
86
What has extracting genes from a Neanderthal made it easier for scientists to do?
5a59373d3e1742001a15d01c
True
growing rapidly
145
What is happening with the knowledge gained from sequencing a mouse?
5a59373d3e1742001a15d01d
True
one of several comprehensive databases of genomic information
209
What have scientists been maintaining since 2013?
5a59373d3e1742001a15d01e
True
in a Siberian cave
634
Where has the bacteria E. coli been found to be sequenced?
5a59373d3e1742001a15d01f
True
130,000-year-old
599
How old was the material used to sequence the Arabidopsis thaliana genome?
5a59373d3e1742001a15d020
True
The development of new technologies has made it dramatically easier and cheaper to do sequencing, and the number of complete genome sequences is growing rapidly. The US National Institutes of Health maintains one of several comprehensive databases of genomic information. Among the thousands of completed genome sequencing projects include those for rice, a mouse, the plant Arabidopsis thaliana, the puffer fish, and the bacteria E. coli. In December 2013, scientists first sequenced the entire genome of a Neanderthal, an extinct species of humans. The genome was extracted from the toe bone of a 130,000-year-old Neanderthal found in a Siberian cave.
What is a recent development in sequencing methods?
56dc587714d3a41400c267f5
massive parallel sequencing
37
False
Which company has led the way in sequencing of individual genetic makeup?
56dc587714d3a41400c267f6
Manteia Predictive Medicine
166
False
Whose complete genetic information was recorded in 2007?
56dc587714d3a41400c267f7
James D. Watson
274
False
What is Watson famous for helping discover?
56dc587714d3a41400c267f8
the structure of DNA
320
False
the structure of DNA
320
What is Manteia Predictive Medicine famous for discovering?
5a5939ce3e1742001a15d026
True
massive parallel sequencing
37
What technology did James D. Watson develop to sequence individual DNA?
5a5939ce3e1742001a15d027
True
New sequencing technologies
0
What has James D. Watson recently develop that may lead to personal genome sequencing?
5a5939ce3e1742001a15d028
True
DNA
337
What did Manteia Predictive Medicine help discover the structure of in 2007?
5a5939ce3e1742001a15d029
True
Manteia Predictive Medicine
166
Who pioneered using the DNA structure as a diagnostic tool?
5a5939ce3e1742001a15d02a
True
New sequencing technologies, such as massive parallel sequencing have also opened up the prospect of personal genome sequencing as a diagnostic tool, as pioneered by Manteia Predictive Medicine. A major step toward that goal was the completion in 2007 of the full genome of James D. Watson, one of the co-discoverers of the structure of DNA.
What is the term for something that lists the important and notable parts of a genome?
56dc591114d3a41400c267fd
genome map
75
False
Which group was created to generate a genome map of human genetic material?
56dc591114d3a41400c267fe
The Human Genome Project
207
False
Whose genome map greatly aided the Human Genome Project?
56dc591114d3a41400c267ff
Jean Weissenbach
366
False
Where did Weissenbach and his colleagues work?
56dc591114d3a41400c26800
Genoscope
403
False
every DNA base in a genome
45
What does a genome map list the order of?
5a593aad3e1742001a15d030
True
the landmarks
97
What does a genome sequence identify?
5a593aad3e1742001a15d031
True
a genome sequence
147
What is a Genoscope less detailed than?
5a593aad3e1742001a15d032
True
aids in navigating around the genome
169
What does a Genoscope help a scientist do?
5a593aad3e1742001a15d033
True
to map and to sequence the human genome
246
Why was the Genoscope created?
5a593aad3e1742001a15d034
True
Whereas a genome sequence lists the order of every DNA base in a genome, a genome map identifies the landmarks. A genome map is less detailed than a genome sequence and aids in navigating around the genome. The Human Genome Project was organized to map and to sequence the human genome. A fundamental step in the project was the release of a detailed genomic map by Jean Weissenbach and his team at the Genoscope in Paris.
What is the term that accounts for the constituents of the haploid genome?
56dc5baa14d3a41400c26805
Genome composition
0
False
What aspect of a genome can genome compositions help researchers in learning about?
56dc5baa14d3a41400c26806
evolutionary history
274
False
to describe the make up of contents of a haploid genome
27
What is the history of a genome used for?
5a593c3c3e1742001a15d03a
True
genome size, proportions of non-repetitive DNA and repetitive DNA in details
105
What should be included in the history of a genome?
5a593c3c3e1742001a15d03b
True
scientists can better understand the evolutionary history of a given genome
237
What can scientists learn by comparing repetitive DNA and genome size?
5a593c3c3e1742001a15d03c
True
Genome composition
0
What term is used to describe the history of DNA?
5a593c3c3e1742001a15d03d
True
a given genome
298
By comparing repetitive DNA, what can scientists understand the history of?
5a593c3c3e1742001a15d03e
True
Genome composition is used to describe the make up of contents of a haploid genome, which should include genome size, proportions of non-repetitive DNA and repetitive DNA in details. By comparing the genome compositions between genomes, scientists can better understand the evolutionary history of a given genome.
What two types of organisms have remarkable differences in their genomic composition?
56dc5c6214d3a41400c26809
prokaryotes and eukaryotes
70
False
What type of organizing can be observed in eukaryote genomes?
56dc5c6214d3a41400c2680b
exon-intron
357
False
In what types of eukaryotes is there a large amount of non-coding DNA?
56dc5c6214d3a41400c2680c
mammals and plants
488
False
prokaryotes and eukaryotes
70
What should you distinguish between when talking about gene coding?
5a5947703e1742001a15d044
True
(85–90%)
188
How much of the genome is non-repetitive DNA in eukaryotes?
5a5947703e1742001a15d045
True
repetitive DNA
552
What is a major part of contents structure made of in non-coding regions?
5a5947703e1742001a15d046
True
exon-intron
357
What organization feature do prokaryotes have?
5a5947703e1742001a15d047
True
contents structure
123
What area do mammals and plants have differences in?
5a5947703e1742001a15d048
True
When talking about genome composition, one should distinguish between prokaryotes and eukaryotes as the big differences on contents structure they have. In prokaryotes, most of the genome (85–90%) is non-repetitive DNA, which means coding DNA mainly forms it, while non-coding regions only take a small part. On the contrary, eukaryotes have the feature of exon-intron organization of protein coding genes; the variation of repetitive DNA content in eukaryotes is also extremely high. In mammals and plants, the major part of the genome is composed of repetitive DNA.
What is an example of an organism that has a portion of its genetic material outside of its chromosomes?
56dc5cf614d3a41400c26811
pathogenic microbe
216
False
What is an example of an organism whose full complement of genetic material resides in its chromosomes?
56dc5cf614d3a41400c26812
virus
54
False
Where is additional genetic material found in pathogenic microbes?
56dc5cf614d3a41400c26813
plasmids
332
False
additional genetic material besides that which resides in their chromosomes
86
What do viruses always carry within their structure?
5a5949883e1742001a15d04e
True
plasmids
332
Where is additional genetic material found in a virus?
5a5949883e1742001a15d04f
True
plasmids
332
What is another word used for genome?
5a5949883e1742001a15d050
True
pathogenic microbe
216
What organism has part of its genetic material inside a virus?
5a5949883e1742001a15d051
True
additional genetic material
86
What do most viruses more complex than plasmids carry?
5a5949883e1742001a15d052
True
Most biological entities that are more complex than a virus sometimes or always carry additional genetic material besides that which resides in their chromosomes. In some contexts, such as sequencing the genome of a pathogenic microbe, "genome" is meant to include information stored on this auxiliary material, which is carried in plasmids. In such circumstances then, "genome" describes all of the genes and information on non-coding DNA that have the potential to be present.
What are examples of classes of eukaryotes where genome only refers to the information found in chromosomes?
56dc5d6c14d3a41400c26817
plants, protozoa and animals
22
False
What is a name for the genetic material found within chloroplasts?
56dc5d6c14d3a41400c26819
plastome
514
False
What is a name for the genetic makeup of mitochondria?
56dc5d6c14d3a41400c2681a
mitochondrial genome
427
False
the "plastome"
509
What are the eukaryotes found in the mitochondria called?
5a594b3b3e1742001a15d058
True
plants, protozoa and animals
22
What are examples of chloroplasts?
5a594b3b3e1742001a15d059
True
only information on chromosomal DNA
105
What does genome mean when referring to eukaryotes such as mitochondria?
5a594b3b3e1742001a15d05a
True
the genetic information contained by DNA within these organelles
232
What is not considered as part of the plastome?
5a594b3b3e1742001a15d05b
True
their own genome
384
What do chloroplasts have that is referred to as the mitochondrial genome?
5a594b3b3e1742001a15d05c
True
In eukaryotes such as plants, protozoa and animals, however, "genome" carries the typical connotation of only information on chromosomal DNA. So although these organisms contain chloroplasts or mitochondria that have their own DNA, the genetic information contained by DNA within these organelles is not considered part of the genome. In fact, mitochondria are sometimes said to have their own genome often referred to as the "mitochondrial genome". The DNA found within the chloroplast may be referred to as the "plastome".
What is the name for the count of all DNA base pairs in a single haploid genome?
56dc5de314d3a41400c2681f
Genome size
0
False
What does genome size have a direct relationship with in prokaryotes and lower eukaryotes?
56dc5de314d3a41400c26820
morphological complexity
133
False
What accounts for the breakdown of the relation between genome size and morphological complexity in higher eukaryotes?
56dc5de314d3a41400c26821
repetitive DNA
370
False
Genome size
0
What is the term for the total DNA base pairs in one lower eukaryote?
5a594d7b3e1742001a15d062
True
morphological complexity
133
What kind of relationship do copies of a haploid genome have with mollusks that isn't effective?
5a594d7b3e1742001a15d063
True
repetitive DNA
370
What has a strong influence on DNA base pairs?
5a594d7b3e1742001a15d064
True
the genomes
392
What does a haploid genome have strong influence on?
5a594d7b3e1742001a15d065
True
one
53
How many base pairs are in mollusks?
5a594d7b3e1742001a15d066
True
Genome size is the total number of DNA base pairs in one copy of a haploid genome. The genome size is positively correlated with the morphological complexity among prokaryotes and lower eukaryotes; however, after mollusks and all the other higher eukaryotes above, this correlation is no longer effective. This phenomenon also indicates the mighty influence coming from repetitive DNA act on the genomes.
What is a name for the reduced complement of genetic material necessary for an organism to live?
56dc5e7014d3a41400c26825
minimal genomes
209
False
In what experimental contexts are experiments being carried out on minimal genomes?
56dc5e7014d3a41400c26826
in vivo and in silico
353
False
to reduce the number of genes in a genome to the bare minimum
57
What is a research strategy to understand silico?
5a5952543e1742001a15d06c
True
experimental work
177
What is being done on single cell silico?
5a5952543e1742001a15d06d
True
in vivo and in silico
353
In what two ways are experiments being carried out to understand how genes survive?
5a5952543e1742001a15d06e
True
survive
159
What do scientists want a silico to do in the experiment?
5a5952543e1742001a15d06f
True
genomes
217
What are scientists studying to understand how they survive a reduction in silico?
5a5952543e1742001a15d070
True
Since genomes are very complex, one research strategy is to reduce the number of genes in a genome to the bare minimum and still have the organism in question survive. There is experimental work being done on minimal genomes for single cell organisms as well as minimal genomes for multi-cellular organisms (see Developmental biology). The work is both in vivo and in silico.
What are two types of non-repetitive DNA?
56dc5f8a14d3a41400c26829
Protein-coding genes and RNA-coding genes
117
False
In higher eukaryotes, what has an inverse relationship with genome size?
56dc5f8a14d3a41400c2682a
proportion of non-repetitive DNA
4
False
What is the size of non-repetitive DNA divided by to get the proportion of non-repetitive DNA?
56dc5f8a14d3a41400c2682b
genome size
104
False
by using the length of non-repetitive DNA divided by genome size
51
How is protein coding calculated?
5a5955093e1742001a15d076
True
Protein-coding genes and RNA-coding genes
117
What are two examples of higher eukaryotes?
5a5955093e1742001a15d077
True
more genes
223
What does having more protein coding genes not mean?
5a5955093e1742001a15d078
True
the proportion of non-repetitive DNA
239
What decreases if RNA coding genes are increased?
5a5955093e1742001a15d079
True
genome size
104
What is the number of protein-coding genes divided by to get the proportion of non-repetitive DNA?
5a5955093e1742001a15d07a
True
The proportion of non-repetitive DNA is calculated by using the length of non-repetitive DNA divided by genome size. Protein-coding genes and RNA-coding genes are generally non-repetitive DNA. A bigger genome does not mean more genes, and the proportion of non-repetitive DNA decreases along with increasing genome size in higher eukaryotes.
What is an example of an organism which does not contain any repetitive DNA?
56dc600514d3a41400c26835
E. coli
97
False
What are two organisms that have more non-repetitive than repetitive DNA?
56dc600514d3a41400c26836
C. elegans and fruit fly
175
False
What is the percentage of non-repetitive DNA in some plant and amphibian genomes?
56dc600514d3a41400c26837
20%
421
False
no more than 20%
408
What is the percentage of non-repetitive DNA in E. coli?
5a59573e3e1742001a15d080
True
non-repetitive DNA
130
What one kind of DNA do fruit flies only have?
5a59573e3e1742001a15d081
True
repetitive DNA
296
What does E. coli tend to have more of than non-repetitive DNA?
5a59573e3e1742001a15d082
True
non-repetitive DNA
386
What is a minority component in E. coli?
5a59573e3e1742001a15d083
True
non-repetitive DNA
130
What do some plants and amphibians only have?
5a59573e3e1742001a15d084
True
It had been found that the proportion of non-repetitive DNA can vary a lot between species. Some E. coli as prokaryotes only have non-repetitive DNA, lower eukaryotes such as C. elegans and fruit fly, still possess more non-repetitive DNA than repetitive DNA. Higher eukaryotes tend to have more repetitive DNA than non-repetitive ones. In some plants and amphibians, the proportion of non-repetitive DNA is no more than 20%, becoming a minority component.
What are two types of repetitive DNA found in genomes?
56dc604614d3a41400c2683b
tandem repeats and interspersed repeats
158
False
What is found by dividing size of repetitive DNA by length of total genome?
56dc604614d3a41400c2683c
proportion of repetitive DNA
4
False
tandem repeats and interspersed repeats
158
What are two examples of genome size?
5a5958a83e1742001a15d08a
True
tandem repeats and interspersed repeats
158
What do you use to calculate genome size?
5a5958a83e1742001a15d08b
True
using length of repetitive DNA divide by genome size
50
How do you calculate tandem repeats?
5a5958a83e1742001a15d08c
True
genome size
91
What are interspersed repeats divided by to get the proportion of repetitive DNA?
5a5958a83e1742001a15d08d
True
The proportion of repetitive DNA
0
What do you get when dividing tandem repeats by interspersed repeats?
5a5958a83e1742001a15d08e
True
The proportion of repetitive DNA is calculated by using length of repetitive DNA divide by genome size. There are two categories of repetitive DNA in genome: tandem repeats and interspersed repeats.
Unequal crossing over can create what type of repetitive DNA?
56dc610914d3a41400c2683f
Tandem repeats
0
False
What are two examples of tandem repeats in DNA?
56dc610914d3a41400c26840
satellite DNA and microsatellites
109
False
What is the most common type of repetitive DNA in mammals?
56dc610914d3a41400c26841
interspersed repeats.
311
False
mammalian
282
In what group are tandem repeats in the largest number?
5a595ba13e1742001a15d094
True
slippage during replication, unequal crossing-over and gene conversion
37
What causes interspersed repeats?
5a595ba13e1742001a15d095
True
satellite DNA and microsatellites
109
What are two examples of interspersed repeats?
5a595ba13e1742001a15d096
True
significant proportion
222
How much satellite DNA is found in the genome?
5a595ba13e1742001a15d097
True
Tandem repeats
0
What is gene conversion caused by?
5a595ba13e1742001a15d098
True
Tandem repeats are usually caused by slippage during replication, unequal crossing-over and gene conversion, satellite DNA and microsatellites are forms of tandem repeats in the genome. Although tandem repeats count for a significant proportion in genome, the largest proportion in mammalian is the other type, interspersed repeats.
What is the main source of interspersed repeats?
56dc63c214d3a41400c26845
Transposable elements
140
False
What do researchers think transposable elements are key factors in when considering higher eukaryotes?
56dc63c214d3a41400c26846
genome evolution
291
False
What are the constituents of Class 1 transposable elements?
56dc63c214d3a41400c26847
retrotransposons
382
False
What are the constituents of Class 2 transposable elements?
56dc63c214d3a41400c26848
DNA transposons
413
False
into two categories
352
How are pseudogenes classified?
5a595cd03e1742001a15d09e
True
Class 1 (retrotransposons) and Class 2 (DNA transposons)
373
What two categories are pseudogenes classified into?
5a595cd03e1742001a15d09f
True
transposable elements
38
Where do cells mainly come from?
5a595cd03e1742001a15d0a0
True
some protein coding gene families and pseudogenes
89
What do cells also include?
5a595cd03e1742001a15d0a1
True
to integrate into the genome at another site
171
What are pseudogenes able to do within the cell?
5a595cd03e1742001a15d0a2
True
Interspersed repeats mainly come from transposable elements (TEs), but they also include some protein coding gene families and pseudogenes. Transposable elements are able to integrate into the genome at another site within the cell. It is believed that TEs are an important driving force on genome evolution of higher eukaryotes. TEs can be classified into two categories, Class 1 (retrotransposons) and Class 2 (DNA transposons).
What kind of genetic material can be produced from retrotransposons?
56dc63f014d3a41400c2684d
RNA
41
False
RNA
41
What can long terminal repeats produce?
5a595ee03e1742001a15d0a8
True
are then duplicated at another site into the genome
52
What happens when long terminal repeats are transcribed into RNA?
5a595ee03e1742001a15d0a9
True
Long terminal repeats (LTRs)
142
What is one thing RNA can be divided into?
5a595ee03e1742001a15d0aa
True
Non-Long Terminal Repeats (Non-LTR)
175
What can the genome also be divided into?
5a595ee03e1742001a15d0ab
True
at another site
72
Where are Long terminal repeats duplicated?
5a595ee03e1742001a15d0ac
True
Retrotransposons can be transcribed into RNA, which are then duplicated at another site into the genome. Retrotransposons can be divided into Long terminal repeats (LTRs) and Non-Long Terminal Repeats (Non-LTR).
What is a term that can describe how DNA transposons move?
56dc648d14d3a41400c26851
cut and paste
35
False
DNA transposons do not use which genetic material used by Class 1 TEs?
56dc648d14d3a41400c26852
RNA
128
False
"cut and paste"
34
What term describes how duplication happens in the genome?
5a5961193e1742001a15d0b2
True
RNA
128
What do genome not use as intermediate?
5a5961193e1742001a15d0b3
True
"cut and paste"
34
What helps metozoan move?
5a5961193e1742001a15d0b4
True
bacteria
167
In what organism is duplication popular?
5a5961193e1742001a15d0b5
True
move
26
What does cut and paste help metazoan do?
5a5961193e1742001a15d0b6
True
DNA transposons generally move by "cut and paste" in the genome, but duplication has also been observed. Class 2 TEs do not use RNA as intermediate and are popular in bacteria, in metazoan it has also been found.
What is another word for the total count of chromosomes?
56dc656c14d3a41400c26857
karyotype
233
False
Aside from karyotype, what are other genomic traits studied by scientists?
56dc656c14d3a41400c26858
genome size, gene order, codon usage bias, and GC-content
245
False
genome size, gene order, codon usage bias, and GC-content
245
What were other traits besides karyotype studied by Brown in 2002?
5a5962da3e1742001a15d0bc
True
(karyotype)
232
What is another word for gene order?
5a5962da3e1742001a15d0bd
True
traits
62
What does GC-content have that can be measured?
5a5962da3e1742001a15d0be
True
to determine what mechanisms could have produced the great variety of genomes that exist today
303
Why do researchers calculate the sum of an organisms genes?
5a5962da3e1742001a15d0bf
True
genome size, gene order
245
What are two things that Reese studied about karyotype in 2004?
5a5962da3e1742001a15d0c0
True
Genomes are more than the sum of an organism's genes and have traits that may be measured and studied without reference to the details of any particular genes and their products. Researchers compare traits such as chromosome number (karyotype), genome size, gene order, codon usage bias, and GC-content to determine what mechanisms could have produced the great variety of genomes that exist today (for recent overviews, see Brown 2002; Saccone and Pesole 2003; Benfey and Protopapas 2004; Gibson and Muse 2004; Reese 2004; Gregory 2005).
What type of generation of genetic material has a big part in making the genome what it is?
56dc662314d3a41400c2685b
Duplications
0
False
What is a possible product of duplications?
56dc662314d3a41400c2685d
genetic novelty
293
False
a major role
18
What role does genetic novelty play in the genome?
5a5964413e1742001a15d0c6
True
extension of short tandem repeats, to duplication of a cluster of genes
81
What is the first range of genetic novelty?
5a5964413e1742001a15d0c7
True
the creation of genetic novelty
277
What are gene clusters a large part of?
5a5964413e1742001a15d0c8
True
all the way to duplication of entire chromosomes or even entire genomes
158
How far can genetic novelty go?
5a5964413e1742001a15d0c9
True
extension of short tandem repeats
81
What is the first example of genetic novelty?
5a5964413e1742001a15d0ca
True
Duplications play a major role in shaping the genome. Duplication may range from extension of short tandem repeats, to duplication of a cluster of genes, and all the way to duplication of entire chromosomes or even entire genomes. Such duplications are probably fundamental to the creation of genetic novelty.
What is an explanation for the resemblance between disparate parts of the genome?
56dc66bb14d3a41400c26861
Horizontal gene transfer
0
False
In which organisms does horizontal gene transfer appear to occur commonly?
56dc66bb14d3a41400c26862
microbes
238
False
Parts of which organelle genomes are thought to have ended up in the nucleus of eukaryotic cells via transfer?
56dc66bb14d3a41400c26863
chloroplast and mitochondrial genomes
343
False
Horizontal gene transfer
0
What helps explain why different parts of chloroplasts are similar?
5a596a473e1742001a15d0d0
True
microbes
238
In what organism are eukaryotic cells common?
5a596a473e1742001a15d0d1
True
how there is often extreme similarity between small portions of the genomes
47
What does horizontal gene transfer explain about nuclear chromosomes?
5a596a473e1742001a15d0d2
True
to their nuclear chromosomes
381
Where do microbes transfer material from their chloroplast and mitochondrial genomes?
5a596a473e1742001a15d0d3
True
some genetic material
310
What do microbes transfer to chloroplasts?
5a596a473e1742001a15d0d4
True
Horizontal gene transfer is invoked to explain how there is often extreme similarity between small portions of the genomes of two organisms that are otherwise very distantly related. Horizontal gene transfer seems to be common among many microbes. Also, eukaryotic cells seem to have experienced a transfer of some genetic material from their chloroplast and mitochondrial genomes to their nuclear chromosomes.
Comprehensive_school
What kind of school does not base its admissions on academic merit?
56dc686a14d3a41400c26867
comprehensive school
2
False
What kind of school system uses academic success to judge admissions?
56dc686a14d3a41400c26868
selective school system
150
False
What countries used comprehensive schools extensively?
56dc686a14d3a41400c26869
England and Wales
282
False
How many secondary school students attend comprehensive schools in England?
56dc686a14d3a41400c2686a
90%
427
False
What is the German analogue of the comprehensive school?
56dc686a14d3a41400c2686b
Gesamtschule
600
False
comprehensive school
2
What kind of school bases its admissions on academic merit?
5ad5f6585b96ef001a10af32
True
selective school system
150
What kind of school system uses academic failure to judge admissions?
5ad5f6585b96ef001a10af33
True
England and Wales
282
What countries unused comprehensive schools extensively?
5ad5f6585b96ef001a10af34
True
90%
427
How many secondary school students attend comprehensive schools in Scotland?
5ad5f6585b96ef001a10af35
True
Gesamtschule
600
What is the Austrian analogue of the comprehensive school?
5ad5f6585b96ef001a10af36
True
A comprehensive school is a state school that does not select its intake on the basis of academic achievement or aptitude. This is in contrast to the selective school system, where admission is restricted on the basis of selection criteria. The term is commonly used in relation to England and Wales, where comprehensive schools were introduced on an experimental basis in the 1940s and became more widespread from 1965. About 90% of British secondary school pupils now attend comprehensive schools. They correspond broadly to the public high school in the United States and Canada and to the German Gesamtschule.[citation needed]
What are some areas of learning in comprehensive schools that were not found often in grammar schools?
56dc695914d3a41400c26871
design and technology and vocational learning
258
False
What two kinds of schools were developed in response to the costs of post-16 comprehensive school education?
56dc695914d3a41400c26872
Sixth Form colleges and Further Education Colleges
750
False
Which types of school projects have called the model of comprehensive schools into question?
56dc695914d3a41400c26874
City Technology Colleges and Specialist schools programmes
1051
False
design and technology and vocational learning
258
What are some areas of learning in comprehensive schools that were found often in grammar schools?
5ad5f73f5b96ef001a10af3c
True
design and technology and vocational learning
258
What are some areas of learning in comprehensive schools that were not found often in high schools?
5ad5f73f5b96ef001a10af3d
True
Sixth Form colleges and Further Education Colleges
750
What two kinds of schools were developed in response to the costs of post-18 comprehensive school education?
5ad5f73f5b96ef001a10af3e
True
Sixth Form colleges and Further Education Colleges
750
What three kinds of schools were developed in response to the costs of post-16 comprehensive school education?
5ad5f73f5b96ef001a10af3f
True
City Technology Colleges and Specialist schools programmes
1051
Which types of school projects haven't called the model of comprehensive schools into question?
5ad5f73f5b96ef001a10af40
True
Comprehensive schools are primarily about providing an entitlement curriculum to all children, without selection whether due to financial considerations or attainment. A consequence of that is a wider ranging curriculum, including practical subjects such as design and technology and vocational learning, which were less common or non-existent in grammar schools. Providing post-16 education cost-effectively becomes more challenging for smaller comprehensive schools, because of the number of courses needed to cover a broader curriculum with comparatively fewer students. This is why schools have tended to get larger and also why many local authorities have organised secondary education into 11–16 schools, with the post-16 provision provided by Sixth Form colleges and Further Education Colleges. Comprehensive schools do not select their intake on the basis of academic achievement or aptitude, but there are demographic reasons why the attainment profiles of different schools vary considerably. In addition, government initiatives such as the City Technology Colleges and Specialist schools programmes have made the comprehensive ideal less certain.
How many selective grammar schools are still currently functioning in England and Wales?
56dc6a0914d3a41400c2687a
164
673
False
In what year were comprehensive schools first created?
56dc6a0914d3a41400c2687b
1965
657
False
164
673
How many selective high schools are still currently functioning in England and Wales?
5ad5f7a45b96ef001a10af46
True
164
673
How many selective grammar schools are still currently functioning in Scotland and Wales?
5ad5f7a45b96ef001a10af47
True
164
673
How many selective grammar schools are no longer functioning in England and Wales?
5ad5f7a45b96ef001a10af48
True
1965
657
In what year weren't comprehensive schools first created?
5ad5f7a45b96ef001a10af49
True
1965
657
In what year were comprehensive schools first closed?
5ad5f7a45b96ef001a10af4a
True
In these schools children could be selected on the basis of curriculum aptitude related to the school's specialism even though the schools do take quotas from each quartile of the attainment range to ensure they were not selective by attainment. A problem with this is whether the quotas should be taken from a normal distribution or from the specific distribution of attainment in the immediate catchment area. In the selective school system, which survives in several parts of the United Kingdom, admission is dependent on selection criteria, most commonly a cognitive test or tests. Although comprehensive schools were introduced to England and Wales in 1965, there are 164 selective grammar schools that are still in operation.[citation needed] (though this is a small number compared to approximately 3500 state secondary schools in England). Most comprehensives are secondary schools for children between the ages of 11 to 16, but in a few areas there are comprehensive middle schools, and in some places the secondary level is divided into two, for students aged 11 to 14 and those aged 14 to 18, roughly corresponding to the US middle school (or junior high school) and high school, respectively. With the advent of key stages in the National Curriculum some local authorities reverted from the Middle School system to 11–16 and 11–18 schools so that the transition between schools corresponds to the end of one key stage and the start of another.
What is a word that can be used to describe the scope of a comprehensive school's intake?
56dc6a5c14d3a41400c26881
neighbourhood
55
False
What are some new initiatives that may impact the concept of comprehensive schools?
56dc6a5c14d3a41400c26882
Academies Programme, Free Schools and University Technical Colleges
157
False
neighbourhood
55
What is a word that can't be used to describe the scope of a comprehensive school's intake?
5ad5f8455b96ef001a10af50
True
neighbourhood
55
What is a word that can be used to describe the scope of an uncomprehensive school's intake?
5ad5f8455b96ef001a10af51
True
neighbourhood
55
What is a word that can be used to describe the scope of a comprehensive school's discharge?
5ad5f8455b96ef001a10af52
True
Academies Programme, Free Schools and University Technical Colleges
157
What are some old initiatives that may impact the concept of comprehensive schools?
5ad5f8455b96ef001a10af53
True
Academies Programme, Free Schools and University Technical Colleges
157
What are some new initiatives that may impact the concept of uncomprehensive schools?
5ad5f8455b96ef001a10af54
True
In principle, comprehensive schools were conceived as "neighbourhood" schools for all students in a specified catchment area. Current education reforms with Academies Programme, Free Schools and University Technical Colleges will no doubt have some impact on the comprehensive ideal but it is too early to say to what degree.
In what decade did Finland begin employing comprehensive schools?
56dc6ab714d3a41400c26885
1970s
49
False
What age ranges does Finnish comprehensive school cover?
56dc6ab714d3a41400c26886
7 to 16
151
False
1970s
49
In what decade didn't Finland begin employing comprehensive schools?
5ad5f8a25b96ef001a10af5a
True
1970s
49
In what decade did Sweden begin employing comprehensive schools?
5ad5f8a25b96ef001a10af5b
True
1970s
49
In what decade did Finland stop employing comprehensive schools?
5ad5f8a25b96ef001a10af5c
True
7 to 16
151
What age ranges does Swedish comprehensive school cover?
5ad5f8a25b96ef001a10af5d
True
7 to 16
151
What age ranges does Finnish uncomprehensive school cover?
5ad5f8a25b96ef001a10af5e
True
Finland has used comprehensive schools since the 1970s, in the sense that everyone is expected to complete the nine grades of peruskoulu, from the age 7 to 16. The division to lower comprehensive school (grades 1–6, ala-aste, alakoulu) and upper comprehensive school (grades 7–9, yläaste, yläkoulu) has been discontinued.
What type of school is the Gesamtschule?
56dc6b3914d3a41400c2688d
comprehensive
14
False
What kinds of courses are offered to students who are not experiencing academic success?
56dc6b3914d3a41400c2688f
remedial
349
False
What are the different kinds of certificates that Gesamtschule students can earn?
56dc6b3914d3a41400c26890
the Hauptschulabschluss, the Realschulabschluss or the Abitur
470
False
comprehensive
14
What type of school isn't the Gesamtschule?
5ad5f90b5b96ef001a10af64
True
comprehensive
14
What type of hospital is the Gesamtschule?
5ad5f90b5b96ef001a10af65
True
remedial
349
What kinds of courses aren't offered to students who are not experiencing academic success?
5ad5f90b5b96ef001a10af66
True
remedial
349
What kinds of courses are offered to students who are experiencing academic success?
5ad5f90b5b96ef001a10af67
True
the Hauptschulabschluss, the Realschulabschluss or the Abitur
470
What are the different kinds of certificates that Gesamtschule students can't earn?
5ad5f90b5b96ef001a10af68
True
Germany has a comprehensive school known as the Gesamtschule. While some German schools such as the Gymnasium and the Realschule have rather strict entrance requirements, the Gesamtschule does not have such requirements. They offer college preparatory classes for the students who are doing well, general education classes for average students, and remedial courses for those who aren't doing that well. In most cases students attending a Gesamtschule may graduate with the Hauptschulabschluss, the Realschulabschluss or the Abitur depending on how well they did in school.
What percentage of Brandenburg students went to a Gesamtschule in 2007?
56dc6b6714d3a41400c26895
50%
112
False
What percentage of Bavarian students went to a Gesamtschule in 2007?
56dc6b6714d3a41400c26896
less than 1%
195
False
50%
112
What percentage of Brandenburg teachers went to a Gesamtschule in 2007?
5ad5f9765b96ef001a10af6e
True
50%
112
What percentage of Brandenburg students went to a Gesamtschule in 2008?
5ad5f9765b96ef001a10af6f
True
50%
112
What percentage of Brandenburg students never went to a Gesamtschule in 2007?
5ad5f9765b96ef001a10af70
True
less than 1%
195
What percentage of Bavarian teachers went to a Gesamtschule in 2007?
5ad5f9765b96ef001a10af71
True
less than 1%
195
What percentage of Bavarian students went to a Gesamtschule in 2008?
5ad5f9765b96ef001a10af72
True
The percentage of students attending a Gesamtschule varies by Bundesland. In the State of Brandenburg more than 50% of all students attended a Gesamtschule in 2007, while in the State of Bavaria less than 1% did.
What was the combination of Hauptschulen with Realschulen and Gesamtschulen called in Hamburg?
56dc6cc314d3a41400c26899
Stadtteilschule
177
False
What was the combination of Hauptschulen with Realschulen and Gesamtschulen called in Berlin?
56dc6cc314d3a41400c2689a
Sekundarschule
208
False
In what school year were Hauptschulen first combined with Realschulen and Gesamtschulen?
56dc6cc314d3a41400c2689b
2010/2011
12
False
Stadtteilschule
177
What wasn't the combination of Hauptschulen with Realschulen and Gesamtschulen called in Hamburg?
5ad5f9cd5b96ef001a10af78
True
Stadtteilschule
177
What was the combination of Hauptschulen with Realschulen and Gesamtschulen called in Hamburger?
5ad5f9cd5b96ef001a10af79
True
Sekundarschule
208
What was the combination of Hauptschulen with Realschulen and Gesamtschulen not called in Berlin?
5ad5f9cd5b96ef001a10af7a
True
Sekundarschule
208
What was the combination of Hauptschulen with Realschulen and Gesamtschulen called in Berlinberg?
5ad5f9cd5b96ef001a10af7b
True
2010/2011
12
In what school year were Hauptschulen last combined with Realschulen and Gesamtschulen?
5ad5f9cd5b96ef001a10af7c
True
Starting in 2010/2011, Hauptschulen were merged with Realschulen and Gesamtschulen to form a new type of comprehensive school in the German States of Berlin and Hamburg, called Stadtteilschule in Hamburg and Sekundarschule in Berlin (see: Education in Berlin, Education in Hamburg).
What kind of classes are not offered in Mittelschule?
56dc6dc514d3a41400c2689f
college preparatory classes
113
False
What certificate is not available to Mittelschule students?
56dc6dc514d3a41400c268a0
Abitur
375
False
What kind of school is not available in some parts of Germany?
56dc6dc514d3a41400c268a2
Hauptschule
173
False
college preparatory classes
113
What kind of classes are offered in Mittelschule?
5ad5fa5f5b96ef001a10af82
True
college preparatory classes
113
What kind of meetings are not offered in Mittelschule?
5ad5fa5f5b96ef001a10af83
True
Abitur
375
What certificate is available to Mittelschule students?
5ad5fa5f5b96ef001a10af84
True
Abitur
375
What certificate is not available to Mittelschule teachers?
5ad5fa5f5b96ef001a10af85
True
Hauptschule
173
What kind of school is available in some parts of Germany?
5ad5fa5f5b96ef001a10af86
True
The "Mittelschule" is a school in some States of Germany that offers regular classes and remedial classes but no college preparatory classes. In some States of Germany, the Hauptschule does not exist, and any student who has not been accepted by another school has to attend the Mittelschule. Students may be awarded the Hauptschulabschluss or the Mittlere Reife but not the Abitur.
What type of misconduct have comprehensive schools been alleged of engaging in?
56dc777a14d3a41400c268ab
grade inflation
43
False
Which German minister criticized comprehensive schools' ability to help students succeed?
56dc777a14d3a41400c268ac
Barbara Sommer
605
False
Which German politician defended comprehensive schools?
56dc777a14d3a41400c268ad
Sigrid Beer
1316
False
Which party does Barbara Sommer belong to?
56dc777a14d3a41400c268ae
Christian Democratic Union
621
False
Which party does Sigrid Beer belong to?
56dc777a14d3a41400c268af
Alliance '90/The Greens
1329
False
grade inflation
43
What type of misconduct have uncomprehensive schools been alleged of engaging in?
5ad5fc155b96ef001a10af96
True
Barbara Sommer
605
Which German mWhich German minister criticized uncomprehensive schools' ability to help students succeed?inister criticized comprehensive schools' ability to help students succeed?
5ad5fc155b96ef001a10af97
True
Sigrid Beer
1316
Which German politician defended uncomprehensive schools?
5ad5fc155b96ef001a10af98
True
Christian Democratic Union
621
Which party doesn't Barbara Sommer belong to?
5ad5fc155b96ef001a10af99
True
Alliance '90/The Greens
1329
Which party doesn't Sigrid Beer belong to?
5ad5fc155b96ef001a10af9a
True
Comprehensive schools have been accused of grade inflation after a study revealed that Gymnasium senior students of average mathematical ability found themselves at the very bottom of their class and had an average grade of "Five", which means "Failed". Gesamtschule senior students of average mathematical ability found themselves in the upper half of their class and had an average grade of "Three Plus". When a central Abitur examination was established in the State of North Rhine-Westphalia, it was revealed that Gesamtschule students did worse than could be predicted by their grades or class rank. Barbara Sommer (Christian Democratic Union), Education Minister of North Rhine-Westphalia, commented that: Looking at the performance gap between comprehensives and the Gymnasium [at the Abitur central examination] [...] it is difficult to understand why the Social Democratic Party of Germany wants to do away with the Gymnasium. [...] The comprehensives do not help students achieve [...] I am sick and tired of the comprehensive schools blaming their problems on the social class origins of their students. What kind of attitude is this to blame their own students? She also called the Abitur awarded by the Gymnasium the true Abitur and the Abitur awarded by the Gesamtschule "Abitur light". As a reaction, Sigrid Beer (Alliance '90/The Greens) stated that comprehensives were structurally discriminated against by the government, which favoured the Gymnasiums. She also said that many of the students awarded the Abitur by the comprehensives came from "underprivileged groups" and sneering at their performance was a "piece of impudence".
Who could be made vulnerable by the Gasemtschulen?
56dc784714d3a41400c268b5
bright working class students
24
False
From what group does an achievement gap separate working class students at comprehensive schools?
56dc784714d3a41400c268b6
middle class peers
207
False
At which school do students achieve the least success?
56dc784714d3a41400c268b7
Hauptschule
444
False
bright working class students
24
Who couldn't be made vulnerable by the Gasemtschulen?
5ad5fc5d5b96ef001a10afa0
True
bright working class students
24
Who could be protected by the Gasemtschulen?
5ad5fc5d5b96ef001a10afa1
True
middle class peers
207
From what group doesn't an achievement gap separate working class students at comprehensive schools?
5ad5fc5d5b96ef001a10afa2
True
middle class peers
207
From what group does an achievement gap separate working class students at uncomprehensive schools?
5ad5fc5d5b96ef001a10afa3
True
Hauptschule
444
At which school do students achieve the most success?
5ad5fc5d5b96ef001a10afa4
True
Gesamtschulen might put bright working class students at risk according to several studies. It could be shown that an achievement gap opens between working class students attending a comprehensive and their middle class peers. Also working class students attending a Gymnasium or a Realschule outperform students from similar backgrounds attending a comprehensive. However it is not students attending a comprehensive, but students attending a Hauptschule, who perform the poorest.
Who conducted a study on comprehensive schools?
56dc78b114d3a41400c268bd
Helmut Fend
29
False
To which system did Fend compare comprehensive school alumni?
56dc78b114d3a41400c268be
tripartite system
205
False
Helmut Fend
29
Who never conducted a study on comprehensive schools?
5ad5fca25b96ef001a10afaa
True
Helmut Fend
29
Who conducted a study on uncomprehensive schools?
5ad5fca25b96ef001a10afab
True
tripartite system
205
To which system didn't Fend compare comprehensive school alumni?
5ad5fca25b96ef001a10afac
True
tripartite system
205
To which system did Fend compare uncomprehensive school alumni?
5ad5fca25b96ef001a10afad
True
tripartite system
205
To which system did Fend compare comprehensive school faculty?
5ad5fca25b96ef001a10afae
True
According to a study done by Helmut Fend (who had always been a fierce proponent of comprehensive schools) revealed that comprehensive schools do not help working class students. He compared alumni of the tripartite system to alumni of comprehensive schools. While working class alumni of comprehensive schools were awarded better school diplomas at age 35, they held similar occupational positions as working class alumni of the tripartite system and were as unlikely to graduate from college.
When was the first comprehensive school opened in Gibraltar?
56dc790614d3a41400c268c1
1972
51
False
Where can students go after finishing comprehensive school in Gibraltar?
56dc790614d3a41400c268c3
sixth form
186
False
What examinations do students prepare for in the sixth form?
56dc790614d3a41400c268c4
A-levels
215
False
1972
51
When was the last comprehensive school opened in Gibraltar?
5ad5fced5b96ef001a10afb4
True
1972
51
When was the first comprehensive school closed in Gibraltar?
5ad5fced5b96ef001a10afb5
True
sixth form
186
Where can't students go after finishing comprehensive school in Gibraltar?
5ad5fced5b96ef001a10afb6
True
sixth form
186
Where can students go after finishing uncomprehensive school in Gibraltar?
5ad5fced5b96ef001a10afb7
True
A-levels
215
What examinations do students prepare for in the fifth form?
5ad5fced5b96ef001a10afb8
True
Gibraltar opened its first comprehensive school in 1972. Between the ages of 12 and 16 two comprehensive schools cater for girls and boys separately. Students may also continue into the sixth form to complete their A-levels.
When did Ireland first open comprehensive schools?
56dc798714d3a41400c268d1
1966
54
False
Who was responsible for creating comprehensive schools in Ireland?
56dc798714d3a41400c268d2
Patrick Hillery
79
False
What was the only state-run educational system in Ireland prior to comprehensive schools?
56dc798714d3a41400c268d3
vocational school system
181
False
What type of school has surpassed comprehensive schools in Ireland?
56dc798714d3a41400c268d4
community school
556
False
1966
54
When did Ireland last open comprehensive schools?
5ad5fd485b96ef001a10afbe
True
1966
54
When did Ireland first close comprehensive schools?
5ad5fd485b96ef001a10afbf
True
Patrick Hillery
79
Who was unresponsible for creating comprehensive schools in Ireland?
5ad5fd485b96ef001a10afc0
True
vocational school system
181
What wasn't the only state-run educational system in Ireland prior to comprehensive schools?
5ad5fd485b96ef001a10afc1
True
community school
556
What type of school has surpassed uncomprehensive schools in Ireland?
5ad5fd485b96ef001a10afc2
True
Comprehensive schools were introduced into Ireland in 1966 by an initiative by Patrick Hillery, Minister for Education, to give a broader range of education compared to that of the vocational school system, which was then the only system of schools completely controlled by the state. Until then, education in Ireland was largely dominated by religious persuasion, particularly the voluntary secondary school system was a particular realisation of this. The comprehensive school system is still relatively small and to an extent has been superseded by the community school concept. The Irish word for a comprehensive school is a 'scoil chuimsitheach.'
In what decade were community schools conceived?
56dc79fc14d3a41400c268d9
1970s
161
False
Who owns the land on which Irish comprehensive schools are found?
56dc79fc14d3a41400c268db
The state
363
False
1970s
161
In what decade weren't community schools conceived?
5ad5fdd55b96ef001a10afc8
True
1970s
161
In what decade were community schools closed?
5ad5fdd55b96ef001a10afc9
True
The state
363
Who rents the land on which Irish comprehensive schools are found?
5ad5fdd55b96ef001a10afca
True
The state
363
Who owns the land on which Scotish comprehensive schools are found?
5ad5fdd55b96ef001a10afcb
True
The state
363
Who owns the land on which Irish comprehensive schools aren't found?
5ad5fdd55b96ef001a10afcc
True
In Ireland comprehensive schools were an earlier model of state schools, introduced in the late 1960s and largely replaced by the secular community model of the 1970s. The comprehensive model generally incorporated older schools that were under Roman Catholic or Protestant ownership, and the various denominations still manage the school as patrons or trustees. The state owns the school property, which is vested in the trustees in perpetuity. The model was adopted to make state schools more acceptable to a largely conservative society of the time.
What did the community school system remove from the comprehensive school model?
56dc7a7b14d3a41400c268df
the denominational basis of the schools
84
False
What is a term for a grouping of local schools that cannot exist independently?
56dc7a7b14d3a41400c268e1
Community colleges
390
False
the denominational basis of the schools
84
What didn't the community school system remove from the comprehensive school model?
5ad5fe4d5b96ef001a10afd2
True
the denominational basis of the schools
84
What did the community school system add to the comprehensive school model?
5ad5fe4d5b96ef001a10afd3
True
the denominational basis of the schools
84
What did the community school system remove from the uncomprehensive school model?
5ad5fe4d5b96ef001a10afd4
True
Community colleges
390
What is a term for a grouping of local schools that can exist independently?
5ad5fe4d5b96ef001a10afd5
True
Community colleges
390
What is a term for a grouping of global schools that cannot exist independently?
5ad5fe4d5b96ef001a10afd6
True
The introduction of the community school model in the 1970s controversially removed the denominational basis of the schools, but religious interests were invited to be represented on the Boards of Management. Community schools are divided into two models, the community school vested in the Minister for Education and the community college vested in the local Education and Training Board. Community colleges tended to be amalgamations of unviable local schools under the umbrella of a new community school model, but community schools have tended to be entirely new foundations.
In what year was the Walworth School established?
56dc7afb14d3a41400c268e5
1946
68
False
Who established the Walworth School?
56dc7afb14d3a41400c268e6
London County Council
170
False
What comprehensive school was established in Anglesey?
56dc7afb14d3a41400c268e7
Holyhead County School
231
False
When was Holyhead County School established?
56dc7afb14d3a41400c268e8
1949
269
False
Which comprehensive school openend in coventry?
56dc7afb14d3a41400c268e9
Woodlands Boys School
330
False
1946
68
In what year was the Walworth School closed?
5ad5fea45b96ef001a10afdc
True
London County Council
170
Who closed the Walworth School?
5ad5fea45b96ef001a10afdd
True
Holyhead County School
231
What uncomprehensive school was established in Anglesey?
5ad5fea45b96ef001a10afde
True
1949
269
When was Holyhead County School closed?
5ad5fea45b96ef001a10afdf
True
Woodlands Boys School
330
Which uncomprehensive school openend in coventry?
5ad5fea45b96ef001a10afe0
True
The first comprehensives were set up after the Second World War. In 1946, for example, Walworth School was one of five 'experimental' comprehensive schools set up by the London County Council Another early comprehensive school was Holyhead County School in Anglesey in 1949. Other early examples of comprehensive schools included Woodlands Boys School in Coventry (opened in 1954) and Tividale Comprehensive School in Tipton.
Who was responsible for the proliferation of comprehensive schools in 1965?
56dc7c3114d3a41400c268ef
Anthony Crosland
104
False
what was Anthony Crosland's role in government?
56dc7c3114d3a41400c268f0
Secretary of State for Education
122
False
Which type of school was not in widespread usage?
56dc7c3114d3a41400c268f2
Secondary technical schools
509
False
Anthony Crosland
104
Who was responsible for the proliferation of uncomprehensive schools in 1965?
5ad5feed5b96ef001a10afe6
True
Anthony Crosland
104
Who was responsible for the proliferation of comprehensive schools in 1956?
5ad5feed5b96ef001a10afe7
True
Anthony Crosland
104
Who wasn't responsible for the proliferation of comprehensive schools in 1965?
5ad5feed5b96ef001a10afe8
True
Secretary of State for Education
122
what wasn't Anthony Crosland's role in government?
5ad5feed5b96ef001a10afe9
True
Secondary technical schools
509
Which type of school was in widespread usage?
5ad5feed5b96ef001a10afea
True
The largest expansion of comprehensive schools in 1965 resulted from a policy decision taken in 1965 by Anthony Crosland, Secretary of State for Education in the 1964–1970 Labour government. The policy decision was implemented by Circular 10/65, an instruction to local education authorities to plan for conversion. Students sat the 11+ examination in their last year of primary education and were sent to one of a secondary modern, secondary technical or grammar school depending on their perceived ability. Secondary technical schools were never widely implemented and for 20 years there was a virtual bipartite system which saw fierce competition for the available grammar school places, which varied between 15% and 25% of total secondary places, depending on location.[citation needed]
Who was made Secretary of State for Education in 1970?
56dc7c9d14d3a41400c268ff
Margaret Thatcher
8
False
What kind of school did Thatcher end the compulsion for existing schools to convert to?
56dc7c9d14d3a41400c26900
comprehensive
310
False
What party was in power when Margaret Thatcher was made Secretary of State for Education?
56dc7c9d14d3a41400c26901
Conservative
77
False
Margaret Thatcher
8
Who wasn't made Secretary of State for Education in 1970?
5ad5ff435b96ef001a10aff0
True
Margaret Thatcher
8
Who was made Secretary of State for Education in 1972?
5ad5ff435b96ef001a10aff1
True
comprehensive
310
What kind of school didn't Thatcher end the compulsion for existing schools to convert to?
5ad5ff435b96ef001a10aff2
True
comprehensive
310
What kind of school did Thatcher start the compulsion for existing schools to convert to?
5ad5ff435b96ef001a10aff3
True
Conservative
77
What party wasn't in power when Margaret Thatcher was made Secretary of State for Education?
5ad5ff435b96ef001a10aff4
True
In 1970 Margaret Thatcher became Secretary of State for Education of the new Conservative government. She ended the compulsion on local authorities to convert, however, many local authorities were so far down the path that it would have been prohibitively expensive to attempt to reverse the process, and more comprehensive schools were established under Mrs Thatcher than any other education secretary.
By what year did the 11-plus exam mainly fall out of use?
56dc7d3514d3a41400c26905
1975
3
False
What did secondary modern and grammar schools combine to become?
56dc7d3514d3a41400c26906
neighbourhood comprehensives
244
False
Grammar schools that did not close were converted to what?
56dc7d3514d3a41400c26907
comprehensive schools
675
False
What are two locations in which all secondary schools were converted to comprehensives in the '70s?
56dc7d3514d3a41400c26908
Sandwell and Dudley
587
False
1975
3
By what year didn't the 11-plus exam mainly fall out of use?
5ad5ffa05b96ef001a10affa
True
1975
3
By what year did the 21-plus exam mainly fall out of use?
5ad5ffa05b96ef001a10affb
True
neighbourhood comprehensives
244
What didn't secondary modern and grammar schools combine to become?
5ad5ffa05b96ef001a10affc
True
comprehensive schools
675
Grammar schools that closed were converted to what?
5ad5ffa05b96ef001a10affd
True
Sandwell and Dudley
587
What are two locations in which all secondary schools were converted to comprehensives in the '60s?
5ad5ffa05b96ef001a10affe
True
By 1975 the majority of local authorities in England and Wales had abandoned the 11-plus examination and moved to a comprehensive system. Over that 10-year period many secondary modern schools and grammar schools were amalgamated to form large neighbourhood comprehensives, whilst a number of new schools were built to accommodate a growing school population. By the mid-1970s the system had been almost fully implemented, with virtually no secondary modern schools remaining. Many grammar schools were either closed or changed to comprehensive status. Some local authorities, including Sandwell and Dudley in the West Midlands, changed all of its state secondary schools to comprehensive schools during the 1970s.
Who initiated the scrutiny of the educational system in 1976?
56dc7d9b14d3a41400c2690d
James Callaghan
41
False
What is the only kind of school operating in Wales?
56dc7d9b14d3a41400c2690e
Comprehensive school
348
False
Which political party was James Callaghan a member of?
56dc7d9b14d3a41400c2690f
Labour
19
False
James Callaghan
41
Who ended the scrutiny of the educational system in 1976?
5ad6006b5b96ef001a10b004
True
James Callaghan
41
Who initiated the scrutiny of the educational system in 1967?
5ad6006b5b96ef001a10b005
True
Comprehensive school
348
What is the only kind of school not operating in Wales?
5ad6006b5b96ef001a10b006
True
Comprehensive school
348
What is the only kind of school operating in England?
5ad6006b5b96ef001a10b007
True
Labour
19
Which political party was James Callaghan not a member of?
5ad6006b5b96ef001a10b008
True
In 1976 the future Labour prime minister James Callaghan launched what became known as the 'great debate' on the education system. He went on to list the areas he felt needed closest scrutiny: the case for a core curriculum, the validity and use of informal teaching methods, the role of school inspection and the future of the examination system. Comprehensive school remains the most common type of state secondary school in England, and the only type in Wales. They account for around 90% of pupils, or 64% if one does not count schools with low-level selection. This figure varies by region.
What law enables parents full control over their child's education?
56dc7e1b14d3a41400c26919
Education Reform Act
15
False
In what year was the Education Reform Act made into law?
56dc7e1b14d3a41400c2691a
1988
10
False
What concept does the government currently support for education?
56dc7e1b14d3a41400c2691b
specialisation
559
False
Parental choice has informed what controversial practice?
56dc7e1b14d3a41400c2691c
league tables of school performance
841
False
Education Reform Act
15
What law disables parents full control over their child's education?
5ad600cb5b96ef001a10b00e
True
Education Reform Act
15
What law enables parents no control over their child's education?
5ad600cb5b96ef001a10b00f
True
1988
10
In what year was the Education Reform Act scrapped?
5ad600cb5b96ef001a10b010
True
specialisation
559
What concept does the government currently not support for education?
5ad600cb5b96ef001a10b011
True
league tables of school performance
841
Parental choice hasn't informed what controversial practice?
5ad600cb5b96ef001a10b012
True
Since the 1988 Education Reform Act, parents have a right to choose which school their child should go to or whether to not send them to school at all and to home educate them instead. The concept of "school choice" introduces the idea of competition between state schools, a fundamental change to the original "neighbourhood comprehensive" model, and is partly intended as a means by which schools that are perceived to be inferior are forced either to improve or, if hardly anyone wants to go there, to close down. Government policy is currently promoting 'specialisation' whereby parents choose a secondary school appropriate for their child's interests and skills. Most initiatives focus on parental choice and information, implementing a pseudo-market incentive to encourage better schools. This logic has underpinned the controversial league tables of school performance.
All public primary and secondary schools in Scotland are of what type?
56dc7e6714d3a41400c26921
comprehensive
94
False
What has Scotland refused to adopt?
56dc7e6714d3a41400c26922
specialist schools
345
False
When was Scotland's latest rejection of the specialist school model?
56dc7e6714d3a41400c26923
2005
370
False
comprehensive
94
All private primary and secondary schools in Scotland are of what type?
5ad6012e5b96ef001a10b018
True
comprehensive
94
All public primary and secondary schools in England are of what type?
5ad6012e5b96ef001a10b019
True
specialist schools
345
What has England refused to adopt?
5ad6012e5b96ef001a10b01a
True
2005
370
When was England's latest rejection of the specialist school model?
5ad6012e5b96ef001a10b01b
True
2005
370
When wasn't Scotland's latest rejection of the specialist school model?
5ad6012e5b96ef001a10b01c
True
Scotland has a very different educational system from England and Wales, though also based on comprehensive education. It has different ages of transfer, different examinations and a different philosophy of choice and provision. All publicly funded primary and secondary schools are comprehensive. The Scottish Government has rejected plans for specialist schools as of 2005.
Which country is Northern England's school system most different from?
56dc7e9a14d3a41400c26927
Scotland
169
False
Which countries have school systems somewhat similar to Northern Ireland?
56dc7e9a14d3a41400c26928
England and Wales
137
False
Scotland
169
Which country isn't Northern England's school system most different from?
5ad601975b96ef001a10b022
True
Scotland
169
Which country is Northern Ireland's school system most different from?
5ad601975b96ef001a10b023
True
Scotland
169
Which country is Northern England's school system most same as?
5ad601975b96ef001a10b024
True
England and Wales
137
Which countries have school systems very different from Northern Ireland?
5ad601975b96ef001a10b025
True
England and Wales
137
Which countries have school systems somewhat similar to Northern England?
5ad601975b96ef001a10b026
True
Education in Northern Ireland differs slightly from systems used elsewhere in the United Kingdom, but it is more similar to that used in England and Wales than it is to Scotland.
comprehensive schools
32
What isn't some controversy about?
5ad5faef5b96ef001a10af8c
True
those supporting The Left Party, the Social Democratic Party of Germany and Alliance '90/The Greens
74
What aren't generally in favor of comprehensive schools?
5ad5faef5b96ef001a10af8d
True
those supporting The Left Party, the Social Democratic Party of Germany and Alliance '90/The Greens
74
What are generally in favor of uncomprehensive schools?
5ad5faef5b96ef001a10af8e
True
those supporting the Christian Democratic Union and the Free Democratic Party
220
What are generally in favor of comprehensive schools?
5ad5faef5b96ef001a10af8f
True
those supporting the Christian Democratic Union and the Free Democratic Party
220
What are generally in favor of comprehensive hospitals?
5ad5faef5b96ef001a10af90
True
There is some controversy about comprehensive schools. As a rule of thumb those supporting The Left Party, the Social Democratic Party of Germany and Alliance '90/The Greens are in favour of comprehensive schools, while those supporting the Christian Democratic Union and the Free Democratic Party are opposed to them.
Republic_of_the_Congo
What is the French term for the Republic of the Congo?
56dcd9ef9a695914005b944a
République du Congo
35
False
Which country lies on Congo's northeast border?
56dcd9ef9a695914005b944b
Central African Republic
269
False
Whic country lies on Congo's western border?
56dcd9ef9a695914005b944c
Gabon
219
False
Which country lies on Congo's northwest border?
56dcd9ef9a695914005b944d
Cameroon
238
False
In what part of Africa is the Congo located?
56dcd9ef9a695914005b944e
Central Africa
169
False
République du Congo
35
What is the Angolan name for The Republic of the Congo?
5acff47177cf76001a68660a
True
The Republic of the Congo
0
What country borders the west of Gabon?
5acff47177cf76001a68660b
True
the Central African Republic
265
What borders northwest Cameroon?
5acff47177cf76001a68660c
True
République du Congo
35
What is the French name for Gabon?
5acff47177cf76001a68660d
True
Congo-Brazzaville
126
What is the Central African Republic also known as?
5acff47177cf76001a68660e
True
The Republic of the Congo (French: République du Congo), also known as Congo, Congo Republic, West Congo[citation needed], or Congo-Brazzaville, is a country located in Central Africa. It is bordered by five countries: Gabon to the west; Cameroon to the northwest; the Central African Republic to the northeast; the Democratic Republic of the Congo to the east and south; and the Angolan exclave of Cabinda to the southwest.
What language was spoken in the area that became the Congo?
56dcda7b9a695914005b9454
Bantu
28
False
When did the Congo gain its independence from colonial rule?
56dcda7b9a695914005b9455
1960
209
False
Who is the ruler of the Congo?
56dcda7b9a695914005b9457
Denis Sassou Nguesso
539
False
What title does Nguesso hold?
56dcda7b9a695914005b9458
President
529
False
Bantu
28
What language dominated Equatorial Africa?
5acff5ca77cf76001a686632
True
1960
209
When did the Congo lose its independence from colonial rule?
5acff5ca77cf76001a686633
True
1997
488
What year was President Denis Sassou Nguesso ousted?
5acff5ca77cf76001a686634
True
Republic of the Congo Civil War
493
What conflict removed President Denis Sassou Nguesso from power?
5acff5ca77cf76001a686635
True
26
574
How many years did President Denis Sassou Nguesso rule the democratically elected government?
5acff5ca77cf76001a686636
True
The region was dominated by Bantu-speaking tribes, who built trade links leading into the Congo River basin. Congo-Brazzaville was formerly part of the French colony of Equatorial Africa. Upon independence in 1960, the former colony of French Congo became the Republic of the Congo. The People's Republic of the Congo was a Marxist–Leninist one-party state from 1970 to 1991. Multi-party elections have been held since 1992, although a democratically elected government was ousted in the 1997 Republic of the Congo Civil War and President Denis Sassou Nguesso has ruled for 26 of the past 36 years.
What is the Congo's rank among other oil generating nations in the Gulf of Guinea?
56dcdb2e66d3e219004dab30
fourth
93
False
What income is subject to uneven distribution in the Congo?
56dcdb2e66d3e219004dab31
oil revenues
291
False
political stability and development of hydrocarbon production
4
What factors led to the Republic of Congo being the third largest oil producer in the Gulf of Guinea?
5acff6cc77cf76001a686676
True
fourth
93
What is the Congo's rank among all the oil generating nations of the world?
5acff6cc77cf76001a686677
True
oil revenues
291
What income is evenly distributed in the Congo?
5acff6cc77cf76001a686678
True
relative prosperity
175
What economic status did oil revenue fail to provide for the Congo?
5acff6cc77cf76001a686679
True
public
244
What kind of services in the Congo are in good shape?
5acff6cc77cf76001a68667a
True
The political stability and development of hydrocarbon production made Republic of Congo the fourth largest oil producer in the Gulf of Guinea and provided the country with a relative prosperity despite the poor state of its infrastructure and public services and an unequal distribution of oil revenues.
What group of people were living in the area that would become the Congo prior to the arrival of Bantu tribes?
56dcdbe566d3e219004dab35
Pygmy
145
False
When did Bantu tribes arrive in the area formerly populated by the Pygmy people?
56dcdbe566d3e219004dab36
1500 BC
165
False
The Bakongo were a group derived from which tribes?
56dcdbe566d3e219004dab37
Bantu
0
False
Bantu
0
What language did the Pygmy people speak?
5acff76f77cf76001a686694
True
1500 BC
165
When did the Pygmy people displace the Bantu?
5acff76f77cf76001a686695
True
ethnic affinities and rivalries
322
What did the Pygmy people form a basis for?
5acff76f77cf76001a686696
True
Loango
432
What Bantu kingdom never traded with the Congo River basin?
5acff76f77cf76001a686697
True
Kongo
421
What Pygmy kingdom built trade links with the Congo River basin?
5acff76f77cf76001a686698
True
Bantu-speaking peoples who founded tribes during the Bantu expansions largely displaced and absorbed the earliest inhabitants of the region, the Pygmy people, about 1500 BC. The Bakongo, a Bantu ethnic group that also occupied parts of present-day Angola, Gabon, and Democratic Republic of the Congo, formed the basis for ethnic affinities and rivalries among those countries. Several Bantu kingdoms—notably those of the Kongo, the Loango, and the Teke—built trade links leading into the Congo River basin.
Whose expedition arrived at the mouth of the Congo River in 1484?
56dcdca466d3e219004dab3d
Diogo Cão
24
False
What was Diogo Cao's nationality?
56dcdca466d3e219004dab3e
Portuguese
4
False
What did European traders exchange with Bantu people?
56dcdca466d3e219004dab3f
commodities, manufactured goods, and people
188
False
When did formal colonization of the Congo River delta begin?
56dcdca466d3e219004dab40
late 19th century
386
False
Colonization reduced the power of what groups in the Congo River basin?
56dcdca466d3e219004dab41
Bantu societies
443
False
Diogo Cão
24
What Bantu explorer reached the mouth of the Congo in 1484?
5acff89a77cf76001a6866a8
True
manufactured goods
201
What is an example of something that was not traded between the Bantu and European merchants?
5acff89a77cf76001a6866a9
True
European colonization
326
What was responsible for the power of Bantu societies growing in the late 19th century?
5acff89a77cf76001a6866aa
True
the Congo river delta
351
What area did the Bantu colonize in the late 19th century?
5acff89a77cf76001a6866ab
True
Bantu societies
443
Colonization increased the power of what group in the Congo River basin?
5acff89a77cf76001a6866ac
True
The Portuguese explorer Diogo Cão reached the mouth of the Congo in 1484. Commercial relationships quickly grew between the inland Bantu kingdoms and European merchants who traded various commodities, manufactured goods, and people captured from the hinterlands. After centuries as a major hub for transatlantic trade, direct European colonization of the Congo river delta began in the late 19th century, subsequently eroding the power of the Bantu societies in the region.
When did the French take control of the region to the north of the Congo River?
56dcddb066d3e219004dab47
1880
67
False
Who brokered a traty with the Makoko people?
56dcddb066d3e219004dab48
Pierre de Brazza
87
False
What was the French Congo's name changed to in 1903?
56dcddb066d3e219004dab49
Middle Congo
202
False
What group of French colonies was created in 1908?
56dcddb066d3e219004dab4a
French Equatorial Africa
250
False
How many people are estimated to have died as a result of the creation of the Congo-Ocean Railroad?
56dcddb066d3e219004dab4b
14,000
685
False
1880
67
When did the area south of the Congo River come under French sovereignty?
5acffbc877cf76001a6866e8
True
1903
218
When did Middle Congo become known as French Congo?
5acffbc877cf76001a6866e9
True
Brazzaville
400
What did the Bateke designate as the federal capital?
5acffbc877cf76001a6866ea
True
natural-resource extraction
521
What did economic development during the first 50 years of colonial rule ignore?
5acffbc877cf76001a6866eb
True
14,000
685
How many lives were lost building the Congo-Ocean Railroad before World War I?
5acffbc877cf76001a6866ec
True
The area north of the Congo River came under French sovereignty in 1880 as a result of Pierre de Brazza's treaty with Makoko of the Bateke. This Congo Colony became known first as French Congo, then as Middle Congo in 1903. In 1908, France organized French Equatorial Africa (AEF), comprising Middle Congo, Gabon, Chad, and Oubangui-Chari (the modern Central African Republic). The French designated Brazzaville as the federal capital. Economic development during the first 50 years of colonial rule in Congo centered on natural-resource extraction. The methods were often brutal: construction of the Congo–Ocean Railroad following World War I has been estimated to have cost at least 14,000 lives.
What served as the capital of France in spirit during the Occupation?
56dce55f66d3e219004dab51
Brazzaville
58
False
What meeting brought about changes in France's policy towards its colonies?
56dce55f66d3e219004dab52
Brazzaville Conference of 1944
147
False
When did Brazzaville get its own local government?
56dce55f66d3e219004dab53
1946
498
False
What did the 1946 constitution establish Brazzaville as?
56dce55f66d3e219004dab54
the Fourth Republic
533
False
Brazzaville
58
What served as the symbolic capital of France during World War I?
5acffd8177cf76001a6866fc
True
1946
498
When was Brazzaville established as the Third Republic?
5acffd8177cf76001a6866fd
True
Brazzaville
58
What was the symbolic capital of the Nazis from 1940 to 1943?
5acffd8177cf76001a6866fe
True
central geographic location
356
What stopped Congo from benefiting from the postwar expansion of colonial administrative and infrastructure spending?
5acffd8177cf76001a6866ff
True
local
454
What kind of legislature did Brazzaville receive prior to 1946?
5acffd8177cf76001a686700
True
During the Nazi occupation of France during World War II, Brazzaville functioned as the symbolic capital of Free France between 1940 and 1943. The Brazzaville Conference of 1944 heralded a period of major reform in French colonial policy. Congo benefited from the postwar expansion of colonial administrative and infrastructure spending as a result of its central geographic location within AEF and the federal capital at Brazzaville. It also received a local legislature after the adoption of the 1946 constitution that established the Fourth Republic.
When was the Fifth Republic founded?
56dce5b69a695914005b9468
1958
89
False
What was disbanded in 1958?
56dce5b69a695914005b9469
the AEF
95
False
In 1958, what did the Middle Congo change its name to?
56dce5b69a695914005b946a
the Republic of the Congo
263
False
When did the Congo establish its first constitution?
56dce5b69a695914005b946b
1959
337
False
1958
89
When was the Second Republic established?
5acffe3177cf76001a686720
True
revision of the French constitution
14
What established the Third Republic?
5acffe3177cf76001a686721
True
1958
292
When did the Republic of the Congo become known as Middle Congo?
5acffe3177cf76001a686722
True
Brazzaville
448
Where did the Mbochis subdue a riot?
5acffe3177cf76001a686723
True
French Army
488
Who subdued a series of riots in 1959?
5acffe3177cf76001a686724
True
Following the revision of the French constitution that established the Fifth Republic in 1958, the AEF dissolved into its constituent parts, each of which became an autonomous colony within the French Community. During these reforms, Middle Congo became known as the Republic of the Congo in 1958 and published its first constitution in 1959. Antagonism between the pro-Opangault Mbochis and the pro-Youlou Balalis resulted in a series of riots in Brazzaville in February 1959, which the French Army subdued.
On what date was the Congo made fully independent from colonial rule?
56dceb899a695914005b9472
August 15, 1960
68
False
Who was the first leader of the independent Congo?
56dceb899a695914005b9473
Fulbert Youlou
85
False
Who replaced Youlou?
56dceb899a695914005b9474
Alphonse Massamba-Débat
354
False
Who were responsible for the revolts that ended with Youlou's removal?
56dceb899a695914005b9475
labour elements and rival political parties
145
False
Who took control of the company during the transition from Youlou to Debat?
56dceb899a695914005b9476
Congolese military
242
False
August 15, 1960
68
When did the Congo lose independence from colonial rule?
5ad000ce77cf76001a686746
True
labour elements and rival political parties
145
What ousted Alphonse Massamba-Débat from power?
5ad000ce77cf76001a686747
True
Congolese military
242
Who installed Fulbert Youlou as head of the civilian provisional government?
5ad000ce77cf76001a686748
True
Congolese military
242
What took charge of the country for a long time?
5ad000ce77cf76001a686749
True
August 15, 1960
68
When did France receive independence from the Republic of Congo?
5ad000ce77cf76001a68674a
True
The Republic of the Congo received full independence from France on August 15, 1960. Fulbert Youlou ruled as the country's first president until labour elements and rival political parties instigated a three-day uprising that ousted him. The Congolese military took charge of the country briefly and installed a civilian provisional government headed by Alphonse Massamba-Débat.
Who became president of the Congo in 1963?
56dcec399a695914005b947c
Massamba-Débat
29
False
What was a term that could describe the political philosophy of the Congo under Massamba-Debat?
56dcec399a695914005b947e
scientific socialism
147
False
Soldiers from which country were brought to the Congo?
56dcec399a695914005b947f
Cuban
387
False
When did Massamba-Debat lose power in the Congo?
56dcec399a695914005b9480
September 1968
770
False
scientific socialism
147
What was the country's ideology before Massamba-Débat's term in office?
5ad0030877cf76001a686756
True
1965
214
When did the Soviet Union establish relations with North Korea?
5ad0030877cf76001a686757
True
Massamba-Débat
29
Who was elected president for a 10 year term?
5ad0030877cf76001a686758
True
several hundred
371
How many Chinese troops were invited into the Congo?
5ad0030877cf76001a686759
True
1966
514
When was there a coup led by paratroopers loyal to Massamba-Débat?
5ad0030877cf76001a68675a
True
Under the 1963 constitution, Massamba-Débat was elected President for a five-year term. During Massamba-Débat's term in office the regime adopted "scientific socialism" as the country's constitutional ideology. In 1965, Congo established relations with the Soviet Union, the People's Republic of China, North Korea and North Vietnam. Massamba-Débat's regime also invited several hundred Cuban army troops into the country to train his party's militia units and these troops helped his government survive a coup in 1966 led by paratroopers loyal to future President Marien Ngouabi. Nevertheless, Massamba-Débat was unable to reconcile various institutional, tribal and ideological factions within the country and his regime ended abruptly with a bloodless coup d'état in September 1968.
Who became president of the Congo in 1968?
56dcecb79a695914005b9486
Marien Ngouabi
0
False
What did the Congo's name become under Ngouabi?
56dcecb79a695914005b9487
People's Republic of the Congo
186
False
What did the National Revolutionary Movement's name become?
56dcecb79a695914005b9488
Congolese Labour Party
310
False
In what year was a coup attempted against Ngouabi?
56dcecb79a695914005b9489
1972
378
False
On what date was Ngouabi assassinated?
56dcecb79a695914005b948a
March 16, 1977
407
False
Marien Ngouabi
0
Who left the presidency on December 31, 1968?
5ad0049777cf76001a68676a
True
Joachim Yhombi-Opango
524
Who became president after Denis Sassou Nguesso?
5ad0049777cf76001a68676b
True
People's Republic of the Congo
186
What did the Congo's name change to under Denis Sassou Nguesso?
5ad0049777cf76001a68676c
True
1972
378
When did Denis Sassou Nguesso survive a coup?
5ad0049777cf76001a68676d
True
March 16, 1977
407
When was Joachim Yhombi-Opango assassinated?
5ad0049777cf76001a68676e
True
Marien Ngouabi, who had participated in the coup, assumed the presidency on December 31, 1968. One year later, President Ngouabi proclaimed Congo Africa's first "people's republic", the People's Republic of the Congo, and announced the decision of the National Revolutionary Movement to change its name to the Congolese Labour Party (PCT). Ngouabi survived an attempted coup in 1972 but was assassinated on March 16, 1977. An 11-member Military Committee of the Party (CMP) was then named to head an interim government with Joachim Yhombi-Opango to serve as President of the Republic. Two years later, Yhombi-Opango was forced from power and Denis Sassou Nguesso become the new president.
Which group of nations did Nguesso side the Congo with?
56dced1b66d3e219004dab59
Eastern Bloc
44
False
Which Eastern Bloc nation did Nguesso sign a pact with?
56dced1b66d3e219004dab5a
the Soviet Union
103
False
What is a word that can be used to describe Sassou's type of government?
56dced1b66d3e219004dab5b
dictatorship
223
False
What was an important tool of the Sassou government?
56dced1b66d3e219004dab5c
political repression
164
False
Sassou Nguesso
0
Who aligned the country with the Western Bloc?
5ad005e077cf76001a68677e
True
Sassou
137
Who relied more on patronage to maintain his dictatorship?
5ad005e077cf76001a68677f
True
political repression
164
What was the least important tool of the Sassou government?
5ad005e077cf76001a686780
True
the Soviet Union
103
What did Sassou sign a ten year friendship pact with?
5ad005e077cf76001a686781
True
twenty-year
70
How long was the friendship pact Sassou signed with the Eastern Bloc?
5ad005e077cf76001a686782
True
Sassou Nguesso aligned the country with the Eastern Bloc and signed a twenty-year friendship pact with the Soviet Union. Over the years, Sassou had to rely more on political repression and less on patronage to maintain his dictatorship.
Who was elected president of the Congo in 1992?
56dcedee9a695914005b9498
Pascal Lissouba
0
False
Who supported the measures of liberalisation Lissouba tried to employ to reform the economy?
56dcedee9a695914005b9499
IMF
161
False
What interrupted the renewal of the IMF agreement with the Congo?
56dcedee9a695914005b949a
civil war
376
False
What does ESAF stand for?
56dcedee9a695914005b949b
enhanced structural adjustment facility
262
False
Pascal Lissouba
0
Who was Congo's last elected president?
5ad0076377cf76001a686792
True
1996
208
What year did the IMF turn down  a three-year SDR69.5m (US$100m) enhanced structural adjustment facility?
5ad0076377cf76001a686793
True
mid-1997
408
When did civil war end in Congo?
5ad0076377cf76001a686794
True
Pascal Lissouba
0
Who was president during the period of single party democracy?
5ad0076377cf76001a686795
True
Pascal Lissouba, who became Congo's first elected president (1992–1997) during the period of multi-party democracy, attempted to implement economic reforms with IMF backing to liberalise the economy. In June 1996 the IMF approved a three-year SDR69.5m (US$100m) enhanced structural adjustment facility (ESAF) and was on the verge of announcing a renewed annual agreement when civil war broke out in Congo in mid-1997.
Which two figures clashed over leadership of the Congo in 1997?
56dcf6c666d3e219004dab61
Lissouba and Sassou
54
False
What is the name of Sassou's personal army?
56dcf6c666d3e219004dab62
Cobras
392
False
What nationality were the forces that invaded the Congo to assist Sassou in taking control of the country?
56dcf6c666d3e219004dab64
Angolan
562
False
In what month did Sassou regain the presidency?
56dcf6c666d3e219004dab65
October
549
False
1997
44
When did Congo's democratic progress get back on track?
5ad0081f77cf76001a6867a4
True
July 1997
159
When did the tensions between the Lissouba and Sassou camps start to dissipate?
5ad0081f77cf76001a6867a5
True
June 5
240
When did government forces surround Lissouba's compound?
5ad0081f77cf76001a6867a6
True
Brazzaville
319
Where was Lissouba's compound located?
5ad0081f77cf76001a6867a7
True
Cobras
392
What were members of Lissouba's militia called?
5ad0081f77cf76001a6867a8
True
Congo's democratic progress was derailed in 1997 when Lissouba and Sassou started to fight for power in the civil war. As presidential elections scheduled for July 1997 approached, tensions between the Lissouba and Sassou camps mounted. On June 5, President Lissouba's government forces surrounded Sassou's compound in Brazzaville and Sassou ordered members of his private militia (known as "Cobras") to resist. Thus began a four-month conflict that destroyed or damaged much of Brazzaville and caused tens of thousands of civilian deaths. In early October, the Angolan socialist régime began an invasion of Congo to install Sassou in power. In mid-October, the Lissouba government fell. Soon thereafter, Sassou declared himself president.
Which politican left the presidential race after supporting a boycott by voters?
56dcf81e66d3e219004dab6c
Milongo
211
False
How long did the presidential term become under the new constitution?
56dcf81e66d3e219004dab6d
seven years
419
False
When was the new constitution ratified?
56dcf81e66d3e219004dab6e
January 2002
350
False
When was an end brought to the fighting between the government and Ntumi's rebels?
56dcf81e66d3e219004dab6f
April 2003
869
False
Sassou
40
Who won more than 90% of the vote?
5ad009bc77cf76001a6867c6
True
2002
34
When did Bernard Kolelas win the election?
5ad009bc77cf76001a6867c7
True
boycott the elections
246
What did Lissouba advise his supporters to do?
5ad009bc77cf76001a6867c8
True
presidential election
537
What did international observers see no problem with?
5ad009bc77cf76001a6867c9
True
new constitution
303
What reduced the president's term to seven years?
5ad009bc77cf76001a6867ca
True
In the controversial elections in 2002, Sassou won with almost 90% of the vote cast. His two main rivals, Lissouba and Bernard Kolelas, were prevented from competing and the only remaining credible rival, Andre Milongo, advised his supporters to boycott the elections and then withdrew from the race. A new constitution, agreed upon by referendum in January 2002, granted the president new powers, extended his term to seven years, and introduced a new bicameral assembly. International observers took issue with the organization of the presidential election and the constitutional referendum, both of which were reminiscent in their organization of Congo's era of the one-party state. Following the presidential elections, fighting restarted in the Pool region between government forces and rebels led by Pastor Ntumi; a peace treaty to end the conflict was signed in April 2003.
Who won the presidential election in 2009?
56dcf8689a695914005b94a0
Sassou
0
False
Which group provided oversight for the electoral process in 2009?
56dcf8689a695914005b94a1
Congolese Observatory of Human Rights
83
False
What kind of turnout did the Congolese Observatory of Human Rights experience in the 2009 elections?
56dcf8689a695914005b94a2
very low
183
False
the following presidential election
16
What election did Sassou lose?
5ad00a9d77cf76001a6867e0
True
2009
60
What year did Sassou lose re-election?
5ad00a9d77cf76001a6867e1
True
Congolese Observatory of Human Rights
83
Who said the election was marked by very high turnout?
5ad00a9d77cf76001a6867e2
True
Congolese Observatory of Human Rights
83
What governmental organization commented on the election?
5ad00a9d77cf76001a6867e3
True
July
55
What month did Sassou lose an election in?
5ad00a9d77cf76001a6867e4
True
Sassou also won the following presidential election in July 2009. According to the Congolese Observatory of Human Rights, a non-governmental organization, the election was marked by "very low" turnout and "fraud and irregularities".
What kind of political system has existed in Congo-Brazzaville since the '90s?
56dcf8b79a695914005b94a6
multi-party
28
False
Which party does Sassou belong to?
56dcf8b79a695914005b94a7
Congolese Labour Party
277
False
What is the French term for Sassou's political party?
56dcf8b79a695914005b94a8
Parti Congolais du Travail
309
False
the early 1990s
63
Since when has Congo-Brazzaville has a single party political system?
5ad00faf77cf76001a686846
True
President Denis Sassou Nguesso
124
Who has serious competition in the presidential elections?
5ad00faf77cf76001a686847
True
Parti Congolais du Travail
309
What is the Congolese Labour Party called in German?
5ad00faf77cf76001a686848
True
Congolese Labour Party
277
What party does not back Sassou?
5ad00faf77cf76001a686849
True
the system
89
What is not dominated by Sassou?
5ad00faf77cf76001a68684a
True
Congo-Brazzaville has had a multi-party political system since the early 1990s, although the system is heavily dominated by President Denis Sassou Nguesso; he has lacked serious competition in the presidential elections held under his rule. Sassou Nguesso is backed by his own Congolese Labour Party (French: Parti Congolais du Travail) as well as a range of smaller parties.
What has Sassou's regime attempted to censor?
56dcf91c9a695914005b94ac
corruption revelations
49
False
What country found bank accounts and real estate owned by the Sassou regime?
56dcf91c9a695914005b94ad
France
194
False
corruption revelations
49
What did Sassou's regime not attempt to censor?
5ad0104777cf76001a686878
True
corruption revelations
49
What has Sassou's regime been hit by nationally?
5ad0104777cf76001a686879
True
over 110 bank accounts
136
What did one German investigation find?
5ad0104777cf76001a68687a
True
racist
251
What did France denounce embezzlement investigations as?
5ad0104777cf76001a68687b
True
France
194
What country were no lavish properties found in?
5ad0104777cf76001a68687c
True
Internationally, Sassou's regime has been hit by corruption revelations despite attempts to censor them. One French investigation found over 110 bank accounts and dozens of lavish properties in France; Sassou denounced embezzlement investigations as "racist" and "colonial".
When did Sassou reveal that there would be a vote to alter the 2002 constitution?
56dcfbdd9a695914005b94b2
March 27, 2015
3
False
Which term did the new constitution allow Sassou to pursue?
56dcfbdd9a695914005b94b5
third
156
False
March 27, 2015
3
When did Sassou announce that his government would not change the 2002 constitution?
5ad0120377cf76001a6868a4
True
referendum
76
What changed the 2015 constitution?
5ad0120377cf76001a6868a5
True
92
346
What percentage of people did the government claim opposed the proposal?
5ad0120377cf76001a6868a6
True
72
372
What percentage of people did the government claim did not vote?
5ad0120377cf76001a6868a7
True
referendum
76
What allowed Sassou to run for a second term?
5ad0120377cf76001a6868a8
True
On March 27, 2015 Sassou Nguesso announced that his government would hold a referendum to change the country's 2002 constitution and allow him to run for a third consecutive term in office. On October 25 the government held a referendum to allow Sassou Nguesso to run in the next election. The government claimed that the proposal as approved by 92 percent of voters with 72 percent of eligible voters participating. The opposition, who had boycotted the referendum claimed that the government's statistics were false and that the vote was a sham.
Who controlled the media in the Congo in 2008
56dcfc1f66d3e219004dab75
the government
38
False
How many government TV stations exist?
56dcfc1f66d3e219004dab76
one
126
False
How many smaller stations exist that are not government-run?
56dcfc1f66d3e219004dab77
10
177
False
2008
3
When was the main media not owned by the government?
5ad013da77cf76001a6868ee
True
2008
3
When were many privately run forms of media being destroyed?
5ad013da77cf76001a6868ef
True
10
177
How many large private television channels were there?
5ad013da77cf76001a6868f0
True
one
126
How many government owned radio stations were there?
5ad013da77cf76001a6868f1
True
10
177
How many privately owned radio stations were running?
5ad013da77cf76001a6868f2
True
In 2008, the main media were owned by the government, but many more privately run forms of media were being created. There is one government-owned television station and around 10 small private television channels.
Who is considered to own members of the Pygmies?
56dcfc7b66d3e219004dab7b
Bantus
34
False
The treatment of Pygmies has been compared to the treatment of what?
56dcfc7b66d3e219004dab7c
pets
184
False
When did the government of the Congo pass a law to assist indigenous people?
56dcfc7b66d3e219004dab7d
December 30, 2010
198
False
Pygmies
5
Who do many Bantus belong to?
5ad014c177cf76001a686916
True
December 30, 2010
198
When did the Congolese parliament strike down a law to protect indigenous people?
5ad014c177cf76001a686917
True
This law
326
What is the last of its kind in Africa?
5ad014c177cf76001a686918
True
pets
184
What does the Congolese Human Rights Observatory say Bantus are treated as?
5ad014c177cf76001a686919
True
Pygmies belong from birth to Bantus
5
What does no one refer to as slavery?
5ad014c177cf76001a68691a
True
Many Pygmies belong from birth to Bantus in a relationship many refer to as slavery. The Congolese Human Rights Observatory says that the Pygmies are treated as property the same way "pets" are. On December 30, 2010, the Congolese parliament adopted a law for the promotion and protection of the rights of indigenous peoples. This law is the first of its kind in Africa, and its adoption is a historic development for indigenous peoples on the continent.
Between which two lines of latitude is the Congo located?
56dcfce466d3e219004dab81
4°N and 5°S
111
False
Between which two lines of longitude is the Congo located?
56dcfce466d3e219004dab82
11° and 19°E
139
False
What ocean connects to the Congo?
56dcfce466d3e219004dab83
Atlantic Ocean
382
False
Which country lies southwest of the Congo?
56dcfce466d3e219004dab84
Cabinda
319
False
What is another name for Cabinda?
56dcfce466d3e219004dab85
Angola
328
False
Congo
0
What is located in the northern part of sub-Saharan Africa?
5ad0157877cf76001a68693a
True
Congo
0
What is outside of latitudes 4°N and 5°S?
5ad0157877cf76001a68693b
True
Cameroon
259
What is to the west of Gabon?
5ad0157877cf76001a68693c
True
Central African Republic
276
What is to the north of Cameroon?
5ad0157877cf76001a68693d
True
Congo
0
What has a long coast on the Atlantic Ocean?
5ad0157877cf76001a68693e
True
Congo is located in the central-western part of sub-Saharan Africa, along the Equator, lying between latitudes 4°N and 5°S, and longitudes 11° and 19°E. To the south and east of it is the Democratic Republic of Congo. It is also bounded by Gabon to the west, Cameroon and the Central African Republic to the north, and Cabinda (Angola) to the southwest. It has a short coast on the Atlantic Ocean.
What is the capital of the Congo?
56dcfd2266d3e219004dab8b
Brazzaville
13
False
On what river can Brazzaville be found?
56dcfd2266d3e219004dab8c
Congo River
44
False
What lies directly across the Congo River from Brazzaville?
56dcfd2266d3e219004dab8d
Kinshasa
110
False
What country does Kinshasa serve as capital of?
56dcfd2266d3e219004dab8e
Democratic Republic of the Congo
139
False
the Congo River
40
Where is Kinshasa located?
5ad0163b77cf76001a686962
True
Brazzaville
13
What is located in the north of the Congo?
5ad0163b77cf76001a686963
True
Kinshasa
110
What is located in the south of the Republic of the Congo?
5ad0163b77cf76001a686964
True
Brazzaville
13
What city is not located on the Congo River?
5ad0163b77cf76001a686965
True
Kinshasa
110
What city is located far away from Brazzaville?
5ad0163b77cf76001a686966
True
The capital, Brazzaville, is located on the Congo River, in the south of the country, immediately across from Kinshasa, the capital of the Democratic Republic of the Congo.
What kind of terrain is found in the southwest part of the Congo?
56dcfef266d3e219004dab93
coastal plain
34
False
Which river serves as drainage for the southwest plain of the Congo?
56dcfef266d3e219004dab94
Kouilou-Niari River
86
False
The middle of the country features what kind of geography?
56dcfef266d3e219004dab95
plateau
157
False
What areas are facing pressure to be used for commercial gain?
56dcfef266d3e219004dab96
Forests
208
False
Forests
208
What is not under increasing exploitation pressure?
5ad0170277cf76001a686976
True
Kouilou-Niari
86
What river is the source of drainage for the interior of the country?
5ad0170277cf76001a686977
True
coastal plain
34
What kind of geography does the northeast of the country have?
5ad0170277cf76001a686978
True
two
173
How many basins are located outside of the country?
5ad0170277cf76001a686979
True
exploitation pressure
237
What do forests in the Congo not have to face?
5ad0170277cf76001a68697a
True
The southwest of the country is a coastal plain for which the primary drainage is the Kouilou-Niari River; the interior of the country consists of a central plateau between two basins to the south and north. Forests are under increasing exploitation pressure.
On what major line of latitude is the Congo located?
56dcff6466d3e219004dab9b
Equator
36
False
What is the average temperature in the Congo when the sun is up?
56dcff6466d3e219004dab9c
24 °C (75 °F)
130
False
What is the average temperature range in the Congo during the night time?
56dcff6466d3e219004dab9d
16 °C (61 °F) and 21 °C (70 °F)
173
False
When does the Congo experience dry season?
56dcff6466d3e219004dab9e
June to August
391
False
located on the Equator
21
Why does the country's climate vary year-round?
5ad01a5577cf76001a686a02
True
24 °C (75 °F)
130
What is the temperature on an unusual day?
5ad01a5577cf76001a686a03
True
2,000 millimetres (79 in)
309
What is the yearly rainfall in the north of the country?
5ad01a5577cf76001a686a04
True
two
462
How many rainfall maxima does the minority of the country have?
5ad01a5577cf76001a686a05
True
the country
6
What is not located on the Equator?
5ad01a5577cf76001a686a06
True
Since the country is located on the Equator, the climate is consistent year-round, with the average day temperature being a humid 24 °C (75 °F) and nights generally between 16 °C (61 °F) and 21 °C (70 °F). The average yearly rainfall ranges from 1,100 millimetres (43 in) in south in the Niari Valley to over 2,000 millimetres (79 in) in central parts of the country. The dry season is from June to August while in the majority of the country the wet season has two rainfall maxima: one in March–May and another in September–November.
Which group studied gorillas in 2006-07?
56dcffdc66d3e219004daba6
Wildlife Conservation Society
33
False
What region is home to the gorillas studied by the Wildlife Conservation Society?
56dcffdc66d3e219004daba7
Sangha Region
147
False
What was responsible for maintaining the separation between the gorillas and humans?
56dcffdc66d3e219004daba9
inhospitable swamps
296
False
2006–07
3
When did researchers from the Wildlife Conservation Society study chimps?
5ad01ba277cf76001a686a32
True
Ouesso district
124
Where did researchers study chimps in heavily forested regions?
5ad01ba277cf76001a686a33
True
125,000
204
How many chimpanzees live in the area?
5ad01ba277cf76001a686a34
True
inhospitable swamps
296
What has kept the chimps isolated from humans?
5ad01ba277cf76001a686a35
True
heavily forested
83
In what kind of regions did researchers not find any gorillas?
5ad01ba277cf76001a686a36
True
In 2006–07, researchers from the Wildlife Conservation Society studied gorillas in heavily forested regions centered on the Ouesso district of the Sangha Region. They suggest a population on the order of 125,000 Western Lowland Gorillas, whose isolation from humans has been largely preserved by inhospitable swamps.
What is the focus of the Congo's industrial production?
56dd006d66d3e219004dabaf
Petroleum
200
False
What are two issues in the Congolese government?
56dd006d66d3e219004dabb0
budget problems and overstaffing
166
False
What did petroleum production replace as the focus of the economy?
56dd006d66d3e219004dabb1
forestry
236
False
What percentage of the Congo's gross domestic product did petroleum account for in 2008?
56dd006d66d3e219004dabb2
65%
311
False
What percentage of exported goods did oil account for in 2008?
56dd006d66d3e219004dabb3
92%
358
False
handicrafts
52
What is not a part of Congo's economy?
5ad01ce177cf76001a686a6a
True
petroleum
103
What is the smallest part of the industrial sector?
5ad01ce177cf76001a686a6b
True
government
138
What is characterized by under staffing?
5ad01ce177cf76001a686a6c
True
65
311
What percent of the GDP did forestry account for in 2008?
5ad01ce177cf76001a686a6d
True
92
358
What percent of exports in 2008 were handicrafts?
5ad01ce177cf76001a686a6e
True
The economy is a mixture of village agriculture and handicrafts, an industrial sector based largely on petroleum, support services, and a government characterized by budget problems and overstaffing. Petroleum extraction has supplanted forestry as the mainstay of the economy. In 2008, oil sector accounted for 65% of the GDP, 85% of government revenue, and 92% of exports. The country also has large untapped mineral wealth.
What did income from petroleum allow the government to fund in the early '80s?
56dd10cc66d3e219004dabb9
large-scale development projects
82
False
What was the Congo's annual increase in gross domestic product in the early '80s?
56dd10cc66d3e219004dabba
5%
141
False
By how much were Franc Zone currencies devalued in January of 1994?
56dd10cc66d3e219004dabbb
50%
365
False
How much inflation did the Congo experience as a result of the devaluation of the Franc?
56dd10cc66d3e219004dabbc
46%
394
False
the early 1980s
3
When did oil revenues rapidly decline?
5ad0205277cf76001a686ae6
True
rising oil revenues
28
What enabled the government to finance small development projects?
5ad0205277cf76001a686ae7
True
large-scale development projects
82
What was financed by rising forestry revenues?
5ad0205277cf76001a686ae8
True
mortgaged a substantial portion of its petroleum earnings
209
What contributed to an excess of revenues?
5ad0205277cf76001a686ae9
True
1994
401
What year was inflation at its lowest point?
5ad0205277cf76001a686aea
True
In the early 1980s, rapidly rising oil revenues enabled the government to finance large-scale development projects with GDP growth averaging 5% annually, one of the highest rates in Africa. The government has mortgaged a substantial portion of its petroleum earnings, contributing to a shortage of revenues. January 12, 1994 devaluation of Franc Zone currencies by 50% resulted in inflation of 46% in 1994, but inflation has subsided since.
What caused reform efforts to cease in 1997?
56dd117966d3e219004dabc2
civil war
195
False
What are two reasons why the economy was not able to progress following the civil war?
56dd117966d3e219004dabc3
slumping oil prices and the resumption of armed conflict
494
False
When did military conflict resume in the Congo?
56dd117966d3e219004dabc4
December 1998
554
False
the World Bank
91
What organization never supported economic reform efforts?
5ad021dd77cf76001a686b20
True
June 1997
180
When did the reform program start?
5ad021dd77cf76001a686b21
True
October 1997
277
When did Sassou leave power?
5ad021dd77cf76001a686b22
True
economic progress
458
What was helped by slumping oil prices?
5ad021dd77cf76001a686b23
True
Sassou Nguesso
219
Who did not express interest in economic reforms?
5ad021dd77cf76001a686b24
True
Economic reform efforts continued with the support of international organizations, notably the World Bank and the International Monetary Fund. The reform program came to a halt in June 1997 when civil war erupted. When Sassou Nguesso returned to power at the end of the war in October 1997, he publicly expressed interest in moving forward on economic reforms and privatization and in renewing cooperation with international financial institutions. However, economic progress was badly hurt by slumping oil prices and the resumption of armed conflict in December 1998, which worsened the republic's budget deficit.
What are two economic issues faced by the Congolese government?
56dd14af9a695914005b94c4
stimulating recovery and reducing poverty
107
False
What two exports has the Congo begun producing recently?
56dd14af9a695914005b94c5
Natural gas and diamonds
193
False
When was the Congo allowed back into the Kimberley Process?
56dd14af9a695914005b94c8
2007
488
False
current administration
4
Who presides over a stable peace?
5ad0255e77cf76001a686b98
True
2003
187
When were oil prices at a record low?
5ad0255e77cf76001a686b99
True
Democratic Republic of Congo
423
What country allegedly smuggled diamonds out of the Congo?
5ad0255e77cf76001a686b9a
True
Natural gas
193
What is not a Congolese export?
5ad0255e77cf76001a686b9b
True
2004
317
When was the Democratic Republic of Congo excluded from the Kimberly process?
5ad0255e77cf76001a686b9c
True
The current administration presides over an uneasy internal peace and faces difficult economic problems of stimulating recovery and reducing poverty, despite record-high oil prices since 2003. Natural gas and diamonds are also recent major Congolese exports, although Congo was excluded from the Kimberley Process in 2004 amid allegations that most of its diamond exports were in fact being smuggled out of the neighboring Democratic Republic of Congo; it was re-admitted to the group in 2007.
What precious metals and minerals have yet to be utilized in the Republic of the Congo?
56dd158266d3e219004dabc9
base metal, gold, iron and phosphate
50
False
What business organization is the Congo a member of?
56dd158266d3e219004dabca
Organization for the Harmonization of Business Law in Africa
128
False
How much land did the Congolese government agree to lease to South Africans in 2009?
56dd158266d3e219004dabcb
200,000 hectares
260
False
The Republic of the Congo
0
What country doesn't have many metal deposits?
5ad0261f77cf76001a686bb4
True
2009
246
When did the South African government sign an agreement to lease land to Congolese farmers?
5ad0261f77cf76001a686bb5
True
The Republic of the Congo
0
What country did the South African government lease land to?
5ad0261f77cf76001a686bb6
True
200,000 hectares
260
How much land did South Africa lease to the Congo?
5ad0261f77cf76001a686bb7
True
reduce its dependence on imports
313
Why did South Africa lease land to the Democratic Republic of Congo?
5ad0261f77cf76001a686bb8
True
The Republic of the Congo also has large untapped base metal, gold, iron and phosphate deposits. The country is a member of the Organization for the Harmonization of Business Law in Africa (OHADA). The Congolese government signed an agreement in 2009 to lease 200,000 hectares of land to South African farmers to reduce its dependence on imports.
What forms of transport are available in the Congo?
56dd1bb366d3e219004dabcf
land, air and water
48
False
When was the Congo's train system built?
56dd1bb366d3e219004dabd0
1930s
150
False
What is a common destination outside of Africa for Congolese airlines?
56dd1bb366d3e219004dabd2
Paris
337
False
On what ocean is a major port located?
56dd1bb366d3e219004dabd3
Atlantic Ocean
409
False
water
62
What method of transport is not available in the Republic of the Congo?
5ad0274d77cf76001a686bda
True
1930s
150
When did the country's rail system get taken out of operation?
5ad0274d77cf76001a686bdb
True
1000
210
How many kilometers of unpaved roads are in the Congo?
5ad0274d77cf76001a686bdc
True
two
237
How many domestic airports are located in the Republic of the Congo?
5ad0274d77cf76001a686bdd
True
Atlantic
409
Which ocean does the Congo have no ports on?
5ad0274d77cf76001a686bde
True
Transport in the Republic of the Congo includes land, air and water transportation. The country's rail system was built by forced laborers during the 1930s and largely remains in operation. There are also over 1000 km of paved roads and two major international airports (Maya-Maya Airport and Pointe Noire Airport) which have flights to Paris and many African cities. The country also has a large port on the Atlantic Ocean at Pointe-Noire and others along the Congo River at Brazzaville and Impfondo.
In what part of the country can most of the Congo's citizens be found?
56dd1cf99a695914005b94d8
southwest
69
False
How long is the track connecting Brazzaville and Pointe-Noire?
56dd1cf99a695914005b94da
534-kilometre (332 mi)
394
False
70
251
What percent of the population of the Congo lives outside urban areas?
5ad0282277cf76001a686c02
True
Brazzaville
318
What is one of the small cities in the Congo?
5ad0282277cf76001a686c03
True
534-kilometre (332 mi)
394
How long is the road that connects the largest cities?
5ad0282277cf76001a686c04
True
rural areas
459
Where has commercial activity increased rapidly?
5ad0282277cf76001a686c05
True
support and subsistence
601
What are urban economies dependent on the government for?
5ad0282277cf76001a686c06
True
The Republic of the Congo's sparse population is concentrated in the southwestern portion of the country, leaving the vast areas of tropical jungle in the north virtually uninhabited. Thus, Congo is one of the most urbanized countries in Africa, with 70% of its total population living in a few urban areas, namely in Brazzaville, Pointe-Noire or one of the small cities or villages lining the 534-kilometre (332 mi) railway which connects the two cities. In rural areas, industrial and commercial activity has declined rapidly in recent years, leaving rural economies dependent on the government for support and subsistence.
How many languages are used in the Congo?
56dd1dc29a695914005b94e0
62
107
False
What is the most populous ethnicity in the Congo?
56dd1dc29a695914005b94e1
Kongo
188
False
How much of the population is constituted by Pygmies?
56dd1dc29a695914005b94e3
2%
583
False
What percentage of the population of the Congo is Boulangui?
56dd1dc29a695914005b94e4
12%
582
False
Republic of the Congo
52
What country has a narrow range of languages?
5ad0290d77cf76001a686c1e
True
62
107
How many languages are spoken outside of the Congo?
5ad0290d77cf76001a686c1f
True
roughly half
232
What amount of the Kongo are Laari?
5ad0290d77cf76001a686c20
True
Vili
354
What group lives on the Pacific coast?
5ad0290d77cf76001a686c21
True
three
166
How many groups can the Teke be categorized into?
5ad0290d77cf76001a686c22
True
Ethnically and linguistically the population of the Republic of the Congo is diverse—Ethnologue recognises 62 spoken languages in the country—but can be grouped into three categories. The Kongo are the largest ethnic group and form roughly half of the population. The most significant subgroups of the Kongo are Laari in Brazzaville and Pool regions and Vili around Pointe-Noire and along the Atlantic coast. The second largest group are the Teke who live to the north of Brazzaville with 17% of the population. Boulangui (M’Boshi) live in the northwest and in Brazzaville and form 12% of the population. Pygmies make up 2% of Congo's population.
Prior to the civil war in '97, how many non-Africans lived in the Republic of the Congo?
56dd1e2d9a695914005b94ea
about 9,000
21
False
What was the dominant nationality among Europeans living in the Congo prior to the civil war?
56dd1e2d9a695914005b94eb
French
100
False
How many Americans live in the Congo?
56dd1e2d9a695914005b94ec
Around 300
148
False
300
155
How many Americans lived in the Congo before 1997?
5ad029e677cf76001a686c42
True
300
155
How many French expatriates reside in the Congo?
5ad029e677cf76001a686c43
True
9,000
27
How many Congolese expatriates live in America?
5ad029e677cf76001a686c44
True
Congo
75
Where did 9000 Europeans and other non-Africans live after the 1997 war?
5ad029e677cf76001a686c45
True
Before the 1997 war, about 9,000 Europeans and other non-Africans lived in Congo, most of whom were French; only a fraction of this number remains. Around 300 American expatriates reside in the Congo.
What is the most commonly practiced religion in the Congo?
56dd1e8366d3e219004dabd9
Catholics
90
False
What percentage of Congolese citizens identify as Awakening Lutherans?
56dd1e8366d3e219004dabda
22.3%
130
False
What portion of the Congolese population is Protestant?
56dd1e8366d3e219004dabdb
19.9%
160
False
What is the percentage of Muslims living in the Congo?
56dd1e8366d3e219004dabdc
1.6%
195
False
Who form the majority of Islamic residents of the Congo?
56dd1e8366d3e219004dabdd
foreign workers
243
False
Islam
181
What religion is notable due to an influx of foreign workers in the rural areas?
5ad02ad977cf76001a686c72
True
22.3
130
What percentage of Congolese are atheist?
5ad02ad977cf76001a686c73
True
Catholics
90
What is the most popular religion in South Africa, according to the CIA World Factbook?
5ad02ad977cf76001a686c74
True
Protestants
147
What religion is not found in the Congo?
5ad02ad977cf76001a686c75
True
19.9
160
What is the percentage of Protestants in South Africa?
5ad02ad977cf76001a686c76
True
According to CIA World Factbook, the people of Republic of the Congo are largely a mix of Catholics (33.1%), Awakening Lutherans (22.3%) and other Protestants (19.9%). Followers of Islam make up 1.6%, and this is primarily due to an influx of foreign workers into the urban centers.
How much of the gross domestic product was spent on public health in 2004?
56dd1ef39a695914005b94f0
8.9%
33
False
What was the overall incidence of HIV or AIDS throughout the 15 to 49 year old population?
56dd1ef39a695914005b94f1
2.8%
142
False
How much was spent per capita on health in 2004 as measured in US dollars?
56dd1ef39a695914005b94f2
$30
202
False
For every 100,000 people, how many phyisicians were there in the Congo in the early '00s?
56dd1ef39a695914005b94f4
20
52
False
8.9
33
What percentage of the GDP was public expenditure health after 2004?
5ad02c2177cf76001a686caa
True
2.8%
142
What was the prevalence of HIV/AIDS in people over 49?
5ad02c2177cf76001a686cab
True
US$30
200
How much was spent on health per capita after 2004?
5ad02c2177cf76001a686cac
True
malnutrition
287
What is happening to only a small portion of the population?
5ad02c2177cf76001a686cad
True
20
349
How many physicians per 100,000 people were there in the late 2000s?
5ad02c2177cf76001a686cae
True
Public expenditure health was at 8.9% of the GDP in 2004, whereas private expenditure was at 1.3%. As of 2012, the HIV/AIDS prevalence was at 2.8% among 15- to 49-year-olds. Health expenditure was at US$30 per capita in 2004. A large proportion of the population is undernourished, with malnutrition being a problem in Congo-Brazzaville. There were 20 physicians per 100,000 persons in the early 2000s (decade).
As measured in 2010, how many deaths occurred for every 100,000 live births in the Congo?
56dd1f7866d3e219004dabe3
560
44
False
What does FGM stand for?
56dd1f7866d3e219004dabe4
Female genital mutilation
142
False
How many infants die for every 1,000 live births?
56dd1f7866d3e219004dabe5
59.34
110
False
560 deaths/100,000 live births
44
What was the maternal mortality rate of the Congo in the year 2000?
5ad02d2777cf76001a686cec
True
59.34 deaths/1,000 live births
110
What was the infant mortality rate of the Congo in 1990?
5ad02d2777cf76001a686ced
True
Female genital mutilation
142
What procedure is common in the country?
5ad02d2777cf76001a686cee
True
limited geographic areas
216
Where is female genital mutilation not found in the Congo?
5ad02d2777cf76001a686cef
True
59.34 deaths/1,000 live births
110
What is the infant mortality rate in South Africa?
5ad02d2777cf76001a686cf0
True
As of 2010, the maternal mortality rate was 560 deaths/100,000 live births, and the infant mortality rate was 59.34 deaths/1,000 live births. Female genital mutilation (FGM) is rare in the country, being confined to limited geographic areas of the country.
Public schooling is required for people under what age?
56dd1ff566d3e219004dabe9
16
127
False
What was the school enrollment rate in 2005?
56dd1ff566d3e219004dabea
44%
206
False
What do students who finish 13 years of schooling receive?
56dd1ff566d3e219004dabeb
baccalaureate
428
False
What language is used in Congolese schools?
56dd1ff566d3e219004dabed
French
706
False
Public expenditure of the GDP
0
What was higher in 2002 than in 1991?
5ad02dd977cf76001a686d0a
True
Public education
64
What is theoretically free for people over 16?
5ad02dd977cf76001a686d0b
True
between ages six and sixteen
291
When is education not compulsory?
5ad02dd977cf76001a686d0c
True
Marien Ngouabi University
544
What is the country's only private university?
5ad02dd977cf76001a686d0d
True
medicine
594
What courses are not offered at Marien Ngouabi University?
5ad02dd977cf76001a686d0e
True
Public expenditure of the GDP was less in 2002–05 than in 1991. Public education is theoretically free and mandatory for under-16-year-olds, but in practice, expenses exist. Net primary enrollment rate was 44% in 2005, much less than the 79% in 1991. The country has universities. Education between ages six and sixteen is compulsory. Pupils who complete six years of primary school and seven years of secondary school obtain a baccalaureate. At the university, students can obtain a bachelor's degree in three years and a master's after four. Marien Ngouabi University—which offers courses in medicine, law and several other fields—is the country's only public university. Instruction at all levels is in French, and the educational system as a whole models the French system. The educational infrastructure has been seriously degraded as a result of political and economic crises. There are no seats in most classrooms, forcing children to sit on the floor. Enterprising individuals have set up private schools, but they often lack the technical knowledge and familiarity with the national curriculum to teach effectively. Families frequently enroll their children in private schools only to find they cannot make the payments.
Prime_minister
What branch of government does the prime minister lead?
56dd20d966d3e219004dabf3
executive
63
False
What group is the prime minister usually in charge of?
56dd20d966d3e219004dabf4
cabinet
48
False
In some political models like semi-presidential systems, what does the prime minister manage?
56dd20d966d3e219004dabf5
civil service
524
False
prime minister
2
Who is the senior minister of the judicial branch?
5acf70f877cf76001a684e3e
True
cabinet
48
What group oversees the Prime Minister?
5acf70f877cf76001a684e3f
True
cabinet
48
Who selects the Prime Minister?
5acf70f877cf76001a684e40
True
semi-presidential
419
In what type of system is the prime minister the head of state?
5acf70f877cf76001a684e41
True
A prime minister is the most senior minister of cabinet in the executive branch of government, often in a parliamentary or semi-presidential system. In many systems, the prime minister selects and may dismiss other members of the cabinet, and allocates posts to members within the government. In most systems, the prime minister is the presiding member and chairman of the cabinet. In a minority of systems, notably in semi-presidential systems of government, a prime minister is the official who is appointed to manage the civil service and execute the directives of the head of state.
What is a parliamentary model on which other systems have been based?
56dd21309a695914005b94fa
Westminster system
45
False
What kind of role is the head of state in Westminster-based parliamentary governments?
56dd21309a695914005b94fb
ceremonial
322
False
Westminster system
45
In wich parlimentry system is the monarch the head of state?
5acf7a3677cf76001a684efe
True
Westminster system
45
In what system does the prime minister have reserve powers?
5acf7a3677cf76001a684eff
True
In parliamentary systems fashioned after the Westminster system, the prime minister is the presiding and actual head of government and head of the executive branch. In such systems, the head of state or the head of state's official representative (i.e. the monarch, president, or governor-general) usually holds a largely ceremonial position, although often with reserve powers.
What is a central duty of the prime minister?
56dd219e9a695914005b9500
ensure the passage of bills
130
False
What is it called when a monarch has a share of executive powers?
56dd219e9a695914005b9501
royal prerogative
263
False
Using royal prerogative does not require the consent of which body?
56dd219e9a695914005b9502
parliament
57
False
prime minister
4
Who has no reponsibility for passing bills with the rest of the cabinet?
5acf9d1f77cf76001a685502
True
royal prerogative
263
What is it called when the monarch has all the executive powers?
5acf9d1f77cf76001a685503
True
parliament
373
Who must consent to the use of royal perogative?
5acf9d1f77cf76001a685504
True
The prime minister is often, but not always, a member of parliament[clarification needed] and is expected with other ministers to ensure the passage of bills through the legislature. In some monarchies the monarch may also exercise executive powers (known as the royal prerogative) that are constitutionally vested in the crown and may be exercised without the approval of parliament.
What are two other job titles of the Prime Minister of the  UK?
56dd22b366d3e219004dabfb
First Lord of the Treasury and Minister for the Civil Service
148
False
In addition to being Prime Minister, what other role did Winston Churchill serve during World War II?
56dd22b366d3e219004dabfc
Minister of Defence
329
False
First Lord of the Treasury and Minister for the Civil Service
148
What are former titles once held by the Prime Minister of the UK?
5acf9ec577cf76001a685596
True
Minister of Defence
329
What role did Winton Churchhill serve in during World War II rather than Prime Minister?
5acf9ec577cf76001a685597
True
Minister of Communications, Foreign Affairs, Regional Cooperation, Economy and Interior
471
What roles did Benjamin Netanyahu serve in prior to serving on the cabinet of Israel?
5acf9ec577cf76001a685598
True
As well as being head of government, a prime minister may have other roles or titles—the Prime Minister of the United Kingdom, for example, is also First Lord of the Treasury and Minister for the Civil Service. Prime ministers may take other ministerial posts—for example, during the Second World War, Winston Churchill was also Minister of Defence (although there was then no Ministry of Defence), and in the current cabinet of Israel, Benjamin Netanyahu also serves as Minister of Communications, Foreign Affairs, Regional Cooperation, Economy and Interior
When was the title of prime minister first used?
56dd231566d3e219004dac01
1625
126
False
Who coined the term prime minister?
56dd231566d3e219004dac02
Cardinal Richelieu
99
False
What country did Richelieu serve as prime minister for?
56dd231566d3e219004dac03
France
191
False
Who started a tradition of naming the head ministers something other than prime minister?
56dd231566d3e219004dac04
Louis XIV
199
False
Premier Ministre
53
What term was first used in the 16th century?
5acfa23977cf76001a685638
True
Cardinal Richelieu
99
Who used the term Prme Minister in the 16th century?
5acfa23977cf76001a685639
True
Cardinal Richelieu
99
Who was named head of the royal council in the 16th century
5acfa23977cf76001a68563a
True
Louis XIV and his descendants
199
Who avoided giving the title of Prime Minister to their chief ministers?
5acfa23977cf76001a68563b
True
The first actual usage of the term prime minister or Premier Ministre[citation needed] was used by Cardinal Richelieu when in 1625 he was named to head the royal council as prime minister of France. Louis XIV and his descendants generally attempted to avoid giving this title to their chief ministers.
When did the modern usage of prime minister come into being?
56dd23589a695914005b9506
18th century
71
False
Who was referenced as prime minister in a negative manner when the term was first used in its modern sense?
56dd23589a695914005b9507
Sir Robert Walpole
178
False
The term prime minister in the sense that we know it
0
What came into use in the 1800's?
5acfa31377cf76001a68568c
True
Sir Robert Walpole
178
Who was the first person to be called Prime Minister?
5acfa31377cf76001a68568d
True
prime minister
9
What title is no longer honorific?
5acfa31377cf76001a68568e
True
prime minister
9
What term was used negatively in the 1800's?
5acfa31377cf76001a68568f
True
The term prime minister in the sense that we know it originated in the 18th century in the United Kingdom when members of parliament disparagingly used the title in reference to Sir Robert Walpole. Over time, the title became honorific and remains so in the 21st century.
Who occupied the role that would later become prime minister under Henry VIII?
56dd243f66d3e219004dac09
Thomas Cromwell
162
False
Who held the equivalent of the post of prime minister under Queen Anne?
56dd243f66d3e219004dac0a
Godolphin
275
False
Who served as the head minister under Charles II?
56dd243f66d3e219004dac0c
Clarendon
244
False
ministers
51
Who did the monarchs of England and the United Kingdom not trust?
5acfa3cb77cf76001a6856b2
True
prime minister
454
What position did Thomas Cromwell hold under Queen Anne?
5acfa3cb77cf76001a6856b3
True
The monarchs of England and the United Kingdom had ministers in whom they placed special trust and who were regarded as the head of the government. Examples were Thomas Cromwell under Henry VIII; William Cecil, Lord Burghley under Elizabeth I; Clarendon under Charles II and Godolphin under Queen Anne. These ministers held a variety of formal posts, but were commonly known as "the minister", the "chief minister", the "first minister" and finally the "prime minister".
From whom did ministers derive their power?
56dd25349a695914005b950a
the monarch
73
False
Who was responsible for naming people to serve in the cabinet?
56dd25349a695914005b950c
the monarch
73
False
parliamentary majority
199
What majority was the prime minister dependent on?
5acfa46577cf76001a6856ca
True
cabinet
260
What body did the monarch have no control over?
5acfa46577cf76001a6856cb
True
cabinet
260
What body had life long membership?
5acfa46577cf76001a6856cc
True
The power of these ministers depended entirely on the personal favour of the monarch. Although managing the parliament was among the necessary skills of holding high office, they did not depend on a parliamentary majority for their power. Although there was a cabinet, it was appointed entirely by the monarch, and the monarch usually presided over its meetings.
Who are the two ministers used by Queen Anne simultaneously?
56dd25a59a695914005b9511
Harley and St John
340
False
Who was exiled when he lost the favor of the monarch?
56dd25a59a695914005b9513
Clarendon
115
False
Harley and St John
340
What two ministers fought for power uner Anne?
5acfa4e977cf76001a6856da
True
Clarendon
115
Who exiled the monarch?
5acfa4e977cf76001a6856db
True
Cromwell
89
Who did the monarch refuse to have executed?
5acfa4e977cf76001a6856dc
True
When the monarch grew tired of a first minister, he or she could be dismissed, or worse: Cromwell was executed and Clarendon driven into exile when they lost favour. Kings sometimes divided power equally between two or more ministers to prevent one minister from becoming too powerful. Late in Anne's reign, for example, the Tory ministers Harley and St John shared power.
What 1688 event helped the parliament solidy its power against the monarch?
56dd260266d3e219004dac12
Glorious Revolution
162
False
What 1689 law contributed to parliament's growing power?
56dd260266d3e219004dac13
Bill of Rights
209
False
What body was incorporated into the government as a result of the Bill of Rights?
56dd260266d3e219004dac14
House of Commons
333
False
English Civil War
35
What war took place in the 1700's?
5acfa94777cf76001a685794
True
English Civil War
35
What war strenthened the monarchs position?
5acfa94777cf76001a685795
True
Glorious Revolution
162
What Revolution took place in the 17th century?
5acfa94777cf76001a685796
True
Bill of Rights
209
What bill was passed in the 17th century?
5acfa94777cf76001a685797
True
Bill of Rights
209
What bill gave the monarch the power to establish law and impose taxes?
5acfa94777cf76001a685798
True
In the mid 17th century, after the English Civil War (1642–1651), Parliament strengthened its position relative to the monarch then gained more power through the Glorious Revolution of 1688 and passage of the Bill of Rights in 1689. The monarch could no longer establish any law or impose any tax without its permission and thus the House of Commons became a part of the government. It is at this point that a modern style of prime minister begins to emerge.
The reign of which king was a turning point in the growth of the position of prime minister?
56dd26729a695914005b9520
George I
116
False
In what year did Queen Anne die?
56dd26729a695914005b9521
1714
90
False
Where was George I's home?
56dd26729a695914005b9522
Hanover
203
False
1714
90
When did George I die?
5acfadb377cf76001a685816
True
English,
156
What language did George speak?
5acfadb377cf76001a685817
True
the king's first minister
340
Who did George appoint head of the government?
5acfadb377cf76001a685818
True
A tipping point in the evolution of the prime ministership came with the death of Anne in 1714 and the accession of George I to the throne. George spoke no English, spent much of his time at his home in Hanover, and had neither knowledge of, nor interest in, the details of English government. In these circumstances it was inevitable that the king's first minister would become the de facto head of the government.
For how long did Robert Walpole serve as prime minister?
56dd26ee9a695914005b9526
twenty-one years
75
False
What party did Walpole belong to?
56dd26ee9a695914005b9527
Whig
23
False
What concept took shape during Walpole's tenure as prime minister?
56dd26ee9a695914005b9528
doctrine of cabinet solidarity
264
False
What would a minister have to do if he did not publicly support a cabinet policy?
56dd26ee9a695914005b9529
resign
494
False
Who is another prime minister who reiterated the principles of cabinet solidarity?
56dd26ee9a695914005b952a
Lord Melbourne
529
False
Robert Walpole
39
Who was the prime minister in the 17th century?
5acfb19277cf76001a6858da
True
Robert Walpole
39
Who waited 21 years to become Prime minister?
5acfb19277cf76001a6858db
True
Robert Walpole
39
Who's opponents packed the House of Commons?
5acfb19277cf76001a6858dc
True
prime minister
513
Who did the monarch declare could see him in private?
5acfb19277cf76001a6858dd
True
From 1721 this was the Whig politician Robert Walpole, who held office for twenty-one years. Walpole chaired cabinet meetings, appointed all the other ministers, dispensed the royal patronage and packed the House of Commons with his supporters. Under Walpole, the doctrine of cabinet solidarity developed. Walpole required that no minister other than himself have private dealings with the king, and also that when the cabinet had agreed on a policy, all ministers must defend it in public, or resign. As a later prime minister, Lord Melbourne, said, "It matters not what we say, gentlemen, so long as we all say the same thing."
Aside from Walpole, who else denied that there was no such thing as the prime minister?
56dd2d7d9a695914005b9530
parliamentarians and legal scholars
84
False
Which kings tried to get power back to the monarchy?
56dd2d7d9a695914005b9531
George II and George III
192
False
During whose government did prime minister first see use on official state documents?
56dd2d7d9a695914005b9533
Benjamin Disraeli
690
False
When was the position of prime minister finally formalized?
56dd2d7d9a695914005b9534
1905
775
False
legal scholars
105
Who tried to prove the exitence of the Prime Minister?
5acfb29077cf76001a685940
True
George II and George III
192
What monarch gave more power to the prime minister?
5acfb29077cf76001a685941
True
prime minister
468
Who was loyal to the Commons?
5acfb29077cf76001a685942
True
William Pitt the Younger
483
What prime minster was mentally ill?
5acfb29077cf76001a685943
True
Walpole always denied that he was "prime minister", and throughout the 18th century parliamentarians and legal scholars continued to deny that any such position was known to the Constitution. George II and George III made strenuous efforts to reclaim the personal power of the monarch, but the increasing complexity and expense of government meant that a minister who could command the loyalty of the Commons was increasingly necessary. The long tenure of the wartime prime minister William Pitt the Younger (1783–1801), combined with the mental illness of George III, consolidated the power of the post. The title was first referred to on government documents during the administration of Benjamin Disraeli but did not appear in the formal British Order of precedence until 1905.
In the U.S. and governments modeled on it, who holds executive power?
56dd2e5966d3e219004dac1f
president
179
False
prime minister or equivalent minister
70
What did most countries have by the late 2000's?
5acfb7c977cf76001a685a3c
True
Latin America
287
Where in the Amaricas has the British system been adopted?
5acfb7c977cf76001a685a3d
True
By the late 20th century, the majority of the world's countries had a prime minister or equivalent minister, holding office under either a constitutional monarchy or a ceremonial president. The main exceptions to this system have been the United States and the presidential republics in Latin America modelled on the U.S. system, in which the president directly exercises executive authority.
Which non-elected official has held the longest term as prime minister?
56dd2ea866d3e219004dac23
Sheikh Khalifah bin Sulman Al Khalifah
26
False
When did Khalifa first take the post of prime minister?
56dd2ea866d3e219004dac24
1970
92
False
What country does Khalifah serve for as prime minister?
56dd2ea866d3e219004dac25
Bahrain
0
False
Sheikh Khalifah bin Sulman Al Khalifah
26
who is the longest serving elected prime minister?
5acfb8fa77cf76001a685a76
True
Bahrain's prime minister, Sheikh Khalifah bin Sulman Al Khalifah has been in the post since 1970, making him the longest serving non-elected prime minister.
Greece, Finland, Romania and Turkey use what kind of government?
56dd2f1f9a695914005b9545
parliamentary republics
259
False
In whic type of government is the leader elected?
56dd2f1f9a695914005b9546
parliamentary republics
259
False
Spain
170
What other country besides Greece is a constitutional monarch?
5acfbc9077cf76001a685b64
True
the head of state
292
Who is elected in a constitutional monarch?
5acfbc9077cf76001a685b65
True
The post of prime minister may be encountered both in constitutional monarchies (such as Belgium, Denmark, Japan, Luxembourg, the Netherlands, Norway, Malaysia, Morocco, Spain, Sweden, Thailand, Canada, Australia, New Zealand, and the United Kingdom), and in parliamentary republics in which the head of state is an elected official (such as Finland ,the Czech Republic, France, Greece, Hungary, India, Indonesia, Ireland, Pakistan, Portugal, Montenegro, Croatia, Bulgaria, Romania, Serbia and Turkey). See also "First Minister", "Premier", "Chief Minister", "Chancellor", "Taoiseach", "Statsminister" and "Secretary of State": alternative titles usually equivalent in meaning to, or translated as, "prime minister".
What is the term for the head of China's government?
56dd2f9a66d3e219004dac2b
Premier of the State Council
528
False
What is another name for the Republic of China?
56dd2f9a66d3e219004dac2c
Taiwan
599
False
Whose consent is not required for the Taiwanese premier to take office?
56dd2f9a66d3e219004dac2d
legislature
340
False
the prime minister
241
Who is both head of state and the head of government in France?
5acfc02977cf76001a685c76
True
the premier
561
Who is appointed by the president and approved by the legislature in Taiwan?
5acfc02977cf76001a685c77
True
This contrasts with the presidential system, in which the president (or equivalent) is both the head of state and the head of the government. In some presidential or semi-presidential systems, such as those of France, Russia or South Korea, the prime minister is an official generally appointed by the president but usually approved by the legislature and responsible for carrying out the directives of the president and managing the civil service. The head of government of the People's Republic of China is referred to as the Premier of the State Council and the premier of the Republic of China (Taiwan) is also appointed by the president, but requires no approval by the legislature.
What is the term for a situation in which the president and prime minister come from different political parties?
56dd2ff966d3e219004dac33
cohabitation
428
False
What can the French parliament cause in order to oust the prime minister?
56dd2ff966d3e219004dac34
resignation of the government
124
False
prime minister
19
What french official must be approved by the parliment?
5acfc11177cf76001a685cda
True
resignation of the government
124
what can the prime minister force in order to oust the government in France?
5acfc11177cf76001a685cdb
True
cohabitation
428
What is it called when the president and and legislature are controlled by the same party
5acfc11177cf76001a685cdc
True
Appointment of the prime minister of France requires no approval by the parliament either, but the parliament may force the resignation of the government. In these systems, it is possible for the president and the prime minister to be from different political parties if the legislature is controlled by a party different from that of the president. When it arises, such a state of affairs is usually referred to as (political) cohabitation.
Which constitution details the role and abilities of the prime minister?
56dd304366d3e219004dac37
Bangladesh's
0
False
What other considerations are included in the constitution of Bangladesh as regards the prime minister?
56dd304366d3e219004dac38
the process of his/her appointment and dismissal
108
False
Bangladesh
0
What contry only vaugly outlines the role of prime minister?
5acfc17677cf76001a685cf4
True
Bangladesh's constitution clearly outlines the functions and powers of the Prime Minister, and also details the process of his/her appointment and dismissal.
What is directly above the premier in the People's Republic of China?
56dd30949a695914005b954c
the National People's Congress
79
False
What is the pinyin form of premier?
56dd30949a695914005b954d
Zŏnglĭ
169
False
National People's Congress
83
Who is directly below the premier in the People's Republic of China?
5acfc1c677cf76001a685d1a
True
The People's Republic of China constitution set a premier just one place below the National People's Congress in China. Premier read as (Simplified Chinese: 总理; pinyin: Zŏnglĭ) in Chinese.
Which law first referred to the prime minister in Canada?
56dd310066d3e219004dac3c
the Constitution Act
299
False
When was the Constitution Act passed?
56dd310066d3e219004dac3d
1982
321
False
The Constitution Act mentions the prime minister in the context of which kinds of other ministers?
56dd310066d3e219004dac3e
federal and provincial first ministers
443
False
Canada
0
What country has completly uncodified constitution?
5acfc29877cf76001a685d5a
True
constitution
9
What document in Canada has allowed for a prime minister since it was drafted?
5acfc29877cf76001a685d5b
True
the Constitution Act
299
What act was passed in the 18th century?
5acfc29877cf76001a685d5c
True
Canada's constitution, being a 'mixed' or hybrid constitution (a constitution that is partly formally codified and partly uncodified) originally did not make any reference whatsoever to a prime minister, with her or his specific duties and method of appointment instead dictated by "convention". In the Constitution Act, 1982, passing reference to a "Prime Minister of Canada" is added, though only regarding the composition of conferences of federal and provincial first ministers.
What document details the role and abilities given to the prime minister of the Czech Republic?
56dd312c9a695914005b9558
constitution
17
False
Czech Republic's
0
Who's constitution is not clear on how a prime minster should be removed?
5acfc2c977cf76001a685d60
True
Czech Republic's constitution clearly outlines the functions and powers of the Prime Minister of the Czech Republic, and also details the process of his/her appointment and dismissal.
When was prime minister first mentioned in a government document in the UK?
56dd322166d3e219004dac44
first decade of the twentieth century
229
False
Who was the last prime minister to serve simultaneously as Chancellor of the Exchequer?
56dd322166d3e219004dac46
Balfour
602
False
When did Balfour last hold the titles of prime minister and Chancellor of the Exchequer?
56dd322166d3e219004dac47
1905
613
False
The United Kingdom's
0
Who's constitution is well codefied?
5acfc40e77cf76001a685dce
True
prime minister
97
What office did not exist in any form in the UK until the early twentieth century?
5acfc40e77cf76001a685dcf
True
Balfour
602
Who was the forst prime minister to also be Chancellor of the Exchequer?
5acfc40e77cf76001a685dd0
True
1905
613
When did Balfour leave the offeice of Chancellor of the Exchequer to become Prime Minisater?
5acfc40e77cf76001a685dd1
True
The United Kingdom's constitution, being uncodified and largely unwritten, makes no mention of a prime minister. Though it had de facto existed for centuries, its first mention in official state documents did not occur until the first decade of the twentieth century. Accordingly, it is often said "not to exist", indeed there are several instances of parliament declaring this to be the case. The prime minister sits in the cabinet solely by virtue of occupying another office, either First Lord of the Treasury (office in commission), or more rarely Chancellor of the Exchequer (the last of whom was Balfour in 1905).
Which prime minister was appointed only one time?
56dd328e66d3e219004dac4d
Margaret Thatcher
188
False
When was Thatcher appointed prime minister?
56dd328e66d3e219004dac4e
1979
265
False
When did Thatcher last hold power?
56dd328e66d3e219004dac4f
1990
312
False
What did Margaret Thatcher reconfigure following each general election?
56dd328e66d3e219004dac50
cabinet
414
False
prime ministers
5
What leader of the cabinet has a limeted term?
5acfc4e877cf76001a685e04
True
Margaret Thatcher
188
What Prime Minister was appointed multiple times?
5acfc4e877cf76001a685e05
True
Most prime ministers in parliamentary systems are not appointed for a specific term in office and in effect may remain in power through a number of elections and parliaments. For example, Margaret Thatcher was only ever appointed prime minister on one occasion, in 1979. She remained continuously in power until 1990, though she used the assembly of each House of Commons after a general election to reshuffle her cabinet.
What is the name of the prime ministerial position in Ireland?
56dd32e966d3e219004dac55
Taoiseach
135
False
From where is the Irish prime minister usually selected?
56dd32e966d3e219004dac56
the political party that commands majority of seats in the lower house of parliament
553
False
When is the Irish Taoiseach renominated?
56dd32e966d3e219004dac57
after every general election
171
False
prime minister
514
Who is chosen from the party that hold a minority of seats in the lower hhouse of parliment?
5acfc57f77cf76001a685e2e
True
prime minister
54
Who is the Taoiseach in the UK?
5acfc57f77cf76001a685e2f
True
after every general election
171
When is the Taoiseach reelected?
5acfc57f77cf76001a685e30
True
Some states, however, do have a term of office of the prime minister linked to the period in office of the parliament. Hence the Irish Taoiseach is formally 'renominated' after every general election. (Some constitutional experts have questioned whether this process is actually in keeping with the provisions of the Irish constitution, which appear to suggest that a taoiseach should remain in office, without the requirement of a renomination, unless s/he has clearly lost the general election.) The position of prime minister is normally chosen from the political party that commands majority of seats in the lower house of parliament.
Most parliamentary governments need to have the support of what governmental body?
56dd337966d3e219004dac5b
lower house of parliament
91
False
Which political division does not often utilize its power, if it has any?
56dd337966d3e219004dac5c
upper houses
195
False
What kind of referendum can the lower house of parliament take against the government?
56dd337966d3e219004dac5d
vote of confidence
366
False
governments
26
What needs the support of the upper house of parliment?
5acfc61077cf76001a685e6e
True
power
320
What does the lower house seldom use?
5acfc61077cf76001a685e6f
True
motion of no confidence
393
What kind of referendum can the lower house take against the upper house of parliment?
5acfc61077cf76001a685e70
True
In parliamentary systems, governments are generally required to have the confidence of the lower house of parliament (though a small minority of parliaments, by giving a right to block supply to upper houses, in effect make the cabinet responsible to both houses, though in reality upper houses, even when they have the power, rarely exercise it). Where they lose a vote of confidence, have a motion of no confidence passed against them, or where they lose supply, most constitutional systems require either:
Who can put a stop the parliamentary attempts at dissovling itself in some areas?
56dd34f19a695914005b955a
head of state
134
False
If the head of state prevents the dissolution of parliament, what needs to happen?
56dd34f19a695914005b955b
resignation of the prime minister and his or her government
202
False
In contemporary parliamentary governments, which official is usually in charge of asking parliament to dissolve?
56dd34f19a695914005b955c
prime minister
221
False
head of state
134
who has the power to disolve parliment?
5acfc68777cf76001a685eaa
True
head of state
134
Who can the prime minister damand a resignation from?
5acfc68777cf76001a685eab
True
parliamentary dissolution
364
what kind of dissalution can parliment request?
5acfc68777cf76001a685eac
True
The latter in effect allows the government to appeal the opposition of parliament to the electorate. However, in many jurisdictions a head of state may refuse a parliamentary dissolution, requiring the resignation of the prime minister and his or her government. In most modern parliamentary systems, the prime minister is the person who decides when to request a parliamentary dissolution.
When was the convention of prime ministers initiating the dissolution of parliament started?
56dd35839a695914005b9560
1918
196
False
In Ireland, when was the power to dissolve parliament assigned to the prime minister?
56dd35839a695914005b9561
1937
298
False
The 1922 Irish Free State Constitution previously gave what body the power to dissolve parliament?
56dd35839a695914005b9562
the Executive Council
444
False
What was the Executive Council an alternate name for?
56dd35839a695914005b9563
cabinet
49
False
prime minister
126
Who lost the power to request a dissolution of parliment in 1918?
5acfc75377cf76001a685f06
True
1918
196
since when has the power to request a dissalution belonged to the whole government?
5acfc75377cf76001a685f07
True
requests a dissolution of parliament
145
What does the Executive Council have the power to do in Ireland?
5acfc75377cf76001a685f08
True
requests a dissolution of parliament
145
What could the Taoiseach due prior to 1922
5acfc75377cf76001a685f09
True
Older constitutions often vest this power in the cabinet. In the United Kingdom, for example, the tradition whereby it is the prime minister who requests a dissolution of parliament dates back to 1918. Prior to then, it was the entire government that made the request. Similarly, though the modern 1937 Irish constitution grants to the Taoiseach the right to make the request, the earlier 1922 Irish Free State Constitution vested the power in the Executive Council (the then name for the Irish cabinet).
What process signals the need for the prime minister to resign in Australia?
56dd362466d3e219004dac63
spill motion
118
False
spill motion
118
What motion requires the head of State to step down in Australia?
5acfc7a177cf76001a685f20
True
Tony Abbott, Julia Gillard and Kevin Rudd.
152
Who sucefully stopped a spill motion in Australia?
5acfc7a177cf76001a685f21
True
In Australia, the Prime Minister is expected to step down if s/he loses the majority support of his/her party under a spill motion as have many such as Tony Abbott, Julia Gillard and Kevin Rudd.
What is the Russian term for prime minister?
56dd36749a695914005b9568
Chairman of the government
66
False
What is the Israeli term for prime minister?
56dd36749a695914005b9569
Rosh HaMemshalah
220
False
What is the term used in spain for prime minister?
56dd36749a695914005b956a
President of the Government (Presidente del Gobierno)
407
False
What is the Irish term for prime minister?
56dd36749a695914005b956b
Taoiseach
138
False
prime minister
109
Who is Chairmen of the government in Ireland?
5acfc83977cf76001a685f34
True
prime minister
32
What is another termfor Rosh HaMemshalah in Russia?
5acfc83977cf76001a685f35
True
In the Russian constitution the prime minister is actually titled Chairman of the government while the Irish prime minister is called the Taoiseach (which is rendered into English as prime minister), and in Israel he is Rosh HaMemshalah meaning "head of the government". In many cases, though commonly used, "prime minister" is not the official title of the office-holder; the Spanish prime minister is the President of the Government (Presidente del Gobierno).
What is the Italian term for the prime minister?
56dd36df66d3e219004dac67
president of the council of ministers
27
False
What is the native term for prime minister in Scandinavia?
56dd36df66d3e219004dac68
statsminister
246
False
Presidente del Consiglio dei Ministri
88
What does the title Satsminister refer to in Italy?
5acfc8b977cf76001a685f68
True
the head of government of subnational entities such as provinces
326
Who is nown as the prime minister in federations?
5acfc8b977cf76001a685f69
True
Other common forms include president of the council of ministers (for example in Italy, Presidente del Consiglio dei Ministri), President of the Executive Council, or Minister-President. In the Scandinavian countries the prime minister is called statsminister in the native languages (i.e. minister of state). In federations, the head of government of subnational entities such as provinces is most commonly known as the premier, chief minister, governor or minister-president.
What is a term that is used to mean prime minister?
56dd374a66d3e219004dac6d
premier
153
False
Which countries use the term chancellor to denote the head of government?
56dd374a66d3e219004dac6e
Germany and Austria
301
False
What is the head of Monaco's government called?
56dd374a66d3e219004dac6f
Minister of State
454
False
What is the term for the highest position in government in Vatican City?
56dd374a66d3e219004dac70
Secretary of State
538
False
What is the head of Iran's government called?
56dd374a66d3e219004dac71
President
695
False
the head of government
501
What is the secretary of State in Italy?
5acfc92b77cf76001a685f8e
True
President
695
Who is head of state and government in Iran?
5acfc92b77cf76001a685f8f
True
The convention in the English language is to call nearly all national heads of government "prime minister" (sometimes modified to the equivalent term of premier), regardless of the correct title of the head of government as applied in his or her respective country. The few exceptions to the rule are Germany and Austria, whose heads of government titles are almost always translated as Chancellor; Monaco, whose head of government is referred to as the Minister of State; and Vatican City, for which the head of government is titled the Secretary of State. In the case of Ireland, the head of government is occasionally referred to as the Taoiseach by English speakers. A stand-out case is the President of Iran, who is not actually a head of state, but the head of the government of Iran. He is referred to as "president" in both the Persian and English languages.
In what kinds of nations can the head of government attain the title of Excellency?
56dd37fe66d3e219004dac77
non-Commonwealth countries
3
False
What honorific title can be given to prime ministers in commonwealth nations?
56dd37fe66d3e219004dac78
Right Honourable
195
False
What are British prime ministers part of that grants them the title Right Honourable?
56dd37fe66d3e219004dac79
Her Majesty's Most Honourable Privy Council
506
False
What is an example of a country where prime ministers can be called Right Honourable solely because of their position?
56dd37fe66d3e219004dac7a
Canada
272
False
the style of Excellency
68
What is the prime minister entitled to in Commonwealth countries?
5acfc9ba77cf76001a685fb6
True
prime ministers and former prime ministers
141
Who is called Honourable in non Commonwealth countries?
5acfc9ba77cf76001a685fb7
True
the prime minister and former prime ministers
302
Who can not be part of the privy council?
5acfc9ba77cf76001a685fb8
True
In non-Commonwealth countries the prime minister may be entitled to the style of Excellency like a president. In some Commonwealth countries prime ministers and former prime ministers are styled Right Honourable due to their position, for example in the Prime Minister of Canada. In the United Kingdom the prime minister and former prime ministers may appear to also be styled Right Honourable, however this is not due to their position as head of government but as a privilege of being current members of Her Majesty's Most Honourable Privy Council.
What kind of government is in operation in the United Kingdom?
56dd398c66d3e219004dac7f
devolved
17
False
What are the heads of government in Wales, Scotland and Northern Ireland called?
56dd398c66d3e219004dac80
First Minister
127
False
What is the Indian term for Prime Minister?
56dd398c66d3e219004dac81
Pradhan Mantri
191
False
What is the term for prime minister in Pakistan?
56dd398c66d3e219004dac82
Wazir-e-Azam
285
False
What does Wazir-e-Azam mean in English?
56dd398c66d3e219004dac83
Grand Vizier
309
False
government
26
what is undeveloped in the UK?
5acfc9f677cf76001a685fca
True
In the UK, where devolved government is in place, the leaders of the Scottish, Northern Irish and Welsh Governments are styled First Minister. In India, The Prime Minister is referred to as "Pradhan Mantri", meaning "prime minister". In Pakistan, the prime minister is referred to as "Wazir-e-Azam", meaning "Grand Vizier".
What is the head of government's office called in Canada?
56dd39ee66d3e219004dac89
Office of the Prime Minister
60
False
What is the head of government's office called in the UK?
56dd39ee66d3e219004dac8a
Cabinet Office
162
False
executive office
21
What is the Cabinet in Canada?
5acfca4977cf76001a685fe6
True
Prime Minister's office
201
What never includes the role of Cabinet?
5acfca4977cf76001a685fe7
True
The Prime Minister's executive office is usually called the Office of the Prime Minister in the case of the Canada and other Commonwealth countries, it is called Cabinet Office in United Kingdom. Some Prime Minister's office do include the role of Cabinet. In other countries, it is called the Prime Minister's Department or the Department of the Prime Minister and Cabinet as for Australia.
British
16
What istitutions were prestiges in the 1900's
5acfb53777cf76001a6859bc
True
British Empire
79
What empire expanded in the 1900's?
5acfb53777cf76001a6859bd
True
European countries and in British colonial territories
196
Who avoided using the the British model o cabinet government?
5acfb53777cf76001a6859be
True
The prestige of British institutions in the 19th century and the growth of the British Empire saw the British model of cabinet government, headed by a prime minister, widely copied, both in other European countries and in British colonial territories as they developed self-government. In some places alternative titles such as "premier", "chief minister", "first minister of state", "president of the council" or "chancellor" were adopted, but the essentials of the office were the same.
Institute_of_technology
What's a common abbreviation for the term institute of technology?
56dda3d266d3e219004dac8f
IT
665
False
Institute of technology (also: university of technology, polytechnic university, technikon, and technical college) is a designation employed for a wide range of learning institutions awarding different types of degrees and operating often at variable levels of the educational system. It may be an institution of higher education and advanced engineering and scientific research or professional vocational education, specializing in science, engineering, and technology or different sorts of technical subjects. It may also refer to a secondary education school focused in vocational training.[citation needed] The term institute of technology is often abbreviated IT and is not to be confused with information technology.
In what century did the term polytechnic first show up?
56dda5109a695914005b957c
19th century
51
False
What school founded in 1794 first used a form of the word polytechnic in its name?
56dda5109a695914005b957d
École Polytechnique
81
False
What language does the French word polytechnique come from?
56dda5109a695914005b957e
Greek
181
False
The English term polytechnic appeared in the early 19th century, from the French École Polytechnique, an engineering school founded in 1794 in Paris. The French term comes from the Greek πολύ (polú or polý) meaning "many" and τεχνικός (tekhnikós) meaning "arts".
What word means the same thing as "institute of technology"?
56dda5689a695914005b9582
polytechnic
47
False
While the terms "institute of technology" and "polytechnic" are synonymous, the preference concerning which one is the preferred term varies from country to country.[citation needed]
What was the first institute of technology in the world?
56dda6db66d3e219004dac91
the Berg-Schola
310
False
What war led to the increased popularity of institutes of technology and polytechnics?
56dda6db66d3e219004dac92
World War II
127
False
What was the founding name of the Braunschweig University of Technology?
56dda6db66d3e219004dac93
Collegium Carolinum
714
False
In what year was the École Polytechnique founded?
56dda6db66d3e219004dac94
1794
840
False
The institutes of technology and polytechnics have been in existence since at least the 18th century, but became popular after World War II with the expansion of engineering and applied science education, associated with the new needs created by industrialization. The world's first institution of technology, the Berg-Schola (today its legal successor is the University of Miskolc) was founded by the Court Chamber of Vienna in Selmecbánya, Kingdom of Hungary in 1735 in order to train specialists of precious metal and copper mining according to the requirements of the industrial revolution in Hungary. The oldest German Institute of Technology is the Braunschweig University of Technology (founded in 1745 as "Collegium Carolinum"). Another exception is the École Polytechnique, which has educated French élites since its foundation in 1794. In some cases, polytechnics or institutes of technology are engineering schools or technical colleges.
What kind of institutions do countries like Germany and Switzerland consider institutes of technology to be?
56dda8f166d3e219004dac99
institutions of higher education
123
False
In several countries, like Germany, the Netherlands, Switzerland and Turkey, institutes of technology and polytechnics are institutions of higher education, and have been accredited to award academic degrees and doctorates. Famous examples are the Istanbul Technical University, ETH Zurich, İYTE, Delft University of Technology and RWTH Aachen, all considered universities.[citation needed]
In what year were polytechnics in the UK given the university designation?
56ddaa9b9a695914005b9584
1992
576
False
What is the name of the Royal Polytechnic Institution now?
56ddaa9b9a695914005b9585
University of Westminster
772
False
What street is the University of Westminster on?
56ddaa9b9a695914005b9586
Regent Street
822
False
In countries like Iran, Finland, Malaysia, Portugal, Singapore or the United Kingdom, there is often a significant and confused distinction between polytechnics and universities. In the UK a binary system of higher education emerged consisting of universities (research orientation) and Polytechnics (engineering and applied science and professional practice orientation). Polytechnics offered university equivalent degrees from bachelor's, master's and PhD that were validated and governed at the national level by the independent UK Council for National Academic Awards. In 1992 UK Polytechnics were designated as universities which meant they could award their own degrees. The CNAA was disbanded. The UK's first polytechnic, the Royal Polytechnic Institution (now the University of Westminster) was founded in 1838 in Regent Street, London. In Ireland the term institute of technology is the more favored synonym of a regional technical college though the latter is the legally correct term; however, Dublin Institute of Technology is a university in all but name as it can confer degrees in accordance with law, Cork Institute of Technology and another of other Institutes of Technology have delegated authority from HETAC to make awards to and including master's degree level—Level 9 of the National Framework for Qualifications (NFQ)—for all areas of study and Doctorate level in a number of others.
What term was used in some countries to describe select universities that focus on technological education in applied science and engineering?
56ddaea49a695914005b958a
polytechnics
131
False
In a number of countries, although being today generally considered similar institutions of higher learning across many countries, polytechnics and institutes of technology used to have a quite different statute among each other, its teaching competences and organizational history. In many cases polytechnic were elite technological universities concentrating on applied science and engineering and may also be a former designation for a vocational institution, before it has been granted the exclusive right to award academic degrees and can be truly called an institute of technology. A number of polytechnics providing higher education is simply a result of a formal upgrading from their original and historical role as intermediate technical education schools. In some situations, former polytechnics or other non-university institutions have emerged solely through an administrative change of statutes, which often included a name change with the introduction of new designations like institute of technology, polytechnic university, university of applied sciences, or university of technology for marketing purposes. Such emergence of so many upgraded polytechnics, former vocational education and technical schools converted into more university-like institutions has caused concern where the lack of specialized intermediate technical professionals lead to industrial skill shortages in some fields, being also associated to an increase of the graduate unemployment rate. This is mostly the case in those countries, where the education system is not controlled by the state and everybody can grant degrees.[citation needed] Evidence have also shown a decline in the general quality of teaching and graduate's preparation for the workplace, due to the fast-paced conversion of that technical institutions to more advanced higher level institutions. Mentz, Kotze and Van der Merwe (2008) argues that all the tools are in place to promote the debate on the place of technology in higher education in general and in Universities of Technology specifically. The aspects of this debate can follow the following lines: • To what degree is technology defined as a concept? • What is the scope of technology discourse? • What is the place and relation of science with technology? • How useful is the Mitcham framework in thinking about technology in South Africa? • Can a measure of cooperation as opposed to competition be achieved amongst higher education institutions? • Who ultimately is responsible for vocational training and what is the role of technology in this?
What name did some universities switch to in the 1990s for marketing purposes?
56ddb03066d3e219004dac9b
University of Technology
354
False
What system were institutes of technology a part of during the seventies, eighties, and early nineties?
56ddb03066d3e219004dac9c
College of Advanced Education system
177
False
During the 1970s to early 1990s, the term was used to describe state owned and funded technical schools that offered both vocational and higher education. They were part of the College of Advanced Education system. In the 1990s most of these merged with existing universities, or formed new ones of their own. These new universities often took the title University of Technology, for marketing rather than legal purposes. AVCC report The most prominent such university in each state founded the Australian Technology Network a few years later.
What's the four-letter abbreviation for technically minded technical and further education institutes?
56ddb0c666d3e219004dac9f
TAFE
107
False
What is the new name of the Northern Melbourne Institute of TAFE?
56ddb0c666d3e219004daca0
Melbourne Polytechnic
149
False
Since the mid-1990s, the term has been applied to some technically minded technical and further education (TAFE) institutes. A recent example is the Melbourne Polytechnic rebranding and repositioning in 2014 from Northern Melbourne Institute of TAFE. These primarily offer vocational education, although some like Melbourne Polytechnic are expanding into higher education offering vocationally oriented applied bachelor degress. This usage of the term is most prevalent historically in NSW and the ACT. The new terminology is apt given that this category of institution are becoming very much like the institutes of the 1970s–1990s period.
TAFE Tasmania started a three-year restructuring in what year?
56ddb1249a695914005b958c
2009
15
False
In Tasmania in 2009 the old college system and TAFE Tasmania have started a 3-year restructure to become the Tasmanian Polytechnic www.polytechnic.tas.edu.au, Tasmanian Skills Institute www.skillsinstitute.tas.edu.au and Tasmanian Academy www.academy.tas.edu.au
In Australia, how many universities are recognized as Universities of Technology?
56ddc59766d3e219004dace3
seven
42
False
In the higher education sector, there are seven designated Universities of Technology in Australia (though, note, not all use the phrase "university of technology", such as the Universities of Canberra and South Australia, which used to be Colleges of Advanced Education before transitioning into fully-fledged universities with the ability - most important of all - to confer doctorates):
What's the German word for a tertiary education institution?
56ddc65d9a695914005b95c6
Fachhochschule
0
False
In addition to Bachelor's degrees, what other kind of degree can one earn from a Fachhochschule?
56ddc65d9a695914005b95c7
master's degrees
268
False
Fachhochschule is a German type of tertiary education institution and adopted later in Austria and Switzerland. They do not focus exclusively on technology, but may also offer courses in social science, medicine, business and design. They grant bachelor's degrees and master's degrees, and focus more on teaching than research and more on specific professions than on science.
What term is used in Belgium and the Netherlands to refer to an institution like a German Fachhochschule?
56ddc6e69a695914005b95ca
hogeschool
58
False
Hogeschool is used in Belgium and in the Netherlands. The hogeschool has many similarities to the Fachhochschule in the German language areas and to the ammattikorkeakoulu in Finland.
What term refers to the process that a hogeschool undergoes before it's able to award Master's degrees?
56ddcc4666d3e219004dacf1
academization
139
False
Hogeschool institutions in the Flemish Community of Belgium (such as the Erasmus Hogeschool Brussel) are currently undergoing a process of academization. They form associations with a university and integrate research into the curriculum, which will allow them to deliver academic master's degrees.
How many institutes of technology in the Netherlands have converted into full-fledged universities in the past few decades?
56ddcd039a695914005b95dc
four
20
False
How many Technical Universities are there in the Netherlands today?
56ddcd039a695914005b95dd
three
127
False
In the Netherlands, four former institutes of technology have become universities over the past decades. These are the current three Technical Universities (at Delft, Eindhoven and Enschede), plus the former agricultural institute in Wageningen. A list of all hogescholen in the Netherlands, including some which might be called polytechnics, can be found here.
What country has Institutes of Technology/Polytechnic Institutes from which students can earn certificates, diplomas, and degrees?
56ddcee466d3e219004dacf3
Cambodia
3
False
In Cambodia, there are Institutes of Technology/Polytechnic Institutes, and Universities that offer instruction in a variety of programs that can lead to: certificates, diplomas, and degrees. Institutes of Technology/Polytechnic Institutes and Universities tend to be independent institutions.
What are polytechnic divisions of national universities called in Canada?
56ddcf2b66d3e219004dacf5
Affiliate Schools
21
False
In Canada, there are Affiliate Schools, Colleges, Institutes of Technology/Polytechnic Institutes, and Universities that offer instruction in a variety of programs that can lead to: engineering and applied science degrees, apprenticeship and trade programs, certificates, and diplomas. Affiliate Schools are polytechnic divisions belonging to a national university and offer select technical and engineering programs. Colleges, Institutes of Technology/Polytechnic Institutes, and Universities tend to be independent institutions.
In what city is the École Polytechnique de Montréal located?
56ddd0139a695914005b95e8
Quebec
213
False
In addition to private equity and industry sources, what's a third source of research funding for institutions of higher learning in Canada?
56ddd0139a695914005b95e9
public funding
456
False
Credentials are typically conferred at the undergraduate level, however university-affiliated schools like the École de technologie supérieure and the École Polytechnique de Montréal (both of which are located in Quebec), also offer graduate and postgraduate programs, in accordance with provincial higher education guidelines. Canadian higher education institutions, at all levels, undertake directed and applied research with financing allocated through public funding, private equity, or industry sources.
What is Canada's national alliance of 11 research-focused schools called?
56ddd1059a695914005b95f2
Polytechnics Canada
204
False
What kind of projects does Polytechnics Canada sponsor that can lead to technology commercialization?
56ddd1059a695914005b95f3
collaborative institute-industry projects
85
False
Some of Canada's most esteemed colleges and polytechnic institutions also partake in collaborative institute-industry projects, leading to technology commercialization, made possible through the scope of Polytechnics Canada; a national alliance of eleven leading research-intensive colleges and institutes of technology.
In what year was the Imperial Tientsin University founded in China?
56ddd2029a695914005b95f6
1895
41
False
What was the first university to offer courses in liberal arts?
56ddd2029a695914005b95f7
Capital University
188
False
What portion of China's elite universities still have a primary polytechnical focus today?
56ddd2029a695914005b95f8
half
227
False
China's modern higher education began in 1895 with the Imperial Tientsin University which was a polytechnic plus a law department. Liberal arts were not offered until three years later at Capital University. To this day, about half of China's elite universities remain essentially polytechnical.
What year did Croatia pass a law regarding polytechnic education?
56ddd24566d3e219004dad05
1997
159
False
In Croatia there are many polytechnic institutes and colleges that offer a polytechnic education. The law about polytechnic education in Croatia was passed in 1997.
What institution is in charge of tracking volcanic activity in the Galápagos Islands?
56ddd3909a695914005b95fc
The Geophysics Institute
131
False
EPN is known for research and education in the applied science, astronomy, atmospheric physics, engineering and physical sciences. The Geophysics Institute  monitors over the country`s seismic, tectonic and volcanic activity in the continental territory and in the Galápagos Islands.
What observatory is the National Observatory of Ecuador?
56ddd49566d3e219004dad07
Quito Astronomical Observatory
56
False
What school oversees the Quito Astronomical Observatory?
56ddd49566d3e219004dad08
National Polytechnic School
310
False
When was the Quito Astronomical Observatory founded?
56ddd49566d3e219004dad09
1873
99
False
One of the oldest observatories in South America is the Quito Astronomical Observatory. Founded in 1873 and located 12 minutes south of the Equator in Quito, Ecuador. The Quito Astronomical Observatory is the National Observatory of Ecuador and is located in the Historic Center of Quito and is managed by the National Polytechnic School.
EPN's Nuclear Science Department is among how many of its kind in Ecuador?
56ddd5259a695914005b95fe
one
50
False
The Nuclear Science Department at EPN is the only one in Ecuador and has the large infrastructure, related to irrradiation factilities like cobalt-60 source and Electron beam processing.
If the mission is achieved, professionals will apply what they've learned to what goal?
56ddd6da66d3e219004dad1d
the country's development
191
False
Its mission is to provide high quality education, training and research in the areas of science and technology to produce qualified professionals that can apply their knowledge and skills in the country's development.
MIT raised money to cover tuition, room and board for what number of students?
56dddd9d66d3e219004dad4b
50
477
False
MIT raises funds from non-governmental organizations and individuals who support the mission and objectives of the Institute. Tigray Development Association, its supporters, and REST have provided the initial funds for the launching of the Institute. As a result of the unstinting efforts made by the Provisional Governing Board to obtain technical and financial assistance, the Institute has so far secured financial and material support as well as pledges of sponsorship for 50 students, covering their tuition fees, room and board up to graduation. The MIT has also been able to create linkages with some universities and colleges in the United States of America, which have provided manpower and material support to MIT. The institute is governed by a provisional governing board.
What's the equivalent of Universities of Technology in French-speaking areas?
56ddde4a9a695914005b9626
Instituts de technologie
185
False
Universities of Technology are categorised as universities, are allowed to grant B.Sc. (Tech.), M.Sc. (Tech.), Lic.Sc. (Tech.), Ph.D. and D.Sc.(Tech.) degrees and roughly correspond to Instituts de technologie of French-speaking areas and Technische Universität of Germany in prestige. In addition to universities of technology, some universities, e.g. University of Oulu and Åbo Akademi University, are allowed to grant the B.Sc. (tech.), M.Sc. (tech.) and D.Sc. (Tech.) degrees.
How many credits were needed for an M.Sc. (Tech.) degree before the Bologna Process?
56dddfb866d3e219004dad65
180
142
False
How many credits were needed for an M.Sc. from a traditional university prior to the Bologna Process?
56dddfb866d3e219004dad66
160
203
False
Universities of Technology are academically similar to other (non-polytechnic) universities. Prior to Bologna process, M.Sc. (Tech.) required 180 credits, whereas M.Sc. from a normal university required 160 credits. The credits between Universities of Technology and normal universities are comparable.
In what country are polytechnic schools designated uniquely from academic universities?
56dde0a49a695914005b963a
Finland
63
False
What word means polytechnic school in Finnish?
56dde0a49a695914005b963b
ammattikorkeakoulus
541
False
What's the Swedish word for a polytechnic school?
56dde0a49a695914005b963c
yrkeshögskola
153
False
Polytechnic schools are distinct from academic universities in Finland. Ammattikorkeakoulu is the common term in Finland, as is the Swedish alternative "yrkeshögskola" – their focus is on studies leading to a degree (for instance insinööri, engineer; in international use, Bachelor of Engineering) in kind different from but in level comparable to an academic bachelor's degree awarded by a university. Since 2006 the polytechnics have offered studies leading to master's degrees (Master of Engineering). After January 1, 2006, some Finnish ammattikorkeakoulus switched the English term "polytechnic" to the term "university of applied sciences" in the English translations of their legal names. The ammattikorkeakoulu has many similarities to the hogeschool in Belgium and in the Netherlands and to the Fachhochschule in the German language areas.
Universities that encompass several engineering schools provide curricula in sciences and what other field?
56ddf07e9a695914005b96f4
technology
130
False
Collegiate universities grouping several engineering schools or multi-site clusters of French grandes écoles provide sciences and technology curricula as autonomous higher education engineering institutes. They include :
What are an institute of technology called in France?
56ddf1249a695914005b9702
institut universitaire de technologie
145
False
What's the three-letter acronym for institut universitaire de technologie?
56ddf1249a695914005b9703
IUT
184
False
In addition, France's education system includes many institutes of technology, embedded within most French universities. They are referred-to as institut universitaire de technologie (IUT). Instituts universitaires de technologie provide undergraduate technology curricula. 'Polytech institutes', embedded as a part of eleven French universities provide both undergraduate and graduate engineering curricula.
What's the term in German for what those in French-speaking Switzerland call haute école specialisée?
56ddf1d166d3e219004dae41
Fachhochschule
121
False
In the French-speaking part of Switzerland exists also the term haute école specialisée for a type of institution called Fachhochschule in the German-speaking part of the country. (see below).
In Eastern Europe, what is the word for an institute of technology?
56ddf2ba66d3e219004dae4f
Polytechnicum
322
False
What century in France's history included the French École polytechnique that influenced education systems in other countries?
56ddf2ba66d3e219004dae50
18th
99
False
What term in Brasil and Spain refers to a polytechnic institute?
56ddf2ba66d3e219004dae51
Escola Politécnica
286
False
Higher education systems, that are influenced by the French education system set at the end of the 18th century, use a terminology derived by reference to the French École polytechnique. Such terms include Écoles Polytechniques (Algeria, Belgium, Canada, France, Switzerland, Tunisia), Escola Politécnica (Brasil, Spain), Polytechnicum (Eastern Europe).
Fachhochschulen first came about in the early years of what decade?
56ddf39a66d3e219004dae59
1970s
48
False
Fachhochschulen favor an education in what, as opposed to research?
56ddf39a66d3e219004dae5a
teaching
247
False
In addition to technology, Fachhochschulen offer courses in social science, medicine, design, and what other discipline?
56ddf39a66d3e219004dae5b
business
156
False
Fachhochschulen were first founded in the early 1970s. They do not focus exclusively on technology, but may also offer courses in social science, medicine, business and design. They grant bachelor's degrees and master's degrees, and focus more on teaching than research and more on specific professions than on science.
What's the abbreviation for a Technische Universität?
56ddf4229a695914005b9724
TU
38
False
What's the main focus of a Technische Universität?
56ddf4229a695914005b9725
research
195
False
Technische Universität (abbreviation: TU) are the common terms for universities of technology or technical university. These institutions can grant habilitation and doctoral degrees and focus on research.
Which department's faculty can be associated with university hospitals?
56ddf6914396321400ee250d
medicine
382
False
How many Technische Universitäten make up the TU9 German Institutes of Technology?
56ddf6914396321400ee250e
nine
4
False
The nine largest and most renowned Technische Universitäten in Germany have formed TU9 German Institutes of Technology as community of interests. Technische Universitäten normally have faculties or departements of natural sciences and often of economics but can also have units of cultural and social sciences and arts. RWTH Aachen, TU Dresden and TU München also have a faculty of medicine associated with university hospitals (Klinikum Aachen, University Hospital Dresden, Rechts der Isar Hospital).
How many institutes of technology are there in Germany?
56ddf73e4396321400ee2521
17
10
False
What's the approximate number of students in Germany who are enrolled in a university of technology?
56ddf73e4396321400ee2522
290,000
62
False
Which German state has the highest ratio of universities of technology to standard universities?
56ddf73e4396321400ee2523
Saxony
140
False
There are 17 universities of technology in Germany with about 290,000 students enrolled. The four states of Bremen, Mecklenburg-Vorpommern, Saxony-Anhalt and Schleswig-Holstein are not operating a Technische Universität. Saxony and Lower Saxony have the highest counts of TUs, while in Saxony three out of four universities are universities of technology.
What's the joint project of TU Clausthal, TU Braunschweig, and the University of Hanover called?
56ddf7914396321400ee2527
Niedersächsische Technische Hochschule
0
False
Niedersächsische Technische Hochschule is a joint-venture of TU Clausthal, TU Braunschweig and University of Hanover. Some universities in Germany can also be seen as institutes of technology due to comprising a wide spread of technical sciences and having a history as a technical university. Examples are
What's the name of the Act that changed how Greek public institutes of technology were designated?
56ddf8adcffd8e1900b4b542
Higher Education Reform Act
376
False
In Greece, there are 2 "Polytechnics" part of the public higher education in Greece and they confer a 5-year Diplom Uni (300E.C.T.S – I.S.C.E.D. 5A), the National Technical University of Athens and the Technical University of Crete. Also, there are Greek Higher Technological Educational Institutes (Ανώτατα Τεχνολογικά Εκπαιδευτικά Ιδρύματα – Α.T.E.I). After the N.1404/1983 Higher Education Reform Act (Ν.1404/1983 - 2916/2001 - Ν. 3549/2007 - N. 3685/2008 - N. 4009/2011) the Technological Educational Institute constitute, a parallel and equivalent with universities part of the public higher education in Greece. They confer 4-year bachelor's degree (Diplom FH) (240E.C.T.S – I.S.C.E.D. 5A).
What was the very first polytechnic school in Hong Kong?
56ddfa66cffd8e1900b4b546
The Hong Kong Polytechnic
38
False
What was the original name of Hong Kong Polytechnic?
56ddfa66cffd8e1900b4b547
Hong Kong Technical College
107
False
In what year was the City Polytechnic of Hong Kong founded?
56ddfa66cffd8e1900b4b548
1984
248
False
What Hong Kong university was created in 1991?
56ddfa66cffd8e1900b4b549
Hong Kong University of Science and Technology
526
False
When did the two polytechnic schools in Hong Kong receive status as universities?
56ddfa66cffd8e1900b4b54a
1994
416
False
The first polytechnic in Hong Kong is The Hong Kong Polytechnic, established in 1972 through upgrading the Hong Kong Technical College (Government Trade School before 1947). The second polytechnic, the City Polytechnic of Hong Kong, was founded in 1984. These polytechnics awards diplomas, higher diplomas, as well as academic degrees. Like the United Kingdom, the two polytechnics were granted university status in 1994, and renamed The Hong Kong Polytechnic University and the City University of Hong Kong respectively. The Hong Kong University of Science and Technology, a university with a focus in applied science, engineering and business, was founded in 1991.
What kind of mining did the world's first institute of technology prepare students for?
56ddfb3dcffd8e1900b4b550
copper
228
False
What's the founding year of the first institute of technology ever?
56ddfb3dcffd8e1900b4b551
1735
152
False
Who established the Berg-Schola?
56ddfb3dcffd8e1900b4b552
Court Chamber of Vienna
125
False
The world's first Institute of Technology the Berg-Schola (Bergschule) established in Selmecbánya, Kingdom of Hungary by the Court Chamber of Vienna in 1735 providing Further education to train specialists of precious metal and copper mining. In 1762 the institute ranked up to be Academia providing Higher Education courses. After the Treaty of Trianon the institute had to be moved to Sopron.
How many private institutes of technology are there in India?
56ddfc5f4396321400ee2529
16
10
False
How many government-affiliated institutes of technology are there in India?
56ddfc5f4396321400ee252a
30
71
False
What organization oversees India's technical education institutions?
56ddfc5f4396321400ee252b
AICTE
291
False
There are 16 autonomous Indian Institutes of Technology in addition to 30 National Institutes of Technology which are Government Institutions. In addition to these there are many other Universities which offer higher technical courses. The Authority over technical education in India is the AICTE.
What's the name of the diploma awarded in India for technical or vocational coursework?
56ddfd9d4396321400ee252f
Diploma in Engineering
107
False
In India there are many polytechnic institutes and collages that offer a polytechnic education. In India a Diploma in Engineering is a specific academic award usually awarded in technical or vocational courses e.g. Engineering, Pharmacy, Designing, etc. These Institutions offer three year diploma in engineering post Tenth class. These institutes have affiliation from state bord of technical education of respective state governments. after which one can apply for post of junior engineer or continue higher studies by appearing for exams of AMIE to become an engineering graduate.
How many government-owned public institutes of technology does Indonesia have?
56ddfdffcffd8e1900b4b55a
four
10
False
There are four public institutes of technology in Indonesia that owned by the government of Indonesia. Other than that, there are hundreds other institute that owned by private or other institutions.
Rather than four-year Bachelor's degrees, Politeknik offer a diploma after how many years?
56ddfe9d4396321400ee2539
three
163
False
However, in Bahasa Indonesia, Politeknik carries a rather different meaning than Institut Teknologi. Politeknik provides vocational education and typically offers three-year Diploma degrees, which is similar to associate degrees, instead of full, four-year bachelor's degree and the more advanced Master's and doctoral degrees being offered by an Institut Teknologi.
What was the original name of Ireland's Institute of Technology system?
56de00884396321400ee253b
Regional Technical College
73
False
Ireland has an "Institute of Technology" system, formerly referred to as Regional Technical College (RTCs) system. The terms "IT" and "IT's" are now widely used to describe an Institute(s) of Technology. These institutions offer sub-degree, degree and post-graduate level studies. Unlike the Irish university system an Institute of Technology also offers sub-degree programmes such as 2-year Higher Certificate programme in various academic fields of study. Some institutions have "delegated authority" that allows them to make awards in their own name, after authorisation by the Higher Education & Training Awards Council.
What Irish institute of technology evolved independently of the Regional Technical College System?
56de00f74396321400ee253f
Dublin Institute of Technology
0
False
Dublin Institute of Technology developed separately from the Regional Technical College system, and after several decades of association with the University of Dublin, Trinity College it acquired the authority to confer its own degrees.
What term in higher education refers to technical universities that award engineering degrees?
56de02714396321400ee2543
Politecnico
21
False
Traditionally, how many Politecnici were there?
56de02714396321400ee2544
two
123
False
In higher education, Politecnico refers to a technical university awarding degrees in engineering. Historically there were two Politecnici, one in each of the two largest industrial cities of the north:
What city houses the headquarters of the Istituto Italiano di Tecnologia?
56de03d2cffd8e1900b4b562
Genoa
210
False
In 2003, the Ministry of Education, Universities and Research and the Ministry of Economy and Finance jointly established the Istituto Italiano di Tecnologia (Italian Institute of Technology), headquartered in Genoa with 10 laboratories around Italy, which however focuses on research and does not offer undergraduate degrees.
What college was the forerunner for the engineering faculty at the University of Tokyo?
56de0948cffd8e1900b4b566
Imperial College of Engineering
131
False
What area of discipline do Japan's institutes of technology specialize in?
56de0948cffd8e1900b4b567
sciences
108
False
In Japan, an institute of technology (工業大学, kōgyō daigaku?) is a type of university that specializes in the sciences. See also the Imperial College of Engineering, which was the forerunner of the University of Tokyo's engineering faculty.
What country has operated polytechnic institutes for nearly 44 years?
56de0a94cffd8e1900b4b56a
Malaysia
16
False
What international organization partnered with Malaysia's Ministry of Education in 1969?
56de0a94cffd8e1900b4b56b
UNESCO
343
False
In what city in the state of Perak is the Politeknik Ungku Omar located?
56de0a94cffd8e1900b4b56c
Ipoh
452
False
Polytechnics in Malaysia has been operated for almost 44 years. The institutions provide courses for bachelor's degree & Bachelor of Science (BSc) (offer at Premier Polytechnics for September 2013 intake & 2014 intake), Advanced Diploma, Diploma and Special Skills Certificate. It was established by the Ministry of Education with the help of UNESCO in 1969. The amount of RM24.5 million is used to fund the pioneer of Politeknik Ungku Omar located in Ipoh, Perak from the United Nations Development Program (UNDP).
How many polytechnic institutes does Malaysia have now?
56de0b054396321400ee256d
32
36
False
How many students were enrolled in polytechnic schools in Malaysia in 2009?
56de0b054396321400ee256e
60,840
145
False
How many students were enrolled in polytechnic schools in Malaysia in 2012?
56de0b054396321400ee256f
87,440
172
False
At present, Malaysia have developed 32 polytechnic at all over states in engineering, agriculture, commerce, hospitality and design courses with 60,840 students in 2009 to 87,440 students in 2012.
What's the name of Mauritius's sole technical university?
56de0c0dcffd8e1900b4b57a
University of Technology, Mauritius
50
False
What's the focus of Mauritius's University of Technology's specialized mission?
56de0c0dcffd8e1900b4b57b
technology
190
False
The only technical university in Mauritius is the University of Technology, Mauritius with its main campus situated in La Tour Koenig, Pointe aux Sables. It has a specialized mission with a technology focus. It applies traditional and beyond traditional approaches to teaching, training, research and consultancy. The university has been founded with the aim to play a key role in the economic and social development of Mauritius through the development of programmes of direct relevance to the country’s needs, for example in areas like technology, sustainable development science, and public sector policy and management.
What country considers their polytechnics, universities, and colleges state-owned institutions?
56de0d34cffd8e1900b4b588
New Zealand
0
False
What does UCOL stand for?
56de0d34cffd8e1900b4b589
Universal College of Learning
514
False
In what year was the Education Act originally passed in New Zealand?
56de0d34cffd8e1900b4b58a
1989
65
False
New Zealand polytechnics are established under the Education Act 1989 as amended, and are considered state-owned tertiary institutions along with universities, colleges of education, and wānanga; there is today often much crossover in courses and qualifications offered between all these types of Tertiary Education Institutions. Some have officially taken the title 'institute of technology' which is a term recognized in government strategies equal to that of the term 'polytechnic'. One has opted for the name 'Universal College of Learning' (UCOL), and another 'Unitec New Zealand'. These are legal names but not recognized terms like 'polytechnic' or 'institute of technology'. Many if not all now grant at least bachelor-level degrees.
What school did Massey University combine with?
56de11834396321400ee25ad
Wellington Polytechnic
129
False
In what decade did New Zealand's tertiary education institutions begin consolidation?
56de11834396321400ee25ae
1990s
10
False
What school considered a merger with Waikato Institute of Technology that was later abandoned?
56de11834396321400ee25af
Central Institute of Technology
192
False
What island was Waiarapa Polytechnic located on before it merged with UCOL?
56de11834396321400ee25b0
North Island
490
False
Since the 1990s, there has been consolidation in New Zealand's state-owned tertiary education system. In the polytechnic sector: Wellington Polytechnic amalgamated with Massey University. The Central Institute of Technology explored a merger with the Waikato Institute of Technology, which was abandoned, but later, after financial concerns, controversially amalgamated with Hutt Valley Polytechnic, which in turn became Wellington Institute of Technology. Some smaller polytechnics in the North Island, such as Waiarapa Polytechnic, amalgamated with UCOL. (The only other amalgamations have been in the colleges of education.)
What's the only polytechnic school in New Zealand to be designated a university?
56de120b4396321400ee25b5
Auckland University of Technology
4
False
The Auckland University of Technology is the only polytechnic to have been elevated to university status; while Unitec has had repeated attempts blocked by government policy and consequent decisions; Unitec has not been able to convince the courts to overturn these decisions.
In Pakistan, a student's tests in what grade determine their admission to a diploma program?
56de15cd4396321400ee25bd
10th
175
False
What are people being trained for, mainly, in Pakistan's polytechnic institutes?
56de15cd4396321400ee25be
trades
279
False
How many years does it usually take to earn a diploma from polytechnic schools in Pakistan?
56de15cd4396321400ee25bf
three
65
False
The Polytechnic institutes in Pakistan, offer a diploma spanning three years in different branches. Students are admitted to the diploma program based on their results in the 10th grade standardized exams. The main purpose of Polytechnic Institutes is to train people in various trades.
What two-letter abbreviation is used for undergraduate engineering  courses?
56de16894396321400ee25c3
BE
144
False
After successfully completing a diploma at a polytechnic, students can gain lateral entry to engineering degree (under graduate) courses called BE, which are conducted by engineering colleges affiliated to universities or University of Engineering & Technology or University of Engineering Sciences.
What's Pakistan's program called that's comparable to the British A Level?
56de1a2a4396321400ee25cd
F.Sc
454
False
University of Engineering & Technology or University of Engineering Sciences are the recognized universities that grant Bachelor's and master's degrees in undergraduate and graduate studies respectively. The Bachelor of Science degree awarded by Universities of Engineering & Technology or University of Engineering Sciences are 4 years full-time program after finishing 13 years of education (international high school certificate) in Pakistan known as F.Sc equivalent to British system A-Level.
What word do they use in Poland for an institute of technology?
56de1ac34396321400ee25cf
Politechnika
0
False
Politechnika (translated as a "technical university" or "university of technology") is a main kind of technical university name in Poland. There are some biggest Polytechnic in Poland:
What is the Portuguese word for the short-cycle degrees awarded prior to 1988?
56de49904396321400ee2780
bacharelatos
412
False
What process was instituted in 2007 that brought Master's degrees to the polytechnic education system?
56de49904396321400ee2781
Bologna Process
474
False
The designation "Institute of Technology" is not applied at all, being meaningless in Portugal. However, there are higher education educational institutions in Portugal since the 1980s, which are called polytechnics. After 1998 they were upgraded to institutions which are allowed to confer bachelor's degrees (the Portuguese licenciatura). Before then, they only awarded short-cycle degrees which were known as bacharelatos and did not provide further education. After the Bologna Process in 2007, they have been allowed to offer 2nd cycle (master's) degrees to its students. The polytechnical higher education system provides a more practical training and is profession-oriented, while the university higher education system has a strong theoretical basis and is highly research-oriented.
What's the name of Singapore's centralized institute that students can attend before university?
56de4affcffd8e1900b4b7c2
Millennia Institute
678
False
Polytechnics in Singapore provides industry oriented education equivalent to a junior college or sixth form college in the UK. Singapore retains a system similar but not the same as in the United Kingdom from 1970–1992, distinguishing between polytechnics and universities. Unlike the British Polytechnic (United Kingdom) system Singapore Polytechnics do not offer bachelors, masters or PhD degrees. Under this system, most Singaporean students sit for their O-Level examinations after a four or five years of education in secondary school, and apply for a place at either a technical school termed ITE, a polytechnic or a university-preparatory school (a junior college or the Millennia Institute, a centralized institute). Polytechnic graduates may be granted transfer credits when they apply to local and overseas universities, depending on the overall performance in their grades, as well as the university's policies on transfer credits. A few secondary schools are now offering six-year program which leads directly to university entrance.
How many polytechnics are there in Singapore?
56de4b924396321400ee279d
5
177
False
How many years of study would it take to obtain a degree from a polytechnic in Singapore?
56de4b924396321400ee279e
three
19
False
Polytechnics offer three-year diploma courses in fields such as information technology, engineering subjects and other vocational fields, like psychology and nursing. There are 5 polytechnics in Singapore. They are namely:
What queen set up the Banská Akadémia?
56de4d9ecffd8e1900b4b7e1
queen Maria Theresa
220
False
What year was the Banská Akadémia founded?
56de4d9ecffd8e1900b4b7e2
1735
167
False
The Banská Akadémia was originally intended for training workers in what two precious metals?
56de4d9ecffd8e1900b4b7e3
silver and gold
273
False
What year did teaching start at the Banská Akadémia?
56de4d9ecffd8e1900b4b7e4
1764
349
False
What are the university buildings still standing at the Banská Akadémia used for now?
56de4d9ecffd8e1900b4b7e5
teaching
527
False
The world's first institution of technology or technical university with tertiary technical education is the Banská Akadémia in Banská Štiavnica, Slovakia, founded in 1735, Academy since December 13, 1762 established by queen Maria Theresa in order to train specialists of silver and gold mining and metallurgy in neighbourhood. Teaching started in 1764. Later the department of Mathematics, Mechanics and Hydraulics and department of Forestry were settled. University buildings are still at their place today and are used for teaching. University has launched the first book of electrotechnics in the world.
What are polytechnics called in South Africa?
56de4fd14396321400ee27d7
Technikons
164
False
What year did Technikons gain the ability to give out technology degrees?
56de4fd14396321400ee27d8
1993
274
False
South Africa has completed a process of transforming its "higher education landscape". Historically a division has existed in South Africa between Universities and Technikons (polytechnics) as well between institutions servicing particular racial and language groupings. In 1993 Technikons were afforded the power to award certain technology degrees.
When did Technikons start being integrated with traditional South African universities?
56de50decffd8e1900b4b7fb
2004
13
False
Beginning in 2004 former Technikons have either been merged with traditional Universities to form Comprehensive Universities or have become Universities of Technology, however the Universities of Technology have not to date acquired all of the traditional rights and privileges of a University (such as the ability to confer a wide range of degrees).
Most institutes of technology in Thailand were born out of what other type of institutions?
56de523ccffd8e1900b4b808
technical colleges
64
False
What type of degree were Thailand's technical colleges historically not allowed to confer?
56de523ccffd8e1900b4b809
bachelor's degrees
112
False
What's the new name of Pathumwan Technical School?
56de523ccffd8e1900b4b80a
Pathumwan Institute of Technology
256
False
Most of Thailand's institutes of technology were developed from technical colleges, in the past could not grant bachelor's degrees; today, however, they are university level institutions, some of which can grant degrees to the doctoral level. Examples are Pathumwan Institute of Technology (developed from Pathumwan Technical School), King Mongkut's Institute of Technology Ladkrabang (Nondhaburi Telecommunications Training Centre), and King Mongkut's Institute of Technology North Bangkok (Thai-German Technical School).
What did the Thonburi Technology Institute become after its name change?
56de52a24396321400ee2803
King Mongkut's University of Technology Thonburi
212
False
What was the previous name of Rajamangala University of Technology?
56de52a24396321400ee2804
Institute of Technology and Vocational Education
158
False
There are two former institutes of technology, which already changed their name to "University of Technology": Rajamangala University of Technology (formerly Institute of Technology and Vocational Education) and King Mongkut's University of Technology Thonburi (Thonburi Technology Institute).
What is the name of Thammasat University's engineering school?
56de55694396321400ee2815
Sirindhorn International Institute of Technology
146
False
What is Thailand's only government-established and owned institute of technology?
56de55694396321400ee2816
Suranaree University of Technology
243
False
What year was Suranaree University of Technology founded?
56de55694396321400ee2817
1989
366
False
What is the name of the best-known private institute of technology in Thailand?
56de55694396321400ee2818
Mahanakorn University of Technology
387
False
Institutes of technology with different origins are Asian Institute of Technology, which developed from SEATO Graduate School of Engineering, and Sirindhorn International Institute of Technology, an engineering school of Thammasat University. Suranaree University of Technology is the only government-owned technological university in Thailand that was established (1989) as such; while Mahanakorn University of Technology is the most well known private technological institute. Technology/Technical colleges in Thailand is associated with bitter rivalries which erupts into frequent off-campus brawls and assassinations of students in public locations that has been going on for nearly a decade, with innocent bystanders also commonly among the injured and the military under martial law still unable to stop them from occurring.
What institute of technology opened in Bursa in 2010?
56de57394396321400ee282f
Bursa Technical University
459
False
When Konya Technical University opens, how many total institutes of technology will there be in Turkey and the Ottoman Empire?
56de57394396321400ee2830
six
520
False
What two cities in Turkey acquired institutes of technology in the 1950s?
56de57394396321400ee2831
Ankara and Trabzon
248
False
In Turkey and the Ottoman Empire, the oldest technical university is Istanbul Technical University. Its graduates contributed to a wide variety of activities in scientific research and development. In 1950s, 2 technical universities were opened in Ankara and Trabzon. In recent years, Yildiz University is reorganized as Yildiz Technical University and 2 institutes of technology were founded in Kocaeli and Izmir. In 2010, another technical university named Bursa Technical University was founded in Bursa. Moreover, a sixth technical university is about to be opened in Konya named Konya Technical University.
What year did UK polytechnics start functioning in a binary education system?
56de59f24396321400ee2845
1970
105
False
What organization validates degrees received from polytechnic schools?
56de59f24396321400ee2846
the UK Council for National Academic Awards
302
False
What two-word term does Scotland use to describe their technological universities?
56de59f24396321400ee2847
Central Institutions
575
False
What was the first polytechnic in Britain originally named?
56de59f24396321400ee2848
Royal Polytechnic Institution
630
False
Polytechnics were tertiary education teaching institutions in England, Wales and Northern Ireland. Since 1970 UK Polytechnics operated under the binary system of education along with universities. Polytechnics offered diplomas and degrees (bachelor's, master's, PhD) validated at the national level by the UK Council for National Academic Awards CNAA. They particularly excelled in engineering and applied science degree courses similar to technological universities in the USA and continental Europe. The comparable institutions in Scotland were collectively referred to as Central Institutions. Britain's first Polytechnic, the Royal Polytechnic Institution later known as the Polytechnic of Central London (now the University of Westminster) was established in 1838 at Regent Street in London and its goal was to educate and popularize engineering and scientific knowledge and inventions in Victorian Britain "at little expense." The London Polytechnic led a mass movement to create numerous Polytechnic institutes across the UK in the late 19th Century. Most Polytechnic institutes were established at the centre of major metropolitan cities and their focus was on engineering, applied science and technology education.
How many Institutes of Science and Technology were affiliated with the University of Wales?
56de5ba04396321400ee284d
two
440
False
What was the name Loughborough University was known by from 1966 to 1996?
56de5ba04396321400ee284e
Loughborough University of Technology
569
False
In what decade did colleges of technology gain the University designation?
56de5ba04396321400ee284f
1960s
126
False
In 1956, some colleges of technology received the designation College of Advanced Technology. They became universities in the 1960s meaning they could award their own degrees. The designation "Institute of Technology" was occasionally used by polytechnics (Bolton), Central Institutions (Dundee, Robert Gordon's), and postgraduate universities, (Cranfield and Wessex), most of which later adopted the designation University, and there were two "Institutes of Science and Technology": UMIST and UWIST, part of the University of Wales. Loughborough University was called Loughborough University of Technology from 1966 to 1996, the only institution in the UK to have had such a designation.
What act allowed polytechnic schools to become universities?
56de5c204396321400ee2853
the Further and Higher Education Act 1992
50
False
The Further and Higher Education Act 1992 allows polytechnics to award degrees without what organization's approval?
56de5c204396321400ee2854
CNAA
181
False
Polytechnics were granted university status under the Further and Higher Education Act 1992. This meant that Polytechnics could confer degrees without the oversight of the national CNAA organization. These institutions are sometimes referred to as post-1992 universities.
If a technical institute is affiliated with a local university, what does its designation become?
56de5d2a4396321400ee2857
university colleges
276
False
What century brought the advent of technical schools or technical institutes?
56de5d2a4396321400ee2858
20th century
89
False
A student would attend a technical institute before a university or polytechnic but after what?
56de5d2a4396321400ee2859
high school
137
False
Schools called "technical institute" or "technical school" that were formed in the early 20th century provided further education between high school and University or Polytechnic. Most technical institutes have been merged into regional colleges and some have been designated university colleges if they are associated with a local university.
In what year was Rensselaer Polytechnic Institute founded?
56de5e5b4396321400ee285d
1824
501
False
Which of the three earliest technological universities was founded most recently, in 1861?
56de5e5b4396321400ee285e
Massachusetts Institute of Technology
572
False
Polytechnic Institutes are technological universities, many dating back to the mid-19th century. A handful of world-renowned Elite American universities include the phrases "Institute of Technology", "Polytechnic Institute", "Polytechnic University", or similar phrasing in their names; these are generally research-intensive universities with a focus on engineering, science and technology. The earliest and most famous of these institutions are, respectively, Rensselaer Polytechnic Institute (RPI, 1824), New York University Tandon School of Engineering (1854) and the Massachusetts Institute of Technology (MIT, 1861). Conversely, schools dubbed "technical colleges" or "technical institutes" generally provide post-secondary training in technical and mechanical fields, focusing on training vocational skills primarily at a community college level—parallel and sometimes equivalent to the first two years at a bachelor's degree-granting institution.
What type of economy was technical education in Venezuela intended to support?
56de5ef44396321400ee2861
middle class
274
False
When did Venezuela begin to create institutes of technology?
56de5ef44396321400ee2862
1950s
60
False
Institutes of technology in Venezuela were developed in the 1950s as an option for post-secondary education in technical and scientific courses, after the polytechnic French concepts. At that time, technical education was considered essential for the development of a sound middle class economy.
What city in Venezuela had the first IUT?
56de5fbccffd8e1900b4b834
Caracas
239
False
Who pioneered using the French system of technological education?
56de5fbccffd8e1900b4b835
Dr. Federico Rivero Palacio
287
False
Most of these institutes award diplomas after three or three and a half years of education. The Institute of technology implementation (IUT from Instituto universitario de tecnologia on Spanish) began with the creation of the first IUT at Caracas, capital city of Venezuela, called IUT. Dr. Federico Rivero Palacio adopted the French "Institut Universitaire de Technologie"s system, using French personnel and study system based on three-year periods, with research and engineering facilities at the same level as the main national universities to obtain French equivalent degrees. This IUT is the first and only one in Venezuela having French equivalent degrees accepted, implementing this system and observing the high-level degrees some other IUT's were created in Venezuela, regardless of this the term IUT was not used appropriately resulting in some institutions with mediocre quality and no equivalent degree in France. Later, some private institutions sprang up using IUT in their names, but they are not regulated by the original French system and award lower quality degrees.
Wayback_Machine
Where does the information stored on the Wayback Machine come from?
56ddb46c9a695914005b958e
World Wide Web
48
False
Which company made the Wayback Machine?
56ddb46c9a695914005b958f
Internet Archive
116
False
Where is Internet Archive headquartered?
56ddb46c9a695914005b9590
San Francisco
169
False
What individuals founded Internet Archive?
56ddb46c9a695914005b9591
Brewster Kahle and Bruce Gilliat
228
False
What is the term used by Internet Archive to describe the Wayback Machine?
56ddb46c9a695914005b9592
three dimensional index
418
False
World Wide Web
48
Where does the information stored on the Internet Archive come from?
5a6afdb2a9e0c9001a4e9e38
True
Internet Archive
116
Which company made the World Wide Web?
5a6afdb2a9e0c9001a4e9e39
True
San Francisco
169
Where is Bruce Gillat headquartered?
5a6afdb2a9e0c9001a4e9e3a
True
Brewster Kahle and Bruce Gilliat
228
What individuals founded the World Wide Web?
5a6afdb2a9e0c9001a4e9e3b
True
three dimensional index
418
What is the term used by the World Wide Web to describe the Wayback Machine?
5a6afdb2a9e0c9001a4e9e3c
True
The Wayback Machine is a digital archive of the World Wide Web and other information on the Internet created by the Internet Archive, a nonprofit organization, based in San Francisco, California, United States. It was set up by Brewster Kahle and Bruce Gilliat, and is maintained with content from Alexa Internet. The service enables users to see archived versions of web pages across time, which the archive calls a "three dimensional index."
What operating system is used on Wayback Machine's servers?
56ddb53b66d3e219004daca3
Linux
91
False
When does Wayback Machine save a copy of a website?
56ddb53b66d3e219004daca4
if the content has changed
175
False
What is the ultimate aim of the Wayback Machine?
56ddb53b66d3e219004daca5
to archive the entire Internet
425
False
Linux
91
What operating system is used on the internet's servers?
5a6afe8da9e0c9001a4e9e42
True
if the content has changed
175
When does the internet save a copy of a website?
5a6afe8da9e0c9001a4e9e43
True
to archive the entire Internet
425
What is the ultimate aim of the visitors?
5a6afe8da9e0c9001a4e9e44
True
on the fly
230
Where can sites be captured by Linux clusters?
5a6afe8da9e0c9001a4e9e45
True
content that otherwise would be lost whenever a site is changed or closed down
323
What Linux nodes are hoped to be captured?
5a6afe8da9e0c9001a4e9e46
True
Since 1996, they have been archiving cached pages of web sites onto their large cluster of Linux nodes. They revisit sites every few weeks or months and archive a new version if the content has changed. Sites can also be captured on the fly by visitors who are offered a link to do so. The intent is to capture and archive content that otherwise would be lost whenever a site is changed or closed down. Their grand vision is to archive the entire Internet.
What TV show served as inspiration for the Wayback Machine's name?
56ddb92966d3e219004daca9
The Rocky and Bullwinkle Show
105
False
Which characters on The Rocky and Bullwinkle Show used a device that allowed them to travel through time?
56ddb92966d3e219004dacaa
Mr. Peabody and Sherman
235
False
What was the machine used by Mr. Peabody and Sherman named?
56ddb92966d3e219004dacab
WABAC machine
301
False
The Rocky and Bullwinkle Show
105
What TV show served as inspiration for WABAC's name?
5a6b0007a9e0c9001a4e9e4c
True
Mr. Peabody and Sherman
235
Which characters on The Rocky and Bullwinkle Show used a device that allowed the to travel through WABAC?
5a6b0007a9e0c9001a4e9e4d
True
WABAC machine
301
What was the machine used by Rocky named?
5a6b0007a9e0c9001a4e9e4e
True
WABAC machine
301
What was used to alter events in a plot?
5a6b0007a9e0c9001a4e9e4f
True
Wayback Machine
9
What was chosen as a droll reference to alter Mr. Peabody?
5a6b0007a9e0c9001a4e9e50
True
The name Wayback Machine was chosen as a droll reference to a plot device in an animated cartoon series, The Rocky and Bullwinkle Show. In one of the animated cartoon's component segments, Peabody's Improbable History, lead characters Mr. Peabody and Sherman routinely used a time machine called the "WABAC machine" (pronounced way-back) to witness, participate in, and, more often than not, alter famous events in history.
When was the program necessary to crawl and archive the web created?
56ddbae166d3e219004dacaf
1996
3
False
What is a term used for programs that automatically visit websites and record the data they find?
56ddbae166d3e219004dacb0
crawlers
260
False
What rule do crawlers abide by when determining which sites to record?
56ddbae166d3e219004dacb1
robots exclusion standard
470
False
What site was created to mitigate issues with incomplete copies of websites?
56ddbae166d3e219004dacb2
Archive-It.org
640
False
1996
3
When was the program necessary to include all information available on the interet created?
5a6b01dba9e0c9001a4e9e56
True
crawlers
260
What is a term used for programs that automatically visit websites and record the board system they find?
5a6b01dba9e0c9001a4e9e57
True
robots exclusion standard
470
What rule do web sites abide by when determining sites to record?
5a6b01dba9e0c9001a4e9e58
True
Archive-It.org
640
What site was created to mitigate issues with Bruce Gilliat?
5a6b01dba9e0c9001a4e9e59
True
1996
3
When did Brewster Kate and Bruce Gilliat develop software to download crawlwers?
5a6b01dba9e0c9001a4e9e5a
True
In 1996 Brewster Kahle, with Bruce Gilliat, developed software to crawl and download all publicly accessible World Wide Web pages, the Gopher hierarchy, the Netnews (Usenet) bulletin board system, and downloadable software. The information collected by these "crawlers" does not include all the information available on the Internet, since much of the data is restricted by the publisher or stored in databases that are not accessible. These "crawlers" also respect the robots exclusion standard for websites whose owners opt for them not to appear in search results or be cached. To overcome inconsistencies in partially cached web sites, Archive-It.org was developed in 2005 by the Internet Archive as a means of allowing institutions and content creators to voluntarily harvest and preserve collections of digital content, and create digital archives.
What medium was originally used to keep Internet Archive's data?
56ddbb4b66d3e219004dacb7
digital tape
29
False
Who were sometimes permitted to use the Archive's database?
56ddbb4b66d3e219004dacb8
researchers and scientists
91
False
At what milestone was the archive made public?
56ddbb4b66d3e219004dacb9
fifth anniversary
180
False
Where was the event launching the publicly-available archive held?
56ddbb4b66d3e219004dacba
University of California, Berkeley
261
False
digital tape
29
What medium was originally used to keep California's data?
5a6b036ba9e0c9001a4e9e60
True
researchers and scientists
91
Who were sometimes permitted to attend the Archive's public ceremony?
5a6b036ba9e0c9001a4e9e61
True
fifth anniversary
180
At what milestone was the archive made clunky?
5a6b036ba9e0c9001a4e9e62
True
University of California, Berkeley
261
Where was the event launching the digital tape held?
5a6b036ba9e0c9001a4e9e63
True
Kahle
63
Who allowed researchers and scientists to tap into Berkeley?
5a6b036ba9e0c9001a4e9e64
True
Information had been kept on digital tape for five years, with Kahle occasionally allowing researchers and scientists to tap into the clunky database. When the archive reached its fifth anniversary, it was unveiled and opened to the public in a ceremony at the University of California, Berkeley.
What are the saved versions of a site called?
56ddbc0e66d3e219004dacbf
Snapshots
0
False
What is the minimum amount of time that elapses before most snapshots are released for viewing?
56ddbc0e66d3e219004dacc0
six months
45
False
What term characterizes the rate at which snapshots are made of websites?
56ddbc0e66d3e219004dacc1
variable
184
False
Snapshots
0
What are the saved versions of an update called?
5a6b045ca9e0c9001a4e9e6a
True
six months
45
What is the minimum amount of time that elapses before most snapshots are released for recording?
5a6b045ca9e0c9001a4e9e6b
True
variable
184
What term characterizes the rate at which intervals of websites are made?
5a6b045ca9e0c9001a4e9e6c
True
twenty-four months
123
How many months can it take for intervals to become available?
5a6b045ca9e0c9001a4e9e6d
True
several weeks or years
277
How long are intervals between cases?
5a6b045ca9e0c9001a4e9e6e
True
Snapshots usually become available more than six months after they are archived or, in some cases, even later; it can take twenty-four months or longer.  The frequency of snapshots is variable, so not all tracked web site updates are recorded. Sometimes there are intervals of several weeks or years between snapshots.
When did it become a requirement for websites to appear on Open Directory for inclusion in the Archive?
56ddbc9766d3e219004dacc5
After August 2008
0
False
Who stated that sites not on Open Directory were still being saved but would not be released until the Archive was reindexed?
56ddbc9766d3e219004dacc6
Jeff Kaplan
101
False
When did Kaplan make comments about the status of non-Open Directory sites?
56ddbc9766d3e219004dacc7
November 2010
140
False
After August 2008
0
When did it become a requirement for websites to appear on Open Directory for inclusion in Kaplan?
5a6b06d9a9e0c9001a4e9e74
True
Jeff Kaplan
101
Who stated that sites not on Open Directory were still being saved but would not be released until the Kaplan was reindexed?
5a6b06d9a9e0c9001a4e9e75
True
November 2010
140
When did Kaplan make comments about the status of Open Directory sites?
5a6b06d9a9e0c9001a4e9e76
True
in order to be included
63
Why were sites listed on the Internet Archive after August 2008?
5a6b06d9a9e0c9001a4e9e77
True
November 2010
140
When did Kaplan make comments about the Open Directory?
5a6b06d9a9e0c9001a4e9e78
True
After August 2008 sites had to be listed on the Open Directory in order to be included. According to Jeff Kaplan of the Internet Archive in November 2010, other sites were still being archived, but more recent captures would become visible only after the next major indexing, an infrequent operation.
In 2009, what size did the data saved by Wayback Machine reach?
56ddbd6d66d3e219004daccb
three petabytes
64
False
As of 2003, what was the rate of increase in the amount of data recorded by the Wayback Machine?
56ddbd6d66d3e219004daccc
12 terabytes/month
180
False
Where does Wayback Machine keep its information stored?
56ddbd6d66d3e219004daccd
PetaBox rack systems
222
False
Who makes PetaBox rack systems?
56ddbd6d66d3e219004dacce
Capricorn Technologies
259
False
three petabytes
64
In 2009, what size did the data saved by rate systems reach?
5a6b07d7a9e0c9001a4e9e7e
True
12 terabytes/month
180
As of 2003, what was the rate of increase in the amount of data recorded by rate systems?
5a6b07d7a9e0c9001a4e9e7f
True
PetaBox rack systems
222
Where does Wayback Machine keep its technologies stored?
5a6b07d7a9e0c9001a4e9e80
True
Capricorn Technologies
259
Who makes rate systems?
5a6b07d7a9e0c9001a4e9e81
True
data
204
What is stored on Petabox petabyte systems?
5a6b07d7a9e0c9001a4e9e82
True
As of 2009[update], the Wayback Machine contained approximately three petabytes of data and was growing at a rate of 100 terabytes each month; the growth rate reported in 2003 was 12 terabytes/month. The data is stored on PetaBox rack systems manufactured by Capricorn Technologies.
When did Internet Archive chance its platform for data storage?
56ddc1d966d3e219004dacd3
2009
3
False
Which platform did Internet Archive adopt in 2009?
56ddc1d966d3e219004dacd4
Sun Open Storage
78
False
Where does Internet archive run a datacenter?
56ddc1d966d3e219004dacd5
Sun Microsystems' California campus
155
False
2009
3
When did Internet Archive chance its platform for California?
5a6b0974a9e0c9001a4e9e88
True
Sun Open Storage,
78
Which campus did Internet Archive adopt 2009?
5a6b0974a9e0c9001a4e9e89
True
Sun Microsystems' California campus
155
Where does Internet archive run a sun storage center?
5a6b0974a9e0c9001a4e9e8a
True
2009
3
When did the Internet Archive leave California?
5a6b0974a9e0c9001a4e9e8b
True
California
173
What state is home to the first data center?
5a6b0974a9e0c9001a4e9e8c
True
In 2009, the Internet Archive migrated its customized storage architecture to Sun Open Storage, and hosts a new data center in a Sun Modular Datacenter on Sun Microsystems' California campus.
When was an upgrade of the Wayback Machine released for testing?
56ddc21866d3e219004dacd9
2011
3
False
2011
3
When was an upgrade of the game released for testing?
5a6b0a37a9e0c9001a4e9e92
True
interface
72
What did the Wayback Machine keep the same?
5a6b0a37a9e0c9001a4e9e93
True
Wayback Machine
39
What was closed for testing?
5a6b0a37a9e0c9001a4e9e94
True
Wayback Machine
39
What used the same index of archived content?
5a6b0a37a9e0c9001a4e9e95
True
2011
3
When was the Wayback Machine retired?
5a6b0a37a9e0c9001a4e9e96
True
In 2011 a new, improved version of the Wayback Machine, with an updated interface and fresher index of archived content, was made available for public testing.
When were details of the test version of the updated Wayback Machine released?
56ddc47666d3e219004dacdd
March 2011
3
False
The older version of Wayback Machine did not have much new data past what year?
56ddc47666d3e219004dacde
2008
303
False
The newer version of the Wayback Machine included date up to and including what year?
56ddc47666d3e219004dacdf
2010
169
False
March 2011
3
When were details of the final version of the released?
5a6b0e56a9e0c9001a4e9e9c
True
2008
303
Past what year did the older version of Wayback Machine had  much new data?
5a6b0e56a9e0c9001a4e9e9d
True
2010
169
In what year was the oldest version of the Wayback Machine?
5a6b0e56a9e0c9001a4e9e9e
True
March 2011
3
When did the Wayback Forum talk about the predecessor to the Wayback Machine?
5a6b0e56a9e0c9001a4e9e9f
True
classic Wayback Machine
240
What only has a little bit of material past 2007?
5a6b0e56a9e0c9001a4e9ea0
True
In March 2011, it was said on the Wayback Machine forum that "The Beta of the new Wayback Machine has a more complete and up-to-date index of all crawled materials into 2010, and will continue to be updated regularly. The index driving the classic Wayback Machine only has a little bit of material past 2008, and no further index updates are planned, as it will be phased out this year".
What was the functionality called that gave users the ability to save a snapshot of a site?
56ddc4d99a695914005b95bc
Save a Page
44
False
When was Save a Page made available?
56ddc4d99a695914005b95bd
October 2013
3
False
Save a Page
44
What was the functionality called that gave users the ability to save a URL of a site?
5a6b0f05a9e0c9001a4e9ea6
True
October 2013
3
When was a URL available?
5a6b0f05a9e0c9001a4e9ea7
True
Save a Page
44
What became a threat of theft?
5a6b0f05a9e0c9001a4e9ea8
True
October 2013
3
When did the company announce "Save a Binary"?
5a6b0f05a9e0c9001a4e9ea9
True
malicious binaries
187
What did "Save a Company" host?
5a6b0f05a9e0c9001a4e9eaa
True
In October 2013, the company announced the "Save a Page" feature which allows any Internet user to archive the contents of a URL. This became a threat of abuse by the service for hosting malicious binaries.
What 2009 court battle involved the Wayback Machine?
56ddc5e59a695914005b95c0
Netbula, LLC v. Chordiant Software Inc.
16
False
Which company thought that Wayback Machine data was important for its argument?
56ddc5e59a695914005b95c1
Chordiant
32
False
What did Chordiant request that the court deactivate on Netbula's website?
56ddc5e59a695914005b95c2
the robots.txt file
121
False
Netbula, LLC v. Chordiant Software Inc.
16
What 2009 court battle involved Netbula's robots?
5a6b1064a9e0c9001a4e9eb0
True
Chordiant
302
Which company thought that Wayback Machine data was important for robots?
5a6b1064a9e0c9001a4e9eb1
True
the robots.txt file
121
What did the Wayback Machine request that the court deactivate on Netbulas website?
5a6b1064a9e0c9001a4e9eb2
True
pages
291
What did the Wayback Machine believe would support its case?
5a6b1064a9e0c9001a4e9eb3
True
Chordiant
67
Who filed a motion to compel the Wayback Machine to disable the robots.txt file?
5a6b1064a9e0c9001a4e9eb4
True
In a 2009 case, Netbula, LLC v. Chordiant Software Inc., defendant Chordiant filed a motion to compel Netbula to disable the robots.txt file on its web site that was causing the Wayback Machine to retroactively remove access to previous versions of pages it had archived from Nebula's site, pages that Chordiant believed would support its case.
Who did Netbula believe was the entity that should be responsible for the availability of its snapshots?
56ddc68966d3e219004dace5
Internet Archive
138
False
Which party did Internet Archive side with?
56ddc68966d3e219004dace6
Chordiant
246
False
Internet Archive
138
Who did Netbula believe was the entity that should be responsible for the availability of its expenses?
5a6b12d5a9e0c9001a4e9eba
True
Chordiant
246
Which party did Netbula side with?
5a6b12d5a9e0c9001a4e9ebb
True
Netbula
0
Who objected to the motion on the ground that defendants were asking to alter Chordiant's web site?
5a6b12d5a9e0c9001a4e9ebc
True
considerable burden, expense and disruption to its operations
351
What would producing web pages have caused Netbula?
5a6b12d5a9e0c9001a4e9ebd
True
An employee of Internet Archive
179
Who filed a sworn statement supporting Netubla's motion?
5a6b12d5a9e0c9001a4e9ebe
True
Netbula objected to the motion on the ground that defendants were asking to alter Netbula's web site and that they should have subpoenaed Internet Archive for the pages directly. An employee of Internet Archive filed a sworn statement supporting Chordiant's motion, however, stating that it could not produce the web pages by any other means "without considerable burden, expense and disruption to its operations."
Which judge presided over the Netbula v. Chordiant case?
56ddc6e266d3e219004daceb
Magistrate Judge Howard Lloyd
0
False
In what jurisdiction was the Netbula v. Chordiant case tried?
56ddc6e266d3e219004dacec
Northern District of California, San Jose Division
37
False
Which party won its argument regarding Netbula's robots.txt file?
56ddc6e266d3e219004daced
Chordiant
200
False
Magistrate Judge Howard Lloyd
0
Which judge presided over the California v. Chordiant case?
5a6b1401a9e0c9001a4e9ec4
True
Northern District of California, San Jose
37
In what jurisdiction was the California v. Chordiant case tried?
5a6b1401a9e0c9001a4e9ec5
True
Chordiant
200
Which party won its argument regarding California's robots.txt file?
5a6b1401a9e0c9001a4e9ec6
True
Magistrate Judge Howard Lloyd
0
Who rejected California's arguments?
5a6b1401a9e0c9001a4e9ec7
True
to allow Chordiant to retrieve the archived pages that they sought
191
Why was California allowed to disable the robots.txt blockage?
5a6b1401a9e0c9001a4e9ec8
True
Magistrate Judge Howard Lloyd in the Northern District of California, San Jose Division, rejected Netbula's arguments and ordered them to disable the robots.txt blockage temporarily in order to allow Chordiant to retrieve the archived pages that they sought.
What does Telewizja Polska operate?
56ddc9d49a695914005b95cd
TVP Polonia
301
False
What is EchoStar's platform?
56ddc9d49a695914005b95ce
the Dish Network
335
False
Which judge denied Telewizja Polska's attempt to block the use of Internet Archive contents as evidence?
56ddc9d49a695914005b95cf
Magistrate Judge Arlander Keys
645
False
Which judge overturned Keys' ruling?
56ddc9d49a695914005b95d0
district Court Judge Ronald Guzman
816
False
TVP Polonia
301
What does Telewizja Polska intend to offer?
5a6b165fa9e0c9001a4e9ece
True
the Dish Network
335
What is Romand Guzmans platform?
5a6b165fa9e0c9001a4e9ecf
True
Magistrate Judge Arlander Keys
645
Which judge denied Echostar's attempt to block the use of Internet Archive contents as evidence?
5a6b165fa9e0c9001a4e9ed0
True
district Court Judge Ronald Guzman
816
Which judge overturned Polska's ruling?
5a6b165fa9e0c9001a4e9ed1
True
Magistrate Judge Arlander Keys
645
Who rejected Echostar's assertion of hearsay?
5a6b165fa9e0c9001a4e9ed2
True
In an October 2004 case, Telewizja Polska USA, Inc. v. Echostar Satellite, No. 02 C 3293, 65 Fed. R. Evid. Serv. 673 (N.D. Ill. Oct. 15, 2004), a litigant attempted to use the Wayback Machine archives as a source of admissible evidence, perhaps for the first time. Telewizja Polska is the provider of TVP Polonia and EchoStar operates the Dish Network. Prior to the trial proceedings, EchoStar indicated that it intended to offer Wayback Machine snapshots as proof of the past content of Telewizja Polska's web site. Telewizja Polska brought a motion in limine to suppress the snapshots on the grounds of hearsay and unauthenticated source, but Magistrate Judge Arlander Keys rejected Telewizja Polska's assertion of hearsay and denied TVP's motion in limine to exclude the evidence at trial. At the trial, however, district Court Judge Ronald Guzman, the trial judge, overruled Magistrate Keys' findings,[citation needed] and held that neither the affidavit of the Internet Archive employee nor the underlying pages (i.e., the Telewizja Polska website) were admissible as evidence. Judge Guzman reasoned that the employee's affidavit contained both hearsay and inconclusive supporting statements, and the purported web page printouts were not self-authenticating.[citation needed]
When are Internet Archive timestamps useful for patent offices?
56ddca9d9a695914005b95d7
in examining a patent application
375
False
What is an example of a condition that must be met for the Internet Archive data to be considered acceptable for submission to patent offices in the US and Europe?
56ddca9d9a695914005b95d8
authoritative statement of the archivist
65
False
in examining a patent application
375
When are Internet Archive timestamps harmful for patent offices?
5a6b1877a9e0c9001a4e9ed8
True
authoritative statement of the archivist
65
What is an example of a condition that must be met for the Internet Archive data to be considered acceptable for submission to patent offices on the Web?
5a6b1877a9e0c9001a4e9ed9
True
dates
294
What are used to determine if a patent is available?
5a6b1877a9e0c9001a4e9eda
True
United States patent office and the European Patent Office
112
What will accept date stamps from the public?
5a6b1877a9e0c9001a4e9edb
True
authoritative statement of the archivist
65
What does the patent offices require before they accept applications for employment?
5a6b1877a9e0c9001a4e9edc
True
Provided some additional requirements are met (e.g. providing an authoritative statement of the archivist), the United States patent office and the European Patent Office will accept date stamps from the Internet Archive as evidence of when a given Web page was accessible to the public. These dates are used to determine if a Web page is available as prior art for instance in examining a patent application.
What kind of limitations exist in keeping copies of a website?
56ddcf4166d3e219004dacf7
technical
10
False
The omission of what element in screenshots can make them unreliable as evidence?
56ddcf4166d3e219004dacf8
underlying links
330
False
What elements of webpages are not used by Wayback Machine?
56ddcf4166d3e219004dacf9
forms
464
False
What kind of sites contain information that the Wayback Machine does not record?
56ddcf4166d3e219004dacfa
e-commerce
528
False
technical
10
What kind of limitations exist in keeping copies of the Wayback Machine?
5a6b1c23a9e0c9001a4e9ee2
True
underlying links
330
The omission of what element in Wayback Machines can make them unreliable as evidence?
5a6b1c23a9e0c9001a4e9ee3
True
forms
464
What elements of webpages are not used by site archives?
5a6b1c23a9e0c9001a4e9ee4
True
e-commerce
528
What kind of sites contain information that the screen shots do not record?
5a6b1c23a9e0c9001a4e9ee5
True
litigation
118
When is it possible for opposing parties to misuse e-commerce?
5a6b1c23a9e0c9001a4e9ee6
True
There are technical limitations to archiving a web site, and as a consequence, it is possible for opposing parties in litigation to misuse the results provided by web site archives. This problem can be exacerbated by the practice of submitting screen shots of web pages in complaints, answers, or expert witness reports, when the underlying links are not exposed and therefore, can contain errors. For example, archives such as the Wayback Machine do not fill out forms and therefore, do not include the contents of non-RESTful e-commerce databases in their archives.
What kinds of laws could the Wayback Machine be viewed as breaking in Europe?
56ddd0509a695914005b95ec
copyright laws
64
False
What would the Internet Archive have to do if requested by someone whose content is available on Wayback Machine?
56ddd0509a695914005b95ed
delete pages from its system
193
False
In what part of the website are Wayback Machine's rules regarding removing content?
56ddd0509a695914005b95ee
FAQ
318
False
copyright laws
64
What kinds of laws could the Wayback Machine be viewed as breaking in the FAQ?
5a6b1e6ba9e0c9001a4e9eec
True
delete pages from its system
193
What would the Internet Archive have to do if requested by someone whose content is available on robots.txt files?
5a6b1e6ba9e0c9001a4e9eed
True
FAQ
318
In what part of Europe are Wayback Machine's rules regarding removing content?
5a6b1e6ba9e0c9001a4e9eee
True
FAQ
318
What may be found in the robots.txt files section of the site?
5a6b1e6ba9e0c9001a4e9eef
True
creator
242
Who can decide when pages are deleted from Europe?
5a6b1e6ba9e0c9001a4e9ef0
True
In Europe the Wayback Machine could be interpreted as violating copyright laws. Only the content creator can decide where their content is published or duplicated, so the Archive would have to delete pages from its system upon request of the creator. The exclusion policies for the Wayback Machine may be found in the FAQ section of the site. The Wayback Machine also retroactively respects robots.txt files, i.e., pages that currently are blocked to robots on the live web temporarily will be made unavailable from the archives as well.
Web pages that contained content critical of what religous movement were taken off of the Internet Archive in 2002?
56ddd22366d3e219004dacff
Scientology
79
False
Who was mistakenly credited for having the sites with criticism of Scientology removed from the Internet Archive?
56ddd22366d3e219004dad00
the site owner
184
False
Who was the actual party that requested the critical sites be taken down?
56ddd22366d3e219004dad01
Church of Scientology
247
False
Scientology
79
Web pages that contained content critical of what religious movement were taken off of the Wayback Machine in 2002?
5a6b2219a9e0c9001a4e9ef6
True
the site owner
184
Who was mistakenly credited for having the sites with criticism of Scientology removed from the Wayback Machine?
5a6b2219a9e0c9001a4e9ef7
True
Church of Scientology
247
Who was the actual party that requested the Wayback Machine to be taken down?
5a6b2219a9e0c9001a4e9ef8
True
late 2002
3
When did the Church of Scientology remove files?
5a6b2219a9e0c9001a4e9ef9
True
site owners
307
Who did not want the Wayback Machine removed?
5a6b2219a9e0c9001a4e9efa
True
In late 2002, the Internet Archive removed various sites that were critical of Scientology from the Wayback Machine. An error message stated that this was in response to a "request by the site owner." Later, it was clarified that lawyers from the Church of Scientology had demanded the removal and that the site owners did not want their material removed.
Which law firm leveraged Wayback Machine to protect their client in 2003?
56ddd58e66d3e219004dad0d
Harding Earley Follmer & Frailey
9
False
Which company filed suit against Harding, Earley, Follmer & Frailey's client?
56ddd58e66d3e219004dad0e
Healthcare Advocates
293
False
Who did Healthcare advocates change their case to include as a defendant?
56ddd58e66d3e219004dad0f
Internet Archive
359
False
What laws did Healthcare Advocates accuse Internet Archive of having broken?
56ddd58e66d3e219004dad10
the DMCA and the Computer Fraud and Abuse Act
454
False
Harding Earley Follmer & Frailey
9
Which law firm leveaged the Computer Fraud and Abuse Act to protect their client in 2003?
5a6b244ea9e0c9001a4e9f00
True
Healthcare Advocates
501
Which company filed suit against Harding Early Follmer & Frailey?
5a6b244ea9e0c9001a4e9f01
True
Internet Archive
359
Who did Healthcare advocates change their case to include as a plaintiff?
5a6b244ea9e0c9001a4e9f02
True
the DMCA and the Computer Fraud and Abuse Act
454
What laws did Healthcare Advocates accuse Early Follmer & Frailey of having broken?
5a6b244ea9e0c9001a4e9f03
True
all previous copies of the plaintiff web site
675
What should Early Follmer & Frailey have removed?
5a6b244ea9e0c9001a4e9f04
True
In 2003, Harding Earley Follmer & Frailey defended a client from a trademark dispute using the Archive's Wayback Machine. The attorneys were able to demonstrate that the claims made by the plaintiff were invalid, based on the content of their web site from several years prior. The plaintiff, Healthcare Advocates, then amended their complaint to include the Internet Archive, accusing the organization of copyright infringement as well as violations of the DMCA and the Computer Fraud and Abuse Act. Healthcare Advocates claimed that, since they had installed a robots.txt file on their web site, even if after the initial lawsuit was filed, the Archive should have removed all previous copies of the plaintiff web site from the Wayback Machine. The lawsuit was settled out of court.
What kind of protocol is the Robots Exclusion Standard?
56ddd60966d3e219004dad15
voluntary
63
False
What file is utilized to exercise the rights promoted by the Robots Exclusion Standard?
56ddd60966d3e219004dad16
Robots.txt
0
False
If a site prevents Internet Archive from recording it, what file is still saved?
56ddd60966d3e219004dad17
Robots.txt
0
False
voluntary
63
What kind of protocol is the Internet Archive?
5a6b2699a9e0c9001a4e9f0a
True
robots.txt
377
What file is utilized to exercise the rights promoted by the Internet Archive?
5a6b2699a9e0c9001a4e9f0b
True
robots.txt
377
If a site prevents Internet Archive from recording it, what file is rendered unavailable?
5a6b2699a9e0c9001a4e9f0c
True
Robots Exclusion Standard
34
What does the Healthcare Advocates respect?
5a6b2699a9e0c9001a4e9f0d
True
Robots.txt is used as part of the Robots Exclusion Standard, a voluntary protocol the Internet Archive respects that disallows bots from indexing certain pages delineated by its creator as off-limits. As a result, the Internet Archive has rendered unavailable a number of web sites that now are inaccessible through the Wayback Machine. Currently, the Internet Archive applies robots.txt rules retroactively; if a site blocks the Internet Archive, such as Healthcare Advocates, any previously archived pages from the domain are rendered unavailable as well. In cases of blocked sites, only the robots.txt file is archived.
Who asserts that they will respond to direct contacts requesting material be removed from the archive?
56ddd65866d3e219004dad1b
Internet Archive
4
False
Internet Archive
4
Who asserts that they will respond to direct contracts requesting material be removed from Web sites?
5a6b295ba9e0c9001a4e9f12
True
preserving or offering access to Web sites or other Internet documents of persons who do not want their materials in the collection
246
What are owners not interested in?
5a6b295ba9e0c9001a4e9f13
True
comply
142
What do Web site owners do with requests?
5a6b295ba9e0c9001a4e9f14
True
directly
81
How does the Internet Archives contact owners?
5a6b295ba9e0c9001a4e9f15
True
Internet Archive
208
Who is interested in preserving Web sites of persons who do not want their materials in the collection?
5a6b295ba9e0c9001a4e9f16
True
The Internet Archive states, however, "Sometimes a website owner will contact us directly and ask us to stop crawling or archiving a site. We comply with these requests." In addition, the web site says: "The Internet Archive is not interested in preserving or offering access to Web sites or other Internet documents of persons who do not want their materials in the collection."
Who sued Internet Archive in 2005?
56ddd8849a695914005b960c
Suzanne Shell
27
False
What was the URL owned by Suzanne Shell?
56ddd8849a695914005b960d
profane-justice.org
126
False
In what jurisdiction were Internet Archive's counterclaims filed?
56ddd8849a695914005b960f
Northern District of California
266
False
In what jurisdiction where counterclaims nullified by the court?
56ddd8849a695914005b9610
District of Colorado
634
False
Suzanne Shell
27
Who sued Internet Archive in 2004?
5a6b2b06a9e0c9001a4e9f1c
True
profane-justice.org
126
What was the URL owned by the Internet Archive?
5a6b2b06a9e0c9001a4e9f1d
True
Northern District of California
266
In what jurisdiction was Suzanne Shell's counterclaims filed?
5a6b2b06a9e0c9001a4e9f1e
True
District of Colorado
634
In what jurisdiction were claims nullified by the court?
5a6b2b06a9e0c9001a4e9f1f
True
January 20, 2006
301
When did Suzanne Shell file a declaratory judgment action?
5a6b2b06a9e0c9001a4e9f20
True
In December 2005, activist Suzanne Shell filed suit demanding Internet Archive pay her US $100,000 for archiving her web site profane-justice.org between 1999 and 2004. Internet Archive filed a declaratory judgment action in the United States District Court for the Northern District of California on January 20, 2006, seeking a judicial determination that Internet Archive did not violate Shell's copyright. Shell responded and brought a countersuit against Internet Archive for archiving her site, which she alleges is in violation of her terms of service. On February 13, 2007, a judge for the United States District Court for the District of Colorado dismissed all counterclaims except breach of contract. The Internet Archive did not move to dismiss copyright infringement claims Shell asserted arising out of its copying activities, which would also go forward.
When did Suzanne Shell's suit against Internet Archive come to an end?
56ddd98d9a695914005b961a
April 25, 2007
3
False
Who stated that they had no wish to violate individuals' copyrights?
56ddd98d9a695914005b961b
Internet Archive
19
False
Who stated that they did not want to cause damage to the Internet Archive?
56ddd98d9a695914005b961c
Suzanne Shell
40
False
April 25, 2007
3
When did Wayback Machine's suit against Internet Archive come to an end?
5a6b2d63a9e0c9001a4e9f26
True
Internet Archive
109
Who stated that they had no wish to violate the values of Suzanne Shell?
5a6b2d63a9e0c9001a4e9f27
True
Suzanne Shell
40
Who stated that they did not want to cause damage to the Wayback Machine?
5a6b2d63a9e0c9001a4e9f28
True
Internet Archive
109
Who regretted the inclusion of Wayback Mountain's Web site?
5a6b2d63a9e0c9001a4e9f29
True
Internet Archive
109
Who never intended to interfere with Suzanne Shell's goal?
5a6b2d63a9e0c9001a4e9f2a
True
On April 25, 2007, Internet Archive and Suzanne Shell jointly announced the settlement of their lawsuit. The Internet Archive said it "...has no interest in including materials in the Wayback Machine of persons who do not wish to have their Web content archived. We recognize that Ms. Shell has a valid and enforceable copyright in her Web site and we regret that the inclusion of her Web site in the Wayback Machine resulted in this litigation." Shell said, "I respect the historical value of Internet Archive's goal. I never intended to interfere with that goal nor cause it any harm."
What was the first method used by the actor in trying to get his images taken down?
56ddd9ea66d3e219004dad24
DMCA requests
107
False
What legal system did the actor use after filing DMCA petitions?
56ddd9ea66d3e219004dad25
Federal Court of Canada
152
False
DMCA requests
107
What was the first method used by the actor in trying to get the DMCA taken down?
5a6b2ed4a9e0c9001a4e9f30
True
Federal Court of Canada
152
What legal actions did the actor use after filing pornographic images?
5a6b2ed4a9e0c9001a4e9f31
True
2013–14
3
When did a pornographic actor send multiple requests to DMCA?
5a6b2ed4a9e0c9001a4e9f32
True
archived images
53
What was the DMCA trying to remove?
5a6b2ed4a9e0c9001a4e9f33
True
2013–14
3
When was the DMCA trying to remove archived images?
5a6b2ed4a9e0c9001a4e9f34
True
In 2013–14 a pornographic actor was trying to remove archived images of himself, first by sending multiple DMCA requests to the Archive and then in the Federal Court of Canada.
Dutch_Republic
What are some other names the Dutch Republic is known by?
56ddd7179a695914005b9600
the United Provinces (Verenigde Provinciën), Federated Dutch Provinces (Foederatae Belgii Provinciae), and Dutch Federation (Belgica Foederata)
538
False
The Dutch Republic was a republic of Europe during what time?
56ddd7179a695914005b9601
from 1581, when part of the Netherlands separated from Spanish rule, until 1795
279
False
What republics did the Dutch Republic come before?
56ddd7179a695914005b9602
Batavian Republic, the Kingdom of Holland, the United Kingdom of the Netherlands, and ultimately the modern Kingdom of the Netherlands
376
False
The Dutch Republic
0
What is also known as the Republic of the seventeen United Netherlands?
5a11bc6f06e79900185c3537
True
1581
284
When did part of Spain separate from the Netherlands?
5a11bc6f06e79900185c3538
True
The Dutch Republic
0
The Batavian Repulic preceded what other Republic?
5a11bc6f06e79900185c3539
True
Batavian Republic, the Kingdom of Holland, the United Kingdom of the Netherlands
376
What was the Kingdom of the Netherlands later known as?
5a11bc6f06e79900185c353a
True
1581
284
What year marked the beginning of the existence of the Spanish Republic?
5a1c84fbb4fb5d0018714640
True
Batavian Republic, the Kingdom of Holland, the United Kingdom of the Netherlands, and ultimately the modern Kingdom of the Netherlands.
376
What republics did the Spanish kingdom come before?
5a1c84fbb4fb5d0018714641
True
the United Provinces (Verenigde Provinciën), Federated Dutch Provinces (Foederatae Belgii Provinciae), and Dutch Federation (Belgica Foederata).
538
What are some other names the Batvian Republic is known by?
5a1c84fbb4fb5d0018714642
True
from 1581, when part of the Netherlands separated from Spanish rule, until 1795.
279
During what period was the Kingdom of Holland a republic of Europe?
5a1c84fbb4fb5d0018714643
True
the Republic of the Seven United Netherlands
34
Name one name the Batvian Republic is also known as?
5a1c84fbb4fb5d0018714644
True
The Dutch Republic, also known as the Republic of the Seven United Netherlands (Republiek der Zeven Verenigde Nederlanden), Republic of the United Netherlands or Republic of the Seven United Provinces (Republiek der Zeven Verenigde Provinciën), was a republic in Europe existing from 1581, when part of the Netherlands separated from Spanish rule, until 1795. It preceded the Batavian Republic, the Kingdom of Holland, the United Kingdom of the Netherlands, and ultimately the modern Kingdom of the Netherlands. Alternative names include the United Provinces (Verenigde Provinciën), Federated Dutch Provinces (Foederatae Belgii Provinciae), and Dutch Federation (Belgica Foederata).
The Low Countries were made up of which present day countries?
56ddd84066d3e219004dad1f
Netherlands, Belgium, and Luxembourg
85
False
Which counties in the Low Countries were not ruled by the Holy Roman Empire?
56ddd84066d3e219004dad20
Flanders
298
False
present-day Netherlands, Belgium, and Luxembourg
73
What countries were considered part of the low countries after the sixteenth century?
5a11be2006e79900185c353f
True
a number of duchies, counties, and Prince-bishoprics,
137
What were ruled by the Roman Empire?
5a11be2006e79900185c3540
True
Holy Roman Empire,
243
Which Empire ruled the county of Flanders?
5a11be2006e79900185c3541
True
Kingdom of France
328
What kingdom was a holy Roman empire under?
5a11be2006e79900185c3542
True
Netherlands, Belgium, and Luxembourg
85
What three countries were under the Kingdom of France?
5a1c8751b4fb5d001871465e
True
a number of duchies, counties, and Prince-bishoprics
137
What did the Low Countries under the Kingdom of France consist of?
5a1c8751b4fb5d001871465f
True
Flanders
298
What county was under the Holy Roman Empire?
5a1c8751b4fb5d0018714660
True
Until the 16th century
0
Until what century was the county of Flanders part of the Low Countries?
5a1c8751b4fb5d0018714661
True
Prince-bishoprics
172
Name one type of government the county of Flanders had when under the rule of the Holy Roman Empire?
5a1c8751b4fb5d0018714662
True
Until the 16th century, the Low Countries – corresponding roughly to the present-day Netherlands, Belgium, and Luxembourg – consisted of a number of duchies, counties, and Prince-bishoprics, almost all of which were under the supremacy of the Holy Roman Empire, with the exception of the county of Flanders, which was under the Kingdom of France.
The majority of the Low Countries were ruled by which houses?
56dddab666d3e219004dad2f
the House of Burgundy and subsequently the House of Habsburg
53
False
Who issued the Pragmatic Sanction?
56dddab666d3e219004dad30
Holy Roman Emperor Charles V
123
False
In what year did the Netherlands rise up against Philip II?
56dddab666d3e219004dad31
1568
307
False
Why did the people of the Netherlands rise up against Philip II?
56dddab666d3e219004dad32
high taxes, persecution of Protestants by the government, and Philip's efforts to modernize and centralize the devolved-medieval government structures of the provinces
395
False
the House of Burgundy and subsequently the House of Habsburg
53
The low countries ruled most of what two houses?
5a11c08c06e79900185c3547
True
the Pragmatic Sanction
159
What did Charles V block in 1549?
5a11c08c06e79900185c3548
True
the Pragmatic Sanction
159
What further fragment of the seventeen provinces?
5a11c08c06e79900185c3549
True
1568
307
When did Philip II conquer the Netherlands?
5a11c08c06e79900185c354a
True
the Eighty Years' War
586
What war ended with a revolt led by William I
5a11c08c06e79900185c354b
True
1549
118
When did the House of Burgundy issue the Pragmatic Sanction?
5a1c89fcb4fb5d001871468c
True
unified the Seventeen Provinces
197
What did modernizing the government structures do to the Low Countries status?
5a1c89fcb4fb5d001871468d
True
1568
307
When did the House of Burgundy revolt against Philip II?
5a1c89fcb4fb5d001871468e
True
high taxes, persecution of Protestants by the government
395
Name two reasons why the Low Countries turned against Philip II?
5a1c89fcb4fb5d001871468f
True
the Eighty Years' War
586
What event started after the revolt let by King Philip II of Spain?
5a1c89fcb4fb5d0018714690
True
Most of the Low Countries had come under the rule of the House of Burgundy and subsequently the House of Habsburg. In 1549 Holy Roman Emperor Charles V issued the Pragmatic Sanction, which further unified the Seventeen Provinces under his rule. Charles was succeeded by his son, King Philip II of Spain. In 1568 the Netherlands, led by William I of Orange, revolted against Philip II because of high taxes, persecution of Protestants by the government, and Philip's efforts to modernize and centralize the devolved-medieval government structures of the provinces. This was the start of the Eighty Years' War.
In what year was the Union of Utrecht signed?
56dddb4466d3e219004dad37
1579
3
False
Who signed the Union of Utrecht?
56dddb4466d3e219004dad38
a number of the northern provinces of the Low Countries
8
False
What was the declaration of independence of the provinces from Philip II called?
56dddb4466d3e219004dad39
the Act of Abjuration
210
False
In what year was the Act of Abjuration signed?
56dddb4466d3e219004dad3a
1581
202
False
What was the purpose of the Union of Utrecht?
56dddb4466d3e219004dad3b
to support each other in their defence against the Spanish army
116
False
1579
3
In what year did the provinces of the low countries sign the Union of Utrecht?
5a11c1fe06e79900185c3551
True
northern provinces of the Low Countries
24
Who promised to help each other attack the Spanish army?
5a11c1fe06e79900185c3552
True
the northern provinces
20
Who declared their independence from Philip II in 1579?
5a11c1fe06e79900185c3553
True
Philip II
287
Who did the Union of Utrecht declare independence from?
5a11c1fe06e79900185c3554
True
each other
127
Who did the provinces promise to support with the Act of Abjuration?
5a11c1fe06e79900185c3555
True
a number of the northern provinces of the Low Countries
8
In 1581 who signed the Union of Utrecht?
5a1cb8fe4ea40d0018b06ecb
True
the Act of Abjuration
210
What was the name of the declaration of independence from the Low Countries?
5a1cb8fe4ea40d0018b06ecc
True
Union of Utrecht
75
What did Low Country provinces sign promising to support each other against Philip II?
5a1cb8fe4ea40d0018b06ecd
True
1581
202
During what year was the declaration of independence from the Spanish signed?
5a1cb8fe4ea40d0018b06ece
True
a number of the northern provinces of the Low Countries
8
Who promised to support each other while defending against Philip II?
5a1cb8fe4ea40d0018b06ecf
True
In 1579 a number of the northern provinces of the Low Countries signed the Union of Utrecht, in which they promised to support each other in their defence against the Spanish army. This was followed in 1581 by the Act of Abjuration, the declaration of independence of the provinces from Philip II.
In what year did the United Provinces invite Francis, Duke of Anjou to lead them?
56dddd6766d3e219004dad41
1582
3
False
In what year did Francis, Duke of Anjou leave the Netherlands?
56dddd6766d3e219004dad42
1583
120
False
When was William of Orange assassinated?
56dddd6766d3e219004dad43
10 July 1584
209
False
Who agreed to turn the United Provinces into a protectorate of England?
56dddd6766d3e219004dad44
Elizabeth I
253
False
In what year did the United Provinces become a confederacy?
56dddd6766d3e219004dad45
1588
506
False
1582
3
In what year did the Duke of Anjou conquered the United provinces?
5a11c35a06e79900185c355b
True
Francis, Duke of Anjou
37
Who talk Antwerp in 1583?
5a11c35a06e79900185c355c
True
Henry III of France and Elizabeth I of England
229
What two rulers fought over the provinces after the assassination of William of Orange?
5a11c35a06e79900185c355d
True
Treaty of Nonsuch
399
What treaty gave England sovereignty over the United provinces?
5a11c35a06e79900185c355e
True
1648
725
In what year did the Spanish Empire stopped recognizing the Republic of the Seven United Provinces?
5a11c35a06e79900185c355f
True
10 July 1584
209
When was the Duke of Anjou assassinated?
5a1cba7b4ea40d0018b06ed5
True
after a failed attempt to take Antwerp in 1583
78
When did Henry III leave the Netherlands?
5a1cba7b4ea40d0018b06ed6
True
After the assassination of William of Orange (10 July 1584)
163
When did the Duke of Anjou decline an offer of soverignty?
5a1cba7b4ea40d0018b06ed7
True
the Earl of Leicester
434
Who was sent as governer-general to the Spanish Empire?
5a1cba7b4ea40d0018b06ed8
True
agreed to turn the United Provinces into a protectorate of England
331
What did Henry III do with the United Provinces  after William of Orange was assassinated?
5a1cba7b4ea40d0018b06ed9
True
In 1582 the United Provinces invited Francis, Duke of Anjou to lead them; but after a failed attempt to take Antwerp in 1583, the duke left the Netherlands again. After the assassination of William of Orange (10 July 1584), both Henry III of France and Elizabeth I of England declined the offer of sovereignty. However, the latter agreed to turn the United Provinces into a protectorate of England (Treaty of Nonsuch, 1585), and sent the Earl of Leicester as governor-general. This was unsuccessful and in 1588 the provinces became a confederacy. The Union of Utrecht is regarded as the foundation of the Republic of the Seven United Provinces, which was not recognized by the Spanish Empire until the Peace of Westphalia in 1648.
What events created the Batavian Republic?
56ddde4d66d3e219004dad53
a series of republican revolutions in 1783–1795
50
False
The republican forces fled to which country?
56ddde4d66d3e219004dad54
France
372
False
The Napoleonic Kingdom of Holland replaced which republic?
56ddde4d66d3e219004dad55
the Batavian Republic
106
False
The Republic of the United Provinces
0
What republic began with a series of republican revolutions?
5a11e57f6614be00188f247d
True
a series of republican revolutions
50
What did the Batavian Republic take part in from 1783 to 1795?
5a11e57f6614be00188f247e
True
Batavian Republic
110
During what period did Republican forces loose several major cities of the Netherlands?
5a11e57f6614be00188f247f
True
Batavian Republic
527
What Republic replaced the Napoleonic Kingdom of Holland?
5a11e57f6614be00188f2480
True
The republican forces
342
Who fled from France to the Netherlands?
5a11e57f6614be00188f2481
True
a series of republican revolutions in 1783–1795
50
What happened that led to the creation of the French Republic?
5a1cbbb84ea40d0018b06edf
True
monarchist forces came back with British, Austrian, and Prussian troops
242
Who came back to retake the Batavian Republic?
5a1cbbb84ea40d0018b06ee0
True
France
372
Where did the Prussian forces flee to?
5a1cbbb84ea40d0018b06ee1
True
the French Empire
489
What did the French Republic become under the British?
5a1cbbb84ea40d0018b06ee2
True
the Napoleonic Kingdom of Holland
561
What Kingdom replaced the monarchist forces under Napoleon?
5a1cbbb84ea40d0018b06ee3
True
The Republic of the United Provinces lasted until a series of republican revolutions in 1783–1795 created the Batavian Republic. During this period, republican forces took several major cities of the Netherlands. After initially fleeing, the monarchist forces came back with British, Austrian, and Prussian troops and retook the Netherlands. The republican forces fled to France, but then successfully re-invaded alongside the army of the French republic. After the French Republic became the French Empire under Napoleon, the Batavian Republic was replaced by the Napoleonic Kingdom of Holland.
In what year did the Netherlands gain independence from France?
56dddf3066d3e219004dad59
1813
53
False
What names were used in the Anglo-Dutch Treaty of 1814?
56dddf3066d3e219004dad5a
"United Provinces of the Netherlands" and "United Netherlands"
103
False
The Kingdom of the Netherlands was formed by which countries?
56dddf3066d3e219004dad5b
Austrian Netherlands, Luxembourg and Liège
210
False
in 1813
50
When did Belgium regain independence from France?
5a1cbde04ea40d0018b06ee9
True
"United Provinces of the Netherlands" and "United Netherlands"
103
What names were Luxembourg known by in the Anglo-Dutch Treaty of 1814?
5a1cbde04ea40d0018b06eea
True
the Kingdom of the United Netherlands
342
What kingdom created a buffer state north of Belgium?
5a1cbde04ea40d0018b06eeb
True
the state became unequivocally known as the Kingdom of the Netherlands, as it remains today.
479
What happened to the Kingdom of the United Netherlands after France became independent?
5a1cbde04ea40d0018b06eec
True
In 1815 it was rejoined with the Austrian Netherlands, Luxembourg and Liège (the "Southern provinces") to become the Kingdom of the Netherlands
177
What did the Southern provinces treaty accomplish for the Netherlands?
5a1cbde04ea40d0018b06eed
True
The Netherlands regained independence from France in 1813. In the Anglo-Dutch Treaty of 1814 the names "United Provinces of the Netherlands" and "United Netherlands" were used. In 1815 it was rejoined with the Austrian Netherlands, Luxembourg and Liège (the "Southern provinces") to become the Kingdom of the Netherlands, informally known as the Kingdom of the United Netherlands, to create a strong buffer state north of France. After Belgium and Luxembourg became independent, the state became unequivocally known as the Kingdom of the Netherlands, as it remains today.
The Dutch Republic dominated world trade during what time?
56dddfe89a695914005b9632
the Dutch Golden Age
7
False
What was the wealthiest and most urbanized region in the world during the 17th century?
56dddfe89a695914005b9633
The County of Holland
219
False
in the 17th century
102
When did the country of Holland dominate world trade?
5a1cbf334ea40d0018b06ef3
True
the wealthiest and most urbanized region in the world
245
What was the status of the Dutch Golden Age compared to the world?
5a1cbf334ea40d0018b06ef4
True
a vast colonial empire
134
During the 17th century what did Holland conquer?
5a1cbf334ea40d0018b06ef5
True
the largest fleet of merchantmen of any nation
171
What kind of fleet did Holland have in the 17th century?
5a1cbf334ea40d0018b06ef6
True
County of Holland
223
What trade fleet was the wealthiest and most urbanized?
5a1cbf334ea40d0018b06ef7
True
During the Dutch Golden Age in the late 16th century onward, the Dutch Republic dominated world trade in the 17th century, conquering a vast colonial empire and operating the largest fleet of merchantmen of any nation. The County of Holland was the wealthiest and most urbanized region in the world.
When was the stock exchange founded in the Netherlands?
56dde17c66d3e219004dad85
1602
218
False
Which city in the Netherlands has the oldest stock exchange?
56dde17c66d3e219004dad86
Rotterdam
262
False
The Dutch East-India Company inhabited how many cities?
56dde17c66d3e219004dad87
six
403
False
Which city did the Dutch East-India Company decide to reside in after a court decided they could legally only operate in one city?
56dde17c66d3e219004dad88
Amsterdam
506
False
in 1602
215
When was the oldest stock exchange founded in England?
5a1cc1574ea40d0018b06efd
True
the Dutch East India Company
226
What court founded the stock exchange in the Netherlands?
5a1cc1574ea40d0018b06efe
True
in the Low Countries
630
Where did the spirit of the time evolve?
5a1cc1574ea40d0018b06eff
True
the well-connected English
683
Who adopted the modern trading principles that stimulated their economy?
5a1cc1574ea40d0018b06f00
True
six
403
How many cities did the Low Countries inhabit?
5a1cc1574ea40d0018b06f01
True
The free trade spirit of the time received a strong augmentation through the development of a modern, effective stock market in the Low Countries. The Netherlands has the oldest stock exchange in the world, founded in 1602 by the Dutch East India Company. While Rotterdam has the oldest bourse in the Netherlands, the world's first stock exchange – that of the Dutch East-India Company – went public in six different cities. Later, a court ruled that the company had to reside legally in a single city, so Amsterdam is recognized as the oldest such institution based on modern trading principles. While the banking system evolved in the Low Countries, it was quickly incorporated by the well-connected English, stimulating English economic output.
The Dutch had one of the strongest and fastest navies in the world during what time?
56dde2609a695914005b964a
1590–1712
8
False
The Dutch operated a slave trade from which locations?
56dde2609a695914005b964b
Africa and the Pacific
266
False
What was one of the conquests of the Dutch Navy?
56dde2609a695914005b964c
breaking the Portuguese sphere of influence on the Indian Ocean and in the Orient
143
False
from Africa and the Pacific
261
From what location did the Portugese operate a slave trade?
5a1cc2cd4ea40d0018b06f07
True
Between 1590–1712
0
When did the Portugese have a strong and fast navy?
5a1cc2cd4ea40d0018b06f08
True
the Portuguese sphere of influence
152
What was broken by Africa on the Indian Ocean and in the Orient?
5a1cc2cd4ea40d0018b06f09
True
Africa and the Pacific
266
Where was the Dutch navy located?
5a1cc2cd4ea40d0018b06f0a
True
Between 1590–1712
0
During what time period did Africa break Portugese influence?
5a1cc2cd4ea40d0018b06f0b
True
Between 1590–1712 the Dutch also possessed one of the strongest and fastest navies in the world, allowing for their varied conquests including breaking the Portuguese sphere of influence on the Indian Ocean and in the Orient, as well as a lucrative slave trade from Africa and the Pacific.
The Dutch Republic consisted of how many provinces?
56dde4699a695914005b9666
seven
36
False
Who were the Generality Lands governed by?
56dde4699a695914005b9667
the States General (Staten-Generaal in Dutch), the federal government
193
False
The States General was made up of what?
56dde4699a695914005b9668
representatives of each of the seven provinces
325
False
in official feudal order
409
In what order was The Hague arranged?
5a1cc6414ea40d0018b06f11
True
The republic
0
What was a confederation of the federal government?
5a1cc6414ea40d0018b06f12
True
seven
36
How many governments did the Dutch Republic consist of?
5a1cc6414ea40d0018b06f13
True
representatives of each of the seven provinces
325
What was the feudal order made up of?
5a1cc6414ea40d0018b06f14
True
The Hague
298
Where was the federal government seated?
5a1cc6414ea40d0018b06f15
True
The republic was a confederation of seven provinces, which had their own governments and were very independent, and a number of so-called Generality Lands. The latter were governed directly by the States General (Staten-Generaal in Dutch), the federal government. The States General were seated in The Hague and consisted of representatives of each of the seven provinces. The provinces of the republic were, in official feudal order:
What was the 8th province of the Dutch Republic?
56dde54066d3e219004dadb3
the County of Drenthe
39
False
Why was the County of Drenthe denied representation by the States General?
56dde54066d3e219004dadb4
this area was so poor it was exempt from paying federal taxes
66
False
The main executive official of the Provincial States was called what?
56dde54066d3e219004dadb5
raadspensionaris
325
False
Who had more power during times of war than the raadspensionaris?
56dde54066d3e219004dadb6
the stadtholder
360
False
Who commanded the army?
56dde54066d3e219004dadb7
the stadtholder
360
False
paying federal taxes
107
What was the State General exempt from?
5a1cc7914ea40d0018b06f1b
True
representation in the States General
160
What was the stateholder denied by its tax exemption?
5a1cc7914ea40d0018b06f1c
True
Provincial States
232
What was each raadspensionaris governed by?
5a1cc7914ea40d0018b06f1d
True
more power than the raadspensionaris
412
In wartime, what type of power did the County of Drenthe have?
5a1cc7914ea40d0018b06f1e
True
the stadtholder
360
Who commanded the representation in the States General?
5a1cc7914ea40d0018b06f1f
True
In fact, there was an eighth province, the County of Drenthe, but this area was so poor it was exempt from paying federal taxes and as a consequence was denied representation in the States General. Each province was governed by the Provincial States, the main executive official (though not the official head of state) was a raadspensionaris. In times of war, the stadtholder, who commanded the army, would have more power than the raadspensionaris.
Who appointed the stadtholders?
56dde72f66d3e219004dadbd
the states of each province
72
False
Who were always chosen as stadtholders of most of the provinces?
56dde72f66d3e219004dadbe
the princes of Orange of the House of Orange-Nassau, beginning with William the Silent
122
False
Which states had the same stadtholder as Holland?
56dde72f66d3e219004dadbf
Zeeland and usually Utrecht
271
False
were freely appointed by and subordinate to the states of each province
28
What are two things that define the princes in theory?
5a1cca774ea40d0018b06f25
True
the states of each province
72
Who appointed the princes of Orange?
5a1cca774ea40d0018b06f26
True
Zeeland and usually Utrecht
271
Who had the same princes as Holland?
5a1cca774ea40d0018b06f27
True
the stadtholders
11
Who was subordinate to Zeeland and Utrecht?
5a1cca774ea40d0018b06f28
True
stadtholders of most of the provinces
232
What were Zeeland and Utrecht always chosen as?
5a1cca774ea40d0018b06f29
True
In theory, the stadtholders were freely appointed by and subordinate to the states of each province. However, in practice the princes of Orange of the House of Orange-Nassau, beginning with William the Silent, were always chosen as stadtholders of most of the provinces. Zeeland and usually Utrecht had the same stadtholder as Holland.
What group of people supported the stadtholders, particularly the princes of Orange?
56dde7cc66d3e219004dadcd
Orangists
48
False
Who wanted to replace the stadtholders with a republican structure?
56dde7cc66d3e219004dadce
Republicans
138
False
the semi-hereditary nature of the stadtholdership
205
What did the Orangists want to replace in the power struggle?
5a1ccdcf4ea40d0018b06f2f
True
a constant power struggle
10
What conflict was there between the stadtholders and the Orangists?
5a1ccdcf4ea40d0018b06f30
True
the stadtholders
73
What currently used system of governance did the Republicans want to protect?
5a1ccdcf4ea40d0018b06f31
True
a true republican structure
260
What did the stadtholders hope to replace the current system with?
5a1ccdcf4ea40d0018b06f32
True
semi-hereditary nature
209
What was the nature of the true republican structure?
5a1ccdcf4ea40d0018b06f33
True
There was a constant power struggle between the Orangists, who supported the stadtholders and specifically the princes of Orange, and the Republicans, who supported the States General and hoped to replace the semi-hereditary nature of the stadtholdership with a true republican structure.
Several border territories were designated to the United Provinces after what?
56dde8ce66d3e219004dadd9
the Peace of Westphalia
6
False
The border territories assigned to the United Provinces were known as what?
56dde8ce66d3e219004dadda
federally-governed Generality Lands (Generaliteitslanden)
107
False
What were the names of the border territories assigned to the United Provinces?
56dde8ce66d3e219004daddb
Staats-Brabant (present North Brabant), Staats-Vlaanderen (present Zeeuws-Vlaanderen), Staats-Limburg (around Maastricht) and Staats-Oppergelre (around Venlo, after 1715)
176
False
several border territories
31
In 1715 what was assigned to the United Provinces?
5a1ccfae4ea40d0018b06f39
True
federally-governed Generality Lands (Generaliteitslanden).
107
What was the Maastricht assigned to the United Provinces known as?
5a1ccfae4ea40d0018b06f3a
True
Staats-Limburg
263
What is one name of a Staats-Brabant assigned to the United Provinces?
5a1ccfae4ea40d0018b06f3b
True
After the Peace of Westphalia
0
When were several border territories assigned to the Staats-Oppergelre?
5a1ccfae4ea40d0018b06f3c
True
several border territories
31
What was federally-governed Maastricht?
5a1ccfae4ea40d0018b06f3d
True
After the Peace of Westphalia, several border territories were assigned to the United Provinces. They were federally-governed Generality Lands (Generaliteitslanden). They were Staats-Brabant (present North Brabant), Staats-Vlaanderen (present Zeeuws-Vlaanderen), Staats-Limburg (around Maastricht) and Staats-Oppergelre (around Venlo, after 1715).
Who was in control of the Dutch East India Company (VOC) and the Dutch West India Company (WIC)?
56dde98866d3e219004daded
The States General of the United Provinces
0
False
Some shipping expeditions were mostly initiated by which provinces?
56dde98866d3e219004dadee
Holland and/or Zeeland
215
False
the Dutch East India Company (VOC) and the Dutch West India Company (WIC)
62
What companies were the shipping expedition in control of?
5a1cd1454ea40d0018b06f43
True
The States General of the United Provinces
0
What group was in control of Holland and Zeeland?
5a1cd1454ea40d0018b06f44
True
some shipping expeditions
141
What did the VOC and WIC initiate?
5a1cd1454ea40d0018b06f45
True
the Dutch East India Company (VOC) and the Dutch West India Company (WIC)
62
What were Holland and Zeeland in control of?
5a1cd1454ea40d0018b06f46
True
some shipping expeditions
141
What endeavor was started by the VOC and the WIC?
5a1cd1454ea40d0018b06f47
True
The States General of the United Provinces were in control of the Dutch East India Company (VOC) and the Dutch West India Company (WIC), but some shipping expeditions were initiated by some of the provinces, mostly Holland and/or Zeeland.
Who was influenced by the Constitution of the Republic of the United Provinces?
56ddecfe66d3e219004dae17
The framers of the US Constitution
0
False
Who described the Dutch confederacy as exhibiting "Imbecility in the government; discord among the provinces; foreign influence and indignities; a precarious existence in peace, and peculiar calamities from war."
56ddecfe66d3e219004dae18
James Madison
137
False
The American Declaration of Independence is similar to what?
56ddecfe66d3e219004dae19
the Act of Abjuration, essentially the declaration of independence of the United Provinces
519
False
The framers of the US Constitution
0
Who was influenced by the Act of Abjuration?
5a1cd5884ea40d0018b06f4d
True
Federalist No. 20
115
What shows the framers of the US Constitution were influenced by the Dutch confederacy?
5a1cd5884ea40d0018b06f4e
True
discord among the provinces
315
What is one trait James Madison mentions the United Provinces show?
5a1cd5884ea40d0018b06f4f
True
the American Declaration of Independence
464
What is similar to the Federalist No. 20?
5a1cd5884ea40d0018b06f50
True
negative
210
What type of influence did peculiar calamities of war have on the framers of the US constitution?
5a1cd5884ea40d0018b06f51
True
The framers of the US Constitution were influenced by the Constitution of the Republic of the United Provinces, as Federalist No. 20, by James Madison, shows. Such influence appears, however, to have been of a negative nature, as Madison describes the Dutch confederacy as exhibiting "Imbecility in the government; discord among the provinces; foreign influence and indignities; a precarious existence in peace, and peculiar calamities from war." Apart from this, the American Declaration of Independence is similar to the Act of Abjuration, essentially the declaration of independence of the United Provinces, but concrete evidence that the former directly influenced the latter is absent.
What granted Holland and Zeeland the right to accept only one religion?
56ddee0866d3e219004dae1d
the Union of Utrecht of 20 January 1579
3
False
What did the Union state that every person should be free to choose?
56ddee0866d3e219004dae1e
personal religion
298
False
Who was a strong supporter of freedom of religion and wanted to unite Protestants and Catholics in the new union?
56ddee0866d3e219004dae1f
William of Orange
383
False
What was forbidden in all provinces?
56ddee0866d3e219004dae20
Catholic services
586
False
In the Union of Utrecht of 20 January 1579
0
When was every other province only permitted to accept Calvinism in practice?
5a1cd75a4ea40d0018b06f57
True
in the new union
517
How did William of Orange hope to unite Holland and Zeeland?
5a1cd75a4ea40d0018b06f58
True
Catholic
586
What religious questions were forbidden under the union?
5a1cd75a4ea40d0018b06f59
True
personal religion
298
What did Calvinism state that everyone should be free to choose?
5a1cd75a4ea40d0018b06f5a
True
the Reformed Church
649
What group became the strong supporter in the republic?
5a1cd75a4ea40d0018b06f5b
True
In the Union of Utrecht of 20 January 1579, Holland and Zeeland were granted the right to accept only one religion (in practice, Calvinism). Every other province had the freedom to regulate the religious question as it wished, although the Union stated every person should be free in the choice of personal religion and that no person should be prosecuted based on religious choice. William of Orange had been a strong supporter of public and personal freedom of religion and hoped to unite Protestants and Catholics in the new union, and, for him, the Union was a defeat. In practice, Catholic services in all provinces were quickly forbidden, and the Reformed Church became the "public" or "privileged" church in the Republic.
What did any person who wanted to hold public office need to conform to during the Republic?
56ddef259a695914005b96e2
the Reformed Church
83
False
The degree to which different religions were persecuted depended on what?
56ddef259a695914005b96e3
the time period and regional or city leaders
226
False
What was the punishment for people who opened their homes to Catholic services during 17th-century Leiden?
56ddef259a695914005b96e4
fined 200 guilders (a year's wage for a skilled tradesman) and banned from the city
457
False
What was one reason for the large amounts of immigration of religious refugees from other parts of Europe?
56ddef259a695914005b96e5
personal freedom of religion
568
False
the Reformed Church
83
What did religious refugees have to conform to when holding public office?
5a1cdddb4ea40d0018b06f61
True
the religion of the enemy
344
What were Reformed Church members considered as in the 17th century?
5a1cdddb4ea40d0018b06f62
True
200 guilders
463
What could religious refugees be fined when opening their homes to services?
5a1cdddb4ea40d0018b06f63
True
personal freedom of religion existed and was one factor – along with economic reasons
568
What factors led to immigration of religious refugees from Leiden?
5a1cdddb4ea40d0018b06f64
True
Roman Catholics
321
Who did most services put the focus on in the beginning?
5a1cdddb4ea40d0018b06f65
True
During the Republic, any person who wished to hold public office had to conform to the Reformed Church and take an oath to this effect. The extent to which different religions or denominations were persecuted depended much on the time period and regional or city leaders. In the beginning, this was especially focused on Roman Catholics, being the religion of the enemy. In 17th-century Leiden, for instance, people opening their homes to services could be fined 200 guilders (a year's wage for a skilled tradesman) and banned from the city. Throughout this, however, personal freedom of religion existed and was one factor – along with economic reasons – in causing large immigration of religious refugees from other parts of Europe.
What was the main subject of controversy that arose within the Reformed Church during the beginning of the Republic?
56ddf1189a695914005b96fc
predestination
111
False
The controversy surrounding the subject of predestination is known as what?
56ddf1189a695914005b96fd
the struggle between Arminianism and Gomarism, or between Remonstrants and Contra-Remonstrants
152
False
What led to the banning of the Remonstrant faith in 1618?
56ddf1189a695914005b96fe
the Synod of Dort
256
False
In the first years of the Republic
0
When was there controversy within the Synod of Dort?
5a1ce09f4ea40d0018b06f6b
True
within the Reformed Church
54
Where did controversy appear around banning of the Remonstrat faith?
5a1ce09f4ea40d0018b06f6c
True
the Synod of Dort
256
What group lead to the banning of the subject of predestination?
5a1ce09f4ea40d0018b06f6d
True
the struggle between Arminianism and Gomarism, or between Remonstrants and Contra-Remonstrants.
152
What did disagreement about the Synod of Dort become known as?
5a1ce09f4ea40d0018b06f6e
True
banning of the Remonstrant faith
311
In 1618 How did the Reformed Church help solve the controversy?
5a1ce09f4ea40d0018b06f6f
True
In the first years of the Republic, controversy arose within the Reformed Church, mainly around the subject of predestination. This has become known as the struggle between Arminianism and Gomarism, or between Remonstrants and Contra-Remonstrants. In 1618 the Synod of Dort tackled this issue, which led to the banning of the Remonstrant faith.
When did the active persecution of religious services become more of a restricted tolerance?
56ddf23e66d3e219004dae4b
in the 18th century
10
False
Religious services for other religions were tolerated as long as they adhered to what rule?
56ddf23e66d3e219004dae4c
as long as their services took place secretly in private churches
168
False
in the 18th century
10
When did persecution of religious services take place secretly in private churches?
5a1ce37a4ea40d0018b06f75
True
Beginning in the 18th century
0
During what period did services move to a state of tolerance?
5a1ce37a4ea40d0018b06f76
True
the situation
31
What changed from religious services to private churches?
5a1ce37a4ea40d0018b06f77
True
religious services
93
What was actively persecuted when taking place in private churches?
5a1ce37a4ea40d0018b06f78
True
secretly in private churches
205
Where was active persecution taking place?
5a1ce37a4ea40d0018b06f79
True
Beginning in the 18th century, the situation changed from more or less active persecution of religious services to a state of restricted toleration of other religions, as long as their services took place secretly in private churches.
Symbiosis
What language does the word "symbiosis" come from?
56ddd7499a695914005b9606
Greek
16
False
What type of organism did Frank apply the term "symbiosis" to?
56ddd7499a695914005b9607
lichens
318
False
What nationality was Heinrich Anton de Bary?
56ddd7499a695914005b9608
German
340
False
German
340
What nationality was Albert Bernhard Frank?
5a7fc8178f0597001ac000c3
True
1879
330
When did Heinrich Anton de Bary discover lichens?
5a7fc8178f0597001ac000c4
True
1877
144
When was the the word "symbiosis" discovered?
5a7fc8178f0597001ac000c5
True
1879
330
What year did Heinrich Anton de Bary become a mycologist?
5a7fc8178f0597001ac000c6
True
1879
330
What year did Albert Bernhard Frank agree to define "symbiosis" as "the living together of unlike organisms."?
5a7fc8178f0597001ac000c7
True
Symbiosis (from Greek σύν "together" and βίωσις "living") is close and often long-term interaction between two different biological species. In 1877 Albert Bernhard Frank used the word symbiosis (which previously had been used to depict people living together in community) to describe the mutualistic relationship in lichens. In 1879, the German mycologist Heinrich Anton de Bary defined it as "the living together of unlike organisms."
How long did it take for scientists to stop using the narrow definition of symbiosis?
56ddd9109a695914005b9617
130 years
276
False
130 years
276
How long did it take for scientists to discover symbiosis?
5a7fcf048f0597001ac000d3
True
130
276
How many scientists believe that symbiosis should only refer to persistent mutualisms?
5a7fcf048f0597001ac000d4
True
current biology and ecology textbooks
297
What textbooks describe the parasitic relationships as the only way to define symbiosis?
5a7fcf048f0597001ac000d5
True
mutualistic, commensalistic, or parasitic
226
What three words did de Bary use to define symbiosis?
5a7fcf048f0597001ac000d6
True
The definition of symbiosis has varied among scientists. Some believe symbiosis should only refer to persistent mutualisms, while others believe it should apply to any type of persistent biological interaction (in other words mutualistic, commensalistic, or parasitic). After 130 years of debate, current biology and ecology textbooks now use the latter "de Bary" definition or an even broader definition (where symbiosis means all species interactions), with the restrictive definition no longer used (in other words, symbiosis means mutualism).
What is the type of symbiotic relationship where two organisms can't survive without each other?
56ddda2d66d3e219004dad29
obligate
33
False
What is the type of symbiotic relationship where the symbionts can live together but can also survive alone?
56ddda2d66d3e219004dad2a
facultative
230
False
What is an example of an obligate relationship?
56ddda2d66d3e219004dad2b
lichens
133
False
facultative
230
What is the type of symbiotic relationship where two organisms can survive without photosynthetic symbionts?
5a7fd4e18f0597001ac000db
True
lichens
133
What organism demonstrates only the facultative symbiotic relationship?
5a7fd4e18f0597001ac000dc
True
lichens
133
What organism demonstrates only the obligate symbiotic relationship?
5a7fd4e18f0597001ac000dd
True
facultative
230
What is the type of symbiotic relationship where two organisms can survive without fungal symbionts?
5a7fd4e18f0597001ac000de
True
obligate
33
What is the type of symbiotic relationship where many organisms must depend on photosynthetic symbionts?
5a7fd4e18f0597001ac000df
True
Some symbiotic relationships are obligate, meaning that both symbionts entirely depend on each other for survival. For example, many lichens consist of fungal and photosynthetic symbionts that cannot live on their own. Others are facultative (optional): they can, but do not have to live with the other organism.
What is an example of ectosymbiosis?
56ddde2d66d3e219004dad4d
mistletoe
114
False
What is it called when the organisms are not physically joined?
56ddde2d66d3e219004dad4e
disjunctive symbiosis
473
False
What is it called when one symbiont lives within its partner?
56ddde2d66d3e219004dad4f
endosymbiosis
171
False
humans
229
What organism lives in a state of both ectosymbiosis and endosymbiosis?
5a7fdc788f0597001ac000e5
True
mistletoe
114
What organism demonstrates disjunctive symbiosis?
5a7fdc788f0597001ac000e6
True
corals
255
What organism demonstrates conjunctive symbiosis?
5a7fdc788f0597001ac000e7
True
conjunctive symbiosis
395
What is it called when one symbiont lives within and has a bodily union with its partner?
5a7fdc788f0597001ac000e8
True
disjunctive symbiosis
473
What is it when an organism was once in a state of conjunctive symbiosis and is now no longer in union?
5a7fdc788f0597001ac000e9
True
Symbiotic relationships include those associations in which one organism lives on another (ectosymbiosis, such as mistletoe), or where one partner lives inside the other (endosymbiosis, such as lactobacilli and other bacteria in humans or Symbiodinium in corals). Symbiosis is also classified by physical attachment of the organisms; symbiosis in which the organisms have bodily union is called conjunctive symbiosis, and symbiosis in which they are not in union is called disjunctive symbiosis.
What do bacterial endosymbionts give necessary nutrition to?
56de0eadcffd8e1900b4b5a0
insects
488
False
What is the name of a bacteria inside of tree roots?
56de0eadcffd8e1900b4b5a1
Frankia
310
False
What endosymbionts live in coral?
56de0eadcffd8e1900b4b5a2
algae
372
False
10%–15%
477
What percent of alder tree root nodules provide essential nutrients to insects?
5a7fe2908f0597001ac000ef
True
reef-building corals
385
What organism includes diverse microbiomes, rhizobia, nitrogen-fixing bacteria, and single-celled algae?
5a7fe2908f0597001ac000f0
True
10%–15%
477
What percent of Frankia bacteria provide essential nutrients to insects?
5a7fe2908f0597001ac000f1
True
Frankia
310
What are the bacterial endosymbionts that provide essential nutrients to about 10%–15% of insects called?
5a7fe2908f0597001ac000f2
True
10%–15%
477
What percent of rhizobia and nitrogen-fixing bacteria live in alder tree root nodules?
5a7fe2908f0597001ac000f3
True
Endosymbiosis is any symbiotic relationship in which one symbiont lives within the tissues of the other, either within the cells or extracellularly. Examples include diverse microbiomes, rhizobia, nitrogen-fixing bacteria that live in root nodules on legume roots; actinomycete nitrogen-fixing bacteria called Frankia, which live in alder tree root nodules; single-celled algae inside reef-building corals; and bacterial endosymbionts that provide essential nutrients to about 10%–15% of insects.
What organisms are described as living on the surface of whales?
56de1024cffd8e1900b4b5a6
barnacles
313
False
Name a parasitic ectosymbiont.
56de1024cffd8e1900b4b5a7
lice
271
False
What is another name for ectosymbiosis?
56de1024cffd8e1900b4b5a8
exosymbiosis
35
False
cleaner fish
411
What mutualist ectosymbionts clean the barnacles that attach themselves to the jaw of baleen whales?
5a7fe6ae8f0597001ac000f9
True
lice
271
What ectoparasites are also considered commensal ectosymbionts and mutualist ectosymbionts?
5a7fe6ae8f0597001ac000fa
True
baleen whales
360
What is the name of the animal in which barnacles join to the jaw and inner surface of the digestive tract?
5a7fe6ae8f0597001ac000fb
True
lice
271
What ectoparasites live on the body surface of cleaner fish?
5a7fe6ae8f0597001ac000fc
True
Ectosymbiosis, also referred to as exosymbiosis, is any symbiotic relationship in which the symbiont lives on the body surface of the host, including the inner surface of the digestive tract or the ducts of exocrine glands. Examples of this include ectoparasites such as lice, commensal ectosymbionts such as the barnacles that attach themselves to the jaw of baleen whales, and mutualist ectosymbionts such as cleaner fish.
What is another term for mutualism?
56de1133cffd8e1900b4b5ac
interspecies reciprocal altruism
13
False
Of what duration are symbiotic relationships?
56de1133cffd8e1900b4b5ad
lifelong
154
False
Mutualism
0
What is a term for a relationship between individuals of the same species where both individuals benefit?
5a7fee8c8f0597001ac00101
True
biologists
408
Who restricts the definition of symbiosis to indicate both obligate and facultative concurrently?
5a7fee8c8f0597001ac00102
True
lifelong
154
What time span involving gradual biochemical contact can properly be considered symbiotic?
5a7fee8c8f0597001ac00103
True
facultative
351
What must interspecies reciprocal altruism be considered to fit the the definition of symbiosis?
5a7fee8c8f0597001ac00104
True
obligate
303
What mutualistic relationships fit the the definition of symbiosis?
5a7fee8c8f0597001ac00105
True
Mutualism or interspecies reciprocal altruism is a relationship between individuals of different species where both individuals benefit. In general, only lifelong interactions involving close physical and biochemical contact can properly be considered symbiotic. Mutualistic relationships may be either obligate for both species, obligate for one but facultative for the other, or facultative for both. Many biologists restrict the definition of symbiosis to close mutualist relationships.
What type of relationship do herbivores have with the bacteria in their intestines?
56de22074396321400ee25d1
mutualistic
38
False
What do coral and algae produce together?
56de22074396321400ee25d2
Coral reefs
258
False
How do plants contribute to terrestrial ecosystems?
56de22074396321400ee25d3
fix carbon from the air
455
False
What type of fungus draws liquid and minerals out of the earth?
56de22074396321400ee25d4
mycorrhyzal
484
False
gut flora
50
What do herbivores have to digest animal prey?
5a7ff3698f0597001ac0010b
True
the air
471
Where do the mycorrhyzal fungi go to after extracting water and minerals from the ground?
5a7ff3698f0597001ac0010c
True
the ground
552
Where do the mycorrhyzal fungi go back to after extracting carbon from the air?
5a7ff3698f0597001ac0010d
True
Coral reefs
258
What organism has both cellulose-digesting protozoans and and mycorrhyzal fungi living in their intestines?
5a7ff3698f0597001ac0010e
True
mycorrhyzal
484
What kind of fungi do coral reef depend on?
5a7ff3698f0597001ac0010f
True
A large percentage of herbivores have mutualistic gut flora that help them digest plant matter, which is more difficult to digest than animal prey. This gut flora is made up of cellulose-digesting protozoans or bacteria living in the herbivores' intestines. Coral reefs are the result of mutualisms between coral organisms and various types of algae that live inside them. Most land plants and land ecosystems rely on mutualisms between the plants, which fix carbon from the air, and mycorrhyzal fungi, which help in extracting water and minerals from the ground.
What lives with Ritteri sea anemones?
56de22b84396321400ee25d9
ocellaris clownfish
63
False
What prevents the clownfish from being stung?
56de22b84396321400ee25da
A special mucus
299
False
What type of relationship do the clownfish and anemone have?
56de22b84396321400ee25db
mutual symbiosis
14
False
ocellaris
63
What kind of clownfish eat the Ritteri sea anemones?
5a7ff6878f0597001ac00115
True
Ritteri
117
What kind of sea anemone has special mucus to protect the clownfish?
5a7ff6878f0597001ac00116
True
anemone
249
What organism do the clownfish use their stinging tentacles to protect?
5a7ff6878f0597001ac00117
True
mutual symbiosis
14
What type of relationship do Ritteri sea anemones have with anemone-eating fish?
5a7ff6878f0597001ac00118
True
mucus
309
What do Ritteri sea anemones produce to evade predators?
5a7ff6878f0597001ac00119
True
An example of mutual symbiosis is the relationship between the ocellaris clownfish that dwell among the tentacles of Ritteri sea anemones. The territorial fish protects the anemone from anemone-eating fish, and in turn the stinging tentacles of the anemone protect the clownfish from its predators. A special mucus on the clownfish protects it from the stinging tentacles.
What species does this shrimp have a relationship with?
56de23fe4396321400ee25e5
the goby fish
21
False
What part of the fish is used to signal danger?
56de23fe4396321400ee25e8
its tail
326
False
shrimp
86
What organism digs a burrow in the sand then touches the goby fish with its tail?
5a7ffa9c8f0597001ac0011f
True
Elacatinus
457
What is the species of goby that both lives with a shrimp and cleans up ectoparasites on other fish?
5a7ffa9c8f0597001ac00120
True
mutualistic
487
What behavior does the goby exhibit when it does not live with the shrimp?
5a7ffa9c8f0597001ac00121
True
mutualistic
487
What behavior does the shrimp exhibit when it does not live with the goby?
5a7ffa9c8f0597001ac00122
True
predators
235
When a goby fish goes blind what does it become vulnerable to?
5a7ffa9c8f0597001ac00123
True
A further example is the goby fish, which sometimes lives together with a shrimp. The shrimp digs and cleans up a burrow in the sand in which both the shrimp and the goby fish live. The shrimp is almost blind, leaving it vulnerable to predators when outside its burrow. In case of danger the goby fish touches the shrimp with its tail to warn it. When that happens both the shrimp and goby fish quickly retreat into the burrow. Different species of gobies (Elacatinus spp.) also exhibit mutualistic behavior through cleaning up ectoparasites in other fish.
What type of symbiosis seen between bryozoans and hermit crabs?
56de24804396321400ee25f9
non-obligate
8
False
Pseudopagurus granulimanus
217
What species of crab has a helicospiral-tubular extension of its living chamber?
5a7ffd938f0597001ac00129
True
Pseudopagurus granulimanus
217
What species of crab develops a cirumrotatory growth?
5a7ffd938f0597001ac0012a
True
non-obligate symbiosis
8
What relationship is it considered when the bryozoans and hermit crabs do not live in a close relationship?
5a7ffd938f0597001ac0012b
True
gastropod shell
337
Where is the cirumrotatory growth in the crab located?
5a7ffd938f0597001ac0012c
True
Another non-obligate symbiosis is known from encrusting bryozoans and hermit crabs that live in a close relationship. The bryozoan colony (Acanthodesia commensale) develops a cirumrotatory growth and offers the crab (Pseudopagurus granulimanus) a helicospiral-tubular extension of its living chamber that initially was situated within a gastropod shell.
When were the worms found?
56de25ab4396321400ee2609
the late 1980s
383
False
What does the bacteria give the worm?
56de25ab4396321400ee260a
nutrition
251
False
What land is near the worms' first known location?
56de25ab4396321400ee260b
the Galapagos Islands
429
False
hydrothermal vents
405
From where do the host obtain the hydrogen sulfide or methane?
5a7fffd58f0597001ac00131
True
the late 1980s
383
When were the Galapagos Islands discovered?
5a7fffd58f0597001ac00132
True
obligate mutualism
40
What is the relationship between the siboglinid tube worms and the hydrothermal vents?
5a7fffd58f0597001ac00133
True
the late 1980s
383
When were the symbiotic bacteria discovered?
5a7fffd58f0597001ac00134
True
siboglinid tube worms
74
Where does the symbiotic bacteria get nutrition from?
5a7fffd58f0597001ac00135
True
One of the most spectacular examples of obligate mutualism is between the siboglinid tube worms and symbiotic bacteria that live at hydrothermal vents and cold seeps. The worm has no digestive tract and is wholly reliant on its internal symbionts for nutrition. The bacteria oxidize either hydrogen sulfide or methane, which the host supplies to them. These worms were discovered in the late 1980s at the hydrothermal vents near the Galapagos Islands and have since been found at deep-sea hydrothermal vents and cold seeps in all of the world's oceans.
What is given to the host cell?
56de27b94396321400ee2611
nutrients
62
False
What does the host make that affect its genes?
56de27b94396321400ee2612
specialized cells
206
False
In what manner are the described genetic alternations given to future generations?
56de27b94396321400ee2613
vertical transmission
422
False
the host cell
30
From where does the endosymbiont gain nutrition?
5a8002878f0597001ac0013b
True
the offspring
404
Who offers a location for the host cell to vertically transmit nutrition?
5a8002878f0597001ac0013c
True
nutrients
62
When the offspring passes the genetic changes via vertical transmission what does the host cell obtain?
5a8002878f0597001ac0013d
True
vertical transmission
422
When the the host favors the endosymbiont's growth process what takes place?
5a8002878f0597001ac0013e
True
the offspring
404
Where can the specialized cells be found?
5a8002878f0597001ac0013f
True
During mutualistic symbioses, the host cell lacks some of the nutrients, which are provided by the endosymbiont. As a result, the host favors endosymbiont's growth processes within itself by producing some specialized cells. These cells affect the genetic composition of the host in order to regulate the increasing population of the endosymbionts and ensuring that these genetic changes are passed onto the offspring via vertical transmission (heredity).
What is the main alteration in an endosymbiont when it adapts to a host?
56de2af0cffd8e1900b4b5fc
drastic reduction in its genome size
116
False
What is the term that describes the way the endosymbiont can't go back to its original phenotype?
56de2af0cffd8e1900b4b5fd
Muller's ratchet phenomenon
1182
False
What does the article say could be the reason for the buildup of harmful mutations?
56de2af0cffd8e1900b4b5fe
lack of selection mechanisms
1420
False
DNA repair
229
What takes place when the host's lifestyle reduces the endosymbiont's genome size?
5a8006548f0597001ac00145
True
endosymbiotic bacteria
763
What do the insects need for vertical transmission?
5a8006548f0597001ac00146
True
Muller's ratchet phenomenon
1211
What happens when there is an increase in the effective population sizes for free living bacteria?
5a8006548f0597001ac00147
True
recombination
244
What happens when the DNA/RNA replications are retained?
5a8006548f0597001ac00148
True
Adaptation of the endosymbiont to the host's lifestyle leads to many changes in the endosymbiont–the foremost being drastic reduction in its genome size. This is due to many genes being lost during the process of metabolism, and DNA repair and recombination. While important genes participating in the DNA to RNA transcription, protein translation and DNA/RNA replication are retained. That is, a decrease in genome size is due to loss of protein coding genes and not due to lessening of inter-genic regions or open reading frame (ORF) size. Thus, species that are naturally evolving and contain reduced sizes of genes can be accounted for an increased number of noticeable differences between them, thereby leading to changes in their evolutionary rates. As the endosymbiotic bacteria related with these insects are passed on to the offspring strictly via vertical genetic transmission, intracellular bacteria goes through many hurdles during the process, resulting in the decrease in effective population sizes when compared to the free living bacteria. This incapability of the endosymbiotic bacteria to reinstate its wild type phenotype via a recombination process is called as Muller's ratchet phenomenon. Muller's ratchet phenomenon together with less effective population sizes has led to an accretion of deleterious mutations in the non-essential genes of the intracellular bacteria. This could have been due to lack of selection mechanisms prevailing in the rich environment of the host.
What language do the roots of "commensal" come from?
56de2bedcffd8e1900b4b60c
Latin
254
False
What type of symbiotic relationship helps one organism and doesn't have a major affect on the other?
56de2bedcffd8e1900b4b60d
Commensalism
0
False
Commensalism
0
What type of symbiotic relationship happens when there is a major affect on the other organism?
5a8008cf8f0597001ac0014f
True
sharing a table
303
What takes place when the organisms are neither significantly harmed or helped?
5a8008cf8f0597001ac00150
True
two
46
Commensalism explains a relationship between how many organisms when one gains most of the benefits?
5a8008cf8f0597001ac00151
True
Commensalism
0
What word is derived from the medieval English word?
5a8008cf8f0597001ac00152
True
two living organisms
46
Who is actually sharing a table?
5a8008cf8f0597001ac00153
True
Commensalism describes a relationship between two living organisms where one benefits and the other is not significantly harmed or helped. It is derived from the English word commensal used of human social interaction. The word derives from the medieval Latin word, formed from com- and mensa, meaning "sharing a table".
What is the term for a relationship where one organism provides a dwelling for the other?
56de2cf1cffd8e1900b4b61e
inquilinism
108
False
What type of relationship is it when arachnids attach webs to dead plants?
56de2cf1cffd8e1900b4b61f
metabiosis
208
False
In what type of relationship does an organism travel by means of another?
56de2cf1cffd8e1900b4b620
phoresy
83
False
gastropod shells
267
Where do the spiders build their webs on the hermit crabs?
5a800af88f0597001ac00159
True
inquilinism
108
What is the term for a relationship where one organism refuses to provide a dwelling for the other?
5a800af88f0597001ac0015a
True
metabiosis
208
What occurs when the spider utilizes phoresy with the hermit crab?
5a800af88f0597001ac0015b
True
one organism using something another created
145
What can commensal relationships between plants and hermit crabs be considered?
5a800af88f0597001ac0015c
True
Commensal relationships
0
When one organism gives away something another created what is it called?
5a800af88f0597001ac0015d
True
Commensal relationships may involve one organism using another for transportation (phoresy) or for housing (inquilinism), or it may also involve one organism using something another created, after its death (metabiosis). Examples of metabiosis are hermit crabs using gastropod shells to protect their bodies and spiders building their webs on plants.
Antagonistic or antipathetic symbiosis are alternate names for what?
56de2e63cffd8e1900b4b630
A parasitic relationship
0
False
What is it called when organisms are lethal to their host?
56de2e63cffd8e1900b4b631
necrotrophic
331
False
What is it called when parasites need their host to live?
56de2e63cffd8e1900b4b632
biotrophic
386
False
What proportion of animals go through a parasitic stage?
56de2e63cffd8e1900b4b633
as many as half
540
False
Name a biotrophic organism.
56de2e63cffd8e1900b4b634
a tick
801
False
biotrophic relationship would be a tick feeding on the blood of its host
768
What is the relationship termed if both organisms benefit?
5a800d438f0597001ac00163
True
necrotrophic
331
What relationship happens after a biotrophic relationship occurs from a tick feeding on the blood of its host?
5a800d438f0597001ac00164
True
parasitic relationship
2
When both organisms benefit in an antipathetic symbiosis it is known as a?
5a800d438f0597001ac00165
True
Biotrophic parasitism
443
What is an extremely unsuccessful mode of life?
5a800d438f0597001ac00166
True
as many as half
540
How many fungi have at least one parasitic phase in their life cycles?
5a800d438f0597001ac00167
True
A parasitic relationship is one in which one member of the association benefits while the other is harmed. This is also known as antagonistic or antipathetic symbiosis. Parasitic symbioses take many forms, from endoparasites that live within the host's body to ectoparasites that live on its surface. In addition, parasites may be necrotrophic, which is to say they kill their host, or biotrophic, meaning they rely on their host's surviving. Biotrophic parasitism is an extremely successful mode of life. Depending on the definition used, as many as half of all animals have at least one parasitic phase in their life cycles, and it is also frequent in plants and fungi. Moreover, almost all free-living animals are host to one or more parasite taxa. An example of a biotrophic relationship would be a tick feeding on the blood of its host.
What is the name for the kind of symbiosis in which one organism is seriously harmed and there is no affect on the other?
56de418fcffd8e1900b4b71e
Amensalism
0
False
What kinds of amensalism are there?
56de418fcffd8e1900b4b71f
competition and antibiosis
302
False
When a large tree takes the resources a young tree needs, what type of amensalism is it?
56de418fcffd8e1900b4b720
competition
302
False
What does the black walnut give out that kills plants?
56de418fcffd8e1900b4b721
juglone
1155
False
Competition
330
What happens when a larger or stronger organism shares a resource with a smaller or weaker organism?
5a800ffd8f0597001ac0016d
True
Amensalism
0
What happens when the sapling can take up rainwater and deplete some soil nutrients?
5a800ffd8f0597001ac0016e
True
Antibiosis
432
What happens when one organism is helped by another through a chemical secretion?
5a800ffd8f0597001ac0016f
True
black walnut
1130
What secrets juglone, a substance which enhances many herbaceous plants within its root zone?
5a800ffd8f0597001ac00170
True
amensalism, competition
290
What are two types of antibiosis?
5a800ffd8f0597001ac00171
True
Amensalism is the type of relationship that exists where one species is inhibited or completely obliterated and one is unaffected. This type of symbiosis is relatively uncommon in rudimentary reference texts, but is omnipresent in the natural world.[citation needed] There are two types of amensalism, competition and antibiosis. Competition is where a larger or stronger organisms deprives a smaller or weaker one from a resource. Antibiosis occurs when one organism is damaged or killed by another through a chemical secretion. An example of competition is a sapling growing under the shadow of a mature tree. The mature tree can begin to rob the sapling of necessary sunlight and, if the mature tree is very large, it can take up rainwater and deplete soil nutrients. Throughout the process the mature tree is unaffected. Indeed, if the sapling dies, the mature tree gains nutrients from the decaying sapling. Note that these nutrients become available because of the sapling's decomposition, rather than from the living sapling, which would be a case of parasitism.[citation needed] An example of antibiosis is Juglans nigra (black walnut), secreting juglone, a substance which destroys many herbaceous plants within its root zone.
What organisms is the ibex in an amensalistic relationship with?
56de42a94396321400ee2730
weevils
472
False
What does the Spanish ibex eat?
56de42a94396321400ee2731
shrub
535
False
What type of relationship is it when large animals crush small plants?
56de42a94396321400ee2732
Amensalism
0
False
Amensalism
0
What happens if a weevil eats from an ibex?
5a8012f38f0597001ac00177
True
Amensalism
0
What happens when the grass causes damage to an animal's hoof?
5a8012f38f0597001ac00178
True
Spanish
455
What ethnicity are the ibex and the weevils?
5a8012f38f0597001ac00179
True
food availability
603
What is altered if the presence of ibex has little detrimental effect on the number of weevil?
5a8012f38f0597001ac0017a
True
Timarcha
493
What genus are the Spanish ibex?
5a8012f38f0597001ac0017b
True
Amensalism is an interaction where an organism inflicts harm to another organism without any costs or benefits received by the other. A clear case of amensalism is where sheep or cattle trample grass. Whilst the presence of the grass causes negligible detrimental effects to the animal's hoof, the grass suffers from being crushed. Amensalism is often used to describe strongly asymmetrical competitive interactions, such as has been observed between the Spanish ibex and weevils of the genus Timarcha which feed upon the same type of shrub. Whilst the presence of the weevil has almost no influence on food availability, the presence of ibex has an enormous detrimental effect on weevil numbers, as they consume significant quantities of plant matter and incidentally ingest the weevils upon it.
What type of relationship harms both organisms?
56de43f9cffd8e1900b4b74b
Synnecrosis
0
False
What is the ultimate result of synnecrosis?
56de43f9cffd8e1900b4b74c
death
192
False
How common is synnecrosis in the natural world?
56de43f9cffd8e1900b4b74d
uncommon
264
False
Why do bees sting even though it will kill them?
56de43f9cffd8e1900b4b74e
to protect the hive
467
False
Synnecrosis
0
What happens if a bee does not protect the hive?
5a8015308f0597001ac00181
True
Synnecrosis
0
What is a common type of symbiosis in which the interaction between species is detrimental to both organisms involved?
5a8015308f0597001ac00182
True
death
192
What does the long enduring condition and the interaction eventually cause?
5a8015308f0597001ac00183
True
death
192
What always happens to the victims of the bee sting?
5a8015308f0597001ac00184
True
Synnecrosis
0
What happens if the bee does not die?
5a8015308f0597001ac00185
True
Synnecrosis is a rare type of symbiosis in which the interaction between species is detrimental to both organisms involved. It is a short-lived condition, as the interaction eventually causes death. Because of this, evolution selects against synnecrosis and it is uncommon in nature. An example of this is the relationship between some species of bees and victims of the bee sting. Species of bees who die after stinging their prey inflict pain on themselves (albeit to protect the hive) as well as on the victim. This term is rarely used.
What far-reaching result do scientists think has come about from symbiosis with bacteria?
56de4520cffd8e1900b4b759
the evolution of all eukaryotes
277
False
What are eukaryotes?
56de4520cffd8e1900b4b75a
plants, animals, fungi, and protists
310
False
nucleic acid
607
What do all organelles have that is their own?
5a80173a8f0597001ac0018b
True
symbiosis
20
What has received more attention than other interactions such as predation or competition?
5a80173a8f0597001ac0018c
True
plants, animals, fungi, and protists
310
What eukaryotes create various sorts of bacteria?
5a80173a8f0597001ac0018d
True
organelles
496
What always depends on the cell for the process of division?
5a80173a8f0597001ac0018e
True
While historically, symbiosis has received less attention than other interactions such as predation or competition, it is increasingly recognized as an important selective force behind evolution, with many species having a long history of interdependent co-evolution. In fact, the evolution of all eukaryotes (plants, animals, fungi, and protists) is believed under the endosymbiotic theory to have resulted from a symbiosis between various sorts of bacteria. This theory is supported by certain organelles dividing independently of the cell, and the observation that some organelles seem to have their own nucleic acid.
What does Margulis think is the main driver of evolution?
56de4796cffd8e1900b4b777
symbiosis
56
False
Who agrees with Margulis' cooperative view of evolution?
56de4796cffd8e1900b4b779
Dorion Sagan
357
False
endosymbiosis
52
What is the biologist Darwin famous for?
5a80193e8f0597001ac00193
True
evolution
234
What is strongly based only upon uncooperative interaction and independence?
5a80193e8f0597001ac00194
True
Lynn Margulis
14
Who was the last to utter this quote "Life did not take over the globe by combat, but by networking."?
5a80193e8f0597001ac00195
True
symbiosis
81
What is not considered a driving force behind evolution?
5a80193e8f0597001ac00196
True
Darwin
148
Who currently disagrees with Margulis' cooperative view of evolution?
5a80193e8f0597001ac00197
True
The biologist Lynn Margulis, famous for her work on endosymbiosis, contends that symbiosis is a major driving force behind evolution. She considers Darwin's notion of evolution, driven by competition, to be incomplete and claims that evolution is strongly based on co-operation, interaction, and mutual dependence among organisms. According to Margulis and Dorion Sagan, "Life did not take over the globe by combat, but by networking."
How big a part did symbiosis have in the development of flowering plants and their pollinators?
56de49434396321400ee2774
a major role
17
False
What did some plants produce when flowers became less simple?
56de49434396321400ee2775
nectar and large sticky pollen
559
False
What is the word for the kind of relationship in which a plant depend on a single type of insect?
56de49434396321400ee2776
dependent
753
False
Adaptive speciation
372
What gave rise to a select group of plants?
5a801c2e8f0597001ac0019d
True
The first
293
What flowering plants in the fossil record had relatively complex flowers?
5a801c2e8f0597001ac0019e
True
specialized morphologies
618
What did bats develop to access and collect these rich food sources?
5a801c2e8f0597001ac0019f
True
specialized morphologies
618
What did birds develop to access and collect these rich food sources?
5a801c2e8f0597001ac001a0
True
insects, bats, or birds
142
What animals need to be modified in order to be correspondingly adapted?
5a801c2e8f0597001ac001a1
True
Symbiosis played a major role in the co-evolution of flowering plants and the animals that pollinate them. Many plants that are pollinated by insects, bats, or birds have highly specialized flowers modified to promote pollination by a specific pollinator that is also correspondingly adapted. The first flowering plants in the fossil record had relatively simple flowers. Adaptive speciation quickly gave rise to many diverse groups of plants, and, at the same time, corresponding speciation occurred in certain insect groups. Some groups of plants developed nectar and large sticky pollen, while insects evolved more specialized morphologies to access and collect these rich food sources. In some taxa of plants and insects the relationship has become dependent, where the plant species can only be pollinated by one species of insect.
Canadian_Armed_Forces
What is the French name of the Canadian Armed Forces?
56dde02666d3e219004dad6b
Forces armées canadiennes
40
False
What law constitutes the CAF?
56dde02666d3e219004dad6c
the National Defence Act
191
False
Who are the CAF supposed to protect?
56dde02666d3e219004dad6d
Her Majesty
276
False
What does CF stand for in this context?
56dde02666d3e219004dad6e
Forces canadiennes
110
False
Canadian Armed Forces
4
What does CFA stand for?
5ad3714d604f3c001a3fe285
True
"The Canadian Forces are the armed forces of Her Majesty raised by Canada and consist of one Service called the Canadian Armed Forces.
231
What does the Canadian Armed Forces Act state?
5ad3714d604f3c001a3fe286
True
National Defence Act
195
What act names the leader of the les cnadiennes Forces as Her Majesty?
5ad3714d604f3c001a3fe287
True
Forces armées canadiennes
40
What is the Italian name of the Canadian Armed Forces?
5ad3e002604f3c001a3ff4ab
True
National Defence Act
195
What law constitutes the CEF?
5ad3e002604f3c001a3ff4ac
True
Her Majesty
276
Who aren't the CAF supposed to protect?
5ad3e002604f3c001a3ff4ad
True
Forces canadiennes
110
What does COF stand for in this context?
5ad3e002604f3c001a3ff4ae
True
The Canadian Armed Forces (CAF; French: Forces armées canadiennes, FAC), or Canadian Forces (CF) (French: les Forces canadiennes, FC), is the unified armed force of Canada, as constituted by the National Defence Act, which states: "The Canadian Forces are the armed forces of Her Majesty raised by Canada and consist of one Service called the Canadian Armed Forces."
How many sub components are there?
56dde0ea66d3e219004dad7e
four
244
False
What act defines the CAF?
56dde0ea66d3e219004dad7f
the National Defence Act
398
False
Royal Canadian Navy
84
What does RNC stand for?
5ad37275604f3c001a3fe2b3
True
Royal Canadian Air Force
130
What does RACF stand for?
5ad37275604f3c001a3fe2b4
True
Primary Reserve, Supplementary Reserve, Cadet Organizations Administration and Training Service, and the Canadian Rangers.
269
What four components make up the Force Reserve?
5ad37275604f3c001a3fe2b5
True
Department of National Defence
495
What is the Canadian Armed Forces associated with under the National Defence Act?
5ad37275604f3c001a3fe2b6
True
four
244
How many non-sub components are there?
5ad3e04d604f3c001a3ff4b3
True
National Defence Act
402
What act does not define the CAF?
5ad3e04d604f3c001a3ff4b4
True
This unified institution consists of sea, land, and air elements referred to as the Royal Canadian Navy (RCN), Canadian Army, and Royal Canadian Air Force (RCAF). Personnel may belong to either the Regular Force or the Reserve Force, which has four sub-components: the Primary Reserve, Supplementary Reserve, Cadet Organizations Administration and Training Service, and the Canadian Rangers. Under the National Defence Act, the Canadian Armed Forces are an entity separate and distinct from the Department of National Defence (the federal government department responsible for administration and formation of defence policy), which also exists as the civilian support system for the Forces.
Who currently is the Commander-in-Chief of the Canadian Armed Forces?
56dde17c9a695914005b9640
Queen Elizabeth II
86
False
Who represents Queen Elizabeth II?
56dde17c9a695914005b9641
the Governor General of Canada
128
False
Who leads the CAF?
56dde17c9a695914005b9642
the Chief of the Defence Staff
196
False
Who advises the Chief of the Defence?
56dde17c9a695914005b9643
the Armed Forces Council.
259
False
Queen Elizabeth II
86
Who is the Chief Commander of the Canadian Armed Forces?
5ad37514604f3c001a3fe2e1
True
Queen Elizabeth II
86
Who is represented by the Governor General of Canada?
5ad37514604f3c001a3fe2e2
True
The Canadian Armed Forces
160
What is led by the Defence Staff Chief?
5ad37514604f3c001a3fe2e3
True
Armed Forces Council
263
Who is the Defence Staff Chief advised by?
5ad37514604f3c001a3fe2e4
True
Queen Elizabeth II
86
Who currently is the Assistant-in-Chief of the Canadian Armed Forces?
5ad3e076604f3c001a3ff4b7
True
Governor General of Canada.
132
Who doesn't represent Queen Elizabeth II?
5ad3e076604f3c001a3ff4b8
True
Chief of the Defence Staff
200
Who leads the CAEF?
5ad3e076604f3c001a3ff4b9
True
Armed Forces Council
263
Who advises the Chief of the Offense?
5ad3e076604f3c001a3ff4ba
True
The Commander-in-Chief of the Canadian Armed Forces is the reigning Canadian monarch, Queen Elizabeth II, who is represented by the Governor General of Canada. The Canadian Armed Forces is led by the Chief of the Defence Staff, who is advised and assisted by the Armed Forces Council.
What war were the CAF involved in?
56dde22166d3e219004dad91
Cold War
11
False
What was the goal of the CAF during the cold war?
56dde22166d3e219004dad92
the security of Europe
86
False
What military thread did the CAF protect against in Europe?
56dde22166d3e219004dad93
the Soviet military threat
124
False
Apprimately since what year was the CAF stationed in Europe?
56dde22166d3e219004dad94
the early 1950s
226
False
What year did the CAF leave Europe?
56dde22166d3e219004dad95
the early 1990s
248
False
Canadian ground and air forces
169
What were based in Europe in 1950?
5ad375b1604f3c001a3fe30b
True
Europe
214
Where were Canadian ground and air forces based in 1950?
5ad375b1604f3c001a3fe30c
True
from the early 1950s until the early 1990s.
221
What years did the Cold War take place?
5ad375b1604f3c001a3fe30d
True
Cold War
11
What war were the CAAF involved in?
5ad3e0ba604f3c001a3ff4dd
True
security of Europe
90
What was the goal of the CAF during the warm war?
5ad3e0ba604f3c001a3ff4de
True
Soviet military threat
128
What military thread did the CAF not protect against in Europe?
5ad3e0ba604f3c001a3ff4df
True
Soviet military threat
128
Approximately since what year was the CAF not stationed in Europe?
5ad3e0ba604f3c001a3ff4e0
True
early 1990s
252
What year did the CAF join Europe?
5ad3e0ba604f3c001a3ff4e1
True
During the Cold War, a principal focus of Canadian defence policy was contributing to the security of Europe in the face of the Soviet military threat. Toward that end, Canadian ground and air forces were based in Europe from the early 1950s until the early 1990s.
What Treaty is the CAF part of?
56dde2f49a695914005b9656
the North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO)
43
False
What type of operation is the Canadian Military involved in?
56dde2f49a695914005b9657
international security operations
201
False
What country has the Canadian Military worked in the last years?
56dde2f49a695914005b9658
Afghanistan
289
False
What year did the Canadian Military operation in Afghanistan start?
56dde2f49a695914005b9659
2002
307
False
Where is the current focus of the Canadian Military set?
56dde2f49a695914005b965a
out of area
126
False
North Atlantic Treaty Organization
47
What does NTAO stand for?
5ad37630604f3c001a3fe339
True
2002
307
What year did the Cold War end?
5ad37630604f3c001a3fe33a
True
Afghanistan
289
What country began war in 2002?
5ad37630604f3c001a3fe33b
True
North Atlantic Treaty Organization
47
What Treaty is the CAF not part of?
5ad3e0ee604f3c001a3ff4e7
True
international security operations
201
What type of operation is the Canadian Military uninvolved in?
5ad3e0ee604f3c001a3ff4e8
True
Afghanistan
289
What country has the Canadian Military not worked in the last years?
5ad3e0ee604f3c001a3ff4e9
True
2002
307
What year did the Canadian Military operation in Afghanistan end?
5ad3e0ee604f3c001a3ff4ea
True
out of area
126
Where is the current focus of the Canadian Military not set?
5ad3e0ee604f3c001a3ff4eb
True
However, since the end of the Cold War, as the North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO) has moved much of its defence focus "out of area", the Canadian military has also become more deeply engaged in international security operations in various other parts of the world – most notably in Afghanistan since 2002.
What is Canada's defense policy based on?
56dde39c66d3e219004dad9f
Canada First Defence Strategy
46
False
When was the Canada First Defence Strategy introduced?
56dde39c66d3e219004dada0
2008
91
False
How many missions are carried out internally in Canada?
56dde39c66d3e219004dada1
six core missions
187
False
What other location does the Canada First Defence Strategy Cover?
56dde39c66d3e219004dada2
North America
223
False
2008
91
When was the First Canada Defence Strategy introduced?
5ad376e1604f3c001a3fe363
True
Canadian defence policy
0
What is based on the First Canada Defence Strategy?
5ad376e1604f3c001a3fe364
True
six
187
How many global missions are Canadians equipped to carry out?
5ad376e1604f3c001a3fe365
True
Canadian defence policy today is based on the Canada First Defence Strategy, introduced in 2008. Based on that strategy, the Canadian military is oriented and being equipped to carry out six core missions within Canada, in North America and globally. Specifically, the Canadian Armed Forces are tasked with having the capacity to:
What other priority do the Canadian Armed Forces also contribute too?
56dde48b9a695914005b966c
conduct of Canadian defence diplomacy
109
False
What is an example of another activity that the CAF performs?
56dde48b9a695914005b966d
deployment of Canadian Defence Attachés
192
False
What other air force does the CAF cooperate with?
56dde48b9a695914005b966e
the American Air Forces
331
False
What is one of the activities the CAF works on with other countries?
56dde48b9a695914005b966f
military training
383
False
What diplomatic effort does the CAF perform as part of it's duties?
56dde48b9a695914005b9670
relationship-building efforts
446
False
the conduct of Canadian defence diplomacy
105
What do the Armed Canadian Forces contribute to?
5ad37810604f3c001a3fe38d
True
including the deployment of Canadian Defence Attachés, participation in bilateral and multilateral military forums
178
How does the Armed Canadian Forces contribute to the conduct of Canadian defence diplomacy?
5ad37810604f3c001a3fe38e
True
bilateral and multilateral military forums
250
What is the Cooperation System Among the American Air Forces an example of?
5ad37810604f3c001a3fe38f
True
conduct of Canadian defence diplomacy
109
What other priority do the Canadian Armed Forces never contribute too?
5ad3e3ca604f3c001a3ff55d
True
deployment of Canadian Defence Attachés
192
What is not an example of another activity that the CAF performs?
5ad3e3ca604f3c001a3ff55e
True
American Air Forces
335
What other air force does the CAF not cooperate with?
5ad3e3ca604f3c001a3ff55f
True
military training
383
What is one of the activities the CFF works on with other countries?
5ad3e3ca604f3c001a3ff560
True
relationship-building efforts
446
What diplomatic effort does the CAF doesn't perform as part of it's duties?
5ad3e3ca604f3c001a3ff561
True
Consistent with the missions and priorities outlined above, the Canadian Armed Forces also contribute to the conduct of Canadian defence diplomacy through a range of activities, including the deployment of Canadian Defence Attachés, participation in bilateral and multilateral military forums (e.g. the System of Cooperation Among the American Air Forces), ship and aircraft visits, military training and cooperation, and other such outreach and relationship-building efforts.
What year was Canada united in a confederation?
56dde56e9a695914005b967c
1867
26
False
The forces of what countries did people serve before the unification?
56dde56e9a695914005b967d
French and British forces
109
False
What is one of the threats that faced them?
56dde56e9a695914005b967e
European powers
253
False
What American war threatened Canada?
56dde56e9a695914005b967f
the American Revolutionary War
323
False
Early on, what did they defend against with the British?
56dde56e9a695914005b9680
invasion by the United States
634
False
1867
26
When was the Confederation established?
5ad37907604f3c001a3fe3a7
True
1812
365
What year did the American Revolutionary War take place?
5ad37907604f3c001a3fe3a8
True
British forces
120
Who aided in defence during the Fenian Rebellion?
5ad37907604f3c001a3fe3a9
True
British forces
120
Who aided in defence during the Red River Raids?
5ad37907604f3c001a3fe3aa
True
early 19th century
525
When were Canadian army units formed?
5ad37907604f3c001a3fe3ab
True
1867
26
What year wasn't Canada united in a confederation?
5ad3e456604f3c001a3ff571
True
French and British forces
109
The forces of what countries didn't people serve before the unification?
5ad3e456604f3c001a3ff572
True
European powers
253
What is one of the threats that didn't faced them?
5ad3e456604f3c001a3ff573
True
American Revolutionary War
327
What Asian war threatened Canada?
5ad3e456604f3c001a3ff574
True
invasion by the United States
634
Early on, what didn't they defend against with the British?
5ad3e456604f3c001a3ff575
True
Prior to Confederation in 1867, residents of the colonies in what is now Canada served as regular members of French and British forces and in local militia groups. The latter aided in the defence of their respective territories against attacks by other European powers, Aboriginal peoples, and later American forces during the American Revolutionary War and War of 1812, as well as in the Fenian raids, Red River Rebellion, and North-West Rebellion. Consequently, the lineages of some Canadian army units stretch back to the early 19th century, when militia units were formed to assist in the defence of British North America against invasion by the United States.
Who initially had military command?
56dde6229a695914005b9686
the British Crown-in-Council
54
False
Where was the commander-in-chief stationed?
56dde6229a695914005b9687
Halifax
141
False
When did the British Army and Royal Navy withdraw from Halifax?
56dde6229a695914005b9688
1906
231
False
The Canadian Armed Forces were initially organized under what department?
56dde6229a695914005b9689
the Department of Militia and Defence
392
False
When did the unification complete of all the Canadian forces to be called the Canadian Army?
56dde6229a695914005b968a
November 1940
688
False
The responsibility for military command
0
What responsibility remained with a commander-in-chief for North America?
5ad38041604f3c001a3fe465
True
Halifax
141
Where was the British Crown-in-Council stationed?
5ad38041604f3c001a3fe466
True
1906
231
What year was the Royal Canadian Navy formed?
5ad38041604f3c001a3fe467
True
November 1940
688
When were land forces referred to as the Army of Canada?
5ad38041604f3c001a3fe468
True
British Crown-in-Council
58
Who initially didn't have military command?
5ad3e48f604f3c001a3ff585
True
Halifax
141
Where was the secretary-in-chief stationed?
5ad3e48f604f3c001a3ff586
True
1906
231
When did the French Army and Royal Navy withdraw from Halifax?
5ad3e48f604f3c001a3ff587
True
Department of Militia and Defence
396
The Canadian Armed Forces were initially disorganized under what department?
5ad3e48f604f3c001a3ff588
True
November 1940
688
When did the unification complete of all the Canadian forces to be called the French Army?
5ad3e48f604f3c001a3ff589
True
The responsibility for military command remained with the British Crown-in-Council, with a commander-in-chief for North America stationed at Halifax until the final withdrawal of British Army and Royal Navy units from that city in 1906. Thereafter, the Royal Canadian Navy was formed, and, with the advent of military aviation, the Royal Canadian Air Force. These forces were organised under the Department of Militia and Defence, and split into the Permanent and Non-Permanent Active Militias—frequently shortened to simply The Militia. By 1923, the department was merged into the Department of National Defence, but land forces in Canada were not referred to as the Canadian Army until November 1940.
When was the first overseas deployment of the Canadian Military?
56dde7259a695914005b9696
Second Boer War
78
False
Under what command did they serve?
56dde7259a695914005b9697
British command
141
False
When were Canadian Troops called upon to assist in Europe?
56dde7259a695914005b9698
the First World War
231
False
What other European war were the Canadian Forces involved in?
56dde7259a695914005b9699
Second World War
388
False
What Asian war were the Canadian Forces involved in?
56dde7259a695914005b969a
Korean War
421
False
Canadian military forces
33
What force was first deployed overseas during the Second World War?
5ad38155604f3c001a3fe47f
True
Germany
220
Who entered into conflict with the United Kingdom during the First World War?
5ad38155604f3c001a3fe480
True
the Second World War, as well as the Korean War.
384
What wars did the Canadian Council-in-Crown send its forces into?
5ad38155604f3c001a3fe481
True
Second Boer War
78
When was the first overseas deployment of the French Military?
5ad3e571604f3c001a3ff597
True
British command
141
Under what command did they not serve?
5ad3e571604f3c001a3ff598
True
First World War
235
When were Canadian Troops called upon to assist in Asia?
5ad3e571604f3c001a3ff599
True
Second World War,
388
What other European war were the Canadian Forces not involved in?
5ad3e571604f3c001a3ff59a
True
Korean War
421
What Asian war were the Canadian Forces never involved in?
5ad3e571604f3c001a3ff59b
True
The first overseas deployment of Canadian military forces occurred during the Second Boer War, when several units were raised to serve under British command. Similarly, when the United Kingdom entered into conflict with Germany in the First World War, Canadian troops were called to participate in European theatres. The Canadian Crown-in-Council then decided to send its forces into the Second World War, as well as the Korean War.
How many operations has the Canadian Military been part of since 1947?
56dde8249a695914005b96a0
more than 200 operations
57
False
How many operations have been completed by the Canadian Military Internationally?
56dde8249a695914005b96a1
72
107
False
What are some of the wars the Canadian Military was involved in?
56dde8249a695914005b96a2
Cold War, First Gulf War, Kosovo War
336
False
What peace keeping effort is the Canadian Military part of?
56dde8249a695914005b96a3
United Nations Peacekeeping operations
381
False
What type of military vehicle was maintained almost 15 years but never saw any action during the Cuban crisis?
56dde8249a695914005b96a4
an aircraft carrier
528
False
Canadian military units
12
What military units have completed more than 200 operations worldwide?
5ad3834d604f3c001a3fe4df
True
72
107
How many international operations have Canadian military units participated in since 1947?
5ad3834d604f3c001a3fe4e0
True
participated in more than 200 operations worldwide, and completed 72 international operations
41
What have Canadian military units done since 1974?
5ad3834d604f3c001a3fe4e1
True
from 1957 to 1970
548
When did the Cold War take place?
5ad3834d604f3c001a3fe4e2
True
more than 200 operations worldwide
57
How many operations has the Canadian Military been part of since 1987?
5ad3e5f1604f3c001a3ff5b5
True
72
107
How many operations have been completed by the Canadian Military Nationally?
5ad3e5f1604f3c001a3ff5b6
True
Cold War, First Gulf War, Kosovo War
336
What are some of the wars the French Military was involved in?
5ad3e5f1604f3c001a3ff5b7
True
United Nations Peacekeeping operations
381
What non-peace keeping effort is the Canadian Military part of?
5ad3e5f1604f3c001a3ff5b8
True
an aircraft carrier
528
What type of military vehicle was maintained almost 40 years but never saw any action during the Cuban crisis?
5ad3e5f1604f3c001a3ff5b9
True
Since 1947, Canadian military units have participated in more than 200 operations worldwide, and completed 72 international operations. Canadian soldiers, sailors, and aviators came to be considered world-class professionals through conspicuous service during these conflicts and the country's integral participation in NATO during the Cold War, First Gulf War, Kosovo War, and in United Nations Peacekeeping operations, such as the Suez Crisis, Golan Heights, Cyprus, Croatia, Bosnia, Afghanistan, and Libya. Canada maintained an aircraft carrier from 1957 to 1970 during the Cold War, which never saw combat but participated in patrols during the Cuban Missile Crisis.
What famous World War II battle was the Canadian Military part of?
56dde8e466d3e219004dade0
the Normandy Landings
166
False
What effort was the Canadian Military known for in Germany?
56dde8e466d3e219004dade1
the strategic bombing of German cities
288
False
What Battle in France was the Canadian Military known for?
56dde8e466d3e219004dade2
the Battle of Vimy Ridge
72
False
What country was the latest Canadian Military effort?
56dde8e466d3e219004dade3
Croatia
377
False
the Canadian military
42
Who are the Battle of Normandy Landings and the Vimy Ridge Raid notable to?
5ad38619604f3c001a3fe553
True
the Canadian military
42
Who are the Battle of Dieppe and the Battle of Medak Pocket notable to?
5ad38619604f3c001a3fe554
True
Normandy Landings
170
What famous World War II battle was the French Military part of?
5ad3e62f604f3c001a3ff5bf
True
strategic bombing of German cities
292
What effort was the Canadian Military known for in France?
5ad3e62f604f3c001a3ff5c0
True
Battle of Vimy Ridge
76
What Battle in France was the Canadian Military not known for?
5ad3e62f604f3c001a3ff5c1
True
Croatia
377
What country was the latest French Military effort?
5ad3e62f604f3c001a3ff5c2
True
Battles which are particularly notable to the Canadian military include the Battle of Vimy Ridge, the Dieppe Raid, the Battle of Ortona, the Battle of Passchendaele, the Normandy Landings, the Battle for Caen, the Battle of the Scheldt, the Battle of Britain, the Battle of the Atlantic, the strategic bombing of German cities, and more recently the Battle of Medak Pocket, in Croatia.
Canada had which biggest army during the Second World War?
56dde9c366d3e219004dadf2
the largest volunteer army ever
145
False
What country fell providing with more information on Canada's army size?
56dde9c366d3e219004dadf4
the Soviet Union
422
False
Which other country had a sizable naval army?
56dde9c366d3e219004dadf5
Japanese
458
False
At the end of the Second World War
0
When did Canada possess the fifth-largest air force?
5ad38945604f3c001a3fe583
True
At the end of the Second World War
0
When did Canada possess the fourth-largest naval surface fleet?
5ad38945604f3c001a3fe584
True
Conscription for overseas service
186
What was introduced at then end of the war?
5ad38945604f3c001a3fe585
True
2,400
274
How many conscripts made it into the naval surface fleet?
5ad38945604f3c001a3fe586
True
largest volunteer army ever fielded
149
Canada had which biggest army during the Third World War?
5ad3e64f604f3c001a3ff5c7
True
Soviet Union
426
What country fell providing with less information on Canada's army size?
5ad3e64f604f3c001a3ff5c8
True
Japanese
458
Which other country had a small naval army?
5ad3e64f604f3c001a3ff5c9
True
At the end of the Second World War, Canada possessed the fourth-largest air force and fifth-largest naval surface fleet in the world, as well as the largest volunteer army ever fielded. Conscription for overseas service was introduced only near the end of the war, and only 2,400 conscripts actually made it into battle. Originally, Canada was thought to have had the third-largest navy in the world, but with the fall of the Soviet Union, new data based on Japanese and Soviet sources found that to be incorrect.
When did the Canadian Armed Forced become to be?
56ddea5166d3e219004dadfb
1 February 1968
62
False
What does the Canadian Armed Forces mostly consist of?
56ddea5166d3e219004dadfc
the Royal Canadian Navy, Canadian Army, and Royal Canadian Air Force
84
False
What prevented Canada from fully having their own army at the start?
56ddea5166d3e219004dadfd
the British government
616
False
When did Canada gain independence from the United Kingdom?
56ddea5166d3e219004dadfe
1931
711
False
What war aided Canadian legislative independence?
56ddea5166d3e219004dadff
the First World War
801
False
1 February 1968
62
When did the French Armed Forced become to be?
5ad3e69e604f3c001a3ff5d7
True
Royal Canadian Navy, Canadian Army, and Royal Canadian Air Force
88
What does the Canadian Armed Forces not consist of?
5ad3e69e604f3c001a3ff5d8
True
British government
620
What allowed Canada to fully having their own army at the start?
5ad3e69e604f3c001a3ff5d9
True
1931
711
When did Canada lose independence from the United Kingdom?
5ad3e69e604f3c001a3ff5da
True
The current iteration of the Canadian Armed Forces dates from 1 February 1968, when the Royal Canadian Navy, Canadian Army, and Royal Canadian Air Force were merged into a unified structure and superseded by elemental commands. Its roots, however, lie in colonial militia groups that served alongside garrisons of the French and British armies and navies; a structure that remained in place until the early 20th century. Thereafter, a distinctly Canadian army and navy was established, followed by an air force, that, because of the constitutional arrangements at the time, remained effectively under the control of the British government until Canada gained legislative independence from the United Kingdom in 1931, in part due to the distinguished achievement and sacrifice of the Canadian Corps in the First World War.
What is the old name of the Canadian Forces?
56ddead69a695914005b96ae
Canadian Armed Forces
33
False
When did the Canadian Armed Forces name cease to be?
56ddead69a695914005b96af
After the 1980s
0
False
When was the Canadian Armed Forces name reintroduced?
56ddead69a695914005b96b0
2013
154
False
What was the new name of the Canadian Armed Forces?
56ddead69a695914005b96b1
Canadian Forces
74
False
Canadian Armed Forces
33
What is the new name of the Canadian Forces?
5ad3e6c3604f3c001a3ff5df
True
1980s
10
When did the French Armed Forces end?
5ad3e6c3604f3c001a3ff5e0
True
2013
154
When was the French Armed Forces name reintroduced?
5ad3e6c3604f3c001a3ff5e1
True
Canadian Forces
74
What was the new name of the French Armed Forces?
5ad3e6c3604f3c001a3ff5e2
True
After the 1980s, the use of the "Canadian Armed Forces" name gave way to "Canadian Forces";[citation needed] The "Canadian Armed Forces" name returned in 2013.
What forces were sent out in support of peacekeeping?
56de2b36cffd8e1900b4b602
Land Forces
0
False
Until when were Canadian forces in Afghanistan?
56de2b36cffd8e1900b4b603
2011
231
False
What force were the Canadians part of in Afghanistan?
56de2b36cffd8e1900b4b604
ISAF
312
False
Who requested the aid of the Canadians?
56de2b36cffd8e1900b4b605
the Government of Afghanistan
337
False
What type of operations were mainly done by Canadian forces?
56de2b36cffd8e1900b4b606
peacekeeping
59
False
Land Forces
0
What forces were sent out out of rejection of peacekeeping?
5ad3e6f3604f3c001a3ff5e7
True
2011
231
Until when were Canadian forces in Iraq?
5ad3e6f3604f3c001a3ff5e8
True
ISAF
312
What force were the Canadians part of in Iraq?
5ad3e6f3604f3c001a3ff5e9
True
peacekeeping
59
Who requested the aid of the French?
5ad3e6f3604f3c001a3ff5ea
True
Land Forces during this period also deployed in support of peacekeeping operations within United Nations sanctioned conflicts. The nature of the Canadian Forces has continued to evolve. They have been deployed in Afghanistan until 2011, under the NATO-led United Nations International Security Assistance Force (ISAF), at the request of the Government of Afghanistan.
What is Today's annual cost of the Canadian Forces?
56dedf113277331400b4d791
approximately $20.1 billion
37
False
How are the Canadian forces ranked in size compared to other military?
56dedf113277331400b4d792
74th in size
99
False
What is the total force of the Canadian Forces?
56dedf113277331400b4d793
approximately 119,000
367
False
By what date is the primary reserve personnel estimated to go up by 30,000?
56dedf113277331400b4d794
2020
464
False
What is the total amount of Canadian Forces estimated to be in 2020?
56dedf113277331400b4d795
around 124,000
637
False
$20.1 billion
51
What is yesterday's annual cost of the Canadian Forces?
5ad3e725604f3c001a3ff5ef
True
74th in size
99
How are the French forces ranked in size compared to other military?
5ad3e725604f3c001a3ff5f0
True
119,000
381
What is the total force of the French Forces?
5ad3e725604f3c001a3ff5f1
True
2020
464
By what date is the secondary reserve personnel estimated to go up by 30,000?
5ad3e725604f3c001a3ff5f2
True
The Armed Forces are today funded by approximately $20.1 billion annually and are presently ranked 74th in size compared to the world's other armed forces by number of total personnel, and 58th in terms of active personnel, standing at a strength of roughly 68,000, plus 27,000 reservists, 5000 Rangers, and 19,000 supplementary reserves, bringing the total force to approximately 119,000. The number of primary reserve personnel is expected to go up to 30,000 by 2020, and the number of active to at least 70,000. In addition, 5000 rangers and 19,000 supplementary personnel will be serving. If this happens the total strength would be around 124,000. These individuals serve on numerous CF bases located in all regions of the country, and are governed by the Queen's Regulations and Orders and the National Defence Act.
What was the effort called to upgrade the Canadian Forces?
56dedffec65bf219000b3da3
the Canada First Defence Strategy
55
False
How were the Canadian Forces upgraded in 2008?
56dedffec65bf219000b3da4
through the purchase of new equipment, improved training and readiness
130
False
What major problem is the CAF trying to address currently?
56dedffec65bf219000b3da7
loss of existing members
990
False
Canada First Defence Strategy
59
What was the effort called to downgrade the Canadian Forces?
5ad3e76d604f3c001a3ff601
True
through the purchase of new equipment
130
How were the Canadian Forces upgraded in 2018?
5ad3e76d604f3c001a3ff602
True
loss of existing members
990
What major problem is the CAF not trying to address currently?
5ad3e76d604f3c001a3ff603
True
In 2008 the Government of Canada made efforts, through the Canada First Defence Strategy, to modernize the Canadian Armed Forces, through the purchase of new equipment, improved training and readiness, as well as the establishment of the Canadian Special Operations Regiment. More funds were also put towards recruitment, which had been dwindling throughout the 1980s and '90s, possibly because the Canadian populace had come to perceive the CAF as peacekeepers rather than as soldiers, as shown in a 2008 survey conducted for the Department of National Defence. The poll found that nearly two thirds of Canadians agreed with the country's participation in the invasion of Afghanistan, and that the military should be stronger, but also that the purpose of the forces should be different, such as more focused on responding to natural disasters. Then CDS, Walter Natynczyk, said later that year that while recruiting has become more successful, the CF was facing a problem with its rate of loss of existing members, which increased between 2006 and 2008 from 6% to 9.2% annually.
What equipment was acquired to aid in Afghanistan?
56dee117c65bf219000b3dad
main battle tanks, artillery, unmanned air vehicles
96
False
What large transport plane is part of the CAF mission?
56dee117c65bf219000b3dae
C-130 Hercules
358
False
What new type of helicopter was recently acquired?
56dee117c65bf219000b3daf
CH-47 Chinook heavy-lift helicopters
514
False
When was the renewal and re-equipment effort started?
56dee117c65bf219000b3db1
2006
4
False
main battle tanks, artillery, unmanned air vehicles and other systems
96
What equipment was acquired to aid in Iraq?
5ad3e794604f3c001a3ff60f
True
C-130 Hercules
358
What small transport plane is part of the CAF mission?
5ad3e794604f3c001a3ff610
True
CH-47 Chinook
514
What new type of helicopter was not recently acquired?
5ad3e794604f3c001a3ff611
True
2006
4
When was the renewal and re-equipment effort ended?
5ad3e794604f3c001a3ff612
True
The 2006 renewal and re-equipment effort has resulted in the acquisition of specific equipment (main battle tanks, artillery, unmanned air vehicles and other systems) to support the mission in Afghanistan. It has also encompassed initiatives to renew certain so-called "core capabilities" (such as the air force's medium range transport aircraft fleet – the C-130 Hercules – and the army's truck and armoured vehicle fleets). In addition, new systems (such as C-17 Globemaster III strategic transport aircraft and CH-47 Chinook heavy-lift helicopters) have also been acquired for the Armed Forces. Although the viability of the Canada First Defence Strategy continues to suffer setbacks from challenging and evolving fiscal and other factors, it originally aimed to:
What roles were women recruited for in the 1950s?
56dee1f8c65bf219000b3dc7
medicine, communication, logistics, and administration
60
False
What year did further recruitment for women open in the CAF?
56dee1f8c65bf219000b3dc8
1971
165
False
What non traditional tasks were women recruited for in the 1970s?
56dee1f8c65bf219000b3dc9
vehicle drivers and mechanics, aircraft mechanics, air-traffic controllers
410
False
Why were women eventually allowed to serve at sea in the CAF?
56dee1f8c65bf219000b3dca
the Department changed its policies
723
False
What charter directly affected a women's right to serve in the CAF?
56dee1f8c65bf219000b3dcb
Canadian Charter of Rights and Freedoms
652
False
medicine, communication, logistics, and administration
60
What roles were women recruited for in the 1980s?
5ad3e7dd604f3c001a3ff617
True
1971
165
What year did further recruitment for men open in the CAF?
5ad3e7dd604f3c001a3ff618
True
vehicle drivers and mechanics, aircraft mechanics, air-traffic controllers, military police, and firefighters
410
What non traditional tasks were women recruited for in the 1990s?
5ad3e7dd604f3c001a3ff619
True
Department changed its policies
727
Why were men eventually allowed to serve at sea in the CAF?
5ad3e7dd604f3c001a3ff61a
True
Canadian Charter of Rights and Freedoms
652
What charter directly affected a man's right to serve in the CAF?
5ad3e7dd604f3c001a3ff61b
True
In the 1950s, the recruitment of women was open to roles in medicine, communication, logistics, and administration. The roles of women in the CAF began to expand in 1971, after the Department reviewed the recommendations of the Royal Commission on the Status of Women, at which time it lifted the ceiling of 1,500 women personnel, and gradually expanded employment opportunities into the non-traditional areas—vehicle drivers and mechanics, aircraft mechanics, air-traffic controllers, military police, and firefighters. The Department further reviewed personnel policies in 1978 and 1985, after Parliament passed the Canadian Human Rights Act and the Canadian Charter of Rights and Freedoms. As a result of these reviews, the Department changed its policies to permit women to serve at sea in replenishment ships and in a diving tender, with the army service battalions, in military police platoons and field ambulance units, and in most air squadrons.
Name some of the jobs in the CAF off limits to women in the 1980s.
56dee2b8c65bf219000b3dd2
infantry, armoured corps, field artillery, air-defence artillery
151
False
On what date was a study created to research the impart of women in direct involvement?
56dee2b8c65bf219000b3dd3
5 February 1987
268
False
Who created an office to study these effects?
56dee2b8c65bf219000b3dd4
the Minister of National Defence
285
False
What was the study called?
56dee2b8c65bf219000b3dd5
Combat-Related Employment of Women
425
False
infantry, armoured corps, field artillery, air-defence artillery, signals, field engineers, and naval operations
151
Name some of the teaching opportunities in the CAF off limits to women in the 1980s.
5ad3e80c604f3c001a3ff62b
True
5 February 1987
268
On what date was a study created to research the impart on men in direct involvement?
5ad3e80c604f3c001a3ff62c
True
Minister of National Defence
289
Who created an office to reject these effects?
5ad3e80c604f3c001a3ff62d
True
Combat-Related Employment of Women
425
What was the school called?
5ad3e80c604f3c001a3ff62e
True
In 1987, occupations and units with the primary role of preparing for direct involvement in combat on the ground or at sea were still closed to women: infantry, armoured corps, field artillery, air-defence artillery, signals, field engineers, and naval operations. On 5 February 1987, the Minister of National Defence created an office to study the impact of employing men and women in combat units. These trials were called Combat-Related Employment of Women.
What year were most military occupations opened to women?
56dee4db3277331400b4d7bb
1989
47
False
What military occupation wasn't opened to women until the 2000s?
56dee4db3277331400b4d7bc
submarine service
75
False
By how much did opening these jobs to women increase the recruiting pool by?
56dee4db3277331400b4d7bd
100 percent
234
False
Which government was responsible in Canadian history for this fact?
56dee4db3277331400b4d7bf
the government of Jean Chretien
409
False
1989
47
What year were most military occupations opened to men?
5ad3e833604f3c001a3ff633
True
submarine service
75
hat military occupation wasn't opened to men until the 2000s?
5ad3e833604f3c001a3ff634
True
100 percent
234
By how much did opening these jobs to men increase the recruiting pool by?
5ad3e833604f3c001a3ff635
True
government of Jean Chretien
413
Which government was responsible in French history for this fact?
5ad3e833604f3c001a3ff636
True
All military occupations were open to women in 1989, with the exception of submarine service, which opened in 2000. Throughout the 1990s, the introduction of women into the combat arms increased the potential recruiting pool by about 100 percent. It also provided opportunities for all persons to serve their country to the best of their abilities. Women were fully integrated in all occupations and roles by the government of Jean Chretien, and by 8 March 2000, even allowed to serve on submarines.
What is a requirement for equipment for the CAF?
56dee59b3277331400b4d7cf
equipment must be suitable for a mixed-gender force
4
False
What are some of the equipment used by both men and women?
56dee59b3277331400b4d7d0
Combat helmets, rucksacks, combat boots
57
False
What special entitlement are women provided as part of their service?
56dee59b3277331400b4d7d2
an annual financial entitlement for the purchase of brassiere undergarments
376
False
All equipment must be suitable for a mixed-gender force
0
What is a requirement for equipment for the CE?
5ad3e87a604f3c001a3ff659
True
Combat helmets, rucksacks, combat boots, and flak jackets
57
What are some of the equipment used by neither men and women?
5ad3e87a604f3c001a3ff65a
True
annual financial entitlement for the purchase of brassiere undergarments
379
What special entitlement are men provided as part of their service?
5ad3e87a604f3c001a3ff65b
True
All equipment must be suitable for a mixed-gender force. Combat helmets, rucksacks, combat boots, and flak jackets are designed to ensure women have the same level of protection and comfort as their male colleagues. The women's uniform is similar in design to the men's uniform, but conforms to the female figure, and is functional and practical. Women are also provided with an annual financial entitlement for the purchase of brassiere undergarments.
What is the hierarchy of the Canadian Armed Forces?
56dee62fc65bf219000b3dfd
It begins at the top with the most senior-ranking personnel and works its way into lower organizations.
61
False
Canadian
38
What is the hierarchy of the French Armed Forces?
5ad3e883604f3c001a3ff65f
True
The following is the hierarchy of the Canadian Armed Forces. It begins at the top with the most senior-ranking personnel and works its way into lower organizations.
What determines who is the Commander-in-Chief of the Armed forces?
56dee6fcc65bf219000b3e07
The Canadian constitution
0
False
Who does the Commander-in-Chief authorize to make decision regarding the Armed Forces for them?
56dee6fcc65bf219000b3e08
the governor general
174
False
What orders fall under the royal prerogative?
56dee6fcc65bf219000b3e09
troop deployment and disposition orders
311
False
Who must sign these orders for them to be valid?
56dee6fcc65bf219000b3e0a
the monarch or governor general
485
False
Who's advice is the monarch supposed to follow regarding these orders?
56dee6fcc65bf219000b3e0b
the advice of his or her ministers in Cabinet
641
False
The Canadian constitution
0
What determines who is the Secretary-in-Chief of the Armed forces?
5ad3e99d604f3c001a3ff69b
True
governor general
500
Who does the Secretary-in-Chief authorize to make decision regarding the Armed Forces for them?
5ad3e99d604f3c001a3ff69c
True
troop deployment and disposition orders
311
What orders fall under the non-royal prerogative?
5ad3e99d604f3c001a3ff69d
True
monarch or governor general
489
Who must sign these orders for them to be invalid?
5ad3e99d604f3c001a3ff69e
True
The Canadian constitution determines that the Commander-in-Chief of the Canadian Armed Forces is the country's sovereign, who, since 1904, has authorized his or her viceroy, the governor general, to exercise the duties ascribed to the post of Commander-in-Chief and to hold the associated title since 1905. All troop deployment and disposition orders, including declarations of war, fall within the royal prerogative and are issued as Orders in Council, which must be signed by either the monarch or governor general. Under the Westminster system's parliamentary customs and practices, however, the monarch and viceroy must generally follow the advice of his or her ministers in Cabinet, including the prime minister and minister of national defence, who are accountable to the elected House of Commons.
The armed forces has approximately how many members?
56dee7f23277331400b4d7e9
115,349
18
False
Who is the highest ranking member of the Armed Forces?
56dee7f23277331400b4d7ea
the Chief of the Defence Staff
193
False
Who appoints the Chief of the Defence?
56dee7f23277331400b4d7eb
The governor general
125
False
What location does the National Defense operate out of?
56dee7f23277331400b4d7ec
Ottawa, Ontario
467
False
What are some of the members of the Armed Forces Council?
56dee7f23277331400b4d7ed
the heads of the Royal Canadian Navy, the Canadian Army, the Royal Canadian Air Force and other key Level 1 organizations.
652
False
115,349
18
The rallied forces has approximately how many members?
5ad3e9f0604f3c001a3ff6ab
True
Chief of the Defence Staff
197
Who is the highest ranking member of the non-Armed Forces?
5ad3e9f0604f3c001a3ff6ac
True
captains-general
936
Who doesn't appoint the Chief of the Defence?
5ad3e9f0604f3c001a3ff6ad
True
Royal Canadian Navy, the Canadian Army, the Royal Canadian Air Force
669
What are some of the members of the Non-Armed Forces Council?
5ad3e9f0604f3c001a3ff6ae
True
The Armed Forces' 115,349 personnel are divided into a hierarchy of numerous ranks of officers and non-commissioned members. The governor general appoints, on the advice of the prime minister, the Chief of the Defence Staff (CDS) as the highest ranking commissioned officer in the Armed Forces and who, as head of the Armed Forces Council, is in command of the Canadian Forces. The Armed Forces Council generally operates from National Defence Headquarters (NDHQ) in Ottawa, Ontario. On the Armed Forces Council sit the heads of Canadian Joint Operations Command and Canadian Special Operations Forces Command, the Vice Chief of the Defence Staff, and the heads of the Royal Canadian Navy, the Canadian Army, the Royal Canadian Air Force and other key Level 1 organizations. The sovereign and most other members of the Canadian Royal Family also act as colonels-in-chief, honorary air commodores, air commodores-in-chief, admirals, and captains-general of Canadian Forces units, though these positions are ceremonial.
How many Canadian Forces bases are there in Canada?
56dee99f3277331400b4d7fb
27
37
False
Where do Canadian Forces members go for training?
56dee99f3277331400b4d7fc
Saint-Jean-sur-Richelieu
329
False
What is the place called where initial training happens?
56dee99f3277331400b4d7fd
Canadian Forces Leadership and Recruit School
280
False
27
37
How many non-Canadian Forces bases are there in Canada?
5ad3ea0f604f3c001a3ff6c7
True
Saint-Jean-sur-Richelieu
329
Where do non-Canadian Forces members go for training?
5ad3ea0f604f3c001a3ff6c8
True
Canadian Forces Leadership and Recruit School
280
What is the place called where post-initial training happens?
5ad3ea0f604f3c001a3ff6c9
True
Canada's Armed forces operate out of 27 Canadian Forces bases (CFB) across the country, including NDHQ. This number has been gradually reduced since the 1970s with bases either being closed or merged. Both officers and non-commissioned members receive their basic training at the Canadian Forces Leadership and Recruit School in Saint-Jean-sur-Richelieu. Officers will generally either directly enter the Canadian Armed Forces with a degree from a civilian university, or receive their commission upon graduation from the Royal Military College of Canada. Specific element and trade training is conducted at a variety of institutions throughout Canada, and to a lesser extent, the world.
How many warships does the Royal Canadian Navy have?
56deea68c65bf219000b3e21
33
92
False
Where are the Maritime Forces Atlantic located?
56deea68c65bf219000b3e23
Halifax
289
False
What formation is located in Quebec?
56deea68c65bf219000b3e24
the Naval Reserve Headquarters (NAVRESHQ)
342
False
What international exercises does the RCN partake in?
56deea68c65bf219000b3e25
NATO exercises
495
False
33
92
How many warships does the Non-Canadian Navy have?
5ad3ea55604f3c001a3ff6cd
True
Halifax
289
Where are the Maritime Forces Pacific located?
5ad3ea55604f3c001a3ff6ce
True
Naval Reserve Headquarters
346
What formation is located in Ottawa?
5ad3ea55604f3c001a3ff6cf
True
NATO exercises
495
What international exercises does the RNN partake in?
5ad3ea55604f3c001a3ff6d0
True
The Royal Canadian Navy (RCN), headed by the Commander of the Royal Canadian Navy, includes 33 warships and submarines deployed in two fleets: Maritime Forces Pacific (MARPAC) at CFB Esquimalt on the west coast, and Maritime Forces Atlantic (MARLANT) at Her Majesty's Canadian Dockyard in Halifax on the east coast, as well as one formation: the Naval Reserve Headquarters (NAVRESHQ) at Quebec City, Quebec. The fleet is augmented by various aircraft and supply vessels. The RCN participates in NATO exercises and operations, and ships are deployed all over the world in support of multinational deployments.
Who heads the Canadian Army?
56deeb2a3277331400b4d813
Commander of the Canadian Army
35
False
How many divisions are there in the Canadian Army?
56deeb2a3277331400b4d814
four divisions
91
False
What are the four divisions?
56deeb2a3277331400b4d815
the 2nd Canadian Division, the 3rd Canadian Division, the 4th Canadian Division and the 5th Canadian Division
106
False
What division is the Canadian Army Doctrine of?
56deeb2a3277331400b4d816
the 5th Canadian Division
190
False
The Canadian Army Headquarters are located in what division?
56deeb2a3277331400b4d817
the 5th Canadian Division
190
False
Commander of the Canadian Army
35
Who heads the non-Canadian Army?
5ad3ea81604f3c001a3ff6ef
True
four divisions
91
How many divisions are there in the non-Canadian Army?
5ad3ea81604f3c001a3ff6f0
True
5th Canadian Division
194
What is the sixth division?
5ad3ea81604f3c001a3ff6f1
True
5th Canadian Division
194
The non-Canadian Army Headquarters are located in what division?
5ad3ea81604f3c001a3ff6f2
True
The Canadian Army is headed by the Commander of the Canadian Army and administered through four divisions—the 2nd Canadian Division, the 3rd Canadian Division, the 4th Canadian Division and the 5th Canadian Division—the Canadian Army Doctrine and Training System and the Canadian Army Headquarters.
How many brigades does the Army consist of?
56deebdc3277331400b4d81d
three
63
False
Each Brigade contains how many regiments?
56deebdc3277331400b4d81f
one
33
False
What squadron is present but not an official part of the Brigade?
56deebdc3277331400b4d820
tactical helicopter squadron
565
False
What medical group is present at all Brigades but not part of it?
56deebdc3277331400b4d821
a field ambulance
598
False
three
63
How many brigades does the non-Army consist of?
5ad3eabe604f3c001a3ff701
True
one
454
Each non-Brigade contains how many regiments?
5ad3eabe604f3c001a3ff702
True
tactical helicopter squadron
565
What squadron is present but is an official part of the Brigade?
5ad3eabe604f3c001a3ff703
True
field ambulance
600
What medical group is not present at all Brigades but not part of it?
5ad3eabe604f3c001a3ff704
True
Currently, the Regular Force component of the Army consists of three field-ready brigade groups: 1 Canadian Mechanized Brigade Group, at CFB Edmonton and CFB Shilo; 2 Canadian Mechanized Brigade Group, at CFB Petawawa and CFB Gagetown; and 5 Canadian Mechanized Brigade Group, at CFB Valcartier and Quebec City. Each contains one regiment each of artillery, armour, and combat engineers, three battalions of infantry (all scaled in the British fashion), one battalion for logistics, a squadron for headquarters/signals, and several smaller support organizations. A tactical helicopter squadron and a field ambulance are co-located with each brigade, but do not form part of the brigade's command structure.
Where is most of the major training performed?
56def917c65bf219000b3e64
CFB Gagetown, CFB Montreal and CFB Wainwright.
474
False
CFB Gagetown, CFB Montreal and CFB Wainwright
474
Where is most of the minor training performed?
5ad3eaf0604f3c001a3ff709
True
The 2nd, 3rd and 4th Canadian Divisions each has a Regular Force brigade group, and each division except the 1st has two to three Reserve Force brigades groups. In total, there are ten Reserve Force brigade groups. The 5th Canadian Division and the 2nd Canadian Division each have two Reserve Force brigade groups, while the 4th Canadian Division and the 3rd Canadian Division each have three Reserve Force brigade groups. Major training and support establishments exist at CFB Gagetown, CFB Montreal and CFB Wainwright.
Who heads the Royal Canadian Air Force?
56defb12c65bf219000b3e73
the Commander of the Royal Canadian Air Force
49
False
Where is the commander based out of?
56defb12c65bf219000b3e74
Winnipeg
173
False
How many air force wings are located across Canada?
56defb12c65bf219000b3e75
eleven
354
False
Who reports to the operational commander about the wings?
56defb12c65bf219000b3e77
tactical commander
643
False
Commander of the Royal Canadian Air Force
53
Who heads the non-Canadian Air Force?
5ad3eb5a604f3c001a3ff713
True
Winnipeg
173
Where is the commander based out of?
5ad3eb5a604f3c001a3ff714
True
eleven
354
How many air force wings are located outside of Canada?
5ad3eb5a604f3c001a3ff715
True
tactical commander
643
Who reports to the operational secretary about the wings?
5ad3eb5a604f3c001a3ff716
True
The Royal Canadian Air Force (RCAF) is headed by the Commander of the Royal Canadian Air Force. The commander of 1 Canadian Air Division and Canadian NORAD Region, based in Winnipeg, is responsible for the operational command and control of Air Force activities throughout Canada and worldwide. 1 Canadian Air Division operations are carried out through eleven wings located across Canada. The commander of 2 Canadian Air Division is responsible for training and support functions. 2 Canadian Air Division operations are carried out at two wings. Wings represent the grouping of various squadrons, both operational and support, under a single tactical commander reporting to the operational commander and vary in size from several hundred personnel to several thousand.
What are some locations of the air bases?
56defbb63277331400b4d85d
Alberta, Saskatchewan, Manitoba
49
False
Where are the command facilities located?
56defbb63277331400b4d85e
Winnipeg and North Bay
214
False
Where is the Canadian component of the NATO located?
56defbb63277331400b4d85f
Geilenkirchen, Germany
350
False
What NATO force are the Canadians part of?
56defbb63277331400b4d860
Airborne Early Warning Force
271
False
What location is a Canadian airforce base located whose name is also a dog breed?
56defbb63277331400b4d861
Labrador
133
False
Alberta, Saskatchewan, Manitoba
49
What are some locations of the navy bases?
5ad3eba0604f3c001a3ff72f
True
Winnipeg and North Bay
214
Where are the non-command facilities located?
5ad3eba0604f3c001a3ff730
True
Geilenkirchen, Germany
350
Where is the non-Canadian component of the NATO located?
5ad3eba0604f3c001a3ff731
True
Airborne Early Warning Force
271
What non-NATO force are the Canadians part of?
5ad3eba0604f3c001a3ff732
True
Labrador
133
What location is a Canadian navy base located whose name is also a dog breed?
5ad3eba0604f3c001a3ff733
True
Major air bases are located in British Columbia, Alberta, Saskatchewan, Manitoba, Ontario, Quebec, Nova Scotia, and Newfoundland and Labrador, while administrative and command and control facilities are located in Winnipeg and North Bay. A Canadian component of the NATO Airborne Early Warning Force is also based at NATO Air Base Geilenkirchen near Geilenkirchen, Germany.
What does JTFN stand for?
56defc4bc65bf219000b3e85
Joint Task Force (North)
13
False
What it located through Canada's Northern Regions?
56defc4bc65bf219000b3e86
a chain of forward operating locations
113
False
What can each forwarding operation location provide?
56defc4bc65bf219000b3e87
fighter operations
180
False
What squadrons deploy to these locations?
56defc4bc65bf219000b3e88
CF-18 squadrons
212
False
What patrols are organized from these locations?
56defc4bc65bf219000b3e89
Arctic sovereignty patrols.
298
False
chain of forward operating locations
115
What it located through non-Canada's Northern Regions?
5ad3ebd0604f3c001a3ff739
True
fighter operations
180
What can't each forwarding operation location provide?
5ad3ebd0604f3c001a3ff73a
True
CF-18
212
What squadrons won't deploy to these locations?
5ad3ebd0604f3c001a3ff73b
True
Arctic sovereignty patrols
298
What patrols aren't organized from these locations?
5ad3ebd0604f3c001a3ff73c
True
The RCAF and Joint Task Force (North) (JTFN) also maintain at various points throughout Canada's northern region a chain of forward operating locations, each capable of supporting fighter operations. Elements of CF-18 squadrons periodically deploy to these airports for short training exercises or Arctic sovereignty patrols.
When was the Canadian Joint Operations Command established?
56defcf2c65bf219000b3e91
October 2012
79
False
What are the parts that merged into the Canadian Joint Operations Command?
56defcf2c65bf219000b3e92
Canada Command, the Canadian Expeditionary Force Command and the Canadian Operational Support Command
111
False
What specifically prompted this merger?
56defcf2c65bf219000b3e95
the 2012 federal budget
285
False
October 2012
79
When was the non-Canadian Joint Operations Command established?
5ad3ebf1604f3c001a3ff74b
True
Canada Command, the Canadian Expeditionary Force Command and the Canadian Operational Support Command
111
What are the parts that merged into the non-Canadian Joint Operations Command?
5ad3ebf1604f3c001a3ff74c
True
2012 federal budget
289
What specifically didn't prompt this merger?
5ad3ebf1604f3c001a3ff74d
True
The Canadian Joint Operations Command is an operational element established in October 2012 with the merger of Canada Command, the Canadian Expeditionary Force Command and the Canadian Operational Support Command. The new command, created as a response to the cost-cutting measures in the 2012 federal budget, combines the resources, roles and responsibilities of the three former commands under a single headquarters.
what does CANSOFCOM stand for?
56defd9bc65bf219000b3e9b
The Canadian Special Operations Forces Command
0
False
What is the CANSOFCOM focussed on?
56defd9bc65bf219000b3e9c
generating special operations forces
134
False
What do the special forces support?
56defd9bc65bf219000b3e9d
CJOC
197
False
Where is the Canadian Joint Incident Response Unit based?
56defd9bc65bf219000b3e9e
CFB Trenton
310
False
How many Special Operations Aviation Squadron are based at Petawawa?
56defd9bc65bf219000b3e9f
427
386
False
The Canadian Special Operations Forces Command
0
what does CANSOFCORN stand for?
5ad3ec3b604f3c001a3ff759
True
generating special operations forces
134
What is the CANSOFCOM not focused on?
5ad3ec3b604f3c001a3ff75a
True
CJOC
197
What don't the special forces support?
5ad3ec3b604f3c001a3ff75b
True
CFB Trenton
310
Where is the non-Canadian Joint Incident Response Unit based?
5ad3ec3b604f3c001a3ff75c
True
427
386
How many Special Operations Aviation Squadron aren't based at Petawawa?
5ad3ec3b604f3c001a3ff75d
True
The Canadian Special Operations Forces Command (CANSOFCOM) is a formation capable of operating independently but primarily focused on generating special operations forces (SOF) elements to support CJOC. The command includes Joint Task Force 2 (JTF2), the Canadian Joint Incident Response Unit (CJIRU) based at CFB Trenton, as well as the Canadian Special Operations Regiment (CSOR) and 427 Special Operations Aviation Squadron (SOAS) based at CFB Petawawa.
What is the the Information Management Group responsible for?
56df043cc65bf219000b3ed5
electronic warfare and the protection of the Armed Forces' communications and computer networks
87
False
Where is the Information Management Group located?
56df043cc65bf219000b3ed6
CFS Leitrim in Ottawa
307
False
What is the task of the CAF Cyber Task Force?
56df043cc65bf219000b3ed7
design and build cyber warfare capabilities
1002
False
When was the Directorate of Cybernetics established?
56df043cc65bf219000b3ed8
June 2011
699
False
Who heads the Directorate?
56df043cc65bf219000b3ed9
the Director General Cyber
876
False
electronic warfare and the protection of the Armed Forces' communications and computer networks
87
What is the the Information Management Group not responsible for?
5ad3ec9d604f3c001a3ff76d
True
CFS Leitrim in Ottawa
307
Where is the non-Information Management Group located?
5ad3ec9d604f3c001a3ff76e
True
design and build cyber warfare capabilities for the Canadian Armed Forces
1002
What is the task of the non-Cyber Task Force?
5ad3ec9d604f3c001a3ff76f
True
June 2011
699
When was the Directorate of Non-Cybernetics established?
5ad3ec9d604f3c001a3ff770
True
Director General Cyber
880
Who was fired from the Directorate?
5ad3ec9d604f3c001a3ff771
True
Among other things, the Information Management Group is responsible for the conduct of electronic warfare and the protection of the Armed Forces' communications and computer networks. Within the group, this operational role is fulfilled by the Canadian Forces Information Operations Group, headquartered at CFS Leitrim in Ottawa, which operates the following units: the Canadian Forces Information Operations Group Headquarters (CFIOGHQ), the Canadian Forces Electronic Warfare Centre (CFEWC), the Canadian Forces Network Operation Centre (CFNOC), the Canadian Forces Signals Intelligence Operations Centre (CFSOC), the Canadian Forces Station (CFS) Leitrim, and the 764 Communications Squadron. In June 2011 the Canadian Armed Forces Chief of Force Development announced the establishment of a new organization, the Directorate of Cybernetics, headed by a Brigadier General, the Director General Cyber (DG Cyber). Within that directorate the newly established CAF Cyber Task Force, has been tasked to design and build cyber warfare capabilities for the Canadian Armed Forces.
Who does The Health Services Group serve?
56df04ce3277331400b4d8b8
the Canadian Armed Forces
144
False
Who can temporarily be assigned the Health Serviced Group?
56df04ce3277331400b4d8ba
Joint Task Force
341
False
What type of support does The Health Services Group provide?
56df04ce3277331400b4d8bb
domestic support
250
False
Canadian Armed Forces
148
Who won't The Health Services Group serve?
5ad3ecbb604f3c001a3ff781
True
Joint Task Force
341
Who can't temporarily be assigned the Health Serviced Group?
5ad3ecbb604f3c001a3ff782
True
domestic support
250
What type of support does The Health Services Group refuse?
5ad3ecbb604f3c001a3ff783
True
The Health Services Group is a joint formation that includes over 120 general or specialized units and detachments providing health services to the Canadian Armed Forces. With few exceptions, all elements are under command of the Surgeon General for domestic support and force generation, or temporarily assigned under command of a deployed Joint Task Force through Canadian Joint Operations Command.
When can the reserve force be called upon?
56df05adc65bf219000b3ee6
in times of national emergency or threat
127
False
What troops does The reserve force consists of?
56df05adc65bf219000b3ee8
primary and supplementary
77
False
in times of national emergency or threat
127
When can't the reserve force be called upon?
5ad3ecd9604f3c001a3ff787
True
primary and supplementary
77
What troops does The reserve force not consist of?
5ad3ecd9604f3c001a3ff788
True
The Canadian Armed Forces have a total reserve force of approximately 50,000 primary and supplementary that can be called upon in times of national emergency or threat. For the components and sub-components of the Canadian Armed Forces Reserve Force, the order of precedence follows:
Who commands the reserves?
56df065d3277331400b4d8c7
Chief of Reserves and Cadets
315
False
What are some of the components of the reserve force?
56df065d3277331400b4d8c9
the Naval Reserve (NAVRES), Land Force Reserve (LFR), and Air Reserve (AIRRES)
556
False
Chief of Reserves and Cadets
315
Who won't command the reserves?
5ad3ecf4604f3c001a3ff795
True
Naval Reserve (NAVRES), Land Force Reserve (LFR), and Air Reserve (AIRRES
560
What are some of the components of the non-reserve force?
5ad3ecf4604f3c001a3ff796
True
Approximately 26,000 citizen soldiers, sailors, and airmen and women, trained to the level of and interchangeable with their Regular Force counterparts, and posted to CAF operations or duties on a casual or ongoing basis, make up the Primary Reserve. This group is represented, though not commanded, at NDHQ by the Chief of Reserves and Cadets, who is usually a major general or rear admiral, and is divided into four components that are each operationally and administratively responsible to its corresponding environmental command in the Regular Force – the Naval Reserve (NAVRES), Land Force Reserve (LFR), and Air Reserve (AIRRES) – in addition to one force that does not fall under an environmental command, the Health Services Reserve under the Canadian Forces Health Services Group.
Who conducts training of the cadets?
56df07a33277331400b4d8cf
Cadet Organizations Administration and Training Service
4
False
What age are the cadets in the Canadian Cadet Movement?
56df07a33277331400b4d8d0
12 to 18 years
208
False
What branch are the majority of COATS members?
56df07a33277331400b4d8d2
officers of the Cadet Instructors Cadre
292
False
Who is eligible to serve as a COATS trainer?
56df07a33277331400b4d8d3
Reserve Force Sub-Component COATS
372
False
The Cadet Organizations Administration and Training Service
0
Who conducts formation of the cadets?
5ad3ed3a604f3c001a3ff7ab
True
12 to 18 years
208
What age are the cadets in the Non-Canadian Cadet Movement?
5ad3ed3a604f3c001a3ff7ac
True
officers of the Cadet Instructors Cadre
292
What branch are the minority of COATS members?
5ad3ed3a604f3c001a3ff7ad
True
Reserve Force Sub-Component COATS
372
Who is not eligible to serve as a COATS trainer?
5ad3ed3a604f3c001a3ff7ae
True
The Cadet Organizations Administration and Training Service (COATS) consists of officers and non-commissioned members who conduct training, safety, supervision and administration of nearly 60,000 cadets aged 12 to 18 years in the Canadian Cadet Movement. The majority of members in COATS are officers of the Cadet Instructors Cadre (CIC) branch of the CAF. Members of the Reserve Force Sub-Component COATS who are not employed part-time (Class A) or full-time (Class B) may be held on the "Cadet Instructor Supplementary Staff List" (CISS List) in anticipation of employment in the same manner as other reservists are held as members of the Supplementary Reserve.
What do Canadian Rangers perform?
56df08453277331400b4d8d9
provide surveillance and patrol services
26
False
Where do the Canadian Rangers operate?
56df08453277331400b4d8da
in Canada's arctic
67
False
Which force are the Rangers part of?
56df08453277331400b4d8db
reserve force
127
False
What do the Canadian Rangers safekeep?
56df08453277331400b4d8dd
Canada's exercise of sovereignty over its northern territory
160
False
surveillance and patrol
34
What do non-Canadian Rangers perform?
5ad3ede0604f3c001a3ff7bd
True
Canada's arctic
70
Where do the non-Canadian Rangers operate?
5ad3ede0604f3c001a3ff7be
True
reserve force
127
Which force aren't the Rangers part of?
5ad3ede0604f3c001a3ff7bf
True
northern territory
202
What genocide did the Canadian Rangers start?
5ad3ede0604f3c001a3ff7c0
True
The Canadian Rangers, who provide surveillance and patrol services in Canada's arctic and other remote areas, are an essential reserve force component used for Canada's exercise of sovereignty over its northern territory.
What is suitable for CAF members to wear on any occasion?
56df0a103277331400b4d8f7
service dress
5
False
What other parts are there to a uniform?
56df0a103277331400b4d8f8
gloves, swords, and medals
109
False
What is now the daily uniform worn by members of the CAF?
56df0a103277331400b4d8f9
operational dress is now the daily uniform
358
False
What can be worn in cold winter weather?
56df0a103277331400b4d8fa
Approved parkas
527
False
What is only worn for very specific occasions?
56df0a103277331400b4d8fb
a ceremonial/regimental full dress
730
False
service dress
5
What is suitable for CAD members to wear on any occasion?
5ad3eed3604f3c001a3ff7ef
True
gloves, swords, and medals
109
What other parts aren't there to a uniform?
5ad3eed3604f3c001a3ff7f0
True
operational dress is now the daily uniform worn by most members of the CF
358
What is not the daily uniform worn by members of the CAF?
5ad3eed3604f3c001a3ff7f1
True
parkas
536
What can be worn in warm winter weather?
5ad3eed3604f3c001a3ff7f2
True
ceremonial/regimental full dress
732
What is only worn for very non-specific occasions?
5ad3eed3604f3c001a3ff7f3
True
Only service dress is suitable for CAF members to wear on any occasion, barring "dirty work" or combat. With gloves, swords, and medals (No. 1 or 1A), it is suitable for ceremonial occasions and "dressed down" (No. 3 or lower), it is suitable for daily wear. Generally, after the elimination of base dress (although still defined for the Air Force uniform), operational dress is now the daily uniform worn by most members of the CF, unless service dress is prescribed (such as at the NDHQ, on parades, at public events, etc.). Approved parkas are authorized for winter wear in cold climates and a light casual jacket is also authorized for cooler days. The navy, most army, and some other units have, for very specific occasions, a ceremonial/regimental full dress, such as the naval "high-collar" white uniform, kilted Highland, Scottish, and Irish regiments, and the scarlet uniforms of the Royal Military Colleges.
What are some of the authorized head dresses for the CAF?
56df0adf3277331400b4d903
beret, wedge cap, ballcap
60
False
Are there specific rules for wearing head dresses?
56df0adf3277331400b4d904
coloured according to the distinctive uniform worn
125
False
What is the most popular head dress worn?
56df0adf3277331400b4d905
The beret
521
False
What headdress does the Canadian Army wear?
56df0adf3277331400b4d907
CG634 helmet
1589
False
beret, wedge cap, ballcap, Yukon cap, and tuque
60
What are some of the unauthorized head dresses for the CAF?
5ad3ef59604f3c001a3ff80d
True
coloured according to the distinctive uniform worn
125
Are there specific rules for not wearing head dresses?
5ad3ef59604f3c001a3ff80e
True
beret
525
What is the least popular head dress worn?
5ad3ef59604f3c001a3ff80f
True
CG634
1589
What headdress does the Non-Canadian Army wear?
5ad3ef59604f3c001a3ff810
True
Authorized headdress for the Canadian Armed Forces are the: beret, wedge cap, ballcap, Yukon cap, and tuque (toque). Each is coloured according to the distinctive uniform worn: navy (white or navy blue), army (rifle green or "regimental" colour), air force (light blue). Adherents of the Sikh faith may wear uniform turbans (dastar) (or patka, when operational) and Muslim women may wear uniform tucked hijabs under their authorized headdress. Jews may wear yarmulke under their authorized headdress and when bareheaded. The beret is probably the most widely worn headgear and is worn with almost all orders of dress (with the exception of the more formal orders of Navy and Air Force dress), and the colour of which is determined by the wearer's environment, branch, or mission. Naval personnel, however, seldom wear berets, preferring either service cap or authorized ballcaps (shipboard operational dress), which only the Navy wear. Air Force personnel, particularly officers, prefer the wedge cap to any other form of headdress. There is no naval variant of the wedge cap. The Yukon cap and tuque are worn only with winter dress, although clearance and combat divers may wear tuques year-round as a watch cap. Soldiers in Highland, Scottish, and Irish regiments generally wear alternative headdress, including the glengarry, balmoral, tam o'shanter, and caubeen instead of the beret. The officer cadets of both Royal Military Colleges wear gold-braided "pillbox" (cavalry) caps with their ceremonial dress and have a unique fur "Astrakhan" for winter wear. The Canadian Army wears the CG634 helmet.
What gives the federal government responsibility for national defense?
56df0c1fc65bf219000b3ef9
The Constitution of Canada
0
False
What year was an additional 12.5 Billion Canadian Dollars assigned for over five years?
56df0c1fc65bf219000b3efb
2005
294
False
Constitution of Canada
4
What gives the federal government responsibility for international defense?
5ad3ef82604f3c001a3ff815
True
2005
294
What year was an additional 12.5 Billion Canadian Dollars assigned for over 10 years?
5ad3ef82604f3c001a3ff816
True
The Constitution of Canada gives the federal government exclusive responsibility for national defence, and expenditures are thus outlined in the federal budget. For the 2008–2009 fiscal year, the amount allocated for defence spending was CAD$18.9 billion. This regular funding was augmented in 2005 with an additional CAD$12.5 billion over five years, as well as a commitment to increasing regular force troop levels by 5,000 persons, and the primary reserve by 3,000 over the same period. In 2006, a further CAD$5.3 billion over five years was provided to allow for 13,000 more regular force members, and 10,000 more primary reserve personnel, as well as CAD$17.1 billion for the purchase of new trucks for the Canadian Army, transport aircraft and helicopters for the Royal Canadian Air Force, and joint support ships for the Royal Canadian Navy.
black
157
What color is the DEU uniform if it isn't green?
5ad3ee4a604f3c001a3ff7e7
True
non-operational occupations
352
What are the "red" trades?
5ad3ee4a604f3c001a3ff7e8
True
distinctive environmental uniforms
85
What does "DUE" stand for?
5ad3ee4a604f3c001a3ff7e9
True
CAF
485
What is the fourth similar environmental uniform?
5ad3ee4a604f3c001a3ff7ea
True
Although the Canadian Armed Forces are a single service, there are three similar but distinctive environmental uniforms (DEUs): navy blue (which is actually black) for the navy, rifle green for the army, and light blue for the air force. CAF members in operational occupations generally wear the DEU to which their occupation "belongs." CAF members in non-operational occupations (the "purple" trades) are allocated a uniform according to the "distribution" of their branch within the CAF, association of the branch with one of the former services, and the individual's initial preference. Therefore, on any given day, in any given CAF unit, all three coloured uniforms may be seen.
Cardinal_(Catholicism)
In 1059, who was responsible for electing the pope?
56dde5409a695914005b9676
the principal clergy of Rome and the bishops of the seven suburbicarian sees.
56
False
What were the cardinals assigned?
56dde5409a695914005b9678
a church in Rome as his titular church or linked with one of the suburbicarian dioceses
260
False
the right of electing the pope was reserved to the principal clergy of Rome and the bishops of the seven suburbicarian sees
9
Who did not have the right of electing the pope in 1059?
5ad2dc0dd7d075001a42a50e
True
cardinals
216
Who held the right to appoint ecclesiastics from outside Rome in 1059?
5ad2dc0dd7d075001a42a50f
True
a church in Rome as his titular church or linked with one of the suburbicarian dioceses
260
What were the cardinals not assigned?
5ad2dc0dd7d075001a42a510
True
a church in Rome as his titular church or linked with one of the suburbicarian dioceses
260
Where outside of Rome were the ecclesiastics assigned?
5ad2dc0dd7d075001a42a511
True
In 1059, the right of electing the pope was reserved to the principal clergy of Rome and the bishops of the seven suburbicarian sees. In the 12th century the practice of appointing ecclesiastics from outside Rome as cardinals began, with each of them assigned a church in Rome as his titular church or linked with one of the suburbicarian dioceses, while still being incardinated in a diocese other than that of Rome.[citation needed]
At one time, Priest permanently were assigned to a church were referred to as?
56dde6309a695914005b9690
cardinal
9
False
How early was this term used?
56dde6309a695914005b9691
ninth century
280
False
The Church of England uses what term that is held by two senior members of the College of Minor Canons of St. Pauls Catherdral?
56dde6309a695914005b9692
tituli
316
False
What Latin word does "cardinal" come from?
56def3ed3277331400b4d848
cardo
182
False
Which church still holds on to the original meaning of "cardinal" from the above Latin word?
56def3ed3277331400b4d849
The Church of England
358
False
"principal" or "chief"
205
What does the Latin cardo not mean?
5ad2de57d7d075001a42a586
True
cardinal
9
What is the term applied to any priest temporarily assigned or incardinated to a church?
5ad2de57d7d075001a42a587
True
Latin cardo
176
What term was applied as early as the eighth century to the priests of the tituli of the diocese of Rome?
5ad2de57d7d075001a42a588
True
tituli
316
What term was used by the Church of France that is held by two senior members of the College of Minor Canon of St. Paul's Catherdral?
5ad2de57d7d075001a42a589
True
The Church of England
358
Which church maintains the original meaning of the Greek word "cardo"?
5ad2de57d7d075001a42a58a
True
The term cardinal at one time applied to any priest permanently assigned or incardinated to a church, or specifically to the senior priest of an important church, based on the Latin cardo (hinge), meaning "principal" or "chief". The term was applied in this sense as early as the ninth century to the priests of the tituli (parishes) of the diocese of Rome. The Church of England retains an instance of this origin of the title, which is held by the two senior members of the College of Minor Canons of St Paul's Cathedral.
Who were the first people to be called cardinals in Rome?
56dde75466d3e219004dadc4
the deacons of the seven regions of the city
342
False
When were the Roman cardinals perceived as a privleged class among the Roman clergy?
56dde75466d3e219004dadc5
8th century
664
False
What year did the ruling "only a cardinal was eligible to become pope" come in effect?
56dde75466d3e219004dadc6
769
860
False
Who gave cardinals the right to elect the pope under the Papal Bull In nomine Domini?
56dde75466d3e219004dadc7
Nicholas II
945
False
What was it that gave cardinals the right to elect the pope?
56def5bd3277331400b4d84f
the Papal Bull In nomine Domini
1013
False
In what year did the pope allow cardinals to wear the red hats?
56def5bd3277331400b4d850
1244
1291
False
Who was the pope who gave cardinals the right to wear the hats?
56def5bd3277331400b4d851
Pope Innocent IV
1271
False
the deacons of the seven regions of the city
342
Who were the first persons to be called cardinals at the beginning of the 7th century in Rome?
5ad2e0e1d7d075001a42a5e4
True
began to mean “principal,” “eminent,” or "superior."
438
What did the word cardinal begin to mean at the beginning of the 8th century?
5ad2e0e1d7d075001a42a5e5
True
8th century
664
When were the Roman cardinals considered part of the peasant class?
5ad2e0e1d7d075001a42a5e6
True
769
860
In what year was the pope eligible to become a cardinal?
5ad2e0e1d7d075001a42a5e7
True
Third Lateran Council
1126
Who rescinded the right of the whole body of cardinals to elect the pope in 1179?
5ad2e0e1d7d075001a42a5e8
True
There is disagreement about the origin of the term, but general consensus that "cardinalis" from the word cardo (meaning 'pivot' or 'hinge') was first used in late antiquity to designate a bishop or priest who was incorporated into a church for which he had not originally been ordained. In Rome the first persons to be called cardinals were the deacons of the seven regions of the city at the beginning of the 6th century, when the word began to mean “principal,” “eminent,” or "superior." The name was also given to the senior priest in each of the "title" churches (the parish churches) of Rome and to the bishops of the seven sees surrounding the city. By the 8th century the Roman cardinals constituted a privileged class among the Roman clergy. They took part in the administration of the church of Rome and in the papal liturgy. By decree of a synod of 769, only a cardinal was eligible to become pope. In 1059, during the pontificate of Nicholas II, cardinals were given the right to elect the pope under the Papal Bull In nomine Domini. For a time this power was assigned exclusively to the cardinal bishops, but the Third Lateran Council in 1179 gave back the right to the whole body of cardinals. Cardinals were granted the privilege of wearing the red hat by Pope Innocent IV in 1244.
What term was given to certain church men of honor?
56dde83666d3e219004dadd1
cardinal
36
False
When is the earliest date of using the term cardinal as honorable church men used?
56dde83666d3e219004dadd2
747
182
False
When was the title of cardinal reserved for the cardinals of Rome by Pius V?
56dde83666d3e219004dadd4
1567
547
False
In regards to the word "cardinal" being used in cities other than Rome, who sent a letter to Pippin III?
56def6ffc65bf219000b3e53
Pope Zacharias
164
False
In what year was the letter sent?
56def6ffc65bf219000b3e54
747
182
False
Which pope declared that cardinals would be from Rome?
56def6ffc65bf219000b3e55
Pius V.
555
False
In what year did the pope make the declaration?
56def6ffc65bf219000b3e56
1567
547
False
cardinal
36
What term was applied to certain political leaders as a mark of honor?
5ad2e303d7d075001a42a638
True
cardinal
36
What did Pippin III call priests of Paris to distinguish them from county clergy?
5ad2e303d7d075001a42a639
True
9th
390
What century did the term cardinal spread quickly throughout various Muslim cities?
5ad2e303d7d075001a42a63a
True
1567
547
In what year did Pope Zacharias reserve the title for the cardinals of Rome?
5ad2e303d7d075001a42a63b
True
various episcopal cities
402
Who had a special class among clergy known as priests in the 9th century?
5ad2e303d7d075001a42a63c
True
In cities other than Rome, the name cardinal began to be applied to certain church men as a mark of honour. The earliest example of this occurs in a letter sent by Pope Zacharias in 747 to Pippin III (the Short), ruler of the Franks, in which Zacharias applied the title to the priests of Paris to distinguish them from country clergy. This meaning of the word spread rapidly, and from the 9th century various episcopal cities had a special class among the clergy known as cardinals. The use of the title was reserved for the cardinals of Rome in 1567 by Pius V.
In what year did Pope Pius IV wrote abou tthe selecting of cardinals?
56dde8fd66d3e219004dade9
1563
12
False
Who was in charge of the Ecumenical Council of Trent?
56dde8fd66d3e219004dadea
Pope Pius IV
72
False
In what year did the Ecumenical Council of Trent write in regards to the selection of Cardinals?
56def865c65bf219000b3e5b
1563
12
False
Who was the pope who headed the Ecumencial Council of Trent in that year?
56def865c65bf219000b3e5c
Pope Pius IV
72
False
1563
12
What year did the Ecumenical Council of Trent headed by Pope Zacharius write about the importance of selecting good cardinals?
5ad2e52d604f3c001a3fd901
True
Pope Pius IV
72
Who led the Ecumenical Council of Thames?
5ad2e52d604f3c001a3fd902
True
most select persons only, and appoint to each church most eminently upright and competent shepherds
408
Who did the historic council determine that the College of Cardinals should select as cardinals?
5ad2e52d604f3c001a3fd903
True
at his hands the blood of the sheep of Christ that perish through the evil government of shepherds who are negligent and forgetful of their office."
574
What did our Lord Jesus Christ not require according to the Council of Trent?
5ad2e52d604f3c001a3fd904
True
the evil government of shepherds
640
Who would not be negligent or forgetful of their office?
5ad2e52d604f3c001a3fd905
True
In the year 1563 the influential Ecumenical Council of Trent, headed by Pope Pius IV, wrote about the importance of selecting good Cardinals. According to this historic council "nothing is more necessary to the Church of God than that the holy Roman pontiff apply that solicitude which by the duty of his office he owes the universal Church in a very special way by associating with himself as cardinals the most select persons only, and appoint to each church most eminently upright and competent shepherds; and this the more so, because our Lord Jesus Christ will require at his hands the blood of the sheep of Christ that perish through the evil government of shepherds who are negligent and forgetful of their office."
Who were generally temporal rulers?
56dde98d9a695914005b96aa
French kings
54
False
French kings
54
Who reasserted the earliest influence of temporal subjects?
5ad2e74a604f3c001a3fd95d
True
cardinals
111
Who did the English kings appoint to influence politically significant movement?
5ad2e74a604f3c001a3fd95e
True
so-called crown-cardinal.
364
What tradition in England, France, and Portugal developed entitling certain political influencers to nominate their trusted subjects?
5ad2e74a604f3c001a3fd95f
True
French kings
54
Who did not reassert themselves through the influence of cardinals?
5ad2e74a604f3c001a3fd960
True
The earlier influence of temporal rulers, notably the French kings, reasserted itself through the influence of cardinals of certain nationalities or politically significant movements. Traditions even developed entitling certain monarchs, including those of Austria, Spain, and Portugal, to nominate one of their trusted clerical subjects to be created cardinal, a so-called crown-cardinal.[citation needed]
In what roles did cardinals have important roles?
56ddea8366d3e219004dae05
secular affairs.
62
False
What Caridinal had powers so great that he basically ran France?
56ddea8366d3e219004dae07
Cardinal Richelieu
206
False
Which cardinal acted a the leader of France due to his amount of power?
56df0f68c65bf219000b3f12
Cardinal Richelieu
206
False
Who is the only person to ever become a cardinal king?
56df0f68c65bf219000b3f14
Henry, King of Portugal
549
False
important roles
43
What role did priests have in secular affairs?
5ad2e80c604f3c001a3fd97b
True
cardinals
23
Who did not take powerful positions in government?
5ad2e80c604f3c001a3fd97c
True
Cardinal Wolsey
189
Who acted as Henry VI's chief minister?
5ad2e80c604f3c001a3fd97d
True
Richelieu
306
Which cardinal had power so great that he effectively ruled England?
5ad2e80c604f3c001a3fd97e
True
Richelieu successor was also a cardinal, Jules Mazarin. Guillaume Dubois and André-Hercule de Fleury
306
What five great cardinals once ruled France?
5ad2e80c604f3c001a3fd97f
True
In early modern times, cardinals often had important roles in secular affairs. In some cases, they took on powerful positions in government. In Henry VIII's England, his chief minister was Cardinal Wolsey. Cardinal Richelieu's power was so great that he was for many years effectively the ruler of France. Richelieu successor was also a cardinal, Jules Mazarin. Guillaume Dubois and André-Hercule de Fleury complete the list of the "four great" cardinals to have ruled France.[citation needed] In Portugal, due to a succession crisis, one cardinal, Henry, King of Portugal, was crowned king, the only example of a cardinal-king.
Pope Sixtus V limited the number of cardinals to?
56ddeb0c9a695914005b96b8
70
49
False
What did the composition of the cardinals consist of?
56ddeb0c9a695914005b96b9
comprising six cardinal bishops, 50 cardinal priests, and 14 cardinal deacons.
53
False
During who's term did the ruling exceed?
56ddeb0c9a695914005b96ba
Pope John XXIII
163
False
Pope Paul VI increse the number of cardinal electors to?
56ddeb0c9a695914005b96bb
120
297
False
What is the maximum age for electors?
56ddeb0c9a695914005b96bc
80
698
False
Pope Paul VI raised the cap on cardinal electors from 70 to what?
56df10063277331400b4d92b
120
297
False
Pope Paul VI had no cap on what?
56df10063277331400b4d92c
the number of cardinals generally
322
False
70
49
What was the limit of cardinals that Pope Pius implemented?
5ad2e95d604f3c001a3fd9b5
True
six cardinal bishops, 50 cardinal priests, and 14 cardinal deacons
64
What did the composition of popes consist of?
5ad2e95d604f3c001a3fd9b6
True
Pope Paul VI
232
Who implemented the maximum age of 60 years for electors?
5ad2e95d604f3c001a3fd9b7
True
Pope Paul VI
719
Who gave a rank to patriarchs of the Western Catholic Churches?
5ad2e95d604f3c001a3fd9b8
True
church laws and have sometimes brought the number of cardinals under the age of 80 to more than 120.
618
What can popes not dispense from?
5ad2e95d604f3c001a3fd9b9
True
Pope Sixtus V limited the number of cardinals to 70, comprising six cardinal bishops, 50 cardinal priests, and 14 cardinal deacons. Starting in the pontificate of Pope John XXIII, that limit has been exceeded. At the start of 1971, Pope Paul VI set the number of cardinal electors at a maximum of 120, but set no limit on the number of cardinals generally. He also established a maximum age of eighty years for electors. His action deprived twenty-five living cardinals, including the three living cardinals elevated by Pope Pius XI, of the right to participate in a conclave.[citation needed] Popes can dispense from church laws and have sometimes brought the number of cardinals under the age of 80 to more than 120. Pope Paul VI also increased the number of cardinal bishops by giving that rank to patriarchs of the Eastern Catholic Churches.
Where do the cardinals work?
56ddeba09a695914005b96c2
a church in the city of Rome or one of the suburbicarian sees
48
False
cardinals possess no power of governance nor are they to intervene
192
What do cardinals do in order to influence governing or administration of goods, discipline, or service of their titular churches?
5ad2ece2604f3c001a3fd9d5
True
city of Rome or one of the suburbicarian sees
64
Which Moroccan cities do cardinals get assigned to their titular church?
5ad2ece2604f3c001a3fd9d6
True
celebrate Mass and hear confessions and lead visits and pilgrimages to their titular churches
401
What duties are nuns allowed to perform?
5ad2ece2604f3c001a3fd9d7
True
Cardinals
597
Who does not offer monetary support to their titular churches?
5ad2ece2604f3c001a3fd9d8
True
keep in contact with the pastoral staffs of their titular churches.
610
What do many nuns do for their titular churches?
5ad2ece2604f3c001a3fd9d9
True
Each cardinal takes on a titular church, either a church in the city of Rome or one of the suburbicarian sees. The only exception is for patriarchs of Eastern Catholic Churches. Nevertheless, cardinals possess no power of governance nor are they to intervene in any way in matters which pertain to the administration of goods, discipline, or the service of their titular churches. They are allowed to celebrate Mass and hear confessions and lead visits and pilgrimages to their titular churches, in coordination with the staff of the church. They often support their churches monetarily, and many Cardinals do keep in contact with the pastoral staffs of their titular churches.
Who receives the hishopric of Ostia?
56ddec019a695914005b96ca
The Dean of the College of Cardinals
0
False
What other title does the Dean of Collge of Cardinals receive upon appointment?
56df108ac65bf219000b3f1b
titular bishopric of Ostia
92
False
The Dean of the College of Cardinals
0
Who receives the titular bisphoric of Tok Hangari?
5ad2ee21604f3c001a3fd9e7
True
titular bishopric of Ostia
92
What other title does the Dean of the College of Priests receive upon appointment?
5ad2ee21604f3c001a3fd9e8
True
that church
198
What do nuns retain if they are governing a particular church?
5ad2ee21604f3c001a3fd9e9
True
titular bishopric of Ostia
92
What is other title does the President of the College of Cardinals receive?
5ad2ee21604f3c001a3fd9ea
True
The Dean of the College of Cardinals in addition to such a titular church also receives the titular bishopric of Ostia, the primary suburbicarian see. Cardinals governing a particular Church retain that church.
In was year was the title decreed Eminence?
56ddec6666d3e219004dae0f
1630
3
False
Who decreed this?
56ddec6666d3e219004dae10
Pope Urban VIII
9
False
What rank did the Eminece decree assigned?
56ddec6666d3e219004dae11
Prince
176
False
Who held more power then the cardinal?
56ddec6666d3e219004dae12
the Pope and crowned monarchs
214
False
Which pope decided that being pope was equal to being a prince?
56df057ec65bf219000b3ee3
Pope Urban VIII
9
False
1630
3
What year did Pope Pious II decree their title to be Eminence?
5ad2ef2b604f3c001a3fd9f7
True
previously, it had been "illustrissimo" and "reverendissimo"
61
What did was the title of the pope before 1630?
5ad2ef2b604f3c001a3fd9f8
True
Pope Urban VIII
9
Who decreed that their secular rank would equate to king?
5ad2ef2b604f3c001a3fd9f9
True
Pope and crowned monarchs.
218
Who held less power then the cardinal?
5ad2ef2b604f3c001a3fd9fa
True
In 1630, Pope Urban VIII decreed their title to be Eminence (previously, it had been "illustrissimo" and "reverendissimo")  and decreed that their secular rank would equate to Prince, making them secondary only to the Pope and crowned monarchs.
The Archdiocese of Milwaukee says that the correct way to address a cardinal in English is?
56dded029a695914005b96cf
"Cardinal [First name] [Surname]"
555
False
What is the proper way to address a cardinal according to the Archdiocese of Milwaukee?
56df08cb3277331400b4d8e3
Cardinal [First name] [Surname]
556
False
How do cardinals sign traditionally?
56df08cb3277331400b4d8e4
by placing the title "Cardinal" (abbreviated Card.) after their personal name and before their surname
40
False
How do Oriental Patriarchs sign?
56df08cb3277331400b4d8e5
Sanctae Ecclesiae Cardinalis
833
False
Why do Oriental Patriarchs sign this way?
56df08cb3277331400b4d8e6
because they do not belong to the Roman clergy
893
False
"Cardinal [First name] [Surname]
555
What is not the correct way to address a cardinal according to the Archdiocese of Milwaukee?
5ad2f080604f3c001a3fda0d
True
by placing the title "Cardinal" (abbreviated Card.) after their personal name and before their surname
40
How do cardinals sign that is not in accordance with tradition?
5ad2f080604f3c001a3fda0e
True
"Cardinal [First name] [Surname]"
555
What style is generally not followed on the websites of the Holy See and episcopal conferences?
5ad2f080604f3c001a3fda0f
True
Sanctae Ecclesiae Cardinalis
833
How do English Patriarchs typically sign?
5ad2f080604f3c001a3fda10
True
Oriental Patriarchs
770
Who does not belong to the French clergy?
5ad2f080604f3c001a3fda11
True
In accordance with tradition, they sign by placing the title "Cardinal" (abbreviated Card.) after their personal name and before their surname as, for instance, "John Card(inal) Doe" or, in Latin, "Ioannes Card(inalis) Cognomen". Some writers, such as James-Charles Noonan, hold that, in the case of cardinals, the form used for signatures should be used also when referring to them in English. Official sources such as the Archdiocese of Milwaukee and Catholic News Service say that the correct form for referring to a cardinal in English is normally as "Cardinal [First name] [Surname]". This is the rule given also in stylebooks not associated with the Catholic Church. This style is also generally followed on the websites of the Holy See and episcopal conferences. Oriental Patriarchs who are created Cardinals customarily use "Sanctae Ecclesiae Cardinalis" as their full title, probably because they do not belong to the Roman clergy.
What way is used to announce the election of a new pope in Latin?
56ddee7066d3e219004dae25
[First name] Cardinal [Surname]
33
False
What should the new pople have been before becoming a pope?
56ddee7066d3e219004dae26
Cardinal
46
False
When was the most recent election of a non-cardinal?
56ddee7066d3e219004dae27
1378
630
False
When is the last time a non cardinal was elected as pope?
56df090bc65bf219000b3ef1
1378
630
False
[First name] Cardinal [Surname]
33
What way is used in the proclamation of the election of a new nun in Latin?
5ad2f1ba604f3c001a3fda1f
True
Cardinal
441
What should a new pope not have been before becoming a pope?
5ad2f1ba604f3c001a3fda20
True
Annuntio vobis gaudium magnum; habemus Papam: Eminentissimum ac Reverendissimum Dominum, Dominum (first name) Sanctae Romanae Ecclesiae Cardinalem
159
How should a new pope not be addresses by the Cardinal protodeacon?
5ad2f1ba604f3c001a3fda21
True
1378
630
When was the last election of a cardinal?
5ad2f1ba604f3c001a3fda22
True
In Latin, on the other hand, the [First name] Cardinal [Surname] order is used in the proclamation of the election of a new pope by the cardinal protodeacon: "Annuntio vobis gaudium magnum; habemus Papam: Eminentissimum ac Reverendissimum Dominum, Dominum (first name) Sanctae Romanae Ecclesiae Cardinalem (last name), ..." (Meaning: "I announce to you a great joy; we have a Pope: The Most Eminent and Most Reverend Lord, Lord (first name) Cardinal of the Holy Roman Church (last name), ...") This assumes that the new pope had been a cardinal just before becoming pope; the most recent election of a non-cardinal as pope was in 1378.
Do any sees carry the right to the cardinalate?
56ddf05366d3e219004dae2f
no
185
False
Despite some traditions and rights, no see has the right to what?
56df09693277331400b4d8f5
the cardinalate
219
False
no see carries an actual right
185
Which see carries a right to the cardinalate?
5ad2f62e604f3c001a3fda63
True
not even if its bishop is a Patriarch
236
Which bishop carries an actual right to the cardinalate?
5ad2f62e604f3c001a3fda64
True
some countries
68
Who is not sometimes entitled to at least one cardinal by concordate?
5ad2f62e604f3c001a3fda65
True
incumbents of some sees
10
Who are not regularly made cardinals?
5ad2f62e604f3c001a3fda66
True
While the incumbents of some sees are regularly made cardinals, and some countries are entitled to at least one cardinal by concordate (usually earning its primate the cardinal's hat), no see carries an actual right to the cardinalate, not even if its bishop is a Patriarch.
Who are among the most senior members of the Catholic Church?
56ddf0d99a695914005b96f6
Cardinal bishops
0
False
What is a cardinal bishop?
56ddf0d99a695914005b96f7
cardinals of the episcopal order
18
False
Some cardinals are bishop in name only, what are they called?
56df0a4e3277331400b4d901
Cardinal bishops
0
False
Cardinal bishops
0
Who is among the most junior prelates of the Catholic Church?
5ad2f254604f3c001a3fda2d
True
Cardinal bishops
0
What is a cardinal of the Benedictine order?
5ad2f254604f3c001a3fda2e
True
bishops
158
What are most cardinals not known as in modern times?
5ad2f254604f3c001a3fda2f
True
only refers to the cardinals who are titular bishops of one of the "suburbicarian" sees.
194
What does the term "cardinal bishop" not refer to?
5ad2f254604f3c001a3fda30
True
Cardinal bishops (cardinals of the episcopal order) are among the most senior prelates of the Catholic Church. Though in modern times most cardinals are also bishops, the term "cardinal bishop" only refers to the cardinals who are titular bishops of one of the "suburbicarian" sees.
In early times, who was generally electied to cardinal?
56ddf1759a695914005b9706
a Roman priest
136
False
Why did the ceromony of consecrating a bishop have to be preformed by someone who was already a bishop?
56ddf1759a695914005b9707
To preserve apostolic succession
186
False
What is the rule if the peson elected is not a bishop?
56ddf1759a695914005b9708
he is consecrated by the Dean of the College of Cardinals, the Cardinal Bishop of Ostia.
385
False
What happens if a Pope is elected who is not a bishop?
56df0afa3277331400b4d90d
he is consecrated by the Dean of the College of Cardinals, the Cardinal Bishop of Ostia.
385
False
the privilege of papal election
16
What was reserved for the cardinals in early times?
5ad2f313604f3c001a3fda3b
True
a Roman priest
136
Who was generally not elected to cardinal in early times?
5ad2f313604f3c001a3fda3c
True
he is consecrated by the Dean of the College of Cardinals, the Cardinal Bishop of Ostia.
385
What is the rule if the person elected is a bishop?
5ad2f313604f3c001a3fda3d
True
he is consecrated by the Dean of the College of Cardinals, the Cardinal Bishop of Ostia.
385
What happens if a Nun is elected who is not a bishop?
5ad2f313604f3c001a3fda3e
True
In early times, the privilege of papal election was not reserved to the cardinals, and for centuries the person elected was customarily a Roman priest and never a bishop from elsewhere. To preserve apostolic succession the rite of consecrating him a bishop had to be performed by someone who was already a bishop. The rule remains that, if the person elected Pope is not yet a bishop, he is consecrated by the Dean of the College of Cardinals, the Cardinal Bishop of Ostia.
How many suburbicarian sees?
56ddf1f266d3e219004dae43
seven
10
False
When were the two sees combined?
56ddf1f266d3e219004dae45
1150 until 1914
166
False
Who separated them?
56ddf1f266d3e219004dae46
Pope Pius X
188
False
What are the seven sees?
56df0b313277331400b4d911
Ostia, Albano, Porto and Santa Rufina, Palestrina, Sabina and Mentana, Frascati and Velletri
36
False
Ostia, Albano, Porto and Santa Rufina, Palestrina, Sabina and Mentana, Frascati and Velletri
36
What are the name of the eight suburbicarian sees?
5ad2f87c604f3c001a3fda71
True
Velletri was united with Ostia
130
Which two sees were united from 1250 to 1944?
5ad2f87c604f3c001a3fda72
True
separated them again
200
What did Pope Pius II do to Velletri and Ostia in 1914?
5ad2f87c604f3c001a3fda73
True
cardinal bishop became Dean of the College of Cardinals would keep the suburbicarian see he already held, adding to it that of Ostia
248
How did Pope Pius X maintain only four cardinal bishops?
5ad2f87c604f3c001a3fda74
True
the suburbicarian see he already held
315
What suburbicarian would the President of the College of Cardinal keep in addition to that Velletri?
5ad2f87c604f3c001a3fda75
True
There are seven suburbicarian sees: Ostia, Albano, Porto and Santa Rufina, Palestrina, Sabina and Mentana, Frascati and Velletri. Velletri was united with Ostia from 1150 until 1914, when Pope Pius X separated them again, but decreed that whatever cardinal bishop became Dean of the College of Cardinals would keep the suburbicarian see he already held, adding to it that of Ostia, with the result that there continued to be only six cardinal bishops.
Cardinal bishops do not have any powers of governnace over the suburibicarian see since when?
56ddf25a9a695914005b9714
1962
6
False
Which see doesn't have its own bishop?
56ddf25a9a695914005b9716
Ostia
186
False
Who is in charge of Ostia?
56ddf25a9a695914005b9717
Cardinal Vicar of the see of Rome is apostolic administrator.
206
False
In what year was it decided that cardinal bishops had no power over the seven sees?
56df0baf3277331400b4d913
1962
6
False
What see is the one exception to this rule?
56df0baf3277331400b4d914
Ostia
186
False
Who has power over the exception?
56df0baf3277331400b4d915
the Cardinal Vicar of the see of Rome
202
False
only a titular relationship
38
What type of relationship did the pope have with suburbicarian sees?
5ad2f9f5604f3c001a3fda7b
True
cardinal bishops
16
Who had powers of governance over suburbicarian sees?
5ad2f9f5604f3c001a3fda7c
True
1962
6
In what year did cardinal bishops have the powers of governance over suburbicarian sees?
5ad2f9f5604f3c001a3fda7d
True
Cardinal Vicar of the see of Rome
206
Who is the bishop of Ostia?
5ad2f9f5604f3c001a3fda7e
True
its own bishop
148
Which does each see not have with the exception of Ostia?
5ad2f9f5604f3c001a3fda7f
True
Since 1962, the cardinal bishops have only a titular relationship with the suburbicarian sees, with no powers of governance over them. Each see has its own bishop, with the exception of Ostia, in which the Cardinal Vicar of the see of Rome is apostolic administrator.
The entire group of cardinals is known as what?
56def231c65bf219000b3e4c
College of Cardinals
352
False
A cardinal
0
Who is a junior ecclesiastical leader in the Holy Roman Church?
5ad2da65d7d075001a42a4a6
True
the College of Cardinals
348
What are the cardinals of the church not collectively known as?
5ad2da65d7d075001a42a4a7
True
attending the meetings of the College and making themselves available individually or in groups to the Pope as requested.
410
What duties do cardinals not perform?
5ad2da65d7d075001a42a4a8
True
electing the pope when the see becomes vacant.
676
What is a priest's primary duty?
5ad2da65d7d075001a42a4a9
True
the College of Cardinals
894
Who does not oversee the day-to-day governance during the sede vacante?
5ad2da65d7d075001a42a4aa
True
A cardinal (Latin: sanctae romanae ecclesiae cardinalis, literally cardinal of the Holy Roman Church) is a senior ecclesiastical leader, an ecclesiastical prince, and usually (now always for those created when still within the voting age-range) an ordained bishop of the Roman Catholic Church. The cardinals of the Church are collectively known as the College of Cardinals. The duties of the cardinals include attending the meetings of the College and making themselves available individually or in groups to the Pope as requested. Most have additional duties, such as leading a diocese or archdiocese or managing a department of the Roman Curia. A cardinal's primary duty is electing the pope when the see becomes vacant. During the sede vacante (the period between a pope's death or resignation and the election of his successor), the day-to-day governance of the Holy See is in the hands of the College of Cardinals. The right to enter the conclave of cardinals where the pope is elected is limited to those who have not reached the age of 80 years by the day the vacancy occurs.
Who is the only person who can judge a Cardinal in regards to laws of the church?
56def8cbc65bf219000b3e5f
the pope
138
False
exemption from being judged by ecclesiastical tribunals of ordinary rank
58
What does the privilege of democracy guarantee cardinals and popes?
5ad31a2e604f3c001a3fdb69
True
the pope
138
Who is forbidden to judge cardinals in matters subject to ecclesiastical jurisdiction?
5ad31a2e604f3c001a3fdb6a
True
the case
511
What does the pope either decide or delegates the decision to the the College of Cardinals?
5ad31a2e604f3c001a3fdb6b
True
to the civil and criminal law
797
What are cardinals not subject to like everybody else?
5ad31a2e604f3c001a3fdb6c
True
Cardinals have in canon law a "privilege of forum" (i.e., exemption from being judged by ecclesiastical tribunals of ordinary rank): only the pope is competent to judge them in matters subject to ecclesiastical jurisdiction (cases that refer to matters that are spiritual or linked with the spiritual, or with regard to infringement of ecclesiastical laws and whatever contains an element of sin, where culpability must be determined and the appropriate ecclesiastical penalty imposed). The pope either decides the case himself or delegates the decision to a tribunal, usually one of the tribunals or congregations of the Roman Curia. Without such delegation, no ecclesiastical court, even the Roman Rota, is competent to judge a canon law case against a cardinal. Cardinals are, however, subject to the civil and criminal law like everybody else.
What does the pope give to a new Cardinal?
56def9503277331400b4d857
a gold ring
86
False
Who decides on the design of the item given to new Cardinals?
56def9503277331400b4d858
the pope
41
False
a gold ring
86
What does the pope give to each retiring cardinal?
5ad3183e604f3c001a3fdb5f
True
their bond with the papacy
13
What does the silver ring symbolize?
5ad3183e604f3c001a3fdb60
True
gold ring
88
What is traditionally kissed by Athiests when greeting a cardinal?
5ad3183e604f3c001a3fdb61
True
The ring
359
What includes the cardinal's coat of arms?
5ad3183e604f3c001a3fdb62
True
a modern depiction of the crucifixion of Jesus, with Mary and John to each side.
278
What image did Pope John Paul II depict on the outside of the ring?
5ad3183e604f3c001a3fdb63
True
To symbolize their bond with the papacy, the pope gives each newly appointed cardinal a gold ring, which is traditionally kissed by Catholics when greeting a cardinal (as with a bishop's episcopal ring). The pope chooses the image on the outside: under Pope Benedict XVI it was a modern depiction of the crucifixion of Jesus, with Mary and John to each side. The ring includes the pope's coat of arms on the inside.[citation needed]
What is the name of the hat that the pope used to wear when naming a new Cardinal?
56defa09c65bf219000b3e6b
a galero.
140
False
In what year did the practice of donning this item stop?
56defa09c65bf219000b3e6c
1969
182
False
What does the pope now wear when naming a new Cardinal?
56defa09c65bf219000b3e6d
scarlet biretta
232
False
galero
142
What was the name of the hat bestowed upon a pope upon his naming?
5ad31741604f3c001a3fdb55
True
bestow upon him a distinctive wide-brimmed hat
86
What custom was discontinued in 1959?
5ad31741604f3c001a3fdb56
True
galero
395
What do cardinals not have the right to display in their cathedral?
5ad31741604f3c001a3fdb57
True
it would be suspended from the ceiling above his tomb.
448
What would happen to a pope's gelero when he dies?
5ad31741604f3c001a3fdb58
True
galero
536
What is officially part of a cardinals apparel?
5ad31741604f3c001a3fdb59
True
In previous times, at the consistory at which the pope named a new cardinal, he would bestow upon him a distinctive wide-brimmed hat called a galero. This custom was discontinued in 1969 and the investiture now takes place with the scarlet biretta. In ecclesiastical heraldry, however, the scarlet galero is still displayed on the cardinal's coat of arms. Cardinals had the right to display the galero in their cathedral, and when a cardinal died, it would be suspended from the ceiling above his tomb. Some cardinals will still have a galero made, even though it is not officially part of their apparel.[citation needed]
Which Cardinals still wear traditional clothing?
56defa45c65bf219000b3e71
Eastern Catholic cardinals
0
False
the normal dress appropriate to their liturgical tradition
44
What do Western Catholic cardinals continue to wear?
5ad31659604f3c001a3fdb4d
True
their cassocks with scarlet and wear scarlet fascias,
125
What do Western Catholic cardinals sometimes line?
5ad31659604f3c001a3fdb4e
True
scarlet
237
What color are Western style cassocks made entirely of?
5ad31659604f3c001a3fdb4f
True
liturgical
82
What traditional dress do eastern Catholic deacons continue to wear?
5ad31659604f3c001a3fdb50
True
Eastern Catholic cardinals continue to wear the normal dress appropriate to their liturgical tradition, though some may line their cassocks with scarlet and wear scarlet fascias, or in some cases, wear Eastern-style cassocks entirely of scarlet.
What does the color red symbolize in the clothing worn by Cardinals?
56defb6dc65bf219000b3e7d
willingness to die for his faith
111
False
Which item of clothing worn by cardinals is always white?
56defb6dc65bf219000b3e7e
rochet
159
False
The Cardinal bird was named as such because of what in relation to Cardinals of the church?
56defb6dc65bf219000b3e7f
the scarlet color of cardinals' vesture
928
False
When did Cardinals stop wearing purple or blue capes?
56defb6dc65bf219000b3e80
1460s
489
False
red
83
What color is worn by popes when in choir dress?
5ad31566604f3c001a3fdb43
True
willingness to die for his faith
111
What does the blood like red not symbolize for a cardinal?
5ad31566604f3c001a3fdb44
True
a violet or blue cape
535
What was customary for cardinals to wear until the 1700's?
5ad31566604f3c001a3fdb45
True
for its scarlet color, but also for the fact that it does not have a pompon or tassel on the top
344
What is not distinctive about the biretta of a cardinal?
5ad31566604f3c001a3fdb46
True
scarlet
750
What color ferrailo does a pope occasionally wear?
5ad31566604f3c001a3fdb47
True
When in choir dress, a Latin-rite cardinal wears scarlet garments — the blood-like red symbolizes a cardinal's willingness to die for his faith. Excluding the rochet — which is always white — the scarlet garments include the cassock, mozzetta, and biretta (over the usual scarlet zucchetto). The biretta of a cardinal is distinctive not merely for its scarlet color, but also for the fact that it does not have a pompon or tassel on the top as do the birettas of other prelates. Until the 1460s, it was customary for cardinals to wear a violet or blue cape unless granted the privilege of wearing red when acting on papal business. His normal-wear cassock is black but has scarlet piping and a scarlet fascia (sash). Occasionally, a cardinal wears a scarlet ferraiolo which is a cape worn over the shoulders, tied at the neck in a bow by narrow strips of cloth in the front, without any 'trim' or piping on it. It is because of the scarlet color of cardinals' vesture that the bird of the same name has become known as such.[citation needed]
What happens if a Cardinal is named in pectore, and the pope dies?
56defc6dc65bf219000b3e8f
the cardinalate expires
314
False
pope judges it safe to make the appointment public, he may do so at any time
34
What does the Pope do if conditions do not change?
5ad31430604f3c001a3fdb3b
True
the cardinalate expires.
314
What happens if a Cardinal is named in pectore and the president dies?
5ad31430604f3c001a3fdb3c
True
in pectore
218
Whose identity is not revealed if the pope dies?
5ad31430604f3c001a3fdb3d
True
in pectore
218
Who ranks secondary to those raised in the cardinalate at the time of his appointment?
5ad31430604f3c001a3fdb3e
True
If conditions change, so that the pope judges it safe to make the appointment public, he may do so at any time. The cardinal in question then ranks in precedence with those raised to the cardinalate at the time of his in pectore appointment. If a pope dies before revealing the identity of an in pectore cardinal, the cardinalate expires.
Which pope began using creati et reservati in pectore?
56defd5e3277331400b4d86c
Pope Martin V
108
False
by the contending popes
55
How were many Cardinals created during the Eastern Schism>?
5ad311b9604f3c001a3fdb2b
True
cardinals were created without publishing their names
123
What was published during the reign of Pope Martin V?
5ad311b9604f3c001a3fdb2c
True
creati et reservati in pectore.
197
What did Pope Pious V begin using?
5ad311b9604f3c001a3fdb2d
True
popes
73
What position was not being contended during the Western Schism?
5ad311b9604f3c001a3fdb2e
True
During the Western Schism, many cardinals were created by the contending popes. Beginning with the reign of Pope Martin V, cardinals were created without publishing their names until later, termed creati et reservati in pectore.
What was a "lay cardinal" allowed to do that is not considered a normal status of a Cardinal?
56defedf3277331400b4d870
marry
230
False
In what year did Pope Benedict XV revise the Code of Canon Law?
56defedf3277331400b4d871
1917
448
False
What did the Code of Canon Law state in regards to Cardinals?
56defedf3277331400b4d872
only those who are already priests or bishops may be appointed cardinals
474
False
marry
230
What was a lay cardinal not allowed to do that is not considered a normal status of a Cardinal?
5ad3102b604f3c001a3fdb23
True
Teodolfo Mertel
237
Who was among the first lay cardinal?
5ad3102b604f3c001a3fdb24
True
1917
448
What year did Pope Benedict X revise the Code of Canon Law?
5ad3102b604f3c001a3fdb25
True
only those who are already priests or bishops may be appointed cardinals.
474
Who may not be appointed cardinals according the revision of Code of Cannon Law?
5ad3102b604f3c001a3fdb26
True
At various times, there have been cardinals who had only received first tonsure and minor orders but not yet been ordained as deacons or priests. Though clerics, they were inaccurately called "lay cardinals" and were permitted to marry. Teodolfo Mertel was among the last of the lay cardinals. When he died in 1899 he was the last surviving cardinal who was not at least ordained a priest. With the revision of the Code of Canon Law promulgated in 1917 by Pope Benedict XV, only those who are already priests or bishops may be appointed cardinals. Since the time of Pope John XXIII a priest who is appointed a cardinal must be consecrated a bishop, unless he obtains a dispensation.
A cardinal who does not hold the title of "bishop" may not do what?
56deffe0c65bf219000b3ebb
perform the functions reserved solely to bishops, such as ordination
366
False
Cardinals who were not bishops have been promoted to Cardinal around the age of 80 since what year?
56deffe0c65bf219000b3ebc
1962
468
False
the episcopal vestments and other pontificalia
65
What is a cardinal who is a bishop entitles to wear and use?
5ad30f62604f3c001a3fdb1b
True
mitre, crozier, zucchetto, pectoral cross and ring
132
What six items make up the episcopal regalia?
5ad30f62604f3c001a3fdb1c
True
perform the functions reserved solely to bishops, such as ordination.
366
What may a cardinal who does not hold the title of "bishop" do?
5ad30f62604f3c001a3fdb1d
True
1962
468
What year were cardinals were were bishops have been promoted to Cardinal around the age of 80?
5ad30f62604f3c001a3fdb1e
True
A cardinal who is not a bishop is still entitled to wear and use the episcopal vestments and other pontificalia (episcopal regalia: mitre, crozier, zucchetto, pectoral cross and ring). Even if not a bishop, any cardinal has both actual and honorary precedence over non-cardinal patriarchs, as well as the archbishops and bishops who are not cardinals, but he cannot perform the functions reserved solely to bishops, such as ordination. The prominent priests who since 1962 were not ordained bishops on their elevation to the cardinalate were over the age of 80 or near to it, and so no cardinal who was not a bishop has participated in recent papal conclaves.
In what year did the practice of allowing non priests to become Cardinals stop?
56df009f3277331400b4d887
1917
6
False
In what year was it declared that Cardinals had to be bishops?
56df009f3277331400b4d888
1962
407
False
a cardinal
98
What was possible for someone to become who was not a priest, but only in major orders?
5ad30e3b604f3c001a3fdb11
True
lay cardinals
115
Who was enrolled only in the order of cardinal laymen?
5ad30e3b604f3c001a3fdb12
True
1962
407
What year did Pope John XX set the norm that all cardinals be ordained as bishops?
5ad30e3b604f3c001a3fdb13
True
canon 351
582
What canon does not require that a cardinal be at least in the order of priesthood at his appointment?
5ad30e3b604f3c001a3fdb14
True
1917
6
What year did the practice of allowing nuns to become Cardinals stop?
5ad30e3b604f3c001a3fdb15
True
Until 1917, it was possible for someone who was not a priest, but only in minor orders, to become a cardinal (see "lay cardinals", below), but they were enrolled only in the order of cardinal deacons. For example, in the 16th century, Reginald Pole was a cardinal for 18 years before he was ordained a priest. In 1917 it was established that all cardinals, even cardinal deacons, had to be priests, and, in 1962, Pope John XXIII set the norm that all cardinals be ordained as bishops, even if they are only priests at the time of appointment. As a consequence of these two changes, canon 351 of the 1983 Code of Canon Law requires that a cardinal be at least in the order of priesthood at his appointment, and that those who are not already bishops must receive episcopal consecration. Several cardinals aged over 80 or close to it when appointed have obtained dispensation from the rule of having to be a bishop. These were all appointed cardinal-deacons, but one of them, Roberto Tucci, lived long enough to exercise the right of option and be promoted to the rank of cardinal-priest.
In the time between electing new popes, what is the duty of the cardinal?
56df00ebc65bf219000b3ec3
collate information about the financial situation of all administrations dependent on the Holy See and present the results to the College of Cardinals
244
False
The Cardinal Camerlengo of the Holy Roman Church, assisted by the Vice-Camerlengo and the other prelates of the office
0
What four entities make up the Apostolic Camera?
5ad30d26604f3c001a3fdb09
True
Apostolic Camera
132
Who has functions that are not limited to a period of sede vacante of the papacy?
5ad30d26604f3c001a3fdb0a
True
The Cardinal Camerlengo of the Holy Roman Church
0
Who does nor collate information about the financial situation of all dependent administrations of the Holy See?
5ad30d26604f3c001a3fdb0b
True
Cardinal Camerlengo
4
Who does not have the responsibility of presenting results to the College of Cardinals?
5ad30d26604f3c001a3fdb0c
True
The Cardinal Camerlengo of the Holy Roman Church, assisted by the Vice-Camerlengo and the other prelates of the office known as the Apostolic Camera, has functions that in essence are limited to a period of sede vacante of the papacy. He is to collate information about the financial situation of all administrations dependent on the Holy See and present the results to the College of Cardinals, as they gather for the papal conclave.
Who announces the election of a new pope?
56df0174c65bf219000b3ec5
The cardinal protodeacon
0
False
Where does this person announce the election of the new pope?
56df0174c65bf219000b3ec6
from the central balcony at the Basilica of Saint Peter in Vatican City State
215
False
Who was the first pope who chose not to be crowned?
56df0174c65bf219000b3ec7
Pope John Paul I
466
False
cardinal protodeacon
4
Who does not have the privilege of announcing a new pope's election?
5ad30c5b604f3c001a3fdaff
True
cardinal protodeacon
4
What is the junior cardinal deacon in order of appointment to the College of Cardinals also known as?
5ad30c5b604f3c001a3fdb00
True
chose not to be crowned
483
Who announced Pope John Paul I coronation in 1976?
5ad30c5b604f3c001a3fdb01
True
of crowning a new pope
658
What Cardinal protodeacon's privilege was continued after the election of Pope John Paul I?
5ad30c5b604f3c001a3fdb02
True
cardinal proto-deacon
1054
What position does Renato Raffaele Martinez currently hold?
5ad30c5b604f3c001a3fdb03
True
The cardinal protodeacon, the senior cardinal deacon in order of appointment to the College of Cardinals, has the privilege of announcing a new pope's election and name (once he has been ordained to the Episcopate) from the central balcony at the Basilica of Saint Peter in Vatican City State. In the past, during papal coronations, the proto-deacon also had the honor of bestowing the pallium on the new pope and crowning him with the papal tiara. However, in 1978 Pope John Paul I chose not to be crowned and opted for a simpler papal inauguration ceremony, and his three successors followed that example. As a result, the Cardinal protodeacon's privilege of crowning a new pope has effectively ceased although it could be revived if a future Pope were to restore a coronation ceremony. However, the proto-deacon still has the privilege of bestowing the pallium on a new pope at his papal inauguration. “Acting in the place of the Roman Pontiff, he also confers the pallium upon metropolitan bishops or gives the pallium to their proxies.” The current cardinal proto-deacon is Renato Raffaele Martino.
What color is the hat?
56df0244c65bf219000b3ecc
white
260
False
by the dalmatics they would don with the simple white mitre
212
How are Cardinal deacons recognized at Masses?
5ad30ab4604f3c001a3fdaf7
True
by the dalmatics they would don with the simple white mitre
212
How are Cardinal deacons recognized at Ecumenical Meetings?
5ad30ab4604f3c001a3fdaf8
True
by the dalmatics they would don with the simple white mitre
212
How are Cardinal deacons recognized at quarterly Urbi et Orbi papal blessings?
5ad30ab4604f3c001a3fdaf9
True
dalmatics
219
What do nuns wear in addition to the simple white mitre?
5ad30ab4604f3c001a3fdafa
True
When not celebrating Mass but still serving a liturgical function, such as the semiannual Urbi et Orbi papal blessing, some Papal Masses and some events at Ecumenical Councils, cardinal deacons can be recognized by the dalmatics they would don with the simple white mitre (so called mitra simplex).
How many cardinal deacons were there in 2005?
56df02b23277331400b4d8a7
30
103
False
How many years before a cardinal deacon can choose the order of the cardinal priests?
56df02b23277331400b4d8a8
10 years
283
False
50
28
How many churches are recognized as cardinalatial deaconries in 2000?
5ad308c3604f3c001a3fdaed
True
30
103
How many cardinals were there in the order of popes?
5ad308c3604f3c001a3fdaee
True
opt for the order of cardinal priests
190
What have Cardinal deacons not had the right to do?
5ad308c3604f3c001a3fdaef
True
Cardinal deacons
141
Who may not take a vacant title?
5ad308c3604f3c001a3fdaf0
True
Cardinal deacons
141
Who may opt for the order of cardinal priests after they have been deacons for 30 years?
5ad308c3604f3c001a3fdaf1
True
As of 2005, there were over 50 churches recognized as cardinalatial deaconries, though there were only 30 cardinals of the order of deacons. Cardinal deacons have long enjoyed the right to "opt for the order of cardinal priests" (optazione) after they have been cardinal deacons for 10 years. They may on such elevation take a vacant "title" (a church allotted to a cardinal priest as the church in Rome with which he is associated) or their diaconal church may be temporarily elevated to a cardinal priest's "title" for that occasion. When elevated to cardinal priests, they take their precedence according to the day they were first made cardinal deacons (thus ranking above cardinal priests who were elevated to the college after them, regardless of order).
In 1939, how many Cardinals were Italian?
56df03d9c65bf219000b3ecf
about half
316
False
In 1994, how many Cardinals were Italian?
56df03d9c65bf219000b3ed0
third
378
False
the Roman Curia
65
Where are priests that are elevated to the diaconal order mainly officials of?
5ad307c0604f3c001a3fdae3
True
about half
316
How many Cardinals were French in 1939?
5ad307c0604f3c001a3fdae4
True
one third
374
How many Cardinals were French in 1994?
5ad307c0604f3c001a3fdae5
True
almost half
745
How many cardinals were members of the curia in 1929?
5ad307c0604f3c001a3fdae6
True
1587
581
What year did Pope Sixtus I fix the maximum size of the College of Cardinals?
5ad307c0604f3c001a3fdae7
True
Cardinals elevated to the diaconal order are mainly officials of the Roman Curia holding various posts in the church administration. Their number and influence has varied through the years. While historically predominantly Italian the group has become much more internationally diverse in later years. While in 1939 about half were Italian by 1994 the number was reduced to one third. Their influence in the election of the Pope has been considered important, they are better informed and connected than the dislocated cardinals but their level of unity has been varied. Under the 1587 decree of Pope Sixtus V, which fixed the maximum size of the College of Cardinals, there were 14 cardinal deacons. Later the number increased. As late as 1939 almost half of the cardinals were members of the curia. Pius XII reduced this percentage to 24 percent. John XXIII brought it back up to 37 percent but Paul VI brought it down to 27 percent where John Paul II has maintained this ratio.
What is the name of one of the deaconries in which Cardinals come from?
56df04563277331400b4d8b1
seven deacons in the Papal Household
44
False
the seven deacons in the Papal Household and the seven deacons
40
Where do Cardinal deacons not originally derive from?
5ad30688604f3c001a3fdad9
True
Cardinal deacons
0
Who is originally from the six deacons in the Papal Household?
5ad30688604f3c001a3fdada
True
the seven deacons
85
Who does not supervise the Church's works in the districts of Rome?
5ad30688604f3c001a3fdadb
True
church administration
197
Who did not provide all social services in Rome during the early Middle Ages?
5ad30688604f3c001a3fdadc
True
Cardinal deacons
292
Who is not given title to one of these seven deacons?
5ad30688604f3c001a3fdadd
True
Cardinal deacons derive originally from the seven deacons in the Papal Household and the seven deacons who supervised the Church's works in the districts of Rome during the early Middle Ages, when church administration was effectively the government of Rome and provided all social services. Cardinal deacons are given title to one of these deaconries.
Which cardinals are ranked lowest?
56df04ab3277331400b4d8b5
cardinal deacons
4
False
cardinal deacons
4
What title is given to the highest ranking cardinals?
5ad3057d604f3c001a3fdad1
True
lowest-ranking cardinals
29
What position do cardinal deacons not hold?
5ad3057d604f3c001a3fdad2
True
cardinal priests.
244
What do bishops become that are without diocesan responsibilities?
5ad3057d604f3c001a3fdad3
True
either officials of the Roman Curia or priests elevated after their 80th birthday.
100
What are cardinals who are not elevated to the diaconal order?
5ad3057d604f3c001a3fdad4
True
The cardinal deacons are the lowest-ranking cardinals. Cardinals elevated to the diaconal order are either officials of the Roman Curia or priests elevated after their 80th birthday. Bishops with diocesan responsibilities, however, are created cardinal priests.
Who can become the cardinal protopriest?
56df05323277331400b4d8c1
The cardinal who is the longest-serving member of the order of cardinal priests
0
False
Who is the cardinal protopriest at this time?
56df05323277331400b4d8c2
Paulo Evaristo Arns of Brazil
331
False
cardinal protopriest
90
What title is given to the newest member of the order of cardinal priests?
5ad3047d604f3c001a3fdac9
True
cardinal protopriest
307
What position does Paulo Evaristo Arns of Columbia currently hold?
5ad3047d604f3c001a3fdaca
True
cardinal protopriest
90
Whose ceremonial duties in the conclave continued after the age of 80?
5ad3047d604f3c001a3fdacb
True
cardinal protopriest
90
Who was accepted into the conclave after the age of 80?
5ad3047d604f3c001a3fdacc
True
The cardinal who is the longest-serving member of the order of cardinal priests is titled cardinal protopriest. He had certain ceremonial duties in the conclave that have effectively ceased because he would generally have already reached age 80, at which cardinals are barred from the conclave. The current cardinal protopriest is Paulo Evaristo Arns of Brazil.
In the College of Cardinals, the elected Dean needs the approval of who?
56df0c1a3277331400b4d91b
the Pope
246
False
The Dean of the College of Cardinals, or Cardinal-dean
0
Who does not need the approval of the Pope?
5ad2fda5604f3c001a3fda8f
True
Cardinal-dean
41
What is the Dean of the College of Humanities also known as?
5ad2fda5604f3c001a3fda90
True
Dean of the College of Cardinals, or Cardinal-dean
4
Who does not act as the primus inter pares of the College of Cardinals?
5ad2fda5604f3c001a3fda91
True
elected by the cardinal bishops holding suburbicarian sees from among their own number, an election, however, that must be approved by the Pope.
111
Who approves the appointment of the Cardinal-dean by the Pope?
5ad2fda5604f3c001a3fda92
True
dean
281
What position belonged by right to the shortest-serving of the cardinal bishops?
5ad2fda5604f3c001a3fda93
True
The Dean of the College of Cardinals, or Cardinal-dean, is the primus inter pares of the College of Cardinals, elected by the cardinal bishops holding suburbicarian sees from among their own number, an election, however, that must be approved by the Pope. Formerly the position of dean belonged by right to the longest-serving of the cardinal bishops.
Patriarch cardinals are not given what title?
56df0c8fc65bf219000b3f04
a suburbicarian see
433
False
be part of the episcopal order
186
What did Pope Paul VI decree in 1965 about the patriarchs of the Western Catholic Churches?
5ad2ff52604f3c001a3fda99
True
patriarchs of the Eastern Catholic Churches
78
Who ranked after the seven cardinal bishops of the suburbicarian sees?
5ad2ff52604f3c001a3fda9a
True
title of a suburbicarian see
424
What title did patriarch cardinals receive?
5ad2ff52604f3c001a3fda9b
True
three
529
How many Western Patriarchs are currently cardinal bishops?
5ad2ff52604f3c001a3fda9c
True
Patriarch cardinals
389
Who can elect the dean or become dean?
5ad2ff52604f3c001a3fda9d
True
In 1965, Pope Paul VI decreed in his motu proprio Ad Purpuratorum Patrum that patriarchs of the Eastern Catholic Churches who were named cardinals (i.e., patriarch cardinals) would also be part of the episcopal order, ranking after the six cardinal bishops of the suburbicarian sees (who had been relieved of direct responsibilities for those sees by Pope John XXIII three years earlier). Patriarch cardinals do not receive title of a suburbicarian see, and as such they cannot elect the dean or become dean. There are currently three Eastern Patriarchs who are cardinal bishops:
Who are the lowest ranking cardinals in the Catholic church?
56df0d11c65bf219000b3f0a
cardinal deacons
114
False
Who are the highest ranking cardinals in the Catholic Church?
56df0d11c65bf219000b3f0b
cardinal bishops
145
False
Which rank has the most cardinals?
56df0d11c65bf219000b3f0c
Cardinal priests
0
False
cardinal bishops
145
Who are the highest ranking priests in the Catholic church?
5ad30079604f3c001a3fdaa3
True
Cardinal priests
0
Who are the most numerous of the four orders of cardinals in the Catholic Church?
5ad30079604f3c001a3fdaa4
True
cardinal deacons
114
Who is the lowest ranking priest in the Catholic Church?
5ad30079604f3c001a3fdaa5
True
important dioceses throughout the world,
231
What are those named cardinal popes today generally bishops of?
5ad30079604f3c001a3fdaa6
True
Curial positions.
289
What position do some popes currently hold?
5ad30079604f3c001a3fdaa7
True
Cardinal priests are the most numerous of the three orders of cardinals in the Catholic Church, ranking above the cardinal deacons and below the cardinal bishops. Those who are named cardinal priests today are generally bishops of important dioceses throughout the world, though some hold Curial positions.
What was the original definition of a cardinal priest?
56df0d723277331400b4d91d
priests chosen by the pope
276
False
cardinal priest
27
What name was interpreted as meaning a cardinal who is of the order of popes?
5ad30171604f3c001a3fdaad
True
certain key priests of important churches of the Diocese of Rome
151
What does the name "cardinal popes" originally refer to?
5ad30171604f3c001a3fdaae
True
cardinal priest
27
What is the name of the important nuns that are chosen by the pope to advice him?
5ad30171604f3c001a3fdaaf
True
the pope
294
Who holds the title Cardinal of Rome?
5ad30171604f3c001a3fdab0
True
cardinal priest
27
What term did not gradually become exclusive to Rome to indicate those entrusted with electing the pope?
5ad30171604f3c001a3fdab1
True
In modern times, the name "cardinal priest" is interpreted as meaning a cardinal who is of the order of priests. Originally, however, this referred to certain key priests of important churches of the Diocese of Rome, who were recognized as the cardinal priests, the important priests chosen by the pope to advise him in his duties as Bishop of Rome (the Latin cardo means "hinge"). Certain clerics in many dioceses at the time, not just that of Rome, were said to be the key personnel — the term gradually became exclusive to Rome to indicate those entrusted with electing the bishop of Rome, the pope.
Each cardinal priest has what?
56df0de63277331400b4d921
a titular church in Rome
121
False
a titular church in Rome
121
What does every cardinal priest not have?
5ad30248604f3c001a3fdab7
True
the cardinalate
6
What has not been expanded beyond the Roman pastoral clergy and Roman Curia?
5ad30248604f3c001a3fdab8
True
all administrative rights cardinals had with regard to their titular churches
305
What did Pope Paul V abolish?
5ad30248604f3c001a3fdab9
True
the cardinal's name and coat of arms
391
What is not still posted in the church after Pope Paul VI abolished all administrative rights?
5ad30248604f3c001a3fdaba
True
celebrate mass and preach there if convenient when they are in Rome.
485
What are cardinals not expected to do?
5ad30248604f3c001a3fdabb
True
While the cardinalate has long been expanded beyond the Roman pastoral clergy and Roman Curia, every cardinal priest has a titular church in Rome, though they may be bishops or archbishops elsewhere, just as cardinal bishops are given one of the suburbicarian dioceses around Rome. Pope Paul VI abolished all administrative rights cardinals had with regard to their titular churches, though the cardinal's name and coat of arms are still posted in the church, and they are expected to celebrate mass and preach there if convenient when they are in Rome.
In what year did Pope Sixtus V put a cap on the number of cardinals in the College of Cardinals?
56df0e673277331400b4d925
1587
242
False
What was the maximum number allowed per Pope Sixtus V?
56df0e673277331400b4d926
70
336
False
Who removed the cap on cardinals in the College of the Cardinals?
56df0e673277331400b4d927
Pope John XXIII
561
False
cardinals
20
Who had a large number from the times of the Roman Empire to the Renaissance?
5ad303da604f3c001a3fdac1
True
expanded markedly
220
What happened to the College of the Cardinals in the 3rd century?
5ad303da604f3c001a3fdac2
True
Pope Sixtus V
248
Who sought to cap the number of the College at 50?
5ad303da604f3c001a3fdac3
True
Pope John XXIII
561
Who upheld the cap on cardinals in the College of the Cardinals?
5ad303da604f3c001a3fdac4
True
While the number of cardinals was small from the times of the Roman Empire to the Renaissance, and frequently smaller than the number of recognized churches entitled to a cardinal priest, in the 16th century the College expanded markedly. In 1587, Pope Sixtus V sought to arrest this growth by fixing the maximum size of the College at 70, including 50 cardinal priests, about twice the historical number. This limit was respected until 1958, and the list of titular churches modified only on rare occasions, generally when a building fell into disrepair. When Pope John XXIII abolished the limit, he began to add new churches to the list, which Popes Paul VI and John Paul II continued to do. Today there are close to 150 titular churches, out of over 300 churches in Rome.
fill vacancies that arose among the cardinal bishops
92
What were long-serving cardinal priests entitled to do ending in the mid-fifteenth century?
5ad2fb70604f3c001a3fda85
True
cardinal priests
223
What are cardinal deacons of eight years standing still entitled to become?
5ad2fb70604f3c001a3fda86
True
cardinals
253
Who has not been advanced to cardinal bishop exclusively by papal appointment?
5ad2fb70604f3c001a3fda87
True
exclusively by papal appointment
301
How have cardinals been advance to cardinal priests?
5ad2fb70604f3c001a3fda88
True
long-serving cardinal priests
45
Who filled vacancies that arose among the cardinal priests?
5ad2fb70604f3c001a3fda89
True
For a period ending in the mid-20th century, long-serving cardinal priests were entitled to fill vacancies that arose among the cardinal bishops, just as cardinal deacons of ten years' standing are still entitled to become cardinal priests. Since then, cardinals have been advanced to cardinal bishop exclusively by papal appointment.
in pectore
17
Which cardinal is known by all the Catholic Church?
5ad312ca604f3c001a3fdb33
True
not even the cardinal so named is necessarily aware of his elevation,
55
What does the cardinal named pectore know?
5ad312ca604f3c001a3fdb34
True
cannot function as a cardinal
142
What can a cardinal in pectore continue to function as?
5ad312ca604f3c001a3fdb35
True
named in pectore
230
What is done to cardinals that does not protect them or their congregations?
5ad312ca604f3c001a3fdb36
True
A cardinal named in pectore is known only to the pope; not even the cardinal so named is necessarily aware of his elevation, and in any event cannot function as a cardinal while his appointment is in pectore. Today, cardinals are named in pectore to protect them or their congregations from reprisals if their identities were known.
Iranian_languages
What is another term meaning Iranian languages?
56ddee969a695914005b96d2
Iranic languages
25
False
What are the Iranic languages a subgroup of?
56ddee969a695914005b96d3
Indo-Iranian languages
63
False
What are Indo-Iranian languages a subset of?
56ddee969a695914005b96d4
Indo-European language family
121
False
When did the change from Old Iranian to Middle Iranian occur?
56ddee969a695914005b96d5
400 BCE
293
False
What is an example of a Sassanid language?
56ddee969a695914005b96d6
Middle Persian
564
False
Middle Iranian
303
What stage of Iranian languages from 400 BCE to 900 CE includes old Persian?
5a18c2e19aa02b0018605eaa
True
Old Iranian
274
What stage of Iranian language was in use until 400 BCE and included Parthian and Bactrian?
5a18c2e19aa02b0018605eab
True
400 BCE
293
When did the change from old Iranian to new Iranian occur?
5a18c2e19aa02b0018605eac
True
Sassanid Iran
594
Where are the old Iranian languages Parthian and Bactrian from?
5a18c2e19aa02b0018605ead
True
The Iranian languages or Iranic languages form a branch of the Indo-Iranian languages, which in turn are a branch of the Indo-European language family. The speakers of Iranian languages are known as Iranian peoples. Historical Iranian languages are grouped in three stages: Old Iranian (until 400 BCE), Middle Iranian (400 BCE – 900 CE), and New Iranian (since 900 CE). Of the Old Iranian languages, the better understood and recorded ones are Old Persian (a language of Achaemenid Iran) and Avestan (the language of the Avesta). Middle Iranian languages included Middle Persian (a language of Sassanid Iran), Parthian, and Bactrian.
How many different Iranian languages exist?
56ddeed19a695914005b96dd
86
121
False
2008
6
In what year were there hundred and 50 to 200 Iranian languages
5a18c3b79aa02b0018605eb2
True
Persian, Pashto, Kurdish, and Balochi
174
What are some of the largest among the 200 Iranian languages?
5a18c3b79aa02b0018605eb3
True
native speakers of Iranian languages
52
What were their 86 million of in 2008
5a18c3b79aa02b0018605eb4
True
As of 2008, there were an estimated 150–200 million native speakers of Iranian languages. Ethnologue estimates there are 86 Iranian languages, the largest amongst them being Persian, Pashto, Kurdish, and Balochi.
Iranian languages are all said to be derived from which predecessor?
56ddef1266d3e219004dae2b
Proto-Iranian
78
False
From what languages does the word Aryao come?
56ddef1266d3e219004dae2c
Persian and Sanskrit
127
False
Iranian
9
What is any language that descends from ancestral Persian?
5a18c4619aa02b0018605eb8
True
Iranian
102
What word is derived from Sanskrit and Arya?
5a18c4619aa02b0018605eb9
True
Proto-Iranian language
78
Arya is derived from what ancestral language?
5a18c4619aa02b0018605eba
True
The term Iranian is applied to any language which descends from the ancestral Proto-Iranian language. Iranian derives from the Persian and Sanskrit origin word Arya.
When was the phrase Iranian language family first used?
56ddef9d9a695914005b96ea
1836
70
False
Who first used the term Iranian language?
56ddef9d9a695914005b96eb
Christian Lassen
78
False
Who first used the term Irano-Aryan?
56ddef9d9a695914005b96ed
Robert Needham Cust
96
False
When was the phrase Irano-Aryan first used?
56ddef9d9a695914005b96ee
1878
145
False
1836
70
When did Robert Needham Cust introduced the term Iranian?
5a18c7099aa02b0018605ebe
True
Irano-Aryan
130
What term did Christian Lassen using 1878?
5a18c7099aa02b0018605ebf
True
Irano-Aryan (Iranian) and Indo-Aryan (Indic)
226
What did George Abraham Grierson and Christian Lassen contrast?
5a18c7099aa02b0018605ec0
True
German
310
What scholars have revived the term Irano-Aryan
5a18c7099aa02b0018605ec1
True
The use of the term for the Iranian language family was introduced in 1836 by Christian Lassen. Robert Needham Cust used the term Irano-Aryan in 1878, and Orientalists such as George Abraham Grierson and Max Müller contrasted Irano-Aryan (Iranian) and Indo-Aryan (Indic). Some recent scholarship, primarily in German, has revived this convention.
From where did Iranian languages originate?
56ddf08d66d3e219004dae31
Proto-Iranian
60
False
What part of the world is it theorized that Indo-Iranian languages came from?
56ddf08d66d3e219004dae33
Central Asia
275
False
What society is a strong contender for the common culture speaking Indo-Iranian?
56ddf08d66d3e219004dae34
Andronovo
293
False
When did the Andronovo culture exist?
56ddf08d66d3e219004dae35
2000 BC
378
False
Proto-Iranian
60
What other language did most Iranian languages descend from?
5a18c8d69aa02b0018605ec6
True
Proto-Indo-Aryan
102
What other language besides Nuristani this proto-Iranian descent from?
5a18c8d69aa02b0018605ec7
True
Proto-Indo-Aryan
102
What language does Proto-Indo Iranian descent from?
5a18c8d69aa02b0018605ec8
True
The Indo-Iranian
214
What languages are believed to have originated in central India?
5a18c8d69aa02b0018605ec9
True
All Iranian languages are descended from a common ancestor, Proto-Iranian. In turn, and together with Proto-Indo-Aryan and the Nuristani languages, Proto-Iranian descends from a common ancestor Proto-Indo-Iranian. The Indo-Iranian languages are thought to have originated in Central Asia. The Andronovo culture is the suggested candidate for the common Indo-Iranian culture ca. 2000 BC.
What language family did Thracian and Balto-Slavic belong to?
56ddf11b66d3e219004dae3c
Indo-European
203
False
Thracian, Balto-Slavic
230
What Indo-European groups belong to the Satem language family?
5a18ccbd9aa02b0018605ece
True
Indo-European
203
What language family originated in the mountains of Russia?
5a18ccbd9aa02b0018605ecf
True
It was situated precisely in the western part of Central Asia that borders present-day Russia (and present-day Kazakhstan). It was in relative proximity to the other satem ethno-linguistic groups of the Indo-European family, like Thracian, Balto-Slavic and others, and to common Indo-European's original homeland (more precisely, the steppes of southern Russia to the north of the Caucasus), according to the reconstructed linguistic relationships of common Indo-European.
Where did early Iranian people establish societies?
56ddf33166d3e219004dae56
southeastern Europe, the Iranian plateau, and Central Asia
247
False
Proto-Indo-Iranian
44
What language came sometime after the breakup of Proto-Iranian?
5a18d1639aa02b0018605ed2
True
Proto-Indo-Iranian
44
What language broke up after the second millennium BCE?
5a18d1639aa02b0018605ed3
True
as the various Iranian tribes migrated and settled in vast areas of southeastern Europe
179
When did the middle Iranian language begin to break off?
5a18d1639aa02b0018605ed4
True
Proto-Iranian thus dates to some time after Proto-Indo-Iranian break-up, or the early second millennium BCE, as the Old Iranian languages began to break off and evolve separately as the various Iranian tribes migrated and settled in vast areas of southeastern Europe, the Iranian plateau, and Central Asia.
What characteristic of Middle Iranian civilization is shown by the number of different languages and their speakers?
56ddf3bb9a695914005b9720
linguistic diversity
74
False
How many of the Middlie Iranian tongues have remained in existence since ancient time?
56ddf3bb9a695914005b9721
two
225
False
The multitude of Middle Iranian languages and peoples indica
0
What characteristic of middle Iranian civilization is shown by the limited number of languages and speakers?
5a18d2529aa02b0018605ed8
True
two
225
How many middle Iranian languages are still spoken today?
5a18d2529aa02b0018605ed9
True
Middle Iranian
17
What languages were spoken by a limited number of people?
5a18d2529aa02b0018605eda
True
The multitude of Middle Iranian languages and peoples indicate that great linguistic diversity must have existed among the ancient speakers of Iranian languages. Of that variety of languages/dialects, direct evidence of only two have survived. These are:
In which historical record does Old Persian appear in exemplary form?
56ddf42566d3e219004dae60
the Behistun inscription
232
False
When was the Behistun inscription written?
56ddf42566d3e219004dae61
520 BC
273
False
During what century was the change from Old to Middle Persian well underway?
56ddf42566d3e219004dae62
4th century BC
583
False
Old Iranian dialect
19
What dialect was spoken in northwestern Iran
5a18d7dd9aa02b0018605ede
True
proclamations
748
What official purpose was Middle Persian being used for in the fourth century BC?
5a18d7dd9aa02b0018605edf
True
Behistun inscription
236
What inscription was composed in the 4th Century BC.
5a18d7dd9aa02b0018605ee0
True
Behistun inscription
236
In which document composed in 520 BC was old Persian grammatically incorrect?
5a18d7dd9aa02b0018605ee1
True
4th century BC
583
During what century was the change from old to middle Persian just beginning?
5a18d7dd9aa02b0018605ee2
True
Old Persian is the Old Iranian dialect as it was spoken in south-western Iran by the inhabitants of Parsa, who also gave their name to their region and language. Genuine Old Persian is best attested in one of the three languages of the Behistun inscription, composed circa 520 BC, and which is the last inscription (and only inscription of significant length) in which Old Persian is still grammatically correct. Later inscriptions are comparatively brief, and typically simply copies of words and phrases from earlier ones, often with grammatical errors, which suggests that by the 4th century BC the transition from Old Persian to Middle Persian was already far advanced, but efforts were still being made to retain an "old" quality for official proclamations.
What ancient religious document exists in two versions and includes Old Iranian language?
56ddf552cffd8e1900b4b526
Avestan
70
False
What is the contemporary name of the religion which Avesta was part of?
56ddf552cffd8e1900b4b527
Zoroastrianism
212
False
What language shows a level of maturity corresponding to Old Avestan?
56ddf552cffd8e1900b4b529
Rigvedic Sanskrit
707
False
What language shows the same level of development as Younger Avestan?
56ddf552cffd8e1900b4b52a
Old Persian
802
False
Old Iranian
28
What dialect is the Avesta language from?
5a18da649aa02b0018605ee8
True
two dialects
345
How many dialects of the Avesta language or there?
5a18da649aa02b0018605ee9
True
Avesta
123
What religion is vohu daena the contemporary name for?
5a18da649aa02b0018605eea
True
its use as a sacred language
832
Why did old Persian retained its old characteristics long after the old Iranian languages
5a18da649aa02b0018605eeb
True
Old Persian
983
What language shows the same level of development as old Avestan
5a18da649aa02b0018605eec
True
The other directly attested Old Iranian dialects are the two forms of Avestan, which take their name from their use in the Avesta, the liturgical texts of indigenous Iranian religion that now goes by the name of Zoroastrianism but in the Avesta itself is simply known as vohu daena (later: behdin). The language of the Avesta is subdivided into two dialects, conventionally known as "Old (or 'Gathic') Avestan", and "Younger Avestan". These terms, which date to the 19th century, are slightly misleading since 'Younger Avestan' is not only much younger than 'Old Avestan', but also from a different geographic region. The Old Avestan dialect is very archaic, and at roughly the same stage of development as Rigvedic Sanskrit. On the other hand, Younger Avestan is at about the same linguistic stage as Old Persian, but by virtue of its use as a sacred language retained its "old" characteristics long after the Old Iranian languages had yielded to their Middle Iranian stage. Unlike Old Persian, which has Middle Persian as its known successor, Avestan has no clearly identifiable Middle Iranian stage (the effect of Middle Iranian is indistinguishable from effects due to other causes).
What language is Carduchi thought to have become?
56ddf6ac4396321400ee2513
Kurdish
360
False
What language did Herodotus invent a name for?
56ddf6ac4396321400ee2515
Scythian
874
False
Carduchi
318
What language to Kurdish become?
5a18e03a9aa02b0018605ef2
True
the existence of unattested languages
401
What cannot be inferred from the impact on a neighboring language?
5a18e03a9aa02b0018605ef3
True
Median
604
What kind of substrate is Middle Iranian?
5a18e03a9aa02b0018605ef4
True
Herodotus
840
Who reported vocabulary for old Persian?
5a18e03a9aa02b0018605ef5
True
In addition to Old Persian and Avestan, which are the only directly attested Old Iranian languages, all Middle Iranian languages must have had a predecessor "Old Iranian" form of that language, and thus can all be said to have had an (at least hypothetical) "Old" form. Such hypothetical Old Iranian languages include Carduchi (the hypothetical predecessor to Kurdish) and Old Parthian. Additionally, the existence of unattested languages can sometimes be inferred from the impact they had on neighbouring languages. Such transfer is known to have occurred for Old Persian, which has (what is called) a "Median" substrate in some of its vocabulary. Also, foreign references to languages can also provide a hint to the existence of otherwise unattested languages, for example through toponyms/ethnonyms or in the recording of vocabulary, as Herodotus did for what he called "Scythian".
What are the two main divisions of Iranian tongues?
56ddf70a4396321400ee251b
western and eastern
226
False
Which language is associated with the western branch of Iranian?
56ddf70a4396321400ee251c
Old Persian
450
False
Which language is associated with the eastern branch of Iranian?
56ddf70a4396321400ee251d
Avestan
135
False
Iranian languages
16
What languages are grouped into northern and southern branches?
5a18e2249aa02b0018605efa
True
Iranian
16
What language is associated with the Western branch of old Persian?
5a18e2249aa02b0018605efb
True
Old Persian
532
What language is associated with the Eastern branch of Avestan?
5a18e2249aa02b0018605efc
True
Nisa/Parthia and Ecbatana/Media
834
What were the centers of imperial power in Persia?
5a18e2249aa02b0018605efd
True
Conventionally, Iranian languages are grouped in "western" and "eastern" branches. These terms have little meaning with respect to Old Avestan as that stage of the language may predate the settling of the Iranian peoples into western and eastern groups. The geographic terms also have little meaning when applied to Younger Avestan since it isn't known where that dialect (or dialects) was spoken either. Certain is only that Avestan (all forms) and Old Persian are distinct, and since Old Persian is "western", and Avestan was not Old Persian, Avestan acquired a default assignment to "eastern". Confusing the issue is the introduction of a western Iranian substrate in later Avestan compositions and redactions undertaken at the centers of imperial power in western Iran (either in the south-west in Persia, or in the north-west in Nisa/Parthia and Ecbatana/Media).
What elements of Proto-Indo-Iranian did not diverge according to the ensuing split between eastern and western variants?
56ddfdc4cffd8e1900b4b556
*ć and *dź
216
False
What type of letters are *ć and *dź?
56ddfdc4cffd8e1900b4b557
first-series palatal consonants
183
False
Two of the earliest
0
What Iranian dialects did not follow the Western and Eastern blocks?
5a18e2b99aa02b0018605f02
True
palatal
196
What type of valves are c and dz?
5a18e2b99aa02b0018605f03
True
Two of the earliest dialectal divisions among Iranian indeed happen to not follow the later division into Western and Eastern blocks. These concern the fate of the Proto-Indo-Iranian first-series palatal consonants, *ć and *dź:
What languages share a similar situation?
56ddfe654396321400ee2532
Nuristani languages
158
False
What other elements of early Iranian languages problematize the east-west division?
56ddfe654396321400ee2533
*ćw and *dźw
243
False
What is the linguistic categorization of *ćw and *dźw?
56ddfe654396321400ee2534
consonant clusters
224
False
a common intermediate stage
3
What is contrary to the state of affairs in the Nuristani languages?
5a18e39c9aa02b0018605f06
True
*ćw and *dźw
243
What other elements of early Iranian language support the East-West division?
5a18e39c9aa02b0018605f07
True
As a common intermediate stage, it is possible to reconstruct depalatalized affricates: *c, *dz. (This coincides with the state of affairs in the neighboring Nuristani languages.) A further complication however concerns the consonant clusters *ćw and *dźw:
What may have also been in use at the time?
56de03a44396321400ee2547
other distinct dialect groups
20
False
Precursors of what subset of Scythian are theorized to have existed?
56de03a44396321400ee2548
Alanian/Scytho-Sarmatian
156
False
What possible predecessor of Pathian is thought to have existed?
56de03a44396321400ee2549
Old Parthian
246
False
other distinct dialect
20
What was not in use at the time?
5a18e53d9aa02b0018605f0a
True
Old Parthian
246
What is the ancestor of old Iranian?
5a18e53d9aa02b0018605f0b
True
*dw > *b
337
c parallel the development of what other two letters?
5a18e53d9aa02b0018605f0c
True
Alanian/Scytho-Sarmatian
156
Scythian was the ancestor of what other languages?
5a18e53d9aa02b0018605f0d
True
It is possible that other distinct dialect groups were already in existence during this period. Good candidates are the hypothethical ancestor languages of Alanian/Scytho-Sarmatian subgroup of Scythian in the far northwest; and the hypothetical "Old Parthian" (the Old Iranian ancestor of Parthian) in the near northwest, where original *dw > *b (paralleling the development of *ćw).
When did the age of Middle Iranian come to a close?
56de03d64396321400ee254d
9th century
139
False
What are the two main divisions of Middle Iranian?
56de03d64396321400ee254e
Western and Eastern
248
False
Middle Iranian
52
What era began in the ninth century?
5a18e5eb9aa02b0018605f12
True
Middle Iranian
52
What language was divided into a northern and southern division?
5a18e5eb9aa02b0018605f13
True
What is known in Iranian linguistic history as the "Middle Iranian" era is thought to begin around the 4th century BCE lasting through the 9th century. Linguistically the Middle Iranian languages are conventionally classified into two main groups, Western and Eastern.
Bactrian, Sogdian, and Saka are examples of what type of Iranian language?
56de05334396321400ee2552
Eastern
169
False
Which language bears a resemblance to the diversity of eastern Iranian languages?
56de05334396321400ee2553
Avestan
425
False
Where did the the alphabets used by eastern languages come from?
56de05334396321400ee2554
Aramaic
465
False
What did the Bactrian language use for writing?
56de05334396321400ee2555
Greek script
610
False
The Western family
0
What family includes party on an Old Persian?
5a18e72f9aa02b0018605f16
True
Eastern
169
What family includes Bactrain, Sogdian and old Iranian?
5a18e72f9aa02b0018605f17
True
Aramaic
465
Where did the alphabet used by Western languages come from?
5a18e72f9aa02b0018605f18
True
Greek script
610
What script was used for Persian rating?
5a18e72f9aa02b0018605f19
True
The Western family includes Parthian (Arsacid Pahlavi) and Middle Persian, while Bactrian, Sogdian, Khwarezmian, Saka, and Old Ossetic (Scytho-Sarmatian) fall under the Eastern category. The two languages of the Western group were linguistically very close to each other, but quite distinct from their eastern counterparts. On the other hand, the Eastern group was an areal entity whose languages retained some similarity to Avestan. They were inscribed in various Aramaic-derived alphabets which had ultimately evolved from the Achaemenid Imperial Aramaic script, though Bactrian was written using an adapted Greek script.
What is another term for Middle Persian?
56de058f4396321400ee255b
Pahlavi
16
False
When did Middle Persian start being u sed?
56de058f4396321400ee255c
3rd century CE
110
False
What are three languages employed by the Manichaeans?
56de058f4396321400ee255d
Middle Persian, Parthian and Sogdian
245
False
What was the writing of Manichaean documents similar to?
56de058f4396321400ee255e
Syriac script
483
False
Sasanian dynasty
61
Underwood dynasty was old Persian the official language?
5a18e8519aa02b0018605f1e
True
Middle Persian
0
What language was in use in Iran before the third century?
5a18e8519aa02b0018605f1f
True
Middle Persian, Parthian and Sogdian
245
What are three spoken languages use by the Manchaeans?
5a18e8519aa02b0018605f20
True
Manichaean texts
421
Latin and Chinese writing were similar to what texts?
5a18e8519aa02b0018605f21
True
Middle Persian (Pahlavi) was the official language under the Sasanian dynasty in Iran. It was in use from the 3rd century CE until the beginning of the 10th century. The script used for Middle Persian in this era underwent significant maturity. Middle Persian, Parthian and Sogdian were also used as literary languages by the Manichaeans, whose texts also survive in various non-Iranian languages, from Latin to Chinese. Manichaean texts were written in a script closely akin to the Syriac script.
The proliferation of which religion had a profound effect on the development of Iranian languages?
56de0abc4396321400ee2563
Islam
14
False
What language displaced Middle Iranian as the court's official tongue?
56de0abc4396321400ee2564
Dari
253
False
What was the first dynasty to use Dari?
56de0abc4396321400ee2565
Saffarid
465
False
When did the Saffarid dynasty begin using Dari?
56de0abc4396321400ee2566
875 CE
578
False
What area was the name Dari connected to by medieval Iranian thinkers?
56de0abc4396321400ee2567
Khorasan
963
False
Islam
14
What religion slowed the spread of the Iranian language?
5a18e9499aa02b0018605f26
True
Dari
306
What language do middle Iranian displace is the court's official language?
5a18e9499aa02b0018605f27
True
The Saffarid
461
What was the last Dynasty to use Dari
5a18e9499aa02b0018605f28
True
The Saffarid dynasty
461
Who stopped using Dari in 875 CE?
5a18e9499aa02b0018605f29
True
"Khuzi",
1248
What was the official dialect of the royalty itself?
5a18e9499aa02b0018605f2a
True
Following the Islamic Conquest of Persia (Iran), there were important changes in the role of the different dialects within the Persian Empire. The old prestige form of Middle Iranian, also known as Pahlavi, was replaced by a new standard dialect called Dari as the official language of the court. The name Dari comes from the word darbâr (دربار), which refers to the royal court, where many of the poets, protagonists, and patrons of the literature flourished. The Saffarid dynasty in particular was the first in a line of many dynasties to officially adopt the new language in 875 CE. Dari may have been heavily influenced by regional dialects of eastern Iran, whereas the earlier Pahlavi standard was based more on western dialects. This new prestige dialect became the basis of Standard New Persian. Medieval Iranian scholars such as Abdullah Ibn al-Muqaffa (8th century) and Ibn al-Nadim (10th century) associated the term "Dari" with the eastern province of Khorasan, while they used the term "Pahlavi" to describe the dialects of the northwestern areas between Isfahan and Azerbaijan, and "Pârsi" ("Persian" proper) to describe the Dialects of Fars. They also noted that the unofficial language of the royalty itself was yet another dialect, "Khuzi", associated with the western province of Khuzestan.
What was the new form of writing introduced by the spread of Islam?
56de0b40cffd8e1900b4b570
Arabic script
58
False
When did usage of Middle Persian script fall off?
56de0b40cffd8e1900b4b571
second half of the 8th century
265
False
What script was converted to Latin in the 1920s?
56de0b40cffd8e1900b4b572
Tajik script
423
False
When was Tajik script converted to Cyrillic?
56de0b40cffd8e1900b4b573
the 1930s
563
False
Who catalyzed the conversion of Tajik script into Cyrillic?
56de0b40cffd8e1900b4b574
the Soviet government
576
False
Islam
4
The spread of what religion introduce the Persian script?
5a18eb359aa02b0018605f30
True
8th century
284
When did the use of middle Persian script begin?
5a18eb359aa02b0018605f31
True
1920s
463
When was Arabic script converted to Latin?
5a18eb359aa02b0018605f32
True
Soviet nationality policy
484
What's began the conversion of Arabic script to Cyrillic?
5a18eb359aa02b0018605f33
True
The Islamic conquest also brought with it the adoption of Arabic script for writing Persian and much later, Kurdish, Pashto and Balochi. All three were adapted to the writing by the addition of a few letters. This development probably occurred some time during the second half of the 8th century, when the old middle Persian script began dwindling in usage. The Arabic script remains in use in contemporary modern Persian. Tajik script was first Latinised in the 1920s under the then Soviet nationality policy. The script was however subsequently Cyrillicized in the 1930s by the Soviet government.
What is another term for Western Iran?
56de110e4396321400ee259f
Khuzestan
178
False
What are two languages that were forced out by the spread of Arabic?
56de110e4396321400ee25a0
Sogdian and Bactrian
293
False
By what century had the area inhabited by Sarmatians been absorbed by pre-Slavic people?
56de110e4396321400ee25a1
6th century AD
731
False
Where can the remnants of Yaghnobi be found?
56de110e4396321400ee25a2
Zarafshan valley
927
False
Ossetic is a version of which Scythian language?
56de110e4396321400ee25a3
Saka
967
False
Arabic
131
What language writing to some parts of eastern Iran?
5a18ec869aa02b0018605f38
True
Sogdian and Bactrian
293
What two languages grew alongside Arabic?
5a18ec869aa02b0018605f39
True
6th century AD
731
By what century had the area inhabited by pre-Slavic people been absorbed by the Sarmations?
5a18ec869aa02b0018605f3a
True
Zarafshan valley east of Samarkand,
927
What small area still speaks Sogdian?
5a18ec869aa02b0018605f3b
True
The geographical regions in which Iranian languages were spoken were pushed back in several areas by newly neighbouring languages. Arabic spread into some parts of Western Iran (Khuzestan), and Turkic languages spread through much of Central Asia, displacing various Iranian languages such as Sogdian and Bactrian in parts of what is today Turkmenistan, Uzbekistan and Tajikistan. In Eastern Europe, mostly comprising the territory of modern-day Ukraine, southern European Russia, and parts of the Balkans, the core region of the native Scythians, Sarmatians, and Alans had been decisively been taken over as a result of absorption and assimilation (e.g. Slavicisation) by the various Proto-Slavic population of the region, by the 6th century AD. This resulted in the displacement and extinction of the once predominant Scythian languages of the region. Sogdian's close relative Yaghnobi barely survives in a small area of the Zarafshan valley east of Samarkand, and Saka as Ossetic in the Caucasus, which is the sole remnant of the once predominant Scythian languages in Eastern Europe proper and large parts of the North Caucasus. Various small Iranian languages in the Pamirs survive that are derived from Eastern Iranian.
Lighting
What is used a main source of light for a building during the day?
56de0fef4396321400ee2583
Daylighting
245
False
What kind of effects can natural illumination have on a persons psychological?
56de0fef4396321400ee2584
positive
597
False
Using natural illumination instead of artificial light sources help with what?
56de0fef4396321400ee2585
energy consumption
475
False
Lamps and light fixtures are a form of what?
56de0fef4396321400ee2586
artificial light sources
134
False
The use of light to achieve an aesthetic effect is know as?
56de0fef4396321400ee2587
Lighting or illumination
0
False
What can be used a main source of light for a building during the day?
56de1377cffd8e1900b4b5b2
Daylighting
245
False
Lamps and light fixtures  are a form of what?
56de1377cffd8e1900b4b5b3
Lighting
0
False
What kind of effects can proper lighting have on a persons psychologically?
56de1377cffd8e1900b4b5b4
positive
597
False
What does using natural illumination instead of artificial lighting help with?
56de1377cffd8e1900b4b5b5
energy consumption
475
False
What is the used to achieve a practical effect?
56de1377cffd8e1900b4b5b6
Lighting or illumination
0
False
Lighting or illumination is the deliberate use of light to achieve a practical or aesthetic effect. Lighting includes the use of both artificial light sources like lamps and light fixtures, as well as natural illumination by capturing daylight. Daylighting (using windows, skylights, or light shelves) is sometimes used as the main source of light during daytime in buildings. This can save energy in place of using artificial lighting, which represents a major component of energy consumption in buildings. Proper lighting can enhance task performance, improve the appearance of an area, or have positive psychological effects on occupants.
What type of fixtures do you use for indoor lighting?
56de10f64396321400ee2599
light fixtures
46
False
What is considered a key part of interior design?
56de10f64396321400ee259a
Indoor lighting
0
False
What can be a intrinsic component of landscaping?
56de10f64396321400ee259b
lighting
7
False
What type of fixtures are used typically used for indoor lighting?
56df50f88bc80c19004e4a65
light fixtures
46
False
What can be used as a intrinsic component of landscape projects?
56df50f88bc80c19004e4a67
lighting
7
False
Indoor lighting is usually accomplished using light fixtures, and is a key part of interior design. Lighting can also be an intrinsic component of landscape projects.
When was fluorescent lighting first available?
56df12603277331400b4d941
1939
158
False
Forms of lighting include alcove lighting, which like most other uplighting is indirect. This is often done with fluorescent lighting (first available at the 1939 World's Fair) or rope light, occasionally with neon lighting, and recently with LED strip lighting. It is a form of backlighting.
What type of lighting can be mounted in the ceiling to appear flush?
56df1264c65bf219000b3f27
Recessed lighting
0
False
Recessed lighting (often called "pot lights" in Canada, "can lights" or 'high hats" in the US) is popular, with fixtures mounted into the ceiling structure so as to appear flush with it. These downlights can use narrow beam spotlights, or wider-angle floodlights, both of which are bulbs having their own reflectors. There are also downlights with internal reflectors designed to accept common 'A' lamps (light bulbs) which are generally less costly than reflector lamps. Downlights can be incandescent, fluorescent, HID (high intensity discharge) or LED.
Peking man kindled fire as early as?
56df50fc96943c1400a5d38b
400,000 BCE
135
False
Which type of oily animals where also used as lamps after being threaded with wick?
56df50fc96943c1400a5d38d
birds and fish
619
False
What is considered the earliest form of artificial lighting?
56df50fc96943c1400a5d38e
campfires or torches
101
False
The hollow worked stones lamps found in Lascaux caves date back how far?
56df50fc96943c1400a5d38f
15,000 years
587
False
With the discovery of fire, the earliest form of artificial lighting used to illuminate an area were campfires or torches. As early as 400,000 BCE, fire was kindled in the caves of Peking Man. Prehistoric people used primitive oil lamps to illuminate surroundings. These lamps were made from naturally occurring materials such as rocks, shells, horns and stones, were filled with grease, and had a fiber wick. Lamps typically used animal or vegetable fats as fuel. Hundreds of these lamps (hollow worked stones) have been found in the Lascaux caves in modern-day France, dating to about 15,000 years ago. Oily animals (birds and fish) were also used as lamps after being threaded with a wick. Fireflies have been used as lighting sources. Candles and glass and pottery lamps were also invented. Chandeliers were an early form of "light fixture".
What type of lighting was powered by electricity?
56df51008bc80c19004e4a6c
incandescent light
415
False
When did gas powered street lights became economically available.
56df51008bc80c19004e4a6d
early 1800s
186
False
Major reductions in the cost of lighting occurred with the discovery of whale oil and kerosene. Gas lighting was economical enough to power street lights in major cities starting in the early 1800s, and was also used in some commercial buildings and in the homes of wealthy people. The gas mantle boosted the luminosity of utility lighting and of kerosene lanterns. The next major drop in price came about with the incandescent light bulb powered by electricity.
Street lights help reduce?
56df510196943c1400a5d395
urban crime.
208
False
Over time, electric lighting became ubiquitous in developed countries. Segmented sleep patterns disappeared, improved nighttime lighting made more activities possible at night, and more street lights reduced urban crime.
What can come in a wide variety of styles for various functions?
56df51038bc80c19004e4a72
Lighting fixtures
0
False
Functioning as holder a light fixture can provide directed light and avoid?
56df51038bc80c19004e4a73
visual glare
180
False
Lighting fixtures come in a wide variety of styles for various functions. The most important functions are as a holder for the light source, to provide directed light and to avoid visual glare. Some are very plain and functional, while some are pieces of art in themselves. Nearly any material can be used, so long as it can tolerate the excess heat and is in keeping with safety codes.
Luminous efficacy is measure in what unit?
56df510696943c1400a5d39c
lumen per watt
189
False
An important property of light fixtures is the luminous efficacy or wall-plug efficiency, meaning the amount of usable light emanating from the fixture per used energy, usually measured in lumen per watt. A fixture using replaceable light sources can also have its efficiency quoted as the percentage of light passed from the "bulb" to the surroundings. The more transparent the lighting fixture is, the higher efficacy. Shading the light will normally decrease efficacy but increase the directionality and the visual comfort probability.
How many Kelvins is daylight measured at?
56df510996943c1400a5d3a3
6400
362
False
What has a color temperature around 2800 to 3000 Kelvin?
56df510996943c1400a5d3a4
incandescent bulb
273
False
It can be said that lights with a high color temperature have more energy in what color spectrum?
56df510996943c1400a5d3a5
blue-white
550
False
A lamp with more energy in the yellow and red spectrum are known to be?
56df510996943c1400a5d3a6
Lower color temperature
375
False
Color temperature for white light sources also affects their use for certain applications. The color temperature of a white light source is the temperature in Kelvin of a theoretical black body emitter that most closely matches the spectral characteristics of the lamp. An incandescent bulb has a color temperature around 2800 to 3000 Kelvin; daylight is around 6400 Kelvin. Lower color temperature lamps have relatively more energy in the yellow and red part of the visible spectrum, while high color temperatures correspond to lamps with more of a blue-white appearance. For critical inspection or color matching tasks, or for retail displays of food and clothing, the color temperature of the lamps will be selected for the best overall lighting effect.
A light is classified by intended purpose, what mainly changes its classification?
56df513396943c1400a5d3ab
light produced by the fixture.
122
False
Lighting is classified by intended use as general, accent, or task lighting, depending largely on the distribution of the light produced by the fixture.
Who invented track lighting?
56df53138bc80c19004e4a91
Lightolier
28
False
What feeds all the fixtures in low voltage tracks instead of each light having a line-to-low voltage transformer.
56df53138bc80c19004e4a92
master transformer
464
False
What  type of lighting uses lights that are hung or clipped to bare metal cables?
56df53138bc80c19004e4a93
cable lighting
739
False
How many volts does a track lighting system usually use?
56df53138bc80c19004e4a94
12 or 24 volts
534
False
Track lighting, invented by Lightolier, was popular at one period of time because it was much easier to install than recessed lighting, and individual fixtures are decorative and can be easily aimed at a wall. It has regained some popularity recently in low-voltage tracks, which often look nothing like their predecessors because they do not have the safety issues that line-voltage systems have, and are therefore less bulky and more ornamental in themselves. A master transformer feeds all of the fixtures on the track or rod with 12 or 24 volts, instead of each light fixture having its own line-to-low voltage transformer. There are traditional spots and floods, as well as other small hanging fixtures. A modified version of this is cable lighting, where lights are hung from or clipped to bare metal cables under tension.
What is a uplight used for ambient lighting?
56df53a58bc80c19004e4a9b
torchiere
98
False
A sconce is a wall-mounted fixture, particularly one that shines up and sometimes down as well. A torchiere is an uplight intended for ambient lighting. It is typically a floor lamp but may be wall-mounted like a sconce.
What is one type of fixture commonly found in offices?
56df54788bc80c19004e4ab1
table lamp
16
False
Magnifier lamps are considered what type of lighting?
56df54788bc80c19004e4ab3
task lighting
201
False
The portable or table lamp is probably the most common fixture, found in many homes and offices. The standard lamp and shade that sits on a table is general lighting, while the desk lamp is considered task lighting. Magnifier lamps are also task lighting.
When would neon lighting be considered general lighting?
56df55848bc80c19004e4ac3
dark nightclub
407
False
What uses diffuser panels below fluorescent lights?
56df55848bc80c19004e4ac4
illuminated ceiling
4
False
Normally neon lighting is considered what type of lighting?
56df55848bc80c19004e4ac5
accent lighting
378
False
The illuminated ceiling was once popular in the 1960s and 1970s but fell out of favor after the 1980s. This uses diffuser panels hung like a suspended ceiling below fluorescent lights, and is considered general lighting. Other forms include neon, which is not usually intended to illuminate anything else, but to actually be an artwork in itself. This would probably fall under accent lighting, though in a dark nightclub it could be considered general lighting.
What do steps in move theater aisles have for safety markings?
56df7f3e5ca0a614008f9b5b
small lights
73
False
What are the low wattage lamps being replaced with in movie theaters?
56df7f3e5ca0a614008f9b5c
LED based versions
302
False
What kind of tube are the movie theaters lights enclosed in?
56df7f3e5ca0a614008f9b5d
translucent tube
246
False
In a movie theater, steps in the aisles are usually marked with a row of small lights for convenience and safety, when the film has started and the other lights are off. Traditionally made up of small low wattage, low voltage lamps in a track or translucent tube, these are rapidly being replaced with LED based versions.
What is used to light walkways at night?
56df7fd95ca0a614008f9b6f
Street Lights
0
False
What kind of lights are being designed for energy efficiency?
56df7fd95ca0a614008f9b70
photovoltaic luminaires
105
False
Street Lights are used to light roadways and walkways at night. Some manufacturers are designing LED and photovoltaic luminaires to provide an energy-efficient alternative to traditional street light fixtures.
What kind of light is used to illuminate outdoor playing fields at night?
56df807956340a1900b29c64
Floodlights
0
False
Floodlights can be used to illuminate outdoor playing fields or work zones during nighttime hours. The most common type of floodlights are metal halide and high pressure sodium lights.
Extremely bright lights used to deter crime are called?
56df80fe56340a1900b29c77
security lighting
10
False
Sometimes security lighting can be used along roadways in urban areas, or behind homes or commercial facilities. These are extremely bright lights used to deter crime. Security lights may include floodlights.
What type of light would be used illuminate the entrance to a property?
56df819456340a1900b29c88
Entry lights
0
False
Entry lights can be used outside to illuminate and signal the entrance to a property. These lights are installed for safety, security, and for decoration.
What color are tail lights?
56df82b856340a1900b29ca2
red
351
False
What color are headlamps on a vehicle?
56df82b856340a1900b29ca3
white or selective yellow
68
False
When did automakers start using electroluminescent technology to backlight gauges?
56df82b856340a1900b29ca4
late 1950s
775
False
What color are reversing indicator lamps?
56df82b856340a1900b29ca5
White
454
False
What indicates that a driver is intending to change position?
56df82b856340a1900b29ca6
turn signals
657
False
Vehicles typically include headlamps and tail lights. Headlamps are white or selective yellow lights placed in the front of the vehicle, designed to illuminate the upcoming road and to make the vehicle more visible. Many manufactures are turning to LED headlights as an energy-efficient alternative to traditional headlamps. Tail and brake lights are red and emit light to the rear so as to reveal the vehicle's direction of travel to following drivers. White rear-facing reversing lamps indicate that the vehicle's transmission has been placed in the reverse gear, warning anyone behind the vehicle that it is moving backwards, or about to do so. Flashing turn signals on the front, side, and rear of the vehicle indicate an intended change of position or direction. In the late 1950s, some automakers began to use electroluminescent technology to backlight their cars' speedometers and other gauges or to draw attention to logos or other decorative elements.
What is the removable and replaceable part of a light fixture?
56df844f56340a1900b29cc8
light bulbs
17
False
What does a light bulb convert into electromagnetic radiation?
56df844f56340a1900b29cc9
electrical energy
111
False
Huge much light does a 13 W compact fluorescent lamp produce equivalent to a incandescent light bulb.
56df844f56340a1900b29cca
60 w
870
False
How many lemuns does a 15 watt fluorescent lamp produce?
56df844f56340a1900b29ccc
800 lumens
975
False
Commonly called 'light bulbs', lamps are the removable and replaceable part of a light fixture, which converts electrical energy into electromagnetic radiation. While lamps have traditionally been rated and marketed primarily in terms of their power consumption, expressed in watts, proliferation of lighting technology beyond the incandescent light bulb has eliminated the correspondence of wattage to the amount of light produced. For example, a 60 W incandescent light bulb produces about the same amount of light as a 13 W compact fluorescent lamp. Each of these technologies has a different efficacy in converting electrical energy to visible light. Visible light output is typically measured in lumens. This unit only quantifies the visible radiation, and excludes invisible infrared and ultraviolet light. A wax candle produces on the close order of 13 lumens, a 60 watt incandescent lamp makes around 700 lumens, and a 15-watt compact fluorescent lamp produces about 800 lumens, but actual output varies by specific design. Rating and marketing emphasis is shifting away from wattage and towards lumen output, to give the purchaser a directly applicable basis upon which to select a lamp.
What is designing as it applies to built environments?
56df865956340a1900b29cea
architectural lighting design
68
False
Would you consider aesthetic elements alone in architectural lighting design?
56df865956340a1900b29ceb
kno
58
False
What is the name of the software sometimes used to help calculate lighting needs in a built environment?
56df865956340a1900b29cec
Radiance
634
False
Hand-calculations are based off of what type of data?
56df865956340a1900b29ced
tabular
458
False
What type of factor calculation can be used to find out how much daylight is received in a internal space.
56df865956340a1900b29cee
Daylight factor calculation.
376
False
Lighting design as it applies to the built environment is known as 'architectural lighting design'. Lighting of structures considers aesthetic elements as well as practical considerations of quantity of light required, occupants of the structure, energy efficiency and cost. Artificial lighting takes into account the amount of daylight received in an internal space by using Daylight factor calculation. For simple installations, hand-calculations based on tabular data are used to provide an acceptable lighting design. More critical or optimized designs now routinely use mathematical modeling on a computer using software such as Radiance which can allow an Architect to quickly undertake complex calculations to review the benefit of a particular design.
What type of paint tends to absorb light?
56df879856340a1900b29d0a
dark paint
116
False
What kind of paint makes a room a room look larger and brighter?
56df879856340a1900b29d0c
light paint
214
False
In some design instances, materials used on walls and furniture play a key role in the lighting effect< for example dark paint tends to absorb light, making the room appear smaller and more dim than it is, whereas light paint does the opposite. In addition to paint, reflective surfaces also have an effect on lighting design.
What type of study is used to simulate lighting designs?
56df89dc38dc421700152022
Photometric studies
0
False
Photometric studies (also sometimes referred to as "layouts" or "point by points") are often used to simulate lighting designs for projects before they are built or renovated. This enables architects, lighting designers, and engineers to determine whether a proposed lighting setup will deliver the amount of light intended. They will also be able to determine the contrast ratio between light and dark areas. In many cases these studies are referenced against IESNA or CIBSE recommended lighting practices for the type of application. Depending on the type of area, different design aspects may be emphasized for safety or practicality (i.e. such as maintaining uniform light levels, avoiding glare or highlighting certain areas). Specialized software is often used to create these, which typically combine the use of two-dimensional digital CAD drawings and lighting calculation software (i.e. AGi32or Dialux).
What is prepared prior to the performance for the lighting operator?
56df8f054a1a83140091eb43
lighting cues
595
False
Lighting illuminates the performers and artists in a live theatre, dance, or musical performance, and is selected and arranged to create dramatic effects. Stage lighting uses general illumination technology in devices configured for easy adjustment of their output characteristics.[citation needed] The setup of stage lighting is tailored for each scene of each production. Dimmers, colored filters, reflectors, lenses, motorized or manually aimed lamps, and different kinds of flood and spot lights are among the tools used by a stage lighting designer to produce the desired effects. A set of lighting cues are prepared so that the lighting operator can control the lights in step with the performance; complex theatre lighting systems use computer control of lighting instruments.
Motion pictures employee the similar lighting techniques as which other form of lighting?
56df8fcb38dc421700152055
stage lighting
83
False
Motion picture and television production use many of the same tools and methods of stage lighting. Especially in the early days of these industries, very high light levels were required and heat produced by lighting equipment presented substantial challenges. Modern cameras require less light, and modern light sources emit less heat.
What is the basic SI unit of measurement?
56df912338dc421700152064
candela (cd)
486
False
What is the SI unit for lumiance?
56df912338dc421700152066
cd/m2
877
False
What is the CGS unit of lumiance?
56df912338dc421700152067
stilb
918
False
What is the amount of useful light emitted from a luminous flux measured in?
56df912338dc421700152068
lumen (lm)
1076
False
Measurement of light or photometry is generally concerned with the amount of useful light falling on a surface and the amount of light emerging from a lamp or other source, along with the colors that can be rendered by this light. The human eye responds differently to light from different parts of the visible spectrum, therefore photometric measurements must take the luminosity function into account when measuring the amount of useful light. The basic SI unit of measurement is the candela (cd), which describes the luminous intensity, all other photometric units are derived from the candela. Luminance for instance is a measure of the density of luminous intensity in a given direction. It describes the amount of light that passes through or is emitted from a particular area, and falls within a given solid angle. The SI unit for luminance is candela per square metre (cd/m2). The CGS unit of luminance is the stilb, which is equal to one candela per square centimetre or 10 kcd/m2. The amount of useful light emitted from a source or the luminous flux is measured in lumen (lm).
What is a standardized model of human visual brightness?
56df92a64a1a83140091eb51
luminosity function
369
False
What is the SI unit of illuminace and luminous emittance?
56df92a64a1a83140091eb52
Lux
101
False
The SI unit of illuminance and luminous emittance, being the luminous power per area, is measured in Lux. It is used in photometry as a measure of the intensity, as perceived by the human eye, of light that hits or passes through a surface. It is analogous to the radiometric unit watts per square metre, but with the power at each wavelength weighted according to the luminosity function, a standardized model of human visual brightness perception. In English, "lux" is used in both singular and plural.
What does UGR stand for?
56df93904a1a83140091eb6c
Unified Glare Rating
108
False
Several measurement methods have been developed to control glare resulting from indoor lighting design. The Unified Glare Rating (UGR), the Visual Comfort Probability, and the Daylight Glare Index are some of the most well-known methods of measurement. In addition to these new methods, four main factors influence the degree of discomfort glare; the luminance of the glare source, the solid angle of the glare source, the background luminance, and the position of the glare source in the field of view must all be taken into account.
What does CCT stand for?
56df945038dc421700152082
correlated color temperature
100
False
What does CRI stand for?
56df945038dc421700152083
color rendering index
244
False
What metric indicates a lights ability to make object appear natural?
56df945038dc421700152084
CRI
267
False
What metric indicates "warmth" or "coolness"?
56df945038dc421700152085
CCT
130
False
To define light source color properties, the lighting industry predominantly relies on two metrics, correlated color temperature (CCT), commonly used as an indication of the apparent "warmth" or "coolness" of the light emitted by a source, and color rendering index (CRI), an indication of the light source’s ability to make objects appear natural.
What does GAI stand for?
56df95d44a1a83140091eb7e
gamut area index
178
False
The relative separating of object colors illuminated by a light source is known as?
56df95d44a1a83140091eb80
GAI
196
False
Would a lower GAI mean higher apparent saturation or vividness of object colors?
56df95d44a1a83140091eb81
ano
156
False
For example, in order to meet the expectations for good color rendering in retail applications, research suggests using the well-established CRI along with another metric called gamut area index (GAI). GAI represents the relative separation of object colors illuminated by a light source; the greater the GAI, the greater the apparent saturation or vividness of the object colors. As a result, light sources which balance both CRI and GAI are generally preferred over ones that have only high CRI or only high GAI.
What is typically used to measure light?
56df964438dc42170015208d
light dosimeters
153
False
Typical measurements of light have used a Dosimeter. Dosimeters measure an individual's or an object's exposure to something in the environment, such as light dosimeters and ultraviolet dosimeters.
What measures the amount of light entering the eye?
56df96e138dc421700152090
Daysimeter
113
False
A Daysimeter what type of personal meter?
56df96e138dc421700152092
circadian light meter
80
False
In order to specifically measure the amount of light entering the eye, personal circadian light meter called the Daysimeter has been developed. This is the first device created to accurately measure and characterize light (intensity, spectrum, timing, and duration) entering the eye that affects the human body's clock.
How many days can the Daysimeter gather for analysis?
56df9a3738dc4217001520bf
30
351
False
What type of light stimulates the circadian system?
56df9a3738dc4217001520c0
short-wavelength light
113
False
The small, head-mounted device measures an individual's daily rest and activity patterns, as well as exposure to short-wavelength light that stimulates the circadian system. The device measures activity and light together at regular time intervals and electronically stores and logs its operating temperature. The Daysimeter can gather data for up to 30 days for analysis.
What is a basic concept of deciding how much illumination is required for a given task?
56df9b7338dc4217001520d1
Specification of illumination requirements
0
False
Specification of illumination requirements is the basic concept of deciding how much illumination is required for a given task. Clearly, much less light is required to illuminate a hallway compared to that needed for a word processing work station. Generally speaking, the energy expended is proportional to the design illumination level. For example, a lighting level of 400 lux might be chosen for a work environment involving meeting rooms and conferences, whereas a level of 80 lux could be selected for building hallways. If the hallway standard simply emulates the conference room needs, then much more energy will be consumed than is needed. Unfortunately, most of the lighting standards even today have been specified by industrial groups who manufacture and sell lighting, so that a historical commercial bias exists in designing most building lighting, especially for office and industrial settings.
What can help reduce energy and usage cost by providing light only when or where it is needed?
56df9c5038dc4217001520e4
Lighting control
0
False
Lighting control systems reduce energy usage and cost by helping to provide light only when and where it is needed. Lighting control systems typically incorporate the use of time schedules, occupancy control, and photocell control (i.e.daylight harvesting). Some systems also support demand response and will automatically dim or turn off lights to take advantage of utility incentives. Lighting control systems are sometimes incorporated into larger building automation systems.
What type of standard do newer control systems use?
56df9d3c4a1a83140091eb90
wireless mesh open standards
37
False
What is the name of one type of control system used?
56df9d3c4a1a83140091eb91
ZigBee
75
False
Does a wireless mesh open standard make installation harder?
56df9d3c4a1a83140091eb92
no
139
False
Many newer control systems are using wireless mesh open standards (such as ZigBee), which provides benefits including easier installation (no need to run control wires) and interoperability with other standards-based building control systems (e.g. security).
What sensor controls light with motion sensors?
56df9fbe38dc421700152112
Occupancy sensors
0
False
What does a passive infrared sensor react to?
56df9fbe38dc421700152113
changes in heat
207
False
What type of sensor transmits sound above the range of human hearing?
56df9fbe38dc421700152114
Ultrasonic sensors
566
False
Would you want to use passive infrared sensor in a area requiring 360-degree coverage?
56df9fbe38dc421700152115
no
129
False
Occupancy sensors to allow operation for whenever someone is within the area being scanned can control lighting. When motion can no longer be detected, the lights shut off. Passive infrared sensors react to changes in heat, such as the pattern created by a moving person. The control must have an unobstructed view of the building area being scanned. Doors, partitions, stairways, etc. will block motion detection and reduce its effectiveness. The best applications for passive infrared occupancy sensors are open spaces with a clear view of the area being scanned. Ultrasonic sensors transmit sound above the range of human hearing and monitor the time it takes for the sound waves to return. A break in the pattern caused by any motion in the area triggers the control. Ultrasonic sensors can see around obstructions and are best for areas with cabinets and shelving, restrooms, and open areas requiring 360-degree coverage. Some occupancy sensors utilize both passive infrared and ultrasonic technology, but are usually more expensive. They can be used to control one lamp, one fixture or many fixtures.
What is the oldest method of interior lighting?
56dfa1c738dc42170015213a
Daylighting
0
False
Daylighting has been proven to have negative effects on people?
56dfa1c738dc42170015213c
not
456
False
Daylighting is the oldest method of interior lighting. Daylighting is simply designing a space to use as much natural light as possible. This decreases energy consumption and costs, and requires less heating and cooling from the building. Daylighting has also been proven to have positive effects on patients in hospitals as well as work and school performance. Due to a lack of information that indicate the likely energy savings, daylighting schemes are not yet popular among most buildings.
What is a form of solid state lighting?
56dfa2bc38dc42170015214c
LEDs
39
False
What is the best way to control light emissions of LEDs?
56dfa2bc38dc42170015214d
nonimaging optics
269
False
In recent years light emitting diodes (LEDs) are becoming increasingly efficient leading to an extraordinary increase in the use of solid state lighting. In many situations, controlling the light emission of LEDs may be done most effectively by using the principles of nonimaging optics.
What can cause health effects such headache frequency?
56dfa3d938dc42170015215e
higher lighting levels
204
False
Beyond the energy factors being considered, it is important not to over-design illumination, lest adverse health effects such as headache frequency, stress, and increased blood pressure be induced by the higher lighting levels. In addition, glare or excess light can decrease worker efficiency.
Maximizing the right amount of light at the appropriate time for elderly may help systems of what?
56dfa58d7aa994140058df7e
Alzheimer's Disease
733
False
The human circadian system is entrained to how many hours light-dark pattern?
56dfa58d7aa994140058df7f
24
799
False
What happens to the natural carcidan cycle when light-dark patterns are disrupted?
56dfa58d7aa994140058df80
disrupt the natural circadian cycle
918
False
Analysis of lighting quality particularly emphasizes use of natural lighting, but also considers spectral content if artificial light is to be used. Not only will greater reliance on natural light reduce energy consumption, but will favorably impact human health and performance. New studies have shown that the performance of students is influenced by the time and duration of daylight in their regular schedules. Designing school facilities to incorporate the right types of light at the right time of day for the right duration may improve student performance and well-being. Similarly, designing lighting systems that maximize the right amount of light at the appropriate time of day for the elderly may help relieve symptoms of Alzheimer's Disease. The human circadian system is entrained to a 24-hour light-dark pattern that mimics the earth’s natural light/dark pattern. When those patterns are disrupted, they disrupt the natural circadian cycle. Circadian disruption may lead to numerous health problems including breast cancer, seasonal affective disorder, delayed sleep phase syndrome, and other ailments.
Who documented 23 surgical patients assigned rooms looking out on a natural scene?
56dfa6de7aa994140058df99
Robert Ulrich
50
False
Did the patients with natural scenes have longer postoperative hospital stays?
56dfa6de7aa994140058df9a
no
338
False
Did patients that have natural scenes require more potent analgesics?
56dfa6de7aa994140058df9b
no
338
False
A study conducted in 1972 and 1981, documented by Robert Ulrich, surveyed 23 surgical patients assigned to rooms looking out on a natural scene. The study concluded that patients assigned to rooms with windows allowing lots of natural light had shorter postoperative hospital stays, received fewer negative evaluative comments in nurses’ notes, and took fewer potent analegesics than 23 matched patients in similar rooms with windows facing a brick wall. This study suggests that due to the nature of the scenery and daylight exposure was indeed healthier for patients as opposed to those exposed to little light from the brick wall. In addition to increased work performance, proper usage of windows and daylighting crosses the boundaries between pure aesthetics and overall health.
What University was Alision Jing Xu the assistant professor of management at?
56dfa8ab231d4119001abc51
University of Toronto Scarborough
57
False
What Univerity was Aparna Labroo associated with?
56dfa8ab231d4119001abc52
Northwestern University
112
False
Alison Jing Xu, assistant professor of management at the University of Toronto Scarborough and Aparna Labroo of Northwestern University conducted a series of studies analyzing the correlation between lighting and human emotion. The researchers asked participants to rate a number of things such as: the spiciness of chicken-wing sauce, the aggressiveness of a fictional character, how attractive someone was, their feelings about specific words, and the taste of two juices–all under different lighting conditions. In their study, they found that both positive and negative human emotions are felt more intensely in bright light. Professor Xu stated, "we found that on sunny days depression-prone people actually become more depressed." They also found that dim light makes people make more rational decisions and settle negotiations easier. In the dark, emotions are slightly suppressed. However, emotions are intensified in the bright light.
What devised a method where kerosene could be distilled from petroleum?
56dfa9c67aa994140058dfb3
Dr. Abraham Gesner
9
False
What year was it discovered that petroleum could be distilled into kerosene?
56dfa9c67aa994140058dfb4
1849
3
False
What method of lighting have been used since 1820s?
56dfa9c67aa994140058dfb5
coal-gas methods
126
False
In 1849, Dr. Abraham Gesner, a Canadian geologist, devised a method where kerosene could be distilled from petroleum. Earlier coal-gas methods had been used for lighting since the 1820s, but they were expensive. Gesner's kerosene was cheap, easy to produce, could be burned in existing lamps, and did not produce an offensive odor as did most whale oil. It could be stored indefinitely, unlike whale oil, which would eventually spoil. The American petroleum boom began in the 1850s. By the end of the decade there were 30 kerosene plants operating in the United States. The cheaper, more efficient fuel began to drive whale oil out of the market. John D. Rockefeller was most responsible for the commercial success of kerosene. He set up a network of kerosene distilleries which would later become Standard Oil, thus completely abolishing the need for whale-oil lamps. These types of lamps may catch fire or emit carbon-monoxide and sometimes are odorous making them problematic for asthmatic people.
What does CFL stand for?
56dfb498231d4119001abc8d
Compact fluorescent lamps
0
False
Are all CFLs suitable for dimming?
56dfb498231d4119001abc91
not
894
False
Compact fluorescent lamps (aka 'CFLs') use less power to supply the same amount of light as an incandescent lamp, however they contain mercury which is a dispose hazard. Due to the ability to reduce electric consumption, many organizations have undertaken measures to encourage the adoption of CFLs. Some electric utilities and local governments have subsidized CFLs or provided them free to customers as a means of reducing electric demand. For a given light output, CFLs use between one fifth and one quarter of the power of an equivalent incandescent lamp. One of the simplest and quickest ways for a household or business to become more energy efficient is to adopt CFLs as the main lamp source, as suggested by the Alliance for Climate Protection. Unlike incandescent lamps CFL's need a little time to 'warm up' and reach full brightness. Care should be taken when selecting CFL's because not all of them are suitable for dimming.
How much more power does a standard incandescent bulb use compared to LED?
56dfb65b7aa994140058e03f
10%
141
False
What is the average lifetime of a CFL?
56dfb65b7aa994140058e041
50,000 hours
311
False
How much power does a halogen lamp save compared to a standard blub?
56dfb65b7aa994140058e042
70%
265
False
LED lamps have been advocated as the newest and best environmental lighting method. According to the Energy Saving Trust, LED lamps use only 10% power compared to a standard incandescent bulb, where compact fluorescent lamps use 20% and energy saving halogen lamps 70%. The lifetime is also much longer — up to 50,000 hours. A downside is still the initial cost, which is higher than that of compact fluorescent lamps.
What is known as artificial light that is excessive or intrusive?
56dfbac5231d4119001abd34
Light pollution
0
False
What causes sharp shadows around buildings?
56dfbac5231d4119001abd36
glare
487
False
Light pollution is a growing problem in reaction to excess light being given off by numerous signs, houses, and buildings. Polluting light is often wasted light involving unnecessary energy costs and carbon dioxide emissions. Light pollution is described as artificial light that is excessive or intrudes where it is not wanted. Well-designed lighting sends light only where it is needed without scattering it elsewhere. Poorly designed lighting can also compromise safety. For example, glare creates safety issues around buildings by causing very sharp shadows, temporarily blinding passersby making them vulnerable to would-be assailants.
In a battlefield does not have natural light what could you use instead?
56dfbc1d231d4119001abd47
searchlights and flares
364
False
The use of what may disclose your own hidden position on a battlefield?
56dfbc1d231d4119001abd48
light
28
False
Modern warfare has seen the increased use of what?
56dfbc1d231d4119001abd49
infrared cameras
542
False
From a military standpoint, lighting is a critical part of the battlefield conditions. Shadows are good places to hide, while bright areas are more exposed. It is often beneficial to fight with the Sun or other light source behind you, giving your enemy disturbing visual glare and partially hiding your own movements in backlight. If natural light is not present searchlights and flares can be used. However the use of light may disclose your own hidden position and modern warfare have seen increased use of night vision through the use of infrared cameras and image intensifiers.
What can be used by military for targeting?
56dfbc8c231d4119001abd4f
Flares
0
False
What has eliminated the need for flares on a battlefield?
56dfbc8c231d4119001abd50
laser-guided and GPS weapons
86
False
Flares can also be used by the military to mark positions, usually for targeting, but laser-guided and GPS weapons have eliminated this need for the most part.
What does the CIE stand for?
56dfbd4e7aa994140058e0d1
International Commission on Illumination
4
False
The International Commission on Illumination (CIE) is an international authority and standard defining organization on color and lighting. Publishing widely used standard metrics such as various CIE color spaces and the color rendering index.
What does the IESNA stand for?
56dfbe777aa994140058e0e1
The Illuminating Engineering Society of North America
0
False
Who else publishes along with IESNA?
56dfbe777aa994140058e0e2
ANSI and ASHRAE
102
False
What defines photo metric data?
56dfbe777aa994140058e0e4
distribution of light released
350
False
The Illuminating Engineering Society of North America (IESNA), in conjunction with organizations like ANSI and ASHRAE, publishes guidelines, standards, and handbooks that allow categorization of the illumination needs of different built environments. Manufacturers of lighting equipment publish photometric data for their products, which defines the distribution of light released by a specific luminaire. This data is typically expressed in standardized form defined by the IESNA.
What does IALD stand for?
56dfbf1c7aa994140058e0fd
The International Association of Lighting Designers
0
False
The International Association of Lighting Designers (IALD) is an organization which focuses on the advancement of lighting design education and the recognition of independent professional lighting designers. Those fully independent designers who meet the requirements for professional membership in the association typically append the abbreviation IALD to their name.
What does PLDA stand for?
56dfbfd97aa994140058e109
The Professional Lighting Designers Association
0
False
What was the PLDA formerly known as?
56dfbfd97aa994140058e10a
ELDA
74
False
The Professional Lighting Designers Association (PLDA), formerly known as ELDA is an organisation focusing on the promotion of the profession of Architectural Lighting Design. They publish a monthly newsletter and organise different events throughout the world.
Who offers the Lighting Certification Examination?
56dfc0b67aa994140058e123
NCQLP
69
False
What does NCQLP stand for?
56dfc0b67aa994140058e124
The National Council on Qualifications for the Lighting Professions
0
False
Which abbreviation can you append to your name after becoming Lighting Certified?
56dfc0b67aa994140058e125
LC
265
False
What other national examinations are available?
56dfc0b67aa994140058e126
CLEP and CLMC
371
False
The National Council on Qualifications for the Lighting Professions (NCQLP) offers the Lighting Certification Examination which tests rudimentary lighting design principles. Individuals who pass this exam become ‘Lighting Certified’ and may append the abbreviation LC to their name. This certification process is one of three national (U.S.) examinations (the others are CLEP and CLMC) in the lighting industry and is open not only to designers, but to lighting equipment manufacturers, electric utility employees, etc.
What does PLASA stand for?
56dfc1797aa994140058e12b
The Professional Lighting And Sound Association
0
False
Where is PLASA based?
56dfc1797aa994140058e12c
UK
61
False
How many individuals does PLASA represent?
56dfc1797aa994140058e12d
500+
106
False
What does RoHS stand for?
56dfc1797aa994140058e12e
Restriction of Hazardous Substances Directive
807
False
The Professional Lighting And Sound Association (PLASA) is a UK-based trade organisation representing the 500+ individual and corporate members drawn from the technical services sector. Its members include manufacturers and distributors of stage and entertainment lighting, sound, rigging and similar products and services, and affiliated professionals in the area. They lobby for and represent the interests of the industry at various levels, interacting with government and regulating bodies and presenting the case for the entertainment industry. Example subjects of this representation include the ongoing review of radio frequencies (which may or may not affect the radio bands in which wireless microphones and other devices use) and engaging with the issues surrounding the introduction of the RoHS (Restriction of Hazardous Substances Directive) regulations.
Separation_of_powers_under_the_United_States_Constitution
Which political practice did Montesquieu originate?
56de244f4396321400ee25ef
Separation of powers
0
False
How many divisions of the government did Montesquieu call for?
56de244f4396321400ee25f0
three
166
False
What document was greatly informed by the idea of separation of powers?
56de244f4396321400ee25f1
United States Constitution
401
False
What kind of oversight does the separation of powers help to promote?
56de244f4396321400ee25f3
checks and balances
663
False
What was the doctrine called that allowed the three branches of government to check the powers of each other?
56de333b4396321400ee268f
separation of powers
325
False
Separation of powers
0
What originates in the writings of the Legislative powers?
5ad370ad604f3c001a3fe25d
True
Montesquieu
76
Who urged for a government with four individual branches?
5ad370ad604f3c001a3fe25e
True
The Spirit of the Laws
91
In which doctrine did the US call for three separate branches of government?
5ad370ad604f3c001a3fe25f
True
separation of powers
325
Which philosophy was a great influence on the Legislative branch of government?
5ad370ad604f3c001a3fe260
True
United States Constitution
401
Which document was greatly influenced by the idea of a constitutional government?
5ad370ad604f3c001a3fe261
True
Separation of powers is a political doctrine originating in the writings of Montesquieu in The Spirit of the Laws where he urged for a constitutional government with three separate branches of government. Each of the three branches would have defined abilities to check the powers of the other branches. This idea was called separation of powers. This philosophy heavily influenced the writing of the United States Constitution, according to which the Legislative, Executive, and Judicial branches of the United States government are kept distinct in order to prevent abuse of power. This United States form of separation of powers is associated with a system of checks and balances.
Which Enlightenment thinker supported the idea of separation of powers?
56de24b24396321400ee25fd
John Locke
54
False
Which Enlightenment thinker was against the separation of powers?
56de24b24396321400ee25fe
Thomas Hobbes
132
False
Who was a leading advocate of dividing government into different branches?
56de24b24396321400ee25ff
Montesquieu
168
False
Whose thoughts were impacted by Montesquieu's philosophy?
56de24b24396321400ee2600
the framers of the United States Constitution
333
False
Who was an advocate of separation of powers?
56de33fc4396321400ee2694
John Locke
54
False
Who was an opponent of separation of powers?
56de33fc4396321400ee2695
Thomas Hobbes
132
False
Who's writing were very influential on the design of the United States Constitution?
56de33fc4396321400ee2696
Montesquieu
168
False
Age of Enlightenment
11
During which age did Thomas Hobbes advocate the principle in his writing?
5ad37aaa604f3c001a3fe3cd
True
Age of Enlightenment
11
During which age did John Locke oppose the principle in his writing?
5ad37aaa604f3c001a3fe3ce
True
Montesquieu
168
Who was at the forefront of the opposition towards separating the branches of government?
5ad37aaa604f3c001a3fe3cf
True
Montesquieu
168
Who's writings had no influence on the framers of the US constitution?
5ad37aaa604f3c001a3fe3d0
True
During the Age of Enlightenment, philosophers such as John Locke advocated the principle in their writings, whereas others, such as Thomas Hobbes, strongly opposed it. Montesquieu was one of the foremost supporters of separating the legislature, the executive, and the judiciary. His writings considerably influenced the opinions of the framers of the United States Constitution.
What country's government, on which the US government was modeled, did not formally implement separation of powers?
56de2995cffd8e1900b4b5ea
UK
233
False
What were the two main principles informing the government of the UK?
56de2995cffd8e1900b4b5eb
parliamentary sovereignty and responsible government
265
False
What term describes the status of the different branches of government in Maryland, Virginia, North Carolina and Georgia?
56de2995cffd8e1900b4b5ee
separate and distinct
1824
False
What country's government served as a model for the United States Government?
56de3644cffd8e1900b4b678
United Kingdom
51
False
In the 18th century what function, besides President, did the Delaware President serve?
56de3644cffd8e1900b4b679
a member of the Court of Appeals
1395
False
separation of powers
7
Which political structure served as a model for the United Kingdom government?
5ad37d3d604f3c001a3fe40d
True
Parliament
319
What body consisted of the House of Lords and the House of Majesty;s government?
5ad37d3d604f3c001a3fe40e
True
the two Houses of Parliament
616
What were the Chancellor's Ministers mos often members of?
5ad37d3d604f3c001a3fe40f
True
Delaware
1382
In which state was the Governor a member of the court of appeals?
5ad37d3d604f3c001a3fe410
True
Delaware and Pennsylvania
1563
In which states did members of the Lord Chancellor's council and judges serve at the same time?
5ad37d3d604f3c001a3fe411
True
Strict separation of powers did not operate in The United Kingdom, the political structure of which served in most instances[citation needed] as a model for the government created by the U.S. Constitution.[citation needed] Under the UK Westminster system, based on parliamentary sovereignty and responsible government, Parliament (consisting of the Sovereign (King-in-Parliament), House of Lords and House of Commons) was the supreme lawmaking authority. The executive branch acted in the name of the King ("His Majesty's Government"), as did the judiciary. The King's Ministers were in most cases members of one of the two Houses of Parliament, and the Government needed to sustain the support of a majority in the House of Commons. One minister, the Lord Chancellor, was at the same time the sole judge in the Court of Chancery and the presiding officer in the House of Lords. Therefore, it may be seen that the three branches of British government often violated the strict principle of separation of powers, even though there were many occasions when the different branches of the government disagreed with each other. Some U.S. states did not observe a strict separation of powers in the 18th century. In New Jersey, the Governor also functioned as a member of the state's highest court and as the presiding officer of one house of the New Jersey Legislature. The President of Delaware was a member of the Court of Appeals; the presiding officers of the two houses of the state legislature also served in the executive department as Vice Presidents. In both Delaware and Pennsylvania, members of the executive council served at the same time as judges. On the other hand, many southern states explicitly required separation of powers. Maryland, Virginia, North Carolina and Georgia all kept the branches of government "separate and distinct."
What is the only branch of U.S. government imbued with lawmaking abilities?
56de2aeacffd8e1900b4b5f4
Congress
0
False
Which court case upheld the rule of nondelegation?
56de2aeacffd8e1900b4b5f5
Clinton v. City of New York
230
False
When was Clinton v. City of New York decided by the Supreme Court?
56de2aeacffd8e1900b4b5f6
1998
220
False
In the US who has the sole power to pass legislation?
56de37794396321400ee26ac
Congress
0
False
What is the doctrine called that does not allow congress to pass on their power to pass laws to any other agency?
56de37794396321400ee26ad
nondelegation doctrine
74
False
What was the court case that struck down the line item veto?
56de37794396321400ee26ae
Clinton v. City of New York
230
False
What year was Clinton v. City of New York decided by the supreme court?
56de37794396321400ee26af
1998
220
False
Congress
0
Who has shared legislative power in the United States?
5ad37ec4604f3c001a3fe42b
True
nondelegation doctrine
74
Which doctrine says Congress can delegate its powers to whoever it wants?
5ad37ec4604f3c001a3fe42c
True
1998
220
In which year was the court case Clinton v. Supreme Court held?
5ad37ec4604f3c001a3fe42d
True
Congress
98
Who may delegate lawmaking responsibilities to other agencies as it pleases?
5ad37ec4604f3c001a3fe42e
True
United States
49
In which country does Congress have shared lawmaking responsibilities?
5ad37ec4604f3c001a3fe42f
True
Congress has the sole power to legislate for the United States. Under the nondelegation doctrine, Congress may not delegate its lawmaking responsibilities to any other agency. In this vein, the Supreme Court held in the 1998 case Clinton v. City of New York that Congress could not delegate a "line-item veto" to the President, by powers vested in the government by the Constitution.
What was one of the first times the Supreme Court tried a case regarding nondelegation?
56de2c7fcffd8e1900b4b616
Wayman v. Southard
196
False
In what year was Wayman v. Southard tried by the U.S. Supreme Court?
56de2c7fcffd8e1900b4b617
1825
240
False
Who was Chief Justice of the Supreme Court when Wayman v. Southard reached the Supreme Court?
56de2c7fcffd8e1900b4b618
John Marshall
456
False
In Wayman v. Southard, what branch was accused of being given lawmaking abilities by Congress?
56de2c7fcffd8e1900b4b619
the judiciary
397
False
What is the name of the 1825 case where the supreme court held that congress could delegate their responsibilities to the court?
56de385ccffd8e1900b4b68e
Wayman v. Southard
196
False
Who was chief justice of the supreme court under the Wayman v. Southard ruling?
56de385ccffd8e1900b4b68f
John Marshall
456
False
Where Congress does not make great and sweeping delegations of its authority
0
Where has the Supreme Court been known to be more stringent towards Congress?
5ad37fa8604f3c001a3fe447
True
Wayman v. Southard
196
What is one of the most recent races regarding limits of non delegation?
5ad37fa8604f3c001a3fe448
True
1825
240
When did the Supreme Court hear John Marshall v Southard?
5ad37fa8604f3c001a3fe449
True
Wayman v. Southard
196
Which case was heard by Congress in regards to non delegation limits?
5ad37fa8604f3c001a3fe44a
True
1825
240
When was the US Congress Court Wayman v. Southard heard?
5ad37fa8604f3c001a3fe44b
True
Where Congress does not make great and sweeping delegations of its authority, the Supreme Court has been less stringent. One of the earliest cases involving the exact limits of non-delegation was Wayman v. Southard 23 U.S. (10 Wet.) 1, 42 (1825). Congress had delegated to the courts the power to prescribe judicial procedure; it was contended that Congress had thereby unconstitutionally clothed the judiciary with legislative powers. While Chief Justice John Marshall conceded that the determination of rules of procedure was a legislative function, he distinguished between "important" subjects and mere details. Marshall wrote that "a general provision may be made, and power given to those who are to act under such general provisions, to fill up the details."
When was the first time that a Congressional attempt at delegating lawmaking responsibility was found to be in violation of the Constitution?
56de2d374396321400ee2636
the 1930s
111
False
The establishment of what body was the subject of A.L.A. Schechter Poultry Corp. v. United States?
56de2d374396321400ee2637
National Recovery Administration
233
False
In what year was A.L.A. Schechter v. United States tried before the Supreme Court?
56de2d374396321400ee2638
1935
336
False
In what year did the supreme court determine that delegating powers by congress was unconstitutional?
56de39a6cffd8e1900b4b698
1935
336
False
What was the supreme court case that was determined that congress could not allow the President to determine fair competition?
56de39a6cffd8e1900b4b699
Schechter Poultry Corp. v. United States
280
False
Marshall's words and future
0
What gave Congress less latitude in delegating powers?
5ad383b2604f3c001a3fe4fb
True
1930s
115
During which decade did the Supreme Court hold a delegation of authority as constitutional?
5ad383b2604f3c001a3fe4fc
True
1930s
115
When did Congress make the decision that a delegation of authority is unconstitutional?
5ad383b2604f3c001a3fe4fd
True
A.L.A. Schechter Poultry Corp. v. United States, 295 U.S. 495
273
In which case was Congress able to authorize the president to formulate codes?
5ad383b2604f3c001a3fe4fe
True
1935
336
During which year did Congress authorize the presidential formulation of fair competition codes?
5ad383b2604f3c001a3fe4ff
True
Marshall's words and future court decisions gave Congress much latitude in delegating powers. It was not until the 1930s that the Supreme Court held a delegation of authority unconstitutional. In a case involving the creation of the National Recovery Administration called A.L.A. Schechter Poultry Corp. v. United States, 295 U.S. 495 (1935), Congress could not authorize the president to formulate codes of "fair competition." It was held that Congress must set some standards governing the actions of executive officers. The Court, however, has deemed that phrases such as "just and reasonable," "public interest" and "public convenience" suffice.
Which branches of the national military does the U.S. president command?
56de2e1d4396321400ee263c
Army and Navy
153
False
Whose approval is required for the president's appointees to take office?
56de2e1d4396321400ee263d
Senate
310
False
What is a Congressional means of removing presidential appointees?
56de2e1d4396321400ee263e
impeachment
784
False
What term can characterize the status of bodies like the War Claims Commission and the Interstate Commerce Commission?
56de2e1d4396321400ee263f
quasi-judicial
939
False
Which of the three branches has the duty of Commander and Chief?
56de3ad0cffd8e1900b4b6a6
Executive
0
False
Who has the authority to make treaties?
56de3ad0cffd8e1900b4b6a7
the President
66
False
What is it called when congress terminates an appointment of the President?
56de3ad0cffd8e1900b4b6a8
impeachment
784
False
Who has over-sight of the Federal Trade Commission?
56de3ad0cffd8e1900b4b6a9
Congress
692
False
President
70
In whom is Congressional power vested?
5ad38450604f3c001a3fe517
True
the Army and Navy
149
What does the Vice President become Commander in Chief of?
5ad38450604f3c001a3fe518
True
enforce
511
By the words it uses, what does the Constitution require the President to do regarding laws?
5ad38450604f3c001a3fe519
True
Congress
692
Laws are made by the President and approved by which body?
5ad38450604f3c001a3fe51a
True
Congress
732
Who may the President restrict through impeachment?
5ad38450604f3c001a3fe51b
True
Executive power is vested, with exceptions and qualifications, in the President. By law (Section 2.) the president becomes the Commander in Chief of the Army and Navy, Militia of several states when called into service, has power to make treaties and appointments to office "with the Advice and Consent of the Senate," receive Ambassadors and Public Ministers, and "take care that the laws be faithfully executed" (Section 3.) By using these words, the Constitution does not require the president to personally enforce the law; rather, officers subordinate to the president may perform such duties. The Constitution empowers the president to ensure the faithful execution of the laws made by Congress and approved by the President. Congress may itself terminate such appointments, by impeachment, and restrict the president. Bodies such as the War Claims Commission, the Interstate Commerce Commission and the Federal Trade Commission—all quasi-judicial—often have direct Congressional oversight.
To what does congress attempt to limit executive officials?
56de2fe04396321400ee265c
the performance of their duties
69
False
What court case affirmed the mandates of the first and seventh sections of Article I of the Constitution?
56de2fe04396321400ee265d
INS v. Chadha
146
False
When was INS v Chadha tried before the Supreme Court?
56de2fe04396321400ee265e
1983
161
False
By what margin can congress over ride a Presidential veto?
56de3bf44396321400ee26c0
two-thirds
525
False
executive officials
46
Who often writes laws to restrain Congress to the performance of their duties?
5ad386af604f3c001a3fe557
True
INS v. Chadha
146
In which case did Congress decide that all powers would be vested in the Supreme Court consisting of a Senate and House of Representatives?
5ad386af604f3c001a3fe558
True
Senate and a House of Representatives
329
Congress decide that all powers would be vested in the Supreme Court consisting of a which two bodies?
5ad386af604f3c001a3fe559
True
1983
161
In what year did Congress decide that all powers would be vested in the Supreme Court consisting of a Senate and House of Representatives?
5ad386af604f3c001a3fe55a
True
the House and Senate
406
Who must be presented with every bill passed by the President?
5ad386af604f3c001a3fe55b
True
Congress often writes legislation to restrain executive officials to the performance of their duties, as laid out by the laws Congress passes. In INS v. Chadha (1983), the Supreme Court decided (a) The prescription for legislative action in Art. I, § 1—requiring all legislative powers to be vested in a Congress consisting of a Senate and a House of Representatives—and § 7—requiring every bill passed by the House and Senate, before becoming law, to be presented to the president, and, if he disapproves, to be repassed by two-thirds of the Senate and House—represents the Framers' decision that the legislative power of the Federal Government be exercised in accord with a single, finely wrought and exhaustively considered procedure. This procedure is an integral part of the constitutional design for the separation of powers. Further rulings clarified the case; even both Houses acting together cannot override Executive vetos without a 2⁄3 majority. Legislation may always prescribe regulations governing executive officers.
In what branch is the ability to try legal cases placed?
56de307c4396321400ee2666
Judicial
0
False
Who nominates justices for the U.S. Supreme Court?
56de307c4396321400ee2667
president
171
False
Who must approve presidential appointees to the Supreme Court?
56de307c4396321400ee2668
Senate
216
False
What is the term for judicial institutions exercising their power?
56de307c4396321400ee2669
constitutional courts
512
False
What is the power given to the supreme court and lower courts called?
56de3c8acffd8e1900b4b6b8
Judicial power
0
False
Who appoints a judge?
56de3c8acffd8e1900b4b6b9
the president
167
False
Who gives the President advice and consent for a judge appointment?
56de3c8acffd8e1900b4b6ba
the Senate
212
False
Judicial power
0
Which type of power is vested in Congress?
5ad387dc604f3c001a3fe56f
True
the president
167
Who must be appointed by Supreme Court judges?
5ad387dc604f3c001a3fe570
True
constitutional courts
512
What are courts exercising presidential power referred to?
5ad387dc604f3c001a3fe571
True
the Senate
212
Who appoints judges to the presidency?
5ad387dc604f3c001a3fe572
True
Judicial
0
What type of power gives the power to decided controversies to the president?
5ad387dc604f3c001a3fe573
True
Judicial power—the power to decide cases and controversies—is vested in the Supreme Court and inferior courts established by Congress. The judges must be appointed by the president with the advice and consent of the Senate, hold office during good behavior and receive compensations that may not be diminished during their continuance in office. If a court's judges do not have such attributes, the court may not exercise the judicial power of the United States. Courts exercising the judicial power are called "constitutional courts."
What kind of courts did congress establish?
56de3d78cffd8e1900b4b6c2
legislative courts
24
False
What power are legislative courts not allowed to exercise?
56de3d78cffd8e1900b4b6c3
judicial power of the United States
255
False
legislative courts
24
Which type of courts are established by Hoboken Land & Improvement CO.?
5ad3887d604f3c001a3fe579
True
judicial agencies or commissions
75
Which form do legislative courts take?
5ad3887d604f3c001a3fe57a
True
judicial power
255
Which power of the United States may legislative courts exercise?
5ad3887d604f3c001a3fe57b
True
public rights" questions
551
Which questions are legislative courts not able to adjudicate?
5ad3887d604f3c001a3fe57c
True
Congress
0
Which type of courts do legislative courts create in the form of judicial agencies?
5ad3887d604f3c001a3fe57d
True
Congress may establish "legislative courts," which do not take the form of judicial agencies or commissions, whose members do not have the same security of tenure or compensation as the constitutional court judges. Legislative courts may not exercise the judicial power of the United States. In Murray's Lessee v. Hoboken Land & Improvement Co. (1856), the Supreme Court held that a legislative court may not decide "a suit at the common law, or in equity, or admiralty," as such a suit is inherently judicial. Legislative courts may only adjudicate "public rights" questions (cases between the government and an individual and political determinations).
Who can determine a date of adjournment if congress cannot agree?
56de3e40cffd8e1900b4b6dc
President
396
False
Who can call congress into emergency session?
56de3e40cffd8e1900b4b6de
The president
0
False
Who serves as president of the Senate?
56de3e40cffd8e1900b4b6df
The Vice President
387
False
power to veto bills
58
How does Congress exercise a check over the President?
5ad38948604f3c001a3fe58b
True
The president
0
Who has the ability to override any veto made by Congress?
5ad38948604f3c001a3fe58c
True
pocket veto
140
Which veto is the only one Congress is able to override with a two thirds majority?
5ad38948604f3c001a3fe58d
True
two houses of Congress
203
Who settles the dispute when the President and Vice President cannot come to an agreement for a date of adjournment?
5ad38948604f3c001a3fe58e
True
Vice President
391
Who serves as President of the Senate and is the only member with voting rights?
5ad38948604f3c001a3fe58f
True
The president exercises a check over Congress through his power to veto bills, but Congress may override any veto (excluding the so-called "pocket veto") by a two-thirds majority in each house. When the two houses of Congress cannot agree on a date for adjournment, the president may settle the dispute. Either house or both houses may be called into emergency session by the president. The Vice President serves as president of the Senate, but he may only vote to break a tie.
Who has the power to issue a pardon?
56de3e91cffd8e1900b4b6f0
The president
0
False
Who has the power to issue a reprieve?
56de3e91cffd8e1900b4b6f1
The president
0
False
Senate
56
Who appoints the President with the approval of judges?
5ad39362604f3c001a3fe6d1
True
president
4
Who appoints the Senate with the approval of judges?
5ad39362604f3c001a3fe6d2
True
Senate
56
Who appoints judges with the President's approval?
5ad39362604f3c001a3fe6d3
True
reprieves
128
The president does not have the power to issue pardons or what else?
5ad39362604f3c001a3fe6d4
True
pardons
116
Other than reprieves, what is the Senate able to issue?
5ad39362604f3c001a3fe6d5
True
The president, as noted above, appoints judges with the Senate's advice and consent. He also has the power to issue pardons and reprieves. Such pardons are not subject to confirmation by either the House of Representatives or the Senate, or even to acceptance by the recipient.
Who is the commander and chief of the Army?
56de3f73cffd8e1900b4b706
The president
0
False
Who has the power to declare ware?
56de3f73cffd8e1900b4b707
Congress
216
False
Who has the responsibility to confirm Generals and Admirals?
56de3f73cffd8e1900b4b708
the Senate
606
False
president
4
Who is the Commander in Chief of Congress?
5ad394a7604f3c001a3fe71d
True
president
4
Who is the Commander in Chief of laws and regulations?
5ad394a7604f3c001a3fe71e
True
president
4
Who lacks power to command the miliary take action during crises?
5ad394a7604f3c001a3fe71f
True
Congress
216
Who lacks authority to make laws to govern the armed forces?
5ad394a7604f3c001a3fe720
True
Congress
216
Who is the only body with authority to declare majority vote?
5ad394a7604f3c001a3fe721
True
The president is the civilian Commander in Chief of the Army and Navy of the United States. He has the authority to command them to take appropriate military action in the event of a sudden crisis. However, only the Congress is explicitly granted the power to declare war per se, as well as to raise, fund and maintain the armed forces. Congress also has the duty and authority to prescribe the laws and regulations under which the armed forces operate, such as the Uniform Code of Military Justice, and requires that all Generals and Admirals appointed by the president be confirmed by a majority vote of the Senate before they can assume their office.
Who is responsible for judicial review?
56de4022cffd8e1900b4b70c
Courts
0
False
What is the court case that established judicial review?
56de4022cffd8e1900b4b70d
Marbury v. Madison
313
False
judicial review
74
Through which type of review does the Constitution check the executive and legislative branches?
5ad39601604f3c001a3fe771
True
Marbury v. Madison
313
In which case did the Constitution establish a precedent for judicial review?
5ad39601604f3c001a3fe772
True
judicial review
74
Through which type of review does the President check the executive and legislative branches?
5ad39601604f3c001a3fe773
True
Marbury v. Madison
313
In which case did the Supreme Court establish a precedent for Federalist Papers?
5ad39601604f3c001a3fe774
True
precedent
548
What abolished the principle that a court could strike down unconstitutional laws?
5ad39601604f3c001a3fe775
True
Courts check both the executive branch and the legislative branch through judicial review. This concept is not written into the Constitution, but was envisioned by many of the Constitution's Framers (for example, The Federalist Papers mention it). The Supreme Court established a precedent for judicial review in Marbury v. Madison. There were protests by some at this decision, born chiefly of political expediency, but political realities in the particular case paradoxically restrained opposing views from asserting themselves. For this reason, precedent alone established the principle that a court may strike down a law it deems unconstitutional.
Which courts decisions are binding across the entire United States?
56de40c0cffd8e1900b4b710
the Supreme Court
31
False
Supreme Court
35
Which court is the only one able to determine constitutionality?
5ad39730604f3c001a3fe7b5
True
determine constitutionality
76
Which power are inferior courts unable to exercise?
5ad39730604f3c001a3fe7b6
True
inferior courts
140
Which courts' decisions, other than Supreme Court, are binding across the country?
5ad39730604f3c001a3fe7b7
True
Supreme Court
35
Which is the only court unable to determine constitutionality?
5ad39730604f3c001a3fe7b8
True
A common misperception is that the Supreme Court is the only court that may determine constitutionality; the power is exercised even by the inferior courts. But only Supreme Court decisions are binding across the nation. Decisions of a Court of Appeals, for instance, are binding only in the circuit over which the court has jurisdiction.
Who can limit judicial review of a law?
56de4176cffd8e1900b4b71a
Congress
68
False
Who's judicial power does congress have the right to limit?
56de4176cffd8e1900b4b71b
the Supreme Court
238
False
Congress
68
Who lacks the ability to review the constitutionality of laws?
5ad39813604f3c001a3fe7e1
True
Congress
68
Who lacks the power to set the jurisdiction of courts?
5ad39813604f3c001a3fe7e2
True
courts
129
The Supreme court has power to set jurisdiction of what?
5ad39813604f3c001a3fe7e3
True
Congress
68
Who has the ability to determine whether a Supreme Court is constitutional or not?
5ad39813604f3c001a3fe7e4
True
Congress
170
The only constitutional limit on the Supreme Court's power to set jurisdiction relates to which body?
5ad39813604f3c001a3fe7e5
True
The power to review the constitutionality of laws may be limited by Congress, which has the power to set the jurisdiction of the courts. The only constitutional limit on Congress' power to set the jurisdiction of the judiciary relates to the Supreme Court; the Supreme Court may exercise only appellate jurisdiction except in cases involving states and cases affecting foreign ambassadors, ministers or consuls.
Who presides over an impeachment trial?
56de41c54396321400ee2726
The Chief Justice
0
False
in the Senate
27
Where does the Chief Justice preside during a Senate impeachment trial?
5ad39891604f3c001a3fe7f5
True
rules of the Senate
85
Which rules grant much authority to the presiding officer?
5ad39891604f3c001a3fe7f6
True
Chief Justice
189
Who has an unlimited role in this regard?
5ad39891604f3c001a3fe7f7
True
in the Senate
27
Where does the president preside during the Chief Justice impeachment trial?
5ad39891604f3c001a3fe7f8
True
rules of the Senate
85
Which rules do not grant authority to the President?
5ad39891604f3c001a3fe7f9
True
The Chief Justice presides in the Senate during a president's impeachment trial. The rules of the Senate, however, generally do not grant much authority to the presiding officer. Thus, the Chief Justice's role in this regard is a limited one.
Who wrote that the legislative branch was the predominate branch of government?
56de42a5cffd8e1900b4b734
James Madison
112
False
In which Federalist paper did James Madison state that the legislative branch of government was predominate?
56de42a5cffd8e1900b4b735
Federalist 51
135
False
James Madison
112
Who wrote in the Constitution that legislative authority is predominate?
5ad3994a604f3c001a3fe825
True
Federalist 51
135
Where did the Constitution write that it's not possible to give each department equal power?
5ad3994a604f3c001a3fe826
True
James Madison
112
Who wrote that it was possible to give equal power of self defense to each department?
5ad3994a604f3c001a3fe827
True
Constitution
4
Which document explicitly indicates pre-eminence of the judicial branch of government?
5ad3994a604f3c001a3fe828
True
Constitution
4
Which document explicitly indicates pre-eminence of the executive branch of government?
5ad3994a604f3c001a3fe829
True
The Constitution does not explicitly indicate the pre-eminence of any particular branch of government. However, James Madison wrote in Federalist 51, regarding the ability of each branch to defend itself from actions by the others, that "it is not possible to give to each department an equal power of self-defense. In republican government, the legislative authority necessarily predominates."
Immediately following the civil war which branch of government was seen to have the greater amount of power?
56de445a4396321400ee273e
Congress
116
False
the president
129
Between who and the Senate has dominance of one branch of government been a struggle?
5ad39bb0604f3c001a3fe8a3
True
Civil War
224
After which war did Republicans hold a minority in Congress?
5ad39bb0604f3c001a3fe8a4
True
Civil War
224
After which war did Democrats hold a majority in Congress?
5ad39bb0604f3c001a3fe8a5
True
Tenure of Office Act
458
Which act was passed to make Congress subordinate to the President?
5ad39bb0604f3c001a3fe8a6
True
the president
407
The Tenure of Office Act says Congress is subordinate to who?
5ad39bb0604f3c001a3fe8a7
True
Throughout America's history dominance of one of the three branches has essentially been a see-saw struggle between Congress and the president. Both have had periods of great power and weakness such as immediately after the Civil War when republicans had a majority in Congress and were able to pass major legislation and shoot down most of the president's vetoes. They also passed acts to essentially make the president subordinate to Congress, such as the Tenure of Office Act. Johnson's later impeachment also cost the presidency much political power. However the president has also exercised greater power largely during the 20th century. Both Roosevelts greatly expanded the powers of the president and wielded great power during their terms.
How many bills did George Washington veto?
56de4529cffd8e1900b4b75d
two
122
False
How many bills did James Monroe veto?
56de4529cffd8e1900b4b75e
one
146
False
How many bills did Andrew Jackson veto
56de4529cffd8e1900b4b75f
twelve
515
False
Who was the seventh President of the United States?
56de4529cffd8e1900b4b760
Andrew Jackson
377
False
George Washington
92
Which president vetoed six bills?
5ad39d1e604f3c001a3fe8c7
True
Andrew Jackson
377
Who was the last president to use veto as a political weapon?
5ad39d1e604f3c001a3fe8c8
True
twelve
515
How many bills did Andrew Jackson veto to make him the least likely president to veto a bill?
5ad39d1e604f3c001a3fe8c9
True
Andrew Jackson
377
Who stated "Andrew Jackson has made his decision. Now let him enforce it!"?
5ad39d1e604f3c001a3fe8ca
True
Andrew Jackson
377
Who defied the Supreme Court by enforcing Supreme Court Removal?
5ad39d1e604f3c001a3fe8cb
True
The first six presidents of the United States did not make extensive use of the veto power: George Washington only vetoed two bills, James Monroe one, and John Adams, Thomas Jefferson and John Quincy Adams none. James Madison, a firm believer in a strong executive, vetoed seven bills. None of the first six Presidents, however, used the veto to direct national policy. It was Andrew Jackson, the seventh President, who was the first to use the veto as a political weapon. During his two terms in office, he vetoed twelve bills—more than all of his predecessors combined. Furthermore, he defied the Supreme Court in enforcing the policy of ethnically cleansing Native American tribes ("Indian Removal"); he stated (perhaps apocryphally), "John Marshall has made his decision. Now let him enforce it!"
How many of Andrew Johnson's veto's were over turned by Congress
56de466e4396321400ee2757
fifteen
342
False
What act did congress pass that gave the senate the right to approve the dismissal of a cabinet official?
56de466e4396321400ee2758
Tenure of Office Act
460
False
Civil War
119
After which war did Congress begin using power to counterbalance the President?
5ad39da6604f3c001a3fe8f5
True
Andrew Johnson
202
Who vetoed several bills passed by the Radical Democrats?
5ad39da6604f3c001a3fe8f6
True
twenty-nine
363
How many of Johnson's fifteen vetoes did Congress override?
5ad39da6604f3c001a3fe8f7
True
fifteen
342
How many of Congress' 29 vetoes did Johnson override?
5ad39da6604f3c001a3fe8f8
True
Tenure of Office Act
460
Through which act did Jackson attempt to curb presidential power?
5ad39da6604f3c001a3fe8f9
True
Some of Jackson's successors made no use of the veto power, while others used it intermittently. It was only after the Civil War that presidents began to use the power to truly counterbalance Congress. Andrew Johnson, a Democrat, vetoed several Reconstruction bills passed by the "Radical Republicans." Congress, however, managed to override fifteen of Johnson's twenty-nine vetoes. Furthermore, it attempted to curb the power of the presidency by passing the Tenure of Office Act. The Act required Senate approval for the dismissal of senior Cabinet officials. When Johnson deliberately violated the Act, which he felt was unconstitutional (Supreme Court decisions later vindicated such a position), the House of Representatives impeached him; he was acquitted in the Senate by one vote.
Who was the first president to veto over 400 bills?
56de471ccffd8e1900b4b76f
Grover Cleveland
280
False
Under which President was the Tenure of Office Act repealed?
56de471ccffd8e1900b4b770
Grover Cleveland
280
False
damage
55
What did Cleveland's impeachment do to the presidency?
5ad3a323604f3c001a3fea4f
True
Johnson
0
Who's impeachment was perceived as having helped the presidency?
5ad3a323604f3c001a3fea50
True
Congress
120
Which body of government because subordinate to the presidency?
5ad3a323604f3c001a3fea51
True
Johnson
339
After Grover Cleveland, who was the first Democratic President?
5ad3a323604f3c001a3fea52
True
Grover Cleveland
280
Who was the first Republican President after Johnson?
5ad3a323604f3c001a3fea53
True
Johnson's impeachment was perceived to have done great damage to the presidency, which came to be almost subordinate to Congress. Some believed that the president would become a mere figurehead, with the Speaker of the House of Representatives becoming a de facto Prime Minister. Grover Cleveland, the first Democratic President following Johnson, attempted to restore the power of his office. During his first term, he vetoed over four hundred bills—twice as many bills as his twenty-one predecessors combined. He also began to suspend bureaucrats who were appointed as a result of the patronage system, replacing them with more "deserving" individuals. The Senate, however, refused to confirm many new nominations, instead demanding that Cleveland turn over the confidential records relating to the suspensions. Cleveland steadfastly refused, asserting, "These suspensions are my executive acts ... I am not responsible to the Senate, and I am unwilling to submit my actions to them for judgment." Cleveland's popular support forced the Senate to back down and confirm the nominees. Furthermore, Congress finally repealed the controversial Tenure of Office Act that had been passed during the Johnson Administration. Overall, this meant that Cleveland's Administration marked the end of presidential subordination.
Which President attempted to pack the supreme court?
56de485ccffd8e1900b4b787
Franklin Roosevelt
398
False
Who had granted Franklin Roosevelt sweeping authority during the great depression?
56de485ccffd8e1900b4b789
Congress
377
False
twentieth-century presidents
8
Which presidents have tried to decrease the power of the presidential office?
5ad3a3c6604f3c001a3fea6d
True
Theodore Roosevelt
99
Who claimed the president was not permitted to do whatever wasn't allowed by law?
5ad3a3c6604f3c001a3fea6e
True
Franklin Delano Roosevelt
298
Who failed to have considerable power during the Great Depression?
5ad3a3c6604f3c001a3fea6f
True
Franklin Delano Roosevelt
298
Who had considerable power during the Great Recession?
5ad3a3c6604f3c001a3fea70
True
Roosevelt
806
Who introduced a plan to decrease the number of Supreme Court seats for the president to fill?
5ad3a3c6604f3c001a3fea71
True
Several twentieth-century presidents have attempted to greatly expand the power of the presidency. Theodore Roosevelt, for instance, claimed that the president was permitted to do whatever was not explicitly prohibited by the law—in direct contrast to his immediate successor, William Howard Taft. Franklin Delano Roosevelt held considerable power during the Great Depression. Congress had granted Franklin Roosevelt sweeping authority; in Panama Refining v. Ryan, the Court for the first time struck down a Congressional delegation of power as violative of the doctrine of separation of powers. The aforementioned Schechter Poultry Corp. v. United States, another separation of powers case, was also decided during Franklin Roosevelt's presidency. In response to many unfavorable Supreme Court decisions, Roosevelt introduced a "Court Packing" plan, under which more seats would be added to the Supreme Court for the president to fill. Such a plan (which was defeated in Congress) would have seriously undermined the judiciary's independence and power.
Under what basis did Richard Nixon assert an expansion of the power of the President?
56de48f7cffd8e1900b4b793
national security
19
False
Richard Nixon
0
Who used the Supreme Court as a basis for expansion of power?
5ad3a4a3604f3c001a3fea8b
True
Nixon
246
Who claimed that executive privilege did not shield him from legislative oversight?
5ad3a4a3604f3c001a3fea8c
True
Nixon
246
Which president refused to spend money that was appropriated by the Supreme Court?
5ad3a4a3604f3c001a3fea8d
True
Watergate tapes
632
Into which tapes was there an ongoing civil investigation?
5ad3a4a3604f3c001a3fea8e
True
Nixon
246
Which president followed Congress' plan for appropriated government programs?
5ad3a4a3604f3c001a3fea8f
True
Richard Nixon used national security as a basis for his expansion of power. He asserted, for example, that "the inherent power of the President to safeguard the security of the nation" authorized him to order a wiretap without a judge's warrant. Nixon also asserted that "executive privilege" shielded him from all legislative oversight; furthermore, he impounded federal funds (that is to say, he refused to spend money that Congress had appropriated for government programs). In the specific cases aforementioned, however, the Supreme Court ruled against Nixon. This was also because of an ongoing criminal investigation into the Watergate tapes, even though they acknowledged the general need for executive privilege. Since then, Nixon's successors have sometimes asserted that they may act in the interests of national security or that executive privilege shields them from Congressional oversight. Though such claims have in general been more limited than Nixon's, one may still conclude that the presidency's power has been greatly augmented since the eighteenth and nineteenth centuries.
What term is used when one branch of government must get approval from at least one other branch of government?
56de4bd44396321400ee27a8
checks and balances
296
False
powers are shared among different branches
85
What does combination of powers mean?
5ad3a050604f3c001a3fe98b
True
checks and balances
296
What does not apply to the judicial branch?
5ad3a050604f3c001a3fe98c
True
checks and balances
296
What does not apply to any branch of government?
5ad3a050604f3c001a3fe98d
True
unilaterally
151
Branches are free to act in which way on all issues?
5ad3a050604f3c001a3fe98e
True
checks and balances
296
The Judicial branch of government is the only one to which what is applied?
5ad3a050604f3c001a3fe98f
True
It is said[by whom?] on one side of this debate that separation of powers means that powers are shared among different branches; no one branch may act unilaterally on issues (other than perhaps minor questions), but must obtain some form of agreement across branches. That is, it is argued that "checks and balances" apply to the Judicial branch as well as to the other branches.
Who has congress delegated the responsibility of establishing the rules of conduct for the courts to?
56de4ce74396321400ee27b2
the Supreme Court
238
False
the first view
14
The regulation of Congress is an example of what?
5ad39f4a604f3c001a3fe955
True
Congress
261
While Supreme Court holds these powers, who does it delegate them to?
5ad39f4a604f3c001a3fe956
True
regulation of attorneys and judges, and the establishment of rules for the conduct of the courts,
36
In practice, what is delegated to Congress?
5ad39f4a604f3c001a3fe957
True
delegation
415
What is Congress unable to withdraw?
5ad39f4a604f3c001a3fe958
True
An example of the first view is the regulation of attorneys and judges, and the establishment of rules for the conduct of the courts, by the Congress and in the states the legislatures. Although in practice these matters are delegated to the Supreme Court, the Congress holds these powers and delegates them to the Supreme Court only for convenience in light of the Supreme Court's expertise, but can withdraw that delegation at any time.
Who may license and regulate attorneys in Florida?
56de4d6c4396321400ee27bf
the Florida Supreme Court
73
False
Who sets the procedures to be followed in the Florida court system?
56de4d6c4396321400ee27c0
the Florida Supreme Court
73
False
Florida Supreme Court
77
In which supreme court is an example of the third view at the State level?
5ad39e61604f3c001a3fe917
True
Florida Supreme Court
77
Where is an example of the second view at the National level found?
5ad39e61604f3c001a3fe918
True
Florida Supreme Court
224
Which court is the only one able to set rules for procedures in State courts?
5ad39e61604f3c001a3fe919
True
Florida Supreme Court
114
Which court is the only one able to regulate attorneys appearing before the Supreme Court?
5ad39e61604f3c001a3fe91a
True
Florida Supreme Court
77
Which court is the only one able to license attorneys appearing before New Hampshire Supreme Court?
5ad39e61604f3c001a3fe91b
True
An example of the second view at the State level is found in the view of the Florida Supreme Court, that only the Florida Supreme Court may license and regulate attorneys appearing before the courts of Florida, and only the Florida Supreme Court may set rules for procedures in the Florida courts.[citation needed] The State of New Hampshire also follows this system.[citation needed]
judiciary
23
Which branch may be historically claimed to be the strongest of the branches of government?
5ad39b2c604f3c001a3fe899
True
power to exercise judicial review
103
Which power of the judiciary is explicitly granted in the Constitution?
5ad39b2c604f3c001a3fe89a
True
twice
342
How many times prior to Dred Scott v. Sandford had the Supreme Court exercised its power to strike down congressional acts?
5ad39b2c604f3c001a3fe89b
True
twice
342
How many times before World War I has the Supreme Court exercised its power to strike down congressional acts?
5ad39b2c604f3c001a3fe89c
True
congressional
298
Before the Civil War, the Marbury had exercised its power to strike down what type of acts only twice?
5ad39b2c604f3c001a3fe89d
True
One may claim that the judiciary has historically been the weakest of the three branches. In fact, its power to exercise judicial review—its sole meaningful check on the other two branches—is not explicitly granted by the U.S Constitution. The U.S. Supreme Court exercised its power to strike down congressional acts as unconstitutional only twice prior to the Civil War: in Marbury v. Madison (1803) and Dred Scott v. Sandford (1857). The Supreme Court has since then made more extensive use of judicial review.
separation of powers
39
What do many political scientists think is a factor in an unlimited degree in American exceptionalism?
5ad3a0e1604f3c001a3fe9bd
True
John W. Kingdon
161
Who claimed that separation of powers deteriorated the unique political structure in the US?
5ad3a0e1604f3c001a3fe9be
True
separation of powers
422
What do many political scientists attribute the large number of active interest groups in the US to?
5ad3a0e1604f3c001a3fe9bf
True
separation of powers
422
What does John W. Kingdon attribute the small number of interest groups in the US to?
5ad3a0e1604f3c001a3fe9c0
True
John W. Kingdon
161
Who attributes the small number of active interest groups to the separation of powers?
5ad3a0e1604f3c001a3fe9c1
True
Many political scientists believe that separation of powers is a decisive factor in what they see as a limited degree of American exceptionalism. In particular, John W. Kingdon made this argument, claiming that separation of powers contributed to the development of a unique political structure in the United States. He attributes the unusually large number of interest groups active in the United States, in part, to the separation of powers; it gives groups more places to try to influence, and creates more potential group activity. He also cites its complexity as one of the reasons for lower citizen participation.[citation needed]
Architecture
What is the latin word for architecture?
56de29c64396321400ee2617
Architectural
244
False
In what language does the word "architecture" have its origins?
56e4607b39bdeb1400347930
Greek
43
False
What two words is "architecture" a combination of?
56e4607b39bdeb1400347931
ἀρχι- "chief" and τέκτων "builder"
90
False
Architecture involves the creation of what?
56e4607b39bdeb1400347932
buildings and other physical structures
203
False
Aside from symbolizing cultures, what else are architectural works thought of as?
56e4607b39bdeb1400347933
as works of art
344
False
What can extant architectural works be used to identify?
56e4607b39bdeb1400347934
Historical civilizations
361
False
arkhitekton
60
What is the french word for architecture?
5acf951e77cf76001a68535c
True
chief
97
What is the Italian word for architecture?
5acf951e77cf76001a68535d
True
Architecture
0
What do you call the destruction of buildings?
5acf951e77cf76001a68535e
True
Architectural works
244
What structures never be viewed as both works of art and symbols of certain cultures?
5acf951e77cf76001a68535f
True
architectural achievements
428
Civilizations from the past will never be identified by what surviving structures?
5acf951e77cf76001a685360
True
Architecture (Latin architectura, from the Greek ἀρχιτέκτων arkhitekton "architect", from ἀρχι- "chief" and τέκτων "builder") is both the process and the product of planning, designing, and constructing buildings and other physical structures. Architectural works, in the material form of buildings, are often perceived as cultural symbols and as works of art. Historical civilizations are often identified with their surviving architectural achievements.
What is the oldest architecture plans that has survived?
56de2b2d4396321400ee261d
De architectura
70
False
Who created the oldest surviving architecture plans?
56de2b2d4396321400ee261e
Roman architect Vitruvius
94
False
When did Vitruvius create these plans?
56de2b2d4396321400ee261f
1st century AD.
133
False
What are the three principles every plan should consider?
56de2b2d4396321400ee2620
firmness, commodity and delight.
303
False
What is the first known extant writing about architecture called?
56e462c98c00841900fbaf6f
De architectura
70
False
Who was the author of  De architectura?
56e462c98c00841900fbaf70
Vitruvius
110
False
What was Vitruvius' profession?
56e462c98c00841900fbaf71
architect
54
False
What were Vitruvius' three principles for a well made building?
56e462c98c00841900fbaf72
firmitas, utilitas, venustas
228
False
What is the commonly seen English translation of the three principles?
56e462c98c00841900fbaf73
firmness, commodity and delight
303
False
De architectura
70
What is the youngest architecture plans that has survived?
5acf961377cf76001a685394
True
Vitruvius
110
Who created the most recent surviving architecture plans?
5acf961377cf76001a685395
True
De architectura, by the Roman architect Vitruvius
70
What was written in the 2nd century AD?
5acf961377cf76001a685396
True
delight
327
What was Vitruvius' fourth principles for a well made building?
5acf961377cf76001a685397
True
firmitas, utilitas, venustas
228
What is the commonly seen French translation of the three principles?
5acf961377cf76001a685398
True
The earliest surviving written work on the subject of architecture is De architectura, by the Roman architect Vitruvius in the early 1st century AD. According to Vitruvius, a good building should satisfy the three principles of firmitas, utilitas, venustas, commonly known by the original translation – firmness, commodity and delight. An equivalent in modern English would be:
When were the styles of arts created?
56de2c48cffd8e1900b4b610
16th century
645
False
Who wrote Lives of the Most Excellent Painters, Sculptors, and Architects?
56de2c48cffd8e1900b4b611
Vasari
679
False
By the 18th century which languages was Vasaris book translated in?
56de2c48cffd8e1900b4b612
Italian, French, Spanish and English
801
False
In Vitruvius's mind, whose responsibility was it to see the principles carried out?
56e4644d8c00841900fbaf79
architect
28
False
Who wrote De Re Aedificatoria?
56e4644d8c00841900fbaf7a
Leon Battista Alberti
115
False
What did Leon Battista Alberti consider most important for beauty?
56e4644d8c00841900fbaf7b
proportion
253
False
What ideal proportion did Alberti promote?
56e4644d8c00841900fbaf7c
the Golden mean
393
False
In what century did "style" as an artistic concept arise?
56e4644d8c00841900fbaf7d
16th
645
False
style in the arts
599
What was created in the 17th century?
5acf99ad77cf76001a6853e4
True
Vasari
679
Who wrote Lives of the Least Excellent Painters, Sculptors, and Architects?
5acf99ad77cf76001a6853e5
True
Italian, French, Spanish and English
801
By the 16th century which languages was Vasaris book translated in?
5acf99ad77cf76001a6853e6
True
architect
28
In Vitruvius's mind, whose responsibility was it to see the principles rejected?
5acf99ad77cf76001a6853e7
True
Leon Battista Alberti
115
Who wrote Re Re Aedificatoria?
5acf99ad77cf76001a6853e8
True
According to Vitruvius, the architect should strive to fulfill each of these three attributes as well as possible. Leon Battista Alberti, who elaborates on the ideas of Vitruvius in his treatise, De Re Aedificatoria, saw beauty primarily as a matter of proportion, although ornament also played a part. For Alberti, the rules of proportion were those that governed the idealised human figure, the Golden mean. The most important aspect of beauty was therefore an inherent part of an object, rather than something applied superficially; and was based on universal, recognisable truths. The notion of style in the arts was not developed until the 16th century, with the writing of Vasari: by the 18th century, his Lives of the Most Excellent Painters, Sculptors, and Architects had been translated into Italian, French, Spanish and English.
Who wrote the book Contrasts?
56de2cf84396321400ee262f
Augustus Welby Northmore Pugin
27
False
What year was Contrasts written in?
56de2cf84396321400ee2630
1836
75
False
What was the name of Pugin's book?
56e464f48c00841900fbaf83
Contrasts
64
False
In what year was Contrasts written?
56e464f48c00841900fbaf84
1836
75
False
What world did Pugin dislike?
56e464f48c00841900fbaf85
modern, industrial world
127
False
What type of architecture did Pugin consider truly Christian?
56e464f48c00841900fbaf86
Gothic
221
False
Contrasts
64
What book was written in the 18th century?
5acf9bfc77cf76001a68548e
True
Augustus Welby Northmore Pugin
27
Who wrote Contrasts in the 17th century?
5acf9bfc77cf76001a68548f
True
19th century
13
When did Augustus Welby Northmore Pugin paint the artwork called Contrasts?
5acf9bfc77cf76001a685490
True
modern
127
What world did Pugin like?
5acf9bfc77cf76001a685491
True
Gothic
221
What type of architecture did Pugin consider truly non-Christian?
5acf9bfc77cf76001a685492
True
In the early 19th century, Augustus Welby Northmore Pugin wrote Contrasts (1836) that, as the titled suggested, contrasted the modern, industrial world, which he disparaged, with an idealized image of neo-medieval world. Gothic architecture, Pugin believed, was the only "true Christian form of architecture."
Who wrote Seven Lamps of Architecture?
56de2d214396321400ee2633
John Ruskin
37
False
Who was the author of Seven Lamps of Architecture?
56e472028c00841900fbaf8b
John Ruskin
37
False
What was Ruskin's career?
56e472028c00841900fbaf8c
art critic
25
False
When was  Seven Lamps of Architecture published?
56e472028c00841900fbaf8d
1849
96
False
What, according to Ruskin, should looking at architecture contribute to its viewer?
56e472028c00841900fbaf8e
to his mental health, power, and pleasure
289
False
John Ruskin
37
Who wrote Eight Lamps of Architecture?
5acf9c5077cf76001a6854b4
True
19th-century
4
When did John Ruskin write the Seven Lamps of Architecture?
5acf9c5077cf76001a6854b5
True
John Ruskin
37
What book came out in the 18th century?
5acf9c5077cf76001a6854b6
True
art critic
25
What subject did John Ruskin teach in college?
5acf9c5077cf76001a6854b7
True
John Ruskin
37
Who said "art which never disposes and adorns the edifices"
5acf9c5077cf76001a6854b8
True
The 19th-century English art critic, John Ruskin, in his Seven Lamps of Architecture, published 1849, was much narrower in his view of what constituted architecture. Architecture was the "art which so disposes and adorns the edifices raised by men ... that the sight of them" contributes "to his mental health, power, and pleasure".
Does Ruskin believe all buildings are works of architecture?
56de2d84cffd8e1900b4b62c
not
103
False
What was most significant in architecture according to Ruskin?
56e4731e8c00841900fbaf93
the aesthetic
12
False
To be true architecture in Ruskin's opinion what should be done to a structure?
56e4731e8c00841900fbaf94
it is in some way "adorned"
143
False
What features at minimum did Ruskin insist on for a building to be considered functional?
56e4731e8c00841900fbaf95
string courses or rustication
250
False
Ruskin
176
Who believes all buildings are works of architecture?
5acf9cb577cf76001a6854dc
True
aesthetic
16
What was least significant in architecture according to Ruskin?
5acf9cb577cf76001a6854dd
True
adorned
162
To be true architecture in Ruskin's opinion what should never be done to a structure?
5acf9cb577cf76001a6854de
True
string courses or rustication
250
What features at maximum did Ruskin insist on for a building to be considered functional?
5acf9cb577cf76001a6854df
True
For Ruskin, the aesthetic was of overriding significance. His work goes on to state that a building is not truly a work of architecture unless it is in some way "adorned". For Ruskin, a well-constructed, well-proportioned, functional building needed string courses or rustication, at the very least.
What century was the architect Le Corbusier in?
56de2db3cffd8e1900b4b62e
20th-century
89
False
Who wrote on the topic of architectural ideals contrasted with simple construction?
56e4744d39bdeb140034793a
Le Corbusier
112
False
What was Le Corbusier 's profession?
56e4744d39bdeb140034793b
Architect
368
False
When did Le Corbusier live and write?
56e4744d39bdeb140034793c
20th-century
89
False
What part of him did Le Corbusier say proper architecture touched?
56e4744d39bdeb140034793d
heart
296
False
What state of emotion did Le Corbusier say architecture put him in?
56e4744d39bdeb140034793e
I am happy
319
False
20th-century
89
What century was the architect Le Corbusier born?
5acf9d2177cf76001a685508
True
Le Corbusier
112
Who disagreed on the topic of architectural ideals contrasted with simple construction?
5acf9d2177cf76001a685509
True
architect
102
What job did Le Corbusier quit?
5acf9d2177cf76001a68550a
True
Le Corbusier
112
Who said "You don't employ stone, wood, and concrete"
5acf9d2177cf76001a68550b
True
Le Corbusier
112
Who said "I am happy and I say: This is beautiful. That is not Architecture"
5acf9d2177cf76001a68550c
True
On the difference between the ideals of architecture and mere construction, the renowned 20th-century architect Le Corbusier wrote: "You employ stone, wood, and concrete, and with these materials you build houses and palaces: that is construction. Ingenuity is at work. But suddenly you touch my heart, you do me good. I am happy and I say: This is beautiful. That is Architecture".
What term replaced Vitruvius' term "utility"?
56de2e2d4396321400ee2644
Function
245
False
In addition to being practically useful what other aspects did a building need in order to be considered functional?
56e4756e8c00841900fbaf99
aesthetic, psychological and cultural
380
False
Whose concept of utility did the more modern concept of function replace?
56e4756e8c00841900fbaf9a
Vitruvius
222
False
What aspects of a building were considered part of the larger concept of function?
56e4756e8c00841900fbaf9b
all criteria of the use, perception and enjoyment of a building
287
False
What were the reactions to the idea that function should come before other concerns?
56e4756e8c00841900fbaf9c
both popularity and skepticism
119
False
function
200
What term replaced Vitruvius' term "nonutility"?
5acf9df677cf76001a68554c
True
utility
234
What was the term "criteria" replaced by?
5acf9df677cf76001a68554d
True
Vitruvius
222
Whose concept of utility did the more modern concept of function not replace?
5acf9df677cf76001a68554e
True
all criteria of the use, perception and enjoyment of a building
287
What aspects of a building were considered part of the smaller concept of function?
5acf9df677cf76001a68554f
True
both popularity and skepticism
119
What were the reactions to the idea that function should never come before other concerns?
5acf9df677cf76001a685550
True
While the notion that structural and aesthetic considerations should be entirely subject to functionality was met with both popularity and skepticism, it had the effect of introducing the concept of "function" in place of Vitruvius' "utility". "Function" came to be seen as encompassing all criteria of the use, perception and enjoyment of a building, not only practical but also aesthetic, psychological and cultural.
What are some philosophies that modern architects use?
56de2f73cffd8e1900b4b63c
rationalism, empiricism, structuralism, poststructuralism, and phenomenology.
104
False
Rationalism and empiricism are examples of what?
56e478328c00841900fbafa7
philosophies
10
False
Aside from the architects what did the philosophies influence?
56e478328c00841900fbafa9
their approach to building design
66
False
Which philosophy followed structuralism?
56e478328c00841900fbafaa
poststructuralism
144
False
rationalism, empiricism, structuralism
104
What are some philosophies that ancient architects use?
5acf9f1977cf76001a6855a6
True
philosophies
10
Rationalism and empiricism are not examples of what?
5acf9f1977cf76001a6855a7
True
poststructuralism
144
Which philosophy came before structuralism?
5acf9f1977cf76001a6855a8
True
their approach
66
Aside from the architects what did the rationalism influence?
5acf9f1977cf76001a6855a9
True
Among the philosophies that have influenced modern architects and their approach to building design are rationalism, empiricism, structuralism, poststructuralism, and phenomenology.
When was the conecept, Sustainable architecture used?
56de308f4396321400ee266e
late 20th century
7
False
What novel concept was introduced at the end of the 20th century?
56e4793839bdeb140034794e
sustainability
135
False
To what should a building be friendly?
56e4793839bdeb140034794f
environment
271
False
What sort of power sources should a building not overuse if the building is to be considered environmentally friendly?
56e4793839bdeb1400347950
non-sustainable power sources
450
False
late 20th century
7
When was the conecept, unsustainable architecture used?
5acfa14d77cf76001a6855e8
True
sustainability
135
What novel concept was introduced at the end of the 19th century?
5acfa14d77cf76001a6855e9
True
environment
379
To what should a building be not friendly?
5acfa14d77cf76001a6855ea
True
non-sustainable power sources
450
What sort of power sources should a building always overuse if the building is to be considered environmentally friendly?
5acfa14d77cf76001a6855eb
True
In the late 20th century a new concept was added to those included in the compass of both structure and function, the consideration of sustainability, hence sustainable architecture. To satisfy the contemporary ethos a building should be constructed in a manner which is environmentally friendly in terms of the production of its materials, its impact upon the natural and built environment of its surrounding area and the demands that it makes upon non-sustainable power sources for heating, cooling, water and waste management and lighting.
What dynamic needs were the reason for building to be done?
56de3176cffd8e1900b4b654
shelter, security, worship
58
False
Oral traditions allowed what to become formalized in human cultures?
56e47ebb8c00841900fbafb0
knowledge
187
False
What was building considered?
56e47ebb8c00841900fbafb1
a craft
275
False
What was the most valued type of building craft called?
56e47ebb8c00841900fbafb2
architecture
289
False
Aside from skills, what is required in order to have the means for building?
56e47ebb8c00841900fbafb3
building materials
113
False
shelter, security, worship
58
What dynamic needs were the reason for building to be demolished?
5acfa19577cf76001a685602
True
knowledge
187
Oral traditions disallowed what to become formalized in human cultures?
5acfa19577cf76001a685603
True
a craft
275
What was building never considered?
5acfa19577cf76001a685604
True
architecture
289
What was the least valued type of building craft called?
5acfa19577cf76001a685605
True
building materials
113
Aside from skills, what is not required in order to have the means for building?
5acfa19577cf76001a685606
True
Building first evolved out of the dynamics between needs (shelter, security, worship, etc.) and means (available building materials and attendant skills). As human cultures developed and knowledge began to be formalized through oral traditions and practices, building became a craft, and "architecture" is the name given to the most highly formalized and respected versions of that craft.
What type of buildings are are built mostly through out the world?
56de326dcffd8e1900b4b65e
vernacular buildings
312
False
Why did the economy begin to expand?
56de326dcffd8e1900b4b660
a surplus in production
449
False
Through what process is it thought that the first architectural achievements were made?
56e47fc539bdeb1400347954
trial and error
80
False
What is a popular type of architecture that still exists around the planet?
56e47fc539bdeb1400347955
vernacular
227
False
In what environment were many of the first human settlements?
56e47fc539bdeb1400347956
rural
435
False
What sort of an effect did a growing economy have on human settlements?
56e47fc539bdeb1400347957
urbanization
514
False
At what speed did urban settlements sometimes expand?
56e47fc539bdeb1400347958
rapidly
581
False
vernacular
227
What type of buildings are not built mostly through out the world?
5acfa1d377cf76001a68560c
True
surplus in production
451
Why did the economy stop expanding?
5acfa1d377cf76001a68560d
True
trial and error
80
Through what process is it thought that the first architectural achievements were not made?
5acfa1d377cf76001a68560e
True
vernacular
312
What is a popular type of architecture that doesn't exist around the planet?
5acfa1d377cf76001a68560f
True
urbanization
514
In what environment were many of the latest human settlements?
5acfa1d377cf76001a685610
True
It is widely assumed that architectural success was the product of a process of trial and error, with progressively less trial and more replication as the results of the process proved increasingly satisfactory. What is termed vernacular architecture continues to be produced in many parts of the world. Indeed, vernacular buildings make up most of the built world that people experience every day. Early human settlements were mostly rural. Due to a surplus in production the economy began to expand resulting in urbanization thus creating urban areas which grew and evolved very rapidly in some cases, such as that of Çatal Höyük in Anatolia and Mohenjo Daro of the Indus Valley Civilization in modern-day Pakistan.
What civilizations used the divine and supernatural in their architecture?
56de3b6e4396321400ee26b4
Egypt and Mesopotamia
48
False
What are two examples of past civilizations?
56e481598c00841900fbafc3
Egypt and Mesopotamia
48
False
To what did these civilizations have ties that to were shown off by their architecture?
56e481598c00841900fbafc4
the divine and the supernatural
136
False
What does architectural monumentality often represent?
56e481598c00841900fbafc5
political power
267
False
Egypt and Mesopotamia
48
What civilizations didn't use the divine and supernatural in their architecture?
5acfa1f777cf76001a68561e
True
Egypt and Mesopotamia
48
What are three examples of past civilizations?
5acfa1f777cf76001a68561f
True
divine and the supernatural
140
To what did these civilizations have ties that to weren't shown off by their architecture?
5acfa1f777cf76001a685620
True
political power
267
What does architectural monumentality never represent?
5acfa1f777cf76001a685621
True
In many ancient civilizations, such as those of Egypt and Mesopotamia, architecture and urbanism reflected the constant engagement with the divine and the supernatural, and many ancient cultures resorted to monumentality in architecture to represent symbolically the political power of the ruler, the ruling elite, or the state itself.
Name one Asian architectural writer.
56de3d0b4396321400ee26c6
Kao Gong Ji
49
False
What country produced the Kao Gong Ji?
56e4839b39bdeb1400347968
China
64
False
When was the Kao Gong Ji written?
56e4839b39bdeb1400347969
7th–5th centuries BCE
79
False
What architectural writing came from Sri Lanka?
56e4839b39bdeb140034796a
Manjusri Vasthu Vidya Sastra
143
False
India produced which early architectural text?
56e4839b39bdeb140034796b
Shilpa Shastras
106
False
Kao Gong Ji
49
Who wrote late Asian writings?
5acfa2f177cf76001a685678
True
China
64
What country rejected the Kao Gong Ji?
5acfa2f177cf76001a685679
True
Kao Gong Ji
49
What was written in 4th century BCE?
5acfa2f177cf76001a68567a
True
Manjusri Vasthu Vidya Sastra
143
What religious writing came from Sri Lanka?
5acfa2f177cf76001a68567b
True
Shilpa Shastras
106
India produced which modern architectural text?
5acfa2f177cf76001a68567c
True
Early Asian writings on architecture include the Kao Gong Ji of China from the 7th–5th centuries BCE; the Shilpa Shastras of ancient India and Manjusri Vasthu Vidya Sastra of Sri Lanka.
What religion led to architectural changes in many Asian countries?
56de3d844396321400ee26d0
pantheistic religion
458
False
Which cultures architecture showed a lot of diversity?
56de3d844396321400ee26d1
Buddhist architecture
174
False
When did Hindu temple architecture begin being produced?
56e4849a8c00841900fbafd3
3rd century BCE
299
False
What does Hindu temple architecture try to express?
56e4849a8c00841900fbafd4
the macrocosm and the microcosm
400
False
What is the source of the concepts in Hindu temple architecture?
56e4849a8c00841900fbafd5
the Shastras
353
False
What type of architectural is especially known for its regional differences
56e4849a8c00841900fbafd6
Buddhist
174
False
What kind of religious theology affected landscape related architecture in Asia?
56e4849a8c00841900fbafd7
pantheistic religion
458
False
pantheistic religion
458
What religion led to architectural changes in many English countries?
5acfa33e77cf76001a685694
True
Buddhist architecture
174
Which cultures architecture showed a lot of similarities?
5acfa33e77cf76001a685695
True
3rd century BCE
299
When did Muslim temple architecture begin being produced?
5acfa33e77cf76001a685696
True
macrocosm and the microcosm
404
What does Hindu temple architecture try to hide?
5acfa33e77cf76001a685697
True
Buddhist
97
What type of architectural is especially known for its non-regional differences
5acfa33e77cf76001a685698
True
The architecture of different parts of Asia developed along different lines from that of Europe; Buddhist, Hindu and Sikh architecture each having different characteristics. Buddhist architecture, in particular, showed great regional diversity. Hindu temple architecture, which developed around the 3rd century BCE, is governed by concepts laid down in the Shastras, and is concerned with expressing the macrocosm and the microcosm. In many Asian countries, pantheistic religion led to architectural forms that were designed specifically to enhance the natural landscape.
What cultures architecture inspired Islamic architecture to use pointed arch's?
56de3de54396321400ee26d5
European architecture
376
False
When was Islamic architecture first seen?
56e485f58c00841900fbafdd
7th century CE
34
False
In addition to forms from the ancient Middle East, what other place's forms had an effect on Islamic architecture?
56e485f58c00841900fbafde
Byzantium
117
False
What other parts of the society's needs did architecture fill?
56e485f58c00841900fbafdf
religious and social needs
169
False
What kind of arch design from Islamic architecture affected European architects?
56e485f58c00841900fbafe0
pointed arch
346
False
Islamic architecture began in the 7th century CE, incorporating architectural forms from the ancient Middle East and Byzantium, but also developing features to suit the religious and social needs of the society. Examples can be found throughout the Middle East, North Africa, Spain and the Indian Sub-continent. The widespread application of the pointed arch was to influence European architecture of the Medieval period.
What type of buildings were took the most effort to build?
56de3f07cffd8e1900b4b702
abbeys and cathedrals.
59
False
What were the most important buildings of the time?
56e4878a39bdeb1400347978
abbeys and cathedrals
59
False
What two groups spread knowledge of architecture in Europe?
56e4878a39bdeb1400347979
clerics and tradesmen
131
False
What style is Gothic?
56e4878a39bdeb140034797a
pan-European
217
False
What is another pan-European style?
56e4878a39bdeb140034797b
Romanesque
237
False
When did the clerics and tradesmen start spreading architectural information?
56e4878a39bdeb140034797c
900 CE onwards
93
False
abbeys and cathedrals
59
What type of buildings were took the least effort to build?
5acfae5477cf76001a685824
True
abbeys and cathedrals
59
What were the least important buildings of the time?
5acfae5477cf76001a685825
True
clerics and tradesmen
131
What three groups spread knowledge of architecture in Europe?
5acfae5477cf76001a685826
True
pan-European
217
What style is pre-Gothic?
5acfae5477cf76001a685827
True
Romanesque
237
What is another pre-European style?
5acfae5477cf76001a685828
True
The major architectural undertakings were the buildings of abbeys and cathedrals. From about 900 CE onwards, the movements of both clerics and tradesmen carried architectural knowledge across Europe, resulting in the pan-European styles Romanesque and Gothic.
When was Renaissance Humanism developed?
56de3fd84396321400ee2702
1400
34
False
When did the Classical learning revival begin?
56e48c5d39bdeb1400347982
1400 onwards
34
False
What continent did this revival take place on?
56e48c5d39bdeb1400347983
Europe
15
False
What was the name for the time period?
56e48c5d39bdeb1400347984
Renaissance
3
False
What did Renaissance Humanism emphasize?
56e48c5d39bdeb1400347985
role of the individual
182
False
What three vocations were not really considered separate from each other at that time?
56e48c5d39bdeb1400347986
artist, architect and engineer
447
False
Renaissance Humanism
124
What was developed before 1400?
5acfaf0977cf76001a685842
True
1400
34
When did the Classical learning revival ed?
5acfaf0977cf76001a685843
True
Europe
15
What state did this revival take place in?
5acfaf0977cf76001a685844
True
Renaissance
3
What was the name for the time period before this?
5acfaf0977cf76001a685845
True
individual
384
What didn't Renaissance Humanism emphasize?
5acfaf0977cf76001a685846
True
In Renaissance Europe, from about 1400 onwards, there was a revival of Classical learning accompanied by the development of Renaissance Humanism which placed greater emphasis on the role of the individual in society than had been the case during the Medieval period. Buildings were ascribed to specific architects – Brunelleschi, Alberti, Michelangelo, Palladio – and the cult of the individual had begun. There was still no dividing line between artist, architect and engineer, or any of the related vocations, and the appellation was often one of regional preference.
What sort of considerations does architectural design take into account?
56e461c28c00841900fbaf69
functional, technical, social, environmental and aesthetic
87
False
In architecture what aspects are planned and designed?
56e461c28c00841900fbaf6a
form, space and ambience
51
False
Aside from planning and design what other types of aspects does architecture involve?
56e461c28c00841900fbaf6b
pragmatic aspects
371
False
functional, technical, social, environmental and aesthetic considerations
87
What sort of considerations does architectural design never take into account?
5acf954877cf76001a685366
True
form, space and ambience
51
In architecture what aspects are never planned and designed?
5acf954877cf76001a685367
True
aesthetic considerations
136
Aside from planning and design what other types of aspects does architecture never involve?
5acf954877cf76001a685368
True
Architecture has to do with planning and designing form, space and ambience to reflect functional, technical, social, environmental and aesthetic considerations. It requires the creative manipulation and coordination of materials and technology, and of light and shadow. Often, conflicting requirements must be resolved. The practice of Architecture also encompasses the pragmatic aspects of realizing buildings and structures, including scheduling, cost estimation and construction administration. Documentation produced by architects, typically drawings, plans and technical specifications, defines the structure and/or behavior of a building or other kind of system that is to be or has been constructed.
Who said that architecture was able extend beyond function?
56e476b139bdeb1400347944
Nunzia Rondanini
0
False
In what way did Nunzia Rondanini believe architecture moved past mere functionality?
56e476b139bdeb1400347945
Through its aesthetic dimension
26
False
What could, in Rondanini's opinion, architecture "stimulate and influence"?
56e476b139bdeb1400347946
social life
249
False
What shouldn't architecture be assumed to promote, according to Rondanini?
56e476b139bdeb1400347947
social development
319
False
What does architecture share with other sciences?
56e476b139bdeb1400347948
functional aspects
87
False
Nunzia Rondanini
0
Who said that architecture wasn't able extend beyond function?
5acf9e6477cf76001a685568
True
Through its aesthetic dimension
26
In what way did Nunzia Rondanini not believe architecture moved past mere functionality?
5acf9e6477cf76001a685569
True
social life
249
What couldn't, in Rondanini's opinion, architecture "stimulate and influence"?
5acf9e6477cf76001a68556a
True
social development
319
What should architecture be assumed to promote, according to Rondanini?
5acf9e6477cf76001a68556b
True
functional aspects
87
How does architecture differ from other sciences?
5acf9e6477cf76001a68556c
True
Nunzia Rondanini stated, "Through its aesthetic dimension architecture goes beyond the functional aspects that it has in common with other human sciences. Through its own particular way of expressing values, architecture can stimulate and influence social life without presuming that, in and of itself, it will promote social development.'
What is a reactionary thing to limit formalism's meaning to?
56e477998c00841900fbafa1
art for art's sake
56
False
What sort of quest lacks purpose?
56e477998c00841900fbafa2
quest for perfection or originality
129
False
What ends up being reduced in quality by this quest?
56e477998c00841900fbafa3
form
180
False
art for art's sake
56
What is a reactionary thing to expand formalism's meaning to?
5acf9e8d77cf76001a68557c
True
quest for perfection or originality
129
What sort of quest defines purpose?
5acf9e8d77cf76001a68557d
True
form
180
What ends up being maximized in quality by this quest?
5acf9e8d77cf76001a68557e
True
To restrict the meaning of (architectural) formalism to art for art's sake is not only reactionary; it can also be a purposeless quest for perfection or originality which degrades form into a mere instrumentality".
From what ideals did Classical architecture emerge?
56e482018c00841900fbafc9
civic ideals
106
False
These civic ideas allowed what to come into being?
56e482018c00841900fbafcb
new building types
163
False
What ideals were Greek and Roman Classical architecture not based on?
56e482018c00841900fbafcc
religious or empirical ones
131
False
What owes its development to the Classical orders?
56e482018c00841900fbafcd
Architectural "style"
191
False
civic ideals
106
From what ideals did Classical architecture not come from?
5acfa22477cf76001a685626
True
new building types
163
These civic ideas allowed what to not come into being?
5acfa22477cf76001a685627
True
religious or empirical ones
131
What ideals were Greek and Roman Classical architecture based on?
5acfa22477cf76001a685628
True
Architectural "style"
191
What doesn't owe its development to the Classical orders?
5acfa22477cf76001a685629
True
The architecture and urbanism of the Classical civilizations such as the Greek and the Roman evolved from civic ideals rather than religious or empirical ones and new building types emerged. Architectural "style" developed in the form of the Classical orders.
When were architectural writings first made?
56e4831739bdeb140034795e
ancient time
46
False
Aside from general advice what did the texts contain?
56e4831739bdeb140034795f
specific formal prescriptions
105
False
What is another term for specific formal prescriptions?
56e4831739bdeb1400347960
canons
138
False
When did Vitruvius write his canons?
56e4831739bdeb1400347961
1st-century BCE
203
False
What is a significant early architectural canonical type?
56e4831739bdeb1400347962
religious
316
False
ancient time
46
When were architectural writings last made?
5acfa27f77cf76001a68565c
True
specific formal prescriptions or canons
105
Aside from general advice what did the texts not contain?
5acfa27f77cf76001a68565d
True
canons
138
What is another term for specific informal prescriptions?
5acfa27f77cf76001a68565e
True
Architect Vitruvius
225
Who wrote canons in 2nd century BCE?
5acfa27f77cf76001a68565f
True
religious
316
What is an insignificant early architectural canonical type?
5acfa27f77cf76001a685660
True
Texts on architecture have been written since ancient time. These texts provided both general advice and specific formal prescriptions or canons. Some examples of canons are found in the writings of the 1st-century BCE Roman Architect Vitruvius. Some of the most important early examples of canonic architecture are religious.
What organizations were created by Medieval craftsmen?
56e486e739bdeb1400347970
guilds
38
False
What records of the guilds are still in existence?
56e486e739bdeb1400347971
written contracts
99
False
What was the main thing the contracts were had to do with?
56e486e739bdeb1400347972
ecclesiastical buildings
160
False
What is another term for master mason?
56e486e739bdeb1400347973
Magister lathomorum
254
False
guilds
38
What organizations were not created by Medieval craftsmen?
5acfae2b77cf76001a68581c
True
written contracts
99
What records of the guilds are no longer in existence?
5acfae2b77cf76001a68581d
True
ecclesiastical buildings
160
What was the least important thing the contracts were had to do with?
5acfae2b77cf76001a68581e
True
Magister lathomorum
254
What is another term for trainer mason?
5acfae2b77cf76001a68581f
True
In Europe during the Medieval period, guilds were formed by craftsmen to organise their trades and written contracts have survived, particularly in relation to ecclesiastical buildings. The role of architect was usually one with that of master mason, or Magister lathomorum as they are sometimes described in contemporary documents.
What aspects of buildings did science and engineering have an effect on?
56e48d5b8c00841900fbafe6
proportions and structure
127
False
Who still could handle the structural calculations for designing at that time?
56e48d5b8c00841900fbafe7
generalist
314
False
proportions and structure
127
What aspects of buildings did engineering not have an effect on?
5acfafd677cf76001a68586a
True
proportions and structure
127
What aspects of buildings did science not have an effect on?
5acfafd677cf76001a68586b
True
generalist
314
Who still couldn't handle the structural calculations for designing at that time?
5acfafd677cf76001a68586c
True
A revival of the Classical style in architecture was accompanied by a burgeoning of science and engineering which affected the proportions and structure of buildings. At this stage, it was still possible for an artist to design a bridge as the level of structural calculations involved was within the scope of the generalist.
What two fields began to grow apart?
56e48e3239bdeb140034798c
architecture and engineering
95
False
What did architects often neglect in their pursuit of aesthetics?
56e48e3239bdeb140034798d
technical aspects of building design
246
False
What was a term for an architect who catered to the wealthy?
56e48e3239bdeb140034798e
"gentleman architect"
315
False
What did 19th century formal architectural training neglect?
56e48e3239bdeb140034798f
context and feasibility
760
False
Where did most architects learn their trade?
56e48e3239bdeb1400347990
in the offices of other architects
840
False
architecture and engineering
95
What two fields got closer?
5acfb00a77cf76001a68587a
True
architecture and engineering
95
What three fields began to grow apart?
5acfb00a77cf76001a68587b
True
technical aspects of building design
246
What did architects often favor in their pursuit of aesthetics?
5acfb00a77cf76001a68587c
True
gentleman architect
316
What was a term for an architect who catered to the poor?
5acfb00a77cf76001a68587d
True
context and feasibility
760
What did 18th century formal architectural training neglect?
5acfb00a77cf76001a68587e
True
With the emerging knowledge in scientific fields and the rise of new materials and technology, architecture and engineering began to separate, and the architect began to concentrate on aesthetics and the humanist aspects, often at the expense of technical aspects of building design. There was also the rise of the "gentleman architect" who usually dealt with wealthy clients and concentrated predominantly on visual qualities derived usually from historical prototypes, typified by the many country houses of Great Britain that were created in the Neo Gothic or Scottish Baronial styles. Formal architectural training in the 19th century, for example at École des Beaux-Arts in France, gave much emphasis to the production of beautiful drawings and little to context and feasibility. Effective architects generally received their training in the offices of other architects, graduating to the role from draughtsmen or clerks.
What started with the Industrial Revolution?
56e48edf39bdeb1400347996
mass production and consumption
60
False
What became cheap enough for the middle class to buy?
56e48edf39bdeb1400347997
ornamented products
147
False
As products came within their financial reach what concept began to interest the middle class?
56e48edf39bdeb1400347998
Aesthetics
93
False
mass production and consumption
60
What ended with the Industrial Revolution?
5acfb03577cf76001a685884
True
ornamented products
147
What became cheap enough for the lower class to buy?
5acfb03577cf76001a685885
True
Aesthetics
93
As products came within their financial reach what concept began to interest the upper class?
5acfb03577cf76001a685886
True
Aesthetics
93
As products came within their financial reach what concept began to interest the lower class?
5acfb03577cf76001a685887
True
Meanwhile, the Industrial Revolution laid open the door for mass production and consumption. Aesthetics became a criterion for the middle class as ornamented products, once within the province of expensive craftsmanship, became cheaper under machine production.
What kind of books did housebuilders use?
56e48f5d39bdeb140034799d
pattern books and architectural journals
155
False
What type of design did these texts allow the builders to incorporate?
56e48f5d39bdeb140034799e
current architectural design
81
False
pattern books and architectural journals
155
What kind of books did housebuilders reject?
5acfb06777cf76001a68588c
True
current architectural design
81
What type of design did these texts allow the builders to reject?
5acfb06777cf76001a68588d
True
Vernacular architecture became increasingly ornamental. House builders could use current architectural design in their work by combining features found in pattern books and architectural journals.
At what century's start did revivalist fall into disfavor?
56e4b51e39bdeb14003479a2
20th
28
False
What new type of architecture was starting to come into being at this time?
56e4b51e39bdeb14003479a3
Modern Architecture
206
False
When did the Deutscher Werkbund get its start?
56e4b51e39bdeb14003479a4
1907
284
False
What was the point of the Deutscher Werkbund?
56e4b51e39bdeb14003479a5
to produce better quality machine made objects
289
False
In 1919 what school opened in Weimar, Germany?
56e4b51e39bdeb14003479a6
the Bauhaus school
430
False
20th
28
At what century's end did revivalist fall into disfavor?
5acfb0a077cf76001a6858a4
True
Modern Architecture
206
What old type of architecture was starting to come into being at this time?
5acfb0a077cf76001a6858a5
True
1907
284
When did the Deutscher Werkbund end?
5acfb0a077cf76001a6858a6
True
Deutscher Werkbund
254
What started in 1970?
5acfb0a077cf76001a6858a7
True
Bauhaus school
434
In 1919 what business opened in Weimar, Germany?
5acfb0a077cf76001a6858a8
True
Around the beginning of the 20th century, a general dissatisfaction with the emphasis on revivalist architecture and elaborate decoration gave rise to many new lines of thought that served as precursors to Modern Architecture. Notable among these is the Deutscher Werkbund, formed in 1907 to produce better quality machine made objects. The rise of the profession of industrial design is usually placed here. Following this lead, the Bauhaus school, founded in Weimar, Germany in 1919, redefined the architectural bounds prior set throughout history, viewing the creation of a building as the ultimate synthesis—the apex—of art, craft, and technology.
What kind of movement was modern architecture in the beginning?
56e4b61539bdeb14003479ac
avant-garde movement
56
False
Who was the new movement meant to suit the needs of?
56e4b61539bdeb14003479ad
the middle and working classes
327
False
Whose needs were no longer relevant to the new style?
56e4b61539bdeb14003479ae
the rapidly declining aristocratic order
461
False
What sort of details did the Modernists' want in their buildings?
56e4b61539bdeb14003479af
functionalist
639
False
What details did Modernists' do away with?
56e4b61539bdeb14003479b0
historical references and ornament
592
False
avant-garde
56
What kind of movement was prehistoric architecture in the beginning?
5acfb0eb77cf76001a6858b8
True
avant-garde
56
What kind of movement was modern architecture in the ending?
5acfb0eb77cf76001a6858b9
True
middle and working classes
331
Who was the old movement meant to suit the needs of?
5acfb0eb77cf76001a6858ba
True
historical styles
430
What details did Modernists' encourage?
5acfb0eb77cf76001a6858bb
True
When modern architecture was first practiced, it was an avant-garde movement with moral, philosophical, and aesthetic underpinnings. Immediately after World War I, pioneering modernist architects sought to develop a completely new style appropriate for a new post-war social and economic order, focused on meeting the needs of the middle and working classes. They rejected the architectural practice of the academic refinement of historical styles which served the rapidly declining aristocratic order. The approach of the Modernist architects was to reduce buildings to pure forms, removing historical references and ornament in favor of functionalist details. Buildings displayed their functional and structural elements, exposing steel beams and concrete surfaces instead of hiding them behind decorative forms.
Who was instrumental in creating Organic architecture?
56e4b69439bdeb14003479b6
Frank Lloyd Wright
19
False
What are two of Wright's designs?
56e4b69439bdeb14003479b7
Robie House and Fallingwater
236
False
What was Wright's intention regarding humans and nature?
56e4b69439bdeb14003479b8
to promote harmony
144
False
Frank Lloyd Wright
19
Who was instrumental in rejecting Organic architecture?
5acfb12277cf76001a6858c0
True
Frank Lloyd Wright
19
Who was instrumental in creating inorganic architecture?
5acfb12277cf76001a6858c1
True
Robie House and Fallingwater
236
What are four of Wright's designs?
5acfb12277cf76001a6858c2
True
human habitation and the natural world
171
Wright wanted to promote disharmony in what two groups?
5acfb12277cf76001a6858c3
True
Architects such as Frank Lloyd Wright developed Organic architecture, in which the form was defined by its environment and purpose, with an aim to promote harmony between human habitation and the natural world with prime examples being Robie House and Fallingwater.
What made it possible to design architecture through new means and methods?
56e4c33039bdeb14003479bc
the Industrial Revolution
307
False
What new type of construction allowed the making of skyscrapers?
56e4c33039bdeb14003479bd
steel-frame construction
344
False
What style came after Modernism?
56e4c33039bdeb14003479be
International Style
464
False
What is an example of International Style?
56e4c33039bdeb14003479bf
Twin Towers
529
False
Who designed the Twin Towers?
56e4c33039bdeb14003479c0
Minoru Yamasaki
586
False
Industrial Revolution
311
What made it impossible to design architecture through new means and methods?
5acfb16777cf76001a6858c8
True
steel-frame construction
344
What old type of construction allowed the making of skyscrapers?
5acfb16777cf76001a6858c9
True
International
464
What style came before Modernism?
5acfb16777cf76001a6858ca
True
Minoru Yamasaki
586
Who designed the Triplet Towers?
5acfb16777cf76001a6858cb
True
Twin Towers
529
What is an example of Domestic Style?
5acfb16777cf76001a6858cc
True
Architects such as Mies van der Rohe, Philip Johnson and Marcel Breuer worked to create beauty based on the inherent qualities of building materials and modern construction techniques, trading traditional historic forms for simplified geometric forms, celebrating the new means and methods made possible by the Industrial Revolution, including steel-frame construction, which gave birth to high-rise superstructures. By mid-century, Modernism had morphed into the International Style, an aesthetic epitomized in many ways by the Twin Towers of New York's World Trade Center designed by Minoru Yamasaki.
What aspect of historical styles did a lot of architects find lacking in modernist styles?
56e4c3f339bdeb14003479c6
decorative richness
61
False
Who were three architects who influenced Brutalism?
56e4c3f339bdeb14003479c7
Paul Rudolph, Marcel Breuer, and Eero Saarinen
210
False
What material was used in Brutalist structures?
56e4c3f339bdeb14003479c8
unfinished concrete
370
False
Who disagreed with the aesthetic of Brutalism?
56e4c3f339bdeb14003479c9
postwar generation
415
False
decorative richness
61
What aspect of historical styles did a lot of architects find booming in modernist styles?
5acfb19177cf76001a6858d2
True
Paul Rudolph, Marcel Breuer, and Eero Saarinen
210
Who were three architects who discouraged Brutalism?
5acfb19177cf76001a6858d3
True
unfinished concrete
370
What material was never used in Brutalist structures?
5acfb19177cf76001a6858d4
True
postwar generation
415
Who agreed with the aesthetic of Brutalism?
5acfb19177cf76001a6858d5
True
Many architects resisted modernism, finding it devoid of the decorative richness of historical styles. As the first generation of modernists began to die after WWII, a second generation of architects including Paul Rudolph, Marcel Breuer, and Eero Saarinen tried to expand the aesthetics of modernism with Brutalism, buildings with expressive sculptural facades made of unfinished concrete. But an even new younger postwar generation critiqued modernism and Brutalism for being too austere, standardized, monotone, and not taking into account the richness of human experience offered in historical buildings across time and in different places and cultures.
What school was a response to Brutalism?
56e4c4a539bdeb14003479ce
the school of metaphoric architecture
70
False
What are two examples of metaphoric architecture?
56e4c4a539bdeb14003479cf
biomorphism and zoomorphic architecture
139
False
What are biomorphism and zoomorphic architecture based after design wise?
56e4c4a539bdeb14003479d0
nature
191
False
What type of architecture do some consider metaphoric architecture to be a development of?
56e4c4a539bdeb14003479d1
expressionist architecture
397
False
Brutalism
57
What school was a warm aesthetic of modernism
5acfb1de77cf76001a685900
True
biomorphism and zoomorphic architecture
139
What are two examples of non-metaphoric architecture?
5acfb1de77cf76001a685901
True
nature
191
What are biomorphism and zoomorphic architecture not based after design wise?
5acfb1de77cf76001a685902
True
expressionist
397
What type of architecture does nobody consider metaphoric architecture to be a development of?
5acfb1de77cf76001a685903
True
One such reaction to the cold aesthetic of modernism and Brutalism is the school of metaphoric architecture, which includes such things as biomorphism and zoomorphic architecture, both using nature as the primary source of inspiration and design. While it is considered by some to be merely an aspect of postmodernism, others consider it to be a school in its own right and a later development of expressionist architecture.
When was the start of the  architectural phenomenology movement?
56e4cced8c00841900fbafeb
the late 1950s and 1960s
13
False
What was  architectural phenomenology reacting to?
56e4cced8c00841900fbafec
modernism
130
False
What were the architectural phenomenologists hoping to expand?
56e4cced8c00841900fbafed
human experience
377
False
Who called postmodern architecture a "decorated shed"?
56e4cced8c00841900fbafee
Robert Venturi
693
False
What term did Venturi use for brutalist and mondernist buildings?
56e4cced8c00841900fbafef
"ducks"
910
False
1950s and 1960s
22
When was the end of the architectural phenomenology movement?
5acfb20d77cf76001a68591a
True
architectural phenomenology
39
What happened in the early 1950s?
5acfb20d77cf76001a68591b
True
modernism
130
What was architectural phenomenology not reacting to?
5acfb20d77cf76001a68591c
True
human experience
377
What were the architectural phenomenologists hoping to stay away from?
5acfb20d77cf76001a68591d
True
Robert Venturi
693
Who called postmodern architecture a "decorated building"?
5acfb20d77cf76001a68591e
True
Beginning in the late 1950s and 1960s, architectural phenomenology emerged as an important movement in the early reaction against modernism, with architects like Charles Moore in the USA, Christian Norberg-Schulz in Norway, and Ernesto Nathan Rogers and Vittorio Gregotti in Italy, who collectively popularized an interest in a new contemporary architecture aimed at expanding human experience using historical buildings as models and precedents. Postmodernism produced a style that combined contemporary building technology and cheap materials, with the aesthetics of older pre-modern and non-modern styles, from high classical architecture to popular or vernacular regional building styles. Robert Venturi famously defined postmodern architecture as a "decorated shed" (an ordinary building which is functionally designed inside and embellished on the outside), and upheld it against modernist and brutalist "ducks" (buildings with unnecessarily expressive tectonic forms).
About when did architecture begin specializing?
56e4cdc339bdeb14003479d6
Since the 1980s
0
False
Who can no longer design a large structure?
56e4cdc339bdeb14003479d8
one person
782
False
What two architectural movements have come under criticism for their focus on individuality?
56e4cdc339bdeb14003479d9
Modernism and Postmodernism
823
False
1980s
10
About when did architecture stop specializing?
5acfb25577cf76001a685924
True
complexity of buildings began to increase
24
What happened before the 1980s?
5acfb25577cf76001a685925
True
1980s
10
When did complexity of buildings began to decrease?
5acfb25577cf76001a685926
True
Modernism and Postmodernism
823
What two architectural movements have never faced criticism for their focus on individuality?
5acfb25577cf76001a685927
True
Since the 1980s, as the complexity of buildings began to increase (in terms of structural systems, services, energy and technologies), the field of architecture became multi-disciplinary with specializations for each project type, technological expertise or project delivery methods. In addition, there has been an increased separation of the 'design' architect [Notes 1] from the 'project' architect who ensures that the project meets the required standards and deals with matters of liability.[Notes 2] The preparatory processes for the design of any large building have become increasingly complicated, and require preliminary studies of such matters as durability, sustainability, quality, money, and compliance with local laws. A large structure can no longer be the design of one person but must be the work of many. Modernism and Postmodernism have been criticised by some members of the architectural profession who feel that successful architecture is not a personal, philosophical, or aesthetic pursuit by individualists; rather it has to consider everyday needs of people and use technology to create liveable environments, with the design process being informed by studies of behavioral, environmental, and social sciences.
What issue has moved to the forefront in recent years?
56e4ceac8c00841900fbaff5
Environmental sustainability
0
False
What do architecture schools look at more and more nowadays?
56e4ceac8c00841900fbaff6
the environment
579
False
Who was the first to design architecture environmentally?
56e4ceac8c00841900fbaff7
Frank Lloyd Wright
644
False
Who was known for focusing on the environment in the 1960s?
56e4ceac8c00841900fbaff8
Buckminster Fuller
680
False
What organization's rating system promotes sustainability?
56e4ceac8c00841900fbaff9
The U.S. Green Building Council
1130
False
Environmental sustainability
0
What issue has moved to the forefront in past years?
5acfb28f77cf76001a685936
True
the environment
579
What do architecture schools look at less and less nowadays?
5acfb28f77cf76001a685937
True
Frank Lloyd Wright
644
Who was the last to design architecture environmentally?
5acfb28f77cf76001a685938
True
Buckminster Fuller
680
Who was known for focusing on the environment in the 1970s?
5acfb28f77cf76001a685939
True
U.S. Green Building Council's LEED
1134
What organization's rating system discourages sustainability?
5acfb28f77cf76001a68593a
True
Environmental sustainability has become a mainstream issue, with profound effect on the architectural profession. Many developers, those who support the financing of buildings, have become educated to encourage the facilitation of environmentally sustainable design, rather than solutions based primarily on immediate cost. Major examples of this can be found in Passive solar building design, greener roof designs, biodegradable materials, and more attention to a structure's energy usage. This major shift in architecture has also changed architecture schools to focus more on the environment. Sustainability in architecture was pioneered by Frank Lloyd Wright, in the 1960s by Buckminster Fuller and in the 1970s by architects such as Ian McHarg and Sim Van der Ryn in the US and Brenda and Robert Vale in the UK and New Zealand. There has been an acceleration in the number of buildings which seek to meet green building sustainable design principles. Sustainable practices that were at the core of vernacular architecture increasingly provide inspiration for environmentally and socially sustainable contemporary techniques. The U.S. Green Building Council's LEED (Leadership in Energy and Environmental Design) rating system has been instrumental in this.
What are three new movements that have a focus on sustainability?
56e4cfd839bdeb14003479de
New Urbanism, Metaphoric architecture and New Classical Architecture
38
False
What kinds of buildings and building developments are the new movements not in favor of?
56e4cfd839bdeb14003479df
solitary housing estates and suburban sprawl.
342
False
What are three things the new movements try to achieve?
56e4cfd839bdeb14003479e0
smart growth, architectural tradition and classical design
190
False
What older architectural movements do the newer movements not go along with?
56e4cfd839bdeb14003479e1
modernist and globally uniform architecture
270
False
New Urbanism, Metaphoric architecture and New Classical Architecture
38
What are three old movements that have a focus on sustainability?
5acfb2be77cf76001a68595c
True
solitary housing estates and suburban sprawl
342
What kinds of buildings and building developments are the old movements not in favor of?
5acfb2be77cf76001a68595d
True
smart growth, architectural tradition and classical design
190
What are three things the old movements try to achieve?
5acfb2be77cf76001a68595e
True
modernist and globally uniform architecture
270
What older architectural movements do the older movements not go along with?
5acfb2be77cf76001a68595f
True
Concurrently, the recent movements of New Urbanism, Metaphoric architecture and New Classical Architecture promote a sustainable approach towards construction, that appreciates and develops smart growth, architectural tradition and classical design. This in contrast to modernist and globally uniform architecture, as well as leaning against solitary housing estates and suburban sprawl.
Human_Development_Index
Which three statistics does the HDI compile?
56de2c7c4396321400ee2625
life expectancy, education, and income per capita
62
False
Does a high ranking on the HDI indicate shorter or longer life expectancy?
56de2c7c4396321400ee2626
longer
260
False
Who developed the HDI?
56de2c7c4396321400ee2628
Mahbub ul Haq
386
False
What entity publishes the HDI?
56de2c7c4396321400ee2629
United Nations Development Programme
524
False
Does a high ranking on the HDI indicate shorter or longer life expectancy at birth?
56de3d98cffd8e1900b4b6c9
longer
260
False
life expectancy, education, and income per capita indicators
62
Which three statistics does the HDI ignore?
5ad0b90e645df0001a2d0172
True
longer
292
Does a low ranking on the HDI indicate shorter or longer life expectancy?
5ad0b90e645df0001a2d0173
True
Mahbub ul Haq
386
Who rejected the HDI?
5ad0b90e645df0001a2d0174
True
United Nations Development Programme
524
What entity rejects the HDI?
5ad0b90e645df0001a2d0175
True
longer
260
Does a low ranking on the HDI indicate shorter or longer life expectancy at birth?
5ad0b90e645df0001a2d0176
True
The Human Development Index (HDI) is a composite statistic of life expectancy, education, and income per capita indicators, which are used to rank countries into four tiers of human development. A country scores higher HDI when the life expectancy at birth is longer, the education period is longer, and the income per capita is higher. The HDI was developed by the Pakistani economist Mahbub ul Haq, often framed in terms of whether people are able to "be" and "do" desirable things in their life, and was published by the United Nations Development Programme.
In what year did the Human Development Report introduce the IHDI?
56de2d2acffd8e1900b4b624
2010
4
False
What does IHDI stand for?
56de2d2acffd8e1900b4b625
Inequality-adjusted Human Development Index
48
False
Which measures the potential development, the HDI or the IHDI?
56de3e1bcffd8e1900b4b6d6
the HDI
238
False
Human Development Report introduced an Inequality-adjusted Human Development Index (IHDI
9
What happened in 2001?
5ad0b948645df0001a2d017c
True
Inequality-adjusted Human Development Index
48
What does IHDI2 stand for?
5ad0b948645df0001a2d017d
True
HDI
242
Which measures the potential underdevelopment, the HDI or the IHDI?
5ad0b948645df0001a2d017f
True
The 2010 Human Development Report introduced an Inequality-adjusted Human Development Index (IHDI). While the simple HDI remains useful, it stated that "the IHDI is the actual level of human development (accounting for inequality)," and "the HDI can be viewed as an index of 'potential' human development (or the maximum IHDI that could be achieved if there were no inequality)."
In what year did Mahbub ul Haq devise and launch the HDI?
56de2e934396321400ee2646
1990
191
False
Who was initially opposed to the idea of creating the HDI?
56de2e934396321400ee2648
Amartya Sen
566
False
Mahbub ul Haq was hoping to shift the focus of development economics to what type of policies?
56de2e934396321400ee2649
people-centered policies
305
False
Which year was used for estimates in the 2011 report?
56de3e61cffd8e1900b4b6e6
1990
191
False
1990
191
In what year did Mahbub ul Haq reject the HDI?
5ad0b983645df0001a2d0184
True
Amartya Sen
566
Who was initially agreeing to the idea of creating the HDI?
5ad0b983645df0001a2d0185
True
people-centered policies
305
Mahbub ul Haq didn't want to shift the focus of development economics to what type of policies?
5ad0b983645df0001a2d0186
True
1990
191
Which year was used for estimates in the 2001 report?
5ad0b983645df0001a2d0187
True
The origins of the HDI are found in the annual Development Reports of the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP). These were devised and launched by Pakistani economist Mahbub ul Haq in 1990 and had the explicit purpose "to shift the focus of development economics from national income accounting to people-centered policies". To produce the Human Development Reports, Mahbub ul Haq formed a group of development economists including Paul Streeten, Frances Stewart, Gustav Ranis, Keith Griffin, Sudhir Anand, and Meghnad Desai. Working alongside Nobel laureate Amartya Sen, they worked on capabilities and functions that provided the underlying conceptual framework. Haq was sure that a simple composite measure of human development was needed in order to convince the public, academics, and politicians that they can and should evaluate development not only by economic advances but also improvements in human well-being. Sen initially opposed this idea, but he soon went on to help Haq develop the Index. Sen was worried that it was going to be difficult to capture the full complexity of human capabilities in a single index, but Haq persuaded him that only a single number would shift the immediate attention of politicians from economic to human well-being.
What does LE stand for?
56de2ee04396321400ee2650
Life expectancy at birth
4
False
What does MYS stand for?
56de2ee04396321400ee2651
Mean years of schooling
34
False
What does EYS stand for?
56de2ee04396321400ee2652
Expected years of schooling
131
False
What does GNIpc stand for?
56de2ee04396321400ee2653
Gross national income at purchasing power parity per capita
240
False
Life expectancy at birth
4
What does LI stand for?
5ad0caa5645df0001a2d0380
True
Mean years of schooling
34
What does MIS stand for?
5ad0caa5645df0001a2d0381
True
Expected years of schooling
131
What does EYES stand for?
5ad0caa5645df0001a2d0382
True
Gross national income at purchasing power parity per capita
240
What does GNLpc stand for?
5ad0caa5645df0001a2d0383
True
LE: Life expectancy at birth MYS: Mean years of schooling (Years that a person 25 years-of-age or older has spent in schools) EYS: Expected years of schooling (Years that a 5-year-old child will spend in schools throughout his life) GNIpc: Gross national income at purchasing power parity per capita
What entity makes the defining formula for the HDI well-known?
56de2f34cffd8e1900b4b63a
the United Nations Development Programme
47
False
the United Nations Development Programme
47
What entity makes the defining formula for the HDMI well-known?
5ad0cac9645df0001a2d0392
True
United Nations Development Programme
51
What does UNDD stand for?
5ad0cac9645df0001a2d0393
True
The formula defining the HDI is promulgated by the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP). In general, to transform a raw variable, say , into a unit-free index between 0 and 1 (which allows different indices to be added together), the following formula is used:
On what date was the 2015 Human Development Report released?
56de2f784396321400ee2658
December 14, 2015
92
False
Which year was used for estimates in the 2015 report?
56de2f784396321400ee2659
2014
160
False
Human Development Report by the United Nations Development Program was released
9
What happened on December 15, 2015
5ad0cb4d645df0001a2d039e
True
December 14, 2015
92
On what date was the 2005 Human Development Report released?
5ad0cb4d645df0001a2d039f
True
The 2015 Human Development Report by the United Nations Development Program was released on December 14, 2015, and calculates HDI values based on estimates for 2014. Below is the list of the "very high human development" countries:
On what date was the 2014 Human Development Report released?
56de2fa0cffd8e1900b4b63e
July 24, 2014
92
False
Which year was used for estimates in the 2014 report?
56de2fa0cffd8e1900b4b63f
2013
156
False
July 24, 2014
92
On what date was the 2010 Human Development Report released?
5ad0ccaa645df0001a2d03ac
True
2013
156
Which year was used for estimates in the 2004 report?
5ad0ccaa645df0001a2d03ad
True
2014 Human Development Report by the United Nations Development Program
4
What was released on July 25 2014
5ad0ccaa645df0001a2d03ae
True
The 2014 Human Development Report by the United Nations Development Program was released on July 24, 2014, and calculates HDI values based on estimates for 2013. Below is the list of the "very high human development" countries:
What does the IHDI specifically take into account?
56de2fedcffd8e1900b4b642
Inequality
4
False
Does the IHDI measure the "average" or the "potential" level of human development?
56de2fedcffd8e1900b4b643
the average level
72
False
inequality
139
What does the HIHDI specifically take into account?
5ad0ccc0645df0001a2d03b2
True
average level
76
Does the IHDI measure the "unaverage" or the "lack of potential" level of human development?
5ad0ccc0645df0001a2d03b3
True
The Inequality-adjusted Human Development Index (IHDI) is a "measure of the average level of human development of people in a society once inequality is taken into account."
Which Caribbean nation is in the top quartile of HDI (but missing IHDI)?
56de30cdcffd8e1900b4b64f
Cuba
215
False
Is the top quartile of HDI considered "high" or "very high" human development?
56de30cdcffd8e1900b4b650
very high
39
False
Cuba
215
Which Caribbean nation is in the top quartile of HIDI (but missing HIHDI)?
5ad0cd40645df0001a2d03d8
True
very high
39
s the top quartile of HDI considered "low" or "very low" human development?
5ad0cd40645df0001a2d03d9
True
Countries in the top quartile of HDI ("very high human development" group) with a missing IHDI: New Zealand, Singapore, Hong Kong, Liechtenstein, Brunei, Qatar, Saudi Arabia, Andorra, United Arab Emirates, Bahrain, Cuba, and Kuwait.
What is the main reason that countries were excluded from the 2014 report?
56de3178cffd8e1900b4b659
lack of necessary data
68
False
Which East Asian dictatorship was excluded from the 2014 report?
56de412c4396321400ee2710
North Korea
173
False
lack of necessary data
68
What is the main reason that countries were excluded from the 2013 report?
5ad0cd5f645df0001a2d03dc
True
2014
160
What year were all countries included?
5ad0cd5f645df0001a2d03de
True
Some countries were not included for various reasons, primarily the lack of necessary data. The following United Nations Member States were not included in the 2014 report: North Korea, Marshall Islands, Monaco, Nauru, San Marino, Somalia, India, Pakistan, South Sudan, and Tuvalu.
On what date was the 2013 Human Development Report released?
56de31984396321400ee2672
March 14, 2013
92
False
Which year was used for estimates in the 2013 report?
56de31984396321400ee2673
2012
157
False
2012
157
Which year was used for estimates in the 2014 report?
5ad0cdb8645df0001a2d03f8
True
The 2013 Human Development Report by the United Nations Development Program was released on March 14, 2013, and calculates HDI values based on estimates for 2012. Below is the list of the "very high human development" countries:
Does the IHDI measure the "average" or the "potential" level of human development?
56de31f34396321400ee2680
the average level
72
False
average level of human
76
Does the IHDI measure the "abnormal" or the "lack of potential" level of human development?
5ad0ce6f645df0001a2d042a
True
Inequality-adjusted Human Development Index
4
What does the HIDI stand for?
5ad0ce6f645df0001a2d042b
True
The Inequality-adjusted Human Development Index (IHDI) is a "measure of the average level of human development of people in a society once inequality is taken into account."
What is the main reason that countries were excluded from the 2011 report?
56de43294396321400ee2736
unavailability of certain crucial data
65
False
Which East Asian dictatorship was excluded from the 2011 report?
56de43294396321400ee2738
North Korea
186
False
unavailability of certain crucial data
65
What is not the main reason that countries were excluded from the 2011 report?
5ad0cfc9645df0001a2d0482
True
unavailability of certain crucial data
65
What is not the main reason that countries were excluded from the 2012 report?
5ad0cfc9645df0001a2d0483
True
North Korea
186
Which East Asian dictatorship was excluded from the 2012 report?
5ad0cfc9645df0001a2d0484
True
Some countries were not included for various reasons, mainly the unavailability of certain crucial data. The following United Nations Member States were not included in the 2011 report: North Korea, Marshall Islands, Monaco, Nauru, San Marino, South Sudan, Somalia and Tuvalu.
On what date was the 2010 Human Development Report released?
56de4347cffd8e1900b4b741
November 4, 2010
92
False
Which year was used for estimates in the 2010 report?
56de4347cffd8e1900b4b742
2010
4
False
November 4, 2010
92
On what date was the 2012 Human Development Report released?
5ad0cfe5645df0001a2d0488
True
United Nations Development Program
41
What was released on November 5, 2010?
5ad0cfe5645df0001a2d0489
True
2010
159
Which year was used for estimates in the 2011 report?
5ad0cfe5645df0001a2d048a
True
The 2010 Human Development Report by the United Nations Development Program was released on November 4, 2010, and calculates HDI values based on estimates for 2010. Below is the list of the "very high human development" countries:
In the IHDI, inequality is factored into what three human development dimensions?
56de43cdcffd8e1900b4b746
income, life expectancy, and education
198
False
income, life expectancy, and education
198
In the IHDI, inequality is never factored into what three human development dimensions?
5ad0d0c0645df0001a2d04be
True
The 2010 Human Development Report was the first to calculate an Inequality-adjusted Human Development Index (IHDI), which factors in inequalities in the three basic dimensions of human development (income, life expectancy, and education). Below is a list of countries in the top quartile by IHDI:
What is the main reason that countries were excluded from the 2010 report?
56de44f14396321400ee2742
unavailability of certain crucial data
65
False
Which Caribbean nation protested its exclusion from the 2010 report?
56de44f14396321400ee2743
Cuba
186
False
What ranking has Cuba been given since the situation with the missing data was addressed?
56de44f14396321400ee2745
High Human Development country
650
False
unavailability of certain crucial data
65
What is the main reason that countries were excluded from the 2012 report?
5ad0d219645df0001a2d0514
True
Cuba
440
Which Caribbean nation agreed with its exclusion from the 2010 report?
5ad0d219645df0001a2d0515
True
High Human Development country
650
What ranking has Cuba been given since the situation with the complete data was addressed?
5ad0d219645df0001a2d0516
True
Some countries were not included for various reasons, mainly the unavailability of certain crucial data. The following United Nations Member States were not included in the 2010 report. Cuba lodged a formal protest at its lack of inclusion. The UNDP explained that Cuba had been excluded due to the lack of an "internationally reported figure for Cuba’s Gross National Income adjusted for Purchasing Power Parity". All other indicators for Cuba were available, and reported by the UNDP, but the lack of one indicator meant that no ranking could be attributed to the country. The situation has been addressed and, in later years, Cuba has ranked as a High Human Development country.
On what date was the 2009 Human Development Report released?
56de45944396321400ee274a
October 5, 2009
58
False
What period is covered by the 2009 Human Development Report?
56de45944396321400ee274b
period up to 2007
90
False
What was another title for the 2009 Human Development Report?
56de45944396321400ee274c
Overcoming barriers: Human mobility and development
124
False
What new category was added in the 2009 Human Development Report?
56de45944396321400ee274d
very high human development
242
False
How does the 2009 Human Development Report refer to countries that rank "very high"?
56de45944396321400ee274e
developed countries
312
False
October 5, 2009
58
On what date was the 2008 Human Development Report released?
5ad0d264645df0001a2d0542
True
period up to 2007
90
What period is covered by the 2008 Human Development Report?
5ad0d264645df0001a2d0543
True
Overcoming barriers: Human mobility and development
124
What was another title for the 2008 Human Development Report?
5ad0d264645df0001a2d0544
True
very high human development
242
What new category was added in the 2008 Human Development Report?
5ad0d264645df0001a2d0545
True
developed countries
312
How does the 2008 Human Development Report refer to countries that rank "very high"?
5ad0d264645df0001a2d0546
True
The 2009 Human Development Report by UNDP was released on October 5, 2009, and covers the period up to 2007. It was titled "Overcoming barriers: Human mobility and development". The top countries by HDI were grouped in a new category called "very high human development". The report refers to these countries as developed countries. They are:
What three reasons were mentioned for countries being excluded?
56de45d84396321400ee2754
being a non-UN member or unable or unwilling to provide the necessary data at the time of publication
62
False
being a non-UN member or unable or unwilling to provide the necessary data at the time of publication
62
What four reasons were mentioned for countries being excluded?
5ad0d272645df0001a2d054c
True
Some countries were not included for various reasons, such as being a non-UN member or unable or unwilling to provide the necessary data at the time of publication. Besides the states with limited recognition, the following states were also not included.
What type of update was released on December 18, 2008?
56de46cb4396321400ee275e
statistical update
63
False
What was the index published on December 18, 2008 lacking?
56de46cb4396321400ee275f
an accompanying Human Development Report
139
False
What period was covered by the statistical update index released in December of 2008?
56de46cb4396321400ee2760
up to 2006
102
False
statistical update
63
What type of update was released on December 18, 2004?
5ad0d2a2645df0001a2d054e
True
substantial adjustments
281
What was the index published on December 18, 2008 complete?
5ad0d2a2645df0001a2d054f
True
up to 2006
102
What period was covered by the statistical update index released in December of 2002?
5ad0d2a2645df0001a2d0550
True
A new index was released on December 18, 2008. This so-called "statistical update" covered the period up to 2006 and was published without an accompanying Human Development Report. The update is relevant due to newly released estimates of purchasing power parities (PPP), implying substantial adjustments for many countries, resulting in changes in HDI values and, in many cases, HDI ranks.
On what date was the 2007/2008 Human Development Report released?
56de47f7cffd8e1900b4b77d
November 27, 2007
80
False
What was the focus of the 2007/2008 Human Development Report?
56de47f7cffd8e1900b4b77e
Fighting climate change: Human solidarity in a divided world
117
False
What is the most recent year that was included in the 2007/2008 Human Development Report?
56de47f7cffd8e1900b4b77f
2005
242
False
The HDI in the 2007/2008 Human Development Report is for what year?
56de47f7cffd8e1900b4b780
2005
242
False
Where was the 2007/2008 Human Development Report launched?
56de47f7cffd8e1900b4b781
Brasília, Brazil
59
False
November 27, 2007
80
On what date was the 2008/2009 Human Development Report released?
5ad0d2f5645df0001a2d0560
True
The Human Development Report for 2007/2008
0
What came out on November 26, 2007?
5ad0d2f5645df0001a2d0561
True
Fighting climate change: Human solidarity in a divided world
117
What was the focus of the 2005/2009 Human Development Report?
5ad0d2f5645df0001a2d0562
True
2005
286
What is the most recent year that was included in the 2008/2009 Human Development Report?
5ad0d2f5645df0001a2d0563
True
Brasília, Brazil
59
Where was the 2008/2009 Human Development Report launched?
5ad0d2f5645df0001a2d0564
True
The Human Development Report for 2007/2008 was launched in Brasília, Brazil, on November 27, 2007. Its focus was on "Fighting climate change: Human solidarity in a divided world." Most of the data used for the report are derived largely from 2005 or earlier, thus indicating an HDI for 2005. Not all UN member states choose to or are able to provide the necessary statistics.
Which countries experienced a decrease in HDI?
56de48cc4396321400ee276d
high income countries
284
False
high income countries
284
Which countries experienced an increase in HDI?
5ad0d308645df0001a2d0574
True
The report showed a small increase in world HDI in comparison with last year's report. This rise was fueled by a general improvement in the developing world, especially of the least developed countries group. This marked improvement at the bottom was offset with a decrease in HDI of high income countries.
Under what number does a country need to fall in order to be considered a "low development" country?
56de494dcffd8e1900b4b795
0.5
12
False
On which continent are all 22 of the low development countries located?
56de494dcffd8e1900b4b796
Africa
111
False
What is Gabon's ranking?
56de494dcffd8e1900b4b797
119th
197
False
What is South Africa's ranking?
56de494dcffd8e1900b4b798
121st
207
False
What are the two highest ranking Sub-Saharan countries?
56de494dcffd8e1900b4b799
Gabon and South Africa
162
False
0.5
12
Under what number does a country need to fall in order to be considered a "high development" country?
5ad0d375645df0001a2d0592
True
Africa
111
On which continent are all 23 of the low development countries located?
5ad0d375645df0001a2d0593
True
119th
197
What is Pabon's ranking?
5ad0d375645df0001a2d0594
True
121st
207
What is North Africa's ranking?
5ad0d375645df0001a2d0595
True
Gabon and South Africa
162
What are the two lowest ranking Sub-Saharan countries?
5ad0d375645df0001a2d0596
True
A HDI below 0.5 is considered to represent "low development". All 22 countries in that category are located in Africa. The highest-scoring Sub-Saharan countries, Gabon and South Africa, are ranked 119th and 121st, respectively. Nine countries departed from this category this year and joined the "medium development" group.
What number indicates the minimum score for a country to be considered a "high development" country?
56de4a81cffd8e1900b4b7b5
0.8
9
False
Which South American country was included among the seven promoted countries?
56de4a81cffd8e1900b4b7b7
Brazil
448
False
What is the largest country that was included among the seven promoted countries?
56de4a81cffd8e1900b4b7b8
Russia
474
False
0.8
9
What number indicates the minimum score for a country to be considered a "low development" country?
5ad0d3a5645df0001a2d05b0
True
Brazil
448
Which North American country was included among the seven promoted countries?
5ad0d3a5645df0001a2d05b1
True
Russia
474
What is the smallest country that was included among the seven promoted countries?
5ad0d3a5645df0001a2d05b2
True
A HDI of 0.8 or more is considered to represent "high development". This includes all developed countries, such as those in North America, Western Europe, Oceania, and Eastern Asia, as well as some developing countries in Eastern Europe, Central and South America, Southeast Asia, the Caribbean, and the oil-rich Arabian Peninsula. Seven countries were promoted to this category this year, leaving the "medium development" group: Albania, Belarus, Brazil, Libya, Macedonia, Russia and Saudi Arabia.
If there is a decrease in a country's ranking, which indicator will be present?
56de4adf4396321400ee278c
red arrows
104
False
If there is an increase in a country's ranking, which indicator will be present?
56de4adf4396321400ee278d
green arrows
24
False
If a country's ranking does not change, which indicator will be present?
56de4adf4396321400ee278e
Blue dash
205
False
red arrows
104
If there is an increase in a country's ranking, which indicator will be not present?
5ad0d3eb645df0001a2d05b6
True
green
24
If there is an increase in a country's ranking, which indicator will not be present?
5ad0d3eb645df0001a2d05b7
True
Blue
205
If a country's ranking does change, which indicator will be present?
5ad0d3eb645df0001a2d05b8
True
On the following table, green arrows () represent an increase in ranking over the previous study, while red arrows () represent a decrease in ranking. They are followed by the number of spaces they moved. Blue dashes () represent a nation that did not move in the rankings since the previous study.
Which country has been ranked highest the most number of times?
56de4b6dcffd8e1900b4b7c5
Norway
94
False
Which country has received the top rank twice?
56de4b6dcffd8e1900b4b7c9
Iceland
224
False
Norway
94
Which country has been ranked lowest the most number of times?
5ad0d3fd645df0001a2d05c6
True
Iceland
224
Which country has received the bottom rank twice?
5ad0d3fd645df0001a2d05c7
True
The list below displays the top-ranked country from each year of the Human Development Index. Norway has been ranked the highest twelve times, Canada eight times, followed by Japan which has been ranked highest three times. Iceland has been ranked highest twice.
The HDI has been criticized for focusing exclusively on what?
56de4c68cffd8e1900b4b7d5
national performance and ranking
347
False
Has the HDI been criticized for being biased towards Western or towards Eastern models of development?
56de4c68cffd8e1900b4b7d6
Western
146
False
The HDI has been criticized for lack of what type of perspective on development?
56de4c68cffd8e1900b4b7d7
global
421
False
Critics of the HDI cite its focus on which: egalitarianism or authoritarianism?
56de4c68cffd8e1900b4b7d9
egalitarianism
116
False
national performance and ranking
347
The HIDI has been criticized for focusing exclusively on what?
5ad0d4a5645df0001a2d0604
True
Western
146
Has the HDI been criticized for being biased towards Northern or towards Southern models of development?
5ad0d4a5645df0001a2d0605
True
global
421
The HDI has been criticized for lack of what type of perspective on nondevelopment?
5ad0d4a5645df0001a2d0606
True
egalitarianism
116
Critics of the HIDI cite its focus on which: egalitarianism or authoritarianism?
5ad0d4a5645df0001a2d0607
True
The Human Development Index has been criticized on a number of grounds including alleged ideological biases towards egalitarianism and so-called "Western models of development", failure to include any ecological considerations, lack of consideration of technological development or contributions to the human civilization, focusing exclusively on national performance and ranking, lack of attention to development from a global perspective, measurement error of the underlying statistics, and on the UNDP's changes in formula which can lead to severe misclassification in the categorisation of 'low', 'medium', 'high' or 'very high' human development countries.
How many economists were cited as pointing out data errors in the HDI?
56de4ded4396321400ee27c3
three
217
False
In what year did the UNDP respond to the criticism of its report?
56de4ded4396321400ee27c5
2010
940
False
Which magazine publication carried a statement from the Human Development Report Office in January, 2011?
56de4ded4396321400ee27c6
The Economist
1096
False
three
217
How many economists were cited as pointing out data errors in the HIDI?
5ad0d4d2645df0001a2d060c
True
2010
940
In what year did the ULNDP respond to the criticism of its report?
5ad0d4d2645df0001a2d060d
True
The Economist
1096
Which magazine publication carried a statement from the Human Development Report Office in January, 2012?
5ad0d4d2645df0001a2d060e
True
Economists Hendrik Wolff, Howard Chong and Maximilian Auffhammer discuss the HDI from the perspective of data error in the underlying health, education and income statistics used to construct the HDI. They identified three sources of data error which are due to (i) data updating, (ii) formula revisions and (iii) thresholds to classify a country’s development status and conclude that 11%, 21% and 34% of all countries can be interpreted as currently misclassified in the development bins due to the three sources of data error, respectively. The authors suggest that the United Nations should discontinue the practice of classifying countries into development bins because - they claim - the cut-off values seem arbitrary, can provide incentives for strategic behavior in reporting official statistics, and have the potential to misguide politicians, investors, charity donors and the public who use the HDI at large.[citation needed] In 2010 the UNDP reacted to the criticism and updated the thresholds to classify nations as low, medium, and high human development countries. In a comment to The Economist in early January 2011, the Human Development Report Office responded to a January 6, 2011 article in the magazine which discusses the Wolff et al. paper. The Human Development Report Office states that they undertook a systematic revision of the methods used for the calculation of the HDI and that the new methodology directly addresses the critique by Wolff et al. in that it generates a system for continuous updating of the human development categories whenever formula or data revisions take place.
How many countries were included in the 2009 HDI?
56de4ea54396321400ee27ce
182
255
False
How many countries were included in the 2010 HDI?
56de4ea54396321400ee27cf
169
310
False
182
255
How many countries were included in the 2008 HDI?
5ad0d4f6645df0001a2d062c
True
169
310
How many countries were included in the 2011 HDI?
5ad0d4f6645df0001a2d062d
True
The HDI has extended its geographical coverage: David Hastings, of the United Nations Economic and Social Commission for Asia and the Pacific, published a report geographically extending the HDI to 230+ economies, whereas the UNDP HDI for 2009 enumerates 182 economies and coverage for the 2010 HDI dropped to 169 countries.
The green arrows (), red arrows (), and blue dashes ()
6
What represents not changing rank?
5ad0cd27645df0001a2d03c0
True
The changes in rank
88
What is relative to the HDI list?
5ad0cd27645df0001a2d03c1
True
Note: The green arrows (), red arrows (), and blue dashes () represent changes in rank. The changes in rank are not relative to the HDI list above, but are according to the source (p. 168) calculated with the exclusion of countries which are missing IHDI data.
blue dashes
46
What dashes do not represent changes in rank?
5ad0ce1d645df0001a2d041b
True
the 2012 report
150
What was published in 2001?
5ad0ce1d645df0001a2d041c
True
Note: The green arrows (), red arrows (), and blue dashes () represent changes in rank when compared to the new 2012 data HDI for 2011 – published in the 2012 report.
HDI
33
What is the abbreviation for "very low human development"
5ad0ceb8645df0001a2d0445
True
"very high human development"
38
What does HDMI mean?
5ad0ceb8645df0001a2d0446
True
Countries in the top quartile of HDI ("very high human development" group) with a missing IHDI: New Zealand, Chile, Japan, Hong Kong, Singapore, Taiwan, Liechtenstein, Brunei, Andorra, Qatar, Barbados, United Arab Emirates, and Seychelles.
2011
4
Which year was used for estimates in the 2012 report?
5ad0cec7645df0001a2d044a
True
The 2011 Human Development Report was released on 2 November 2011, and calculated HDI values based on estimates for 2011. Below is the list of the "very high human development" countries (equal to the top quartile):
green arrows (), red arrows
10
What arrows do not represent changes in rank
5ad0cee3645df0001a2d0456
True
Note: The green arrows (), red arrows (), and blue dashes () represent changes in rank when compared to the 2011 HDI data for 2010 – published in the 2011 report (p. 131).
Human Development Index
72
What does HIMI stand for?
5ad0cf7a645df0001a2d046e
True
IHDI
97
What's the abbreviation for Human non development index?
5ad0cf7a645df0001a2d046f
True
Below is a list of countries in the top quartile by Inequality-adjusted Human Development Index (IHDI). According to the report, the IHDI is a "measure of the average level of human development of people in a society once inequality is taken into account."
blue dashes
46
What dashes do not represent changes in rank?
5ad0cf89645df0001a2d0473
True
Note: The green arrows (), red arrows (), and blue dashes () represent changes in rank when compared to the 2011 HDI list, for countries listed in both rankings.
Barbados
252
Which Caribbean nation is in the bottom quartile of HDI (but missing IHDI)?
5ad0cf93645df0001a2d0480
True
Countries in the top quartile of HDI ("very high human development" group) with a missing IHDI include: New Zealand, Liechtenstein, Japan, Hong Kong, Singapore, Taiwan, United Arab Emirates, Andorra, Brunei, Malta, Qatar, Bahrain, Chile, Argentina and Barbados.
green arrows (), red arrows
10
What arrows do not represent changes in rank?
5ad0d0dc645df0001a2d04c1
True
Note: The green arrows (), red arrows (), and blue dashes () represent changes in rank when compared to the 2010 HDI list, for countries listed in both rankings.
being a non-UN member
62
Why were all countries included?
5ad0d2bc645df0001a2d055e
True
Some countries were not included for various reasons, such as being a non-UN member, unable, or unwilling to provide the necessary data at the time of publication. Besides the states with limited recognition, the following states were also not included.
Southern_Europe
What is another term for southern Europe
56de31d34396321400ee2676
Mediterranean Europe
51
False
What is the name for the stretch of land on which Spain and Portugal are located?
56de31d34396321400ee2677
Iberian peninsula
102
False
What nations are sometimes included in the scope of southern Europe?
56de31d34396321400ee2678
Balkan countries
233
False
What area of France is considered a part of Mediterranean Europe?
56de31d34396321400ee2679
southern France
165
False
Iberian peninsula
102
What is the name for the stretch of land on which France and Greece are located
5a6316cf68151a001a9221c4
True
Mediterranean Europe
51
What is another name for northern Europe
5a6316cf68151a001a9221c5
True
Balkan countries
233
What peninsulas are sometimes included in the scope of southern Europe?
5a6316cf68151a001a9221c6
True
southern France
165
What area of France is considered a part of the Balkan countries?
5a6316cf68151a001a9221c7
True
Balkan countries
233
What countries have the same historical, political, economic, and cultural backgrounds as the rest of southern Europe?
5a6316cf68151a001a9221c8
True
Some definitions of southern Europe, also known as Mediterranean Europe, include the countries of the Iberian peninsula (Spain and Portugal), the Italian peninsula, southern France and Greece. Other definitions sometimes include the Balkan countries of southeast Europe, which are geographically in the southern part of Europe, but which have different historical, political, economic, and cultural backgrounds.
What are three characteristics that can be employed to characterize southern Europe?
56de3455cffd8e1900b4b674
political, economic, and cultural attributes
71
False
What are three aspects of the environment of southern Europe that can be used to distinguish the region?
56de3455cffd8e1900b4b675
geography, climate, and flora
183
False
political, economic, and cultural attributes
71
What are three characteristics that can be employed to characterize natural features?
5a6318cd68151a001a9221ce
True
geography, climate, and flora
183
What are three aspects of the environment of Southern Asia that can be used to distinguish the region?
5a6318cd68151a001a9221cf
True
Southern Europe
117
What can be defined by its industries?
5a6318cd68151a001a9221d0
True
southern Europe
40
What area is defined by it's genealogy?
5a6318cd68151a001a9221d1
True
political, economic, and cultural attributes
71
What methods can be used to define the southern Mediterranean?
5a6318cd68151a001a9221d2
True
Different methods can be used to define southern Europe, including its political, economic, and cultural attributes. Southern Europe can also be defined by its natural features — its geography, climate, and flora.
What kind of climate is exemplary of southern Europe?
56de350b4396321400ee269a
The Mediterranean climate
143
False
Which parts of Turkey are characterized by a Mediterranean climate?
56de350b4396321400ee269b
Western and Southern coastal regions
268
False
What are two broad categories of similarity among countries which have a Mediterranean climate?
56de350b4396321400ee269c
vegetations and landscapes
406
False
Mediterranean climate
57
What climate is that of all of Europe?
5a631a8968151a001a9221d8
True
Portugal, Spain, Southeast France, Italy, Croatia, Albania, Montenegro, Greece
184
What countries have varying vegetations and landscapes?
5a631a8968151a001a9221d9
True
Western and Southern coastal regions
268
Which parts of Greece are characterized by a Mediterranean climate?
5a631a8968151a001a9221da
True
vegetations and landscapes
406
What are two broad categories of similarity among forests which have a Mediterranean climate?
5a631a8968151a001a9221db
True
pine forests and olive trees
480
What kind of vegetation grows in the Mediterranean?
5a631a8968151a001a9221dc
True
Southern Europe's most emblematic climate is that of the Mediterranean climate, which has become a typically known characteristic of the area. The Mediterranean climate covers much of Portugal, Spain, Southeast France, Italy, Croatia, Albania, Montenegro, Greece, the Western and Southern coastal regions of Turkey as well as the Mediterranean islands. Those areas of Mediterranean climate present similar vegetations and landscapes throughout, including dry hills, small plains, pine forests and olive trees.
Where do colder areas occur within southern Europe?
56de35834396321400ee26a2
mountain ranges of Spain and Italy
101
False
Where are more moist areas found in southern Europe?
56de35834396321400ee26a3
north coast of Spain
155
False
What term can be used to describe the wet area of North Spain?
56de35834396321400ee26a4
Atlantic climate
197
False
mountain ranges of Spain and Italy
101
Where do colder areas occur within northern Europe?
5a631bef68151a001a9221e2
True
north coast of Spain
155
Where are dry areas found in southern Europe?
5a631bef68151a001a9221e3
True
Atlantic climate
197
What term can be used to describe the wet area of Northern Europe?
5a631bef68151a001a9221e4
True
wetter
190
The east coast of Spain experiences what kind of climate?
5a631bef68151a001a9221e5
True
Southern European countries
49
Where have cooler climates recently began to warm up?
5a631bef68151a001a9221e6
True
Cooler climates can be found in certain parts of Southern European countries, for example within the mountain ranges of Spain and Italy. Additionally, the north coast of Spain experiences a wetter Atlantic climate.
What is a word that can be used to describe the plant life of southern Europe?
56de368d4396321400ee26a8
phytochoria
72
False
Who coined the term phytochoria?
56de368d4396321400ee26a9
Armen Takhtajan
98
False
Armen Takhtajan
98
Who coined the term Submediterranean?
5a631d6668151a001a9221ec
True
phytochoria
72
What is a word that can be used to describe the animal life of southern Europe?
5a631d6668151a001a9221ed
True
Submediterranean climate regions
137
What is found on the southern coast of Bosnia?
5a631d6668151a001a9221ee
True
Mediterranean Region
39
In what region are southern Europe's coasts found?
5a631d6668151a001a9221ef
True
much of Southern Europe
193
Where are the arctic and subarctic climate regions in Europe found?
5a631d6668151a001a9221f0
True
Southern Europe's flora is that of the Mediterranean Region, one of the phytochoria recognized by Armen Takhtajan. The Mediterranean and Submediterranean climate regions in Europe are found in much of Southern Europe, mainly in Southern Portugal, most of Spain, the southern coast of France, Italy, the Croatian coast, much of Bosnia, Montenegro, Albania, Macedonia, Greece, and the Mediterranean islands.
What era started when Ancient Greek cities became self-governing entities?
56de3741cffd8e1900b4b67e
classical antiquity
20
False
What was the name of the different governments forming in Ancient Greece?
56de3741cffd8e1900b4b67f
city-states
67
False
Who was responsible for the bringing Greek culture as far as Asia?
56de3741cffd8e1900b4b680
Alexander the Great
163
False
classical antiquity
20
What era started when Alexander the Great became a self governing entity?
5a631e5568151a001a9221f6
True
city-states
67
What was the name of the different governments forming in Ancient Asia?
5a631e5568151a001a9221f7
True
Alexander the Great
163
Who was responsible for bringing Asian culture to the Greek?
5a631e5568151a001a9221f8
True
throughout Asia
194
Where did Alexander go to spread city-states?
5a631e5568151a001a9221f9
True
classical antiquity
20
What period began with Alexander the Great?
5a631e5568151a001a9221fa
True
The period known as classical antiquity began with the rise of the city-states of Ancient Greece. Greek influence reached its zenith under the expansive empire of Alexander the Great, spreading throughout Asia.
Where was the headquarters of the Western Roman Empire?
56de37c0cffd8e1900b4b684
Rome
247
False
Where was the headquarters of the Eastern Roman Empire?
56de37c0cffd8e1900b4b685
Constantinople
291
False
Which tribes brought down the Western Roman Empire?
56de37c0cffd8e1900b4b686
Germanic
326
False
What year is considered the transition between the classical period and the Middle Ages?
56de37c0cffd8e1900b4b687
AD 476
409
False
By what year was the Roman Empire split into two sections?
56de37c0cffd8e1900b4b688
300 AD
172
False
The Roman Empire
0
What empire dominated northern Europe?
5a631f1268151a001a922200
True
Rome
247
Where was the headquarters of the northern Roman Empire?
5a631f1268151a001a922201
True
Constantinople
291
Where were the headquarters of the Germanic Roman Empire?
5a631f1268151a001a922202
True
Germanic
326
Which tribes built up the Western Roman Empire?
5a631f1268151a001a922203
True
300 AD
172
By what year was the Germanic Empire split into two sections?
5a631f1268151a001a922204
True
The Roman Empire came to dominate the entire Mediterranean basin in a vast empire based on Roman law and Roman legions. It promoted trade, tolerance, and Greek culture. By 300 AD the Roman Empire was divided into the Western Roman Empire based in Rome, and the Eastern Roman Empire based in Constantinople. The attacks of the Germanic peoples of northern Europe led to the Fall of the Western Roman Empire in AD 476, a date which traditionally marks the end of the classical period and the start of the Middle Ages.
What is the Eastern Roman Empire in the Middle Ages called by contemporary scholars?
56de3937cffd8e1900b4b692
the Byzantine Empire
107
False
Who took over the remains of the Western Roman Empire?
56de3937cffd8e1900b4b693
Germanic peoples
148
False
What did Germanic people create in place of the Western Roman Empire?
56de3937cffd8e1900b4b694
kingdoms and empires of their own
262
False
Byzantine Empire
111
What is the Western Roman Empire in the Middle ages called by contemporary scholars?
5a63202a68151a001a92220a
True
Germanic peoples
148
Who took over the remains of the Eastern Roman Empire?
5a63202a68151a001a92220b
True
kingdoms and empires of their own
262
What did Roman people create in place of the Western Roman Empire?
5a63202a68151a001a92220c
True
Byzantine Empire
111
What Empire was located in Western Europe?
5a63202a68151a001a92220d
True
Eastern Roman Empire
28
What empire doubled in size during the middle ages?
5a63202a68151a001a92220e
True
During the Middle Ages, the Eastern Roman Empire survived, though modern historians refer to this state as the Byzantine Empire. In Western Europe, Germanic peoples moved into positions of power in the remnants of the former Western Roman Empire and established kingdoms and empires of their own.
What is the name of the period of armed incursions undertaken in the name of Christianity?
56de3a30cffd8e1900b4b69c
the Crusades
20
False
When did Crusaders invade Constantinople?
56de3a30cffd8e1900b4b69d
1204
357
False
Which two cities benefited greatly from the activities of Crusaders?
56de3a30cffd8e1900b4b69e
Genoa and Venice
619
False
What was the name of another activity like the Crusades occuring on the Iberian peninsula?
56de3a30cffd8e1900b4b69f
The Reconquista
669
False
What empire was destroyed by the Sack of Constantinople?
56de3a30cffd8e1900b4b6a0
the Byzantine Empire
387
False
the Crusades
20
What is the name of the period of peaceful incursions undertaken in the name of Christianity?
5a6321a568151a001a922214
True
1204
357
When did the Byzantine Empire invade Constantinople?
5a6321a568151a001a922215
True
Genoa and Venice
619
Which two cities were demolished by the crusaders?
5a6321a568151a001a922216
True
The Reconquista
669
What was the name of another activity like the Crusades occurring in the eastern Mediterranean?
5a6321a568151a001a922217
True
the Byzantine Empire
387
What empire was destroyed Christian Rule?
5a6321a568151a001a922218
True
The period known as the Crusades, a series of religiously motivated military expeditions originally intended to bring the Levant back into Christian rule, began. Several Crusader states were founded in the eastern Mediterranean. These were all short-lived. The Crusaders would have a profound impact on many parts of Europe. Their Sack of Constantinople in 1204 brought an abrupt end to the Byzantine Empire. Though it would later be re-established, it would never recover its former glory. The Crusaders would establish trade routes that would develop into the Silk Road and open the way for the merchant republics of Genoa and Venice to become major economic powers. The Reconquista, a related movement, worked to reconquer Iberia for Christendom.
What era was characterized by turmoil in Europe?
56de3aeccffd8e1900b4b6ae
The Late Middle Ages
0
False
What disease plagued Europe during the Late Middle Ages?
56de3aeccffd8e1900b4b6af
the Black Death
87
False
Which new regime appeared in the Balkan region during the Late Middle Ages?
56de3aeccffd8e1900b4b6b0
the Ottoman Empire
319
False
When did the Ottoman Empire conquer Constantinople?
56de3aeccffd8e1900b4b6b1
1453
472
False
The Late Middle Ages
0
What era was characterized by the Ottoman Empire?
5a63236668151a001a92221e
True
the Black Death
87
What disease plagued former Byzatine lands in the Late Middle Ages?
5a63236668151a001a92221f
True
the Ottoman Empire
319
Which new regime appeared in the Constantinople region during the Late Middle Ages?
5a63236668151a001a922220
True
1453
472
When did the Ottoman Empire liberate Constantinople from the Balkans?
5a63236668151a001a922221
True
Dynastic struggles and wars of conquest
198
What kept states of Europe in a famine?
5a63236668151a001a922222
True
The Late Middle Ages represented a period of upheaval in Europe. The epidemic known as the Black Death and an associated famine caused demographic catastrophe in Europe as the population plummeted. Dynastic struggles and wars of conquest kept many of the states of Europe at war for much of the period. In the Balkans, the Ottoman Empire, a Turkish state originating in Anatolia, encroached steadily on former Byzantine lands, culminating in the Fall of Constantinople in 1453.
When was the start of the period known as the Renaissance?
56de3ba64396321400ee26b8
14th century
25
False
In what city did the Renaissance begin?
56de3ba64396321400ee26b9
Florence
41
False
What areas of knowledge were subject to much debate during the Renaissance?
56de3ba64396321400ee26ba
science and theology
193
False
The encounter with Arabic knowledge put Renaissance thinkers back in touch with the teachings of which ancient civilizations?
56de3ba64396321400ee26bb
Greek and Roman
289
False
14th century
25
When was the start of the period known as Greek and Roman?
5a63251e68151a001a922228
True
Florence
41
What city discovered lost Arabic texts?
5a63251e68151a001a922229
True
science and theology
193
What areas of knowledge stagnated during the Renaissance?
5a63251e68151a001a92222a
True
Greek and Roman
289
The encounter with the Florence printing press put Renaissance thinkers back in touch with the teachings of which civilizations?
5a63251e68151a001a92222b
True
Arabic texts
224
What brought about rediscovery of printing press knowledge?
5a63251e68151a001a92222c
True
Beginning roughly in the 14th century in Florence, and later spreading through Europe with the development of the printing press, a Renaissance of knowledge challenged traditional doctrines in science and theology, with the Arabic texts and thought bringing about rediscovery of classical Greek and Roman knowledge.
Which countries initiated the Age of Exploration following the Reconquista?
56de45f5cffd8e1900b4b765
Portugal and Spain
19
False
When did religious conflict end in Europe?
56de45f5cffd8e1900b4b766
1648
249
False
Between which two nations was the Treaty of the Pyrenees signed?
56de45f5cffd8e1900b4b767
Spain and France
459
False
Which scientist developed a means of viewing space?
56de45f5cffd8e1900b4b768
Galileo Galilei
764
False
Who was responsible for creating the first radio?
56de45f5cffd8e1900b4b769
Guglielmo Marconi
945
False
Portugal and Spain
19
Which countries initiated the Peace of Westphalia following the Reconquista?
5a63277968151a001a92223c
True
1648
249
When did revolutions end in Europe?
5a63277968151a001a92223d
True
Spain and France
459
Between which two nations was the Thirty Years's War signed?
5a63277968151a001a92223e
True
Galileo Galilei
764
Which scientist developed a means of ending wars?
5a63277968151a001a92223f
True
Leonardo da Vinci
884
Who was responsible for creating the most famous continent?
5a63277968151a001a922240
True
The Reconquista of Portugal and Spain led to a series of oceanic explorations resulting in the Age of Discovery that established direct links with Africa, the Americas, and Asia, while religious wars continued to be fought in Europe, which ended in 1648 with the Peace of Westphalia. The Spanish crown maintained its hegemony in Europe and was the leading power on the continent until the signing of the Treaty of the Pyrenees, which ended a conflict between Spain and France that had begun during the Thirty Years' War. An unprecedented series of major wars and political revolutions took place around Europe and indeed the world in the period between 1610 and 1700. Observers at the time, and many historians since, have argued that wars caused the revolutions. Galileo Galilei, invented the telescope and the thermometer which allowed him to observe and describe the solar system. Leonardo da Vinci painted the most famous work in the world. Guglielmo Marconi invented the radio.
What resulted from Europe's exploration of the New World?
56de48464396321400ee2764
the rise of colonial empires
35
False
What institution of mercantilism was established with New World colonies?
56de48464396321400ee2765
the Columbian Exchange
75
False
What replaced agriculture as the focus of European economy with the establishment of overseas colonies?
56de48464396321400ee2766
manufacturing
233
False
Aside from the activities of colonies, what other event fostered the transition from agriculture to manufacturing?
56de48464396321400ee2767
the Industrial Revolution of Great Britain
158
False
colonial empires
47
What resulted from Europe's Columbian exchange?
5a63296468151a001a922246
True
the Columbian Exchange
75
What institution of mercantilism was established with Great Britain?
5a63296468151a001a922247
True
manufacturing
233
What replaced colonial empires as the focus of European economy with the establishment of overseas colonies?
5a63296468151a001a922248
True
the Industrial Revolution of Great Britain
158
Aside from the activities of colonies what other even fostered the transition from manufacturing to agriculture?
5a63296468151a001a922249
True
resource inflows from the New World and the Industrial Revolution
118
What allowed a new economy based on subsistence agriculture?
5a63296468151a001a92224a
True
European overseas expansion led to the rise of colonial empires, producing the Columbian Exchange. The combination of resource inflows from the New World and the Industrial Revolution of Great Britain, allowed a new economy based on manufacturing instead of subsistence agriculture.
When were there many struggles for independence or overthrowing prevailing governments?
56de498bcffd8e1900b4b79f
between 1815 and 1871
11
False
From whom did Balkan states start retaking their independence?
56de498bcffd8e1900b4b7a0
the Ottoman Empire
150
False
In what year was Rome conquered?
56de498bcffd8e1900b4b7a1
1870
228
False
What phrase is used to describe the period marked by competition for extant lands?
56de498bcffd8e1900b4b7a2
The Age of Empire
326
False
between 1815 and 1871
11
When were there many struggles for Italy?
5a63433e68151a001a9222be
True
the Ottoman Empire
150
From whom did nation Roman start retaking their independence?
5a63433e68151a001a9222bf
True
1870
228
What year was known as The Age of the Empire?
5a63433e68151a001a9222c0
True
The capture of Rome
205
What ended the Papal revolutionary attempt?
5a63433e68151a001a9222c1
True
The Age of Empire
326
What phrase is used to describe the period marked by nation states?
5a63433e68151a001a9222c2
True
The period between 1815 and 1871 saw a large number of revolutionary attempts and independence wars. Balkan nations began to regain independence from the Ottoman Empire. Italy unified into a nation state. The capture of Rome in 1870 ended the Papal temporal power. Rivalry in a scramble for empires spread in what is known as The Age of Empire.
In what year did World War I begin?
56de4a06cffd8e1900b4b7ad
1914
31
False
When did a victor emerge in World War I?
56de4a06cffd8e1900b4b7af
1918
180
False
At what event did the major Allied powers assert their conditions at the end of the war?
56de4a06cffd8e1900b4b7b0
the Paris Peace Conference
193
False
1914
31
In what year did World War II begin?
5a632d0368151a001a922250
True
1918
180
When did a stalemate occur in World War I?
5a632d0368151a001a922251
True
the Paris Peace Conference
193
At what event did the major Central Powers assert their conditions at the end of the war?
5a632d0368151a001a922252
True
the Treaty of Versailles
289
What is an example of a treaty precipitated by the rise of nationalism?
5a632d0368151a001a922253
True
the Big Four
220
Who imposed their ideas about climate control?
5a632d0368151a001a922254
True
The outbreak of World War I in 1914 was precipitated by the rise of nationalism in Southeastern Europe as the Great Powers took up sides. The Allies defeated the Central Powers in 1918. During the Paris Peace Conference the Big Four imposed their terms in a series of treaties, especially the Treaty of Versailles.
Which group took control in 1933?
56de4d554396321400ee27b5
The Nazi regime
0
False
Who led the Nazis?
56de4d554396321400ee27b6
Adolf Hitler
22
False
Which country did Hitler align Germany with?
56de4d554396321400ee27b7
Italy
85
False
Who was the leader of Italy when World War II started?
56de4d554396321400ee27b8
Mussolini
73
False
What was the military partnership between countries aligned with the Soviet Union called?
56de4d554396321400ee27b9
the Warsaw Pact
593
False
The Nazi regime
0
Which group was dominated by the Soviet Unioin in 1933?
5a632f1a68151a001a92225a
True
Italy
85
Which country did Hitler form the European Economic Community with?
5a632f1a68151a001a92225b
True
Mussolini
73
Who was the leader of the continent when World War II started?
5a632f1a68151a001a92225c
True
the Warsaw Pact
593
What was the military partnership between countries aligned with Yugoslavia called?
5a632f1a68151a001a92225d
True
the Iron Curtain
232
What divided the Nazi regime?
5a632f1a68151a001a92225e
True
The Nazi regime under Adolf Hitler came to power in 1933, and along with Mussolini's Italy sought to gain control of the continent by the Second World War. Following the Allied victory in the Second World War, Europe was divided by the Iron Curtain. The countries in Southeastern Europe were dominated by the Soviet Union and became communist states. The major non-communist Southern European countries joined a US-led military alliance (NATO) and formed the European Economic Community amongst themselves. The countries in the Soviet sphere of influence joined the military alliance known as the Warsaw Pact and the economic bloc called Comecon. Yugoslavia was neutal.
What does EU stand for?
56de4fd0cffd8e1900b4b7f1
European Union
93
False
What was the European Union tasked with managing?
56de4fd0cffd8e1900b4b7f2
market rules, competition, legal standards and environmentalism
239
False
When did communism fall in allies of the Soviet Union?
56de4fd0cffd8e1900b4b7f3
1989
418
False
When did the USSR dissolve?
56de4fd0cffd8e1900b4b7f4
1991
474
False
In what year was Croatia admitted to the European Union?
56de4fd0cffd8e1900b4b7f5
2013
712
False
market rules, competition, legal standards and environmentalism
239
What Soviet Union tasked with managing?
5a63379768151a001a922264
True
1989
418
When did democracy fall in allies of the Soviet Union?
5a63379768151a001a922265
True
1991
474
When did the EU dissovle?
5a63379768151a001a922266
True
2013
712
In what year was Croatia admitted to the communist party?
5a63379768151a001a922267
True
The European Union (EU)
89
What involved the division of formerly communist European countries?
5a63379768151a001a922268
True
Italy became a major industrialized country again, due to its post-war economic miracle. The European Union (EU) involved the division of powers, with taxation, health and education handled by the nation states, while the EU had charge of market rules, competition, legal standards and environmentalism. The Soviet economic and political system collapsed, leading to the end of communism in the satellite countries in 1989, and the dissolution of the Soviet Union itself in 1991. As a consequence, Europe's integration deepened, the continent became depolarised, and the European Union expanded to subsequently include many of the formerly communist European countries – Romania and Bulgaria (2007) and Croatia (2013).
What is the most common group of languages spoken in Mediterranean Europe?
56de50ed4396321400ee27e3
Romance languages
70
False
What are the three main areas of southern Europe where Italian speakers can be found?
56de50ed4396321400ee27e4
Italy, San Marino, and the Vatican
339
False
Where can people who speak Catalan be found?
56de50ed4396321400ee27e5
eastern Spain
613
False
What language is spoken in northwest Spain?
56de50ed4396321400ee27e6
Galician
632
False
How many people in Spain and Gibraltar are Spanish speakers?
56de50ed4396321400ee27e7
over 40 million
407
False
Romance languages
70
What is the most common group of languages spoken in Catalan?
5a63394c68151a001a92226e
True
Italy, San Marino, and the Vatican
339
What are the three main areas of southern Europe where Latin speakers can be found?
5a63394c68151a001a92226f
True
over 40 million
407
How many people in Spain and France are Spanish speakers?
5a63394c68151a001a922270
True
over 50 million people
313
How many people speak Italian in Europe?
5a63394c68151a001a922271
True
Romance languages
70
What languages are emblematic of northern Europe?
5a63394c68151a001a922272
True
The most widely spoken family of languages in southern Europe are the Romance languages, the heirs of Latin, which have spread from the Italian peninsula, and are emblematic of Southwestern Europe. (See the Latin Arch.) By far the most common romance languages in Southern Europe are: Italian, which is spoken by over 50 million people in Italy, San Marino, and the Vatican; and Spanish, which is spoken by over 40 million people in Spain and Gibraltar. Other common romance languages include: Romanian, which is spoken in Romania and Moldova; Portuguese, which is spoken in Portugal; Catalan, which is spoken in eastern Spain; and Galician, which is spoken in northwestern Spain.
What is another term for Greek?
56de515e4396321400ee27f3
Hellenic
4
False
Outside of Greece itself, in what other nation is Greek a major language?
56de515e4396321400ee27f4
Cyprus
94
False
Hellenic
4
What is another term for Cyprus?
5a633af868151a001a922278
True
Cyprus
94
In what other nation is Icelandic a major language?
5a633af868151a001a922279
True
other European counties
185
Where are small varieties of Latin spoken in small communities?
5a633af868151a001a92227a
True
Greece
62
In what country is Greek spoken by the wealthy?
5a633af868151a001a92227b
True
the Greek part of Cyprus
76
What part of Cyprus is known for its many languages?
5a633af868151a001a92227c
True
The Hellenic languages or Greek language are widely spoken in Greece and in the Greek part of Cyprus. Additionally, other varieties of Greek are spoken in small communities in parts of other European counties.
What language is used in Macedonia?
56de51f9cffd8e1900b4b7ff
Macedonian
273
False
What do people speak in Bulgaria?
56de51f9cffd8e1900b4b800
Bulgarian
134
False
Slovene is a major language in what country?
56de51f9cffd8e1900b4b802
Slovenia
259
False
Serbian
84
What is the most common Slavic language?
5a633c6468151a001a922282
True
Bulgaria
157
Where is Bulgarian ale made?
5a633c6468151a001a922283
True
Bosnia
201
Where is Croatian the second most common language?
5a633c6468151a001a922284
True
Several South Slavic languages
0
What languages are spoken by millions of people in Northern Europe?
5a633c6468151a001a922285
True
Serbian
84
What language is spoken in both Serbia and Croatia?
5a633c6468151a001a922286
True
Several South Slavic languages are spoken by millions of people in Southern Europe. Serbian is spoken in Serbia, Bosnia, and Croatia; Bulgarian is spoken in Bulgaria; Croatian is spoken in Croatia and Bosnia; Bosnian is spoken in Bosnia; Slovene is spoken in Slovenia; and Macedonian is spoken in Macedonia.
What is considered a de facto second language in Mediterranean Europe?
56de53534396321400ee2807
English
0
False
Besides English, what other language is spoken in Gibraltar?
56de53534396321400ee2809
Spanish
181
False
Besides English, what other language is spoken in Malta?
56de53534396321400ee280a
Maltese
214
False
English
0
What language is considered a defacto first langauge in Mediterranean Europe?
5a633d8368151a001a92228c
True
Spanish
181
What language is the third most common in Malta?
5a633d8368151a001a92228d
True
English
0
What language is the most common in Southern Europe?
5a633d8368151a001a92228e
True
Maltese
214
What language is the third most common in Gibraltar?
5a633d8368151a001a92228f
True
Southern Europe
135
Where does English have a large presence as a primary language?
5a633d8368151a001a922290
True
English is used as a second language in parts of Southern Europe. As a primary language, however, English has only a small presence in Southern Europe, only in Gibraltar (alongside Spanish) and Malta (secondary to Maltese).
What language can be found used in Kosovo and Albania?
56de560a4396321400ee281d
Albanian
55
False
What type of language is Maltese?
56de560a4396321400ee281e
Semitic
140
False
Where is Basque Country located?
56de560a4396321400ee281f
northern Spain and southwestern France
262
False
Albanian
55
What language is spoken in Cyprus?
5a633e6468151a001a922296
True
Semitic
140
What type of language is Albanian?
5a633e6468151a001a922297
True
northern Spain and southwestern France
262
Where is Malta located?
5a633e6468151a001a922298
True
Maltese
127
What is the second most common language in Albania?
5a633e6468151a001a922299
True
Maltese
127
What is the second most common language in the Basque Country?
5a633e6468151a001a92229a
True
There are other language groupings in Southern Europe. Albanian is spoken in Albania, Kosovo, Macedoonia, and parts of Greece. Maltese is a Semitic language that is the official language of Malta. The Basque language is spoken in the Basque Country, a region in northern Spain and southwestern France.
What is the main faith practiced in southern Europe?
56de56f64396321400ee2825
Christianity
47
False
When did the Romans make Christianity their official religion?
56de56f64396321400ee2826
380 AD
219
False
What denomination of Christianity is common in the western part of southern Europe?
56de56f64396321400ee2827
Roman Catholic
539
False
Which denomination of Christianity is more common in the eastern part of Mediterranean Europe?
56de56f64396321400ee2828
Greek Orthodox
647
False
Christianity
47
What is the main faith practiced in western Europe?
5a63406b68151a001a9222a0
True
380 AD
219
When did the Romans say that Christianity was true?
5a63406b68151a001a9222a1
True
Roman Catholic
539
What denomination of Christianity was common in Constantinople?
5a63406b68151a001a9222a2
True
Greek Orthodox
647
Which denomination of Christianity was most common during the Roman Empire?
5a63406b68151a001a9222a3
True
Due to the historical break of the Christian Church
227
Why are different branches of Christianity spread evenly over Europe?
5a63406b68151a001a9222a4
True
The predominant religion is southern Europe is Christianity. Christianity spread throughout Southern Europe during the Roman Empire, and Christianity was adopted as the official religion of the Roman Empire in the year 380 AD. Due to the historical break of the Christian Church into the western half based in Rome and the eastern half based in Constantinople, different branches of Christianity are prodominent in different parts of Europe. Christians in the western half of Southern Europe — e.g., Portugal, Spain, Italy — are generally Roman Catholic. Christians in the eastern half of Southern Europe — e.g., Greece, Macedonia — are generally Greek Orthodox.
What term is used by the UNO to divide groups of nations?
56de58b94396321400ee283b
regions
116
False
What is the reason for the UNO's division into regions?
56de58b94396321400ee283c
statistical convenience
191
False
What smaller unit makes up the southern Europe region?
56de58b94396321400ee283d
sub-regions
424
False
regions
116
What term is used by the UNO to divide groups of cities?
5a6341f368151a001a9222aa
True
statistical convenience
373
What is the reason for the UNO's official works?
5a6341f368151a001a9222ab
True
sub-regions
424
What smaller units are recorded in newspaper publications?
5a6341f368151a001a9222ac
True
The assignment of countries or areas to specific groupings
125
What does not imply a religious affiliation?
5a6341f368151a001a9222ad
True
United Nations Organization
45
Who groups countries according to political affiliation?
5a6341f368151a001a9222ae
True
For its official works and publications, the United Nations Organization groups countries under a classification of regions. The assignment of countries or areas to specific groupings is for statistical convenience and does not imply any assumption regarding political or other affiliation of countries or territories by the United Nations. Southern Europe, as grouped for statistical convenience by the United Nations (the sub-regions according to the UN), includes following countries and territories:
What does TDM stand for?
56de58e4cffd8e1900b4b82e
Tourism Decision Metrics
71
False
Which group uses TDM as a metric?
56de58e4cffd8e1900b4b82f
European Travel Commission
0
False
European Travel Commission
0
Which group uses European regions as a metric?
5a63430c68151a001a9222b4
True
European Travel Commission
0
Who divides the mountainous regions?
5a63430c68151a001a9222b5
True
Tourism Decision Metrics (TDM) model
71
What model shows countries grouped by population?
5a63430c68151a001a9222b6
True
Southern/Mediterranean Europe
139
What region does Ireland belong to?
5a63430c68151a001a9222b7
True
European Travel Commission
0
Who divides the Asian region?
5a63430c68151a001a9222b8
True
European Travel Commission divides the European region on the basis of Tourism Decision Metrics (TDM) model. Countries which belong to the Southern/Mediterranean Europe are:
BBC_Television
What is the acronym for British Broadcasting Corporation?
56de61a3cffd8e1900b4b838
BBC
0
False
Under what auspices does the BBC exist?
56de61a3cffd8e1900b4b839
Royal charter
148
False
When did the BBC start creating its own programming?
56de61a3cffd8e1900b4b83a
1932
228
False
On what date did the BBC being its regular TV broadcasts?
56de61a3cffd8e1900b4b83b
2 November 1936
313
False
In what country is the BBC headquartered?
56de61a3cffd8e1900b4b83c
United Kingdom
112
False
Royal
148
What type of charter has the BBC operated under since 1932?
5a8310f7e60761001a2eb359
True
television programmes
187
The BBC has produced what since 1927?
5a8310f7e60761001a2eb35a
True
the start of its regular service of television broadcasts
243
What does the date of 3 November 1926 signify?
5a8310f7e60761001a2eb35b
True
British Broadcasting Corporation
35
What is BCB Television a service of?
5a8310f7e60761001a2eb35c
True
BBC Television is a service of the British Broadcasting Corporation. The corporation, which has operated in the United Kingdom under the terms of a Royal charter since 1927, has produced television programmes from its own since 1932, although the start of its regular service of television broadcasts is dated to 2 November 1936.
What percentage of viewership across the UK is constituted by the BBC?
56de620fcffd8e1900b4b842
30%
133
False
commercial advertising
66
What are BBC channels broadcast without?
5a831244e60761001a2eb373
True
30%
133
How much UK viewing do domestic BCB channels account for?
5a831244e60761001a2eb374
True
a television licence
183
What are commercial services funded by?
5a831244e60761001a2eb375
True
The domestic TV BBC television channels are broadcast without any commercial advertising and collectively they account for more than 30% of all UK viewing. The services are funded by a television licence.
As a result of shows that the BBC itself creates, it is one of the biggest what?
56de626d4396321400ee2866
television production companies
364
False
United Kingdom
193
Where does the BBC operate several station networks?
5a83141fe60761001a2eb379
True
television networks, television stations
25
What two terms are there distinction between?
5a83141fe60761001a2eb37a
True
The BBC
0
What ranks as one of the United Kingdom's largest television production companies?
5a83141fe60761001a2eb37b
True
The BBC operates several television networks, television stations (although there is generally very little distinction between the two terms in the UK), and related programming services in the United Kingdom. As well as being a broadcaster, the corporation also produces a large number of its own programmes in-house, thereby ranking as one of the world's largest television production companies.
On what date was the first TV show seen in the UK?
56de62fc4396321400ee2869
30 September 1929
68
False
From where was the first TV show in the UK broadcasted?
56de62fc4396321400ee286a
Long Acre, London
105
False
How many lines made up the picture on Britain's earliest TV broadcasts?
56de62fc4396321400ee286b
30
68
False
When did Baird cease showing its programs on BBC?
56de62fc4396321400ee286c
June 1932
751
False
When were both audio and video first broadcasted at the same time?
56de62fc4396321400ee286d
30 March 1930
466
False
Britain's first television broadcast
27
What was made on 29 September 1930?
5a8315c1e60761001a2eb3b1
True
the electromechanical system
164
What was used, created by Logie John Baird, to make the Britain's first television broadcast?
5a8315c1e60761001a2eb3b2
True
Simultaneous transmission of sound and picture
403
What was achieved on 30 March 1932?
5a8315c1e60761001a2eb3b3
True
1930
548
What year did BBC radio go off the air?
5a8315c1e60761001a2eb3b4
True
Baird broadcasts via the BBC
706
What continued until June 1930?
5a8315c1e60761001a2eb3b5
True
Baird Television Ltd. made Britain's first television broadcast, on 30 September 1929 from its studio in Long Acre, London, via the BBC's London transmitter, using the electromechanical system pioneered by John Logie Baird. This system used a vertically-scanned image of 30 lines – just enough resolution for a close-up of one person, and with a bandwidth low enough to use existing radio transmitters. Simultaneous transmission of sound and picture was achieved on 30 March 1930, by using the BBC's new twin transmitter at Brookmans Park. By late 1930, 30 minutes of morning programmes were broadcast Monday to Friday, and 30 minutes at midnight on Tuesdays and Fridays, after BBC radio went off the air. Baird broadcasts via the BBC continued until June 1932.
Where was the BBC's first studio located?
56de66ce4396321400ee2889
Broadcasting House, London
74
False
What was the medium that brought the BBC's signal to the transmitter?
56de66ce4396321400ee288a
telephone line
263
False
What term characterizes the type of broadcast made by the BBC prior to late 1935?
56de66ce4396321400ee288b
electromechanical
422
False
Where was the BBC's second studio located?
56de66ce4396321400ee288c
16 Portland Place, London
160
False
When did the BBC first change studios?
56de66ce4396321400ee288d
February 1934
190
False
its own regular television programming
14
What did the BBC begin on 30 August 1932?
5a83182ce60761001a2eb3e3
True
16 Portland Place, London
160
Where did the studio move to in February 1935?
5a83182ce60761001a2eb3e4
True
11 September 1935
334
When were 35-line images broadcast until?
5a83182ce60761001a2eb3e5
True
30-line images
236
What was carried from medium wave transmitters to telephone lines?
5a83182ce60761001a2eb3e6
True
Brookmans Park
312
What park were the telephone lines located in?
5a83182ce60761001a2eb3e7
True
The BBC began its own regular television programming from the basement of Broadcasting House, London, on 22 August 1932. The studio moved to larger quarters in 16 Portland Place, London, in February 1934, and continued broadcasting the 30-line images, carried by telephone line to the medium wave transmitter at Brookmans Park, until 11 September 1935, by which time advances in all-electronic television systems made the electromechanical broadcasts obsolete.
Where did the BBC continue broadcasting from in October of 1936?
56de679e4396321400ee2893
Alexandra Palace
179
False
What frequency band was used by the BBC starting in 1936?
56de679e4396321400ee2894
VHF
349
False
How many lines did the Baird transmission contain?
56de679e4396321400ee2895
240
426
False
How many lines did the Marconi-EMI transmission contain?
56de679e4396321400ee2896
405
474
False
On what days did the BBC provide regular broadcasts?
56de679e4396321400ee2897
Monday to Saturday
598
False
regular BBC television broadcasts
82
What officially resumed on 1 August 1936?
5a831a9be60761001a2eb3ed
True
Alexandra Palace
179
What housed scenery offices and make-up stores?
5a831a9be60761001a2eb3ee
True
on alternate weeks
402
On what schedule were the 405-line Baird system and the 240-line Marconi system used?
5a831a9be60761001a2eb3ef
True
high-definition
549
What type of service was broadcast from 15:00 to 21:00?
5a831a9be60761001a2eb3f0
True
the transmitter
301
What was broadcasting on the VFH band?
5a831a9be60761001a2eb3f1
True
After a series of test transmissions and special broadcasts that began in August, regular BBC television broadcasts officially resumed on 1 October 1936, from a converted wing of Alexandra Palace in London, which housed two studios, various scenery stores, make-up areas, dressing rooms, offices, and the transmitter itself, now broadcasting on the VHF band. BBC television initially used two systems, on alternate weeks: the 240-line Baird intermediate film system and the 405-line Marconi-EMI system, each making the BBC the world's first regular high-definition television service, broadcasting Monday to Saturday from 15:00 to 16:00 and 21:00 to 22:00.
For how long did the BBC alternate different broadcasting systems?
56de69b84396321400ee28a7
six months
49
False
What kind of camera was used to broadcast live shows under the Baird system?
56de69b84396321400ee28a8
Farnsworth image dissector
196
False
When was the Baird system officially abandoned?
56de69b84396321400ee28a9
13 February 1937
346
False
six months
49
How long did two systems run on a trial basis for?
5a83202ae60761001a2eb415
True
mechanical camera
151
What type of camera did the Baird image dissector use?
5a83202ae60761001a2eb416
True
the Baird system, which used a mechanical camera for filmed programming and Farnsworth image dissector
120
What ended on Saturday 17 February 1933?
5a83202ae60761001a2eb417
True
The two systems were to run on a trial basis for six months; early television sets supported both resolutions. However, the Baird system, which used a mechanical camera for filmed programming and Farnsworth image dissector cameras for live programming, proved too cumbersome and visually inferior, and ended with closedown (at 22:00) on Saturday 13 February 1937.
How far from its studio could the BBC's broadcast originally reach?
56de6a2e4396321400ee28ad
40 kilometres
48
False
In what year were BBC broadcasts seen in the United States?
56de6a2e4396321400ee28ae
1938
209
False
What company did the U.S. engineers who saw the BBC broadcast work for?
56de6a2e4396321400ee28af
RCA
245
False
What did the RCA employees use in order to receive the BBC signal?
56de6a2e4396321400ee28b0
a British television set
290
False
the station's range
11
What was 40 kilometers away from the Alexandra Palace transmitter?
5a83215fe60761001a2eb425
True
transmissions
127
What was picked up in 1940 by engineers at RCA in New York?
5a83215fe60761001a2eb426
True
a British television set.
290
What were engineers experimenting with in Alexandra?
5a83215fe60761001a2eb427
True
Initially, the station's range was officially a 40 kilometres radius of the Alexandra Palace transmitter—in practice, however, transmissions could be picked up a good deal further away, and on one occasion in 1938 were picked up by engineers at RCA in New York, who were experimenting with a British television set.
Where was the BBC's transmitter located in 1930?
56de7613cffd8e1900b4b944
Brookmans Park
209
False
When did the BBC start broadcasting under the name BBC One?
56de7613cffd8e1900b4b945
2 August 1932
316
False
What was the title of the first show seen on the BBC?
56de7613cffd8e1900b4b946
Opening of the BBC Television Service
622
False
Which members of British royalty were seen on the BBC in May of 1937?
56de7613cffd8e1900b4b947
King George VI and Queen Elizabeth
727
False
When did the BBC cease broadcasts due to World War II?
56de7613cffd8e1900b4b948
September 1939
913
False
1929
81
What year did 30-line television broadcasts by Logie John Baird begin?
5a832318e60761001a2eb43f
True
2 August 1932
316
When was BBC One established?
5a832318e60761001a2eb440
True
Regularly scheduled electronically scanned television
367
What began on 2 November 1935?
5a832318e60761001a2eb441
True
coronation of King George VI and Queen Elizabeth
713
What broadcast event took place in September 1939?
5a832318e60761001a2eb442
True
service to be suspended
886
What happened to service in May of 1939?
5a832318e60761001a2eb443
True
Mechanically scanned, 30-line television broadcasts by John Logie Baird began in 1929, using the BBC transmitter in London, and by 1930 a regular schedule of programmes was transmitted from the BBC antenna in Brookmans Park. Television production was switched from Baird's company to what is now known as BBC One on 2 August 1932, and continued until September 1935. Regularly scheduled electronically scanned television began from Alexandra Palace in London on 2 November 1936, to just a few hundred viewers in the immediate area. The first programme broadcast – and thus the first ever, on a dedicated TV channel – was "Opening of the BBC Television Service" at 15:00. The first major outside broadcast was the coronation of King George VI and Queen Elizabeth in May 1937. The service was reaching an estimated 25,000–40,000 homes before the outbreak of World War II which caused the service to be suspended in September 1939. The VHF broadcasts would have provided an ideal radio beacon for German bombers homing in on London, and the engineers and technicians of the service would be needed for the war effort, in particular the radar programme.
What did the British fear could provide guidance to the German air force?
56de7997cffd8e1900b4b954
VHF transmissions
159
False
What part of the military did many people working for the BBC end up serving in?
56de7997cffd8e1900b4b955
the radar programme
360
False
What was the final thing shown on the BBC before it was shut down for the war?
56de7997cffd8e1900b4b956
Mickey's Gala Premier
440
False
When did most people mistakenly remember the last broadcast as having ended?
56de7997cffd8e1900b4b957
before the end of the cartoon
598
False
1 September 1939
3
What day did Britain declare war on Germany?
5a8326f2e60761001a2eb449
True
1933
463
What year was Mickey's Gala Premier written?
5a8326f2e60761001a2eb44a
True
VHF transmissions would act as a beacon to enemy aircraft homing in on London.
159
What was the station concerned about with regard to VHF transmissions?
5a8326f2e60761001a2eb44b
True
engineers
297
What were many of the television service's technical radar staff needed for in the war effort?
5a8326f2e60761001a2eb44c
True
On 1 September 1939, two days before Britain declared war on Germany, the station was taken off air with little warning; the government was concerned that the VHF transmissions would act as a beacon to enemy aircraft homing in on London. Also, many of the television service's technical staff and engineers would be needed for the war effort, in particular on the radar programme. The last programme transmitted was a Mickey Mouse cartoon, Mickey's Gala Premier (1933), which was followed by test transmissions; this account refuted the popular memory according to which broadcasting was suspended before the end of the cartoon.
How many TVs were made between 1936 and the start of the war in 1939?
56de79d34396321400ee293b
18,999
69
False
18,999
69
How many television sets had been manufactured by 1939?
5a832794e60761001a2eb45b
True
September 1939
127
When did production of radio sets end?
5a832794e60761001a2eb45c
True
the war
173
What caused the halt in production of radio sets?
5a832794e60761001a2eb45d
True
According to figures from Britain's Radio Manufacturers Association, 18,999 television sets had been manufactured from 1936 to September 1939, when production was halted by the war.
Who was the first person to speak on BBC when it was turned back on following World War II?
56de7a464396321400ee293f
Jasmine Bligh
49
False
On what date did BBC return to the air after World War II?
56de7a464396321400ee2940
7 June 1946
27
False
In the decade following the war, where did a large portion of the BBC move to?
56de7a464396321400ee2941
Lime Grove Studios
432
False
What character was featured in the cartoon aired the day BBC broadcasting was restored?
56de7a464396321400ee2942
Mickey Mouse
214
False
BBC Television
0
What returned on 6 June 1947?
5a8328fee60761001a2eb475
True
one of the original announcers
64
Who was Alexandra Bligh?
5a8328fee60761001a2eb476
True
Lime Grove Studios
432
What studio did the channel switch to in 1946 from Alexandra Place?
5a8328fee60761001a2eb477
True
Mickey Mouse
214
What 1950's cartoon aired the day BBC returned?
5a8328fee60761001a2eb478
True
BBC Television returned on 7 June 1946 at 15:00. Jasmine Bligh, one of the original announcers, made the first announcement, saying, 'Good afternoon everybody. How are you? Do you remember me, Jasmine Bligh?'. The Mickey Mouse cartoon of 1939 was repeated twenty minutes later.[unreliable source?] Alexandra Palace was the home base of the channel until the early 1950s when the majority of production moved into the newly acquired Lime Grove Studios.[original research?]
What city received BBC signals starting in 1949?
56de7aaa4396321400ee2947
Birmingham
43
False
Which facility brought the BBC's transmissions to Birmingham?
56de7aaa4396321400ee2948
Sutton Coldfield transmitting station
86
False
What kind of image was broadcasted by the BBC by the mid-'50s?
56de7aaa4396321400ee2949
405-line interlaced image
194
False
On what frequency band was the BBC broadcasting in thie 1950s?
56de7aaa4396321400ee294a
VHF
223
False
1949
57
What year was broadcast coverage extended to Sutton?
5a832af9e60761001a2eb499
True
Sutton
86
The Coldfield Birmingham transmitting station helped cover what area in 1949?
5a832af9e60761001a2eb49a
True
a 405-line interlaced image on VHF
192
What did postwar coverage consist of?
5a832af9e60761001a2eb49b
True
Postwar broadcast coverage was extended to Birmingham in 1949 with the opening of the Sutton Coldfield transmitting station, and by the mid-1950s most of the country was covered, transmitting a 405-line interlaced image on VHF.[original research?]
What was the name of the BBC changed to in 1960?
56de7c51cffd8e1900b4b972
BBC tv
101
False
What was the BBC's main competitor?
56de7c51cffd8e1900b4b973
ITV
277
False
What program debuted on November 23, 1963?
56de7c51cffd8e1900b4b974
Doctor Who
396
False
Where did the BBC broadcast from following World War II?
56de7c51cffd8e1900b4b975
Alexandra Palace
38
False
resumed from Alexandra Palace
25
What happened with television transmissions in 1964?
5a8349eae60761001a2eb513
True
BBC tv
101
What was BBC Service Television renamed in 1960?
5a8349eae60761001a2eb514
True
Doctor Who
396
What show was introduced on 23 November 1973 at 16:16?
5a8349eae60761001a2eb515
True
competed with
263
What did the BBC do with the network, IVT?
5a8349eae60761001a2eb516
True
Television transmissions resumed from Alexandra Palace in 1946. The BBC Television Service (renamed "BBC tv" in 1960) showed popular programming, including drama, comedies, documentaries, game shows, and soap operas, covering a wide range of genres and regularly competed with ITV to become the channel with the highest ratings for that week. The channel also introduced the science fiction show Doctor Who on 23 November 1963 - at 17:16 - which went on to become one of Britain's most iconic and beloved television programmes.
What was the first station launched after the original BBC?
56de7cb6cffd8e1900b4b97a
ITV
103
False
What was the third network started in the UK?
56de7cb6cffd8e1900b4b97b
BBC2
53
False
What prevented BBC2 from broadcasting on its scheduled launch date?
56de7cb6cffd8e1900b4b97c
massive power failure
258
False
Where was the cause of the power outage?
56de7cb6cffd8e1900b4b97d
Battersea Power Station
330
False
Who served as MC for the first BBC2 broadcast?
56de7cb6cffd8e1900b4b97e
Denis Tuohy
503
False
BBC1
19
What channel was launched that caused BBC TV to be renamed BBC2?
5a834bdae60761001a2eb52f
True
20 April 1964
214
When was BBC2 launched?
5a834bdae60761001a2eb530
True
London
302
Where did the fire at Battersea Station Power cause a massive power failure?
5a834bdae60761001a2eb531
True
A videotape made on the opening night was rediscovered
355
What was discovered in 2003 by an ITV technician?
5a834bdae60761001a2eb532
True
BBC2
533
What was the first channel to use UHF and 405-line pictures?
5a834bdae60761001a2eb533
True
BBC TV was renamed BBC1 in 1964, after the launch of BBC2 (now BBC Two), the third television station (ITV was the second) for the UK; its remit, to provide more niche programming. The channel was due to launch on 20 April 1964, but was put off the air by a massive power failure that affected much of London, caused by a fire at Battersea Power Station. A videotape made on the opening night was rediscovered in 2003 by a BBC technician. In the end the launch went ahead the following night, hosted by Denis Tuohy holding a candle. BBC2 was the first British channel to use UHF and 625-line pictures, giving higher definition than the existing VHF 405-line system.
What was the first station to show programs in color?
56de7dd64396321400ee2969
BBC Two
16
False
When did the other two major British stations start color programming?
56de7dd64396321400ee296a
15 November 1969
288
False
What types of programs were not shown on BBC Two?
56de7dd64396321400ee296b
soap opera or standard news programming
364
False
Who was the first controller of BBC2?
56de7dd64396321400ee296c
Sir David Attenborough
625
False
What kinds of programs did Attenborough favor?
56de7dd64396321400ee296d
documentaries
684
False
BBC Two became the first television channel in Europe to broadcast regularly in colour
16
What happened on 1 July 1969?
5a834d86e60761001a2eb54d
True
625-line colour broadcasts
243
What did BBC One and ITV begin on 15 November 1967?
5a834d86e60761001a2eb54e
True
Sir David Attenborough
625
Who commissioned Horizon and The Ascent of Civilisation?
5a834d86e60761001a2eb54f
True
range of programmes intended to be eclectic and diverse
411
What does BBC Two air along with soap operas and standard news programming?
5a834d86e60761001a2eb550
True
On 1 July 1967, BBC Two became the first television channel in Europe to broadcast regularly in colour, using the West German PAL system that is still in use today although being gradually superseded by digital systems. (BBC One and ITV began 625-line colour broadcasts simultaneously on 15 November 1969). Unlike other terrestrial channels, BBC Two does not have soap opera or standard news programming, but a range of programmes intended to be eclectic and diverse (although if a programme has high audience ratings it is often eventually repositioned to BBC One). The different remit of BBC2 allowed its first controller, Sir David Attenborough to commission the first heavyweight documentaries and documentary series such as Civilisation, The Ascent of Man and Horizon.
When was the first broadcast of Tom and Jerry on BBC One?
56de7e1d4396321400ee2973
1967
3
False
When was the final broadcast of Tom and Jerry?
56de7e1d4396321400ee2974
2000
199
False
How many episodes of Tom and Jerry were shown in the evenings?
56de7e1d4396321400ee2975
2
67
False
On what channel was Tom and Jerry sometimes shown in the mornings?
56de7e1d4396321400ee2976
CBBC
144
False
Tom and Jerry cartoons
8
What cartoons first aired in 1976?
5a834fb0e60761001a2eb55f
True
CBBC
144
What channel showed the cartoons every morning?
5a834fb0e60761001a2eb560
True
2 episodes
67
How many episodes were shown in the mornings?
5a834fb0e60761001a2eb561
True
In 1967 Tom and Jerry cartoons first aired on BBC One, with around 2 episodes shown every evening at 17:00, with occasional morning showings on CBBC. The BBC stopped airing the famous cartoon duo in 2000.
Which group did David Attenborough join while on sabbatical?
56de7eb84396321400ee297b
BBC Natural History Unit
98
False
When did the BBC Natural History Unit come into existence?
56de7eb84396321400ee297c
the 1950s
147
False
What are some shows that Attenborough created with the BBC Natural History Unit?
56de7eb84396321400ee297d
Life on Earth, The Private Life of Plants, The Blue Planet, The Life of Mammals, Planet Earth and Frozen Planet
266
False
David Attenborough
0
Who joined the BBC History Unit?
5a8351a3e60761001a2eb577
True
David Attenborough
0
Who wrote Life on Earth, The Private Life of Plants, The Blue Planet, The Life of Mammals, Planet Earth and Frozen Planet?
5a8351a3e60761001a2eb578
True
1950s
151
When did David Attenborough take his sabbatical leave?
5a8351a3e60761001a2eb579
True
David Attenborough was later granted sabbatical leave from his job as Controller to work with the BBC Natural History Unit which had existed since the 1950s. This unit is now famed throughout the world for producing high quality programmes with Attenborough such as Life on Earth, The Private Life of Plants, The Blue Planet, The Life of Mammals, Planet Earth and Frozen Planet.
How many different areas does BBC One accommodate with customized broadcasting?
56de81084396321400ee2989
fifteen
128
False
Which parts of the UK have more control over their BBC broadcasts?
56de81084396321400ee298a
Wales, Scotland and Northern Ireland
384
False
Who hosts shows on BBC broadcasts outside of England?
56de81084396321400ee298b
local announcers
529
False
What kind of coverage might take precedence over standard BBC programming?
56de81084396321400ee298c
major local events
322
False
fifteen regions
128
How many regions is BBC Two's output split up into?
5a835387e60761001a2eb587
True
London
571
What city are the announcers of Wales, Scotland, and Northern Ireland mostly from?
5a835387e60761001a2eb588
True
variations also occur within the BBC One and BBC Two schedules
22
What occurs between national and local BBC schedules?
5a835387e60761001a2eb589
True
National and regional variations also occur within the BBC One and BBC Two schedules. England's BBC One output is split up into fifteen regions (such as South West and East), which exist mainly to produce local news programming, but also occasionally opt out of the network to show programmes of local importance (such as major local events). The other nations of the United Kingdom (Wales, Scotland and Northern Ireland) have been granted more autonomy from the English network; for example, programmes are mostly introduced by local announcers, rather than by those in London. BBC One and BBC Two schedules in the other UK nations can vary immensely from BBC One and BBC Two in England.
What is the name of a political show shown on BBC in Northern Ireland?
56de818dcffd8e1900b4b998
Give My Head Peace
44
False
What is the name of a Scottish soap opera?
56de818dcffd8e1900b4b999
River City
117
False
What language does BBC Scotland provide programming for?
56de818dcffd8e1900b4b99a
Gaelic
361
False
What is a well-known Gaelic program?
56de818dcffd8e1900b4b99b
Eòrpa and Dè a-nis?
470
False
What is the name of a show from Northern Ireland broadcast all over the United Kingdom?
56de818dcffd8e1900b4b99c
Patrick Kielty Almost Live
852
False
politically fuelled
24
What type of program is Give My Head Peace, produced by BBC Scotland?
5a835545e60761001a2eb5ab
True
talk show
842
What type o program is Patrick Kielty Almost Live, shown on BBC Scotland?
5a835545e60761001a2eb5b8
True
Eòrpa and Dè a-nis
470
What popular children's show does BBC Wales produce for its Gaelic-speaking viewers?
5a835545e60761001a2eb5b9
True
soap opera
106
What type of program is River City, produced by BBC Northern Ireland?
5a835545e60761001a2eb5c0
True
comedy series
784
What type of program is Chewin' the Fat, shown on BBC Northern Ireland?
5a835545e60761001a2eb5c1
True
Programmes, such as the politically fuelled Give My Head Peace (produced by BBC Northern Ireland) and the soap opera River City (produced by BBC Scotland), have been created specifically to cater for some viewers in their respective nations, who may have found programmes created for English audiences irrelevant. BBC Scotland produces daily programmes for its Gaelic-speaking viewers, including current affairs, political and children's programming such as the popular Eòrpa and Dè a-nis?. BBC Wales also produces a large amount of Welsh language programming for S4C, particularly news, sport and other programmes, especially the soap opera Pobol y Cwm ('People of the Valley'). The UK nations also produce a number of programmes that are shown across the UK, such as BBC Scotland's comedy series Chewin' the Fat, and BBC Northern Ireland's talk show Patrick Kielty Almost Live.
How much of its programming must the BBC obtain from other content producers?
56de822bcffd8e1900b4b9a2
25%
349
False
What is a popular American show that was shown on the BBC?
56de822bcffd8e1900b4b9a4
The Simpsons
553
False
What is a television show from Australia that was shown on the BBC?
56de822bcffd8e1900b4b9a5
Neighbours
593
False
The Simpsons from the United States and Neighbours from Australia
553
What programs have been imported from English speaking countries and are currently shown?
5a835750e60761001a2eb5d3
True
25%
349
Based on the Independent Broadcasting Act, how much output is required to be from independent British production companies?
5a835750e60761001a2eb5d4
True
1990
424
What year was the Independent Broadcasting Act written?
5a835750e60761001a2eb5d5
True
The BBC is also renowned for its production of costume dramas, such as Jane Austen's Pride and Prejudice and contemporary social dramas such as Boys from the Blackstuff and Our Friends in the North. The BBC has come under pressure to commission more programmes from independent British production companies, and indeed is legally required to source 25% of its output from such companies by the terms of the Broadcasting Act 1990. Programmes have also been imported mainly from English-speaking countries: notable—though no longer shown—examples include The Simpsons from the United States and Neighbours from Australia. Because of the availability of programmes in English, few programmes need use sub-titles or dubbing unlike much European television.
What kind of service was Ceefax?
56de826ccffd8e1900b4b9ac
teletext
42
False
When was Ceefax launched?
56de826ccffd8e1900b4b9ad
1974
72
False
What is the modern replacement for Ceefax?
56de826ccffd8e1900b4b9ae
BBCi
290
False
Ceefax
24
What service was launched in 1947?
5a835951e60761001a2eb5ed
True
1974
72
When did Ceefax make the full transition to digital television?
5a835951e60761001a2eb5ee
True
BBCi
290
Ceefex replaced what interactive service?
5a835951e60761001a2eb5ef
True
The BBC also introduced Ceefax, the first teletext service, starting in 1974. This service allows BBC viewers to view textual information such as the latest news on their television. CEEFAX has not made a full transition to digital television, instead being replaced by the new interactive BBCi service.
When did the BBC say it would start using a satellite to transit its signal?
56de83354396321400ee29b1
May 2003
53
False
What was the name of the satellite from which the BBC's signal was sent?
56de83354396321400ee29b2
Astra 2D satellite
236
False
Due to delays, when was the actual date of the BBC's move to satellite broadcasts?
56de83354396321400ee29b3
14 July
88
False
How much money was the move to satellite worth to the station over the following half decade?
56de83354396321400ee29b4
£85 million
296
False
it intended to transmit all eight of its domestic television channels (including the 15 regional variations of BBC 1) unencrypted from the Astra 2D satellite.
97
What did BBC announce in May 2003?
5a835a15e60761001a2eb607
True
£85 million
296
How much money was the move estimated to save over the next 15 years?
5a835a15e60761001a2eb608
True
14 July
88
When did the switch to the Astra 2D satellite begin?
5a835a15e60761001a2eb609
True
In March 2003 the BBC announced that from the end of May 2003 (subsequently deferred to 14 July) it intended to transmit all eight of its domestic television channels (including the 15 regional variations of BBC 1) unencrypted from the Astra 2D satellite. This move was estimated to save the BBC £85 million over the next five years.
With the right tools, what area could get free BBC broadcasts from Astra 2D?
56de83cecffd8e1900b4b9c0
Western Europe
243
False
What are some entities that have taken issue with the possibility that BBC programming was being viewed for free?
56de83cecffd8e1900b4b9c1
Hollywood studios and sporting organisations
354
False
On what service were some shows removed as a result of issues over rights?
56de83cecffd8e1900b4b9c2
Sky Digital
529
False
What are two specific broadcasts suspended on Sky Digital?
56de83cecffd8e1900b4b9c3
Scottish Premier League and Scottish Cup football
559
False
Astra 2A
73
What was smaller than the footprint of the Astra 2D satellite?
5a835b79e60761001a2eb617
True
concern about the unencrypted signal leaking out.
421
What concerns with Western Europe did "free-to-air" bring up?
5a835b79e60761001a2eb618
True
some broadcasts being made unavailable
483
What happened to some programs on the Digital Sky Platform?
5a835b79e60761001a2eb619
True
While the "footprint" of the Astra 2D satellite was smaller than that of Astra 2A, from which it was previously broadcast encrypted, it meant that viewers with appropriate equipment were able to receive BBC channels "free-to-air" over much of Western Europe. Consequently, some rights concerns have needed to be resolved with programme providers such as Hollywood studios and sporting organisations, which have expressed concern about the unencrypted signal leaking out. This led to some broadcasts being made unavailable on the Sky Digital platform, such as Scottish Premier League and Scottish Cup football, while on other platforms such broadcasts were not disrupted. Later, when rights contracts were renewed, this problem was resolved.
When was the 50th anniversary of BBC news broadcasts?
56de848f4396321400ee29c9
5 July 2004
3
False
On what form of media was a retrospective of the BBC's news broadcasts released to commemorate its 50th anniversary?
56de848f4396321400ee29ca
DVD
217
False
In what format were the BBC's first new bulletins shown?
56de848f4396321400ee29cb
Newsreel
134
False
What reality series was awarded a BAFTA in 2005?
56de848f4396321400ee29cc
Little Angels
671
False
5 July 2004
3
What was the date the BBC celebrated the fiftieth anniversary of its television newsreel?
5a836086e60761001a2eb627
True
special edition
515
What kind of edition of Times Radio was produced?
5a836086e60761001a2eb628
True
Little Angels
671
What series won a BATFA award?
5a836086e60761001a2eb629
True
Little Angels
704
What was the first reality television show on BBC?
5a836086e60761001a2eb62a
True
On 5 July 2004, the BBC celebrated the fiftieth anniversary of its television news bulletins (although it had produced the Television Newsreel for several years before 1954). This event was marked by the release of a DVD, which showed highlights of the BBC's television coverage of significant events over the half-century, as well as changes in the format of the BBC television news; from the newsreel format of the first BBC Television News bulletins, to the 24-hour, worldwide news coverage available in 2004. A special edition of Radio Times was also produced, as well as a special section of the BBC News Online website. In 2005 the pioneering BBC television series Little Angels won a BAFTA award. Little Angels was the first reality parenting show and its most famous episode saw Welsh actress Jynine James try to cope with the tantrums of her six-year-old son.
Who was the leader of BBC Television in 2006?
56de84e34396321400ee29d7
Jana Bennett
40
False
What did BBC Television get absorbed into?
56de84e34396321400ee29d8
BBC Vision
97
False
What caused the move of BBC Television into the BBC VIsion unit?
56de84e34396321400ee29d9
the onset of new media outlets and technology
190
False
BBC Television
4
BBC Vision was absorbed into what?
5a8361d5e60761001a2eb639
True
2006
117
What year was Jana Bennett the leader of BBC Vision?
5a8361d5e60761001a2eb63a
True
the onset of new media outlets and technology.
190
What caused the moved of BBC Vision into the BBC Television unit?
5a8361d5e60761001a2eb63b
True
The BBC Television department headed by Jana Bennett was absorbed into a new, much larger group; BBC Vision, in late 2006. The new group was part of larger restructuring within the BBC with the onset of new media outlets and technology.
When did the BBC start exploring the use of internet streaming?
56de85214396321400ee29dd
2008
3
False
When was full coverage of the BBC's standard programming launched in online stream format?
56de85214396321400ee29de
November 2008
95
False
November
95
In what month of 2008 did the BBC begin to experiment with live streaming?
5a8362f3e60761001a2eb649
True
2008
104
What year were all channels able to be streamed online?
5a8362f3e60761001a2eb64a
True
In 2008, the BBC began experimenting with live streaming of certain channels in the UK, and in November 2008, all standard BBC television channels were made available to watch online.
As of early 2016, what BBC show has been sold outside of the country the most times?
56de858d4396321400ee29e3
Keeping Up Appearances
57
False
How many sales of Keeping Up Appearances have been made to non-British buyers?
56de858d4396321400ee29e4
nearly 1000
148
False
Who announced the status of Keeping Up Appearances as the most exported BBC show?
56de858d4396321400ee29e5
BBC Worldwide
38
False
the corporation's most exported television programme
83
What was confirmed about Keeping Up With Appearances?
5a83667ee60761001a2eb669
True
2016
12
How many times was Keeping Up Appearances sold to overseas broadcasters?
5a83667ee60761001a2eb66a
True
In February 2016, it was confirmed by BBC Worldwide that Keeping Up Appearances is the corporation's most exported television programme, being sold nearly 1000 times to overseas broadcasters.
How often are people required to remit the TV license fee?
56de85e94396321400ee29ea
annually
159
False
How do the BBC's non-domestic channels generate revenue?
56de85e94396321400ee29eb
advertisements and subscription
333
False
annually
159
How often is a broadcast licence fee paid by viewers of BBC domestic channels?
5a837712e60761001a2eb743
True
The BBC's international television channels
275
What is it that subscriptions pay for?
5a837712e60761001a2eb744
True
The BBC domestic television channels do not broadcast advertisements; they are instead funded by a television licence fee which TV viewers are required to pay annually. This includes viewers who watch real-time streams of the BBC's channels online or via their mobile phone. The BBC's international television channels are funded by advertisements and subscription.
When did BBC Vision change back to BBC Television?
56de86914396321400ee29f9
2013
158
False
Who is the current head of BBC Television?
56de86914396321400ee29fa
Danny Cohen
311
False
What are the four responsibilities of BBC Television?
56de86914396321400ee29fb
commissioning, producing, scheduling and broadcasting
190
False
Television
30
What was BBC Vision formerly known as for a few years in the early 21st century?
5a83781fe60761001a2eb747
True
Danny Cohen
311
Who is the person who commissioning all programming on the BBC's television channels?
5a83781fe60761001a2eb748
True
Television
144
What is responsible for scheduling all programs?
5a83781fe60761001a2eb749
True
As a division within the BBC, Television was formerly known as BBC Vision for a few years in the early 21st century, until its name reverted to Television in 2013. It is responsible for the commissioning, producing, scheduling and broadcasting of all programming on the BBC's television channels, and is led by Danny Cohen.
When did BBC Japan begin broadcasting?
56de86d2cffd8e1900b4b9e0
December 2004
70
False
When did BBC Japan shut down?
56de86d2cffd8e1900b4b9e1
April 2006
88
False
What was the genre of BBC Japan?
56de86d2cffd8e1900b4b9e2
general entertainment
16
False
a general entertainment channel
14
What was BBC Japanese considered?
5a8378e2e60761001a2eb74d
True
operations
110
What folded after a Japanese distributor ceased?
5a8378e2e60761001a2eb74e
True
BBC Japan
0
What ran from April 2004 until December 2006?
5a8378e2e60761001a2eb74f
True
BBC Japan was a general entertainment channel, which operated between December 2004 and April 2006. It ceased operations after its Japanese distributor folded.
Arnold_Schwarzenegger
What's Arnold Schwarzenegger's birth date?
56de6331cffd8e1900b4b850
July 30, 1947
95
False
What's Arnold Schwarzenegger's middle name?
56de6331cffd8e1900b4b851
Alois
7
False
How many terms did Schwarzenegger serve as California's governor?
56de6331cffd8e1900b4b852
two
267
False
Arnold Alois Schwarzenegger (/ˈʃwɔːrtsənˌɛɡər/; German: [ˈaɐ̯nɔlt ˈalɔʏs ˈʃvaɐ̯tsn̩ˌɛɡɐ]; born July 30, 1947) is an Austrian-American actor, filmmaker, businessman, investor, author, philanthropist, activist, former professional bodybuilder and politician. He served two terms as the 38th Governor of California from 2003 until 2011.
How old was Schwarzenegger when he started bodybuilding?
56de64f9cffd8e1900b4b858
15
51
False
How many times was Schwarzenegger awarded the Mr. Olympia title?
56de64f9cffd8e1900b4b859
seven
138
False
For which film from 1982 did Schwarzenegger first gain fame?
56de64f9cffd8e1900b4b85a
Conan the Barbarian
497
False
How old was Schwarzenegger when he won Mr. Universe?
56de64f9cffd8e1900b4b85b
20
92
False
What nickname did Schwarzenegger's co-stars call him by during his acting career?
56de64f9cffd8e1900b4b85c
Arnie
1098
False
Schwarzenegger began weight training at the age of 15. He won the Mr. Universe title at age 20 and went on to win the Mr. Olympia contest seven times. Schwarzenegger has remained a prominent presence in bodybuilding and has written many books and articles on the sport. He is widely considered to be among the greatest bodybuilders of all times as well as its biggest icon. Schwarzenegger gained worldwide fame as a Hollywood action film icon. His breakthrough film was the sword-and-sorcery epic Conan the Barbarian in 1982, which was a box-office hit and resulted in a sequel. In 1984, he appeared in James Cameron's science-fiction thriller film The Terminator, which was a massive critical and box-office success. Schwarzenegger subsequently reprised the Terminator character in the franchise's later installments in 1991, 2003, and 2015. He appeared in a number of successful films, such as Commando (1985), The Running Man (1987), Predator (1987), Twins (1988), Total Recall (1990), Kindergarten Cop (1990) and True Lies (1994). He was nicknamed the "Austrian Oak" in his bodybuilding days, "Arnie" during his acting career, and "The Governator" (a portmanteau of "Governor" and "The Terminator", one of his best-known movie roles).
What year marked the end of Schwarzenegger's second term in the governor's office?
56de6660cffd8e1900b4b86c
2011
497
False
What political party did Schwarzenegger belong to?
56de6660cffd8e1900b4b86d
Republican
5
False
What governor did Schwarzenegger replace?
56de6660cffd8e1900b4b86e
Gray Davis
112
False
What date marked the start of Schwarzenegger's second gubernatorial term?
56de6660cffd8e1900b4b86f
January 5, 2007
477
False
As a Republican, he was first elected on October 7, 2003, in a special recall election to replace then-Governor Gray Davis. Schwarzenegger was sworn in on November 17, to serve the remainder of Davis's term. Schwarzenegger was then re-elected on November 7, 2006, in California's 2006 gubernatorial election, to serve a full term as governor, defeating Democrat Phil Angelides, who was California State Treasurer at the time. Schwarzenegger was sworn in for his second term on January 5, 2007. In 2011, Schwarzenegger completed his second term as governor.
What country was Schwarzenegger born in?
56de677dcffd8e1900b4b87e
Austria
81
False
What was Schwarzenegger's mother's maiden name?
56de677dcffd8e1900b4b87f
Jadrny
228
False
What was Schwarzenegger's father's first name?
56de677dcffd8e1900b4b880
Gustav
135
False
What was Schwarzenegger's dad's job in their town?
56de677dcffd8e1900b4b881
chief of police
290
False
Schwarzenegger was born in Thal, a village bordering the city of Graz in Styria, Austria and christened Arnold Alois. His parents were Gustav Schwarzenegger (August 17, 1907 – December 13, 1972), and Aurelia Schwarzenegger (née Jadrny; July 29, 1922 – August 2, 1998). Gustav was the local chief of police, and had served in World War II as a Hauptfeldwebel after voluntarily joining the Nazi Party in 1938, though he was discharged in 1943 following a bout of malaria. He married Arnold's mother on October 20, 1945;– he was 38, and she was 23 years old. According to Schwarzenegger, both of his parents were very strict: "Back then in Austria it was a very different world, if we did something bad or we disobeyed our parents, the rod was not spared." He grew up in a Roman Catholic family who attended Mass every Sunday.
What was Schwarzenegger's older brother's name?
56de6e7c4396321400ee28bf
Meinhard
43
False
What appliance did Schwarzenegger's family buy that he called a highlight of his youth?
56de6e7c4396321400ee28c0
refrigerator
1027
False
Gustav had a preference for his elder son, Meinhard (July 17, 1946 – May 20, 1971), over Arnold. His favoritism was "strong and blatant," which stemmed from unfounded suspicion that Arnold was not his biological child. Schwarzenegger has said his father had "no patience for listening or understanding your problems." Schwarzenegger had a good relationship with his mother and kept in touch with her until her death. In later life, Schwarzenegger commissioned the Simon Wiesenthal Center to research his father's wartime record, which came up with no evidence of Gustav's being involved in atrocities, despite Gustav's membership in the Nazi Party and SA. Schwarzenegger's father's background received wide press attention during the 2003 California recall campaign. At school, Schwarzenegger was apparently in the middle but stood out for his "cheerful, good-humored and exuberant" character. Money was a problem in their household; Schwarzenegger recalled that one of the highlights of his youth was when the family bought a refrigerator.
What sport Schwarzenegger played led to a trip to the gym that sparked his love of weightlifting?
56de6f77cffd8e1900b4b8ba
soccer
131
False
Who starred in the first movie Schwarzenegger remembers seeing?
56de6f77cffd8e1900b4b8bb
John Wayne
2155
False
What job did Schwarzenegger's father want him to pursue?
56de6f77cffd8e1900b4b8bc
police officer
942
False
Which of Schwarzenegger's bodybuilding idols died in 2000?
56de6f77cffd8e1900b4b8bd
Steve Reeves
1155
False
As a boy, Schwarzenegger played several sports, heavily influenced by his father. He picked up his first barbell in 1960, when his soccer coach took his team to a local gym. At the age of 14, he chose bodybuilding over soccer as a career. Schwarzenegger has responded to a question asking if he was 13 when he started weightlifting: "I actually started weight training when I was 15, but I'd been participating in sports, like soccer, for years, so I felt that although I was slim, I was well-developed, at least enough so that I could start going to the gym and start Olympic lifting." However, his official website biography claims: "At 14, he started an intensive training program with Dan Farmer, studied psychology at 15 (to learn more about the power of mind over body) and at 17, officially started his competitive career." During a speech in 2001, he said, "My own plan formed when I was 14 years old. My father had wanted me to be a police officer like he was. My mother wanted me to go to trade school." Schwarzenegger took to visiting a gym in Graz, where he also frequented the local movie theaters to see bodybuilding idols such as Reg Park, Steve Reeves, and Johnny Weissmuller on the big screen. When Reeves died in 2000, Schwarzenegger fondly remembered him: "As a teenager, I grew up with Steve Reeves. His remarkable accomplishments allowed me a sense of what was possible, when others around me didn't always understand my dreams. Steve Reeves has been part of everything I've ever been fortunate enough to achieve." In 1961, Schwarzenegger met former Mr. Austria Kurt Marnul, who invited him to train at the gym in Graz. He was so dedicated as a youngster that he broke into the local gym on weekends, when it was usually closed, so that he could train. "It would make me sick to miss a workout... I knew I couldn't look at myself in the mirror the next morning if I didn't do it." When Schwarzenegger was asked about his first movie experience as a boy, he replied: "I was very young, but I remember my father taking me to the Austrian theaters and seeing some newsreels. The first real movie I saw, that I distinctly remember, was a John Wayne movie."
What year did Schwarzenegger's brother die?
56de708bcffd8e1900b4b8d4
1971
11
False
What is Meinhard's son named?
56de708bcffd8e1900b4b8d5
Patrick
240
False
What caused Schwarzenegger's father Gustav's death?
56de708bcffd8e1900b4b8d6
stroke
383
False
Who was the first woman Schwarzenegger was serious about?
56de708bcffd8e1900b4b8d7
Barbara Baker
794
False
On May 20, 1971, his brother, Meinhard, died in a car accident. Meinhard had been drinking and was killed instantly. Schwarzenegger did not attend his funeral. Meinhard was due to marry Erika Knapp, and the couple had a three-year-old son, Patrick. Schwarzenegger would pay for Patrick's education and help him to emigrate to the United States. Gustav died the following year from a stroke. In Pumping Iron, Schwarzenegger claimed that he did not attend his father's funeral because he was training for a bodybuilding contest. Later, he and the film's producer said this story was taken from another bodybuilder for the purpose of showing the extremes that some would go to for their sport and to make Schwarzenegger's image more cold and machine-like in order to fan controversy for the film. Barbara Baker, his first serious girlfriend, has said he informed her of his father's death without emotion and that he never spoke of his brother. Over time, he has given at least three versions of why he was absent from his father's funeral.
What magazine revealed the details of Schwarzenegger's childhood punishments in 2004?
56de70eacffd8e1900b4b8e6
Fortune
21
False
In an interview with Fortune in 2004, Schwarzenegger told how he suffered what "would now be called child abuse" at the hands of his father: "My hair was pulled. I was hit with belts. So was the kid next door. It was just the way it was. Many of the children I've seen were broken by their parents, which was the German-Austrian mentality. They didn't want to create an individual. It was all about conforming. I was one who did not conform, and whose will could not be broken. Therefore, I became a rebel. Every time I got hit, and every time someone said, 'you can't do this,' I said, 'this is not going to be for much longer, because I'm going to move out of here. I want to be rich. I want to be somebody.'"
Which bodybuilding title did Schwarzenegger call his "ticket to America"?
56de719c4396321400ee2909
Mr. Universe
592
False
Which competition did Schwarzenegger go AWOL to participate in?
56de719c4396321400ee290a
Junior Mr. Europe
178
False
When did Schwarzenegger take an airplane for the first time ever?
56de719c4396321400ee290b
1966
750
False
In what city was the 1966 NABBA Mr. Universe competition held?
56de719c4396321400ee290c
London
804
False
Schwarzenegger served in the Austrian Army in 1965 to fulfill the one year of service required at the time of all 18-year-old Austrian males. During his army service, he won the Junior Mr. Europe contest. He went AWOL during basic training so he could take part in the competition and spent a week in military prison: "Participating in the competition meant so much to me that I didn't carefully think through the consequences." He won another bodybuilding contest in Graz, at Steirer Hof Hotel (where he had placed second). He was voted best built man of Europe, which made him famous. "The Mr. Universe title was my ticket to America – the land of opportunity, where I could become a star and get rich." Schwarzenegger made his first plane trip in 1966, attending the NABBA Mr. Universe competition in London. He would come in second in the Mr. Universe competition, not having the muscle definition of American winner Chester Yorton.
Which of the bodybuilders Schwarzenegger idolized as a kid did he meet in 1966?
56de7296cffd8e1900b4b91c
Reg Park
648
False
Which part of his body did Schwarzenegger work to develop with Coach Bennett?
56de7296cffd8e1900b4b91d
legs
459
False
How many total times has Schwarzenegger won the Mr. Universe title?
56de7296cffd8e1900b4b91e
four
944
False
Who owned the gym Schwarzenegger worked in during the late sixties?
56de7296cffd8e1900b4b91f
Rolf Putziger
1025
False
Charles "Wag" Bennett, one of the judges at the 1966 competition, was impressed with Schwarzenegger and he offered to coach him. As Schwarzenegger had little money, Bennett invited him to stay in his crowded family home above one of his two gyms in Forest Gate, London, England. Yorton's leg definition had been judged superior, and Schwarzenegger, under a training program devised by Bennett, concentrated on improving the muscle definition and power in his legs. Staying in the East End of London helped Schwarzenegger improve his rudimentary grasp of the English language. Also in 1966, Schwarzenegger had the opportunity to meet childhood idol Reg Park, who became his friend and mentor. The training paid off and, in 1967, Schwarzenegger won the title for the first time, becoming the youngest ever Mr. Universe at the age of 20. He would go on to win the title a further three times. Schwarzenegger then flew back to Munich, training for four to six hours daily, attending business school and working in a health club (Rolf Putziger's gym where he worked and trained from 1966–1968), returning in 1968 to London to win his next Mr. Universe title. He frequently told Roger C. Field, his English coach and friend in Munich at that time, "I'm going to become the greatest actor!"
How old was Schwarzenegger when he started hoping he'd move to America?
56de73b2cffd8e1900b4b924
10
67
False
How old was Schwarzenegger when he moved to the U.S.?
56de73b2cffd8e1900b4b925
21
212
False
In what state did Schwarzenegger claim his first Mr. Olympia title?
56de73b2cffd8e1900b4b926
New York
639
False
What's the name of the professional wrestler who designed the first logo for Gold's Gym?
56de73b2cffd8e1900b4b927
Ric Drasin
398
False
Schwarzenegger, who dreamed of moving to the U.S. since the age of 10, and saw bodybuilding as the avenue through which to do so, realized his dream by moving to the United States in September 1968 at the age of 21, speaking little English. There he trained at Gold's Gym in Venice, Los Angeles, California, under Joe Weider. From 1970 to 1974, one of Schwarzenegger's weight training partners was Ric Drasin, a professional wrestler who designed the original Gold's Gym logo in 1973. Schwarzenegger also became good friends with professional wrestler Superstar Billy Graham. In 1970, at age 23, he captured his first Mr. Olympia title in New York, and would go on to win the title a total of seven times.
What magazine called Schwarzenegger America's most famous immigrant?
56de73fd4396321400ee2939
LA Weekly
200
False
Immigration law firm Siskind & Susser have stated that Schwarzenegger may have been an illegal immigrant at some point in the late 1960s or early 1970s because of violations in the terms of his visa. LA Weekly would later say in 2002 that Schwarzenegger is the most famous immigrant in America, who "overcame a thick Austrian accent and transcended the unlikely background of bodybuilding to become the biggest movie star in the world in the 1990s".
What's the title of Schwarzenegger's 1977 book?
56de7471cffd8e1900b4b93a
Arnold: The Education of a Bodybuilder
62
False
At what college did Schwarzenegger study but not receive his degree?
56de7471cffd8e1900b4b93b
Santa Monica College
174
False
In 1977, Schwarzenegger's autobiography/weight-training guide Arnold: The Education of a Bodybuilder was published and became a huge success. After taking English classes at Santa Monica College in California, he earned a BA by correspondence from the University of Wisconsin–Superior, where he graduated with a degree in international marketing of fitness and business administration in 1979.
What does TM stand for?
56de74decffd8e1900b4b93e
Transcendental Meditation
86
False
What psychological problem did Schwarzenegger say he struggled with?
56de74decffd8e1900b4b93f
anxiety
186
False
He tells that during this time he ran into a friend who told him that he was teaching Transcendental Meditation (TM), which prompted Schwarzenegger to reveal he had been struggling with anxiety for the first time in his life: "Even today, I still benefit from [the year of TM] because I don't merge and bring things together and see everything as one big problem."
What bodybuilding competition is named after Schwarzenegger?
56de7567cffd8e1900b4b942
the Arnold Classic
128
False
Schwarzenegger is considered among the most important figures in the history of bodybuilding, and his legacy is commemorated in the Arnold Classic annual bodybuilding competition. Schwarzenegger has remained a prominent face in the bodybuilding sport long after his retirement, in part because of his ownership of gyms and fitness magazines. He has presided over numerous contests and awards shows.
How frequently did Schwarzenegger write a column for Muscle & Fitness and Flex?
56de771dcffd8e1900b4b94e
monthly
27
False
How much did the magazines Schwarzenegger wrote for pledge to contribute to physical fitness initiatives each year when he was Governor?
56de771dcffd8e1900b4b94f
$250,000
254
False
What position did Schwarzenegger briefly hold at Muscle & Fitness and Flex?
56de771dcffd8e1900b4b950
executive editor
155
False
For many years, he wrote a monthly column for the bodybuilding magazines Muscle & Fitness and Flex. Shortly after being elected Governor, he was appointed executive editor of both magazines, in a largely symbolic capacity. The magazines agreed to donate $250,000 a year to the Governor's various physical fitness initiatives. When the deal, including the contract that gave Schwarzenegger at least $1 million a year, was made public in 2005, many criticized it as being a conflict of interest since the governor's office made decisions concerning regulation of dietary supplements in California. Consequently, Schwarzenegger relinquished the executive editor role in 2005. American Media Inc., which owns Muscle & Fitness and Flex, announced in March 2013 that Schwarzenegger had accepted their renewed offer to be executive editor of the magazines.
What bodybuilding title did Schwarzenegger win in 1965?
56de7b7fcffd8e1900b4b968
Junior Mr. Europe
45
False
How many times did Schwarzenegger win the Mr. Olympia title?
56de7b7fcffd8e1900b4b969
seven
298
False
One of the first competitions he won was the Junior Mr. Europe contest in 1965. He won Mr. Europe the following year, at age 19. He would go on to compete in, and win, many bodybuilding contests. His bodybuilding victories included five Mr. Universe (4 – NABBA [England], 1 – IFBB [USA]) wins, and seven Mr. Olympia wins, a record which would stand until Lee Haney won his eighth consecutive Mr. Olympia title in 1991.
In 2011, how much time each day did Schwarzenegger say he lifted weights?
56de7d2d4396321400ee2967
half an hour
159
False
Schwarzenegger continues to work out even today. When asked about his personal training during the 2011 Arnold Classic he said that he was still working out a half an hour with weights every day.
In what competition did Schwarzenegger have to lift over 500 pounds while balancing on foot rests?
56de80edcffd8e1900b4b98e
Munich stone-lifting contest
32
False
In 1967, Schwarzenegger won the Munich stone-lifting contest, in which a stone weighing 508 German pounds (254 kg/560 lbs.) is lifted between the legs while standing on two foot rests.
What year did Schwarzenegger first try to win the Mr. Olympia title?
56de81a14396321400ee299b
1969
134
False
Who won Mr. Olympia 1969?
56de81a14396321400ee299c
Sergio Oliva
176
False
At which year's Mr. Olympia contest did Schwarzenegger become the youngest person to win the title?
56de81a14396321400ee299d
1970
227
False
How old was Schwarzenegger when he won Mr. Olympia in 1970?
56de81a14396321400ee299e
23
312
False
Schwarzenegger's goal was to become the greatest bodybuilder in the world, which meant becoming Mr. Olympia. His first attempt was in 1969, when he lost to three-time champion Sergio Oliva. However, Schwarzenegger came back in 1970 and won the competition, making him the youngest ever Mr. Olympia at the age of 23, a record he still holds to this day.
Who did Schwarzenegger beat to win his sixth Mr. Olympia in a row?
56de82394396321400ee29a3
Franco Columbu
171
False
What year did Schwarzenegger quit competing as a professional bodybuilder?
56de82394396321400ee29a4
1975
64
False
What was Schwarzenegger's last competition before retirement?
56de82394396321400ee29a5
Mr. Olympia
202
False
He continued his winning streak in the 1971–74 competitions. In 1975, Schwarzenegger was once again in top form, and won the title for the sixth consecutive time, beating Franco Columbu. After the 1975 Mr. Olympia contest, Schwarzenegger announced his retirement from professional bodybuilding.
What was the name of the bodybuilding film Schwarzenegger starred in?
56de82c84396321400ee29ab
Pumping Iron
192
False
How much time did Schwarzenegger have to train for the 1975 Mr. Olympia competition?
56de82c84396321400ee29ac
three months
230
False
Who co-starred with Schwarzenegger in the film Stay Hungry?
56de82c84396321400ee29ad
Jeff Bridges
346
False
Months before the 1975 Mr. Olympia contest, filmmakers George Butler and Robert Fiore persuaded Schwarzenegger to compete, in order to film his training in the bodybuilding documentary called Pumping Iron. Schwarzenegger had only three months to prepare for the competition, after losing significant weight to appear in the film Stay Hungry with Jeff Bridges. Lou Ferrigno proved not to be a threat, and a lighter-than-usual Schwarzenegger convincingly won the 1975 Mr. Olympia.
For what Hollywood role was Schwarzenegger training in 1980?
56de83454396321400ee29b9
Conan
128
False
How many weeks did Schwarzenegger spend getting ready for the 1980 Mr. Olympia contest?
56de83454396321400ee29ba
seven
635
False
How many times did Schwarzenegger win Mr. Olympia before retiring for good?
56de83454396321400ee29bb
seven
635
False
Schwarzenegger came out of retirement, however, to compete in the 1980 Mr. Olympia. Schwarzenegger was training for his role in Conan, and he got into such good shape because of the running, horseback riding and sword training, that he decided he wanted to win the Mr. Olympia contest one last time. He kept this plan a secret, in the event that a training accident would prevent his entry and cause him to lose face. Schwarzenegger had been hired to provide color commentary for network television, when he announced at the eleventh hour that while he was there: "Why not compete?" Schwarzenegger ended up winning the event with only seven weeks of preparation. After being declared Mr. Olympia for a seventh time, Schwarzenegger then officially retired from competition.
In what year did Schwarzenegger write that he used anabolic steroid because they were "helpful"?
56de8411cffd8e1900b4b9cc
1977
111
False
Schwarzenegger has admitted to using performance-enhancing anabolic steroids while they were legal, writing in 1977 that "steroids were helpful to me in maintaining muscle size while on a strict diet in preparation for a contest. I did not use them for muscle growth, but rather for muscle maintenance when cutting up." He has called the drugs "tissue building."
What German doctor was sued by Schwarzenegger?
56de84a84396321400ee29d1
Dr. Willi Heepe
29
False
How much did the court award Schwarzenegger in the case against Heepe?
56de84a84396321400ee29d2
$10,000
256
False
Which U.S. tabloid settled out of court with Schwarzenegger in 1999?
56de84a84396321400ee29d3
The Globe
361
False
In 1999, Schwarzenegger sued Dr. Willi Heepe, a German doctor who publicly predicted his early death on the basis of a link between his steroid use and his later heart problems. As the doctor had never examined him personally, Schwarzenegger collected a US$10,000 libel judgment against him in a German court. In 1999, Schwarzenegger also sued and settled with The Globe, a U.S. tabloid which had made similar predictions about the bodybuilder's future health.
What was Schwarzenegger's first film role?
56de86024396321400ee29ef
Hercules
121
False
What last name was Schwarzenegger going by when he starred in Hercules in New York?
56de86024396321400ee29f0
Strong
194
False
In 1973, who directed Schwarzenegger as a hit-man in The Long Goodbye?
56de86024396321400ee29f1
Robert Altman
362
False
Schwarzenegger's role in Stay Hungry led to a Golden Globe win in what category?
56de86024396321400ee29f2
New Male Star of the Year
530
False
What adjective did Schwarzenegger say agents used to describe his body?
56de86024396321400ee29f3
weird
750
False
Schwarzenegger wanted to move from bodybuilding into acting, finally achieving it when he was chosen to play the role of Hercules in 1970's Hercules in New York. Credited under the name "Arnold Strong," his accent in the film was so thick that his lines were dubbed after production. His second film appearance was as a deaf mute hit-man for the mob in director Robert Altman's The Long Goodbye (1973), which was followed by a much more significant part in the film Stay Hungry (1976), for which he was awarded a Golden Globe for New Male Star of the Year. Schwarzenegger has discussed his early struggles in developing his acting career. "It was very difficult for me in the beginning – I was told by agents and casting people that my body was 'too weird', that I had a funny accent, and that my name was too long. You name it, and they told me I had to change it. Basically, everywhere I turned, I was told that I had no chance."
When did Schwarzenegger purchase the rights to the film Pumping Iron?
56de8a8c4396321400ee29ff
1991
138
False
In what year did Schwarzenegger play Jayne Mansfield's husband in a film?
56de8a8c4396321400ee2a00
1980
599
False
What role did Schwarzenegger miss out on because of his height?
56de8a8c4396321400ee2a01
The Incredible Hulk
371
False
What 1979 comedy film featured Schwarzenegger, Kirk Douglas, and Ann-Margret?
56de8a8c4396321400ee2a02
The Villain
583
False
Schwarzenegger drew attention and boosted his profile in the bodybuilding film Pumping Iron (1977), elements of which were dramatized; in 1991, he purchased the rights to the film, its outtakes, and associated still photography. In 1977, he also appeared in an episode of the ABC situation comedy The San Pedro Beach Bums. Schwarzenegger auditioned for the title role of The Incredible Hulk, but did not win the role because of his height. Later, Lou Ferrigno got the part of Dr. David Banner's alter ego. Schwarzenegger appeared with Kirk Douglas and Ann-Margret in the 1979 comedy The Villain. In 1980, he starred in a biographical film of the 1950s actress Jayne Mansfield as Mansfield's husband, Mickey Hargitay.
What was the title of the sequel to Conan the Barbarian?
56de8b184396321400ee2a07
Conan the Destroyer
154
False
What year was the first Terminator movie released?
56de8b184396321400ee2a08
1984
178
False
Who directed The Terminator?
56de8b184396321400ee2a09
James Cameron
446
False
Schwarzenegger's breakthrough film was the sword-and-sorcery epic Conan the Barbarian in 1982, which was a box-office hit. This was followed by a sequel, Conan the Destroyer, in 1984, although it was not as successful as its predecessor. In 1983, Schwarzenegger starred in the promotional video, Carnival in Rio. In 1984, he made his first appearance as the eponymous character, and what some would say was his acting career's signature role, in James Cameron's science fiction thriller film The Terminator. Following this, Schwarzenegger made Red Sonja in 1985.
What other action star was an international hit in the 1980s?
56de8b764396321400ee2a0d
Sylvester Stallone
91
False
What year was Schwarzenegger's film The Running Man released?
56de8b764396321400ee2a0e
1987
472
False
During the 1980s, audiences had an appetite for action films, with both Schwarzenegger and Sylvester Stallone becoming international stars. Schwarzenegger's roles reflected his sense of humor, separating him from more serious action hero films, such as the alternative universe poster for Terminator 2: Judgment Day starring Stallone in the comedy thriller Last Action Hero. He made a number of successful films, such as Commando (1985), Raw Deal (1986), The Running Man (1987), Predator (1987), and Red Heat (1988).
What's the title of the comedy movie Schwarzenegger starred in with Danny DeVito in 1988?
56de8c374396321400ee2a11
Twins
0
False
How much did Schwarzenegger make from the film Total Recall, on top of 15% of gross?
56de8c374396321400ee2a12
$10 million
108
False
What 1992 TV movie did Schwarzenegger direct?
56de8c374396321400ee2a13
Christmas in Connecticut
530
False
An episode of what well-known TV series was Schwarzenegger's directorial debut?
56de8c374396321400ee2a14
Tales from the Crypt
452
False
Twins (1988), a comedy with Danny DeVito, also proved successful. Total Recall (1990) netted Schwarzenegger $10 million and 15% of the film's gross. A science fiction script, the film was based on the Philip K. Dick short story "We Can Remember It for You Wholesale". Kindergarten Cop (1990) reunited him with director Ivan Reitman, who directed him in Twins. Schwarzenegger had a brief foray into directing, first with a 1990 episode of the TV series Tales from the Crypt, entitled "The Switch", and then with the 1992 telemovie Christmas in Connecticut. He has not directed since.
What Schwarzenegger film was 1991's highest-grossing movie?
56de8d06cffd8e1900b4b9ea
Terminator 2: Judgment Day
81
False
What organization named Schwarzenegger the "International Star of the Decade" in 1993?
56de8d06cffd8e1900b4b9eb
the National Association of Theatre Owners
163
False
What 1994 film brought Schwarzenegger back together with director James Cameron?
56de8d06cffd8e1900b4b9ec
True Lies
445
False
Schwarzenegger's commercial peak was his return as the title character in 1991's Terminator 2: Judgment Day, which was the highest-grossing film of 1991. In 1993, the National Association of Theatre Owners named him the "International Star of the Decade". His next film project, the 1993 self-aware action comedy spoof Last Action Hero, was released opposite Jurassic Park, and did not do well at the box office. His next film, the comedy drama True Lies (1994), was a popular spy film, and saw Schwarzenegger reunited with James Cameron.
What was Schwarzenegger's second film with co-star Danny DeVito?
56de8e84cffd8e1900b4b9f0
Junior
27
False
How much did the third Terminator movie make domestically alone?
56de8e84cffd8e1900b4b9f2
$150 million
962
False
That same year, the comedy Junior was released, the last of Schwarzenegger's three collaborations with Ivan Reitman and again co-starring Danny DeVito. This film brought him his second Golden Globe nomination, this time for Best Actor – Musical or Comedy. It was followed by the action thriller Eraser (1996), the Christmas comedy Jingle All The Way (1996), and the comic book-based Batman & Robin (1997), in which he played the villain Mr. Freeze. This was his final film before taking time to recuperate from a back injury. Following the critical failure of Batman & Robin, his film career and box office prominence went into decline. He returned with the supernatural thriller End of Days (1999), later followed by the action films The 6th Day (2000) and Collateral Damage (2002), both of which failed to do well at the box office. In 2003, he made his third appearance as the title character in Terminator 3: Rise of the Machines, which went on to earn over $150 million domestically.
How many feet tall was the proposed statue of Schwarzenegger?
56de8ef74396321400ee2a19
82
121
False
What was the name of the cultural association that wanted to build a Terminator statue?
56de8ef74396321400ee2a1a
Forum Stadtpark
38
False
In tribute to Schwarzenegger in 2002, Forum Stadtpark, a local cultural association, proposed plans to build a 25-meter (82 ft) tall Terminator statue in a park in central Graz. Schwarzenegger reportedly said he was flattered, but thought the money would be better spent on social projects and the Special Olympics.
Which 2005 movie featured Schwarzenegger as himself?
56de8fcccffd8e1900b4b9f7
The Kid & I
212
False
His film appearances after becoming Governor of California included a three-second cameo appearance in The Rundown, and the 2004 remake of Around the World in 80 Days. In 2005, he appeared as himself in the film The Kid & I. He voiced Baron von Steuben in the Liberty's Kids episode "Valley Forge". He had been rumored to be appearing in Terminator Salvation as the original T-800; he denied his involvement, but he ultimately did appear briefly via his image being inserted into the movie from stock footage of the first Terminator movie. Schwarzenegger appeared in Sylvester Stallone's The Expendables, where he made a cameo appearance.
What's the name of the comic book character modeled on Schwarzenegger?
56de91054396321400ee2a1d
the Governator
575
False
What famous comic book writer did Schwarzenegger work with on the Governator?
56de91054396321400ee2a1e
Stan Lee
715
False
Schwarzenegger said he was reading scripts that included the one for what WWII film based on a true story?
56de91054396321400ee2a1f
With Wings as Eagles
195
False
Who wrote the screenplay for With Wings as Eagles?
56de91054396321400ee2a20
Randall Wallace
228
False
In January 2011, just weeks after leaving office in California, Schwarzenegger announced that he was reading several new scripts for future films, one of them being the World War II action drama With Wings as Eagles, written by Randall Wallace, based on a true story. On March 6, 2011, at the Arnold Seminar of the Arnold Classic, Schwarzenegger revealed that he was being considered for several films, including sequels to The Terminator and remakes of Predator and The Running Man, and that he was "packaging" a comic book character. The character was later revealed to be the Governator, star of the comic book and animated series of the same name. Schwarzenegger inspired the character and co-developed it with Stan Lee, who would have produced the series. Schwarzenegger would have voiced the Governator.
On what date in 2011 was the hold on Schwarzenegger's movie projects announced?
56de924b4396321400ee2a25
May 20
3
False
2013's The Last Stand marked Schwarzenegger's first starring role in how long?
56de924b4396321400ee2a26
10 years
474
False
What was the first film Schwarzenegger co-starred in with Sylvester Stallone?
56de924b4396321400ee2a27
Escape Plan
488
False
What's the title of the fifth film in the Terminator franchise?
56de924b4396321400ee2a28
Terminator Genisys
714
False
What year did Terminator Genisys debut?
56de924b4396321400ee2a29
2015
736
False
On May 20, 2011, Schwarzenegger's entertainment counsel announced that all movie projects currently in development were being halted: "Schwarzenegger is focusing on personal matters and is not willing to commit to any production schedules or timelines". On July 11, 2011, it was announced that Schwarzenegger was considering a comeback film despite his legal problems. He appeared in The Expendables 2 (2012), and starred in The Last Stand (2013), his first leading role in 10 years, and Escape Plan (2013), his first co-starring role alongside Sylvester Stallone. He starred in Sabotage, released in March 2014, and appeared in The Expendables 3, released in August 2014. He starred in the fifth Terminator movie Terminator Genisys in 2015 and will reprise his role as Conan the Barbarian in The Legend of Conan.
In what year did Schwarzenegger speak at the Republican National Convention?
56de92a3cffd8e1900b4b9fa
2004
277
False
Schwarzenegger has been a registered Republican for many years. As an actor, his political views were always well known as they contrasted with those of many other prominent Hollywood stars, who are generally considered to be a liberal and Democratic-leaning community. At the 2004 Republican National Convention, Schwarzenegger gave a speech and explained why he was a Republican:
What was the title of the anti-drug music video Schwarzenegger appeared in under the Reagan administration's sponsorship?
56de93f94396321400ee2a35
"Stop the Madness"
36
False
In what presidential election year did Schwarzenegger make a name for himself as a prominent Republican?
56de93f94396321400ee2a36
1988
184
False
Which candidate did Schwarzenegger appear with at a presidential campaign rally?
56de93f94396321400ee2a37
George H.W. Bush
245
False
In 1985, Schwarzenegger appeared in "Stop the Madness", an anti-drug music video sponsored by the Reagan administration. He first came to wide public notice as a Republican during the 1988 presidential election, accompanying then-Vice President George H.W. Bush at a campaign rally.
What nickname did George H.W. Bush give to Schwarzenegger?
56de94c84396321400ee2a41
Conan the Republican
213
False
Schwarzenegger's first political appointment was as chairman of the President's Council on Physical Fitness and Sports, on which he served from 1990 to 1993. He was nominated by George H. W. Bush, who dubbed him "Conan the Republican". He later served as Chairman for the California Governor's Council on Physical Fitness and Sports under Governor Pete Wilson.
What year did Schwarzenegger's interview with Talk magazine take place?
56de981ccffd8e1900b4ba15
1999
43
False
Which media source said Schwarzenegger was trying to deal with rumors that he might run for governor of California?
56de981ccffd8e1900b4ba16
The Hollywood Reporter
206
False
In an interview with Talk magazine in late 1999, Schwarzenegger was asked if he thought of running for office. He replied, "I think about it many times. The possibility is there, because I feel it inside." The Hollywood Reporter claimed shortly after that Schwarzenegger sought to end speculation that he might run for governor of California. Following his initial comments, Schwarzenegger said, "I'm in show business – I am in the middle of my career. Why would I go away from that and jump into something else?"
The episode of The Tonight Show with Jay Leno where Schwarzenegger announced his candidacy for Governor aired on what date?
56de98ddcffd8e1900b4ba1d
August 6, 2003
112
False
How many debates did Schwarzenegger participate in before the 2003 California recall election?
56de98ddcffd8e1900b4ba1e
one
549
False
Schwarzenegger announced his candidacy in the 2003 California recall election for Governor of California on the August 6, 2003 episode of The Tonight Show with Jay Leno. Schwarzenegger had the most name recognition in a crowded field of candidates, but he had never held public office and his political views were unknown to most Californians. His candidacy immediately became national and international news, with media outlets dubbing him the "Governator" (referring to The Terminator movies, see above) and "The Running Man" (the name of another one of his films), and calling the recall election "Total Recall" (yet another movie starring Schwarzenegger). Schwarzenegger declined to participate in several debates with other recall replacement candidates, and appeared in only one debate on September 24, 2003.
What percentage of the October 2003 vote was in favor of a recall?
56de9a164396321400ee2a45
55.4%
103
False
Who was Schwarzenegger's closest rival in the gubernatorial race of 2003?
56de9a164396321400ee2a46
Cruz Bustamante
325
False
By about what number of votes did Schwarzenegger win the 2003 recall election in California?
56de9a164396321400ee2a47
1.3 million
496
False
What percentage of the vote did Schwarzenegger's opponent Bustamante receive?
56de9a164396321400ee2a48
31%
428
False
Who was the first governor of California who had been born in a foreign country?
56de9a164396321400ee2a49
John G. Downey
694
False
On October 7, 2003, the recall election resulted in Governor Gray Davis being removed from office with 55.4% of the Yes vote in favor of a recall. Schwarzenegger was elected Governor of California under the second question on the ballot with 48.6% of the vote to choose a successor to Davis. Schwarzenegger defeated Democrat Cruz Bustamante, fellow Republican Tom McClintock, and others. His nearest rival, Bustamante, received 31% of the vote. In total, Schwarzenegger won the election by about 1.3 million votes. Under the regulations of the California Constitution, no runoff election was required. Schwarzenegger was the second foreign-born governor of California after Irish-born Governor John G. Downey in 1862.
What politician threatened to start working to recall Schwarzenegger right after he was elected?
56debd5a3277331400b4d6fd
Willie Brown
48
False
What Saturday Night Live sketch was Schwarzenegger referencing when he called opposing politicians "girlie men"?
56debd5a3277331400b4d6fe
Hans and Franz
259
False
As soon as Schwarzenegger was elected governor, Willie Brown said he would start a drive to recall the governor. Schwarzenegger was equally entrenched in what he considered to be his mandate in cleaning up gridlock. Building on a catchphrase from the sketch "Hans and Franz" from Saturday Night Live (which partly parodied his bodybuilding career), Schwarzenegger called the Democratic State politicians "girlie men".
In what month of 2005 did Schwarzenegger hold a special election?
56debe163277331400b4d701
November
378
False
How many of Schwarzenegger's ballot initiatives were defeated in the special election of 2005?
56debe163277331400b4d702
four
402
False
Schwarzenegger's early victories included repealing an unpopular increase in the vehicle registration fee as well as preventing driver's licenses being given out to illegal immigrants, but later he began to feel the backlash when powerful state unions began to oppose his various initiatives. Key among his reckoning with political realities was a special election he called in November 2005, in which four ballot measures he sponsored were defeated. Schwarzenegger accepted personal responsibility for the defeats and vowed to continue to seek consensus for the people of California. He would later comment that "no one could win if the opposition raised 160 million dollars to defeat you". The U.S. Supreme Court later found the public employee unions' use of compulsory fundraising during the campaign had been illegal in Knox v. Service Employees International Union, Local 1000.
Who did Schwarzenegger choose as Chief of Staff?
56debe573277331400b4d705
Susan Kennedy
103
False
Schwarzenegger then went against the advice of fellow Republican strategists and appointed a Democrat, Susan Kennedy, as his Chief of Staff. Schwarzenegger gradually moved towards a more politically moderate position, determined to build a winning legacy with only a short time to go until the next gubernatorial election.
In the 2006 gubernatorial election, who did Schwarzenegger run against?
56debf69c65bf219000b3d2b
Phil Angelides
52
False
Which city was Gavin Newsom mayor of when he said Schwarzenegger was turning Democrat?
56debf69c65bf219000b3d2d
San Francisco
564
False
Schwarzenegger ran for re-election against Democrat Phil Angelides, the California State Treasurer, in the 2006 elections, held on November 7, 2006. Despite a poor year nationally for the Republican party, Schwarzenegger won re-election with 56.0% of the vote compared with 38.9% for Angelides, a margin of well over one million votes. In recent years, many commentators have seen Schwarzenegger as moving away from the right and towards the center of the political spectrum. After hearing a speech by Schwarzenegger at the 2006 Martin Luther King, Jr. breakfast, San Francisco mayor Gavin Newsom said that, "[H]e's becoming a Democrat [… H]e's running back, not even to the center. I would say center-left".
What political office did people speculate Schwarzenegger might try for in 2010?
56debfd9c65bf219000b3d31
United States Senate
53
False
It was rumored that Schwarzenegger might run for the United States Senate in 2010, as his governorship would be term-limited by that time. This turned out to be false.
What author claimed Schwarzenegger is power-obsessed?
56dec0e23277331400b4d707
Wendy Leigh
0
False
What's Schwarzenegger's father-in-law's name?
56dec0e23277331400b4d708
Sargent Shriver
805
False
Schwarzenegger shows up as the President of the United States in what 2007 animated movie?
56dec0e23277331400b4d709
The Simpsons Movie
1094
False
Wendy Leigh, who wrote an unofficial biography on Schwarzenegger, claims he plotted his political rise from an early age using the movie business and bodybuilding as building blocks to escape a depressing home. Leigh portrays Schwarzenegger as obsessed with power and quotes him as saying, "I wanted to be part of the small percentage of people who were leaders, not the large mass of followers. I think it is because I saw leaders use 100% of their potential – I was always fascinated by people in control of other people." Schwarzenegger has said that it was never his intention to enter politics, but he says, "I married into a political family. You get together with them and you hear about policy, about reaching out to help people. I was exposed to the idea of being a public servant and Eunice and Sargent Shriver became my heroes." Eunice Kennedy Shriver was sister of John F. Kennedy, and mother-in-law to Schwarzenegger; Sargent Shriver is husband to Eunice and father-in-law to Schwarzenegger. He cannot run for president as he is not a natural born citizen of the United States. In The Simpsons Movie (2007), he is portrayed as the president, and in the Sylvester Stallone movie, Demolition Man (1993, ten years before his first run for political office), it is revealed that a constitutional amendment passed which allowed Schwarzenegger to become president.
What year did Schwarzenegger become a naturalized citizen of the United States?
56dec1673277331400b4d70d
1983
156
False
In what country besides the U.S. is Schwarzenegger a citizen?
56dec1673277331400b4d70e
Austrian
25
False
Schwarzenegger is a dual Austrian/United States citizen. He holds Austrian citizenship by birth and has held U.S. citizenship since becoming naturalized in 1983. Being Austrian and thus European, he was able to win the 2007 European Voice campaigner of the year award for taking action against climate change with the California Global Warming Solutions Act of 2006 and plans to introduce an emissions trading scheme with other US states and possibly with the EU.
Who did Schwarzenegger finally endorse in the 2008 Republican primary?
56dec2483277331400b4d711
John McCain
182
False
Which candidate withdrew from the presidential race in January of 2008?
56dec2483277331400b4d712
Rudy Giuliani
156
False
On which two major issues did McCain and Schwarzenegger publicly agree?
56dec2483277331400b4d713
the environment and economy
811
False
Schwarzenegger's endorsement in the Republican primary of the 2008 U.S. presidential election was highly sought; despite being good friends with candidates Rudy Giuliani and Senator John McCain, Schwarzenegger remained neutral throughout 2007 and early 2008. Giuliani dropped out of the presidential race on January 30, 2008, largely because of a poor showing in Florida, and endorsed McCain. Later that night, Schwarzenegger was in the audience at a Republican debate at the Ronald Reagan Presidential Library in California. The following day, he endorsed McCain, joking, "It's Rudy's fault!" (in reference to his friendships with both candidates and that he could not make up his mind). Schwarzenegger's endorsement was thought to be a boost for Senator McCain's campaign; both spoke about their concerns for the environment and economy.
What group awarded Schwarzenegger the title of one of the 11 "worst governors" in a 2010 report?
56dec2c73277331400b4d717
Citizens for Responsibility and Ethics in Washington
60
False
In its April 2010 report, Progressive ethics watchdog group Citizens for Responsibility and Ethics in Washington named Schwarzenegger one of 11 "worst governors" in the United States because of various ethics issues throughout Schwarzenegger's term as governor.
What was Schwarzenegger's highest approval rating during his stint as governor?
56dec3cc3277331400b4d71b
89%
87
False
What was Schwarzenegger's approval rating on the day his time in office ended?
56dec3cc3277331400b4d71c
23%
143
False
Although he began his tenure as governor with record high approval ratings (as high as 89% in December 2003), he left office with a record low 23%, only one percent higher than that of Gray Davis's when he was recalled in October 2003.
What was the controversy around Schwarzenegger's first gubernatorial campaign nicknamed?
56dec4913277331400b4d71f
Gropegate
132
False
How many women spoke out publicly about misconduct on Schwarzenegger's part?
56dec4913277331400b4d720
six
313
False
Which newspaper broke the story about Schwarzenegger's alleged sexual misconduct?
56dec4913277331400b4d721
Los Angeles Times
220
False
During his initial campaign for governor, allegations of sexual and personal misconduct were raised against Schwarzenegger, dubbed "Gropegate". Within the last five days before the election, news reports appeared in the Los Angeles Times recounting allegations of sexual misconduct from several individual women, six of whom eventually came forward with their personal stories.
One woman accused Schwarzenegger of trying to remove what item of clothing?
56dec571c65bf219000b3d33
bathing suit
181
False
Three of the women claimed he had grabbed their breasts, a fourth said he placed his hand under her skirt on her buttock. A fifth woman claimed Schwarzenegger tried to take off her bathing suit in a hotel elevator, and the last said he pulled her onto his lap and asked her about a sex act.
What magazine published an interview quoting Schwarzenegger calling marijuana a "leaf"?
56dec6913277331400b4d725
GQ
462
False
What drug does the documentary Pumping Iron show Schwarzenegger using?
56dec6913277331400b4d726
marijuana
311
False
Schwarzenegger admitted that he has "behaved badly sometimes" and apologized, but also stated that "a lot of [what] you see in the stories is not true". This came after an interview in adult magazine Oui from 1977 surfaced, in which Schwarzenegger discussed attending sexual orgies and using substances such as marijuana. Schwarzenegger is shown smoking a marijuana joint after winning Mr. Olympia in the 1975 documentary film Pumping Iron. In an interview with GQ magazine in October 2007, Schwarzenegger said, "[Marijuana] is not a drug. It's a leaf. My drug was pumping iron, trust me." His spokesperson later said the comment was meant to be a joke.
Who sued Schwarzenegger and two of his employees for libel, settling in 2006?
56dec7983277331400b4d729
Anna Richardson
31
False
What movie was Schwarzenegger promoting when the alleged incident took place?
56dec7983277331400b4d72a
The 6th Day
461
False
What paper did Richardson claim was used by Schwarzenegger's publicist and aide to discredit her?
56dec7983277331400b4d72b
Los Angeles Times
528
False
British television personality Anna Richardson settled a libel lawsuit in August 2006 against Schwarzenegger, his top aide, Sean Walsh, and his publicist, Sheryl Main. A joint statement read: "The parties are content to put this matter behind them and are pleased that this legal dispute has now been settled." Richardson claimed they tried to tarnish her reputation by dismissing her allegations that Schwarzenegger touched her breast during a press event for The 6th Day in London. She claimed Walsh and Main libeled her in a Los Angeles Times article when they contended she encouraged his behavior.
What year did Austria outlaw the death penalty?
56dec8773277331400b4d72f
1968
655
False
Which member of Austrian parliament wanted Schwarzenegger to lose his Austrian citizenship?
56dec8773277331400b4d730
Peter Pilz
324
False
Schwarzenegger became a naturalized U.S. citizen on September 17, 1983. Shortly before he gained his citizenship, he asked the Austrian authorities for the right to keep his Austrian citizenship, as Austria does not usually allow dual citizenship. His request was granted, and he retained his Austrian citizenship. In 2005, Peter Pilz, a member of the Austrian Parliament from the Austrian Green Party, demanded that Parliament revoke Schwarzenegger's Austrian citizenship due to his decision not to prevent the executions of Donald Beardslee and Stanley Williams, causing damage of reputation to Austria, where the death penalty has been abolished since 1968. This demand was based on Article 33 of the Austrian Citizenship Act that states: "A citizen, who is in the public service of a foreign country, shall be deprived of his citizenship, if he heavily damages the reputation or the interests of the Austrian Republic." Pilz claimed that Schwarzenegger's actions in support of the death penalty (prohibited in Austria under Protocol 13 of the European Convention on Human Rights) had indeed done damage to Austria's reputation. Schwarzenegger explained his actions by referring to the fact that his only duty as Governor of California was to prevent an error in the judicial system.
What date marked the first law restricting greenhouse gas emissions?
56dec9fa3277331400b4d733
September 27, 2006
3
False
The regulations pertain to emissions from utilities, manufacturing plants, and what other entity?
56dec9fa3277331400b4d734
refineries
178
False
What year has Schwarzenegger set as the deadline for California to show a 25% reduction in emissions?
56dec9fa3277331400b4d735
2020
585
False
On September 27, 2006 Schwarzenegger signed a bill creating the nation's first cap on greenhouse gas emissions. The law set new regulations on the amount of emissions utilities, refineries and manufacturing plants are allowed to release into the atmosphere. Schwarzenegger also signed a second global warming bill that prohibits large utilities and corporations in California from making long-term contracts with suppliers who do not meet the state's greenhouse gas emission standards. The two bills are part of a plan to reduce California's emissions by 25 percent to 1990s levels by 2020. In 2005, Schwarzenegger issued an executive order calling to reduce greenhouse gases to 80 percent below 1990 levels by 2050.
What region of the U.S. has California partnered with on the Regional Greenhouse Gas Initiative?
56decc79c65bf219000b3d35
the Northeast
99
False
What green technology did Schwarzenegger have installed at home to reduce his carbon footprint?
56decc79c65bf219000b3d36
solar panels
716
False
What year did the Greenhouse Gas Initiative go into effect?
56decc79c65bf219000b3d37
2009
443
False
What particular pollutant was Schwarzenegger addressing with his 2006 executive order?
56decc79c65bf219000b3d38
carbon dioxide emissions
171
False
Schwarzenegger signed another executive order on October 17, 2006 allowing California to work with the Northeast's Regional Greenhouse Gas Initiative. They plan to reduce carbon dioxide emissions by issuing a limited amount of carbon credits to each power plant in participating states. Any power plants that exceed emissions for the amount of carbon credits will have to purchase more credits to cover the difference. The plan took effect in 2009. In addition to using his political power to fight global warming, the governor has taken steps at his home to reduce his personal carbon footprint. Schwarzenegger has adapted one of his Hummers to run on hydrogen and another to run on biofuels. He has also installed solar panels to heat his home.
In what city was the SAE World Congress held in 2009?
56deccb0c65bf219000b3d3d
Detroit
140
False
In respect of his contribution to the direction of the US motor industry, Schwarzenegger was invited to open the 2009 SAE World Congress in Detroit, on April 20, 2009.
What article, section, and clause of the Constitution requires U.S. presidents to be natural-born citizens?
56dece3bc65bf219000b3d3f
Article II, Section I, Clause V
173
False
In 2013, what newspaper claimed Schwarzenegger was considering a presidential campaign?
56dece3bc65bf219000b3d40
the New York Post
17
False
Michael Dorf is a law professor at what school?
56dece3bc65bf219000b3d41
Columbia University
447
False
In October 2013, the New York Post reported that Schwarzenegger was exploring a future run for president. The former California governor would face a constitutional hurdle; Article II, Section I, Clause V nominally prevents individuals who are not natural-born citizens of the United States from assuming the office. He has reportedly been lobbying legislators about a possible constitutional change, or filing a legal challenge to the provision. Columbia University law professor Michael Dorf observed that Schwarzenegger's possible lawsuit could ultimately win him the right to run for the office, noting, "The law is very clear, but it’s not 100 percent clear that the courts would enforce that law rather than leave it to the political process."
Where would Schwarzenegger write down his goals?
56decebc3277331400b4d739
index cards
207
False
Schwarzenegger became a millionaire by what age?
56decebc3277331400b4d73a
30
317
False
Schwarzenegger has had a highly successful business career. Following his move to the United States, Schwarzenegger became a "prolific goal setter" and would write his objectives at the start of the year on index cards, like starting a mail order business or buying a new car – and succeed in doing so. By the age of 30, Schwarzenegger was a millionaire, well before his career in Hollywood. His financial independence came from his success as a budding entrepreneur with a series of successful business ventures and investments.
With which of his friends did Schwarzenegger start a bricklaying company?
56decf643277331400b4d73d
Franco Columbu
47
False
What natural disaster in 1971 contributed to the success of Schwarzenegger's business?
56decf643277331400b4d73e
San Fernando earthquake
198
False
In 1968, Schwarzenegger and fellow bodybuilder Franco Columbu started a bricklaying business. The business flourished thanks to the pair's marketing savvy and an increased demand following the 1971 San Fernando earthquake. Schwarzenegger and Columbu used profits from their bricklaying venture to start a mail order business, selling bodybuilding and fitness-related equipment and instructional tapes.
How much did Schwarzenegger pay for the first apartment building he bought?
56decfc63277331400b4d741
$10,000
187
False
Schwarzenegger rolled profits from the mail order business and his bodybuilding competition winnings into his first real estate investment venture: an apartment building he purchased for $10,000. He would later go on to invest in a number of real estate holding companies.
What restaurant chain did Schwarzenegger invest in?
56ded0573277331400b4d743
Planet Hollywood
56
False
When did Schwarzenegger withdraw from involvement with Planet Hollywood?
56ded0573277331400b4d744
2000
278
False
What other successful theme restaurant chain was Planet Hollywood modeled on?
56ded0573277331400b4d745
the Hard Rock Cafe
129
False
Schwarzenegger was a founding celebrity investor in the Planet Hollywood chain of international theme restaurants (modeled after the Hard Rock Cafe) along with Bruce Willis, Sylvester Stallone and Demi Moore. Schwarzenegger severed his financial ties with the business in early 2000. Schwarzenegger said the company had not had the success he had hoped for, claiming he wanted to focus his attention on "new US global business ventures" and his movie career.
What investment firm does Schwarzenegger maintain partial ownership of?
56ded12cc65bf219000b3d45
Dimensional Fund Advisors
422
False
What city hosts Arnold's Sports Festival each year?
56ded12cc65bf219000b3d46
Columbus, Ohio
39
False
What's the name of Schwarzenegger's film production company?
56ded12cc65bf219000b3d47
Oak Productions, Inc.
778
False
What renowned publishing company partners with Schwarzenegger in Fitness Publications?
56ded12cc65bf219000b3d48
Simon & Schuster
858
False
He also invested in a shopping mall in Columbus, Ohio. He has talked about some of those who have helped him over the years in business: "I couldn't have learned about business without a parade of teachers guiding me... from Milton Friedman to Donald Trump... and now, Les Wexner and Warren Buffett. I even learned a thing or two from Planet Hollywood, such as when to get out! And I did!" He has significant ownership in Dimensional Fund Advisors, an investment firm. Schwarzenegger is also the owner of Arnold's Sports Festival, which he started in 1989 and is held annually in Columbus, Ohio. It is a festival that hosts thousands of international health and fitness professionals which has also expanded into a three-day expo. He also owns a movie production company called Oak Productions, Inc. and Fitness Publications, a joint publishing venture with Simon & Schuster.
What's the name of the restaurant Schwarzenegger opened with his wife?
56ded1eac65bf219000b3d4d
Schatzi On Main
80
False
Where is the Schwarzenegger restaurant located?
56ded1eac65bf219000b3d4e
Santa Monica
60
False
What is the literal translation of the word "schatzi"?
56ded1eac65bf219000b3d4f
little treasure
122
False
What year did Schwarzenegger sell Schatzi on Main?
56ded1eac65bf219000b3d50
1998
190
False
In 1992, Schwarzenegger and his wife opened a restaurant in Santa Monica called Schatzi On Main. Schatzi literally means "little treasure," colloquial for "honey" or "darling" in German. In 1998, he sold his restaurant.
In what year did Schwarzenegger and Maria Shriver separate?
56ded2bbc65bf219000b3d55
2011
133
False
What was the price tag for the private jet Schwarzenegger bought in 1997?
56ded2bbc65bf219000b3d57
$38 million
701
False
Schwarzenegger's net worth had been conservatively estimated at $100–$200 million. After separating from his wife, Maria Shriver, in 2011, it has been estimated that his net worth has been approximately $400 million, and even as high as $800 million, based on tax returns he filed in 2006. Over the years as an investor, he invested his bodybuilding and movie earnings in an array of stocks, bonds, privately controlled companies, and real estate holdings worldwide, making his net worth as an accurate estimation difficult to calculate, particularly in light of declining real estate values owing to economic recessions in the U.S. and Europe since the late 2000s. In June 1997, Schwarzenegger spent $38 million of his own money on a private Gulfstream jet. Schwarzenegger once said of his fortune, "Money doesn't make you happy. I now have $50 million, but I was just as happy when I had $48 million." He has also stated, "I've made many millions as a businessman many times over."
In what year did Schwarzenegger's former girlfriend Barbara Outland Baker publish her memoir?
56ded3dac65bf219000b3d5b
2006
626
False
What did Baker say Schwarzenegger didn't understand when she first met him?
56ded3dac65bf219000b3d5c
polite society
1509
False
What historical event did Baker and Schwarzenegger watch on TV together on their first date?
56ded3dac65bf219000b3d5d
the first Apollo Moon landing
1220
False
In 1969, Schwarzenegger met Barbara Outland (later Barbara Outland Baker), an English teacher he lived with until 1974. Schwarzenegger talked about Barbara in his memoir in 1977: "Basically it came down to this: she was a well-balanced woman who wanted an ordinary, solid life, and I was not a well-balanced man, and hated the very idea of ordinary life." Baker has described Schwarzenegger as "[a] joyful personality, totally charismatic, adventurous, and athletic" but claims towards the end of the relationship he became "insufferable – classically conceited – the world revolved around him". Baker published her memoir in 2006, entitled Arnold and Me: In the Shadow of the Austrian Oak. Although Baker, at times, painted an unflattering portrait of her former lover, Schwarzenegger actually contributed to the tell-all book with a foreword, and also met with Baker for three hours. Baker claims, for example, that she only learned of his being unfaithful after they split, and talks of a turbulent and passionate love life. Schwarzenegger has made it clear that their respective recollection of events can differ. The couple first met six to eight months after his arrival in the U.S – their first date was watching the first Apollo Moon landing on television. They shared an apartment in Santa Monica for three and a half years, and having little money, would visit the beach all day, or have barbecues in the back yard. Although Baker claims that when she first met him, he had "little understanding of polite society" and she found him a turn-off, she says, "He's as much a self-made man as it's possible to be – he never got encouragement from his parents, his family, his brother. He just had this huge determination to prove himself, and that was very attractive … I'll go to my grave knowing Arnold loved me."
What was the name of the hairdresser's assistant Schwarzenegger fell for in July of 1977?
56ded4883277331400b4d749
Sue Moray
38
False
Where did Schwarzenegger first meet Maria Shriver?
56ded4883277331400b4d74a
the Robert F. Kennedy Tennis Tournament
326
False
What month and year did Moray make Schwarzenegger choose between her and Shriver?
56ded4883277331400b4d74b
August 1978
439
False
Schwarzenegger met his next paramour, Sue Moray, a Beverly Hills hairdresser's assistant, on Venice Beach in July 1977. According to Moray, the couple led an open relationship: "We were faithful when we were both in LA … but when he was out of town, we were free to do whatever we wanted." Schwarzenegger met Maria Shriver at the Robert F. Kennedy Tennis Tournament in August 1977, and went on to have a relationship with both women until August 1978, when Moray (who knew of his relationship with Shriver) issued an ultimatum.
What is Maria Shriver's relation to President John F. Kennedy
56ded5bbc65bf219000b3d64
niece
79
False
What Massachusetts town was the setting for the wedding between Shriver and Schwarzenegger?
56ded5bbc65bf219000b3d65
Hyannis
118
False
How many children did Schwarzenegger and Shriver have together?
56ded5bbc65bf219000b3d66
four
244
False
Who did Schwarzenegger reportedly begin dating shortly after his separation?
56ded5bbc65bf219000b3d67
Heather Milligan
892
False
On April 26, 1986, Schwarzenegger married television journalist Maria Shriver, niece of President John F. Kennedy, in Hyannis, Massachusetts. The Rev. John Baptist Riordan performed the ceremony at St. Francis Xavier Catholic Church. They have four children: Katherine Eunice Schwarzenegger (born December 13, 1989 in Los Angeles); Christina Maria Aurelia Schwarzenegger (born July 23, 1991 in Los Angeles); Patrick Arnold Shriver Schwarzenegger (born September 18, 1993 in Los Angeles); and Christopher Sargent Shriver Schwarzenegger (born September 27, 1997 in Los Angeles). Schwarzenegger lives in a 11,000-square-foot (1,000 m2) home in Brentwood. The divorcing couple currently own vacation homes in Sun Valley, Idaho and Hyannis Port, Massachusetts. They attended St. Monica's Catholic Church. Following their separation, it is reported that Schwarzenegger is dating physical therapist Heather Milligan.
How long were Schwarzenegger and Shriver married?
56ded6593277331400b4d751
25 years
74
False
What newspaper broke the story about Schwarzenegger's child with another woman?
56ded6593277331400b4d752
the Los Angeles Times
172
False
On May 9, 2011, Shriver and Schwarzenegger ended their relationship after 25 years of marriage, with Shriver moving out of the couple's Brentwood mansion. On May 16, 2011, the Los Angeles Times revealed that Schwarzenegger had fathered a son more than fourteen years earlier with an employee in their household, Mildred Patricia 'Patty' Baena. "After leaving the governor's office I told my wife about this event, which occurred over a decade ago," Schwarzenegger said in a statement issued to The Times. In the statement, Schwarzenegger did not mention that he had confessed to his wife only after Shriver had confronted him with the information, which she had done after confirming with the housekeeper what she had suspected about the child.
Baena worked for the Schwarzenegger/Shriver family for how many years?
56ded70f3277331400b4d755
20
75
False
What's the first name of Schwarzenegger's son with Baena?
56ded70f3277331400b4d756
Joseph
265
False
Schwarzenegger bought Baena and their son a four-bedroom house in what year?
56ded70f3277331400b4d757
2010
795
False
Fifty-year-old Baena, of Guatemalan origin, was employed by the family for 20 years and retired in January 2011. The pregnant Baena was working in the home while Shriver was pregnant with the youngest of the couple’s four children. Baena's son with Schwarzenegger, Joseph, was born on October 2, 1997; Shriver gave birth to Christopher on September 27, 1997. Schwarzenegger says it took seven or eight years before he found out that he had fathered a child with his housekeeper. It wasn't until the boy "started looking like me, that's when I kind of got it. I put things together," the action star and former California governor, told 60 Minutes. Schwarzenegger has taken financial responsibility for the child "from the start and continued to provide support." KNX 1070 radio reported that in 2010 he bought a new four-bedroom house, with a pool, for Baena and their son in Bakersfield, about 112 miles (180 km) north of Los Angeles. Baena separated from her husband, Rogelio, in 1997, a few months after Joseph's birth, and filed for divorce in 2008. Baena's ex-husband says that the child's birth certificate was falsified and that he plans to sue Schwarzenegger for engaging in conspiracy to falsify a public document, a serious crime in California.
Which attorney did Schwarzenegger consult to handle his divorce?
56ded8093277331400b4d75b
Bob Kaufman
42
False
Which of the two kept their family home in Brentwood?
56ded8093277331400b4d75c
Schwarzenegger
0
False
Schwarzenegger's initial divorce petition failed to provide for attorney's fee reimbursement and what other condition of divorce?
56ded8093277331400b4d75d
spousal support
479
False
Schwarzenegger has consulted an attorney, Bob Kaufman. Kaufman has earlier handled divorce cases for celebrities such as Jennifer Aniston and Reese Witherspoon. Schwarzenegger will keep the Brentwood home as part of their divorce settlement and Shriver has purchased a new home nearby so that the children may travel easily between their parents' homes. They will share custody of the two minor children. Schwarzenegger came under fire after the initial petition did not include spousal support and a reimbursement of attorney's fees. However, he claims this was not intentional and that he signed the initial documents without having properly read them. Schwarzenegger has filed amended divorce papers remedying this.
What actress claimed she also carried on an affair with Schwarzenegger while he was with Shriver?
56ded8513277331400b4d761
Brigitte Nielsen
27
False
After the scandal, actress Brigitte Nielsen came forward and stated that she too had an affair with Schwarzenegger while he was in a relationship with Shriver, saying, "Maybe I wouldn't have got into it if he said 'I'm going to marry Maria' and this is dead serious, but he didn't, and our affair carried on." When asked in 2014 "Of all the things you are famous for … which are you least proud of?", Schwarzenegger replied "I'm least proud of the mistakes I made that caused my family pain and split us up".
What word describes an aortic valve with two rather than three leaflets?
56ded8b43277331400b4d765
bicuspid
31
False
Schwarzenegger underwent heart valve replacement in what year?
56ded8b43277331400b4d766
1997
161
False
Schwarzenegger was born with a bicuspid aortic valve, an aortic valve with only two leaflets (a normal aortic valve has three leaflets). Schwarzenegger opted in 1997 for a replacement heart valve made of his own transplanted tissue; medical experts predicted he would require heart valve replacement surgery in the following two to eight years as his valve would progressively degrade. Schwarzenegger apparently opted against a mechanical valve, the only permanent solution available at the time of his surgery, because it would have sharply limited his physical activity and capacity to exercise.
Which of Schwarzenegger's sons was with him when he had a motorcycle accident in 2006?
56ded9b5c65bf219000b3d77
Patrick
112
False
On January 8, 2006, while Schwarzenegger was riding his Harley Davidson motorcycle in Los Angeles, with his son Patrick in the sidecar, another driver backed into the street he was riding on, causing him and his son to collide with the car at a low speed. While his son and the other driver were unharmed, the governor sustained a minor injury to his lip, requiring 15 stitches. "No citations were issued", said Officer Jason Lee, a Los Angeles Police Department spokesman. Schwarzenegger did not obtain his motorcycle license until July 3, 2006.
What bone did Schwarzenegger break while on a ski trip in 2006?
56deda17c65bf219000b3d7b
right femur
55
False
Where was Schwarzenegger vacationing when he broke his leg?
56deda17c65bf219000b3d7c
Sun Valley, Idaho
83
False
Schwarzenegger tripped over his ski pole and broke his right femur while skiing in Sun Valley, Idaho, with his family on December 23, 2006. On December 26, 2006, he underwent a 90-minute operation in which cables and screws were used to wire the broken bone back together. He was released from the St. John's Health Center on December 30, 2006.
At what airport was Schwarzenegger's jet forced to make an emergency landing in 2009?
56deda76c65bf219000b3d81
Van Nuys Airport
58
False
Schwarzenegger's private jet made an emergency landing at Van Nuys Airport on June 19, 2009, after the pilot reported smoke coming from the cockpit, according to a statement released by the governor's press secretary. No one was harmed in the incident.
How tall does Schwarzenegger claim to be?
56dedb693277331400b4d769
6'2"
36
False
What Assemblyman playfully tried to measure Schwarzenegger's height?
56dedb693277331400b4d76a
Herb Wesson
549
False
How tall did Men's Health magazine report Schwarzenegger to be in a 1999 issue?
56dedb693277331400b4d76b
5'10"
989
False
Schwarzenegger's official height of 6'2" (1.88 m) has been brought into question by several articles. In his bodybuilding days in the late 1960s, he was measured to be 6'1.5" (1.87 m), a height confirmed by his fellow bodybuilders. However, in 1988 both the Daily Mail and Time Out magazine mentioned that Schwarzenegger appeared noticeably shorter. Prior to running for Governor, Schwarzenegger's height was once again questioned in an article by the Chicago Reader. As Governor, Schwarzenegger engaged in a light-hearted exchange with Assemblyman Herb Wesson over their heights. At one point, Wesson made an unsuccessful attempt to, in his own words, "settle this once and for all and find out how tall he is" by using a tailor's tape measure on the Governor. Schwarzenegger retaliated by placing a pillow stitched with the words "Need a lift?" on the five-foot-five inch (165 cm) Wesson's chair before a negotiating session in his office. Bob Mulholland also claimed Schwarzenegger was 5'10" (1.78 m) and that he wore risers in his boots. In 1999, Men's Health magazine stated his height was 5'10".
What's the title of Schwarzenegger's autobiography?
56dedbce3277331400b4d76f
Total Recall
32
False
What did Schwarzenegger name the chapter of the book that addresses his extramarital affair?
56dedbce3277331400b4d770
"The Secret"
106
False
When was Schwarzenegger's autobiography released?
56dedbce3277331400b4d771
October 2012
62
False
Schwarzenegger's autobiography, Total Recall, was released in October 2012. He devotes one chapter called "The Secret" to his extramarital affair. The majority of his book is about his successes in the three major chapters in his life: bodybuilder, actor, and Governor of California.
In what year did AM General grant Schwarzenegger's wish for a street-legal Humvee?
56dedc703277331400b4d775
1992
212
False
In addition to the Humvee, what other vehicle manufactured by AM General was Schwarzenegger first to own?
56dedc703277331400b4d776
Hummers
232
False
Schwarzenegger was the first civilian to purchase a Humvee. He was so enamored by the vehicle that he lobbied the Humvee's manufacturer, AM General, to produce a street-legal, civilian version, which they did in 1992; the first two Hummers they sold were also purchased by Schwarzenegger.
What color is the exterior of Schwarzenegger's Bugatti Veyron Grand Sport Vitesse?
56dedcef3277331400b4d779
silver
134
False
He was in the news in 2014 for buying a rare Bugatti Veyron Grand Sport Vitesse. He was spotted and filmed in 2015 Summer in his car, silver painted with bright aluminium forged wheels. Schwarzenegger's Bugatti has its interior adorned in dark brown leather.
How many pounds does one of Schwarzenegger's Hummers weigh?
56dede26c65bf219000b3d83
6,300
71
False
How much did Schwarzenegger spend to convert a Hummer to run on hydrogen?
56dede26c65bf219000b3d84
$21,000
380
False
What did Schwarzenegger name his plan to build hydrogen refueling stations throughout California?
56dede26c65bf219000b3d85
California Hydrogen Highway Network
505
False
What governmental department contributed a grant to Schwarzenegger's hydrogen fuel project?
56dede26c65bf219000b3d86
U.S. Department of Energy
555
False
The Hummers that Schwarzenegger bought 1992 are so large – each weighs 6,300 lb (2,900 kg) and is 7 feet (2.1 m) wide – that they are classified as large trucks, and U.S. fuel economy regulations do not apply to them. During the gubernatorial recall campaign he announced that he would convert one of his Hummers to burn hydrogen. The conversion was reported to have cost about US$21,000. After the election, he signed an executive order to jump-start the building of hydrogen refueling plants called the California Hydrogen Highway Network, and gained a U.S. Department of Energy grant to help pay for its projected US$91,000,000 cost. California took delivery of the first H2H (Hydrogen Hummer) in October 2004.
What nonprofit did Schwarzenegger found in 1995?
56dedef03277331400b4d78b
the Inner City Games Foundation
431
False
Schwarzenegger was the spokesperson for the Special Olympic games held in what city in China?
56dedef03277331400b4d78c
Shanghai
252
False
About how many schools across the country is ICG active in?
56dedef03277331400b4d78d
400
640
False
Arnold Schwarzenegger has been involved with the Special Olympics for many years after they were founded by his ex-mother-in-law, Eunice Kennedy Shriver. In 2007, Schwarzenegger was the official spokesperson for the Special Olympics which were held in Shanghai, China. Schwarzenegger believes that quality school opportunities should be made available to children who might not normally be able to access them. In 1995, he founded the Inner City Games Foundation (ICG) which provides cultural, educational and community enrichment programming to youth. ICG is active in 15 cities around the country and serves over 250,000 children in over 400 schools countrywide. He has also been involved with After-School All-Stars, and founded the Los Angeles branch in 2002. ASAS is an after school program provider, educating youth about health, fitness and nutrition.
What school within the University of Southern California does the Schwarzenegger Institute for State and Global Policy belong to?
56dedfc3c65bf219000b3d9d
the USC Sol Price School of Public Policy
117
False
In what year was the Schwarzenegger Institute for State and Global Policy founded?
56dedfc3c65bf219000b3d9e
2012
3
False
What position does Schwarzenegger hold with the Institute?
56dedfc3c65bf219000b3d9f
chairman
539
False
In 2012, Schwarzenegger helped to found the Schwarzenegger Institute for State and Global Policy, which is a part of the USC Sol Price School of Public Policy at the University of Southern California. The Institute's mission is to "[advance] post-partisanship, where leaders put people over political parties and work together to find the best ideas and solutions to benefit the people they serve," and to "seek to influence public policy and public debate in finding solutions to the serious challenges we face." Schwarzenegger serves as chairman of the Institute.
Plymouth
In kilometers, what is the distance from Plymouth to Exeter?
56de64cf4396321400ee2875
60
86
False
How many miles away from London is Plymouth?
56de64cf4396321400ee2876
190
118
False
What river borders Plymouth on the west?
56de64cf4396321400ee2877
Tamar
218
False
In what county is Plymouth located?
56de64cf4396321400ee2878
Devon
54
False
In what body of water do the rivers Tamar and Plym converge?
56de64cf4396321400ee2879
Plymouth Sound
252
False
Plymouth (i/ˈplɪməθ/) is a city on the south coast of Devon, England, about 37 miles (60 km) south-west of Exeter and 190 miles (310 km) west-south-west of London, between the mouths of the rivers Plym to the east and Tamar to the west where they join Plymouth Sound to form the boundary with Cornwall.
What was the location of the earliest settlement near Plymouth?
56de65324396321400ee287f
Mount Batten
87
False
What was Plymouth's original name?
56de65324396321400ee2880
Sutton
224
False
In what year did the Pilgrim Fathers sail from Plymouth?
56de65324396321400ee2881
1620
256
False
When did the siege of Plymouth end during the English Civil War?
56de65324396321400ee2882
1646
532
False
What was the name of the colony founded by the Pilgrim Fathers in the New World?
56de65324396321400ee2883
Plymouth Colony
334
False
Plymouth's early history extends to the Bronze Age, when a first settlement emerged at Mount Batten. This settlement continued as a trading post for the Roman Empire, until it was surpassed by the more prosperous village of Sutton, now called Plymouth. In 1620, the Pilgrim Fathers departed Plymouth for the New World and established Plymouth Colony – the second English settlement in what is now the United States of America. During the English Civil War the town was held by the Parliamentarians and was besieged between 1642 and 1646.
What nearby settlement built ships for the Royal Navy?
56de664ccffd8e1900b4b862
Devonport
238
False
In what year did Plymouth become a city?
56de664ccffd8e1900b4b863
1928
569
False
What is the term used to describe the attacks on Plymouth during the Second World War?
56de664ccffd8e1900b4b864
Plymouth Blitz
717
False
In what year was Plymstock incorporated?
56de664ccffd8e1900b4b865
1967
899
False
Along with Plymouth and Devonport, what location was merged into a county borough in 1914?
56de664ccffd8e1900b4b866
East Stonehouse
454
False
Throughout the Industrial Revolution, Plymouth grew as a commercial shipping port, handling imports and passengers from the Americas, and exporting local minerals (tin, copper, lime, china clay and arsenic) while the neighbouring town of Devonport became a strategic Royal Naval shipbuilding and dockyard town. In 1914 three neighbouring independent towns, viz., the county borough of Plymouth, the county borough of Devonport, and the urban district of East Stonehouse were merged to form a single County Borough. The combined town took the name of Plymouth which, in 1928, achieved city status. The city's naval importance later led to its targeting and partial destruction during World War II, an act known as the Plymouth Blitz. After the war the city centre was completely rebuilt and subsequent expansion led to the incorporation of Plympton and Plymstock along with other outlying suburbs in 1967.
As of 2014, what was the population of Plymouth?
56de66c1cffd8e1900b4b874
261,546
20
False
Where does Plymouth rank in population among the cities of the UK?
56de66c1cffd8e1900b4b875
30th
66
False
How many members of Parliament represent Plymouth?
56de66c1cffd8e1900b4b876
three
203
False
In what city does Plymouth's ferry to Spain terminate?
56de66c1cffd8e1900b4b877
Santander
358
False
What institution of higher education is based in Plymouth?
56de66c1cffd8e1900b4b878
Plymouth University
525
False
The city is home to 261,546 (mid-2014 est.) people, making it the 30th most populous built-up area in the United Kingdom. It is governed locally by Plymouth City Council and is represented nationally by three MPs. Plymouth's economy remains strongly influenced by shipbuilding and seafaring including ferry links to Brittany (Roscoff and St Malo) and Spain (Santander), but has tended toward a service-based economy since the 1990s. It has the largest operational naval base in Western Europe – HMNB Devonport and is home to Plymouth University.
What is the name of the location cited by Ptolemy that is believed to have been located near modern Plymouth?
56de67e0cffd8e1900b4b888
TAMARI OSTIA
303
False
Where have Middle Iron Age remnants been found?
56de67e0cffd8e1900b4b889
Mount Batten
177
False
What does 'TAMARI OSTIA' mean?
56de67e0cffd8e1900b4b88a
mouth/estuaries of the Tamar
318
False
Upper Palaeolithic deposits, including bones of Homo sapiens, have been found in local caves, and artefacts dating from the Bronze Age to the Middle Iron Age have been found at Mount Batten showing that it was one of the main trading ports of the country at that time. An unidentified settlement named 'TAMARI OSTIA' (mouth/estuaries of the Tamar) is listed in Ptolemy's Geographia and is presumed to be located in the area of the modern city.
In what century were sailors obligated to relocate from Plympton due to silting?
56de68a54396321400ee289d
11th
150
False
What did Sutton mean in the Old English language?
56de68a54396321400ee289e
south town
313
False
In what year was the first written reference to Plymouth made?
56de68a54396321400ee289f
1211
433
False
During whose reign was the former town of Sutton referred to as Plymouth?
56de68a54396321400ee28a0
King Henry VI
506
False
What did 'Plym Mouth' mean?
56de68a54396321400ee28a1
mouth of the River Plym
370
False
The settlement of Plympton, further up the River Plym than the current Plymouth, was also an early trading port, but the river silted up in the early 11th century and forced the mariners and merchants to settle at the current day Barbican near the river mouth. At the time this village was called Sutton, meaning south town in Old English. The name Plym Mouth, meaning "mouth of the River Plym" was first mentioned in a Pipe Roll of 1211. The name Plymouth first officially replaced Sutton in a charter of King Henry VI in 1440. See Plympton for the derivation of the name Plym.
In what year during the Hundred Years' War did the French assault Plymouth?
56de69b2cffd8e1900b4b88e
1340
47
False
Who set fire to Plymouth in 1403?
56de69b2cffd8e1900b4b88f
Breton raiders
163
False
In what year was the fortification later known as Drake's Fort constructed?
56de69b2cffd8e1900b4b890
1596
1034
False
Before Plymouth dockyard was built, where was the fleet located?
56de69b2cffd8e1900b4b891
Sutton Pool
408
False
In what year did Parliament pass a notable law that led to the building of fortifications in Plymouth?
56de69b2cffd8e1900b4b892
1512
520
False
During the Hundred Years' War a French attack (1340) burned a manor house and took some prisoners, but failed to get into the town. In 1403 the town was burned by Breton raiders. In the late fifteenth century a 'castle quadrate' was constructed close to the area now known as The Barbican; it included four round towers, one at each corner, as featured on the city coat of arms. The castle served to protect Sutton Pool, which is where the fleet was based in Plymouth prior to the establishment of Plymouth Dockyard. In 1512 an Act of Parliament was passed for further fortifying Plymouth, and a series of fortifications were then built, including defensive walls at the entrance to Sutton Pool (across which a chain would be extended in time of danger). Defences on St Nicholas Island also date from this time, and a string of six artillery blockhouses were built, including one on Fishers Nose at the south-eastern corner of the Hoe. This location was further strengthened by the building of a fort (later known as Drake's Fort) in 1596, which itself went on to provide the site for the Citadel, established in the 1660s (see below).
What notable slave trader was based out of Plymouth?
56de6ac44396321400ee28b5
Sir John Hawkins
149
False
Who served as Plymouth's mayor in 1593?
56de6ac44396321400ee28b6
Sir Francis Drake
239
False
In what year did Drake battle the Spanish Armada?
56de6ac44396321400ee28b7
1588
411
False
When did the Pilgrim Fathers depart Plymouth?
56de6ac44396321400ee28b8
1620
420
False
What was the name of the settlement founded by the Pilgrim Fathers?
56de6ac44396321400ee28b9
Plymouth Colony
500
False
During the 16th century locally produced wool was the major export commodity. Plymouth was the home port for successful maritime traders, among them Sir John Hawkins, who led England's first foray into the Atlantic slave trade, as well as Sir Francis Drake, Mayor of Plymouth in 1581 and 1593. According to legend, Drake insisted on completing his game of bowls on the Hoe before engaging the Spanish Armada in 1588. In 1620 the Pilgrim Fathers set sail for the New World from Plymouth, establishing Plymouth Colony – the second English colony in what is now the United States of America.
Which faction did Plymouth support during the English Civil War?
56de6bdacffd8e1900b4b898
Parliamentarians
53
False
For how many years was Plymouth under siege during the English Civil War?
56de6bdacffd8e1900b4b899
four
98
False
Where did the last battle for Plymouth during the English Civil War end?
56de6bdacffd8e1900b4b89a
Freedom Fields Park
287
False
In what year did Charles II ascend to the throne?
56de6bdacffd8e1900b4b89b
1660
400
False
What locale was used to house imprisoned Parliamentarians after the restoration of Charles II?
56de6bdacffd8e1900b4b89c
Drake's Island
457
False
During the English Civil War Plymouth sided with the Parliamentarians and was besieged for almost four years by the Royalists. The last major attack by the Royalist was by Sir Richard Grenville leading thousands of soldiers towards Plymouth, but they were defeated by the Plymothians at Freedom Fields Park. The civil war ended as a Parliamentary win, but monarchy was restored by King Charles II in 1660, who imprisoned many of the Parliamentary heroes on Drake's Island. Construction of the Royal Citadel began in 1665, after the Restoration; it was armed with cannon facing both out to sea and into the town, rumoured to be a reminder to residents not to oppose the Crown. Mount Batten tower also dates from around this time.
During what century was Plymouth involved with the Atlantic slave trade?
56de6c80cffd8e1900b4b8a2
18th
357
False
In what century did Plymouth cease to be a vital trading port?
56de6c80cffd8e1900b4b8a3
17th
15
False
Throughout the 17th century Plymouth had gradually lost its pre-eminence as a trading port. By the mid-17th century commodities manufactured elsewhere in England cost too much to transport to Plymouth and the city had no means of processing sugar or tobacco imports, although it did play a relatively small part in the Atlantic slave trade during the early 18th century.
In what year was HMNB Davenport established?
56de6ceccffd8e1900b4b8a6
1690
84
False
What river was adjacent to HMNB Davenport?
56de6ceccffd8e1900b4b8a7
River Tamar
116
False
How many male workers were present in Plymouth Dock circa 1712?
56de6ceccffd8e1900b4b8a8
318
336
False
What was the 1733 population of Plymouth Dock?
56de6ceccffd8e1900b4b8a9
3,000
397
False
In what parish was HMNB Davenport located?
56de6ceccffd8e1900b4b8aa
Stoke Damerel
24
False
In the nearby parish of Stoke Damerel the first dockyard, HMNB Devonport, opened in 1690 on the eastern bank of the River Tamar. Further docks were built here in 1727, 1762 and 1793. The settlement that developed here was called "Dock" or "Plymouth Dock" at the time, and a new town, separate from Plymouth, grew up. In 1712 there were 318 men employed and by 1733 it had grown to a population of 3,000 people.
Along with coal and grain, what was the most important import in 18th century Plymouth?
56de6dafcffd8e1900b4b8b0
timber
51
False
What was the new name given to Plymouth Dock in 1824?
56de6dafcffd8e1900b4b8b1
Devonport
213
False
Along with Plymouth and Devonport, what settlement comprised the Three Towns?
56de6dafcffd8e1900b4b8b2
Stonehouse
327
False
What architect was noted for his neoclassical designs in Plymouth?
56de6dafcffd8e1900b4b8b3
John Foulston
515
False
On what street did many of the buildings designed by John Foulston reside?
56de6dafcffd8e1900b4b8b4
Union Street
733
False
Before the latter half of the 18th century, grain, timber and then coal were Plymouth's main imports. During this time the real source of wealth was from the neighbouring town of Plymouth Dock (renamed in 1824 to Devonport) and the major employer in the entire region was the dockyard. The Three Towns conurbation of Plymouth, Stonehouse and Devonport enjoyed some prosperity during the late 18th and early 19th century and were enriched by a series of neo-classical urban developments designed by London architect John Foulston. Foulston was important for both Devonport and Plymouth and was responsible for several grand public buildings, many now destroyed, including the Athenaeum, the Theatre Royal and Royal Hotel, and much of Union Street.
Who founded Plymouth Porcelain?
56de7a53cffd8e1900b4b960
William Cookworthy
14
False
In what year was Plymouth Porcelain founded?
56de7a53cffd8e1900b4b961
1768
100
False
What was William Cookworthy's profession?
56de7a53cffd8e1900b4b962
chemist
6
False
What was the name of the engineer involved in the construction of the Eddystone Lighthouse?
56de7a53cffd8e1900b4b963
John Smeaton
277
False
Local chemist William Cookworthy established his somewhat short-lived Plymouth Porcelain venture in 1768 to exploit the recently discovered deposits of local China Clay - an industry which continues to make up a portion of the city income. As an associate and host of engineer John Smeaton he was indirectly involved with the development of the Eddystone Lighthouse.
In kilometers, how long was the Plymouth Sound Breakwater?
56de7ab54396321400ee294f
2
17
False
Who was the designer of the Plymouth Sound Breakwater?
56de7ab54396321400ee2950
John Rennie
68
False
In what year did construction finish on the Plymouth Sound Breakwater?
56de7ab54396321400ee2951
1841
260
False
When did construction commence on Plymouth Sound Breakwater?
56de7ab54396321400ee2952
1812
158
False
Near which settlement were Palmerston forts built in the 1860s?
56de7ab54396321400ee2953
Devonport
131
False
The 1-mile-long (2 km) Breakwater in Plymouth Sound was designed by John Rennie in order to protect the fleet moving in and out of Devonport; work started in 1812. Numerous technical difficulties and repeated storm damage meant that it was not completed until 1841, twenty years after Rennie's death. In the 1860s, a ring of Palmerston forts was constructed around the outskirts of Devonport, to protect the dockyard from attack from any direction.
What animal byproduct was imported to Plymouth in the 19th century?
56de7b394396321400ee2959
guano
156
False
In what settlement were the dockyards located?
56de7b394396321400ee295a
Devonport
231
False
Some of the greatest imports to Plymouth from the Americas and Europe during the latter half of the 19th century included maize, wheat, barley, sugar cane, guano, sodium nitrate and phosphate Aside from the dockyard in the town of Devonport, industries in Plymouth such as the gasworks, the railways and tramways and a number of small chemical works had begun to develop in the 19th century, continuing into the 20th century.
What was the primary base of the Royal navy during World War I?
56de7bfdcffd8e1900b4b96c
Scapa Flow
227
False
What sorts of ships were based in Davenport?
56de7bfdcffd8e1900b4b96d
escort vessels
275
False
What location provided a base for flying boats?
56de7bfdcffd8e1900b4b96e
Mount Batten
330
False
During the First World War, Plymouth was the port of entry for many troops from around the Empire and also developed as a facility for the manufacture of munitions. Although major units of the Royal Navy moved to the safety of Scapa Flow, Devonport was an important base for escort vessels and repairs. Flying boats operated from Mount Batten.
What force used Sunderland flying boats out of Devonport?
56de7c7a4396321400ee295d
Royal Australian Air Force
145
False
What military organization was based in Devonport until 1941?
56de7c7a4396321400ee295e
Western Approaches Command
58
False
How many attacks comprised the Plymouth Blitz?
56de7c7a4396321400ee295f
59
297
False
How many civilian deaths occurred as a result of the Plymouth Blitz?
56de7c7a4396321400ee2960
more than 1,000
462
False
How many homes were totally destroyed in the Plymouth Blitz?
56de7c7a4396321400ee2961
over 3,700
414
False
In the First World War, Devonport was the headquarters of Western Approaches Command until 1941 and Sunderland flying boats were operated by the Royal Australian Air Force. It was an important embarkation point for US troops for D-Day. The city was heavily bombed by the Luftwaffe, in a series of 59 raids known as the Plymouth Blitz. Although the dockyards were the principal targets, much of the city centre and over 3,700 houses were completely destroyed and more than 1,000 civilians lost their lives. This was largely due to Plymouth's status as a major port Charles Church was hit by incendiary bombs and partially destroyed in 1941 during the Blitz, but has not been demolished, as it is now an official permanent monument to the bombing of Plymouth during World War II.
Who was the author of the 1943 Plan for Plymouth?
56de7cefcffd8e1900b4b984
Sir Patrick Abercrombie
45
False
In the period 1951-1957, how many new houses were constructed yearly in Plymouth?
56de7cefcffd8e1900b4b985
over 1000
190
False
In the postwar period to 1964, how many houses were built in Plymouth?
56de7cefcffd8e1900b4b986
over 20,000
312
False
When was the Civic Centre built?
56de7cefcffd8e1900b4b987
1962
610
False
What English Heritage status does the Civic Centre possess?
56de7cefcffd8e1900b4b988
grade II
850
False
The redevelopment of the city was planned by Sir Patrick Abercrombie in his 1943 Plan for Plymouth whilst simultaneously working on the reconstruction plan for London. Between 1951 and 1957 over 1000 homes were completed every year mostly using innovative prefabricated systems of just three main types; by 1964 over 20,000 new homes had been built transforming the dense overcrowded and unsanitary slums of the pre-war city into a low density, dispersed suburbia. Most of the city centre shops had been destroyed and those that remained were cleared to enable a zoned reconstruction according to his plan. In 1962 the modernist high rise of the Civic Centre was constructed, an architecturally significant example of mid twentieth century civic slab-and-tower set piece allowed to fall into disrepair by its owner Plymouth City Council but recently grade II listed by English Heritage to prevent its demolition.
What aircraft carrier received maintenance at Devonport Dockyard?
56de80f54396321400ee2983
Ark Royal
83
False
By what year was the greater part of the army presence in Plymouth gone?
56de80f54396321400ee2984
1971
308
False
What military unit is based in Plymouth?
56de80f54396321400ee2985
42 Commando of the Royal Marines
391
False
Post-war, Devonport Dockyard was kept busy refitting aircraft carriers such as the Ark Royal and, later, nuclear submarines while new light industrial factories were constructed in the newly zoned industrial sector attracting rapid growth of the urban population. The army had substantially left the city by 1971, with barracks pulled down in the 1960s, however the city remains home to the 42 Commando of the Royal Marines.
In what text was the presence of a settlement in the Plymouth area first recorded?
56de81824396321400ee2991
Domesday Book
73
False
In what year was the Domesday Book compiled?
56de81824396321400ee2992
1086
90
False
What was the name of the Plymouth-area settlement recorded in the Domesday Book?
56de81824396321400ee2993
Sudtone
98
False
In what year was Plymouth recognized as a town?
56de81824396321400ee2994
1254
223
False
In what year did Parliament bestow a Charter on Plymouth?
56de81824396321400ee2995
1439
262
False
The first record of the existence of a settlement at Plymouth was in the Domesday Book in 1086 as Sudtone, Saxon for south farm, located at the present day Barbican. From Saxon times, it was in the hundred of Roborough. In 1254 it gained status as a town and in 1439, became the first town in England to be granted a Charter by Parliament. Between 1439 and 1934, Plymouth had a Mayor. In 1914 the county boroughs of Plymouth and Devonport, and the urban district of East Stonehouse merged to form a single county borough of Plymouth. Collectively they were referred to as "The Three Towns".
Who was the first woman MP to take her seat in the British Parliament?
56df5a2b96943c1400a5d3f1
Nancy Astor
8
False
For what constituency was Nancy Astor elected?
56df5a2b96943c1400a5d3f2
Plymouth Sutton
150
False
On what date did Plymouth become a city?
56df5a2b96943c1400a5d3f3
18 October 1928
331
False
In what year did Plymouth receive its first Lord Mayor?
56df5a2b96943c1400a5d3f4
1935
393
False
What parish was incorporated into Plymouth in 1967?
56df5a2b96943c1400a5d3f5
Plymstock
492
False
In 1919 Nancy Astor was elected the first ever female member of parliament to take office in the British Houses of Parliament for the constituency of Plymouth Sutton. Taking over office from her husband Waldorf Astor, Lady Astor was a vibrantly active campaigner for her resident constituents . Plymouth was granted city status on 18 October 1928. The city's first Lord Mayor was appointed in 1935 and its boundaries further expanded in 1967 to include the town of Plympton and the parish of Plymstock.
What constituency did MP Michael Foot represent?
56df5a5596943c1400a5d3fb
Plymouth Devonport
91
False
What position was Michael Foot noted to occupy in government?
56df5a5596943c1400a5d3fc
Secretary of State for Education
131
False
What notable piece of legislation did Michael Foot contribute to?
56df5a5596943c1400a5d3fd
1974 Health and Safety at Work Act
188
False
What party did Michael Foot become a leader of?
56df5a5596943c1400a5d3fe
Labour
48
False
In what town was Michael Foot born?
56df5a5596943c1400a5d3ff
Plymouth
9
False
In 1945, Plymouth-born Michael Foot was elected Labour MP for the war-torn constituency of Plymouth Devonport and after serving as Secretary of State for Education and responsible for the 1974 Health and Safety at Work Act, went on to become one of the most distinguished leaders of the Labour party.
What was the population of Plymouth in 1971?
56df5a598bc80c19004e4af3
250,000
117
False
What document suggested that county boroughs be eliminated?
56df5a598bc80c19004e4af4
1971 Local Government White Paper
4
False
What county did Plymouth unsuccessfully attempt to see created?
56df5a598bc80c19004e4af5
Tamarside
281
False
On what date did Plymouth's county status end?
56df5a598bc80c19004e4af6
1 April 1974
444
False
What body proposed that Plymouth become a unitary council?
56df5a598bc80c19004e4af7
the Banham Commission
671
False
The 1971 Local Government White Paper proposed abolishing county boroughs, which would have left Plymouth, a town of 250,000 people, being administered from a council based at the smaller Exeter, on the other side of the county. This led to Plymouth lobbying for the creation of a Tamarside county, to include Plymouth, Torpoint, Saltash, and the rural hinterland. The campaign was not successful, and Plymouth ceased to be a county borough on 1 April 1974 with responsibility for education, social services, highways and libraries transferred to Devon County Council. All powers returned when the city become a unitary authority on 1 April 1998 under recommendations of the Banham Commission.
What European Parliamentary constitutency is Plymouth a part of?
56df5a5d96943c1400a5d406
South West England
205
False
Who was elected for the Sutton and Devonport constitutency in 2015?
56df5a5d96943c1400a5d407
Gary Streeter
354
False
As of 2015, what political party did all of Plymouth's MPs belong to?
56df5a5d96943c1400a5d408
Conservative
288
False
What parliamentary constitutency was represented by Johnny Mercer?
56df5a5d96943c1400a5d409
Moor View
105
False
In the Parliament of the United Kingdom, Plymouth is represented by the three constituencies of Plymouth Moor View, Plymouth Sutton and Devonport and South West Devon and within the European Parliament as South West England. In the 2015 general election all three constituencies returned Conservative MPs, who were Oliver Colvile (for Devon South West), Gary Streeter (for Sutton and Devonport) and Johnny Mercer for Moor View.
How many wards in Plymouth elect two councillors?
56df5a628bc80c19004e4afd
three
65
False
How many members are on the Plymouth council?
56df5a628bc80c19004e4afe
57
158
False
What fraction of the Plymouth council is elected each year?
56df5a628bc80c19004e4aff
a third
172
False
With what French city is Plymouth twinned?
56df5a628bc80c19004e4b00
Brest
619
False
In what year did Plymouth twin with Plymouth in the United States?
56df5a628bc80c19004e4b01
2001
749
False
The City of Plymouth is divided into 20 wards, 17 of which elect three councillors and the other three electing two councillors, making up a total council of 57. Each year a third of the council is up for election for three consecutive years – there are no elections on the following "fourth" year, which is when County Council elections take place. The total electorate for Plymouth was 188,924 in April 2015. The local election of 7 May 2015 resulted in a political composition of 28 Labour councillors, 26 Conservative and 3 UKIP resulting in a Labour administration. Plymouth City Council is formally twinned with: Brest, France (1963), Gdynia, Poland (1976), Novorossiysk, Russia (1990) San Sebastián, Spain (1990) and Plymouth, United States (2001).
What monarch bestowed the first Lord Mayor on Plymouth?
56df5e0896943c1400a5d444
King George V
50
False
How many councillors choose the Lord Mayor?
56df5e0896943c1400a5d445
six
121
False
What officeholder selects the Deputy Lord Mayor?
56df5e0896943c1400a5d446
the Lord Mayor
177
False
Who is the current Lord Mayor of Plymouth?
56df5e0896943c1400a5d447
Dr John Mahony
343
False
Plymouth was granted the dignity of Lord Mayor by King George V in 1935. The position is elected each year by a group of six councillors. It is traditional that the position of the Lord Mayor alternates between the Conservative Party and the Labour Party annually and that the Lord Mayor chooses the Deputy Lord Mayor. Conservative councillor Dr John Mahony is the incumbent for 2015–16.
At what street address is the Lord Mayor's residence located?
56df5e858bc80c19004e4b3d
3 Elliot Terrace
39
False
Who gave the Lord Mayor's official residence to Plymouth?
56df5e858bc80c19004e4b3e
Lady Astor
133
False
On what street is the Civic Centre office building located?
56df5e858bc80c19004e4b3f
Armada Way
420
False
In what month and year did the Civic Centre municipal office building become a listed building?
56df5e858bc80c19004e4b40
June 2007
459
False
What did Plymouth council estimate the cost to refurbish the Civic Centre municipal office building to be?
56df5e858bc80c19004e4b41
£40m
628
False
The Lord Mayor's official residence is 3 Elliot Terrace, located on the Hoe. Once a home of Waldorf and Nancy Astor, it was given by Lady Astor to the City of Plymouth as an official residence for future Lord Mayors and is also used today for civic hospitality, as lodgings for visiting dignitaries and High Court judges and it is also available to hire for private events. The Civic Centre municipal office building in Armada Way became a listed building in June 2007 because of its quality and period features, but has become the centre of a controversy as the council planned for its demolition estimating that it could cost £40m to refurbish it, resulting in possible job losses.
What river is to the west of Plymouth?
56df5f6196943c1400a5d457
River Tamar
57
False
To the east of Plymouth lies which river?
56df5f6196943c1400a5d458
River Plym
26
False
The River Tamar is the boundary between Devon and what other county?
56df5f6196943c1400a5d459
Cornwall
361
False
In what body of water do the rivers Plym and Tamar meet?
56df5f6196943c1400a5d45a
Plymouth Sound
127
False
When did Plymstock join the unitary authority of Plymouth?
56df5f6196943c1400a5d45b
1967
149
False
Plymouth lies between the River Plym to the east and the River Tamar to the west; both rivers flow into the natural harbour of Plymouth Sound. Since 1967, the unitary authority of Plymouth has included the, once independent, towns of Plympton and Plymstock which lie along the east of the River Plym. The River Tamar forms the county boundary between Devon and Cornwall and its estuary forms the Hamoaze on which is sited Devonport Dockyard.
What estuary east of Plymouth is part of the River Plym?
56df5fcc96943c1400a5d46b
Cattewater
115
False
When did the Plymouth Breakwater open?
56df5fcc96943c1400a5d46c
1814
209
False
What island is present in Plymouth Sound?
56df5fcc96943c1400a5d46d
Drake's Island
231
False
How large is the Unitary Authority of Plymouth in square miles?
56df5fcc96943c1400a5d46e
30.83
388
False
In meters, what is the highest point in the Plymouth Unitary Authority?
56df5fcc96943c1400a5d46f
155
484
False
The River Plym, which flows off Dartmoor to the north-east, forms a smaller estuary to the east of the city called Cattewater. Plymouth Sound is protected from the sea by the Plymouth Breakwater, in use since 1814. In the Sound is Drake's Island which is seen from Plymouth Hoe, a flat public area on top of limestone cliffs. The Unitary Authority of Plymouth is 79.84 square kilometres (30.83 sq mi). The topography rises from sea level to a height, at Roborough, of about 509 feet (155 m) above Ordnance Datum (AOD).
What special designation does Plymouth Sound, Shores and Cliffs possess?
56df60978bc80c19004e4b55
Site of Special Scientific Interest
145
False
What stones form the headlands near Plymouth Sound?
56df60978bc80c19004e4b56
Lower Devonian slates
340
False
Along with Devonian slate, Middle Devonian limestone and limestone, what stone provides the geologic base of Plymouth?
56df60978bc80c19004e4b57
granite
67
False
Along with shales, what is most of the city built on?
56df60978bc80c19004e4b58
Upper Devonian slates
241
False
For what reason is Plymouth Sound a Site of Special Scientific Interest?
56df60978bc80c19004e4b59
its geology
193
False
Geologically, Plymouth has a mixture of limestone, Devonian slate, granite and Middle Devonian limestone. Plymouth Sound, Shores and Cliffs is a Site of Special Scientific Interest, because of its geology. The bulk of the city is built upon Upper Devonian slates and shales and the headlands at the entrance to Plymouth Sound are formed of Lower Devonian slates, which can withstand the power of the sea.
Middle Devonian limestone exists between Plymstock and what location?
56df612c96943c1400a5d47f
Cremyll
59
False
What location north of the city possesses granite?
56df612c96943c1400a5d480
Dartmoor
254
False
What river was used to ferry granite from Dartmoor to Plymouth?
56df612c96943c1400a5d481
Tamar
336
False
Along with West Hoe and Radford, where was Middle Devonian limestone quarried in the region?
56df612c96943c1400a5d482
Cattedown
559
False
What local stone was used in the construction of many Plymouth buildings?
56df612c96943c1400a5d483
limestone
26
False
A band of Middle Devonian limestone runs west to east from Cremyll to Plymstock including the Hoe. Local limestone may be seen in numerous buildings, walls and pavements throughout Plymouth. To the north and north east of the city is the granite mass of Dartmoor; the granite was mined and exported via Plymouth. Rocks brought down the Tamar from Dartmoor include ores containing tin, copper, tungsten, lead and other minerals. There is evidence that the middle Devonian limestone belt at the south edge of Plymouth and in Plymstock was quarried at West Hoe, Cattedown and Radford.
On what date was the publication of the Plan for Plymouth?
56df61a08bc80c19004e4b77
27 April 1944
3
False
Who wrote the Plan for Plymouth?
56df61a08bc80c19004e4b78
Sir Patrick Abercrombie
17
False
What street was intended to connect Plymouth Hoe to the railroad station?
56df61a08bc80c19004e4b79
Armada Way
315
False
Who headed the team that created the 'Vision for Plymouth'?
56df61a08bc80c19004e4b7a
David MacKay
722
False
How many parks exist in Plymouth?
56df61a08bc80c19004e4b7b
28
1208
False
On 27 April 1944 Sir Patrick Abercrombie's Plan for Plymouth to rebuild the bomb-damaged city was published; it called for demolition of the few remaining pre-War buildings in the city centre to make way for their replacement with wide, parallel, modern boulevards aligned east–west linked by a north–south avenue (Armada Way) linking the railway station with the vista of Plymouth Hoe. A peripheral road system connecting the historic Barbican on the east and Union Street to the west determines the principal form of the city centre, even following pedestrianisation of the shopping centre in the late 1980s, and continues to inform the present 'Vision for Plymouth' developed by a team led by Barcelona-based architect David MacKay in 2003 which calls for revivification of the city centre with mixed-use and residential. In suburban areas, post-War prefabs had already begun to appear by 1946, and over 1,000 permanent council houses were built each year from 1951–57 according to the Modernist zoned low-density garden city model advocated by Abercrombie. By 1964 over 20,000 new homes had been built, more than 13,500 of them permanent council homes and 853 built by the Admiralty. Plymouth is home to 28 parks with an average size of 45,638 square metres (491,240 sq ft). Its largest park is Central Park, with other sizeable green spaces including Victoria Park, Freedom Fields Park, Alexandra Park, Devonport Park and the Hoe.
What Köppen climate classification does Plymouth possess?
56df623596943c1400a5d491
temperate oceanic
58
False
In degrees Fahrenheit, what is Plymouth's annual mean temperature?
56df623596943c1400a5d492
52
267
False
What month in Plymouth has the lowest temperatures?
56df623596943c1400a5d493
February
503
False
Up to how many centimeters of snow fell on Plymouth between 17 and 19 December 2010?
56df623596943c1400a5d494
20
719
False
Along with August, what is typically the hottest month in Plymouth?
56df623596943c1400a5d495
July
1122
False
Along with the rest of South West England, Plymouth has a temperate oceanic climate (Köppen Cfb) which is generally wetter and milder than the rest of England. This means a wide range of exotic plants can be grown. The annual mean temperature is approximately 11 °C (52 °F). Due to the modifying effect of the sea the seasonal range is less than in most other parts of the UK. As a result of this summer highs are lower than its southerly latitude should warrant, but as a contrast the coldest month of February has mean minimum temperatures as mild as between 3 and 4 °C (37 and 39 °F). Snow is rare, not usually equating to more than a few flakes, but there have been exclusions, namely the European winter storms of 2009-10 which, in early January, covered Plymouth in at least 1 inch (2.5 cm) of snow; more on higher ground. Another period of notable snow occurred from 17–19 December 2010 when up to 8 inches (20 cm) of snow fell through the period – though only 2 inches (5.1 cm) would lie at any one time due to melt. Over the 1961–1990 period, annual snowfall accumulation averaged less than 7 cm (3 in) per year. July and August are the warmest months with mean daily maxima over 19 °C (66 °F).
Along with convection, what provokes rain in the Plymouth area?
56df631296943c1400a5d4a9
Atlantic depressions
37
False
Along with winter, in what season are Atlantic depressions most prevalent?
56df631296943c1400a5d4aa
autumn
124
False
About how many inches of rain fall on Plymouth every year?
56df631296943c1400a5d4ab
39
282
False
Along with March, what month has the fastest winds on average?
56df631296943c1400a5d4ac
November
290
False
From what direction do most of the winds blow on Plymouth?
56df631296943c1400a5d4ad
south-west
199
False
Rainfall tends to be associated with Atlantic depressions or with convection. The Atlantic depressions are more vigorous in autumn and winter and most of the rain which falls in those seasons in the south-west is from this source. Average annual rainfall is around 980 millimetres (39 in). November to March have the highest mean wind speeds, with June to August having the lightest winds. The predominant wind direction is from the south-west.
How many hours of sunshine does the South West England region get each year?
56df638996943c1400a5d4b3
over 1,600
192
False
What region of England benefits from the extension of the Azores High pressure area?
56df638996943c1400a5d4b4
South West England
0
False
South West England has a favoured location when the Azores High pressure area extends north-eastwards towards the UK, particularly in summer. Coastal areas have average annual sunshine totals over 1,600 hours.
In degrees Fahrenheit, what was the highest temperature achieved in Plymouth between 1971 and 2000?
56df640296943c1400a5d4c3
89
153
False
In what month and year did Plymouth see its highest temperature between 1971 and 2000?
56df640396943c1400a5d4c4
June 1976
110
False
About how many days a year in Plymouth are over 77 °F?
56df640396943c1400a5d4c5
4.25
190
False
In degrees Celsius, what was the coldest temperature recorded at Plymouth between 1971 and 2000?
56df640396943c1400a5d4c6
−8.8 °C
417
False
In what month and year did Plymouth see its lowest temperature between 1971 and 2000?
56df640396943c1400a5d4c7
January 1979
380
False
Typically, the warmest day of the year (1971–2000) will achieve a temperature of 26.6 °C (80 °F), although in June 1976 the temperature reached 31.6 °C (89 °F), the site record. On average, 4.25 days of the year will report a maximum temperature of 25.1 °C (77 °F) or above. During the winter half of the year, the coldest night will typically fall to −4.1 °C (25 °F) although in January 1979 the temperature fell to −8.8 °C (16 °F). Typically, 18.6 nights of the year will register an air frost.
How many students are studying at the University of Plymouth?
56df64688bc80c19004e4ba9
25,895
35
False
Where does the University of Plymouth rank among British institutions of higher education in terms of number of enrolled students?
56df64688bc80c19004e4baa
22nd
72
False
How many staff members work for the University of Plymouth?
56df64688bc80c19004e4bab
3,000
124
False
About how much are the staff of the University of Plymouth paid yearly in total?
56df64688bc80c19004e4bac
£160 million
168
False
In what year was the University of Plymouth established?
56df64688bc80c19004e4bad
1992
200
False
The University of Plymouth enrolls 25,895 total students as of 2014/15 (22nd largest in the UK out of 165). It also employs 3,000 staff with an annual income of around £160 million. It was founded in 1992 from Polytechnic South West (formerly Plymouth Polytechnic) following the Further and Higher Education Act 1992. It has courses in maritime business, marine engineering, marine biology and Earth, ocean and environmental sciences, surf science, shipping and logistics. The university formed a joint venture with the fellow Devonian University of Exeter in 2000, establishing the Peninsula College of Medicine and Dentistry. The college is ranked 8th out of 30 universities in the UK in 2011 for medicine. Its dental school was established in 2006, which also provides free dental care in an attempt to improve access to dental care in the South West.
What institution of higher  education is colloquially known as Marjons?
56df64a68bc80c19004e4bb3
The University of St Mark & St John
0
False
What is the academic specialty of the University of St Mark & St John?
56df64a68bc80c19004e4bb4
teacher training
84
False
The University of St Mark & St John (known as "Marjon" or "Marjons") specialises in teacher training, and offers training across the country and abroad.
Along with City College Plymouth, what college calls Plymouth home?
56df650f8bc80c19004e4bbd
Plymouth College of Art
165
False
About how many students are enrolled at City College Plymouth?
56df650f8bc80c19004e4bbe
26,000
148
False
How many years ago was Plymouth College of Art founded?
56df650f8bc80c19004e4bbf
153
251
False
How many independent art colleges exist in the United Kingdom?
56df650f8bc80c19004e4bc0
four
288
False
How many large colleges exist in Plymouth?
56df650f8bc80c19004e4bc1
two
25
False
The city is also home to two large colleges. The City College Plymouth provides courses from the most basic to Foundation degrees for approximately 26,000 students. Plymouth College of Art offers a selection of courses including media. It was started 153 years ago and is now one of only four independent colleges of art and design in the UK.
How many state primary schools are in Plymouth?
56df65778bc80c19004e4bc7
71
18
False
Plymouth has how many state secondary schools?
56df65778bc80c19004e4bc8
13
50
False
How many state grammar schools are based in Plymouth?
56df65778bc80c19004e4bc9
three
104
False
What is the name of the independent school in Plymouth?
56df65778bc80c19004e4bca
Plymouth College
279
False
Aside from Plymouth High School for Girls and Devonport High School for Boys, what state grammar school is present in Plymouth?
56df65778bc80c19004e4bcb
Devonport High School for Girls
143
False
Plymouth also has 71 state primary phase schools, 13 state secondary schools, eight special schools and three selective state grammar schools, Devonport High School for Girls, Devonport High School for Boys and Plymouth High School for Girls. There is also an independent school Plymouth College.
What maritime institution of higher education existed in Plymouth as of 1880?
56df660896943c1400a5d4d7
the Royal Naval Engineering College
26
False
When did the Royal Naval Engineering College shut its doors in Plymouth?
56df660896943c1400a5d4d8
1910
232
False
What was the Royal Naval Engineering College renamed in 1959?
56df660896943c1400a5d4d9
Dockyard Technical College
300
False
In what year did the Dockyard Technical College close?
56df660896943c1400a5d4da
1994
361
False
After the Dockyard Technical College closed, where were classes relocated to?
56df660896943c1400a5d4db
University of Southampton
399
False
The city was also home to the Royal Naval Engineering College; opened in 1880 in Keyham, it trained engineering students for five years before they completed the remaining two years of the course at Greenwich. The college closed in 1910, but in 1940 a new college opened at Manadon. This was renamed Dockyard Technical College in 1959 before finally closing in 1994; training was transferred to the University of Southampton.
What organization known as the MBA is based in Plymouth?
56df6adb5ca0a614008f99e1
Marine Biological Association
24
False
What Plymouth organization is named for Sir Alister Hardy?
56df6adb5ca0a614008f99e2
Sir Alister Hardy Foundation for Ocean Sciences
249
False
What marine facility is attached to the University of Plymouth?
56df6adb5ca0a614008f99e3
Marine Institute
320
False
What group are many of Plymouth's marine organizations a part of?
56df6adb5ca0a614008f99e4
Plymouth Marine Sciences Partnership
422
False
What is the name of the aquarium present in Plymouth?
56df6adb5ca0a614008f99e5
National Marine Aquarium
219
False
Plymouth is home to the Marine Biological Association of the United Kingdom (MBA) which conducts research in all areas of the marine sciences. The Plymouth Marine Laboratory is an offshoot of the MBA. Together with the National Marine Aquarium, the Sir Alister Hardy Foundation for Ocean Sciences, Plymouth University's Marine Institute and the Diving Diseases Research Centre, these marine-related organisations form the Plymouth Marine Sciences Partnership. The Plymouth Marine Laboratory, which focuses on global issues of climate change and sustainability. It monitors the effects of ocean acidity on corals and shellfish and reports the results to the UK government. It also cultivates algae that could be used to make biofuels or in the treatment of waste water by using technology such as photo-bioreactors. It works alongside the Boots Group to investigate the use of algae in skin care protects, taking advantage of the chemicals they contain that adapt to protect themselves from the sun.
What was the population of Plymouth unitary authority circa 2011?
56df6b6d5ca0a614008f99f5
256,384
121
False
What was the population of Plymouth unitary authority circa 2001?
56df6b6d5ca0a614008f99f6
240,720
239
False
How many people did the Plymouth unitary authority gain between 2001 and 2011?
56df6b6d5ca0a614008f99f7
15,664
130
False
What was the average number of people in a Plymouth household?
56df6b6d5ca0a614008f99f8
2.3
415
False
What percentage of Plymouth residents in 2011 were of Chinese ancestry?
56df6b6d5ca0a614008f99f9
0.5
613
False
From the 2011 Census, the Office for National Statistics published that Plymouth's unitary authority area population was 256,384; 15,664 more people than that of the last census from 2001, which indicated that Plymouth had a population of 240,720. The Plymouth urban area had a population of 260,203 in 2011 (the urban sprawl which extends outside the authority's boundaries). The city's average household size was 2.3 persons. At the time of the 2011 UK census, the ethnic composition of Plymouth's population was 96.2% White (of 92.9% was White British), with the largest minority ethnic group being Chinese at 0.5%. The white Irish ethnic group saw the largest decline in its share of the population since the 2001 Census (-24%), while the Other Asian and Black African had the largest increases (360% and 351% respectively). This excludes the two new ethnic groups added to the 2011 census of Gypsy or Irish Traveller and Arab. The population rose rapidly during the second half of the 19th century, but declined by over 1.6% from 1931 to 1951.
What percentage of Devon's GVA does Plymouth comprise in 2013?
56df6bc656340a1900b29aec
25%
108
False
What was Plymouth's 2013 GVA in millions of British Pounds?
56df6bc656340a1900b29aed
5,169
72
False
What was Plymouth' per capita GVA in 2013?
56df6bc656340a1900b29aee
£19,943
151
False
What was the United Kingdom's average per capita GVA in 2013?
56df6bc656340a1900b29aef
£23,755
199
False
What percentage of Plymouth residents were unemployed in 2014?
56df6bc656340a1900b29af0
7.0%
259
False
Plymouth's gross value added (a measure of the size of its economy) was 5,169 million GBP in 2013 making up 25% of Devon's GVA. Its GVA per person was £19,943 and compared to the national average of £23,755, was £3,812 lower. Plymouth's unemployment rate was 7.0% in 2014 which was 2.0 points higher than the South West average and 0.8 points higher than the average for Great Britain (England, Wales and Scotland).
What percentage of Plymouth residents were suffering from poverty and deprivation in 2014?
56df6c5a56340a1900b29af6
26.2%
121
False
As of 2014, what was the life expectancy of male Plymouth residents?
56df6c5a56340a1900b29af7
78.3 years
198
False
As of 2014, what was the life expectancy of female Plymouth residents?
56df6c5a56340a1900b29af8
82.1
221
False
Where did Plymouth's life expectancy rank out of the regions of South West England?
56df6c5a56340a1900b29af9
lowest
245
False
A 2014 profile by the National Health Service showed Plymouth had higher than average levels of poverty and deprivation (26.2% of population among the poorest 20.4% nationally). Life expectancy, at 78.3 years for men and 82.1 for women, was the lowest of any region in the South West of England.
How many Plymouth residents are employed in defense?
56df6cb85ca0a614008f9a03
12,000
133
False
About how many Plymouth residents are serving in the military?
56df6cb85ca0a614008f9a04
7,500
174
False
When was Plymouth Gin first distilled?
56df6cb85ca0a614008f9a05
1793
267
False
What company produces Plymouth Gin?
56df6cb85ca0a614008f9a06
Plymouth Gin Distillery
205
False
During what decade was Plymouth Gin the most widely consumed in the world?
56df6cb85ca0a614008f9a07
the 1930s
335
False
Because of its coastal location, the economy of Plymouth has traditionally been maritime, in particular the defence sector with over 12,000 people employed and approximately 7,500 in the armed forces. The Plymouth Gin Distillery has been producing Plymouth Gin since 1793, which was exported around the world by the Royal Navy. During the 1930s, it was the most widely distributed gin and has a controlled term of origin. Since the 1980s, employment in the defence sector has decreased substantially and the public sector is now prominent particularly in administration, health, education, medicine and engineering.
About what percentage of Plymouth's income comes from the Dockyard?
56df6d0556340a1900b29b06
10%
135
False
What Royal Navy base is present in Plymouth?
56df6d0556340a1900b29b07
Devonport Dockyard
0
False
How many maritime businesses operate in Plymouth?
56df6d0556340a1900b29b08
270
251
False
How many people work in Tamar Science Park?
56df6d0556340a1900b29b09
500
410
False
What is a notable company based in Plymouth?
56df6d0556340a1900b29b0a
Hemsley Fraser
520
False
Devonport Dockyard is the UK's only naval base that refits nuclear submarines and the Navy estimates that the Dockyard generates about 10% of Plymouth's income. Plymouth has the largest cluster of marine and maritime businesses in the south west with 270 firms operating within the sector. Other substantial employers include the university with almost 3,000 staff, as well as the Tamar Science Park employing 500 people in 50 companies. Several employers have chosen to locate their headquarters in Plymouth, including Hemsley Fraser.
What notable shop is located in a grade II listed building?
56df6d765ca0a614008f9a0d
Pannier Market
162
False
In what year was Pannier Market finished?
56df6d765ca0a614008f9a0e
1959
199
False
What is Plymouth's national rank in retail floorspace?
56df6d765ca0a614008f9a0f
29th
370
False
What notable location was named a grade II listed building in 1998?
56df6d765ca0a614008f9a10
Tinside Pool
499
False
What was the cost to restore Tinside Pool?
56df6d765ca0a614008f9a11
£3.4 million
637
False
Plymouth has a post-war shopping area in the city centre with substantial pedestrianisation. At the west end of the zone inside a grade II listed building is the Pannier Market that was completed in 1959 – pannier meaning "basket" from French, so it translates as "basket market". In terms of retail floorspace, Plymouth is ranked in the top five in the South West, and 29th nationally. Plymouth was one of the first ten British cities to trial the new Business Improvement District initiative. The Tinside Pool is situated at the foot of the Hoe and became a grade II listed building in 1998 before being restored to its 1930s look for £3.4 million.
What is the name of Plymouth Council's urban redevelopment project?
56df6dc656340a1900b29b18
"Vision for Plymouth"
86
False
What architect is in charge of the ""Vision for Plymouth"?
56df6dc656340a1900b29b19
David Mackay
134
False
Along with Plymouth Council, what body supports the "Vision for Plymouth"?
56df6dc656340a1900b29b1a
the Plymouth Chamber of Commerce
192
False
What is the population goal of the "Vision for Plymouth"?
56df6dc656340a1900b29b1b
300,000
339
False
How many residences does the "Vision for Plymouth" seek to build?
56df6dc656340a1900b29b1c
33,000
357
False
Plymouth Council is currently undertaking a project of urban redevelopment called the "Vision for Plymouth" launched by the architect David Mackay and backed by both Plymouth City Council and the Plymouth Chamber of Commerce (PCC). Its projects range from shopping centres, a cruise terminal, a boulevard and to increase the population to 300,000 and build 33,000 dwellings.
When was the Charles Cross car park removed?
56df6e3756340a1900b29b22
2004
3
False
In what month and year was the grand opening of Drake Circus Shopping Centre?
56df6e3756340a1900b29b23
October 2006
161
False
Where was TR2 built?
56df6e3756340a1900b29b24
Cattedown
386
False
What prize did TR2 almost win?
56df6e3756340a1900b29b25
the RIBA Stirling Prize for Architecture in 2003
417
False
Who spoke disparagingly about the Drake Circus Shopping Centre?
56df6e3756340a1900b29b26
David Mackay
225
False
In 2004 the old Drake Circus shopping centre and Charles Cross car park were demolished and replaced by the latest Drake Circus Shopping Centre, which opened in October 2006. It received negative feedback before opening when David Mackay said it was already "ten years out of date". In contrast, the Theatre Royal's production and education centre, TR2, which was built on wasteland at Cattedown, was a runner-up for the RIBA Stirling Prize for Architecture in 2003.
What location is proposed for the future home of the Plymouth City Council headquarters?
56df6e9556340a1900b29b30
the Bretonside bus station
137
False
To connect Millbay to the city centre, what would need to be destroyed?
56df6e9556340a1900b29b31
the Plymouth Pavilions entertainment arena
372
False
What city region is located near a ferry terminal?
56df6e9556340a1900b29b32
Millbay
453
False
There is a project involving the future relocation of Plymouth City Council's headquarters, the civic centre, to the current location of the Bretonside bus station; it would involve both the bus station and civic centre being demolished and a rebuilt together at the location with the land from the civic centre being sold off. Other suggestions include the demolition of the Plymouth Pavilions entertainment arena to create a canal "boulevard" linking Millbay to the city centre. Millbay is being regenerated with mixed residential, retail and office space alongside the ferry port.
What is the A38 called inside the city of Plymouth?
56df6fe956340a1900b29b48
The Parkway
115
False
In miles, about how far away from Plymouth does the A38 connect to the M5?
56df6fe956340a1900b29b49
40
298
False
What bridge connects Cornwall to Plymouth via the A38?
56df6fe956340a1900b29b4a
Tamar Bridge
389
False
What park and ride service is located at George Junction?
56df6fe956340a1900b29b4b
Plymouth City Airport
595
False
Who operates Milehouse park and ride?
56df6fe956340a1900b29b4c
First South West
458
False
The A38 dual-carriageway runs from east to west across the north of the city. Within the city it is designated as 'The Parkway' and represents the boundary between the urban parts of the city and the generally more recent suburban areas. Heading east, it connects Plymouth to the M5 motorway about 40 miles (65 km) away near Exeter; and heading west it connects Cornwall and Devon via the Tamar Bridge. Regular bus services are provided by Plymouth Citybus, First South West and Target Travel. There are three Park and ride services located at Milehouse, Coypool (Plympton) and George Junction (Plymouth City Airport), which are operated by First South West.
Who operates the ferry to Spain?
56df705556340a1900b29b5a
Brittany Ferries
50
False
Where does the ferry to France terminate?
56df705556340a1900b29b5b
Roscoff
141
False
Along with MV Bretagne and MV Pont-Aven, what ferry operates between Plymouth and the continent?
56df705556340a1900b29b5c
MV Armorique
194
False
A passenger ferry operates between Cremyll and what location?
56df705556340a1900b29b5d
Stonehouse
273
False
When did the Cremyll-Stonehouse ferry first operate?
56df705556340a1900b29b5e
1204
373
False
A regular international ferry service provided by Brittany Ferries operates from Millbay taking cars and foot passengers directly to France (Roscoff) and Spain (Santander) on the three ferries, MV Armorique, MV Bretagne and MV Pont-Aven. There is a passenger ferry between Stonehouse and the Cornish hamlet of Cremyll, which is believed to have operated continuously since 1204. There is also a pedestrian ferry from the Mayflower Steps to Mount Batten, and an alternative to using the Tamar Bridge via the Torpoint Ferry (vehicle and pedestrian) across the River Tamar.
What local airport closed in 2011?
56df70c65ca0a614008f9a41
Plymouth City Airport
23
False
In kilometers, how far away from the Plymouth city center was Plymouth City Airport?
56df70c65ca0a614008f9a42
6
60
False
By what year is the city airport planned to reopen?
56df70c65ca0a614008f9a44
2018
739
False
Who intends to reopen the Plymouth City Airport?
56df70c65ca0a614008f9a45
FlyPlymouth
691
False
The city's airport was Plymouth City Airport about 4 miles (6 km) north of the city centre. The airport was home to the local airline Air Southwest, which operated flights across the United Kingdom and Ireland. In June 2003, a report by the South West RDA was published looking at the future of aviation in the south-west and the possible closure of airports. It concluded that the best option for the south-west was to close Plymouth City Airport and expand Exeter International Airport and Newquay Cornwall Airport, although it did conclude that this was not the best option for Plymouth. In April 2011, it was announced that the airport would close, which it did on 23 December. However, FlyPlymouth plans to reopen the city airport by 2018, which will provide daily services to various destinations including London.
When did Plymouth's railroad station open for service?
56df712e5ca0a614008f9a4f
1877
42
False
Who runs Plymouth's railroad station?
56df712e5ca0a614008f9a50
Great Western Railway
62
False
Along with the Tamar Valley Line, what local train service operates in Plymouth?
56df712e5ca0a614008f9a51
Cornish Main Line
207
False
How many regional MPs have argued for the importance of Plymouth's train service?
56df712e5ca0a614008f9a52
three
386
False
Trains from what network sometimes operate out of Plymouth's railroad station?
56df712e5ca0a614008f9a53
CrossCountry
112
False
Plymouth railway station, which opened in 1877, is managed by Great Western Railway and also sees trains on the CrossCountry network. Smaller stations are served by local trains on the Tamar Valley Line and Cornish Main Line. First Great Western have come under fire recently, due to widespread rail service cuts across the south-west, which affect Plymouth greatly. Three MPs from the three main political parties in the region have lobbied that the train services are vital to its economy.
On what date was the Dawlish sea wall damaged?
56df71d05ca0a614008f9a59
4 February 2014
279
False
In feet, how much of the Dawlish sea wall was destroyed?
56df71d05ca0a614008f9a5a
130
414
False
After the Dawlish sea wall was damaged, on what date did the line reopen?
56df71d05ca0a614008f9a5b
4 April 2014
566
False
In what month and year did storms affect the coastal line near Dawlish?
56df71d05ca0a614008f9a5c
February 2014
281
False
The Exeter to Plymouth railway of the LSWR needs to be reopened to connect Cornwall and Plymouth to the rest of the UK railway system on an all weather basis. There are proposals to reopen the line from Tavistock to Bere Alston for a through service to Plymouth. On the night of 4 February 2014, amid high winds and extremely rough seas, part of the sea wall at Dawlish was breached washing away around 40 metres (130 ft) of the wall and the ballast under the railway immediately behind. The line was closed. Network Rail began repair work  and the line reopened on 4 April 2014. In the wake of widespread disruption caused by damage to the mainline track at Dawlish by coastal storms in February 2014, Network Rail are considering reopening the Tavistock to Okehampton and Exeter section of the line as an alternative to the coastal route.
How many churches are present in Plymouth?
56df72255ca0a614008f9a6b
150
19
False
In what year was Plymouth's Catholic cathedral built?
56df72255ca0a614008f9a6c
1858
66
False
What is the name of the oldest church in Plymouth?
56df72255ca0a614008f9a6d
St Andrew's
118
False
What denomination does the oldest church in Plymouth belong to?
56df72255ca0a614008f9a6e
Anglican
131
False
How many Methodist houses of worship exist in Plymouth?
56df72255ca0a614008f9a6f
over twenty
310
False
Plymouth has about 150 churches and its Roman Catholic cathedral (1858) is in Stonehouse. The city's oldest church is St Andrew's (Anglican) located at the top of Royal Parade—it is the largest parish church in Devon and has been a site of gathering since AD 800. The city also includes five Baptist churches, over twenty Methodist chapels, and thirteen Roman Catholic churches. In 1831 the first Brethren assembly in England, a movement of conservative non-denominational Evangelical Christians, was established in the city, so that Brethren are often called Plymouth Brethren, although the movement did not begin locally.
What Plymouth Jew was mentioned by Sir Francis Drake?
56df72a456340a1900b29b82
Moses
137
False
In what year was Plymouth Synagogue constructed?
56df72a456340a1900b29b83
1762
239
False
What is Plymouth Synagogue's listed grade?
56df72a456340a1900b29b84
Grade II*
210
False
What community of Jews was Plymouth Synagogue built by?
56df72a456340a1900b29b85
Ashkenazi
262
False
Plymouth has the first known reference to Jews in the South West from Sir Francis Drake's voyages in 1577 to 1580, as his log mentioned "Moses the Jew" – a man from Plymouth. The Plymouth Synagogue is a Listed Grade II* building, built in 1762 and is the oldest Ashkenazi Synagogue in the English speaking world. There are also places of worship for Islam, Bahá'í, Buddhism, Unitarianism, Chinese beliefs and Humanism.
What percentage of Plymouth's population call themselves Christian?
56df730c5ca0a614008f9a7f
58.1%
0
False
What percentage of Plymouth residents follow Islam?
56df730c5ca0a614008f9a80
0.8%
113
False
What percentage of Plymouth consists of non-religious people?
56df730c5ca0a614008f9a81
32.9%
233
False
What percentage of people in the United Kingdom describe themselves as non-religious?
56df730c5ca0a614008f9a82
24.7%
270
False
What was the percentage decline in Jewish residents of Plymouth between 2001 and 2011?
56df730c5ca0a614008f9a83
7%
273
False
58.1% of the population described themselves in the 2011 census return as being at least nominally Christian and 0.8% as Muslim with all other religions represented by less than 0.5% each. The portion of people without a religion is 32.9%; above the national average of 24.7%. 7.1% did not state their religious belief. Since the 2001 Census, the number of Christians and Jews has decreased (-16% and -7% respectively), while all other religions have increased and non-religious people have almost doubled in number.
In what year was Union Street constructed?
56df736f5ca0a614008f9a8f
1815
9
False
Who performed at the New Palace Theatre in the 1930s?
56df736f5ca0a614008f9a90
Charlie Chaplin
283
False
How many pubs existed on Union Street in the 1930s?
56df736f5ca0a614008f9a91
30s
223
False
What group famously enjoyed themselves on Union Street?
56df736f5ca0a614008f9a92
sailors from the Royal Navy
143
False
Built in 1815, Union Street was at the heart of Plymouth's historical culture. It became known as the servicemen's playground, as it was where sailors from the Royal Navy would seek entertainment of all kinds. During the 1930s, there were 30 pubs and it attracted such performers as Charlie Chaplin to the New Palace Theatre. It is now the late-night hub of Plymouth's entertainment strip, but has a reputation for trouble at closing hours.
What notable event occurs each August?
56df73c156340a1900b29b98
British Firework Championships
59
False
In what month and year was the world record for simultaneous fireworks broken?
56df73c156340a1900b29b99
August 2006
170
False
Who broke the world record for simultaneous fireworks?
56df73c156340a1900b29b9a
Roy Lowry
263
False
What institution did Roy Lowry work for?
56df73c156340a1900b29b9b
University of Plymouth
280
False
In what year did the Music of the Night begin?
56df73c156340a1900b29b9c
1992
331
False
Outdoor events and festivals are held including the annual British Firework Championships in August, which attracts tens of thousands of people across the waterfront. In August 2006 the world record for the most amount of simultaneous fireworks was surpassed, by Roy Lowry of the University of Plymouth, over Plymouth Sound. Since 1992 the Music of the Night has been performed in the Royal Citadel by the 29 Commando Regiment and local performers to raise money for local and military charities.
How many people can fit in the Theatre Royal?
56df76f356340a1900b29bbc
1,315
48
False
What is the capacity of Drum Theatre?
56df76f356340a1900b29bbd
200
83
False
What is the cost of admission to the Plymouth City Museum and Art Gallery?
56df76f356340a1900b29bbe
free
503
False
How many galleries are present in the Plymouth City Museum and Art Gallery?
56df76f356340a1900b29bbf
six
527
False
When did the theater in the Plymouth Athenaeum close?
56df76f356340a1900b29bc0
2009
730
False
The city's main theatres are the Theatre Royal (1,315 capacity), its Drum Theatre (200 capacity), and its production and creative learning centre, The TR2. The Plymouth Pavilions has multiple uses for the city staging music concerts, basketball matches and stand-up comedy. There are also three cinemas: Reel Cinema at Derrys Cross, Plymouth Arts Centre at Looe Street and a Vue cinema at the Barbican Leisure Park. The Plymouth City Museum and Art Gallery is operated by Plymouth City Council allowing free admission – it has six galleries. The Plymouth Athenaeum, which includes a local interest library, is a society dedicated to the promotion of learning in the fields of science, technology, literature and art. From 1961 to 2009 it also housed a theatre.
What television station has its regional headquarters in Plymouth?
56df775f5ca0a614008f9ad1
BBC South West
46
False
What regional ITV station serves Plymouth?
56df775f5ca0a614008f9ad2
ITV West Country
122
False
On what date did ITV Westcountry cease to operate?
56df775f5ca0a614008f9ad3
16 February 2009
221
False
With what channel did ITV Westcountry merge?
56df775f5ca0a614008f9ad4
ITV West
122
False
What BBC radio station operates in Plymouth?
56df775f5ca0a614008f9ad5
BBC Radio Devon
344
False
Plymouth is the regional television centre of BBC South West. A team of journalists are headquartered at Plymouth for the ITV West Country regional station, after a merger with ITV West forced ITV Westcountry to close on 16 February 2009. The main local newspapers serving Plymouth are The Herald and Western Morning News with Radio Plymouth , BBC Radio Devon, Heart South West , and Pirate FM being the main local radio stations.
What football league team is located in Plymouth?
56df77c85ca0a614008f9ae5
Plymouth Argyle F.C.
20
False
What level of the football league does Plymouth Argyle F.C. operate in?
56df77c85ca0a614008f9ae6
Football League Two
106
False
What is the home field of Plymouth Argyle F.C.?
56df77c85ca0a614008f9ae7
Home Park
160
False
What is the nickname of Plymouth Argyle F.C.?
56df77c85ca0a614008f9ae8
The Pilgrims
323
False
What team plays its home games at Weston Mill?
56df77c85ca0a614008f9ae9
Vospers Oak Villa F.C.
479
False
Plymouth is home to Plymouth Argyle F.C., who play in the fourth tier of English football league known as Football League Two. The team's home ground is called Home Park and is located in Central Park. It links itself with the group of English non-conformists that left Plymouth for the New World in 1620: its nickname is "The Pilgrims". The city also has four Non-League football clubs; Plymouth Parkway F.C. who play at Bolitho Park, Elburton Villa F.C. who play at Haye Road, Vospers Oak Villa F.C. who play at Weston Mill and Plymstock United F.C. who play at Deans Cross. All four clubs play in the South West Peninsula League.
What rugby union team is based in Plymouth?
56df782356340a1900b29be4
Plymouth Albion R.F.C.
27
False
What British Basketball League team calls Plymouth home?
56df782356340a1900b29be5
Plymouth Raiders
58
False
When was Plymouth Albion R.F.C. founded?
56df782356340a1900b29be6
1875
170
False
Where do the Plymouth Raiders play their home games?
56df782356340a1900b29be7
Plymouth Pavilions
393
False
When were the Plymouth Raiders inaugurated?
56df782356340a1900b29be8
1983
452
False
Other sports clubs include Plymouth Albion R.F.C. and the Plymouth Raiders basketball club. Plymouth Albion Rugby Football Club is a rugby union club that was founded in 1875 and are currently competing in the third tier of Professional English Rugby . They play at the Brickfields. Plymouth Raiders play in the British Basketball League – the top tier of British basketball. They play at the Plymouth Pavilions entertainment arena and were founded in 1983. Plymouth cricket club was formed in 1843, the current 1st XI play in the Devon Premier League. Plymouth Devils are a speedway team in the British Premier League. Plymouth was home to an American football club, the Plymouth Admirals until 2010. Plymouth is also home to Plymouth Marjons Hockey Club, with their 1st XI playing in the National League last season.
When was the first Port of Plymouth Regatta?
56df785856340a1900b29bee
1823
193
False
In what month and year did Plymouth play host to the America's Cup World Series?
56df785856340a1900b29bef
September 2011
202
False
For how many days did the America's Cup World Series take place in Plymouth?
56df785856340a1900b29bf0
nine
269
False
Plymouth is an important centre for watersports, especially scuba diving and sailing. The Port of Plymouth Regatta is one of the oldest regattas in the world, and has been held regularly since 1823. In September 2011, Plymouth hosted the America's Cup World Series for nine days.
When did Plymouth begin receiving water from South West Water?
56df7abd56340a1900b29c02
1973
6
False
Who provided Plymouth's water prior to 1973?
56df7abd56340a1900b29c03
Plymouth County Borough Corporation
112
False
When did Drake's Leat open?
56df7abd56340a1900b29c04
24 April 1591
353
False
From where did Drake's Leat draw water?
56df7abd56340a1900b29c05
River Meavy
378
False
When did construction finish on Devonport Leat?
56df7abd56340a1900b29c06
1801
682
False
Since 1973 Plymouth has been supplied water by South West Water. Prior to the 1973 take over it was supplied by Plymouth County Borough Corporation. Before the 19th century two leats were built in order to provide drinking water for the town. They carried water from Dartmoor to Plymouth. A watercourse, known as Plymouth or Drake's Leat, was opened on 24 April 1591 to tap the River Meavy. The Devonport Leat was constructed to carry fresh drinking water to the expanding town of Devonport and its ever growing dockyard. It was fed by three Dartmoor rivers: The West Dart, Cowsic and Blackabrook. It seems to have been carrying water since 1797, but it was officially completed in 1801. It was originally designed to carry water to Devonport town, but has since been shortened and now carries water to Burrator Reservoir, which feeds most of the water supply of Plymouth. Burrator Reservoir is located about 5 miles (8 km) north of the city and was constructed in 1898 and expanded in 1928.
What body handles waste management in Plymouth?
56df7b3d56340a1900b29c0c
Plymouth City Council
0
False
Who oversees Plymouth's sewers?
56df7b3d56340a1900b29c0d
South West Water
82
False
Who distributes electricity in Plymouth?
56df7b3d56340a1900b29c0e
Western Power Distribution
218
False
In what year did Langage Power Station come on line?
56df7b3d56340a1900b29c0f
2009
404
False
What settlement is Langage Power Station located near?
56df7b3d56340a1900b29c10
Plympton
266
False
Plymouth City Council is responsible for waste management throughout the city and South West Water is responsible for sewerage. Plymouth's electricity is supplied from the National Grid and distributed to Plymouth via Western Power Distribution. On the outskirts of Plympton a combined cycle gas-powered station, the Langage Power Station, which started to produce electricity for Plymouth at the end of 2009.
When did the Plymouth Borough Police begin operation?
56df7c9a56340a1900b29c1e
1836
148
False
Where is the police divisional headquarters located?
56df7c9a56340a1900b29c1f
Crownhill
260
False
How many fire stations are present in Plymouth?
56df7c9a56340a1900b29c20
five
445
False
Where in Plymouth is the Royal National Lifeboat Institution based?
56df7c9a56340a1900b29c21
Millbay Docks
709
False
What organization is the Plymouth Borough Police a part of?
56df7c9a56340a1900b29c22
Devon and Cornwall Constabulary
180
False
Her Majesty's Courts Service provide a Magistrates' Court and a Combined Crown and County Court in the city. The Plymouth Borough Police, formed in 1836, eventually became part of Devon and Cornwall Constabulary. There are police stations at Charles Cross and Crownhill (the Divisional HQ) and smaller stations at Plympton and Plymstock. The city has one of the Devon and Cornwall Area Crown Prosecution Service Divisional offices. Plymouth has five fire stations located in Camel's Head, Crownhill, Greenbank, Plympton and Plymstock which is part of Devon and Somerset Fire and Rescue Service. The Royal National Lifeboat Institution have an Atlantic 85 class lifeboat and Severn class lifeboat stationed at Millbay Docks.
What is Plymouth's National Health Service hospital?
56df7cdc5ca0a614008f9b11
Derriford Hospital
82
False
In kilometers, how far is Derriford Hospital from the Plymouth city center?
56df7cdc5ca0a614008f9b12
6
110
False
What notable clinic is present in Derriford Hospital?
56df7cdc5ca0a614008f9b13
Royal Eye Infirmary
146
False
What organization provides ambulance transport for Plymouth?
56df7cdc5ca0a614008f9b14
South Western Ambulance Service NHS Foundation Trust
200
False
Where is South Western Ambulance Service NHS Foundation Trust headquartered?
56df7cdc5ca0a614008f9b15
Exeter
330
False
Plymouth is served by Plymouth Hospitals NHS Trust and the city's NHS hospital is Derriford Hospital 4 miles (6 km) north of the city centre. The Royal Eye Infirmary is located at Derriford Hospital. South Western Ambulance Service NHS Foundation Trust operates in Plymouth and the rest of the south west; its headquarters are in Exeter.
When did Ford Park Cemetery reopen?
56df7e625ca0a614008f9b41
2007
73
False
Along with Efford, where else does the Plymouth City Council operate a cemetery?
56df7e625ca0a614008f9b42
Weston Mill
172
False
What is the name of the private cemetery in Plymouth?
56df7e625ca0a614008f9b43
Drake Memorial Park
300
False
In lieu of headstones, what grave markers are used at Drake Memorial Park?
56df7e625ca0a614008f9b44
a brass plaque
372
False
When did Ford Park Cemetery first operate?
56df7e625ca0a614008f9b45
mid-19th century
4
False
The mid-19th century burial ground at Ford Park Cemetery was reopened in 2007 by a successful trust and the City council operate two large early 20th century cemeteries at Weston Mill and Efford both with crematoria and chapels. There is also a privately owned cemetery on the outskirts of the city, Drake Memorial Park which does not allow headstones to mark graves, but a brass plaque set into the ground.
In what year was the Royal Citadel constructed?
56df7edd56340a1900b29c2e
1666
59
False
In the wake of what conflict was the Royal Citadel built?
56df7edd56340a1900b29c2f
English Civil War
10
False
When was Smeaton's Tower first constructed?
56df7edd56340a1900b29c30
1759
311
False
In kilometers, how far off the coast was Smeaton's Tower originally built?
56df7edd56340a1900b29c31
23
351
False
What memorial commemorates the naval victory over the Spanish Armada?
56df7edd56340a1900b29c32
Armada Memorial
686
False
After the English Civil War the Royal Citadel was built in 1666 on the east end of Plymouth Hoe, to defend the port from naval attacks, suppress Plymothian Parliamentary leanings and to train the armed forces. Guided tours are available in the summer months. Further west is Smeaton's Tower, which was built in 1759 as a lighthouse on rocks 14 miles (23 km) off shore, but dismantled and the top two thirds rebuilt on the Hoe in 1877. It is open to the public and has views over the Plymouth Sound and the city from the lantern room. Plymouth has 20 war memorials of which nine are on The Hoe including: Plymouth Naval Memorial, to remember those killed in World Wars I and II, and the Armada Memorial, to commemorate the defeat of the Spanish Armada.
What was the name of the port once situated on the land occupied by present day Plymouth?
56df7f4056340a1900b29c3a
Sutton
47
False
When did the Pilgrim Fathers depart Plymouth for the Americas?
56df7f4056340a1900b29c3b
1620
249
False
What monument commemorates the departure of the Pilgrim Fathers?
56df7f4056340a1900b29c3c
Mayflower Steps
277
False
How many marine species are present at the National Marine Aquarium?
56df7f4056340a1900b29c3d
400
376
False
How many listed buildings are present in the Barbican area?
56df7f4056340a1900b29c3e
100
121
False
The early port settlement of Plymouth, called "Sutton", approximates to the area now referred to as the Barbican and has 100 listed buildings and the largest concentration of cobbled streets in Britain. The Pilgrim Fathers left for the New World in 1620 near the commemorative Mayflower Steps in Sutton Pool. Also on Sutton Pool is the National Marine Aquarium which displays 400 marine species and includes Britain's deepest aquarium tank.
What structure was referred to as a "Palmerston's Folly"?
56df7f755ca0a614008f9b61
Crownhill Fort
39
False
In what cardinal direction is Crownhill Fort located outside the city?
56df7f755ca0a614008f9b62
north
7
False
Who runs Crownhill Fort?
56df7f755ca0a614008f9b63
the Landmark Trust
123
False
On the northern outskirts of the city, Crownhill Fort is a well restored example of a "Palmerston's Folly". It is owned by the Landmark Trust and is open to the public.
In what cardinal direction outside Plymouth is Devonport located?
56df80585ca0a614008f9b77
west
7
False
How many waymarkers are present on the Devonport Heritage Trail?
56df80585ca0a614008f9b78
over 70
195
False
To the west of the city is Devonport, one of Plymouth's historic quarters. As part of Devonport's millennium regeneration project, the Devonport Heritage Trail has been introduced, complete with over 70 waymarkers outlining the route.
Visitors to what region's beaches often stop at Plymouth?
56df80a656340a1900b29c6c
south-east Cornwall
94
False
Along with Whitsand Bay and Cawsand, what Plymouth-area beaches are popular with tourists?
56df80a656340a1900b29c6d
Kingsand
115
False
Visitors to what local valley often stop over in Plymouth?
56df80a656340a1900b29c6e
Tamar Valley
62
False
Plymouth is often used as a base by visitors to Dartmoor, the Tamar Valley and the beaches of south-east Cornwall. Kingsand, Cawsand and Whitsand Bay are popular.
Who designed the Roland Levinsky building?
56df81045ca0a614008f9b95
Henning Larsen
155
False
When did the Roland Levinsky building open?
56df81045ca0a614008f9b96
2008
198
False
Of what university is the Roland Levinsky building a part?
56df81045ca0a614008f9b97
University of Plymouth
59
False
What academic discipline at the university is based in the Roland Levinsky building?
56df81045ca0a614008f9b98
Arts
231
False
What part of Plymouth is the Roland Levinsky building situated in?
56df81045ca0a614008f9b99
the city's central quarter
97
False
The Roland Levinsky building, the landmark building of the University of Plymouth, is located in the city's central quarter. Designed by leading architect Henning Larsen, the building was opened in 2008 and houses the University's Arts faculty. It has been consistently considered one of the UK's most beautiful university buildings.
What are Plymouth residents commonly called?
56df81675ca0a614008f9ba7
Plymothians
34
False
What colloquial term is used for Plymouth residents?
56df81685ca0a614008f9ba8
Janners
66
False
After what figure are Janners named?
56df81685ca0a614008f9ba9
Cousin Jan
138
False
In Devon, Jan is another way of saying what common English name?
56df81685ca0a614008f9baa
John
168
False
People from Plymouth are known as Plymothians or less formally as Janners. Its meaning is described as a person from Devon, deriving from Cousin Jan (the Devon form of John), but more particularly in naval circles anyone from the Plymouth area.
What was the birthplace of Sir Francis Drake?
56df81eb5ca0a614008f9bbd
Tavistock
76
False
What did the Spanish nickname Sir Francis Drake?
56df81eb5ca0a614008f9bbe
El Draco
205
False
In what year did Sir Francis Drake die?
56df81eb5ca0a614008f9bbf
1596
296
False
What was Sir Francis Drake's cause of death?
56df81eb5ca0a614008f9bc0
dysentery
283
False
What notable artist and Royal Academician was born in Plympton?
56df81eb5ca0a614008f9bc1
Sir Joshua Reynolds
503
False
The Elizabethan navigator, Sir Francis Drake was born in the nearby town of Tavistock and was the mayor of Plymouth. He was the first Englishman to circumnavigate the world and was known by the Spanish as El Draco meaning "The Dragon" after he raided many of their ships. He died of dysentery in 1596 off the coast of Puerto Rico. In 2002 a mission to recover his body and bring it to Plymouth was allowed by the Ministry of Defence. His cousin and contemporary John Hawkins was a Plymouth man. Painter Sir Joshua Reynolds, founder and first president of the Royal Academy was born and educated in nearby Plympton, now part of Plymouth. William Cookworthy born in Kingsbridge set up his successful porcelain business in the city and was a close friend of John Smeaton designer of the Eddystone Lighthouse. On 26 January 1786, Benjamin Robert Haydon, an English painter who specialised in grand historical pictures, was born here. The naturalist Dr William Elford Leach FRS, who did much to pave the way in Britain for Charles Darwin, was born at Hoe Gate in 1791.
What artist died in Plymouth in 2002?
56df827c56340a1900b29c98
Robert Lenkiewicz
162
False
Where did the creator of Mr Benn and King Rollo study?
56df827c56340a1900b29c99
Plymouth College of Art
454
False
What genre of music does John Surman play?
56df827c56340a1900b29c9a
Jazz
479
False
What local figure played in the bands AMM and MIMEO?
56df827c56340a1900b29c9b
Keith Rowe
645
False
Where do the family of Michael Foot live?
56df827c56340a1900b29c9c
Trematon Castle
1110
False
Antarctic explorers Robert Falcon Scott and Frank Bickerton both lived in the city. Artists include Beryl Cook whose paintings depict the culture of Plymouth and Robert Lenkiewicz, whose paintings investigated themes of vagrancy, sexual behaviour and suicide, lived in the city from the 1960s until his death in 2002. Illustrator and creator of children's series Mr Benn and King Rollo, David McKee, was born and brought up in South Devon and trained at Plymouth College of Art. Jazz musician John Surman, born in nearby Tavistock, has close connections to the area, evidenced by his 2012 album Saltash Bells. The avant garde prepared guitarist Keith Rowe was born in the city before establishing the jazz free improvisation band AMM in London in 1965 and MIMEO in 1997. The musician and film director Cosmo Jarvis has lived in several towns in South Devon and has filmed videos in and around Plymouth. In addition, actors Sir Donald Sinden and Judi Trott. George Passmore of Turner Prize winning duo Gilbert and George was born in the city, as was Labour politician Michael Foot whose family reside at nearby Trematon Castle.
What is the occupation of Trevor Francis?
56df83025ca0a614008f9be1
footballer
90
False
What is the current nationality of former Plymouth resident Chris Axworthy?
56df83025ca0a614008f9be2
Canadian
276
False
What United States vice president did Donald Moffat play?
56df83025ca0a614008f9be3
Lyndon B. Johnson
429
False
In what film did Donald Moffat play President Bennett?
56df83025ca0a614008f9be4
Clear and Present Danger
511
False
What is Dawn French's job?
56df83025ca0a614008f9be5
comedian
254
False
Notable athletes include swimmer Sharron Davies, diver Tom Daley, dancer Wayne Sleep, and footballer Trevor Francis. Other past residents include composer journalist and newspaper editor William Henry Wills, Ron Goodwin, and journalist Angela Rippon and comedian Dawn French. Canadian politician and legal scholar Chris Axworthy hails from Plymouth. America based actor Donald Moffat, whose roles include American Vice President Lyndon B. Johnson in the film The Right Stuff, and fictional President Bennett in Clear and Present Danger, was born in Plymouth.
Heresy
What is heresy mainly at odds with?
56de6f914396321400ee28c3
established beliefs or customs
77
False
What is a person called is practicing heresy?
56de6f914396321400ee28c4
A heretic
109
False
Heresy
0
What is belief in a strongly held custom?
5a5a784e9c0277001abe712e
True
heretic
111
Who is a person who believes in a strongly held custom?
5a5a784e9c0277001abe712f
True
apostasy
190
What is the term for embracing ones religion?
5a5a784e9c0277001abe7130
True
blasphemy
279
What is an utterance or action concerning God?
5a5a784e9c0277001abe7131
True
Heresy is any provocative belief or theory that is strongly at variance with established beliefs or customs. A heretic is a proponent of such claims or beliefs. Heresy is distinct from both apostasy, which is the explicit renunciation of one's religion, principles or cause, and blasphemy, which is an impious utterance or action concerning God or sacred things.
What religions and idea of thought is heresy cited as being used frequently in?
56de6fdecffd8e1900b4b8c3
Christianity, Judaism, Islam and Marxism
199
False
important religious teachings
51
Blasphemy is the acceptance of what teachings?
5a5a874c9c0277001abe7136
True
Christianity, Judaism, Islam and Marxism
199
What religions no longer recognize blasphamy?
5a5a874c9c0277001abe7137
True
The term is usually used to refer to violations of important religious teachings, but is used also of views strongly opposed to any generally accepted ideas. It is used in particular in reference to Christianity, Judaism, Islam and Marxism.
What cultures are listed as examples of discipline for being a heretic?
56de6fea4396321400ee28c9
Christian, Islamic and Jewish
22
False
Christian, Islamic and Jewish
22
What religions believe new ideas is punishable?
5a5a94c19c0277001abe713a
True
excommunication, but even to the death penalty
189
What is the punishment for disagreeing with the church?
5a5a94c19c0277001abe713b
True
excommunication
189
What punishment is nolonger used for heretics?
5a5a94c19c0277001abe713c
True
In certain historical Christian, Islamic and Jewish cultures, among others, espousing ideas deemed heretical has been and in some cases still is subjected not merely to punishments such as excommunication, but even to the death penalty.
What language does the term heresy find its roots in?
56de70004396321400ee28cd
Greek
24
False
What is the relationship between the context heresy is used in for Christian, Jewish, or Islamic cultures?
56de70004396321400ee28ce
slightly different
355
False
What is the head person of a heretical movement called?
56de70004396321400ee28cf
heresiarch
450
False
What is the study of heresy?
56de70004396321400ee28d0
Heresiology
539
False
What is the original meaning of heresy when translated directly from its root word?
56de70004396321400ee28d1
"choice" or "thing chosen"
55
False
"choice" or "thing chosen",
55
What does heresey mean in Latin?
5a5aa93c9c0277001abe7140
True
heresy
9
What is the term for the process by wich a person learns to live a religious life?
5a5aa93c9c0277001abe7141
True
Christian, Jewish, or Islamic
304
What three religions have the same meaning for heresy?
5a5aa93c9c0277001abe7142
True
Heresiology
539
Whhat is the sudy of how to live?
5a5aa93c9c0277001abe7143
True
The term heresy is from Greek αἵρεσις originally meant "choice" or "thing chosen", but it came to mean the "party or school of a man's choice" and also referred to that process whereby a young person would examine various philosophies to determine how to live. The word "heresy" is usually used within a Christian, Jewish, or Islamic context, and implies slightly different meanings in each. The founder or leader of a heretical movement is called a heresiarch, while individuals who espouse heresy or commit heresy are known as heretics. Heresiology is the study of heresy.
How many times is it suggested that you should warn people you are in disagreement with before parting ways?
56de7016cffd8e1900b4b8c6
two times
59
False
What term is used to describe an individual in the early Church that introduced discord?
56de7016cffd8e1900b4b8c7
divisive person
26
False
What word is used when speaking of correct teachings in contrast to a false teacher?
56de7016cffd8e1900b4b8c8
sound
272
False
two times
59
How many times should you punish a divisive person before seperating from them?
5a5ab76c9c0277001abe7148
True
"heretic"
198
What was another name for a diversive person in the Greek church?
5a5ab76c9c0277001abe7149
True
dissension
221
What do all diversive people promote?
5a5ab76c9c0277001abe714a
True
sound
272
What word describes orthodox teaching?
5a5ab76c9c0277001abe714b
True
According to Titus 3:10 a divisive person should be warned two times before separating from him. The Greek for the phrase "divisive person" became a technical term in the early Church for a type of "heretic" who promoted dissension. In contrast correct teaching is called sound not only because it builds up in the faith, but because it protects against the corrupting influence of false teachers.
What culture and religion did Fathers of the Church correlate with heresy?
56de70364396321400ee28d7
Jews and Judaism
30
False
What religion were these Fathers of the Church?
56de70364396321400ee28d8
Orthodox Christianity
85
False
Who suggested that it were the Jews that brought dissension into Christianity?
56de70364396321400ee28d9
Tertullian
159
False
Jews and Judaism
30
Who identified Christians with heresey?
5a5ab9b19c0277001abe7150
True
Christians that refused to venerate religious images
377
Who dit Saint Peter refer to as Jews?
5a5ab9b19c0277001abe7151
True
Jews
194
Who did Tertullian say were the most heretical people?
5a5ab9b19c0277001abe7152
True
Jews
194
Who offered guidence to early Christians?
5a5ab9b19c0277001abe7153
True
The Church Fathers identified Jews and Judaism with heresy. They saw deviations from Orthodox Christianity as heresies that were essentially Jewish in spirit. Tertullian implied that it was the Jews who most inspired heresy in Christianity: "From the Jew the heretic has accepted guidance in this discussion [that Jesus was not the Christ.]" Saint Peter of Antioch referred to Christians that refused to venerate religious images as having "Jewish minds".
Who gave more exposure to the term heresy when attempting to descredit opponents during the early centuries of Christianity?
56de7066cffd8e1900b4b8cc
Irenaeus
56
False
What term did Irenaeus use to describe the Christian community's ideologies?
56de7066cffd8e1900b4b8cd
orthodox
291
False
What concept did Irenaeus cite to help support his arguments?
56de7066cffd8e1900b4b8cf
apostolic succession
448
False
Irenaeus
56
Who was the first person to use the word heresy?
5a5abb109c0277001abe7158
True
Contra Haereses
90
What did Irenaeus write in the 200's?
5a5abb109c0277001abe7159
True
Irenaeus
56
Who wrote about their opponents in the 200's
5a5abb109c0277001abe715a
True
Irenaeus
56
Who used the word Orthodox to describe Gnostic teachings?
5a5abb109c0277001abe715b
True
apostolic
448
What succession was first pointed out by Irenaeus?
5a5abb109c0277001abe715c
True
The use of the word "heresy" was given wide currency by Irenaeus in his 2nd century tract Contra Haereses (Against Heresies) to describe and discredit his opponents during the early centuries of the Christian community.[citation needed] He described the community's beliefs and doctrines as orthodox (from ὀρθός, orthos "straight" + δόξα, doxa "belief") and the Gnostics' teachings as heretical.[citation needed] He also pointed out the concept of apostolic succession to support his arguments.
Who was the first Roman Emporor that was baptized?
56de708f4396321400ee28df
Constantine the Great
0
False
What did Constantine the Great and Licinius pass to introduce toleration of Christianity in the Roman Empire?
56de708f4396321400ee28e0
Edict of Milan
138
False
What was the high priest in the College of Pontiffs called?
56de708f4396321400ee28e1
Pontifex Maximus
259
False
What were the meetings called that were hosted by Constantine that helped enforce orthodoxy by Imperial authority?
56de708f4396321400ee28e2
the ecumenical councils
510
False
Constantine the Great
0
Who was the first Roman babtized?
5a5abce09c0277001abe7162
True
Christianity
73
What was Licinius intolerant of?
5a5abce09c0277001abe7163
True
"Edict of Milan"
137
What Edict established freedom of religion in Rome?
5a5abce09c0277001abe7164
True
the Emperor
243
Who was high priest according to Christian tradition?
5a5abce09c0277001abe7165
True
ecumenical
514
What council was first held by Arius?
5a5abce09c0277001abe7166
True
Constantine the Great, who along with Licinius had decreed toleration of Christianity in the Roman Empire by what is commonly called the "Edict of Milan", and was the first Roman Emperor baptized, set precedents for later policy. By Roman law the Emperor was Pontifex Maximus, the high priest of the College of Pontiffs (Collegium Pontificum) of all recognized religions in ancient Rome. To put an end to the doctrinal debate initiated by Arius, Constantine called the first of what would afterwards be called the ecumenical councils and then enforced orthodoxy by Imperial authority.
In what year was the first usage of the term heresy in a legal context?
56de70a8cffd8e1900b4b8dc
AD 380
60
False
Who intitiated Christianity to be a state church of the Roman Empire?
56de70a8cffd8e1900b4b8dd
Thessalonica of Theodosius I
83
False
What was the church lacking before the edict that would allow them to legally counter heresy?
56de70a8cffd8e1900b4b8de
state-sponsored support
230
False
What did church authorities gain as a result of this edict?
56de70a8cffd8e1900b4b8df
state powers of legal enforcement
495
False
What punishment is cited as church authorities being able to exact on individuals perceived as heretics?
56de70a8cffd8e1900b4b8e0
death sentence
658
False
a legal context
37
In what context was the word hersey first ussed in the 3rd century?
5a5abf2c9c0277001abe716c
True
the Edict of Thessalonica of Theodosius I,
70
What edict was passed in the 3rd century?
5a5abf2c9c0277001abe716d
True
Christianity
124
What was made the official State religion in the 3rd century?
5a5abf2c9c0277001abe716e
True
the Church
379
What did the edict give the state authority over?
5a5abf2c9c0277001abe716f
True
pronounce the death sentence upon those whom the church considered heretical.
644
What did the edict give the state the authority to do?
5a5abf2c9c0277001abe7170
True
The first known usage of the term in a legal context was in AD 380 by the Edict of Thessalonica of Theodosius I, which made Christianity the state church of the Roman Empire. Prior to the issuance of this edict, the Church had no state-sponsored support for any particular legal mechanism to counter what it perceived as "heresy". By this edict the state's authority and that of the Church became somewhat overlapping. One of the outcomes of this blurring of Church and state was the sharing of state powers of legal enforcement with church authorities. This reinforcement of the Church's authority gave church leaders the power to, in effect, pronounce the death sentence upon those whom the church considered heretical.
Who was the first Christian individual to be sentenced to death by the church for heresy in Rome?
56de70e54396321400ee28e7
Priscillian
119
False
What happened to the people that sentenced Priscillian to death?
56de70e54396321400ee28e8
excommunicated
266
False
What religion is an example of Protestants killing for conviction of heresy after the Reformation?
56de70e54396321400ee28e9
Catholics
580
False
Who was the last known person to be sentenced to death for the crime of heresy by the Roman Catholic Church?
56de70e54396321400ee28ea
Cayetano Ripoll
689
False
From what passage is cited as being one of the first known examples of using the word heresy?
56de70e54396321400ee28eb
Nag Hammadi's Apocalypse of Peter
911
False
six years
7
For how many years was heresy an official crime?
5a5ac1339c0277001abe7176
True
Priscillian
119
Who was put to death for socery in the 3rd century?
5a5ac1339c0277001abe7177
True
Ambrose of Milan and Pope Siricius
289
Who excommunicated Priscillian?
5a5ac1339c0277001abe7178
True
Cayetano Ripoll
689
Who was executed for heresey in the 18th century?
5a5ac1339c0277001abe7179
True
Nag Hammadi
911
Who said Peter was the first to use the word heretical?
5a5ac1339c0277001abe717a
True
Within six years of the official criminalization of heresy by the Emperor, the first Christian heretic to be executed, Priscillian, was condemned in 386 by Roman secular officials for sorcery, and put to death with four or five followers. However, his accusers were excommunicated both by Ambrose of Milan and Pope Siricius, who opposed Priscillian's heresy, but "believed capital punishment to be inappropriate at best and usually unequivocally evil". For some years after the Reformation, Protestant churches were also known to execute those they considered heretics, including Catholics. The last known heretic executed by sentence of the Roman Catholic Church was Spanish schoolmaster Cayetano Ripoll in 1826. The number of people executed as heretics under the authority of the various "ecclesiastical authorities"[note 1] is not known.[note 2] One of the first examples of the word as translated from the Nag Hammadi's Apocalypse of Peter was" they will cleave to the name of a dead man thinking that they will become pure. But they will become greatly defiled and they will fall into the name of error and into the hands of an evil cunning man and a manifold dogma, and they will be ruled heretically".
What is thought of to spiritually cut one off from the Church even before excommunication?
56de71014396321400ee28f1
obstinate and willful manifest heresy
30
False
What book gives the definition of a heretic as anyone that does not follow the Catholic Church or the orthodox holy faith?
56de71014396321400ee28f2
The Codex Justinianus
167
False
What groups are cited as being considered heretical by the Church before the 11th century?
56de71014396321400ee28f3
Arianism, Pelagianism, Donatism, Marcionism and Montanism
506
False
What group moved westward to give rise to the famous 11th and 12th century heresy in western Europe?
56de71014396321400ee28f4
Paulicians
612
False
What groups began to appear in northern Italy and southern France during the 11th century?
56de71014396321400ee28f5
Patarini, the Dulcinians, the Waldensians and the Cathars
882
False
obstinate and willful manifest heresy
30
What is considered a reason to cut someone off from the church?
5a5ac2cd9c0277001abe7180
True
11th century
411
When did the Church stop dealing harshly with heritics?
5a5ac2cd9c0277001abe7181
True
Manichaean sect of Paulicians
593
What sect was spreading west from the 1100's-1200's?
5a5ac2cd9c0277001abe7182
True
more organised groups such as the Patarini, the Dulcinians, the Waldensians and the Cathars were beginning to appear
848
What happened in northern Italy during the 1100's?
5a5ac2cd9c0277001abe7183
True
In the Roman Catholic Church, obstinate and willful manifest heresy is considered to spiritually cut one off from the Church, even before excommunication is incurred. The Codex Justinianus (1:5:12) defines "everyone who is not devoted to the Catholic Church and to our Orthodox holy Faith" a heretic. The Church had always dealt harshly with strands of Christianity that it considered heretical, but before the 11th century these tended to centre around individual preachers or small localised sects, like Arianism, Pelagianism, Donatism, Marcionism and Montanism. The diffusion of the almost Manichaean sect of Paulicians westwards gave birth to the famous 11th and 12th century heresies of Western Europe. The first one was that of Bogomils in modern day Bosnia, a sort of sanctuary between Eastern and Western Christianity. By the 11th century, more organised groups such as the Patarini, the Dulcinians, the Waldensians and the Cathars were beginning to appear in the towns and cities of northern Italy, southern France and Flanders.
In what country did the Cathars grow to represent a popular movement?
56de71114396321400ee28fb
France
3
False
What was started by the Roman Catholic Church to dispense of the Cathars in Languedoc?
56de71114396321400ee28fc
The Cathar Crusade
109
False
What was a major reason and justification for the Europian wars of religion?
56de71114396321400ee28fd
Heresy
216
False
the Inquisition
253
What happened in Spain that led to more heresey?
5a5ac61d9c0277001abe7188
True
Cathars
14
What heresey spread to France?
5a5ac61d9c0277001abe7189
True
Cathar Crusade
113
What fight did the Cathar lead against the Catholic Church?
5a5ac61d9c0277001abe718a
True
European wars of religion
349
What wars helped spread hereseies?
5a5ac61d9c0277001abe718b
True
In France the Cathars grew to represent a popular mass movement and the belief was spreading to other areas. The Cathar Crusade was initiated by the Roman Catholic Church to eliminate the Cathar heresy in Languedoc. Heresy was a major justification for the Inquisition (Inquisitio Haereticae Pravitatis, Inquiry on Heretical Perversity) and for the European wars of religion associated with the Protestant Reformation.
Who was brought before the Inquisition for heresy but renounced his beliefs and thus remained under house arrest for life?
56de7126cffd8e1900b4b8e8
Galileo Galilei
0
False
What belief did Galileo have at the time that appeared to be extremely heretical to the church?
56de7126cffd8e1900b4b8e9
the Sun lies motionless at the centre of the universe
253
False
Galileo Galilei
0
Who refused to change their views before the Inquisistion?
5a5acd7b9c0277001abe7190
True
the Inquisition
35
Who found Galileo guilty of heresy?
5a5acd7b9c0277001abe7191
True
Galileo Galilei
0
Who was required to renounce that the earth was the center of the universe?
5a5acd7b9c0277001abe7192
True
an opinion
388
What did the church say could be probale if declare contrary to Holy Scripture??
5a5acd7b9c0277001abe7193
True
Galileo Galilei was brought before the Inquisition for heresy, but abjured his views and was sentenced to house arrest, under which he spent the rest of his life. Galileo was found "vehemently suspect of heresy", namely of having held the opinions that the Sun lies motionless at the centre of the universe, that the Earth is not at its centre and moves, and that one may hold and defend an opinion as probable after it has been declared contrary to Holy Scripture. He was required to "abjure, curse and detest" those opinions.
Who denounced Jewish People in many of his writings?
56de71424396321400ee2901
Pope St. Gregory
0
False
What were the Jews described as enemies of?
56de71424396321400ee2902
Christ
116
False
According to Pope St. Gregory what religion must you be in order to be a heretic?
56de71424396321400ee2903
Jewish
45
False
In what culture of law were Jews and heretics often lumped together?
56de71424396321400ee2904
Roman-Christian law
437
False
Pope St. Gregory
0
What pope defended Judaism and the Jewish people?
5a5ace739c0277001abe7198
True
Pope St. Gregory
0
Who described Christ as the enemy of the Jews?
5a5ace739c0277001abe7199
True
heresy
241
What did Pope St. Gregory call all Jewish teachings?
5a5ace739c0277001abe719a
True
Jews
379
Who did Roman law indentify as heretics?
5a5ace739c0277001abe719b
True
Pope St. Gregory stigmatized Judaism and the Jewish People in many of his writings. He described Jews as enemies of Christ: "The more the Holy Spirit fills the world, the more perverse hatred dominates the souls of the Jews." He labeled all heresy as "Jewish", claiming that Judaism would "pollute [Catholics and] deceive them with sacrilegious seduction." The identification of Jews and heretics in particular occurred several times in Roman-Christian law,
What area of Christianity commonly cited the first seven Ecumenical Councils in regards to heresy?
56de717acffd8e1900b4b8ee
Eastern Christianity
3
False
After what two events did various Christian churches also begin using the first seven Ecumenical Councils to identify heresy?
56de717acffd8e1900b4b8ef
Great Schism and the Protestant Reformation
155
False
What beginning Christian heresies did the Orthodox Church also reject during this time?
56de717acffd8e1900b4b8f0
Arianism, Gnosticism, Origenism, Montanism, Judaizers, Marcionism, Docetism, Adoptionism, Nestorianism, Monophysitism, Monothelitism and Iconoclasm
403
False
Ecumenical Councils
107
Who decides if a belief is heretical in the Eastern Church?
5a5acfc49c0277001abe71a0
True
Protestant Reformation
176
What reformation was caused by various heretical groups?
5a5acfc49c0277001abe71a1
True
Arianism, Gnosticism, Origenism, Montanism, Judaizers, Marcionism, Docetism, Adoptionism, Nestorianism, Monophysitism, Monothelitism and Iconoclasm
403
What early Christian beliefs does the Orthodox church not see as heresies?
5a5acfc49c0277001abe71a2
True
the Protestant Reformation
172
What caused the Great Schism?
5a5acfc49c0277001abe71a3
True
In Eastern Christianity heresy most commonly refers to those beliefs declared heretical by the first seven Ecumenical Councils.[citation needed] Since the Great Schism and the Protestant Reformation, various Christian churches have also used the concept in proceedings against individuals and groups those churches deemed heretical. The Orthodox Church also rejects the early Christian heresies such as Arianism, Gnosticism, Origenism, Montanism, Judaizers, Marcionism, Docetism, Adoptionism, Nestorianism, Monophysitism, Monothelitism and Iconoclasm.
What is the work called that Martin Luther created regarding Jews and heresy?
56de719ccffd8e1900b4b8f4
"On the Jews and Their Lies"
12
False
What term does Luther assign to the practice of Jewish Prayer?
56de719ccffd8e1900b4b8f5
blasphemous
305
False
What is said to be a special spiritual problem?
56de719ccffd8e1900b4b8f7
Jewish circumcision
553
False
"On the Jews and Their Lies"
12
What did Martin Luther write in the 15th century?
5a5ad0c09c0277001abe71a8
True
"blasphemous"
304
What did Luther call Orthodox prayer?
5a5ad0c09c0277001abe71a9
True
Martin Luther
75
Who called the popes heratics?
5a5ad0c09c0277001abe71aa
True
Martin Luther
75
Who felt Jewish circumcision was spiritual?
5a5ad0c09c0277001abe71ab
True
In his work "On the Jews and Their Lies" (1543), German Reformation leader Martin Luther claims that Jewish history was "assailed by much heresy", and that Christ the logos swept away the Jewish heresy and goes on to do so, "as it still does daily before our eyes." He stigmatizes Jewish Prayer as being "blasphemous" (sic) and a lie, and vilifies Jews in general as being spiritually "blind" and "surely possessed by all devils." Luther calls the members of the Orthodox Catholic Church "papists" and heretics, and has a special spiritual problem with Jewish circumcision.
What event in England during the 16th century had an outcome of many deaths for heresy?
56de71b2cffd8e1900b4b8fc
European Reformation
29
False
During what king's reign did 60 Protestants die for heresy?
56de71b2cffd8e1900b4b8fd
Henry VIII
140
False
What two notable figures are cited to have perished for refusing to give up the Church in England?
56de71b2cffd8e1900b4b8fe
Sir Thomas More and Cardinal John Fisher
332
False
Under which king were the heresy laws repealed in 1547?
56de71b2cffd8e1900b4b8ff
Edward VI
452
False
In what year was the last known person sentenced to death in England for heresy?
56de71b2cffd8e1900b4b900
1612
1234
False
European Reformation
29
What rformation took place in the 1600's
5a5ad1eb9c0277001abe71b0
True
Henry VIII's
140
During who's reign were Catholics executed as heretics?
5a5ad1eb9c0277001abe71b1
True
Henry VIII's
140
Who executed Protestants on political grounds?
5a5ad1eb9c0277001abe71b2
True
Sir Thomas More and Cardinal John Fisher
332
What protestants were executed for not recognizing the kings supremecy?
5a5ad1eb9c0277001abe71b3
True
Edward VI
452
Who repealed the heresey laws in the 15th century?
5a5ad1eb9c0277001abe71b4
True
In England, the 16th-century European Reformation resulted in a number of executions on charges of heresy. During the thirty-eight years of Henry VIII's reign, about sixty heretics, mainly Protestants, were executed and a rather greater number of Catholics lost their lives on grounds of political offences such as treason, notably Sir Thomas More and Cardinal John Fisher, for refusing to accept the king's supremacy over the Church in England. Under Edward VI, the heresy laws were repealed in 1547 only to be reintroduced in 1554 by Mary I; even so two radicals were executed in Edward's reign (one for denying the reality of the incarnation, the other for denying Christ's divinity). Under Mary, around two hundred and ninety people were burned at the stake between 1555 and 1558 after the restoration of papal jurisdiction. When Elizabeth I came to the throne, the concept of heresy was retained in theory but severely restricted by the 1559 Act of Supremacy and the one hundred and eighty or so Catholics who were executed in the forty-five years of her reign were put to death because they were considered members of "...a subversive fifth column." The last execution of a "heretic" in England occurred under James VI and I in 1612. Although the charge was technically one of "blasphemy" there was one later execution in Scotland (still at that date an entirely independent kingdom) when in 1697 Thomas Aikenhead was accused, among other things, of denying the doctrine of the Trinity.
During which years did the execution of the Boston martyrs take place?
56de71ee4396321400ee2911
1659, 1660, and 1661
112
False
Which group was responsible for the deaths of the Boston martyrs?
56de71ee4396321400ee2912
Anglican Puritans
184
False
What goal is cited as the reason these killings took place?
56de71ee4396321400ee2913
purer absolute theocracy
388
False
What rival group did the Anglican Puritans want purged from their area?
56de71ee4396321400ee2914
Quaker sect
518
False
Which two groups viewed the Puritans themselves as nothing more than heresy?
56de71ee4396321400ee2915
Eastern Orthodox and Oriental Orthodox
729
False
the Boston martyrs
90
Who was executed in the 16th entury?
5a5ad2d99c0277001abe71ba
True
Anglican Puritans
184
Who held political and religious control of the American colonies?
5a5ad2d99c0277001abe71bb
True
a "purer absolute theocracy"
385
What where the Quakers trying to achieve in the colonies?
5a5ad2d99c0277001abe71bc
True
Eastern Orthodox and Oriental Orthodox communions
729
What communions also considered the Quakers heretical?
5a5ad2d99c0277001abe71bd
True
Another example of the persecution of heretics under Protestant rule was the execution of the Boston martyrs in 1659, 1660, and 1661. These executions resulted from the actions of the Anglican Puritans, who at that time wielded political as well as ecclesiastic control in the Massachusetts Bay Colony. At the time, the colony leaders were apparently hoping to achieve their vision of a "purer absolute theocracy" within their colony .[citation needed] As such, they perceived the teachings and practices of the rival Quaker sect as heretical, even to the point where laws were passed and executions were performed with the aim of ridding their colony of such perceived "heresies".[citation needed] It should be noticed that the Eastern Orthodox and Oriental Orthodox communions generally regard the Puritans themselves as having been heterodox or heretical.
What year did the deaths of heretics under Christianity come to an end?
56de71ffcffd8e1900b4b906
1826
105
False
Who was the last heretic put to death under the Catholic Inquisition?
56de71ffcffd8e1900b4b907
Cayetano Ripoll
150
False
The era of mass persecution and execution of heretics
0
What ended in the 18th century?
5a5ad3319c0277001abe71c2
True
Cayetano Ripoll
150
Who was the last Catholic executed?
5a5ad3319c0277001abe71c3
True
The era of mass persecution and execution of heretics under the banner of Christianity came to an end in 1826 with the last execution of a "heretic", Cayetano Ripoll, by the Catholic Inquisition.
Under which religion do charges of heresy still occur in modern times?
56de722fcffd8e1900b4b90a
Christian
95
False
Which religion is cited as having problems with modern biblical criticism?
56de722fcffd8e1900b4b90b
Protestant
141
False
What belief of the Catholic Church criticizes writings without using the word heresy?
56de722fcffd8e1900b4b90c
Congregation for the Doctrine of the Faith
252
False
heresy
81
What charge is just as common in modern times?
5a5ad3d09c0277001abe71c6
True
Protestant churches
141
What churches have issues with modern bibles>
5a5ad3d09c0277001abe71c7
True
Congregation for the Doctrine of the Faith
252
Who criticizes writing for being heretical?
5a5ad3d09c0277001abe71c8
True
Although less common than in earlier periods, in modern times, formal charges of heresy within Christian churches still occur. Issues in the Protestant churches have included modern biblical criticism and the nature of God. In the Catholic Church, the Congregation for the Doctrine of the Faith criticizes writings for "ambiguities and errors" without using the word "heresy".
What event is stated as a reason why the word heretic is used less often in modern times?
56de723e4396321400ee291b
Spanish inquisition
99
False
Who was the author of the short story "The Theologians"?
56de723e4396321400ee291c
Jorge Luis Borges
274
False
What subject does the question of who has a monopoly on spiritual truth regard?
56de723e4396321400ee291d
Christian heresy
170
False
Spanish inquisition
99
What event has made the word heresy common?
5a5ad4db9c0277001abe71cc
True
who has a monopoly on spiritual truth
220
What do Christian heretics question?
5a5ad4db9c0277001abe71cd
True
Jorge Luis Borges
274
Who wrote about heresey in the Christian church?
5a5ad4db9c0277001abe71ce
True
heretic
78
What word has many modern meanings?
5a5ad4db9c0277001abe71cf
True
Perhaps due to the many modern negative connotations associated with the term heretic, such as the Spanish inquisition, the term is used less often today. The subject of Christian heresy opens up broader questions as to who has a monopoly on spiritual truth, as explored by Jorge Luis Borges in the short story "The Theologians" within the compilation Labyrinths.
What group did Sultan Selim the Grim label as heretics?
56de7251cffd8e1900b4b910
Shia Qizilbash
44
False
What number of Christians did Selim the Grim equate to the killing of one Shiite?
56de7251cffd8e1900b4b911
70
169
False
Ottoman Sultan Selim the Grim
0
Who considered Christians more heretical than Shiite?
5a5ad57e9c0277001abe71d4
True
Ottoman Sultan Selim the Grim
0
Who killed 70 Christians?
5a5ad57e9c0277001abe71d5
True
70 Christians
169
How many Christians needed to be killed to get an otherworldly reward?
5a5ad57e9c0277001abe71d6
True
Ottoman Sultan Selim the Grim, regarded the Shia Qizilbash as heretics, reportedly proclaimed that "the killing of one Shiite had as much otherworldly reward as killing 70 Christians."
What type of law is still in practice in which heresy results in execution?
56de725c4396321400ee2921
Sharia law
48
False
What author was declared a heretic and had a bounty placed on his head by the government of Iran?
56de725c4396321400ee2922
Salman Rushdie
280
False
Sharia law
48
What did Salman Rushdie say was heretical?
5a5ad6679c0277001abe71da
True
heresy
84
What is only punisable by death where Sharia law is practiced?
5a5ad6679c0277001abe71db
True
Iran
189
What country declare Sharia law in 1989?
5a5ad6679c0277001abe71dc
True
In some modern day nations and regions in which Sharia law is ostensibly practiced, heresy remains an offense punishable by death. One example is the 1989 fatwa issued by the government of Iran, offering a substantial bounty for anyone who succeeds in the assassination of author Salman Rushdie, whose writings were declared as heretical.
What does Orthodox Judaism regard Jews who depart from traditional practices as?
56de7280cffd8e1900b4b914
heretical
108
False
What alignment within Orthodox Judaism view individuals as heretics that reject Maimonides's 13 principles of Jewish faith?
56de7280cffd8e1900b4b915
right-wing groups
141
False
Which wing of Orthodox Judaism is stated as having a more tolerant view of Conservative Judaism?
56de7280cffd8e1900b4b917
The liberal wing
449
False
Orthodox Judaism
166
Who denounces the teachings of Maimonides?
5a5ad8379c0277001abe71e0
True
Orthodox Judaism
0
Who considers traditional jewish principles heretical?
5a5ad8379c0277001abe71e1
True
Reform and Reconstructionist Judaism
336
Who doeas Conservative Judaism concider heretical?
5a5ad8379c0277001abe71e2
True
some theological and practical overlap
569
What overlaps in Reform and Reconstructionist Judaism?
5a5ad8379c0277001abe71e3
True
Orthodox Judaism considers views on the part of Jews who depart from traditional Jewish principles of faith heretical. In addition, the more right-wing groups within Orthodox Judaism hold that all Jews who reject the simple meaning of Maimonides's 13 principles of Jewish faith are heretics. As such, most of Orthodox Judaism considers Reform and Reconstructionist Judaism heretical movements, and regards most of Conservative Judaism as heretical. The liberal wing of Modern Orthodoxy is more tolerant of Conservative Judaism, particularly its right wing, as there is some theological and practical overlap between these groups.
What term is used for the act of using Church of Scientology techniques in contrast to what Hubbard envisioned?
56de728f4396321400ee2925
squirreling
145
False
What institution has prosecuted groups that practice outside the official Church without permission?
56de728f4396321400ee2926
The Religious Technology Center
208
False
Hubbard
99
Who reformed Scientology making splinter groups heretical?
5a5ad9109c0277001abe71e8
True
breakaway groups
255
Who accuses the Curch of Scientology of squirrelling?
5a5ad9109c0277001abe71e9
True
The Religious Technology Center
208
What organization has started several breakaway groups?
5a5ad9109c0277001abe71ea
True
The act of using Church of Scientology techniques in a form different than originally described by Hubbard is referred to within Scientology as "squirreling" and is said by Scientologists to be high treason. The Religious Technology Center has prosecuted breakaway groups that have practiced Scientology outside the official Church without authorization.
What must be welcomed in areas for the term do be perceived as complimentary?
56de739f4396321400ee2929
innovation
130
False
What did Isaac Asimov consider heresy as?
56de739f4396321400ee292a
an abstraction
311
False
Which type of heresy is the scientific community well equipped to defend itself against?
56de739f4396321400ee292c
endoheretics
491
False
What has heresy within the scientific community repeatedly become?
56de739f4396321400ee292d
orthodoxy
696
False
heresy
301
What term always has negatie overtones?
5a5adb7e9c0277001abe71ee
True
Isaac Asimov
277
Who did not believe in heresy?
5a5adb7e9c0277001abe71ef
True
science orthodoxy
688
Who is not well equipped to deal with endoherectics?
5a5adb7e9c0277001abe71f0
True
the scientific community
523
Who is powerless against endoheretics?
5a5adb7e9c0277001abe71f1
True
In other contexts the term does not necessarily have pejorative overtones and may even be complimentary when used, in areas where innovation is welcome, of ideas that are in fundamental disagreement with the status quo in any practice and branch of knowledge. Scientist/author Isaac Asimov considered heresy as an abstraction, Asimov's views are in Forward: The Role of the Heretic. mentioning religious, political, socioeconomic and scientific heresies. He divided scientific heretics into endoheretics (those from within the scientific community) and exoheretics (those from without). Characteristics were ascribed to both and examples of both kinds were offered. Asimov concluded that science orthodoxy defends itself well against endoheretics (by control of science education, grants and publication as examples), but is nearly powerless against exoheretics. He acknowledged by examples that heresy has repeatedly become orthodoxy.
What is the title of the book published by Robert T. Bakker regarding mainstream opinion of dinosaurs?
56de73d0cffd8e1900b4b92c
The Dinosaur Heresies
79
False
What criticism did Robert T. Bakker share about the paleontologist community regarding the last fifty years?
56de73d0cffd8e1900b4b92d
the field hasn't tested dinosaur orthodoxy severely enough
267
False
What film did Robert T. Bakker's book reportedly influence?
56de73d0cffd8e1900b4b92e
Jurassic Park
513
False
What type of poses did the book's illustrations portray dinosaurs as?
56de73d0cffd8e1900b4b92f
active poses
583
False
What label is associated with Robert T. Bakker as a result of his work?
56de73d0cffd8e1900b4b930
endoheretic
692
False
Robert T. Bakker
31
Who is a modern example of an exoheretic?
5a5adcad9c0277001abe71f6
True
Jurassic Park
513
What film did Bakker base his book off of?
5a5adcad9c0277001abe71f7
True
dinosaur orthodoxy
291
What did Bakker criticize the paleontology community for spenting fifty years testing?
5a5adcad9c0277001abe71f8
True
new terminology
381
What did Bakker see as destabalizing?
5a5adcad9c0277001abe71f9
True
The revisionist paleontologist Robert T. Bakker, who published his findings as The Dinosaur Heresies, treated the mainstream view of dinosaurs as dogma. "I have enormous respect for dinosaur paleontologists past and present. But on average, for the last fifty years, the field hasn't tested dinosaur orthodoxy severely enough." page 27 "Most taxonomists, however, have viewed such new terminology as dangerously destabilizing to the traditional and well-known scheme..." page 462. This book apparently influenced Jurassic Park. The illustrations by the author show dinosaurs in very active poses, in contrast to the traditional perception of lethargy. He is an example of a recent scientific endoheretic.
What label is associated with Immanuel Velikovsky due to his works outside the accepted discipline?
56de73eb4396321400ee2933
exoheretic
57
False
What medium did Immanuel Velikovsky not publish his works in that is accepted practice?
56de73eb4396321400ee2934
scientific journals
142
False
What two examples of ideas from Immanuel Velikovsky are stated as to have gained some acceptance?
56de73eb4396321400ee2935
extinction event and punctuated equilibrium
258
False
Immanuel Velikovsky
0
Who is a recent scientific endoheretic?
5a5add719c0277001abe71fe
True
scientific journals
142
What did Velikovsky publish in?
5a5add719c0277001abe71ff
True
extinction event and punctuated equilibrium
258
What ideas of Velvovsky are in disrepute?
5a5add719c0277001abe7200
True
Immanuel Velikovsky
0
Who's work is widely excepted among scientest today?
5a5add719c0277001abe7201
True
Immanuel Velikovsky is an example of a recent scientific exoheretic; he did not have appropriate scientific credentials or did not publish in scientific journals. While the details of his work are in scientific disrepute, the concept of catastrophic change (extinction event and punctuated equilibrium) has gained acceptance in recent decades.
By definition, what contrast does heresy depend on?
56de73fbcffd8e1900b4b936
an established orthodoxy
140
False
What figure of speech is the word heresy commonly used as in present day scenarios?
56de73fbcffd8e1900b4b937
metaphors
326
False
heresy
107
What does orthodoxy depend on?
5a5ade449c0277001abe7206
True
heresy,
313
What term expands the definition of religion?
5a5ade449c0277001abe7207
True
heresy,
313
What points out the similarities between an individuals beliefs and mainstream beliefs?
5a5ade449c0277001abe7208
True
The term heresy is also used as an ideological pigeonhole for contemporary writers because, by definition, heresy depends on contrasts with an established orthodoxy. For example, the tongue-in-cheek contemporary usage of heresy, such as to categorize a "Wall Street heresy" a "Democratic heresy" or a "Republican heresy," are metaphors that invariably retain a subtext that links orthodoxies in geology or biology or any other field to religion. These expanded metaphoric senses allude to both the difference between the person's views and the mainstream and the boldness of such a person in propounding these views.
Warsaw_Pact
In which year was the Warsaw Pact established?
56de82f5cffd8e1900b4b9b2
1955
573
False
Which nation formed the nucleus of the Warsaw Pact?
56de82f5cffd8e1900b4b9b3
Soviet Union
182
False
Which conflict was the impetus for the formation of the Pact?
56de82f5cffd8e1900b4b9b4
the Cold War
279
False
How many Soviet allied countries were members of the Warsaw Pact?
56deff93c65bf219000b3eb7
seven
199
False
The acceptance of which country into NATO prompted the formation of the Warsaw Pact?
56deff93c65bf219000b3eb8
West Germany
547
False
Warsaw Pact
4
What was formally known as the Pact of Friendship?
5ad54e6b5b96ef001a10ac6e
True
Warsaw Pact
4
Which treaty included the Soviet Union and eight Soviet satellite states?
5ad54e6b5b96ef001a10ac6f
True
West Germany
547
The Paris Pacts of 1955 integrated whom into NATO?
5ad54e6b5b96ef001a10ac70
True
1955
573
East Germany was integrated in NATO in what year?
5ad54e6b5b96ef001a10ac71
True
The Warsaw Pact (formally, the Treaty of Friendship, Co-operation, and Mutual Assistance, sometimes, informally WarPac, akin in format to NATO) was a collective defense treaty among Soviet Union and seven Soviet satellite states in Central and Eastern Europe in existence during the Cold War. The Warsaw Pact was the military complement to the Council for Mutual Economic Assistance (CoMEcon), the regional economic organization for the communist states of Central and Eastern Europe. The Warsaw Pact was created in reaction to the integration of West Germany into NATO in 1955 per the Paris Pacts of 1954, but it is also considered to have been motivated by Soviet desires to maintain control over military forces in Central and Eastern Europe.
Which organization was in direct competition with the Warsaw Pact?
56de83744396321400ee29bf
NATO
80
False
Which nation saw the most significant Warsaw Pact military deployment?
56de83744396321400ee29c0
Czechoslovakia
385
False
What was the name of the Polish revolutionary movement which the Warsaw Pact failed to suppress?
56de83744396321400ee29c1
Solidarity
580
False
Which country saw the largest Warsaw Pact deployment?
56deffef3277331400b4d87d
Czechoslovakia
385
False
In which year did the Warsaw Pact cease to function effectively?
56deffef3277331400b4d87e
1989
525
False
What was the name of the Polish labor movement which successfully defied the Warsaw Pact?
56deffef3277331400b4d87f
Solidarity
580
False
NATO
80
There was direct confrontation between the Warsaw Pact and which organization?
5ad54f595b96ef001a10ac80
True
Czechoslovakia
385
Which nation saw the most significant Warsaw Pact economic deployment?
5ad54f595b96ef001a10ac81
True
The Pact
473
Who functioned successfully when the Revolutions of 1989 spread through Easter Europe?
5ad54f595b96ef001a10ac82
True
Solidarity
580
What was the name of the Albanian revolutionary movement which the Warsaw Pact failed to suppress?
5ad54f595b96ef001a10ac83
True
While the Warsaw Pact was established as a balance of power or counterweight to NATO, there was no direct confrontation between them. Instead, the conflict was fought on an ideological basis. Both NATO and the Warsaw Pact led to the expansion of military forces and their integration into the respective blocs. The Warsaw Pact's largest military engagement was Warsaw Pact invasion of Czechoslovakia (with the participation of all Pact nations except Romania and Albania). The Pact failed to function when the Revolutions of 1989 spread through Eastern Europe, beginning with the Solidarity movement in Poland and its success in June 1989.
In which country did the Warsaw Pact dissolution meeting take place?
56de83e34396321400ee29c6
Hungary
143
False
Who was the president of Czechoslovakia during the dissolution of the Warsaw Pact?
56df006ec65bf219000b3ec0
Václav Havel
195
False
USSR
358
Which country was dissolved in February 1991?
5ad550815b96ef001a10ac98
True
Václav Havel
195
Who was the president of Hungary during the dissolution of the Warsaw Pact?
5ad550815b96ef001a10ac99
True
Hungary
143
The Pact ended at a 1 July 1991 meeting in which country?
5ad550815b96ef001a10ac9a
True
Hungary
143
Which country held the 1 July 1991 meeting to dissolve the Warsaw Pact?
5ad550815b96ef001a10ac9b
True
On 25 February 1991, the Pact was declared at an end at a meeting of defense and foreign ministers from the remaining member states meeting in Hungary. On 1 July 1991, the Czechoslovak President Václav Havel formally declared an end to the Warsaw Treaty Organization of Friendship, Co-operation, and Mutual Assistance which had been established in 1955. The USSR itself was dissolved in December 1991.
Despite being headquartered in Poland, the top-ranking operatives of the Warsaw Pact were from which country?
56de848fcffd8e1900b4b9d0
the USSR
461
False
Which nation was in effective control of both political and military functions of the Warsaw Pact?
56df00c33277331400b4d88d
the USSR
461
False
the Supreme Commander of the Unified Armed Forces of the Warsaw Treaty Organization
254
Who was also a Second Deputy Minister of Defense of the USSR?
5ad552845b96ef001a10aca0
True
the Chief of Combined Staff of the Unified Armed Forces of the Warsaw Treaty Organization
475
Who was also a Second Deputy Chief of the General Staff of the Armed Forces of the USSR?
5ad552845b96ef001a10aca1
True
USSR
731
Who did not dominate the Warsaw Treaty armed forces?
5ad552845b96ef001a10aca2
True
Political Consultative Committee
51
What committee handled the assigned multi-national forces?
5ad552845b96ef001a10aca3
True
The Warsaw Treaty's organization was two-fold: the Political Consultative Committee handled political matters, and the Combined Command of Pact Armed Forces controlled the assigned multi-national forces, with headquarters in Warsaw, Poland. Furthermore, the Supreme Commander of the Unified Armed Forces of the Warsaw Treaty Organization which commands and controls all the military forces of the member countries was also a First Deputy Minister of Defense of the USSR, and the Chief of Combined Staff of the Unified Armed Forces of the Warsaw Treaty Organization was also a First Deputy Chief of the General Staff of the Armed Forces of the USSR. Therefore, although ostensibly an international collective security alliance, the USSR dominated the Warsaw Treaty armed forces.
Which ideologies did the Soviet Union aspire to lead around the globe?
56de8542cffd8e1900b4b9d8
socialism and communism
264
False
Which Soviet leader formed doctrine aimed at keeping socialist satellite nations in line?
56de8542cffd8e1900b4b9d9
Brezhnev
528
False
The Soviet Union feared invasion from which potential enemy?
56de8542cffd8e1900b4b9da
Western Europe
639
False
Soviet Union
85
Who wanted to dominate Western and Eastern Europe?
5ad567e55b96ef001a10ae08
True
Soviet Union
221
Which country wanted to define socialism and liberalism?
5ad567e55b96ef001a10ae09
True
Soviet Union
586
Who feared invasion from Eastern Europe?
5ad567e55b96ef001a10ae0a
True
Brezhnev
528
Which doctrine aimed against keeping socialist satellite nations in line?
5ad567e55b96ef001a10ae0b
True
The strategy behind the formation of the Warsaw Pact was driven by the desire of the Soviet Union to dominate Central and Eastern Europe. This policy was driven by ideological and geostrategic reasons. Ideologically, the Soviet Union arrogated the right to define socialism and communism and act as the leader of the global socialist movement. A corollary to this idea was the necessity of intervention if a country appeared to be violating core socialist ideas and Communist Party functions, which was explicitly stated in the Brezhnev Doctrine. Geostrategic principles also drove the Soviet Union to prevent invasion of its territory by Western European powers.
The formation of the Warsaw Pact was driven by fears of which country rearming itself?
56df02483277331400b4d8a1
West Germany
203
False
Which country sought NATO admission in response to the fear of German rearmament?
56df02483277331400b4d8a2
the USSR
817
False
Czechoslovak
57
Which leadership had no fear of Germany?
5ad56a065b96ef001a10ae40
True
East Germany and Poland
117
What states protested for the re-militarization of West Germany?
5ad56a065b96ef001a10ae41
True
Soviet leaders
322
Who feared Poland becoming once again a military power?
5ad56a065b96ef001a10ae42
True
NATO
739
What officials said the Pact was a "superfluous castle"?
5ad56a065b96ef001a10ae43
True
Before creation of Warsaw Pact, fearing Germany rearmed, Czechoslovak leadership sought to create security pact with East Germany and Poland. These states protested strongly against re-militarization of West Germany. The Warsaw Pact was primarily put in place as a consequence of the rearming of West Germany inside NATO. Soviet leaders, as many European countries in both western and eastern side, feared Germany being once again a military power as a direct threat and German militarism remained a fresh memory among Soviets and Eastern Europeans. As Soviet Union had already bilateral treaties with all of its eastern satellites, the Pact has been long considered 'superfluous', and because of the rushed way in which it was conceived, NATO officials labeled it as a 'cardboard castle'. Previously, in March 1954, the USSR, fearing the restoration of German Militarism in West Germany, requested admission to NATO.
Who was the Soviet minister who proposed German reunification?
56df03473277331400b4d8ab
Molotov
130
False
When was reunification first proposed as an idea?
56df03473277331400b4d8ac
1952
482
False
Soviet
4
Who wanted to join NATO after the Berlin Conference of January-June 1954?
5ad56b055b96ef001a10ae52
True
Soviet foreign minister Molotov
106
Who made proposals to have Germany dismantled?
5ad56b055b96ef001a10ae53
True
German reunification
502
In 1942, what was first proposed as an idea?
5ad56b055b96ef001a10ae54
True
United Kingdom, France, and the United States
581
Which countries believed Germany should not be free to rearm?
5ad56b055b96ef001a10ae55
True
The Soviet request to join NATO arose in the aftermath of the Berlin Conference of January–February 1954. Soviet foreign minister Molotov made proposals to have Germany reunified and elections for a pan-German government, under conditions of withdrawal of the four powers armies and German neutrality, but all were refused by the other foreign ministers, Dulles (USA), Eden (UK) and Bidault (France). Proposals for the reunification of Germany were nothing new: earlier on 20 March 1952, talks about a German reunification, initiated by the socalled 'Stalin Note', ended after the United Kingdom, France, and the United States insisted that a unified Germany should not be neutral and should be free to join the European Defence Community and rearm. James Dunn (USA), who met in Paris with Eden, Adenauer and Robert Schuman (France), affirmed that "the object should be to avoid discussion with the Russians and to press on the European Defense Community". According to John Gaddis "there was little inclination in Western capitals to explore this offer" from USSR. While historian Rolf Steininger asserts that Adenauer's conviction that “neutralization means sovietization” was the main factor in the rejection of the soviet proposals, Adenauer also feared that unification might have resulted in the end of the CDU's dominance in the Bundestag.
The omission of which nation from involvement in the proposed security system led to its NATO opposition?
56df047bc65bf219000b3edf
the USA
270
False
EDC
89
The European Treaty was accepted by which group?
5ad56c6d5b96ef001a10ae74
True
European
30
Supporters of the European Defense Community were in favor of what treaty?
5ad56c6d5b96ef001a10ae75
True
European Treaty
30
The UK was initially excluded from participating in which agreement?
5ad56c6d5b96ef001a10ae76
True
Palewski
186
One of the leaders who supported the European Defense Community was whom?
5ad56c6d5b96ef001a10ae77
True
One month later, the proposed European Treaty was rejected not only by supporters of the EDC but also by western opponents of the European Defense Community (like French Gaullist leader Palewski) who perceived it as "unacceptable in its present form because it excludes the USA from participation in the collective security system in Europe". The Soviets then decided to make a new proposal to the governments of the USA, UK and France stating to accept the participation of the USA in the proposed General European Agreement. And considering that another argument deployed against the Soviet proposal was that it was perceived by western powers as "directed against the North Atlantic Pact and its liquidation", the Soviets decided to declare their "readiness to examine jointly with other interested parties the question of the participation of the USSR in the North Atlantic bloc", specifying that "the admittance of the USA into the General European Agreement should not be conditional on the three western powers agreeing to the USSR joining the North Atlantic Pact".
Who was the general who spoke out against the USSR joining NATO?
56df0af2c65bf219000b3ef3
Hastings Ismay
167
False
To what did the British general compare the USSR in his opposition to their joining NATO?
56df0af2c65bf219000b3ef4
burglar
424
False
UK, US, and French
74
The USSR's request to join NATO was accepted by which governments?
5ad56d0c5b96ef001a10ae7c
True
NATO expansion
196
French General Hastings Ismay was a supporter of what?
5ad56d0c5b96ef001a10ae7d
True
Hastings Ismay
167
Who supported the USSR's 1954 request to join NATO?
5ad56d0c5b96ef001a10ae7e
True
an unrepentant burglar requesting to join the police force
409
French General Hastings Ismay compared the USSR joining NATO to what?
5ad56d0c5b96ef001a10ae7f
True
Again all proposals, including the request to join NATO, were rejected by UK, US, and French governments shortly after. Emblematic was the position of British General Hastings Ismay, supporter of NATO expansion, who said that NATO "must grow until the whole free world gets under one umbrella." He opposed the request to join NATO made by the USSR in 1954 saying that "the Soviet request to join NATO is like an unrepentant burglar requesting to join the police force".
In what year did Konrad Adenauer first visit the United States?
56df0bf73277331400b4d919
1954
9
False
Adenauer
14
Who made his second visit to the US in April 1954?
5ad56da45b96ef001a10ae8e
True
Adenauer
14
Who met Nixon, Eisenhower and Dulles in May 1954?
5ad56da45b96ef001a10ae8f
True
US representatives
134
Who made it clear to Adenauer that NATO would have to become part of the EDC?
5ad56da45b96ef001a10ae90
True
Ratification of EDC
93
What had no delays?
5ad56da45b96ef001a10ae91
True
In April 1954 Adenauer made his first visit to the USA meeting Nixon, Eisenhower and Dulles. Ratification of EDC was delaying but the US representatives made it clear to Adenauer that EDC would have to become a part of NATO.
Which NATO country feared a unified and rearmed Germany?
56df114cc65bf219000b3f1d
France
95
False
Nazi
16
Memories of what occupation were fading by 1954?
5ad56e595b96ef001a10ae96
True
Germany
73
France had no fear of what country?
5ad56e595b96ef001a10ae97
True
French
125
Which parliament rejected the EDC on 30 April 1954?
5ad56e595b96ef001a10ae98
True
US
298
Which country wanted to keep Germany militarily against the West?
5ad56e595b96ef001a10ae99
True
Memories of the Nazi occupation were still strong, and the rearmament of Germany was feared by France too. On 30 August 1954 French Parliament rejected the EDC, thus ensuring its failure and blocking a major objective of US policy towards Europe: to associate Germany militarily with the West. The US Department of State started to elaborate alternatives: Germany would be invited to join NATO or, in the case of French obstructionism, strategies to circumvent a French veto would be implemented in order to obtain a German rearmament outside NATO.
In which year was West Germany admitted to NATO?
56df11aac65bf219000b3f1f
1954
14
False
Halvard Lange was a minister of which NATO member?
56df11aac65bf219000b3f20
Norway
412
False
Nazi Germany
78
Who ended WWII in Europe by defeating the Allies?
5ad56f1b5b96ef001a10aeb0
True
the admission of the Federal Republic of Germany to the North Atlantic Pact
123
What was decided on 13 October 1954?
5ad56f1b5b96ef001a10aeb1
True
9 May 1955
279
East Germany was accepted to the North Atlantic Pact on what date?
5ad56f1b5b96ef001a10aeb2
True
Halvard Lange
369
Who was Foreign Affairs Minister of Germany in 1955?
5ad56f1b5b96ef001a10aeb3
True
USSR
454
Who requested a new European Security Treaty in April 1954?
5ad56f1b5b96ef001a10aeb4
True
On 23 October 1954 – only nine years after Allies (UK, USA and USSR) defeated Nazi Germany ending World War II in Europe – the admission of the Federal Republic of Germany to the North Atlantic Pact was finally decided. The incorporation of West Germany into the organization on 9 May 1955 was described as "a decisive turning point in the history of our continent" by Halvard Lange, Foreign Affairs Minister of Norway at the time. In November 1954, the USSR requested a new European Security Treaty, in order to make a final attempt to not have a remilitarized West Germany potentially opposed to the Soviet Union, with no success.
In which month of 1955 was this pact declared?
56df12383277331400b4d93e
May
6
False
14 May 1955
3
The USSR and eight other European countries formed the Warsaw Pact on what date?
5ad56fb25b96ef001a10aeba
True
Warsaw
270
What pact was declared in May 1956?
5ad56fb25b96ef001a10aebb
True
Warsaw
270
Which pact was formed in response to the separation of the Federal Republic of Germany into NATO?
5ad56fb25b96ef001a10aebc
True
Federal Republic of Germany
320
Which country was separated from NATO?
5ad56fb25b96ef001a10aebd
True
On 14 May 1955, the USSR and other seven European countries "reaffirming their desire for the establishment of a system of European collective security based on the participation of all European states irrespective of their social and political systems" established the Warsaw Pact in response to the integration of the Federal Republic of Germany into NATO, declaring that: "a remilitarized Western Germany and the integration of the latter in the North-Atlantic bloc [...] increase the danger of another war and constitutes a threat to the national security of the peaceable states; [...] in these circumstances the peaceable European states must take the necessary measures to safeguard their security".
Which nation was permitted rearmament by the foundation of the Warsaw Pact?
56df12853277331400b4d94f
East Germany
29
False
What was the name of the East German armed forces?
56df12853277331400b4d950
the National People's Army
88
False
East Germany
29
Which country was banned from rearming?
5ad570205b96ef001a10aecc
True
Soviet Union
71
Who allowed West Germany to re-arm?
5ad570205b96ef001a10aecd
True
National People's Army
92
West Germany's army was know as what?
5ad570205b96ef001a10aece
True
National People's Army
92
West Germany formed what army to counter to rearmament of East Germany?
5ad570205b96ef001a10aecf
True
One of the founding members, East Germany was allowed to re-arm by the Soviet Union and the National People's Army was established as the armed forces of the country to counter the rearmament of West Germany.
How many countries formed the initial Warsaw Pact membership?
56df12ec3277331400b4d953
eight
4
False
mutual
58
The nine countries of the Warsaw Pact pledged what defense?
5ad570a95b96ef001a10aed4
True
treaty signatories
130
Whose relations were based on mutual intervention?
5ad570a95b96ef001a10aed5
True
Soviet Union
389
All governments in the the Warsaw Pact were controlled by whom?
5ad570a95b96ef001a10aed6
True
Warsaw
34
Nine member countries formed what pact?
5ad570a95b96ef001a10aed7
True
The eight member countries of the Warsaw Pact pledged the mutual defense of any member who would be attacked. Relations among the treaty signatories were based upon mutual non-intervention in the internal affairs of the member countries, respect for national sovereignty, and political independence. However, almost all governments of those member states were indirectly controlled by the Soviet Union.
In which year did Mongolia seek entry in the Warsaw Pact?
56df13573277331400b4d957
1963
8
False
In which year were Soviet forces scheduled to leave Mongolia?
56df13573277331400b4d959
1966
357
False
Mongolian People's Republic
17
Who asked to join the Warsaw Pact in January 1963?
5ad5712c5b96ef001a10aee4
True
Mongolian People's Republic
17
Who asked to join the Warsaw Pact under Article 10?
5ad5712c5b96ef001a10aee5
True
Mongolia
257
Which group was removed from observer status?
5ad5712c5b96ef001a10aee6
True
Soviet
295
Whose troops agrees to stay in Mongolia from 1956?
5ad5712c5b96ef001a10aee7
True
In July 1963 the Mongolian People's Republic asked to join the Warsaw Pact under Article 9 of the treaty. For this purpose a special protocol should have been taken since the text of the treaty applied only to Europe. Due to the emerging Sino-Soviet split, Mongolia remained on observer status. Soviet stationing troops were agreed to stay in Mongolia from 1966.
What was the focus of both alliances' policies towards the other in lieu of direct fighting?
56df13b6c65bf219000b3f3b
containment
205
False
Which continent was considered to be at the center of NATO/Warsaw Pact intrigues?
56df13b6c65bf219000b3f3c
Europe
86
False
NATO and the Warsaw Pact
14
Who waged war against each other for 36 years?
5ad571d45b96ef001a10aef6
True
war
60
NATO and the US never waged what against each other?
5ad571d45b96ef001a10aef7
True
United States and the Soviet Union and their respective allies
98
Who created strategic policies aimed at containment?
5ad571d45b96ef001a10aef8
True
United States and the Soviet Union and their respective allies
98
Who fought for influence during WWII?
5ad571d45b96ef001a10aef9
True
For 36 years, NATO and the Warsaw Pact never directly waged war against each other in Europe; the United States and the Soviet Union and their respective allies implemented strategic policies aimed at the containment of each other in Europe, while working and fighting for influence within the wider Cold War on the international stage.
In which year did Hungary attempt to leave the Warsaw Pact?
56df14683277331400b4d95d
1956
3
False
Who was the head of the Hungarian government at the time of the revolt?
56df14683277331400b4d95f
Imre Nagy
42
False
Hungary
80
Which country withdrew from the Warsaw Pact in 1966?
5ad572595b96ef001a10aefe
True
Soviet
110
Whose troops entered Hungary and supported thier government?
5ad572595b96ef001a10aeff
True
Soviet
172
Whose forces supported the nationwide revolt?
5ad572595b96ef001a10af00
True
Hungary
80
250,000 of whose citizens dies after withdrawing from the Warsaw Pact?
5ad572595b96ef001a10af01
True
In 1956, following the declaration of the Imre Nagy government of withdrawal of Hungary from the Warsaw Pact, Soviet troops entered the country and removed the government. Soviet forces crushed the nationwide revolt, leading to the death of an estimated 2,500 Hungarian citizens.
In which year was the Warsaw Pact activated in a joint action?
56df14d0c65bf219000b3f49
1968
118
False
Which country did the Pact conquer?
56df14d0c65bf219000b3f4a
Czechoslovakia
93
False
Czechoslovakia
93
What country was invaded in August 1998?
5ad572f65b96ef001a10af10
True
Socialist Republic of Romania and the People's Republic of Albania
172
Which two countries supported the invasion in Czechoslovakia?
5ad572f65b96ef001a10af11
True
1968
118
Czechoslovakia invaded Albania in what year?
5ad572f65b96ef001a10af12
True
Czechoslovakia
93
The Socialist Republic of Romania supported the invasion of what country?
5ad572f65b96ef001a10af13
True
The multi-national Communist armed forces' sole joint action was the Warsaw Pact invasion of Czechoslovakia in August 1968. All member countries, with the exception of the Socialist Republic of Romania and the People's Republic of Albania participated in the invasion.
In which country did Warsaw Pact officials meet to dissolve the alliance?
56df18663277331400b4d981
Hungary
147
False
In which year did Romania overthrow its communist government?
56df18663277331400b4d982
1989
470
False
For how many years did the Warsaw Pact formally exist?
56df18663277331400b4d983
36
370
False
Warsaw
25
What pact was disbanded on 15 February 1991?
5ad573a55b96ef001a10af18
True
Hungary
147
In which country was the Warsaw Pact disbanded in 1981?
5ad573a55b96ef001a10af19
True
Warsaw Treaty Organization of Friendship, Cooperation, and Mutual Assistance
247
Which treaty was ended on 1 January 1991?
5ad573a55b96ef001a10af1a
True
Warsaw Treaty
350
Which treaty was de facto disbanded during the 1989 violent revolution in Russia?
5ad573a55b96ef001a10af1b
True
On 25 February 1991, the Warsaw Pact was declared disbanded at a meeting of defense and foreign ministers from remaining Pact countries meeting in Hungary. On 1 July 1991, in Prague, the Czechoslovak President Václav Havel formally ended the 1955 Warsaw Treaty Organization of Friendship, Cooperation, and Mutual Assistance and so disestablished the Warsaw Treaty after 36 years of military alliance with the USSR. In fact, the treaty was de facto disbanded in December 1989 during the violent revolution in Romania, which toppled the communist government, without military intervention form other member states. The USSR disestablished itself in December 1991.
Which former Eastern Bloc country was the latest to join NATO?
56df18c9c65bf219000b3f55
Albania
153
False
In which year did Poland join NATO?
56df18c9c65bf219000b3f56
1999
12
False
In which year did Slovakia join NATO?
56df18c9c65bf219000b3f57
2004
147
False
Czech Republic, Hungary, and Poland
22
Which countries joined NATO on 12 May 1999?
5ad5740b5b96ef001a10af20
True
Bulgaria, Estonia, Latvia, Lithuania, Romania, and Slovakia
71
Which countries joined NATO in May 2004?
5ad5740b5b96ef001a10af21
True
Albania
153
Which country joined NATO on 11 April 2009?
5ad5740b5b96ef001a10af22
True
NATO
65
Hungary joined which organization in March 2004?
5ad5740b5b96ef001a10af23
True
NATO
65
Poland joined which organization in March 2004?
5ad5740b5b96ef001a10af24
True
On 12 March 1999, the Czech Republic, Hungary, and Poland joined NATO; Bulgaria, Estonia, Latvia, Lithuania, Romania, and Slovakia joined in March 2004; Albania joined on 1 April 2009.
In which year did Poland declassify most of its Warsaw Pact-era archives?
56df1961c65bf219000b3f5b
2005
12
False
How many documents remain classified?
56df1961c65bf219000b3f5c
70
348
False
What was the name of the Warsaw Pact's planned counteroffensive to a NATO first strike?
56df1961c65bf219000b3f5d
Seven Days to the River Rhine
456
False
How many nuclear weapons were eventually housed in Poland?
56df1961c65bf219000b3f5e
250
905
False
In which year was the counteroffensive strategy first conceived?
56df1961c65bf219000b3f5f
1979
683
False
Institute of National Remembrance
81
Who published classified documents in January 2006?
5ad574b85b96ef001a10af2a
True
Polish government
189
Who reserved publication of 1000 documents?
5ad574b85b96ef001a10af2b
True
Warsaw Treaty battle doctrine
754
What originated as a 1989 field training exercise war game?
5ad574b85b96ef001a10af2c
True
Seven Days to the River Rhine
989
What plan gave commanders many defensive-war strategies for fighting NATO?
5ad574b85b96ef001a10af2d
True
In November 2005, the Polish government opened its Warsaw Treaty archives to the Institute of National Remembrance, who published some 1,300 declassified documents in January 2006. Yet the Polish government reserved publication of 100 documents, pending their military declassification. Eventually, 30 of the reserved 100 documents were published; 70 remained secret, and unpublished. Among the documents published is the Warsaw Treaty's nuclear war plan, Seven Days to the River Rhine – a short, swift counter-attack capturing Austria, Denmark, Germany and Netherlands east of River Rhine, using nuclear weapons, in self-defense, after a NATO first strike. The plan originated as a 1979 field training exercise war game, and metamorphosed into official Warsaw Treaty battle doctrine, until the late 1980s – which is why the People's Republic of Poland was a nuclear weapons base, first, to 178, then, to 250 tactical-range rockets. Doctrinally, as a Soviet-style (offensive) battle plan, Seven Days to the River Rhine gave commanders few defensive-war strategies for fighting NATO in Warsaw Treaty territory.[citation needed]
Molotov
14
Who made a proposal for a General European Treaty on Collective Identity in Europe?
5ad56b9b5b96ef001a10ae5a
True
General European Treaty on Collective Security in Europe
225
What treaty would make the EDC usable?
5ad56b9b5b96ef001a10ae5b
True
General European Treaty on Collective Security in Europe
225
Which treaty would be open to only some European states?
5ad56b9b5b96ef001a10ae5c
True
Molotov
14
Who feared the EDC would work with the USSR?
5ad56b9b5b96ef001a10ae5d
True
Consequently, Molotov, fearing that EDC would be directed in the future against the USSR therefore "seeking to prevent the formation of groups of European States directed against other European States", made a proposal for a General European Treaty on Collective Security in Europe "open to all European States without regard as to their social systems" which would have included the unified Germany (thus making the EDC – perceived by the USSR as a threat – unusable). But Eden, Dulles and Bidault opposed the proposal.
Materialism
What is materialism?
56de92c1cffd8e1900b4b9fc
a form of philosophical monism
15
False
In nature, this is an essential substance?
56de92c1cffd8e1900b4b9fd
matter
63
False
matter
63
What is not a fundamental substance in nature?
5acd09a507355d001abf31fa
True
consciousness
165
Mental phenomena and what else are not identical with material interactions?
5acd09a507355d001abf31fb
True
matter is the fundamental substance in nature
63
What is the definition of philosophical monism?
5acd09a507355d001abf31fc
True
Materialism is a form of philosophical monism which holds that matter is the fundamental substance in nature, and that all phenomena, including mental phenomena and consciousness, are identical with material interactions.
What are some examples of philosophical physicalism?
56de936b4396321400ee2a30
spacetime, physical energies and forces, dark matter
295
False
Some people consider physicalism to be synonymous with what?
56de936b4396321400ee2a31
Materialism
0
False
the view that all that exists is ultimately physical
47
What is the definition of non-physicalism?
5acd0a0107355d001abf3200
True
the view that all that exists is ultimately physical
47
What is the definition of non-materialism?
5acd0a0107355d001abf3201
True
Philosophical physicalism
101
What has devolved from materialism?
5acd0a0107355d001abf3202
True
physicalism
375
What term is not preferred over materialism?
5acd0a0107355d001abf3203
True
Materialism is closely related to physicalism, the view that all that exists is ultimately physical. Philosophical physicalism has evolved from materialism with the discoveries of the physical sciences to incorporate more sophisticated notions of physicality than mere ordinary matter, such as: spacetime, physical energies and forces, dark matter, and so on. Thus the term "physicalism" is preferred over "materialism" by some, while others use the terms as if they are synonymous.
What class does materialism belong to?
56de94434396321400ee2a3b
monist ontology
36
False
it is different from ontological theories based on dualism or pluralism
62
Why does materialism belong in monist ontology?
5acd0a8407355d001abf3208
True
pluralism
124
Monist ontology is the same as dualism and what else?
5acd0a8407355d001abf3209
True
spiritualism
254
Materialism is the same as idealism, neutral monism, and what else?
5acd0a8407355d001abf320a
True
singular explanations of the phenomenal reality
139
What is the definition of neutral monism?
5acd0a8407355d001abf320b
True
pluralism
124
What is synonymous with dualism?
5acd0a8407355d001abf320c
True
Materialism belongs to the class of monist ontology. As such, it is different from ontological theories based on dualism or pluralism. For singular explanations of the phenomenal reality, materialism would be in contrast to idealism, neutral monism, and spiritualism.
What is the first question to ask in order to define the two classes?
56de957acffd8e1900b4ba02
"what does reality consist of?"
400
False
What is the second question to ask in order to define the two classes?
56de957acffd8e1900b4ba03
"how does it originate?"
436
False
An idealist considers what as the most important?
56de957acffd8e1900b4ba04
spirit or mind or the objects of mind (ideas)
475
False
A materialist considers what as the most important?
56de957acffd8e1900b4ba05
matter
538
False
what does reality consist of?
401
What is the last question to ask in order to define the two classes?
5acd0b0407355d001abf3222
True
matter
573
A materialist considers what as the least important?
5acd0b0407355d001abf3223
True
mind or spirit or ideas
596
A materialist considers what as the second to least important?
5acd0b0407355d001abf3224
True
spirit or mind or the objects of mind (ideas)
475
An idealist considers what as the least important?
5acd0b0407355d001abf3225
True
matter
538
An idealist considers what as the second to least important?
5acd0b0407355d001abf3226
True
Despite the large number of philosophical schools and subtle nuances between many, all philosophies are said to fall into one of two primary categories, which are defined in contrast to each other: Idealism, and materialism.[a] The basic proposition of these two categories pertains to the nature of reality, and the primary distinction between them is the way they answer two fundamental questions: "what does reality consist of?" and "how does it originate?" To idealists, spirit or mind or the objects of mind (ideas) are primary, and matter secondary. To materialists, matter is primary, and mind or spirit or ideas are secondary, the product of matter acting upon matter.
Was René Descartes an idealist or a materialist?
56de9609cffd8e1900b4ba0b
materialist
4
False
Materialism does not define what?
56de9609cffd8e1900b4ba0c
how material substance should be characterized.
219
False
opposition to the doctrines of immaterial substance applied to the mind
55
Why was René Descartes declared a materialist?
5acd0be607355d001abf323c
True
frequently assimilated to one variety of physicalism or another
286
What does materialism say about how substance should be characterized?
5acd0be607355d001abf323d
True
how material substance should be characterized.
219
Materialism defines what?
5acd0be607355d001abf323e
True
one variety of physicalism or another
312
Materialism is not frequently assimilated to what?
5acd0be607355d001abf323f
True
The materialist view is perhaps best understood in its opposition to the doctrines of immaterial substance applied to the mind historically, famously by René Descartes. However, by itself materialism says nothing about how material substance should be characterized. In practice, it is frequently assimilated to one variety of physicalism or another.
What type of materialism defined the Marxist philosophy?
56de997dcffd8e1900b4ba22
dialectical materialism
379
False
19th century
11
When was Karl Marx born?
5acd0dfc07355d001abf3286
True
19th century
11
When was Friedrich Engels born?
5acd0dfc07355d001abf3287
True
Later Marxists
340
Which era of Marxists rejected the notion of dialectical materialism?
5acd0dfc07355d001abf3288
True
Friedrich Engels
39
Who was Karl Marx's enemy?
5acd0dfc07355d001abf3289
True
dialectical materialism
379
What type of materialism did not define the Marxist philosophy?
5acd0dfc07355d001abf328a
True
During the 19th century, Karl Marx and Friedrich Engels extended the concept of materialism to elaborate a materialist conception of history centered on the roughly empirical world of human activity (practice, including labor) and the institutions created, reproduced, or destroyed by that activity (see materialist conception of history). Later Marxists developed the notion of dialectical materialism which characterized later Marxist philosophy and method.
Who coined the Axial Age?
56de99cfcffd8e1900b4ba26
Karl Jaspers
114
False
In what part of the world did materialism develop during the Axial Age?
56de99cfcffd8e1900b4ba27
Eurasia
94
False
Karl Jaspers
114
Who coined the non-Axial Age?
5acd0e5407355d001abf329a
True
Eurasia
94
In what part of the world did materialism develop during the non-Axial Age?
5acd0e5407355d001abf329b
True
approximately 800
149
When was Karl Jaspers born?
5acd0e5407355d001abf329c
True
200 BC
170
When did Karl Jaspers die?
5acd0e5407355d001abf329d
True
Materialism
0
What did not develop in Eurasia?
5acd0e5407355d001abf329e
True
Materialism developed, possibly independently, in several geographically separated regions of Eurasia during what Karl Jaspers termed the Axial Age (approximately 800 to 200 BC).
Around what time did materialism become part of Ancient Indian philosophy?
56de9b07cffd8e1900b4ba2b
600 BC
59
False
At that time, who helped develop materialism?
56de9b07cffd8e1900b4ba2c
Ajita Kesakambali, Payasi, Kanada, and the proponents of the Cārvāka school of philosophy
84
False
What school advanced atomism?
56de9b07cffd8e1900b4ba2d
Nyaya–Vaisesika school
233
False
Between what years did the school advance atomism?
56de9b07cffd8e1900b4ba2e
600 BC - 100 BC
257
False
600 BC
59
Around what time did Ancient Indian philosophy reject materialism?
5acd104707355d001abf32e0
True
Ajita Kesakambali, Payasi, Kanada, and the proponents of the Cārvāka school of philosophy
84
At that time, who rejected the idea of materialism?
5acd104707355d001abf32e1
True
The Nyaya–Vaisesika school
229
What school did not teach atomism?
5acd104707355d001abf32e2
True
atomic
502
What tradition did the Jaina school stop?
5acd104707355d001abf32e3
True
atomic
502
What tradition did Buddhists stop?
5acd104707355d001abf32e4
True
In Ancient Indian philosophy, materialism developed around 600 BC with the works of Ajita Kesakambali, Payasi, Kanada, and the proponents of the Cārvāka school of philosophy. Kanada became one of the early proponents of atomism. The Nyaya–Vaisesika school (600 BC - 100 BC) developed one of the earliest forms of atomism, though their proofs of God and their positing that the consciousness was not material precludes labelling them as materialists. Buddhist atomism and the Jaina school continued the atomic tradition.
Materialism is linked to what?
56de9c91cffd8e1900b4ba33
reductionism
37
False
the objects or phenomena individuated at one level of description
70
Why is materialism is not linked to reduction?
5acd0c8407355d001abf324e
True
according to which empirical laws and explanations in "special sciences" like psychology or geology are invisible from the perspective of basic physics
610
Why did Jerry Fodor disagree with this view?
5acd0c8407355d001abf324f
True
psychology or geology
688
What is not a special science?
5acd0c8407355d001abf3250
True
basic
748
What level physics does psychology and geology use?
5acd0c8407355d001abf3251
True
Materialism is often associated with reductionism, according to which the objects or phenomena individuated at one level of description, if they are genuine, must be explicable in terms of the objects or phenomena at some other level of description — typically, at a more reduced level. Non-reductive materialism explicitly rejects this notion, however, taking the material constitution of all particulars to be consistent with the existence of real objects, properties, or phenomena not explicable in the terms canonically used for the basic material constituents. Jerry Fodor influentially argues this view, according to which empirical laws and explanations in "special sciences" like psychology or geology are invisible from the perspective of basic physics. A lot of vigorous literature has grown up around the relation between these views.
De Rerum Natura is a poem by who?
56dede143277331400b4d77c
Lucretius
162
False
What kinf of explanation does De Rerum Natura provide for phenomena?
56dede143277331400b4d77d
mechanistic explanations
484
False
mechanistic explanations
484
What kind of explanation does De Rerum Natura argue for rejecting phenomena?
5acd10f207355d001abf3308
True
Lucretius
658
Who wrote the line "Everything can touch body but body"?
5acd10f207355d001abf3309
True
Democritus and Epicurus
669
Who believed space was not another kind of being?
5acd10f207355d001abf330a
True
Democritus and Epicurus
235
Whose view believes that there is more than matter and void?
5acd10f207355d001abf330b
True
99
177
How many languages was De Rerum translated into?
5acd10f207355d001abf330c
True
Ancient Greek philosophers like Thales, Anaxagoras (ca. 500 BC – 428 BC), Epicurus and Democritus prefigure later materialists. The Latin poem De Rerum Natura by Lucretius (ca. 99 BC – ca. 55 BC) reflects the mechanistic philosophy of Democritus and Epicurus. According to this view, all that exists is matter and void, and all phenomena result from different motions and conglomerations of base material particles called "atoms" (literally: "indivisibles"). De Rerum Natura provides mechanistic explanations for phenomena such as erosion, evaporation, wind, and sound. Famous principles like "nothing can touch body but body" first appeared in the works of Lucretius. Democritus and Epicurus however did not hold to a monist ontology since they held to the ontological separation of matter and space i.e. space being "another kind" of being, indicating that the definition of "materialism" is wider than given scope for in this article.
Name the title of the work by Jayaraashi Bhatta.
56dedeeac65bf219000b3d8b
Tattvopaplavasimha ("The upsetting of all principles")
69
False
Which type of philosphy did not continue after 1400?
56dedeeac65bf219000b3d8c
materialistic Cārvāka philosophy
166
False
What is Sarva-darśana-samgraha?
56dedeeac65bf219000b3d8d
a digest of all philosophies
298
False
Who wrote the Sarva-darśana-samgraha?
56dedeeac65bf219000b3d8e
Madhavacharya
251
False
The upsetting of all principles
90
What does Jayaraashi Bhatta mean?
5acd11c607355d001abf3330
True
6th century
44
When did Jayaraashi Bhatta die?
5acd11c607355d001abf3331
True
materialistic Cārvāka philosophy
166
What philosphy continued after 1400?
5acd11c607355d001abf3332
True
Cārvāka/Lokāyata
359
What text did Madhavacharya quote from?
5acd11c607355d001abf3333
True
6th century
44
When was Jayaraashi Bhatta born?
5acd11c607355d001abf3334
True
Later Indian materialist Jayaraashi Bhatta (6th century) in his work Tattvopaplavasimha ("The upsetting of all principles") refuted the Nyaya Sutra epistemology. The materialistic Cārvāka philosophy appears to have died out some time after 1400. When Madhavacharya compiled Sarva-darśana-samgraha (a digest of all philosophies) in the 14th century, he had no Cārvāka/Lokāyata text to quote from, or even refer to.
What is the name of the novel written by Ibn Tufail?
56dedf32c65bf219000b3d99
Hayy ibn Yaqdhan (Philosophus Autodidactus)
143
False
12th-century
9
When was Ibn Tufail born?
5acd128707355d001abf3356
True
12th-century
9
When did Ibn Tufail die?
5acd128707355d001abf3357
True
Philosophus Autodidactus
161
In what book did Hayy ibn Yaqdhan foreshadow the idea of modern materialism?
5acd128707355d001abf3358
True
Hayy ibn Yaqdhan
143
What book by Ibn Tufail did not discuss materialism?
5acd128707355d001abf3359
True
In early 12th-century al-Andalus, the Arabian philosopher, Ibn Tufail (Abubacer), wrote discussions on materialism in his philosophical novel, Hayy ibn Yaqdhan (Philosophus Autodidactus), while vaguely foreshadowing the idea of a historical materialism.
Pierre Gassendi lived from what year to what year?
56dee0713277331400b4d7a1
1592-1665
35
False
René Descartes lived from what year to what year?
56dee0713277331400b4d7a2
1596-1650
133
False
abbé Jean Meslier lived from what year to what year?
56dee0713277331400b4d7a3
1664-1729
264
False
Denis Diderot lived from what year to what year?
56dee0713277331400b4d7a4
1713-1784
402
False
William Wordsworth lived from what year to what year?
56dee0713277331400b4d7a5
1770-1850
653
False
René Descartes
117
Who agreed with Pierre Gassendi?
5acd132607355d001abf3372
True
other French Enlightenment thinkers
418
Who disagreed with Paul-Henri Thiry Baron d'Holbach?
5acd132607355d001abf3373
True
John "Walking" Stewart
479
Who did not see matter as endowed with moral dimension?
5acd132607355d001abf3374
True
John "Walking" Stewart
479
William Wordsworth was not impacted by which thinker?
5acd132607355d001abf3375
True
René Descartes
117
Who provided the non-natural sciences with dualist foundations?
5acd132607355d001abf3376
True
The French cleric Pierre Gassendi (1592-1665) represented the materialist tradition in opposition to the attempts of René Descartes (1596-1650) to provide the natural sciences with dualist foundations. There followed the materialist and atheist abbé Jean Meslier (1664-1729), Julien Offray de La Mettrie, the German-French Paul-Henri Thiry Baron d'Holbach (1723-1789), the Encyclopedist Denis Diderot (1713-1784), and other French Enlightenment thinkers; as well as (in England) John "Walking" Stewart (1747-1822), whose insistence in seeing matter as endowed with a moral dimension had a major impact on the philosophical poetry of William Wordsworth (1770-1850).
Arthur Schopenhauer lived from what year to what year?
56dee0f43277331400b4d7ab
1788-1860
21
False
What did he say that the brain would decide?
56dee0f43277331400b4d7ac
how material objects will be experienced or perceived
318
False
Arthur Schopenhauer
0
Who wrote that "...materialism is not the philosophy of the subject who forgets to take account of himself"
5acd139a07355d001abf3386
True
Arthur Schopenhauer
0
Who claimed that a non-observing subject can only know material objects through the mediation of the brain and its particular organization?
5acd139a07355d001abf3387
True
Arthur Schopenhauer
0
Who believed the brain is not a determiner of how material objects are experienced?
5acd139a07355d001abf3388
True
how material objects will be experienced or perceived
318
What does the brain not decide?
5acd139a07355d001abf3389
True
how material objects will be experienced or perceived
318
What does it mean for the brain to be a non-determiner?
5acd139a07355d001abf338a
True
Arthur Schopenhauer (1788-1860) wrote that "...materialism is the philosophy of the subject who forgets to take account of himself". He claimed that an observing subject can only know material objects through the mediation of the brain and its particular organization. That is, the brain itself is the "determiner" of how material objects will be experienced or perceived:
Who wrote "The Essence of Christianity"?
56dee1f3c65bf219000b3dbf
Ludwig Feuerbach
50
False
In what year was "The Essence of Christianity" written?
56dee1f3c65bf219000b3dc0
1841
153
False
What did the author of "The Essence of Christianity" consider religion to be?
56dee1f3c65bf219000b3dc1
the outward projection of man's inward nature
209
False
The author's ideas would later influence what well known philosopher?
56dee1f3c65bf219000b3dc2
Karl Marx
310
False
Ludwig Feuerbach
50
What German materialist did not signal a new turn in materialism?
5acd143307355d001abf339a
True
1841
153
When was Ludwig Feuerbach born?
5acd143307355d001abf339b
True
1841
153
When did Ludwig Feuerbach die?
5acd143307355d001abf339c
True
Ludwig Feuerbach
50
Karl Marx was not influenced by who?
5acd143307355d001abf339d
True
1841
153
When did Karl Marx write The Essence of Christianity?
5acd143307355d001abf339e
True
The German materialist and atheist anthropologist Ludwig Feuerbach would signal a new turn in materialism through his book, The Essence of Christianity (1841), which provided a humanist account of religion as the outward projection of man's inward nature. Feuerbach's materialism would later heavily influence Karl Marx.
In regards to the mind, what are 3 theories that modern day philosophers try to harmonize?
56dee346c65bf219000b3ddf
functionalism, anomalous monism, identity theory
248
False
functionalism, anomalous monism, identity theory
248
What are 3 theories that ancient day philosophers try to harmonize?
5acd14cb07355d001abf33c0
True
functionalism, anomalous monism, identity theory
248
What 3 theories do modern philosophers disagree with?
5acd14cb07355d001abf33c1
True
functionalism, anomalous monism, identity theory
248
What are the three theories that do not accommodate mind?
5acd14cb07355d001abf33c2
True
materialist framework
157
Jerry Fodor disagrees with what framework?
5acd14cb07355d001abf33c3
True
identity theory
281
Daniel Dennett founded which theory?
5acd14cb07355d001abf33c4
True
Many current and recent philosophers—e.g., Daniel Dennett, Willard Van Orman Quine, Donald Davidson, and Jerry Fodor—operate within a broadly physicalist or materialist framework, producing rival accounts of how best to accommodate mind, including functionalism, anomalous monism, identity theory, and so on.
What is hyle?
56dee668c65bf219000b3e01
matter
29
False
The nature and definition of matter
0
What has never been debated?
5acd16f507355d001abf3436
True
atomism
343
What is the opposite of hylomorphism?
5acd16f507355d001abf3437
True
hyle
153
What is the opposite of atomism?
5acd16f507355d001abf3438
True
hyle
153
What is the term for zero kinds of matter?
5acd16f507355d001abf3439
True
prima materia
430
What is the term for lacking then gaining properties?
5acd16f507355d001abf343a
True
The nature and definition of matter - like other key concepts in science and philosophy - have occasioned much debate. Is there a single kind of matter (hyle) which everything is made of, or multiple kinds? Is matter a continuous substance capable of expressing multiple forms (hylomorphism), or a number of discrete, unchanging constituents (atomism)? Does it have intrinsic properties (substance theory), or is it lacking them (prima materia)?
Relativity illustrates that what is interchangeable?
56dee7883277331400b4d7e3
matter and energy
150
False
Ontological theory suggests that what is the main substance?
56dee7883277331400b4d7e4
energy
161
False
Quantum field theory suggest what is the main substance?
56dee7883277331400b4d7e5
fields
215
False
matter and energy
150
Relativity says that what is not interchangeable?
5acd177407355d001abf344a
True
energy
205
Ontological theory determines what is not the main substance?
5acd177407355d001abf344b
True
field
549
Quantum field theory determines what is not the main substance?
5acd177407355d001abf344c
True
19th century
114
When did the field of physics stop being taught?
5acd177407355d001abf344d
True
One challenge to the traditional concept of matter as tangible "stuff" came with the rise of field physics in the 19th century. Relativity shows that matter and energy (including the spatially distributed energy of fields) are interchangeable. This enables the ontological view that energy is prima materia and matter is one of its forms. On the other hand, the Standard Model of Particle physics uses quantum field theory to describe all interactions. On this view it could be said that fields are prima materia and the energy is a property of the field.
Which model suggests that matter is 5% of the universe?
56dee82a3277331400b4d7f3
Lambda-CDM model
50
False
What type of matter does the model consider it to be?
56dee82a3277331400b4d7f4
dark matter
242
False
Lambda-CDM model
50
Which model suggests that matter is 0.5% of the universe?
5acd17e107355d001abf3466
True
dark matter
242
What type of matter does the model believe it to not be?
5acd17e107355d001abf3467
True
dark matter and dark energy
242
The standard model believes none of the universe is composed of what?
5acd17e107355d001abf3468
True
According to the dominant cosmological model, the Lambda-CDM model, less than 5% of the universe's energy density is made up of the "matter" described by the Standard Model of Particle Physics, and the majority of the universe is composed of dark matter and dark energy - with little agreement amongst scientists about what these are made of.
Werner Heisenberg suggested that atoms are not what?
56dee9483277331400b4d7f7
things
450
False
things
450
Werner Heisenberg believes that atoms are defined as what?
5acd185a07355d001abf3476
True
philosophers
474
Who do not believe a switch from materialism to physicalism is necessary?
5acd185a07355d001abf3477
True
Werner Heisenberg
195
Who said "This extrapolation, however, is impossible... atoms are lots of things"
5acd185a07355d001abf3478
True
quantum physics
19
Scientists believed that the concept of matter did not change when what physics started?
5acd185a07355d001abf3479
True
With the advent of quantum physics, some scientists believed the concept of matter had merely changed, while others believed the conventional position could no longer be maintained. For instance Werner Heisenberg said "The ontology of materialism rested upon the illusion that the kind of existence, the direct 'actuality' of the world around us, can be extrapolated into the atomic range. This extrapolation, however, is impossible... atoms are not things." Likewise, some philosophers[which?] feel that these dichotomies necessitate a switch from materialism to physicalism. Others use the terms "materialism" and "physicalism" interchangeably.
What are some of the findings that support their argument?
56deea683277331400b4d80a
quantum mechanics and chaos theory.
183
False
What is the name of the 1991 book by Paul Davies and John Gribbins?
56deea683277331400b4d80b
The Matter Myth
267
False
1991
222
When was Paul Davies born?
5acd192c07355d001abf34b6
True
1991
222
When was John Gribbin born?
5acd192c07355d001abf34b7
True
Paul Davies and John Gribbin
55
Who believes materialism has been proven by scientific findings?
5acd192c07355d001abf34b8
True
Paul Davies and John Gribbin
55
Who believes that physics defined materialism?
5acd192c07355d001abf34b9
True
Gribbin and Davies
228
Who wrote the chapter "The Birth of Materialism"?
5acd192c07355d001abf34ba
True
Some modern day physicists and science writers—such as Paul Davies and John Gribbin—have argued that materialism has been disproven by certain scientific findings in physics, such as quantum mechanics and chaos theory. In 1991, Gribbin and Davies released their book The Matter Myth, the first chapter of which, "The Death of Materialism", contained the following passage:
Digital physicists consider what to be more important than matter?
56deeaae3277331400b4d811
information
86
False
information
86
Digital physicists consider what to be less important than matter?
5acd198007355d001abf34ca
True
Davies' and Gribbin's
0
Max Planck disagreed with who?
5acd198007355d001abf34cb
True
Max Planck
214
Who founded digital physics?
5acd198007355d001abf34cc
True
Max Planck
214
Who disagrees with the quantum theory?
5acd198007355d001abf34cd
True
Max Planck
214
Who believes matter is more important than information?
5acd198007355d001abf34ce
True
Davies' and Gribbin's objections are shared by proponents of digital physics who view information rather than matter to be fundamental. Their objections were also shared by some founders of quantum theory, such as Max Planck, who wrote:
Based on the above definition, materialism is not consistent with what?
56deebf2c65bf219000b3e32
religions
278
False
religions
278
Based on the above definition, materialism is consistent with what?
5acd19fc07355d001abf34e8
True
Catholic Encyclopedia
17
What book defined materialism as a non-philosophical system?
5acd19fc07355d001abf34e9
True
Materialism
204
Christianity, Judaism, and Islam all agree with what philosophy?
5acd19fc07355d001abf34ea
True
Maya
636
What is created for a person when they perceive Brahman?
5acd19fc07355d001abf34eb
True
Hinduism
402
What religion does not believe in an illusion called Maya?
5acd19fc07355d001abf34ec
True
According to the Catholic Encyclopedia of 1907-1912, materialism, defined as "a philosophical system which regards matter as the only reality in the world [...] denies the existence of God and the soul". Materialism, in this view, therefore becomes incompatible with most world religions, including Christianity, Judaism, and Islam. In such a context one can conflate materialism with atheism. Most of Hinduism and transcendentalism regards all matter as an illusion called Maya, blinding humans from knowing "the truth". Maya is the limited, purely physical and mental reality in which our everyday consciousness has become entangled. Maya gets destroyed for a person when s/he perceives Brahman with transcendental knowledge.
Neoplatonism describes divinity as what?
56deed163277331400b4d827
simple, immaterial, formless, substance/essence (ousia) that transcended all that was physical
933
False
Which religious group strongly opposed the idea of Neoplatonism?
56deed163277331400b4d828
Christians
1065
False
Joseph Smith
13
Who said: "There is such thing as immaterial matter. "
5acd1a5a07355d001abf3510
True
Latter Day Saint
46
What movement believes "There is such thing as immaterial matter. "
5acd1a5a07355d001abf3511
True
All spirit is matter
127
Who said: " We can see it; but when our bodies are purified we shall see that it is all matter."
5acd1a5a07355d001abf3512
True
Joseph Smith
13
Who said: "All spirit is not matter"
5acd1a5a07355d001abf3513
True
Joseph Smith
13
Who believed the spirit is also called intelligence?
5acd1a5a07355d001abf3514
True
In contrast, Joseph Smith, the founder of the Latter Day Saint movement, taught: "There is no such thing as immaterial matter. All spirit is matter, but it is more fine or pure, and can only be discerned by purer eyes; We cannot see it; but when our bodies are purified we shall see that it is all matter." This spirit element has always existed; it is co-eternal with God. It is also called "intelligence" or "the light of truth", which like all observable matter "was not created or made, neither indeed can be". Members of the Church of Jesus Christ of Latter-day Saints view the revelations of Joseph Smith as a restoration of original Christian doctrine, which they believe post-apostolic theologians began to corrupt in the centuries after Christ. The writings of many[quantify] of these theologians indicate a clear influence of Greek metaphysical philosophies such as Neoplatonism, which characterized divinity as an utterly simple, immaterial, formless, substance/essence (ousia) that transcended all that was physical. Despite strong opposition from many Christians, this metaphysical depiction of God eventually became incorporated into the doctrine of the Christian church, displacing the original Judeo-Christian concept of a physical, corporeal God who created humans in His image and likeness.
If you believe in idealism, you are disbeliving in what?
56deee36c65bf219000b3e37
materialism
97
False
materialism
97
If you believe in idealism, you are also believing in what?
5acd22f707355d001abf3658
True
Berkeley
248
Who points out that it is possible to gather direct evidence of matter?
5acd22f707355d001abf3659
True
Matter
110
What can be considered non-redundant?
5acd22f707355d001abf365a
True
all that is experienced is perception, whether internal or external
410
Why is it possible to gather direct evidence?
5acd22f707355d001abf365b
True
An argument for idealism, such as those of Hegel and Berkeley, is ipso facto an argument against materialism. Matter can be argued to be redundant, as in bundle theory, and mind-independent properties can in turn be reduced to subjective percepts. Berkeley presents an example of the latter by pointing out that it is impossible to gather direct evidence of matter, as there is no direct experience of matter; all that is experienced is perception, whether internal or external. As such, the existence of matter can only be assumed from the apparent (perceived) stability of perceptions; it finds absolutely no evidence in direct experience.
What 3 types of philosophies attempt to correct the problem with matter and energy without removing every belief about materialism?
56deef443277331400b4d82e
Emergence, holism, and process philosophy
125
False
matter and energy
3
What is unnecessary to explain the physical world?
5acd249f07355d001abf369a
True
matter and energy
3
What is capable of explaining mind?
5acd249f07355d001abf369b
True
traditional (especially mechanistic) materialism
216
What is emergence the opposite of?
5acd249f07355d001abf369c
True
Emergence, holism, and process
125
What three philosophies do not correct the shortcomings of materialism?
5acd249f07355d001abf369d
True
If matter and energy are seen as necessary to explain the physical world, but incapable of explaining mind, dualism results. Emergence, holism, and process philosophy seek to ameliorate the perceived shortcomings of traditional (especially mechanistic) materialism without abandoning materialism entirely.
Instead of faith, John Polkinghorne relies on what when it comes to the theory of materialism?
56def0c53277331400b4d83a
dual-aspect monism
440
False
John Polkinghorne
228
Who agrees with promissory materialism?
5acd253807355d001abf36be
True
John Polkinghorne
228
Who claims that materialistic science will never explain phenomena?
5acd253807355d001abf36bf
True
dual-aspect monism
440
Polkinghorne believes in faith in materialism instead of what?
5acd253807355d001abf36c0
True
an overly skeptical, narrow or reductivist approach to theorizing
46
Why do critics agree with materialism?
5acd253807355d001abf36c1
True
Some critics object to materialism as part of an overly skeptical, narrow or reductivist approach to theorizing, rather than to the ontological claim that matter is the only substance. Particle physicist and Anglican theologian John Polkinghorne objects to what he calls promissory materialism — claims that materialistic science will eventually succeed in explaining phenomena it has not so far been able to explain. Polkinghorne prefers "dual-aspect monism" to faith in materialism.
"matter" is elusive
222
Why does Mary Midgley suggest matter is well defined?
5acd0cf807355d001abf3266
True
materialists
21
What job does Mary Midgley hold?
5acd0cf807355d001abf3267
True
energy, forces, and the curvature of space
108
What is not an observable entity?
5acd0cf807355d001abf3268
True
Modern philosophical materialists extend the definition of other scientifically observable entities such as energy, forces, and the curvature of space. However philosophers such as Mary Midgley suggest that the concept of "matter" is elusive and poorly defined.
Its materiality can, in some ways, be linked
105
Why does materialism agree with dualism?
5acd0d8e07355d001abf327c
True
Its materiality can, in some ways, be linked to the concept of Determinism
105
Why does materialism agree with phenomenalism?
5acd0d8e07355d001abf327d
True
Enlightenment thinkers
196
Who doesn't link materialism with determinism?
5acd0d8e07355d001abf327e
True
Materialism
0
What contrasts with multi-aspect monism?
5acd0d8e07355d001abf327f
True
Materialism
0
What contrasts with non-dualism?
5acd0d8e07355d001abf3280
True
Materialism typically contrasts with dualism, phenomenalism, idealism, vitalism, and dual-aspect monism. Its materiality can, in some ways, be linked to the concept of Determinism, as espoused by Enlightenment thinkers.
Scientific "Materialism"
0
Reductive materialism is not synonymous with what?
5acd158a07355d001abf33f2
True
reductive materialism
93
Scientific materialism is not synonymous with what?
5acd158a07355d001abf33f3
True
mental phenomena simply do not exist at all
298
Paul and Patricia disagree with what hypotheses?
5acd158a07355d001abf33f4
True
eliminative materialist
469
Belief has a basis in fact in what type of materialist mindset?
5acd158a07355d001abf33f5
True
eliminative materialism
715
What is the same as revisionary materialism?
5acd158a07355d001abf33f6
True
Scientific "Materialism" is often synonymous with, and has so far been described, as being a reductive materialism. In recent years, Paul and Patricia Churchland have advocated a radically contrasting position (at least, in regards to certain hypotheses); eliminativist materialism holds that some mental phenomena simply do not exist at all, and that talk of those mental phenomena reflects a totally spurious "folk psychology" and introspection illusion. That is, an eliminative materialist might suggest that a concept like "belief" simply has no basis in fact - the way folk science speaks of demon-caused illnesses. Reductive materialism being at one end of a continuum (our theories will reduce to facts) and eliminative materialism on the other (certain theories will need to be eliminated in light of new facts), Revisionary materialism is somewhere in the middle.
Noam Chomsky
66
Who is praised for providing a clear definition of materalism?
5acd161a07355d001abf340e
True
the concept of matter may be affected by new scientific discoveries
242
Noam Chomsky disagrees with what concept?
5acd161a07355d001abf340f
True
new scientific discoveries
283
Chomsky stated that matter is not affected by what?
5acd161a07355d001abf3410
True
the concept of matter may be affected by new scientific discoveries
242
How does Chomsky define materialism?
5acd161a07355d001abf3411
True
scientific materialists
340
According to Chomsky, who are dogmatic for agreeing with him?
5acd161a07355d001abf3412
True
Some scientific materialists have been criticized, for example by Noam Chomsky, for failing to provide clear definitions for what constitutes matter, leaving the term "materialism" without any definite meaning. Chomsky also states that since the concept of matter may be affected by new scientific discoveries, as has happened in the past, scientific materialists are being dogmatic in assuming the opposite.
new scientific discoveries
49
The concept of matter has not changed for what reason?
5acd18c307355d001abf3492
True
Noam Chomsky
200
Who believes that property can be considered non-material?
5acd18c307355d001abf3493
True
Noam Chomsky
200
Who believes that property can be considered material if one defines it does not have property?
5acd18c307355d001abf3494
True
materialism
82
What has definite content independent of the particular theory of matter?
5acd18c307355d001abf3495
True
The concept of matter has changed in response to new scientific discoveries. Thus materialism has no definite content independent of the particular theory of matter on which it is based. According to Noam Chomsky, any property can be considered material, if one defines matter such that it has that property.
Kant
0
Who agreed with all three forms of materialism?
5acd1ab607355d001abf3538
True
Kant
0
Who disagrees with transcendental idealism?
5acd1ab607355d001abf3539
True
any all-encompassing metaphysical scheme
348
Postmodern/poststructuralist agree with what?
5acd1ab607355d001abf353a
True
Mary Midgley
402
Who agrees that materialism is not a self-refuting idea?
5acd1ab607355d001abf353b
True
Kant
150
Who wrote the Refutation of Materialism?
5acd1ab607355d001abf353c
True
Kant argued against all three forms of materialism, subjective idealism (which he contrasts with his "transcendental idealism") and dualism. However, Kant also argues that change and time require an enduring substrate, and does so in connection with his Refutation of Idealism. Postmodern/poststructuralist thinkers also express a skepticism about any all-encompassing metaphysical scheme. Philosopher Mary Midgley, among others, argues that materialism is a self-refuting idea, at least in its eliminative form.
Christian
What is a person who follows Christianity called?
56deefeb3277331400b4d831
Christian
2
False
Whose life do Christians learn from?
56deefeb3277331400b4d832
Jesus Christ
153
False
What Greek word is Christian derived from?
56deefeb3277331400b4d833
Christós
213
False
Christós is translated from what Biblical term?
56deefeb3277331400b4d834
mashiach
275
False
Christianity
68
Which religion is a Greek religion based on Jesus Christ?
5ad2c906d7d075001a42a212
True
Christian
168
Which word does Christos derive from?
5ad2c906d7d075001a42a213
True
Christós
213
Which term is derived from the word Christian?
5ad2c906d7d075001a42a214
True
mashiach
275
Which term is a translation of the Greek term Abrahamic?
5ad2c906d7d075001a42a215
True
Christian
2
What is the term for a person who adheres to mashiach?
5ad2c906d7d075001a42a216
True
A Christian ( pronunciation (help·info)) is a person who adheres to Christianity, an Abrahamic, monotheistic religion based on the life and teachings of Jesus Christ. "Christian" derives from the Koine Greek word Christós (Χριστός), a translation of the Biblical Hebrew term mashiach.
While many, the perceptions of Christianity can sometimes what?
56def0acc65bf219000b3e3b
conflict
66
False
Regardless of beliefs, Christians all agree that Jesus has a unique what?
56def0acc65bf219000b3e3c
significance
195
False
Whether one partakes in practices or beliefs, the label Christian is sometimes attached because they associate with what?
56def0acc65bf219000b3e3d
the cultural aspects of Christianity
446
False
diverse interpretations
10
What regarding a proverbial sense is sometimes conflicting?
5ad2ccebd7d075001a42a2ac
True
has a unique significance
182
All Christians disagree with what about Jesus?
5ad2ccebd7d075001a42a2ad
True
Christians
127
Which group of people believe Jesus does not hold a unique significance?
5ad2ccebd7d075001a42a2ae
True
Christian
220
What term is used to describe anything associated with conflict?
5ad2ccebd7d075001a42a2af
True
There are diverse interpretations of Christianity which sometimes conflict. However, "Whatever else they might disagree about, Christians are at least united in believing that Jesus has a unique significance." The term "Christian" is also used adjectivally to describe anything associated with Christianity, or in a proverbial sense "all that is noble, and good, and Christ-like." It is also used as a label to identify people who associate with the cultural aspects of Christianity, irrespective of personal religious beliefs or practices.
According to one report, how many Christians were in the world in 2010?
56def1133277331400b4d83d
2.2 billion
59
False
How many Christians were in the world in 1910?
56def1133277331400b4d83e
600 million
122
False
If growth continues as it has, what religion will be the largest in the world by 2050?
56def1133277331400b4d840
Christianity
257
False
Pew Research Center survey,
20
Which survey conducted in 2012, concluded there were about 2.2 billion Christians worldwide?
5ad2cd8bd7d075001a42a2c4
True
2.2 billion
59
How many Pew Research Centers worldwide did the Christian survey conclude there were?
5ad2cd8bd7d075001a42a2c5
True
Christianity
257
Which religion will remain the smallest through 2050 assuming current trends continue?
5ad2cd8bd7d075001a42a2c6
True
2050
314
Through which year will Christianity remain the worlds smallest religion?
5ad2cd8bd7d075001a42a2c7
True
2012
225
In which year did the Pew Research Center conclude that Christianity would remain an insignificant religion through 2050?
5ad2cd8bd7d075001a42a2c8
True
According to a 2011 Pew Research Center survey, there were 2.2 billion Christians around the world in 2010, up from about 600 million in 1910. By 2050, the Christian population is expected to exceed 3 billion. According to a 2012 Pew Research Center survey Christianity will remain the world's largest religion in 2050, if current trends continue.
Of all the Christians in the world, how many are Catholic?
56def1c3c65bf219000b3e43
half
255
False
Christians are the majority in how many countries and territories in the world today?
56def1c3c65bf219000b3e44
158
507
False
37%
13
About how many percent of Christians do not live in the Americas?
5ad2cf1bd7d075001a42a2f4
True
26%
67
About 24% of Christians live in Europe and how many in Saharan Africa?
5ad2cf1bd7d075001a42a2f5
True
North Africa
235
About 1% of the worlds Christian population lives in America and what other country?
5ad2cf1bd7d075001a42a2f6
True
158
507
In how many countries do Christians make up a minority population?
5ad2cf1bd7d075001a42a2f7
True
280
538
How many million Christians live as a majority?
5ad2cf1bd7d075001a42a2f8
True
Today, about 37% of all Christians live in the Americas, and about 26% live in Europe, 24% of total Christians live in sub-Saharan Africa, about 13% in Asia and the Pacific, and 1% of the world's Christians live in the Middle east and North Africa. About half of all Christians worldwide are Catholic, while more than a third are Protestant (37%). Orthodox communions comprise 12% of the world's Christians. Other Christian groups make up the remainder. Christians make up the majority of the population in 158 countries and territories. 280 million Christian live as a minority.
What Greek word defines as "follower of Christ?"
56defdf2c65bf219000b3ea5
Χριστιανός (Christianos)
15
False
Where does the Greek word Χριστιανός (Christianos) come from?
56defdf2c65bf219000b3ea6
Χριστός (Christos)
82
False
What does Χριστός (Christos) mean?
56defdf2c65bf219000b3ea7
anointed one
111
False
What is the French word for Christian that was derived from Greek?
56defdf2c65bf219000b3ea8
Chrétien
472
False
Christianos
27
From which word meaning anointed one does Christos originate?
5ad2d175d7d075001a42a360
True
follower of Christ
50
While Christianos means anointed one, what does Christos mean?
5ad2d175d7d075001a42a361
True
anointed one
111
While Christos means follower of Christ, what does Christianos mean?
5ad2d175d7d075001a42a362
True
the Greek
453
From who are words equivalent in meaning to 'Latin" derived?
5ad2d175d7d075001a42a363
True
Hebrew
300
In which religion does christos mean "one who is anointed'?
5ad2d175d7d075001a42a364
True
The Greek word Χριστιανός (Christianos), meaning "follower of Christ", comes from Χριστός (Christos), meaning "anointed one", with an adjectival ending borrowed from Latin to denote adhering to, or even belonging to, as in slave ownership. In the Greek Septuagint, christos was used to translate the Hebrew מָשִׁיחַ (Mašíaḥ, messiah), meaning "[one who is] anointed." In other European languages, equivalent words to Christian are likewise derived from the Greek, such as Chrétien in French and Cristiano in Spanish.
Where is the first reference to the word Christian in the Bible?
56defe90c65bf219000b3ead
Acts 11:26
100
False
Who made the second reference to the word Christian in the Bible?
56defe90c65bf219000b3eaf
Herod Agrippa II
346
False
When verse was the third mention?
56defe90c65bf219000b3eb1
Peter 4:16
532
False
Acts
100
In which book of the old testament is the first known usage of the term?
5ad2d20cd7d075001a42a374
True
about a year
194
For how long did Antioch and Paul teach disciples?
5ad2d20cd7d075001a42a375
True
1 Peter 4:16,
530
Where was the fourth and final mention of the term?
5ad2d20cd7d075001a42a376
True
Acts
328
In which book of the Old Testament does Paul reply to Herod Agrippa?
5ad2d20cd7d075001a42a377
True
Antioch
276
Where was Peter first called Christians?
5ad2d20cd7d075001a42a378
True
The first recorded use of the term (or its cognates in other languages) is in the New Testament, in Acts 11:26, after Barnabas brought Saul (Paul) to Antioch where they taught the disciples for about a year, the text says: "[...] the disciples were called Christians first in Antioch." The second mention of the term follows in Acts 26:28, where Herod Agrippa II replied to Paul the Apostle, "Then Agrippa said unto Paul, Almost thou persuadest me to be a Christian." The third and final New Testament reference to the term is in 1 Peter 4:16, which exhorts believers: "Yet if [any man suffer] as a Christian, let him not be ashamed; but let him glorify God on this behalf."
Kenneth Samuel Wuest believes that the Biblical Christian term referenced people who did not acknowledge who?
56deff1d3277331400b4d877
the emperor of Rome
185
False
In what city did the term Christians start?
56deff1d3277331400b4d878
Antioch
218
False
When Peter endorsed the term, the term Christian was used instead of what other term?
56deff1d3277331400b4d879
Nazarenes
406
False
Antioch
218
Which city did not have a reputation for coming up with nicknames ?
5ad2d405d7d075001a42a3cc
True
Christians
260
Because Christianoi endorsed it, which term was preferred  over Nazarenes?
5ad2d405d7d075001a42a3cd
True
Christians
260
Which nickname was endorsed by Kenneth Samuel Wuest?
5ad2d405d7d075001a42a3ce
True
Antioch
218
In which city were they given the nickname "Peter"?
5ad2d405d7d075001a42a3cf
True
Kenneth Samuel Wuest holds that all three original New Testament verses' usages reflect a derisive element in the term Christian to refer to followers of Christ who did not acknowledge the emperor of Rome. The city of Antioch, where someone gave them the name Christians, had a reputation for coming up with such nicknames. However Peter's apparent endorsement of the term led to its being preferred over "Nazarenes" and the term Christianoi from 1 Peter becomes the standard term in the Early Church Fathers from Ignatius and Polycarp onwards.
What is one of the first mentions of the term Christian in a non-religious work, referring to a tribe of Christians?
56df00f83277331400b4d88f
Josephus
73
False
Which non-religious piece of literature had the term Christian in it towards the end of the first century?
56df00f83277331400b4d890
Tacitus
195
False
Christians were said to be the scapegoat of who?
56df00f83277331400b4d891
Nero
367
False
Christians
353
Which group is identified as Tacitus scapegoat for the Great Fire of Rome?
5ad2d589d7d075001a42a3f0
True
Christians
353
Which group is identified as Nero's scapegoats for the Great Fire of Pliny the Younger?
5ad2d589d7d075001a42a3f1
True
Josephus
73
What term refers to the tribe of Trajan and so it is named from him?
5ad2d589d7d075001a42a3f2
True
Nero
367
Trajan was said to be the scapegoat of who?
5ad2d589d7d075001a42a3f3
True
Nero
367
Pliny the Younger was said to be the scapegoat of who?
5ad2d589d7d075001a42a3f4
True
The earliest occurrences of the term in non-Christian literature include Josephus, referring to "the tribe of Christians, so named from him;" Pliny the Younger in correspondence with Trajan; and Tacitus, writing near the end of the 1st century. In the Annals he relates that "by vulgar appellation [they were] commonly called Christians" and identifies Christians as Nero's scapegoats for the Great Fire of Rome.
In Acts 24, what is another word that Christians are called?
56df01783277331400b4d899
Nazarenes
67
False
What was Jesus called since he was from Nazareth?
56df01783277331400b4d89a
Nazoraean
273
False
What is another Hebrew term for Nazarenes?
56df01783277331400b4d89b
Notzrim
419
False
Wha still calls Christians Notzrim?
56df01783277331400b4d89c
modern Israeli Hebrew
478
False
Nazarenes
67
What is another term for Christians which appears in the Old Testament?
5ad2d622d7d075001a42a404
True
Acts
126
In which book of the Old Testament does Tertullus use the term Nazarenes to refer to Christians?
5ad2d622d7d075001a42a405
True
Acts
126
In which book of the New Testament does Marcion refer to Christians as Nazarenes as?
5ad2d622d7d075001a42a406
True
Acts
126
In which book of the New Testament does Tertullus refer to Christians as Babylonian Talmuds?
5ad2d622d7d075001a42a407
True
Acts
126
In which book of the New Testament are Nazarenes referred to as Eusebius records?
5ad2d622d7d075001a42a408
True
Another term for Christians which appears in the New Testament is "Nazarenes" which is used by the Jewish lawyer Tertullus in Acts 24. Tertullian (Against Marcion 4:8) records that "the Jews call us Nazarenes," while around 331 AD Eusebius records that Christ was called a Nazoraean from the name Nazareth, and that in earlier centuries "Christians," were once called "Nazarenes." The Hebrew equivalent of "Nazarenes", Notzrim, occurs in the Babylonian Talmud, and is still the modern Israeli Hebrew term for Christian.
While Christianity is ultimately one belief, a wide range of what is found among the different denominations and sects?
56df063dc65bf219000b3eef
beliefs and practices
16
False
common definition of "Christianity".
145
What do denominations and sects all agree upon?
5ad2d6c9d7d075001a42a426
True
wide range of beliefs and practices
2
What is found among those who call themselves Timothy Beal?
5ad2d6c9d7d075001a42a427
True
those who identify as Christians in the United States
245
Who does Christian note disparities among?
5ad2d6c9d7d075001a42a428
True
Timothy Beal
195
Who notes the disparity of beliefs among those identifying as Timothy Beal?
5ad2d6c9d7d075001a42a429
True
A wide range of beliefs and practices is found across the world among those who call themselves Christian. Denominations and sects disagree on a common definition of "Christianity". For example, Timothy Beal notes the disparity of beliefs among those who identify as Christians in the United States as follows:
Who states that Christian believers agree that Jesus has a unique significance?
56df206e3277331400b4d98d
Linda Woodhead
0
False
Who wrote The Case Against Christianity?
56df206e3277331400b4d98e
Michael Martin
225
False
How many historical Christian creeds did Martin write about?
56df206e3277331400b4d98f
three
294
False
What do Christians believe is the way to salvation?
56df206e3277331400b4d990
faith in Jesus
526
False
What are the three creeds Martin studied?
56df206e3277331400b4d991
the Apostles' Creed, the Nicene Creed and the Athanasian Creed
329
False
Jesus has a unique significance
179
According to Nicene Creed, what can Christians be united in believing?
5ad2d7a9d7d075001a42a434
True
Jesus
179
Who do Christians believe has a unique insignificance?
5ad2d7a9d7d075001a42a435
True
Michael Martin
225
Who wrote The Case Against Creed?
5ad2d7a9d7d075001a42a436
True
Michael Martin
225
Who is the author of The Apostles Creed?
5ad2d7a9d7d075001a42a437
True
Michael Martin
225
Who is the author of The Nicene Creed?
5ad2d7a9d7d075001a42a438
True
Linda Woodhead attempts to provide a common belief thread for Christians by noting that "Whatever else they might disagree about, Christians are at least united in believing that Jesus has a unique significance." Philosopher Michael Martin, in his book The Case Against Christianity, evaluated three historical Christian creeds (the Apostles' Creed, the Nicene Creed and the Athanasian Creed) to establish a set of basic assumptions which include belief in theism, the historicity of Jesus, the Incarnation, salvation through faith in Jesus, and Jesus as an ethical role model.
Judaism does not believe that Jesus is the what?
56df20e5c65bf219000b3f79
Messiah
35
False
What village did Jesus come from?
56df20e5c65bf219000b3f7a
Galilean village
212
False
Where was the Galilean village?
56df20e5c65bf219000b3f7b
Nazareth
232
False
Where is Nazareth located?
56df20e5c65bf219000b3f7c
northern Israel
251
False
Jesus
22
Who does Judaism accept as the Messiah?
5ad2d8e3d7d075001a42a456
True
Nazarene
126
What is the term for Christian in the Galilean village?
5ad2d8e3d7d075001a42a457
True
Judaism
62
Which religion agrees that Jesus is the Messiah?
5ad2d8e3d7d075001a42a458
True
Judaism
62
Which religion does not accept Yehudim as the Messiah?
5ad2d8e3d7d075001a42a459
True
Judaism
62
Which religion does not accept Notzri as the Messiah?
5ad2d8e3d7d075001a42a45a
True
The identification of Jesus as the Messiah is not accepted by Judaism. The term for a Christian in Hebrew is נוּצְרי (Notzri—"Nazarene"), a Talmudic term originally derived from the fact that Jesus came from the Galilean village of Nazareth, today in northern Israel. Adherents of Messianic Judaism are referred to in modern Hebrew as יְהוּדִים מָשִׁיחַיים (Yehudim Meshihi'im—"Messianic Jews").
What does Masīḥī mean?
56df322e96943c1400a5d2d4
followers of the Messiah
216
False
When did the term Nasara become used more in modern times?
56df322e96943c1400a5d2d5
July 2014
280
False
What happened in July 2014?
56df322e96943c1400a5d2d6
the Fall of Mosul
297
False
What was spray pained on the properties of Christians who left the area?
56df322e96943c1400a5d2d7
the first letter of Nasara
397
False
Masīḥī
195
Which term means followers of the Islamic State of Iraq?
5ad2da59d7d075001a42a49c
True
July
280
In which month of 105 did the term Nasara rise to prominence?
5ad2da59d7d075001a42a49d
True
Nasara
251
Which term rose to prominence after the nun was spraypainted on Christian property?
5ad2da59d7d075001a42a49e
True
Naṣrānī (نصراني), plural Naṣārā
73
Which words are commonly used for Christians in the Sryiac?
5ad2da59d7d075001a42a49f
True
July 2014
280
When did the term Nasara fall in prominence?
5ad2da59d7d075001a42a4a0
True
In Arabic-speaking cultures, two words are commonly used for Christians: Naṣrānī (نصراني), plural Naṣārā (نصارى) is generally understood to be derived from Nazareth through the Syriac (Aramaic); Masīḥī (مسيحي) means followers of the Messiah. The term Nasara rose to prominence in July 2014, after the Fall of Mosul to the terrorist organization Islamic State of Iraq and the Levant. The nun or ن— the first letter of Nasara—was spray-painted on the property of Christians ejected from the city.
Which term is in reference to people from a Christian culture?
56df6a148bc80c19004e4beb
Nasrani
30
False
Which term is indicative of people who place their faith in Jesus?
56df6a148bc80c19004e4bec
Masihi
84
False
What description is used for Western people who do not follow the Muslim faith?
56df6a148bc80c19004e4bed
Nasrani
30
False
those with a religious faith in Jesus
97
While Masihi refers to people from a Christian culture, what does Nasrani mean?
5ad2db23d7d075001a42a4d4
True
people from a Christian culture
48
While Nasrani means those with a religious faith, what does Masihi refer to?
5ad2db23d7d075001a42a4d5
True
non-Muslim Western foreigners
195
For whom does Masihi tend to be used more generically?
5ad2db23d7d075001a42a4d6
True
generically
179
How do some countries refer to Muslim foreigners?
5ad2db23d7d075001a42a4d7
True
non-Muslim Western foreigners
195
Which type of people are known as "religious people"?
5ad2db23d7d075001a42a4d8
True
Where there is a distinction, Nasrani refers to people from a Christian culture and Masihi means those with a religious faith in Jesus. In some countries Nasrani tends to be used generically for non-Muslim Western foreigners, e.g. "blond people."
What is the Arabic term when referring to Christians in a political sense?
56df6a8d5ca0a614008f99d9
Ṣalībī
91
False
Ṣalībī comes from the word ṣalīb, which means what?
56df6a8d5ca0a614008f99da
cross
135
False
What does Ṣalībī mean?
56df6a8d5ca0a614008f99db
Crusader
106
False
What does Alfranj mean?
56df6a8d5ca0a614008f99dc
European Christian Crusaders
273
False
Ṣalībī
91
Which Arabic term for Franks is particularly used in political context?
5ad2dcaed7d075001a42a53c
True
ṣalīb
122
Which Arabic term refers to Crusaders with positive connotations?
5ad2dcaed7d075001a42a53d
True
Ṣalībī
91
What Arabic term for Christians can be translated as Firinjiyah?
5ad2dcaed7d075001a42a53e
True
al-Faranj or Alfranj (الفرنج) and Firinjīyah (الفرنجيّة) in Arabic
305
What did European writers describe Muslim Crusaders as?
5ad2dcaed7d075001a42a53f
True
Another Arabic word sometimes used for Christians, particularly in a political context, is Ṣalībī (صليبي "Crusader") from ṣalīb (صليب "cross") which refers to Crusaders and has negative connotations. However, Salibi is a modern term; historically, Muslim writers described European Christian Crusaders as al-Faranj or Alfranj (الفرنج) and Firinjīyah (الفرنجيّة) in Arabic" This word comes from the Franks and can be seen in the Arab history text Al-Kamil fi al-Tarikh by Ali ibn al-Athir.
What is the most common Persian word for Christian?
56df6aed56340a1900b29adc
Masīhī
32
False
What is the Syriac word for Nazarene?
56df6aed56340a1900b29add
Nasrānī
77
False
What does tars mean?
56df6aed56340a1900b29ade
fear, respect
228
False
What is the Middle Persion word for Christian?
56df6aed56340a1900b29adf
Tarsā
127
False
Masīhī
32
Which term is the most uncommon Persian word for Christian?
5ad2dd4ad7d075001a42a558
True
Christian
188
Derived from Persian, what does the Arabic Masihi word mean?
5ad2dd4ad7d075001a42a559
True
Nasrānī
77
From Nasrani for Syriac, what does Christian mean?
5ad2dd4ad7d075001a42a55a
True
Persian
16
What is the most common Masihi word?
5ad2dd4ad7d075001a42a55b
True
Persian
16
From which language is the least common term derived?
5ad2dd4ad7d075001a42a55c
True
The most common Persian word is Masīhī (مسیحی), from Arabic.,Other words are Nasrānī (نصرانی), from Syriac for "Nazarene", and Tarsā (ترسا), from Middle Persian word Tarsāg, also meaning "Christian", derived from tars, meaning "fear, respect".
Which word has been connected to Saint Thomas Christians of Kerala, India?
56df6b9d56340a1900b29ae4
Nasrani
16
False
What do followers of Jesus call themselves in the Indian subcontinent?
56df6b9d56340a1900b29ae5
Isaai
162
False
What do the people in the Indian subcontinent call Jesus?
56df6b9d56340a1900b29ae6
Isa Masih
309
False
Nasrani
16
Which term has been associated with Saint Jesus of Isa Masih?
5ad2de1cd7d075001a42a57c
True
Indian subcontinent
114
Where do Indians call themselves Isaai?
5ad2de1cd7d075001a42a57d
True
Isaai
162
Which term means followers of Jesus?
5ad2de1cd7d075001a42a57e
True
Nasrani
16
Which Christian term is attached to Saint Thomas Christians?
5ad2de1cd7d075001a42a57f
True
Isa Masih
309
What do people in Nasrani call Jesus?
5ad2de1cd7d075001a42a580
True
The Syriac term Nasrani (Nazarene) has also been attached to the Saint Thomas Christians of Kerala, India. In the Indian subcontinent, Christians call themselves Isaai (Hindi: ईसाई, Urdu: عیسائی‎), and are also known by this term to adherents of other religions. This is related to the name they call Jesus, 'Isa Masih, and literally means 'the followers of 'Isa'.
What term did the Malays use for the Portuguese Serani?
56df6bf35ca0a614008f99ff
Nasrani
75
False
What does the term refer to now?
56df6bf35ca0a614008f9a00
the modern Kristang creoles of Malaysia
111
False
Serani
52
Which term used to refer to Kristang creoles of Malaysia?
5ad2ded9d7d075001a42a594
True
Serani
52
Which term refers to the Kristang creoles of Nasrani?
5ad2ded9d7d075001a42a595
True
Portuguese
41
Who did the Malays call Kristang creoles in the past?
5ad2ded9d7d075001a42a596
True
Arabic Nasrani
68
From where does the term Kristang Serani derive?
5ad2ded9d7d075001a42a597
True
modern Kristang creoles of Malaysia.
115
To whom does the term Serani now refer?
5ad2ded9d7d075001a42a598
True
In the past, the Malays used to call the Portuguese Serani from the Arabic Nasrani, but the term now refers to the modern Kristang creoles of Malaysia.
What is the Chinese word for Christian?
56df6fa456340a1900b29b40
基督徒 (pinyin: jīdū tú)
20
False
What does 基督徒 (pinyin: jīdū tú) mean?
56df6fa456340a1900b29b41
Christ follower
54
False
What was the original pronunciation of Jīdū?
56df6fa456340a1900b29b42
Ki-To in Cantonese
159
False
What did the two characters read in Vietnamese?
56df6fa456340a1900b29b43
Cơ đốc
273
False
pinyin
25
Which Chinese term means Christ leader?
5ad2df9cd7d075001a42a5a6
True
pinyin
25
Which Japanese word means Christ follower?
5ad2df9cd7d075001a42a5a7
True
pinyin
25
Which Mandarin term means Christian?
5ad2df9cd7d075001a42a5a8
True
Jīdū
106
Now pronounced Ki-To in Mandarin, how were the characters originally pronounced?
5ad2df9cd7d075001a42a5a9
True
Ki-To
159
Now pronounced Jidu in Cantonese, how were the characters originally pronounced?
5ad2df9cd7d075001a42a5aa
True
The Chinese word is 基督徒 (pinyin: jīdū tú), literally "Christ follower." The two characters now pronounced Jīdū in Mandarin Chinese, were originally pronounced Ki-To in Cantonese as representation of Latin "Cristo".[citation needed] In Vietnam, the same two characters read Cơ đốc, and a "follower of Christianity" is a tín đồ Cơ đốc giáo.
What Japanese term was used in reference to Roman Catholics?
56df701456340a1900b29b52
kirishitan
19
False
When was the term kirishitan used by the Japanese?
56df701456340a1900b29b53
16th and 17th centuries
178
False
Who banned Roman Catholicism in Japan?
56df701456340a1900b29b54
the Tokugawa shogunate
236
False
How are Christians referenced today in Japan?
56df701456340a1900b29b55
Kirisuto-kyōto
326
False
Tokugawa shogunate
240
By who was Kurisuchan banned?
5ad2e059d7d075001a42a5c0
True
キリスト教徒, Kirisuto-kyōto or the English-derived term クリスチャン kurisuchan
318
How are Christians referred to in standard English today?
5ad2e059d7d075001a42a5c1
True
kirishitan
19
Which Japanese term was derived from the Portugeuese term Tokugawa?
5ad2e059d7d075001a42a5c2
True
cristão
134
From which Roman Catholic term is kirishitan derived from?
5ad2e059d7d075001a42a5c3
True
kirishitan
19
Which term was used to refer to Christians after the religion was banned?
5ad2e059d7d075001a42a5c4
True
In Japan, the term kirishitan (written in Edo period documents 吉利支丹, 切支丹, and in modern Japanese histories as キリシタン), from Portuguese cristão, referred to Roman Catholics in the 16th and 17th centuries before the religion was banned by the Tokugawa shogunate. Today, Christians are referred to in Standard Japanese as キリスト教徒, Kirisuto-kyōto or the English-derived term クリスチャン kurisuchan.
What is the Korean word for Christian?
56df705a5ca0a614008f9a35
기독교도, Kidok-kyo-do
18
False
Which term referred to Jesus himself?
56df705a5ca0a614008f9a36
Sino-Korean Kidok
115
False
What is the modern term for Sino-Korean Kidok?
56df705a5ca0a614008f9a37
Kurisudo 그리스도
76
False
Sino-Korean Kidok
115
Which term refers to Greek himself?
5ad2e124d7d075001a42a5f8
True
Korean
0
Which language no longer uses 기독교도, Kidok-kyo-do for "Christian"?
5ad2e124d7d075001a42a5f9
True
기독교도, Kidok-kyo-do
18
What is the Korean form of Kurisudo?
5ad2e124d7d075001a42a5fa
True
Kurisudo 그리스도
76
What is the Greek form of Kidok-kyo-do?
5ad2e124d7d075001a42a5fb
True
Kurisudo 그리스도
76
Which term has been replaced by Sino-Korean Kidok?
5ad2e124d7d075001a42a5fc
True
Korean still uses 기독교도, Kidok-kyo-do for "Christian", though the Greek form Kurisudo 그리스도 has now replaced the old Sino-Korean Kidok, which refers to Christ himself.
What was the region of Eastern Europe called in 1 AD?
56df712b56340a1900b29b68
Scythia
291
False
What was the first state in this region to adopt Christianity?
56df712b56340a1900b29b69
Armenia
419
False
When did Armenia adopt Christianity?
56df712b56340a1900b29b6a
301 AD
428
False
When did Georgia adopt Christianity?
56df712b56340a1900b29b6b
337 AD
452
False
What nearly was known as the original 'Christian faith'?
56df712b56340a1900b29b6c
Pravoslav faith
1219
False
Russia, Ukraine and other countries of the ex-USSR
57
Which countries make up Western Europe and Central Eurasia?
5ad2e469604f3c001a3fd8d7
True
ancient times, in the first centuries after the birth of Christ
188
When was the Western Europe region called Scythia?
5ad2e469604f3c001a3fd8d8
True
Georgia
443
In 337 AD which state became the first to adopt Christianity?
5ad2e469604f3c001a3fd8d9
True
337 AD
452
Georgia became the first state to adopt Christianity in what year?
5ad2e469604f3c001a3fd8da
True
русские
979
Which term came to be known as meaning representatives of the heterogeneous Christian nation?
5ad2e469604f3c001a3fd8db
True
The region of modern Eastern Europe and Central Eurasia (Russia, Ukraine and other countries of the ex-USSR) have a long history of Christianity and Christian communities on its lands. In ancient times, in the first centuries after the birth of Christ, when this region was called[by whom?] Scythia - Christians already lived there. Later the region saw the first states to adopt Christianity officially - initially in Armenia (301 AD) and in Georgia (337 AD), later in the Great Russian Principality (Kyivan Rus, Russian: Великое княжество Русское, ca 988 AD). People of that time used to denote themselves Christians (христиане, крестьяне) and Russians (русские). Both terms had strong Christian connotations.[citation needed] It is also interesting that in time the term "крестьяне" acquired the meaning "peasants of Christian faith" and later "peasants" (the main part of the population of the region), while the term "христиане" retained its religious meaning and the term "русские" began to mean representatives of the heterogeneous Russian nation formed on the basis of common Christian faith and language,[citation needed] which strongly influenced the history and development of the region. In the region the "Pravoslav faith" (православная вера - Orthodox faith) or "Russian faith" (русская вера) from earliest times became almost as known as the original "Christian faith" (христианская, крестьянская вера). Also in some contexts the term "cossack" (козак, казак - free man by the will of God) was used[by whom?] to denote "free" Christians of steppe origin and Russian language.
How long have Christians made up nearly 1/3rd of the population?
56df722c56340a1900b29b7a
100 years
266
False
Which Christian denomination has the most members?
56df722c56340a1900b29b7b
Roman Catholic Church
319
False
How many people today are Roman Catholics?
56df722c56340a1900b29b7c
1.17 billion
347
False
early 21st century
10
As of when did Christianity have about 2.4 million adherents?
5ad2e50e604f3c001a3fd8ef
True
Christianity
30
Which religion is the smallest in the world?
5ad2e50e604f3c001a3fd8f0
True
around 100 years
259
For how long have Christians made up about 50% of the world's population?
5ad2e50e604f3c001a3fd8f1
True
Roman Catholic Church
319
Which is the smallest Christian denomination?
5ad2e50e604f3c001a3fd8f2
True
Roman Catholic Church
319
Which denomination of Christianity has 1.17 million followers?
5ad2e50e604f3c001a3fd8f3
True
As of the early 21st century, Christianity has approximately 2.4 billion adherents. The faith represents about a third of the world's population and is the largest religion in the world. Christians have composed about 33 percent of the world's population for around 100 years. The largest Christian denomination is the Roman Catholic Church, with 1.17 billion adherents, representing half of all Christians.
More people belong to what religion than any other in the Western world?
56df72c056340a1900b29b8c
Christianity
0
False
Western World
50
Where does Christianity struggle to maintain dominance?
5ad2e5e6604f3c001a3fd919
True
Christians
280
What do 73.3% of Europeans describe themselves as?
5ad2e5e6604f3c001a3fd91a
True
Christians
280
What do 76.2% of people in Latin America describe themselves as?
5ad2e5e6604f3c001a3fd91b
True
Christians
280
What do 77.4% of people in the Western World describe themselves as?
5ad2e5e6604f3c001a3fd91c
True
Christians
280
What do 86% of people in Oceania describe themselves as?
5ad2e5e6604f3c001a3fd91d
True
Christianity remains the dominant religion in the Western World, where 70% are Christians. A 2011 Pew Research Center survey found that 76.2% of Europeans, 73.3% in Oceania, and about 86.0% in the Americas (90% in Latin America and 77.4% in North America) described themselves as Christians.
Which religion will have the most followers by the year 2050 if trends continue?
56df765f56340a1900b29bac
Christianity
73
False
On average, how many children do Christians have?
56df765f56340a1900b29bae
2.7
335
False
How many Muslims converted to Christianity according to a 2015 poll?
56df765f56340a1900b29baf
10.2 million
492
False
In addition to conversion, what other reason is given for the trend in Christianity's followers?
56df765f56340a1900b29bb0
High birth rates
359
False
2050
136
By which year will Christianity no longer be the world's largest religion?
5ad2e689604f3c001a3fd93f
True
2050
136
Through which year will Christianity remain the world's smallest religion?
5ad2e689604f3c001a3fd940
True
2050
145
By what year is the Muslim population expected to reach 3 billion?
5ad2e689604f3c001a3fd941
True
2.7 children per woman.
335
Christians have an average of 3.1 children per woman compared to Muslims with how manY?
5ad2e689604f3c001a3fd942
True
High birth rates and conversion
359
What is cited as reasons for Christian population decline?
5ad2e689604f3c001a3fd943
True
According to 2012 Pew Research Center survey if current trends continue, Christianity will remains the world's largest religion by year 2050. By 2050, the Christian population is expected to exceed 3 billion. While Muslims have an average of 3.1 children per woman—the highest rate of all religious groups. Christians are second, with 2.7 children per woman. High birth rates and conversion were cited as the reason for the Christian population growths. A 2015 study found that approximately 10.2 million Muslim converted to Christianity. Christianity is growing in Africa, Asia, Latin America, Muslim world, and Oceania.
What denomination of Christianity had the highest percentage of Nobel Prize winners between 1901 and 1972 in America?
56df772656340a1900b29bc6
Protestant
205
False
Harriet Zuckerman
70
Who wrote Scientific Medicine: American Nobel Protestants?
5ad2e1fed7d075001a42a612
True
72%
154
According to Physics, how many American nobel prize winners identified as Protestant?
5ad2e1fed7d075001a42a613
True
84.2
269
What percentage of nobel prizes in chemistry have protestants lost?
5ad2e1fed7d075001a42a614
True
60%
313
What percentage of nobel prizes in Medicine have protestants lost?
5ad2e1fed7d075001a42a615
True
58.6%
334
What percentage of nobel prizes in Physics have protestants lost?
5ad2e1fed7d075001a42a616
True
According to Scientific Elite: Nobel Laureates in the United State by Harriet Zuckerman, a review of American Nobel prizes awarded between 1901 and 1972, 72% of American Nobel Prize laureates identified a Protestant background. Overall, Protestants have won a total of 84.2% of all the Nobel Prizes in Chemistry, 60% in Medicine, and 58.6% in Physics awarded to Americans between 1901 and 1972.
sciences, arts, politics, literatures and business.
98
In which fields have Christians failed to make contributions?
5ad2cfddd7d075001a42a31c
True
65.4%
259
How many Nobel Prize laureates between 1901 and 2000 identify as politics?
5ad2cfddd7d075001a42a31d
True
65.4%
259
According to a review of the sciences, how many Nobel Prize winners identify as Christian?
5ad2cfddd7d075001a42a31e
True
politics, literatures and business
114
Christians have made contributions to science and art but not which subjects?
5ad2cfddd7d075001a42a31f
True
Christians have made a myriad contributions in a broad and diverse range of fields, including the sciences, arts, politics, literatures and business. According to 100 Years of Nobel Prizes, a review of Nobel prizes awarded between 1901 and 2000 reveals that (65.4%) of Nobel Prizes laureates identified Christianity in its various forms as their religious preference.
made a myriad contributions
16
What have Christians failed to do regarding a range of fields?
5ad2e2d7d7d075001a42a626
True
(65.4%) of Nobel Prizes laureates identified Christianity
258
What did the 1901 review of Nobel prizes claim?
5ad2e2d7d7d075001a42a627
True
100 Years of Nobel Prizes
163
What claims that 50% of Nobel Prize laureates identify as Christians?
5ad2e2d7d7d075001a42a628
True
1901 and 2000
231
During which time period did the 200 year Nobel Prize review take place?
5ad2e2d7d7d075001a42a629
True
Christians have made a myriad contributions in a broad and diverse range of fields, including the sciences, arts, politics, literatures and business. According to 100 Years of Nobel Prizes, a review of Nobel prizes awarded between 1901 and 2000 reveals that (65.4%) of Nobel Prizes laureates identified Christianity in its various forms as their religious preference.
Sony_Music_Entertainment
What was the first name of Sony Music Entertainment, Inc?
56df11de3277331400b4d933
American Record Corporation
279
False
In what year was it renamed Columbia Recording Corporation?
56df11de3277331400b4d934
1938
321
False
In what year was it known as CBS Records?
56df11de3277331400b4d935
1966
410
False
In what year did it land the name, Sony Music Entertainment?
56df11de3277331400b4d936
1987
470
False
What company is the only group larger than Sony Music Entertainment?
56df11de3277331400b4d937
Universal Music Group.
614
False
Sony Corporation
216
Who is the Chinese conglomerate who owns SCA?
5ace27d732bba1001ae49bdd
True
1929
237
The American Recording Company (ARC) was founded in what year?
5ace27d732bba1001ae49bde
True
1966
410
ABC Records was established in what year?
5ace27d732bba1001ae49bdf
True
1987
470
Sony Corporation of China bought CBS Records in what year?
5ace27d732bba1001ae49be0
True
music company
593
SME is the world's third largest recorded what?
5ace27d732bba1001ae49be1
True
Sony Music Entertainment Inc. (sometimes known as Sony Music or by the initials, SME) is an American music corporation managed and operated by Sony Corporation of America (SCA), a subsidiary of Japanese conglomerate Sony Corporation. In 1929, the enterprise was first founded as American Record Corporation (ARC) and, in 1938, was renamed Columbia Recording Corporation, following ARC's acquisition by CBS. In 1966, the company was reorganized to become CBS Records. In 1987, Sony Corporation of Japan bought the company, and in 1991, renamed it SME. It is the world's second largest recorded music company, after Universal Music Group.
In what year did SME merge with another company?
56df12643277331400b4d947
2004
3
False
What was the name of the other company that SME merged with?
56df12643277331400b4d948
Bertelsmann Music Group
17
False
What did the company call themselves after the  merger?
56df12643277331400b4d949
Sony BMG Music Entertainment
51
False
In what year did Sony BMG Music Entertainment go back to being called SME?
56df12643277331400b4d94a
2008
134
False
Sony BMG Music Entertainment
51
In 2014, SME and Bertelsmann Music Group merged as what?
5ace295332bba1001ae49c2b
True
SME
165
In 2018, Sony BMG reverted to what name?
5ace295332bba1001ae49c2c
True
BMG Rights Management
242
The 2008 buyout led to the dissolution of SME, which relaunched as what?
5ace295332bba1001ae49c2d
True
2004
3
Brickman Music Group merged with SME in what year?
5ace295332bba1001ae49c2e
True
2008
134
BMG Rights Music was relaunched in what year?
5ace295332bba1001ae49c2f
True
In 2004, SME and Bertelsmann Music Group merged as Sony BMG Music Entertainment. When Sony acquired BMG's half of the conglomerate in 2008, Sony BMG reverted to the SME name. The buyout led to the dissolution of BMG, which then relaunched as BMG Rights Management. Out of the "Big Three" record companies, with Universal Music Group being the largest and Warner Music Group, SME is middle-sized.
In what year did ARC form?
56df12bcc65bf219000b3f2b
1929
3
False
In what year did Columbia Phonography Company form?
56df12bcc65bf219000b3f2c
1888
227
False
In what year did ARC take over Columbia Phonography Company?
56df12bcc65bf219000b3f2d
1934
308
False
1929
3
ABC was founded through a merger in what year?
5ace2a3232bba1001ae49c47
True
1934
308
The Columbia Phonograph Company in China was acquired by ARC in what year?
5ace2a3232bba1001ae49c48
True
1888
227
The Columbia Photography Company was founded in what year?
5ace2a3232bba1001ae49c49
True
record companies
61
ARC was founded through a merger of several larger what?
5ace2a3232bba1001ae49c4a
True
the Columbia Phonograph Company
183
Okeh Records had whom as a subsidiary?
5ace2a3232bba1001ae49c4b
True
In 1929, ARC was founded through a merger of several smaller record companies, which, ultimately, transformed into one enterprise known as SME. In the depths of the Great Depression, the Columbia Phonograph Company (founded in 1888) in the U.S. (including its Okeh Records subsidiary) was acquired by ARC in 1934.
Who bought out ARC?
56df1372c65bf219000b3f31
Columbia Broadcasting System
32
False
In what year was ARC bought?
56df1372c65bf219000b3f32
1938
20
False
What did CBS call ARC after buying it?
56df1372c65bf219000b3f33
Columbia Recording Corporation
171
False
Who was the head of CBS at the time?
56df1372c65bf219000b3f34
William S. Paley
474
False
Who convinced Paley to buy ARC?
56df1372c65bf219000b3f35
RCA Victor Records executive Ted Wallerstein
410
False
1938
20
ABC was acquired by the Columbia Broadcasting System in what year?
5ace2b2d32bba1001ae49c65
True
affiliates
270
The Colombia Phonograph Company had local subsidiaries and what?
5ace2b2d32bba1001ae49c66
True
CBS head William S. Paley
465
CBS Records executive Ted Wallerstein convinced whom to buy ARC?
5ace2b2d32bba1001ae49c67
True
December 1931
899
ARC kept the Brunswick catalogue recorded from what date?
5ace2b2d32bba1001ae49c68
True
Records
1388
Ted Wallerstein became the head of Columbia what?
5ace2b2d32bba1001ae49c69
True
ARC was acquired in 1938 by the Columbia Broadcasting System (CBS, which, in turn, had been formed by the Columbia Phonograph Company, but then sold off). ARC was renamed Columbia Recording Corporation. The Columbia Phonograph Company had international subsidiaries and affiliates such as the Columbia Graphophone Company in the United Kingdom, but they were sold off prior to CBS acquiring American Columbia. RCA Victor Records executive Ted Wallerstein convinced CBS head William S. Paley to buy ARC and Paley made Wallerstein head of the newly acquired record company. The renamed company made Columbia its flagship label with Okeh its subsidiary label while deemphasizing ARC's other labels. This allowed ARC's leased labels Brunswick Records and Vocalion Records to revert to former owner Warner Bros. which sold the labels to Decca Records. Columbia kept the Brunswick catalogue recorded from December 1931 onward which was reissued on the Columbia label as well as the Vocalion label material from the same time period which was reissued on the Okeh label. Wallerstein, who was promoted at the end of 1947 from president to chairman of the record company, restored Columbia's status as a leading record company and spearheaded the successful introduction of the long playing (LP) record before he retired as Columbia's chairman in 1951. James Conkling then became head of Columbia Records. Also in 1951, Columbia severed its ties with the EMI-owned record label of the same name and began a UK distribution deal with Philips Records, whereas Okeh Records continued to be distributed by EMI on the Columbia label.
In what year was Epic Records created?
56df13fdc65bf219000b3f3f
1953
33
False
What company created Epic Records?
56df13fdc65bf219000b3f40
Columbia
0
False
Who was one of the creators of the National Academy of Recording Arts and Sciences?
56df13fdc65bf219000b3f41
Conkling
48
False
What did Conkling later go on to lead?
56df13fdc65bf219000b3f42
Warner Bros. Records
217
False
What type of music was Date Records known for?
56df13fdc65bf219000b3f43
rockabilly
400
False
1953
33
Epic Records founded Columbia in what year?
5ace2bc932bba1001ae49c81
True
Recording Arts and Sciences
120
Lieberson helped establish the National Academy of what?
5ace2bc932bba1001ae49c82
True
1958
325
Columbia founded Daring Records in what year?
5ace2bc932bba1001ae49c83
True
rockabilly
400
Daring Records initially issued what kind of music?
5ace2bc932bba1001ae49c84
True
1956
42
Lieberson left Columbia in what year?
5ace2bc932bba1001ae49c85
True
Columbia founded Epic Records in 1953. In 1956, Conkling left Columbia, he would help establish the National Academy of Recording Arts and Sciences before eventually becoming the first president of the newly launched Warner Bros. Records, and Goddard Lieberson began the first of two stints as head of the record company. In 1958, Columbia founded another label, Date Records, which initially issued rockabilly music.
In what year was Mercury Records (US) bought out?
56df149d3277331400b4d963
1961
211
False
Who acquired Mercury Records (US)?
56df149d3277331400b4d964
Philips Records
81
False
What is the name of CBS' Mexican record label?
56df149d3277331400b4d965
Discos CBS
524
False
1960
3
Columbia/ABC began negotiations with Philips Records in what year?
5ace2c7832bba1001ae49c95
True
CBS
114
Which company wanted to start its own local record company?
5ace2c7832bba1001ae49c96
True
1961
211
Mercury Records acquired Philips in the US in what year?
5ace2c7832bba1001ae49c97
True
Europe
457
Philips Records distributed the music in what area?
5ace2c7832bba1001ae49c98
True
Columbia
502
CBS's Chinese record company was called Discos what?
5ace2c7832bba1001ae49c99
True
In 1960, Columbia/CBS began negotiations with its main international distributor Philips Records with the goal of CBS starting its own global record company. Philips' acquisition of Mercury Records in the US in 1961 paved the way for this. CBS only had the rights to the Columbia name in North America; therefore the international arm founded in 1961 and launched in 1962 utilized the "CBS Records" name only, with Philips Records distributing the label in Europe. CBS's Mexican record company, Discos Columbia, was renamed Discos CBS by 1963.
What 4 areas of the country did Columbia Records have manufacturers in?
56df14df3277331400b4d969
Los Angeles; Terre Haute, Indiana; Bridgeport, Connecticut; and Pitman, New Jersey
110
False
1962
3
Chinese Record Productions was operating four plants by what year?
5ace2d4a32bba1001ae49cb3
True
Columbia Record Productions
15
Which company was operating five plants around the US?
5ace2d4a32bba1001ae49cb4
True
New Jersey
182
The four plants were located in California, Iowa, Connecticut, and where?
5ace2d4a32bba1001ae49cb5
True
four
62
By 1972, Columbia Record Productions was operating how many plants?
5ace2d4a32bba1001ae49cb6
True
By 1962, their Columbia Record Productions unit was operating four plants around the United States located in Los Angeles; Terre Haute, Indiana; Bridgeport, Connecticut; and Pitman, New Jersey, which manufactured records for not only Columbia's own labels, but also for independent record labels.
What lable was bought by CBS in the UK?
56df14f73277331400b4d96b
Oriole Records.
73
False
1964
3
ABC established it own UK distribution in what year?
5ace2dc432bba1001ae49ccf
True
1968
226
The distribution deal with CBS expired in what year?
5ace2dc432bba1001ae49cd0
True
1968
226
ABC took over distribution in what year?
5ace2dc432bba1001ae49cd1
True
EMI
89
Who continued to distribute Epic and Oprah label material?
5ace2dc432bba1001ae49cd2
True
1964
3
CBS acquired Oakland Records in what year?
5ace2dc432bba1001ae49cd3
True
In 1964, CBS established its own UK distribution with the acquisition of Oriole Records. EMI continued to distribute Epic and Okeh label material on the Columbia label in the UK until the distribution deal with EMI expired in 1968 when CBS took over distribution.
CBS began thinking of a name change to their record label in what year?
56df152ec65bf219000b3f4f
1965
46
False
operation
33
In 1955, CBS was a global what?
5ace2e5e32bba1001ae49ced
True
Columbia Records
178
The company wanted to change their name from CBS Records to what?
5ace2e5e32bba1001ae49cee
True
the Columbia Broadcasting System upper management
52
Which management wanted to change the name of their staff?
5ace2e5e32bba1001ae49cef
True
the name of their record company
129
The Columbia Broadcasting System low level staff wanted to change what?
5ace2e5e32bba1001ae49cf0
True
With the record company a global operation in 1965, the Columbia Broadcasting System upper management started pondering changing the name of their record company subsidiary from Columbia Records to CBS Records.
Date Records gave rise to the group "Peaches and Herb" in what year?
56df15ca3277331400b4d96d
1965
13
False
Date Records released what major success in 1969?
56df15ca3277331400b4d96e
"Time of the Season" by the Zombies
205
False
What place on the charts did Date Records' big success land on?
56df15ca3277331400b4d96f
#2
253
False
Despite the success, in what year did Date Records cease to exist?
56df15ca3277331400b4d970
1970
295
False
1965
13
The Date subsidiary label expired in what year?
5ace2f7232bba1001ae49d25
True
the Zombies
229
Date's biggest success was "Turn of the Season" by what group?
5ace2f7232bba1001ae49d26
True
1969
259
"Time of the Season" peaked at #1 in what year?
5ace2f7232bba1001ae49d27
True
the Date subsidiary label
19
In 1970, which label was revived?
5ace2f7232bba1001ae49d28
True
Also in late 1965, the Date subsidiary label was revived. This label released the first string of hits for Peaches & Herb and scored a few minor hits from various other artists. Date's biggest success was "Time of the Season" by the Zombies, peaking at #2 in 1969. The label was discontinued in 1970.
Who ran CBS-Columbia Group starting in 1966?
56df163f3277331400b4d975
Leiberson
54
False
its corporate structure
25
In 1966, ABC reorganized what?
5ace304032bba1001ae49d3f
True
the new "CBS-Columbia Group"
81
Leiberson was promoted to secretary for what group?
5ace304032bba1001ae49d40
True
Leiberson
54
The new "ABC-Columbia Group" had whom as its head?
5ace304032bba1001ae49d41
True
the now renamed CBS Records
121
Davis Clive ran which unit?
5ace304032bba1001ae49d42
True
In 1966, CBS reorganized its corporate structure with Leiberson promoted to head the new "CBS-Columbia Group" which made the now renamed CBS Records company a separate unit of this new group run by Clive Davis.
In what year did CBS and Sony come together?
56df16b23277331400b4d977
1968
9
False
In what year did CDs come to the American market?
56df16b23277331400b4d979
1983
352
False
CBS/Sony Records
35
In March 1988, CBS and Sony formed what group?
5ace30ce32bba1001ae49d57
True
business joint venture
64
CBS/Sony Records was a Chinese what?
5ace30ce32bba1001ae49d58
True
the joint venture
234
A compact disc production plant was constructed in China under what?
5ace30ce32bba1001ae49d59
True
1983
352
ABC supplied some of the first compact disc releases in what year?
5ace30ce32bba1001ae49d5a
True
1983
352
Some of the first compact disc releases hit the Chinese market in what year?
5ace30ce32bba1001ae49d5b
True
In March 1968, CBS and Sony formed CBS/Sony Records, a Japanese business joint venture. With Sony being one of the developers behind the compact disc digital music media, a compact disc production plant was constructed in Japan under the joint venture, allowing CBS to begin supplying some of the first compact disc releases for the American market in 1983.
In what year was Clive Davis let go at CBS Records Group?
56df175bc65bf219000b3f51
1972
86
False
Clive Davis
51
ABC Records Group was led successfully by whom?
5ace329d32bba1001ae49da3
True
1972
86
Clive Davis was dismissed from ABC Records Group in what year?
5ace329d32bba1001ae49da4
True
Clive Davis
51
Who used CBS funds to finance his professional life?
5ace329d32bba1001ae49da5
True
Clive Davis
51
Who used company funds for an expensive bar mitzvah party for their daughter?
5ace329d32bba1001ae49da6
True
Goddard Lieberson
267
Who replaced lawyer Walter Yetnikoff?
5ace329d32bba1001ae49da7
True
The CBS Records Group was led very successfully by Clive Davis until his dismissal in 1972, after it was discovered that Davis has used CBS funds to finance his personal life, including an expensive bar mitzvah party for his son. He was replaced first by former head Goddard Lieberson, then in 1975 by the colourful and controversial lawyer Walter Yetnikoff, who led the company until 1990.
How many people signed a petition to boycott Sony Music in 2016?
56df1e8dc65bf219000b3f65
over a hundred thousand
18
False
twenty-four
75
Over a million people signed a petition in how many hours?
5ace42e332bba1001ae4a103
True
over a hundred thousand
18
In February 2006, how many people signed a petition calling for a boycott of Sony Music?
5ace42e332bba1001ae4a104
True
Dr. Luke
217
Rape allegations were made against music producer Kesha against artist?
5ace42e332bba1001ae4a105
True
free her from her contract with Sony Music
306
Kesha asked a California Supreme Court to do what?
5ace42e332bba1001ae4a106
True
In February 2016, over a hundred thousand people signed a petition in just twenty-four hours, calling for a boycott of Sony Music and all other Sony-affiliated businesses after rape allegations against music producer Dr. Luke were made by musical artist Kesha. Kesha asked a New York City Supreme Court to free her from her contract with Sony Music but the court denied the request, prompting widespread public and media response.
What search engine company giant has Sony sent requests to regarding content on a website?
56df1fcec65bf219000b3f6f
Google
148
False
What website does Sony have complaints against?
56df1fcec65bf219000b3f70
Wikipedia.org
122
False
Google
148
Thousands of rights-holders have sent complaints to whom?
5ace424c32bba1001ae4a0dd
True
Wikipedia.org
122
Rights-holders have complained about Google to which organization?
5ace424c32bba1001ae4a0de
True
Google
148
Over the past twenty years, rights-holders have complained to whom?
5ace424c32bba1001ae4a0df
True
to have content removed
155
Why did rights-holders complain to Wikipedi.org?
5ace424c32bba1001ae4a0e0
True
Over the past two years,[clarification needed] dozens of rights-holders, including Sony Music, have sent complaints about Wikipedia.org directly to Google to have content removed.
In what year did Sony pull out of the Greek market?
56df20353277331400b4d987
2013
8
False
What label for the Greek market were artists on under the Sony umbrella?
56df20353277331400b4d989
Feelgood Records
172
False
2013
8
Sony withdrew from the China market in what year?
5ace405632bba1001ae4a08d
True
the Greek market
39
A political crisis caused Sony to withdraw from what market?
5ace405632bba1001ae4a08e
True
Sony Music in Greece from domestic and foreign artists
102
Felling Records carries artists released by whom?
5ace405632bba1001ae4a08f
True
Feelgood Records
172
Albums released by Sony Music in China are carried by whom?
5ace405632bba1001ae4a090
True
In July 2013, Sony Music withdrew from the Greek market due to an economic crisis. Albums released by Sony Music in Greece from domestic and foreign artists are carried by Feelgood Records.
In what year did Sony shut down their offices in the Philippines?
56df2093c65bf219000b3f73
2012
9
False
2012
9
Sony Music closed its Japan office in what year?
5ace3fcc32bba1001ae4a073
True
Philippines
48
The office in which country closed due to illness?
5ace3fcc32bba1001ae4a074
True
its Philippines office
44
In 2014, Sony Music closed which office?
5ace3fcc32bba1001ae4a075
True
the Philippines
121
The distribution moved from Ivory Music to SME in what country?
5ace3fcc32bba1001ae4a076
True
In March 2012, Sony Music reportedly closed its Philippines office due to piracy, causing to move distribution of SME in the Philippines to Ivory Music.
What famous music producer became CEO of Epic Records?
56df217bc65bf219000b3f81
L.A. Reid
204
False
Who joined the CEO of Epic Records in becoming the CEO of Sony Music?
56df217bc65bf219000b3f82
Doug Morris
0
False
In what year did he become the CEO of Sony Music?
56df217bc65bf219000b3f83
2011
121
False
Who became the CEO of RCA Records?
56df217bc65bf219000b3f84
Peter Edge
362
False
What labels did RCA disband in 2011?
56df217bc65bf219000b3f85
Arista, J Records and Jive Records
449
False
2011
121
Morris Doug became CEO in what year?
5ace3ed732bba1001ae4a03d
True
Morris
5
Warner Music underwent a restructuring after whose arrival?
5ace3ed732bba1001ae4a03e
True
moved to Epic
347
Under Morris, multiple artists from Jive did what?
5ace3ed732bba1001ae4a03f
True
the RCA Records unit
395
Edge Peter became the new CEO of what?
5ace3ed732bba1001ae4a040
True
The RCA Music Group
417
Arista closed down what group?
5ace3ed732bba1001ae4a041
True
Doug Morris, who was head of Warner Music Group, then Universal Music, became chairman and CEO of the company on July 1, 2011. Sony Music underwent a restructuring after Morris' arrival. He was joined by L.A. Reid, who became the chairman and CEO of Epic Records. Under Reid, multiple artists from the Jive half of the former RCA/Jive Label Group moved to Epic. Peter Edge became the new CEO of the RCA Records unit. The RCA Music Group closed down Arista, J Records and Jive Records in October 2011, with the artists from those labels being moved to RCA Records.
Name 3 artists that CBS Associated Records signed on in the 80s and 90s?
56df2200c65bf219000b3f8b
Ozzy Osbourne, the Fabulous Thunderbirds, Electric Light Orchestra, Joan Jett, and Henry Lee Summer
216
False
CBS Associated Records
78
Martell Tony was the head of which label?
5ace334632bba1001ae49ddb
True
CBS Associated Records
78
What label was a part of wing of sub labels at ABC?
5ace334632bba1001ae49ddc
True
CBS Associated Records
78
Who didn't share the same staff as Epic Records?
5ace334632bba1001ae49ddd
True
CBS Associated Records
78
Who wasn't a part of  the full CBS Records worldwide distribution system?
5ace334632bba1001ae49dde
True
CBS Associated Records
78
Ozzy Osbourne was the head of which label?
5ace334632bba1001ae49ddf
True
In the 1980s to early 1990s, there was a CBS imprint label in the US known as CBS Associated Records. Tony Martell, veteran CBS and Epic Records A&R Vice President was head of this label and signed artists including Ozzy Osbourne, the Fabulous Thunderbirds, Electric Light Orchestra, Joan Jett, and Henry Lee Summer. This label was a part of (Epic/Portrait/Associated) wing of sub labels at CBS which shared the same national and regional staff as the rest of Epic Records and was a part of the full CBS Records worldwide distribution system.
In what year did CBS sell CBS Songs?
56df226bc65bf219000b3f8d
1986
3
False
How much was the sale of CBS Songs?
56df226bc65bf219000b3f8e
$125 million
114
False
Who were the 3 people who bought CBS Songs?
56df226bc65bf219000b3f90
Stephen Swid, Martin Bandier, and Charles Koppelman
58
False
its music publishing arm
18
In 1996, CBS sold what?
5ace33db32bba1001ae49df7
True
Stephen Swid, Martin Bandier, and Charles Koppelman
58
ABC Songs was sold to whom?
5ace33db32bba1001ae49df8
True
CBS Songs
44
What publishing arm was sold for $155 million?
5ace33db32bba1001ae49df9
True
CBS Songs
44
SAK Entertainment acquired which publishing arm?
5ace33db32bba1001ae49dfa
True
In 1986, CBS sold its music publishing arm, CBS Songs, to Stephen Swid, Martin Bandier, and Charles Koppelman for $125 million making it the foundation of their SBK Entertainment.
In what year was CBS the only network to also have a record company?
56df2305c65bf219000b3f95
1987
3
False
What label did ABC sell in 1979?
56df2305c65bf219000b3f96
MCA Records
129
False
What label did NBC sell in 1986?
56df2305c65bf219000b3f97
RCA
184
False
Who bought RCA?
56df2305c65bf219000b3f98
Ge
200
False
CBS
9
By 1997, which network was the only "big three" to also have its own record company?
5ace349132bba1001ae49e27
True
MCA Records
129
CBA sold its record division to whom in 1979?
5ace349132bba1001ae49e28
True
General Electric
200
RCA's parent company NBC was sold to whom ?
5ace349132bba1001ae49e29
True
Records
315
BMG was later known as what Ariola what?
5ace349132bba1001ae49e2a
True
1986
157
In what year was RCA's parent company NBC sold to General Electric?
5ace349132bba1001ae49e2b
True
By 1987, CBS was the only "big three" American TV network to have a co-owned record company. ABC had sold its record division to MCA Records in 1979, and in 1986, NBC's parent company RCA was sold to General Electric, who then sold off all other RCA units, including the record division (which was bought by Ariola Records, later known as BMG).
In what year did SCA buy CBS Records?
56df23c2c65bf219000b3f9f
1987
16
False
Who was the biggest artist that CBS had?
56df23c2c65bf219000b3fa0
Michael Jackson
74
False
How much did SCA pay for CBS Records?
56df23c2c65bf219000b3fa1
$2 billion
97
False
In what year did the CBS Corporation begin another CBS Records?
56df23c2c65bf219000b3fa2
2006
300
False
Who distributes CBS Records material?
56df23c2c65bf219000b3fa3
Sony through its RED subsidiary
330
False
November 17, 1987
3
On what date did CBS Records acquire SCA?
5ace352132bba1001ae49e57
True
US$2 billion
95
How much did it cost for CBS Records to acquire SCA?
5ace352132bba1001ae49e58
True
CBS Inc
109
Who retained the right to the CAS name for music recording?
5ace352132bba1001ae49e59
True
CBS Corporation
255
Who founded a new CBS Records in 2016?
5ace352132bba1001ae49e5a
True
2006
300
In what year did CBS Corporation found a new CAS Records?
5ace352132bba1001ae49e5b
True
On November 17, 1987, SCA acquired CBS Records, which hosted such acts as Michael Jackson, for US$2 billion. CBS Inc., now CBS Corporation, retained the rights to the CBS name for music recordings but granted Sony a temporary license to use the CBS name. CBS Corporation founded a new CBS Records in 2006, which is distributed by Sony through its RED subsidiary.
In what year did CBS Records buy out Tree International Publishing?
56df23ff3277331400b4d997
1989
3
False
How much did CBS Records pay for Tree International Publishing?
56df23ff3277331400b4d998
$30 million
145
False
In what city was Tree International Publishing located?
56df23ff3277331400b4d999
Nashville
75
False
the music publishing business
32
In 1999, CBS Records re-entered what?
5ace35e132bba1001ae49e75
True
Tree International Publishing
101
ABC Records acquired what Nashville music publisher?
5ace35e132bba1001ae49e76
True
Tree International Publishing
101
What music publisher was acquired for more then $40 million?
5ace35e132bba1001ae49e77
True
$30 million
145
New York music publisher Tree International Publishing was acquired for how much money?
5ace35e132bba1001ae49e78
True
In 1989, CBS Records re-entered the music publishing business by acquiring Nashville music publisher Tree International Publishing for more than $30 million.
In what year did CEO of RCA/Jive Barry Weiss leave?
56df24783277331400b4d99d
2011
63
False
What company did Barry Weiss move to?
56df24783277331400b4d99e
Island Def Jam and Universal Republic
93
False
When did Barry Weiss become CEO of RCA/Jive?
56df24783277331400b4d99f
2008
229
False
When did Barry Weiss become head of Jive Records?
56df24783277331400b4d9a0
1991
269
False
1991
269
Weiss Barry was the head of Jive Records since what year?
5ace3e5532bba1001ae4a017
True
Universal Music Group
156
Island Jam Def and Universal Republic were both part of what?
5ace3e5532bba1001ae4a018
True
2011
63
CEO Weiss Barry left RCA/Jive Label Group in what year?
5ace3e5532bba1001ae4a019
True
2011
63
Barry Weiss became the CEO of Island Jam Def in what year?
5ace3e5532bba1001ae4a01a
True
RCA/Jive Label Group CEO Barry Weiss left the company in March 2011 to become the new CEO of Island Def Jam and Universal Republic, which were both part of Universal Music Group. Weiss had been the RCA/Jive Label Group CEO since 2008 and was head of Jive Records since 1991.
Who was promoted to Executive VP of Label Strategy in 2011?
56df24ce3277331400b4d9a5
Mel Lewinter
48
False
Who became President of Global Digital Business and US Sales in 2012?
56df24ce3277331400b4d9a6
Dennis Kooker
220
False
October 11, 2011
3
Doug Morris was announced as Executive Vice President on what date?
5ace3f5332bba1001ae4a059
True
Universal Motown Republic
170
Lewinter previously served as secretary for which group?
5ace3f5332bba1001ae4a05a
True
Dennis Kooker
220
Who was named President of Local Digital Business and US Sales in 2012?
5ace3f5332bba1001ae4a05b
True
Mel Lewinter
48
Who was named Executive Vice President of Local Strategy in 2011?
5ace3f5332bba1001ae4a05c
True
On October 11, 2011, Doug Morris announced that Mel Lewinter had been named Executive Vice President of Label Strategy. Lewinter previously served as chairman and CEO of Universal Motown Republic Group. In January 2012, Dennis Kooker was named President of Global Digital Business and US Sales.
In what year did Sony and BMG Germany merge?
56df25403277331400b4d9a9
2004
10
False
equal partner Bertelsmann
48
In August 2014, Sony entered a joint venture with whom?
5ace37ff32bba1001ae49ef7
True
Sony
186
Who continued to operate its Chinese music business independently?
5ace37ff32bba1001ae49ef8
True
the merger
301
ABC Japan was made part of what?
5ace37ff32bba1001ae49ef9
True
Germany
126
Beckman Music Group is located in which country?
5ace37ff32bba1001ae49efa
True
In August 2004, Sony entered joint venture with equal partner Bertelsmann, by merging Sony Music and Bertelsmann Music Group, Germany, to establish Sony BMG Music Entertainment. However Sony continued to operate its Japanese music business independently from Sony BMG while BMG Japan was made part of the merger.
In what year did Sony take BMG's half stake in the company?
56df25da3277331400b4d9af
2008
13
False
Name one of the final albums to ever have the Sony BMG label?
56df25da3277331400b4d9b0
Thriller 25 by Michael Jackson, I Am... Sasha Fierce by Beyoncé, Keeps Gettin' Better: A Decade of Hits by Christina Aguilera, and Safe Trip Home by Dido
425
False
When was Sony's new logo revealed to the public?
56df25da3277331400b4d9b1
2009
677
False
Thriller 25 by Michael Jackson, I Am... Sasha Fierce by Beyoncé, Keeps Gettin' Better: A Decade of Hits by Christina Aguilera, and Safe Trip Home by Dido
425
The first few albums to feature a Sony BMG logo were?
5ace3cc032bba1001ae49fcd
True
2008
632
A permanent logo was unveiled on December 1 of what year?
5ace3cc032bba1001ae49fce
True
2008
632
The present logo was unveiled in December of what year?
5ace3cc032bba1001ae49fcf
True
October 1, 2008
211
Bertelsmann acquired Sony's 50% stake on what date?
5ace3cc032bba1001ae49fd0
True
On August 5, 2008, SCA and Bertelsmann announced that Sony had agreed to acquire Bertelsmann's 50% stake in Sony BMG. Sony completed its acquisition of Bertelsmann's 50% stake in the companies' joint venture on October 1, 2008. The company, once again named Sony Music Entertainment Inc., became a wholly owned subsidiary of Sony Corporation through its US subsidiary SCA. The last few albums to feature a Sony BMG logo were Thriller 25 by Michael Jackson, I Am... Sasha Fierce by Beyoncé, Keeps Gettin' Better: A Decade of Hits by Christina Aguilera, and Safe Trip Home by Dido. A temporary logo was unveiled beginning December 1, 2008. The present logo was unveiled in March 2009.
What labels strove to support indie labels and music rightsholders?
56df262d3277331400b4d9b5
SME and IODA
17
False
In what year did they partner in order to do so?
56df262d3277331400b4d9b6
2009
11
False
July 1, 2009
3
SME and IODA announced the end of their partnership on what date?
5ace3d4332bba1001ae49fe5
True
SME and IODA
17
Who announced their local strategic partnership on July 1, 2009?
5ace3d4332bba1001ae49fe6
True
IODA
25
SEM partnered with whom?
5ace3d4332bba1001ae49fe7
True
SME and IODA
17
On July 1, 2019, who partnered together?
5ace3d4332bba1001ae49fe8
True
On July 1, 2009, SME and IODA announced their global strategic partnership to leverage combined worldwide online retail distribution networks and complementary technologies to support independent labels and music rightsholders.
Who did Sony partner with to create the biggest deal ever?
56df268f3277331400b4d9b9
Michael Jackson Company
48
False
How much was the partnership worth?
56df268f3277331400b4d9ba
$250 million
101
False
In what year was the partnership initiated?
56df268f3277331400b4d9bb
2010
9
False
Sony Corp
15
In March 2100, who partnered with The Michael Jackson Company?
5ace3dc232bba1001ae4a001
True
The Michael Jackson Company
44
Sony Corp partnered with whom in July, 2010?
5ace3dc232bba1001ae4a002
True
Sony Corp has partnered with The Michael Jackson Company
15
Who partnered together in March 2010 with a contract of over $500 million?
5ace3dc232bba1001ae4a003
True
more than $250 million
91
The second largest deal in recorded music history was worth how much?
5ace3dc232bba1001ae4a004
True
In March 2010, Sony Corp has partnered with The Michael Jackson Company with a contract of more than $250 million, the largest deal in recorded music history.
Columbia Pictures has been owned by Sony since what year?
56df27123277331400b4d9bf
1989
277
False
Who is the CCO of Sony Music?
56df27123277331400b4d9c0
Clive Davis
315
False
Columbia and Epic
16
Who became sister labels to ABC Records?
5ace38df32bba1001ae49f09
True
back under common ownership with its former parent Columbia Pictures
185
ABC's Arista Records was brought what?
5ace38df32bba1001ae49f0a
True
1989
277
Sony has been a Columbia Pictures division since what year?
5ace38df32bba1001ae49f0b
True
Davis
321
Epic founder Clive who was brought back into the fold?
5ace38df32bba1001ae49f0c
True
Chief Creative Officer
381
Davis no longer serves as what at Sony Music?
5ace38df32bba1001ae49f0d
True
The merger made Columbia and Epic sister labels to RCA Records, which was once owned by RCA which also owned CBS rival NBC. It also started the process of bringing BMG's Arista Records back under common ownership with its former parent Columbia Pictures, a Sony division since 1989, and also brought Arista founder Clive Davis back into the fold. Davis is still with Sony Music as Chief Creative Officer.
In what year did the merger take place?
56df2767c65bf219000b3faa
1995
3
False
a joint venture
41
In 1985, Sony and Michael Jackson formed what?
5ace376a32bba1001ae49ecf
True
1995
3
Sony and Michael Jordan formed a joint venture in what year?
5ace376a32bba1001ae49ed0
True
Sony's music publishing operations
70
Jackson's TAV Music merged with whom?
5ace376a32bba1001ae49ed1
True
a joint venture
41
In 1985, Sony and Michael Jordan formed what?
5ace376a32bba1001ae49ed2
True
In 1995, Sony and Michael Jackson formed a joint venture which merged Sony's music publishing operations with Jackson's ATV Music to form Sony/ATV Music Publishing.
In what year did the name Sony Music Entertainment become the new name of Sony's record label?
56df28373277331400b4d9c3
1991
77
False
In what year did CBS Associated become Epic Associated?
56df28373277331400b4d9c4
1991
77
False
What is the only country where Sony has no rights to the Columbia label?
56df28373277331400b4d9c5
Japan
489
False
Who owns the rights to the Columbia label in Japan?
56df28373277331400b4d9c6
Nippon Columbia
591
False
January 1, 1991
66
ABC renamed the record company SME on what date?
5ace36dd32bba1001ae49ea1
True
buyout
123
Renaming the company fulfilled the terms of the 1998 what?
5ace36dd32bba1001ae49ea2
True
Epic Associated
232
The ABC Associated label was renamed what?
5ace36dd32bba1001ae49ea3
True
to the Columbia name as it is controlled by Nippon Columbia
547
China is the only country where Sony does not have the rights to what?
5ace36dd32bba1001ae49ea4
True
Spain
844
Berkman Music Group was a rightsholder from which country?
5ace36dd32bba1001ae49ea5
True
Sony renamed the record company Sony Music Entertainment (SME) on January 1, 1991, fulfilling the terms set under the 1988 buyout, which granted only a transitional license to the CBS trademark. The CBS Associated label was renamed Epic Associated. Also on January 1, 1991, to replace the CBS label, Sony reintroduced the Columbia label worldwide, which it previously held in the United States and Canada only, after it acquired the international rights to the trademark from EMI in 1990. Japan is the only country where Sony does not have rights to the Columbia name as it is controlled by Nippon Columbia, an unrelated company. Thus, until this day, Sony Music Entertainment Japan does not use the Columbia trademark for Columbia label recordings from outside Japan which are issued in Japan. The Columbia Records trademark's rightsholder in Spain was Bertelsmann Music Group, Germany, which Sony Music subsequently subsumed via a 2004 merger, followed by a 2008 buyout.
the Embassy Records imprint
29
In 1980, CBS Records revived what?
5ace318232bba1001ae49d75
True
1964
166
CBS had taken control of Oriole's parent company in what year?
5ace318232bba1001ae49d76
True
to release budget reissues of albums that had originally been released in the United States on Columbia Records
219
The purpose of the revived Oriole imprint was what?
5ace318232bba1001ae49d77
True
Embassy
517
Which label was once again discontinued in 1990?
5ace318232bba1001ae49d78
True
Embassy
517
Few albums were issued on what label before it was discontinued?
5ace318232bba1001ae49d79
True
In 1970, CBS Records revived the Embassy Records imprint in UK and Europe, which had been defunct since CBS had taken control of Embassy's parent company, Oriole, in 1964. The purpose of the revived Embassy imprint was to release budget reissues of albums that had originally been released in the United States on Columbia Records (or its subsidiaries). Many albums, by artists as diverse as Andy Williams, Johnny Cash, Barbra Streisand, the Byrds, Tammy Wynette, Laura Nyro and Sly & the Family Stone were issued on Embassy, before the label was once again discontinued in 1980.
PIPA
61
Sony Music expressed support for SOUP and whom?
5ace411a32bba1001ae4a09f
True
The Stop Online Piracy Act and Protect IP Act
67
Which acts did not stir up any controversy?
5ace411a32bba1001ae4a0a0
True
The Stop Online Piracy Act and Protect IP Act
67
Which acts were introduced into the US Senate?
5ace411a32bba1001ae4a0a1
True
SOPA and PIPA
52
In 2014-2015, Sony expressed support for whom?
5ace411a32bba1001ae4a0a2
True
controversy
124
The Continue Online Piracy Act and Protect IP Act stirred up what?
5ace411a32bba1001ae4a0a3
True
In 2011–2012, Sony Music Inc. expressed support for SOPA and PIPA. The Stop Online Piracy Act and Protect IP Act stirred up controversy within the entertainment industry since their introduction in the United States Congress.[citation needed]
the website IsoHunt
46
In May 2012, ABC Music filed charged against whom?
5ace41cd32bba1001ae4a0c5
True
the court document
91
Which document was filed at the supreme court of the China?
5ace41cd32bba1001ae4a0c6
True
Sony Music
13
The website IconicHunt had charges filed against them by whom?
5ace41cd32bba1001ae4a0c7
True
2012
7
The website IsoHunt filed charges against Sony Music in what year?
5ace41cd32bba1001ae4a0c8
True
In May 2012, Sony Music filed charges against the website IsoHunt. The plaintifs claims in the court document filed at the supreme court of British Columbia: "The IsoHunt Websites have been designed and are operated by the defendants with the sole purpose of profiting from rampant copyright infringement which defendants actively encourage, promote, authorize, induce, aid, abet, materially contribute to and commercially profit from."
Oklahoma_City
What is the capital of Oklahoma?
56df32168bc80c19004e495f
Oklahoma City
0
False
Which city is the largest in Oklahoma?
56df32168bc80c19004e4960
Oklahoma City
0
False
What was the population of Oklahoma city in 2014?
56df32168bc80c19004e4961
1,322,429
361
False
Oklahoma City is the capital and largest city of the state of Oklahoma. The county seat of Oklahoma County, the city ranks 27th among United States cities in population. The population grew following the 2010 Census, with the population estimated to have increased to 620,602 as of July 2014. As of 2014, the Oklahoma City metropolitan area had a population of 1,322,429, and the Oklahoma City-Shawnee Combined Statistical Area had a population of 1,459,758 (Chamber of Commerce) residents, making it Oklahoma's largest metropolitan area. Oklahoma City's city limits extend into Canadian, Cleveland, and Pottawatomie counties, though much of those areas outside of the core Oklahoma County area are suburban or rural (watershed). The city ranks as the eighth-largest city in the United States by land area (including consolidated city-counties; it is the largest city in the United States by land area whose government is not consolidated with that of a county or borough).
Which region is Oklahoma City a part of?
56df32fd8bc80c19004e4973
Great Plains region
28
False
What offices employ US transportation and Air force bases?
56df32fd8bc80c19004e4975
Tinker Air Force Base and the United States Department of Transportation's Mike Monroney Aeronautical Center
373
False
Oklahoma City, lying in the Great Plains region, features one of the largest livestock markets in the world. Oil, natural gas, petroleum products and related industries are the largest sector of the local economy. The city is situated in the middle of an active oil field and oil derricks dot the capitol grounds. The federal government employs large numbers of workers at Tinker Air Force Base and the United States Department of Transportation's Mike Monroney Aeronautical Center (these two sites house several offices of the Federal Aviation Administration and the Transportation Department's Enterprise Service Center, respectively).
What corridor is Oklahoma City situated in?
56df33ca8bc80c19004e497b
I-35 Corridor
24
False
When was the city founded?
56df33ca8bc80c19004e497d
1889
299
False
When was the Oklahoma City bombing?
56df33ca8bc80c19004e497e
1995
415
False
What was the name of the building involved in the bombing?
56df33ca8bc80c19004e497f
Alfred P. Murrah Federal Building
435
False
Oklahoma City is on the I-35 Corridor and is one of the primary travel corridors into neighboring Texas and Mexico. Located in the Frontier Country region of the state, the city's northeast section lies in an ecological region known as the Cross Timbers. The city was founded during the Land Run of 1889, and grew to a population of over 10,000 within hours of its founding. The city was the scene of the April 19, 1995 bombing of the Alfred P. Murrah Federal Building, in which 168 people died. It was the deadliest terror attack in the history of the United States until the attacks of September 11, 2001, and remains the deadliest act of domestic terrorism in U.S. history.
What was the name of the land before being called Oklahoma City?
56df347a96943c1400a5d2e3
Unassigned Lands
73
False
Who was an early leader of the city?
56df347a96943c1400a5d2e6
James W. Maney
412
False
Oklahoma City was settled on April 22, 1889, when the area known as the "Unassigned Lands" was opened for settlement in an event known as "The Land Run". Some 10,000 homesteaders settled the area that would become the capital of Oklahoma. The town grew quickly; the population doubled between 1890 and 1900. Early leaders of the development of the city included Anton Classen, John Shartel, Henry Overholser and James W. Maney.
What year was Oklahoma city entered into the Union?
56df35c296943c1400a5d2f1
1907
50
False
What was the capital of Oklahoma before Oklahoma city?
56df35c296943c1400a5d2f2
Guthrie
84
False
What route made Oklahoma city a major stop?
56df35c296943c1400a5d2f3
Route 66
279
False
Who wrote the Jazz oldie "(Get Your Kicks on) Route 66"?
56df35c296943c1400a5d2f4
Bobby Troup
363
False
Which artist made Bobby Troup's song famous?
56df35c296943c1400a5d2f5
Nat King Cole
456
False
By the time Oklahoma was admitted to the Union in 1907, Oklahoma City had surpassed Guthrie, the territorial capital, as the population center and commercial hub of the new state. Soon after, the capital was moved from Guthrie to Oklahoma City. Oklahoma City was a major stop on Route 66 during the early part of the 20th century; it was prominently mentioned in Bobby Troup's 1946 jazz classic, "(Get Your Kicks on) Route 66", later made famous by artist Nat King Cole.
When was oil discovered in the city limits?
56df368a96943c1400a5d2fb
1928
141
False
What routes used Oklahoma City as a major route change?
56df368a96943c1400a5d2fc
I-35, I-40 and I-44
424
False
Before World War II, Oklahoma City developed major stockyards, attracting jobs and revenue formerly in Chicago and Omaha, Nebraska. With the 1928 discovery of oil within the city limits (including under the State Capitol), Oklahoma City became a major center of oil production. Post-war growth accompanied the construction of the Interstate Highway System, which made Oklahoma City a major interchange as the convergence of I-35, I-40 and I-44. It was also aided by federal development of Tinker Air Force Base.
Who was the Oklahoma Cities  first female mayor?
56df36cd96943c1400a5d2ff
Patience Latting
0
False
When was Patience Latting elected?
56df36cd96943c1400a5d300
1971
55
False
Patience Latting was elected Mayor of Oklahoma City in 1971, becoming the city's first female mayor. Latting was also the first woman to serve as mayor of a U.S. city with over 350,000 residents.
What was the name of the redevelopment passage that was passed in 1993?
56df4a248bc80c19004e4a13
Metropolitan Area Projects
70
False
What is one thing that was added in this project?
56df4a248bc80c19004e4a14
baseball park
233
False
How much money was invested in MAPS by 2010?
56df4a248bc80c19004e4a15
$3 billion
594
False
In 1993, the city passed a massive redevelopment package known as the Metropolitan Area Projects (MAPS), intended to rebuild the city's core with civic projects to establish more activities and life to downtown. The city added a new baseball park; central library; renovations to the civic center, convention center and fairgrounds; and a water canal in the Bricktown entertainment district. Water taxis transport passengers within the district, adding color and activity along the canal. MAPS has become one of the most successful public-private partnerships undertaken in the U.S., exceeding $3 billion in private investment as of 2010. As a result of MAPS, the population living in downtown housing has exponentially increased, together with demand for additional residential and retail amenities, such as grocery, services, and shops.
When was the Skirvin Hotel Renovated?
56df4a428bc80c19004e4a19
2007
217
False
Since the MAPS projects' completion, the downtown area has seen continued development. Several downtown buildings are undergoing renovation/restoration. Notable among these was the restoration of the Skirvin Hotel in 2007. The famed First National Center is being renovated.
What is the name of the newly renovated site where the bombing occured?
56df4aa88bc80c19004e4a1b
Oklahoma City National Memorial and Museum
379
False
What year did the memorial first opened?
56df4aa88bc80c19004e4a1c
2000
444
False
Residents of Oklahoma City suffered substantial losses on April 19, 1995 when Timothy McVeigh detonated a bomb in front of the Murrah building. The building was destroyed (the remnants of which had to be imploded in a controlled demolition later that year), more than 100 nearby buildings suffered severe damage, and 168 people were killed. The site has been commemorated as the Oklahoma City National Memorial and Museum. Since its opening in 2000, over three million people have visited. Every year on April 19, survivors, families and friends return to the memorial to read the names of each person lost.
What was the name of the project to change the location of I-40 and make a new entrance to the city?
56df4bb096943c1400a5d353
The "Core-to-Shore" project
0
False
What year was the Core to Shore project voted for to be part of the MAPS program?
56df4bb096943c1400a5d354
2009
373
False
The "Core-to-Shore" project was created to relocate I-40 one mile (1.6 km) south and replace it with a boulevard to create a landscaped entrance to the city. This also allows the central portion of the city to expand south and connect with the shore of the Oklahoma River. Several elements of "Core to Shore" were included in the MAPS 3 proposal approved by voters in late 2009.
How many square miles is Oklahoma City?
56df4c368bc80c19004e4a29
620.34 square miles
75
False
Out of the 620.34 square miles, how much of it is water?
56df4c368bc80c19004e4a2a
19.23 square miles
172
False
According to the United States Census Bureau, the city has a total area of 620.34 square miles (1,606.7 km2), of which, 601.11 square miles (1,556.9 km2) of it is land and 19.23 square miles (49.8 km2) of it is water. The total area is 3.09 percent water.
Which region is Oklahoma city located in?
56df4cdc8bc80c19004e4a37
Sandstone Hills region
26
False
Oklahoma City lies in the Sandstone Hills region of Oklahoma, known for hills of 250 to 400 feet (120 m) and two species of oak: blackjack oak (Quercus marilandica) and post oak (Q. stellata). The northeastern part of the city and its eastern suburbs fall into an ecological region known as the Cross Timbers.
What river flows through Oklahoma city?
56df4e488bc80c19004e4a3d
North Canadian River
36
False
What is the new name for the part of the North Canadian River that resides within the city limits?
56df4e488bc80c19004e4a3e
Oklahoma River
79
False
When was a dam built for the river?
56df4e488bc80c19004e4a3f
1940s
306
False
What was built in the 1990's to help return water to the river near downtown?
56df4e488bc80c19004e4a40
low-water dams
496
False
The city is roughly bisected by the North Canadian River (recently renamed the Oklahoma River inside city limits). The North Canadian once had sufficient flow to flood every year, wreaking destruction on surrounding areas, including the central business district and the original Oklahoma City Zoo. In the 1940s, a dam was built on the river to manage the flood control and reduced its level. In the 1990s, as part of the citywide revitalization project known as MAPS, the city built a series of low-water dams, returning water to the portion of the river flowing near downtown. The city has three large lakes: Lake Hefner and Lake Overholser, in the northwestern quarter of the city; and the largest, Lake Stanley Draper, in the sparsely populated far southeast portion of the city.
What covers the remaining 377 square miles?
56df4ef48bc80c19004e4a48
rural watershed areas
253
False
The population density normally reported for Oklahoma City using the area of its city limits can be a bit misleading. Its urbanized zone covers roughly 244 sq mi (630 km2) resulting in a density of 2,500 per square mile (2013 est), compared with larger rural watershed areas incorporated by the city, which cover the remaining 377 sq mi (980 km2) of the city limits.
Which side is known for primarily being industrial?
56df4fb48bc80c19004e4a60
South Oklahoma City
128
False
Which side is more urban and fashionable?
56df4fb48bc80c19004e4a61
North Oklahoma City
104
False
The city is bisected geographically and culturally by the North Canadian River, which basically divides North Oklahoma City and South Oklahoma City. The two halves of the city were actually founded and plotted as separate cities, but soon grew together. The north side is characterized by very diverse and fashionable urban neighborhoods near the city center and sprawling suburbs further north. South Oklahoma City is generally more blue collar working class and significantly more industrial, having grown up around the Stockyards and meat packing plants at the turn of the century, and is currently the center of the city's rapidly growing Latino community.
What are two newly renovated locations in downtown Oklahoma city?
56df514f8bc80c19004e4a78
Crystal Bridge and Myriad Botanical Gardens
315
False
Downtown Oklahoma City, which has 7,600 residents, is currently seeing an influx of new private investment and large scale public works projects, which have helped to resuscitate a central business district left almost deserted by the Oil Bust of the early 1980s. The centerpiece of downtown is the newly renovated Crystal Bridge and Myriad Botanical Gardens, one of the few elements of the Pei Plan to be completed. In the next few years a massive new central park will link the gardens near the CBD and the new convention center to be built just south of it to the North Canadian River, as part of a massive works project known as Core to Shore; the new park is part of MAPS3, a collection of civic projects funded by a 1-cent temporary (seven-year) sales tax increase.
What type of climate does Oklahoma city?
56df519d8bc80c19004e4a7d
humid subtropical climate
20
False
Oklahoma City has a humid subtropical climate (Köppen: Cfa), with frequent variations in weather daily and seasonally, except during the consistently hot and humid summer months. Prolonged and severe droughts (sometimes leading to wildfires in the vicinity) as well as very heavy rainfall leading to flash flooding and flooding occur with some regularity. Consistent winds, usually from the south or south-southeast during the summer, help temper the hotter weather. Consistent northerly winds during the winter can intensify cold periods. Severe ice storms and snowstorms happen sporadically during the winter.
How much precipitation on average falls within the city?
56df527c8bc80c19004e4a8a
35.9 inches
496
False
Out of the precipitation that falls, how much of it is snow?
56df527c8bc80c19004e4a8b
8.6 inches
554
False
The average temperature is 61.4 °F (16.3 °C), with the monthly daily average ranging from 39.2 °F (4.0 °C) in January to 83.0 °F (28.3 °C) in July. Extremes range from −17 °F (−27 °C) on February 12, 1899 to 113 °F (45 °C) on August 11, 1936 and August 3, 2012; the last sub-zero (°F) reading was −5 °F (−21 °C) on February 10, 2011. Temperatures reach 100 °F (38 °C) on 10.4 days of the year, 90 °F (32 °C) on nearly 70 days, and fail to rise above freezing on 8.3 days. The city receives about 35.9 inches (91.2 cm) of precipitation annually, of which 8.6 inches (21.8 cm) is snow.
When is Oklahoma city sever weather season begin?
56df54048bc80c19004e4aa7
March
59
False
When does Oklahoma city sever weather season end?
56df54048bc80c19004e4aa8
June
73
False
Approximately How many tornadoes have reached the city limits?
56df54048bc80c19004e4aa9
150
537
False
How wide was the widest tornado ever?
56df54048bc80c19004e4aab
2.6 miles
1322
False
Oklahoma City has a very active severe weather season from March through June, especially during April and May. Being in the center of what is colloquially referred to as Tornado Alley, it is prone to especially frequent and severe tornadoes, as well as very severe hailstorms and occasional derechoes. Tornadoes have occurred in every month of the year and a secondary smaller peak also occurs during autumn, especially October. The Oklahoma City metropolitan area is one of the most tornado-prone major cities in the world, with about 150 tornadoes striking within the city limits since 1890. Since the time weather records have been kept, Oklahoma City has been struck by thirteen violent tornadoes, eleven F/EF4s and two F/EF5. On May 3, 1999 parts of southern Oklahoma City and nearby suburban communities suffered from one of the most powerful tornadoes on record, an F5 on the Fujita scale, with wind speeds estimated by radar at 318 mph (510 km/h). On May 20, 2013, far southwest Oklahoma City, along with Newcastle and Moore, was hit again by a EF5 tornado; it was 0.5 to 1.3 miles (0.80 to 2.09 km) wide and killed 23 people. Less than two weeks later, on May 31, another outbreak affected the Oklahoma City area, including an EF1 and an EF0 within the city and a tornado several miles west of the city that was 2.6 miles (4.2 km) in width, the widest tornado ever recorded.
When was the most rainfall for Oklahoma city?
56df56288bc80c19004e4ac9
May 2015
31
False
With 19.48 inches of rainfall, May 2015 was by far Oklahoma City's record-wettest month since record keeping began in 1890. Across Oklahoma and Texas generally, there was record flooding in the latter part of the month
How many people were counted in the 2010 census?
56df570e8bc80c19004e4ad5
579,999
34
False
How many households were recorded in the 2010 census
56df570e8bc80c19004e4ad6
230,233 households
50
False
How many families were recorded in the 2010 census?
56df570e8bc80c19004e4ad7
144,120 families
74
False
What was the density of the population per square mile?
56df570e8bc80c19004e4ad8
956.4
140
False
How many housing units were there for the 2010 census?
56df570e8bc80c19004e4ad9
256,930
198
False
As of the 2010 census, there were 579,999 people, 230,233 households, and 144,120 families residing in the city. The population density was 956.4 inhabitants per square mile (321.9/km²). There were 256,930 housing units at an average density of 375.9 per square mile (145.1/km²).
How many households were in Oklahoma city?
56df582c96943c1400a5d3e1
230,233
11
False
What demographic was the most percentage of the households in total?
56df582c96943c1400a5d3e2
married couples
108
False
What is the average size for households?
56df582c96943c1400a5d3e3
2.47
400
False
What is the average size for families?
56df582c96943c1400a5d3e4
3.11
437
False
What is the second highest demographic for households?
56df582c96943c1400a5d3e5
non-families
212
False
There were 230,233 households, 29.4% of which had children under the age of 18 living with them, 43.4% were married couples living together, 13.9% had a female householder with no husband present, and 37.4% were non-families. One person households account for 30.5% of all households and 8.7% of all households had someone living alone who is 65 years of age or older. The average household size was 2.47 and the average family size was 3.11.
What was Oklahoma cities median age in 2000?
56df58d38bc80c19004e4ae9
34
209
False
Which gender was prominent in that time?
56df58d38bc80c19004e4aea
females
233
False
In the 2000 Census Oklahoma City's age composition was 25.5% under the age of 18, 10.7% from 18 to 24, 30.8% from 25 to 44, 21.5% from 45 to 64, and 11.5% who were 65 years of age or older. The median age was 34 years. For every 100 females there were 95.6 males. For every 100 females age 18 and over, there were 92.7 males.
When did the population increases begin in Oklahoma city?
56df59a996943c1400a5d3eb
late 1990s
73
False
What was the estimated population of Oklahoma city in 2014
56df59a996943c1400a5d3ec
620,602
169
False
Oklahoma City has experienced significant population increases since the late 1990s. In May 2014, the U.S. Census announced Oklahoma City had an estimated population of 620,602 in 2014 and that it had grown 5.3 percent between April 2010 and June 2013. Since the official Census in 2000, Oklahoma City had grown 21 percent (a 114,470 raw increase) according to the Bureau estimates. The 2014 estimate of 620,602 is the largest population Oklahoma City has ever recorded. It is the first city in the state to record a population greater than 600,000 residents and the largest municipal population of the Great Plains region (OK, KS, NE, SD, ND).
What is Oklahoma's largest urbanized area?
56df5a4d8bc80c19004e4aef
Oklahoma City
0
False
What place was Oklahoma cities population ranked in the nation in 2012?
56df5a4d8bc80c19004e4af0
42nd
219
False
Oklahoma City is the principal city of the eight-county Oklahoma City Metropolitan Statistical Area in Central Oklahoma and is the state's largest urbanized area. Based on population rank, the metropolitan area was the 42nd largest in the nation as of 2012.
What cartel has been known to be in Oklahoma city?
56df5ba096943c1400a5d42f
Juárez Cartel
106
False
With regards to Mexican drug cartels, Oklahoma City has traditionally been the territory of the notorious Juárez Cartel, but the Sinaloa Cartel has been reported as trying to establish a foothold in Oklahoma City. There are many rival gangs in Oklahoma City, one whose headquarters has been established in the city, the Southside Locos, traditionally known as Sureños.
When were six employees found dead in a restaurants freezer?
56df5ca296943c1400a5d431
1978
114
False
When was Roger Dale Stafford executed?
56df5ca296943c1400a5d433
1995
780
False
Oklahoma City also has its share of very brutal crimes, particularly in the 1970s. The worst of which occurred in 1978, when six employees of a Sirloin Stockade restaurant on the city's south side were murdered execution-style in the restaurant's freezer. An intensive investigation followed, and the three individuals involved, who also killed three others in Purcell, Oklahoma, were identified. One, Harold Stafford, died in a motorcycle accident in Tulsa not long after the restaurant murders. Another, Verna Stafford, was sentenced to life without parole after being granted a new trial after she had previously been sentenced to death. Roger Dale Stafford, considered the mastermind of the murder spree, was executed by lethal injection at the Oklahoma State Penitentiary in 1995.
How many substations does Oklahoma city have?
56df5cdd96943c1400a5d438
5
182
False
The Oklahoma City Police Department, has a uniformed force of 1,169 officers and 300+ civilian employees. The Department has a central police station and five substations covering 2,500 police reporting districts that average 1/4 square mile in size.
Who detonated the bomb in 1995?
56df5da88bc80c19004e4b25
Timothy McVeigh
122
False
How many people were killed in the bombing?
56df5da88bc80c19004e4b26
168
182
False
How many people were injured in the bombing?
56df5da88bc80c19004e4b27
680
210
False
How much money was the damage worth?
56df5da88bc80c19004e4b28
$652 million
401
False
When was Timothy McVeigh Executed?
56df5da88bc80c19004e4b29
June 11, 2001
502
False
On April 19, 1995, the Alfred P. Murrah Federal Building was destroyed by a fertilizer bomb manufactured and detonated by Timothy McVeigh. The blast and catastrophic collapse killed 168 people and injured over 680. The blast shockwave destroyed or damaged 324 buildings within a 340-meter radius, destroyed or burned 86 cars, and shattered glass in 258 nearby buildings, causing at least an estimated $652 million worth of damage. The main suspect- Timothy McVeigh, was executed by lethal injection on June 11, 2001. It was the deadliest single domestic terrorist attack in US history, prior to 9/11.
How many universities are within the MSA region?
56df5e8e96943c1400a5d44d
2
111
False
What hospital is in the MSA region
56df5e8e96943c1400a5d44e
Norman Regional Hospital
197
False
How many employees work for Tinker Air Force Base?
56df5e8e96943c1400a5d44f
27,000
111
False
How many employees work for Norman Regional Hospital?
56df5e8e96943c1400a5d450
2,800
223
False
How many people work in University of Oklahoma?
56df5e8e96943c1400a5d451
11,900
144
False
While not in Oklahoma City proper, other large employers within the MSA region include: Tinker Air Force Base (27,000); University of Oklahoma (11,900); University of Central Oklahoma (2,900); and Norman Regional Hospital (2,800).
What was Oklahoma cities gross metropolitan product in 2009?
56df5f728bc80c19004e4b4a
$61.1 billion
243
False
According to the Oklahoma City Chamber of Commerce, the metropolitan area's economic output grew by 33 percent between 2001 and 2005 due chiefly to economic diversification. Its gross metropolitan product was $43.1 billion in 2005 and grew to $61.1 billion in 2009.
What year did forbes list Oklahoma city as "recession proof".
56df5fc18bc80c19004e4b4d
2008
3
False
When did Penn Square Bank go bankrupt?
56df5fc18bc80c19004e4b4e
1982
399
False
What year did the oil crash?
56df5fc18bc80c19004e4b4f
1985
422
False
In 2008, Forbes magazine named Oklahoma City the most "recession proof city in America". The magazine reported that the city had falling unemployment, one of the strongest housing markets in the country and solid growth in energy, agriculture and manufacturing. However, during the early 1980s, Oklahoma City had one of the worst job and housing markets due to the bankruptcy of Penn Square Bank in 1982 and then the post-1985 crash in oil prices.[citation needed]
When was the Wanda L Bass School of Music and auditorium opened?
56df61968bc80c19004e4b73
April 2006
312
False
Other theaters include Lyric Theatre, Jewel Box Theatre, Kirkpatrick Auditorium, the Poteet Theatre, the Oklahoma City Community College Bruce Owen Theater and the 488-seat Petree Recital Hall, at the Oklahoma City University campus. The university also opened the Wanda L Bass School of Music and auditorium in April 2006.
What was the original name of the Science Museum of Oklahoma?
56df62218bc80c19004e4b81
Kirkpatrick Science and Air Space Museum at Omniplex
38
False
When was the International Photography Hall of Fame relocated?
56df62218bc80c19004e4b82
2013
501
False
The Science Museum Oklahoma (formerly Kirkpatrick Science and Air Space Museum at Omniplex) houses exhibits on science, aviation, and an IMAX theater. The museum formerly housed the International Photography Hall of Fame (IPHF) that exhibits photographs and artifacts from a large collection of cameras and other artifacts preserving the history of photography. IPHF honors those who have made significant contributions to the art and/or science of photography and relocated to St. Louis, Missouri in 2013.
How many animal skeletons are in the museum of Osteology?
56df625f96943c1400a5d49b
300
41
False
The Museum of Osteology houses more than 300 real animal skeletons. Focusing on the form and function of the skeletal system, this 7,000 sq ft (650 m2) museum displays hundreds of skulls and skeletons from all corners of the world. Exhibits include adaptation, locomotion, classification and diversity of the vertebrate kingdom. The Museum of Osteology is the only one of its kind in America.
When did The American Indian Cultural Center and Museum begin construction?
56df62d98bc80c19004e4b88
2009
245
False
The National Cowboy & Western Heritage Museum has galleries of western art and is home to the Hall of Great Western Performers. In contrast, the city will also be home to The American Indian Cultural Center and Museum that began construction in 2009 (although completion of the facility has been held up due to insufficient funding), on the south side of Interstate 40, southeast from Bricktown.
What is the name of Oklahoma Cities memorial?
56df63bb96943c1400a5d4bd
The Oklahoma City National Memorial
0
False
What institute is located near the Oklahoma City National Memorial?
56df63bb96943c1400a5d4bf
Institute for the Prevention of Terrorism
638
False
The Oklahoma City National Memorial in the northern part of Oklahoma City's downtown was created as the inscription on its eastern gate of the Memorial reads, "to honor the victims, survivors, rescuers, and all who were changed forever on April 19, 1995"; the memorial was built on the land formerly occupied by the Alfred P. Murrah Federal Building complex prior to its 1995 bombing. The outdoor Symbolic Memorial can be visited 24 hours a day for free, and the adjacent Memorial Museum, located in the former Journal Record building damaged by the bombing, can be entered for a small fee. The site is also home to the National Memorial Institute for the Prevention of Terrorism, a non-partisan, nonprofit think tank devoted to the prevention of terrorism.
What musical instrument has it's own museum in Oklahoma City?
56df644096943c1400a5d4cd
the banjo
179
False
How much is the collection worth in the museum?
56df644096943c1400a5d4ce
$3.5 million
218
False
The American Banjo Museum located in the Bricktown Entertainment district is dedicated to preserving and promoting the music and heritage of America's native musical instrument – the banjo. With a collection valued at $3.5 million it is truly a national treasure. An interpretive exhibits tells the evolution of the banjo from its humble roots in American slavery, to bluegrass, to folk and world music.
When was the Oklahoma History Center created?
56df64b396943c1400a5d4d1
2005
204
False
Who operates the Oklahoma History Center?
56df64b396943c1400a5d4d2
Oklahoma Historical Society
232
False
Where is the Oklahoma History Center located?
56df64b396943c1400a5d4d3
northeast Oklahoma City
158
False
The Oklahoma History Center is the history museum of the state of Oklahoma. Located across the street from the governor's mansion at 800 Nazih Zuhdi Drive in northeast Oklahoma City, the museum opened in 2005 and is operated by the Oklahoma Historical Society. It preserves the history of Oklahoma from the prehistoric to the present day.
What NBA team hails from Oklahoma City?
56df66e48bc80c19004e4bdb
Thunder
88
False
Oklahoma City is home to several professional sports teams, including the Oklahoma City Thunder of the National Basketball Association. The Thunder is the city's second "permanent" major professional sports franchise after the now-defunct AFL Oklahoma Wranglers and is the third major-league team to call the city home when considering the temporary hosting of the New Orleans/Oklahoma City Hornets for the 2005–06 and 2006–07 NBA seasons.
What team is the affiliate to the Los Angeles Dodgers?
56df685b8bc80c19004e4be7
Oklahoma City Dodgers
61
False
Other professional sports clubs in Oklahoma City include the Oklahoma City Dodgers, the Triple-A affiliate of the Los Angeles Dodgers, the Oklahoma City Energy FC of the United Soccer League, and the Crusaders of Oklahoma Rugby Football Club USA Rugby.
What is the name of the downtown arena?
56df6c9e56340a1900b29b00
Chesapeake Energy Arena
0
False
Which team became the main tenant of the arena in 2008?
56df6c9e56340a1900b29b01
Oklahoma City Thunder
182
False
What is the name of the nearby minor league park?
56df6c9e56340a1900b29b02
Chickasaw Bricktown Ballpark
262
False
Chesapeake Energy Arena in downtown is the principal multipurpose arena in the city which hosts concerts, NHL exhibition games, and many of the city's pro sports teams. In 2008, the Oklahoma City Thunder became the major tenant. Located nearby in Bricktown, the Chickasaw Bricktown Ballpark is the home to the city's baseball team, the Dodgers. "The Brick", as it is locally known, is considered one of the finest minor league parks in the nation.[citation needed]
What is one annual event Oklahoma City hosts?
56df6d4856340a1900b29b10
Big 12 Baseball Tournament
40
False
Oklahoma City is the annual host of the Big 12 Baseball Tournament, the World Cup of Softball, and the annual NCAA Women's College World Series. The city has held the 2005 NCAA Men's Basketball First and Second round and hosted the Big 12 Men's and Women's Basketball Tournaments in 2007 and 2009. The major universities in the area – University of Oklahoma, Oklahoma City University, and Oklahoma State University – often schedule major basketball games and other sporting events at Chesapeake Energy Arena and Chickasaw Bricktown Ballpark, although most home games are played at their campus stadiums.
What park hosts Quarter horse racing?
56df6d8556340a1900b29b14
Remington Park
86
False
Where are equine events hosted?
56df6d8556340a1900b29b15
state fairgrounds
167
False
Other major sporting events include Thoroughbred and Quarter horse racing circuits at Remington Park and numerous horse shows and equine events that take place at the state fairgrounds each year. There are numerous golf courses and country clubs spread around the city.
What organization organizes High School football?
56df6e5156340a1900b29b2c
Oklahoma Secondary School Activities Association
139
False
The state of Oklahoma hosts a highly competitive high school football culture, with many teams in the Oklahoma City metropolitan area. The Oklahoma Secondary School Activities Association (OSSAA) organizes high school football into eight distinct classes based on the size of school enrollment. Beginning with the largest, the classes are: 6A, 5A, 4A, 3A, 2A, A, B, and C. Class 6A is broken into two divisions. Oklahoma City area schools in this division include: Edmond North, Mustang, Moore, Yukon, Edmond Memorial, Edmond Santa Fe, Norman North, Westmoore, Southmoore, Putnam City North, Norman, Putnam City, Putnam City West, U.S. Grant, Midwest City.
Who moved the Oklahoma City Thunder to Oklahoma City?
56df6ebd5ca0a614008f9a21
Clayton Bennett
138
False
What is one of the Thunders nicknames?
56df6ebd5ca0a614008f9a23
OKC
420
False
What is the Thunders mascot?
56df6ebd5ca0a614008f9a24
Bison
480
False
The Oklahoma City Thunder of the National Basketball Association (NBA) has called Oklahoma City home since the 2008–09 season, when owner Clayton Bennett relocated the franchise from Seattle, Washington. The Thunder plays home games at the Chesapeake Energy Arena in downtown Oklahoma City, known affectionately in the national media as 'the Peake' and 'Loud City'. The Thunder is known by several nicknames, including "OKC Thunder" and simply "OKC", and its mascot is Rumble the Bison.
What place were the Thunder in 2010 NBA playoffs?
56df6f3256340a1900b29b3a
8th
111
False
Who did the Thunder play in the finals of 2012?
56df6f3256340a1900b29b3b
Miami Heat
330
False
Who did the Thunder lose to in the Western Conference finals?
56df6f3256340a1900b29b3c
San Antonio Spurs
671
False
After a lackluster arrival to Oklahoma City for the 2008–09 season, the Oklahoma City Thunder secured a berth (8th) in the 2010 NBA Playoffs the next year after boasting its first 50-win season, winning two games in the first round against the Los Angeles Lakers. In 2012, Oklahoma City made it to the NBA Finals, but lost to the Miami Heat in five games. In 2013 the Thunder reached the Western Conference semifinals without All-Star guard Russell Westbrook, who was injured in their first round series against the Houston Rockets, only to lose to the Memphis Grizzlies. In 2014 Oklahoma City again reached the NBA's Western Conference Finals but eventually lost to the San Antonio Spurs in six games.
When did the Thunder start winning Northwest Division Titles?
56df6fa75ca0a614008f9a29
2009
251
False
Who is the Thunders head coach?
56df6fa75ca0a614008f9a2a
Billy Donovan
365
False
Who is the Thunders point guard?
56df6fa75ca0a614008f9a2b
Russell Westbrook
463
False
The Oklahoma City Thunder has been regarded by sports analysts as one of the elite franchises of the NBA's Western Conference and that of a media darling as the future of the league. Oklahoma City has earned Northwest Division titles every year since 2009 and has consistently improved its win record to 59-wins in 2014. The Thunder is led by first year head coach Billy Donovan and is anchored by several NBA superstars, including perennial All-Star point guard Russell Westbrook, 2014 MVP and four-time NBA scoring champion Kevin Durant, and Defensive Player of the Year nominee and shot-blocker Serge Ibaka.
Where did the Hornets play after Hurricane Katrina?
56df70755ca0a614008f9a3b
Ford Center
129
False
What team played against the Hornets in their final home game before leave Oklahoma City?
56df70755ca0a614008f9a3d
Houston Rockets
627
False
In the aftermath of Hurricane Katrina, the NBA's New Orleans Hornets (now the New Orleans Pelicans) temporarily relocated to the Ford Center, playing the majority of its home games there during the 2005–06 and 2006–07 seasons. The team became the first NBA franchise to play regular-season games in the state of Oklahoma.[citation needed] The team was known as the New Orleans/Oklahoma City Hornets while playing in Oklahoma City. The team ultimately returned to New Orleans full-time for the 2007–08 season. The Hornets played their final home game in Oklahoma City during the exhibition season on October 9, 2007 against the Houston Rockets.
Who designed the bridge?
56df720156340a1900b29b73
I. M. Pei
141
False
What is the name of the amphitheater located inside the Botanical Gardens?
56df720156340a1900b29b74
Water Stage
254
False
One of the more prominent landmarks downtown is the Crystal Bridge at the Myriad Botanical Gardens, a large downtown urban park. Designed by I. M. Pei, the Crystal Bridge is a tropical conservatory in the area. The park has an amphitheater, known as the Water Stage. In 2007, following a renovation of the stage, Oklahoma Shakespeare in the Park relocated to the Myriad Gardens. The Myriad Gardens will undergo a massive renovation in conjunction with the recently built Devon Tower directly north of it.
Which place hosts racetracks and is a casino?
56df72ab5ca0a614008f9a7a
Remington Park
648
False
Which amusement park is western themed?
56df72ab5ca0a614008f9a7b
Frontier City
235
False
The Oklahoma City Zoo and Botanical Garden is home to numerous natural habitats, WPA era architecture and landscaping, and hosts major touring concerts during the summer at its amphitheater. Oklahoma City also has two amusement parks, Frontier City theme park and White Water Bay water park. Frontier City is an 'Old West'-themed amusement park. The park also features a recreation of a western gunfight at the 'OK Corral' and many shops that line the "Western" town's main street. Frontier City also hosts a national concert circuit at its amphitheater during the summer. Oklahoma City also has a combination racetrack and casino open year-round, Remington Park, which hosts both Quarter horse (March – June) and Thoroughbred (August – December) seasons.
Which lake is the cities largest lake?
56df732356340a1900b29b96
Lake Stanley Draper
284
False
Walking trails line Lake Hefner and Lake Overholser in the northwest part of the city and downtown at the canal and the Oklahoma River. The majority of the east shore area is taken up by parks and trails, including a new leashless dog park and the postwar-era Stars and Stripes Park. Lake Stanley Draper is the city's largest and most remote lake.
What place hosts concerts and lectures?
56df76b656340a1900b29bb7
American Banjo Museum
480
False
Where is the Lycan Conservatory located?
56df76b656340a1900b29bb8
Will Rogers Park
103
False
Oklahoma City has a major park in each quadrant of the city, going back to the first parks masterplan. Will Rogers Park, Lincoln Park, Trosper Park, and Woodson Park were once connected by the Grand Boulevard loop, some sections of which no longer exist. Martin Park Nature Center is a natural habitat in far northwest Oklahoma City. Will Rogers Park is home to the Lycan Conservatory, the Rose Garden, and Butterfly Garden, all built in the WPA era. Oklahoma City is home to the American Banjo Museum, which houses a large collection of highly decorated banjos from the early 20th century and exhibits on the history of the banjo and its place in American history. Concerts and lectures are also held there.
Which BMX Champion had a park named after them in Oklahoma City?
56df771d5ca0a614008f9acd
Mat Hoffman
79
False
When was Mat Hoffman Action Sports Park considered one of the best by National Geographic Society?
56df771d5ca0a614008f9ace
March 2009
282
False
In April 2005, the Oklahoma City Skate Park at Wiley Post Park was renamed the Mat Hoffman Action Sports Park to recognize Mat Hoffman, an Oklahoma City area resident and businessman that was instrumental in the design of the skate park and is a 10-time BMX World Vert champion. In March 2009, the Mat Hoffman Action Sports Park was named by the National Geographic Society Travel Guide as one of the "Ten Best."
Who is the mayor of Oklahoma City?
56df777256340a1900b29bd8
Mick Cornett
99
False
When was Mick Cornett first elected?
56df777256340a1900b29bd9
2004
158
False
Who is the city Manager?
56df777256340a1900b29bda
Jim Couch
290
False
The City of Oklahoma City has operated under a council-manager form of city government since 1927. Mick Cornett serves as Mayor, having first been elected in 2004, and re-elected in 2006, 2010, and 2014. Eight councilpersons represent each of the eight wards of Oklahoma City. City Manager Jim Couch was appointed in late 2000. Couch previously served as assistant city manager, Metropolitan Area Projects Plan (MAPS) director and utilities director prior to his service as city manager.
What was the original name of Oklahoma City University?
56df77f456340a1900b29bde
Epworth University
99
False
When was the university founded?
56df77f456340a1900b29bdf
September 1, 1904
165
False
The city is home to several colleges and universities. Oklahoma City University, formerly known as Epworth University, was founded by the United Methodist Church on September 1, 1904 and is renowned for its performing arts, science, mass communications, business, law, and athletic programs. OCU has its main campus in the north-central section of the city, near the city's chinatown area. OCU Law is located in the Midtown district near downtown, in the old Central High School building.
Which district is OU Medicine campus located in?
56df7c4056340a1900b29c16
Oklahoma Health Center district
218
False
Which institution houses the Level-One trauma center?
56df7c4056340a1900b29c17
OU Medicine
111
False
Approximately how many people work in OU Health Sciences Center?
56df7c4056340a1900b29c18
12,000
489
False
The University of Oklahoma has several institutions of higher learning in the city and metropolitan area, with OU Medicine and the University of Oklahoma Health Sciences Center campuses located east of downtown in the Oklahoma Health Center district, and the main campus located to the south in the suburb of Norman. The OU Medicine hosting the state's only Level-One trauma center. OU Health Sciences Center is one of the nation's largest independent medical centers, employing more than 12,000 people. OU is one of only four major universities in the nation to operate six medical schools.[clarification needed]
Which university is the third-largest in the state?
56df7cd456340a1900b29c28
University of Central Oklahoma
47
False
Which private university is located near the Edmond border?
56df7cd456340a1900b29c29
Oklahoma Christian University
138
False
The third-largest university in the state, the University of Central Oklahoma, is located just north of the city in the suburb of Edmond. Oklahoma Christian University, one of the state's private liberal arts institutions, is located just south of the Edmond border, inside the Oklahoma City limits.
Which community college is the second largest in the state?
56df7d735ca0a614008f9b25
Oklahoma City Community College
0
False
Which university is located in the Furniture district?
56df7d735ca0a614008f9b26
Oklahoma State University
187
False
Where is Southern Nazarene University located?
56df7d735ca0a614008f9b27
Bethany
562
False
Who founded the Southern Nazarene University
56df7d735ca0a614008f9b28
Church of the Nazarene
502
False
Oklahoma City Community College in south Oklahoma City is the second-largest community college in the state. Rose State College is located east of Oklahoma City in suburban Midwest City. Oklahoma State University–Oklahoma City is located in the "Furniture District" on the Westside. Northeast of the city is Langston University, the state's historically black college (HBCU). Langston also has an urban campus in the eastside section of the city. Southern Nazarene University, which was founded by the Church of the Nazarene, is a university located in suburban Bethany, which is surrounded by the Oklahoma City city limits.
What institution is accredited by the North Central Association of Colleges and Schools?
56df7e2356340a1900b29c2c
Mike Monroney Aeronautical Center
49
False
Although technically not a university, the FAA's Mike Monroney Aeronautical Center has many aspects of an institution of higher learning. Its FAA Academy is accredited by the North Central Association of Colleges and Schools. Its Civil Aerospace Medical Institute (CAMI) has a medical education division responsible for aeromedical education in general as well as the education of aviation medical examiners in the U.S. and 93 other countries. In addition, The National Academy of Science offers Research Associateship Programs for fellowship and other grants for CAMI research.
What is Oklahoma's largest school district?
56df7ee45ca0a614008f9b55
Oklahoma City Public Schools
62
False
What year did KIPP Reach College Preparatory School win the National Blue Ribbon Award?
56df7ee45ca0a614008f9b57
2012
720
False
Oklahoma City is home to the state's largest school district, Oklahoma City Public Schools. The district's Classen School of Advanced Studies and Harding Charter Preparatory High School rank high among public schools nationally according to a formula that looks at the number of Advanced Placement, International Baccalaureate and/or Cambridge tests taken by the school's students divided by the number of graduating seniors. In addition, OKCPS's Belle Isle Enterprise Middle School was named the top middle school in the state according to the Academic Performance Index, and recently received the Blue Ribbon School Award, in 2004 and again in 2011. KIPP Reach College Preparatory School in Oklahoma City received the 2012 National Blue Ribbon along with its school leader, Tracy McDaniel Sr., being awarded the Terrel H. Bell Award for Outstanding Leadership.
Where is The Oklahoma School of Science and Mathematics located?
56df7f0156340a1900b29c38
Oklahoma City
137
False
The Oklahoma School of Science and Mathematics, a school for some of the state's most gifted math and science pupils, is also located in Oklahoma City.
What are the two largest technology education schools in Oklahoma City?
56df7fd756340a1900b29c56
Metro Technology Center and Francis Tuttle Technology Center
174
False
Oklahoma City has several public career and technology education schools associated with the Oklahoma Department of Career and Technology Education, the largest of which are Metro Technology Center and Francis Tuttle Technology Center.
What center is a nonprofit training center for disabled people?
56df805c56340a1900b29c62
The Dale Rogers Training Center
160
False
Private career and technology education schools in Oklahoma City include Oklahoma Technology Institute, Platt College, Vatterott College, and Heritage College. The Dale Rogers Training Center in Oklahoma City is a nonprofit vocational training center for individuals with disabilities.
Which newspaper is the most produced through the state of Oklahoma?
56df81465ca0a614008f9b9f
The Oklahoman
0
False
What is the name of The Oklahoman's website?
56df81465ca0a614008f9ba0
NewsOK.com
103
False
What is Oklahoma Cities newsweekly?
56df81465ca0a614008f9ba1
Oklahoma Gazette
150
False
What is Oklahoma Cities daily business newspaper?
56df81465ca0a614008f9ba2
The Journal Record
338
False
The Oklahoman is Oklahoma City's major daily newspaper and is the most widely circulated in the state. NewsOK.com is the Oklahoman's online presence. Oklahoma Gazette is Oklahoma City's independent newsweekly, featuring such staples as local commentary, feature stories, restaurant reviews and movie listings and music and entertainment. The Journal Record is the city's daily business newspaper and okcBIZ is a monthly publication that covers business news affecting those who live and work in Central Oklahoma.
Which side is the Black Chronicles Headquarters?
56df81b556340a1900b29c8e
Eastside
156
False
What international newspapers is in the Asia District?
56df81b556340a1900b29c8f
OK VIETIMES and Oklahoma Chinese Times
170
False
What is the name of the student newspaper?
56df81b556340a1900b29c90
The Campus
281
False
There are numerous community and international newspapers locally that cater to the city's ethnic mosaic; such as The Black Chronicle, headquartered in the Eastside, the OK VIETIMES and Oklahoma Chinese Times, located in Asia District, and various Hispanic community publications. The Campus is the student newspaper at Oklahoma City University. Gay publications include The Gayly Oklahoman.
What is the name of the lifestyle magazine?
56df820b56340a1900b29c94
Slice Magazine
40
False
What is another magazine that is published in Oklahoma City?
56df820b56340a1900b29c95
Back40
149
False
An upscale lifestyle publication called Slice Magazine is circulated throughout the metropolitan area. In addition, there is a magazine published by Back40 Design Group called The Edmond Outlook. It contains local commentary and human interest pieces direct-mailed to over 50,000 Edmond residents.
What was the third Radio Station in the US?
56df837656340a1900b29cb2
WKY Radio
97
False
When was WKY granted a federal license?
56df837656340a1900b29cb3
1921
264
False
When did E.K. Gaylord's Oklahoma Publishing Compan buy WKY Radio?
56df837656340a1900b29cb4
1928
342
False
What is the current station called?
56df837656340a1900b29cb5
KFOR-TV
828
False
Oklahoma City was home to several pioneers in radio and television broadcasting. Oklahoma City's WKY Radio was the first radio station transmitting west of the Mississippi River and the third radio station in the United States. WKY received its federal license in 1921 and has continually broadcast under the same call letters since 1922. In 1928, WKY was purchased by E.K. Gaylord's Oklahoma Publishing Company and affiliated with the NBC Red Network; in 1949, WKY-TV (channel 4) went on the air and later became the first independently owned television station in the U.S. to broadcast in color. In mid-2002, WKY radio was purchased outright by Citadel Broadcasting, who was bought out by Cumulus Broadcasting in 2011. The Gaylord family earlier sold WKY-TV in 1976, which has gone through a succession of owners (what is now KFOR-TV is currently owned by Tribune Broadcasting as of December 2013).
What rank is Oklahoma Cities television networks for Nielsen?
56df858f56340a1900b29cdc
41st
97
False
How many counties does Oklahoma Cities Networks cover?
56df858f56340a1900b29cdd
34
171
False
The major U.S. broadcast television networks have affiliates in the Oklahoma City market (ranked 41st for television by Nielsen and 48th for radio by Arbitron, covering a 34-county area serving the central, northern-central and west-central sections Oklahoma); including NBC affiliate KFOR-TV (channel 4), ABC affiliate KOCO-TV (channel 5), CBS affiliate KWTV-DT (channel 9, the flagship of locally based Griffin Communications), PBS station KETA-TV (channel 13, the flagship of the state-run OETA member network), Fox affiliate KOKH-TV (channel 25), CW affiliate KOCB (channel 34), independent station KAUT-TV (channel 43), MyNetworkTV affiliate KSBI-TV (channel 52), and Ion Television owned-and-operated station KOPX-TV (channel 62). The market is also home to several religious stations including TBN owned-and-operated station KTBO-TV (channel 14) and Norman-based Daystar owned-and-operated station KOCM (channel 46).
How many  people are paid to be employed by the Oklahoma City Fire department?
56df864b5ca0a614008f9c0f
1015
87
False
Who is currently the Chief of the department?
56df864b5ca0a614008f9c10
G. Keith Bryant
160
False
How many firestations are there?
56df864b5ca0a614008f9c11
37
395
False
How many emergency calls are made yearly?
56df864b5ca0a614008f9c12
70,000
1008
False
Oklahoma City is protected by the Oklahoma City Fire Department (OKCFD), which employs 1015 paid, professional firefighters. The current Chief of Department is G. Keith Bryant, the department is also commanded by three Deputy Chiefs, who – along with the department chief – oversee the Operational Services, Prevention Services, and Support Services bureaus. The OKCFD currently operates out of 37 fire stations, located throughout the city in six battalions. The OKCFD also operates a fire apparatus fleet of 36 engines (including 30 paramedic engines), 13 ladders, 16 brush patrol units, six water tankers, two hazardous materials units, one Technical Rescue Unit, one Air Supply Unit, six Arson Investigation Units, and one Rehabilitation Unit. Each engine is staffed with a driver, an officer, and one to two firefighters, while each ladder company is staffed with a driver, an officer, and one firefighter. Minimum staffing per shift is 213 personnel. The Oklahoma City Fire Department responds to over 70,000 emergency calls annually.
How many major highways cross through Oklahoma City?
56df86855ca0a614008f9c1d
3
126
False
Oklahoma City is an integral point on the United States Interstate Network, with three major interstate highways – Interstate 35, Interstate 40, and Interstate 44 – bisecting the city. Interstate 240 connects Interstate 40 and Interstate 44 in south Oklahoma City, while Interstate 235 spurs from Interstate 44 in north-central Oklahoma City into downtown.
What is one Major expressway that travels through Oklahoma City?
56df870c56340a1900b29cfe
Lake Hefner Parkway
49
False
Major state expressways through the city include Lake Hefner Parkway (SH-74), the Kilpatrick Turnpike, Airport Road (SH-152), and Broadway Extension (US-77) which continues from I-235 connecting Central Oklahoma City to Edmond. Lake Hefner Parkway runs through northwest Oklahoma City, while Airport Road runs through southwest Oklahoma City and leads to Will Rogers World Airport. The Kilpatrick Turnpike loops around north and west Oklahoma City.
What boulevard turns into E.K Gaylord Boulevard?
56df877c5ca0a614008f9c1f
Shields Boulevard
89
False
Oklahoma City also has several major national and state highways within its city limits. Shields Boulevard (US-77) continues from E.K. Gaylord Boulevard in downtown Oklahoma City and runs south eventually connecting to I-35 near the suburb of Moore. Northwest Expressway (Oklahoma State Highway 3) runs from North Classen Boulevard in north-central Oklahoma City to the northwestern suburbs.
Which airport is the busiest?
56df882f56340a1900b29d1d
Will Rogers World Airport
49
False
How many people travel through Will Rogers World Airport each year?
56df882f56340a1900b29d1e
3.6 million
266
False
What is the name of the largest military base in the nation?
56df882f56340a1900b29d1f
Tinker Air Force Base
299
False
Oklahoma City is served by two primary airports, Will Rogers World Airport and the much smaller Wiley Post Airport (incidentally, the two honorees died in the same plane crash in Alaska) Will Rogers World Airport is the state's busiest commercial airport, with over 3.6 million passengers annually. Tinker Air Force Base, in southeast Oklahoma City, is the largest military air depot in the nation; a major maintenance and deployment facility for the Navy and the Air Force, and the second largest military institution in the state (after Fort Sill in Lawton).
What is Oklahoma Cities transit company?
56df88ca4a1a83140091eafe
METRO Transit
0
False
What is the name of the plan that is being made to enhance the bus system?
56df88ca4a1a83140091eaff
Fixed Guideway Study
617
False
METRO Transit is the city's public transit company. The main transfer terminal is located downtown at NW 5th Street and Hudson Avenue. METRO Transit maintains limited coverage of the city's main street grid using a hub-and-spoke system from the main terminal, making many journeys impractical due to the rather small number of bus routes offered and that most trips require a transfer downtown. The city has recognized that transit as a major issue for the rapidly growing and urbanizing city and has initiated several studies in recent times to improve upon the existing bus system starting with a plan known as the Fixed Guideway Study. This study identified several potential commuter transit routes from the suburbs into downtown OKC as well as feeder-line bus and/or rail routes throughout the city.
When was MAPS 3 passed?
56df89684a1a83140091eb02
December 2009
3
False
How much will MAPS 3 cost?
56df89684a1a83140091eb03
$777 million
58
False
What year should the streetcar become operable?
56df89684a1a83140091eb04
2017
360
False
On December 2009, Oklahoma City voters passed MAPS 3, the $777 million (7-year 1-cent tax) initiative, which will include funding (appx $130M) for an estimated 5-to-6-mile (8.0 to 9.7 km) modern streetcar in downtown Oklahoma City and the establishment of a transit hub. It is believed the streetcar would begin construction in 2014 and be in operation around 2017.
What is the states oldest and largest Hospital?
56df89ec4a1a83140091eb0a
St. Anthony Hospital and Physicians Medical Center
235
False
Oklahoma City and the surrounding metropolitan area are home to a number of health care facilities and specialty hospitals. In Oklahoma City's MidTown district near downtown resides the state's oldest and largest single site hospital, St. Anthony Hospital and Physicians Medical Center.
Where is the Children's hospital located?
56df8a9638dc42170015202b
Oklahoma Health Center district
367
False
OU Medicine, an academic medical institution located on the campus of The University of Oklahoma Health Sciences Center, is home to OU Medical Center. OU Medicine operates Oklahoma's only level-one trauma center at the OU Medical Center and the state's only level-one trauma center for children at Children's Hospital at OU Medicine, both of which are located in the Oklahoma Health Center district. Other medical facilities operated by OU Medicine include OU Physicians and OU Children's Physicians, the OU College of Medicine, the Oklahoma Cancer Center and OU Medical Center Edmond, the latter being located in the northern suburb of Edmond.
Name a hospital owned by INTEGRIS Health?
56df8b2d4a1a83140091eb16
INTEGRIS Baptist Medical Center
50
False
When was INTEGRIS Baptist Medical Center part of U.S News and World Reports best Hospitals list?
56df8b2d4a1a83140091eb17
2012
435
False
INTEGRIS Health owns several hospitals, including INTEGRIS Baptist Medical Center, the INTEGRIS Cancer Institute of Oklahoma, and the INTEGRIS Southwest Medical Center. INTEGRIS Health operates hospitals, rehabilitation centers, physician clinics, mental health facilities, independent living centers and home health agencies located throughout much of Oklahoma. INTEGRIS Baptist Medical Center was named in U.S. News & World Report's 2012 list of Best Hospitals. INTEGRIS Baptist Medical Center ranks high-performing in the following categories: Cardiology and Heart Surgery; Diabetes and Endocrinology; Ear, Nose and Throat; Gastroenterology; Geriatrics; Nephrology; Orthopedics; Pulmonology and Urology.
Where is the Midwest Regional Medical Center?
56df8b7d38dc42170015202e
Midwest City
61
False
How many doctors are there per 100,000 people?
56df8b7d38dc42170015202f
347
184
False
The Midwest Regional Medical Center located in the suburb of Midwest City; other major hospitals in the city include the Oklahoma Heart Hospital and the Mercy Health Center. There are 347 physicians for every 100,000 people in the city.
What ranking was Oklahoma City in for the American College of Sports Medicine in 2010?
56df8c3638dc421700152032
last place
171
False
In the American College of Sports Medicine's annual ranking of the United States' 50 most populous metropolitan areas on the basis of community health, Oklahoma City took last place in 2010, falling five places from its 2009 rank of 45. The ACSM's report, published as part of its American Fitness Index program, cited, among other things, the poor diet of residents, low levels of physical fitness, higher incidences of obesity, diabetes, and cardiovascular disease than the national average, low access to recreational facilities like swimming pools and baseball diamonds, the paucity of parks and low investment by the city in their development, the high percentage of households below the poverty level, and the lack of state-mandated physical education curriculum as contributing factors.
Hunter-gatherer
What kind of human lives by collecting wild flora and fauna?
56df43e48bc80c19004e49c1
hunter-gatherer
2
False
What type of society relies on domestication for producing food?
56df43e48bc80c19004e49c3
agricultural
166
False
What type of plants and animals do agricultural groups harvest?
56df43e48bc80c19004e49c4
domesticated species
211
False
foraging
90
A hunter-gatherer is an animal who obtains food by what?
5acd3c4f07355d001abf39c2
True
foraging
90
Collecting wild plants and pursuing wild flowers defines what?
5acd3c4f07355d001abf39c3
True
agricultural
166
Which societies rely mainly on undomesticated species?
5acd3c4f07355d001abf39c4
True
hunter-gatherer
2
A human living in a society in which most or all food is obtained by bargaining is known as what?
5acd3c4f07355d001abf39c5
True
agricultural
166
Foraging is a technique used by humans living in which society?
5acd3c4f07355d001abf39c6
True
A hunter-gatherer is a human living in a society in which most or all food is obtained by foraging (collecting wild plants and pursuing wild animals), in contrast to agricultural societies, which rely mainly on domesticated species.
What has been humans' best adaptation in food production?
56df457b8bc80c19004e49d2
Hunting and gathering
0
False
What was the first way humans used to find food?
56df457b8bc80c19004e49d3
Hunting and gathering
0
False
What stopped the widespread use of hunting and gathering?
56df457b8bc80c19004e49d4
invention of agriculture
137
False
What are the basic types of agricultural groups?
56df457b8bc80c19004e49d5
farming or pastoralist groups
216
False
Hunting and gathering
0
What was humanity's second most successful adaptation?
5acd3d1407355d001abf39e0
True
displaced or conquered by farming
190
Following the invention of gathering, hunter-gatherers have been what?
5acd3d1407355d001abf39e1
True
pastoralist
227
Hunting and gathering were represented by which groups?
5acd3d1407355d001abf39e2
True
pastoralist
227
Which group has been displaced or conquered by farming?
5acd3d1407355d001abf39e3
True
Hunting and gathering
0
Which adaptation occupied at least 95 percent of human history?
5acd3d1407355d001abf39e4
True
Hunting and gathering was humanity's first and most successful adaptation, occupying at least 90 percent of human history. Following the invention of agriculture, hunter-gatherers have been displaced or conquered by farming or pastoralist groups in most parts of the world.
How many groups of modern hunter-gatherers are there?
56df47ad8bc80c19004e49eb
Only a few
0
False
What do modern hunter-gatherers use to produce food in addition to gathering?
56df47ad8bc80c19004e49ec
horticulture and/or keeping animals
119
False
Who uses agriculture and animal domestication to supplement their food?
56df47ad8bc80c19004e49ed
hunter-gatherers
52
False
Besides  agriculture, how do gatherers add to their food supply?
56df47ad8bc80c19004e49ee
keeping animals
139
False
In addition to domesticated animals, how do gatherers supplement their food?
56df47ad8bc80c19004e49ef
horticulture
119
False
hunter-gatherers
52
All of contemporary societies are classified as what?
5acd3de307355d001abf39fa
True
contemporary
11
Which societies replace foraging with horticulture and/or keeping animals?
5acd3de307355d001abf39fb
True
hunter-gatherers
52
Only a few ancient societies are classified as what?
5acd3de307355d001abf39fc
True
horticulture and/or keeping animals
119
All societies supplement their foraging activity with what?
5acd3de307355d001abf39fd
True
Only a few
0
How many ancient societies kept animals?
5acd3de307355d001abf39fe
True
Only a few contemporary societies are classified as hunter-gatherers, and many supplement their foraging activity with horticulture and/or keeping animals.
How did early humans locate meat without hunting ?
56df49d18bc80c19004e4a0a
scavenging
80
False
In addition to finding already dead animals, what other cause of death were their animal finds?
56df49d18bc80c19004e4a0b
natural causes
422
False
Where did hunter-gatherer peoples live?
56df49d18bc80c19004e4a0c
sparsely wooded areas
550
False
What type of area did early humans avoid?
56df49d18bc80c19004e4a0d
dense forest
644
False
the 1950s
3
Lewis Binford suggested that early humans were obtaining vegetables via scavenging in what decade?
5acd3edb07355d001abf3a1a
True
in forests and woodlands
149
Early humans in the Higher Paleolithic lived where?
5acd3edb07355d001abf3a1b
True
Paleolithic hunter-gatherers
509
Which population survived in densely wooded areas?
5acd3edb07355d001abf3a1c
True
Paleolithic hunter-gatherers
509
Which population dispersed through areas of low primary productivity?
5acd3edb07355d001abf3a1d
True
seafood, eggs, nuts, and fruits
205
Early humans in the Higher Paleolithic collected what?
5acd3edb07355d001abf3a1e
True
In the 1950s, Lewis Binford suggested that early humans were obtaining meat via scavenging, not hunting. Early humans in the Lower Paleolithic lived in forests and woodlands, which allowed them to collect seafood, eggs, nuts, and fruits besides scavenging. Rather than killing large animals for meat, according to this view, they used carcasses of such animals that had either been killed by predators or that had died of natural causes. Archaeological and genetic data suggest that the source populations of Paleolithic hunter-gatherers survived in sparsely wooded areas and dispersed through areas of high primary productivity while avoiding dense forest cover.
What is long-distance running as a food hunting-gathering technique?
56df4e1796943c1400a5d359
persistence hunting
75
False
What theory says that long-distance running drove the evolution of some human traits?
56df4e1796943c1400a5d35a
endurance running hypothesis
17
False
Who still practices persistence hunting?
56df4e1796943c1400a5d35b
some hunter-gatherer groups
124
False
Besides the endurance running hypothesis, what other theory of food collection is there?
56df4e1796943c1400a5d35c
scavenging hypothesis
322
False
What food gathering techniques could have been used by early man at the same time?
56df4e1796943c1400a5d35d
both subsistence strategies
345
False
leading to the evolution of certain human characteristics
211
Short-distance running was the driving evolutionary force for what?
5acd3fff07355d001abf3a4a
True
persistence hunting
75
What is a method practiced by all hunter-gatherer groups in modern times?
5acd3fff07355d001abf3a4b
True
hunter-gatherer
129
The scavenging hypothesis is still practiced by which groups?
5acd3fff07355d001abf3a4c
True
the endurance running hypothesis
13
What contradicts with the scavenging hypothesis?
5acd3fff07355d001abf3a4d
True
According to the endurance running hypothesis, long-distance running as in persistence hunting, a method still practiced by some hunter-gatherer groups in modern times, was likely the driving evolutionary force leading to the evolution of certain human characteristics. This hypothesis does not necessarily contradict the scavenging hypothesis: both subsistence strategies could have been in use – sequentially, alternating or even simultaneously.
When did human populations begin using hunting-gathering?
56df4feb96943c1400a5d377
1.8 million years ago
105
False
What phase of human used subsistence strategies to find food?
56df4feb96943c1400a5d378
Homo erectus
131
False
When did Homo sapiens begin using subsistence gathering?
56df4feb96943c1400a5d379
0.2 million years ago
174
False
When did hunting-gathering begin to fade from use?
56df4feb96943c1400a5d37a
10,000 years ago
298
False
What began replacing hunting-gathering at the end of the Mesolithic period?
56df4feb96943c1400a5d37b
Neolithic Revolution
382
False
Hunting and gathering
0
What remained the only mode of subsistence until the end of the Paleolithic period?
5acd421407355d001abf3ab6
True
Hunting and gathering
0
What was replaced only gradually with the spread of the Mesolithic Revolution?
5acd421407355d001abf3ab7
True
10,000
298
The Neolithic Period ended how many years ago?
5acd421407355d001abf3ab8
True
Neolithic
382
Which revolution spread rapidly?
5acd421407355d001abf3ab9
True
Hunting and gathering
0
Which subsistence strategy started with the Neolithic Revolution?
5acd421407355d001abf3aba
True
Hunting and gathering was presumably the subsistence strategy employed by human societies beginning some 1.8 million years ago, by Homo erectus, and from its appearance some 0.2 million years ago by Homo sapiens. It remained the only mode of subsistence until the end of the Mesolithic period some 10,000 years ago, and after this was replaced only gradually with the spread of the Neolithic Revolution.
During what period did hunter-gatherers begin to focus food collection on a more limited range?
56df609296943c1400a5d475
Middle to Upper Paleolithic
39
False
How many years ago did hunting-gatherers start specializing in their collection practices?
56df609296943c1400a5d476
80,000 to 70,000 years ago
80
False
What was the change in gathering?
56df609296943c1400a5d478
a smaller selection
182
False
When did the use of agriculture begin it's spread?
56df609296943c1400a5d479
12,000 years ago
667
False
80,000 to 70,000 years ago
80
The transition between the Lower and Middle Paleolithic period started when?
5acd431b07355d001abf3afa
True
the Middle to Upper Paleolithic period
35
In what period did all hunter-gatherers begin to specialize?
5acd431b07355d001abf3afb
True
the unprecedented development of nascent agricultural practices
459
The transition into the Paleolithic period is chiefly defined by what?
5acd431b07355d001abf3afc
True
12,000
667
Agriculture ended how many years ago?
5acd431b07355d001abf3afd
True
game
220
When hunter-gatherers began to specialize, they concentrated on a larger selection of what?
5acd431b07355d001abf3afe
True
Starting at the transition between the Middle to Upper Paleolithic period, some 80,000 to 70,000 years ago, some hunter-gatherers bands began to specialize, concentrating on hunting a smaller selection of (often larger) game and gathering a smaller selection of food. This specialization of work also involved creating specialized tools, like fishing nets and hooks and bone harpoons. The transition into the subsequent Neolithic period is chiefly defined by the unprecedented development of nascent agricultural practices. Agriculture originated and spread in several different areas including the Middle East, Asia, Mesoamerica, and the Andes beginning as early as 12,000 years ago.
In what kind of area did forest gardening start?
56df63058bc80c19004e4b8b
jungle-clad river banks
166
False
In what other types of areas did forest gardening show up?
56df63058bc80c19004e4b8c
foothills of monsoon regions
205
False
What kind of plant did these early gardeners seek out?
56df63058bc80c19004e4b8d
tree and vine species
333
False
What use did forest gardeners put to tree and vines to?
56df63058bc80c19004e4b8e
identified, protected and improved
360
False
What did these gardeners do about unwanted species?
56df63058bc80c19004e4b8f
eliminated
428
False
Forest gardens
113
What type of gardens originated in modern times?
5acd446b07355d001abf3b42
True
Forest gardens
113
What type of gardens were located in the dry foothills of monsoon regions?
5acd446b07355d001abf3b43
True
into the gardens
507
Inferior foreign species were selected and incorporated where?
5acd446b07355d001abf3b44
True
Forest gardening
0
What was being used as a food production system in all parts of the world?
5acd446b07355d001abf3b45
True
eliminated
428
When families were trying to ruin their immediate environment, undesirable species were what?
5acd446b07355d001abf3b46
True
Forest gardening was also being used as a food production system in various parts of the world over this period. Forest gardens originated in prehistoric times along jungle-clad river banks and in the wet foothills of monsoon regions.[citation needed] In the gradual process of families improving their immediate environment, useful tree and vine species were identified, protected and improved, whilst undesirable species were eliminated. Eventually superior foreign species were selected and incorporated into the gardens.
Where do many modern day hunter-gatherers live?
56df680f8bc80c19004e4bdd
in the developing world
211
False
In what type of climate do hunter-gatherers live?
56df680f8bc80c19004e4bde
arid regions or tropical forests
246
False
What kind of human life-style is pushing hunter-gatherers out of their environment?
56df680f8bc80c19004e4bdf
settlements of agriculturalists
382
False
What has Jared Diamond blamed the decline of gatherers on?
56df680f8bc80c19004e4be0
availability of wild foods
595
False
What type of food animal went extict by the end of the Pleistocene era?
56df680f8bc80c19004e4be1
large mammal species
700
False
hunter-gatherer
28
What groups have continually increased in numbers?
5acd454907355d001abf3b7e
True
North and South America
657
All large mammal species have gone extinct in what countries?
5acd454907355d001abf3b7f
True
gone extinct
725
Because of overpopulation, most large mammal species have what?
5acd454907355d001abf3b80
True
in the developing world
211
All hunter-gatherer groups reside where?
5acd454907355d001abf3b81
True
hunter-gatherer societies
458
Competition for land use results in which societies remaining where they are?
5acd454907355d001abf3b82
True
Many groups continued their hunter-gatherer ways of life, although their numbers have continually declined, partly as a result of pressure from growing agricultural and pastoral communities. Many of them reside in the developing world, either in arid regions or tropical forests. Areas that were formerly available to hunter-gatherers were—and continue to be—encroached upon by the settlements of agriculturalists. In the resulting competition for land use, hunter-gatherer societies either adopted these practices or moved to other areas. In addition, Jared Diamond has blamed a decline in the availability of wild foods, particularly animal resources. In North and South America, for example, most large mammal species had gone extinct by the end of the Pleistocene—according to Diamond, because of overexploitation by humans, although the overkill hypothesis he advocates is strongly contested.[by whom?]
Who expanded into the territory of hunter-gathers?
56df76b85ca0a614008f9ab9
agricultural societies
26
False
What did the increase in agricultural areas produce?
56df76b85ca0a614008f9aba
first forms of government
200
False
What were the Fertile Crescent and Ancient India ?
56df76b85ca0a614008f9abb
agricultural centers
229
False
What type of expansion was it in places like the Fertile Crescent?
56df76b85ca0a614008f9abc
agriculture-driven
141
False
Why did agricultural societies push into hunter-gatherer areas?
56df76b85ca0a614008f9abd
agricultural societies increased
26
False
Fertile Crescent, Ancient India, Ancient China, Olmec, Sub-Saharan Africa and Norte Chico
263
What were some of the second forms of government in agricultural centers?
5acd4d5207355d001abf3c7a
True
they expanded into lands traditionally used by hunter-gatherers
60
As the number and size of agricultural societies decreased, what happened?
5acd4d5207355d001abf3c7b
True
the development of the first forms of government in agricultural centers
177
The process of fores-driven expansion led to what?
5acd4d5207355d001abf3c7c
True
the Fertile Crescent, Ancient India, Ancient China, Olmec, Sub-Saharan Africa and Norte Chico
259
The lands traditionally used by hunter-gatherers were overtaken by what forms of government?
5acd4d5207355d001abf3c7d
True
the first forms of government in agricultural centers
196
What type of development led to agricultural expansion?
5acd4d5207355d001abf3c7e
True
As the number and size of agricultural societies increased, they expanded into lands traditionally used by hunter-gatherers. This process of agriculture-driven expansion led to the development of the first forms of government in agricultural centers, such as the Fertile Crescent, Ancient India, Ancient China, Olmec, Sub-Saharan Africa and Norte Chico.
What type of areas do modern hunter-gathers live in?
56df8cfc4a1a83140091eb2e
unsuitable for agricultural use
139
False
How many modern hunter-gatherer cultures are there?
56df8cfc4a1a83140091eb2f
few
75
False
What do people basically rely on now?
56df8cfc4a1a83140091eb30
agriculture
58
False
Who lives in areas not usable for agriculture?
56df8cfc4a1a83140091eb31
hunter-gatherer cultures
92
False
What kind of food production is worldwide now?
56df8cfc4a1a83140091eb32
reliance upon agriculture
44
False
in areas unsuitable for agricultural use
130
The many contemporary hunter-gatherer cultures usually live where?
5acd4e5007355d001abf3ca2
True
agriculture
58
Humans almost never rely on what?
5acd4e5007355d001abf3ca3
True
hunter-gatherer
92
What cultures live in areas suitable for agricultural use?
5acd4e5007355d001abf3ca4
True
in areas unsuitable for agricultural use
130
Ancient hunter-gatherer cultures lived where?
5acd4e5007355d001abf3ca5
True
few contemporary hunter-gatherer cultures
75
How many cultures rely on agriculture?
5acd4e5007355d001abf3ca6
True
As a result of the now near-universal human reliance upon agriculture, the few contemporary hunter-gatherer cultures usually live in areas unsuitable for agricultural use.
What is the lifestyle of hunter-gatherers?
56df8e9338dc421700152048
nomadic or semi-nomadic
26
False
What is the permanence of hunter-gatherer settlements?
56df8e9338dc421700152049
temporary
62
False
What kind of building materials do they use?
56df8e9338dc42170015204a
impermanent
139
False
What kind of natural structure do hunter-gatherers use?
56df8e9338dc42170015204b
rock shelters
195
False
What is the movement ability of hunter-gathers?
56df8e9338dc42170015204c
Mobile communities
85
False
temporary
62
Few hunter-gatherers live in what kind of settlements?
5acd4efe07355d001abf3cb6
True
shelters using impermanent building materials
124
Permanent communities typically construct what?
5acd4efe07355d001abf3cb7
True
Mobile
85
What communities use natural wood shelters?
5acd4efe07355d001abf3cb8
True
Mobile
85
Which communities construct shelters using permanent building materials?
5acd4efe07355d001abf3cb9
True
hunter-gatherers
5
Which communities do not live a nomadic or semi-nomadic life?
5acd4efe07355d001abf3cba
True
Most hunter-gatherers are nomadic or semi-nomadic and live in temporary settlements. Mobile communities typically construct shelters using impermanent building materials, or they may use natural rock shelters, where they are available.
What kind of area allowed a more permanent settlement?
56df907838dc42170015205a
rich environments
116
False
What is the life style of the indigenous people of the Pacific Northwest?
56df907838dc42170015205b
hunter-gatherer
5
False
What does a lush environment allow hunter-gatherers to be?
56df907838dc42170015205c
sedentary or semi-sedentary
158
False
What kind of environment is the Pacific Northwest?
56df907838dc42170015205d
rich environments
116
False
What are the indigenous peoples of the Pacific Northwest?
56df907838dc42170015205e
hunter-gatherer cultures
5
False
the indigenous peoples of the Pacific Northwest Coast
39
What cultures live in barren environments?
5acd4fef07355d001abf3cd2
True
the Pacific Northwest Coast
65
Which people lived in environments that allowed them to be nomadic?
5acd4fef07355d001abf3cd3
True
particularly rich environments
103
What kind of environment allowed for a nomadic existence?
5acd4fef07355d001abf3cd4
True
particularly rich environments
103
The peoples of the Pacific West Coast lived in what kind of environment?
5acd4fef07355d001abf3cd5
True
sedentary or semi-sedentary
158
The peoples of the Pacific East Coast lived what kind of lifestyle?
5acd4fef07355d001abf3cd6
True
Some hunter-gatherer cultures, such as the indigenous peoples of the Pacific Northwest Coast, lived in particularly rich environments that allowed them to be sedentary or semi-sedentary.
What is the social style of hunter-gather societies?
56df92d24a1a83140091eb58
egalitarian
33
False
Where do people who are an exception to egalitarianism live?
56df92d24a1a83140091eb5a
Northwest Coast of North America
128
False
what group of hunter-gatherers are nearly all egalitarian?
56df92d24a1a83140091eb5b
African
204
False
egalitarian social ethos
33
Nomadic hunter-gatherers are an exception to what rule?
5acd50b607355d001abf3ce6
True
settled
68
Those inhabiting the Northeast Coast of North America are what kind of of hunter-gatherers?
5acd50b607355d001abf3ce7
True
egalitarian
233
Very few African hunter-gatherers are what?
5acd50b607355d001abf3ce8
True
as influential and powerful as men
265
In American culture, women are roughly what?
5acd50b607355d001abf3ce9
True
African
204
Women are not at all influential and powerful in what culture?
5acd50b607355d001abf3cea
True
Hunter-gatherers tend to have an egalitarian social ethos, although settled hunter-gatherers (for example, those inhabiting the Northwest Coast of North America) are an exception to this rule. Nearly all African hunter-gatherers are egalitarian, with women roughly as influential and powerful as men.
How is it interesting to view hunter-gatherers' egalitarianism?
56df9c2a38dc4217001520da
in an evolutionary context
102
False
What do chimpanzees act like as pertains to being egalitarianism?
56df9c2a38dc4217001520db
anything but egalitarian
196
False
How do chimpanzees arrange themselves in a group setting?
56df9c2a38dc4217001520dc
into hierarchies
241
False
What is the dominate one in a chimpanzee group?
56df9c2a38dc4217001520dd
alpha male
289
False
chimpanzees
179
Humanity's closest primate relatives are the what?
5acd518d07355d001abf3d16
True
egalitarian
209
Chimpanzees are similar to humans because they are what?
5acd518d07355d001abf3d17
True
hierarchies
246
The formation of what was a key factor in the emergence of human consciousness?
5acd518d07355d001abf3d18
True
total
67
The egalitarianism typical of human hunters and gatherers is always what?
5acd518d07355d001abf3d19
True
chimpanzees
179
What species is often dominated by an alpha female?
5acd518d07355d001abf3d1a
True
The egalitarianism typical of human hunters and gatherers is never total, but is striking when viewed in an evolutionary context. One of humanity's two closest primate relatives, chimpanzees, are anything but egalitarian, forming themselves into hierarchies that are often dominated by an alpha male. So great is the contrast with human hunter-gatherers that it is widely argued by palaeoanthropologists that resistance to being dominated was a key factor driving the evolutionary emergence of human consciousness, language, kinship and social organization.
What permanent group representative do hunter-gatherers not have?
56df9e1338dc4217001520ec
permanent leaders
58
False
Initiative within the group depends upon what factor?
56df9e1338dc4217001520ed
task being performed
150
False
What group arrangement is usual in family authority?
56df9e1338dc4217001520ef
matrilocal
454
False
What is the kinship and decent system among hunter-gatherers?
56df9e1338dc4217001520f0
matrilineal
763
False
hunter/gatherers
30
Which group has permanent leaders?
5acd52a407355d001abf3d3a
True
Anthropologists
0
Who maintains that hunter/gatherers have permanent leaders?
5acd52a407355d001abf3d3b
True
hunter-gatherer societies
219
Where is there often sexual disparity?
5acd52a407355d001abf3d3c
True
their own mothers
533
Young mothers get no child support from whom?
5acd52a407355d001abf3d3d
True
kinship and descent among human hunter-gatherers
612
Which systems were relatively inflexible?
5acd52a407355d001abf3d3e
True
Anthropologists maintain that hunter/gatherers don't have permanent leaders; instead, the person taking the initiative at any one time depends on the task being performed. In addition to social and economic equality in hunter-gatherer societies, there is often, though not always, sexual parity as well. Hunter-gatherers are often grouped together based on kinship and band (or tribe) membership. Postmarital residence among hunter-gatherers tends to be matrilocal, at least initially. Young mothers can enjoy childcare support from their own mothers, who continue living nearby in the same camp. The systems of kinship and descent among human hunter-gatherers were relatively flexible, although there is evidence that early human kinship in general tended to be matrilineal.
What value system do Western scholars tend to use in analyzing societies?
56dfa04b38dc421700152126
Western values
137
False
Who does most of the gathering in a hunter-gatherer society?
56dfa04b38dc421700152127
women
231
False
What group members are the big game hunters?
56dfa04b38dc421700152128
men
115
False
What does the argument over women as gathers said to produce ?
56dfa04b38dc421700152129
arrangement oppresses women
340
False
How is childcare viewed in a hunter-gatherer society?
56dfa04b38dc42170015212a
childcare is collective
514
False
the sexual division of labor
930
What gave the Neanderthals the edge over Homo sapiens?
5acd541e07355d001abf3d62
True
social and sexual
90
It is easy to view what arrangements in the light of Eastern values?
5acd541e07355d001abf3d63
True
labour
218
One rare arrangement is the sexual division of what?
5acd541e07355d001abf3d64
True
hunter-gatherer
74
Every baby had one mother and one male carer in what society?
5acd541e07355d001abf3d65
True
the fundamental organisational innovation that gave Homo sapiens the edge over the Neanderthals
963
Ancient archaeological research suggests that the sexual division of labor was what?
5acd541e07355d001abf3d66
True
It is easy for Western-educated scholars to fall into the trap of viewing hunter-gatherer social and sexual arrangements in the light of Western values.[editorializing] One common arrangement is the sexual division of labour, with women doing most of the gathering, while men concentrate on big game hunting. It might be imagined that this arrangement oppresses women, keeping them in the domestic sphere. However, according to some observers, hunter-gatherer women would not understand this interpretation. Since childcare is collective, with every baby having multiple mothers and male carers, the domestic sphere is not atomised or privatised but an empowering place to be.[citation needed] In all hunter-gatherer societies, women appreciate the meat brought back to camp by men. An illustrative account is Megan Biesele's study of the southern African Ju/'hoan, 'Women Like Meat'. Recent archaeological research suggests that the sexual division of labor was the fundamental organisational innovation that gave Homo sapiens the edge over the Neanderthals, allowing our ancestors to migrate from Africa and spread across the globe.
How is labor often divided in these groups?
56dfa2414a1a83140091ebde
sexual division
66
False
What percentage of Aeta women hunt?
56dfa2414a1a83140091ebe0
85%
319
False
What is the success rate of Aeta female hunters?
56dfa2414a1a83140091ebe1
31%
444
False
What is the success rate for male Aeta hunters?
56dfa2414a1a83140091ebe2
17%
475
False
the same kind of quarry as men
159
In a majority of cases, women hunt what?
5acd54e907355d001abf3d74
True
About 85%
313
Among the Aeta people of Japan, how many women hunt?
5acd54e907355d001abf3d75
True
dogs
427
The Ju'/hoansi women typically hunt in groups and with what?
5acd54e907355d001abf3d76
True
quarry
684
Among the Ju'/hoansi women of China, women help men track down what?
5acd54e907355d001abf3d77
True
lizards
761
Men in the Austrailian Martu primarily hunt small animals like what?
5acd54e907355d001abf3d78
True
To this day, most hunter-gatherers have a symbolically structured sexual division of labour. However, it is true that in a small minority of cases, women hunt the same kind of quarry as men, sometimes doing so alongside men. The best-known example are the Aeta people of the Philippines. According to one study, "About 85% of Philippine Aeta women hunt, and they hunt the same quarry as men. Aeta women hunt in groups and with dogs, and have a 31% success rate as opposed to 17% for men. Their rates are even better when they combine forces with men: mixed hunting groups have a full 41% success rate among the Aeta." Among the Ju'/hoansi people of Namibia, women help men track down quarry. Women in the Australian Martu also primarily hunt small animals like lizards to feed their children and maintain relations with other women.
At what conference did Richard Borshay speak?
56dfa4514a1a83140091ec06
Man the Hunter
13
False
When was the Man the Hunter conference?
56dfa4514a1a83140091ec07
1966
7
False
Why is there a lessening of material possessions in hunting and gathering groups?
56dfa4514a1a83140091ec08
mobility
218
False
What can decreased material possessions produce in a hunter-gatherer society?
56dfa4514a1a83140091ec09
egalitarianism
109
False
What other characteristic is variable for these groups?
56dfa4514a1a83140091ec0a
territorial boundaries
433
False
nomadic hunting and gathering societies
170
A surplus of resources can be accumulated by any member in which societies?
5acd563c07355d001abf3dac
True
"Man the Hunter"
12
Which 1966 conference did geologists Richard Borshay Lee and Irven DeVore attend?
5acd563c07355d001abf3dad
True
minimization of material possessions throughout a population
236
The sedentary life of nomadic hunting and gathering societies required what?
5acd563c07355d001abf3dae
True
one of several central characteristics of nomadic hunting and gathering societies
128
At the 1973 "Man the Hunter" conference egalitarianism was suggested as what?
5acd563c07355d001abf3daf
True
demographic composition
470
Other characteristics proposed by Lee and DeVore were stability in territorial boundaries and what?
5acd563c07355d001abf3db0
True
At the 1966 "Man the Hunter" conference, anthropologists Richard Borshay Lee and Irven DeVore suggested that egalitarianism was one of several central characteristics of nomadic hunting and gathering societies because mobility requires minimization of material possessions throughout a population. Therefore, no surplus of resources can be accumulated by any single member. Other characteristics Lee and DeVore proposed were flux in territorial boundaries as well as in demographic composition.
Who called hunter-gathers the original affluent society?
56dfa704231d4119001abc47
Marshall Sahlins
24
False
When did Ross Sackett study time and energy for hunter-gartherer groups?
56dfa704231d4119001abc49
1996
562
False
How long a day do people in other societies work?
56dfa704231d4119001abc4b
8.8 hours a day
959
False
"Notes on the Original Affluent Society"
69
What was the title of Ross Sackett's paper in which he challenged the popular view of hunter-gatherer lives?
5acd575207355d001abf3dda
True
"solitary, poor, nasty, brutish and short,"
180
In 1851, Thomas Hobbes described hunter-gatherers as what?
5acd575207355d001abf3ddb
True
typical members of industrial society
386
Data showed that hunter-gatherers enjoyed less leisure time than whom?
5acd575207355d001abf3ddc
True
hunter-gatherers
154
Which group did not typically eat well?
5acd575207355d001abf3ddd
True
1996
562
Marshall Sahlins performed analysis testing Sackett's view in what year?
5acd575207355d001abf3dde
True
At the same conference, Marshall Sahlins presented a paper entitled, "Notes on the Original Affluent Society", in which he challenged the popular view of hunter-gatherers lives as "solitary, poor, nasty, brutish and short," as Thomas Hobbes had put it in 1651. According to Sahlins, ethnographic data indicated that hunter-gatherers worked far fewer hours and enjoyed more leisure than typical members of industrial society, and they still ate well. Their "affluence" came from the idea that they were satisfied with very little in the material sense. Later, in 1996, Ross Sackett performed two distinct meta-analyses to empirically test Sahlin's view. The first of these studies looked at 102 time-allocation studies, and the second one analyzed 207 energy-expenditure studies. Sackett found that adults in foraging and horticultural societies work, on average, about 6.5 hours a day, where as people in agricultural and industrial societies work on average 8.8 hours a day.
What other characteristic of group behavior is needed in a hunter-gatherer society?
56dface3231d4119001abc66
sharing
20
False
What is the basis of a hunting an gathering economy?
56dface3231d4119001abc68
gift economy
201
False
hunter-gatherer
115
Hoarding of resources are important in what societies?
5acd580307355d001abf3e00
True
hunter-gatherer
115
What societies can be described as a "hoarding economy"?
5acd580307355d001abf3e01
True
Mutual exchange and sharing of resources
0
What is important in the numerical systems of hunter-gatherer societies?
5acd580307355d001abf3e02
True
hunter-gatherer
115
Not exchanging resources is important in which societies?
5acd580307355d001abf3e03
True
hunter-gatherer
115
Which societies can be described as a "mutual economy"?
5acd580307355d001abf3e04
True
Mutual exchange and sharing of resources (i.e., meat gained from hunting) are important in the economic systems of hunter-gatherer societies. Therefore, these societies can be described as based on a "gift economy."
What is the only important factor in hunter-gatherer tool choices?
56dfb034231d4119001abc79
temperature
267
False
What does climate produce in hunter-gatherer societies?
56dfb034231d4119001abc7a
variability
47
False
What is the threat that extreme temperature causes in environment?
56dfb034231d4119001abc7b
significant
35
False
What does temperature impact on tool kits?
56dfb034231d4119001abc7c
increased variability of tools
551
False
What is Torrence's 1989 theory about that ties into tool kit variability ?
56dfb034231d4119001abc7d
risk of failure
635
False
temperature
267
What was found to be one of the many significant factors affecting hunter-gatherer tool kits?
5acd591207355d001abf3e1e
True
hunter-gatherer
497
Environments with stable temperatures posed a risk to which systems?
5acd591207355d001abf3e1f
True
hunter-gatherer
719
Risk of success is the most important factor in determining the structure of whose toolkits?
5acd591207355d001abf3e20
True
Hunter-gatherer
0
Payment structure affected the variability of which societies?
5acd591207355d001abf3e21
True
2005
255
Torrence found temperature to be a significant factor for toolkits in what year?
5acd591207355d001abf3e22
True
Hunter-gatherer societies manifest significant variability, depending on climate zone/life zone, available technology and societal structure. Archaeologists examine hunter-gatherer tool kits to measure variability across different groups. Collard et al. (2005) found temperature to be the only statistically significant factor to impact hunter-gatherer tool kits. Using temperature as a proxy for risk, Collard et al.'s results suggest that environments with extreme temperatures pose a threat to hunter-gatherer systems significant enough to warrant increased variability of tools. These results support Torrence's (1989) theory that risk of failure is indeed the most important factor in determining the structure of hunter-gatherer toolkits.
What  does the immediate return system mean?
56dfb59a231d4119001abcac
egalitarian
144
False
To what kind of group does the delayed return system belong?
56dfb59a231d4119001abcad
nonegalitarian
181
False
Which group eats their acquired food in a day or two?
56dfb59a231d4119001abcae
immediate return
105
False
by their return systems
44
What is the only way to divide hunter-gatherer groups?
5acd5a3607355d001abf3e62
True
within a day or two after they procure it
242
Temporary return foragers consume their food when?
5acd5a3607355d001abf3e63
True
egalitarian
144
Kelly uses the the category "immediate return" hunter-gatherers for what?
5acd5a3607355d001abf3e64
True
nonegalitarian
181
Kelly uses the the category "delayed return" hunter-gatherers for what?
5acd5a3607355d001abf3e65
True
Delayed return
285
What type of forager stores their food within a day or two after they procure it?
5acd5a3607355d001abf3e66
True
One way to divide hunter-gatherer groups is by their return systems. James Woodburn uses the categories "immediate return" hunter-gatherers for egalitarian and "delayed return" for nonegalitarian. Immediate return foragers consume their food within a day or two after they procure it. Delayed return foragers store the surplus food (Kelly, 31).
How do modern hunters and gathers differ from early ones?
56dfb76d231d4119001abcde
contact with modern civilization
254
False
What type of conditions are not present in modern societies?
56dfb76d231d4119001abcdf
pristine
309
False
Where do you find groups that represent pristine conditions?
56dfb76d231d4119001abce0
in uncontacted peoples
336
False
What do modern hunter-gatherers not reflect?
56dfb76d231d4119001abce1
Paleolithic societies
173
False
the Paleolithic
70
Hunting-gathering was the uncommon human mode of subsistence throughout what?
5acd5b4007355d001abf3ea2
True
"pristine" conditions found in uncontacted peoples
308
Hunter-gatherer cultures today represent what?
5acd5b4007355d001abf3ea3
True
Paleolithic societies
173
Observation of ancient hunters and gatherers does not necessarily reflect what?
5acd5b4007355d001abf3ea4
True
modern civilization
267
Hunter-gatherer cultures examined today have almost no contact with who?
5acd5b4007355d001abf3ea5
True
hunter-gatherer
200
What cultures represent "pristine" conditions found in uncontacted peoples?
5acd5b4007355d001abf3ea6
True
Hunting-gathering was the common human mode of subsistence throughout the Paleolithic, but the observation of current-day hunters and gatherers does not necessarily reflect Paleolithic societies; the hunter-gatherer cultures examined today have had much contact with modern civilization and do not represent "pristine" conditions found in uncontacted peoples.
What is hunting and gathering argued to be?
56dfba0f231d4119001abd1f
adaptive strategy
155
False
What situation can cause food stresses that make hunting-gathering necessary?
56dfba0f231d4119001abd20
environmental change
223
False
What change from hunting and gathering to agriculture is not easy to mark?
56dfba0f231d4119001abd21
transition
4
False
Besides the use of agriculture, what other factor clouds the issue of the transition from hunting and gathering to agriculture?
56dfba0f231d4119001abd22
cultural diffusion
471
False
How long has this cultural diffusion been happening?
56dfba0f231d4119001abd23
last 10,000 years
515
False
one way
78
The transition from hunting and gathering to agriculture is always a what process?
5acd5c3d07355d001abf3ec8
True
agricultural and hunter-gatherer societies
357
It is easy to draw a clear line between what?
5acd5c3d07355d001abf3ec9
True
1960s
610
The adaptive strategy has remained unchanged since what decade?
5acd5c3d07355d001abf3eca
True
when environmental change causes extreme food stress for agriculturalists
218
When will hunting and gathering never be exploited?
5acd5c3d07355d001abf3ecb
True
10,000
520
The resulting cultural infusion has occurred in the last how many years?
5acd5c3d07355d001abf3ecc
True
The transition from hunting and gathering to agriculture is not necessarily a one way process. It has been argued that hunting and gathering represents an adaptive strategy, which may still be exploited, if necessary, when environmental change causes extreme food stress for agriculturalists. In fact, it is sometimes difficult to draw a clear line between agricultural and hunter-gatherer societies, especially since the widespread adoption of agriculture and resulting cultural diffusion that has occurred in the last 10,000 years.[citation needed] This anthropological view has remained unchanged since the 1960s.[clarification needed][citation needed]
If they're not purely hunter-gatherers, then what do they have a history of being?
56dfbcf67aa994140058e0c8
agriculturalists
292
False
What caused these one-time agriculturalists to become foragers??
56dfbcf67aa994140058e0c9
pushed into marginal areas
355
False
What kind of upset could force agriculturalists into being foragers?
56dfbcf67aa994140058e0ca
migrations
397
False
Besides economic troubles, what else could push a people into foraging?
56dfbcf67aa994140058e0cb
violent conflict
439
False
to demonstrate that contemporary groups usually identified as hunter-gatherers do not, in most cases, have a continuous history of hunting and gathering
94
In the early 1980s, a large group of anthropologists and archaeologists attempted what?
5acd5d5007355d001abf3eea
True
agriculturalists and/or pastoralists
292
In very few cases, the ancestors of hunter-gatherers were what?
5acd5d5007355d001abf3eeb
True
non-hunter-gatherers
630
There has been simple interaction between hunter-gatherers and whom?
5acd5d5007355d001abf3eec
True
millennia
655
Ho wlong has there been simple interaction between hunter-gatherers and non-hunter-gatherers?
5acd5d5007355d001abf3eed
True
early 1980s
7
A small but vocal segment of architects attempted to demonstrate their knowledge of hunter-gatherers in what decade?
5acd5d5007355d001abf3eee
True
In the early 1980s, a small but vocal segment of anthropologists and archaeologists attempted to demonstrate that contemporary groups usually identified as hunter-gatherers do not, in most cases, have a continuous history of hunting and gathering, and that in many cases their ancestors were agriculturalists and/or pastoralists[citation needed] who were pushed into marginal areas as a result of migrations, economic exploitation, and/or violent conflict (see, for example, the Kalahari Debate). The result of their effort has been the general acknowledgement that there has been complex interaction between hunter-gatherers and non-hunter-gatherers for millennia.[citation needed]
What can be learned from the study of modern hunter-gatherers?
56dfbf01231d4119001abd79
nothing meaningful
184
False
Who thinks that it is useless to study modern foragers since the real ones are gone?
56dfbf01231d4119001abd7b
theorists
12
False
What type of hunter-gatherer has disappeared ?
56dfbf01231d4119001abd7d
pure hunter-gatherer
88
False
colonial (or even agricultural) contact began
137
The "pure hunter-gatherer" appeared not long after what?
5acd5e7b07355d001abf3f42
True
studies of modern ones
258
Many meaningful things can be learned about prehistoric hunter-gatherers from what?
5acd5e7b07355d001abf3f43
True
modern ones
269
Nothing meaningful can be learned about modern hunter gatherers from the studies of what?
5acd5e7b07355d001abf3f44
True
theorists
12
Who advocates this "reviled" critique?
5acd5e7b07355d001abf3f45
True
nothing meaningful can be learned
184
What do some theorists imply about modern hunter-gatherers?
5acd5e7b07355d001abf3f46
True
Some of the theorists who advocate this "revisionist" critique imply that, because the "pure hunter-gatherer" disappeared not long after colonial (or even agricultural) contact began, nothing meaningful can be learned about prehistoric hunter-gatherers from studies of modern ones (Kelly, 24-29; see Wilmsen)
Who has rejected Wilmsen's arguments?
56dfc11d231d4119001abda5
Lee and Guenther
0
False
Whose lifestyle does Shultziner think we can learn about?
56dfc11d231d4119001abda7
prehistoric hunter-gatherers
166
False
What is it about prehistoric hunter-gatherers that impresses Shultziner?
56dfc11d231d4119001abda8
egalitarianism
279
False
Who has offered arguments that Lee and Guenther disliked?
56dfc11d231d4119001abda9
Wilmsen
68
False
Lee and Guenther
0
Wilmsen has rejected most of the arguments put forth by whom?
5acd5f6f07355d001abf3f70
True
Doron Shultziner
77
Who has argued that we can learn a lot about the lifestyles of modern hunter-gatherers?
5acd5f6f07355d001abf3f71
True
contemporary hunter-gatherers
211
Who does not have impressive levels of egalitarianism?
5acd5f6f07355d001abf3f72
True
contemporary hunter-gatherers
211
Studies of prehistoric hunter-gatherers can shed light on which group?
5acd5f6f07355d001abf3f73
True
contemporary hunter-gatherers
211
Which group does Shultziner believe we can't learn anything from?
5acd5f6f07355d001abf3f74
True
Lee and Guenther have rejected most of the arguments put forward by Wilmsen. Doron Shultziner and others have argued that we can learn a lot about the life-styles of prehistoric hunter-gatherers from studies of contemporary hunter-gatherers—especially their impressive levels of egalitarianism.
What do hunter-gathers intentionally manipulate?
56dfc2b77aa994140058e153
the landscape
45
False
How do they manage the landscape?
56dfc2b77aa994140058e154
cutting or burning undesirable plants
67
False
What technique do they use to make animal habitats?
56dfc2b77aa994140058e155
slash-and-burn
172
False
What is the manipulation of the landscape associated with?
56dfc2b77aa994140058e156
agriculture
300
False
What do modern hunter-gatherers depend on at least somewhat?
56dfc2b77aa994140058e157
domesticated food
430
False
the landscape through cutting or burning undesirable plants while encouraging desirable ones
45
Many hunter-gatherers unconsciously manipulate what?
5acd607f07355d001abf3fbc
True
domesticated
430
None of the modern hunter-gatherers depend of which kind of food sources?
5acd607f07355d001abf3fbd
True
hunter-gatherers
5
Which group uses a slash-and-burn technique to create habitats for humans?
5acd607f07355d001abf3fbe
True
hunter-gatherers
5
Which group burns desirable plants while encouraging undesirable ones?
5acd607f07355d001abf3fbf
True
some
356
Very few hunter-gatherers encourage domestication on what level?
5acd607f07355d001abf3fc0
True
Many hunter-gatherers consciously manipulate the landscape through cutting or burning undesirable plants while encouraging desirable ones, some even going to the extent of slash-and-burn to create habitat for game animals. These activities are on an entirely different scale to those associated with agriculture, but they are nevertheless domestication on some level. Today, almost all hunter-gatherers depend to some extent upon domesticated food sources either produced part-time or traded for products acquired in the wild.
What do some agriculturalists often do?
56dfc4a47aa994140058e179
hunt and gather
37
False
What do they sometimes do for entertainment?
56dfc4a47aa994140058e17a
go hunting
165
False
Why would they leave agricultural lifestyle?
56dfc4a47aa994140058e17c
to escape colonial control
398
False
Besides avoiding government controls, what other reason could they have?
56dfc4a47aa994140058e17d
agriculture became difficult
525
False
hunt and gather
37
All agriculturalists also what?
5acd616507355d001abf4008
True
leisure
191
Others in undeveloped countries go hunting, primarily for what?
5acd616507355d001abf4009
True
hunting and gathering
290
In the African rainforest, groups continue to rely on what?
5acd616507355d001abf400a
True
the Brazilian rainforest
203
Groups in what area have accepted colonial control?
5acd616507355d001abf400b
True
season
90
Hunting is usually done in the frost-free what?
5acd616507355d001abf400c
True
Some agriculturalists also regularly hunt and gather (e.g., farming during the frost-free season and hunting during the winter). Still others in developed countries go hunting, primarily for leisure. In the Brazilian rainforest, those groups that recently did, or even continue to, rely on hunting and gathering techniques seem to have adopted this lifestyle, abandoning most agriculture, as a way to escape colonial control and as a result of the introduction of European diseases reducing their populations to levels where agriculture became difficult.[citation needed][dubious – discuss]
What is the name of the Spinifex people?
56dfc69b231d4119001abde7
Pila Nguru
200
False
Where do the Pila Nguru people live?
56dfc69b231d4119001abde8
Western Australia
232
False
Who refuses contact with outsiders on Sentinel Island?
56dfc69b231d4119001abdea
Sentinelese
398
False
Where are the Sentinelese and the Andaman Islands?
56dfc69b231d4119001abdeb
Indian Ocean
440
False
Pila Nguru
200
Which group is located in Western Austria?
5acd629407355d001abf402e
True
the Pila Nguru
196
Which group is located in the Gobi Desert?
5acd629407355d001abf402f
True
the Sentinelese
394
Which group lives on the North Sands Island?
5acd629407355d001abf4030
True
the Sentinelese
394
Which group has not maintained their independent existence?
5acd629407355d001abf4031
True
in the Great Victoria Desert
265
The habitat located where has proved suitable for European agriculture?
5acd629407355d001abf4032
True
There are nevertheless a number of contemporary hunter-gatherer peoples who, after contact with other societies, continue their ways of life with very little external influence. One such group is the Pila Nguru (Spinifex people) of Western Australia, whose habitat in the Great Victoria Desert has proved unsuitable for European agriculture (and even pastoralism).[citation needed] Another are the Sentinelese of the Andaman Islands in the Indian Ocean, who live on North Sentinel Island and to date have maintained their independent existence, repelling attempts to engage with and contact them.[citation needed]
These ancient hunter-gathers followed what path in pursuit of game?
56dfc85c7aa994140058e1ad
ice-free corridors
320
False
Between what ice sheets were the corridors located?
56dfc85c7aa994140058e1ae
Laurentide and Cordilleran
366
False
What other way could they have crossed on to this continent?
56dfc85c7aa994140058e1af
primitive boats
461
False
the Bering
52
Small-game hunters crossed which Strait?
5acd642b07355d001abf4060
True
Around 18,500-15,500 years ago
186
Hunter-gatherers traveled along iced corridors how many years ago?
5acd642b07355d001abf4061
True
a land bridge
114
Big-game hunters cam from Asia into South America over what bridge?
5acd642b07355d001abf4062
True
South America
518
Using advanced boats, they also could have migrated down the Pacific to where?
5acd642b07355d001abf4063
True
47,000–14,000 years ago
161
A land bridge from Asia into South America existed how many years ago?
5acd642b07355d001abf4064
True
Evidence suggests big-game hunter gatherers crossed the Bering Strait from Asia (Eurasia) into North America over a land bridge (Beringia), that existed between 47,000–14,000 years ago. Around 18,500-15,500 years ago, these hunter-gatherers are believed to have followed herds of now-extinct Pleistocene megafauna along ice-free corridors that stretched between the Laurentide and Cordilleran ice sheets. Another route proposed is that, either on foot or using primitive boats, they migrated down the Pacific coast to South America.
Where did the North American hunter-gathers mostly live?
56dfca3c231d4119001abdfb
Great Plains
89
False
What basic trait do all hunter-gatherers share?
56dfca3c231d4119001abdfc
stone tool production
445
False
What is it about the tool styles that is remarkable?
56dfca3c231d4119001abdfd
common style
429
False
Where have early Paleo -Indian tools been found?
56dfca3c231d4119001abdfe
across the Americas
599
False
How many members did the mobile tool-making hunters often have?
56dfca3c231d4119001abdff
25 to 50 members
680
False
American hunter-gatherers
265
Which group was spread over small geographical area?
5acd64e607355d001abf408e
True
stone tool production
445
All individual groups shared a uncommon style of what?
5acd64e607355d001abf408f
True
bands
646
These tool adaptations have been utilized by highly sedentary what?
5acd64e607355d001abf4090
True
Americas
56
Hunter-gatherers would never flourish over the what?
5acd64e607355d001abf4091
True
American hunter-gatherers
265
There were very few regional variations in lifestyles among which group?
5acd64e607355d001abf4092
True
Hunter-gatherers would eventually flourish all over the Americas, primarily based in the Great Plains of the United States and Canada, with offshoots as far east as the Gaspé Peninsula on the Atlantic coast, and as far south as Chile, Monte Verde.[citation needed] American hunter-gatherers were spread over a wide geographical area, thus there were regional variations in lifestyles. However, all the individual groups shared a common style of stone tool production, making knapping styles and progress identifiable. This early Paleo-Indian period lithic reduction tool adaptations have been found across the Americas, utilized by highly mobile bands consisting of approximately 25 to 50 members of an extended family.
What kind of climate occurred in the Americas?
56dfcc01231d4119001abe05
warmer more arid
74
False
What disappeared during the Archaic period?
56dfcc01231d4119001abe06
megafauna
133
False
What became the norm for the mobile bands?
56dfcc01231d4119001abe07
regional adaptations
476
False
What did they rely less and less on?
56dfcc01231d4119001abe08
hunting and gathering
542
False
What was there a pattern of in this period?
56dfcc01231d4119001abe09
increasing regional generalization
369
False
The Archaic period
0
Which period in the Americas saw an unchanging environment?
5acd65ac07355d001abf40a8
True
The Archaic period
0
The first appearance of the megafauna happened in what period?
5acd65ac07355d001abf40a9
True
The Archaic period
0
A colder, more arid climate happened in what period?
5acd65ac07355d001abf40aa
True
still highly mobile hunter-gatherers
196
The minority of population groups at this time were what?
5acd65ac07355d001abf40ab
True
individual groups
242
Which groups started to focus on resources available to them globally?
5acd65ac07355d001abf40ac
True
The Archaic period in the Americas saw a changing environment featuring a warmer more arid climate and the disappearance of the last megafauna. The majority of population groups at this time were still highly mobile hunter-gatherers; but now individual groups started to focus on resources available to them locally, thus with the passage of time there is a pattern of increasing regional generalization like, the Southwest, Arctic, Poverty, Dalton and Plano traditions. This regional adaptations would become the norm, with reliance less on hunting and gathering, with a more mixed economy of small game, fish, seasonally wild vegetables and harvested plant foods.
United_Nations_Population_Fund
What is the current name of the United Nations Fund for Population Activities?
56df47738bc80c19004e49e1
United Nations Population Fund
4
False
UNFPA's work concerns what general area?
56df47738bc80c19004e49e2
reproductive health
338
False
One of UNFPA's goals is to make all pregnancies what?
56df47738bc80c19004e49e3
wanted
215
False
Another of UNFPA's goals is to make all childbirths what?
56df47738bc80c19004e49e4
safe
243
False
What, in addition to its work against obstetric fistula, is UNFPA campaigning against?
56df47738bc80c19004e49e5
female genital mutilation
551
False
reproductive health
338
What does UNFPA try to avoid?
5a2977c803c0e7001a3e1784
True
supplies and services
430
What does UNFPA not provide?
5a2977c803c0e7001a3e1785
True
worldwide
502
Where has UNFPA been the most unknown recently?
5a2977c803c0e7001a3e1786
True
against obstetric fistula and female genital mutilation
521
What local campaigns is UNFPA most involved with?
5a2977c803c0e7001a3e1787
True
The United Nations Population Fund (UNFPA), formerly the United Nations Fund for Population Activities, is a UN organization. The UNFPA says it "is the lead UN agency for delivering a world where every pregnancy is wanted, every childbirth is safe and every young person's potential is fulfilled."  Their work involves the improvement of reproductive health; including creation of national strategies and protocols, and providing supplies and services. The organization has recently been known for its worldwide campaign against obstetric fistula and female genital mutilation.
In how many geographic regions does UNFPA operate?
56df49648bc80c19004e4a00
four
92
False
About what fraction of UNFPA's staff do field work?
56df49648bc80c19004e4a01
three quarters
227
False
UNFPA is part of what larger U.N. group?
56df49648bc80c19004e4a02
United Nations Development Group
296
False
UNFPA groups what area in the same geographic region as the Arab States?
56df49648bc80c19004e4a03
Europe
133
False
more than 150 countries
31
How many countries do not yet support UNFPA?
5a29787703c0e7001a3e178c
True
Arab States and Europe
117
What region is UNFPA solely located in?
5a29787703c0e7001a3e178d
True
United Nations Development Group and part of its Executive Committee
296
What groups are not yet involved with UNFPA?
5a29787703c0e7001a3e178e
True
three quarters
227
What fraction of workers are located in Latin America?
5a29787703c0e7001a3e178f
True
The UNFPA supports programs in more than 150 countries, territories and areas spread across four geographic regions: Arab States and Europe, Asia and the Pacific, Latin America and the Caribbean, and sub-Saharan Africa. Around three quarters of the staff work in the field. It is a member of the United Nations Development Group and part of its Executive Committee.
When did UNFPA begin its work?
56df4ae18bc80c19004e4a1f
1969
26
False
What was UNFPA's original name?
56df4ae18bc80c19004e4a20
United Nations Fund for Population Activities
38
False
When did the organization change its name?
56df4ae18bc80c19004e4a21
1987
109
False
UNFPA was originally administered by what U.N. body?
56df4ae18bc80c19004e4a22
United Nations Development Fund
147
False
When was UNFPA moved to being under the authority of the United Nations General Assembly?
56df4ae18bc80c19004e4a23
1971
183
False
it was placed under the authority of the United Nations General Assembly
188
Why did UNFPA never change their name?
5a29799103c0e7001a3e1794
True
United Nations General Assembly
229
What authority was never involved with UNFPA?
5a29799103c0e7001a3e1795
True
1971
183
What year did the United Nations General Assembly disband?
5a29799103c0e7001a3e1796
True
Population Activities
62
What was the United Nations Fund not known for?
5a29799103c0e7001a3e1797
True
UNFPA began operations in 1969 as the United Nations Fund for Population Activities (the name was changed in 1987) under the administration of the United Nations Development Fund. In 1971 it was placed under the authority of the United Nations General Assembly.
When did the U.N. vote to adopt the Sustainable Development Goals?
56df4c618bc80c19004e4a2d
2015
13
False
How many countries adopted the Sustainable Development Goals?
56df4c618bc80c19004e4a2e
193
23
False
How many Sustainable Development Goals are there?
56df4c618bc80c19004e4a30
17
127
False
The Sustainable Development Goals are intended to change the world over what time period?
56df4c618bc80c19004e4a31
15 years
180
False
193
23
How many member states voted against Sustainable Development Goals?
5a297a7203c0e7001a3e179c
True
15
180
How many years did it take to form the goals?
5a297a7203c0e7001a3e179d
True
Sustainable Development Goals
87
What goals aimed at keeping things the same in the world?
5a297a7203c0e7001a3e179e
True
Sustainable Development Goals
87
Which goals were designed to increase poverty?
5a297a7203c0e7001a3e179f
True
environmental destruction
291
What was considered unimportant to the UN?
5a297a7203c0e7001a3e17a0
True
In September 2015, the 193 member states of the United Nations unanimously adopted the Sustainable Development Goals, a set of 17 goals aiming to transform the world over the next 15 years. These goals are designed to eliminate poverty, discrimination, abuse and preventable deaths, address environmental destruction, and usher in an era of development for all people, everywhere.
Are the Sustainable Development Goals considered ambitious or modest in scope?
56df4ef296943c1400a5d363
ambitious
38
False
The third of the goals concerns what?
56df4ef296943c1400a5d365
health
303
False
What does the fourth goal focus on improving?
56df4ef296943c1400a5d366
education
321
False
What is the topic of the fifth goal?
56df4ef296943c1400a5d367
gender equality
345
False
health
303
The third of the goals is to decrease what?
5a297af903c0e7001a3e17a6
True
education
321
What does Goal 4 desire to eradicate?
5a297af903c0e7001a3e17a7
True
gender equality
345
What topic was ignored by Goal 5?
5a297af903c0e7001a3e17a8
True
Sustainable Development Goals
4
What goals were seen as being easily solved by states alone?
5a297af903c0e7001a3e17a9
True
The Sustainable Development Goals are ambitious, and they will require enormous efforts across countries, continents, industries and disciplines - but they are achievable. UNFPA is working with governments, partners and other UN agencies to directly tackle many of these goals - in particular Goal 3 on health, Goal 4 on education and Goal 5 on gender equality - and contributes in a variety of ways to achieving many of the rest.
Who was Executive Director or Under-Secretary General from 1969 to 1987?
56df50e896943c1400a5d382
Rafael M. Salas
202
False
Dr Babatunde Osotimehin hailed from what country?
56df50e896943c1400a5d383
Nigeria
98
False
Who was Executive Director or Under-Secretary General from 2000 to 2010?
56df50e896943c1400a5d384
Thoraya Ahmed Obaid
120
False
Which doctor from Pakistan served until 2000?
56df50e896943c1400a5d385
Dr Nafis Sadik
165
False
Nigeria
98
Dr Babatunde Osotimehin has never been to what country?
5a297c8903c0e7001a3e17ae
True
Mr Rafael M. Salas
199
Who from the UN was missing during 1969-87?
5a297c8903c0e7001a3e17af
True
Dr Nafis Sadik
165
Which doctor from Pakistan served until 2010?
5a297c8903c0e7001a3e17b0
True
Thoraya Ahmed Obaid
120
What man served from Saudi Arabia?
5a297c8903c0e7001a3e17b1
True
Babatunde Osotimehin
76
What Nigerian was falsely known as being a doctor?
5a297c8903c0e7001a3e17b2
True
Executive Directors and Under-Secretaries General of the UN 2011–present Dr Babatunde Osotimehin (Nigeria) 2000–2010 Ms Thoraya Ahmed Obaid (Saudi Arabia) 1987–2000 Dr Nafis Sadik (Pakistan) 1969–87 Mr Rafael M. Salas (Philippines)
UNFPA is the largest worldwide funder of what type of programs?
56df53c48bc80c19004e4a9d
population and reproductive health programs
64
False
In how many countries does UNFPA operate?
56df53c48bc80c19004e4a9e
150
184
False
In addition to working directly with governments, with whom does UNFPA work?
56df53c48bc80c19004e4a9f
non-governmental organizations
145
False
What supports UNFPA's work?
56df53c48bc80c19004e4aa0
the international community
218
False
The Fund's programs support women, men, and who else?
56df53c48bc80c19004e4aa1
young people
292
False
UNFPA
0
What is one of the world's smallest sources of funding for population and reproductive health programs?
5a297d9803c0e7001a3e17b8
True
150
184
How many countries are not yet in support?
5a297d9803c0e7001a3e17b9
True
reproductive health
79
What programs are not focused on by UNFPA?
5a297d9803c0e7001a3e17ba
True
UNFPA
0
What fund doesn't work with governments?
5a297d9803c0e7001a3e17bb
True
UNFPA is the world's largest multilateral source of funding for population and reproductive health programs. The Fund works with governments and non-governmental organizations in over 150 countries with the support of the international community, supporting programs that help women, men and young people:
UNFPA lists elements that promote what human right?
56df55bb96943c1400a5d3cd
reproductive health
56
False
These elements concern health related to reproduction and what else?
56df55bb96943c1400a5d3cf
the reproductive system
161
False
What is the third element?
56df55bc96943c1400a5d3d1
social health
108
False
reproductive health
56
UNFPA lists elements that neglect what human right?
5a297e1403c0e7001a3e17c0
True
the reproductive system
161
These elements ignore health related to reproduction and what else?
5a297e1403c0e7001a3e17c1
True
social health
108
What element is not important to the UNFPA?
5a297e1403c0e7001a3e17c2
True
reproductive health
56
What is not seen as a right to the UNFPA?
5a297e1403c0e7001a3e17c3
True
According to UNFPA these elements promote the right of "reproductive health", that is physical, mental, and social health in matters related to reproduction and the reproductive system.
Where does The Fund work to raise awareness and provide support?
56df578c8bc80c19004e4adf
developing countries
73
False
To what does The Fund advocate that close attention be paid?
56df578c8bc80c19004e4ae0
population concerns
124
False
What two things does The Fund help developing nations formulate to support sustainable development?
56df578c8bc80c19004e4ae1
policies and strategies
184
False
Who took up leadership of The Fund in January 2011?
56df578c8bc80c19004e4ae2
Dr. Osotimehin
247
False
The Fund is represented by a Patron and who else?
56df578c8bc80c19004e4ae3
Goodwill Ambassadors
336
False
developing countries
73
Where does The Fund work to lower awareness and decrease support?
5a2980b803c0e7001a3e17c8
True
population concerns
124
To what does The Fund advocate that no attention be paid?
5a2980b803c0e7001a3e17c9
True
Dr. Osotimehin
247
Who refused to take leadership of The Fund in January 2011?
5a2980b803c0e7001a3e17ca
True
Goodwill Ambassadors
336
Who else is not represented by The Fund?
5a2980b803c0e7001a3e17cb
True
The Fund raises awareness of and supports efforts to meet these needs in developing countries, advocates close attention to population concerns, and helps developing nations formulate policies and strategies in support of sustainable development. Dr. Osotimehin assumed leadership in January 2011. The Fund is also represented by UNFPA Goodwill Ambassadors and a Patron.
UNFPA's mission is to promote the rights and health of whom?
56df5a8096943c1400a5d40f
women and young people
266
False
With whom does UNFPA work in partnership?
56df5a8096943c1400a5d410
governments
32
False
With what sort of agencies does UNFPA work?
56df5a8096943c1400a5d411
United Nations agencies
62
False
In addition to mobilizing support and resources, what does UNFPA do with its partners?
56df5a8096943c1400a5d412
raise awareness
145
False
Who does UNFPA work with in addition to government and U.N. agencies?
56df5a8096943c1400a5d413
communities, NGOs, foundations and the private sector
87
False
women and young people
266
UNFPA's mission is to deny the rights and health of whom?
5a29816f03c0e7001a3e17d0
True
governments
32
With whom does UNFPA avoid partnering with?
5a29816f03c0e7001a3e17d1
True
United Nations agencies
62
With what sort of agencies does UNFPA not work with?
5a29816f03c0e7001a3e17d2
True
awareness
151
In addition to mobilizing support and resources, what does UNFPA want to decrease?
5a29816f03c0e7001a3e17d3
True
women and young people
266
Who is hurt most by the UNFPA?
5a29816f03c0e7001a3e17d4
True
UNFPA works in partnership with governments, along with other United Nations agencies, communities, NGOs, foundations and the private sector, to raise awareness and mobilize the support and resources needed to achieve its mission to promote the rights and health of women and young people.
UNFPA has  been accused of supporting what type of abortion?
56df5ca18bc80c19004e4b1b
forced-abortions
127
False
UNFPA has been accused of supporting programs that coerce what?
56df5ca18bc80c19004e4b1c
sterilizations
157
False
What groups have made these accusations against UNFPA?
56df5ca18bc80c19004e4b1d
anti-family planning groups
34
False
Controversy regarding these accusations has caused conflict with how many presidential administrations?
56df5ca18bc80c19004e4b1e
three
287
False
anti-family planning groups
34
Who was UNFPA accurately accused by?
5a29976503c0e7001a3e17fc
True
three
287
Controversy regarding these accusations has caused harmony with how many presidential administrations?
5a29976503c0e7001a3e17fd
True
anti-family planning groups
34
What groups have dismissed these accusations against UNFPA?
5a29976503c0e7001a3e17fe
True
Ronald Reagan, George H. W. Bush and George W. Bush
331
Which administrations funded UNFPA the most?
5a29976503c0e7001a3e17ff
True
providing support for government programs which have promoted forced-abortions and coercive sterilizations
65
What claims were not controversial?
5a29976503c0e7001a3e1800
True
UNFPA has been falsely accused by anti-family planning groups of providing support for government programs which have promoted forced-abortions and coercive sterilizations. Controversies regarding these claims have resulted in a sometimes shaky relationship between the organization and three presidential administrations, that of Ronald Reagan, George H. W. Bush and George W. Bush, withholding funding from the UNFPA.
Who contributes to UNFPA?
56df5e338bc80c19004e4b33
governments and the private sector
19
False
Contributions exceeded how much in 2014?
56df5e338bc80c19004e4b34
$1 billion
80
False
How much of its funding was earmarked?
56df5e338bc80c19004e4b36
$529 million
166
False
What was the amount of funding for UNFPA's core resources?
56df5e338bc80c19004e4b37
$477 million
112
False
governments and the private sector
19
Who never contributed to UNFPA?
5a29962d03c0e7001a3e17f4
True
$1 billion
80
Contributions were lowered by how much in 2014?
5a29962d03c0e7001a3e17f5
True
$529 million
166
How much funding was not earmarked correctly?
5a29962d03c0e7001a3e17f6
True
$477 million
112
What was the amount taken away from UNFPA's core resources?
5a29962d03c0e7001a3e17f7
True
Contributions from governments and the private sector to UNFPA in 2014 exceeded $1 billion. The amount includes $477 million to the organization’s core resources and $529 million earmarked for specific programs and initiatives.
During what period did UNFPA aid Peru's reproductive health program?
56df60fc8bc80c19004e4b65
the mid-to-late '90s
60
False
Peru was found to have been coercing what?
56df60fc8bc80c19004e4b66
sterilizations
166
False
UNFPA responded to Peruvian abuses by calling for what?
56df60fc8bc80c19004e4b67
reforms and protocols
199
False
UNFPA's goal in Peru was to protect whose rights?
56df60fc8bc80c19004e4b68
women seeking assistance
246
False
After the scandal became public, what did UNFPA work to reform in Peru?
56df60fc8bc80c19004e4b69
laws and practices
416
False
UNFPA
0
Who refused aid to Peru's reproductive health program in the mid-to-late '80s?
5a29982f03c0e7001a3e1806
True
sterilizations
166
Peru was found to have been protecting against what?
5a29982f03c0e7001a3e1807
True
women seeking assistance
246
UNFPA's goal in Peru was to destroy whose rights?
5a29982f03c0e7001a3e1808
True
laws and practices
416
After the scandal became private, what did UNFPA work to reform in Peru?
5a29982f03c0e7001a3e1809
True
UNFPA provided aid to Peru's reproductive health program in the mid-to-late '90s. When it was discovered a Peruvian program had been engaged in carrying out coercive sterilizations, UNFPA called for reforms and protocols to protect the rights of women seeking assistance. UNFPA was not involved in the scandal, but continued work with the country after the abuses had become public to help end the abuses and reform laws and practices.
Which 21st century administration denied funding to UNFPA?
56df63e78bc80c19004e4b9f
the Bush Administration
24
False
During what period did the administration deny funding?
56df63e78bc80c19004e4ba0
From 2002 through 2008
0
False
Who allocates UNFPA funding in the U.S.?
56df63e78bc80c19004e4ba1
the US Congress
107
False
What in the Chinese program caused trouble for UNFPA?
56df63e78bc80c19004e4ba2
forced abortions and coercive sterilizations
220
False
What amendment did the administration believe the UNFPA funding violated?
56df63e78bc80c19004e4ba3
the Kemp-Kasten Amendment
530
False
the Bush Administration
24
Which 21st century administration increased funding to UNFPA?
5a29992203c0e7001a3e1818
True
From 2002 through 2008
0
During what period did the administration increase funding the most?
5a29992203c0e7001a3e1819
True
the US Congress
107
Who will never allocate UNFPA funding in the U.S.?
5a29992203c0e7001a3e181a
True
the Kemp-Kasten Amendment
530
What amendment did the administration believe the UNFPA funding supported?
5a29992203c0e7001a3e181b
True
that the UNFPA supported Chinese government programs which include forced abortions and coercive sterilizations
153
What claims were not refuted?
5a29992203c0e7001a3e181c
True
From 2002 through 2008, the Bush Administration denied funding to UNFPA that had already been allocated by the US Congress, partly on the refuted claims that the UNFPA supported Chinese government programs which include forced abortions and coercive sterilizations. In a letter from the Undersecretary of State for Political Affairs Nicholas Burns to Congress, the administration said it had determined that UNFPA’s support for China’s population program “facilitates (its) government’s coercive abortion program”, thus violating the Kemp-Kasten Amendment, which bans the use of United States aid to finance organizations that support or take part in managing a program of coercive abortion of sterilization.
Which country was administering forced abortions?
56df65cf8bc80c19004e4bd1
China
22
False
How many people were on the U.S. fact-finding team?
56df65cf8bc80c19004e4bd3
three
198
False
Which U.S. department investigated the allegations?
56df65cf8bc80c19004e4bd5
the State Department
320
False
China
22
Which country was administering the fewest abortions?
5a2999ba03c0e7001a3e1822
True
three
198
How many people were on the Chinese fact-finding team?
5a2999ba03c0e7001a3e1823
True
the State Department
320
Which U.S. department ignored the allegations?
5a2999ba03c0e7001a3e1824
True
UNFPA
373
Which organization had no critics?
5a2999ba03c0e7001a3e1825
True
UNFPA's connection to China's administration of forced abortions was refuted by investigations carried out by various US, UK, and UN teams sent to examine UNFPA activities in China. Specifically, a three-person U.S State Department fact-finding team was sent on a two-week tour throughout China. It wrote in a report to the State Department that it found "no evidence that UNFPA has supported or participated in the management of a program of coercive abortion or involuntary sterilization in China," as has been charged by critics.
What policies did a State Department official accuse UNFPA of helping China carry out?
56df687496943c1400a5d4e7
population control policies
139
False
What was this official's position at the time?
56df687496943c1400a5d4e8
Secretary of State
27
False
Who was the official that accused UNFPA?
56df687496943c1400a5d4e9
Colin Powell
46
False
What was UNFPA accused of contributing to the Chinese program?
56df687496943c1400a5d4ea
vehicles and computers
82
False
What papers reported on this incident?
56df687496943c1400a5d4eb
the Washington Post and the Washington Times
182
False
population control policies
139
What policies did a State Department official accuse UNFPA of not helping China carry out?
5a299a8303c0e7001a3e182a
True
Colin Powell
46
Who was the official that was part of UNFPA?
5a299a8303c0e7001a3e182b
True
vehicles and computers
82
What was UNFPA accused of taking away from the Chinese program?
5a299a8303c0e7001a3e182c
True
the Washington Post and the Washington Times
182
What papers denied to report on this incident?
5a299a8303c0e7001a3e182d
True
However, according to then-Secretary of State Colin Powell, the UNFPA contributed vehicles and computers to the Chinese to carry out their population control policies. However, both the Washington Post and the Washington Times reported that Powell simply fell in line, signing a brief written by someone else.
Which representative criticized the the State Department investigation?
56df6aee5ca0a614008f99eb
Christopher H. Smith
5
False
The representative said that inspectors had been show what sort of villages?
56df6aee5ca0a614008f99ec
Potemkin Villages
118
False
Which former director defended UNFPA?
56df6aee5ca0a614008f99ed
Dr. Nafis Sadik
220
False
Which NGO investigated the Chinese program in 2005?
56df6aee5ca0a614008f99ee
Amnesty International
374
False
What sort of techniques did the State Department conclude were still being employed by China?
56df6aee5ca0a614008f99ef
coercive techniques
467
False
Christopher H. Smith
5
Which representative helped the the State Department investigation the most?
5a299b0303c0e7001a3e1832
True
Potemkin Villages
118
The representative said that inspectors had never seen what sort of villages?
5a299b0303c0e7001a3e1833
True
Dr. Nafis Sadik
220
Which former director disliked UNFPA?
5a299b0303c0e7001a3e1834
True
coercive techniques
467
What sort of techniques did the State Department conclude were never employed by China?
5a299b0303c0e7001a3e1835
True
Amnesty International
374
Which NGO investigated the Chinese program in 2002?
5a299b0303c0e7001a3e1836
True
Rep. Christopher H. Smith (R-NJ), criticized the State Department investigation, saying the investigators were shown "Potemkin Villages" where residents had been intimidated into lying about the family-planning program. Dr. Nafis Sadik, former director of UNFPA said her agency had been pivotal in reversing China's coercive population control methods, but a 2005 report by Amnesty International and a separate report by the United States State Department found that coercive techniques were still regularly employed by the Chinese, casting doubt upon Sadik's statements.
What organization found no evidence that UNFPA had supported Chinese coercion?
56df6e4a5ca0a614008f9a17
Amnesty International
4
False
In 2001, what organization accused UNFPA of sharing office space with Chinese family planning officials?
56df6e4a5ca0a614008f9a18
Population Research Institute
122
False
In January 2006, who approved UNFPA's new country programme?
56df6e4a5ca0a614008f9a19
United Nations Members
608
False
How many members does the “Group of 77” have?
56df6e4a5ca0a614008f9a1a
130
716
False
Who, speaking for the European democracies, also defended UNFPA?
56df6e4a5ca0a614008f9a1b
the United Kingdom
981
False
Amnesty International
4
What organization found plenty of evidence that UNFPA had supported Chinese coercion?
5a299bd203c0e7001a3e184e
True
130
716
How many members does the “Group of 44” have?
5a299bd203c0e7001a3e184f
True
United Nations Members
608
In January 2006, who destroyed UNFPA's new country programme?
5a299bd203c0e7001a3e1850
True
the United Kingdom
981
Who, speaking for the European democracies, also disliked UNFPA?
5a299bd203c0e7001a3e1851
True
Population Research Institute
122
What organization was sharing office space with Chinese family planning officials in 2011?
5a299bd203c0e7001a3e1852
True
But Amnesty International found no evidence that UNFPA had supported the coercion. A 2001 study conducted by the pro-life Population Research Institute (PRI) falsely claimed that the UNFPA shared an office with the Chinese family planning officials who were carrying out forced abortions. "We located the family planning offices, and in that family planning office, we located the UNFPA office, and we confirmed from family planning officials there that there is no distinction between what the UNFPA does and what the Chinese Family Planning Office does," said Scott Weinberg, a spokesman for PRI. However, United Nations Members disagreed and approved UNFPA’s new country program me in January 2006. The more than 130 members of the “Group of 77” developing countries in the United Nations expressed support for the UNFPA programmes. In addition, speaking for European democracies -- Norway, Denmark, Sweden, Finland, the Netherlands, France, Belgium, Switzerland and Germany -- the United Kingdom stated, ”UNFPA’s activities in China, as in the rest of the world, are in strict conformity with the unanimously adopted Programme of Action of the ICPD, and play a key role in supporting our common endeavor, the promotion and protection of all human rights and fundamental freedoms.”
Which government official blocked funding to the UNFPA?
56df740d56340a1900b29ba2
President
0
False
What was the name of the official who blocked UNFPA funding?
56df740d56340a1900b29ba3
Bush
10
False
How much funding was blocked?
56df740d56340a1900b29ba4
$244 million
99
False
Which branch of government denied the UNFPA funding?
56df740d56340a1900b29ba5
the Executive Branch
163
False
How had the UNFPA funding been initially approved?
56df740d56340a1900b29ba6
Congressionally
115
False
President
0
Which government official increased funding to the UNFPA?
5a299c8103c0e7001a3e1858
True
Bush
10
What was the name of the official who increased UNFPA funding?
5a299c8103c0e7001a3e1859
True
$244 million
99
How much was funding increased by?
5a299c8103c0e7001a3e185a
True
the Bush Administration
63
Which administration increased funding to UNFPA?
5a299c8103c0e7001a3e185b
True
President Bush denied funding to the UNFPA. Over the course of the Bush Administration, a total of $244 million in Congressionally approved funding was blocked by the Executive Branch.
Which European government contributed the most to the UNFPA in 2008?
56df76205ca0a614008f9aa4
the Netherlands
252
False
Which European government contributed the least to the UNFPA in 2008?
56df76205ca0a614008f9aa5
Luxembourg
363
False
Which non-European donor was most important to the UNFPA in 2008?
56df76205ca0a614008f9aa6
Japan
470
False
In 2008, over how many countries contributed to the UNFPA?
56df76205ca0a614008f9aa7
180
515
False
Japan
470
Which non-European donor took away their donation to the UNFPA in 2008?
5a299df803c0e7001a3e1860
True
180
515
How many countries stopped supporting the UNFPA in 2008?
5a299df803c0e7001a3e1861
True
the Netherlands
252
Which European government never contributed to the UNFPA in 2008?
5a299df803c0e7001a3e1862
True
Sandbaek report
76
What report was not left behind by the US?
5a299df803c0e7001a3e1863
True
2008
128
What year did UNFPA receive funding mainly from non-European sources?
5a299df803c0e7001a3e1864
True
In response, the EU decided to fill the gap left behind by the US under the Sandbaek report. According to its Annual Report for 2008, the UNFPA received its funding mainly from European Governments: Of the total income of M845.3 M, $118 was donated by the Netherlands, $67 M by Sweden, $62 M by Norway, $54 M by Denmark, $53 M by the UK, $52 M by Spain, $19 M by Luxembourg. The European Commission donated further $36 M. The most important non-European donor State was Japan ($36 M). The number of donors exceeded 180 in one year.
What is one country in which nonprofit organizations try to make up for the loss of United States funding for the UNFPA?
56df787656340a1900b29bf8
America
3
False
What kind of organization is Friends of UNFPA?
56df787656340a1900b29bf9
nonprofit
12
False
What was Friends of UNFPA's previous name?
56df787656340a1900b29bfa
Americans for UNFPA
68
False
What type of United States funding does Friends of UNFPA try to replace?
56df787656340a1900b29bfb
federal funding
140
False
Through what sort of donations does Friends of UNFPA raise money?
56df787656340a1900b29bfc
private donations
167
False
America
3
What is one country in which nonprofit organizations try to increase the loss of funding for the UNFPA?
5a299ffe03c0e7001a3e1874
True
nonprofit
12
What kind of organization is not friends of UNFPA?
5a299ffe03c0e7001a3e1875
True
UNFPA
52
What organization is mainly funded through public donations?
5a299ffe03c0e7001a3e1876
True
America
3
What country has never been involved with UNFPA?
5a299ffe03c0e7001a3e1877
True
In America, nonprofit organizations like Friends of UNFPA (formerly Americans for UNFPA) worked to compensate for the loss of United States federal funding by raising private donations.
Which president began funding UNFPA again?
56df79fe5ca0a614008f9b07
Barack Obama
26
False
In what year did U.S. funding of UNFPA resume?
56df79fe5ca0a614008f9b08
2009
11
False
In what month did U.S. funding of UNFPA resume?
56df79fe5ca0a614008f9b09
January
3
False
The president said the U.S. would be joining how many donor nations?
56df79fe5ca0a614008f9b0a
180
264
False
The president said funding the U.N. Population Fund would help in how many countries?
56df79fe5ca0a614008f9b0b
154
441
False
Barack Obama
26
Which president never funded UNFPA again?
5a29a13c03c0e7001a3e1886
True
2009
11
In what year did U.S. funding of UNFPA end?
5a29a13c03c0e7001a3e1887
True
January
3
In what month did U.S. funding of UNFPA end?
5a29a13c03c0e7001a3e1888
True
President
16
Who said funding the U.N. Population Fund would not help 154 countries?
5a29a13c03c0e7001a3e1889
True
UNFPA
62
What program funded in 2009 does not help women?
5a29a13c03c0e7001a3e188a
True
In January 2009 President Barack Obama restored US funding to UNFPA, saying in a public statement that he would "look forward to working with Congress to restore US financial support for the UN Population Fund. By resuming funding to UNFPA, the US will be joining 180 other donor nations working collaboratively to reduce poverty, improve the health of women and children, prevent HIV/AIDS and provide family planning assistance to women in 154 countries."
Russian_Soviet_Federative_Socialist_Republic
Which ocean is along eastern Russia?
56df4a8096943c1400a5d340
the Pacific Ocean
832
False
Which union did Russia belong to after 1922?
56df4a8096943c1400a5d341
the Soviet Union
403
False
When did the RSFSR cease to be a part of the Soviet Union?
56e098707aa994140058e605
91
323
False
How many autonomous republics make up the RSFSR?
56e098707aa994140058e606
sixteen
532
False
The RSFSR contains how many oblasts?
56e098707aa994140058e607
forty
625
False
How many autonomous oblasts were part of the RSFSR?
56e098707aa994140058e608
five
562
False
How many krais were present in the RSFSR?
56e098707aa994140058e609
six
610
False
Pacific
836
Which ocean is along western Russia?
5acdf26632bba1001ae498af
True
Soviet Union
407
Which union did Russia belong to before 1922?
5acdf26632bba1001ae498b0
True
91
428
When did the RSFSR continue to be a part of the Soviet Union?
5acdf26632bba1001ae498b1
True
sixteen
532
How many dependent republics make up the RSFSR?
5acdf26632bba1001ae498b2
True
forty
625
The RSFSR rejects how many oblasts?
5acdf26632bba1001ae498b3
True
The Russian Soviet Federative Socialist Republic (Russian SFSR or RSFSR; Russian: Российская Советская Федеративная Социалистическая Республика, tr. Rossiyskaya Sovetskaya Federativnaya Sotsialisticheskaya Respublika  listen (help·info)) commonly referred to as Soviet Russia or simply as Russia, was a sovereign state in 1917–22, the largest, most populous, and most economically developed republic of the Soviet Union in 1922–91 and a sovereign part of the Soviet Union with its own legislation in 1990–91. The Republic comprised sixteen autonomous republics, five autonomous oblasts, ten autonomous okrugs, six krais, and forty oblasts. Russians formed the largest ethnic group. To the west it bordered Finland, Norway and Poland; and to the south, China, Mongolia and North Korea whilst bordering the Arctic Ocean to the north, the Pacific Ocean to the east and the Black sea and Caspian Sea to the south. Within the USSR, it bordered the Baltic republics (Lithuania, Latvia and Estonia), the Byelorussian SSR and the Ukrainian SSR to the west. To the south it bordered the Georgian, Azerbaijan and Kazakh SSRs.
Which group originally created the Soviet state?
56df4fa496943c1400a5d36d
the Bolsheviks
40
False
Who led the group which created the Soviet state?
56df4fa496943c1400a5d36e
Vladimir Lenin
24
False
Which government was overthrown during the October Revolution?
56df4fa496943c1400a5d36f
the Russian Provisional Government
140
False
How long did the new Russian Soviet state go unrecognized by other countries?
56df4fa496943c1400a5d370
five months
361
False
What name did people opposed to the Bolsheviks use for the Soviet state?
56df4fa496943c1400a5d371
Sovdepia
427
False
Who was the leader of the Bolsheviks in 1917?
56e09ac47aa994140058e62b
Vladimir Lenin
24
False
What body was overthrown by the October Revolution?
56e09ac47aa994140058e62d
Russian Provisional Government
144
False
For how long did the Soviet Union go unrecognized?
56e09ac47aa994140058e62e
five months
361
False
What derisive label was given to the USSR by the enemies of the Bolsheviks?
56e09ac47aa994140058e62f
Sovdepia
427
False
the Bolsheviks
40
Which group originally destroyed the Soviet state?
5acdf58232bba1001ae498e1
True
Vladimir Lenin
24
Who rejected the group which created the Soviet state?
5acdf58232bba1001ae498e2
True
Russian Provisional Government
144
Which government was overthrown before the October Revolution?
5acdf58232bba1001ae498e3
True
five months
361
How long did the new Russian Soviet state go recognized by other countries?
5acdf58232bba1001ae498e4
True
Sovdepia
427
What name did people opposed to the Bolsheviks reject for the Soviet state?
5acdf58232bba1001ae498e5
True
Under the leadership of Vladimir Lenin, the Bolsheviks established the Soviet state on 7 November [O.S. 25 October] 1917, immediately after the Russian Provisional Government, which governed the Russian Republic, was overthrown during the October Revolution. Initially, the state did not have an official name and wasn't recognized by neighboring countries for five months. Meanwhile, anti-Bolsheviks coined the mocking label "Sovdepia" for the nascent state of the "Soviets of Workers' and Peasants' Deputies".
When was the Soviet Union created?
56df526396943c1400a5d3ad
December 30, 1922
3
False
How many republics were in the USSR?
56df526396943c1400a5d3ae
six
82
False
What name for Russia was listed in the Soviet Constitution?
56df526396943c1400a5d3af
the Russian Soviet Federative Socialist Republic
202
False
When did the Soviet Union include the final Russian name for its republic in the Constitution?
56df526396943c1400a5d3b0
1936
294
False
In which war was Russia involved in 1700?
56df526396943c1400a5d3b1
the Great Northern War
400
False
On what date was the Soviet Union created?
56e09bed7aa994140058e643
December 30, 1922
3
False
How many republics made up the USSR by the end of 1922?
56e09bed7aa994140058e644
six
82
False
In what year was the name Russian Soviet Federative Socialist Republic adopted?
56e09bed7aa994140058e645
1936
294
False
What document renamed the country the Russian Soviet Federative Socialist Republic?
56e09bed7aa994140058e646
Soviet Constitution of 1936
271
False
In what year was the Great Northern War fought?
56e09bed7aa994140058e647
1700
426
False
December 30, 1922
3
When was the Soviet Union destroyed?
5acdf7e832bba1001ae498ff
True
six
82
How many republics weren't in the USSR?
5acdf7e832bba1001ae49900
True
Russian Soviet Federative Socialist Republic
206
What name for Russia wasn't listed in the Soviet Constitution?
5acdf7e832bba1001ae49901
True
1936
294
When did the Soviet Union disclude the final Russian name for its republic in the Constitution?
5acdf7e832bba1001ae49902
True
Great Northern War
404
In which war was Russia involved in 1710?
5acdf7e832bba1001ae49903
True
On December 30, 1922, with the creation of the Soviet Union, Russia became one of six republics within the federation of the Union of Soviet Socialist Republics. The final Soviet name for the republic, the Russian Soviet Federative Socialist Republic, was adopted in the Soviet Constitution of 1936. By that time, Soviet Russia had gained roughly the same borders of the old Tsardom of Russia before the Great Northern War of 1700.
When did the Soviet Union break up?
56df53fe96943c1400a5d3c3
December 25, 1991
3
False
Which name did Russia take after the fall of the Soviet Union?
56df53fe96943c1400a5d3c4
the Russian Federation
91
False
What is the current official name of Russia?
56df53fe96943c1400a5d3c6
the Russian Federation
91
False
When was the current name for Russia added to the Russian constitution?
56df53fe96943c1400a5d3c7
April 21, 1992
218
False
When was Russia renamed the Russian Federation?
56e09f4a231d4119001ac2d7
December 25, 1991
3
False
What event led to Russia being renamed the Russian Federation?
56e09f4a231d4119001ac2d8
the collapse of the Soviet Union
32
False
When was Russia made an official state name of the Russian Federation?
56e09f4a231d4119001ac2d9
April 21, 1992
218
False
What 1993 document confirmed Russia as an official state name of the Russian Federation?
56e09f4a231d4119001ac2da
1993 Constitution of Russia
305
False
December 25, 1991
3
When did the Soviet Empire break up?
5acdf8ec32bba1001ae49913
True
Russian Federation
95
Which name did Russia take after the rise of the Soviet Union?
5acdf8ec32bba1001ae49914
True
Russian Federation
95
What is the current unofficial name of Russia?
5acdf8ec32bba1001ae49915
True
April 21, 1992
218
When wasn't the current name for Russia added to the Russian constitution?
5acdf8ec32bba1001ae49916
True
the collapse of the Soviet Union
32
What event led to the Russian Federation being renamed Russia?
5acdf8ec32bba1001ae49917
True
On December 25, 1991, following the collapse of the Soviet Union, the republic was renamed the Russian Federation, which it remains to this day. This name and "Russia" were specified as the official state names in the April 21, 1992 amendment to the existing constitution and were retained as such in the 1993 Constitution of Russia.
Which country did the RSFSR border on the west?
56df54f18bc80c19004e4ab9
Poland
47
False
Which countries did the RSFSR border on the northwest?
56df54f18bc80c19004e4aba
Norway and Finland
67
False
Which countries did the RSFSR border on the southeast?
56df54f18bc80c19004e4abb
Democratic People's Republic of Korea, Mongolian People's Republic, and the People's Republic of China
134
False
Which Soviet countries did the RSFSR border on the south?
56df54f18bc80c19004e4abc
Azerbaijan, Georgian and Kazakh SSRs
363
False
Which Soviet countries did the RSFSR border on the west?
56df54f18bc80c19004e4abd
the Ukrainian, Belarusian, Estonian, Latvian and Lithuanian SSRs
282
False
What country borders Russia on the west?
56e09fc4231d4119001ac2df
Poland
47
False
Along with Norway, what country borders the RSFSR on the northwest?
56e09fc4231d4119001ac2e0
Finland
78
False
In the USSR, what SSR did the RSFSR border along with the Kazakh SSR?
56e09fc4231d4119001ac2e1
Georgian
375
False
Along with the Mongolian People's Republic and the People's Republic of China, what country did the RSFSR border to its southeast?
56e09fc4231d4119001ac2e2
Democratic People's Republic of Korea
134
False
Poland
47
Which country did the RSFSR conquer on the west?
5acdf98032bba1001ae4991d
True
Norway and Finland
67
Which countries did the RSFSR conquer on the northwest?
5acdf98032bba1001ae4991e
True
Democratic People's Republic of Korea, Mongolian People's Republic, and the People's Republic of China
134
Which countries did the RSFSR incorporate on the southeast?
5acdf98032bba1001ae4991f
True
Azerbaijan, Georgian and Kazakh SSRs
363
Which Russian countries did the RSFSR border on the south?
5acdf98032bba1001ae49920
True
Ukrainian, Belarusian, Estonian, Latvian and Lithuanian SSRs
286
Which Soviet countries did the RSFSR reject on the west?
5acdf98032bba1001ae49921
True
The international borders of the RSFSR touched Poland on the west; Norway and Finland on the northwest; and to its southeast were the Democratic People's Republic of Korea, Mongolian People's Republic, and the People's Republic of China. Within the Soviet Union, the RSFSR bordered the Ukrainian, Belarusian, Estonian, Latvian and Lithuanian SSRs to its west and Azerbaijan, Georgian and Kazakh SSRs to the south.
When did the Soviet regime first become powerful?
56df56bf8bc80c19004e4acb
November 7, 1917
41
False
Which government was in power before the Soviet regime?
56df56bf8bc80c19004e4acc
the Russian Provisional Government
77
False
Which revolution led to the Soviet regime's rise to power?
56df56bf8bc80c19004e4acd
the October Revolution
168
False
How long was the state of the Soviet regime unrecognized by other countries?
56df56bf8bc80c19004e4ace
five months
311
False
What was the name of the republic the Russian Provisional Goverment ruled?
56df56bf8bc80c19004e4acf
the Russian Republic
128
False
When did the Soviet government assume power?
56e0a03e231d4119001ac2e7
November 7, 1917
41
False
What event led to the assumption of power by the Soviet government?
56e0a03e231d4119001ac2e8
the October Revolution
168
False
What body governed Russia prior to the Soviet government?
56e0a03e231d4119001ac2e9
the Russian Provisional Government
77
False
In months, for how long was the new Soviet state unrecognized?
56e0a03e231d4119001ac2ea
five
311
False
November 7, 1917
41
When did the Soviet regime first lose power?
5acdfb1732bba1001ae49931
True
Russian Provisional Government
81
Which government was in power after the Soviet regime?
5acdfb1732bba1001ae49932
True
October Revolution
172
Which revolution led to the Soviet regime's fall from power?
5acdfb1732bba1001ae49933
True
five months
311
How long was the state of the Soviet regime recognized by other countries?
5acdfb1732bba1001ae49934
True
Russian Republic
132
What wasn't the name of the republic the Russian Provisional Goverment ruled?
5acdfb1732bba1001ae49935
True
The Soviet regime first came to power on November 7, 1917, immediately after the Russian Provisional Government, which governed the Russian Republic, was overthrown in the October Revolution. The state it governed, which did not have an official name, would be unrecognized by neighboring countries for another five months.
Which official name was Russia given at the start of 1918?
56df57b996943c1400a5d3d7
the Soviet Russian Republic
117
False
To which country did Russia give land during World War I?
56df57b996943c1400a5d3d9
Germany
265
False
Which treaty did Russia sign in order to give land and gain peace during World War I?
56df57b996943c1400a5d3da
the Treaty of Brest-Litovsk
164
False
What war resulted in Russia shrinking further during 1918?
56df57b996943c1400a5d3db
the Russian Civil War
449
False
What numbered meeting of the All-Russian Congress of Soviets occurred on January 25, 1918?
56e0a0c97aa994140058e65d
third
28
False
On January 25, 1918, what was the official name given to the Soviet state?
56e0a0c97aa994140058e65e
the Soviet Russian Republic
117
False
What did Russia receive in return for signing the Treaty of Brest-Litovsk?
56e0a0c97aa994140058e65f
peace in World War I
290
False
On what date was the country renamed the Russian Socialist Federative Soviet Republic?
56e0a0c97aa994140058e660
July 10, 1918
315
False
During what 1918 conflict did states secede from Russia?
56e0a0c97aa994140058e661
the Russian Civil War
449
False
Soviet Russian Republic
121
Which unofficial name was Russia given at the start of 1918?
5acdfb7c32bba1001ae4993b
True
Germany
265
To which country did Russia give land during World War II?
5acdfb7c32bba1001ae4993c
True
Treaty of Brest-Litovsk
168
Which treaty did Russia sign in order to give land and gain peace during World War II?
5acdfb7c32bba1001ae4993d
True
Russian Civil War
453
What war resulted in Russia growing further during 1918?
5acdfb7c32bba1001ae4993e
True
third
28
What numbered meeting of the All-Russian Congress of Soviets occurred on January 25, 1981?
5acdfb7c32bba1001ae4993f
True
On January 25, 1918, at the third meeting of the All-Russian Congress of Soviets, the unrecognized state was renamed the Soviet Russian Republic. On March 3, 1918, the Treaty of Brest-Litovsk was signed, giving away much of the land of the former Russian Empire to Germany, in exchange for peace in World War I. On July 10, 1918, the Russian Constitution of 1918 renamed the country the Russian Socialist Federative Soviet Republic. By 1918, during the Russian Civil War, several states within the former Russian Empire had seceded, reducing the size of the country even more.
Which oblast was broken up in 1943?
56df5ac48bc80c19004e4b07
Karachay Autonomous Oblast
9
False
Where were the Karachays sent after their oblast was broken up?
56df5ac48bc80c19004e4b08
Central Asia
102
False
Which SSR received the land of the Karachays' oblast?
56df5ac48bc80c19004e4b0a
the Georgian SSR
200
False
Who broke up the Karachays' oblast?
56df5ac48bc80c19004e4b0b
Joseph Stalin
53
False
Who eliminated the Karachay Autonomous Oblast?
56e0a24e7aa994140058e67b
Joseph Stalin
53
False
When was the Karachay Autonomous Oblast ended?
56e0a24e7aa994140058e67c
1943
3
False
To where were the Karachays exiled?
56e0a24e7aa994140058e67d
Central Asia
102
False
Why were the Karachays exiled?
56e0a24e7aa994140058e67e
alleged collaboration with the Germans
125
False
What republic was the territory of the Karachay Autonomous Oblast transferred to?
56e0a24e7aa994140058e67f
Georgian SSR
204
False
Karachay Autonomous Oblast
9
Which oblast was kept together in 1943?
5acdfd8532bba1001ae49963
True
Central Asia
102
Where were the Karachays not sent after their oblast was broken up?
5acdfd8532bba1001ae49964
True
Georgian SSR
204
Which SSR rejected the land of the Karachays' oblast?
5acdfd8532bba1001ae49965
True
Joseph Stalin
53
Who didn't break up the Karachays' oblast?
5acdfd8532bba1001ae49966
True
1943
3
When was the Karachay Autonomous Oblast not ended?
5acdfd8532bba1001ae49967
True
In 1943, Karachay Autonomous Oblast was dissolved by Joseph Stalin, when the Karachays were exiled to Central Asia for their alleged collaboration with the Germans and territory was incorporated into the Georgian SSR.
On what date was the RSFSR established?
56e098f17aa994140058e60f
November 7, 1917
29
False
What event led to the establishment of the RSFSR?
56e098f17aa994140058e610
October Revolution
47
False
In what year was the Constitution adopted?
56e098f17aa994140058e611
1918
127
False
The Treaty on the Creation of the USSR was signed in what year?
56e098f17aa994140058e612
1922
136
False
November 7, 1917
29
On what date was the RSFSR abolished?
5acdf31832bba1001ae498b9
True
October Revolution
47
What event led to the abolishment of the RSFSR?
5acdf31832bba1001ae498ba
True
1918
127
In what year was the Constitution rejected?
5acdf31832bba1001ae498bb
True
1922
136
The Treaty on the Creation of the USSR was not signed in what year?
5acdf31832bba1001ae498bc
True
1918
127
What year was the first Constitution not adopted?
5acdf31832bba1001ae498bd
True
The RSFSR was established on November 7, 1917 (October Revolution) as a sovereign state. The first Constitution was adopted in 1918. In 1922 the Russian SFSR signed the Treaty on the Creation of the USSR.
How much of the USSR's electricity was produced in the RSFSR?
56e099747aa994140058e617
two-thirds
74
False
What two countries produced more petroleum than Russia in 1961?
56e099747aa994140058e618
the United States and Saudi Arabia
259
False
How many students were in institutions of higher education in Russia in 1974?
56e099747aa994140058e619
23,941,000
410
False
How many institutions of higher education did Russia possess in 1974?
56e099747aa994140058e61a
475
315
False
In how many languages were students in institutions of higher education being educated in 1974?
56e099747aa994140058e61b
47
389
False
about two-thirds
68
How much of the USSR's electricity was delayed in the RSFSR?
5acdf3b332bba1001ae498c3
True
United States and Saudi Arabia
263
What two countries produced less petroleum than Russia in 1961?
5acdf3b332bba1001ae498c4
True
23,941,000
410
How many students were in institutions of lower education in Russia in 1974?
5acdf3b332bba1001ae498c5
True
475
315
How many institutions of high school did Russia possess in 1974?
5acdf3b332bba1001ae498c6
True
47
389
In how many languages were students in institutions of high school being educated in 1974?
5acdf3b332bba1001ae498c7
True
The economy of Russia became heavily industrialized, accounting for about two-thirds of the electricity produced in the USSR. It was, by 1961, the third largest producer of petroleum due to new discoveries in the Volga-Urals region and Siberia, trailing only the United States and Saudi Arabia. In 1974, there were 475 institutes of higher education in the republic providing education in 47 languages to some 23,941,000 students. A network of territorially-organized public-health services provided health care. After 1985, the restructuring policies of the Gorbachev administration relatively liberalised the economy, which had become stagnant since the late 1970s, with the introduction of non-state owned enterprises such as cooperatives. The effects of market policies led to the failure of many enterprises and total instability by 1990.
On what date was the Declaration of State Sovereignty adopted?
56e099da231d4119001ac2c1
June 12, 1990
3
False
Who became president on June 12, 1991?
56e099da231d4119001ac2c2
Boris Yeltsin
116
False
On what date were the Belavezha Accords signed?
56e099da231d4119001ac2c3
December 8, 1991
166
False
When did the Russian Parliament ratify the Belavezha Accords?
56e099da231d4119001ac2c4
December 12
411
False
What agreement did the Belavezha Accords supersede?
56e099da231d4119001ac2c5
1922 Treaty on the Creation of the USSR
342
False
June 12, 1990
3
On what date was the Declaration of State Sovereignty rejected?
5acdf41532bba1001ae498cd
True
Boris Yeltsin
116
Who became prime minister on June 12, 1991?
5acdf41532bba1001ae498ce
True
December 8, 1991
166
On what date were the Belavezha Accords rejected?
5acdf41532bba1001ae498cf
True
December 12
411
When did the Russian Parliament reject the Belavezha Accords?
5acdf41532bba1001ae498d0
True
1922 Treaty on the Creation of the USSR
342
What agreement did the Belavezha Accords superimpose?
5acdf41532bba1001ae498d1
True
On June 12, 1990, the Congress of People's Deputies adopted the Declaration of State Sovereignty. On June 12, 1991, Boris Yeltsin was elected the first President. On December 8, 1991, heads of Russia, Ukraine and Belarus signed the Belavezha Accords. The agreement declared dissolution of the USSR by its founder states (i.e. denunciation of 1922 Treaty on the Creation of the USSR) and established the CIS. On December 12, the agreement was ratified by the Russian Parliament, therefore Russian SFSR denounced the Treaty on the Creation of the USSR and de facto declared Russia's independence from the USSR.
What was the new name given to the RSFSR on December 25, 1991?
56e09a4e7aa994140058e621
Russian Federation
55
False
On what date was the USSR dissolved?
56e09a4e7aa994140058e622
December 26, 1991
78
False
What body was responsible for the dissolution of the USSR?
56e09a4e7aa994140058e623
Soviet of Nationalities
132
False
What house of the Supreme Soviet was not functioning as of December 26, 1991?
56e09a4e7aa994140058e624
Soviet of the Union
247
False
What was one right of the Soviet government that the government of Russia assumed?
56e09a4e7aa994140058e625
UN membership
493
False
Russian Federation
55
What was the new name given to the RSFSR on November 25, 1991
5acdf51b32bba1001ae498d7
True
December 26, 1991
78
On what date was the USSR resolved?
5acdf51b32bba1001ae498d8
True
Soviet of Nationalities
132
What body was responsible for the solution of the USSR?
5acdf51b32bba1001ae498d9
True
Soviet of the Union
247
What house of the Supreme Soviet was functioning as of December 26, 1991?
5acdf51b32bba1001ae498da
True
UN membership
493
What was one right of the Soviet government that the citizens of Russia assumed?
5acdf51b32bba1001ae498db
True
On December 25, 1991, the Russian SFSR was renamed the Russian Federation. On December 26, 1991, the USSR was self-dissolved by the Soviet of Nationalities, which by that time was the only functioning house of the Supreme Soviet (the other house, Soviet of the Union, had already lost the quorum after recall of its members by the union republics). After dissolution of the USSR, Russia declared that it assumed the rights and obligations of the dissolved central Soviet government, including UN membership.
On what date was the state named the Soviet Russian Republic?
56e09b2a7aa994140058e635
January 25, 1918
3
False
What body renamed the state the Soviet Russian Republic?
56e09b2a7aa994140058e636
All-Russian Congress of Soviets
45
False
When was the Treaty of Brest-Litovsk signed?
56e09b2a7aa994140058e637
March 3, 1918
179
False
The Treaty of Brest-Litovsk ceded land to what state?
56e09b2a7aa994140058e638
Germany
255
False
What document renamed the state the Russian Socialist Federative Soviet Republic?
56e09b2a7aa994140058e639
Russian Constitution of 1918
339
False
January 25, 1918
3
On what date was the state named the Soviet Communist Republic?
5acdf66132bba1001ae498eb
True
All-Russian Congress of Soviets
45
What head renamed the state the Soviet Russian Republic?
5acdf66132bba1001ae498ec
True
March 3, 1918
179
When was the Treaty of Brest-Litovsk rejected?
5acdf66132bba1001ae498ed
True
Germany
255
The Treaty of Brest-Litovsk took land from what state?
5acdf66132bba1001ae498ee
True
Russian Constitution of 1918
339
What person renamed the state the Russian Socialist Federative Soviet Republic?
5acdf66132bba1001ae498ef
True
On January 25, 1918 the third meeting of the All-Russian Congress of Soviets renamed the unrecognized state the Soviet Russian Republic. The Treaty of Brest-Litovsk was signed on March 3, 1918, giving away much of the land of the former Russian Empire to Germany in exchange for peace during the rest of World War I. On July 10, 1918, the Russian Constitution of 1918 renamed the country the Russian Socialist Federative Soviet Republic. By 1918, during the Russian Civil War, several states within the former Russian Empire seceded, reducing the size of the country even more.
What treaty resulted in the recognition of the RSFSR by Latvia and other states?
56e09b837aa994140058e63f
Treaty of Tartu
129
False
Along with Estonia, Latvia, Finland and Lithuania, what state recognized the RSFSR in 1920?
56e09b837aa994140058e640
Irish Republic
168
False
Treaty of Tartu
129
What treaty resulted in the nonrecognition of the RSFSR by Latvia and other states?
5acdf79132bba1001ae498f5
True
Irish Republic
168
Along with Estonia, Latvia, Finland and Lithuania, what state went didn't recognize the RSFSR in 1920?
5acdf79132bba1001ae498f6
True
1920
20
What year was the RSFSW nor recognized as an independent state?
5acdf79132bba1001ae498f7
True
the RSFSR was recognized as an independent state
26
What didn't happen in 1920?
5acdf79132bba1001ae498f8
True
Estonia, Finland, Latvia and Lithuania
83
Which countries refused to recognize the RSFSR?
5acdf79132bba1001ae498f9
True
Internationally, in 1920, the RSFSR was recognized as an independent state only by Estonia, Finland, Latvia and Lithuania in the Treaty of Tartu and by the short-lived Irish Republic.
What was the common name of the Soviet Union?
56e09c24231d4119001ac2cb
Russia
74
False
Technically, what type of state was Russia?
56e09c24231d4119001ac2cc
republic
129
False
What was the largest republic in the Soviet Union?
56e09c24231d4119001ac2cd
Russia
74
False
Russia
74
What was the uncommon name of the Soviet Union?
5acdf87832bba1001ae49909
True
republic
129
Technically, what type of state wasn't Russia?
5acdf87832bba1001ae4990a
True
Russia
108
What was the smallest republic in the Soviet Union?
5acdf87832bba1001ae4990b
True
Russia
108
Which republic was the least developed?
5acdf87832bba1001ae4990c
True
Russia
108
Which republic was the least powerful?
5acdf87832bba1001ae4990d
True
For most of the Soviet Union's existence, it was commonly referred to as "Russia," even though technically "Russia" was only one republic within the larger union—albeit by far the largest, most powerful and most highly developed.
What percentage of the RSFSR was made up of plains?
56e09ff67aa994140058e657
70%
8
False
In what part of the RSFSR did tundra mainly exist?
56e09ff67aa994140058e658
the east
119
False
Along with petroleum and iron ore, what resource was abundant in the RSFSR?
56e09ff67aa994140058e659
natural gas
189
False
70%
8
What percentage of the RSFSR wasn't made up of plains?
5acdfa8d32bba1001ae49927
True
the east
119
In what part of the RSFSR did tundra mainly not exist?
5acdfa8d32bba1001ae49928
True
natural gas
189
Along with petroleum and iron ore, what resource was depleted in the RSFSR?
5acdfa8d32bba1001ae49929
True
mineral resources, including petroleum, natural gas, and iron ore
149
What scarce resources are there?
5acdfa8d32bba1001ae4992a
True
the east
119
Where are the desert regions mainly concentrated?
5acdfa8d32bba1001ae4992b
True
Roughly 70% of the area in the RSFSR consisted of broad plains, with mountainous tundra regions mainly concentrated in the east. The area is rich in mineral resources, including petroleum, natural gas, and iron ore.
On what date was the Treaty on the Creation of the USSR passed?
56e0a1517aa994140058e667
December 30, 1922
3
False
What body passed the Treaty on the Creation of the USSR?
56e0a1517aa994140058e668
First Congress of the Soviets of the USSR
26
False
Along with the Ukrainian Soviet Socialist Republic and Byelorussian Soviet Socialist Republic, what state joined Russia to form the Soviet Union?
56e0a1517aa994140058e669
Transcaucasian Soviet Federal Socialist Republic
234
False
On what date was the 1924 Soviet Constitution adopted?
56e0a1517aa994140058e66a
January 31, 1924
422
False
What body adopted the 1924 Soviet Constitution?
56e0a1517aa994140058e66b
the Second Congress of Soviets of the USSR
442
False
December 30, 1922
3
On what date was the Treaty on the Creation of the USSR rejected?
5acdfbdc32bba1001ae49945
True
First Congress of the Soviets of the USSR
26
What body rejected the Treaty on the Creation of the USSR?
5acdfbdc32bba1001ae49946
True
Transcaucasian Soviet Federal Socialist Republic
234
Along with the Ukrainian Soviet Socialist Republic and Byelorussian Soviet Socialist Republic, what state didn't join Russia to form the Soviet Union?
5acdfbdc32bba1001ae49947
True
January 31, 1924
422
On what date was the 1942 Soviet Constitution adopted?
5acdfbdc32bba1001ae49948
True
Second Congress of Soviets of the USSR
446
What body rejected the 1924 Soviet Constitution?
5acdfbdc32bba1001ae49949
True
On December 30, 1922, the First Congress of the Soviets of the USSR approved the Treaty on the Creation of the USSR, by which Russia was united with the Ukrainian Soviet Socialist Republic, Byelorussian Soviet Socialist Republic, and Transcaucasian Soviet Federal Socialist Republic into a single federal state, the Soviet Union. Later treaty was included in the 1924 Soviet Constitution,[clarification needed] adopted on January 31, 1924 by the Second Congress of Soviets of the USSR.
During what span was there a famine in the Soviet Union?
56e0a1d07aa994140058e671
1932–1933
61
False
What document was ratified on December 5, 1936?
56e0a1d07aa994140058e672
the 1936 Soviet Constitution
211
False
What were the Kazakh ASSR and Kirghiz ASSR renamed per the 1936 Soviet Constitution?
56e0a1d07aa994140058e673
the Kazakh and Kirghiz Soviet Socialist Republics
365
False
What republic did the Karakalpak Autonomous Socialist Soviet Republic become a part of?
56e0a1d07aa994140058e674
the Uzbek SSR
487
False
What effect did the 1936 Soviet Constitution have on the size of the Russia?
56e0a1d07aa994140058e675
reduced
301
False
1932–1933
61
During what span was there a feast in the Soviet Union?
5acdfc4232bba1001ae4994f
True
1936 Soviet Constitution
215
What document was rejected on December 5, 1936?
5acdfc4232bba1001ae49950
True
Kazakh and Kirghiz Soviet Socialist Republics
369
What were the Kazakh ASSR and Kirghiz ASSR not named per the 1936 Soviet Constitution?
5acdfc4232bba1001ae49951
True
Uzbek SSR
491
What republic did the Karakalpak Autonomous Socialist Soviet Republic cease being a part of?
5acdfc4232bba1001ae49952
True
reduced
301
What effect did the 1963 Soviet Constitution have on the size of the Russia?
5acdfc4232bba1001ae49953
True
Many regions in Russia were affected by the Soviet famine of 1932–1933: Volga; Central Black Soil Region; North Caucasus; the Urals; the Crimea; part of Western Siberia; and the Kazak ASSR. With the adoption of the 1936 Soviet Constitution on December 5, 1936, the size of the RSFSR was significantly reduced. The Kazakh ASSR and Kirghiz ASSR were transformed into the Kazakh and Kirghiz Soviet Socialist Republics. The Karakalpak Autonomous Socialist Soviet Republic was transferred to the Uzbek SSR.
What was Soviet Russia called as of 1937?
56e0a208231d4119001ac2ef
the Russian Soviet Federative Socialist Republic
120
False
What document changed the name of Russia in 1937?
56e0a208231d4119001ac2f0
the Russian Constitution of 1937
69
False
Russian Soviet Federative Socialist Republic
124
What was Soviet Russia not called as of 1937?
5acdfd2f32bba1001ae49959
True
Russian Soviet Federative Socialist Republic
124
What was Soviet Russia called as of 1973?
5acdfd2f32bba1001ae4995a
True
Russian Constitution of 1937
73
What document changed the name of Russia in 1973?
5acdfd2f32bba1001ae4995b
True
Russian Constitution of 1937
73
What document kept the name of Russia in 1937?
5acdfd2f32bba1001ae4995c
True
Russian Soviet Federative Socialist Republic
124
The final name for the republic during the Soviet era was rejected by the Russian Constitution of 1937
5acdfd2f32bba1001ae4995d
True
The final name for the republic during the Soviet era was adopted by the Russian Constitution of 1937, which renamed it the Russian Soviet Federative Socialist Republic.
What state was dissolved on March 3, 1944?
56e0a2a3231d4119001ac2f3
the Chechen-Ingush ASSR
43
False
Who ordered the deportation of the residents of the Chechen-Ingush ASSR?
56e0a2a3231d4119001ac2f4
Stalin
35
False
Why were the residents of the Chechen-Ingush ASSR deported?
56e0a2a3231d4119001ac2f5
accusations of collaboration with the invaders and separatism
127
False
Along with the RSFSR, what republic received territory from the former Chechen-Ingush ASSR?
56e0a2a3231d4119001ac2f6
Georgian SSR
286
False
Chechen-Ingush ASSR
47
What state was created on March 3, 1944?
5ace04ac32bba1001ae4996d
True
Stalin
35
Who ordered the naturalization of the residents of the Chechen-Ingush ASSR?
5ace04ac32bba1001ae4996e
True
accusations of collaboration with the invaders and separatism
127
Why were the residents of the Chechen-Ingush ASSR not deported?
5ace04ac32bba1001ae4996f
True
Georgian SSR
286
Along with the RSFSR, what republic didn't receive territory from the former Chechen-Ingush ASSR?
5ace04ac32bba1001ae49970
True
Chechen-Ingush ASSR
47
What state was dissolved on March 4, 1943?
5ace04ac32bba1001ae49971
True
On March 3, 1944, on the orders of Stalin, the Chechen-Ingush ASSR was disbanded and its population forcibly deported upon the accusations of collaboration with the invaders and separatism. The territory of the ASSR was divided between other administrative unit of Russian SFSR and the Georgian SSR.
What was the Tuvan People's Republic renamed when it joined the RSFSR?
56e0a2f0231d4119001ac2fb
Tuvan Autonomous Oblast
80
False
On what date did the Tuvan People's Republic join the Russian SFSR?
56e0a2f0231d4119001ac2fc
October 11, 1944
3
False
What did the former Tuvan People's Republic become in 1961?
56e0a2f0231d4119001ac2fd
an Autonomous Soviet Socialist Republic
122
False
Tuvan People's Republic
25
What was the Tuvan People's Republic renamed when it exited the RSFSR?
5ace051a32bba1001ae49977
True
October 11, 1944
3
On what date did the Tuvan People's Republic leave the Russian SFSR?
5ace051a32bba1001ae49978
True
Autonomous Soviet Socialist Republic
125
What did the former Tuvan People's Republic become in 1916?
5ace051a32bba1001ae49979
True
the Tuvan People's Republic joined the Russian SFSR as the Tuvan Autonomous Oblast
21
What happened on October 11, 1941?
5ace051a32bba1001ae4997a
True
Tuvan People's Republic
25
What wasn't renamed to Tuvan Autonomous Oblast?
5ace051a32bba1001ae4997b
True
On October 11, 1944, the Tuvan People's Republic joined the Russian SFSR as the Tuvan Autonomous Oblast, in 1961 becoming an Autonomous Soviet Socialist Republic.
Along with Estonia, what country was taken over by the Russian SFSR in 1944?
56e0a38a231d4119001ac301
Latvia
31
False
What modern districts of Estonia and Latvia were annexed by the RSFSR in 1944?
56e0a38a231d4119001ac302
Pechorsky and Pytalovsky Districts
141
False
Near what town did the RSFSR annex territory in 1944?
56e0a38a231d4119001ac303
Ivangorod
109
False
Latvia
31
Along with Estonia, what country was left alone by the Russian SFSR in 1944?
5ace059132bba1001ae49981
True
Pechorsky and Pytalovsky Districts
141
What modern districts of Estonia and Latvia were annexed by the RSFSR in 1934?
5ace059132bba1001ae49982
True
Ivangorod
109
Near what town did the RSFSR leave territory in 1944?
5ace059132bba1001ae49983
True
Russian SFSR annexed their easternmost territories
51
What happened to Estonia and Latvia in 1494?
5ace059132bba1001ae49984
True
Estonia
19
Along with Latvia, what country was traded over by the Russian SFSR in 1944?
5ace059132bba1001ae49985
True
After reconquering Estonia and Latvia in 1944, the Russian SFSR annexed their easternmost territories around Ivangorod and within the modern Pechorsky and Pytalovsky Districts in 1944-1945.
Along with Sakhalin Island, what islands were occupied by the Soviets after the Second World War?
56e0a3d47aa994140058e685
Kuril Islands
83
False
What administrative division did Sakhalin Island become a part of?
56e0a3d47aa994140058e686
the RSFSR
118
False
The ownership of what islands are disputed with Japan?
56e0a3d47aa994140058e687
the southernmost Kurils
143
False
Kuril Islands
83
Along with Sakhalin Island, what islands were occupied by the Soviets after the First World War?
5ace05dc32bba1001ae4998b
True
Kuril Islands
83
Along with Sakhalin Island, what islands were not occupied by the Soviets after the Second World War?
5ace05dc32bba1001ae4998c
True
the RSFSR
118
What administrative division did Sakhalin Island not become a part of?
5ace05dc32bba1001ae4998d
True
the RSFSR
118
What military division did Sakhalin Island become a part of?
5ace05dc32bba1001ae4998e
True
the southernmost Kurils
143
The ownership of what islands are not disputed with Japan?
5ace05dc32bba1001ae4998f
True
At the end of World War II Soviet troops occupied southern Sakhalin Island and the Kuril Islands, making them part of the RSFSR. The status of the southernmost Kurils remains in dispute with Japan.
On what date was Kaliningrad Oblast annexed?
56e0a41f7aa994140058e68b
April 17, 1946
3
False
What province of Germany did Kaliningrad Oblast form a part of?
56e0a41f7aa994140058e68c
East Prussia
98
False
What administrative division did Kaliningrad Oblast become a part of?
56e0a41f7aa994140058e68d
the Russian SFSR
160
False
April 17, 1946
3
On what date was Kaliningrad Oblast trade away?
5ace063c32bba1001ae49995
True
April 17, 1946
3
On what date was Kaliningrad Ozarks annexed?
5ace063c32bba1001ae49996
True
East Prussia
98
What state of Germany did Kaliningrad Oblast form a part of?
5ace063c32bba1001ae49997
True
East Prussia
98
What province of Germany did Kaliningrad Oblast cease to be a part of?
5ace063c32bba1001ae49998
True
the Russian SFSR
160
What administrative division did Kaliningrad Oblast leave?
5ace063c32bba1001ae49999
True
On April 17, 1946, the Kaliningrad Oblast — the northern portion of the former German province of East Prussia—was annexed by the Soviet Union and made part of the Russian SFSR.
Who was demoted on February 8, 1955?
56e0a46c231d4119001ac307
Malenkov
21
False
To what position was Malenkov demoted?
56e0a46c231d4119001ac308
deputy Prime Minister
56
False
What position was held by Nikita Khrushchev?
56e0a46c231d4119001ac309
First Secretary of the Central Committee of the Communist Party
82
False
Who benefited from the demotion of Malenkov?
56e0a46c231d4119001ac30a
Nikita Khrushchev
147
False
Malenkov
21
Who was promoted on February 8, 1955?
5ace06bb32bba1001ae4999f
True
Malenkov
21
Who was demoted on February 8, 1945?
5ace06bb32bba1001ae499a0
True
deputy Prime Minister
56
To what position was Malenkov promoted?
5ace06bb32bba1001ae499a1
True
First Secretary of the Central Committee of the Communist Party
82
What position wasn't held by Nikita Khrushchev?
5ace06bb32bba1001ae499a2
True
Nikita Khrushchev
147
Who benefited from the promotion of Malenkov?
5ace06bb32bba1001ae499a3
True
On February 8, 1955, Malenkov was officially demoted to deputy Prime Minister. As First Secretary of the Central Committee of the Communist Party, Nikita Khrushchev's authority was significantly enhanced by Malenkov's demotion.
When was the Chechen-Ingush Autonomous Soviet Socialist Republic transferred from the Georgian SSR?
56e0a4e7231d4119001ac30f
January 9, 1957
3
False
What territory was transferred along with the Chechen-Ingush Autonomous Soviet Socialist Republic?
56e0a4e7231d4119001ac310
Karachay Autonomous Oblast
20
False
Who transferred the Chechen-Ingush Autonomous Soviet Socialist Republic in 1957?
56e0a4e7231d4119001ac311
Khrushchev
120
False
To what republic was the Karachay Autonomous Oblast transferred in 1957?
56e0a4e7231d4119001ac312
the Russian SFSR
187
False
What republic had the Karachay Autonomous Oblast previously been a part of?
56e0a4e7231d4119001ac313
the Georgian SSR
162
False
January 9, 1957
3
When was the Chechen-Irish Autonomous Soviet Socialist Republic transferred from the Georgian SSR?
5ace071932bba1001ae499a9
True
Karachay Autonomous Oblast
20
What territory was kept along with the Chechen-Ingush Autonomous Soviet Socialist Republic?
5ace071932bba1001ae499aa
True
Khrushchev
120
Who transferred the Chechen-Ingush Autonomous Soviet Socialist Republic in 1975?
5ace071932bba1001ae499ab
True
the Russian SFSR
187
To what republic was the Karachay Autonomous Oblast kept from in 1957?
5ace071932bba1001ae499ac
True
Georgian SSR
166
What republic had the Karachay Autonomous Oblast previously not been a part of?
5ace071932bba1001ae499ad
True
On January 9, 1957, Karachay Autonomous Oblast and Chechen-Ingush Autonomous Soviet Socialist Republic were restored by Khrushchev and they were transferred from the Georgian SSR back to the Russian SFSR.
Who lost power in 1964?
56e0a534231d4119001ac319
Nikita Khrushchev
9
False
Who assumed a position of power in 1964?
56e0a534231d4119001ac31a
Leonid Brezhnev
84
False
When did Leonid Brezhnev die?
56e0a534231d4119001ac31b
1982
224
False
Whose assumption of power ended the era of stagnation?
56e0a534231d4119001ac31c
Mikhail Gorbachev
255
False
How did Mikhail Gorbachev end the era of stagnation?
56e0a534231d4119001ac31d
introduced liberal reforms in Soviet society
288
False
Nikita Khrushchev
9
Who lost power in 1946?
5ace076932bba1001ae499b3
True
Leonid Brezhnev
84
Who assumed a position of power in 1946?
5ace076932bba1001ae499b4
True
1982
224
When did Leonard Brezhnev die?
5ace076932bba1001ae499b5
True
Mikhail Gorbachev
255
Whose assumption of power continued the era of stagnation?
5ace076932bba1001ae499b6
True
introduced liberal reforms in Soviet society
288
How did Mikhail Gorbachev begin the era of stagnation?
5ace076932bba1001ae499b7
True
In 1964, Nikita Khrushchev was removed from his position of power and replaced with Leonid Brezhnev. Under his rule, the Russian SFSR and the rest of the Soviet Union went through an era of stagnation. Even after he died in 1982, the era didn’t end until Mikhail Gorbachev took power and introduced liberal reforms in Soviet society.
On what date was the Declaration of State Sovereignty of the Russian SFSR adopted?
56e0a5b6231d4119001ac323
June 12, 1990
3
False
What body passed the Declaration of State Sovereignty of the Russian SFSR?
56e0a5b6231d4119001ac324
the Congress of People's Deputies of the Republic
18
False
What was the name of the period inaugurated by the passage of the Declaration of State Sovereignty of the Russian SFSR?
56e0a5b6231d4119001ac325
the "War of Laws"
161
False
What government was the Russian Federation fighting against during this period?
56e0a5b6231d4119001ac326
the Soviet Union
188
False
June 12, 1990
3
On what date was the Declaration of State Sovereignty of the Russian SFSR rejected?
5ace07c332bba1001ae499bd
True
Congress of People's Deputies of the Republic
22
What body rejected the Declaration of State Sovereignty of the Russian SFSR?
5ace07c332bba1001ae499be
True
War of Laws
166
What was the name of the period ended by the passage of the Declaration of State Sovereignty of the Russian SFSR?
5ace07c332bba1001ae499bf
True
the Soviet Union
188
What government was the Russian Federation fighting alongside during this period?
5ace07c332bba1001ae499c0
True
the Soviet Union
188
What government was the Russian Federation not fighting against during this period?
5ace07c332bba1001ae499c1
True
On June 12, 1990, the Congress of People's Deputies of the Republic adopted the Declaration of State Sovereignty of the Russian SFSR, which was the beginning of the "War of Laws", pitting the Soviet Union against the Russian Federation and other constituent republics.
On what date was the office of President of the RSFSR created?
56e0a622231d4119001ac32b
March 17, 1991
3
False
Who was the first President of the RSFSR?
56e0a622231d4119001ac32c
Boris Yeltsin
101
False
Who was the President of the Soviet Union in 1991?
56e0a622231d4119001ac32d
Mikhail Gorbachev
359
False
On what date did the first election for President of the RSFSR occur?
56e0a622231d4119001ac32e
June 12
92
False
During what period was there an attempted coup in Moscow?
56e0a622231d4119001ac32f
August 19–21, 1991
203
False
March 17, 1991
3
On what date was the office of President of the RSFSR not created?
5ace081c32bba1001ae499c7
True
Boris Yeltsin
101
Who wasn't the first President of the RSFSR?
5ace081c32bba1001ae499c8
True
Mikhail Gorbachev
359
Who was the President of the Soviet Union in 1919?
5ace081c32bba1001ae499c9
True
June 12
92
On what date did the second election for President of the RSFSR occur?
5ace081c32bba1001ae499ca
True
August 19–21, 1991
203
During what period was there an attempted coup in Kiev?
5ace081c32bba1001ae499cb
True
On March 17, 1991, an all-Russian referendum created the post of President of the RSFSR. On June 12, Boris Yeltsin was elected President of Russia by popular vote. During an unsuccessful coup attempt on August 19–21, 1991 in Moscow, the capital of the Soviet Union and Russia, President of Russia Yeltsin strongly supported the President of the Soviet Union, Mikhail Gorbachev.
On what date was the Communist Party of the Russian SFSR suspended?
56e0a6c4231d4119001ac335
August 23
3
False
Who signed the decree suspending the Communist Party of the Russian SFSR?
56e0a6c4231d4119001ac336
Yeltsin
72
False
On what date was the Communist Parties of the USSR banned from operating in the RSFSR?
56e0a6c4231d4119001ac337
November 6
194
False
Aside from Yeltsin, what notable figure was present at the signing of the August 23 decree?
56e0a6c4231d4119001ac338
Gorbachev
61
False
August 23
3
On what date was the Communist Party of the Russian SFSR upheld?
5ace08a732bba1001ae499d1
True
Yeltsin
72
Who didn't sign the decree suspending the Communist Party of the Russian SFSR?
5ace08a732bba1001ae499d2
True
Yeltsin
72
Who signed the decree upholding the Communist Party of the Russian SFSR?
5ace08a732bba1001ae499d3
True
November 6
194
On what date was the Socialist Parties of the USSR banned from operating in the RSFSR?
5ace08a732bba1001ae499d4
True
Gorbachev
61
Aside from Yeltsin, what notable figure was present at the signing of the August 3 decree?
5ace08a732bba1001ae499d5
True
On August 23, after the failure of GKChP, in the presence of Gorbachev, Yeltsin signed a decree suspending all activity by the Communist Party of the Russian SFSR in the territory of Russia. On November 6, he went further, banning the Communist Parties of the USSR and the RSFSR from the territory of the RSFSR.
In what country is Viskuli located?
56e0a753231d4119001ac33d
Belarus
44
False
On what date was the Agreement on the Establishment of the Commonwealth of Independent States signed?
56e0a753231d4119001ac33e
December 8, 1991
3
False
What is another name for the Agreement on the Establishment of the Commonwealth of Independent States?
56e0a753231d4119001ac33f
Belavezha Accords
245
False
What body ratified the Belavezha Accords on December 12?
56e0a753231d4119001ac340
the Supreme Soviet of the Russian SFSR
811
False
The Belavezha Accords consisted of how many articles?
56e0a753231d4119001ac341
fourteen
308
False
Belarus
44
In what country is Viskuli not located?
5ace090a32bba1001ae499db
True
December 8, 1991
3
On what date was the Agreement on the Establishment of the Commonwealth of Independent States rejected?
5ace090a32bba1001ae499dc
True
Belavezha Accords
245
What isn't another name for the Agreement on the Establishment of the Commonwealth of Independent States?
5ace090a32bba1001ae499dd
True
the Supreme Soviet of the Russian SFSR
811
What body ratified the Belavezha Accords on December 21?
5ace090a32bba1001ae499de
True
the Supreme Soviet of the Russian SFSR
811
What body rejected the Belavezha Accords on December 12?
5ace090a32bba1001ae499df
True
On December 8, 1991, at Viskuli near Brest (Belarus), the President of the Russian SFSR and the heads of Byelorussian SSR and Ukrainian SSR signed the "Agreement on the Establishment of the Commonwealth of Independent States" (known in media as Belavezha Accords). The document, consisting of a preamble and fourteen articles, stated that the Soviet Union ceased to exist as a subject of international law and geopolitical reality. However, based on the historical community of peoples, relations between them, given the bilateral treaties, the desire for a democratic rule of law, the intention to develop their relations based on mutual recognition and respect for state sovereignty, the parties agreed to the formation of the Commonwealth of Independent States. On December 12, the agreement was ratified by the Supreme Soviet of the Russian SFSR by an overwhelming majority: 188 votes for, 6 against, 7 abstentions. On the same day, the Supreme Soviet of the Russian SFSR denounced the Treaty on the Creation of the USSR and recalled all Russian deputies from the Supreme Soviet of the Soviet Union. The legality of this act is the subject of discussions because, according to the 1978 Constitution (Basic Law) of the Russian SFSR, the Russian Supreme Soviet had no right to do so. However, by this time the Soviet government had been rendered more or less impotent, and was in no position to object. Although the December 12 vote is sometimes reckoned as the moment that the RSFSR seceded from the collapsing Soviet Union, this is not the case. It appears that the RSFSR took the line that it was not possible to secede from an entity that no longer existed.
When did the Russian Federation assume the Soviet Union's membership in the UN?
56e0a80a7aa994140058e691
December 24
3
False
On what day did Gorbachev give up the presidency of the Soviet Union?
56e0a80a7aa994140058e692
December 25
429
False
What was the new name given to the Russian SFSR after the resignation of Gorbachev?
56e0a80a7aa994140058e693
the Russian Federation
539
False
Who was the first president of the Russian Federation?
56e0a80a7aa994140058e694
Yeltsin
16
False
In what periodical was the new sovereign status of the Russian Federation first published?
56e0a80a7aa994140058e695
Rossiyskaya Gazeta
711
False
December 24
3
When did the Russian Federation reject the Soviet Union's membership in the UN?
5ace097a32bba1001ae499e5
True
December 25
429
On what day did Gorbachev keep the presidency of the Soviet Union?
5ace097a32bba1001ae499e6
True
the Russian Federation
539
What was the new name given to the Russian SFSR after the killing of Gorbachev?
5ace097a32bba1001ae499e7
True
Yeltsin
622
Who wasn't the first president of the Russian Federation?
5ace097a32bba1001ae499e8
True
Rossiyskaya Gazeta
711
In what periodical was the new sovereign status of the Russian Federation last published?
5ace097a32bba1001ae499e9
True
On December 24, Yeltsin informed the Secretary-General of the United Nations that by agreement of the member states of the CIS Russian Federation would assume the membership of the Soviet Union in all UN organs (including permanent membership in the UN Security Council). Thus, Russia is considered to be an original member of the UN (since October 24, 1945) along with Ukraine (Ukrainian SSR) and Belarus (Byelorussian SSR). On December 25—just hours after Gorbachev resigned as president of the Soviet Union—the Russian SFSR was renamed the Russian Federation (Russia), reflecting that it was now a sovereign state with Yeltsin assuming the Presidency. The change was originally published on January 6, 1992 (Rossiyskaya Gazeta). According to law, during 1992, it was allowed to use the old name of the RSFSR for official business (forms, seals and stamps). The Russian Federation's Constitution (Fundamental Law) of 1978, though with the 1991–1992 Amendements, remained in effect until the 1993 Russian constitutional crisis.
What was the government of the RSFSR called up to 1946?
56e0a85e7aa994140058e69b
the Council of People's Commissars
39
False
What was the RSFSR government called starting in 1946?
56e0a85e7aa994140058e69c
Council of Ministers
87
False
When the Soviet Union ended in 1991, what was the RSFSR government called?
56e0a85e7aa994140058e69d
Council of Ministers–Government
124
False
Who led the first government of the RSFSR?
56e0a85e7aa994140058e69e
Vladimir Lenin
204
False
Who led the final government of the RSFSR?
56e0a85e7aa994140058e69f
Boris Yeltsin
307
False
Council of People's Commissars
43
What was the government of the RSFSR called up to 1964?
5ace09cd32bba1001ae499ef
True
Council of Ministers
87
What was the RSFSR government called starting in 1964?
5ace09cd32bba1001ae499f0
True
Council of Ministers–Government
124
When the Soviet Union started in 1991, what was the RSFSR government called?
5ace09cd32bba1001ae499f1
True
Vladimir Lenin
204
Who rejected the first government of the RSFSR?
5ace09cd32bba1001ae499f2
True
Boris Yeltsin
307
Who rejected the final government of the RSFSR?
5ace09cd32bba1001ae499f3
True
The Government was known officially as the Council of People's Commissars (1917–1946), Council of Ministers (1946–1978) and Council of Ministers–Government (1978–1991). The first government was headed by Vladimir Lenin as "Chairman of the Council of People's Commissars of the Russian SFSR" and the last by Boris Yeltsin as both head of government and head of state under the title "President".
What political organization controlled the RSFSR up to 1991?
56e0a8ad231d4119001ac347
the Communist Party of the Soviet Union
35
False
What event prompted the end to the control of the Communist Party of the Soviet Union in the RSFSR?
56e0a8ad231d4119001ac348
the abortive 1991 August coup
82
False
Who suspended the Communist Party of the Russian Soviet Federative Socialist Republic?
56e0a8ad231d4119001ac349
Yeltsin
138
False
the Communist Party of the Soviet Union
35
What political organization controlled the RSFSR up to 1919?
5ace0a6932bba1001ae499f9
True
the Communist Party of the Soviet Union
35
What political organization didn't control the RSFSR up to 1991?
5ace0a6932bba1001ae499fa
True
the abortive 1991 August coup
82
What event prompted the start of the control of the Communist Party of the Soviet Union in the RSFSR?
5ace0a6932bba1001ae499fb
True
President Yeltsin
128
Who didn't suspend the Communist Party of the Russian Soviet Federative Socialist Republic?
5ace0a6932bba1001ae499fc
True
President Yeltsin
128
Who suspended the Socialist Party of the Russian Soviet Federative Socialist Republic?
5ace0a6932bba1001ae499fd
True
The Russian SFSR was controlled by the Communist Party of the Soviet Union, until the abortive 1991 August coup, which prompted President Yeltsin to suspend the recently created Communist Party of the Russian Soviet Federative Socialist Republic.
Alexander_Graham_Bell
What is Bell most famous for inventing?
56df75d15ca0a614008f9a9a
telephone
175
False
What year did Bell die?
56df75d15ca0a614008f9a9b
1922
49
False
What was special about his telephone?
56df75d15ca0a614008f9a9c
practical
165
False
What is Bell's full name?
56df75d15ca0a614008f9a9d
Alexander Graham Bell
0
False
What is Bell famous for inventing?
56df764f5ca0a614008f9aae
telephone
175
False
Alexander Graham Bell (March 3, 1847 – August 2, 1922) was a Scottish-born[N 3] scientist, inventor, engineer and innovator who is credited with patenting the first practical telephone.
What were his relatives known for working on?
56df76c85ca0a614008f9ac3
elocution and speech
77
False
What was interesting about his mother and wife?
56df76c85ca0a614008f9ac4
deaf
133
False
What year did Bell get the patent for his telephone?
56df76c85ca0a614008f9ac5
1876
361
False
In what country did Bell patent his telephone?
56df76c85ca0a614008f9ac6
U.S.
328
False
What did Bell never put in his study?
56df76c85ca0a614008f9ac7
telephone
348
False
Bell's father, grandfather, and brother had all been associated with work on elocution and speech, and both his mother and wife were deaf, profoundly influencing Bell's life's work. His research on hearing and speech further led him to experiment with hearing devices which eventually culminated in Bell being awarded the first U.S. patent for the telephone in 1876.[N 4] Bell considered his most famous invention an intrusion on his real work as a scientist and refused to have a telephone in his study.[N 5]
How many people started the National Geographic Society?
56df778a5ca0a614008f9adb
33
170
False
Bell was the second president of what magazine?
56df778a5ca0a614008f9adc
National Geographic Society
189
False
What field did Bell later work in, apart from optical telecommunications and aeronautics?
56df778a5ca0a614008f9ade
hydrofoils
109
False
What year did Bell become President of the National Geographic magazine?
56df778a5ca0a614008f9adf
1898
314
False
Many other inventions marked Bell's later life, including groundbreaking work in optical telecommunications, hydrofoils and aeronautics. Although Bell was not one of the 33 founders of the National Geographic Society, he had a strong influence on the magazine while serving as the second president from January 7, 1898 until 1903.
What city was Bell born in?
56df781c5ca0a614008f9aef
Edinburgh
27
False
What material marks Bells family  home as his birthplace?
56df781c5ca0a614008f9af0
stone
126
False
What disease did his two brothers die of?
56df781c5ca0a614008f9af1
tuberculosis
306
False
At what age did Bell ask for a middle name?
56df781c5ca0a614008f9af2
10
469
False
What did those close to him call Bell?
56df781c5ca0a614008f9af3
Aleck
799
False
Alexander Bell was born in Edinburgh, Scotland, on March 3, 1847. The family home was at 16 South Charlotte Street, and has a stone inscription marking it as Alexander Graham Bell's birthplace. He had two brothers: Melville James Bell (1845–70) and Edward Charles Bell (1848–67), both of whom would die of tuberculosis. His father was Professor Alexander Melville Bell, a phonetician, and his mother was Eliza Grace (née Symonds). Born as just "Alexander Bell", at age 10 he made a plea to his father to have a middle name like his two brothers.[N 6] For his 11th birthday, his father acquiesced and allowed him to adopt the name "Graham", chosen out of respect for Alexander Graham, a Canadian being treated by his father who had become a family friend. To close relatives and friends he remained "Aleck".
What sort of things did Bell collect as a child?
56df7d005ca0a614008f9b1b
botanical specimens
93
False
Who was Bell's closest friend as a child?
56df7d005ca0a614008f9b1c
Ben Herdman
180
False
What sort of mill did Bell's neighbors run?
56df7d005ca0a614008f9b1d
flour
228
False
Bell's dehusking machine combined what with nail brushes?
56df7d005ca0a614008f9b1e
rotating paddles
449
False
What was Bell's reward for his dehusking machine?
56df7d005ca0a614008f9b1f
small workshop
650
False
As a child, young Bell displayed a natural curiosity about his world, resulting in gathering botanical specimens as well as experimenting even at an early age. His best friend was Ben Herdman, a neighbor whose family operated a flour mill, the scene of many forays. Young Bell asked what needed to be done at the mill. He was told wheat had to be dehusked through a laborious process and at the age of 12, Bell built a homemade device that combined rotating paddles with sets of nail brushes, creating a simple dehusking machine that was put into operation and used steadily for a number of years. In return, John Herdman gave both boys the run of a small workshop in which to "invent".
Bell was gifted at art, poetry, and what?
56df7da25ca0a614008f9b2d
music
87
False
What did Bell succeed at without being taught?
56df7da25ca0a614008f9b2e
piano
169
False
How old was Bell when his mom started to go deaf?
56df7da25ca0a614008f9b2f
12
501
False
What part of his mom's head would Bell talk into?
56df7da25ca0a614008f9b30
forehead
740
False
What did Bell research because of his mom's deafness?
56df7da25ca0a614008f9b31
acoustics
866
False
From his early years, Bell showed a sensitive nature and a talent for art, poetry, and music that was encouraged by his mother. With no formal training, he mastered the piano and became the family's pianist. Despite being normally quiet and introspective, he reveled in mimicry and "voice tricks" akin to ventriloquism that continually entertained family guests during their occasional visits. Bell was also deeply affected by his mother's gradual deafness, (she began to lose her hearing when he was 12) and learned a manual finger language so he could sit at her side and tap out silently the conversations swirling around the family parlour. He also developed a technique of speaking in clear, modulated tones directly into his mother's forehead wherein she would hear him with reasonable clarity. Bell's preoccupation with his mother's deafness led him to study acoustics.
Where did Bell's uncle live?
56df7e4f5ca0a614008f9b37
Dublin
120
False
What was Bell's father most famous for publishing?
56df7e4f5ca0a614008f9b38
The Standard Elocutionist
292
False
Bell learned to accurately read lips even without knowing what?
56df7e4f5ca0a614008f9b3a
pronunciation
1136
False
The Standard Elocutionist was printed how many times?
56df7e4f5ca0a614008f9b3b
168
401
False
His family was long associated with the teaching of elocution: his grandfather, Alexander Bell, in London, his uncle in Dublin, and his father, in Edinburgh, were all elocutionists. His father published a variety of works on the subject, several of which are still well known, especially his The Standard Elocutionist (1860), which appeared in Edinburgh in 1868. The Standard Elocutionist appeared in 168 British editions and sold over a quarter of a million copies in the United States alone. In this treatise, his father explains his methods of how to instruct deaf-mutes (as they were then known) to articulate words and read other people's lip movements to decipher meaning. Bell's father taught him and his brothers not only to write Visible Speech but to identify any symbol and its accompanying sound. Bell became so proficient that he became a part of his father's public demonstrations and astounded audiences with his abilities. He could decipher Visible Speech representing virtually every language, including Latin, Scottish Gaelic, and even Sanskrit, accurately reciting written tracts without any prior knowledge of their pronunciation.
Who taught Bell when he was very young?
56df7edb5ca0a614008f9b4b
father
89
False
What school did Bell leave at 15?
56df7edb5ca0a614008f9b4c
Royal High School
146
False
What was Bell's favorite subject?
56df7edb5ca0a614008f9b4e
biology
388
False
How old was Bell when he became a "pupil-teacher"?
56df7edb5ca0a614008f9b4f
16
896
False
As a young child, Bell, like his brothers, received his early schooling at home from his father. At an early age, however, he was enrolled at the Royal High School, Edinburgh, Scotland, which he left at age 15, completing only the first four forms. His school record was undistinguished, marked by absenteeism and lacklustre grades. His main interest remained in the sciences, especially biology, while he treated other school subjects with indifference, to the dismay of his demanding father. Upon leaving school, Bell travelled to London to live with his grandfather, Alexander Bell. During the year he spent with his grandfather, a love of learning was born, with long hours spent in serious discussion and study. The elder Bell took great efforts to have his young pupil learn to speak clearly and with conviction, the attributes that his pupil would need to become a teacher himself. At age 16, Bell secured a position as a "pupil-teacher" of elocution and music, in Weston House Academy, at Elgin, Moray, Scotland. Although he was enrolled as a student in Latin and Greek, he instructed classes himself in return for board and £10 per session. The following year, he attended the University of Edinburgh; joining his older brother Melville who had enrolled there the previous year. In 1868, not long before he departed for Canada with his family, Bell completed his matriculation exams and was accepted for admission to the University of London.
In what year did Bell's father take him to see an automaton?
56df7f5a56340a1900b29c4a
1863
56
False
Who created the automaton Bell saw?
56df7f5a56340a1900b29c4b
Sir Charles Wheatstone
116
False
What did the automaton mimic?
56df7f5a56340a1900b29c4c
human voice
242
False
Bell built his own automaton with who?
56df7f5a56340a1900b29c4d
Melville
424
False
What part of the automaton did Bell create?
56df7f5a56340a1900b29c4e
skull
749
False
His father encouraged Bell's interest in speech and, in 1863, took his sons to see a unique automaton, developed by Sir Charles Wheatstone based on the earlier work of Baron Wolfgang von Kempelen. The rudimentary "mechanical man" simulated a human voice. Bell was fascinated by the machine and after he obtained a copy of von Kempelen's book, published in German, and had laboriously translated it, he and his older brother Melville built their own automaton head. Their father, highly interested in their project, offered to pay for any supplies and spurred the boys on with the enticement of a "big prize" if they were successful. While his brother constructed the throat and larynx, Bell tackled the more difficult task of recreating a realistic skull. His efforts resulted in a remarkably lifelike head that could "speak", albeit only a few words. The boys would carefully adjust the "lips" and when a bellows forced air through the windpipe, a very recognizable "Mama" ensued, to the delight of neighbors who came to see the Bell invention.
What living thing did Bell use in his research?
56df7fea56340a1900b29c58
Skye Terrier
106
False
What was Bell's pet's name?
56df7fea56340a1900b29c59
Trouve
121
False
What phrase did people believe Bell's dog could say?
56df7fea56340a1900b29c5a
How are you grandma?
367
False
Bell investigated resonance using what?
56df7fea56340a1900b29c5b
tuning forks
638
False
What did Bell  instruct his dog to do?
56df7fea56340a1900b29c5c
growl continuously
152
False
Intrigued by the results of the automaton, Bell continued to experiment with a live subject, the family's Skye Terrier, "Trouve". After he taught it to growl continuously, Bell would reach into its mouth and manipulate the dog's lips and vocal cords to produce a crude-sounding "Ow ah oo ga ma ma". With little convincing, visitors believed his dog could articulate "How are you grandma?" More indicative of his playful nature, his experiments convinced onlookers that they saw a "talking dog". However, these initial forays into experimentation with sound led Bell to undertake his first serious work on the transmission of sound, using tuning forks to explore resonance.
Who did Bell get to read his work?
56df80625ca0a614008f9b81
Alexander Ellis
75
False
What country was doing work similar to Bell's?
56df80625ca0a614008f9b82
Germany
284
False
Who wrote The Sensations of Tone as a Physiological Basis for the Theory of Music?
56df80625ca0a614008f9b83
Hermann von Helmholtz
322
False
How old was Bell when he wrote his paper?
56df80625ca0a614008f9b84
19
14
False
What fictional character is based on Alexander Ellis?
56df80625ca0a614008f9b85
Professor Henry Higgins
151
False
At the age of 19, he wrote a report on his work and sent it to philologist Alexander Ellis, a colleague of his father (who would later be portrayed as Professor Henry Higgins in Pygmalion). Ellis immediately wrote back indicating that the experiments were similar to existing work in Germany, and also lent Bell a copy of Hermann von Helmholtz's work, The Sensations of Tone as a Physiological Basis for the Theory of Music.
By what means did Bell conclude vowel sounds could be made?
56df812d56340a1900b29c7b
electrical
499
False
What else besides vowels did Bell decide could be created?
56df812d56340a1900b29c7c
consonants
526
False
What language was Bell happy he couldn't read?
56df812d56340a1900b29c7d
German
180
False
What did Bell think he didn't know well enough?
56df812d56340a1900b29c7e
electricity
685
False
Dismayed to find that groundbreaking work had already been undertaken by Helmholtz who had conveyed vowel sounds by means of a similar tuning fork "contraption", he pored over the German scientist's book. Working from his own erroneous mistranslation of a French edition, Bell fortuitously then made a deduction that would be the underpinning of all his future work on transmitting sound, reporting: "Without knowing much about the subject, it seemed to me that if vowel sounds could be produced by electrical means, so could consonants, so could articulate speech." He also later remarked: "I thought that Helmholtz had done it ... and that my failure was due only to my ignorance of electricity. It was a valuable blunder ... If I had been able to read German in those days, I might never have commenced my experiments!"[N 7]
In what year did the Bell's move to London?
56df819c5ca0a614008f9bb1
1865
3
False
Where did Bell go in work in 1865?
56df819c5ca0a614008f9bb2
Weston House
64
False
What building was Bell in?
56df819c5ca0a614008f9bb3
Somerset College
319
False
How did Bell sign his letters?
56df819c5ca0a614008f9bb4
A.G. Bell
589
False
In what year did Bell move home?
56df819c5ca0a614008f9bb5
1867
373
False
In 1865, when the Bell family moved to London, Bell returned to Weston House as an assistant master and, in his spare hours, continued experiments on sound using a minimum of laboratory equipment. Bell concentrated on experimenting with electricity to convey sound and later installed a telegraph wire from his room in Somerset College to that of a friend. Throughout late 1867, his health faltered mainly through exhaustion. His younger brother, Edward "Ted," was similarly bed-ridden, suffering from tuberculosis. While Bell recovered (by then referring to himself in correspondence as "A.G. Bell") and served the next year as an instructor at Somerset College, Bath, England, his brother's condition deteriorated. Edward would never recover. Upon his brother's death, Bell returned home in 1867. His older brother Melville had married and moved out. With aspirations to obtain a degree at University College London, Bell considered his next years as preparation for the degree examinations, devoting his spare time at his family's residence to studying.
What city is Susanna E. Hull located in?
56df82285ca0a614008f9bc7
South Kensington
130
False
What sort of student attended Susanna E. Hull?
56df82285ca0a614008f9bc8
deaf
122
False
Who died in 1870?
56df82285ca0a614008f9bc9
Melville
471
False
Where did Bell's father go to recover from illness?
56df82285ca0a614008f9bca
Newfoundland
672
False
What did Bell help his final student get rid of?
56df82285ca0a614008f9bcb
lisp
999
False
Helping his father in Visible Speech demonstrations and lectures brought Bell to Susanna E. Hull's private school for the deaf in South Kensington, London. His first two pupils were "deaf mute" girls who made remarkable progress under his tutelage. While his older brother seemed to achieve success on many fronts including opening his own elocution school, applying for a patent on an invention, and starting a family, Bell continued as a teacher. However, in May 1870, Melville died from complications due to tuberculosis, causing a family crisis. His father had also suffered a debilitating illness earlier in life and had been restored to health by a convalescence in Newfoundland. Bell's parents embarked upon a long-planned move when they realized that their remaining son was also sickly. Acting decisively, Alexander Melville Bell asked Bell to arrange for the sale of all the family property,[N 8] conclude all of his brother's affairs (Bell took over his last student, curing a pronounced lisp), and join his father and mother in setting out for the "New World". Reluctantly, Bell also had to conclude a relationship with Marie Eccleston, who, as he had surmised, was not prepared to leave England with him.
How old was Bell when he went to Canada?
56df828c5ca0a614008f9bd1
23
16
False
What boat did Bell travel on?
56df828c5ca0a614008f9bd2
SS Nestorian
109
False
In what Canadian city did Bell first arrive?
56df828c5ca0a614008f9bd3
Quebec City
150
False
What city did Bell arrive at by train?
56df828c5ca0a614008f9bd4
Paris
243
False
How many acres was the farm the Bell's bought in Canada?
56df828c5ca0a614008f9bd5
10.5
396
False
In 1870, at age 23, Bell, his brother's widow, Caroline (Margaret Ottaway), and his parents travelled on the SS Nestorian to Canada. After landing at Quebec City the Bells transferred to another steamer to Montreal and then boarded a train to Paris, Ontario, to stay with the Reverend Thomas Henderson, a family friend. After a brief stay with the Hendersons, the Bell family purchased a farm of 10.5 acres (42,000 m2) at Tutelo Heights (now called Tutela Heights), near Brantford, Ontario. The property consisted of an orchard, large farm house, stable, pigsty, hen-house, and a carriage house, which bordered the Grand River.[N 9]
What building did Bell use as a workshop?
56df836e5ca0a614008f9beb
carriage house
64
False
What did Bell call his special spot in the back of the property?
56df836e5ca0a614008f9bec
dreaming place
107
False
What Native American language did Bell learn?
56df836e5ca0a614008f9bed
Mohawk
483
False
What special status did Bell get in the Mohawk tribe?
56df836e5ca0a614008f9bee
Honorary Chief
612
False
Where was the Six Nations Reserve located?
56df836e5ca0a614008f9bef
Onondaga
458
False
At the homestead, Bell set up his own workshop in the converted carriage house near to what he called his "dreaming place", a large hollow nestled in trees at the back of the property above the river. Despite his frail condition upon arriving in Canada, Bell found the climate and environs to his liking, and rapidly improved.[N 10] He continued his interest in the study of the human voice and when he discovered the Six Nations Reserve across the river at Onondaga, he learned the Mohawk language and translated its unwritten vocabulary into Visible Speech symbols. For his work, Bell was awarded the title of Honorary Chief and participated in a ceremony where he donned a Mohawk headdress and danced traditional dances.[N 11]
What did Bell rework to send music?
56df83c756340a1900b29cba
melodeon
131
False
What is a melodeon a kind of?
56df83c756340a1900b29cbb
pump organ
151
False
When did Bell go to Montreal?
56df83c756340a1900b29cbc
1871
337
False
Who went with Bell to Montreal?
56df83c756340a1900b29cbd
father
279
False
How did Bell's reworked melodeon send music?
56df83c756340a1900b29cbe
electrically
199
False
After setting up his workshop, Bell continued experiments based on Helmholtz's work with electricity and sound. He also modified a melodeon (a type of pump organ) so that it could transmit its music electrically over a distance. Once the family was settled in, both Bell and his father made plans to establish a teaching practice and in 1871, he accompanied his father to Montreal, where Melville was offered a position to teach his System of Visible Speech.
Who ran the Boston School for Deaf Mutes?
56df84d756340a1900b29cd2
Sarah Fuller
29
False
What name does the Boston School for Deaf Mutes go by now?
56df84d756340a1900b29cd3
the public Horace Mann School for the Deaf
115
False
What month did Bell go to Boston?
56df84d756340a1900b29cd4
April
342
False
Bell trained who in Boston?
56df84d756340a1900b29cd5
instructors
260
False
What city was the American Asylum in?
56df84d756340a1900b29cd6
Hartford
504
False
Bell's father was invited by Sarah Fuller, principal of the Boston School for Deaf Mutes (which continues today as the public Horace Mann School for the Deaf), in Boston, Massachusetts, to introduce the Visible Speech System by providing training for Fuller's instructors, but he declined the post in favor of his son. Traveling to Boston in April 1871, Bell proved successful in training the school's instructors. He was subsequently asked to repeat the program at the American Asylum for Deaf-mutes in Hartford, Connecticut, and the Clarke School for the Deaf in Northampton, Massachusetts.
How many wires did Bell send a signal through?
56df85525ca0a614008f9bfe
1
117
False
For  his system to work, Bell had to change what about each code?
56df85525ca0a614008f9bff
pitch
258
False
Bell needed to fix both the transmitter and what?
56df85525ca0a614008f9c00
receiver
302
False
Where was Bell's home?
56df85525ca0a614008f9c01
Brantford
18
False
Returning home to Brantford after six months abroad, Bell continued his experiments with his "harmonic telegraph".[N 12] The basic concept behind his device was that messages could be sent through a single wire if each message was transmitted at a different pitch, but work on both the transmitter and receiver was needed.
What city did Bell decide to return to?
56df860a56340a1900b29ce0
Boston
114
False
In what year did Bell open his own school?
56df860a56340a1900b29ce2
1872
335
False
How many people were in Bell's first class?
56df860a56340a1900b29ce3
30
509
False
Which of Bell's students is the most well known?
56df860a56340a1900b29ce4
Helen Keller
597
False
Unsure of his future, he first contemplated returning to London to complete his studies, but decided to return to Boston as a teacher. His father helped him set up his private practice by contacting Gardiner Greene Hubbard, the president of the Clarke School for the Deaf for a recommendation. Teaching his father's system, in October 1872, Alexander Bell opened his "School of Vocal Physiology and Mechanics of Speech" in Boston, which attracted a large number of deaf pupils, with his first class numbering 30 students. While he was working as a private tutor, one of his most famous pupils was Helen Keller, who came to him as a young child unable to see, hear, or speak. She was later to say that Bell dedicated his life to the penetration of that "inhuman silence which separates and estranges." In 1893, Keller performed the sod-breaking ceremony for the construction of the new Bell's new Volta Bureau, dedicated to "the increase and diffusion of knowledge relating to the deaf".
Bell's goal was to instruct the deaf to speak and not use what?
56df86c056340a1900b29cf4
sign language
217
False
What would happen so some children's hands in schools?
56df86c056340a1900b29cf5
tied behind their backs
412
False
In what light to many pro-deaf people see Bell?
56df86c056340a1900b29cf6
negative
649
False
What was the only language many deaf people had?
56df86c056340a1900b29cf7
signing
469
False
Several influential people of the time, including Bell, viewed deafness as something that should be eradicated, and also believed that with resources and effort they could teach the deaf to speak and avoid the use of sign language, thus enabling their integration within the wider society from which many were often being excluded. In several schools, children were mistreated, for example by having their hands tied behind their backs so they could not communicate by signing—the only language they knew—in an attempt to force them to attempt oral communication. Owing to his efforts to suppress the teaching of sign language, Bell is often viewed negatively by those embracing Deaf culture.
With what school did Bell get his next teaching job?
56df875256340a1900b29d00
Boston University School of Oratory.
86
False
What was Bell's discipline?
56df875256340a1900b29d01
Vocal Physiology and Elocution
48
False
What did Bell do late at night?
56df875256340a1900b29d02
experiments
498
False
What health condition did Bell start to have?
56df875256340a1900b29d03
headaches
1080
False
In what year did Bell start to focus on research into sound?
56df875256340a1900b29d04
1873
1119
False
In the following year, Bell became professor of Vocal Physiology and Elocution at the Boston University School of Oratory. During this period, he alternated between Boston and Brantford, spending summers in his Canadian home. At Boston University, Bell was "swept up" by the excitement engendered by the many scientists and inventors residing in the city. He continued his research in sound and endeavored to find a way to transmit musical notes and articulate speech, but although absorbed by his experiments, he found it difficult to devote enough time to experimentation. While days and evenings were occupied by his teaching and private classes, Bell began to stay awake late into the night, running experiment after experiment in rented facilities at his boarding house. Keeping "night owl" hours, he worried that his work would be discovered and took great pains to lock up his notebooks and laboratory equipment. Bell had a specially made table where he could place his notes and equipment inside a locking cover. Worse still, his health deteriorated as he suffered severe headaches. Returning to Boston in fall 1873, Bell made a fateful decision to concentrate on his experiments in sound.
Bell's two remaining students were "Georgie" Sanders and who?
56df880c56340a1900b29d12
Mabel Hubbard
157
False
What was Georgie's father's name?
56df880c56340a1900b29d13
Thomas Sanders
255
False
What disease made Mabel deaf?
56df880c56340a1900b29d15
scarlet fever
909
False
How old was Mabel when she became deaf?
56df880c56340a1900b29d16
15
145
False
Deciding to give up his lucrative private Boston practice, Bell retained only two students, six-year-old "Georgie" Sanders, deaf from birth, and 15-year-old Mabel Hubbard. Each pupil would play an important role in the next developments. George's father, Thomas Sanders, a wealthy businessman, offered Bell a place to stay in nearby Salem with Georgie's grandmother, complete with a room to "experiment". Although the offer was made by George's mother and followed the year-long arrangement in 1872 where her son and his nurse had moved to quarters next to Bell's boarding house, it was clear that Mr. Sanders was backing the proposal. The arrangement was for teacher and student to continue their work together, with free room and board thrown in. Mabel was a bright, attractive girl who was ten years Bell's junior, but became the object of his affection. Having lost her hearing after a near-fatal bout of scarlet fever close to her fifth birthday,[N 13] she had learned to read lips but her father, Gardiner Greene Hubbard, Bell's benefactor and personal friend, wanted her to work directly with her teacher.
On what material did the phonautograph operate?
56df890b38dc421700152018
smoked glass
357
False
What kind of reed did Bell want to play with?
56df890b38dc421700152019
metal
542
False
What did Bell believe the reeds would turn the signal into?
56df890b38dc42170015201a
sound
342
False
What instrument is a phonautograph similar to?
56df890b38dc42170015201b
pen
299
False
In what year was Bell really working on his telegraph?
56df890b38dc42170015201c
1874
3
False
By 1874, Bell's initial work on the harmonic telegraph had entered a formative stage, with progress made both at his new Boston "laboratory" (a rented facility) and at his family home in Canada a big success.[N 14] While working that summer in Brantford, Bell experimented with a "phonautograph", a pen-like machine that could draw shapes of sound waves on smoked glass by tracing their vibrations. Bell thought it might be possible to generate undulating electrical currents that corresponded to sound waves. Bell also thought that multiple metal reeds tuned to different frequencies like a harp would be able to convert the undulating currents back into sound. But he had no working model to demonstrate the feasibility of these ideas.
What business was William Orton in charge of?
56df8a214a1a83140091eb0c
Western Union
77
False
In 1874 the telegraph was known as the what of commerce?
56df8a214a1a83140091eb0d
nervous system
132
False
What was the primary motivation for not building new telegraph lines?
56df8a214a1a83140091eb0e
cost
319
False
Thomas Edison and what other scientist were already asked to work on a better telegraph?
56df8a214a1a83140091eb10
Elisha Gray
215
False
In 1874, telegraph message traffic was rapidly expanding and in the words of Western Union President William Orton, had become "the nervous system of commerce". Orton had contracted with inventors Thomas Edison and Elisha Gray to find a way to send multiple telegraph messages on each telegraph line to avoid the great cost of constructing new lines. When Bell mentioned to Gardiner Hubbard and Thomas Sanders that he was working on a method of sending multiple tones on a telegraph wire using a multi-reed device, the two wealthy patrons began to financially support Bell's experiments. Patent matters would be handled by Hubbard's patent attorney, Anthony Pollok.
Who did Bell go to see in 1875?
56df8c1e4a1a83140091eb1a
Joseph Henry
60
False
Who ran the Smithsonian in 1875?
56df8c1e4a1a83140091eb1b
Joseph Henry
60
False
What was Henry's reply to Bell's statement that he lacked information to complete his telegraph?
56df8c1e4a1a83140091eb1c
Get it!
391
False
Who did Bell meet in 1874?
56df8c1e4a1a83140091eb1d
Thomas A. Watson
642
False
What kind of business did Watson work at?
56df8c1e4a1a83140091eb1e
electrical machine
715
False
In March 1875, Bell and Pollok visited the famous scientist Joseph Henry, who was then director of the Smithsonian Institution, and asked Henry's advice on the electrical multi-reed apparatus that Bell hoped would transmit the human voice by telegraph. Henry replied that Bell had "the germ of a great invention". When Bell said that he did not have the necessary knowledge, Henry replied, "Get it!" That declaration greatly encouraged Bell to keep trying, even though he did not have the equipment needed to continue his experiments, nor the ability to create a working model of his ideas. However, a chance meeting in 1874 between Bell and Thomas A. Watson, an experienced electrical designer and mechanic at the electrical machine shop of Charles Williams, changed all that.
Who did Bell take on to work with him?
56df8ce34a1a83140091eb24
Thomas Watson
60
False
What month and day did Watson and Bell have a breakthrough?
56df8ce34a1a83140091eb25
June 2
160
False
How many reeds did Bell conclude he needed?
56df8ce34a1a83140091eb26
1
94
False
What name was given to the telephone that sort of worked?
56df8ce34a1a83140091eb27
gallows
464
False
Who gave money to Bell and Watson?
56df8ce34a1a83140091eb28
Sanders and Hubbard
28
False
With financial support from Sanders and Hubbard, Bell hired Thomas Watson as his assistant,[N 15] and the two of them experimented with acoustic telegraphy. On June 2, 1875, Watson accidentally plucked one of the reeds and Bell, at the receiving end of the wire, heard the overtones of the reed; overtones that would be necessary for transmitting speech. That demonstrated to Bell that only one reed or armature was necessary, not multiple reeds. This led to the "gallows" sound-powered telephone, which could transmit indistinct, voice-like sounds, but not clear speech.
What did Bell promise to split with his financers?
56df8d8438dc421700152034
U.S. profits
116
False
In what country other than the U.S. did Bell try to patent his telegraph?
56df8d8438dc421700152035
Britain
268
False
Which country did Bell first try to get a patent?
56df8d8438dc421700152036
Britain
268
False
Who did Bell ask to get a patent in Britain?
56df8d8438dc421700152037
George Brown
230
False
What kind of telegraph did Bell create?
56df8d8438dc421700152038
acoustic
27
False
In 1875, Bell developed an acoustic telegraph and drew up a patent application for it. Since he had agreed to share U.S. profits with his investors Gardiner Hubbard and Thomas Sanders, Bell requested that an associate in Ontario, George Brown, attempt to patent it in Britain, instructing his lawyers to apply for a patent in the U.S. only after they received word from Britain (Britain would issue patents only for discoveries not previously patented elsewhere).
What material did Elisha Gray use to convey sound?
56df8e3e38dc42170015203e
water
119
False
On what date did Gray and Bell both put in for a patent?
56df8e3e38dc42170015203f
February 14, 1876
141
False
On what day did Bell get to Washington?
56df8e3e38dc421700152040
February 26
526
False
What office in Washington did Bell and Gray visit?
56df8e3e38dc421700152041
U.S. Patent Office
189
False
What sort of machine did Bell and Gray both try to patent at the same time?
56df8e3e38dc421700152042
telephone
214
False
Meanwhile, Elisha Gray was also experimenting with acoustic telegraphy and thought of a way to transmit speech using a water transmitter. On February 14, 1876, Gray filed a caveat with the U.S. Patent Office for a telephone design that used a water transmitter. That same morning, Bell's lawyer filed Bell's application with the patent office. There is considerable debate about who arrived first and Gray later challenged the primacy of Bell's patent. Bell was in Boston on February 14 and did not arrive in Washington until February 26.
What number is Bell's patent?
56df8ed54a1a83140091eb38
174,465
14
False
On what date did Bell get his patent?
56df8ed54a1a83140091eb39
March 7, 1876
45
False
Bell's patent was for the method and what for transmitting vocal and other sounds telegraphically?
56df8ed54a1a83140091eb3a
apparatus
129
False
On what day did Bell go back to Boston?
56df8ed54a1a83140091eb3b
March 7, 1876
45
False
Bell sketched a design that looked like the work of who?
56df8ed54a1a83140091eb3c
Gray
451
False
Bell's patent 174,465, was issued to Bell on March 7, 1876, by the U.S. Patent Office. Bell's patent covered "the method of, and apparatus for, transmitting vocal or other sounds telegraphically ... by causing electrical undulations, similar in form to the vibrations of the air accompanying the said vocal or other sound" [N 16] Bell returned to Boston the same day and the next day resumed work, drawing in his notebook a diagram similar to that in Gray's patent caveat.
What kind of transmitter did Bell put in his telephone?
56df8f994a1a83140091eb47
liquid
116
False
How did Bell refer to his partner in his well known line?
56df8f994a1a83140091eb49
Mr. Watson
316
False
What did the vibrations cause to change?
56df8f994a1a83140091eb4a
electrical resistance
241
False
On March 10, 1876, three days after his patent was issued, Bell succeeded in getting his telephone to work, using a liquid transmitter similar to Gray's design. Vibration of the diaphragm caused a needle to vibrate in the water, varying the electrical resistance in the circuit. When Bell spoke the famous sentence "Mr. Watson—Come here—I want to see you" into the liquid transmitter, Watson, listening at the receiving end in an adjoining room, heard the words clearly.
Bell implemented Gray's design as a what?
56df930f38dc42170015206f
proof of concept
177
False
Bell stopped using the liquid-based method after what month?
56df930f38dc421700152070
March
344
False
Bell used his own design in all public demonstrations and what?
56df930f38dc421700152072
commercial use
481
False
Although Bell was, and still is, accused of stealing the telephone from Gray, Bell used Gray's water transmitter design only after Bell's patent had been granted, and only as a proof of concept scientific experiment, to prove to his own satisfaction that intelligible "articulate speech" (Bell's words) could be electrically transmitted. After March 1876, Bell focused on improving the electromagnetic telephone and never used Gray's liquid transmitter in public demonstrations or commercial use.
What part of the telephone was investigated by the patent officer?
56df93124a1a83140091eb62
variable resistance
33
False
When did Bell put in his prior patent?
56df93124a1a83140091eb63
February 25, 1875
459
False
What liquid did Bell use in his first application?
56df93124a1a83140091eb64
mercury
361
False
The question of priority for the variable resistance feature of the telephone was raised by the examiner before he approved Bell's patent application. He told Bell that his claim for the variable resistance feature was also described in Gray's caveat. Bell pointed to a variable resistance device in Bell's previous application in which Bell described a cup of mercury, not water. Bell had filed the mercury application at the patent office a year earlier on February 25, 1875, long before Elisha Gray described the water device. In addition, Gray abandoned his caveat, and because he did not contest Bell's priority, the examiner approved Bell's patent on March 3, 1876. Gray had reinvented the variable resistance telephone, but Bell was the first to write down the idea and the first to test it in a telephone.
Who declared himself an alcoholic?
56df93a338dc421700152078
Zenas Fisk Wilber
21
False
In what war did Wilber and Bailey fight together?
56df93a338dc421700152079
Civil War
182
False
How much did Wilber say Bell gave him in order to look at Gray's paperwork?
56df93a338dc42170015207a
$100
378
False
What did Bell only admit to knowing in a letter?
56df93a338dc42170015207b
technical details
518
False
The patent examiner, Zenas Fisk Wilber, later stated in an affidavit that he was an alcoholic who was much in debt to Bell's lawyer, Marcellus Bailey, with whom he had served in the Civil War. He claimed he showed Gray's patent caveat to Bailey. Wilber also claimed (after Bell arrived in Washington D.C. from Boston) that he showed Gray's caveat to Bell and that Bell paid him $100. Bell claimed they discussed the patent only in general terms, although in a letter to Gray, Bell admitted that he learned some of the technical details. Bell denied in an affidavit that he ever gave Wilber any money.
From what city did Bell send his first message?
56df94574a1a83140091eb74
Mount Pleasant
141
False
Bell sent messages over wires hooked onto telegraph lines and what?
56df94574a1a83140091eb77
fences
565
False
What did the group at the Bells house hear other people doing?
56df94574a1a83140091eb78
reading and singing
672
False
Continuing his experiments in Brantford, Bell brought home a working model of his telephone. On August 3, 1876, from the telegraph office in Mount Pleasant five miles (eight km) away from Brantford, Bell sent a tentative telegram indicating that he was ready. With curious onlookers packed into the office as witnesses, faint voices were heard replying. The following night, he amazed guests as well as his family when a message was received at the Bell home from Brantford, four miles (six km) distant, along an improvised wire strung up along telegraph lines and fences, and laid through a tunnel. This time, guests at the household distinctly heard people in Brantford reading and singing. These experiments clearly proved that the telephone could work over long distances.
How much did Bell et al. try to sell his patent for?
56df96344a1a83140091eb86
$100,000
101
False
Who did Bell et al. try to sell his patent to?
56df96344a1a83140091eb87
Western Union
83
False
What did the President think the telephone was, such that he refused to buy the patent?
56df96344a1a83140091eb88
a toy
196
False
How much the the President of Western Union want to pay for the patent later on?
56df96344a1a83140091eb89
$25 million
275
False
Bell and his partners, Hubbard and Sanders, offered to sell the patent outright to Western Union for $100,000. The president of Western Union balked, countering that the telephone was nothing but a toy. Two years later, he told colleagues that if he could get the patent for $25 million he would consider it a bargain. By then, the Bell company no longer wanted to sell the patent. Bell's investors would become millionaires, while he fared well from residuals and at one point had assets of nearly one million dollars.
In what city was the 1876 Centennial Exposition?
56df973238dc421700152096
Philadelphia
255
False
What important person saw the telephone at the Centennial Exposition?
56df973238dc421700152097
Emperor Pedro II
366
False
Pedro II was the Emperor of what Country?
56df973238dc421700152098
Brazil
386
False
Which Queen did Bell present his invention to?
56df973238dc42170015209a
Victoria
561
False
Bell began a series of public demonstrations and lectures to introduce the new invention to the scientific community as well as the general public. A short time later, his demonstration of an early telephone prototype at the 1876 Centennial Exposition in Philadelphia brought the telephone to international attention. Influential visitors to the exhibition included Emperor Pedro II of Brazil. Later Bell had the opportunity to demonstrate the invention personally to Sir William Thomson (later, Lord Kelvin), a renowned Scottish scientist, as well as to Queen Victoria, who had requested a private audience at Osborne House, her Isle of Wight home. She called the demonstration "most extraordinary". The enthusiasm surrounding Bell's public displays laid the groundwork for universal acceptance of the revolutionary device.
In what year was the Bell Telephone Company founded?
56df97b838dc4217001520a0
1877
42
False
How many people in the United States had a telephone by 1886?
56df97b838dc4217001520a1
150,000
71
False
In what year did Bell get some of Edison's patents?
56df97b838dc4217001520a2
1879
252
False
What addition let people stop yelling into the telephone?
56df97b838dc4217001520a3
carbon microphone
309
False
What company did Bell acquire the carbon microphone from?
56df97b838dc4217001520a4
Western Union
332
False
The Bell Telephone Company was created in 1877, and by 1886, more than 150,000 people in the U.S. owned telephones. Bell Company engineers made numerous other improvements to the telephone, which emerged as one of the most successful products ever. In 1879, the Bell company acquired Edison's patents for the carbon microphone from Western Union. This made the telephone practical for longer distances, and it was no longer necessary to shout to be heard at the receiving telephone.
In what month and year did Bell telephone across the country?
56df983d38dc4217001520aa
January 1915
3
False
What company office did Bell make the original cross country phone call from?
56df983d38dc4217001520ab
AT&T
98
False
What city did Bell make the first cross country call from?
56df983d38dc4217001520ac
New York
135
False
What city did Bell make the first cross country call to?
56df983d38dc4217001520ad
San Francisco
205
False
Who was on the other end of the first cross country phone call?
56df983d38dc4217001520ae
Thomas Watson
168
False
In January 1915, Bell made the first ceremonial transcontinental telephone call. Calling from the AT&T head office at 15 Dey Street in New York City, Bell was heard by Thomas Watson at 333 Grant Avenue in San Francisco. The New York Times reported:
During how many years did the Bell Company battle lawsuits?
56df98d938dc4217001520b4
18
177
False
How many times were Bell's patents contested?
56df98d938dc4217001520b5
587
220
False
How many of the court cases wound up at the Supreme Court?
56df98d938dc4217001520b6
5
220
False
Elisha Gray and what other man were behind many of the court cases?
56df98d938dc4217001520b8
Amos Dolbear
713
False
As is sometimes common in scientific discoveries, simultaneous developments can occur, as evidenced by a number of inventors who were at work on the telephone. Over a period of 18 years, the Bell Telephone Company faced 587 court challenges to its patents, including five that went to the U.S. Supreme Court, but none was successful in establishing priority over the original Bell patent and the Bell Telephone Company never lost a case that had proceeded to a final trial stage. Bell's laboratory notes and family letters were the key to establishing a long lineage to his experiments. The Bell company lawyers successfully fought off myriad lawsuits generated initially around the challenges by Elisha Gray and Amos Dolbear. In personal correspondence to Bell, both Gray and Dolbear had acknowledged his prior work, which considerably weakened their later claims.
In 1887 the US Government wanted to undo Bell's patent due to fraud and what?
56df9ad738dc4217001520c6
misrepresentation
110
False
The US Government lost the bid to overturn Bell's patent in what court?
56df9ad738dc4217001520c7
Supreme Court
211
False
How many years did Bell and the US Government fight in court?
56df9ad738dc4217001520c8
9
845
False
What excuse did the judges have for the trial despite the fact that the patents had expired?
56df9ad738dc4217001520c9
precedent
654
False
On what date did the US Government stop legal action?
56df9ad738dc4217001520ca
November 30, 1897
830
False
On January 13, 1887, the U,S. Government moved to annul the patent issued to Bell on the grounds of fraud and misrepresentation. After a series of decisions and reversals, the Bell company won a decision in the Supreme Court, though a couple of the original claims from the lower court cases were left undecided. By the time that the trial wound its way through nine years of legal battles, the U.S. prosecuting attorney had died and the two Bell patents (No. 174,465 dated March 7, 1876 and No. 186,787 dated January 30, 1877) were no longer in effect, although the presiding judges agreed to continue the proceedings due to the case's importance as a "precedent". With a change in administration and charges of conflict of interest (on both sides) arising from the original trial, the US Attorney General dropped the lawsuit on November 30, 1897 leaving several issues undecided on the merits.
Who claimed to have invented the in 1834?
56df9dbd4a1a83140091eb98
Antonio Meucci
63
False
How many court trials did Meucci participate in?
56df9dbd4a1a83140091eb99
3
160
False
At what company were Meucci's prototypes supposedly lost?
56df9dbd4a1a83140091eb9a
American District Telegraph (ADT)
480
False
In what year did Western Union absorb ADT?
56df9dbd4a1a83140091eb9b
1901
592
False
What event caused Meucci's trials to be dropped?
56df9dbd4a1a83140091eb9c
death
809
False
During a deposition filed for the 1887 trial, Italian inventor Antonio Meucci also claimed to have created the first working model of a telephone in Italy in 1834. In 1886, in the first of three cases in which he was involved, Meucci took the stand as a witness in the hopes of establishing his invention's priority. Meucci's evidence in this case was disputed due to a lack of material evidence for his inventions as his working models were purportedly lost at the laboratory of American District Telegraph (ADT) of New York, which was later incorporated as a subsidiary of Western Union in 1901. Meucci's work, like many other inventors of the period, was based on earlier acoustic principles and despite evidence of earlier experiments, the final case involving Meucci was eventually dropped upon Meucci's death. However, due to the efforts of Congressman Vito Fossella, the U.S. House of Representatives on June 11, 2002 stated that Meucci's "work in the invention of the telephone should be acknowledged", even though this did not put an end to a still contentious issue.[N 17] Some modern scholars do not agree with the claims that Bell's work on the telephone was influenced by Meucci's inventions.[N 18]
Because of their patent, what didn't Siemens & Halske have to give Bell?
56df9f954a1a83140091eba4
royalties
407
False
What was the home city for the International Bell Telephone Company?
56df9f954a1a83140091eba5
Brussels
483
False
In what year was the International Bell Telephone Company founded?
56df9f954a1a83140091eba6
1880
504
False
The value of the Bell patent was acknowledged throughout the world, and patent applications were made in most major countries, but when Bell had delayed the German patent application, the electrical firm of Siemens & Halske (S&H) managed to set up a rival manufacturer of Bell telephones under their own patent. The Siemens company produced near-identical copies of the Bell telephone without having to pay royalties. The establishment of the International Bell Telephone Company in Brussels, Belgium in 1880, as well as a series of agreements in other countries eventually consolidated a global telephone operation. The strain put on Bell by his constant appearances in court, necessitated by the legal battles, eventually resulted in his resignation from the company.[N 19]
Who did Bell marry in 1877?
56dfa0414a1a83140091ebac
Mabel Hubbard
92
False
How many children did Bell and Mabel have?
56dfa0414a1a83140091ebad
4
221
False
Where did Bell and his wife go on their honeymoon?
56dfa0414a1a83140091ebae
Europe
360
False
Before 1897, what did Bell get most of his money from?
56dfa0414a1a83140091ebb0
lectures
736
False
On July 11, 1877, a few days after the Bell Telephone Company was established, Bell married Mabel Hubbard (1857–1923) at the Hubbard estate in Cambridge, Massachusetts. His wedding present to his bride was to turn over 1,487 of his 1,497 shares in the newly formed Bell Telephone Company. Shortly thereafter, the newlyweds embarked on a year-long honeymoon in Europe. During that excursion, Bell took a handmade model of his telephone with him, making it a "working holiday". The courtship had begun years earlier; however, Bell waited until he was more financially secure before marrying. Although the telephone appeared to be an "instant" success, it was not initially a profitable venture and Bell's main sources of income were from lectures until after 1897. One unusual request exacted by his fiancée was that he use "Alec" rather than the family's earlier familiar name of "Aleck". From 1876, he would sign his name "Alec Bell". They had four children:
In what year did Mabel's father move to Washington D.C.?
56dfa0c238dc421700152130
1880
60
False
In what year did Bell acquire a house in D.C.?
56dfa0c238dc421700152131
1882
140
False
Where did Bell and Mabel live before 1880?
56dfa0c238dc421700152133
Cambridge, Massachusetts
28
False
What did Bell have to go to court for in D.C.?
56dfa0c238dc421700152134
patent disputes
282
False
The Bell family home was in Cambridge, Massachusetts, until 1880 when Bell's father-in-law bought a house in Washington, D.C., and later in 1882 bought a home in the same city for Bell's family, so that they could be with him while he attended to the numerous court cases involving patent disputes.
In what year did Bell officially become an American?
56dfa18f4a1a83140091ebca
1882
91
False
What was Bell's original nationality?
56dfa18f4a1a83140091ebcb
British
11
False
Besides the US and UK, what other country claims Bell as a citizen?
56dfa18f4a1a83140091ebcd
Canada
78
False
What does Bell call people who are citizens of two countries?
56dfa18f4a1a83140091ebce
hyphenated
220
False
Bell was a British subject throughout his early life in Scotland and later in Canada until 1882, when he became a naturalized citizen of the United States. In 1915, he characterized his status as: "I am not one of those hyphenated Americans who claim allegiance to two countries." Despite this declaration, Bell has been proudly claimed as a "native son" by all three countries he resided in: the United States, Canada, and the United Kingdom.
What Island in Nova Scotia did the Bells go to in 1885?
56dfa2804a1a83140091ebe8
Breton Island
94
False
In 1886, what lake did Bell start building a house near?
56dfa2804a1a83140091ebe9
Bras d'Or
266
False
What did the Bells call the house completed in 1889?
56dfa2804a1a83140091ebea
The Lodge
317
False
How many people worked for the Bell Boatyard?
56dfa2804a1a83140091ebec
40
615
False
By 1885, a new summer retreat was contemplated. That summer, the Bells had a vacation on Cape Breton Island in Nova Scotia, spending time at the small village of Baddeck. Returning in 1886, Bell started building an estate on a point across from Baddeck, overlooking Bras d'Or Lake. By 1889, a large house, christened The Lodge was completed and two years later, a larger complex of buildings, including a new laboratory, were begun that the Bells would name Beinn Bhreagh (Gaelic: beautiful mountain) after Bell's ancestral Scottish highlands.[N 21] Bell also built the Bell Boatyard on the estate, employing up to 40 people building experimental craft as well as wartime lifeboats and workboats for the Royal Canadian Navy and pleasure craft for the Bell family. An enthusiastic boater, Bell and his family sailed or rowed a long series of vessels on Bras d'Or Lake, ordering additional vessels from the H.W. Embree and Sons boatyard in Port Hawkesbury, Nova Scotia. In his final, and some of his most productive years, Bell split his residency between Washington, D.C., where he and his family initially resided for most of the year, and at Beinn Bhreagh where they spent increasing amounts of time.
Where did the Bells live when the Halifax Explosion happened?
56dfa545231d4119001abc3d
Beinn Bhreagh
90
False
On what day did the Halifax Explosion happen?
56dfa545231d4119001abc3e
December 6, 1917
454
False
Which of their two homes did the Bells start spending more time as Bell aged?
56dfa545231d4119001abc3f
Beinn Bhreagh
90
False
What city adopted the Bells?
56dfa545231d4119001abc40
Baddeck
289
False
What did the Bells do to help the victims in Halifax?
56dfa545231d4119001abc41
mobilized the community
487
False
Until the end of his life, Bell and his family would alternate between the two homes, but Beinn Bhreagh would, over the next 30 years, become more than a summer home as Bell became so absorbed in his experiments that his annual stays lengthened. Both Mabel and Bell became immersed in the Baddeck community and were accepted by the villagers as "their own".[N 22] The Bells were still in residence at Beinn Bhreagh when the Halifax Explosion occurred on December 6, 1917. Mabel and Bell mobilized the community to help victims in Halifax.
What series of books does Gray say Bell would go to sleep reading?
56dfa5ca7aa994140058df86
Encyclopædia Britannica
296
False
How many solo patents did Bell get?
56dfa5ca7aa994140058df87
18
432
False
How many patents did Bell co-author?
56dfa5ca7aa994140058df88
12
477
False
Although Alexander Graham Bell is most often associated with the invention of the telephone, his interests were extremely varied. According to one of his biographers, Charlotte Gray, Bell's work ranged "unfettered across the scientific landscape" and he often went to bed voraciously reading the Encyclopædia Britannica, scouring it for new areas of interest. The range of Bell's inventive genius is represented only in part by the 18 patents granted in his name alone and the 12 he shared with his collaborators. These included 14 for the telephone and telegraph, four for the photophone, one for the phonograph, five for aerial vehicles, four for "hydroairplanes" and two for selenium cells. Bell's inventions spanned a wide range of interests and included a metal jacket to assist in breathing, the audiometer to detect minor hearing problems, a device to locate icebergs, investigations on how to separate salt from seawater, and work on finding alternative fuels.
What famous lab did Bell spend time working for?
56dfa6747aa994140058df8f
Volta
112
False
What type of energy did Bell investigate at the Volta Laboratory?
56dfa6747aa994140058df90
magnetic
185
False
The magnetic field is part of what sort of recorder?
56dfa6747aa994140058df91
tape recorder
472
False
Bell worked extensively in medical research and invented techniques for teaching speech to the deaf. During his Volta Laboratory period, Bell and his associates considered impressing a magnetic field on a record as a means of reproducing sound. Although the trio briefly experimented with the concept, they could not develop a workable prototype. They abandoned the idea, never realizing they had glimpsed a basic principle which would one day find its application in the tape recorder, the hard disc and floppy disc drive and other magnetic media.
What form of water played a part in Bell's home cooling system?
56dfa7277aa994140058df9f
ice
117
False
What did Bell think could be collected from farm and factory byproduct?
56dfa7277aa994140058dfa0
Methane gas
204
False
What kind of toilet did Bell work on?
56dfa7277aa994140058dfa1
composting
347
False
Right before his death, what kind of energy did he speculate about?
56dfa7277aa994140058dfa2
solar
517
False
Bell's own home used a primitive form of air conditioning, in which fans blew currents of air across great blocks of ice. He also anticipated modern concerns with fuel shortages and industrial pollution. Methane gas, he reasoned, could be produced from the waste of farms and factories. At his Canadian estate in Nova Scotia, he experimented with composting toilets and devices to capture water from the atmosphere. In a magazine interview published shortly before his death, he reflected on the possibility of using solar panels to heat houses.
What did Bell call his cord-free phone?
56dfae017aa994140058dfd1
photophone
93
False
Who did Bell invent the cord-free phone with?
56dfae017aa994140058dfd2
Charles Sumner Tainter
23
False
What did Bell's cord-free phone use to transmit messages?
56dfae017aa994140058dfd3
light
199
False
What lab association did Bell and Tainter both eventually join?
56dfae017aa994140058dfd4
Volta Laboratory Association
251
False
In the photophone, light carried sound and what?
56dfae017aa994140058dfd5
normal human conversations
159
False
Bell and his assistant Charles Sumner Tainter jointly invented a wireless telephone, named a photophone, which allowed for the transmission of both sounds and normal human conversations on a beam of light. Both men later became full associates in the Volta Laboratory Association.
Bell and his assistant first used their photophone on what date?
56dfae9c7aa994140058dfdb
June 21, 1880
3
False
How many feet did the first photophone message travel?
56dfae9c7aa994140058dfdc
700
223
False
From what building was the first photophone message sent?
56dfae9c7aa994140058dfde
Franklin School
128
False
How many years after this photophone message would the first message take place over radio?
56dfae9c7aa994140058dfdf
19
237
False
On June 21, 1880, Bell's assistant transmitted a wireless voice telephone message a considerable distance, from the roof of the Franklin School in Washington, D.C., to Bell at the window of his laboratory, some 213 metres (700 ft) away, 19 years before the first voice radio transmissions.
What did Bell call the best thing he ever made?
56dfafa2231d4119001abc6f
The photophone
223
False
Bell thought the photophone was better than what famous invention?
56dfafa2231d4119001abc70
telephone
211
False
What modern technology takes the next step from the photophone?
56dfafa2231d4119001abc71
fiber-optic communication
261
False
When was fiber-optics first patented?
56dfafa2231d4119001abc72
1880
389
False
In what decade did fiber-optics become widely used?
56dfafa2231d4119001abc73
1980s
341
False
Bell believed the photophone's principles were his life's "greatest achievement", telling a reporter shortly before his death that the photophone was "the greatest invention [I have] ever made, greater than the telephone". The photophone was a precursor to the fiber-optic communication systems which achieved popular worldwide usage in the 1980s. Its master patent was issued in December 1880, many decades before the photophone's principles came into popular use.
What did Bell create in 1881?
56dfb0e97aa994140058dfe5
metal detector
69
False
What was in James Garfield that they wanted to get out?
56dfb0e97aa994140058dfe6
bullet
155
False
What did Bell think was wrong with the bed, which prevented his machine from finding the bullet?
56dfb0e97aa994140058dfe7
metal bed frame
340
False
On which run did Bell's metal detector give a small indication?
56dfb0e97aa994140058dfe8
first
646
False
When did Bell's metal detector work well?
56dfb0e97aa994140058dfe9
in tests
273
False
Bell is also credited with developing one of the early versions of a metal detector in 1881. The device was quickly put together in an attempt to find the bullet in the body of U.S. President James Garfield. According to some accounts, the metal detector worked flawlessly in tests but did not find the assassin's bullet partly because the metal bed frame on which the President was lying disturbed the instrument, resulting in static. The president's surgeons, who were skeptical of the device, ignored Bell's requests to move the president to a bed not fitted with metal springs. Alternatively, although Bell had detected a slight sound on his first test, the bullet may have been lodged too deeply to be detected by the crude apparatus.
Bell gave his story about trying to find the bullet to the American Association for the Advancement of what?
56dfb3687aa994140058dfef
Science
90
False
Where did Bell go the day after trying to find the bullet?
56dfb3687aa994140058dff0
Executive Mansion
411
False
What kind of mattress was the President directly on?
56dfb3687aa994140058dff1
horse-hair
622
False
Where did Bell indicate that the bullet was too deep for his machine to register?
56dfb3687aa994140058dff3
footnote
1062
False
Bell's own detailed account, presented to the American Association for the Advancement of Science in 1882, differs in several particulars from most of the many and varied versions now in circulation, most notably by concluding that extraneous metal was not to blame for failure to locate the bullet. Perplexed by the peculiar results he had obtained during an examination of Garfield, Bell "...proceeded to the Executive Mansion the next morning...to ascertain from the surgeons whether they were perfectly sure that all metal had been removed from the neighborhood of the bed. It was then recollected that underneath the horse-hair mattress on which the President lay was another mattress composed of steel wires. Upon obtaining a duplicate, the mattress was found to consist of a sort of net of woven steel wires, with large meshes. The extent of the [area that produced a response from the detector] having been so small, as compared with the area of the bed, it seemed reasonable to conclude that the steel mattress had produced no detrimental effect." In a footnote, Bell adds that "The death of President Garfield and the subsequent post-mortem examination, however, proved that the bullet was at too great a distance from the surface to have affected our apparatus."
Who wrote the paper laying out hydrofoils and hydroplanes?
56dfb42e7aa994140058dff9
William E. Meacham
63
False
What nationality was Meacham?
56dfb42e7aa994140058dffa
American
26
False
What did Bell start drawing after reading the article?
56dfb42e7aa994140058dffb
hydrofoil boat
324
False
Who helped Bell investigate hydrofoils in 1908?
56dfb42e7aa994140058dffc
Frederick W. "Casey" Baldwin
359
False
Which Italian scientist did Baldwin draw inspiration from?
56dfb42e7aa994140058dffd
Enrico Forlanini
541
False
The March 1906 Scientific American article by American pioneer William E. Meacham explained the basic principle of hydrofoils and hydroplanes. Bell considered the invention of the hydroplane as a very significant achievement. Based on information gained from that article he began to sketch concepts of what is now called a hydrofoil boat. Bell and assistant Frederick W. "Casey" Baldwin began hydrofoil experimentation in the summer of 1908 as a possible aid to airplane takeoff from water. Baldwin studied the work of the Italian inventor Enrico Forlanini and began testing models. This led him and Bell to the development of practical hydrofoil watercraft.
In what country did Baldwin and Forlanini get together?
56dfb4e37aa994140058e017
France
73
False
What did Baldwin liken the hydrofoil boat to?
56dfb4e37aa994140058e018
flying
191
False
Which boat was first powered by a Renault engine?
56dfb4e37aa994140058e019
HD-4
473
False
During his world tour of 1910–11, Bell and Baldwin met with Forlanini in France. They had rides in the Forlanini hydrofoil boat over Lake Maggiore. Baldwin described it as being as smooth as flying. On returning to Baddeck, a number of initial concepts were built as experimental models, including the Dhonnas Beag, the first self-propelled Bell-Baldwin hydrofoil. The experimental boats were essentially proof-of-concept prototypes that culminated in the more substantial HD-4, powered by Renault engines. A top speed of 54 miles per hour (87 km/h) was achieved, with the hydrofoil exhibiting rapid acceleration, good stability and steering along with the ability to take waves without difficulty. In 1913, Dr. Bell hired Walter Pinaud, a Sydney yacht designer and builder as well as the proprietor of Pinaud's Yacht Yard in Westmount, Nova Scotia to work on the pontoons of the HD-4. Pinaud soon took over the boatyard at Bell Laboratories on Beinn Bhreagh, Bell's estate near Baddeck, Nova Scotia. Pinaud's experience in boat-building enabled him to make useful design changes to the HD-4. After the First World War, work began again on the HD-4. Bell's report to the U.S. Navy permitted him to obtain two 350 horsepower (260 kilowatts) engines in July 1919. On September 9, 1919, the HD-4 set a world marine speed record of 70.86 miles per hour (114.04 kilometres per hour), a record which stood for ten years.
What color silk covered Bell's kites?
56dfb5977aa994140058e02b
maroon
126
False
Who was on Cygnet I when it crashed?
56dfb5977aa994140058e02c
Selfridge
283
False
Bell's kits were flown from 1907 to what year?
56dfb5977aa994140058e02d
1912
318
False
How many tetrahedral wings did Bell create?
56dfb5977aa994140058e02e
3
142
False
Some of the kites remain at what National Historic Site?
56dfb5977aa994140058e02f
Alexander Graham Bell
367
False
In 1898, Bell experimented with tetrahedral box kites and wings constructed of multiple compound tetrahedral kites covered in maroon silk.[N 23] The tetrahedral wings were named Cygnet I, II and III, and were flown both unmanned and manned (Cygnet I crashed during a flight carrying Selfridge) in the period from 1907–1912. Some of Bell's kites are on display at the Alexander Graham Bell National Historic Site.
What organization did Bell set up due to his interest in aerospace?
56dfb6917aa994140058e049
Aerial Experiment Association
67
False
When was the AEA founded?
56dfb6917aa994140058e04a
1907
158
False
Which original member of the AEA held motorcycle speed records?
56dfb6917aa994140058e04c
Glenn H. Curtiss
355
False
Which branch of the military was Lieutenant Thomas Selfridge in?
56dfb6917aa994140058e04d
army
840
False
Bell was a supporter of aerospace engineering research through the Aerial Experiment Association (AEA), officially formed at Baddeck, Nova Scotia, in October 1907 at the suggestion of his wife Mabel and with her financial support after the sale of some of her real estate. The AEA was headed by Bell and the founding members were four young men: American Glenn H. Curtiss, a motorcycle manufacturer at the time and who held the title "world's fastest man", having ridden his self-constructed motor bicycle around in the shortest time, and who was later awarded the Scientific American Trophy for the first official one-kilometre flight in the Western hemisphere, and who later became a world-renowned airplane manufacturer; Lieutenant Thomas Selfridge, an official observer from the U.S. Federal government and one of the few people in the army who believed that aviation was the future; Frederick W. Baldwin, the first Canadian and first British subject to pilot a public flight in Hammondsport, New York, and J.A.D. McCurdy —Baldwin and McCurdy being new engineering graduates from the University of Toronto.
What did the AEA work on after kites?
56dfb726231d4119001abcd3
gliders
93
False
What material was the Red Wing's frame made of?
56dfb726231d4119001abcd4
bamboo
184
False
What kind of plane was the Red Wing?
56dfb726231d4119001abcd5
biplane
297
False
How many accident-free flights had the AEA taken by 1909?
56dfb726231d4119001abcd6
150
760
False
Who was the first person to die in a plane crash?
56dfb726231d4119001abcd7
Selfridge
946
False
The AEA's work progressed to heavier-than-air machines, applying their knowledge of kites to gliders. Moving to Hammondsport, the group then designed and built the Red Wing, framed in bamboo and covered in red silk and powered by a small air-cooled engine. On March 12, 1908, over Keuka Lake, the biplane lifted off on the first public flight in North America.[N 24] [N 25] The innovations that were incorporated into this design included a cockpit enclosure and tail rudder (later variations on the original design would add ailerons as a means of control). One of the AEA's inventions, a practical wingtip form of the aileron, was to become a standard component on all aircraft. [N 26] The White Wing and June Bug were to follow and by the end of 1908, over 150 flights without mishap had been accomplished. However, the AEA had depleted its initial reserves and only a $15,000 grant from Mrs. Bell allowed it to continue with experiments. Lt. Selfridge had also become the first person killed in a powered heavier-than-air flight in a crash of the Wright Flyer at Fort Myer, Virginia, on September 17, 1908.
What did the AEA name their last plane?
56dfb7b6231d4119001abce7
Silver Dart
33
False
Who was the first to fly the Silver Dart?
56dfb7b6231d4119001abce8
J.A.D. McCurdy
177
False
What professional did Bell make sure was present during the first Silver Dart flight?
56dfb7b6231d4119001abce9
a doctor
340
False
What business did Baldwin and McCurdy start after the AEA folded?
56dfb7b6231d4119001abcea
Canadian Aerodrome Company
480
False
On what month and day did the Silver Dart take its first flight?
56dfb7b6231d4119001abceb
February 23
113
False
Their final aircraft design, the Silver Dart, embodied all of the advancements found in the earlier machines. On February 23, 1909, Bell was present as the Silver Dart flown by J.A.D. McCurdy from the frozen ice of Bras d'Or, made the first aircraft flight in Canada. Bell had worried that the flight was too dangerous and had arranged for a doctor to be on hand. With the successful flight, the AEA disbanded and the Silver Dart would revert to Baldwin and McCurdy who began the Canadian Aerodrome Company and would later demonstrate the aircraft to the Canadian Army.
What kind of parents did Bell state were more prone to having deaf children?
56dfb8f2231d4119001abcfb
congenitally deaf parents
226
False
In 1921 the American Museum of Natural History hosted what event?
56dfb8f2231d4119001abcfd
Second International Congress of Eugenics
876
False
Which biologist ran the Committee on Eugenics?
56dfb8f2231d4119001abcfe
David Starr
470
False
What did Bell like to do that led to his involvement with eugenics?
56dfb8f2231d4119001abcff
livestock breeding
409
False
Bell was connected with the eugenics movement in the United States. In his lecture Memoir upon the formation of a deaf variety of the human race presented to the National Academy of Sciences on November 13, 1883 he noted that congenitally deaf parents were more likely to produce deaf children and tentatively suggested that couples where both parties were deaf should not marry. However, it was his hobby of livestock breeding which led to his appointment to biologist David Starr Jordan's Committee on Eugenics, under the auspices of the American Breeders' Association. The committee unequivocally extended the principle to man. From 1912 until 1918 he was the chairman of the board of scientific advisers to the Eugenics Record Office associated with Cold Spring Harbor Laboratory in New York, and regularly attended meetings. In 1921, he was the honorary president of the Second International Congress of Eugenics held under the auspices of the American Museum of Natural History in New York. Organisations such as these advocated passing laws (with success in some states) that established the compulsory sterilization of people deemed to be, as Bell called them, a "defective variety of the human race." By the late 1930s, about half the states in the U.S. had eugenics laws, and California's compulsory sterilization law was used as a model for that of Nazi Germany.
What are Bell's personal papers known as?
56dfb9b87aa994140058e08d
Alexander Graham Bell Family Papers
179
False
In what part of the Library of Congress are Bell's papers kept?
56dfb9b87aa994140058e08e
Manuscript Division
151
False
Apart from in person, how can one look at many of Bell's papers?
56dfb9b87aa994140058e08f
online
340
False
In what university is the Alexander Graham Bell Institute?
56dfb9b87aa994140058e090
Cape Breton University
261
False
In what province is the Alexander Graham Bell Institute located?
56dfb9b87aa994140058e091
Nova Scotia
285
False
A large number of Bell's writings, personal correspondence, notebooks, papers and other documents reside at both the United States Library of Congress Manuscript Division (as the Alexander Graham Bell Family Papers), and at the Alexander Graham Bell Institute, Cape Breton University, Nova Scotia; major portions of which are available for online viewing.
Adjusted for inflation, how many dollars were awarded to Bell alongside the Volta Prize?
56dfbab97aa994140058e0ab
$250,000
86
False
Victor Hugo and what other author helped judge the Volta Prize in 1880?
56dfbab97aa994140058e0ac
Alexandre Dumas
268
False
Who first established the Volta Prize?
56dfbab97aa994140058e0ad
Napoleon Bonaparte
318
False
The Volta lab improved the phonograph by replacing tinfoil with what substance?
56dfbab97aa994140058e0ae
wax
1095
False
Which Bell-founded institution still operates in Georgetown today?
56dfbab97aa994140058e0af
Volta Bureau
822
False
In 1880, Bell received the Volta Prize with a purse of 50,000 francs (approximately US$250,000 in today's dollars) for the invention of the telephone from the Académie française, representing the French government. Among the luminaries who judged were Victor Hugo and Alexandre Dumas. The Volta Prize was conceived by Napoleon Bonaparte in 1801, and named in honor of Alessandro Volta, with Bell receiving the third grand prize in its history. Since Bell was becoming increasingly affluent, he used his prize money to create endowment funds (the 'Volta Fund') and institutions in and around the United States capital of Washington, D.C.. These included the prestigious 'Volta Laboratory Association' (1880), also known as the Volta Laboratory and as the 'Alexander Graham Bell Laboratory', and which eventually led to the Volta Bureau (1887) as a center for studies on deafness which is still in operation in Georgetown, Washington, D.C. The Volta Laboratory became an experimental facility devoted to scientific discovery, and the very next year it improved Edison's phonograph by substituting wax for tinfoil as the recording medium and incising the recording rather than indenting it, key upgrades that Edison himself later adopted. The laboratory was also the site where he and his associate invented his "proudest achievement", "the photophone", the "optical telephone" which presaged fibre optical telecommunications, while the Volta Bureau would later evolve into the Alexander Graham Bell Association for the Deaf and Hard of Hearing (the AG Bell), a leading center for the research and pedagogy of deafness.
What magazine did Bell found alongside Hubbard?
56dfc1cc7aa994140058e135
Science
83
False
When did Bell cease to be President of the National Geographic Society?
56dfc1cc7aa994140058e136
1903
215
False
What enduring feature of National Geographic did Bell help implement?
56dfc1cc7aa994140058e137
illustrations
276
False
What award did Bell win in 1902?
56dfc1cc7aa994140058e138
Albert Medal
548
False
In partnership with Gardiner Greene Hubbard, Bell helped establish the publication Science during the early 1880s. In 1898, Bell was elected as the second president of the National Geographic Society, serving until 1903, and was primarily responsible for the extensive use of illustrations, including photography, in the magazine. he also became a Regent of the Smithsonian Institution (1898–1922). The French government conferred on him the decoration of the Légion d'honneur (Legion of Honor); the Royal Society of Arts in London awarded him the Albert Medal in 1902; the University of Würzburg, Bavaria, granted him a PhD, and he was awarded the Franklin Institute's Elliott Cresson Medal in 1912. He was one of the founders of the American Institute of Electrical Engineers in 1884, and served as its president from 1891–92. Bell was later awarded the AIEE's Edison Medal in 1914 "For meritorious achievement in the invention of the telephone".
What did Bell receive from many centers of post-secondary education?
56dfc2707aa994140058e149
honorary degrees
155
False
What is the most famous statue built for Bell and his creation?
56dfc2707aa994140058e14a
Bell Telephone Memorial
460
False
When was the Bell Telephone Memorial constructed?
56dfc2707aa994140058e14b
1917
564
False
In what city was the Bell Telephone Memorial constructed?
56dfc2707aa994140058e14c
Brantford
541
False
In which gardens was the Bell Telephone Memorial constructed?
56dfc2707aa994140058e14d
Alexander Graham Bell Gardens
508
False
Honors and tributes flowed to Bell in increasing numbers as his most famous invention became ubiquitous and his personal fame grew. Bell received numerous honorary degrees from colleges and universities, to the point that the requests almost became burdensome. During his life he also received dozens of major awards, medals and other tributes. These included statuary monuments to both him and the new form of communication his telephone created, notably the Bell Telephone Memorial erected in his honor in Alexander Graham Bell Gardens in Brantford, Ontario, in 1917.
In 1936, what place did Bell receive on a list of best inventors?
56dfc3097aa994140058e15d
First
226
False
What was created in Bell's image in 1940?
56dfc3097aa994140058e15e
commemorative stamp
138
False
Bell's stamp is part of which line?
56dfc3097aa994140058e15f
Famous Americans Series
196
False
On what date was the stamp officially released?
56dfc3097aa994140058e160
October 28
266
False
In which city was the stamp officially released?
56dfc3097aa994140058e161
Boston
280
False
In 1936 the US Patent Office declared Bell first on its list of the country's greatest inventors, leading to the US Post Office issuing a commemorative stamp honoring Bell in 1940 as part of its 'Famous Americans Series'. The First Day of Issue ceremony was held on October 28 in Boston, Massachusetts, the city where Bell spent considerable time on research and working with the deaf. The Bell stamp became very popular and sold out in little time. The stamp became, and remains to this day, the most valuable one of the series.
What bird is depicted on the Scottish banknote?
56dfc400231d4119001abdba
geese
477
False
What do the sheep on the Scottish banknote represent?
56dfc400231d4119001abdbb
genetics
567
False
What form of currency did Canada issue to celebrate Bell in 1997?
56dfc400231d4119001abdbc
C$100 gold coin
644
False
In what year did Canada put out a coin to commemorate the Silver Dart?
56dfc400231d4119001abdbd
2009
749
False
The 150th anniversary of Bell's birth in 1997 was marked by a special issue of commemorative £1 banknotes from the Royal Bank of Scotland. The illustrations on the reverse of the note include Bell's face in profile, his signature, and objects from Bell's life and career: users of the telephone over the ages; an audio wave signal; a diagram of a telephone receiver; geometric shapes from engineering structures; representations of sign language and the phonetic alphabet; the geese which helped him to understand flight; and the sheep which he studied to understand genetics. Additionally, the Government of Canada honored Bell in 1997 with a C$100 gold coin, in tribute also to the 150th anniversary of his birth, and with a silver dollar coin in 2009 in honor of the 100th anniversary of flight in Canada. That first flight was made by an airplane designed under Dr. Bell's tutelage, named the Silver Dart. Bell's image, and also those of his many inventions have graced paper money, coinage and postal stamps in numerous countries worldwide for many dozens of years.
In 2002, where did Bell place in a list of the Greatest Britons?
56dfc4ba231d4119001abdcd
57th
33
False
In 2004 Bell was listed in the top how many Greatest Canadians?
56dfc4ba231d4119001abdce
10
48
False
In what Scottish Hall of Fame is Bell listed?
56dfc4ba231d4119001abdcf
Scottish Science Hall of Fame
349
False
Which institution listed Bell in their Hall of Fame?
56dfc4ba231d4119001abdd0
National Library of Scotland
317
False
Alexander Graham Bell was ranked 57th among the 100 Greatest Britons (2002) in an official BBC nationwide poll, and among the Top Ten Greatest Canadians (2004), and the 100 Greatest Americans (2005). In 2006 Bell was also named as one of the 10 greatest Scottish scientists in history after having been listed in the National Library of Scotland's 'Scottish Science Hall of Fame'. Bell's name is still widely known and used as part of the names of dozens of educational institutes, corporate namesakes, street and place names around the world.
What disease contributed greatly to Bell's death?
56dfc5307aa994140058e183
diabetes
40
False
On what day and month did Bell die?
56dfc5307aa994140058e184
August 2
52
False
Who was the last person to see Bell alive?
56dfc5307aa994140058e186
Mabel
336
False
In what Province did Bell die?
56dfc5307aa994140058e187
Nova Scotia
106
False
Bell died of complications arising from diabetes on August 2, 1922, at his private estate, Beinn Bhreagh, Nova Scotia, at age 75. Bell had also been afflicted with pernicious anemia. His last view of the land he had inhabited was by moonlight on his mountain estate at 2:00 a.m.[N 29][N 30] While tending to him after his long illness, Mabel, his wife, whispered, "Don't leave me." By way of reply, Bell traced the sign for "no" in the air —and then he died.
What kind of wood was Bell's coffin made from?
56dfc5897aa994140058e18d
Beinn Bhreagh pine
33
False
What color silk was used in Bell's coffin?
56dfc5897aa994140058e18f
red
97
False
What color were attendees asked to not wear at Bell's funeral?
56dfc5897aa994140058e190
black
217
False
Which singer performed at Bell's funeral?
56dfc5897aa994140058e191
Jean MacDonald
305
False
Bell's coffin was constructed of Beinn Bhreagh pine by his laboratory staff, lined with the same red silk fabric used in his tetrahedral kite experiments. To help celebrate his life, his wife asked guests not to wear black (the traditional funeral color) while attending his service, during which soloist Jean MacDonald sang a verse of Robert Louis Stevenson's "Requiem":
Where was Bell buried?
56dfc6087aa994140058e197
atop Beinn Bhreagh mountain
37
False
Bell's living daughters were named Elsie May and what?
56dfc6087aa994140058e19a
Marian
245
False
Over how many years did Bell spend a great deal of time at Beinn Bhreagh?
56dfc6087aa994140058e19b
35
127
False
Dr. Alexander Graham Bell was buried atop Beinn Bhreagh mountain, on his estate where he had resided increasingly for the last 35 years of his life, overlooking Bras d'Or Lake. He was survived by his wife Mabel, his two daughters, Elsie May and Marian, and nine of his grandchildren.
What unit is named after Bell?
56dfc6f4231d4119001abdf1
The bel
0
False
What does the bel and decibel measure?
56dfc6f4231d4119001abdf2
sound intensity
69
False
What lab invented the term "bel."
56dfc6f4231d4119001abdf3
Bell Labs
97
False
In what field is the Alexander Graham Bell Medal given out?
56dfc6f4231d4119001abdf4
telecommunications
253
False
What was the first year the Alexander Graham Bell Medal was given out?
56dfc6f4231d4119001abdf5
1976
141
False
The bel (B) and the smaller decibel (dB) are units of measurement of sound intensity invented by Bell Labs and named after him. [N 28] Since 1976 the IEEE's Alexander Graham Bell Medal has been awarded to honor outstanding contributions in the field of telecommunications.
Pub
What is the term 'pub' short for?
56dfb4987aa994140058e003
public house
16
False
Where in the United States are pubs located?
56dfb4987aa994140058e004
New England
255
False
What continental European country has pubs?
56dfb4987aa994140058e005
Denmark
243
False
Other than the United States, where in North America are pubs located?
56dfb4987aa994140058e006
Canada
235
False
Who said that pubs are the heart of England?
56dfb4987aa994140058e007
Samuel Pepys
371
False
A pub /pʌb/, or public house is, despite its name, a private house, but is called a public house because it is licensed to sell alcohol to the general public. It is a drinking establishment in Britain, Ireland, New Zealand, Australia, Canada, Denmark and New England. In many places, especially in villages, a pub can be the focal point of the community. The writings of Samuel Pepys describe the pub as the heart of England.
What Roman businesses were analogous to modern day pubs?
56dfb4d6231d4119001abc97
taverns
48
False
What similar establishments existed in the Anglo-Saxon world?
56dfb4d6231d4119001abc98
alehouse
81
False
In what century did the tied house system develop?
56dfb4d6231d4119001abc99
19th century
148
False
The history of pubs can be traced back to Roman taverns, through the Anglo-Saxon alehouse to the development of the modern tied house system in the 19th century.
What are traditional pub windows made out of?
56dfb587231d4119001abca1
smoked or frosted glass
227
False
What are the windows of 1990s and later pubs often made of?
56dfb587231d4119001abca2
clear glass
350
False
Aside from beverages, what types of food do pubs typically offer?
56dfb587231d4119001abca3
snacks
172
False
Historically, pubs have been socially and culturally distinct from cafés, bars and German beer halls. Most pubs offer a range of beers, wines, spirits, and soft drinks and snacks. Traditionally the windows of town pubs were of smoked or frosted glass to obscure the clientele from the street but from the 1990s onwards, there has been a move towards clear glass, in keeping with brighter interiors.
What is a proper term for the licensee of the pub?
56dfb6067aa994140058e035
pub landlord
75
False
What was the pub landlord often called in Victorian times?
56dfb6067aa994140058e036
publican
99
False
What are pubs called by those who regularly visit there?
56dfb6067aa994140058e037
locals
251
False
Teams for what sport can be found congregating at pubs?
56dfb6067aa994140058e038
darts
419
False
What gaming tables can often be found in pubs?
56dfb6067aa994140058e039
pool or snooker
440
False
The owner, tenant or manager (licensee) of a pub is properly known as the "pub landlord". The term publican (in historical Roman usage a public contractor or tax farmer) has come into use since Victorian times to designate the pub landlord. Known as "locals" to regulars, pubs are typically chosen for their proximity to home or work, the availability of a particular beer, as a place to smoke (or avoid it), hosting a darts team, having a pool or snooker table, or appealing to friends.
In what decade did pubs tend to cease selling alcohol for off-premises drinking?
56dfb69b231d4119001abcc9
1970s
10
False
What was the name of the counter where pubs traditionally sold alcohol to drink at home?
56dfb69b231d4119001abcca
off-sales counter
57
False
What was a colloquial term for the off-sales counter?
56dfb69b231d4119001abccb
the jug and bottle
417
False
Along with high street chain stores and off-licenses, what stores undercut pub alcohol sales in the 1970s?
56dfb69b231d4119001abccc
supermarkets
185
False
Until the 1970s most of the larger pubs also featured an off-sales counter or attached shop for the sales of beers, wines and spirits for home consumption. In the 1970s the newly built supermarkets and high street chain stores or off-licences undercut the pub prices to such a degree that within ten years all but a handful of pubs had closed their off-sale counters, which had often been referred to colloquially as the jug and bottle.
During what historical epoch did Britons begin drinking ale?
56dfb7187aa994140058e05d
the Bronze Age
66
False
In what century did the Romans arrive in Britain?
56dfb7187aa994140058e05e
the 1st Century
147
False
What was the Latin term for the Roman inns?
56dfb7187aa994140058e05f
tabernae
240
False
In what century did the Romans leave Britain?
56dfb7187aa994140058e060
5th Century
358
False
What color bush did an Anglo-Saxon woman raise to indicate that her ale was done brewing?
56dfb7187aa994140058e061
green
527
False
The inhabitants of the British Isles have been drinking ale since the Bronze Age, but it was with the arrival of the Roman Empire in its shores in the 1st Century, and the construction of the Roman road networks that the first inns, called tabernae, in which travellers could obtain refreshment began to appear. After the departure of Roman authority in the 5th Century and the fall of the Romano-British kingdoms, the Anglo-Saxons established alehouses that grew out of domestic dwellings, the Anglo-Saxon alewife would put a green bush up on a pole to let people know her brew was ready. These alehouses quickly evolved into meeting houses for the folk to socially congregate, gossip and arrange mutual help within their communities. Herein lies the origin of the modern public house, or "Pub" as it is colloquially called in England. They rapidly spread across the Kingdom, becoming so commonplace that in 965 King Edgar decreed that there should be no more than one alehouse per village.
When did the Hostellers of London become a guild?
56dfb76e7aa994140058e067
1446
230
False
In what year did the Hostellers of London change their name to the Worshipful Company of Innholders?
56dfb76e7aa994140058e068
1514
242
False
Where did travelers early in the Middle Ages often find lodgings?
56dfb76e7aa994140058e069
monasteries
77
False
What religious activity was responsible for the growing demand for hostelries?
56dfb76e7aa994140058e06a
pilgrimages
152
False
A traveller in the early Middle Ages could obtain overnight accommodation in monasteries, but later a demand for hostelries grew with the popularity of pilgrimages and travel. The Hostellers of London were granted guild status in 1446 and in 1514 the guild became the Worshipful Company of Innholders.
Aside from lodging, what amenities are often offered at inns?
56dfb801231d4119001abcf1
food and drink
67
False
What road is an inn often located near?
56dfb801231d4119001abcf2
highway
136
False
How many thousand years ago did the Romans build their road system?
56dfb801231d4119001abcf3
two
226
False
About how old are the oldest inns in Europe?
56dfb801231d4119001abcf4
several centuries
286
False
What role did inns serve other than housing travelers?
56dfb801231d4119001abcf5
community gathering places
391
False
Inns are buildings where travellers can seek lodging and, usually, food and drink. They are typically located in the country or along a highway. In Europe, they possibly first sprang up when the Romans built a system of roads two millennia ago.[citation needed] Some inns in Europe are several centuries old. In addition to providing for the needs of travellers, inns traditionally acted as community gathering places.
What amenity does an inn offer that pubs, alehouses and taverns usually do not?
56dfb89e7aa994140058e06f
accommodation
34
False
In what nation's pubs is food often served?
56dfb89e7aa994140058e070
the UK
168
False
Along with Southwark and The Tabard, what is a notable London inn?
56dfb89e7aa994140058e071
The George
478
False
In what country is "The Welcome Inn" frequently used as a name for pubs?
56dfb89e7aa994140058e072
Scotland
856
False
Aside from human beings, what creature's needs were traditionally seen to at inns?
56dfb89e7aa994140058e073
horses
424
False
In Europe, it is the provision of accommodation, if anything, that now distinguishes inns from taverns, alehouses and pubs. The latter tend to provide alcohol (and, in the UK, soft drinks and often food), but less commonly accommodation. Inns tend to be older and grander establishments: historically they provided not only food and lodging, but also stabling and fodder for the traveller's horse(s) and on some roads fresh horses for the mail coach. Famous London inns include The George, Southwark and The Tabard. There is however no longer a formal distinction between an inn and other kinds of establishment. Many pubs use "Inn" in their name, either because they are long established former coaching inns, or to summon up a particular kind of image, or in many cases simply as a pun on the word "in", as in "The Welcome Inn", the name of many pubs in Scotland.
What is the main service of an inn, now also attainable in motels, hotels and lodges?
56dfb914231d4119001abd05
lodging
136
False
What is the main provision that pubs offer?
56dfb914231d4119001abd06
alcohol
241
False
What are customers seeking when they visit restaurants or taverns?
56dfb914231d4119001abd07
food and drink
314
False
What is a noted hotel brand throughout North America?
56dfb914231d4119001abd08
Holiday Inn
420
False
In the United States, what are operators of lodgings sometimes called?
56dfb914231d4119001abd09
innkeepers
491
False
The original services of an inn are now also available at other establishments, such as hotels, lodges, and motels, which focus more on lodging customers than on other services, although they usually provide meals; pubs, which are primarily alcohol-serving establishments; and restaurants and taverns, which serve food and drink. In North America, the lodging aspect of the word "inn" lives on in hotel brand names like Holiday Inn, and in some state laws that refer to lodging operators as innkeepers.
Along with the Inns of Chancery, in what inns did British lawyers historically conduct business?
56dfb970231d4119001abd0f
Inns of Court
4
False
In what city are the Inns of Chancery located?
56dfb970231d4119001abd10
London
42
False
Outside England, what other country does the legal system founded around the Inns of Court operate in?
56dfb970231d4119001abd11
Wales
174
False
The Inns of Court and Inns of Chancery in London started as ordinary inns where barristers met to do business, but became institutions of the legal profession in England and Wales.
What was the one ingredient of traditional English ale?
56dfb9fe231d4119001abd15
fermented malt
45
False
What country pioneered the introduction of hops for beer production?
56dfb9fe231d4119001abd16
the Netherlands
125
False
In what century was the process of using hops to produce beer introduced to England?
56dfb9fe231d4119001abd17
15th
154
False
In what century did the first independent breweries appear in England?
56dfb9fe231d4119001abd18
17th
275
False
What businesses were the dominant brewers of beer in England by the close of the 17th century?
56dfb9fe231d4119001abd19
commercial breweries
345
False
Traditional English ale was made solely from fermented malt. The practice of adding hops to produce beer was introduced from the Netherlands in the early 15th century. Alehouses would each brew their own distinctive ale, but independent breweries began to appear in the late 17th century. By the end of the century almost all beer was brewed by commercial breweries.
After what political upheaval was gin introduced to England?
56dfba5f231d4119001abd29
the Glorious Revolution
165
False
What people introduced gin to England?
56dfba5f231d4119001abd2a
the Dutch
149
False
In what year did the Glorious Revolution occur?
56dfba5f231d4119001abd2b
1688
192
False
How much more gin than beer was made in England in 1740?
56dfba5f231d4119001abd2c
six times
608
False
In 1740, what fraction of London drinking establishments were gin shops?
56dfba5f231d4119001abd2d
half
734
False
The 18th century saw a huge growth in the number of drinking establishments, primarily due to the introduction of gin. Gin was brought to England by the Dutch after the Glorious Revolution of 1688 and became very popular after the government created a market for "cuckoo grain" or "cuckoo malt" that was unfit to be used in brewing and distilling by allowing unlicensed gin and beer production, while imposing a heavy duty on all imported spirits. As thousands of gin-shops sprang up all over England, brewers fought back by increasing the number of alehouses. By 1740 the production of gin had increased to six times that of beer and because of its cheapness it became popular with the poor, leading to the so-called Gin Craze. Over half of the 15,000 drinking establishments in London were gin shops.
What artist created the engraving Beer Street and Gin Lane?
56dfbb977aa994140058e0b5
William Hogarth
174
False
What law imposed a high tax on gin shops and resulted in riots?
56dfbb977aa994140058e0b6
The Gin Act 1736
234
False
When were the Gin Act 1736 duties eliminated?
56dfbb977aa994140058e0b7
1742
384
False
What law placed gin shops under the control of local magistrates?
56dfbb977aa994140058e0b8
The Gin Act 1751
390
False
The drunkenness and lawlessness created by gin was seen to lead to ruination and degradation of the working classes. The distinction[clarification needed] was illustrated by William Hogarth in his engravings Beer Street and Gin Lane. The Gin Act 1736 imposed high taxes on retailers and led to riots in the streets. The prohibitive duty was gradually reduced and finally abolished in 1742. The Gin Act 1751 however was more successful. It forced distillers to sell only to licensed retailers and brought gin shops under the jurisdiction of local magistrates.
In what century did gin houses proliferate throughout Britain?
56dfbdc47aa994140058e0d7
19th
13
False
What book by Dickens described activities in drinking establishments?
56dfbdc47aa994140058e0d8
Sketches by Boz
302
False
Over what two-year period was Sketches by Boz written?
56dfbdc47aa994140058e0d9
1835–1836
329
False
What was another name for gin houses early in the 19th century?
56dfbdc47aa994140058e0da
"Gin Palaces"
80
False
In what British city did gin houses first appear?
56dfbdc47aa994140058e0db
London
110
False
By the early 19th century, encouraged by lower duties on gin, the gin houses or "Gin Palaces" had spread from London to most cities and towns in Britain, with most of the new establishments illegal and unlicensed. These bawdy, loud and unruly drinking dens so often described by Charles Dickens in his Sketches by Boz (published 1835–1836) increasingly came to be held as unbridled cesspits of immorality or crime and the source of much ill-health and alcoholism among the working classes.
What law allowed the existence of beer houses?
56dfbe6f231d4119001abd67
Beer Act of 1830
52
False
In what way did small beer differ from regular beer?
56dfbe6f231d4119001abd68
low alcohol content
316
False
What alcohol was regarded as evil when compared to beer?
56dfbe6f231d4119001abd69
gin
616
False
What was the intention behind the passage of the Beer Act of 1830?
56dfbe6f231d4119001abd6a
reducing public drunkenness
19
False
Under a banner of "reducing public drunkenness" the Beer Act of 1830 introduced a new lower tier of premises permitted to sell alcohol, the Beer Houses. At the time beer was viewed as harmless, nutritious and even healthy. Young children were often given what was described as small beer, which was brewed to have a low alcohol content, as the local water was often unsafe. Even the evangelical church and temperance movements of the day viewed the drinking of beer very much as a secondary evil and a normal accompaniment to a meal. The freely available beer was thus intended to wean the drinkers off the evils of gin, or so the thinking went.
What is the approximate modern value of two guineas in 1830?
56dfbeed7aa994140058e0f3
£168
128
False
What did the Beer Act allow a householder to sell from his home?
56dfbeed7aa994140058e0f4
beer or cider
149
False
On what day were beer houses closed?
56dfbeed7aa994140058e0f5
Sundays
456
False
Along with barrels, what was beer typically dispensed from?
56dfbeed7aa994140058e0f6
jugs
496
False
What was forbidden from being sold in beer houses?
56dfbeed7aa994140058e0f7
spirits and fortified wines
290
False
Under the 1830 Act any householder who paid rates could apply, with a one-off payment of two guineas (roughly equal in value to £168 today), to sell beer or cider in his home (usually the front parlour) and even to brew his own on his premises. The permission did not extend to the sale of spirits and fortified wines, and any beer house discovered selling those items was closed down and the owner heavily fined. Beer houses were not permitted to open on Sundays. The beer was usually served in jugs or dispensed directly from tapped wooden barrels on a table in the corner of the room. Often profits were so high the owners were able to buy the house next door to live in, turning every room in their former home into bars and lounges for customers.
How many beer houses opened their doors in the inaugural year of the Beer Act?
56dfbf737aa994140058e103
400
19
False
How many beer houses existed throughout Britain eight years after the passage of the Beer Act?
56dfbf737aa994140058e104
46,000
76
False
In what year were additional licensing laws introduced for beer houses?
56dfbf737aa994140058e105
1869
451
False
In the first year, 400 beer houses opened and within eight years there were 46,000 across the country, far outnumbering the combined total of long-established taverns, pubs, inns and hotels. Because it was so easy to obtain permission and the profits could be huge compared to the low cost of gaining permission, the number of beer houses was continuing to rise and in some towns nearly every other house in a street could be a beer house. Finally in 1869 the growth had to be checked by magisterial control and new licensing laws were introduced. Only then was it made harder to get a licence, and the licensing laws which operate today were formulated.
What establishments did beer houses become after buying an additional license?
56dfbfff7aa994140058e111
pubs
329
False
By the end of what century were most beer houses closed?
56dfbfff7aa994140058e112
19th
181
False
Where are purpose-built pubs typically located?
56dfbfff7aa994140058e113
corners or road junctions
551
False
What modern brewers often first began as beer houses?
56dfbfff7aa994140058e114
real ale micro-brewers
604
False
Although the new licensing laws prevented new beer houses from being created, those already in existence were allowed to continue and many did not close until nearly the end of the 19th century. A very small number remained into the 21st century. The vast majority of the beer houses applied for the new licences and became full pubs. These usually small establishments can still be identified in many towns, seemingly oddly located in the middle of otherwise terraced housing part way up a street, unlike purpose-built pubs that are usually found on corners or road junctions. Many of today's respected real ale micro-brewers in the UK started as home based Beer House brewers under the 1830 Act.
Along with The Royal Oak and The Crown, what is a traditional name for a pub?
56dfc02e7aa994140058e119
The Red Lion
74
False
What is an example of a name for a beer house?
56dfc02e7aa994140058e11a
Smith's Beer House
152
False
The beer houses tended to avoid the traditional pub names like The Crown, The Red Lion, The Royal Oak etc. and, if they did not simply name their place Smith's Beer House, they would apply topical pub names in an effort to reflect the mood of the times.
In addition to a license to sell spirits, what did tavern owners require a license to sell?
56dfc0887aa994140058e11d
ale
226
False
In what century did public drinking regulations first exist in England?
56dfc0887aa994140058e11e
17th
62
False
What party received income from the sale of public drinking house licenses?
56dfc0887aa994140058e11f
the crown
158
False
There was already regulation on public drinking spaces in the 17th and 18th centuries,[citation needed] and the income earned from licences was beneficial to the crown. Tavern owners were required to possess a licence to sell ale, and a separate licence for distilled spirits.
In what century were the operating hours of drinking establishments first limited?
56dfc0e0231d4119001abd9f
19th
13
False
In what decade were the restrictions on public drinking establishment licenses loosened?
56dfc0e0231d4119001abda0
1960s
149
False
What bodies controlled drinking establishment licensing administration as of 2005?
56dfc0e0231d4119001abda1
Local Authorities
274
False
From the mid-19th century on the opening hours of licensed premises in the UK were restricted. However licensing was gradually liberalised after the 1960s, until contested licensing applications became very rare, and the remaining administrative function was transferred to Local Authorities in 2005.
What law mandated a license from the local magistrate to sell beer?
56dfd598231d4119001abe0f
Wine and Beerhouse Act 1869
4
False
At what locations were public house licenses granted?
56dfd598231d4119001abe10
special Licensing Sessions courts
458
False
Retirees from what two professions often sought licenses for pubs?
56dfd598231d4119001abe11
ex-servicemen or ex-policemen
555
False
What were licenses called that allowed spirits to be served at temporary premises?
56dfd598231d4119001abe12
Occasional Licences
1129
False
The Wine and Beerhouse Act 1869 reintroduced the stricter controls of the previous century. The sale of beers, wines or spirits required a licence for the premises from the local magistrates. Further provisions regulated gaming, drunkenness, prostitution and undesirable conduct on licensed premises, enforceable by prosecution or more effectively by the landlord under threat of forfeiting his licence. Licences were only granted, transferred or renewed at special Licensing Sessions courts, and were limited to respectable individuals. Often these were ex-servicemen or ex-policemen; retiring to run a pub was popular amongst military officers at the end of their service. Licence conditions varied widely, according to local practice. They would specify permitted hours, which might require Sunday closing, or conversely permit all-night opening near a market. Typically they might require opening throughout the permitted hours, and the provision of food or lavatories. Once obtained, licences were jealously protected by the licensees (who were expected to be generally present, not an absentee owner or company), and even "Occasional Licences" to serve drinks at temporary premises such as fêtes would usually be granted only to existing licensees. Objections might be made by the police, rival landlords or anyone else on the grounds of infractions such as serving drunks, disorderly or dirty premises, or ignoring permitted hours.
Where can historical licensing records be examined?
56dfd601231d4119001abe17
London Metropolitan Archives centre
254
False
Along with a public house's address, licensee, and the licensee's misdemeanors, what information was kept in licensing records?
56dfd601231d4119001abe18
owner
76
False
Detailed licensing records were kept, giving the Public House, its address, owner, licensee and misdemeanours of the licensees, often going back for hundreds of years[citation needed]. Many of these records survive and can be viewed, for example, at the London Metropolitan Archives centre.
What law further restricted public houses?
56dfd68c231d4119001abe1b
the Defence of the Realm Act
35
False
In what month and year was the Defence of the Realm Act passed?
56dfd68c231d4119001abe1c
August 1914
67
False
Along with the period 6:30 pm–9:30 pm, what opening hours were acceptable under the Defence of the Realm Act?
56dfd68c231d4119001abe1d
12 noon–2:30 pm
216
False
What is an example of a county where provinces were closed for violating the Defence of the Realm Act?
56dfd68c231d4119001abe1e
Pembrokeshire
485
False
What body enforced pubs' closing hours under the Defence of the Realm Act?
56dfd68c231d4119001abe1f
the police
353
False
The restrictions were tightened by the Defence of the Realm Act of August 1914, which, along with the introduction of rationing and the censorship of the press for wartime purposes, restricted pubs' opening hours to 12 noon–2:30 pm and 6:30 pm–9:30 pm. Opening for the full licensed hours was compulsory, and closing time was equally firmly enforced by the police; a landlord might lose his licence for infractions. Pubs were closed under the Act and compensation paid, for example in Pembrokeshire.
What was the mandated closing time of pubs in Kensington in the 1960s?
56dfd73b231d4119001abe25
10:30 pm
377
False
What was the mandated closing time of pubs in Knightsbridge in the 1960s?
56dfd73b231d4119001abe26
11 pm
493
False
What is an example of an English city where breweries were run by the government?
56dfd73b231d4119001abe27
Carlisle
172
False
In what year did the State Management Scheme cease?
56dfd73b231d4119001abe28
1973
150
False
On what days were Scottish and Welsh pubs often 'dry'?
56dfd73b231d4119001abe29
Sundays
632
False
There was a special case established under the State Management Scheme where the brewery and licensed premises were bought and run by the state until 1973, most notably in Carlisle. During the 20th century elsewhere, both the licensing laws and enforcement were progressively relaxed, and there were differences between parishes; in the 1960s, at closing time in Kensington at 10:30 pm, drinkers would rush over the parish boundary to be in good time for "Last Orders" in Knightsbridge before 11 pm, a practice observed in many pubs adjoining licensing area boundaries. Some Scottish and Welsh parishes remained officially "dry" on Sundays (although often this merely required knocking at the back door of the pub). These restricted opening hours led to the tradition of lock-ins.
Circa 2000, what was the latest pubs in Wales could be open until on every day but Sunday?
56dfd7cf231d4119001abe2f
11 pm
170
False
What was the latest legal closing time on Sundays in English pubs as of 2000?
56dfd7cf231d4119001abe30
10:30 pm
177
False
How many hours per day were pubs located near Billingsgate fish market allowed to remain open?
56dfd7cf231d4119001abe31
24
637
False
In 2000, what was the earliest Welsh and English pubs could open on Sundays?
56dfd7cf231d4119001abe32
12 noon
139
False
In 2000, what was the earliest Welsh and English pubs could open on any day but Sunday?
56dfd7cf231d4119001abe33
11 am
132
False
However, closing times were increasingly disregarded in the country pubs. In England and Wales by 2000 pubs could legally open from 11 am (12 noon on Sundays) through to 11 pm (10:30 pm on Sundays). That year was also the first to allow continuous opening for 36 hours from 11 am on New Year's Eve to 11 pm on New Year's Day. In addition, many cities had by-laws to allow some pubs to extend opening hours to midnight or 1 am, whilst nightclubs had long been granted late licences to serve alcohol into the morning. Pubs near London's Smithfield market, Billingsgate fish market and Covent Garden fruit and flower market could stay open 24 hours a day since Victorian times to provide a service to the shift working employees of the markets.
When were wartime licensing laws ended in Scotland?
56dfd80f231d4119001abe39
1976
272
False
What constituent countries of the United Kingdom's licensing laws were notably flexible?
56dfd80f231d4119001abe3a
Scotland's and Northern Ireland's
0
False
Scotland's and Northern Ireland's licensing laws have long been more flexible, allowing local authorities to set pub opening and closing times. In Scotland, this stemmed out of[clarification needed] a late repeal of the wartime licensing laws, which stayed in force until 1976.
When did the Licensing Act 2003 come into effect?
56dfdaca7aa994140058e1b5
24 November 2005
49
False
After the Licensing Act 2003, who determined the operating hours of pubs?
56dfdaca7aa994140058e1b6
the local council
164
False
Due to the traditional closing hours, when was there often violence outside of pubs?
56dfdaca7aa994140058e1b7
11.30 pm
292
False
How many alcohol involved hospital admissions were there in 2006/7?
56dfdaca7aa994140058e1b8
207,800
472
False
How many pubs applied to be allowed to sell alcohol 24 hours a day?
56dfdaca7aa994140058e1b9
1,121
661
False
The Licensing Act 2003, which came into force on 24 November 2005, consolidated the many laws into a single Act. This allowed pubs in England and Wales to apply to the local council for the opening hours of their choice. It was argued that this would end the concentration of violence around 11.30 pm, when people had to leave the pub, making policing easier. In practice, alcohol-related hospital admissions rose following the change in the law, with alcohol involved in 207,800 admissions in 2006/7. Critics claimed that these laws would lead to "24-hour drinking". By the time the law came into effect, 60,326 establishments had applied for longer hours and 1,121 had applied for a licence to sell alcohol 24 hours a day. However nine months later many pubs had not changed their hours, although some stayed open longer at the weekend, but rarely beyond 1:00 am.
What is it called when the owner of a pub allows patrons to remain when the pub should have closed?
56dfdb677aa994140058e1bf
"lock-in"
2
False
What law allows pubs to apply to extend their closing hours after 11pm?
56dfdb677aa994140058e1c0
Licensing Act 2003
737
False
A law of what year prompted the existence of the "lock-in"?
56dfdb677aa994140058e1c1
1915
400
False
What action by a pub owner can result in his prosecution?
56dfdb677aa994140058e1c2
allowing smoking
1081
False
A "lock-in" is when a pub owner lets drinkers stay in the pub after the legal closing time, on the theory that once the doors are locked, it becomes a private party rather than a pub. Patrons may put money behind the bar before official closing time, and redeem their drinks during the lock-in so no drinks are technically sold after closing time. The origin of the British lock-in was a reaction to 1915 changes in the licensing laws in England and Wales, which curtailed opening hours to stop factory workers from turning up drunk and harming the war effort. Since 1915, the UK licensing laws had changed very little, with comparatively early closing times. The tradition of the lock-in therefore remained. Since the implementation of Licensing Act 2003, premises in England and Wales may apply to extend their opening hours beyond 11 pm, allowing round-the-clock drinking and removing much of the need for lock-ins. Since the smoking ban, some establishments operated a lock-in during which the remaining patrons could smoke without repercussions but, unlike drinking lock-ins, allowing smoking in a pub was still a prosecutable offence.
In what month and year was smoking banned in public places in Scotland?
56dfdbee7aa994140058e1c7
March 2006
3
False
When did Wales outlaw smoking in public?
56dfdbee7aa994140058e1c8
April 2007
120
False
What was the month and year when England banned public smoking?
56dfdbee7aa994140058e1c9
July 2007
168
False
What company took over Scottish & Newcastle's pubs?
56dfdbee7aa994140058e1ca
Carlsberg and Heineken
579
False
What chain of pubs reported favorable profits in June 2009?
56dfdbee7aa994140058e1cb
Wetherspoon
441
False
In March 2006, a law was introduced to forbid smoking in all enclosed public places in Scotland. Wales followed suit in April 2007, with England introducing the ban in July 2007. Pub landlords had raised concerns prior to the implementation of the law that a smoking ban would have a negative impact on sales. After two years, the impact of the ban was mixed; some pubs suffered declining sales, while others developed their food sales. The Wetherspoon pub chain reported in June 2009 that profits were at the top end of expectations; however, Scottish & Newcastle's takeover by Carlsberg and Heineken was reported in January 2008 as partly the result of its weakness following falling sales due to the ban. Similar bans are applied in Australian pubs with smoking only allowed in designated areas.
What street in Islington was named for a pub run by Mr Ball?
56dfdc887aa994140058e1d1
Balls Pond Road
209
False
On what street was the Grecian Saloon located?
56dfdc887aa994140058e1d2
City Road
836
False
What pub was the home of the Grecian Saloon?
56dfdc887aa994140058e1d3
The Eagle
825
False
What is rhyming slang for 'coat'?
56dfdc887aa994140058e1d4
weasel
994
False
In what century did saloons become established?
56dfdc887aa994140058e1d5
18th
18
False
By the end of the 18th century a new room in the pub was established: the saloon.[citation needed] Beer establishments had always provided entertainment of some sort—singing, gaming or sport.[citation needed] Balls Pond Road in Islington was named after an establishment run by a Mr Ball that had a duck pond at the rear, where drinkers could, for a fee, go out and take a potshot at the ducks. More common, however, was a card room or a billiard room.[citation needed] The saloon was a room where for an admission fee or a higher price of drinks, singing, dancing, drama or comedy was performed and drinks would be served at the table.[citation needed] From this came the popular music hall form of entertainment—a show consisting of a variety of acts.[citation needed] A most famous London saloon was the Grecian Saloon in The Eagle, City Road, which is still famous because of a nursery rhyme: "Up and down the City Road / In and out The Eagle / That's the way the money goes / Pop goes the weasel." This meant that the customer had spent all his money at The Eagle, and needed to pawn his "weasel" to get some more. The meaning of the "weasel" is unclear but the two most likely definitions are: a flat iron used for finishing clothing; or rhyming slang for a coat (weasel and stoat).
Along with cabaret, striptease, bands and drama, what is a type of stage performance that can be found in pubs?
56dfdd297aa994140058e1db
stand-up comedy
58
False
Along with karaoke, what type of prerecorded music is often found in pubs?
56dfdd297aa994140058e1dc
juke boxes
121
False
A few pubs have stage performances such as serious drama, stand-up comedy, musical bands, cabaret or striptease; however juke boxes, karaoke and other forms of pre-recorded music have otherwise replaced the musical tradition of a piano or guitar and singing.[citation needed]
What socioeconomic class was associated with the lounge bar in the 20th century?
56dfddab7aa994140058e1df
middle-class
61
False
What economic class was most likely to be found in the tap room?
56dfddab7aa994140058e1e0
working class
236
False
In pence, what did the cheapest beer cost in the four-ale bar?
56dfddab7aa994140058e1e1
4
504
False
What was the tap room sawdust meant to absorb spills and spit called?
56dfddab7aa994140058e1e2
spit and sawdust
339
False
What is another name for the lounge bar?
56dfddab7aa994140058e1e3
saloon
25
False
By the 20th century, the saloon, or lounge bar, had become a middle-class room[citation needed]—carpets on the floor, cushions on the seats, and a penny or two on the prices,[citation needed] while the public bar, or tap room, remained working class with bare boards, sometimes with sawdust to absorb the spitting and spillages (known as "spit and sawdust"), hard bench seats, and cheap beer[citation needed]. This bar was known as the four-ale bar from the days when the cheapest beer served there cost 4 pence (4d) a quart.[citation needed]
In what decades did class distinctions break down in Britain?
56dfde447aa994140058e1e9
the 1960s and 1970s
271
False
What was a common way of removing the division between the saloon and bar?
56dfde447aa994140058e1ea
removal of the dividing wall or partition
452
False
Later, the public bars gradually improved until sometimes almost the only difference was in the prices, so that customers could choose between economy and exclusivity (or youth and age, or a jukebox or dartboard).[citation needed] With the blurring of class divisions in the 1960s and 1970s,[citation needed] the distinction between the saloon and the public bar was often seen as archaic,[citation needed] and was frequently abolished, usually by the removal of the dividing wall or partition.[citation needed] While the names of saloon and public bar may still be seen on the doors of pubs, the prices (and often the standard of furnishings and decoration) are the same throughout the premises, and many pubs now comprise one large room. However the modern importance of dining in pubs encourages some establishments to maintain distinct rooms or areas.
What is another name for the smoke room?
56dfdeb27aa994140058e1ed
snug
5
False
What was the relationship between the price of beer in the smoke room versus the rest of the bar?
56dfdeb27aa994140058e1ee
higher
176
False
Along with the local police, what profession is given as an example of someone who might use the snug?
56dfdeb27aa994140058e1ef
the parish priest
573
False
What were the windows in the snug made out of?
56dfdeb27aa994140058e1f0
frosted glass
120
False
The "snug", sometimes called the smoke room, was typically a small, very private room with access to the bar that had a frosted glass external window, set above head height. A higher price was paid for beer in the snug and nobody could look in and see the drinkers. It was not only the wealthy visitors who would use these rooms. The snug was for patrons who preferred not to be seen in the public bar. Ladies would often enjoy a private drink in the snug in a time when it was frowned upon for women to be in a pub. The local police officer might nip in for a quiet pint, the parish priest for his evening whisky, or lovers for a rendezvous.
How many pubs were part of the CAMRA survey?
56dfdeda231d4119001abe3d
50,000
24
False
According to CAMRA, how many pubs in Britain possess classic snugs?
56dfdeda231d4119001abe3e
very few
79
False
CAMRA have surveyed the 50,000 pubs in Britain and they believe that there are very few pubs that still have classic snugs. These are on a historic interiors list in order that they can be preserved.
In Germany, what do servers do to serve beer in beer gardens?
56dfdf67231d4119001abe41
bring the beer out to the table
142
False
Before the pub, where did beer establishments keep their casks of ale?
56dfdf67231d4119001abe42
taproom
433
False
What establishments inspired pubs to set up serving bars?
56dfdf67231d4119001abe43
gin houses
549
False
In what settlement is the pub known as The Vine located?
56dfdf67231d4119001abe44
Brierley Hill
1040
False
What do the locals call The Vine?
56dfdf67231d4119001abe45
The Bull and Bladder
1015
False
It was the pub that first introduced the concept of the bar counter being used to serve the beer. Until that time beer establishments used to bring the beer out to the table or benches, as remains the practice in (for example) beer gardens and other drinking establishments in Germany. A bar might be provided for the manager to do paperwork while keeping an eye on his or her customers, but the casks of ale were kept in a separate taproom. When the first pubs were built, the main room was the public room with a large serving bar copied from the gin houses, the idea being to serve the maximum number of people in the shortest possible time. It became known as the public bar[citation needed]. The other, more private, rooms had no serving bar—they had the beer brought to them from the public bar. There are a number of pubs in the Midlands or the North which still retain this set up but these days the beer is fetched by the customer from the taproom or public bar. One of these is The Vine, known locally as The Bull and Bladder, in Brierley Hill near Birmingham, another the Cock at Broom, Bedfordshire a series of small rooms served drinks and food by waiting staff. In the Manchester district the public bar was known as the "vault", other rooms being the lounge and snug as usual elsewhere. By the early 1970s there was a tendency to change to one large drinking room and breweries were eager to invest in interior design and theming.
Who pioneered the circular bar?
56dfdfae231d4119001abe4b
Isambard Kingdom Brunel
0
False
At what establishment was the circular bar introduced?
56dfdfae231d4119001abe4c
Swindon station pub
114
False
What was Isambard Brunel's occuption?
56dfdfae231d4119001abe4d
engineer and railway builder
37
False
What was Isambard Brunel's nationality?
56dfdfae231d4119001abe4e
British
29
False
Isambard Kingdom Brunel, the British engineer and railway builder, introduced the idea of a circular bar into the Swindon station pub in order that customers were served quickly and did not delay his trains. These island bars became popular as they also allowed staff to serve customers in several different rooms surrounding the bar.
What is a "beer engine"?
56dfdfd97aa994140058e1f5
a device for pumping beer
19
False
What is the function of a "beer engine"?
56dfdfd97aa994140058e1f6
to dispense beer from a cask or container in a pub's basement or cellar
94
False
A "beer engine" is a device for pumping beer, originally manually operated and typically used to dispense beer from a cask or container in a pub's basement or cellar.
Who invented the beer pump in England?
56dfe0127aa994140058e1f9
John Lofting
74
False
In what city was the beer pump invented?
56dfe0127aa994140058e1fa
London
188
False
In what country was John Lofting born?
56dfe0127aa994140058e1fb
Netherlands
91
False
What was the death year of John Lofting?
56dfe0127aa994140058e1fc
1742
140
False
When was John Lofting born?
56dfe0127aa994140058e1fd
1659
103
False
The first beer pump known in England is believed to have been invented by John Lofting (b. Netherlands 1659-d. Great Marlow Buckinghamshire 1742) an inventor, manufacturer and merchant of London.
In what newspaper did John Lofting mention his beer pump?
56dfe043231d4119001abe53
London Gazette
4
False
On what day was Lofting's fire engine patent published?
56dfe043231d4119001abe54
17 March 1691
22
False
The London Gazette of 17 March 1691 published a patent in favour of John Lofting for a fire engine, but remarked upon and recommended another invention of his, for a beer pump:
How many barrels did Lofting promise his beer pump would deliver hourly?
56dfe0ba231d4119001abe57
20 to 30
341
False
What location did John Lofting live near?
56dfe0ba231d4119001abe58
St Thomas Apostle London
549
False
In what London borough did Nicholas Wall reside?
56dfe0ba231d4119001abe59
Islington
639
False
What was William Tillcar's profession?
56dfe0ba231d4119001abe5a
Turner
676
False
What tavern did William Tillcar live adjacent to?
56dfe0ba231d4119001abe5b
Sun Tavern
736
False
"Whereas their Majesties have been Graciously Pleased to grant Letters patent to John Lofting of London Merchant for a New Invented Engine for Extinguishing Fires which said Engine have found every great encouragement. The said Patentee hath also projected a Very Useful Engine for starting of beer and other liquors which will deliver from 20 to 30 barrels an hour which are completely fixed with Brass Joints and Screws at Reasonable Rates. Any Person that hath occasion for the said Engines may apply themselves to the Patentee at his house near St Thomas Apostle London or to Mr. Nicholas Wall at the Workshoppe near Saddlers Wells at Islington or to Mr. William Tillcar, Turner, his agent at his house in Woodtree next door to the Sun Tavern London."
What is a common name for a beer pump powered by hand?
56dfe0f17aa994140058e203
handpump
188
False
Along with electricity, what sometimes powers beer pumps that aren't operated by hand?
56dfe0f17aa994140058e204
gas
114
False
Strictly the term refers to the pump itself, which is normally manually operated, though electrically powered and gas powered pumps are occasionally used. When manually powered, the term "handpump" is often used to refer to both the pump and the associated handle.
What was the name for a pub that could sell beer from more than one brewery?
56dfe16f7aa994140058e207
a Free house
209
False
In what century did the habit arise of pubs selling beer from only one brewery?
56dfe16f7aa994140058e208
18th
66
False
What was the name of the private individual who rented out a pub owned by a brewery?
56dfe16f7aa994140058e209
landlord
345
False
After the development of the large London Porter breweries in the 18th century, the trend grew for pubs to become tied houses which could only sell beer from one brewery (a pub not tied in this way was called a Free house). The usual arrangement for a tied house was that the pub was owned by the brewery but rented out to a private individual (landlord) who ran it as a separate business (even though contracted to buy the beer from the brewery). Another very common arrangement was (and is) for the landlord to own the premises (whether freehold or leasehold) independently of the brewer, but then to take a mortgage loan from a brewery, either to finance the purchase of the pub initially, or to refurbish it, and be required as a term of the loan to observe the solus tie.
What is a notable brewery in Kent that owns hundreds of pubs?
56dfe1e57aa994140058e20d
Shepherd Neame
165
False
What London breweries each own many pubs?
56dfe1e57aa994140058e20e
Young's and Fuller's
192
False
What is an example of a brewer that owns pubs throughout Britain?
56dfe1e57aa994140058e20f
Greene King
304
False
What law required that a pub offer at least one beer from a brewery it wasn't tied to?
56dfe1e57aa994140058e210
The Beer Orders
718
False
In what year were the Beer Orders passed?
56dfe1e57aa994140058e211
1989
745
False
A trend in the late 20th century was for breweries to run their pubs directly, using managers rather than tenants. Most such breweries, such as the regional brewery Shepherd Neame in Kent and Young's and Fuller's in London, control hundreds of pubs in a particular region of the UK, while a few, such as Greene King, are spread nationally. The landlord of a tied pub may be an employee of the brewery—in which case he/she would be a manager of a managed house, or a self-employed tenant who has entered into a lease agreement with a brewery, a condition of which is the legal obligation (trade tie) only to purchase that brewery's beer. The beer selection is mainly limited to beers brewed by that particular company. The Beer Orders, passed in 1989, were aimed at getting tied houses to offer at least one alternative beer, known as a guest beer, from another brewery. This law has now been repealed but while in force it dramatically altered the industry. Some pubs still offer a regularly changing selection of guest beers.
Along with Punch Taverns and Weatherspoons, what was an organization formed as a result of the Beer Orders?
56dfe23b7aa994140058e217
O'Neill's
54
False
What is the name of a company that retails but does not manufacture drinks?
56dfe23b7aa994140058e218
PubCo
120
False
Along with breweries, what type of company may run a pub chain?
56dfe23b7aa994140058e219
PubCo
120
False
In what country was Punch Taverns established?
56dfe23b7aa994140058e21a
the UK
79
False
Organisations such as Wetherspoons, Punch Taverns and O'Neill's were formed in the UK in the wake of the Beer Orders. A PubCo is a company involved in the retailing but not the manufacture of beverages, while a Pub chain may be run either by a PubCo or by a brewery.
When a pub is bought by a new owner, what often happens to them?
56dfe2d27aa994140058e21f
renamed
437
False
What often happens to regional breweries after they sell their pubs?
56dfe2d27aa994140058e220
closed down
394
False
Pubs within a chain will usually have items in common, such as fittings, promotions, ambience and range of food and drink on offer. A pub chain will position itself in the marketplace for a target audience. One company may run several pub chains aimed at different segments of the market. Pubs for use in a chain are bought and sold in large units, often from regional breweries which are then closed down. Newly acquired pubs are often renamed by the new owners, and many people resent the loss of traditional names, especially if their favourite regional beer disappears at the same time.
What is the closest outlet for a brewery's beers called?
56dfe336231d4119001abe61
A brewery tap
0
False
If the brewery tap is not located in the brewery, where is it usually located?
56dfe336231d4119001abe62
the nearest pub
146
False
What is the term for a pub that brews and sells its own beer?
56dfe336231d4119001abe63
brewpub
192
False
A brewery tap is the nearest outlet for a brewery's beers. This is usually a room or bar in the brewery itself, though the name may be applied to the nearest pub. The term is not applied to a brewpub which brews and sells its beer on the same premises.
What is another name for a rural public house?
56dfe3a7231d4119001abe67
country pub
3
False
What was a function of distant country pubs before the rise of motor vehicles?
56dfe3a7231d4119001abe68
serving travellers as coaching inns
479
False
Over what period of years has the traditional function of country pubs been changing?
56dfe3a7231d4119001abe69
the last thirty
210
False
A "country pub" by tradition is a rural public house. However, the distinctive culture surrounding country pubs, that of functioning as a social centre for a village and rural community, has been changing over the last thirty or so years. In the past, many rural pubs provided opportunities for country folk to meet and exchange (often local) news, while others—especially those away from village centres—existed for the general purpose, before the advent of motor transport, of serving travellers as coaching inns.
What is a frequent modern function of country pubs?
56dfe3f5231d4119001abe6d
providing seating facilities for the consumption of food
125
False
Along with community meetings, what was the traditional purpose of country pubs?
56dfe3f5231d4119001abe6e
drinking
262
False
In more recent years, however, many country pubs have either closed down, or have been converted to establishments intent on providing seating facilities for the consumption of food, rather than a venue for members of the local community meeting and convivially drinking.
What is a blanket term for pubs that, for example, cater to sports fans?
56dfe4617aa994140058e223
theme pubs
107
False
What is an example of a theme pub that caters to people of a certain nationality?
56dfe4617aa994140058e224
Irish pubs
236
False
What is an example of a theme pub that caters to people with certain musical interests?
56dfe4617aa994140058e225
rock pubs
163
False
What sort of theme pub would be likely to feature strippers?
56dfe4617aa994140058e226
strip pubs
197
False
In what sort of theme pub could one find visitors singing with musical accompaniment?
56dfe4617aa994140058e227
karaoke bars
219
False
Pubs that cater for a niche clientele, such as sports fans or people of certain nationalities are known as theme pubs. Examples of theme pubs include sports bars, rock pubs, biker pubs, Goth pubs, strip pubs, gay bars, karaoke bars and Irish pubs.
Which monarch required landlords to post a sign if they wanted to sell ale?
56dfe4e97aa994140058e22d
Richard II
13
False
In what year did the king demand ale-sellers post signage on pain of forfeiture?
56dfe4e97aa994140058e22e
1393
3
False
What was William Shakespeare's father's first name?
56dfe4e97aa994140058e22f
John
403
False
What was John Shakespeare's profession?
56dfe4e97aa994140058e230
inspectors
285
False
If an ale-seller refused to post a sign, what punishment would he receive?
56dfe4e97aa994140058e231
forfeit his ale
214
False
In 1393 King Richard II compelled landlords to erect signs outside their premises. The legislation stated "Whosoever shall brew ale in the town with intention of selling it must hang out a sign, otherwise he shall forfeit his ale." This was to make alehouses easily visible to passing inspectors, borough ale tasters, who would decide the quality of the ale they provided. William Shakespeare's father, John Shakespeare, was one such inspector.
In what historical period was a large portion of the population illiterate?
56dfe625231d4119001abe71
the Middle Ages
41
False
From where did pubs without written names derive their names?
56dfe625231d4119001abe72
the illustration on the pub's sign
386
False
Another important factor was that during the Middle Ages a large proportion of the population would have been illiterate and so pictures on a sign were more useful than words as a means of identifying a public house. For this reason there was often no reason to write the establishment's name on the sign and inns opened without a formal written name, the name being derived later from the illustration on the pub's sign.
Inscriptions from what language were sometimes present on pub signs?
56dfe6cc7aa994140058e237
Latin
617
False
Along with The Star and The Sun, what was a typical symbol used on a pub sign?
56dfe6cc7aa994140058e238
The Cross
404
False
What graphic belonging to the local lord was sometimes incorporated on the pub sign?
56dfe6cc7aa994140058e239
the coat of arms
519
False
What plants were sometimes featured on pub signs?
56dfe6cc7aa994140058e23a
hops
141
False
Local pub nicknames were often related to what profession?
56dfe6cc7aa994140058e23b
farming
248
False
The earliest signs were often not painted but consisted, for example, of paraphernalia connected with the brewing process such as bunches of hops or brewing implements, which were suspended above the door of the pub. In some cases local nicknames, farming terms and puns were used. Local events were often commemorated in pub signs. Simple natural or religious symbols such as 'The Sun', 'The Star' and 'The Cross' were incorporated into pub signs, sometimes being adapted to incorporate elements of the heraldry (e.g. the coat of arms) of the local lords who owned the lands upon which the pub stood. Some pubs have Latin inscriptions.
What was an example of a battle that might lend itself to a pub name?
56dfe7397aa994140058e241
Trafalgar
91
False
What town is The Crow and Gate located in?
56dfe7397aa994140058e242
Crowborough
274
False
What county is home to The Crow and Gate?
56dfe7397aa994140058e243
East Sussex
287
False
Members of what family were sometimes used as pub names?
56dfe7397aa994140058e244
royal
178
False
Other subjects that lent themselves to visual depiction included the name of battles (e.g. Trafalgar), explorers, local notables, discoveries, sporting heroes and members of the royal family. Some pub signs are in the form of a pictorial pun or rebus. For example, a pub in Crowborough, East Sussex called The Crow and Gate has an image of a crow with gates as wings.
What hangs today over most British pub doors?
56dfe78e7aa994140058e249
decorated signs
29
False
What piece of information is almost always listed on a pub sign?
56dfe78e7aa994140058e24a
the name of the pub
192
False
What purpose do stand-alone signs serve for country pubs?
56dfe78e7aa994140058e24b
directing potential customers to their door
318
False
Most British pubs still have decorated signs hanging over their doors, and these retain their original function of enabling the identification of the pub. Today's pub signs almost always bear the name of the pub, both in words and in pictorial representation. The more remote country pubs often have stand-alone signs directing potential customers to their door.
What is an example of a memorable name for a pub chain?
56dfe7dc231d4119001abe75
Slug and Lettuce
199
False
What sort of theme is thought memorable for modern pub names?
56dfe7dc231d4119001abe76
comic
162
False
What is the purpose of a pub name?
56dfe7dc231d4119001abe77
to identify and differentiate each pub
19
False
Pub names are used to identify and differentiate each pub. Modern names are sometimes a marketing ploy or attempt to create "brand awareness", frequently using a comic theme thought to be memorable, Slug and Lettuce for a pub chain being an example. Interesting origins are not confined to old or traditional names, however. Names and their origins can be broken up into a relatively small number of categories.
What type of pub signs were useful to an illiterate clientele?
56dfe8087aa994140058e24f
pictorial signs
87
False
As many pubs are centuries old, many of their early customers were unable to read, and pictorial signs could be readily recognised when lettering and words could not be read.
After whom was the Marquis of Granby pub named?
56dfe86b7aa994140058e251
John Manners, Marquess of Granby
105
False
Who was the father of John Manners, Marquess of Granby?
56dfe86b7aa994140058e252
John Manners, 3rd Duke of Rutland
158
False
What was the military rank of the 3rd Duke of Rutland?
56dfe86b7aa994140058e253
general
198
False
In what century did the 3rd Duke of Rutland live?
56dfe86b7aa994140058e254
18th
213
False
What were pubs licensed in 1780 named?
56dfe86b7aa994140058e255
the Royal George
465
False
Pubs often have traditional names. A common name is the "Marquis of Granby". These pubs were named after John Manners, Marquess of Granby, who was the son of John Manners, 3rd Duke of Rutland and a general in the 18th century British Army. He showed a great concern for the welfare of his men, and on their retirement, provided funds for many of them to establish taverns, which were subsequently named after him. All pubs granted their licence in 1780 were called the Royal George[citation needed], after King George III, and the twentieth anniversary of his coronation.
The pub "The Bag o'Nails" was a corruption of what word?
56dfe8c67aa994140058e25b
Bacchanals
129
False
What phrase was "The Goat and Compasses" a corruption of?
56dfe8c67aa994140058e25c
God Encompasseth Us
168
False
What does Chaton Fidèle mean in English?
56dfe8c67aa994140058e25d
Faithful Kitten
231
False
What location does Boulogne Bouche refer to?
56dfe8c67aa994140058e25e
Boulogne-sur-Mer Harbour
352
False
Who won a victory at Boulogne-sur-Mer Harbour?
56dfe8c67aa994140058e25f
Henry VIII
317
False
Many names for pubs that appear nonsensical may have come from corruptions of old slogans or phrases, such as "The Bag o'Nails" (Bacchanals), "The Goat and Compasses" (God Encompasseth Us), "The Cat and the Fiddle" (Chaton Fidèle: Faithful Kitten) and "The Bull and Bush", which purportedly celebrates the victory of Henry VIII at "Boulogne Bouche" or Boulogne-sur-Mer Harbour.
What game played in both Britain and America has become increasingly popular in pubs?
56dfe9737aa994140058e265
pool
329
False
Along with Aunt Sally and ringing the bull, what is one of the obscure traditional games played in pubs?
56dfe9737aa994140058e266
Nine Men's Morris
150
False
Along with darts, skittles, dominoes and bar billiards, what is a well-known pub game?
56dfe9737aa994140058e267
cards
93
False
Along with dominoes, on what pub game can you legally bet in the United Kingdom?
56dfe9737aa994140058e268
cribbage
252
False
What table-based version of soccer is an increasingly popular pub game?
56dfe9737aa994140058e269
Table Football
457
False
Traditional games are played in pubs, ranging from the well-known darts, skittles, dominoes, cards and bar billiards, to the more obscure Aunt Sally, Nine Men's Morris and ringing the bull. In the UK betting is legally limited to certain games such as cribbage or dominoes, played for small stakes. In recent decades the game of pool (both the British and American versions) has increased in popularity as well as other table based games such as snooker or Table Football becoming common.
Along with slot machines, what is a modern game that is increasingly present in pubs?
56dfe9e07aa994140058e26f
video games
40
False
What is a pub that plays pop and hip-hop music called?
56dfe9e07aa994140058e270
dance bar
222
False
At what sort of pub can you watch rugby union on television?
56dfe9e07aa994140058e271
sports bar
294
False
Along with Bat and trap, what game is popular in south London pubs?
56dfe9e07aa994140058e272
Shove ha'penny
307
False
Increasingly, more modern games such as video games and slot machines are provided. Pubs hold special events, from tournaments of the aforementioned games to karaoke nights to pub quizzes. Some play pop music and hip-hop (dance bar), or show football and rugby union on big screen televisions (sports bar). Shove ha'penny and Bat and trap were also popular in pubs south of London.
What is the term for pub-based football that is often played on Sundays?
56dfea2b231d4119001abe7b
Sunday League Football
157
False
What sport is played on a pub's bowling green?
56dfea2b231d4119001abe7c
Bowling
182
False
Some pubs in the UK also have football teams composed of regular customers. Many of these teams are in leagues that play matches on Sundays, hence the term "Sunday League Football". Bowling is found in association with pubs in some parts of the country and the local team will play matches against teams invited from elsewhere on the pub's bowling green.
Dr. Feelgood and the Kursaal Flyers are examples of bands from what genre of music?
56dfea72231d4119001abe7f
Pub rock
220
False
What genre of music was influenced by pub rock?
56dfea72231d4119001abe80
Punk music
253
False
In what decade was Pub rock popular?
56dfea72231d4119001abe81
the 1970s
56
False
Pubs may be venues for pub songs and live music. During the 1970s pubs provided an outlet for a number of bands, such as Kilburn and the High Roads, Dr. Feelgood and The Kursaal Flyers, who formed a musical genre called Pub rock that was a precursor to Punk music.
Pork scratchings, pickled eggs and salted crisps are examples of what type of food?
56dfead8231d4119001abe85
bar snacks
122
False
In London, what food vendors could often be found near pubs?
56dfead8231d4119001abe86
mobile shellfish stalls
445
False
In what section of London can mobile shellfish stalls still be found today?
56dfead8231d4119001abe87
East End
531
False
What seafood can often be purchased in jars at pubs?
56dfead8231d4119001abe88
pickled cockles and mussels
552
False
Many pubs were drinking establishments, and little emphasis was placed on the serving of food, other than sandwiches and "bar snacks", such as pork scratchings, pickled eggs, salted crisps and peanuts which helped to increase beer sales. In South East England (especially London) it was common until recent times for vendors selling cockles, whelks, mussels, and other shellfish to sell to customers during the evening and at closing time. Many mobile shellfish stalls would set up near pubs, a practice that continues in London's East End. Otherwise, pickled cockles and mussels may be offered by the pub in jars or packets.
During what decade did some British pubs provide "a pie and a pint"?
56dfeb4f231d4119001abe8d
1950s
7
False
In what decade was the ploughman's lunch often consumed in pubs?
56dfeb4f231d4119001abe8e
1960s
240
False
What decade saw the popularity of "chicken in a basket"?
56dfeb4f231d4119001abe8f
1960s
240
False
What was "chicken in a basket" served in?
56dfeb4f231d4119001abe90
a wicker basket
350
False
Along with chicken, what food was included in "chicken in a basket"?
56dfeb4f231d4119001abe91
chips
320
False
In the 1950s some British pubs would offer "a pie and a pint", with hot individual steak and ale pies made easily on the premises by the proprietor's wife during the lunchtime opening hours. The ploughman's lunch became popular in the late 1960s. In the late 1960s "chicken in a basket", a portion of roast chicken with chips, served on a napkin, in a wicker basket became popular due to its convenience.
What are foods like fish and chips and chicken wings called when they're served at a pub?
56dfec1b231d4119001abe97
Pub grub
98
False
On what day do pubs sometimes offer free snacks?
56dfec1b231d4119001abe98
Sunday
224
False
What culture's cuisine is ploughman's lunch a part of?
56dfec1b231d4119001abe99
British
128
False
Quality dropped but variety increased with the introduction of microwave ovens and freezer food. "Pub grub" expanded to include British food items such as steak and ale pie, shepherd's pie, fish and chips, bangers and mash, Sunday roast, ploughman's lunch, and pasties. In addition, dishes such as burgers, chicken wings, lasagne and chilli con carne are often served. Some pubs offer elaborate hot and cold snacks free to customers at Sunday lunchtimes, to prevent them getting hungry and leaving for their lunch at home.
During what decade did food become an important aspect of a pub's business?
56dfec9f231d4119001abe9d
the 1990s
6
False
Along with dinners, what meals do modern pubs often serve?
56dfec9f231d4119001abe9e
lunches
98
False
What is a term for pubs that serve restaurant-quality food?
56dfec9f231d4119001abe9f
gastropubs
335
False
Other than the bar, in what room might patrons of a pub eat?
56dfec9f231d4119001abea0
dining room
215
False
Since the 1990s food has become a more important part of a pub's trade, and today most pubs serve lunches and dinners at the table in addition to (or instead of) snacks consumed at the bar. They may have a separate dining room. Some pubs serve meals to a higher standard, to match good restaurant standards; these are sometimes termed gastropubs.
What two words is 'gastropub' a portanteau of?
56dfecfb231d4119001abea5
pub and gastronomy
71
False
In what year was the term gastropub invented?
56dfecfb231d4119001abea6
1991
108
False
Along with David Eyre, who took over the Eagle pub?
56dfecfb231d4119001abea7
Mike Belben
133
False
In what city is the Eagle pub located?
56dfecfb231d4119001abea8
London
185
False
In what area of London is the Eagle pub located?
56dfecfb231d4119001abea9
Clerkenwell
172
False
A gastropub concentrates on quality food. The name is a portmanteau of pub and gastronomy and was coined in 1991 when David Eyre and Mike Belben took over The Eagle pub in Clerkenwell, London. The concept of a restaurant in a pub reinvigorated both pub culture and British dining, though has occasionally attracted criticism for potentially removing the character of traditional pubs.
How many pubs does the National Trust own?
56dfed637aa994140058e277
thirty-six
142
False
In what city is the George Inn located?
56dfed637aa994140058e278
London
225
False
What city is home to The Crown Liquor Saloon?
56dfed637aa994140058e279
Belfast
261
False
What part of the United Kingdom is Belfast located in?
56dfed637aa994140058e27a
Northern Ireland
270
False
What body maintains a National Inventory of notable pubs?
56dfed637aa994140058e27b
CAMRA
0
False
CAMRA maintains a "National Inventory" of historical notability and of architecturally and decoratively notable pubs. The National Trust owns thirty-six public houses of historic interest including the George Inn, Southwark, London and The Crown Liquor Saloon, Belfast, Northern Ireland.
What pub in England is the highest above sea level?
56dfeddd7aa994140058e281
the Tan Hill Inn
41
False
In what county is the Tan Hill Inn located?
56dfeddd7aa994140058e282
Yorkshire
59
False
How many meters above sea level is the Tan Hill Inn?
56dfeddd7aa994140058e283
528
85
False
In what settlement is the pub known as The Old Forge located?
56dfeddd7aa994140058e284
Inverie
185
False
In what country of the United Kingdom is the Old Forge pub located?
56dfeddd7aa994140058e285
Scotland
204
False
The highest pub in the United Kingdom is the Tan Hill Inn, Yorkshire, at 1,732 feet (528 m) above sea level. The remotest pub on the British mainland is The Old Forge in the village of Inverie, Lochaber, Scotland. There is no road access and it may only be reached by an 18-mile (29 km) walk over mountains, or a 7-mile (11 km) sea crossing. Likewise, The Berney Arms in Norfolk has no road access. It may be reached by foot or by boat, and by train as it is served by the nearby Berney Arms railway station, which likewise has no road access and serves no other settlement.
What pub holds the Guinness World Record as the oldest in England?
56dfee94231d4119001abeaf
Ye Olde Fighting Cocks
269
False
In what century was the building occupied by Ye Olde Fighting Cocks built?
56dfee94231d4119001abeb0
11th
396
False
Where is Ye Olde Trip to Jerusalem located?
56dfee94231d4119001abeb1
Nottingham
472
False
When does Ye Olde Trip to Jerusalem claim to have been founded?
56dfee94231d4119001abeb2
1189
554
False
When was a pub documented as existing on the current site of the Nags Head?
56dfee94231d4119001abeb3
1086
830
False
A number of pubs claim to be the oldest surviving establishment in the United Kingdom, although in several cases original buildings have been demolished and replaced on the same site. Others are ancient buildings that saw uses other than as a pub during their history. Ye Olde Fighting Cocks in St Albans, Hertfordshire, holds the Guinness World Record for the oldest pub in England, as it is an 11th-century structure on an 8th-century site. Ye Olde Trip to Jerusalem in Nottingham is claimed to be the "oldest inn in England". It has a claimed date of 1189, based on the fact it is constructed on the site of the Nottingham Castle brewhouse; the present building dates from around 1650. Likewise, The Nags Head in Burntwood, Staffordshire only dates back to the 16th century, but there has been a pub on the site since at least 1086, as it is mentioned in the Domesday Book.
Where is The Old Ferryboat Inn located?
56dfeec77aa994140058e28b
Holywell
91
False
How far back does the foundation of The Old Ferryboat Inn date?
56dfeec77aa994140058e28c
460
115
False
When was ale first served at the site of The Old Ferryboat Inn?
56dfeec77aa994140058e28d
560
177
False
There is archaeological evidence that parts of the foundations of The Old Ferryboat Inn in Holywell may date to AD 460, and there is evidence of ale being served as early as AD 560.
When does The Bingley Arms claim to have been founded?
56dfef297aa994140058e291
905
60
False
In what county is the Bingley Arms located?
56dfef297aa994140058e292
Yorkshire
27
False
When does the building housing Ye Olde Salutation Inn date back to?
56dfef297aa994140058e293
1240
116
False
Where is Ye Olde Salutation Inn located?
56dfef297aa994140058e294
Nottingham
94
False
When does the building housing Ye Olde Man & Scythe date from?
56dfef297aa994140058e295
1631
506
False
The Bingley Arms, Bardsey, Yorkshire, is claimed to date to 905 AD. Ye Olde Salutation Inn in Nottingham dates from 1240, although the building served as a tannery and a private residence before becoming an inn sometime before the English Civil War. The Adam and Eve in Norwich was first recorded in 1249, when it was an alehouse for the workers constructing nearby Norwich Cathedral. Ye Olde Man & Scythe in Bolton, Lancashire, is mentioned by name in a charter of 1251, but the current building is dated 1631. Its cellars are the only surviving part of the older structure.
What town is the Q Inn located in?
56dfef72231d4119001abeb9
Stalybridge
12
False
What county is home to The Old 13th Cheshire Rifleman Corps Inn?
56dfef72231d4119001abeba
Cheshire
27
False
What pub has the shortest name in the United Kingdom?
56dfef72231d4119001abebb
the Q Inn
174
False
What is the pub with the longest name in the UK?
56dfef72231d4119001abebc
The Old 13th Cheshire Rifleman Corps Inn
129
False
What county is Stalybridge in?
56dfef72231d4119001abebd
Cheshire
27
False
The town of Stalybridge in Cheshire is thought to have the pubs with both the longest and shortest names in the United Kingdom — The Old 13th Cheshire Rifleman Corps Inn and the Q Inn.
When was a smoking ban passed in the United Kingdom?
56dfefe9231d4119001abec3
2007
233
False
In what year did the number of United Kingdom pubs generally start to decline?
56dfefe9231d4119001abec4
1982
71
False
Competition from what new form of establishment is sometimes blamed for the decline of pubs?
56dfefe9231d4119001abec5
gastro-pubs
264
False
What business that sells cheap alcohol has sometimes been held to have resulted in the decline of pubs?
56dfefe9231d4119001abec6
supermarkets
314
False
The number of pubs in the UK has declined year on year, at least since 1982. Various reasons are put forward for this, such as the failure of some establishments to keep up with customer requirements. Others claim the smoking ban of 2007, intense competition from gastro-pubs, the availability of cheap alcohol in supermarkets or the general economic climate are either to blame, or are factors in the decline. Changes in demographics may be an additional factor.
How many closed pubs did The Lost Pubs Project catalog?
56dff050231d4119001abecb
28,095
29
False
In what year did Parliament inquire into the frequency of pub closures?
56dff050231d4119001abecc
2015
60
False
What did Parliament promise to pass as a result of increased pub closures?
56dff050231d4119001abecd
legislation to improve relations between owners and tenants
192
False
The Lost Pubs Project listed 28,095 closed pubs on 21 April 2015, with photographs of many. In 2015 the rate of pub closures came under the scrutiny of Parliament in the UK, with a promise of legislation to improve relations between owners and tenants.
Who was based out of the Swan Inn?
56dff0b1231d4119001abed1
Dick Turpin
15
False
In what county was the Swan Inn located?
56dff0b1231d4119001abed2
Buckinghamshire
73
False
What was the name of the innkeeper at the Spread Eagle in the 1920s?
56dff0b1231d4119001abed3
John Fothergill
115
False
In what year was An Innkeeper's Diary published?
56dff0b1231d4119001abed4
1931
282
False
What publishing house published An Innkeeper's Diary?
56dff0b1231d4119001abed5
Chatto & Windus
265
False
The highwayman Dick Turpin used the Swan Inn at Woughton-on-the-Green in Buckinghamshire as his base. In the 1920s John Fothergill (1876–1957) was the innkeeper of the Spread Eagle in Thame, Berkshire, and published his autobiography: An Innkeeper's Diary (London: Chatto & Windus, 1931). During his idiosyncratic occupancy many famous people came to stay, such as H. G. Wells. United States president George W. Bush fulfilled his lifetime ambition of visiting a 'genuine British pub' during his November 2003 state visit to the UK when he had lunch and a pint of non-alcoholic lager (Bush being a teetotaler) with British Prime Minister Tony Blair at the Dun Cow pub in Sedgefield, County Durham in Blair's home constituency. There were approximately 53,500 public houses in 2009 in the United Kingdom. This number has been declining every year, so that nearly half of the smaller villages no longer have a local pub.
What pub was associated with Samuel Johnson, perhaps erroneously?
56dff154231d4119001abedb
Ye Olde Cheshire Cheese
138
False
Along with the Prospect of Whitby, what pub was Samuel Pepys associated with?
56dff154231d4119001abedc
the Cock Tavern
462
False
What writer was known to visit both the Cheshire Cheese and the Prospect of Whitby?
56dff154231d4119001abedd
Charles Dickens
275
False
Along with the Prospect of Whitby and the Cheshire Cheese, what pub did Dickens visit?
56dff154231d4119001abede
Ye Olde Cock Tavern
361
False
Many of London's pubs are known to have been used by famous people, but in some cases, such as the association between Samuel Johnson and Ye Olde Cheshire Cheese, this is speculative, based on little more than the fact that the person is known to have lived nearby. However, Charles Dickens is known to have visited the Cheshire Cheese, the Prospect of Whitby, Ye Olde Cock Tavern and many others. Samuel Pepys is also associated with the Prospect of Whitby and the Cock Tavern.
What is the street address of The Fitzroy Tavern?
56dff1be231d4119001abee3
16 Charlotte Street
40
False
In what district of London is The Fitzroy Tavern located?
56dff1be231d4119001abee4
Fitzrovia
67
False
In what district of London is Pillars of Hercules located?
56dff1be231d4119001abee5
Soho
378
False
What real-life pub provided the model for Orwell's The Moon Under Water?
56dff1be231d4119001abee6
The Canonbury Tavern
544
False
In what district of London is The Canonbury Tavern located?
56dff1be231d4119001abee7
Canonbury
548
False
The Fitzroy Tavern is a pub situated at 16 Charlotte Street in the Fitzrovia district, to which it gives its name. It became famous (or according to others, infamous) during a period spanning the 1920s to the mid-1950s as a meeting place for many of London's artists, intellectuals and bohemians such as Dylan Thomas, Augustus John, and George Orwell. Several establishments in Soho, London, have associations with well-known, post-war literary and artistic figures, including the Pillars of Hercules, The Colony Room and the Coach and Horses. The Canonbury Tavern, Canonbury, was the prototype for Orwell's ideal English pub, The Moon Under Water.
Where is the Red Lion located?
56dff2277aa994140058e29b
Parliament Square
16
False
What notable feature of the Red Lion reflects its parliamentary connection?
56dff2277aa994140058e29c
a Division bell
174
False
Who owned the Punch Bowl with Guy Ritchie?
56dff2277aa994140058e29d
Madonna
331
False
In what district of London was the Punch Bowl located?
56dff2277aa994140058e29e
Mayfair
290
False
What pub was visited by Freddie Mercury?
56dff2277aa994140058e29f
The Coleherne
356
False
The Red Lion in Parliament Square is close to the Palace of Westminster and is consequently used by political journalists and members of parliament. The pub is equipped with a Division bell that summons MPs back to the chamber when they are required to take part in a vote. The Punch Bowl, Mayfair was at one time jointly owned by Madonna and Guy Ritchie. The Coleherne public house in Earls Court was a well-known gay pub from the 1950s. It attracted many well-known patrons, such as Freddie Mercury, Kenny Everett and Rudolph Nureyev. It was used by the serial-killer Colin Ireland to pick up victims.
At what pub did Ronnie Kray kill someone in 1966?
56dff2937aa994140058e2a5
The Blind Beggar
8
False
What pub is associated with some of Jack the Ripper's victims?
56dff2937aa994140058e2a6
The Ten Bells
116
False
Outside what pub was David Blakely shot?
56dff2937aa994140058e2a7
The Magdala
298
False
What is the present name of the former Crown and Anchor?
56dff2937aa994140058e2a8
The Crown Tavern
501
False
In what year did Joseph Stalin visit London?
56dff2937aa994140058e2a9
1903
579
False
In 1966 The Blind Beggar in Whitechapel became infamous as the scene of a murder committed by gangster Ronnie Kray. The Ten Bells is associated with several of the victims of Jack the Ripper. In 1955, Ruth Ellis, the last woman executed in the United Kingdom, shot David Blakely as he emerged from The Magdala in South Hill Park, Hampstead, the bullet holes can still be seen in the walls outside. It is said that Vladimir Lenin and a young Joseph Stalin met in the Crown and Anchor pub (now known as The Crown Tavern) on Clerkenwell Green when the latter was visiting London in 1903.
At what pub did Thomas Paine write The Rights of Man?
56dff3097aa994140058e2af
The Angel
0
False
In what district of London is The Angel located?
56dff3097aa994140058e2b0
Islington
11
False
What writer mentioned The Angel pub in his writings?
56dff3097aa994140058e2b1
Charles Dickens
193
False
What is the present status of the Angel pub?
56dff3097aa994140058e2b2
a Co-operative Bank
250
False
Prior to becoming a pub, what did the Angel serve as?
56dff3097aa994140058e2b3
a coaching inn
34
False
The Angel, Islington was formerly a coaching inn, the first on the route northwards out of London, where Thomas Paine is believed to have written much of The Rights of Man. It was mentioned by Charles Dickens, became a Lyons Corner House, and is now a Co-operative Bank.
Along with the Eagle and Child, at what pub did the Inklings regularly meet?
56dff36d7aa994140058e2b9
the Lamb and Flag
24
False
Where is the Eagle and Child located?
56dff36d7aa994140058e2ba
Oxford
43
False
Along with J. R. R. Tolkien, who was a noted member of the Inklings?
56dff36d7aa994140058e2bb
C. S. Lewis
149
False
Where is the Eagle pub located?
56dff36d7aa994140058e2bc
Cambridge
175
False
On what date did Francis Crick announce to an audience of pub-goers that he had discovered DNA?
56dff36d7aa994140058e2bd
28 February 1953
242
False
The Eagle and Child and the Lamb and Flag, Oxford, were regular meeting places of the Inklings, a writers' group which included J. R. R. Tolkien and C. S. Lewis. The Eagle in Cambridge is where Francis Crick interrupted patrons' lunchtime on 28 February 1953 to announce that he and James Watson had "discovered the secret of life" after they had come up with their proposal for the structure of DNA. The anecdote is related in Watson's book The Double Helix. and commemorated with a blue plaque on the outside wall.
What pub is feature on the British soap opera Coronation Street?
56dff3c2231d4119001abeed
The Rovers Return
108
False
What pub is featured on EastEnders?
56dff3c2231d4119001abeee
The Queen Vic
194
False
What channel is EastEnders broadcast on?
56dff3c2231d4119001abeef
BBC One
283
False
What channel is home to the soap opera Emmerdale?
56dff3c2231d4119001abef0
ITV
189
False
What pub is featured on Emmerdale?
56dff3c2231d4119001abef1
the Woolpack
295
False
The major soap operas on British television each feature a pub, and these pubs have become household names. The Rovers Return is the pub in Coronation Street, the British soap broadcast on ITV. The Queen Vic (short for the Queen Victoria) is the pub in EastEnders, the major soap on BBC One and the Woolpack in ITV's Emmerdale. The sets of each of the three major television soap operas have been visited by some of the members of the royal family, including Queen Elizabeth II. The centrepiece of each visit was a trip into the Rovers, the Queen Vic, or the Woolpack to be offered a drink. The Bull in the BBC Radio 4 soap opera The Archers is an important meeting point.
What would be a more accurate classification for many "British" pubs found outside Britain?
56dff407231d4119001abef7
themed bars
83
False
Although "British" pubs found outside of Britain and its former colonies are often themed bars owing little to the original British pub, a number of "true" pubs may be found around the world.
What continental European country has pubs that would be familiar to a Briton?
56dff46f231d4119001abef9
Denmark
3
False
How many British cask beers were present at the 2008 European Beer Festival?
56dff46f231d4119001abefa
56
577
False
In what city did the 2008 European Beer Festival take place?
56dff46f231d4119001abefb
Copenhagen
652
False
About how many people visited the 2008 European Beer Festival?
56dff46f231d4119001abefc
20,000
696
False
In Denmark—a country, like Britain, with a long tradition of brewing—a number of pubs have opened which eschew "theming", and which instead focus on the business of providing carefully conditioned beer, often independent of any particular brewery or chain, in an environment which would not be unfamiliar to a British pub-goer. Some import British cask ale, rather than beer in kegs, to provide the full British real ale experience to their customers. This newly established Danish interest in British cask beer and the British pub tradition is reflected by the fact that some 56 British cask beers were available at the 2008 European Beer Festival in Copenhagen, which was attended by more than 20,000 people.
What is the native Irish term for a pub's atmosphere?
56dff532231d4119001abf01
craic
52
False
What does teach tábhairne mean in English?
56dff532231d4119001abf02
tavernhouse
112
False
What Irish term means "drinkinghouse"?
56dff532231d4119001abf03
teach óil
129
False
Vis-à-vis pubs in Ireland, what feature do pubs in Northern Ireland lack?
56dff532231d4119001abf04
spirit grocers
417
False
What country outside Ireland is known for having Irish pubs?
56dff532231d4119001abf05
New Zealand
664
False
In Ireland, pubs are known for their atmosphere or "craic". In Irish, a pub is referred to as teach tábhairne ("tavernhouse") or teach óil ("drinkinghouse"). Live music, either sessions of traditional Irish music or varieties of modern popular music, is frequently featured in the pubs of Ireland. Pubs in Northern Ireland are largely identical to their counterparts in the Republic of Ireland except for the lack of spirit grocers. A side effect of "The Troubles" was that the lack of a tourist industry meant that a higher proportion of traditional bars have survived the wholesale refitting of Irish pub interiors in the 'English style' in the 1950s and 1960s. New Zealand sports a number of Irish pubs.
Traditionally, what was the popular term for a drinking establishment in English-speaking Canada?
56dff5ca231d4119001abf0b
tavern
88
False
In what decade did "bar" become the popular term for a drinking establishment in English-speaking Canada?
56dff5ca231d4119001abf0c
1970s
107
False
In the 19th century, what term was used in English-speaking Canada to describe a drinking establishment?
56dff5ca231d4119001abf0d
public house
208
False
What body often runs pubs on the campuses of Canadian universities?
56dff5ca231d4119001abf0e
the student's union
598
False
In what decade could one find an "English looking" pub trend in Canada?
56dff5ca231d4119001abf0f
1990s
330
False
The most popular term in English-speaking Canada used for a drinking establishment was "tavern", until the 1970s when the term "bar" became widespread as in the United States. In the 1800s the term used was "public house" as in England but "pub culture" did not spread to Canada. A fake "English looking" pub trend started in the 1990s, built into existing storefronts, like regular bars. Most universities in Canada have campus pubs which are central to student life, as it would be bad form just to serve alcohol to students without providing some type of basic food. Often these pubs are run by the student's union. The gastropub concept has caught on, as traditional British influences are to be found in many Canadian dishes. There are now pubs in the large cities of Canada that cater to anyone interested in a "pub" type drinking environment.[citation needed]
Internet_service_provider
What does ISP stand for?
56dfb9227aa994140058e079
Internet service provider
3
False
what does an isp do?
56dfb9227aa994140058e07a
provides services for accessing, using, the Internet
59
False
What forms can an isp be organized in?
56dfb9227aa994140058e07b
commercial, community-owned, non-profit, or otherwise privately owned
183
False
ISP
30
What are the initials for an Internet service proxy?
5a10c34906e79900185c33e1
True
Internet
113
What kind of service providers are always commercial providers?
5a10c34906e79900185c33e2
True
Internet service provider
3
What kind of organization are all for profit?
5a10c34906e79900185c33e3
True
An Internet service provider (ISP) is an organization that provides services for accessing, using, the Internet. Internet service providers may be organized in various forms, such as commercial, community-owned, non-profit, or otherwise privately owned.
What type of organization provides internet access?
56dfb9837aa994140058e083
ISPs
40
False
What are some services provided by an isp?
56dfb9837aa994140058e084
Internet access, Internet transit, domain name registration, web hosting, Usenet service, and colocation
53
False
ISPs
40
What kind of organization blocks Internet access
5a10c42a06e79900185c33e7
True
Internet access, Internet transit, domain name registration, web hosting, Usenet service, and colocation
53
What are some services not provided by an ISP?
5a10c42a06e79900185c33e8
True
Internet services typically provided by ISPs include Internet access, Internet transit, domain name registration, web hosting, Usenet service, and colocation.
Why was the internet developed?
56dfba2a7aa994140058e097
a network between government research laboratories and participating departments of universities
30
False
when was the internet developed?
56dfba2a7aa994140058e098
1980s
140
False
what happened to the internet in the late 1980s?
56dfba2a7aa994140058e099
a process was set in place towards public, commercial use of the Internet
147
False
When were remaining restrictions on the internet removed?
56dfba2a7aa994140058e09a
1995
265
False
how long after the introduction of the world wide web was 1995?
56dfba2a7aa994140058e09b
4 years
271
False
The Internet
0
What was developed as a way for various universities to communicate with each other?
5a10c72c06e79900185c33eb
True
process was set in place towards public, commercial use of the Internet
149
What process was set up by the early 1980s?
5a10c72c06e79900185c33ec
True
1995
265
When was the Internet further restricted?
5a10c72c06e79900185c33ed
True
The remaining restrictions were removed
222
What happened four years after the introduction of the World Wide Web?
5a10c72c06e79900185c33ee
True
The Internet was developed as a network between government research laboratories and participating departments of universities. By the late 1980s, a process was set in place towards public, commercial use of the Internet. The remaining restrictions were removed by 1995, 4 years after the introduction of the World Wide Web.
Where were the first isps established?
56dfba8b7aa994140058e0a1
Australia and the United States
44
False
where was the first commercial isp in the us located?
56dfba8b7aa994140058e0a2
Brookline, Massachusetts
80
False
when was the first commercial isp customer served?
56dfba8b7aa994140058e0a3
November 1989
192
False
when were the first commercial isps established?
56dfba8b7aa994140058e0a4
1989
3
False
what was the name of the first commercial isp in the us?
56dfba8b7aa994140058e0a5
The World
106
False
Australia and the United States
44
Where was the first ISP S established in 1999?
5a10c96506e79900185c33f3
True
the first commercial ISP
123
What was established in Boston Massachusetts?
5a10c96506e79900185c33f4
True
The World
106
What was the name of the first private ISP?
5a10c96506e79900185c33f5
True
Its first customer was served
159
What did the world do in 1999?
5a10c96506e79900185c33f6
True
In 1989, the first ISPs were established in Australia and the United States. In Brookline, Massachusetts, The World became the first commercial ISP in the US. Its first customer was served in November 1989.
What would the absence of net neutrality permit?
56dfbb8c231d4119001abd3b
ISPs to offer content providers a faster track to send content
126
False
what may possibly be a solution to net neutrality concerns?
56dfbb8c231d4119001abd3c
municipal broadband
298
False
how did president obama recommend to classify the internet?
56dfbb8c231d4119001abd3d
a telecommunications service
788
False
what did the fcc choose to apply to the internet?
56dfbb8c231d4119001abd3e
Title II (common carrier)
1240
False
what would the internet be classified as based on title ii?
56dfbb8c231d4119001abd3f
telecommunications
790
False
ISPs to offer content providers a faster track to send content
126
What did the implementation of net neutrality permit?
5a10d02306e79900185c33fb
True
municipal broadband
298
What was net neutrality a solution to?
5a10d02306e79900185c33fc
True
Professor Susan Crawford
332
What yell Law school professor considered to options regarding Internet service?
5a10d02306e79900185c33fd
True
a U.S. Congress H.R. discussion draft bill
924
What did the Democrats present in 2015
5a10d02306e79900185c33fe
True
net neutrality
1577
What is the FCC expected to oppose with its vote?
5a10d02306e79900185c33ff
True
On 23 April 2014, the U.S. Federal Communications Commission (FCC) was reported to be considering a new rule that will permit ISPs to offer content providers a faster track to send content, thus reversing their earlier net neutrality position. A possible solution to net neutrality concerns may be municipal broadband, according to Professor Susan Crawford, a legal and technology expert at Harvard Law School. On 15 May 2014, the FCC decided to consider two options regarding Internet services: first, permit fast and slow broadband lanes, thereby compromising net neutrality; and second, reclassify broadband as a telecommunication service, thereby preserving net neutrality. On 10 November 2014, President Barack Obama recommended that the FCC reclassify broadband Internet service as a telecommunications service in order to preserve net neutrality. On 16 January 2015, Republicans presented legislation, in the form of a U.S. Congress H.R. discussion draft bill, that makes concessions to net neutrality but prohibits the FCC from accomplishing the goal or enacting any further regulation affecting Internet service providers. On 31 January 2015, AP News reported that the FCC will present the notion of applying ("with some caveats") Title II (common carrier) of the Communications Act of 1934 to the internet in a vote expected on 26 February 2015. Adoption of this notion would reclassify internet service from one of information to one of the telecommunications and, according to Tom Wheeler, chairman of the FCC, ensure net neutrality. The FCC is expected to enforce net neutrality in its vote, according to the New York Times.
When did the FCC rule on net neturality?
56dfbc1d7aa994140058e0bd
February 2015
6
False
How did the FCC rule on net neutrality?
56dfbc1d7aa994140058e0be
in favor
35
False
what did the FCC adopt for the internet?
56dfbc1d7aa994140058e0bf
Title II (common carrier) of the Communications Act of 1934
74
False
what amendment did the chairman of the FCC compare this ruling to?
56dfbc1d7aa994140058e0c0
the First Amendment
301
False
what did the FCC chairman say both the internet and the first amendment stand for?
56dfbc1d7aa994140058e0c1
free speech
343
False
FCC
25
Who ruled against neutrality in February 2015?
5a10d1d006e79900185c3405
True
the Communications Act of 1934 and Section 706 in the Telecommunications act of 1996
103
What to ask did FCC rule against?
5a10d1d006e79900185c3406
True
The FCC Chairman, Tom Wheeler,
205
Who compared his ruling to the fourth amendment?
5a10d1d006e79900185c3407
True
free speech.
343
The telecommunication act of 1934 and the Internet were compared to what?
5a10d1d006e79900185c3408
True
On 26 February 2015, the FCC ruled in favor of net neutrality by adopting Title II (common carrier) of the Communications Act of 1934 and Section 706 in the Telecommunications act of 1996 to the Internet. The FCC Chairman, Tom Wheeler, commented, "This is no more a plan to regulate the Internet than the First Amendment is a plan to regulate free speech. They both stand for the same concept."
When did the FCC publish its final rule on net neutrality regulations?
56dfbcec231d4119001abd54
13 April 2015
88
False
12 March 2015
3
When was a general summary of net neutrality released?
5a10d23306e79900185c340d
True
13 April 2015,
88
When was the first draft of the net neutrality regulations published?
5a10d23306e79900185c340e
True
On 12 March 2015, the FCC released the specific details of the net neutrality rules. On 13 April 2015, the FCC published the final rule on its new "Net Neutrality" regulations.
What do ISPs provide?
56dfbd5e231d4119001abd57
Internet access
14
False
how do isps provide internet access?
56dfbd5e231d4119001abd58
a range of technologies to connect users to their network
41
False
what is one type of technology used to connect to the internet?
56dfbd5e231d4119001abd59
television cable (CATV)
202
False
what type of technology is used to connect to the internet wirelessly?
56dfbd5e231d4119001abd5a
wireless Ethernet (wi-fi)
227
False
what was an earlier technology used to connect to the internet?
56dfbd5e231d4119001abd5b
telephone lines
182
False
ISPs
1
Who provides the Internet?
5a10d81806e79900185c3411
True
telephone lines
182
What old technology was unable to be used to connect to the Internet?
5a10d81806e79900185c3412
True
wireless Ethernet (wi-fi), and fiber optics
227
What technology is used to connect the Internet through wires?
5a10d81806e79900185c3413
True
connect users to their network
68
Computer motherboards are used to do what?
5a10d81806e79900185c3414
True
ISPs provide Internet access, employing a range of technologies to connect users to their network. Available technologies have ranged from computer modems with acoustic couplers to telephone lines, to television cable (CATV), wireless Ethernet (wi-fi), and fiber optics.
what traditional options were available for users and small businesses?
56dfbdc9231d4119001abd61
copper wires to provide dial-up, DSL, typically asymmetric digital subscriber line (ADSL), cable modem or Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) (typically basic rate interface)
60
False
what is it called when fiber-optics are used for end users?
56dfbdc9231d4119001abd62
Fiber To The Home
285
False
who is served by dial-up, dsl, adsl, cable modems, or isdns?
56dfbdc9231d4119001abd63
users and small businesses
4
False
copper wires to provide dial-up
60
What options were available to large businesses?
5a10d8b706e79900185c3419
True
Fiber To The Home
285
What is using fiber optics to providers called?
5a10d8b706e79900185c341a
True
copper wires to provide dial-up, DSL, typically asymmetric digital subscriber line (ADSL), cable modem or Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN)
60
What modern options are available to users and small businesses?
5a10d8b706e79900185c341b
True
For users and small businesses, traditional options include copper wires to provide dial-up, DSL, typically asymmetric digital subscriber line (ADSL), cable modem or Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) (typically basic rate interface). Using fiber-optics to end users is called Fiber To The Home or similar names.
What type of customers would typically have more demanding requirements?
56dfbe7c231d4119001abd70
medium-to-large businesses, or other ISPs
56
False
what does atm stand for in relation to internet providers?
56dfbe7c231d4119001abd71
Asynchronous Transfer Mode
280
False
what is high-speed dsl used for?
56dfbe7c231d4119001abd72
customers with more demanding requirements
4
False
what is SONET?
56dfbe7c231d4119001abd73
synchronous optical networking
312
False
higher-speed DSL
107
What is available to customers with less demanding requirements?
5a10d9ce06e79900185c341f
True
ATM
275
What's the abbreviation for synchronous transfer mode
5a10d9ce06e79900185c3420
True
SONET
344
What are the abbreviations for asynchronous optical networking
5a10d9ce06e79900185c3421
True
For customers with more demanding requirements (such as medium-to-large businesses, or other ISPs) can use higher-speed DSL (such as single-pair high-speed digital subscriber line), Ethernet, metropolitan Ethernet, gigabit Ethernet, Frame Relay, ISDN Primary Rate Interface, ATM (Asynchronous Transfer Mode) and synchronous optical networking (SONET).
What is a mailbox provider?
56dfbedb7aa994140058e0e9
an organization that provides services for hosting electronic mail domains with access to storage for mail boxes
22
False
What is an organization that provides hosting of electronic mail domains?
56dfbedb7aa994140058e0ea
A mailbox provider
0
False
what is the purpose of a mailbox provider?
56dfbedb7aa994140058e0eb
It provides email servers to send, receive, accept, and store email
136
False
how does a user store electronic mail?
56dfbedb7aa994140058e0ed
A mailbox provider
0
False
an organization that provides services for hosting electronic mail domains
22
What is an Internet mail service provider?
5a10dac206e79900185c3425
True
electronic mail
73
What online service does not provide storage?
5a10dac206e79900185c3426
True
mailbox provider
2
Who allows people to send but not accept in-store mail?
5a10dac206e79900185c3427
True
mailbox provider
2
Who invented male domains?
5a10dac206e79900185c3428
True
A mailbox provider is an organization that provides services for hosting electronic mail domains with access to storage for mail boxes. It provides email servers to send, receive, accept, and store email for end users or other organizations.
What is SMTP?
56dfbf91231d4119001abd83
Simple Mail Transfer Protocol
390
False
What is IMAP?
56dfbf91231d4119001abd84
Internet Message Access Protocol
477
False
How is access to mail provided?
56dfbf91231d4119001abd85
implementing Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) and possibly providing access to messages through Internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP), the Post Office Protocol, Webmail, or a proprietary protocol.
377
False
what are most mailbox providers as well?
56dfbf91231d4119001abd86
access providers
32
False
who possibly controls their own mail servers?
56dfbf91231d4119001abd87
companies, universities, organizations, groups, and individuals
232
False
also access providers,
27
All mailbox providers were also what?
5a10dce006e79900185c342d
True
Yahoo! Mail, Outlook.com, Gmail, AOL Mail, Po box
78
What are examples of access providers?
5a10dce006e79900185c342e
True
Simple Mail Transfer Protocol
390
What is used by organizations that depend on others to provide mail services?
5a10dce006e79900185c342f
True
the Post Office Protocol
518
How is traditional male provided?
5a10dce006e79900185c3430
True
Many mailbox providers are also access providers, while others are not (e.g., Yahoo! Mail, Outlook.com, Gmail, AOL Mail, Po box). The definition given in RFC 6650 covers email hosting services, as well as the relevant department of companies, universities, organizations, groups, and individuals that manage their mail servers themselves. The task is typically accomplished by implementing Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) and possibly providing access to messages through Internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP), the Post Office Protocol, Webmail, or a proprietary protocol.
What do internet hosting services provide?
56dfc016231d4119001abd8d
email, web-hosting, or online storage services
34
False
Who provides a virtual server service?
56dfc016231d4119001abd8e
Internet hosting services
0
False
who provides cloud services?
56dfc016231d4119001abd8f
Internet hosting services
0
False
email, web-hosting, or online storage services.
34
Internet hosting protocols provide what?
5a10dd9906e79900185c3435
True
Internet hosting services
0
Who provides physical servers to customers
5a10dd9906e79900185c3436
True
Internet hosting services
0
Who provides off-line storage services
5a10dd9906e79900185c3437
True
Internet hosting services provide email, web-hosting, or online storage services. Other services include virtual server, cloud services, or physical server operation.
Who does an ISP pay for internet access?
56dfc0ae231d4119001abd95
upstream ISPs
74
False
Why does an ISP need to pay an upstream ISP?
56dfc0ae231d4119001abd96
An upstream ISP usually has a larger network than the contracting ISP
109
False
What does an upstream ISP provide for an ISP?
56dfc0ae231d4119001abd97
access to parts of the Internet the contracting ISP by itself has no access to
226
False
what usually has a larger network, the ISP of the customer or the upstream ISP?
56dfc0ae231d4119001abd99
upstream ISPs
74
False
Internet access
92
What do ISPs pay customers for?
5a10dee906e79900185c343b
True
An upstream ISP
109
What usually has a small network than a contracting ISP?
5a10dee906e79900185c343c
True
Internet access
37
What does an upstream ISP provide for customers?
5a10dee906e79900185c343d
True
parts of the Internet
236
What does the contracting ISP have access to that the upstream ISP does not?
5a10dee906e79900185c343e
True
Just as their customers pay them for Internet access, ISPs themselves pay upstream ISPs for Internet access. An upstream ISP usually has a larger network than the contracting ISP or is able to provide the contracting ISP with access to parts of the Internet the contracting ISP by itself has no access to.
What is the simplest case of an ISP using an upstream ISP?
56dfc22f7aa994140058e13f
transmit data to or from areas of the Internet beyond the home network
91
False
what do transit ISPs provide?
56dfc22f7aa994140058e140
large amounts of bandwidth for connecting hosting ISPs and access ISPs
573
False
A mode of interconnection is often cascaded multiple times until reaching what?
56dfc22f7aa994140058e141
a tier 1 carrier
240
False
What is a PoP?
56dfc22f7aa994140058e142
point of presence
331
False
What provides bandwidth for the connecting of hosting ISPs and access ISPs?
56dfc22f7aa994140058e143
Transit ISPs
552
False
Transit ISPs
552
Who provides minimal amounts of bandwidth for connecting ISPs?
5a10e0bf06e79900185c3443
True
PoP
350
What is a point of protocol abbreviated as?
5a10e0bf06e79900185c3444
True
ISPs with more than one point of presence
307
What has the same connection to an upstream ISP?
5a10e0bf06e79900185c3445
True
upstream ISP
63
What transmits Internet within the home?
5a10e0bf06e79900185c3446
True
In the simplest case, a single connection is established to an upstream ISP and is used to transmit data to or from areas of the Internet beyond the home network; this mode of interconnection is often cascaded multiple times until reaching a tier 1 carrier. In reality, the situation is often more complex. ISPs with more than one point of presence (PoP) may have separate connections to an upstream ISP at multiple PoPs, or they may be customers of multiple upstream ISPs and may have connections to each one of them at one or more point of presence. Transit ISPs provide large amounts of bandwidth for connecting hosting ISPs and access ISPs.
What is a VISP?
56dfc2de231d4119001abdaf
virtual ISP
2
False
What do VISPs resemble?
56dfc2de231d4119001abdb1
mobile virtual network operators
275
False
What do visps purchase services from?
56dfc2de231d4119001abdb2
a wholesale ISP
96
False
A virtual ISP
0
Who does an ISP purchase services from?
5a10e2b206e79900185c344b
True
VISP
15
Who do wholesale ISP purchased services from?
5a10e2b206e79900185c344c
True
VISPs
260
What do virtual network operators resemble?
5a10e2b206e79900185c344d
True
using services and infrastructure owned and operated by the wholesale ISP
185
How do VISP's customers access the Internet?
5a10e2b206e79900185c344e
True
A virtual ISP (VISP) is an operation that purchases services from another ISP, sometimes called a wholesale ISP in this context, which allow the VISP's customers to access the Internet using services and infrastructure owned and operated by the wholesale ISP. VISPs resemble mobile virtual network operators and competitive local exchange carriers for voice communications.
What are free ISPs?
56dfc3487aa994140058e167
Internet service providers that provide service free of charge
14
False
What do free ISPs display in exchange for service?
56dfc3487aa994140058e168
advertisements
101
False
What are free ISPs similar to?
56dfc3487aa994140058e169
commercial television
150
False
How are freenets run?
56dfc3487aa994140058e16b
on a nonprofit basis
293
False
Free ISPs
0
What type of ISPs are free of restrictions?
5a10e3cc06e79900185c3453
True
Free ISPs
0
Who accepts donations instead of charging for services?
5a10e3cc06e79900185c3454
True
commercial television,
150
What kind of television are free ISPs like?
5a10e3cc06e79900185c3455
True
freenets
275
What are for-profit ISPs called?
5a10e3cc06e79900185c3456
True
Free ISPs are Internet service providers that provide service free of charge. Many free ISPs display advertisements while the user is connected; like commercial television, in a sense they are selling the user's attention to the advertiser. Other free ISPs, sometimes called freenets, are run on a nonprofit basis, usually with volunteer staff.[citation needed]
What is a WISP?
56dfc3c77aa994140058e171
wireless Internet service provider
2
False
What technology is part of a WISP?
56dfc3c77aa994140058e172
commonplace Wi-Fi wireless mesh networking, or proprietary equipment
144
False
What are some bands that Wi-Fi can operate over?
56dfc3c77aa994140058e173
900 MHz, 2.4 GHz, 4.9, 5.2, 5.4, 5.7, and 5.8 GHz bands
243
False
What is a wireless internet service provider's network based on?
56dfc3c77aa994140058e174
wireless networking
100
False
an Internet service provider with a network based on wireless networking
47
What is a wired Internet service provider?
5a10e4ae06e79900185c345b
True
Wi-Fi wireless mesh networking
156
What kind of uncommon networking is used for WISPs
5a10e4ae06e79900185c345c
True
WISP
38
What operates unlicensed frequencies?
5a10e4ae06e79900185c345d
True
proprietary equipment
191
What is designed to operate under open 900 MHz
5a10e4ae06e79900185c345e
True
UHF band
375
W ISP do not operate in what band?
5a10e4ae06e79900185c345f
True
A wireless Internet service provider (WISP) is an Internet service provider with a network based on wireless networking. Technology may include commonplace Wi-Fi wireless mesh networking, or proprietary equipment designed to operate over open 900 MHz, 2.4 GHz, 4.9, 5.2, 5.4, 5.7, and 5.8 GHz bands or licensed frequencies such as 2.5 GHz (EBS/BRS), 3.65 GHz (NN) and in the UHF band (including the MMDS frequency band) and LMDS.[citation needed]
What is peering?
56dfc460231d4119001abdc3
multiple ISPs interconnect at peering points or Internet exchange points
34
False
What does peering allow?
56dfc460231d4119001abdc4
routing of data between each network, without charging one another for the data transmitted
123
False
Why is peering used?
56dfc460231d4119001abdc5
data that would otherwise have passed through a third upstream ISP, incurring charges from the upstream ISP
215
False
What are IXs?
56dfc460231d4119001abdc6
Internet exchange points
82
False
Where do multiple ISPs connect?
56dfc460231d4119001abdc7
peering points or Internet exchange points
64
False
ISPs
0
Who may not engage in peering?
5a10e82f06e79900185c3465
True
data transmitted
198
Different networks charge each other for what?
5a10e82f06e79900185c3466
True
charges from the upstream ISP.
293
What would've been incurred by data passing through a third upstream ISP?
5a10e82f06e79900185c3467
True
peering points
64
Nothing to what costs ISPs more money?
5a10e82f06e79900185c3468
True
ISPs may engage in peering, where multiple ISPs interconnect at peering points or Internet exchange points (IXs), allowing routing of data between each network, without charging one another for the data transmitted—data that would otherwise have passed through a third upstream ISP, incurring charges from the upstream ISP.
Is a tradeoff between efficiency and cost possible?
56dfc4e0231d4119001abdd8
A tradeoff between cost and efficiency is possible
214
False
What sort of route does data follow?
56dfc4e0231d4119001abdd9
the most efficient route
148
False
between cost and efficiency
225
What trade-off is not possible?
5a10e91306e79900185c346d
True
data
135
What follows most inefficient route?
5a10e91306e79900185c346e
True
upstream connections
178
What works unreliably?
5a10e91306e79900185c346f
True
Network hardware, software and specifications
0
What ensures upstream connections are not reliable?
5a10e91306e79900185c3470
True
Network hardware, software and specifications, as well as the expertise of network management personnel are important in ensuring that data follows the most efficient route, and upstream connections work reliably. A tradeoff between cost and efficiency is possible.[citation needed]
What are ISPs subject to monitoring by in some countries?
56dfc592231d4119001abddd
intelligence agencies
313
False
What is the controversial N.S.A. program used in the U.S.?
56dfc592231d4119001abdde
PRISM
407
False
What does PRISM do?
56dfc592231d4119001abddf
provides for broad monitoring of Internet users traffic
413
False
What do ISPs integrate into their network to provide information to intelligence agencies?
56dfc592231d4119001abde0
a wide array of surveillance and packet sniffing equipment
627
False
What do DCSnet in the US and SORM in Russia do?
56dfc592231d4119001abde1
allowing monitoring of Internet traffic in real time
831
False
allow law enforcement agencies to monitor some or all of the information transmitted by the ISP
151
What are ISPs not legally required to do?
5a10eb6d06e79900185c3475
True
broad monitoring of Internet users traffic
426
What this PRISM stopped the national security agency for doing?
5a10eb6d06e79900185c3476
True
National Security Agency
365
Who objects to PRISM
5a10eb6d06e79900185c3477
True
a wide array of surveillance and packet sniffing equipment
627
What do ISPs remove from their networks to discourage intelligence agencies?
5a10eb6d06e79900185c3478
True
broad monitoring of Internet users traffic
426
What do many people say violates the First Amendment?
5a10eb6d06e79900185c3479
True
Internet service providers in many countries are legally required (e.g., via Communications Assistance for Law Enforcement Act (CALEA) in the U.S.) to allow law enforcement agencies to monitor some or all of the information transmitted by the ISP. Furthermore, in some countries ISPs are subject to monitoring by intelligence agencies. In the U.S., a controversial National Security Agency program known as PRISM provides for broad monitoring of Internet users traffic and has raised concerns about potential violation of the privacy protections in the Fourth Amendment to the United States Constitution. Modern ISPs integrate a wide array of surveillance and packet sniffing equipment into their networks, which then feeds the data to law-enforcement/intelligence networks (such as DCSNet in the United States, or SORM in Russia) allowing monitoring of Internet traffic in real time.
Comics
Which form of comics entails the use of photographic images?
56e01244231d4119001abf16
fumetti
484
False
In addition to onomatopoeia and captions, what can be used to show the dialogue in comics?
56e01244231d4119001abf17
speech balloons
215
False
What type of comic has taken off in the 21st century?
56e01244231d4119001abf18
online webcomics
756
False
The various sizes as well as how panels are arranged help with what aspect of comics?
56e01244231d4119001abf19
narrative pacing
371
False
fumetti
484
Which form of comics entails the use of autographic images?
5acf6bcf77cf76001a684dd0
True
speech balloons
215
In addition to onomatopoeia and captions, what can't be used to show the dialogue in comics?
5acf6bcf77cf76001a684dd1
True
speech balloons
215
In addition to onomatopoeia and captions, what can be used to show the non-dialogue in comics?
5acf6bcf77cf76001a684dd2
True
online webcomics
756
What type of comic has taken off in the 20th century?
5acf6bcf77cf76001a684dd3
True
narrative pacing
371
The various sizes as well as how panels are arranged don't help with what aspect of comics?
5acf6bcf77cf76001a684dd4
True
Comics are a medium used to express ideas by images, often combined with text or other visual information. Comics frequently takes the form of juxtaposed sequences of panels of images. Often textual devices such as speech balloons, captions, and onomatopoeia indicate dialogue, narration, sound effects, or other information. Size and arrangement of panels contribute to narrative pacing. Cartooning and similar forms of illustration are the most common image-making means in comics; fumetti is a form which uses photographic images. Common forms of comics include comic strips, editorial and gag cartoons, and comic books. Since the late 20th century, bound volumes such as graphic novels, comics albums, and tankōbon have become increasingly common, and online webcomics have proliferated in the 21st century.
When did Rodolphe Töpffer create cartoons?
56e01379231d4119001abf20
1830s
384
False
Which superhero appeared in comics in 1938?
56e01379231d4119001abf22
Superman
711
False
What is Japanese cartooning known as?
56e01379231d4119001abf23
manga
783
False
1830s
384
When did Rodolphe Töpffer create news?
5acf6c2d77cf76001a684dda
True
Superman
711
Which superhero appeared in comics in 1983?
5acf6c2d77cf76001a684ddb
True
Superman
711
Which antihero appeared in comics in 1938?
5acf6c2d77cf76001a684ddc
True
manga
783
What is Chinese cartooning known as?
5acf6c2d77cf76001a684ddd
True
manga
783
What is Japanese cartooning not known as?
5acf6c2d77cf76001a684dde
True
The history of comics has followed different paths in different cultures. Scholars have posited a pre-history as far back as the Lascaux cave paintings. By the mid-20th century, comics flourished particularly in the United States, western Europe (especially in France and Belgium), and Japan. The history of European comics is often traced to Rodolphe Töpffer's cartoon strips of the 1830s, and became popular following the success in the 1930s of strips and books such as The Adventures of Tintin. American comics emerged as a mass medium in the early 20th century with the advent of newspaper comic strips; magazine-style comic books followed in the 1930s, in which the superhero genre became prominent after Superman appeared in 1938. Histories of Japanese comics and cartooning (manga) propose origins as early as the 12th century. Modern comic strips emerged in Japan in the early 20th century, and the output of comics magazines and books rapidly expanded in the post-World War II era with the popularity of cartoonists such as Osamu Tezuka. Comics has had a lowbrow reputation for much of its history, but towards the end of the 20th century began to find greater acceptance with the public and in academia.
French comics are also known as what?
56e014a37aa994140058e2c3
bandes dessinées
499
False
When is the term comics considered singular rather than plural?
56e014a37aa994140058e2c4
when it refers to the medium
51
False
The historical aspect of cartooning can be applied to mass reproduction or what?
56e014a37aa994140058e2c5
recurring characters
792
False
Some experts believe comics is a combination of what two things?
56e014a37aa994140058e2c6
images and text
660
False
What are Japanese comics called?
56e014a37aa994140058e2c7
manga
469
False
bandes dessinées
499
French comics are not known as what?
5acf6cc177cf76001a684dee
True
when it refers to the medium
51
When is the term comics considered multiple rather than plural?
5acf6cc177cf76001a684def
True
recurring characters
792
The non-historical aspect of cartooning can be applied to mass reproduction or what?
5acf6cc177cf76001a684df0
True
images and text
660
No experts believe comics is a combination of what two things?
5acf6cc177cf76001a684df1
True
manga
469
What are Japanese comics never called?
5acf6cc177cf76001a684df2
True
The English term comics is used as a singular noun when it refers to the medium and a plural when referring to particular instances, such as individual strips or comic books. Though the term derives from the humorous (or comic) work that predominated in early American newspaper comic strips, it has become standard also for non-humorous works. It is common in English to refer to the comics of different cultures by the terms used in their original languages, such as manga for Japanese comics, or bandes dessinées for French-language comics. There is no consensus amongst theorists and historians on a definition of comics; some emphasize the combination of images and text, some sequentiality or other image relations, and others historical aspects such as mass reproduction or the use of recurring characters. The increasing cross-pollination of concepts from different comics cultures and eras has further made definition difficult.
Who is best known for being the first comics creator in Europe?
56e01a8f7aa994140058e2cd
Rodolphe Töpffer
150
False
Who is considered to be the first comic creator in America?
56e01a8f7aa994140058e2ce
Richard F. Outcault
237
False
When did Outcault's The Yellow Kid appear in newspapers?
56e01a8f7aa994140058e2cf
1890s
259
False
What style of comics did Japan have a long history with prior to World War II?
56e01a8f7aa994140058e2d0
satirical
395
False
Rodolphe Töpffer
150
Who is best known for being the last comics creator in Europe?
5acf6d3877cf76001a684e02
True
Rodolphe Töpffer
150
Who is least known for being the first comics creator in Europe?
5acf6d3877cf76001a684e03
True
Richard F. Outcault
237
Who is considered to be the last comic creator in America?
5acf6d3877cf76001a684e04
True
1890s
259
When did Outcault's The Yellow Kid appear in books?
5acf6d3877cf76001a684e05
True
satirical
395
What style of comics did Japan have a long history with prior to World War I?
5acf6d3877cf76001a684e06
True
The European, American, and Japanese comics traditions have followed different paths. Europeans have seen their tradition as beginning with the Swiss Rodolphe Töpffer from as early as 1827 and Americans have seen the origin of theirs in Richard F. Outcault's 1890s newspaper strip The Yellow Kid, though many Americans have come to recognize Töpffer's precedence. Japan had a long prehistory of satirical cartoons and comics leading up to the World War II era. The ukiyo-e artist Hokusai popularized the Japanese term for comics and cartooning, manga, in the early 19th century. In the post-war era modern Japanese comics began to flourish when Osamu Tezuka produced a prolific body of work. Towards the close of the 20th century, these three traditions converged in a trend towards book-length comics: the comics album in Europe, the tankōbon[a] in Japan, and the graphic novel in the English-speaking countries.
In France, what did historians find that they consider a precedent for comics?
56e01bf5231d4119001abf29
Lascaux cave paintings
101
False
What Michelangelo work do historians consider to be a precedent for comics?
56e01bf5231d4119001abf2a
The Last Judgment in the Sistine Chapel
378
False
In Egypt, historians consider what to be a precedent for comics?
56e01bf5231d4119001abf2b
hieroglyphs
207
False
In Rome, what do historians consider to be a precedent for comics?
56e01bf5231d4119001abf2c
Trajan's Column
220
False
Lascaux cave paintings
101
In France, what did historians find that they consider a irrelevant for comics?
5acf6dbd77cf76001a684e0c
True
The Last Judgment in the Sistine Chapel
378
What Michelangelo work do historians consider to be irrelevant for comics?
5acf6dbd77cf76001a684e0d
True
The Last Judgment in the Sistine Chapel
378
What Donatello work do historians consider to be a precedent for comics?
5acf6dbd77cf76001a684e0e
True
hieroglyphs
207
In Egypt, historians consider what to be irrelevant for comics?
5acf6dbd77cf76001a684e0f
True
Trajan's Column
220
In Rome, what do scientists consider to be a precedent for comics?
5acf6dbd77cf76001a684e10
True
Outside of these genealogies, comics theorists and historians have seen precedents for comics in the Lascaux cave paintings in France (some of which appear to be chronological sequences of images), Egyptian hieroglyphs, Trajan's Column in Rome, the 11th-century Norman Bayeux Tapestry, the 1370 bois Protat woodcut, the 15th-century Ars moriendi and block books, Michelangelo's The Last Judgment in the Sistine Chapel, and William Hogarth's 17th-century sequential engravings, amongst others.[b]
What was the first illustrated humor periodical in Britain during the 19th century?
56e01d2f231d4119001abf33
The Glasgow Looking Glass
111
False
When did The Glasgow Looking Glass begin?
56e01d2f231d4119001abf34
1825
140
False
In Britain, what was the most liked illustrated humor periodical?
56e01d2f231d4119001abf35
Punch
167
False
Which comic character was the first to appear in a weekly magazine?
56e01d2f231d4119001abf36
Ally Sloper
320
False
When did Ally Sloper first appear?
56e01d2f231d4119001abf37
1884
446
False
The Glasgow Looking Glass
111
What was the last illustrated humor periodical in Britain during the 19th century?
5acf6e3a77cf76001a684e20
True
1825
140
When did The Glasgow Looking Glass end?
5acf6e3a77cf76001a684e21
True
Punch
167
In Britain, what was the least liked illustrated humor periodical?
5acf6e3a77cf76001a684e22
True
Ally Sloper
320
Which comic character was the last to appear in a weekly magazine?
5acf6e3a77cf76001a684e23
True
1884
446
When did Ally Sloper last appear?
5acf6e3a77cf76001a684e24
True
Illustrated humour periodicals were popular in 19th-century Britain, the earliest of which was the short-lived The Glasgow Looking Glass in 1825. The most popular was Punch, which popularized the term cartoon for its humorous caricatures. On occasion the cartoons in these magazines appeared in sequences; the character Ally Sloper featured in the earliest serialized comic strip when the character began to feature in its own weekly magazine in 1884.
Which outlet did comic supplements find success in?
56e02060231d4119001abf3e
New York World
127
False
Which strip had a good deal of success as a comic strip?
56e02060231d4119001abf3f
Outcault's The Yellow Kid
188
False
New York World
127
Which outlet did comic supplements fail in?
5acf7cec77cf76001a684f4a
True
New York World
127
Which outlet did news supplements find success in?
5acf7cec77cf76001a684f4b
True
New York World
127
Which outlet didn't comic supplements find success in?
5acf7cec77cf76001a684f4c
True
Outcault's The Yellow Kid
188
Which strip had no success as a comic strip?
5acf7cec77cf76001a684f4d
True
Outcault's The Yellow Kid
188
Which strip had a good deal of success as a news article?
5acf7cec77cf76001a684f4e
True
American comics developed out of such magazines as Puck, Judge, and Life. The success of illustrated humour supplements in the New York World and later the New York American, particularly Outcault's The Yellow Kid, led to the development of newspaper comic strips. Early Sunday strips were full-page and often in colour. Between 1896 and 1901 cartoonists experimented with sequentiality, movement, and speech balloons.
What comic strip did Bud Fisher have success with?
56e020e2231d4119001abf47
Mutt and Jeff
160
False
When did Mutt and Jeff appear?
56e020e2231d4119001abf49
1907
139
False
When did comic books make an appearance?
56e020e2231d4119001abf4a
1930s
233
False
Which comic book had success with its first superhero in 1938?
56e020e2231d4119001abf4b
Action Comics
517
False
Mutt and Jeff
160
What comic strip did Bud Fisher fail with?
5acf7d5e77cf76001a684f66
True
Mutt and Jeff
160
What news column did Bud Fisher have success with?
5acf7d5e77cf76001a684f67
True
1907
139
When did Mutt and Jeff end?
5acf7d5e77cf76001a684f68
True
1930s
233
When did news books make an appearance?
5acf7d5e77cf76001a684f69
True
Action Comics
517
Which comic book failed with its first superhero in 1938?
5acf7d5e77cf76001a684f6a
True
Shorter, black-and-white daily strips began to appear early in the 20th century, and became established in newspapers after the success in 1907 of Bud Fisher's Mutt and Jeff. Humour strips predominated at first, and in the 1920s and 1930s strips with continuing stories in genres such as adventure and drama also became popular. Thin periodicals called comic books appeared in the 1930s, at first reprinting newspaper comic strips; by the end of the decade, original content began to dominate. The success in 1938 of Action Comics and its lead hero Superman marked the beginning of the Golden Age of Comic Books, in which the superhero genre was prominent.
Which genre of comic books had parents concerned?
56e02191231d4119001abf52
crime and horror
286
False
Which group was created after a Senate hearing on comic books content?
56e02191231d4119001abf53
Comics Code Authority
447
False
When did super heroes become popular again in comic books?
56e02191231d4119001abf54
1960s
741
False
When did the alternative comics movement begin?
56e02191231d4119001abf55
1980s
938
False
crime and horror
286
Which genre of comic books had children concerned?
5acf7f8777cf76001a684fc0
True
crime and horror
286
Which genre of comic books had parents excited?
5acf7f8777cf76001a684fc1
True
Comics Code Authority
447
Which group was disbanded after a Senate hearing on comic books content?
5acf7f8777cf76001a684fc2
True
1960s
741
When did super heroes lose popularity again in comic books?
5acf7f8777cf76001a684fc3
True
1980s
938
When did the alternative comics movement end?
5acf7f8777cf76001a684fc4
True
The popularity of superhero comic books declined following World War II, while comic book sales continued to increase as other genres proliferated, such as romance, westerns, crime, horror, and humour. Following a sales peak in the early 1950s, the content of comic books (particularly crime and horror) was subjected to scrutiny from parent groups and government agencies, which culminated in Senate hearings that led to the establishment of the Comics Code Authority self-censoring body. The Code has been blamed for stunting the growth of American comics and maintaining its low status in American society for much of the remainder of the century. Superheroes re-established themselves as the most prominent comic book genre by the early 1960s. Underground comix challenged the Code and readers with adult, countercultural content in the late 1960s and early 1970s. The underground gave birth to the alternative comics movement in the 1980s and its mature, often experimental content in non-superhero genres.
Serialization of comics became less popular when?
56e02a437aa994140058e2dd
1980s
9
False
How were comics published when serialization became less common?
56e02a437aa994140058e2de
as albums
185
False
Which small publisher published in formats that were not traditional?
56e02a437aa994140058e2df
L'Association
223
False
Comics continue to thrive regardless of the decrease in what market?
56e02a437aa994140058e2e1
print market
507
False
1980s
9
Serialization of comics became more popular when?
5acf875d77cf76001a685102
True
1980s
9
Serialization of newspapers became less popular when?
5acf875d77cf76001a685103
True
albums
188
How were comics published when serialization became more common?
5acf875d77cf76001a685104
True
L'Association
223
Which major publisher published in formats that were not traditional?
5acf875d77cf76001a685105
True
print market
507
Comics continue to decline regardless of the decrease in what market?
5acf875d77cf76001a685106
True
From the 1980s, mainstream sensibilities were reasserted and serialization became less common as the number of comics magazines decreased and many comics began to be published directly as albums. Smaller publishers such as L'Association that published longer works in non-traditional formats by auteur-istic creators also became common. Since the 1990s, mergers resulted in fewer large publishers, while smaller publishers proliferated. Sales overall continued to grow despite the trend towards a shrinking print market.
What picture books from the 17th century show manga origins?
56e02acd231d4119001abf6d
toba-e and kibyōshi picture books
185
False
What is ukiyo-e an example of?
56e02acd231d4119001abf6e
woodblock prints
224
False
toba-e and kibyōshi picture books
185
What picture books from the 16th century show manga origins?
5acf87db77cf76001a685126
True
toba-e and kibyōshi picture books
185
What picture newspapers from the 17th century show manga origins?
5acf87db77cf76001a685127
True
toba-e and kibyōshi picture books
185
What picture books from the 17th century don't show manga origins?
5acf87db77cf76001a685128
True
popular between the 17th and 20th centuries
268
What is ukiyo-e not an example of?
5acf87db77cf76001a685129
True
ukiyo-e
249
what didn't become popular between the 17th and 20th centuries?
5acf87db77cf76001a68512a
True
Japanese comics and cartooning (manga),[g] have a history that has been seen as far back as the anthropomorphic characters in the 12th-to-13th-century Chōjū-jinbutsu-giga, 17th-century toba-e and kibyōshi picture books, and woodblock prints such as ukiyo-e which were popular between the 17th and 20th centuries. The kibyōshi contained examples of sequential images, movement lines, and sound effects.
When did comic supplements start showing up in Japan?
56e02b8d231d4119001abf75
1890s
220
False
Who introduced satirical strips to Japan?
56e02b8d231d4119001abf76
Western expatriates
26
False
When did Jiji Manga debut?
56e02b8d231d4119001abf77
1900
336
False
Who started the first Japanese comic strip in modern times?
56e02b8d231d4119001abf78
Rakuten Kitazawa
477
False
When did comic strips start appearing in hardback collection volumes?
56e02b8d231d4119001abf79
1930s
546
False
1890s
220
When did comic supplements stop showing up in Japan?
5acf88c177cf76001a68514a
True
1890s
220
When did comic supplements start showing up in China?
5acf88c177cf76001a68514b
True
Western expatriates
26
Who never introduced satirical strips to Japan?
5acf88c177cf76001a68514c
True
1900
336
When did Jiji Manga end?
5acf88c177cf76001a68514d
True
Rakuten Kitazawa
477
Who started the last Japanese comic strip in modern times?
5acf88c177cf76001a68514e
True
Illustrated magazines for Western expatriates introduced Western-style satirical cartoons to Japan in the late 19th century. New publications in both the Western and Japanese styles became popular, and at the end of the 1890s, American-style newspaper comics supplements began to appear in Japan, as well as some American comic strips. 1900 saw the debut of the Jiji Manga in the Jiji Shinpō newspaper—the first use of the word "manga" in its modern sense, and where, in 1902, Rakuten Kitazawa began the first modern Japanese comic strip. By the 1930s, comic strips were serialized in large-circulation monthly girls' and boys' magazine and collected into hardback volumes.
What comic strip was created by Osamu Tezuka?
56e02d07231d4119001abf7f
Sazae-san
159
False
Where were comic strip stories first serialized?
56e02d07231d4119001abf81
magazines
271
False
What is considered the start of the modern comics in Japan?
56e02d07231d4119001abf82
after World War II
40
False
Sazae-san
159
What comic strip was ended by Osamu Tezuka?
5acf8a5777cf76001a68517c
True
Sazae-san
159
What comic strip wasn't created by Osamu Tezuka?
5acf8a5777cf76001a68517d
True
magazines
271
Where were comic strip stories never serialized?
5acf8a5777cf76001a68517e
True
after World War II
40
What is considered the end of the modern comics in Japan?
5acf8a5777cf76001a68517f
True
after World War II
40
What is considered the start of the ancient comics in Japan?
5acf8a5777cf76001a685180
True
The modern era of comics in Japan began after World War II, propelled by the success of the serialized comics of the prolific Osamu Tezuka and the comic strip Sazae-san. Genres and audiences diversified over the following decades. Stories are usually first serialized in magazines which are often hundreds of pages thick and may over a dozen stories; they are later compiled in tankōbon-format books. At the turn of the 20th and 21st centuries, nearly a quarter of all printed material in Japan was comics. translations became extremely popular in foreign markets—in some cases equaling or surpassing the sales of domestic comics.
Where do comics usually appear?
56e02db6231d4119001abf8f
newspapers
97
False
newspapers
97
Where do comics never appear?
5acf8b4b77cf76001a685196
True
US
116
What country do weekly strips have normally occupied a single tier?
5acf8b4b77cf76001a685197
True
US
116
What country do daily strips have abnormally occupied a single tier?
5acf8b4b77cf76001a685198
True
US
116
What country do daily strips have normally occupied a double tier?
5acf8b4b77cf76001a685199
True
multiple
207
while Saturday strips have been given how many tiers?
5acf8b4b77cf76001a68519a
True
Comic strips are generally short, multipanel comics that traditionally most commonly appeared in newspapers. In the US, daily strips have normally occupied a single tier, while Sunday strips have been given multiple tiers. In the early 20th century, daily strips were typically in black-and-white and Sundays were usually in colour and often occupied a full page.
Where do serialized comics in Japan typically appear?
56e02e6e231d4119001abf9a
magazines
226
False
How often are European serialized comics in magazines?
56e02e6e231d4119001abf9b
monthly or weekly
236
False
How often do serialized comics typically appear in Japanese magazines?
56e02e6e231d4119001abf9c
weekly
247
False
How long is the typical Japanese comic magazine?
56e02e6e231d4119001abf9d
hundreds of pages
356
False
magazines
226
Where do non-serialized comics in Japan typically appear?
5acf8c8477cf76001a6851d0
True
magazines
226
Where do serialized comics in Japan atypically appear?
5acf8c8477cf76001a6851d1
True
monthly or weekly
236
How often are American serialized comics in magazines?
5acf8c8477cf76001a6851d2
True
weekly
297
How often do serialized comics typically appear in Chinese magazines?
5acf8c8477cf76001a6851d3
True
hundreds of pages
356
How long is the atypical Japanese comic magazine?
5acf8c8477cf76001a6851d4
True
Specialized comics periodicals formats vary greatly in different cultures. Comic books, primarily an American format, are thin periodicals usually published in colour. European and Japanese comics are frequently serialized in magazines—monthly or weekly in Europe, and usually black-and-white and weekly in Japan. Japanese comics magazine typically run to hundreds of pages.
What are bounds volumes of comics called in America?
56e02f3b7aa994140058e30d
graphic novels
205
False
What is the name given to Japanese comics volumes?
56e02f3b7aa994140058e30f
tankōbon
460
False
What type of work is the word novel generally geared towards?
56e02f3b7aa994140058e310
fiction
329
False
What term can mean a non-fiction piece of a collection of short pieces?
56e02f3b7aa994140058e311
graphic novels
205
False
graphic novels
205
What are bounds volumes of newspapers called in America?
5acf8d1977cf76001a6851ec
True
tankōbon
460
What is the name not given to Japanese comics volumes?
5acf8d1977cf76001a6851ed
True
fiction
329
What type of play is the word novel generally geared towards?
5acf8d1977cf76001a6851ee
True
graphic novel
338
What term can mean a fiction piece of a collection of short pieces?
5acf8d1977cf76001a6851ef
True
graphic novel
338
What term can mean a non-fiction piece of a collection of long pieces?
5acf8d1977cf76001a6851f0
True
Book-length comics take different forms in different cultures. European comics albums are most commonly printed in A4-size colour volumes. In English-speaking countries, bound volumes of comics are called graphic novels and are available in various formats. Despite incorporating the term "novel"—a term normally associated with fiction—"graphic novel" also refers to non-fiction and collections of short works. Japanese comics are collected in volumes called tankōbon following magazine serialization.
Where did gag cartoons first make an appearance?
56e02fd17aa994140058e323
Europe
377
False
When did gag single-panel illustrations become known as cartoons?
56e02fd17aa994140058e324
1843
477
False
In which publication was cartoon first used to describe gag single-panel illustrations?
56e02fd17aa994140058e325
Punch
513
False
Europe
377
Where did gag cartoons last make an appearance?
5acf8d6477cf76001a68520a
True
Europe
377
Where did serious cartoons first make an appearance?
5acf8d6477cf76001a68520b
True
1843
477
When did serious single-panel illustrations become known as cartoons?
5acf8d6477cf76001a68520c
True
1843
477
When did gag single-panel illustrations become known as comics?
5acf8d6477cf76001a68520d
True
Punch
513
In which publication was cartoon last used to describe gag single-panel illustrations?
5acf8d6477cf76001a68520e
True
Gag and editorial cartoons usually consist of a single panel, often incorporating a caption or speech balloon. Definitions of comics which emphasize sequence usually exclude gag, editorial, and other single-panel cartoons; they can be included in definitions that emphasize the combination of word and image. Gag cartoons first began to proliferate in broadsheets published in Europe in the 18th and 19th centuries, and the term "cartoon"[h] was first used to describe them in 1843 in the British humour magazine Punch.
What did comics have in the United States because of cultural roots?
56e03088231d4119001abfa3
lowbrow reputation
27
False
Who thought pop culture was a risk?
56e03088231d4119001abfa4
cultural elites
87
False
What was thought to be only good for children and those who could not read or write?
56e03088231d4119001abfa6
Comics
0
False
lowbrow reputation
27
What did comics have in the United States because of sports roots?
5acf7fe177cf76001a684fdc
True
lowbrow reputation
27
What did comics not have in the United States because of cultural roots?
5acf7fe177cf76001a684fdd
True
cultural elites
87
Who thought pop culture wasn't at risk?
5acf7fe177cf76001a684fde
True
Comics
307
What was thought to be bad for children and those who could not read or write?
5acf7fe177cf76001a684fdf
True
Comics
307
What was thought to be only good for children and those who could read or write?
5acf7fe177cf76001a684fe0
True
Comics in the US has had a lowbrow reputation stemming from its roots in mass culture; cultural elites sometimes saw popular culture as threatening culture and society. In the latter half of the 20th century, popular culture won greater acceptance, and the lines between high and low culture began to blur. Comics nevertheless continued to be stigmatized, as the medium was seen as entertainment for children and illiterates.
What is a comic that is as long as a book called?
56e03125231d4119001abfab
graphic novel
4
False
Who helped "graphic novel" get public attention?
56e03125231d4119001abfac
Will Eisner
67
False
What decade did the term "graphic novel" become well known by the public?
56e03125231d4119001abfad
1980s
274
False
In addition to printed graphic novels in stores, what became popular online?
56e03125231d4119001abfae
webcomics
378
False
The popularity of the Watchmen, The Dark Knight Returns and what other comic helped popularize "graphic novel" as a term?
56e03125231d4119001abfaf
Maus
219
False
graphic novel
4
What is a comic that is as short as a book called?
5acf804277cf76001a684ff0
True
Will Eisner
67
Who helped "graphic novel" lose public attention?
5acf804277cf76001a684ff1
True
mid-1980s
270
What decade did the term "graphic novel" become lesser known by the public?
5acf804277cf76001a684ff2
True
webcomics
378
In addition to printed graphic novels in stores, what became popular offline?
5acf804277cf76001a684ff3
True
Maus
219
The loss in popularity of the Watchmen, The Dark Knight Returns and what other comic helped popularize "graphic novel" as a term?
5acf804277cf76001a684ff4
True
The graphic novel—book-length comics—began to gain attention after Will Eisner popularized the term with his book A Contract with God (1978). The term became widely known with the public after the commercial success of Maus, Watchmen, and The Dark Knight Returns in the mid-1980s. In the 21st century graphic novels became established in mainstream bookstores and libraries and webcomics became common.
Who started producing comic strips and theories about them in 1827?
56e031847aa994140058e33f
Rodolphe Töpffer
22
False
What century had comics in wide production?
56e031847aa994140058e340
19th
182
False
What 1925 cartoon made speech bubbles popular?
56e031847aa994140058e341
Zig et Puce
211
False
What comics began to dominate in Europe?
56e031847aa994140058e342
Franco-Belgian
302
False
When was "The Adventures of Tintin" serialized?
56e031847aa994140058e343
1929
472
False
Rodolphe Töpffer
22
Who started producing comic strips and theories about them in 1872?
5acf824377cf76001a685046
True
19th
182
What century had comics in local production?
5acf824377cf76001a685047
True
Zig et Puce
211
What 1925 cartoon made speech bubbles unpopular?
5acf824377cf76001a685048
True
1929
472
When was "The Adventures of Tintin" unserialized?
5acf824377cf76001a68504a
True
The francophone Swiss Rodolphe Töpffer produced comic strips beginning in 1827, and published theories behind the form. Cartoons appeared widely in newspapers and magazines from the 19th century. The success of Zig et Puce in 1925 popularized the use of speech balloons in European comics, after which Franco-Belgian comics began to dominate. The Adventures of Tintin, with its signature clear line style, was first serialized in newspaper comics supplements beginning in 1929, and became an icon of Franco-Belgian comics.
In the United States in the middle of the 20th century comics were seen as a risk to culture and what?
56e031db231d4119001abfb7
literacy
260
False
What was seen as "infantile" in the United States?
56e031db231d4119001abfb8
comics
67
False
Comics were quoted as a sabotage of art and what?
56e031db231d4119001abfb9
literature
402
False
literacy
260
In the United States in the middle of the 19th century comics were seen as a risk to culture and what?
5acf860877cf76001a6850b2
True
literacy
260
In the United States in the middle of the 20th century comics were seen as a boon to culture and what?
5acf860877cf76001a6850b3
True
comics
202
What was seen as sophisticated reading in the United States?
5acf860877cf76001a6850b4
True
literature
402
Comics were quoted as a product of art and what?
5acf860877cf76001a6850b5
True
literature
402
Comics were quoted as a sabotage of writing and what?
5acf860877cf76001a6850b6
True
Following the success of Le Journal de Mickey (1934–44), dedicated comics magazines and full-colour comics albums became the primary outlet for comics in the mid-20th century. As in the US, at the time comics were seen as infantile and a threat to culture and literacy; commentators stated that "none bear up to the slightest serious analysis",[c] and that comics were "the sabotage of all art and all literature".[d]
Comics for adults began to be called what?
56e032247aa994140058e34b
Ninth Art
178
False
What year did Pilote begin?
56e032247aa994140058e34c
1959
357
False
What became a best-seller comic in the French language?
56e032247aa994140058e34d
Adventures of Asterix
437
False
drawn strips
42
What does bandes dessinées not mean?
5acf864b77cf76001a6850d0
True
Ninth Art
178
Comics for kids began to be called what?
5acf864b77cf76001a6850d1
True
1959
357
What year did Pilote end?
5acf864b77cf76001a6850d2
True
Adventures of Asterix
437
What became a best-seller comic in the English language?
5acf864b77cf76001a6850d3
True
Adventures of Asterix
437
What became a low-seller comic in the French language?
5acf864b77cf76001a6850d4
True
In the 1960s, the term bandes dessinées ("drawn strips") came into wide use in French to denote the medium. Cartoonists began creating comics for mature audiences, and the term "Ninth Art"[e] was coined, as comics began to attract public and academic attention as an artform. A group including René Goscinny and Albert Uderzo founded the magazine Pilote in 1959 to give artists greater freedom over their work. Goscinny and Uderzo's The Adventures of Asterix appeared in it and went on to become the best-selling French-language comics series. From 1960, the satirical and taboo-breaking Hara-Kiri defied censorship laws in the countercultural spirit that led to the May 1968 events.
Pilote cartoonists were upset with censorship and what?
56e032687aa994140058e353
editorial interference
32
False
When was L'Écho des savanes begun?
56e032687aa994140058e354
1972
139
False
Métal hurlant was of what genre?
56e032687aa994140058e356
science fiction
237
False
What format did adult comics begin to be published in?
56e032687aa994140058e357
prestige
338
False
editorial interference
32
Pilote cartoonists were happy with censorship and what?
5acf86e977cf76001a6850ee
True
editorial interference
32
Pilote readers were upset with censorship and what?
5acf86e977cf76001a6850ef
True
1972
139
When was L'Écho des savanes ended?
5acf86e977cf76001a6850f0
True
science fiction
237
Métal hurlant wasn't of what genre?
5acf86e977cf76001a6850f1
True
prestige
338
What format did child comics begin to be published in?
5acf86e977cf76001a6850f2
True
Frustration with censorship and editorial interference led to a group of Pilote cartoonists to found the adults-only L'Écho des savanes in 1972. Adult-oriented and experimental comics flourished in the 1970s, such as in the experimental science fiction of Mœbius and others in Métal hurlant, even mainstream publishers took to publishing prestige-format adult comics.
Which historical overview did Seiki Hosokibara create?
56e033fc7aa994140058e35d
Nihon Manga-Shi
336
False
When did Hosokibara create Nihon Manga-Shi?
56e033fc7aa994140058e35e
1924
358
False
What was created in 2001 to give students comic scholarships?
56e033fc7aa994140058e35f
Japan Society for Studies in Cartoon and Comics
1079
False
Who helped the rest of the world use the word manga outside of Japan's borders?
56e033fc7aa994140058e360
Frederik L. Schodt
1209
False
What publication is Schodt responsible for?
56e033fc7aa994140058e361
Manga! Manga! The World of Japanese Comics
1230
False
Nihon Manga-Shi
336
Which historical overview did Seiki Hosokibara reject?
5acf90a577cf76001a685292
True
1924
358
When did Hosokibara reject Nihon Manga-Shi?
5acf90a577cf76001a685293
True
Japan Society for Studies in Cartoon and Comics
1079
What was abolished in 2001 to give students comic scholarships?
5acf90a577cf76001a685294
True
Frederik L. Schodt
1209
Who helped the rest of the world use the word manga inside of Japan's borders?
5acf90a577cf76001a685295
True
Manga! Manga! The World of Japanese Comics
1230
What publication is Schodt not responsible for?
5acf90a577cf76001a685296
True
Historical narratives of manga tend to focus either on its recent, post-WWII history, or on attempts to demonstrates deep roots in the past, such as to the Chōjū-jinbutsu-giga picture scroll of the 12th and 13th centuries, or the early 19th-century Hokusai Manga. The first historical overview of Japanese comics was Seiki Hosokibara's Nihon Manga-Shi[i] in 1924. Early post-war Japanese criticism was mostly of a left-wing political nature until the 1986 publication for Tomofusa Kure's Modern Manga: The Complete Picture,[j] which de-emphasized politics in favour of formal aspects, such as structure and a "grammar" of comics. The field of manga studies increased rapidly, with numerous books on the subject appearing in the 1990s. Formal theories of manga have focused on developing a "manga expression theory",[k] with emphasis on spatial relationships in the structure of images on the page, distinguishing the medium from film or literature, in which the flow of time is the basic organizing element. Comics studies courses have proliferated at Japanese universities, and Japan Society for Studies in Cartoon and Comics (ja)[l] was established in 2001 to promote comics scholarship. The publication of Frederik L. Schodt's Manga! Manga! The World of Japanese Comics in 1983 led to the spread of use of the word manga outside Japan to mean "Japanese comics" or "Japanese-style comics".
Who put together a history of American comics in 1947?
56e0353d7aa994140058e371
Coulton Waugh
0
False
What was the name of Waugh's work?
56e0353d7aa994140058e372
The Comics
80
False
Who created a book about comics from a philosophical point of view?
56e0353d7aa994140058e373
David Carrier
259
False
What book did Will Eisner create in 1985?
56e0353d7aa994140058e375
Comics and Sequential Art
113
False
Coulton Waugh
0
Who put together a history of American comics in 1974?
5acf915177cf76001a6852a4
True
Coulton Waugh
0
Who didn't put together a history of American comics in 1947?
5acf915177cf76001a6852a5
True
The Comics
80
What wasn't the name of Waugh's work?
5acf915177cf76001a6852a6
True
David Carrier
259
Who created a book about comics from a biographical point of view?
5acf915177cf76001a6852a7
True
Comics and Sequential Art
113
What book did Will Eisner create in 1958?
5acf915177cf76001a6852a8
True
Coulton Waugh attempted the first comprehensive history of American comics with The Comics (1947). Will Eisner's Comics and Sequential Art (1985) and Scott McCloud's Understanding Comics (1993) were early attempts in English to formalize the study of comics. David Carrier's The Aesthetics of Comics (2000) was the first full-length treatment of comics from a philosophical perspective. Prominent American attempts at definitions of comics include Eisner's, McCloud's, and Harvey's. Eisner described what he called "sequential art" as "the arrangement of pictures or images and words to narrate a story or dramatize an idea"; Scott McCloud defined comics "juxtaposed pictorial and other images in deliberate sequence, intended to convey information and/or to produce an aesthetic response in the viewer", a strictly formal definition which detached comics from its historical and cultural trappings. R. C. Harvey defined comics as "pictorial narratives or expositions in which words (often lettered into the picture area within speech balloons) usually contribute to the meaning of the pictures and vice versa". Each definition has had its detractors. Harvey saw McCloud's definition as excluding single-panel cartoons, and objected to McCloud's de-emphasizing verbal elements, insisting "the essential characteristic of comics is the incorporation of verbal content". Aaron Meskin saw McCloud's theories as an artificial attempt to legitimize the place of comics in art history.
What word is used in France for comics?
56e035be7aa994140058e385
bandes dessinées
169
False
What word is used in Japan for comics?
56e035be7aa994140058e386
manga
337
False
What does bandes dessinées mean?
56e035be7aa994140058e388
drawn strip
188
False
What is the definitive factor of bandes dessinées?
56e035be7aa994140058e389
drawn images
234
False
bandes dessinées
169
What word is rejected in France for comics?
5acf91a777cf76001a6852ae
True
bandes dessinées
169
What word is used in France for comedies?
5acf91a777cf76001a6852af
True
manga
337
What word isn't used in Japan for comics?
5acf91a777cf76001a6852b0
True
drawn strip
188
What doesn't bandes dessinées mean?
5acf91a777cf76001a6852b1
True
drawn images
234
What is the non-definitive factor of bandes dessinées?
5acf91a777cf76001a6852b2
True
Cross-cultural study of comics is complicated by the great difference in meaning and scope of the words for "comics" in different languages. The French term for comics, bandes dessinées ("drawn strip") emphasizes the juxtaposition of drawn images as a defining factor, which can imply the exclusion of even photographic comics. The term manga is used in Japanese to indicate all forms of comics, cartooning, and caricature.
What comics are on the Internet?
56e038497aa994140058e3a5
Webcomics
0
False
Webcomics reach large audiences and new what?
56e038497aa994140058e3a6
readers
105
False
With webcomics, readers have access to what?
56e038497aa994140058e3a7
archived installments
132
False
Not held back by size limits, webcomics are said to have a what?
56e038497aa994140058e3a8
infinite canvas
184
False
Webcomics
0
What comics aren't on the Internet?
5acf8dae77cf76001a685228
True
readers
105
Webcomics reach small audiences and new what?
5acf8dae77cf76001a685229
True
readers
105
Webcomics reach large audiences and old what?
5acf8dae77cf76001a68522a
True
archived installments
132
With webcomics, readers have no access to what?
5acf8dae77cf76001a68522b
True
infinite canvas
184
Held back by size limits, webcomics are said to have a what?
5acf8dae77cf76001a68522c
True
Webcomics are comics that are available on the internet. They are able to reach large audiences, and new readers usually can access archived installments. Webcomics can make use of an infinite canvas—meaning they are not constrained by size or dimensions of a page.
Storyboards and what are thought to be comics by some?
56e0388a231d4119001abfdd
Wordless novels
247
False
Storyboards are used a lot by what?
56e0388a231d4119001abfde
Film studios
60
False
Storyboards are not considered what?
56e0388a231d4119001abfdf
an end product
197
False
Who does not often see storyboards used in film making?
56e0388a231d4119001abfe0
the public
235
False
A book with pictures with no captions that tell a story are called what?
56e0388a231d4119001abfe1
Wordless novels
247
False
Wordless novels
247
Storyboards and what are thought to be comics by all?
5acf8e0f77cf76001a685232
True
Film studios
60
Storyboards are not used a lot by what?
5acf8e0f77cf76001a685233
True
Film studios
60
Scripts are used a lot by what?
5acf8e0f77cf76001a685234
True
an end product
197
Storyboards are considered what?
5acf8e0f77cf76001a685235
True
Wordless novels
247
A book without pictures with no captions that tell a story are called what?
5acf8e0f77cf76001a685236
True
Some consider storyboards and wordless novels to be comics. Film studios, especially in animation, often use sequences of images as guides for film sequences. These storyboards are not intended as an end product and are rarely seen by the public. Wordless novels are books which use sequences of captionless images to deliver a narrative.
What has not been reached as far as defining comics is concerned?
56e038cc7aa994140058e3b5
consensus
60
False
R. C. Harvey, Will Eisner and others are considered to be comic what?
56e038cc7aa994140058e3b6
Theorists
209
False
What are there prominent examples of in comic history?
56e038cc7aa994140058e3b7
pantomime comics
393
False
Comic critics, such as McCloud, stressed that sequences of what should be primary?
56e038cc7aa994140058e3b8
images
346
False
What century had forgotten comic forms rediscovered?
56e038cc7aa994140058e3b9
20th
572
False
consensus
60
What has been reached as far as defining comics is concerned?
5acf8e7077cf76001a685258
True
Theorists
209
R. C. Harvey, Will Eisner and others are not considered to be comic what?
5acf8e7077cf76001a685259
True
pantomime comics
393
What aren't there prominent examples of in comic history?
5acf8e7077cf76001a68525a
True
images
539
Comic critics, such as McCloud, stressed that sequences of what should be secondary?
5acf8e7077cf76001a68525b
True
20th
572
What century had remembered comic forms rediscovered?
5acf8e7077cf76001a68525c
True
Similar to the problems of defining literature and film, no consensus has been reached on a definition of the comics medium, and attempted definitions and descriptions have fallen prey to numerous exceptions. Theorists such as Töpffer, R. C. Harvey, Will Eisner, David Carrier, Alain Rey, and Lawrence Grove emphasize the combination of text and images, though there are prominent examples of pantomime comics throughout its history. Other critics, such as Thierry Groensteen and Scott McCloud, have emphasized the primacy of sequences of images. Towards the close of the 20th century, different cultures' discoveries of each other's comics traditions, the rediscovery of forgotten early comics forms, and the rise of new forms made defining comics a more complicated task.
In the 1840s, Töpffer wrote theories about whose work?
56e039097aa994140058e3bf
his own
57
False
Who introduced the term "multiframe"?
56e039097aa994140058e3c0
Henri Vanlier
423
False
Who used a semiotics method to study comics in the 1970s?
56e039097aa994140058e3c2
Pierre Fresnault-Deruelle
200
False
Who used cognitive science to learn how people understand comics?
56e039097aa994140058e3c3
Neil Cohn
1096
False
his own
57
In the 1940s, Töpffer wrote theories about whose work?
5acf902777cf76001a685288
True
Henri Vanlier
423
Who rejected the term "multiframe"?
5acf902777cf76001a685289
True
Pierre Fresnault-Deruelle
200
Who never used a semiotics method to study comics in the 1970s
5acf902777cf76001a68528a
True
Pierre Fresnault-Deruelle
200
Who used a semiotics method to study comics in the 1980s
5acf902777cf76001a68528b
True
Neil Cohn
1096
Who used cognitive science to learn how dogs understand comics?
5acf902777cf76001a68528c
True
European comics studies began with Töpffer's theories of his own work in the 1840s, which emphasized panel transitions and the visual–verbal combination. No further progress was made until the 1970s. Pierre Fresnault-Deruelle then took a semiotics approach to the study of comics, analyzing text–image relations, page-level image relations, and image discontinuities, or what Scott McCloud later dubbed "closure". In 1987, Henri Vanlier introduced the term multicadre, or "multiframe", to refer to the comics a page as a semantic unit. By the 1990s, theorists such as Benoît Peeters and Thierry Groensteen turned attention to artists' poïetic creative choices. Thierry Smolderen and Harry Morgan have held relativistic views of the definition of comics, a medium that has taken various, equally valid forms over its history. Morgan sees comics as a subset of "les littératures dessinées" (or "drawn literatures"). French theory has come to give special attention to the page, in distinction from American theories such as McCloud's which focus on panel-to-panel transitions. Since the mid-2000s, Neil Cohn has begun analyzing how comics are understood using tools from cognitive science, extending beyond theory by using actual psychological and neuroscience experiments. This work has argued that sequential images and page layouts both use separate rule-bound "grammars" to be understood that extend beyond panel-to-panel transitions and categorical distinctions of types of layouts, and that the brain's comprehension of comics is similar to comprehending other domains, such as language and music.
What Russian word is used for comics?
56e039947aa994140058e3d3
komiks
98
False
What German word is used for comics?
56e039947aa994140058e3d4
comics
41
False
What Chinese word was derived from the Japanese word manga?
56e039947aa994140058e3d5
manhua
154
False
What Korean word was derived from the Japanese word for manga?
56e039947aa994140058e3d6
manhwa
176
False
komiks
98
What Russian word isn't used for comics?
5acf95a777cf76001a685380
True
Комикс, komiks
90
What Prussian word is used for comics?
5acf95a777cf76001a685381
True
comic
118
What German word isn't used for comics?
5acf95a777cf76001a685382
True
manhua
154
What Chinese word wasn't derived from the Japanese word manga?
5acf95a777cf76001a685383
True
manhwa
176
What Korean word wasn't derived from the Japanese word for manga?
5acf95a777cf76001a685384
True
Many cultures have taken their words for comics from English, including Russian (Russian: Комикс, komiks) and German (comic). Similarly, the Chinese term manhua and the Korean manhwa derive from the Chinese characters with which the Japanese term manga is written.
The word comic comes from the humorous pieces found where?
56e03ae1231d4119001abfff
newspaper comic strips
105
False
Comic is used for what other kind of work other than humorous works?
56e03ae1231d4119001ac000
non-humorous
171
False
Comic books are what type of books?
56e03ae1231d4119001ac001
periodicals
329
False
What is the term that the English use for the comics out of Japan?
56e03ae1231d4119001ac002
manga
466
False
What is the term that the English use for the comics that come out of Belgian?
56e03ae1231d4119001ac003
bandes dessinées
496
False
newspaper comic strips
105
The word comic comes from the nonhumorous pieces found where?
5acf955a77cf76001a68536c
True
non-humorous
171
Comic is used for what other kind of work especially humorous works?
5acf955a77cf76001a68536d
True
periodicals
329
Comic books aren't what type of books?
5acf955a77cf76001a68536e
True
manga
466
What is the term that the French use for the comics out of Japan?
5acf955a77cf76001a68536f
True
bandes dessinées
496
What is the term that the English use for the comics that don't come out of Belgian?
5acf955a77cf76001a685370
True
The English term comics derives from the humorous (or "comic") work which predominated in early American newspaper comic strips; usage of the term has become standard for non-humorous works as well. The term "comic book" has a similarly confusing history: they are most often not humorous; nor are they regular books, but rather periodicals. It is common in English to refer to the comics of different cultures by the terms used in their original languages, such as manga for Japanese comics, or bandes dessinées for French-language Franco-Belgian comics.
Though one person typically creates the comic, there are usually a number of what involved in actually designing it?
56e03b7f7aa994140058e3e4
specialists
121
False
What is a person called who does the initial pencil work for the artwork?
56e03b7f7aa994140058e3e5
penciller
367
False
What does an inker do?
56e03b7f7aa994140058e3e6
finishes the artwork in ink
428
False
specialists
121
Though one person always creates the comic, there are usually a number of what involved in actually designing it?
5acf950277cf76001a685352
True
penciller
367
What is a person called who doesn't do the initial pencil work for the artwork?
5acf950277cf76001a685353
True
penciller
367
What is a person called who does the initial pen work for the artwork?
5acf950277cf76001a685354
True
finishes the artwork in ink
428
What does an linker do?
5acf950277cf76001a685355
True
finishes the artwork in ink
428
What doesn't an inker do?
5acf950277cf76001a685356
True
While comics are often the work of a single creator, the labour of making them is frequently divided between a number of specialists. There may be separate writers and artists, and artists may specialize in parts of the artwork such as characters or backgrounds, as is common in Japan. Particularly in American superhero comic books, the art may be divided between a penciller, who lays out the artwork in pencil; an inker, who finishes the artwork in ink; a colourist; and a letterer, who adds the captions and speech balloons.
What are the individual images with action called in comics?
56e03c3c7aa994140058e3ed
Panels
0
False
Narrative is placed into panels using what?
56e03c3c7aa994140058e3ee
encapsulation
169
False
Who puts the panels together using closure?
56e03c3c7aa994140058e3ef
The reader
184
False
Timing and pace of comics is made by adjusting size, shape and what of panels?
56e03c3c7aa994140058e3f0
arrangement
378
False
When a comic panel has events that are not at the same time the panel is considered to be what?
56e03c3c7aa994140058e3f1
asynchronous
483
False
Panels
0
What are the multiple images with action called in comics?
5acf933f77cf76001a6852f2
True
encapsulation
169
Narrative isn't placed into panels using what?
5acf933f77cf76001a6852f3
True
The reader
184
Who takes the panels apart using closure?
5acf933f77cf76001a6852f4
True
arrangement
378
Timing and pace of comics is made by not adjusting size, shape and what of panels?
5acf933f77cf76001a6852f5
True
asynchronous
483
When a comic panel has events that are at the same time the panel is considered to be what?
5acf933f77cf76001a6852f6
True
Panels are individual images containing a segment of action, often surrounded by a border. Prime moments in a narrative are broken down into panels via a process called encapsulation. The reader puts the pieces together via the process of closure by using background knowledge and an understanding of panel relations to combine panels mentally into events. The size, shape, and arrangement of panels each affect the timing and pacing of the narrative. The contents of a panel may be asynchronous, with events depicted in the same image not necessarily occurring at the same time.
What association with comics is strong?
56e03c7e231d4119001ac00b
Speech balloons
94
False
The presence of a single speech balloon in an image turns it into what?
56e03c7e231d4119001ac00c
comics
37
False
What type of words are used to do sound effects in comics?
56e03c7e231d4119001ac00d
onomatopoeia
536
False
Speech balloons
332
What association with comics is weak?
5acf93b577cf76001a685306
True
Speech balloons
332
What disassociation with comics is strong?
5acf93b577cf76001a685307
True
comics
475
The presence of a double speech balloon in an image turns it into what?
5acf93b577cf76001a685308
True
comics
475
The non-presence of a single speech balloon in an image turns it into what?
5acf93b577cf76001a685309
True
onomatopoeia
536
What type of words are used to do word effects in comics?
5acf93b577cf76001a68530a
True
Text is frequently incorporated into comics via speech balloons, captions, and sound effects. Speech balloons indicate dialogue (or thought, in the case of thought balloons), with tails pointing at their respective speakers. Captions can give voice to a narrator, convey characters' dialogue or thoughts, or indicate place or time. Speech balloons themselves are strongly associated with comics, such that the addition of one to an image is sufficient to turn the image into comics. Sound effects mimic non-vocal sounds textually using onomatopoeia sound-words.
What type of ink is often used in making comics?
56e03cc27aa994140058e3f7
India ink
89
False
What method is mostly used in making comics?
56e03cc27aa994140058e3f8
Cartooning
0
False
Mixed media and what else are becoming popular for making comics?
56e03cc27aa994140058e3f9
digital technology
146
False
Motion lines and what are often used in comics?
56e03cc27aa994140058e3fa
abstract symbols
232
False
India ink
89
What type of ink is never used in making comics?
5acf940d77cf76001a685324
True
India ink
89
What type of ink is often used in making comedies?
5acf940d77cf76001a685325
True
Cartooning
0
What method is least used in making comics?
5acf940d77cf76001a685326
True
digital technology
146
Mixed media and what else are becoming unpopular for making comics?
5acf940d77cf76001a685327
True
abstract symbols
232
Motion lines and what are never used in comics?
5acf940d77cf76001a685328
True
Cartooning is most frequently used in making comics, traditionally using ink (especially India ink) with dip pens or ink brushes; mixed media and digital technology have become common. Cartooning techniques such as motion lines and abstract symbols are often employed.
comics medium
30
The term comedies refers to what?
5acf92b877cf76001a6852e8
True
comics medium
30
The term comics doesn't refer to what?
5acf92b877cf76001a6852e9
True
instances of the medium
214
When comic appears as a countable verb it refers to what?
5acf92b877cf76001a6852ea
True
instances of the medium
214
When comedies appears as a countable noun it refers to what?
5acf92b877cf76001a6852eb
True
instances of the medium
214
When comic doesn't appear as a countable noun it refers to what?
5acf92b877cf76001a6852ec
True
The term comics refers to the comics medium when used as an uncountable noun and thus takes the singular: "comics is a medium" rather than "comics are a medium". When comic appears as a countable noun it refers to instances of the medium, such as individual comic strips or comic books: "Tom's comics are in the basement."
Saint_Helena
What is Saint Helena tropical island named after?
56e02701231d4119001abf5b
Saint Helena of Constantinople
509
False
What ocean is Saint Helena located in?
56e02701231d4119001abf5c
South Atlantic Ocean
86
False
What is the population of Saint Helena?
56e02701231d4119001abf5d
4,255
469
False
How big is Saint Helena tropical Island?
56e02701231d4119001abf5e
16 by 8 kilometres
413
False
Saint Helena (/ˌseɪnt həˈliːnə/ SAYNT-hə-LEE-nə) is a volcanic tropical island in the South Atlantic Ocean, 4,000 kilometres (2,500 mi) east of Rio de Janeiro and 1,950 kilometres (1,210 mi) west of the Cunene River, which marks the border between Namibia and Angola in southwestern Africa. It is part of the British Overseas Territory of Saint Helena, Ascension and Tristan da Cunha. Saint Helena measures about 16 by 8 kilometres (10 by 5 mi) and has a population of 4,255 (2008 census). It was named after Saint Helena of Constantinople.
When was the island discovered?
56e0285a231d4119001abf63
1502
64
False
How many Boers were taken prisoner during the Second Boer War?
56e0285a231d4119001abf64
more than 5,000
349
False
Why was Dinuzulu kaCetshwayo imprisoned on the island?
56e0285a231d4119001abf66
leading a Zulu army against British rule
303
False
The island was uninhabited when discovered by the Portuguese in 1502. One of the most remote islands in the world, it was for centuries an important stopover for ships sailing to Europe from Asia and South Africa. Napoleon was imprisoned there in exile by the British, as were Dinuzulu kaCetshwayo (for leading a Zulu army against British rule) and more than 5,000 Boers taken prisoner during the Second Boer War.
The roots of what were established on Saint Helena?
56e029737aa994140058e2d7
environmentalism
306
False
What did scientists attempt to boost artificially on Saint Helena?
56e029737aa994140058e2d8
rainfall
132
False
The environmental intervention was linked to the conceptualization of what process?
56e029737aa994140058e2d9
environmental change
251
False
Between 1791 and 1833, Saint Helena became the site of a series of experiments in conservation, reforestation and attempts to boost rainfall artificially. This environmental intervention was closely linked to the conceptualisation of the processes of environmental change and helped establish the roots of environmentalism.
What date was the island discovered on?
56e02aba7aa994140058e2e7
21 May 1502
65
False
What navigator discovered the island?
56e02aba7aa994140058e2e8
João da Nova
103
False
What country was João da Nova doing service for?
56e02aba7aa994140058e2e9
Portugal
142
False
What person is Saint Helena Island named after?
56e02aba7aa994140058e2ea
Helena of Constantinople
194
False
Most historical accounts state that the island was discovered on 21 May 1502 by the Galician navigator João da Nova sailing at the service of Portugal, and that he named it "Santa Helena" after Helena of Constantinople. Another theory holds that the island found by da Nova was actually Tristan da Cunha, 2,430 kilometres (1,510 mi) to the south, and that Saint Helena was discovered by some of the ships attached to the squadron of Estêvão da Gama expedition on 30 July 1503 (as reported in the account of clerk Thomé Lopes). However, a paper published in 2015 reviewed the discovery date and dismissed the 18 August as too late for da Nova to make a discovery and then return to Lisbon by 11 September 1502, whether he sailed from St Helena or Tristan da Cunha. It demonstrates the 21 May is probably a Protestant rather than Catholic or Orthodox feast-day, first quoted in 1596 by Jan Huyghen van Linschoten, who was probably mistaken because the island was discovered several decades before the Reformation and start of Protestantism. The alternative discovery date of 3 May, the Catholic feast-day for the finding of the True Cross by Saint Helena in Jerusalem, quoted by Odoardo Duarte Lopes and Sir Thomas Herbert is suggested as being historically more credible.
What did the island have an abundance of when discovered?
56e02b8a7aa994140058e2ef
trees and fresh water.
66
False
What was imported by the settlers of the island?
56e02b8a7aa994140058e2f0
livestock, fruit trees and vegetables
103
False
What kind of buildings were built by the settlers?
56e02b8a7aa994140058e2f1
a chapel and one or two houses.
152
False
Who was left on the island to recover when sick?
56e02b8a7aa994140058e2f2
mariners
354
False
What was the island a source of for ships travelling from Asia to Europe?
56e02b8a7aa994140058e2f3
food
287
False
The Portuguese found the island uninhabited, with an abundance of trees and fresh water. They imported livestock, fruit trees and vegetables, and built a chapel and one or two houses. Though they formed no permanent settlement, the island was an important rendezvous point and source of food for ships travelling from Asia to Europe, and frequently sick mariners were left on the island to recover, before taking passage on the next ship to call on the island.
Who probably located the island on their final leg of their circumnavigation trip?
56e02cb57aa994140058e2f9
Englishman Sir Francis Drake
0
False
What did English ships of war attack on the island?
56e02cb57aa994140058e2fb
Portuguese India carracks
297
False
Who developed a far east trade and began to frequent the island?
56e02cb57aa994140058e2fc
the Dutch
378
False
Who gave up calling at the island due to attacks on their shipping?
56e02cb57aa994140058e2fd
The Portuguese and Spanish
423
False
Englishman Sir Francis Drake probably located the island on the final leg of his circumnavigation of the world (1577–1580). Further visits by other English explorers followed, and, once Saint Helena’s location was more widely known, English ships of war began to lie in wait in the area to attack Portuguese India carracks on their way home. In developing their Far East trade, the Dutch also began to frequent the island. The Portuguese and Spanish soon gave up regularly calling at the island, partly because they used ports along the West African coast, but also because of attacks on their shipping, the desecration of their chapel and religious icons, destruction of their livestock and destruction of plantations by Dutch and English sailors.
Who claimed Saint Helena in 1633?
56e02d8d231d4119001abf89
The Dutch Republic
0
False
What year did the Dutch abandon the island?
56e02d8d231d4119001abf8a
1651
149
False
Which colony did the Dutch abandon the island for?
56e02d8d231d4119001abf8b
Cape of Good Hope.
230
False
The Dutch Republic formally made claim to Saint Helena in 1633, although there is no evidence that they ever occupied, colonised or fortified it. By 1651, the Dutch had mainly abandoned the island in favour of their colony at the Cape of Good Hope.
Who was granted a charter to govern Saint Helena?
56e02e807aa994140058e303
the English East India Company
33
False
Who granted the English East company a character to govern the island?
56e02e807aa994140058e304
Oliver Cromwell
9
False
Who was the first governor of Saint Helena?
56e02e807aa994140058e305
Captain John Dutton
213
False
What year did the first governor arrive to Saint Helena?
56e02e807aa994140058e306
1659
245
False
Who had the sole right to fortify and colonize the island?
56e02e807aa994140058e307
East India Company
45
False
In 1657, Oliver Cromwell granted the English East India Company a charter to govern Saint Helena and the following year the company decided to fortify the island and colonise it with planters. The first governor, Captain John Dutton, arrived in 1659, making Saint Helena one of Britain's oldest colonies outside North America and the Caribbean. A fort and houses were built. After the Restoration of the English monarchy in 1660, the East India Company received a royal charter giving it the sole right to fortify and colonise the island. The fort was renamed James Fort and the town Jamestown, in honour of the Duke of York, later James II of England.
What did the English East India Company have difficulty attracting?
56e02f6f7aa994140058e317
new immigrants
206
False
What problems lead to a suggesting to relocate the population?
56e02f6f7aa994140058e318
Ecological problems
293
False
What was the name of the governor who suggested relocating the population of Saint Helena?
56e02f6f7aa994140058e319
Isaac Pyke
386
False
What was the location that was suggested the population be moved too?
56e02f6f7aa994140058e31a
Mauritius
448
False
How many slaves were on the island in 1723?
56e02f6f7aa994140058e31b
610
634
False
Between January and May 1673, the Dutch East India Company forcibly took the island, before English reinforcements restored English East India Company control. The company experienced difficulty attracting new immigrants, and sentiments of unrest and rebellion fomented among the inhabitants. Ecological problems, including deforestation, soil erosion, vermin and drought, led Governor Isaac Pyke to suggest in 1715 that the population be moved to Mauritius, but this was not acted upon and the company continued to subsidise the community because of the island's strategic location. A census in 1723 recorded 1,110 people, including 610 slaves.
When did the Island start to experience a period of prosperity?
56e030597aa994140058e32b
1770
291
False
What captain visited the island in 1775 on their trip around the world?
56e030597aa994140058e32c
James Cook
356
False
What church was erected in Jamestown in 1774?
56e030597aa994140058e32d
St. James' Church
456
False
What is the official residence of the governor?
56e030597aa994140058e32e
Plantation House
522
False
18th century governors tried to tackle the island's problems by implementing tree plantation, improving fortifications, eliminating corruption, building a hospital, tackling the neglect of crops and livestock, controlling the consumption of alcohol and introducing legal reforms. From about 1770, the island enjoyed a lengthy period of prosperity. Captain James Cook visited the island in 1775 on the final leg of his second circumnavigation of the world. St. James' Church was erected in Jamestown in 1774 and in 1791–92 Plantation House was built, and has since been the official residence of the Governor.
Who set up an astronomical observatory on Saint Helena?
56e031357aa994140058e335
Edmond Halley
46
False
What university did Edmond Halley attend?
56e031357aa994140058e336
University of Oxford
15
False
How many feet was the telescope that was set up in the observatory?
56e031357aa994140058e337
24
143
False
What district is the telescope set up in?
56e031357aa994140058e338
Longwood district
314
False
What hemisphere of stars did Edmond Halley want to study with the telescope?
56e031357aa994140058e339
Southern
213
False
On leaving the University of Oxford, in 1676, Edmond Halley visited Saint Helena and set up an astronomical observatory with a 7.3-metre-long (24 ft) aerial telescope with the intention of studying stars from the Southern Hemisphere. The site of this telescope is near Saint Mathew's Church in Hutt's Gate, in the Longwood district. The 680-metre (2,230 ft) high hill there is named for him and is called Halley's Mount.
Saint Helena was an important port of which company?
56e03502231d4119001abfbf
East India Company
74
False
What did ships replenish at Saint Helena?
56e03502231d4119001abfc0
water and provisions
238
False
What vessel was owned by Captain James?
56e03502231d4119001abfc1
HMS Endeavour
389
False
What vessel resupplied at the Island in May 1771?
56e03502231d4119001abfc2
HMS Endeavour
389
False
Vessels of what navy protected convoys?
56e03502231d4119001abfc3
Royal
349
False
Throughout this period, Saint Helena was an important port of call of the East India Company. East Indiamen would stop there on the return leg of their voyages to British India and China. At Saint Helena ships could replenish supplies of water and provisions, and during war time, form convoys that would sail under the protection of vessels of the Royal Navy. Captain James Cook's vessel HMS Endeavour anchored and resupplied off the coast of St Helena in May 1771, on her return from the European discovery of the east coast of Australia and rediscovery of New Zealand.
What was made illegal in 1792?
56e0359f231d4119001abfc9
importation of slaves
4
False
What year did Coolie labourers arrive?
56e0359f231d4119001abfcb
1810
205
False
How many coolie labourers were on the island by 1818?
56e0359f231d4119001abfcc
600
237
False
What was the population of the island in 1814?
56e0359f231d4119001abfcd
3,507
362
False
The importation of slaves was made illegal in 1792. Governor Robert Patton (1802–1807) recommended that the company import Chinese labour to supplement the rural workforce. The coolie labourers arrived in 1810, and their numbers reached 600 by 1818. Many were allowed to stay, and their descendents became integrated into the population. An 1814 census recorded 3,507 people on the island.
The British government detained who in Saint Helena?
56e036337aa994140058e38f
Napoleon Bonaparte
83
False
What year was Napoleon Bonaparte taken to the island?
56e036337aa994140058e390
1815
3
False
Where did Napoleon Bonaparte stay until he found permanent residence?
56e036337aa994140058e391
Briars pavilion
170
False
What ended up being the permanent residence of Napoleon Bonaparte?
56e036337aa994140058e392
Longwood House
262
False
What year did Napoleon Bonaparte pass away?
56e036337aa994140058e393
1821
339
False
In 1815, the British government selected Saint Helena as the place of detention of Napoleon Bonaparte. He was taken to the island in October 1815. Napoleon stayed at the Briars pavilion on the grounds of the Balcombe family's home until his permanent residence, Longwood House, was completed in December 1815. Napoleon died there on 5 May 1821.
Who took full control of the island after Napoleon's death?
56e036e0231d4119001abfd3
East India Company
88
False
The EIC made what available to the government of the island between 1815 and 1830?
56e036e0231d4119001abfd4
the packet schooner St Helena
223
False
The packet schooner St Helena brought supplies of what to the island?
56e036e0231d4119001abfd5
wine and provisions
368
False
After Napoleon's death, the thousands of temporary visitors were soon withdrawn and the East India Company resumed full control of Saint Helena. Between 1815 and 1830, the EIC made available to the government of the island the packet schooner St Helena, which made multiple trips per year between the island and the Cape carrying passengers both ways, and supplies of wine and provisions back to the island.
Which product of Saint Helena was praised by Napoleon?
56e037e17aa994140058e39f
coffee
45
False
Where did Saint Helena's coffee get popular after Napoleon's death?
56e037e17aa994140058e3a0
Paris
126
False
What product got popular in Paris after Napoloen's death?
56e037e17aa994140058e3a1
coffee
45
False
Owing to Napoleon's praise of Saint Helena’s coffee during his exile on the island, the product enjoyed a brief popularity in Paris in the years after his death.
When was importation of slaves banned in Saint Helena?
56e038637aa994140058e3ad
1792
67
False
The emancipation of the slaves of Saint Helena did not take place until what year?
56e038637aa994140058e3ae
1827
150
False
Who banned slavery in their colonies?
56e038637aa994140058e3af
British Parliament
198
False
Over how many slaves ended up getting emancipated on Saint Helena?
56e038637aa994140058e3b0
800
105
False
Although the importation of slaves to St Helena had been banned in 1792, the phased emancipation of over 800 resident slaves did not take place until 1827, which was still some six years before the British Parliament passed legislation to ban slavery in the colonies.
What act gave control of Saint Helena to the British Crown?
56e03942231d4119001abfe7
1833 India Act
28
False
Who turned over control of Saint Helena to the British Crown?
56e03942231d4119001abfe8
East India Company
88
False
During the latter half of the 19th century what ships became prevalent that weren't dependent on trade winds?
56e03942231d4119001abfe9
steam ships
404
False
How many ships were going to the island in 1855?
56e03942231d4119001abfea
1,100
744
False
By 1889 how many ships were going to the island?
56e03942231d4119001abfeb
288
766
False
Under the provisions of the 1833 India Act, control of Saint Helena was passed from the East India Company to the British Crown, becoming a crown colony. Subsequent administrative cost-cutting triggered the start of a long-term population decline whereby those who could afford to do so tended to leave the island for better opportunities elsewhere. The latter half of the 19th century saw the advent of steam ships not reliant on trade winds, as well as the diversion of Far East trade away from the traditional South Atlantic shipping lanes to a route via the Red Sea (which, prior to the building of the Suez Canal, involved a short overland section). These factors contributed to a decline in the number of ships calling at the island from 1,100 in 1855 to only 288 in 1889.
Who established a naval station to cut down on African slave trade on the island in 1840?
56e039be231d4119001abff1
British
11
False
Between 1840 and 1849 how many freed slaves landed on the island?
56e039be231d4119001abff2
over 15,000
132
False
What were the freed slaves known as?
56e039be231d4119001abff3
Liberated Africans
168
False
In 1840, a British naval station established to suppress the African slave trade was based on the island, and between 1840 and 1849 over 15,000 freed slaves, known as "Liberated Africans", were landed there.
Which french emperor gained possession of Longwood house and the land surrounding it?
56e03a4d231d4119001abff7
Napoleon III
28
False
What year did the French Emperor Napoleon III take control of Longwood house?
56e03a4d231d4119001abff8
1858
3
False
Who was the last resident of Longwood house before Napoleon III took it over?
56e03a4d231d4119001abff9
Napoleon I
28
False
Who has authority over Longwood house?
56e03a4d231d4119001abffa
French Ministry of Foreign Affairs
313
False
In 1858, the French emperor Napoleon III successfully gained the possession, in the name of the French government, of Longwood House and the lands around it, last residence of Napoleon I (who died there in 1821). It is still French property, administered by a French representative and under the authority of the French Ministry of Foreign Affairs.
Who arrived in Jamestown during their solo round the world voyage?
56e03aed7aa994140058e3db
Joshua Slocum
26
False
When did Joshua Slocum arrive in Jamestown?
56e03aed7aa994140058e3dc
11 April 1898
3
False
When did Joshua Slocum depart from Jamestown to continue his trip?
56e03aed7aa994140058e3dd
20 April 1898
129
False
Who presented two lectures on their voyage?
56e03aed7aa994140058e3de
Sir R A Standale
252
False
On 11 April 1898 American Joshua Slocum, on his famous and epic solo round the world voyage arrived at Jamestown. He departed on 20 April 1898 for the final leg of his circumnavigation having been extended hospitality from the governor, his Excellency Sir R A Standale, presented two lectures on his voyage and been invited to Longwood by the French Consular agent.
What country does the local industry that manufactures fibre get their flax from?
56e061f87aa994140058e429
New Zealand
42
False
What island was made a dependency of Saint Helena in 1922?
56e061f87aa994140058e42a
Ascension Island
160
False
What was the name of the airport the United States built on Ascension Island?
56e061f87aa994140058e42b
Wideawake airport
316
False
What year was Wideawake Airport built?
56e061f87aa994140058e42c
1942
350
False
A local industry manufacturing fibre from New Zealand flax was successfully reestablished in 1907 and generated considerable income during the First World War. Ascension Island was made a dependency of Saint Helena in 1922, and Tristan da Cunha followed in 1938. During the Second World War, the United States built Wideawake airport on Ascension in 1942, but no military use was made of Saint Helena.
What did the Island sell for increased revenue during this period?
56e0628c231d4119001ac075
flax
78
False
What year did flax prices peak?
56e0628c231d4119001ac076
1951
107
False
The British Post Offices decision to use what kind of fibres hurt the flax industry?
56e0628c231d4119001ac077
synthetic fibres
197
False
What year did the Island's flax mills close?
56e0628c231d4119001ac078
1965
374
False
During this period, the island enjoyed increased revenues through the sale of flax, with prices peaking in 1951. However, the industry declined because of transportation costs and competition from synthetic fibres. The decision by the British Post Office to use synthetic fibres for its mailbags was a further blow, contributing to the closure of the island's flax mills in 1965.
What year did the Union Castle shipping line slowly start to reduce their service calls to the island?
56e063197aa994140058e439
1958
5
False
Which shipping company replaced Union-Castle Line mailship service?
56e063197aa994140058e43a
Curnow Shipping
93
False
What year was Union-Castle Line mailship replaced?
56e063197aa994140058e43b
1977
181
False
From 1958, the Union Castle shipping line gradually reduced its service calls to the island. Curnow Shipping, based in Avonmouth, replaced the Union-Castle Line mailship service in 1977, using the RMS (Royal Mail Ship) St Helena.
What right was lost by the citizen of the islands due to the act?
56e063ea231d4119001ac07e
right of abode in Britain
147
False
What department was formed to help raise the living standards of the citizens in Saint Helena?
56e063ea231d4119001ac07f
The Development and Economic Planning Department
365
False
What year was the Development and Economic Planning Department formed?
56e063ea231d4119001ac080
1988
451
False
Where was the only work outside of Saint Helena located?
56e063ea231d4119001ac081
Falkland Islands and Ascension Island
326
False
The British Nationality Act 1981 reclassified Saint Helena and the other Crown colonies as British Dependent Territories. The islanders lost their right of abode in Britain. For the next 20 years, many could find only low-paid work with the island government, and the only available employment outside Saint Helena was on the Falkland Islands and Ascension Island. The Development and Economic Planning Department, which still operates, was formed in 1988 to contribute to raising the living standards of the people of Saint Helena.
What year was the replacement for the RMS St Helena launched?
56e064667aa994140058e441
1989
3
False
Who launched the replacement RMS St Helena?
56e064667aa994140058e442
Prince Andrew
9
False
What route was the replacement RMS St Helena built for?
56e064667aa994140058e443
Cardiff–Cape Town route
122
False
What kind of layout did the RMS St Helena have?
56e064667aa994140058e444
a mixed cargo/passenger layout.
159
False
In 1989, Prince Andrew launched the replacement RMS St Helena to serve the island; the vessel was specially built for the Cardiff–Cape Town route and features a mixed cargo/passenger layout.
What year did the Saint Helena Constitution officially take effect?
56e06509231d4119001ac087
1989
45
False
In 2002 what act granted full British citizenship to the citizens of the islands?
56e06509231d4119001ac088
British Overseas Territories Act 2002
198
False
What were the dependent territories renamed to?
56e06509231d4119001ac089
British Overseas Territories
198
False
The Saint Helena Constitution took effect in 1989 and provided that the island would be governed by a Governor and Commander-in-Chief, and an elected Executive and Legislative Council. In 2002, the British Overseas Territories Act 2002 granted full British citizenship to the islanders, and renamed the Dependent Territories (including Saint Helena) the British Overseas Territories. In 2009, Saint Helena and its two territories received equal status under a new constitution, and the British Overseas Territory was renamed Saint Helena, Ascension and Tristan da Cunha.
How much money was spent on construction of the island's airport?
56e065a0231d4119001ac08d
250 million
29
False
Which government built the island's airport?
56e065a0231d4119001ac08e
UK government
4
False
When was the airport expected to be fully functional?
56e065a0231d4119001ac08f
early 2016
119
False
Which industry is the airport supposed to help when it becomes complete?
56e065a0231d4119001ac090
tourism
320
False
How many tourists are expected annually thanks to the airport?
56e065a0231d4119001ac091
up to 30,000
343
False
The UK government has spent £250 million in the construction of the island's airport. Expected to be fully operational early 2016, it is expected to help the island towards self-sufficiency and encourage economic development, reducing dependence on British government aid. The airport is also expected to kick start the tourism industry, with up to 30,000 visitors expected annually. As of August, 2015 ticketing was postponed until an airline could be firmly designated.
What is the nearest port to Saint Helena?
56e066467aa994140058e449
Namibe
231
False
What is the closest international airport to Saint Helena called?
56e066467aa994140058e44a
the Quatro de Fevereiro Airport
296
False
What is the mail boat that serves the island called?
56e066467aa994140058e44b
RMS St Helena
481
False
What hemisphere is the island located in?
56e066467aa994140058e44c
Western
822
False
What area is the island classified as being in by the United Nations?
56e066467aa994140058e44d
West Africa
961
False
Located in the South Atlantic Ocean on the Mid-Atlantic Ridge, more than 2,000 kilometres (1,200 mi) from the nearest major landmass, Saint Helena is one of the most remote places in the world. The nearest port on the continent is Namibe in southern Angola, and the nearest international airport the Quatro de Fevereiro Airport of Angola's capital Luanda; connections to Cape Town in South Africa are used for most shipping needs, such as the mail boat that serves the island, the RMS St Helena. The island is associated with two other isolated islands in the southern Atlantic, also British territories: Ascension Island about 1,300 kilometres (810 mi) due northwest in more equatorial waters and Tristan da Cunha, which is well outside the tropics 2,430 kilometres (1,510 mi) to the south. The island is situated in the Western Hemisphere and has the same longitude as Cornwall in the United Kingdom. Despite its remote location, it is classified as being in West Africa by the United Nations.
How many square miles is Saint Helena?
56e06714231d4119001ac09f
47
56
False
What kind of rock are coastal regions of Saint Helena covered with?
56e06714231d4119001ac0a0
volcanic
112
False
How many feet high is the highest peak of Saint Helena?
56e06714231d4119001ac0a1
2,684
333
False
What year did Diana's Peak officially become a state park?
56e06714231d4119001ac0a2
1996
347
False
What was formed in 2002 to replant parts of the great wood?
56e06714231d4119001ac0a3
Millennium Forest project
559
False
The island of Saint Helena has a total area of 122 km2 (47 sq mi), and is composed largely of rugged terrain of volcanic origin (the last volcanic eruptions occurred about 7 million years ago). Coastal areas are covered in volcanic rock and warmer and drier than the centre. The highest point of the island is Diana's Peak at 818 m (2,684 ft). In 1996 it became the island's first national park. Much of the island is covered by New Zealand flax, a legacy of former industry, but there are some original trees augmented by plantations, including those of the Millennium Forest project which was established in 2002 to replant part of the lost Great Wood and is now managed by the Saint Helena National Trust. When the island was discovered, it was covered with unique indigenous vegetation, including a remarkable cabbage tree species. The island's hinterland must have been a dense tropical forest but the coastal areas were probably also quite green. The modern landscape is very different, with widespread bare rock in the lower areas, although inland it is green, mainly due to introduced vegetation. There are no native land mammals, but cattle, cats, dogs, donkeys, goats, mice, rabbits, rats and sheep have been introduced, and native species have been adversely affected as a result. The dramatic change in landscape must be attributed to these introductions. As a result, the string tree (Acalypha rubrinervis) and the St Helena olive (Nesiota elliptica) are now extinct, and many of the other endemic plants are threatened with extinction.
How close are the rockets and islets off the coast?
56e067a27aa994140058e453
one kilometre
475
False
Which direction from the island is Upper Black Rock located?
56e067a27aa994140058e454
South
137
False
Which direction from the island is Bird Island located?
56e067a27aa994140058e455
Southwest
158
False
Which direction from the island is Lighter Rock located?
56e067a27aa994140058e456
West
263
False
Which direction from the island is Frightus Rock located?
56e067a27aa994140058e457
Southeast
439
False
There are several rocks and islets off the coast, including: Castle Rock, Speery Island, the Needle, Lower Black Rock, Upper Black Rock (South), Bird Island (Southwest), Black Rock, Thompson's Valley Island, Peaked Island, Egg Island, Lady's Chair, Lighter Rock (West), Long Ledge (Northwest), Shore Island, George Island, Rough Rock Island, Flat Rock (East), the Buoys, Sandy Bay Island, the Chimney, White Bird Island and Frightus Rock (Southeast), all of which are within one kilometre (0.62 miles) of the shore.
What is the national bird of Saint Helena?
56e067e7231d4119001ac0af
the Saint Helena plover
37
False
What is the Plover known locally as?
56e067e7231d4119001ac0b0
wirebird
83
False
The national bird of Saint Helena is the Saint Helena plover, known locally as the wirebird. It appears on the coat of arms of Saint Helena and on the flag.
What current affects the environment of Saint Helena?
56e0689b231d4119001ac0bb
Benguela Current
74
False
On average, how much lower are the temperatures in the central areas in celsius?
56e0689b231d4119001ac0be
5–6
422
False
The climate of Saint Helena is tropical, marine and mild, tempered by the Benguela Current and trade winds that blow almost continuously. The climate varies noticeably across the island. Temperatures in Jamestown, on the north leeward shore, range between 21–28 °C (70–82 °F) in the summer (January to April) and 17–24 °C (63–75 °F) during the remainder of the year. The temperatures in the central areas are, on average, 5–6 °C (9.0–10.8 °F) lower. Jamestown also has a very low annual rainfall, while 750–1,000 mm (30–39 in) falls per year on the higher ground and the south coast, where it is also noticeably cloudier. There are weather recording stations in the Longwood and Blue Hill districts.
How many districts is the island of Saint Helena divided into?
56e068fb7aa994140058e45d
eight
29
False
What do the districts also serve as?
56e068fb7aa994140058e45e
statistical subdivisions
104
False
Saint Helena is divided into eight districts, each with a community centre. The districts also serve as statistical subdivisions. The island is a single electoral area and elects twelve representatives to the Legislative Council of fifteen.
When was Saint Helena first settled?
56e06979231d4119001ac0c7
1659
49
False
What was the population of the island in 1659
56e06979231d4119001ac0c8
4,250
96
False
Where were slaves initially brought from to the island?
56e06979231d4119001ac0c9
Africa
280
False
Later on, what two locations were slaves brought from?
56e06979231d4119001ac0ca
India and Madagascar
386
False
Which year did the inhabitants decide there were too many slaves?
56e06979231d4119001ac0cb
1792
496
False
Saint Helena was first settled by the English in 1659, and the island has a population of about 4,250 inhabitants, mainly descended from people from Britain – settlers ("planters") and soldiers – and slaves who were brought there from the beginning of settlement – initially from Africa (the Cape Verde Islands, Gold Coast and west coast of Africa are mentioned in early records), then India and Madagascar. Eventually the planters felt there were too many slaves and no more were imported after 1792.
In 1840 what did Saint Helena become?
56e06a027aa994140058e46f
a provisioning station
26
False
What squadron was Saint Helena a provisioning station for?
56e06a027aa994140058e470
British West Africa Squadron
57
False
What country did the British West Africa Squadron prevent slaves from being sent to?
56e06a027aa994140058e471
Brazil
109
False
How many slaves ended up staying on the island after being freed?
56e06a027aa994140058e472
500
215
False
How many slaves were freed from the island?
56e06a027aa994140058e473
many thousands
130
False
In 1840, St Helena became a provisioning station for the British West Africa Squadron, preventing slavery to Brazil (mainly), and many thousands of slaves were freed on the island. These were all African, and about 500 stayed while the rest were sent on to the West Indies and Cape Town, and eventually to Sierra Leone.
When did Imported Chinese labor arrive?
56e06a5e231d4119001ac0d7
1810
38
False
How many imported Chinese laborers were there at the peak of importation?
56e06a5e231d4119001ac0d8
618
63
False
What year did importation of Chinese Laborers peak?
56e06a5e231d4119001ac0d9
1818
70
False
Imported Chinese labourers arrived in 1810, reaching a peak of 618 in 1818, after which numbers were reduced. Only a few older men remained after the British Crown took over the government of the island from the East India Company in 1834. The majority were sent back to China, although records in the Cape suggest that they never got any farther than Cape Town. There were also a very few Indian lascars who worked under the harbour master.
What kind of citizenship do the citizens of Saint Helena hold?
56e06abd7aa994140058e47d
British Overseas Territories citizenship
34
False
On what date was full British citizenship restored to the citizens of the island?
56e06abd7aa994140058e47e
21 May 2002
79
False
What act restored the full British citizenship of the citizens of Saint Helena?
56e06abd7aa994140058e47f
British Overseas Territories Act 2002
137
False
The citizens of Saint Helena hold British Overseas Territories citizenship. On 21 May 2002, full British citizenship was restored by the British Overseas Territories Act 2002. See also British nationality law.
What was there a long pattern of from the island starting during the post Napoleonic period?
56e06b557aa994140058e483
emigration
65
False
When did the population of the island start to steadily decline?
56e06b557aa994140058e484
late 1980s
267
False
What was a big factor in emmigration to the UK?
56e06b557aa994140058e486
prospect of higher wages
632
False
During periods of unemployment, there has been a long pattern of emigration from the island since the post-Napoleonic period. The majority of "Saints" emigrated to the UK, South Africa and in the early years, Australia. The population has steadily declined since the late 1980s and has dropped from 5,157 at the 1998 census to 4,255 in 2008. In the past emigration was characterised by young unaccompanied persons leaving to work on long-term contracts on Ascension and the Falkland Islands, but since "Saints" were re-awarded UK citizenship in 2002, emigration to the UK by a wider range of wage-earners has accelerated due to the prospect of higher wages and better progression prospects.
What communion do most residents of the island belong to?
56e06be17aa994140058e48b
Anglican
29
False
When was the 150th anniversary of the diocese celebrated?
56e06be17aa994140058e48c
June 2009
204
False
Not only are most residents of the island members of the Anglican communion, but what else?
56e06be17aa994140058e48d
the Diocese of St Helena
67
False
The Diocese of Saint Helena has it's own what?
56e06be17aa994140058e48e
bishop
111
False
Most residents belong to the Anglican Communion and are members of the Diocese of St Helena, which has its own bishop and includes Ascension Island. The 150th anniversary of the diocese was celebrated in June 2009.
When did Roman Catholics start to appear on the island?
56e06c87231d4119001ac0f3
1852
75
False
What year did the Salvation Army show up on Saint Helenas?
56e06c87231d4119001ac0f4
1884
104
False
When did Baptists come to the island?
56e06c87231d4119001ac0f5
1845
126
False
How many Johovah's Witnesses were on the island?
56e06c87231d4119001ac0f6
35
250
False
When did the Seventh-day Adventist arrive on the island?
56e06c87231d4119001ac0f7
1949
188
False
Other Christian denominations on the island include: Roman Catholic (since 1852), Salvation Army (since 1884), Baptist (since 1845) and, in more recent times, Seventh-day Adventist (since 1949), New Apostolic and Jehovah's Witnesses (of which one in 35 residents is a member, the highest ratio of any country). The Catholics are pastorally served by the Mission sui iuris of Saint Helena, Ascension and Tristan da Cunha, whose office of ecclesiastical superior is vested in the Apostolic Prefecture of the Falkland Islands.
Who has executive authority in Saint Helena?
56e06cf57aa994140058e497
Queen Elizabeth II
49
False
Who exercises the authority on behalf of the queen in Saint Helena?
56e06cf57aa994140058e498
the Governor
102
False
Who is responsible for Defence and Foreign Affairs?
56e06cf57aa994140058e49a
the United Kingdom
269
False
Executive authority in Saint Helena is vested in Queen Elizabeth II and is exercised on her behalf by the Governor of Saint Helena. The Governor is appointed by the Queen on the advice of the British government. Defence and Foreign Affairs remain the responsibility of the United Kingdom.
How many seats are in the Legislative Council of Saint Helena?
56e06db77aa994140058e49f
15
885
False
Who presides over the executive council?
56e06db77aa994140058e4a1
the Governor
357
False
The head of government on the island is who?
56e06db77aa994140058e4a2
the Governor
357
False
When were proposals for a Chief Councillor put on hold?
56e06db77aa994140058e4a3
23 March 2013
843
False
There are fifteen seats in the Legislative Council of Saint Helena, a unicameral legislature, in addition to a Speaker and a Deputy Speaker. Twelve of the fifteen members are elected in elections held every four years. The three ex officio members are the Chief Secretary, Financial Secretary and Attorney General. The Executive Council is presided over by the Governor, and consists of three ex officio officers and five elected members of the Legislative Council appointed by the Governor. There is no elected Chief Minister, and the Governor acts as the head of government. In January 2013 it was proposed that the Executive Council would be led by a "Chief Councillor" who would be elected by the members of the Legislative Council and would nominate the other members of the Executive Council. These proposals were put to a referendum on 23 March 2013 where they were defeated by 158 votes to 42 on a 10% turnout.
What caused high unemployment on the island?
56e06e4a7aa994140058e4a9
loss of full passports
92
False
Who is the only reigning Monarch to have visited the island?
56e06e4a7aa994140058e4aa
King George VI
263
False
What year did King George VI visit the island?
56e06e4a7aa994140058e4ab
1947
347
False
When did Prince Phillip arrive in Saint Helena?
56e06e4a7aa994140058e4ac
1957
563
False
Prince Andrews, son of Prince Phillip visited in what year?
56e06e4a7aa994140058e4ad
1984
642
False
One commentator has observed that, notwithstanding the high unemployment resulting from the loss of full passports during 1981–2002, the level of loyalty to the British monarchy by the St Helena population is probably not exceeded in any other part of the world. King George VI is the only reigning monarch to have visited the island. This was in 1947 when the King, accompanied by Queen Elizabeth (later the Queen Mother), Princess Elizabeth (later Queen Elizabeth II) and Princess Margaret were travelling to South Africa. Prince Philip arrived at St Helena in 1957 and then his son Prince Andrew visited as a member of the armed forces in 1984 and his sister the Princess Royal arrived in 2002.
What did the government of Saint Helena fund in 2012?
56e06ed17aa994140058e4b3
St. Helena Human Rights Action Plan 2012-2015
65
False
What kind of articles were published to help this plan?
56e06ed17aa994140058e4b4
awareness-raising articles
176
False
How was support for members of the public given?
56e06ed17aa994140058e4b5
with human rights queries
268
False
In 2012, the government of St. Helena funded the creation of the St. Helena Human Rights Action Plan 2012-2015. Work is being done under this action plan, including publishing awareness-raising articles in local newspapers, providing support for members of the public with human rights queries, and extending several UN Conventions on human rights to St. Helena.
What has been more prominently reported in recent years in Saint Helena?
56e06f74231d4119001ac11d
reports of child abuse
40
False
Who has been accused of lying about the child abuse issue of Saint Helena?
56e06f74231d4119001ac11e
Britain’s Foreign and Commonwealth Office
77
False
Who has Britain’s Foreign and Commonwealth Office been accused of lying to about child abuse?
56e06f74231d4119001ac11f
the United Nations
154
False
In recent years[when?], there have been reports of child abuse in St Helena. Britain’s Foreign and Commonwealth Office (FCO) has been accused of lying to the United Nations about child abuse in St Helena to cover up allegations, including cases of a police officer having raped a four-year-old girl and of a police officer having mutilated a two-year-old.
Saint Helena has a high proportion of what kind of birds?
56e07007231d4119001ac127
endemic
57
False
What kind of plants are common on Saint Helena?
56e07007231d4119001ac128
vascular
75
False
What organization identified Saint Helena as important for bird conservation?
56e07007231d4119001ac12a
BirdLife International
213
False
Saint Helena is on the United Kingdom's list for future what?
56e07007231d4119001ac12b
UNESCO World Heritage Sites
589
False
St Helena has long been known for its high proportion of endemic birds and vascular plants. The highland areas contain most of the 400 endemic species recognised to date. Much of the island has been identified by BirdLife International as being important for bird conservation, especially the endemic Saint Helena plover or wirebird, and for seabirds breeding on the offshore islets and stacks, in the north-east and the south-west Important Bird Areas. On the basis of these endemics and an exceptional range of habitats, Saint Helena is on the United Kingdom's tentative list for future UNESCO World Heritage Sites.
How many lichen forming fungi have been recorded on the island?
56e07080231d4119001ac131
more than 200
274
False
How many endemic species of fungi have been found?
56e07080231d4119001ac132
9
339
False
What kind of invertebrates have been found on the island?
56e07080231d4119001ac133
freshwater, terrestrial and marine
84
False
St Helena's biodiversity, however, also includes marine vertebrates, invertebrates (freshwater, terrestrial and marine), fungi (including lichen-forming species), non-vascular plants, seaweeds and other biological groups. To date, very little is known about these, although more than 200 lichen-forming fungi have been recorded, including 9 endemics, suggesting that many significant discoveries remain to be made.
What kind of crop economy did the Island originally have?
56e070fd231d4119001ac137
monocrop
17
False
What year did the crop economy change?
56e070fd231d4119001ac138
1966
40
False
What was produced during the time the Island was monocrop?
56e070fd231d4119001ac139
flax
101
False
Saint Helena's economy is now almost completely sustained by what?
56e070fd231d4119001ac13a
aid from the British government
196
False
How much % of production does the public sector cover?
56e070fd231d4119001ac13b
50%
291
False
The island had a monocrop economy until 1966, based on the cultivation and processing of New Zealand flax for rope and string. St Helena's economy is now weak, and is almost entirely sustained by aid from the British government. The public sector dominates the economy, accounting for about 50% of gross domestic product. Inflation was running at 4% in 2005. There have been increases in the cost of fuel, power and all imported goods.
What is the tourist industry mostly based around?
56e0716c231d4119001ac149
the promotion of Napoleon's imprisonment
41
False
What kind of fishing tourism occurs on the island?
56e0716c231d4119001ac14a
sportfishing
133
False
How many hotels are on the island?
56e0716c231d4119001ac14b
3
311
False
Tourism is completely based on what arriving to the island?
56e0716c231d4119001ac14d
the RMS St Helena
287
False
The tourist industry is heavily based on the promotion of Napoleon's imprisonment. A golf course also exists and the possibility for sportfishing tourism is great. Three hotels operate on the island but the arrival of tourists is directly linked to the arrival and departure schedule of the RMS St Helena. Some 3,200 short-term visitors arrived on the island in 2013.
What does Saint Helena have the most expensive of?
56e071ca231d4119001ac153
coffee
60
False
What is Tungi Spirit made out of?
56e071ca231d4119001ac154
Opuntia ficus-indica
176
False
Ascension Island, Tristan da Cunha and Saint Helena all issue their own what?
56e071ca231d4119001ac155
postage stamps
324
False
Saint Helena produces what is said to be the most expensive coffee in the world. It also produces and exports Tungi Spirit, made from the fruit of the prickly or cactus pears, Opuntia ficus-indica ("Tungi" is the local St Helenian name for the plant). Ascension Island, Tristan da Cunha and Saint Helena all issue their own postage stamps which provide a significant income.
What was the GDP of the island in 1999-2000?
56e0724a231d4119001ac159
£12 million
46
False
By 2006 the GDP had dropped to what?
56e0724a231d4119001ac15a
£11 million
74
False
Imports to the island mostly occur from what countries?
56e0724a231d4119001ac15b
the UK and South Africa
122
False
What are the main exports of the island?
56e0724a231d4119001ac15c
fish and coffee
295
False
Tourists spent how much in  2004-05?
56e0724a231d4119001ac15d
£0.4 million
412
False
Quoted at constant 2002 prices, GDP fell from £12 million in 1999-2000 to £11 million in 2005-06. Imports are mainly from the UK and South Africa and amounted to £6.4 million in 2004-05 (quoted on an FOB basis). Exports are much smaller, amounting to £0.2 million in 2004-05. Exports are mainly fish and coffee; Philatelic sales were £0.06 million in 2004-05. The limited number of visiting tourists spent about £0.4 million in 2004-05, representing a contribution to GDP of 3%.
How much was public expenditure on the island in 2001-2002?
56e07321231d4119001ac163
£10 million
29
False
By 2005-06 public expenditure had risen to what?
56e07321231d4119001ac164
£12 million
55
False
In 2012-2013, public expenditure was what?
56e07321231d4119001ac165
£28m
81
False
UK aid had risen to how much in the same period?
56e07321231d4119001ac166
£12.1 million
216
False
Wages and salaries represent how much % of the island's expenditure?
56e07321231d4119001ac167
38%
287
False
Public expenditure rose from £10 million in 2001-02 to £12 million in 2005-06 to £28m in 2012-13. The contribution of UK budgetary aid to total SHG government expenditure rose from £4.6 million in to £6.4 million to £12.1 million over the same period. Wages and salaries represent about 38% of recurrent expenditure.
How many individuals were unemployed on the island in 2013?
56e077e77aa994140058e521
31
29
False
Employment on the island is dominated by what sector?
56e077e77aa994140058e522
public
125
False
In 2013 the number of government jobs was what?
56e077e77aa994140058e523
800
218
False
What % of people are employed in the private sector in Saint Helena?
56e077e77aa994140058e524
45
280
False
How many private businesses employee people on Saint Helena?
56e077e77aa994140058e525
218
373
False
Unemployment levels are low (31 individuals in 2013, compared to 50 in 2004 and 342 in 1998). Employment is dominated by the public sector, the number of government positions has fallen from 1,142 in 2006 to just over 800 in 2013. St Helena’s private sector employs approximately 45% of the employed labour force and is largely dominated by small and micro businesses with 218 private businesses employing 886 in 2004.
What % of households were spending less than £20 per week in 2004
56e0785c7aa994140058e52b
8%
133
False
What % of the population claimed social security benefits in 2006/7?
56e0785c7aa994140058e52c
22
211
False
How much of the population is over age 60?
56e0785c7aa994140058e52d
20%
328
False
Household survey results suggest the percentage of households spending less than £20 per week on a per capita basis fell from 27% to 8% between 2000 and 2004, implying a decline in income poverty. Nevertheless, 22% of the population claimed social security benefit in 2006/7, most of them aged over 60, a sector that represents 20% of the population.
How many copper tokens were Issued in 1821?
56e078cb7aa994140058e531
70,560
31
False
Who issued the copper tokens in 1821?
56e078cb7aa994140058e532
Saul Solomon
9
False
How much was each copper token worth?
56e078cb7aa994140058e533
a halfpenny
58
False
When did the Crown take over the island?
56e078cb7aa994140058e534
1836
263
False
In 1821, Saul Solomon issued a 70,560 copper tokens worth a halfpenny each Payable at St Helena by Solomon, Dickson and Taylor – presumably London partners – that circulated alongside the East India Company's local coinage until the Crown took over the island in 1836. The coin remains readily available to collectors.
What is the Saint Helena currency?
56e079637aa994140058e539
the Saint Helena pound
41
False
The government of Saint Helena produces it's own what?
56e079637aa994140058e53a
coinage and banknotes
157
False
What year was the Bank of Saint Helena established?
56e079637aa994140058e53b
2004
261
False
The Saint Helena pound is at parity with what other currency?
56e079637aa994140058e53c
pound sterling
93
False
Today Saint Helena has its own currency, the Saint Helena pound, which is at parity with the pound sterling. The government of Saint Helena produces its own coinage and banknotes. The Bank of Saint Helena was established on Saint Helena and Ascension Island in 2004. It has branches in Jamestown on Saint Helena, and Georgetown, Ascension Island and it took over the business of the St. Helena government savings bank and Ascension Island Savings Bank.
How many commercial airports are under construction in Saint Helena?
56e079df231d4119001ac19f
1
282
False
What is the only method of travel currently available to Saint Helena?
56e079df231d4119001ac1a0
ship
139
False
A large airfield is located on what portion of the island?
56e079df231d4119001ac1a1
Ascension Island
190
False
What kind of flights are offered to limited civilians?
56e079df231d4119001ac1a2
RAF flights
293
False
Saint Helena is one of the most remote islands in the world, has one commercial airport under construction, and travel to the island is by ship only. A large military airfield is located on Ascension Island, with two Friday flights to RAF Brize Norton, England (as from September 2010). These RAF flights offer a limited number of seats to civilians.
What ship runs between Saint Helena and Cape town on 5 day voyages?
56e07a52231d4119001ac1a7
RMS Saint Helena
9
False
What year was the RMS Saint Helena supposed to be decommissioned?
56e07a52231d4119001ac1a9
2010
314
False
What needs to be completed before the RMS Saint Helena can be decommissioned?
56e07a52231d4119001ac1aa
the airport
383
False
The ship RMS Saint Helena runs between St Helena and Cape Town on a 5-day voyage, also visiting Ascension Island and Walvis Bay, and occasionally voyaging north to Tenerife and Portland, UK. It berths in James Bay, St Helena approximately thirty times per year. The RMS Saint Helena was due for decommissioning in 2010. However, its service life has been extended indefinitely until the airport is completed.
When was the construction of an airport in Saint Helena announced?
56e07af7231d4119001ac1af
March 2005
130
False
The airport was expected to be completed by what year?
56e07af7231d4119001ac1b0
2010
186
False
Who was the approved bidder for the airport?
56e07af7231d4119001ac1b1
Impregilo
237
False
Which governor departed to London to try to speed up the construction of the airport?
56e07af7231d4119001ac1b2
Andrew Gurr
517
False
After a long period of rumour and consultation, the British government announced plans to construct an airport in Saint Helena in March 2005. The airport was expected to be completed by 2010. However an approved bidder, the Italian firm Impregilo, was not chosen until 2008, and then the project was put on hold in November 2008, allegedly due to new financial pressures brought on by the Financial crisis of 2007–2010. By January 2009, construction had not commenced and no final contracts had been signed. Governor Andrew Gurr departed for London in an attempt to speed up the process and solve the problems.
When did the British government agree to help pay for the new airport in Saint Helena?
56e07b95231d4119001ac1b9
22 July 2010
3
False
Which south african company is helping to engineer the airport?
56e07b95231d4119001ac1ba
Basil Read
204
False
The new airport opening date is when?
56e07b95231d4119001ac1bb
February 2016
267
False
Which countries will be able to fly to Saint Helena using the airport?
56e07b95231d4119001ac1bc
South Africa and the UK
307
False
Which airline will provide weekly service to Saint Helena?
56e07b95231d4119001ac1bd
Comair
368
False
On 22 July 2010, the British government agreed to help pay for the new airport using taxpayer money. In November 2011 a new deal between the British government and South African civil engineering company Basil Read was signed and the airport was scheduled to open in February 2016, with flights to and from South Africa and the UK. In March 2015 South African airline Comair became the preferred bidder to provide weekly air service between the island and Johannesburg, starting from 2016.
What kind of aircraft was the first to land at the new airport?
56e07be97aa994140058e55d
South African Beechcraft King Air 200
22
False
What date did the aircraft land at the new airport?
56e07be97aa994140058e55e
15 September 2015
90
False
What are they calibrating via test flights at the airport?
56e07be97aa994140058e55f
the airport's radio navigation equipment.
162
False
The first aircraft, a South African Beechcraft King Air 200, landed at the new airport on 15 September 2015, prior to conducting a series of flights to calibrate the airport's radio navigation equipment.
Who conducted the first helicopter landing at the airfield?
56e07c3b231d4119001ac1c7
Wildcat HMA.2 ZZ377
70
False
Where did the helicopter embark on visiting?
56e07c3b231d4119001ac1c8
HMS Lancaster
141
False
When did the aircraft visit HMS Lancaster?
56e07c3b231d4119001ac1c9
23 October 2015
158
False
The first helicopter landing at the new airfield was conducted by the Wildcat HMA.2 ZZ377 from 825 Squadron 201 Flight, embarked on visiting HMS Lancaster on 23 October 2015.
What kind of vehicle offers basic transportation to people in Saint Helena?
56e07ca67aa994140058e563
A minibus
0
False
Where does the minibus travel to?
56e07ca67aa994140058e564
Jamestown
118
False
On what days does the minibus take people into Jamestown?
56e07ca67aa994140058e566
weekdays
147
False
A minibus offers a basic service to carry people around Saint Helena, with most services designed to take people into Jamestown for a few hours on weekdays to conduct their business. Car hire is available for visitors.
What day did Radio Saint Helena start operations?
56e07d387aa994140058e56b
Christmas Day 1967
45
False
What was the range of Radio Saint Helena in miles?
56e07d387aa994140058e56c
62
130
False
How many days a year was Radio Saint Helena broadcast internationally?
56e07d387aa994140058e56d
1
59
False
What newspaper did Radio Saint Helena collaborate with?
56e07d387aa994140058e56e
St Helena Herald
336
False
What day was Saint Helena Radio shut down?
56e07d387aa994140058e56f
25 December 2012
367
False
Radio St Helena, which started operations on Christmas Day 1967, provided a local radio service that had a range of about 100 km (62 mi) from the island, and also broadcast internationally on shortwave radio (11092.5 kHz) on one day a year. The station presented news, features and music in collaboration with its sister newspaper, the St Helena Herald. It closed on 25 December 2012 to make way for a new three-channel FM service, also funded by St. Helena Government and run by the South Atlantic Media Services (formerly St. Helena Broadcasting (Guarantee) Corporation).
What date was Saint FM radio launched?
56e07dac231d4119001ac1d8
January 2005
189
False
What date was Saint FM radio closed?
56e07dac231d4119001ac1d9
21 December 2012
216
False
Which newspaper is the sister company of Saint FM radio?
56e07dac231d4119001ac1da
St Helena Independent
320
False
Saint FM provided a local radio service for the island which was also available on internet radio and relayed in Ascension Island. The station was not government funded. It was launched in January 2005 and closed on 21 December 2012. It broadcast news, features and music in collaboration with its sister newspaper, the St Helena Independent (which continues).
Which company took over the channels vacated by Saint FM?
56e07e3f231d4119001ac1df
Saint FM Community Radio
0
False
What date did Saint FM Community Radio launch?
56e07e3f231d4119001ac1e0
10 March 2013
90
False
What kind of people can join Saint Fm Radio Community?
56e07e3f231d4119001ac1e2
everyone
252
False
Saint FM Community Radio took over the radio channels vacated by Saint FM and launched on 10 March 2013. The station operates as a limited-by-guarantee company owned by its members and is registered as a fund-raising Association. Membership is open to everyone, and grants access to a live audio stream.
Who runs Saint Helena online?
56e07ea2231d4119001ac1eb
a former print and BBC journalist
78
False
Who is partnered with Saint Helena online?
56e07ea2231d4119001ac1ec
Saint FM and the St Helena Independent
141
False
St Helena Online is a not-for-profit internet news service run from the UK by a former print and BBC journalist, working in partnership with Saint FM and the St Helena Independent.
What does Sure South Atlantic LTD offer?
56e07f157aa994140058e57f
television
40
False
How many analogue terrestrial UHF channels does Sure South Atlantic LTD have?
56e07f157aa994140058e580
17
70
False
What is the feed signal of Sure South Atlantic received by?
56e07f157aa994140058e582
a satellite dish
315
False
Sure South Atlantic Ltd ("Sure") offers television for the island via 17 analogue terrestrial UHF channels, offering a mix of British, US, and South African programming. The channels are from DSTV and include Mnet, SuperSport and BBC channels. The feed signal, from MultiChoice DStv in South Africa, is received by a satellite dish at Bryant's Beacon from Intelsat 7 in the Ku band.
SURE provides what kind of service to the territory?
56e07f7e231d4119001ac1f1
telecommunications
17
False
What kind of network does SURE provide it's service from?
56e07f7e231d4119001ac1f2
digital copper-based telephone network
71
False
When was the first fibre-optic network installed?
56e07f7e231d4119001ac1f3
August 2011
147
False
SURE provide the telecommunications service in the territory through a digital copper-based telephone network including ADSL-broadband service. In August 2011 the first fibre-optic link has been installed on the island, which connects the television receive antennas at Bryant's Beacon to the Cable & Wireless Technical Centre in the Briars.
How big is the satellite dish at the satellite ground station in feet?
56e07ffe231d4119001ac1f7
25
45
False
When was the satellite dish installed?
56e07ffe231d4119001ac1f8
1989
80
False
Where was the satellite dish installed?
56e07ffe231d4119001ac1f9
The Briars
88
False
Both telephone and internet services are subject to what?
56e07ffe231d4119001ac1fa
sun outages
382
False
A satellite ground station with a 7.6-metre (25 ft) satellite dish installed in 1989 at The Briars is the only international connection providing satellite links through Intelsat 707 to Ascension island and the United Kingdom. Since all international telephone and internet communications are relying on this single satellite link both internet and telephone service are subject to sun outages.
What is the international calling code for Saint Helena?
56e08070231d4119001ac1ff
+290
48
False
Who shares the calling code +290 with Saint Helena?
56e08070231d4119001ac200
Tristan da Cunha
72
False
How many digits did Saint Helena change their phone numbers to?
56e08070231d4119001ac201
5
146
False
When did Saint Helena change the amount of digits in their phone numbers?
56e08070231d4119001ac202
1 October 2013
158
False
What digit are Saint Helena phone numbers prefixed with?
56e08070231d4119001ac203
2
49
False
Saint Helena has the international calling code +290 which, since 2006, Tristan da Cunha shares. Saint Helena telephone numbers changed from 4 to 5 digits on 1 October 2013 by being prefixed with the digit "2", i.e. 2xxxx, with the range 5xxxx being reserved for mobile numbering, and 8xxx being used for Tristan da Cunha numbers (these still shown as 4 digits).
What speed is Saint Helena internet access?
56e080dc231d4119001ac209
10/3.6 Mbit/s
19
False
What is the internet service provided through?
56e080dc231d4119001ac20a
Intelsat 707
51
False
Who provides the internet service in Saint Helena?
56e080dc231d4119001ac20b
SURE
76
False
What kind of population does SURE service?
56e080dc231d4119001ac20c
more than 4,000
106
False
How many satellites provide the link to the internet?
56e080dc231d4119001ac20d
1
19
False
Saint Helena has a 10/3.6 Mbit/s internet link via Intelsat 707 provided by SURE. Serving a population of more than 4,000, this single satellite link is considered inadequate in terms of bandwidth.
What kind of broadband service is provided on the island?
56e0815f231d4119001ac21d
ADSL
0
False
What is the maximum speed of the broadband service?
56e0815f231d4119001ac21e
1536 KBit/s downstream and 512 KBit/s upstream
64
False
What is the lite price of the broadband service?
56e0815f231d4119001ac21f
£16 per month
148
False
What is the gold price of the broadband service?
56e0815f231d4119001ac220
£190 per month
174
False
What location has a few public wifi spots available to the public?
56e0815f231d4119001ac221
Jamestown
230
False
ADSL-broadband service is provided with maximum speeds of up to 1536 KBit/s downstream and 512 KBit/s upstream offered on contract levels from lite £16 per month to gold+ at £190 per month. There are a few public WiFi hotspots in Jamestown, which are also being operated by SURE (formerly Cable & Wireless).
How long is the South Atlantic Express in miles?
56e08343231d4119001ac227
6,214
41
False
Who runs the South Atlantic Express?
56e08343231d4119001ac229
eFive
159
False
On what date did eFive announce they would reroute the cable through Saint Helena?
56e08343231d4119001ac22a
6 October 2012
536
False
Who lobbied for the cable reroute into South Helena?
56e08343231d4119001ac22b
A Human Right
645
False
The South Atlantic Express, a 10,000 km (6,214 mi) submarine communications cable connecting Africa to South America, run by the undersea fibre optic provider eFive, will pass St Helena relatively closely. There were no plans to land the cable and install a landing station ashore, which could supply St Helena's population with sufficient bandwidth to fully leverage the benefits of today's Information Society. In January 2012, a group of supporters petitioned the UK government to meet the cost of landing the cable at St Helena. On 6 October 2012, eFive agreed to reroute the cable through St. Helena after a successful lobbying campaign by A Human Right, a San Francisco-based NGA working on initiatives to ensure all people are connected to the Internet. Islanders have sought the assistance of the UK Department for International Development and Foreign and Commonwealth Office in funding the £10m required to bridge the connection from a local junction box on the cable to the island. The UK Government have announced that a review of the island's economy would be required before such funding would be agreed to.
How many local newspapers does the island have?
56e0838f231d4119001ac231
two
15
False
Where are both newspapers available?
56e0838f231d4119001ac232
the Internet
68
False
Since when has the St Helena Independent been published?
56e0838f231d4119001ac233
November 2005
133
False
When was the Sentinel Newspaper introduced?
56e0838f231d4119001ac234
2012
189
False
The island has two local newspapers, both of which are available on the Internet. The St Helena Independent has been published since November 2005. The Sentinel newspaper was introduced in 2012.
How many primary schools does the island have?
56e0840c231d4119001ac23a
3
288
False
What are the 3 primary schools called?
56e0840c231d4119001ac23b
Harford, Pilling, and St Paul’s
129
False
What is the name of the secondary school for the island?
56e0840c231d4119001ac23c
Prince Andrew School
162
False
How many students were enrolled in primary school in 2010?
56e0840c231d4119001ac23d
230
287
False
Education is free and compulsory between the ages of 5 and 16  The island has three primary schools for students of age 4 to 11: Harford, Pilling, and St Paul’s. Prince Andrew School provides secondary education for students aged 11 to 18. At the beginning of the academic year 2009-10, 230 students were enrolled in primary school and 286 in secondary school.
When does the mobile library service operate?
56e0848f231d4119001ac245
weekly
291
False
Who provides programs to students with special needs?
56e0848f231d4119001ac246
The Education and Employment Directorate
0
False
The Education and Employment Directorate also offers programmes for students with special needs, vocational training, adult education, evening classes, and distance learning. The island has a public library (the oldest in the Southern Hemisphere) and a mobile library service which operates weekly rural areas.
What curriculum does the island adapt?
56e084e27aa994140058e59f
The UK national curriculum
0
False
What are the qualifications offered?
56e084e27aa994140058e5a1
GCSE, A/S and A2, to Level 3 Diplomas and VRQ qualifications
98
False
The UK national curriculum is adapted for local use. A range of qualifications are offered – from GCSE, A/S and A2, to Level 3 Diplomas and VRQ qualifications:
Saint Helena is a member of what kind of association?
56e0856a7aa994140058e5a6
International Island Games Association
217
False
Where did the Saint Helena cricket team make it's debut in international cricket?
56e0856a7aa994140058e5a7
Division Three of the African region of the World Cricket League
330
False
When did the Saint Helena cricket team make it's debut in international cricket?
56e0856a7aa994140058e5a8
2011
398
False
Sports played on the island include football, cricket, volleyball, tennis, golf, motocross, shooting sports and yachting. Saint Helena has sent teams to a number of Commonwealth Games. Saint Helena is a member of the International Island Games Association. The Saint Helena cricket team made its debut in international cricket in Division Three of the African region of the World Cricket League in 2011.
Where does the Governor's cup take place?
56e085d7231d4119001ac25a
between Cape Town and Saint Helena island,
35
False
What months does the Governor's cup take place?
56e085d7231d4119001ac25c
December/January
102
False
When did the most recent Governor's cup take place?
56e085d7231d4119001ac25d
December 2010
149
False
The Governor's Cup is a yacht race between Cape Town and Saint Helena island, held every two years in December/January; the most recent event was in December 2010. In Jamestown a timed run takes place up Jacob's Ladder every year, with people coming from all over the world to take part.
What kind of groups are on Saint Helena and Ascension Island?
56e08645231d4119001ac263
scouting and guiding
10
False
When was Scouting established on Saint Helena?
56e08645231d4119001ac264
1912
127
False
Who visited the scouts on their return from the tour of Africa in 1937?
56e08645231d4119001ac265
Lord and Lady Baden-Powell
133
False
What book describes Lord and Lady Baden-Powel's visit?
56e08645231d4119001ac266
African Adventures
301
False
There are scouting and guiding groups on Saint Helena and Ascension Island. Scouting was established on Saint Helena island in 1912. Lord and Lady Baden-Powell visited the Scouts on Saint Helena on the return from their 1937 tour of Africa. The visit is described in Lord Baden-Powell's book entitled African Adventures.
Aspirated_consonant
Aspiration and preaspiration are used in what?
56e03fd2231d4119001ac013
phonetics
3
False
Aspirated consonants are what in English?
56e03fd2231d4119001ac014
allophones
194
False
What are two language types where the difference is contrastive?
56e03fd2231d4119001ac015
Indian and East Asian
314
False
preaspiration
110
What creates a strong burst of breath?
5acd155207355d001abf33d4
True
allophones
194
What are aspirated consonants in the Asian language?
5acd155207355d001abf33d5
True
Indian and East Asian
314
Allophones are similar in what two languages?
5acd155207355d001abf33d6
True
the strong burst of breath
28
What accompanies the opening of some obstruents?
5acd155207355d001abf33d7
True
aspiration
14
What uses a weak burst of breath?
5acd155207355d001abf33d8
True
In phonetics, aspiration is the strong burst of breath that accompanies either the release or, in the case of preaspiration, the closure of some obstruents. In English, aspirated consonants are allophones in complementary distribution with their unaspirated counterparts, but in some other languages, notably most Indian and East Asian languages, the difference is contrastive.
With what word should you see a candle flicker or feel a puff of air?
56e040b27aa994140058e401
pin
140
False
In English the first consonant in "pin" is what?
56e040b27aa994140058e402
aspirated
38
False
To feel or see the difference between aspirated and unaspirated sounds
0
When should one put a hand or a lit candle in front of one's eyes?
5acd16d407355d001abf342c
True
English
309
In what dialect would the initial consonant be unaspriated in pin and aspirated in spin?
5acd16d407355d001abf342d
True
spin
379
Which word would be aspirated in most English dialects?
5acd16d407355d001abf342e
True
a flicker of the candle flame
217
What would you see when you use your hand to see the difference between aspirated and unaspirated sounds?
5acd16d407355d001abf342f
True
put a hand or a lit candle in front of one's mouth, and say pin [pʰɪn] and then spin [spɪn]
80
What would you do to see the similarities between aspirated and unaspirated sounds?
5acd16d407355d001abf3430
True
To feel or see the difference between aspirated and unaspirated sounds, one can put a hand or a lit candle in front of one's mouth, and say pin [pʰɪn] and then spin [spɪn]. One should either feel a puff of air or see a flicker of the candle flame with pin that one does not get with spin. In most dialects of English, the initial consonant is aspirated in pin and unaspirated in spin.
What does IPA stand for?
56e042487aa994140058e407
International Phonetic Alphabet
7
False
Written IPA consonants use symbols for what?
56e042487aa994140058e408
voiceless consonants
101
False
What modifier indicates a voiceless bilabial stop?
56e042487aa994140058e409
p
32
False
pʰ represents what?
56e042487aa994140058e40a
aspirated bilabial stop
327
False
voiceless consonants
101
What is considered an unaspirated consonant?
5acd17e507355d001abf346c
True
symbols
89
Aspiration modifiers are represented by what?
5acd17e507355d001abf346d
True
aspiration modifier letter
138
Voiceless consonants are prefaced by what?
5acd17e507355d001abf346e
True
h
241
The voiced glottal fricative is indicated by what letter?
5acd17e507355d001abf346f
True
pʰ
308
The unaspirated bilabial stop is represented by what letter?
5acd17e507355d001abf3470
True
In the International Phonetic Alphabet (IPA), aspirated consonants are written using the symbols for voiceless consonants followed by the aspiration modifier letter ⟨◌ʰ⟩, a superscript form of the symbol for the voiceless glottal fricative ⟨h⟩. For instance, ⟨p⟩ represents the voiceless bilabial stop, and ⟨pʰ⟩ represents the aspirated bilabial stop.
What is not often aspirated?
56e043c67aa994140058e40f
Voiced consonants
0
False
The symbol followed by bʰ would likely mean the consonant has what type of release?
56e043c67aa994140058e410
breathy
147
False
Voiced aspirated consonants are what type?
56e043c67aa994140058e412
breathy-voiced
282
False
aspirated
38
Voiced symbols are seldom what?
5acd18c407355d001abf349a
True
Sanskrit
215
Symbols for voiceless consonants are typical in what language?
5acd18c407355d001abf349b
True
voiceless aspirated
257
Unaspirated consonants are called what?
5acd18c407355d001abf349c
True
consonants with breathy voiced release
131
Symbols for voiced releases typically represent what?
5acd18c407355d001abf349d
True
voiced aspirated
319
Breathy-voiced aspirated consonants are called what?
5acd18c407355d001abf349e
True
Voiced consonants are seldom actually aspirated. Symbols for voiced consonants followed by ⟨◌ʰ⟩, such as ⟨bʰ⟩, typically represent consonants with breathy voiced release (see below). In the grammatical tradition of Sanskrit, aspirated consonants are called voiceless aspirated, and breathy-voiced consonants are called voiced aspirated.
There are no IPA symbols for what?
56e044e9231d4119001ac019
degrees of aspiration
39
False
What may be doubled to indicate a long aspiration?
56e044e9231d4119001ac01b
aspiration modifier
214
False
What language, according to the text, may need double stops to indicate aspiration length?
56e044e9231d4119001ac01c
Korean
346
False
How are voice-onset time details usually presented?
56e044e9231d4119001ac01d
numerically
502
False
unaspirated ⟨k⟩ and aspirated ⟨kʰ⟩
104
Which two IPA symbols are marked?
5acd19b407355d001abf34de
True
⟨kʰ kʰʰ⟩ or ⟨kʻ⟩ and ⟨kʰ⟩
385
The two degrees of aspiration in English stops are transcribed as what?
5acd19b407355d001abf34df
True
numerically
502
The details of voice-onset symbols are given how?
5acd19b407355d001abf34e0
True
⟨ʻ⟩
179
Which old letter for light aspiration is now obsolete?
5acd19b407355d001abf34e1
True
especially strong or long aspiration
268
The aspiration modifier letter may be tripled to indicate what?
5acd19b407355d001abf34e2
True
There are no dedicated IPA symbols for degrees of aspiration and typically only two degrees are marked: unaspirated ⟨k⟩ and aspirated ⟨kʰ⟩. An old symbol for light aspiration was ⟨ʻ⟩, but this is now obsolete. The aspiration modifier letter may be doubled to indicate especially strong or long aspiration. Hence, the two degrees of aspiration in Korean stops are sometimes transcribed ⟨kʰ kʰʰ⟩ or ⟨kʻ⟩ and ⟨kʰ⟩, but they are usually transcribed [k] and [kʰ], with the details of voice-onset time given numerically.
A preaspirated consonant is marked how?
56e0455c231d4119001ac023
placing the aspiration modifier letter before the consonant symbol
38
False
What represents a preaspirated bilabial stop?
56e0455c231d4119001ac024
⟨ʰp⟩
106
False
by placing the aspiration modifier letter before the consonant symbol
35
Preaspirated symbols are marked how?
5acd1a5007355d001abf3506
True
⟨ʰp⟩
106
What represents the unaspirated bilabial stop?
5acd1a5007355d001abf3507
True
⟨ʰp⟩
106
What represents the aspiration modifier letter?
5acd1a5007355d001abf3508
True
⟨ʰp⟩
106
What represents the preaspirated bilabial start?
5acd1a5007355d001abf3509
True
by placing the aspiration modifier letter before the consonant symbol
35
Unaspirated consonants are marked how?
5acd1a5007355d001abf350a
True
Preaspirated consonants are marked by placing the aspiration modifier letter before the consonant symbol: ⟨ʰp⟩ represents the preaspirated bilabial stop.
How are unaspirated or tenuis consonants sometimes marked for unaspiration?
56e045d2231d4119001ac027
with the modifier letter
57
False
What is the superscript equal sign?
56e045d2231d4119001ac028
⟨t˭⟩
131
False
Most often, unaspirated consonants are what?
56e045d2231d4119001ac029
left unmarked
182
False
How are unaspirated consonants left unmarked?
56e045d2231d4119001ac02a
⟨t⟩
197
False
with the modifier letter for unaspiration
57
Aspirated or tenuis consonants are occasionally marked how?
5acd1baa07355d001abf3560
True
⟨t⟩
197
How are aspirated consonants marked?
5acd1baa07355d001abf3561
True
unmarked
187
How are aspirated consonants usually left?
5acd1baa07355d001abf3562
True
Unaspirated or tenuis consonants
0
What is occasionally marked with the modifier letter for aspiration?
5acd1baa07355d001abf3563
True
⟨◌˭⟩
99
Unspirated or tenuis symbols are occasionally marked with which letter?
5acd1baa07355d001abf3564
True
Unaspirated or tenuis consonants are occasionally marked with the modifier letter for unaspiration ⟨◌˭⟩, a superscript equal sign: ⟨t˭⟩. Usually, however, unaspirated consonants are left unmarked: ⟨t⟩.
What is created when the vocal folds are spread and do not vibrate?
56e04669231d4119001ac02f
Voiceless consonants
0
False
What is created when vocal folds are slightly closed and vibrate?
56e04669231d4119001ac030
voiced consonants
92
False
What is it called when a person's vocal cords stay open after a consonant?
56e04669231d4119001ac031
Voiceless aspiration
197
False
the vocal folds
39
Voiced consonants are produced when what opens?
5acd1c7207355d001abf3574
True
by noting the consonant's voice-onset time
320
How would you measure voiced aspiration?
5acd1c7207355d001abf3575
True
Voiceless consonants
0
When the vocal folds are vibrating, what is produced?
5acd1c7207355d001abf3576
True
the voicing of a following vowel
367
What can not begin until after the vocal cords open?
5acd1c7207355d001abf3577
True
voiced consonants
92
What is produced when the vocal folds are open and vibrating?
5acd1c7207355d001abf3578
True
Voiceless consonants are produced with the vocal folds open (spread) and not vibrating, and voiced consonants are produced when the vocal folds are fractionally closed and vibrating (modal voice). Voiceless aspiration occurs when the vocal cords remain open after a consonant is released. An easy way to measure this is by noting the consonant's voice-onset time, as the voicing of a following vowel cannot begin until the vocal cords close.
Aspiration of stops is seen as voiceless velar airflow in some languages, such as what?
56e046bc7aa994140058e417
Navajo
40
False
In Navajo, the aspiration of affricates can be seen as what?
56e046bc7aa994140058e418
an extended length of the frication
157
False
aspiration of affricates
117
What is realized as an extended length of the airflow?
5acd1d7207355d001abf3592
True
Navajo
40
In what language does the unaspiration of stops tend to be realized as voiceless velar airflow?
5acd1d7207355d001abf3593
True
aspiration of stops
48
What is realized as voiced velar airflow?
5acd1d7207355d001abf3594
True
Navajo
40
In what language does voiceless velar airflow not exist?
5acd1d7207355d001abf3595
True
an extended length of the frication
157
Aspiration of airflow is realized as what?
5acd1d7207355d001abf3596
True
Phonetically in some languages, such as Navajo, aspiration of stops tends to be realised as voiceless velar airflow; aspiration of affricates is realised as an extended length of the frication.
In Eastern Armenian, aspirated consonants occur in what?
56e047177aa994140058e41c
consonant clusters
192
False
Where are consonants aspirated in just the final position?
56e047177aa994140058e41d
Wahgi
215
False
vowels or other voiced sounds
48
Unaspirated consonants are not always followed by what?
5acd1e2007355d001abf35b0
True
Eastern Armenian
95
In what language is unaspiration contrastive?
5acd1e2007355d001abf35b1
True
Wahgi
215
In what language are consonants aspirated only in start position?
5acd1e2007355d001abf35b2
True
aspirated consonants
162
What occurs in sound clusters?
5acd1e2007355d001abf35b3
True
Aspirated consonants
0
What is not always followed by vowels or unvoiced sounds?
5acd1e2007355d001abf35b4
True
Aspirated consonants are not always followed by vowels or other voiced sounds. For example, in Eastern Armenian, aspiration is contrastive even word-finally, and aspirated consonants occur in consonant clusters. In Wahgi, consonants are aspirated only in final position.
As well as lasting as long as an English aspirated stop, the Armenian and Cantonese aspiration lasts as long as what?
56e047997aa994140058e422
unaspirated stops
107
False
Armenian and Cantonese
0
What languages have aspiration that lasts about as long as Korean aspirated stops?
5acd1f4407355d001abf35c4
True
English
67
Whose aspiration lasts longer than that of Armenian or Korean?
5acd1f4407355d001abf35c5
True
Korean
126
Whose stops are shorter than that of Armenian or Cantonese?
5acd1f4407355d001abf35c6
True
lightly
137
Korean has what kind of unaspirated stops?
5acd1f4407355d001abf35c7
True
Cantonese
329
Armenian unaspirated stops last longer than whose?
5acd1f4407355d001abf35c8
True
Armenian and Cantonese have aspiration that lasts about as long as English aspirated stops, in addition to unaspirated stops. Korean has lightly aspirated stops that fall between the Armenian and Cantonese unaspirated and aspirated stops as well as strongly aspirated stops whose aspiration lasts longer than that of Armenian or Cantonese. (See voice-onset time.)
Aspiration alters with what?
56e048cf231d4119001ac039
place of articulation
23
False
50 ms
281
Voice-onset times in Armenian measure at 20, 25, and what?
5acd1ffd07355d001abf35d6
True
place of articulation
23
Unaspiration varies with what?
5acd1ffd07355d001abf35d7
True
English
157
Which language measures at 60, 70, and 50 ms?
5acd1ffd07355d001abf35d8
True
5, 10, and 30 milliseconds
121
The Spanish voice-closing times are what?
5acd1ffd07355d001abf35d9
True
/p t k/
74
The Spanish voiced stops are?
5acd1ffd07355d001abf35da
True
Aspiration varies with place of articulation. The Spanish voiceless stops /p t k/ have voice-onset times (VOTs) of about 5, 10, and 30 milliseconds, whereas English aspirated /p t k/ have VOTs of about 60, 70, and 80 ms. Voice-onset time in Korean has been measured at 20, 25, and 50 ms for /p t k/ and 90, 95, and 125 for /pʰ tʰ kʰ/.
What happens when an aspirated consonant is doubled or geminated?
56e06606231d4119001ac097
the stop is held longer and then has an aspirated release.
52
False
What is comprised of a stop, fricative, and aspirated release?
56e06606231d4119001ac098
An aspirated affricate
111
False
the stop is held longer and then has an aspirated release
52
What happens when aspirated consonants are tripled or germinated?
5acd20ca07355d001abf35f4
True
A doubled aspirated affricate
188
What has a release of the fricative and unaspiration?
5acd20ca07355d001abf35f5
True
a stop, fricative, and aspirated release
146
An unaspirated consonant consists of what?
5acd20ca07355d001abf35f6
True
An aspirated affricate
111
What consists of a stop, fricative, and unaspirated release?
5acd20ca07355d001abf35f7
True
hold in the stop portion
231
A tripled aspirated affricate has a longer what?
5acd20ca07355d001abf35f8
True
When aspirated consonants are doubled or geminated, the stop is held longer and then has an aspirated release. An aspirated affricate consists of a stop, fricative, and aspirated release. A doubled aspirated affricate has a longer hold in the stop portion and then has a release consisting of the fricative and aspiration.
What two languages mentioned have have preaspirated [ʰp ʰt ʰk]?
56e06783231d4119001ac0a9
Icelandic and Faroese
0
False
What do scholars say the preaspirated [ʰp ʰt ʰk] are too?
56e06783231d4119001ac0aa
consonant clusters
85
False
What do preaspirated stops contrast with in Icelandic?
56e06783231d4119001ac0ab
double stops and single stops
160
False
preaspirated
127
What stops contrast with triple and single stops?
5acd219c07355d001abf3612
True
[ʰp ʰt ʰk]
40
Icelandic and English have preaspirated what?
5acd219c07355d001abf3613
True
double stops and single stops
160
Aspirated stops contrast with what?
5acd219c07355d001abf3614
True
double stops and single stops
160
In Faroese, preaspirated stops contrast with what?
5acd219c07355d001abf3615
True
Icelandic and Faroese
0
Symbol clusters exists in which two languages?
5acd219c07355d001abf3616
True
Icelandic and Faroese have preaspirated [ʰp ʰt ʰk]; some scholars interpret these as consonant clusters as well. In Icelandic, preaspirated stops contrast with double stops and single stops:
The Sami tongue also has what?
56e06851231d4119001ac0b5
Preaspirated stops
0
False
Which Sami tongue has unvoiced stop and affricate phonemes pronounced preaspirated?
56e06851231d4119001ac0b6
North Sami
70
False
most Sami
33
Unaspirated stops occur in which languages?
5acd225107355d001abf3630
True
the unvoiced stop and affricate phonemes
82
What occurs in the medial or start position?
5acd225107355d001abf3631
True
medial or final
228
The voiced stop and affricate phonemes occur in what position?
5acd225107355d001abf3632
True
the unvoiced stop and affricate phonemes
82
What are pronounced unaspirated?
5acd225107355d001abf3633
True
the unvoiced stop and affricate phonemes
82
In South Sami what are pronounced preaspirated?
5acd225107355d001abf3634
True
Preaspirated stops also occur in most Sami languages; for example, in North Sami, the unvoiced stop and affricate phonemes /p/, /t/, /ts/, /tʃ/, /k/ are pronounced preaspirated ([ʰp], [ʰt] [ʰts], [ʰtʃ], [ʰk]) when they occur in medial or final position.
How many contrastive aspirated fricatives does Choni Tibetan have?
56e06908231d4119001ac0c4
up to four
307
False
Korean
157
Unaspirated fricatives have been documented in which language?
5acd233607355d001abf366a
True
Choni Tibetan
287
Which language has up to five contrastive aspirated fricatives?
5acd233607355d001abf366b
True
stops and affricates
63
Most unaspirated obstruents are what?
5acd233607355d001abf366c
True
up to four
307
The Siouan language Ofo has how many contrastive aspirated fricatives?
5acd233607355d001abf366d
True
up to four
307
Choni Tibetan has how many unaspirated fricatives?
5acd233607355d001abf366e
True
Although most aspirated obstruents in the world's language are stops and affricates, aspirated fricatives such as [sʰ], [fʰ] or [ɕʰ] have been documented in Korean, in a few Tibeto-Burman languages, in some Oto-Manguean languages, and in the Siouan language Ofo. Some languages, such as Choni Tibetan, have up to four contrastive aspirated fricatives [sʰ] [ɕʰ], [ʂʰ] and [xʰ].
Indian languages commonly have murmured consonants instead of what?
56e069f0231d4119001ac0d1
True aspirated voiced consonants
0
False
True aspirated consonants are considered what?
56e069f0231d4119001ac0d2
rare
170
False
True aspirated consonants have been found in Kelabit Taa and what else?
56e069f0231d4119001ac0d3
Kx'a languages
226
False
rare
170
Are truly unaspirated voiceless consonants common or rare?
5acd242407355d001abf3690
True
True aspirated voiced consonants
0
What is common in the language of English?
5acd242407355d001abf3691
True
India
149
Murmured consonants are uncommon in which language of which country?
5acd242407355d001abf3692
True
Reported aspirated voiced stops
242
What has been documented in Kelabit Taa, and the Kx'a languages?
5acd242407355d001abf3693
True
India
149
True aspirated voice consonants are common in which country?
5acd242407355d001abf3694
True
True aspirated voiced consonants, as opposed to murmured (breathy-voice) consonants such as the [bʱ], [dʱ], [ɡʱ] that are common in the languages of India, are extremely rare. They have been documented in Kelabit Taa, and the Kx'a languages. Reported aspirated voiced stops, affricates and clicks are [b͡pʰ, d͡tʰ, d͡tsʰ, d͡tʃʰ, ɡ͡kʰ, ɢ͡qʰ, ᶢʘʰ, ᶢǀʰ, ᶢǁʰ, ᶢǃʰ, ᶢǂʰ].
What has a different significance in various languages?
56e06a517aa994140058e479
Aspiration
0
False
What two forms can aspiration be in?
56e06a517aa994140058e47a
allophonic or phonemic
73
False
Aspiration
0
What may be analyzed as an underlying symbol cluster?
5acd25e607355d001abf36d0
True
allophonic or phonemic
73
Aspiration can differ in which two languages?
5acd25e607355d001abf36d1
True
different languages
39
Unaspiration has varying significance in what?
5acd25e607355d001abf36d2
True
Aspiration
0
What may be analyzed as an underlying phonemic cluster?
5acd25e607355d001abf36d3
True
Aspiration
0
What is either allophonic or a cluster?
5acd25e607355d001abf36d4
True
Aspiration has varying significance in different languages. It is either allophonic or phonemic, and may be analyzed as an underlying consonant cluster.
Aspiration is what, in English and some other languages?
56e06ab2231d4119001ac0dd
allophonic
50
False
How are stops distinguished?
56e06ab2231d4119001ac0de
voicing
99
False
Voiceless stops are at times what?
56e06ab2231d4119001ac0df
aspirated
142
False
Voiced stops are most often what?
56e06ab2231d4119001ac0e0
unaspirated
184
False
English
27
In what language in unaspiration allophonic?
5acd269407355d001abf36e2
True
aspirated
142
Voiceless languages are sometimes what?
5acd269407355d001abf36e3
True
voicing
99
Symbols are distinguished primarily by what?
5acd269407355d001abf36e4
True
unaspirated
184
Voiced breaths are usually what?
5acd269407355d001abf36e5
True
voiceless stops
112
What are sometimes allophonic?
5acd269407355d001abf36e6
True
In some languages, such as English, aspiration is allophonic. Stops are distinguished primarily by voicing, and voiceless stops are sometimes aspirated, while voiced stops are usually unaspirated.
When following a word such as spill, they are what for most speakers?
56e06b78231d4119001ac0e5
unaspirated
9
False
If the letter s is a different place in the word, it is typical unaspirated unless the word is what?
56e06b78231d4119001ac0e6
compound words
205
False
If there is a cluster such as st and it belongs to different morphemes, the stop is what?
56e06b78231d4119001ac0e7
aspirated
11
False
If the st belongs to one morpheme, then the stop is what?
56e06b78231d4119001ac0e8
unaspirated
9
False
distend
464
What is unaspirated since it is not analyzed as three morphemes?
5acd27b607355d001abf3724
True
s
85
What word-initial is aspirated for almost all speakers?
5acd27b607355d001abf3725
True
When the consonants in a cluster like st are analyzed as belonging to different morphemes
221
When is the consonant unaspirated?
5acd27b607355d001abf3726
True
because it is analyzed as dis- + taste and the word taste has an aspirated initial t
577
Distaste has an unaspirated middle why?
5acd27b607355d001abf3727
True
unaspirated
164
After a k elsewhere in a word they are normally what?
5acd27b607355d001abf3728
True
They are unaspirated for almost all speakers when immediately following word-initial s, as in spill, still, skill. After an s elsewhere in a word they are normally unaspirated as well, except sometimes in compound words. When the consonants in a cluster like st are analyzed as belonging to different morphemes (heteromorphemic) the stop is aspirated, but when they are analyzed as belonging to one morpheme the stop is unaspirated.[citation needed] For instance, distend has unaspirated [t] since it is not analyzed as two morphemes, but distaste has an aspirated middle [tʰ] because it is analyzed as dis- + taste and the word taste has an aspirated initial t.
In languages like Thai and Icelandic, tenuis and aspirated consonants are what?
56e06bd2231d4119001ac0ed
phonemic
186
False
[p˭ s˭] and [pʰ ʰp sʰ] are separate what?
56e06bd2231d4119001ac0ee
phonemes
286
False
phonemic
186
In the Armenian language, tenuis and unaspirated stops are what?
5acd287307355d001abf3736
True
Unaspirated consonants like [p˭ s˭] and aspirated consonants like [pʰ ʰp sʰ]
196
What makes up combined phonemes?
5acd287307355d001abf3737
True
whether they have one or the other
327
Sentences are distinguished by what?
5acd287307355d001abf3738
True
phonemic
186
In the English language, tenuis and aspirated consonants are what?
5acd287307355d001abf3739
True
[p˭ s˭]
224
An example of an unaspirated stop is?
5acd287307355d001abf373a
True
In many languages, such as Armenian, Korean, Thai, Indo-Aryan languages, Dravidian languages, Icelandic, Ancient Greek, and the varieties of Chinese, tenuis and aspirated consonants are phonemic. Unaspirated consonants like [p˭ s˭] and aspirated consonants like [pʰ ʰp sʰ] are separate phonemes, and words are distinguished by whether they have one or the other.
How are lenis consonants distinguished from fortis consonants?
56e06c697aa994140058e493
their lack of aspiration
186
False
If the lenis are ⟨b d ɡ⟩, what are the fortis counterparts?
56e06c697aa994140058e494
⟨p t k⟩
167
False
the "lenis" consonants
49
What is often transcribed for numerical reasons?
5acd293a07355d001abf3754
True
⟨b d ɡ⟩
110
In English, "lenis" consonants are know as what?
5acd293a07355d001abf3755
True
their lack of aspiration
186
The "lenis" consonants are distinguished from their modern counterparts by what?
5acd293a07355d001abf3756
True
⟨p t k⟩
167
Fortis counterparts are known as what in the Spanish language?
5acd293a07355d001abf3757
True
lack of aspiration
192
Fortis counterparts are translated as what in the Chinese language?
5acd293a07355d001abf3758
True
In Danish and most southern varieties of German, the "lenis" consonants transcribed for historical reasons as ⟨b d ɡ⟩ are distinguished from their fortis counterparts ⟨p t k⟩, mainly in their lack of aspiration.
Mandarin has stops and affricates that are distinguished by what?
56e06cd3231d4119001ac0fd
aspiration
70
False
Tenuis stops have letters that are representative of English voiced consonant in what?
56e06cd3231d4119001ac0fe
pinyin
119
False
What kind of stops in pinyin are written with letters that representative of voiceless consonants?
56e06cd3231d4119001ac0ff
aspirated stops
214
False
aspiration
70
The English language has stops and affricates distinguished by what?
5acd29d707355d001abf3768
True
with letters that represent voiced consonants in English
152
In pinyin, tenuis consonants are written how?
5acd29d707355d001abf3769
True
with letters that represent voiceless consonants
230
In pinyin, unaspirated stops are written how?
5acd29d707355d001abf376a
True
aspirated stops
214
What is written with letter that represent voiced consonants?
5acd29d707355d001abf376b
True
/t/
298
What represents d?
5acd29d707355d001abf376c
True
Standard Chinese (Mandarin) has stops and affricates distinguished by aspiration: for instance, /t tʰ/, /t͡s t͡sʰ/. In pinyin, tenuis stops are written with letters that represent voiced consonants in English, and aspirated stops with letters that represent voiceless consonants. Thus d represents /t/, and t represents /tʰ/.
What has a three-way distinction in regards to stops and affricates?
56e06d44231d4119001ac103
Wu Chinese
0
False
What is the actual distinction for Wu Chinese?
56e06d44231d4119001ac104
/p pʰ b/
64
False
What is /b/ representative of, in addition to aspirated and unaspirated consonants?
56e06d44231d4119001ac105
Muddy consonants
259
False
What kind of voice are muddy consonants pronounced with?
56e06d44231d4119001ac106
slack or breathy
202
False
stops and affricates
42
Wu Chinese has a four-way distinction in what?
5acd2a8c07355d001abf378c
True
muddy consonants
148
What is strongly voiced?
5acd2a8c07355d001abf378d
True
Muddy consonants
259
What causes a syllable to be pronounced with high pitch or light tone?
5acd2a8c07355d001abf378e
True
/b/
171
What is an example of a breathy consonant?
5acd2a8c07355d001abf378f
True
muddy consonants
148
What causes a stop to be pronounced with low pitch or light tone?
5acd2a8c07355d001abf3790
True
Wu Chinese has a three-way distinction in stops and affricates: /p pʰ b/. In addition to aspirated and unaspirated consonants, there is a series of muddy consonants, like /b/. These are pronounced with slack or breathy voice: that is, they are weakly voiced. Muddy consonants as initial cause a syllable to be pronounced with low pitch or light (陽 yáng) tone.
How many distinctions in stops do languages like Bengali and Hindi have?
56e06dca231d4119001ac10d
four
103
False
What is another term for voice-aspirated?
56e06dca231d4119001ac10f
breathy-voiced
168
False
Which distinction has Punjabi lost?
56e06dca231d4119001ac111
breathy-voiced consonants
242
False
Indo-Aryan languages
5
What languages have unaspirated stops?
5acd2b2a07355d001abf379e
True
stops
127
Sanskrit has a three-way distinction in what?
5acd2b2a07355d001abf379f
True
Punjabi
225
What has gained breathy-voiced consonants?
5acd2b2a07355d001abf37a0
True
Punjabi has lost breathy-voiced consonants
225
What happened to result in a toneless system?
5acd2b2a07355d001abf37a1
True
/p pʰ b bʱ/
212
What is an example of a two-way distinction in stops?
5acd2b2a07355d001abf37a2
True
Many Indo-Aryan languages have aspirated stops. Sanskrit, Hindi, Bengali, Marathi, and Gujarati have a four-way distinction in stops: voiceless, aspirated, voiced, and breathy-voiced or voiced aspirated, such as /p pʰ b bʱ/. Punjabi has lost breathy-voiced consonants, which resulted in a tone system, and therefore has a distinction between voiceless, aspirated, and voiced: /p pʰ b/.
Telegu, Kannada and others are considered to be some of the what languages?
56e06eee231d4119001ac117
Dravidian
12
False
What has no distinction between the categories  of voiced, voiceless, aspirated and unaspirated?
56e06eee231d4119001ac119
native Dravidian words
203
False
these categories and stops are underspecified for voicing and aspiration
259
In native English words, there is no distinction between what?
5acd2c2e07355d001abf37bc
True
a distinction between voiced and voiceless, aspirated and unaspirated
85
What is used only in loanwords from Spanish languages?
5acd2c2e07355d001abf37bd
True
stops
280
What is underspecified for voicing and unaspiratoin?
5acd2c2e07355d001abf37be
True
native Dravidian
203
There are many category distinctions in what language?
5acd2c2e07355d001abf37bf
True
voiced and voiceless, aspirated and unaspirated
107
All of the Dravidian languages have a distinction between what?
5acd2c2e07355d001abf37c0
True
Some of the Dravidian languages, such as Telugu, Tamil, Malayalam, and Kannada, have a distinction between voiced and voiceless, aspirated and unaspirated only in loanwords from Indo-Aryan languages. In native Dravidian words, there is no distinction between these categories and stops are underspecified for voicing and aspiration.
What language has two-way distinctions between aspirated and voiced?
56e070687aa994140058e4c3
Western Armenian
0
False
Western Armenian /tʰ/ compares to eastern Armenian /tʰ/ and what?
56e070687aa994140058e4c4
/d/
171
False
The Western Armenian voiced /d/ compares to the Eastern Armenian voiceless what?
56e070687aa994140058e4c5
/t/
232
False
aspirated and voiced
51
Western Armenian has a three-way distinction between what?
5acd2cd607355d001abf37d8
True
aspirated /tʰ/ and voiced /d/
145
Western Armenian aspirated corresponds to Eastern American what?
5acd2cd607355d001abf37d9
True
/t/
232
Western voiced /d/ corresponds to Eastern voiced what?
5acd2cd607355d001abf37da
True
aspirated and voiced
51
Eastern Armenian has a two-way distinction between what?
5acd2cd607355d001abf37db
True
Eastern voiceless /t/
214
Western voiceless /d/ corresponds to what?
5acd2cd607355d001abf37dc
True
Western Armenian has a two-way distinction between aspirated and voiced: /tʰ d/. Western Armenian aspirated /tʰ/ corresponds to Eastern Armenian aspirated /tʰ/ and voiced /d/, and Western voiced /d/ corresponds to Eastern voiceless /t/.
Early Greek (before Koine) have been redone with what?
56e072537aa994140058e4c9
aspirated stops.
78
False
What Greek dialect had three-way stop distinction like Eastern Armenian?
56e072537aa994140058e4ca
Classical Attic
99
False
Who referred to the Classical Attic dialect stops by the three distinctions?
56e072537aa994140058e4cc
Greek grammarians
283
False
ψιλά
234
A two-way distinction in stops was called what?
5acd2d8007355d001abf37f4
True
having aspirated stops
71
Some forms of English are reconstructed as what?
5acd2d8007355d001abf37f5
True
Eastern Armenian
182
Which Armenian language had a two-way distinction in stops?
5acd2d8007355d001abf37f6
True
Ancient Greek
126
The Classical Arctic dialect belonged to which country?
5acd2d8007355d001abf37f7
True
Some forms of Greek
0
Which languages are reconstructed as having unaspirated stops?
5acd2d8007355d001abf37f8
True
Some forms of Greek before the Koine Greek period are reconstructed as having aspirated stops. The Classical Attic dialect of Ancient Greek had a three-way distinction in stops like Eastern Armenian: /t tʰ d/. These stops were called ψιλά, δασέα, μέσα "thin, thick, middle" by Koine Greek grammarians.
What is the representation for the three places of articulation?
56e072b57aa994140058e4d2
/pʰ tʰ kʰ/
87
False
Earlier Greek was represented by what?
56e072b57aa994140058e4d3
Mycenaean Greek
129
False
Whether a stop was labial, coronal or velar depended on what two things?
56e072b57aa994140058e4d4
dialect and phonetic environment
256
False
labial, coronal, and velar
60
Unaspirated stops were at which three places of articulation?
5acd2e8e07355d001abf381a
True
Mycenaean Greek
129
Early Greece was represented by what?
5acd2e8e07355d001abf381b
True
Earlier Greek
99
What likely had a velar unaspirated stop?
5acd2e8e07355d001abf381c
True
velar
81
The three places of articulation are the labial, cortical and what?
5acd2e8e07355d001abf381d
True
/kʷʰ/
191
The labialized velar unaspirated stop is represented by what?
5acd2e8e07355d001abf381e
True
There were aspirated stops at three places of articulation: labial, coronal, and velar /pʰ tʰ kʰ/. Earlier Greek, represented by Mycenaean Greek, likely had a labialized velar aspirated stop /kʷʰ/, which later became labial, coronal, or velar depending on dialect and phonetic environment.
Dialects such as Aeolic and Doric had how many distinctions that were the same at one point in time?
56e073267aa994140058e4d9
three
95
False
Which two dialects lost aspiration at times?
56e073267aa994140058e4da
Ionic and Aeolic
221
False
Rather than /tʰ/, what did the Doric dialect have in place during the Classical period?
56e073267aa994140058e4db
fricative
161
False
Greek
18
What ancient dialects had the same two-way distinction at one point?
5acd2f5307355d001abf383e
True
Doric
135
What dialect had a fricative in the Modern period?
5acd2f5307355d001abf383f
True
Ionic, Doric, Aeolic, and Arcadocypriot
34
Which four dialects sometimes lost aspiration?
5acd2f5307355d001abf3840
True
Ionic and Aeolic
221
Which two dialects sometime gained aspiration?
5acd2f5307355d001abf3841
True
psilosis
274
What was gained aspiration called?
5acd2f5307355d001abf3842
True
The other Ancient Greek dialects, Ionic, Doric, Aeolic, and Arcadocypriot, likely had the same three-way distinction at one point, but Doric seems to have had a fricative in place of /tʰ/ in the Classical period, and the Ionic and Aeolic dialects sometimes lost aspiration (psilosis).
Attic Greek lenited to what?
56e073d0231d4119001ac177
voiceless and voiced fricatives
105
False
The lenited Attic Greek yielded /θ ð/ in what periods?
56e073d0231d4119001ac179
Medieval and Modern Greek
156
False
Medieval and Modern Greek
156
Arctic Greek yielded what other versions of the Greek language?
5acd307e07355d001abf3878
True
the Koine Greek period
14
During what period did unaspirated and voiceless stops lenited to voiceless and voiced fricatives?
5acd307e07355d001abf3879
True
/tʰ d/
72
What represents unaspirated and voiceless stops?
5acd307e07355d001abf387a
True
voiceless and voiced fricatives
105
Arctic Greek lenited to what?
5acd307e07355d001abf387b
True
Later, during the Koine Greek period, the aspirated and voiceless stops /tʰ d/ of Attic Greek lenited to voiceless and voiced fricatives, yielding /θ ð/ in Medieval and Modern Greek.
Aspiration may refer to a sound change of what?
56e074547aa994140058e4fd
debuccalization
60
False
Debuccalization is when consonants are weakened to become what?
56e074547aa994140058e4fe
glottal stop or fricative
132
False
What is another term for a consonant being weakened?
56e074547aa994140058e4ff
lenited
101
False
the sound change of debuccalization
40
The term unaspiration sometimes refers to what?
5acd312807355d001abf38ac
True
the sound change of debuccalization
40
When is a consonant strengthened to become a glottal stop or fricative?
5acd312807355d001abf38ad
True
aspiration
9
What is sometime referred to as the vocal change of debuccalization?
5acd312807355d001abf38ae
True
a consonant
86
What sometimes becomes a global stop or fricative?
5acd312807355d001abf38af
True
a glottal stop or fricative
130
When a sound is lenited it becomes what?
5acd312807355d001abf38b0
True
The term aspiration sometimes refers to the sound change of debuccalization, in which a consonant is lenited (weakened) to become a glottal stop or fricative [ʔ h ɦ].
What is breathy voice?
56e075f87aa994140058e509
a type of phonation or vibration of the vocal folds
95
False
The ⟨bʰ⟩ in the Indo-Aryan languages is better transcribed how for breathy voice?
56e075f87aa994140058e50d
⟨b̤⟩, with the diacritic
398
False
⟨bʱ⟩
470
What is the superscript form of the symbol for the voiceless glottal fricative?
5acd324a07355d001abf38dc
True
with breathy voice
75
Unaspirated consonants are nearly always pronouced how?
5acd324a07355d001abf38dd
True
aspirated consonants
17
What causes a murmured vibration of the vocal cords?
5acd324a07355d001abf38de
True
The modifier letter ⟨◌ʰ⟩
148
What represents a strong voiced or breathy dental stop?
5acd324a07355d001abf38df
True
⟨bʰ⟩
305
What represents the "voice aspirated" bilabial stop in the English language?
5acd324a07355d001abf38e0
True
So-called voiced aspirated consonants are nearly always pronounced instead with breathy voice, a type of phonation or vibration of the vocal folds. The modifier letter ⟨◌ʰ⟩ after a voiced consonant actually represents a breathy-voiced or murmured dental stop, as with the "voiced aspirated" bilabial stop ⟨bʰ⟩ in the Indo-Aryan languages. This consonant is therefore more accurately transcribed as ⟨b̤⟩, with the diacritic for breathy voice, or with the modifier letter ⟨bʱ⟩, a superscript form of the symbol for the voiced glottal fricative ⟨ɦ⟩.
What do some linguists restrict the double-dot subscript ⟨◌̤⟩ to?
56e0769d7aa994140058e513
murmured sonorants
57
False
What are, according to the text, murmured for their duration?
56e0769d7aa994140058e514
vowels and nasals
85
False
What uses the ⟨◌ʱ⟩?
56e0769d7aa994140058e515
breathy-voiced release of obstruents.
198
False
the double-dot subscript ⟨◌̤⟩
24
Some linguists restrict what to loud sonorants?
5acd331807355d001abf390e
True
murmured sonorants, such as vowels and nasals
57
What are murmured thought part of their duration?
5acd331807355d001abf390f
True
⟨◌ʱ⟩
185
What represents the double-dot hook-aitch?
5acd331807355d001abf3910
True
the superscript hook-aitch
158
What is used for the loud-voiced release of obstruents?
5acd331807355d001abf3911
True
murmured sonorants
57
All linguists restrict the double-dot subscript to what?
5acd331807355d001abf3912
True
Some linguists restrict the double-dot subscript ⟨◌̤⟩ to murmured sonorants, such as vowels and nasals, which are murmured throughout their duration, and use the superscript hook-aitch ⟨◌ʱ⟩ for the breathy-voiced release of obstruents.
Hydrogen
What is hydrogens chemical symbol?
56e0711b231d4119001ac141
H
0
False
What is the atomic number used for hydrogen?
56e0711b231d4119001ac142
1
72
False
What is the atomic weight for hydrogen?
56e0711b231d4119001ac143
7000100794000000000♠1.00794 u
100
False
What element is considered the lightest?
56e0711b231d4119001ac144
Hydrogen
0
False
Hydrogen is a chemical element with chemical symbol H and atomic number 1. With an atomic weight of 7000100794000000000♠1.00794 u, hydrogen is the lightest element on the periodic table. Its monatomic form (H) is the most abundant chemical substance in the Universe, constituting roughly 75% of all baryonic mass.[note 1] Non-remnant stars are mainly composed of hydrogen in its plasma state. The most common isotope of hydrogen, termed protium (name rarely used, symbol 1H), has one proton and no neutrons.
What form can you find hydrogen is on Earth?
56e0733b231d4119001ac16d
molecular
239
False
What is the molecular make-up of hydrogen?
56e0733b231d4119001ac16e
H2
257
False
What are three properties of hydrogen at normal temperature and normal pressure?
56e0733b231d4119001ac16f
colorless, odorless, tasteless
142
False
What charge does hydrogen display in ionic compounds when it is called a hydride?
56e0733b231d4119001ac170
negative
656
False
What field of study has hydrogen and it's properties played a key role in development?
56e0733b231d4119001ac171
quantum mechanics
1159
False
The universal emergence of atomic hydrogen first occurred during the recombination epoch. At standard temperature and pressure, hydrogen is a colorless, odorless, tasteless, non-toxic, nonmetallic, highly combustible diatomic gas with the molecular formula H2. Since hydrogen readily forms covalent compounds with most non-metallic elements, most of the hydrogen on Earth exists in molecular forms such as in the form of water or organic compounds. Hydrogen plays a particularly important role in acid–base reactions as many acid-base reactions involve the exchange of protons between soluble molecules. In ionic compounds, hydrogen can take the form of a negative charge (i.e., anion) when it is known as a hydride, or as a positively charged (i.e., cation) species denoted by the symbol H+. The hydrogen cation is written as though composed of a bare proton, but in reality, hydrogen cations in ionic compounds are always more complex species than that would suggest. As the only neutral atom for which the Schrödinger equation can be solved analytically, study of the energetics and bonding of the hydrogen atom has played a key role in the development of quantum mechanics.
When was hydrogen gas artificially produced for the first time?
56e073a47aa994140058e4df
early 16th century
52
False
Who first recognized that hydrogen was a discrete substance?
56e073a47aa994140058e4e1
Henry Cavendish
121
False
When it is burned what does hydrogen make?
56e073a47aa994140058e4e2
water
229
False
What is the Greek translation for hydrogen?
56e073a47aa994140058e4e3
water-former
315
False
Hydrogen gas was first artificially produced in the early 16th century, via the mixing of metals with acids. In 1766–81, Henry Cavendish was the first to recognize that hydrogen gas was a discrete substance, and that it produces water when burned, a property which later gave it its name: in Greek, hydrogen means "water-former".
What market primarily uses ammonia production?
56e074137aa994140058e4f5
the fertilizer market
339
False
Name a process that uses fossil fuels along with hydrogen.
56e074137aa994140058e4f7
hydrocracking
289
False
Industrial production is mainly from the steam reforming of natural gas, and less often from more energy-intensive hydrogen production methods like the electrolysis of water. Most hydrogen is employed near its production site, with the two largest uses being fossil fuel processing (e.g., hydrocracking) and ammonia production, mostly for the fertilizer market. Hydrogen is a concern in metallurgy as it can embrittle many metals, complicating the design of pipelines and storage tanks.
For hydrogen what is the enthalpy of combustion?
56e07476231d4119001ac17f
286 kJ/mol
202
False
What are two forms of hydrogen gas?
56e07476231d4119001ac180
dihydrogen or molecular hydrogen
14
False
Which element has a enthalpy of combustion at −286 kJ/mol?
56e07476231d4119001ac181
Hydrogen
0
False
Hydrogen gas (dihydrogen or molecular hydrogen) is highly flammable and will burn in air at a very wide range of concentrations between 4% and 75% by volume. The enthalpy of combustion for hydrogen is −286 kJ/mol:
What kind of light do hydrogen-oxygen flames make?
56e074de231d4119001ac18a
ultraviolet light
318
False
What caused  the Hindenburg to explode?
56e074de231d4119001ac18b
hydrogen combustion
801
False
Hydrogen gas forms explosive mixtures with air if it is 4–74% concentrated and with chlorine if it is 5–95% concentrated. The mixtures may be ignited by spark, heat or sunlight. The hydrogen autoignition temperature, the temperature of spontaneous ignition in air, is 500 °C (932 °F). Pure hydrogen-oxygen flames emit ultraviolet light and with high oxygen mix are nearly invisible to the naked eye, as illustrated by the faint plume of the Space Shuttle Main Engine compared to the highly visible plume of a Space Shuttle Solid Rocket Booster. The detection of a burning hydrogen leak may require a flame detector; such leaks can be very dangerous. Hydrogen flames in other conditions are blue, resembling blue natural gas flames. The destruction of the Hindenburg airship was an infamous example of hydrogen combustion; the cause is debated, but the visible orange flames were the result of a rich mixture of hydrogen to oxygen combined with carbon compounds from the airship skin.
What are two other dangerous acids?
56e0758e7aa994140058e503
hydrogen chloride and hydrogen fluoride
178
False
What temperature does hydrogen react with these elements?
56e0758e7aa994140058e505
room temperature
90
False
H2 reacts with every oxidizing element. Hydrogen can react spontaneously and violently at room temperature with chlorine and fluorine to form the corresponding hydrogen halides, hydrogen chloride and hydrogen fluoride, which are also potentially dangerous acids.
What model id used to calculate energy levels of hydrogen?
56e077207aa994140058e519
Bohr model
76
False
What attracts planets and celestial items?
56e077207aa994140058e51a
gravity
352
False
What does the electromagnetic force attract to one another?
56e077207aa994140058e51b
electrons and protons
247
False
The energy levels of hydrogen can be calculated fairly accurately using the Bohr model of the atom, which conceptualizes the electron as "orbiting" the proton in analogy to the Earth's orbit of the Sun. However, the electromagnetic force attracts electrons and protons to one another, while planets and celestial objects are attracted to each other by gravity. Because of the discretization of angular momentum postulated in early quantum mechanics by Bohr, the electron in the Bohr model can only occupy certain allowed distances from the proton, and therefore only certain allowed energies.
What kind of movement does the electron not have in ground state?
56e081487aa994140058e588
angular
463
False
A more accurate description of the hydrogen atom comes from a purely quantum mechanical treatment that uses the Schrödinger equation, Dirac equation or even the Feynman path integral formulation to calculate the probability density of the electron around the proton. The most complicated treatments allow for the small effects of special relativity and vacuum polarization. In the quantum mechanical treatment, the electron in a ground state hydrogen atom has no angular momentum at all—an illustration of how the "planetary orbit" conception of electron motion differs from reality.
How many different spin isomers exist?
56e087957aa994140058e5c1
2
259
False
What state are the protons in when in the orthohydrogen form?
56e087957aa994140058e5c2
triplet state
200
False
When hydrogen gas is in standard temperature and pressure, what form is it considered in>
56e087957aa994140058e5c3
normal
524
False
What percent of para form does hydrogen gas contain?
56e087957aa994140058e5c4
25%
457
False
What percent of ortho form does hydrogen gas contain?
56e087957aa994140058e5c5
75%
482
False
There exist two different spin isomers of hydrogen diatomic molecules that differ by the relative spin of their nuclei. In the orthohydrogen form, the spins of the two protons are parallel and form a triplet state with a molecular spin quantum number of 1 (1⁄2+1⁄2); in the parahydrogen form the spins are antiparallel and form a singlet with a molecular spin quantum number of 0 (1⁄2–1⁄2). At standard temperature and pressure, hydrogen gas contains about 25% of the para form and 75% of the ortho form, also known as the "normal form". The equilibrium ratio of orthohydrogen to parahydrogen depends on temperature, but because the ortho form is an excited state and has a higher energy than the para form, it is unstable and cannot be purified. At very low temperatures, the equilibrium state is composed almost exclusively of the para form. The liquid and gas phase thermal properties of pure parahydrogen differ significantly from those of the normal form because of differences in rotational heat capacities, as discussed more fully in spin isomers of hydrogen. The ortho/para distinction also occurs in other hydrogen-containing molecules or functional groups, such as water and methylene, but is of little significance for their thermal properties.
What are some catalysts used in hydrogen cooling
56e088e17aa994140058e5ce
ferric oxide, activated carbon, platinized asbestos, rare earth metals, uranium compounds, chromic oxide, or some nickel compounds
549
False
The uncatalyzed interconversion between para and ortho H2 increases with increasing temperature; thus rapidly condensed H2 contains large quantities of the high-energy ortho form that converts to the para form very slowly. The ortho/para ratio in condensed H2 is an important consideration in the preparation and storage of liquid hydrogen: the conversion from ortho to para is exothermic and produces enough heat to evaporate some of the hydrogen liquid, leading to loss of liquefied material. Catalysts for the ortho-para interconversion, such as ferric oxide, activated carbon, platinized asbestos, rare earth metals, uranium compounds, chromic oxide, or some nickel compounds, are used during hydrogen cooling.
What ind of charge does hydrogen take when mixed with electronegative particles?
56e08a18231d4119001ac290
positive charge
270
False
What type of charge does hydrogen take when combined with a metal?
56e08a18231d4119001ac291
negative
163
False
When hydrogen forms with a metal, what is the compound called?
56e08a18231d4119001ac292
hydrides
734
False
Is H2 reactive in standard conditions?
56e08a18231d4119001ac293
not
12
False
While H2 is not very reactive under standard conditions, it does form compounds with most elements. Hydrogen can form compounds with elements that are more electronegative, such as halogens (e.g., F, Cl, Br, I), or oxygen; in these compounds hydrogen takes on a partial positive charge. When bonded to fluorine, oxygen, or nitrogen, hydrogen can participate in a form of medium-strength noncovalent bonding with other similar molecules between their hydrogens called hydrogen bonding, which is critical to the stability of many biological molecules. Hydrogen also forms compounds with less electronegative elements, such as the metals and metalloids, in which it takes on a partial negative charge. These compounds are often known as hydrides.
What is the form of hydrogen and carbon called?
56e08b457aa994140058e5e3
hydrocarbons
64
False
What is the form of hydrogen and heteroatoms called?
56e08b457aa994140058e5e4
organic compounds
194
False
What is the study of organic compounds properties known as?
56e08b457aa994140058e5e5
organic chemistry
255
False
What is the study of living organisms known as?
56e08b457aa994140058e5e6
biochemistry
336
False
Organic compounds are only required to conatin what?
56e08b457aa994140058e5e7
carbon
46
False
Hydrogen forms a vast array of compounds with carbon called the hydrocarbons, and an even vaster array with heteroatoms that, because of their general association with living things, are called organic compounds. The study of their properties is known as organic chemistry and their study in the context of living organisms is known as biochemistry. By some definitions, "organic" compounds are only required to contain carbon. However, most of them also contain hydrogen, and because it is the carbon-hydrogen bond which gives this class of compounds most of its particular chemical characteristics, carbon-hydrogen bonds are required in some definitions of the word "organic" in chemistry. Millions of hydrocarbons are known, and they are usually formed by complicated synthetic pathways, which seldom involve elementary hydrogen.
Who suggested that hydride anions existed?character does the H atom have in a hydride?
56e090e27aa994140058e5ee
Gilbert N. Lewis
316
False
What group of hydrides is BEH considered polymeric?
56e090e27aa994140058e5f0
group II
672
False
Compounds of hydrogen are often called hydrides, a term that is used fairly loosely. The term "hydride" suggests that the H atom has acquired a negative or anionic character, denoted H−, and is used when hydrogen forms a compound with a more electropositive element. The existence of the hydride anion, suggested by Gilbert N. Lewis in 1916 for group I and II salt-like hydrides, was demonstrated by Moers in 1920 by the electrolysis of molten lithium hydride (LiH), producing a stoichiometry quantity of hydrogen at the anode. For hydrides other than group I and II metals, the term is quite misleading, considering the low electronegativity of hydrogen. An exception in group II hydrides is BeH 2, which is polymeric. In lithium aluminium hydride, the AlH− 4 anion carries hydridic centers firmly attached to the Al(III).
How many binary borane hydrides are known?
56e0914c7aa994140058e5f7
over 100
156
False
How many binary aluminum hydrides are there?
56e0914c7aa994140058e5f8
1
161
False
Although hydrides can be formed with almost all main-group elements, the number and combination of possible compounds varies widely; for example, there are over 100 binary borane hydrides known, but only one binary aluminium hydride. Binary indium hydride has not yet been identified, although larger complexes exist.
What chemistry do hydrides serve as bridging ligands?
56e092177aa994140058e5fd
inorganic chemistry
3
False
What do hydrides that are bridging ligands link up?
56e092177aa994140058e5fe
link two metal centers
73
False
What group is briging ligands most common in?
56e092177aa994140058e5ff
group 13
163
False
In inorganic chemistry, hydrides can also serve as bridging ligands that link two metal centers in a coordination complex. This function is particularly common in group 13 elements, especially in boranes (boron hydrides) and aluminium complexes, as well as in clustered carboranes.
When hydrogen oxidates, what is it removing?
56e09c507aa994140058e64d
electrons
75
False
When hydrogen oxidates, what does it end up giving?
56e09c507aa994140058e64e
H+
53
False
What theory suggests that acids are proton donors?
56e09c507aa994140058e651
Bronsted-Lowry
239
False
Oxidation of hydrogen removes its electron and gives H+, which contains no electrons and a nucleus which is usually composed of one proton. That is why H+ is often called a proton. This species is central to discussion of acids. Under the Bronsted-Lowry theory, acids are proton donors, while bases are proton acceptors.
What is another term for a bare proton?
56e09d01231d4119001ac2d3
H+
15
False
A bare proton, H+, cannot exist in solution or in ionic crystals, because of its unstoppable attraction to other atoms or molecules with electrons. Except at the high temperatures associated with plasmas, such protons cannot be removed from the electron clouds of atoms and molecules, and will remain attached to them. However, the term 'proton' is sometimes used loosely and metaphorically to refer to positively charged or cationic hydrogen attached to other species in this fashion, and as such is denoted "H+" without any implication that any single protons exist freely as a species.
Where can oxonium ions be found?
56e0af0c231d4119001ac34d
in acidic solution with other solvents
407
False
What other term is a solvated protons referred as?
56e0af0c231d4119001ac34e
hydronium ion
178
False
To avoid the implication of the naked "solvated proton" in solution, acidic aqueous solutions are sometimes considered to contain a less unlikely fictitious species, termed the "hydronium ion" (H 3O+). However, even in this case, such solvated hydrogen cations are more realistically conceived as being organized into clusters that form species closer to H 9O+ 4. Other oxonium ions are found when water is in acidic solution with other solvents.
What kind of molecular hydrogen is the H+3 knows as?
56e0afa2231d4119001ac354
protonated
96
False
What kind of cation is the H+3 knowns as?
56e0afa2231d4119001ac355
trihydrogen cation
133
False
Although exotic on Earth, one of the most common ions in the universe is the H+ 3 ion, known as protonated molecular hydrogen or the trihydrogen cation.
How many natural isotopes does hydrogen have>
56e0b0667aa994140058e6a5
3H
68
False
What are the names of these isotopes?
56e0b0667aa994140058e6a6
denoted 1H, 2H and 3H
49
False
Which isotopes have unstable nuclei?
56e0b0667aa994140058e6a7
4H to 7H
103
False
Hydrogen has three naturally occurring isotopes, denoted 1H, 2H and 3H. Other, highly unstable nuclei (4H to 7H) have been synthesized in the laboratory but not observed in nature.
Which element is the only that has different names for its isotopes?
56e0b2127aa994140058e6ad
Hydrogen
0
False
What are the only two names still used for radioactive isotopes?
56e0b2127aa994140058e6ae
deuterium and tritium
242
False
What are the symbols used for deuterium and tritium?
56e0b2127aa994140058e6af
D and T
277
False
What does the symbol P represent?
56e0b2127aa994140058e6b0
phosphorus
421
False
What are the preferred symbols for deuterium and tritium?
56e0b2127aa994140058e6b1
2H and 3H
297
False
Hydrogen is the only element that has different names for its isotopes in common use today. During the early study of radioactivity, various heavy radioactive isotopes were given their own names, but such names are no longer used, except for deuterium and tritium. The symbols D and T (instead of 2H and 3H) are sometimes used for deuterium and tritium, but the corresponding symbol for protium, P, is already in use for phosphorus and thus is not available for protium. In its nomenclatural guidelines, the International Union of Pure and Applied Chemistry allows any of D, T, 2H, and 3H to be used, although 2H and 3H are preferred.
What year was the discovery of hydrogen gas?
56e16a26e3433e1400422ed6
1671
3
False
Who discovered Hydrogen gas?
56e16a26e3433e1400422ed7
Robert Boyle
9
False
Who recognized hydrogen gas as a discreet substance?
56e16a26e3433e1400422ed8
Henry Cavendish
157
False
In what year did Henry Cavendish recognize hydrogen gas as a discreet substance?
56e16a26e3433e1400422ed9
1766
151
False
What does gas produce when burned?
56e16a26e3433e1400422eda
water
457
False
In 1671, Robert Boyle discovered and described the reaction between iron filings and dilute acids, which results in the production of hydrogen gas. In 1766, Henry Cavendish was the first to recognize hydrogen gas as a discrete substance, by naming the gas from a metal-acid reaction "flammable air". He speculated that "flammable air" was in fact identical to the hypothetical substance called "phlogiston" and further finding in 1781 that the gas produces water when burned. He is usually given credit for its discovery as an element. In 1783, Antoine Lavoisier gave the element the name hydrogen (from the Greek ὑδρο- hydro meaning "water" and -γενής genes meaning "creator") when he and Laplace reproduced Cavendish's finding that water is produced when hydrogen is burned.
How did Lavoisier produce hydrogen for his experiments?
56e16aa1cd28a01900c678c7
reacting a flux of steam with metallic iron through an incandescent iron tube heated in a fire
72
False
Lavoisier produced hydrogen for his experiments on mass conservation by reacting a flux of steam with metallic iron through an incandescent iron tube heated in a fire. Anaerobic oxidation of iron by the protons of water at high temperature can be schematically represented by the set of following reactions:
Who was the first to liquidize hydrogen?
56e16b59cd28a01900c678dd
James Dewar
45
False
In what year Did James Dewar first liquidize hydrogen?
56e16b59cd28a01900c678de
1898
60
False
What year was Deuterium discovered?
56e16b59cd28a01900c678df
1931
211
False
Who was the first to discover deuterium?
56e16b59cd28a01900c678e0
Harold Urey
219
False
What year was tritium discovered?
56e16b59cd28a01900c678e1
1934
260
False
Hydrogen was liquefied for the first time by James Dewar in 1898 by using regenerative cooling and his invention, the vacuum flask. He produced solid hydrogen the next year. Deuterium was discovered in December 1931 by Harold Urey, and tritium was prepared in 1934 by Ernest Rutherford, Mark Oliphant, and Paul Harteck. Heavy water, which consists of deuterium in the place of regular hydrogen, was discovered by Urey's group in 1932. François Isaac de Rivaz built the first de Rivaz engine, an internal combustion engine powered by a mixture of hydrogen and oxygen in 1806. Edward Daniel Clarke invented the hydrogen gas blowpipe in 1819. The Döbereiner's lamp and limelight were invented in 1823.
Who invented the hydrogen filled balloons?
56e16c1ae3433e1400422efa
Jacques Charles
50
False
What year was hydrogen filled balloons invented?
56e16c1ae3433e1400422efb
1783
69
False
what were the hydrogen lifted airships called?
56e16c1ae3433e1400422efd
Zeppelins
342
False
In what year did the first zeppelin make flight?
56e16c1ae3433e1400422efe
1900
397
False
The first hydrogen-filled balloon was invented by Jacques Charles in 1783. Hydrogen provided the lift for the first reliable form of air-travel following the 1852 invention of the first hydrogen-lifted airship by Henri Giffard. German count Ferdinand von Zeppelin promoted the idea of rigid airships lifted by hydrogen that later were called Zeppelins; the first of which had its maiden flight in 1900. Regularly scheduled flights started in 1910 and by the outbreak of World War I in August 1914, they had carried 35,000 passengers without a serious incident. Hydrogen-lifted airships were used as observation platforms and bombers during the war.
Who made the first non stop transatlantic crossing?
56e16ce5cd28a01900c67907
the British
54
False
What year was this done?
56e16ce5cd28a01900c67908
1919
81
False
What year did the airship get destroyed?
56e16ce5cd28a01900c6790a
1937
397
False
What city was the ship over when it caught fire?
56e16ce5cd28a01900c6790b
New Jersey
377
False
The first non-stop transatlantic crossing was made by the British airship R34 in 1919. Regular passenger service resumed in the 1920s and the discovery of helium reserves in the United States promised increased safety, but the U.S. government refused to sell the gas for this purpose. Therefore, H2 was used in the Hindenburg airship, which was destroyed in a midair fire over New Jersey on 6 May 1937. The incident was broadcast live on radio and filmed. Ignition of leaking hydrogen is widely assumed to be the cause, but later investigations pointed to the ignition of the aluminized fabric coating by static electricity. But the damage to hydrogen's reputation as a lifting gas was already done.
In what year did the first hydrogen cooled turbogenerator go into service?
56e170cfcd28a01900c67937
1937
142
False
What state is the Dayton Power and light Company located?
56e170cfcd28a01900c67939
Ohio
158
False
In the same year the first hydrogen-cooled turbogenerator went into service with gaseous hydrogen as a coolant in the rotor and the stator in 1937 at Dayton, Ohio, by the Dayton Power & Light Co.; because of the thermal conductivity of hydrogen gas, this is the most common type in its field today.
What year was the first nickel hydrogen battery used?
56e176a2cd28a01900c6797b
1977
59
False
In what year did the hubble space telescope finally get the nickel hydrogen battery?
56e176a2cd28a01900c6797e
2009
378
False
The nickel hydrogen battery was used for the first time in 1977 aboard the U.S. Navy's Navigation technology satellite-2 (NTS-2). For example, the ISS, Mars Odyssey and the Mars Global Surveyor are equipped with nickel-hydrogen batteries. In the dark part of its orbit, the Hubble Space Telescope is also powered by nickel-hydrogen batteries, which were finally replaced in May 2009, more than 19 years after launch, and 13 years over their design life.
What is the hydrogen atom made up of?
56e17de1e3433e1400422f78
a proton and an electron
59
False
What theory is the hydrogen atom a big part of?
56e17de1e3433e1400422f79
atomic structure
22
False
When was the quantum mechanical treatment of the hydrogen atom developed?
56e17de1e3433e1400422f7a
1920s
526
False
Because of its simple atomic structure, consisting only of a proton and an electron, the hydrogen atom, together with the spectrum of light produced from it or absorbed by it, has been central to the development of the theory of atomic structure. Furthermore, the corresponding simplicity of the hydrogen molecule and the corresponding cation H+ 2 allowed fuller understanding of the nature of the chemical bond, which followed shortly after the quantum mechanical treatment of the hydrogen atom had been developed in the mid-1920s.
Who observed the specific heat capacity of H2?
56e17f00e3433e1400422f86
Maxwell
97
False
What cause H2 to resemble monatomic gas?
56e17f00e3433e1400422f87
spacing of the (quantized) rotational energy levels
473
False
What theory supports this?
56e17f00e3433e1400422f88
quantum theory
427
False
One of the first quantum effects to be explicitly noticed (but not understood at the time) was a Maxwell observation involving hydrogen, half a century before full quantum mechanical theory arrived. Maxwell observed that the specific heat capacity of H2 unaccountably departs from that of a diatomic gas below room temperature and begins to increasingly resemble that of a monatomic gas at cryogenic temperatures. According to quantum theory, this behavior arises from the spacing of the (quantized) rotational energy levels, which are particularly wide-spaced in H2 because of its low mass. These widely spaced levels inhibit equal partition of heat energy into rotational motion in hydrogen at low temperatures. Diatomic gases composed of heavier atoms do not have such widely spaced levels and do not exhibit the same effect.
What percent of normal matter is hydrogen?
56e1934be3433e1400422fd2
75%
88
False
What percent of atoms is hydrogen?
56e1934be3433e1400422fd3
90%
126
False
What 2 forms of mass is most of the universe consisted of?
56e1934be3433e1400422fd4
dark matter and dark energy
319
False
Clouds of H2 form what?
56e1934be3433e1400422fd6
stars
393
False
Hydrogen, as atomic H, is the most abundant chemical element in the universe, making up 75% of normal matter by mass and over 90% by number of atoms (most of the mass of the universe, however, is not in the form of chemical-element type matter, but rather is postulated to occur as yet-undetected forms of mass such as dark matter and dark energy). This element is found in great abundance in stars and gas giant planets. Molecular clouds of H2 are associated with star formation. Hydrogen plays a vital role in powering stars through the proton-proton reaction and the CNO cycle nuclear fusion.
In what states is hydrogen mostly found in the universe?
56e1944ae3433e1400422fdc
atomic and plasma
57
False
Hydrogens electron and proton are not bound together in what state?
56e1944ae3433e1400422fdd
plasma
68
False
in the interstellar medium, what state is hydrogen in?
56e1944ae3433e1400422fdf
neutral atomic state
559
False
The neutral hydrogen found in the damped Lyman-alpha systems dominates what?
56e1944ae3433e1400422fe0
cosmological baryonic density of the Universe
712
False
Throughout the universe, hydrogen is mostly found in the atomic and plasma states whose properties are quite different from molecular hydrogen. As a plasma, hydrogen's electron and proton are not bound together, resulting in very high electrical conductivity and high emissivity (producing the light from the Sun and other stars). The charged particles are highly influenced by magnetic and electric fields. For example, in the solar wind they interact with the Earth's magnetosphere giving rise to Birkeland currents and the aurora. Hydrogen is found in the neutral atomic state in the interstellar medium. The large amount of neutral hydrogen found in the damped Lyman-alpha systems is thought to dominate the cosmological baryonic density of the Universe up to redshift z=4.
How abundant is hydrogen on the earths surface?
56e1954fcd28a01900c679dd
third most abundant
300
False
what produces hydrogen gas?
56e1954fcd28a01900c679df
bacteria and algae
458
False
Under ordinary conditions on Earth, elemental hydrogen exists as the diatomic gas, H2. However, hydrogen gas is very rare in the Earth's atmosphere (1 ppm by volume) because of its light weight, which enables it to escape from Earth's gravity more easily than heavier gases. However, hydrogen is the third most abundant element on the Earth's surface, mostly in the form of chemical compounds such as hydrocarbons and water. Hydrogen gas is produced by some bacteria and algae and is a natural component of flatus, as is methane, itself a hydrogen source of increasing importance.
What molecular form is found in the interstellar medium?
56e1963acd28a01900c679e5
protonated molecular hydrogen
24
False
What generates protonated molecular hydrogen?
56e1963acd28a01900c679e7
ionization of molecular hydrogen from cosmic rays
123
False
On what planet can you find  protonated molecular hydrogen?
56e1963acd28a01900c679e8
Jupiter
252
False
In what way can Neutral triatomic hydrogen exist?
56e1963acd28a01900c679e9
excited form
543
False
A molecular form called protonated molecular hydrogen (H+ 3) is found in the interstellar medium, where it is generated by ionization of molecular hydrogen from cosmic rays. This charged ion has also been observed in the upper atmosphere of the planet Jupiter. The ion is relatively stable in the environment of outer space due to the low temperature and density. H+ 3 is one of the most abundant ions in the Universe, and it plays a notable role in the chemistry of the interstellar medium. Neutral triatomic hydrogen H3 can only exist in an excited form and is unstable. By contrast, the positive hydrogen molecular ion (H+ 2) is a rare molecule in the universe.
How does nature produce H2?
56e196cfcd28a01900c679f0
expelling reducing equivalents in biochemical reactions
186
False
How do labs produce H2?
56e196cfcd28a01900c679f1
by-product of other reactions
66
False
H 2 is produced in chemistry and biology laboratories, often as a by-product of other reactions; in industry for the hydrogenation of unsaturated substrates; and in nature as a means of expelling reducing equivalents in biochemical reactions.
What is an easy way to produce hydrogen?
56e197a3cd28a01900c67a00
electrolysis of water
4
False
Where does the gaseous oxygen form at?
56e197a3cd28a01900c67a02
anode
148
False
Where does the gaseous hydrogen form at?
56e197a3cd28a01900c67a03
cathode
190
False
The electrolysis of water is a simple method of producing hydrogen. A low voltage current is run through the water, and gaseous oxygen forms at the anode while gaseous hydrogen forms at the cathode. Typically the cathode is made from platinum or another inert metal when producing hydrogen for storage. If, however, the gas is to be burnt on site, oxygen is desirable to assist the combustion, and so both electrodes would be made from inert metals. (Iron, for instance, would oxidize, and thus decrease the amount of oxygen given off.) The theoretical maximum efficiency (electricity used vs. energetic value of hydrogen produced) is in the range 80–94%.
When you combine an alloy of alluminum and gallium to water, what do you get?
56e19878cd28a01900c67a14
hydrogen
88
False
What else can it produce?
56e19878cd28a01900c67a15
alumina
124
False
What can be reused after the formation?
56e19878cd28a01900c67a16
the expensive gallium
137
False
An alloy of aluminium and gallium in pellet form added to water can be used to generate hydrogen. The process also produces alumina, but the expensive gallium, which prevents the formation of an oxide skin on the pellets, can be re-used. This has important potential implications for a hydrogen economy, as hydrogen can be produced on-site and does not need to be transported.
The most economical way to prepare hydrogen involves removing it from what?
56e1993fcd28a01900c67a1c
hydrocarbons
131
False
What temperature is needed for steam to react with methane?
56e1993fcd28a01900c67a1e
1000–1400 K, 700–1100 °C or 1300–2000 °F
251
False
Hydrogen can be prepared in several different ways, but economically the most important processes involve removal of hydrogen from hydrocarbons. Commercial bulk hydrogen is usually produced by the steam reforming of natural gas. At high temperatures (1000–1400 K, 700–1100 °C or 1300–2000 °F), steam (water vapor) reacts with methane to yield carbon monoxide and H 2.
At what pressure does PSA work best in?
56e19ab0e3433e1400423000
high pressures
74
False
What is synthesis gas used for?
56e19ab0e3433e1400423001
production of methanol
366
False
Besides methane, what else can be used to produce synthesis gas?
56e19ab0e3433e1400423002
Hydrocarbons
412
False
This reaction is favored at low pressures but is nonetheless conducted at high pressures (2.0  MPa, 20 atm or 600 inHg). This is because high-pressure H 2 is the most marketable product and Pressure Swing Adsorption (PSA) purification systems work better at higher pressures. The product mixture is known as "synthesis gas" because it is often used directly for the production of methanol and related compounds. Hydrocarbons other than methane can be used to produce synthesis gas with varying product ratios. One of the many complications to this highly optimized technology is the formation of coke or carbon:
How can it be recovered through steam?
56e19b21e3433e140042300a
use of carbon monoxide through the water gas shift reaction
122
False
Consequently, steam reforming typically employs an excess of H 2O. Additional hydrogen can be recovered from the steam by use of carbon monoxide through the water gas shift reaction, especially with an iron oxide catalyst. This reaction is also a common industrial source of carbon dioxide:
When hydrogen is generated from natural gas, what des it produce?
56e19ba6e3433e1400423011
ammonia
144
False
How is hydrogen produced as a co product?
56e19ba6e3433e1400423012
Electrolysis of brine to yield chlorine
193
False
Hydrogen is sometimes produced and consumed in the same industrial process, without being separated. In the Haber process for the production of ammonia, hydrogen is generated from natural gas. Electrolysis of brine to yield chlorine also produces hydrogen as a co-product.
What are the thermochemical cycyles in a testing phase for?
56e19c6ee3433e1400423021
produce hydrogen and oxygen from water and heat without using electricity
321
False
What are labs trying to produce hydrogen from?
56e19c6ee3433e1400423022
solar energy and water
543
False
What countries are testing this?
56e19c6ee3433e1400423023
France, Germany, Greece, Japan, and the USA
435
False
There are more than 200 thermochemical cycles which can be used for water splitting, around a dozen of these cycles such as the iron oxide cycle, cerium(IV) oxide–cerium(III) oxide cycle, zinc zinc-oxide cycle, sulfur-iodine cycle, copper-chlorine cycle and hybrid sulfur cycle are under research and in testing phase to produce hydrogen and oxygen from water and heat without using electricity. A number of laboratories (including in France, Germany, Greece, Japan, and the USA) are developing thermochemical methods to produce hydrogen from solar energy and water.
What condition is iron and steel alloys slowly oxidized?
56e19cebe3433e1400423028
anaerobic
6
False
What does the anaerobic corrosion of iron lead to?
56e19cebe3433e1400423029
formation of ferrous hydroxide
196
False
What is another name for formation of ferrous hydroxide?
56e19cebe3433e140042302a
green rust
228
False
Under anaerobic conditions, iron and steel alloys are slowly oxidized by the protons of water concomitantly reduced in molecular hydrogen (H 2). The anaerobic corrosion of iron leads first to the formation of ferrous hydroxide (green rust) and can be described by the following reaction:
Under what condition can ferrous hydroxide be oxidized?
56e19d84e3433e140042302e
anaerobic
19
False
What does this process form?
56e19d84e3433e140042302f
magnetite and molecular hydrogen
123
False
What reaction describes this process?
56e19d84e3433e1400423030
Schikorr reaction
190
False
In its turn, under anaerobic conditions, the ferrous hydroxide (Fe(OH) 2 ) can be oxidized by the protons of water to form magnetite and molecular hydrogen. This process is described by the Schikorr reaction:
How is hydrogen produced when there is no atmospheric oxygen?
56e19e9ccd28a01900c67a22
serpentinization by the anaerobic oxidation
166
False
Where do you find silicate?
56e19e9ccd28a01900c67a23
crystal lattice of the fayalite
282
False
In the absence of atmospheric oxygen (O 2), in deep geological conditions prevailing far away from Earth atmosphere, hydrogen (H 2) is produced during the process of serpentinization by the anaerobic oxidation by the water protons (H+) of the ferrous (Fe2+) silicate present in the crystal lattice of the fayalite (Fe 2SiO 4, the olivine iron-endmember). The corresponding reaction leading to the formation of magnetite (Fe 3O 4), quartz (SiO 2) and hydrogen (H 2) is the following:
What is the most common gas found in power tranformers?
56e19edbe3433e140042303e
hydrogen
55
False
From all the fault gases formed in power transformers, hydrogen is the most common and is generated under most fault conditions; thus, formation of hydrogen is an early indication of serious problems in the transformer's life cycle.
Where are large quantities of H2 needed?
56e19fb6cd28a01900c67a26
petroleum and chemical industries
42
False
What are the consumers of H2 in petrochemical plant?
56e19fb6cd28a01900c67a28
hydrodealkylation, hydrodesulfurization, and hydrocracking
255
False
Large quantities of H 2 are needed in the petroleum and chemical industries. The largest application of H 2 is for the processing ("upgrading") of fossil fuels, and in the production of ammonia. The key consumers of H 2 in the petrochemical plant include hydrodealkylation, hydrodesulfurization, and hydrocracking. H 2 has several other important uses. H 2 is used as a hydrogenating agent, particularly in increasing the level of saturation of unsaturated fats and oils (found in items such as margarine), and in the production of methanol. It is similarly the source of hydrogen in the manufacture of hydrochloric acid. H 2 is also used as a reducing agent of metallic ores.
Where is hydrogen highly soluble?
56e1a1e1cd28a01900c67a36
rare earth and transition metals
35
False
Where can you find soluble hydrogen?
56e1a1e1cd28a01900c67a37
nanocrystalline and amorphous metals
91
False
What influences hydrogens solubility in metals?
56e1a1e1cd28a01900c67a38
local distortions or impurities in the crystal lattice
176
False
When are these useful?
56e1a1e1cd28a01900c67a39
when hydrogen is purified by passage through hot palladium disks
263
False
When is it damaging?
56e1a1e1cd28a01900c67a3a
gas's high solubility is a metallurgical problem, contributing to the embrittlement of many metals, complicating the design of pipelines and storage tanks
337
False
Hydrogen is highly soluble in many rare earth and transition metals and is soluble in both nanocrystalline and amorphous metals. Hydrogen solubility in metals is influenced by local distortions or impurities in the crystal lattice. These properties may be useful when hydrogen is purified by passage through hot palladium disks, but the gas's high solubility is a metallurgical problem, contributing to the embrittlement of many metals, complicating the design of pipelines and storage tanks.
Where else is H2 applied?
56e1a28ee3433e140042304c
in physics and engineering
60
False
How is H2 used in electrical generators at power stations?
56e1a28ee3433e140042304e
as the rotor coolant
181
False
Why is it used as the rotor coolant?
56e1a28ee3433e140042304f
it has the highest thermal conductivity of any gas
254
False
What research uses liquid H2?
56e1a28ee3433e1400423050
cryogenic
327
False
Apart from its use as a reactant, H 2 has wide applications in physics and engineering. It is used as a shielding gas in welding methods such as atomic hydrogen welding. H2 is used as the rotor coolant in electrical generators at power stations, because it has the highest thermal conductivity of any gas. Liquid H2 is used in cryogenic research, including superconductivity studies. Because H 2 is lighter than air, having a little more than 1⁄14 of the density of air, it was once widely used as a lifting gas in balloons and airships.
Why would one use hydrogen mixed with nitrogen?
56e1a30ee3433e1400423056
as a tracer gas for minute leak detection
105
False
What industries can you find these applications?
56e1a30ee3433e1400423057
automotive, chemical, power generation, aerospace, and telecommunications
181
False
How is hydrogen used as a food additive?
56e1a30ee3433e1400423058
allows food package leak testing
320
False
In more recent applications, hydrogen is used pure or mixed with nitrogen (sometimes called forming gas) as a tracer gas for minute leak detection. Applications can be found in the automotive, chemical, power generation, aerospace, and telecommunications industries. Hydrogen is an authorized food additive (E 949) that allows food package leak testing among other anti-oxidizing properties.
What isotope is used in nuclear fission?
56e1a3b2cd28a01900c67a40
Deuterium
64
False
Where is tritium produced?
56e1a3b2cd28a01900c67a42
nuclear reactors
330
False
What is tritium used for?
56e1a3b2cd28a01900c67a43
production of hydrogen bombs, as an isotopic label in the biosciences, and as a radiation source in luminous paints
363
False
Hydrogen's rarer isotopes also each have specific applications. Deuterium (hydrogen-2) is used in nuclear fission applications as a moderator to slow neutrons, and in nuclear fusion reactions. Deuterium compounds have applications in chemistry and biology in studies of reaction isotope effects. Tritium (hydrogen-3), produced in nuclear reactors, is used in the production of hydrogen bombs, as an isotopic label in the biosciences, and as a radiation source in luminous paints.
How is hydrogen used at power stations?
56e1a41ee3433e1400423070
as a coolant in generators
44
False
Why is it used as a coolant?
56e1a41ee3433e1400423071
favorable properties that are a direct result of its light diatomic molecules
90
False
What are these properties?
56e1a41ee3433e1400423072
low density, low viscosity, and the highest specific heat and thermal conductivity of all gases
183
False
Hydrogen is commonly used in power stations as a coolant in generators due to a number of favorable properties that are a direct result of its light diatomic molecules. These include low density, low viscosity, and the highest specific heat and thermal conductivity of all gases.
Is Hydrogen considered an energy resource?
56e1a498e3433e1400423076
not
12
False
Where does the sun get its energy from?
56e1a498e3433e1400423077
nuclear fusion of hydrogen
214
False
How does hydrogen function when it s burned?
56e1a498e3433e1400423078
energy carrier
477
False
Hydrogen is not an energy resource, except in the hypothetical context of commercial nuclear fusion power plants using deuterium or tritium, a technology presently far from development. The Sun's energy comes from nuclear fusion of hydrogen, but this process is difficult to achieve controllably on Earth. Elemental hydrogen from solar, biological, or electrical sources require more energy to make it than is obtained by burning it, so in these cases hydrogen functions as an energy carrier, like a battery. Hydrogen may be obtained from fossil sources (such as methane), but these sources are unsustainable.
What form of hydrogen has been discussed as a ussage for fuel?
56e1a588cd28a01900c67a53
elemental
248
False
The energy density per unit volume of both liquid hydrogen and compressed hydrogen gas at any practicable pressure is significantly less than that of traditional fuel sources, although the energy density per unit fuel mass is higher. Nevertheless, elemental hydrogen has been widely discussed in the context of energy, as a possible future carrier of energy on an economy-wide scale. For example, CO 2 sequestration followed by carbon capture and storage could be conducted at the point of H 2 production from fossil fuels. Hydrogen used in transportation would burn relatively cleanly, with some NOx emissions, but without carbon emissions. However, the infrastructure costs associated with full conversion to a hydrogen economy would be substantial. Fuel cells can convert hydrogen and oxygen directly to electricity more efficiently than internal combustion engines.
Why is hydrogen employed?
56e1a620cd28a01900c67a5a
to saturate broken ("dangling") bonds of amorphous silicon and amorphous carbon that helps stabilizing material properties
21
False
How is hydrogen used in oxide materials?
56e1a620cd28a01900c67a5b
a potential electron donor
156
False
What oxide materials use hydrogen as an electron donor?
56e1a620cd28a01900c67a5c
ZnO, SnO2, CdO, MgO, ZrO2, HfO2, La2O3, Y2O3, TiO2, SrTiO3, LaAlO3, SiO2, Al2O3, ZrSiO4, HfSiO4, and SrZrO3
221
False
Hydrogen is employed to saturate broken ("dangling") bonds of amorphous silicon and amorphous carbon that helps stabilizing material properties. It is also a potential electron donor in various oxide materials, including ZnO, SnO2, CdO, MgO, ZrO2, HfO2, La2O3, Y2O3, TiO2, SrTiO3, LaAlO3, SiO2, Al2O3, ZrSiO4, HfSiO4, and SrZrO3.
What enzymes are used to produce H2?
56e1a6d1cd28a01900c67a60
hydrogenases
174
False
When does hydrogen gas occur?
56e1a6d1cd28a01900c67a62
in the transfer of reducing equivalents produced during pyruvate fermentation to water
333
False
What is the natural cycle of hydrogen production and consumption by organisms called?
56e1a6d1cd28a01900c67a63
hydrogen cycle
505
False
H2 is a product of some types of anaerobic metabolism and is produced by several microorganisms, usually via reactions catalyzed by iron- or nickel-containing enzymes called hydrogenases. These enzymes catalyze the reversible redox reaction between H2 and its component two protons and two electrons. Creation of hydrogen gas occurs in the transfer of reducing equivalents produced during pyruvate fermentation to water. The natural cycle of hydrogen production and consumption by organisms is called the hydrogen cycle.
What is the decomposition of water into its components called?
56e1a770e3433e140042307e
Water splitting
0
False
Where does water splitting occur?
56e1a770e3433e140042307f
in the light reactions in all photosynthetic organisms
104
False
What organisms can form H2 gas?
56e1a770e3433e1400423080
alga Chlamydomonas reinhardtii and cyanobacteria
195
False
How are these gases formed?
56e1a770e3433e1400423081
by specialized hydrogenases in the chloroplast
352
False
Water splitting, in which water is decomposed into its component protons, electrons, and oxygen, occurs in the light reactions in all photosynthetic organisms. Some such organisms, including the alga Chlamydomonas reinhardtii and cyanobacteria, have evolved a second step in the dark reactions in which protons and electrons are reduced to form H2 gas by specialized hydrogenases in the chloroplast. Efforts have been undertaken to genetically modify cyanobacterial hydrogenases to efficiently synthesize H2 gas even in the presence of oxygen. Efforts have also been undertaken with genetically modified alga in a bioreactor.
What threats can hydrogen cause to human saftey?
56e1a815e3433e1400423086
potential detonations and fires when mixed with air to being an asphyxiant in its pure, oxygen-free form
57
False
What can hydrogen embrittlement lead to?
56e1a815e3433e1400423088
cracks and explosions
426
False
Hydrogen poses a number of hazards to human safety, from potential detonations and fires when mixed with air to being an asphyxiant in its pure, oxygen-free form. In addition, liquid hydrogen is a cryogen and presents dangers (such as frostbite) associated with very cold liquids. Hydrogen dissolves in many metals, and, in addition to leaking out, may have adverse effects on them, such as hydrogen embrittlement, leading to cracks and explosions. Hydrogen gas leaking into external air may spontaneously ignite. Moreover, hydrogen fire, while being extremely hot, is almost invisible, and thus can lead to accidental burns.
What do physical and chemical properties of hydrogen depend on?
56e1a8b5e3433e140042308e
the parahydrogen/orthohydrogen ratio
160
False
How long can it take to reach the equilibrium ratio?
56e1a8b5e3433e140042308f
days or weeks
213
False
What do Hydrogen detonation parameters depend on?
56e1a8b5e3433e1400423090
container geometry
429
False
Even interpreting the hydrogen data (including safety data) is confounded by a number of phenomena. Many physical and chemical properties of hydrogen depend on the parahydrogen/orthohydrogen ratio (it often takes days or weeks at a given temperature to reach the equilibrium ratio, for which the data is usually given). Hydrogen detonation parameters, such as critical detonation pressure and temperature, strongly depend on the container geometry.
Space_Race
On what date did the Space Race begin?
56e073cb7aa994140058e4ea
August 2, 1955
702
False
Sputnik 1 started orbiting on what date?
56e073cb7aa994140058e4eb
October 4, 1957
990
False
Who was the first person in space?
56e073cb7aa994140058e4ec
Yuri Gagarin
1080
False
What was the date that the first human reached space?
56e073cb7aa994140058e4ed
April 12, 1961
1097
False
The Space Race was a 20th-century competition between two Cold War rivals, the Soviet Union (USSR) and the United States (US), for supremacy in spaceflight capability. It had its origins in the missile-based nuclear arms race between the two nations that occurred following World War II, enabled by captured German rocket technology and personnel. The technological superiority required for such supremacy was seen as necessary for national security, and symbolic of ideological superiority. The Space Race spawned pioneering efforts to launch artificial satellites, unmanned space probes of the Moon, Venus, and Mars, and human spaceflight in low Earth orbit and to the Moon. The competition began on August 2, 1955, when the Soviet Union responded to the US announcement four days earlier of intent to launch artificial satellites for the International Geophysical Year, by declaring they would also launch a satellite "in the near future". The Soviet Union beat the US to this, with the October 4, 1957 orbiting of Sputnik 1, and later beat the US to the first human in space, Yuri Gagarin, on April 12, 1961. The Space Race peaked with the July 20, 1969 US landing of the first humans on the Moon with Apollo 11. The USSR tried but failed manned lunar missions, and eventually cancelled them and concentrated on Earth orbital space stations. A period of détente followed with the April 1972 agreement on a co-operative Apollo–Soyuz Test Project, resulting in the July 1975 rendezvous in Earth orbit of a US astronaut crew with a Soviet cosmonaut crew.
Which war in history did the Space Race begin to take root?
56e0796b231d4119001ac197
World War II
94
False
A secretive army installation began in Kummersdorf-West in what year?
56e0796b231d4119001ac199
1932
918
False
The Space Race can trace its origins to Germany, beginning in the 1930s and continuing during World War II when Nazi Germany researched and built operational ballistic missiles. Starting in the early 1930s, during the last stages of the Weimar Republic, German aerospace engineers experimented with liquid-fueled rockets, with the goal that one day they would be capable of reaching high altitudes and traversing long distances. The head of the German Army's Ballistics and Munitions Branch, Lieutenant Colonel Karl Emil Becker, gathered a small team of engineers that included Walter Dornberger and Leo Zanssen, to figure out how to use rockets as long-range artillery in order to get around the Treaty of Versailles' ban on research and development of long-range cannons. Wernher von Braun, a young engineering prodigy, was recruited by Becker and Dornberger to join their secret army program at Kummersdorf-West in 1932. Von Braun had dreams about conquering outer space with rockets, and did not initially see the military value in missile technology.
During WWII, who was in charge of the German army's rocket program?
56e079e87aa994140058e541
General Dornberger
29
False
What was the first object to enter space?
56e079e87aa994140058e542
Aggregate-4 (A-4) rocket
283
False
When did the Aggregate-4 (A-4) rocket reach space?
56e079e87aa994140058e543
1942 and 1943
395
False
During the Second World War, General Dornberger was the military head of the army's rocket program, Zanssen became the commandant of the Peenemünde army rocket centre, and von Braun was the technical director of the ballistic missile program. They would lead the team that built the Aggregate-4 (A-4) rocket, which became the first vehicle to reach outer space during its test flight program in 1942 and 1943. By 1943, Germany began mass-producing the A-4 as the Vergeltungswaffe 2 ("Vengeance Weapon" 2, or more commonly, V2), a ballistic missile with a 320 kilometers (200 mi) range carrying a 1,130 kilograms (2,490 lb) warhead at 4,000 kilometers per hour (2,500 mph). Its supersonic speed meant there was no defense against it, and radar detection provided little warning. Germany used the weapon to bombard southern England and parts of Allied-liberated western Europe from 1944 until 1945. After the war, the V-2 became the basis of early American and Soviet rocket designs.
What military operation allowed the US to recruit the German engineer, Von Braun?
56e07a467aa994140058e549
Operation Paperclip
338
False
The US had captured what type of missiles during Operation Paperclip?
56e07a467aa994140058e54a
V2 rockets
551
False
At war's end, American, British, and Soviet scientific intelligence teams competed to capture Germany's rocket engineers along with the German rockets themselves and the designs on which they were based. Each of the Allies captured a share of the available members of the German rocket team, but the United States benefited the most with Operation Paperclip, recruiting von Braun and most of his engineering team, who later helped develop the American missile and space exploration programs. The United States also acquired a large number of complete V2 rockets.
The German rocket center was located in what city?
56e07b187aa994140058e54d
Peenemünde
28
False
Who was in charge of the Soviet rocket engineer team that went into Germany?
56e07b187aa994140058e54e
Sergei Korolev
309
False
What year was Sergei Korolev arrested?
56e07b187aa994140058e54f
1938
426
False
Sergei Korolev died in what year?
56e07b187aa994140058e550
1966
820
False
After the war, Sergei Korolev was known under what title?
56e07b187aa994140058e551
USSR's chief rocket and spacecraft engineer
536
False
The German rocket center in Peenemünde was located in the eastern part of Germany, which became the Soviet zone of occupation. On Stalin's orders, the Soviet Union sent its best rocket engineers to this region to see what they could salvage for future weapons systems. The Soviet rocket engineers were led by Sergei Korolev. He had been involved in space clubs and early Soviet rocket design in the 1930s, but was arrested in 1938 during Joseph Stalin's Great Purge and imprisoned for six years in Siberia. After the war, he became the USSR's chief rocket and spacecraft engineer, essentially the Soviet counterpart to von Braun. His identity was kept a state secret throughout the Cold War, and he was identified publicly only as "the Chief Designer." In the West, his name was only officially revealed when he died in 1966.
What year was the R1 rocket born?
56e07b847aa994140058e559
1948
792
False
After almost a year in the area around Peenemünde, Soviet officials moved most of the captured German rocket specialists to Gorodomlya Island on Lake Seliger, about 240 kilometers (150 mi) northwest of Moscow. They were not allowed to participate in Soviet missile design, but were used as problem-solving consultants to the Soviet engineers. They helped in the following areas: the creation of a Soviet version of the A-4; work on "organizational schemes"; research in improving the A-4 main engine; development of a 100-ton engine; assistance in the "layout" of plant production rooms; and preparation of rocket assembly using German components. With their help, particularly Helmut Groettrup's group, Korolev reverse-engineered the A-4 and built his own version of the rocket, the R-1, in 1948. Later, he developed his own distinct designs, though many of these designs were influenced by the Groettrup Group's G4-R10 design from 1949. The Germans were eventually repatriated in 1951–53.
What professor began working on solid-fuel rockets since 1914?
56e07bc7231d4119001ac1c3
Robert H. Goddard
23
False
Liquid-fueled rockets were developed in what year?
56e07bc7231d4119001ac1c4
1921
296
False
The American professor Robert H. Goddard had worked on developing solid-fuel rockets since 1914, and demonstrated a light battlefield rocket to the US Army Signal Corps only five days before the signing of the armistice that ended World War I. He also started developing liquid-fueled rockets in 1921; yet he had not been taken seriously by the public, and was not sponsored by the government as part of the post-WW II rocket development effort. Von Braun, himself inspired by Goddard's work, was bemused by this when debriefed by his American handlers, asking them, "Why didn't you just ask Dr. Goddard?"[citation needed]
The  United States Army's White Sands Proving Ground is located where?
56e084b77aa994140058e595
New Mexico
100
False
Von Braun and his associates were sent to  United States Army's White Sands Proving Ground in what year?
56e084b77aa994140058e596
1945
115
False
The first two-stage rocket was developed in what year?
56e084b77aa994140058e597
1949
394
False
The Army's new Redstone Arsenal is located in what city and state?
56e084b77aa994140058e598
Huntsville, Alabama
496
False
What year was the German rocket team moved to Alabama?
56e084b77aa994140058e599
1950
520
False
Von Braun and his team were sent to the United States Army's White Sands Proving Ground, located in New Mexico, in 1945. They set about assembling the captured V2s and began a program of launching them and instructing American engineers in their operation. These tests led to the first rocket to take photos from outer space, and the first two-stage rocket, the WAC Corporal-V2 combination, in 1949. The German rocket team was moved from Fort Bliss to the Army's new Redstone Arsenal, located in Huntsville, Alabama, in 1950. From here, von Braun and his team would develop the Army's first operational medium-range ballistic missile, the Redstone rocket, that would, in slightly modified versions, launch both America's first satellite, and the first piloted Mercury space missions. It became the basis for both the Jupiter and Saturn family of rockets.
What year did the US lose its monopoly to the atomic bomb?
56e08587231d4119001ac24f
1949
190
False
What type of bomb was first developed during the Cold War?
56e08587231d4119001ac250
the hydrogen bomb
605
False
ICBMs is an abbreviation for what?
56e08587231d4119001ac251
intercontinental strategic bombers and intercontinental ballistic missiles
635
False
The SAC is an abbreviation for what US force?
56e08587231d4119001ac252
Strategic Air Command
1220
False
During what decade, did a fear of communism oversweep the US?
56e08587231d4119001ac253
1950s
837
False
In simple terms, the Cold War could be viewed as an expression of the ideological struggle between communism and capitalism. The United States faced a new uncertainty beginning in September 1949, when it lost its monopoly on the atomic bomb. American intelligence agencies discovered that the Soviet Union had exploded its first atomic bomb, with the consequence that the United States potentially could face a future nuclear war that, for the first time, might devastate its cities. Given this new danger, the United States participated in an arms race with the Soviet Union that included development of the hydrogen bomb, as well as intercontinental strategic bombers and intercontinental ballistic missiles (ICBMs) capable of delivering nuclear weapons. A new fear of communism and its sympathizers swept the United States during the 1950s, which devolved into paranoid McCarthyism. With communism spreading in China, Korea, and Eastern Europe, Americans came to feel so threatened that popular and political culture condoned extensive "witch-hunts" to expose communist spies. Part of the American reaction to the Soviet atomic and hydrogen bomb tests included maintaining a large Air Force, under the control of the Strategic Air Command (SAC). SAC employed intercontinental strategic bombers, as well as medium-bombers based close to Soviet airspace (in western Europe and in Turkey) that were capable of delivering nuclear payloads.
How many casualties did the Soviet Union have during WWII?
56e08680231d4119001ac26b
27 million
84
False
The Soviet Union was first invaded by Nazi controlled Germany in what year?
56e08680231d4119001ac26c
1941
165
False
Until what year, was the US the sole possessor of the atomic bomb?
56e08680231d4119001ac26d
1949
253
False
In what year did Stalin order the development of ICBMs?
56e08680231d4119001ac26e
1947
624
False
What type of military force did the US possess a much larger fleet than the Soviet Union?
56e08680231d4119001ac26f
air force
514
False
For its part, the Soviet Union harbored fears of invasion. Having suffered at least 27 million casualties during World War II after being invaded by Nazi Germany in 1941, the Soviet Union was wary of its former ally, the United States, which until late 1949 was the sole possessor of atomic weapons. The United States had used these weapons operationally during World War II, and it could use them again against the Soviet Union, laying waste its cities and military centers. Since the Americans had a much larger air force than the Soviet Union, and the United States maintained advance air bases near Soviet territory, in 1947 Stalin ordered the development of intercontinental ballistic missiles (ICBMs) in order to counter the perceived American threat.
Who began developing the  R-7 Semyorka rocket?
56e087477aa994140058e5b8
Korolev
9
False
R-7 Semyorka rocket resembled closely to what other missile?
56e087477aa994140058e5b9
German G-4
205
False
When was the R-7 Semyorka rocket tested successfully?
56e087477aa994140058e5ba
August 21, 1957
339
False
The first satellite launched into space used what rocket?
56e087477aa994140058e5bb
R-7 Semyorka rocket
55
False
In 1953, Korolev was given the go-ahead to develop the R-7 Semyorka rocket, which represented a major advance from the German design. Although some of its components (notably boosters) still resembled the German G-4, the new rocket incorporated staged design, a completely new control system, and a new fuel. It was successfully tested on August 21, 1957 and became the world's first fully operational ICBM the following month. It would later be used to launch the first satellite into space, and derivatives would launch all piloted Soviet spacecraft.
The US Air Force began research of ICBMs in what year?
56e087e6231d4119001ac275
1945
217
False
What type of rocket was first researched by the Air Force?
56e087e6231d4119001ac276
MX-774
231
False
The MX-774 was tested in what year?
56e087e6231d4119001ac277
1947
337
False
The Air Force PGM-11 Redstone rocket family was tested where?
56e087e6231d4119001ac278
Cape Canaveral
423
False
The Atlas-A first launched on what date?
56e087e6231d4119001ac279
June 11, 1957
648
False
The United States had multiple rocket programs divided among the different branches of the American armed services, which meant that each force developed its own ICBM program. The Air Force initiated ICBM research in 1945 with the MX-774. However, its funding was cancelled and only three partially successful launches were conducted in 1947. In 1950, von Braun began testing the Air Force PGM-11 Redstone rocket family at Cape Canaveral. In 1951, the Air Force began a new ICBM program called MX-1593, and by 1955 this program was receiving top-priority funding. The MX-1593 program evolved to become the Atlas-A, with its maiden launch occurring June 11, 1957, becoming the first successful American ICBM. Its upgraded version, the Atlas-D rocket, would later serve as an operational nuclear ICBM and as the orbital launch vehicle for Project Mercury and the remote-controlled Agena Target Vehicle used in Project Gemini.
Who was president Dwight D. Eisenhower's press secretary?
56e088c6231d4119001ac280
James C. Hagerty
356
False
The starting date for the Space Race was which date?
56e088c6231d4119001ac281
August 30, 1955
902
False
In 1955, with both the United States and the Soviet Union building ballistic missiles that could be utilized to launch objects into space, the "starting line" was drawn for the Space Race. In separate announcements, just four days apart, both nations publicly announced that they would launch artificial Earth satellites by 1957 or 1958. On July 29, 1955, James C. Hagerty, president Dwight D. Eisenhower's press secretary, announced that the United States intended to launch "small Earth circling satellites" between July 1, 1957, and December 31, 1958, as part of their contribution to the International Geophysical Year (IGY). Four days later, at the Sixth Congress of International Astronautical Federation in Copenhagen, scientist Leonid I. Sedov spoke to international reporters at the Soviet embassy, and announced his country's intention to launch a satellite as well, in the "near future". On August 30, 1955, Korolev managed to get the Soviet Academy of Sciences to create a commission whose purpose was to beat the Americans into Earth orbit: this was the de facto start date for the Space Race. The Council of Ministers of the Soviet Union began a policy of treating development of its space program as a classified state secret.
A Jupiter-C was launched by Von Braum on what date?
56e0893c7aa994140058e5d5
September 20, 1956
1012
False
Initially, President Eisenhower was worried that a satellite passing above a nation at over 100 kilometers (62 mi), might be construed as violating that nation's sovereign airspace. He was concerned that the Soviet Union would accuse the Americans of an illegal overflight, thereby scoring a propaganda victory at his expense. Eisenhower and his advisors believed that a nation's airspace sovereignty did not extend into outer space, acknowledged as the Kármán line, and he used the 1957–58 International Geophysical Year launches to establish this principle in international law. Eisenhower also feared that he might cause an international incident and be called a "warmonger" if he were to use military missiles as launchers. Therefore, he selected the untried Naval Research Laboratory's Vanguard rocket, which was a research-only booster. This meant that von Braun's team was not allowed to put a satellite into orbit with their Jupiter-C rocket, because of its intended use as a future military vehicle. On September 20, 1956, von Braun and his team did launch a Jupiter-C that was capable of putting a satellite into orbit, but the launch was used only as a suborbital test of nose cone reentry technology.
The civilian rocket and satellite project in the US was called what?
56e0bc7b231d4119001ac363
Vanguard
133
False
Project Vanguard launch failed on what date?
56e0bc7b231d4119001ac364
December 6, 195
234
False
Cape Canaveral Air Force Station is located in what state?
56e0bc7b231d4119001ac365
Florida
331
False
in response to Project Vanguard's failed launch, what was the rocket the Soviet Union launched?
56e0bc7b231d4119001ac366
Jupiter-C rocket
854
False
The Soviet success caused public controversy in the United States, and Eisenhower ordered the civilian rocket and satellite project, Vanguard, to move up its timetable and launch its satellite much sooner than originally planned. The December 6, 1957 Project Vanguard launch failure occurred at Cape Canaveral Air Force Station in Florida, broadcast live in front of a US television audience. It was a monumental failure, exploding a few seconds after launch, and it became an international joke. The satellite appeared in newspapers under the names Flopnik, Stayputnik, Kaputnik, and Dudnik. In the United Nations, the Russian delegate offered the U.S. representative aid "under the Soviet program of technical assistance to backwards nations." Only in the wake of this very public failure did von Braun's Redstone team get the go-ahead to launch their Jupiter-C rocket as soon as they could. In Britain, the USA's Western Cold War ally, the reaction was mixed: some members of the population celebrated the fact that the Soviets had reached space first, while others feared the destructive potential that military uses of spacecraft might bring.
The first US satellite to launch without failure was on what date?
56e0e8b47aa994140058e79b
January 31, 1958
3
False
The Explorer gathered what 3 measurements?
56e0e8b47aa994140058e79d
cosmic ray and radiation levels, the temperature in the spacecraft, and the frequency of collisions with micrometeorites
916
False
On January 31, 1958, nearly four months after the launch of Sputnik 1, von Braun and the United States successfully launched its first satellite on a four-stage Juno I rocket derived from the US Army's Redstone missile, at Cape Canaveral. The satellite Explorer 1 was 30.8 pounds (14.0 kg) in mass. It carried a micrometeorite gauge and a Geiger-Müller tube. It passed in and out of the Earth-encompassing radiation belt with its 194-by-1,368-nautical-mile (360 by 2,534 km) orbit, therefore saturating the tube's capacity and proving what Dr. James Van Allen, a space scientist at the University of Iowa, had theorized. The belt, named the Van Allen radiation belt, is a doughnut-shaped zone of high-level radiation intensity around the Earth above the magnetic equator. Van Allen was also the man who designed and built the satellite instrumentation of Explorer 1. The satellite actually measured three phenomena: cosmic ray and radiation levels, the temperature in the spacecraft, and the frequency of collisions with micrometeorites. The satellite had no memory for data storage, therefore it had to transmit continuously. Two months later in March 1958, a second satellite was sent into orbit with augmented cosmic ray instruments.
Who was the Senate's Majority Leader in 1958?
56e0e93d7aa994140058e7a1
Lyndon B. Johnson
259
False
The National Aeronautics and Space Act was established in what year?
56e0e93d7aa994140058e7a2
1958
12
False
What was NASA called before it became NASA?
56e0e93d7aa994140058e7a3
National Advisory Committee on Aeronautics
410
False
The first US satellite was launched on what date?
56e0e93d7aa994140058e7a4
April 2, 1958
3
False
On April 2, 1958, President Eisenhower reacted to the Soviet space lead in launching the first satellite, by recommending to the US Congress that a civilian agency be established to direct nonmilitary space activities. Congress, led by Senate Majority Leader Lyndon B. Johnson, responded by passing the National Aeronautics and Space Act, which Eisenhower signed into law on July 29, 1958. This law turned the National Advisory Committee on Aeronautics into the National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA). It also created a Civilian-Military Liaison Committee, chaired by the President, responsible for coordinating the nation's civilian and military space programs.
The Redstone Arsenal became the George C. Marshall Space Flight Center when?
56e0e9887aa994140058e7ab
July 1, 1960
115
False
Who was the first director in charge of the George C. Marshall Space Flight Center?
56e0e9887aa994140058e7ac
von Braun
209
False
On October 21, 1959, Eisenhower approved the transfer of the Army's remaining space-related activities to NASA. On July 1, 1960, the Redstone Arsenal became NASA's George C. Marshall Space Flight Center, with von Braun as its first director. Development of the Saturn rocket family, which when mature, would finally give the US parity with the Soviets in terms of lifting capability, was thus transferred to NASA.
How many attempts to the Moon did Luna E-1-class probes fail before successfully launching?
56e0ea497aa994140058e7af
4
57
False
The first probe to land on the Moon was in what year?
56e0ea497aa994140058e7b0
1959
240
False
Which Luna probe successfully photographed the back side of the Moon?
56e0ea497aa994140058e7b2
Luna 3
434
False
In 1958, Korolev upgraded the R-7 to be able to launch a 400-kilogram (880 lb) payload to the Moon. Three secret 1958 attempts to launch Luna E-1-class impactor probes failed. The fourth attempt, Luna 1, launched successfully on January 2, 1959, but missed the Moon. The fifth attempt on June 18 also failed at launch. The 390-kilogram (860 lb) Luna 2 successfully impacted the Moon on September 14, 1959. The 278.5-kilogram (614 lb) Luna 3 successfully flew by the Moon and sent back pictures of its far side on October 6, 1959.
The Ranger program from 1959 was managed by what organization?
56e0eaeb7aa994140058e7b9
NASA's Jet Propulsion Laboratory
90
False
The first spacecraft to make it to the Moon was what?
56e0eaeb7aa994140058e7ba
Ranger 4
352
False
The first Ranger mission that didn't fail was which one?
56e0eaeb7aa994140058e7bb
Block III Ranger 7
703
False
The Block III Ranger 7 mission successfully reached the moon on what date?
56e0eaeb7aa994140058e7bc
July 31, 1964
740
False
What program led to the establishment of the Ranger program?
56e0eaeb7aa994140058e7bd
Luna
22
False
The US reacted to the Luna program by embarking on the Ranger program in 1959, managed by NASA's Jet Propulsion Laboratory. The Block I Ranger 1 and Ranger 2 suffered Atlas-Agena launch failures in August and November 1961. The 727-pound (330 kg) Block II Ranger 3 launched successfully on January 26, 1962, but missed the Moon. The 730-pound (330 kg) Ranger 4 became the first US spacecraft to reach the Moon, but its solar panels and navigational system failed near the Moon and it impacted the far side without returning any scientific data. Ranger 5 ran out of power and missed the Moon by 725 kilometers (391 nmi) on October 21, 1962. The first successful Ranger mission was the 806-pound (366 kg) Block III Ranger 7 which impacted on July 31, 1964.
Which country succesfully launched the first person into space in 1961?
56e0eb947aa994140058e7c3
the USSR
190
False
The first ship to carry a human through space was called what?
56e0eb947aa994140058e7c4
Vostok 1
311
False
How long did Yuri Gagarin orbit the earth in the spacecraft?
56e0eb947aa994140058e7c5
108 minutes
812
False
By 1959, American observers believed that the Soviet Union would be the first to get a human into space, because of the time needed to prepare for Mercury's first launch. On April 12, 1961, the USSR surprised the world again by launching Yuri Gagarin into a single orbit around the Earth in a craft they called Vostok 1. They dubbed Gagarin the first cosmonaut, roughly translated from Russian and Greek as "sailor of the universe". Although he had the ability to take over manual control of his spacecraft in an emergency by opening an envelope he had in the cabin that contained a code that could be typed into the computer, it was flown in an automatic mode as a precaution; medical science at that time did not know what would happen to a human in the weightlessness of space. Vostok 1 orbited the Earth for 108 minutes and made its reentry over the Soviet Union, with Gagarin ejecting from the spacecraft at 7,000 meters (23,000 ft), and landing by parachute. The Fédération Aéronautique Internationale (International Federation of Aeronautics) credited Gagarin with the world's first human space flight, although their qualifying rules for aeronautical records at the time required pilots to take off and land with their craft. For this reason, the Soviet Union omitted from their FAI submission the fact that Gagarin did not land with his capsule. When the FAI filing for Gherman Titov's second Vostok flight in August 1961 disclosed the ejection landing technique, the FAI committee decided to investigate, and concluded that the technological accomplishment of human spaceflight lay in the safe launch, orbiting, and return, rather than the manner of landing, and so revised their rules accordingly, keeping Gagarin's and Titov's records intact.
April 12, in the USSR, is what special day?
56e0ebdb231d4119001ac44a
Cosmonautics Day
263
False
What year was established as the International Day of Human Space Flight by the United Nations?
56e0ebdb231d4119001ac44b
2011
386
False
Gagarin became a national hero of the Soviet Union and the Eastern Bloc, and a worldwide celebrity. Moscow and other cities in the USSR held mass demonstrations, the scale of which was second only to the World War II Victory Parade of 1945. April 12 was declared Cosmonautics Day in the USSR, and is celebrated today in Russia as one of the official "Commemorative Dates of Russia." In 2011, it was declared the International Day of Human Space Flight by the United Nations.
Man in Space Soonest was a program by which organization?
56e0f1b27aa994140058e7e5
US Air Force
4
False
Man in Space Soonest was reestablished as what in November 26, 1958?
56e0f1b27aa994140058e7e6
Project Mercury
401
False
The US Air Force had been developing a program to launch the first man in space, named Man in Space Soonest. This program studied several different types of one-man space vehicles, settling on a ballistic re-entry capsule launched on a derivative Atlas missile, and selecting a group of nine candidate pilots. After NASA's creation, the program was transferred over to the civilian agency and renamed Project Mercury on November 26, 1958. NASA selected a new group of astronaut (from the Greek for "star sailor") candidates from Navy, Air Force and Marine test pilots, and narrowed this down to a group of seven for the program. Capsule design and astronaut training began immediately, working toward preliminary suborbital flights on the Redstone missile, followed by orbital flights on the Atlas. Each flight series would first start unmanned, then carry a primate, then finally men.
The first American to travel into space was whom?
56e0f229231d4119001ac4b2
Alan Shepard
35
False
When did Alan Shepard first arrive in space?
56e0f229231d4119001ac4b3
May 5, 1961
22
False
The spaceship that carried Alan Shepard was named what?
56e0f229231d4119001ac4b4
Freedom 7
167
False
The first person to have control over driving their spacecraft was whom?
56e0f229231d4119001ac4b5
Alan Shepard
35
False
Which president awarded Alan Shepard the NASA Distinguished Service Medal?
56e0f229231d4119001ac4b6
John F. Kennedy
530
False
Three weeks later, on May 5, 1961, Alan Shepard became the first American in space, launched in a ballistic trajectory on Mercury-Redstone 3, in a spacecraft he named Freedom 7. Though he did not achieve orbit like Gagarin, he was the first person to exercise manual control over his spacecraft's attitude and retro-rocket firing. After his successful return, Shepard was celebrated as a national hero, honored with parades in Washington, New York and Los Angeles, and received the NASA Distinguished Service Medal from President John F. Kennedy.
President Kennedy sent a letter on April 20, 1961 to who about the US's space program?
56e0f281231d4119001ac4bc
Vice President Lyndon B. Johnson
172
False
Gagarin's flight changed this; now Kennedy sensed the humiliation and fear on the part of the American public over the Soviet lead. He sent a memo dated April 20, 1961, to Vice President Lyndon B. Johnson, asking him to look into the state of America's space program, and into programs that could offer NASA the opportunity to catch up. The two major options at the time seemed to be, either establishment of an Earth orbital space station, or a manned landing on the Moon. Johnson in turn consulted with von Braun, who answered Kennedy's questions based on his estimates of US and Soviet rocket lifting capability. Based on this, Johnson responded to Kennedy, concluding that much more was needed to reach a position of leadership, and recommending that the manned Moon landing was far enough in the future that the US had a fighting chance to achieve it first.
The speech by Kennedy, "Special Message on Urgent National Needs" was delivered on what date?
56e0f2ae231d4119001ac4be
May 25
76
False
Kennedy ultimately decided to pursue what became the Apollo program, and on May 25 took the opportunity to ask for Congressional support in a Cold War speech titled "Special Message on Urgent National Needs". Full text
"We choose to go to the Moon" speech was given at what location in Texas?
56e0f3a5231d4119001ac4d2
Rice University Stadium
287
False
He justified the program in terms of its importance to national security, and its focus of the nation's energies on other scientific and social fields. He rallied popular support for the program in his "We choose to go to the Moon" speech, on September 12, 1962, before a large crowd at Rice University Stadium, in Houston, Texas, near the construction site of the new Manned Spacecraft Center facility. Full text
The first American to orbit around the planet was whom?
56e0f4db7aa994140058e811
John Glenn
174
False
When did John Glenn orbit the Earth?
56e0f4db7aa994140058e812
February 20, 1962
234
False
Where did John Glenn land on Earth after coming back from orbit?
56e0f4db7aa994140058e813
Atlantic Ocean
368
False
John Glenn's spaceship was named what when he orbited the Earth?
56e0f4db7aa994140058e815
Friendship 7
311
False
American Virgil "Gus" Grissom repeated Shepard's suborbital flight in Liberty Bell 7 on July 21, 1961. Almost a year after the Soviet Union put a human into orbit, astronaut John Glenn became the first American to orbit the Earth, on February 20, 1962. His Mercury-Atlas 6 mission completed three orbits in the Friendship 7 spacecraft, and splashed down safely in the Atlantic Ocean, after a tense reentry, due to what falsely appeared from the telemetry data to be a loose heat-shield. As the first American in orbit, Glenn became a national hero, and received a ticker-tape parade in New York City, reminiscent of that given for Charles Lindbergh. On February 23, 1962, President Kennedy escorted him in a parade at Cape Canaveral Air Force Station, where he awarded Glenn with the NASA service medal.
How many more Mercury missions were there after John Glenn's?
56e0f5587aa994140058e81b
3
146
False
The United States launched three more Mercury flights after Glenn's: Aurora 7 on May 24, 1962 duplicated Glenn's three orbits; Sigma 7 on October 3, 1962, six orbits; and Faith 7 on May 15, 1963, 22 orbits (32.4 hours), the maximum capability of the spacecraft. NASA at first intended to launch one more mission, extending the spacecraft's endurance to three days, but since this would not beat the Soviet record, it was decided instead to concentrate on developing Project Gemini.
What first person from the USSR controlled their own spacecraft?
56e0f6177aa994140058e829
Gherman Titov
0
False
Gherman Titov from the USSR drove his own spacecraft on what date?
56e0f6177aa994140058e82a
August 6, 1961
100
False
Radio communication was possible between which two spacecrafts in August 11 and 12, 1962?
56e0f6177aa994140058e82c
Vostok 3 and Vostok 4
229
False
Gherman Titov became the first Soviet cosmonaut to exercise manual control of his Vostok 2 craft on August 6, 1961. The Soviet Union demonstrated 24-hour launch pad turnaround and the capability to launch two piloted spacecraft, Vostok 3 and Vostok 4, in essentially identical orbits, on August 11 and 12, 1962. The two spacecraft came within approximately 6.5 kilometers (4.0 mi) of one another, close enough for radio communication. Vostok 4 also set a record of nearly four days in space. Though the two craft's orbits were as nearly identical as possible given the accuracy of the launch rocket's guidance system, slight variations still existed which drew the two craft at first as close to each other as 6.5 kilometers (3.5 nautical miles), then as far apart as 2,850 kilometers (1,540 nautical miles). There were no maneuvering rockets on the Vostok to permit space rendezvous, required to keep two spacecraft a controlled distance apart.
The first woman that went into space was whom?
56e0f68f7aa994140058e833
Valentina Tereshkova
160
False
What spacecraft carried  Valentina Tereshkova, the first woman in space?
56e0f68f7aa994140058e834
Vostok 6
67
False
The first woman to launch into space was on what date?
56e0f68f7aa994140058e836
June 16, 1963
77
False
The first woman to go into space was from which country?
56e0f68f7aa994140058e837
The USSR
436
False
The Soviet Union duplicated its dual-launch feat with Vostok 5 and Vostok 6 (June 16, 1963). This time they launched the first woman (also the first civilian), Valentina Tereshkova, into space on Vostok 6. Launching a woman was reportedly Korolev's idea, and it was accomplished purely for propaganda value. Tereshkova was one of a small corps of female cosmonauts who were amateur parachutists, but Tereshkova was the only one to fly. The USSR didn't again open its cosmonaut corps to women until 1980, two years after the United States opened its astronaut corps to women.
At what event was the Vostok spaceship first displayed to the public ?
56e0f6c27aa994140058e83d
July 1961 Tushino air show
279
False
The Soviets kept the details and true appearance of the Vostok capsule secret until the April 1965 Moscow Economic Exhibition, where it was first displayed without its aerodynamic nose cone concealing the spherical capsule. The "Vostok spaceship" had been first displayed at the July 1961 Tushino air show, mounted on its launch vehicle's third stage, with the nose cone in place. A tail section with eight fins was also added, in an apparent attempt to confuse western observers. This spurious tail section also appeared on official commemorative stamps and a documentary.
When did US President John F. Kennedy, in a speech, propose to join forces to reach the moon with the USSR?
56e0f6f47aa994140058e83f
September 20, 1963
3
False
On September 20, 1963, in a speech before the United Nations General Assembly, President Kennedy proposed that the United States and the Soviet Union join forces in their efforts to reach the Moon. Soviet Premier Nikita Khrushchev initially rejected Kennedy's proposal.
President Kennedy was killed when?
56e0f770231d4119001ac500
November 22, 1963
166
False
How did US President Kennedy die?
56e0f770231d4119001ac501
assassination
149
False
On October 2, 1997, it was reported that Khrushchev's son Sergei claimed Khrushchev was poised to accept Kennedy's proposal at the time of Kennedy's assassination on November 22, 1963. During the next few weeks he reportedly concluded that both nations might realize cost benefits and technological gains from a joint venture, and decided to accept Kennedy's offer based on a measure of rapport during their years as leaders of the world's two superpowers, but changed his mind and dropped the idea since he did not have the same trust for Kennedy's successor, Lyndon Johnson.
What two locations in Florida were renamed after Kennedy by President Johnson?
56e0f7ab7aa994140058e841
Cape Canaveral and Apollo launch facilities
207
False
Which two space programs were heavily worked on by President Johnson?
56e0f7ab7aa994140058e842
Gemini and Apollo
46
False
As President, Johnson steadfastly pursued the Gemini and Apollo programs, promoting them as Kennedy's legacy to the American public. One week after Kennedy's death, he issued an executive order renaming the Cape Canaveral and Apollo launch facilities after Kennedy.
What year was the Gemini project confirmed?
56e0f816231d4119001ac510
1962
56
False
How many people could the Gemini project carry?
56e0f816231d4119001ac511
2
59
False
Focused by the commitment to a Moon landing, in January 1962 the US announced Project Gemini, a two-man spacecraft that would support the later three-man Apollo by developing the key spaceflight technologies of space rendezvous and docking of two craft, flight durations of sufficient length to simulate going to the Moon and back, and extra-vehicular activity to accomplish useful work outside the spacecraft.
On what date was the first successful three man astronaut crew?
56e0f975231d4119001ac516
October 12, 1964
363
False
The first flight in a spacecraft that allowed no suits to be worn inside was was?
56e0f975231d4119001ac517
Voskhod 1
350
False
The US Apollo Command Module flew without spacesuits in what year?
56e0f975231d4119001ac518
1968
1029
False
The greater advances of the Soviet space program at the time allowed their space program to achieve other significant firsts, including the first EVA "spacewalk" and the first mission performed by a crew in shirt-sleeves. Gemini took a year longer than planned to accomplish its first flight, allowing the Soviets to achieve another first, launching Voskhod 1 on October 12, 1964, the first spacecraft with a three-cosmonaut crew. The USSR touted another technological achievement during this mission: it was the first space flight during which cosmonauts performed in a shirt-sleeve-environment. However, flying without spacesuits was not due to safety improvements in the Soviet spacecraft's environmental systems; rather this innovation was accomplished because the craft's limited cabin space did not allow for spacesuits. Flying without spacesuits exposed the cosmonauts to significant risk in the event of potentially fatal cabin depressurization. This feat would not be repeated until the US Apollo Command Module flew in 1968; this later mission was designed from the outset to safely transport three astronauts in a shirt-sleeve environment while in space.
Korolev died on what date?
56e0f9d7231d4119001ac51c
January 14, 1966
523
False
Between October 14–16, 1964, Leonid Brezhnev and a small cadre of high-ranking Communist Party officials, deposed Khrushchev as Soviet government leader a day after Voskhod 1 landed, in what was called the "Wednesday conspiracy". The new political leaders, along with Korolev, ended the technologically troublesome Voskhod program, cancelling Voskhod 3 and 4, which were in the planning stages, and started concentrating on the race to the Moon. Voskhod 2 would end up being Korolev's final achievement before his death on January 14, 1966, as it would become the last of the many space firsts that demonstrated the USSR's domination in spacecraft technology during the early 1960s. According to historian Asif Siddiqi, Korolev's accomplishments marked "the absolute zenith of the Soviet space program, one never, ever attained since." There would be a two-year pause in Soviet piloted space flights while Voskhod's replacement, the Soyuz spacecraft, was designed and developed.
The Voskhod 2 carrying two humans was launched on what date?
56e0fa4e231d4119001ac51e
March 18, 1965
3
False
Who was the first person to take a spacewalk?
56e0fa4e231d4119001ac51f
Alexey Leonov
206
False
Which of two Voskhod 2's occupants was almost killed?
56e0fa4e231d4119001ac520
Alexey Leonov
206
False
On March 18, 1965, about a week before the first American piloted Project Gemini space flight, the USSR accelerated the competition, by launching the two-cosmonaut Voskhod 2 mission with Pavel Belyayev and Alexey Leonov. Voskhod 2's design modifications included the addition of an inflatable airlock to allow for extravehicular activity (EVA), also known as a spacewalk, while keeping the cabin pressurized so that the capsule's electronics wouldn't overheat. Leonov performed the first-ever EVA as part of the mission. A fatality was narrowly avoided when Leonov's spacesuit expanded in the vacuum of space, preventing him from re-entering the airlock. In order to overcome this, he had to partially depressurize his spacesuit to a potentially dangerous level. He succeeded in safely re-entering the ship, but he and Belyayev faced further challenges when the spacecraft's atmospheric controls flooded the cabin with 45% pure oxygen, which had to be lowered to acceptable levels before re-entry. The reentry involved two more challenges: an improperly timed retrorocket firing caused the Voskhod 2 to land 386 kilometers (240 mi) off its designated target area, the town of Perm; and the instrument compartment's failure to detach from the descent apparatus caused the spacecraft to become unstable during reentry.
Project Gemini helped recruit experienced people for which upcoming lunar missions?
56e0fa807aa994140058e861
Apollo
200
False
Most of the novice pilots on the early missions would command the later missions. In this way, Project Gemini built up spaceflight experience for the pool of astronauts who would be chosen to fly the Apollo lunar missions.
Who created the circumlunar program called Zond?
56e0fb41231d4119001ac52c
Vladimir Chelomey
43
False
Which type of craft were two astronauts to fly in during Zond?
56e0fb41231d4119001ac52d
Soyuz 7K-L1
130
False
The circumlunar program (Zond), created by Vladimir Chelomey's design bureau OKB-52, was to fly two cosmonauts in a stripped-down Soyuz 7K-L1, launched by Chelomey's Proton UR-500 rocket. The Zond sacrificed habitable cabin volume for equipment, by omitting the Soyuz orbital module. Chelomey gained favor with Khruschev by employing members of his family.
The "Lunniy Korabl" or "LK" would carry how many people?
56e0fba6231d4119001ac53b
N1
47
False
Korolev's lunar landing program was designated N1/L3, for its N1 superbooster and a more advanced Soyuz 7K-L3 spacecraft, also known as the lunar orbital module ("Lunniy Orbitalny Korabl", LOK), with a crew of two. A separate lunar lander ("Lunniy Korabl", LK), would carry a single cosmonaut to the lunar surface.
The Committee on the Peaceful Uses of Outer Space was established in what year?
56e0fbf67aa994140058e873
1959
199
False
The Committee on the Peaceful Uses of Outer Space was created by what organization in 1959?
56e0fbf67aa994140058e874
United Nations
118
False
The US and USSR began discussions on the peaceful uses of space as early as 1958, presenting issues for debate to the United Nations, which created a Committee on the Peaceful Uses of Outer Space in 1959.
A problem was resolved by whom when both the US and the USSR supported a cooperative space program?
56e0fcef231d4119001ac548
Political Committee of the UN General Assembly
199
False
The cooperative space program was passed on what date?
56e0fcef231d4119001ac549
December 1962
249
False
On May 10, 1962, Vice President Johnson addressed the Second National Conference on the Peaceful Uses of Space revealing that the United States and the USSR both supported a resolution passed by the Political Committee of the UN General Assembly on December 1962, which not only urged member nations to "extend the rules of international law to outer space," but to also cooperate in its exploration. Following the passing of this resolution, Kennedy commenced his communications proposing a cooperative American/Soviet space program.
The Treaty on Principles Governing the Activities of States in the Exploration and Use of Outer Space was signed by three countries on what date?
56e0fd56231d4119001ac552
January 27, 1967
245
False
The UN ultimately created a Treaty on Principles Governing the Activities of States in the Exploration and Use of Outer Space, including the Moon and Other Celestial Bodies, which was signed by the United States, USSR, and the United Kingdom on January 27, 1967 and went into force the following October 10.
Both crews were killed on which spacecraft missions in 1967?
56e0fd867aa994140058e889
Apollo and Soyuz
167
False
In 1967, both nations faced serious challenges that brought their programs to temporary halts. Both had been rushing at full-speed toward the first piloted flights of Apollo and Soyuz, without paying due diligence to growing design and manufacturing problems. The results proved fatal to both pioneering crews.
The Outer Space Treaty was signed by the US and the USSR on what date?
56e0fe47cd28a01900c673f1
January 27, 1967
3
False
What was the cause of the fire that killed everyone on the first Apollo mission before launch?
56e0fe47cd28a01900c673f4
electrical spark
429
False
Who were the three people who died on the first Apollo mission before launch?
56e0fe47cd28a01900c673f5
Command Pilot Virgil "Gus" Grissom, Senior Pilot Edward H. White, and Pilot Roger Chaffee
126
False
On January 27, 1967, the same day the US and USSR signed the Outer Space Treaty, the crew of the first manned Apollo mission, Command Pilot Virgil "Gus" Grissom, Senior Pilot Edward H. White, and Pilot Roger Chaffee, were killed in a fire that swept through their spacecraft cabin during a ground test, less than a month before the planned February 21 launch. An investigative board determined the fire was probably caused by an electrical spark, and quickly grew out of control, fed by the spacecraft's pure oxygen atmosphere. Crew escape was made impossible by inability to open the plug door hatch cover against the greater-than-atmospheric internal pressure. The board also found design and construction flaws in the spacecraft, and procedural failings, including failure to appreciate the hazard of the pure-oxygen atmosphere, as well as inadequate safety procedures. All these flaws had to be corrected over the next twenty-two months until the first piloted flight could be made. Mercury and Gemini veteran Grissom had been a favored choice of Deke Slayton, NASA's Director of Flight Crew Operations, to make the first piloted landing.
Who was the person credited with the first in-flight space death?
56e0fedde3433e1400422a74
Vladimir Komarov
332
False
When did Vladimir Komarov die on impact from his spacecraft crash?
56e0fedde3433e1400422a76
April 24, 1967
287
False
Meanwhile, the Soviet Union was having its own problems with Soyuz development. Engineers reported 200 design faults to party leaders, but their concerns "were overruled by political pressures for a series of space feats to mark the anniversary of Lenin's birthday."[citation needed] On April 24, 1967, the single pilot of Soyuz 1, Vladimir Komarov, became the first in-flight spaceflight fatality. The mission was planned to be a three-day test, to include the first Soviet docking with an unpiloted Soyuz 2, but the mission was plagued with problems. Early on, Komarov's craft lacked sufficient electrical power because only one of two solar panels had deployed. Then the automatic attitude control system began malfunctioning and eventually failed completely, resulting in the craft spinning wildly. Komarov was able to stop the spin with the manual system, which was only partially effective. The flight controllers aborted his mission after only one day. During the emergency re-entry, a fault in the landing parachute system caused the primary chute to fail, and the reserve chute became tangled with the drogue chute; Komarov was killed on impact. Fixing the spacecraft faults caused an eighteen-month delay before piloted Soyuz flights could resume.
Apollo 7 launched from Earth on what date?
56e0ff55e3433e1400422a7c
October 11, 1968
486
False
Who was in charge of the Apollo 7 mission on board?
56e0ff55e3433e1400422a7d
Walter Schirra
446
False
The United States recovered from the Apollo 1 fire, fixing the fatal flaws in an improved version of the Block II command module. The US proceeded with unpiloted test launches of the Saturn V launch vehicle (Apollo 4 and Apollo 6) and the Lunar Module (Apollo 5) during the latter half of 1967 and early 1968. Apollo 1's mission to check out the Apollo Command/Service Module in Earth orbit was accomplished by Grissom's backup crew commanded by Walter Schirra on Apollo 7, launched on October 11, 1968. The eleven-day mission was a total success, as the spacecraft performed a virtually flawless mission, paving the way for the United States to continue with its lunar mission schedule.
The Soyuz 3 began its mission to space on what date?
56e10477e3433e1400422ac4
October 26, 1968
128
False
When was the first successful docking of a two man space crew?
56e10477e3433e1400422ac5
January 1969
709
False
Which two space missions were the first to successfully dock each other?
56e10477e3433e1400422ac6
Soyuz 4 and Soyuz 5
729
False
The Soviet Union also fixed the parachute and control problems with Soyuz, and the next piloted mission Soyuz 3 was launched on October 26, 1968. The goal was to complete Komarov's rendezvous and docking mission with the un-piloted Soyuz 2. Ground controllers brought the two craft to within 200 meters (660 ft) of each other, then cosmonaut Georgy Beregovoy took control. He got within 40 meters (130 ft) of his target, but was unable to dock before expending 90 percent of his maneuvering fuel, due to a piloting error that put his spacecraft into the wrong orientation and forced Soyuz 2 to automatically turn away from his approaching craft. The first docking of Soviet spacecraft was finally realised in January 1969 by the Soyuz 4 and Soyuz 5 missions. It was the first-ever docking of two manned spacecraft, and the first transfer of crew from one space vehicle to another.
Where was the Zond 4 over when it was destroyed by an explosion?
56e104dfcd28a01900c67447
Gulf of Guinea
558
False
The Soviet Zond spacecraft was not yet ready for piloted circumlunar missions in 1968, after five unsuccessful and partially successful automated test launches: Cosmos 146 on March 10, 1967; Cosmos 154 on April 8, 1967; Zond 1967A September 27, 1967; Zond 1967B on November 22, 1967. Zond 4 was launched on March 2, 1968, and successfully made a circumlunar flight. After its successful flight around the Moon, Zond 4 encountered problems with its Earth reentry on March 9, and was ordered destroyed by an explosive charge 15,000 meters (49,000 ft) over the Gulf of Guinea. The Soviet official announcement said that Zond 4 was an automated test flight which ended with its intentional destruction, due to its recovery trajectory positioning it over the Atlantic Ocean instead of over the USSR.
The first successful water landing in the Indian Ocean by the Soviets was was when?
56e10565e3433e1400422ade
1968
21
False
What animal was carried aboard the  Zond 5?
56e10565e3433e1400422adf
tortoises
552
False
The first Lunar Module was delayed to what date?
56e10565e3433e1400422ae0
March 1969
283
False
During the summer of 1968, the Apollo program hit another snag: the first pilot-rated Lunar Module (LM) was not ready for orbital tests in time for a December 1968 launch. NASA planners overcame this challenge by changing the mission flight order, delaying the first LM flight until March 1969, and sending Apollo 8 into lunar orbit without the LM in December. This mission was in part motivated by intelligence rumors the Soviet Union might be ready for a piloted Zond flight during late 1968. In September 1968, Zond 5 made a circumlunar flight with tortoises on board and returned to Earth, accomplishing the first successful water landing of the Soviet space program in the Indian Ocean. It also scared NASA planners, as it took them several days to figure out that it was only an automated flight, not piloted, because voice recordings were transmitted from the craft en route to the Moon. On November 10, 1968 another automated test flight, Zond 6 was launched, but this time encountered difficulties in its Earth reentry, and depressurized and deployed its parachute too early, causing it to crash-land only 16 kilometers (9.9 mi) from where it had been launched six days earlier. It turned out there was no chance of a piloted Soviet circumlunar flight during 1968, due to the unreliability of the Zonds.
Which three people were the first to ride the Saturn V rocket into space?
56e1063ecd28a01900c67453
Frank Borman, James Lovell, and William Anders
22
False
What date did Frank Borman, James Lovell, and William Anders leave Earth on the Apollo 8 mission?
56e1063ecd28a01900c67454
December 21, 1968
3
False
During what holiday, was the Apollo 8 mission broadcast from orbit?
56e1063ecd28a01900c67456
Christmas Eve
386
False
Which ocean did the Apolo 8 mission land in?
56e1063ecd28a01900c67457
Pacific
676
False
On December 21, 1968, Frank Borman, James Lovell, and William Anders became the first humans to ride the Saturn V rocket into space on Apollo 8. They also became the first to leave low-Earth orbit and go to another celestial body, and entered lunar orbit on December 24. They made ten orbits in twenty hours, and transmitted one of the most watched TV broadcasts in history, with their Christmas Eve program from lunar orbit, that concluded with a reading from the biblical Book of Genesis. Two and a half hours after the broadcast, they fired their engine to perform the first trans-Earth injection to leave lunar orbit and return to the Earth. Apollo 8 safely landed in the Pacific ocean on December 27, in NASA's first dawn splashdown and recovery.
How close to the ground was the Lunar Module in May 1969 during its landing test?
56e1069ce3433e1400422aec
47,400 feet
262
False
The Lunar Module completed its first low Earth orbit on what date?
56e1069ce3433e1400422aed
March 1969
115
False
The American Lunar Module was finally ready for a successful piloted test flight in low Earth orbit on Apollo 9 in March 1969. The next mission, Apollo 10, conducted a "dress rehearsal" for the first landing in May 1969, flying the LM in lunar orbit as close as 47,400 feet (14.4 km) above the surface, the point where the powered descent to the surface would begin. With the LM proven to work well, the next step was to attempt the actual landing.
The Soviet, N1 Rocket exploded and was destroyed on what date?
56e106e0cd28a01900c6745d
July 3, 1969
224
False
Unknown to the Americans, the Soviet Moon program was in deep trouble. After two successive launch failures of the N1 rocket in 1969, Soviet plans for a piloted landing suffered delay. The launch pad explosion of the N-1 on July 3, 1969 was a significant setback. The rocket hit the pad after an engine shutdown, destroying itself and the launch facility. Without the N-1 rocket, the USSR could not send a large enough payload to the Moon to land a human and return him safely.
Apollo 11 mission was to land where on the Moon?
56e1077ecd28a01900c67469
Sea of Tranquility
62
False
When did the Apollo 11 mission launch?
56e1077ecd28a01900c6746b
July 16, 1969
330
False
What state did the Saturn V rocket launch from?
56e1077ecd28a01900c6746c
Florida
456
False
When was the crew chosen to participate on the Apollo 11 mission?
56e1077ecd28a01900c6746d
January 1969
104
False
Apollo 11 was prepared with the goal of a July landing in the Sea of Tranquility. The crew, selected in January 1969, consisted of commander (CDR) Neil Armstrong, Command Module Pilot (CMP) Michael Collins, and Lunar Module Pilot (LMP) Edwin "Buzz" Aldrin. They trained for the mission until just before the actual launch day. On July 16, 1969, at exactly 9:32 am EDT, the Saturn V rocket, AS-506, lifted off from Kennedy Space Center Launch Complex 39 in Florida.
How long did the trip to the Moon last for the crew of the Apollo 11?
56e107fecd28a01900c67473
three days
36
False
The Lunar Module of the Apollo 11 was named after what animal?
56e107fecd28a01900c67474
Eagle
133
False
Who was the first human to take a step on the Moon?
56e107fecd28a01900c67475
Armstrong
71
False
At what time on Earth did Armstrong first step onto the Moon?
56e107fecd28a01900c67476
9:56 pm CDT July 20
688
False
The trip to the Moon took just over three days. After achieving orbit, Armstrong and Aldrin transferred into the Lunar Module, named Eagle, and after a landing gear inspection by Collins remaining in the Command/Service Module Columbia, began their descent. After overcoming several computer overload alarms caused by an antenna switch left in the wrong position, and a slight downrange error, Armstrong took over manual flight control at about 180 meters (590 ft), and guided the Lunar Module to a safe landing spot at 20:18:04 UTC, July 20, 1969 (3:17:04 pm CDT). The first humans on the Moon would wait another six hours before they ventured out of their craft. At 02:56 UTC, July 21 (9:56 pm CDT July 20), Armstrong became the first human to set foot on the Moon.
How many people saw the first step onto the Moon?
56e10894e3433e1400422b04
723 million
88
False
When did they launch from the Moon to reattach to the Columbia?
56e10894e3433e1400422b07
The next day
379
False
The first step was witnessed by at least one-fifth of the population of Earth, or about 723 million people. His first words when he stepped off the LM's landing footpad were, "That's one small step for [a] man, one giant leap for mankind." Aldrin joined him on the surface almost 20 minutes later. Altogether, they spent just under two and one-quarter hours outside their craft. The next day, they performed the first launch from another celestial body, and rendezvoused back with Columbia.
When did the Apollo 11 mission land back on Earth?
56e108fce3433e1400422b14
July 24, 1969
89
False
Where did the Apollo 11 mission land back on Earth?
56e108fce3433e1400422b15
Pacific Ocean
72
False
Apollo 11 left lunar orbit and returned to Earth, landing safely in the Pacific Ocean on July 24, 1969. When the spacecraft splashed down, 2,982 days had passed since Kennedy's commitment to landing a man on the Moon and returning him safely to the Earth before the end of the decade; the mission was completed with 161 days to spare. With the safe completion of the Apollo 11 mission, the Americans won the race to the Moon.
When was the second landing on the Moon successful?
56e10a04cd28a01900c674a1
November 1969
77
False
When did the Apollo 14 mission land successfully?
56e10a04cd28a01900c674a2
February 1971
1195
False
Apollo 15 landed on the Moon on what date?
56e10a04cd28a01900c674a3
July 1971
1222
False
On what date was the Apollo 16 successful on landing on the Moon?
56e10a04cd28a01900c674a4
April 1972
1245
False
Apollo 17 landed on the Moon on which date?
56e10a04cd28a01900c674a5
December 1972
1273
False
The first landing was followed by another, precision landing on Apollo 12 in November 1969. NASA had achieved its first landing goal with enough Apollo spacecraft and Saturn V launchers left for eight follow-on lunar landings through Apollo 20, conducting extended-endurance missions and transporting the landing crews in Lunar Roving Vehicles on the last five. They also planned an Apollo Applications Program to develop a longer-duration Earth orbital workshop (later named Skylab) to be constructed in orbit from a spent S-IVB upper stage, using several launches of the smaller Saturn IB launch vehicle. But planners soon decided this could be done more efficiently by using the two live stages of a Saturn V to launch the workshop pre-fabricated from an S-IVB (which was also the Saturn V third stage), which immediately removed Apollo 20. Belt-tightening budget cuts soon led NASA to cut Apollo 18 and 19 as well, but keep three extended/Lunar Rover missions. Apollo 13 encountered an in-flight spacecraft failure and had to abort its lunar landing in April 1970, returning its crew safely but temporarily grounding the program again. It resumed with four successful landings on Apollo 14 (February 1971), Apollo 15 (July 1971), Apollo 16 (April 1972), and Apollo 17 (December 1972).
Which year did the USSR cancel the N1 rocket program after two failures that didn't launch?
56e10a3be3433e1400422b22
1976
97
False
Meanwhile, the USSR continued briefly trying to perfect their N1 rocket, finally canceling it in 1976, after two more launch failures in 1971 and 1972.
The USSR launched their first space station on what date?
56e10bf4cd28a01900c674c3
April 19, 1971
260
False
Who made up the crew of the Soyuz 11?
56e10bf4cd28a01900c674c4
Vladislav Volkov, Georgi Dobrovolski and Viktor Patsayev
438
False
Having lost the race to the Moon, the USSR decided to concentrate on orbital space stations. During 1969 and 1970, they launched six more Soyuz flights after Soyuz 3, then launched the first space station, the Salyut 1 laboratory designed by Kerim Kerimov, on April 19, 1971. Three days later, the Soyuz 10 crew attempted to dock with it, but failed to achieve a secure enough connection to safely enter the station. The Soyuz 11 crew of Vladislav Volkov, Georgi Dobrovolski and Viktor Patsayev successfully docked on June 7, and completed a record 22-day stay. The crew became the second in-flight space fatality during their reentry on June 30. They were asphyxiated when their spacecraft's cabin lost all pressure, shortly after undocking. The disaster was blamed on a faulty cabin pressure valve, that allowed all the air to vent into space. The crew was not wearing pressure suits and had no chance of survival once the leak occurred.
The station, Salyut 1, came back to Earth on which date?
56e10ff6e3433e1400422b70
October 11
213
False
How long did the station, Salyut 1, stay in orbit?
56e10ff6e3433e1400422b71
175 days
231
False
Why did The Durable Orbital Station-2 not reach orbit?
56e10ff6e3433e1400422b72
rocket failure
378
False
Salyut 1's orbit was increased to prevent premature reentry, but further piloted flights were delayed while the Soyuz was redesigned to fix the new safety problem. The station re-entered the Earth's atmosphere on October 11, after 175 days in orbit. The USSR attempted to launch a second Salyut-class station designated Durable Orbital Station-2 (DOS-2) on July 29, 1972, but a rocket failure caused it to fail to achieve orbit. After the DOS-2 failure, the USSR attempted to launch four more Salyut-class stations through 1975, with another failure due to an explosion of the final rocket stage, which punctured the station with shrapnel so that it wouldn't hold pressure. While all of the Salyuts were presented to the public as non-military scientific laboratories, some of them were actually covers for the military Almaz reconnaissance stations.
The Skylab 1 was launched on which date?
56e1108ce3433e1400422b7c
May 14, 1973
63
False
How much did the Skylab 1 weigh?
56e1108ce3433e1400422b7d
169,950 pounds
88
False
When did the Skylab 1 finally come back to Earth?
56e1108ce3433e1400422b7f
July 11, 1979
660
False
The United States launched the orbital workstation Skylab 1 on May 14, 1973. It weighed 169,950 pounds (77,090 kg), was 58 feet (18 m) long by 21.7 feet (6.6 m) in diameter, with a habitable volume of 10,000 cubic feet (280 m3). Skylab was damaged during the ascent to orbit, losing one of its solar panels and a meteoroid thermal shield. Subsequent manned missions repaired the station, and the final mission's crew, Skylab 4, set the Space Race endurance record with 84 days in orbit when the mission ended on February 8, 1974. Skylab stayed in orbit another five years before reentering the Earth's atmosphere over the Indian Ocean and Western Australia on July 11, 1979.
Which two world leaders had negotiations that relieved the Cold War?
56e11109cd28a01900c6753b
Richard M. Nixon and Soviet Premier Leonid Brezhnev
23
False
When did President Nixon and Brezhnev of the USSR end the Cold War?
56e11109cd28a01900c6753c
May 1972
3
False
In May 1972, President Richard M. Nixon and Soviet Premier Leonid Brezhnev negotiated an easing of relations known as detente, creating a temporary "thaw" in the Cold War. In the spirit of good sportsmanship, the time seemed right for cooperation rather than competition, and the notion of a continuing "race" began to subside.
ASTP stands for what?
56e11166cd28a01900c6753f
Apollo-Soyuz Test Project
100
False
Which Soyuz mission in December 1974 was to be used for the ASTP?
56e11166cd28a01900c67540
16
502
False
The two nations planned a joint mission to dock the last US Apollo craft with a Soyuz, known as the Apollo-Soyuz Test Project (ASTP). To prepare, the US designed a docking module for the Apollo that was compatible with the Soviet docking system, which allowed any of their craft to dock with any other (e.g. Soyuz/Soyuz as well as Soyuz/Salyut). The module was also necessary as an airlock to allow the men to visit each other's craft, which had incompatible cabin atmospheres. The USSR used the Soyuz 16 mission in December 1974 to prepare for ASTP.
Soyuz 19 took off from Earth on what date?
56e111cecd28a01900c67543
July 15, 1975
60
False
The joint mission began when Soyuz 19 was first launched on July 15, 1975 at 12:20 UTC, and the Apollo craft was launched with the docking module six and a half hours later. The two craft rendezvoused and docked on July 17 at 16:19 UTC. The three astronauts conducted joint experiments with the two cosmonauts, and the crew shook hands, exchanged gifts, and visited each other's craft.
What year did the USSR disband?
56e11222e3433e1400422b9a
1991
447
False
In the 1970s, the United States began developing a new generation of reusable orbital spacecraft known as the Space Shuttle, and launched a range of unmanned probes. The USSR continued to develop space station technology with the Salyut program and Mir ('Peace' or 'World', depending on the context) space station, supported by Soyuz spacecraft. They developed their own large space shuttle under the Buran program. However, the USSR dissolved in 1991 and the remains of its space program were distributed to various Eastern European countries. The United States and Russia would work together in space with the Shuttle–Mir Program, and again with the International Space Station.
Which Russian rocket carries passengers to and from the International Space Station?
56e11243e3433e1400422b9e
R-7 rocket
12
False
The Russian R-7 rocket family, which launched the first Sputnik at the beginning of the space race, is still in use today. It services the International Space Station (ISS) as the launcher for both the Soyuz and Progress spacecraft. It also ferries both Russian and American crews to and from the station.
The United States' National Defense Education Act was established in what year?
56e11280e3433e1400422ba0
1958
271
False
American concerns that they had fallen behind the Soviet Union in the race to space led quickly to a push by legislators and educators for greater emphasis on mathematics and the physical sciences in American schools. The United States' National Defense Education Act of 1958 increased funding for these goals from childhood education through the post-graduate level.
Web_browser
What do people typically call a web browser?
56e0c8ed7aa994140058e6e9
browser
6
False
What platform is a browser used on?
56e0c8ed7aa994140058e6ea
World Wide Web
148
False
What does URL mean?
56e0c8ed7aa994140058e6eb
Uniform Resource Identifier
207
False
What allows a person to direct their browser to a resource?
56e0c8ed7aa994140058e6ed
Hyperlinks
308
False
a software application for retrieving, presenting, and traversing information resources
53
What is the definition of the World Wide Web?
5a4d2cb47a6c4c001a2bbc0c
True
a Uniform Resource Identifier (URI/URL)
205
What helps identify the WWW?
5a4d2cb47a6c4c001a2bbc0d
True
a web page, image, video or other piece of content
256
What are examples of the WWW?
5a4d2cb47a6c4c001a2bbc0e
True
easily to navigate their browsers to related resources
353
What does content present in applications help users do?
5a4d2cb47a6c4c001a2bbc0f
True
Uniform Resource Identifier (URI/URL)
207
What is something that identifies how a video plays in a software application?
5a4d2cb47a6c4c001a2bbc10
True
A web browser (commonly referred to as a browser) is a software application for retrieving, presenting, and traversing information resources on the World Wide Web. An information resource is identified by a Uniform Resource Identifier (URI/URL) and may be a web page, image, video or other piece of content. Hyperlinks present in resources enable users easily to navigate their browsers to related resources.
The primary function of a browser is to use what?
56e0c956231d4119001ac391
the World Wide Web
48
False
In addition to accessing the Internet, browsers can also access info that is put there by web servers in what?
56e0c956231d4119001ac392
private networks
139
False
A browser can also access files where?
56e0c956231d4119001ac393
file systems
168
False
file systems
168
What can information access when used?
5a4d2f747a6c4c001a2bbc16
True
the World Wide Web
48
What are private networks primarily intended to use?
5a4d2f747a6c4c001a2bbc17
True
in private networks
136
Where are browsers located?
5a4d2f747a6c4c001a2bbc18
True
in file systems
165
Where is a browser so you are able to find it later?
5a4d2f747a6c4c001a2bbc19
True
the World Wide Web
48
The primary function of file systems is to use what?
5a4d2f747a6c4c001a2bbc1a
True
Although browsers are primarily intended to use the World Wide Web, they can also be used to access information provided by web servers in private networks or files in file systems.
When was the first browser created?
56e0c9b7231d4119001ac397
1990
38
False
Who invented the first browser?
56e0c9b7231d4119001ac398
Sir Tim Berners-Lee
46
False
What was Berners-Lee a director of?
56e0c9b7231d4119001ac399
the World Wide Web Consortium
98
False
What organization did Berners-Lee create?
56e0c9b7231d4119001ac39b
World Wide Web Foundation
214
False
1990
38
When did Sir Tim Berners Le invent the WWW?
5a4d305c7a6c4c001a2bbc20
True
Nexus
295
What was the W3C later renamed?
5a4d305c7a6c4c001a2bbc21
True
the Web's continued development
150
What does WordWideweb oversee?
5a4d305c7a6c4c001a2bbc22
True
the World Wide Web Foundation
210
What group did Nexus start?
5a4d305c7a6c4c001a2bbc23
True
The first web browser
0
What did Nexus invent in 1990?
5a4d305c7a6c4c001a2bbc24
True
The first web browser was invented in 1990 by Sir Tim Berners-Lee. Berners-Lee is the director of the World Wide Web Consortium (W3C), which oversees the Web's continued development, and is also the founder of the World Wide Web Foundation. His browser was called WorldWideWeb and later renamed Nexus.
Who released Mosaic?
56e0ca827aa994140058e6f3
Marc Andreessen
51
False
When was Mosaic released?
56e0ca827aa994140058e6f4
1993
3
False
When Andreessen left the company he worked for, what new company did he start?
56e0ca827aa994140058e6f5
Netscape
532
False
What browser did Andreessen release in 1994?
56e0ca827aa994140058e6f6
Netscape Navigator
577
False
Mosaic
87
What did the World Wide Web help release in the 1990's?
5a4d32477a6c4c001a2bbc2a
True
led to an explosion in web use
363
What did the release of Mosaic in 1994 by NCSA lead to?
5a4d32477a6c4c001a2bbc2b
True
Netscape
532
What company was started by Mosaic?
5a4d32477a6c4c001a2bbc2c
True
1994
599
When was the NCSA Navigator released by Mosaic?
5a4d32477a6c4c001a2bbc2d
True
90%
675
What percentage of web use did Mosaic have at its peak in 1993?
5a4d32477a6c4c001a2bbc2e
True
In 1993, browser software was further innovated by Marc Andreessen with the release of Mosaic, "the world's first popular browser", which made the World Wide Web system easy to use and more accessible to the average person. Andreesen's browser sparked the internet boom of the 1990s. The introduction of Mosaic in 1993 – one of the first graphical web browsers – led to an explosion in web use. Andreessen, the leader of the Mosaic team at National Center for Supercomputing Applications (NCSA), soon started his own company, named Netscape, and released the Mosaic-influenced Netscape Navigator in 1994, which quickly became the world's most popular browser, accounting for 90% of all web use at its peak (see usage share of web browsers).
Who released the Internet Explorer browser?
56e0cae4231d4119001ac3a1
Microsoft
0
False
When did Microsoft release Internet Explorer?
56e0cae4231d4119001ac3a2
1995
50
False
The release of Internet Explorer started the first what?
56e0cae4231d4119001ac3a3
browser war
123
False
What was bundled with Internet Explorer?
56e0cae4231d4119001ac3a4
Windows
149
False
1995
50
When did Microsoft release Mosaic?
5a4d33057a6c4c001a2bbc34
True
the industry's first browser war
102
What did Microsoft releasing Mosaic cause?
5a4d33057a6c4c001a2bbc35
True
Windows
149
What was Mosaic bundled with?
5a4d33057a6c4c001a2bbc36
True
dominance in the web browser market
183
What did Mosaic gain after it was released by Microsoft?
5a4d33057a6c4c001a2bbc37
True
over 95%
260
By what percentage was Mosaic being used in 1995?
5a4d33057a6c4c001a2bbc38
True
Microsoft responded with its Internet Explorer in 1995, also heavily influenced by Mosaic, initiating the industry's first browser war. Bundled with Windows, Internet Explorer gained dominance in the web browser market; Internet Explorer usage share peaked at over 95% by 2002.
Opera was introduced in what year?
56e0cb867aa994140058e6fd
1996
17
False
What accounted for 1.1% of browser use in April 2011?
56e0cb867aa994140058e6ff
Opera-mini version
156
False
Opera focused on which quickly growing market?
56e0cb867aa994140058e700
mobile phone web browser
286
False
Opera is also available on which video game console?
56e0cb867aa994140058e701
Nintendo's Wii
431
False
Opera
0
What program debuted in February 2012?
5a4d341a7a6c4c001a2bbc3e
True
in 1996
14
When was the Nintendo Wii introduced?
5a4d341a7a6c4c001a2bbc3f
True
the fast-growing mobile phone web browser market
269
What market did Nintendo focus on to expand its use?
5a4d341a7a6c4c001a2bbc40
True
it has never achieved widespread use
23
How has usage of the Nintendo Wii been shown over time?
5a4d341a7a6c4c001a2bbc41
True
over 40 million
341
How many game consoles has Nintendo sold?
5a4d341a7a6c4c001a2bbc42
True
Opera debuted in 1996; it has never achieved widespread use, having less than 2% browser usage share as of February 2012 according to Net Applications. Its Opera-mini version has an additive share, in April 2011 amounting to 1.1% of overall browser use, but focused on the fast-growing mobile phone web browser market, being preinstalled on over 40 million phones. It is also available on several other embedded systems, including Nintendo's Wii video game console.
What did Netscape launch in 1998?
56e0cbfe7aa994140058e707
Mozilla Foundation
50
False
Netscape wanted to have a competitive browser using what?
56e0cbfe7aa994140058e708
open source software model
126
False
What was the resulting browser for the Mozilla Foundation?
56e0cbfe7aa994140058e709
Firefox
196
False
When was Firefox released?
56e0cbfe7aa994140058e70a
late 2004
335
False
the Mozilla Foundation
46
What did Firefox launch in 1998?
5a4d35d47a6c4c001a2bbc48
True
28%
435
How much usage share did Netscape have in 1998?
5a4d35d47a6c4c001a2bbc49
True
while still in the beta stage of development
245
At what point did open source software gain popularity?
5a4d35d47a6c4c001a2bbc4a
True
Firefox 1.0
320
What software model was released in 1998?
5a4d35d47a6c4c001a2bbc4b
True
7%
383
What percentage of the open source model did Netscape have shortly after release?
5a4d35d47a6c4c001a2bbc4c
True
In 1998, Netscape launched what was to become the Mozilla Foundation in an attempt to produce a competitive browser using the open source software model. That browser would eventually evolve into Firefox, which developed a respectable following while still in the beta stage of development; shortly after the release of Firefox 1.0 in late 2004, Firefox (all versions) accounted for 7% of browser use. As of August 2011, Firefox has a 28% usage share.
When was the first beta release for Safari?
56e0cc407aa994140058e711
January 2003
45
False
Who created Safari?
56e0cc407aa994140058e712
Apple
0
False
January 2003
45
When was Apple founded?
5a4d37147a6c4c001a2bbc52
True
January 2003
45
When did web browsers become active?
5a4d37147a6c4c001a2bbc53
True
as of April 2011
59
When did the browser market become dominant in software?
5a4d37147a6c4c001a2bbc54
True
just over 7%
145
How much software was released by Safari in January 2003?
5a4d37147a6c4c001a2bbc55
True
January 2003
45
When did the entire browser market begin beta release of software?
5a4d37147a6c4c001a2bbc56
True
Apple's Safari had its first beta release in January 2003; as of April 2011, it had a dominant share of Apple-based web browsing, accounting for just over 7% of the entire browser market.
Which browser is the newest to enter the field?
56e0ccb3231d4119001ac3b5
Chrome
55
False
When was Chrome released?
56e0ccb3231d4119001ac3b6
September 2008
81
False
As Chrome usage increases, which browser usage has continued to decrease?
56e0ccb3231d4119001ac3b7
Internet Explorer
267
False
When did Chrome become more used than all versions of Internet Explorer?
56e0ccb3231d4119001ac3b8
May 2012
551
False
September 2008
81
In what year was Internet Explorer released?
5a4d38437a6c4c001a2bbc5c
True
from 8% to 16%
184
By how much did IE double its usage share?
5a4d38437a6c4c001a2bbc5d
True
December 2011
345
When did Internet Explorer 8 overtake Chrome as the more popular browser?
5a4d38437a6c4c001a2bbc5e
True
45%
678
What was IE's increase in usage percentage in August 2011?
5a4d38437a6c4c001a2bbc5f
True
in May 2012
548
When did the usage of IE surpass all versions of Chrome combined?
5a4d38437a6c4c001a2bbc60
True
The most recent major entrant to the browser market is Chrome, first released in September 2008. Chrome's take-up has increased significantly year by year, by doubling its usage share from 8% to 16% by August 2011. This increase seems largely to be at the expense of Internet Explorer, whose share has tended to decrease from month to month. In December 2011, Chrome overtook Internet Explorer 8 as the most widely used web browser but still had lower usage than all versions of Internet Explorer combined. Chrome's user-base continued to grow and in May 2012, Chrome's usage passed the usage of all versions of Internet Explorer combined. By April 2014, Chrome's usage had hit 45%.
What was bundled for free with the Windows OS?
56e0cdc37aa994140058e721
Internet Explorer
0
False
Internet Explorer was partially funded in what two ways?
56e0cdc37aa994140058e722
sales of Windows to computer manufacturers and direct to users
165
False
What other OS could use Internet Explorer?
56e0cdc37aa994140058e723
Mac
281
False
Internet Explorer
0
What program was bundled free with Java?
5a4d39a27a6c4c001a2bbc66
True
the sales of Windows to computer manufacturers and direct to users
161
What helped to partly fund Java?
5a4d39a27a6c4c001a2bbc67
True
the Mac
277
For what OS was Java formerly available for?
5a4d39a27a6c4c001a2bbc68
True
was part of Microsoft's overall strategy to fight threats to its quasi-monopoly platform dominance
329
Why was Java available for the Mac?
5a4d39a27a6c4c001a2bbc69
True
through "lock-in" to Microsoft's browser
717
In what other way did Java contribute to Windows and Microsoft application sales?
5a4d39a27a6c4c001a2bbc6a
True
Internet Explorer, on the other hand, was bundled free with the Windows operating system (and was also downloadable free), and therefore it was funded partly by the sales of Windows to computer manufacturers and direct to users. Internet Explorer also used to be available for the Mac. It is likely that releasing IE for the Mac was part of Microsoft's overall strategy to fight threats to its quasi-monopoly platform dominance - threats such as web standards and Java - by making some web developers, or at least their managers, assume that there was "no need" to develop for anything other than Internet Explorer. In this respect, IE may have contributed to Windows and Microsoft applications sales in another way, through "lock-in" to Microsoft's browser.
Who investigated the bundling of the IE browser with Windows OS?
56e0ced77aa994140058e72b
the European Commission
17
False
When did the European Commission say they would investigate the bundling?
56e0ced77aa994140058e72c
January 2009
3
False
The Commission felt that bundling the browser with Windows computers harmed what?
56e0ced77aa994140058e72d
competition between web browsers
238
False
The Commission felt that the bundling undermined what?
56e0ced77aa994140058e72e
product innovation
283
False
the bundling of Internet Explorer with Windows operating systems
72
What would Microsoft investigate in January 2009?
5a4d3a917a6c4c001a2bbc70
True
In January 2009
0
In what year was Microsoft investigating the European Commission?
5a4d3a917a6c4c001a2bbc71
True
product innovation
283
What did the Commission undermine according to Microsoft?
5a4d3a917a6c4c001a2bbc72
True
consumer choice
325
What was reduced by the Commission according to Microsoft?
5a4d3a917a6c4c001a2bbc73
True
competition between web browsers
238
What action is harmed by the Commision according to Microsoft?
5a4d3a917a6c4c001a2bbc74
True
In January 2009, the European Commission announced it would investigate the bundling of Internet Explorer with Windows operating systems from Microsoft, saying "Microsoft's tying of Internet Explorer to the Windows operating system harms competition between web browsers, undermines product innovation and ultimately reduces consumer choice." Microsoft Corp v Commission
What browser was automatically included with OS X?
56e0cf39231d4119001ac3cf
Safari
0
False
OS X and iOS
60
What are mobile devices included with?
5a4d3d877a6c4c001a2bbc7a
True
Safari and Mobile Safari
0
What were sales of Apple computers funded by?
5a4d3d877a6c4c001a2bbc7b
True
sales of Apple computers and mobile devices
133
What was Apple originally funded by?
5a4d3d877a6c4c001a2bbc7c
True
sales of Apple computers and mobile devices
133
What did Apple customers provide to Apple?
5a4d3d877a6c4c001a2bbc7d
True
part of the overall Apple experience to customers
189
What do the OS X and i OS provide?
5a4d3d877a6c4c001a2bbc7e
True
Safari and Mobile Safari were likewise always included with OS X and iOS respectively, so, similarly, they were originally funded by sales of Apple computers and mobile devices, and formed part of the overall Apple experience to customers.
Which company pays Firefox to make their search engine the default on their browser?
56e0cfce7aa994140058e735
Google
153
False
What other browser has Google as the default search engine?
56e0cfce7aa994140058e737
Chrome
442
False
The increased revenue funds what, in addition to Google?
56e0cfce7aa994140058e739
Google Chrome
435
False
to make their engine default
72
Why do web browsers pay search engine companies?
5a4d40ce7a6c4c001a2bbc84
True
to make Google Search the default search engine
196
Why does Mozilla pay Google?
5a4d40ce7a6c4c001a2bbc85
True
enough money from this deal
270
What lets Google not charge users for using Chrome?
5a4d40ce7a6c4c001a2bbc86
True
Users searching for websites or items on the Internet would be led to Google's search results page
450
What increases ad revenue for Firefox?
5a4d40ce7a6c4c001a2bbc87
True
increasing ad revenue
550
What funds development at Mozilla?
5a4d40ce7a6c4c001a2bbc88
True
Today, most commercial web browsers are paid by search engine companies to make their engine default, or to include them as another option. For example, Google pays Mozilla, the maker of Firefox, to make Google Search the default search engine in Firefox. Mozilla makes enough money from this deal that it does not need to charge users for Firefox. In addition, Google Search is also (as one would expect) the default search engine in Google Chrome. Users searching for websites or items on the Internet would be led to Google's search results page, increasing ad revenue and which funds development at Google and of Google Chrome.
What is the main use of a browser?
56e0d09f7aa994140058e73f
to bring information resources to the user
40
False
to bring information resources to the user
40
What is the primary purpose of a computer having access?
5a4d43c77a6c4c001a2bbc8e
True
bring information resources to the user
43
How does display rendering function?
5a4d43c77a6c4c001a2bbc8f
True
"retrieval" or "fetching"
84
How does an OS access other information?
5a4d43c77a6c4c001a2bbc90
True
"display", "rendering"
151
What lets an OS see information?
5a4d43c77a6c4c001a2bbc91
True
"navigation"
211
What lets an OS find other information?
5a4d43c77a6c4c001a2bbc92
True
The primary purpose of a web browser is to bring information resources to the user ("retrieval" or "fetching"), allowing them to view the information ("display", "rendering"), and then access other information ("navigation", "following links").
What does URL stand for?
56e0d133231d4119001ac3dc
Uniform Resource Locator
43
False
What is the determining factor in how a URL will be interpreted?
56e0d133231d4119001ac3dd
The prefix of the URL
131
False
What does http stand for?
56e0d133231d4119001ac3de
Hypertext Transfer Protocol
342
False
What does ftp stand for?
56e0d133231d4119001ac3df
File Transfer Protocol
473
False
A news: prefix is given to the user's what?
56e0d133231d4119001ac3e0
default newsgroup reader
758
False
how the URL will be interpreted
205
What does the prefix of the default newsgroup reader determine?
5a4d45dd7a6c4c001a2bbc98
True
http:
285
What does the most common form of local file start with?
5a4d45dd7a6c4c001a2bbc99
True
a resource to be retrieved over the Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP)
306
What does a common browser identify?
5a4d45dd7a6c4c001a2bbc9a
True
often handed off to another application entirely
581
What happens to newsgroup readers the web browser can't handle directly?
5a4d45dd7a6c4c001a2bbc9b
True
the user's default e-mail application
679
Where are ftp's passed on to?
5a4d45dd7a6c4c001a2bbc9c
True
This process begins when the user inputs a Uniform Resource Locator (URL), for example http://en.wikipedia.org/, into the browser. The prefix of the URL, the Uniform Resource Identifier or URI, determines how the URL will be interpreted. The most commonly used kind of URI starts with http: and identifies a resource to be retrieved over the Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP). Many browsers also support a variety of other prefixes, such as https: for HTTPS, ftp: for the File Transfer Protocol, and file: for local files. Prefixes that the web browser cannot directly handle are often handed off to another application entirely. For example, mailto: URIs are usually passed to the user's default e-mail application, and news: URIs are passed to the user's default newsgroup reader.
What is it called when content is changed from markup to an interactive document?
56e0d21b7aa994140058e74f
rendering
319
False
Browsers typically have plug-ins to support what?
56e0d21b7aa994140058e750
Flash applications and Java applets
533
False
Flash applications and Java applets
533
Browsers have you save to disk so they can support what?
5a4d48dd7a6c4c001a2bbca2
True
"rendering"
318
What is it called when resources are changed from being unsupported to being downloaded?
5a4d48dd7a6c4c001a2bbca3
True
http, https, file, and others
15
What files can be displayed when a file is unsupported?
5a4d48dd7a6c4c001a2bbca4
True
any kind
383
What unsupported content can resources display that is part of a webpage?
5a4d48dd7a6c4c001a2bbca5
True
passed to the browser's layout engine to be transformed from markup to an interactive document
203
What process happens to plug-ins saved to disk?
5a4d48dd7a6c4c001a2bbca6
True
In the case of http, https, file, and others, once the resource has been retrieved the web browser will display it. HTML and associated content (image files, formatting information such as CSS, etc.) is passed to the browser's layout engine to be transformed from markup to an interactive document, a process known as "rendering". Aside from HTML, web browsers can generally display any kind of content that can be part of a web page. Most browsers can display images, audio, video, and XML files, and often have plug-ins to support Flash applications and Java applets. Upon encountering a file of an unsupported type or a file that is set up to be downloaded rather than displayed, the browser prompts the user to save the file to disk.
What can resources have to connect to other resources?
56e0d2b2231d4119001ac3f0
hyperlinks
34
False
the browser navigates to the resource indicated by the link's target URI
152
How does a user read URI?
5a4d4d807a6c4c001a2bbcac
True
bringing content to the user
245
Why does a computer create hyperlinks?
5a4d4d807a6c4c001a2bbcad
True
the browser navigates to the resource indicated by the link's target URI
152
What happens when a hyperlink is created?
5a4d4d807a6c4c001a2bbcae
True
the browser navigates to the resource indicated by the link's target URI
152
What makes a computer take longer to find information?
5a4d4d807a6c4c001a2bbcaf
True
the process of bringing content to the user begins again
230
What happens when a user can't find information?
5a4d4d807a6c4c001a2bbcb0
True
Information resources may contain hyperlinks to other information resources. Each link contains the URI of a resource to go to. When a link is clicked, the browser navigates to the resource indicated by the link's target URI, and the process of bringing content to the user begins again.
Features on a browser can range from minimal with little support to what?
56e0d358231d4119001ac3f6
rich user interfaces
118
False
When a browser includes a lot of extras, it can be referred to as what?
56e0d358231d4119001ac3f7
Internet suites
334
False
What does IRC stand for?
56e0d358231d4119001ac3f8
Internet Relay Chat
277
False
minimal, text-based user interfaces with bare-bones support for HTML
46
What are some features that IRC has?
5a4d4f407a6c4c001a2bbcb6
True
"Internet suites"
333
What are IRC's sometimes referred to as?
5a4d4f407a6c4c001a2bbcb7
True
rich user interfaces supporting a wide variety of file formats and protocols
118
What are some features of HTML?
5a4d4f407a6c4c001a2bbcb8
True
e-mail, Usenet news
252
What are some extra features included in IRC?
5a4d4f407a6c4c001a2bbcb9
True
a wide variety of file formats and protocols
150
What does e-mail also support?
5a4d4f407a6c4c001a2bbcba
True
Available web browsers range in features from minimal, text-based user interfaces with bare-bones support for HTML to rich user interfaces supporting a wide variety of file formats and protocols. Browsers which include additional components to support e-mail, Usenet news, and Internet Relay Chat (IRC), are sometimes referred to as "Internet suites" rather than merely "web browsers".
What does not allow windows to pop up without consent?
56e0d3c97aa994140058e760
pop-up blockers
200
False
the user to open multiple information resources at the same time
29
What do all pop-up blockers allow in a window?
5a4d522e755ab9001a10f3b7
True
multiple information resources
46
What can be open without the user's consent in a window?
5a4d522e755ab9001a10f3b8
True
in different tabs of the same window
134
Where do unwanted windows open in a browser?
5a4d522e755ab9001a10f3b9
True
either in different browser windows or in different tabs of the same window
95
Where do browsers allow pop-ups to open?
5a4d522e755ab9001a10f3ba
True
unwanted windows
227
What do information resources allow to pop-up in a window?
5a4d522e755ab9001a10f3bb
True
All major web browsers allow the user to open multiple information resources at the same time, either in different browser windows or in different tabs of the same window. Major browsers also include pop-up blockers to prevent unwanted windows from "popping up" without the user's consent.
A computer program that continues the functionality of a browser is called what?
56e0d451231d4119001ac404
browser extension
2
False
A browser extension
0
What extends development of computer functionality?
5a4d7cd3755ab9001a10f405
True
extends the functionality of a web browser
47
Why does a computer create a browser extension?
5a4d7cd3755ab9001a10f406
True
the development of browser extensions
124
What does making a computer program support?
5a4d7cd3755ab9001a10f407
True
the development of browser extensions
124
What does every computer program support?
5a4d7cd3755ab9001a10f408
True
extends the functionality of a web browser
47
What happens when a computer program is created?
5a4d7cd3755ab9001a10f409
True
A browser extension is a computer program that extends the functionality of a web browser. Every major web browser supports the development of browser extensions.
A list of websites a user can click to get back to easy have been what by the user?
56e0d4e1231d4119001ac408
bookmarked
68
False
What are "bookmarks" called in Internet Explorer?
56e0d4e1231d4119001ac409
Favorites
151
False
The top browsers have a built-in what?
56e0d4e1231d4119001ac40a
feed aggregator
251
False
Firefox does web feeds as what?
56e0d4e1231d4119001ac40b
live bookmarks
308
False
The Opera feed reader is more what?
56e0d4e1231d4119001ac40c
traditional
424
False
"Favorites"
150
What are live bookmarks called in Opera?
5a4d552d755ab9001a10f3c1
True
some form of built-in web feed aggregator
225
What is built in to all bookmarks?
5a4d552d755ab9001a10f3c2
True
like a folder of bookmarks corresponding to recent entries in the feed
335
How do bookmarks behave in IE?
5a4d552d755ab9001a10f3c3
True
"live bookmarks"
307
How are feed aggregators formatted as in Opera?
5a4d552d755ab9001a10f3c4
True
a more traditional feed reader is included
417
What kind of web pages are included in IE?
5a4d552d755ab9001a10f3c5
True
Most web browsers can display a list of web pages that the user has bookmarked so that the user can quickly return to them. Bookmarks are also called "Favorites" in Internet Explorer. In addition, all major web browsers have some form of built-in web feed aggregator. In Firefox, web feeds are formatted as "live bookmarks" and behave like a folder of bookmarks corresponding to recent entries in the feed. In Opera, a more traditional feed reader is included which stores and displays the contents of the feed.
HTTP Secure is supported by what?
56e0d5117aa994140058e763
Most browsers
0
False
Cache, download history, cookies, browsing and what else can be quickly deleted in browsers?
56e0d5117aa994140058e764
form and search history
107
False
A comparison of browser must be seen to know what?
56e0d5117aa994140058e765
current security vulnerabilities
187
False
HTTP Secure
22
What do most cookies support?
5a4d569d755ab9001a10f3cb
True
current security vulnerabilities
187
What does comparing browsing history show about your computer?
5a4d569d755ab9001a10f3cc
True
delete the web cache, download history, form and search history, cookies, and browsing history
67
What does comparison of web browsers offer you to do quickly?
5a4d569d755ab9001a10f3cd
True
see comparison of web browsers
233
How do you know if your web cache is secure?
5a4d569d755ab9001a10f3ce
True
HTTP Secure
22
What do most web browser comparisons support?
5a4d569d755ab9001a10f3cf
True
Most browsers support HTTP Secure and offer quick and easy ways to delete the web cache, download history, form and search history, cookies, and browsing history. For a comparison of the current security vulnerabilities of browsers, see comparison of web browsers.
Quick development of what kind of browsers led to non-standard HTML dialects?
56e0d561231d4119001ac413
proprietary web browsers
90
False
Non-standard dialects led to what?
56e0d561231d4119001ac414
problems with interoperability
183
False
Modern browser support standards-based and defacto what?
56e0d561231d4119001ac415
HTML and XHTML
289
False
HTML and XHTML should be what by all browsers?
56e0d561231d4119001ac416
rendered in the same way
321
False
a very simple version of HTML
34
What did early XHTML support?
5a4d7b69755ab9001a10f3fb
True
the development of non-standard dialects of HTML
122
What did the rapid development of modern web browsers lead to?
5a4d7b69755ab9001a10f3fc
True
problems with interoperability
183
What problems arose after the development of modern web browsers?
5a4d7b69755ab9001a10f3fd
True
rendered in the same way
321
How should non-standard dialects be treated by all browsers?
5a4d7b69755ab9001a10f3fe
True
a combination of standards-based and de facto HTML and XHTML
243
What are two things that a simple HTML version supports?
5a4d7b69755ab9001a10f3ff
True
Early web browsers supported only a very simple version of HTML. The rapid development of proprietary web browsers led to the development of non-standard dialects of HTML, leading to problems with interoperability. Modern web browsers support a combination of standards-based and de facto HTML and XHTML, which should be rendered in the same way by all browsers.
A user interface, UI backend, layout engine and other things are part of what?
56e0d5d6231d4119001ac41c
Web browsers
0
False
The layout engine, rendering engine, user interface and other things are components that offer different what of web browsers?
56e0d5d6231d4119001ac41d
functionalities
199
False
user interface, layout engine
26
What are two things that make up a UI backend?
5a4d7eb1755ab9001a10f40f
True
different functionalities of a web browser
189
What does a JavaScript interpreter achieve in a layout engine?
5a4d7eb1755ab9001a10f410
True
all capabilities of a web browser
253
What do a rendering engine and a user interface create when only used with each other?
5a4d7eb1755ab9001a10f411
True
a user interface, layout engine, rendering engine, JavaScript interpreter, UI backend, networking component
24
What parts of a layout engine make up a data persistence component?
5a4d7eb1755ab9001a10f412
True
different functionalities
189
What does a user interface achieve when part of a UI backend?
5a4d7eb1755ab9001a10f413
True
Web browsers consist of a user interface, layout engine, rendering engine, JavaScript interpreter, UI backend, networking component and data persistence component. These components achieve different functionalities of a web browser and together provide all capabilities of a web browser.
BeiDou_Navigation_Satellite_System
What is the BeiDou Navigation Satellite System?
56e0ebae7aa994140058e7cb
a Chinese satellite navigation system
148
False
How many satellite constellations does the BeiDou Navigation Satellite System have?
56e0ebae7aa994140058e7cc
two separate satellite constellations
202
False
What are the two satellite constellations?
56e0ebae7aa994140058e7cd
a limited test system that has been operating since 2000, and a full-scale global navigation system
242
False
How long has the limited test system been operating?
56e0ebae7aa994140058e7ce
since 2000
288
False
How is the BeiDou Navigation Satellite System written in traditional Chinese?
56e0ebae7aa994140058e7cf
北斗衛星導航系統
96
False
Chinese satellite navigation system
150
What is the Limited Navigation Satellite System?
5acd2f4507355d001abf3836
True
satellite constellations
215
The BeiDou Navigation Satellite System consists of 3 separate what?
5acd2f4507355d001abf3837
True
limited test system
244
What type of system has been operating since 2010?
5acd2f4507355d001abf3838
True
a full-scale global navigation system
304
Which system is no longer under construction?
5acd2f4507355d001abf3839
True
The BeiDou Navigation Satellite System (BDS, simplified Chinese: 北斗卫星导航系统; traditional Chinese: 北斗衛星導航系統; pinyin: Běidǒu wèixīng dǎoháng xìtǒng) is a Chinese satellite navigation system. It consists of two separate satellite constellations – a limited test system that has been operating since 2000, and a full-scale global navigation system that is currently under construction.
What was the first BeiDou system called?
56e0ec76231d4119001ac44e
the BeiDou Satellite Navigation Experimental System
43
False
Who does the BeiDou-1 operate for?
56e0ec76231d4119001ac44f
mainly for customers in China and neighboring regions
352
False
What is another name for the BeiDou Satellite Navigation Experimental System?
56e0ec76231d4119001ac450
BeiDou-1
225
False
How many satellites does the BeiDou-1 have?
56e0ec76231d4119001ac451
three
247
False
How long has the BeiDou-1 been operating?
56e0ec76231d4119001ac452
since 2000
407
False
BeiDou
10
Which system has been offering services to customers in China since 1997?
5acd303507355d001abf3870
True
the BeiDou Satellite Navigation Experimental System
43
What system is also known as BeiDou-2?
5acd303507355d001abf3871
True
limited coverage and applications.
275
BeiDou-1 consists of 7 satellites and offers what?
5acd303507355d001abf3872
True
BeiDou-1
225
What system offers services to customers in and around Peru?
5acd303507355d001abf3873
True
The first BeiDou system, officially called the BeiDou Satellite Navigation Experimental System (simplified Chinese: 北斗卫星导航试验系统; traditional Chinese: 北斗衛星導航試驗系統; pinyin: Běidǒu wèixīng dǎoháng shìyàn xìtǒng) and also known as BeiDou-1, consists of three satellites and offers limited coverage and applications. It has been offering navigation services, mainly for customers in China and neighboring regions, since 2000.
What is the name of the second generation of BDS?
56e0f1b0231d4119001ac48a
BeiDou Navigation Satellite System
59
False
What is another name for the BeiDou Navigation Satellite System?
56e0f1b0231d4119001ac48b
COMPASS or BeiDou-2
118
False
How many satellites will the BeiDou-2 have?
56e0f1b0231d4119001ac48c
35
198
False
When did the BeiDou-2 begin construction?
56e0f1b0231d4119001ac48d
January 2015
245
False
When did the BeiDou-2 begin operating?
56e0f1b0231d4119001ac48e
December 2011
301
False
BeiDou Navigation Satellite System
59
Which system is under construction until May 2017?
5acd30f207355d001abf389a
True
BeiDou Navigation Satellite System
59
Which system is also known as COMPANION or BeiDou-23?
5acd30f207355d001abf389b
True
BeiDou Navigation Satellite System
59
Which system has been operating in China since December 2012?
5acd30f207355d001abf389c
True
10
321
BeiDou-1 has how many satellites in use?
5acd30f207355d001abf389d
True
2012
423
BeiDou-2 began offering services to customers in South America in what year?
5acd30f207355d001abf389e
True
The second generation of the system, officially called the BeiDou Navigation Satellite System (BDS) and also known as COMPASS or BeiDou-2, will be a global satellite navigation system consisting of 35 satellites, and is under construction as of January 2015[update]. It became operational in China in December 2011, with 10 satellites in use, and began offering services to customers in the Asia-Pacific region in December 2012. It is planned to begin serving global customers upon its completion in 2020.
When did China begin constructing the third BeiDou system?
56e0f2db231d4119001ac4c0
mid 2015
3
False
What is the third BeiDou system called?
56e0f2db231d4119001ac4c1
BDS-3
79
False
When was the first BDS-3 satellite launched?
56e0f2db231d4119001ac4c2
30 September 2015
163
False
How many BDS-3 satellites have been launched?
56e0f2db231d4119001ac4c3
4
200
False
BDS-3
79
Which system did China start building in March of 2017?
5acd32be07355d001abf38f0
True
BDS-3 satellite
134
Which satellite was first launched on September 27th, 2015?
5acd32be07355d001abf38f1
True
March
188
As of which month during 2016 were there 17 BDS-3 satellites in orbit?
5acd32be07355d001abf38f2
True
mid 2015
3
When did Africa begin constructing the third BeiDou system?
5acd32be07355d001abf38f3
True
4
200
How many BDS-20 satellites have been launched?
5acd32be07355d001abf38f4
True
In-mid 2015, China started the build-up of the third generation BeiDou system (BDS-3) in the global coverage constellation. The first BDS-3 satellite was launched 30 September 2015. As of March 2016, 4 BDS-3 in-orbit validation satellites have been launched.
How long ago was the BeiDou Satellite System first launched?
56e0fb457aa994140058e863
Fifteen years
26
False
How much revenue for companies is generated by the BDS system?
56e0fb457aa994140058e864
$31.5 billion
102
False
What are some companies that profit from the BDS system?
56e0fb457aa994140058e865
China Aerospace Science and Industry Corp, AutoNavi Holdings Ltd, and China North Industries Group Corp.
144
False
Fifteen years
26
How long ago was the BlueDynamite Satellite System first launched?
5acd331d07355d001abf3920
True
$31.5 billion
102
How much revenue for companies is generated by the ABC system?
5acd331d07355d001abf3921
True
China Aerospace Science and Industry Corp, AutoNavi Holdings Ltd, and China North Industries Group Corp.
144
What are some companies that experience losses from the BDS system?
5acd331d07355d001abf3922
True
$31.5 billion
102
17 years after it's launch, how much does the satellite system generate in profit?
5acd331d07355d001abf3923
True
According to China daily. Fifteen years after the satellite system was launched, it is now generating $31.5 billion for major companies such as China Aerospace Science and Industry Corp, AutoNavi Holdings Ltd, and China North Industries Group Corp.
What is the BeiDou Navigation Satellite System named after?
56e0fca4231d4119001ac53e
the Big Dipper constellation
97
False
What is the Big Dipper constellation known as in Chinese?
56e0fca4231d4119001ac53f
Běidǒu
156
False
What does Běidǒu translate as?
56e0fca4231d4119001ac540
Northern Dipper
190
False
Who named the constellation Běidǒu?
56e0fca4231d4119001ac541
ancient Chinese astronomers
226
False
What was the Běidǒu constellation used for?
56e0fca4231d4119001ac542
to locate the North Star Polaris
371
False
BeiDou Navigation Satellite System
43
Which Satellite System is named after the Little Dipper?
5acd33c007355d001abf3932
True
Běidǒu
156
What is the Big Dipper constellation known as in Japanese?
5acd33c007355d001abf3933
True
Northern Dipper
190
What does Yuèliàng translate as?
5acd33c007355d001abf3934
True
to locate the North Star Polaris
371
What was the Little Dipper constellation used for?
5acd33c007355d001abf3935
True
Běidǒu
156
Ancient anthropologists named the constellation what?
5acd33c007355d001abf3936
True
The official English name of the system is BeiDou Navigation Satellite System. It is named after the Big Dipper constellation, which is known in Chinese as Běidǒu. The name literally means "Northern Dipper", the name given by ancient Chinese astronomers to the seven brightest stars of the Ursa Major constellation. Historically, this set of stars was used in navigation to locate the North Star Polaris. As such, the name BeiDou also serves as a metaphor for the purpose of the satellite navigation system.
Who first came up with the idea for a Chinese satellite navigation system?
56e0fd33231d4119001ac54c
Chen Fangyun and his colleagues
76
False
When did Chen Fangyun come up with the idea for a satellite navigation system?
56e0fd33231d4119001ac54d
in the 1980s
108
False
The China National Space Administration said the satellite navigation system would be developed in how many steps?
56e0fd33231d4119001ac54e
three
230
False
Chen Fangyun and his colleagues
76
Who first came up with the idea for a Japanese satellite navigation system?
5acd345807355d001abf3946
True
1980s
115
When did Chen Fangyun come up with the idea for an ocean navigation system?
5acd345807355d001abf3947
True
three
230
The American National Space Administration said the satellite navigation system would be developed in how many steps?
5acd345807355d001abf3948
True
satellite navigation system
31
What idea did Chen Fangyun come up with in 1924?
5acd345807355d001abf3949
True
China National Space Administration
139
Who said the system would be developed in four total steps?
5acd345807355d001abf394a
True
The original idea of a Chinese satellite navigation system was conceived by Chen Fangyun and his colleagues in the 1980s. According to the China National Space Administration, the development of the system would be carried out in three steps:
What was the name of the first satellite launched for the system?
56e0fdc8231d4119001ac558
BeiDou-1A
21
False
When was BeiDou-1A launched?
56e0fdc8231d4119001ac559
20 December 2000
90
False
What was the name of the third satellite launched for the system?
56e0fdc8231d4119001ac55a
BeiDou-1C
129
False
What was the purpose of launching the BeiDou-1C satellite?
56e0fdc8231d4119001ac55b
a backup satellite
140
False
When was the BeiDou-1C satellite launched?
56e0fdc8231d4119001ac55c
25 May 2003
183
False
BeiDou-1A
21
What was the name of the eighth satellite launched for the system?
5acd353307355d001abf3950
True
30 October 2000
48
When was BeiDou-1D launched?
5acd353307355d001abf3951
True
BeiDou-1C
129
What was the name of the third submarine launched for the system?
5acd353307355d001abf3952
True
25 May 2003
183
When was the BeiDou-1C rocket launched?
5acd353307355d001abf3953
True
30 October 2000
48
The unsuccessful launch of BeiDou-1E happened when?
5acd353307355d001abf3954
True
The first satellite, BeiDou-1A, was launched on 30 October 2000, followed by BeiDou-1B on 20 December 2000. The third satellite, BeiDou-1C (a backup satellite), was put into orbit on 25 May 2003. The successful launch of BeiDou-1C also meant the establishment of the BeiDou-1 navigation system.
When did China announce service plans for the BeiDou system?
56e10245e3433e1400422a96
2 November 2006
3
False
What was the accuracy range that China promised to offer in 2008 with the BeiDou system?
56e10245e3433e1400422a97
10 meters
106
False
What was the timing and speed that China promised to offer in 2008 with the BeiDou system?
56e10245e3433e1400422a98
timing of 0.2 microseconds, and speed of 0.2 meters/second
117
False
10 meters
106
China would offer a closed service with an accuracy of what?
5acd35ea07355d001abf3964
True
open service with an accuracy of 10 meters, timing of 0.2 microseconds, and speed of 0.2 meters/second
73
Japan announced what on November 2nd, 2006?
5acd35ea07355d001abf3965
True
0.2 microseconds
127
Japan promised a timing speed of what with its open service?
5acd35ea07355d001abf3966
True
0.2 meters/second.
158
Japan promised a speed of what with its open service?
5acd35ea07355d001abf3967
True
open service with an accuracy of 10 meters, timing of 0.2 microseconds, and speed of 0.2 meters/second
73
China announced what on November 22nd, 2006?
5acd35ea07355d001abf3968
True
On 2 November 2006, China announced that from 2008 BeiDou would offer an open service with an accuracy of 10 meters, timing of 0.2 microseconds, and speed of 0.2 meters/second.[citation needed]
When was the fourth satellite for the BeiDou-1 system launched?
56e1030ae3433e1400422a9c
February 2007
3
False
What is the name of the fourth BeiDou-1 satellite?
56e1030ae3433e1400422a9d
BeiDou-1D
72
False
What is the BeiDou-1D satellite sometimes called?
56e1030ae3433e1400422a9e
BeiDou-2A
100
False
What is the purpose of the BeiDou-1D satellite?
56e1030ae3433e1400422a9f
serving as a backup satellite
111
False
What happened to the BeiDou-1D satellite that needed to be repaired?
56e1030ae3433e1400422aa0
a control system malfunction
220
False
February
3
In which month of 2007 was the fifth satellite for the BeiDou-1 system launched?
5acd36d207355d001abf396e
True
BeiDou-1D
72
What is the official name of the fifth BeiDou-2 satellite?
5acd36d207355d001abf396f
True
BeiDou-1D
72
Which satellite serves as a front-end satellite?
5acd36d207355d001abf3970
True
BeiDou-1D
72
Which satellite is sometimes called BeiDou-2C?
5acd36d207355d001abf3971
True
control system
222
According to reports, the satellite had issues with what system and was never fully restored?
5acd36d207355d001abf3972
True
In February 2007, the fourth and last satellite of the BeiDou-1 system, BeiDou-1D (sometimes called BeiDou-2A, serving as a backup satellite), was sent up into space. It was reported that the satellite had suffered from a control system malfunction but was then fully restored.
When was the first satellite for the BeiDou-2 system launched?
56e103f6e3433e1400422ab0
April 2007
3
False
What is the the first satellite for the BeiDou-2 system called?
56e103f6e3433e1400422ab1
Compass-M1
55
False
When was the second satellite for the BeiDou-2 system launched?
56e103f6e3433e1400422ab3
15 April 2009
239
False
When was the third satellite for the BeiDou-2 system launched?
56e103f6e3433e1400422ab4
17 January 2010
452
False
April
3
BeiDou-X was put into orbit during which month of 2007?
5acd3a1e07355d001abf3990
True
August
655
BeiDou-z was put into orbit during which month of 2007?
5acd3a1e07355d001abf3991
True
April
242
BeiDou-Y33 was put into orbit during which month of 2007?
5acd3a1e07355d001abf3992
True
January
455
BeiJang-X was put into orbit during which month of 2007?
5acd3a1e07355d001abf3993
True
November
693
SweiDou-X was put into orbit during which month of 2007?
5acd3a1e07355d001abf3994
True
In April 2007, the first satellite of BeiDou-2, namely Compass-M1 (to validate frequencies for the BeiDou-2 constellation) was successfully put into its working orbit. The second BeiDou-2 constellation satellite Compass-G2 was launched on 15 April 2009. On 15 January 2010, the official website of the BeiDou Navigation Satellite System went online, and the system's third satellite (Compass-G1) was carried into its orbit by a Long March 3C rocket on 17 January 2010. On 2 June 2010, the fourth satellite was launched successfully into orbit. The fifth orbiter was launched into space from Xichang Satellite Launch Center by an LM-3I carrier rocket on 1 August 2010. Three months later, on 1 November 2010, the sixth satellite was sent into orbit by LM-3C. Another satellite, the Beidou-2/Compass IGSO-5 (fifth inclined geosynchonous orbit) satellite, was launched from the Xichang Satellite Launch Center by a Long March-3A on 1 December 2011 (UTC).
How much was China going to invest in the European Galileo positioning system project?
56e10514e3433e1400422ad4
€230 million (USD296 million, GBP160 million)
108
False
In 2003, what was the planned purpose of the BeiDou navigation system?
56e10514e3433e1400422ad5
only be used by its armed forces
270
False
When did China join the Galileo project?
56e10514e3433e1400422ad6
October 2004
307
False
When was China Galileo Industries (CGI) founded?
56e10514e3433e1400422ad7
December 2004
722
False
Who said in 2008 that China was unsatisfied with its involvement in the Galileo project?
56e10514e3433e1400422ad8
the Hong Kong-based South China Morning Post
856
False
€230 million
108
In January 2015, China was set to invest how much in Galileo over the following years?
5acd3b1f07355d001abf39a4
True
USD296 million
122
How many million USD is equivalent to 160 million rupees?
5acd3b1f07355d001abf39a5
True
Agreement on the Cooperation in the Galileo Program
380
Which agreement did Japan sign to join the Galileo project officially?
5acd3b1f07355d001abf39a6
True
Sino-European Cooperation Agreement on Galileo program
550
Which program says CGI founded in 2008?
5acd3b1f07355d001abf39a7
True
eleven
752
By April of 2006, how many cooperation projects between Japan and EU had been signed?
5acd3b1f07355d001abf39a8
True
In September 2003, China intended to join the European Galileo positioning system project and was to invest €230 million (USD296 million, GBP160 million) in Galileo over the next few years. At the time, it was believed that China's "BeiDou" navigation system would then only be used by its armed forces. In October 2004, China officially joined the Galileo project by signing the Agreement on the Cooperation in the Galileo Program between the "Galileo Joint Undertaking" (GJU) and the "National Remote Sensing Centre of China" (NRSCC). Based on the Sino-European Cooperation Agreement on Galileo program, China Galileo Industries (CGI), the prime contractor of the China’s involvement in Galileo programs, was founded in December 2004. By April 2006, eleven cooperation projects within the Galileo framework had been signed between China and EU. However, the Hong Kong-based South China Morning Post reported in January 2008 that China was unsatisfied with its role in the Galileo project and was to compete with Galileo in the Asian market.
What is the BeiDou-1?
56e105afcd28a01900c67449
an experimental regional navigation system
12
False
The BeiDou-1 is made up of how may satellites?
56e105afcd28a01900c6744a
four
74
False
How many satellites in the BeiDou-1 system is used for back up?
56e105afcd28a01900c6744b
one
120
False
What were the BeiDou-1 system satellites based on?
56e105afcd28a01900c6744c
the Chinese DFH-3 geostationary communications satellite
183
False
How much did each satellite for the BeiDou-1 system weigh?
56e105afcd28a01900c6744d
1,000 kilograms (2,200 pounds) each
267
False
BeiDou-1
0
Which navigational system is regional and consists of five satellites?
5acd3c4d07355d001abf39b8
True
satellites
147
The launch weight of what was over 3,000 pounds?
5acd3c4d07355d001abf39b9
True
one
120
BeiDou-1 consists of four working satellites and how many backups?
5acd3c4d07355d001abf39ba
True
three
91
BeiDou-1 consists of four backup satellites and how many working satellites?
5acd3c4d07355d001abf39bb
True
BeiDou-1
0
Which navigational system is national and consists of four satellites?
5acd3c4d07355d001abf39bc
True
BeiDou-1 is an experimental regional navigation system, which consists of four satellites (three working satellites and one backup satellite). The satellites themselves were based on the Chinese DFH-3 geostationary communications satellite and had a launch weight of 1,000 kilograms (2,200 pounds) each.
What type of satellites does the American GPS system use?
56e106b3e3433e1400422af0
medium Earth orbit satellites
82
False
What type of satellites does the BeiDou-1 system use?
56e106b3e3433e1400422af1
satellites in geostationary orbit
127
False
What is the purpose of the BeiDou-1 system using stallites in geostationary orbit?
56e106b3e3433e1400422af2
the system does not require a large constellation of satellites
178
False
What service area is covered by the BeiDou-1 system?
56e106b3e3433e1400422af3
from longitude 70°E to 140°E and from latitude 5°N to 55°N
360
False
What is the frequency of the BeiDou-1 system?
56e106b3e3433e1400422af4
2491.75 MHz
449
False
medium Earth orbit satellites
82
BeiDou-1, along with American GPS, use which type of satellites?
5acd3eef07355d001abf3a24
True
medium Earth orbit satellites
82
BeiDou-1, along with Russian GLONASS, use which type of satellites?
5acd3eef07355d001abf3a25
True
medium Earth orbit satellites
82
BeiDou-1, along with European Galileo systems, use which type of satellites?
5acd3eef07355d001abf3a26
True
2491.75 MHz
449
Which is a frequency of the vehicular system?
5acd3eef07355d001abf3a27
True
satellites in geostationary orbit.
127
Although, BeiDou-1 uses medium Earth orbit satellites, American GPS systems use which kind?
5acd3eef07355d001abf3a28
True
Unlike the American GPS, Russian GLONASS, and European Galileo systems, which use medium Earth orbit satellites, BeiDou-1 uses satellites in geostationary orbit. This means that the system does not require a large constellation of satellites, but it also limits the coverage to areas on Earth where the satellites are visible. The area that can be serviced is from longitude 70°E to 140°E and from latitude 5°N to 55°N. A frequency of the system is 2491.75 MHz.
When was the first satellite for the BeiDou-1 system launched?
56e10745cd28a01900c6745f
October 31, 2000
48
False
What was the first satellite for the BeiDou-1 system called?
56e10745cd28a01900c67460
BeiDou-1A
21
False
When was the second satellite for the BeiDou-1 system launched?
56e10745cd28a01900c67461
December 21, 2000
128
False
What was the second satellite for the BeiDou-1 system called?
56e10745cd28a01900c67462
BeiDou-1B
88
False
When was the last satellite for the BeiDou-1 system launched?
56e10745cd28a01900c67463
May 25, 2003
227
False
2003
235
In what year was the fifth and final satellite launched?
5acd3f4f07355d001abf3a38
True
May
227
In what month was the fourth and final satellite launched?
5acd3f4f07355d001abf3a39
True
2000
60
In what year was the first satellite, BeiDou-1C, launched?
5acd3f4f07355d001abf3a3a
True
October
48
In what month was the first satellite, BeiDou-1X, launched?
5acd3f4f07355d001abf3a3b
True
2000
141
The second satellite was named BeiDou-12b and was launched in December of what year?
5acd3f4f07355d001abf3a3c
True
The first satellite, BeiDou-1A, was launched on October 31, 2000. The second satellite, BeiDou-1B, was successfully launched on December 21, 2000. The last operational satellite of the constellation, BeiDou-1C, was launched on May 25, 2003.
In 2007, what was the reported resolution of the BeiDou system?
56e108e7cd28a01900c67487
as high as 0.5 metres
95
False
What is the calibrated accuracy of the BeiDou system?
56e108e7cd28a01900c67488
20m
194
False
What is the uncalibrated accuracy of the BeiDou system?
56e108e7cd28a01900c67489
100m
199
False
Who reported the resolution of the BeiDou system in 2007?
56e108e7cd28a01900c6748a
the official Xinhua News Agency
9
False
Xinhua News Agency
22
According to which news agency was the BeiDou resolution as high as .7 metres?
5acd414c07355d001abf3a92
True
0.5 metres
106
In 2008, the XinHuang News Agency reported the resolution of the BeiDou System as how high?
5acd414c07355d001abf3a93
True
20m
194
There are no terminals, but the calibration accuracy is still what?
5acd414c07355d001abf3a94
True
Xinhua News Agency
22
According to which news agency was the BeiDou-1X monitor resolution as high as .08 metres?
5acd414c07355d001abf3a95
True
100m
199
What is the uncalibrated accuracy of the BeiDou second generation system?
5acd414c07355d001abf3a96
True
In 2007, the official Xinhua News Agency reported that the resolution of the BeiDou system was as high as 0.5 metres. With the existing user terminals it appears that the calibrated accuracy is 20m (100m, uncalibrated).
How much did a BeiDou-1 ground terminal cost in 2008?
56e109accd28a01900c67497
around CN¥20,000RMB (US$2,929)
41
False
How much more did a BeiDou-1 ground terminal cost than a current GPS terminal?
56e109accd28a01900c67498
almost 10 times the price
73
False
Why is a BeiDou-1 ground terminal so expensive?
56e109accd28a01900c67499
due to the cost of imported microchips
181
False
Where was the ELEXCON fair held in 2009?
56e109accd28a01900c6749a
Shenzhen
277
False
What was presented at the ELEXCON fair in 2009?
56e109accd28a01900c6749b
a BeiDou terminal priced at CN¥3,000RMB
287
False
2008
3
In what year was the price of a BeiDou-1 ground terminal $250 USD?
5acd427007355d001abf3ad4
True
imported microchips
200
The price of the port was a result of the cost of what?
5acd427007355d001abf3ad5
True
terminals
148
The price of what was a result of imported macro chips?
5acd427007355d001abf3ad6
True
terminals
148
The price of what was a result of the price of motherboards?
5acd427007355d001abf3ad7
True
China High-Tech Fair ELEXCON
228
Where was there a terminal priced over CNY2,000RMB?
5acd427007355d001abf3ad8
True
In 2008, a BeiDou-1 ground terminal cost around CN¥20,000RMB (US$2,929), almost 10 times the price of a contemporary GPS terminal. The price of the terminals was explained as being due to the cost of imported microchips. At the China High-Tech Fair ELEXCON of November 2009 in Shenzhen, a BeiDou terminal priced at CN¥3,000RMB was presented.
Who is the chief designer of the BeiDou navigation system?
56e10a27cd28a01900c674ab
Sun Jiadong
13
False
What did Sun Jiadong have to say about the BeiDou navigation system?
56e10a27cd28a01900c674ac
"Many organizations have been using our system for a while, and they like it very much."
71
False
Who is Sun Jiadong?
56e10a27cd28a01900c674ad
the chief designer of the navigation system
26
False
Sun Jiadong
13
Who says that many organizations dislike the system?
5acd440307355d001abf3b32
True
using our system for a while,
101
Moon Jiadong says that many organizations have been doing what?
5acd440307355d001abf3b33
True
they like it very much
135
According to the CEO, how do many organizations feel about the system?
5acd440307355d001abf3b34
True
Sun Jiadong
13
Who is quoted as saying not many organizations have used the system?
5acd440307355d001abf3b35
True
According to Sun Jiadong, the chief designer of the navigation system, "Many organizations have been using our system for a while, and they like it very much."
What was the BeiDou-2 system previously known as?
56e10ac2cd28a01900c674b9
COMPASS
28
False
How may satellites will the BeiDou-2 system have?
56e10ac2cd28a01900c674ba
35
157
False
How many geostationary orbit satellites will the BeiDou-2 system have?
56e10ac2cd28a01900c674bb
5
158
False
How many non-geostationary orbit satellites will the BeiDou-2 system have?
56e10ac2cd28a01900c674bc
30
265
False
What is the purpose of the geostationary orbit satellites in the BeiDou-2 system?
56e10ac2cd28a01900c674bd
for backward compatibility with BeiDou-1
219
False
COMPASS
28
What was BeiDou-3 formerly known as?
5acd449507355d001abf3b56
True
BeiDou-2
0
MAPS is the former name of which satellite?
5acd449507355d001abf3b57
True
The new system
115
Which system will consist of 40 satellites?
5acd449507355d001abf3b58
True
30
265
The old system will consist of how many non-geostationary satellites satellites?
5acd449507355d001abf3b59
True
BeiDou-2 (formerly known as COMPASS) is not an extension to the older BeiDou-1, but rather supersedes it outright. The new system will be a constellation of 35 satellites, which include 5 geostationary orbit satellites for backward compatibility with BeiDou-1, and 30 non-geostationary satellites (27 in medium Earth orbit and 3 in inclined geosynchronous orbit), that will offer complete coverage of the globe.
What are the ranging signals of the BeiDou system based on?
56e10dbdcd28a01900c674e1
the CDMA principle
33
False
What positioning levels will the BeiDou system offer?
56e10dbdcd28a01900c674e2
open and restricted (military)
193
False
Where will the public service for the BeiDou system be available?
56e10dbdcd28a01900c674e3
globally to general users
263
False
Who designed the COMPASS navigation system?
56e10dbdcd28a01900c674e4
Sun Jiadong
617
False
How many satellites will the COMPASS navigation system use?
56e10dbdcd28a01900c674e5
75+ satellites
412
False
ranging signals
4
Which signals are based on the ABCD principle?
5acd455207355d001abf3b88
True
CDMA principle
37
The ranging signals have a simple structure and are based on which principle?
5acd455207355d001abf3b89
True
complex
61
The ranging signals, based on the Galileo principle, have what type of structure?
5acd455207355d001abf3b8a
True
Sun Jiadong
617
Who designed the COMPASS international trade system?
5acd455207355d001abf3b8b
True
BeiDou navigation system
696
Which system is the predecessor of the GNSS system?
5acd455207355d001abf3b8c
True
The ranging signals are based on the CDMA principle and have complex structure typical of Galileo or modernized GPS. Similar to the other GNSS, there will be two levels of positioning service: open and restricted (military). The public service shall be available globally to general users. When all the currently planned GNSS systems are deployed, the users will benefit from the use of a total constellation of 75+ satellites, which will significantly improve all the aspects of positioning, especially availability of the signals in so-called urban canyons. The general designer of the COMPASS navigation system is Sun Jiadong, who is also the general designer of its predecessor, the original BeiDou navigation system.
What types of services will be offered by the BeiDou system?
56e10ed0cd28a01900c674f5
a free service to civilians and licensed service to the Chinese government and military
43
False
What is the range of accuracy for the free service offered to civilians?
56e10ed0cd28a01900c674f6
10-meter location-tracking accuracy
164
False
What is the range of accuracy for the licensed service used by Chinese government and military?
56e10ed0cd28a01900c674f7
10 centimetres
355
False
As of right now, who uses the licensed military service?
56e10ed0cd28a01900c674f8
the People's Liberation Army and to the Military of Pakistan
522
False
What is something the licensed military service can be used for?
56e10ed0cd28a01900c674f9
communication
387
False
licensed service to the Chinese government
75
Aside from the charged service to civilians, what is the other level of service provided?
5acd460607355d001abf3ba4
True
free service to civilians
45
Aside from the licensed service to Japanese civilians, what is the other level of service provided?
5acd460607355d001abf3ba5
True
10-meter location-tracking accuracy, synchronizes clocks with an accuracy of 10 nanoseconds, and measures speeds to within 0.2 m/s.
164
The paid civilian service offers which features?
5acd460607355d001abf3ba6
True
10 centimetres
355
The service licensed to Japanese government has a location accuracy of what?
5acd460607355d001abf3ba7
True
10
164
The paid civilian service has a location tracking accuracy of how many meters?
5acd460607355d001abf3ba8
True
There are two levels of service provided — a free service to civilians and licensed service to the Chinese government and military. The free civilian service has a 10-meter location-tracking accuracy, synchronizes clocks with an accuracy of 10 nanoseconds, and measures speeds to within 0.2 m/s. The restricted military service has a location accuracy of 10 centimetres, can be used for communication, and will supply information about the system status to the user. To date, the military service has been granted only to the People's Liberation Army and to the Military of Pakistan.
How many frequencies does the COMPASS system use?
56e10feecd28a01900c67513
four bands
41
False
What are the four bands of frequencies used by the COMPASS system called?
56e10feecd28a01900c67514
E1, E2, E5B, and E6
53
False
Which frequency bands are most likely to cause issues of inter-system interference with the Galileo system?
56e10feecd28a01900c67515
E1 and E2
278
False
Which bands are used by the Galileo system for their public service?
56e10feecd28a01900c67516
E1 and E2
278
False
According to International Telecommunication Union (ITU) policies, who is given higher priority to a specific frequency band?
56e10feecd28a01900c67517
the first nation to start broadcasting in a specific frequency
426
False
four
41
Frequencies for COMPASS overlap with Genesis and are allocated in how many bands?
5acd46c207355d001abf3bc2
True
Chinese
740
Which countries satellites will transmit in E3 before Galileo satellites?
5acd46c207355d001abf3bc3
True
Chinese
740
Which countries satellites will transmit in E3 before COMPASS satellites?
5acd46c207355d001abf3bc4
True
four
41
Frequencies for NASA are allocated in how many bands?
5acd46c207355d001abf3bc5
True
E6
70
Aside from B3, E1 and E34, what is the other band of frequency used by COMPASS?
5acd46c207355d001abf3bc6
True
Frequencies for COMPASS are allocated in four bands: E1, E2, E5B, and E6 and overlap with Galileo. The fact of overlapping could be convenient from the point of view of the receiver design, but on the other hand raises the issues of inter-system interference, especially within E1 and E2 bands, which are allocated for Galileo's publicly regulated service. However, under International Telecommunication Union (ITU) policies, the first nation to start broadcasting in a specific frequency will have priority to that frequency, and any subsequent users will be required to obtain permission prior to using that frequency, and otherwise ensure that their broadcasts do not interfere with the original nation's broadcasts. It now appears that Chinese COMPASS satellites will start transmitting in the E1, E2, E5B, and E6 bands before Europe's Galileo satellites and thus have primary rights to these frequency ranges.
How much information about the COMPASS system did Chinese authorities release?
56e113edcd28a01900c67569
little was officially announced
9
False
What is one thing launching the first COMPASS satellite enable researchers to do?
56e113edcd28a01900c6756a
to study general characteristics of the signals
186
False
What is another thing launching the first COMPASS satellite enable researchers to do?
56e113edcd28a01900c6756b
to build a COMPASS receiver
244
False
little
9
How much information  about the new system's signals was released by Japanese authorities?
5acd475b07355d001abf3be8
True
COMPASS receiver
255
What type of receiver did FBI researchers build?
5acd475b07355d001abf3be9
True
general characteristics of the signals, but even to build a COMPASS receiver
195
The launch of the third COMPASS satellite allowed for researchers to do what?
5acd475b07355d001abf3bea
True
little
9
How much information did Taiwanese authorities announce about the old system's signals?
5acd475b07355d001abf3beb
True
Although little was officially announced by Chinese authorities about the signals of the new system, the launch of the first COMPASS satellite permitted independent researchers not only to study general characteristics of the signals, but even to build a COMPASS receiver.
When was the Compass-M1 satellite launched?
56e1161ccd28a01900c67579
14 April 2007
115
False
What is the purpose of the Compass-M1 satellite?
56e1161ccd28a01900c6757a
for signal testing and validation and for the frequency filing
49
False
The purpose of the Compass-M1 satellite is similar to the purpose of what other satellite?
56e1161ccd28a01900c6757b
the GIOVE satellites for the Galileo system
191
False
What is the altitude of the Compass-M1 satellite?
56e1161ccd28a01900c6757c
21,150 km
299
False
What is the inclination of the Compass-M1 satellite?
56e1161ccd28a01900c6757d
55.5 degrees
331
False
April
118
Compass-L1 is an experimental satellite launched during which month of 2007?
5acd4a1c07355d001abf3c14
True
2007
124
Compass-L1 is an experimental satellite launched during which year?
5acd4a1c07355d001abf3c15
True
14 April 2007
115
Compass-L1 is an experimental satellite launched on what day?
5acd4a1c07355d001abf3c16
True
GIOVE satellites
195
What satellites role is the Compass-L3 similar to?
5acd4a1c07355d001abf3c17
True
21,150
299
Compass M-1 has a square orbit and an altitude of how many KM?
5acd4a1c07355d001abf3c18
True
Compass-M1 is an experimental satellite launched for signal testing and validation and for the frequency filing on 14 April 2007. The role of Compass-M1 for Compass is similar to the role of the GIOVE satellites for the Galileo system. The orbit of Compass-M1 is nearly circular, has an altitude of 21,150 km and an inclination of 55.5 degrees.
What frequency bands does Compass-M1 transmit in?
56e11911e3433e1400422bd4
E2, E5B, and E6
33
False
What is the phase shift of the sub-signals detected in each frequency band used by  Compass-M1?
56e11911e3433e1400422bd5
90 degrees (in quadrature)
139
False
What are the two sub-signals in each frequency band referred to as?
56e11911e3433e1400422bd6
"I" and "Q"
218
False
What is the intended purpose of the "I" component?
56e11911e3433e1400422bd7
likely to be intended for the open service
277
False
What is the intended purpose of the "Q" component?
56e11911e3433e1400422bd8
probably intended for the restricted service
405
False
3
24
In how many bands does Nerf-M1 transmit in?
5acd4b5007355d001abf3c38
True
E2, E5B, and E6
33
What bands does Compass-M3 transmit in?
5acd4b5007355d001abf3c39
True
two
73
How many coherent sub-signals have been detected in each orbit?
5acd4b5007355d001abf3c3a
True
Q" components
326
Which components have much shorter codes and are most likely intended for the restricted service?
5acd4b5007355d001abf3c3b
True
100
563
IQ modulation has been the only method in wired technology since how many years ago?
5acd4b5007355d001abf3c3c
True
Compass-M1 transmits in 3 bands: E2, E5B, and E6. In each frequency band two coherent sub-signals have been detected with a phase shift of 90 degrees (in quadrature). These signal components are further referred to as "I" and "Q". The "I" components have shorter codes and are likely to be intended for the open service. The "Q" components have much longer codes, are more interference resistive, and are probably intended for the restricted service. IQ modulation has been the method in both wired and wireless digital modulation since morsetting carrier signal 100 years ago.
When did the investigation of the signals transmitted by Compass -M1 begin?
56e11a26e3433e1400422be6
immediately after the launch of Compass -M1 on 14 April 2007
53
False
What did engineers at CNES report in June 2007?
56e11a26e3433e1400422be7
the spectrum and structure of the signals
167
False
Who reported the complete decoding of the “I” signals components?
56e11a26e3433e1400422be8
researchers from Stanford University
225
False
Who built the COMPASS receiver?
56e11a26e3433e1400422be9
a group of engineers at Septentrio
359
False
What was the purpose of building the COMPASS receiver?
56e11a26e3433e1400422bea
report tracking and multipath characteristics of the “I” signals on E2 and E5B
428
False
April
103
In what month of 2008 was Compass-M1 launched?
5acd4be307355d001abf3c4c
True
2007
109
In March of what year was Compass-M1 launched?
5acd4be307355d001abf3c4d
True
“I” signals components
300
Yale University researchers decoded what?
5acd4be307355d001abf3c4e
True
COMPASS receiver
407
Knowing the codes allowed Stanford researchers to build which receiver?
5acd4be307355d001abf3c4f
True
tracking and multipath characteristics of the “I” signals on E2 and E5B
435
Knowing the codes allowed Stanford researchers to build the NERF receiver and report what?
5acd4be307355d001abf3c50
True
The investigation of the transmitted signals started immediately after the launch of Compass -M1 on 14 April 2007. Soon after in June 2007, engineers at CNES reported the spectrum and structure of the signals. A month later, researchers from Stanford University reported the complete decoding of the “I” signals components. The knowledge of the codes allowed a group of engineers at Septentrio to build the COMPASS receiver and report tracking and multipath characteristics of the “I” signals on E2 and E5B.
What is the difference between the "I" signals on E2 and E5B and the civilian codes of GPS (L1-CA and L2C)?
56e11abce3433e1400422bf8
Compass signals have somewhat greater power
121
False
"I" signals on E2 and E5B
23
Which signals characteristics are usually similar to private military codes of GPS?
5acd4cd507355d001abf3c68
True
power
159
Compass signals are known to have lesser what?
5acd4cd507355d001abf3c69
True
first
415
The Japanese notation can be found in which row on the table?
5acd4cd507355d001abf3c6a
True
first
415
Even though the Chinese notation is the same, it can be found on which row of the table?
5acd4cd507355d001abf3c6b
True
Characteristics of the "I" signals on E2 and E5B are generally similar to the civilian codes of GPS (L1-CA and L2C), but Compass signals have somewhat greater power. The notation of Compass signals used in this page follows the naming of the frequency bands and agrees with the notation used in the American literature on the subject, but the notation used by the Chinese seems to be different and is quoted in the first row of the table.
When did the Compass system begin operation on a trial bases?
56e11bbce3433e1400422c0e
December 2011
3
False
When did the Compass system begin offering navigation, positioning and timing data to China and nearby locations?
56e11bbce3433e1400422c0f
27 December
181
False
What will improve the positioning accuracy of the Compass system?
56e11bbce3433e1400422c10
as more satellites are launched
309
False
Upon launching, the Compass system, what was the location accuracy promised to users?
56e11bbce3433e1400422c11
accurate to the nearest 10 m
435
False
Upon launching, the Compass system, what was the speed promised to users?
56e11bbce3433e1400422c12
within 0.2 m per second
480
False
December
3
During which month of 2013 did the system begin a trial operation?
5acd4db307355d001abf3c84
True
2011
12
In what year did the system finish its trial run?
5acd4db307355d001abf3c85
True
December
184
The system began charging China and surrounding areas in what month?
5acd4db307355d001abf3c86
True
25
267
During the trial period, within how many meters was the NSEW system's positioning accuracy?
5acd4db307355d001abf3c87
True
10 m
459
After official launch, the system declined to offer customers positioning information accurate to the nearest what?
5acd4db307355d001abf3c88
True
In December 2011, the system went into operation on a trial basis. It has started providing navigation, positioning and timing data to China and the neighbouring area for free from 27 December. During this trial run, Compass will offer positioning accuracy to within 25 meters, but the precision will improve as more satellites are launched. Upon the system's official launch, it pledged to offer general users positioning information accurate to the nearest 10 m, measure speeds within 0.2 m per second, and provide signals for clock synchronisation accurate to 0.02 microseconds.
When did the BeiDou-2 system start offering services?
56e11c2bcd28a01900c675e1
December 2012
75
False
Where did the BeiDou-2 system start offering services in 2012?
56e11c2bcd28a01900c675e2
the Asia-Pacific region
48
False
At the time when BeiDou-2 system began offering services, what was the positioning data the system was able to provide?
56e11c2bcd28a01900c675e3
between longitude 55°E to 180°E and from latitude 55°S to 55°N
146
False
December
75
During which month of 2015 did the BeiDou-3 system begin offering services to Japan?
5acd4e4b07355d001abf3c98
True
2012
84
In October of what year did services for the Asia-Pacific region begin?
5acd4e4b07355d001abf3c99
True
55°S to 55°N
196
The system was able to provide positioning data between 55 E to 180 E longitude and ______ latitude?
5acd4e4b07355d001abf3c9a
True
55°E to 180°E
164
The system was able to provide positioning data between 55 S to 55 N latitude and ______ longitude?
5acd4e4b07355d001abf3c9b
True
Asia-Pacific region
52
Where did the BeiDou-X system begin offering services in December of 2012?
5acd4e4b07355d001abf3c9c
True
The BeiDou-2 system began offering services for the Asia-Pacific region in December 2012. At this time, the system could provide positioning data between longitude 55°E to 180°E and from latitude 55°S to 55°N.
When did the Beidou system begin operating in China?
56e11d89e3433e1400422c20
December 2011
3
False
When is it projected that the global navigation system will be finished?
56e11d89e3433e1400422c21
by 2020
471
False
As of December 2012, how many satellites had been launched for the BeiDou-2 system?
56e11d89e3433e1400422c22
16
501
False
Of the 16 satellites launched for the BeiDou-2 system, how many are operational?
56e11d89e3433e1400422c23
14
548
False
December
3
During which month of 2012 did the system begin operations in China?
5acd4eab07355d001abf3cac
True
2011
12
During June of what year did the system begin operations in China?
5acd4eab07355d001abf3cad
True
December
3
In what month did the system begin operations in Japan?
5acd4eab07355d001abf3cae
True
2011
12
In what year did the system begin operations in Japan?
5acd4eab07355d001abf3caf
True
16 satellites
501
How many satellites have been launched as of November, 2013?
5acd4eab07355d001abf3cb0
True
In December 2011, Xinhua stated that "[t]he basic structure of the Beidou system has now been established, and engineers are now conducting comprehensive system test and evaluation. The system will provide test-run services of positioning, navigation and time for China and the neighboring areas before the end of this year, according to the authorities." The system became operational in the China region that same month. The global navigation system should be finished by 2020. As of December 2012, 16 satellites for BeiDou-2 have been launched, 14 of them are in service.
When was the Compass-M1 satellite launced?
56e11e2fcd28a01900c675fb
2007
80
False
How many satellites were launched from 2009-2011?
56e11e2fcd28a01900c675fc
nine
113
False
What was achieved by launching 9 additional satellites from 2009-2011?
56e11e2fcd28a01900c675fd
functional regional coverage
157
False
How many satellites were launched since 2007?
56e11e2fcd28a01900c675fe
16
198
False
2007
80
When was the second satellite of the first generation system launched?
5acd4f4c07355d001abf3cc0
True
2007
80
When was the first satellite of the third generation launched?
5acd4f4c07355d001abf3cc1
True
16
198
How many satellites were removed from orbit during this time?
5acd4f4c07355d001abf3cc2
True
nine
113
How many satellites were launched between 2005 and 2007?
5acd4f4c07355d001abf3cc3
True
Compass-M1
53
What is the name of the second generation satellite of the first system?
5acd4f4c07355d001abf3cc4
True
The first satellite of the second-generation system, Compass-M1 was launched in 2007. It was followed by further nine satellites during 2009-2011, achieving functional regional coverage. A total of 16 satellites were launched during this phase.
When did the BeiDou system begin transitioning to global coverage?
56e11f7bcd28a01900c6760d
2015
3
False
How did the BeiDou system begin transitioning to global coverage?
56e11f7bcd28a01900c6760e
with the first launch of a new-generation of satellites
65
False
2015
3
During what year did the system begin transformation towards serving China only?
5acd4fd107355d001abf3cca
True
new-generation of satellites
92
What did the system first launch in 2013?
5acd4fd107355d001abf3ccb
True
global
49
In 2007, the system began transforming towards providing what type of coverage?
5acd4fd107355d001abf3ccc
True
2015
3
The system began its transition towards national coverage during which year?
5acd4fd107355d001abf3ccd
True
In 2015, the system began its transition towards global coverage with the first launch of a new-generation of satellites, and the 17th one within the new system.
When were the 18th and 19th satellites for the BeiDou system launched?
56e1207fcd28a01900c6761f
July 25, 2015
3
False
Where were the 18th and 19th satellites for the BeiDou system launched from?
56e1207fcd28a01900c67620
the Xichang Satellite Launch Center
79
False
What were the 18th and 19th satellites for the BeiDou system launched with?
56e1207fcd28a01900c67621
Long March 3B/Expedition-1 carrier rocket
194
False
What is the Expedition-1?
56e1207fcd28a01900c67622
an independent upper stage capable of delivering one or more spacecraft into different orbits
257
False
July
3
During which month of 2007 was the 18th satellite launched?
5acd507907355d001abf3cdc
True
July
3
During which month of 2017 was the 19th satellite launched?
5acd507907355d001abf3cdd
True
2015
12
In which year was the 20th satellite launched?
5acd507907355d001abf3cde
True
Xichang Satellite Launch Center
83
Where were the 2nd and 3rd satellites launched from?
5acd507907355d001abf3cdf
True
two
159
This marked the third time China launched how many satellites at once?
5acd507907355d001abf3ce0
True
On July 25, 2015, the 18th and 19th satellites were successfully launched from the Xichang Satellite Launch Center, marking the first time for China to launch two satellites at once on top of a Long March 3B/Expedition-1 carrier rocket. The Expedition-1 is an independent upper stage capable of delivering one or more spacecraft into different orbits.
What will the three latest satellites provide after testing?
56e12219e3433e1400422c58
navigation services
144
False
What kind of testing will be performed on the three latest satellites?
56e12219e3433e1400422c59
testing of a new system of navigation signaling and inter-satellite links
49
False
How many satellites will be used to test a new system of navigation signaling?
56e12219e3433e1400422c5a
three
4
False
testing of a new system of navigation signaling and inter-satellite links
49
Four of the newest satellites will undergo what?
5acd514807355d001abf3d0c
True
navigation signaling and inter-satellite links
76
The satellites will individually undergo testing of an old system of what?
5acd514807355d001abf3d0d
True
navigation services
144
The three newest terminals will start providing what type of services when ready?
5acd514807355d001abf3d0e
True
three
4
How many satellites will undergo separate testing for new signaling units?
5acd514807355d001abf3d0f
True
three
4
How many terminals will be undergo testing of the new system?
5acd514807355d001abf3d10
True
The three latest satellites will jointly undergo testing of a new system of navigation signaling and inter-satellite links, and start providing navigation services when ready.
Canon_law
What is the name for the rules issued by the heads of the Church?
56e0f09d231d4119001ac476
Canon law
0
False
In what type of religion are canon laws applicable?
56e0f09d231d4119001ac477
Christian
124
False
Which institutions make up the Catholic Church?
56e0f09d231d4119001ac478
Latin Church and Eastern Catholic Churches
248
False
What body was first responsible for creating canon?
56e0f09d231d4119001ac479
church council
606
False
What does canon law consist of?
56e0f09d231d4119001ac47a
canons
628
False
Canon law
0
What is the name of rules made by lay people of the church?
5a21c9378a6e4f001aa08ebe
True
Catholic Church
226
What church is made up of the Latin and Western Catholic churches
5a21c9378a6e4f001aa08ebf
True
Canon law
0
All religions are governed by what rules?
5a21c9378a6e4f001aa08ec0
True
Canon law
0
What was originally adopted by the Pope?
5a21c9378a6e4f001aa08ec1
True
the Eastern and Oriental Orthodox churches, and the individual national churches within the Anglican Communion
293
Throughout what three bodies is canon law interpreted the same way?
5a21c9378a6e4f001aa08ec2
True
Canon law is the body of laws and regulations made by ecclesiastical authority (Church leadership), for the government of a Christian organization or church and its members. It is the internal ecclesiastical law governing the Catholic Church (both Latin Church and Eastern Catholic Churches), the Eastern and Oriental Orthodox churches, and the individual national churches within the Anglican Communion. The way that such church law is legislated, interpreted and at times adjudicated varies widely among these three bodies of churches. In all three traditions, a canon was originally a rule adopted by a church council; these canons formed the foundation of canon law.
What is the Greek term for canon?
56e0f150231d4119001ac480
kanon
6
False
What is the Hebrew term for canon?
56e0f150231d4119001ac481
kaneh
65
False
What is the Arabic term meaning canon?
56e0f150231d4119001ac482
Qanun
43
False
What is the common definition of the word canon as it appears in Greek, Arabic and Hebrew?
56e0f150231d4119001ac483
reed
170
False
Which English term is derived from the same root as the Greek, Arabic and Hebrew words for canon?
56e0f150231d4119001ac484
cane
233
False
reed
170
What is kanon the Hebrew word for?
5a21ca7d8a6e4f001aa08ec8
True
reed
170
What is Kaneh the Greek word for?
5a21ca7d8a6e4f001aa08ec9
True
Greek kanon / Ancient Greek: κανών, Arabic Qanun / قانون, Hebrew kaneh / קנה, "straight"; a rule, code, standard, or measure; the root meaning in all these languages is "reed" (cf. the Romance-language ancestors of the English word "cane").
How many ancient canons exist in the Eastern Church?
56e0f1e7231d4119001ac4a8
eighty-five
123
False
How many ancient canons exist in the Western Church?
56e0f1e7231d4119001ac4a9
fifty
151
False
What is another term for Apostolic Canons?
56e0f1e7231d4119001ac4aa
Ecclesiastical Canons
24
False
When was the First Council of Nicaea held?
56e0f1e7231d4119001ac4ab
325
391
False
What is the Greek definition of κανὠν?
56e0f1e7231d4119001ac4ac
a rule
489
False
ecclesiastical decrees
99
What does the Western church have eighty-five of?
5a21cd298a6e4f001aa08ed6
True
ecclesiastical decrees
99
What does the Eastern church have fifty of?
5a21cd298a6e4f001aa08ed7
True
Apostolic Canons
4
What is made up of a collection of ecclesiastical decrees and cannons?
5a21cd298a6e4f001aa08ed8
True
disciplinary measures of the Church
413
What did the Ante-Nicene fathers call cannons?
5a21cd298a6e4f001aa08ed9
True
First Council of Nicaea
366
What Council met in 325 BC?
5a21cd298a6e4f001aa08eda
True
The Apostolic Canons or Ecclesiastical Canons of the Same Holy Apostles is a collection of ancient ecclesiastical decrees (eighty-five in the Eastern, fifty in the Western Church) concerning the government and discipline of the Early Christian Church, incorporated with the Apostolic Constitutions which are part of the Ante-Nicene Fathers In the fourth century the First Council of Nicaea (325) calls canons the disciplinary measures of the Church: the term canon, κανὠν, means in Greek, a rule. There is a very early distinction between the rules enacted by the Church and the legislative measures taken by the State called leges, Latin for laws.
Who enforces canon law in Catholicism?
56e0f2d87aa994140058e7ff
the Church's hierarchical authorities
98
False
What is the name for the collection of formal rules in Catholicism?
56e0f2d87aa994140058e800
canon law
24
False
What does management of canon law aim to regulate?
56e0f2d87aa994140058e801
external organization and government
152
False
What is canon law's purpose with respect to members of the Catholic Church?
56e0f2d87aa994140058e802
order and direct the activities of Catholics toward the mission of the Church
196
False
Catholic Church
7
In what church is canon law used to regulate internal organizations?
5a21cdcc8a6e4f001aa08ee0
True
the mission of the Church
248
What mission this Canon law directly activities of all Christians towards?
5a21cdcc8a6e4f001aa08ee1
True
canon law
24
What is the name of the collection of informal rules in Catholicism?
5a21cdcc8a6e4f001aa08ee2
True
canon law
24
What law is enforced by individual parishes?
5a21cdcc8a6e4f001aa08ee3
True
In the Catholic Church, canon law is the system of laws and legal principles made and enforced by the Church's hierarchical authorities to regulate its external organization and government and to order and direct the activities of Catholics toward the mission of the Church.
What is another name for the collections of other Catholic churches led by the Supreme Pontiff?
56e0f3907aa994140058e807
rites
64
False
How many major rites exist?
56e0f3907aa994140058e808
five
59
False
Who is the leader of the Roman Catholic Church?
56e0f3907aa994140058e809
the Supreme Pontiff
150
False
What term characterizes the intersection of the rites with the Roman Catholic Church?
56e0f3907aa994140058e80a
full union
104
False
Which denomination is led by the Supreme Pontiff?
56e0f3907aa994140058e80b
Roman Catholic
4
False
five
59
How many rights are there net Eastern Catholic church?
5a21ce718a6e4f001aa08ef2
True
rites
64
What is another name for the collection of Catholic churches led by the College of Cardinals?
5a21ce718a6e4f001aa08ef3
True
five
59
How many rights are not a full union with the Roman Catholic Church?
5a21ce718a6e4f001aa08ef4
True
Supreme Pontiff
154
Who leads all Christian churches?
5a21ce718a6e4f001aa08ef5
True
The Roman Catholic Church canon law also includes the main five rites (groups) of churches which are in full union with the Roman Catholic Church and the Supreme Pontiff:
What are the permanent sources of positive ecclesiastical law?
56e0f5fc231d4119001ac4da
immutable divine and natural law
79
False
What are the impermanent sources of positive ecclesiastical law?
56e0f5fc231d4119001ac4db
changeable circumstantial and merely positive law
116
False
What is given to the universal positive law of the Roman Catholic Church by its leader?
56e0f5fc231d4119001ac4dc
formal authority and promulgation
174
False
What is the pope's official title?
56e0f5fc231d4119001ac4dd
Supreme Pontiff
240
False
What three divisions of power often found in government does the pope hold?
56e0f5fc231d4119001ac4de
legislative, executive, and judicial
282
False
immutable divine and natural law
79
What are the permanent sources of positive ecclesiastical law in all Christian churches?
5a21cf998a6e4f001aa08efa
True
changeable circumstantial and merely positive law
116
What are the impermanent sources of positive ecclesiastical law in all Christian churches?
5a21cf998a6e4f001aa08efb
True
formal authority and promulgation
174
What do all church leaders give to the universal positive law of the Roman Catholic Church?
5a21cf998a6e4f001aa08efc
True
Supreme Pontiff
240
What is the official title of all Cardinals?
5a21cf998a6e4f001aa08efd
True
legislative, executive, and judicial power
282
What three powers usually found in government are held by the Pope and College of Cardinals?
5a21cf998a6e4f001aa08efe
True
In the Roman Church, universal positive ecclesiastical laws, based upon either immutable divine and natural law, or changeable circumstantial and merely positive law, derive formal authority and promulgation from the office of pope, who as Supreme Pontiff possesses the totality of legislative, executive, and judicial power in his person. The actual subject material of the canons is not just doctrinal or moral in nature, but all-encompassing of the human condition.
What entity believes itself to have the longest standing internal mechanism of laws in Western Europe?
56e0f735231d4119001ac4f6
The Catholic Church
0
False
What is a legal system older than Catholic law?
56e0f735231d4119001ac4f7
Roman law
139
False
What is the term for laws produced at the Council of Jerusalem?
56e0f735231d4119001ac4f8
canons
242
False
When was the Council of Jerusalem held?
56e0f735231d4119001ac4f9
first century
310
False
Apart from the Old and New Testaments, which other cultures influenced canon?
56e0f735231d4119001ac4fa
Roman, Visigothic, Saxon, and Celtic
473
False
continuously functioning internal legal system
57
What does the Catholic Church claim to be the oldest of in the world?
5a21d0bb8a6e4f001aa08f04
True
canons
242
What laws predate both Roman law and European civil law traditions?
5a21d0bb8a6e4f001aa08f05
True
Hebrew (Old Testament), Roman, Visigothic, Saxon, and Celtic legal traditions
449
What legal traditions were not included in early canons?
5a21d0bb8a6e4f001aa08f06
True
Council of Jerusalem
282
What counsel was held in the first century BC
5a21d0bb8a6e4f001aa08f07
True
The Catholic Church has what is claimed to be the oldest continuously functioning internal legal system in Western Europe, much later than Roman law but predating the evolution of modern European civil law traditions. What began with rules ("canons") adopted by the Apostles at the Council of Jerusalem in the first century has developed into a highly complex legal system encapsulating not just norms of the New Testament, but some elements of the Hebrew (Old Testament), Roman, Visigothic, Saxon, and Celtic legal traditions.
Which period followed the jus antiquum?
56e0f7c3231d4119001ac507
the jus novum
83
False
What is the most recent era of Latin canon law?
56e0f7c3231d4119001ac509
the Code of Canon Law
121
False
What is the name for the time preceding the Code of Canon Law?
56e0f7c3231d4119001ac50a
the jus vetus
197
False
four periods
51
How many periods can Greek canon law be divided into?
5a21d1d58a6e4f001aa08f16
True
Latin canon law
15
What is the jus antiquum the most recent era of?
5a21d1d58a6e4f001aa08f17
True
Code
231
What did Jus novum precede?
5a21d1d58a6e4f001aa08f18
True
Code
231
What did jus vetus follow?
5a21d1d58a6e4f001aa08f19
True
The history of Latin canon law can be divided into four periods: the jus antiquum, the jus novum, the jus novissimum and the Code of Canon Law. In relation to the Code, history can be divided into the jus vetus (all law before the Code) and the jus novum (the law of the Code, or jus codicis).
In what ways did the Eastern Catholic Churches's legal systems vary from those of the west?
56e0f8717aa994140058e845
different disciplines and practices
73
False
What led to the Code of Canons of the Eastern Churches?
56e0f8717aa994140058e846
process of codification
128
False
When was the law of the Eastern Catholic Churches promoted?
56e0f8717aa994140058e847
1990
224
False
Who sponsored the promulgation of Eastern Catholic Church laws?
56e0f8717aa994140058e848
Pope John Paul II
232
False
What was the name of the formal version of laws ruling the Eastern Catholic Churches?
56e0f8717aa994140058e849
the Code of Canons of the Eastern Churches
166
False
disciplines and practices
83
What did the Easter and Western Catholic church have in common?
5a21d27f8a6e4f001aa08f1e
True
1990
224
When was the coded canons of the Western churches promulgated?
5a21d27f8a6e4f001aa08f1f
True
Pope John Paul II
232
Who promulgated the code of canons for the Western churches?
5a21d27f8a6e4f001aa08f20
True
Code of Canons of the Eastern Churches
170
What was the informal version of laws the Eastern Catholic churches?
5a21d27f8a6e4f001aa08f21
True
The canon law of the Eastern Catholic Churches, which had developed some different disciplines and practices, underwent its own process of codification, resulting in the Code of Canons of the Eastern Churches promulgated in 1990 by Pope John Paul II.
What profesional roles from secular law does the Catholic Church also employ?
56e0f9657aa994140058e84f
lawyers, judges
79
False
What is not present in the Catholic legal system as compared with non-religious law?
56e0f9657aa994140058e850
civilly-binding force
203
False
What does J.C.B. stand for?
56e0f9657aa994140058e851
Juris Canonici Baccalaureatus
306
False
What is the English equivalent of the term abbreviated by J.C.B.?
56e0f9657aa994140058e852
Bachelor of Canon Law
337
False
What is the Latin term for Licentiate of Canon Law?
56e0f9657aa994140058e853
Juris Canonici Licentiatus
406
False
legal system
24
What is not fully developed in the Catholic Church?
5a21d3708a6e4f001aa08f30
True
civilly-binding
203
What kind of binding forces does the Catholic Church have that are not in most secular jurisdictions?
5a21d3708a6e4f001aa08f31
True
the J.C.B. (Juris Canonici Baccalaureatus, Bachelor of Canon Law,
294
What is one of the non-academic degrees in Canon law?
5a21d3708a6e4f001aa08f32
True
degrees in civil law or theology
564
What are usually not pre-request for studying canon law?
5a21d3708a6e4f001aa08f33
True
It is a fully developed legal system, with all the necessary elements: courts, lawyers, judges, a fully articulated legal code principles of legal interpretation, and coercive penalties, though it lacks civilly-binding force in most secular jurisdictions. The academic degrees in canon law are the J.C.B. (Juris Canonici Baccalaureatus, Bachelor of Canon Law, normally taken as a graduate degree), J.C.L. (Juris Canonici Licentiatus, Licentiate of Canon Law) and the J.C.D. (Juris Canonici Doctor, Doctor of Canon Law). Because of its specialized nature, advanced degrees in civil law or theology are normal prerequisites for the study of canon law.
What ancient law served as the precursor to the type of legislation seen in the Roman Catholics?
56e0fb7b231d4119001ac530
Roman Law Code of Justinian
51
False
What word characterizes the type of procedure found in American and British courts?
56e0fb7b231d4119001ac531
adversarial
369
False
What term characterizes the type of procedure used in Roman Church courts?
56e0fb7b231d4119001ac532
inquisitorial
286
False
What is the English meaning of inquirere?
56e0fb7b231d4119001ac533
to enquire
330
False
legislative style
12
What was adapted from the Roman law code of Julius Caesar?
5a21d4c68a6e4f001aa08f38
True
ecclesiastical
99
What courts follow the room and law style found in Eurasia?
5a21d4c68a6e4f001aa08f39
True
common law system of English and U.S. law
413
What other law system do ecclesiastical courts share an adversarial form with?
5a21d4c68a6e4f001aa08f3a
True
single judges
497
What do ecclesiastical courts have rather then collegiate panels of judges?
5a21d4c68a6e4f001aa08f3b
True
Much of the legislative style was adapted from the Roman Law Code of Justinian. As a result, Roman ecclesiastical courts tend to follow the Roman Law style of continental Europe with some variation, featuring collegiate panels of judges and an investigative form of proceeding, called "inquisitorial", from the Latin "inquirere", to enquire. This is in contrast to the adversarial form of proceeding found in the common law system of English and U.S. law, which features such things as juries and single judges.
What continent's laws developed alongside those of the Church?
56e101c8cd28a01900c67419
Europe
88
False
In which types of law can elements of canon law be seen?
56e101c8cd28a01900c6741a
modern civil law and common law
118
False
Who stated that Church law can be seen in the growth of civil law institutions?
56e101c8cd28a01900c6741b
Edson Luiz Sampel
199
False
What two regions does Sampel cite as examples of the influence of canon law?
56e101c8cd28a01900c6741c
Europe and Latin American
366
False
What does Sampel claim had a great impact on?
56e101c8cd28a01900c6741d
contemporary society
463
False
canon law
34
What law paralleled the legal development of Europe and Latin America?
5a21d5c18a6e4f001aa08f40
True
canon law
34
What was influenced by civil law and common law?
5a21d5c18a6e4f001aa08f41
True
Edson Luiz Sampel
199
Who said that Canon law has little influence in contemporary society?
5a21d5c18a6e4f001aa08f42
True
canon law
188
What is contained in various institutions of Europe and Asia?
5a21d5c18a6e4f001aa08f43
True
The institutions and practices of canon law paralleled the legal development of much of Europe, and consequently both modern civil law and common law (legal system) bear the influences of canon law. Edson Luiz Sampel, a Brazilian expert in canon law, says that canon law is contained in the genesis of various institutes of civil law, such as the law in continental Europe and Latin American countries. Sampel explains that canon law has significant influence in contemporary society.
What school of thought serves as a model for canon theory?
56e102b7cd28a01900c6742b
Aristotelian-Thomistic
69
False
Which philosopher is quoted by the Catechism?
56e102b7cd28a01900c6742c
Aquinas
215
False
What word is not specifically given meaning in the Code of the Church?
56e102b7cd28a01900c6742d
law
126
False
What does Aquinas define as the aim toward which law is working?
56e102b7cd28a01900c6742e
the common good
273
False
What term expresses the idea of law derived from Aquinas as interpreted by the Catechism?
56e102b7cd28a01900c6742f
a rule of conduct
375
False
Canonical jurisprudential theory
0
What generally follows the principles of Aristotle and Plato?
5a21d6a68a6e4f001aa08f52
True
Aquinas
215
Which philosopher quoted the catechism?
5a21d6a68a6e4f001aa08f53
True
law
126
What term is explicitly defined in the code?
5a21d6a68a6e4f001aa08f54
True
an ordinance of reason
246
What does Aquinas say is working towards the good of the church?
5a21d6a68a6e4f001aa08f55
True
Canonical jurisprudential theory generally follows the principles of Aristotelian-Thomistic legal philosophy. While the term "law" is never explicitly defined in the Code, the Catechism of the Catholic Church cites Aquinas in defining law as "...an ordinance of reason for the common good, promulgated by the one who is in charge of the community" and reformulates it as "...a rule of conduct enacted by competent authority for the sake of the common good."
Prior to 1917, what church was in a similar situation as the Eastern Catholic Churches as regards its legal system?
56e1039be3433e1400422aa6
the Latin or Western Church
103
False
What was different about the Eastern Churches compared with the Western?
56e1039be3433e1400422aa7
more diversity in legislation
149
False
What was still a main factor in the Eastern Church laws?
56e1039be3433e1400422aa8
custom
268
False
When did Pius XI announce his goal of codifying the law of all Eastern Churches?
56e1039be3433e1400422aa9
1929
310
False
During what time period were the Codes for Eastern Churches made available, prior to the final version?
56e1039be3433e1400422aaa
1949 through 1958
528
False
Eastern Catholic Churches
15
Who is in much the same state as the Latin church after 1917?
5a21d7a58a6e4f001aa08f5a
True
diversity in legislation
154
What was the same in the Eastern and Western church prior to 1917?
5a21d7a58a6e4f001aa08f5b
True
1929
310
When did Pius IX announced his goal of codifying the law of all Eastern churches?
5a21d7a58a6e4f001aa08f5c
True
Codes for the Eastern Churches
451
What was finalized in 1958?
5a21d7a58a6e4f001aa08f5d
True
Codes for the Eastern Churches regarding the law of persons
451
What is still waiting to be finalized?
5a21d7a58a6e4f001aa08f5e
True
The law of the Eastern Catholic Churches in full union with Rome was in much the same state as that of the Latin or Western Church before 1917; much more diversity in legislation existed in the various Eastern Catholic Churches. Each had its own special law, in which custom still played an important part. In 1929 Pius XI informed the Eastern Churches of his intention to work out a Code for the whole of the Eastern Church. The publication of these Codes for the Eastern Churches regarding the law of persons was made between 1949 through 1958 but finalized nearly 30 years later.
When was the original Code of Canon Law published?
56e1040ecd28a01900c6743d
1917
29
False
For which part of the Roman Catholic Church was the first Code published?
56e1040ecd28a01900c6743e
the Roman Rite
50
False
During what years was the Second Vatican Council held?
56e1040ecd28a01900c6743f
1962 - 1965
151
False
For whom was a new edition of canon law released in 1983?
56e1040ecd28a01900c67440
the Roman Rite
50
False
When was the first Code produced for Eastern Churches?
56e1040ecd28a01900c67441
1990
251
False
first Code of Canon Law
4
What was published prior to 1917?
5a21d8428a6e4f001aa08f64
True
1917
29
When was the code of Canon Law written for all five rates?
5a21d8428a6e4f001aa08f65
True
the Second Vatican Council
122
What counsel ended in 1962?
5a21d8428a6e4f001aa08f66
True
another edition
165
What was published specifically for the Eastern right in 1983?
5a21d8428a6e4f001aa08f67
True
1990,
251
When was the second coat of Eastern Catholic canon law published?
5a21d8428a6e4f001aa08f68
True
The first Code of Canon Law, 1917, was mostly for the Roman Rite, with limited application to the Eastern Churches. After the Second Vatican Council, (1962 - 1965), another edition was published specifically for the Roman Rite in 1983. Most recently, 1990, the Vatican produced the Code of Canons of the Eastern Churches which became the 1st code of Eastern Catholic Canon Law.
What language is used by members of the Orthodox denomination?
56e104b7e3433e1400422aca
Greek
4
False
What are the constituents of the Pēdálion?
56e104b7e3433e1400422acb
canons and commentaries upon them
43
False
What does Pēdálion mean in English?
56e104b7e3433e1400422acc
Rudder
128
False
Which Orthodox leaders are free to adapt canon as required?
56e104b7e3433e1400422acd
bishops
289
False
Which groups do Orthodox scholars point to when defending their way of interpreting canon?
56e104b7e3433e1400422ace
the Ecumenical Councils
404
False
Orthodox
19
What denomination uses Hebrew?
5a21d9038a6e4f001aa08f78
True
Orthodox Christian
194
What tradition treats its canons more as laws?
5a21d9038a6e4f001aa08f79
True
Orthodox canon scholars
360
Who believes the ecumenical councils intended the cannons to be laws?
5a21d9038a6e4f001aa08f7a
True
dogmatic
627
What decisions of the councils are to be treated as guidelines?
5a21d9038a6e4f001aa08f7b
True
dogmatic decisions
627
What are not considered essential for the church's unity?
5a21d9038a6e4f001aa08f7c
True
The Greek-speaking Orthodox have collected canons and commentaries upon them in a work known as the Pēdálion (Greek: Πηδάλιον, "Rudder"), so named because it is meant to "steer" the Church. The Orthodox Christian tradition in general treats its canons more as guidelines than as laws, the bishops adjusting them to cultural and other local circumstances. Some Orthodox canon scholars point out that, had the Ecumenical Councils (which deliberated in Greek) meant for the canons to be used as laws, they would have called them nómoi/νόμοι (laws) rather than kanónes/κανόνες (rules), but almost all Orthodox conform to them. The dogmatic decisions of the Councils, though, are to be obeyed rather than to be treated as guidelines, since they are essential for the Church's unity.
In what institution do church courts still have relevant functions in secular society?
56e10f57cd28a01900c674ff
the Church of England
3
False
In what century did Saxons and Normans separate?
56e10f57cd28a01900c67500
12th
351
False
What type of law is not found in ecclesiastical systems in the modern day?
56e10f57cd28a01900c67501
common law
601
False
At which universities were canon law degrees abolished?
56e10f57cd28a01900c67502
Oxford and Cambridge
795
False
Who was responsible for banning canon law education from Oxford and Cambridge?
56e10f57cd28a01900c67503
Henry VIII
833
False
Church of England
7
Where do church courts no longer function in secular society?
5a21d9c48a6e4f001aa08f82
True
mixed secular/religious county and local courts used by the Saxons
405
What did the Normans split away from in the 1200s?
5a21d9c48a6e4f001aa08f83
True
England
508
In one country is ecclesiastical matters part of a common law system?
5a21d9c48a6e4f001aa08f84
True
royal courts
732
What were ecclesiastical courts prior to the Reformation in England?
5a21d9c48a6e4f001aa08f85
True
Universities of Oxford and Cambridge
779
What universities offer Canon law degrees?
5a21d9c48a6e4f001aa08f86
True
In the Church of England, the ecclesiastical courts that formerly decided many matters such as disputes relating to marriage, divorce, wills, and defamation, still have jurisdiction of certain church-related matters (e.g. discipline of clergy, alteration of church property, and issues related to churchyards). Their separate status dates back to the 12th century when the Normans split them off from the mixed secular/religious county and local courts used by the Saxons. In contrast to the other courts of England the law used in ecclesiastical matters is at least partially a civil law system, not common law, although heavily governed by parliamentary statutes. Since the Reformation, ecclesiastical courts in England have been royal courts. The teaching of canon law at the Universities of Oxford and Cambridge was abrogated by Henry VIII; thereafter practitioners in the ecclesiastical courts were trained in civil law, receiving a Doctor of Civil Law (D.C.L.) degree from Oxford, or a Doctor of Laws (LL.D.) degree from Cambridge. Such lawyers (called "doctors" and "civilians") were centered at "Doctors Commons", a few streets south of St Paul's Cathedral in London, where they monopolized probate, matrimonial, and admiralty cases until their jurisdiction was removed to the common law courts in the mid-19th century.
What is a term for the Church of England and churches that align with it?
56e1156fe3433e1400422bae
the Anglican Communion
18
False
What is an example of a member of the Anglican Communion in America?
56e1156fe3433e1400422baf
the Episcopal Church
65
False
What is an example of a member of the Anglican Communion in Canada?
56e1156fe3433e1400422bb0
the Anglican Church of Canada
112
False
What do extant churches of the Anglican Communion still operate with?
56e1156fe3433e1400422bb1
their own private systems of canon law
164
False
Anglican Communion
22
What is a term for the church of England but not the churches that align with it?
5a21da318a6e4f001aa08f8c
True
Anglican Communion
22
What church is Episcopal Church not affiliated with?
5a21da318a6e4f001aa08f8d
True
Other churches in the Anglican Communion around the world
0
What churches no longer operate with their own private system of canon law?
5a21da318a6e4f001aa08f8e
True
Other churches in the Anglican Communion around the world (e.g., the Episcopal Church in the United States, and the Anglican Church of Canada) still function under their own private systems of canon law.
As of 2004, what do all Anglican Communion Churches share?
56e11661e3433e1400422bb6
principles of canon law
29
False
What term characterizes the way in which the existence of canon principles can be shown?
56e11661e3433e1400422bb7
factually
130
False
Through what does each member of the Anglican Communion make a contribution to Church law?
56e11661e3433e1400422bb8
its own legal system
197
False
What kind of force could the canonical principles be said to have within the Communion?
56e11661e3433e1400422bb9
living
442
False
What does having common principles show and support for churches int he Communion?
56e11661e3433e1400422bba
unity
578
False
principles of canon law
29
As of 2004 what to Anglican Communion churches no longer share?
5a21dad08a6e4f001aa08f92
True
legal system
205
Anglican church law contributes to what for each of its members?
5a21dad08a6e4f001aa08f93
True
principles of canon law
225
What is not fundamental to self understanding of each of the churches of the Communion?
5a21dad08a6e4f001aa08f94
True
unity
597
What does having individual principle show?
5a21dad08a6e4f001aa08f95
True
Currently, (2004), there are principles of canon law common to the churches within the Anglican Communion; their existence can be factually established; each province or church contributes through its own legal system to the principles of canon law common within the Communion; these principles have a strong persuasive authority and are fundamental to the self-understanding of each of the churches of the Communion; these principles have a living force, and contain in themselves the possibility of further development; and the existence of these principles both demonstrates unity and promotes unity within the Anglican Communion.
What are two other possible terms for canon law among some denominations?
56e1170de3433e1400422bc0
"practice and procedure" or "church order"
61
False
In what types of institutions are canon rules called "practice and procedure"?
56e1170de3433e1400422bc1
Presbyterian and Reformed churches
3
False
What aspect of management is covered by church order?
56e1170de3433e1400422bc2
government
151
False
What aspect of decorum is covered by practice and procedure?
56e1170de3433e1400422bc3
discipline
163
False
What aspect of faith is covered by canon law?
56e1170de3433e1400422bc4
worship
194
False
practice and procedure
62
Canon law is different from what in other denominations?
5a21db1e8a6e4f001aa08f9a
True
government
151
What aspect of management is not covered by church order?
5a21db1e8a6e4f001aa08f9b
True
discipline
163
What aspect of the core is not covered by practice and procedures?
5a21db1e8a6e4f001aa08f9c
True
worship
194
What aspect of faith is not covered by canon law?
5a21db1e8a6e4f001aa08f9d
True
In Presbyterian and Reformed churches, canon law is known as "practice and procedure" or "church order", and includes the church's laws respecting its government, discipline, legal practice and worship.
What group took issue with the Roman canons?
56e11801e3433e1400422bca
the Presbyterians
39
False
In what year was there documented criticism of Roman church law by Presbyterians?
56e11801e3433e1400422bcb
1572
69
False
To whom did Presbyterians complain in 1572?
56e11801e3433e1400422bcc
Parliament
95
False
For how long did the Reformed Church state that canon had been administered by members of the church?
56e11801e3433e1400422bcd
1500 years
359
False
Which church officials were responsible for the administration of canon law?
56e11801e3433e1400422bce
bishops
318
False
Presbyterians
43
What group supported roaming cannons?
5a21db808a6e4f001aa08fa2
True
Roman canon law
0
What did the Presbyterians criticize in the fifteenth century?
5a21db808a6e4f001aa08fa3
True
Reformed Church Government
260
Who claimed the bishops have been enforcing canon law for 2000 years?
5a21db808a6e4f001aa08fa4
True
Roman canon law had been criticized by the Presbyterians as early as 1572 in the Admonition to Parliament. The protest centered on the standard defense that canon law could be retained so long as it did not contradict the civil law. According to Polly Ha, the Reformed Church Government refuted this claiming that the bishops had been enforcing canon law for 1500 years.
What is a fundamental collection of documents of the Lutherans?
56e1189acd28a01900c675a1
The Book of Concord
0
False
Beginning in what century was the Book of Concord a central part of the Lutheran Church?
56e1189acd28a01900c675a2
16th
168
False
What kind of statement is the Book of Concord?
56e1189acd28a01900c675a3
confessional
216
False
What are the legislative systems of various Lutheran institutions called?
56e1189acd28a01900c675a4
canons
460
False
What kind of belief is the subject of the Book of Concord?
56e1189acd28a01900c675a5
orthodox
247
False
Book of Concord
4
What is the fundamental collection of documents of the Catholic Church?
5a21dbd48a6e4f001aa08fa8
True
Book of Concord
4
What book has been recognized as authoritative since the 1600s?
5a21dbd48a6e4f001aa08fa9
True
Book of Concord
4
What book has not Orthodox beliefs?
5a21dbd48a6e4f001aa08faa
True
The Book of Concord is the historic doctrinal statement of the Lutheran Church, consisting of ten credal documents recognized as authoritative in Lutheranism since the 16th century. However, the Book of Concord is a confessional document (stating orthodox belief) rather than a book of ecclesiastical rules or discipline, like canon law. Each Lutheran national church establishes its own system of church order and discipline, though these are referred to as "canons."
Communications_in_Somalia
How many official radio and television networks does the government of Somalia operate?
56e0f1cd231d4119001ac494
two
335
False
Are communication services in Somalia mainly located in the public or private sector?
56e0f1cd231d4119001ac495
private
212
False
As internet access increases, news media and online portals replace what form of media?
56e0f1cd231d4119001ac496
Print media
443
False
What year was the national postal service of Somalia relaunched?
56e0f1cd231d4119001ac497
2013
676
False
In 2012, what act was approved to establish a National Communications regulator?
56e0f1cd231d4119001ac498
National Communications Act
714
False
Are communications services in Somalia mostly concentrated in the public or private sector?
56e10cc5cd28a01900c674cd
private
212
False
Communications in Somalia are mostly concentrated in what sector?
56e1b286cd28a01900c67a7a
private
212
False
How many official rado iand TV networks does the governemt of Somalia run?
56e1b286cd28a01900c67a7b
two
335
False
What type of media decreases and internet connectivity increases?
56e1b286cd28a01900c67a7c
Print media
443
False
What types of media increases as internet connectivity and access increases?
56e1b286cd28a01900c67a7d
radio stations and online portals
511
False
What year is the postal service in Somalia set to relaunch?
56e1b286cd28a01900c67a7e
2013
676
False
two
335
How many private and foreign radio and television networks does the government of Somalia have?
5a54e4f7134fea001a0e1754
True
2013
676
When was the national postal service of Somalia first started?
5a54e4f7134fea001a0e1755
True
internet connectivity and access
549
Why is increasing overseas activities causing print media to decrease?
5a54e4f7134fea001a0e1756
True
Telecommunications, internet, radio, print, television and postal services in the nation are largely concentrated in the private sector.
91
What communication does the public sector concentrate in?
5a54e4f7134fea001a0e1757
True
2012
706
When was the National Communications Act dismantled?
5a54e4f7134fea001a0e1758
True
Communications in Somalia encompasses the communications services and capacity of Somalia. Telecommunications, internet, radio, print, television and postal services in the nation are largely concentrated in the private sector. Several of the telecom firms have begun expanding their activities abroad. The Federal government operates two official radio and television networks, which exist alongside a number of private and foreign stations. Print media in the country is also progressively giving way to news radio stations and online portals, as internet connectivity and access increases. Additionally, the national postal service is slated to be officially relaunched in 2013 after a long absence. In 2012, a National Communications Act was also approved by Cabinet members, which lays the foundation for the establishment of a National Communications regulator in the broadcasting and telecommunications sectors.
Who funded the new telecommunications firms in Somalia?
56e0f607231d4119001ac4e5
Somali entrepreneurs
308
False
China, Korea, and Europe lent what to the creation of the new firms.
56e0f607231d4119001ac4e6
expertise
343
False
What do the new telecommunications firms in Somalia offer that is not available in many other parts of the continent?
56e0f607231d4119001ac4e7
affordable mobile phone and internet services
428
False
Money transfers and wireless internet are two things that customers can now accomplish via what?
56e0f607231d4119001ac4e8
mobile phones
647
False
When the civil war began, many telecomunications companies were created to provide missing what?
56e1b39fcd28a01900c67a84
infrastructure
141
False
telecommunications firms
397
What did Chinese entrepreneurs create?
5a54e6d8134fea001a0e175e
True
new telecommunications companies
42
Before the civil war, what jobs were being created?
5a54e6d8134fea001a0e175f
True
China, Korea and Europe
358
Besides Somalia, what country has the best telecommunications?
5a54e6d8134fea001a0e1760
True
internet services that are not available in many other parts of the continent
456
Why are the Somalian telecommunication companies so expensive?
5a54e6d8134fea001a0e1761
True
Dahabshiil
602
What can customers do with their phones besides money transfers and banking activities?
5a54e6d8134fea001a0e1762
True
After the start of the civil war, various new telecommunications companies began to spring up in the country and competed to provide missing infrastructure. Somalia now offers some of the most technologically advanced and competitively priced telecommunications and internet services in the world. Funded by Somali entrepreneurs and backed by expertise from China, Korea and Europe, these nascent telecommunications firms offer affordable mobile phone and internet services that are not available in many other parts of the continent. Customers can conduct money transfers (such as through the popular Dahabshiil) and other banking activities via mobile phones, as well as easily gain wireless Internet access.
Sprint, ITT, and Telenor are examples of what?
56e1b4f3cd28a01900c67a98
multinational corporations
32
False
Who provides service to every City, town, and hamlet in Somalia?
56e1b4f3cd28a01900c67a99
Somali telecommunication companies
169
False
aproximately how many main lines are there per 1000 people?
56e1b4f3cd28a01900c67a9a
25
296
False
what is another word for availability of telephone lines?
56e1b4f3cd28a01900c67a9b
tele-density
375
False
How much does Hormuud Telecom gross per year?
56e1b4f3cd28a01900c67a9c
$40 million
683
False
Somali telecommunication companies
169
Who offers the most expensive phone calls in Africa?
5a54e7bf134fea001a0e1768
True
$40 million
683
How much does the Somali Telecom Group gross per year?
5a54e7bf134fea001a0e1769
True
Somtel Network, Golis Telecom Group, Hormuud Telecom, Somafone, Nationlink, Netco, Telcom and Somali Telecom Group
531
Which companies agreed to a deal that would limit competition?
5a54e7bf134fea001a0e176a
True
three times greater than in adjacent Ethiopia
430
How much higher is the Somalia teledensity compared to Niger?
5a54e7bf134fea001a0e176b
True
$40 million
683
What percentage of the Somali telecommunications does Hormuud Telecom make up?
5a54e7bf134fea001a0e176c
True
After forming partnerships with multinational corporations such as Sprint, ITT and Telenor, these firms now offer the cheapest and clearest phone calls in Africa. These Somali telecommunication companies also provide services to every city, town and hamlet in Somalia. There are presently around 25 mainlines per 1,000 persons, and the local availability of telephone lines (tele-density) is higher than in neighboring countries; three times greater than in adjacent Ethiopia. Prominent Somali telecommunications companies include Somtel Network, Golis Telecom Group, Hormuud Telecom, Somafone, Nationlink, Netco, Telcom and Somali Telecom Group. Hormuud Telecom alone grosses about $40 million a year. Despite their rivalry, several of these companies signed an interconnectivity deal in 2005 that allows them to set prices, maintain and expand their networks, and ensure that competition does not get out of control.
What year did Dahabhiil acquire the majority of Somtal network?
56e1b646e3433e14004230cc
2008
3
False
Where is Somtal network located?
56e1b646e3433e14004230cd
Hargeisa
73
False
Buying Somtal Network allowed Dahabshiil to expand into what type of banking?
56e1b646e3433e14004230ce
mobile banking
326
False
STC stands for what?
56e1b646e3433e14004230cf
Somali Telecommunication Company
590
False
The STC allows its customers to communicate across how many networks?
56e1b646e3433e14004230d0
three
411
False
Hormuud Telecom, NationLink
454
Who is Dahabshiil Group's partner in the Somtel Network?
5a54f990134fea001a0e178a
True
Hargeisa
73
Who owned the majority of Somtel Network before Dahabshiil?
5a54f990134fea001a0e178b
True
three
694
How many networks do STC customers still not have access to?
5a54f990134fea001a0e178c
True
mobile banking
326
What industry is growing in the national banking sector?
5a54f990134fea001a0e178d
True
2014
395
When will the STC be fully established?
5a54f990134fea001a0e178e
True
In 2008, Dahabshiil Group acquired a majority stake in Somtel Network, a Hargeisa-based telecommunications firm specialising in high speed broadband, mobile internet, LTE services, mobile money transfer and mobile phone services. The acquisition provided Dahabshiil with the necessary platform for a subsequent expansion into mobile banking, a growth industry in the regional banking sector. In 2014, Somalia's three largest telecommunication operators, Hormuud Telecom, NationLink and Somtel, also signed an interconnection agreement. The cooperative deal will see the firms establish the Somali Telecommunication Company (STC), which will allow their mobile clients to communicate across the three networks.
Investing in what Industry is a sign that Somalia's economy is continuing to improve?
56e1b743cd28a01900c67ab6
telecom industry
18
False
What sector provides key communication services?
56e1b743cd28a01900c67ab7
telecom
18
False
facilitates job creation and income generation.
191
Why are local governments investing in telecom?
5a54fadd134fea001a0e179c
True
the clearest signs that Somalia's economy has continued to develop
56
What percentage of Somalia's economy is telecom?
5a54fadd134fea001a0e179d
True
Somalia's economy
80
Which industry in Somalia is not improving?
5a54fadd134fea001a0e179e
True
the telecom industry
14
What are key communication services?
5a54fadd134fea001a0e179f
True
Investment in the telecom industry is held to be one of the clearest signs that Somalia's economy has continued to develop. The sector provides key communication services, and in the process facilitates job creation and income generation.
What year was the national Communications act enacted?
56e1b8adcd28a01900c67ac6
2012
13
False
What Act clears the way for a National Communications Regulator?
56e1b8adcd28a01900c67ac7
the National Communications Act
59
False
What types of stakeholders consulted on the bill to enact the National Communications Act?
56e1b8adcd28a01900c67ac8
academic and civil society
324
False
The National Communications Act is expected to create and invironment favorable for what?
56e1b8adcd28a01900c67ac9
investment
494
False
Continued infrastructure development results in more efficient what?
56e1b8adcd28a01900c67aca
service delivery
615
False
unanimously
38
How many people approved the National Communications Act?
5a54fc09134fea001a0e17a4
True
2012
13
When will the National Communications Regulator be put into place?
5a54fc09134fea001a0e17a5
True
broadcasting and telecommunications sectors
180
What sectors are unaffected by this act?
5a54fc09134fea001a0e17a6
True
academic and civil society
324
Which stakeholders were not consulted?
5a54fc09134fea001a0e17a7
True
government representatives and communications, academic and civil society stakeholders
277
Who is the Somali Cabinet made up of?
5a54fc09134fea001a0e17a8
True
On March 22, 2012, the Somali Cabinet unanimously approved the National Communications Act, which paves the way for the establishment of a National Communications regulator in the broadcasting and telecommunications sectors. The bill was passed following consultations between government representatives and communications, academic and civil society stakeholders. According to the Ministry of Information, Posts and Telecommunication, the Act is expected to create an environment conducive to investment and the certainty it provides will encourage further infrastructural development, resulting in more efficient service delivery.
What is the name of the Somali postal service?
56e1b959cd28a01900c67ad0
Somali Post
4
False
What is the name of the National postal service of Somalia?
56e1b959cd28a01900c67ad1
Somali Post
4
False
Somali Post
27
Who is the local postal service?
5a54fd87134fea001a0e17ae
True
The Somali Postal Service
0
Who runs the Ministry of Information?
5a54fd87134fea001a0e17af
True
The Somali Postal Service
0
What is the post service of the Federal Government of Niger?
5a54fd87134fea001a0e17b0
True
Somali Post
27
How many parts of the Ministry of Information, Posts, and Telecommunication are there?
5a54fd87134fea001a0e17b1
True
The Somali Postal Service (Somali Post) is the national postal service of the Federal Government of Somalia. It is part of the Ministry of Information, Posts and Telecommunication.
When was the infrastructure of the postal service destroyed?
56e1ba62cd28a01900c67aea
during the civil war
60
False
What airport is home to the Emirates post mail hub?
56e1ba62cd28a01900c67aed
Dubai International
273
False
Dubai International Airport
273
What Airport delivered the mail before 2003?
5a54fea0134fea001a0e17b6
True
Italy, the Netherlands, the United Kingdom, Sweden, Switzerland and Canada
399
Which Western country did Somalia partner with?
5a54fea0134fea001a0e17b7
True
United Arab Emirates
160
What country did the Somali Post parner with before the civil war?
5a54fea0134fea001a0e17b8
True
The national postal infrastructure was completely destroyed during the civil war
0
Why did Somalia Post partner with Western Countries?
5a54fea0134fea001a0e17b9
True
Dubai International Airport
273
Where is the Somalia Post mail transit Hub?
5a54fea0134fea001a0e17ba
True
The national postal infrastructure was completely destroyed during the civil war. In order to fill the vacuum, Somali Post signed an agreement in 2003 with the United Arab Emirates' Emirates Post to process mail to and from Somalia. Emirates Post's mail transit hub at the Dubai International Airport was then used to forward mail from Somalia to the UAE and various Western destinations, including Italy, the Netherlands, the United Kingdom, Sweden, Switzerland and Canada.
How many phases made up the reconstruction plan for the Somali Post?
56e1bbb8cd28a01900c67af2
three
195
False
Over what period of time did the reconstruction plan for the Somali Post cover?
56e1bbb8cd28a01900c67af3
ten years
236
False
How many branch offices will be constructed in the capital in phase one of the reconstruction plan?
56e1bbb8cd28a01900c67af4
16
373
False
How many branch offices will be creted in general bases?
56e1bbb8cd28a01900c67af5
17
410
False
What year did Somali authorities rejoin the Universal Postal Union?
56e1bbb8cd28a01900c67af6
2012
444
False
2012
444
When did Somalia first join the UPU?
5a54ff94134fea001a0e17c0
True
ten years
236
How many years will the first phase take?
5a54ff94134fea001a0e17c1
True
718 postal outlets
817
How many branches will Somalia construct in Phase II?
5a54ff94134fea001a0e17c2
True
March 2012
438
How long will it take to rebuild the GPO?
5a54ff94134fea001a0e17c3
True
2014
841
When was the GPO in Mogadishu rebuilt?
5a54ff94134fea001a0e17c4
True
Concurrently, the Somali Transitional Federal Government began preparations to revive the national postal service. The government's overall reconstruction plan for Somali Post is structured into three Phases spread out over a period of ten years. Phase I will see the reconstruction of the postal headquarters and General Post Office (GPO), as well as the establishment of 16 branch offices in the capital and 17 in regional bases. As of March 2012, the Somali authorities have re-established Somalia's membership with the Universal Postal Union (UPU), and taken part once again in the Union's affairs. They have also rehabilitated the GPO in Mogadishu, and appointed an official Postal Consultant to provide professional advice on the renovations. Phase II of the rehabilitation project involves the construction of 718 postal outlets from 2014 to 2016. Phase III is slated to begin in 2017, with the objective of creating 897 postal outlets by 2022.
What year did postal service in Somalia resume?
56e1bc7ae3433e140042310e
2013
14
False
Who is helping the Somali Postal service reach its capacity?
56e1bc7ae3433e140042310f
Universal Postal Union
86
False
What type of assistance does the postal union provide?
56e1bc7ae3433e1400423110
technical
197
False
What type of equipment does the postal union provide?
56e1bc7ae3433e1400423111
basic mail processing equipment
222
False
2013
14
When was the Somalia Postal Service first created?
5a550073134fea001a0e17ca
True
The Universal Postal Union
82
Who is the Somali Postal Service helping?
5a550073134fea001a0e17cb
True
basic mail processing equipment.
222
What type of equipment did Somalia already have?
5a550073134fea001a0e17cc
True
2013
14
When did Somalia's national postal service restart?
5a550073134fea001a0e17cd
True
Somalia
54
Where is the Universal Postal Union located?
5a550073134fea001a0e17ce
True
On 1 November 2013, international postal services for Somalia officially resumed. The Universal Postal Union is now assisting the Somali Postal Service to develop its capacity, including providing technical assistance and basic mail processing equipment.
When was Radio Mogadishu established?
56e1be09cd28a01900c67b04
during the colonial period
72
False
What languages di Radio Mogadishu originally broadcast in?
56e1be09cd28a01900c67b05
Somali and Italian
155
False
What countrys assistance helped Radio Mogadishu modernize?
56e1be09cd28a01900c67b06
Russian assistance
207
False
What type of services were offered in Somali, Amharic, and Oromo?
56e1be09cd28a01900c67b07
home service
277
False
1960
252
When was the colonial period?
5a550413134fea001a0e17dc
True
Russian assistance
207
Who originally opened Radio Mogadishu?
5a550413134fea001a0e17dd
True
early 1990s
357
When was the Transitional National Government in power?
5a550413134fea001a0e17de
True
There are a number of radio news agencies
0
What is the total number of internet news located in Somalia?
5a550413134fea001a0e17df
True
1960
252
When did Radio Mogadishu begin broadcasting in Italian again?
5a550413134fea001a0e17e0
True
There are a number of radio news agencies based in Somalia. Established during the colonial period, Radio Mogadishu initially broadcast news items in both Somali and Italian. The station was modernized with Russian assistance following independence in 1960, and began offering home service in Somali, Amharic and Oromo. After closing down operations in the early 1990s due to the civil war, the station was officially re-opened in the early 2000s by the Transitional National Government. In the late 2000s, Radio Mogadishu also launched a complementary website of the same name, with news items in Somali, Arabic and English.
Mustaqbal Media Corporation is based where?
56e1bf20e3433e1400423120
Mogadishu
30
False
In what year was Shabelle Media network awarded the media of the year prize?
56e1bf20e3433e1400423121
2010
135
False
How many short wave radio stations broadcast from the capital?
56e1bf20e3433e1400423124
one
269
False
Shabelle Media Network
84
Who won the 2009 award for Media of the Year?
5a5504a0134fea001a0e17e6
True
ten
288
How many FM radio stations broadcast in the central region?
5a5504a0134fea001a0e17e7
True
Media of the Year
152
What prize did RSF win?
5a5504a0134fea001a0e17e8
True
2010
135
When did the short-wave and FM radio stations begin broadcasting?
5a5504a0134fea001a0e17e9
True
Mustaqbal Media corporation and the Shabelle Media Network
48
Which two short-wave stations broadcast from the capital?
5a5504a0134fea001a0e17ea
True
Other radio stations based in Mogadishu include Mustaqbal Media corporation and the Shabelle Media Network, the latter of which was in 2010 awarded the Media of the Year prize by the Paris-based journalism organisation, Reporters Without Borders (RSF). In total, about one short-wave and ten private FM radio stations broadcast from the capital, with several radio stations broadcasting from the central and southern regions.
About how many private radio stations does the region of Puntland have?
56e1c042cd28a01900c67b22
six
44
False
What is the former name of Radio Gaalkacyo?
56e1c042cd28a01900c67b23
Radio Free Somalia
188
False
Where does RAdio Gaalkacyo operate from?
56e1c042cd28a01900c67b24
Galkayo
222
False
What province is Galkayo located in?
56e1c042cd28a01900c67b25
Mudug province
251
False
How many government operated radio stations exist in the Somaliland region?
56e1c042cd28a01900c67b26
one
324
False
six
44
How many radio stations does the southeastern region have?
5a5505bb134fea001a0e1802
True
Radio Gaalkacyo,
153
What is the name of the government-operated radio station?
5a5505bb134fea001a0e1803
True
six private radio stations
44
How many public radio stations does northeast Puntland have?
5a5505bb134fea001a0e1804
True
formerly known as Radio Free Somalia
170
When did Radio Gaalkacyo receive its new name?
5a5505bb134fea001a0e1805
True
one government-operated radio station
324
How many government radio stations does Puntland have?
5a5505bb134fea001a0e1806
True
The northeastern Puntland region has around six private radio stations, including Radio Garowe, Radio Daljir, Radio Codka-Nabbada and Radio Codka-Mudug. Radio Gaalkacyo, formerly known as Radio Free Somalia, operates from Galkayo in the north-central Mudug province. Additionally, the Somaliland region in the northwest has one government-operated radio station.
What TV station is the main public service broadcaster in Somalia?
56e1c12fe3433e140042312a
Somali National Television
20
False
Where is Somali National Television located?
56e1c12fe3433e140042312b
Mogadishu
4
False
What year did experimental broadcasts of Somali National Television begin?
56e1c12fe3433e140042312c
2011
114
False
When was Somali Nation Television officially re-launched?
56e1c12fe3433e140042312d
April 4, 2011
325
False
Howmany hours a day does SNTV broadcast?
56e1c12fe3433e140042312e
24
356
False
Somali National Television
20
What is Somalia's main international broadcaster?
5a550cc6134fea001a0e1860
True
After a 20-year hiatus
240
When was the Somali National Television station first launched?
5a550cc6134fea001a0e1861
True
Somali National Television
20
How many national public service broadcasters does Somalia have?
5a550cc6134fea001a0e1862
True
24 hours a day
356
How many days a week does SNTV broadcast?
5a550cc6134fea001a0e1863
True
20-year
248
How long has SNTV been broadcasting?
5a550cc6134fea001a0e1864
True
The Mogadishu-based Somali National Television is the principal national public service broadcaster. On March 18, 2011, the Ministry of Information of the Transitional Federal Government began experimental broadcasts of the new TV channel. After a 20-year hiatus, the station was shortly thereafter officially re-launched on April 4, 2011. SNTV broadcasts 24 hours a day, and can be viewed both within Somalia and abroad via terrestrial and satellite platforms.
Horn Cable Television and Universal TV are examples of what?
56e1c227cd28a01900c67b32
private television networks
34
False
What type of Tv startions replay AL=jazeera and CNN?
56e1c227cd28a01900c67b33
private television networks
34
False
Where does SBC TV broadcast from?
56e1c227cd28a01900c67b34
Bosaso
214
False
What is the commercial capital of Puntland?
56e1c227cd28a01900c67b35
Bosaso
214
False
Howmany governemnt run channels do Puntland and Somaliland regions have?
56e1c227cd28a01900c67b36
one
309
False
Two
113
How many private television networks does Somalia have?
5a550d72134fea001a0e186a
True
Horn Cable Television and Universal TV
73
What are two public television networks?
5a550d72134fea001a0e186b
True
Bosaso
214
What is the commercial capital of Somalilnand?
5a550d72134fea001a0e186c
True
one
309
How many government-run TV channels are there in Somalia?
5a550d72134fea001a0e186d
True
private television networks
34
What TV station broadcasts ABC?
5a550d72134fea001a0e186e
True
Additionally, Somalia has several private television networks, including Horn Cable Television and Universal TV. Two such TV stations re-broadcast Al-Jazeera and CNN. Eastern Television Network and SBC TV air from Bosaso, the commercial capital of Puntland. The Puntland and Somaliland regions also each have one government-run TV channel, Puntland TV and Radio and Somaliland National TV, respectively.
Where was The Mogadishu Times published?
56e1c348cd28a01900c67b3d
Mogadishu
110
False
What year did free media outlets begin to expand?
56e1c348cd28a01900c67b3e
2003
323
False
Advertisers switched from print ads to what to reach more customers?
56e1c348cd28a01900c67b3f
radio and online commercials
454
False
Whos is a former editor with The Delka Broadsheet?
56e1c348cd28a01900c67b40
Issa Farah
839
False
2003
323
When is the National Somali Printing Press being reopened?
5a550e5e134fea001a0e1874
True
Around 50
71
How many newspapers were published in Somalia?
5a550e5e134fea001a0e1875
True
adequate public support
1038
Why did advertisers prefer print ads?
5a550e5e134fea001a0e1876
True
2012
694
When did Xog Doon shut down?
5a550e5e134fea001a0e1877
True
2012
694
When did Issa Farah stop working for Dalka?
5a550e5e134fea001a0e1878
True
In the early 2000s, print media in Somalia reached a peak in activity. Around 50 newspapers were published in Mogadishu alone during this period, including Qaran, Mogadishu Times, Sana'a, Shabelle Press, Ayaamaha, Mandeeq, Sky Sport, Goal, The Nation, Dalka, Panorama, Aayaha Nolosha, Codka Xuriyada and Xidigta Maanta. In 2003, as new free electronic media outlets started to proliferate, advertisers increasingly began switching over from print ads to radio and online commercials in order to reach more customers. A number of the broadsheets in circulation subsequently closed down operations, as they were no longer able to cover printing costs in the face of the electronic revolution. In 2012, the political Xog Doon and Xog Ogaal and Horyaal Sports were reportedly the last remaining newspapers printed in the capital. According to Issa Farah, a former editor with the Dalka broadsheet, newspaper publishing in Somalia is likely to experience a resurgence if the National Somali Printing Press is re-opened and the sector is given adequate public support.
What is the IST?
56e1c422cd28a01900c67b51
Information Support Team
89
False
As of December 2012, Somalia did not have systematic what?
56e1c422cd28a01900c67b52
internet blocking or filtering
151
False
What internet standards were also unlear as of December, 2012?
56e1c422cd28a01900c67b53
content standards online
222
False
December 2012
188
When did Somalia begin internet filtering?
5a550f01134fea001a0e1888
True
Centre for Law and Democracy (CLD) and the African Union/United Nations Information Support Team (IST)
17
Who wrote Somalia's content standards?
5a550f01134fea001a0e1889
True
systemic
142
What type of internet blocking did Somalia use?
5a550f01134fea001a0e188a
True
December 2012
188
When did the IST apply content standards to Somalia?
5a550f01134fea001a0e188b
True
2012
197
When did Somalia stop filtering the internet?
5a550f01134fea001a0e188c
True
According to the Centre for Law and Democracy (CLD) and the African Union/United Nations Information Support Team (IST), Somalia did not have systemic internet blocking or filtering as of December 2012. The application of content standards online was also unclear.
What years was the first ISP established in Somalia?
56e1c51ccd28a01900c67b58
1999
37
False
Somalia was one of the last countries on what continent to get connected tothe internet?
56e1c51ccd28a01900c67b59
Africa
72
False
In 2009, what percent of Somalia has internet coverage?
56e1c51ccd28a01900c67b5a
53%
252
False
The quickest growing local businesses in Somalia are what types of businesses?
56e1c51ccd28a01900c67b5b
internet commerce and telephony
302
False
Somalia
0
Who was the first African country to get internet?
5a550f98134fea001a0e1892
True
2009
291
What year did Somalia reach 70% internet coverage?
5a550f98134fea001a0e1893
True
Balancing Act
158
Which act brought the first ISP to Africa?
5a550f98134fea001a0e1894
True
53%
252
What percentage of Somalia's capital has internet connection?
5a550f98134fea001a0e1895
True
internet commerce and telephony
302
What is Somalia's largest national business?
5a550f98134fea001a0e1896
True
Somalia established its first ISP in 1999, one of the last countries in Africa to get connected to the Internet. According to the telecommunications resource Balancing Act, growth in internet connectivity has since then grown considerably, with around 53% of the entire nation covered as of 2009. Both internet commerce and telephony have consequently become among the quickest growing local businesses.
What was the numbe rof Somali internet users in the year 2000?
56e1c5f1cd28a01900c67b60
200
95
False
What was the number of internet users in the year 2011?
56e1c5f1cd28a01900c67b61
106,000
119
False
Goes the number of internet users in Somalia continue to rise or fall?
56e1c5f1cd28a01900c67b62
rise
176
False
What was the number of mobile subscribers in Somalia in 2008?
56e1c5f1cd28a01900c67b63
512,682
250
False
What is the estimated number of mobile subscribers in Somalia in 2015?
56e1c5f1cd28a01900c67b64
6.1 million
276
False
2008
261
In what year did Somalia first reach 50,000 internet users?
5a5510d2134fea001a0e18b8
True
Somali Economic Forum
17
Who is responsible for the rise in internet users?
5a5510d2134fea001a0e18b9
True
2000
111
When did Somalia first get the internet?
5a5510d2134fea001a0e18ba
True
the percentage continuing to rise.
147
Why is the number of mobile subscribers rising faster than the number of internet connected users?
5a5510d2134fea001a0e18bb
True
106,000
119
How many mobile users were there in 2011?
5a5510d2134fea001a0e18bc
True
According to the Somali Economic Forum, the number of internet users in Somalia rose from only 200 in the year 2000 to 106,000 users in 2011, with the percentage continuing to rise. The number of mobile subscribers is similarly expected to rise from 512,682 in 2008 to around 6.1 million by 2015.
What is the STA?
56e1c6d5cd28a01900c67b6a
Somali Telecommunication Association
4
False
What sector does the STC oversee?
56e1c6d5cd28a01900c67b6b
ICT sector
147
False
In 2006, who reported that there were over half a million internet users within the territory?
56e1c6d5cd28a01900c67b6c
STA
42
False
How many established ISP were within the territory in 2006?
56e1c6d5cd28a01900c67b6d
22
277
False
How many cyber cafes were withing the territory in 2006?
56e1c6d5cd28a01900c67b6e
234
301
False
22
277
How many non-established ISPs were in Somalia in 2006?
5a5515e0134fea001a0e18f4
True
234
301
How many restaurants had internet connectivity?
5a5515e0134fea001a0e18f5
True
2006
171
When was STA founded?
5a5515e0134fea001a0e18f6
True
Somali Telecommunication Association
4
What is the ICT?
5a5515e0134fea001a0e18f7
True
15.6%
348
What percentage of the population had internet services?
5a5515e0134fea001a0e18f8
True
The Somali Telecommunication Association (STA), a watchdog organization that oversees the policy development and regulatory framework of Somalia's ICT sector, reported in 2006 that there were over half a million users of internet services within the territory. There were also 22 established ISPs and 234 cyber cafes, with an annual growth rate of 15.6%.
As of what year were dial up, wireless , and satellite services available?
56e1c861cd28a01900c67b7a
2009
6
False
What was the landline growth rate of Somalia in 2009?
56e1c861cd28a01900c67b7b
12.5%
199
False
What was the flat rate per month for unlimited landline calls in Somalia in the year 2009?
56e1c861cd28a01900c67b7c
$10 per month
377
False
What was Somalias largest ISP in 2009?
56e1c861cd28a01900c67b7d
Global Internet Company
510
False
Who was the only provider of dial up service in Somalias SouthCentral regions in 2009?
56e1c861cd28a01900c67b7e
Global Internet Company
510
False
Global Internet Company
510
Who was the first ISP provider in Somalia?
5a551746134fea001a0e1908
True
growth rate of over 12.5%
179
How quickly is the wireless service growing in Somalia?
5a551746134fea001a0e1909
True
Hormuud Telecom, Telcom Somalia and Nationlink
603
Which Somali telecom operators designed the policies responsible for dial up's growth?
5a551746134fea001a0e190a
True
Golis Telecom Somalia
931
What is Somalia's second largest ISP?
5a551746134fea001a0e190b
True
$10 per month
377
How much did telecom operators charge for text messaging?
5a551746134fea001a0e190c
True
As of 2009, dial up, wireless and satellite services were available. Dial up internet services in Somalia were among the fastest growing on the continent, with an annual landline growth rate of over 12.5%. The increase in usage was largely due to innovative policy initiatives adopted by the various Somali telecom operators, including free local in-town calls, a flat rate of $10 per month for unlimited calls, a low charge of $0.005 per minute for Internet connections, and a one-time connection fee of $50. Global Internet Company, a firm jointly owned by the major Somali telecommunication networks Hormuud Telecom, Telcom Somalia and Nationlink, was the country's largest ISP. It was at the time the only provider of dial up services in Somalia's south-central regions. In the northern Puntland and Somaliland regions, online networks offered internet dial up services to their own group of subscribers. Among these firms was Golis Telecom Somalia in the northeast and Telesom in the northwest.
Mogadishu and Bosaso are what in Somalia?
56e1c9a9cd28a01900c67b84
major cities
81
False
What city in Soalia has the largest nuber of subscribers?
56e1c9a9cd28a01900c67b86
Mogadishu
103
False
Where was the headquarters of the largest wireless internet services?
56e1c9a9cd28a01900c67b87
Mogadishu
103
False
What is another name for Dalcom?
56e1c9a9cd28a01900c67b88
Wanaag HK
548
False
dial up and non-dial up
49
What wireless services were offered to cities on the outskirts?
5a5518a4134fea001a0e1912
True
$150 to $300
173
What was the price for limited internet access?
5a5518a4134fea001a0e1913
True
the biggest subscriber base nationwide
411
How many subscribers did Mogadishu have locally?
5a5518a4134fea001a0e1914
True
Dalkom (Wanaag HK), Orbit, Unitel and Webtel
540
How many wireless internet services did Mogadishu headquarter?
5a5518a4134fea001a0e1915
True
scholastic institutions, corporations, and UN, NGO and diplomatic missions
321
Who did not use the wireless services?
5a5518a4134fea001a0e1916
True
Broadband wireless services were offered by both dial up and non-dial up ISPs in major cities, such as Mogadishu, Bosaso, Hargeisa, Galkayo and Kismayo. Pricing ranged from $150 to $300 a month for unlimited internet access, with bandwidth rates of 64 kbit/s up and down. The main patrons of these wireless services were scholastic institutions, corporations, and UN, NGO and diplomatic missions. Mogadishu had the biggest subscriber base nationwide and was also the headquarters of the largest wireless internet services, among which were Dalkom (Wanaag HK), Orbit, Unitel and Webtel.
What wsas the satellite internet growth rate as of 2009?
56e1cb2fcd28a01900c67ba2
10% to 15% per year
63
False
Dalkom Somalia provided internet over what?
56e1cb2fcd28a01900c67ba3
satellite
25
False
Who were one of the main clients of the local satellite service providers?
56e1cb2fcd28a01900c67ba5
internet cafes
662
False
As broadband access rose, what happened to the demand for satellite services?
56e1cb2fcd28a01900c67ba6
gradually began to fall
941
False
Dalkom Somalia
228
Who provided broadband wireless access?
5a551bb5134fea001a0e1930
True
$2,500 to $3,000 per month
526
What did national bandwidth providers cost?
5a551bb5134fea001a0e1931
True
300
798
How many terminals linked to North America?
5a551bb5134fea001a0e1932
True
300
798
How many teleports were there in Europe and Asia?
5a551bb5134fea001a0e1933
True
2009
6
When did Dalkom Somalia begin providing internet over satellite?
5a551bb5134fea001a0e1934
True
As of 2009, Internet via satellite had a steady growth rate of 10% to 15% per year. It was particularly in demand in remote areas that did not have either dialup or wireless online services. The local telecommunications company Dalkom Somalia provided internet over satellite, as well as premium routes for media operators and content providers, and international voice gateway services for global carriers. It also offered inexpensive bandwidth through its internet backbone, whereas bandwidth ordinarily cost customers from $2,500 to $3,000 per month through the major international bandwidth providers. The main clients of these local satellite services were internet cafes, money transfer firms and other companies, as well as international community representatives. In total, there were over 300 local satellite terminals available aross the nation, which were linked to teleports in Europe and Asia. Demand for the satellite services gradually began to fall as broadband wireless access rose. However, it increased in rural areas, as the main client base for the satellite services extended their operations into more remote locales.
Hormuud Telecom launched what service in 2012?
56e1cc2fcd28a01900c67bb6
Tri-Band 3G
47
False
Who was the 3G service for?
56e1cc2fcd28a01900c67bb7
internet and mobile clients
71
False
what type of connection was the first of its kind in Somalia?
56e1cc2fcd28a01900c67bb8
Tri-Band 3G
47
False
What type of connection does Tri-Band 3G offer its customers?
56e1cc2fcd28a01900c67bb9
faster and more secure
212
False
what does 3G stand for?
56e1cc2fcd28a01900c67bba
third generation
143
False
2012
12
When was the first generation mobile telecommunications released?
5a551d22134fea001a0e193a
True
Tri-Band 3G
47
What was Somalia's first mobile service?
5a551d22134fea001a0e193b
True
third generation
143
What does Tri-Band stand for?
5a551d22134fea001a0e193c
True
2012
12
When was Hormuud Telecom founded?
5a551d22134fea001a0e193d
True
internet and mobile clients
71
Who owns Hormuud Telecom?
5a551d22134fea001a0e193e
True
In December 2012, Hormuud Telecom launched its Tri-Band 3G service for internet and mobile clients. The first of its kind in the country, this third generation mobile telecommunications technology offers users a faster and more secure connection.
What year did Somalia receive its first fiber optic connection?
56e1ce38e3433e14004231ae
2013
12
False
in 2013, an agreement between Hormuud Telecom and Liquid Telecom provided residents access to what type of cable provider?
56e1ce38e3433e14004231af
broadband
228
False
How many miles long is Liquid Telecoms Network?
56e1ce38e3433e14004231b0
10,500 mile
407
False
How will the fiber optic connection impact the price for online access for the average user?
56e1ce38e3433e14004231b1
more affordable
552
False
Where is Dalcom Somalia currently building a 1000 square mile data center?
56e1ce38e3433e14004231b2
Mogadishu
1166
False
2013
12
When did Somalia first get internet?
5a551e9d134fea001a0e1958
True
17,000 km (10,500 mile)
396
How long is Hormuud's cable network?
5a551e9d134fea001a0e1959
True
West Indian Ocean Cable Company
716
What does the EASSy cable stand for?
5a551e9d134fea001a0e195a
True
2014
818
When did Dalkom Somalia and WIOCC begin talks for their deal?
5a551e9d134fea001a0e195b
True
Mogadishu
1166
Where is Hormuud Telecom building a 1000 square mile data center?
5a551e9d134fea001a0e195c
True
In November 2013, Somalia received its first fiber optic connection. The country previously had to rely on expensive satellite links due to the civil conflict, which limited internet usage. However, residents now have access to broadband internet cable for the first time after an agreement reached between Hormuud Telecom and Liquid Telecom. The deal will see Liquid Telecom link Hormuud to its 17,000 km (10,500 mile) network of terrestrial cables, which will deliver faster internet capacity. The fiber optic connection will also make online access more affordable to the average user. This in turn is expected to further increase the number of internet users. Dalkom Somalia reached a similar agreement with the West Indian Ocean Cable Company (WIOCC) Ltd, which it holds shares in. Effective the first quarter of 2014, the deal will establish fiber optic connectivity to and from Somalia via the EASSy cable. The new services are expected to reduce the cost of international bandwidth and to better optimize performance, thereby further broadening internet access. Dalkom Somalia is concurrently constructing a 1,000 square mile state-of-the-art data center in Mogadishu. The site will facilitate direct connection into the international fiber optic network by hosting equipment for all of the capital's ISPs and telecommunication companies.
Catalan_language
What place is Catalan named for?
56e10842cd28a01900c6747d
Catalonia
108
False
What type of language is Catalan?
56e10842cd28a01900c6747e
Romance language
66
False
What is Catalan called in Valencia?
56e10842cd28a01900c6747f
Valencian
384
False
Where is Catalan the only official language?
56e10842cd28a01900c67481
Andorra
229
False
Catalan (/ˈkætəlæn/; autonym: català [kətəˈla] or [kataˈla]) is a Romance language named for its origins in Catalonia, in what is northeastern Spain and adjoining parts of France. It is the national and only official language of Andorra, and a co-official language of the Spanish autonomous communities of Catalonia, the Balearic Islands, and Valencia (where the language is known as Valencian, and there exist regional standards). It also has semi-official status in the city of Alghero on the Italian island of Sardinia. It is also spoken with no official recognition in parts of the Spanish autonomous communities of Aragon (La Franja) and Murcia (Carche), and in the historic French region of Roussillon/Northern Catalonia, roughly equivalent to the department of Pyrénées-Orientales.
What is the second most often spoken language is Catalonia?
56e109ffe3433e1400422b18
Catalan
64
False
What is the most used language in Catalonia?
56e109ffe3433e1400422b19
Spanish
134
False
What is the type designation of Catalan in Catalonia?
56e109ffe3433e1400422b1a
native
148
False
What group spends money to promote the language?
56e109ffe3433e1400422b1b
The Generalitat of Catalunya
182
False
What language is promoted in Catalonia?
56e109ffe3433e1400422b1c
Catalan
64
False
According to the Statistical Institute of Catalonia in 2008 the Catalan language is the second most commonly used in Catalonia, after Spanish, as a native or self-defining language. The Generalitat of Catalunya spends part of its annual budget on the promotion of the use of Catalan in Catalonia and in other territories.
From what language did Catalan come?
56e10bc0e3433e1400422b2c
Vulgar Latin
21
False
In what area did Catalan develop?
56e10bc0e3433e1400422b2d
eastern Pyrenees
45
False
When did Catalan develop in the Eastern Pyrenees?
56e10bc0e3433e1400422b2e
9th century
69
False
When was Catalan's Golden Age as a dominant language?
56e10bc0e3433e1400422b2f
Low Middle Ages
93
False
What year started the decline of Catalan as a main language?
56e10bc0e3433e1400422b30
1479
298
False
Catalan evolved from Vulgar Latin around the eastern Pyrenees in the 9th century. During the Low Middle Ages it saw a golden age as the literary and dominant language of the Crown of Aragon, and was widely used all over the Mediterranean. The union of Aragon with the other territories of Spain in 1479 marked the start of the decline of the language. In 1659 Spain ceded Northern Catalonia to France, and Catalan was banned in both states in the early 18th century. 19th-century Spain saw a Catalan literary revival, which culminated in the 1913 orthographic standardization, and the officialization of the language during the Second Spanish Republic (1931–39). However, the Francoist dictatorship (1939–75) banned the language again.
What happened in 1975-1982?
56e10e25e3433e1400422b53
Spanish transition to democracy
10
False
What has this official language state done for Catalan?
56e10e25e3433e1400422b54
increased prestige
196
False
Where is there nothing like this non-state speech community?
56e10e25e3433e1400422b55
Europe
240
False
Besides being the official language and language of education, what other group uses Catalan?
56e10e25e3433e1400422b56
mass media
147
False
Since the Spanish transition to democracy (1975–1982), Catalan has been recognized as an official language, language of education, and language of mass media, all of which have contributed to its increased prestige. There is no parallel in Europe of such a large, bilingual, non-state speech community.
What is the division of Catalan dialects?
56e1108acd28a01900c67527
Eastern and Western
106
False
What is the basic difference between the dialects?
56e1108acd28a01900c67528
pronunciation
147
False
What is the differenctiation between Catalan and Valencian?
56e1108acd28a01900c67529
different varieties
267
False
What are Catalan and Valencian assumed to be?
56e1108acd28a01900c6752a
the same language
290
False
What are Catalan and Valencian considered to be in the language?
56e1108acd28a01900c6752b
two standard varieties
351
False
Catalan dialects are relatively uniform, and are mutually intelligible. They are divided into two blocks, Eastern and Western, differing mostly in pronunciation. The terms "Catalan" and "Valencian" (respectively used in Catalonia and the Valencian Community) are two different varieties of the same language. There are two institutions regulating the two standard varieties, the Institute of Catalan Studies in Catalonia and the Valencian Academy of the Language in Valencia.
What does Catalan have in common with other Romance languages in the same area?
56e11322cd28a01900c6755f
many traits
15
False
Where is Catalonia located?
56e11322cd28a01900c67560
Iberian Peninsula
113
False
What other Iberian Romance languages are found in this area?
56e11322cd28a01900c67561
Spanish and Portuguese
183
False
Besides vocabulary and grammar, what other diffinence is there from other similar area languages?
56e11322cd28a01900c67562
pronunciation
231
False
What are these similar Latin derived languages called?
56e11322cd28a01900c67563
Gallo-Romance
268
False
Catalan shares many traits with its neighboring Romance languages. However, despite being mostly situated in the Iberian Peninsula, Catalan differs more from Iberian Romance (such as Spanish and Portuguese) in terms of vocabulary, pronunciation, and grammar than from Gallo-Romance (Occitan, French, Gallo-Italic languages, etc.). These similarities are most notable with Occitan.
How many genders does Catalan have?
56e114eccd28a01900c6756f
two
42
False
What numbers does Catalan have?
56e114eccd28a01900c67570
singular, plural
94
False
What style of grammar does Catalan have?
56e114eccd28a01900c67571
inflectional
15
False
What is used in Catalan as word endings that is different from other similar Romance languages?
56e114eccd28a01900c67573
consonants
420
False
Catalan has an inflectional grammar, with two genders (masculine, feminine), and two numbers (singular, plural). Pronouns are also inflected for case, animacy[citation needed] and politeness, and can be combined in very complex ways. Verbs are split in several paradigms and are inflected for person, number, tense, aspect, mood, and gender. In terms of pronunciation, Catalan has many words ending in a wide variety of consonants and some consonant clusters, in contrast with many other Romance languages.
What is Catalan the derivitive of?
56e11684cd28a01900c67583
Catalonia
350
False
What is the Latin for Calalunya?
56e11684cd28a01900c67584
Gathia Launia
135
False
Where did the Catalan  people originate?
56e11684cd28a01900c67586
March of Gothia
289
False
What is the root word from which Catalonia comes?
56e11684cd28a01900c67587
Gothia
172
False
The word Catalan derives from the territory of Catalonia, itself of disputed etymology. The main theory suggests that Catalunya (Latin Gathia Launia) derives from the name Gothia or Gauthia ("Land of the Goths"), since the origins of the Catalan counts, lords and people were found in the March of Gothia, whence Gothland > Gothlandia > Gothalania > Catalonia theoretically derived.
When did the reference Catelaner first appear?
56e11807cd28a01900c6758d
mid 14th century
64
False
What is a Catalan person called in the 15th century?
56e11807cd28a01900c6758e
Catellain
127
False
What language is the source of the term Catellain?
56e11807cd28a01900c6758f
French
143
False
What is the language source of the term Catelaner?
56e11807cd28a01900c67590
English
3
False
Since what year has this term been used?
56e11807cd28a01900c67591
1652
198
False
In English, the term referring to a person first appears in the mid 14th century as Catelaner, followed in the 15th century as Catellain (from French). It is attested a language name since at least 1652. Catalan can be pronounced as /ˈkætəlæn/, /kætəˈlæn/ or /ˈkætələn/.
Where is Valencia used instead of Catalan?
56e11a70cd28a01900c675bd
Valencian Community
117
False
What are Catalan and Valencian the names for?
56e11a70cd28a01900c675be
the same language
254
False
What affect does  different pronunciations in the two areas of Catalan speakers produce?
56e11a70cd28a01900c675c1
dialects
60
False
The endonym is pronounced /kə.təˈɫa/ in the Eastern Catalan dialects, and /ka.taˈɫa/ in the Western dialects. In the Valencian Community, the term valencià (/va.len.siˈa/) is frequently used instead. The names "Catalan" and "Valencian" are two names for the same language. See also status of Valencian below.
What language did Catalan descend from?
56e129a7cd28a01900c6766f
Vulgar Latin
45
False
When had Catalan covered the eastern end of the Pyrenees?
56e129a7cd28a01900c67670
9th century
7
False
Besides the Pyrenees, what area had Catalan covered by the 9th century?
56e129a7cd28a01900c67671
Hispania Tarraconensis
160
False
Who broadened their territory and the use of Catalan in the 8th century?
56e129a7cd28a01900c67672
Catalan counts
230
False
When did the County of Barcelona separate from the Carolengian Empire?
56e129a7cd28a01900c67673
988
481
False
By the 9th century, Catalan had evolved from Vulgar Latin on both sides of the eastern end of the Pyrenees, as well as the territories of the Roman province of Hispania Tarraconensis to the south. From the 8th century onwards the Catalan counts extended their territory southwards and westwards at the expense of the Muslims, bringing their language with them. This process was given definitive impetus with the separation of the County of Barcelona from the Carolingian Empire in 988.
When did macaronic Latin start showing signs of Catalan?
56e12f03e3433e1400422c96
11th century
7
False
When did texts begin to appear solely in Romance?
56e12f03e3433e1400422c97
by 1080
148
False
To what language did Catalan display similarities?
56e12f03e3433e1400422c98
Gallo-Romance
195
False
What Gallo-Romance language did Old Catalan separate from?
56e12f03e3433e1400422c9a
Old Occitan
225
False
In the 11th century, documents written in macaronic Latin begin to show Catalan elements, with texts written almost completely in Romance appearing by 1080. Old Catalan shared many features with Gallo-Romance, diverging from Old Occitan between the 11th and 14th centuries.
When did Catalan rulers broaden their territory to north of the Ebro River?
56e132ebcd28a01900c67697
11th and 12th centuries
11
False
When did the Catalan rulers take over Valencia and the Balearic Islands?
56e132ebcd28a01900c67698
13th century
105
False
When Catalan reach Sardinia?
56e132ebcd28a01900c67699
14th century
257
False
Where did the Catalan language reach in the 15th century?
56e132ebcd28a01900c6769a
Murcia
297
False
When did Murcia become Spanish speaking?
56e132ebcd28a01900c6769b
15th century
342
False
During the 11th and 12th centuries the Catalan rulers expanded up to north of the Ebro river, and in the 13th century they conquered the Land of Valencia and the Balearic Islands. The city of Alghero in Sardinia was repopulated with Catalan speakers in the 14th century. The language also reached Murcia, which became Spanish-speaking in the 15th century.
When was the golden age of Catalan?
56e134e9cd28a01900c676ab
Low Middle Ages
7
False
Where was the center of the Crown of Aragon?
56e134e9cd28a01900c676ac
city of Valencia
332
False
What was the official language of Sicily until the 15th century?
56e134e9cd28a01900c676ad
Catalan
24
False
Until what century was Catalan used as the official language in Sardinia?
56e134e9cd28a01900c676ae
17th
657
False
Who called Catalan one of the great languages?
56e134e9cd28a01900c676af
Costa Carreras
705
False
In the Low Middle Ages, Catalan went through a golden age, reaching a peak of maturity and cultural richness. Examples include the work of Majorcan polymath Ramon Llull (1232–1315), the Four Great Chronicles (13th–14th centuries), and the Valencian school of poetry culminating in Ausiàs March (1397–1459). By the 15th century, the city of Valencia had become the sociocultural center of the Crown of Aragon, and Catalan was present all over the Mediterranean world. During this period, the Royal Chancery propagated a highly standardized language. Catalan was widely used as an official language in Sicily until the 15th century, and in Sardinia until the 17th. During this period, the language was what Costa Carreras terms "one of the 'great languages' of medieval Europe".
Who wrote Tirant lo Blanc?
56e1373de3433e1400422cbe
Martorell
0
False
What kind of tale was Tirant lo Blanc?
56e1373de3433e1400422cbf
chivalry
33
False
To what does Matorell's work show a transition?
56e1373de3433e1400422cc0
Renaissance values
101
False
What other writer showed a transition to the Renaissance?
56e1373de3433e1400422cc1
Metge
156
False
In what was the first Catalan book printed on the Iberian Peninsula?
56e1373de3433e1400422cc2
movable type
199
False
Martorell's outstanding novel of chivalry Tirant lo Blanc (1490) shows a transition from Medieval to Renaissance values, something that can also be seen in Metge's work. The first book produced with movable type in the Iberian Peninsula was printed in Catalan.
When were Castille and Aragon united?
56e1397fe3433e1400422cd2
1479
53
False
After 1479, what language became more valued?
56e1397fe3433e1400422cd3
Spanish
71
False
When did Catalan literature begin a downward trend?
56e1397fe3433e1400422cd4
16th century
130
False
What language began to supersede Catalan?
56e1397fe3433e1400422cd5
Spanish
71
False
At this time what classes became bilingual?
56e1397fe3433e1400422cd6
urban and literary
244
False
With the union of the crowns of Castille and Aragon (1479), the use of Spanish gradually became more prestigious. Starting in the 16th century, Catalan literature experienced a decline, the language came under the influence of Spanish, and the urban and literary classes became bilingual.
When was the Treaty of the Pyrenees?
56e13ab5e3433e1400422cdc
1659
33
False
What part of Catalonia did Spain give to France?
56e13ab5e3433e1400422cdd
northern part
56
False
Why did Spain give part of Catalonia to France?
56e13ab5e3433e1400422cde
Treaty of the Pyrenees
9
False
What language began to influence Catalan?
56e13ab5e3433e1400422cdf
French
170
False
When did French become the official language of that part of Catalonia?
56e13ab5e3433e1400422ce0
1700
187
False
With the Treaty of the Pyrenees (1659), Spain ceded the northern part of Catalonia to France, and soon thereafter the local Catalan varieties came under the influence of French, which in 1700 became the sole official language of the region.
When did France outlaw Catalan?
56e13c8acd28a01900c676d9
1789
37
False
What upheaval had occurred in France just before the prohibition of patois?
56e13c8acd28a01900c676da
French Revolution
18
False
Besides Catalan, Alsatian, and Breton, what other patois were banned?
56e13c8acd28a01900c676dc
Occitan, Flemish, and Basque
224
False
What are French non standard languages called?
56e13c8acd28a01900c676dd
patois
180
False
Shortly after the French Revolution (1789), the French First Republic prohibited official use of, and enacted discriminating policies against, the nonstandard languages of France (patois), such as Catalan, Alsatian, Breton, Occitan, Flemish, and Basque.
When did the French obtain Algeria?
56e13e81e3433e1400422cfa
1833
41
False
Where did the Algiers immigrants come from?
56e13e81e3433e1400422cfb
Northern Catalonia and Minorca
212
False
What was the Catalan immigrant's speech called?
56e13e81e3433e1400422cfc
patuet
270
False
How many Catalan speakers lived in Algiers by 1911?
56e13e81e3433e1400422cfd
around 100,000
322
False
When did most Catalan speakers leave northern Catalonia?
56e13e81e3433e1400422cfe
1962
390
False
Following the French capture of Algeria (1833), that region saw several waves of Catalan-speaking settlers. People from the Spanish Alacant province settled around Oran, whereas Algiers received immigration from Northern Catalonia and Minorca. Their speech was known as patuet. By 1911, the number of Catalan speakers was around 100,000. After the declaration of independence of Algeria in 1962, almost all the Catalan speakers fled to Northern Catalonia (as Pieds-Noirs) or Alacant.
What is the official language of France?
56e14538e3433e1400422d1e
French
33
False
Where does the General Council want to promote Catalan?
56e14538e3433e1400422d20
in public life and education
251
False
Who recognized Catalan as a departmental language?
56e14538e3433e1400422d21
General Council of the Pyrénées-Orientales
104
False
What language does the General Council want to promote?
56e14538e3433e1400422d22
Catalan
169
False
Nowadays, France only recognizes French as an official language. Nevertheless, on 10 December 2007, the General Council of the Pyrénées-Orientales officially recognized Catalan as one of the languages of the department and seeks to further promote it in public life and education.
What declined in the 16th and 17th centuries?
56e14afacd28a01900c67751
Catalan
15
False
Where did Catalan experience defeat?
56e14afacd28a01900c67752
War of Spanish Succession
91
False
When was the war of Spanish Succession?
56e14afacd28a01900c67753
1714
118
False
What did the war in 1714 mandate as the proper language in documentation?
56e14afacd28a01900c67754
Spanish
98
False
Who was defeated in the War of Spanish Succession?
56e14afacd28a01900c67755
Catalan
15
False
The decline of Catalan continued in the 16th and 17th centuries. The Catalan defeat in the War of Spanish Succession (1714) initiated a series of measures imposing the use of Spanish in legal documentation.
What did the 19th century produce in Catalan literature?
56e14cd0e3433e1400422d7e
revival
62
False
What is Renaixenca?
56e14cd0e3433e1400422d7f
Catalan literary revival
45
False
When did Aribau write Ode to the Homeland?
56e14cd0e3433e1400422d80
1833
181
False
When did this revival period begin?
56e14cd0e3433e1400422d81
1833
181
False
In what century did Vedaguer, Oller, and Guimera wrte?
56e14cd0e3433e1400422d82
early 20th
245
False
In parallel, however, the 19th century saw a Catalan literary revival (Renaixença), which has continued up to the present day. This period starts with Aribau's Ode to the Homeland (1833); followed in the second half of the 19th century, and the early 20th by the work of Verdaguer (poetry), Oller (realist novel), and Guimerà (drama).
Since the transition what language has been proclaimed mandatory in schools?
56e14ee1cd28a01900c67798
Catalan
55
False
Where is the teaching of Catalan mandatory?
56e14ee1cd28a01900c67799
in all schools
358
False
Since the transition, what is the official language?
56e14ee1cd28a01900c6779a
Catalan
55
False
Besides as an official  and an educational language, where else is Catalan the prefered language?
56e14ee1cd28a01900c6779b
mass media
156
False
Since the Spanish transition to democracy (1975–1982), Catalan has been institutionalizated as an official language, language of education, and language of mass media; all of which have contributed to its increased prestige. In Catalonia, there is no parallel of a large, bilingual, European, non-state speech community. The teaching of Catalan is mandatory in all schools, but it is possible to use Spanish for studying in the public education system of Catalonia in two situations, if the teacher assigned to a class chooses to use Spanish, or during the learning process of one or some recently arrived students.  There is also some intergenerational shift towards Catalan.
Where has Catalan always been the only language?
56e15083e3433e1400422daa
Andorra
3
False
When was the Andorran constitution produced?
56e15083e3433e1400422dab
1993
94
False
What policies are the Andorrans enforcing?
56e15083e3433e1400422dac
Andorranization policies
121
False
What is an Andorran school policy?
56e15083e3433e1400422dad
Catalan medium education
171
False
What is the only language of Andorra?
56e15083e3433e1400422dae
Catalan
12
False
In Andorra, Catalan has always been the sole official language. Since the promulgation of the 1993 constitution, several Andorranization policies have been enforced, like Catalan medium education.
What kind of  shifts are taking place in Catalan speaking areas?
56e152ace3433e1400422dba
language shift processes
37
False
How old are most of the native language speakers in northern Catalonia?
56e152ace3433e1400422dbb
60 or older
227
False
When was it determined that most native speakers in France are 60 or older?
56e152ace3433e1400422dbc
2004
246
False
What percentage of primary students study Catalan as a foreign language?
56e152ace3433e1400422dbd
30%
297
False
What do 15% of secondary school students study as a foreign language?
56e152ace3433e1400422dbe
Catalan
109
False
On the other hand, there are several language shift processes currently taking place. In Northern Catalonia, Catalan has followed the same trend as the other minority languages of France, with most of its native speakers being 60 or older (as of 2004). Catalan is studied as a foreign language by 30% of the primary education students, and by 15% of the secondary. The cultural association La Bressola promotes a network of community-run schools engaged in Catalan language immersion programs.
What is Catalan being supplanted by in Alicante?
56e154e5cd28a01900c677e5
Spanish
54
False
What is Catalan being replaced by in Alghero?
56e154e5cd28a01900c677e6
Italian
81
False
What are the anti-Catalan attitudes in Valencia and Ibiza?
56e154e5cd28a01900c677e7
ingrained diglossic attitudes
110
False
What is another expression for bilingual attitudes?
56e154e5cd28a01900c677e8
diglossic attitudes
120
False
What is Spanish replacing in Alicante province?
56e154e5cd28a01900c677e9
Catalan
25
False
In the Alicante province Catalan is being replaced by Spanish, and in Alghero by Italian. There are also well ingrained diglossic attitudes against Catalan in the Valencian Community, Ibiza, and to a lesser extent, in the rest of the Balearic islands.
To what branch of Gallo-Romance languages is Catalan attributed?
56e1573fe3433e1400422ddf
Occitano-Romance
33
False
Who disagrees with putting Catalan in the Occitano-Romance branch?
56e1573fe3433e1400422de1
linguists
105
False
What kind of linguists do not like placing Catalan in the Occitano-Romance category?
56e1573fe3433e1400422de2
Spanish ones
152
False
The ascription of Catalan to the Occitano-Romance branch of Gallo-Romance languages is not shared by all linguists and philologists, particularly among Spanish ones, such as Ramón Menéndez Pidal.
What is Catalan a variety of?
56e162f1e3433e1400422e4e
Occitan language
102
False
What are the degrees of similarity with Occitan and Gallo-Romance languages?
56e162f1e3433e1400422e4f
varying degrees
14
False
What are there besides degrees of similarity with Occitan?
56e162f1e3433e1400422e50
differences
129
False
What does Catalan share with other Romance languages?
56e162f1e3433e1400422e51
many traits
283
False
Why does Catalan share many traits with other Romance languages?
56e162f1e3433e1400422e52
closely related
235
False
Catalan bears varying degrees of similarity to the linguistic varieties subsumed under the cover term Occitan language (see also differences between Occitan and Catalan and Gallo-Romance languages). Thus, as it should be expected from closely related languages, Catalan today shares many traits with other Romance languages.
What does Catalan share with nearby Romance languages?
56e16494e3433e1400422e74
many traits
15
False
Where is the Catalan language mostly located?
56e16494e3433e1400422e75
Iberian Peninsula
162
False
In pronunciation what is Catalan different from?
56e16494e3433e1400422e76
Ibero-Romance group
221
False
What are examples of Ibero-Romance languages?
56e16494e3433e1400422e77
Spanish and Portuguese
242
False
To what group is Catalan most closely related?
56e16494e3433e1400422e78
Occitan
93
False
Catalan shares many traits with the other neighboring Romance languages (Italian, Sardinian, Occitan, and Spanish). However, despite being mostly situated in the Iberian Peninsula, Catalan has marked differences with the Ibero-Romance group (Spanish and Portuguese) in terms of pronunciation, grammar, and especially vocabulary; showing instead its closest affinity with Occitan and to a lesser extent Gallo-Romance (French, Franco-Provençal, Gallo-Italian).
What is the similarity between Catalan and Italian?
56e165e5e3433e1400422e88
87%
96
False
Hoe similar is Catalan to Portuguese?
56e165e5e3433e1400422e89
85%
114
False
What is the percent relationship of Catalan to Spanish?
56e165e5e3433e1400422e8a
80%
135
False
What is the relationship similarity to Ladin?
56e165e5e3433e1400422e8b
76%
153
False
How related is Sardinian to Catalan?
56e165e5e3433e1400422e8c
75%
169
False
According to Ethnologue, the lexical similarity between Catalan and other Romance languages is: 87% with Italian; 85% with Portuguese; 80% with Spanish; 76% with Ladin; 75% with Sardinian; and 73% with Romanian.
What has Catalan often been considered?
56e167b2e3433e1400422ea6
dialect of Spanish
145
False
During what dictatorship was Catalan considered a dialect?
56e167b2e3433e1400422ea7
Francoist
54
False
During much of its history, and especially during the Francoist dictatorship (1939–1975), the Catalan language has often been degraded as a mere dialect of Spanish. This view, based on political and ideological considerations, has no linguistic validity. Spanish and Catalan have important differences in their sound systems, lexicon, and grammatical features, placing the language in a number of respects closer to Occitan (and French).
What area was Roman Tarraconensis language different from?
56e16b00cd28a01900c678d3
rest of Roman Hispania
135
False
What language branch did Catalan share a history with?
56e16b00cd28a01900c678d5
Occitan
346
False
What is Occitan a branch of?
56e16b00cd28a01900c678d6
Western Romance
507
False
There is evidence that, at least from the a.d. 2nd century, the vocabulary and phonology of Roman Tarraconensis was different from the rest of Roman Hispania. Differentiation has arisen generally because Spanish, Asturian, and Galician-Portuguese share certain peripheral archaisms (Spanish hervir, Asturian/Portuguese ferver vs. Catalan bullir, Occitan bolir "to boil") and innovatory regionalisms (Sp novillo, Ast nuviellu vs. Cat torell, Oc taurèl "bullock"), while Catalan has a shared history with the Western Romance innovative core, especially Occitan.
What is the origin of language elements found in Catalan and not in Spanish?
56e16caee3433e1400422f04
Germanic
4
False
What is the origin of some Spanish words?
56e16caee3433e1400422f05
Latin origin
191
False
What has different results in Spanish and Catalan?
56e16caee3433e1400422f06
Germanic superstrate
4
False
The Germanic superstrate has had different outcomes in Spanish and Catalan. For example, Catalan fang "mud" and rostir "to roast", of Germanic origin, contrast with Spanish lodo and asar, of Latin origin; whereas Catalan filosa "spinning wheel" and pols "temple", of Latin origin, contrast with Spanish rueca and sien, of Germanic origin.
What element in Spanish is more prominent than in Catalan?
56e16f1dcd28a01900c67923
Arabic element
297
False
What language loanwords are found in both Spanish and Catalan?
56e16f1dcd28a01900c67924
Arabic loanwords
22
False
In which language is the Arabic element stand out more?
56e16f1dcd28a01900c67925
Spanish
137
False
Where does the Catalan word alfabia come from?
56e16f1dcd28a01900c67926
of Arabic origin
105
False
What is the origin of the Spanish word teja?
56e16f1dcd28a01900c67927
Latin origin
165
False
The same happens with Arabic loanwords. Thus, Catalan alfàbia "large earthenware jar" and rajola "tile", of Arabic origin, contrast with Spanish tinaja and teja, of Latin origin; whereas Catalan oli "oil" and oliva "olive", of Latin origin, contrast with Spanish aceite and aceituna. However, the Arabic element in Spanish is generally much more prevalent.
What are the linguistic blocks Catalan lies between?
56e170dbcd28a01900c67940
Ibero-Romance and Gallo-Romance
46
False
What kind of linguistic choices does Catalan have?
56e170dbcd28a01900c67941
unique
97
False
What type of unique choices does Catalan have?
56e170dbcd28a01900c67942
lexical
104
False
What is the Catalan to miss somebody?
56e170dbcd28a01900c67943
enyorar
129
False
Situated between two large linguistic blocks (Ibero-Romance and Gallo-Romance), Catalan has many unique lexical choices, such as enyorar "to miss somebody", apaivagar "to calm down somebody", or rebutjar "reject".
What are the Paisos Catalans
56e17248cd28a01900c67949
Catalan Countries
68
False
What is that determination based on?
56e17248cd28a01900c6794a
cultural affinity and common heritage
112
False
What status does Catalan Countries have?
56e17248cd28a01900c6794b
no official status
211
False
What is the interpretation of the term?
56e17248cd28a01900c6794c
Various interpretations
231
False
What is the term for Catalan Countries?
56e17248cd28a01900c6794d
Països Catalans
51
False
These territories are sometimes referred to as the Països Catalans (Catalan Countries), a denomination based on cultural affinity and common heritage, that has also had a subsequent political interpretation but no official status. Various interpretations of the term may include some or all of these regions.
How is Catalan different from other Romance languages?
56e176e4cd28a01900c67983
many monosyllabic words
54
False
What other type of endings do Catalan words have?
56e176e4cd28a01900c67985
consonant clusters
137
False
What kind of final devoicing does the language have?
56e176e4cd28a01900c67986
obstruent
181
False
What do many words feature?
56e176e4cd28a01900c67987
couplets
222
False
In contrast with other Romance languages, Catalan has many monosyllabic words; and those ending in a wide variety of consonants and some consonant clusters. Also, Catalan has final obstruent devoicing, thus featuring many couplets like amic "(male friend") vs. amiga ("female friend").
What is the standard pronunciation of Catalan?
56e1784ee3433e1400422f66
Central Catalan
0
False
What is Central Catalan?
56e1784ee3433e1400422f67
standard pronunciation
34
False
What are the descriptions for?
56e1784ee3433e1400422f68
standard pronunciation
34
False
Where do you look for the pronunciation of different dialects?
56e1784ee3433e1400422f69
section pronunciation
198
False
Central Catalan is considered the standard pronunciation of the language. The descriptions below are mostly for this variety. For the differences in pronunciation of the different dialects, see the section pronunciation of dialects in this article.
Where does Catalan get its vowel system?
56e17976e3433e1400422f6e
Vulgar Latin
50
False
How many stressed phenoms are there?
56e17976e3433e1400422f6f
seven
69
False
Where is this a common feature?
56e17976e3433e1400422f70
Western Romance
131
False
What is the exception to this common characteristic?
56e17976e3433e1400422f71
Spanish
155
False
What differs in vowel reduction?
56e17976e3433e1400422f72
Dialects
209
False
Catalan has inherited the typical vowel system of Vulgar Latin, with seven stressed phonemes: /a ɛ e i ɔ o u/, a common feature in Western Romance, except Spanish. Balearic has also instances of stressed /ə/. Dialects differ in the different degrees of vowel reduction, and the incidence of the pair /ɛ e/.
How many  reduced unstressed are vowels are there in Central Catalan?
56e17b08cd28a01900c679ab
three
48
False
What vowel stays distinct?
56e17b08cd28a01900c679ac
/i/
85
False
What kind of vowel processes do other dialects have?
56e17b08cd28a01900c679ad
different
131
False
Where do you find dialectic vowel reductions?
56e17b08cd28a01900c679af
section pronunciation
176
False
In Central Catalan, unstressed vowels reduce to three: /a e ɛ/ > [ə]; /o ɔ u/ > [u]; /i/ remains distinct. The other dialects have different vowel reduction processes (see the section pronunciation of dialects in this article).
What field studies the placement of Catalan in the world?
56e17f5de3433e1400422f8c
Catalan sociolinguistics
0
False
What is the study of the differenet varieties of Catalan?
56e17f5de3433e1400422f8d
Catalan sociolinguistics
0
False
What is this a subdiscipline of?
56e17f5de3433e1400422f8e
Catalan philology
153
False
What does it want to do with the language, the speakers, and reality?
56e17f5de3433e1400422f8f
analyse the relation
223
False
What outside affects does this study include?
56e17f5de3433e1400422f90
other languages in contact
331
False
Catalan sociolinguistics studies the situation of Catalan in the world and the different varieties that this language presents. It is a subdiscipline of Catalan philology and other affine studies and has as an objective to analyse the relation between the Catalan language, the speakers and the close reality (including the one of other languages in contact).
What do the dialects of Catalan feature?
56e180f5e3433e1400422f96
uniformity
56
False
In comparison to what are the dialects uniform?
56e180f5e3433e1400422f97
other Romance languages
96
False
What is high among dialects?
56e180f5e3433e1400422f98
intelligibility
203
False
What is the percentage of intelligibility between dialects?
56e180f5e3433e1400422f99
90% to 95%
273
False
What dialect is the exception to intelligibility?
56e180f5e3433e1400422f9a
Alguerese
334
False
The dialects of the Catalan language feature a relative uniformity, especially when compared to other Romance languages; both in terms of vocabulary, semantics, syntax, morphology, and phonology. Mutual intelligibility between dialects is very high, estimates ranging from 90% to 95%. The only exception is the isolated idiosyncratic Alguerese dialect.
What is the major difference between the two blocks?
56e18710cd28a01900c679b7
treatment of unstressed a and e
118
False
How are a and e in western dialects?
56e18710cd28a01900c679b8
distinct
214
False
What have a and e done in eastern dialects?
56e18710cd28a01900c679b9
merged
162
False
Catalan is split in two major dialectal blocks: Eastern Catalan, and Western Catalan. The main difference lies in the treatment of unstressed a and e; which have merged to /ə/ in Eastern dialects, but which remain distinct as /a/ and /e/ in Western dialects. There are a few other differences in pronunciation, verbal morphology, and vocabulary.
What two dialects does Western Catalan include?
56e188e4cd28a01900c679bf
Northwestern Catalan and Valencian
46
False
How many dialects are in the eastern group?
56e188e4cd28a01900c679c0
four
110
False
To what division does Central Catalan belong?
56e188e4cd28a01900c679c1
Eastern block
86
False
What other divisions can be made of dialects?
56e188e4cd28a01900c679c2
subdialects
231
False
What block does Northwestern Catalan and Valencian belong to?
56e188e4cd28a01900c679c3
Western Catalan
0
False
Western Catalan comprises the two dialects of Northwestern Catalan and Valencian; the Eastern block comprises four dialects: Central Catalan, Balearic, Rossellonese, and Alguerese. Each dialect can be further subdivided in several subdialects.
What comprises the standard pronunciation of Catalan?
56e18a90e3433e1400422faa
Central Catalan
0
False
Where are the most speakers found?
56e18a90e3433e1400422fab
Central Catalan
0
False
In what densely populated area is it spoken?
56e18a90e3433e1400422fac
Barcelona province
166
False
What part of the province of Tarragona is Central Catalan spoken?
56e18a90e3433e1400422fae
eastern half
190
False
Central Catalan is considered the standard pronunciation of the language and has the highest number of speakers. It is spoken in the densely populated regions of the Barcelona province, the eastern half of the province of Tarragona, and most of the province of Girona.
What is the vowel system of Catalan?
56e18bfbe3433e1400422fb4
Vulgar Latin
50
False
How many stressed phonemes are there in Catalan?
56e18bfbe3433e1400422fb5
seven
69
False
Where is this system common?
56e18bfbe3433e1400422fb6
Western Romance
131
False
What language is the exception?
56e18bfbe3433e1400422fb7
Spanish
155
False
What language form differs in the amount of vowel reduction?
56e18bfbe3433e1400422fb8
Dialects
209
False
Catalan has inherited the typical vowel system of Vulgar Latin, with seven stressed phonemes: /a ɛ e i ɔ o u/, a common feature in Western Romance, except Spanish. Balearic has also instances of stressed /ə/. Dialects differ in the different degrees of vowel reduction, and the incidence of the pair /ɛ e/.
Where do unstressed vowels reduce to three?
56e18e18cd28a01900c679c9
Eastern Catalan
3
False
What is the exception to this reduction?
56e18e18cd28a01900c679ca
Majorcan
27
False
Which vowel remains distinct?
56e18e18cd28a01900c679cb
/i/
103
False
In Eastern Catalan (except Majorcan), unstressed vowels reduce to three: /a e ɛ/ > [ə]; /o ɔ u/ > [u]; /i/ remains distinct. There are a few instances of unreduced [e], [o] in some words. Alguerese has lowered [ə] to [a].
In what language do unstressed vowels reduce to four?
56e19028e3433e1400422fbe
Majorcan
3
False
What reduction pattern do some vowels follow?
56e19028e3433e1400422fbf
Eastern Catalan
66
False
What other pattern do other vowels follow?
56e19028e3433e1400422fc0
Western Catalan
165
False
What letter remains distinct?
56e19028e3433e1400422fc1
/u/
135
False
/u/ remaining distinct is like what form of Catalan?
56e19028e3433e1400422fc2
Western Catalan
165
False
In Majorcan, unstressed vowels reduce to four: /a e ɛ/ follow the Eastern Catalan reduction pattern; however /o ɔ/ reduce to [o], with /u/ remaining distinct, as in Western Catalan.
What do unstressed vowels reduce to in Western Catalan?
56e19227cd28a01900c679d1
five
48
False
Which letters remain distinct?
56e19227cd28a01900c679d2
/a u i/
80
False
Where did this pattern come from?
56e19227cd28a01900c679d3
Proto-Romance
144
False
In what other languages is this pattern found?
56e19227cd28a01900c679d4
Italian and Portuguese
176
False
What do other Western dialects sometimes  offer?
56e19227cd28a01900c679d5
further reduction
230
False
In Western Catalan, unstressed vowels reduce to five: /e ɛ/ > [e]; /o ɔ/ > [o]; /a u i/ remain distinct. This reduction pattern, inherited from Proto-Romance, is also found in Italian and Portuguese. Some Western dialects present further reduction or vowel harmony in some cases.
What form has the same /e/ as Central and Western?
56e19514e3433e1400422fe7
Balearic
22
False
What vowel does Central have a larger occurrence of?
56e19514e3433e1400422fe8
/e/
75
False
What is the result of /e/ being the same in Central,  Western and Belearic?
56e19514e3433e1400422fe9
higher incidence
326
False
Central, Western, and Balearic differ in the lexical incidence of stressed /e/ and /ɛ/. Usually, words with /ɛ/ in Central Catalan correspond to /ə/ in Balearic and /e/ in Western Catalan. Words with /e/ in Balearic almost always have /e/ in Central and Western Catalan as well.[vague] As a result, Central Catalan has a much higher incidence of /e/.
What language is parle or tem ?
56e197efcd28a01900c67a0b
Valencian
131
False
What language  is parlo or temo ?
56e197efcd28a01900c67a0c
Northwestern
163
False
What language is parl?
56e197efcd28a01900c67a0d
Balearic
292
False
What language form is parli?
56e197efcd28a01900c67a0e
Northern
310
False
In verbs, 1st person present indicative desinence is -e (∅ in verbs of the 2nd and 3rd conjugation), or -o. E.g. parle, tem, sent (Valencian); parlo, temo, sento (Northwestern). In verbs, 1st person present indicative desinence is -o, -i or ∅ in all conjugations. E.g. parlo (Central), parl (Balearic), parli (Northern), ('I speak').
Where do you find medieval plurals?
56e19a3ee3433e1400422ff6
nouns and adjectives
3
False
What letter is lost in some words?
56e19a3ee3433e1400422ff7
/n/
40
False
When homens loses /n/, it becomes what word?
56e19a3ee3433e1400422ff8
homes
209
False
The medieval jovens becomes what what word?
56e19a3ee3433e1400422ff9
joves
222
False
What kind of plural words lose /n/?
56e19a3ee3433e1400422ffa
proparoxytone
67
False
In nouns and adjectives, maintenance of /n/ of medieval plurals in proparoxytone words. E.g. hòmens 'men', jóvens 'youth'. In nouns and adjectives, loss of /n/ of medieval plurals in proparoxytone words. E.g. homes 'men', joves 'youth'.
What do the two blocks of Catalan display differences in?
56e19be4e3433e1400423016
word choices
119
False
How can you explain differences in the language groups?
56e19be4e3433e1400423017
as an archaism
202
False
What form is innovative?
56e19be4e3433e1400423018
Central Catalan
232
False
What are the two blocks of Catalan?
56e19be4e3433e1400423019
Eastern and Western
73
False
What does an archaism explain?
56e19be4e3433e140042301a
lexical divergence
137
False
Despite its relative lexical unity, the two dialectal blocks of Catalan (Eastern and Western) show some differences in word choices. Any lexical divergence within any of the two groups can be explained as an archaism. Also, usually Central Catalan acts as an innovative element.
What is Standard based on?
56e19df2e3433e1400423034
Eastern Catalan
73
False
What form is excepted by most speakers?
56e19df2e3433e1400423035
Standard Catalan
0
False
What language forms are not now used in eastern Catalonia?
56e19df2e3433e1400423037
traditional ones
219
False
Standard Catalan, virtually accepted by all speakers, is mostly based on Eastern Catalan, which is the most widely used dialect. Nevertheless, the standards of Valencia and the Balearics admit alternative forms, mostly traditional ones, which are not current in eastern Catalonia.
What is jo compro changed to ?
56e1a1e0e3433e1400423044
jo compre
830
False
What common Valencian forms are used?
56e1a1e0e3433e1400423045
many verbal forms
554
False
What forms are also common in the rest of Western Catalan?
56e1a1e0e3433e1400423046
verbal forms
559
False
The most notable difference between both standards is some tonic ⟨e⟩ accentuation, for instance: francès, anglès (IEC) – francés, anglés (AVL). Nevertheless, AVL's standard keeps the grave accent ⟨è⟩, without pronouncing this ⟨e⟩ as /ɛ/, in some words like: què ('what'), or València. Other divergences include the use of ⟨tl⟩ (AVL) in some words instead of ⟨tll⟩ like in ametla/ametlla ('almond'), espatla/espatlla ('back'), the use of elided demonstratives (este 'this', eixe 'that') in the same level as reinforced ones (aquest, aqueix) or the use of many verbal forms common in Valencian, and some of these common in the rest of Western Catalan too, like subjunctive mood or inchoative conjugation in -ix- at the same level as -eix- or the priority use of -e morpheme in 1st person singular in present indicative (-ar verbs): jo compre instead of jo compro ('I buy').
Where is IEC's standard used?
56e1a3cbe3433e1400423066
the Balearic Islands
3
False
How is the standard used there?
56e1a3cbe3433e1400423067
adapted for the Balearic dialect
52
False
What is a first person singular  feature of the Balearic standard?
56e1a3cbe3433e1400423069
non-ending
397
False
In the Balearic Islands, IEC's standard is used but adapted for the Balearic dialect by the University of the Balearic Islands's philological section. In this way, for instance, IEC says it is correct writing cantam as much as cantem ('we sing') but the University says that the priority form in the Balearic Islands must be "cantam" in all fields. Another feature of the Balearic standard is the non-ending in the 1st person singular present indicative: jo compr ('I buy'), jo tem ('I fear'), jo dorm ('I sleep').
Where has the IEC adapted its standard to the Alguerese dialect?
56e1b264e3433e14004230a6
Alghero
3
False
What definite article is found rather than el?
56e1b264e3433e14004230a7
lo
145
False
What is -v- used for?
56e1b264e3433e14004230a8
imperfect tense
314
False
What dialect employs many archaic words?
56e1b264e3433e14004230a9
Alguerese
52
False
What type of pronouns has Alguerese adapted?
56e1b264e3433e14004230aa
weak pronouns
584
False
In Alghero, the IEC has adapted its standard to the Alguerese dialect. In this standard one can find, among other features: the definite article lo instead of el, special possessive pronouns and determinants la mia ('mine'), lo sou/la sua ('his/her'), lo tou/la tua ('yours'), and so on, the use of -v- /v/ in the imperfect tense in all conjugations: cantava, creixiva, llegiva; the use of many archaic words, usual words in Alguerese: manco instead of menys ('less'), calqui u instead of algú ('someone'), qual/quala instead of quin/quina ('which'), and so on; and the adaptation of weak pronouns.
Where is the Catalan speaking part of Aragon?
56e1b4decd28a01900c67a8e
La Franja
114
False
When did the government of Aragon  degree the establishment of a language regulator?
56e1b4decd28a01900c67a8f
2011
3
False
What language is the regulator meant to standardize?
56e1b4decd28a01900c67a91
Catalan
103
False
Where is the language to be regulated located?
56e1b4decd28a01900c67a92
La Franja
114
False
In 2011, the Aragonese government passed a decree for the establishment of a new language regulator of Catalan in La Franja (the so-called Catalan-speaking areas of Aragon). The new entity, designated as Acadèmia Aragonesa del Català, shall allow a facultative education in Catalan and a standardization of the Catalan language in La Franja.
How is Valencian classified?
56e1b738cd28a01900c67aac
Western dialect
29
False
What kind of Valencan is spoken in Western Catalonia?
56e1b738cd28a01900c67aad
northwestern varieties
61
False
Where are the provinces of Lleida and Tarragona?
56e1b738cd28a01900c67aae
Western Catalonia
94
False
What forms are mutually intelligible?
56e1b738cd28a01900c67aaf
Catalan and Valencian
190
False
What is the percentage of intelligibility between Catalan and Valencian?
56e1b738cd28a01900c67ab0
90% to 95%
252
False
Valencian is classified as a Western dialect, along with the northwestern varieties spoken in Western Catalonia (provinces of Lleida and the western half of Tarragona). The various forms of Catalan and Valencian are mutually intelligible (ranging from 90% to 95%)
How do linguists view Catalan and Valencian?
56e1b97fcd28a01900c67ad6
as the same language
73
False
How do Valencian scholars view Catalan and Valencian?
56e1b97fcd28a01900c67ad7
as the same language
73
False
What is the official regulating body of  Valencian?
56e1b97fcd28a01900c67ad8
the Valencian Academy of Language
168
False
Who says that there is linguistic unity between Catalan and Valencian?
56e1b97fcd28a01900c67ad9
Valencian Academy of Language
172
False
Linguists, including Valencian scholars, deal with Catalan and Valencian as the same language. The official regulating body of the language of the Valencian Community, the Valencian Academy of Language (Acadèmia Valenciana de la Llengua, AVL) declares the linguistic unity between Valencian and Catalan varieties.
Who established the AVL?
56e1bb90e3433e14004230fa
Valencian parliament
24
False
Over what does the AVL  make rules governing?
56e1bb90e3433e14004230fb
use of Valencian
105
False
What is the AVL standard based on?
56e1bb90e3433e14004230fc
Norms of Castelló
156
False
Who uses this standard?
56e1bb90e3433e14004230fd
everyone who writes
207
False
Who is exempt from the standard and uses their own?
56e1bb90e3433e14004230fe
Royal Academy of Valencian Culture
271
False
The AVL, created by the Valencian parliament, is in charge of dictating the official rules governing the use of Valencian, and its standard is based on the Norms of Castelló (Normes de Castelló). Currently, everyone who writes in Valencian uses this standard, except the Royal Academy of Valencian Culture (Acadèmia de Cultura Valenciana, RACV), which uses for Valencian an independent standard.
What do most Valencian people think Valencian is in regards to Catalan?
56e1be2acd28a01900c67b0e
different
170
False
When was an opinion poll done concerning Valencian?
56e1be2acd28a01900c67b0f
between 2001 and 2004
80
False
Who is less likely to believe that Catalan and Valencian are different?
56e1be2acd28a01900c67b10
younger generations
303
False
Who uses a Valencian standard separate from Catalan?
56e1be2acd28a01900c67b11
Royal Academy of Valencian Culture
488
False
How many scholars outside of linguistics agree with the Royal Academy?
56e1be2acd28a01900c67b12
A minority
387
False
Despite the position of the official organizations, an opinion poll carried out between 2001 and 2004 showed that the majority of the Valencian people consider Valencian different from Catalan. This position is promoted by people who do not use Valencian regularly. Furthermore, the data indicates that younger generations educated in Valencian are much less likely to hold these views. A minority of Valencian scholars active in fields other than linguistics defends the position of the Royal Academy of Valencian Culture (Acadèmia de Cultura Valenciana, RACV), which uses for Valencian a standard independent from Catalan.
What has produced a great deal of controversy?
56e1c021cd28a01900c67b18
clash of opinions
5
False
When did the EU create the European Constitution?
56e1c021cd28a01900c67b1b
2004
118
False
Who gave the EU translations of the European Constitution?
56e1c021cd28a01900c67b1c
Spanish government
128
False
This clash of opinions has sparked much controversy. For example, during the drafting of the European Constitution in 2004, the Spanish government supplied the EU with translations of the text into Basque, Galician, Catalan, and Valencian, but the latter two were identical.
As what can divergence in the groups be shown?
56e1c3c0cd28a01900c67b47
as an archaism
202
False
How does central Catalan behave with the groups?
56e1c3c0cd28a01900c67b48
as an innovative element
253
False
What are the two dialectical groups of Catalan?
56e1c3c0cd28a01900c67b49
Eastern and Western
73
False
What language has a lexical unity?
56e1c3c0cd28a01900c67b4a
Catalan
64
False
Despite its relative lexical unity, the two dialectal blocks of Catalan (Eastern and Western) show some differences in word choices. Any lexical divergence within any of the two groups can be explained as an archaism. Also, usually Central Catalan acts as an innovative element.
What can use words from different dialects?
56e1c607e3433e1400423160
Literary Catalan
0
False
What kind of words are excepted from literary use?
56e1c607e3433e1400423161
restricted use
87
False
When did the preference of use of words from northern dialects begin?
56e1c607e3433e1400423162
19th century
121
False
What affect did this favoring of northern dialects have on other dialects?
56e1c607e3433e1400423163
detriment of others
205
False
What kind of choice is now available in word choice?
56e1c607e3433e1400423164
greater freedom of choice
258
False
Literary Catalan allows the use of words from different dialects, except those of very restricted use. However, from the 19th century onwards, there is a tendency of favoring words of Northern dialects in detriment of others, even though nowadays there is a greater freedom of choice.
Where does Catalan get a lot of its learned words?
56e1c818e3433e1400423174
Greek and Latin
69
False
When did the process of acquiring words from Latin and Greek begin?
56e1c818e3433e1400423175
very early
107
False
In whose work can you find examples of acquired words?
56e1c818e3433e1400423176
Ramon Llull
153
False
When did Catalan have a greater number of Greco-Latin words than other Romance languages?
56e1c818e3433e1400423177
fourteenth and fifteenth centuries
180
False
Whose writings are a good example of learned words in Catalan?
56e1c818e3433e1400423178
Roís de Corella
344
False
Like other languages, Catalan has a large list of learned words from Greek and Latin. This process started very early, and one can find such examples in Ramon Llull's work. On the fourteenth and fifteenth centuries Catalan had a number of Greco-Latin learned words much superior to other Romance languages, as it can be attested for example in Roís de Corella's writings.
What is common in Romance languages?
56e1cac5cd28a01900c67b98
agglutination
117
False
What kind of derivation in Catalan is similar to other languages?
56e1cac5cd28a01900c67b99
morphological
15
False
What word additive is usually added to verbs?
56e1cac5cd28a01900c67b9a
Prefixes
329
False
What other word changes can occur in derivations?
56e1cac5cd28a01900c67b9b
sound alternations
217
False
What word supplement  can be put on an already existing word base?
56e1cac5cd28a01900c67b9c
affixes
162
False
The process of morphological derivation in Catalan follows the same principles as the other Romance languages, where agglutination is common. Many times, several affixes are appended to a preexisting lexeme, and some sound alternations can occur, for example elèctric [əˈlɛktrik] ("electrical") vs. electricitat [ələktrisiˈtat]. Prefixes are usually appended to verbs, for as in preveure ("foresee").
What is the usual masculine suffix?
56e1cd44e3433e140042319d
-o
137
False
In gender inflection, the most notable feature is (compared to Portuguese, Spanish or Italian), the loss of the typical masculine suffix -o. Thus, the alternance of -o/-a, has been replaced by ø/-a. There are only a few exceptions, like minso/minsa ("scarce"). Many not completely predictable morphological alternations may occur, such as:
What kind of words does Catalan have few of?
56e1d007e3433e14004231b8
suppletive couplets
16
False
What languages have more couplets than Catalan?
56e1d007e3433e14004231b9
French
74
False
What languages are  similar to Catalan in numbers of  couplets?
56e1d007e3433e14004231ba
Italian and Spanish
42
False
What language is not like Catalan in suppletive couplets?
56e1d007e3433e14004231bb
French
74
False
Catalan has few suppletive couplets, like Italian and Spanish, and unlike French. Thus, Catalan has noi/noia ("boy"/"girl") and gall/gallina ("cock"/"hen"), whereas French has garçon/fille and coq/poule.
What languages have a tendency to lose gender-invariable adjectives?
56e1d349e3433e14004231c0
Occitan and French
123
False
What is ab example of a gender marked adjective?
56e1d349e3433e14004231c1
bullent/bullenta
162
False
What would be the traditional form of a gender-invariable adjective?
56e1d349e3433e14004231c2
bullent/bullenta
162
False
There is a tendency to abandon traditionally gender-invariable adjectives in favour of marked ones, something prevalent in Occitan and French. Thus, one can find bullent/bullenta ("boiling") in contrast with traditional bullent/bullent.
What is the usual way to make a plural?
56e1dab2cd28a01900c67bc0
suffix -s
77
False
What can the addition of the suffix -s produce?
56e1dab2cd28a01900c67bc1
morphological alternations
105
False
To what are these morphological changes similar?
56e1dab2cd28a01900c67bc2
gender inflection
161
False
What is an important plural alternation?
56e1dab2cd28a01900c67bc3
addition of -o-
230
False
As in the other Western Romance languages, the main plural expression is the suffix -s, which may create morphological alternations similar to the ones found in gender inflection, albeit more rarely. The most important one is the addition of -o- before certain consonant groups, a phonetic phenomenon that does not affect feminine forms: el pols/els polsos ("the pulse"/"the pulses") vs. la pols/les pols ("the dust"/"the dusts").
What does the large number of omissions  make the determinatives?
56e1dec2e3433e14004231de
complex
36
False
What is much like the neighboring languages?
56e1dec2e3433e14004231df
inflection of determinatives
4
False
What language does Catalan have more contractions than?
56e1dec2e3433e14004231e0
Spanish
200
False
Catalan has less contractions than what language?
56e1dec2e3433e14004231e1
Italian
261
False
What type of word is added to the contraction of the preposition?
56e1dec2e3433e14004231e2
article
187
False
The inflection of determinatives is complex, specially because of the high number of elisions, but is similar to the neighboring languages. Catalan has more contractions of preposition + article than Spanish, like dels ("of + the [plural]"), but not as many as Italian (which has sul, col, nel, etc.).
What has Central Catalan mostly abandoned?
56e1e04dcd28a01900c67bda
unstressed possessives
48
False
What other language shares this type of construction?
56e1e04dcd28a01900c67bdc
Italian
176
False
What is an example of an article +stressed forms?
56e1e04dcd28a01900c67bdd
el meu
139
False
What is an example of an unstressed possessive?
56e1e04dcd28a01900c67bde
mon
72
False
Central Catalan has abandoned almost completely unstressed possessives (mon, etc.) in favour of constructions of article + stressed forms (el meu, etc.), a feature shared with Italian.
How many forms of personal pronouns are there in Catalan?
56e1e199cd28a01900c67be4
13 distinct forms
107
False
How many personal pronouns are there is Spanish?
56e1e199cd28a01900c67be5
11
138
False
What is the number of personal pronouns in Italian?
56e1e199cd28a01900c67be6
9
155
False
How many different combinations of unstressed pronouns are there?
56e1e199cd28a01900c67be7
65
288
False
The morphology of Catalan personal pronouns is complex, specially in unstressed forms, which are numerous (13 distinct forms, compared to 11 in Spanish or 9 in Italian).  Features include the gender-neutral ho and the great degree of freedom when combining different unstressed pronouns (65 combinations).
What is this distinction similar to?
56e1e388e3433e14004231e9
all other Romance languages
47
False
What modern language does not have a T-Y distinction?
56e1e388e3433e14004231ea
English
120
False
What does this imply the use an extra group of pronouns for?
56e1e388e3433e14004231ec
formality
208
False
Catalan pronouns exhibit T–V distinction, like all other Romance languages (and most European languages, but not Modern English). This feature implies the use of a different set of second person pronouns for formality.
What languages use extrapositioning in sentences less than Catalan?
56e1e668e3433e14004231f2
French or Spanish
81
False
What do you not need to use in Catalan?
56e1e668e3433e14004231f4
passive voice
374
False
What languages use the passive voice more than Catalan?
56e1e668e3433e14004231f5
French or English
395
False
What method does Spanish use to identify the object?
56e1e668e3433e14004231f6
preposition
455
False
This flexibility allows Catalan to use extraposition extensively, much more than French or Spanish. Thus, Catalan can have m'hi recomanaren ("they recommended me to him"), whereas in French one must say ils m'ont recommandé à lui, and Spanish me recomendaron a él. This allows the placement of almost any nominal term as a sentence topic, without having to use so often the passive voice (as in French or English), or identifying the direct object with a preposition (as in Spanish).
What is Catalan verbal inflection ?
56e1e933cd28a01900c67bee
more complex
61
False
What plays a primary part in Catalan?
56e1e933cd28a01900c67bf0
Suffixation
92
False
What plays a secondary part in Catalan?
56e1e933cd28a01900c67bf1
morphological alternations
128
False
How are vowel alternances in Catalan?
56e1e933cd28a01900c67bf2
active
200
False
Like all the Romance languages, Catalan verbal inflection is more complex than the nominal. Suffixation is omnipresent, whereas morphological alternations play a secondary role. Vowel alternances are active, as well as infixation and suppletion. However, these are not as productive as in Spanish, and are mostly restricted to irregular verbs.
What system is common to Western Romance?
56e1eab7cd28a01900c67bf8
Catalan verbal system
4
False
What have many dialects replaced?
56e1eab7cd28a01900c67bf9
synthetic indicative perfect
114
False
What is the Catalan verbal system common to?
56e1eab7cd28a01900c67bfb
all Western Romance
49
False
The Catalan verbal system is basically common to all Western Romance, except that most dialects have replaced the synthetic indicative perfect with a periphrastic form of anar ("to go") + infinitive.
How are Catalan verbs grouped?
56e1ec35cd28a01900c67c00
into three conjugations
40
False
Which conjugation has about 3500 verbs?
56e1ec35cd28a01900c67c02
first conjugation
197
False
How many verbs are in the third conjugation?
56e1ec35cd28a01900c67c03
700
323
False
Which conjugation has less than 100 verbs?
56e1ec35cd28a01900c67c04
second
377
False
Catalan verbs are traditionally divided into three conjugations, with vowel themes -a-, -e-, -i-, the last two being split into two subtypes. However, this division is mostly theoretical. Only the first conjugation is nowadays productive (with about 3500 common verbs), whereas the third (the subtype of servir, with about 700 common verbs) is semiproductive. The verbs of the second conjugation are fewer than 100, and it is not possible to create new ones, except by compounding.
How many surnames does everyone in Spain have?
56e1edbee3433e1400423206
two
38
False
Which one of one's father's surnames is used?
56e1edbee3433e1400423207
first
81
False
What is Spain thinking of doing to the two surnames?
56e1edbee3433e1400423209
joining both surnames
180
False
What conjunction would be used to join a person's surnames?
56e1edbee3433e140042320a
in
6
False
In Spain, every person officially has two surnames, one of which is the father's first surname and the other is the mother's first surname. The law contemplates the possibility of joining both surnames with the Catalan conjunction i ("and").
Boston
Which of the United States is Boston located in?
56e112eecd28a01900c67555
Massachusetts
86
False
How many square miles is the city proper of Boston?
56e112eecd28a01900c67556
48
267
False
The large metropolitan area of Boston is also called what?
56e112eecd28a01900c67557
Greater Boston
528
False
What is the estimated population of Greater Boston?
56e112eecd28a01900c67558
4.7 million people
552
False
What is the capital and largest city in Massachusetts?
56e112eecd28a01900c67559
Boston
0
False
Boston (pronounced i/ˈbɒstən/) is the capital and largest city of the Commonwealth of Massachusetts in the United States. Boston also served as the historic county seat of Suffolk County until Massachusetts disbanded county government in 1999. The city proper covers 48 square miles (124 km2) with an estimated population of 655,884 in 2014, making it the largest city in New England and the 24th largest city in the United States. The city is the economic and cultural anchor of a substantially larger metropolitan area called Greater Boston, home to 4.7 million people and the tenth-largest metropolitan statistical area in the country. Greater Boston as a commuting region is home to 8.1 million people, making it the sixth-largest combined statistical area in the United States.
What year was Boston founded?
56e114f2e3433e1400422ba4
1630
94
False
What is the name of the peninsula Boston was founded on?
56e114f2e3433e1400422ba6
the Shawmut Peninsula
69
False
Bostons rich history attracts many what each year?
56e114f2e3433e1400422ba7
tourists
596
False
The Faneuil Hall draws over how many tourists to Boston each year?
56e114f2e3433e1400422ba8
20 million
643
False
One of the oldest cities in the United States, Boston was founded on the Shawmut Peninsula in 1630 by Puritan settlers from England. It was the scene of several key events of the American Revolution, such as the Boston Massacre, the Boston Tea Party, the Battle of Bunker Hill, and the Siege of Boston. Upon American independence from Great Britain, the city continued to be an important port and manufacturing hub, as well as a center for education and culture. Through land reclamation and municipal annexation, Boston has expanded beyond the original peninsula. Its rich history attracts many tourists, with Faneuil Hall alone drawing over 20 million visitors per year. Boston's many firsts include the United States' first public school, Boston Latin School (1635), and first subway system (1897).
Households in Boston claim the highest average rate of what in the United States?
56e1184ecd28a01900c67597
philanthropy
380
False
Bostons businesses rank top in the country for what?
56e1184ecd28a01900c67598
environmental sustainability and investment
483
False
Where does Boston rank as far as cost of living in the United States?
56e1184ecd28a01900c67599
The city has one of the highest costs of living
528
False
How does Boston rank on world livability?
56e1184ecd28a01900c6759a
high
81
False
Boston is internationally known for education and medicine because of its many what?
56e1184ecd28a01900c6759b
colleges and universities
16
False
The area's many colleges and universities make Boston an international center of higher education and medicine, and the city is considered to be a world leader in innovation. Boston's economic base also includes finance, professional and business services, biotechnology, information technology, and government activities. Households in the city claim the highest average rate of philanthropy in the United States; businesses and institutions rank amongst the top in the country for environmental sustainability and investment. The city has one of the highest costs of living in the United States, though it remains high on world livability rankings.
What did Boston's early settlers call the area?
56e119bdcd28a01900c675ab
Trimountaine
59
False
What does Trimountaine mean?
56e119bdcd28a01900c675ac
three mountains
84
False
What year was the city renamed Boston?
56e119bdcd28a01900c675ad
1630
274
False
Who named the city Boston?
56e119bdcd28a01900c675ae
Puritan colonists from England
302
False
What were the puritan colonists searching for when they came to Boston?
56e119bdcd28a01900c675af
fresh water
400
False
Boston's early European settlers had first called the area Trimountaine (after its "three mountains"—only traces of which remain today) but later renamed it Boston after Boston, Lincolnshire, England, the origin of several prominent colonists. The renaming, on September 7, 1630 (Old Style),[b] was by Puritan colonists from England, who had moved over from Charlestown earlier that year in quest of fresh water. Their settlement was initially limited to the Shawmut Peninsula, at that time surrounded by the Massachusetts Bay and Charles River and connected to the mainland by a narrow isthmus. The peninsula is known to have been inhabited as early as 5000 BC.
What year was the Cambridge Agreement signed?
56e11b94cd28a01900c675cd
1629
3
False
America's first public school was founded in Boston in what year?
56e11b94cd28a01900c675ce
1635
281
False
Who was Massachusetts first governor?
56e11b94cd28a01900c675cf
John Winthrop
56
False
How many french and Indian wars did Boston participate in?
56e11b94cd28a01900c675d0
four
337
False
Who led the signing of the Cambridge Agreement?
56e11b94cd28a01900c675d1
John Winthrop
56
False
In 1629, the Massachusetts Bay Colony's first governor, John Winthrop, led the signing of the Cambridge Agreement, a key founding document of the city. Puritan ethics and their focus on education influenced its early history; America's first public school was founded in Boston in 1635. Over the next 130 years, the city participated in four French and Indian Wars, until the British defeated the French and their native allies in North America. Boston was the largest town in British North America until Philadelphia grew larger in the mid 18th century.
Boston became one of the wealthiest international ports after what war?
56e11e6fcd28a01900c67604
the American Revolution
30
False
What long held tradition helped make Boston a wealthy port?
56e11e6fcd28a01900c67605
seafaring tradition
281
False
Boston was the location of many important events of what war?
56e11e6fcd28a01900c67607
the American Revolution
30
False
Many of the crucial events of the American Revolution—the Boston Massacre, the Boston Tea Party, Paul Revere's midnight ride, the battles of Lexington and Concord and Bunker Hill, the Siege of Boston, and many others—occurred in or near Boston. After the Revolution, Boston's long seafaring tradition helped make it one of the world's wealthiest international ports, with rum, fish, salt, and tobacco being particularly important.
What act was put in place during the Napoleonic wars and the war of 1812?
56e120c3cd28a01900c67627
The Embargo Act of 1807
0
False
What act cut down on Boston's harbor activity?
56e120c3cd28a01900c67628
The Embargo Act of 1807
0
False
What became an important part of the city's economy during the Napoleonic Wars and the war of 1812?
56e120c3cd28a01900c67629
manufacturing
394
False
In what century was manufacturing more important to Boston than trade?
56e120c3cd28a01900c6762a
19th century
358
False
When did Boston stop being known for it's garment production and leather goods?
56e120c3cd28a01900c6762b
the early 20th century
467
False
The Embargo Act of 1807, adopted during the Napoleonic Wars, and the War of 1812 significantly curtailed Boston's harbor activity. Although foreign trade returned after these hostilities, Boston's merchants had found alternatives for their capital investments in the interim. Manufacturing became an important component of the city's economy, and by the mid-19th century, the city's industrial manufacturing overtook international trade in economic importance. Until the early 20th century, Boston remained one of the nation's largest manufacturing centers and was notable for its garment production and leather-goods industries. A network of small rivers bordering the city and connecting it to the surrounding region facilitated shipment of goods and led to a proliferation of mills and factories. Later, a dense network of railroads furthered the region's industry and commerce.
What was the name given to old Boston families?
56e1223ecd28a01900c67631
Boston Brahmins
183
False
Who came to be known as the nation's social elites?
56e1223ecd28a01900c67632
Boston Brahmins
183
False
Boston was admired for what kind of life?
56e1223ecd28a01900c67633
literary life
82
False
Boston improved culturally because of its generous what?
56e1223ecd28a01900c67634
artistic patronage
109
False
During this period Boston flourished culturally as well, admired for its rarefied literary life and generous artistic patronage, with members of old Boston families—eventually dubbed Boston Brahmins—coming to be regarded as the nation's social and cultural elites.
Boston was overtaken by Salem, Massachusetts in what type of trade?
56e124adcd28a01900c67647
slave trade
52
False
What movement did Boston become the center of after it stopped slave trade?
56e124adcd28a01900c67648
the abolitionist movement
204
False
What law involving slaves did the city react strongly to?
56e124adcd28a01900c67649
the Fugitive Slave Law of 1850
260
False
What President attempted to make an example out of Boston due to it's view on the Anthony Burns Fugitive Slave Case?
56e124adcd28a01900c6764a
Franklin Pierce
318
False
Boston was an early port of the Atlantic triangular slave trade in the New England colonies, but was soon overtaken by Salem, Massachusetts and Newport, Rhode Island. Eventually Boston became a center of the abolitionist movement. The city reacted strongly to the Fugitive Slave Law of 1850, contributing to President Franklin Pierce's attempt to make an example of Boston after the Anthony Burns Fugitive Slave Case.
What was the City of Boston's name before it was the City of Boston?
56e12622e3433e1400422c72
the Town of Boston
72
False
What year was the name changes to the City of Boston?
56e12622e3433e1400422c73
1822
3
False
Boston was chartered as what in 1822?
56e12622e3433e1400422c74
a city
241
False
What was the population of Boston in 1822?
56e12622e3433e1400422c75
about 46,226
268
False
How many square miles was the city in 1822?
56e12622e3433e1400422c76
4.7 square miles
318
False
In 1822, the citizens of Boston voted to change the official name from "the Town of Boston" to "the City of Boston", and on March 4, 1822, the people of Boston accepted the charter incorporating the City. At the time Boston was chartered as a city, the population was about 46,226, while the area of the city was only 4.7 square miles (12 km2).
How did Boston's population change in the 1820's?
56e12827cd28a01900c67665
Boston's population grew rapidly
14
False
The first Europen immigrants arrival changed what in Boston?
56e12827cd28a01900c67666
the city's ethnic composition
52
False
What was the estimated population of Irish people living in Boston in 1850?
56e12827cd28a01900c67667
about 35,000
277
False
What religion did Irish and Italian immigrants bring with them to Boston?
56e12827cd28a01900c67668
Roman Catholicism
771
False
What is Bostons largest religious group today?
56e12827cd28a01900c67669
Catholics
801
False
In the 1820s, Boston's population grew rapidly, and the city's ethnic composition changed dramatically with the first wave of European immigrants. Irish immigrants dominated the first wave of newcomers during this period, especially following the Irish Potato Famine; by 1850, about 35,000 Irish lived in Boston. In the latter half of the 19th century, the city saw increasing numbers of Irish, Germans, Lebanese, Syrians, French Canadians, and Russian and Polish Jews settled in the city. By the end of the 19th century, Boston's core neighborhoods had become enclaves of ethnically distinct immigrants—Italians inhabited the North End, Irish dominated South Boston and Charlestown, and Russian Jews lived in the West End. Irish and Italian immigrants brought with them Roman Catholicism. Currently, Catholics make up Boston's largest religious community, and since the early 20th century, the Irish have played a major role in Boston politics—prominent figures include the Kennedys, Tip O'Neill, and John F. Fitzgerald.
What was used to fill a mill pond that became the Haymarket Square?
56e12a32cd28a01900c67679
the crown of Beacon Hill
242
False
What sits on Beacon Hill today?
56e12a32cd28a01900c6767b
State House
376
False
What famous disaster happened in Boston in 1872?
56e12a32cd28a01900c6767c
The Great Boston Fire of 1872
577
False
What was the rubble from the Great Boston Fire used for?
56e12a32cd28a01900c6767d
as landfill along the downtown waterfront
637
False
Between 1631 and 1890, the city tripled its area through land reclamation by filling in marshes, mud flats, and gaps between wharves along the waterfront. The largest reclamation efforts took place during the 19th century; beginning in 1807, the crown of Beacon Hill was used to fill in a 50-acre (20 ha) mill pond that later became the Haymarket Square area. The present-day State House sits atop this lowered Beacon Hill. Reclamation projects in the middle of the century created significant parts of the South End, the West End, the Financial District, and Chinatown. After The Great Boston Fire of 1872, workers used building rubble as landfill along the downtown waterfront. During the mid-to-late 19th century, workers filled almost 600 acres (2.4 km2) of brackish Charles River marshlands west of Boston Common with gravel brought by rail from the hills of Needham Heights. The city annexed the adjacent towns of South Boston (1804), East Boston (1836), Roxbury (1868), Dorchester (including present day Mattapan and a portion of South Boston) (1870), Brighton (including present day Allston) (1874), West Roxbury (including present day Jamaica Plain and Roslindale) (1874), Charlestown (1874), and Hyde Park (1912). Other proposals, for the annexation of Brookline, Cambridge, and Chelsea, were unsuccessful.
During what century did businesses move out of Boston to find cheaper labor?
56e12be3e3433e1400422c82
20th century
21
False
Projects to renew the city were put into place by what?
56e12be3e3433e1400422c83
the Boston Redevelopment Authority (BRA)
250
False
How did the people of Boston react to the demolition of the West End?
56e12be3e3433e1400422c86
with vociferous public opposition.
432
False
By the early and mid-20th century, the city was in decline as factories became old and obsolete, and businesses moved out of the region for cheaper labor elsewhere. Boston responded by initiating various urban renewal projects under the direction of the Boston Redevelopment Authority (BRA), which was established in 1957. In 1958, BRA initiated a project to improve the historic West End neighborhood. Extensive demolition was met with vociferous public opposition.
What year did the first community health center in the US open?
56e12dc2e3433e1400422c8c
1965
139
False
Where was Colombia Point Health Center located?
56e12dc2e3433e1400422c8e
the Dorchester neighborhood
245
False
In 1990, the Colombia Point Health Center was renamed what?
56e12dc2e3433e1400422c8f
Geiger-Gibson Community Health Center
455
False
The BRA subsequently reevaluated its approach to urban renewal in its future projects, including the construction of Government Center. In 1965, the first Community Health Center in the United States opened, the Columbia Point Health Center, in the Dorchester neighborhood. It mostly served the massive Columbia Point public housing complex adjoining it, which was built in 1953. The health center is still in operation and was rededicated in 1990 as the Geiger-Gibson Community Health Center. The Columbia Point complex itself was redeveloped and revitalized into a mixed-income community called Harbor Point Apartments from 1984 to 1990. By the 1970s, the city's economy boomed after 30 years of economic downturn. A large number of high rises were constructed in the Financial District and in Boston's Back Bay during this time period. This boom continued into the mid-1980s and later began again. Hospitals such as Massachusetts General Hospital, Beth Israel Deaconess Medical Center, and Brigham and Women's Hospital lead the nation in medical innovation and patient care. Schools such as Boston College, Boston University, the Harvard Medical School, Northeastern University, Wentworth Institute of Technology, Berklee College of Music and Boston Conservatory attract students to the area. Nevertheless, the city experienced conflict starting in 1974 over desegregation busing, which resulted in unrest and violence around public schools throughout the mid-1970s.
The New York Times bought what famous Boston newspaper?
56e12f74e3433e1400422ca0
The Boston Globe
143
False
Who bought FleetBoston Financial?
56e12f74e3433e1400422ca1
Bank of America
325
False
What year did Bank of America buy FleetBoston Fonancial?
56e12f74e3433e1400422ca2
2004
344
False
Two Boston department stores merged to form what Cincinnati based department store?
56e12f74e3433e1400422ca3
Macy's
455
False
What department stores merged to form Macy's?
56e12f74e3433e1400422ca4
Jordan Marsh and Filene's
381
False
Boston is an intellectual, technological, and political center but has lost some important regional institutions, including the acquisition of The Boston Globe by The New York Times, and the loss to mergers and acquisitions of local financial institutions such as FleetBoston Financial, which was acquired by Charlotte-based Bank of America in 2004. Boston-based department stores Jordan Marsh and Filene's have both been merged into the Cincinnati–based Macy's. Boston has experienced gentrification in the latter half of the 20th century, with housing prices increasing sharply since the 1990s. Living expenses have risen, and Boston has one of the highest costs of living in the United States, and was ranked the 129th most expensive major city in the world in a 2011 survey of 214 cities. Despite cost of living issues, Boston ranks high on livability ratings, ranking 36th worldwide in quality of living in 2011 in a survey of 221 major cities.
On what date did bombs go off at the Boston marathon?
56e1307acd28a01900c67683
April 15, 2013
3
False
At what point of the Marathon were the bombs exploded?
56e1307acd28a01900c67685
near the finish line
68
False
How many fatalities were there at the marathon?
56e1307acd28a01900c67686
three
121
False
About how many people were injured in the explosion?
56e1307acd28a01900c67687
264
155
False
On April 15, 2013, two Chechen Islamist brothers exploded two bombs near the finish line of the Boston Marathon, killing three people and injuring roughly 264.
What is the total area of Boston?
56e131aecd28a01900c6768d
89.6 square miles
22
False
How many square miles of land is Boston?
56e131aecd28a01900c6768e
48.4 square miles
52
False
How many square miles of water is Boston?
56e131aecd28a01900c6768f
41.2 square miles
102
False
How many feet above sea level is the City of Boston?
56e131aecd28a01900c67690
19 ft
228
False
Boston is the only state capital in the contiguous US to have what type of coastline?
56e131aecd28a01900c67691
oceanic coastline
492
False
Boston has an area of 89.6 square miles (232.1 km2)—48.4 square miles (125.4 km2) (54.0%) of land and 41.2 square miles (106.7 km2) (46.0%) of water. The city's official elevation, as measured at Logan International Airport, is 19 ft (5.8 m) above sea level. The highest point in Boston is Bellevue Hill at 330 feet (100 m) above sea level, and the lowest point is at sea level. Situated onshore of the Atlantic Ocean, Boston is the only state capital in the contiguous United States with an oceanic coastline.
What is the name of the region that surrounds Boston?
56e13485cd28a01900c676a1
Greater Boston
29
False
What river seperates Boston from Charlestown?
56e13485cd28a01900c676a2
The Charles River
231
False
What direction from Boston is Boston Harbor?
56e13485cd28a01900c676a3
To the east
374
False
Calf Island and Green Island are considered part of what National Recreation Area?
56e13485cd28a01900c676a4
Boston Harbor Islands National Recreation Area
412
False
Boston is surrounded by the "Greater Boston" region and is contiguously bordered by the cities and towns of Winthrop, Revere, Chelsea, Everett, Somerville, Cambridge, Newton, Brookline, Needham, Dedham, Canton, Milton, and Quincy. The Charles River separates Boston from Watertown and the majority of Cambridge, and the mass of Boston from its own Charlestown neighborhood. To the east lie Boston Harbor and the Boston Harbor Islands National Recreation Area (which includes part of the city's territory, specifically Calf Island, Gallops Island, Great Brewster Island, Green Island, Little Brewster Island, Little Calf Island, Long Island, Lovells Island, Middle Brewster Island, Nixes Mate, Outer Brewster Island, Rainsford Island, Shag Rocks, Spectacle Island, The Graves, and Thompson Island). The Neponset River forms the boundary between Boston's southern neighborhoods and the city of Quincy and the town of Milton. The Mystic River separates Charlestown from Chelsea and Everett, and Chelsea Creek and Boston Harbor separate East Boston from Boston proper.
What s Boston sometimes called?
56e13568cd28a01900c676b5
city of neighborhoods
30
False
How many neighborhoods are in Boston?
56e13568cd28a01900c676b6
23 neighborhoods
182
False
What division of the City Government designated the 23 neighborhoods?
56e13568cd28a01900c676b7
Office of Neighborhood Services
124
False
Boston is sometimes called a "city of neighborhoods" because of the profusion of diverse subsections; the city government's Office of Neighborhood Services has officially designated 23 neighborhoods.
How much of Inner Bostons land area did not exist when the city was founded?
56e136e7cd28a01900c676bb
More than two-thirds
0
False
The modern land area was created by the gradual filling in of surrounding what?
56e136e7cd28a01900c676bc
tidal areas
159
False
Tremont Street is named after what original hill in Boston?
56e136e7cd28a01900c676bd
Trimountain
279
False
A train full of gravel came from Needham to fill what?
56e136e7cd28a01900c676be
the Back Bay
385
False
The Boston Public Library is located in what part of Boston?
56e136e7cd28a01900c676bf
the Back Bay
385
False
More than two-thirds of inner Boston's modern land area did not exist when the city was founded, but was created via the gradual filling in of the surrounding tidal areas over the centuries, notably with earth from the leveling or lowering of Boston's three original hills (the "Trimountain", after which Tremont Street is named), and with gravel brought by train from Needham to fill the Back Bay. Downtown and its immediate surroundings consists largely of low-rise (often Federal style and Greek Revival) masonry buildings, interspersed with modern highrises, notably in the Financial District, Government Center, and South Boston. Back Bay includes many prominent landmarks, such as the Boston Public Library, Christian Science Center, Copley Square, Newbury Street, and New England's two tallest buildings—the John Hancock Tower and the Prudential Center. Near the John Hancock Tower is the old John Hancock Building with its prominent illuminated beacon, the color of which forecasts the weather. Smaller commercial areas are interspersed among areas of single-family homes and wooden/brick multi-family row houses. The South End Historic District is the largest surviving contiguous Victorian-era neighborhood in the US. The geography of downtown and South Boston was particularly impacted by the Central Artery/Tunnel Project (known unofficially as the "Big Dig"), which allowed for the removal of the unsightly elevated Central Artery and the incorporation of new green spaces and open areas.
Most of the city lies in which USDA plant hardiness zone?
56e13873cd28a01900c676c6
6b
457
False
What minimizes the influence of the Atlantic ocean on Bostons weather?
56e13873cd28a01900c676c7
Prevailing wind patterns
797
False
What is the hottest month in Boston?
56e13873cd28a01900c676c8
July
908
False
What is the coldest month in Boston?
56e13873cd28a01900c676c9
January
106
False
Boston has a continental climate with some maritime influence, and using the −3 °C (27 °F) coldest month (January) isotherm, the city lies within the transition zone from a humid subtropical climate (Köppen Cfa) to a humid continental climate (Köppen Dfa), although the suburbs north and west of the city are significantly colder in winter and solidly fall under the latter categorization; the city lies at the transition between USDA plant hardiness zones 6b (most of the city) and 7a (Downtown, South Boston, and East Boston neighborhoods). Summers are typically warm to hot, rainy, and humid, while winters oscillate between periods of cold rain and snow, with cold temperatures. Spring and fall are usually mild, with varying conditions dependent on wind direction and jet stream positioning. Prevailing wind patterns that blow offshore minimize the influence of the Atlantic Ocean. The hottest month is July, with a mean temperature of 73.4 °F (23.0 °C). The coldest month is January, with a mean of 29.0 °F (−1.7 °C). Periods exceeding 90 °F (32 °C) in summer and below freezing in winter are not uncommon but rarely extended, with about 13 and 25 days per year seeing each, respectively. The most recent sub-0 °F (−18 °C) reading occurring on February 14, 2016 when the temperature dipped down to −9 °F (−23 °C), the coldest reading since 1957. In addition, several decades may pass between 100 °F (38 °C) readings, with the most recent such occurrence on July 22, 2011 when the temperature reached 103 °F (39 °C). The city's average window for freezing temperatures is November 9 through April 5.[c] Official temperature records have ranged from −18 °F (−28 °C) on February 9, 1934, up to 104 °F (40 °C) on July 4, 1911; the record cold daily maximum is 2 °F (−17 °C) on December 30, 1917, while, conversely, the record warm daily minimum is 83 °F (28 °C) on August 2, 1975.
On what coast is Boston located?
56e1399dcd28a01900c676cf
the North Atlantic
29
False
What type of weather systems in Boston can produce much snow and rain?
56e1399dcd28a01900c676d0
Nor'easter
108
False
What is the average rainfall in the City of Boston per year?
56e1399dcd28a01900c676d1
43.8 inches
190
False
What is the average snowfall per year in the City of Boston?
56e1399dcd28a01900c676d2
43.8 inches
190
False
When does most snowfall occur?
56e1399dcd28a01900c676d3
December through March
473
False
Boston's coastal location on the North Atlantic moderates its temperature, but makes the city very prone to Nor'easter weather systems that can produce much snow and rain. The city averages 43.8 inches (1,110 mm) of precipitation a year, with 43.8 inches (111 cm) of snowfall per season. Snowfall increases dramatically as one goes inland away from the city (especially north and west of the city)—away from the moderating influence of the ocean. Most snowfall occurs from December through March, as most years see no measurable snow in April and November, and snow is rare in May and October. There is also high year-to-year variability in snowfall; for instance, the winter of 2011–12 saw only 9.3 in (23.6 cm) of accumulating snow, but the previous winter, the corresponding figure was 81.0 in (2.06 m).[d]
During what seasons is fog common in Boston?
56e13b0ae3433e1400422ce6
spring and early summer
38
False
When can tropical storms and hurricanes threaten Boston?
56e13b0ae3433e1400422ce7
late summer and early autumn
149
False
Sea breezes occur during what season?
56e13b0ae3433e1400422ce8
late spring
281
False
What months do thunderstorms occur in Boston?
56e13b0ae3433e1400422ce9
May to September
504
False
What is the average hours of sunshine per year in Boston?
56e13b0ae3433e1400422cea
2,600
898
False
Fog is fairly common, particularly in spring and early summer, and the occasional tropical storm or hurricane can threaten the region, especially in late summer and early autumn. Due to its situation along the North Atlantic, the city often receives sea breezes, especially in the late spring, when water temperatures are still quite cold and temperatures at the coast can be more than 20 °F (11 °C) colder than a few miles inland, sometimes dropping by that amount near midday. Thunderstorms occur from May to September, that are occasionally severe with large hail, damaging winds and heavy downpours. Although downtown Boston has never been struck by a violent tornado, the city itself has experienced many tornado warnings. Damaging storms are more common to areas north, west, and northwest of the city. Boston has a relatively sunny climate for a coastal city at its latitude, averaging over 2,600 hours of sunshine per annum.
About what was the population of Boston in 2010?
56e13c5ee3433e1400422cf0
617,594
38
False
How many housing units were there in Boston in 2010?
56e13c5ee3433e1400422cf1
272,481
118
False
How many people are in Boston during work hours?
56e13c5ee3433e1400422cf2
1.2 million
277
False
What can the population of Boston rech during special events?
56e13c5ee3433e1400422cf3
2 million
279
False
What is the density of Boston's population?
56e13c5ee3433e1400422cf4
12,200 persons/sq mile
70
False
In 2010, Boston was estimated to have 617,594 residents (a density of 12,200 persons/sq mile, or 4,700/km2) living in 272,481 housing units— a 5% population increase over 2000. The city is the third most densely populated large U.S. city of over half a million residents. Some 1.2 million persons may be within Boston's boundaries during work hours, and as many as 2 million during special events. This fluctuation of people is caused by hundreds of thousands of suburban residents who travel to the city for work, education, health care, and special events.
What percentage of the City of Bostons population is 19 and under?
56e13daccd28a01900c676e3
21.9%
48
False
What percentage of the City of Boston's population is 20 to 24?
56e13daccd28a01900c676e4
14.3%
75
False
What percentage of the City of Bostons population is 25 to 44?
56e13daccd28a01900c676e5
33.2%
96
False
What percentage of the City of Bostons residents are 45 to 64?
56e13daccd28a01900c676e6
20.4%
117
False
What percentage of the City of Boston's residents are over 65?
56e13daccd28a01900c676e7
10.1%
142
False
In the city, the population was spread out with 21.9% at age 19 and under, 14.3% from 20 to 24, 33.2% from 25 to 44, 20.4% from 45 to 64, and 10.1% who were 65 years of age or older. The median age was 30.8 years. For every 100 females, there were 92.0 males. For every 100 females age 18 and over, there were 89.9 males. There were 252,699 households, of which 20.4% had children under the age of 18 living in them, 25.5% were married couples living together, 16.3% had a female householder with no husband present, and 54.0% were non-families. 37.1% of all households were made up of individuals and 9.0% had someone living alone who was 65 years of age or older. The average household size was 2.26 and the average family size was 3.08.
What is the average household income in Boston?
56e13eb6cd28a01900c676ed
$51,739
42
False
What is the average family income in Boston?
56e13eb6cd28a01900c676ee
$61,035
92
False
What is the average income for a full time male worker?
56e13eb6cd28a01900c676ef
$52,544
158
False
What is the average income for a full time female worker?
56e13eb6cd28a01900c676f0
$46,540
173
False
What percent of families fall below the poverty line?
56e13eb6cd28a01900c676f1
16.0%
298
False
The median household income in Boston was $51,739, while the median income for a family was $61,035. Full-time year-round male workers had a median income of $52,544 versus $46,540 for full-time year-round female workers. The per capita income for the city was $33,158. 21.4% of the population and 16.0% of families are below the poverty line. Of the total population, 28.8% of those under the age of 18 and 20.4% of those 65 and older were living below the poverty line.
What percent of Boston's population was white in 1950?
56e140e5cd28a01900c676f7
94.7%
28
False
In 2000, what percen tof the population were non hispanic and white?
56e140e5cd28a01900c676f8
49.5%
202
False
What year did minorities become the majority of the population for the first time?
56e140e5cd28a01900c676f9
2000
168
False
In recent years, the whote population has begun to move where?
56e140e5cd28a01900c676fa
formerly non-white areas
407
False
What year did non hispanic whites once again become the majority of the population?
56e140e5cd28a01900c676fb
2006
436
False
In 1950, whites represented 94.7% of Boston's population. From the 1950s to the end of the 20th century, the proportion of non-Hispanic whites in the city declined; in 2000, non-Hispanic whites made up 49.5% of the city's population, making the city majority-minority for the first time. However, in recent years the city has experienced significant gentrification, in which affluent whites have moved into formerly non-white areas. In 2006, the US Census Bureau estimated that non-Hispanic whites again formed a slight majority. But as of 2010, in part due to the housing crash, as well as increased efforts to make more affordable housing more available, the minority population has rebounded. This may also have to do with an increased Latino population and more clarity surrounding US Census statistics, which indicate a Non-Hispanic White population of 47 percent (some reports give slightly lower figures).
What people form the largest ethnic group in the city?
56e141e2e3433e1400422d04
People of Irish descent
0
False
What percentage of the city's population is Irish?
56e141e2e3433e1400422d05
15.8%
84
False
What is the second largest ethnic group in the city?
56e141e2e3433e1400422d06
Italians
121
False
What percentage of the citys population is italian?
56e141e2e3433e1400422d07
8.3%
146
False
How many Chinese Americans lived in Boston City proper in 2013?
56e141e2e3433e1400422d08
Over 27,000
295
False
People of Irish descent form the largest single ethnic group in the city, making up 15.8% of the population, followed by Italians, accounting for 8.3% of the population. People of West Indian and Caribbean ancestry are another sizable group, at 6.0%, about half of whom are of Haitian ancestry. Over 27,000 Chinese Americans made their home in Boston city proper in 2013, and the city hosts a growing Chinatown accommodating heavily traveled Chinese-owned bus lines to and from Chinatown, Manhattan. Some neighborhoods, such as Dorchester, have received an influx of people of Vietnamese ancestry in recent decades. Neighborhoods such as Jamaica Plain and Roslindale have experienced a growing number of Dominican Americans. The city and greater area also has a growing immigrant population of South Asians, including the tenth-largest Indian community in the country.
How many Jewish people live in the City of Boston?
56e142e6e3433e1400422d0e
25,000
59
False
How many Jewish people live in the Boston Metro area?
56e142e6e3433e1400422d0f
227,000
91
False
What is the total number of congregations in Boston?
56e142e6e3433e1400422d10
22
91
False
What adjascent communities also hold a high Jewish population?
56e142e6e3433e1400422d11
Brookline and Newton
215
False
What is the estimated percentage of the population of Brookline and newton that are jewish?
56e142e6e3433e1400422d12
one-third
259
False
The city has a sizable Jewish population with an estimated 25,000 Jews within the city and 227,000 within the Boston metro area; the number of congregations in Boston is estimated at 22. The adjacent communities of Brookline and Newton are both approximately one-third Jewish.
What neighborhoos has a high rate of hispanics?
56e1441acd28a01900c67701
the East Boston neighborhood
21
False
How many hispanics live in the City of Boston?
56e1441acd28a01900c67702
107,917
511
False
How many Puerto Rican hispanics live in greater Boston?
56e1441acd28a01900c67703
175,000+
601
False
How many Mexican hispanics live in greater Boston?
56e1441acd28a01900c67704
25,000+
682
False
How many Colombians live in greater Boston?
56e1441acd28a01900c67705
22,000+
716
False
The city, especially the East Boston neighborhood, has a significant Hispanic community. Hispanics in Boston are mostly of Puerto Rican (30,506 or 4.9% of total city population), Dominican (25,648 or 4.2% of total city population), Salvadoran (10,850 or 1.8% of city population), Colombian (6,649 or 1.1% of total city population), Mexican (5,961 or 1.0% of total city population), and Guatemalan (4,451 or 0.7% of total city population) ethnic origin. When including all Hispanic national origins, they number 107,917. In Greater Boston, these numbers grow significantly with Puerto Ricans numbering 175,000+, Dominicans 95,000+, Salvadorans 40,000+, Guatemalans 31,000+, Mexicans 25,000+, and Colombians numbering 22,000+.
In 2014, what percentage of the city identified as Christian?
56e145b6e3433e1400422d28
57%
54
False
In 2014, what percentage of the city identified as Protestant?
56e145b6e3433e1400422d29
25%
130
False
In 2014, what percent of the City of Boston was Catholic?
56e145b6e3433e1400422d2a
29%
222
False
In 2014, what percentage of Bostons residents did not claim to belong to any religion?
56e145b6e3433e1400422d2b
33%
267
False
In 2014, other religions mad eup what percentage of the citys population?
56e145b6e3433e1400422d2c
10%
422
False
According to a 2014 study by the Pew Research Center, 57% of the population of the city identified themselves as Christians, with 25% professing attendance at a variety of churches that could be considered Protestant, and 29% professing Roman Catholic beliefs. while 33% claim no religious affiliation. The same study says that other religions (including Judaism, Buddhism, Islam, and Hinduism) collectively make up about 10% of the population.
How many member attended the Catholic Church in the Boston area in 2010?
56e14735cd28a01900c6771d
two million
150
False
How many Catholic churches were in the Boston area in 2010?
56e14735cd28a01900c6771e
339
174
False
How many Episcopal churches were in the Boston Metro area in 2010?
56e14735cd28a01900c6771f
160
246
False
What Boston church is one of the oldest congregations in the US?
56e14735cd28a01900c67720
Old South Church
394
False
What year was Old South Church organized?
56e14735cd28a01900c67721
1669
498
False
As of 2010 the Catholic Church had the highest number of adherents as a single denomination in the Boston-Cambridge-Newton Metro area, with more than two million members and 339 churches, followed by the Episcopal Church with 58,000 adherents in 160 churches. The United Church of Christ had 55,000 members and 213 churches. The UCC is the successor of the city's Puritan religious traditions. Old South Church in Boston is one of the oldest congregations in the United States. It was organized in 1669 by dissenters from the First Church in Boston (1630). Notable past members include Samuel Adams, William Dawes, Benjamin Franklin, Samuel Sewall, and Phillis Wheatley. In 1773, Adams gave the signals from the Old South Meeting House that started the Boston Tea Party.
What rank does Boston hold as far as being an economically powerful city in the world?
56e14848cd28a01900c67739
among the top 30
32
False
What is the economy of Boston?
56e14848cd28a01900c6773a
$363 billion
110
False
What ranking in the country does Greater Boston metro hold as far as economy?
56e14848cd28a01900c6773b
sixth-largest
169
False
What ranking in the world does greater Boston metro hold as far as economy?
56e14848cd28a01900c6773c
12th-largest
210
False
A global city, Boston is placed among the top 30 most economically powerful cities in the world. Encompassing $363 billion, the Greater Boston metropolitan area has the sixth-largest economy in the country and 12th-largest in the world.
How many college students does Boston attract?
56e149c7cd28a01900c67741
more than 350,000
102
False
Students from around the world contribute how much a year to Bostons economy?
56e149c7cd28a01900c67742
$4.8 billion
185
False
Because of the number of tech companies, the city is a hub for what?
56e149c7cd28a01900c67743
biotechnology
398
False
The Milken Institute rated Boston as the top what in the country?
56e149c7cd28a01900c67744
life sciences cluster
464
False
Of all cities in the US, Boston received the highest amount of funding from where?
56e149c7cd28a01900c67745
the National Institutes of Health
569
False
Boston's colleges and universities have a significant effect on the regional economy. Boston attracts more than 350,000 college students from around the world, who contribute more than $4.8 billion annually to the city's economy. The area's schools are major employers and attract industries to the city and surrounding region. The city is home to a number of technology companies and is a hub for biotechnology, with the Milken Institute rating Boston as the top life sciences cluster in the country. Boston receives the highest absolute amount of annual funding from the National Institutes of Health of all cities in the United States.
The city is innovative becaus eit has access to what type of capital?
56e14ae1e3433e1400422d6c
venture capital
113
False
There is a  high presence of what type of company in the city?
56e14ae1e3433e1400422d6d
high-tech companies
155
False
Route 128 and Greater Boston are centers for what type of investment?
56e14ae1e3433e1400422d6e
venture capital investment
252
False
What remains an important sector?
56e14ae1e3433e1400422d6f
high technology
284
False
The city is considered highly innovative for a variety of reasons, including the presence of academia, access to venture capital, and the presence of many high-tech companies. The Route 128 corridor and Greater Boston continue to be a major center for venture capital investment, and high technology remains an important sector.
A large part of Boston's economy is made up of what?
56e14c63e3433e1400422d74
Tourism
0
False
How many tourists visited Boston in 2011?
56e14c63e3433e1400422d75
21.2 million
61
False
How much did tourists spend in Boston in 2011?
56e14c63e3433e1400422d76
$8.3 billion
119
False
What year did the number of Tourists from china and the UK top the list?
56e14c63e3433e1400422d77
2014
242
False
Tourism also composes a large part of Boston's economy, with 21.2 million domestic and international visitors spending $8.3 billion in 2011; excluding visitors from Canada and Mexico, over 1.4 million international tourists visited Boston in 2014, with those from China and the United Kingdom leading the list. Boston's status as a state capital as well as the regional home of federal agencies has rendered law and government to be another major component of the city's economy. The city is a major seaport along the United States' East Coast and the oldest continuously operated industrial and fishing port in the Western Hemisphere.
Mutual funds and insurance are what type of industry?
56e14e04cd28a01900c67779
financial services
31
False
What Boston investment firm helped make mutual funds popular in the 1980's?
56e14e04cd28a01900c6777a
Fidelity Investments
103
False
What helped make Boston one of the top financial cities in the US?
56e14e04cd28a01900c6777b
Fidelity Investments
103
False
Boston is the center for what type of capital firms?
56e14e04cd28a01900c6777c
venture capital
328
False
In 2016, GE Corporation decided to move its global headquarters to where?
56e14e04cd28a01900c6777d
the Seaport District in Boston
1019
False
Other important industries are financial services, especially mutual funds and insurance. Boston-based Fidelity Investments helped popularize the mutual fund in the 1980s and has made Boston one of the top financial cities in the United States. The city is home to the headquarters of Santander Bank, and Boston is a center for venture capital firms. State Street Corporation, which specializes in asset management and custody services, is based in the city. Boston is a printing and publishing center — Houghton Mifflin Harcourt is headquartered within the city, along with Bedford-St. Martin's Press and Beacon Press. Pearson PLC publishing units also employ several hundred people in Boston. The city is home to three major convention centers—the Hynes Convention Center in the Back Bay, and the Seaport World Trade Center and Boston Convention and Exhibition Center on the South Boston waterfront. The General Electric Corporation announced in January 2016 its decision to move the company's global headquarters to the Seaport District in Boston, from Fairfield, Connecticut, citing factors including Boston's preeminence in the realm of higher education.
How many students are in Boston Public schools?
56e14eddcd28a01900c6778d
57,000
34
False
How many schools are in Boston?
56e14eddcd28a01900c6778e
145 schools
60
False
What is the oldest public high school in the US?
56e14eddcd28a01900c6778f
The Boston Latin School
186
False
What percentage of Bostons public students are African American?
56e14eddcd28a01900c67791
35%
438
False
The Boston Public Schools enrolls 57,000 students attending 145 schools, including the renowned Boston Latin Academy, John D. O'Bryant School of Math & Science, and Boston Latin School. The Boston Latin School, established 1635, is the oldest public high school in the US; Boston also operates the United States' second oldest public high school, and its oldest public elementary school. The system's students are 40% Hispanic or Latino, 35% Black or African American, 13% White, and 9% Asian. There are private, parochial, and charter schools as well, and approximately 3,300 minority students attend participating suburban schools through the Metropolitan Educational Opportunity Council.
How many member of the Association of American Universities are in Boston?
56e1500fcd28a01900c677a1
four
727
False
How many students are enrolled in boston and Cambridge?
56e1500fcd28a01900c677a4
250,000
599
False
Who is the citys fourth largest employer?
56e1500fcd28a01900c677a5
Boston University
285
False
Some of the most renowned and highly ranked universities in the world are located in the Boston area. Four members of the Association of American Universities are in Greater Boston (more than any other metropolitan area): Harvard University, the Massachusetts Institute of Technology, Boston University, and Brandeis University. Hospitals, universities, and research institutions in Greater Boston received more than $1.77 billion in National Institutes of Health grants in 2013, more money than any other American metropolitan area. Greater Boston has more than 100 colleges and universities, with 250,000 students enrolled in Boston and Cambridge alone. Its largest private universities include Boston University (the city's fourth-largest employer) with its main campus along Commonwealth Avenue and a medical campus in the South End; Northeastern University in the Fenway area; Suffolk University near Beacon Hill, which includes law school and business school; and Boston College, which straddles the Boston (Brighton)–Newton border. Boston's only public university is the University of Massachusetts Boston, on Columbia Point in Dorchester. Roxbury Community College and Bunker Hill Community College are the city's two public community colleges. Altogether, Boston's colleges and universities employ over 42,600 people, accounting for nearly 7 percent of the city's workforce.
Babson College is what type of institution?
56e150c4e3433e1400422db4
Smaller private schools
0
False
What small private law school is located in Boston?
56e150c4e3433e1400422db5
New England School of Law
313
False
What was the name of Americas first all female law school?
56e150c4e3433e1400422db6
New England School of Law
313
False
Smaller private schools include Babson College, Bentley University, Boston Architectural College, Emmanuel College, Fisher College, MGH Institute of Health Professions, Massachusetts College of Pharmacy and Health Sciences, Simmons College, Wellesley College, Wheelock College, Wentworth Institute of Technology, New England School of Law (originally established as America's first all female law school), and Emerson College.
Wher e is Lesley University College of Art and Desighn located?
56e151c2cd28a01900c677bf
Metropolitan Boston
0
False
What is another name for New Englans school of Art and Design
56e151c2cd28a01900c677c0
Suffolk University
263
False
What is the oldest independant conservatory in the US?
56e151c2cd28a01900c677c1
the New England Conservatory
327
False
What college plays an important role in making Boston known for Jazz?
56e151c2cd28a01900c677c2
Berklee College of Music
473
False
Metropolitan Boston is home to several conservatories and art schools, including Lesley University College of Art and Design, Massachusetts College of Art, the School of the Museum of Fine Arts, New England Institute of Art, New England School of Art and Design (Suffolk University), Longy School of Music of Bard College, and the New England Conservatory (the oldest independent conservatory in the United States). Other conservatories include the Boston Conservatory and Berklee College of Music, which has made Boston an important city for jazz music.
What Univesity located outside of Boston still holds a large presence in the city?
56e152d7cd28a01900c677c7
Harvard University
79
False
What is the nations oldest college?
56e152d7cd28a01900c677c8
Harvard University
79
False
Where does Harvard plan to expand to?
56e152d7cd28a01900c677c9
Allston
389
False
What was MIT originally known as?
56e152d7cd28a01900c677ca
Boston Tech
581
False
In 1916, MIT moved across the river to what city?
56e152d7cd28a01900c677cb
Cambridge
190
False
Several universities located outside Boston have a major presence in the city. Harvard University, the nation's oldest institute of higher education, is centered across the Charles River in Cambridge but has the majority of its land holdings and a substantial amount of its educational activities in Boston. Its business, medical, dental, and public health schools are located in Boston's Allston and Longwood neighborhoods. Harvard has plans for additional expansion into Allston. The Massachusetts Institute of Technology (MIT), which originated in Boston and was long known as "Boston Tech", moved across the river to Cambridge in 1916. Tufts University, whose main campus is north of the city in Somerville and Medford, locates its medical and dental school in Boston's Chinatown at Tufts Medical Center, a 451-bed academic medical institution that is home to both a full-service hospital for adults and the Floating Hospital for Children.
Since the early 1990's, Boston has had less of what type of crime?
56e153fee3433e1400422dc4
violent crime
70
False
Boston police and local groups make an effort toprevent youth from doing what?
56e153fee3433e1400422dc5
joining gangs
281
False
The Boston Miracle is the name for the reduction in what crime from 1990 to 1999?
56e153fee3433e1400422dc6
Murders
458
False
What was the murder rate in Boston in 1990?
56e153fee3433e1400422dc8
26.5 per 100,000
525
False
Like many major American cities, Boston has seen a great reduction in violent crime since the early 1990s. Boston's low crime rate since the 1990s has been credited to the Boston Police Department's collaboration with neighborhood groups and church parishes to prevent youths from joining gangs, as well as involvement from the United States Attorney and District Attorney's offices. This helped lead in part to what has been touted as the "Boston Miracle". Murders in the city dropped from 152 in 1990 (for a murder rate of 26.5 per 100,000 people) to just 31—not one of them a juvenile—in 1999 (for a murder rate of 5.26 per 100,000).
How many reported murders were there in 2008?
56e15477e3433e1400422dce
62
20
False
How many murders were there in 2014?
56e15477e3433e1400422dcf
52
124
False
How many murders were there in Boston in 2015?
56e15477e3433e1400422dd0
39
131
False
In 2008, there were 62 reported homicides. Through December 20 each of 2014 and 2015, the Boston Police Department reported 52 and 39 homicides, respectively.
Boston is culturally similar to what area?
56e15659e3433e1400422dd4
greater New England
39
False
What is the Boston accent known as?
56e15659e3433e1400422dd5
Boston English
134
False
Who influences Boston's politics and religion?
56e15659e3433e1400422dd6
Irish Americans
233
False
What are Bostons neologisms more commonly known as?
56e15659e3433e1400422dd7
Boston slang
378
False
Food with an emphasis on seafood, salt, and dairy is an exaple of what?
56e15659e3433e1400422dd8
regional cuisine
156
False
Boston shares many cultural roots with greater New England, including a dialect of the non-rhotic Eastern New England accent known as Boston English, and a regional cuisine with a large emphasis on seafood, salt, and dairy products. Irish Americans are a major influence on Boston's politics and religious institutions. Boston also has its own collection of neologisms known as Boston slang.
Known for its literary culture, Boston has also been called what?
56e15767cd28a01900c677f9
Athens of America
28
False
What century did Ralph Waldo Emerson write in?
56e15767cd28a01900c677fa
the nineteenth century
149
False
What was the name of the bookstore the authors met in?
56e15767cd28a01900c677fb
Old Corner Bookstore
341
False
Where was the Atlantic Monthly first published?
56e15767cd28a01900c677fc
the Old Corner Bookstore
337
False
What year was the Boston Public Library founded?
56e15767cd28a01900c677fd
1852
480
False
Boston has been called the "Athens of America" for its literary culture, earning a reputation as "the intellectual capital of the United States." In the nineteenth century, Ralph Waldo Emerson, Henry David Thoreau, Nathaniel Hawthorne, Margaret Fuller, James Russell Lowell, and Henry Wadsworth Longfellow wrote in Boston. Some consider the Old Corner Bookstore, where these writers met and where The Atlantic Monthly was first published, to be "cradle of American literature. In 1852, the Boston Public Library was founded as the first free library in the United States. Boston's literary culture continues today thanks to the city's many universities and the Boston Book Festival.
The Boston Symphony Orchestra is a member of what?
56e1586ee3433e1400422de8
Big Five
75
False
What classical music magazine called the Boston Symphony orchestra one of the worlds best orchestras?
56e1586ee3433e1400422de9
Gramophone
164
False
What does Boston Symphony orchestra call home?
56e1586ee3433e1400422dea
Symphony Hall
223
False
Where is Symphony Hall located?
56e1586ee3433e1400422deb
west of Back Bay
246
False
Where is the theater District located?
56e1586ee3433e1400422dec
south of Boston Common
1364
False
Music is cherished in Boston. The Boston Symphony Orchestra is one of the "Big Five," a group of the greatest American orchestras, and the classical music magazine Gramophone called it one of the "world's best" orchestras. Symphony Hall (located west of Back Bay) is home to the Boston Symphony Orchestra, (and the related Boston Youth Symphony Orchestra, which is the largest youth orchestra in the nation) and the Boston Pops Orchestra. The British newspaper The Guardian called Boston Symphony Hall "one of the top venues for classical music in the world," adding that "Symphony Hall in Boston was where science became an essential part of concert hall design." Other concerts are held at the New England Conservatory's Jordan Hall. The Boston Ballet performs at the Boston Opera House. Other performing-arts organizations located in the city include the Boston Lyric Opera Company, Opera Boston, Boston Baroque (the first permanent Baroque orchestra in the US), and the Handel and Haydn Society (one of the oldest choral companies in the United States). The city is a center for contemporary classical music with a number of performing groups, several of which are associated with the city's conservatories and universities. These include the Boston Modern Orchestra Project and Boston Musica Viva. Several theaters are located in or near the Theater District south of Boston Common, including the Cutler Majestic Theatre, Citi Performing Arts Center, the Colonial Theater, and the Orpheum Theatre.
What event occurs on New Year's Eve?
56e15993cd28a01900c67803
First Night
46
False
Where is the annual Boston Arts festival?
56e15993cd28a01900c67804
Christopher Columbus Waterfront Park
159
False
Where are Italian Summer feasts held?
56e15993cd28a01900c67805
the North End
226
False
Whos is honored in the Italian Summer Feasts?
56e15993cd28a01900c67806
Catholic saints
249
False
How long are the Harbor-Fest festivities?
56e15993cd28a01900c67807
week-long
356
False
There are several major annual events such as First Night, which occurs on New Year's Eve, the Boston Early Music Festival, the annual Boston Arts Festival at Christopher Columbus Waterfront Park, and Italian summer feasts in the North End honoring Catholic saints. The city is the site of several events during the Fourth of July period. They include the week-long Harborfest festivities and a Boston Pops concert accompanied by fireworks on the banks of the Charles River.
What is preserved in the Boston national Historical Park?
56e15ab9e3433e1400422df2
several historic sites
65
False
What is marked by a line of red bricks in the ground?
56e15ab9e3433e1400422df3
the Freedom Trail
195
False
Where is the institute of contemporary Art located?
56e15ab9e3433e1400422df4
in the Seaport District
507
False
What is one of the oldest libraries in the US?
56e15ab9e3433e1400422df5
The Boston Athenaeum
632
False
Where is the New England Aquarium located?
56e15ab9e3433e1400422df6
within the city
871
False
Because of the city's prominent role in the American Revolution, several historic sites relating to that period are preserved as part of the Boston National Historical Park. Many are found along the Freedom Trail, which is marked by a red line of bricks embedded in the ground. The city is also home to several art museums, including the Museum of Fine Arts and the Isabella Stewart Gardner Museum. The Institute of Contemporary Art is housed in a contemporary building designed by Diller Scofidio + Renfro in the Seaport District. The University of Massachusetts Boston campus on Columbia Point houses the John F. Kennedy Library. The Boston Athenaeum (one of the oldest independent libraries in the United States), Boston Children's Museum, Bull & Finch Pub (whose building is known from the television show Cheers), Museum of Science, and the New England Aquarium are within the city.
How long has Boston been a religious center?
56e15bbfe3433e1400422dfc
from its earliest days
41
False
How many Roman Catholic parishes are in Boston?
56e15bbfe3433e1400422dfd
nearly 300
113
False
Where is the Cathedral of the Holy Cross located?
56e15bbfe3433e1400422dfe
the South End
191
False
Where is the headquarters for the Christial Scientists?
56e15bbfe3433e1400422dff
Back Bay
463
False
What was the city's first Anglican church?
56e15bbfe3433e1400422e00
King's Chapel
573
False
Boston has been a noted religious center from its earliest days. The Roman Catholic Archdiocese of Boston serves nearly 300 parishes and is based in the Cathedral of the Holy Cross (1875) in the South End, while the Episcopal Diocese of Massachusetts, with the Cathedral Church of St. Paul (1819) as its episcopal seat, serves just under 200 congregations. Unitarian Universalism has its headquarters on Beacon Hill. The Christian Scientists are headquartered in Back Bay at the Mother Church (1894). The oldest church in Boston is First Church in Boston, founded in 1630. King's Chapel, the city's first Anglican church, was founded in 1686 and converted to Unitarianism in 1785. Other churches include Christ Church (better known as Old North Church, 1723), the oldest church building in the city, Trinity Church (1733), Park Street Church (1809), Old South Church (1874), Jubilee Christian Church and Basilica and Shrine of Our Lady of Perpetual Help on Mission Hill (1878).
How is the air quality in Boston?
56e15c38e3433e1400422e06
generally very good
25
False
How many days between 2004 and 2013 was the air unhealthy?
56e15c38e3433e1400422e07
4 days
100
False
Who determined that the air quality was unhealthy on those 4 days?
56e15c38e3433e1400422e08
the EPA
175
False
Air quality in Boston is generally very good: during the ten-year period 2004–2013, there were only 4 days in which the air was unhealthy for the general public, according to the EPA.
Allston Green District is an example of what?
56e15da4cd28a01900c67815
cleaner energy facilities
12
False
How many green housing facilities does the Allston green District contain?
56e15da4cd28a01900c67816
three
89
False
How often is Boston's climate plan updated?
56e15da4cd28a01900c67817
every three years
392
False
When was the last time the climate plan was modified?
56e15da4cd28a01900c67818
in 2013
441
False
Some of the cleaner energy facilities in Boston include the Allston green district, with three ecologically compatible housing facilities. Boston is also breaking ground on multiple green affordable housing facilities to help reduce the carbon footprint of the city while simultaneously making these initiatives financially available to a greater population. Boston's climate plan is updated every three years and was most recently modified in 2013. This legislature includes the Building Energy Reporting and Disclosure Ordinance, which requires the city's larger buildings to disclose their yearly energy and water use statistics and partake in an energy assessment every five years. These statistics are made public by the city, thereby increasing incentives for buildings to be more environmentally conscious.
Whos is the late Mayor of Boston?
56e15ea9cd28a01900c6781d
Thomas Menino
48
False
Who came up with the Renew Boston Whole Building Incentive?
56e15ea9cd28a01900c6781e
Mayor Thomas Menino
42
False
The incentive reduced the cost of what in buildings?
56e15ea9cd28a01900c6781f
cost of living
127
False
The goal is to get how  many residents to sign up?
56e15ea9cd28a01900c67820
500
404
False
How much does the program cost?
56e15ea9cd28a01900c67821
free
439
False
Another initiative, presented by the late Mayor Thomas Menino, is the Renew Boston Whole Building Incentive, which reduces the cost of living in buildings that are deemed energy efficient. This, much like the green housing developments, gives people of low socioeconomic status an opportunity to find housing in communities that support the environment. The ultimate goal of this initiative is to enlist 500 Bostonians to participate in a free, in-home energy assessment.
Lots of older buildings are supported by what?
56e15fabcd28a01900c67827
wooden piles
65
False
The piles begin to rot if exposed to what?
56e15fabcd28a01900c67829
air
196
False
What has been happening to groundwater levels?
56e15fabcd28a01900c6782a
dropping
247
False
Where does the groundwater go instead of into the ground?
56e15fabcd28a01900c6782b
directly into sewers
369
False
Many older buildings in certain areas of Boston are supported by wooden piles driven into the area's fill; these piles remain sound if submerged in water, but are subject to dry rot if exposed to air for long periods. Groundwater levels have been dropping, to varying degrees, in many areas of the city, due in part to an increase in the amount of rainwater discharged directly into sewers rather than absorbed by the ground. A city agency, the Boston Groundwater Trust, coordinates monitoring of groundwater levels throughout the city via a network of public and private monitoring wells. However, Boston's drinking water supply, from the Quabbin and Wachusett Reservoirs to the west, is one of the very few in the country so pure as to satisfy federal water quality standards without filtration.
How many major North American sports leagues are there?
56e160d2cd28a01900c6783b
four
24
False
How many championships has Boston won in these leagues?
56e160d2cd28a01900c6783c
36 championships
116
False
How many championships have the sports leagues won since 2001?
56e160d2cd28a01900c6783d
nine
429
False
Why did the city turn down the chance to host the 2024 Olympic games?
56e160d2cd28a01900c6783e
financial concerns
712
False
When did Boston withdraw its bid for hosting the Olympic games?
56e160d2cd28a01900c6783f
July 27, 2015
759
False
Boston has teams in the four major North American professional sports leagues plus Major League Soccer, and has won 36 championships in these leagues, As of 2014[update]. It is one of six cities (along with Chicago, Detroit, Los Angeles, New York and Philadelphia) to have won championships in all four major sports. It has been suggested that Boston is the new "TitleTown, USA", as the city's professional sports teams have won nine championships since 2001: Patriots (2001, 2003, 2004, and 2014), Red Sox (2004, 2007, and 2013), Celtics (2008), and Bruins (2011). This love of sports has made Boston the United States Olympic Committee's choice to bid to hold the 2024 Summer Olympic Games, but the city cited financial concerns when it withdrew its bid on July 27, 2015.
Who plays their games at Fenway park?
56e161bfcd28a01900c67845
The Boston Red Sox
0
False
Where is Fenway park?
56e161bfcd28a01900c67846
near Kenmore Square
133
False
What year was the first game of the first world series played?
56e161bfcd28a01900c67847
1903
539
False
What year was fenway Park built?
56e161bfcd28a01900c67848
1912
192
False
What was the name of Bostons first baseball team?
56e161bfcd28a01900c67849
Red Stockings
798
False
The Boston Red Sox, a founding member of the American League of Major League Baseball in 1901, play their home games at Fenway Park, near Kenmore Square in the city's Fenway section. Built in 1912, it is the oldest sports arena or stadium in active use in the United States among the four major professional American sports leagues, encompassing Major League Baseball, the National Football League, National Basketball Association, and the National Hockey League. Boston was the site of the first game of the first modern World Series, in 1903. The series was played between the AL Champion Boston Americans and the NL champion Pittsburgh Pirates. Persistent reports that the team was known in 1903 as the "Boston Pilgrims" appear to be unfounded. Boston's first professional baseball team was the Red Stockings, one of the charter members of the National Association in 1871, and of the National League in 1876. The team played under that name until 1883, under the name Beaneaters until 1911, and under the name Braves from 1912 until they moved to Milwaukee after the 1952 season. Since 1966 they have played in Atlanta as the Atlanta Braves.
What is the TD Gardens former name?
56e162a3e3433e1400422e44
the FleetCenter
31
False
What was the FleetCenter built to replace?
56e162a3e3433e1400422e45
Boston Garden
94
False
How many teams is TD garden the home to?
56e162a3e3433e1400422e46
two
157
False
How many people can be seated in a basketball game at TD Garden?
56e162a3e3433e1400422e47
18,624
308
False
How many people can be seated for an ice hockey game at TD Garden?
56e162a3e3433e1400422e48
17,565
340
False
The TD Garden, formerly called the FleetCenter and built to replace the old, since-demolished Boston Garden, is adjoined to North Station and is the home of two major league teams: the Boston Bruins of the National Hockey League and the Boston Celtics of the National Basketball Association. The arena seats 18,624 for basketball games and 17,565 for ice hockey games. The Bruins were the first American member of the National Hockey League and an Original Six franchise. The Boston Celtics were founding members of the Basketball Association of America, one of the two leagues that merged to form the NBA. The Celtics have the distinction of having won more championships than any other NBA team, with seventeen.
What league do the new England patriots belong to?
56e163afe3433e1400422e62
the National Football League
86
False
What year were the new England patriots founded in?
56e163afe3433e1400422e63
1960
131
False
What was the original name of the new England patriots?
56e163afe3433e1400422e64
Boston Patriots
143
False
When dod the Boston patriots change their name?
56e163afe3433e1400422e65
after relocating
180
False
What stadium do the patriots play in?
56e163afe3433e1400422e66
Gillette Stadium
283
False
While they have played in suburban Foxborough since 1971, the New England Patriots of the National Football League were founded in 1960 as the Boston Patriots, changing their name after relocating. The team won the Super Bowl after the 2001, 2003, 2004, and 2014 seasons. They share Gillette Stadium with the New England Revolution of Major League Soccer. The Boston Breakers of Women's Professional Soccer, which formed in 2009, play their home games at Dilboy Stadium in Somerville.
How many NCAA Division I members play in Boston?
56e164bccd28a01900c67859
four
212
False
Which college participates in college football at the highest level?
56e164bccd28a01900c6785a
Boston College
121
False
What is the name of the highest level of college football?
56e164bccd28a01900c6785b
the Football Bowl Subdivision
293
False
Who participates in the second highest level of college football?
56e164bccd28a01900c6785c
Harvard
156
False
What is the name of the second highest level of college football?
56e164bccd28a01900c6785d
Football Championship Subdivision
378
False
The area's many colleges and universities are active in college athletics. Four NCAA Division I members play in the city—Boston College, Boston University, Harvard University, and Northeastern University. Of the four, only Boston College participates in college football at the highest level, the Football Bowl Subdivision. Harvard participates in the second-highest level, the Football Championship Subdivision.
What is one of the most famous sporting events in the city?
56e165afcd28a01900c67863
the Boston Marathon
53
False
When is the head of Charles Regatta held?
56e165afcd28a01900c67866
October
342
False
How many people were killed in the explosions at the Boston marathon?
56e165afcd28a01900c67867
three
220
False
One of the best known sporting events in the city is the Boston Marathon, the 26.2-mile (42.2 km) race which is the world's oldest annual marathon, run on Patriots' Day in April. On April 15, 2013, two explosions killed three people and injured hundreds at the marathon. Another major annual event is the Head of the Charles Regatta, held in October.
What is the oldest public park in the US?
56e16690cd28a01900c6786d
Boston Common
0
False
Where is Boston Common located?
56e16690cd28a01900c6786e
near the Financial District and Beacon Hill
23
False
What is next to Boston Common?
56e16690cd28a01900c6786f
Boston Public Garden
140
False
The Emerald necklace is a string of what?
56e16690cd28a01900c67870
parks
210
False
Who designed the Emerald necklace?
56e16690cd28a01900c67871
Frederick Law Olmsted
228
False
Boston Common, located near the Financial District and Beacon Hill, is the oldest public park in the United States. Along with the adjacent Boston Public Garden, it is part of the Emerald Necklace, a string of parks designed by Frederick Law Olmsted to encircle the city. The Emerald Necklace includes Jamaica Pond, Boston's largest body of freshwater, and Franklin Park, the city's largest park and home of the Franklin Park Zoo. Another major park is the Esplanade, located along the banks of the Charles River. The Hatch Shell, an outdoor concert venue, is located adjacent to the Charles River Esplanade. Other parks are scattered throughout the city, with the major parks and beaches located near Castle Island; in Charlestown; and along the Dorchester, South Boston, and East Boston shorelines.
What ranking does the Boston park system have?
56e16796cd28a01900c67881
third-best
185
False
Who ranks city park systems?
56e16796cd28a01900c67882
ParkScore
61
False
Parkscore ranks the number of resident within what distance of the park?
56e16796cd28a01900c67883
a half-mile
404
False
Boston's park system is well-reputed nationally. In its 2013 ParkScore ranking, The Trust for Public Land reported that Boston was tied with Sacramento and San Francisco for having the third-best park system among the 50 most populous US cities. ParkScore ranks city park systems by a formula that analyzes the city's median park size, park acres as percent of city area, the percent of residents within a half-mile of a park, spending of park services per resident, and the number of playgrounds per 10,000 residents.
How often are elections for mayor held in Boston?
56e1688fe3433e1400422eba
every fourth year
82
False
What kind of power does the mayor have?
56e1688fe3433e1400422ebb
extensive executive power
105
False
Who became Mayor in january, 2014?
56e1688fe3433e1400422ebc
Marty Walsh
132
False
Who oversees the Boston Public Schools?
56e1688fe3433e1400422ebe
The School Committee
391
False
Boston has a strong mayor – council government system in which the mayor (elected every fourth year) has extensive executive power. Marty Walsh became Mayor in January 2014, his predecessor Thomas Menino's twenty-year tenure having been the longest in the city's history. The Boston City Council is elected every two years; there are nine district seats, and four citywide "at-large" seats. The School Committee, which oversees the Boston Public Schools, is appointed by the mayor.
What is the capital of Massachusetts?
56e16959cd28a01900c6789b
Boston
150
False
As the state capital, Boston plays a large role in what?
56e16959cd28a01900c6789c
state politics
384
False
What is the MWRA?
56e16959cd28a01900c6789d
Massachusetts Water Resources Authority
187
False
What is the name of the massachusetts port authority?
56e16959cd28a01900c6789e
Massport
273
False
In addition to city government, numerous commissions and state authorities—including the Massachusetts Department of Conservation and Recreation, the Boston Public Health Commission, the Massachusetts Water Resources Authority (MWRA), and the Massachusetts Port Authority (Massport)—play a role in the life of Bostonians. As the capital of Massachusetts, Boston plays a major role in state politics.
Where is the John F kennedy Federal office building located?
56e16a12cd28a01900c678b7
The city
0
False
What court is located in Boston?
56e16a12cd28a01900c678b8
the United States Court of Appeals for the First Circuit
136
False
What is the name of the famous bank located in Boston?
56e16a12cd28a01900c678b9
Federal Reserve Bank of Boston
270
False
The city has several federal facilities, including the John F. Kennedy Federal Office Building, the Thomas P. O'Neill Federal Building, the United States Court of Appeals for the First Circuit, the United States District Court for the District of Massachusetts, and the Federal Reserve Bank of Boston.
Boston is split between how many congressional districts?
56e16adecd28a01900c678c9
two
35
False
What district is the North 3/4 of the city located in?
56e16adecd28a01900c678ca
the 7th district
109
False
Who represents the 7th district?
56e16adecd28a01900c678cb
Mike Capuano
142
False
What year was Capuano elected?
56e16adecd28a01900c678cc
1998
161
False
What district is the South fourth of Boston located in?
56e16adecd28a01900c678cd
the 8th district
193
False
Federally, Boston is split between two congressional districts. The northern three-fourths of the city is in the 7th district, represented by Mike Capuano since 1998. The southern fourth is in the 8th district, represented by Stephen Lynch. Both are Democrats; a Republican has not represented a significant portion of Boston in over a century. The state's senior member of the United States Senate is Democrat Elizabeth Warren, first elected in 2012. The state's junior member of the United States Senate is Democrat Ed Markey, who was elected in 2013 to succeed John Kerry after Kerry's appointment and confirmation as the United States Secretary of State.
The Boston Globe and the Boston herals are two of Bostons what?
56e16bf1cd28a01900c678ed
daily newspapers
67
False
Where is the Christial Science Monitor headquarters?
56e16bf1cd28a01900c678ee
Boston
4
False
When did the Christian Science Monitor end daily print newspapers?
56e16bf1cd28a01900c678ef
2009
370
False
How often does The Christian Science monitor publish their magazine?
56e16bf1cd28a01900c678f0
weekly
411
False
What is the name of the teen paper that the Boston Globe provides to schools?
56e16bf1cd28a01900c678f1
Teens in Print
540
False
The Boston Globe and the Boston Herald are two of the city's major daily newspapers. The city is also served by other publications such as Boston magazine, The Improper Bostonian, DigBoston, and the Boston edition of Metro. The Christian Science Monitor, headquartered in Boston, was formerly a worldwide daily newspaper but ended publication of daily print editions in 2009, switching to continuous online and weekly magazine format publications. The Boston Globe also releases a teen publication to the city's public high schools, called Teens in Print or T.i.P., which is written by the city's teens and delivered quarterly within the school year.
Where is the main office of Siglo21?
56e16cd4cd28a01900c67902
Lawrence
261
False
The former publisher of the Boston phoenix owns what Spanish newspaper?
56e16cd4cd28a01900c67903
El Planeta
129
False
The city's growing Latino population has given rise to a number of local and regional Spanish-language newspapers. These include El Planeta (owned by the former publisher of The Boston Phoenix), El Mundo, and La Semana. Siglo21, with its main offices in nearby Lawrence, is also widely distributed.
What is the name of the citys only lesbian owned LGBT magazine?
56e16dafcd28a01900c67911
The Rainbow Times
113
False
What year was the Rainbow Times founded?
56e16dafcd28a01900c67912
2006
198
False
What locations does the Rainbow Times serve?
56e16dafcd28a01900c67913
all of New England
261
False
Where is the headquarters for the Rainbow Times?
56e16dafcd28a01900c67914
Boston
242
False
Various LGBT publications serve the city's large LGBT (lesbian, gay, bisexual and transgender) community such as The Rainbow Times, the only minority and lesbian-owned LGBT newsmagazine. Founded in 2006, The Rainbow Times is now based out of Boston, but serves all of New England.
What is the national ranking of Bostons radio market?
56e16ed3cd28a01900c67919
11th largest
90
False
What Bostom Am radio station is a sports and talk station?
56e16ed3cd28a01900c6791a
WEEI
196
False
What is the name of Boston Colleges radio station?
56e16ed3cd28a01900c6791b
WZBC
464
False
What is the name of Harvards radio station?
56e16ed3cd28a01900c6791c
WHRB
415
False
WBUR and WGBH are exaples of what type of radio station?
56e16ed3cd28a01900c6791d
NPR
325
False
Boston is the largest broadcasting market in New England, with the radio market being the 11th largest in the United States. Several major AM stations include talk radio WRKO, sports/talk station WEEI, and CBS Radio WBZ. WBZ (AM) broadcasts a news radio format. A variety of commercial FM radio formats serve the area, as do NPR stations WBUR and WGBH. College and university radio stations include WERS (Emerson), WHRB (Harvard), WUMB (UMass Boston), WMBR (MIT), WZBC (Boston College), WMFO (Tufts University), WBRS (Brandeis University), WTBU (Boston University, campus and web only), WRBB (Northeastern University) and WMLN-FM (Curry College).
What ranking does the Boston television DMA hold?
56e17077cd28a01900c6792d
8th largest in the United States
81
False
What is the sister station to WBZ-TV?
56e17077cd28a01900c6792e
WSBK-TV
229
False
What is the citys PBS station?
56e17077cd28a01900c6792f
WGBH-TV
394
False
MundoFox is an example of what?
56e17077cd28a01900c67930
Spanish-language television networks
463
False
Where are most of the television stations transmitters located?
56e17077cd28a01900c67931
Needham and Newton
764
False
The Boston television DMA, which also includes Manchester, New Hampshire, is the 8th largest in the United States. The city is served by stations representing every major American network, including WBZ-TV and its sister station WSBK-TV (the former a CBS O&O, the latter an MyNetwork TV affiliate), WCVB-TV (ABC), WHDH (NBC), WFXT (Fox), and WLVI (The CW). The city is also home to PBS station WGBH-TV, a major producer of PBS programs, which also operates WGBX. Spanish-language television networks, including MundoFox (WFXZ-CD), Univision (WUNI), Telemundo (WNEU), and Telefutura (WUTF-DT), have a presence in the region, with WNEU and WUTF serving as network owned-and-operated stations. Most of the area's television stations have their transmitters in nearby Needham and Newton along the Route 128 corridor. Six Boston television stations are carried by Canadian satellite television provider Bell TV and by cable television providers in Canada.
What is the Longwood medical and Academic Area located next to?
56e171d8e3433e1400422f1c
the Fenway district
52
False
Where is Massachusetts General Hospital located?
56e171d8e3433e1400422f1d
the Beacon Hill area
543
False
Where is St. Elizabeths medical center located?
56e171d8e3433e1400422f1e
Brighton Center
602
False
What agency oversees health concerns for city residents?
56e171d8e3433e1400422f1f
The Boston Public Health Commission
803
False
The Longwood Medical and Academic Area, adjacent to the Fenway district, is home to a large number of medical and research facilities, including Beth Israel Deaconess Medical Center, Brigham and Women's Hospital, Children's Hospital Boston, Dana-Farber Cancer Institute, Harvard Medical School, Joslin Diabetes Center, and the Massachusetts College of Pharmacy and Health Sciences. Prominent medical facilities, including Massachusetts General Hospital, Massachusetts Eye and Ear Infirmary and Spaulding Rehabilitation Hospital are located in the Beacon Hill area. St. Elizabeth's Medical Center is in Brighton Center of the city's Brighton neighborhood. New England Baptist Hospital is in Mission Hill. The city has Veterans Affairs medical centers in the Jamaica Plain and West Roxbury neighborhoods. The Boston Public Health Commission, an agency of the Massachusetts government, oversees health concerns for city residents. Boston EMS provides pre-hospital emergency medical services to residents and visitors.
A lot of Bostond medical facilities are associated with what?
56e172f5cd28a01900c67953
universities
56
False
The Longwood medical and Academic Area is affiliated with what medical school?
56e172f5cd28a01900c67954
Harvard Medical School
185
False
Tufts- new England medical Center was renamed what?
56e172f5cd28a01900c67955
Tufts Medical Center
209
False
What neighborhood is the Tufts medical Center located in?
56e172f5cd28a01900c67956
Chinatown
314
False
What is the name of the first municipal Hospital in the US?
56e172f5cd28a01900c67957
Boston City Hospital
653
False
Many of Boston's medical facilities are associated with universities. The facilities in the Longwood Medical and Academic Area and in Massachusetts General Hospital are affiliated with Harvard Medical School. Tufts Medical Center (formerly Tufts-New England Medical Center), located in the southern portion of the Chinatown neighborhood, is affiliated with Tufts University School of Medicine. Boston Medical Center, located in the South End neighborhood, is the primary teaching facility for the Boston University School of Medicine as well as the largest trauma center in the Boston area; it was formed by the merger of Boston University Hospital and Boston City Hospital, which was the first municipal hospital in the United States.
What Airport is located in East Boston?
56e173b5cd28a01900c6795d
Logan Airport
0
False
Who operates Logan Airport?
56e173b5cd28a01900c6795e
Massport
88
False
What is the name of Bostons main airport?
56e173b5cd28a01900c6795f
Logan Airport
0
False
What airport is North of Logan Airport?
56e173b5cd28a01900c67960
Beverly Municipal Airport
167
False
What airport is south of Logan Airport?
56e173b5cd28a01900c67961
Norwood Memorial Airport
238
False
Logan Airport, located in East Boston and operated by the Massachusetts Port Authority (Massport), is Boston's principal airport. Nearby general aviation airports are Beverly Municipal Airport to the north, Hanscom Field to the west, and Norwood Memorial Airport to the south. Massport also operates several major facilities within the Port of Boston, including a cruise ship terminal and facilities to handle bulk and container cargo in South Boston, and other facilities in Charlestown and East Boston.
How did the streets of downtown Boston grow?
56e1747fe3433e1400422f2e
organically
31
False
Boston is at the East end of what Interstate?
56e1747fe3433e1400422f2f
I-90
202
False
What year was the O'neill tunnel put in place?
56e1747fe3433e1400422f30
2006
466
False
The streets of Back bay grew into a what?
56e1747fe3433e1400422f31
planned grid
66
False
Downtown Boston's streets grew organically, so they do not form a planned grid, unlike those in later-developed Back Bay, East Boston, the South End, and South Boston. Boston is the eastern terminus of I-90, which in Massachusetts runs along the Massachusetts Turnpike. The elevated portion of the Central Artery, which carried most of the through traffic in downtown Boston, was replaced with the O'Neill Tunnel during the Big Dig, substantially completed in early 2006.
How many people in Boston use public transportation?
56e1753fcd28a01900c67967
nearly a third
5
False
Where does Boston rank nationally in terms of public transportation use?
56e1753fcd28a01900c67968
fifth-highest
97
False
What is the name of Bostons subway system?
56e1753fcd28a01900c67969
MBTA
228
False
The MBTA is also known as the what?
56e1753fcd28a01900c6796a
T
202
False
How long is bostons subway system?
56e1753fcd28a01900c6796b
65.5 miles
389
False
With nearly a third of Bostonians using public transit for their commute to work, Boston has the fifth-highest rate of public transit usage in the country. Boston's subway system, the Massachusetts Bay Transportation Authority (MBTA—known as the "T") operates the oldest underground rapid transit system in the Americas, and is the fourth-busiest rapid transit system in the country, with 65.5 miles (105 km) of track on four lines. The MBTA also operates busy bus and commuter rail networks, and water shuttles.
Where do Amtrack's Northeast corridor and Chicago lines start?
56e1765fcd28a01900c67971
South Station
59
False
Where do Amtrack's Northeast corridor and Chicago lines end?
56e1765fcd28a01900c67972
Back Bay
141
False
Trains serving new Yourk and Washington D.C also stop where?
56e1765fcd28a01900c67973
Route 128 Station
264
False
What suburbs of Boston is the Route 128 Station located in?
56e1765fcd28a01900c67974
southwestern
289
False
Where does the Downeaster service to maine start?
56e1765fcd28a01900c67975
North Station
383
False
Amtrak's Northeast Corridor and Chicago lines originate at South Station, which serves as a major intermodal transportation hub, and stop at Back Bay. Fast Northeast Corridor trains, which serve New York City, Washington, D.C., and points in between, also stop at Route 128 Station in the southwestern suburbs of Boston. Meanwhile, Amtrak's Downeaster service to Maine originates at North Station, despite the current lack of a dedicated passenger rail link between the two railhubs, other than the "T" subway lines.
What is Bostons nickname?
56e17753cd28a01900c6798d
The Walking City
11
False
What type of commuters does Have than any other largely populated city?
56e17753cd28a01900c6798e
pedestrian
48
False
What percent of Boston's population commutes by walking?
56e17753cd28a01900c6798f
13 percent
195
False
What year did walkscore rank Boston the third most walkable city in the US?
56e17753cd28a01900c67990
2015
439
False
What was the walk score given to Boston?
56e17753cd28a01900c67991
80
540
False
Nicknamed "The Walking City", Boston hosts more pedestrian commuters than do other comparably populated cities. Owing to factors such as the compactness of the city and large student population, 13 percent of the population commutes by foot, making it the highest percentage of pedestrian commuters in the country out of the major American cities. In 2011, Walk Score ranked Boston the third most walkable city in the United States. As of 2015[update], Walk Score still ranks Boston as the third most walkable US city, with a Walk Score of 80, a Transit Score of 75, and a Bike Score of 70.
Bicycling magazine named Boston one of the worst cities in the US for what?
56e17841cd28a01900c67997
cycling
25
False
What magazine put Boston on its Future best City For Biking list?
56e17841cd28a01900c67998
Bicycling magazine
23
False
What is the name of the bike share program in Boston?
56e17841cd28a01900c67999
Hubway
484
False
What year did Hubway launch?
56e17841cd28a01900c6799a
2011
513
False
How many rides did Hubway log in its first year?
56e17841cd28a01900c6799b
more than 140,000
527
False
Between 1999 and 2006, Bicycling magazine named Boston three times as one of the worst cities in the US for cycling; regardless, it has one of the highest rates of bicycle commuting. In 2008, as a consequence of improvements made to bicycling conditions within the city, the same magazine put Boston on its "Five for the Future" list as a "Future Best City" for biking, and Boston's bicycle commuting percentage increased from 1% in 2000 to 2.1% in 2009. The bikeshare program called Hubway launched in late July 2011, logging more than 140,000 rides before the close of its first season. The neighboring municipalities of Cambridge, Somerville, and Brookline joined the Hubway program in summer 2012.
Universal_Studios
What is another name for Universal Studios Inc.?
56e144b0cd28a01900c6770b
Universal Pictures
38
False
Who is the ultimate owner of Universal Studios?
56e144b0cd28a01900c6770c
Comcast
95
False
What is the street address of Universal Studios' production studios?
56e144b0cd28a01900c6770d
100 Universal City Plaza Drive
233
False
In what city and state are its production studios located?
56e144b0cd28a01900c6770e
Universal City, California
267
False
In what city are Universal Studios' corporate offices located?
56e144b0cd28a01900c6770f
New York City
343
False
Motion Picture Association of America
395
What does MAAP stand for?
5ad127e6645df0001a2d0fb0
True
Universal
441
What was founded in 1921?
5ad127e6645df0001a2d0fb1
True
Carl Laemmle (pronounced "LEM-lee"), Mark Dintenfass, Charles O. Baumann, Adam Kessel, Pat Powers, William Swanson, David Horsley, Robert H. Cochrane, and Jules
485
Who founded Universal Studios in 1921?
5ad127e6645df0001a2d0fb2
True
NBCUniversal
139
Who owns Comcast?
5ad127e6645df0001a2d0fb3
True
100 Universal City Plaza Drive
233
Where in Universal City are the corporate offices located?
5ad127e6645df0001a2d0fb4
True
Universal Studios Inc. (also known as Universal Pictures) is an American film studio, owned by Comcast through its wholly owned subsidiary NBCUniversal, and is one of Hollywood's "Big Six" film studios. Its production studios are at 100 Universal City Plaza Drive in Universal City, California. Distribution and other corporate offices are in New York City. Universal Studios is a member of the Motion Picture Association of America (MPAA). Universal was founded in 1912 by the German Carl Laemmle (pronounced "LEM-lee"), Mark Dintenfass, Charles O. Baumann, Adam Kessel, Pat Powers, William Swanson, David Horsley, Robert H. Cochrane, and Jules Brulatour.
What is the nationality of Pathé?
56e14515e3433e1400422d18
French
70
False
Along with Pathé and the Gaumont Film Company, what major film studio is older then Universal Studios?
56e14515e3433e1400422d19
Nordisk Film company
132
False
Among major film studies, where does Universal Studios rank in terms of age?
56e14515e3433e1400422d1a
fourth
18
False
French studios Gaumont Film Company and Pathé, and the Danish Nordisk Film company.
70
What studios follow Universal for being the oldest?
5ad128e7645df0001a2d0ff0
True
French
70
Who does the Pathe Film Company belong to?
5ad128e7645df0001a2d0ff1
True
Nordisk
132
Who does the Danish Film Company belong to?
5ad128e7645df0001a2d0ff2
True
It is the world's fourth oldest major film studio, after the renowned French studios Gaumont Film Company and Pathé, and the Danish Nordisk Film company.
After a trip to what city did Carl Laemmle leave the dry goods business?
56e14623cd28a01900c67715
Chicago
311
False
In what year was the Motion Picture Trust created?
56e14623cd28a01900c67716
1908
448
False
What notable historical figure was involved in the Motion Picture Trust?
56e14623cd28a01900c67717
Edison
460
False
For what part of a motion picture projector did the Motion Picture Trust hold a patent?
56e14623cd28a01900c67718
the Latham Loop
590
False
Carl Laemmle, Mark Dintenfass, Charles O. Baumann, Adam Kessel, Pat Powers, William Swanson, David Horsley, Robert H. Cochrane[a] and Jules Brulatour
33
Who founded Universal Studios in Chicago?
5ad129c4645df0001a2d1016
True
Motion Picture Trust
474
What was created in 1980?
5ad129c4645df0001a2d1017
True
Edison
460
Who back the Motion Trust Picture?
5ad129c4645df0001a2d1018
True
the Trust
664
Who attempted to enforce a monopoly on cameras and projectors?
5ad129c4645df0001a2d1019
True
Universal Studios was founded by Carl Laemmle, Mark Dintenfass, Charles O. Baumann, Adam Kessel, Pat Powers, William Swanson, David Horsley, Robert H. Cochrane[a] and Jules Brulatour. One story has Laemmle watching a box office for hours, counting patrons and calculating the day's takings. Within weeks of his Chicago trip, Laemmle gave up dry goods to buy the first several nickelodeons. For Laemmle and other such entrepreneurs, the creation in 1908 of the Edison-backed Motion Picture Trust meant that exhibitors were expected to pay fees for Trust-produced films they showed. Based on the Latham Loop used in cameras and projectors, along with other patents, the Trust collected fees on all aspects of movie production and exhibition, and attempted to enforce a monopoly on distribution.
What company did Laemmle found in June 1909?
56e146bde3433e1400422d32
Yankee Film Company
153
False
Who were Laemmle's business partners in the Yankee Film Company?
56e146bde3433e1400422d33
Abe Stern and Julius Stern
187
False
In what city and state was the Independent Moving Pictures Company based?
56e146bde3433e1400422d34
Fort Lee, New Jersey
312
False
What was a nickname of Florence Lawrence?
56e146bde3433e1400422d35
The Biograph Girl
727
False
What actor did Laemmle promote?
56e146bde3433e1400422d36
King Baggot
757
False
producing their own pictures
89
What did Laemmle and Edison decide to do?
5ad12b14645df0001a2d106c
True
Laemmle
133
Who started the Yankee Film Company in 1910?
5ad12b14645df0001a2d106d
True
Yankee Film Company
153
What was started in June 1910?
5ad12b14645df0001a2d106e
True
The Biograph Girl
727
What was Lawrence Florence known as?
5ad12b14645df0001a2d106f
True
Independent Moving Pictures Company
253
What does IPM stand for?
5ad12b14645df0001a2d1070
True
Soon, Laemmle and other disgruntled nickelodeon owners decided to avoid paying Edison by producing their own pictures. In June 1909, Laemmle started the Yankee Film Company with partners Abe Stern and Julius Stern. That company quickly evolved into the Independent Moving Pictures Company (IMP), with studios in Fort Lee, New Jersey, where many early films in America's first motion picture industry were produced in the early 20th century. Laemmle broke with Edison's custom of refusing to give billing and screen credits to performers. By naming the movie stars, he attracted many of the leading players of the time, contributing to the creation of the star system. In 1910, he promoted Florence Lawrence, formerly known as "The Biograph Girl", and actor King Baggot, in what may be the first instance of a studio using stars in its marketing.
On what date was the incorporation of the Universal Film Manufacturing Company?
56e147e6cd28a01900c67727
April 30, 1912
73
False
In what state was the Universal Film Manufacturing Company incorporated?
56e147e6cd28a01900c67728
New York
61
False
Who was the president of the Universal Film Manufacturing Company circa July 1912?
56e147e6cd28a01900c67729
Laemmle
89
False
What was the fate of the other partners of the Universal Film Manufacturing Company?
56e147e6cd28a01900c6772a
bought out by Laemmle
278
False
Along with exhibition and distribution, what business did the Universal Film Manufacturing Company engage in?
56e147e6cd28a01900c6772b
movie production
368
False
The Universal Film Manufacturing Company
0
What was incorporated in New York on April 30, 1921?
5ad12c1a645df0001a2d108a
True
Laemmle
89
Who emerged as president in April 1912?
5ad12c1a645df0001a2d108b
True
New York
61
Where was the Universal Manufacturing Film Company incorporated?
5ad12c1a645df0001a2d108c
True
The Universal Film Manufacturing Company was incorporated in New York on April 30, 1912. Laemmle, who emerged as president in July 1912, was the primary figure in the partnership with Dintenfass, Baumann, Kessel, Powers, Swanson, Horsley, and Brulatour. Eventually all would be bought out by Laemmle. The new Universal studio was a vertically integrated company, with movie production, distribution and exhibition venues all linked in the same corporate entity, the central element of the Studio system era.
On what date did Universal City Studios open?
56e1483acd28a01900c67731
March 15, 1915
3
False
In square kilometers, what was the size of Universal City Studios?
56e1483acd28a01900c67732
0.9
131
False
What geographical feature separated Universal City Studios from Hollywood?
56e1483acd28a01900c67733
Cahuenga Pass
169
False
What was the biggest Hollywood studio during this period?
56e1483acd28a01900c67734
Universal
92
False
Universal City Studios
92
What opened on March 19, 1915?
5ad12d31645df0001a2d109a
True
Laemmle
21
Who opened Universal City Studios on March 19, 1915?
5ad12d31645df0001a2d109b
True
Universal City Studios
92
What studio was built on a 230-km² converted farm?
5ad12d31645df0001a2d109c
True
Laemmle
362
Who opened his studio to tourists like other movie moguls?
5ad12d31645df0001a2d109d
True
On March 15, 1915,:8 Laemmle opened the world's largest motion picture production facility, Universal City Studios, on a 230-acre (0.9-km²) converted farm just over the Cahuenga Pass from Hollywood. Studio management became the third facet of Universal's operations, with the studio incorporated as a distinct subsidiary organization. Unlike other movie moguls, Laemmle opened his studio to tourists. Universal became the largest studio in Hollywood, and remained so for a decade. However, it sought an audience mostly in small towns, producing mostly inexpensive melodramas, westerns and serials.
What sort of films were produced by Red Feather?
56e14887e3433e1400422d4e
low-budget programmers
83
False
What type of movies came out of Bluebird?
56e14887e3433e1400422d4f
more ambitious productions
117
False
What motion pictures were made by Jewel?
56e14887e3433e1400422d50
prestige motion pictures
162
False
What was the profession of George Marshall?
56e14887e3433e1400422d51
Directors
188
False
Who was one of the few female Hollywood directors in this era?
56e14887e3433e1400422d52
Lois Weber
282
False
low-budget programmers
83
Who was Red Bluebird a brand for?
5ad12e9a645df0001a2d10c6
True
more ambitious productions
117
What was Blue Feather a brand for?
5ad12e9a645df0001a2d10c7
True
prestige motion pictures
162
What was Jewel Bird a brand for?
5ad12e9a645df0001a2d10c8
True
Lois Weber
282
Who was the one woman directing films in Hollywood?
5ad12e9a645df0001a2d10c9
True
In its early years Universal released three brands of feature films — Red Feather, low-budget programmers; Bluebird, more ambitious productions; and Jewel, their prestige motion pictures. Directors included Jack Conway, John Ford, Rex Ingram, Robert Z. Leonard, George Marshall and Lois Weber, one of the few women directing films in Hollywood.:13
Who directed Blind Husbands?
56e14927e3433e1400422d58
Erich von Stroheim
313
False
In what year was Foolish Wives produced?
56e14927e3433e1400422d59
1922
436
False
Who starred in The Phantom of the Opera?
56e14927e3433e1400422d5a
Lon Chaney
591
False
What year saw a film version of The Hunchback of Notre Dame?
56e14927e3433e1400422d5b
1923
751
False
Who was at one time Laemmle's personal secretary?
56e14927e3433e1400422d5c
Irving Thalberg
874
False
Adolph Zukor, William Fox, and Marcus Loew
97
Who else decided not to develop a theater chain with Laemmle?
5ad1301e645df0001a2d10ec
True
1922
436
What year did Foolish Husbands come out?
5ad1301e645df0001a2d10ed
True
1919
411
What year did Blind Wives come out?
5ad1301e645df0001a2d10ee
True
Lon Chaney
591
Who starred in the 1925 film The Hunchback of Notre Dame?
5ad1301e645df0001a2d10ef
True
Lon Chaney
591
Who starred in the 1923 film The Phantom of the Opera?
5ad1301e645df0001a2d10f0
True
Despite Laemmle's role as an innovator, he was an extremely cautious studio chief. Unlike rivals Adolph Zukor, William Fox, and Marcus Loew, Laemmle chose not to develop a theater chain. He also financed all of his own films, refusing to take on debt. This policy nearly bankrupted the studio when actor-director Erich von Stroheim insisted on excessively lavish production values for his films Blind Husbands (1919) and Foolish Wives (1922), but Universal shrewdly gained a return on some of the expenditure by launching a sensational ad campaign that attracted moviegoers. Character actor Lon Chaney became a drawing card for Universal in the 1920s, appearing steadily in dramas. His two biggest hits for Universal were The Hunchback of Notre Dame (1923) and The Phantom of the Opera (1925). During this period Laemmle entrusted most of the production policy decisions to Irving Thalberg. Thalberg had been Laemmle's personal secretary, and Laemmle was impressed by his cogent observations of how efficiently the studio could be operated. Promoted to studio chief, Thalberg was giving Universal's product a touch of class, but MGM's head of production Louis B. Mayer lured Thalberg away from Universal with a promise of better pay. Without his guidance Universal became a second-tier studio, and would remain so for several decades.
What was the name of Universal's German production unit?
56e14a14e3433e1400422d62
Deutsche Universal-Film AG
56
False
Who ran Universal's German production unit?
56e14a14e3433e1400422d63
Joe Pasternak
107
False
In what year did Deutsche Universal-Film AG open?
56e14a14e3433e1400422d64
1926
3
False
How many films did Universal's German subsidiary make yearly?
56e14a14e3433e1400422d65
three to four
141
False
Along with Germany and Austria, where was Deutsche Universal-Film AG at one time based?
56e14a14e3433e1400422d66
Hungary
195
False
Deutsche Universal-Film AG
56
What opened in 1962?
5ad137f8645df0001a2d11fc
True
Joe Pasternak
107
Who directed Deutsche AG Universal-Film?
5ad137f8645df0001a2d11fd
True
three to four
141
How many films did Deutsche Universal-Film AG produce in 1936?
5ad137f8645df0001a2d11fe
True
New York
597
Where did Universal Pictures distribute the subsidiary's films?
5ad137f8645df0001a2d11ff
True
In 1926, Universal opened a production unit in Germany, Deutsche Universal-Film AG, under the direction of Joe Pasternak. This unit produced three to four films per year until 1936, migrating to Hungary and then Austria in the face of Hitler's increasing domination of central Europe. With the advent of sound, these productions were made in the German language or, occasionally, Hungarian or Polish. In the U.S., Universal Pictures did not distribute any of this subsidiary's films, but at least some of them were exhibited through other, independent, foreign-language film distributors based in New York, without benefit of English subtitles. Nazi persecution and a change in ownership for the parent Universal Pictures organization resulted in the dissolution of this subsidiary.
what was the policy that Universal followed in its early years?
56e14acbcd28a01900c6774b
"clean picture"
36
False
By what month and year did Laemmle change his opinion on "unclean pictures"?
56e14acbcd28a01900c6774c
April 1927
72
False
Why did Laemmle change his position on "unclean pictures"?
56e14acbcd28a01900c6774d
Universal was losing money
204
False
"clean picture" policy
36
What policy was established in April 1927?
5ad13864645df0001a2d122c
True
April 1927
72
When did Carl Laemmle decide to establish a clean picture policy?
5ad13864645df0001a2d122d
True
"clean picture" policy
36
What did Carl Laemmle consider a mistake in 1972?
5ad13864645df0001a2d122e
True
In the early years, Universal had a "clean picture" policy. However, by April 1927, Carl Laemmle considered this to be a mistake as "unclean pictures" from other studios were generating more profit while Universal was losing money.
Along with Walt Disney, who created Oswald the Lucky Rabbit?
56e14b3bcd28a01900c6775b
Ub Iwerks
96
False
Who owned the rights to Oswald?
56e14b3bcd28a01900c6775c
Universal
0
False
Who produced an Oswald the Lucky Rabbit motion picture?
56e14b3bcd28a01900c6775d
Charles Mintz
189
False
What character did Walt Disney create in 1928?
56e14b3bcd28a01900c6775e
Mickey Mouse
383
False
What was the first animated short with synchronized sound?
56e14b3bcd28a01900c6775f
Steamboat Willie
457
False
Universal
0
Who owned the rights to Oswald the Rabbit?
5ad139b1645df0001a2d1288
True
Walt Disney
80
Who created Oswald with Ib Uwerks?
5ad139b1645df0001a2d1289
True
Mickey Mouse
383
Who was created in 1829 by Disney and Iwerks?
5ad139b1645df0001a2d128a
True
Steamboat Willie
457
What was the first 1982 animated short?
5ad139b1645df0001a2d128b
True
film animation
580
What was Walt Disney a minor player in?
5ad139b1645df0001a2d128c
True
Universal owned the rights to the "Oswald the Lucky Rabbit" character, although Walt Disney and Ub Iwerks had created Oswald, and their films had enjoyed a successful theatrical run. After Charles Mintz had unsuccessfully demanded that Disney accept a lower fee for producing the property, Mintz produced the films with his own group of animators. Instead, Disney and Iwerks created Mickey Mouse who in 1928 stared in the first "sync" sound animated short, Steamboat Willie. This moment effectively launched Walt Disney Studios' foothold, while Universal became a minor player in film animation. Universal subsequently severed its link to Mintz and formed its own in-house animation studio to produce Oswald cartoons headed by Walter Lantz.
Who bought the Oswald the Lucky Rabbit cartoons in 2006?
56e14bdacd28a01900c67765
Disney
60
False
Who was 2006 seller of the Oswald cartoons?
56e14bdacd28a01900c67766
NBC Universal
32
False
What notable figure worked as a sportscaster for ABC?
56e14bdacd28a01900c67767
Al Michaels
201
False
Who began producing Oswald cartoons for Universal in 1929?
56e14bdacd28a01900c67768
Walter Lantz
370
False
In what year did Walter Lantz cease producing Oswald cartoons for Universal?
56e14bdacd28a01900c67769
1943
396
False
Walt Disney-produced Oswald cartoons, along with the rights to the character himself
55
What did NBC Universal sell in 2008?
5ad13ae0645df0001a2d12e6
True
Walt Disney-produced Oswald cartoons, along with the rights to the character himself
55
What did NBC Universal do after 60 years?
5ad13ae0645df0001a2d12e7
True
Al Michaels
201
What NBC sportscaster did Disney release from contract?
5ad13ae0645df0001a2d12e8
True
Oswald cartoons produced for them by Walter Lantz
333
What did Universal retain ownership of from 1923 to 1949?
5ad13ae0645df0001a2d12e9
True
In 2006, after almost 80 years, NBC Universal sold all Walt Disney-produced Oswald cartoons, along with the rights to the character himself, back to Disney. In return, Disney released ABC sportscaster Al Michaels from his contract so he could work on NBC's Sunday night NFL football package. However, Universal retained ownership of Oswald cartoons produced for them by Walter Lantz from 1929 to 1943.
How many of Carl Laemmle, Sr.'s relatives were working for Universal as of 1928?
56e14c5fcd28a01900c6776f
70
162
False
What was Carl Laemmle, Sr.'s nickname at Universal?
56e14c5fcd28a01900c67770
Uncle Carl
307
False
What poet wrote a notable rhyme about Laemmle?
56e14c5fcd28a01900c67771
Ogden Nash
320
False
At what age did Carl Laemmle, Jr. become president of Universal?
56e14c5fcd28a01900c67772
21
78
False
What Academy Award-winning director was a relative of Carl Laemmle's?
56e14c5fcd28a01900c67773
William Wyler
478
False
Carl, Jr.
36
Who become head of Universal Pictures in 1921?
5ad13bc6645df0001a2d130a
True
70
162
How many relatives of Laemmle Sr. were on the payroll in 1928?
5ad13bc6645df0001a2d130b
True
"Uncle Carl Laemmle/Has a very large faemmle."
358
What did Nash Ogden say about Uncle Carl?
5ad13bc6645df0001a2d130c
True
Laemmle, Sr
9
Who was Wyler William related to?
5ad13bc6645df0001a2d130d
True
In 1928, Laemmle, Sr. made his son, Carl, Jr. head of Universal Pictures as a 21st birthday present. Universal already had a reputation for nepotism—at one time, 70 of Carl, Sr.'s relatives were supposedly on the payroll. Many of them were nephews, resulting in Carl, Sr. being known around the studios as "Uncle Carl." Ogden Nash famously quipped in rhyme, "Uncle Carl Laemmle/Has a very large faemmle." Among these relatives was future Academy Award winning director/producer William Wyler.
What was Carl Laemmle Jr.'s nickname?
56e14e56cd28a01900c67783
Junior
1
False
What movie was based on an Edna Ferber novel?
56e14e56cd28a01900c67784
Show Boat
287
False
In what year was the musical Broadway produced?
56e14e56cd28a01900c67785
1929
298
False
What movie won the 1930 Academy Award for Best Picture?
56e14e56cd28a01900c67786
All Quiet on the Western Front
473
False
What all-color musical did Universal make in 1930?
56e14e56cd28a01900c67787
King of Jazz
435
False
Show Boat
287
What 1930 film based on Edna Farber's novel did Universal produce?
5ad13d69645df0001a2d1350
True
Broadway
324
What 1930 musical did Universal produce?
5ad13d69645df0001a2d1351
True
King of Jazz
435
What 1929 all-color musical feature did Universal produce?
5ad13d69645df0001a2d1352
True
All Quiet on the Western Front
473
What 1929 film won its year's Best Piture Oscar?
5ad13d69645df0001a2d1353
True
"Junior" Laemmle persuaded his father to bring Universal up to date. He bought and built theaters, converted the studio to sound production, and made several forays into high-quality production. His early efforts included the critically mauled part-talkie version of Edna Ferber's novel Show Boat (1929), the lavish musical Broadway (1929) which included Technicolor sequences; and the first all-color musical feature (for Universal), King of Jazz (1930). The more serious All Quiet on the Western Front (1930), won its year's Best Picture Oscar.
In what year did Universal make a film version of Dracula?
56e14edfe3433e1400422d88
1931
180
False
In what year was The Invisible Man made?
56e14edfe3433e1400422d89
1933
252
False
What film was produced by Laemmle in 1934?
56e14edfe3433e1400422d8a
Imitation of Life
308
False
In what year did My Man Godfrey premiere?
56e14edfe3433e1400422d8b
1936
353
False
When was Universal's version of Frankenstein made?
56e14edfe3433e1400422d8c
1931
180
False
a series of horror films
55
What began in the 1940s?
5ad13e47645df0001a2d137a
True
1936
353
What year was The Man Godfrey made?
5ad13e47645df0001a2d137b
True
1933
252
What year was My Invisible Man made?
5ad13e47645df0001a2d137c
True
1931
205
What year was The Dracula made?
5ad13e47645df0001a2d137d
True
1932
223
What year was Mummy made?
5ad13e47645df0001a2d137e
True
Laemmle, Jr. created a niche for the studio, beginning a series of horror films which extended into the 1940s, affectionately dubbed Universal Horror. Among them are Frankenstein (1931), Dracula ( also in 1931), The Mummy (1932) and The Invisible Man (1933). Other Laemmle productions of this period include Imitation of Life (1934) and My Man Godfrey (1936).
What part of Universal's business was terminated while it was in bankruptcy?
56e1506ee3433e1400422da6
The theater chain
261
False
Along with distribution and studio operations, what part of Universal was retained by Carl Laemmle, Jr. during bankruptcy?
56e1506ee3433e1400422da7
production operations
345
False
theater
265
What type of chain conglomerate was scrapped?
5ad13f71645df0001a2d13aa
True
distribution, studio and production operations
320
What did Carl Jr hold fast in addition to the theater chain?
5ad13f71645df0001a2d13ab
True
the depression
183
What period did Universal move into high-quality production in?
5ad13f71645df0001a2d13ac
True
Universal's forays into high-quality production spelled the end of the Laemmle era at the studio. Taking on the task of modernizing and upgrading a film conglomerate in the depths of the depression was risky, and for a time Universal slipped into receivership. The theater chain was scrapped, but Carl, Jr. held fast to distribution, studio and production operations.
In what year was Universal's ill-fated film version of Show Boat released?
56e150d1cd28a01900c677ab
1936
66
False
In what year had Universal previously made a version of Show Boat?
56e150d1cd28a01900c677ac
1929
97
False
What was the amount of the production loan Universal sought to complete Show Boat?
56e150d1cd28a01900c677ad
$750,000
570
False
Who granted Universal the production loan?
56e150d1cd28a01900c677ae
the Standard Capital Corporation
600
False
When did the Standard Capital Corporation take control of Universal?
56e150d1cd28a01900c677af
April 2, 1936
971
False
Universal
539
Who was forced to seek a $300,000 loan?
5ad140ec645df0001a2d13dc
True
Show Boat
55
What production went $750,000 over budget?
5ad140ec645df0001a2d13dd
True
production loan
579
What did Standard Corporation Capital issue Universal?
5ad140ec645df0001a2d13de
True
Standard foreclosed and seized control of the studio
915
What happened on April 2, 1935?
5ad140ec645df0001a2d13df
True
The end for the Laemmles came with a lavish version of Show Boat (1936), a remake of its earlier 1929 part-talkie production, and produced as a high-quality, big-budget film rather than as a B-picture. The new film featured several stars from the Broadway stage version, which began production in late 1935, and unlike the 1929 film was based on the Broadway musical rather than the novel. Carl, Jr.'s spending habits alarmed company stockholders. They would not allow production to start on Show Boat unless the Laemmles obtained a loan. Universal was forced to seek a $750,000 production loan from the Standard Capital Corporation, pledging the Laemmle family's controlling interest in Universal as collateral. It was the first time Universal had borrowed money for a production in its 26-year history. The production went $300,000 over budget; Standard called in the loan, cash-strapped Universal could not pay, Standard foreclosed and seized control of the studio on April 2, 1936.
Who became president of Universal after the Standard Capital takeover?
56e15143cd28a01900c677b5
J. Cheever Cowdin
469
False
What notable female star left Universal after the Standard Capital takeover?
56e15143cd28a01900c677b6
Margaret Sullavan
745
False
Who was Universal's chairman of the board of directors after the Standard Captial takeover?
56e15143cd28a01900c677b7
J. Cheever Cowdin
469
False
Along with Margaret Sullavan, what notable film talent left Universal after the Standard Capital takeover?
56e15143cd28a01900c677b8
William Wyler
727
False
In what year was Show Boat released?
56e15143cd28a01900c677b9
1936
12
False
the Laemmles
253
Who was ceremoniously removed from the company?
5ad14301645df0001a2d143e
True
president
505
What position did J. Cowdin Cheever hold?
5ad14301645df0001a2d143f
True
chairman of the board of directors
519
What position on the board did J. Cowdin Cheever take over?
5ad14301645df0001a2d1440
True
left
764
What did William Sullavan and Margaret Wyler do?
5ad14301645df0001a2d1441
True
Universal's 1936 Show Boat (released a little over a month later) became a critical and financial success, it was not enough to save the Laemmles' involvement with the studio. They were unceremoniously removed from the company they had founded. Because the Laemmles personally oversaw production, Show Boat was released (despite the takeover) with Carl Laemmle and Carl Laemmle Jr.'s names on the credits and in the advertising campaign of the film. Standard Capital's J. Cheever Cowdin had taken over as president and chairman of the board of directors, and instituted severe cuts in production budgets. Gone were the big ambitions, and though Universal had a few big names under contract, those it had been cultivating, like William Wyler and Margaret Sullavan, left.
Who produced the film Three Smart Girls?
56e1531ccd28a01900c677d1
Joe Pasternak
20
False
Who starred in the film Three Smart Girls?
56e1531ccd28a01900c677d2
Deanna Durbin
189
False
In what year was Three Smart Girls made?
56e1531ccd28a01900c677d3
1936
266
False
Prior to his work in America, where was Joe Pasternak employed?
56e1531ccd28a01900c677d4
Universal's German subsidiary
110
False
What type of films did Joe Pasternak produce in Germany?
56e1531ccd28a01900c677d5
light musicals
71
False
Three Smart Girls
247
What film was released in 1963?
5ad14404645df0001a2d1482
True
Joe Pasternak
20
Who produced the 1963 film Three Smart Girls?
5ad14404645df0001a2d1483
True
Three Smart Girls
247
What did Deanna Pasternak star in?
5ad14404645df0001a2d1484
True
restored the studio's solvency
317
What did the 1963 film to for the studio?
5ad14404645df0001a2d1485
True
Meanwhile, producer Joe Pasternak, who had been successfully producing light musicals with young sopranos for Universal's German subsidiary, repeated his formula in America. Teenage singer Deanna Durbin starred in Pasternak's first American film, Three Smart Girls (1936). The film was a box-office hit and reputedly restored the studio's solvency. The success of the film led Universal to offer her a contract, which for the first five years of her career produced her most successful pictures.
How old was Gloria Jean in 1939?
56e15399cd28a01900c677db
13
138
False
Along with Donald O'Connor and Bing Crosby, with whom did Gloria Jean star?
56e15399cd28a01900c677dc
Bing Crosby
239
False
Who played Destry in Destry Rides Again?
56e15399cd28a01900c677dd
James Stewart
370
False
Prior to working at Universal, what studio employed Marlene Dietrich?
56e15399cd28a01900c677de
Paramount Studios
450
False
In what year was Destry Rides again produced?
56e15399cd28a01900c677df
1939
208
False
1939
208
What year did the studio sign Gloria Durbin?
5ad144d6645df0001a2d149c
True
her own series of Pasternak musicals
166
What did Gloria Durbin star in?
5ad144d6645df0001a2d149d
True
Bing Crosby, W. C. Fields, and Donald O'Connor
239
Who did Gloria Durbin star with?
5ad144d6645df0001a2d149e
True
Destry Rides Again
334
What 1930 film starred James Stewart?
5ad144d6645df0001a2d149f
True
Marlene Dietrich
398
What woman starred in the 1930 film Destry Rides Again?
5ad144d6645df0001a2d14a0
True
When Pasternak stopped producing Durbin's pictures, and she outgrew her screen persona and pursued more dramatic roles, the studio signed 13-year-old Gloria Jean for her own series of Pasternak musicals from 1939; she went on to star with Bing Crosby, W. C. Fields, and Donald O'Connor. A popular Universal film of the late 1930s was Destry Rides Again (1939), starring James Stewart as Destry and Marlene Dietrich in her comeback role after leaving Paramount Studios.
During what period were the Little Tough Guys films produced?
56e156e7cd28a01900c677ef
1938–43
326
False
Over what span were the Baby Sandy films made?
56e156e7cd28a01900c677f0
1938–41
379
False
In what period did Universal produce Hugh Herbert comedies?
56e156e7cd28a01900c677f1
1938–42
417
False
When did Universal make Tom Mix westerns?
56e156e7cd28a01900c677f2
1932–33
578
False
In what span did Universal produce westerns with Kirby Grant?
56e156e7cd28a01900c677f3
1946–47
700
False
1938–43
326
When did The Dead End Guys run?
5ad145ef645df0001a2d14d6
True
1938–43
326
When did Little Touch Kids run?
5ad145ef645df0001a2d14d7
True
1938–42
417
When did comedies with Sandy Herbert run?
5ad145ef645df0001a2d14d8
True
Robert Paige, Jane Frazee, The Andrews Sisters, and The Merry Macs
473
Who preformed in the 1932-33 musicals?
5ad145ef645df0001a2d14d9
True
1938–43
650
When did westerns with Johnny Rod Brown run?
5ad145ef645df0001a2d14da
True
By the early 1940s, the company was concentrating on lower-budget productions that were the company's main staple: westerns, melodramas, serials and sequels to the studio's horror pictures, the latter now solely B pictures. The studio fostered many series: The Dead End Kids and Little Tough Guys action features and serials (1938–43); the comic adventures of infant Baby Sandy (1938–41); comedies with Hugh Herbert (1938–42) and The Ritz Brothers (1940–43); musicals with Robert Paige, Jane Frazee, The Andrews Sisters, and The Merry Macs (1938–45); and westerns with Tom Mix (1932–33), Buck Jones (1933–36), Bob Baker (1938–39), Johnny Mack Brown (1938–43); Rod Cameron (1944–45), and Kirby Grant (1946–47).
What two performers were known as the team Abbott and Costello?
56e15ca6cd28a01900c6780d
Bud Abbott and Lou Costello
403
False
What military comedy did Bud Abbott and Lou Costello star in?
56e15ca6cd28a01900c6780e
Buck Privates
471
False
Along with Abbott and Costello and Edgar Bergen, what radio star appeared in Universal films?
56e15ca6cd28a01900c6780f
W. C. Fields
345
False
radio
314
What entertainment medium did Edgar Fields and W.C. Bergen come from?
5ad14694645df0001a2d14fe
True
Buck Privates
471
What comedy came out in 1914?
5ad14694645df0001a2d14ff
True
Abbott and Costello
382
Who starred in the 1914 Buck Privates comedy?
5ad14694645df0001a2d1500
True
Universal could seldom afford its own stable of stars, and often borrowed talent from other studios, or hired freelance actors. In addition to Stewart and Dietrich, Margaret Sullavan, and Bing Crosby were two of the major names that made a couple of pictures for Universal during this period. Some stars came from radio, including Edgar Bergen, W. C. Fields, and the comedy team of Abbott and Costello (Bud Abbott and Lou Costello). Abbott and Costello's military comedy Buck Privates (1941) gave the former burlesque comedians a national and international profile.
Who was the directorial partner of Walter Wanger?
56e15d98e3433e1400422e0c
Fritz Lang
122
False
In what period did Basil Rathbone star in a series of Sherlock Holmes films?
56e15d98e3433e1400422e0d
1942–46
418
False
In what period did film versions of Inner Sanctum Mysteries appear?
56e15d98e3433e1400422e0e
1943–45
586
False
What was the studio that Alfred Hitchcock normally worked for?
56e15d98e3433e1400422e0f
Selznick International Pictures
650
False
In what year was Shadow of a Doubt produced?
56e15d98e3433e1400422e10
1943
586
False
Universal
21
Who partnered with Walter Lang and Fritz Wanger during the war years?
5ad14958645df0001a2d1576
True
Sherlock Holmes
391
What did Basil Bruce and Nigel Rathbone star in?
5ad14958645df0001a2d1577
True
teenage musicals
428
What type of productions did Gloria Ryan and Peggy Jean star in?
5ad14958645df0001a2d1578
True
Alfred Hitchcock
596
Who was borrowed for two films from Selznick Pictures International?
5ad14958645df0001a2d1579
True
Lon Chaney, Jr.
569
Who starred in Inner Mysteries Sanctum?
5ad14958645df0001a2d157a
True
During the war years Universal did have a co-production arrangement with producer Walter Wanger and his partner, director Fritz Lang, lending the studio some amount of prestige productions. Universal's core audience base was still found in the neighborhood movie theaters, and the studio continued to please the public with low- to medium-budget films. Basil Rathbone and Nigel Bruce in new Sherlock Holmes mysteries (1942–46), teenage musicals with Gloria Jean, Donald O'Connor, and Peggy Ryan (1942–43), and screen adaptations of radio's Inner Sanctum Mysteries with Lon Chaney, Jr. (1943–45). Alfred Hitchcock was also borrowed for two films from Selznick International Pictures: Saboteur (1942) and Shadow of a Doubt (1943).
What was the first Universal film to use the three-strip Technicolor process?
56e1604bcd28a01900c67831
Arabian Nights
208
False
What actress starred in Arabian Nights?
56e1604bcd28a01900c67832
Maria Montez
253
False
Along with Nelson Eddy, who starred in the Phantom of the Opera?
56e1604bcd28a01900c67833
Claude Rains
393
False
When was Universal's first version of the Phantom of the Opera made?
56e1604bcd28a01900c67834
1925
344
False
In what year was Arabian Nights produced?
56e1604bcd28a01900c67835
1942
224
False
Technicolor
122
Who was Universal first to have a contract with?
5ad14ab5645df0001a2d15bc
True
Arabian Nights
208
What 1925 film was the first that made use of the three-strip Technicolor process?
5ad14ab5645df0001a2d15bd
True
Phantom of the Opera
367
What remake used technicolor in 1942?
5ad14ab5645df0001a2d15be
True
Claude Rains and Nelson Eddy
393
Who starred in the 1942 version of Phantom of the Opera?
5ad14ab5645df0001a2d15bf
True
As Universal's main product had always been low-budget film, it was one of the last major studios to have a contract with Technicolor. The studio did not make use of the three-strip Technicolor process until Arabian Nights (1942), starring Jon Hall and Maria Montez. The following year, Technicolor was also used in Universal's remake of their 1925 horror melodrama, Phantom of the Opera with Claude Rains and Nelson Eddy. With the success of their first two pictures, a regular schedule of high-budget, Technicolor films followed.
In what year was United World Pictures founded?
56e161c3e3433e1400422e30
1945
3
False
What producer was involved in the founding of United World Pictures?
56e161c3e3433e1400422e31
Kenneth Young
197
False
How long did United World Pictures last?
56e161c3e3433e1400422e32
one year
291
False
Who was the head of production at Universal-International Pictures?
56e161c3e3433e1400422e33
William Goetz
438
False
Who was William Goetz's father-in-law?
56e161c3e3433e1400422e34
Louis B. Mayer
689
False
J. Arthur Rank
34
Who bought into a four-way merger with Universal in 1954?
5ad14c29645df0001a2d1642
True
1945
3
When did Arthur J. Rank buy into a four-way merger?
5ad14c29645df0001a2d1643
True
United World Pictures,
229
What combine did Kenneth Young found?
5ad14c29645df0001a2d1644
True
head of production
490
What position was given to William Mayer?
5ad14c29645df0001a2d1645
True
Universal Pictures Company Inc.
943
What did Louis B. Goetz rename United World Pictures as?
5ad14c29645df0001a2d1646
True
In 1945, the British entrepreneur J. Arthur Rank, hoping to expand his American presence, bought into a four-way merger with Universal, the independent company International Pictures, and producer Kenneth Young. The new combine, United World Pictures, was a failure and was dissolved within one year. Rank and International remained interested in Universal, however, culminating in the studio's reorganization as Universal-International. William Goetz, a founder of International, was made head of production at the renamed Universal-International Pictures Inc., which also served as an import-export subsidiary, and copyright holder for the production arm's films. Goetz, a son-in-law of Louis B. Mayer decided to bring "prestige" to the new company. He stopped the studio's low-budget production of B movies, serials and curtailed Universal's horror and "Arabian Nights" cycles. Distribution and copyright control remained under the name of Universal Pictures Company Inc.
In what year was the Olivier version of Hamlet made?
56e16233e3433e1400422e3a
1948
238
False
Who directed 1946's Great Expectations?
56e16233e3433e1400422e3b
David Lean
168
False
In 1947, what company did Universal buy a stake in?
56e16233e3433e1400422e3c
Castle Films
398
False
Who ran Realart Pictures?
56e16233e3433e1400422e3d
Jack Broeder
668
False
In what year did Universal-International take over Castle Films?
56e16233e3433e1400422e3e
1951
460
False
1946
201
What year was Laurence Olivier's Great Expectations produced?
5ad14d7a645df0001a2d16a4
True
1948
238
What year was David Lean's Hamlet produced?
5ad14d7a645df0001a2d16a5
True
Castle Films
398
What company did Universal-International buy a major stake in during 1946?
5ad14d7a645df0001a2d16a6
True
Universal-International
275
Who took over Castle Films in 1947?
5ad14d7a645df0001a2d16a7
True
Goetz set out an ambitious schedule. Universal-International became responsible for the American distribution of Rank's British productions, including such classics as David Lean's Great Expectations (1946) and Laurence Olivier's Hamlet (1948). Broadening its scope further, Universal-International branched out into the lucrative non-theatrical field, buying a majority stake in home-movie dealer Castle Films in 1947, and taking the company over entirely in 1951. For three decades, Castle would offer "highlights" reels from the Universal film library to home-movie enthusiasts and collectors. Goetz licensed Universal's pre–Universal-International film library to Jack Broeder's Realart Pictures for cinema re-release but Realart was not allowed to show the films on television.
In what year was The Killers produced?
56e162d3cd28a01900c6784f
1946
102
False
What Universal-International film was about a talking mule?
56e162d3cd28a01900c67850
Francis
334
False
In what year was Ma and Pa Kettle made?
56e162d3cd28a01900c67851
1949
420
False
What Abbott and Costello film was released in 1948?
56e162d3cd28a01900c67852
Abbott and Costello Meet Frankenstein
534
False
Who bought Rank's share of Universal-International?
56e162d3cd28a01900c67853
Milton Rackmil
703
False
Goetz
258
Who left Universal in 1940?
5ad14f4a645df0001a2d16fc
True
1949
420
What year was Ma and Pa Francis made?
5ad14f4a645df0001a2d16fd
True
1950
343
What year was Kettle made?
5ad14f4a645df0001a2d16fe
True
Abbott and Costello Meet Frankenstein
534
What 1952 Abbott and Costello film was a top grossing production?
5ad14f4a645df0001a2d16ff
True
Decca Records
725
What company took full control of Universal in 1948?
5ad14f4a645df0001a2d1700
True
The production arm of the studio still struggled. While there were to be a few hits like The Killers (1946) and The Naked City (1948), Universal-International's new theatrical films often met with disappointing response at the box office. By the late 1940s, Goetz was out, and the studio returned to low-budget films. The inexpensive Francis (1950), the first film of a series about a talking mule and Ma and Pa Kettle (1949), part of a series, became mainstays of the company. Once again, the films of Abbott and Costello, including Abbott and Costello Meet Frankenstein (1948), were among the studio's top-grossing productions. But at this point Rank lost interest and sold his shares to the investor Milton Rackmil, whose Decca Records would take full control of Universal in 1952. Besides Abbott and Costello, the studio retained the Walter Lantz cartoon studio, whose product was released with Universal-International's films.
Who did many of Universal-International's Arabian Nights films feature?
56e1636ce3433e1400422e58
Tony Curtis
98
False
Who notably produced monster and science fiction films for Universal?
56e1636ce3433e1400422e59
William Alland
192
False
What Universal director was known for his melodramas?
56e1636ce3433e1400422e5a
Douglas Sirk
291
False
Who directed monster movies for Universal?
56e1636ce3433e1400422e5b
Jack Arnold
230
False
Who produced melodramas for Universal?
56e1636ce3433e1400422e5c
Ross Hunter
320
False
Arabian Nights
62
What series of films did Tony Alland star in?
5ad15058645df0001a2d171a
True
monster and science fiction
146
What types of films did William Curtis produce?
5ad15058645df0001a2d171b
True
melodramas
268
What type of films did Douglas Hunter and Ross Sirk produce?
5ad15058645df0001a2d171c
True
Universal-International
442
What company did stars Rock Hudson, Tony Chandler, and Jeff Curtis work for?
5ad15058645df0001a2d171d
True
In the 1950s, Universal-International resumed their series of Arabian Nights films, many starring Tony Curtis. The studio also had a success with monster and science fiction films produced by William Alland, with many directed by Jack Arnold. Other successes were the melodramas directed by Douglas Sirk and produced by Ross Hunter, although for film critics they were not so well thought of on first release as they have since become. Among Universal-International's stable of stars were Rock Hudson, Tony Curtis, Jeff Chandler, Audie Murphy, and John Gavin.
Who was a notable talent agent circa 1950?
56e1644ee3433e1400422e6c
Lew Wasserman
332
False
What star did Lew Wasserman represent?
56e1644ee3433e1400422e6d
James Stewart
388
False
What actor featured in Winchester '73?
56e1644ee3433e1400422e6e
James Stewart
388
False
What legal decision resulted in movie studios letting their contract actors go?
56e1644ee3433e1400422e6f
U.S. vs. Paramount Pictures, et al.
191
False
U.S. vs. Paramount Pictures
191
What court decision happened in 1950?
5ad1518d645df0001a2d173e
True
Lew Wasserman
332
Who made a deal in 1948 with Universal for James Stewart?
5ad1518d645df0001a2d173f
True
Universal
363
What company did Lew Wasserman make a deal with in 1948?
5ad1518d645df0001a2d1740
True
Lew Wasserman
332
Who was a MAC agent?
5ad1518d645df0001a2d1741
True
Though Decca would continue to keep picture budgets lean, it was favored by changing circumstances in the film business, as other studios let their contract actors go in the wake of the 1948 U.S. vs. Paramount Pictures, et al. decision. Leading actors were increasingly free to work where and when they chose, and in 1950 MCA agent Lew Wasserman made a deal with Universal for his client James Stewart that would change the rules of the business. Wasserman's deal gave Stewart a share in the profits of three pictures in lieu of a large salary. When one of those films, Winchester '73, proved to be a hit, the arrangement would become the rule for many future productions at Universal, and eventually at other studios as well.
What acronym was the Music Corporation of America known by?
56e1657ee3433e1400422e7e
MCA
235
False
Where did MCA's Revue Productions subsidiary rent space?
56e1657ee3433e1400422e7f
Republic Studios
342
False
In square kilometers, how large was the lot Universal sold to MCA?
56e1657ee3433e1400422e80
1.5
484
False
In what year did Universal sell its 360-acre lot to MCA?
56e1657ee3433e1400422e81
1958
514
False
How much did MCA pay for Universal's 360-acre lot?
56e1657ee3433e1400422e82
$11 million
524
False
The combination of the studio/theater-chain break-up and the rise of television
67
What was responsible for a rise in audience for cinema productions?
5ad152f1645df0001a2d176e
True
The Music Corporation of America
201
What does MAC stand for?
5ad152f1645df0001a2d176f
True
1958
514
When did Universal sell its 1.5-acre studio lot?
5ad152f1645df0001a2d1770
True
$11 million
524
How much did Universal sell its lot to MAC for?
5ad152f1645df0001a2d1771
True
Universal Pictures
594
What did MAC not own after the lot purchase?
5ad152f1645df0001a2d1772
True
By the late 1950s, the motion picture business was again changing. The combination of the studio/theater-chain break-up and the rise of television saw the reduced audience size for cinema productions. The Music Corporation of America (MCA), then predominately a talent agency, had also become a powerful television producer, renting space at Republic Studios for its Revue Productions subsidiary. After a period of complete shutdown, a moribund Universal agreed to sell its 360-acre (1.5 km²) studio lot to MCA in 1958, for $11 million, renamed Revue Studios. MCA owned the studio lot, but not Universal Pictures, yet was increasingly influential on Universal's product. The studio lot was upgraded and modernized, while MCA clients like Doris Day, Lana Turner, Cary Grant, and director Alfred Hitchcock were signed to Universal Pictures contracts.
In what year did MCA take over Universal?
56e1664de3433e1400422e92
1962
77
False
What company did MCA create in 1964?
56e1664de3433e1400422e93
Universal City Studios, Inc.
319
False
What new name was given to Revue Productions in 1966?
56e1664de3433e1400422e94
Universal Television
472
False
What was the company formed by the merger of Universal and NBC?
56e1664de3433e1400422e95
NBC Universal
883
False
When did Universal inaugurate its studio tour subsidiary?
56e1664de3433e1400422e96
1964
303
False
takeover of Universal Pictures
17
What did MAC, Inc. do in 1962?
5ad15431645df0001a2d17a8
True
Universal Pictures
155
What name did the company revert to after the MAC takeover?
5ad15431645df0001a2d17a9
True
Universal City Studios, Inc.
319
What did MCA form in 1966?
5ad15431645df0001a2d17aa
True
Universal Television
472
What was Universal Pictures Company and Revue Productions renamed in 1966?
5ad15431645df0001a2d17ab
True
NBC
836
What television network did MCA later merge with?
5ad15431645df0001a2d17ac
True
The long-awaited takeover of Universal Pictures by MCA, Inc. happened in mid-1962 as part of the MCA-Decca Records merger. The company reverted in name to Universal Pictures. As a final gesture before leaving the talent agency business, virtually every MCA client was signed to a Universal contract. In 1964 MCA formed Universal City Studios, Inc., merging the motion pictures and television arms of Universal Pictures Company and Revue Productions (officially renamed as Universal Television in 1966). And so, with MCA in charge, Universal became a full-blown, A-film movie studio, with leading actors and directors under contract; offering slick, commercial films; and a studio tour subsidiary launched in 1964. Television production made up much of the studio's output, with Universal heavily committed, in particular, to deals with NBC (which later merged with Universal to form NBC Universal; see below) providing up to half of all prime time shows for several seasons. An innovation during this period championed by Universal was the made-for-television movie.
Who produced Anne of the Thousand Days?
56e166ffcd28a01900c67877
Hal B. Wallis
14
False
Who wrote the original work that the film version of Anne of the Thousand Days was based on?
56e166ffcd28a01900c67878
Maxwell Anderson
176
False
In what year was the film version of Mary, Queen of Scots made?
56e166ffcd28a01900c67879
1971
274
False
Whose performance in Anne of the Thousand Days garnered a Best Actor nod?
56e166ffcd28a01900c6787a
Richard Burton
435
False
What was the name of the sequel to True Grit produced by Universal?
56e166ffcd28a01900c6787b
Rooster Cogburn
581
False
Paramount
76
What company did B. Hal Wallis work at before Universal?
5ad155de645df0001a2d17e2
True
Universal
101
What company did B. Hal Wallis work at after Paramount?
5ad155de645df0001a2d17e3
True
1969
222
What year did May of the Thousand Days come out?
5ad155de645df0001a2d17e4
True
1971
274
What year did Anne, Queen of Scots come out?
5ad155de645df0001a2d17e5
True
Rooster Cogburn
581
What 1969 film was a sequel to True Grit?
5ad155de645df0001a2d17e6
True
At this time, Hal B. Wallis, who had latterly worked as a major producer at Paramount, moved over to Universal, where he produced several films, among them a lavish version of Maxwell Anderson's Anne of the Thousand Days (1969), and the equally lavish Mary, Queen of Scots (1971). Though neither could claim to be a big financial hit, both films received Academy Award nominations, and Anne was nominated for Best Picture, Best Actor (Richard Burton), Best Actress (Geneviève Bujold), and Best Supporting Actor (Anthony Quayle). Wallis retired from Universal after making the film Rooster Cogburn (1975), a sequel to True Grit (1969), which Wallis had produced at Paramount. Rooster Cogburn co-starred John Wayne, reprising his Oscar-winning role from the earlier film, and Katharine Hepburn, their only film together. The film was only a moderate success.
Who partnered with Universal in the creation of Cinema International Corporation?
56e1680ae3433e1400422eb0
Paramount Pictures
45
False
In what year was the film Airport made?
56e1680ae3433e1400422eb1
1970s
13
False
What Universal hit film was produced in 1974?
56e1680ae3433e1400422eb2
Earthquake
290
False
What company was purchased by MGM in 1981?
56e1680ae3433e1400422eb3
United Artists
488
False
When did United International Pictures start distributing films for DreamWorks?
56e1680ae3433e1400422eb4
1997
1078
False
Paramount Pictures
45
What company did Universal team up with in 1970?
5ad15a25645df0001a2d1860
True
Cinema International Corporation
72
What company was formed in 1970?
5ad15a25645df0001a2d1861
True
Metro-Goldwyn-Mayer
458
What does MMG stand for?
5ad15a25645df0001a2d1862
True
MGM
1183
Who dropped out of the UIP venture in 2001?
5ad15a25645df0001a2d1863
True
20th Century Fox
1233
Who did UIP join in 2001?
5ad15a25645df0001a2d1864
True
In the early 1970s, Universal teamed up with Paramount Pictures to form Cinema International Corporation, which distributed films by Paramount and Universal worldwide. Though Universal did produce occasional hits, among them Airport (1970), The Sting (1973), American Graffiti (also 1973), Earthquake (1974), and a big box-office success which restored the company's fortunes: Jaws (1975), Universal during the decade was primarily a television studio. When Metro-Goldwyn-Mayer purchased United Artists in 1981, MGM could not drop out of the CIC venture to merge with United Artists overseas operations. However, with future film productions from both names being released through the MGM/UA Entertainment plate, CIC decided to merge UA's international units with MGM and reformed as United International Pictures. There would be other film hits like E.T. the Extra-Terrestrial (1982), Back to the Future (1985), Field of Dreams (1989), and Jurassic Park (1993), but the film business was financially unpredictable. UIP began distributing films by start-up studio DreamWorks in 1997, due to connections the founders have with Paramount, Universal, and Amblin Entertainment. In 2001, MGM dropped out of the UIP venture, and went with 20th Century Fox's international arm to handle distribution of their titles to this day.
Who was the head of MCA in 1990?
56e16883cd28a01900c67891
Lew Wasserman
80
False
What is the current name of the company that was called Matsushita Electric in 1990?
56e16883cd28a01900c67892
Panasonic
196
False
How much did Matsushita Electric pay for MCA?
56e16883cd28a01900c67893
$6.6 billion
240
False
In what year was MCA/Universal Home Video Inc. created?
56e16883cd28a01900c67894
1990
256
False
What was the nationality of Matsushita Electric?
56e16883cd28a01900c67895
Japanese
128
False
Panasonic
196
What company acquired MAC for $6.6 billion in 1990?
5ad15b81645df0001a2d189c
True
Universal Studios Inc
329
What was Panasonic renamed in 1990?
5ad15b81645df0001a2d189d
True
Panasonic
196
What was Matsushita Electric renamed in 1990?
5ad15b81645df0001a2d189e
True
MCA
367
What company created the VHS cassette?
5ad15b81645df0001a2d189f
True
Anxious to expand the company's broadcast and cable presence, longtime MCA head Lew Wasserman sought a rich partner. He located Japanese electronics manufacturer Matsushita Electric (now known as Panasonic), which agreed to acquire MCA for $6.6 billion in 1990. Meanwhile, around this time, the production subsidiary was renamed Universal Studios Inc., and (in 1990) MCA created MCA/Universal Home Video Inc. for the VHS video cassette (later DVD) sales industry.
What percentage of MCA/Universal did Matsushita Electric sell five years after acquiring the company?
56e168ebe3433e1400422ec4
80%
130
False
To whom did Matsushita sell a large share of MCA/Universal?
56e168ebe3433e1400422ec5
Seagram
188
False
How much did Seagram pay to buy a large share of MCA/Universal?
56e168ebe3433e1400422ec6
$5.7 billion
200
False
What did Seagram sell to finance their purchase of a share in MCA/Universal?
56e168ebe3433e1400422ec7
its stake in DuPont
231
False
What company did Seagram buy in 1999?
56e168ebe3433e1400422ec8
PolyGram
380
False
80%
130
What percent stake did MCA/Univeral have in Matsushita?
5ad15e76645df0001a2d18e2
True
Seagram
188
How did MCA/Universal sell their stake to?
5ad15e76645df0001a2d18e3
True
$5.7 billion
200
How much did MCA/Universal sell their stake for?
5ad15e76645df0001a2d18e4
True
1999
392
What year did PolyGram buy Seagram?
5ad15e76645df0001a2d18e5
True
Matsushita provided a cash infusion, but the clash of cultures was too great to overcome, and five years later Matsushita sold an 80% stake in MCA/Universal to Canadian drinks distributor Seagram for $5.7 billion. Seagram sold off its stake in DuPont to fund this expansion into the entertainment industry. Hoping to build an entertainment empire around Universal, Seagram bought PolyGram in 1999 and other entertainment properties, but the fluctuating profits characteristic of Hollywood were no substitute for the reliable income stream gained from the previously held shares in DuPont.
Who was the head of Seagram?
56e16960cd28a01900c678a3
Edgar Bronfman Jr.
29
False
Who bought the USA cable network from Seagram?
56e16960cd28a01900c678a4
Barry Diller
118
False
Who bought Seagram in June 2000?
56e16960cd28a01900c678a5
Vivendi
283
False
What was the budget of the film Love Actually?
56e16960cd28a01900c678a6
$40 million
766
False
What StudioCanal film received an Academy Award nomination?
56e16960cd28a01900c678a7
Mulholland Drive
494
False
Universal
53
What company did Edgar Bronfman Jr. sell Seagram's holdings to?
5ad15fb9645df0001a2d18f2
True
Vivendi
283
Who was Seagram sold to in June 1980?
5ad15fb9645df0001a2d18f3
True
Love Actually
748
What 2000 film grossed $246 million?
5ad15fb9645df0001a2d18f4
True
Love Actually
748
What film grossed $264 million?
5ad15fb9645df0001a2d18f5
True
backlot
924
What was Universal Studios permitted to use in 2000?
5ad15fb9645df0001a2d18f6
True
To raise money, Seagram head Edgar Bronfman Jr. sold Universal's television holdings, including cable network USA, to Barry Diller (these same properties would be bought back later at greatly inflated prices). In June 2000, Seagram was sold to French water utility and media company Vivendi, which owned StudioCanal; the conglomerate then became known as Vivendi Universal. Afterward, Universal Pictures acquired the United States distribution rights of several of StudioCanal's films, such as Mulholland Drive (which received an Oscar nomination) and Brotherhood of the Wolf (which became the second-highest-grossing French-language film in the United States since 1980). Universal Pictures and StudioCanal also co-produced several films, such as Love Actually (an $40 million-budgeted film that eventually grossed $246 million worldwide). In late 2000, the New York Film Academy was permitted to use the Universal Studios backlot for student film projects in an unofficial partnership.
Who bought 80% of Vivendi Universal Entertainment in 2004?
56e169e1cd28a01900c678ad
General Electric
132
False
What percentage of NBC Universal was owned by Vivendi until 2011?
56e169e1cd28a01900c678ae
20%
382
False
Who bought 51% of NBC Universal in 2011?
56e169e1cd28a01900c678af
Comcast
528
False
In what month and year did Comcast buy 49% of NBCUniversal?
56e169e1cd28a01900c678b0
March 2013
773
False
How much did Comcast pay for 49% of NBCUniversal in 2013?
56e169e1cd28a01900c678b1
$16.7 billion
838
False
80%
51
What percentage did General Electric sell to Vivendi Universal?
5ad160e4645df0001a2d190e
True
NBC Universal
340
What does NCBU stand for?
5ad160e4645df0001a2d190f
True
GE
429
Who purchased Vivendi's share of NBCU in 2006?
5ad160e4645df0001a2d1910
True
Federal Communications Commission
672
What does CFC stand for?
5ad160e4645df0001a2d1911
True
Comcast
785
Who bought 49% of NBCUniversal for $17.6 billion?
5ad160e4645df0001a2d1912
True
Burdened with debt, in 2004 Vivendi Universal sold 80% of Vivendi Universal Entertainment (including the studio and theme parks) to General Electric, parent of NBC. The resulting media super-conglomerate was renamed NBCUniversal, while Universal Studios Inc. remained the name of the production subsidiary. After that deal, GE owned 80% of NBC Universal; Vivendi held the remaining 20%, with an option to sell its share in 2006. GE purchased Vivendi's share in NBCU in 2011 and in turn sold 51% of the company to cable provider Comcast. Comcast merged the former GE subsidiary with its own cable-television programming assets, creating the current NBCUniversal. Following Federal Communications Commission (FCC) approval, the Comcast-GE deal was closed on Jan 29, 2011. In March 2013, Comcast bought the remaining 49% of NBCUniversal for $16.7 billion.
In what year did Paramount Pictures purchase DreamWorks?
56e16a5ecd28a01900c678bd
2005
8
False
What Universal chairperson headed DreamWorks as of 2006?
56e16a5ecd28a01900c678be
Stacey Snider
160
False
Who became the chairperson in late 2009?
56e16a5ecd28a01900c678bf
Adam Fogelson
488
False
Who was the founder of Universal Partnerships & Licensing?
56e16a5ecd28a01900c678c0
Stephanie Sperber
592
False
Who became chairperson of Universal Pictures in September 2013?
56e16a5ecd28a01900c678c1
Donna Langley
535
False
DreamWorks SKG
51
What company did Viacom acquire in 2005?
5ad1629f645df0001a2d194c
True
Universal
125
What company did Stacey Shmuger leave in 2006?
5ad1629f645df0001a2d194d
True
co-chairperson
567
What position did Donna Sperber hold?
5ad1629f645df0001a2d194e
True
Adam Fogelson
733
Who was ousted as co-chairman of Universal Pictures in October 2013?
5ad1629f645df0001a2d194f
True
In late 2005, Viacom's Paramount Pictures acquired DreamWorks SKG after acquisition talks between GE and DreamWorks stalled. Universal's long time chairperson, Stacey Snider, left the company in early 2006 to head up DreamWorks. Snider was replaced by then-Vice Chairman Marc Shmuger and Focus Features head David Linde. On October 5, 2009, Marc Shmuger and David Linde were ousted and their co-chairperson jobs consolidated under former president of worldwide marketing and distribution Adam Fogelson becoming the single chairperson. Donna Langley was also upped to co-chairperson. In 2009, Stephanie Sperber founded Universal Partnerships & Licensing within Universal to license consumer products for Universal. In September 2013, Adam Fogelson was ousted as co-chairman of Universal Pictures, promoting Donna Langley to sole-chairman. In addition, NBCUniversal International Chairman, Jeff Shell, would be appointed as Chairman of the newly created Filmed Entertainment Group. Longtime studio head Ron Meyer would give up oversight of the film studio and appointed Vice Chairman of NBCUniversal, providing consultation to CEO Steve Burke on all of the company's operations. Meyers still retains oversight of Universal Parks and Resorts.
Universal's deal with what company ended in 2013?
56e16abbe3433e1400422ee0
Elliott Management
48
False
With whom did Universal sign a marketing and distribution deal in July 2013?
56e16abbe3433e1400422ee1
Legendary Pictures
131
False
How many years is the deal with Legendary Pictures intended to run?
56e16abbe3433e1400422ee2
five years
210
False
In what year did Universal's deal with Legendary Pictures begin?
56e16abbe3433e1400422ee3
2014
233
False
2013
78
When did Elliott Management's financing deal expire?
5ad16393645df0001a2d195c
True
Universal
98
What company made an agreement with Legendary Pictures in July 2014?
5ad16393645df0001a2d195d
True
Legendary's similar agreement with Warner Bros. expires
253
What two companies had a deal that expired in 2013?
5ad16393645df0001a2d195e
True
Universal's multi-year film financing deal with Elliott Management expired in 2013. In July 2013, Universal made an agreement with Legendary Pictures to market, co-finance, and distribute Legendary's films for five years starting in 2014, the year that Legendary's similar agreement with Warner Bros. expires.
What film studio was brought back in May 2015?
56e16b3de3433e1400422ee9
Gramercy Pictures
196
False
What division of NBCUniversal revived Gramercy Pictures?
56e16b3de3433e1400422eea
Focus Features
229
False
What genre of films will Gramercy be responsible for creating?
56e16b3de3433e1400422eeb
action, sci-fi, and horror
283
False
2014
8
What year did NBCUniversal take over Sprout?
5ad164ac645df0001a2d198c
True
Gramercy Pictures
196
Who revived Focus Features in 2015?
5ad164ac645df0001a2d198d
True
Gramercy Pictures was revived by Focus Features
196
What happened in June 2015?
5ad164ac645df0001a2d198e
True
In June 2014, Universal Partnerships took over licensing consumer products for NBC and Sprout with expectation that all licensing would eventually be centralized within NBCUniversal. In May 2015, Gramercy Pictures was revived by Focus Features as a genre label, that concentrated on action, sci-fi, and horror films.
In what year did Universal release three billion-dollar films?
56e16ba5cd28a01900c678e7
2015
6
False
Along with Jurassic World and Furious 7, what billion-dollar film was released by Universal in 2015?
56e16ba5cd28a01900c678e8
Minions
171
False
How many studios have released three billion-dollar films in one year?
56e16ba5cd28a01900c678e9
Universal is the only studio
12
False
Universal
12
Who released three billion-dollar films in 2017?
5ad16548645df0001a2d1992
True
Furious 7, Jurassic World and Minions.
141
What movies made three billion dollars?
5ad16548645df0001a2d1993
True
As of 2015, Universal is the only studio to have released three billion-dollar films in one year; this distinction was achieved in 2015 with Furious 7, Jurassic World and Minions.
What was the name of the Universal production company based in Paris?
56e16c15cd28a01900c678f7
Universal Productions France S.A.
156
False
What was the name of Universal's French distribution company?
56e16c15cd28a01900c678f8
Universal Pictures France
260
False
What was the English title of Le scandale?
56e16c15cd28a01900c678f9
The Champagne Murders
375
False
Who directed The Day of the Jackal?
56e16c15cd28a01900c678fa
Fred Zinnemann
672
False
What film was known in English as Going Places?
56e16c15cd28a01900c678fb
Les Valseuses
624
False
France
69
Where did Universal set up a distribution company in 1950?
5ad165eb645df0001a2d19aa
True
Paris
149
Where did Universal set up a production company in 1960?
5ad165eb645df0001a2d19ab
True
the unit was incorporated into the French Cinema International Corporation arm
798
What happened in 1970?
5ad165eb645df0001a2d19ac
True
Universal Productions France S.A
156
What was the name of the company established in 1960?
5ad165eb645df0001a2d19ad
True
In the early 1950s, Universal set up its own distribution company in France, and in the late 1960s, the company also started a production company in Paris, Universal Productions France S.A., although sometimes credited by the name of the distribution company, Universal Pictures France. Except for the two first films it produced, Claude Chabrol's Le scandale (English title The Champagne Murders) and Romain Gary's Les oiseaux vont mourir au Pérou (English title Birds in Peru), it was only involved in French or other European co-productions, the most noticeable ones being Louis Malle's Lacombe, Lucien, Bertrand Blier's Les Valseuses (English title Going Places), and Fred Zinnemann's The Day of the Jackal. It was only involved in approximately 20 French film productions. In the early 1970s, the unit was incorporated into the French Cinema International Corporation arm.
Estonian_language
What country has Estonian as its official language?
56e3a635e375b8140053a3cc
Estonian
0
False
In Estonia how many people speak Estonian as their native language
56e3a636e375b8140053a3cd
1.1 million
109
False
Of what language family is Estonian a part of?
56e3a636e375b8140053a3ce
Uralic
232
False
On which branch of Uralic language family can Estonian be found?
56e3a636e375b8140053a3cf
Finnic
211
False
How many estimated non native speakers of Estonian are there in Estonia?
56e3a636e375b8140053a3d0
tens of thousands
143
False
Estonian (eesti keel [ˈeːsti ˈkeːl] ( listen)) is the official language of Estonia, spoken natively by about 1.1 million people in Estonia and tens of thousands in various migrant communities. It belongs to the Finnic branch of the Uralic language family.
Who is interested in the degrees of phonemic length?
56e3a745d654871900275377
linguists
73
False
What are the phonemic length's three degrees?
56e3a745d654871900275378
short, long, and "overlong"
150
False
What is a matter of dispute among linguists regarding the distinction?
56e3a745d654871900275379
the underlying phonological mechanism
303
False
linguists
73
Who isn't interested in the degrees of phonemic length?
5acd272207355d001abf36f4
True
degrees of phonemic length
122
What is not a distinctive feature?
5acd272207355d001abf36f5
True
phonemic
133
Underlong is a degree of what length?
5acd272207355d001abf36f6
True
short, long, and "overlong"
150
What are the three degrees of phonemic width?
5acd272207355d001abf36f7
True
One distinctive feature that has caused a great amount of interest among linguists is what is traditionally seen as three degrees of phonemic length: short, long, and "overlong", such that /sɑdɑ/, /sɑˑdɑ/ and /sɑːdɑ/ are distinct. In actuality, the distinction is not purely in the phonemic length, and the underlying phonological mechanism is still disputed.[citation needed]
What Uralic language branch contains Estonian?
56e3a830e375b8140053a3d6
Finnic
24
False
What are two other languages in the Finnic branch?
56e3a830e375b8140053a3d7
Finnish, Karelian
74
False
What language group is Estonian not a part of?
56e3a830e375b8140053a3d8
Indo-European languages
163
False
What languages are related to Estonian but not closely?
56e3a830e375b8140053a3d9
Hungarian and to the Sami languages
221
False
Finnic
24
What Uralic language branch does not contain Estonian?
5acd277607355d001abf371a
True
Finnic
24
What Uralic language branch does not contain Finnish?
5acd277607355d001abf371b
True
Finnic
24
What Uralic language branch does not contain Karelian?
5acd277607355d001abf371c
True
Hungarian and to the Sami languages
221
What languages are very close to Estonian?
5acd277607355d001abf371d
True
Hungarian and to the Sami languages
221
What languages are not related to Estonian?
5acd277607355d001abf371e
True
Estonian belongs to the Finnic branch of the Uralic languages, along with Finnish, Karelian, and other nearby languages. The Uralic languages do not belong to the Indo-European languages. Estonian is distantly related to Hungarian and to the Sami languages.
Who spoke German in what came to be known as Estonia?
56e3a927e375b8140053a3df
Baltic Germans
238
False
Aside from standard German what German language influenced Estonian?
56e3a927e375b8140053a3e0
Middle Low German
59
False
Swedish
32
Baltic Germans spoke which language?
5acd27f807355d001abf372e
True
Swedish
32
What German language did not influence Estonian?
5acd27f807355d001abf372f
True
Estonia
195
Where is Middle Low German spoken today?
5acd27f807355d001abf3730
True
Russian
314
Which language did Russian not influence?
5acd27f807355d001abf3731
True
Estonian has been influenced by Swedish, German (initially Middle Low German, which was the lingua franca of the Hanseatic League and spoken natively in the territories of what is today known as Estonia by a sizeable burgher community of Baltic Germans, later Estonian was also influenced by standard German), and Russian, though it is not related to them genetically.
What kind of harmony has Estonian lost?
56e3b0128c00841900fbaed5
vowel
104
False
What language feature does Estonian, Finish and Hungarian share?
56e3b0128c00841900fbaed6
agglutinative
51
False
In what order are words put in sentences in the Estonian language?
56e3b0128c00841900fbaed7
subject–verb–object
443
False
vowel
221
What kind of harmony has Estonian not lost?
5acd289107355d001abf3740
True
agglutinative
51
What language features do Estonian, Finish and Hungarian differ?
5acd289107355d001abf3741
True
subject–verb–object
443
In what order are words put in sentences in the Finnish language?
5acd289107355d001abf3742
True
subject–verb–object
443
In what order are words put in sentences in the Hungarian language?
5acd289107355d001abf3743
True
the apocope
273
What made it shift from a fusional language to an agglutinative one?
5acd289107355d001abf3744
True
Like Finnish and Hungarian, Estonian is a somewhat agglutinative language, but unlike them, it has lost vowel harmony, the front vowels occurring exclusively on the first or stressed syllable, although in older texts the vowel harmony can still be recognized. Furthermore, the apocope of word-final sounds is extensive and has contributed to a shift from a purely agglutinative to a fusional language.[citation needed] The basic word order is subject–verb–object.
What was the minimum number of waves through which modern Estonians migrated into Estonia?
56e3bb5d39bdeb14003478d4
two
4
False
What are the names of the two separate Estonian languages?
56e3bb5d39bdeb14003478d5
North and South Estonian languages
85
False
the ancestors of modern Estonians' migration into the territory of Estonia
134
What are East and West Estonian languages based on?
5acd2d3c07355d001abf37ec
True
Modern standard Estonian
306
What evolved from Eastern Estonian dialect?
5acd2d3c07355d001abf37ed
True
Finnic vernaculars
286
The two waves of migration into Estonian spoke the exact same type of what language?
5acd2d3c07355d001abf37ee
True
two
4
What was the maximum number of waves through which modern Estonians migrated into Estonia?
5acd2d3c07355d001abf37ef
True
The two different historical Estonian languages (sometimes considered dialects), the North and South Estonian languages, are based on the ancestors of modern Estonians' migration into the territory of Estonia in at least two different waves, both groups speaking considerably different Finnic vernaculars. Modern standard Estonian has evolved on the basis of the dialects of Northern Estonia.
When did the Northern Crusades happen?
56e3bbe839bdeb14003478da
13th century to 1918
64
False
Which countries took part in the Northern Crusades?
56e3bbe839bdeb14003478db
Denmark, Germany, Sweden, and Russia
88
False
Following the crusades which country was dominated?
56e3bbe839bdeb14003478dc
Estonia
18
False
What did the aftermath of the crusades end up delaying in Estonia?
56e3bbe839bdeb14003478dd
indigenous literacy
133
False
13th century to 1918
64
When didn't the Northern Crusades happen?
5acd2d8207355d001abf37fe
True
Denmark, Germany, Sweden, and Russia
88
Which countries didn't take part in the Northern Crusades?
5acd2d8207355d001abf37ff
True
Estonia
18
Following the crusades which country was not dominated?
5acd2d8207355d001abf3800
True
indigenous literacy
133
What did the aftermath of the crusades end up beginning in Estonia?
5acd2d8207355d001abf3801
True
Estonia
18
What country was involved in the Eastern Crusades?
5acd2d8207355d001abf3802
True
The domination of Estonia after the Northern Crusades, from the 13th century to 1918 by Denmark, Germany, Sweden, and Russia delayed indigenous literacy in Estonia.[citation needed]
How far back do the first written records of Estonia's Finnic languages go?
56e3bca239bdeb14003478e2
13th century
76
False
Where can records of Estonian place names be found?
56e3bca239bdeb14003478e3
Originates Livoniae
90
False
Which Chronicle contains the Originates Livoniae?
56e3bca239bdeb14003478e4
Chronicle of Henry of Livonia
113
False
Aside from place names what else from the Estonian language can be found in the Originates Livoniae in Chronicle of Henry of Livonia?
56e3bca239bdeb14003478e5
words and fragments of sentences.
174
False
Originates Livoniae
90
Where can records of Estonian place names not be found?
5acd2dff07355d001abf3808
True
Henry of Livonia
126
Which Chronicle does not contain the Originates Livoniae?
5acd2dff07355d001abf3809
True
13th century
76
What was the last century fo Estonia's Finnic language?
5acd2dff07355d001abf380a
True
13th century
76
When is the most recent written records of Finnic Languages of Estonia?
5acd2dff07355d001abf380b
True
Chronicle of Henry of Livonia
113
In what book were place names, words and fragments of sentences were not included?
5acd2dff07355d001abf380c
True
The oldest written records of the Finnic languages of Estonia date from the 13th century. Originates Livoniae in Chronicle of Henry of Livonia contains Estonian place names, words and fragments of sentences.
What was the first Estonian language book to be published?
56e3bd8e8c00841900fbaedb
a Lutheran manuscript
204
False
When were the Kallamaa prayers written?
56e3bd8e8c00841900fbaedc
1524 and 1528
105
False
What was the fate of the Lutheran manuscript printed in 1525?
56e3bd8e8c00841900fbaedd
destroyed
266
False
At what point in its existence was the Lutheran manuscript destroyed?
56e3bd8e8c00841900fbaede
immediately after publication
276
False
Lutheran manuscript
206
What was the last Estonian language book to be published?
5acd2f5507355d001abf3848
True
Kullamaa
76
Who wrote the first prayers?
5acd2f5507355d001abf3849
True
destroyed
266
What was the fate of the Lutheran manuscript printed in 1524?
5acd2f5507355d001abf384a
True
immediately
276
At what point in its existence was the Lutheran manuscript published?
5acd2f5507355d001abf384b
True
Lutheran manuscript
206
What manuscript was written in 1528?
5acd2f5507355d001abf384c
True
The earliest extant samples of connected (north) Estonian are the so-called Kullamaa prayers dating from 1524 and 1528. In 1525 the first book published in the Estonian language was printed. The book was a Lutheran manuscript, which never reached the reader and was destroyed immediately after publication.
What two people are responsible for the first still in existence book in the Estonian Language?
56e3c1098c00841900fbaee3
S. Wanradt and J. Koell
103
False
In what year was S. Wanradt and J. Koell's book written?
56e3c1098c00841900fbaee4
1535
137
False
What type of book was it?
56e3c1098c00841900fbaee5
bilingual German-Estonian translation of the Lutheran catechism
36
False
What book specifically for the use of priests was printed in Estonian?
56e3c1098c00841900fbaee6
An Estonian grammar book
185
False
What year was the priests' grammar book put into print?
56e3c1098c00841900fbaee7
1637
257
False
S. Wanradt and J. Koell
103
Who wrote the last Estonian book?
5acd2fe907355d001abf3852
True
The New Testament
263
What book was published in Eastern Estonia in 1715?
5acd2fe907355d001abf3853
True
Estonian grammar book
188
What book was not used by priests in 1637?
5acd2fe907355d001abf3854
True
Anton thor Helle.
414
Who wrote in Eastern Estonian?
5acd2fe907355d001abf3855
True
S. Wanradt and J. Koell
103
Who wrote the grammar book in 1637?
5acd2fe907355d001abf3856
True
The first extant Estonian book is a bilingual German-Estonian translation of the Lutheran catechism by S. Wanradt and J. Koell dating to 1535, during the Protestant Reformation period. An Estonian grammar book to be used by priests was printed in German in 1637. The New Testament was translated into southern Estonian in 1686 (northern Estonian, 1715). The two languages were united based on northern Estonian by Anton thor Helle.
Which Estonian poet's works were printed from 1810 to 1820?
56e3c21939bdeb14003478ea
Kristjan Jaak Peterson
106
False
What subjects were Kristjan Jaak Peterson poems on?
56e3c21939bdeb14003478eb
patriotic and philosophical
69
False
When was Peterson born?
56e3c21939bdeb14003478ec
March 14
401
False
What is another name given for Peterson's birthday?
56e3c21939bdeb14003478ed
Mother Tongue Day
442
False
What university did Peterson attend?
56e3c21939bdeb14003478ee
German-language University of Dorpat
193
False
Kristjan Jaak Peterson
106
Which Estonian playwright works were printed from 1810 to 1820?
5acd30aa07355d001abf3890
True
patriotic and philosophical
69
What subjects were Kristjan Jaak Peterson novels on?
5acd30aa07355d001abf3891
True
Kristjan Jaak Peterson
106
Whose birthday is on March 13th?
5acd30aa07355d001abf3892
True
March 14
401
What day is Father Tongue Day on?
5acd30aa07355d001abf3893
True
University of Dorpat
209
What university was Peterson rejected from?
5acd30aa07355d001abf3894
True
The birth of native Estonian literature was in 1810 to 1820 when the patriotic and philosophical poems by Kristjan Jaak Peterson were published. Peterson, who was the first student at the then German-language University of Dorpat to acknowledge his Estonian origin, is commonly regarded as a herald of Estonian national literature and considered the founder of modern Estonian poetry. His birthday on March 14 is celebrated in Estonia as the Mother Tongue Day. A fragment from Peterson's poem "Kuu" expresses the claim reestablishing the birthright of the Estonian language:
In the years between 1918 and 1940 how many Estonian language books were printed?
56e3c2db39bdeb14003478f4
23,868
78
False
In the roughly four centuries previous to 1918 how many Estonian language books were printed?
56e3c2db39bdeb14003478f5
14,503
18
False
In what language were 14,503 books published prior to 1918?
56e3c2db39bdeb14003478f6
Estonian
50
False
14,503
18
How many books were published in Etonian before 1525?
5acd312207355d001abf38a4
True
14,503
18
How many Estonian books were published after 1917 through today?
5acd312207355d001abf38a5
True
23,868
78
How many books were published before 1918?
5acd312207355d001abf38a6
True
23,868
78
How many books were published after 1940?
5acd312207355d001abf38a7
True
From 1525 to 1917 14,503 titles were published in Estonian, as opposed to the 23,868 titles which were published between 1918 and 1940.[citation needed]
What Age's ideas allowed Estonian writings to gain significance?
56e3c47839bdeb14003478fa
Age of Enlightenment
101
False
Who thought their future would be fused with Estonians?
56e3c47839bdeb14003478fb
Baltic Germans
187
False
Who had admiration for the ancient Estonian culture?
56e3c47839bdeb14003478fc
Estophile educated class
283
False
Who conquered the ancient Estonians?
56e3c47839bdeb14003478fd
Danes and Germans
402
False
When did the ancient Estonian era of freedom come to an end?
56e3c47839bdeb14003478fe
13th century
427
False
Age of Enlightenment
101
What Age's ideas did not allow Estonian writings to gain significance?
5acd317907355d001abf38b6
True
Baltic Germans
187
Who did not want their future to be fused with Estonians?
5acd317907355d001abf38b7
True
Estophile educated class
283
Who had did not like the ancient Estonian culture?
5acd317907355d001abf38b8
True
Estonians
343
Who conquered the ancient Danes?
5acd317907355d001abf38b9
True
Danes
402
Who conquered the ancient Germans?
5acd317907355d001abf38ba
True
Writings in Estonian became significant only in the 19th century with the spread of the ideas of the Age of Enlightenment, during the Estophile Enlightenment Period (1750–1840). Although Baltic Germans at large regarded the future of Estonians as being a fusion with themselves, the Estophile educated class admired the ancient culture of the Estonians and their era of freedom before the conquests by Danes and Germans in the 13th century.
What year did Estonia's War of Independence take place?
56e3c50e39bdeb1400347904
1919
42
False
After Estonia achieved independence what was made their state language?
56e3c50e39bdeb1400347905
Estonian
10
False
What percentage of Estonians thought of themselves as ethnic Estonian's in 1945?
56e3c50f39bdeb1400347906
97.3%
139
False
What language was spoken by ethnic Estonians?
56e3c50f39bdeb1400347907
Estonian
10
False
1919
42
What year did Estonia have a civil war?
5acd31de07355d001abf38c8
True
97.3%
139
What percentage of Estonians did not speak Estonian in 1945?
5acd31de07355d001abf38c9
True
War of Independence
19
What war took place in 1945?
5acd31de07355d001abf38ca
True
Estonian
181
What language did ethnic Estonians refuse to speak?
5acd31de07355d001abf38cb
True
1919
42
What year did Estonia fail at getting independence?
5acd31de07355d001abf38cc
True
After the Estonian War of Independence in 1919, the Estonian language became the state language of the newly independent country. In 1945, 97.3% of Estonia considered itself ethnic Estonian and spoke the language.
What happened to Estonia during WWII?
56e3c5ce8c00841900fbaeed
invaded and occupied
17
False
Who invaded Estonia?
56e3c5ce8c00841900fbaeee
Soviet Union
45
False
After the Soviet invasion what other language became the second official Estonian language?
56e3c5ce8c00841900fbaeef
Russian
159
False
What was another country with similar immigration patterns to post Soviet Estonia?
56e3c5ce8c00841900fbaef0
Latvia
197
False
What became more intense in the 1970's in Estonia?
56e3c5ce8c00841900fbaef1
pressure of bilingualism
301
False
Soviet Union
45
What country did not occupy Estonia?
5acd328807355d001abf38e6
True
invaded and occupied
17
What happened to Estonia during WWI from the Soviet Union?
5acd328807355d001abf38e7
True
pressure of bilingualism
301
What became more intense in the early 1970's in Estonia?
5acd328807355d001abf38e8
True
Russian
392
What is the third language of Estonia?
5acd328807355d001abf38e9
True
Russian
428
What language was terms the "language of enemy nations"?
5acd328807355d001abf38ea
True
When Estonia was invaded and occupied by the Soviet Union in World War II, the status of the Estonian language changed to the first of two official languages (Russian being the other one). As with Latvia many immigrants entered Estonia under Soviet encouragement. In the second half of the 1970s, the pressure of bilingualism (for Estonians) intensified, resulting in widespread knowledge of Russian throughout the country. The Russian language was termed as ‘the language of friendship of nations’ and was taught to Estonian children, sometimes as early as in kindergarten. Although teaching Estonian to non-Estonians in schools was compulsory, in practice learning the language was often considered unnecessary.
What historical event once again freed Estonia?
56e3c6788c00841900fbaef7
collapse of the Soviet Union
108
False
Following the Soviet collapse what became the only official Estonian Language?
56e3c6788c00841900fbaef8
Estonian
57
False
What language was no longer promoted as one of Estonia's main languages?
56e3c6788c00841900fbaef9
Russian
337
False
What came into being in January 1989?
56e3c6788c00841900fbaefa
The Law on the Status of the Estonian Language
28
False
collapse of the Soviet Union
108
What historical event once again enslaved Estonia?
5acd32ff07355d001abf38fa
True
Estonian
298
Following the Soviet rise what became the only official Estonian Language?
5acd32ff07355d001abf38fb
True
Russian
337
What language became less popular prior to the Soviet collapse?
5acd32ff07355d001abf38fc
True
The Law on the Status of the Estonian Language
28
What came into being in February 1989?
5acd32ff07355d001abf38fd
True
the restoration of Republic of Estonia's independence
144
When was Russian encouraged to be used in Estonia?
5acd32ff07355d001abf38fe
True
During the Perestroika era, The Law on the Status of the Estonian Language was adopted in January 1989. The collapse of the Soviet Union led to the restoration of Republic of Estonia's independence. Estonian went back to being the only state language in Estonia which in practice meant that use of Estonian was promoted while the use of Russian was discouraged.
Following the departure of the Soviet immigrants what was the percentage of Estonians in Estonia?
56e3c76639bdeb140034790e
above 70%
117
False
70%
123
When Soviet immigrants joined Estonia, how many Estonians lived in Estonia?
5acd3cb907355d001abf39cc
True
40%
245
How many native Estonians adopted Estonian?
5acd3cb907355d001abf39cd
True
40%
245
What percentage of Estonians spoke Russian in 2000?
5acd3cb907355d001abf39ce
True
40%
245
What percentage of Soviets spoke Estonian?
5acd3cb907355d001abf39cf
True
70%
123
What percentage of Latvians spoke Russian?
5acd3cb907355d001abf39d0
True
The return of Soviet immigrants to their countries of origin has brought the proportion of Estonians in Estonia back above 70%. And again as in Latvia, today many of the remnant non-Estonians in Estonia have adopted the Estonian language; about 40% at the 2000 census.
How many groups of Estonian dialects are there?
56e427248c00841900fbaeff
two
39
False
What are the names of the Estonian dialect groups?
56e427248c00841900fbaf00
the northern and southern dialects
52
False
What is the northern city to which the northern dialect is associated?
56e427248c00841900fbaf01
Tallinn
131
False
Where is the kirderanniku dialect spoken?
56e427248c00841900fbaf02
the northeastern coast of Estonia
232
False
What is the city where the southern dialect was historically spoken?
56e427248c00841900fbaf03
Tartu
156
False
Tartu
156
What city is north of Tallinn?
5acd3d4907355d001abf39ea
True
Tallinn
131
What city is south of Tartu?
5acd3d4907355d001abf39eb
True
Tartu
156
What is the city where the eastern dialect was historically spoken?
5acd3d4907355d001abf39ec
True
northeastern coast
236
Where is the kirderanniku dialect not spoken?
5acd3d4907355d001abf39ed
True
The Estonian dialects are divided into two groups – the northern and southern dialects, historically associated with the cities of Tallinn in the north and Tartu in the south, in addition to a distinct kirderanniku dialect, that of the northeastern coast of Estonia.
What dialect is also known as the central dialect?
56e428b08c00841900fbaf09
the keskmurre
31
False
What is the dialect from Lake Peipsi?
56e428b08c00841900fbaf0a
the idamurre or eastern dialect
261
False
What dialects of the northern group are spoken on the saarte murre?
56e428b08c00841900fbaf0b
Saaremaa and Hiiumaa
236
False
What is another name for Estonian's northern group's western dialect?
56e428b08c00841900fbaf0c
the läänemurre
114
False
keskmurre
35
What dialect is also known as the middle dialect?
5acd3dc207355d001abf39f2
True
idamurre
265
What is the dialect from the city of Peipsi?
5acd3dc207355d001abf39f3
True
Saaremaa and Hiiumaa
236
What dialects of the southern group are spoken on the saarte murre?
5acd3dc207355d001abf39f4
True
läänemurre
118
What is another name for Estonian's southern dialect?
5acd3dc207355d001abf39f5
True
The northern group consists of the keskmurre or central dialect that is also the basis for the standard language, the läänemurre or western dialect, roughly corresponding to Läänemaa and Pärnumaa, the saarte murre (islands') dialect of Saaremaa and Hiiumaa and the idamurre or eastern dialect on the northwestern shore of Lake Peipsi.
What dialects comprise the southern group?
56e429db8c00841900fbaf11
the Tartu, Mulgi, Võru (Võro) and Setu (Seto) dialects
57
False
More importantly than their language aspect how do the Seto and Võro dialects set themselves apart from each other?
56e429db8c00841900fbaf12
their culture
312
False
Aside from being thought of as variants of Estonian's southern group what else are the Tartu, Mulgi, Võru (Võro) and Setu (Seto) dialects sometimes considered?
56e429db8c00841900fbaf13
separate languages altogether
193
False
What religion is associated with Seto and Võro?
56e429db8c00841900fbaf14
Christian
347
False
Tartu, Mulgi, Võru (Võro) and Setu (Seto) dialects
61
What dialects do not comprise the southern group?
5acd3e2807355d001abf3a04
True
culture
318
How are the seto and voro communties similar?
5acd3e2807355d001abf3a05
True
Christian
347
What religion is rejected by the Seto and Võro?
5acd3e2807355d001abf3a06
True
The southern group (South Estonian language) consists of the Tartu, Mulgi, Võru (Võro) and Setu (Seto) dialects. These are sometimes considered either variants of a South Estonian language, or separate languages altogether. Also, Seto and Võro distinguish themselves from each other less by language and more by their culture and their respective Christian confession.
From what script does the Estonian language get its alphabet?
56e42a7f8c00841900fbaf19
Latin
35
False
What is another language that uses Latin for its alphabet?
56e42a7f8c00841900fbaf1a
Finnish
5
False
In the Estonian language how is the letter A pronounced?
56e42a7f8c00841900fbaf1b
[æ], as in English mat
463
False
Latin
35
From what script does the Swedish language get its alphabet?
5acd3eba07355d001abf3a12
True
Latin
35
From what script does the German language get its alphabet?
5acd3eba07355d001abf3a13
True
Ä, Ö and Ü
498
What vowels are not separate phonemes?
5acd3eba07355d001abf3a14
True
c, q, w, x and y
164
What letters are not limited to proper names of foreign origin?
5acd3eba07355d001abf3a15
True
Like Finnish, Estonian employs the Latin script as the basis for its alphabet, which adds the letters ä, ö, ü, and õ, plus the later additions š and ž. The letters c, q, w, x and y are limited to proper names of foreign origin, and f, z, š, and ž appear in loanwords and foreign names only. Ö and ü are pronounced similarly to their equivalents in Swedish and German. Unlike in standard German but like Finnish and Swedish (when followed by 'r'), Ä is pronounced [æ], as in English mat. The vowels Ä, Ö and Ü are clearly separate phonemes and inherent in Estonian, although the letter shapes come from German. The letter õ denotes /ɤ/, unrounded /o/, or a close-mid back unrounded vowel. It is almost identical to the Bulgarian ъ /ɤ̞/ and the Vietnamese ơ, and is used to transcribe the Russian ы.
What principles usually govern the Estonian orthography?
56e42c8439bdeb1400347912
phonemic principles
57
False
To how many phoneme's does each grapheme correspond?
56e42c8439bdeb1400347913
one
59
False
What type of deviations are there from the single phoneme to each grapheme general principle?
56e42c8439bdeb1400347914
some historical and morphological deviations
137
False
On what occasions are š and ž replaced with sh and zh?
56e42c8439bdeb1400347915
Where it is very impractical or impossible to type š and ž
369
False
What is an example of a word containing a voiceless glottal fricative?
56e42c8439bdeb1400347916
Pasha (pas-ha)
598
False
phonemic principles
57
What principles never govern the Estonian orthography?
5acd3fbb07355d001abf3a42
True
Where it is very impractical or impossible to type š and ž
369
On what occasions are š and ž replaced with ch and zu?
5acd3fbb07355d001abf3a43
True
Pasha
598
What is an example of a word not containing a voiceless glottal fricative?
5acd3fbb07355d001abf3a44
True
voiceless glottal fricative
563
Foreign names are not considered what?
5acd3fbb07355d001abf3a45
True
Although the Estonian orthography is generally guided by phonemic principles, with each grapheme corresponding to one phoneme, there are some historical and morphological deviations from this: for example preservation of the morpheme in declension of the word (writing b, g, d in places where p, k, t is pronounced) and in the use of 'i' and 'j'.[clarification needed] Where it is very impractical or impossible to type š and ž, they are substituted with sh and zh in some written texts, although this is considered incorrect. Otherwise, the h in sh represents a voiceless glottal fricative, as in Pasha (pas-ha); this also applies to some foreign names.
In what Orthagraphy does Modern Estonian orthography have its basis?
56e42e3739bdeb140034791c
Newer Orthography
44
False
Who is responsible for the creation of the Newer Orthography?
56e42e3739bdeb140034791d
Eduard Ahrens
73
False
In what century was the Newer Orthography created?
56e42e3739bdeb140034791e
19th century
113
False
Previous to the Newer Orthography what orthography was in place?
56e42e3739bdeb140034791f
Older Orthography
160
False
From what other country's orthography did the Older Orthography get its basis?
56e42e3739bdeb1400347920
standard German orthography
279
False
Newer Orthography
44
In what Orthagraphy does Modern Estonian orthography reject?
5acd401307355d001abf3a52
True
19th century
113
When was Eduard Ahrens born?
5acd401307355d001abf3a53
True
19th century
113
When did Eduard Ahrens die?
5acd401307355d001abf3a54
True
19th century
113
When did Newer Orthography end?
5acd401307355d001abf3a55
True
1930s
555
When did German orthography stop being influential?
5acd401307355d001abf3a56
True
Modern Estonian orthography is based on the Newer Orthography created by Eduard Ahrens in the second half of the 19th century based on Finnish orthography. The Older Orthography it replaced was created in the 17th century by Bengt Gottfried Forselius and Johann Hornung based on standard German orthography. Earlier writing in Estonian had by and large used an ad hoc orthography based on Latin and Middle Low German orthography. Some influences of the standard German orthography — for example, writing 'W'/'w' instead of 'V'/'v' persisted well into the 1930s.
In Soviet international publications what language's transliteration are Estonian words and names often back-transliterations from?
56e42f658c00841900fbaf1f
Russian
147
False
What famous encyclopedia contains a Russian back-transliteration of Estonian?
56e42f658c00841900fbaf20
Encyclopædia Britannica
360
False
What is the Russian back-transliteration from Encyclopædia Britannica?
56e42f658c00841900fbaf21
"ostrov Khiuma"
397
False
Encyclopædia Britannica
360
What famous encyclopedia contains a Estonian back-transliteration of Russian?
5acd40ec07355d001abf3a7a
True
ostrov Khiuma
398
What is the Estonian back-transliteration from Encyclopædia Britannica?
5acd40ec07355d001abf3a7b
True
island
436
What is the Estonian translation of ostrov?
5acd40ec07355d001abf3a7c
True
Hiiumaa
517
What is the Estonian translation of Khiuma?
5acd40ec07355d001abf3a7d
True
It should be noted that Estonian words and names quoted in international publications from Soviet sources are often back-transliterations from the Russian transliteration. Examples are the use of "ya" for "ä" (e.g. Pyarnu instead of Pärnu), "y" instead of "õ" (e.g., Pylva instead of Põlva) and "yu" instead of "ü" (e.g., Pyussi instead of Püssi). Even in the Encyclopædia Britannica one can find "ostrov Khiuma", where "ostrov" means "island" in Russian and "Khiuma" is back-transliteration from Russian instead of "Hiiumaa" (Hiiumaa > Хийума(а) > Khiuma).
What is the typological form of Estonian?
56e4300a8c00841900fbaf25
transitional
37
False
What is Estonian typologically transitioning from?
56e4300a8c00841900fbaf26
an agglutinating language
60
False
What sort of form is Estonian transitioning into?
56e4300a8c00841900fbaf27
a fusional language
89
False
How are words ordered in Estonian canonically?
56e4300a8c00841900fbaf28
subject–verb–object
143
False
agglutinating language
63
What is not the typological form of Estonian?
5acd412607355d001abf3a8b
True
fusional language
91
What sort of form is Estonian moving away from into?
5acd412607355d001abf3a8c
True
subject–verb–object
143
What is the incorrect order of words in Estonian canonically?
5acd412607355d001abf3a8d
True
Typologically, Estonian represents a transitional form from an agglutinating language to a fusional language. The canonical word order is SVO (subject–verb–object).
What language lacks gendered nouns and pronouns?
56e431558c00841900fbaf2e
Estonian
3
False
In the nominative, genitive, partitive, illative, inessive, elative, allative, adessive, ablative, translative cases what always agrees with the noun in number and case?
56e431558c00841900fbaf2f
adjectives
78
False
Estonian
3
What language relies on gendered nouns and pronouns?
5acd427d07355d001abf3ade
True
adjective
300
In nominative cases what never agrees with the noun in number and case?
5acd427d07355d001abf3adf
True
kollane maja
523
What is "a yellow house" in Finnish?
5acd427d07355d001abf3ae0
True
fourteen
100
How many cases to verbs decline?
5acd427d07355d001abf3ae1
True
In Estonian, nouns and pronouns do not have grammatical gender, but nouns and adjectives decline in fourteen cases: nominative, genitive, partitive, illative, inessive, elative, allative, adessive, ablative, translative, terminative, essive, abessive, and comitative, with the case and number of the adjective(s) always agreeing with that of the noun (except in the terminative, essive, abessive and comitative, where there is agreement only for the number, the adjective being in the genitive form). Thus the illative for kollane maja ("a yellow house") is kollasesse majja ("into a yellow house"), but the terminative is kollase majani ("as far as a yellow house"). With respect to the Proto-Finnic language, elision has occurred; thus, the actual case marker may be absent, but the stem is changed, cf. maja – majja and the Pohjanmaa dialect of Finnish maja – majahan.
What other language has a telicity contrast?
56e431f98c00841900fbaf33
Finnish
342
False
Aside from the accusative, where can the direct object of the verb be found?
56e431f98c00841900fbaf34
partitive
93
False
What is the accusative used for?
56e431f98c00841900fbaf35
total objects
68
False
Finnish
342
What language does not have a telicity contrast?
5acd435307355d001abf3b04
True
partitive
235
Where can the direct object of the noun be found?
5acd435307355d001abf3b05
True
total objects
68
Why is the accusative rejected?
5acd435307355d001abf3b06
True
imperfective aspect opposition
400
What is an example of a partial object?
5acd435307355d001abf3b07
True
telicity contrast
312
What does a transitive noun create?
5acd435307355d001abf3b08
True
The direct object of the verb appears either in the accusative (for total objects) or in the partitive (for partial objects). The accusative coincides with the genitive in the singular and with nominative in the plural. Accusative vs. partitive case opposition of the object used with transitive verbs creates a telicity contrast, just as in Finnish. This is a rough equivalent of the perfective vs. imperfective aspect opposition.
From what system is a distinctive future tense lacking?
56e432a68c00841900fbaf39
verbal system
4
False
What is used in place of the future tense?
56e432a68c00841900fbaf3a
present tense
56
False
What does Estonian use to show actions performed by an undecided subject?
56e432a68c00841900fbaf3b
special forms
96
False
verbal system
4
From what system is a distinctive future tense prominent?
5acd43ca07355d001abf3b2a
True
future tense
38
What is used in place of the past tense?
5acd43ca07355d001abf3b2b
True
special forms
96
What does Estonian use to show actions performed by an determined subject?
5acd43ca07355d001abf3b2c
True
impersonal
174
What is performed by the undetermined subject?
5acd43ca07355d001abf3b2d
True
The verbal system lacks a distinctive future tense (the present tense serves here) and features special forms to express an action performed by an undetermined subject (the "impersonal").
Close to 33 percent of Estonian's vocabulary belong to what group of languages?
56e43a6e8c00841900fbaf3f
Germanic languages
26
False
What is the main Germanic language from which Estonia gets the Germanic portion of its vocabulary?
56e43a6e8c00841900fbaf40
Low Saxon
283
False
When did Low Saxon make its appearance as part of the Estonian language?
56e43a6e8c00841900fbaf41
during the period of German rule
313
False
From what other Germanic language does Estonian derive its vocabulary?
56e43a6e8c00841900fbaf42
High German
351
False
Standard German is part of what Germanic language?
56e43a6e8c00841900fbaf43
High German
351
False
Germanic
26
What language does Estonian have very close origins with?
5acd45d907355d001abf3b9a
True
during the period of German rule
313
When did Low Saxon stop being part of the Estonian language?
5acd45d907355d001abf3b9b
True
English
128
From what non-Germanic language does Estonian derive its vocabulary?
5acd45d907355d001abf3b9c
True
High German
351
Non-Standard German is part of what Germanic language?
5acd45d907355d001abf3b9d
True
Germanic languages
26
Less than 30 percent of Estonian's vocabulary belong to what group of languages?
5acd45d907355d001abf3b9e
True
Although the Estonian and Germanic languages are of very different origins, one can identify many similar words in Estonian and English, for example. This is primarily because the Estonian language has borrowed nearly one third of its vocabulary from Germanic languages, mainly from Low Saxon (Middle Low German) during the period of German rule, and High German (including standard German). The percentage of Low Saxon and High German loanwords can be estimated at 22–25 percent, with Low Saxon making up about 15 percent.[citation needed]
What two letters can be replaced with each other a lot of the time in Estonian?
56e43b098c00841900fbaf49
'b' & 'p'
6
False
What happens in many cases when a word starts with an 's'?
56e43b098c00841900fbaf4a
The initial letter 's' is often dropped
112
False
In an example of replacing 'b' with 'p' how is 'baggage' pronounced?
56e43b098c00841900fbaf4b
pagas
68
False
'b' & 'p'
6
What two letters can never be replaced with each other in Estonian?
5acd465c07355d001abf3bae
True
often dropped
138
What happens to the first letter when a word starts with an 'L'?
5acd465c07355d001abf3baf
True
pagas
68
In an example of replacing 's' with 'g' how is 'baggage' pronounced?
5acd465c07355d001abf3bb0
True
stool
190
What word does Tool become when you apply the interchangeable rule?
5acd465c07355d001abf3bb1
True
lob
77
What word does Loopima become when you drop the appropriate letter?
5acd465c07355d001abf3bb2
True
Often 'b' & 'p' are interchangeable, for example 'baggage' becomes 'pagas', 'lob' (to throw) becomes 'loopima'. The initial letter 's' is often dropped, for example 'skool' becomes 'kool', 'stool' becomes 'tool'.
Who was the journalist who was also a language planner?
56e43be78c00841900fbaf4f
Ado Grenzstein
35
False
In what years did Ado Grenzstein do journalism work in Estonia?
56e43be78c00841900fbaf50
1870s–90s
89
False
What is another term for making up words from nothing?
56e43be78c00841900fbaf51
formation ex nihilo
113
False
Who in the course of their language planning attempted to use the formation ex nihilo technique?
56e43be78c00841900fbaf52
Ado Grenzstein
35
False
Ado Grenzstein
35
Who was the journalist refused to be a language planner?
5acd469e07355d001abf3bb8
True
1870s–90s
89
In what years did Ado Grenzstein do journalism work in Germany?
5acd469e07355d001abf3bb9
True
1870s
89
When was Ado Grenzstein born?
5acd469e07355d001abf3bba
True
1870s
89
When did Ado Grenzstein die?
5acd469e07355d001abf3bbb
True
Urschöpfung
134
What is the word for creating new words out of old words?
5acd469e07355d001abf3bbc
True
Estonian language planners such as Ado Grenzstein (a journalist active in Estonia in the 1870s–90s) tried to use formation ex nihilo, Urschöpfung; i.e. they created new words out of nothing.
Of all of Estonian's language reformers who is the most well known?
56e43d238c00841900fbaf57
Johannes Aavik
38
False
What was the period of time in which Johannes Aavik was alive?
56e43d238c00841900fbaf58
1880–1973
54
False
What is the technique Aavic used to create Estonian words out of nothing?
56e43d238c00841900fbaf59
creations ex nihilo
71
False
In what publication can examples of ex nihilo words be found?
56e43d238c00841900fbaf5a
Aavik’s dictionary
283
False
How many words did Aavik put in his dictionary?
56e43d238c00841900fbaf5b
approximately 4000
322
False
Johannes Aavik
38
Of all of Estonian's language reformers who is the least well known?
5acd46eb07355d001abf3bd6
True
1880–1973
54
What was the period of time in which Johannes Aavik lived in Germany?
5acd46eb07355d001abf3bd7
True
Aavik’s dictionary
283
What is the technique Aavic used to create Estonian words out of old words?
5acd46eb07355d001abf3bd8
True
Aavik’s dictionary
283
In what publication were examples of ex nihilo words eliminated?
5acd46eb07355d001abf3bd9
True
Aavik’s dictionary
283
What dictionary has under 3000 words?
5acd46eb07355d001abf3bda
True
The most famous reformer of Estonian, Johannes Aavik (1880–1973), used creations ex nihilo (cf. ‘free constructions’, Tauli 1977), along with other sources of lexical enrichment such as derivations, compositions and loanwords (often from Finnish; cf. Saareste and Raun 1965: 76). In Aavik’s dictionary (1921), which lists approximately 4000 words, there are many words which were (allegedly) created ex nihilo, many of which are in common use today. Examples are
What languages did Aavik know?
56e43df08c00841900fbaf61
Ancient Greek, Latin and French
284
False
When was Aavik's dictionary published?
56e43df08c00841900fbaf62
1921
477
False
What is another term for words created by Aavik?
56e43df08c00841900fbaf63
Aavikisms
449
False
Instead of being created from nothing Aavik's ex nihilo terms are thought to actually possibly have been influenced by what?
56e43df08c00841900fbaf64
foreign lexical items
136
False
Ancient Greek, Latin and French
284
What languages did Aavik create?
5acd477107355d001abf3bf0
True
1921
477
When was Aavik's dictionary destroyed?
5acd477107355d001abf3bf1
True
morpho-phonemic
563
What is another term for words Aavik destroyed?
5acd477107355d001abf3bf2
True
foreign lexical item
595
Aavik's ex nihilo terms were not influenced by what?
5acd477107355d001abf3bf3
True
Many of the coinages that have been considered (often by Aavik himself) as words concocted ex nihilo could well have been influenced by foreign lexical items, for example words from Russian, German, French, Finnish, English and Swedish. Aavik had a broad classical education and knew Ancient Greek, Latin and French. Consider roim ‘crime’ versus English crime or taunima ‘to condemn, disapprove’ versus Finnish tuomita ‘to condemn, to judge’ (these Aavikisms appear in Aavik’s 1921 dictionary). These words might be better regarded as a peculiar manifestation of morpho-phonemic adaptation of a foreign lexical item.
Paper
What is a source for the particles in paper?
56e678026fe0821900b8ea3b
wood
99
False
What is a common use for paper?
56e678026fe0821900b8ea3c
writing
213
False
What is the last step in paper production?
56e678026fe0821900b8ea3e
drying
126
False
Paper
0
What is a thick material produced by pressing cellulose fibers?
5ad4df9a5b96ef001a10a4fe
True
cellulose pulp
71
From what type of fibers are rags made?
5ad4df9a5b96ef001a10a4ff
True
Paper
0
What fails to be a versatile material and has few uses?
5ad4df9a5b96ef001a10a500
True
pressing together moist fibres of cellulose pulp
37
How is writing produced?
5ad4df9a5b96ef001a10a501
True
wood
99
What is a source for the non-particles in paper?
5ad68c9d191832001aa7b185
True
writing
213
What is an uncommon use for paper?
5ad68c9d191832001aa7b186
True
drying
126
What is the last step in wood production?
5ad68c9d191832001aa7b187
True
Paper is a thin material produced by pressing together moist fibres of cellulose pulp derived from wood, rags or grasses, and drying them into flexible sheets. It is a versatile material with many uses, including writing, printing, packaging, cleaning, and a number of industrial and construction processes.
When was the pulp papermaking process developed?
56e7460a00c9c71400d76f0f
2nd century AD
86
False
What country was the process developed in?
56e7460a00c9c71400d76f10
China
63
False
What country is leading in production of paper?
56e7460a00c9c71400d76f11
China
63
False
What country is the second largest produced of paper?
56e7460a00c9c71400d76f12
United States
360
False
Which court eunuch was associated with the papermaking process?
56e7460a00c9c71400d76f13
Cai Lun
166
False
as early as the year 105 A.D.,
111
When is the pulp papermaking process said to have been developed by Han court?
5ad4e7325b96ef001a10a5d0
True
modern pulp and paper industry
276
The United States is the leader of which industry, which China following right behind it?
5ad4e7325b96ef001a10a5d1
True
China
63
Where is the Han court process said to have been developed?
5ad4e7325b96ef001a10a5d2
True
2nd century BC in China
247
From where do the earliest Han court fragments derive?
5ad4e7325b96ef001a10a5d3
True
2nd century AD,
86
When was the pulp wood making process developed?
5ad68cde191832001aa7b18b
True
China
63
What country was the process not developed in?
5ad68cde191832001aa7b18c
True
China
63
What country is not leading in production of paper?
5ad68cde191832001aa7b18d
True
United States
360
What country is the fifth largest produced of paper?
5ad68cde191832001aa7b18e
True
Cai Lun
166
Which court non-eunuch was associated with the papermaking process?
5ad68cde191832001aa7b18f
True
The pulp papermaking process is said to have been developed in China during the early 2nd century AD, possibly as early as the year 105 A.D., by the Han court eunuch Cai Lun, although the earliest archaeological fragments of paper derive from the 2nd century BC in China. The modern pulp and paper industry is global, with China leading its production and the United States right behind it.
Who is credited with the papermaking process?
56e746fc00c9c71400d76f19
Cai Lun
167
False
What material did paper replace upon its invention?
56e746fc00c9c71400d76f1b
silk
253
False
Which Age did the invention of the papermaking process contribute towards?
56e746fc00c9c71400d76f1c
Golden Age
343
False
What century is the first papermaking process attributed to?
56e746fc00c9c71400d76f1d
2nd
98
False
2nd century BC in China
98
To where can the oldest known fragments of silk be traced?
5ad4f7315b96ef001a10a7e6
True
Cai Lun
167
To whom is the silk paper making process ascribed?
5ad4f7315b96ef001a10a7e7
True
paper
216
What is silk an effective substitute for in all applications?
5ad4f7315b96ef001a10a7e8
True
Golden Age
343
What age did China's decreased exportation of silk lead to?
5ad4f7315b96ef001a10a7e9
True
silk
299
What did China decrease the export of during The Golden Age?
5ad4f7315b96ef001a10a7ea
True
Cai Lun
167
Who is uncredited with the papermaking process?
5ad68d08191832001aa7b195
True
silk
299
What material did paper not replace upon its invention?
5ad68d08191832001aa7b196
True
Golden Age
343
Which Age did the invention of the papermaking process not contribute towards?
5ad68d08191832001aa7b197
True
2nd
98
What century is the last papermaking process attributed to?
5ad68d08191832001aa7b198
True
The oldest known archaeological fragments of the immediate precursor to modern paper, date to the 2nd century BC in China. The pulp papermaking process is ascribed to Cai Lun, a 2nd-century AD Han court eunuch. With paper as an effective substitute for silk in many applications, China could export silk in greater quantity, contributing to a Golden Age.
In what century did the papermaking process spread from China to Europe?
56e74a8e00c9c71400d76f5b
13th
91
False
Which middle eastern city did the papermaking process to Europe from?
56e74a8e00c9c71400d76f5c
Baghdad
223
False
What name did the process take on in Baghdad?
56e74a8e00c9c71400d76f5d
bagdatikos
252
False
In which century did the process become much cheaper than before?
56e74a8e00c9c71400d76f5e
19th
271
False
Which Canadian inventor helped F.G. Keller to develop their own process?
56e74a8e00c9c71400d76f5f
Charles Fenerty
452
False
13th century
91
In which century were the first oil powered paper mills built?
5ad4f8ac5b96ef001a10a820
True
paper
135
The knowledge and use of what traveled from the Middle East to China?
5ad4f8ac5b96ef001a10a821
True
industrial manufacture
285
What greatly increased the cost of paper in the 19th century?
5ad4f8ac5b96ef001a10a822
True
processes for pulping wood fibres.
520
What did Charles Fenerty and FG Keller work together to develop in 1844?
5ad4f8ac5b96ef001a10a823
True
processes for pulping wood fibres.
520
What was developed by China in 1844?
5ad4f8ac5b96ef001a10a824
True
13th
91
In what century did the papermaking process spread from France to Europe?
5ad68d38191832001aa7b19d
True
Baghdad
223
Which middle eastern city did the papermaking process to China from?
5ad68d38191832001aa7b19e
True
bagdatikos
252
What name did the process take on in China?
5ad68d38191832001aa7b19f
True
19th
271
In which century did the process become less cheaper than before?
5ad68d38191832001aa7b1a0
True
Charles Fenerty
452
Which French inventor helped F.G. Keller to develop their own process?
5ad68d38191832001aa7b1a1
True
Its knowledge and uses spread from China through the Middle East to medieval Europe in the 13th century, where the first water powered paper mills were built. Because of paper's introduction to the West through the city of Baghdad, it was first called bagdatikos. In the 19th century, industrial manufacture greatly lowered its cost, enabling mass exchange of information and contributing to significant cultural shifts. In 1844, the Canadian inventor Charles Fenerty and the German F. G. Keller independently developed processes for pulping wood fibres.
What Latin word is paper derived from?
56e74b6037bdd419002c3e1f
Papyrus
149
False
What language is papyrus derived from?
56e74b6037bdd419002c3e20
Greek
84
False
What process changes the properties of the fibres used in papermaking?
56e74b6037bdd419002c3e21
maceration
695
False
What plant was used in Egypt to make papyrus?
56e74b6037bdd419002c3e22
Cyperus
126
False
What part of the Cyperus plant was used in making papyrus?
56e74b6037bdd419002c3e23
the pith
203
False
Latin papyrus
48
Where does the word papuros come from?
5ad4f9295b96ef001a10a834
True
papuros
99
What is the word for the Mediterranean papyrus plant?
5ad4f9295b96ef001a10a835
True
papyrus
440
Paper is developed identically to what?
5ad4f9295b96ef001a10a836
True
fibres whose properties have been changed by maceration.
650
Paper is a lamination of natural plant fibers and what is papyrus?
5ad4f9295b96ef001a10a837
True
lamination of natural plant fibres
581
Papyrus are fibers who have been changed through maceration and what is paper?
5ad4f9295b96ef001a10a838
True
Papyrus
149
What Latin word is paper not derived from?
5ad68d9c191832001aa7b1a7
True
Greek
84
What language is papyrus not derived from?
5ad68d9c191832001aa7b1a8
True
maceration
695
What process doesn't change the properties of the fibres used in papermaking?
5ad68d9c191832001aa7b1a9
True
pith
207
What part of the Cyperus wood was used in making papyrus?
5ad68d9c191832001aa7b1aa
True
The word "paper" is etymologically derived from Latin papyrus, which comes from the Greek πάπυρος (papuros), the word for the Cyperus papyrus plant. Papyrus is a thick, paper-like material produced from the pith of the Cyperus papyrus plant, which was used in ancient Egypt and other Mediterranean cultures for writing before the introduction of paper into the Middle East and Europe. Although the word paper is etymologically derived from papyrus, the two are produced very differently and the development of the first is distinct from the development of the second. Papyrus is a lamination of natural plant fibres, while paper is manufactured from fibres whose properties have been changed by maceration.
What is separated from the cellulose fibres?
56e74d4a37bdd419002c3e3d
lignin
61
False
What type of paper is paper made from chemical pulps known as?
56e74d4a37bdd419002c3e3e
wood-free
299
False
What percentage of fibres are wasted in the bleaching process?
56e74d4a37bdd419002c3e40
5%
503
False
What percentage of cotton is cellulose?
56e74d4a37bdd419002c3e41
90%
610
False
lignin from cellulose fibres
61
What is separated from pulp to make wood?
5ad4f9d55b96ef001a10a83e
True
cooking liquor
138
What is wood dissolved in to get clean from cellulose?
5ad4f9d55b96ef001a10a83f
True
lignin
61
What is combined with cellulose fibers when making pulp?
5ad4f9d55b96ef001a10a840
True
cellulose fibres
73
What is combined with lignin when making pulp?
5ad4f9d55b96ef001a10a841
True
lignin
126
When separating lignin from cellulose fibers, what is cooking oil dissolved in?
5ad4f9d55b96ef001a10a842
True
lignin
61
What is combined with the cellulose fibres?
5ad68dcd191832001aa7b1af
True
wood-free
299
What type of paper is wood made from chemical pulps known as?
5ad68dcd191832001aa7b1b0
True
5%
503
What percentage of fibres are used in the bleaching process?
5ad68dcd191832001aa7b1b1
True
90
610
What percentage of cotton is not cellulose?
5ad68dcd191832001aa7b1b2
True
To make pulp from wood, a chemical pulping process separates lignin from cellulose fibres. This is accomplished by dissolving lignin in a cooking liquor, so that it may be washed from the cellulose; this preserves the length of the cellulose fibres. Paper made from chemical pulps are also known as wood-free papers–not to be confused with tree-free paper; this is because they do not contain lignin, which deteriorates over time. The pulp can also be bleached to produce white paper, but this consumes 5% of the fibres; chemical pulping processes are not used to make paper made from cotton, which is already 90% cellulose.
How many chemical pulping processes are there?
56e74eaf00c9c71400d76f80
three
10
False
What decade does the sulfite process date to?
56e74eaf00c9c71400d76f81
1840s
87
False
What process is most commonly used?
56e74eaf00c9c71400d76f82
The kraft process
160
False
What is another process used to pulp straws with high silicate content?
56e74eaf00c9c71400d76f84
Soda pulping
632
False
three
10
How many mechanical pulping processes exist?
5ad4fa485b96ef001a10a850
True
Soda pulping
632
What is a specialty process used to pulp paper mills?
5ad4fa485b96ef001a10a851
True
Soda pulping
632
What is a specialty process used to hardwoods with high silicate content?
5ad4fa485b96ef001a10a852
True
Soda pulping
632
What is a specialty process used to bagasse ?
5ad4fa485b96ef001a10a853
True
1890s
223
Invented in the 1870s, when was soda pulping first used?
5ad4fa485b96ef001a10a854
True
three
10
How many non-chemical pulping processes are there?
5ad68dfd191832001aa7b1b7
True
1840s
87
What decade did the sulfite process stop?
5ad68dfd191832001aa7b1b8
True
The kraft process
160
What process is least commonly used?
5ad68dfd191832001aa7b1b9
True
Soda pulping
632
What is another process used to pulp straws with low silicate content?
5ad68dfd191832001aa7b1ba
True
There are three main chemical pulping processes: the sulfite process dates back to the 1840s and it was the dominant method extent before the second world war. The kraft process, invented in the 1870s and first used in the 1890s, is now the most commonly practiced strategy, one of its advantages is the chemical reaction with lignin, that produces heat, which can be used to run a generator. Most pulping operations using the kraft process are net contributors to the electricity grid or use the electricity to run an adjacent paper mill. Another advantage is that this process recovers and reuses all inorganic chemical reagents. Soda pulping is another specialty process used to pulp straws, bagasse and hardwoods with high silicate content.
Besides the thermomechanical process, what is a process used in pulping?
56e74f5300c9c71400d76f8a
groundwood pulp
73
False
What is the main ingredient in the groundwood process?
56e74f5300c9c71400d76f8b
debarked logs
283
False
What strength of paper is produced by mechanical pulps?
56e74f5300c9c71400d76f8c
weak
615
False
TMP
102
In which process is wood chipped and fed into small steam heated refiners?
5ad4fac25b96ef001a10a864
True
TMP
102
In which process are the chips converted to fibers between three steel discs?
5ad4fac25b96ef001a10a865
True
debarked logs
283
What is fed into mechanical pulps during the groundwood process?
5ad4fac25b96ef001a10a866
True
grinders
310
Where are debarked logs fed into during the TMP process?
5ad4fac25b96ef001a10a867
True
rotating stones
350
What are debarked logs pressed against to make pulp?
5ad4fac25b96ef001a10a868
True
groundwood
263
Besides the thermomechanical process, what is a process not used in pulping?
5ad68e2e191832001aa7b1bf
True
debarked logs
283
What is not the main ingredient in the groundwood process?
5ad68e2e191832001aa7b1c0
True
weak
615
What strength of wood is produced by mechanical pulps?
5ad68e2e191832001aa7b1c1
True
There are two major mechanical pulps, the thermomechanical one (TMP) and groundwood pulp (GW). In the TMP process, wood is chipped and then fed into large steam heated refiners, where the chips are squeezed and converted to fibres between two steel discs. In the groundwood process, debarked logs are fed into grinders where they are pressed against rotating stones to be made into fibres. Mechanical pulping does not remove the lignin, so the yield is very high, >95%, however it causes the paper thus produced to turn yellow and become brittle over time. Mechanical pulps have rather short fibres, thus producing weak paper. Although large amounts of electrical energy are required to produce mechanical pulp, it costs less than the chemical kind.
Recylced papers can be made with what new type of pulp?
56e7521e37bdd419002c3e69
virgin
73
False
100% recycled materials
33
What is the only thing recycled papers can be made from?
5ad4fb9a5b96ef001a10a878
True
Recycled
0
What type of paper is generally brighter?
5ad4fb9a5b96ef001a10a879
True
Recycled
0
What type of paper is generally stronger?
5ad4fb9a5b96ef001a10a87a
True
Recycled
0
What type of paper can be made from 10% recycled materials?
5ad4fb9a5b96ef001a10a87b
True
virgin pulp
73
What are recycled materials blended with to make latter?
5ad4fb9a5b96ef001a10a87c
True
virgin
73
Recylced papers can be made with what old type of pulp?
5ad68e7b191832001aa7b1cb
True
Recycled papers can be made from 100% recycled materials or blended with virgin pulp, although they are (generally) not as strong nor as bright as papers made from the latter.
What type of clay improves the characteristics of the pulps used in papermaking?
56e753fb37bdd419002c3e81
china clay
63
False
What is added for sizing purposes?
56e753fb37bdd419002c3e82
Additives
134
False
What besides china clay is used as a filler?
56e753fb37bdd419002c3e84
chalk
54
False
fillers
38
Pulps only contain fibers and never what?
5ad4fd665b96ef001a10a8a0
True
fillers
38
What are chalk, china clay and pulp an example of?
5ad4fd665b96ef001a10a8a1
True
later in the manufacturing process
217
When are additives for pulp purposes mixed?
5ad4fd665b96ef001a10a8a2
True
correct level of surface absorbency to suit ink or paint.
300
What purposes does sizing the filler serve?
5ad4fd665b96ef001a10a8a3
True
china clay
63
What type of clay damages the characteristics of the pulps used in papermaking?
5ad68ea8191832001aa7b1cd
True
chalk
54
What besides china clay is not used as a filler?
5ad68ea8191832001aa7b1ce
True
Besides the fibres, pulps may contain fillers such as chalk or china clay, which improve its characteristics for printing or writing. Additives for sizing purposes may be mixed with it and/or applied to the paper web later in the manufacturing process; the purpose of such sizing is to establish the correct level of surface absorbency to suit ink or paint.
How is the water removed by force from a sheet of paper?
56e758c700c9c71400d76fe4
Pressing
0
False
What is used to collect the water expelled from pressing?
56e758c700c9c71400d76fe5
felt
106
False
What is used to collect water when hand-making paper?
56e758c700c9c71400d76fe6
blotter sheet
233
False
Besides a blotter sheet, what can be used to collect water?
56e758c700c9c71400d76fe7
felt
106
False
Pressing
0
How is the force removed from the sheet?
5ad4fdd25b96ef001a10a8a8
True
special kind of felt
90
Once the felt is forced from the sheet, what is used to collect the water?
5ad4fdd25b96ef001a10a8a9
True
blotter sheet
233
What is never used when making paper by hand?
5ad4fdd25b96ef001a10a8aa
True
Pressing
0
What removes the blotter from the sheet?
5ad4fdd25b96ef001a10a8ab
True
force
40
How is a special kind of felt removed from the sheet?
5ad4fdd25b96ef001a10a8ac
True
Pressing
0
How is the water removed by force from a sheet of wood?
5ad68ece191832001aa7b1d1
True
felt
106
What is used to collect the rain expelled from pressing?
5ad68ece191832001aa7b1d2
True
blotter sheet
233
What is used to collect rain when hand-making paper?
5ad68ece191832001aa7b1d3
True
felt
106
Besides a blotter sheet, what can not be used to collect water?
5ad68ece191832001aa7b1d4
True
Pressing the sheet removes the water by force; once the water is forced from the sheet, a special kind of felt, which is not to be confused with the traditional one, is used to collect the water; whereas when making paper by hand, a blotter sheet is used instead.
What is the main component of drying the paper?
56e759ac37bdd419002c3ebd
air
22
False
At what percentage moisture content is the papermaking process trying to achieve in the end?
56e759ac37bdd419002c3ec1
6
479
False
Drying
0
What involves using air and heat to add water to the paper sheets?
5ad4fe6c5b96ef001a10a8c2
True
earliest days of paper making
84
When was drying done by laying the sheets on the floor?
5ad4fe6c5b96ef001a10a8c3
True
steam heated can dryer
281
Which is the least common on the paper machine?
5ad4fe6c5b96ef001a10a8c4
True
steam heated can dryer.
281
What is used in short sequences of less than 40 cans?
5ad4fe6c5b96ef001a10a8c5
True
heat
418
What is able to dry the paper to less than 200% moisture?
5ad4fe6c5b96ef001a10a8c6
True
air
22
What is not the main component of drying the paper?
5ad68ee2191832001aa7b1d9
True
6
479
At what percentage moisture content is the papermaking process not trying to achieve in the end?
5ad68ee2191832001aa7b1da
True
Drying involves using air and/or heat to remove water from the paper sheets; in the earliest days of paper making this was done by hanging the sheets like laundry; in more modern times various forms of heated drying mechanisms are used. On the paper machine the most common is the steam heated can dryer. These can reach temperatures above 200 °F (93 °C) and are used in long sequences of more than 40 cans; where the heat produced by these can easily dry the paper to less than 6% moisture.
Besides calcium, coated paper has a thin layer of what?
56e75b5300c9c71400d77006
china clay
104
False
What process is done to polish the surface of the paper?
56e75b5300c9c71400d77008
calendering
352
False
What is the shiniest type of coated paper?
56e75b5300c9c71400d77009
Gloss
434
False
What papers give the best optical density?
56e75b5300c9c71400d7700a
Gloss
434
False
Coated paper
33
What type of paper has a thick layer of material applied to create a more more suitable surface for halftone screens?
5ad500215b96ef001a10a8ea
True
screens above 150 lpi
266
Which resolution are coated papers rarely suited for?
5ad500215b96ef001a10a8eb
True
calendering
352
How should papers never have their surfaces polished?
5ad500215b96ef001a10a8ec
True
Gloss papers
434
Which type of papers have the lowest optical density in the printed image?
5ad500215b96ef001a10a8ed
True
Coated papers
365
Which type of papers are not divided into matte, smei-matte or silk and gloss?
5ad500215b96ef001a10a8ee
True
china clay
104
Besides calcium, coated paper has a thick layer of what?
5ad68f0d191832001aa7b1dd
True
calendering
352
What process is done to not polish the surface of the paper?
5ad68f0d191832001aa7b1de
True
gloss
427
What is not the shiniest type of coated paper?
5ad68f0d191832001aa7b1df
True
gloss
427
What papers give the worst optical density?
5ad68f0d191832001aa7b1e0
True
Paper at this point is uncoated. Coated paper has a thin layer of material such as calcium carbonate or china clay applied to one or both sides in order to create a surface more suitable for high-resolution halftone screens. (Uncoated papers are rarely suitable for screens above 150 lpi.) Coated or uncoated papers may have their surfaces polished by calendering. Coated papers are divided into matte, semi-matte or silk, and gloss. Gloss papers give the highest optical density in the printed image.
What contraption is used to carry the paper to the web printing presses?
56e75c6637bdd419002c3ee3
reels
27
False
In what manner are sheets normally cut?
56e75c6637bdd419002c3ee4
long-grain
233
False
If the paper is not to be used in the web printing process, what is done?
56e75c6637bdd419002c3ee6
cut into sheets
81
False
reels
27
What is the paper fed onto unless it is going to be used in web printing presses?
5ad5038d5b96ef001a10a998
True
reels
27
What is the paper fed onto unless it is going to be cut into sheets?
5ad5038d5b96ef001a10a999
True
the machine direction
186
In which direction to the fibers in the paper run opposite of?
5ad5038d5b96ef001a10a99a
True
Sheets
209
What is usually cut in a short-grain fashion?
5ad5038d5b96ef001a10a99b
True
Sheets
209
What is usually cut with the grain perpendicular to the longer dimension of the sheet?
5ad5038d5b96ef001a10a99c
True
reels
27
What contraption is not used to carry the paper to the web printing presses?
5ad68f33191832001aa7b1e5
True
long-grain
233
In what manner are sheets not usually cut?
5ad68f33191832001aa7b1e6
True
cut into sheets
81
If the paper is to be used in the web printing process, what is done?
5ad68f33191832001aa7b1e7
True
The paper is then fed onto reels if it is to be used on web printing presses, or cut into sheets for other printing processes or other purposes. The fibres in the paper basically run in the machine direction. Sheets are usually cut "long-grain", i.e. with the grain parallel to the longer dimension of the sheet.
What type of paper is produced on a machine like the Fourdrinier?
56e75d7100c9c71400d77010
wove paper
68
False
What is used to apply watermarks and other patterns?
56e75d7100c9c71400d77011
rollers
330
False
What is in common with the lentgh along and across the grain of paper produced by a machine such as the Fourdrinier?
56e75d7100c9c71400d77012
density
158
False
What leaves a pattern on the paper that has a consistent density width and lengthwise?
56e75d7100c9c71400d77013
wire mesh
89
False
wove paper
68
What type of paper is never produced by the Fourdrinier Machine?
5ad504765b96ef001a10a9ca
True
rollers in the later stages of the machine
330
How are watermarks applied to the Fourdrinier Machine?
5ad504765b96ef001a10a9cb
True
rollers in the later stages of the machine
330
How are wire patterns applied to the Fourdrinier Machine?
5ad504765b96ef001a10a9cc
True
rollers in the later stages of the machine
330
How are Textured finishes applied to the Fourdrinier Machine?
5ad504765b96ef001a10a9cd
True
wove paper
68
What type of paper is not produced on a machine like the Fourdrinier?
5ad68f7e191832001aa7b1eb
True
rollers
330
What is used to not apply watermarks and other patterns?
5ad68f7e191832001aa7b1ec
True
density
158
What is in uncommon with the length along and across the grain of paper produced by a machine such as the Fourdrinier?
5ad68f7e191832001aa7b1ed
True
wire mesh
89
What leaves a pattern on the paper that doesn't have a consistent density width and lengthwise?
5ad68f7e191832001aa7b1ee
True
All paper produced by paper machines as the Fourdrinier Machine are wove paper, i.e. the wire mesh that transports the web leaves a pattern that has the same density along the paper grain and across the grain. Textured finishes, watermarks and wire patterns imitating hand-made laid paper can be created by the use of appropriate rollers in the later stages of the machine.
What type of lines does wove paper not exhibit?
56e75e1200c9c71400d77018
Laidlines
165
False
What are small regular lines left on paper when handmade in a mould?
56e75e1200c9c71400d77019
Laidlines
165
False
What runs perpendicular to the laidlines?
56e75e1200c9c71400d7701b
chainlines
231
False
Which is lines are commonly higher in density, laidlines or chainlines?
56e75e1200c9c71400d7701c
Laidlines
165
False
laidlines
29
What type of lines run parallel to chainlines?
5ad504cb5b96ef001a10a9d2
True
Wove paper
0
What type of paper exhibits laidlines?
5ad504cb5b96ef001a10a9d3
True
perpendicular
209
In which way does handpaper run to chianlines?
5ad504cb5b96ef001a10a9d4
True
Handmade paper
269
Which type of paper exhibits smooth borders?
5ad504cb5b96ef001a10a9d5
True
laidlines
29
What type of lines are exhibited on woven paper?
5ad504cb5b96ef001a10a9d6
True
laidlines
29
What type of lines does wove paper exhibit?
5ad68fcb191832001aa7b1f3
True
laidlines
29
What are large regular lines left on paper when handmade in a mould?
5ad68fcb191832001aa7b1f4
True
chainlines
231
What runs parallel to the laidlines?
5ad68fcb191832001aa7b1f5
True
Laidlines
165
Which is lines are uncommonly higher in density, laidlines or chainlines?
5ad68fcb191832001aa7b1f6
True
Wove paper does not exhibit "laidlines", which are small regular lines left behind on paper when it was handmade in a mould made from rows of metal wires or bamboo. Laidlines are very close together. They run perpendicular to the "chainlines", which are further apart. Handmade paper similarly exhibits "deckle edges", or rough and feathery borders.
What tool is often used in measuring the thickness of paper?
56e75f4b37bdd419002c3f09
caliper
44
False
In the United States, what units are used when stating the measurements of paper thickness?
56e75f4b37bdd419002c3f0a
thousandths of an inch
81
False
Someone measuring the thickness of paper in the UK is likely to use what unit?
56e75f4b37bdd419002c3f0b
mm
149
False
Sated in inches, what is the common range of paper thickness?
56e75f4b37bdd419002c3f0d
0.0028 and 0.0071 in
226
False
caliper
44
What is the wetness of paper most often measured by?
5ad505735b96ef001a10aa06
True
caliper
44
What is often given in hundredths of an inch?
5ad505735b96ef001a10aa07
True
caliper
44
What is often given in hundredths of an mm?
5ad505735b96ef001a10aa08
True
United States
111
In which part of the world maybe paper be between .07 and .18 mm thick?
5ad505735b96ef001a10aa09
True
caliper
44
What is the weight of paper measured by?
5ad505735b96ef001a10aa0a
True
caliper
44
What tool is often used in measuring the width of paper?
5ad69003191832001aa7b1fb
True
thousandths of an inch
81
In the United States, what units are used when stating the measurements of paper width?
5ad69003191832001aa7b1fc
True
millimetres
213
Someone measuring the thickness of paper in the US is likely to use what unit?
5ad69003191832001aa7b1fd
True
.0028 and 0.0071
227
Sated in inches, what is the common range of paper width?
5ad69003191832001aa7b1fe
True
The thickness of paper is often measured by caliper, which is typically given in thousandths of an inch in the United States and in thousandths of a mm in the rest of the world. Paper may be between 0.07 and 0.18 millimetres (0.0028 and 0.0071 in) thick.
What characteristic is paper usually classified by?
56e7601000c9c71400d77044
weight
32
False
In the US, the weight of what is used to classify paper for sale?
56e7601000c9c71400d77045
a ream
110
False
Paper rated at over 110lb is considered what type of stock?
56e7601000c9c71400d77046
card
518
False
Paper
0
What is weight most often characterized by?
5ad505fd5b96ef001a10aa24
True
500
118
How many sheets of reams are in a basic size?
5ad505fd5b96ef001a10aa25
True
varying "basic sizes"
133
In what sizes do pounds of paper come?
5ad505fd5b96ef001a10aa26
True
paper is cut into the size
167
What happens to the paper after it is sold to end customers?
5ad505fd5b96ef001a10aa27
True
20 lb
246
How much does a ream of 5 lb, 8.5 in x 11 in paper weigh?
5ad505fd5b96ef001a10aa28
True
weight
32
What characteristic is paper not usually classified by?
5ad69021191832001aa7b203
True
ream
112
In the UK, the weight of what is used to classify paper for sale?
5ad69021191832001aa7b204
True
card
518
Paper rated at over 210lb is considered what type of stock?
5ad69021191832001aa7b205
True
Paper is often characterized by weight. In the United States, the weight assigned to a paper is the weight of a ream, 500 sheets, of varying "basic sizes", before the paper is cut into the size it is sold to end customers. For example, a ream of 20 lb, 8.5 in × 11 in (216 mm × 279 mm) paper weighs 5 pounds, because it has been cut from a larger sheet into four pieces. In the United States, printing paper is generally 20 lb, 24 lb, or 32 lb at most. Cover stock is generally 68 lb, and 110 lb or more is considered card stock.
What ISO sizing system does Europe use?
56e7621400c9c71400d77068
ISO 216
39
False
If paper is over 160g what is it considered as?
56e7621400c9c71400d7706b
card
253
False
Besides thickness, what attribute is used in stating the weight of a ream in Europe?
56e7621400c9c71400d7706c
dimensions
305
False
Europe
3
Where is the dampness of paper expressed in grammes per square meter?
5ad507845b96ef001a10aa42
True
Europe
3
Where is the thickness of paper expressed in grams per square meter?
5ad507845b96ef001a10aa43
True
Europe
3
Where is the dryness of paper expressed in grams per square meter?
5ad507845b96ef001a10aa44
True
card
253
What is anything heavier than 60g considered?
5ad507845b96ef001a10aa45
True
dimensions of the paper and its thickness.
305
What does the weight of a gram depend on?
5ad507845b96ef001a10aa46
True
ISO 216
39
What ISO sizing system does Asia use?
5ad69041191832001aa7b209
True
card
253
If paper is over 110g what is it considered as?
5ad69041191832001aa7b20a
True
dimensions
305
Besides thickness, what attribute is used in stating the weight of a ream in Asia?
5ad69041191832001aa7b20b
True
In Europe, and other regions using the ISO 216 paper sizing system, the weight is expressed in grammes per square metre (g/m2 or usually just g) of the paper. Printing paper is generally between 60 g and 120 g. Anything heavier than 160 g is considered card. The weight of a ream therefore depends on the dimensions of the paper and its thickness.
Commercial paper is commonly defined by what?
56e7627c37bdd419002c3f1d
length and width
122
False
Most commercial paper in North America is cut in what manner?
56e7627c37bdd419002c3f1e
standard paper sizes
54
False
Standard paper sizes are usually described with what terms?
56e7627c37bdd419002c3f1f
length and width
122
False
cut to standard paper sizes based on customary units and is defined by the length and width of a sheet of paper.
47
How is most paper sold in South America?
5ad507dc5b96ef001a10aa60
True
standard paper sizes based on customary units
54
How is paper cut for sale in South America?
5ad507dc5b96ef001a10aa61
True
customary
84
Based on what type of units is North America cut for sale?
5ad507dc5b96ef001a10aa62
True
standard paper sizes
54
What is defined by the length and moistness of paper?
5ad507dc5b96ef001a10aa63
True
length and width
122
Commercial paper is not commonly defined by what?
5ad69060191832001aa7b20f
True
standard paper sizes
54
Most commercial paper in South America is cut in what manner?
5ad69060191832001aa7b210
True
length and width
122
Standard paper sizes are never described with what terms?
5ad69060191832001aa7b211
True
Most commercial paper sold in North America is cut to standard paper sizes based on customary units and is defined by the length and width of a sheet of paper.
Most countries besides the US use what ISO System?
56e7632700c9c71400d7707c
ISO 216
4
False
What country first adopted the ISO 216 standard?
56e7632700c9c71400d7707d
Germany
157
False
What is the largest standard size paper?
56e7632700c9c71400d7707e
A0
267
False
How many sheets of A1 paper would cover one single piece of A0 paper?
56e7632700c9c71400d7707f
2
8
False
What is the lowest numbered A paper that is commonly used at home?
56e7632700c9c71400d77080
A3
552
False
width and length
115
Instead of the surface area of paper, what is the ISO 216 system based on?
5ad5089c5b96ef001a10aa72
True
1922
168
When was the ISO 1189 system first adopted in Germany?
5ad5089c5b96ef001a10aa73
True
A0
267
What is the smallest standard paper size?
5ad5089c5b96ef001a10aa74
True
two
440
How many sheets of A1 fit into a sheet of A2?
5ad5089c5b96ef001a10aa75
True
A4 and A3
545
What are some common sizes never used in the home or office?
5ad5089c5b96ef001a10aa76
True
ISO 216
4
Most countries besides the UK use what ISO System?
5ad69091191832001aa7b215
True
Germany
157
What country first rejected the ISO 216 standard?
5ad69091191832001aa7b216
True
A0
267
What is the smallest standard size paper?
5ad69091191832001aa7b217
True
A2
454
How many sheets of A1 paper would cover one single piece of AD paper?
5ad69091191832001aa7b218
True
A3
556
What is the lowest numbered A paper that is uncommonly used at home?
5ad69091191832001aa7b219
True
The ISO 216 system used in most other countries is based on the surface area of a sheet of paper, not on a sheet's width and length. It was first adopted in Germany in 1922 and generally spread as nations adopted the metric system. The largest standard size paper is A0 (A zero), measuring one square meter (approx. 1189 × 841 mm). Two sheets of A1, placed upright side by side fit exactly into one sheet of A0 laid on its side. Similarly, two sheets of A2 fit into one sheet of A1 and so forth. Common sizes used in the office and the home are A4 and A3 (A3 is the size of two A4 sheets).
What is the lightest density of paper produced?
56e763f737bdd419002c3f2d
tissue paper
61
False
What is the common density of printing paper?
56e763f737bdd419002c3f2e
800 kg/m3
154
False
from 250 kg/m3 (16 lb/cu ft) for tissue paper to 1,500 kg/m3 (94 lb/cu ft) for some speciality paper.
28
What is the range of paper weight?
5ad50a975b96ef001a10aa90
True
from 250 kg/m3 (16 lb/cu ft) for tissue paper to 1,500 kg/m3 (94 lb/cu ft) for some speciality paper.
28
What is the range of paper thickness?
5ad50a975b96ef001a10aa91
True
from 250 kg/m3 (16 lb/cu ft) for tissue paper to 1,500 kg/m3 (94 lb/cu ft) for some speciality paper
28
What is the range of paper dampness?
5ad50a975b96ef001a10aa92
True
from 250 kg/m3 (16 lb/cu ft) for tissue paper to 1,500 kg/m3 (94 lb/cu ft) for some speciality paper.
28
What is the range of paper dryness?
5ad50a975b96ef001a10aa93
True
about 800 kg/m3 (50 lb/cu ft).
148
How thick is printing paper?
5ad50a975b96ef001a10aa94
True
tissue
61
What is the lightest density of wood produced?
5ad690ae191832001aa7b21f
True
800
154
What is the uncommon density of printing paper?
5ad690ae191832001aa7b220
True
The density of paper ranges from 250 kg/m3 (16 lb/cu ft) for tissue paper to 1,500 kg/m3 (94 lb/cu ft) for some speciality paper. Printing paper is about 800 kg/m3 (50 lb/cu ft).
What acidic salts were commonly found in the early types of paper produced?
56e7650200c9c71400d77098
Alum
150
False
Early papermakers added alum to help in what process?
56e7650200c9c71400d77099
sizing
187
False
How was rag paper superior to the early types of paper made using alum?
56e7650200c9c71400d7709b
more stable
710
False
significant amounts of alum
54
What did a lot of the wood pulp made from paper contain?
5ad50b925b96ef001a10aaa4
True
Alum
150
What was took out of paper to assist in sizing?
5ad50b925b96ef001a10aaa5
True
stability
805
What is more of an issue with papers made with non acidic additives?
5ad50b925b96ef001a10aaa6
True
use of non-acidic additives
727
What is becoming less prevalent when making paper?
5ad50b925b96ef001a10aaa7
True
cellulose
454
By what are the acid fibers that make up paper hydrolyzed?
5ad50b925b96ef001a10aaa8
True
alum
77
What acidic salts were uncommonly found in the early types of paper produced?
5ad690cf191832001aa7b223
True
sizing
187
Late papermakers added alum to help in what process?
5ad690cf191832001aa7b224
True
more stable
710
How was rag paper inferior to the early types of paper made using alum?
5ad690cf191832001aa7b225
True
Much of the early paper made from wood pulp contained significant amounts of alum, a variety of aluminium sulfate salts that is significantly acidic. Alum was added to paper to assist in sizing, making it somewhat water resistant so that inks did not "run" or spread uncontrollably. Early papermakers did not realize that the alum they added liberally to cure almost every problem encountered in making their product would eventually be detrimental. The cellulose fibres that make up paper are hydrolyzed by acid, and the presence of alum would eventually degrade the fibres until the paper disintegrated in a process that has come to be known as "slow fire". Documents written on rag paper were significantly more stable. The use of non-acidic additives to make paper is becoming more prevalent, and the stability of these papers is less of an issue.
What particle is associated with the yellowing of newspapers?
56e765dc37bdd419002c3f36
lignin
64
False
A book is likely made with paper that has low amounts of what component of wood?
56e765dc37bdd419002c3f38
lignin
64
False
What does lignin react to to produce the yellowing you see in newspapers?
56e765dc37bdd419002c3f39
light and oxygen
118
False
Paper
0
What does lignin made from mechanical pulp contain significant amounts of?
5ad50bf65b96ef001a10aac2
True
wood
93
What is a major component of lignin?
5ad50bf65b96ef001a10aac3
True
yellow materials
158
When lacking light and oxygen, what type of materials does lignin react to give?
5ad50bf65b96ef001a10aac4
True
lignin
332
What does paper made from bleached kraft contain a significant amount of?
5ad50bf65b96ef001a10aac5
True
lignin
332
What does paper made from sulfite pulps contain a significant amount of?
5ad50bf65b96ef001a10aac6
True
lignin
136
What particle is associated with the greening of newspapers?
5ad690f9191832001aa7b229
True
lignin
136
A book is likely made with paper that has high amounts of what component of wood?
5ad690f9191832001aa7b22a
True
light and oxygen
118
What does lignin react to to produce the greening you see in newspapers?
5ad690f9191832001aa7b22b
True
Paper made from mechanical pulp contains significant amounts of lignin, a major component in wood. In the presence of light and oxygen, lignin reacts to give yellow materials, which is why newsprint and other mechanical paper yellows with age. Paper made from bleached kraft or sulfite pulps does not contain significant amounts of lignin and is therefore better suited for books, documents and other applications where whiteness of the paper is essential.
Who sponsored the tests that show that all papers are subject to acid decay?
56e7671700c9c71400d770b9
Library of Congress
216
False
Besides formic, acetic, and lactic acid, what type of acid does cellulose produce?
56e7671700c9c71400d770ba
oxalic
344
False
Paper made from wood pulp
0
What is definitely more durable than rag paper?
5ad50c3f5b96ef001a10aacc
True
its manufacture
124
What is determined by the ageing behavior of paper?
5ad50c3f5b96ef001a10aacd
True
Library of Congress
216
Who sponsored tests that proved all paper is risk free from acid decay?
5ad50c3f5b96ef001a10aace
True
cellulose
291
What does oxalic acid produce?
5ad50c3f5b96ef001a10aacf
True
cellulose
291
What does lactic acid produce?
5ad50c3f5b96ef001a10aad0
True
Library of Congress
216
Who sponsored the tests that show that all papers are not subject to acid decay?
5ad69112191832001aa7b22f
True
oxalic
344
Besides formic, acetic, and lactic acid, what type of acid does cellulose not produce?
5ad69112191832001aa7b230
True
Paper made from wood pulp is not necessarily less durable than a rag paper. The ageing behavior of a paper is determined by its manufacture, not the original source of the fibres. Furthermore, tests sponsored by the Library of Congress prove that all paper is at risk of acid decay, because cellulose itself produces formic, acetic, lactic and oxalic acids.
How many times more yield does the mechanical pulping process produce when compared to to the chemical pulping process?
56e767c137bdd419002c3f5e
twice
168
False
What type of process is used to produce most paper used in paperback books?
56e767c137bdd419002c3f5f
Mechanical
0
False
What level of acid is usually found in the paper used by book publishers?
56e767c137bdd419002c3f60
acid-free
342
False
Mechanical
0
What type of pulping yields nearly a tonne of dry wood per pulp tonne used?
5ad50cb85b96ef001a10aaea
True
mechanical
90
What type of pumps are sometimes called low yield pumps?
5ad50cb85b96ef001a10aaeb
True
mechanical pulps
205
Because it has a lower yield, what type of pulping is often cheaper?
5ad50cb85b96ef001a10aaec
True
chemical pulping
187
Mechanical pulps are often more expensive than what?
5ad50cb85b96ef001a10aaed
True
acid-free paper
342
What type of paper do mechanical pulps tend to use?
5ad50cb85b96ef001a10aaee
True
twice
168
How many times more yield does the mechanical pulping process produce when not compared to to the chemical pulping process?
5ad69142191832001aa7b233
True
mechanical
205
What type of process is used to produce least paper used in paperback books?
5ad69142191832001aa7b234
True
acid-free
342
What level of acid is not usually found in the paper used by book publishers?
5ad69142191832001aa7b235
True
Mechanical pulping yields almost a tonne of pulp per tonne of dry wood used, which is why mechanical pulps are sometimes referred to as "high yield" pulps. With almost twice the yield as chemical pulping, mechanical pulps is often cheaper. Mass-market paperback books and newspapers tend to use mechanical papers. Book publishers tend to use acid-free paper, made from fully bleached chemical pulps for hardback and trade paperback books.
In the last 40 years, how much has worldwide paper consumption risen?
56e768a600c9c71400d770d4
400%
44
False
What percentage of harvested trees are used in the manufacturing of paper?
56e768a600c9c71400d770d5
35%
113
False
What do many paper companies do to ensure the health of forests?
56e768a600c9c71400d770d6
plant trees
196
False
What percentage of wood pulp comes from old-growth trees?
56e768a600c9c71400d770d7
10%
285
False
Worldwide consumption of paper
0
What has risen by 35% over the last 400 years?
5ad50d5b5b96ef001a10aafe
True
400%
44
By how much has worldwide consumption of paper decreased over the last 40 years?
5ad50d5b5b96ef001a10aaff
True
trees
202
What to most forest plant to help regrow companies?
5ad50d5b5b96ef001a10ab00
True
Logging of old growth forests
232
What accounts for more than 10% of wood pulp?
5ad50d5b5b96ef001a10ab01
True
35%
113
What percentage of trees harvested are not used for making paper?
5ad50d5b5b96ef001a10ab02
True
400%
44
In the last 10 years, how much has worldwide paper consumption risen?
5ad69176191832001aa7b239
True
35%
113
What percentage of harvested bushes are used in the manufacturing of paper?
5ad69176191832001aa7b23a
True
plant trees
196
What do many paper companies do to ensure the health of oceans?
5ad69176191832001aa7b23b
True
10%
285
What percentage of wood pulp comes from new-growth trees?
5ad69176191832001aa7b23c
True
Worldwide consumption of paper has risen by 400% in the past 40 years leading to increase in deforestation, with 35% of harvested trees being used for paper manufacture. Most paper companies also plant trees to help regrow forests. Logging of old growth forests accounts for less than 10% of wood pulp, but is one of the most controversial issues.
What percentage of total waste can be attributed to paper?
56e7691537bdd419002c3f6d
40%
31
False
How many millions of tons of paper are wasted in the US each year?
56e7691537bdd419002c3f6e
71.6 million
108
False
How many paper cups are used by Americans each year?
56e7691537bdd419002c3f6f
16 billion
276
False
How many pages are printed by the average office worker in the US each day?
56e7691537bdd419002c3f70
31
221
False
40%
31
How much percent of total waste does paper waste account for in Europe?
5ad50dc65b96ef001a10ab08
True
71.6 million
108
How many tons of paper are wasted per year in Europe?
5ad50dc65b96ef001a10ab09
True
31
221
How many pages of paper does the average worker in Europe print per day?
5ad50dc65b96ef001a10ab0a
True
16 billion
276
How many paper cups per year do Europeans use?
5ad50dc65b96ef001a10ab0b
True
United States
66
In what country does an average office worker print 71.6 million pages of paper every day?
5ad50dc65b96ef001a10ab0c
True
40%
31
What percentage of total waste can not be attributed to paper?
5ad691a8191832001aa7b241
True
71.6
108
How many hundreds of tons of paper are wasted in the US each year?
5ad691a8191832001aa7b242
True
16 billion
276
How many paper bags are used by Americans each year?
5ad691a8191832001aa7b243
True
31
221
How many pages are printed by the average office worker in the UK each day?
5ad691a8191832001aa7b244
True
Paper waste accounts for up to 40% of total waste produced in the United States each year, which adds up to 71.6 million tons of paper waste per year in the United States alone. The average office worker in the US prints 31 pages every day. Americans also use on the order of 16 billion paper cups per year.
What process of papermaking is most heavily linked to the pollution?
56e76a5800c9c71400d770f3
bleaching
13
False
How are humans commonly exposed to the byproducts of the bleaching process?
56e76a5800c9c71400d770f4
through food
522
False
Where are dioxins stored in our animal sources of food?
56e76a5800c9c71400d770f5
fatty tissue
626
False
What agency internationally regulates dioxins?
56e76a5800c9c71400d770f6
the Stockholm Convention on Persistent Organic Pollutants
276
False
large amounts of chlorinated organic compounds
104
What does bleaching of meat release into the environment?
5ad50e3e5b96ef001a10ab1c
True
large amounts of chlorinated organic compounds
104
What does bleaching of dairy release into the environment?
5ad50e3e5b96ef001a10ab1d
True
large amounts of chlorinated organic compounds
104
What does bleaching of fish release into the environment?
5ad50e3e5b96ef001a10ab1e
True
Stockholm Convention on Persistent Organic Pollutants
280
Which agency nationally regulates dioxins?
5ad50e3e5b96ef001a10ab1f
True
bleaching
13
What process of papermaking is least heavily linked to the pollution?
5ad691e4191832001aa7b251
True
through food
522
How are humans uncommonly exposed to the byproducts of the bleaching process?
5ad691e4191832001aa7b252
True
fatty tissue
626
Where are dioxins expelled in our animal sources of food?
5ad691e4191832001aa7b253
True
Stockholm Convention
280
What agency nationally regulates dioxins?
5ad691e4191832001aa7b254
True
Conventional bleaching of wood pulp using elemental chlorine produces and releases into the environment large amounts of chlorinated organic compounds, including chlorinated dioxins. Dioxins are recognized as a persistent environmental pollutant, regulated internationally by the Stockholm Convention on Persistent Organic Pollutants. Dioxins are highly toxic, and health effects on humans include reproductive, developmental, immune and hormonal problems. They are known to be carcinogenic. Over 90% of human exposure is through food, primarily meat, dairy, fish and shellfish, as dioxins accumulate in the food chain in the fatty tissue of animals.
What product used in the sale ofpaper is newly used by manufacturers in an effort to be more environmentally friendly?
56e76b5600c9c71400d770fc
paperfoam
177
False
What is the main benefit of using paperfoam over traditional shrink-wrap?
56e76b5600c9c71400d770fd
biodegradable
288
False
What is paperfoam primarily made of?
56e76b5600c9c71400d770fe
paper
144
False
How is paperfoam commonly disposed of?
56e76b5600c9c71400d770ff
recycled
318
False
paperfoam
177
What is made out of plastic and is being used instead of expanded plastic packaging?
5ad50ebd5b96ef001a10ab24
True
expanded plastic packaging
253
To what does the new packaging have very different mechanical properties?
5ad50ebd5b96ef001a10ab25
True
ordinary paper
332
With what can paperfoam not be recycled?
5ad50ebd5b96ef001a10ab26
True
recycled with ordinary paper
318
How can some manufacturers be disposed of?
5ad50ebd5b96ef001a10ab27
True
paperfoam
177
What is ordinary paper made out of?
5ad50ebd5b96ef001a10ab28
True
paperfoam
177
What product used in the sale of paper is newly used by manufacturers in an effort to be less environmentally friendly?
5ad69228191832001aa7b259
True
biodegradable
288
What is the least benefit of using paperfoam over traditional shrink-wrap?
5ad69228191832001aa7b25a
True
paper
341
What is paperfoam uncommonly made of?
5ad69228191832001aa7b25b
True
recycled
318
How is paperfoam uncommonly disposed of?
5ad69228191832001aa7b25c
True
Some manufacturers have started using a new, significantly more environmentally friendly alternative to expanded plastic packaging. Made out of paper, and known commercially as paperfoam, the new packaging has very similar mechanical properties to some expanded plastic packaging, but is biodegradable and can also be recycled with ordinary paper.
What is newly used as a coating in high grease applications?
56e76bdd00c9c71400d77104
corn protein
164
False
Popcorn bags produced modernly are likely to use what type of coating?
56e76bdd00c9c71400d77106
corn protein
164
False
PFOA is what type of coating?
56e76bdd00c9c71400d77107
synthetic
45
False
as a coating for paper in high grease applications
178
In what way can zein not be used?
5ad50f335b96ef001a10ab38
True
zein
158
What type of coating would a hydrocarbon bag likely have?
5ad50f335b96ef001a10ab39
True
zein
158
What is another term for synthetic protein?
5ad50f335b96ef001a10ab3a
True
about synthetic coatings
39
To what are there decreasing environmental concerns?
5ad50f335b96ef001a10ab3b
True
PFOA
73
What is an example of a natural coating?
5ad50f335b96ef001a10ab3c
True
corn protein
164
What is no longer used as a coating in high grease applications?
5ad6924b191832001aa7b261
True
corn protein
164
Garbage bags produced modernly are likely to use what type of coating?
5ad6924b191832001aa7b262
True
synthetic
45
PFOA is what type of paper?
5ad6924b191832001aa7b263
True
With increasing environmental concerns about synthetic coatings (such as PFOA) and the higher prices of hydrocarbon based petrochemicals, there is a focus on zein (corn protein) as a coating for paper in high grease applications such as popcorn bags.
Paper recycling processes
0
What type of processes can only use chemically produced pulp?
5ad4fb455b96ef001a10a86e
True
Paper recycling processes
0
What type of processes can only use mechanically produced pulp?
5ad4fb455b96ef001a10a86f
True
proportion of virgin fibre
243
What does most water contain for quality sake?
5ad4fb455b96ef001a10a870
True
same quality or lower than the collected paper it was made from.
339
What quality does inked pulp generally have?
5ad4fb455b96ef001a10a871
True
the collected paper it was made from.
366
From what paper does de-inked pulp generally have a higher quality?
5ad4fb455b96ef001a10a872
True
pulp
77
What's the third way paper recycling process can use?
5ad68e70191832001aa7b1c5
True
hydrogen bonds in the paper can be broken and fibres separated again
142
What does mixing it with milk do?
5ad68e70191832001aa7b1c6
True
Most
212
How much non-recycled paper contains virgin fibre?
5ad68e70191832001aa7b1c7
True
Paper recycling processes can use either chemically or mechanically produced pulp; by mixing it with water and applying mechanical action the hydrogen bonds in the paper can be broken and fibres separated again. Most recycled paper contains a proportion of virgin fibre for the sake of quality; generally speaking, de-inked pulp is of the same quality or lower than the collected paper it was made from.
Adult_contemporary_music
Along with pop, soul, rhythm and blues, quiet storm, and rock, what musical style influenced adult contemporary?
56e6b7e56fe0821900b8eb3a
easy listening
182
False
What was the prevailing style of adult contemporary music in the 1970s?
56e6b7e56fe0821900b8eb3b
soft rock
86
False
What type of adult contemporary music was popular in the 1960s?
56e6b7e56fe0821900b8eb3c
vocal
70
False
What does the acronym AC stand for?
56e6b7e56fe0821900b8eb3d
Adult contemporary
0
False
Along with easy listening, adult contemporary is a modern day continuation of what style of music?
56e6b7e56fe0821900b8eb3e
soft rock
86
False
Adult contemporary music (AC) is a style of music, ranging from 1960s vocal and 1970s soft rock music to predominantly ballad-heavy music of the present day, with varying degrees of easy listening, pop, soul, rhythm and blues, quiet storm, and rock influence. Adult contemporary is rather a continuation of the easy listening and soft rock style that became popular in the 1960s and 1970s with some adjustments that reflect the evolution of pop/rock music.
Along with harmonies, what aspect of music is emphasized in adult contemporary?
56e6b8436fe0821900b8eb44
melody
96
False
What is the typical structure of an adult contemporary song?
56e6b8436fe0821900b8eb45
verse–chorus structure
352
False
With what broader style of music does adult contemporary share its structure?
56e6b8436fe0821900b8eb46
pop music
282
False
Along with being pleasurable, what trait makes adult contemporary appropriate for background music?
56e6b8436fe0821900b8eb47
inoffensive
200
False
Adult contemporary tends to have lush, soothing and highly polished qualities where emphasis on melody and harmonies is accentuated. It is usually melodic enough to get a listener's attention, and is inoffensive and pleasurable enough to work well as background music. Like most of pop music, its songs tend to be written in a basic format employing a verse–chorus structure.
What type of song is frequently seen in the adult contemporary genre?
56e6b8c76fe0821900b8eb4c
romantic sentimental ballads
31
False
Along with synthesizers, what electronic instruments sometimes appear in modern adult contemporary?
56e6b8c76fe0821900b8eb4d
drum machines
378
False
What general type of instruments tend to be used in adult contemporary?
56e6b8c76fe0821900b8eb4e
acoustic
77
False
What electric instrument is often seen in adult contemporary?
56e6b8c76fe0821900b8eb4f
bass guitar
106
False
Along with being faint, what characteristic is usually present in electric guitars used in adult contemporary?
56e6b8c76fe0821900b8eb50
high-pitched
258
False
Adult contemporary is heavy on romantic sentimental ballads which mostly use acoustic instruments (though bass guitar is usually used) such as acoustic guitars, pianos, saxophones, and sometimes an orchestral set. The electric guitars are normally faint and high-pitched. However, recent adult contemporary music may usually feature synthesizers (and other electronics, such as drum machines).
What age group does adult contemporary radio typically focus on?
56e6b94d6fe0821900b8eb56
25–44
278
False
Along with teen pop, dance and hard rock, what form of music is typically not heard on AC radio?
56e6b94d6fe0821900b8eb57
hip hop
67
False
When did advertisers begin to focus on the adult contemporary age demographic?
56e6b94d6fe0821900b8eb58
1960s
375
False
What type of music are AC stations noted as playing less of versus hits of the past?
56e6b94d6fe0821900b8eb59
newer music
467
False
AC radio stations may play mainstream music, but they will exclude hip hop, dance tracks, hard rock, and some forms of teen pop, as they are less popular amongst the target demographic of these radio stations, which is intended for an adult audience. AC radio often targets the 25–44 age group, the demographic that has received the most attention from advertisers since the 1960s. A common practice in recent years is that many adult contemporary stations play less newer music because they also give ample airtime to hits of the past, so the de-emphasis on new songs slows the progression of the AC chart.
What is lite AC otherwise known as?
56e6bfc4de9d37140006800c
soft AC
62
False
What is Christian AC a subgenre of?
56e6bfc4de9d37140006800d
contemporary Christian music
162
False
Along with hot, soft, urban and Christian AC, what is another prominent time of adult contemporary music?
56e6bfc4de9d37140006800e
rhythmic AC
111
False
Over the years, AC has spawned subgenres including "hot AC", "soft AC" (also known as "lite AC"), "urban AC", "rhythmic AC", and "Christian AC" (a softer type of contemporary Christian music). Some stations play only "hot AC", "soft AC", or only one of the variety of subgenres. Therefore, it is not usually considered a specific genre of music; it is merely an assemblage of selected tracks from musicians of many different genres.
From what decade of easy listening radio does adult contemporary trace its heritage?
56e6c13ade9d371400068012
1960s
43
False
Generally speaking, what percentage of music on easy listening stations was instrumental?
56e6c13ade9d371400068013
70-80%
88
False
On what date was the Billboard easy listening chart first published?
56e6c13ade9d371400068014
July 17, 1961
495
False
How many songs were on the first Billboard easy listening chart?
56e6c13ade9d371400068015
20
110
False
Who performed the first #1 on the easy listening chart?
56e6c13ade9d371400068016
Brook Benton
572
False
Adult contemporary traces its roots to the 1960s easy listening format, which adopted a 70-80% instrumental - 20-30% vocal mix. A few offered 90% instrumentals, and a handful were entirely instrumental. The easy listening format, as it was first known, was born of a desire by some radio stations in the late 1950s and early 1960s to continue playing current hit songs but distinguish themselves from being branded as "rock and roll" stations. Billboard first published the Easy Listening chart July 17, 1961, with 20 songs; the first number one was "Boll Weevil Song" by Brook Benton. The chart described itself as "not too far out in either direction".
Along with Frank Sinatra, Doris Day, Johnny Mathis, Nat King Cole, and Perry Como, who was a prominent early adult contemporary radio artist?
56e6c2f6de9d37140006801c
Connie Francis
95
False
What type of covers of pop and rock songs were usually played on adult contemporary?
56e6c2f6de9d37140006801d
instrumental
185
False
What songs from the 1940s and 1950s would adult contemporary stations play?
56e6c2f6de9d37140006801e
big band-era recordings
386
False
Initially, the vocalists consisted of artists such as Frank Sinatra, Doris Day, Johnny Mathis, Connie Francis, Nat King Cole, Perry Como, and others. The custom recordings were usually instrumental versions of current or recent rock and roll or pop hit songs, a move intended to give the stations more mass appeal without selling out. Some stations would also occasionally play earlier big band-era recordings from the 1940s and early 1950s.
What chart did the Easy Listening chart begin to diverge from?
56e6c362de9d371400068022
the Hot 100 chart
32
False
In what year did the Easy Listening and Hot 100 charts begin to diverge?
56e6c362de9d371400068023
1965
6
False
Along with Roger Miller and Barbra Streisand, who was a successful Easy Listening artist in this era?
56e6c362de9d371400068024
Bobby Vinton
425
False
Why did the crossover between Hot 100 and Easy Listening decrease?
56e6c362de9d371400068025
rock music continued to harden
231
False
After 1965, differences between the Hot 100 chart and the Easy Listening chart became more pronounced. Better reflecting what middle of the road stations were actually playing, the composition of the chart changed dramatically. As rock music continued to harden, there was much less crossover between the Hot 100 and Easy Listening chart than there had been in the early half of the 1960s. Roger Miller, Barbra Streisand and Bobby Vinton were among the chart's most popular performers.
During what decade did rock and roll music first rise to popularity?
56e6c3edde9d37140006802a
1950s
126
False
What does the acronym MOR stand for?
56e6c3edde9d37140006802b
middle of the road
251
False
Along with pre-rock standards, what type of older songs did MOR stations play?
56e6c3edde9d37140006802c
big band titles
355
False
One big impetus for the development of the AC radio format was that, when rock and roll music first became popular in the mid-1950s, many more conservative radio stations wanted to continue to play current hit songs while shying away from rock. These middle of the road (or "MOR") stations also frequently included older, pre-rock-era adult standards and big band titles to further appeal to adult listeners who had grown up with those songs.
What was another term for easy listening stations?
56e6c4996fe0821900b8eb5e
beautiful music
102
False
Easy listening was predominately what type of music?
56e6c4996fe0821900b8eb5f
instrumental
231
False
What types of tracks from popular artists did adult contemporary radio play?
56e6c4996fe0821900b8eb60
hit singles and album cuts
391
False
What type of format were adult contemporary and easy listening stations meant to share?
56e6c4996fe0821900b8eb61
lite
345
False
Another big impetus for the evolution of the AC radio format was the popularity of easy listening or "beautiful music" stations, stations with music specifically designed to be purely ambient. Whereas most easy listening music was instrumental, created by relatively unknown artists, and rarely purchased, AC was an attempt to create a similar "lite" format by choosing certain tracks (both hit singles and album cuts) of popular artists.
As of what year was hard rock a mainstream type of music?
56e6c52c6fe0821900b8eb66
1965
56
False
Along with soft rock, what type of music made up mainstream rock music in the late 1960s?
56e6c52c6fe0821900b8eb67
hard rock
152
False
What type of instruments were prominent in soft rock?
56e6c52c6fe0821900b8eb68
acoustic
266
False
What genre of music was soft rock descended from?
56e6c52c6fe0821900b8eb69
folk rock
249
False
Along with Barbra Streisand, Carole King, Cat Stevens and Bread, who was a prominent soft rock artist of this era?
56e6c52c6fe0821900b8eb6a
James Taylor
405
False
Hard rock had been established as a mainstream genre by 1965. From the end of the 1960s, it became common to divide mainstream rock music into soft and hard rock, with both emerging as major radio formats in the US. Soft rock was often derived from folk rock, using acoustic instruments and putting more emphasis on melody and harmonies. Major artists included Barbra Streisand, Carole King, Cat Stevens, James Taylor and Bread.
At the end of what decade did the Hot 100 and Easy Listening charts begin to converge?
56e6c7bdde9d371400068030
1960s
86
False
During the middle and early parts of what decade did the similarity of Easy Listening and Hot 100 increase?
56e6c7bdde9d371400068031
1970s
119
False
How did Top 40 radio what ifmusic change during this era?
56e6c7bdde9d371400068032
began to soften
197
False
With Elton John and the Eagles, what was a prominent adult contemporary artist in this period?
56e6c7bdde9d371400068033
Chicago
324
False
The Hot 100 and Easy Listening charts became more similar again toward the end of the 1960s and into the early and mid-1970s, when the texture of much of the music played on Top 40 radio once more began to soften. The adult contemporary format began evolving into the sound that later defined it, with rock-oriented acts as Chicago, The Eagles, and Elton John becoming associated with the format.
During what period was adult contemporary its most commercially successful?
56e6c83cde9d371400068038
the mid-to-late 1970s
41
False
What artist released the best selling album of the 1970s?
56e6c83cde9d371400068039
Fleetwood Mac
173
False
In what year was the best selling album of the 1970s released?
56e6c83cde9d37140006803a
1977
203
False
What radio stationed owned by NBC played only soft rock?
56e6c83cde9d37140006803b
WYNY
316
False
Who was a prominent figure at NBC's radio division?
56e6c83cde9d37140006803c
Walter Sabo
480
False
Soft rock reached its commercial peak in the mid-to-late 1970s with acts such as Toto, England Dan & John Ford Coley, Air Supply, Seals and Crofts, America and the reformed Fleetwood Mac, whose Rumours (1977) was the best-selling album of the decade. By 1977, some radio stations, like New York's WTFM and NBC-owned WYNY, had switched to an all-soft rock format. By the 1980s, tastes had changed and radio formats reflected this change, including musical artists such as Journey. Walter Sabo and his team at NBC brought in major personalities from the AM Band to the FM Band taking the format from a background to a foreground listening experience. The addition of major radio stars such as Dan Daniel, Steve O'Brien, Dick Summers, Don Bleu and Tom Parker made it possible to fully monetize the format and provide the foundation for financial success enjoyed to this day
What genre of music was was listening to by a different demographic than hard rock?
56e6c8a5de9d371400068042
disco
207
False
In what decade did genres begin to diverge on the basis of demographic groups?
56e6c8a5de9d371400068043
1970s
107
False
Radio stations played Top 40 hits regardless of genre; although, most were in the same genre until the mid-1970s when different forms of popular music started to target different demographic groups, such as disco vs. hard rock. This evolved into specialized radio stations that played specific genres of music, and generally followed the evolution of artists in those genres.
Along with Linda Ronstadt, Elton John, Rod Stewart and Elvis Presley, what rock musician sometimes had songs featured on adult contemporary radio?
56e6c91cde9d371400068046
Billy Joel
341
False
During what period were artists like Anne Murray and Barbra Streisand featured on Top 40 radio?
56e6c91cde9d371400068047
the early 1970s
3
False
By the early 1970s, softer songs by artists like The Carpenters, Anne Murray, John Denver, Barry Manilow, and even Streisand, began to be played more often on "Top 40" radio and others were added to the mix on many AC stations. Also, some of these stations even played softer songs by Elvis Presley, Linda Ronstadt, Elton John, Rod Stewart, Billy Joel, and other rock-based artists.
Along with rock and roll, what genre of music was sometimes featured on Easy Listening radio?
56e6c9946fe0821900b8eb70
R&B
311
False
What genre of music was surprisingly successful on adult contemporary radio?
56e6c9946fe0821900b8eb71
disco
343
False
What type of musicians were artists such as Diana Ross, James Taylor, Carly Simon, Carole King and Janis Ian?
56e6c9946fe0821900b8eb72
singer-songwriters
30
False
Much of the music recorded by singer-songwriters such as Diana Ross, James Taylor, Carly Simon, Carole King and Janis Ian got as much, if not more, airplay on this format than on Top 40 stations. Easy Listening radio also began including songs by artists who had begun in other genres, such as rock and roll or R&B. In addition, several early disco songs, did well on the Adult Contemporary format.
When did the Adult Contemporary chart receive its current name?
56e6c9fc6fe0821900b8eb76
April 7, 1979
3
False
What was the Adult Contemporary chart previously known as?
56e6c9fc6fe0821900b8eb77
the Easy Listening chart
18
False
Along with rap/hip-hop, what genre of music were aging listeners not as interested in?
56e6c9fc6fe0821900b8eb78
heavy metal
432
False
During what decade did adult contemporary become a very popular format for radio?
56e6c9fc6fe0821900b8eb79
1980s
249
False
On April 7, 1979, the Easy Listening chart officially became known as Adult Contemporary, and those two words have remained consistent in the name of the chart ever since. Adult contemporary music became one of the most popular radio formats of the 1980s. The growth of AC was a natural result of the generation that first listened to the more "specialized" music of the mid-late 1970s growing older and not being interested in the heavy metal and rap/hip-hop music that a new generation helped to play a significant role in the Top 40 charts by the end of the decade.
Along with Richard Marx, Bonnie Tyler, George Michael, Phil Collins, and Laura Branigan, what artist was also frequently played on Contemporary Hit Radio stations?
56e6cac0de9d37140006804a
Michael Jackson
381
False
What television station was responsible for the increasing success of Contemporary Hit Radio artists on the AC charts?
56e6cac0de9d37140006804b
MTV
291
False
Along with Barbra Streisand, the Carpenters, Dionne Warwick, Barry Manilow and Olivia Newton-John, what adult contemporary staple found it more difficult to score chart hits in the 1980s?
56e6cac0de9d37140006804c
John Denver
163
False
Who did Allmusic refer to as "one of the most successful pop and adult contemporary singers of the '80s and beyond"?
56e6cac0de9d37140006804d
Phil Collins
428
False
Mainstream AC itself has evolved in a similar fashion over the years; traditional AC artists like Barbra Streisand, the Carpenters, Dionne Warwick, Barry Manilow, John Denver, and Olivia Newton-John found it harder to have major Top 40 hits as the 1980s wore on, and due to the influence of MTV, artists who were staples of the Contemporary Hit Radio format, such as Richard Marx, Michael Jackson, Bonnie Tyler, George Michael, Phil Collins, and Laura Branigan began crossing over to the AC charts with greater frequency. Collins has been described by AllMusic as "one of the most successful pop and adult contemporary singers of the '80s and beyond". However, with the combination of MTV and AC radio, adult contemporary appeared harder to define as a genre, with established soft-rock artists of the past still charting pop hits and receiving airplay alongside mainstream radio fare from newer artists at the time.
In the 1970s, what two genres were not particularly successful on the adult contemporary charts?
56e6cb55de9d371400068052
disco or new wave
170
False
What genres, featured on the CHR radio format, were rarely found on adult contemporary radio?
56e6cb55de9d371400068053
hip-hop and harder rock music
294
False
During what decade did hip-hop begin to be featured on the radio?
56e6cb55de9d371400068054
1980s
271
False
The amount of crossover between the AC chart and the Hot 100 has varied based on how much the passing pop music trends of the times appealed to adult listeners. Not many disco or new wave songs were particularly successful on the AC chart during the late 1970s and early 1980s, and much of the hip-hop and harder rock music featured on CHR formats later in the decade would have been unacceptable on AC radio.
Along with electronic pop, what type of music was the most successful in the 1980s?
56e6cbe0de9d371400068058
ballad-oriented rock
44
False
What genre did the music of Billy Ocean belong to?
56e6cbe0de9d371400068059
soft rock
86
False
What was the longest that a song spent at #1 on the adult contemporary charts in the 1980s?
56e6cbe0de9d37140006805a
six weeks
319
False
In what year did Lionel Richie record "You Are"?
56e6cbe0de9d37140006805b
1983
457
False
Aside from the adult contemporary chart, on what other chart did Lionel Richie's "Hello" reach the top spot?
56e6cbe0de9d37140006805c
Hot 100
512
False
Although dance-oriented, electronic pop and ballad-oriented rock dominated the 1980s, soft rock songs still enjoyed a mild success thanks to artists like Sheena Easton, Amy Grant, Lionel Richie, Christopher Cross, Dan Hill, Leo Sayer, Billy Ocean, Julio Iglesias, Bertie Higgins and Tommy Page. No song spent more than six weeks at #1 on this chart during the 1980s, with nine songs accomplishing that feat. Two of these were by Lionel Richie, "You Are" in 1983 and "Hello" in 1984, which also reached #1 on the Hot 100.
What artist issued the album known as "the first true Adult Contemporary album of the decade"?
56e6cc5d6fe0821900b8eb7e
Linda Ronstadt
9
False
In what year was the album Cry Like a Rainstorm, Howl Like the Wind released?
56e6cc5d6fe0821900b8eb7f
1989
3
False
What male singer featured on several songs from Cry Like a Rainstorm, Howl Like the Wind?
56e6cc5d6fe0821900b8eb80
Aaron Neville
187
False
What certification did Cry Like a Rainstorm, Howl Like the Wind receive?
56e6cc5d6fe0821900b8eb81
Triple Platinum
258
False
Along with "Don't Know Much," what single won a Grammy?
56e6cc5d6fe0821900b8eb82
"All My Life"
406
False
In 1989, Linda Ronstadt released Cry Like a Rainstorm, Howl Like the Wind, described by critics as "the first true Adult Contemporary album of the decade", featuring American soul singer Aaron Neville on several of the twelve tracks. The album was certified Triple Platinum in the United States alone and became a major success throughout the globe. The Grammy Award-winning singles, "Don't Know Much" and "All My Life", were both long-running #1 Adult Contemporary hits. Several additional singles from the disc made the AC Top 10 as well. The album won over many critics in the need to define AC, and appeared to change the tolerance and acceptance of AC music into mainstream day to day radio play.
What decade saw the emergence of alternative rock?
56e6ccc56fe0821900b8eb88
1990s
10
False
What happened to urban R&B in the early 1990s?
56e6ccc56fe0821900b8eb89
softening
27
False
The resurgence of traditional pop was one of the factors that led to what change in the music market?
56e6ccc56fe0821900b8eb8a
widening of the market
164
False
The early 1990s marked the softening of urban R&B at the same time alternative rock emerged and traditional pop saw a significant resurgence. This in part led to a widening of the market, not only allowing to cater to more niche markets, but it also became customary for artists to make AC-friendly singles.
Mainstream artists from what decade generally did not have success on the adult contemporary charts?
56e6cd4bde9d371400068062
1980s
23
False
Along with All-4-One, Boyz II Men, Rob Thomas, Christina Aguilera and Backstreet Boys, what 90s artists were notable in the pop/R&B genre?
56e6cd4bde9d371400068063
Savage Garden
170
False
What genre of music did Lynda Thomas, Ricky Martin, Selena, Marc Anthony, Enrique Iglesias and Luis Miguel make?
56e6cd4bde9d371400068064
Latin pop
225
False
Unlike the majority of 1980s mainstream singers, the 1990s mainstream pop/R&B singers such as All-4-One, Boyz II Men, Rob Thomas, Christina Aguilera, Backstreet Boys and Savage Garden generally crossed over to the AC charts. Latin pop artists such as Lynda Thomas, Ricky Martin, Marc Anthony, Selena, Enrique Iglesias and Luis Miguel also enjoyed success in the AC charts.
What milestone did Celine Dion, Mariah Carey, Phil Collins, Michael Bolton, Whitney Houston and Shania Twain share on the 1990s adult contemporary charts?
56e6ce1bde9d371400068068
multiple number ones
94
False
Along with Sarah McLachlan, Natalie Merchant, Melissa Etheridge and Sheryl Crow, what female singer-songwriter had chart success in the 1990s?
56e6ce1bde9d371400068069
Jewel
305
False
On what chart did Whitney Houston see success?
56e6ce1bde9d37140006806a
AC
122
False
In addition to Celine Dion, who has had significant success on this chart, other artists with multiple number ones on the AC chart in the 1990s include Mariah Carey, Phil Collins, Michael Bolton, Whitney Houston and Shania Twain. Newer female singer-songwriters such as Sarah McLachlan, Natalie Merchant, Jewel, Melissa Etheridge and Sheryl Crow also broke through on the AC chart during this time.
What was the name of the chart created by Billboard in 1996?
56e6ceb06fe0821900b8eb8e
Adult Top 40
46
False
Adult Top 40 represented a midpoint between what two radio formats?
56e6ceb06fe0821900b8eb8f
"adult contemporary" music and "pop" music
135
False
What chart is the Adult Top 40 chart sometimes confused with?
56e6ceb06fe0821900b8eb90
Adult Contemporary
236
False
What radio programming genre is sometimes confused with the Hot Adult Contemporary Tracks chart?
56e6ceb06fe0821900b8eb91
hot AC
378
False
In 1996, Billboard created a new chart called Adult Top 40, which reflects programming on radio stations that exists somewhere between "adult contemporary" music and "pop" music. Although they are sometimes mistaken for each other, the Adult Contemporary chart and the Adult Top 40 chart are separate charts, and songs reaching one chart might not reach the other. In addition, hot AC is another subgenre of radio programming that is distinct from the Hot Adult Contemporary Tracks chart as it exists today, despite the apparent similarity in name.
Who invented the term "urban adult contemporary format"?
56e6cf636fe0821900b8eb96
Barry Mayo
159
False
What demographic group is the urban adult contemporary format marketed to?
56e6cf636fe0821900b8eb97
African Americans
206
False
What style of singing is absent from R&B played on urban adult contemporary format stations?
56e6cf636fe0821900b8eb98
rapping
315
False
Along with R&B, gospel and dance music, what type of music is represented on urban adult contemporary stations?
56e6cf636fe0821900b8eb99
classic soul
339
False
Urban adult contemporary music came into being because of pressure on what previously existing format?
56e6cf636fe0821900b8eb9a
Hot AC
31
False
In response to the pressure on Hot AC, a new kind of AC format cropped up among American radio recently. The urban adult contemporary format (a term coined by Barry Mayo) usually attracts a large number of African Americans and sometimes Caucasian listeners through playing a great deal of R&B (without any form of rapping), gospel music, classic soul and dance music (including disco).
Who performed the song "Unbreak My Heart"?
56e6d3336fe0821900b8ebaa
Toni Braxton
312
False
What is the name of a notable dance artist along with C&C Music Factory and Black Box?
56e6d3336fe0821900b8ebab
Amber
198
False
What radio station format plays soft AC, hot AC, disco and dance?
56e6d3336fe0821900b8ebac
rhythmic AC
16
False
What artist notably remixed "Unbreak My Heart"?
56e6d3336fe0821900b8ebad
Soul Solution
291
False
Another format, rhythmic AC, in addition to playing all the popular hot and soft AC music, past and present, places a heavy emphasis on disco as well as 1980s and 1990s dance hits, such as those by Amber, C&C Music Factory and Black Box, and includes dance remixes of pop songs, such as the Soul Solution mix of Toni Braxton's "Unbreak My Heart".
What radio station format was sometimes regarded as a type of adult contemporary?
56e6d441de9d37140006806e
smooth jazz
37
False
What type of music was predominantly played on smooth jazz stations?
56e6d441de9d37140006806f
instrumental
114
False
Along with Kenny G and Dave Koz, what artist was featured on smooth jazz stations?
56e6d441de9d371400068070
George Benson
221
False
What other format of station were smooth jazz artists sometimes featured on?
56e6d441de9d371400068071
soft AC
170
False
In its early years of existence, the smooth jazz format was considered to be a form of AC, although it was mainly instrumental, and related a stronger resemblance to the soft AC-styled music. For many years, artists like George Benson, Kenny G and Dave Koz had crossover hits that were played on both smooth jazz and soft AC stations.
What is Adrian Moreira's job title?
56e6d7086fe0821900b8ebbc
senior vice president for adult music
192
False
For what company does Adrian Moreira work?
56e6d7086fe0821900b8ebbd
RCA Music Group
234
False
Who wrote, "In other words, AC stations are where pop songs go to die a very long death. Or, to optimists, to get a second life"?
56e6d7086fe0821900b8ebbe
Corey Moss
511
False
Where was Corey Moss' article published?
56e6d7086fe0821900b8ebbf
MTV's website
494
False
When do adult contemporary stations begin to play Top 40 songs?
56e6d7086fe0821900b8ebc0
after the hits had become established
441
False
A notable pattern that developed during the 2000s and 2010s has been for certain pop songs to have lengthy runs on AC charts, even after the songs have fallen off the Hot 100. Adrian Moreira, senior vice president for adult music for RCA Music Group, said, "We've seen a fairly tidal shift in what AC will play". Rather than emphasizing older songs, adult contemporary was playing many of the same songs as top 40 and adult top 40, but only after the hits had become established. An article on MTV's website by Corey Moss describes this trend: "In other words, AC stations are where pop songs go to die a very long death. Or, to optimists, to get a second life."
Who have hot AC format radio stations had to change the music they play?
56e6d7856fe0821900b8ebc6
less and less new music fits their bill
354
False
By what two genres are modern pop songs heavily influenced?
56e6d7856fe0821900b8ebc7
dance-pop and electronic dance music
495
False
Why is new rock not suitable for mainstream radio?
56e6d7856fe0821900b8ebc8
too alternative
412
False
With the mixture of radio friendly AC tunes with some rock and pop fare also landing on the pop charts, mainstream songs won over many critics in the need to define AC, and appeared to change the tolerance and acceptance of AC music into mainstream day to day radio play. Part of the reason why more and more hot AC stations are forced to change is that less and less new music fits their bill; most new rock is too alternative for mainstream radio and most new pop is now influenced heavily by dance-pop and electronic dance music.
What was the name of DJ Sammy's mix of "Heaven"?
56e6d8036fe0821900b8ebcc
the "Candlelight Mix"
127
False
Who recorded the song "Listen To Your Heart"?
56e6d8036fe0821900b8ebcd
D.H.T.
209
False
Who is known for the song "Everytime We Touch"?
56e6d8036fe0821900b8ebce
Cascada
245
False
What artist performed the song "Forget You"?
56e6d8036fe0821900b8ebcf
Cee Lo Green
385
False
What version of P!nk's "Perfect" appeared on adult contemporary radio in 2011?
56e6d8036fe0821900b8ebd0
edited
328
False
A popular trend in this era was remixing dance music hits into adult contemporary ballads, especially in the US, (for example, the "Candlelight Mix" versions of "Heaven" by DJ Sammy, "Listen To Your Heart" by D.H.T., and "Everytime We Touch" by Cascada). Adult contemporary has long characterized itself as family-friendly, but edited versions of "Perfect" by P!nk and "Forget You" by Cee Lo Green showed up in the format in 2011.
Along with Josh Groban, what notable pop artist started out his career on adult contemporary radio?
56e6d8a1de9d371400068076
Michael Bublé
92
False
What sort of sound does the music of Susan Boyle have?
56e6d8a1de9d371400068077
ballad heavy
336
False
Along with Faith Hill, Shania Twain and LeAnn Rimes, what country artist has had adult contemporary hits?
56e6d8a1de9d371400068078
Carrie Underwood
565
False
What genre of music has soft AC found common ground with?
56e6d8a1de9d371400068079
country
467
False
While most artists became established in other formats before moving to adult contemporary, Michael Bublé and Josh Groban started out as AC artists. Throughout this decade, artists such as Nick Lachey, James Blunt, John Mayer, Bruno Mars, Jason Mraz, Kelly Clarkson, Adele, Clay Aiken and Susan Boyle have become successful thanks to a ballad heavy sound. Much as some hot AC and modern rock artists have crossed over into each other, so too has soft AC crossed with country music in this decade. Country musicians such as Faith Hill, Shania Twain, LeAnn Rimes and Carrie Underwood have had success on both charts.
What genre of music are bands like Feist and Wilco?
56e6d8f9de9d37140006807e
indie rock
81
False
Along with Mumford & Sons, Of Monsters & Men, Ed Sheeran and The Lumineers, what indie artist has had adult contemporary success?
56e6d8f9de9d37140006807f
Imagine Dragons
175
False
In what decade did indie musicians first began getting attention from the adult contemporary audience?
56e6d8f9de9d371400068080
2000s
14
False
Since the mid-2000s, the mainstreaming of bands like Wilco and Feist have pushed indie rock into the adult contemporary conversation. In the early 2010s, indie musicians like Imagine Dragons, Mumford & Sons, Of Monsters & Men, The Lumineers and Ed Sheeran also had indie songs that crossed over to the adult contemporary charts.
Along with the recession, what broad economic trend marked the decline of adult contemporary radio stations?
56e6d988de9d371400068084
the 2005-2007 economic downturn
114
False
Along with CHR, Top 40 and Latino, what format have former AC stations transitioned to?
56e6d988de9d371400068085
urban
241
False
What AC format is still viable?
56e6d988de9d371400068086
hot AC
26
False
Declining sales of what items harmed the adult contemporary genre?
56e6d988de9d371400068087
physical record
284
False
The consolidation of the "hot AC" format contrasted with the near-demise of most other AC formats: Beginning with the 2005-2007 economic downturn and eventual recession most stations went for the more chart-based CHR, along with the top 40, urban and even Latino formats. Diminishing physical record sales also proved a major blow to the AC genre.
Generally speaking, what is the earliest decade represented by the "oldies" on soft AC stations?
56e6da02de9d37140006808c
1960s
208
False
Along with R&B, pop and rock, what genre of music is represented on modern soft AC stations?
56e6da02de9d37140006808d
jazz
244
False
What genre of music do new songs on soft AC stations often belong to?
56e6da02de9d37140006808e
"easy listening"
317
False
During what period did soft AC stations attempt to reinvent themselves?
56e6da02de9d37140006808f
the late 2000s/early 2010s
39
False
The "soft" AC format has reinvented in the late 2000s/early 2010s as a result of its declining relevance, adopting a more upmarket, middle-of-the-road approach, with a selection of "oldies" (usually from the 1960s/70s onwards), primarily rock, jazz, R&B and pop music. Newer songs are more often (but not limited to) "easy listening" fare, this amount varying depending on the age of the station's target demographic.
What radio format was described as being "the acoustic equivalent to Prozac"?
56e6daae6fe0821900b8ebe0
soft adult contemporary
44
False
What decade saw the birth of the soft adult contemporary format?
56e6daae6fe0821900b8ebe1
1970s
127
False
What radio station introduced the term "soft rock"?
56e6daae6fe0821900b8ebe2
WEEI-FM
162
False
Where was the station that introduced the term "soft rock" based?
56e6daae6fe0821900b8ebe3
Boston
173
False
What processed meat, featured in WEEI-FM's ad slogan, rhymes with Joni?
56e6daae6fe0821900b8ebe4
baloney
319
False
Termed "the acoustic equivalent to Prozac", soft adult contemporary, a more adult-oriented version of AC, was born in the late 1970s and grew in the early 1980s. WEEI-FM in Boston was the first station to use the term "soft rock", with ad slogans such as, "Fleetwood Mac ... without the yack" and "Joni ... without the baloney". The vast majority of music played on soft AC stations is mellow, more acoustic, and primarily solo vocalists.
In what country is soft adult contemporary called "EZ Rock"?
56e6db4d6fe0821900b8ebea
Canada
96
False
Along with MOR, easy listening and soft rock, what format is soft adult contemporary a successor to?
56e6db4d6fe0821900b8ebeb
beautiful music
223
False
What occupation is stereotypical held by soft adult contemporary listeners?
56e6db4d6fe0821900b8ebec
office workers
342
False
What advertising demographic is soft adult contemporary marketed towards?
56e6db4d6fe0821900b8ebed
females aged 25–54
371
False
What station first introduced the tagline "everyone at work can agree on"?
56e6db4d6fe0821900b8ebee
KOST
488
False
Other popular names for the format include "Warm", "Sunny", "Bee" (or "B") and (particularly in Canada) "EZ Rock". The format can be seen as a more contemporary successor to and combination of the middle of the road (MOR), beautiful music, easy listening and soft rock formats. Many stations in the soft AC format capitalize on its appeal to office workers (many of them females aged 25–54, a key advertiser demographic), and brand themselves as stations "everyone at work can agree on" (KOST originated that phrase as a primary tagline, and other soft AC stations have followed suit).
Along with romantic and sexual relationships, family and work, what do soft adult contemporary songs sometimes discuss?
56e6dbd66fe0821900b8ebf4
raising children
199
False
Music from what two decades is notably featured on the soft AC format?
56e6dbd66fe0821900b8ebf5
1960s and 1970s
524
False
Along with classic R&B, what genre is notably featured on soft AC stations?
56e6dbd66fe0821900b8ebf6
soul
514
False
What radio station format is soft AC often contrasted with?
56e6dbd66fe0821900b8ebf7
hot AC
552
False
A large portion of music played on this format are either considered oldies or recurrent. It often deals with modern romantic and sexual relationships (and sometimes other adult themes such as work, raising children, and family) in a thoughtful and complex way. Soft AC, which has never minded keeping songs in high rotation literally for years in some cases, does not appear necessarily to be facing similar pressures to expand its format. Soft AC includes a larger amount of older music, especially classic R&B, soul, and 1960s and 1970s music, than hot AC.
What radio station formats faced demographic pressures in the 1960s and 70s?
56e6dd2bde9d37140006809c
jazz and big band
73
False
What radio station format is facing demographic pressures in the present day?
56e6dd2bde9d37140006809d
oldies
141
False
What radio station format have many of the former soft AC artists moved to?
56e6dd2bde9d37140006809e
adult standards
412
False
Certain soft AC stations have found a niche on the radio by doing what?
56e6dd2bde9d37140006809f
incorporating more oldies
540
False
Why are adult standards format radio stations declining?
56e6dd2bde9d3714000680a0
aging demographics
476
False
The soft AC format may soon be facing the demographic pressures that the jazz and big band formats faced in the 1960s and 1970s and that the oldies format is starting to face today, with the result that one may hear soft AC less on over-the-air radio and more on satellite radio systems in coming years. Much of the music and artists that were traditionally played on soft AC stations have been relegated to the adult standards format, which is itself disappearing because of aging demographics. Some soft AC stations have found a niche by incorporating more oldies into their playlists and are more open to playing softer songs that fit the "traditional" definition of AC.
Along with Andy Williams, Johnny Mathis, Nana Mouskouri, Celine Dion, Julio Iglesias, Barry Manilow, Engelbert Humperdinck, and Marc Anthony, what notable artist is featured on the soft AC format?
56e6dd64de9d3714000680a6
Frank Sinatra
157
False
Artists contributing to this format include mainly soft rock/pop singers such as, Andy Williams, Johnny Mathis, Nana Mouskouri, Celine Dion, Julio Iglesias, Frank Sinatra, Barry Manilow, Engelbert Humperdinck, and Marc Anthony.
Along with classic hits, what type of music do hot adult contemporary stations feature?
56e6de2cde9d3714000680b2
contemporary mainstream music
73
False
What is the primary audience of hot adult contemporary format stations?
56e6de2cde9d3714000680b3
adult
4
False
What demographic do hot AC stations featuring more pop and alternative rock focus on?
56e6de2cde9d3714000680b4
Generation Z
226
False
Along with urban and rhythmic dance tracks, what genre is featured on hot AC stations with a younger audience?
56e6de2cde9d3714000680b5
teen pop
293
False
Hot adult contemporary radio stations play a variety of classic hits and contemporary mainstream music aimed at an adult audience. Some Hot AC stations concentrate slightly more on pop music and alternative rock to target the Generation Z audience, though they include the more youth-oriented teen pop, urban and rhythmic dance tracks.
Madonna, Cher, Gloria Estefan and Kylie Minogue are artists in what genre of music?
56e6df336fe0821900b8ec10
dance-pop
27
False
What type of band are Backstreet Boys and Westlife?
56e6df336fe0821900b8ec11
boybands
134
False
What genre of music is played by Westlife?
56e6df336fe0821900b8ec12
power pops
112
False
What genre of music is played by The Eagles?
56e6df336fe0821900b8ec13
soft rock
201
False
What is the target age range of Hot AC stations?
56e6df336fe0821900b8ec14
18-54
399
False
This format often includes dance-pop (such as upbeat songs by Madonna, Cher, Gloria Estefan and Kylie Minogue), power pops (mainly by boybands such as Backstreet Boys and Westlife), and adult-oriented soft rock music that are ballad-driven (typically by Aerosmith[citation needed], The Eagles, Sting, Toto and The Moody Blues). Generally, Hot AC radio stations target their music output towards the 18-54 age group and a demographic audience of both men and women.
What station did Mike Marino work for in 1997?
56e6efa9de9d3714000680ba
KMXB
133
False
Where was the radio station KMXB based in 1997?
56e6efa9de9d3714000680bb
Las Vegas
141
False
What age demographic is modern rock radio focused on?
56e6efa9de9d3714000680bc
18-34
571
False
What is the sex of the listeners modern rock radio is geared towards?
56e6efa9de9d3714000680bd
men
577
False
Unlike modern rock radio, what sex is adult contemporary radio said to appeal to?
56e6efa9de9d3714000680be
women
606
False
Modern adult contemporary can be a variation of hot AC, and includes modern rock titles in its presentation. In 1997, Mike Marino of KMXB in Las Vegas described the format as reaching "an audience that has outgrown the edgier hip-hop or alternative music but hasn't gotten old and sappy enough for the soft ACs." The format's artists included Alanis Morissette, Counting Crows, Gin Blossoms, Bon Jovi, Train, No Doubt, The Script, The Cranberries, Lifehouse, Sarah McLachlan, Sara Bareilles, John Mayer, Jewel, and Ingrid Michaelson. Unlike modern rock, which went after 18-34 men, this format appealed to women.
What age group is Urban AC focused towards?
56e6f11ade9d3714000680c4
adult
46
False
What race is the target demographic of Urban AC radio?
56e6f11ade9d3714000680c5
African-American
52
False
Who is an example of an artist played on Urban AC format radio stations?
56e6f11ade9d3714000680c6
Des'ree
171
False
What is the name of the popular album released by Des'ree?
56e6f11ade9d3714000680c7
I Ain't Movin'
192
False
What is the ethnicity of artists commonly played on urban adult contemporary radio?
56e6f11ade9d3714000680c8
black
156
False
Urban AC is a form of AC music geared towards adult African-American audiences, and therefore, the artists that are played on these stations are most often black, such as Des'ree, whose album I Ain't Movin' was massively popular amongst both African American audience as well as the wider national audience.
What other adult contemporary radio format is urban AC similar to?
56e6f3236fe0821900b8ec4a
soft AC
31
False
What genre of music is not played frequently on urban AC?
56e6f3236fe0821900b8ec4b
hip-hop
114
False
What two genres of music are popular on urban AC?
56e6f3236fe0821900b8ec4c
R&B and soul music
83
False
Along with Trey Songz, Patti LaBelle, Toni Braxton, Whitney Houston, Aretha Franklin, Frank Ocean, Craig David and Mariah Carey, who is a well-known urban AC artist?
56e6f3236fe0821900b8ec4d
Luther Vandross
339
False
What adult contemporary radio format is urban AC not similar to?
56e6f3236fe0821900b8ec4e
hot AC
51
False
The urban AC stations resemble soft AC rather than hot AC; they play predominantly R&B and soul music with little hip-hop. This is reflected in many of the urban AC radio stations' taglines, such as "Today's R&B and classic soul", "The best variety of R&B hits and oldies" and "(City/Region)'s R&B leader". Urban AC's core artists include Luther Vandross, Trey Songz, Patti LaBelle, Toni Braxton, Whitney Houston, Aretha Franklin, Frank Ocean, Craig David and Mariah Carey.
What radio format is similar to urban AC but features older soul and R&B songs?
56e6f3976fe0821900b8ec54
rhythmic oldies
41
False
What is the earliest decade of music typically featured on the rhythmic oldies format?
56e6f3976fe0821900b8ec55
1960s
132
False
What is the most recent decade music from which music can be heard on a rhythmic oldies station?
56e6f3976fe0821900b8ec56
1990s
145
False
What is the target demographic of the rhythmic oldies format?
56e6f3976fe0821900b8ec57
African-Americans
391
False
A more elaborate form of urban AC is the rhythmic oldies format, which focuses primarily on "old school" R&B and soul hits from the 1960s to the 1990s, including Motown and disco hits. The format includes soul or disco artists such as ABBA, The Village People, The Jackson 5, Donna Summer, Tina Charles, Gloria Gaynor and the Bee Gees. Rhythmic oldies stations still exist today, but target African-Americans as opposed to a mass audience.
What radio format consists of ballads and slow jams?
56e6f41a6fe0821900b8ec64
quiet storm
16
False
What is the name of the radio format that is a mixture of urban and soft adult contemporary?
56e6f41a6fe0821900b8ec65
quiet storm
16
False
At what time of day is the quiet storm format played?
56e6f41a6fe0821900b8ec66
the evening
102
False
What is the typical ethnicity of artists played on quiet storm stations?
56e6f41a6fe0821900b8ec67
Black and Latino
252
False
Along with Freddie Jackson, Johnny Gill, Teena Marie, Lalah Hathaway, Toni Braxton, and En Vogue, what artist is popular on quiet storm stations?
56e6f41a6fe0821900b8ec68
Vanessa L. Williams
383
False
A format called quiet storm is often included in urban adult contemporary, and is often played during the evening, blending the urban AC and soft AC styles of music. The music that is played is strictly ballads and slow jams, mostly but not limited to Black and Latino artists. Popular artists in the quiet storm format are Teena Marie, Freddie Jackson, Johnny Gill, Lalah Hathaway, Vanessa L. Williams, Toni Braxton, and En Vogue among others.
Along with urban adult contemporary and smooth jazz, what station format might feature music from Sade?
56e6f47d6fe0821900b8ec6e
mainstream AC
97
False
What other format is sometimes played on urban AC stations?
56e6f47d6fe0821900b8ec6f
smooth jazz
125
False
When might you hear smooth jazz on a soft AC station?
56e6f47d6fe0821900b8ec70
the weekends
211
False
What is a more recent name for the smooth jazz format?
56e6f47d6fe0821900b8ec71
Smooth AC
285
False
What was the smooth jazz format renamed?
56e6f47d6fe0821900b8ec72
to lure younger listeners
310
False
Anita Baker, Sade, Regina Belle, and Luther Vandross are other examples of artists who appeal to mainstream AC, urban AC and smooth jazz listeners. Some soft AC and urban AC stations like to play smooth jazz on the weekends. In recent years, the Smooth Jazz format has been renamed to Smooth AC, as an attempt to lure younger listeners.
Along with soft AC, on what station format might adult contemporary R&B be featured?
56e6f4fdde9d3714000680e2
urban AC
66
False
What features are emphasized in adult contemporary R&B music?
56e6f4fdde9d3714000680e3
songcraft and sophistication
129
False
Along with smooth soul and quiet storm, what genre influenced adult contemporary R&B?
56e6f4fdde9d3714000680e4
Philly soul
365
False
During what decade was smooth soul popular?
56e6f4fdde9d3714000680e5
1970s
332
False
Along with drum machines and synthesizers, what electronic instruments are often found in modern R&B-based music?
56e6f4fdde9d3714000680e6
sequencers
206
False
Adult contemporary R&B may be played on both soft AC stations and urban AC. It is a form of neo soul R&B that places emphasis on songcraft and sophistication. As the use of drum machines, synthesizers, and sequencers dominates R&B-rooted music, adult contemporary R&B tends to take most of its cues from the more refined strains of 1970s soul, such as smooth soul, Philly soul and quiet storm. Classic songwriting touches and organic-leaning instrumentation, often featuring string arrangements and horn charts, were constants.
What genre of music did Patti Austin perform?
56e6f651de9d3714000680f6
jazz-R&B fusion
19
False
Of what genre was the musician Keith Sweat?
56e6f651de9d3714000680f7
crossover R&B
89
False
During what decade were musicians like Al Jarreau and Luther Vandross notably successful?
56e6f651de9d3714000680f8
1980s
7
False
What type of songs was Leona Lewis known for?
56e6f651de9d3714000680f9
ballads
318
False
Who wrote Boyz II Men's I'll Make Love to You?
56e6f651de9d3714000680fa
Babyface
511
False
In the 1980s, lush jazz-R&B fusion (George Benson, Patti Austin, Al Jarreau) and stylish crossover R&B (Anita Baker and Luther Vandross, New Edition and Keith Sweat) were equally successful within the mainstream. In the 1990s and early 2000s (decade), artists as sonically contrasting as R. Kelly, Leona Lewis (mainly ballads) and Jill Scott both fit the bill, provided the audience for the material was mature. By riding and contributing to nearly all of the trends, no one has exemplified the style more than Babyface, whose career thrived over 20 years as a member of the Deele (Two Occasions), a solo artist (Whip Appeal, When Can I See You), and a songwriter/producer (Toni Braxton's Breathe Again, Boyz II Men's I'll Make Love to You).
What is CCM an acronym of?
56e6f6e0de9d371400068100
Contemporary Christian music
0
False
What genre of music is performed by MercyMe?
56e6f6e0de9d371400068101
Christian AC
69
False
What publication includes Christian AC with its format charts?
56e6f6e0de9d371400068102
Radio & Records
84
False
Along with mainstream AC, what format has also featured Christian AC artists on a crossover basis?
56e6f6e0de9d371400068103
hot AC
202
False
Contemporary Christian music (CCM) has several subgenres, one being "Christian AC". Radio & Records, for instance, lists Christian AC among its format charts. There has been crossover to mainstream and hot AC formats by many of the core artists of the Christian AC genre, notably Amy Grant, Michael W. Smith, Kathy Troccoli, Steven Curtis Chapman, Plumb, and more recently, MercyMe.
What AC format is especially known for playing Christmas music in the Christmas season?
56e6f78d6fe0821900b8ec78
soft AC
72
False
During what two months does the Christmas season take place?
56e6f78d6fe0821900b8ec79
November and December
170
False
Along with Bing Crosby, Dean Martin, Nat King Cole, The Carpenters, Percy Faith and Andy Williams, who is an artist played on AC stations around Christmastime but not otherwise?
56e6f78d6fe0821900b8ec7a
Johnny Mathis
498
False
In recent years it has become common for many AC stations, particularly soft AC stations, to play primarily or exclusively Christmas music during the Christmas season in November and December. While these tend mostly to be contemporary seasonal recordings by the same few artists featured under the normal format, most stations will also air some vintage holiday tunes from older pop, MOR, and adult standards artists – such as Nat King Cole, Bing Crosby, Dean Martin, The Carpenters, Percy Faith, Johnny Mathis and Andy Williams – many of whom would never be played on these stations during the rest of the year.
When does Christmas music on AC format stations usually begin?
56e6f84ede9d371400068108
the week before Thanksgiving Day
55
False
When is the earlier of the two times that Christmas music on adult contemporary stations typically ends?
56e6f84ede9d371400068109
after Christmas Day
96
False
When is the later of the two times that Christmas music on adult contemporary stations usually ends?
56e6f84ede9d37140006810a
New Year's Day
143
False
When is the earliest an AC station will switch to a Christmas format?
56e6f84ede9d37140006810b
the beginning of November
283
False
What two formats pioneered the Christmas music tradition in the 1960s?
56e6f84ede9d37140006810c
beautiful music and easy listening
364
False
These Christmas music marathons typically start during the week before Thanksgiving Day and end after Christmas Day, or sometimes extending to New Year's Day. Afterwards, the stations usually resume their normal music fare. Several stations begin the holiday format much earlier, at the beginning of November. The roots of this tradition can be traced back to the beautiful music and easy listening stations of the 1960s and 1970s.
Daylight_saving_time
What term is used interchangeably with daylight saving time?
56e6fca46fe0821900b8ec7e
summer time
30
False
What period of time do we set our clocks forward in DST?
56e6fca46fe0821900b8ec7f
one hour
102
False
What do we get an extra hour of because we set the clocks forward?
56e6fca46fe0821900b8ec80
daylight
134
False
In what season do regions who practice DST set the clocks back one hour?
56e6fca46fe0821900b8ec81
autumn
342
False
By setting the clocks forward, the normal time of what daily event is disrupted?
56e6fca46fe0821900b8ec82
sunrise
199
False
Daylight saving time (DST) or summer time is the practice of advancing clocks during summer months by one hour so that in the evening daylight is experienced an hour longer, while sacrificing normal sunrise times. Typically, regions with summer time adjust clocks forward one hour close to the start of spring and adjust them backward in the autumn to standard time.
Who first suggested daylight saving?
56e6fd9cde9d371400068112
George Hudson
14
False
From what country did George Hudson hail?
56e6fd9cde9d371400068113
New Zealand
0
False
In what year was modern daylight saving first proposed?
56e6fd9cde9d371400068114
1895
75
False
Besides Austria-Hungary, what country first put DST into effect?
56e6fd9cde9d371400068115
Germany
81
False
New Zealander George Hudson proposed the modern idea of daylight saving in 1895. Germany and Austria-Hungary organized the first nationwide implementation, starting on 30 April 1916. Many countries have used it at various times since then, particularly since the energy crisis of the 1970s.
What used to be the main draw on electricity?
56e702456fe0821900b8ec88
incandescent lighting
348
False
What industry having to do with shopping benefits from DST?
56e702456fe0821900b8ec89
retailing
87
False
In addition to entertainment events that take place after working hours, what profession might suffer because of DST?
56e702456fe0821900b8ec8a
farming
270
False
Research on DST is uncertain because we aren't sure how it affects the use of what?
56e702456fe0821900b8ec8b
energy
510
False
The practice has received both advocacy and criticism. Putting clocks forward benefits retailing, sports, and other activities that exploit sunlight after working hours, but can cause problems for evening entertainment and for other activities tied to sunlight, such as farming. Although some early proponents of DST aimed to reduce evening use of incandescent lighting, which used to be a primary use of electricity, modern heating and cooling usage patterns differ greatly and research about how DST affects energy use is limited or contradictory.
What can be affected by DST that might disrupt plans for a vacation?
56e708d0de9d37140006811c
travel
66
False
When the clock on your laptop adjusts to DST without you resetting the clock, what is controlling the change?
56e708d0de9d37140006811d
Computer software
153
False
What do jurisdictions sometimes change that mixes up DST dates and times?
56e708d0de9d37140006811e
policy
214
False
What important part of daily life might be disturbed because of DST changing what time you go to bed?
56e708d0de9d37140006811f
sleep patterns
137
False
DST clock shifts sometimes complicate timekeeping and can disrupt travel, billing, record keeping, medical devices, heavy equipment, and sleep patterns. Computer software can often adjust clocks automatically, but policy changes by various jurisdictions of the dates and timings of DST may be confusing.
What kind of societies usually follow a regular daily schedule year-round?
56e70ca06fe0821900b8ecac
Industrialized
0
False
What kind of societies rely on solar time and daylight that changes with the seasons?
56e70ca06fe0821900b8ecad
agrarian
306
False
In what part of the world is daytime shorter in winter and longer in summer?
56e70ca06fe0821900b8ecae
North and south of the tropics
505
False
What is the tilt of the Earth that causes solar time to change called?
56e70ca06fe0821900b8ecb0
axial tilt
493
False
Industrialized societies generally follow a clock-based schedule for daily activities that do not change throughout the course of the year. The time of day that individuals begin and end work or school, and the coordination of mass transit, for example, usually remain constant year-round. In contrast, an agrarian society's daily routines for work and personal conduct are more likely governed by the length of daylight hours and by solar time, which change seasonally because of the Earth's axial tilt. North and south of the tropics daylight lasts longer in summer and shorter in winter, the effect becoming greater as one moves away from the tropics.
How much earlier do people's routines happen because of daylight savings?
56e71ec800c9c71400d76e67
one hour
53
False
In which season is the policy of setting clocks ahead least practical?
56e71ec800c9c71400d76e68
winter
489
False
Does setting the clocks ahead add an hour of daylight before or after the normal workday?
56e71ec800c9c71400d76e69
after
341
False
What is the schedule of time called when it is not daylight savings time?
56e71ec800c9c71400d76e6a
Standard Time
71
False
By synchronously resetting all clocks in a region to one hour ahead of Standard Time (one hour "fast"), individuals who follow such a year-round schedule will wake an hour earlier than they would have otherwise; they will begin and complete daily work routines an hour earlier, and they will have available to them an extra hour of daylight after their workday activities. However, they will have one less hour of daylight at the start of each day, making the policy less practical during winter.
What two sources of energy use do DST proponents say are reduced by the time change?
56e720f137bdd419002c3d77
lighting and heating
326
False
What word describes the approximate rates at which sunset and sunrise change with the seasons?
56e720f137bdd419002c3d78
equal
56
False
Do those who favor DST say people would rather have an extra hour of daylight before or after their usual workday?
56e720f137bdd419002c3d79
after
193
False
Is it the supporters or opponents of Daylight Saving Time who say it significantly reduces energy use?
56e720f137bdd419002c3d7a
Supporters
235
False
While the times of sunrise and sunset change at roughly equal rates as the seasons change, proponents of Daylight Saving Time argue that most people prefer a greater increase in daylight hours after the typical "nine-to-five" workday. Supporters have also argued that DST decreases energy consumption by reducing the need for lighting and heating, but the actual effect on overall energy use is heavily disputed.
What latitudes see more extreme changes in the length of their days and nights throughout the year?
56e722d937bdd419002c3d8b
higher latitudes
28
False
What region of the earth sees little change in daylight from season to season?
56e722d937bdd419002c3d8c
near the equator
411
False
How much impact does the times of daylight and night have on areas like Iceland or Alaska?
56e722d937bdd419002c3d8d
little
90
False
Would observing Daylight Saving Time have a small or large effect on how light it is during the workday in areas at high latitudes?
56e722d937bdd419002c3d8e
small
462
False
As compared to areas with lower latitudes, what kind of change do areas with high latitudes see in the length of day through the seasons?
56e722d937bdd419002c3d8f
extreme
168
False
The manipulation of time at higher latitudes (for example Iceland, Nunavut or Alaska) has little impact on daily life, because the length of day and night changes more extremely throughout the seasons (in comparison to other latitudes), and thus sunrise and sunset times are significantly out of sync with standard working hours regardless of manipulations of the clock. DST is also of little use for locations near the equator, because these regions see only a small variation in daylight in the course of the year.
What kind of clocks did the Romans use?
56e7246337bdd419002c3d9f
water clocks
310
False
What did the Romans call the third hour before sunrise?
56e7246337bdd419002c3da0
hora tertia
426
False
During the summer solstice, for how many minutes did hora tertia last for the Romans?
56e7246337bdd419002c3da2
75
591
False
What type of religious ceremonies are still observed according to the traditional, unequal time settings?
56e7246337bdd419002c3da3
Jewish
827
False
Although they did not fix their schedules to the clock in the modern sense, ancient civilizations adjusted daily schedules to the sun more flexibly than modern DST does, often dividing daylight into twelve hours regardless of day length, so that each daylight hour was longer during summer. For example, Roman water clocks had different scales for different months of the year: at Rome's latitude the third hour from sunrise, hora tertia, started by modern standards at 09:02 solar time and lasted 44 minutes at the winter solstice, but at the summer solstice it started at 06:58 and lasted 75 minutes. After ancient times, equal-length civil hours eventually supplanted unequal, so civil time no longer varies by season. Unequal hours are still used in a few traditional settings, such as some Mount Athos monasteries and all Jewish ceremonies.
Who first published the proverb about waking up early and going to bed early to be "healthy, wealthy, and wise"?
56e726f600c9c71400d76ebb
Benjamin Franklin
48
False
Which group of people did Franklin say would save candles by waking up earlier?
56e726f600c9c71400d76ebc
Parisians
226
False
In what year did Ben Franklin write a satire suggesting firing cannons at sunrise to wake people up?
56e726f600c9c71400d76ebd
1784
305
False
What kind of transportation network helped encourage keeping more exact schedules?
56e726f600c9c71400d76ebe
rail
595
False
In addition to cannon fire, what did Franklin suggest to act as Parisians' alarm clock?
56e726f600c9c71400d76ebf
ringing church bells
387
False
During his time as an American envoy to France, Benjamin Franklin, publisher of the old English proverb, "Early to bed, and early to rise, makes a man healthy, wealthy and wise", anonymously published a letter suggesting that Parisians economize on candles by rising earlier to use morning sunlight. This 1784 satire proposed taxing shutters, rationing candles, and waking the public by ringing church bells and firing cannons at sunrise. Despite common misconception, Franklin did not actually propose DST; 18th-century Europe did not even keep precise schedules. However, this soon changed as rail and communication networks came to require a standardization of time unknown in Franklin's day.
What particular kind of scientist was George Hudson?
56e7287e37bdd419002c3dd1
entomologist
49
False
What did George Hudson spend time collecting when he wasn't working?
56e7287e37bdd419002c3dd2
insects
131
False
What year did Hudson first present his two-hour daylight saving theory to the Wellington Philosophical Society?
56e7287e37bdd419002c3dd3
1895
186
False
Some people believe it wasn't Hudson who created DST, but an Englishman by what name?
56e7287e37bdd419002c3dd4
William Willett
481
False
Who was the member of Parliament who brought a bill about Daylight Saving Time to the House of Commons in 1908?
56e7287e37bdd419002c3dd5
Robert Pearce
899
False
Modern DST was first proposed by the New Zealand entomologist George Hudson, whose shift-work job gave him leisure time to collect insects, and led him to value after-hours daylight. In 1895 he presented a paper to the Wellington Philosophical Society proposing a two-hour daylight-saving shift, and after considerable interest was expressed in Christchurch, he followed up in an 1898 paper. Many publications credit DST's proposal to the prominent English builder and outdoorsman William Willett, who independently conceived DST in 1905 during a pre-breakfast ride, when he observed with dismay how many Londoners slept through a large part of a summer's day. An avid golfer, he also disliked cutting short his round at dusk. His solution was to advance the clock during the summer months, a proposal he published two years later. The proposal was taken up by the Liberal Member of Parliament (MP) Robert Pearce, who introduced the first Daylight Saving Bill to the House of Commons on 12 February 1908. A select committee was set up to examine the issue, but Pearce's bill did not become law, and several other bills failed in the following years. Willett lobbied for the proposal in the UK until his death in 1915.
What year did Germany decide to try DST?
56e7299137bdd419002c3ddb
1916
21
False
What is the German word for Daylight Saving Time?
56e7299137bdd419002c3ddc
Sommerzeit
111
False
What natural resource were Germany and Austria-Hungary trying to conserve by using DST?
56e7299137bdd419002c3ddd
coal
144
False
What year did the United States get on board with DST?
56e7299137bdd419002c3dde
1918
337
False
Starting on 30 April 1916, Germany and its World War I ally Austria-Hungary were the first to use DST (German: Sommerzeit) as a way to conserve coal during wartime. Britain, most of its allies, and many European neutrals soon followed suit. Russia and a few other countries waited until the next year and the United States adopted it in 1918.
What event in the 1970s led more regions of North America to use DST?
56e72ba200c9c71400d76ed9
energy crisis
430
False
What country joined Canada, the UK, and Ireland in continuing to observe Daylight Saving Time after the war?
56e72ba200c9c71400d76eda
Ireland
148
False
Daylight Saving Time was used commonly during what war?
56e72ba200c9c71400d76edb
Second World War
298
False
Along with North America, what continent was affected heavily by the 1970s energy crisis?
56e72ba200c9c71400d76edc
Europe
376
False
Broadly speaking, Daylight Saving Time was abandoned in the years after the war (with some notable exceptions including Canada, the UK, France, and Ireland for example). However, it was brought back for periods of time in many different places during the following decades, and commonly during the Second World War. It became widely adopted, particularly in North America and Europe starting in the 1970s as a result of the 1970s energy crisis.
Has the world seen many or few changes in the observation of DST?
56e72d4400c9c71400d76ee1
many
31
False
Countries might change their DST policy by enactments, adjustments, and what other type of policy changes?
56e72d4400c9c71400d76ee2
repeals
65
False
Since then, the world has seen many enactments, adjustments, and repeals. For specific details, an overview is available at Daylight saving time by country.
At what local time does the United States change the time?
56e72ec800c9c71400d76ee7
02:00
66
False
Technically, how many hours does the day the time change happens have in the spring?
56e72ec800c9c71400d76ee8
23
192
False
In the fall, DST means one hour is repeated, which means the day is actually how many hours long?
56e72ec800c9c71400d76ee9
25
341
False
At the time change to DST, what will a digital clock read just after 01:59:59.9?
56e72ec800c9c71400d76eea
03:00:00.0
485
False
Daylight Saving Time is sometimes called summer time, but the clocks are actually moved forward in which season?
56e72ec800c9c71400d76eeb
spring
87
False
In the case of the United States where a one-hour shift occurs at 02:00 local time, in spring the clock jumps forward from the last moment of 01:59 standard time to 03:00 DST and that day has 23 hours, whereas in autumn the clock jumps backward from the last moment of 01:59 DST to 01:00 standard time, repeating that hour, and that day has 25 hours. A digital display of local time does not read 02:00 exactly at the shift to summer time, but instead jumps from 01:59:59.9 forward to 03:00:00.0.
During what part of the week is the time change most often scheduled?
56e7305b37bdd419002c3de5
weekend
42
False
What do we avoid disrupting by doing the time shift during days most people don't work?
56e7305b37bdd419002c3de7
weekday schedules
83
False
Clock shifts are usually scheduled near a weekend midnight to lessen disruption to weekday schedules. A one-hour shift is customary, but Australia's Lord Howe Island uses a half-hour shift. Twenty-minute and two-hour shifts have been used in the past.
Which time zone in Europe always has a one-hour lead on Central European Time?
56e7334700c9c71400d76ef1
Eastern European Time
162
False
For one hour each spring, how far ahead of Pacific Time is Mountain Time in the United States?
56e7334700c9c71400d76ef2
two hours
465
False
In 2008, what month and day did Western Australia change their clocks?
56e7334700c9c71400d76ef3
October 26
745
False
At DST in the fall, how long does it stay the same time in both Pacific and Mountain time in the United States?
56e7334700c9c71400d76ef4
one hour
194
False
In addition to much of the state of Arizona, what U.S. state does not ever change their clocks for DST?
56e7334700c9c71400d76ef5
Hawaii
826
False
Coordination strategies differ when adjacent time zones shift clocks. The European Union shifts all at once, at 01:00 UTC or 02:00 CET or 03:00 EET; for example, Eastern European Time is always one hour ahead of Central European Time. Most of North America shifts at 02:00 local time, so its zones do not shift at the same time; for example, Mountain Time is temporarily (for one hour) zero hours ahead of Pacific Time, instead of one hour ahead, in the autumn and two hours, instead of one, ahead of Pacific Time in the spring. In the past, Australian districts went even further and did not always agree on start and end dates; for example, in 2008 most DST-observing areas shifted clocks forward on October 5 but Western Australia shifted on October 26. In some cases only part of a country shifts; for example, in the US, Hawaii and most of Arizona do not observe DST.
What year did the European Union standardize their Summer Time?
56e73e1137bdd419002c3def
1996
55
False
European Summer Time begins in March and ends in what month?
56e73e1137bdd419002c3df0
October
151
False
What act in the U.S. brought about the 2007 change in DST policy?
56e73e1137bdd419002c3df1
the Energy Policy Act of 2005
419
False
What government body is allowed to change the DST policy in the United States back to the dates observed from 1987 to 2006?
56e73e1137bdd419002c3df2
Congress
577
False
Supporters of the November end to DST name what U.S. holiday as the justification for keeping the change through the end of October?
56e73e1137bdd419002c3df3
Halloween
772
False
Start and end dates vary with location and year. Since 1996 European Summer Time has been observed from the last Sunday in March to the last Sunday in October; previously the rules were not uniform across the European Union. Starting in 2007, most of the United States and Canada observe DST from the second Sunday in March to the first Sunday in November, almost two-thirds of the year. The 2007 US change was part of the Energy Policy Act of 2005; previously, from 1987 through 2006, the start and end dates were the first Sunday in April and the last Sunday in October, and Congress retains the right to go back to the previous dates now that an energy-consumption study has been done. Proponents for permanently retaining November as the month for ending DST point to Halloween as a reason to delay the change in order to allow extra daylight for the evening of October 31.
In the southern hemisphere, what aspect of DST is about the reverse of that of the northern hemisphere?
56e73fb737bdd419002c3df9
Beginning and ending dates
0
False
At what local time does Chile change their clocks for DST?
56e73fb737bdd419002c3dfa
24:00
209
False
What day of the week does DST begin and end in Chile?
56e73fb737bdd419002c3dfb
Saturday
136
False
In the Northern hemisphere's summer, what is the time difference between the UK and Chile?
56e73fb737bdd419002c3dfc
five hours
312
False
During what season in the Southern hemisphere is there a three-hour time difference between mainland Chile and the United Kingdom?
56e73fb737bdd419002c3dfd
summer
343
False
Beginning and ending dates are roughly the reverse in the southern hemisphere. For example, mainland Chile observed DST from the second Saturday in October to the second Saturday in March, with transitions at 24:00 local time. The time difference between the United Kingdom and mainland Chile could therefore be five hours during the Northern summer, three hours during the Southern summer and four hours a few weeks per year because of mismatch of changing dates.
Which part of Brazil observes Daylight Saving Time?
56e7415337bdd419002c3e03
southern Brazil
163
False
What part of Brazil does not observe DST?
56e7415337bdd419002c3e04
equatorial Brazil
197
False
Which two continents that comprise a majority of the population worldwide don't observe DST?
56e7415337bdd419002c3e05
Asia and Africa
284
False
The lack of fluctuation in time for what daily event means regions of the world near the equator don't usually keep DST?
56e7415337bdd419002c3e06
sunrise
54
False
DST is generally not observed near the equator, where sunrise times do not vary enough to justify it. Some countries observe it only in some regions; for example, southern Brazil observes it while equatorial Brazil does not. Only a minority of the world's population uses DST because Asia and Africa generally do not observe it.
What leader said daylight saving gives people more "opportunities for the pursuit of health and happiness"?
56e7436700c9c71400d76efb
Winston Churchill
55
False
What nickname have people in opposition to DST given it?
56e7436700c9c71400d76efc
Daylight Slaving Time
239
False
In addition to the evening entertainment industry, people from what industry often oppose daylight saving?
56e7436700c9c71400d76efd
agricultural
354
False
Traditionally, retailing, tourism, and what other industry have been in favor of DST?
56e7436700c9c71400d76efe
sports
288
False
Along with energy crisis, what other significant historical event led to countries adopting DST?
56e7436700c9c71400d76eff
war
484
False
Daylight saving has caused controversy since it began. Winston Churchill argued that it enlarges "the opportunities for the pursuit of health and happiness among the millions of people who live in this country" and pundits have dubbed it "Daylight Slaving Time". Historically, retailing, sports, and tourism interests have favored daylight saving, while agricultural and evening entertainment interests have opposed it, and its initial adoption had been prompted by energy crisis and war.
Which political supporter of Willett's proposal had already used the half-hour version of DST at Sandringham?
56e7462d37bdd419002c3e0b
Edward VII
178
False
What was the name of the director of the Meteorological Office who opposed DST?
56e7462d37bdd419002c3e0c
Napier Shaw
430
False
What year did Parliament first take a vote and decide against implementing daylight savings?
56e7462d37bdd419002c3e0d
1909
625
False
Who was responsible for bringing a bill proposing DST to the U.S. House of Representatives?
56e7462d37bdd419002c3e0e
Andrew Peters
753
False
The fate of Willett's 1907 proposal illustrates several political issues involved. The proposal attracted many supporters, including Balfour, Churchill, Lloyd George, MacDonald, Edward VII (who used half-hour DST at Sandringham), the managing director of Harrods, and the manager of the National Bank. However, the opposition was stronger: it included Prime Minister H. H. Asquith, Christie (the Astronomer Royal), George Darwin, Napier Shaw (director of the Meteorological Office), many agricultural organizations, and theatre owners. After many hearings the proposal was narrowly defeated in a Parliament committee vote in 1909. Willett's allies introduced similar bills every year from 1911 through 1914, to no avail. The US was even more skeptical: Andrew Peters introduced a DST bill to the US House of Representatives in May 1909, but it soon died in committee.
What industrialist from Pittsburgh campaigned strongly in favor of DST?
56e7480100c9c71400d76f2f
Robert Garland
375
False
What year did the U.S. go to war, leading to wider acceptance of daylight savings?
56e7480100c9c71400d76f30
1917
459
False
What year did the United States finally adopt Daylight Saving Time?
56e7480100c9c71400d76f31
1918
529
False
After Germany led the way with starting DST (German: Sommerzeit) during World War I on 30 April 1916 together with its allies to alleviate hardships from wartime coal shortages and air raid blackouts, the political equation changed in other countries; the United Kingdom used DST first on 21 May 1916. US retailing and manufacturing interests led by Pittsburgh industrialist Robert Garland soon began lobbying for DST, but were opposed by railroads. The US's 1917 entry to the war overcame objections, and DST was established in 1918.
Which country continued to observe DST nationwide despite the fact that the war had ended?
56e74b9f37bdd419002c3e29
Britain
119
False
What spring holiday did Britain adjust its DST schedule around?
56e74b9f37bdd419002c3e2a
Easter
314
False
After what year was daylight savings repealed in the U.S.?
56e74b9f37bdd419002c3e2b
1919
384
False
What sport did President Wilson enjoy that made him not want to give up DST?
56e74b9f37bdd419002c3e2c
golf
437
False
What U.S. city kept observing DST to stay in sync with London, leading Chicago and Cleveland to follow along?
56e74b9f37bdd419002c3e2d
New York
569
False
The war's end swung the pendulum back. Farmers continued to dislike DST, and many countries repealed it after the war. Britain was an exception: it retained DST nationwide but over the years adjusted transition dates for several reasons, including special rules during the 1920s and 1930s to avoid clock shifts on Easter mornings. The US was more typical: Congress repealed DST after 1919. President Woodrow Wilson, like Willett an avid golfer, vetoed the repeal twice but his second veto was overridden. Only a few US cities retained DST locally thereafter, including New York so that its financial exchanges could maintain an hour of arbitrage trading with London, and Chicago and Cleveland to keep pace with New York. Wilson's successor Warren G. Harding opposed DST as a "deception". Reasoning that people should instead get up and go to work earlier in the summer, he ordered District of Columbia federal employees to start work at 08:00 rather than 09:00 during summer 1922. Some businesses followed suit though many others did not; the experiment was not repeated.
What month and year were two neighboring cities in Minnesota on different time schedules?
56e74de737bdd419002c3e47
May 1965
133
False
What state supported DST because it wanted to sell more potatoes?
56e74de737bdd419002c3e48
Idaho
570
False
What company joined Clorox in funding the Daylight Saving Time Coalition in the 1980s?
56e74de737bdd419002c3e49
7-Eleven
447
False
What year was the extension to U.S. daylight savings proposed by the DST Coalition?
56e74de737bdd419002c3e4a
1987
535
False
What year did the U.S. see standardization of DST outside of wartime for the first time?
56e74de737bdd419002c3e4b
1966
124
False
The history of time in the United States includes DST during both world wars, but no standardization of peacetime DST until 1966. In May 1965, for two weeks, St. Paul, Minnesota and Minneapolis, Minnesota were on different times, when the capital city decided to join most of the nation by starting Daylight Saving Time while Minneapolis opted to follow the later date set by state law. In the mid-1980s, Clorox (parent of Kingsford Charcoal) and 7-Eleven provided the primary funding for the Daylight Saving Time Coalition behind the 1987 extension to US DST, and both Idaho senators voted for it based on the premise that during DST fast-food restaurants sell more French fries, which are made from Idaho potatoes.
What percentage of Queensland voted against the daylight saving referendum in 1992?
56e74ffe37bdd419002c3e52
54.5%
140
False
What was the name of Queensland's political party set up solely to support their particular DST arrangement?
56e74ffe37bdd419002c3e53
Daylight Saving for South East Queensland
446
False
In Australia, were rural or urban areas generally more strongly opposed to DST?
56e74ffe37bdd419002c3e54
rural
176
False
What member of Queensland Parliament was responsible for finally bringing the DST for South East Queensland referendum to a vote?
56e74ffe37bdd419002c3e55
Peter Wellington
1135
False
In 1992, after a three-year trial of daylight saving in Queensland, Australia, a referendum on daylight saving was held and defeated with a 54.5% 'no' vote – with regional and rural areas strongly opposed, while those in the metropolitan south-east were in favor. In 2005, the Sporting Goods Manufacturers Association and the National Association of Convenience Stores successfully lobbied for the 2007 extension to US DST. In December 2008, the Daylight Saving for South East Queensland (DS4SEQ) political party was officially registered in Queensland, advocating the implementation of a dual-time zone arrangement for Daylight Saving in South East Queensland while the rest of the state maintains standard time. DS4SEQ contested the March 2009 Queensland State election with 32 candidates and received one percent of the statewide primary vote, equating to around 2.5% across the 32 electorates contested. After a three-year trial, more than 55% of Western Australians voted against DST in 2009, with rural areas strongly opposed. On 14 April 2010, after being approached by the DS4SEQ political party, Queensland Independent member Peter Wellington, introduced the Daylight Saving for South East Queensland Referendum Bill 2010 into Queensland Parliament, calling for a referendum to be held at the next State election on the introduction of daylight saving into South East Queensland under a dual-time zone arrangement. The Bill was defeated in Queensland Parliament on 15 June 2011.
What was the name of the organization that supported adding an additional hour to their clocks all year?
56e7516237bdd419002c3e63
the Royal Society for the Prevention of Accidents
10
False
Joining farmers, what other kind of workers opposed SDST?
56e7516237bdd419002c3e64
postal workers
169
False
What regions of the United Kingdom were generally against SDST?
56e7516237bdd419002c3e65
northern regions
237
False
In the UK the Royal Society for the Prevention of Accidents supports a proposal to observe SDST's additional hour year-round, but is opposed in some industries, such as postal workers and farmers, and particularly by those living in the northern regions of the UK.
What do Muslims call the month when they fast between sunup and sundown?
56e753a737bdd419002c3e79
Ramadan
61
False
What would DST delay if observed during the Muslim holy month?
56e753a737bdd419002c3e7a
the evening dinner
164
False
What Muslim country continues to observe DST during Ramadan?
56e753a737bdd419002c3e7b
Iran
286
False
When was Ramadan in 2012?
56e753a737bdd419002c3e7c
July and August
206
False
In some Muslim countries DST is temporarily abandoned during Ramadan (the month when no food should be eaten between sunrise and sunset), since the DST would delay the evening dinner. Ramadan took place in July and August in 2012. This concerns at least Morocco and Palestine, although Iran keeps DST during Ramadan. Most Muslim countries do not use DST, partially for this reason.
What year did Russia decide to never turn its clocks back?
56e7560200c9c71400d76fd0
2011
4
False
What country other than Russia declared they'd stay in DST all year?
56e7560200c9c71400d76fd1
Belarus
156
False
Was Russia or Belarus first in their declaration?
56e7560200c9c71400d76fd2
Russia
24
False
Which season's dark mornings led to people complaining about the switch from DST?
56e7560200c9c71400d76fd3
winter
225
False
What year did Russia give up on the all-year DST and go back to Standard Time?
56e7560200c9c71400d76fd4
2014
271
False
The 2011 declaration by Russia that it would not turn its clocks back and stay in DST all year long was subsequently followed by a similar declaration from Belarus. The plan generated widespread complaints due to the dark of wintertime morning, and thus was abandoned in 2014. The country changed its clocks to Standard Time on 26 October 2014 - and intends to stay there permanently.
Which group is more likely to support DST: urban workers or rural farmers?
56e757c000c9c71400d76fdb
urban workers
282
False
If people have more daylight in the evenings, what season might see a rise in outdoor activity?
56e757c000c9c71400d76fdc
summer
109
False
Would those in favor of DST argue that it causes people to use more electricity or saves energy?
56e757c000c9c71400d76fdd
saves energy
42
False
Proponents of DST generally argue that it saves energy, promotes outdoor leisure activity in the evening (in summer), and is therefore good for physical and psychological health, reduces traffic accidents, reduces crime, or is good for business. Groups that tend to support DST are urban workers, retail businesses, outdoor sports enthusiasts and businesses, tourism operators, and others who benefit from increased light during the evening in summer.
What major health risk do people who oppose DST say it increases?
56e7594900c9c71400d76ff6
heart attack
101
False
What profession is more likely to want to repeal DST: farmers or shopkeepers?
56e7594900c9c71400d76ff8
Farmers
274
False
What adjective would those against DST use to describe the energy savings touted by supporters?
56e7594900c9c71400d76ff9
inconclusive
47
False
What time of day do opponents of daylight savings believe is disrupted the most by the time shift?
56e7594900c9c71400d76ffa
morning
136
False
Opponents argue that actual energy savings are inconclusive, that DST increases health risks such as heart attack, that DST can disrupt morning activities, and that the act of changing clocks twice a year is economically and socially disruptive and cancels out any benefit. Farmers have tended to oppose DST.
Most people agree that a standardized schedule by DST is more practical than trying to do what in the morning on our own?
56e75c2d37bdd419002c3edb
get up earlier
157
False
What electronic device might people work their schedules around instead of paying close attention to DST?
56e75c2d37bdd419002c3edc
television
326
False
During what season is DST usually not observed because of the detriments of dark mornings?
56e75c2d37bdd419002c3edd
winter
405
False
What indirect benefit of DST might cause some areas to observe it even though they don't get any direct benefits like cost or energy savings?
56e75c2d37bdd419002c3ede
coordination with others
838
False
Common agreement about the day's layout or schedule confers so many advantages that a standard DST schedule has generally been chosen over ad hoc efforts to get up earlier. The advantages of coordination are so great that many people ignore whether DST is in effect by altering their nominal work schedules to coordinate with television broadcasts or daylight. DST is commonly not observed during most of winter, because its mornings are darker; workers may have no sunlit leisure time, and children may need to leave for school in the dark. Since DST is applied to many varying communities, its effects may be very different depending on their culture, light levels, geography, and climate; that is why it is hard to make generalized conclusions about the absolute effects of the practice. Some areas may adopt DST simply as a matter of coordination with others rather than for any direct benefits.
What percentage of all electricity usage in the U.S. and Canada is from residential lighting?
56e75e3b37bdd419002c3eff
3.5%
110
False
DST will reduce electricity use in the evening but increase it during what time of the day?
56e75e3b37bdd419002c3f00
morning
286
False
When DST was first proposed, what type of lighting was consuming the most electricity?
56e75e3b37bdd419002c3f01
incandescent
542
False
Along with geography and economics, what variable often affects how much electricity an area uses?
56e75e3b37bdd419002c3f02
climate
839
False
Whose satire that was published in 1784 pointed out that daylight saving would only reduce electricity usage if the increase in the mornings was less than the savings in the evenings?
56e75e3b37bdd419002c3f03
Franklin
298
False
DST's potential to save energy comes primarily from its effects on residential lighting, which consumes about 3.5% of electricity in the United States and Canada. Delaying the nominal time of sunset and sunrise reduces the use of artificial light in the evening and increases it in the morning. As Franklin's 1784 satire pointed out, lighting costs are reduced if the evening reduction outweighs the morning increase, as in high-latitude summer when most people wake up well after sunrise. An early goal of DST was to reduce evening usage of incandescent lighting, which used to be a primary use of electricity. Although energy conservation remains an important goal, energy usage patterns have greatly changed since then, and recent research is limited and reports contradictory results. Electricity use is greatly affected by geography, climate, and economics, making it hard to generalize from single studies.
Have studies shown DST generally increases or reduces gas consumption from cars?
56e7608500c9c71400d7704e
increases
40
False
What year was the DOE report about fuel consumption published?
56e7608500c9c71400d7704f
2008
78
False
What happened regarding DST in 2007 in the United States that probably led to the DOE investigation?
56e7608500c9c71400d77050
extension of DST
184
False
Several studies have suggested that DST increases motor fuel consumption. The 2008 DOE report found no significant increase in motor gasoline consumption due to the 2007 United States extension of DST.
What category of goods that are used in outdoor activities benefit from the extra hour of daylight from DST?
56e762fb37bdd419002c3f23
sporting goods
11
False
What organization predicted a $100 million increase for the golf sector because of extended DST?
56e762fb37bdd419002c3f24
the National Golf Foundation
308
False
What year did Fortune magazine make predictions about the increased revenue an extended daylight savings would provide?
56e762fb37bdd419002c3f25
1984
177
False
According to a study in 1999, daylight savings has caused what approximate percentage of increase in leisure industry revenue in the European Union?
56e762fb37bdd419002c3f26
3%
531
False
How much extra money from DST did Fortune predict for 7-Eleven on account of DST?
56e762fb37bdd419002c3f27
$30 million
271
False
Retailers, sporting goods makers, and other businesses benefit from extra afternoon sunlight, as it induces customers to shop and to participate in outdoor afternoon sports. In 1984, Fortune magazine estimated that a seven-week extension of DST would yield an additional $30 million for 7-Eleven stores, and the National Golf Foundation estimated the extension would increase golf industry revenues $200 million to $300 million. A 1999 study estimated that DST increases the revenue of the European Union's leisure sector by about 3%.
Is it better to harvest grain before or after the morning dew evaporates?
56e7666737bdd419002c3f3f
after
266
False
What animal on dairy farms is affected by timing?
56e7666737bdd419002c3f40
cows
439
False
What does earlier milk delivery do to cows?
56e7666737bdd419002c3f41
disrupts their systems
511
False
Some farmers oppose DST because their farm laborers arrive to work and leave later or earlier?
56e7666737bdd419002c3f42
earlier
325
False
Besides farmers, what other group of people set their schedules by the sun?
56e7666737bdd419002c3f43
parents of young children
46
False
Conversely, DST can adversely affect farmers, parents of young children, and others whose hours are set by the sun and they have traditionally opposed the practice, although some farmers are neutral. One reason why farmers oppose DST is that grain is best harvested after dew evaporates, so when field hands arrive and leave earlier in summer their labor is less valuable. Dairy farmers are another group who complain of the change. Their cows are sensitive to the timing of milking, so delivering milk earlier disrupts their systems. Today some farmers' groups are in favor of DST.
What year did a change in DST policy cost North America somewhere between $500 million and $1 billion in extra work?
56e7692a00c9c71400d770de
2007
158
False
Who is the economist who said there was about $1.7 billion in lost opportunity costs because of the 2007 changes?
56e7692a00c9c71400d770df
William F. Shughart II
272
False
What have some people argued correlates with time shifts from daylight savings?
56e7692a00c9c71400d770e0
decreased economic efficiency
424
False
What do some call the effect that they say caused a one-day loss for stock exchanges of approximately $31 billion in the year 2000?
56e7692a00c9c71400d770e1
the daylight-saving effect
472
False
What factor determines the numbers people reach for estimates when studying DST?
56e7692a00c9c71400d770e2
methodology
607
False
Changing clocks and DST rules has a direct economic cost, entailing extra work to support remote meetings, computer applications and the like. For example, a 2007 North American rule change cost an estimated $500 million to $1 billion, and Utah State University economist William F. Shughart II has estimated the lost opportunity cost at around $1.7 billion USD. Although it has been argued that clock shifts correlate with decreased economic efficiency, and that in 2000 the daylight-saving effect implied an estimated one-day loss of $31 billion on US stock exchanges, the estimated numbers depend on the methodology. The results have been disputed, and the original authors have refuted the points raised by disputers.
In what year did the NBS revisit the DOT's 1975 study and find traffic fatalities unaffected?
56e76ba237bdd419002c3f89
1976
152
False
What organization made their own estimation in 1995 of a drop in traffic deaths by 1.2%?
56e76ba237bdd419002c3f8a
the Insurance Institute for Highway Safety
237
False
What's the abbreviation for Single/Double Summer Time?
56e76ba237bdd419002c3f8b
SDST
434
False
In the two weeks following the time change ending British Summer Time, what percentage hike is there in traffic accidents?
56e76ba237bdd419002c3f8c
11%
665
False
How much less, on average, do workers in the U.S. sleep on Mondays after switching to DST, according to the 2009 study?
56e76ba237bdd419002c3f8d
40 minutes
1164
False
In 1975 the US DOT conservatively identified a 0.7% reduction in traffic fatalities during DST, and estimated the real reduction at 1.5% to 2%, but the 1976 NBS review of the DOT study found no differences in traffic fatalities. In 1995 the Insurance Institute for Highway Safety estimated a reduction of 1.2%, including a 5% reduction in crashes fatal to pedestrians. Others have found similar reductions. Single/Double Summer Time (SDST), a variant where clocks are one hour ahead of the sun in winter and two in summer, has been projected to reduce traffic fatalities by 3% to 4% in the UK, compared to ordinary DST. However, accidents do increase by as much as 11% during the two weeks that follow the end of British Summer Time. It is not clear whether sleep disruption contributes to fatal accidents immediately after the spring clock shifts. A correlation between clock shifts and traffic accidents has been observed in North America and the UK but not in Finland or Sweden. If this effect exists, it is far smaller than the overall reduction in traffic fatalities. A 2009 US study found that on Mondays after the switch to DST, workers sleep an average of 40 minutes less, and are injured at work more often and more severely.
What did the LEAA say was reduced 10% to 13% in Washington, DC during daylight savings?
56e76d0b00c9c71400d77118
violent crime rate
123
False
How many cities did the LEAA study before reaching their conclusion?
56e76d0b00c9c71400d77119
two
227
False
How many cities of those the LEAA studied showed any reduction in crime?
56e76d0b00c9c71400d7711a
one
273
False
In what decade did the LEAA conduct their investigation of crime and DST?
56e76d0b00c9c71400d7711c
1970s
7
False
In the 1970s the US Law Enforcement Assistance Administration (LEAA) found a reduction of 10% to 13% in Washington, D.C.'s violent crime rate during DST. However, the LEAA did not filter out other factors, and it examined only two cities and found crime reductions only in one and only in some crime categories; the DOT decided it was "impossible to conclude with any confidence that comparable benefits would be found nationwide". Outdoor lighting has a marginal and sometimes even contradictory influence on crime and fear of crime.
There are more fires in the fall and winter because people burn more candles and turn what on to keep warm?
56e76f9037bdd419002c3fa7
heating
212
False
In addition to smoke detectors, what do fire safety officials suggest people replace batteries in when they set their clocks twice a year?
56e76f9037bdd419002c3fa8
carbon monoxide detectors
145
False
If your area doesn't observe DST, what can you use instead as a twice-yearly reminder?
56e76f9037bdd419002c3fa9
the first days of spring and autumn
538
False
What part of your vehicle should you remember to check twice a year?
56e76f9037bdd419002c3faa
lights
390
False
What should you check storage spaces in your home for twice-yearly?
56e76f9037bdd419002c3fab
hazardous materials
425
False
In several countries, fire safety officials encourage citizens to use the two annual clock shifts as reminders to replace batteries in smoke and carbon monoxide detectors, particularly in autumn, just before the heating and candle season causes an increase in home fires. Similar twice-yearly tasks include reviewing and practicing fire escape and family disaster plans, inspecting vehicle lights, checking storage areas for hazardous materials, reprogramming thermostats, and seasonal vaccinations. Locations without DST can instead use the first days of spring and autumn as reminders.
What do societies with standardized work schedules have more time for because of the increase in afternoon daylight from DST?
56e7713c37bdd419002c3fb1
outdoor exercise
112
False
What vitamin does sunlight help the human body absorb?
56e7713c37bdd419002c3fb2
vitamin D
253
False
What chair of the Retinitis Pigmentosa Foundation Fighting Blindness lobbied for an extension to daylight savings in the U.S.?
56e7713c37bdd419002c3fb3
Gordon Gund
511
False
What cancer can be caused by too much time in the sun?
56e7713c37bdd419002c3fb4
skin cancer
315
False
Some people say DST can help sufferers of depression because it encourages them to do what?
56e7713c37bdd419002c3fb5
rise earlier
381
False
DST has mixed effects on health. In societies with fixed work schedules it provides more afternoon sunlight for outdoor exercise. It alters sunlight exposure; whether this is beneficial depends on one's location and daily schedule, as sunlight triggers vitamin D synthesis in the skin, but overexposure can lead to skin cancer. DST may help in depression by causing individuals to rise earlier, but some argue the reverse. The Retinitis Pigmentosa Foundation Fighting Blindness, chaired by blind sports magnate Gordon Gund, successfully lobbied in 1985 and 2005 for US DST extensions.
What natural rhythm is disrupted by seasonal changes?
56e777fc37bdd419002c3fea
circadian rhythm
162
False
In 2005, what country used increased health risks as rationalization for getting rid of DST?
56e777fc37bdd419002c3feb
Kazakhstan
600
False
Which Russian president argued that the country should stay in DST year-round because of the stresses of time shifts?
56e777fc37bdd419002c3fec
Dmitri Medvedev
713
False
According to the Swedish study in 2008, for how many weekdays following the "spring forward" do you have a higher risk of heart attack?
56e777fc37bdd419002c3fed
three
461
False
Clock shifts were found to increase the risk of heart attack by 10 percent, and to disrupt sleep and reduce its efficiency. Effects on seasonal adaptation of the circadian rhythm can be severe and last for weeks. A 2008 study found that although male suicide rates rise in the weeks after the spring transition, the relationship weakened greatly after adjusting for season. A 2008 Swedish study found that heart attacks were significantly more common the first three weekdays after the spring transition, and significantly less common the first weekday after the autumn transition. The government of Kazakhstan cited health complications due to clock shifts as a reason for abolishing DST in 2005. In March 2011, Dmitri Medvedev, president of Russia, claimed that "stress of changing clocks" was the motivation for Russia to stay in DST all year long. Officials at the time talked about an annual increase in suicides.
Do emissions from vehicle exhaust cause lower or higher pollution before dawn?
56e779ea37bdd419002c4007
higher
173
False
Does DST mean more rush hour traffic is on the road before dawn or after?
56e779ea37bdd419002c4008
before dawn
128
False
What kind of pollution is caused by emissions from cars while they're sitting in traffic?
56e779ea37bdd419002c4009
air pollution
180
False
An unexpected adverse effect of daylight saving time may lie in the fact that an extra part of morning rush hour traffic occurs before dawn and traffic emissions then cause higher air pollution than during daylight hours.
During the fall time shift from 02:00 to 01:00, how many times will a clock show the times between 01:00:00 and 01:59:59?
56e77c7137bdd419002c4027
twice
656
False
What might a clock showing the same times twice in one day lead to?
56e77c7137bdd419002c4028
confusion
683
False
What do people often have trouble remembering to do for DST?
56e77c7137bdd419002c4029
change their clocks
88
False
What added complexity do people working across time zones have to keep track of?
56e77c7137bdd419002c402a
multiple DST rules
276
False
DST's clock shifts have the obvious disadvantage of complexity. People must remember to change their clocks; this can be time-consuming, particularly for mechanical clocks that cannot be moved backward safely. People who work across time zone boundaries need to keep track of multiple DST rules, as not all locations observe DST or observe it the same way. The length of the calendar day becomes variable; it is no longer always 24 hours. Disruption to meetings, travel, broadcasts, billing systems, and records management is common, and can be expensive. During an autumn transition from 02:00 to 01:00, a clock reads times from 01:00:00 through 01:59:59 twice, possibly leading to confusion.
What year did an accident occur at a German facility with molten steel because of the change to DST?
56e7825400c9c71400d771e9
1993
70
False
For how much more time was the molten steel supposed to cool when the computer mix-up happened in the German steel facility?
56e7825400c9c71400d771ea
one hour
185
False
Who is responsible for testing and even making changing to computer programs when daylight saving rules change?
56e7825400c9c71400d771eb
software developers
483
False
What time system do some computer systems use to avoid the issues of changes in local time?
56e7825400c9c71400d771ec
Coordinated Universal Time
828
False
What type of computer systems use an internal clock based on UTC time?
56e7825400c9c71400d771ed
Unix-based
907
False
Damage to a German steel facility occurred during a DST transition in 1993, when a computer timing system linked to a radio time synchronization signal allowed molten steel to cool for one hour less than the required duration, resulting in spattering of molten steel when it was poured. Medical devices may generate adverse events that could harm patients, without being obvious to clinicians responsible for care. These problems are compounded when the DST rules themselves change; software developers must test and perhaps modify many programs, and users must install updates and restart applications. Consumers must update devices such as programmable thermostats with the correct DST rules, or manually adjust the devices' clocks. A common strategy to resolve these problems in computer systems is to express time using the Coordinated Universal Time (UTC) rather than the local time zone. For example, Unix-based computer systems use the UTC-based Unix time internally.
Willett's first suggestion was to change clocks by 20 minutes how often?
56e7834800c9c71400d771fd
weekly
143
False
What drawback would changing clocks gradually add to the process?
56e7834800c9c71400d771fe
complexity
191
False
What could be avoided by changing clocks more gradually more often?
56e7834800c9c71400d771ff
Some clock-shift problems
0
False
Some clock-shift problems could be avoided by adjusting clocks continuously or at least more gradually—for example, Willett at first suggested weekly 20-minute transitions—but this would add complexity and has never been implemented.
What does DST inherit from standard time?
56e7851100c9c71400d77213
disadvantages
33
False
Does daylight savings sometimes minimize or magnify the drawbacks of standard time?
56e7851100c9c71400d77214
magnify
21
False
Usually, it's recommended that we avoid the sun for how many hours before and after noon?
56e7851100c9c71400d77215
two
239
False
What kind of guidelines become less precise because of DST?
56e7851100c9c71400d77216
sun-exposure guidelines
183
False
When using a sundial, we must adjust the reading to reflect natural discrepancies and the effect of what other influence?
56e7851100c9c71400d77217
time zone
140
False
DST inherits and can magnify the disadvantages of standard time. For example, when reading a sundial, one must compensate for it along with time zone and natural discrepancies. Also, sun-exposure guidelines such as avoiding the sun within two hours of noon become less accurate when DST is in effect.
What author is credited with explaining the usage of daylight saving time and daylight savings time with an "s" in the English Journal of the (American) National Council of Teachers of English?
56e787fb37bdd419002c40bf
Richard Meade
16
False
In 1978, according to Meade, which form of the phrase was more commonly used: daylight saving time or daylight savings time?
56e787fb37bdd419002c40c0
daylight savings time
121
False
Which form of the phrase is more common in print publications?
56e787fb37bdd419002c40c1
daylight saving time
214
False
Joining Merriam-Webster's and the Oxford dictionary, the older form of the phrase without the "s" is still listed first in what dictionary?
56e787fb37bdd419002c40c2
American Heritage
362
False
Along with "daylight saving" and "daylight savings," what alternate form does Merriam-Webster's include?
56e787fb37bdd419002c40c3
daylight time
921
False
As explained by Richard Meade in the English Journal of the (American) National Council of Teachers of English, the form daylight savings time (with an "s") was already in 1978 much more common than the older form daylight saving time in American English ("the change has been virtually accomplished"). Nevertheless, even dictionaries such as Merriam-Webster's, American Heritage, and Oxford, which describe actual usage instead of prescribing outdated usage (and therefore also list the newer form), still list the older form first. This is because the older form is still very common in print and preferred by many editors. ("Although daylight saving time is considered correct, daylight savings time (with an "s") is commonly used.") The first two words are sometimes hyphenated (daylight-saving[s] time). Merriam-Webster's also lists the forms daylight saving (without "time"), daylight savings (without "time"), and daylight time.
Which term did Willett use in his 1907 proposal to refer to DST?
56e78a2e00c9c71400d7726f
daylight saving
50
False
What phrase had replaced daylight saving time by 1911 as Willett's proposal evolved into draft legislation?
56e78a2e00c9c71400d77270
summer time
88
False
What word do speakers of Dutch use for DST?
56e78a2e00c9c71400d77271
zomertijd
224
False
What term do Italians use for DST that literally translates as "legal time"?
56e78a2e00c9c71400d77272
ora legale
383
False
What does the Italian term for their winter time, ora solare, translate to in English?
56e78a2e00c9c71400d77273
solar time
467
False
In Britain, Willett's 1907 proposal used the term daylight saving, but by 1911 the term summer time replaced daylight saving time in draft legislation. Continental Europe uses similar phrases, such as Sommerzeit in Germany, zomertijd in Dutch-speaking regions, kesäaika in Finland, horario de verano or hora de verano in Spain and heure d'été in France, whereas in Italy the term is ora legale, that is, legal time (legally enforced time) as opposed to "ora solare", solar time, in winter.
What usually changes when a place observes DST?
56e78bd100c9c71400d77283
The name of local time
0
False
What word does American English swap out for "daylight" when referring to time zones?
56e78bd100c9c71400d77284
standard
89
False
In American English, what is the equivalent of Pacific Standard Time?
56e78bd100c9c71400d77285
Pacific Daylight Time
162
False
When the UK changes their clocks forward in the spring, what do they call the time they're then observing?
56e78bd100c9c71400d77286
British Summer Time
273
False
What word is often added to the names of time zones when used in British English?
56e78bd100c9c71400d77287
summer
338
False
The name of local time typically changes when DST is observed. American English replaces standard with daylight: for example, Pacific Standard Time (PST) becomes Pacific Daylight Time (PDT). In the United Kingdom, the standard term for UK time when advanced by one hour is British Summer Time (BST), and British English typically inserts summer into other time zone names, e.g. Central European Time (CET) becomes Central European Summer Time (CEST).
What phrase is often used in North America when speaking about DST?
56e78dab37bdd419002c411f
spring forward, fall back
29
False
What is a language like "spring forward, fall back" that acts as a trigger for memory called?
56e78dab37bdd419002c4120
mnemonic
19
False
What does "spring forward, fall back" help people remember?
56e78dab37bdd419002c4121
which direction to shift clocks
144
False
The North American mnemonic "spring forward, fall back" (also "spring ahead ...", "spring up ...", and "... fall behind") helps people remember which direction to shift clocks.
What can cause issues with installed computer systems?
56e790f337bdd419002c4153
Changes to DST rules
0
False
What year did DST rules change in North America?
56e790f337bdd419002c4154
2007
89
False
What did many existing computer systems that relied on time zones need because of the DST rule changes?
56e790f337bdd419002c4155
upgrades
242
False
In addition to calendaring programs, what kind of programs were most impacted by the changes?
56e790f337bdd419002c4156
email
206
False
Which professionals bore the brunt of the effort to upgrade systems affected by time changes?
56e790f337bdd419002c4157
corporate information technologists
284
False
Changes to DST rules cause problems in existing computer installations. For example, the 2007 change to DST rules in North America required many computer systems to be upgraded, with the greatest impact on email and calendaring programs; the upgrades consumed a significant effort by corporate information technologists.
What system of time do some applications use so they won't have problems with time changes?
56e793ad00c9c71400d772f7
UTC
33
False
By using UTC, applications get out of adjusting to changes around clock shifts and what other factor?
56e793ad00c9c71400d772f8
time zone differences
77
False
In addition to individual applications, what modern systems that control the basic functions of a computer typically use UTC?
56e793ad00c9c71400d772f9
operating systems
122
False
Where do computers usually use UTC?
56e793ad00c9c71400d772fa
internally
140
False
What time would a computer probably use for the clock display?
56e793ad00c9c71400d772fb
local time
205
False
Some applications standardize on UTC to avoid problems with clock shifts and time zone differences. Likewise, most modern operating systems internally handle and store all times as UTC and only convert to local time for display.
Where do most systems go to get the data they use to calculate local time?
56e795ee37bdd419002c41a4
the IANA time zone database
230
False
What two specific points of data do systems need to figure out to get local time?
56e795ee37bdd419002c41a5
date/time
184
False
What's another name for the IANA database?
56e795ee37bdd419002c41a6
zoneinfo
272
False
However, even if UTC is used internally, the systems still require information on time zones to correctly calculate local time where it is needed. Many systems in use today base their date/time calculations from data derived from the IANA time zone database also known as zoneinfo.
The IANA database works by connecting names to what information about the location?
56e798c700c9c71400d77347
historical and predicted clock shifts
64
False
IANA, or zoneinfo, updates are installed as a part of what ordinary function when changes to DST policy are made?
56e798c700c9c71400d77348
system maintenance
378
False
What environment variable defines a location's name?
56e798c700c9c71400d77349
TZ
423
False
What format is used to store internal time in systems that use zoneinfo?
56e798c700c9c71400d7734a
timezone-independent epoch time
799
False
What's the name of the HP database that's similar to IANA but not compatible with it?
56e798c700c9c71400d7734b
tztab
238
False
The IANA time zone database maps a name to the named location's historical and predicted clock shifts. This database is used by many computer software systems, including most Unix-like operating systems, Java, and the Oracle RDBMS; HP's "tztab" database is similar but incompatible. When temporal authorities change DST rules, zoneinfo updates are installed as part of ordinary system maintenance. In Unix-like systems the TZ environment variable specifies the location name, as in TZ=':America/New_York'. In many of those systems there is also a system-wide setting that is applied if the TZ environment variable isn't set: this setting is controlled by the contents of the /etc/localtime file, which is usually a symbolic link or hard link to one of the zoneinfo files. Internal time is stored in timezone-independent epoch time; the TZ is used by each of potentially many simultaneous users and processes to independently localize time display.
Less sophisticated systems might just support a TZ value with one start rule and how many end rules?
56e79ae000c9c71400d77379
one
103
False
When must TZ values be changed on an older system?
56e79ae000c9c71400d7737a
whenever DST rules change
299
False
What does the TZ value EST5EDT,M3.2.0/02:00,M11.1.0/02:00 specify?
56e79ae000c9c71400d7737b
time for the eastern United States starting in 2007
214
False
What years will a new TZ value apply to?
56e79ae000c9c71400d7737c
all years
355
False
What's might a new TZ value mishandle when it changes with new DST rules?
56e79ae000c9c71400d7737d
older timestamps
383
False
Older or stripped-down systems may support only the TZ values required by POSIX, which specify at most one start and end rule explicitly in the value. For example, TZ='EST5EDT,M3.2.0/02:00,M11.1.0/02:00' specifies time for the eastern United States starting in 2007. Such a TZ value must be changed whenever DST rules change, and the new value applies to all years, mishandling some older timestamps.
Similar to systems using zoneinfo, Microsoft Windows calculates DST by doing what?
56e79ed037bdd419002c4267
specifying the name of a location
64
False
When does the table of rule sets the Windows operating system uses have to be updated?
56e79ed037bdd419002c4268
when DST rules change
180
False
If your computer runs Vista, what's the maximum number of start and end rules you can have for each time zone setting?
56e79ed037bdd419002c4269
two
375
False
If located in Canada somewhere where DST is observed, a system running Vista might mishandle time stamps that are older than what year?
56e79ed037bdd419002c426a
1987
497
False
On a system running Windows older than Vista, locations in Canada observing DST would only reliably support time stamps from after what year?
56e79ed037bdd419002c426b
2006
502
False
As with zoneinfo, a user of Microsoft Windows configures DST by specifying the name of a location, and the operating system then consults a table of rule sets that must be updated when DST rules change. Procedures for specifying the name and updating the table vary with release. Updates are not issued for older versions of Microsoft Windows. Windows Vista supports at most two start and end rules per time zone setting. In a Canadian location observing DST, a single Vista setting supports both 1987–2006 and post-2006 time stamps, but mishandles some older time stamps. Older Microsoft Windows systems usually store only a single start and end rule for each zone, so that the same Canadian setting reliably supports only post-2006 time stamps.
What single year did Windows 95 use to apply rules to Israel's time changes?
56e7a23000c9c71400d77443
1995
159
False
Because the schedule in Israel was always changing, what did Microsoft do with the release of Windows 98?
56e7a23000c9c71400d77444
marked Israel as not having DST
228
False
How often would Israeli users running Windows 98 need to manually adjust the time on their machines to stay current?
56e7a23000c9c71400d77445
twice a year
323
False
What law regulated the rules for time shifts in Israel according to the Jewish calendar?
56e7a23000c9c71400d77446
The 2005 Israeli Daylight Saving Law
337
False
Although the schedule in Israel became predictable after 2005, there were still problems in Windows until Israel adjusted DST to what calendar in 2013?
56e7a23000c9c71400d77447
the Gregorian calendar
747
False
These limitations have caused problems. For example, before 2005, DST in Israel varied each year and was skipped some years. Windows 95 used rules correct for 1995 only, causing problems in later years. In Windows 98, Microsoft marked Israel as not having DST, forcing Israeli users to shift their computer clocks manually twice a year. The 2005 Israeli Daylight Saving Law established predictable rules using the Jewish calendar but Windows zone files could not represent the rules' dates in a year-independent way. Partial workarounds, which mishandled older time stamps, included manually switching zone files every year and a Microsoft tool that switches zones automatically. In 2013, Israel standardized its daylight saving time according to the Gregorian calendar.
What does Microsoft Windows use internally for its real-time clock?
56e7a89837bdd419002c42dc
local time
54
False
Not using UTC, Windows can't multi boot with different versions of itself like you'd need to do to use what kind of disk?
56e7a89837bdd419002c42dd
a rescue boot disk
280
False
As opposed to providing support for users to have unique time zone settings, Windows will only allow for what?
56e7a89837bdd419002c42de
a single system-wide setting
414
False
In what year did Microsoft imply that they would be making changes to support RealTimeIsUniversal in a step towards compatibility with UTC?
56e7a89837bdd419002c42df
2008
447
False
Since 2008, at least how many times has Microsoft released fixes for the RealTimeIsUniversal feature?
56e7a89837bdd419002c42e0
two
720
False
Microsoft Windows keeps the system real-time clock in local time. This causes several problems, including compatibility when multi booting with operating systems that set the clock to UTC, and double-adjusting the clock when multi booting different Windows versions, such as with a rescue boot disk. This approach is a problem even in Windows-only systems: there is no support for per-user timezone settings, only a single system-wide setting. In 2008 Microsoft hinted that future versions of Windows will partially support a Windows registry entry RealTimeIsUniversal that had been introduced many years earlier, when Windows NT supported RISC machines with UTC clocks, but had not been maintained. Since then at least two fixes related to this feature have been published by Microsoft.
What file system do recent Windows versions use?
56e7aac737bdd419002c42f0
NTFS
4
False
Under NTFS, what does Windows use for file time stamps in storage?
56e7aac737bdd419002c42f1
UTC
79
False
What file system do most removable devices use?
56e7aac737bdd419002c42f3
FAT
161
False
What time will a file be set to if it's copied from the hard disk onto other media?
56e7aac737bdd419002c42f4
current local time
343
False
The NTFS file system used by recent versions of Windows stores the file with a UTC time stamp, but displays it corrected to local—or seasonal—time. However, the FAT filesystem commonly used on removable devices stores only the local time. Consequently, when a file is copied from the hard disk onto separate media, its time will be set to the current local time. If the time adjustment is changed, the timestamps of the original file and the copy will be different. The same effect can be observed when compressing and uncompressing files with some file archivers. It is the NTFS file that changes seen time. This effect should be kept in mind when trying to determine if a file is a duplicate of another, although there are other methods of comparing files for equality (such as using a checksum algorithm).
What phrase describes keeping adjusted summer hours year-round?
56e7adc800c9c71400d774cb
permanent daylight saving time
11
False
Proponents of permanent DST say it has all the advantages of regular DST without the issues some people have from what bi-annual occurrences?
56e7adc800c9c71400d774cc
time shifts
85
False
In year-round DST, would sunrise happen early or late compared to most places?
56e7adc800c9c71400d774cd
late
457
False
During what time period did Russia use permanent DST?
56e7adc800c9c71400d774ce
2011 to 2014
563
False
In what season in areas observing permanent daylight saving time will it stay dark the latest in the morning?
56e7adc800c9c71400d774cf
winter
488
False
A move to "permanent daylight saving time" (staying on summer hours all year with no time shifts) is sometimes advocated, and has in fact been implemented in some jurisdictions such as Argentina, Chile, Iceland, Singapore, Uzbekistan and Belarus. Advocates cite the same advantages as normal DST without the problems associated with the twice yearly time shifts. However, many remain unconvinced of the benefits, citing the same problems and the relatively late sunrises, particularly in winter, that year-round DST entails. Russia switched to permanent DST from 2011 to 2014, but the move proved unpopular because of the late sunrises in winter, so the country switched permanently back to "standard" or "winter" time in 2014.
In which direction do countries like Russia and Argentina shift their time zones that could be considered all-year DST?
56e7b00300c9c71400d774e7
westward
83
False
About how many minutes does Saskatoon, Saskatchewan stay ahead of mean solar time?
56e7b00300c9c71400d774e8
67
407
False
What time does Saskatoon observe all year long?
56e7b00300c9c71400d774e9
Central Standard Time
336
False
Places like northeast India that shift time zones to the east could be considered to be observing what kind of DST?
56e7b00300c9c71400d774ea
negative DST
600
False
What year did Ireland and the UK give up on their permanent DST experiment?
56e7b00300c9c71400d774eb
1971
691
False
Xinjiang, China; Argentina; Chile; Iceland; Russia and other areas skew time zones westward, in effect observing DST year-round without complications from clock shifts. For example, Saskatoon, Saskatchewan, is at 106°39′ W longitude, slightly west of center of the idealized Mountain Time Zone (105° W), but the time in Saskatchewan is Central Standard Time (90° W) year-round, so Saskatoon is always about 67 minutes ahead of mean solar time, thus effectively observing daylight saving time year-round. Conversely, northeast India and a few other areas skew time zones eastward, in effect observing negative DST. The United Kingdom and Ireland experimented with year-round DST from 1968 to 1971 but abandoned it because of its unpopularity, particularly in northern regions.
Places like Spain and parts of France effectively go by DST in the winter but add what in the summer?
56e7b1e900c9c71400d77503
an extra hour
112
False
During the summer in Nome, about how many hours ahead of the sun do they set their clocks?
56e7b1e900c9c71400d77505
three
368
False
What term was used in Britain for double daylight saving time?
56e7b1e900c9c71400d77506
Double Summer Time
558
False
What's a third name for double daylight saving time or Double Summer Time used in Europe?
56e7b1e900c9c71400d77507
Central European Midsummer Time
614
False
Western France, Spain, and other areas skew time zones and shift clocks, in effect observing DST in winter with an extra hour in summer. Nome, Alaska, is at 165°24′ W longitude, which is just west of center of the idealized Samoa Time Zone (165° W), but Nome observes Alaska Time (135° W) with DST, so it is slightly more than two hours ahead of the sun in winter and three in summer. Double daylight saving time has been used on occasion; for example, it was used in some European countries during and shortly after World War II when it was referred to as "Double Summer Time". See British Double Summer Time and Central European Midsummer Time for details.
Royal_Institute_of_British_Architects
What does RIBA stand for?
56e70a356fe0821900b8ec90
Royal Institute of British Architects
4
False
What is the goal of RIBA?
56e70a356fe0821900b8ec91
the advancement of architecture
158
False
When was RIBA founded?
56e70a356fe0821900b8ec92
1837
219
False
When was RIBA's founding document expanded?
56e70a356fe0821900b8ec93
1971
260
False
In what country does RIBA mainly operate?
56e70a356fe0821900b8ec94
United Kingdom
104
False
The Royal Institute of British Architects
0
What does RIBA stand against?
5a7881bbb73996001af5a6a5
True
the advancement of architecture
158
What is the enemy of RIBA?
5a7881bbb73996001af5a6a6
True
1837
219
When was RIBA lost?
5a7881bbb73996001af5a6a7
True
1971
260
When was RIBA's founding document decreased?
5a7881bbb73996001af5a6a8
True
The Royal Institute of British Architects (RIBA) is a professional body for architects primarily in the United Kingdom, but also internationally, founded for the advancement of architecture under its charter granted in 1837 and Supplemental Charter granted in 1971.
What was Riba's first name?
56e70aba6fe0821900b8ec9a
Institute of British Architects in London
21
False
In what year was the Institute of British Architects founded?
56e70aba6fe0821900b8ec9b
1834
81
False
In what city was the Institute of British Architects located?
56e70aba6fe0821900b8ec9c
London
56
False
In terms of profession, what were people like Philip Hardwick, William Adams Nicholson and Thomas de Grey?
56e70aba6fe0821900b8ec9d
Architects
42
False
Institute of British Architects in London
21
What was Riba's banned name?
5a78822bb73996001af5a6b5
True
London
56
What city was the Institute of British Architects moved to?
5a78822bb73996001af5a6b6
True
1834
81
What year was the Institute of British Architects removed?
5a78822bb73996001af5a6b7
True
Architects
42
What profession did people like Philip Hardwick, William Adams Nicholson and Thomas de Grey avoid?
5a78822bb73996001af5a6b8
True
Originally named the Institute of British Architects in London, it was formed in 1834 by several prominent architects, including Philip Hardwick, Thomas Allom, William Donthorne, Thomas Leverton Donaldson, William Adams Nicholson, John Buonarotti Papworth, and Thomas de Grey, 2nd Earl de Grey.
What caused the change of the Institute's name?
56e70b3d6fe0821900b8eca2
the grant of the royal charter
6
False
What was removed from the Royal Institute's name?
56e70b3d6fe0821900b8eca3
the reference to London
133
False
When was the mention of London removed from the Royal Institute's name?
56e70b3d6fe0821900b8eca4
1892
160
False
Where is the Royal Institute of British Architects located?
56e70b3d6fe0821900b8eca5
Portland Place
215
False
Who opened the structure in which the Royal Institute is currently housed?
56e70b3d6fe0821900b8eca6
King George V and Queen Mary
265
False
the grant of the royal charter
6
What caused the Institute's name to not change?
5a788290b73996001af5a6d0
True
the reference to London
133
What was added to the Royal Institute's name?
5a788290b73996001af5a6d1
True
1892
160
When was the mention of London included in the Royal Institute's name?
5a788290b73996001af5a6d2
True
King George V and Queen Mary
265
Who opened the structure in which the Royal Institute is formerly housed?
5a788290b73996001af5a6d3
True
After the grant of the royal charter it had become known as the Royal Institute of British Architects in London, eventually dropping the reference to London in 1892. In 1934, it moved to its current headquarters on Portland Place, with the building being opened by King George V and Queen Mary.
When did the Royal Institute receive its charter?
56e70bfcde9d371400068124
1837
36
False
Who was responsible for giving the charter to the Royal Institute?
56e70bfcde9d371400068125
King William IV
47
False
In what years was the Royal Institute issued supplemental charters?
56e70bfcde9d371400068126
1887, 1909 and 1925
89
False
When were the various supplemental charters consolidated?
56e70bfcde9d371400068127
1971
146
False
What term characterizes the nature of changes to the charter after 1971?
56e70bfcde9d371400068128
minor amendments
172
False
1837
36
When did the Royal Institute lose its charter?
5a7882f2b73996001af5a6e0
True
King William IV
47
Who was responsible for taking the charter from the Royal Institute?
5a7882f2b73996001af5a6e1
True
1887, 1909 and 1925
89
What years was the Royal Institute issued no supplemental charters?
5a7882f2b73996001af5a6e2
True
1971
146
When were the various supplemental charters increased?
5a7882f2b73996001af5a6e3
True
minor amendments
172
What term characterizes the nature of changes to the charter before 1971?
5a7882f2b73996001af5a6e4
True
It was granted its Royal Charter in 1837 under King William IV. Supplemental Charters of 1887, 1909 and 1925 were replaced by a single Charter in 1971, and there have been minor amendments since then.
What was the central aim of the Royal Institute?
56e70db4de9d371400068138
the general advancement of Civil Architecture
82
False
What document set forth the goals of the Royal Institute?
56e70db4de9d371400068139
The original Charter of 1837
0
False
What was the Royal Institute responsible for doing with regards to the development of knowledge related to architecture?
56e70db4de9d37140006813a
promoting and facilitating
137
False
the general advancement of Civil Architecture
82
What was the secondary aim of the Royal Institute?
5a788352b73996001af5a6fc
True
The original Charter of 1837
0
What document set forth the restrictions of the Royal Institute?
5a788352b73996001af5a6fd
True
promoting and facilitating
137
What was the Royal Institute not responsible for doing with regards to the development of knowledge related to architecture?
5a788352b73996001af5a6fe
True
The original
0
Which charter was not used in 1837?
5a788352b73996001af5a6ff
True
The original Charter of 1837 set out the purpose of the Royal Institute to be: '… the general advancement of Civil Architecture, and for promoting and facilitating the acquirement of the knowledge of the various arts and sciences connected therewith…'
What sets forth the standards by which the Royal Institute functions?
56e70ef5de9d37140006813e
the Byelaws
41
False
What guidelines for the Royal Institute are updated most often?
56e70ef5de9d37140006813f
the Byelaws
41
False
What is necessary to make any changes to either document which governs the operations of the Royal Institute?
56e70ef5de9d371400068140
the Privy Council's approval
154
False
the Byelaws
41
What removed the standards by which the Royal Institute functions?
5a7883bfb73996001af5a704
True
Byelaws
45
What guidelines for the Royal Institute are updated least often?
5a7883bfb73996001af5a705
True
the Privy Council's approval
154
What is never necessary to make any changes to either document which governs the operations of the Royal Institute?
5a7883bfb73996001af5a706
True
the Charter
93
What is updated more than the Byelaws?
5a7883bfb73996001af5a707
True
The operational framework is provided by the Byelaws, which are more frequently updated than the Charter. Any revisions to the Charter or Byelaws require the Privy Council's approval.
What was the first Latin phrase used by the Royal Institute?
56e70fe037bdd419002c3d0b
Usui civium decori urbium
836
False
Who is responsible for the use of 'usui civium decori urbium'?
56e70fe037bdd419002c3d0c
Thomas Leverton Donaldson
117
False
What was Donaldson's role within the Royal Institute?
56e70fe037bdd419002c3d0d
honorary secretary
157
False
Who reworked the Royal Institute's medal desgin in 1931?
56e70fe037bdd419002c3d0e
Eric Gill
466
False
When did Joan Hassall redesign the Royal Institute's medal?
56e70fe037bdd419002c3d0f
1960
483
False
Usui civium, decori urbium
66
What was the last Latin phrase used by the Royal Institute?
5a788435b73996001af5a720
True
Thomas Leverton Donaldson
117
Who is not responsible for the use of 'usui civium decori urbium'?
5a788435b73996001af5a721
True
honorary secretary
157
What was Donaldson's role outside the Royal Institute?
5a788435b73996001af5a722
True
Eric Gill
466
Who left the Royal Institute's medal design unchanged in 1931?
5a788435b73996001af5a723
True
1960
483
When did Joan Hassall acquire the Royal Institute's medal?
5a788435b73996001af5a724
True
The design of the Institute's Mycenean lions medal and the motto ‘Usui civium, decori urbium' has been attributed to Thomas Leverton Donaldson, who had been honorary secretary until 1839. The RIBA Guide to its Archive and History (Angela Mace,1986) records that the first official version of this badge was used as a bookplate for the Institute's library and publications from 1835 to 1891, when it was redesigned by J.H.Metcalfe. It was again redesigned in 1931 by Eric Gill and in 1960 by Joan Hassall. The description in the 1837 by-laws was: "gules, two lions rampant guardant or, supporting a column marked with lines chevron, proper, all standing on a base of the same; a garter surrounding the whole with the inscription Institute of British Architects, anno salutis MDCCCXXXIV; above a mural crown proper, and beneath the motto Usui civium decori urbium ".
What organization was the Royal Institute instrumental in establishing?
56e7117637bdd419002c3d15
the Architects' Registration Council of the United Kingdom
184
False
Which items of legislation did the Royal Institute play a large role in promoting?
56e7117637bdd419002c3d16
the Board of Architectural Education under the Architects (Registration) Acts, 1931 to 1938
255
False
Where did Lional Bailey Budden teach?
56e7117637bdd419002c3d17
the Liverpool University School of Architecture
420
False
What major compendium did Budden help write an article for?
56e7117637bdd419002c3d18
Encyclopædia Britannica
567
False
How many schools formed the Board of Architectural Education?
56e7117637bdd419002c3d19
twenty
637
False
the Architects' Registration Council of the United Kingdom
184
What organization was the Royal Institute unsuccessful in establishing?
5a788597b73996001af5a76d
True
the Board of Architectural Education under the Architects (Registration) Acts, 1931 to 1938
255
Which items of legislation did the Royal Institute play a small role in promoting?
5a788597b73996001af5a76e
True
Liverpool University School of Architecture
424
Where did Lional Bailey Budden study?
5a788597b73996001af5a76f
True
Encyclopædia Britannica
567
What minor compendium did Budden help read an article for?
5a788597b73996001af5a770
True
twenty
637
How many schools did not form the Board of Architectural Education?
5a788597b73996001af5a771
True
In the nineteenth and twentieth centuries the RIBA and its members had a leading part in the promotion of architectural education in the United Kingdom, including the establishment of the Architects' Registration Council of the United Kingdom (ARCUK) and the Board of Architectural Education under the Architects (Registration) Acts, 1931 to 1938. A member of the RIBA, Lionel Bailey Budden, then Associate Professor in the Liverpool University School of Architecture, had contributed the article on Architectural Education published in the fourteenth edition of the Encyclopædia Britannica (1929). His School, Liverpool, was one of the twenty schools named for the purpose of constituting the statutory Board of Architectural Education when the 1931 Act was passed.
When did the Royal Institute celebrate its 100th anniversary?
56e71f6a37bdd419002c3d63
1934
122
False
Who was the head of the Registration Committee in 1934?
56e71f6a37bdd419002c3d64
Harry Barnes
128
False
In 1934, what percentage of architects were members of professional organizations?
56e71f6a37bdd419002c3d65
80 per cent
538
False
Who did Barnes believe was best able to advance the interests of architects?
56e71f6a37bdd419002c3d66
architectural associations
497
False
What specific institution did Barnes indicate could not be a rival of the Royal Institute?
56e71f6a37bdd419002c3d67
ARCUK
204
False
1934
122
When did the Royal Institute celebrate its 200th anniversary?
5a78869bb73996001af5a7a7
True
Harry Barnes
128
Who was the head of the Registration Committee after 1934?
5a78869bb73996001af5a7a8
True
architectural associations
497
What did Barnes believe was least able to advance the interests of architects?
5a78869bb73996001af5a7a9
True
ARCUK
302
What specific institution did Barnes indicate could become a rival of the Royal Institute?
5a78869bb73996001af5a7aa
True
1934
122
What year did the Institute celebrate the third centenary celebration?
5a78869bb73996001af5a7ab
True
Soon after the passing of the 1931 Act, in the book published on the occasion of the Institute's centenary celebration in 1934, Harry Barnes, FRIBA, Chairman of the Registration Committee, mentioned that ARCUK could not be a rival of any architectural association, least of all the RIBA, given the way ARCUK was constituted. Barnes commented that the Act's purpose was not protecting the architectural profession, and that the legitimate interests of the profession were best served by the (then) architectural associations in which some 80 per cent of those practising architecture were to be found.
When does the Royal Institute's Guide indicate the first RIBA Board was established?
56e721ae37bdd419002c3d81
1904
242
False
What school document had to meet the standards of the Board for admittance?
56e721ae37bdd419002c3d82
syllabus
365
False
What was necessary for testing in schools applying to the RIBA Board?
56e721ae37bdd419002c3d83
an approved external examiner
441
False
What body carried out on-site inspection of member schools of the RIBA Board?
56e721ae37bdd419002c3d84
Visiting Board
552
False
1904
242
When does the Royal Institute's Guide indicate the last RIBA Board was established?
5a78872bb73996001af5a7c8
True
syllabus
365
What school document had no impact on the standards of the Board for admittance?
5a78872bb73996001af5a7c9
True
an approved external examiner
441
What was unnecessary for testing in schools applying to the RIBA Board?
5a78872bb73996001af5a7ca
True
Visiting Board
552
What body carried out off-site inspection of member schools of the RIBA Board?
5a78872bb73996001af5a7cb
True
The RIBA Guide to its Archive and History (1986) has a section on the "Statutory registration of architects" with a bibliography extending from a draft bill of 1887 to one of 1969. The Guide's section on "Education" records the setting up in 1904 of the RIBA Board of Architectural Education, and the system by which any school which applied for recognition, whose syllabus was approved by the Board and whose examinations were conducted by an approved external examiner, and whose standard of attainment was guaranteed by periodical inspections by a "Visiting Board" from the BAE, could be placed on the list of "recognized schools" and its successful students could qualify for exemption from RIBA examinations.
What organization's policies regarding acceptance of professional qualifications prompted thoughts of revamping ARCUK?
56e7231d37bdd419002c3d95
European Union
578
False
When did the name of ARCUK change?
56e7231d37bdd419002c3d96
1996
1122
False
What was the name of the legistlation leading to the change in ARCUK's name?
56e7231d37bdd419002c3d97
the Housing Grants, Construction and Regeneration Act
1068
False
What was shut down as a result of legislation changing the name of ARCUK?
56e7231d37bdd419002c3d98
the ARCUK Board of Architectural Education
1198
False
What was the new name given to ARCUK in the '90s?
56e7231d37bdd419002c3d99
Architects Registration Board
985
False
1996
1122
When did the name of ARCUK decide to stay the same?
5a78bb2fb73996001af5af62
True
European Union
578
What organization's policies regarding acceptance of professional qualifications prompted thoughts of keeping ARCUK?
5a78bb2fb73996001af5af63
True
the ARCUK Board of Architectural Education
1198
What was opened as a result of legislation changing the name of ARCUK?
5a78bb2fb73996001af5af64
True
Architects Registration Board
985
What was the new name given to ARCUK in the '80s?
5a78bb2fb73996001af5af65
True
The content of the acts, particularly section 1 (1) of the amending act of 1938, shows the importance which was then attached to giving architects the responsibility of superintending or supervising the building works of local authorities (for housing and other projects), rather than persons professionally qualified only as municipal or other engineers. By the 1970s another issue had emerged affecting education for qualification and registration for practice as an architect, due to the obligation imposed on the United Kingdom and other European governments to comply with European Union Directives concerning mutual recognition of professional qualifications in favour of equal standards across borders, in furtherance of the policy for a single market of the European Union. This led to proposals for reconstituting ARCUK. Eventually, in the 1990s, before proceeding, the government issued a consultation paper "Reform of Architects Registration" (1994). The change of name to "Architects Registration Board" was one of the proposals which was later enacted in the Housing Grants, Construction and Regeneration Act 1996 and reenacted as the Architects Act 1997; another was the abolition of the ARCUK Board of Architectural Education.
What is the function of the Royal Institute's Visiting Boards?
56e7248d37bdd419002c3da9
to assess courses for exemption from the RIBA's examinations in architecture
30
False
When did the Royal Institute and ARB reach accord on a shared body of criteria?
56e7248d37bdd419002c3daa
2011
135
False
What does ARB stand for?
56e7248d37bdd419002c3dab
Architects Registration Board
201
False
What is a key difference between the ARB and Royal Institute?
56e7248d37bdd419002c3dac
RIBA also validates courses outside the UK
256
False
to assess courses for exemption from the RIBA's examinations in architecture
30
What is no longer the function of the Royal Institute's Visiting Boards?
5a78bbafb73996001af5af86
True
2011
135
When did the Royal Institute and ARB reach accord on a conflicted body of criteria?
5a78bbafb73996001af5af87
True
Architects Registration Board
201
What does ARB no longer stand for?
5a78bbafb73996001af5af88
True
RIBA also validates courses outside the UK
256
What is a key similarity between the ARB and Royal Institute?
5a78bbafb73996001af5af89
True
RIBA Visiting Boards continue to assess courses for exemption from the RIBA's examinations in architecture. Under arrangements made in 2011 the validation criteria are jointly held by the RIBA and the Architects Registration Board, but unlike the ARB, the RIBA also validates courses outside the UK.
How many people have membership in the Royal Institute?
56e745c100c9c71400d76f05
44,000
40
False
What can chartered members of RIBA add to their name to indicate their status?
56e745c100c9c71400d76f06
RIBA
4
False
What type of Royal Institute members are not able to use the organization's acronym after their names?
56e745c100c9c71400d76f07
Student Members
182
False
What is not provided by the Royal Institute anymore?
56e745c100c9c71400d76f08
fellowships
236
False
Fellows of the Royal Institute can use what abbreviation with their names?
56e745c100c9c71400d76f09
FRIBA
349
False
44,000
40
How many people have lost membership in the Royal Institute?
5a78bcb5b73996001af5afbd
True
RIBA
159
What can chartered members of RIBA remove from their name to indicate their status?
5a78bcb5b73996001af5afbe
True
Student Members
182
What type of Royal Institute members are required to use the organization's acronym after their names?
5a78bcb5b73996001af5afbf
True
fellowships
236
What is still provided by the Royal Institute?
5a78bcb5b73996001af5afc0
True
FRIBA
349
What abbreviation can no longer be used by Fellows of the Royal Institute  with their names?
5a78bcb5b73996001af5afc1
True
The RIBA is a member organisation, with 44,000 members. Chartered Members are entitled to call themselves chartered architects and to append the post-nominals RIBA after their name; Student Members are not permitted to do so. Formerly, fellowships of the institute were granted, although no longer; those who continue to hold this title instead add FRIBA.
What is the Royal Institute of British Architects' street address?
56e748ba00c9c71400d76f3f
66 Portland Place
17
False
Who designed RIBA's headquarters?
56e748ba00c9c71400d76f40
George Grey Wornum
99
False
What is one room in RIBA's headquarters that can be visited by the public?
56e748ba00c9c71400d76f42
the Library
246
False
For what purpose can rooms be rented at the Royal Institute's building?
56e748ba00c9c71400d76f43
events
363
False
66 Portland Place, London
17
What is the former Royal Institute of British Architects' street address?
5a78bdcfb73996001af5aff2
True
George Grey Wornum
99
Who destroyed RIBA's headquarters?
5a78bdcfb73996001af5aff3
True
the Library
246
What is one room in RIBA's headquarters that can no longer be visited by the public?
5a78bdcfb73996001af5aff4
True
events
363
What purpose can rooms not be rented at the Royal Institute's building?
5a78bdcfb73996001af5aff5
True
RIBA is based at 66 Portland Place, London—a 1930s Grade II* listed building designed by architect George Grey Wornum with sculptures by Edward Bainbridge Copnall and James Woodford. Parts of the London building are open to the public, including the Library. It has a large architectural bookshop, a café, restaurant and lecture theatres. Rooms are hired out for events.
How many satellite offices does the Royal Institute run in the UK?
56e7498e00c9c71400d76f49
a dozen
29
False
When was RIBA's first satellite office opened?
56e7498e00c9c71400d76f4a
1966
157
False
In what city was the first RIBA branch office opened?
56e7498e00c9c71400d76f4b
Cambridge
144
False
What territory did RIBA's Cambridge branch office cover?
56e7498e00c9c71400d76f4c
the East of England
121
False
a dozen
29
How many satellite offices does the Royal Institute no longer run in the UK?
5a78be3db73996001af5b01f
True
1966
157
When was RIBA's last satellite office opened?
5a78be3db73996001af5b020
True
Cambridge
144
What city was the first RIBA branch office closed?
5a78be3db73996001af5b021
True
the East of England
121
What territory did RIBA's Cambridge branch office avoid?
5a78be3db73996001af5b022
True
The Institute also maintains a dozen regional offices around the United Kingdom, it opened its first regional office for the East of England at Cambridge in 1966.
What is the name of the Royal Institute's business operation?
56e74a5c37bdd419002c3e15
RIBA Enterprises
0
False
Where does RIBA's business group have its headquarters office?
56e74a5c37bdd419002c3e16
15 Bonhill Street in London
107
False
How many people work for RIBA Enterprises?
56e74a5c37bdd419002c3e18
over 250
172
False
How many of RIBA Enterprises' staff are located at the Newcastle office?
56e74a5c37bdd419002c3e19
180
202
False
RIBA Enterprises
0
What is the name of the Royal Institute's academic operation?
5a78bef6b73996001af5b027
True
15 Bonhill Street in London
107
Where does RIBA's business group hide its headquarters office?
5a78bef6b73996001af5b028
True
over 250
172
How many people quit working for RIBA Enterprises?
5a78bef6b73996001af5b029
True
180
202
How many of RIBA Enterprises' staff are not located at the Newcastle office?
5a78bef6b73996001af5b02a
True
RIBA Enterprises is the commercial arm of RIBA, with a registered office in Newcastle upon Tyne, a base at 15 Bonhill Street in London, and an office in Newark. It employs over 250 staff, approximately 180 of whom are based in Newcastle.
What are three divisions of RIBA Enterprises?
56e7521e00c9c71400d76fb2
RIBA Insight, RIBA Appointments, and RIBA Publishing
21
False
What are two publications produced by RIBA Publishing?
56e7521e00c9c71400d76fb3
RIBA Product Selector and RIBA Journal
92
False
What does NBS stand for?
56e7521e00c9c71400d76fb4
National Building Specification
161
False
How many people work for the NBS?
56e7521e00c9c71400d76fb5
130
204
False
Where is the NBS located?
56e7521e00c9c71400d76fb6
Newcastle
135
False
RIBA Insight, RIBA Appointments, and RIBA Publishing
21
What are three divisions not involved with RIBA Enterprises?
5a78bfa3b73996001af5b043
True
130
204
How many people support the NBS?
5a78bfa3b73996001af5b044
True
Newcastle
135
Where is the NBS banned?
5a78bfa3b73996001af5b045
True
RIBA Product Selector and RIBA Journal
92
What are two publications avoided by RIBA Publishing?
5a78bfa3b73996001af5b046
True
Its services include RIBA Insight, RIBA Appointments, and RIBA Publishing. It publishes the RIBA Product Selector and RIBA Journal. In Newcastle is the NBS, the National Building Specification, which has 130 staff and deals with the building regulations and the Construction Information Service. RIBA Bookshops, which operates online and at 66 Portland Place, is also part of RIBA Enterprises.
What is another name for the Royal Institute Library?
56e756e037bdd419002c3e9f
The British Architectural Library
0
False
When was the RIBA library founded?
56e756e037bdd419002c3ea0
1834
97
False
How many materials are housed in the RIBA library?
56e756e037bdd419002c3ea1
over four million
176
False
The British Architectural Library is the biggest library of its kind in which continent?
56e756e037bdd419002c3ea2
Europe
288
False
In what institution are some materials from the RIBA collection located?
56e756e037bdd419002c3ea3
Victoria and Albert Museum
360
False
The British Architectural Library
0
What is a prohibited name for the Royal Institute Library?
5a78c075b73996001af5b067
True
1834
97
When was the RIBA library removed?
5a78c075b73996001af5b068
True
over four million
176
How many materials are burned in the RIBA library?
5a78c075b73996001af5b069
True
Europe
288
Which continent has The British Architectural Library as the smallest library?
5a78c075b73996001af5b06a
True
Victoria and Albert Museum
360
What institution has none of materials from the RIBA collection?
5a78c075b73996001af5b06b
True
The British Architectural Library, sometimes referred to as the RIBA Library, was established in 1834 upon the founding of the institute with donations from members. Now, with over four million items, it is one of the three largest architectural libraries in the world and the largest in Europe. Some items from the collections are on permanent display at the Victoria and Albert Museum (V&A) in the V&A + RIBA Architecture Gallery and included in temporary exhibitions at the RIBA and across Europe and North America. Its collections include:
What was the RIBA Library's first address?
56e75cd337bdd419002c3eeb
9 Conduit Street
89
False
Where did RIBA move its library?
56e75cd337bdd419002c3eec
66 Portland Place
128
False
In what year did RIBA move its library?
56e75cd337bdd419002c3eed
1934
149
False
Which architect's work was preserved throughout World War II by the Royal Institute's Library?
56e75cd337bdd419002c3eee
Adolf Loos
266
False
9 Conduit Street
89
What was the RIBA Library's fourth address?
5a78c11bb73996001af5b08e
True
66 Portland Place
128
Where did RIBA name its library?
5a78c11bb73996001af5b08f
True
1934
149
What year did RIBA design its library?
5a78c11bb73996001af5b090
True
Adolf Loos
266
Which architect's work was lost during World War II by the Royal Institute's Library?
5a78c11bb73996001af5b091
True
The overcrowded conditions of the library was one of the reasons why the RIBA moved from 9 Conduit Street to larger premises at 66 Portland Place in 1934. The library remained open throughout World War Two and was able to shelter the archives of Modernist architect Adolf Loos during the war.
Where is the Royal Institute Library's Reading Room located?
56e75e2d00c9c71400d77022
66 Portland Place
87
False
Where are RIBA's Study Rooms located?
56e75e2d00c9c71400d77023
the Henry Cole Wing of the V&A
155
False
What art style was used inthe design of the Reading Room?
56e75e2d00c9c71400d77024
Art Deco
308
False
In what year did the Royal Institute's Reading Rooms open?
56e75e2d00c9c71400d77025
2004
428
False
Who is meant to benefit from teaching provided by the RIBA library?
56e75e2d00c9c71400d77026
students, education groups and families
604
False
66 Portland Place, London
87
Where is the Royal Institute Library's Reading Room formerly located?
5a78c653b73996001af5b1a3
True
the Henry Cole Wing of the V&A
155
Where are RIBA's Study Rooms not located?
5a78c653b73996001af5b1a4
True
Art Deco
308
What art style was not used in the design of the Reading Room?
5a78c653b73996001af5b1a5
True
2004
428
What year did the Royal Institute's Reading Rooms close?
5a78c653b73996001af5b1a6
True
students, education groups and families
604
Who is not meant to benefit from the teaching provided by the RIBA library?
5a78c653b73996001af5b1a7
True
The library is based at two public sites: the Reading Room at the RIBA's headquarters, 66 Portland Place, London; and the RIBA Architecture Study Rooms in the Henry Cole Wing of the V&A. The Reading Room, designed by the building's architect George Grey Wornum and his wife Miriam, retains its original 1934 Art Deco interior with open bookshelves, original furniture and double-height central space. The study rooms, opened in 2004, were designed by Wright & Wright. The library is funded entirely by the RIBA but it is open to the public without charge. It operates a free education programme aimed at students, education groups and families, and an information service for RIBA members and the public through the RIBA Information Centre.
When did the Victoria and Albert Museum and the Royal Institute of British Architects start a formal relationship?
56e75e8800c9c71400d77034
2004
6
False
What is the name of the joint venture involving the Victoria and Albert Museum and the Royal Institute of British Architects?
56e75e8800c9c71400d77035
the V&A + RIBA Architecture Partnership
20
False
What is the main goal of the V&A + RIBA partnership?
56e75e8800c9c71400d77036
to promote the understanding and enjoyment of architecture
99
False
2004
6
When did the Victoria and Albert Museum and the Royal Institute of British Architects end a formal relationship?
5a78c7cab73996001af5b1de
True
the V&A + RIBA Architecture Partnership
20
What is the name of the joint venture no longer involving the Victoria and Albert Museum and the Royal Institute of British Architects?
5a78c7cab73996001af5b1df
True
to promote the understanding and enjoyment of architecture
99
What is the main disadvantage of the V&A + RIBA partnership?
5a78c7cab73996001af5b1e0
True
the RIBA and V&A
61
Who has never worked together?
5a78c7cab73996001af5b1e1
True
Since 2004, through the V&A + RIBA Architecture Partnership, the RIBA and V&A have worked together to promote the understanding and enjoyment of architecture.
In what space at the V&A is the Architecture Gallery located?
56e7620600c9c71400d7705e
Room 128
64
False
What is found at Room 128a of the Victoria & Albert Museum?
56e7620600c9c71400d7705f
Architecture Exhibition Space
231
False
Who designed rooms 128 and 128a at the V&A Museum?
56e7620600c9c71400d77060
Gareth Hoskins Architects
358
False
Where was the Royal Institute's Drawing and Archives Collections located originally?
56e7620600c9c71400d77061
21 Portman Place
463
False
What part of the V&A was the Royal Institute's Drawing and Archives collection moved to?
56e7620600c9c71400d77062
the Henry Cole Wing
501
False
Room 128
64
What space at the V&A is the Architecture Gallery forbidden?
5a78c840b73996001af5b1f9
True
Architecture Exhibition Space
231
What is not found at Room 128a of the Victoria & Albert Museum?
5a78c840b73996001af5b1fa
True
Gareth Hoskins Architects
358
Who destroyed rooms 128 and 128a at the V&A Museum?
5a78c840b73996001af5b1fb
True
21 Portman Place
463
Where was the Royal Institute's Drawing and Archives Collections banned originally?
5a78c840b73996001af5b1fc
True
the Henry Cole Wing
501
What part of the V&A was the Royal Institute's Drawing and Archives collection avoided from?
5a78c840b73996001af5b1fd
True
In 2004, the two institutions created the Architecture Gallery (Room 128) at the V&A showing artefacts from the collections of both institutions, this was the first permanent gallery devoted to architecture in the UK. The adjacent Architecture Exhibition Space (Room 128a) is used for temporary displays related to architecture. Both spaces were designed by Gareth Hoskins Architects. At the same time the RIBA Library Drawing and Archives Collections moved from 21 Portman Place to new facilities in the Henry Cole Wing at the V&A. Under the Partnership new study rooms were opened where members of the public could view items from the RIBA and V&A architectural collections under the supervision of curatorial staff. These and the nearby education room were designed by Wright & Wright Architects.
What does the Royal Institute of British Architects award the Stirling Prize for?
56e766a800c9c71400d770ac
the best new building of the year
55
False
What was the first year in which RIBA's Royal Gold Medal was given?
56e766a800c9c71400d770ad
1848
129
False
What is the Royal Gold Medal awarded for?
56e766a800c9c71400d770ae
a distinguished body of work
150
False
What is the limit of how much can be spent on projects receiving the Stephen Lawrence Prize?
56e766a800c9c71400d770af
£500,000
264
False
What is the name of the RIBA awards given to students of architecture?
56e766a800c9c71400d770b0
the President's Medals
295
False
the best new building of the year
55
What does the Royal Institute of British Architects no longer award the Stirling Prize for?
5a78c8afb73996001af5b215
True
1848
129
What was the last year in which RIBA's Royal Gold Medal was given?
5a78c8afb73996001af5b216
True
a distinguished body of work
150
What is the Royal Gold Medal removed from?
5a78c8afb73996001af5b217
True
£500,000
264
What is the limit of how much can be taken from projects receiving the Stephen Lawrence Prize?
5a78c8afb73996001af5b218
True
the President's Medals
295
What is the name of the RIBA awards given to professors of architecture?
5a78c8afb73996001af5b219
True
RIBA runs many awards including the Stirling Prize for the best new building of the year, the Royal Gold Medal (first awarded in 1848), which honours a distinguished body of work, and the Stephen Lawrence Prize for projects with a construction budget of less than £500,000. The RIBA also awards the President's Medals for student work, which are regarded as the most prestigious awards in architectural education, and the RIBA President's Awards for Research. The RIBA European Award was inaugurated in 2005 for work in the European Union, outside the UK. The RIBA National Award and the RIBA International Award were established in 2007. Since 1966, the RIBA also judges regional awards which are presented locally in the UK regions (East, East Midlands, London, North East, North West, Northern Ireland, Scotland, South/South East, South West/Wessex, Wales, West Midlands and Yorkshire).
What are events that a company can sponsor when it is planning a new construction project or redesigning an existing one?
56e767c200c9c71400d770c0
Architectural design competitions
0
False
What is provided to guide entrants in an architectural competition?
56e767c200c9c71400d770c1
Brief
358
False
What kinds of people generally make up the panels which judge architecture competitions?
56e767c200c9c71400d770c2
design professionals and client representatives
438
False
What is necessary for the integrity of a design competition?
56e767c200c9c71400d770c3
independence of the jury
491
False
What kind of artistic production can be supported by design competitions?
56e767c200c9c71400d770c4
public realm artworks
223
False
Architectural design competitions
0
What are events that a company can't sponsor when it is planning a new construction project or redesigning an existing one?
5a78ca08b73996001af5b244
True
Brief
358
What is not provided to guide entrants in an architectural competition?
5a78ca08b73996001af5b245
True
design professionals and client representatives
438
What kinds of people never make up the panels which judge architecture competitions?
5a78ca08b73996001af5b246
True
independence of the jury
491
What is unnecessary for the integrity of a design competition?
5a78ca08b73996001af5b247
True
public realm artworks
223
What kind of artistic production can no longer be supported by design competitions?
5a78ca08b73996001af5b248
True
Architectural design competitions are used by an organisation that plans to build a new building or refurbish an existing building. They can be used for buildings, engineering work, structures, landscape design projects or public realm artworks. A competition typically asks for architects and/or designers to submit a design proposal in response to a given Brief. The winning design will then be selected by an independent jury panel of design professionals and client representatives. The independence of the jury is vital to the fair conduct of a competition.
Aside from the ARB, what other organization offers accreditation services for schools serving architects?
56e77bc037bdd419002c4017
RIBA
54
False
What process does RIBA use in its accreditation system?
56e77bc037bdd419002c4018
course validation
124
False
What kinds of courses does RIBA conduct accreditation services for apart from the Architects Registration Board?
56e77bc037bdd419002c4019
international courses
184
False
course validation
124
What process does RIBA no longer use in its accreditation system?
5a78cbccb73996001af5b26a
True
RIBA
54
What other organization doesn't offer accreditation services for schools serving architects aside from the ARB?
5a78cbccb73996001af5b26b
True
international courses
184
What kinds of courses does RIBA not conduct accreditation services for apart from the Architects Registration Board?
5a78cbccb73996001af5b26c
True
RIBA
54
What always requires input from the ARB?
5a78cbccb73996001af5b26d
True
In addition to the Architects Registration Board, the RIBA provides accreditation to architecture schools in the UK under a course validation procedure. It also provides validation to international courses without input from the ARB.
What is the first step in the Royal Institute's guidelines for education?
56e77c8900c9c71400d7719e
three-year first degree
79
False
What is required by the second stage in the education provisions set out by RIBA?
56e77c8900c9c71400d7719f
a two-year post graduate diploma or masters
221
False
What does the third part of the Royal Institute's educational process contain?
56e77c8900c9c71400d771a0
professional exams
324
False
How long does it take, at the least, for a student to be eligible for the title of Chartered?
56e77c8900c9c71400d771a1
seven years
387
False
What occurs between the second and third parts of the education process prescribed by the Royal Institute?
56e77c8900c9c71400d771a2
A further year out
266
False
three-year first degree
79
What is the first step not used in the Royal Institute's guidelines for education?
5a78cc3db73996001af5b281
True
a two-year post graduate diploma or masters
221
What is not required by the second stage in the education provisions set out by RIBA?
5a78cc3db73996001af5b282
True
professional exams
324
What does the third part of the Royal Institute's educational process omit?
5a78cc3db73996001af5b283
True
seven years
387
How long does it take, at most, for a student to be eligible for the title of Chartered?
5a78cc3db73996001af5b284
True
The RIBA has three parts to the education process: Part I which is generally a three-year first degree, a year-out of at least one year work experience in an architectural practice precedes the Part II which is generally a two-year post graduate diploma or masters. A further year out must be taken before the RIBA Part III professional exams can be taken. Overall it takes a minimum of seven years before an architecture student can seek chartered status.
What did the Royal Institute support in order to keep up with housing in mainland Europe?
56e77e8d00c9c71400d771ba
minimum space standards
25
False
When did the Royal Institute promote setting lower limits on the size of new homes in Britain?
56e77e8d00c9c71400d771bb
2007
3
False
Who was the head of the Royal Institute of British Architects in 2007?
56e77e8d00c9c71400d771bc
Jack Pringle
497
False
To what decade did Pringle unfavorably compare the size of modern British homes?
56e77e8d00c9c71400d771bd
the 1920s
272
False
What country did Pringle cite as having homes with better proportions than those found in the UK?
56e77e8d00c9c71400d771be
Holland
344
False
minimum space standards
25
What did the Royal Institute oppose in order to keep up with housing in mainland Europe?
5a78cca3b73996001af5b293
True
2007
3
When did the Royal Institute oppose setting lower limits on the size of new homes in Britain?
5a78cca3b73996001af5b294
True
Jack Pringle
497
Who was the body of the Royal Institute of British Architects in 2007?
5a78cca3b73996001af5b295
True
the 1920s
272
What decade did Pringle favorably compare the size of modern British homes?
5a78cca3b73996001af5b296
True
Holland
344
What country did Pringle cite as having homes with worse proportions than those found in the UK?
5a78cca3b73996001af5b297
True
In 2007, RIBA called for minimum space standards in newly built British houses after research was published suggesting that British houses were falling behind other European countries. "The average new home sold to people today is significantly smaller than that built in the 1920s... We're way behind the rest of Europe—even densely populated Holland has better proportioned houses than are being built in the country. So let's see minimum space standards for all new homes," said RIBA president Jack Pringle.
National_Archives_and_Records_Administration
NARA is responsible for what collection of archives?
56e7745537bdd419002c3fc7
National Archives
4
False
What independent agency preserves the original copy of executive orders?
56e7745537bdd419002c3fc9
National Archives and Records Administration
4
False
government and historical records
153
What is Congress responsible for preserving?
5a7b55d121c2de001afe9ee4
True
independent
62
What kind of agency is The Electoral College?
5a7b55d121c2de001afe9ee5
True
acts of Congress, presidential proclamations and executive orders, and federal regulations
391
What types of documents does Congress preserve?
5a7b55d121c2de001afe9ee6
True
votes
507
What does Congress usually do when they deliberate a bill?
5a7b55d121c2de001afe9ee7
True
Electoral College
520
Where is the public not legally allowed to vote?
5a7b55d121c2de001afe9ee8
True
The National Archives and Records Administration (NARA) is an independent agency of the United States government charged with preserving and documenting government and historical records and with increasing public access to those documents, which comprise the National Archives. NARA is officially responsible for maintaining and publishing the legally authentic and authoritative copies of acts of Congress, presidential proclamations and executive orders, and federal regulations. The NARA also transmits votes of the Electoral College to Congress.
What is the official that oversees the operation of NARA?
56e774f737bdd419002c3fcf
The Archivist
0
False
What member of NARA has the ability to declare when the constitutional threshold of passage has ocurred?
56e774f737bdd419002c3fd1
The Archivist
0
False
the National Archives and Records Administration
85
What do state legislatures oversee the operation of?
5a7b56c821c2de001afe9ef8
True
official
172
What kind of documentation is maintained by the state legislatures?
5a7b56c821c2de001afe9ef9
True
to declare when the constitutional threshold for passage has been reached
294
What authority do the state legislatures have?
5a7b56c821c2de001afe9efa
True
when an act has become an amendment
383
What do state legislatures decide about acts?
5a7b56c821c2de001afe9efb
True
chief official
42
What is the title used by state legislatures when overseeing  NARA?
5a7b56c821c2de001afe9efc
True
The Archivist of the United States is the chief official overseeing the operation of the National Archives and Records Administration. The Archivist not only maintains the official documentation of the passage of amendments to the U.S. Constitution by state legislatures, but has the authority to declare when the constitutional threshold for passage has been reached, and therefore when an act has become an amendment.
What office publishes the Federal Register?
56e7756f00c9c71400d77154
The Office of the Federal Register
0
False
What office administers the Electoral College?
56e7756f00c9c71400d77155
The Office of the Federal Register
0
False
Which office publishes the Code of Federal Regulations?
56e7756f00c9c71400d77156
The Office of the Federal Register
0
False
Which office publishes the United States Statutes at Large?
56e7756f00c9c71400d77157
The Office of the Federal Register
0
False
Federal Register
49
What does the Electoral College publish?
5a7b57bc21c2de001afe9f16
True
Code of Federal Regulations
67
What code is the Electoral College responsible for?
5a7b57bc21c2de001afe9f17
True
United States Statutes at Large
100
What statutes does the Electoral College publish?
5a7b57bc21c2de001afe9f18
True
others
139
Does the Electoral College only publish the US Statutes at Large only or are there others?
5a7b57bc21c2de001afe9f19
True
The Office of the Federal Register
0
What office does the Electoral College administer?
5a7b57bc21c2de001afe9f1a
True
The Office of the Federal Register publishes the Federal Register, Code of Federal Regulations, and United States Statutes at Large, among others. It also administers the Electoral College.
Which arm of NARA handles grants?
56e7767200c9c71400d77166
The National Historical Publications and Records Commission
0
False
What year was The National Historical Publications and Records Commission established?
56e7767200c9c71400d77167
1964
283
False
About how many grants has the NHPRC awarded?
56e7767200c9c71400d77168
4,500
316
False
1964
283
In what year did public and private archives begin taking grants?
5a7b594c21c2de001afe9f34
True
4,500
316
How many grants are awarded by the government annually?
5a7b594c21c2de001afe9f35
True
4,500
316
How many colleges and universities award grants to students each year?
5a7b594c21c2de001afe9f36
True
historical records
257
In 1964 what was the focus of curriculum in history classes?
5a7b594c21c2de001afe9f37
True
grant-making
81
What do many nonprofit organizations take part in to support students?
5a7b594c21c2de001afe9f38
True
The National Historical Publications and Records Commission (NHPRC)—the agency's grant-making arm—awards funds to state and local governments, public and private archives, colleges and universities, and other nonprofit organizations to preserve and publish historical records. Since 1964, the NHPRC has awarded some 4,500 grants.
OGIS provides what resource for the government and public?
56e777aa00c9c71400d7716e
FOIA
86
False
What type of dispute does NARA typically resolve?
56e777aa00c9c71400d7716f
FOIA disputes
311
False
NARA is ordered by congress to review what type of policies?
56e777aa00c9c71400d77170
FOIA policies
177
False
What types of recommendations does NARA provide to congress?
56e777aa00c9c71400d77171
changes to FOIA
255
False
FOIA disputes
311
What types of disputes do Federal agencies usually solve?
5a7b5b0e21c2de001afe9f5a
True
FOIA policies
177
What type of policies does NARA have Congress review annually?
5a7b5b0e21c2de001afe9f5b
True
changes to FOIA
255
What does NARA have Congress also recommend if needed?
5a7b5b0e21c2de001afe9f5c
True
the public and the government
105
What groups does Congress make itself a resource for?
5a7b5b0e21c2de001afe9f5d
True
Federal agencies
221
What groups does the public make sure are in compliance with FOIA?
5a7b5b0e21c2de001afe9f5e
True
The Office of Government Information Services (OGIS) is a Freedom of Information Act (FOIA) resource for the public and the government. Congress has charged NARA with reviewing FOIA policies, procedures and compliance of Federal agencies and to recommend changes to FOIA. NARA's mission also includes resolving FOIA disputes between Federal agencies and requesters.
What year was the National Archives Establishment established in?
56e7784537bdd419002c3ff4
1934
223
False
In what year did NARA become an independent agency?
56e7784537bdd419002c3ff6
1985
390
False
In what year was The National Archives merged with GSA?
56e7784537bdd419002c3ff7
1949
381
False
National Archives Establishment
188
What did NARA establish in 1934?
5a7b5c8221c2de001afe9f6e
True
to centralize federal record keeping
228
Why did NARA establish the National Archives in 1934?
5a7b5c8221c2de001afe9f6f
True
the Archivist of the United States
271
Who is the head of NARA?
5a7b5c8221c2de001afe9f70
True
records loss and destruction
133
What happened originally when the GSA was responsible for maintaining documents?
5a7b5c8221c2de001afe9f71
True
GSA
374
What was the chief administrator incorporated with in 1949?
5a7b5c8221c2de001afe9f72
True
Originally, each branch and agency of the U.S. government was responsible for maintaining its own documents, which often resulted in records loss and destruction. Congress established the National Archives Establishment in 1934 to centralize federal record keeping, with the Archivist of the United States as chief administrator. The National Archives was incorporated with GSA in 1949; in 1985 it became an independent agency as NARA (National Archives and Records Administration).
Who was the first Archivist at the National Archives?
56e77ae437bdd419002c400d
R.D.W. Connor
21
False
When did the first Archivist start at the National Archives?
56e77ae437bdd419002c400e
1934
53
False
What branch of the US government established the National Archives?
56e77ae437bdd419002c400f
Congress
105
False
What commission merged the National Archives with GSA?
56e77ae437bdd419002c4010
Hoover Commission
138
False
The Archivist took on what role after the incorporation of the Nation Archives into GSA?
56e77ae437bdd419002c4011
subordinate official
302
False
R.D.W. Connor
21
Who began serving on April 1, 1985?
5a7b5d5c21c2de001afe9f78
True
Archivist
10
What was Hoover's profession in 1934?
5a7b5d5c21c2de001afe9f79
True
The first
0
Was Hoover one of many Archivists or was he the first?
5a7b5d5c21c2de001afe9f7a
True
1949
175
In what year did Hoover become President?
5a7b5d5c21c2de001afe9f7b
True
National Archives
68
What was established by the GSA in 1949?
5a7b5d5c21c2de001afe9f7c
True
The first Archivist, R.D.W. Connor, began serving in 1934, when the National Archives was established by Congress. As a result of a first Hoover Commission recommendation, in 1949 the National Archives was placed within the newly formed General Services Administration (GSA). The Archivist served as a subordinate official to the GSA Administrator until the National Archives and Records Administration became an independent agency on April 1, 1985.
When was the reclassification program originally intended to end?
56e77d0137bdd419002c4034
2007
560
False
How was the reclassification of documents in '06 revealed?
56e77d0137bdd419002c4035
public hearing
74
False
March 2006
3
In what year was the Archivist of the US hired?
5a7b5f4221c2de001afe9f8c
True
2007
560
In what year was the reclassification program created?
5a7b5f4221c2de001afe9f8d
True
a memorandum of understanding
94
What did the Archivist of the US and researchers have between them?
5a7b5f4221c2de001afe9f8e
True
certain documents
229
What did the Archivist and researchers plan to withdraw in the name of national security?
5a7b5f4221c2de001afe9f8f
True
would not be likely to discover the process
328
Would NARA be likely to find out about the researchers reclassification program?
5a7b5f4221c2de001afe9f90
True
In March 2006, it was revealed by the Archivist of the United States in a public hearing that a memorandum of understanding between NARA and various government agencies existed to "reclassify", i.e., withdraw from public access, certain documents in the name of national security, and to do so in a manner such that researchers would not be likely to discover the process (the U.S. reclassification program). An audit indicated that more than one third withdrawn since 1999 did not contain sensitive information. The program was originally scheduled to end in 2007.
What year was Executive Order 13526 created?
56e783a900c9c71400d77203
2010
3
False
What Executive order created the National Declassification Center?
56e783a900c9c71400d77204
Executive Order 13526
9
False
What was the aim of Executive Order 13526?
56e783a900c9c71400d77206
coordinate declassification practices
79
False
2010
3
In what year was NARA created?
5a7b60db21c2de001afe9f96
True
13526
25
What is the number of the order written by NARA to declassify documents?
5a7b60db21c2de001afe9f97
True
coordinate declassification practices across agencies
79
What is the main focus of NARA's efforts?
5a7b60db21c2de001afe9f98
True
provide secure document services to other agencies, and review records
134
What other responsibilities does NARA have?
5a7b60db21c2de001afe9f99
True
agencies
124
What groups does NARA oversee since 2010?
5a7b60db21c2de001afe9f9a
True
In 2010, Executive Order 13526 created the National Declassification Center to coordinate declassification practices across agencies, provide secure document services to other agencies, and review records in NARA custody for declassification.
What types of groups are NARA's holdings classified into?
56e784a400c9c71400d7720b
record groups
34
False
Each record group is classified based on what?
56e784a400c9c71400d7720c
governmental department or agency
64
False
Besides films and other non-static media, what type of media is classified into a group?
56e784a400c9c71400d7720d
documents
148
False
Besides the general media and motion picture categories, which category contains media that is not static?
56e784a400c9c71400d7720e
microfilm
159
False
"record groups"
33
What are governmental departments usually classed into?
5a7b62b021c2de001afe9faa
True
governmental department or agency
64
How is NARA classified as officially?
5a7b62b021c2de001afe9fab
True
microfilm, still pictures, motion pictures
159
What record types were used more in the past than they are now?
5a7b62b021c2de001afe9fac
True
electronic media
207
What records are usually used currently because they are the most efficient?
5a7b62b021c2de001afe9fad
True
microfilm
159
What record is the oldest type in storage?
5a7b62b021c2de001afe9fae
True
NARA's holdings are classed into "record groups" reflecting the governmental department or agency from which they originated. Records include paper documents, microfilm, still pictures, motion pictures, and electronic media.
Where are archival descriptions of holdings under the custody of NARA stored?
56e7857c00c9c71400d77227
Archival Research Catalog (ARC)
111
False
As of the end mid December of 2012, how many logical data records are stored at NARA?
56e7857c00c9c71400d77228
10 billion
308
False
How many digital copies of previously digitized materials were there in December of 2012?
56e7857c00c9c71400d77229
922,000
424
False
Archival descriptions include traditional paper holdings, electron records, and what?
56e7857c00c9c71400d7722a
artifacts
245
False
The 10 billion logical data records are linked to how many artifacts?
56e7857c00c9c71400d7722b
527,000
351
False
December 2012
262
In what year was the ARC created?
5a7b64d321c2de001afe9fb4
True
10 billion logical data records
308
What is the maximum capacity of what the federal government can store ?
5a7b64d321c2de001afe9fb5
True
81%
386
What percentage of artifacts are actually held in museums?
5a7b64d321c2de001afe9fb6
True
data records
327
What does the government usually back up 81% of in case of damage?
5a7b64d321c2de001afe9fb7
True
922,000
424
How many catalogs sent to people each year could actually be digitized instead?
5a7b64d321c2de001afe9fb8
True
Archival descriptions of the permanent holdings of the federal government in the custody of NARA are stored in Archival Research Catalog (ARC). The archival descriptions include information on traditional paper holdings, electronic records, and artifacts. As of December 2012, the catalog consisted of about 10 billion logical data records describing 527,000 artifacts and encompassing 81% of NARA's records. There are also 922,000 digital copies of already digitized materials.
Most of NARA's holdings are available to sector?
56e7862c37bdd419002c40a1
public domain
32
False
Federal government works are excluded from what legal protection?
56e7862c37bdd419002c40a2
copyright
100
False
Some records at NARA are legally protected by what?
56e7862c37bdd419002c40a3
copyright
100
False
What executive order directs agencies to declassify documents before sending them to NARA?
56e7862c37bdd419002c40a4
Executive Order 13526
215
False
What office of NARA oversees the declassification of classified materials?
56e7862c37bdd419002c40a5
Information Security Oversight Office
432
False
public
32
Most donor records at the ISO office are available to what group?
5a7b668c21c2de001afe9fc8
True
copyright protection
100
What are donor agreement records excluded from?
5a7b668c21c2de001afe9fc9
True
declassify documents if possible before shipment to NARA
269
What does the ISO office direct agencies to do?
5a7b668c21c2de001afe9fca
True
long-term
330
For how long are documents stored at the ISO office?
5a7b668c21c2de001afe9fcb
True
until they can be declassified
396
For how long does the ISO office also store classified documents?
5a7b668c21c2de001afe9fcc
True
Most records at NARA are in the public domain, as works of the federal government are excluded from copyright protection. However, records from other sources may still be protected by copyright or donor agreements. Executive Order 13526 directs originating agencies to declassify documents if possible before shipment to NARA for long-term storage, but NARA also stores some classified documents until they can be declassified. Its Information Security Oversight Office monitors and sets policy for the U.S. government's security classification system.
Besides census records and passenger lists, what NARA documents are particularly useful to genealogists?
56e786bf00c9c71400d7723c
naturalization records
158
False
For what time period does NARA have census records available for?
56e786bf00c9c71400d7723d
1790 to 1930
116
False
1790 to 1930
116
During what period did Europeans immigrate to the US?
5a7b67b621c2de001afe9fd2
True
1790
116
How many passengers are typically on a ship?
5a7b67b621c2de001afe9fd3
True
1790
116
What is the farthest year you can go back when studying your genealogy?
5a7b67b621c2de001afe9fd4
True
1930
124
In what year was genealogy the most popular?
5a7b67b621c2de001afe9fd5
True
census
96
What did the government start taking to count the population in 1790?
5a7b67b621c2de001afe9fd6
True
Many of NARA's most requested records are frequently used for genealogy research. This includes census records from 1790 to 1930, ships' passenger lists, and naturalization records.
What is the informal name of The National Archives Building?
56e7877837bdd419002c40b5
Archives I
52
False
On what street is the The National Archives Building located?
56e7877837bdd419002c40b6
Constitution Avenue
102
False
Where is the Declaration of Independence kept?
56e7877837bdd419002c40b7
The National Archives Building
0
False
Where in the National Archives can you view a copy of the Magna Carta?
56e7877837bdd419002c40b8
main chamber
480
False
Where is the Louisiana Purchase Treaty kept?
56e7877837bdd419002c40b9
The National Archives Building
0
False
1935
182
In what year was the Emancipation Proclamation written?
5a7b6a1321c2de001afe9ff0
True
the main chamber of the National Archives
476
Where is a statue of Edward I located?
5a7b6a1321c2de001afe9ff1
True
American artifacts
818
What did Edward I like to have a collection of?
5a7b6a1321c2de001afe9ff2
True
Magna Carta
404
What document was written by Edward I in 1297?
5a7b6a1321c2de001afe9ff3
True
the Declaration of Independence, the Constitution, and the Bill of Rights
296
What documents are kept at the National Mall?
5a7b6a1321c2de001afe9ff4
True
The National Archives Building, known informally as Archives I, located north of the National Mall on Constitution Avenue in Washington, D.C., opened as its original headquarters in 1935. It holds the original copies of the three main formative documents of the United States and its government: the Declaration of Independence, the Constitution, and the Bill of Rights. It also hosts a copy of the 1297 Magna Carta confirmed by Edward I. These are displayed to the public in the main chamber of the National Archives, which is called the Rotunda for the Charters of Freedom. The National Archives Building also exhibits other important American historical documents such as the Louisiana Purchase Treaty, the Emancipation Proclamation, and collections of photography and other historically and culturally significant American artifacts.
Since when has all filming and photography in the Rotunda for the Charters of Freedom been banned?
56e788ab37bdd419002c40d3
February 25, 2010
475
False
For how long has the National Archives prohibited flash photography?
56e788ab37bdd419002c40d4
over 30 years
181
False
What is an aspect of a visit to the Rotunda for the Charters of Freedom?
56e788ab37bdd419002c40d5
no lines
63
False
What has made the no photography rule hard to enforce in the Rotunda for the Charters of Freedom?
56e788ab37bdd419002c40d6
advent of cameras with automatic flashes
258
False
over 30 years
181
How long have there been no lines to see individual documents?
5a7b6b7321c2de001afe9ffa
True
February 25, 2010
475
Since what date have visitors been allowed into the Rotunda?
5a7b6b7321c2de001afe9ffb
True
2010
488
What year did the National Archives open to the public?
5a7b6b7321c2de001afe9ffc
True
30 years
186
How long ago were the Charters of Freedom found?
5a7b6b7321c2de001afe9ffd
True
difficult to enforce
332
Was it difficult to enforce the ban on the public entering the Rotunda before February 25, 2010?
5a7b6b7321c2de001afe9ffe
True
Once inside the Rotunda for the Charters of Freedom, there are no lines to see the individual documents and visitors are allowed to walk from document to document as they wish. For over 30 years the National Archives have forbidden flash photography but the advent of cameras with automatic flashes have made the rules increasingly difficult to enforce. As a result, all filming, photographing, and videotaping by the public in the exhibition areas has been prohibited since February 25, 2010.
What is the second facility of NARA named?
56e7896737bdd419002c40db
Archives II
81
False
When was Archives II opened?
56e7896737bdd419002c40dc
1994
97
False
What college is Archives II closest to?
56e7896737bdd419002c40dd
University of Maryland
111
False
What college does NARA have cooperatives initiatives with?
56e7896737bdd419002c40de
University of Maryland
111
False
What campus of University of Maryland is listed on the National Register of Historic Places?
56e7896737bdd419002c40df
College Park campus
135
False
Because of space constraints
0
Why did the University of Maryland open another campus site?
5a7b7bc121c2de001afea05a
True
cooperative initiatives
287
What do the National Register of Historic Places and NARA often engage in?
5a7b7bc121c2de001afea05b
True
1996
431
In what year was the College Park Campus founded?
5a7b7bc121c2de001afea05c
True
Archives II
81
What is the name of the second campus opened by the University of Maryland?
5a7b7bc121c2de001afea05d
True
University of Maryland
111
What college does the National Register of Historic Places have cooperative initiatives with?
5a7b7bc121c2de001afea05e
True
Because of space constraints, NARA opened a second facility, known informally as Archives II, in 1994 near the University of Maryland, College Park campus (8601 Adelphi Road, College Park, MD, 20740-6001). Largely because of this proximity, NARA and the University of Maryland engage in cooperative initiatives. The College Park campus includes an archaeological site that was listed on the National Register of Historic Places in 1996.
Where is The Washington National Records Center located?
56e78acb37bdd419002c40ed
Suitland, Maryland
58
False
What does The Washington National Records Center primarily store?
56e78acb37bdd419002c40ee
federal records
125
False
After staying at the WNRC, where are records transferred to?
56e78acb37bdd419002c40ef
the National Archives
377
False
What happens to temporary records at the WNRC if they are not retrieved by the end of the retention times?
56e78acb37bdd419002c40f0
destroyed
549
False
Beyond the storage of federal records, what service does the WNRC provide?
56e78acb37bdd419002c40f1
research
611
False
Suitland, Maryland
58
In what city and state are the National Archives located?
5a7b7d3421c2de001afea074
True
a yearly fee
231
What do researchers pay for storage at the National Archives?
5a7b7d3421c2de001afea075
True
after a certain point
399
When do researchers transfer documents to the WNRC?
5a7b7d3421c2de001afea076
True
a small research room
643
What kind of room is maintained by the National Archives?
5a7b7d3421c2de001afea077
True
the creating agency
178
Who has control of the records stored by researchers?
5a7b7d3421c2de001afea078
True
The Washington National Records Center (WNRC), located in Suitland, Maryland is a large warehouse type facility which stores federal records which are still under the control of the creating agency. Federal government agencies pay a yearly fee for storage at the facility. In accordance with federal records schedules, documents at WNRC are transferred to the legal custody of the National Archives after a certain point (this usually involves a relocation of the records to College Park). Temporary records at WNRC are either retained for a fee or destroyed after retention times has elapsed. WNRC also offers research services and maintains a small research room.
Where is the National Archives Building located?
56e78b7a37bdd419002c40fd
downtown Washington
34
False
What proportion of the federal census records in existence does the National Archives Building house?
56e78b7a37bdd419002c40fe
all
87
False
What's the latest war The National Archives Building has military unit records for?
56e78b7a37bdd419002c4100
Philippine–American War
206
False
What's the earliest war The National Archives Building has military unit records for
56e78b7a37bdd419002c4101
American Revolution
179
False
in downtown Washington
31
Where is the Freedmen's Bureau located?
5a7b7e6b21c2de001afea088
True
record collections
60
What is the Freedmen's Bureau responsible for?
5a7b7e6b21c2de001afea089
True
all existing federal census records, ships' passenger lists
87
What  are two examples of record collections at the Freedmen's Bureau?
5a7b7e6b21c2de001afea08a
True
American Revolution
179
What is the earliest war the Freedmen's Bureau has records for?
5a7b7e6b21c2de001afea08b
True
Philippine–American War
206
What foreign war records are kept at the Freedmen's Bureau?
5a7b7e6b21c2de001afea08c
True
The National Archives Building in downtown Washington holds record collections such as all existing federal census records, ships' passenger lists, military unit records from the American Revolution to the Philippine–American War, records of the Confederate government, the Freedmen's Bureau records, and pension and land records.
What do the facilities designated to each area of the US specialize in?
56e78c5900c9c71400d7728e
documents of federal agencies and courts pertinent to each region
98
False
Microfilms of documents from federal agencies can be found where?
56e78c5900c9c71400d7728f
facilities across the country
10
False
across the country
21
How are court rooms usually situated?
5a7b7ffc21c2de001afea0a4
True
research
45
What is one area that is subject to government funding?
5a7b7ffc21c2de001afea0a5
True
each region
152
What areas are usually under the jurisdiction of federal agencies?
5a7b7ffc21c2de001afea0a6
True
microfilms
84
What type of record storage is no longer widely produced?
5a7b7ffc21c2de001afea0a7
True
documents
98
What is usually produced in abundance by federal agencies?
5a7b7ffc21c2de001afea0a8
True
There are facilities across the country with research rooms, archival holdings, and microfilms of documents of federal agencies and courts pertinent to each region.
Where are some of the items relevant to JFKs medical treatments housed?
56e78cf937bdd419002c4111
Federal Records Centers
13
False
Federal Records Centers are particularly unhelpful to what type of research?
56e78cf937bdd419002c4112
public
147
False
Which Federal Records Center houses materials relevant to JFKs assassination?
56e78cf937bdd419002c4113
FRC in Lenexa, Kansas
181
False
When was JFK shot?
56e78cf937bdd419002c4114
1963
281
False
1963
281
In what year was JFK elected President?
5a7b816b21c2de001afea0c0
True
Lenexa, Kansas
188
Where is JFK originally from?
5a7b816b21c2de001afea0c1
True
Federal agencies
88
Who owns the materials housed for public researchers?
5a7b816b21c2de001afea0c2
True
Federal Records Centers
106
What was open in Lenexa, Kansas in 1963 for research?
5a7b816b21c2de001afea0c3
True
public research
147
What did the FRC start allowing in its facility after 1963?
5a7b816b21c2de001afea0c4
True
In addition, Federal Records Centers exist in each region that house materials owned by Federal agencies. Federal Records Centers are not open for public research. For example, the FRC in Lenexa, Kansas holds items from the treatment of John F. Kennedy after his fatal shooting in 1963.
What agency maintains the Presidential Library system?
56e78dc200c9c71400d772af
NARA
0
False
What is the system that preserves the documents of US Presidents?
56e78dc200c9c71400d772b0
Presidential Library system
24
False
Who is the earliest President that is represented in the archives of the Presidential Library system?
56e78dc200c9c71400d772b1
Herbert Hoover
162
False
In what area of the US can one find the Presidential Library system libraries?
56e78dc200c9c71400d772b2
nationwide
55
False
the Presidential Library system
20
What did Herbert Hoover maintain?
5a7b99a521c2de001afea19c
True
the Presidential Library system
20
What is the system that Herbert Hoover founded?
5a7b99a521c2de001afea19d
True
Presidential Library
24
Where did Herbert Hoover spend much of his time?
5a7b99a521c2de001afea19e
True
NARA
0
What organization was started by Hoover for document storage?
5a7b99a521c2de001afea19f
True
for preserving and making available the documents of U.S. presidents
87
Why did NARA create the Presidential Library System?
5a7b99a521c2de001afea1a0
True
NARA also maintains the Presidential Library system, a nationwide network of libraries for preserving and making available the documents of U.S. presidents since Herbert Hoover. The Presidential Libraries include:
Libraries that are established for other presidents are operated by private foundations, historical societies, and what government entities?
56e78f3100c9c71400d772bf
state governments
195
False
What state operates the Abraham Lincoln Presidential Library?
56e78f3100c9c71400d772c0
Illinois
433
False
What is the earliest President that NARA does not hold records for in its presidential library system?
56e78f3100c9c71400d772c1
Abraham Lincoln
228
False
Abraham Lincoln's Presidential Library and Museum is operated by what type of entity?
56e78f3100c9c71400d772c2
state
195
False
presidents
54
Who have historical societies been established for?
5a7b9cb921c2de001afea1b4
True
Libraries and museums
0
Where can you go in Illinois to learn about the history of the state?
5a7b9cb921c2de001afea1b5
True
private foundations, historical societies, or state governments
149
What groups help fund NARA to support libraries and museums?
5a7b9cb921c2de001afea1b6
True
Illinois
433
What state was Abraham Lincoln from?
5a7b9cb921c2de001afea1b7
True
private foundations
149
What group operates the Calvin Coolidge library?
5a7b9cb921c2de001afea1b8
True
Libraries and museums have been established for other presidents, but they are not part of the NARA presidential library system, and are operated by private foundations, historical societies, or state governments, including the Abraham Lincoln, Rutherford B. Hayes, William McKinley, Woodrow Wilson and Calvin Coolidge libraries. For example, the Abraham Lincoln Presidential Library and Museum is owned and operated by the state of Illinois.
In what year did the National Archives make strides towards making its holdings more widely available?
56e78fd700c9c71400d772c7
2006
157
False
What large internet company has partnered with NARA to digitize records?
56e78fd700c9c71400d772c8
Google
184
False
What Archivist announced the partnership with Google?
56e78fd700c9c71400d772c9
Allen Weinstein
275
False
What is Google helping NARA with?
56e78fd700c9c71400d772ca
digitize and offer NARA video online
196
False
What is the aim of NARA in entering public-private partnerships?
56e78fd700c9c71400d772cb
to make its holdings more widely available
13
False
Google
184
What company did Allen Weinstein work for in 2006?
5a7b9ed221c2de001afea1d6
True
to make its holdings more widely available and more easily accessible
13
Why did Allen Weinstein create Google in 2006?
5a7b9ed221c2de001afea1d7
True
public–private
126
What kind of company is Google considered?
5a7b9ed221c2de001afea1d8
True
digitize and offer NARA video online
196
What is Allen Weinstein creating this pilot program to do?
5a7b9ed221c2de001afea1d9
True
video
220
What did Google first put online in 2006?
5a7b9ed221c2de001afea1da
True
In an effort to make its holdings more widely available and more easily accessible, the National Archives began entering into public–private partnerships in 2006. A joint venture with Google will digitize and offer NARA video online. When announcing the agreement, Archivist Allen Weinstein said that this pilot program is
In January of 2007, what internet company did the National Archives partner with?
56e7910400c9c71400d772eb
Fold3.com
47
False
What was the aim of the partnership with Fold3.com?
56e7910400c9c71400d772ec
to digitize historic documents from the National Archives holdings
102
False
What Archivist announced the partnership with Fold3?
56e7910400c9c71400d772ed
Allen Weinstein
170
False
Of all the benefits of the partnership with Fold3, what benefited the public at large the most?
56e7910400c9c71400d772ee
much greater access
231
False
What direct benefit did NARA itself gain from the partnership with Fold3?
56e7910400c9c71400d772ef
enhance NARA's efforts to preserve its original records
401
False
Fold3.com
47
What website was created on January 10, 2007?
5a7ba0e921c2de001afea1e8
True
4.5 million
268
How many people usually visit the Fold3.com website each year?
5a7ba0e921c2de001afea1e9
True
to preserve its original records
424
What is the main goal of the Footnote website?
5a7ba0e921c2de001afea1ea
True
Footnote
67
What company did Allen Weinstein formerly work for?
5a7ba0e921c2de001afea1eb
True
microfilm
374
What medium did Fold3.com store all of its records on?
5a7ba0e921c2de001afea1ec
True
On January 10, 2007, the National Archives and Fold3.com (formerly Footnote) launched a pilot project to digitize historic documents from the National Archives holdings. Allen Weinstein explained that this partnership would "allow much greater access to approximately 4.5 million pages of important documents that are currently available only in their original format or on microfilm" and "would also enhance NARA's efforts to preserve its original records."
In what year did the National Archives announce that it would make its collection of Universal Newsreels available for purchase online?
56e7a8dc00c9c71400d77499
2007
8
False
What company did the National Archives partner with make it's Universal Newsreels available online?
56e7a8dc00c9c71400d7749a
CreateSpace
147
False
Universal Newsreels dated from which year up to 1967 were made available through CreateSpace?
56e7a8dc00c9c71400d7749d
1929
103
False
2007
8
In what year did CreateSpace begin partnering with Amazon.com?
5a7ba34d21c2de001afea1f2
True
Weinstein
211
Who founded CreateSpace and helped them partner with Amazon.com?
5a7ba34d21c2de001afea1f3
True
reap major benefits for the public-at-large
257
What did Amazon.com think partnering with Weinstein would accomplish?
5a7ba34d21c2de001afea1f4
True
films
414
What can the public view when they go to the Amazon.com website?
5a7ba34d21c2de001afea1f5
True
no charge
442
How much does it cost to view films on Amazon.com from 1929 to 1967?
5a7ba34d21c2de001afea1f6
True
In July 2007, the National Archives announced it would make its collection of Universal Newsreels from 1929 to 1967 available for purchase through CreateSpace, an Amazon.com subsidiary. During the announcement, Weinstein noted that the agreement would "... reap major benefits for the public-at-large and for the National Archives." Adding, "While the public can come to our College Park, MD research room to view films and even copy them at no charge, this new program will make our holdings much more accessible to millions of people who cannot travel to the Washington, DC area." The agreement also calls for CreateSpace partnership to provide the National Archives with digital reference and preservation copies of the films as part of NARA's preservation program.
What did the National Archives announce in May of 2008?
56e7a9ce00c9c71400d774a3
digitize selected records including the complete U.S. Federal Census Collection
70
False
Which genealogy website benefits by the May 2008 announcement?
56e7a9ce00c9c71400d774a4
Ancestry.com
315
False
What happens after the 5 year embargo that allows Ancestry.com exclusive use of digitized records?
56e7a9ce00c9c71400d774a7
turned over to the National Archives
399
False
a five-year agreement to digitize selected records
45
What did Ancestry.com announce in May 2008?
5a7ba69c21c2de001afea1fc
True
1790
151
How far back does Ancestry.com have records for genealogy?
5a7ba69c21c2de001afea1fd
True
5
334
How many years has Ancestry.com been prominent online?
5a7ba69c21c2de001afea1fe
True
1820
183
In what year was the first US census taken?
5a7ba69c21c2de001afea1ff
True
May
3
What month marked the beginning of WWI?
5a7ba69c21c2de001afea200
True
In May 2008, the National Archives announced a five-year agreement to digitize selected records including the complete U.S. Federal Census Collection, 1790–1930, passenger lists from 1820–1960 and WWI and WWII draft registration cards. The partnership agreement allows for exclusive use of the digitized records by Ancestry.com for a 5-year embargo period at which point the digital records will be turned over to the National Archives.
Which Google affiliated website did the National Archives decide to use in 2009?
56e7aa8000c9c71400d774b7
YouTube
69
False
What purpose does the National Archive YouTube channel serve?
56e7aa8000c9c71400d774b8
showcase popular archived films
89
False
What online service did the National Archives decide to use to showcase its photographic holdings?
56e7aa8000c9c71400d774b9
Flickr
282
False
The National Archives' educational team created a website in what year?
56e7aa8000c9c71400d774ba
2010
424
False
June 18, 2009
3
On what date did YouTube begin showing videos online?
5a7baa9e21c2de001afea206
True
3,000
491
How many images are stored on the Flickr website at one time?
5a7baa9e21c2de001afea207
True
"to showcase popular archived films, inform the public about upcoming events around the country
85
Why was the YouTube site first launched in 2010?
5a7baa9e21c2de001afea208
True
A new teaching with documents website
373
What website was created in 2009 that was developed by the public?
5a7baa9e21c2de001afea209
True
lesson plans and tools
589
What was featured on Flickr in June 2009 for creating classroom activities and lessons?
5a7baa9e21c2de001afea20a
True
On June 18, 2009, the National Archives announced the launching of a YouTube channel "to showcase popular archived films, inform the public about upcoming events around the country, and bring National Archives exhibits to the people." Also in 2009, the National Archives launched a Flickr photostream to share portions of its photographic holdings with the general public. A new teaching with documents website premiered in 2010 and was developed by the education team. The website features 3,000 documents, images, and recordings from the holdings of the Archives. The site also features lesson plans and tools for creating new classroom activities and lessons.
In 2011, what sort of Wikipedia addition did the National Archives make?
56e7ab3b00c9c71400d774c1
Wikiproject
42
False
What was the purpose of creating a Wikiproject?
56e7ab3b00c9c71400d774c2
expand collaboration
82
False
Whose idea was it for the National Archives to work with Wikimedia?
56e7ab3b00c9c71400d774c3
National Archives
12
False
What benefit does public reap from the National Archives working with Wikimedia?
56e7ab3b00c9c71400d774c4
holdings widely available
117
False
Which language was the Wikiproject primarily created in?
56e7ab3b00c9c71400d774c5
English
61
False
English
61
In what language was Wikipedia first published in in 2011?
5a7bb527e8bc7e001a9e1d41
True
expand collaboration
82
What is the purpose behind the creation of Wikimedia?
5a7bb527e8bc7e001a9e1d42
True
a Wikiproject
40
What did Wikimedia want saved in the English National Archives?
5a7bb527e8bc7e001a9e1d43
True
Wikimedia
151
What did Wikipedia want its holdings available through?
5a7bb527e8bc7e001a9e1d44
True
collaboration
89
What did English Wikipedia want to expand in 2011?
5a7bb527e8bc7e001a9e1d45
True
In 2011 the National Archives initiated a Wikiproject on the English Wikipedia to expand collaboration in making its holdings widely available through Wikimedia.
Tristan_da_Cunha
what type of islands are the Tristan da Cunha
56e77fd737bdd419002c4045
volcanic
88
False
where are the islands of Tristan da Cunha located?
56e77fd737bdd419002c4046
south Atlantic Ocean
112
False
how many square kilometres  is the island?
56e77fd737bdd419002c4047
98
588
False
what type of island group are the islands?
56e77fd737bdd419002c4048
archipelago
200
False
Tristan
53
WHat is the name for the main kilometres of the group?
5ad3b8ce604f3c001a3fee59
True
Tristan
53
Which is the least remotely inhabited archipelago in the world?
5ad3b8ce604f3c001a3fee5a
True
Tristan da Cunha
0
What is the name for the group of remote volcanic islands in the north Atlantic Ocean?
5ad3b8ce604f3c001a3fee5b
True
Tristan da Cunha
0
What is the name for the group of remote volcanic islands in the south Pacific Ocean?
5ad3b8ce604f3c001a3fee5c
True
Tristan da Cunha
0
What is the name for the group of remote wildlife reserves in the north Atlantic Ocean?
5ad3b8ce604f3c001a3fee5d
True
Tristan da Cunha /ˈtrɪstən də ˈkuːnjə/, colloquially Tristan, is both a remote group of volcanic islands in the south Atlantic Ocean and the main island of that group. It is the most remote inhabited archipelago in the world, lying 2,000 kilometres (1,200 mi) from the nearest inhabited land, Saint Helena, 2,400 kilometres (1,500 mi) from the nearest continental land, South Africa, and 3,360 kilometres (2,090 mi) from South America. The territory consists of the main island, also named Tristan da Cunha, which has a north–south length of 11.27 kilometres (7.00 mi) and has an area of 98 square kilometres (38 sq mi), along with the smaller, uninhabited Nightingale Islands and the wildlife reserves of Inaccessible and Gough Islands.
what territory is Tristan da Cunha part of?
56e7814300c9c71400d771db
the British overseas territory of Saint Helena
28
False
What is the population of the island?
56e7814300c9c71400d771dc
267
256
False
what other island is included in the territory?
56e7814300c9c71400d771dd
Ascension Island
150
False
Tristan da Cunha
0
Which territory is Saint Helena part of?
5ad3b998604f3c001a3fee7d
True
Tristan da Cunha
0
Which territory is Axcension part of?
5ad3b998604f3c001a3fee7e
True
Tristan da Cunha
0
Which territory is British overseas a part of?
5ad3b998604f3c001a3fee7f
True
Ascension Island
150
What is located 3,730 miles north of Tristan?
5ad3b998604f3c001a3fee80
True
Ascension Island
150
Which Island is located 3,730 kilometres south of Tristan?
5ad3b998604f3c001a3fee81
True
Tristan da Cunha is part of the British overseas territory of Saint Helena, Ascension and Tristan da Cunha. This includes Saint Helena and equatorial Ascension Island some 3,730 kilometres (2,318 mi) to the north of Tristan. The island has a population of 267 as of January 2016.
in what year were the islands first sighted?
56e7828337bdd419002c4061
1506
34
False
what was the name of the explorer that sighted them?
56e7828337bdd419002c4062
Tristão da Cunha
62
False
who was the main island named after?
56e7828337bdd419002c4063
Portuguese explorer Tristão da Cunha
42
False
what year was it said the first island landing was made?
56e7828337bdd419002c4064
1520
346
False
Tristão da Cunha
62
Who first sighted the Islands in 1643?
5ad3bac0604f3c001a3feeaf
True
crew of the Heemstede
483
Who made the first undisputed landing in 1506?
5ad3bac0604f3c001a3feeb0
True
Claes Gerritsz Bierenbroodspot
519
Who was the captain of the Tristan da Cunha?
5ad3bac0604f3c001a3feeb1
True
1520
346
When do some sources say the British made the first landing?
5ad3bac0604f3c001a3feeb2
True
Ruy Vaz Pereira
385
By who was the Las Gerritsz captained?
5ad3bac0604f3c001a3feeb3
True
The islands were first sighted in 1506 by Portuguese explorer Tristão da Cunha; rough seas prevented a landing. He named the main island after himself, Ilha de Tristão da Cunha, which was anglicised from its earliest mention on British Admiralty charts to Tristan da Cunha Island. Some sources state that the Portuguese made the first landing in 1520, when the Lás Rafael captained by Ruy Vaz Pereira called at Tristan for water. The first undisputed landing was made in 1643 by the crew of the Heemstede, captained by Claes Gerritsz Bierenbroodspot.
what was the name of the first long term settler?
56e78afc37bdd419002c40f7
Jonathan Lambert
32
False
what year did the first permanent settler arrive?
56e78afc37bdd419002c40f8
December 1810
122
False
what did one of the settlers rename the islands?
56e78afc37bdd419002c40f9
Islands of Refreshment
226
False
Salem, Massachusetts, United States
55
From where was the last permanent settler to the islands?
5ad3bc9e604f3c001a3feef1
True
Jonathan Lambert
32
Who was the last permanent settler to the islands?
5ad3bc9e604f3c001a3feef2
True
December
122
In which month of 1810 did the last permanent settler arrive to the islands?
5ad3bc9e604f3c001a3feef3
True
1810
131
In which year did the last permanent settler arrive at the islands?
5ad3bc9e604f3c001a3feef4
True
the island
450
Where did the only survivor, Thomas Currie, remain a dead man?
5ad3bc9e604f3c001a3feef5
True
The first permanent settler was Jonathan Lambert, from Salem, Massachusetts, United States, who arrived at the islands in December 1810 with two other men. Lambert publicly declared the islands his property and named them the Islands of Refreshment. After being joined by an Andrew Millet, three of the four men died in 1812; however, the survivor among the original three permanent settlers, Thomas Currie (or Tommaso Corri) remained as a farmer on the island.
in what year did the UK annex the islands?
56e78d1b37bdd419002c4119
1816
3
False
where did the UK rule the islands from?
56e78d1b37bdd419002c411a
South Africa
85
False
1816
3
In what year did the islands annex the United Kingdom?
5ad3c4e8604f3c001a3fefcd
True
Cape Colony in South Africa
70
From where did the islands rule the United Kingdom?
5ad3c4e8604f3c001a3fefce
True
1816
3
When were the islands annexed by Napoleon Bonaparte?
5ad3c4e8604f3c001a3fefcf
True
Saint Helena
289
Where was the prison of Tristan da Cunha located?
5ad3c4e8604f3c001a3fefd0
True
The occupation
303
What prevented the US from using Napoleon Bonaparte as a cruiser base?
5ad3c4e8604f3c001a3fefd1
True
In 1816, the United Kingdom annexed the islands, ruling them from the Cape Colony in South Africa. This is reported to have primarily been a measure to ensure that the French would be unable to use the islands as a base for a rescue operation to free Napoleon Bonaparte from his prison on Saint Helena. The occupation also prevented the United States from using Tristan da Cunha as a cruiser base, as it had during the War of 1812.
in what year did Prince Alfred visit the island?
56e78ff500c9c71400d772d1
1867
3
False
what was the main settlement named?
56e78ff500c9c71400d772d2
Edinburgh of the Seven Seas
118
False
who is Lewis Carroll's youngest brother?
56e78ff500c9c71400d772d3
Reverend Edwin Heron Dodgson
219
False
1867
3
When did the third son of Queen Victoria visit the islands?
5ad3ca12604f3c001a3ff0c7
True
1867
3
When did Queen Victoria visit the islands?
5ad3ca12604f3c001a3ff0c8
True
1867
3
When did Edwin Heron visit the islands?
5ad3ca12604f3c001a3ff0c9
True
1867
3
When did Lewis Carroll Dodgson visit the islands?
5ad3ca12604f3c001a3ff0ca
True
1867
3
When did Tristan da Cunha visit the islands?
5ad3ca12604f3c001a3ff0cb
True
In 1867, Prince Alfred, Duke of Edinburgh and second son of Queen Victoria, visited the islands. The main settlement, Edinburgh of the Seven Seas, was named in honour of his visit. Lewis Carroll's youngest brother, the Reverend Edwin Heron Dodgson, served as an Anglican missionary and schoolteacher in Tristan da Cunha in the 1880s.
what is one reason that caused the island to become less used?
56e7921a37bdd419002c4171
the opening of the Suez Canal
204
False
a garrison of British Marines
29
By who was the sailing ships occupied?
5ad3c98e604f3c001a3ff09f
True
Whalers
109
Who used the islands as a base in the Northern Atlantic?
5ad3c98e604f3c001a3ff0a0
True
Suez Canal
223
Which canal was opened in 1689?
5ad3c98e604f3c001a3ff0a1
True
opening of the Suez Canal in 1869, together with the gradual move from sailing ships to coal-fired steam ships
208
What decreased isolation in the islands?
5ad3c98e604f3c001a3ff0a2
True
1869
237
When was the East Asia canal opened?
5ad3c98e604f3c001a3ff0a3
True
The islands were occupied by a garrison of British Marines and a civilian population was gradually built up. Whalers also set up on the islands as a base for operations in the Southern Atlantic. However, the opening of the Suez Canal in 1869, together with the gradual move from sailing ships to coal-fired steam ships, increased the isolation of the islands, as they were no longer needed as a stopping port or for shelter for journeys from Europe to East Asia.
what year were the islands declared dependent of saint helena?
56e7c3a600c9c71400d77591
1938
14
False
12 January 1938
3
When was Saint Helena declared a dependency of the islands?
5ad3cb6c604f3c001a3ff11b
True
Letters Patent
22
What declared Saint Helena a dependency of the islands?
5ad3cb6c604f3c001a3ff11c
True
a period of mere hours.
175
For how long did Letters Patent stop at the island?
5ad3cb6c604f3c001a3ff11d
True
12 January 1938
3
When was Letters Patent declared a dependency of the islands?
5ad3cb6c604f3c001a3ff11e
True
12 January 1938
3
When were the islands declared independent from Saint Helena?
5ad3cb6c604f3c001a3ff11f
True
On 12 January 1938 by Letters Patent the islands were declared a dependency of Saint Helena. Prior to roughly this period, passing ships stopped irregularly at the island for a period of mere hours.
During what war was the island used as a Royal Navy station?
56e7c43300c9c71400d77593
World War II
7
False
What was the islands codename during World War II?
56e7c43300c9c71400d77594
HMS Atlantic Isle
106
False
Who was the administrator during World War II for the island?
56e7c43300c9c71400d77595
Surgeon Lieutenant Commander E.J.S. Woolley
274
False
top secret Royal Navy weather and radio station
48
What were the islands used as during World War I?
5ad3ccd4604f3c001a3ff167
True
HMS Atlantic Isle
106
What were the islands code-named during World War I?
5ad3ccd4604f3c001a3ff168
True
Nazi U-boats
136
The islands were used as a base during World War I to monitor what type of boats?
5ad3ccd4604f3c001a3ff169
True
radio
182
What kind of contact were Navy U-boats required to maintain?
5ad3ccd4604f3c001a3ff16a
True
British government
340
By who was the second administrator appointed?
5ad3ccd4604f3c001a3ff16b
True
During World War II, the islands were used as a top secret Royal Navy weather and radio station codenamed HMS Atlantic Isle, to monitor Nazi U-boats (which were required to maintain radio contact) and shipping movements in the South Atlantic Ocean. The first Administrator, Surgeon Lieutenant Commander E.J.S. Woolley, was appointed by the British government during this time.
What year was an atomic bomb detonated near the island?
56e7c46400c9c71400d7759b
1958
3
False
What country test detonated an atomic bomb near the island?
56e7c46400c9c71400d7759c
United States
55
False
Operation Argus
34
During which mission did the US Army detonate an atomic bomb?
5ad3cd38604f3c001a3ff17b
True
atomic bomb
87
What was detonated during Operation Navy in 1958?
5ad3cd38604f3c001a3ff17c
True
about 175 kilometres (109 mi) southeast of the main island.
152
Where was the nuclear bomb detonated?
5ad3cd38604f3c001a3ff17d
True
1958
3
When did the upper atmosphere detonate an atomic bomb?
5ad3cd38604f3c001a3ff17e
True
In 1958 as part of an experiment, Operation Argus, the United States Navy detonated an atomic bomb 160 kilometres (100 mi) high in the upper atmosphere about 175 kilometres (109 mi) southeast of the main island.
What year was the island evacuated due to an eruption?
56e7c4ee00c9c71400d7759f
1961
4
False
What year did most families return after being evacuated?
56e7c4ee00c9c71400d775a0
1963
325
False
What was the name of the settlement that was assessed after the evactuation?
56e7c4ee00c9c71400d775a1
Edinburgh of the Seven Seas
236
False
1961
4
When was the population of England forced to Cape Town?
5ad3cdcd604f3c001a3ff1a5
True
Queen Mary's Peak
21
Which eruption caused the population of Royal Society to evacuate to England?
5ad3cdcd604f3c001a3ff1a6
True
Most families
299
What returned to the island by 1961?
5ad3cdcd604f3c001a3ff1a7
True
1963
325
By when had most families left the islands?
5ad3cdcd604f3c001a3ff1a8
True
Edinburgh of the Seven Seas
236
Which settlement had been devastatingly affected?
5ad3cdcd604f3c001a3ff1a9
True
The 1961 eruption of Queen Mary's Peak forced the evacuation of the entire population via Cape Town to England. The following year a Royal Society expedition went to the islands to assess the damage, and reported that the settlement of Edinburgh of the Seven Seas had been only marginally affected. Most families returned in 1963.
In what year was the island hit by an extratropical cyclone?
56e7c53b00c9c71400d775a5
2001
10
False
Who provided aid for the extratropical cyclone?
56e7c53b00c9c71400d775a6
the British government
251
False
extratropical cyclone
43
What happened on May 19, 2023?
5ad3ce4d604f3c001a3ff1b5
True
up to 190 kilometres per hour
86
How high were the wind speeds generated from the hurricane on May 23, 2001?
5ad3ce4d604f3c001a3ff1b6
True
British government
255
Who provided cattle to the area following the cyclone?
5ad3ce4d604f3c001a3ff1b7
True
emergency aid
224
What was provided to the area by cattle after the storm?
5ad3ce4d604f3c001a3ff1b8
True
190
92
In miles, what is the equivalent of 120 kilometres per hour?
5ad3ce4d604f3c001a3ff1b9
True
On 23 May 2001, the islands experienced an extratropical cyclone that generated winds up to 190 kilometres per hour (120 mph). A number of structures were severely damaged and a large number of cattle were killed, prompting emergency aid, provided by the British government.
what year was a virus induced flu reported?
56e7c63237bdd419002c43ec
2007
14
False
acute virus-induced flu
37
What was reported on December 20, 2004?
5ad3ceea604f3c001a3ff1cf
True
4 December 2007
3
When was there an outbreak of acute virus-induced flu on the moon?
5ad3ceea604f3c001a3ff1d0
True
medical supplies
149
What was in abundance on the island of Tristan?
5ad3ceea604f3c001a3ff1d1
True
4 December 2007
3
When did the medical supply outbreak occur?
5ad3ceea604f3c001a3ff1d2
True
4 December 2007
3
When did the Tristan outbreak hit the islands?
5ad3ceea604f3c001a3ff1d3
True
On 4 December 2007 an outbreak of an acute virus-induced flu was reported. This outbreak was compounded by Tristan's lack of suitable and sufficient medical supplies.
What year did a large fire destroy the fishing factory?
56e7c6bb37bdd419002c43f0
2008
15
False
When were the new generators installed to correct the power problems?
56e7c6bb37bdd419002c43f1
March 2008
121
False
what was the name of the ship that was a temporary fishing facility?
56e7c6bb37bdd419002c43f2
M/V Kelso
336
False
when was the new fishing factory ready for use?
56e7c6bb37bdd419002c43f3
July 2009
494
False
fire
21
What destroyed the economy on February 13, 2008?
5ad3d168604f3c001a3ff1fd
True
13 February 2008
3
When was there a fire that destroyed the new facility?
5ad3d168604f3c001a3ff1fe
True
While a new factory was being planned and built
287
When did the fire come to the island to act as a new factory ship?
5ad3d168604f3c001a3ff1ff
True
M/V Kelso
336
What came to the island during the fire to act as a factory ship?
5ad3d168604f3c001a3ff200
True
July 2009
494
By when was the old facility ready?
5ad3d168604f3c001a3ff201
True
On 13 February 2008, fire destroyed the fishing factory and the four generators that supplied power to the island. On 14 March 2008, new generators were installed and uninterrupted power was restored. This fire was devastating to the island because fishing is a mainstay of the economy. While a new factory was being planned and built, M/V Kelso came to the island and acted as a factory ship, with island fishermen based on board for stints normally of one week. The new facility was ready in July 2009, for the start of the 2009–10 fishing season.
When did the freighter Nightingale run aground?
56e7c99037bdd419002c43f8
March 2011
6
False
What was spilled when the freighter ran aground?
56e7c99037bdd419002c43f9
heavy fuel oil
93
False
what animal was threatened with the fuel oil spill?
56e7c99037bdd419002c43fa
rockhopper penguins
184
False
where were the penguins transported for cleaning?
56e7c99037bdd419002c43fb
Tristan da Cunha
280
False
16 March 2011
3
When did MS Oliva spill Tristan da Cunha into the ocean?
5ad3d1da604f3c001a3ff217
True
heavy fuel oil
93
What was spilled into rockhopper penguins on March 16, 2011?
5ad3d1da604f3c001a3ff218
True
freighter MS Oliva
22
Who was responsible for spilling tons of rockhopper penguins in the ocean?
5ad3d1da604f3c001a3ff219
True
penguins
251
What was transported to NIghtingale Island for cleaning?
5ad3d1da604f3c001a3ff21a
True
Tristan da Cunha
280
Where was the heavy fuel oil transported to for cleaning?
5ad3d1da604f3c001a3ff21b
True
On 16 March 2011, the freighter MS Oliva ran aground on Nightingale Island, spilling tons of heavy fuel oil into the ocean, leaving an oil slick threatening the island's population of rockhopper penguins. Nightingale Island has no fresh water, so the penguins were transported to Tristan da Cunha for cleaning.
When did a boat arrive at the island with damage during a race?
56e7ca0937bdd419002c4400
November 2011
3
False
What was the name of the boat that was damaged during the race?
56e7ca0937bdd419002c4401
Puma's Mar Mostro
35
False
What was the name of the race the boat was damaged in?
56e7ca0937bdd419002c4402
Volvo Ocean Race
68
False
what was broken/damaged on the boat?
56e7ca0937bdd419002c4403
mast
117
False
from Alicante and Cape Town
145
Where did the Volvo break its mast?
5ad3d2a7604f3c001a3ff257
True
from Alicante and Cape Town
145
Where did the PUma's Mar Mostro break its first leg?
5ad3d2a7604f3c001a3ff258
True
sailing boat Puma's Mar Mostro participant in Volvo Ocean Race arrived to the island after her mast broke
22
What made the island unknown worldwide?
5ad3d2a7604f3c001a3ff259
True
media reports
262
What made Alicante known worldwide?
5ad3d2a7604f3c001a3ff25a
True
media reports
262
What made Cape Town known worldwide?
5ad3d2a7604f3c001a3ff25b
True
On November 2011, the sailing boat Puma's Mar Mostro participant in Volvo Ocean Race arrived to the island after her mast broke in the first leg from Alicante and Cape Town. This event made the island, its inhabitants and lifestyle known worldwide thanks to the media reports.
From December 1937 to March 1938
0
During which time did a British party make the first scientific expedition to Tristan da Cunha?
5ad3cac5604f3c001a3ff0ed
True
From December 1937 to March 1938
0
When did the Norwegian party make the first ever scientific expedition to the moon?
5ad3cac5604f3c001a3ff0ee
True
Tristan da Cunha
96
Where did the British expedition party make the first ever trip to?
5ad3cac5604f3c001a3ff0ef
True
From December 1937 to March 1938
0
When did the Norwegian Party make the last scientific expedition to Tristan da Cunha?
5ad3cac5604f3c001a3ff0f0
True
carried out observations and made recordings of the topography of the island, its people and how they lived and worked and the flora and fauna
157
What did the British expeditionary party do while on their stay at the island?
5ad3cac5604f3c001a3ff0f1
True
From December 1937 to March 1938 a Norwegian party made the first ever scientific expedition to Tristan da Cunha. During their stay, the expeditionary party carried out observations and made recordings of the topography of the island, its people and how they lived and worked and the flora and fauna that inhabited the island.
the only settlement
114
What is located in the south-west coast?
5ad3d325604f3c001a3ff26b
True
Edinburgh of the Seven Seas
135
What is the name for the settlement located in the south-west coast?
5ad3d325604f3c001a3ff26c
True
Queen Mary's Peak
202
Where is the lowest point of the island?
5ad3d325604f3c001a3ff26d
True
weather station
344
What has been operated since 1562 at Transvaal Bay?
5ad3d325604f3c001a3ff26e
True
Transvaal Bay
487
Where is the weather station with a staff of 2,062 currently located?
5ad3d325604f3c001a3ff26f
True
The main island is generally mountainous. The only flat area is on the north-west coast, which is the location of the only settlement, Edinburgh of the Seven Seas. The highest point is a volcano called Queen Mary's Peak 2,062 metres (6,765.1 ft), which is covered by snow in winter. The other islands of the group are uninhabited, except for a weather station with a staff of six on Gough Island, which has been operated by South Africa since 1956 (since 1963 at its present location at Transvaal Bay on the south-east coast).
The archipelago
0
What has a wet oceanic climate with unpleasant temperatures?
5ad3d675604f3c001a3ff2f9
True
the Aleutian Islands
218
What can the number of foggy days be compared to?
5ad3d675604f3c001a3ff2fa
True
Juneau, Alaska
332
To where can moonlight hours be compared?
5ad3d675604f3c001a3ff2fb
True
500 metres
415
Above which elevations is frost virtually unknown?
5ad3d675604f3c001a3ff2fc
True
Sandy Point
511
Which place on the island is said to be the coolest and wettest?
5ad3d675604f3c001a3ff2fd
True
The archipelago has a wet oceanic climate with pleasant temperatures but consistent moderate to heavy rainfall and very limited sunshine, due to the persistent westerly winds. The number of rainy days is comparable to the Aleutian Islands at a much higher latitude in the northern hemisphere, while sunshine hours are comparable to Juneau, Alaska, 20° farther from the equator. Frost is unknown below elevations of 500 metres (1,600 ft) and summer temperatures are similarly mild, never reaching 25 °C (77 °F). Sandy Point on the east coast is reputed to be the warmest and driest place on the island, being in the lee of the prevailing winds.
BirdLife International
105
Who has identified the island as an Important Antarctic Area?
5ad3d721604f3c001a3ff329
True
two
202
There are 13 species of resident land birds on the islands and how many species of breeding seabirds?
5ad3d721604f3c001a3ff32a
True
13
146
There are 2 species of breeding seabirds on the island and how many species of resident land birds?
5ad3d721604f3c001a3ff32b
True
Tristan and Gough Islands
529
Where is the only known breeding site of the Tristan Petrel?
5ad3d721604f3c001a3ff32c
True
wildlife
35
What is Gough primarily known for?
5ad3d721604f3c001a3ff32d
True
Tristan is primarily known for its wildlife. The island has been identified as an Important Bird Area by BirdLife International because there are 13 known species of breeding seabirds on the island and two species of resident land birds. The seabirds include northern rockhopper penguins, Atlantic yellow-nosed albatrosses, sooty albatrosses, Atlantic petrels, great-winged petrels, soft-plumaged petrels, broad-billed prions, grey petrels, great shearwaters, sooty shearwaters, Tristan skuas, Antarctic terns and brown noddies. Tristan and Gough Islands are the only known breeding sites in the world for the Atlantic petrel (Pterodroma incerta; IUCN status EN). Inaccessible Island is also the only known breeding ground of the Spectacled Petrel (Procellaria conspicillata; IUCN Vulnerable). The Tristan albatross (IUCN status CR) is known to breed only on Gough and Inaccessible Islands: all nest on Gough except for one or two pairs who nest on Inaccessible Island.
island's unique social and economic organisation
4
What is based on principles put into place by William Glass in 2013?
5ad3d84a604f3c001a3ff377
True
William Glass
123
Who established a settlement based on inequality in 1817?
5ad3d84a604f3c001a3ff378
True
equality
187
On what did William Glass base his island on?
5ad3d84a604f3c001a3ff379
True
change in its law
523
What will not allow for a outsiders to buy land or settle on Tristan?
5ad3d84a604f3c001a3ff37a
True
90
981
For how many months does the nominal fishing season last?
5ad3d84a604f3c001a3ff37b
True
The island's unique social and economic organisation has evolved over the years, but is based on the principles set out by William Glass in 1817 when he established a settlement based on equality. All Tristan families are farmers, owning their own stock and/or fishing. All land is communally owned. All households have plots of land at The Patches on which they grow potatoes. Livestock numbers are strictly controlled to conserve pasture and to prevent better-off families from accumulating wealth. Unless it votes for a change in its law, no outsiders are allowed to buy land or settle on Tristan; theoretically the whole island would have to be put up for sale. All people – including children and pensioners – are involved in farming, while adults additionally have salaried jobs working either for the Government, or, a small number in domestic service, and many of the men are involved in the fishing industry, going to sea in good weather. The nominal fishing season lasts 90 days; however during the 2013 fishing season – 1 July through 30 September – there were only 10 days suitable for fishing.
Tristan da Cunha canned crawfish factory
41
Which South African Company was destroyed by a 1961 volcanic eruption?
5ad3d8d6604f3c001a3ff381
True
Ovenstone
193
Who has exclusive rights to sell crawfish to the US and UK?
5ad3d8d6604f3c001a3ff382
True
Tristan da Cunha
297
Who is the UK an overseas territory of?
5ad3d8d6604f3c001a3ff383
True
financial problems
533
What may expedite the updating of communication equipment on the island?
5ad3d8d6604f3c001a3ff384
True
financial problems
533
What may expedite the improving of education on the island?
5ad3d8d6604f3c001a3ff385
True
The 1961 volcanic eruption destroyed the Tristan da Cunha canned crawfish factory, which was rebuilt a short time later. The crawfish catchers and processors work for the South African company Ovenstone, which has an exclusive contract to sell crawfish to the United States and Japan. Even though Tristan da Cunha is a UK overseas territory, it is not permitted direct access to European Union markets. Recent[clarification needed] economic conditions have meant that the islanders have had to draw from their reserves. The islands' financial problems may cause delays in updating communication equipment and improving education on the island. The fire of 13 February 2008 (see History) resulted in major temporary economic disruption.
3 weeks
102
For how long does the biannual break from government last?
5ad3d9b3604f3c001a3ff3a9
True
3 weeks
102
For how long does the biannual break from factory work  last?
5ad3d9b3604f3c001a3ff3aa
True
Break-Up Day
111
Which day is usually marked with parties at various Island Stores?
5ad3d9b3604f3c001a3ff3ab
True
government and factory work
30
What is the break that begins on News Year Day from?
5ad3d9b3604f3c001a3ff3ac
True
2013
324
In which year did the Island Store close a week later than normal due to inventory shortages?
5ad3d9b3604f3c001a3ff3ad
True
There is an annual break from government and factory work which begins before Christmas and lasts for 3 weeks. Break-Up Day is usually marked with parties at various work "departments". Break-Up includes the Island Store, which means that families must be organised to have a full larder of provisions during the period. In 2013, the Island Store closed a week earlier than usual to conduct a comprehensive inventory, and all purchases had to be made by Friday 13 December as the shop did not open again until a month later.
Healthcare
0
What is the government funded by?
5ad3dac7604f3c001a3ff3bb
True
South Africa
79
From where are the five resident nurses from?
5ad3dac7604f3c001a3ff3bc
True
South Africa
79
From where are the five doctors on the island from?
5ad3dac7604f3c001a3ff3bd
True
access to long distance tele-medical help
510
What makes it impossible to send EKG pictures to other countries?
5ad3dac7604f3c001a3ff3be
True
poor reliability of Internet connections and an absence of qualified technicians
701
How has the system for long distance medical help remained unlimited?
5ad3dac7604f3c001a3ff3bf
True
Healthcare is funded by the government, undertaken by one resident doctor from South Africa and five nurses. Surgery or facilities for complex childbirth are therefore limited, and emergencies can necessitate communicating with passing fishing vessels so the injured person can be ferried to Cape Town. As of late 2007, IBM and Beacon Equity Partners, co-operating with Medweb, the University of Pittsburgh Medical Center and the island's government on "Project Tristan", has supplied the island's doctor with access to long distance tele-medical help, making it possible to send EKG and X-ray pictures to doctors in other countries for instant consultation. This system has been limited owing to the poor reliability of Internet connections and an absence of qualified technicians on the island to service fibre optic links between the hospital and Internet centre at the administration buildings.
Tristan Song
4
Who collaborated with St. Mary's School to create the amateur composers Project?
5ad3dbc5604f3c001a3ff3df
True
Tristan Song
4
Who collaborated with amateur composers to create the St. Mary's School Project?
5ad3dbc5604f3c001a3ff3e0
True
St Mary's School
53
Who collaborated with Tristan Song to create the Amateur Composers Project?
5ad3dbc5604f3c001a3ff3e1
True
The Tristan Song Project
0
Which project was led by Rockhopper Penguins?
5ad3dbc5604f3c001a3ff3e2
True
2014
636
When did the Tristan Song Project narrow its scope?
5ad3dbc5604f3c001a3ff3e3
True
The Tristan Song Project was a collaboration between St Mary's School and amateur composers in England, led by music teacher Tony Triggs. It began in 2010 and involved St Mary's pupils writing poems and Tony Triggs providing musical settings by himself and his pupils. A desktop publication entitled Rockhopper Penguins and Other Songs (2010) embraced most of the songs completed that year and funded a consignment of guitars to the School. In February 2013 the Tristan Post Office issued a set of four Song Project stamps featuring island musical instruments and lyrics from Song Project songs about Tristan's volcano and wildlife. In 2014 the Project broadened its scope and continues as the International Song Project.
Edinburgh of the Seven Seas
61
What is The Settlement known by locals as?
5ad3dc5e604f3c001a3ff3ff
True
301
33
From how many ancestors is the current population of 15 thought to have descended from?
5ad3dc5e604f3c001a3ff400
True
Scotland, England, The Netherlands, the United States and Italy,
414
From where did the female founders originate?
5ad3dc5e604f3c001a3ff401
True
80
676
How many families live in the Roman Catholic church?
5ad3dc5e604f3c001a3ff402
True
The Mother Tongue
1008
What is the name of the book, written by Simon Winchester, that documents examples of the island's dialect?
5ad3dc5e604f3c001a3ff403
True
The islands have a population of 301. The main settlement is Edinburgh of the Seven Seas (known locally as "The Settlement"). The only religion is Christianity, with denominations of Anglican and Roman Catholic. The current population is thought to have descended from 15 ancestors, eight males and seven females, who arrived on the island at various times between 1816 and 1908. The male founders originated from Scotland, England, The Netherlands, the United States and Italy, belonging to 3 Y-haplogroups: I (M170), R-SRY10831.2 and R (M207) (xSRY10831.2) and share just eight surnames: Glass, Green, Hagan, Lavarello, Patterson, Repetto, Rogers, and Swain.[n 1] There are 80 families on the island. Tristan da Cunha's isolation has led to an unusual, patois-like dialect of English described by the writer Simon Winchester as "a sonorous amalgam of Home Counties lockjaw and nineteenth century idiom, Afrikaans slang and Italian." Bill Bryson documents some examples of the island's dialect in his book, The Mother Tongue.
the Queen
33
Who is the Governor of Saint Helena represented by?
5ad3dcf2604f3c001a3ff425
True
the Queen
33
What is vested in executive authority?
5ad3dcf2604f3c001a3ff426
True
Saint Helena
152
Where does the Queen permanently reside?
5ad3dcf2604f3c001a3ff427
True
Alex Mitham
591
Who was appointed Tristan da Cunha's 3-year Administrator?
5ad3dcf2604f3c001a3ff428
True
September 2013
722
When did Sean Burns arrive to takeover from Alex Mitham?
5ad3dcf2604f3c001a3ff429
True
Executive authority is vested in the Queen, who is represented in the territory by the Governor of Saint Helena. As the Governor resides permanently in Saint Helena, an Administrator is appointed to represent the Governor in the islands. The Administrator is a career civil servant in the Foreign Office and is selected by London. Since 1998, each Administrator has served a single, three-year term (which begins in September, upon arrival of the supply ship from Cape Town.) The Administrator acts as the local head of government, and takes advice from the Tristan da Cunha Island Council. Alex Mitham was appointed Tristan da Cunha’s 22nd Administrator and arrived, with his wife Hasene, to take over from Sean Burns in September 2013. The Island Council is made up of eight elected and three appointed members, who serve a 3-year term which begins in February (or March).
remote location of the islands
4
What makes travelling to the outside world easy?
5ad3de0b604f3c001a3ff453
True
airport
94
Lacking a sea, how can the islands be reached?
5ad3de0b604f3c001a3ff454
True
eight or nine times a year
195
How many times a year do airplanes service the area?
5ad3de0b604f3c001a3ff455
True
Hampshire
828
Where did the United Kingdom government stay during the volcanic eruption?
5ad3de0b604f3c001a3ff456
True
United Kingdom government
549
Who financed the new airport in Calshot Harbour?
5ad3de0b604f3c001a3ff457
True
The remote location of the islands makes transport to the outside world difficult. Lacking an airport, the islands can be reached only by sea. Fishing boats from South Africa service the islands eight or nine times a year. The RMS Saint Helena used to connect the main island to St Helena and South Africa once each year during its January voyage, but has done so only twice in the last few years, in 2006 and 2011. The wider territory has access to air travel with Ascension island served by RAF Ascension Island and a new airport, financed by the United Kingdom government, under construction on St Helena and due for completion in 2016. There is however no direct, regular service to Tristan da Cunha itself from either location. The harbour at Edinburgh of the Seven Seas is called Calshot Harbour, named after the place in Hampshire where the islanders temporarily stayed during the volcanic eruption.
1998 to 2006,
297
From when was there a low cost, high speed internet available on the island?
5ad3dec0604f3c001a3ff475
True
Tristan da Cunha
9
With who does St. Helena share the 3072 code?
5ad3dec0604f3c001a3ff476
True
Commonwealth Office Telecommunications Network
104
Who provides the Global Crossing Network?
5ad3dec0604f3c001a3ff477
True
St Helena
52
Who does Tristan Da Cunha share Global Crossing codes with?
5ad3dec0604f3c001a3ff478
True
Although Tristan da Cunha shares the +290 code with St Helena, residents have access to the Foreign and Commonwealth Office Telecommunications Network, provided by Global Crossing. This uses a London 020 numbering range, meaning that numbers are accessed via the UK telephone numbering plan. From 1998 to 2006, internet was available in Tristan da Cunha but its high cost made it almost unaffordable for the local population, who primarily used it only to send email. The connection was also extremely unreliable, connecting through a 64 kbit/s satellite phone connection provided by Inmarsat. From 2006, a very-small-aperture terminal provides 3072 kbit/s of publicly accessible bandwidth via an internet cafe.
University_of_Kansas
What is the abbreviation by which the University of Kansas is known?
56e780ac00c9c71400d771c7
KU
26
False
Where is the main branch of the University of Kansas located?
56e780ac00c9c71400d771c8
Lawrence
154
False
What is the tallest point in Lawrence?
56e780ac00c9c71400d771c9
Mount Oread
265
False
Who authorized the opening of the University of Kansas?
56e780ac00c9c71400d771ca
the Kansas State Legislature
398
False
In what year was Kansas made a member of the United States?
56e780ac00c9c71400d771cb
1861
546
False
KU
26
What is the abbreviation by which the University of Kentucky is known?
5acf495477cf76001a684b00
True
Lawrence on Mount Oread
253
Where is the side branch of the University of Kansas located?
5acf495477cf76001a684b01
True
Mount Oread
265
What is the lowest point in Lawrence?
5acf495477cf76001a684b02
True
Kansas State Legislature
402
Who authorized the closing of the University of Kansas?
5acf495477cf76001a684b03
True
1861
546
In what year was Kansas made a member of the United Nations?
5acf495477cf76001a684b04
True
The University of Kansas (KU) is a public research university and the largest in the U.S. state of Kansas. KU branch campuses are located in the towns of Lawrence, Wichita, Overland Park, Salina, and Kansas City, Kansas, with the main campus located in Lawrence on Mount Oread, the highest location in Lawrence. Founded March 21, 1865, the university was opened in 1866, under a charter granted by the Kansas State Legislature in 1864 following enabling legislation passed in 1863 under the Kansas State Constitution, adopted two years after the 1861 admission of the former Kansas Territory as the 34th state into the Union following a very famous bloody internal civil war known as "Bleeding Kansas" during the 1850s.
In what two cities are there satellite locations for KU's medical school?
56e7812637bdd419002c404d
Wichita and Salina
310
False
What organization does KU belong to?
56e7812637bdd419002c404e
the Association of American Universities
373
False
How many insititutions comprise the Association of American Universities' membership?
56e7812637bdd419002c404f
62
359
False
In what city can KU's hospital be found?
56e7812637bdd419002c4050
Kansas City
71
False
In what city can KU's Edwards campus be found?
56e7812637bdd419002c4051
Overland Park
117
False
Wichita and Salina
310
In what two cities are there satellite locations for KU's law school?
5acf49b477cf76001a684b0a
True
Association of American Universities
377
What organization doesn't KU belong to?
5acf49b477cf76001a684b0b
True
62
359
How many insititutions rejected the Association of American Universities' membership?
5acf49b477cf76001a684b0c
True
Kansas City
71
In what city can KU's law school be found?
5acf49b477cf76001a684b0d
True
Overland Park
117
In what city can't KU's Edwards campus be found?
5acf49b477cf76001a684b0e
True
The university's Medical Center and University Hospital are located in Kansas City, Kansas. The Edwards Campus is in Overland Park, Kansas, in the Kansas City metropolitan area. There are also educational and research sites in Parsons and Topeka, and branches of the University of Kansas School of Medicine in Wichita and Salina. The university is one of the 62 members of the Association of American Universities.
How many people attended the University of Kansas at its Edwards and Lawrence locations in the fall semester of 2014?
56e7822000c9c71400d771e1
23,597
52
False
In the autumn of 2014, how many people attended the University of Kansas's Medical Center?
56e7822000c9c71400d771e2
3,371
96
False
How many students attended the University of Kansas combined in fall of 2014?
56e7822000c9c71400d771e3
26,968
176
False
How many education professionals were working at KU in the fall of 2012?
56e7822000c9c71400d771e4
2,663
251
False
23,597
52
How many people attended the University of Kansas at its Edwards and Lawrence locations in the winter semester of 2014?
5acf4a1f77cf76001a684b14
True
3,371
96
In the spring of 2014, how many people attended the University of Kansas's Medical Center?
5acf4a1f77cf76001a684b15
True
26,968
176
How many students attended the University of Kansas combined in fall of 2015?
5acf4a1f77cf76001a684b16
True
2,663
251
How many education professionals were working at KU in the fall of 2014?
5acf4a1f77cf76001a684b17
True
2,663
251
How many students were working at KU in the fall of 2012?
5acf4a1f77cf76001a684b18
True
Enrollment at the Lawrence and Edwards campuses was 23,597 students in fall 2014; an additional 3,371 students were enrolled at the KU Medical Center for a total enrollment of 26,968 students across the three campuses. The university overall employed 2,663 faculty members in fall 2012.
On what date was KU's Lawrence campus made official?
56e782a500c9c71400d771f3
February 20, 1863
3
False
How much money did Lawrence have to contribute to the University as terms of its charter?
56e782a500c9c71400d771f5
$15,000
173
False
What was the minimum size of the land that Lawrence could provide for the university?
56e782a500c9c71400d771f6
forty acres
265
False
What competing city was next in line if Lawrence would have been unable to meet the requirements necessary to get KU built in its city?
56e782a500c9c71400d771f7
Emporia
339
False
February 20, 1863
3
On what date was KU's Lawrence campus made unofficial?
5acf4a8777cf76001a684b1e
True
$15,000
173
How much gold did Lawrence have to contribute to the University as terms of its charter?
5acf4a8777cf76001a684b1f
True
forty acres
265
What was the maximum size of the land that Lawrence could provide for the university?
5acf4a8777cf76001a684b20
True
Emporia
339
What competing city was next in line if Lawrence would have been able to meet the requirements necessary to get KU built in its city?
5acf4a8777cf76001a684b21
True
Emporia
339
What out of state city was next in line if Lawrence would have been unable to meet the requirements necessary to get KU built in its city?
5acf4a8777cf76001a684b22
True
On February 20, 1863, Kansas Governor Thomas Carney signed into law a bill creating the state university in Lawrence. The law was conditioned upon a gift from Lawrence of a $15,000 endowment fund and a site for the university, in or near the town, of not less than forty acres (16 ha) of land. If Lawrence failed to meet these conditions, Emporia instead of Lawrence would get the university.
On what geographic feature was KU built?
56e7853900c9c71400d7721d
Mount Oread
57
False
Who did the site of KU's construction originally belong to?
56e7853900c9c71400d7721e
Charles L. Robinson
112
False
Who provided the majority of the money needed to secure the site of the University of Kansas?
56e7853900c9c71400d7721f
Amos Adams Lawrence
268
False
What was the governing body of KU?
56e7853900c9c71400d77220
Board of Regents
626
False
What was the year in which KU's first roster of students graduated?
56e7853900c9c71400d77221
1873
881
False
Mount Oread
57
On what geographic feature was KU torn down?
5acf4ae377cf76001a684b28
True
Charles L. Robinson
112
Who did the site of UK's construction originally belong to?
5acf4ae377cf76001a684b29
True
Amos Adams Lawrence
268
Who provided the minority of the money needed to secure the site of the University of Kansas?
5acf4ae377cf76001a684b2a
True
Board of Regents
626
What was the non-governing body of KU?
5acf4ae377cf76001a684b2b
True
1873
881
What was the year in which KU's final roster of students graduated?
5acf4ae377cf76001a684b2c
True
The site selected for the university was a hill known as Mount Oread, which was owned by former Kansas Governor Charles L. Robinson. Robinson and his wife Sara bestowed the 40-acre (16 ha) site to the State of Kansas in exchange for land elsewhere. The philanthropist Amos Adams Lawrence donated $10,000 of the necessary endowment fund, and the citizens of Lawrence raised the remaining cash by issuing notes backed by Governor Carney. On November 2, 1863, Governor Carney announced that Lawrence had met the conditions to get the state university, and the following year the university was officially organized. The school's Board of Regents held its first meeting in March 1865, which is the event that KU dates its founding from. Work on the first college building began later that year. The university opened for classes on September 12, 1866, and the first class graduated in 1873.
How many institutions participated in the V-12 program?
56e7857d37bdd419002c4091
131
39
False
What did the V-12 program provide to interested pupils?
56e7857d37bdd419002c4092
a path to a Navy commission
160
False
During what event did the V-12 program take place?
56e7857d37bdd419002c4093
World War II
7
False
131
39
How many institutions never participated in the V-12 program?
5acf4b2977cf76001a684b32
True
131
39
How many institutions participated in the 12-V program?
5acf4b2977cf76001a684b33
True
a path to a Navy commission
160
What did the V-12 program provide to uninterested pupils?
5acf4b2977cf76001a684b34
True
a path to a Navy commission
160
What did the V-12 program provide to interested faculty?
5acf4b2977cf76001a684b35
True
World War II
7
During what event did the V-12 program not take place?
5acf4b2977cf76001a684b36
True
During World War II, Kansas was one of 131 colleges and universities nationally that took part in the V-12 Navy College Training Program which offered students a path to a Navy commission.
What part of KU serves students learning about government?
56e7860237bdd419002c4097
the Robert J. Dole Institute of Politics
14
False
What are two radio stations that broadcast from KU?
56e7860237bdd419002c4098
KJHK, 90.7 FM, and KANU, 91.5 FM
129
False
What is the name of a fine art institution on the campus of KU?
56e7860237bdd419002c4099
the Spencer Museum of Art
267
False
Which library is dedicated to a former student of the University of Kansas?
56e7860237bdd419002c409a
Anschutz Library
384
False
Whom is the Anschutz Library named for?
56e7860237bdd419002c409b
Philip Anschutz
437
False
Robert J. Dole Institute of Politics
18
What part of KU serves students not learning about government?
5acf4b8f77cf76001a684b3c
True
KJHK, 90.7 FM, and KANU, 91.5 FM
129
What are two radio stations that broadcast outside of KU?
5acf4b8f77cf76001a684b3d
True
Spencer Museum of Art
271
What is the name of a crude art institution on the campus of KU?
5acf4b8f77cf76001a684b3e
True
Anschutz Library
384
Which library is dedicated to a current student of the University of Kansas?
5acf4b8f77cf76001a684b3f
True
Philip Anschutz
437
Whom isn't the Anschutz Library named for?
5acf4b8f77cf76001a684b40
True
KU is home to the Robert J. Dole Institute of Politics, the Beach Center on Disability, Lied Center of Kansas and radio stations KJHK, 90.7 FM, and KANU, 91.5 FM. The university is host to several museums including the University of Kansas Natural History Museum and the Spencer Museum of Art. The libraries of the University include the Watson Library, Spencer Research Library, and Anschutz Library, which commemorates the businessman Philip Anschutz, an alumnus of the University.
How many campuses are run by KU?
56e786e700c9c71400d77241
five
70
False
What term describes the nature of how the university is partially funded?
56e786e700c9c71400d77242
state-sponsored
37
False
What are two parts of the University of Kansas house in the College of Liberal Arts and Sciences?
56e786e700c9c71400d77243
the School of the Arts and the School of Public Affairs & Administration
152
False
At least how many different degree-granting programs exist at KU?
56e786e700c9c71400d77244
345
459
False
five
70
How many campuses aren't run by KU?
5acf4c0577cf76001a684b46
True
state-sponsored
37
What term describes the nature of how the university is fully funded?
5acf4c0577cf76001a684b47
True
the School of the Arts and the School of Public Affairs & Administration
152
What are three parts of the University of Kansas house in the College of Liberal Arts and Sciences?
5acf4c0577cf76001a684b48
True
345
459
At least how many different degree-granting programs don't exist at KU?
5acf4c0577cf76001a684b49
True
345
459
At least how many different non-degree granting programs exist at KU?
5acf4c0577cf76001a684b4a
True
The University of Kansas is a large, state-sponsored university, with five campuses. KU features the College of Liberal Arts & Sciences, which includes the School of the Arts and the School of Public Affairs & Administration; and the schools of Architecture, Design & Planning; Business; Education; Engineering; Health Professions; Journalism & Mass Communications; Law; Medicine; Music; Nursing; Pharmacy; and Social Welfare. The university offers more than 345 degree programs.
What program at the University of Kansas was rated highest among its peers?
56e7878500c9c71400d77249
city management and urban policy
4
False
What KU department was rated second in its field?
56e7878500c9c71400d7724a
special education
85
False
Which publication provided rankings of college and university programs?
56e7878500c9c71400d7724b
U.S. News & World Report
122
False
In what tier did a number of KU's programs rank in 2016?
56e7878500c9c71400d7724c
the top 25
203
False
city management and urban policy
4
What program at the University of Kansas was rated lowest among its peers?
5acf4c7277cf76001a684b50
True
city management and urban policy
4
What program at the University of Kansas was rated highest among random people?
5acf4c7277cf76001a684b51
True
special education
85
What KU department was rated last in its field?
5acf4c7277cf76001a684b52
True
U.S. News & World Report
122
Which radio program provided rankings of college and university programs?
5acf4c7277cf76001a684b53
True
top 25
207
In what tier did a number of KU's programs rank in 2015?
5acf4c7277cf76001a684b54
True
The city management and urban policy program was ranked first in the nation, and the special education program second, by U.S. News & World Report's 2016 rankings. USN&WR also ranked several programs in the top 25 among U.S. universities.
What KU school is abbreviated as SADP?
56e7882837bdd419002c40c9
The University of Kansas School of Architecture, Design, and Planning
0
False
Where is the SADP housed?
56e7882837bdd419002c40ca
Marvin Hall
107
False
What was the name of the school that served as the SADP's precursor?
56e7882837bdd419002c40cb
the School of Architecture and Urban Design
318
False
With what two other programs was KU's architectural engineering curriculum joined in 2001?
56e7882837bdd419002c40cc
civil and environmental engineering
508
False
In what year did the SADP assume its current form?
56e7882837bdd419002c40cd
2009
638
False
University of Kansas School of Architecture, Design, and Planning
4
What KU school is abbreviated as SDAP?
5acf4ce277cf76001a684b5a
True
Marvin Hall
107
Where is the SDAP housed?
5acf4ce277cf76001a684b5b
True
School of Architecture and Urban Design
322
What was the name of the school that served as the SADP's postcursor?
5acf4ce277cf76001a684b5c
True
civil and environmental engineering
508
With what two other programs was KU's architectural engineering curriculum joined in 2010?
5acf4ce277cf76001a684b5d
True
2009
638
In what year did the SADP reject its current form?
5acf4ce277cf76001a684b5e
True
The University of Kansas School of Architecture, Design, and Planning (SADP), with its main building being Marvin Hall, traces its architectural roots to the creation of the architectural engineering degree program in KU's School of Engineering in 1912. The Bachelor of Architecture degree was added in 1920. In 1969, the School of Architecture and Urban Design (SAUD) was formed with three programs: architecture, architectural engineering, and urban planning. In 2001 architectural engineering merged with civil and environmental engineering. The design programs from the discontinued School of Fine Arts were merged into the school in 2009 forming the current School of Architecture, Design, and Planning.
What is the name of the publication that ranks schools engaged in architecture and design education?
56e78d6b00c9c71400d7729d
DesignIntelligence
25
False
What is the name of the yearly ratings published by DesignIntelligence?
56e78d6b00c9c71400d7729e
America's Best Architecture and Design Schools
71
False
What title did KU's architecture school receive in 2012?
56e78d6b00c9c71400d7729f
best in the Midwest
206
False
In what place did the University of Kansas finish in national rankings for undergraduate architecture programs in 2012?
56e78d6b00c9c71400d772a0
11th
237
False
DesignIntelligence
25
What is the name of the publication that doesn't rank schools engaged in architecture and design education?
5acf4d3f77cf76001a684b64
True
America's Best Architecture and Design Schools
71
What is the name of the monthly ratings published by DesignIntelligence?
5acf4d3f77cf76001a684b65
True
best in the Midwest
206
What title did KU's architecture school lose in 2012?
5acf4d3f77cf76001a684b66
True
11th
237
In what place did the University of Kansas finish in international rankings for undergraduate architecture programs in 2012?
5acf4d3f77cf76001a684b67
True
11th
237
In what place did the University of Kansas finish in national rankings for graduate architecture programs in 2012?
5acf4d3f77cf76001a684b68
True
According to the journal DesignIntelligence, which annually publishes "America's Best Architecture and Design Schools," the School of Architecture and Urban Design at the University of Kansas was named the best in the Midwest and ranked 11th among all undergraduate architecture programs in the U.S in 2012.
What kind of institution is KU's School of Business?
56e78dc437bdd419002c4125
public
49
False
Where is the business school at KU located?
56e78dc437bdd419002c4126
Lawrence
130
False
When was the University of Kansas School of Business established?
56e78dc437bdd419002c4127
1924
189
False
How many students attend the business school at KU?
56e78dc437bdd419002c4128
1500
259
False
How many educators work at the KU School of Business?
56e78dc437bdd419002c4129
more than 80
212
False
public
49
What kind of institution isn't KU's School of Business?
5acf4dd377cf76001a684b6e
True
Lawrence
130
Where is the business school at KU not located?
5acf4dd377cf76001a684b6f
True
1924
189
When was the University of Kansas School of Business destroyed?
5acf4dd377cf76001a684b70
True
1500
259
How many students dropped out of the business school at KU?
5acf4dd377cf76001a684b71
True
more than 80
212
How many educators volunteer at the KU School of Business?
5acf4dd377cf76001a684b72
True
The University of Kansas School of Business is a public business school located on the main campus of the University of Kansas in Lawrence, Kansas. The KU School of Business was founded in 1924 and currently has more than 80 faculty members and approximately 1500 students.
Who considered the business school of the University of Kansas among the best Midwestern business institutions?
56e78e9800c9c71400d772b7
Princeton Review
57
False
What organization provides oversight for business schools like KU's?
56e78e9800c9c71400d772b8
the Association to Advance Collegiate Schools of Business
136
False
By what acronym is the Association to Advance Collegiate Schools of Business known?
56e78e9800c9c71400d772b9
AACSB
195
False
What are two kinds of courses of study available at KU's business school?
56e78e9800c9c71400d772ba
business and accounting
254
False
Princeton Review
57
Who considered the business school of the University of Kansas among the worst Midwestern business institutions?
5acf4e3877cf76001a684b78
True
Princeton Review
57
Who considered the business school of the University of Kansas among the best Southwestern business institutions?
5acf4e3877cf76001a684b79
True
Association to Advance Collegiate Schools of Business
140
What organization provides oversight for law schools like KU's?
5acf4e3877cf76001a684b7a
True
AACSB
195
By what acronym is the Association to Advance Collegiate Schools of Business not known?
5acf4e3877cf76001a684b7b
True
business and accounting
254
What are two kinds of courses of study unavailable at KU's business school?
5acf4e3877cf76001a684b7c
True
Named one of the best business schools in the Midwest by Princeton Review, the KU School of Business has been continually accredited by the Association to Advance Collegiate Schools of Business (AACSB) for both its undergraduate and graduate programs in business and accounting.
In 2014, what issue of U.S. News & World Report provided rankins for law schools?
56e78f1137bdd419002c4139
Best Graduate Schools
155
False
What was KU's national law school ranking in 2014?
56e78f1137bdd419002c413a
68th
90
False
The University of Kansas had the highest rated law school in which state?
56e78f1137bdd419002c413b
Kansas
18
False
In what building do law students attend classes at KU?
56e78f1137bdd419002c413c
Green Hall
207
False
For whom is Green Hall named?
56e78f1137bdd419002c413d
James Green
280
False
Best Graduate Schools
155
In 2015, what issue of U.S. News & World Report provided rankins for law schools?
5acf4e9a77cf76001a684b82
True
68th
90
What was KU's local law school ranking in 2014?
5acf4e9a77cf76001a684b83
True
Kansas
78
The University of Kansas had the lowest rated law school in which state?
5acf4e9a77cf76001a684b84
True
Green Hall
207
In what building do law students skip classes at KU?
5acf4e9a77cf76001a684b85
True
James Green
280
For whom is Green Hall not named?
5acf4e9a77cf76001a684b86
True
The University of Kansas School of Law was the top law school in the state of Kansas, and 68th nationally, according to the 2014 U.S. News & World Report "Best Graduate Schools" edition. Classes are held in Green Hall at W 15th St and Burdick Dr, which is named after former dean James Green.
What is the acronym for an organization that serves as an accreditation body for engineering schools?
56e7906100c9c71400d772d7
ABET
35
False
On what campus is the University of Kansas School of Engineering located?
56e7906100c9c71400d772d8
main campus
93
False
When was KU's engineering school established?
56e7906100c9c71400d772d9
1891
158
False
When did the University of Kansas start issuing degrees in engineering?
56e7906100c9c71400d772da
1873
218
False
What kind of institution is KU's engineering school?
56e7906100c9c71400d772db
public
52
False
ABET
35
What is the acronym for an organization that serves as an accreditation body for med schools?
5acf4ee977cf76001a684b8c
True
main campus
93
On what campus is the University of Kansas School of Engineering not located?
5acf4ee977cf76001a684b8d
True
1891
158
When was KU's engineering school closed?
5acf4ee977cf76001a684b8e
True
1873
218
When did the University of Kansas stop issuing degrees in engineering?
5acf4ee977cf76001a684b8f
True
public
52
What kind of institution is KU's law school?
5acf4ee977cf76001a684b90
True
The KU School of Engineering is an ABET accredited, public engineering school located on the main campus. The School of Engineering was officially founded in 1891, although engineering degrees were awarded as early as 1873.
Who published America's Best Colleges in 2016?
56e790e237bdd419002c414d
U.S. News & World Report
7
False
In what place did the engineering school at KU appear in 2016?
56e790e237bdd419002c414e
90th
119
False
Against what other kinds of institutions was KU's engineering school compared?
56e790e237bdd419002c414f
national universities
130
False
U.S. News & World Report
7
Who published America's Best Colleges in 2015?
5acf5c9477cf76001a684c36
True
U.S. News & World Report
7
Who published America's Worst Colleges in 2016?
5acf5c9477cf76001a684c37
True
90th
119
In what place did the engineering school at UK appear in 2016?
5acf5c9477cf76001a684c38
True
90th
119
In what place did the engineering school at KU appear in 2015?
5acf5c9477cf76001a684c39
True
national universities
130
Against what other kinds of institutions was KU's med school compared?
5acf5c9477cf76001a684c3a
True
In the U.S. News & World Report's "America’s Best Colleges" 2016 issue, KU’s School of Engineering was ranked tied for 90th among national universities.
What former leader of a car manufacturing company attended KU?
56e7915837bdd419002c415d
Alan Mulally
24
False
Which person associated with web browsers was a student at KU?
56e7915837bdd419002c415e
Lou Montulli
94
False
What Google employee once studied at the University of Kansas?
56e7915837bdd419002c415f
Brian McClendon
167
False
What oil company leader is an alumnus of the University of Kansas?
56e7915837bdd419002c4160
Charles E. Spahr
225
False
For what company did Charles Spahr serve as CEO?
56e7915837bdd419002c4161
Standard Oil of Ohio
264
False
Alan Mulally
24
What current leader of a car manufacturing company attended KU?
5acf5df877cf76001a684c5e
True
Lou Montulli
94
Which person associated with web browsers was a teacher at KU?
5acf5df877cf76001a684c5f
True
Brian McClendon
167
What Google employee once taught at the University of Kansas?
5acf5df877cf76001a684c60
True
Charles E. Spahr
225
What oil company leader is a professor of the University of Kansas?
5acf5df877cf76001a684c61
True
Standard Oil of Ohio
264
For what company did Charles Spahr serve as CFO?
5acf5df877cf76001a684c62
True
Notable alumni include: Alan Mulally (BS/MS), former President and CEO of Ford Motor Company, Lou Montulli, co-founder of Netscape and author of the Lynx web browser, Brian McClendon (BSEE 1986), VP of Engineering at Google, Charles E. Spahr (1934), former CEO of Standard Oil of Ohio.
What is the full name of KU's journalism school?
56e7928637bdd419002c4175
The William Allen White School of Journalism and Mass Communications
0
False
What are the two different programs offered at KU's Schoold of Journalism?
56e7928637bdd419002c4176
News and Information and Strategic Communication
208
False
What three types of media are students taught to work with at KU's School of Journalism?
56e7928637bdd419002c4177
print, online and broadcast
318
False
What is the name of a magazine published at KU?
56e7928637bdd419002c4178
Jayplay magazine
546
False
Who sponsors a contest for journalistic writing?
56e7928637bdd419002c4179
Hearst Foundation
760
False
The William Allen White School of Journalism and Mass Communications
0
What is the partial name of KU's journalism school?
5acf5e5777cf76001a684c7c
True
News and Information and Strategic Communication
208
What are the two different programs cancelled at KU's Schoold of Journalism?
5acf5e5777cf76001a684c7d
True
print, online and broadcast
318
What three types of media are students taught to ignore at KU's School of Journalism?
5acf5e5777cf76001a684c7e
True
Jayplay magazine
546
What is the name of a magazine no longer published at KU?
5acf5e5777cf76001a684c7f
True
Hearst Foundation
760
Who sponsors a contest for creative writing?
5acf5e5777cf76001a684c80
True
The William Allen White School of Journalism and Mass Communications is recognized for its ability to prepare students to work in a variety of media when they graduate. The school offers two tracts of study: News and Information and Strategic Communication. This professional school teaches its students reporting for print, online and broadcast, strategic campaigning for PR and advertising, photojournalism and video reporting and editing. The J-School's students maintain various publications on campus, including The University Daily Kansan, Jayplay magazine, KUJH TV and KJHK radio. In 2008, the Fiske Guide to Colleges praised the KU J-School for its strength. In 2010, the School of Journalism and Mass Communications finished second at the prestigious Hearst Foundation national writing competition.
What are the three constituents of the medical center at KU?
56e793cb37bdd419002c4189
the School of Medicine, School of Nursing, and School of Health Professions
64
False
What does each of the component schools of KU's Medical Center offer?
56e793cb37bdd419002c418a
its own programs of graduate study
184
False
How many students attended the medical center at KU in fall of 2013?
56e793cb37bdd419002c418b
3,349
261
False
At what other KU campus is a four year program available?
56e793cb37bdd419002c418c
Wichita
356
False
What is the focus of the Salina location's medical program?
56e793cb37bdd419002c418d
rural health care
446
False
the School of Medicine, School of Nursing, and School of Health Professions
64
What are the three constituents of the law center at KU?
5acf5ed177cf76001a684c90
True
its own programs of graduate study
184
What does each of the component schools of KU's Medical Center not offer?
5acf5ed177cf76001a684c91
True
3,349
261
How many students attended the law center at KU in fall of 2013?
5acf5ed177cf76001a684c92
True
Wichita
356
At what other KU campus is a two year program available?
5acf5ed177cf76001a684c93
True
rural health care
446
What is the focus of the Salina location's law program?
5acf5ed177cf76001a684c94
True
The University of Kansas Medical Center features three schools: the School of Medicine, School of Nursing, and School of Health Professions. Furthermore, each of the three schools has its own programs of graduate study. As of the Fall 2013 semester, there were 3,349 students enrolled at KU Med. The Medical Center also offers four year instruction at the Wichita campus, and features a medical school campus in Salina, Kansas that is devoted to rural health care.
In what city is the Edwards Campus located?
56e7943837bdd419002c4193
Overland Park
26
False
When was the Edwards Campus built?
56e7943837bdd419002c4194
1993
64
False
Who are the main kinds of students at the Edwards Campus?
56e7943837bdd419002c4195
adults
93
False
What is the average age of students on KU's Edwards Campus?
56e7943837bdd419002c4196
32
221
False
What can adult learners obtain through studying at the Edwards Campus of the University of Kansas?
56e7943837bdd419002c4197
college degrees
133
False
Overland Park
26
In what country is the Edwards Campus located?
5acf5f2777cf76001a684c9a
True
1993
64
When was the Edwards Campus destroyed?
5acf5f2777cf76001a684c9b
True
adults
93
Who are the secondary kinds of students at the Edwards Campus?
5acf5f2777cf76001a684c9c
True
32
221
What is the highest age of students on KU's Edwards Campus?
5acf5f2777cf76001a684c9d
True
college degrees
133
What can adult learners obtain through dropping out at the Edwards Campus of the University of Kansas?
5acf5f2777cf76001a684c9e
True
KU's Edwards Campus is in Overland Park, Kansas. Established in 1993, its goal is to provide adults with the opportunity to complete college degrees. About 2,100 students attend the Edwards Campus, with an average age of 32. Programs available at the Edwards Campus include developmental psychology, public administration, social work, systems analysis, information technology, engineering management and design.
Who provides statistics on educational costs?
56e794a937bdd419002c419e
the College Board
69
False
What is a phrase that expresses the value of the education offered at KU with respect to its cost?
56e794a937bdd419002c419f
best buy
117
False
the College Board
69
Who provides statistics on educational grades?
5acf5f8077cf76001a684cae
True
the College Board
69
Who provides no statistics on educational costs?
5acf5f8077cf76001a684caf
True
the College Board
69
Who provides money for educational costs?
5acf5f8077cf76001a684cb0
True
best buy
117
What is a phrase that expresses the value of the education offered at KU with respect to its grades?
5acf5f8077cf76001a684cb1
True
best buy
117
What is a phrase that doesn't expresses the value of the education offered at KU with respect to its cost?
5acf5f8077cf76001a684cb2
True
Tuition at KU is 13 percent below the national average, according to the College Board, and the University remains a best buy in the region.[citation needed]
What was first instituted for first year students in the 2007-2008 school year?
56e7957600c9c71400d77301
fixed tuition rate
74
False
For how long does the fixed rate of tuition last?
56e7957600c9c71400d77302
48 months
97
False
What was the edict approved by the Board of Regents that provided for the fixed tuition program?
56e7957600c9c71400d77303
Four-Year Tuition Compact
124
False
How much did a student from outside of Kansas have to pay per course credit in 2014-15?
56e7957600c9c71400d77304
$828
279
False
What is charged at KU's specialized professional schools?
56e7957600c9c71400d77305
additional fees
733
False
fixed tuition rate
74
What was last instituted for first year students in the 2007-2008 school year?
5acf5ffc77cf76001a684cb8
True
48 months
97
For how long does the variable rate of tuition last?
5acf5ffc77cf76001a684cb9
True
Four-Year Tuition Compact
124
What was the edict rejected by the Board of Regents that provided for the fixed tuition program?
5acf5ffc77cf76001a684cba
True
$828
279
How much did a professor from outside of Kansas have to pay per course credit in 2014-15?
5acf5ffc77cf76001a684cbb
True
additional fees
733
What is charged at KU's unspecialized professional schools?
5acf5ffc77cf76001a684cbc
True
Beginning in the 2007–2008 academic year, first-time freshman at KU pay a fixed tuition rate for 48 months according to the Four-Year Tuition Compact passed by the Kansas Board of Regents. For the 2014–15 academic year, tuition was $318 per credit hour for in-state freshman and $828 for out-of-state freshmen. For transfer students, who do not take part in the compact, 2014–15 per-credit-hour tuition was $295 for in-state undergraduates and $785 for out-of-state undergraduates; subject to annual increases. Students enrolled in 6 or more credit hours also paid an annual required campus fee of $888. The schools of architecture, music, arts, business, education, engineering, journalism, law, pharmacy, and social welfare charge additional fees.
What was launched in 1965 by the business school at KU?
56e7960900c9c71400d7730b
interdisciplinary management science graduate studies in operations research
33
False
What kind of applications did the interdisciplinary program help shape?
56e7960900c9c71400d7730c
decision science
177
False
Which government agency used the applications that were informed by KU's interdisciplinary management program?
56e7960900c9c71400d7730d
NASA
218
False
What NASA program benefited from the use of decision science applications?
56e7960900c9c71400d7730e
NASA Project Apollo Command Capsule Recovery Operations
218
False
In what year was a new interdisciplinary management program launched at KU's School of Business?
56e7960900c9c71400d7730f
1965
131
False
interdisciplinary management science graduate studies in operations research
33
What was launched in 1956 by the business school at KU?
5acf605477cf76001a684ccc
True
decision science
177
What kind of applications did the interdisciplinary program help cancel?
5acf605477cf76001a684ccd
True
NASA
218
Which government agency used the applications that were informed by UK's interdisciplinary management program?
5acf605477cf76001a684cce
True
NASA Project Apollo Command Capsule Recovery Operations
218
What NASA program was harmed from the use of decision science applications?
5acf605477cf76001a684ccf
True
1965
131
In what year was a new interdisciplinary management program cancelled at KU's School of Business?
5acf605477cf76001a684cd0
True
KU's School of Business launched interdisciplinary management science graduate studies in operations research during Fall Semester 1965. The program provided the foundation for decision science applications supporting NASA Project Apollo Command Capsule Recovery Operations.
What division of the University of Kansas contributed to the development of the internet?
56e7966637bdd419002c41b5
academic computing
5
False
What kind of software is Lynx?
56e7966637bdd419002c41b7
text based web browser
127
False
What was made possible by Lynx?
56e7966637bdd419002c41b9
hypertext browsing and navigation
172
False
academic computing
5
What division of the University of Kansas hindered the development of the internet?
5acf60c477cf76001a684cd6
True
academic computing
5
What division of the University of Kansas contributed to the development of google?
5acf60c477cf76001a684cd7
True
text based web browser
127
What kind of software is Linux?
5acf60c477cf76001a684cd8
True
text based web browser
127
What kind of hardware is Lynx?
5acf60c477cf76001a684cd9
True
hypertext browsing and navigation
172
What was made impossible by Lynx?
5acf60c477cf76001a684cda
True
KU's academic computing department was an active participant in setting up the Internet and is the developer of the early Lynx text based web browser. Lynx itself provided hypertext browsing and navigation prior to Tim Berners Lee's invention of HTTP and HTML.
What colors are worn by KU's athletic teams?
56e7990237bdd419002c41e7
crimson and royal blue
35
False
What is the name of KU athletic teams?
56e7990237bdd419002c41e8
Kansas Jayhawks
74
False
How many times has the male basketball team from Kansas won a national title?
56e7990237bdd419002c41e9
five
207
False
How many natioanl female outdoor track and field championships have been won by the University of Kansas?
56e7990237bdd419002c41ea
one
378
False
Where does KU's cross country team run?
56e7990237bdd419002c41eb
Rim Rock Farm
489
False
crimson and royal blue
35
What colors are worn by KU's non-athletic teams?
5acf612677cf76001a684ce0
True
Kansas Jayhawks
74
What isn't the name of KU athletic teams?
5acf612677cf76001a684ce1
True
five
207
How many times has the male baseball team from Kansas won a national title?
5acf612677cf76001a684ce2
True
one
409
How many international female outdoor track and field championships have been won by the University of Kansas?
5acf612677cf76001a684ce3
True
Rim Rock Farm
489
Where does KU's cross country team swim?
5acf612677cf76001a684ce4
True
The school's sports teams, wearing crimson and royal blue, are called the Kansas Jayhawks. They participate in the NCAA's Division I and in the Big 12 Conference. KU has won thirteen National Championships: five in men's basketball (two Helms Foundation championships and three NCAA championships), three in men's indoor track and field, three in men's outdoor track and field, one in men's cross country and one in women's outdoor track and field. The home course for KU Cross Country is Rim Rock Farm. Their most recent championship came on June 8, 2013 when the KU women's track and field team won the NCAA outdoor in Eugene, Oregon becoming the first University of Kansas women's team to win a national title.
When did KU start fielding a football team?
56e799f200c9c71400d77365
1890
23
False
How many times has the team from the University of Kansas appeared in the Orange Bowl?
56e799f200c9c71400d77366
three
63
False
Who is the current head of KU's football program?
56e799f200c9c71400d77367
David Beaty
128
False
Who did KU defeat in the 2008 Orange Bowl?
56e799f200c9c71400d77368
Virginia Tech Hokies
332
False
What is the name of the facility that the KU football team plays in?
56e799f200c9c71400d77369
Memorial Stadium
498
False
1890
23
When did KU stop fielding a football team?
5acf619577cf76001a684cf4
True
three
63
How many times has the team from the University of Kansas appeared in the Rose Bowl?
5acf619577cf76001a684cf5
True
David Beaty
128
Who is the former coach of KU's football program?
5acf619577cf76001a684cf6
True
Virginia Tech Hokies
332
Who did KU lose to in the 2008 Orange Bowl?
5acf619577cf76001a684cf7
True
Memorial Stadium
498
What is the name of the faculty that the KU football team plays in?
5acf619577cf76001a684cf8
True
KU football dates from 1890, and has played in the Orange Bowl three times: 1948, 1968, and 2008. They are currently coached by David Beaty, who was hired in 2014. In 2008, under the leadership of Mark Mangino, the #7 Jayhawks emerged victorious in their first BCS bowl game, the FedEx Orange Bowl, with a 24–21 victory over the #3 Virginia Tech Hokies. This capstone victory marked the end of the most successful season in school history, in which the Jayhawks went 12–1 (.923). The team plays at Memorial Stadium, which recently underwent a $31 million renovation to add the Anderson Family Football Complex, adding a football practice facility adjacent to the stadium complete with indoor partial practice field, weight room, and new locker room.
What was the first year in which a men's team played basketball at the University of Kansas?
56e79bf200c9c71400d77397
1898
65
False
Who is the head of men's basketball at KU?
56e79bf200c9c71400d77398
Bill Self
140
False
How many times has the University of Kansas won a national championship in men's basketball?
56e79bf200c9c71400d77399
five
168
False
Who is considered the most famous basketball alumnus of KU?
56e79bf200c9c71400d7739a
Wilt Chamberlain
496
False
In what year did the NABC hold its first and only men's basketball tournament?
56e79bf200c9c71400d7739b
1939
1508
False
1898
65
What was the last year in which a men's team played basketball at the University of Kansas?
5acf620677cf76001a684cfe
True
Bill Self
140
Who is the trainer of men's basketball at KU?
5acf620677cf76001a684cff
True
five
168
How many times has the University of Kansas won an international championship in men's basketball?
5acf620677cf76001a684d00
True
Wilt Chamberlain
496
Who is considered the least famous basketball alumnus of KU?
5acf620677cf76001a684d01
True
1939
1508
In what year did the NABC hold its first and only women's basketball tournament?
5acf620677cf76001a684d02
True
The KU men's basketball team has fielded a team every year since 1898. The Jayhawks are a perennial national contender currently coached by Bill Self. The team has won five national titles, including three NCAA tournament championships in 1952, 1988, and 2008. The basketball program is currently the second winningest program in college basketball history with an overall record of 2,070–806 through the 2011–12 season. The team plays at Allen Fieldhouse. Perhaps its best recognized player was Wilt Chamberlain, who played in the 1950s. Kansas has counted among its coaches Dr. James Naismith (the inventor of basketball and only coach in Kansas history to have a losing record), Basketball Hall of Fame inductee Phog Allen ("the Father of basketball coaching"), Basketball Hall of Fame inductee Roy Williams of the University of North Carolina at Chapel Hill, and Basketball Hall of Fame inductee and former NBA Champion Detroit Pistons coach Larry Brown. In addition, legendary University of Kentucky coach and Basketball Hall of Fame inductee Adolph Rupp played for KU's 1922 and 1923 Helms National Championship teams, and NCAA Hall of Fame inductee and University of North Carolina Coach Dean Smith played for KU's 1952 NCAA Championship team. Both Rupp and Smith played under Phog Allen. Allen also coached Hall of Fame coaches Dutch Lonborg and Ralph Miller. Allen founded the National Association of Basketball Coaches (NABC), which started what is now the NCAA Tournament. The Tournament began in 1939 under the NABC and the next year was handed off to the newly formed NCAA.
Who is in charge of all sports teams at KU?
56e79c8637bdd419002c4221
Sheahon Zenger
0
False
Who did Zenger replace as athletic director at KU?
56e79c8637bdd419002c4222
Lew Perkins
108
False
With what broadcasting company does KU have a contract?
56e79c8637bdd419002c4223
ESPN Regional Television
474
False
What sportswear company has a deal with the University of Kansas?
56e79c8637bdd419002c4224
Adidas
376
False
What sportswear company formerly held a contract with the University of Kansas?
56e79c8637bdd419002c4225
Nike
419
False
Sheahon Zenger
0
Who is in charge of no sports teams at KU?
5acf629377cf76001a684d08
True
Lew Perkins
108
Who did Zenger get replaced by as athletic director at KU?
5acf629377cf76001a684d09
True
ESPN Regional Television
474
With what broadcasting company does KU not have a contract?
5acf629377cf76001a684d0a
True
Nike
419
What sportswear company never held a contract with the University of Kansas?
5acf629377cf76001a684d0b
True
Adidas
376
What sportswear company has no deal with the University of Kansas?
5acf629377cf76001a684d0c
True
Sheahon Zenger was introduced as KU's new athletic director in January 2011. Under former athletic director Lew Perkins, the department's budget increased from $27.2 million in 2003 (10th in the conference) to currently over $50 million thanks in large part to money raised from a new priority seating policy at Allen Fieldhouse, a new $26.67 million eight-year contract with Adidas replacing an existing contract with Nike, and a new $40.2 million seven-year contract with ESPN Regional Television. The additional funds brought improvements to the university, including:
How many times have KU teams appeared in the National Debate Tournament?
56e79cf000c9c71400d773b5
70
45
False
How many times has KU won the national debate championship?
56e79cf000c9c71400d773b6
5
148
False
How many times has KU been one of the last four teams competing at the National Debate Championships?
56e79cf000c9c71400d773b7
12
199
False
What school has won the most national debate championships?
56e79cf000c9c71400d773b8
Northwestern
254
False
What is the name of an honor given to collegiate debate teams?
56e79cf000c9c71400d773b9
Copeland Award
358
False
5
148
How many times has KU lost the national debate championship?
5acf62eb77cf76001a684d12
True
70
45
How many times have UK teams appeared in the National Debate Tournament?
5acf62eb77cf76001a684d13
True
12
199
How many times has KU been one of the last five teams competing at the National Debate Championships?
5acf62eb77cf76001a684d14
True
Northwestern
254
What school has won the least national debate championships?
5acf62eb77cf76001a684d15
True
Copeland Award
358
What is the name of an honor given to high school debate teams?
5acf62eb77cf76001a684d16
True
The University of Kansas has had more teams (70) compete in the National Debate Tournament than any other university. Kansas has won the tournament 5 times (1954, 1970, 1976, 1983, and 2009) and had 12 teams make it to the final four. Kansas trails only Northwestern (13), Dartmouth (6), and Harvard (6) for most tournaments won. Kansas also won the 1981–82 Copeland Award.
What are two events non-sports at which school songs are often heard?
56e79d9037bdd419002c423f
commencement and convocation
83
False
What are two songs that reference the school's team colors in their titles?
56e79d9037bdd419002c4241
"Crimson and the Blue", "Red and Blue"
207
False
What is the name of a song that references the state that KU serves?
56e79d9037bdd419002c4242
"Kansas Song"
174
False
What is the name of a traditional American song that is associated with KU?
56e79d9037bdd419002c4243
"Home on the Range"
281
False
commencement and convocation
83
What are three events non-sports at which school songs are often heard?
5acf637c77cf76001a684d1c
True
"Crimson and the Blue", "Red and Blue", the "Rock Chalk, Jayhawk"
207
What are three songs that reference the school's team colors in their titles?
5acf637c77cf76001a684d1d
True
"Home on the Range"
281
What is the name of a traditional Canadian song that is associated with KU?
5acf637c77cf76001a684d1e
True
Kansas Song
175
What is the name of a song that references the country that KU serves?
5acf637c77cf76001a684d1f
True
"Home on the Range"
281
What is the name of a traditional American song that is not associated with KU?
5acf637c77cf76001a684d20
True
Notable among a number of songs commonly played and sung at various events such as commencement and convocation, and athletic games are: "I’m a Jayhawk", "Fighting Jayhawk", "Kansas Song", "Sunflower Song", "Crimson and the Blue", "Red and Blue", the "Rock Chalk, Jayhawk" chant", "Home on the Range" and "Stand Up and Cheer."
What is the name of the newspaper printed every day by the University of Kansas?
56e79e2737bdd419002c4253
University Daily Kansan
52
False
What high profile contest has the Daily Kansan won?
56e79e2737bdd419002c4254
Intercollegiate Writing Competition
103
False
In what year did the Daily Kansan win the Intercollegiate Writing Competition?
56e79e2737bdd419002c4255
2007
268
False
What is the name of an online resource that was created into provide a resource about KU?
56e79e2737bdd419002c4256
KUpedia
318
False
What is the name of the poet who won the Nelson award in 2006?
56e79e2737bdd419002c4257
Matthew Porubsky
717
False
University Daily Kansan
52
What is the name of the newspaper printed every week by the University of Kansas?
5acf63c777cf76001a684d26
True
Intercollegiate Writing Competition
103
What low profile contest has the Daily Kansan won?
5acf63c777cf76001a684d27
True
2007
268
In what year did the Daily Kansan lose the Intercollegiate Writing Competition?
5acf63c777cf76001a684d28
True
KUpedia
318
What is the name of an offline resource that was created into provide a resource about KU?
5acf63c777cf76001a684d29
True
Matthew Porubsky
717
What is the name of the poet who won the Nelson award in 2005?
5acf63c777cf76001a684d2a
True
The school newspaper of the University of Kansas is University Daily Kansan, which placed first in the Intercollegiate Writing Competition of the prestigious William Randolph Hearst Writing Foundation competition, often called "The Pulitzers of College Journalism" in 2007. In Winter 2008, a group of students created KUpedia, a wiki about all things KU. They have received student funding for operations in 2008–09. The KU Department of English publishes the Coal City Review, an annual literary journal of prose, poetry, reviews and illustrations. The Review typically features the work of many writers, but periodically spotlights one author, as in the case of 2006 Nelson Poetry Book Award-winner Voyeur Poems by Matthew Porubsky.
In what two forms of media is the Daily Kansan available?
56e79e9200c9c71400d773dd
print and online
175
False
What institution houses the Daily Kansan?
56e79e9200c9c71400d773de
William Allen White School of Journalism
65
False
How big is the Daily Kansan's audience?
56e79e9200c9c71400d773df
at least 30,000
133
False
print and online
175
In what three forms of media is the Daily Kansan available?
5acf642377cf76001a684d30
True
print and online
175
In what two forms of media is the Weekly Kansan available?
5acf642377cf76001a684d31
True
William Allen White School of Journalism
65
What institution doesn't house the Daily Kansan?
5acf642377cf76001a684d32
True
William Allen White School of Journalism
65
What institution houses the Monthly Kansan?
5acf642377cf76001a684d33
True
at least 30,000
133
How big is the Daily Kansan's staff?
5acf642377cf76001a684d34
True
The University Daily Kansan operates outside of the university's William Allen White School of Journalism and reaches an audience of at least 30,000 daily readers through its print and online publications
What are the call letters of the National Public Radio affiliate that broadcasts from KU?
56e79f1700c9c71400d773ed
KANU
195
False
What is the name of the station operated by KU students?
56e79f1700c9c71400d773ee
KJHK
66
False
When did KJHK first broadcast?
56e79f1700c9c71400d773ef
1952
367
False
What is the name of an independent radio broadcast run out of KU?
56e79f1700c9c71400d773f0
KUJH-LP
108
False
What kinds of programming appear on KUJH-LP?
56e79f1700c9c71400d773f1
public affairs
166
False
KANU
263
What are the call letters of the National Public Radio affiliate that broadcasts outside of KU?
5acf647c77cf76001a684d3a
True
1952
367
When did KJHK last broadcast?
5acf647c77cf76001a684d3c
True
KUJH-LP
108
What is the name of an dependent radio broadcast run out of KU?
5acf647c77cf76001a684d3d
True
public affairs
166
What kinds of programming don't appear on KUJH-LP?
5acf647c77cf76001a684d3e
True
The university houses the following public broadcasting stations: KJHK, a student-run campus radio station, KUJH-LP, an independent station that primarily broadcasts public affairs programs, and KANU, the NPR-affiliated radio station. Kansas Public Radio station KANU was one of the first public radio stations in the nation. KJHK, the campus radio has roots back to 1952 and is completely run by students.
When was KU's first student union constructed?
56e79f9600c9c71400d77401
1926
39
False
What was the role the union was intended serve?
56e79f9600c9c71400d77402
campus community center
49
False
What is the name of the student union on the Edwards Campus of KU?
56e79f9600c9c71400d77403
Jayhawk Central
220
False
What company runs the University of Kansas's bookstore?
56e79f9600c9c71400d77404
KU Memorial Unions Corporation
263
False
What is the name of a potential recipient of funds from enterprises like the bookstore and dining centers at KU?
56e79f9600c9c71400d77405
Student Union Activities
694
False
1926
39
When was KU's last student union constructed?
5acf652e77cf76001a684d44
True
campus community center
49
What was the role the union was never intended to serve?
5acf652e77cf76001a684d45
True
Jayhawk Central
220
What is the name of the faculty union on the Edwards Campus of KU?
5acf652e77cf76001a684d46
True
KU Memorial Unions Corporation
263
What company no longer runs the University of Kansas's bookstore?
5acf652e77cf76001a684d47
True
Student Union Activities
694
What is the name of a potential giver of funds from enterprises like the bookstore and dining centers at KU?
5acf652e77cf76001a684d48
True
The first union was built on campus in 1926 as a campus community center. The unions are still the "living rooms" of campus today and include three locations – the Kansas Union and Burge Union at the Lawrence Campus and Jayhawk Central at the Edwards Campus. The KU Memorial Unions Corporation manages the KU Bookstore (with seven locations). The KU Bookstore is the official bookstore of KU. The Corporation also includes KU Dining Services, with more than 20 campus locations, including The Market (inside the Kansas Union) and The Underground (located in Wescoe Hall). The KU Bookstore and KU Dining Services are not-for-profit, with proceeds going back to support student programs, such as Student Union Activities.
What is the name of the University of Kansas's foundation?
56e79feb00c9c71400d7740b
KU Endowment
0
False
When was the KU Endowment founded?
56e79feb00c9c71400d7740c
1891
32
False
To whom does the KU Endowment seek to connect with?
56e79feb00c9c71400d7740d
donors
123
False
What do donors offer to the University of Kansas?
56e79feb00c9c71400d7740e
philanthropic support
143
False
KU Endowment
0
What isn't the name of the University of Kansas's foundation?
5acf657877cf76001a684d4e
True
KU Endowment
0
What is the name of the University of Kansas's foundary?
5acf657877cf76001a684d4f
True
1891
32
When was the KU Endowment closed?
5acf657877cf76001a684d50
True
donors
123
To whom does the KU Endowment seek not to connect with?
5acf657877cf76001a684d51
True
philanthropic support
143
What do donors take from the University of Kansas?
5acf657877cf76001a684d52
True
KU Endowment was established in 1891 as America’s first foundation for a public university. Its mission is to partner with donors in providing philanthropic support to build a greater University of Kansas.
What is the name of a publicly-available resource of KU related to community health?
56e7a09b00c9c71400d7741d
The Community Tool Box
0
False
What body is responsible for managing the Community Tool Box?
56e7a09b00c9c71400d7741e
the Work Group for Community Health and Development
75
False
What kinds of groups around the world can benefit from the Community Tool Box?
56e7a09b00c9c71400d7741f
professionals and grassroots groups engaged in the work of community health and development
301
False
How much content does the Community Tool Box offer?
56e7a09b00c9c71400d77420
more than 7,000 pages
172
False
Where can the Community Tool Box be found?
56e7a09b00c9c71400d77421
online
142
False
Community Tool Box
4
What is the name of a privately-available resource of KU related to community health?
5acf65cf77cf76001a684d62
True
Work Group for Community Health and Development
79
What body is irresponsible for managing the Community Tool Box?
5acf65cf77cf76001a684d63
True
professionals and grassroots groups engaged in the work of community health and development
301
What kinds of groups around the world are harmed from the Community Tool Box?
5acf65cf77cf76001a684d64
True
more than 7,000 pages
172
How much content doesn't the Community Tool Box offer?
5acf65cf77cf76001a684d65
True
online
142
Where can the Community Tool Box not be found?
5acf65cf77cf76001a684d66
True
The Community Tool Box is a public service of the University maintained by the Work Group for Community Health and Development. It is a free, online resource that contains more than 7,000 pages of practical information for promoting community health and development, and is a global resource for both professionals and grassroots groups engaged in the work of community health and development.
Nanjing
What is the legal capital of the Republic of China?
56e780f800c9c71400d771d1
Nanjing
0
False
What region is Nanjing in?
56e780f800c9c71400d771d2
lower Yangtze River region
92
False
When was the city given the name Nanjing?
56e780f800c9c71400d771d3
Ming dynasty
1419
False
When did Nanjing become the Chinese national capital?
56e780f800c9c71400d771d4
Jin dynasty
1359
False
What does Nanjing mean?
56e780f800c9c71400d771d5
"Southern Capital"
31
False
Nanjing ( listen; Chinese: 南京, "Southern Capital") is the city situated in the heartland of lower Yangtze River region in China, which has long been a major centre of culture, education, research, politics, economy, transport networks and tourism. It is the capital city of Jiangsu province of People's Republic of China and the second largest city in East China, with a total population of 8,216,100, and legally the capital of Republic of China which lost the mainland during the civil war. The city whose name means "Southern Capital" has a prominent place in Chinese history and culture, having served as the capitals of various Chinese dynasties, kingdoms and republican governments dating from the 3rd century AD to 1949. Prior to the advent of pinyin romanization, Nanjing's city name was spelled as Nanking or Nankin. Nanjing has a number of other names, and some historical names are now used as names of districts of the city, and among them there is the name Jiangning (江寧), whose former character Jiang (江, River) is the former part of the name Jiangsu and latter character Ning (寧, simplified form 宁, Peace) is the short name of Nanjing. When being the capital of a state, for instance, ROC, Jing (京) is adopted as the abbreviation of Nanjing. Although as a city located in southern part of China becoming Chinese national capital as early as in Jin dynasty, the name Nanjing was designated to the city in Ming dynasty, about a thousand years later. Nanjing is particularly known as Jinling (金陵, literally meaning Gold Mountain) and the old name has been used since the Warring States Period in Zhou Dynasty.
What part of China (North, East, South, West) is Nanjing located?
56e781ea37bdd419002c4058
East
54
False
What does Nanjing have that is considered one of the world's biggest?
56e781ea37bdd419002c4059
inland ports
112
False
What river is Nanjing associated with?
56e781ea37bdd419002c405a
Yangtze River
11
False
What city was awarded the 2008 Habitat Scroll of Honour of China?
56e781ea37bdd419002c405b
Nanjing
66
False
Located in Yangtze River Delta area and the center of East China, Nanjing is home to one of the world's largest inland ports. Nanjing is also one of the fifteen sub-provincial cities in the People's Republic of China's administrative structure, enjoying jurisdictional and economic autonomy only slightly less than that of a province. Nanjing has been ranked seventh in the evaluation of "Cities with Strongest Comprehensive Strength" issued by the National Statistics Bureau, and second in the evaluation of cities with most sustainable development potential in the Yangtze River Delta. It has also been awarded the title of 2008 Habitat Scroll of Honour of China, Special UN Habitat Scroll of Honour Award and National Civilized City. Nanjing boasts many high-quality universities and research institutes, with the number of universities listed in 100 National Key Universities ranking third, including Nanjing University. The ratio of college students to total population ranks No.1 among large cities nationwide. Nanjing is one of the three Chinese top research centres according to Nature Index.
How long has Nanjing been important?
56e782c737bdd419002c4069
over a thousand years
55
False
How many Great Ancient Capitals does China have?
56e782c737bdd419002c406a
Four
106
False
What city is considered to be the nominal capital of the Republic of China?
56e782c737bdd419002c406b
Nanjing
0
False
What mausoleum is in Nanjing?
56e782c737bdd419002c406c
Sun Yat-sen Mausoleum
1290
False
What city was the capital of Eastern Wu during the Three Kingdoms era?
56e782c737bdd419002c406d
Nanjing
0
False
Nanjing, one of the nation's most important cities for over a thousand years, is recognized as one of the Four Great Ancient Capitals of China, and had been the world's largest city aggregately for hundreds of years, enjoyed peace and prosperity and beared wars and disasters. Nanjing served as the capital of Eastern Wu, one of the three major states in the Three Kingdoms period (211-280); the Eastern Jin and each of the Southern Dynasties (Liu Song, Southern Qi, Liang and Chen), which successively ruled southern China from 317-589; the Southern Tang, one of the Ten Kingdoms (937-76); the Ming dynasty when, for the first time, all of China was ruled from the city (1368-1421); and the Republic of China (1927–37, 1945–49) prior to its flight to Taiwan during the Chinese Civil War. The city also served as the seat of the rebel Taiping Heavenly Kingdom (1851–64) and the Japanese puppet regime of Wang Jingwei (1940–45) during the Second Sino-Japanese War, and suffered appalling atrocities in both conflicts, including the Nanjing Massacre. It has been serving as the capital city of Jiangsu province after the China was established, and is still the nominal capital of Republic of China that accommodates many of its important heritage sites, including the Presidential Palace and Sun Yat-sen Mausoleum. Nanjing is famous for human historical landscapes, mountains and waters such as Fuzimiao, Ming Palace, Chaotian Palace, Porcelain Tower, Drum Tower, Stone City, City Wall, Qinhuai River, Xuanwu Lake and Purple Mountain. Key cultural facilities include Nanjing Library, Nanjing Museum and Art Museum.
How long ago did "Nanjing Man" live?
56e7839137bdd419002c4073
more than 500 thousand years ago
59
False
What vessel was found 5000 years ago?
56e7839137bdd419002c4074
Zun, a kind of wine vessel
93
False
When was the the fort of Yuecheng built?
56e7839137bdd419002c4075
473 BC
552
False
How long had Nanjing been the capital city of Yangzhou?
56e7839137bdd419002c4076
about 400 years
1319
False
When was the Wu state created?
56e7839137bdd419002c4077
the late period of Shang dynasty
205
False
Archaeological discovery shows that "Nanjing Man" lived in more than 500 thousand years ago. Zun, a kind of wine vessel, was found to exist in Beiyinyangying culture of Nanjing in about 5000 years ago. In the late period of Shang dynasty, Taibo of Zhou came to Jiangnan and established Wu state, and the first stop is in Nanjing area according to some historians based on discoveries in Taowu and Hushu culture. According to legend,[which?] Fuchai, King of the State of Wu, founded a fort named Yecheng (冶城) in today's Nanjing area in 495 BC. Later in 473 BC, the State of Yue conquered Wu and constructed the fort of Yuecheng (越城) on the outskirts of the present-day Zhonghua Gate. In 333 BC, after eliminating the State of Yue, the State of Chu built Jinling Yi (金陵邑) in the western part of present-day Nanjing. It was renamed Moling (秣陵) during reign of Qin Shi Huang. Since then, the city experienced destruction and renewal many times.[citation needed] The area was successively part of Kuaiji, Zhang and Danyang prefectures in Qin and Han dynasty, and part of Yangzhou region which was established as the nation's 13 supervisory and administrative regions in the 5th year of Yuanfeng in Han dynasty (106 BC). Nanjing was later the capital city of Danyang Prefecture, and had been the capital city of Yangzhou for about 400 years from late Han to early Tang.
When did Nanjing become a state capital?
56e7845837bdd419002c407d
229 AD
40
False
Who founded Eastern Wu?
56e7845837bdd419002c407e
Sun Quan
88
False
When was Eastern Wu founded?
56e7845837bdd419002c407f
during the Three Kingdoms period
97
False
Who defeated Nanjing and took over in 280?
56e7845837bdd419002c4080
the Western Jin dynasty
246
False
When was Nanjing extended?
56e7845837bdd419002c4081
211 AD
216
False
Nanjing first became a state capital in 229 AD, when the state of Eastern Wu founded by Sun Quan during the Three Kingdoms period relocated its capital to Jianye (建業), the city extended on the basis of Jinling Yi in 211 AD. Although conquered by the Western Jin dynasty in 280, Nanjing and its neighbouring areas had been well cultivated and developed into one of the commercial, cultural and political centers of China during the rule of East Wu. This city would soon play a vital role in the following centuries.
What happened prior to the collapse of the Western Jin dynasty?
56e7853a37bdd419002c4087
the unification of the region
14
False
When did the Jin court head South?
56e7853a37bdd419002c4088
317
270
False
Where did the Jin court re-establish itself, after fleeing?
56e7853a37bdd419002c4089
Nanjing
410
False
Who fled with the Jin court to the South?
56e7853a37bdd419002c408b
nobles and wealthy families
313
False
Shortly after the unification of the region, the Western Jin dynasty collapsed. First the rebellions by eight Jin princes for the throne and later rebellions and invasion from Xiongnu and other nomadic peoples that destroyed the rule of the Jin dynasty in the north. In 317, remnants of the Jin court, as well as nobles and wealthy families, fled from the north to the south and reestablished the Jin court in Nanjing, which was then called Jiankang (建康), replacing Luoyang. It's the first time that the capital of the nation moved to southern part.
How long was Nanjing the capital of the Southern dynasties?
56e7860900c9c71400d77231
more than two and a half centuries
102
False
During the time of the North–South division, what city was the center of East Asia?
56e7860900c9c71400d77232
Nanjing
43
False
During the time of the North–South division, how many households were in Nanjing?
56e7860900c9c71400d77233
280,000 registered households
248
False
What is the estimated population of Nanjing during that time?
56e7860900c9c71400d77234
more than 1.4 million residents
365
False
Where did the information on registered households during that period originate?
56e7860900c9c71400d77235
historical documents
213
False
During the period of North–South division, Nanjing remained the capital of the Southern dynasties for more than two and a half centuries. During this time, Nanjing was the international hub of East Asia. Based on historical documents, the city had 280,000 registered households. Assuming an average Nanjing household had about 5.1 people at that time, the city had more than 1.4 million residents.
What has survived in Nanjing's suburbs?
56e786c937bdd419002c40ab
A number of sculptural ensembles
0
False
In what district are these sculptural pieces located?
56e786c937bdd419002c40ac
Qixia and Jiangning District
211
False
Which piece is the best, in terms of preservation condition?
56e786c937bdd419002c40ad
the ensemble of the Tomb of Xiao Xiu
280
False
Who was Xiao Xiu?
56e786c937bdd419002c40ae
a brother of Emperor Wu of Liang
328
False
When did Xiao Xiu live?
56e786c937bdd419002c40af
475–518
318
False
A number of sculptural ensembles of that era, erected at the tombs of royals and other dignitaries, have survived (in various degrees of preservation) in Nanjing's northeastern and eastern suburbs, primarily in Qixia and Jiangning District. Possibly the best preserved of them is the ensemble of the Tomb of Xiao Xiu (475–518), a brother of Emperor Wu of Liang. The period of division ended when the Sui Dynasty reunified China and almost destroyed the entire city, turning it into a small town.
When was Nanjing made a capital again?
56e787d900c9c71400d77252
during the Southern Tang (937–976)
200
False
During what dynasty did Nanjing become a thriving textile city?
56e787d900c9c71400d77253
the Song dynasty
424
False
What was the name of the short-lived puppet court created by the Jurchens?
56e787d900c9c71400d77254
The court of Da Chu
537
False
Who defeated the court of Song?
56e787d900c9c71400d77255
the Mongol empire
695
False
The city of Nanjing was razed after the Sui dynasty took over it. It renamed Shengzhou (昇州) in Tang dynasty and resuscitated during the late Tang. It was chosen as the capital and called Jinling (金陵) during the Southern Tang (937–976), a state that succeeded Wu state. It renamed Jiangning (江寧) in Northern Song dynasty and renamed Jiankang in Southern Song dynasty. Jiankang's textile industry burgeoned and thrived during the Song dynasty despite the constant threat of foreign invasions from the north by the Jurchen-led Jin dynasty. The court of Da Chu, a short-lived puppet state established by the Jurchens, and the court of Song were once in the city. Song was eventually exterminated by the Mongol empire under the name Yuan and in Yuan dynasty the city's status as a hub of the textile industry was further consolidated.
Who was the first emperor of the Ming dynasty?
56e788b100c9c71400d7725b
Zhu Yuanzhang
39
False
Who did Zhu Yuanzhang defeat?
56e788b100c9c71400d7725c
the Yuan dynasty
89
False
What did Zhu Yuanzhang build around the city of Nanjing?
56e788b100c9c71400d7725d
long city wall
219
False
How long did it take to finish the wall?
56e788b200c9c71400d7725e
21 years
336
False
How many workers worked on the wall?
56e788b200c9c71400d7725f
200,000
319
False
The first emperor of the Ming dynasty, Zhu Yuanzhang (the Hongwu Emperor), who overthrew the Yuan dynasty, renamed the city Yingtian, rebuilt it, and made it the dynastic capital in 1368. He constructed a 48 km (30 mi) long city wall around Yingtian, as well as a new Ming Palace complex, and government halls. It took 200,000 laborers 21 years to finish the project. The present-day City Wall of Nanjing was mainly built during that time and today it remains in good condition and has been well preserved. It is among the longest surviving city walls in China. The Jianwen Emperor ruled from 1398 to 1402.
When was Nanjing considered to be the biggest city in the world?
56e7894300c9c71400d77265
from 1358 to 1425
62
False
What was the number of people in Nanjing in 1400?
56e7894300c9c71400d77266
487,000
101
False
When did Nanjing cease to be the capital?
56e7894300c9c71400d77267
1421
172
False
Where was the capital moved to?
56e7894300c9c71400d77268
Beijing
267
False
Who was the third emperor of the Ming dynasty?
56e7894300c9c71400d77269
the Yongle Emperor
222
False
It is believed that Nanjing was the largest city in the world from 1358 to 1425 with a population of 487,000 in 1400. Nanjing remained the capital of the Ming Empire until 1421, when the third emperor of the Ming dynasty, the Yongle Emperor, relocated the capital to Beijing.
What is the name of the famous mausoleum in Nanjing?
56e78a5637bdd419002c40e5
Ming Xiaoling Mausoleum
88
False
Who decimated the Porcelain Tower?
56e78a5637bdd419002c40e6
the Taipings
170
False
When was the Porcelain Tower destroyed?
56e78a5637bdd419002c40e7
in the 19th century
183
False
One possibility the Tower was destroyed was to prevent it's use by a hostile enemy. What is the other possibility?
56e78a5637bdd419002c40e8
superstitious fear of its geomantic properties
300
False
Besides the city wall, other famous Ming-era structures in the city included the famous Ming Xiaoling Mausoleum and Porcelain Tower, although the latter was destroyed by the Taipings in the 19th century either in order to prevent a hostile faction from using it to observe and shell the city or from superstitious fear of its geomantic properties.
How far from Nanjing is the Yangshan Quarry?
56e78af900c9c71400d77279
15–20 km (9–12 mi) east of the walled city
143
False
What large item is abandoned at the Quarry?
56e78af900c9c71400d7727a
a gigantic stele
222
False
How long ago was the stele abandoned?
56e78af900c9c71400d7727b
600 years ago
317
False
Why was the stele abandoned?
56e78af900c9c71400d7727c
it was impossible to move or complete it
354
False
Who ordered the creation of the stele?
56e78af900c9c71400d7727d
the Yongle Emperor
261
False
A monument to the huge human cost of some of the gigantic construction projects of the early Ming dynasty is the Yangshan Quarry (located some 15–20 km (9–12 mi) east of the walled city and Ming Xiaoling mausoleum), where a gigantic stele, cut on the orders of the Yongle Emperor, lies abandoned, just as it was left 600 years ago when it was understood it was impossible to move or complete it.
What Admiral called Nanjing his home?
56e78bb537bdd419002c4108
admiral Zheng He
94
False
What visiting king died in China in 1408?
56e78bb537bdd419002c4109
(Boni 渤泥)
230
False
What country did this visiting king come from?
56e78bb537bdd419002c410a
Borneo
223
False
What stele is at Boni's tomb?
56e78bb537bdd419002c410b
a tortoise stele
337
False
As the center of the empire, early-Ming Nanjing had worldwide connections. It was home of the admiral Zheng He, who went to sail the Pacific and Indian Oceans, and it was visited by foreign dignitaries, such as a king from Borneo (Boni 渤泥), who died during his visit to China in 1408. The Tomb of the King of Boni, with a spirit way and a tortoise stele, was discovered in Yuhuatai District (south of the walled city) in 1958, and has been restored.
When did Beijing lose to Li Zicheng's rebel forces and the Manchu-led Qing dynasty?
56e78cab00c9c71400d77293
1644
252
False
What Ming prince was enthroned in Nanjing?
56e78cab00c9c71400d77294
Zhu Yousong
274
False
When was Zhu Yousong enthroned?
56e78cab00c9c71400d77295
in June 1644
311
False
What was Zhu Yousong's title?
56e78cab00c9c71400d77296
the Hongguang Emperor
327
False
The Hongguang Emperor's reign was thought of as the first reign of what dynasty?
56e78cab00c9c71400d77297
the so-called Southern Ming dynasty
422
False
Over two centuries after the removal of the capital to Beijing, Nanjing was destined to become the capital of a Ming emperor one more time. After the fall of Beijing to Li Zicheng's rebel forces and then to the Manchu-led Qing dynasty in the spring of 1644, the Ming prince Zhu Yousong was enthroned in Nanjing in June 1644 as the Hongguang Emperor. His short reign was described by later historians as the first reign of the so-called Southern Ming dynasty.
When did the Hongguang Emperor leave Nanjing, having been defeated?
56e78da500c9c71400d772a5
late May 1645
321
False
Who surrendered Nanjing to invaders on June 6?
56e78da500c9c71400d772a7
Zhao the Earl of Xincheng
519
False
What did the Manchu's make all the men in the city do?
56e78da500c9c71400d772a8
shave their heads
644
False
Zhu Yousong, however, fared a lot worse than his ancestor Zhu Yuanzhang three centuries earlier. Beset by factional conflicts, his regime could not offer effective resistance to Qing forces, when the Qing army, led by the Manchu prince Dodo approached Jiangnan the next spring. Days after Yangzhou fell to the Manchus in late May 1645, the Hongguang Emperor fled Nanjing, and the imperial Ming Palace was looted by local residents. On June 6, Dodo's troops approached Nanjing, and the commander of the city's garrison, Zhao the Earl of Xincheng, promptly surrendered the city to them. The Manchus soon ordered all male residents of the city to shave their heads in the Manchu queue way. They requisitioned a large section of the city for the bannermen's cantonment, and destroyed the former imperial Ming Palace, but otherwise the city was spared the mass murders and destruction that befell Yangzhou.
When was the Qing dynasty in power?
56e78ed237bdd419002c412f
1644–1911
24
False
What was Nanjing called during the Qing dynasty?
56e78ed237bdd419002c4130
Jiangning
66
False
What emperors visited Nanjing more than once?
56e78ed237bdd419002c4132
the Kangxi and Qianlong emperors
172
False
What year did the First Opium War end?
56e78ed237bdd419002c4133
1842
388
False
Under the Qing dynasty (1644–1911), the Nanjing area was known as Jiangning (江寧) and served as the seat of government for the Viceroy of Liangjiang. It had been visited by the Kangxi and Qianlong emperors a number of times on their tours of the southern provinces. Nanjing was invaded by British troops during the close of the First Opium War, which was ended by the Treaty of Nanjing in 1842. As the capital of the brief-lived rebel Taiping Heavenly Kingdom (founded by the Taiping rebels in the mid-19th century, Nanjing was known as Tianjing (天京, "Heavenly Capital" or "Capital of Heaven").
Who lived in buildings that would later come to be known as the Presidential Palace?
56e78fe637bdd419002c4143
the Qing viceroy and the Taiping king
5
False
When did Qing troops regain Nanjing?
56e78fe637bdd419002c4144
1864
173
False
How many people died during the Qing troops retaking of Nanjing?
56e78fe637bdd419002c4145
over 100,000
225
False
Qing troops allowed no rebels who spoke what dialect to surrender?
56e78fe637bdd419002c4146
Taiping
30
False
Who was the leader of the Qing troops?
56e78fe637bdd419002c4147
Zeng Guofan
142
False
Both the Qing viceroy and the Taiping king resided in buildings that would later be known as the Presidential Palace. When Qing forces led by Zeng Guofan retook the city in 1864, a massive slaughter occurred in the city with over 100,000 estimated to have committed suicide or fought to the death. Since the Taiping Rebellion began, Qing forces allowed no rebels speaking its dialect to surrender. This policy of mass murder of civilians occurred in Nanjing.
When was the Republic of China founded?
56e7909700c9c71400d772e1
January 1912
70
False
Who was the first president of the Republic of China?
56e7909700c9c71400d772e2
Sun Yat-sen
88
False
Who moved the capital from Nanjing to Beijing?
56e7909700c9c71400d772e4
Yuan Shikai
269
False
The Xinhai Revolution led to the founding of the Republic of China in January 1912 with Sun Yat-sen as the first provisional president and Nanking was selected as its new capital. However, the Qing Empire controlled large regions to the north, so revolutionaries asked Yuan Shikai to replace Sun as president in exchange for the abdication of Puyi, the Last Emperor. Yuan demanded the capital be Beijing (closer to his power base).
When was Nanjing re-established as the capital of the Republic of China?
56e791fe37bdd419002c4167
1927
3
False
What party established Nanjing as the capital of the Republic of China?
56e791fe37bdd419002c4168
the Kuomintang (KMT; Nationalist Party)
9
False
Who was the leader of the Kuomintang (KMT; Nationalist Party)?
56e791fe37bdd419002c4169
Generalissimo Chiang Kai-shek
55
False
What are the 1930's known as, in China?
56e791fe37bdd419002c416a
the Nanking decade
266
False
When did the Kuomintang (KMT; Nationalist Party) defeat and take over Beijing?
56e791fe37bdd419002c416b
1928
227
False
In 1927, the Kuomintang (KMT; Nationalist Party) under Generalissimo Chiang Kai-shek again established Nanjing as the capital of the Republic of China, and this became internationally recognized once KMT forces took Beijing in 1928. The following decade is known as the Nanking decade.
When did Japan invade Manchuria?
56e792e237bdd419002c417f
1931
96
False
When did Japan invade all of China?
56e792e237bdd419002c4180
1937
3
False
Who killed innocent civilians in the Nanking Massacre?
56e792e237bdd419002c4181
the Imperial Japanese Army
396
False
How many died in the Nanking Massacre?
56e792e237bdd419002c4182
between 300,000 and 350,000
568
False
When was the Nanjing Massacre Memorial Hall built?
56e792e237bdd419002c4183
1985
708
False
In 1937, the Empire of Japan started a full-scale invasion of China after invading Manchuria in 1931, beginning the Second Sino-Japanese War (often considered a theatre of World War II). Their troops occupied Nanjing in December and carried out the systematic and brutal Nanking Massacre (the "Rape of Nanking"). Even children, the elderly, and nuns are reported to have suffered at the hands of the Imperial Japanese Army. The total death toll, including estimates made by the International Military Tribunal for the Far East and the Nanjing War Crimes Tribunal, was between 300,000 and 350,000. The city itself was also severely damaged during the massacre. The Nanjing Massacre Memorial Hall was built in 1985 to commemorate this event.
When was the National Government of China moved to Chungking?
56e797ad00c9c71400d77329
A few days before the fall of the city
0
False
When was the Nanjing Regime established?
56e797ad00c9c71400d7732a
1940
169
False
Who was the leader of the Nanjing Regime?
56e797ad00c9c71400d7732b
Wang Jingwei
297
False
When did the KMT move back to Nanjing?
56e797ad00c9c71400d7732c
1946
397
False
What was another name for the Nanjing Regime?
56e797ad00c9c71400d7732d
"Reorganized National Government of China"
247
False
A few days before the fall of the city, the National Government of China was relocated to the southwestern city Chungking (Chongqing) and resumed Chinese resistance. In 1940, a Japanese-collaborationist government known as the "Nanjing Regime" or "Reorganized National Government of China" led by Wang Jingwei was established in Nanjing as a rival to Chiang Kai-shek's government in Chongqing. In 1946, after the Surrender of Japan, the KMT relocated its central government back to Nanjing.
When did the Communist troops cross the Yangtze River?
56e7989c37bdd419002c41d3
21 April
3
False
When was Nanjing conquered by the Communist People's Liberation Army (PLA)?
56e7989c37bdd419002c41d4
April 23, 1949
60
False
Where did the KMT government stay until October 15?
56e7989c37bdd419002c41d5
Canton (Guangzhou)
171
False
When did the KMT government head to Taiwan?
56e7989c37bdd419002c41d6
December 10
285
False
When was the People's Republic of China formed?
56e7989c37bdd419002c41d7
October 1949
472
False
On 21 April, Communist forces crossed the Yangtze River. On April 23, 1949, the Communist People's Liberation Army (PLA) captured Nanjing. The KMT government retreated to Canton (Guangzhou) until October 15, Chongqing until November 25, and then Chengdu before retreating to Taiwan on December 10. By late 1949, the PLA was pursuing remnants of KMT forces southwards in southern China, and only Tibet was left. After the establishment of the People's Republic of China in October 1949, Nanjing was initially a province-level municipality, but it was soon merged into Jiangsu province and again became the provincial capital by replacing Zhenjiang which was transferred in 1928, and retains that status to this day.
How large is Nanjing, in miles?
56e7997100c9c71400d7735b
2,548 sq mi
60
False
Where does the Yangtze River flow in Nanjing?
56e7997100c9c71400d7735c
past the west side and then north side
251
False
How far is Nanjing from Shanghai, in miles?
56e7997100c9c71400d7735d
190 mi
415
False
How far is Nanjing from Beijing?
56e7997100c9c71400d7735e
750 mi
469
False
What is the name of the area of land around Nanjing?
56e7997100c9c71400d7735f
Hsiajiang (下江, Downstream River) region
857
False
Nanjing, with a total land area of 6,598 square kilometres (2,548 sq mi), is situated in the heartland of drainage area of lower reaches of Yangtze River, and in Yangtze River Delta, one of the largest economic zones of China. The Yangtze River flows past the west side and then north side of Nanjing City, while the Ningzheng Ridge surrounds the north, east and south side of the city. The city is 300 kilometres (190 mi) west-northwest of Shanghai, 1,200 kilometres (750 mi) south-southeast of Beijing, and 1,400 kilometres (870 mi) east-northeast of Chongqing. The downstream Yangtze River flows from Jiujiang, Jiangxi, through Anhui and Jiangsu to East Sea, north to drainage basin of downstream Yangtze is Huai River basin and south to it is Zhe River basin, and they are connected by the Grand Canal east to Nanjing. The area around Nanjing is called Hsiajiang (下江, Downstream River) region, with Jianghuai (江淮) stressing northern part and Jiangzhe (江浙) stressing southern part. The region is also known as Dongnan (東南, South East, the Southeast) and Jiangnan (江南, River South, south of Yangtze).
What city is northeast of Nanjing?
56e79a5837bdd419002c4203
Yangzhou
16
False
What is southeast of Nanjing?
56e79a5837bdd419002c4204
Changzhou
202
False
What province is to the west of Nanjing?
56e79a5837bdd419002c4205
Anhui province
257
False
How many prefecture-size cities are in the province of Anhui?
56e79a5837bdd419002c4206
five
295
False
What city is on the border of Nanjing to the East?
56e79a5837bdd419002c4207
Zhenjiang
109
False
Nanjing borders Yangzhou to the northeast, one town downstream when following the north bank of the Yangtze, Zhenjiang to the east, one town downstream when following the south bank of the Yangtze, and Changzhou to the southeast. On its western boundary is Anhui province, where Nanjing borders five prefecture-level cities, Chuzhou to the northwest, Wuhu, Chaohu and Maanshan to the west and Xuancheng to the southwest.
What is the east-west waterway near Nanjing?
56e79b2d00c9c71400d77383
Yangtze River
31
False
What is the railway that runs South to North called?
56e79b2d00c9c71400d77384
Nanjing–Beijing railway
87
False
What mountain is in the East are of Nanjing?
56e79b2d00c9c71400d77385
Zhong Mountain
303
False
What mountain lies in the west of Nanjing?
56e79b2d00c9c71400d77386
Stone Mountain
369
False
Stone Mountain is compared to what animal?
56e79b2d00c9c71400d77387
tiger
358
False
Nanjing is the intersection of Yangtze River, an east-west water transport artery, and Nanjing–Beijing railway, a south-north land transport artery, hence the name “door of the east and west, throat of the south and north”. Furthermore, the west part of the Ningzhen range is in Nanjing; the Loong-like Zhong Mountain is curling in the east of the city; the tiger-like Stone Mountain is crouching in the west of the city, hence the name “the Zhong Mountain, a dragon curling, and the Stone Mountain, a tiger crouching”. Mr. Sun Yet-sen spoke highly of Nanjing in the “Constructive Scheme for Our Country”, “The position of Nanjing is wonderful since mountains, lakes and plains all integrated in it. It is hard to find another city like this.”
What type of climate does Nanjing enjoy?
56e79c1c00c9c71400d773a1
a humid subtropical climate
12
False
What monsoon affects Nanjing?
56e79c1c00c9c71400d773a2
the East Asian monsoon
83
False
Nanjing is one of three "Furnacelike" cities. What are the other two cities?
56e79c1c00c9c71400d773a3
Chongqing and Wuhan
304
False
How many days of rain does Nanjing get a year, on average?
56e79c1c00c9c71400d773a4
115 days
1142
False
How many hours of bright sunshine does Nanjing get each year?
56e79c1c00c9c71400d773a5
1,983 hours
1345
False
Nanjing has a humid subtropical climate (Köppen Cfa) and is under the influence of the East Asian monsoon. The four seasons are distinct, with damp conditions seen throughout the year, very hot and muggy summers, cold, damp winters, and in between, spring and autumn are of reasonable length. Along with Chongqing and Wuhan, Nanjing is traditionally referred to as one of the "Three Furnacelike Cities" along the Yangtze River (长江流域三大火炉) for the perennially high temperatures in the summertime. However, the time from mid-June to the end of July is the plum blossom blooming season in which the meiyu (rainy season of East Asia; literally "plum rain") occurs, during which the city experiences a period of mild rain as well as dampness. Typhoons are uncommon but possible in the late stages of summer and early part of autumn. The annual mean temperature is around 15.46 °C (59.8 °F), with the monthly 24-hour average temperature ranging from 2.4 °C (36.3 °F) in January to 27.8 °C (82.0 °F) in July. Extremes since 1951 have ranged from −14.0 °C (7 °F) on 6 January 1955 to 40.7 °C (105 °F) on 22 August 1959. On average precipitation falls 115 days out of the year, and the average annual rainfall is 1,062 millimetres (42 in). With monthly percent possible sunshine ranging from 37 percent in March to 52 percent in August, the city receives 1,983 hours of bright sunshine annually.
How many types of minerals are found in Nanjing?
56e79d0e37bdd419002c4235
40
72
False
Which minerals comprise 40 percent of those in the province?
56e79d0e37bdd419002c4236
iron and sulfur
106
False
For what mineral reserve does Nanjing rank first in both East Asia and the South East Asia areas?
56e79d0e37bdd419002c4237
strontium
196
False
What are Nanjing's main water sources?
56e79d0e37bdd419002c4238
the Yangtze River and groundwater
321
False
What hot spring is in Jiangning?
56e79d0e37bdd419002c4239
Tangshan Hot Spring
412
False
Nanjing is endowed with rich natural resources, which include more than 40 kinds of minerals. Among them, iron and sulfur reserves make up 40 percent of those of Jiangsu province. Its reserves of strontium rank first in East Asia and the South East Asia region. Nanjing also possesses abundant water resources, both from the Yangtze River and groundwater. In addition, it has several natural hot springs such as Tangshan Hot Spring in Jiangning and Tangquan Hot Spring in Pukou.
What lakes are in the middle of Nanjing?
56e79e2e00c9c71400d773d3
Xuanwu Lake and Mochou Lake
116
False
What type of trees are on Purple Mountain?
56e79e2e00c9c71400d773d4
evergreens and oaks
273
False
Who convinced Sun Quan to make Nanjing his capital?
56e79e2e00c9c71400d773d5
Liu Bei
389
False
What impressed Liu Bei so much about Nanjing?
56e79e2e00c9c71400d773d6
Nanjing's impeccable geographic position
438
False
What is Nanjing surrounded by?
56e79e2e00c9c71400d773d7
the Yangtze River and mountains
14
False
Surrounded by the Yangtze River and mountains, Nanjing also enjoys beautiful natural scenery. Natural lakes such as Xuanwu Lake and Mochou Lake are located in the centre of the city and are easily accessible to the public, while hills like Purple Mountain are covered with evergreens and oaks and host various historical and cultural sites. Sun Quan relocated his capital to Nanjing after Liu Bei's suggestion as Liu Bei was impressed by Nanjing's impeccable geographic position when negotiating an alliance with Sun Quan. Sun Quan then renamed the city from Moling (秣陵) to Jianye (建鄴) shortly thereafter.
When did a thick wave of smog first appear in Central and Eastern China?
56e79f5337bdd419002c4271
2 December 2013
71
False
How long was Nanjing ranked as "severely polluted" during this wave?
56e79f5337bdd419002c4272
five straight days
548
False
On what days did Nanjing have to issue a Red Alert because of the severe air pollution?
56e79f5337bdd419002c4273
From 5 to 6 December
965
False
A dense wave of smog began in the Central and Eastern part of China on 2 December 2013 across a distance of around 1,200 kilometres (750 mi), including Tianjin, Hebei, Shandong, Jiangsu, Anhui, Shanghai and Zhejiang. A lack of cold air flow, combined with slow-moving air masses carrying industrial emissions, collected airborne pollutants to form a thick layer of smog over the region. The heavy smog heavily polluted central and southern Jiangsu Province, especially in and around Nanjing, with its AQI pollution Index at "severely polluted" for five straight days and "heavily polluted" for nine. On 3 December 2013, levels of PM2.5 particulate matter average over 943 micrograms per cubic metre, falling to over 338 micrograms per cubic metre on 4 December 2013. Between 3:00 pm, 3 December and 2:00pm, 4 December local time, several expressways from Nanjing to other Jiangsu cities were closed, stranding dozens of passenger buses in Zhongyangmen bus station. From 5 to 6 December, Nanjing issued a red alert for air pollution and closed down all kindergarten through middle schools. Children's Hospital outpatient services increased by 33 percent; general incidence of bronchitis, pneumonia, upper respiratory tract infections significantly increased. The smog dissipated 12 December. Officials blamed the dense pollution on lack of wind, automobile exhaust emissions under low air pressure, and coal-powered district heating system in North China region. Prevailing winds blew low-hanging air masses of factory emissions (mostly SO2) towards China's east coast.
What is the full name for Nanjing's government?
56e7a01d37bdd419002c4282
"People's Government of Nanjing City"
58
False
How many parties rule Nanjing?
56e7a01d37bdd419002c4283
one-party
122
False
What party rules Nanjing?
56e7a01d37bdd419002c4284
the CPC
140
False
Who is considered to be the governor of Nanjing?
56e7a01d37bdd419002c4285
the CPC Nanjing Committee Secretary
154
False
who is the executive leader of Nanjing, working under the secretary?
56e7a01d37bdd419002c4286
the mayor
231
False
At present, the full name of the government of Nanjing is "People's Government of Nanjing City" and the city is under the one-party rule of the CPC, with the CPC Nanjing Committee Secretary as the de facto governor of the city and the mayor as the executive head of the government working under the secretary.
What was the population of Nanjing in 2010?
56e7a0d637bdd419002c428c
8.005 million
89
False
What was the estimated population of Nanjing in 2011?
56e7a0d637bdd419002c428d
8.11 million
172
False
How was the population figure for 2010 obtained?
56e7a0d637bdd419002c428e
the Sixth China Census
13
False
What was Nanjing's birth rate?
56e7a0d637bdd419002c428f
8.86 percent
205
False
How many people were considered to be living in the urban portion of Nanjing?
56e7a0d637bdd419002c4290
6.47 million
290
False
According to the Sixth China Census, the total population of the City of Nanjing reached 8.005 million in 2010. The statistics in 2011 estimated the total population to be 8.11 million. The birth rate was 8.86 percent and the death rate was 6.88 percent. The urban area had a population of 6.47 million people. The sex ratio of the city population was 107.31 males to 100 females.
What is the overwhelming ethnic majority in Nanjing?
56e7a1d137bdd419002c4296
Han nationality
74
False
What minority nationality is most common?
56e7a1d137bdd419002c4297
Hui nationalities
251
False
What is the second most common minority group in Nanjing?
56e7a1d137bdd419002c4298
Manchu
375
False
How many people of Manchu descent live in Nanjing?
56e7a1d137bdd419002c4299
2,311
383
False
How many minority nationality types does Nanjing contain?
56e7a1d137bdd419002c429a
50
112
False
As in most of eastern China the ethnic makeup of Nanjing is predominantly Han nationality (98.56 percent), with 50 other minority nationalities. In 1999, 77,394 residents belonged to minority nationalities, among which the vast majority (64,832) were Hui nationalities, contributing 83.76 percent to the minority population. The second and third largest minority groups were Manchu (2,311) and Zhuang (533) nationalities. Most of the minority nationalities resided in Jianye District, comprising 9.13 percent of the district's population.
In addition to textiles, what other industry is Nanjing known for, since the Three Kingdoms period?
56e7a2d137bdd419002c42aa
minting
88
False
Why is Nanjing so strong in textiles and minting?
56e7a2d137bdd419002c42ab
its strategic geographical location and convenient transportation
105
False
During what dynasty was Nanjing the biggest business center in all of East Asia?
56e7a2d137bdd419002c42ac
Ming
183
False
In what dynasty were textiles particularly popular?
56e7a2d137bdd419002c42ad
Qing
477
False
During the textile boom, how many jobs were created?
56e7a2d137bdd419002c42ae
around 200 thousand jobs
512
False
Since the Three Kingdoms period, Nanjing has been an industrial centre for textiles and minting owing to its strategic geographical location and convenient transportation. During the Ming dynasty, Nanjing's industry was further expanded, and the city became one of the most prosperous cities in China and the world. It led in textiles, minting, printing, shipbuilding and many other industries, and was the busiest business center in East Asia. Textiles boomed particularly in Qing dynasty, the industry created around 200 thousand jobs and there were about 50 thousand satin machines in the city in 18th and 19th century.
In what time period did Nanjing transform from a producer to more of a consumer city?
56e7a3f737bdd419002c42b4
Into the first half of the twentieth century
0
False
What mostly caused the shift to a consumer city?
56e7a3f737bdd419002c42b5
the rapid expansion of its wealthy population
189
False
What is Zhongyang Shangchang?
56e7a3f737bdd419002c42b6
huge department stores
315
False
In what year did the revenue of food and entertainment eclipse the output of industry?
56e7a3f737bdd419002c42b7
1933
459
False
How much of the population worked in a service capacity at that time?
56e7a3f737bdd419002c42b8
One third of the city population
616
False
Into the first half of the twentieth century after the establishment of ROC, Nanjing gradually shifted from being a production hub towards being a heavy consumption city, mainly because of the rapid expansion of its wealthy population after Nanjing once again regained the political spotlight of China. A number of huge department stores such as Zhongyang Shangchang sprouted up, attracting merchants from all over China to sell their products in Nanjing. In 1933, the revenue generated by the food and entertainment industry in the city exceeded the sum of the output of the manufacturing and agriculture industry. One third of the city population worked in the service industry, .
What did the government build in Nanjing during the 1950's?
56e7a55600c9c71400d7747b
a series of state-owned heavy industries
100
False
The mistakes the government made during this period resulted in what type of growth?
56e7a55600c9c71400d7747c
negative economic growth
490
False
How many Pillar industries were there from the 1960s to the 1980s?
56e7a55600c9c71400d7747d
Five
565
False
The inability to compete with multinational firms led to what for workers?
56e7a55600c9c71400d7747e
large numbers of layoff
977
False
The government wanted Nanjing to be what kind of industrial city?
56e7a55600c9c71400d7747f
“world-class”
299
False
In the 1950s after PRC was established by CPC, the government invested heavily in the city to build a series of state-owned heavy industries, as part of the national plan of rapid industrialization, converting it into a heavy industry production centre of East China. Overenthusiastic in building a “world-class” industrial city, the government also made many disastrous mistakes during development, such as spending hundreds of millions of yuan to mine for non-existent coal, resulting in negative economic growth in the late 1960s. From 1960s to 1980s there were Five Pillar Industries, namely, electronics, cars, petrochemical, iron and steel, and power, each with big state-owned firms. After the Reform and Opening recovering market economy, the state-owned enterprises found themselves incapable of competing with efficient multinational firms and local private firms, hence were either mired in heavy debt or forced into bankruptcy or privatization and this resulted in large numbers of layoff workers who were technically not unemployed but effectively jobless.
What type of industries are now dominant in Nanjing?
56e7a68600c9c71400d77485
Service industries
80
False
How much of the city's GDP do the service industries contribute to?
56e7a68600c9c71400d77486
about 60 percent
130
False
Companies such as Huawei, ZTE and Lenovo have built what in Nanjing?
56e7a68600c9c71400d77487
many R & D centers and institutions
1212
False
Companies such as Ford, IBM, Lucent, Samsung and SAP have built what in Nanjing?
56e7a68600c9c71400d77488
research center
1014
False
The top 3 industries in Nanjing are?
56e7a68600c9c71400d77489
financial industry, culture industry and tourism industry
175
False
The current economy of the city is basically newly developed based on the past. Service industries are dominating, accounting for about 60 percent of the GDP of the city, and financial industry, culture industry and tourism industry are top 3 of them. Industries of information technology, energy saving and environmental protection, new energy, smart power grid and intelligent equipment manufacturing have become pillar industries. Big private firms include Suning, Yurun, Sanpower, Fuzhong, Hiteker, 5stars, Jinpu, Tiandi, CTTQ Pharmaceutical and Simcere Pharmaceutical. Big state-owned firms include Panda Electronics, Yangzi Petrochemical, Jinling Petrochemical, Nanjing Chemical, Nanjing Steel, Jincheng Motors, Jinling Pharmaceutical, Chenguang and NARI. The city has also attracted foreign investment, multinational firms such as Siemens, Ericsson, Volkswagen, Iveco, A.O. Smith, and Sharp have established their lines, and a number of multinationals such as Ford, IBM, Lucent, Samsung and SAP established research center there. Many China-based leading firms such as Huawei, ZTE and Lenovo have key R & D institutes in the city. Nanjing is an industrial technology research and development hub, hosting many R & D centers and institutions, especially in areas of electronics technology, information technology, computer software, biotechnology and pharmaceutical technology and new material technology.
What was Nanjing's GDP in 2013?
56e7a7dc37bdd419002c42d2
RMB 801 billion
135
False
What was Nanjing's GDP per person in 2013?
56e7a7dc37bdd419002c42d3
RMB 98,174(US$16041)
207
False
Was the GDP in 2013 an increase or decrease over 2012's levels?
56e7a7dc37bdd419002c42d4
increase
242
False
How was Nanjing's unemployment rate, compared to the nation as a whole?
56e7a7dc37bdd419002c42d5
lower than the national average
444
False
What was Nanjing's GDP ranking in all of China for 2013?
56e7a7dc37bdd419002c42d6
12th
531
False
In recent years, Nanjing has been developing its economy, commerce, industry, as well as city construction. In 2013 the city's GDP was RMB 801 billion (3rd in Jiangsu), and GDP per capita(current price) was RMB 98,174(US$16041), a 11 percent increase from 2012. The average urban resident's disposable income was RMB 36,200, while the average rural resident's net income was RMB 14,513. The registered urban unemployment rate was 3.02 percent, lower than the national average (4.3 percent). Nanjing's Gross Domestic Product ranked 12th in 2013 in China, and its overall competence ranked 6th in mainland and 8th including Taiwan and Hong Kong in 2009.
What are the three types of transport in Nanjing?
56e7a86a00c9c71400d7748f
land, water and air
186
False
What is the most popular method of travel for citizens?
56e7a86a00c9c71400d77490
public transportation
240
False
How many bridges does Nanjing have over the Yangtze River?
56e7a86a00c9c71400d77491
five
358
False
How many tunnels does Nanjing have over the Yangtze River?
56e7a86a00c9c71400d77492
two
375
False
Where is the city centre located?
56e7a86a00c9c71400d77493
on the south bank
477
False
Nanjing is the transportation hub in eastern China and the downstream Yangtze River area. Different means of transportation constitute a three-dimensional transport system that includes land, water and air. As in most other Chinese cities, public transportation is the dominant mode of travel of the majority of the citizens. As of October 2014, Nanjing had five bridges and two tunnels over the Yangtze River, which are tying districts north of the river with the city centre on the south bank.
Nanjing's railway is important, and is located in what region of China?
56e7a96937bdd419002c42e6
eastern China
39
False
What line does Nanjing serve as a railway junction for?
56e7a96937bdd419002c42e7
Beijing-Shanghai (Jinghu)
89
False
What lines comprise the Beijing-Shanghai (Jinghu) line?
56e7a96937bdd419002c42e8
the old Jinpu and Huning Railways
144
False
What high-speed railway is Nanjing connected to that contains Shanghai?
56e7a96937bdd419002c42e9
Shanghai–Wuhan–Chengdu Passenger Dedicated Line
424
False
What type of railway lines are now under construction?
56e7a96937bdd419002c42ea
several more high-speed rail lines
478
False
Nanjing is an important railway hub in eastern China. It serves as rail junction for the Beijing-Shanghai (Jinghu) (which is itself composed of the old Jinpu and Huning Railways), Nanjing–Tongling Railway (Ningtong), Nanjing–Qidong (Ningqi), and the Nanjing-Xian (Ningxi) which encompasses the Hefei–Nanjing Railway. Nanjing is connected to the national high-speed railway network by Beijing–Shanghai High-Speed Railway and Shanghai–Wuhan–Chengdu Passenger Dedicated Line, with several more high-speed rail lines under construction.
How many railway stations are there in Nanjing?
56e7aa3300c9c71400d774ad
17
10
False
Which are the two most prominent railway stations?
56e7aa3300c9c71400d774ae
Nanjing Railway Station and Nanjing South Railway Station
87
False
When was the Nanjing Railway Station originally constructed?
56e7aa3300c9c71400d774af
1968
320
False
In what year was the Nanjing Railway Station re-built?
56e7aa3300c9c71400d774b0
2005
457
False
Which station is one of the 5 hub stations on the Beijing–Shanghai High-Speed Railway line?
56e7aa3300c9c71400d774b1
Nanjing South Railway Station
115
False
Among all 17 railway stations in Nanjing, passenger rail service is mainly provided by Nanjing Railway Station and Nanjing South Railway Station, while other stations like Nanjing West Railway Station, Zhonghuamen Railway Station and Xianlin Railway Station serve minor roles. Nanjing Railway Station was first built in 1968. In 1999, On November 12, 1999, the station was burnt in a serious fire. Reconstruction of the station was finished on September 1, 2005. Nanjing South Railway Station, which is one of the 5 hub stations on Beijing–Shanghai High-Speed Railway, has officially been claimed as the largest railway station in Asia and the second largest in the world in terms of GFA (Gross Floor Area). Construction of Nanjing South Station began on 10 January 2008. The station was opened for public service in 2011.
What type of highways let commuters get to cities fast?
56e7ab2337bdd419002c42fa
Express highways
0
False
How many miles of highways are in Nanjing?
56e7ab2337bdd419002c42fb
140 mi
209
False
What are the names of the artery roads in Nanjing?
56e7ab2337bdd419002c42fc
Zhongshan Road and Hanzhong
485
False
Zhongshan Road and Hanzhong cross each other in what area of Nanjing?
56e7ab2337bdd419002c42fd
in the city centre, Xinjiekou
534
False
What is the total coverage of the city with roads, in miles?
56e7ab2337bdd419002c42fe
181.15 mi/100 sq mi
427
False
Express highways such as Hu–Ning, Ning–He, Ning–Hang enable commuters to travel to Shanghai, Hefei, Hangzhou, and other important cities quickly and conveniently. Inside the city of Nanjing, there are 230 km (140 mi) of highways, with a highway coverage density of 3.38 kilometres per hundred square kilometrs (5.44 mi/100 sq mi). The total road coverage density of the city is 112.56 kilometres per hundred square kilometres (181.15 mi/100 sq mi). The two artery roads in Nanjing are Zhongshan Road and Hanzhong. The two roads cross in the city centre, Xinjiekou.
What are the main types of public transportation?
56e7abd937bdd419002c4304
bus, taxi and metro systems
93
False
How many companies are involved with the network of buses?
56e7abd937bdd419002c4305
three companies
165
False
How many stations are there in total in the Nanjing metro system?
56e7abd937bdd419002c4306
121 stations
589
False
When does Nanjing expect to finish it's light rail line?
56e7abd937bdd419002c4307
2030
740
False
How many bus routes are there in Nanjing?
56e7abd937bdd419002c4308
more than 370 routes
202
False
The city also boasts an efficient network of public transportation, which mainly consists of bus, taxi and metro systems. The bus network, which is currently run by three companies since 2011, provides more than 370 routes covering all parts of the city and suburban areas. Nanjing Metro Line 1, started service on September 3, 2005, with 16 stations and a length of 21.72 km. Line 2 and the 24.5 km-long south extension of Line 1 officially opened to passenger service on May 28, 2010. At present, Nanjing has a metro system with a grand total of 223.6 kilometers (138.9 mi) of route and 121 stations. They are Line 1, Line 2, Line 3, Line 10, Line S1 and Line S8. The city is planning to complete a 17-line Metro and light-rail system by 2030. The expansion of the Metro network will greatly facilitate the intracity transportation and reduce the currently heavy traffic congestion.
What is Nanjing's airport called?
56e7ac6c37bdd419002c430e
Lukou International Airport
19
False
How many routes does Nanjing's airport run?
56e7ac6c37bdd419002c430f
85 routes
210
False
How many passengers did the airport service in 2013?
56e7ac6c37bdd419002c4310
15,011,792 passengers
129
False
When did the airport open for business?
56e7ac6c37bdd419002c4311
28 June 1997
678
False
What airport was the primary airport before Lukou?
56e7ac6c37bdd419002c4312
Nanjing Dajiaochang Airport
702
False
Nanjing's airport, Lukou International Airport, serves both national and international flights. In 2013, Nanjing airport handled 15,011,792 passengers and 255,788.6 tonnes of freight. The airport currently has 85 routes to national and international destinations, which include Japan, Korea, Thailand, Malaysia, Singapore, USA and Germany. The airport is connected by a 29-kilometre (18 mi) highway directly to the city center, and is also linked to various intercity highways, making it accessible to the passengers from the surrounding cities. A railway Ninggao Intercity Line is being built to link the airport with Nanjing South Railway Station. Lukou Airport was opened on 28 June 1997, replacing Nanjing Dajiaochang Airport as the main airport serving Nanjing. Dajiaochang Airport is still used as a military air base.
What is the largest inland port for China?
56e7ad0337bdd419002c4318
Port of Nanjing
0
False
How long is the Port of Nanjing?
56e7ad0337bdd419002c4319
98 kilometres (61 mi) in length
127
False
How many berths does the Port contain?
56e7ad0337bdd419002c431a
64
167
False
When did Longtan Containers Port Area open up?
56e7ad0337bdd419002c431b
March 2004
314
False
How many containers can Longtan Containers Port Area handle?
56e7ad0337bdd419002c431c
one million container-capacity
330
False
Port of Nanjing is the largest inland port in China, with annual cargo tonnage reached 191,970,000 t in 2012. The port area is 98 kilometres (61 mi) in length and has 64 berths including 16 berths for ships with a tonnage of more than 10,000. Nanjing is also the biggest container port along the Yangtze River; in March 2004, the one million container-capacity base, Longtan Containers Port Area opened, further consolidating Nanjing as the leading port in the region. As of 2010, it operated six public ports and three industrial ports.
When was the very first Nanjing Yangtze River Bridge finished?
56e7adfc37bdd419002c4322
the 1960s
3
False
What was the symbolism of the bridge?
56e7adfc37bdd419002c4323
symbol of modern China
211
False
When did the Nanjing Yangtze River Bridge first open for traffic?
56e7adfc37bdd419002c4324
1968
433
False
What type of design is the bridge?
56e7adfc37bdd419002c4325
a two-tiered road and rail design
453
False
How many more bridges have been built since the first one was completed?
56e7adfc37bdd419002c4326
four
598
False
In the 1960s, the first Nanjing Yangtze River Bridge was completed, and served as the only bridge crossing over the Lower Yangtze in eastern China at that time. The bridge was a source of pride and an important symbol of modern China, having been built and designed by the Chinese themselves following failed surveys by other nations and the reliance on and then rejection of Soviet expertise. Begun in 1960 and opened to traffic in 1968, the bridge is a two-tiered road and rail design spanning 4,600 metres on the upper deck, with approximately 1,580 metres spanning the river itself. Since then four more bridges and two tunnels have been built. Going in the downstream direction, the Yangtze crossings in Nanjing are: Dashengguan Bridge, Line 10 Metro Tunnel, Third Bridge, Nanjing Yangtze River Tunnel, First Bridge, Second Bridge and Fourth Bridge.
How many ancient capitals does China have in its history?
56e7aec600c9c71400d774d5
four
17
False
What type of people does Nanjing draw because of its culture?
56e7aec600c9c71400d774d6
intellectuals
102
False
In what dynasties did poets congregate in Nanjing?
56e7aec600c9c71400d774d7
the Tang and Song dynasties
146
False
When did the city serve as the official imperial examination centre?
56e7aec600c9c71400d774d8
the Ming and Qing dynasties
277
False
What was the name of the examination centre?
56e7aec600c9c71400d774d9
Jiangnan Examination Hall
361
False
Being one of the four ancient capitals of China, Nanjing has always been a cultural centre attracting intellectuals from all over the country. In the Tang and Song dynasties, Nanjing was a place where poets gathered and composed poems reminiscent of its luxurious past; during the Ming and Qing dynasties, the city was the official imperial examination centre (Jiangnan Examination Hall) for the Jiangnan region, again acting as a hub where different thoughts and opinions converged and thrived.
How is Nanjing seen, from a cultural perspective?
56e7af6400c9c71400d774df
as a “city of culture”
121
False
Who provides strong support to Nanjing?
56e7af6400c9c71400d774e0
local educational institutions
62
False
What city is considered one of the more pleasant cities to live in, by the Chinese?
56e7af6400c9c71400d774e1
Nanjing
94
False
Does Nanjing have a long or short tradition of culture?
56e7af6400c9c71400d774e2
a long cultural tradition
12
False
Today, with a long cultural tradition and strong support from local educational institutions, Nanjing is commonly viewed as a “city of culture” and one of the more pleasant cities to live in China.
Where do some of the country's most prominent art groups call home?
56e7afee37bdd419002c434a
Nanjing
53
False
Which opera company is based in Nanjing?
56e7afee37bdd419002c434b
Jiangsu Peking Opera Institute
126
False
What art company is based in Nanjing?
56e7afee37bdd419002c434c
Nanjing Xiaohonghua Art Company
161
False
Name two dance groups that are based in Nanjing:
56e7afee37bdd419002c434d
the Qianxian Dance Company, Nanjing Dance Company
75
False
Some of the leading art groups of China are based in Nanjing; they include the Qianxian Dance Company, Nanjing Dance Company, Jiangsu Peking Opera Institute and Nanjing Xiaohonghua Art Company among others.
What is the name of China's oldest stage art?
56e7b0b737bdd419002c4366
Kunqu
59
False
What is one of the best theatres for Kunqu?
56e7b0b737bdd419002c4367
Jiangsu Province Kun Opera
0
False
What type of troupe is Jiangsu Province Kun Opera considered to be?
56e7b0b737bdd419002c4368
a conservative and traditional troupe
109
False
What other types of operas are performed in Nanjing?
56e7b0b737bdd419002c4369
Yang, Yue (shaoxing), Xi and Jing
200
False
What other types of theater performance are seen in Nanjing?
56e7b0b737bdd419002c436a
Suzhou pingtan, spoken theatre and puppet theatre
271
False
Jiangsu Province Kun Opera is one of the best theatres for Kunqu, China's oldest stage art. It is considered a conservative and traditional troupe. Nanjing also has professional opera troupes for the Yang, Yue (shaoxing), Xi and Jing (Chinese opera varieties) as well as Suzhou pingtan, spoken theatre and puppet theatre.
What is the name of the largest art gallery in Jiangsu Province?
56e7b14100c9c71400d774fb
Jiangsu Art Gallery
0
False
What type of art does Jiangsu Art Gallery contain?
56e7b14100c9c71400d774fc
traditional and contemporary art pieces of China
92
False
What are two smaller galleries in Nanjing?
56e7b14100c9c71400d774fd
Red Chamber Art Garden and Jinling Stone Gallery
186
False
What type of exhibitions do Red Chamber Art Garden and Jinling Stone Gallery show?
56e7b14100c9c71400d774fe
their own special exhibitions
246
False
Jiangsu Art Gallery is the largest gallery in Jiangsu Province, presenting some of the best traditional and contemporary art pieces of China; many other smaller-scale galleries, such as Red Chamber Art Garden and Jinling Stone Gallery, also have their own special exhibitions.
When was the festival of climbing on the city wall celebrated?
56e7b21237bdd419002c4382
January 16
112
False
On March 3, what festival was celebrated in ancient times?
56e7b21237bdd419002c4383
bathing in Qing Xi
124
False
What did citizens used to do on September 9?
56e7b21237bdd419002c4384
hill hiking
155
False
Where can one find the dates of more old festivals?
56e7b21237bdd419002c4385
Chinese lunar calendar
211
False
How many of these old festivals are still celebrated by residents of Nanjing?
56e7b21237bdd419002c4386
Almost none of them
236
False
Many traditional festivals and customs were observed in the old times, which included climbing the City Wall on January 16, bathing in Qing Xi on March 3, hill hiking on September 9 and others (the dates are in Chinese lunar calendar). Almost none of them, however, are still celebrated by modern Nanjingese.
What city is considered to be a place that is popular with tourists?
56e7b32400c9c71400d7751b
Nanjing
9
False
Rather than host the old festivals, what type of events does Nanjing host each year?
56e7b32400c9c71400d7751c
a series of government-organised events
58
False
What area holds the largest collection of plum blossoms in all of China?
56e7b32400c9c71400d7751d
Plum Blossom Hill
174
False
Where do the tourists for the Plum Blossom Festival come from?
56e7b32400c9c71400d7751e
domestically and internationally
267
False
What festival involves kites and fruit trees?
56e7b32400c9c71400d7751f
Nanjing Baima Peach Blossom and Kite Festival
322
False
Instead, Nanjing, as a popular tourist destination, hosts a series of government-organised events throughout the year. The annual International Plum Blossom Festival held in Plum Blossom Hill, the largest plum collection in China, attracts thousands of tourists both domestically and internationally. Other events include Nanjing Baima Peach Blossom and Kite Festival, Jiangxin Zhou Fruit Festival and Linggu Temple Sweet Osmanthus Festival.
When was the Nanjing Library completed?
56e7b49000c9c71400d77525
1907
28
False
What is the Nanjing Library's ranking in China?
56e7b49000c9c71400d77526
the third largest library in China
98
False
How many volumes does the Nanjing Library have?
56e7b49000c9c71400d77527
more than 10 million volumes
41
False
What is the name of the fifth largest library in China?
56e7b49000c9c71400d77528
Nanjing University Library
339
False
Which university library is larger than Nanjing University Library?
56e7b49000c9c71400d77529
Peking University Library
424
False
Nanjing Library, founded in 1907, houses more than 10 million volumes of printed materials and is the third largest library in China, after the National Library in Beijing and Shanghai Library. Other libraries, such as city-owned Jinling Library and various district libraries, also provide considerable amount of information to citizens. Nanjing University Library is the second largest university libraries in China after Peking University Library, and the fifth largest nationwide, especially in the number of precious collections.
What city contains some of the finest and oldest museums in all of China?
56e7b57900c9c71400d77539
Nanjing
0
False
What is the previous name of the Nanjing Museum?
56e7b57900c9c71400d7753a
National Central Museum
94
False
Which museum was the first modern one in China?
56e7b57900c9c71400d7753b
Nanjing Museum
60
False
What collections are the Nanjing Museum famous for?
56e7b57900c9c71400d7753c
Ming and Qing imperial porcelain
316
False
How many items does the Nanjing Museum contain?
56e7b57900c9c71400d7753d
400,000 items
222
False
Nanjing has some of the oldest and finest museums in China. Nanjing Museum, formerly known as National Central Museum during ROC period, is the first modern museum and remains as one of the leading museums in China having 400,000 items in its permanent collection,. The museum is notable for enormous collections of Ming and Qing imperial porcelain, which is among the largest in the world. Other museums include the City Museum of Nanjing in the Chaotian Palace, the Oriental Metropolitan Museum, the China Modern History Museum in the Presidential Palace, the Nanjing Massacre Memorial Hall, the Taiping Kingdom History Museum, Jiangning Imperial Silk Manufacturing Museum, Nanjing Yunjin Museum, Nanjing City Wall Cultural Museum, Nanjing Customs Museum in Ganxi House, Nanjing Astronomical History Museum, Nanjing Paleontological Museum, Nanjing Geological Museum, Nanjing Riverstones Museum, and other museums and memorials such Zheng He Memorial, Jinling Four Modern Calligraphers Memorial.
What can most of Nanjing's multi-purpose theatres be used for?
56e7b66337bdd419002c43c8
convention halls, cinemas, musical halls and theatres
60
False
What are the two most prominent theatres in Nanjing?
56e7b66337bdd419002c43c9
the People's Convention Hall and the Nanjing Arts and Culture Center
165
False
What is the current purpose of The Capital Theatre?
56e7b66337bdd419002c43ca
a museum in theatre/film
285
False
What was the popularity of The Capital Theater, in the past?
56e7b66337bdd419002c43cb
well known
255
False
Most of Nanjing's major theatres are multi-purpose, used as convention halls, cinemas, musical halls and theatres on different occasions. The major theatres include the People's Convention Hall and the Nanjing Arts and Culture Center. The Capital Theatre well known in the past is now a museum in theatre/film.
Where have Nanjing's after-hours activities typically been located?
56e7b76a00c9c71400d7754d
around Nanjing Fuzimiao (Confucius Temple) area along the Qinhuai River
54
False
What three things were popular in the Nanjing Fuzimiao area?
56e7b76a00c9c71400d7754e
night markets, restaurants and pubs
133
False
What was a major night attraction for Nanjing?
56e7b76a00c9c71400d7754f
Boating at night in the river
178
False
What statues are near the ones of teachers and educators?
56e7b76a00c9c71400d77550
courtesans
352
False
What is another name for Nanjing Fuzimiao?
56e7b76a00c9c71400d77551
Confucius Temple
79
False
Traditionally Nanjing's nightlife was mostly centered around Nanjing Fuzimiao (Confucius Temple) area along the Qinhuai River, where night markets, restaurants and pubs thrived. Boating at night in the river was a main attraction of the city. Thus, one can see the statues of the famous teachers and educators of the past not too far from those of the courtesans who educated the young men in the other arts.
When did more commercial streets become built in Nanjing?
56e7b87f00c9c71400d77557
In the past 20 years
0
False
What has happened as the result of more commercial streets in Nanjing?
56e7b87f00c9c71400d77558
the nightlife has become more diverse
76
False
What area has lots of types of recreational outlets?
56e7b87f00c9c71400d77559
"Nanjing 1912"
211
False
Other than at "Nanjing 1912", where else are there a lot of bars?
56e7b87f00c9c71400d7755a
along Shanghai road and its neighbourhood
446
False
The two areas with a lot of bars are popular with whom?
56e7b87f00c9c71400d7755b
international residents of the city
511
False
In the past 20 years, several commercial streets have been developed, hence the nightlife has become more diverse: there are shopping malls opening late in the Xinjiekou CBD and Hunan Road. The well-established "Nanjing 1912" district hosts a wide variety of recreational facilities ranging from traditional restaurants and western pubs to dance clubs. There are two major areas where bars are densely located; one is in 1912 block; the other is along Shanghai road and its neighbourhood. Both are popular with international residents of the city.
What is considered to be a typical food for a Nanjing resident?
56e7b94300c9c71400d77561
radish
4
False
Which area has the longest history of growing radish?
56e7b94300c9c71400d77562
the southern suburb
252
False
What does the radish taste like in the spring?
56e7b94300c9c71400d77563
very juicy and sweet
306
False
What are Nanjing people called by others?
56e7b94300c9c71400d77564
'Nanjing big radish'
425
False
What does calling someone 'Nanjing big radish' mean they are like?
56e7b94300c9c71400d77565
they are unsophisticated, passionate and conservative
459
False
The radish is also a typical food representing people of Nanjing, which has been spread through word of mouth as an interesting fact for many years in China. According to Nanjing.GOV.cn, "There is a long history of growing radish in Nanjing especially the southern suburb. In the spring, the radish tastes very juicy and sweet. It is well-known that people in Nanjing like eating radish. And the people are even addressed as 'Nanjing big radish', which means they are unsophisticated, passionate and conservative. From health perspective, eating radish can help to offset the stodgy food that people take during the Spring Festival".
Generally, what types of teams call Nanjing home?
56e7ba3537bdd419002c43d0
many professional sports teams
44
False
What is the name of the football club in Nanjing?
56e7ba3537bdd419002c43d1
Jiangsu Sainty
76
False
What building is home to Jiangsu Sainty?
56e7ba3537bdd419002c43d2
Nanjing Olympic Sports Center
178
False
What is the name of the major basketball team in Nanjing?
56e7ba3537bdd419002c43d3
Jiangsu Nangang Basketball Club
209
False
What is the name of China's highest level basketball league?
56e7ba3537bdd419002c43d4
CBA
356
False
As a major Chinese city, Nanjing is home to many professional sports teams. Jiangsu Sainty, the football club currently staying in Chinese Super League, is a long-term tenant of Nanjing Olympic Sports Center. Jiangsu Nangang Basketball Club is a competitive team which has long been one of the major clubs fighting for the title in China top level league, CBA. Jiangsu Volleyball men and women teams are also traditionally considered as at top level in China volleyball league.
Which sports center started in 1952?
56e7bb3400c9c71400d7756b
Wutaishan Sports Center
47
False
How many major sports centers are located in Nanjing?
56e7bb3400c9c71400d7756c
two
10
False
What type of sports centers are Wutaishan Sports Center and Nanjing Olympic Sports Center considered to be?
56e7bb3400c9c71400d7756d
comprehensive sports centers
128
False
What is special about Wutaishan Sports Center, from a historical perspective?
56e7bb3400c9c71400d7756e
it was one of the oldest and most advanced stadiums in early time of People's Republic of China.
271
False
Both Wutaishan Sports Center and Nanjing Olympic Sports Center contain a stadium, gymnasium, natatorium, and what other facility?
56e7bb3400c9c71400d7756f
tennis court
200
False
There are two major sports centers in Nanjing, Wutaishan Sports Center and Nanjing Olympic Sports Center. Both of these two are comprehensive sports centers, including stadium, gymnasium, natatorium, tennis court, etc. Wutaishan Sports Center was established in 1952 and it was one of the oldest and most advanced stadiums in early time of People's Republic of China.
When was the Nanjing Olympic Sports Center built?
56e7bbeb37bdd419002c43da
2005
3
False
Why was the Nanjing Olympic Sports Center built?
56e7bbeb37bdd419002c43db
in order to host The 10th National Game of People's Republic of China
9
False
How many people can Nanjing Olympic Sports Center's stadium hold?
56e7bbeb37bdd419002c43dc
60,000
329
False
How many people can Nanjing Olympic Sports Center's gymnasium hold?
56e7bbeb37bdd419002c43dd
13,000
378
False
How many people can Nanjing Olympic Sports Center's natatorium hold?
56e7bbeb37bdd419002c43de
3,000
379
False
In 2005, in order to host The 10th National Game of People's Republic of China, there was a new stadium, Nanjing Olympic Sports Center, constructed in Nanjing. Compared to Wutaishan Sports Center, which the major stadium's capacity is 18,500, Nanjing Olympic Sports Center has a more advanced stadium which is big enough to seat 60,000 spectators. Its gymnasium has capacity of 13,000, and natatorium of capacity 3,000.
When was Nanjing announced as the host city for the 2nd Summer Youth Olympic Games?
56e7bd1a00c9c71400d77575
10 February 2010
3
False
What was the theme for the 2014 Youth Olympic Games?
56e7bd1a00c9c71400d77576
“Share the Games, Share our Dreams”
178
False
How many types of sports were performed in the 2014 Youth Olympic Games?
56e7bd1a00c9c71400d77577
28
265
False
What type of spirit does the Youth Olympic Games hope to spread?
56e7bd1a00c9c71400d77578
the Olympic spirit
747
False
When was the 2014 Youth Olympic Games?
56e7bd1a00c9c71400d77579
from 16 to 28 August
314
False
On 10 February 2010, the 122nd IOC session at Vancouver announced Nanjing as the host city for the 2nd Summer Youth Olympic Games. The slogan of the 2014 Youth Olympic Games was “Share the Games, Share our Dreams”. The Nanjing 2014 Youth Olympic Games featured all 28 sports on the Olympic programme and were held from 16 to 28 August. The Nanjing Youth Olympic Games Organising Committee (NYOGOC) worked together with the International Olympic Committee (IOC) to attract the best young athletes from around the world to compete at the highest level. Off the competition fields, an integrated culture and education programme focused on discussions about education, Olympic values, social challenges, and cultural diversity. The YOG aims to spread the Olympic spirit and encourage sports participation.
Nanjing is considered one of the most pretty cities in what region?
56e7bf1b37bdd419002c43e4
mainland China
47
False
How many tourists does Nanjing receive each year?
56e7bf1b37bdd419002c43e5
thousands
197
False
What type of buildings attract tourists to Nanjing?
56e7bf1b37bdd419002c43e6
historical buildings
124
False
List three natural attractions of Nanjing.
56e7bf1b37bdd419002c43e7
lush green parks, natural scenic lakes, small mountains
67
False
Nanjing is one of the most beautiful cities of mainland China with lush green parks, natural scenic lakes, small mountains, historical buildings and monuments, relics and much more, which attracts thousands of tourists every year.
What was the designation of Nanjing?
56e7c00000c9c71400d7757f
the national capital
29
False
What happened around the time that Nanjing was designated as the capital?
56e7c00000c9c71400d77580
many structures were built
51
False
Are any of the structures that were built at that time still around?
56e7c00000c9c71400d77581
some of them still remain
108
False
The structures that still remain are open to whom?
56e7c00000c9c71400d77582
tourists
152
False
Because it was designated as the national capital, many structures were built around that time. Even today, some of them still remain which are open to tourists.
How long has Nanjing been considered the education hub of southern China?
56e7c15800c9c71400d77587
more than 1700 years
62
False
How many places of higher learning are in Nanjing?
56e7c15800c9c71400d77588
75
94
False
What is Nanjing's nationwide ranking for National key laboratories?
56e7c15800c9c71400d77589
third
302
False
What is Nanjing's nationwide ranking for National key disciplines?
56e7c15800c9c71400d7758a
third
302
False
What type of educational institutions are in the area, that Nanjing can brag about?
56e7c15800c9c71400d7758b
some of the most prominent
333
False
Nanjing has been the educational centre in southern China for more than 1700 years. There are 75 institutions of higher learning till 2013. The number of National key laboratories, National key disciplines and the academicians of Chinese Academy of Sciences and Chinese Academy of Engineering all rank third in the nation. It boasts some of the most prominent educational institutions in the region, some of which are listed as follows:
Arena_Football_League
Who was the founder of the Arena Football League?
56e7963e37bdd419002c41ab
Jim Foster
142
False
What was the inaugural year of the AFL?
56e7963e37bdd419002c41ac
1987
134
False
Where does the Arena Football League rank amongst professional football leagues in North America by longevity?
56e7963e37bdd419002c41ad
third
168
False
In yards, how large is an arena football field?
56e7963e37bdd419002c41ae
68
332
False
What fraction of the size of an NFL football field is an arena football field?
56e7963e37bdd419002c41af
half
353
False
The Arena Football League (AFL) is the highest level of professional indoor American football in the United States. It was founded in 1987 by Jim Foster, making it the third longest-running professional football league in North America, after the Canadian Football League and the National Football League. It is played indoors on a 68-yard field (about half the distance of an NFL field), resulting in a faster-paced and higher-scoring game. The sport was invented in the early 1980s and patented by Foster, a former executive of the United States Football League and the National Football League.
How many teams played in the Arena Football League in the 2015 season?
56e7969700c9c71400d77315
12
45
False
What team left the AFL after the 2015 season to join another league?
56e7969700c9c71400d77316
Spokane Shock
411
False
What league did the Spokane Shock join after the 2015 season?
56e7969700c9c71400d77317
IFL
481
False
Along with the American Conference, what is the other conference in the AFL?
56e7969700c9c71400d77318
National Conference
558
False
As of 2016, how many teams does each conference have?
56e7969700c9c71400d77319
four
625
False
For its 2015 season, the league consisted of 12 teams, all from the United States; however, upon the completion of the regular season, the league announced that the two teams it had assumed operation of during the season would cease all operations effective immediately; a regular season game slated between the two had previously been canceled and declared a tie. Subsequently, one of the remaining teams, the Spokane Shock, severed its ties with the league to join the competing IFL. The AFL is divided into two conferences  –  the American Conference and National Conference. Starting 2016, each conference will have only four teams as the champion San Jose SaberCats announced in November 2015 that they were ceasing activity for "reasons not associated with League operations."
As of 2016, how many regular season games does an AFL team play?
56e796f800c9c71400d7731f
16
6
False
How long is the AFL regular season?
56e796f800c9c71400d77320
18-week
39
False
In what month did the 2015 AFL season begin?
56e796f800c9c71400d77321
March
307
False
What month did the 2015 AFL season end?
56e796f800c9c71400d77322
August
338
False
What is the name of the AFL championship game?
56e796f800c9c71400d77323
ArenaBowl
588
False
The 2016 regular season consists of an 18-week schedule during which each team plays 16 games and two bye weeks. Each team plays two or three games against the teams within its own conference, and two games (home/road) against each team interconference-wise. The 2015 season started during the last week of March and ran weekly into late August. At the end of the regular season, all teams from each conference (the conference winner and three wild card teams) play in the AFL playoffs, an eight-team single-elimination tournament that culminates with the championship game, known as the ArenaBowl. From 1987 to 2004, 2010 and 2011 and again starting in 2014, the game was played at the site of the higher seeded team. From 2005 to 2008, the games were at neutral sites, Las Vegas and New Orleans. In 2012, the league championship returned to a neutral site and ArenaBowl XXV was held at the New Orleans Arena; ArenaBowl XXVI was held in Orlando. The 2016 season will begin April 1, 2016.
What was the name of the AFL development league?
56e7974337bdd419002c41bf
af2
65
False
When did the AFL development league begin?
56e7974337bdd419002c41c0
2000
5
False
When was the first AFL season played?
56e7974337bdd419002c41c1
1987
101
False
What Arena Football League season was cancelled?
56e7974337bdd419002c41c2
2009
163
False
In what city and state is the Arena Football League based?
56e7974337bdd419002c41c3
Chicago, Illinois
406
False
From 2000 to 2009, the AFL had its own developmental league, the af2. The AFL played 22 seasons from 1987 to 2008; internal issues caused the league to cancel its 2009 season, though the af2 did play. Later that year both the AFL and af2 were dissolved and reorganized as a new corporation comprising teams from both leagues, and the AFL returned in 2010. The Arena Football League has its headquarters in Chicago, Illinois.
Who was Jim Foster's employer prior to his founding the Arena Football League?
56e797a637bdd419002c41c9
the National Football League
38
False
What was Jim Foster viewing when he came up with the idea for arena football?
56e797a637bdd419002c41ca
an indoor soccer match
112
False
Where was Jim Foster when he came up with the idea for arena football?
56e797a637bdd419002c41cb
Madison Square Garden
138
False
In what year did Jim Foster conceive of the idea of arena football?
56e797a637bdd419002c41cc
1981
163
False
What television network agreed to broadcast an arena football test game?
56e797a637bdd419002c41cd
NBC
588
False
Jim Foster, a promotions manager with the National Football League, conceived of indoor football while watching an indoor soccer match at Madison Square Garden in 1981. While at the game, he wrote his idea on a 9x12 envelope, with sketches of the field and notes on gameplay. He presented the idea to a few friends at the NFL offices, where he received praise and encouragement for his concept. After solidifying the rules and a business plan, and supplemented with sketches by a professional artist, Foster presented his idea to various television networks. He reached an agreement with NBC for a "test game".
What football league began in 1982?
56e797ef00c9c71400d77333
the United States Football League
53
False
What team in the USFL did Jim Foster work for?
56e797ef00c9c71400d77334
Chicago Blitz
210
False
When did the USFL shut down?
56e797ef00c9c71400d77335
1985
370
False
On what date was the arena football test game played?
56e797ef00c9c71400d77336
April 27, 1986
477
False
What was Foster's job title with the Chicago Blitz?
56e797ef00c9c71400d77337
executive vice-president
176
False
Plans for arena football were put on hold in 1982 as the United States Football League was launched. Foster left the NFL to accept a position in the USFL. He eventually became executive vice-president with the Chicago Blitz, where he returned to his concept of arena football. In 1983, he began organizing the test game in his spare time from his job with the Blitz. By 1985, the USFL had ceased football operations and he began devoting all his time to arena football, and on April 27, 1986, his concept was realized when the test game was played.
In what city and state did the arena football test game take place?
56e7985000c9c71400d7733d
Rockford, Illinois
28
False
At what venue did the test game occur?
56e7985000c9c71400d7733e
Rockford MetroCentre
55
False
Along with the Rockford Metros, what was the name of the other team that played in the test game?
56e7985000c9c71400d7733f
Chicago Politicians
199
False
On what date did the second test game take place?
56e7985000c9c71400d77340
February 26, 1987
442
False
The second test game was played in what arena?
56e7985000c9c71400d77341
Rosemont Horizon
467
False
The test game was played in Rockford, Illinois, at the Rockford MetroCentre. Sponsors were secured, and players and coaches from local colleges were recruited to volunteer to play for the teams, the Chicago Politicians and Rockford Metros, with the guarantee of a tryout should the league take off. Interest was high enough following the initial test game that Foster decided to put on a second, "showcase", game. The second game was held on February 26, 1987 at the Rosemont Horizon in Chicago with a budget of $20,000, up from $4,000 in the test game. Foster also invited ESPN to send a film crew to the game; a highlights package aired on SportsCenter.
How many teams did the Arena Football League originally have?
56e798c537bdd419002c41dd
four
143
False
Along with the Chicago Bruisers, Denver Dynamite and Pittsburgh Gladiators, what team was one of the original AFL teams?
56e798c537bdd419002c41de
Washington Commandos
199
False
What was the title of Darrell Davis in the AFL?
56e798c537bdd419002c41df
executive director of football operations
353
False
What was Darrell Davis' nickname?
56e798c537bdd419002c41e0
Mouse
278
False
Who was responsible for hiring the first coaches of the AFL teams?
56e798c537bdd419002c41e1
Davis
285
False
Following the successes of his trial-run games, Foster moved ahead with his idea for arena football. He founded the Arena Football League with four teams: the Pittsburgh Gladiators, Denver Dynamite, Washington Commandos, and Chicago Bruisers. Foster appointed legendary Darrel "Mouse" Davis, godfather of the "run and shoot" and modern pro offenses, as executive director of football operations. Davis hired the original coaches and was the architect of the league's original wide-open offensive playbooks.
On what date was the inaugural game of the AFL played?
56e7993000c9c71400d77351
June 19, 1987
62
False
Along with the Commandos, who played in the first Arena Football League game?
56e7993000c9c71400d77352
Gladiators
89
False
How many spectators watched the first Arena Football League game?
56e7993000c9c71400d77353
12,117
152
False
On what date was the first AFL game that aired on television?
56e7993000c9c71400d77354
June 20, 1987
498
False
At what venue did the first televised Arena Football League game occur?
56e7993000c9c71400d77355
the Rosemont Horizon
516
False
The first game in Arena Football League history was played on June 19, 1987, between the Gladiators and Commandos at Pittsburgh Civic Arena in front of 12,117 fans. The game was deliberately not televised so that it could be analyzed and any follies and failures would not be subject to national public scrutiny. Following the inaugural game, tweaks and adjustments were made, and the first season continued. The Dynamite and Bruisers played in the first-ever televised AFL game the next night, on June 20, 1987, at the Rosemont Horizon in suburban Chicago on ESPN with Bob Rathbun and Lee Corso calling the play. The broadcast showed a short clip of the Commandos-Gladiators game. Each team played six games, two against each other team. The top two teams, Denver and Pittsburgh, then competed in the first-ever AFL championship game, ArenaBowl I.
On what date did Foster apply for a patent on arena football?
56e7998d37bdd419002c41f1
September 30, 1987
3
False
When did the United States Patent and Trademark Office grant Foster's patent?
56e7998d37bdd419002c41f2
March 27, 1990
309
False
On what date was the expiration of Foster's patent?
56e7998d37bdd419002c41f3
September 30, 2007
347
False
With whom did Foster file his patent?
56e7998d37bdd419002c41f4
the United States Patent and Trademark Office
56
False
On September 30, 1987, Foster filed an application with the United States Patent and Trademark Office to patent his invented sport. The patent application covered the rules of the game, specifically detailing the goalposts and rebound netting and their impact on gameplay. Foster's application was granted on March 27, 1990. The patent expired on September 30, 2007.
In 1987, what television station sometimes showed arena football games?
56e79a2237bdd419002c41f9
ESPN
93
False
In the early years of arena football, after what hour were games often aired?
56e79a2237bdd419002c41fa
midnight
148
False
What AFL game was broadcast on ABC?
56e79a2237bdd419002c41fb
Arena Bowl XII
274
False
In what year did ABC broadcast an Arena Football League game?
56e79a2237bdd419002c41fc
1998
263
False
On what ABC program was an AFL game shown?
56e79a2237bdd419002c41fd
Wide World of Sports
335
False
From the 1987 season until the late 1990s, the most exposure the league would receive was on ESPN, which aired tape-delayed games, often well after midnight, and often edited to match the alloted time slot. The league received its first taste of wide exposure in 1998, when Arena Bowl XII was televised nationally as part of ABC's old Wide World of Sports.
Who was the coach of the Pittsburgh Gladiators in 1989?
56e79aa800c9c71400d7736f
Joe Haering
133
False
What day of the week was July 23, 1989?
56e79aa800c9c71400d77370
Saturday
3
False
Who was the commissioner of the AFL in 1989?
56e79aa800c9c71400d77371
Jim Foster
193
False
What paper featured a photograph of the head coach of the Gladiators punching the commissioner of the AFL?
56e79aa800c9c71400d77372
USA Today
305
False
In what arena were the Gladiators playing the Bruisers on July 23, 1989?
56e79aa800c9c71400d77373
Arco Arena
374
False
On Saturday, July 23, 1989, much of America learned of the AFL for an unintended reason, when the Pittsburgh Gladiators' head coach, Joe Haering, made football history by punching commissioner Jim Foster during a game with the Chicago Bruisers. The national media ran with the story, including a photo in USA Today. The game was played between the two teams in Sacramento's Arco Arena, as part of the AFL's 'Barnstorming America' tour. Foster had walked onto the field of play to mediate an altercation between the two teams when Haering, a former NFL assistant, punched him in the jaw. Haering was suspended without pay.
What team did Art Schlichter play for?
56e79b1e37bdd419002c420d
Detroit Drive
50
False
Where did the Detroit Drive play their home games?
56e79b1e37bdd419002c420e
Joe Louis Arena
310
False
In what year did the Drive go to their first Arena Bowl?
56e79b1e37bdd419002c420f
1988
384
False
Who owned the Detroit Drive in this period?
56e79b1e37bdd419002c4210
Mike Ilitch
453
False
What team did the owner of the Detroit Drive buy that led him to sell the Drive?
56e79b1e37bdd419002c4211
Detroit Tigers
540
False
One of the league's early success stories was the Detroit Drive. A primary team for some of the AFL's most highly regarded players, including George LaFrance and Gary and Alvin Rettig, as well as being a second career chance for quarterback Art Schlichter, the Drive regularly played before sold out crowds at Joe Louis Arena, and went to the ArenaBowl every year of their existence (1988–1993). The AFL's first dynasty came to an end when their owner, Mike Ilitch (who also owned Little Caesars Pizza and the Detroit Red Wings) bought the Detroit Tigers baseball team and sold the AFL team.
Where did the Drive franchise relocate to?
56e79b8300c9c71400d7738d
Massachusetts
28
False
Before what season did the Drive move to a different state?
56e79b8300c9c71400d7738e
1994
50
False
What is the name of the AFL team based in Tampa Bay?
56e79b8300c9c71400d7738f
Storm
156
False
What team is cited as a rival of the Tampa Bay franchise?
56e79b8300c9c71400d77390
Orlando Predators
269
False
What team was the rival of the Arizona Rattlers?
56e79b8300c9c71400d77391
San Jose SaberCats
304
False
Although the Drive moved to Massachusetts for the 1994 season, the AFL had a number of other teams which it considered "dynasties", including the Tampa Bay Storm (the only team that has existed in some form for all twenty-eight contested seasons), their arch-rival the Orlando Predators, the now-defunct San Jose SaberCats of the present decade, and their rivals the Arizona Rattlers.
What notable event in the AFL first occurred in 1993?
56e79c0637bdd419002c4217
first All-Star Game
31
False
In what city and state did the 1993 All-Star Game occur?
56e79c0637bdd419002c4218
Des Moines, Iowa
54
False
What AFL team would be based in Des Moines?
56e79c0637bdd419002c4219
Iowa Barnstormers
108
False
What conference lost the first All-Star Game?
56e79c0637bdd419002c421a
American Conference
211
False
How many points did the National Conference score in the first All-Star Game?
56e79c0637bdd419002c421b
64
231
False
In 1993, the league staged its first All-Star Game in Des Moines, Iowa, the future home of the long-running Iowa Barnstormers, as a fundraiser for flood victims in the area. The National Conference defeated the American Conference 64–40 in front of a crowd of 7,189. The second Allstar game was in Oct. 2013, with two games, the first in Honolulu, Hawai'i, the second being in Beijing, China.
What team did the New York CityHawks become after moving to Hartford?
56e79c6300c9c71400d773ab
New England Sea Wolves
448
False
What city did the Sea Wolves move to?
56e79c6300c9c71400d773ac
Toronto
546
False
How many seasons were the CityHawks in New York?
56e79c6300c9c71400d773ad
two
477
False
How long did the Sea Wolves stay in Hartford?
56e79c6300c9c71400d773ae
two seasons
509
False
How many seasons did the Toronto Phantoms last?
56e79c6300c9c71400d773af
two
477
False
While some teams have enjoyed considerable on-field and even financial success, many teams in the history of the league have enjoyed little success either on or off of the field of play. There are a number of franchises which existed in the form of a number of largely-unrelated teams under numerous management groups until they folded (an example is the New York CityHawks whose owners transferred the team from New York to Hartford to become the New England Sea Wolves after two seasons, then after another two seasons were sold and became the Toronto Phantoms, who lasted another two seasons until folding). There are a number of reasons why these teams failed, including financially weak ownership groups, lack of deep financial support from some owners otherwise capable of providing it, lack of media exposure, and the host city's evident lack of interest in its team or the sport as a whole.
What AFL team did Kurt Warner play for?
56e79cbc37bdd419002c422b
Iowa Barnstormers
194
False
Kurt Warner was the Most Valuable Player in what Super Bowl?
56e79cbc37bdd419002c422c
Super Bowl XXXIV
114
False
What NFL team did Kurt Warner play for?
56e79cbc37bdd419002c422d
St. Louis Rams
59
False
What television network did the AFL sign a deal with in 2000?
56e79cbc37bdd419002c422e
TNN
390
False
What was the name of the AFL team based in New Orleans?
56e79cbc37bdd419002c422f
VooDoo
928
False
The year 2000 brought heightened interest in the AFL. Then-St. Louis Rams quarterback Kurt Warner, who was MVP of Super Bowl XXXIV, was first noticed because he played quarterback for the AFL's Iowa Barnstormers. While many sports commentators and fans continued to ridicule the league, Warner's story gave the league positive exposure, and it brought the league a new television deal with TNN, which, unlike ESPN, televised regular season games live. While it was not financially lucrative, it helped set the stage for what the league would become in the new millennium. Also, the year also brought a spin-off league, the AF2, intended to be a developmental league, comparable to the National Football League's NFL Europe. There was a lot of expansion in the 2000s. Expansion teams included the Austin Wranglers, Carolina Cobras, Los Angeles Avengers, Chicago Rush, Detroit Fury, Dallas Desperados, Colorado Crush, New Orleans VooDoo, Philadelphia Soul, Nashville Kats, Kansas City Brigade, New York Dragons and Utah Blaze. Some of these teams, including the Crush, Desperados, Kats, and VooDoo, were owned by the same group which owned the NFL teams in their host cities. The NFL purchased, but never exercised, an option to buy a major interest the AFL. Of all of these teams, only the Soul still compete in the AFL as of now.
How many games made up the AFL season in 2003?
56e79d2300c9c71400d773bf
16
32
False
In what year did the rules first forbid players running out of bounds?
56e79d2300c9c71400d773c0
2005
98
False
In what year was the ArenaBowl first played at a neutral location?
56e79d2300c9c71400d773c1
2005
98
False
What year introduced the free substitution rule?
56e79d2300c9c71400d773c2
2007
356
False
What year saw a rules change that had an impact on the role of the "jack" linebacker?
56e79d2300c9c71400d773c3
2008
451
False
In 2003, the season expanded to 16 games. There were also several rule changes in this period. In 2005, players were no longer allowed to run out of bounds. The only way for a player to go out of bounds presently is if he is tackled into or deliberately contacts the side boards. This was also the first year the ArenaBowl was played at a neutral site. In 2007, free substitution was allowed, ending the "iron man" era of one-platoon football. And in 2008, the "jack" linebacker was allowed to go sideboard to sideboard without being penalized for "illegal defense".
Who was the commissioner of the Arena Football League for the first half of 2008?
56e79d8200c9c71400d773c9
David Baker
43
False
For how many years did David Baker serve as commissioner of the AFL?
56e79d8200c9c71400d773ca
12
6
False
On what date did Baker step down as commissioner of the AFL?
56e79d8200c9c71400d773cb
July 25, 2008
79
False
What Arena Football League event occurred two days after Baker's resignation?
56e79d8200c9c71400d773cc
ArenaBowl XXII
115
False
Who temporarily served in the commissioner's post after Baker's departure?
56e79d8200c9c71400d773cd
Ed Policy
151
False
After 12 years as commissioner of the AFL, David Baker retired unexpectedly on July 25, 2008, just two days before ArenaBowl XXII; deputy commissioner Ed Policy was named interim commissioner until Baker's replacement was found. Baker explained, "When I took over as commissioner, I thought it would be for one year. It turned into 12. But now it's time."
What team shut down in October 2008?
56e79deb37bdd419002c4249
New Orleans VooDoo
47
False
Who made the announcement that the VooDoo were shutting down?
56e79deb37bdd419002c424a
Tom Benson
17
False
What business wanted to buy a stake in the AFL?
56e79deb37bdd419002c424b
Platinum Equity
325
False
How large a stake did Platinum Equity want to buy in the AFL?
56e79deb37bdd419002c424c
$100 million
289
False
What publication announced the Platinum Equity business deal?
56e79deb37bdd419002c424d
Sports Business Journal
206
False
In October 2008, Tom Benson announced that the New Orleans VooDoo were ceasing operations and folding "based on circumstances currently affecting the league and the team". Shortly thereafter, an article in Sports Business Journal announced that the AFL had a tentative agreement to sell a $100 million stake in the league to Platinum Equity; in exchange, Platinum Equity would create a centralized, single-entity business model that would streamline league and team operations and allow the league to be more profitable. Benson's move to shut down the VooDoo came during the Platinum Equity conference call, leading to speculation that he had folded because of the deal.
On what date was the dispersal draft first scheduled to occur?
56e79e5c37bdd419002c425d
December 2
229
False
To what date was the dispersal draft first delayed?
56e79e5c37bdd419002c425e
December 3
410
False
After the second delay, when was the dispersal draft schedule to occur?
56e79e5c37bdd419002c425f
December 9
506
False
When was free agency first scheduled to begin?
56e79e5c37bdd419002c4260
December 4
268
False
When was free agency scheduled to begin after the delay?
56e79e5c37bdd419002c4261
December 11
551
False
Because of the sudden loss of the New Orleans franchise, the league announced in October that the beginning of the free agency period would be delayed in order to accommodate a dispersal draft. Dates were eventually announced as December 2 for the dispersal draft and December 4 for free agency, but shortly before the draft the league issued a press release announcing the draft had been postponed one day to December 3. Shortly thereafter, another press release announced that the draft would be held on December 9 and free agency would commence on December 11. However, the draft still never took place, and instead another press release was issued stating that both the draft and free agency had been postponed indefinitely. Rumors began circulating that the league was in trouble and on the verge of folding, but owners denied those claims. It was soon revealed the players' union had agreed to cut the salary cap for the 2009 season to prevent a total cessation of operations. However, the announced Platinum Equity investment never materialized.
What numbered season did Arenafootball2 in 2009?
56e79ec500c9c71400d773e3
tenth
46
False
In what month and year was it decided to suspend the 2009 Arena Football League season?
56e79ec500c9c71400d773e4
December 2008
89
False
What National Hockey League season was cancelled?
56e79ec500c9c71400d773e5
2004-05
414
False
What led the National Hockey League to cancel the 2004-2005 season?
56e79ec500c9c71400d773e6
a lockout
440
False
Who owned the Columbus Destroyers in 2008?
56e79ec500c9c71400d773e7
Jim Renacci
724
False
Although the Arenafootball2 league played its tenth season in 2009, a conference call in December 2008 resulted in enough votes from owners and cooperation from the AFLPA for the AFL to suspend the entire 2009 season in order to create "a long-term plan to improve its economic model". In doing so, the AFL became the second sports league to cancel an entire season, after the National Hockey League cancelled the 2004-05 season because of a lockout. The AFL also became the third sports league to lose its postseason (the first being Major League Baseball, which lost its postseason in 1994 because of a strike). Efforts to reformat the league's business model were placed under the leadership of Columbus Destroyers owner Jim Renacci and interim commissioner Policy.
What was the job title of Ed Policy?
56e79f2900c9c71400d773f7
interim commissioner
34
False
After Ed Policy resigned, what franchise closed?
56e79f2900c9c71400d773f8
Los Angeles Avengers
180
False
How many weeks after Policy's resignation did the Avengers fold?
56e79f2900c9c71400d773f9
Two
159
False
How long after the shuttering of the Avengers did the league fail to ratify the new collective bargaining agreement?
56e79f2900c9c71400d773fa
One month
258
False
What reason did Policy give for his resignation?
56e79f2900c9c71400d773fb
the obsolescence of his position in the reformatted league
99
False
High hopes for the AFL waned when interim commissioner Ed Policy announced his resignation, citing the obsolescence of his position in the reformatted league. Two weeks later, the Los Angeles Avengers announced that they were formally folding the franchise. One month later, the league missed the deadline to formally ratify the new collective bargaining agreement and announced that it was eliminating health insurance for the players. Progress on the return stalled, and no announcements were made regarding the future of the league.
On what date was it reported that the AFL was considering bankruptcy?
56e79ff737bdd419002c4278
July 20, 2009
3
False
What publication reported that the Arena Football League was thinking about filing bankruptcy?
56e79ff737bdd419002c4279
Sports Business Journal
18
False
How much debt was the AFL reported to have as of July 20, 2009?
56e79ff737bdd419002c427a
$14 million
83
False
What type of bankruptcy was the league reportedly thinking about filing in July 2009?
56e79ff737bdd419002c427b
Chapter 11
144
False
On what date did the AFL announce that it was not shutting down?
56e79ff737bdd419002c427c
August 4
352
False
On July 20, 2009, Sports Business Journal reported that the AFL owed approximately $14 million to its creditors and were considering filing for Chapter 11 bankruptcy protection. In early August 2009, numerous media outlets began reporting that the AFL was folding permanently and would file for Chapter 7 bankruptcy. The league released a statement on August 4 to the effect that while the league was not folding, it was suspending league operations indefinitely. Despite this, several of the league's creditors filed papers to force a Chapter 7 liquidation if the league did not do so voluntarily. This request was granted on August 7, though converted to a Chapter 11 reorganization on August 26.
What percent of af2 was owned by the AFL?
56e7a08700c9c71400d77413
50.1
205
False
On what date was af2 regarded as disbanded?
56e7a08700c9c71400d77414
September 8, 2009
363
False
What legal entity was created by af2 league owners?
56e7a08700c9c71400d77415
Arena Football 1
558
False
Along with the Orlando Predators, what former Arena Football League team joined af2?
56e7a08700c9c71400d77416
Arizona Rattlers
608
False
What Arena Football League season was suspended?
56e7a08700c9c71400d77417
2009
38
False
Following the suspension of the AFL's 2009 season, league officials and owners of af2 (which had played its season as scheduled) began discussing the future of arena football and the two leagues. With its 50.1 percent ownership of af2, the AFL's bankruptcy and dissolution prompted the dissolution of af2 as well. That league was formally considered disbanded on September 8, 2009, when no owner committed his or her team to the league's eleventh season by that deadline. For legal reasons, af2 league officials and owners agreed to form a new legal entity, Arena Football 1 (AF1), with former AFL teams the Arizona Rattlers and Orlando Predators joining the former af2.
Who owned the Dallas Desperados?
56e7a0e400c9c71400d77427
Jerry Jones
339
False
When was an auction announced for the Arena Football League's assets?
56e7a0e400c9c71400d77428
November 11, 2009
68
False
When did the auction for the Arena Football League's assets take place?
56e7a0e500c9c71400d77429
November 25, 2009
489
False
Who won the auction for the AFL's assets?
56e7a0e500c9c71400d7742a
Arena Football 1
535
False
What was the purchase price for the Arena Football League's assets?
56e7a0e500c9c71400d7742b
$6.1 million
595
False
All assets of the Arena Football League were put up for auction. On November 11, 2009, the new league announced its intention to purchase the entire assets of the former AFL; the assets included the team names and logos of all but one of the former AFL and af2 teams. The lone exception was that of the Dallas Desperados; Desperados owner Jerry Jones had purposely designed the Desperados' properties around those of the Dallas Cowboys, making the two inseparable. The auction occurred on November 25, 2009. The assets were awarded to Arena Football 1 on December 7, 2009, with a winning bid of $6.1 million.
On what date did AF1 announce that it would be called the Arena Football League?
56e7a13d00c9c71400d77431
February 17, 2010
3
False
What television network was contracted to show Arena Football League games in 2010?
56e7a13d00c9c71400d77432
NFL Network
167
False
How many expansion teams were announced in 2010?
56e7a13d00c9c71400d77433
two
343
False
Along with the Dallas Vigilantes, what expansion team was announced in 2010?
56e7a13d00c9c71400d77434
Jacksonville Sharks
403
False
On February 17, 2010, AF1 announced it would use the "Arena Football League" name. The league announced plans for the upcoming season and details of its contract with NFL Network to broadcast AFL games in 2010. AF1 teams were given the option of restoring historical names to their teams. In addition to the historical teams, the league added two new expansion franchises, the Dallas Vigilantes and the Jacksonville Sharks.
Along with the New Orleans VooDoo, Kansas City Brigade, Philadelphia Soul and Georgia Force, what former team returned for the 2011 season?
56e7a1bb00c9c71400d77439
San Jose SaberCats
65
False
Along with the Grand Rapids Rampage, Colorado Crush, Columbus Destroyers and Los Angeles Avengers, what team did not return for the 2011 season?
56e7a1bb00c9c71400d7743a
New York Dragons
283
False
What expansion team joined the league in 2011?
56e7a1bb00c9c71400d7743b
Pittsburgh Power
357
False
For what NFL team did Lynn Swann play?
56e7a1bb00c9c71400d7743c
Pittsburgh Steelers
382
False
What was the former name of the Tampa Bay Storm?
56e7a1bb00c9c71400d7743d
Pittsburgh Gladiators
520
False
For the 2011 season, the Philadelphia Soul, Kansas City Brigade, San Jose SaberCats, New Orleans VooDoo, and the Georgia Force returned to the AFL after having last played in 2008. However, the Grand Rapids Rampage, Colorado Crush, Columbus Destroyers, Los Angeles Avengers, and the New York Dragons did not return. The league added one expansion team, the Pittsburgh Power. Former Pittsburgh Steelers wide receiver Lynn Swann was one of the team's owners. It was the first time the AFL returned to Pittsburgh since the Pittsburgh Gladiators were an original franchise in 1987 before becoming the Tampa Bay Storm. The Brigade changed its name to the Command, becoming the Kansas City Command. Even though they were returning teams, the Bossier–Shreveport Battle Wings moved to New Orleans as the Voodoo, the identity formerly owned by New Orleans Saints owner Tom Benson. The Alabama Vipers moved to Duluth, Georgia to become the new Georgia Force (the earlier franchise of that name being a continuation of the first Nashville Kats franchise). On October 25, 2010 the Oklahoma City Yard Dawgz did not return. The Milwaukee Iron also changed names to the Milwaukee Mustangs, the name of Milwaukee's original AFL team that had existed from 1994 to 2001.
What anniversary did the Arena Football League celebrate in 2012?
56e7a21637bdd419002c42a0
25th
59
False
What was the first day of the 2015 AFL season?
56e7a21637bdd419002c42a1
March 9, 2012
111
False
To what city did the Tulsa Talons relocate?
56e7a21637bdd419002c42a2
San Antonio
152
False
Who bought the Tampa Bay Storm in 2012?
56e7a21637bdd419002c42a3
Jeffrey Vinik
175
False
What event resulted in the postponement of the AFL free agency period?
56e7a21637bdd419002c42a4
Hurricane Sandy
682
False
In 2012, the AFL celebrated its silver anniversary for its 25th season of operations. The season kicked off on March 9, 2012. The Tulsa Talons moved to San Antonio, Texas and Jeffrey Vinik became owner of the Tampa Bay Storm. The Dallas Vigilantes were left off the schedule for the 2012 season with no announcement from the management, raising speculations that either the team had suspended operations for the season or was ceasing operations altogether. (Apparently the latter was the case as the organization did not field a team for the 2013 season or any subsequent one either.) Like the National Football League, the AFL postponed the free agency period to October 31 due to Hurricane Sandy.
On what date did the AFL announce its title sponsorship deal?
56e7a28800c9c71400d7744d
December 12, 2012
20
False
What business was the title sponsor of the AFL?
56e7a28800c9c71400d7744e
NET10 Wireless
89
False
What was the league renamed after the title sponsorship deal?
56e7a28800c9c71400d7744f
NET10 Wireless Arena Football League
233
False
When did the AFL title sponsorship deal come to an end?
56e7a28800c9c71400d77450
2014
429
False
How many years did the AFL title sponsorship deal last?
56e7a28800c9c71400d77451
two
442
False
It was announced on December 12, 2012, that the AFL reached a partnership agreement with NET10 Wireless to be the first non-motorsports-related professional sports league in the United States to have a title sponsor, renaming it the NET10 Wireless Arena Football League. The redesigned website showed the new logo which incorporated the current AFL logo with the one from NET10 Wireless. The title sponsorship agreement ended in 2014 after a two-year partnership.
What was the name of the Los Angeles-based team added in 2013?
56e7a2eb00c9c71400d77457
Kiss
102
False
Along with Paul Stanley, who owned the Los Angeles Kiss?
56e7a2eb00c9c71400d77458
Gene Simmons
117
False
Other than the Los Angeles Kiss, what expansion team entered in the league in 2013?
56e7a2eb00c9c71400d77459
Portland Thunder
188
False
Paul Stanley and Gene Simmons are members of what musical group?
56e7a2eb00c9c71400d7745a
Kiss
102
False
In 2013, the league expanded with the addition of two new franchises to play in 2014, the Los Angeles Kiss (owned by Gene Simmons and Paul Stanley of the legendary rock band Kiss) and the Portland Thunder.
What band was Vince Neil a part of?
56e7a35800c9c71400d7745f
Mötley Crüe
72
False
What was the name of the Las Vegas team owned by Vince Neil?
56e7a35800c9c71400d77460
Outlaws
185
False
What was the original intended home field of the Las Vegas Outlaws?
56e7a35800c9c71400d77461
MGM Grand Garden Arena
238
False
Where did the Outlaws play their home games?
56e7a35800c9c71400d77462
the Thomas & Mack Center
309
False
Along with the Las Vegas Gladiators, what prior AFL team played its home games at the Thomas & Mack Center?
56e7a35800c9c71400d77463
Las Vegas Sting
356
False
In 2014, the league announced the granting of a new franchise to former Mötley Crüe frontman Vince Neil, previously part-owner of the Jacksonville Sharks. That franchise, the Las Vegas Outlaws, were originally to play in Las Vegas at the MGM Grand Garden Arena in 2015, but instead played their home games at the Thomas & Mack Center, previous home to the Las Vegas Sting and Las Vegas Gladiators. After 20 years as a familiar name to the league, an AFL mainstay, the Iowa Barnstormers, departed the league to join the Indoor Football League. The San Antonio Talons folded on October 13, 2014, after the league (which owned the team) failed to find a new owner. On November 16, 2014, despite a successful season record-wise, the Pittsburgh Power became the second team to cease operations after the 2014 season. This resulted from poor attendance. It was later announced by the league that the Power would go dormant for 2015 and were looking for new ownership.
Who was the first president of the AFL?
56e7a3a500c9c71400d77469
Jerry Kurz
0
False
What was Jerry Kurz's job title prior to being president of the AFL?
56e7a3a500c9c71400d7746a
commissioner
32
False
Who became commissioner of the AFL after Jerry Kurz?
56e7a3a500c9c71400d7746b
Scott Butera
128
False
Where did Scott Butera work prior to becoming AFL commissioner?
56e7a3a500c9c71400d7746c
Foxwoods
115
False
What was Scott Butera's job title prior to becoming AFL commissioner?
56e7a3a500c9c71400d7746d
CEO
124
False
Jerry Kurz also stepped down as commissioner of the AFL as he was promoted to be the AFL's first president. Former Foxwoods CEO Scott Butera was hired as his successor as commissioner.
On what date was it reported that the Las Vegas Outlaws were shutting down?
56e7a40237bdd419002c42be
August 9, 2015
3
False
Who first reported the closure of the New Orleans VooDoo?
56e7a40237bdd419002c42bf
ESPN
19
False
On what date did the Spokane Shock leave the AFL?
56e7a40237bdd419002c42c0
September 1, 2015
193
False
What rival league did the Spokane Shock join?
56e7a40237bdd419002c42c1
IFL
269
False
What was the name of the Spokane Shock after they joined the IFL?
56e7a40237bdd419002c42c2
Spokane Empire
292
False
On August 9, 2015, ESPN reported that the New Orleans VooDoo and Las Vegas Outlaws had ceased operations, effective immediately, a claim which was subsequently validated on the AFL website. On September 1, 2015, the Spokane Shock officially left the AFL and joined the IFL under the new name Spokane Empire, becoming the fifth active AFL/af2 franchise to leave for the IFL since bankruptcy (Iowa Barnstormers, Tri-Cities Fever, Green Bay Blizzard and Arkansas Twisters—now the Texas Revolution—left previously).
What day of the week was October 30, 2015?
56e7a48137bdd419002c42c8
Friday
373
False
At what team's game was an announcement by the AFL supposed to happen on October 30?
56e7a48137bdd419002c42c9
San Antonio Spurs
397
False
Who worked as an AFL spokesman during this period?
56e7a48137bdd419002c42ca
BJ Pickard
225
False
What prior AFL franchise was based in Austin?
56e7a48137bdd419002c42cb
Austin Wranglers
142
False
Along with the San Antonio Talons, what AFL franchise did San Antonio host at one time?
56e7a48137bdd419002c42cc
San Antonio Force
160
False
Rumors began swirling with regards to bringing the AFL back to Austin and San Antonio, Texas. Both cities have hosted franchises in the past (Austin Wranglers, San Antonio Force and San Antonio Talons), but an AFL spokesman, BJ Pickard, was quoted as saying, "News to me." Announcements have yet to be made on any sort of expansion plans. An expected "big announcement" on Friday, October 30 at a San Antonio Spurs game never came to fruition.
Who were the defending champions of the Arena Football League?
56e7a4c900c9c71400d77473
San Jose SaberCats
60
False
When was it announced that the SaberCats would be shutting down?
56e7a4c900c9c71400d77474
November 12
3
False
What was the reason given for the closing of the SaberCats?
56e7a4c900c9c71400d77475
reasons unrelated to League operations
115
False
How many AFL teams are operating as of 2016?
56e7a4c900c9c71400d77476
eight
294
False
On November 12, the league announced the defending champion San Jose SaberCats would be ceasing operations due to "reasons unrelated to League operations". A statement from the league indicated that the AFL is working to secure new, long-term owners for the franchise. This leaves the AFL with eight teams for 2016.
On what date did the AFL take control of one of its teams?
56e7aedd37bdd419002c432c
January 6, 2016
3
False
What team did the league take control of?
56e7aedd37bdd419002c432d
Portland Thunder
84
False
Who owned the trademark to the Portland Thunder?
56e7aedd37bdd419002c432e
Terry Emmert
435
False
Who owned the Desperados trademarks?
56e7aedd37bdd419002c432f
Jerry Jones
464
False
Who is commissioner of the Arena Football League?
56e7aedd37bdd419002c4330
Scott Butera
520
False
On January 6, 2016, the league took over "ownership and operational control" of the Portland Thunder from its previous owners. The AFL stated this move was made after months of trying work out an arrangement "to provide financial and operational support." On February 3, 2016, it was announced that the franchise will start from scratch and no longer be called the "Thunder" as the name and trademarks belong to former franchise owner Terry Emmert (similar to the Jerry Jones move with the Desperados). AFL commissioner Scott Butera announced that a new identity will be announced at a later date.
On what date did the league announce its schedule for 2016?
56e7af3b37bdd419002c4336
December 10, 2015
65
False
How many teams are active in the AFL for 2016?
56e7af3b37bdd419002c4337
eight
93
False
How many regular season games will each team play in 2016?
56e7af3b37bdd419002c4338
16
15
False
How many weeks will the 2016 regular season last?
56e7af3b37bdd419002c4339
18
149
False
On the weekend of what holiday will all teams have a bye?
56e7af3b37bdd419002c433a
Independence Day
276
False
The league's 2016 schedule, announced on the league's website on December 10, 2015, shows an eight-team league playing a 16-game regular season over 18 weeks, with two bye weeks for each team, one on a rotational basis and the other a "universal bye" for all teams during the Independence Day weekend, the first weekend in July. All teams will qualify for the postseason, meaning that the regular season will serve only to establish seeding.
Where did ArenaBowl XX take place?
56e7af9a37bdd419002c4340
Las Vegas
220
False
What arena was ArenaBowl XXI played in?
56e7af9a37bdd419002c4341
New Orleans Arena
231
False
On what date was ArenaBowl XXI played?
56e7af9a37bdd419002c4342
July 29, 2007
321
False
In what month and year did Hurricane Katrina occur?
56e7af9a37bdd419002c4343
August 2005
447
False
What team won ArenaBowl XXI?
56e7af9a37bdd419002c4344
San Jose SaberCats
464
False
From the league's inception through ArenaBowl XVIII, the championship game was played at the home of the highest-seeded remaining team. The AFL then switched to a neutral-site championship, with ArenaBowls XIX and XX in Las Vegas. New Orleans Arena, home of the New Orleans VooDoo, served as the site of ArenaBowl XXI on July 29, 2007. This was the first professional sports championship to be staged in the city since Hurricane Katrina struck in August 2005. The San Jose SaberCats earned their third championship in six years by defeating the Columbus Destroyers 55–33. ArenaBowl XXI in New Orleans was deemed a success, and the city was chosen to host ArenaBowl XXII, in which the Philadelphia Soul defeated the defending champion San Jose Sabercats. In 2010, the location returned to being decided by which of the two participating teams was seeded higher. In ArenaBowl XXIII, the Spokane Shock defeated the Tampa Bay Storm at their home arena, Spokane Arena, in Spokane, Washington. In ArenaBowl XXIV, the Jacksonville Sharks, coming off of a victory in their conference final game four nights earlier, traveled to US Airways Center in Phoenix and defeated the Arizona Rattlers 73–70. ArenaBowl XXV returned to a neutral site and was once again played in New Orleans, where the Rattlers returned and defeated the Philadelphia Soul. Since 2014 the ArenaBowl has been played at the higher-seeded team.
A contract with what television network led to the discontinuation of exhibition games in the preseason?
56e7b01b37bdd419002c4352
NBC
140
False
How many games was the regular season in 1996?
56e7b01b37bdd419002c4353
14
209
False
How many games were played in the 2001 regular season?
56e7b01b37bdd419002c4354
16
262
False
How many games long was the 2011 regular season?
56e7b01b37bdd419002c4355
18
357
False
How many games will each team play in the 2016 regular season?
56e7b01b37bdd419002c4356
16
262
False
The practice of playing one or two preseason exhibition games by each team before the start of the regular season was discontinued when the NBC contract was initiated, and the regular season was extended from 14 games, the length that it had been since 1996, to 16 from 2001 to 2010, and since 2016. From 2011 to 2015, the regular season league expanded to 18 games, with each team having two bye weeks and the option of two preseason games.
What league did the AFL found in China?
56e7b06e37bdd419002c435c
the China American Football League
69
False
When was the AFL's China project announced?
56e7b06e37bdd419002c435d
August 2012
3
False
Who is leading the China American Football League?
56e7b06e37bdd419002c435e
Ron Jaworski
202
False
What television network does Ron Jaworski work for?
56e7b06e37bdd419002c435f
ESPN
138
False
What team is Ron Jaworski the majority owner of?
56e7b06e37bdd419002c4360
Philadelphia Soul
159
False
In August 2012, the AFL announced a new project into China, known as the China American Football League. The CAFL project is headed up by ESPN NFL analyst and Philadelphia Soul majority owner president Ron Jaworski. The plans were to establish a six-team league that would play a 10-week schedule that was slated to start in October 2014. The AFL coaches and trainers will travel to China to help teach the rules of the sport to squads made up of Chinese and American players with the goal of starting an official Chinese arena league. Ganlan Media International were given exclusive rights to the new Chinese league.
Who created Ganlan Media?
56e7b0eb00c9c71400d774f1
Martin E. Judge
64
False
What company is Martin Judge the founder of?
56e7b0eb00c9c71400d774f2
the Judge Group
102
False
In what year was AFL Global created?
56e7b0eb00c9c71400d774f3
2012
44
False
In what month was an exhibition game planned for Guangzhou?
56e7b0eb00c9c71400d774f4
October
568
False
Who is the Chief Executive Officer of the China American Football League?
56e7b0eb00c9c71400d774f5
Gary Morris
846
False
AFL Global and Ganlan Media were created in 2012 by businessman Martin E. Judge, founder and owner of the Judge Group. The company, called AFL Global, LLC, looks to introduce and launch professional Arena Football teams and franchises in various locations throughout the world (like NFL Europe). After their successful trip to China to help promote the game, they formally announced plans to further develop AFL China by the fall of 2014 by starting a comprehensive training program in May 2013 with exhibition games planned for the cities of Beijing and Guangzhou in October. This is the first time professional football of any kind will be played in China with the support of the Chinese government and the CRFA (Chinese Rugby Football Association). Key persons involved include founder and CEO. Martin E. Judge, partner Ron Jaworski, CAFL CEO Gary Morris and president David Niu. Ganlan Media has since dropped this name and will carry the league's name as its corporate identity.
When does the CAFL plan on start its first season?
56e7b14c37bdd419002c4370
2016
151
False
When was the abortive first CAFL season supposed to have taken place?
56e7b14c37bdd419002c4371
2014
4
False
How many teams participated in the 2015 CAFL tournament?
56e7b14c37bdd419002c4372
six
180
False
In what month did the CAFL tournament occur?
56e7b14c37bdd419002c4373
November
227
False
The 2014 scheduled beginning proved to be too ambitious for the group; its official website now cites an anticipated beginning of professional play in 2016 and shows photos from a six-team collegiate tournament staged in early November, 2015
In what month did the AFL season originally begin?
56e7b1d437bdd419002c4378
May
212
False
After the TV deal, when was the start of the AFL season moved to?
56e7b1d437bdd419002c4379
February
219
False
What days were AFL games traditionally played on before the TV deal?
56e7b1d437bdd419002c437a
Friday or Saturday
319
False
When were most of the AFL's games played after the TV deal?
56e7b1d437bdd419002c437b
Sunday
301
False
On what date did the business relationship between the AFL and NBC end?
56e7b1d437bdd419002c437c
June 30, 2006
676
False
Beginning with the 2003 season, the AFL made a deal with NBC to televise league games, which was renewed for another two years in 2005. In conjunction with this, the league moved the beginning of the season from May to February (the week after the NFL's Super Bowl) and scheduled most of its games on Sunday instead of Friday or Saturday as it had in the past. In 2006, because of the XX Winter Olympic Games, the Stanley Cup playoffs and the Daytona 500, NBC scaled back from weekly coverage to scattered coverage during the regular season, but committed to a full playoff schedule ending with the 20th ArenaBowl. NBC and the Arena Football League officially severed ties on June 30, 2006, having failed to reach a new broadcast deal. Las Vegas owner Jim Ferraro stated during a radio interview that the reason why a deal failed is because ESPN refused to show highlights or even mention a product being broadcast on NBC.
On what date did ESPN buy a minority share of the AFL?
56e7b24637bdd419002c438c
December 19, 2006
3
False
At minimum, how many regular season games did the AFL agree to broadcast?
56e7b24637bdd419002c438d
17
185
False
On what day would most of the games televised on the ESPN networks be played?
56e7b24637bdd419002c438e
Monday
218
False
What network broadcast ArenaBowl XXI?
56e7b24637bdd419002c438f
ABC
284
False
Under the deal, how many AFL playoff games did ESPN broadcast each year?
56e7b24637bdd419002c4390
nine
237
False
On December 19, 2006, ESPN announced the purchase of a minority stake in the AFL. This deal included television rights for the ESPN family of networks. ESPN would televise a minimum of 17 regular season games, most on Monday nights, and nine playoff games, including ArenaBowl XXI on ABC. The deal resulted in added exposure on ESPN's SportsCenter. However, after the original AFL filed for bankruptcy, this arrangement did not carry over to the new AFL, which is a separate legal entity.
Affiliates of what network broadcast Arizona Rattlers games?
56e7b28900c9c71400d7750d
Fox Sports
170
False
What cable network did the AFL sign a regional contract with?
56e7b28900c9c71400d7750e
FSN
44
False
The AFL also had a regional-cable deal with FSN, where FSN regional affiliates in AFL markets carried local team games. In some areas, such as with the Arizona Rattlers, Fox Sports affiliates still carry the games.
After a hiatus, in what year did the AFL begin operations again?
56e7b2f200c9c71400d77511
2010
20
False
What cable television network signed a broadcast deal with the AFL in 2010?
56e7b2f200c9c71400d77512
NFL Network
76
False
On what day would AFL games be shown on NFL Network?
56e7b2f200c9c71400d77513
Friday
101
False
What streaming service broadcast AFL games that were not on NFL Network?
56e7b2f200c9c71400d77514
Ustream
200
False
What was the cost to watch AFL games on Ustream?
56e7b2f200c9c71400d77515
free
175
False
After its return in 2010, the AFL had its national television deal with the NFL Network for a weekly Friday night game. All AFL games not on the NFL Network could be seen for free online, provided by Ustream.
In what year did AFL games temporarily cease to be broadcast on NFL Network?
56e7b37437bdd419002c4396
2012
78
False
Why did the temporary cessation of game broadcasts occur?
56e7b37437bdd419002c4397
ongoing labor problems
105
False
Why did the NFL Network begin to broadcast games again?
56e7b37437bdd419002c4398
the labor issues were resolved
506
False
On what day was an AFL game broadcast live on NFL Network?
56e7b37437bdd419002c4399
Friday
598
False
At what time of day was an AFL game shown on Fridays on NFL Network?
56e7b37437bdd419002c439a
night
605
False
The NFL Network ceased airing Arena Football League games partway through the 2012 season as a result of ongoing labor problems within the league. Briefly, the games were broadcast on a tape delay to prevent the embarrassment that would result should the players stage a work stoppage immediately prior to a scheduled broadcast. (In at least once incidence this actually happened, resulting in a non-competitive game being played with replacement players, and further such incidents were threatened.) Once the labor issues were resolved, the NFL Network resumed the practice of broadcasting a live Friday night game. NFL Network dropped the league at the end of the 2012 season.
Who was the AFL's 2013 national broadcast partner?
56e7b3d237bdd419002c43a0
CBS Sports Network
73
False
How many regular season games were shown by CBS Sports Network in 2013?
56e7b3d237bdd419002c43a1
19
109
False
How many 2013 playoff games did CBSSN broadcast?
56e7b3d237bdd419002c43a2
two
137
False
On what channel was the 2013 ArenaBowl broadcast?
56e7b3d237bdd419002c43a3
CBS
73
False
In 2013, on what day were Arena Football League games usually broadcast on CBS Sports Network?
56e7b3d237bdd419002c43a4
Saturday
330
False
For the 2013 season, the league's new national broadcast partner was the CBS Sports Network. CBSSN would air 19 regular season games and two playoff games. CBS would also air the ArenaBowl, marking the first time since 2008 that the league's finale aired on network television. Regular season CBSSN broadcast games are usually on Saturday nights. As the games are being shown live, the start times are not uniform as with most football broadcast packages, but vary with the time zone in which the home team is located. This means that the AFL may appear either prior to or following the CBSSN's featured Major League Lacrosse game.
Who was the Arena Football League's 2014 broadcast partner?
56e7b45837bdd419002c43aa
ESPN
18
False
What app were Arena Football League games broadcast on in 2014?
56e7b45837bdd419002c43ab
WatchESPN
203
False
Along with the ESPN networks, on what network were 2014 AFL games broadcast?
56e7b45837bdd419002c43ac
CBS Sports Network
99
False
On what channel could one watch ArenaBowl XXVII live?
56e7b45837bdd419002c43ad
ESPN
18
False
Starting in 2014, ESPN returned to the AFL as broadcast partners, with weekly games being shown on CBS Sports Network, ESPN, ESPN2, ESPNEWS along with all games being broadcast on ESPN3 for free live on WatchESPN. ArenaBowl XXVII was also broadcast on ESPN. Most teams also have a local TV station broadcast their games locally and all games are available on local radio.
What was the first Arena Football League video game?
56e7b49e00c9c71400d7752f
Arena Football
42
False
For what system was the first Arena Football League video game released?
56e7b49e00c9c71400d77530
the C-64
61
False
In what year was the first Arena Football League video game released?
56e7b49e00c9c71400d77531
1988
82
False
On what date was Kurt Warner's Arena Football Unleashed released?
56e7b49e00c9c71400d77532
May 18, 2000
91
False
Who made Kurt Warner's Arena Football Unleashed?
56e7b49e00c9c71400d77533
Midway Games
160
False
The first video game based on the AFL was Arena Football for the C-64 released in 1988. On May 18, 2000, Kurt Warner's Arena Football Unleashed was released by Midway Games for the PlayStation game console. On February 7, 2006 EA Sports released Arena Football for the PlayStation 2 and Xbox. EA Sports released another AFL video game, titled Arena Football: Road to Glory, on February 21, 2007, for the PlayStation 2.
Who wrote War on the Floor: An Average Guy Plays in the Arena Football League and Lives to Write About It?
56e7b4f737bdd419002c43b2
Jeff Foley
9
False
In what year was War on the Floor released?
56e7b4f737bdd419002c43b3
2001
3
False
What team did Jeff Foley play for?
56e7b4f737bdd419002c43b4
Albany Firebirds
245
False
How many games did Jeff Foley play in?
56e7b4f737bdd419002c43b5
three
331
False
Along with 1999, in what preseason did Foley play for the Firebirds?
56e7b4f737bdd419002c43b6
2000
184
False
In 2001, Jeff Foley published War on the Floor: An Average Guy Plays in the Arena Football League and Lives to Write About It. The book details a journalist's two preseasons (1999 and 2000) as an offensive specialist/writer with the now-defunct Albany Firebirds. The 5-foot-6 (170 cm), self-described "unathletic writer" played in three preseason games and had one catch for −2 yards.
In what year did the AFL begin operating under the single-entity model?
56e7b55437bdd419002c43bc
2010
166
False
Who owns the rights to the players under the single-entity model?
56e7b55437bdd419002c43bd
the league
62
False
What model of ownership is commonly used in American professional sports?
56e7b55437bdd419002c43be
franchise model
251
False
The AFL currently runs as under the single-entity model, with the league owning the rights to the teams, players, and coaches. The single-entity model was adopted in 2010 when the league emerged from bankruptcy. Prior to that, the league followed the franchise model more common in North American professional sports leagues; each team essentially operated as its own business and the league itself was a separate entity which in exchange for franchise fees paid by the team owners provided rules, officials, scheduling and the other elements of organizational structure. A pool of money is allotted to teams to aid in travel costs.
What was the normal per game attendance of AFL games in the 1990s?
56e7b5cf00c9c71400d77543
10,000–11,000
45
False
Along with the recession, what event is held to have decreased per-game attendance below 10,000?
56e7b5cf00c9c71400d77544
the September 11, 2001 attacks
146
False
What was the average per-game attendance in 2007?
56e7b5cf00c9c71400d77545
12,392
367
False
In 2008, what was the average attendance for an AFL game?
56e7b5cf00c9c71400d77546
12,957
531
False
During the 2008 season, how many teams averaged more than 13,000 spectators per game?
56e7b5cf00c9c71400d77547
eight
544
False
Average attendance for AFL games were around 10,000–11,000 per game in the 1990s, though during the recession connected to the dot-com bubble and the September 11, 2001 attacks average attendance dropped below 10,000 for several years. From the start of the 2004 season until the final season of the original league in 2008, average attendance was above 12,000, with 12,392 in 2007. Eleven of the seventeen teams in operation in 2007 had average attendance figures over 13,000. In 2008, the overall attendance average increased to 12,957, with eight teams exceeding 13,000 per game.
What was the AFL's average per-game attendance in 2010?
56e7b60637bdd419002c43c2
8,135
118
False
In the 2010 season, how many teams drew an average of more than 13,000 fans per game?
56e7b60637bdd419002c43c3
one
135
False
What team drew more than 13,000 fans per game in 2010?
56e7b60637bdd419002c43c4
Tampa Bay
145
False
In 2010, the first year of the reconstituted league following bankruptcy, the overall attendance average decreased to 8,135, with only one team (Tampa Bay) exceeding 13,000 per game.
Dialect
What language is the word dialectus from?
56e81e0737bdd419002c441e
Latin
23
False
From what language does the word diálektos come?
56e81e0737bdd419002c441f
Greek
68
False
What does diálektos mean in English?
56e81e0737bdd419002c4420
discourse
101
False
How many different types of linguistic phenomena is the term dialect used to describe?
56e81e0737bdd419002c4421
two
174
False
How many distinct ways is the term dialect used?
56e81e0737bdd419002c4422
two
174
False
two
174
In how many ways is the word linguistic used to refer to different phenomena?
5ad25163d7d075001a428cd6
True
Latin
23
What language does the word phenomena come from?
5ad25163d7d075001a428cd7
True
Latin
23
From which language does the word distinct originate?
5ad25163d7d075001a428cd8
True
dialect
9
Which term is used in three distinct ways?
5ad25163d7d075001a428cd9
True
The term dialect (from Latin dialectus, dialectos, from the ancient Greek word διάλεκτος diálektos, "discourse", from διά diá, "through" and λέγω legō, "I speak") is used in two distinct ways to refer to two different types of linguistic phenomena.
What is the common definition of dialect?
56e81e5837bdd419002c4428
a variety of a language that is a characteristic of a particular group of the language's speakers
52
False
What is the term dialect most often applied to?
56e81e5837bdd419002c4429
regional speech patterns
185
False
Aside from region, what is an example of a factor that may influence dialect?
56e81e5837bdd419002c442a
social class
271
False
What is a term for a dialect particular to a social class?
56e81e5837bdd419002c442b
sociolect
361
False
What do you call a dialect particular to a certain ethnicity?
56e81e5837bdd419002c442c
ethnolect
449
False
sociolect
361
What can a region that is associated with a particular social class be called?
5ad2520ed7d075001a428cfa
True
ethnolect
449
What can a region that is associated with a particular ethnic group be called?
5ad2520ed7d075001a428cfb
True
regiolect
499
What can a ethnolect that is associated with a particular regional dialect be called?
5ad2520ed7d075001a428cfc
True
a dialect
579
What does any variety of a linguist constitute?
5ad2520ed7d075001a428cfd
True
refers to a variety of a language that is a characteristic of a particular group of the language's speakers
42
Which use is least common among linguists?
5ad2520ed7d075001a428cfe
True
One usage—the more common among linguists—refers to a variety of a language that is a characteristic of a particular group of the language's speakers. The term is applied most often to regional speech patterns, but a dialect may also be defined by other factors, such as social class. A dialect that is associated with a particular social class can be termed a sociolect, a dialect that is associated with a particular ethnic group can be termed as ethnolect, and a regional dialect may be termed a regiolect. According to this definition, any variety of a language constitutes "a dialect", including any standard varieties.
What is the other definition of the term dialect?
56e81ee337bdd419002c4432
a language that is socially subordinated to a regional or national standard language
26
False
How does a dialect stand in relation to the standard language?
56e81ee337bdd419002c4433
subordinate to the standard language
522
False
The regional Romance languages in what country are sometimes referred to as dialects?
56e81ee337bdd419002c4434
Italy
748
False
What are 20th century variations on standard Italian called?
56e81ee337bdd419002c4435
regional Italian
1597
False
From what language did the regional Romance languages of Italy derive?
56e81ee337bdd419002c4436
Latin
905
False
standard Italian
1570
Which variation of Italian are known as national Italian?
5ad257f5d7d075001a428da8
True
Italian
1333
Which language spread throughout Italy during the 19th century?
5ad257f5d7d075001a428da9
True
regional Italian
1597
What are 19th century variations of standard Italian known as?
5ad257f5d7d075001a428daa
True
regional Italian
1597
What are 20th century variations of standard English known as?
5ad257f5d7d075001a428dab
True
Romance languages
727
Which languages of the 19th century evolved from Vulgar Latin?
5ad257f5d7d075001a428dac
True
The other usage refers to a language that is socially subordinated to a regional or national standard language, often historically cognate or related to the standard language, but not actually derived from it. In this sense, unlike in the first usage, the standard language would not itself be considered a "dialect," as it is the dominant language in a particular state or region, whether in terms of social or political status, official status, predominance or prevalence, or all of the above. Meanwhile, the "dialects" subordinate to the standard language are generally not variations on the standard language but rather separate (but often related) languages in and of themselves. For example, most of the various regional Romance languages of Italy, often colloquially referred to as Italian "dialects," are, in fact, not actually derived from modern standard Italian, but rather evolved from Vulgar Latin separately and individually from one another and independently of standard Italian, long prior to the diffusion of a national standardized language throughout what is now Italy. These various Latin-derived regional languages are therefore, in a linguistic sense, not truly "dialects" of the standard Italian language, but are instead better defined as their own separate languages. Conversely, with the spread of standard Italian throughout Italy in the 20th century, various regional versions or varieties of standard Italian developed, generally as a mix of the national standard Italian with local regional languages and local accents. These variations on standard Italian, known as regional Italian, would more appropriately be called "dialects" in accordance with the first linguistic definition of "dialect," as they are in fact derived partially or mostly from standard Italian.
Along with grammar and pronunciation, what distinguishes a dialect?
56e81f4f37bdd419002c443c
vocabulary
34
False
If only the pronunciation differs from the standard language, what term is sometimes used?
56e81f4f37bdd419002c443d
accent
222
False
What term is sometimes used for dialects that only differ in vocabulary?
56e81f4f37bdd419002c443e
jargons
300
False
Along with slangs, patois and pidgins, what is another type of smiilar speech variety?
56e81f4f37bdd419002c443f
argots
401
False
vocabulary, grammar, and pronunciation
34
In which ways do dialects remain undistinguished?
5ad2586ad7d075001a428dbc
True
vocabulary, grammar
34
Along with jargon and pronunciation, how is a dialect distinguished?
5ad2586ad7d075001a428dbd
True
vocabulary
34
Along with slang and grammar, how is a dialect distinguished?
5ad2586ad7d075001a428dbe
True
; slang; patois; pidgins; and argots.
371
What are a few examples of varieties in prosody?
5ad2586ad7d075001a428dbf
True
jargons
300
What is the term for differences in slang?
5ad2586ad7d075001a428dc0
True
A dialect is distinguished by its vocabulary, grammar, and pronunciation (phonology, including prosody). Where a distinction can be made only in terms of pronunciation (including prosody, or just prosody itself), the term accent may be preferred over dialect. Other types of speech varieties include jargons, which are characterized by differences in lexicon (vocabulary); slang; patois; pidgins; and argots.
What is another term for a standard or standardized dialect?
56e820ad37bdd419002c4444
standard language
61
False
The support of what groups results in a dialect being standardized?
56e820ad37bdd419002c4445
institutions
115
False
Along with grammars and dictionaries, what publications help a dialect to become standardized?
56e820ad37bdd419002c4446
textbooks
312
False
Standard Philippine English is a standard dialect of of what language?
56e820ad37bdd419002c4447
English
575
False
Recognition from what body may help a dialect to become standardized?
56e820ad37bdd419002c4448
government
168
False
standard dialect
2
What is the term for a dialect that remains unsupported by institutions?
5ad25906d7d075001a428dee
True
standard dialects
491
There may be only one what associated with multiple languages?
5ad25906d7d075001a428def
True
English language.
770
Standard British Canadian is an example of a dialect of which language?
5ad25906d7d075001a428df0
True
English language.
770
Australian Standard English  is an example of a dialect of which language?
5ad25906d7d075001a428df1
True
English language.
770
Standard British Philippines is an example of a dialect of which language?
5ad25906d7d075001a428df2
True
A standard dialect (also known as a standardized dialect or "standard language") is a dialect that is supported by institutions. Such institutional support may include government recognition or designation; presentation as being the "correct" form of a language in schools; published grammars, dictionaries, and textbooks that set forth a correct spoken and written form; and an extensive formal literature that employs that dialect (prose, poetry, non-fiction, etc.). There may be multiple standard dialects associated with a single language. For example, Standard American English, Standard British English, Standard Canadian English, Standard Indian English, Standard Australian English, and Standard Philippine English may all be said to be standard dialects of the English language.
What does a nonstandard dialect usually not have compared to a standard dialect?
56e8215937bdd419002c444e
institutional support
134
False
What language is Scouse a dialect of?
56e8215937bdd419002c444f
English
183
False
What was created for the sake of comparing English dialects?
56e8215937bdd419002c4450
The Dialect Test
275
False
Who came up with the Dialect Test?
56e8215937bdd419002c4451
Joseph Wright
308
False
Along with a syntax and grammar, what attribute does a dialect possess?
56e8215937bdd419002c4452
vocabulary
63
False
complete vocabulary, grammar, and syntax
54
Unlike a standard dialect, what does a nonstandard dialect have?
5ad25c9dd7d075001a428eb6
True
complete vocabulary, grammar, and syntax
54
Unlike a nonstandard dialect, what does a standard dialect have?
5ad25c9dd7d075001a428eb7
True
institutional
134
A nonstandard dialect usually receives what type of support?
5ad25c9dd7d075001a428eb8
True
Southern American English, Western Australian English, Scouse and Tyke
203
What are some examples of standard American English?
5ad25c9dd7d075001a428eb9
True
The Dialect Test
275
Which test was designed by Tyke to compare different English dialects?
5ad25c9dd7d075001a428eba
True
A nonstandard dialect, like a standard dialect, has a complete vocabulary, grammar, and syntax, but is usually not the beneficiary of institutional support. Examples of a nonstandard English dialect are Southern American English, Western Australian English, Scouse and Tyke. The Dialect Test was designed by Joseph Wright to compare different English dialects with each other.
In what country is Limón Creole English spoken?
56e821ca37bdd419002c4458
Costa Rica
489
False
On what coast of Costa Rica is Limón Creole English spoken?
56e821ca37bdd419002c4459
Caribbean
470
False
Speakers of Limón Creole English are descended from people of what nationality?
56e821ca37bdd419002c445a
Jamaican
535
False
There is no universally accepted criterion
0
How many universally accepted criterion for distinguishing between two languages from two dialects are there?
5ad26061d7d075001a428fce
True
Caribbean coast of Costa Rica (
470
Where is Jamaican Creole spoken?
5ad26061d7d075001a428fcf
True
descendant of Jamaican people
521
Who speaks Costa Rican Creole?
5ad26061d7d075001a428fd0
True
the University they belong.
611
What does the position which Costa Rican linguists oppose depend on?
5ad26061d7d075001a428fd1
True
the University they belong.
611
What does the position which Jamaican linguists support depend on?
5ad26061d7d075001a428fd2
True
There is no universally accepted criterion for distinguishing two different languages from two dialects (i.e. varieties) of the same language. A number of rough measures exist, sometimes leading to contradictory results. The distinction is therefore subjective and depends on the user's frame of reference. For example, there is discussion about if the Limón Creole English must be considered as "a kind" of English or a different language. This creole is spoken in the Caribbean coast of Costa Rica (Central America) by descendant of Jamaican people. The position that Costa Rican linguists support depends on the University they belong.
What trait is the most common way of determining if languages are dialects?
56e822d000c9c71400d775cb
mutual intelligibility
66
False
What is the term for when dialects A and B are mutually intelligible, dialect B and C are mutually intelligible, but dialects A and C are not mutually intelligible?
56e822d000c9c71400d775cc
dialect continua
383
False
What is the definition of mutual intelligibility?
56e822d000c9c71400d775cd
if being a speaker of one variety confers sufficient knowledge to understand and be understood by a speaker of the other
149
False
mutual intelligibility
66
Which is the most uncommon and purely linguistic criterion?
5ad26120d7d075001a428ffc
True
mutual intelligibility
66
What is the term for two dialects of different languages that are intertwined?
5ad26120d7d075001a428ffd
True
dialect continua
383
What occurs when dialect A B and C are all mutual intelligible with another?
5ad26120d7d075001a428ffe
True
mutual intelligibility
66
Which is the most uncommon criterion for being a dialect of the same language?
5ad26120d7d075001a428fff
True
The most common, and most purely linguistic, criterion is that of mutual intelligibility: two varieties are said to be dialects of the same language if being a speaker of one variety confers sufficient knowledge to understand and be understood by a speaker of the other; otherwise, they are said to be different languages. However, this definition becomes problematic in the case of dialect continua, in which it may be the case that dialect B is mutually intelligible with both dialect A and dialect C but dialects A and C are not mutually intelligible with each other. In this case the criterion of mutual intelligibility makes it impossible to decide whether A and C are dialects of the same language or not. Cases may also arise in which a speaker of dialect X can understand a speaker of dialect Y, but not vice versa; the mutual intelligibility criterion flounders here as well.
What term refers to another way in which dialects are distinguished from languages?
56e8239437bdd419002c445e
linguistic authority
90
False
Under the linguistic authority criteria, what is a dialect of German along with Bavarian German?
56e8239437bdd419002c445f
East Franconian German
481
False
Of what group of languages is Yiddish a member?
56e8239437bdd419002c4460
Middle High German
677
False
Why is Yiddish not a dialect of German?
56e8239437bdd419002c4461
a Yiddish speaker would not consult a German dictionary
717
False
linguistic authority
90
A less sociolinguistic notion, what is the term for another criterion for distinguishing dialects?
5ad261dad7d075001a429076
True
linguistic authority
90
A more sociolinguistic notion, what is the term for another criterion for distinguishing German dictionarys?
5ad261dad7d075001a429077
True
linguistic authority
90
Under what authority would two varieties be considered dialects of different languages if they would refer to the same body with questions about their languages?
5ad261dad7d075001a429078
True
German dictionary
755
In which dictionary would a Yiddish speaker look for questions regarding word usage?
5ad261dad7d075001a429079
True
Yiddish
620
Which language is classified by linguists as being in the Lower High German group?
5ad261dad7d075001a42907a
True
Another occasionally used criterion for discriminating dialects from languages is that of linguistic authority, a more sociolinguistic notion. According to this definition, two varieties are considered dialects of the same language if (under at least some circumstances) they would defer to the same authority regarding some questions about their language. For instance, to learn the name of a new invention, or an obscure foreign species of plant, speakers of Bavarian German and East Franconian German might each consult a German dictionary or ask a German-speaking expert in the subject. By way of contrast, although Yiddish is classified by linguists as a language in the "Middle High German" group of languages, a Yiddish speaker would not consult a German dictionary to determine the word to use in such a case.
According to most linguistics, who speaks a dialect?
56e823c700c9c71400d775d1
everybody
122
False
dialect
141
What do only a few linguists believe people speak?
5ad26260d7d075001a4290a4
True
a dialect
139
According to the least used definition, what does everyone speak?
5ad26260d7d075001a4290a5
True
the criteria
185
What are used to distinguish between two varieties of different languages only?
5ad26260d7d075001a4290a6
True
a dialect
139
What does the criteria believe everybody speaks?
5ad26260d7d075001a4290a7
True
By the definition most commonly used by linguists, any linguistic variety can be considered a "dialect" of some language—"everybody speaks a dialect". According to that interpretation, the criteria above merely serve to distinguish whether two varieties are dialects of the same language or dialects of different languages.
Who developed the abstand and ausbau languages framework?
56e8242300c9c71400d775d3
Heinz Kloss
37
False
In what year was the abstand and ausbau framework developed?
56e8242300c9c71400d775d4
1967
29
False
What sort of unification in speech communities did the abstand and ausbau framework discuss?
56e8242300c9c71400d775d5
politically and/or culturally
131
False
1967
29
In which year did abstand and ausbau develop their framework?
5ad26431d7d075001a429144
True
Heinz Kloss
37
By who was a framework developed in 1960 for describing speech communities?
5ad26431d7d075001a429145
True
1967
29
In what year did Heinz Kloss develop a framework for describing dialects genetically?
5ad26431d7d075001a429146
True
Heinz Kloss
37
Who developed a framework for describing dialects genetically?
5ad26431d7d075001a429147
True
describe speech communities
83
What did Heinz Kloss develop a framework for in 1927?
5ad26431d7d075001a429148
True
A framework was developed in 1967 by Heinz Kloss, abstand and ausbau languages, to describe speech communities, that while unified politically and/or culturally, include multiple dialects which though closely related genetically may be divergent to the point of inter-dialect unintelligibility.
The language of the Pennsylvania Dutch is a dialect of what language?
56e8245e37bdd419002c4466
German
179
False
"language" and "dialect"
10
Which terms are always mutually exclusive?
5ad264ead7d075001a429186
True
mutually exclusive
55
What type of relationship do the terms Pennsylvania and Dutch have?
5ad264ead7d075001a429187
True
Pennsylvania Dutch
144
Which dialect is the language of Germany?
5ad264ead7d075001a429188
True
mutually exclusive
55
What type of relationship do the terms dialect and Dutch have?
5ad264ead7d075001a429189
True
The terms "language" and "dialect" are not necessarily mutually exclusive: There is nothing contradictory in the statement "the language of the Pennsylvania Dutch is a dialect of German".
What term avoids distinguishing between languages and dialects?
56e824c637bdd419002c4468
languoid
270
False
What is the most common way of referring to a language without making the determination of whether it's a dialect or independent language?
56e824c637bdd419002c4469
variety
217
False
Along with variety and languoid, what is another term used for a language without determining its independent status?
56e824c637bdd419002c446a
lect
163
False
languoid
270
Which term distinguishes between dialects and languages?
5ad268d1d7d075001a42929c
True
languoid
270
Which term distinguishes between dialects and languages but not variety?
5ad268d1d7d075001a42929d
True
variety
217
Which is the most uncommon term linguists use to avoid taking a position on the speech of a community?
5ad268d1d7d075001a42929e
True
languoid
270
Which term distinguishes between dialects and languages but not position?
5ad268d1d7d075001a42929f
True
languoid
270
Which term distinguishes between dialects and groups of languages?
5ad268d1d7d075001a4292a0
True
There are various terms that linguists may use to avoid taking a position on whether the speech of a community is an independent language in its own right or a dialect of another language. Perhaps the most common is "variety"; "lect" is another. A more general term is "languoid", which does not distinguish between dialects, languages, and groups of languages, whether genealogically related or not.
With what social class it the standard dialect commonly associated?
56e8253a37bdd419002c446e
the elite class
73
False
What social status is the term "dialect" sometimes associated with?
56e8253a37bdd419002c446f
low
347
False
What is another term for language varieties?
56e8253a37bdd419002c4470
dialects
440
False
dialect
300
In certain context, which term refers to varieties with high social status?
5ad26973d7d075001a4292d6
True
low
347
The term proper refers to varieties with what type of social status?
5ad26973d7d075001a4292d7
True
dialects
440
What is another term for secondary sense?
5ad26973d7d075001a4292d8
True
low
347
The term variety refers to varieties with what type of social status?
5ad26973d7d075001a4292d9
True
dialect
300
Which term refers to varieties with high social status?
5ad26973d7d075001a4292da
True
In many societies, however, a particular dialect, often the sociolect of the elite class, comes to be identified as the "standard" or "proper" version of a language by those seeking to make a social distinction, and is contrasted with other varieties. As a result of this, in some contexts the term "dialect" refers specifically to varieties with low social status. In this secondary sense of "dialect", language varieties are often called dialects rather than languages:
What non-linguistic developments influence the status of a language?
56e825c337bdd419002c4474
historical and political
105
False
What dialect is the language Romansh similar to?
56e825c337bdd419002c4475
Lombardic alpine
264
False
What language are Mandarin and Cantonese sometimes considered dialects of?
56e825c337bdd419002c4476
Chinese
326
False
Why might Mandarin and Cantonese not be regarded as dialects?
56e825c337bdd419002c4477
mutual unintelligibility
442
False
linguistic criteria
53
What is the status of language solely determined by?
5ad269dfd7d075001a4292f2
True
historical and political development
105
Along with alpine dialects, what else is the status of language determined by?
5ad269dfd7d075001a4292f3
True
historical and political
105
What types of development help to determine the status of Mandarin?
5ad269dfd7d075001a4292f4
True
Romansh
143
Lombardic is recognized as a language despite being close to which alpine dialect?
5ad269dfd7d075001a4292f5
True
Mandarin and Cantonese
360
Which variations of the Chinese language have mutual intelligibility?
5ad269dfd7d075001a4292f6
True
The status of "language" is not solely determined by linguistic criteria, but it is also the result of a historical and political development. Romansh came to be a written language, and therefore it is recognized as a language, even though it is very close to the Lombardic alpine dialects. An opposite example is the case of Chinese, whose variations such as Mandarin and Cantonese are often called dialects and not languages, despite their mutual unintelligibility.
What event is regarded as a landmark in the development of modern nationalism?
56e826b000c9c71400d775d9
the French Revolution
50
False
If possessing a language leads to a group being regarded as a separate people, what political arrangement presumably follows?
56e826b000c9c71400d775da
its own independent state
313
False
What political arrangement is associated with being a dialect-speaking sub-group?
56e826b000c9c71400d775db
regional autonomy
504
False
Along with political controversy, what can the distinction between a language and dialect sometimes lead to?
56e826b000c9c71400d775dc
armed conflict
724
False
French Revolution
54
Since which revolution has Ancient Nationalism especially been developed?
5ad26b1ed7d075001a42933a
True
Modern Nationalism
0
What has failed to make a distinction between the terms language and dialect?
5ad26b1ed7d075001a42933b
True
linguistic one
655
On which basis is the distinction between language and dialect more often made?
5ad26b1ed7d075001a42933c
True
political controversy, or even armed conflict.
693
What can the distinction between regional autonomy and dialect lead to?
5ad26b1ed7d075001a42933d
True
political controversy, or even armed conflict.
693
What can the distinction between regional autonomy and the French Revolution lead to?
5ad26b1ed7d075001a42933e
True
Modern Nationalism, as developed especially since the French Revolution, has made the distinction between "language" and "dialect" an issue of great political importance. A group speaking a separate "language" is often seen as having a greater claim to being a separate "people", and thus to be more deserving of its own independent state, while a group speaking a "dialect" tends to be seen not as "a people" in its own right, but as a sub-group, part of a bigger people, which must content itself with regional autonomy.[citation needed] The distinction between language and dialect is thus inevitably made at least as much on a political basis as on a linguistic one, and can lead to great political controversy, or even armed conflict.
Max Weinreich is a linguist of what language?
56e8270200c9c71400d775e1
Yiddish
4
False
What does "A shprakh iz a dialekt mit an armey un flot" mean in English?
56e8270200c9c71400d775e2
A language is a dialect with an army and navy
163
False
When did Max Weinrich write "A shprakh iz a dialekt mit an armey un flot"?
56e8270200c9c71400d775e3
1945
232
False
YIVO Bleter
214
In what did the army-navy publish the phrase  "A language is a dialect with an army and navy"?
5ad26bbcd7d075001a429362
True
significance of the political factors in any attempt at answering the question "what is a language?
249
What is illustrated by the frequency by Max Weinreich published his expression?
5ad26bbcd7d075001a429363
True
Yiddish
4
Which language is YIVO Bleter a linguist of?
5ad26bbcd7d075001a429364
True
linguist
12
Max Weinreich is what in relation to the YIVO Bleter language?
5ad26bbcd7d075001a429365
True
The Yiddish linguist Max Weinreich published the expression, A shprakh iz a dialekt mit an armey un flot ("אַ שפּראַך איז אַ דיאַלעקט מיט אַן אַרמײ און פֿלאָט"‎: "A language is a dialect with an army and navy") in YIVO Bleter 25.1, 1945, p. 13. The significance of the political factors in any attempt at answering the question "what is a language?" is great enough to cast doubt on whether any strictly linguistic definition, without a socio-cultural approach, is possible. This is illustrated by the frequency with which the army-navy aphorism is cited.
When is the term 'German dialects' used in regard to the German language?
56e8272b37bdd419002c447c
traditional regional varieties
86
False
What are traditional region varieties of German distinguished from?
56e8272b37bdd419002c447d
the regional varieties of modern standard German
160
False
German dialects
49
Which term is only used for nontraditional varieties?
5ad26c44d7d075001a42938e
True
German dialects
49
Which term is only used for national varieties?
5ad26c44d7d075001a42938f
True
German dialects
49
In reference to modern varieties, what term is only used for traditional regional languages?
5ad26c44d7d075001a429390
True
regional varieties of modern standard German
164
What does this allow the to remain undistinguished from?
5ad26c44d7d075001a429391
True
regional varieties of modern standard German
164
Because of this, what is ancient standard German distinguished from?
5ad26c44d7d075001a429392
True
When talking about the German language, the term German dialects is only used for the traditional regional varieties. That allows them to be distinguished from the regional varieties of modern standard German.
After what entities are German dialects traditionally named?
56e82b5c37bdd419002c4480
Germanic tribes
170
False
variation
44
What do the German dialects show on a narrow spectrum?
5ad26cd3d7d075001a4293a2
True
mutually intelligible
76
What type of relationship do most German dialects have?
5ad26cd3d7d075001a4293a3
True
Germanic tribes
170
After who does German dialectology name minor dialect groups after?
5ad26cd3d7d075001a4293a4
True
major dialect groups
143
It is assumed Germanic tribes descended from what?
5ad26cd3d7d075001a4293a5
True
German
4
What type of dialects show have a narrow range of variation?
5ad26cd3d7d075001a4293a6
True
The German dialects show a wide spectrum of variation. Most of them are not mutually intelligible. German dialectology traditionally names the major dialect groups after Germanic tribes from which they were assumed to have descended.[citation needed]
In what geographic part of Germany are dialects more common?
56e82bec37bdd419002c4482
South
143
False
In what geographic part of Germany are dialects less frequently seen?
56e82bec37bdd419002c4483
Northern Germany
88
False
Dialects are more frequently seen in the countryside as compared to what population centers?
56e82bec37bdd419002c4484
cities
153
False
In what environment are dialects less common?
56e82bec37bdd419002c4485
public
216
False
In what environment are dialects more frequently heard?
56e82bec37bdd419002c4486
familiar
271
False
Northern
88
Where in Southern Germany are dialects less common?
5ad26e1ed7d075001a4293de
True
dialects
106
What is more common in Northern German than in the South?
5ad26e1ed7d075001a4293df
True
dialects
106
What are more common in Southern German than in the North?
5ad26e1ed7d075001a4293e0
True
The extent to which the dialects are spoken varies according to a number of factors: In Northern Germany, dialects are less common than in the South. In cities, dialects are less common than on the countryside. In a public environment, dialects are less common than in a familiar environment.
What dialect of German is spoken in Switzerland?
56e82c3737bdd419002c448c
Swiss German
112
False
What dialect of German is rarely heard in Switzerland?
56e82c3737bdd419002c448d
standard German
206
False
Aside from Switzerland, what country speaks a dialect related to Swiss German?
56e82c3737bdd419002c448e
Liechtenstein
33
False
Switzerland and Liechtenstein
17
In which country is there a situation identical to the rest of the German speaking countries?
5ad26eb5d7d075001a4293fa
True
Swiss German dialects
112
What is seldom spoken where German is used as a default everyday language?
5ad26eb5d7d075001a4293fb
True
Swiss German
245
Which language do some standard German speakers perceive to be foreign?
5ad26eb5d7d075001a4293fc
True
Switzerland and Liechtenstein
17
The Swiss German dialect is rarely spoken in which two countries?
5ad26eb5d7d075001a4293fd
True
Switzerland and Liechtenstein
17
In which two countries is standard German used everyday?
5ad26eb5d7d075001a4293fe
True
The situation in Switzerland and Liechtenstein is different from the rest of the German-speaking countries. The Swiss German dialects are the default everyday language in virtually every situation, whereas standard German is seldom spoken. Some Swiss German speakers perceive standard German to be a foreign language.
What type of language was Low German in the Middle Ages?
56e82c7a00c9c71400d775e7
an ausbau language
267
False
Why are Low German varieties regarded as dialects of standard German?
56e82c7a00c9c71400d775e8
they are roofed by standard German
129
False
Low German varieties
4
What is often not included when counting German dialects?
5ad26f1dd7d075001a42940e
True
Germany
35
In which country are the Middle Age varieties spoken?
5ad26f1dd7d075001a42940f
True
Middle Ages
209
When did High German have a strong tendency towards being an ausbau language?
5ad26f1dd7d075001a429410
True
Middle Ages
209
When did Low German have a weak tendency towards being an ausbau language?
5ad26f1dd7d075001a429411
True
German dialects
71
What are High German varieties often included with?
5ad26f1dd7d075001a429412
True
The Low German varieties spoken in Germany are often counted among the German dialects. This reflects the modern situation where they are roofed by standard German. This is different from the situation in the Middle Ages when Low German had strong tendencies towards an ausbau language.
What are Italian dialects termed in the Italian language?
56e82d0100c9c71400d775eb
dialetti
251
False
What language are many Italian dialects derived from?
56e82d0100c9c71400d775ec
Vulgar Latin
526
False
What does 'dialetti' mean in Italian?
56e82d0100c9c71400d775ed
dialects
237
False
Why might Italian dialects be regarded as independent languages rather than dialects of standard Italian?
56e82d0100c9c71400d775ee
they are not derived from modern standard Italian
443
False
Italy
0
Which country is home to lots of native regional majority languages?
5ad27008d7d075001a429440
True
Romance
87
Most of Italy's languages have what kind of base along with shared variants?
5ad27008d7d075001a429441
True
dialetti
251
What is another German term for dialects?
5ad27008d7d075001a429442
True
individual languages
686
According to linguistics, most national languages in Italy are not dialects but what?
5ad27008d7d075001a429443
True
dialects
720
Rather than an individual languages, what are most regional languages in Italy better referred to as?
5ad27008d7d075001a429444
True
Italy is home to a vast array of native regional minority languages, most of which are Romance-based and have their own local variants. These regional languages are often referred to colloquially or in non-linguistic circles as Italian "dialects," or dialetti (standard Italian for "dialects"). However, the majority of the regional languages in Italy are in fact not actually "dialects" of standard Italian in the strict linguistic sense, as they are not derived from modern standard Italian but instead evolved locally from Vulgar Latin independent of standard Italian, with little to no influence from what is now known as "standard Italian." They are therefore better classified as individual languages rather than "dialects."
What is a major reason why the Latin-based regional Romance languages of Italy should be regarded as independent languages rather than dialects of each other?
56e82da500c9c71400d775f3
they lack mutual intelligibility
285
False
From what region of Italy does the Eastern Lombard dialect hail?
56e82da500c9c71400d775f4
Lombardy
808
False
What language family does Eastern Lombard belong to?
56e82da500c9c71400d775f5
Gallo-Italic
1086
False
What type of language is Sicilian?
56e82da500c9c71400d775f6
Neapolitan
1417
False
What language was spoken by Lombard immigrants to Sicily?
56e82da500c9c71400d775f7
Sicilian Gallo-Italic
1497
False
true "dialects
231
Rather than separate languages, what are the Romance languages better classified as?
5ad273f2d7d075001a4294ca
True
Northern Italy's Lombardy region
791
Where is Western Lombard spoken?
5ad273f2d7d075001a4294cb
True
with a speaker of the more closely related Neapolitan language
1374
With who would a Sicilian speaker have a lesser degree of mutual intelligibility?
5ad273f2d7d075001a4294cc
True
speaker of the more closely related Neapolitan language
1381
With who would a Sicilian speaker have a lesser degree of mutual unintelligibility?
5ad273f2d7d075001a4294cd
True
Sicilian Gallo-Italic
1497
Which language developed in popular Lombard communities in the same place as the Sicilian language?
5ad273f2d7d075001a4294ce
True
In addition to having evolved, for the most part, separately from one another and with distinct individual histories, the Latin-based regional Romance languages of Italy are also better classified as separate languages rather than true "dialects" due to the often high degree in which they lack mutual intelligibility. Though mostly mutually unintelligible, the exact degree to which the regional Italian languages are mutual unintelligible varies, often correlating with geographical distance or geographical barriers between the languages, with some regional Italian languages that are closer in geographical proximity to each other or closer to each other on the dialect continuum being more or less mutually intelligible. For instance, a speaker of purely Eastern Lombard, a language in Northern Italy's Lombardy region that includes the Bergamasque dialect, would have severely limited mutual intelligibility with a purely standard Italian speaker and would be nearly completely unintelligible to a speaker of a pure Sicilian language variant. Due to Eastern Lombard's status as a Gallo-Italic language, an Eastern Lombard speaker may, in fact, have more mutual intelligibility with a Occitan, Catalan, or French speaker than a standard Italian or Sicilian language speaker. Meanwhile, a Sicilian language speaker would have an greater degree of mutual intelligibility with a speaker of the more closely related Neapolitan language, but far less mutual intelligibility with a person speaking Sicilian Gallo-Italic, a language that developed in isolated Lombard emigrant communities on the same island as the Sicilian language.
What language is modern standard Italian derived from?
56e82e1900c9c71400d775fd
Florentine Tuscan
69
False
What language is Florentine Tuscan based on?
56e82e1900c9c71400d775fe
Latin
55
False
During what century did Florentine Tuscan begin to be used in poetry?
56e82e1900c9c71400d775ff
12th
234
False
What socioeconomic class used the Florentine Tuscan language in Dante's time?
56e82e1900c9c71400d77600
upper class
487
False
From what region of Italy did Florentine Tuscan derive?
56e82e1900c9c71400d77601
Tuscany
703
False
Modern standard Italian
0
What is Florentine Tuscan language based on?
5ad2745dd7d075001a4294de
True
at least the 12th century
221
Since when has Giovanni Boccaccio been used in poetry and literature?
5ad2745dd7d075001a4294df
True
at least the 12th century
221
Since when has Dadnte Alighieri been used in poetry and literature?
5ad2745dd7d075001a4294e0
True
at least the 12th century,
221
Since when has Niccolo Machiavelli been used in poetry and literature?
5ad2745dd7d075001a4294e1
True
at least the 12th century
221
Since when has Petrarch been used in poetry and literature?
5ad2745dd7d075001a4294e2
True
Modern standard Italian itself is heavily based on the Latin-derived Florentine Tuscan language. The Tuscan-based language that would eventually become modern standard Italian had been used in poetry and literature since at least the 12th century, and it first became widely known in Italy through the works of authors such as Dante Alighieri, Giovanni Boccaccio, Niccolò Machiavelli, and Petrarch. Dante's Florentine-Tuscan literary Italian thus became the language of the literate and upper class in Italy, and it spread throughout the peninsula as the lingua franca among the Italian educated class as well as Italian traveling merchants. The economic prowess and cultural and artistic importance of Tuscany in the Late Middle Ages and the Renaissance further encouraged the diffusion of the Florentine-Tuscan Italian throughout Italy and among the educated and powerful, though local and regional languages remained the main languages of the common people.
What Italian nationalist spoke of the importance of a national Italian language?
56e82e8c00c9c71400d77607
Alessandro Manzoni
94
False
During what period was the importance of having an Italian national language raised?
56e82e8c00c9c71400d77608
the Risorgimento
7
False
In what decade was Italy unified?
56e82e8c00c9c71400d77609
1860s
275
False
What percentage of Italians spoke standard Italian when Italy was first unified?
56e82e8c00c9c71400d7760a
2.5%
680
False
When Italy was unified, what was named the official national language?
56e82e8c00c9c71400d7760b
standard Italian
282
False
Risorgimento
11
During what period were proponents of Italian Unification stressing the importance of establishing a uniform national language?
5ad2782bd7d075001a429558
True
During the Risorgimento
0
When did Alessandro Manzoni stress the importance of creating an Italian state?
5ad2782bd7d075001a429559
True
1860s
275
During which decade was Italy de-unified?
5ad2782bd7d075001a42955a
True
1860s
275
When did Risorgimento become the official language of the new Italian state?
5ad2782bd7d075001a42955b
True
During the Risorgimento, proponents of Italian republicanism and Italian nationalism, such as Alessandro Manzoni, stressed the importance of establishing a uniform national language in order to better create an Italian national identity. With the unification of Italy in the 1860s, standard Italian became the official national language of the new Italian state, while the various unofficial regional languages of Italy gradually became regarded as subordinate "dialects" to Italian, increasingly associated negatively with lack of education or provincialism. However, at the time of the Italian Unification, standard Italian still existed mainly as a literary language, and only 2.5% of Italy's population could speak standard Italian.
During what war did a large number of Italian men first learn standard Italian?
56e82fe000c9c71400d77611
World War I
97
False
Along with radio and public education, what invention helped to diffuse standard Italian among the Italian population?
56e82fe000c9c71400d77612
television
415
False
In modern Italy, what class of people are regional languages sometimes associated with?
56e82fe000c9c71400d77613
lower
1070
False
Along with formal settings, where do some Italians avoid speaking their regional language?
56e82fe000c9c71400d77614
outside of one's region
979
False
Aside from when they're speaking to Italians from their same town or region, where is a common place where Italians speak their regional language?
56e82fe000c9c71400d77615
at home with family
802
False
speak standard Italian
659
What language do many Italians speak today as opposed to their regional language?
5ad278edd7d075001a429596
True
speaking a regional language
915
What is never associated with being lower class?
5ad278edd7d075001a429597
True
speaking a regional language
915
What is never associated with being uneducated?
5ad278edd7d075001a429598
True
speaking a regional language
915
What is never associated with being boorish?
5ad278edd7d075001a429599
True
speaking a regional language
915
What is never associated with being overly informal?
5ad278edd7d075001a42959a
True
In the early 20th century, the vast conscription of Italian men from all throughout Italy during World War I is credited with facilitating the diffusion of standard Italian among less educated Italian men, as these men from various regions with various regional languages were forced to communicate with each other in a common tongue while serving in the Italian military. With the eventual spread of the radio and television throughout Italy and the establishment of public education, Italians from all regions were increasingly exposed to standard Italian, while literacy rates among all social classes improved. Today, the majority of Italians are able to speak standard Italian, though many Italians still speak their regional language regularly or as their primary day-to-day language, especially at home with family or when communicating with Italians from the same town or region. However, to some Italians, speaking a regional language, especially in a formal setting or outside of one's region, may carry a stigma or negative connotations associated with being lower class, uneducated, boorish, or overly informal.
Regional Italian dialects are often influenced by regional languages and what other language?
56e8307b00c9c71400d7761b
standard Italian
73
False
regional varieties of standard Italian
51
What do Italians in different regions never speak?
5ad279dcd7d075001a4295b8
True
varieties of standard Italian
60
What is another term for national Italian dialects?
5ad279dcd7d075001a4295b9
True
regional Italian dialect
247
What dialect is regional Italian heavily influenced by native languages?
5ad279dcd7d075001a4295ba
True
regional Italian dialects
94
What is another term for varieties of standard Italian?
5ad279dcd7d075001a4295bb
True
standard Italian
196
The majority of Italian languages are dialects of what?
5ad279dcd7d075001a4295bc
True
Italians in different regions today may also speak regional varieties of standard Italian, or regional Italian dialects, which, unlike the majority of languages of Italy, are actually dialects of standard Italian rather than separate languages. A regional Italian dialect is generally standard Italian that has been heavily influenced or mixed with local or regional native languages and accents.
What language family do most of the languages of Italy belong to?
56e830b600c9c71400d7761d
Italo-Dalmatian
125
False
What language are most languages of Italy derived from?
56e830b600c9c71400d7761e
Latin
37
False
Aside from Italo-Dalmatian, what is another term for the group that Italian languages belong to?
56e830b600c9c71400d7761f
Romance
49
False
Italo-Dalmatian language family
125
Which family do the least widely spoken languages fall into?
5ad27a79d7d075001a4295f2
True
Latin-based Romance
37
What type of languages are the languages of Italo-Dalmation?
5ad27a79d7d075001a4295f3
True
Latin-based Romance
37
Which languages are primarily Dalmation languages?
5ad27a79d7d075001a4295f4
True
Italo-Dalmatian
125
Romance languages are the primary language of which family?
5ad27a79d7d075001a4295f5
True
The languages of Italy are primarily Latin-based Romance languages, with the most widely spoken languages falling within the Italo-Dalmatian language family. This wide category includes:
Campidanese Sardinian is a variant of what language?
56e8311437bdd419002c4492
The Sardinian language
0
False
What language is Sassarese closely related to?
56e8311437bdd419002c4493
Italian Tuscan
380
False
What language family does Gallurese belong to?
56e8311437bdd419002c4494
Italo-Dalmatian
135
False
What language family does Ligurian belong to?
56e8311437bdd419002c4495
Gallo-Romance
461
False
Where is the Catalan Algherese dialect spoken?
56e8311437bdd419002c4496
Sardinian
4
False
Romance language
51
Which language is considered to be it's only Sardinian language family?
5ad27cafd7d075001a42968c
True
Logudorese Sardinian
205
Which language does the Campidanese Sardinian variant include?
5ad27cafd7d075001a42968d
True
Sardinia
299
Where are Romance, Gallurese and Sassarese also spoken?
5ad27cafd7d075001a42968e
True
Gallurese, Sassarese, and Corsican
245
Which languages are not considered to be related to the Italian Tuscon language?
5ad27cafd7d075001a42968f
True
Sardinia
549
Where is the Romance Algherese dialect spoken?
5ad27cafd7d075001a429690
True
The Sardinian language is considered to be its own Romance language family, separate not only from standard Italian but also the wider Italo-Dalmatian family, and it includes the Campidanese Sardinian and Logudorese Sardinian variants. However, Gallurese, Sassarese, and Corsican are also spoken in Sardinia, and these languages are considered closely related or derived from the Italian Tuscan language and thus are Italo-Dalmatian languages. Furthermore, the Gallo-Romance language of Ligurian and the Catalan Algherese dialect are also spoken in Sardinia.
Along with British English, what is the major variant of the English language?
56e833ff00c9c71400d77623
American English
286
False
What are the two major variants of Serbo-Croatian?
56e833ff00c9c71400d77624
Serbian and Croatian
308
False
Are British and American English regarded as distinct languages, or dialects of a single language?
56e833ff00c9c71400d77625
dialects of a single language
601
False
Do regional linguists treat Serbian and Croation as distinct languages or as dialects of a single language?
56e833ff00c9c71400d77626
distinct languages
818
False
Why are Serbian and Croatian often treated like distinct languages?
56e833ff00c9c71400d77627
the two countries oscillate from being brotherly to being bitter enemies
854
False
classification of speech varieties as dialects or languages
4
What is can be controversial with consistent verdicts?
5ad27df7d7d075001a4296ec
True
British and American English
489
Which languages are not spoken by political allies?
5ad27df7d7d075001a4296ed
True
British and American English
489
Which languages are not spoken by military allies?
5ad27df7d7d075001a4296ee
True
English
168
Serbian and American English are the major variants of which language?
5ad27df7d7d075001a4296ef
True
Serbo-Croatian
180
British English and Croatian American are the major variants of which language?
5ad27df7d7d075001a4296f0
True
The classification of speech varieties as dialects or languages and their relationship to other varieties of speech can be controversial and the verdicts inconsistent. English and Serbo-Croatian illustrate the point. English and Serbo-Croatian each have two major variants (British and American English, and Serbian and Croatian, respectively), along with numerous other varieties. For political reasons, analyzing these varieties as "languages" or "dialects" yields inconsistent results: British and American English, spoken by close political and military allies, are almost universally regarded as dialects of a single language, whereas the standard languages of Serbia and Croatia, which differ from each other to a similar extent as the dialects of English, are being treated by some linguists from the region as distinct languages, largely because the two countries oscillate from being brotherly to being bitter enemies. (The Serbo-Croatian language article deals with this topic much more fully.)
Along with Serbian, with what language is Macedonian mutually intelligible?
56e8346300c9c71400d7762d
Bulgarian
73
False
What dialect continuum does Macedonian belong to?
56e8346300c9c71400d7762e
South Slavic
151
False
What do Bulgarian linguists regard the Macedonian language as?
56e8346300c9c71400d7762f
a Bulgarian dialect
226
False
In what year was a Macedonian literary standard established?
56e8346300c9c71400d77630
1944
471
False
In what country is Macedonian most commonly spoken?
56e8346300c9c71400d77631
Republic of Macedonia
320
False
Bulgarian
73
With which language is Macedonian mutually unintelligible?
5ad28140d7d075001a4297f2
True
1944
471
In what year was there a literary standard of Bulgarian developed?
5ad28140d7d075001a4297f3
True
1944
471
When was a standard of Serbian developed in Macedonia?
5ad28140d7d075001a4297f4
True
1944
471
In what year was there a literary standard of Slavic developed?
5ad28140d7d075001a4297f5
True
Similar examples abound. Macedonian, although mutually intelligible with Bulgarian, certain dialects of Serbian and to a lesser extent the rest of the South Slavic dialect continuum, is considered by Bulgarian linguists to be a Bulgarian dialect, in contrast with the contemporary international view and the view in the Republic of Macedonia, which regards it as a language in its own right. Nevertheless, before the establishment of a literary standard of Macedonian in 1944, in most sources in and out of Bulgaria before the Second World War, the southern Slavonic dialect continuum covering the area of today's Republic of Macedonia were referred to as Bulgarian dialects.
Lebanese people of what religion sometimes consider Lebanese to be a distinct language?
56e834e000c9c71400d77637
Christian
26
False
In what language are Lebanese laws written?
56e834e000c9c71400d77638
Arabic
113
False
During the Lebanese Civil War, what language did Lebanese Christians sometimes use officially?
56e834e000c9c71400d77639
Lebanese Arabic
189
False
What language is Lebanese closely related to?
56e834e000c9c71400d7763a
Arabic
113
False
What script did Lebanese Christians sometimes use to write Lebanese Arabic during the civil war?
56e834e000c9c71400d7763b
Latin
243
False
Lebanon
3
Where is Lebanese considered a dialect and not a distinct language?
5ad281b8d7d075001a42980c
True
civil war
157
During which war did Christians us Latin exclusively?
5ad281b8d7d075001a42980d
True
standard literary form of Arabic
356
In which form are all Christian laws written?
5ad281b8d7d075001a42980e
True
Lebanese Arabic
438
In which form may Latin script be conducted?
5ad281b8d7d075001a42980f
True
standard literary form of Arabic
356
In which form is Lebanese script written?
5ad281b8d7d075001a429810
True
In Lebanon, a part of the Christian population considers "Lebanese" to be in some sense a distinct language from Arabic and not merely a dialect. During the civil war Christians often used Lebanese Arabic officially, and sporadically used the Latin script to write Lebanese, thus further distinguishing it from Arabic. All Lebanese laws are written in the standard literary form of Arabic, though parliamentary debate may be conducted in Lebanese Arabic.
Along with Morocco and Tunisia, in what country are the Darijas spoken?
56e8355d00c9c71400d77641
Algeria
12
False
What is the liturgical language of Islam?
56e8355d00c9c71400d77642
Literary Arabic
216
False
In what language is the Qur'an written?
56e8355d00c9c71400d77643
Literary Arabic
216
False
What does the term Dariajs refer to?
56e8355d00c9c71400d77644
spoken North African languages
47
False
What is the dominant religion of North Africa?
56e8355d00c9c71400d77645
Islam
307
False
Tunisia, Algeria, and Morocco
3
Where are the Darijas considered the same as other Arabic dialects?
5ad280b6d7d075001a4297c2
True
North African countries
159
Which countries tend to give preference to the Darijas?
5ad280b6d7d075001a4297c3
True
Literary Arabic
409
In which language is the Darijas written?
5ad280b6d7d075001a4297c4
True
Literary Arabic
409
What is the language of folk-tale books?
5ad280b6d7d075001a4297c5
True
Literary Arabic
409
Which language is the liturgical language of social media?
5ad280b6d7d075001a4297c6
True
In Tunisia, Algeria, and Morocco, the Darijas (spoken North African languages) are sometimes considered more different from other Arabic dialects. Officially, North African countries prefer to give preference to the Literary Arabic and conduct much of their political and religious life in it (adherence to Islam), and refrain from declaring each country's specific variety to be a separate language, because Literary Arabic is the liturgical language of Islam and the language of the Islamic sacred book, the Qur'an. Although, especially since the 1960s, the Darijas are occupying an increasing use and influence in the cultural life of these countries. Examples of cultural elements where Darijas' use became dominant include: theatre, film, music, television, advertisement, social media, folk-tale books and companies' names.
During what century did the Russian government claim that Ukrainian was a Russian dialect?
56e835c200c9c71400d7764b
19th
7
False
What Russian government claimed that Ukrainian was not a distinct language?
56e835c200c9c71400d7764c
the Tsarist Government
21
False
The conquest of western Ukraine by what country altered the language of Ukraine?
56e835c200c9c71400d7764d
Polish-Lithuanian Commonwealth
230
False
19th century
7
When did the Russian Empire claim the Tsarist language was a language on its own?
5ad28034d7d075001a42979e
True
19th
7
During which century did the Ukraine claim that Tsarist was simply a dialect of Russian?
5ad28034d7d075001a42979f
True
Ukraine
215
By who was the Polish-Lithuanian Commonwealth conquered?
5ad28034d7d075001a4297a0
True
Russia
350
To which dialects were Ukrainian dialects substantially similar?
5ad28034d7d075001a4297a1
True
In the 19th century, the Tsarist Government of the Russian Empire claimed that Ukrainian was merely a dialect of Russian and not a language on its own. The differences were few and caused by the conquest of western Ukraine by the Polish-Lithuanian Commonwealth. However, the dialects in Ukraine eventually differed substantially from the dialects in Russia.
What nation conquered Ukraine during the First World War?
56e8361f00c9c71400d77651
The German Empire
0
False
What alliance defeated the German Empire in World War I?
56e8361f00c9c71400d77652
the Entente
143
False
What Ukrainian political group was involved in the defeat of the German Empire?
56e8361f00c9c71400d77653
Bolsheviks
196
False
Who did the Ukrainian Bolsheviks conquer the Ukraine from?
56e8361f00c9c71400d77654
Whites
254
False
World War I
43
During which war did the Ukraine conquer the German Empire?
5ad27fc4d7d075001a42978a
True
during World War I
36
When was the Ukraine planning on installing a puppet king?
5ad27fc4d7d075001a42978b
True
The German Empire
0
Who defeated the Entente during World War I?
5ad27fc4d7d075001a42978c
True
The German Empire
0
By who was the Entente conquered during World War I?
5ad27fc4d7d075001a42978d
True
The German Empire
0
Who conquered the Ukraine during World War II?
5ad27fc4d7d075001a42978e
True
The German Empire conquered Ukraine during World War I and was planning on either annexing it or installing a puppet king, but was defeated by the Entente, with major involvement by the Ukrainian Bolsheviks. After conquering the rest of Ukraine from the Whites, Ukraine joined the USSR and was enlarged (gaining Crimea and then Eastern Galicia), whence a process of Ukrainization was begun, with encouragement from Moscow.
After what war did Moscow begin to repress the Ukrainian language?
56e8368700c9c71400d7765b
World War II
6
False
Why did Moscow begin to repress the Ukrainian language?
56e8368700c9c71400d7765c
Ukrainian collaborationism with the Axis powers
27
False
Why did Ukrainians collaborate with the Axis?
56e8368700c9c71400d7765d
to gain independence
89
False
changed its policy towards repression of the Ukrainian language.
118
What happened to Moscow policy after World War I?
5ad27f44d7d075001a42975c
True
After World War II
0
When did the Ukraine change its policy towards repression of the Moscow language?
5ad27f44d7d075001a42975d
True
After World War II
0
When did collaboration between Moscow and the Axis powers cause the Ukraine to change policies?
5ad27f44d7d075001a42975e
True
Ukrainian collaborationism with the Axis powers
27
Whose collaboration caused Moscow to change its policy regarding independence?
5ad27f44d7d075001a42975f
True
Axis powers
63
Who was in collaboration with Moscow?
5ad27f44d7d075001a429760
True
After World War II, due to Ukrainian collaborationism with the Axis powers in an attempt to gain independence, Moscow changed its policy towards repression of the Ukrainian language.
In what country is the Surzhyk dialect spoken?
56e836b537bdd419002c449c
Ukraine
173
False
Surzhyk is a dialect intermediate between the Ukrainian language and what other language?
56e836b537bdd419002c449d
Russian
54
False
Ukrainian language to the Russian language
28
The boundaries between which languages are clearly known?
5ad27e63d7d075001a429712
True
Ukrainian language
28
What is the name for the intermediate dialect formed between Surzhyk and the Russian language?
5ad27e63d7d075001a429713
True
Russian language
54
What is the name for the intermediate dialect formed between Surzhyk and the Ukranian language?
5ad27e63d7d075001a429714
True
Surzhyk
150
What is the name for the intermediate dialect developing in Russia?
5ad27e63d7d075001a429715
True
Today the boundaries of the Ukrainian language to the Russian language are still not drawn clearly, with an intermediate dialect between them, called Surzhyk, developing in Ukraine.
Who was the president of Moldova in 1996?
56e8372c37bdd419002c44a0
Mircea Snegur
241
False
In what year was a Moldovan-Romanian dictionary published?
56e8372c37bdd419002c44a1
2003
310
False
Fear of what caused the Moldovan parliament to reject changing the name of the country's language to Romanian in 1996?
56e8372c37bdd419002c44a2
Romanian expansionism
182
False
Who was the head of the Academy of Sciences of Moldova?
56e8372c37bdd419002c44a3
Ion Bărbuţă
605
False
serve political purposes
80
Political purposes have been reclassified to deliberately do what?
5ad27c13d7d075001a42967a
True
1996
134
When did the Moldovan parliament approve a proposal from President Snegur?
5ad27c13d7d075001a42967b
True
1996
134
When was President Moldovan's proposal rejected by parliament?
5ad27c13d7d075001a42967c
True
all the Moldovan words were also Romanian words
490
What did the Academy of Science declare regarding Moldovan words?
5ad27c13d7d075001a42967d
True
2003
310
When was the Romanian-Academy dictionary published?
5ad27c13d7d075001a42967e
True
There have been cases of a variety of speech being deliberately reclassified to serve political purposes. One example is Moldovan. In 1996, the Moldovan parliament, citing fears of "Romanian expansionism", rejected a proposal from President Mircea Snegur to change the name of the language to Romanian, and in 2003 a Moldovan–Romanian dictionary was published, purporting to show that the two countries speak different languages. Linguists of the Romanian Academy reacted by declaring that all the Moldovan words were also Romanian words; while in Moldova, the head of the Academy of Sciences of Moldova, Ion Bărbuţă, described the dictionary as a politically motivated "absurdity".
From what did Chinese characters derive?
56e8379037bdd419002c44a8
logograms
111
False
What is another name for the Yue language?
56e8379037bdd419002c44a9
Cantonese
559
False
Hakka is a language from what geographic part of China?
56e8379037bdd419002c44aa
the south
452
False
From the time of the Ming dynasty, what city was the capital of China?
56e8379037bdd419002c44ab
Beijing
663
False
At its founding. what was the official language of the Republic of China?
56e8379037bdd419002c44ac
Standard Mandarin
828
False
logograms
111
What do Chinese characters use to give hints to pronunciation?
5ad27b63d7d075001a429652
True
Cantonese
559
What is another name for the Xiang language?
5ad27b63d7d075001a429653
True
Hong Kong
1053
Where is Macau the most commonly used language?
5ad27b63d7d075001a429654
True
Hong Kong
1053
Which language is the most commonly used in Cantonese?
5ad27b63d7d075001a429655
True
alphabets
31
What do most languages use to indicate varieties?
5ad27b63d7d075001a429656
True
Unlike most languages that use alphabets to indicate the pronunciation, Chinese characters have developed from logograms that do not always give hints to its pronunciation. Although the written characters remained relatively consistent for the last two thousand years, the pronunciation and grammar in different regions has developed to an extent that the varieties of the spoken language are often mutually unintelligible. As a series of migration to the south throughout the history, the regional languages of the south, including Xiang, Wu, Gan, Min, Yue (Cantonese), and Hakka often show traces of Old Chinese or Middle Chinese. From the Ming dynasty onward, Beijing has been the capital of China and the dialect spoken in Beijing has had the most prestige among other varieties. With the founding of the Republic of China, Standard Mandarin was designated as the official language, based on the spoken language of Beijing. Since then, other spoken varieties are regarded as fangyan (dialects). Cantonese is still the most commonly used language in Hong Kong, Macau and among some overseas Chinese communities, whereas Southern Min has been accepted in Taiwan as an important local language along with Mandarin.
From the perspective of historical linguists, what are Romance languages dialects of?
56e837f437bdd419002c44b2
Latin
207
False
What do many historical linguists consider modern Greek to be a dialect of?
56e837f437bdd419002c44b3
Ancient Greek
243
False
From what language is North Germanic derived?
56e837f437bdd419002c44b4
Old Norse
327
False
Tok Pisin might be regarded as a dialect of what language?
56e837f437bdd419002c44b5
English
284
False
a dialect of the older medium of communication from which it developed
50
What do few historical linguists view any speech form as?
5ad27318d7d075001a4294ae
True
Romance languages
174
According to this few, what language is Latin a dialect of?
5ad27318d7d075001a4294af
True
Greek
221
According to this few, what language is Ancient Greek a dialect of?
5ad27318d7d075001a4294b0
True
North Germanic
297
According to this few, what language is Old Norse a dialect of?
5ad27318d7d075001a4294b1
True
Tok Pisin
258
According to this few, what language is English a dialect of?
5ad27318d7d075001a4294b2
True
Many historical linguists view any speech form as a dialect of the older medium of communication from which it developed.[citation needed] This point of view sees the modern Romance languages as dialects of Latin, modern Greek as a dialect of Ancient Greek, Tok Pisin as a dialect of English, and North Germanic as dialects of Old Norse. This paradigm is not entirely problem-free. It sees genetic relationships as paramount: the "dialects" of a "language" (which itself may be a "dialect" of a yet older language) may or may not be mutually intelligible. Moreover, a parent language may spawn several "dialects" which themselves subdivide any number of times, with some "branches" of the tree changing more rapidly than others.
Italian is significantly mutually comprehensible with what other Romance language?
56e83b4c00c9c71400d77661
Spanish
318
False
With what romance language does Spanish not have a high degree of mutual comprehensibility?
56e83b4c00c9c71400d77662
French
411
False
What is the reason for French and Italian not being very mutually comprehensible?
56e83b4c00c9c71400d77663
French having undergone more rapid and more pervasive phonological change
620
False
Romance
282
This pattern is particularly lacking among which modern languages?
5ad272b2d7d075001a4294a4
True
Italian and Spanish
306
Which languages have a low degree of  mutual comprehensibility?
5ad272b2d7d075001a4294a5
True
high degree of mutual comprehensibility
335
What do both the Italian and Spanish languages share with the French language?
5ad272b2d7d075001a4294a6
True
French having undergone more rapid and more pervasive phonological change than have Spanish and Italian
620
What is French-Spanish and Spanish-Italian mutual incomprehensibility due to?
5ad272b2d7d075001a4294a7
True
Italian and French
792
Which two languages share numerous root words that aren't even in the Romance language?
5ad272b2d7d075001a4294a8
True
This can give rise to the situation in which two dialects (defined according to this paradigm) with a somewhat distant genetic relationship are mutually more readily comprehensible than more closely related dialects. In one opinion, this pattern is clearly present among the modern Romance languages, with Italian and Spanish having a high degree of mutual comprehensibility, which neither language shares with French, despite some claiming that both languages are genetically closer to French than to each other:[citation needed] In fact, French-Italian and French-Spanish relative mutual incomprehensibility is due to French having undergone more rapid and more pervasive phonological change than have Spanish and Italian, not to real or imagined distance in genetic relationship. In fact, Italian and French share many more root words in common that do not even appear in Spanish.
What Italian word is similar to the French word "avoir"?
56e83bdf37bdd419002c44ba
avere
205
False
What French word is similar to the Italian word "essere"?
56e83bdf37bdd419002c44bb
être
310
False
What two languages have the possibility for significant mutual intelligibility?
56e83bdf37bdd419002c44bc
Italian and Spanish
454
False
Along with foods and family relationships, what sorts of words are similar in French and Italian?
56e83bdf37bdd419002c44bd
body parts
92
False
When forming compound tenses in Spanish, what auxiliary is no longer used?
56e83bdf37bdd419002c44be
sere
219
False
words for various foods, some family relationships, and body parts
36
In Italian and French which words are very different while the same words are similar in Spanish?
5ad27222d7d075001a429486
True
Italian and Spanish
454
Which two languages have undergone more change than French regarding phonological structures?
5ad27222d7d075001a429487
True
essere
217
What Spanish word is similar to the Italian word avere?
5ad27222d7d075001a429488
True
avere
205
Which Spanish word is similar to the Italian word essere?
5ad27222d7d075001a429489
True
être
310
Which Italian term is similar to avoir?
5ad27222d7d075001a42948a
True
For example, the Italian and French words for various foods, some family relationships, and body parts are very similar to each other, yet most of those words are completely different in Spanish. Italian "avere" and "essere" as auxiliaries for forming compound tenses are used similarly to French "avoir" and "être". Spanish only retains "haber" and has done away with "ser" in forming compound tenses. However, when it comes to phonological structures, Italian and Spanish have undergone less change than French, with the result that some native speakers of Italian and Spanish may attain a degree of mutual comprehension that permits extensive communication.[citation needed]
What language could all Western languages be considered dialects of?
56e83cb337bdd419002c44c4
Interlingua
14
False
Researchers at what organization study and develop Interlingua?
56e83cb337bdd419002c44c5
International Auxiliary Language Association
375
False
What was the nationality of high school students who learned Interlingua in a notable linguistic experiment?
56e83cb337bdd419002c44c6
Swedish
910
False
Along with Italian and Spanish, what language could Swedish Interlingua learners translate?
56e83cb337bdd419002c44c7
Portuguese
1006
False
Along with Standard Average European, from what concept was Interlingua derived?
56e83cb337bdd419002c44c8
the international scientific vocabulary
144
False
Interlingua
14
Which language was developed to aid Eastern civilization languages in acting as dialects?
5ad27192d7d075001a42945e
True
Interlingua
14
What is the name of the language that was created to help Western languages act as English?
5ad27192d7d075001a42945f
True
the learning of other languages
863
What has Interlingua been found to be a detriment to?
5ad27192d7d075001a429460
True
Portuguese, and Italian
1006
According to one study, students learning Spanish were able to translate passages from which languages that other students could not?
5ad27192d7d075001a429461
True
Interlingua
1150
Which languages' vocabulary does not reach beyond the Western family of languages?
5ad27192d7d075001a429462
True
One language, Interlingua, was developed so that the languages of Western civilization would act as its dialects. Drawing from such concepts as the international scientific vocabulary and Standard Average European, linguists[who?] developed a theory that the modern Western languages were actually dialects of a hidden or latent language.[citation needed] Researchers at the International Auxiliary Language Association extracted words and affixes that they considered to be part of Interlingua's vocabulary. In theory, speakers of the Western languages would understand written or spoken Interlingua immediately, without prior study, since their own languages were its dialects. This has often turned out to be true, especially, but not solely, for speakers of the Romance languages and educated speakers of English. Interlingua has also been found to assist in the learning of other languages. In one study, Swedish high school students learning Interlingua were able to translate passages from Spanish, Portuguese, and Italian that students of those languages found too difficult to understand. It should be noted, however, that the vocabulary of Interlingua extends beyond the Western language families.
Bern
Where is Bern located?
56e85f6300c9c71400d77667
Switzerland
213
False
How many municiplaities are in Bern?
56e85f6300c9c71400d77669
36
455
False
Bern is the capitol of which canton?
56e85f6300c9c71400d7766a
Canton of Bern
602
False
Where does Bern rank in population in Switzerland?
56e85f6300c9c71400d7766b
second
622
False
The city of Bern or Berne (German: Bern, pronounced [bɛrn] ( listen); French: Berne [bɛʁn]; Italian: Berna [ˈbɛrna]; Romansh: Berna  [ˈbɛrnɐ] (help·info); Bernese German: Bärn [b̥æːrn]) is the de facto capital of Switzerland, referred to by the Swiss as their (e.g. in German) Bundesstadt, or "federal city".[note 1] With a population of 140,634 (November 2015), Bern is the fifth most populous city in Switzerland. The Bern agglomeration, which includes 36 municipalities, had a population of 406,900 in 2014. The metropolitan area had a population of 660,000 in 2000. Bern is also the capital of the Canton of Bern, the second most populous of Switzerland's cantons.
What is the official language of Bern?
56e85fee00c9c71400d77671
German
65
False
The official language of Bern is (the Swiss variety of Standard) German, but the main spoken language is the Alemannic Swiss German dialect called Bernese German.
Where is the UNESCO World Heritage Site?
56e860fd00c9c71400d77674
centre of Bern
37
False
Where does Bern rank for top cities for the best quality of life?
56e860fd00c9c71400d77675
top ten
122
False
When did the centre of Bern become the UNESCO World Heritage Site?
56e860fd00c9c71400d77676
1983
3
False
In 1983 the historic old town in the centre of Bern became a UNESCO World Heritage Site. Bern is ranked among the world’s top ten cities for the best quality of life (2010).
What animal is on the seal and coat of arms of Bern?
56e861d000c9c71400d7767b
bear
260
False
What live animals did they keep in the Bärengraben?
56e861d000c9c71400d7767c
bears
749
False
What is the earliest that they kept live bears in the Bärengraben?
56e861d000c9c71400d7767d
1440s.
787
False
The etymology of the name Bern is uncertain. According to the local legend, based on folk etymology, Berchtold V, Duke of Zähringen, the founder of the city of Bern, vowed to name the city after the first animal he met on the hunt, and this turned out to be a bear. It has long been considered likely that the city was named after the Italian city of Verona, which at the time was known as Bern in Middle High German. As a result of the find of the Bern zinc tablet in the 1980s, it is now more common to assume that the city was named after a pre-existing toponym of Celtic origin, possibly *berna "cleft". The bear was the heraldic animal of the seal and coat of arms of Bern from at least the 1220s. The earliest reference to the keeping of live bears in the Bärengraben dates to the 1440s.
When was the earliest evidnce of settlement in the city centre?
56e8629c37bdd419002c44ce
12th century
103
False
What era was there a Gallo-Roman vicus on the same site?
56e8629c37bdd419002c44cf
Roman era
369
False
What is the name of the Bern zinc tablet?
56e8629c37bdd419002c44d0
Brenodor
462
False
When was the settlement in Bumpliz close to the medieval city?
56e8629c37bdd419002c44d1
Early Middle Ages
501
False
No archaeological evidence that indicates a settlement on the site of today′s city centre prior to the 12th century has been found so far. In antiquity, a Celtic oppidum stood on the Engehalbinsel (peninsula) north of Bern, fortified since the 2nd century BC (late La Tène period), thought to be one of the twelve oppida of the Helvetii mentioned by Caesar. During the Roman era, there was a Gallo-Roman vicus on the same site. The Bern zinc tablet has the name Brenodor ("dwelling of Breno"). In the Early Middle Ages, there was a settlement in Bümpliz, now a city district of Bern, some 4 km (2 mi) from the medieval city.
The medieval city is a foundation of what family?
56e8630337bdd419002c44d6
Zähringer
41
False
When did the Zahringer ruling family rise to power?
56e8630337bdd419002c44d7
12th century
111
False
Where did the Zahringer ruling family rise to power?
56e8630337bdd419002c44d8
Upper Burgundy
89
False
What year was Bern founded?
56e8630337bdd419002c44d9
1191
212
False
Who founded Bern?
56e8630337bdd419002c44da
Berthold V, Duke of Zähringen
220
False
The medieval city is a foundation of the Zähringer ruling family, which rose to power in Upper Burgundy in the 12th century. According to 14th century historiography (Cronica de Berno, 1309), Bern was founded in 1191 by Berthold V, Duke of Zähringen.
what year did Bern join the Swiss Confederacy?
56e8638c37bdd419002c44e0
1353
3
False
How many cantons were there between 1353 to 1481?
56e8638c37bdd419002c44e1
8
114
False
What year did Bern invade Aargau?
56e8638c37bdd419002c44e3
1415
155
False
What is the largest city-state north of the Alps?
56e8638c37bdd419002c44e4
Bern
8
False
In 1353 Bern joined the Swiss Confederacy, becoming one of the eight cantons of the formative period of 1353 to 1481. Bern invaded and conquered Aargau in 1415 and Vaud in 1536, as well as other smaller territories; thereby becoming the largest city-state north of the Alps, by the 18th century comprising most of what is today the canton of Bern and the canton of Vaud.
What river was the city near?
56e8648f37bdd419002c44ea
River Aare
84
False
What was the name of the tower that was the western boundary?
56e8648f37bdd419002c44eb
Zytglogge
100
False
What tower took over after Zytglogge?
56e8648f37bdd419002c44ec
Käfigturm
187
False
What did the big and small Schanze protect?
56e8648f37bdd419002c44ee
the whole area of the peninsula
504
False
The city grew out towards the west of the boundaries of the peninsula formed by the River Aare. The Zytglogge tower marked the western boundary of the city from 1191 until 1256, when the Käfigturm took over this role until 1345. It was, in turn, succeeded by the Christoffelturm (formerly located close to the site of the modern-day railway station) until 1622. During the time of the Thirty Years' War, two new fortifications – the so-called big and small Schanze (entrenchment) – were built to protect the whole area of the peninsula.
What year was there a huge fire?
56e8653c37bdd419002c44f4
1405
23
False
What was destroyed in the fire?
56e8653c37bdd419002c44f5
the city's original wooden buildings
29
False
After a major blaze in 1405, the city's original wooden buildings were gradually replaced by half-timbered houses and subsequently the sandstone buildings which came to be characteristic for the Old Town. Despite the waves of pestilence that hit Europe in the 14th century, the city continued to grow: mainly due to immigration from the surrounding countryside.
What year was Bern occupied by French troops?
56e8668737bdd419002c44fe
1798
38
False
Why were French troops in Bern?
56e8668737bdd419002c44ff
French Revolutionary Wars
54
False
When did Bern regain control of Bernese Oberland?
56e8668737bdd419002c4500
1802
178
False
What new territory was aquired in 1814?
56e8668737bdd419002c4501
Bernese Jura.
252
False
When did the canton of Jura seceed?
56e8668737bdd419002c4502
1979
423
False
Bern was occupied by French troops in 1798 during the French Revolutionary Wars, when it was stripped of parts of its territories. It regained control of the Bernese Oberland in 1802, and following the Congress of Vienna of 1814, it newly acquired the Bernese Jura. At this time, it once again became the largest canton of the confederacy as it stood during the Restoration and until the secession of the canton of Jura in 1979. Bern was made the Federal City (seat of the Federal Assembly) within the new Swiss federal state in 1848.
What congresses were held in Bern?
56e86dc299e8941900975dfc
First and Second Internationals
40
False
In World War I, what side was Switzerland on?
56e86dc299e8941900975dfd
Switzerland was neutral
128
False
A number of congresses of the socialist First and Second Internationals were held in Bern, particularly during World War I when Switzerland was neutral; see Bern International.
What percent of the populatin of Bern resident foreigners?
56e86f5b99e8941900975e04
30%
378
False
The city's population rose from about 5,000 in the 15th century to about 12,000 by 1800 and to above 60,000 by 1900, passing the 100,000 mark during the 1920s. Population peaked during the 1960s at 165,000, and has since decreased slightly, to below 130,000 by 2000. As of October 2015, the resident population stood at 140,634, of which 100,634 were Swiss citizens and 40,000 (30%) resident foreigners. A further estimated 350,000 people live in the immediate urban agglomeration.
Where is Bern located?
56e8701b99e8941900975e0b
the Swiss plateau in the Canton of Bern
13
False
What helped form the Bern countryside?
56e8701b99e8941900975e0c
glaciers
184
False
What is the tallest mountain closests to Bern?
56e8701b99e8941900975e0e
Bantiger
308
False
Bern lies on the Swiss plateau in the Canton of Bern, slightly west of the centre of Switzerland and 20 km (12 mi) north of the Bernese Alps. The countryside around Bern was formed by glaciers during the most recent Ice Age. The two mountains closest to Bern are Gurten with a height of 864 m (2,835 ft) and Bantiger with a height of 947 m (3,107 ft). The site of the old observatory in Bern is the point of origin of the CH1903 coordinate system at 46°57′08.66″N 7°26′22.50″E﻿ / ﻿46.9524056°N 7.4395833°E﻿ / 46.9524056; 7.4395833.
What peninsula is Bern located on?
56e870a999e8941900975e13
Aare
75
False
What was built to help Bern grow bigger than the peninula?
56e870a999e8941900975e15
bridges
145
False
What century did Bern outgrow the peninsula?
56e870a999e8941900975e16
19th century
119
False
The city was originally built on a hilly peninsula surrounded by the River Aare, but outgrew natural boundaries by the 19th century. A number of bridges have been built to allow the city to expand beyond the Aare.
What type of ground was Bern built on?
56e8711499e8941900975e1b
uneven ground.
22
False
What is the elevation difference between the inner cities and the other cities?
56e8711499e8941900975e1c
several metres
73
False
Which city is higher, Matte or Langgasse?
56e8711499e8941900975e1d
Länggasse
184
False
Bern is built on very uneven ground. There is an elevation difference of several metres between the inner city districts on the Aare (Matte, Marzili) and the higher ones (Kirchenfeld, Länggasse).
What is 33.6% of the land in Bern?
56e871f40b45c0140094cc9d
forested
229
False
When was the last time the area of Bern was measured?
56e871f40b45c0140094cc9f
2009
24
False
Bern has an area, as of 2009[update], of 51.62 square kilometers (19.93 sq mi). Of this area, 9.79 square kilometers (3.78 sq mi) or 19.0% is used for agricultural purposes, while 17.33 square kilometers (6.69 sq mi) or 33.6% is forested. Of the rest of the land, 23.25 square kilometers (8.98 sq mi) or 45.0% is settled (buildings or roads), 1.06 square kilometers (0.41 sq mi) or 2.1% is either rivers or lakes and 0.16 square kilometers (0.062 sq mi) or 0.3% is unproductive land.
How does the government of Bern operate?
56e8733699e8941900975e21
as a collegiate authority.
101
False
How many councilors are there?
56e8733699e8941900975e22
five
146
False
Who is Bern's mayor, or Stadtprasident?
56e8733699e8941900975e23
Alexander Tschäppät
448
False
How after are the elections?
56e8733699e8941900975e24
every four years.
683
False
Where is the executive body held?
56e8733699e8941900975e25
in the Erlacherhof
1013
False
The City Council (Gemeinderat) constitutes the executive government of the City of Bern and operates as a collegiate authority. It is composed of five councilors (German: Gemeinderat/-rätin), each presiding over a directorate (Direktion) comprising several departments and bureaus. The president of the executive department acts as mayor (Stadtpräsident). In the mandate period 2013–2016 (Legislatur) the City Council is presided by Stadtpräsident Alexander Tschäppät. Departmental tasks, coordination measures and implementation of laws decreed by the City Parliament are carried by the City Council. The regular election of the City Council by any inhabitant valid to vote is held every four years. Any resident of Bern allowed to vote can be elected as a member of the City Council. The delegates are selected by means of a system of Majorz. The mayor is elected as such as well by public election while the heads of the other directorates are assigned by the collegiate. The executive body holds its meetings in the Erlacherhof, built by architect Albrecht Stürler after 1747.
Who has the majority of the seats in Bern's City Council?
56e874800b45c0140094cca8
left parties
253
False
What party also had the mayor as of 2015?
56e874800b45c0140094cca9
Social Democratic Party
77
False
What is the Christian Democratic Party also known as?
56e874800b45c0140094ccaa
CVP
150
False
As of 2015, Bern's City Council is made up of two representatives of the SP (Social Democratic Party, of whom one is also the mayor), and one each of CVP (Christian Democratic Party), GB (Green Alliance of Berne), and FDP (FDP.The Liberals), giving the left parties a majority of three out of five seats. The last election was held on 25 November 2012.
Who holds the legislative power?
56e874d50b45c0140094ccaf
The City Parliament
0
False
How many members are part of the City Parliament?
56e874d50b45c0140094ccb0
80
99
False
How often are elections held for the City Parliament?
56e874d50b45c0140094ccb1
every four years.
131
False
The City Parliament (de: Stadtrat, fr: Conseil de ville) holds legislative power. It is made up of 80 members, with elections held every four years. The City Parliament decrees regulations and by-laws that are executed by the City Council and the administration. The delegates are selected by means of a system of proportional representation.
Are the sessions of City Parliament private or public?
56e875710b45c0140094ccb7
public
40
False
The sessions of the City Parliament are public. Unlike members of the City Council, members of the City Parliament are not politicians by profession, and they are paid a fee based on their attendance. Any resident of Bern allowed to vote can be elected as a member of the City Parliament. The parliament holds its meetings in the Stadthaus (Town Hall).
Which party has the absolute majority of the seats?
56e87b7a0b45c0140094ccc2
left parties
1060
False
How many seats are there?
56e87b7a0b45c0140094ccc3
46
1097
False
Which specific party has the most members in the City Parliament?
56e87b7a0b45c0140094ccc4
Social Democratic Party
224
False
The last regular election of the City Parliament was held on 25 November 2012 for the mandate period (German: Legislatur, French: la législature) from 2013 to 2016. Currently the City Parliament consist of 23 members of the Social Democratic Party (SP/PS), 11 Swiss People's Party (SVP/UDC), 8 Green Alliance of Berne (GB), 8 Grüne Freie Liste (GFL) (Green Free List), 7 The Liberals (FDP/PLR), 7 Conservative Democratic Party (BDP/PBD), 7 Green Liberal Party (GLP/PVL), 2 Christian Democratic People's Party (CVP/PDC), 2 Evangelical People's Party (EVP/PEV), 1 Junge Alternative (JA!) (or Young Alternatives), 1 Grüne Partei Bern - Demokratische Alternative (GPB-DA) (or Green Party Bern - Democratic Alternative), 1 Swiss Party of Labour (PdA), 1 Alternative Linke Bern (AL) and finally one independent. The following parties combine their parliamentary power in parliamentary groups (German: Fraktion(en)): Independent and AL and GPB-DA and PdA (4), SP (23), GB and JA! (9), GFL and EVP (10), GLP (7), BDP and CVP (9), FDP (7), and SVP (11). This gives the left parties an absolute majority of 46 seats.
What is the population of Bern?
56e87bde99e8941900975e2b
140,634
25
False
What percent of the population are resident foreign nationals?
56e87bde99e8941900975e2c
34%
44
False
What was the population change from 2000 and 2010?
56e87bde99e8941900975e2d
.6%
176
False
What counted for more of the population change?
56e87bde99e8941900975e2e
births and deaths
217
False
Bern has a population of 140,634 people and 34% of the population are resident foreign nationals. Over the 10 years between 2000 and 2010, the population changed at a rate of 0.6%. Migration accounted for 1.3%, while births and deaths accounted for −2.1%.
What is the main lanuage of Bern?
56e87c2d99e8941900975e33
German
51
False
What is the second most common language?
56e87c2d99e8941900975e34
Italian
102
False
What percent of the population speaks German?
56e87c2d99e8941900975e36
81.2%
70
False
Most of the population (as of 2000[update]) speaks German (104,465 or 81.2%) as their first language, Italian is the second most common (5,062 or 3.9%) and French is the third (4,671 or 3.6%). There are 171 people who speak Romansh.
What did the city decide again?
56e87d480b45c0140094ccc9
having twinned cities
53
False
When did they have a temporary twinned city?
56e87d480b45c0140094ccca
during the UEFA Euro 2008
99
False
What was the twinning city with Bern in 2008?
56e87d480b45c0140094cccb
Salzburg
161
False
What country is Salzburg in?
56e87d480b45c0140094cccc
Austrian
147
False
The city council of the city of Bern decided against having twinned cities except for a temporary (during the UEFA Euro 2008) cooperation with the Austrian city Salzburg
How many Swiss men live in Bern?
56e87dae0b45c0140094ccd2
35.4%
116
False
What percent of the population is born somewhere else in Switzerland?
56e87dae0b45c0140094ccd4
20.1%
430
False
What percent were born outside of Switzerland?
56e87dae0b45c0140094ccd5
21.6%
491
False
As of 2008[update], the population was 47.5% male and 52.5% female. The population was made up of 44,032 Swiss men (35.4% of the population) and 15,092 (12.1%) non-Swiss men. There were 51,531 Swiss women (41.4%) and 13,726 (11.0%) non-Swiss women. Of the population in the municipality, 39,008 or about 30.3% were born in Bern and lived there in 2000. There were 27,573 or 21.4% who were born in the same canton, while 25,818 or 20.1% were born somewhere else in Switzerland, and 27,812 or 21.6% were born outside of Switzerland.
What percent of the population are 19 years old and under?
56e87ebf99e8941900975e3b
15.1%
68
False
What percent of the population are between 20-64?
56e87ebf99e8941900975e3c
65%
132
False
What percent of the population are over 64 years old?
56e87ebf99e8941900975e3d
19.9%
176
False
What age group has most of the population included?
56e87ebf99e8941900975e3e
adults
99
False
As of 2000[update], children and teenagers (0–19 years old) make up 15.1% of the population, while adults (20–64 years old) make up 65% and seniors (over 64 years old) make up 19.9%.
How many people were single in Bern in 2000?
56e87f7f0b45c0140094ccdb
59,948
31
False
How many people were married in Bern in 2000?
56e87f7f0b45c0140094ccdc
49,873
111
False
How many people were widows or widowers in Bern in 2000?
56e87f7f0b45c0140094ccdd
9,468
168
False
Where there more married or single people in Bern in 2000?
56e87f7f0b45c0140094ccde
single
54
False
As of 2000[update], there were 59,948 people who were single and never married in the municipality. There were 49,873 married individuals, 9,345 widows or widowers and 9,468 individuals who are divorced.
What is the average of people per household in Bern?
56e8800d0b45c0140094cce4
1.8 persons
96
False
How many households have 5 or more people living in them?
56e8800d0b45c0140094cce5
1,592
188
False
What percentage of the apartment homes in Bern were occupied in 2000?
56e8800d0b45c0140094cce6
90.6%
278
False
What percent of apartments are seasonal apartments?
56e8800d0b45c0140094cce7
7.4%
349
False
As of 2000[update], there were 67,115 private households in the municipality, and an average of 1.8 persons per household. There were 34,981 households that consist of only one person and 1,592 households with five or more people. In 2000[update], a total of 65,538 apartments (90.6% of the total) were permanently occupied, while 5,352 apartments (7.4%) were seasonally occupied and 1,444 apartments (2.0%) were empty. As of 2009[update], the construction rate of new housing units was 1.2 new units per 1000 residents.
What was the average price to rent an average apartment in Bern?
56e880ec99e8941900975e43
1108.92 Swiss francs
78
False
What was the vacancy rate for Bern in 2010?
56e880ec99e8941900975e46
.45%
610
False
As of 2003[update] the average price to rent an average apartment in Bern was 1108.92 Swiss francs (CHF) per month (US$890, £500, €710 approx. exchange rate from 2003). The average rate for a one-room apartment was 619.82 CHF (US$500, £280, €400), a two-room apartment was about 879.36 CHF (US$700, £400, €560), a three-room apartment was about 1040.54 CHF (US$830, £470, €670) and a six or more room apartment cost an average of 2094.80 CHF (US$1680, £940, €1340). The average apartment price in Bern was 99.4% of the national average of 1116 CHF. The vacancy rate for the municipality, in 2010[update], was 0.45%.
What percent of the population were Roman Catholic?
56e8845b99e8941900975e4c
24.5%
101
False
How much of the population is Jewish in Bern?
56e8845b99e8941900975e4d
.25%
487
False
How many muslims were there in Bern in 2000?
56e8845b99e8941900975e4e
4,907
532
False
How much of the population had no religion?
56e8845b99e8941900975e4f
12.72%
726
False
From the 2000 census[update], 60,455 or 47.0% belonged to the Swiss Reformed Church, while 31,510 or 24.5% were Roman Catholic. Of the rest of the population, there were 1,874 members of an Orthodox church (or about 1.46% of the population), there were 229 persons (or about 0.18% of the population) who belonged to the Christian Catholic Church, and there were 5,531 persons (or about 4.30% of the population) who belonged to another Christian church. There were 324 persons (or about 0.25% of the population) who were Jewish, and 4,907 (or about 3.81% of the population) who were Muslim. There were 629 persons who were Buddhist, 1,430 persons who were Hindu and 177 persons who belonged to another church. 16,363 (or about 12.72% of the population) belonged to no church, are agnostic or atheist, and 7,855 persons (or about 6.11% of the population) did not answer the question. On 14 December 2014 the Haus der Religionen was inaugurated.
The structure of Bern's city centre is mainly what type of buildings?
56e8862699e8941900975e55
medieval
47
False
What does UNESCO recognised Bern's city center to be?
56e8862699e8941900975e56
a Cultural World Heritage Site
93
False
What is Berns most famous site?
56e8862699e8941900975e57
Zytglogge
162
False
What is the name of the 15th century cathedral?
56e8862699e8941900975e58
Münster
322
False
What type of cathedral is Muster?
56e8862699e8941900975e59
Gothic
300
False
The structure of Bern's city centre is largely medieval and has been recognised by UNESCO as a Cultural World Heritage Site. Perhaps its most famous sight is the Zytglogge (Bernese German for "Time Bell"), an elaborate medieval clock tower with moving puppets. It also has an impressive 15th century Gothic cathedral, the Münster, and a 15th-century town hall. Thanks to 6 kilometres (4 miles) of arcades, the old town boasts one of the longest covered shopping promenades in Europe.
What is the Barengraben?
56e8879699e8941900975e5f
a bear pit
41
False
Where is the Barengraben located?
56e8879699e8941900975e60
the far end of the Nydeggbrücke
73
False
What are held at the Barengraben?
56e8879699e8941900975e61
heraldic animals
118
False
Who gave Bern their bears?
56e8879699e8941900975e62
the Russian president
247
False
What zoo are the bears of Bern kept?
56e8879699e8941900975e63
Dählhölzli zoo
282
False
Since the 16th century, the city has had a bear pit, the Bärengraben, at the far end of the Nydeggbrücke to house its heraldic animals. The currently four bears are now kept in an open-air enclosure nearby, and two other young bears, a present by the Russian president, are kept in Dählhölzli zoo.
Where is the national parliment housed?
56e887cd99e8941900975e69
The Federal Palace
0
False
What is the Federal Palace called?
56e887cd99e8941900975e6a
Bundeshaus
20
False
The Federal Palace (Bundeshaus), built from 1857 to 1902, which houses the national parliament, government and part of the federal administration, can also be visited.
Where is Albert Einstein live?
56e8887799e8941900975e6f
the Kramgasse 49
35
False
What was published the same years?
56e8887799e8941900975e71
Annus Mirabilis Papers
124
False
What is the flat that Einstein called?
56e8887799e8941900975e72
Einsteinhaus
69
False
Albert Einstein lived in a flat at the Kramgasse 49, the site of the Einsteinhaus, from 1903 to 1905, the year in which the Annus Mirabilis Papers were published.
What is the Rose Garden also known as?
56e888c799e8941900975e77
Rosengarten
17
False
What can you see from the Rose Garden?
56e888c799e8941900975e78
view of the medieval town centre
61
False
What was the Rosarium converted into?
56e888c799e8941900975e79
a park
160
False
What year was the Rosarium converted?
56e888c799e8941900975e7a
1913
193
False
The Rose Garden (Rosengarten), from which a scenic panoramic view of the medieval town centre can be enjoyed, is a well-kept Rosarium on a hill, converted into a park from a former cemetery in 1913.
Where are the statues at in the Old Town?
56e8898599e8941900975e80
public fountains
52
False
Who does the Kindlifresserbrunnen scare?
56e8898599e8941900975e81
disobedient children.
473
False
Who created all the statues except the Zahringer fountain?
56e8898599e8941900975e82
Hans Hiltbrand
176
False
There are eleven Renaissance allegorical statues on public fountains in the Old Town. Nearly all the 16th century fountains, except the Zähringer fountain which was created by Hans Hiltbrand, are the work of the Fribourg master Hans Gieng. One of the more interesting fountains is the Kindlifresserbrunnen (Bernese German: Child Eater Fountain but often translated Ogre Fountain) which is claimed to represent a Jew, the Greek god Chronos or a Fastnacht figure that scares disobedient children.
What does the UNESCO consider the entre Old Town?
56e88a380b45c0140094cced
a UNESCO World Heritage Site
47
False
When was the biggest cathedral in Switzerland built?
56e88a380b45c0140094ccee
1421
198
False
What is the largest Swiss Reformed church in Switzerland?
56e88a380b45c0140094ccef
Holy Ghost Church
346
False
Who is attributed to the 11 fountains in Old Town?
56e88a380b45c0140094ccf1
Hans Gieng
514
False
It includes the entire Old Town, which is also a UNESCO World Heritage Site, and many sites within and around it. Some of the most notable in the Old Town include the Cathedral which was started in 1421 and is the tallest cathedral in Switzerland, the Zytglogge and Käfigturm towers, which mark two successive expansions of the Old Town, and the Holy Ghost Church, which is one of the largest Swiss Reformed churches in Switzerland. Within the Old Town, there are eleven 16th century fountains, most attributed to Hans Gieng, that are on the list.
What subtitles are included in the movies?
56e88fc799e8941900975e89
German and French subtitles
138
False
Bern has several dozen cinemas. As is customary in Switzerland, films are generally shown in their original language (e.g., English) with German and French subtitles. Only a small number of screenings are dubbed in German.
What year was the Football World Cup Final in Bern?
56e8904199e8941900975e8d
1954
25
False
Who won the game?
56e8904199e8941900975e8f
West Germany
132
False
What football team is based in Bern?
56e8904199e8941900975e90
BSC Young Boys
164
False
Bern was the site of the 1954 Football (Soccer) World Cup Final, a huge upset for the Hungarian Golden Team, who were beaten 3–2 by West Germany. The football team BSC Young Boys is based in Bern at the Stade de Suisse Wankdorf, which also was one of the venues for the European football championship 2008 in which it hosted 3 matches.
What is the major hockey league team of Bern?
56e8909199e8941900975e95
SC Bern
0
False
Where do they play?
56e8909199e8941900975e96
PostFinance Arena
62
False
What year was the IIHF Ice Hockey World Championship held in Bern?
56e8909199e8941900975e98
2009
221
False
SC Bern is the major ice hockey team of Bern who plays at the PostFinance Arena. The team has ranked highest in attendance for a European hockey team for more than a decade. The PostFinance Arena was the main host of the 2009 IIHF Ice Hockey World Championship, including the opening game and the final of the tournament.
What year did Bern want to host the Winter Olympics?
56e890ee99e8941900975e9d
2010
33
False
What year did they withdraw their bid?
56e890ee99e8941900975e9e
2002
89
False
Where were the 2010 Winter Olympics held?
56e890ee99e8941900975ea0
Vancouver, Canada
217
False
Bern was a candidate to host the 2010 Winter Olympics, but withdrew its bid in September 2002 after a referendum was passed that showed that the bid was not supported by locals. Those games were eventually awarded to Vancouver, Canada.
What was Berns unemployment rate in 2010?
56e961270b45c0140094cdd5
3.3%
53
False
How many businesses are there in the primary sector?
56e961270b45c0140094cdd6
59
91
False
How many businesses are there in the secondary sector?
56e961270b45c0140094cdd7
950
257
False
How many businesses are there in the tertiary sector?
56e961270b45c0140094cdd8
7,654
346
False
As of 2010[update], Bern had an unemployment rate of 3.3%. As of 2008[update], there were 259 people employed in the primary economic sector and about 59 businesses involved in this sector. 16,413 people were employed in the secondary sector and there were 950 businesses in this sector. 135,973 people were employed in the tertiary sector, with 7,654 businesses in this sector.
How many full time jobs were there in 2008?
56e961ae0b45c0140094cddd
125,037.
66
False
How many jobs in the primary sector were agrictulture?
56e961ae0b45c0140094cdde
184
134
False
How many jobs in the primary sector were in forestry or lumber production?
56e961ae0b45c0140094cddf
19
162
False
How many jobs are in the secondary sector?
56e961ae0b45c0140094cde0
15,476
251
False
How many jobs are in the tertiary secotr?
56e961ae0b45c0140094cde1
109,358
421
False
In 2008[update] the total number of full-time equivalent jobs was 125,037. The number of jobs in the primary sector was 203, of which 184 were in agriculture and 19 were in forestry or lumber production. The number of jobs in the secondary sector was 15,476 of which 7,650 or (49.4%) were in manufacturing, 51 or (0.3%) were in mining and 6,389 (41.3%) were in construction. The number of jobs in the tertiary sector was 109,358. In the tertiary sector; 11,396 or 10.4% were in wholesale or retail sales or the repair of motor vehicles, 10,293 or 9.4% were in the movement and storage of goods, 5,090 or 4.7% were in a hotel or restaurant, 7,302 or 6.7% were in the information industry, 8,437 or 7.7% were the insurance or financial industry, 10,660 or 9.7% were technical professionals or scientists, 5,338 or 4.9% were in education and 17,903 or 16.4% were in health care.
How many workers commute into the municipality?
56e962100b45c0140094cde7
94,367
28
False
How many workers had to commute away from the municipality?
56e962100b45c0140094cde8
16,424
82
False
How much of the working population uses public transportation?
56e962100b45c0140094cde9
50.6%
262
False
How many of the working population use private cars?
56e962100b45c0140094cdea
20.6%
310
False
In 2000[update], there were 94,367 workers who commuted into the municipality and 16,424 workers who commuted away. The municipality is a net importer of workers, with about 5.7 workers entering the municipality for every one leaving. Of the working population, 50.6% used public transport to get to work, and 20.6% used a private car.
Where are the majority of the buildings for the University of Bern?
56e9624799e8941900975f75
Länggasse quarter
66
False
The University of Bern, whose buildings are mainly located in the Länggasse quarter, is located in Bern, as well as the University of Applied Sciences (Fachhochschule) and several vocations schools.
What percent of the population has completed non-mandatory upper secondary education?
56e962d799e8941900975f79
39.2%
26
False
What percent of the population has completed additionaly higher education?
56e962d799e8941900975f7a
18.9%
122
False
The majority of the population to finish tertiary schooling in bern are what people?
56e962d799e8941900975f7b
Swiss men
272
False
In Bern, about 50,418 or (39.2%) of the population have completed non-mandatory upper secondary education, and 24,311 or (18.9%) have completed additional higher education (either university or a Fachhochschule). Of the 24,311 who completed tertiary schooling, 51.6% were Swiss men, 33.0% were Swiss women, 8.9% were non-Swiss men and 6.5% were non-Swiss women.
Do you have to go to the one year of kindergarten?
56e9634c99e8941900975f7f
non
54
False
What seperates the children in secondary school?
56e9634c99e8941900975f82
ability and aptitude
237
False
The Canton of Bern school system provides one year of non-obligatory kindergarten, followed by six years of primary school. This is followed by three years of obligatory lower secondary school where the pupils are separated according to ability and aptitude. Following the lower secondary pupils may attend additional schooling or they may enter an apprenticeship.
How many students were attending school during the 2009-2010 school year?
56e963a699e8941900975f89
10,979
54
False
How many kindergarten classes were there?
56e963a699e8941900975f8a
89
106
False
How many primary classes were there?
56e963a699e8941900975f8b
266
375
False
How many lower secondary classes were there?
56e963a699e8941900975f8c
151
615
False
During the 2009–10 school year, there were a total of 10,979 pupils attending classes in Bern. There were 89 kindergarten classes with a total of 1,641 pupils in the municipality. Of the kindergarten pupils, 32.4% were permanent or temporary residents of Switzerland (not citizens) and 40.2% have a different mother language than the classroom language. The municipality had 266 primary classes and 5,040 pupils. Of the primary pupils, 30.1% were permanent or temporary residents of Switzerland (not citizens) and 35.7% have a different mother language than the classroom language. During the same year, there were 151 lower secondary classes with a total of 2,581 pupils. There were 28.7% who were permanent or temporary residents of Switzerland (not citizens) and 32.7% have a different mother language than the classroom language.
How many libraries are in Bern?
56e9641f99e8941900975f91
8
16
False
Bern is home to 8 libraries. These libraries include; the Schweiz. Nationalbibliothek/ Bibliothèque nationale suisse, the Universitätsbibliothek Bern, the Kornhausbibliotheken Bern, the BFH Wirtschaft und Verwaltung Bern, the BFH Gesundheit, the BFH Soziale Arbeit, the Hochschule der Künste Bern, Gestaltung und Kunst and the Hochschule der Künste Bern, Musikbibliothek. There was a combined total (as of 2008[update]) of 10,308,336 books or other media in the libraries, and in the same year a total of 2,627,973 items were loaned out.
How many pupils lived in another municipality?
56e9644c0b45c0140094cdef
9,045
31
False
How many pupils attended school outside of the city?
56e9644c0b45c0140094cdf0
1,185
94
False
As of 2000[update], there were 9,045 pupils in Bern who came from another municipality, while 1,185 residents attended schools outside the municipality.
What connects Marzili to Bundeshaus?
56e965080b45c0140094cdf5
A funicular railway
0
False
How long is the Marzilibah funicular?
56e965080b45c0140094cdf6
106 m
118
False
What is the second shortest public railway in Europe?
56e965080b45c0140094cdf7
Marzilibahn
75
False
What is the shortest public railway in Europe?
56e965080b45c0140094cdf8
Zagreb funicular
189
False
A funicular railway leads from the Marzili district to the Bundeshaus. The Marzilibahn funicular is, with a length of 106 m (348 ft), the second shortest public railway in Europe after the Zagreb funicular.
What is the name of Bern's airport?
56e965790b45c0140094cdfd
Bern Airport
23
False
What is the name of the regional airport?
56e965790b45c0140094cdff
Bern-Belp or Belpmoos
127
False
Bern is also served by Bern Airport, located outside the city near the town of Belp. The regional airport, colloquially called Bern-Belp or Belpmoos, is connected to several European cities. Additionally Zürich Airport, Geneva Airport and EuroAirport Basel-Mulhouse-Freiburg also serve as international gateways, all reachable within two hours by car or train from Bern.
Westminster_Abbey
What is the formal name of Westminster Abbey?
56e8ceee99e8941900975ea5
the Collegiate Church of St Peter at Westminster
35
False
Where is Westminster Abbey located?
56e8ceee99e8941900975ea6
City of Westminster, London
131
False
When was Westminster Abbey a cathedral?
56e8ceee99e8941900975ea8
Between 1540 and 1556
394
False
What has been the status of Westminster Abbey since 1560?
56e8ceee99e8941900975ea9
Church of England "Royal Peculiar"
561
False
Collegiate Church of St Peter at Westminster
39
What was Westminster Abbey's informal name?
5ad3f0fe604f3c001a3ff851
True
Gothic
104
What style architecture is the Westminster Abbey not considered?
5ad3f0fe604f3c001a3ff852
True
City of Westminster, London
131
In what country is Westminster Abbey located?
5ad3f0fe604f3c001a3ff853
True
Between 1540 and 1556
394
In what years wasn't the Abbey considered a cathedral?
5ad3f0fe604f3c001a3ff854
True
Royal Peculiar
580
What type of building is the Abbey not considered?
5ad3f0fe604f3c001a3ff855
True
Westminster Abbey, formally titled the Collegiate Church of St Peter at Westminster, is a large, mainly Gothic abbey church in the City of Westminster, London, located just to the west of the Palace of Westminster. It is one of the most notable religious buildings in the United Kingdom and has been the traditional place of coronation and burial site for English and, later, British monarchs. Between 1540 and 1556 the abbey had the status of a cathedral. Since 1560, however, the building is no longer an abbey nor a cathedral, having instead the status of a Church of England "Royal Peculiar"—a church responsible directly to the sovereign. The building itself is the original abbey church.
What is the meaning of Thorn Ey?
56e8cfd799e8941900975eaf
Thorn Island
124
False
When was a church first founded at the site?
56e8cfd799e8941900975eb0
7th century
146
False
Who was Mellitus?
56e8cfd799e8941900975eb1
a Bishop of London
184
False
When was construction of the present church started?
56e8cfd799e8941900975eb2
1245
248
False
Who ordered the construction of the church?
56e8cfd799e8941900975eb3
King Henry III
271
False
1245
248
What year did the destruction of the church begin?
5ad3f188604f3c001a3ff875
True
King Henry III
271
Who commissioned the Abbey to be destroyed?
5ad3f188604f3c001a3ff876
True
Thorn Ey (Thorn Island)
114
What was the area never named?
5ad3f188604f3c001a3ff877
True
7th century
146
In what century wasn't the church established at the location?
5ad3f188604f3c001a3ff878
True
Mellitus, a Bishop of London
174
Who wasn't the Bishop in this time frame?
5ad3f188604f3c001a3ff879
True
According to a tradition first reported by Sulcard in about 1080, a church was founded at the site (then known as Thorn Ey (Thorn Island)) in the 7th century, at the time of Mellitus, a Bishop of London. Construction of the present church began in 1245, on the orders of King Henry III.
Who were the first monarchs crowned at Westminster Abbey?
56e8d28e0b45c0140094ccf7
Harold Godwinson and William the Conqueror
17
False
Since when have coronations been held at Westminster Abbey?
56e8d28e0b45c0140094ccf8
1066
6
False
How many royal weddings have occurred at the abbey?
56e8d28e0b45c0140094ccf9
16
169
False
Which two reigning monarchs had weddings at the abbey?
56e8d28e0b45c0140094ccfa
Henry I and Richard II
243
False
When did royal weddings begin at the church?
56e8d28e0b45c0140094ccfb
1100
206
False
Harold Godwinson and William the Conqueror
17
Who were the last monarchs crowned at Westminster Abbey?
5ad3f1d6604f3c001a3ff893
True
1066
6
Since when haven't coronations been held at Westminster Abbey?
5ad3f1d6604f3c001a3ff894
True
16
169
How many royal weddings haven't occurred at the abbey?
5ad3f1d6604f3c001a3ff895
True
Henry I and Richard II
243
Which two reigning monarchs had funerals at the abbey?
5ad3f1d6604f3c001a3ff896
True
1100
206
When did royal weddings end at the church?
5ad3f1d6604f3c001a3ff897
True
Since 1066, when Harold Godwinson and William the Conqueror were crowned, the coronations of English and British monarchs have been held there. There have been at least 16 royal weddings at the abbey since 1100. Two were of reigning monarchs (Henry I and Richard II), although, before 1919, there had been none for some 500 years.
Who supposedly had a vison of Saint Peter on the River Thames?
56e8d4b899e8941900975eb9
Aldrich
100
False
Who first gifted salmon to the abbey?
56e8d4b899e8941900975eba
Thames fishermen
231
False
Who still gives salmon to the abbey today?
56e8d4b899e8941900975ebb
Fishmonger's Company
312
False
When was the monk community installed?
56e8d4b899e8941900975ebd
960s or early 970s
401
False
Aldrich
100
What was the name of the fisherman in lore that saw a vision of Saint Paul near the Abbey?
5ad3f258604f3c001a3ff8a7
True
salmon
219
What type of fish did the Abbey give to Thames fisherman?
5ad3f258604f3c001a3ff8a8
True
Benedictine
485
What kind of monks died at the Abbey?
5ad3f259604f3c001a3ff8a9
True
Fishmonger's Company
312
Who, till this day still gives the Abbey a bun?
5ad3f259604f3c001a3ff8aa
True
Saint Dunstan
421
Who along with the Prince Edgar established the monks at the Abbey?
5ad3f259604f3c001a3ff8ab
True
The first reports of the abbey are based on a late tradition claiming that a young fisherman called Aldrich on the River Thames saw a vision of Saint Peter near the site. This seems to be quoted to justify the gifts of salmon from Thames fishermen that the abbey received in later years. In the present era, the Fishmonger's Company still gives a salmon every year. The proven origins are that in the 960s or early 970s, Saint Dunstan, assisted by King Edgar, installed a community of Benedictine monks here.
Who rebuilt the abbey for a burial church?
56e8d58c0b45c0140094cd01
King Edward the Confessor
22
False
What style was the church rebuilt in?
56e8d58c0b45c0140094cd02
Romanesque
177
False
When was the building consecrated?
56e8d58c0b45c0140094cd03
28 December 1065
267
False
When did King Edward the Confessor die?
56e8d58c0b45c0140094cd04
5 January 1066
322
False
Who was the first documented coronation?
56e8d58c0b45c0140094cd05
William the Conqueror
555
False
Romanesque style
177
What architectural design wasn't St Peter's abbey considered?
5ad3f29f604f3c001a3ff8c1
True
1090
239
What year was the building started?
5ad3f29f604f3c001a3ff8c2
True
28 December 1065
267
What was the date of the Abbey's demolition?
5ad3f29f604f3c001a3ff8c3
True
William the Conqueror
555
Who was the last recorded coronation at the Abbey?
5ad3f29f604f3c001a3ff8c4
True
King Edward the Confessor
22
What King restored the Abbey in the years 1042 and 1062?
5ad3f29f604f3c001a3ff8c5
True
Between 1042 and 1052 King Edward the Confessor began rebuilding St Peter's Abbey to provide himself with a royal burial church. It was the first church in England built in the Romanesque style. The building was not completed until around 1090 but was consecrated on 28 December 1065, only a week before Edward's death on 5 January 1066. A week later he was buried in the church, and nine years later his wife Edith was buried alongside him. His successor, Harold II, was probably crowned in the abbey, although the first documented coronation is that of William the Conqueror later the same year.
Where is the only existant depiction of Edward's abbey?
56e8d6da99e8941900975ec3
Bayeux Tapestry
105
False
What was the original size of Dunstan's original monk community?
56e8d6da99e8941900975ec4
a dozen
382
False
How was the community able to increase?
56e8d6da99e8941900975ec6
endowments
334
False
What is adjacent the abbey?
56e8d6da99e8941900975ec7
Palace of Westminster
72
False
Bayeux Tapestry
105
Where is the only nonexistant depiction of Edward's abbey?
5ad3f31d604f3c001a3ff8db
True
a dozen
382
What was the final size of Dunstan's original monk community?
5ad3f31d604f3c001a3ff8dc
True
endowments
334
How was the community unable to increase?
5ad3f31d604f3c001a3ff8dd
True
endowments
334
How was the community able to decrease?
5ad3f31d604f3c001a3ff8de
True
Palace of Westminster
72
What is far away from the abbey?
5ad3f31d604f3c001a3ff8df
True
The only extant depiction of Edward's abbey, together with the adjacent Palace of Westminster, is in the Bayeux Tapestry. Some of the lower parts of the monastic dormitory, an extension of the South Transept, survive in the Norman undercroft of the Great School, including a door said to come from the previous Saxon abbey. Increased endowments supported a community increased from a dozen monks in Dunstan's original foundation, up to a maximum about eighty monks, although there was also a large community of lay brothers who supported the monastery's extensive property and activities.
Who became a powerful force after the Norman Conquest?
56e8d85b0b45c0140094cd0b
The abbot and monks
0
False
The Palace of Westminster was the seat of what from the later 12th century?
56e8d85b0b45c0140094cd0c
government
82
False
Who was employed on royal service?
56e8d85b0b45c0140094cd0d
The abbot
0
False
With what kind of life were the Benedictines allowed to identify?
56e8d85b0b45c0140094cd0e
secular
608
False
To what movement was the task of spiritual leadership passed?
56e8d85b0b45c0140094cd0f
Cluniac
384
False
abbot and monks
4
Who became a weak force after the Norman Conquest?
5ad3f384604f3c001a3ff90f
True
government
82
The Palace of Westminster was the seat of what from the later 11th century?
5ad3f384604f3c001a3ff910
True
The abbot
0
Who was unemployed on royal service?
5ad3f384604f3c001a3ff911
True
secular
608
With what kind of life were the Benedictines allowed to misidentify?
5ad3f384604f3c001a3ff912
True
Cluniac
384
To what movement wasn't the task of spiritual leadership passed?
5ad3f384604f3c001a3ff913
True
The abbot and monks, in proximity to the royal Palace of Westminster, the seat of government from the later 12th century, became a powerful force in the centuries after the Norman Conquest. The abbot often was employed on royal service and in due course took his place in the House of Lords as of right. Released from the burdens of spiritual leadership, which passed to the reformed Cluniac movement after the mid-10th century, and occupied with the administration of great landed properties, some of which lay far from Westminster, "the Benedictines achieved a remarkable degree of identification with the secular life of their times, and particularly with upper-class life", Barbara Harvey concludes, to the extent that her depiction of daily life provides a wider view of the concerns of the English gentry in the High and Late Middle Ages.[citation needed]
What did the abbot remain as a town built around the abbey?
56e8d9ab99e8941900975ecd
Lord of the Manor of Westminster
221
False
What did the monastery help fuel?
56e8d9ab99e8941900975ece
the town economy
383
False
What did the abbey build on the west side?
56e8d9ab99e8941900975ecf
shops and dwellings
537
False
What encroached upon the sanctuary?
56e8d9ab99e8941900975ed1
shops and dwellings
537
False
Lord of the Manor of Westminster
221
What did the abbot remain as a town built inside the abbey?
5ad3f3d9604f3c001a3ff919
True
the town economy
383
What did the monastery help kill?
5ad3f3d9604f3c001a3ff91a
True
the town economy
383
What didn't the monastery help fuel?
5ad3f3d9604f3c001a3ff91b
True
shops and dwellings
537
What did the abbey build on the east side?
5ad3f3d9604f3c001a3ff91c
True
shops and dwellings
537
What never encroached upon the sanctuary?
5ad3f3d9604f3c001a3ff91d
True
The proximity of the Palace of Westminster did not extend to providing monks or abbots with high royal connections; in social origin the Benedictines of Westminster were as modest as most of the order. The abbot remained Lord of the Manor of Westminster as a town of two to three thousand persons grew around it: as a consumer and employer on a grand scale the monastery helped fuel the town economy, and relations with the town remained unusually cordial, but no enfranchising charter was issued during the Middle Ages. The abbey built shops and dwellings on the west side, encroaching upon the sanctuary.[citation needed]
What was the abbey to Norman kings?
56e8daed0b45c0140094cd17
coronation site
21
False
What architect continued work on the abbey?
56e8daed0b45c0140094cd18
Henry Yevele
495
False
Who was reigning when Henry Yevele finished his work on the abbey?
56e8daed0b45c0140094cd19
Richard II
524
False
What kind of pavement was commissioned for in front of the High Altar?
56e8daed0b45c0140094cd1a
Cosmati
571
False
What played a large role in King Edward the Confessor's canonisation?
56e8daed0b45c0140094cd1b
The Confessor's shrine
335
False
coronation site
21
What was the abbey to Norman queens?
5ad3f42d604f3c001a3ff92b
True
Henry Yevele
495
What architect stopped work on the abbey?
5ad3f42d604f3c001a3ff92c
True
Richard II
524
Who was reigning when Henry Yevele started his work on the abbey?
5ad3f42d604f3c001a3ff92d
True
Cosmati
571
What kind of pavement was commissioned for in front of the Low Altar?
5ad3f42d604f3c001a3ff92e
True
The Confessor's shrine
335
What played a small role in King Edward the Confessor's canonisation?
5ad3f42d604f3c001a3ff92f
True
The abbey became the coronation site of Norman kings. None were buried there until Henry III, intensely devoted to the cult of the Confessor, rebuilt the abbey in Anglo-French Gothic style as a shrine to venerate King Edward the Confessor and as a suitably regal setting for Henry's own tomb, under the highest Gothic nave in England. The Confessor's shrine subsequently played a great part in his canonisation. The work continued between 1245 and 1517 and was largely finished by the architect Henry Yevele in the reign of Richard II. Henry III also commissioned unique Cosmati pavement in front of the High Altar (the pavement has recently undergone a major cleaning and conservation programme and was re-dedicated by the Dean at a service on 21 May 2010).
Who added a Perpendicular style chapel?
56e8dbaa99e8941900975ed7
Henry VII
0
False
Who was the Perpendicular style chapel dedicated to?
56e8dbaa99e8941900975ed8
Blessed Virgin Mary
62
False
What part of France did the Caen stone come from?
56e8dbaa99e8941900975ed9
Caen
172
False
Where did the Portland stone come from?
56e8dbaa99e8941900975eda
Isle of Portland
206
False
When was the Lady Chapel added?
56e8dbaa99e8941900975edb
1503
85
False
Henry VII
0
Who took away a Perpendicular style chapel?
5ad3f47e604f3c001a3ff947
True
Blessed Virgin Mary
62
Who was the Perpendicular style chapel undedicated to?
5ad3f47e604f3c001a3ff948
True
Caen
172
What part of England did the Caen stone come from?
5ad3f47e604f3c001a3ff949
True
Isle of Portland
206
Where did the Portland wood come from?
5ad3f47e604f3c001a3ff94a
True
1503
85
When was the Lady Chapel subtracted?
5ad3f47e604f3c001a3ff94b
True
Henry VII added a Perpendicular style chapel dedicated to the Blessed Virgin Mary in 1503 (known as the Henry VII Chapel or the "Lady Chapel"). Much of the stone came from Caen, in France (Caen stone), the Isle of Portland (Portland stone) and the Loire Valley region of France (tuffeau limestone).[citation needed]
When was the abbey's annual income £2400–2800?
56e8dca40b45c0140094cd21
1535
3
False
What was the abbey's annual income as of 2016?
56e8dca40b45c0140094cd22
£1,310,000 to £1,530,000
67
False
To which other abbey was Westminster Abbey second in wealth?
56e8dca40b45c0140094cd23
Glastonbury Abbey
212
False
During what was the abbey made second in wealth?
56e8dca40b45c0140094cd24
the assessment attendant on the Dissolution of the Monasteries
112
False
1535
3
When was the abbey's annual income £2400–2700?
5ad3f4c7604f3c001a3ff959
True
£1,310,000 to £1,530,000
67
What was the abbey's annual income as of 2015?
5ad3f4c7604f3c001a3ff95a
True
Glastonbury Abbey
212
To which other abbey was Westminster Abbey first in wealth?
5ad3f4c7604f3c001a3ff95b
True
the assessment attendant on the Dissolution of the Monasteries
112
During what was the abbey made third in wealth?
5ad3f4c7604f3c001a3ff95c
True
1535
3
When was the abbey's annual debt £2400–2700?
5ad3f4c7604f3c001a3ff95d
True
In 1535, the abbey's annual income of £2400–2800[citation needed] (£1,310,000 to £1,530,000 as of 2016), during the assessment attendant on the Dissolution of the Monasteries rendered it second in wealth only to Glastonbury Abbey.
When did Henry VIII take direct royal control?
56e8dd8c0b45c0140094cd29
1539
43
False
Who gave the abbey status of a cathedral in 1540?
56e8dd8c0b45c0140094cd2a
Henry VIII
0
False
What did the cathedral status save the abbey from?
56e8dd8c0b45c0140094cd2b
destruction
283
False
What did changing the status of the abbey create?
56e8dd8c0b45c0140094cd2c
the Diocese of Westminster
167
False
1539
43
When did Henry VII take direct royal control?
5ad3f531604f3c001a3ff973
True
1539
43
When did Henry VIII take indirect royal control?
5ad3f531604f3c001a3ff974
True
Henry VIII
0
Who gave the abbey status of a cathedral in 1504?
5ad3f531604f3c001a3ff975
True
destruction
283
What did the cathedral status not save the abbey from?
5ad3f531604f3c001a3ff976
True
Henry VIII assumed direct royal control in 1539 and granted the abbey the status of a cathedral by charter in 1540, simultaneously issuing letters patent establishing the Diocese of Westminster. By granting the abbey cathedral status Henry VIII gained an excuse to spare it from the destruction or dissolution which he inflicted on most English abbeys during this period.
When was Westminster Diocese dissolved?
56e8de4b99e8941900975ee1
1550
37
False
The abbey was recognised as what until 1556?
56e8de4b99e8941900975ee2
a second cathedral of the Diocese of London
108
False
Who is the abbey dedicated to?
56e8de4b99e8941900975ee3
Saint Peter
313
False
1550
37
When was Westminster Diocese resolved?
5ad3f576604f3c001a3ff98f
True
1550
37
When was Eastminster Diocese dissolved?
5ad3f576604f3c001a3ff990
True
a second cathedral of the Diocese of London
108
The abbey was recognised as what after 1556?
5ad3f576604f3c001a3ff991
True
a second cathedral of the Diocese of London
108
The abbey was recognised as what until 1565?
5ad3f576604f3c001a3ff992
True
Saint Peter
313
Who isn't the abbey dedicated to?
5ad3f576604f3c001a3ff993
True
Westminster diocese was dissolved in 1550, but the abbey was recognised (in 1552, retroactively to 1550) as a second cathedral of the Diocese of London until 1556. The already-old expression "robbing Peter to pay Paul" may have been given a new lease of life when money meant for the abbey, which is dedicated to Saint Peter, was diverted to the treasury of St Paul's Cathedral.
The abbey was regiven to the Benedictines under whom?
56e8df710b45c0140094cd31
Mary I of England
62
False
Who ejected the Benedictines again in 1559?
56e8df710b45c0140094cd32
Elizabeth I
115
False
What was the new name of the abbey when Elizabeth I reestablished it?
56e8df710b45c0140094cd34
Collegiate Church of St Peter
330
False
Who was made the first dean of the new church?
56e8df710b45c0140094cd35
The last of Mary's abbots
448
False
Mary I of England
62
The abbey was forgiven to the Benedictines under whom?
5ad3f5d6604f3c001a3ff9b1
True
Mary I of England
62
The abbey wasn't regiven to the Benedictines under whom?
5ad3f5d6604f3c001a3ff9b2
True
Elizabeth I
115
Who accepted the Benedictines again in 1559?
5ad3f5d6604f3c001a3ff9b3
True
Elizabeth I
115
Who ejected the Benedictines again in 1595?
5ad3f5d6604f3c001a3ff9b4
True
The last of Mary's abbots
448
What was the new name of the abbey when Elizabeth II reestablished it?
5ad3f5d6604f3c001a3ff9b5
True
The abbey was restored to the Benedictines under the Catholic Mary I of England, but they were again ejected under Elizabeth I in 1559. In 1560, Elizabeth re-established Westminster as a "Royal Peculiar" – a church of the Church of England responsible directly to the Sovereign, rather than to a diocesan bishop – and made it the Collegiate Church of St Peter (that is, a non-cathedral church with an attached chapter of canons, headed by a dean.) The last of Mary's abbots was made the first dean.
When did the abbey suffer damage?
56e8e01299e8941900975ee9
1640s
40
False
Who attacked the abbey?
56e8e01299e8941900975eea
Puritan iconoclasts
71
False
What protected the abbey?
56e8e01299e8941900975eeb
ties to the state during the Commonwealth
129
False
Who had a fancy funeral at the abbey in 1658?
56e8e01299e8941900975eec
Oliver Cromwell
179
False
When was Oliver Cromwell disinterred?
56e8e01299e8941900975eed
January 1661
267
False
1640s
40
When didn't the abbey suffer damage?
5ad3f62d604f3c001a3ff9c5
True
Puritan iconoclasts
71
Who defended the abbey?
5ad3f62d604f3c001a3ff9c6
True
ties to the state during the Commonwealth period
129
What attacked the abbey?
5ad3f62d604f3c001a3ff9c7
True
Oliver Cromwell
179
Who had a fancy funeral at the abbey in 1685?
5ad3f62d604f3c001a3ff9c8
True
January 1661
267
When was Oliver Cromwell murdered?
5ad3f62d604f3c001a3ff9c9
True
It suffered damage during the turbulent 1640s, when it was attacked by Puritan iconoclasts, but was again protected by its close ties to the state during the Commonwealth period. Oliver Cromwell was given an elaborate funeral there in 1658, only to be disinterred in January 1661 and posthumously hanged from a gibbet at Tyburn.
When were the western towers built?
56e8e4930b45c0140094cd3b
between 1722 and 1745
42
False
Who built the western towers of the abbey?
56e8e4930b45c0140094cd3c
Nicholas Hawksmoor
67
False
What kind of marble was used for the walls and floors of the abbey?
56e8e4930b45c0140094cd3d
Purbeck
167
False
Under whom did the 19th century rebulding occur?
56e8e4930b45c0140094cd3e
Sir George Gilbert Scott
386
False
What were the two western towers built from?
56e8e4930b45c0140094cd3f
Portland stone
104
False
between 1722 and 1745
42
When were the eastern towers built?
5ad3f678604f3c001a3ff9d9
True
Nicholas Hawksmoor
67
Who built the eastern towers of the abbey?
5ad3f678604f3c001a3ff9da
True
Purbeck
167
What kind of marble was used for the ceilings of the abbey?
5ad3f678604f3c001a3ff9db
True
Sir George Gilbert Scott
386
Under whom did the 18th century rebulding occur?
5ad3f678604f3c001a3ff9dc
True
Portland stone
104
What were the three western towers built from?
5ad3f678604f3c001a3ff9dd
True
The abbey's two western towers were built between 1722 and 1745 by Nicholas Hawksmoor, constructed from Portland stone to an early example of a Gothic Revival design. Purbeck marble was used for the walls and the floors of Westminster Abbey, even though the various tombstones are made of different types of marble. Further rebuilding and restoration occurred in the 19th century under Sir George Gilbert Scott.
What was designed for the west front of the abbey but not built?
56e8e5520b45c0140094cd45
A narthex
0
False
When was the narthex designed?
56e8e5520b45c0140094cd47
mid-20th century
99
False
The abbey was without towers following the renovation by whom?
56e8e5520b45c0140094cd48
Yevele
297
False
A narthex
0
What was redesigned for the west front of the abbey but not built?
5ad3f6d6604f3c001a3ff9f7
True
A narthex
0
What was designed for the east front of the abbey but not built?
5ad3f6d6604f3c001a3ff9f8
True
mid-20th century
99
When was the narthex redesigned?
5ad3f6d6604f3c001a3ff9f9
True
Yevele
297
The abbey was with towers following the renovation by whom?
5ad3f6d6604f3c001a3ff9fa
True
Yevele
297
The abbey was without towers following the destruction by whom?
5ad3f6d6604f3c001a3ff9fb
True
A narthex (a portico or entrance hall) for the west front was designed by Sir Edwin Lutyens in the mid-20th century but was not built. Images of the abbey prior to the construction of the towers are scarce, though the abbey's official website states that the building was without towers following Yevele's renovation, with just the lower segments beneath the roof level of the Nave completed.
Westminster Abbey was the third highest place of learning after which two places?
56e8e69d0b45c0140094cd4d
Oxford and Cambridge
85
False
The first third of what was translated at the abbey?
56e8e69d0b45c0140094cd4e
King James Bible Old Testament
147
False
The last half of what was also translated at the abbey?
56e8e69d0b45c0140094cd4f
New Testament
203
False
The New English Bible was composed at the abbey during what time?
56e8e69d0b45c0140094cd50
20th century
290
False
Westminster Abbey suffered damage during what on 15 November 1940?
56e8e69d0b45c0140094cd51
the Blitz
345
False
Oxford and Cambridge
85
Westminster Abbey was the third lowest place of learning after which two places?
5ad3f728604f3c001a3ffa15
True
King James Bible Old Testament
147
The first quarter of what was translated at the abbey?
5ad3f728604f3c001a3ffa16
True
New Testament
203
The first half of what was also translated at the abbey?
5ad3f728604f3c001a3ffa17
True
20th century
290
The Old English Bible was composed at the abbey during what time?
5ad3f728604f3c001a3ffa18
True
the Blitz
345
Westminster Abbey suffered damage during what on 15 November 1904?
5ad3f728604f3c001a3ffa19
True
Until the 19th century, Westminster was the third seat of learning in England, after Oxford and Cambridge. It was here that the first third of the King James Bible Old Testament and the last half of the New Testament were translated. The New English Bible was also put together here in the 20th century. Westminster suffered minor damage during the Blitz on 15 November 1940.
Who painted the icons hung in the abbey in the 1990s?
56e8e77a99e8941900975ef5
Sergei Fyodorov
51
False
What was held at the abbey on 6 September 1997?
56e8e77a99e8941900975ef6
funeral of Diana, Princess of Wales
115
False
Who was the first pope to set foot in the abbey?
56e8e77a99e8941900975ef7
Pope Benedict XVI
196
False
On what date did the first pope set foot in the abbey?
56e8e77a99e8941900975ef8
17 September 2010
178
False
What nationality was Sergei Fyodorov?
56e8e77a99e8941900975ef9
Russian
30
False
Sergei Fyodorov
51
Who painted the icons hung in the abbey in the 1980s?
5ad3f788604f3c001a3ffa1f
True
funeral of Diana, Princess of Wales
115
What was held at the abbey on 6 September 1996?
5ad3f788604f3c001a3ffa20
True
Pope Benedict XVI
196
Who was the last pope to set foot in the abbey?
5ad3f788604f3c001a3ffa21
True
17 September 2010
178
On what date did the last pope set foot in the abbey?
5ad3f788604f3c001a3ffa22
True
Russian
30
What nationality was Sergei Fedorov?
5ad3f788604f3c001a3ffa23
True
In the 1990s two icons by the Russian icon painter Sergei Fyodorov were hung in the abbey. On 6 September 1997 the funeral of Diana, Princess of Wales, was held at the Abbey. On 17 September 2010 Pope Benedict XVI became the first pope to set foot in the abbey.
Where was Henry III crowned?
56e8e8bf0b45c0140094cd57
Gloucester Cathedral
327
False
When was Henry III crowned?
56e8e8bf0b45c0140094cd58
1216
148
False
Who had taken control of London when Henry III was to be crowned?
56e8e8bf0b45c0140094cd59
French prince Louis
245
False
Who deemed Henry III's coronation to be improper?
56e8e8bf0b45c0140094cd5a
the Pope
379
False
Who is the usual cleric for coronation ceremonies?
56e8e8bf0b45c0140094cd5b
The Archbishop of Canterbury
467
False
Gloucester Cathedral
327
Where was Henry II crowned?
5ad3f7c5604f3c001a3ffa41
True
1216
148
When was Henry II crowned?
5ad3f7c5604f3c001a3ffa42
True
French prince Louis
245
Who had taken control of London when Henry II was to be crowned?
5ad3f7c5604f3c001a3ffa43
True
the Pope
379
Who deemed Henry II's coronation to be improper?
5ad3f7c5604f3c001a3ffa44
True
The Archbishop of Canterbury
467
Who is the unusual cleric for coronation ceremonies?
5ad3f7c5604f3c001a3ffa45
True
Since the coronations in 1066 of both King Harold and William the Conqueror, coronations of English and British monarchs were held in the abbey. In 1216, Henry III was unable to be crowned in London when he first came to the throne, because the French prince Louis had taken control of the city, and so the king was crowned in Gloucester Cathedral. This coronation was deemed by the Pope to be improper, and a further coronation was held in the abbey on 17 May 1220. The Archbishop of Canterbury is the traditional cleric in the coronation ceremony.[citation needed]
What is the name of the throne used for coronation?
56e8e97d99e8941900975eff
King Edward's Chair
0
False
What is another name for King Edward's Chair?
56e8e97d99e8941900975f00
St Edward's Chair
24
False
Upon what are kings of Scots coronated?
56e8e97d99e8941900975f01
the Stone of Scone
349
False
Who had stolen the Stone of Scone?
56e8e97d99e8941900975f03
Scottish nationalists
303
False
King Edward's Chair
0
What is the name of the throne unused for coronation?
5ad3f81b604f3c001a3ffa53
True
St Edward's Chair
24
What isn't another name for King Edward's Chair?
5ad3f81b604f3c001a3ffa54
True
Stone of Scone
353
Upon what are kings of Wales coronated?
5ad3f81b604f3c001a3ffa55
True
Scottish nationalists
303
Who had stolen the Stone of Stone?
5ad3f81b604f3c001a3ffa56
True
Scottish nationalists
303
Who had protected the Stone of Scone?
5ad3f81b604f3c001a3ffa57
True
King Edward's Chair (or St Edward's Chair), the throne on which English and British sovereigns have been seated at the moment of coronation, is housed within the abbey and has been used at every coronation since 1308. From 1301 to 1996 (except for a short time in 1950 when it was temporarily stolen by Scottish nationalists), the chair also housed the Stone of Scone upon which the kings of Scots are crowned. Although the Stone is now kept in Scotland, in Edinburgh Castle, at future coronations it is intended that the Stone will be returned to St Edward's Chair for use during the coronation ceremony.[citation needed]
What kind of church is Westminster Abbey?
56e8ea980b45c0140094cd61
collegiate church
23
False
Who created Westminster Abbey as the Collegiate Church of St Peter Westminster?
56e8ea980b45c0140094cd62
Queen Elizabeth I
125
False
Who governs the church?
56e8ea980b45c0140094cd63
the Dean and Chapter of Westminster
53
False
Who are the members of the chapter of Westminster?
56e8ea980b45c0140094cd64
the Dean and four canons residentiary
320
False
Who assist the chapter of Westminster?
56e8ea980b45c0140094cd65
the Receiver General and Chapter Clerk
371
False
collegiate church
23
What kind of church isn't Westminster Abbey?
5ad3f8b5604f3c001a3ffa7b
True
Queen Elizabeth I
125
Who hated Westminster Abbey as the Collegiate Church of St Peter Westminster?
5ad3f8b5604f3c001a3ffa7c
True
the Dean and Chapter of Westminster
53
Who governs the school?
5ad3f8b5604f3c001a3ffa7d
True
the Dean and four canons residentiary
320
Who aren't the members of the chapter of Westminster?
5ad3f8b5604f3c001a3ffa7e
True
the Receiver General and Chapter Clerk
371
Who rejects the chapter of Westminster?
5ad3f8b5604f3c001a3ffa7f
True
Westminster Abbey is a collegiate church governed by the Dean and Chapter of Westminster, as established by Royal charter of Queen Elizabeth I in 1560, which created it as the Collegiate Church of St Peter Westminster and a Royal Peculiar under the personal jurisdiction of the Sovereign. The members of the Chapter are the Dean and four canons residentiary, assisted by the Receiver General and Chapter Clerk. One of the canons is also Rector of St Margaret's Church, Westminster, and often holds also the post of Chaplain to the Speaker of the House of Commons.
How many lay vicars are there?
56e8ebd40b45c0140094cd6b
12
564
False
How many choristers are there at the abbey?
56e8ebd40b45c0140094cd6c
10
579
False
When was the office of Priest Vicar created?
56e8ebd40b45c0140094cd6e
1970s
175
False
12
564
How many lay vicars aren't there?
5ad3f8f2604f3c001a3ffa91
True
12
564
How many lay singers are there?
5ad3f8f2604f3c001a3ffa92
True
10
579
How many choristers aren't there at the abbey?
5ad3f8f2604f3c001a3ffa93
True
1970s
175
When wasn't the office of Priest Vicar created?
5ad3f8f2604f3c001a3ffa94
True
1970s
175
When was the office of Priest Vicar destroyed?
5ad3f8f2604f3c001a3ffa95
True
In addition to the Dean and canons, there are at present two full-time minor canons, one is precentor, and the other is sacrist. The office of Priest Vicar was created in the 1970s for those who assist the minor canons. Together with the clergy and Receiver General and Chapter Clerk, various lay officers constitute the college, including the Organist and Master of the Choristers, the Registrar, the Auditor, the Legal Secretary, the Surveyor of the Fabric, the Head Master of the choir school, the Keeper of the Muniments and the Clerk of the Works, as well as 12 lay vicars, 10 choristers and the High Steward and High Bailiff.
Henry III rebuilt the abbey in honour of whom?
56e8ed4f0b45c0140094cd75
Edward the Confessor
56
False
When did George II of Great Britain die?
56e8ed4f0b45c0140094cd76
1760
304
False
Who was Edward the Confessor?
56e8ed4f0b45c0140094cd77
a royal saint
41
False
Where was Henry VI buried?
56e8ed4f0b45c0140094cd78
St George's Chapel at Windsor Castle
452
False
Where was Richard III buried?
56e8ed4f0b45c0140094cd79
Leicester Cathedral
542
False
Edward the Confessor
56
Henry II rebuilt the abbey in honour of whom?
5ad3f94e604f3c001a3ffaaf
True
in 1760
301
When did George I of Great Britain die?
5ad3f94e604f3c001a3ffab0
True
a royal saint
41
Who wasn't Edward the Confessor?
5ad3f94e604f3c001a3ffab1
True
St George's Chapel at Windsor Castle
452
Where was Henry V buried?
5ad3f94e604f3c001a3ffab2
True
Leicester Cathedral
542
Where was Richard II buried?
5ad3f94e604f3c001a3ffab3
True
Henry III rebuilt the abbey in honour of a royal saint, Edward the Confessor, whose relics were placed in a shrine in the sanctuary. Henry III himself was interred nearby, as were many of the Plantagenet kings of England, their wives and other relatives. Until the death of George II of Great Britain in 1760, most kings and queens were buried in the abbey, some notable exceptions being Henry VI, Edward IV, Henry VIII and Charles I who are buried in St George's Chapel at Windsor Castle. Other exceptions include Richard III, now buried at Leicester Cathedral, and the de facto queen Lady Jane Grey, buried in the chapel of St Peter ad Vincula in the Tower of London. Most monarchs and royals who died after 1760 are buried either in St George's Chapel or at Frogmore to the east of Windsor Castle.[citation needed]
Where were aristocrats buried from the Middle Ages?
56e8ee3299e8941900975f09
inside chapels
46
False
Geoffrey Chaucer was employed as what?
56e8ee3299e8941900975f0a
master of the King's Works
277
False
Henry Purcell was buried where?
56e8ee3299e8941900975f0c
in the abbey
239
False
inside chapels
46
Where were aristocrats buried from the Later Ages?
5ad3f9b9604f3c001a3ffacd
True
inside chapels
46
Where were aristocrats burned from the Middle Ages?
5ad3f9b9604f3c001a3fface
True
master of the King's Works
277
Geoffrey Chaucer was unemployed as what?
5ad3f9b9604f3c001a3ffacf
True
master of the King's Works
277
Geoffrey Chaucer wasn't employed as what?
5ad3f9b9604f3c001a3ffad0
True
in the abbey
239
Henry Purcell was burned where?
5ad3f9b9604f3c001a3ffad1
True
From the Middle Ages, aristocrats were buried inside chapels, while monks and other people associated with the abbey were buried in the cloisters and other areas. One of these was Geoffrey Chaucer, who was buried here as he had apartments in the abbey where he was employed as master of the King's Works. Other poets, writers and musicians were buried or memorialised around Chaucer in what became known as Poets' Corner. Abbey musicians such as Henry Purcell were also buried in their place of work.[citation needed]
Oliver Cromwell began buring national figures in the abbey starting with whom?
56e8f03d0b45c0140094cd7f
Admiral Robert Blake
210
False
Who was buried in the abbey on 4 April 1727?
56e8f03d0b45c0140094cd80
Isaac Newton
335
False
Who was buried in the abbey on 26 April 1882?
56e8f03d0b45c0140094cd81
Charles Darwin
377
False
Who was buried in the abbey on 3 August 1833?
56e8f03d0b45c0140094cd82
William Wilberforce
427
False
Who was buried next to William Wilberforce?
56e8f03d0b45c0140094cd83
William Pitt
649
False
Admiral Robert Blake
210
Oliver Cromwell began buring national figures in the abbey ending with whom?
5ad3fa11604f3c001a3ffaeb
True
Isaac Newton
335
Who was buried in the abbey on 4 April 1772?
5ad3fa11604f3c001a3ffaec
True
Charles Darwin
377
Who was buried in the abbey on 26 April 1828?
5ad3fa11604f3c001a3ffaed
True
William Wilberforce
427
Who was buried in the abbey on 3 August 1883?
5ad3fa11604f3c001a3ffaee
True
William Pitt
649
Who was buried under to William Wilberforce?
5ad3fa11604f3c001a3ffaef
True
Subsequently, it became one of Britain's most significant honours to be buried or commemorated in the abbey. The practice of burying national figures in the abbey began under Oliver Cromwell with the burial of Admiral Robert Blake in 1657. The practice spread to include generals, admirals, politicians, doctors and scientists such as Isaac Newton, buried on 4 April 1727, and Charles Darwin, buried 26 April 1882. Another was William Wilberforce who led the movement to abolish slavery in the United Kingdom and the Plantations, buried on 3 August 1833. Wilberforce was buried in the north transept, close to his friend, the former Prime Minister, William Pitt.[citation needed]
In the early 20th century it became more common to bury what kind of remains?
56e8f1fb0b45c0140094cd89
cremated
68
False
In what year was Sir Henry Irving cremated?
56e8f1fb0b45c0140094cd8a
1905
122
False
Who was buried in the south choir aisle in 2014?
56e8f1fb0b45c0140094cd8b
Frances Challen
398
False
What family has the Northumberland Vault?
56e8f1fb0b45c0140094cd8c
Percy Family
554
False
cremated
68
In the early 19th century it became more common to bury what kind of remains?
5ad3fa73604f3c001a3ffb07
True
1905
122
In what year was Sir Henry Irving buried?
5ad3fa73604f3c001a3ffb08
True
Frances Challen
398
Who was buried in the south choir aisle in 2004?
5ad3fa73604f3c001a3ffb09
True
Percy Family
554
What family hasn't the Northumberland Vault?
5ad3fa73604f3c001a3ffb0a
True
Percy Family
554
What family has the Southumberland Vault?
5ad3fa73604f3c001a3ffb0b
True
During the early 20th century it became increasingly common to bury cremated remains rather than coffins in the abbey. In 1905 the actor Sir Henry Irving was cremated and his ashes buried in Westminster Abbey, thereby becoming the first person ever to be cremated prior to interment at the abbey. The majority of interments at the Abbey are of cremated remains, but some burials still take place - Frances Challen, wife of the Rev Sebastian Charles, Canon of Westminster, was buried alongside her husband in the south choir aisle in 2014. Members of the Percy Family have a family vault, The Northumberland Vault, in St Nicholas's chapel within the abbey.
When was The Unknown Warrior buried?
56e8f2c599e8941900975f14
11 November 1920
233
False
11 November 1920
233
When was The Known Warrior buried?
5ad3fae4604f3c001a3ffb2b
True
11 November 1920
233
When wan'ts The Unknown Warrior buried?
5ad3fae4604f3c001a3ffb2c
True
grave is the only one in the abbey on which it is forbidden
256
When was The Unknown Warrior burned?
5ad3fae4604f3c001a3ffb2d
True
The Unknown Warrior
89
Whose grave is the only one in the abbey on which it is encouraged to walk?
5ad3fae4604f3c001a3ffb2e
True
The Unknown Warrior
89
Whose grave isn't the only one in the abbey on which it is encouraged to walk?
5ad3fae4604f3c001a3ffb2f
True
In the floor, just inside the great west door, in the centre of the nave, is the tomb of The Unknown Warrior, an unidentified British soldier killed on a European battlefield during the First World War. He was buried in the abbey on 11 November 1920. This grave is the only one in the abbey on which it is forbidden to walk.[citation needed]
Where is the memorial chapel of the airmen of the RAF?
56e8f34d99e8941900975f1b
At the east end of the Lady Chapel
0
False
The memorial chapel of the airmen of the RAF has a window for what?
56e8f34d99e8941900975f1d
the Battle of Britain
159
False
The window for the Battle of Britain replaced what that was destroyed?
56e8f34d99e8941900975f1e
Tudor stained glass window
208
False
end of the Lady Chapel
12
Where is the memorial chapel of the firemen of the RAF?
5ad3fb3b604f3c001a3ffb41
True
At the east end of the Lady Chapel
0
Where is the memorial chapel of the airmen of the ARF?
5ad3fb3b604f3c001a3ffb42
True
Battle of Britain
163
The memorial chapel of the seamen of the RAF has a window for what?
5ad3fb3b604f3c001a3ffb43
True
the Battle of Britain
159
The memorial chapel of the airmen of the ARF has a window for what?
5ad3fb3b604f3c001a3ffb44
True
Tudor stained glass window
208
The window for the Battle of Britain replaced what that was created?
5ad3fb3b604f3c001a3ffb45
True
At the east end of the Lady Chapel is a memorial chapel to the airmen of the RAF who were killed in the Second World War. It incorporates a memorial window to the Battle of Britain, which replaces an earlier Tudor stained glass window destroyed in the war.
When was the formal funeral of Diana, Princess of Wales?
56e8f3ff99e8941900975f23
Saturday September 6, 1997
3
False
When was a second public service held for Princess Diana?
56e8f3ff99e8941900975f24
Sunday
234
False
Who designed Diana's dress?
56e8f3ff99e8941900975f25
Catherine Walker
481
False
Who gave Diana the rosary beads?
56e8f3ff99e8941900975f26
Mother Teresa
615
False
Saturday September 6, 1997
3
When was the informal funeral of Diana, Princess of Wales?
5ad3fb9e604f3c001a3ffb6b
True
Saturday September 6, 1997
3
When was the formal funeral of Diana, Prince of Wales?
5ad3fb9e604f3c001a3ffb6c
True
Sunday
234
When was a third public service held for Princess Diana?
5ad3fb9e604f3c001a3ffb6d
True
Sunday
234
When was a second public service held for Princess Mary?
5ad3fb9e604f3c001a3ffb6e
True
Catherine Walker
481
Who never designed Diana's dress?
5ad3fb9e604f3c001a3ffb6f
True
On Saturday September 6, 1997 the formal, though not "state" Funeral of Diana, Princess of Wales, was held. It was a royal ceremonial funeral including royal pageantry and Anglican funeral liturgy. A Second Public service was held on Sunday at the demand of the people. The burial occurred privately later the same day. Diana's former husband, sons, mother, siblings, a close friend, and a clergyman were present. Diana's body was clothed in a black long-sleeved dress designed by Catherine Walker, which she had chosen some weeks before. A set of rosary beads was placed in her hands, a gift she had received from Mother Teresa. Her grave is on the grounds of her family estate, Althorp, on a private island.[citation needed]
What are also in the precincts of Westminster Abbey?
56e8f4ab0b45c0140094cd93
Westminster School and Westminster Abbey Choir School
0
False
Who required the Benedictine monks to maintain a charity school?
56e8f4ab0b45c0140094cd94
the Pope
215
False
When were the Benedictine monks required to maintain a charity school?
56e8f4ab0b45c0140094cd95
1179
256
False
The choirboys of the abbey are trained where?
56e8f4ab0b45c0140094cd96
Westminster Abbey Choir School
23
False
Westminster School and Westminster Abbey Choir School
0
What are also in the precincts of Eastminster Abbey?
5ad3fcd1604f3c001a3ffbb7
True
the Pope
215
Who never required the Benedictine monks to maintain a charity school?
5ad3fcd1604f3c001a3ffbb8
True
the Pope
215
Who required the Benedictine monks to maintain a vanity school?
5ad3fcd1604f3c001a3ffbb9
True
1179
256
When were the Benedictine monks required to maintain a vanity school?
5ad3fcd1604f3c001a3ffbba
True
Westminster Abbey Choir School
23
The altar boys of the abbey are trained where?
5ad3fcd1604f3c001a3ffbbb
True
Westminster School and Westminster Abbey Choir School are also in the precincts of the abbey. It was natural for the learned and literate monks to be entrusted with education, and Benedictine monks were required by the Pope to maintain a charity school in 1179. The Choir School educates and trains the choirboys who sing for services in the Abbey.
Who built the organ?
56e8f5740b45c0140094cd9b
Harrison & Harrison
23
False
When was the organ built?
56e8f5740b45c0140094cd9c
1937
46
False
When was the organ first used?
56e8f5740b45c0140094cd9d
the coronation of King George VI
133
False
What was included in the new organ from the previous Hill organ of 1848?
56e8f5740b45c0140094cd9e
pipework
172
False
Who designed the two organ cases?
56e8f5740b45c0140094cd9f
John Loughborough Pearson
325
False
Harrison & Harrison
23
Who destroyed the organ?
5ad3fd15604f3c001a3ffbcb
True
1937
46
When was the organ destroyed?
5ad3fd15604f3c001a3ffbcc
True
King George VI
151
When was the organ last used?
5ad3fd15604f3c001a3ffbcd
True
pipework
172
What was included in the new organ from the previous Hill organ of 1948?
5ad3fd15604f3c001a3ffbce
True
John Loughborough Pearson
325
Who designed the three organ cases?
5ad3fd15604f3c001a3ffbcf
True
The organ was built by Harrison & Harrison in 1937, then with four manuals and 84 speaking stops, and was used for the first time at the coronation of King George VI. Some pipework from the previous Hill organ of 1848 was revoiced and incorporated in the new scheme. The two organ cases, designed in the late 19th century by John Loughborough Pearson, were re-instated and coloured in 1959.
What part of the organ is not connected or playable?
56e8f62999e8941900975f30
the Celestial Organ
460
False
the Celestial Organ
460
What part of the organ is connected or playable?
5ad3fd89604f3c001a3ffbeb
True
the Celestial Organ
460
What part of the organ is fully playable?
5ad3fd89604f3c001a3ffbec
True
Harrison and Harrison
306
In 2008, the console of the organ was refurbished by who?
5ad3fd89604f3c001a3ffbed
True
Harrison and Harrison
306
In 2006, the console of the organ was destroyed by who?
5ad3fd89604f3c001a3ffbee
True
Harrison and Harrison
306
In 2006, the console of the guitar was refurbished by who?
5ad3fd89604f3c001a3ffbef
True
In 1982 and 1987, Harrison and Harrison enlarged the organ under the direction of the then abbey organist Simon Preston to include an additional Lower Choir Organ and a Bombarde Organ: the current instrument now has five manuals and 109 speaking stops. In 2006, the console of the organ was refurbished by Harrison and Harrison, and space was prepared for two additional 16 ft stops on the Lower Choir Organ and the Bombarde Organ. One part of the instrument, the Celestial Organ, is currently not connected or playable.
When were the bells overhauled?
56e8f6a899e8941900975f35
1971
42
False
How many bells make up the abbey ring?
56e8f6a899e8941900975f36
Ten
218
False
When were the ten bells cast?
56e8f6a899e8941900975f37
1971
42
False
Who cast the abbey bells?
56e8f6a899e8941900975f38
Whitechapel Bell Foundry
132
False
1971
42
When weren't the bells overhauled?
5ad3fded604f3c001a3ffc11
True
1971
42
When were the bells scrapped?
5ad3fded604f3c001a3ffc12
True
ten
75
How many bells don't make up the abbey ring?
5ad3fded604f3c001a3ffc13
True
1971
119
When were the ine bells cast?
5ad3fded604f3c001a3ffc14
True
Whitechapel Bell Foundry
132
Who destroyed the abbey bells?
5ad3fded604f3c001a3ffc15
True
The bells at the abbey were overhauled in 1971. The ring is now made up of ten bells, hung for change ringing, cast in 1971, by the Whitechapel Bell Foundry, tuned to the notes: F#, E, D, C#, B, A, G, F#, E and D. The Tenor bell in D (588.5 Hz) has a weight of 30 cwt, 1 qtr, 15 lb (3403 lb or 1544 kg).
Who cast the two service bells?
56e8f74999e8941900975f3d
Robert Mot
49
False
When were the two service bells cast?
56e8f74999e8941900975f3e
1585 and 1598
64
False
When was the Sanctus bell cast?
56e8f74999e8941900975f3f
1738
115
False
Who cast the Sanctus bell?
56e8f74999e8941900975f40
Richard Phelps and Thomas Lester
123
False
Where is the "dish bell" kept?
56e8f74999e8941900975f41
in the refectory
369
False
Robert Mot,
49
Who cast the three service bells?
5ad3fe4b604f3c001a3ffc2b
True
1585 and 1598
64
When were the three service bells cast?
5ad3fe4b604f3c001a3ffc2c
True
1738
115
When was the Sanctus bell ruined?
5ad3fe4b604f3c001a3ffc2d
True
Richard Phelps and Thomas Lester
123
Who destroyed the Sanctus bell?
5ad3fe4b604f3c001a3ffc2e
True
in the refectory
369
Where isn't the "dish bell" kept?
5ad3fe4b604f3c001a3ffc2f
True
In addition there are two service bells, cast by Robert Mot, in 1585 and 1598 respectively, a Sanctus bell cast in 1738 by Richard Phelps and Thomas Lester and two unused bells—one cast about 1320, by the successor to R de Wymbish, and a second cast in 1742, by Thomas Lester. The two service bells and the 1320 bell, along with a fourth small silver "dish bell", kept in the refectory, have been noted as being of historical importance by the Church Buildings Council of the Church of England.
Under whom was the chapter house built?
56e8f8170b45c0140094cda5
Henry III
80
False
Who restored the chapter house in 1872?
56e8f8170b45c0140094cda7
Sir George Gilbert Scott
139
False
Henry III
80
Under whom wasn't the chapter house built?
5ad3fe94604f3c001a3ffc4b
True
Henry III
80
Under whom was the chapter house torn down?
5ad3fe94604f3c001a3ffc4c
True
Sir George Gilbert Scott
139
Who restored the chapter house in 1827?
5ad3fe94604f3c001a3ffc4d
True
Sir George Gilbert Scott
139
Who destroyed the chapter house in 1872?
5ad3fe94604f3c001a3ffc4e
True
Sir George Gilbert Scott
139
Who restored the chapel house in 1872?
5ad3fe94604f3c001a3ffc4f
True
The chapter house was built concurrently with the east parts of the abbey under Henry III, between about 1245 and 1253. It was restored by Sir George Gilbert Scott in 1872. The entrance is approached from the east cloister walk and includes a double doorway with a large tympanum above.
What style is the octagonal chapter house?
56e8f8fa99e8941900975f47
Geometrical Gothic style
127
False
There is an octagonal what below the chapter house?
56e8f8fa99e8941900975f48
crypt
170
False
What kind of ceiling is in the chapter house?
56e8f8fa99e8941900975f49
vaulted
218
False
What kind of windows are in the chapter house?
56e8f8fa99e8941900975f4a
4-light quatre-foiled windows
362
False
The architecture of the chapter house is contemporary with what?
56e8f8fa99e8941900975f4b
the Sainte-Chapelle, Paris
431
False
Geometrical Gothic style
127
What style is the octagonal chapel house?
5ad3fefd604f3c001a3ffc69
True
crypt
170
There is an octagonal what above the chapter house?
5ad3fefd604f3c001a3ffc6a
True
vaulted
218
What kind of ceiling isn't in the chapter house?
5ad3fefd604f3c001a3ffc6b
True
4-light quatre-foiled windows
362
What kind of windows aren't in the chapter house?
5ad3fefd604f3c001a3ffc6c
True
the Sainte-Chapelle, Paris
431
The architecture of the chapel house is contemporary with what?
5ad3fefd604f3c001a3ffc6d
True
Inner and outer vestibules lead to the octagonal chapter house, which is of exceptional architectural purity. It is built in a Geometrical Gothic style with an octagonal crypt below. A pier of eight shafts carries the vaulted ceiling. To the sides are blind arcading, remains of 14th-century paintings and numerous stone benches above which are innovatory large 4-light quatre-foiled windows. These are virtually contemporary with the Sainte-Chapelle, Paris.
What kind of tiled pavement is in the chapter house?
56e8f9f90b45c0140094cdad
mid-13th-century
34
False
A door in the vestible dates back to when?
56e8f9f90b45c0140094cdae
1050
113
False
When were the exterior flying buttresses added?
56e8f9f90b45c0140094cdb0
the 14th century
229
False
Who else met in the chapter house?
56e8f9f90b45c0140094cdb1
King's Great Council and the Commons
451
False
mid-13th-century
34
What kind of tiled pavement is in the chapel house?
5ad3ff76604f3c001a3ffc89
True
1050
113
A window in the vestible dates back to when?
5ad3ff76604f3c001a3ffc8a
True
the 14th century
229
When were the interior flying buttresses added?
5ad3ff76604f3c001a3ffc8b
True
King's Great Council and the Commons
451
Who else never met in the chapter house?
5ad3ff76604f3c001a3ffc8c
True
the 14th century
229
When were the exterior flying buttresses subtracted?
5ad3ff76604f3c001a3ffc8d
True
The chapter house has an original mid-13th-century tiled pavement. A door within the vestibule dates from around 1050 and is believed to be the oldest in England.[citation needed] The exterior includes flying buttresses added in the 14th century and a leaded tent-lantern roof on an iron frame designed by Scott. The Chapter house was originally used in the 13th century by Benedictine monks for daily meetings. It later became a meeting place of the King's Great Council and the Commons, predecessors of Parliament.
What formed the undercroft of the monks' dormitory?
56e8faa20b45c0140094cdb7
The Pyx Chamber
0
False
When does the Pyx Chamber date to?
56e8faa20b45c0140094cdb8
the late 11th century
75
False
When were newly minted coins presented to ensure they met standards?
56e8faa20b45c0140094cdb9
the Trial of the Pyx
407
False
The Pyx Chamber
0
What formed the overcroft of the monks' dormitory?
5ad3ffc5604f3c001a3ffc9d
True
The Pyx Chamber
0
What destroyed the undercroft of the monks' dormitory?
5ad3ffc5604f3c001a3ffc9e
True
late 11th century
79
When doesn't the Pyx Chamber date to?
5ad3ffc5604f3c001a3ffc9f
True
late 11th century
79
When does the Styx Chamber date to?
5ad3ffc5604f3c001a3ffca0
True
the Trial of the Pyx
407
When were oldly minted coins presented to ensure they met standards?
5ad3ffc5604f3c001a3ffca1
True
The Pyx Chamber formed the undercroft of the monks' dormitory. It dates to the late 11th century and was used as a monastic and royal treasury. The outer walls and circular piers are of 11th-century date, several of the capitals were enriched in the 12th century and the stone altar added in the 13th century. The term pyx refers to the boxwood chest in which coins were held and presented to a jury during the Trial of the Pyx, in which newly minted coins were presented to ensure they conformed to the required standards.
The Pyx Chamber and chapter house are under guardianship of whom?
56e8fb1a0b45c0140094cdbf
English Heritage
82
False
Who cares for and manages the Pyx Chamber and chapter house?
56e8fb1a0b45c0140094cdc0
the Dean and Chapter of Westminster
137
False
English Heritage has funded what for the chapter house?
56e8fb1a0b45c0140094cdc1
repairs
262
False
English Heritage
82
The Pyx Chamber and chapter house aren't under guardianship of whom?
5ad40040604f3c001a3ffcc1
True
English Heritage
82
The Styx Chamber and chapter house are under guardianship of whom?
5ad40040604f3c001a3ffcc2
True
Dean and Chapter of Westminster
141
Who no longer cares for and manages the Pyx Chamber and chapter house?
5ad40040604f3c001a3ffcc3
True
the Dean and Chapter of Westminster
137
Who cares for and manages the Styx Chamber and chapter house?
5ad40040604f3c001a3ffcc4
True
repairs
262
English Heritage has unfunded what for the chapter house?
5ad40040604f3c001a3ffcc5
True
The chapter house and Pyx Chamber at Westminster Abbey are in the guardianship of English Heritage, but under the care and management of the Dean and Chapter of Westminster. English Heritage have funded a major programme of work on the chapter house, comprising repairs to the roof, gutters, stonework on the elevations and flying buttresses as well as repairs to the lead light.
What is located in the vaulted undercroft beneath the monks' dormitory?
56e8fbad0b45c0140094cdc5
The Westminster Abbey Museum
0
False
The area the museum occupies dates back to when?
56e8fbad0b45c0140094cdc6
1065
261
False
The vaulted undercroft beneath the monks' dormitory has been a museum since when?
56e8fbad0b45c0140094cdc7
1908
310
False
The Westminster Abbey Museum
0
What is located in the vaulted overcroft beneath the monks' dormitory?
5ad4008a604f3c001a3ffcd5
True
The Westminster Abbey Museum
0
What is located in the vaulted undercroft above the monks' dormitory?
5ad4008a604f3c001a3ffcd6
True
1065
261
The area the store occupies dates back to when?
5ad4008a604f3c001a3ffcd7
True
1908
310
The vaulted undercroft beneath the monks' dormitory hasn't been a museum since when?
5ad4008a604f3c001a3ffcd8
True
1908
310
The vaulted overcroft beneath the monks' dormitory has been a museum since when?
5ad4008a604f3c001a3ffcd9
True
The Westminster Abbey Museum is located in the 11th-century vaulted undercroft beneath the former monks' dormitory in Westminster Abbey. This is one of the oldest areas of the abbey, dating back almost to the foundation of the church by Edward the Confessor in 1065. This space has been used as a museum since 1908.
What belonging to Henry V is in the museum?
56e8fc6799e8941900975f51
funeral saddle, helm and shield
71
False
What kind of panels are in the museum?
56e8fc6799e8941900975f53
panels of mediaeval glass
162
False
funeral saddle, helm and shield
71
What belonging to Henry VI is in the museum?
5ad400cf604f3c001a3ffce5
True
funeral saddle, helm and shield
71
What belonging to Henry V isn't in the museum?
5ad400cf604f3c001a3ffce6
True
funeral saddle, helm and shield
71
What not belonging to Henry V is in the museum?
5ad400cf604f3c001a3ffce7
True
panels of mediaeval glass
162
What kind of panels aren't in the museum?
5ad400cf604f3c001a3ffce8
True
panels of mediaeval glass
162
What kind of panels are in the library?
5ad400cf604f3c001a3ffce9
True
The exhibits include a collection of royal and other funeral effigies (funeral saddle, helm and shield of Henry V), together with other treasures, including some panels of mediaeval glass, 12th-century sculpture fragments, Mary II's coronation chair and replicas of the coronation regalia, and historic effigies of Edward III, Henry VII and his queen, Elizabeth of York, Charles II, William III, Mary II and Queen Anne.
Who modelled the effigies in the museum?
56e8fd2b99e8941900975f59
sculptor Patience Wright
190
False
What are the effigies made of?
56e8fd2b99e8941900975f5a
wax
6
False
What is the effigy of Viscount Nelson wearing?
56e8fd2b99e8941900975f5b
some of his own clothes
75
False
sculptor Patience Wright
190
Who never modelled the effigies in the museum?
5ad40114604f3c001a3ffd01
True
wax
6
What aren't the effigies made of?
5ad40114604f3c001a3ffd02
True
wax
6
What are the fridges made of?
5ad40114604f3c001a3ffd03
True
some of his own clothes
75
What is the effigy of Discount Nelson wearing?
5ad40114604f3c001a3ffd04
True
some of his own clothes
75
What isn't the effigy of Viscount Nelson wearing?
5ad40114604f3c001a3ffd05
True
Later wax effigies include a likeness of Horatio, Viscount Nelson, wearing some of his own clothes and another of Prime Minister William Pitt, Earl of Chatham, modelled by the American-born sculptor Patience Wright.[citation needed] During recent conservation of Elizabeth I's effigy, a unique corset dating from 1603 was found on the figure and is now displayed separately.[citation needed]
What was recently added to the museum exhibit?
56e8fd9c99e8941900975f63
13th-century Westminster Retable
48
False
What is the Westminster Retable?
56e8fd9c99e8941900975f64
England's oldest altarpiece
82
False
What was the altarpiece designed for?
56e8fd9c99e8941900975f65
high altar of the abbey
152
False
What was damaged but cleaned and then conserved?
56e8fd9c99e8941900975f66
altarpiece
99
False
13th-century Westminster Retable
48
What was recently subtracted from the museum exhibit?
5ad40161604f3c001a3ffd15
True
13th-century Westminster Retable
48
What wasn't recently added to the museum exhibit?
5ad40161604f3c001a3ffd16
True
England's oldest altarpiece
82
What isn't the Westminster Retable?
5ad40161604f3c001a3ffd17
True
high altar of the abbey
152
What was the altarpiece undesigned for?
5ad40161604f3c001a3ffd18
True
altarpiece
99
What was undamaged but cleaned and then conserved?
5ad40161604f3c001a3ffd19
True
A recent addition to the exhibition is the late 13th-century Westminster Retable, England's oldest altarpiece, which was most probably designed for the high altar of the abbey. Although it has been damaged in past centuries, the panel has been expertly cleaned and conserved.
What was proposed for the abbey in June 2009?
56e8fe7f0b45c0140094cdcb
major building work
23
False
On what date did the Dean and Chapter announce that work would not be continued?
56e8fe7f0b45c0140094cdcc
4 August 2010
356
False
Panter Hudspith refurbished a 14th-century foodstore into what?
56e8fe7f0b45c0140094cdcd
a restaurant
692
False
What kind of furniture is in the restaurant?
56e8fe7f0b45c0140094cdce
English Oak
710
False
Who supplied the furniture for the restaurant?
56e8fe7f0b45c0140094cdcf
Luke Hughes and Company
772
False
major building work
23
What was proposed for the abbey in June 2008?
5ad401b0604f3c001a3ffd23
True
4 August 2010
356
On what date did the Dean and Chapter announce that work would be continued?
5ad401b0604f3c001a3ffd24
True
a restaurant
692
Panter Hudspith refurbished a 13th-century foodstore into what?
5ad401b0604f3c001a3ffd25
True
English Oak
710
What kind of furniture isn't in the restaurant?
5ad401b0604f3c001a3ffd26
True
Luke Hughes and Company
772
Who never supplied the furniture for the restaurant?
5ad401b0604f3c001a3ffd27
True
In June 2009 the first major building work at the abbey for 250 years was proposed. A corona—a crown-like architectural feature—was intended to be built around the lantern over the central crossing, replacing an existing pyramidal structure dating from the 1950s. This was part of a wider £23m development of the abbey expected to be completed in 2013. On 4 August 2010 the Dean and Chapter announced that, "[a]fter a considerable amount of preliminary and exploratory work", efforts toward the construction of a corona would not be continued. In 2012, architects Panter Hudspith completed refurbishment of the 14th-century food-store originally used by the abbey's monks, converting it into a restaurant with English Oak furniture by Covent Garden-based furniture makers Luke Hughes and Company.
What will be created in the medieval triforium?
56e8ff6c99e8941900975f6b
The Queen's Diamond Jubilee Galleries
48
False
What has been designed to help with the gallery?
56e8ff6c99e8941900975f6d
Gothic access tower with lift
260
False
When will the new galleries open?
56e8ff6c99e8941900975f6f
2018
423
False
The Queen's Diamond Jubilee Galleries
48
What will be destroyed in the medieval triforium?
5ad401f0604f3c001a3ffd37
True
The Queen's Diamond Jubilee Galleries
48
What will be created in the medieval biforium?
5ad401f0604f3c001a3ffd38
True
Gothic access tower with lift
260
What has been undesigned to help with the gallery?
5ad401f0604f3c001a3ffd39
True
2018
423
When will the new galleries close?
5ad401f0604f3c001a3ffd3a
True
2018
423
When will the old galleries open?
5ad401f0604f3c001a3ffd3b
True
A project that is proceeding is the creation of The Queen's Diamond Jubilee Galleries in the medieval triforium of the abbey. The aim is to create a new display area for the abbey's treasures in the galleries high up around the abbey's nave. To this end a new Gothic access tower with lift has been designed by the abbey architect and Surveyor of the Fabric, Ptolemy Dean. It is planned that the new galleries will open in 2018.
Political_corruption
What is it called when government officials use their power for private gain?
56e9ebac5a205f1900d6d326
Political corruption
0
False
Political corruption is the use of powers by government officials for illegitimate private gain. An illegal act by an officeholder constitutes political corruption only if the act is directly related to their official duties, is done under color of law or involves trading in influence.
One form of corruption involves the hiring of family members, which is called what?
56e9ed745a205f1900d6d32c
nepotism
68
False
Another form of corruption, the practice of usury, is called what?
56e9ed745a205f1900d6d32d
gombeenism
78
False
Three forms of corruption that can promote criminal activities include drugs, money laundering, and what?
56e9ed745a205f1900d6d32e
human trafficking
253
False
The repression of what is also considered political corruption?
56e9ed745a205f1900d6d32f
political opponents
387
False
Forms of corruption vary, but include bribery, extortion, cronyism, nepotism, gombeenism, parochialism patronage, influence peddling, graft, and embezzlement. Corruption may facilitate criminal enterprise such as drug trafficking, money laundering, and human trafficking, though is not restricted to these activities. Misuse of government power for other purposes, such as repression of political opponents and general police brutality, is also considered political corruption.
Which crime costs over one trillion U.S. dollars every year, world-wide?
56e9f4805a205f1900d6d336
bribery
356
False
What does kleptocracy mean?
56e9f4805a205f1900d6d337
rule by thieves
522
False
The activities that constitute illegal corruption differ depending on the country or jurisdiction. For instance, some political funding practices that are legal in one place may be illegal in another. In some cases, government officials have broad or ill-defined powers, which make it difficult to distinguish between legal and illegal actions. Worldwide, bribery alone is estimated to involve over 1 trillion US dollars annually. A state of unrestrained political corruption is known as a kleptocracy, literally meaning "rule by thieves".
What are some forms of corruption now  called?
56ea8ec15a205f1900d6d33c
institutional corruption
39
False
Institutional corruption is distinguished from what type of corruption?
56ea8ec15a205f1900d6d33d
bribery
90
False
This type of problem happens in any organization where the interests of the people who financially support it conflicts with what?
56ea8ec15a205f1900d6d33e
the primary purpose of the institution
286
False
Some forms of corruption – now called "institutional corruption" – are distinguished from bribery and other kinds of obvious personal gain. A similar problem of corruption arises in any institution that depends on financial support from people who have interests that may conflict with the primary purpose of the institution.
What does corruption undermine in politics?
56ea90465a205f1900d6d342
democracy
35
False
What does corruption disregard in politics?
56ea90465a205f1900d6d343
formal processes
96
False
Political corruption in legislature reduces what, overall?
56ea90465a205f1900d6d344
accountability
169
False
Corruption in what compromises the rule of law?
56ea90465a205f1900d6d345
judiciary
247
False
Corruption in what creates weak provision of services?
56ea90465a205f1900d6d346
public administration
304
False
In politics, corruption undermines democracy and good governance by flouting or even subverting formal processes. Corruption in elections and in the legislature reduces accountability and distorts representation in policymaking; corruption in the judiciary compromises the rule of law; and corruption in public administration results in the inefficient provision of services. It violates a basic principle of republicanism regarding the centrality of civic virtue.
What two democratic values are soiled due to corruption?
56ea91795a205f1900d6d34c
trust and tolerance
255
False
Corruption disintegrates government capacity when public offices are what?
56ea91795a205f1900d6d34d
bought and sold
157
False
The level of corruption can vary in richer democracies in regards to the what of those officials making decisions?
56ea91795a205f1900d6d34e
accountability
425
False
More generally, corruption erodes the institutional capacity of government if procedures are disregarded, resources are siphoned off, and public offices are bought and sold. Corruption undermines the legitimacy of government and such democratic values as trust and tolerance. Recent evidence suggests that variation in the levels of corruption amongst high-income democracies can vary significantly depending on the level of accountability of decision-makers. Evidence from fragile states also shows that corruption and bribery can adversely impact trust in institutions.
Corruption raises the cost of business because of illegal payments in what sector?
56ea931e5a205f1900d6d352
private
7
False
Some people feel that corruption actually reduces costs because it cuts what?
56ea931e5a205f1900d6d353
bureaucracy
271
False
What process is better than allowing bribes to remain in place?
56ea931e5a205f1900d6d355
Openly removing costly and lengthy regulations
371
False
Corruption changes the playing field by allowing businesses with connections to be shielded by what?
56ea931e5a205f1900d6d356
competition
611
False
In the private sector, corruption increases the cost of business through the price of illicit payments themselves, the management cost of negotiating with officials and the risk of breached agreements or detection. Although some claim corruption reduces costs by cutting bureaucracy, the availability of bribes can also induce officials to contrive new rules and delays. Openly removing costly and lengthy regulations are better than covertly allowing them to be bypassed by using bribes. Where corruption inflates the cost of business, it also distorts the playing field, shielding firms with connections from competition and thereby sustaining inefficient firms.
Economic distortion is created by corruption in the public sector by diverting what into capital projects?
56ea94715a205f1900d6d35c
public investment
80
False
What is more plentiful in capital projects?
56ea94715a205f1900d6d35d
bribes and kickbacks
126
False
Corruption can lower what with environmental regulations?
56ea94715a205f1900d6d360
compliance
346
False
Corruption also generates economic distortion in the public sector by diverting public investment into capital projects where bribes and kickbacks are more plentiful. Officials may increase the technical complexity of public sector projects to conceal or pave the way for such dealings, thus further distorting investment. Corruption also lowers compliance with construction, environmental, or other regulations, reduces the quality of government services and infrastructure, and increases budgetary pressures on government.
African dictators often have what kind of bank accounts?
56ea95025a205f1900d6d366
Swiss
341
False
What form has corruption taken in Africa?
56ea95025a205f1900d6d367
rent extraction
164
False
In Africa, the finances are often moved where?
56ea95025a205f1900d6d368
overseas
223
False
Economists argue that one of the factors behind the differing economic development in Africa and Asia is that in Africa, corruption has primarily taken the form of rent extraction with the resulting financial capital moved overseas rather than invested at home (hence the stereotypical, but often accurate, image of African dictators having Swiss bank accounts). In Nigeria, for example, more than $400 billion was stolen from the treasury by Nigeria's leaders between 1960 and 1999.
Which researchers studied corruption from Sub-Saharan countries from 1970 to 1996?
56ea963e5a205f1900d6d36e
University of Massachusetts Amherst
0
False
The 187 billion exceeded what in these countries?
56ea963e5a205f1900d6d370
external debts
168
False
What was one of the factors for this behavior in Africa?
56ea963e5a205f1900d6d371
political instability
367
False
University of Massachusetts Amherst researchers estimated that from 1970 to 1996, capital flight from 30 Sub-Saharan countries totaled $187bn, exceeding those nations' external debts. (The results, expressed in retarded or suppressed development, have been modeled in theory by economist Mancur Olson.) In the case of Africa, one of the factors for this behavior was political instability, and the fact that new governments often confiscated previous government's corruptly obtained assets. This encouraged officials to stash their wealth abroad, out of reach of any future expropriation. In contrast, Asian administrations such as Suharto's New Order often took a cut on business transactions or provided conditions for development, through infrastructure investment, law and order, etc.
Where is corruption most noticeable?
56ea97140030b61400a34fbd
countries with the smallest per capita incomes
36
False
These countries rely on foreign aid for what?
56ea97140030b61400a34fbe
health services
111
False
In Sub-Saharan African countries, what level of government is corruption especially prevalent at?
56ea97140030b61400a34fbf
Local
128
False
Which report described this corruption?
56ea97140030b61400a34fc0
the 2006 World Bank Report
269
False
How many funds did not reach their intended recipients who needed medical attention?
56ea97140030b61400a34fc1
about half
301
False
Corruption is often most evident in countries with the smallest per capita incomes, relying on foreign aid for health services. Local political interception of donated money from overseas is especially prevalent in Sub-Saharan African nations, where it was reported in the 2006 World Bank Report that about half of the funds that were donated for health usages were never invested into the health sectors or given to those needing medical attention.
What kind of employees received payments?
56ea97ac5a205f1900d6d378
ghost employees
128
False
Where were drugs siphoned off to?
56ea97ac5a205f1900d6d379
the black market
94
False
In addition to ghost employees and the black market receiving drugs, what other way was money expended?
56ea97ac5a205f1900d6d37a
counterfeit drugs
49
False
If local corruption did not exist, there would be enough what to help the people in these countries needing medical help?
56ea97ac5a205f1900d6d37b
money
21
False
Instead, the donated money was expended through "counterfeit drugs, siphoning off of drugs to the black market, and payments to ghost employees". Ultimately, there is a sufficient amount of money for health in developing countries, but local corruption denies the wider citizenry the resource they require.
Corruption aids what as far as the environment is concerned?
56ea98980030b61400a34fc7
environmental destruction
23
False
Formal legislation cannot be regulated when officials are what?
56ea98980030b61400a34fc8
bribed
179
False
Bribes also halt unions, the protection of children in labor, and what?
56ea98980030b61400a34fc9
social rights worker protection
207
False
When these laws are broken, corrupt countries gain what in the international market?
56ea98980030b61400a34fca
illegitimate economic advantage
347
False
Corruption facilitates environmental destruction. While corrupt societies may have formal legislation to protect the environment, it cannot be enforced if officials can easily be bribed. The same applies to social rights worker protection, unionization prevention, and child labor. Violation of these laws rights enables corrupt countries to gain illegitimate economic advantage in the international market.
Who has stated that apolitical food problems do not exist?
56ea99270030b61400a34fcf
Amartya Sen
34
False
What can trigger famine conditions?
56ea99270030b61400a34fd1
drought
126
False
While natural occurrences can cause famine, what determines the severity of it?
56ea99270030b61400a34fd2
government action or inaction
208
False
The Nobel Prize-winning economist Amartya Sen has observed that "there is no such thing as an apolitical food problem." While drought and other naturally occurring events may trigger famine conditions, it is government action or inaction that determines its severity, and often even whether or not a famine will occur.
Even if a harvest is good, food security can be crippled when a government has tendencies toward what?
56ea99c90030b61400a34fd7
kleptocracy
43
False
Governments with strong tendencies towards kleptocracy can undermine food security even when harvests are good. Officials often steal state property. In Bihar, India, more than 80% of the subsidized food aid to poor is stolen by corrupt officials. Similarly, food aid is often robbed at gunpoint by governments, criminals, and warlords alike, and sold for a profit. The 20th century is full of many examples of governments undermining the food security of their own nations – sometimes intentionally.
Along with food aid, what is most at risk in these countries?
56ea9a965a205f1900d6d381
construction
141
False
How is food aid usually directly redirected from the people it should go to?
56ea9a965a205f1900d6d382
physically diverted
239
False
Food aid can also be indirectly diverted from its intended recipients through the manipulation of what?
56ea9a965a205f1900d6d383
assessments
332
False
The scale of humanitarian aid to the poor and unstable regions of the world grows, but it is highly vulnerable to corruption, with food aid, construction and other highly valued assistance as the most at risk. Food aid can be directly and physically diverted from its intended destination, or indirectly through the manipulation of assessments, targeting, registration and distributions to favor certain groups or individuals.
Substandard what is often one way for corruption to enter the construction field?
56ea9b665a205f1900d6d388
workmanship
106
False
What happens with contracts to aid corruption?
56ea9b665a205f1900d6d389
kickbacks
119
False
Recipients of aid are concerned about what?
56ea9b665a205f1900d6d38a
exclusion
365
False
Those receiving aid may have connections, pay bribes or what?
56ea9b665a205f1900d6d38b
forced to give sexual favors
463
False
Corrupt people may manipulate what to receive more assistance?
56ea9b665a205f1900d6d38c
statistics
537
False
In construction and shelter there are numerous opportunities for diversion and profit through substandard workmanship, kickbacks for contracts and favouritism in the provision of valuable shelter material. Thus while humanitarian aid agencies are usually most concerned about aid being diverted by including too many, recipients themselves are most concerned about exclusion. Access to aid may be limited to those with connections, to those who pay bribes or are forced to give sexual favors. Equally, those able to do so may manipulate statistics to inflate the number of beneficiaries and siphon off additional assistance.
These types of corruption can harm what?
56ea9d200030b61400a34fe2
the public health
982
False
Along with institutions, this type of corruption can discredit what?
56ea9d200030b61400a34fe3
social relationships
1056
False
Corruption is not specific to poor, developing, or transition countries. In western countries, cases of bribery and other forms of corruption in all possible fields exist: under-the-table payments made to reputed surgeons by patients attempting to be on top of the list of forthcoming surgeries, bribes paid by suppliers to the automotive industry in order to sell low-quality connectors used for instance in safety equipment such as airbags, bribes paid by suppliers to manufacturers of defibrillators (to sell low-quality capacitors), contributions paid by wealthy parents to the "social and culture fund" of a prestigious university in exchange for it to accept their children, bribes paid to obtain diplomas, financial and other advantages granted to unionists by members of the executive board of a car manufacturer in exchange for employer-friendly positions and votes, etc. Examples are endless. These various manifestations of corruption can ultimately present a danger for the public health; they can discredit specific, essential institutions or social relationships.
Corruption can determine certain things in what kind of activities?
56ea9e8c0030b61400a34fe9
sports
53
False
Medical staff can affect what aspect of sports?
56ea9e8c0030b61400a34fea
anti-doping controls
132
False
Corruption can also affect the various components of sports activities (referees, players, medical and laboratory staff involved in anti-doping controls, members of national sport federation and international committees deciding about the allocation of contracts and competition places).
The difference between corruption that is public or private looks like what?
56ea9f000030b61400a34fef
artificial
98
False
What needs to stay away from loopholes?
56ea9f000030b61400a34ff0
national anti-corruption initiatives
114
False
Ultimately, the distinction between public and private sector corruption sometimes appears rather artificial, and national anti-corruption initiatives may need to avoid legal and other loopholes in the coverage of the instruments.
What do you call paying government officials to use their position in their office?
56ea9f495a205f1900d6d392
a bribe
40
False
What is the minimum amount of people that can be involved in a bribe?
56ea9f495a205f1900d6d393
two
161
False
What is it called when corruption is part of all public life?
56ea9f495a205f1900d6d394
culture of corruption
432
False
Beyond getting money, bribes are also used to cause what to others?
56ea9f495a205f1900d6d395
harm
850
False
In the context of political corruption, a bribe may involve a payment given to a government official in exchange of his use of official powers. Bribery requires two participants: one to give the bribe, and one to take it. Either may initiate the corrupt offering; for example, a customs official may demand bribes to let through allowed (or disallowed) goods, or a smuggler might offer bribes to gain passage. In some countries the culture of corruption extends to every aspect of public life, making it extremely difficult for individuals to operate without resorting to bribes. Bribes may be demanded in order for an official to do something he is already paid to do. They may also be demanded in order to bypass laws and regulations. In addition to their role in private financial gain, bribes are also used to intentionally and maliciously cause harm to another (i.e. no financial incentive).[citation needed] In some developing nations, up to half of the population has paid bribes during the past 12 months.
What two types of bribery is the international community trying to get prosecuted as separate?
56ea9f765a205f1900d6d39c
active and passive bribery
106
False
In recent years,[when?] the international community has made efforts to encourage countries to dissociate active and passive bribery and to incriminate them as separate offences.[citation needed]
In some countries there is no formal deal but what that makes prosecuting bribes difficult?
56eaa0445a205f1900d6d39f
mutual understanding
531
False
A bribe can include requesting, offering, giving or what of favors or money?
56eaa0445a205f1900d6d3a1
accepting
938
False
Bribes can be direct or what?
56eaa0445a205f1900d6d3a2
indirect
961
False
This dissociation aims to make the early steps (offering, promising, requesting an advantage) of a corrupt deal already an offence and, thus, to give a clear signal (from a criminal-policy point-of-view) that bribery is not acceptable.[citation needed] Furthermore, such a dissociation makes the prosecution of bribery offences easier since it can be very difficult to prove that two parties (the bribe-giver and the bribe-taker) have formally agreed upon a corrupt deal. In addition, there is often no such formal deal but only a mutual understanding, for instance when it is common knowledge in a municipality that to obtain a building permit one has to pay a "fee" to the decision maker to obtain a favorable decision. A working definition of corruption is also provided as follows in article 3 of the Civil Law Convention on Corruption (ETS 174): For the purpose of this Convention, "corruption" means requesting, offering, giving or accepting, directly or indirectly, a bribe or any other undue advantage or prospect thereof, which distorts the proper performance of any duty or behavior required of the recipient of the bribe, the undue advantage or the prospect thereof.
Selling or trading government position influence is called what?
56eaa11d0030b61400a34ff3
influence peddling
25
False
Selling influence can involve third-parties and this is called what type of relation?
56eaa11d0030b61400a34ff4
tri-lateral
216
False
In some situations the third-party in an influence peddling crime may be not involved or may be what?
56eaa11d0030b61400a34ff5
an accessory
377
False
Where lobbying is controlled, what does it provide for consideration to determine improper influencing?
56eaa11d0030b61400a34ff6
distinctive criteria
996
False
What article of the Criminal Law Convention on Corruption contains distinctive criteria to determine improper influence?
56eaa11d0030b61400a34ff7
article 12
1107
False
Trading in influence, or influence peddling, refers a person selling his/her influence over the decision making process to benefit a third party (person or institution). The difference with bribery is that this is a tri-lateral relation. From a legal point of view, the role of the third party (who is the target of the influence) does not really matter although he/she can be an accessory in some instances. It can be difficult to make a distinction between this form of corruption and some forms of extreme and loosely regulated lobbying where for instance law- or decision-makers can freely "sell" their vote, decision power or influence to those lobbyists who offer the highest compensation, including where for instance the latter act on behalf of powerful clients such as industrial groups who want to avoid the passing of specific environmental, social, or other regulations perceived as too stringent, etc. Where lobbying is (sufficiently) regulated, it becomes possible to provide for a distinctive criteria and to consider that trading in influence involves the use of "improper influence", as in article 12 of the Criminal Law Convention on Corruption (ETS 173) of the Council of Europe.
Giving government jobs to supporters is called what?
56eaa19a0030b61400a34ffd
Patronage
0
False
What country quickly changes most people working in government position when a new government comes into power?
56eaa19a0030b61400a35001
Romania
785
False
Patronage refers to favoring supporters, for example with government employment. This may be legitimate, as when a newly elected government changes the top officials in the administration in order to effectively implement its policy. It can be seen as corruption if this means that incompetent persons, as a payment for supporting the regime, are selected before more able ones. In nondemocracies many government officials are often selected for loyalty rather than ability. They may be almost exclusively selected from a particular group (for example, Sunni Arabs in Saddam Hussein's Iraq, the nomenklatura in the Soviet Union, or the Junkers in Imperial Germany) that support the regime in return for such favors. A similar problem can also be seen in Eastern Europe, for example in Romania, where the government is often accused of patronage (when a new government comes to power it rapidly changes most of the officials in the public sector).
What is it called when relatives are favored over other people?
56eaa2a85a205f1900d6d3a8
nepotism
20
False
What is it called when friends are favored over other people?
56eaa2a85a205f1900d6d3a9
cronyism
51
False
Cronyism is also when people are selected from a closed and exclusive social network, which is called what?
56eaa2a85a205f1900d6d3ac
old boy network
516
False
Favoring relatives (nepotism) or personal friends (cronyism) of an official is a form of illegitimate private gain. This may be combined with bribery, for example demanding that a business should employ a relative of an official controlling regulations affecting the business. The most extreme example is when the entire state is inherited, as in North Korea or Syria. A lesser form might be in the Southern United States with Good ol' boys, where women and minorities are excluded. A milder form of cronyism is an "old boy network", in which appointees to official positions are selected only from a closed and exclusive social network – such as the alumni of particular universities – instead of appointing the most competent candidate.
Corruption also occurs when an official wants to cause some form of harm to who?
56eaa3195a205f1900d6d3b2
enemies
16
False
False charges can be brought against a journalist who writes about what?
56eaa3195a205f1900d6d3b3
politically sensitive issues
207
False
Seeking to harm enemies becomes corruption when official powers are illegitimately used as means to this end. For example, trumped-up charges are often brought up against journalists or writers who bring up politically sensitive issues, such as a politician's acceptance of bribes.
What is it called when a person is dishonest or corrupt for his own gain?
56eaa5425a205f1900d6d3b6
Gombeenism
0
False
Parish pump politics is also called what?
56eaa5425a205f1900d6d3b7
parochialism
134
False
Which crisis in Ireland involved bribery, cronyism and collusion?
56eaa5425a205f1900d6d3b9
Irish Banking crisis
476
False
Politicians who were at the end of their political careers were offered what kind of position with companies they were involved with politically?
56eaa5425a205f1900d6d3ba
senior management or committee position
657
False
Gombeenism refers to an individual who is dishonest and corrupt for the purpose of personal gain, more often through monetary, while, parochialism which is also known as parish pump politics relates to placing local or vanity projects ahead of the national interest.For instance in Irish politics, populist left wing political parties will often apply these terms to mainstream establisment political parties and will cite the many cases of Corruption in Ireland, such as the Irish Banking crisis, which found evidence of bribery, cronyism and collusion, where in some cases politicians who were coming to the end of their political careers would receive a senior management or committee position in a company they had dealings with.
Illegal interference with an election is called what?
56eaa5f15a205f1900d6d3c0
Electoral fraud
0
False
Another term for electoral fraud is what?
56eaa5f15a205f1900d6d3c2
voter fraud
276
False
Illegal voter registration, the miscounting of votes, and what at polls is considered voter fraud?
56eaa5f15a205f1900d6d3c3
intimidation
349
False
Electoral fraud is illegal interference with the process of an election. Acts of fraud affect vote counts to bring about an election result, whether by increasing the vote share of the favored candidate, depressing the vote share of the rival candidates, or both. Also called voter fraud, the mechanisms involved include illegal voter registration, intimidation at polls, and improper vote counting.
When entrusted funds are stolen, it is called what?
56eaa6a30030b61400a35007
Embezzlement
0
False
It is considered political when it involves what kind of money?
56eaa6a30030b61400a35008
public
79
False
One form of political embezzlement is when a politician uses government resources for what use?
56eaa6a30030b61400a35009
personal
207
False
Embezzlement is the theft of entrusted funds. It is political when it involves public money taken by a public official for use by anyone not specified by the public. A common type of embezzlement is that of personal use of entrusted government resources; for example, when an official assigns public employees to renovate his own house.
What is the public official's share called when involved in corrupt bidding?
56eaa7590030b61400a3500d
kickback
2
False
A contract can be given to someone who is not the best what?
56eaa7590030b61400a3500e
bidder
299
False
A kickback is an official's share of misappropriated funds allocated from his or her organization to an organization involved in corrupt bidding. For example, suppose that a politician is in charge of choosing how to spend some public funds. He can give a contract to a company that is not the best bidder, or allocate more than they deserve. In this case, the company benefits, and in exchange for betraying the public, the official receives a kickback payment, which is a portion of the sum the company received. This sum itself may be all or a portion of the difference between the actual (inflated) payment to the company and the (lower) market-based price that would have been paid had the bidding been competitive.
What is not limited to just government officials?
56eaa8575a205f1900d6d3c8
Kickbacks
0
False
Kickbacks are not limited to government officials; any situation in which people are entrusted to spend funds that do not belong to them are susceptible to this kind of corruption.
When groups that are antagonistic to each other form a coalition for hidden gain, it is called what?
56eaa9720030b61400a35015
unholy alliance
3
False
While not illegal, an unholy alliance can be more dangerous to the public than what?
56eaa9720030b61400a35017
patronage
248
False
An unholy alliance is a coalition among seemingly antagonistic groups for ad hoc or hidden gain, generally some influential non-governmental group forming ties with political parties, supplying funding in exchange for the favorable treatment. Like patronage, unholy alliances are not necessarily illegal, but unlike patronage, by its deceptive nature and often great financial resources, an unholy alliance can be much more dangerous to the public interest. An early use of the term was by former US President Theodore "Teddy" Roosevelt:
When was Jinrong a police chief in this area?
56eaaa215a205f1900d6d3cd
1920s and 1930s
85
False
Who was a local gang ringleader in the same area?
56eaaa215a205f1900d6d3ce
Du Yuesheng
237
False
In addition to being a police chief, Jinrong was also what?
56eaaa215a205f1900d6d3cf
a gang boss
203
False
An illustrative example of official involvement in organized crime can be found from 1920s and 1930s Shanghai, where Huang Jinrong was a police chief in the French concession, while simultaneously being a gang boss and co-operating with Du Yuesheng, the local gang ringleader. The relationship kept the flow of profits from the gang's gambling dens, prostitution, and protection rackets undisturbed.[citation needed]
What was Noriega's government accused of being?
56eaaa8f5a205f1900d6d3d4
narcokleptocracy
76
False
What country did Noriega rule?
56eaaa8f5a205f1900d6d3d5
Panama
57
False
What country invaded Panama to capture Noriega?
56eaaa8f5a205f1900d6d3d6
United States
4
False
What is a narcokleptocracy?
56eaaa8f5a205f1900d6d3d7
government profiting on illegal drug trade
105
False
What is Noriega's first name?
56eaaa8f5a205f1900d6d3d8
Manuel
26
False
The United States accused Manuel Noriega's government in Panama of being a "narcokleptocracy", a corrupt government profiting on illegal drug trade. Later the U.S. invaded Panama and captured Noriega.
According to Thomas Jefferson, when the media is free and people are literate they are what?
56eaaabc0030b61400a3501e
safe
163
False
Thomas Jefferson observed a tendency for "The functionaries of every government ... to command at will the liberty and property of their constituents. There is no safe deposit [for liberty and property] ... without information. Where the press is free, and every man able to read, all is safe."
Who found evidence that where the media had freedom there was less political corruption?
56eaaaf05a205f1900d6d3de
Brunetti and Weder
44
False
Who discovered that more people reading newspapers resulted in higher political accountability?
56eaaaf05a205f1900d6d3df
Adserà, Boix, and Payne
326
False
About 100 countries and what else was information gathered from to show that more people reading newspapers had higher political accountability?
56eaaaf05a205f1900d6d3e0
different states in the US.
502
False
Recent research supports Jefferson's claim. Brunetti and Weder found "evidence of a significant relationship between more press freedom and less corruption in a large cross-section of countries." They also presented "evidence which suggests that the direction of causation runs from higher press freedom to lower corruption." Adserà, Boix, and Payne found that increases in newspaper readership led to increased political accountability and lower corruption in data from roughly 100 countries and from different states in the US.
Who discovered the correlation that congressman who have less local press coverage work less for the people who elected them?
56eaab375a205f1900d6d3e5
Snyder and Strömberg
0
False
What newspaper stopped publishing in 2007?
56eaab375a205f1900d6d3e6
Cincinnati Post
459
False
Who was most likely to get reelected after the Post shut down?
56eaab375a205f1900d6d3e7
incumbents
584
False
Campaign spending and what fell after the Post stopped publishing?
56eaab375a205f1900d6d3e8
voter turnout
637
False
Snyder and Strömberg found "that a poor fit between newspaper markets and political districts reduces press coverage of politics. ... Congressmen who are less covered by the local press work less for their constituencies: they are less likely to stand witness before congressional hearings ... . Federal spending is lower in areas where there is less press coverage of the local members of congress." Schulhofer-Wohl and Garrido found that the year after the Cincinnati Post closed in 2007, "fewer candidates ran for municipal office in the Kentucky suburbs most reliant on the Post, incumbents became more likely to win reelection, and voter turnout and campaign spending fell.
What did the analysis show mixed results for?
56eaab6f0030b61400a35022
growth of the Internet
112
False
What was disrupted by Internet growth for the press?
56eaab6f0030b61400a35023
traditional sources of funding
289
False
How much has new types of Internet journalism replaced what has been lost in the press?
56eaab6f0030b61400a35024
a tiny fraction
377
False
An analysis of the evolution of mass media in the US and Europe since World War II noted mixed results from the growth of the Internet: "The digital revolution has been good for freedom of expression [and] information [but] has had mixed effects on freedom of the press": It has disrupted traditional sources of funding, and new forms of Internet journalism have replaced only a tiny fraction of what's been lost.
How many measures does Transparency International publish right now?
56eaac850030b61400a35029
three
290
False
What is the measure that Transparency International publishes that looks at the willingness of a foreign company to pay a bribe?
56eaac850030b61400a3502a
Bribe Payers Index
556
False
What is the measure that it publishes that involves polling to determine the public's take on how corrupt various countries are?
56eaac850030b61400a3502b
CPI
82
False
When was the CPI first released?
56eaac850030b61400a3502c
1995
105
False
Which index studies the correlation of corruption and military in a country?
56eaac850030b61400a3502d
Government Defence Anti-corruption Index
836
False
Transparency International, an anti-corruption NGO, pioneered this field with the CPI, first released in 1995. This work is often credited with breaking a taboo and forcing the issue of corruption into high level development policy discourse. Transparency International currently publishes three measures, updated annually: a CPI (based on aggregating third-party polling of public perceptions of how corrupt different countries are); a Global Corruption Barometer (based on a survey of general public attitudes toward and experience of corruption); and a Bribe Payers Index, looking at the willingness of foreign firms to pay bribes. The Corruption Perceptions Index is the best known of these metrics, though it has drawn much criticism and may be declining in influence. In 2013 Transparency International published a report on the "Government Defence Anti-corruption Index". This index evaluates the risk of corruption in countries' military sector.
How many firms throughout the world have been surveyed by the World Bank in regards to its corruption study?
56eaadd55a205f1900d6d3ee
over 100,000
87
False
How many dimensions of governance are measured by the Worldwide Governance Indicators?
56eaadd55a205f1900d6d3ef
six
202
False
One of the dimensions is the extent to which power is exercised for personal gain, which is called what?
56eaadd55a205f1900d6d3f0
Control of Corruption
282
False
Which organization is most notable for adopting the global coverage of these studies?
56eaadd55a205f1900d6d3f1
Millennium Challenge Corporation
906
False
The World Bank collects a range of data on corruption, including survey responses from over 100,000 firms worldwide and a set of indicators of governance and institutional quality. Moreover, one of the six dimensions of governance measured by the Worldwide Governance Indicators is Control of Corruption, which is defined as "the extent to which power is exercised for private gain, including both petty and grand forms of corruption, as well as 'capture' of the state by elites and private interests." While the definition itself is fairly precise, the data aggregated into the Worldwide Governance Indicators is based on any available polling: questions range from "is corruption a serious problem?" to measures of public access to information, and not consistent across countries. Despite these weaknesses, the global coverage of these datasets has led to their widespread adoption, most notably by the Millennium Challenge Corporation.
A second set of corruption metrics has been compiled by Global Integrity and what other organization?
56eaaf2b5a205f1900d6d3f6
International Budget Partnership
590
False
When was the Global Integrity Index first published?
56eaaf2b5a205f1900d6d3f7
2004
411
False
Both companies no longer use what means of collecting of data?
56eaaf2b5a205f1900d6d3f8
public surveys
642
False
Instead of public surveys, the organizations use what to study corruption?
56eaaf2b5a205f1900d6d3f9
in-country experts
674
False
A number of parties have collected survey data, from the public and from experts, to try and gauge the level of corruption and bribery, as well as its impact on political and economic outcomes. A second wave of corruption metrics has been created by Global Integrity, the International Budget Partnership, and many lesser known local groups. These metrics include the Global Integrity Index, first published in 2004. These second wave projects aim to create policy change by identifying resources more effectively and creating checklists toward incremental reform. Global Integrity and the International Budget Partnership each dispense with public surveys and instead uses in-country experts to evaluate "the opposite of corruption" – which Global Integrity defines as the public policies that prevent, discourage, or expose corruption. These approaches compliment the first wave, awareness-raising tools by giving governments facing public outcry a checklist which measures concrete steps toward improved governance.
The second wave of metrics focuses on what level of corruption?
56eaaf7d5a205f1900d6d400
local
126
False
Unlike the first wave, the second wave does not offer what type of coverage?
56eaaf7d5a205f1900d6d401
worldwide
56
False
Typical second wave corruption metrics do not offer the worldwide coverage found in first wave projects, and instead focus on localizing information gathered to specific problems and creating deep, "unpackable"[clarification needed] content that matches quantitative and qualitative data.
What is the British aid agency's research called?
56eab0195a205f1900d6d404
Drivers of Change
57
False
What does Drivers of Change skip?
56eab0195a205f1900d6d405
numbers
91
False
What does Drivers of Change promote?
56eab0195a205f1900d6d406
understanding corruption
112
False
Alternative approaches, such as the British aid agency's Drivers of Change research, skips numbers and promotes understanding corruption via political economy analysis of who controls power in a given society.
Public spending has risks of kickbacks, embezzlement and what?
56eab0855a205f1900d6d40c
cronyism
75
False
What type of regulations make corruption worse for public spending?
56eab0855a205f1900d6d40d
Complicated
114
False
The potential for corruption in public spending are one of the arguments that favor what?
56eab0855a205f1900d6d40e
privatization and deregulation
232
False
What countries have big public sectors but low corruption?
56eab0855a205f1900d6d40f
Nordic
507
False
What do the low corruption countries have solidly established?
56eab0855a205f1900d6d410
rule of law
640
False
Extensive and diverse public spending is, in itself, inherently at risk of cronyism, kickbacks, and embezzlement. Complicated regulations and arbitrary, unsupervised official conduct exacerbate the problem. This is one argument for privatization and deregulation. Opponents of privatization see the argument as ideological. The argument that corruption necessarily follows from the opportunity is weakened by the existence of countries with low to non-existent corruption but large public sectors, like the Nordic countries. These countries score high on the Ease of Doing Business Index, due to good and often simple regulations, and have rule of law firmly established. Therefore, due to their lack of corruption in the first place, they can run large public sectors without inducing political corruption. Recent evidence that takes both the size of expenditures and regulatory complexity into account has found that high-income democracies with more expansive state sectors do indeed have higher levels of corruption.
Selling government property is highly at risk for what?
56eab0dc5a205f1900d6d416
cronyism
146
False
What type of people got wealthy from the sale of state-owned companies?
56eab0dc5a205f1900d6d418
Those with political connections
303
False
Where is corruption even more prevalent?
56eab0dc5a205f1900d6d419
non-privatized sectors
685
False
Countries that what have more extralegal and unofficial things going on?
56eab0dc5a205f1900d6d41a
privatized less
830
False
Like other governmental economic activities, also privatization, such as in the sale of government-owned property, is particularly at the risk of cronyism. Privatizations in Russia, Latin America, and East Germany were accompanied by large-scale corruption during the sale of the state owned companies. Those with political connections unfairly gained large wealth, which has discredited privatization in these regions. While media have reported widely the grand corruption that accompanied the sales, studies have argued that in addition to increased operating efficiency, daily petty corruption is, or would be, larger without privatization, and that corruption is more prevalent in non-privatized sectors. Furthermore, there is evidence to suggest that extralegal and unofficial activities are more prevalent in countries that privatized less.
Providing a government service from the lowest form of local government that can adequately provide the service is called what?
56eab1020030b61400a35033
principle of subsidiarity
27
False
What does distributing money into multiple instances discourage?
56eab1020030b61400a35034
embezzlement
250
False
Even small amounts of public money can be a lot in what type of authority?
56eab1020030b61400a35035
centralized
331
False
In the European Union, the principle of subsidiarity is applied: a government service should be provided by the lowest, most local authority that can competently provide it. An effect is that distribution of funds into multiple instances discourages embezzlement, because even small sums missing will be noticed. In contrast, in a centralized authority, even minute proportions of public funds can be large sums of money.
What is it called when higher ups in government embezzle from the government's treasury?
56eab1550030b61400a35039
kleptocracy
166
False
What examples of natural resources do some corrupt officials in government take?
56eab1550030b61400a3503a
diamonds and oil
256
False
Some corrupt governments use what type of money coming in?
56eab1550030b61400a3503b
foreign aid
398
False
Foreign aid money is sometimes used to build fancy structures and to buy what?
56eab1550030b61400a3503c
armaments
455
False
If the highest echelons of the governments also take advantage from corruption or embezzlement from the state's treasury, it is sometimes referred with the neologism kleptocracy. Members of the government can take advantage of the natural resources (e.g., diamonds and oil in a few prominent cases) or state-owned productive industries. A number of corrupt governments have enriched themselves via foreign aid, which is often spent on showy buildings and armaments.
In their pursuit of more money and power, corrupt dictators often ignore what?
56eab1825a205f1900d6d421
economic and social problems
222
False
A corrupt dictatorship typically results in many years of general hardship and suffering for the vast majority of citizens as civil society and the rule of law disintegrate. In addition, corrupt dictators routinely ignore economic and social problems in their quest to amass ever more wealth and power.
Who was the dictator in Zaire from 1965 to 1997?
56eab1d05a205f1900d6d426
Marshal Mobutu Sese Seko
80
False
What did Zaire used to be known as?
56eab1d05a205f1900d6d427
Democratic Republic of the Congo
120
False
What term became more popular as Mobutu ruled?
56eab1d05a205f1900d6d428
kleptocracy
231
False
Who ruled Nigeria until he died in 1998?
56eab1d05a205f1900d6d429
General Sani Abacha
393
False
The classic case of a corrupt, exploitive dictator often given is the regime of Marshal Mobutu Sese Seko, who ruled the Democratic Republic of the Congo (which he renamed Zaire) from 1965 to 1997. It is said that usage of the term kleptocracy gained popularity largely in response to a need to accurately describe Mobutu's regime. Another classic case is Nigeria, especially under the rule of General Sani Abacha who was de facto president of Nigeria from 1993 until his death in 1998. He is reputed to have stolen some US$3–4 billion. He and his relatives are often mentioned in Nigerian 419 letter scams claiming to offer vast fortunes for "help" in laundering his stolen "fortunes", which in reality turn out not to exist. More than $400 billion was stolen from the treasury by Nigeria's leaders between 1960 and 1999.
What magazine had articles about Castro benefiting from corruption?
56eab22e0030b61400a35041
Forbes
71
False
The $900 million Forbes said Castro took may only be what of his total assets?
56eab22e0030b61400a35044
a portion
565
False
What is Fidel Castro's official title?
56eab22e0030b61400a35045
General Secretary of the Republic of Cuba
118
False
More recently, articles in various financial periodicals, most notably Forbes magazine, have pointed to Fidel Castro, General Secretary of the Republic of Cuba since 1959, of likely being the beneficiary of up to $900 million, based on "his control" of state-owned companies. Opponents of his regime claim that he has used money amassed through weapons sales, narcotics, international loans, and confiscation of private property to enrich himself and his political cronies who hold his dictatorship together, and that the $900 million published by Forbes is merely a portion of his assets, although that needs to be proven.
What is OAS?
56eab2c15a205f1900d6d430
Organization of American States
78
False
Additional conventions were adopted at the regional level by OAS and who?
56eab2c15a205f1900d6d431
the African Union
124
False
What organization joined at the universal level?
56eab2c15a205f1900d6d432
the United Nations Convention against Corruption
193
False
When did the United Nations Convention against Corruption join?
56eab2c15a205f1900d6d433
2003
150
False
Further conventions were adopted at the regional level under the aegis of the Organization of American States (OAS or OEA), the African Union, and in 2003, at the universal level under that of the United Nations Convention against Corruption.
Why is it difficult to measure corruption?
56eab5ed0030b61400a3504b
imprecise definitions of corruption
115
False
When did indices on corruption first appear?
56eab5ed0030b61400a3504c
1995
197
False
What was the first index on corruption, in 1995?
56eab5ed0030b61400a3504d
the Corruption Perceptions Index CPI
207
False
Measuring corruption statistically is difficult if not impossible due to the illicit nature of the transaction and imprecise definitions of corruption. While "corruption" indices first appeared in 1995 with the Corruption Perceptions Index CPI, all of these metrics address different proxies for corruption, such as public perceptions of the extent of the problem.
How many methods of judiciary corruption are there?
56eab6410030b61400a35051
two
10
False
What part of the government controls the judiciary budget in many developing countries?
56eab6410030b61400a35053
executive
240
False
What does executive branch control over judiciary money undermine?
56eab6410030b61400a35054
separation of powers
277
False
What type of corruption is hard to get rid of even in developed countries?
56eab6410030b61400a35055
judiciary
145
False
There are two methods of corruption of the judiciary: the state (through budget planning and various privileges), and the private. Budget of the judiciary in many transitional and developing countries is almost completely controlled by the executive. The latter undermines the separation of powers, as it creates a critical financial dependence of the judiciary. The proper national wealth distribution including the government spending on the judiciary is subject of the constitutional economics. Judicial corruption can be difficult to completely eradicate, even in developed countries.
Radio broadcasts and what help deter corruption?
56eab6715a205f1900d6d438
Mobile telecommunications
0
False
What country is used as an example for limited forms of communications?
56eab6715a205f1900d6d439
Africa
113
False
Who works against corruption in India?
56eab6715a205f1900d6d43a
the anti-corruption bureau
180
False
What new ombudsman bill is being readied in India?
56eab6715a205f1900d6d43b
Jan Lokpal Bill
266
False
Mobile telecommunications and radio broadcasting help to fight corruption, especially in developing regions like Africa, where other forms of communications are limited. In India, the anti-corruption bureau fights against corruption, and a new ombudsman bill called Jan Lokpal Bill is being prepared.
What decade saw international initiatives to combat corruption?
56eab6970030b61400a3505b
1990s
7
False
Who started the Programme of Action?
56eab6970030b61400a3505c
Ministers of the Council of Europe
192
False
What did the Programme of Action issue?
56eab6970030b61400a3505d
a series of anti-corruption standard-setting instruments
331
False
In the 1990s, initiatives were taken at an international level (in particular by the European Community, the Council of Europe, the OECD) to put a ban on corruption: in 1996, the Committee of Ministers of the Council of Europe, for instance, adopted a comprehensive Programme of Action against Corruption and, subsequently, issued a series of anti-corruption standard-setting instruments:
What does GRECO stand for?
56eab7245a205f1900d6d440
Group of States Against Corruption
384
False
What is the name of the French equivalent of GRECO?
56eab7245a205f1900d6d441
Groupe d'Etats contre la corruption
450
False
The instruments used to point out the different corrupt forms looked to see if they were rigidly domestic or what?
56eab7245a205f1900d6d442
transnational
222
False
The purpose of these instruments was to address the various forms of corruption (involving the public sector, the private sector, the financing of political activities, etc.) whether they had a strictly domestic or also a transnational dimension. To monitor the implementation at national level of the requirements and principles provided in those texts, a monitoring mechanism – the Group of States Against Corruption (also known as GRECO) (French: Groupe d'Etats contre la corruption) was created.
Classical_music
What term is used to refer to the period from 1750 to 1820?
56f6e729711bf01900a44858
the Classical period
217
False
What years are termed the Renaissance period?
56f6e729711bf01900a44859
1400–1600
663
False
What years are termed the Baroque period?
56f6e729711bf01900a4485a
1600–1750
736
False
From 1804-1910 was called what era?
56f6e729711bf01900a4485b
Romantic
775
False
Classical music is rooted in what kind of tradition?
56f6e729711bf01900a4485c
Western music
69
False
Classical music is rooted the the traditions of what kind of music?
56f6ed94711bf01900a44874
Western
69
False
What is the period from 1750 to 1820 called?
56f6ed94711bf01900a44875
the Classical period
217
False
What time period is known at the common practice period?
56f6ed94711bf01900a44876
between 1550 and 1900
450
False
When was the modern era?
56f6ed94711bf01900a44878
1890–1930
862
False
Classical music is art music produced or rooted in the traditions of Western music, including both liturgical (religious) and secular music. While a similar term is also used to refer to the period from 1750 to 1820 (the Classical period), this article is about the broad span of time from roughly the 11th century to the present day, which includes the Classical period and various other periods. The central norms of this tradition became codified between 1550 and 1900, which is known as the common practice period. The major time divisions of classical music are as follows: the early music period, which includes the Medieval (500–1400) and the Renaissance (1400–1600) eras; the Common practice period, which includes the Baroque (1600–1750), Classical (1750–1820), and Romantic eras (1804–1910); and the 20th century (1901–2000) which includes the modern (1890–1930) that overlaps from the late 19th-century, the high modern (mid 20th-century), and contemporary or postmodern (1975–2015) eras.[citation needed]
How is European art music distinguished from non-European and popular music?
56f6e85b3d8e2e1400e372ac
its system of staff notation
102
False
What method is used by composers to prescribe to the performer the pitches, tempo, meter and rhythms for a piece of music?
56f6e85b3d8e2e1400e372ad
Western staff notation
169
False
What popular styles practice improvisation and ad libitum ornamentation?
56f6e85b3d8e2e1400e372ae
jazz and blues
523
False
Since it is written down, classical music can attain a high level of what?
56f6e85b3d8e2e1400e372af
complexity
888
False
How is European art music distinguished from many other musical forms?
56f6ee72711bf01900a4487e
its system of staff notation
102
False
How long has the system of staff notation been in use?
56f6ee72711bf01900a4487f
since about the 16th century
139
False
Jazz and blues use ad libitum and what other ornamentation?
56f6ee72711bf01900a44880
improvisation
389
False
Classic music can a attain a high level of what?
56f6ee72711bf01900a44881
complexity
888
False
European art music is largely distinguished from many other non-European and popular musical forms by its system of staff notation, in use since about the 16th century. Western staff notation is used by composers to prescribe to the performer the pitches (e.g., melodies, basslines and/or chords), tempo, meter and rhythms for a piece of music. This leaves less room for practices such as improvisation and ad libitum ornamentation, which are frequently heard in non-European art music and in popular music  styles such as jazz and blues. Another difference is that whereas most popular styles lend themselves to the song form, classical music has been noted for its development of highly sophisticated forms of instrumental music such as the concerto, symphony, sonata, and mixed vocal and instrumental styles such as opera which, since they are written down, can attain a high level of complexity.
When did the term "classical music" appear?
56f6e9dd711bf01900a44862
the early 19th century
48
False
What period is referred to as a "golden age"?
56f6e9dd711bf01900a44863
the period from Johann Sebastian Bach to Beethoven
109
False
What year is the earliest reference to 'classical music'?
56f6e9dd711bf01900a44864
1836
277
False
What book holds the earliest reference to 'classical music'?
56f6e9dd711bf01900a44865
Oxford English Dictionary
237
False
What term did not appear until the early 19th century?
56f6ef2e3d8e2e1400e372be
classical music
10
False
What 'age' is the period from Johann Sebastian Bach to Beethoven referred to as?
56f6ef2e3d8e2e1400e372bf
golden age
165
False
What year was the earliest reference to classical music?
56f6ef2e3d8e2e1400e372c0
1836
277
False
In what book was the earliest reference to classical music?
56f6ef2e3d8e2e1400e372c1
Oxford English Dictionary
237
False
The term "classical music" did not appear until the early 19th century, in an attempt to distinctly canonize the period from Johann Sebastian Bach to Beethoven as a golden age. The earliest reference to "classical music" recorded by the Oxford English Dictionary is from about 1836.
Who sang Medieval plainchant?
56f6ebb4711bf01900a4486a
monks
84
False
Avant-garde atonal compositions were written for what instrument?
56f6ebb4711bf01900a4486b
solo piano
205
False
What two characteristics of classical music can not be attributed to other genres?
56f6ebb4711bf01900a4486c
use of a printed score and the performance of very complex instrumental works
445
False
Through what period did the symphony not exist?
56f6ebb4711bf01900a4486d
the entire classical music period
595
False
What has become a defining feature of classical music?
56f6ebb4711bf01900a4486e
the symphony ensemble
662
False
What did not exist through the entire classical music period?
56f6eff93d8e2e1400e372c6
the symphony
560
False
The use of a printed score and the performance of very complex instrumental works are characteristics of what?
56f6eff93d8e2e1400e372c8
classical music
362
False
Who sang medieval plainchant?
56f6eff93d8e2e1400e372c9
monks
84
False
Given the wide range of styles in classical music, from Medieval plainchant sung by monks to Classical and Romantic symphonies for orchestra from the 1700s and 1800s to avant-garde atonal compositions for solo piano from the 1900s, it is difficult to list characteristics that can be attributed to all works of that type. However, there are characteristics that classical music contains that few or no other genres of music contain, such as the use of a printed score and the performance of very complex instrumental works (e.g., the fugue). As well, although the symphony did not exist through the entire classical music period, from the mid-1700s to the 2000s the symphony ensemble—and the works written for it—have become a defining feature of classical music.
J.S. Bach's fugues create a coherent harmonic logic that would be impossible for what other style of music?
56f6f1073d8e2e1400e372ce
live improvisation
671
False
The score determines how various parts are coordinated, pitch, and what other detail?
56f6f1073d8e2e1400e372cf
rhythm
244
False
What has allowed Classical musicians to perform music from many centuries ago?
56f6f1073d8e2e1400e372d0
written notation
702
False
Who's fugues achieve a remarkable marriage of boldly distinctive melodic lines?
56f6f1073d8e2e1400e372d1
J.S. Bach's
468
False
The key characteristic of classical music that distinguishes it from popular music and folk music is that the repertoire tends to be written down in musical notation, creating a musical part or score. This score typically determines details of rhythm, pitch, and, where two or more musicians (whether singers or instrumentalists) are involved, how the various parts are coordinated. The written quality of the music has enabled a high level of complexity within them: J.S. Bach's fugues, for instance, achieve a remarkable marriage of boldly distinctive melodic lines weaving in counterpoint yet creating a coherent harmonic logic that would be impossible in the heat of live improvisation. The use of written notation also preserves a record of the works and enables Classical musicians to perform music from many centuries ago. Musical notation enables 2000s-era performers to sing a choral work from the 1300s Renaissance era or a 1700s Baroque concerto with many of the features of the music (the melodies, lyrics, forms, and rhythms) being reproduced.
The score does not provide complete and exact instruction on how to do what?
56f6f24c711bf01900a44886
perform a historical work
80
False
In what era were many works designed for basso continuo accompaniment?
56f6f24c711bf01900a44887
the Baroque era
253
False
Vibrato and glissando are possible on stringed, brass, woodwind and what other style instrument?
56f6f24c711bf01900a44888
the human voice
990
False
What are fermatas?
56f6f24c711bf01900a44889
held notes
803
False
That said, the score does not provide complete and exact instructions on how to perform a historical work. Even if the tempo is written with an Italian instruction (e.g., Allegro), we do not know exactly how fast the piece should be played. As well, in the Baroque era, many works that were designed for basso continuo accompaniment do not specify which instruments should play the accompaniment or exactly how the chordal instrument (harpsichord, lute, etc.) should play the chords, which are not notated in the part (only a figured bass symbol beneath the bass part is used to guide the chord-playing performer). The performer and/or the conductor have a range of options for musical expression and interpretation of a scored piece, including the phrasing of melodies, the time taken during fermatas (held notes) or pauses, and the use (or choice not to use) of effects such as vibrato or glissando (these effects are possible on various stringed, brass and woodwind instruments and with the human voice).
Classical music in the 2000s has lost most of its tradition for musical what?
56f6f3343d8e2e1400e372d6
improvisation
81
False
In the Baroque era, who would improvise preludes?
56f6f3343d8e2e1400e372d7
organ performers
238
False
Who would improvise musical ornaments in the Baroque era?
56f6f3343d8e2e1400e372d8
instrumental performers
443
False
Who was noted for his complex improvisations?
56f6f3343d8e2e1400e372d9
J.S. Bach
502
False
What was Mozart noted for?
56f6f3343d8e2e1400e372da
his ability to improvise melodies in different styles
637
False
Although Classical music in the 2000s has lost most of its tradition for musical improvisation, from the Baroque era to the Romantic era, there are examples of performers who could improvise in the style of their era. In the Baroque era, organ performers would improvise preludes, keyboard performers playing harpsichord would improvise chords from the figured bass symbols beneath the bass notes of the basso continuo part and both vocal and instrumental performers would improvise musical ornaments. J.S. Bach was particularly noted for his complex improvisations. During the Classical era, the composer-performer Mozart was noted for his ability to improvise melodies in different styles. During the Classical era, some virtuoso soloists would improvise the cadenza sections of a concerto. During the Romantic era, Beethoven would improvise at the piano. For more information, see Improvisation.
Instrument currently used in most classical music where invented before what period?
56f6f4703d8e2e1400e372e0
the mid-19th century
84
False
What is the most widely known medium for classical music?
56f6f4703d8e2e1400e372e1
The symphony orchestra
337
False
A symphony orchestra includes members of the string, woodwind, percussion and what other family of instruments?
56f6f4703d8e2e1400e372e2
brass
458
False
What does a symphony orchestra have that is missing from a concert band?
56f6f4703d8e2e1400e372e3
a string section
707
False
What practice has changed a great deal over the classical period?
56f6f4703d8e2e1400e372e4
vocal
776
False
The instruments currently used in most classical music were largely invented before the mid-19th century (often much earlier) and codified in the 18th and 19th centuries. They consist of the instruments found in an orchestra or in a concert band, together with several other solo instruments (such as the piano, harpsichord, and organ). The symphony orchestra is the most widely known medium for classical music and includes members of the string, woodwind, brass, and percussion families of instruments. The concert band consists of members of the woodwind, brass, and percussion families. It generally has a larger variety and amount of woodwind and brass instruments than the orchestra but does not have a string section. However, many concert bands use a double bass. The vocal practices changed a great deal over the classical period, from the single line monophonic Gregorian chant done by monks in the Medieval period to the complex, polyphonic choral works of the Renaissance and subsequent periods, which used multiple independent vocal melodies at the same time.
What was the medieval flute made from?
56f6f5e1711bf01900a44898
wood
126
False
What was an early version of the fiddle called?
56f6f5e1711bf01900a44899
vielle
291
False
What was an early version of the trombone called?
56f6f5e1711bf01900a4489a
sackbut
325
False
Medieval instrument in Europe were commonly used how?
56f6f5e1711bf01900a4489b
singly
402
False
Loud, shrill, and outdoor instruments were referred to as 'haut', while quieter, more intimate instruments were referred to as what?
56f6f5e1711bf01900a4489c
bas
632
False
Many of the instruments used to perform medieval music still exist, but in different forms. Medieval instruments included the wood flute (which in the 21st century is made of metal), the recorder and plucked string instruments like the lute. As well, early versions of the organ, fiddle (or vielle), and trombone (called the sackbut) existed. Medieval instruments in Europe had most commonly been used singly, often self accompanied with a drone note, or occasionally in parts. From at least as early as the 13th century through the 15th century there was a division of instruments into haut (loud, shrill, outdoor instruments) and bas (quieter, more intimate instruments).
What genre was predominately Gregorian chant during the earlier medieval period?
56f6f7043d8e2e1400e372f2
liturgical
61
False
What genre uses multiple independent vocal melodies?
56f6f7043d8e2e1400e372f3
Polyphonic vocal genres
175
False
When did the Polyphonic vocal genre begin to develop?
56f6f7043d8e2e1400e372f4
during the high medieval era
265
False
What word means using a single unaccompanied vocal melody line?
56f6f7043d8e2e1400e372f5
monophonic
114
False
During the earlier medieval period, the vocal music from the liturgical genre, predominantly Gregorian chant, was monophonic, using a single, unaccompanied vocal melody line. Polyphonic vocal genres, which used multiple independent vocal melodies, began to develop during the high medieval era, becoming prevalent by the later 13th and early 14th century.
Many instruments originated during what era?
56f6f7d73d8e2e1400e372fa
the Renaissance
35
False
What has disappeared, then been recreated in order to perform music of the period?
56f6f7d73d8e2e1400e372fb
authentic instruments
270
False
Modern day instrument may be classified as brass, string, woodwind and what other classification?
56f6f7d73d8e2e1400e372fc
percussion
364
False
Many instruments originated during the Renaissance; others were variations of, or improvements upon, instruments that had existed previously. Some have survived to the present day; others have disappeared, only to be recreated in order to perform music of the period on authentic instruments. As in the modern day, instruments may be classified as brass, strings, percussion, and woodwind.
Brass instruments were traditionally played by profession guild members during what era?
56f6f8cd711bf01900a448a2
the Renaissance
21
False
Stringed instruments during the Renaissance included the viol, the lyre, the cittern, the lute and what other instrument?
56f6f8cd711bf01900a448a3
the hurdy-gurdy
262
False
The virginal is what type of instrument?
56f6f8cd711bf01900a448a4
Keyboard instruments with strings
305
False
The tambourine, bells and rumble-pot are all what type of instrument?
56f6f8cd711bf01900a448a5
Percussion
382
False
The reed pipe and recorder are what type of instrument?
56f6f8cd711bf01900a448a6
Woodwind
514
False
Brass instruments in the Renaissance were traditionally played by professionals who were members of Guilds and they included the slide trumpet, the wooden cornet, the valveless trumpet and the sackbut. Stringed instruments included the viol, the harp-like lyre, the hurdy-gurdy, the cittern and the lute. Keyboard instruments with strings included the harpsichord and the virginal. Percussion instruments include the triangle, the Jew's harp, the tambourine, the bells, the rumble-pot, and various kinds of drums. Woodwind instruments included the double reed shawm, the reed pipe, the bagpipe, the transverse flute and the recorder.
Vocal music in the Renaissance is noted for an increasingly elaborate what?
56f6f981711bf01900a448ac
polyphonic style
89
False
What liturgical form besides motets endured throughout the entire Renaissance period?
56f6f981711bf01900a448ad
masses
198
False
Monody, the madrigal comedy, and intermedio are all precursors to what?
56f6f981711bf01900a448ae
opera
442
False
Vocal music in the Renaissance is noted for the flourishing of an increasingly elaborate polyphonic style. The principal liturgical forms which endured throughout the entire Renaissance period were masses and motets, with some other developments towards the end, especially as composers of sacred music began to adopt secular forms (such as the madrigal) for their own designs. Towards the end of the period, the early dramatic precursors of opera such as monody, the madrigal comedy, and the intermedio are seen.
The cello, contrabrass and fortepiano were new instruments during what period?
56f6fa48711bf01900a448b2
Baroque
0
False
What happened to the shawn and the wooden cornet during the Baroque period?
56f6fa48711bf01900a448b3
fell into disuse
221
False
The timpani ans castanets are what type of instrument?
56f6fa48711bf01900a448b4
Percussion
835
False
The serpent is what type of instrument?
56f6fa48711bf01900a448b5
Brass
593
False
Which string instrument often played the basso continuo parts?
56f6fa48711bf01900a448b6
theorbo
394
False
Baroque instruments included some instruments from the earlier periods (e.g., the hurdy-gurdy and recorder) and a number of new instruments (e.g, the cello, contrabass and fortepiano). Some instruments from previous eras fell into disuse, such as the shawm and the wooden cornet. The key Baroque instruments for strings included the violin, viol, viola, viola d'amore, cello, contrabass, lute, theorbo (which often played the basso continuo parts), mandolin, cittern, Baroque guitar, harp and hurdy-gurdy. Woodwinds included the Baroque flute, Baroque oboe, rackett, recorder and the bassoon. Brass instruments included the cornett, natural horn, Baroque trumpet, serpent and the trombone. Keyboard instruments included the clavichord, tangent piano, the fortepiano (an early version of the piano), the harpsichord and the pipe organ. Percussion instruments included the timpani, snare drum, tambourine and the castanets.
What was less standardized during the Baroque era?
56f6fb773d8e2e1400e37308
the types of instruments used in ensembles
90
False
Two violins, a viola, and a cello make up what type of group?
56f6fb773d8e2e1400e37309
a classical era string quartet
170
False
Keyboard instruments included the pip organ, harpsichord and what other instrument?
56f6fb773d8e2e1400e3730a
clavichord
418
False
What is an example of a stringed chordal instrument during the Baroque period?
56f6fb773d8e2e1400e3730b
a lute
478
False
One major difference between Baroque music and the classical era that followed it is that the types of instruments used in ensembles were much less standardized. Whereas a classical era string quartet consists almost exclusively of two violins, a viola and a cello, a Baroque group accompanying a soloist or opera could include one of several different types of keyboard instruments (e.g., pipe organ, harpsichord, or clavichord), additional stringed chordal instruments (e.g., a lute) and an unspecified number of bass instruments performing the basso continuo bassline, including bowed strings, woodwinds and brass instruments (e.g., a cello, contrabass, viol, bassoon, serpent, etc.).
From the 1750's to the early 1830's is the era of Mozart and what other composer?
56f6fc16711bf01900a448ce
Haydn
229
False
Classical music can mean all Western art music or more specifically from the 1750's to when?
56f6fc16711bf01900a448cf
the early 1830s
191
False
The broad meaning of classical music stretches back from today to what era?
56f6fc16711bf01900a448d0
the Medieval era
101
False
The term "classical music" has two meanings: the broader meaning includes all Western art music from the Medieval era to today, and the specific meaning refers to the music from the 1750s to the early 1830s—the era of Mozart and Haydn. This section is about the more specific meaning.
Classical musicians continued to use many instruments from what era?
56f6fe26711bf01900a448d4
Baroque
66
False
The theorbo and what other Baroque instrument fell into disuse?
56f6fe26711bf01900a448d5
rackett
232
False
The Baroque violin became what modern instrument?
56f6fe26711bf01900a448d6
the violin
368
False
What did the Baroque trumpet become?
56f6fe26711bf01900a448d7
the regular valved trumpet
469
False
Classical musicians continued to use many of instruments from the Baroque era, such as the cello, contrabass, recorder, trombone, timpani, fortepiano and organ. While some Baroque instruments fell into disuse (e.g., the theorbo and rackett), many Baroque instruments were changed into the versions that are still in use today, such as the Baroque violin (which became the violin), the Baroque oboe (which became the oboe) and the Baroque trumpet, which transitioned to the regular valved trumpet.
The violin, cello, contrabass and what other instrument form the string section of the orchestra?
56f6ff273d8e2e1400e3731a
viola
125
False
The flute, oboe and bassoon are all what type of instrument?
56f6ff273d8e2e1400e3731b
Woodwinds
154
False
What instrument fell out of use after the 1760s?
56f6ff273d8e2e1400e3731c
the harpsichord
366
False
What instrument was the precursor of the tuba?
56f6ff273d8e2e1400e3731d
the ophicleide
538
False
The Classical era stringed instruments were the four instruments which form the string section of the orchestra: the violin, viola, cello and contrabass. Woodwinds included the basset clarinet, basset horn, clarinette d'amour, the Classical clarinet, the chalumeau, the flute, oboe and bassoon. Keyboard instruments included the clavichord and the fortepiano. While the harpsichord was still used in basso continuo accompaniment in the 1750s and 1760s, it fell out of use in the end of the century. Brass instruments included the buccin, the ophicleide (a serpent replacement which was the precursor of tuba) and the natural horn.
To whom is the "standard complement" attributed to?
56f7227a711bf01900a449c2
Beethoven
136
False
PIccolo, contrabassoon, and trombones add to the triumphal finales of what piece by Beethoven?
56f7227a711bf01900a449c3
Symphony No. 5
739
False
How long was symphonic instrumentation faithful to Beethoven's after he died?
56f7227a711bf01900a449c4
several decades
1173
False
What did Beethoven expand in his Symphonies, 3, 5, 6 and 9?
56f7227a711bf01900a449c5
timbral "palette"
447
False
A Piccolo and trombones provides the illusion of storm and what in Beethoven's Sixth Symphony?
56f7227a711bf01900a449c6
sunshine
815
False
The "standard complement" of double winds and brass in the orchestra from the first half of the 19th century is generally attributed to Beethoven. The exceptions to this are his Symphony No. 4, Violin Concerto, and Piano Concerto No. 4, which each specify a single flute. The composer's instrumentation usually included paired flutes, oboes, clarinets, bassoons, horns and trumpets. Beethoven carefully calculated the expansion of this particular timbral "palette" in Symphonies 3, 5, 6, and 9 for an innovative effect. The third horn in the "Eroica" Symphony arrives to provide not only some harmonic flexibility, but also the effect of "choral" brass in the Trio. Piccolo, contrabassoon, and trombones add to the triumphal finale of his Symphony No. 5. A piccolo and a pair of trombones help deliver "storm" and "sunshine" in the Sixth. The Ninth asks for a second pair of horns, for reasons similar to the "Eroica" (four horns has since become standard); Beethoven's use of piccolo, contrabassoon, trombones, and untuned percussion—plus chorus and vocal soloists—in his finale, are his earliest suggestion that the timbral boundaries of symphony should be expanded. For several decades after he died, symphonic instrumentation was faithful to Beethoven's well-established model, with few exceptions.
What instrument did the modern piano take over for in the Romantic era?
56f7236e3d8e2e1400e37386
fortepiano
136
False
How many double bass players were typically used in the Baroque orchestra?
56f7236e3d8e2e1400e37387
two
406
False
What wasn't rich enough for many Romantic composers?
56f7236e3d8e2e1400e37388
the standard orchestral palette
511
False
Classical sections were expanded in the Romantic era for a fuller and bigger what?
56f7236e3d8e2e1400e37389
sound
347
False
What is a celestes?
56f7236e3d8e2e1400e3738a
a bell-like keyboard instrument
770
False
In the Romantic era, the modern piano, with a more powerful, sustained tone and a wider range took over from the more delicate-sounding fortepiano. In the orchestra, the existing Classical instruments and sections were retained (string section, woodwinds, brass and percussion), but these sections were typically expanded to make a fuller, bigger sound. For example, while a Baroque orchestra may have had two double bass players, a Romantic orchestra could have as many as ten. "As music grew more expressive, the standard orchestral palette just wasn't rich enough for many Romantic composers."  New woodwind instruments were added, such as the contrabassoon, bass clarinet and piccolo and new percussion instruments were added, including xylophones, drums, celestes (a bell-like keyboard instrument), large orchestral harps, bells, and triangles  and even wind machines for sound effects.
When do saxophones first appear in scores?
56f7241a3d8e2e1400e37390
the late 19th century
38
False
Saxophone was featured as a solo instrument in what Sergei Rachmaninoff piece?
56f7241a3d8e2e1400e37391
Symphonic Dances
251
False
How is the saxophone features in Ravel's Bolero?
56f7241a3d8e2e1400e37392
as a member of the orchestral ensemble
407
False
The euphonium usually played parts marked as what?
56f7241a3d8e2e1400e37393
"tenor tuba"
549
False
Who wrote The Planets?
56f7241a3d8e2e1400e37394
Gustav Holst
573
False
Saxophones appear in some scores from the late 19th century onwards. While appearing only as featured solo instruments in some works, for example Maurice Ravel's orchestration of Modest Mussorgsky's Pictures at an Exhibition and Sergei Rachmaninoff's Symphonic Dances, the saxophone is included in other works, such as Ravel's Boléro, Sergei Prokofiev's Romeo and Juliet Suites 1 and 2 and many other works as a member of the orchestral ensemble. The euphonium is featured in a few late Romantic and 20th-century works, usually playing parts marked "tenor tuba", including Gustav Holst's The Planets, and Richard Strauss's Ein Heldenleben.
What is the name of the modified member of the horn family appearing in several works by Strauss?
56f72650711bf01900a449ea
The Wagner tuba
0
False
Which symphony of Anton Bruckner's does the Wagner tuba have a prominent role in?
56f72650711bf01900a449eb
Symphony No. 7 in E Major
218
False
Who wrote the ballet Swan Lake?
56f72650711bf01900a449ec
Pyotr Ilyich Tchaikovsky
263
False
What will orchestras use to augment their regular rosters?
56f72650711bf01900a449ed
freelance musicians
557
False
What Debussy piece features a cornet?
56f72650711bf01900a449ee
La Mer
325
False
The Wagner tuba, a modified member of the horn family, appears in Richard Wagner's cycle Der Ring des Nibelungen and several other works by Strauss, Béla Bartók, and others; it has a prominent role in Anton Bruckner's Symphony No. 7 in E Major. Cornets appear in Pyotr Ilyich Tchaikovsky's ballet Swan Lake, Claude Debussy's La Mer, and several orchestral works by Hector Berlioz. Unless these instruments are played by members doubling on another instrument (for example, a trombone player changing to euphonium for a certain passage), orchestras will use freelance musicians to augment their regular rosters.
What type of instrument appears occasionally in the 20th and 21st century styles of classical music?
56f728d6711bf01900a449fe
Electric
0
False
What type of musicians besides classical have experimented with electronic instruments?
56f728d6711bf01900a449ff
popular
185
False
What type of instrument is the gamelan?
56f728d6711bf01900a44a00
electronic
244
False
Electric instruments such as the electric guitar, the electric bass and the ondes Martenot appear occasionally in the classical music of the 20th and 21st centuries. Both classical and popular musicians have experimented in recent decades with electronic instruments such as the synthesizer, electric and digital techniques such as the use of sampled or computer-generated sounds, and instruments from other cultures such as the gamelan.
In what did the bagpipe fill an important role?
56f729923d8e2e1400e373b6
early classical music,
79
False
What instrument gained prominence in the 19th and 20th century?
56f729923d8e2e1400e373b7
the acoustic guitar
215
False
Vihuelas and hurdy-gurdies are currently associated with what type of music?
56f729923d8e2e1400e373b8
popular
39
False
Many instruments today associated with popular music filled important roles in early classical music, such as bagpipes, vihuelas, hurdy-gurdies, and some woodwind instruments. On the other hand, instruments such as the acoustic guitar, once associated mainly with popular music, gained prominence in classical music in the 19th and 20th centuries.
What type of temperament became accepted during the 18th century?
56f72a10711bf01900a44a16
equal temperament
6
False
When did equal temperament become accepted as the dominant musical temperament?
56f72a10711bf01900a44a17
the 18th century
93
False
What temperament is the English Renaissance performed in?
56f72a10711bf01900a44a18
meantone temperament
261
False
While equal temperament became gradually accepted as the dominant musical temperament during the 18th century, different historical temperaments are often used for music from earlier periods. For instance, music of the English Renaissance is often performed in meantone temperament.
What have classical trained performers done extensively?
56f72ad83d8e2e1400e373c6
studied classical music
20
False
What does a B.mus. or M.mus. degree include?
56f72ad83d8e2e1400e373c7
individual lessons from professors
309
False
To what level is training for classical music often required?
56f72ad83d8e2e1400e373c8
postgraduate
426
False
Performers who have studied classical music extensively are said to be "classically trained". This training may be from private lessons from instrument or voice teachers or from completion of a formal program offered by a Conservatory, college or university, such as a B.mus. or M.mus. degree (which includes individual lessons from professors). In classical music, "...extensive formal music education and training, often to postgraduate [Master's degree] level" is required.
Performance of classical music requires proficiency in what type of reading?
56f72b71711bf01900a44a26
sight-reading
68
False
Performance of classical music requires proficiency in what type of principles?
56f72b71711bf01900a44a27
harmonic
104
False
Familiarty with the style expected for any given composer is required for what kind of performance?
56f72b71711bf01900a44a28
classical music
15
False
Performance of classical music repertoire requires a proficiency in sight-reading and ensemble playing, harmonic principles, strong ear training (to correct and adjust pitches by ear), knowledge of performance practice (e.g., Baroque ornamentation), and a familiarity with the style/musical idiom expected for a given composer or musical work (e.g., a Brahms symphony or a Mozart concerto).
What brothers have had significant classical training?
56f72c443d8e2e1400e373cc
Van Halen brothers
108
False
Billy Joel and Elton John have both had what type of training?
56f72c443d8e2e1400e373cd
classical
52
False
Rock and pop musicians may have degrees in what type of music?
56f72c443d8e2e1400e373ce
commercial
282
False
Some "popular" genre musicians have had significant classical training, such as Billy Joel, Elton John, the Van Halen brothers, Randy Rhoads and Ritchie Blackmore. Moreover, formal training is not unique to the classical genre. Many rock and pop musicians have completed degrees in commercial music programs such as those offered by the Berklee College of Music and many jazz musicians have completed degrees in music from universities with jazz programs, such as the Manhattan School of Music and McGill University.
What gender of musician has historically made up a large amount of professional orchestras?
56f72db03d8e2e1400e373dc
male
85
False
Women were first hired in professional orchestras for what position?
56f72db03d8e2e1400e373dd
harpist
199
False
What year did the Vienna Philharmonic first accept women?
56f72db03d8e2e1400e373de
1997
297
False
Which major orchestra was the last to appoint a woman to a permanent position?
56f72db03d8e2e1400e373df
the Berlin Philharmonic
468
False
Who was the principal flute for the Vienna Philharmonic in 1996?
56f72db03d8e2e1400e373e0
Dieter Flury
562
False
Historically, major professional orchestras have been mostly or entirely composed of male musicians. Some of the earliest cases of women being hired in professional orchestras was in the position of harpist. The Vienna Philharmonic, for example, did not accept women to permanent membership until 1997, far later than the other orchestras ranked among the world's top five by Gramophone in 2008. The last major orchestra to appoint a woman to a permanent position was the Berlin Philharmonic. As late as February 1996, the Vienna Philharmonic's principal flute, Dieter Flury, told Westdeutscher Rundfunk that accepting women would be "gambling with the emotional unity (emotionelle Geschlossenheit) that this organism currently has". In April 1996, the orchestra's press secretary wrote that "compensating for the expected leaves of absence" of maternity leave would be a problem.
In what year did the Vienna Philharmonic face protests in the US?
56f72e823d8e2e1400e373f0
1997
3
False
Who was the first woman admitted to the Vienna Philharmonic?
56f72e823d8e2e1400e373f1
Anna Lelkes
399
False
What instrument did Anna Lelkes play?
56f72e823d8e2e1400e373f2
harp
415
False
How many female members were part of the Vienna Philharmonic in 2013?
56f72e823d8e2e1400e373f3
six
455
False
Who was the Vienna Philharmonic's first female concertmaster?
56f72e823d8e2e1400e373f4
Albena Danailova
498
False
In 1997, the Vienna Philharmonic was "facing protests during a [US] tour" by the National Organization for Women and the International Alliance for Women in Music. Finally, "after being held up to increasing ridicule even in socially conservative Austria, members of the orchestra gathered [on 28 February 1997] in an extraordinary meeting on the eve of their departure and agreed to admit a woman, Anna Lelkes, as harpist." As of 2013, the orchestra has six female members; one of them, violinist Albena Danailova became one of the orchestra's concertmasters in 2008, the first woman to hold that position. In 2012, women still made up just 6% of the orchestra's membership. VPO president Clemens Hellsberg said the VPO now uses completely screened blind auditions.
The National Symphony Orchestra is led by what gender of violinist?
56f72f4f711bf01900a44a40
female
102
False
The double bass, brass and percussion sections are predominately what gender?
56f72f4f711bf01900a44a41
male
437
False
What type of audition are expected to eliminator gender or racial prejudice?
56f72f4f711bf01900a44a42
'blind' auditions
499
False
In what section of the New York Philharmonic do women outnumber men?
56f72f4f711bf01900a44a43
violin
171
False
In 2013, an article in Mother Jones stated that while "[m]any prestigious orchestras have significant female membership—women outnumber men in the New York Philharmonic's violin section—and several renowned ensembles, including the National Symphony Orchestra, the Detroit Symphony, and the Minnesota Symphony, are led by women violinists", the double bass, brass, and percussion sections of major orchestras "...are still predominantly male." A 2014 BBC article stated that the "...introduction of 'blind' auditions, where a prospective instrumentalist performs behind a screen so that the judging panel can exercise no gender or racial prejudice, has seen the gender balance of traditionally male-dominated symphony orchestras gradually shift."
Works of classical repertoire exhibit what in their use of orchestration and harmony, and form?
56f72fe03d8e2e1400e37402
complexity
44
False
What is usually written in song forms?
56f72fe03d8e2e1400e37403
popular styles
180
False
The concerto, symphony, sonata and opera are examples of what type of musical forms?
56f72fe03d8e2e1400e37404
sophisticated
285
False
Works of classical repertoire often exhibit complexity in their use of orchestration, counterpoint, harmony, musical development, rhythm, phrasing, texture, and form. Whereas most popular styles are usually written in song forms, classical music is noted for its development of highly sophisticated musical forms, like the concerto, symphony, sonata, and opera.
What are self-contained pieces in longer works called?
56f730d43d8e2e1400e3741c
movements
66
False
How many movements are symphonies written in the Classical period usually divided into?
56f730d43d8e2e1400e3741d
four
207
False
What, typically, is the speed of the second movement in a classical piece?
56f730d43d8e2e1400e3741e
slow
268
False
A movement broken up further is called what?
56f730d43d8e2e1400e3741f
sections
422
False
The final movement of a classical piece is usually called what?
56f730d43d8e2e1400e37420
Allegro
324
False
Longer works are often divided into self-contained pieces, called movements, often with contrasting characters or moods. For instance, symphonies written during the Classical period are usually divided into four movements: (1) an opening Allegro in sonata form, (2) a slow movement, (3) a minuet or scherzo, and (4) a final Allegro. These movements can then be further broken down into a hierarchy of smaller units: first sections, then periods, and finally phrases.
What period was from 500-1400?
56f731b83d8e2e1400e37430
Medieval
98
False
What years dictate the Baroque period?
56f731b83d8e2e1400e37431
1600–1750
212
False
How have periods been reckoned Since 1900?
56f731b83d8e2e1400e37432
by calendar century
331
False
What era has the 21st century has been characterized by?
56f731b83d8e2e1400e37433
the contemporary/postmodern musical era
743
False
The years 1804-1910 marked what era?
56f731b83d8e2e1400e37434
Romantic
250
False
The major time divisions of classical music up to 1900 are the early music period, which includes Medieval (500–1400) and Renaissance (1400–1600) eras, and the Common practice period, which includes the Baroque (1600–1750), Classical (1750–1830) and Romantic (1804–1910) eras. Since 1900, classical periods have been reckoned more by calendar century than by particular stylistic movements that have become fragmented and difficult to define. The 20th century calendar period (1901–2000) includes most of the early modern musical era (1890–1930), the entire high modern (mid 20th-century), and the first 25 years of the contemporary or postmodern musical era (1975–current). The 21st century has so far been characterized by a continuation of the contemporary/postmodern musical era.
What composer continued the counterpoint and fugue?
56f732a2711bf01900a44a5a
Haydn
390
False
Haydn is classified as typical of what era?
56f732a2711bf01900a44a5b
Classical
433
False
Who is described as a founder of the Romantic era?
56f732a2711bf01900a44a5c
Beethoven
448
False
Who is classified as Romantic, but also uses counterpoint and fugue?
56f732a2711bf01900a44a5d
Brahms
520
False
Some authorities reverse terminologies to refer to the common practice period as a what?
56f732a2711bf01900a44a5e
era
198
False
The dates are generalizations, since the periods and eras overlap and the categories are somewhat arbitrary, to the point that some authorities reverse terminologies and refer to a common practice "era" comprising baroque, classical, and romantic "periods". For example, the use of counterpoint and fugue, which is considered characteristic of the Baroque era (or period), was continued by Haydn, who is classified as typical of the Classical era. Beethoven, who is often described as a founder of the Romantic era, and Brahms, who is classified as Romantic, also used counterpoint and fugue, but other characteristics of their music define their era.
A Contemporary composition written in the style of an earlier era is described with what prefix?
56f735c03d8e2e1400e37474
neo
11
False
What century were Neoclassical compositions written in?
56f735c03d8e2e1400e37475
20th-century
37
False
Who wrote Pulcinella?
56f735c03d8e2e1400e37476
Stravinsky's
149
False
What era is Pulcinella similar to?
56f735c03d8e2e1400e37477
Classical
269
False
The prefix neo is used to describe a 20th-century or contemporary composition written in the style of an earlier era, such as Classical or Romantic. Stravinsky's Pulcinella, for example, is a neoclassical composition because it is stylistically similar to works of the Classical era.
When does the Egyptian orchestra date to?
56f738413d8e2e1400e37490
2695 BC
176
False
Who suggested that Western classical music is rooted to ancient Egyptian art music?
56f738413d8e2e1400e37491
Burgh
0
False
What music followed ancient Egyptian art music?
56f738413d8e2e1400e37492
early Christian liturgical music,
206
False
Which ancient society developed individual tones and scales?
56f738413d8e2e1400e37493
ancient Greeks
363
False
Who helped codify musical notation?
56f738413d8e2e1400e37494
Pythagoras
414
False
Burgh (2006), suggests that the roots of Western classical music ultimately lie in ancient Egyptian art music via cheironomy and the ancient Egyptian orchestra, which dates to 2695 BC. This was followed by early Christian liturgical music, which itself dates back to the Ancient Greeks[citation needed]. The development of individual tones and scales was made by ancient Greeks such as Aristoxenus and Pythagoras. Pythagoras created a tuning system and helped to codify musical notation. Ancient Greek instruments such as the aulos (a reed instrument) and the lyre (a stringed instrument similar to a small harp) eventually led to the modern-day instruments of a classical orchestra. The antecedent to the early period was the era of ancient music before the fall of the Roman Empire (476 AD). Very little music survives from this time, most of it from ancient Greece.
The Medieval period begins with the fall of what city?
56f73beaaef2371900625a2b
Rome
58
False
What can Plainsong or Gregorian chant also be called?
56f73beaaef2371900625a2c
Monophonic chant
78
False
What does Polyphonic mean?
56f73beaaef2371900625a2d
multi-voiced
190
False
When did Monophonic chant stop being the dominant form?
56f73beaaef2371900625a2e
1100
172
False
Polyphonic music included more complex voicing of what?
56f73beaaef2371900625a2f
motets
339
False
The Medieval period includes music from after the fall of Rome to about 1400. Monophonic chant, also called plainsong or Gregorian chant, was the dominant form until about 1100. Polyphonic (multi-voiced) music developed from monophonic chant throughout the late Middle Ages and into the Renaissance, including the more complex voicings of motets.
When was the Renaissance era?
56f73c54aef2371900625a35
from 1400 to 1600
24
False
What era was from 1400 to 1600?
56f73c54aef2371900625a36
Renaissance
4
False
The use of the first ass instruments occurred in what era?
56f73c54aef2371900625a37
Renaissance
4
False
What became widespread in the Renaissance era?
56f73c54aef2371900625a38
Social dancing
179
False
Musical forms for dance began to standardize during what era?
56f73c54aef2371900625a39
Renaissance
4
False
The Renaissance era was from 1400 to 1600. It was characterized by greater use of instrumentation, multiple interweaving melodic lines, and the use of the first bass instruments. Social dancing became more widespread, so musical forms appropriate to accompanying dance began to standardize.
The notation of music on a what began to take shape at this time?
56f743d9aef2371900625a63
staff
51
False
How was music transmitted before the invention of musical notation?
56f743d9aef2371900625a64
oral
263
False
What was oral music subject to every time is was transmitted?
56f743d9aef2371900625a65
change
284
False
What can a musical scored be performed without?
56f743d9aef2371900625a66
the composer's presence
387
False
When was the movable-type printing press invented?
56f743d9aef2371900625a67
the 15th century
464
False
It is in this time that the notation of music on a staff and other elements of musical notation began to take shape. This invention made possible the separation of the composition of a piece of music from its transmission; without written music, transmission was oral, and subject to change every time it was transmitted. With a musical score, a work of music could be performed without the composer's presence. The invention of the movable-type printing press in the 15th century had far-reaching consequences on the preservation and transmission of music.
The record is part of what wind family?
56f74466aef2371900625a6d
the flute family
127
False
The sahwm was an early family member of what instrument?
56f74466aef2371900625a6e
the oboe
192
False
Where were the first pipe organs confined to?
56f74466aef2371900625a6f
churches
294
False
When had the viol emerged by?
56f74466aef2371900625a70
the 16th century
510
False
What enabled descriptions and specification of instruments?
56f74466aef2371900625a71
Printing
582
False
Typical stringed instruments of the early period include the harp, lute, vielle, and psaltery, while wind instruments included the flute family (including recorder), shawm (an early member of the oboe family), trumpet, and the bagpipes. Simple pipe organs existed, but were largely confined to churches, although there were portable varieties. Later in the period, early versions of keyboard instruments like the clavichord and harpsichord began to appear. Stringed instruments such as the viol had emerged by the 16th century, as had a wider variety of brass and reed instruments. Printing enabled the standardization of descriptions and specifications of instruments, as well as instruction in their use.
When did many of the ideas that make up western classical music take shape?
56f744beaef2371900625a77
The common practice period
0
False
What began with the Baroque era?
56f744beaef2371900625a78
The common practice period
0
False
What era did the classical era follow?
56f744beaef2371900625a79
Baroque era
152
False
When did the classical era end?
56f744beaef2371900625a7a
around 1820
269
False
When did the romantic era end?
56f744beaef2371900625a7b
about 1910
336
False
The common practice period is when many of the ideas that make up western classical music took shape, standardized, or were codified. It began with the Baroque era, running from roughly 1600 to the middle of the 18th century. The Classical era followed, ending roughly around 1820. The Romantic era ran through the 19th century, ending about 1910.
Basso continuo and complex tonal counterpoint characterize what type of music?
56f745b8a6d7ea1400e1712c
Baroque
0
False
What does basso continuo mean?
56f745b8a6d7ea1400e1712d
a continuous bass line
105
False
What did music become during the Baroque era  in comparison with earlier periods?
56f745b8a6d7ea1400e1712e
more complex
142
False
What form began to take shape during the Baroque era?
56f745b8a6d7ea1400e1712f
the sonata form
222
False
Major and minor what are means for managing dissonance and chromaticism?
56f745b8a6d7ea1400e17130
tonalities
326
False
Baroque music is characterized by the use of complex tonal counterpoint and the use of a basso continuo, a continuous bass line. Music became more complex in comparison with the songs of earlier periods. The beginnings of the sonata form took shape in the canzona, as did a more formalized notion of theme and variations. The tonalities of major and minor as means for managing dissonance and chromaticism in music took full shape.
Keyboard music became popular during what era?
56f7469ca6d7ea1400e17136
Baroque
11
False
The violin family is what type of instrument?
56f7469ca6d7ea1400e17137
stringed
134
False
Opera began to differentiate itself from earlier forms as what?
56f7469ca6d7ea1400e17138
staged musical drama
202
False
What became more common during the Baroque era?
56f7469ca6d7ea1400e17139
vocal forms
298
False
What did vocalist add to melodies beginning in the Baroque era?
56f7469ca6d7ea1400e1713a
embellishments
383
False
During the Baroque era, keyboard music played on the harpsichord and pipe organ became increasingly popular, and the violin family of stringed instruments took the form generally seen today. Opera as a staged musical drama began to differentiate itself from earlier musical and dramatic forms, and vocal forms like the cantata and oratorio became more common. Vocalists began adding embellishments to melodies. Instrumental ensembles began to distinguish and standardize by size, giving rise to the early orchestra for larger ensembles, with chamber music being written for smaller groups of instruments where parts are played by individual (instead of massed) instruments. The concerto as a vehicle for solo performance accompanied by an orchestra became widespread, although the relationship between soloist and orchestra was relatively simple.
What theories began to be put in wider practice?
56f74780aef2371900625a99
equal temperament
25
False
What does equal temperament enabled in hard to tune keyboard instruments?
56f74780aef2371900625a9a
a wider range of chromatic possibilities
103
False
What did Bach not use?
56f74780aef2371900625a9b
equal temperament
208
False
A modern piano is generally what?
56f74780aef2371900625a9c
tuned
258
False
What system of temperaments was common during Bach's time?
56f74780aef2371900625a9d
meantone
302
False
The theories surrounding equal temperament began to be put in wider practice, especially as it enabled a wider range of chromatic possibilities in hard-to-tune keyboard instruments. Although Bach did not use equal temperament, as a modern piano is generally tuned, changes in the temperaments from the meantone system, common at the time, to various temperaments that made modulation between all keys musically acceptable, made possible Bach's Well-Tempered Clavier.
When was the Classical era?
56f74825aef2371900625aa3
1750 to 1820
30
False
What instrument became the predominant keyboard during the classical era?
56f74825aef2371900625aa4
the piano
133
False
What became more standardized during the classical era?
56f74825aef2371900625aa5
The basic forces required for an orchestra
187
False
How many muscians, at most, could make up a chamber ensemble during the classical period?
56f74825aef2371900625aa6
10
438
False
What is an opera buffa?
56f74825aef2371900625aa7
a form of comic opera
578
False
The Classical era, from about 1750 to 1820, established many of the norms of composition, presentation, and style, and was also when the piano became the predominant keyboard instrument. The basic forces required for an orchestra became somewhat standardized (although they would grow as the potential of a wider array of instruments was developed in the following centuries). Chamber music grew to include ensembles with as many as 8 to 10 performers for serenades. Opera continued to develop, with regional styles in Italy, France, and German-speaking lands. The opera buffa, a form of comic opera, rose in popularity. The symphony came into its own as a musical form, and the concerto was developed as a vehicle for displays of virtuoso playing skill. Orchestras no longer required a harpsichord (which had been part of the traditional continuo in the Baroque style), and were often led by the lead violinist (now called the concertmaster).
What type of instrument became more refined during the classical era?
56f7488fa6d7ea1400e1715c
Wind
0
False
What is the single reed family called?
56f7488fa6d7ea1400e1715d
the clarinet family
162
False
What type of instrument was somewhat standardized int eh Baroque era?
56f7488fa6d7ea1400e1715e
double reeded
65
False
Who expanded the single reeds role?
56f7488fa6d7ea1400e1715f
Mozart
224
False
Wind instruments became more refined in the Classical era. While double reeded instruments like the oboe and bassoon became somewhat standardized in the Baroque, the clarinet family of single reeds was not widely used until Mozart expanded its role in orchestral, chamber, and concerto settings.
Increased attention to extended melodic lines characterized what era?
56f74b3caef2371900625ac1
Romantic
17
False
When did the Romantic era end?
56f74b3caef2371900625ac2
the early 20th century
84
False
Free-form pieces like nocturnes and preludes were a break from what era?
56f74b3caef2371900625ac3
Classical
306
False
Tensions about what increased during the Romantic era?
56f74b3caef2371900625ac4
key signatures
672
False
What is a name for an art song?
56f74b3caef2371900625ac5
Lied
716
False
The music of the Romantic era, from roughly the first decade of the 19th century to the early 20th century, was characterized by increased attention to an extended melodic line, as well as expressive and emotional elements, paralleling romanticism in other art forms. Musical forms began to break from the Classical era forms (even as those were being codified), with free-form pieces like nocturnes, fantasias, and preludes being written where accepted ideas about the exposition and development of themes were ignored or minimized. The music became more chromatic, dissonant, and tonally colorful, with tensions (with respect to accepted norms of the older forms) about key signatures increasing. The art song (or Lied) came to maturity in this era, as did the epic scales of grand opera, ultimately transcended by Richard Wagner's Ring cycle.
Who controlled musical institutions before the 19th century?
56f74bfcaef2371900625acb
wealthy patrons
70
False
Composers and musicians began to construct lives independent of what in the 19th century?
56f74bfcaef2371900625acc
the nobility
151
False
What class increased it's interest in music during the 19th century?
56f74bfcaef2371900625acd
middle classes
209
False
What instrument became widely popular in the middle class in the 19th century?
56f74bfcaef2371900625ace
The piano
346
False
The 19th century marks the foundation of many what?
56f74bfcaef2371900625acf
symphony orchestras
584
False
In the 19th century, musical institutions emerged from the control of wealthy patrons, as composers and musicians could construct lives independent of the nobility. Increasing interest in music by the growing middle classes throughout western Europe spurred the creation of organizations for the teaching, performance, and preservation of music. The piano, which achieved its modern construction in this era (in part due to industrial advances in metallurgy) became widely popular with the middle class, whose demands for the instrument spurred a large number of piano builders. Many symphony orchestras date their founding to this era. Some musicians and composers were the stars of the day; some, like Franz Liszt and Niccolò Paganini, fulfilled both roles.
To what number did the size of the orchestra grow to?
56f74dc0a6d7ea1400e1717c
100
341
False
What size of choirs have performed Gustav Mahler's 1906 Symphony No. 8?
56f74dc0a6d7ea1400e1717d
over 400
460
False
What size orchestras have performed Gustav Mahler's 1906 Symphony No. 8?
56f74dc0a6d7ea1400e1717e
over 150
420
False
What allowed Brass instruments to play a wider range of notes?
56f74dc0a6d7ea1400e1717f
rotary valves
184
False
What array of instrument grew wider?
56f74dc0a6d7ea1400e17180
percussion
81
False
The family of instruments used, especially in orchestras, grew. A wider array of percussion instruments began to appear. Brass instruments took on larger roles, as the introduction of rotary valves made it possible for them to play a wider range of notes. The size of the orchestra (typically around 40 in the Classical era) grew to be over 100. Gustav Mahler's 1906 Symphony No. 8, for example, has been performed with over 150 instrumentalists and choirs of over 400.
What did European cultural ideas follow?
56f74e42aef2371900625ae9
colonial expansion
57
False
What type of music rose toward the end of the era?
56f74e42aef2371900625aea
nationalism
171
False
What did nationalism in music sometime echo?
56f74e42aef2371900625aeb
political sentiments of the time
217
False
Edvard Grieg and Antonin Dvorak used what kind of music in their compositions?
56f74e42aef2371900625aec
traditional music of their homelands
338
False
European cultural ideas and institutions began to follow colonial expansion into other parts of the world. There was also a rise, especially toward the end of the era, of nationalism in music (echoing, in some cases, political sentiments of the time), as composers such as Edvard Grieg, Nikolai Rimsky-Korsakov, and Antonín Dvořák echoed traditional music of their homelands in their compositions.
What style does 20th century classical music encompass?
56f74f1ba6d7ea1400e17186
post-Romantic
31
False
When did modernism take place?
56f74f1ba6d7ea1400e17187
1890–1930
207
False
Composers rejected the traditions of the common practice period during what era?
56f74f1ba6d7ea1400e17188
Modernism
196
False
Neo-classical music emerged during what era?
56f74f1ba6d7ea1400e17189
high-modern era
381
False
Postmodern music is also know as what?
56f74f1ba6d7ea1400e1718a
contemporary music
610
False
Encompassing a wide variety of post-Romantic styles composed through the year 2000, 20th century classical music includes late romantic, modern, high-modern, and postmodern styles of composition. Modernism (1890–1930) marked an era when many composers rejected certain values of the common practice period, such as traditional tonality, melody, instrumentation, and structure. The high-modern era saw the emergence of neo-classical and serial music. A few authorities have claimed high-modernism as the beginning of postmodern music from about 1930. Others have more or less equated postmodern music with the "contemporary music" composed from the late 20th century through to the early 21st century.
What gender are most composers described in music textbooks?
56f74ffbaef2371900625af1
male
168
False
Who asked why is music composed by women so marginal to the standard 'classical' repertoire?
56f74ffbaef2371900625af2
Musicologist Marcia Citron
284
False
Why were women composers deemed not notable?
56f74ffbaef2371900625af3
did not write many symphonies
845
False
Who is one of the only female composers mentioned?
56f74ffbaef2371900625af4
Clara Shumann
969
False
What type of music did women composers typically write?
56f74ffbaef2371900625af5
art songs
620
False
Almost all of the composers who are described in music textbooks on classical music and whose works are widely performed as part of the standard concert repertoire are male composers, even though there has been a large number of women composers throughout the classical music period. Musicologist Marcia Citron has asked "[w]hy is music composed by women so marginal to the standard 'classical' repertoire?" Citron "examines the practices and attitudes that have led to the exclusion of women composers from the received 'canon' of performed musical works." She argues that in the 1800s, women composers typically wrote art songs for performance in small recitals rather than symphonies intended for performance with an orchestra in a large hall, with the latter works being seen as the most important genre for composers; since women composers did not write many symphonies, they were deemed to be not notable as composers. In the "...Concise Oxford History of Music, Clara Shumann  [sic] is one of the only  [sic] female composers mentioned." Abbey Philips states that "[d]uring the 20th century the women who were composing/playing gained far less attention than their male counterparts."
What type of view is that classical music is primarily written musical tradition?
56f75071aef2371900625afb
modernist
4
False
Musical notation is effective for what?
56f75071aef2371900625afc
transmitting classical music
459
False
Why is written musical notation effective?
56f75071aef2371900625afd
contains the technical instructions for performing the work
513
False
The modernist views hold that classical music is considered primarily a written musical tradition, preserved in music notation, as opposed to being transmitted orally, by rote, or by recordings of particular performances.[citation needed] While there are differences between particular performances of a classical work, a piece of classical music is generally held to transcend any interpretation of it. The use of musical notation is an effective method for transmitting classical music, since the written music contains the technical instructions for performing the work.
Did student who actively listen to classical music before studying have higher or lower scores?
56f7515faef2371900625b01
higher
242
False
What happened to the scores of students who listened to rock and roll or country?
56f7515faef2371900625b02
moderately lower
464
False
Who experience a significant leap in their academic performance?
56f7515faef2371900625b03
students who used classical during the course of study
522
False
Who conducted the research study?
56f7515faef2371900625b04
University of Colorado
840
False
What years was the study conducted in?
56f7515faef2371900625b05
1996–1997
3
False
In 1996–1997, a research study was conducted on a large population of middle age students in the Cherry Creek School District in Denver, Colorado, USA. The study showed that students who actively listen to classical music before studying had higher academic scores. The research further indicated that students who listened to the music prior to an examination also had positively elevated achievement scores. Students who listened to rock-and-roll or country had moderately lower scores. The study further indicated that students who used classical during the course of study had a significant leap in their academic performance; whereas, those who listened to other types of music had significantly lowered academic scores. The research was conducted over several schools within the Cherry Creek School District and was conducted through University of Colorado. This study is reflective of several recent studies (i.e. Mike Manthei and Steve N. Kelly of the University of Nebraska at Omaha; Donald A. Hodges and Debra S. O'Connell of the University of North Carolina at Greensboro; etc.) and others who had significant results through the discourse of their work.
Which composer had an effect named after him?
56f7522ea6d7ea1400e171a4
Mozart
97
False
Who wrote a book on the Mozart effect?
56f7522ea6d7ea1400e171a5
Don Campbell
270
False
Where was the experiment originally published?
56f7522ea6d7ea1400e171a6
Nature
327
False
How many IQ points of a students' does the Mozart effect temporarily boost?
56f7522ea6d7ea1400e171a7
8 to 9 points
406
False
How much did the Governor of Georgia budget per year to provide every child with a CD of classical music?
56f7522ea6d7ea1400e171a8
$105,000
819
False
During the 1990s, several research papers and popular books wrote on what came to be called the "Mozart effect": an observed temporary, small elevation of scores on certain tests as a result of listening to Mozart's works. The approach has been popularized in a book by Don Campbell, and is based on an experiment published in Nature suggesting that listening to Mozart temporarily boosted students' IQ by 8 to 9 points. This popularized version of the theory was expressed succinctly by the New York Times music columnist Alex Ross: "researchers... have determined that listening to Mozart actually makes you smarter." Promoters marketed CDs claimed to induce the effect. Florida passed a law requiring toddlers in state-run schools to listen to classical music every day, and in 1998 the governor of Georgia budgeted $105,000 per year to provide every child born in Georgia with a tape or CD of classical music. One of the co-authors of the original studies of the Mozart effect commented "I don't think it can hurt. I'm all for exposing children to wonderful cultural experiences. But I do think the money could be better spent on music education programs."
What harmed the music industry in the 20th century according to Shawn Vancour?
56f7529fa6d7ea1400e171ae
the commercialization of classical music
26
False
Who argued that the commercialization of classical music was harmful to the music industry?
56f7529fa6d7ea1400e171af
Shawn Vancour
0
False
Why was the commercialization of classical music harmful to the music industry according the Shawn Vancour?
56f7529fa6d7ea1400e171b0
inadequate representation.
135
False
Shawn Vancour argues that the commercialization of classical music in the early 20th century served to harm the music industry through inadequate representation.
Works from the Golden Age of music matches action to what?
56f75316a6d7ea1400e171b4
classical music
69
False
Who produced Fantasia?
56f75316a6d7ea1400e171b5
Walt Disney
107
False
Who starred in Johann Mouse?
56f75316a6d7ea1400e171b6
Tom and Jerry
131
False
Who produced Rabbit of Seville?
56f75316a6d7ea1400e171b7
Warner Bros
165
False
Who produced What's Opera, Doc?
56f75316a6d7ea1400e171b8
Warner Bros
165
False
Several works from the Golden Age of Animation matched the action to classical music. Notable examples are Walt Disney's Fantasia, Tom and Jerry's Johann Mouse, and Warner Bros.' Rabbit of Seville and What's Opera, Doc?.
What does classical music convey in movies and television?
56f75395aef2371900625b1b
refinement or opulence
105
False
What piece by Vivaldi is used as a cliche to convey opulence?
56f75395aef2371900625b1c
Four Seasons
259
False
What piece by Mozart is used as a cliche to convey refinement?
56f75395aef2371900625b1d
Eine kleine Nachtmusik
225
False
Who wrote William Tell Overture?
56f75395aef2371900625b1e
Rossini
351
False
Who wrote Night on Bald Mountain?
56f75395aef2371900625b1f
Mussorgsky
273
False
Similarly, movies and television often revert to standard, clichéd snatches of classical music to convey refinement or opulence: some of the most-often heard pieces in this category include Bach´s Cello Suite No. 1, Mozart's Eine kleine Nachtmusik, Vivaldi's Four Seasons, Mussorgsky's Night on Bald Mountain (as orchestrated by Rimsky-Korsakov), and Rossini's William Tell Overture.
What does the written score not usually contain explicitly?
56f7558fa6d7ea1400e171ce
instructions
62
False
Interpretations of written score is left to whom?
56f7558fa6d7ea1400e171cf
performers
265
False
Performers can use their knowledge of what to help interpret a written score?
56f7558fa6d7ea1400e171d0
the work's idiom
363
False
The written score, however, does not usually contain explicit instructions as to how to interpret the piece in terms of production or performance, apart from directions for dynamics, tempo and expression (to a certain extent). This is left to the discretion of the performers, who are guided by their personal experience and musical education, their knowledge of the work's idiom, their personal artistic tastes, and the accumulated body of historic performance practices.
Improvisation is integral before what took a high significance?
56f756c6a6d7ea1400e171d4
the score
117
False
When did oral tradition disappear?
56f756c6a6d7ea1400e171d5
the 20th century
378
False
There is still controversy about how to perform works, even though scores provide what?
56f756c6a6d7ea1400e171d6
key elements of the music
589
False
A score-centric approach strictly emphasizes what?
56f756c6a6d7ea1400e171d7
block-rhythms
817
False
Some critics express the opinion that it is only from the mid-19th century, and especially in the 20th century, that the score began to hold such a high significance. Previously, improvisation (in preludes, cadenzas and ornaments), rhythmic flexibility (e.g., tempo rubato), improvisatory deviation from the score and oral tradition of playing was integral to the style. Yet in the 20th century, this oral tradition and passing on of stylistic features within classical music disappeared. Instead, musicians tend to use just the score to play music. Yet, even with the score providing the key elements of the music, there is considerable controversy about how to perform the works. Some of this controversy relates to the fact that this score-centric approach has led to performances that emphasize metrically strict block-rhythms (just as the music is notated in the score).
What once played an important role in classical music?
56f7580ba6d7ea1400e171dc
Improvisation
0
False
Where can a remnant of improvisation tradition be found?
56f7580ba6d7ea1400e171dd
cadenza
145
False
What can solo performers exhibit during a cadenza?
56f7580ba6d7ea1400e171de
their virtuoso skills on the instrument
254
False
What type of performances of Baroque ear Operas require improvisation?
56f7580ba6d7ea1400e171df
authentic performances
472
False
An example of improvisation in an opera is Beverly Sills variation of what movement of Handel's Giulio Cesare?
56f7580ba6d7ea1400e171e0
Da tempeste il legno infranto
855
False
Improvisation once played an important role in classical music. A remnant of this improvisatory tradition in classical music can be heard in the cadenza, a passage found mostly in concertos and solo works, designed to allow skilled performers to exhibit their virtuoso skills on the instrument. Traditionally this was improvised by the performer; however, it is often written for (or occasionally by) the performer beforehand. Improvisation is also an important aspect in authentic performances of operas of Baroque era and of bel canto (especially operas of Vincenzo Bellini), and is best exemplified by the da capo aria, a form by which famous singers typically perform variations of the thematic matter of the aria in the recapitulation section ('B section' / the 'da capo' part). An example is Beverly Sills' complex, albeit pre-written, variation of Da tempeste il legno infranto from Händel's Giulio Cesare.
How are staples of classical music often used?
56f758d1aef2371900625b2f
commercially
50
False
TV commercials using Richard Strauss' Also sprach Zarathustra have now become what?
56f758d1aef2371900625b30
clichéd
168
False
What piece is often used in the horror genre?
56f758d1aef2371900625b31
"O Fortuna" of Carl Orff's Carmina Burana
318
False
Who wrote Ride of the Valkyries?
56f758d1aef2371900625b32
Wagner
566
False
Who wrote in the Hall of the Mountain King?
56f758d1aef2371900625b33
Edvard Grieg
454
False
Certain staples of classical music are often used commercially (either in advertising or in movie soundtracks). In television commercials, several passages have become clichéd, particularly the opening of Richard Strauss' Also sprach Zarathustra (made famous in the film 2001: A Space Odyssey) and the opening section "O Fortuna" of Carl Orff's Carmina Burana, often used in the horror genre; other examples include the Dies Irae from the Verdi Requiem, Edvard Grieg's In the Hall of the Mountain King from Peer Gynt, the opening bars of Beethoven's Symphony No. 5, Wagner's Ride of the Valkyries from Die Walküre, Rimsky-Korsakov's Flight of the Bumblebee, and excerpts of Aaron Copland's Rodeo.
Folk musicians are not commonly what?
56f7596ca6d7ea1400e171f0
classically trained
112
False
What music comes from those commonly trained by oral tradition?
56f7596ca6d7ea1400e171f1
folk music
52
False
Dovrak has used what type of themes to impart a nationalist flavor?
56f7596ca6d7ea1400e171f2
folk
221
False
Who used specific themes lifted from folk-music?
56f7596ca6d7ea1400e171f3
Bartók
297
False
Composers of classical music have often made use of folk music (music created by musicians who are commonly not classically trained, often from a purely oral tradition). Some composers, like Dvořák and Smetana, have used folk themes to impart a nationalist flavor to their work, while others like Bartók have used specific themes lifted whole from their folk-music origins.
How are performers expected to play a work due to written transmission?
56f75ad1aef2371900625b4d
in a way that realizes in detail the original intentions of the composer
149
False
When did details that composers put in their scores increase?
56f75ad1aef2371900625b4e
the 19th century
230
False
Admiration of performers for new interpretations can be seen when composers feel the performer achieve what?
56f75ad1aef2371900625b4f
a better realization of the original intent than the composer
498
False
What do classical performers often achieve?
56f75ad1aef2371900625b50
high reputations for their musicianship
622
False
Its written transmission, along with the veneration bestowed on certain classical works, has led to the expectation that performers will play a work in a way that realizes in detail the original intentions of the composer. During the 19th century the details that composers put in their scores generally increased. Yet the opposite trend—admiration of performers for new "interpretations" of the composer's work—can be seen, and it is not unknown for a composer to praise a performer for achieving a better realization of the original intent than the composer was able to imagine. Thus, classical performers often achieve high reputations for their musicianship, even if they do not compose themselves. Generally however, it is the composers who are remembered more than the performers.
When was improvisation in classical music performance common?
56f75c11a6d7ea1400e17202
the Baroque and early romantic eras
309
False
When did improvisation begin to lessened strongly?
56f75c11a6d7ea1400e17203
the second half of the 19th and in the 20th centuries
375
False
What part did Mozart and Beethoven often improvise?
56f75c11a6d7ea1400e17204
the cadenzas to their piano concertos
494
False
What is the name for the practice of singing strictly by the score in opera?
56f75c11a6d7ea1400e17205
come scritto
703
False
Who strongly supposed ome scritto?
56f75c11a6d7ea1400e17206
soprano Maria Callas
744
False
The primacy of the composer's written score has also led, today, to a relatively minor role played by improvisation in classical music, in sharp contrast to the practice of musicians who lived during the baroque, classical and romantic era. Improvisation in classical music performance was common during both the Baroque and early romantic eras, yet lessened strongly during the second half of the 19th and in the 20th centuries. During the classical era, Mozart and Beethoven often improvised the cadenzas to their piano concertos (and thereby encouraged others to do so), but they also provided written cadenzas for use by other soloists. In opera, the practice of singing strictly by the score, i.e. come scritto, was famously propagated by soprano Maria Callas, who called this practice 'straitjacketing' and implied that it allows the intention of the composer to be understood better, especially during studying the music for the first time.
Popular music from the composer's time was incorporation into what?
56f75e42aef2371900625b5d
Classical music
0
False
What did Brahms sometimes use in his Academic Festival Overture?
56f75e42aef2371900625b5e
student drinking songs
160
False
What type of music was Maurice Ravel influenced by?
56f75e42aef2371900625b5f
jazz
296
False
Who wrote The Threepenny Opera?
56f75e42aef2371900625b60
Kurt Weill
240
False
What type of music do certain composers acknowledge a debt to?
56f75e42aef2371900625b61
popular
540
False
Classical music has often incorporated elements or material from popular music of the composer's time. Examples include occasional music such as Brahms' use of student drinking songs in his Academic Festival Overture, genres exemplified by Kurt Weill's The Threepenny Opera, and the influence of jazz on early- and mid-20th-century composers including Maurice Ravel, exemplified by the movement entitled "Blues" in his sonata for violin and piano. Certain postmodern, minimalist and postminimalist classical composers acknowledge a debt to popular music.
Pachelbel's Canon has influenced popular songs since what decade?
56f7607aa6d7ea1400e17220
the 1970s
164
False
What phenomenon sees classical musicians achieving success in popular music?
56f7607aa6d7ea1400e17221
the musical crossover phenomenon
179
False
Baroque or Classical era influence can be seen in what modern musical style?
56f7607aa6d7ea1400e17222
heavy metal
292
False
Ritchie Blackmore and Randy Rhoads play what instrument?
56f7607aa6d7ea1400e17223
electric guitar
342
False
Numerous examples show influence in the opposite direction, including popular songs based on classical music, the use to which Pachelbel's Canon has been put since the 1970s, and the musical crossover phenomenon, where classical musicians have achieved success in the popular music arena. In heavy metal, a number of lead guitarists (playing electric guitar) modeled their playing styles on Baroque or Classical era instrumental music, including Ritchie Blackmore and Randy Rhoads.
Slavs
What is the largest Indo-European ethno-linguistic group in Europe?
56f6e8fb3d8e2e1400e372b4
Slavs are the largest Indo-European ethno-linguistic group in Europe.
0
False
What areas of the world do Slavs inhabit?
56f6e8fb3d8e2e1400e372b5
They inhabit Central Europe, Eastern Europe, Southeast Europe, North Asia and Central Asia.
70
False
What was colonised by the East Slavs?
56f6e8fb3d8e2e1400e372b6
The East Slavs colonised Siberia and Central Asia.
501
False
What portion of Europe's territory is inhabited by Slavic-speaking communities?
56f6e8fb3d8e2e1400e372b7
Presently over half of Europe's territory is inhabited by Slavic-speaking communities
574
False
Slavic mercenaries settled where?
56f6e8fb3d8e2e1400e372b8
Slavic mercenaries fighting for the Byzantines and Arabs settled Asia Minor and even as far as Syria.
399
False
Slavs
0
What is the largest ethno group in North Asia?
5ad49744ba00c4001a268ccc
True
Slavic mercenaries
399
Who fought against the Byzantines?
5ad49744ba00c4001a268ccd
True
Siberia and Central Asia
526
What did Slavic mercenaries colonise?
5ad49744ba00c4001a268cce
True
East Slavs
505
Who colonised the Arabs?
5ad49744ba00c4001a268ccf
True
over half
584
What percentage of Central Asia is inhabited by Slavic-speaking communities?
5ad49744ba00c4001a268cd0
True
Slavs are the largest Indo-European ethno-linguistic group in Europe. They inhabit Central Europe, Eastern Europe, Southeast Europe, North Asia and Central Asia. Slavs speak Indo-European Slavic languages and share, to varying degrees, some cultural traits and historical backgrounds. From the early 6th century they spread to inhabit most of Central and Eastern Europe and Southeast Europe, whilst Slavic mercenaries fighting for the Byzantines and Arabs settled Asia Minor and even as far as Syria. The East Slavs colonised Siberia and Central Asia.[better source needed] Presently over half of Europe's territory is inhabited by Slavic-speaking communities, but every Slavic ethnicity has emigrated to other continents.
West Slavic people consist of which nationalities?
56f6f4963d8e2e1400e372ea
Poles, Czechs and Slovaks
67
False
East Slavic people consist of which nationalities?
56f6f4963d8e2e1400e372eb
Russians, Belarusians, and Ukrainians
116
False
South Slavic people consist of which nationalities?
56f6f4963d8e2e1400e372ec
Serbs, Bulgarians, Croats, Bosniaks, Macedonians, Slovenes, and Montenegrins
182
False
West and East Slavs are sometimes combined into a single group called what?
56f6f4963d8e2e1400e372ed
North Slavs
350
False
West
282
North Slavs are made up of South slavs and what other slav?
5ad49817ba00c4001a268cea
True
West Slavs and East Slavs
282
The single group of South slavs are made up of which two other groups?
5ad49817ba00c4001a268ceb
True
genetically and culturally
500
What forms of diversity are lost in modern nations?
5ad49817ba00c4001a268cec
True
the individual ethnic groups
569
Who always has a sense of hostility?
5ad49817ba00c4001a268ced
True
Present-day Slavic people are classified into West Slavic (chiefly Poles, Czechs and Slovaks), East Slavic (chiefly Russians, Belarusians, and Ukrainians), and South Slavic (chiefly Serbs, Bulgarians, Croats, Bosniaks, Macedonians, Slovenes, and Montenegrins), though sometimes the West Slavs and East Slavs are combined into a single group known as North Slavs. For a more comprehensive list, see the ethnocultural subdivisions. Modern Slavic nations and ethnic groups are considerably diverse both genetically and culturally, and relations between them – even within the individual ethnic groups themselves – are varied, ranging from a sense of connection to mutual feelings of hostility.
*Slověninъ, plural *Slověne, is the Slavic autonym reconstructed in what?
56f6fb8f711bf01900a448bc
Proto-Slavic
39
False
Old 9th century documents describing Slavs were written in what language?
56f6fb8f711bf01900a448bd
Old Church Slavonic
116
False
Who wrote about the Slavs in Byzantine Greek in the 6th century?
56f6fb8f711bf01900a448be
Procopius
444
False
Procopius' contemporary Jordanes referred to the Slavs in what language?
56f6fb8f711bf01900a448bf
Latin
660
False
Slověne
75
What is the plural form of Slavic?
5ad498caba00c4001a268d06
True
Procopius
444
What writer wrote in Old Church Slavonic?
5ad498caba00c4001a268d07
True
9th
156
During what century were Slavics referred to as "an East Slavic group near Novgorod"?
5ad498caba00c4001a268d08
True
6th century
429
When did Procopius write in Latin about the Sclaveni?
5ad498caba00c4001a268d09
True
The Slavic autonym is reconstructed in Proto-Slavic as *Slověninъ, plural *Slověne. The oldest documents written in Old Church Slavonic and dating from the 9th century attest Словѣне Slověne to describe the Slavs. Other early Slavic attestations include Old East Slavic Словѣнѣ Slověně for "an East Slavic group near Novgorod." However, the earliest written references to the Slavs under this name are in other languages. In the 6th century AD Procopius, writing in Byzantine Greek, refers to the Σκλάβοι Sklaboi, Σκλαβηνοί Sklabēnoi, Σκλαυηνοί Sklauenoi, Σθλαβηνοί Sthlabenoi, or Σκλαβῖνοι Sklabinoi, while his contemporary Jordanes refers to the Sclaveni in Latin.
What slavic word denotes "people who speak the same language?"
56f6ff9c711bf01900a448dc
slovo
95
False
What slavic word denotes "foreign people?"
56f6ff9c711bf01900a448dd
němci
267
False
Who considered *Slověninъ do be a derivation from slovo?
56f6ff9c711bf01900a448de
Roman Jakobson
61
False
Roman Jakobson
61
Who came up with the Slavic autonym?
5ad49962ba00c4001a268d10
True
Slověninъ
20
What does slovo derive from?
5ad49962ba00c4001a268d11
True
němci
267
What word did Roman Jakobson use to call Slavics foreign people?
5ad49962ba00c4001a268d12
True
němъ
325
What word did Jackobson use to mean mute?
5ad49962ba00c4001a268d13
True
The Slavic autonym *Slověninъ is usually considered (e.g. by Roman Jakobson) a derivation from slovo "word", originally denoting "people who speak (the same language)," i.e. people who understand each other, in contrast to the Slavic word denoting "foreign people" – němci, meaning "mumbling, murmuring people" (from Slavic *němъ – "mumbling, mute").
Slovo, slava, and slukh all originate from what Proto-Indo-European root?
56f7194f3d8e2e1400e3734a
*ḱlew
121
False
The Ancient Greek κλῆς (klês - "famous") helped create what famous name?
56f7194f3d8e2e1400e3734b
Pericles
219
False
What three words originated from the Proto-Indo-European root *ḱlew- ("be spoken of, fame")?
56f7194f3d8e2e1400e3734c
he word slovo ("word") and the related slava ("fame") and slukh ("hearing")
1
False
be spoken of, fame
130
What does the Latin word "klew" mean?
5ad49a62ba00c4001a268d40
True
klês
185
What is the Latin word for famous?
5ad49a62ba00c4001a268d41
True
clueo
239
What does the word "klew" originate from?
5ad49a62ba00c4001a268d42
True
Proto-Indo-European
96
What type of root word is Pericles?
5ad49a62ba00c4001a268d43
True
slukh
59
What Slavic word means "loud"?
5ad49a62ba00c4001a268d44
True
The word slovo ("word") and the related slava ("fame") and slukh ("hearing") originate from the Proto-Indo-European root *ḱlew- ("be spoken of, fame"), cognate with Ancient Greek κλῆς (klês - "famous"), whence the name Pericles, and Latin clueo ("be called"), and English loud.
The word Slav could be derived from what Middle English word?
56f71a1c711bf01900a44964
sclave
68
False
The origin of what Byzantine term is disputed?
56f71a1c711bf01900a44965
Sklavinoi
345
False
The Byzantine Greek σκλάβος sklábos "slave," which was in turn apparently derived from what?
56f71a1c711bf01900a44966
misunderstanding of the Slavic autonym
242
False
The Byzantine term Sklavinoi was loaned into Arabic as Saqaliba by who?
56f71a1c711bf01900a44967
medieval Arab historiographers
422
False
Slav
17
What English word does "sclave" come from?
5ad49b46ba00c4001a268d68
True
sclavus or slavus
115
What Latin word was a misunderstanding?
5ad49b46ba00c4001a268d69
True
Sklavinoi
345
What word was loaned from Arabic?
5ad49b46ba00c4001a268d6a
True
medieval Arab historiographers
422
Who disputes the origin of the word Saqaliba?
5ad49b46ba00c4001a268d6b
True
Byzantine
330
What nationality borrowed the word "Saqaliba"?
5ad49b46ba00c4001a268d6c
True
The English word Slav could be derived from the Middle English word sclave, which was borrowed from Medieval Latin sclavus or slavus, itself a borrowing and Byzantine Greek σκλάβος sklábos "slave," which was in turn apparently derived from a misunderstanding of the Slavic autonym (denoting a speaker of their own languages). The Byzantine term Sklavinoi was loaned into Arabic as Saqaliba صقالبة (sing. Saqlabi صقلبي) by medieval Arab historiographers. However, the origin of this word is disputed.
Who argues that the word *slava once had the meaning of worshipper?
56f71b0b711bf01900a4496c
Lozinski
106
False
Who speculates that *slava derives from a reconstructed Proto-Indo-European *(s)lawos?
56f71b0b711bf01900a4496d
S.B. Bernstein
284
False
The suffix -enin indicates what?
56f71b0b711bf01900a4496e
a man from a certain place
551
False
Who argued that the Old East Slavic Slavuta for the Dnieper River was derived from slova?
56f71b0b711bf01900a4496f
Henrich Bartek
726
False
Lozinski
106
Who said slava evolved from an ethnonym?
5ad49bddba00c4001a268d7c
True
S.B. Bernstein
284
What was the name of the scholar that suggested Slova could be a river name?
5ad49bddba00c4001a268d7d
True
1907
742
When was SB Bernstein born?
5ad49bddba00c4001a268d7e
True
1986
747
When did Bartek argue the Dnieper River was the origin of Slovene?
5ad49bddba00c4001a268d7f
True
-enin
535
What suffix indicates a river name?
5ad49bddba00c4001a268d80
True
Alternative proposals for the etymology of *Slověninъ propounded by some scholars have much less support. Lozinski argues that the word *slava once had the meaning of worshipper, in this context meaning "practicer of a common Slavic religion," and from that evolved into an ethnonym. S.B. Bernstein speculates that it derives from a reconstructed Proto-Indo-European *(s)lawos, cognate to Ancient Greek λαός laós "population, people," which itself has no commonly accepted etymology. Meanwhile, others have pointed out that the suffix -enin indicates a man from a certain place, which in this case should be a place called Slova or Slava, possibly a river name. The Old East Slavic Slavuta for the Dnieper River was argued by Henrich Bartek (1907–1986) to be derived from slova and also the origin of Slovene.
The earliest mentions of Slavic raids are across what river?
56f71bd9711bf01900a44974
River Danube
55
False
The earliest mentions of what may be dated to the first half of the 6th century?
56f71bd9711bf01900a44975
Slavic raids
25
False
No archaeological evidence of a Slavic settlement in the Balkans could be securely dated before when?
56f71bd9711bf01900a44976
c. 600 AD
219
False
There is no evidence of a Slavic settlement where before c. 600 AD?
56f71bd9711bf01900a44977
the Balkans
176
False
the first half of the 6th century
84
When did the Slavics raid the River Danube?
5ad49c8eba00c4001a268dae
True
the 6th century
102
When was archaeological evidence of Slavic settlements first discovered?
5ad49c8eba00c4001a268daf
True
c. 600 AD
219
All archaeological evidence for the Slavics is dated after what year?
5ad49c8eba00c4001a268db0
True
the Balkans
176
Who raided the Slavics?
5ad49c8eba00c4001a268db1
True
The earliest mentions of Slavic raids across the lower River Danube may be dated to the first half of the 6th century, yet no archaeological evidence of a Slavic settlement in the Balkans could be securely dated before c. 600 AD.
The Slavs make their first appearance in Byzantine records when?
56f71d1f711bf01900a44990
in the early 6th century
100
False
The Slavs were under what name in the early 6th century?
56f71d1f711bf01900a44991
the Antes and the Sclaveni
24
False
According to Byzantine historiographers, tribes of Slavs emerged from what areas?
56f71d1f711bf01900a44992
the Carpathian Mountains, the lower Danube and the Black Sea
305
False
Tribes of Slavs were invading what provinces of the Eastern Empire?
56f71d1f711bf01900a44993
the Danubian provinces
376
False
Under whose reign did Byzantine historiographers describe Slavic tribes?
56f71d1f711bf01900a44994
under Justinian I
153
False
early 6th century
107
When do Byzantine records begin?
5ad49d0aba00c4001a268dc0
True
527–565
172
When did Procopius of Caesarea live?
5ad49d0aba00c4001a268dc1
True
Caesarea
203
Where was Jordanes from?
5ad49d0aba00c4001a268dc2
True
Antes and the Sclaveni
28
What was another name for Byzantine?
5ad49d0aba00c4001a268dc3
True
Carpathian
309
What mountains did the Byzantine people come from?
5ad49d0aba00c4001a268dc4
True
The Slavs under name of the Antes and the Sclaveni make their first appearance in Byzantine records in the early 6th century. Byzantine historiographers under Justinian I (527–565), such as Procopius of Caesarea, Jordanes and Theophylact Simocatta describe tribes of these names emerging from the area of the Carpathian Mountains, the lower Danube and the Black Sea, invading the Danubian provinces of the Eastern Empire.
Who wrote in 545 that "the Sclaveni and the Antae actually had a single name in the remote past; for they were both called Spori in olden times."?
56f71f1c3d8e2e1400e3736e
Procopius
0
False
When did Procopius write that "the Sclaveni and the Antae actually had a single name in the remote past; for they were both called Spori in olden times."?
56f71f1c3d8e2e1400e3736f
545
19
False
Procopius said Sclaveni and Antae were both called what?
56f71f1c3d8e2e1400e37370
Spori
129
False
What does Procopius describe in his writings of the Sclaveni and Antae?
56f71f1c3d8e2e1400e37371
their social structure and beliefs
165
False
Who did Procopius write about in 545?
56f71f1c3d8e2e1400e37372
the Sclaveni and the Antae
29
False
Procopius
0
Who called the Sclaveni Spori in olden times?
5ad49d98ba00c4001a268de8
True
545
19
In what year were the Sclaveni and Antae called Spori?
5ad49d98ba00c4001a268de9
True
Antae
50
What were both Sclaveni and Spori once called?
5ad49d98ba00c4001a268dea
True
the Sclaveni and the Antae
29
What did Procopius write about in olden times?
5ad49d98ba00c4001a268deb
True
their social structure and beliefs
165
What did the Spori describe in 545?
5ad49d98ba00c4001a268dec
True
Procopius wrote in 545 that "the Sclaveni and the Antae actually had a single name in the remote past; for they were both called Spori in olden times." He describes their social structure and beliefs:
Who tells us that the Sclaveni had swamps and forests for their cities?
56f71f8e3d8e2e1400e37378
Jordanes
0
False
Who had swamps and forests for their cities?
56f71f8e3d8e2e1400e37379
the Sclaveni
23
False
A 6th-century source refers to the Sclaveni as living where?
56f71f8e3d8e2e1400e3737a
among nearly impenetrable forests, rivers, lakes, and marshes
126
False
Jordanes
0
Who wrote that the Sclaveni lived in impenetrable forests?
5ad4a4faba00c4001a268ea6
True
nearly impenetrable forests, rivers, lakes, and marshes
132
Where did Jordanes live?
5ad4a4faba00c4001a268ea7
True
the Sclaveni
23
Who could not penetrate the forests and rivers?
5ad4a4faba00c4001a268ea8
True
6th-century
85
When did Sclaveni live in swamps?
5ad4a4faba00c4001a268ea9
True
Jordanes tells us that the Sclaveni had swamps and forests for their cities. Another 6th-century source refers to them living among nearly impenetrable forests, rivers, lakes, and marshes.
Who mentions a Daurentius (577–579) that slew an Avar envoy of Khagan Bayan I?
56f7208f711bf01900a449ae
Menander Protector
0
False
Who slew an envoy of Khagan Bayan I?
56f7208f711bf01900a449af
Daurentius
30
False
The Slavs were asked to accept the suzerainty of whom?
56f7208f711bf01900a449b0
the Avars
148
False
Who said, "Others do not conquer our land, we conquer theirs – so it shall always be for us."?
56f7208f711bf01900a449b1
Daurentius
30
False
Whose envoy was slaughtered by Daurentius?
56f7208f711bf01900a449b2
Khagan Bayan I
78
False
577–579
42
When did Protector live?
5ad4a57aba00c4001a268eae
True
Avar
64
What kind of envoy did Khagan Bayan I destroy?
5ad4a57aba00c4001a268eaf
True
The Avars
94
Who did the Slavs ask to accept their suzerainty?
5ad4a57aba00c4001a268eb0
True
Others do not conquer our land, we conquer theirs
207
What did Protector say about conquering land?
5ad4a57aba00c4001a268eb1
True
Daurentius
30
Who did the Avar envoy slaughter?
5ad4a57aba00c4001a268eb2
True
Menander Protector mentions a Daurentius (577–579) that slew an Avar envoy of Khagan Bayan I. The Avars asked the Slavs to accept the suzerainty of the Avars, he however declined and is reported as saying: "Others do not conquer our land, we conquer theirs – so it shall always be for us".
An uncertain relationship was held between the Slavs and who?
56f7211e3d8e2e1400e3737e
the Veneti
54
False
The Veneti tribe was located where?
56f7211e3d8e2e1400e3737f
east of the River Vistula
65
False
What name may refer both to Balts and Slavs?
56f7211e3d8e2e1400e37380
Veneti
58
False
When was the relationship between the Slavs and Veneti uncertain?
56f7211e3d8e2e1400e37381
in the Roman period
91
False
the River Vistula
73
What were the Slavs east of?
5ad4a602ba00c4001a268eb8
True
Slavs
162
Who did the Balts have an uncomfortable relationship with?
5ad4a602ba00c4001a268eb9
True
the Veneti
54
What tribe was to the east of the Slavs?
5ad4a602ba00c4001a268eba
True
both to Balts and Slavs
144
What did the Roman period refer to?
5ad4a602ba00c4001a268ebb
True
The relationship between the Slavs and a tribe called the Veneti east of the River Vistula in the Roman period is uncertain. The name may refer both to Balts and Slavs.
Slavic-speaking tribes were part of what prior to becoming known to the Roman world?
56f7233b711bf01900a449d6
multi-ethnic confederacies of Eurasia
127
False
What were some of the multi-ethnic confederacies of Eurasia?
56f7233b711bf01900a449d7
the Sarmatian, Hun and Gothic empires
175
False
Who started the great migration of the Slavs?
56f7233b711bf01900a449d8
Germans
277
False
Some Slavs migrated with the movement of the Vandals to where?
56f7233b711bf01900a449d9
Iberia and north Africa
848
False
Who were the Germanic tribes fleeing?
56f7233b711bf01900a449da
the Huns and their allies
545
False
Sarmatian, Hun and Gothic
179
What empires were part of the Roman world?
5ad4a6bbba00c4001a268ed4
True
the 5th and 6th centuries CE
288
When did the Sarmatians move westward?
5ad4a6bbba00c4001a268ed5
True
Germanic tribes
521
Who settled in langs abandoned by the Slavs?
5ad4a6bbba00c4001a268ed6
True
Huns, and later Avars and Bulgars
409
Who was fleeing from the Germans?
5ad4a6bbba00c4001a268ed7
True
eastern homeland theory
13
What theory suggests the Slavic tribes were unknown to the Roman world?
5ad4a6bbba00c4001a268ed8
True
According to eastern homeland theory, prior to becoming known to the Roman world, Slavic-speaking tribes were part of the many multi-ethnic confederacies of Eurasia – such as the Sarmatian, Hun and Gothic empires. The Slavs emerged from obscurity when the westward movement of Germans in the 5th and 6th centuries CE (thought to be in conjunction with the movement of peoples from Siberia and Eastern Europe: Huns, and later Avars and Bulgars) started the great migration of the Slavs, who settled the lands abandoned by Germanic tribes fleeing the Huns and their allies: westward into the country between the Oder and the Elbe-Saale line; southward into Bohemia, Moravia, much of present-day Austria, the Pannonian plain and the Balkans; and northward along the upper Dnieper river. Perhaps some Slavs migrated with the movement of the Vandals to Iberia and north Africa.
When did Slavs appear on Byzantine borders?
56f724b9711bf01900a449e0
Around the 6th century
0
False
The Slavs appeared on whose borders around the 6th century?
56f724b9711bf01900a449e1
Byzantine borders
42
False
Where else reported Slavic settlements?
56f724b9711bf01900a449e2
Peloponnese and Asia Minor
257
False
Where had the Slavs settled by the end of the 6th century?
56f724b9711bf01900a449e3
the Eastern Alps
452
False
When had the Slavs settled the Eastern Alps?
56f724b9711bf01900a449e4
By the end of the 6th century
403
False
Around the 6th century
0
When did the Peloponnese appear on Byzantine borders?
5ad4a796ba00c4001a268ef2
True
grass
123
What did Slav records note could not grow after their presence?
5ad4a796ba00c4001a268ef3
True
the Eastern Alps regions
452
Where were Slave settled at the beginning of the 6th century?
5ad4a796ba00c4001a268ef4
True
as an invasive expansion
377
How has the southern movement of the Byzantine empire been understood?
5ad4a796ba00c4001a268ef5
True
Byzantine borders
42
Where did the Peloponnese appear at the beginning of the 6th c?
5ad4a796ba00c4001a268ef6
True
Around the 6th century, Slavs appeared on Byzantine borders in great numbers.[page needed] The Byzantine records note that grass would not regrow in places where the Slavs had marched through, so great were their numbers. After a military movement even the Peloponnese and Asia Minor were reported to have Slavic settlements. This southern movement has traditionally been seen as an invasive expansion. By the end of the 6th century, Slavs had settled the Eastern Alps regions.
What appeared among the Slavs when their migratory movements ended?
56f726613d8e2e1400e373a4
the first rudiments of state organizations
69
False
When did the first rudiments of state organizations appear among the Slavs?
56f726613d8e2e1400e373a5
When their migratory movements ended
0
False
Early state organizations where headed by what?
56f726613d8e2e1400e373a6
a prince with a treasury and a defense force
128
False
Noble Slavs pledged allegiance to whom?
56f726613d8e2e1400e373a7
the Frankish/ Holy Roman Emperors or the Byzantine Emperors
272
False
nobles
236
Who did the Byzantine Emperors pledge allegiance to?
5ad4a8225b96ef001a109d1e
True
Frankish
276
What is another name for the Byzantine Emperors?
5ad4a8225b96ef001a109d1f
True
their migratory movements
5
What did the beginnings of class differentiation end?
5ad4a8225b96ef001a109d20
True
a prince
128
Who headed the Frankish Emperors?
5ad4a8225b96ef001a109d21
True
a treasury and a defense force
142
What two things did each noble have?
5ad4a8225b96ef001a109d22
True
When their migratory movements ended, there appeared among the Slavs the first rudiments of state organizations, each headed by a prince with a treasury and a defense force. Moreover, it was the beginnings of class differentiation, and nobles pledged allegiance either to the Frankish/ Holy Roman Emperors or the Byzantine Emperors.
When did Samo become the ruler of the first known Slav state?
56f728733d8e2e1400e373ac
the 7th century
3
False
What Frankish merchant was the ruler of the first Slav state in Central Europe?
56f728733d8e2e1400e373ad
Samo
42
False
What is the oldest Slav state in Central Europe?
56f728733d8e2e1400e373ae
Carantania
345
False
When was the first Bulgarian Empire founded?
56f728733d8e2e1400e373af
681
751
False
Bulgaria was instrumental in the spread of what to the rest of the Slavic world?
56f728733d8e2e1400e373b0
Slavic literacy and Christianity
884
False
Samo
42
Who supported the Avar rulers?
5ad4a8ed5b96ef001a109d32
True
the first known Slav state
120
What outlived the first Slav ruler?
5ad4a8ed5b96ef001a109d33
True
Central Europe
150
Where was the first known Avar state?
5ad4a8ed5b96ef001a109d34
True
Old Bulgarian
776
What became the official language of an empire in 681?
5ad4a8ed5b96ef001a109d35
True
681
751
When was Carantania founded?
5ad4a8ed5b96ef001a109d36
True
In the 7th century, the Frankish merchant Samo, who supported the Slavs fighting their Avar rulers, became the ruler of the first known Slav state in Central Europe, which, however, most probably did not outlive its founder and ruler. This provided the foundation for subsequent Slavic states to arise on the former territory of this realm with Carantania being the oldest of them. Very old also are the Principality of Nitra and the Moravian principality (see under Great Moravia). In this period, there existed central Slavic groups and states such as the Balaton Principality, but the subsequent expansion of the Magyars, as well as the Germanisation of Austria, separated the northern and southern Slavs. The First Bulgarian Empire was founded in 681, the Slavic language Old Bulgarian became the main and official of the empire in 864. Bulgaria was instrumental in the spread of Slavic literacy and Christianity to the rest of the Slavic world.
What three free Slavic states were in the world as of 1878?
56f729ce711bf01900a44a0e
the Russian Empire, Serbia and Montenegro
67
False
When were the Russian Empire, Serbia, and Montenegro the only free Slavic states in the world?
56f729ce711bf01900a44a0f
1878
6
False
Whose official independence was declared in 1908?
56f729ce711bf01900a44a10
Bulgaria
110
False
When were independent states as Czechoslovakia, the Second Polish Republic, and the State of Slovenes, Croats and Serbs established?
56f729ce711bf01900a44a11
In 1918
661
False
the Ottoman Empire
159
What was Serbia de jure vassal to in 1878?
5ad4a97f5b96ef001a109d3c
True
1908
222
When was Montenegro's independence declared?
5ad4a97f5b96ef001a109d3d
True
50 million people
283
How many people were in the Ottoman Empire?
5ad4a97f5b96ef001a109d3e
True
World War I
676
What ended in 1878?
5ad4a97f5b96ef001a109d3f
True
23 million
308
How many Slavs lived in Czechoslovakia?
5ad4a97f5b96ef001a109d40
True
As of 1878, there were only three free Slavic states in the world: the Russian Empire, Serbia and Montenegro. Bulgaria was also free but was de jure vassal to the Ottoman Empire until official independence was declared in 1908. In the entire Austro-Hungarian Empire of approximately 50 million people, about 23 million were Slavs. The Slavic peoples who were, for the most part, denied a voice in the affairs of the Austro-Hungarian Empire, were calling for national self-determination. During World War I, representatives of the Czechs, Slovaks, Poles, Serbs, Croats, and Slovenes set up organizations in the Allied countries to gain sympathy and recognition. In 1918, after World War I ended, the Slavs established such independent states as Czechoslovakia, the Second Polish Republic, and the State of Slovenes, Croats and Serbs.
Whose plan for the East entailed killing, deporting, or enslaving the Slavs?
56f7302e711bf01900a44a48
Hitler's
21
False
What would have led to the starvation of 80 million people in the Soviet Union?
56f7302e711bf01900a44a49
The Nazi Hunger Plan and Generalplan Ost
233
False
The Nazi Hunger Plan and Generalplan Ost resulted in the death and imprisonment of how many people?
56f7302e711bf01900a44a4a
19.3 million civilians
420
False
What is the German word for living space?
56f7302e711bf01900a44a4b
Lebensraum
186
False
19.3 million
420
How many prisoners of war were supposed to die from the Hunger Plan?
5ad4aa805b96ef001a109d50
True
Hitler
21
Who planned to deport German settlers?
5ad4aa805b96ef001a109d51
True
the Soviet Union
331
80 million people died in what country?
5ad4aa805b96ef001a109d52
True
Lebensraum
186
What is the Slavic word for living space?
5ad4aa805b96ef001a109d53
True
The Nazi Hunger Plan and Generalplan Ost
233
What plans successfully resulted in 80 million people starving?
5ad4aa805b96ef001a109d54
True
During World War II, Hitler's Generalplan Ost (general plan for the East) entailed killing, deporting, or enslaving the Slavic and Jewish population of occupied Eastern Europe to create Lebensraum (living space) for German settlers. The Nazi Hunger Plan and Generalplan Ost would have led to the starvation of 80 million people in the Soviet Union. These partially fulfilled plans resulted in the deaths of an estimated 19.3 million civilians and prisoners of war.
The first half of the 20th century was marked by what in Russia and the Soviet Union?
56f7366c711bf01900a44a64
succession of wars, famines and other disasters
82
False
Who estimated the Russian population was 90 million fewer than it could have been in 1945?
56f7366c711bf01900a44a65
Stephen J. Lee
182
False
When was the Russian population estimated to be about 90 million fewer than it could have been?
56f7366c711bf01900a44a66
1945
243
False
What was marked by succession of wars, famines, and other disasters in the 20th century?
56f7366c711bf01900a44a67
Russia and the Soviet Union
38
False
1945
243
When did Stephen J. Lee make his estimate about the Russian population?
5ad4ab1f5b96ef001a109d5a
True
90 million
282
How many people did famine kill in Russia?
5ad4ab1f5b96ef001a109d5b
True
the Soviet Union
49
Who did Russia fight with in the first half of the 20th century?
5ad4ab1f5b96ef001a109d5c
True
Stephen J. Lee
182
Who ended the war in 1945?
5ad4ab1f5b96ef001a109d5d
True
Russian
253
What is Stephen J. Lee's nationality?
5ad4ab1f5b96ef001a109d5e
True
The first half of the 20th century in Russia and the Soviet Union was marked by a succession of wars, famines and other disasters, each accompanied by large-scale population losses. Stephen J. Lee estimates that, by the end of World War II in 1945, the Russian population was about 90 million fewer than it could have been otherwise.
When did Pan-Slavism develop as a movement?
56f7397c711bf01900a44a8a
In the 19th century
134
False
Pan-Slavism became compromised when what empire started to use it as an ideology justifying its territorial conquests?
56f7397c711bf01900a44a8b
Russian Empire
383
False
The Russian Empire used what as justification for its territorial conquests?
56f7397c711bf01900a44a8c
Pan-Slavism
343
False
What notable political union of the 20th century covered most South Slavs?
56f7397c711bf01900a44a8d
Yugoslavia
981
False
When did Yugoslavia break apart?
56f7397c711bf01900a44a8e
1990s
1030
False
Pan-Slavism
155
What influenced practical politics?
5ad4b45b5b96ef001a109e02
True
the 19th century
137
When did the Russian Empire create pan-slavism?
5ad4b45b5b96ef001a109e03
True
the Russian Empire
379
What did Central Europe begin to conquest?
5ad4b45b5b96ef001a109e04
True
Yugoslavia
981
What formed in the 1990s?
5ad4b45b5b96ef001a109e05
True
Ukrainians
568
Who did the Poles subjugate?
5ad4b45b5b96ef001a109e06
True
Because of the vastness and diversity of the territory occupied by Slavic people, there were several centers of Slavic consolidation. In the 19th century, Pan-Slavism developed as a movement among intellectuals, scholars, and poets, but it rarely influenced practical politics and did not find support in some nations that had Slavic origins. Pan-Slavism became compromised when the Russian Empire started to use it as an ideology justifying its territorial conquests in Central Europe as well as subjugation of other ethnic groups of Slavic origins such as Poles and Ukrainians, and the ideology became associated with Russian imperialism. The common Slavic experience of communism combined with the repeated usage of the ideology by Soviet propaganda after World War II within the Eastern bloc (Warsaw Pact) was a forced high-level political and economic hegemony of the USSR dominated by Russians. A notable political union of the 20th century that covered most South Slavs was Yugoslavia, but it ultimately broke apart in the 1990s along with the Soviet Union.
When was the word "Slavs" used in the national anthem of the Slovak Republic?
56f73b54aef2371900625a23
1939–1945
73
False
When was the word "Slavs" used in the national anthem of Yugoslavia?
56f73b54aef2371900625a24
1943–1992
97
False
When was the word "Slavs" used in the national anthem of the Federal Republic of Yugoslavia?
56f73b54aef2371900625a25
1992–2003
148
False
When was the word "Slavs" used in the national anthem of Serbia and Montenegro?
56f73b54aef2371900625a26
2003–2006
189
False
2003–2006
189
When was slavs used for the Yugoslavia and Montenegro anthem?
5ad4b4fb5b96ef001a109e16
True
Slavs
10
What word was taken out of the national anthem of the Slovak Republic in 1939?
5ad4b4fb5b96ef001a109e17
True
Yugoslavia
85
What country stopped using the word slavs in 1943?
5ad4b4fb5b96ef001a109e18
True
2003
153
When did the Federal Republic of Yugoslavia become Yugoslavia?
5ad4b4fb5b96ef001a109e19
True
The word "Slavs" was used in the national anthem of the Slovak Republic (1939–1945), Yugoslavia (1943–1992) and the Federal Republic of Yugoslavia (1992–2003), later Serbia and Montenegro (2003–2006).
Many Slavic populations that were part of the Warsaw Pact are originally from where?
56f73db4aef2371900625a3f
the Russian SFSR, Ukrainian SSR and Byelorussian SSR
187
False
What is the largest Slavic minority?
56f73db4aef2371900625a40
Russians
322
False
Where is the largest Slavic minority located?
56f73db4aef2371900625a41
Kazakhstan
252
False
What other Slavic minorities are in Kazakhstan?
56f73db4aef2371900625a42
Ukrainians, Belarusians and Poles
332
False
Kazakhstan
252
What country has the largest Ukrainian population?
5ad4b5f75b96ef001a109e1e
True
the Russian SFSR, Ukrainian SSR and Byelorussian SSR
187
What was the Warsaw Pact originally part of?
5ad4b5f75b96ef001a109e1f
True
Russians
322
What is the largest population in Kazakhstan?
5ad4b5f75b96ef001a109e20
True
territories of the Warsaw Pact
79
What is an example of a satellite state?
5ad4b5f75b96ef001a109e21
True
Slavic
279
What is the smallest minority in Kazakhstan?
5ad4b5f75b96ef001a109e22
True
Former Soviet states, as well as countries that used to be satellite states or territories of the Warsaw Pact, have numerous minority Slavic populations, many of whom are originally from the Russian SFSR, Ukrainian SSR and Byelorussian SSR. As of now, Kazakhstan has the largest Slavic minority population with most being Russians (Ukrainians, Belarusians and Poles are present as well but in much smaller numbers).
What movement came into prominence in the mid-19th century that emphasized the common heritage and unity of all the Slavic peoples?
56f7406ca6d7ea1400e17118
Pan-Slavism
0
False
Where was the main focus of Pan-Slavism?
56f7406ca6d7ea1400e17119
the Byzantine Empire, Austria-Hungary, the Ottoman Empire, and Venice
247
False
Who used Pan-Slavism as a political tool?
56f7406ca6d7ea1400e1711a
The Russian Empire
318
False
When did the Soviet Union gain political-military influence and control over most Slavic-majority nations?
56f7406ca6d7ea1400e1711b
between 1945 and 1948
488
False
How long did the Soviet Union retain a hegemonic role?
56f7406ca6d7ea1400e1711c
until the period 1989–1991
540
False
the Byzantine Empire, Austria-Hungary, the Ottoman Empire, and Venice
247
Who did the South Slavs rule over?
5ad4b6b25b96ef001a109e28
True
between 1945 and 1948
488
When did Venice gain power over Slavic-majority nations?
5ad4b6b25b96ef001a109e29
True
hegemonic
525
What type of role did Slavic nations play between 1989-1991?
5ad4b6b25b96ef001a109e2a
True
Balkans
170
Which area was the first to use Pan-Slavism as a political tool?
5ad4b6b25b96ef001a109e2b
True
a political tool
357
What did Austria-Hungary use pan-slavism for?
5ad4b6b25b96ef001a109e2c
True
Pan-Slavism, a movement which came into prominence in the mid-19th century, emphasized the common heritage and unity of all the Slavic peoples. The main focus was in the Balkans where the South Slavs had been ruled for centuries by other empires: the Byzantine Empire, Austria-Hungary, the Ottoman Empire, and Venice. The Russian Empire used Pan-Slavism as a political tool; as did the Soviet Union, which gained political-military influence and control over most Slavic-majority nations between 1945 and 1948 and retained a hegemonic role until the period 1989–1991.
What began as an almost exclusively linguistic and philological enterprise?
56f740d5aef2371900625a47
Slavic studies
0
False
When were Slavic languages recognized as Indo-European?
56f740d5aef2371900625a48
As early as 1833
86
False
What languages were recognized as Indo-European?
56f740d5aef2371900625a49
Slavic languages
104
False
In 1833, Slavic languages were recognized as what?
56f740d5aef2371900625a4a
Indo-European
140
False
1833
98
When did Slavic studies become a linguistic enterprise?
5ad4b73c5b96ef001a109e32
True
Slavic languages
104
What were Indo-European studies recognized as?
5ad4b73c5b96ef001a109e33
True
linguistic and philological enterprise
46
What did Indo-European studies begin as?
5ad4b73c5b96ef001a109e34
True
Indo-European
140
What was recognized as Slavic languages?
5ad4b73d5b96ef001a109e35
True
As early as 1833
86
When did linguistic studies begin?
5ad4b73d5b96ef001a109e36
True
Slavic studies began as an almost exclusively linguistic and philological enterprise. As early as 1833, Slavic languages were recognized as Indo-European.
What depends on what religion is usual for the respective Slavic ethnic groups?
56f7424daef2371900625a4f
The alphabet
202
False
Who uses the Cyrillic alphabet?
56f7424daef2371900625a50
The Orthodox
290
False
Who uses the Latin alphabet?
56f7424daef2371900625a51
the Roman Catholics
333
False
Other than the Roman Catholics, who else uses Latin?
56f7424daef2371900625a52
the Bosniaks
373
False
What is a Latin script to write in Belarusian?
56f7424daef2371900625a53
the Lacinka alphabet
639
False
religion
231
What is dependent on the alphabet?
5ad4b84d5b96ef001a109e3c
True
Lacinka
643
What is the name of the latin script Muslims use?
5ad4b84d5b96ef001a109e3d
True
Latin
415
What do most Greek Romans use?
5ad4b84d5b96ef001a109e3e
True
both Cyrillic and Latin alphabets
544
What language do Ukranians use?
5ad4b84d5b96ef001a109e3f
True
Belarusian
620
What language uses a Cyrillic script called Lacinka?
5ad4b84d5b96ef001a109e40
True
Slavic standard languages which are official in at least one country: Belarusian, Bosnian, Bulgarian, Croatian, Czech, Macedonian, Montenegrin, Polish, Russian, Serbian, Slovak, Slovene, and Ukrainian. The alphabet depends on what religion is usual for the respective Slavic ethnic groups. The Orthodox use the Cyrillic alphabet and the Roman Catholics use Latin alphabet, the Bosniaks who are Muslims also use the Latin. Few Greek Roman and Roman Catholics use the Cyrillic alphabet however. The Serbian language and Montenegrin language uses both Cyrillic and Latin alphabets. There is also a Latin script to write in Belarusian, called the Lacinka alphabet.
What is the supposed ancestor of all Slavic languages?
56f74318aef2371900625a59
Proto-Slavic
0
False
Proto-Slavic developed numerous lexical and morphophonological isoglosses with what languages?
56f74318aef2371900625a5a
Baltic languages
224
False
The Indo-Europeans who remained after the migrations became speakers of what?
56f74318aef2371900625a5b
Balto-Slavic
376
False
Who became speakers of Balto-Slavic?
56f74318aef2371900625a5c
Indo-Europeans
290
False
Proto-Slavic is a descendant of what?
56f74318aef2371900625a5d
Proto-Indo-European
96
False
Proto-Slavic
0
What does Proto-Indo-European descend from?
5ad4b9265b96ef001a109e46
True
a Balto-Slavic stage
121
How did Proto-Slavic become the ancestor language to all Slavic?
5ad4b9265b96ef001a109e47
True
numerous lexical and morphophonological isoglosses
164
What did Proto-Indo-European form with Balto languages?
5ad4b9265b96ef001a109e48
True
the Kurgan hypothesis
262
What proposes the Indo-Europeans that migrated became speakers of Balto-Slavic?
5ad4b9265b96ef001a109e49
True
Proto-Slavic, the supposed ancestor language of all Slavic languages, is a descendant of common Proto-Indo-European, via a Balto-Slavic stage in which it developed numerous lexical and morphophonological isoglosses with the Baltic languages. In the framework of the Kurgan hypothesis, "the Indo-Europeans who remained after the migrations [from the steppe] became speakers of Balto-Slavic".
Proto-Slavic is sometimes referred to as what?
56f74522aef2371900625a81
Common Slavic or Late Proto-Slavic
39
False
What is defined as the last stage of the language preceding the geographical split of the historical Slavic languages?
56f74522aef2371900625a82
Proto-Slavic
0
False
Old Church Slavonic manuscripts were based on the local Slavic speech of what?
56f74522aef2371900625a83
Thessaloniki
549
False
What could still serve the purpose of the first common Slavic literary language?
56f74522aef2371900625a84
Old Church Slavonic manuscripts
471
False
Common Slavic or Late Proto-Slavic
39
What is another term for Old Church Slavonic?
5ad4b9f65b96ef001a109e4e
True
Proto-Slavic
0
What was the name of the language after the geographical split?
5ad4b9f65b96ef001a109e4f
True
dialects
354
What did the Proto-slavic language have in multiple recognizable variations?
5ad4b9f65b96ef001a109e50
True
Thessaloniki
549
What speech did Old Church Slavonic influence?
5ad4b9f65b96ef001a109e51
True
the first common Slavic literary language
596
What is Thessaloniki the first example of?
5ad4b9f65b96ef001a109e52
True
Proto-Slavic, sometimes referred to as Common Slavic or Late Proto-Slavic, is defined as the last stage of the language preceding the geographical split of the historical Slavic languages. That language was uniform, and on the basis of borrowings from foreign languages and Slavic borrowings into other languages, cannot be said to have any recognizable dialects, suggesting a comparatively compact homeland. Slavic linguistic unity was to some extent visible as late as Old Church Slavonic manuscripts which, though based on local Slavic speech of Thessaloniki, could still serve the purpose of the first common Slavic literary language.
When were pagan Slavic populations Christianized?
56f74604aef2371900625a89
between the 6th and 10th centuries
48
False
What religion is predominant in the East and South Slavs?
56f74604aef2371900625a8a
Orthodox Christianity
84
False
What religion is predominant in the West and western South Slavs?
56f74604aef2371900625a8b
Roman Catholicism
156
False
When did the East-West Schism begin?
56f74604aef2371900625a8c
11th century
320
False
The majority of contemporary Slavic populations who profess a religion are what?
56f74604aef2371900625a8d
Orthodox
409
False
the East–West Schism
280
What schism began in the 10th century?
5ad4bab45b96ef001a109e62
True
contemporary Slavic populations
350
Most of what populations are Muslim?
5ad4bab45b96ef001a109e63
True
19%
715
What percentage of Slavs are atheist?
5ad4bab45b96ef001a109e64
True
between the 6th and 10th centuries
48
When did Slavic populations become more atheistic?
5ad4bab45b96ef001a109e65
True
Czechs
722
What nationality is the Protestant religion common in?
5ad4bab45b96ef001a109e66
True
The pagan Slavic populations were Christianized between the 6th and 10th centuries. Orthodox Christianity is predominant in the East and South Slavs, while Roman Catholicism is predominant in West Slavs and the western South Slavs. The religious borders are largely comparable to the East–West Schism which began in the 11th century. The majority of contemporary Slavic populations who profess a religion are Orthodox, followed by Catholic, while a small minority are Protestant. There are minor Slavic Muslim groups. Religious delineations by nationality can be very sharp; usually in the Slavic ethnic groups the vast majority of religious people share the same religion. Some Slavs are atheist or agnostic: only 19% of Czechs professed belief in god/s in the 2005 Eurobarometer survey.
Who is customarily divided along geographical lines into tree major subgroups?
56f7467aaef2371900625a93
Slavs
0
False
What three major subgroups are Slavs divided into?
56f7467aaef2371900625a94
West Slavs, East Slavs, and South Slavs
83
False
The Slav subgroups have had notable cultural contact with what kind of civilisations?
56f7467aaef2371900625a95
non-Slavic Bronze- and Iron Age
361
False
three
60
How many groups are non-Slavic bronze age civilisations divided into?
5ad4bb2d5b96ef001a109e6c
True
along geographical lines
30
How is the West Slavs subgroup divided?
5ad4bb2d5b96ef001a109e6d
True
non-Slavic Bronze- and Iron Age civilisations
361
What group did the Slavs largely avoid?
5ad4bb2d5b96ef001a109e6e
True
history, religion and culture
187
What do all subgroups share?
5ad4bb2d5b96ef001a109e6f
True
Slavs are customarily divided along geographical lines into three major subgroups: West Slavs, East Slavs, and South Slavs, each with a different and a diverse background based on unique history, religion and culture of particular Slavic groups within them. Apart from prehistorical archaeological cultures, the subgroups have had notable cultural contact with non-Slavic Bronze- and Iron Age civilisations.
Ethnic affiliation of who has become an ideological conflict?
56f746fea6d7ea1400e17140
the Lemkos
125
False
The idea of "Carpatho-Ruthenian" nation is supported only by Lemkos residing where?
56f746fea6d7ea1400e17141
Transcarpathia and abroad
294
False
Most inhabitants of historic Moravia considered themselves as what?
56f746fea6d7ea1400e17142
Czechs
385
False
What group is considered part of the Poles?
56f746fea6d7ea1400e17143
Silesians
610
False
an ideological conflict
147
What is the ethnic affiliation of the Rusyns considered?
5ad4c0c85b96ef001a109f3a
True
Carpatho-Ruthenian" nation
227
What do the Ukrainians in Transcarpathia support?
5ad4c0c85b96ef001a109f3b
True
language
542
What do people from Bohemia and Silesia use that is the same?
5ad4c0c85b96ef001a109f3c
True
the Poles
631
What are Moravians considered part of?
5ad4c0c85b96ef001a109f3d
True
Czech
717
What are parts of the Upper Moravia sometimes considered?
5ad4c0c85b96ef001a109f3e
True
^1 Also considered part of Rusyns ^2 Considered transitional between Ukrainians and Belarusians ^3 The ethnic affiliation of the Lemkos has become an ideological conflict. It has been alleged that among the Lemkos the idea of "Carpatho-Ruthenian" nation is supported only by Lemkos residing in Transcarpathia and abroad ^4 Most inhabitants of historic Moravia considered themselves as Czechs but significant amount declared their Moravian nationality, different from that Czech (although people from Bohemia and Moravia use the same official language). ^5 Also considered Poles. ^6 There are sources that show Silesians as part of the Poles. Parts of the southmost population of Upper Silesia is sometimes considered Czech (controversial).
Most Slavic Muslims now opt for what ethnicity?
56f74783a6d7ea1400e17152
Bosniak
139
False
What two groups are considered two ethnonyms for a single ethnicity and the terms may even be used interchangeably?
56f74783a6d7ea1400e17153
Bosniak and Muslim
203
False
A small number of people declare themselves Bosniak but are not necessarily Muslim by faith within what regions?
56f74783a6d7ea1400e17154
Bosnia and Herzegovina
363
False
Bosnia, Croatia, Montenegro and Serbia
87
Which areas tend to use the Muslim designation?
5ad4c1bb5b96ef001a109f66
True
Bosniak and Muslim
203
What two terms cannot be used interchangeably?
5ad4c1bb5b96ef001a109f67
True
Muslim
437
What religion do people who declare themselves as Bosniak always have?
5ad4c1bb5b96ef001a109f68
True
not necessarily Muslim by faith
421
What oddity in people who declare themselves as Bosniak can be found in Croatia?
5ad4c1bb5b96ef001a109f69
True
Herzegovina
374
What country besides Bosnia are Bosniaks always also Muslim?
5ad4c1bb5b96ef001a109f6a
True
^7 A census category recognized as an ethnic group. Most Slavic Muslims (especially in Bosnia, Croatia, Montenegro and Serbia) now opt for Bosniak ethnicity, but some still use the "Muslim" designation. Bosniak and Muslim are considered two ethnonyms for a single ethnicity and the terms may even be used interchangeably. However, a small number of people within Bosnia and Herzegovina declare themselves Bosniak but are not necessarily Muslim by faith.
This identity continues to be used by a minority throughout the what former republics?
56f747eca6d7ea1400e17158
Yugoslav republics
74
False
The nationality is also declared by diasporans living where?
56f747eca6d7ea1400e17159
USA and Canada
155
False
Yugoslav
74
Diasporan is claimed as an identity in what former republics?
5ad4c2695b96ef001a109f8c
True
USA and Canada
155
This nationality has been rejected by diasporans living where?
5ad4c2695b96ef001a109f8d
True
diasporans
130
What are the minority living in USA and Canada called?
5ad4c2695b96ef001a109f8e
True
This identity
3
What has been abandoned by those living in Yugoslav?
5ad4c2695b96ef001a109f8f
True
^8 This identity continues to be used by a minority throughout the former Yugoslav republics. The nationality is also declared by diasporans living in the USA and Canada. There are a multitude of reasons as to why people prefer this affiliation, some published on the article.
Where are Bunjevci located?
56f7488caef2371900625aad
Bačka
45
False
Where are Šokci located?
56f7488caef2371900625aae
Slavonia and Vojvodina
63
False
Where are Janjevci located?
56f7488caef2371900625aaf
Kosovo
101
False
Where are Burgenland Croats located?
56f7488caef2371900625ab0
Austria
132
False
Where are Krashovans located?
56f7488caef2371900625ab1
Romania
206
False
Croats
17
What is a subgroup of Benjevci?
5ad4c2e25b96ef001a109f9e
True
Šokci
53
What subgroup is located in Slavonia and Kosovo?
5ad4c2e25b96ef001a109f9f
True
Italy
183
Where are Molise Croats and Moravian Croats located?
5ad4c2e25b96ef001a109fa0
True
Croats
121
What group lives in Burgenland?
5ad4c2e25b96ef001a109fa1
True
Bunjevci
32
Where are Backa located?
5ad4c2e25b96ef001a109fa2
True
^9 Sub-groups of Croats include Bunjevci (in Bačka), Šokci (in Slavonia and Vojvodina), Janjevci (in Kosovo), Burgenland Croats (in Austria), Bosniaks (in Hungary), Molise Croats (in Italy), Krashovans (in Romania), Moravian Croats (in the Czech Republic)
What sub-groups of Slovenes are extinct?
56f74992a6d7ea1400e17164
Carantanians and Somogy Slovenes
133
False
What are the current sub-groups of Slovenes?
56f74992a6d7ea1400e17165
Prekmurians, Hungarian Slovenes, Carinthian Slovenes, Venetian Slovenes, Resians
35
False
Slovenes
18
What is a subgroup of Hungarians?
5ad4c3bc5b96ef001a109fc6
True
Prekmurians, Hungarian Slovenes, Carinthian Slovenes, Venetian Slovenes, Resians
35
Which five groups are now extinct?
5ad4c3bc5b96ef001a109fc7
True
extinct
125
What happened to most of the Slovenes subgroups?
5ad4c3bc5b96ef001a109fc8
True
10
1
How many subgroups of Slovenes are there?
5ad4c3bc5b96ef001a109fc9
True
^10 Sub-groups of Slovenes include Prekmurians, Hungarian Slovenes, Carinthian Slovenes, Venetian Slovenes, Resians, and the extinct Carantanians and Somogy Slovenes.
Serbs of Croatia are mostly descendants of who?
56f74dbdaef2371900625ad5
the Grenzers
525
False
Where are Zagorci located?
56f74dbdaef2371900625ad6
northern Croatia
183
False
Where are Istrijani located?
56f74dbdaef2371900625ad7
westernmost Croatia
214
False
Where are Boduli located?
56f74dbdaef2371900625ad8
Adriatic islands
277
False
Where are Vlaji located?
56f74dbdaef2371900625ad9
hinterland of Dalmatia
304
False
ethnic groups
14
What is the only way Slavs identify?
5ad4c4915b96ef001a109fd8
True
Istrijani
201
What are slavs called in central Croatia?
5ad4c4915b96ef001a109fd9
True
Grenzers
529
Who are the Vlaji descendants of?
5ad4c4915b96ef001a109fda
True
the Croatian war of independence
615
When did western Bosnia become the Military Frontier?
5ad4c4915b96ef001a109fdb
True
Warmia and Mazuria
1151
What are the names of the cities in the north Bulgarian region?
5ad4c4915b96ef001a109fdc
True
Note: Besides ethnic groups, Slavs often identify themselves with the local geographical region in which they live. Some of the major regional South Slavic groups include: Zagorci in northern Croatia, Istrijani in westernmost Croatia, Dalmatinci in southern Croatia, Boduli in Adriatic islands, Vlaji in hinterland of Dalmatia, Slavonci in eastern Croatia, Bosanci in Bosnia, Hercegovci in Herzegovina, Krajišnici in western Bosnia, but is more commonly used to refer to the Serbs of Croatia, most of whom are descendants of the Grenzers, and continued to live in the area which made up the Military Frontier until the Croatian war of independence, Semberci in northeast Bosnia, Srbijanci in Serbia proper, Šumadinci in central Serbia, Vojvođani in northern Serbia, Sremci in Syrmia, Bačvani in northwest Vojvodina, Banaćani in Banat, Sandžaklije (Muslims in Serbia/Montenegro border), Kosovci in Kosovo, Bokelji in southwest Montenegro, Trakiytsi in Upper Thracian Lowlands, Dobrudzhantsi in north-east Bulgarian region, Balkandzhii in Central Balkan Mountains, Miziytsi in north Bulgarian region, Warmiaks and Masurians in north-east Polish regions Warmia and Mazuria, Pirintsi in Blagoevgrad Province, Ruptsi in the Rhodopes etc.
What two DNA haplogroups predominate in modern Slavic peoples?
56f74fcea6d7ea1400e17190
R1a1a [M17] and I2a2a
151
False
What is the frequency of Haplogroup R1a in the Sorbs?
56f74fcea6d7ea1400e17191
63.39%
235
False
What is the frequency of Haplogroup R1a in Poland?
56f74fcea6d7ea1400e17192
56.4%
264
False
What is the frequency of Haplogroup R1a in Ukraine?
56f74fcea6d7ea1400e17193
54%
281
False
What is the frequency of Haplogroup R1a in Russia?
56f74fcea6d7ea1400e17194
52%
297
False
the late 1990s
574
When did Spencer Wells deduce R1a1a arose on the Pontic-Caspian steppe?
5ad4c5425b96ef001a109ff6
True
63.39%
235
How frequent is I2a2a in the Sorbs?
5ad4c5425b96ef001a109ff7
True
Herzegovina
387
What population is I2a2a the rarest in?
5ad4c5425b96ef001a109ff8
True
Spencer Wells
600
Who created the Kurgan hypothesis?
5ad4c5425b96ef001a109ff9
True
the Pontic-Caspian steppe
691
Where did  I2a2a arise from?
5ad4c5425b96ef001a109ffa
True
The modern Slavic peoples carry a variety of mitochondrial DNA haplogroups and Y-chromosome DNA haplogroups. Yet two paternal haplogroups predominate: R1a1a [M17] and I2a2a [L69.2=T/S163.2]. The frequency of Haplogroup R1a ranges from 63.39% in the Sorbs, through 56.4% in Poland, 54% in Ukraine, 52% in Russia, Belarus, to 15.2% in Republic of Macedonia, 14.7% in Bulgaria and 12.1% in Herzegovina. The correlation between R1a1a [M17] and the speakers of Indo-European languages, particularly those of Eastern Europe (Russian) and Central and Southern Asia, was noticed in the late 1990s. From this Spencer Wells and colleagues, following the Kurgan hypothesis, deduced that R1a1a arose on the Pontic-Caspian steppe.
When did Rębała and colleagues studied several Slavic populations with the aim of localizing the Proto-Slavic homeland?
56f75185aef2371900625b0b
2007
49
False
Who studied several Slavic populations with the aim of localizing the Proto-Slavic homeland?
56f75185aef2371900625b0c
Rębała
54
False
In 2007 Rębała and colleagues studied several Slavic populations with the aim of localizing what?
56f75185aef2371900625b0d
the Proto-Slavic homeland
138
False
2007
49
When was the Proto-Slavic homeland found?
5ad4c5ed5b96ef001a10a008
True
Rębała
54
Who wanted to localize slavic populations?
5ad4c5ed5b96ef001a10a009
True
the Proto-Slavic homeland
138
What did Rębała study to localize the Slavic population?
5ad4c5ed5b96ef001a10a00a
True
2007
49
When did specific studies of Slavic genetics begin?
5ad4c5ed5b96ef001a10a00b
True
Specific studies of Slavic genetics followed. In 2007 Rębała and colleagues studied several Slavic populations with the aim of localizing the Proto-Slavic homeland. The significant findings of this study are that:
Who searched for specifically Slavic sub-group of R1a1a [M17]?
56f754a3a6d7ea1400e171be
Marcin Woźniak and colleagues
0
False
When did Marcin Woźniak search specifically for Slavic sub-group of R1a1a [M17]?
56f754a3a6d7ea1400e171bf
2010
31
False
The team that discovered M458 was led by who?
56f754a3a6d7ea1400e171c0
Peter Underhill
363
False
Marcin Woźniak
0
Who was searching for Slavic haplotypes?
5ad4c6d55b96ef001a10a01a
True
2010
31
When did Peter Underhill discover the marker?
5ad4c6d55b96ef001a10a01b
True
a Slavic marker
450
What did Peter Underhill suspect M458 was?
5ad4c6d55b96ef001a10a01c
True
the archaeological record
684
What is the evolutionary effective mutation rate more in line with?
5ad4c6d55b96ef001a10a01d
True
M458
223
What marker did Wozniak discover?
5ad4c6d55b96ef001a10a01e
True
Marcin Woźniak and colleagues (2010) searched for specifically Slavic sub-group of R1a1a [M17]. Working with haplotypes, they found a pattern among Western Slavs which turned out to correspond to a newly discovered marker, M458, which defines subclade R1a1a7. This marker correlates remarkably well with the distribution of Slavic-speakers today. The team led by Peter Underhill, which discovered M458, did not consider the possibility that this was a Slavic marker, since they used the "evolutionary effective" mutation rate, which gave a date far too old to be Slavic. Woźniak and colleagues pointed out that the pedigree mutation rate, giving a later date, is more consistent with the archaeological record.
What is distinguished by the presence of Y Haplogroup N?
56f75961aef2371900625b39
Pomors
0
False
Pomors are distinguished by the presence of what?
56f75961aef2371900625b3a
Y Haplogroup N
44
False
Y Haplogroup N are found at high rates in who?
56f75961aef2371900625b3b
Uralic peoples
145
False
Russians are generally similar to populations in what region?
56f75961aef2371900625b3c
central-eastern Europe
371
False
Pomors are also known as what?
56f75961aef2371900625b3d
Northern Russians
193
False
Pomors
0
What are Y Haplogroup N distinguished by?
5ad4c7595b96ef001a10a042
True
Y Haplogroup N
44
What do Finnic tribes have in high rates?
5ad4c7595b96ef001a10a043
True
northern Eurasia
290
Where are the Uralic peoples from?
5ad4c7595b96ef001a10a044
True
central-eastern Europe
371
What are Russians most dissimilar from autosomally?
5ad4c7595b96ef001a10a045
True
Northern Russians
193
What is another name for Uralic peoples?
5ad4c7595b96ef001a10a046
True
Pomors are distinguished by the presence of Y Haplogroup N among them. Postulated to originate from southeast Asia, it is found at high rates in Uralic peoples. Its presence in Pomors (called "Northern Russians" in the report) attests to the non-Slavic tribes (mixing with Finnic tribes of northern Eurasia). Autosomally, Russians are generally similar to populations in central-eastern Europe but some northern Russians are intermediate to Finno-Ugric groups.
I2a1b1 is typical of what populations?
56f75a5faef2371900625b43
South Slavic populations
52
False
I2a1b1 is found being highest where?
56f75a5faef2371900625b44
Bosnia-Herzegovina
95
False
Haplogroup I2a2 is commonly found in what group of people?
56f75a5faef2371900625b45
north-eastern Italians
164
False
Hg I2a2 was believed to have arisen where?
56f75a5faef2371900625b46
west Balkans
371
False
Who has split I2a2 into two clades?
56f75a5faef2371900625b47
Ken Nordtvedt
489
False
>50%
115
What percentage of north-eastern Italians have I2a1b1?
5ad4fef85b96ef001a10a8cc
True
west Balkans
371
Where did I2a1b1 originate?
5ad4fef85b96ef001a10a8cd
True
LGM
403
What preceded l2a1b1?
5ad4fef85b96ef001a10a8ce
True
Ken Nordtvedt
489
Who split LGM?
5ad4fef85b96ef001a10a8cf
True
~ 2550 years
705
How old is I2a1b1 calculated to be?
5ad4fef85b96ef001a10a8d0
True
On the other hand, I2a1b1 (P41.2) is typical of the South Slavic populations, being highest in Bosnia-Herzegovina (>50%). Haplogroup I2a2 is also commonly found in north-eastern Italians. There is also a high concentration of I2a2a in the Moldavian region of Romania, Moldova and western Ukraine. According to original studies, Hg I2a2 was believed to have arisen in the west Balkans sometime after the LGM, subsequently spreading from the Balkans through Central Russian Plain. Recently, Ken Nordtvedt has split I2a2 into two clades – N (northern) and S (southern), in relation where they arose compared to Danube river. He proposes that N is slightly older than S. He recalculated the age of I2a2 to be ~ 2550 years and proposed that the current distribution is explained by a Slavic expansion from the area north-east of the Carpathians.
When did Boris Arkadievich Malyarchuk use a sample of Czech individuals to determine the frequency of "Monigoloid" "mtDNA lineages"?
56f75e0fa6d7ea1400e1720c
2008
3
False
Who used a sample of Czech individuals to determine the frequency of "Monigoloid" "mtDNA lineages"?
56f75e0fa6d7ea1400e1720d
Boris Arkadievich Malyarchuk
20
False
Malyarchuk found Czech mtDNA lineages were typical of what populations?
56f75e0fa6d7ea1400e1720e
Slavic populations
351
False
Malyarchuk said the Mongoloid component of Slavic people was partially added before the split of "Balto-Slavics" in what time period?
56f75e0fa6d7ea1400e1720f
Malyarchuk said that other Slavs "Mongoloid component" was increased during the waves of migration from "steppe populations
1007
False
Malyarchuk said that other Slavs "Mongoloid component" was increased during the waves of migration from what populations?
56f75e0fa6d7ea1400e17210
steppe populations
1112
False
Boris Arkadievich Malyarchuk
20
What was the name of the Czech individual tested?
5ad501565b96ef001a10a922
True
the indigenous pre-Slavic population
793
What assimilated the Russian population?
5ad501565b96ef001a10a923
True
2,000–3,000 BC
616
When was the steppe population migration?
5ad501565b96ef001a10a924
True
279
210
How many biochemists were involved in the study?
5ad501565b96ef001a10a925
True
1.8%
377
What percentage of Finno-Ugric populations have Mongoloid mtDNA lineage?
5ad501565b96ef001a10a926
True
In 2008, biochemist Boris Arkadievich Malyarchuk (Russian: Борис Аркадьевич Малярчук) et al. of the Institute of Biological Problems of the North, Russian Academy of Sciences, Magadan, Russia, used a sample (n=279) of Czech individuals to determine the frequency of "Mongoloid" "mtDNA lineages". Malyarchuk found Czech mtDNA lineages were typical of "Slavic populations" with "1.8%" Mongoloid mtDNA lineage. Malyarchuk added that "Slavic populations" "almost always" contain Mongoloid mtDNA lineage. Malyarchuk said the Mongoloid component of Slavic people was partially added before the split of "Balto-Slavics" in 2,000–3,000 BC with additional Mongoloid mixture occurring among Slavics in the last 4,000 years. Malyarchuk said the "Russian population" was developed by the "assimilation of the indigenous pre-Slavic population of Eastern Europe by true Slavs" with additional "assimilation of Finno-Ugric populations" and "long-lasting" interactions with the populations of "Siberia" and "Central Asia". Malyarchuk said that other Slavs "Mongoloid component" was increased during the waves of migration from "steppe populations (Huns, Avars, Bulgars and Mongols)", especially the decay of the "Avar Khaganate".
DNA from how many Russians show that the Y chromosomes fall into seven major haplogroups all characteristic to West Eurasian populations?
56f7600baef2371900625b71
1228
17
False
DNA samples from 1228 Russians show that the Y chromosomes analyzed, all except 20 (1.6%) fall into seven major haplogroups all characteristic to what populations?
56f7600baef2371900625b72
West Eurasian
146
False
Taken together, they account for what percentage of the total Russian Y chromosomal pool?
56f7600baef2371900625b73
95%
206
False
What percentage fell into haplogroups that are specific to East and South Asian populations?
56f7600baef2371900625b74
0.7%
257
False
Mitochondrial DNA (mtDNA) examined in Poles and Russians revealed the presence of what major haplogroups?
56f7600baef2371900625b75
European
432
False
1.6%
84
what percentage of Poles have Y chromosomes in the major haplogroups?
5ad502655b96ef001a10a95e
True
1228
17
How many Poles were studied?
5ad502655b96ef001a10a95f
True
neighbouring European populations
730
DNA of Poles and Russians differ from what group?
5ad502655b96ef001a10a960
True
West Eurasian
146
Where are the 20 haplogroups from?
5ad502655b96ef001a10a961
True
0.7%
257
What percentage of Poles have haplogroups from East Asian populations?
5ad502655b96ef001a10a962
True
DNA samples from 1228 Russians show that the Y chromosomes analyzed, all except 20 (1.6%) fall into seven major haplogroups all characteristic to West Eurasian populations. Taken together, they account for 95% of the total Russian Y chromosomal pool. Only (0.7%) fell into haplogroups that are specific to East and South Asian populations. Mitochondrial DNA (mtDNA) examined in Poles and Russians revealed the presence of all major European haplogroups, which were characterized by similar patterns of distribution in Poles and Russians. An analysis of the DNA did not reveal any specific combinations of unique mtDNA haplotypes and their subclusters. The DNA clearly shows that both Poles and Russians are not different from the neighbouring European populations.
What is the posulated homeland region of the Slavs?
56f7608daef2371900625b7b
Ukraine
121
False
Who did the Slavs have contact with in Ukraine?
56f7608daef2371900625b7c
Iranic Sarmatians and the Germanic Goths
158
False
After their subsequent spread, they began assimilating who?
56f7608daef2371900625b7d
non-Slavic peoples
255
False
What peoples where in the Balkans?
56f7608daef2371900625b7e
Paleo-Balkan peoples
315
False
Who vanished from the population of the Balkans?
56f7608daef2371900625b7f
The Thracians and Illyrians
584
False
Iranic Sarmatians and the Germanic Goths
158
What non-Slavic groups are in present-day Ukraine?
5ad5033a5b96ef001a10a97a
True
Albanian nation
682
What modern nation claims to descend from Thracians?
5ad5033a5b96ef001a10a97b
True
9th century
883
When were Slavs Hellenized?
5ad5033a5b96ef001a10a97c
True
their ruling status and subsequent land
1166
What features of the Republic of Macedonia helped pass on its legacy to future generations?
5ad5033a5b96ef001a10a97d
True
high Middle Ages
1454
When did Dalmatian Romance assimilate the Slavs?
5ad5033a5b96ef001a10a97e
True
Throughout their history, Slavs came into contact with non-Slavic groups. In the postulated homeland region (present-day Ukraine), they had contacts with the Iranic Sarmatians and the Germanic Goths. After their subsequent spread, they began assimilating non-Slavic peoples. For example, in the Balkans, there were Paleo-Balkan peoples, such as Romanized and Hellenized (Jireček Line) Illyrians, Thracians and Dacians, as well as Greeks and Celtic Scordisci. Over time, due to the larger number of Slavs, most descendants of the indigenous populations of the Balkans were Slavicized. The Thracians and Illyrians vanished from the population during this period – although the modern Albanian nation claims descent from the Illyrians. Exceptions are Greece, where the lesser numbered Slavs scattered there came to be Hellenized (aided in time by more Greeks returning to Greece in the 9th century and the role of the church and administration) and Romania where Slavic people settled en route for present-day Greece, Republic of Macedonia, Bulgaria and East Thrace whereby the Slavic population had come to assimilate. Bulgars were also assimilated by local Slavs but their ruling status and subsequent land cast the nominal legacy of Bulgarian country and people onto all future generations. The Romance speakers within the fortified Dalmatian cities managed to retain their culture and language for a long time, as Dalmatian Romance was spoken until the high Middle Ages. However, they too were eventually assimilated into the body of Slavs.
Where did South Slavs and Germanic Gepids intermarried with Avar invaders?
56f76139a6d7ea1400e17228
In the Western Balkans
0
False
In the Western Balkans, South Slavs and Germanic Gepids intermarried with who?
56f76139a6d7ea1400e17229
Avar invaders
74
False
In Central Europe, the Slavs intermixed with who?
56f76139a6d7ea1400e1722a
Germanic and Celtic
197
False
The eastern Slavs intermixed with who?
56f76139a6d7ea1400e1722b
Uralic and Scandinavian peoples
254
False
Scandinavians (Varangians) and Finnic peoples were involved in the early formation of what state?
56f76139a6d7ea1400e1722c
the Rus' state
373
False
Varangians
302
What is another name for the Finnic peoples?
5ad503f45b96ef001a10a9a2
True
the Rus'
373
What state did the Germanic Gepids help form?
5ad503f45b96ef001a10a9a3
True
11th and 12th centuries
722
When was the Magyar migration?
5ad503f45b96ef001a10a9a4
True
200,000
628
How many Romano-Dacians were there in the Magyar migration?
5ad503f45b96ef001a10a9a5
True
Turkic
778
What attacking tribes lived in the regions of the north?
5ad503f45b96ef001a10a9a6
True
In the Western Balkans, South Slavs and Germanic Gepids intermarried with Avar invaders, eventually producing a Slavicized population.[citation needed] In Central Europe, the Slavs intermixed with Germanic and Celtic, while the eastern Slavs encountered Uralic and Scandinavian peoples. Scandinavians (Varangians) and Finnic peoples were involved in the early formation of the Rus' state but were completely Slavicized after a century. Some Finno-Ugric tribes in the north were also absorbed into the expanding Rus population. At the time of the Magyar migration, the present-day Hungary was inhabited by Slavs, numbering about 200,000, and by Romano-Dacians who were either assimilated or enslaved by the Magyars. In the 11th and 12th centuries, constant incursions by nomadic Turkic tribes, such as the Kipchaks and the Pechenegs, caused a massive migration of East Slavic populations to the safer, heavily forested regions of the north. In the Middle Ages, groups of Saxon ore miners settled in medieval Bosnia, Serbia and Bulgaria where they were Slavicized.
Who settled in parts of England?
56f761b0a6d7ea1400e17232
Polabian Slavs (Wends)
0
False
Where did Polabian Slavs (Wends) settle?
56f761b0a6d7ea1400e17233
parts of England (Danelaw)
34
False
Polabian-Pomeranian Slavs are also known to have even settled where?
56f761b0a6d7ea1400e17234
Norse age Iceland
156
False
What refers to the Slavic mercenaries and slaves in the medieval Arab world in North Africa, Sicily and Al-Andalus?
56f761b0a6d7ea1400e17235
Saqaliba
175
False
Saqaliba served as what?
56f761b0a6d7ea1400e17236
caliph's guards
314
False
Danelaw
52
What is another name for Iceland?
5ad504705b96ef001a10a9c0
True
Saqaliba
175
What name refers to the Polabian-Pomeranian Slavs?
5ad504705b96ef001a10a9c1
True
caliph
314
Who served as the guards of the Saqaliba?
5ad504705b96ef001a10a9c2
True
the 12th century
334
When did the Polabian Slavs settle in England?
5ad504705b96ef001a10a9c3
True
1147
473
When did Niklot invade Slavic lands?
5ad504705b96ef001a10a9c4
True
Polabian Slavs (Wends) settled in parts of England (Danelaw), apparently as Danish allies. Polabian-Pomeranian Slavs are also known to have even settled on Norse age Iceland. Saqaliba refers to the Slavic mercenaries and slaves in the medieval Arab world in North Africa, Sicily and Al-Andalus. Saqaliba served as caliph's guards. In the 12th century, there was intensification of Slavic piracy in the Baltics. The Wendish Crusade was started against the Polabian Slavs in 1147, as a part of the Northern Crusades. Niklot, pagan chief of the Slavic Obodrites, began his open resistance when Lothar III, Holy Roman Emperor, invaded Slavic lands. In August 1160 Niklot was killed and German colonization (Ostsiedlung) of the Elbe-Oder region began. In Hanoverian Wendland, Mecklenburg-Vorpommern and Lusatia invaders started germanization. Early forms of germanization were described by German monks: Helmold in the manuscript Chronicon Slavorum and Adam of Bremen in Gesta Hammaburgensis ecclesiae pontificum. The Polabian language survived until the beginning of the 19th century in what is now the German state of Lower Saxony. In Eastern Germany, around 20% of Germans have Slavic paternal ancestry. Similarly, in Germany, around 20% of the foreign surnames are of Slavic origin.
Cossacks came from what backgrounds?
56f76216a6d7ea1400e1723c
Tatars and other Turks
109
False
Many early members of the Terek Cossacks were what?
56f76216a6d7ea1400e1723d
Ossetians
179
False
What religious affiliation did the Cossacks have?
56f76216a6d7ea1400e1723e
Orthodox Christians
39
False
Orthodox Christians
39
What primary religion do Turks follow?
5ad504cb5b96ef001a10a9dc
True
Ossetians
179
What were many early Tatars?
5ad504cb5b96ef001a10a9dd
True
Slavic
19
What did the Ossetians speak?
5ad504cb5b96ef001a10a9de
True
Tatars and other Turks
109
What ethnic backgrounds came from Cossacks?
5ad504cb5b96ef001a10a9df
True
Cossacks, although Slavic-speaking and Orthodox Christians, came from a mix of ethnic backgrounds, including Tatars and other Turks. Many early members of the Terek Cossacks were Ossetians.
Where did the Gorals reside?
56f7626aaef2371900625b85
southern Poland and northern Slovakia
14
False
Who descended from Romance-speaking Vlachs?
56f7626aaef2371900625b86
Gorals
4
False
When did the Vlachs migrate into the region?
56f7626aaef2371900625b87
14th to 17th centuries
143
False
What population descended from the Vlachs?
56f7626aaef2371900625b88
Moravian Wallachia
229
False
Vlachs
98
Who descended from the Gorals?
5ad5051c5b96ef001a10a9fe
True
Romance
81
What language did Gorals speak?
5ad5051c5b96ef001a10a9ff
True
from the 14th to 17th centuries
134
When did the Gorals live in southern Poland?
5ad5051c5b96ef001a10aa00
True
southern Poland and northern Slovakia
14
Where do Moravian Wallachia live?
5ad5051c5b96ef001a10aa01
True
The Gorals of southern Poland and northern Slovakia are partially descended from Romance-speaking Vlachs who migrated into the region from the 14th to 17th centuries and were absorbed into the local population. The population of Moravian Wallachia also descend of this population.
Slavs that remained in the Carpathian basin were assimilated into who?
56f762fbaef2371900625b8d
the Magyar or Romanian population
249
False
There is a large number of river names and other placenames of Slavic origin in what country?
56f762fbaef2371900625b8e
Romania
364
False
Majority of Slavs continued south to the riches of the territory that became what country?
56f762fbaef2371900625b8f
Bulgaria
163
False
Where did the Slavs that assimilated into the Magyar or Romanian population remain?
56f762fbaef2371900625b90
Carpathian basin
195
False
the Magyar or Romanian population
249
Who were the Slavs in Bulgaria assimilated by?
5ad505b65b96ef001a10aa1a
True
the riches of the territory
116
What was attractive about the Magyar?
5ad505b65b96ef001a10aa1b
True
river names and other placenames
311
What have slavic origins in Bulgaria?
5ad505b65b96ef001a10aa1c
True
the Carpathian basin
191
What basin did most Slavs end up in?
5ad505b65b96ef001a10aa1d
True
south
96
Which direction did the Romanians travel in?
5ad505b65b96ef001a10aa1e
True
Conversely, some Slavs were assimilated into other populations. Although the majority continued south, attracted by the riches of the territory which would become Bulgaria, a few remained in the Carpathian basin and were ultimately assimilated into the Magyar or Romanian population. There is a large number of river names and other placenames of Slavic origin in Romania.[better source needed]
Southampton
What's the estimated population of Southampton?
56f6f44f711bf01900a4488e
253,651
540
False
What could you call someone who lives in Southampton?
56f6f44f711bf01900a4488f
Sotonian
667
False
In what ceremonial county is Southampton located?
56f6f44f711bf01900a44890
Hampshire
87
False
How many miles away from London is Southampton?
56f6f44f711bf01900a44891
75
144
False
In which direction would you travel from Portsmouth to reach Southampton?
56f6f44f711bf01900a44892
north-west
204
False
Southampton (i/saʊθˈæmptən, -hæmptən/) is the largest city in the ceremonial county of Hampshire on the south coast of England, and is situated 75 miles (121 km) south-west of London and 19 miles (31 km) north-west of Portsmouth. Southampton is a major port and the closest city to the New Forest. It lies at the northernmost point of Southampton Water at the confluence of the River Test and River Itchen, with the River Hamble joining to the south of the urban area. The city, which is a unitary authority, has an estimated population of 253,651. The city's name is sometimes abbreviated in writing to "So'ton" or "Soton", and a resident of Southampton is called a Sotonian.
What is the big retail shopping center in Southampton called?
56f7197b711bf01900a4495a
WestQuay
505
False
In what month of 2014 did Southampton's City Council give the go-ahead for WestQuay Watermark?
56f7197b711bf01900a4495b
October
518
False
What war is Southampton often associated with?
56f7197b711bf01900a4495c
World War II
288
False
What company owns WestQuay Watermark?
56f7197b711bf01900a4495d
Hammerson
684
False
By the end of 2016, how many people are projected to be working onsite at WestQuay Watermark?
56f7197b711bf01900a4495e
1,550
747
False
Significant employers in Southampton include The University of Southampton, Southampton Solent University, Southampton Airport, Ordnance Survey, BBC South, the NHS, ABP and Carnival UK. Southampton is noted for its association with the RMS Titanic, the Spitfire and more generally in the World War II narrative as one of the departure points for D-Day, and more recently as the home port of a number of the largest cruise ships in the world. Southampton has a large shopping centre and retail park called WestQuay. In October 2014, the City Council approved a follow-up from the WestQuay park, called WestQuay Watermark. Construction by Sir Robert McAlpine commenced in January 2015. Hammerson, the owners of the retail park, aim to have at least 1,550 people employed on its premises at year-end 2016.
What other city merged with Southampton after the 2001 census?
56f83185aef2371900625ee3
Portsmouth
35
False
What's the other name for South Hampshire?
56f83185aef2371900625ee4
Solent City
339
False
In the 2011 census, what was the population of Southampton after it merged with Portsmouth?
56f83185aef2371900625ee5
855,569
229
False
What metropolitan area is Portsmouth a part of?
56f83185aef2371900625ee6
South Hampshire
299
False
What is the estimated minimum population of South Hampshire?
56f83185aef2371900625ee7
1.5 million
461
False
In the 2001 census Southampton and Portsmouth were recorded as being parts of separate urban areas, however by the time of the 2011 census they had merged to become the sixth largest built-up area in England with a population of 855,569. This built-up area is part of the metropolitan area known as South Hampshire, which is also known as Solent City, particularly in the media when discussing local governance organisational changes. With a population of over 1.5 million this makes the region one of the United Kingdom's most populous metropolitan areas.
What year did the Romans invade Britain?
56f833afaef2371900625ef7
AD 43
126
False
What ancient settlement was established after Rome invaded and the Britons were conquered?
56f833afaef2371900625ef8
Clausentum
208
False
According to evidence found, in what archaeological age were there first inhabitants in the area of Southampton?
56f833afaef2371900625ef9
stone age
72
False
What is the site of Clausentum called now?
56f833afaef2371900625efa
Bitterne Manor
328
False
In addition to two ditches, what was Clausentum's defense from invaders?
56f833afaef2371900625efb
a wall
371
False
Archaeological finds suggest that the area has been inhabited since the stone age. Following the Roman invasion of Britain in AD 43 and the conquering of the local Britons in 70 AD the fortress settlement of Clausentum was established. It was an important trading port and defensive outpost of Winchester, at the site of modern Bitterne Manor. Clausentum was defended by a wall and two ditches and is thought to have contained a bath house. Clausentum was not abandoned until around 410.
What people established a settlement in what is now the St. Mary's area of Southampton?
56f8366baef2371900625f13
Anglo-Saxons
4
False
What name did the Anglo-Saxons give their settlement first?
56f8366baef2371900625f14
Hamwic
151
False
What name did Hamwic have in the interim as it was evolving into Hampton?
56f8366baef2371900625f15
Hamtun
178
False
What county in England was named after Hampton?
56f8366baef2371900625f16
Hampshire
356
False
What river separated Hamwic from the home of previous settlers?
56f8366baef2371900625f17
Itchen
61
False
The Anglo-Saxons formed a new, larger, settlement across the Itchen centred on what is now the St Mary's area of the city. The settlement was known as Hamwic, which evolved into Hamtun and then Hampton. Archaeological excavations of this site have uncovered one of the best collections of Saxon artefacts in Europe. It is from this town that the county of Hampshire gets its name.
What kind of raids disturbed Hamwic in the 9th century?
56f837eba6d7ea1400e174b5
Viking
0
False
What year did the Vikings start attacking Hamwic?
56f837eba6d7ea1400e174b6
840
18
False
In what century was a new settlement set up at the site of Hamwic?
56f837eba6d7ea1400e174b7
10th
98
False
What was the name of the 10th-century fortified settlement that took Hamwic's place?
56f837eba6d7ea1400e174b8
Southampton
157
False
Viking raids from 840 onwards contributed to the decline of Hamwic in the 9th century, and by the 10th century a fortified settlement, which became medieval Southampton, had been established.
In what year did the Norman Conquest take place?
56f8393fa6d7ea1400e174c5
1066
33
False
What was the capital of England during the time of the Norman Conquest?
56f8393fa6d7ea1400e174c6
Winchester
121
False
Southampton was important to transit between Winchester and what other region in England in the 11th century?
56f8393fa6d7ea1400e174c7
Normandy
137
False
In what century was Southampton Castle built?
56f8393fa6d7ea1400e174c8
12th
183
False
During the 13th century, what did Southampton get in trade for English cloth and wool?
56f8393fa6d7ea1400e174c9
French wine
298
False
Following the Norman Conquest in 1066, Southampton became the major port of transit between the then capital of England, Winchester, and Normandy. Southampton Castle was built in the 12th century and by the 13th century Southampton had become a leading port, particularly involved in the import of French wine in exchange for English cloth and wool.
Ruins of merchants' homes that survive today are evidence that Southampton had rich people in what century?
56f83b32a6d7ea1400e174e9
12th
21
False
What plague made it to England because of all the ships visiting Southampton in the 14th century?
56f83b32a6d7ea1400e174ea
Black Death
177
False
What year did the Black Death arrive in England for the first time?
56f83b32a6d7ea1400e174eb
1348
167
False
In addition to King John's House, what's the name of another rich merchant's dwelling that still partly remains?
56f83b32a6d7ea1400e174ec
Canute's Palace
82
False
Surviving remains of 12th century merchants' houses such as King John's House and Canute's Palace are evidence of the wealth that existed in the town at this time. In 1348, the Black Death reached England via merchant vessels calling at Southampton.
Who led the invasion of Southampton in the 14th century by the French and others?
56f83d50a6d7ea1400e174fb
Charles Grimaldi
75
False
What principality did Grimaldi set up with the profits from plundering Southampton?
56f83d50a6d7ea1400e174fc
Monaco
148
False
What year did Edward III show up in Southampton and tell them to build walls?
56f83d50a6d7ea1400e174fd
1339
184
False
How many of the original towers from Southampton's walls are still standing?
56f83d50a6d7ea1400e174fe
13
395
False
The oldest section of the original wall around the town dates from what year?
56f83d50a6d7ea1400e174ff
1175
304
False
The town was sacked in 1338 by French, Genoese and Monegasque ships (under Charles Grimaldi, who used the plunder to help found the principality of Monaco). On visiting Southampton in 1339, Edward III ordered that walls be built to 'close the town'. The extensive rebuilding—part of the walls dates from 1175—culminated in the completion of the western walls in 1380. Roughly half of the walls, 13 of the original towers, and six gates survive.
What's the name of the wall tower that was the first of its kind in England built for artillery purposes?
56f83f77aef2371900625f3f
God's House Tower
23
False
In what year was the God's House Tower built?
56f83f77aef2371900625f40
1417
51
False
What museum was located in God's House Tower until 2011?
56f83f77aef2371900625f41
Museum of Archaeology
284
False
Which king of England directed new fortifications that helped Southampton rely less on its wall?
56f83f77aef2371900625f42
Henry VIII
447
False
In what century did Southampton complete construction of the wall around the city?
56f83f77aef2371900625f43
15th
339
False
The city walls include God's House Tower, built in 1417, the first purpose-built artillery fortification in England. Over the years it has been used as home to the city's gunner, the Town Gaol and even as storage for the Southampton Harbour Board. Until September 2011, it housed the Museum of Archaeology. The walls were completed in the 15th century, but later development of several new fortifications along Southampton Water and the Solent by Henry VIII meant that Southampton was no longer dependent upon its fortifications.
The only remaining piece of the motte and bailey castle can be seen near what modern Southampton street?
56f84154aef2371900625f5d
Castle Way
260
False
About what year was the Franciscan friary established in Southampton?
56f84154aef2371900625f5e
1233
344
False
What year did Southampton's Franciscan friary shut down?
56f84154aef2371900625f5f
1538
366
False
In what decade were the leftovers of the Southampton friary destroyed?
56f84154aef2371900625f60
1940s
395
False
What landmark now sits on the site of the Franciscan friary in Southampton?
56f84154aef2371900625f61
Friary House
430
False
On the other hand, many of the medieval buildings once situated within the town walls are now in ruins or have disappeared altogether. From successive incarnations of the motte and bailey castle, only a section of the bailey wall remains today, lying just off Castle Way. The last remains of the Franciscan friary in Southampton, founded circa 1233 and dissolved in 1538, were swept away in the 1940s. The site is now occupied by Friary House.
In what year was the friars' water supply system built in Southampton?
56f8574aa6d7ea1400e175a5
1290
118
False
Where was the water brought from by the friars' supply system?
56f8574aa6d7ea1400e175a6
Conduit Head
154
False
What year did the friars start letting the rest of Southampton use the water from their system?
56f8574aa6d7ea1400e175a7
1310
339
False
When was ownership of the medieval water supply system given to the town of Southampton?
56f8574aa6d7ea1400e175a8
1420
405
False
What's the name of the landmark on Commercial Road where remains of the friars' water system can be seen?
56f8574aa6d7ea1400e175a9
Conduit House
446
False
Elsewhere, remnants of the medieval water supply system devised by the friars can still be seen today. Constructed in 1290, the system carried water from Conduit Head (remnants of which survive near Hill Lane, Shirley) some 1.7 kilometres to the site of the friary inside the town walls. The friars granted use of the water to the town in 1310 and passed on ownership of the water supply system itself in 1420. Further remains can be observed at Conduit House on Commercial Road.
What war was taking place in the 1640s in England?
56f858c6aef2371900626007
English Civil War
20
False
What year did a Parliamentary garrison enter Southampton?
56f858c6aef2371900626008
1642
3
False
What is the furthest town the Royalists reached during their advance into Southampton in 1644?
56f858c6aef2371900626009
Redbridge
121
False
In what month of 1644 did the Royalists fail to take Redbridge?
56f858c6aef237190062600a
March
148
False
In 1642, during the English Civil War, a Parliamentary garrison moved into Southampton. The Royalists advanced as far as Redbridge, Southampton, in March 1644 but were prevented from taking the town.
What skilled trade was a central industry for Southampton in the Middle Ages?
56f85bc0a6d7ea1400e175b9
shipbuilding
24
False
What's the name of the famed warship built in Southampton for Henry V?
56f85bc0a6d7ea1400e175ba
HMS Grace Dieu
105
False
What was the name of the man who overhauled block-making to mechanize the process?
56f85bc0a6d7ea1400e175bb
Walter Taylor
146
False
Between 1904 and 2004, what shipbuilding company employed a large portion of Southampton?
56f85bc0a6d7ea1400e175bc
Thornycroft
293
False
In what historical period did Walter Taylor's improvements on block-making play an important role?
56f85bc0a6d7ea1400e175bd
Industrial Revolution
247
False
During the Middle Ages, shipbuilding became an important industry for the town. Henry V's famous warship HMS Grace Dieu was built in Southampton. Walter Taylor's 18th century mechanisation of the block-making process was a significant step in the Industrial Revolution. From 1904 to 2004, the Thornycroft shipbuilding yard was a major employer in Southampton, building and repairing ships used in the two World Wars.
What battle did King Henry leave for in 1415?
56f85e22aef2371900626023
Battle of Agincourt
40
False
What group did the men accused of high treason, including Henry Scrope and Sir Thomas Grey, lead?
56f85e22aef2371900626024
Southampton Plot
93
False
What is the public house where the men from Southampton Plot were tried called now?
56f85e22aef2371900626025
Red Lion
268
False
What was the Earl of Cambridge's first name?
56f85e22aef2371900626026
Richard
111
False
Outside of what structure did the execution of the Southampton Plot leaders take place?
56f85e22aef2371900626027
the Bargate
364
False
Prior to King Henry's departure for the Battle of Agincourt in 1415, the ringleaders of the "Southampton Plot"—Richard, Earl of Cambridge, Henry Scrope, 3rd Baron Scrope of Masham, and Sir Thomas Grey of Heton—were accused of high treason and tried at what is now the Red Lion public house in the High Street. They were found guilty and summarily executed outside the Bargate.
What did the military use Southampton for during wars in the 18th century?
56f86064aef237190062602d
embarkation
39
False
In addition to wars with the French and the Boer War, in which notable war in the 18th century did Southampton play a role?
56f86064aef237190062602e
the Crimean war
104
False
What war won Southampton the title of No. 1 Military Embarkation port?
56f86064aef237190062602f
the Great War
205
False
What group of people in addition to wounded soldiers from the Great War often were brought to Southampton for treatment?
56f86064aef2371900626030
POWs
284
False
In what year did Southampton lead preparations for the Invasion of Europe?
56f86064aef2371900626031
1944
360
False
Southampton has been used for military embarkation, including during 18th-century wars with the French, the Crimean war, and the Boer War. Southampton was designated No. 1 Military Embarkation port during the Great War and became a major centre for treating the returning wounded and POWs. It was also central to the preparations for the Invasion of Europe in 1944.
When did Southampton turn into a spa town?
56f86358aef2371900626037
1740
33
False
Despite not having a good beach, what decade saw  Southampton become popular for sea bathing?
56f86358aef2371900626038
1760s
96
False
Where in Southampton were special baths filled by seawater constructed?
56f86358aef2371900626039
West Quay
210
False
What change in flow of the sea controlled the innovative baths at West Quay?
56f86358aef237190062603a
the tide
276
False
Southampton became a spa town in 1740. It had also become a popular site for sea bathing by the 1760s, despite the lack of a good quality beach. Innovative buildings specifically for this purpose were built at West Quay, with baths that were filled and emptied by the flow of the tide.
In what historical period did Southampton expand greatly?
56f865baaef237190062603f
Victorian era
48
False
What year was the Southampton Docks company created?
56f865baaef2371900626040
1835
112
False
In what month of 1838 was stone laid for the foundation of the Southampton docks?
56f865baaef2371900626041
October
121
False
What year did the railroad to London from Southampton open fully?
56f865baaef2371900626042
1840
348
False
What name did Southampton earn for its importance in creating a link to London?
56f865baaef2371900626043
The Gateway to the Empire
395
False
The town experienced major expansion during the Victorian era. The Southampton Docks company had been formed in 1835. In October 1838 the foundation stone of the docks was laid and the first dock opened in 1842. The structural and economic development of docks continued for the next few decades. The railway link to London was fully opened in May 1840. Southampton subsequently became known as The Gateway to the Empire.
Who wrote "The Cruise of the Steam Yacht North Star"?
56f86721aef2371900626049
John Choules
60
False
What town did Choules say had the only Main Street more beautiful than Southampton's?
56f86721aef237190062604a
Oxford
197
False
How long was Southampton's High Street as described by Choules?
56f86721aef237190062604b
one mile and a half
305
False
What adjective did Choules use to describe the shops of Southampton's High Street?
56f86721aef237190062604c
elegant
520
False
Choules complimented the streets of Southampton for being kept in what condition?
56f86721aef237190062604d
clean
566
False
In his 1854 book "The Cruise of the Steam Yacht North Star" John Choules described Southampton thus: "I hardly know a town that can show a more beautiful Main Street than Southampton, except it be Oxford. The High Street opens from the quay, and under various names it winds in a gently sweeping line for one mile and a half, and is of very handsome width. The variety of style and color of material in the buildings affords an exhibition of outline, light and color, that I think is seldom equalled. The shops are very elegant, and the streets are kept exceedingly clean."
What famous ship left Southampton's port carrying the Pilgrim Fathers?
56f868b4a6d7ea1400e175e1
Mayflower
67
False
What year did the Mayflower set sail from Southampton?
56f868b4a6d7ea1400e175e2
1620
80
False
How many crew members out of every five on the RMS Titanic were Sotonians?
56f868b4a6d7ea1400e175e3
Four
136
False
What company operated passenger ships across the Atlantic, including the RMS Queen Elizabeth?
56f868b4a6d7ea1400e175e4
Cunard
372
False
In what year did Southampton Container Terminals open?
56f868b4a6d7ea1400e175e5
1968
598
False
The port was the point of departure for the Pilgrim Fathers aboard Mayflower in 1620. In 1912, the RMS Titanic sailed from Southampton. Four in five of the crew on board the vessel were Sotonians, with about a third of those who perished in the tragedy hailing from the city. Southampton was subsequently the home port for the transatlantic passenger services operated by Cunard with their Blue Riband liner RMS Queen Mary and her running mate RMS Queen Elizabeth. In 1938, Southampton docks also became home to the flying boats of Imperial Airways. Southampton Container Terminals first opened in 1968 and has continued to expand.
Who designed the Supermarine Spitfire?
56f86abca6d7ea1400e175eb
R J Mitchell
159
False
What area of Southampton did Mitchell hail from?
56f86abca6d7ea1400e175ec
Portswood
186
False
What color is the plaque that marks the Spitfire designer's house?
56f86abca6d7ea1400e175ed
blue
254
False
In what month of 1940 did bombs destroy the factory that made Mitchell's seaplanes?
56f86abca6d7ea1400e175ee
September
299
False
Which forces did Southampton supply after D-Day that made it a target for many Luftwaffe air raids?
56f86abca6d7ea1400e175ef
Allied forces
678
False
The Supermarine Spitfire was designed and developed in Southampton, evolving from the Schneider trophy-winning seaplanes of the 1920s and 1930s. Its designer, R J Mitchell, lived in the Portswood area of Southampton, and his house is today marked with a blue plaque. Heavy bombing of the factory in September 1940 destroyed it as well as homes in the vicinity, killing civilians and workers. World War II hit Southampton particularly hard because of its strategic importance as a major commercial port and industrial area. Prior to the Invasion of Europe, components for a Mulberry harbour were built here. After D-Day, Southampton docks handled military cargo to help keep the Allied forces supplied, making it a key target of Luftwaffe bombing raids until late 1944. Southampton docks was featured in the television show 24: Live Another Day in Day 9: 9:00 p.m. – 10:00 p.m.
How many people died because of the bombs dropped on Southampton?
56f86baca6d7ea1400e175ff
630
0
False
In addition to casualties, about how many people were wounded by air raids on Southampton?
56f86baca6d7ea1400e17600
2,000
83
False
Was it hundreds or thousands of buildings in Southampton that sustained damage from air raids?
56f86baca6d7ea1400e17601
thousands
127
False
630 people lost their lives as a result of the air raids on Southampton and nearly 2,000 more were injured, not to mention the thousands of buildings damaged or destroyed.
What style of architecture partially survived the war?
56f86db0a6d7ea1400e1760f
Georgian
11
False
Southampton has been redeveloped almost entirely in the years since which war?
56f86db0a6d7ea1400e17610
World War II
131
False
In which decade did there start to be a lot of traffic in Southampton?
56f86db0a6d7ea1400e17611
1920s
182
False
Some of the walls around which landmark were demolished in the 1930s?
56f86db0a6d7ea1400e17612
the Bargate
239
False
Pockets of Georgian architecture survived the war, but much of the city was levelled. There has been extensive redevelopment since World War II. Increasing traffic congestion in the 1920s led to partial demolition of medieval walls around the Bargate in 1932 and 1938. However a large portion of those walls remain.
What document declared the upgrade of University College at Highfield?
56f86ea1a6d7ea1400e17617
Royal Charter
2
False
What is the new name of University College at Highfield?
56f86ea1a6d7ea1400e17618
University of Southampton
72
False
When did Southampton officially become a city?
56f86ea1a6d7ea1400e17619
1964
169
False
In what year did the Royal Charter give the University of Southampton its name?
56f86ea1a6d7ea1400e1761a
1952
19
False
A Royal Charter in 1952 upgraded University College at Highfield to the University of Southampton. Southampton acquired city status, becoming the City of Southampton in 1964.
In what year did an act establish the Hampshire County Council?
56f86ffba6d7ea1400e17633
1888
74
False
What organization did the new county council share governance of Southampton with?
56f86ffba6d7ea1400e17634
the Corporation in Southampton
237
False
What year was the county of Hampshire officially named?
56f86ffba6d7ea1400e17635
1959
515
False
Even before it was official, Hampshire was often called Hampshire or what ancient variation of the name?
56f86ffba6d7ea1400e17636
Hantscire
580
False
What designation was Southampton given in 1974?
56f86ffba6d7ea1400e17637
non-metropolitan district
626
False
After the establishment of Hampshire County Council, following the act in 1888, Southampton became a county borough within the county of Hampshire, which meant that it had many features of a county, but governance was now shared between the Corporation in Southampton and the new county council. There is a great source of confusion in the fact that the ancient shire county, along with its associated assizes, was known as the County of Southampton or Southamptonshire. This was officially changed to Hampshire in 1959 although the county had been commonly known as Hampshire or Hantscire for centuries. Southampton became a non-metropolitan district in 1974.
Southampton's history of administrative independence dates back to the reign of which king?
56f87420a6d7ea1400e17665
King John
140
False
What was the annual fee paid by the burgesses of Southampton for the rights of custom and toll laid out in the charter of 1199?
56f87420a6d7ea1400e17666
£200
429
False
In the 1100s, the port of Southampton included everything between Lymington and what area?
56f87420a6d7ea1400e17667
Langstone
609
False
Under what king was a charter granted in 1446/7 that separated Southampton and Portsmouth from Hampshire?
56f87420a6d7ea1400e17668
Henry VI
719
False
What date was the charter regarding Southampton's tax farm signed at Orival?
56f87420a6d7ea1400e17669
29 June 1199
468
False
Southampton as a Port and city has had a long history of administrative independence of the surrounding County; as far back as the reign of King John the town and its port were removed from the writ of the King's Sheriff in Hampshire and the rights of custom and toll were granted by the King to the burgesses of Southampton over the port of Southampton and the Port of Portsmouth; this tax farm was granted for an annual fee of £200 in the charter dated at Orival on 29 June 1199. The definition of the port of Southampton was apparently broader than today and embraced all of the area between Lymington and Langstone. The corporation had resident representatives in Newport, Lymington and Portsmouth. By a charter of Henry VI, granted on 9 March 1446/7 (25+26 Hen. VI, m. 32), the mayor, bailiffs and burgesses of the towns and ports of Southampton and Portsmouth became a County incorporate and separate from Hampshire.
What king's charter recognized Southampton as its own county?
56f8767fa6d7ea1400e1767f
Charles I
57
False
What year did Southampton receive the charter naming it 'The Town and County of the Town of Southampton'?
56f8767fa6d7ea1400e17680
1640
193
False
What era in history saw local government begin setting up County Councils in the area?
56f8767fa6d7ea1400e17681
Victorian period
506
False
After 1888, which Council took over some governance of Southampton Town?
56f8767fa6d7ea1400e17682
Hampshire County Council
622
False
What was the year that Queen Elizabeth II's charter created the City and County of the City of Southampton?
56f8767fa6d7ea1400e17683
1964
886
False
The status of the town was changed by a later charter of Charles I by at once the formal separation from Portsmouth and the recognition of Southampton as a county, In the charter dated 27 June 1640 the formal title of the town became 'The Town and County of the Town of Southampton'. These charters and Royal Grants, of which there were many, also set out the governance and regulation of the town and port which remained the 'constitution' of the town until the local government organisation of the later Victorian period which from about 1888 saw the setting up of County Councils across England and Wales and including Hampshire County Council who now took on some of the function of Government in Southampton Town. In this regime, The Town and County of the Town of Southampton also became a county borough with shared responsibility for aspects of local government. On 24 February 1964 the status changed again by a Charter of Elizabeth II, creating the City and County of the City of Southampton.
What county did the city of Southampton become administratively independent of in April of 1997?
56f87773a6d7ea1400e17697
Hampshire County
129
False
What official designation did Southampton receive in the April 1997 local government reorganization?
56f87773a6d7ea1400e17698
unitary authority
168
False
What act was responsible for the reorganization of local government on April 1, 1997?
56f87773a6d7ea1400e17699
1992 Local Government Act
256
False
What ceremonial county does Southampton still belong to?
56f87773a6d7ea1400e1769a
Hampshire
316
False
The city has undergone many changes to its governance over the centuries and once again became administratively independent from Hampshire County as it was made into a unitary authority in a local government reorganisation on 1 April 1997, a result of the 1992 Local Government Act. The district remains part of the Hampshire ceremonial county.
How many concillors sit on Southampton's City Council?
56f8781aa6d7ea1400e1769f
48
37
False
How man wards are there in Southampton?
56f8781aa6d7ea1400e176a0
16
71
False
How many councillors are assigned to each ward in Southampton?
56f8781aa6d7ea1400e176a1
3
53
False
In what month are council elections held?
56f8781aa6d7ea1400e176a2
May
117
False
In how many years of every four is a council election held in Southampton?
56f8781aa6d7ea1400e176a3
three
233
False
Southampton City Council consists of 48 councillors, 3 for each of the 16 wards. Council elections are held in early May for one third of the seats (one councillor for each ward), elected for a four-year term, so there are elections three years out of four. Since the 2015 council elections, the composition of the council is:
How many representatives does Southampton have in parliament?
56f87cd7a6d7ea1400e176d5
three
10
False
What is Royston Smith's constituency?
56f87cd7a6d7ea1400e176d6
Southampton Itchen
85
False
Who is Southampton Test's member of parliament?
56f87cd7a6d7ea1400e176d7
Dr. Alan Whitehead
153
False
To what political party does Caroline Nokes belong?
56f87cd7a6d7ea1400e176d8
Conservative
258
False
Which directional area of Southampton does Dr. Alan Whitehead represent?
56f87cd7a6d7ea1400e176d9
west
220
False
There are three members of parliament for the city: Royston Smith (Conservative) for Southampton Itchen, the constituency covering the east of the city; Dr. Alan Whitehead (Labour) for Southampton Test, which covers the west of the city; and Caroline Nokes (Conservative) for Romsey and Southampton North, which includes a northern portion of the city.
How many cities or towns are there in all of England and Wales with a ceremonial sheriff acting as the Mayor's deputy?
56f87f17aef2371900626114
16
39
False
Who's the current Mayor of Southampton?
56f87f17aef2371900626115
Linda Norris
191
False
What's the name of the 578th sheriff of Southampton?
56f87f17aef2371900626116
Catherine McEwing
205
False
When did John Melody, the town crier of Southampton, pass away?
56f87f17aef2371900626117
2014
302
False
How many decibels was John Melody able to reach in his cry?
56f87f17aef2371900626118
104
397
False
The city has a Mayor and is one of the 16 cities and towns in England and Wales to have a ceremonial sheriff who acts as a deputy for the Mayor. The current and 793rd Mayor of Southampton is Linda Norris. Catherine McEwing is the current and 578th sherriff. The town crier from 2004 until his death in 2014 was John Melody, who acted as master of ceremonies in the city and who possessed a cry of 104 decibels.
What city in France does Southampton City Council have a twinning link with?
56f880ddaef2371900626128
Le Havre
59
False
Which Italian city did Southampton City Council establish a twinning link with in 2002?
56f880ddaef2371900626129
Trieste
133
False
What's the only city in the USA with a twinning link to Southampton City Council?
56f880ddaef237190062612a
Hampton, Virginia
164
False
What year did Southampton City Council link with Busan, South Korea?
56f880ddaef237190062612b
1978
253
False
In what country does Southampton City Council have a twinning link with Rems-Murr-Kreis?
56f880ddaef237190062612c
Germany
111
False
Southampton City Council has developed twinning links with Le Havre in France (since 1973), Rems-Murr-Kreis in Germany (since 1991), Trieste in Italy (since 2002); Hampton, Virginia in USA, Qingdao in China (since 1998), and Busan in South Korea (since 1978).
At which tip of Southampton Water is Southampton located?
56f881ecaef2371900626132
northern
87
False
What river converges with the Test?
56f881ecaef2371900626133
Itchen
228
False
Which river is excellent for salmon fishing?
56f881ecaef2371900626134
Test
249
False
Which river splits the city of Southampton into an east section and a west section?
56f881ecaef2371900626135
Itchen
365
False
What Southampton area is located between the Itchen and Test rivers?
56f881ecaef2371900626136
The city centre
413
False
The geography of Southampton is influenced by the sea and rivers. The city lies at the northern tip of the Southampton Water, a deep water estuary, which is a ria formed at the end of the last Ice Age. Here, the rivers Test and Itchen converge. The Test—which has salt marsh that makes it ideal for salmon fishing—runs along the western edge of the city, while the Itchen splits Southampton in two—east and west. The city centre is located between the two rivers.
What's the name of the public quay that's been in Southampton since the 13th century?
56f88e4aaef237190062618a
Town Quay
0
False
In what decade were the Eastern Docks that can be seen today created?
56f88e4baef237190062618b
1830s
114
False
What company commissioned the program that created the Western Docks?
56f88e4baef237190062618c
Southern Railway Company
241
False
What body of water was dredged for the material used for reclamation?
56f88e4baef237190062618d
Southampton Water
392
False
In what decade did the Southern Railway Company commission the program that created the Western Docks?
56f88e4baef237190062618e
1930s
226
False
Town Quay is the original public quay, and dates from the 13th century. Today's Eastern Docks were created in the 1830s by land reclamation of the mud flats between the Itchen & Test estuaries. The Western Docks date from the 1930s when the Southern Railway Company commissioned a major land reclamation and dredging programme. Most of the material used for reclamation came from dredging of Southampton Water, to ensure that the port can continue to handle large ships.
How many high tide peaks does Southampton Water get?
56f890f1a6d7ea1400e17761
two
62
False
What island do many people think causes the double high tide in Southampton Water?
56f890f1a6d7ea1400e17762
Isle of Wight
190
False
What body of water is actually responsible for the unusual double high tide?
56f890f1a6d7ea1400e17763
English Channel
253
False
What size ships can move through Southampton Water more easily because of the double high tide?
56f890f1a6d7ea1400e17764
large
106
False
In addition to its shape, what property of the English Channel affects water flow in Southampton Water?
56f890f1a6d7ea1400e17765
depth
240
False
Southampton Water has the benefit of a double high tide, with two high tide peaks, making the movement of large ships easier. This is not caused as popularly supposed by the presence of the Isle of Wight, but is a function of the shape and depth of the English Channel. In this area the general water flow is distorted by more local conditions reaching across to France.
Along which border of Southampton does the River Test run?
56f89289a6d7ea1400e1776b
western
30
False
What forest is on the opposite bank of the River Test from Southampton?
56f89289a6d7ea1400e1776c
New Forest
81
False
What motorway crosses the River Test to the North?
56f89289a6d7ea1400e1776d
the M27
209
False
Where was the first bridge built across the River Itchen?
56f89289a6d7ea1400e1776e
Mansbridge
385
False
What bridge at Swaythling crosses at the point between the tidal and non-tidal sections of the River Itchen?
56f89289a6d7ea1400e1776f
Woodmill Bridge
591
False
The River Test runs along the western border of the city, separating it from the New Forest. There are bridges over the Test from Southampton, including the road and rail bridges at Redbridge in the south and the M27 motorway to the north. The River Itchen runs through the middle of the city and is bridged in several places. The northernmost bridge, and the first to be built, is at Mansbridge, where the A27 road crosses the Itchen. The original bridge is closed to road traffic, but is still standing and open to pedestrians and cyclists. The river is bridged again at Swaythling, where Woodmill Bridge separates the tidal and non tidal sections of the river. Further south is Cobden Bridge which is notable as it was opened as a free bridge (it was originally named the Cobden Free Bridge), and was never a toll bridge. Downstream of the Cobden Bridge is the Northam Railway Bridge, then the Northam Road Bridge, which was the first major pre-stressed concrete bridge to be constructed in the United Kingdom. The southernmost, and newest, bridge on the Itchen is the Itchen Bridge, which is a toll bridge.
What's the largest park in Southampton?
56f89372a6d7ea1400e17775
Southampton Common
199
False
How many hectares is Southampton Common?
56f89372a6d7ea1400e17776
148
187
False
What wildlife center is located in Southampton Common?
56f89372a6d7ea1400e17777
Hawthorns Urban Wildlife Centre
324
False
What related attraction was at the same site before the Urban Wildlife Centre?
56f89372a6d7ea1400e17778
Southampton Zoo
378
False
Southampton is divided into council wards, suburbs, constituencies, ecclesiastical parishes, and other less formal areas. It has a number of parks and green spaces, the largest being the 148 hectare Southampton Common, parts of which are used to host the annual summer festivals, circuses and fun fairs. The Common includes Hawthorns Urban Wildlife Centre on the former site of Southampton Zoo, a paddling pool and several lakes and ponds.
How many Local Authorities are there in England?
56f894579e9bad19000a0171
354
123
False
In addition to the Thornhill and Townhill Park districts, what other district has a council estate?
56f894579e9bad19000a0172
Weston
27
False
What's Southampton's ranking on the list of most deprived Local Authorities in England?
56f894579e9bad19000a0173
96th
93
False
Council estates are in the Weston, Thornhill and Townhill Park districts. The city is ranked 96th most deprived out of all 354 Local Authorities in England.
What kind of climate does Southampton have?
56f89bea9e9bad19000a01bd
oceanic
55
False
For what month does Southampton hold the UK's record high temperature?
56f89bea9e9bad19000a01be
June
256
False
What was the record high temperature for June in degrees Celsius?
56f89bea9e9bad19000a01bf
35.6
264
False
What year did Southampton set the record high temperature for June?
56f89bea9e9bad19000a01c0
1976
288
False
What does the record-setting 35.6 degrees Celsius convert to in degrees Fahrenheit?
56f89bea9e9bad19000a01c1
96.1
273
False
As with the rest of the UK, Southampton experiences an oceanic climate (Köppen Cfb). Its southerly, low lying and sheltered location ensures it is among the warmer, sunnier cities in the UK. It has held the record for the highest temperature in the UK for June at 35.6 °C (96.1 °F) since 1976.
What source of geothermal power sits below Southampton's center?
56f89de79e9bad19000a01d1
hot water aquifer
51
False
In what region of Southampton is the geothermal power station for the aquifer?
56f89de79e9bad19000a01d2
West Quay
176
False
Which section of the city receives hot water from geothermal power through the West Quay plant?
56f89de79e9bad19000a01d3
Southampton District Energy Scheme
354
False
What utility company sponsored a carbon emissions survey in 2006?
56f89de79e9bad19000a01d4
British Gas
521
False
In the 2006 study, Southampton was discovered to be one of the lowest carbon emitters out of major cities in what large geographical area?
56f89de79e9bad19000a01d5
United Kingdom
614
False
The centre of Southampton is located above a large hot water aquifer that provides geothermal power to some of the city's buildings. This energy is processed at a plant in the West Quay region in Southampton city centre, the only geothermal power station in the UK. The plant provides private electricity for the Port of Southampton and hot water to the Southampton District Energy Scheme used by many buildings including the WestQuay shopping centre. In a 2006 survey of carbon emissions in major UK cities conducted by British Gas, Southampton was ranked as being one of the lowest carbon emitting cities in the United Kingdom.
What race makes up the vast majority of Southampton's population?
56f89fe89e9bad19000a01f7
White
61
False
What percentage of the population of Southampton is Black, according to the 2001 Census?
56f89fe89e9bad19000a01f8
1.0
133
False
Going by the 2001 Census, what percentage of Southampton's population is of mixed race?
56f89fe89e9bad19000a01f9
1.5
202
False
What percentage of the white population did the 2001 Census show were White Irish?
56f89fe89e9bad19000a01fa
one
77
False
According to the 2001 Census, what race comprises 3.8% of people living in Southampton?
56f89fe89e9bad19000a01fb
South Asian
120
False
At the 2001 Census, 92.4 per cent of the city's populace was White—including one per cent White Irish—3.8 per cent were South Asian, 1.0 per cent Black, 1.3 per cent Chinese or other ethnic groups, and 1.5 per cent were of Mixed Race.
In 2011, what was the estimated population of Southampton inside city limits?
56f8a0d99b226e1400dd0d03
236,900
29
False
What nationality of people makes up a large portion of Southampton residents?
56f8a0d99b226e1400dd0d04
Polish
105
False
What's the highest estimate of the Polish population of the city of Southampton?
56f8a0d99b226e1400dd0d05
20,000
162
False
Southampton had an estimated 236,900 people living within the city boundary in 2011. There is a sizeable Polish population in the city, with estimates as high as 20,000.
Are there more males or females in Southampton?
56f8a20b9e9bad19000a021b
males
18
False
What age range contains the most people from Southampton?
56f8a20b9e9bad19000a021c
20–24
65
False
How many people between the ages of 30 and 34 live in Southampton?
56f8a20b9e9bad19000a021d
17,800
239
False
How many women live in Southampton?
56f8a20b9e9bad19000a021e
117,400
44
False
What's the only monocentric city on the South Coast larger than Southampton?
56f8a20b9e9bad19000a021f
Plymouth
387
False
There are 119,500 males within the city and 117,400 females. The 20–24 age range is the most populous, with an estimated 32,300 people falling in this age range. Next largest is the 25–29 range with 24,700 people and then 30–34 years with 17,800. By population, Southampton is the largest monocentric city in the South East England region and the second largest on the South Coast after Plymouth.
By what percentage did the population of Southampton increase from 1996 to 2004?
56f8a3829b226e1400dd0d19
4.9
63
False
What's the only other city in England besides Portsmouth more densely populated than Southampton?
56f8a3829b226e1400dd0d1a
London
236
False
What organization anticipated an additional 2% population growth from 2006 to 2013?
56f8a3829b226e1400dd0d1b
Hampshire County Council
272
False
What age segment of the population of Southampton is projected to increase the most?
56f8a3829b226e1400dd0d1c
the elderly
494
False
How many more residents would Southampton have if the population grew by 2%, as the council expected?
56f8a3829b226e1400dd0d1d
4,200
413
False
Between 1996 and 2004, the population of the city increased by 4.9 per cent—the tenth biggest increase in England. In 2005 the Government Statistics stated that Southampton was the third most densely populated city in the country after London and Portsmouth respectively. Hampshire County Council expects the city's population to grow by around a further two per cent between 2006 and 2013, adding around another 4,200 to the total number of residents. The highest increases are expected among the elderly.
How many jobs were there in Southampton in March of 2007?
56f8a6c39b226e1400dd0d53
120,305
25
False
How many Southampton residents were claiming job seeker's allowance in March, 2007?
56f8a6c39b226e1400dd0d54
3,570
58
False
In March 2007, what percentage of Southampton residents claimed job seeker's allowance?
56f8a6c39b226e1400dd0d55
2.4
118
False
What England's average percentage for people claiming job seeker's allowance?
56f8a6c39b226e1400dd0d56
2.5
190
False
In March 2007 there were 120,305 jobs in Southampton, and 3,570 people claiming job seeker's allowance, approximately 2.4 per cent of the city's population. This compares with an average of 2.5 per cent for England as a whole.
What sector provides about a quarter of Southampton's available jobs?
56f8a80b9e9bad19000a026d
health and education
65
False
What percentage of available jobs in Southampton are in the property/other business sector?
56f8a80b9e9bad19000a026e
19
104
False
What's the third largest sector providing jobs in Southampton?
56f8a80b9e9bad19000a026f
wholesale and retail
180
False
By what percentage did available jobs increase in Southampton between 1995 and 2004?
56f8a80b9e9bad19000a0270
18.5
309
False
What percentage of available jobs in Southampton are in wholesale and retail industries?
56f8a80b9e9bad19000a0271
16.2
221
False
Just over a quarter of the jobs available in the city are in the health and education sector. A further 19 per cent are property and other business and the third largest sector is wholesale and retail, which accounts for 16.2 percent. Between 1995 and 2004, the number of jobs in Southampton has increased by 18.5 per cent.
What was Southampton's average annual salary in January of 2007?
56f8a89c9b226e1400dd0d79
£22,267
59
False
How far below the national average is the average annual salary in Southampton?
56f8a89c9b226e1400dd0d7a
£1,700
77
False
How far below England's South East region is Southampton's average annual salary?
56f8a89c9b226e1400dd0d7b
£3,800
120
False
In January 2007, the average annual salary in the city was £22,267. This was £1,700 lower than the national average and £3,800 less than the average for the South East.
About how much of UK's passenger traffic did Southampton handle during the inter-war period?
56f8aa0d9b226e1400dd0d97
half
254
False
What kind of passenger ships make up a lot of the traffic in the port of Southampton?
56f8aa0d9b226e1400dd0d98
cruise ships
127
False
Going by what unit of measurement makes Southampton the fourth largest port in the UK?
56f8aa0d9b226e1400dd0d99
tonnage
431
False
In what year did Southampton's fourth cruise terminal open in the western docklands?
56f8aa0d9b226e1400dd0d9a
2009
838
False
What branch of the Department for Transport has its headquarters in Southampton?
56f8aa0d9b226e1400dd0d9b
Marine Accident Investigation Branch
1098
False
Southampton has always been a port, and the docks have long been a major employer in the city. In particular, it is a port for cruise ships; its heyday was the first half of the 20th century, and in particular the inter-war years, when it handled almost half the passenger traffic of the UK. Today it remains home to luxury cruise ships, as well as being the largest freight port on the Channel coast and fourth largest UK port by tonnage, with several container terminals. Unlike some other ports, such as Liverpool, London, and Bristol, where industry and docks have largely moved out of the city centres leaving room for redevelopment, Southampton retains much of its inner-city industry. Despite the still active and expanding docklands to the west of the city centre, further enhanced with the opening of a fourth cruise terminal in 2009, parts of the eastern docks have been redeveloped; the Ocean Village development, which included a local marina and small entertainment complex, is a good example. Southampton is home to the headquarters of both the Maritime and Coastguard Agency and the Marine Accident Investigation Branch of the Department for Transport in addition to cruise operator Carnival UK.
What century saw more diverse industries come to Southampton?
56f8ab6a9b226e1400dd0db7
20th
30
False
Southampton's range of industries includes the manufacture of cars and what other transport?
56f8ab6a9b226e1400dd0db8
aircraft
110
False
What kind of engineering does industry in Southampton support?
56f8ab6a9b226e1400dd0db9
electrical
148
False
Along with the docks and grain mills, what crop has been processed in Southampton for a long time?
56f8ab6a9b226e1400dd0dba
tobacco
288
False
During the latter half of the 20th century, a more diverse range of industry also came to the city, including aircraft and car manufacture, cables, electrical engineering products, and petrochemicals. These now exist alongside the city's older industries of the docks, grain milling, and tobacco processing.
How many people in the Southampton area receive hospital services from University Hospital Southampton NHS Foundation Trust?
56f8ad379b226e1400dd0ddb
500,000
132
False
How many people in the South of England rely on the NHS Foundation Trust's specialist services?
56f8ad379b226e1400dd0ddc
3 million
217
False
What type of service does the NHS Foundation Trust provide at the Countess Mountbatten House?
56f8ad379b226e1400dd0ddd
palliative care
353
False
What hospital is the Countess Mountbatten House a part of?
56f8ad379b226e1400dd0dde
Moorgreen Hospital
420
False
In what village is Moorgreen Hospital located?
56f8ad379b226e1400dd0ddf
West End
462
False
University Hospital Southampton NHS Foundation Trust is one of the city's largest employers. It provides local hospital services to 500,000 people in the Southampton area and specialist regional services to more than 3 million people across the South of England. The Trust owns and manages Southampton General Hospital, the Princess Anne Hospital and a palliative care service at Countess Mountbatten House, part of the Moorgreen Hospital site in the village of West End, just outside the city.
What's the name of the UK's national mapping agency?
56f8aea09e9bad19000a02ff
Ordnance Survey
42
False
What year did Ordnance Survey's new headquarters open in Southampton?
56f8aea09e9bad19000a0300
2011
190
False
What company said it is planning to move marine operations to the University of Southampton?
56f8aea09e9bad19000a0301
Lloyd's Register Group
200
False
What area of Southampton holds a Ford assembly plant?
56f8aea09e9bad19000a0302
Swaythling
356
False
Which model does Ford manufacture in their Southampton plant?
56f8aea09e9bad19000a0303
Transit
441
False
Other major employers in the city include Ordnance Survey, the UK's national mapping agency, whose headquarters is located in a new building on the outskirts of the city, opened in February 2011. The Lloyd's Register Group has announced plans to move its London marine operations to a specially developed site at the University of Southampton. The area of Swaythling is home to Ford's Southampton Assembly Plant, where the majority of their Transit models are manufactured. Closure of the plant in 2013 was announced in 2012, with the loss of hundreds of jobs.
What's the largest retail center in Southampton?
56f8afe39e9bad19000a031d
WestQuay Shopping Centre
72
False
What's WestQuay's ranking among the largest retail centers in the UK?
56f8afe39e9bad19000a031e
35th
41
False
What was the name of the third phase of West Quay development that got put on hold because of the recession?
56f8afe39e9bad19000a031f
Watermark Westquay
387
False
What year did work resume on the development of Watermark Westquay?
56f8afe39e9bad19000a0320
2015
468
False
What popular Swedish company opened a new store in the West Quay site in 2009?
56f8afe39e9bad19000a0321
IKEA
818
False
Southampton's largest retail centre, and 35th largest in the UK, is the WestQuay Shopping Centre, which opened in September 2000 and hosts major high street stores including John Lewis and Marks and Spencer. The centre was Phase Two of the West Quay development of the former Pirelli undersea cables factory; the first phase of this was the West Quay Retail Park, while the third phase (Watermark Westquay) was put on hold due to the recession. Work is has resumed in 2015, with plans for this third stage including shops, housing, an hotel and a public piazza alongside the Town Walls on Western Esplanade. Southampton has also been granted a licence for a large casino. A further part of the redevelopment of the West Quay site resulted in a new store, opened on 12 February 2009, for Swedish home products retailer IKEA. Marlands is a smaller shopping centre, built in the 1990s and located close to the northern side of WestQuay. Southampton currently has two disused shopping centres: the 1970s Eaststreet mall, and the 1980s Bargate centre. Neither of these were ever commercially successful; the former has been earmarked for redevelopment as a Morrison's supermarket, while the future of the latter is uncertain. There is also the East Street area which has been designated for speciality shopping, with the aim of promoting smaller retailers, alongside the chain store Debenhams. In 2007, Southampton was ranked 13th for shopping in the UK.
What type of tall buildings are being planned on Southampton's waterfront?
56f8b1c99e9bad19000a0341
skyscrapers
117
False
How many stories tall will each of the three proposed towers be?
56f8b1c99e9bad19000a0342
23
185
False
What marina in Southampton may get a 15-story high hotel?
56f8b1c99e9bad19000a0343
Ocean Village
328
False
What factor is very strong in Southampton that encourages redevelopment of the city?
56f8b1c99e9bad19000a0344
economy
21
False
What's the projected budget of the development plan that includes the new hotels?
56f8b1c99e9bad19000a0345
£100m
433
False
Southampton's strong economy is promoting redevelopment, and major projects are proposed, including the city's first skyscrapers on the waterfront. The three towers proposed will stand 23 storeys high and will be surrounded by smaller apartment blocks, office blocks and shops. There are also plans for a 15-storey hotel at the Ocean Village marina, and a 21-storey hotel on the north eastern corner of the city centre, as part of a £100m development.
Going by 2004 calculations, how much does Southampton contribute to the region's economy each year?
56f8b2c69b226e1400dd0e45
£4.2 bn
58
False
What sector puts up most of Southampton's economic contribution?
56f8b2c69b226e1400dd0e46
the service sector
134
False
In 2004, Southampton's contribution to the regional economy had almost doubled from what it was in what year?
56f8b2c69b226e1400dd0e47
1995
244
False
According to 2004 figures, Southampton contributes around £4.2 bn to the regional economy annually. The vast majority of this is from the service sector, with the remainder coming from industry in the city. This figure has almost doubled since 1995.
What museum reopened on July 30th, 2011 after a huge renovation?
56f8b40b9e9bad19000a035f
Tudor House Museum
119
False
What's the name of the museum located in one of Southampton's tower walls?
56f8b40b9e9bad19000a0360
God's House Tower
249
False
What's the name of the aviation museum in Southampton?
56f8b40b9e9bad19000a0361
Solent Sky
390
False
What's the impressive budget of the SeaCity Museum?
56f8b40b9e9bad19000a0362
£28 million
781
False
What organization invested half a million pounds in the SeaCity Museum?
56f8b40b9e9bad19000a0363
the National Lottery
685
False
The city is home to the longest surviving stretch of medieval walls in England, as well as a number of museums such as Tudor House Museum, reopened on 30 July 2011 after undergoing extensive restoration and improvement; Southampton Maritime Museum; God's House Tower, an archaeology museum about the city's heritage and located in one of the tower walls; the Medieval Merchant's House; and Solent Sky, which focuses on aviation. The SeaCity Museum is located in the west wing of the civic centre, formerly occupied by Hampshire Constabulary and the Magistrates' Court, and focuses on Southampton's trading history and on the RMS Titanic. The museum received half a million pounds from the National Lottery in addition to interest from numerous private investors and is budgeted at £28 million.
In what month each year is the Southampton Boat Show held?
56f8b5149b226e1400dd0e85
September
44
False
What waterfront park hosts the Boat Show?
56f8b5149b226e1400dd0e86
Mayflower Park
131
False
When was the Boat Show first held in Mayflower Park?
56f8b5149b226e1400dd0e87
1968
201
False
What Southampton festival culminates in the Boat Show?
56f8b5149b226e1400dd0e88
Sea City
245
False
Attendees of the Boat Show can expect to see at least how many exhibitors?
56f8b5149b226e1400dd0e89
600
75
False
The annual Southampton Boat Show is held in September each year, with over 600 exhibitors present. It runs for just over a week at Mayflower Park on the city's waterfront, where it has been held since 1968. The Boat Show itself is the climax of Sea City, which runs from April to September each year to celebrate Southampton's links with the sea.
What's the biggest theatre in Southampton?
56f8b5ef9e9bad19000a037f
Mayflower Theatre
54
False
How many people can the Mayflower Theatre hold?
56f8b5ef9e9bad19000a0380
2,300
39
False
What was the former name of the Mayflower Theatre?
56f8b5ef9e9bad19000a0381
the Gaumont
91
False
What famous ballet company has performed at the Mayflower?
56f8b5ef9e9bad19000a0382
English National Ballet
328
False
Which Southampton theatre won The Stage Award for Best Regional Theatre for 2015?
56f8b5ef9e9bad19000a0383
Nuffield Theatre
371
False
The largest theatre in the city is the 2,300 capacity Mayflower Theatre (formerly known as the Gaumont), which, as the largest theatre in Southern England outside London, has hosted West End shows such as Les Misérables, The Rocky Horror Show and Chitty Chitty Bang Bang, as well as regular visits from Welsh National Opera and English National Ballet. There is also the Nuffield Theatre based at the University of Southampton's Highfield campus, which is the city's primary producing theatre. It was awarded The Stage Award for Best Regional Theatre in 2015. It also hosts touring companies and local performing societies (such as Southampton Operatic Society, the Maskers and the University Players).
What gallery in Southampton houses a Designated Collection?
56f8b7329b226e1400dd0e99
The Southampton City Art Gallery
53
False
What's the all-lowercase named arts organization in charge of the art gallery in Southampton's Bargate?
56f8b7329b226e1400dd0e9a
a space
521
False
What project, also run by a space, showcases art in Southampton's medieval buildings?
56f8b7329b226e1400dd0e9b
Art Vaults
552
False
What art gallery is a part of Southampton Solent University?
56f8b7329b226e1400dd0e9c
The Millais Gallery
245
False
There are many innovative art galleries in the city. The Southampton City Art Gallery at the Civic Centre is one of the best known and as well as a nationally important Designated Collection, houses several permanent and travelling exhibitions. The Millais Gallery at Southampton Solent University, the John Hansard Gallery at Southampton University as well as smaller galleries including the Art House in Above Bar Street provide a different view. The city's Bargate is also an art gallery run by the arts organisation "a space". A space also run the Art Vaults project, which creatively uses several of Southampton's medieval vaults, halls and cellars as venues for contemporary art installations.
In addition to the Mayflower Theatre, what's Southampton's other big venue for live music?
56f8b93d9b226e1400dd0eb3
the Guildhall
102
False
What legendary band with a color in its name has played at the Guildhall?
56f8b93d9b226e1400dd0eb4
Pink Floyd
196
False
What orchestra with a name that starts with "B" has played at the Guildhall?
56f8b93d9b226e1400dd0eb5
Bournemouth Symphony Orchestra
416
False
What choir from the area has sung at the Guildhall?
56f8b93d9b226e1400dd0eb6
Southampton Philharmonic Choir
510
False
Southampton has two large live music venues, the Mayflower Theatre (formerly the Gaumont Theatre) and the Guildhall. The Guildhall has seen concerts from a wide range of popular artists including Pink Floyd, David Bowie, Delirious?, Manic Street Preachers, The Killers, The Kaiser Chiefs, Amy Winehouse, Lostprophets, The Midnight Beast, Modestep, and All Time Low. It also hosts classical concerts presented by the Bournemouth Symphony Orchestra, City of Southampton Orchestra, Southampton Concert Orchestra, Southampton Philharmonic Choir and Southampton Choral Society.
What nightclub in Southampton was nominated for the UK's best small nightclub?
56f8ba089e9bad19000a03c9
Junk
612
False
What genre of music is featured at Junk?
56f8ba089e9bad19000a03ca
dance
701
False
What small music venue in Southampton is named after an aquatic mammal?
56f8ba089e9bad19000a03cb
the Dolphin
265
False
The city also has several smaller music venues, including the Brook, The Talking Heads, The Soul Cellar, The Joiners and Turner Sims, as well as smaller "club circuit" venues like Hampton's and Lennon's, and a number of public houses including the Platform tavern, the Dolphin, the Blue Keys and many others. The Joiners has played host to such acts as Oasis, Radiohead, Green Day, Suede, PJ Harvey, the Manic Street Preachers, Coldplay, the Verve, the Libertines and Franz Ferdinand, while Hampton's and Lennon's have hosted early appearances by Kate Nash, Scouting for Girls and Band of Skulls. The nightclub, Junk, has been nominated for the UK's best small nightclub, and plays host to a range of dance music's top acts.
What popular RnB singer hails from Southampton?
56f8bb289e9bad19000a03cf
Craig David
90
False
What's the name of the Coldplay drummer from Southampton?
56f8bb289e9bad19000a03d0
Will Champion
120
False
What group did Southampton's Rob Skipper sing for?
56f8bb289e9bad19000a03d1
Holloways
142
False
What band that broke up in 2014 was formed in Southampton?
56f8bb289e9bad19000a03d2
Kids Can't Fly
364
False
What genre of music is James Zabiela known for?
56f8bb289e9bad19000a03d3
dance
456
False
The city is home or birthplace to a number of contemporary musicians such as R'n'B singer Craig David, Coldplay drummer Will Champion, former Holloways singer Rob Skipper as well as 1980s popstar Howard Jones. Several rock bands were formed in Southampton, including Band of Skulls, The Delays, Bury Tomorrow, Heart in Hand, Thomas Tantrum (disbanded in 2011) and Kids Can't Fly (disbanded in 2014). James Zabiela, a highly regarded and recognised name in dance music, is also from Southampton.
What program with a direction in its name does the BBC broadcast from Southampton?
56f8bc049b226e1400dd0ed9
South Today
200
False
What's the name of the local ITV division?
56f8bc049b226e1400dd0eda
Meridian
297
False
Where is the Meridian headquarters located?
56f8bc049b226e1400dd0edb
Whiteley
337
False
What is the local television channel for Southampton called?
56f8bc049b226e1400dd0edc
That's Solent
517
False
Towards the end of what year did That's Solent begin broadcasting?
56f8bc049b226e1400dd0edd
2014
598
False
Local media include the Southern Daily Echo newspaper based in Redbridge and BBC South, which has its regional headquarters in the city centre opposite the civic centre. From there the BBC broadcasts South Today, the local television news bulletin and BBC Radio Solent. The local ITV franchise is Meridian, which has its headquarters in Whiteley, around nine miles (14 km) from the city. Until December 2004, the station's studios were located in the Northam area of the city on land reclaimed from the River Itchen. That's Solent is an local television channel that began broadcasting in November 2014, which will be based in and serve Southampton and Portsmouth.
How many community FM radio stations are there in Southampton?
56f8bcbf9e9bad19000a03e7
2
21
False
What local FM station won the Queens Award?
56f8bcbf9e9bad19000a03e8
Unity 101 Community Radio
77
False
Southampton also has 2 community FM radio stations, the Queens Award winning Unity 101 Community Radio (www.unity101.org) broadcasting full-time on 101.1 FM since 2006 to the Asian and Ethnic communities, and Voice FM (http://www.voicefmradio.co.uk) located in St Mary's, which has been broadcasting full-time on 103.9 FM since September 2011, playing a wide range of music from Rock to Dance music and Top 40. A third station, Awaaz FM (www.awaazfm.co.uk), is an internet only radio stations also catering for Asian and Ethnic community.
What's the new name of the station formerly known as The Saint?
56f8bfd99e9bad19000a0410
The Breeze
59
False
What genre of music is played on The Breeze?
56f8bfd99e9bad19000a0411
Hot adult contemporary
119
False
What was the old name of Heart Hampshire?
56f8bfd99e9bad19000a0412
Ocean FM
273
False
What's Southampton University's radio station called?
56f8bfd99e9bad19000a0413
SURGE
456
False
What kind of music does Wave 105 play?
56f8bfd99e9bad19000a0414
adult contemporary
304
False
Commercial radio stations broadcasting to the city include The Breeze, previously The Saint and currently broadcasting Hot adult contemporary music, Capital, previously Power FM and Galaxy and broadcasting popular music, Wave 105 and Heart Hampshire, the latter previously Ocean FM and both broadcasting adult contemporary music, and 106 Jack FM (www.jackradio.com), previously The Coast 106. In addition, Southampton University has a radio station called SURGE, broadcasting on AM band as well as through the web.
What's the nickname of the Southampton Football Club?
56f8c15c9e9bad19000a0424
The Saints
60
False
What stadium has been home to The Saints since 2001?
56f8c15c9e9bad19000a0425
St Mary's Stadium
106
False
What year did Southampton Football Club first reach the top level of English football?
56f8c15c9e9bad19000a0426
1966
289
False
Who did The Saints beat in 1976 to win the FA Cup?
56f8c15c9e9bad19000a0427
Manchester United
375
False
What league did Southampton Football Club become founding members of in 1992?
56f8c15c9e9bad19000a0428
the Premier League
505
False
Southampton is home to Southampton Football Club—nicknamed "The Saints"—who play in the Premier League at St Mary's Stadium, having relocated in 2001 from their 103-year-old former stadium, "The Dell". They reached the top flight of English football (First Division) for the first time in 1966, staying there for eight years. They lifted the FA Cup with a shock victory over Manchester United in 1976, returned to the top flight two years later, and stayed there for 27 years (becoming founder members of the Premier League in 1992) before they were relegated in 2005. The club was promoted back to the Premier League in 2012 following a brief spell in the third-tier and severe financial difficulties. In 2015, "The Saints" finished 7th in the Premier League, their highest league finish in 30 years, after a remarkable season under new manager Ronald Koeman. Their highest league position came in 1984 when they were runners-up in the old First Division. They were also runners-up in the 1979 Football League Cup final and 2003 FA Cup final. Notable former managers include Ted Bates, Lawrie McMenemy, Chris Nicholl, Ian Branfoot and Gordon Strachan. There is a strong rivalry between Portsmouth F.C. ("South Coast derby") which is located only about 30 km (19 mi) away.
Local Southampton football leagues have what day of the week in their names?
56f8c2519e9bad19000a0446
Sunday
14
False
How many local Sunday football leagues does Southampton have?
56f8c2519e9bad19000a0447
two
4
False
What's the name of the local league with "City" in its name?
56f8c2519e9bad19000a0448
City of Southampton Sunday Football League
61
False
What's the name of the the local league with "District" in its name?
56f8c2519e9bad19000a0449
Southampton and District Sunday Football League
112
False
The two local Sunday Leagues in the Southampton area are the City of Southampton Sunday Football League and the Southampton and District Sunday Football League.
At what venue does the Hampshire County Cricket Club play?
56f8c3489e9bad19000a044e
the Rose Bowl
57
False
What part of the city is the Rose Bowl in?
56f8c3489e9bad19000a044f
West End
74
False
Besides the County Cricket Ground, at what other cricket ground did the Hampshire County Cricket Club used to play?
56f8c3489e9bad19000a0450
the Antelope Ground
142
False
Besides the Hampshire County Cricket Club, what's the name of the other cricket league in Southampton?
56f8c3489e9bad19000a0451
the Southampton Evening Cricket League
204
False
Hampshire County Cricket Club play close to the city, at the Rose Bowl in West End, after previously playing at the County Cricket Ground and the Antelope Ground, both near the city centre. There is also the Southampton Evening Cricket League.
What's Southampton's hockey club named?
56f8c4059b226e1400dd0f57
Southampton Hockey Club
22
False
What year was Southampton Hockey Club founded?
56f8c4059b226e1400dd0f58
1938
58
False
How many senior men's teams does the hockey club field each week?
56f8c4059b226e1400dd0f59
7
139
False
Weekly, how many senior ladies teams does Southampton Hockey Club field?
56f8c4059b226e1400dd0f5a
5
158
False
How old do kids need to be to play in the hockey club?
56f8c4059b226e1400dd0f5b
6
237
False
The city hockey club, Southampton Hockey Club, founded in 1938, is now one of the largest and highly regarded clubs in Hampshire, fielding 7 senior men's and 5 senior ladies teams on a weekly basis along with boys’ and girls’ teams from 6 upwards.
What's the oldest rugby team in Southampton?
56f8c50f9e9bad19000a046a
Trojans RFC
140
False
What division was Trojans RFC promoted to in 2008-9?
56f8c50f9e9bad19000a046b
London South West 2
173
False
What famous player from Trojans RFC also played for the Leicester Tigers?
56f8c50f9e9bad19000a046c
Anthony Allen
240
False
What position did Allen play for the Leicester Tigers?
56f8c50f9e9bad19000a046d
centre
293
False
What division do the Tottonians belong to?
56f8c50f9e9bad19000a046e
London South West division 2
324
False
The city is also well provided for in amateur men's and women's rugby with a number of teams in and around the city, the oldest of which is Trojans RFC who were promoted to London South West 2 division in 2008/9. A notable former player is Anthony Allen, who played with Leicester Tigers as a centre. Tottonians are also in London South West division 2 and Southampton RFC are in Hampshire division 1 in 2009/10, alongside Millbrook RFC and Eastleigh RFC. Many of the sides run mini and midi teams from under sevens up to under sixteens for both boys and girls.
What feature does Southampton have plenty of that provides for water sports and yachting?
56f8c65d9b226e1400dd0f8d
marinas
66
False
What race named after a car company used to be hosted in Southampton?
56f8c65d9b226e1400dd0f8e
the Volvo Ocean Race
158
False
What was the former name of the Volvo Ocean Race?
56f8c65d9b226e1400dd0f8f
the Whitbread Around the World Yacht Race
93
False
Which marina in Southampton hosted the yacht race from 1977 too 2001?
56f8c65d9b226e1400dd0f90
Ocean Village marina
206
False
The city provides for yachting and water sports, with a number of marinas. From 1977 to 2001 the Whitbread Around the World Yacht Race, which is now known as the Volvo Ocean Race was based in Southampton's Ocean Village marina.
What facility is the center of Southampton's public sports and outdoor activities?
56f8c6e09b226e1400dd0fa5
Southampton Sports Centre
22
False
How many additional leisure venues are run by Council executives?
56f8c6e09b226e1400dd0fa6
11
246
False
What company did the Council leisure executives sell operating rights to?
56f8c6e09b226e1400dd0fa7
Park Wood Leisure
399
False
The city also has the Southampton Sports Centre which is the focal point for the public's sporting and outdoor activities and includes an Alpine Centre, theme park and athletics centre which is used by professional athletes. With the addition of 11 other additional leisure venures which are currently operate by the Council leisure executives. However these have been sold the operating rights to "Park Wood Leisure."
What magazine awarded Southampton "fittest city in the UK" in 2006?
56f8c7d79e9bad19000a04b4
Men's Fitness
58
False
How many spots did Southampton lose in the "fittest city" rankings for 2007?
56f8c7d79e9bad19000a04b5
one
243
False
Who was the "fittest city in the UK" ahead of Southampton in 2007?
56f8c7d79e9bad19000a04b6
London
260
False
During the pre-war period, where was speedway racing held?
56f8c7d79e9bad19000a04b7
Banister Court Stadium
472
False
What year did Banister Court Stadium close its doors for good?
56f8c7d79e9bad19000a04b8
1963
618
False
Southampton was named "fittest city in the UK" in 2006 by Men's Fitness magazine. The results were based on the incidence of heart disease, the amount of junk food and alcohol consumed, and the level of gym membership. In 2007, it had slipped one place behind London, but was still ranked first when it came to the parks and green spaces available for exercise and the amount of television watched by Sotonians was the lowest in the country. Speedway racing took place at Banister Court Stadium in the pre-war era. It returned in the 1940s after WW2 and the Saints operated until the stadium closed down at the end of 1963. A training track operated in the 1950s in the Hamble area.
What College American Football team calls Southampton home?
56f8c85a9b226e1400dd0fd9
Southampton Stags
102
False
At what sports venue do the Southampton Stags play?
56f8c85a9b226e1400dd0fda
Wide Lane Sports Facility
137
False
Where is the Wide Lane Sports Facility located?
56f8c85a9b226e1400dd0fdb
Eastleigh
166
False
Southampton is also home to one of the most successful College American Football teams in the UK, the Southampton Stags, who play at the Wide Lane Sports Facility in Eastleigh.
Who is responsible for policing Southampton?
56f8c9389b226e1400dd0fe9
Hampshire Constabulary
44
False
How much did it cost to build the operations base of Southampton's police service?
56f8c9389b226e1400dd0fea
£30 million
168
False
On what street in Southampton is the police headquarters for the city?
56f8c9389b226e1400dd0feb
Southern Road
219
False
What year did the brand new, eight-story police headquarters open?
56f8c9389b226e1400dd0fec
2011
244
False
What train station is close to the police force's building?
56f8c9389b226e1400dd0fed
Southampton Central
264
False
Southampton's police service is provided by Hampshire Constabulary. The main base of the Southampton operation is a new, eight storey purpose-built building which cost £30 million to construct. The building, located on Southern Road, opened in 2011 and is near to Southampton Central railway station. Previously, the central Southampton operation was located within the west wing of the Civic Centre, however the ageing facilities and the plans of constructing a new museum in the old police station and magistrates court necessitated the move. There are additional police stations at Portswood, Banister Park, Bitterne, and Shirley as well as a British Transport Police station at Southampton Central railway station.
Who handles fires in Southampton?
56f8c9c59e9bad19000a04ea
Hampshire Fire and Rescue Service
40
False
How many fire stations are there in Southampton city limits?
56f8c9c59e9bad19000a04eb
three
85
False
Along with Hightown and Redbridge, what's the third fire station in Southampton?
56f8c9c59e9bad19000a04ec
St Mary's
135
False
Southampton's fire cover is provided by Hampshire Fire and Rescue Service. There are three fire stations within the city boundaries at St Mary's, Hightown and Redbridge.
How many crimes overall are reported for each 1,000 people in Southampton?
56f8cb159b226e1400dd1013
202
1106
False
Did Hampshire Constabulary record fewer or more crime incidents in 2009/10 than the year before?
56f8cb159b226e1400dd1014
fewer
1181
False
For how many consecutive years has violent crime in Southampton decreased?
56f8cb159b226e1400dd1015
three
174
False
Is Southampton's crime rate higher or lower than the national average?
56f8cb159b226e1400dd1016
higher
391
False
Which statistics are debated because of the different ways various police forces record crime?
56f8cb159b226e1400dd1017
comparative crime statisitics
472
False
According to Hampshire Constabulary figures, Southampton is currently safer than it has ever been before, with dramatic reductions in violent crime year on year for the last three years. Data from the Southampton Safer City Partnership shows there has been a reduction in all crimes in recent years and an increase in crime detection rates. According to government figures Southampton has a higher crime rate than the national average. There is some controversy regarding comparative crime statisitics due to inconsistencies between different police forces recording methodologies. For example, in Hampshire all reported incidents are recorded and all records then retained. However, in neighbouring Dorset crimes reports withdrawn or shown to be false are not recorded, reducing apparent crime figures. In the violence against the person category, the national average is 16.7 per 1000 population while Southampton is 42.4 per 1000 population. In the theft from a vehicle category, the national average is 7.6 per 1000 compared to Southampton's 28.4 per 1000. Overall, for every 1,000 people in the city, 202 crimes are recorded. Hampshire Constabulary's figures for 2009/10 show fewer incidents of recorded crime in Southampton than the previous year.
Is Southampton's higher education sector weak or strong?
56f8cbee9e9bad19000a050e
strong
15
False
What's the combined student population of the two major universities in Southampton?
56f8cbee9e9bad19000a050f
over 40,000
149
False
What's the name of the institution of higher learning with "Solent" in its name?
56f8cbee9e9bad19000a0510
Southampton Solent University
81
False
The city has a strong higher education sector. The University of Southampton and Southampton Solent University together have a student population of over 40,000.
What year was the University of Southampton founded?
56f8cd169e9bad19000a052e
1862
52
False
When did the University of Southampton receive university designation by official Royal Charter?
56f8cd169e9bad19000a052f
1952
107
False
The University of Southampton has more than what number of students attending?
56f8cd169e9bad19000a0530
22,000
122
False
What research centre at the University of Southampton is abbreviated NOCS?
56f8cd169e9bad19000a0531
National Oceanography Centre, Southampton
804
False
What organization ranked the University of Southampton in the top 80 universities worldwide in 2010?
56f8cd169e9bad19000a0532
THES - QS World University Rankings
279
False
The University of Southampton, which was founded in 1862 and received its Royal Charter as a university in 1952, has over 22,000 students. The university is ranked in the top 100 research universities in the world in the Academic Ranking of World Universities 2010. In 2010, the THES - QS World University Rankings positioned the University of Southampton in the top 80 universities in the world. The university considers itself one of the top 5 research universities in the UK. The university has a global reputation for research into engineering sciences, oceanography, chemistry, cancer sciences, sound and vibration research, computer science and electronics, optoelectronics and textile conservation at the Textile Conservation Centre (which is due to close in October 2009.) It is also home to the National Oceanography Centre, Southampton (NOCS), the focus of Natural Environment Research Council-funded marine research.
How many students attend Southampton Solent University?
56f8ce109b226e1400dd1037
17,000
34
False
What specialized academy does Southampton Solent University host?
56f8ce109b226e1400dd1038
Warsash Maritime Academy
199
False
In addition to international shipping, what other industry does the Warsash Maritime Academy prepare students for?
56f8ce109b226e1400dd1039
off-shore oil
302
False
Southampton Solent University has 17,000 students and its strengths are in the training, design, consultancy, research and other services undertaken for business and industry. It is also host to the Warsash Maritime Academy, which provides training and certification for the international shipping and off-shore oil industries.
How many standalone sixth form colleges are there in Southampton?
56f8cf869b226e1400dd1051
two
75
False
What college of further education offers vocational courses and ESOL programs?
56f8cf869b226e1400dd1052
Southampton City College
255
False
What courses does Southampton City College offer to adult students?
56f8cf869b226e1400dd1053
Access courses
429
False
What college with the initials BPC is outside of the city but still popular with students from Southampton?
56f8cf869b226e1400dd1054
Barton Peveril College
231
False
What's the sixth form college named after a person?
56f8cf869b226e1400dd1055
Richard Taunton Sixth Form College
119
False
In addition to school sixth forms at St Anne's and King Edward's there are two sixth form colleges: Itchen College and Richard Taunton Sixth Form College. A number of Southampton pupils will travel outside the city, for example to Barton Peveril College. Southampton City College is a further education college serving the city. The college offers a range of vocational courses for school leavers, as well as ESOL programmes and Access courses for adult learners.
More than what percentage of the students surveyed said they'd been bullied?
56f8d0349e9bad19000a0576
40
5
False
About how many pupils took the bullying survey?
56f8d0349e9bad19000a0577
2,000
128
False
What specific form of bullying did the survey show was most common?
56f8d0349e9bad19000a0578
verbal
158
False
What was the second most common form of bullying experienced by boys who took the survey?
56f8d0349e9bad19000a0579
physical
209
False
Over 40 per cent of school pupils in the city that responded to a survey claimed to have been the victim of bullying. More than 2,000 took part and said that verbal bullying was the most common form, although physical bullying was a close second for boys.
Which level of schools in Southampton are the worst behaved in the UK?
56f8d2049b226e1400dd1083
secondary
60
False
How many times the national average are the suspension rates at Southampton's secondary schools?
56f8d2049b226e1400dd1084
three
115
False
Out of about every 14 students, how many will be suspended from school?
56f8d2049b226e1400dd1085
1
186
False
In addition to physical attacks, what other kind of assault do Southampton's students commit against staff more than anywhere else in the country?
56f8d2049b226e1400dd1086
verbal
253
False
It has been revealed that Southampton has the worst behaved secondary schools within the UK. With suspension rates three times the national average, the suspension rate is approximately 1 in every 14 children, the highest in the country for physical or verbal assaults against staff.
Which motorway located north of Southampton links up England's south coast?
56f8d3979e9bad19000a05a8
M27
96
False
Which motorway connects Southampton to London?
56f8d3979e9bad19000a05a9
M3
199
False
What city is located on the A34 where the M3 connects to the North and Midlands?
56f8d3979e9bad19000a05aa
Winchester
304
False
What spur of the M27 connects it to Southampton's city centre and Western Docks?
56f8d3979e9bad19000a05ab
M271
349
False
Are Southampton's transport routes around the UK good or bad?
56f8d3979e9bad19000a05ac
good
41
False
Southampton is a major UK port which has good transport links with the rest of the country. The M27 motorway, linking places along the south coast of England, runs just to the north of the city. The M3 motorway links the city to London and also, via a link to the A34 (part of the European route E05) at Winchester, with the Midlands and North. The M271 motorway is a spur of the M27, linking it with the Western Docks and city centre.
Southampton's railways provide freight services and what other important services?
56f8d4b69e9bad19000a05b2
passenger services
113
False
What's the name of the main train station in Southampton?
56f8d4b69e9bad19000a05b3
Southampton Central
201
False
Heading east from Southampton, what city is connected by rail?
56f8d4b69e9bad19000a05b4
Portsmouth
251
False
In which direction do trains run from Southampton to Winchester?
56f8d4b69e9bad19000a05b5
north
263
False
In what year did the rail route from Southampton to London open?
56f8d4b69e9bad19000a05b6
1840
434
False
Southampton is also served by the rail network, which is used both by freight services to and from the docks and passenger services as part of the national rail system. The main station in the city is Southampton Central. Rail routes run east towards Portsmouth, north to Winchester, the Midlands and London, and westwards to Bournemouth, Poole, Dorchester, Weymouth, Salisbury, Bristol and Cardiff. The route to London was opened in 1840 by what was to become the London and South Western Railway Company. Both this and its successor the Southern Railway (UK) played a significant role in the creation of the modern port following their purchase and development of the town's docks.
In addition to the southern and eastern sections of Southampton, what other section has local train service?
56f8d6409e9bad19000a05bc
central
36
False
What company operates Southampton's local train service?
56f8d6409e9bad19000a05bd
South West Trains
107
False
What organization announced plans for rail expansion in Southampton in July of 2009?
56f8d6409e9bad19000a05be
Hampshire County Council
243
False
In what year did a proposal to expand light rail service to Portsmouth and Gosport fail?
56f8d6409e9bad19000a05bf
2005
565
False
What's the current destination of the freight-only line the Hampshire County Council wants to use to expand passenger service?
56f8d6409e9bad19000a05c0
Fawley
374
False
Local train services operate in the central, southern and eastern sections of the city and are operated by South West Trains, with stations at Swaythling, St Denys, Millbrook, Redbridge, Bitterne, Sholing and Woolston. Plans were announced by Hampshire County Council in July 2009 for the introduction of tram-train running from Hythe (on what is now a freight-only line to Fawley) via Totton to Southampton Central Station and on to Fareham via St. Denys, and Swanwick. The proposal follows a failed plan to bring light rail to the Portsmouth and Gosport areas in 2005.
What competing railway company tried to open a rail route in the 1880s?
56f8d83e9e9bad19000a05da
Didcot, Newbury and Southampton Railway
66
False
In which direction did the Didcot, Newbury and Southampton Railway want to expand?
56f8d83e9e9bad19000a05db
North
141
False
What feature survives in the Hill Lane area as evidence of the Didcot, Newbury and Southampton Railway's work?
56f8d83e9e9bad19000a05dc
embankment
206
False
The town was the subject of an attempt by a separate company, the Didcot, Newbury and Southampton Railway, to open another rail route to the North in the 1880s and some building work, including a surviving embankment, was undertaken in the Hill Lane area.
In what town is Southampton Airport located?
56f8d9209e9bad19000a05ea
Eastleigh
65
False
What direction would one travel from Southampton to get to the airport in Eastleigh?
56f8d9209e9bad19000a05eb
north
81
False
If passengers don't want to take a train to the airport, what other transport is available?
56f8d9209e9bad19000a05ec
bus
271
False
To take a train to Southampton Airport, what railway station would you need to go through?
56f8d9209e9bad19000a05ed
Southampton Airport (Parkway)
217
False
Southampton Airport is a regional airport located in the town of Eastleigh, just north of the city. It offers flights to UK and near European destinations, and is connected to the city by a frequent rail service from Southampton Airport (Parkway) railway station, and by bus services.
What cruise line has its headquarters in Southampton?
56f8da2e9b226e1400dd10ea
Carnival Corporation & plc
144
False
Besides Carnival, what other major cruise line parks its record-breaking cruise ships in Southampton Water?
56f8da2e9b226e1400dd10eb
Royal Caribbean
124
False
In addition to P&O Cruises and Cunard Line, what other brand does Carnival Corporation own?
56f8da2e9b226e1400dd10ec
Princess Cruises
242
False
Many of the world's largest cruise ships can regularly be seen in Southampton water, including record-breaking vessels from Royal Caribbean and Carnival Corporation & plc. The latter has headquarters in Southampton, with its brands including Princess Cruises, P&O Cruises and Cunard Line.
What brand of cruise ships has a special importance to Southampton?
56f8dbf69e9bad19000a0610
Cunard Line
40
False
What was the name of the liner that left Southampton on its final journey on November 11, 2008?
56f8dbf69e9bad19000a0611
RMS Queen Elizabeth 2
150
False
Who christened the Cunard ship Queen Victoria in December 2007?
56f8dbf69e9bad19000a0612
HRH The Duchess of Cornwall
369
False
In what year did the Queen Elizabeth receive its name from the Queen?
56f8dbf69e9bad19000a0613
2011
478
False
What ship did the Duchess of Cambridge christen on June 13, 2013?
56f8dbf69e9bad19000a0614
Royal Princess
542
False
The city has a particular connection to Cunard Line and their fleet of ships. This was particularly evident on 11 November 2008 when the Cunard liner RMS Queen Elizabeth 2 departed the city for the final time amid a spectacular fireworks display after a full day of celebrations. Cunard ships are regularly launched in the city, for example Queen Victoria was named by HRH The Duchess of Cornwall in December 2007, and the Queen named Queen Elizabeth in the city during October 2011. The Duchess of Cambridge performed the naming ceremony of Royal Princess on 13 June 2013.
What does Southampton call the event when three ships named after queens all visit the city?
56f8dcbe9e9bad19000a061a
Arrival of the Three Queens
156
False
Which of the "Three Queens" has a number in its name?
56f8dcbe9e9bad19000a061b
Queen Mary 2
34
False
Along with the Queen Mary 2 and Queen Victoria, which third ship must be present for the 'Arrival of the Three Queens'?
56f8dcbe9e9bad19000a061c
Queen Elizabeth
48
False
At certain times of the year, The Queen Mary 2, Queen Elizabeth and Queen Victoria may all visit Southampton at the same time, in an event commonly called 'Arrival of the Three Queens'.
What cruise line celebrated a landmark anniversary in Southampton in July of 2012?
56f8de039e9bad19000a0620
P&O Cruises
70
False
Which anniversary did P&O celebrate in Southampton?
56f8de039e9bad19000a0621
175th
84
False
How many P&O liners visited Southampton on the day of the 175th anniversary celebrations?
56f8de039e9bad19000a0622
seven
135
False
Which of the seven P&O cruise liners has a name that begins with "V"?
56f8de039e9bad19000a0623
Ventura
254
False
Along with the Oriana, what's the other P&O liner with a name that starts with the same letter?
56f8de039e9bad19000a0624
Oceana
235
False
The importance of Southampton to the cruise industry was indicated by P&O Cruises's 175th anniversary celebrations, which included all seven of the company's liners visiting Southampton in a single day. Adonia, Arcadia, Aurora, Azura, Oceana, Oriana and Ventura all left the city in a procession on 3 July 2012.
How many internal ferry services does Southampton serve?
56f8def59e9bad19000a063e
three
94
False
What is the name of the quay where all three ferries have their terminals?
56f8def59e9bad19000a063f
Town Quay
164
False
How many of the ferries connect to the Isle of Wight?
56f8def59e9bad19000a0640
Two
175
False
What company operates the ferries to East Cowes and Cowes?
56f8def59e9bad19000a0641
Red Funnel
347
False
What body of water does the Hythe Ferry cross to reach Hythe from Southampton?
56f8def59e9bad19000a0642
Southampton Water
455
False
While Southampton is no longer the base for any cross-channel ferries, it is the terminus for three internal ferry services, all of which operate from terminals at Town Quay. Two of these, a car ferry service and a fast catamaran passenger ferry service, provide links to East Cowes and Cowes respectively on the Isle of Wight and are operated by Red Funnel. The third ferry is the Hythe Ferry, providing a passenger service to Hythe on the other side of Southampton Water.
In what decade was the ferry port built in Southampton to carry people to exotic destinations on the continent?
56f8e0b29e9bad19000a065c
1960s
183
False
By what year did car ferries finish operating from Southampton, other than the one to the Isle of Wight?
56f8e0b29e9bad19000a065d
1996
248
False
What was built on the site where the Southampton Ferry Port used to be?
56f8e0b29e9bad19000a065e
a retail and housing development
429
False
What has the Princess Alexandra Dock become?
56f8e0b29e9bad19000a065f
a marina
532
False
What location that was once filled with passengers, dry docks, and trains is now a holding area for new cars?
56f8e0b29e9bad19000a0660
Eastern Docks
584
False
Southampton used to be home to a number of ferry services to the continent, with destinations such as San Sebastian, Lisbon, Tangier and Casablanca. A ferry port was built during the 1960s. However, a number of these relocated to Portsmouth and by 1996, there were no longer any car ferries operating from Southampton with the exception of services to the Isle of Wight. The land used for Southampton Ferry Port was sold off and a retail and housing development was built on the site. The Princess Alexandra Dock was converted into a marina. Reception areas for new cars now fill the Eastern Docks where passengers, dry docks and trains used to be.
What form of public transport do most people in Southampton use now?
56f8e1e79e9bad19000a067a
Buses
0
False
Along with First Southampton, what is the other main bus operator in Southampton?
56f8e1e79e9bad19000a067b
Bluestar
107
False
What bus service did the University of Southampton commission to carry people between the city and the university?
56f8e1e79e9bad19000a067c
Uni-link
219
False
What time does Uni-link stop service to the university each night?
56f8e1e79e9bad19000a067d
midnight
278
False
What operator ran Uni-link before Bluestar?
56f8e1e79e9bad19000a067e
Enterprise
417
False
Buses now provide the majority of local public transport. The main bus operators are First Southampton and Bluestar. Other operators include Brijan Tours, Stagecoach and Xelabus. The other large service provider is the Uni-link bus service (running from early in the morning to midnight), which was commissioned by the University of Southampton to provide transport from the university to the town. Previously run by Enterprise, it is now run by Bluestar. Free buses are provided by City-link'. The City-link runs from the Red Funnel ferry terminal at Town Quay to Central station via WestQuay and is operated by Bluestar. There is also a door-to-door minibus service called Southampton Dial a Ride, for residents who cannot access public transport. This is funded by the council and operated by SCA Support Services.
What road does First use stops around to leave a terminal available for other buses?
56f8e38b9e9bad19000a0698
Pound Tree Road
94
False
Which bus service passes West Quay going in both directions?
56f8e38b9e9bad19000a0699
Uni-link
186
False
What operator drops off and picks up passengers at West Quay?
56f8e38b9e9bad19000a069a
Wilts & Dorset
236
False
When did the tram system stop operating in Southampton?
56f8e38b9e9bad19000a069b
1949
517
False
Where do buses that loop around West Quay stop?
56f8e38b9e9bad19000a069c
Hanover Buildings
461
False
There are two main termini for bus services. As the biggest operator, First uses stops around Pound Tree Road. This leaves the other terminal of West Quay available for other operators. Uni-link passes West Quay in both directions, and Wilts & Dorset drop passengers off and pick them up there, terminating at a series of bus stands along the road. Certain Bluestar services also do this, while others stop at Bargate and some loop round West Quay, stopping at Hanover Buildings. There was a tram system from 1879 to 1949.
Treaty
Who are the actors in international law?
56f6f92b3d8e2e1400e37300
sovereign states and international organizations
101
False
What is an agreement entered into by actors in international law?
56f6f92b3d8e2e1400e37301
A treaty
0
False
How are different forms of agreements treated under international law compared to treaties?
56f6f92b3d8e2e1400e37302
equally
382
False
How would you compare the rules of a treaty and a covenant under international law?
56f6f92b3d8e2e1400e37303
the rules are the same
414
False
A treaty is an agreement under international law entered into by actors in international law, namely sovereign states and international organizations. A treaty may also be known as an (international) agreement, protocol, covenant, convention, pact, or exchange of letters, among other terms. Regardless of terminology, all of these forms of agreements are, under international law, equally considered treaties and the rules are the same.
What must a party to a treaty do to prevent being held liable under international law?
56f6fbeb711bf01900a448c4
live up to their obligations
156
False
What is comparable in domestic law to a treaty in international law?
56f6fbeb711bf01900a448c5
contracts
36
False
Under what will a party to a treaty be held liable for failing to uphold their obligations?
56f6fbeb711bf01900a448c6
international law
210
False
What must be the attitude of a party towards assuming the legal obligations of the treaty?
56f6fbeb711bf01900a448c7
willing
65
False
What do we call the willingly-assumed burdens placed upon parties to both treaties and contracts?
56f6fbeb711bf01900a448c8
obligations
90
False
Treaties can be loosely compared to contracts: both are means of willing parties assuming obligations among themselves, and a party to either that fails to live up to their obligations can be held liable under international law.
How are the agreements in a treaty expressed?
56f6fdb13d8e2e1400e37310
in words
160
False
How are states that enter into a treaty bound?
56f6fdb13d8e2e1400e37311
legally
70
False
What is an official document which expresses an agreement between two states?
56f6fdb13d8e2e1400e37312
A treaty
95
False
What is an objective outcome of a ceremonial occasion which acknowledges the defined relationships of its parties?
56f6fdb13d8e2e1400e37313
A treaty
95
False
Who is responsible for the legally-bound obligations of the parties to a treaty?
56f6fdb13d8e2e1400e37314
themselves
83
False
A treaty is an official, express written agreement that states use to legally bind themselves. A treaty is the official document which expresses that agreement in words; and it is also the objective outcome of a ceremonial occasion which acknowledges the parties and their defined relationships.
What is shared by most treaties since the late 19th century?
56f6ff4c3d8e2e1400e37322
a fairly consistent format
57
False
What is the beginning of a typical treaty called?
56f6ff4c3d8e2e1400e37323
a preamble
116
False
Why are long sentences in a modern preamble formatted into multiple paragraphs?
56f6ff4c3d8e2e1400e37324
readability
388
False
Each paragraph of a modern preamble typically begins with which part of speech?
56f6ff4c3d8e2e1400e37325
a verb
445
False
In addition to describing the parties and their joint objectives, what else does a modern preamble typically summarize?
56f6ff4c3d8e2e1400e37326
any underlying events (such as a war)
237
False
Since the late 19th century, most treaties have followed a fairly consistent format. A treaty typically begins with a preamble describing the contracting parties and their joint objectives in executing the treaty, as well as summarizing any underlying events (such as a war). Modern preambles are sometimes structured as a single very long sentence formatted into multiple paragraphs for readability, in which each of the paragraphs begins with a verb (desiring, recognizing, having, and so on).
What term describes a common clause in a treaty stating that the representatives of the parties have communicated their full powers?
56f7046d711bf01900a448e2
boilerplate
161
False
What are the official documents appointing a party's representative to act on their behalf?
56f7046d711bf01900a448e3
full powers
251
False
In addition to their full names, what else is included in the preamble that identifies the parties to a treaty?
56f7046d711bf01900a448e4
sovereign titles
39
False
How must the full powers of a parties' representatives be found in order to enter into a treaty?
56f7046d711bf01900a448e5
in good or proper form.
369
False
Who else besides the parties themselves is typically identified in the preamble to a treaty?
56f7046d711bf01900a448e6
their representatives
132
False
The contracting parties' full names or sovereign titles are often included in the preamble, along with the full names and titles of their representatives, and a boilerplate clause about how their representatives have communicated (or exchanged) their full powers (i.e., the official documents appointing them to act on behalf of their respective states) and found them in good or proper form.
What follows the preamble in a treaty?
56f705ac711bf01900a448ec
numbered articles
25
False
What is contained in the numbered articles of a treaty?
56f705ac711bf01900a448ed
the substance of the parties' actual agreement
58
False
What does each article heading usually encompass?
56f705ac711bf01900a448ee
a paragraph
147
False
How might the articles in a long treaty be grouped?
56f705ac711bf01900a448ef
under chapter headings
201
False
The numbered articles of a treaty may be grouped by chapter heading in what kind of treaty?
56f705ac711bf01900a448f0
A long treaty
160
False
After the preamble comes numbered articles, which contain the substance of the parties' actual agreement. Each article heading usually encompasses a paragraph. A long treaty may further group articles under chapter headings.
What type of resolution to disputes is typically outlined in a treaty?
56f7083a711bf01900a448f6
peaceful
214
False
Which section of a treaty typically contains information about the whereabouts of the final authentic copies of a treaty?
56f7083a711bf01900a448f7
articles
63
False
Parties to a treaty might have disputes about what aspect of the articles of a treaty?
56f7083a711bf01900a448f8
their interpretation
185
False
Which copies of a treaty have their locations outlined in most modern treaties?
56f7083a711bf01900a448f9
the final authentic copies
88
False
Modern treaties typically outline the procedures for the peaceful resolution of what?
56f7083a711bf01900a448fa
disputes
170
False
Modern treaties, regardless of subject matter, usually contain articles governing where the final authentic copies of the treaty will be deposited and how any subsequent disputes as to their interpretation will be peacefully resolved.
What is the formal name for the closing protocol of a treaty?
56f709cd711bf01900a44900
the eschatocol
21
False
What typically follows the signatures in a treaty?
56f709cd711bf01900a44901
the site(s) of the treaty's execution and the date(s)
219
False
How is the date typically written in a treaty?
56f709cd711bf01900a44902
its most formal, longest possible form
324
False
What is the nature of the different versions of a treaty executed in multiple languages?
56f709cd711bf01900a44903
equally authentic
697
False
A clause like "in witness whereof" or "in faith whereof" typically signals what in a treaty?
56f709cd711bf01900a44904
The end
0
False
The end of a treaty, the eschatocol (or closing protocol), is often signaled by a clause like "in witness whereof" or "in faith whereof," the parties have affixed their signatures, followed by the words "DONE at," then the site(s) of the treaty's execution and the date(s) of its execution. The date is typically written in its most formal, longest possible form. For example, the Charter of the United Nations was "DONE at the city of San Francisco the twenty-sixth day of June, one thousand nine hundred and forty-five." If the treaty is executed in multiple copies in different languages, that fact is always noted, and is followed by a stipulation that the versions in different languages are equally authentic.
Whose signatures appear at the very end of a treaty?
56f715cc711bf01900a44928
the parties' representatives
18
False
Where might the text of a treaty be reprinted?
56f715cc711bf01900a44929
in a collection of treaties currently in effect
125
False
Who, upon reprinting, will often append the dates on which the treaty was ratified and came into effect?
56f715cc711bf01900a4492a
an editor
174
False
Each party must have done what in order for the treaty to come into effect?
56f715cc711bf01900a4492b
ratified the treaty
244
False
Even if signed  and ratified on the same date, the treaty might have done what on different dates?
56f715cc711bf01900a4492c
came into effect
280
False
The signatures of the parties' representatives follow at the very end. When the text of a treaty is later reprinted, such as in a collection of treaties currently in effect, an editor will often append the dates on which the respective parties ratified the treaty and on which it came into effect for each party.
Bilateral treaties are concluded between how many states or entities?
56f71740711bf01900a44932
two
41
False
Is it possible for a bilateral treaty to have more than two parties?
56f71740711bf01900a44933
It is possible
65
False
The bilateral treaties between Switzerland and the European Union followed the Swiss rejection of what?
56f71740711bf01900a44934
the European Economic Area agreement
270
False
Does the bilateral treaty between Switzerland and the European Union establish rights or obligations amongst the EU and its member states?
56f71740711bf01900a44935
it does not
651
False
The treaty between Switzerland and the European Union is an example of what kind of treaty?
56f71740711bf01900a44936
bilateral
170
False
Bilateral treaties are concluded between two states or entities. It is possible, however, for a bilateral treaty to have more than two parties; consider for instance the bilateral treaties between Switzerland and the European Union (EU) following the Swiss rejection of the European Economic Area agreement. Each of these treaties has seventeen parties. These however are still bilateral, not multilateral, treaties. The parties are divided into two groups, the Swiss ("on the one part") and the EU and its member states ("on the other part"). The treaty establishes rights and obligations between the Swiss and the EU and the member states severally—it does not establish any rights and obligations amongst the EU and its member states.[citation needed]
What is a treaty concluded among several countries?
56f7188d711bf01900a44950
A multilateral treaty
0
False
Between which parties does a multilateral treaty establish rights and obligations?
56f7188d711bf01900a44951
each party and every other party
117
False
The Treaty of Locarno guarantees each signatory against what from another signatory?
56f7188d711bf01900a44952
attack
337
False
What type of treaty is a mutual guarantee?
56f7188d711bf01900a44953
international compacts
245
False
Multilateral treaties are often entered into by countries that share the same what?
56f7188d711bf01900a44954
region
183
False
A multilateral treaty is concluded among several countries. The agreement establishes rights and obligations between each party and every other party. Multilateral treaties are often regional.[citation needed] Treaties of "mutual guarantee" are international compacts, e.g., the Treaty of Locarno which guarantees each signatory against attack from another.
What are caveats to a state's acceptance of a treaty?
56f719c23d8e2e1400e37350
Reservations
0
False
What are unilateral statements purporting to exclude or to modify the legal obligation and its effects on a state?
56f719c23d8e2e1400e37351
Reservations
74
False
When must reservations be included in a treaty?
56f719c23d8e2e1400e37352
at the time of signing or ratification
232
False
What are parties to a treaty forbidden to do after they have already joined a treaty?
56f719c23d8e2e1400e37353
add a reservation
293
False
A reserving party to a treaty may include a statement that attempts to do what to its legal obligations or their effects?
56f719c23d8e2e1400e37354
exclude or to modify
127
False
Reservations are essentially caveats to a state's acceptance of a treaty. Reservations are unilateral statements purporting to exclude or to modify the legal obligation and its effects on the reserving state. These must be included at the time of signing or ratification, i.e. "a party cannot add a reservation after it has already joined a treaty".
A more permissive rule regarding what emerged to encourage the largest number of states to join treaties?
56f71cd0711bf01900a44986
reservations
270
False
Reservations are generally permitted so long as they are not what?
56f71cd0711bf01900a44987
inconsistent with the goals and purposes of the treaty
422
False
How did international law originally respond to treaty reservations?
56f71cd0711bf01900a44988
rejecting them
70
False
Originally reservations were rejected under international law unless which parties of the treaty accepted them?
56f71cd0711bf01900a44989
all parties
92
False
Because they are generally accepted under international law, a treaty must forbid reservations in what manner to prevent their adoption?
56f71cd0711bf01900a4498a
expressly
322
False
Originally, international law was unaccepting of treaty reservations, rejecting them unless all parties to the treaty accepted the same reservations. However, in the interest of encouraging the largest number of states to join treaties, a more permissive rule regarding reservations has emerged. While some treaties still expressly forbid any reservations, they are now generally permitted to the extent that they are not inconsistent with the goals and purposes of the treaty.
When a state adds reservations to a treaty, other parties to the treaty can respond to those reservations in what ways?
56f71ecf711bf01900a449a4
accept those reservations, object to them, or object and oppose them
118
False
Who remains unaffected when a party's reservation is accepted by a second party?
56f71ecf711bf01900a449a5
other parties to the treaty
480
False
What happens to the parts of the treaty affected by a rejected reservation as they concern the reserving and rejecting parties?
56f71ecf711bf01900a449a6
drop out completely
584
False
What legal obligations exist between two state parties if one objects and opposes the other's reservations?
56f71ecf711bf01900a449a7
no legal obligations
773
False
If a state party objects and opposes another state's reservations it essentially refuses to acknowledge what?
56f71ecf711bf01900a449a8
the reserving state is a party to the treaty
924
False
When a state limits its treaty obligations through reservations, other states party to that treaty have the option to accept those reservations, object to them, or object and oppose them. If the state accepts them (or fails to act at all), both the reserving state and the accepting state are relieved of the reserved legal obligation as concerns their legal obligations to each other (accepting the reservation does not change the accepting state's legal obligations as concerns other parties to the treaty). If the state opposes, the parts of the treaty affected by the reservation drop out completely and no longer create any legal obligations on the reserving and accepting state, again only as concerns each other. Finally, if the state objects and opposes, there are no legal obligations under that treaty between those two state parties whatsoever. The objecting and opposing state essentially refuses to acknowledge the reserving state is a party to the treaty at all.
How many ways are there to amend an existing treaty?
56f720ed711bf01900a449b8
three
10
False
What must state parties to a treaty repeat to adopt a formal amendment to the treaty?
56f720ed711bf01900a449b9
the ratification process
131
False
What amendment process is generally reserved for changes that rectify obvious errors in the text?
56f720ed711bf01900a449ba
a procès-verbal
866
False
Parties to an original treaty and an amended treaty are bound to what terms?
56f720ed711bf01900a449bb
the terms they both agreed upon
488
False
In addition to the often long and protracted nature of treaty renegotiation, what negative outcome might result from the process?
56f720ed711bf01900a449bc
some parties to the original treaty will not become parties to the amended treaty
250
False
There are three ways an existing treaty can be amended. First, formal amendment requires State parties to the treaty to go through the ratification process all over again. The re-negotiation of treaty provisions can be long and protracted, and often some parties to the original treaty will not become parties to the amended treaty. When determining the legal obligations of states, one party to the original treaty and one a party to the amended treaty, the states will only be bound by the terms they both agreed upon. Treaties can also be amended informally by the treaty executive council when the changes are only procedural, technical change in customary international law can also amend a treaty, where state behavior evinces a new interpretation of the legal obligations under the treaty. Minor corrections to a treaty may be adopted by a procès-verbal; but a procès-verbal is generally reserved for changes to rectify obvious errors in the text adopted, i.e. where the text adopted does not correctly reflect the intention of the parties adopting it.
What is a treaty that supplements a previous treaty in international law?
56f722b5711bf01900a449cc
a protocol
50
False
A protocol may either amend a previous treaty or do what?
56f722b5711bf01900a449cd
add additional provisions
218
False
Do parties to a treaty have an obligation to adopt a later protocol?
56f722b5711bf01900a449ce
not required
282
False
What do we sometimes call an agreement that supplements a treaty especially when few parties to the treaty support the protocol?
56f722b5711bf01900a449cf
an "optional protocol"
363
False
A protocol may add additional provisions to a treaty or else do what?
56f722b5711bf01900a449d0
amend the previous treaty
188
False
In international law and international relations, a protocol is generally a treaty or international agreement that supplements a previous treaty or international agreement. A protocol can amend the previous treaty, or add additional provisions. Parties to the earlier agreement are not required to adopt the protocol. Sometimes this is made clearer by calling it an "optional protocol", especially where many parties to the first agreement do not support the protocol.
The Kyoto Protocol is associated with what treaty?
56f72eb0711bf01900a44a2c
United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change
19
False
The United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change was supplemented by what protocol?
56f72eb0711bf01900a44a2d
the Kyoto Protocol
175
False
The United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change established a framework for the development of what?
56f72eb0711bf01900a44a2e
binding greenhouse gas emission limits
129
False
While the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change established a framework for developing greenhouse gas emission limits, the Kyoto Protocol contained what?
56f72eb0711bf01900a44a2f
the specific provisions and regulations later agreed upon
204
False
The agreement that contained specific provisions related to the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change is an example of what agreement that supplements a treaty?
56f72eb0711bf01900a44a30
Protocol
185
False
Some examples: the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) established a framework for the development of binding greenhouse gas emission limits, while the Kyoto Protocol contained the specific provisions and regulations later agreed upon.
A treaty that puts all of its obligations in action simply by becoming a party to it is known as what?
56f730303d8e2e1400e37412
self-executing
25
False
What do non-self-executing treaties typically require from a party to enable it to fulfill its obligations?
56f730303d8e2e1400e37413
implementing legislation
182
False
What is "implementing legislation" that is required by a party to a treaty to enable it to fulfill its obligations under the treaty?
56f730303d8e2e1400e37414
a change in the domestic law of a state party
208
False
A treaty requiring local prosecution by a party for particular crimes is an example of which type of treaty?
56f730303d8e2e1400e37415
non-self-executing
150
False
Signing a self-executing treaty automatically does what for a party?
56f730303d8e2e1400e37416
puts the treaty and all of its obligations in action
74
False
Treaties may be seen as 'self-executing', in that merely becoming a party puts the treaty and all of its obligations in action. Other treaties may be non-self-executing and require 'implementing legislation'—a change in the domestic law of a state party that will direct or enable it to fulfill treaty obligations. An example of a treaty requiring such legislation would be one mandating local prosecution by a party for particular crimes.
What type of treaty cannot be acted on without the proper change in domestic law?
56f731ca711bf01900a44a50
a non-self-executing treaty
131
False
A state party may be in default of its obligations under a non-self-executing treaty if its legislature fails to do what?
56f731ca711bf01900a44a51
pass the necessary domestic laws
350
False
What institution of a party to a treaty must act to fulfill the party's obligations under a non-self-executing treaty?
56f731ca711bf01900a44a52
its legislature
331
False
The often unclear division between a self-executing treaty and a non-self-executing treaty can lead to a treaty being what if disagreements exist within a party?
56f731ca711bf01900a44a53
politicized
61
False
A treaty may be politicized due to disagreements within a party because the division between a self-executing treaty and a non-self-executing treaty can often be described as what?
56f731ca711bf01900a44a54
not clear
38
False
The division between the two is often not clear and is often politicized in disagreements within a government over a treaty, since a non-self-executing treaty cannot be acted on without the proper change in domestic law. If a treaty requires implementing legislation, a state may be in default of its obligations by the failure of its legislature to pass the necessary domestic laws.
What principle is often invoked by legal experts when interpreting the language of treaties?
56f733273d8e2e1400e3744c
principle of maximum effectiveness
476
False
The principle of maximum effectiveness interprets the language of treaties as having what effect to establish obligations between parties?
56f733273d8e2e1400e3744d
the fullest force and effect
556
False
What states that treaties are to be interpreted "in good faith" according to the "ordinary meaning given to the terms of the treaty in their context and in light of its object and purpose?"
56f733273d8e2e1400e3744e
The Vienna Convention
214
False
What property of treaties must often be interpreted when it's not clear?
56f733273d8e2e1400e3744f
The language
0
False
Besides unclear language what might also arise that necessitates the interpretation of the language of a treaty?
56f733273d8e2e1400e37450
a perhaps unforeseen circumstance
179
False
The language of treaties, like that of any law or contract, must be interpreted when the wording does not seem clear or it is not immediately apparent how it should be applied in a perhaps unforeseen circumstance. The Vienna Convention states that treaties are to be interpreted "in good faith" according to the "ordinary meaning given to the terms of the treaty in their context and in the light of its object and purpose." International legal experts also often invoke the 'principle of maximum effectiveness,' which interprets treaty language as having the fullest force and effect possible to establish obligations between the parties.
No one party to a treaty can do what to the other parties?
56f734e03d8e2e1400e3746a
impose its particular interpretation of the treaty
29
False
What may be implied of other parties fail to explicitly disavow a party's initially unilateral interpretation of a treaty?
56f734e03d8e2e1400e3746b
Consent
104
False
Consent for a party's unilateral interpretation of a treaty may be implied if that state has acted upon its view of the treat without what from another party?
56f734e03d8e2e1400e3746c
complaint
300
False
Consent by all parties to a treaty to a particular interpretation of the treaty has what legal effect?
56f734e03d8e2e1400e3746d
adding another clause to the treaty
403
False
The legal effect of adding another clause to a treaty that occurs when all parties to a treaty consent to a particular interpretation of the treaty is commonly known as what?
56f734e03d8e2e1400e3746e
an 'authentic interpretation'
465
False
No one party to a treaty can impose its particular interpretation of the treaty upon the other parties. Consent may be implied, however, if the other parties fail to explicitly disavow that initially unilateral interpretation, particularly if that state has acted upon its view of the treaty without complaint. Consent by all parties to the treaty to a particular interpretation has the legal effect of adding another clause to the treaty – this is commonly called an 'authentic interpretation'.
What are international tribunals and arbiters often called upon to resolve in regards to treaties?
56f736513d8e2e1400e3747c
substantial disputes over treaty interpretations
70
False
What judicial bodies might be called upon to resolve disputes pertaining to the interpretation of treaties?
56f736513d8e2e1400e3747d
International tribunals and arbiters
0
False
In addition to the final, signed treaty what else might arbiters review to establish the meaning of a treaty in context?
56f736513d8e2e1400e3747e
the preparatory work from the negotiation and drafting of the treaty
190
False
For what purpose might an international tribunal review the preparatory work from the negotiation and drafting of a treaty?
56f736513d8e2e1400e3747f
To establish the meaning in context
120
False
In addition to the preparatory work from the drafting and negotiation of a treaty, what might arbiters review when resolving a dispute over the interpretation of a treaty?
56f736513d8e2e1400e37480
the final, signed treaty itself
270
False
International tribunals and arbiters are often called upon to resolve substantial disputes over treaty interpretations. To establish the meaning in context, these judicial bodies may review the preparatory work from the negotiation and drafting of the treaty as well as the final, signed treaty itself.
What are agreements between states within the United States called?
56f7379e711bf01900a44a76
compacts
351
False
What are agreements between states and the federal government called within the United States?
56f7379e711bf01900a44a77
memoranda of understanding
459
False
In the United States, what are agreements between agencies of the federal government called?
56f7379e711bf01900a44a78
memoranda of understanding
459
False
Nations can be careful about terming an agreement a treaty because it has the effect of recognizing that the other side is a what?
56f7379e711bf01900a44a79
a sovereign state
106
False
Under what do all parties to a treaty recognize the provisions of the treaty are enforceable?
56f7379e711bf01900a44a7a
international law
185
False
One significant part of treaty making is that signing a treaty implies recognition that the other side is a sovereign state and that the agreement being considered is enforceable under international law. Hence, nations can be very careful about terming an agreement to be a treaty. For example, within the United States, agreements between states are compacts and agreements between states and the federal government or between agencies of the government are memoranda of understanding.
Parties to a treaty may disagree over a desire to create an obligation under what?
56f739203d8e2e1400e3749a
international law
80
False
Discussions between what two countries have been influence by one party's desire to create an obligation under international law?
56f739203d8e2e1400e3749b
North Korea and the United States
194
False
Discussion between North Korea and the United States have been influenced by one party's desire to create obligations under international law with respect to what two topics?
56f739203d8e2e1400e3749c
security guarantees and nuclear proliferation
233
False
North Korea and the United States have been characterized by a disagreement over one parties desire to create what with respect to security guarantees and nuclear proliferation?
56f739203d8e2e1400e3749d
to create an obligation under international law
50
False
Another situation can occur when one party wishes to create an obligation under international law, but the other party does not. This factor has been at work with respect to discussions between North Korea and the United States over security guarantees and nuclear proliferation.
What is the Treaty of Waitangi internationally considered to be?
56f73afcaef2371900625a19
documents under domestic law
264
False
What other terms might be used to refer to a treaty?
56f73afcaef2371900625a1a
convention, protocol, or simply agreement
121
False
What common terminological problem can sometimes lead to confusion surrounding a treaty?
56f73afcaef2371900625a1b
named something other than a treaty,
74
False
What's an example of a treaty that is considered internationally to be documents under domestic law?
56f73afcaef2371900625a1c
the Treaty of Waitangi
204
False
Convention, protocol, and agreement are examples of examples of different kinds of what that can create confusion about a treaty?
56f73afcaef2371900625a1d
terminology
4
False
The terminology can also be confusing because a treaty may and usually is named something other than a treaty, such as a convention, protocol, or simply agreement. Conversely some legal documents such as the Treaty of Waitangi are internationally considered to be documents under domestic law.
Traditionally, what must a state do in order for an obligation to arise in international law?
56f7451fa6d7ea1400e17122
consent
163
False
What is the only barrier to withdrawal contained in many treaties?
56f7451fa6d7ea1400e17123
procedures of notification
262
False
Are treaties permanently binding upon the signatory parties?
56f7451fa6d7ea1400e17124
not necessarily
13
False
What treaty will terminate if the number of parties falls below 40 as a result of denunciations?
56f7451fa6d7ea1400e17125
the Single Convention on Narcotic Drugs
303
False
Which article of the Vienna Convention on the Law of Treaties provides that there is a presumption that treaties cannot be unilaterally denounced?
56f7451fa6d7ea1400e17126
Article 56
498
False
Treaties are not necessarily permanently binding upon the signatory parties. As obligations in international law are traditionally viewed as arising only from the consent of states, many treaties expressly allow a state to withdraw as long as it follows certain procedures of notification. For example, the Single Convention on Narcotic Drugs provides that the treaty will terminate if, as a result of denunciations, the number of parties falls below 40. Many treaties expressly forbid withdrawal. Article 56 of the Vienna Convention on the Law of Treaties provides that where a treaty is silent over whether or not it can be denounced there is a rebuttable presumption that it cannot be unilaterally denounced unless:
What is an example of a treaty from which it is not possible to withdraw?
56f7477aa6d7ea1400e17148
the International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights
167
False
What state declared its intention to withdraw from the International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights?
56f7477aa6d7ea1400e17149
North Korea
230
False
Who, acting as registrar, informed North Korea that withdrawal was deliberately precluded by the original signatories of the International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights?
56f7477aa6d7ea1400e1714a
the Secretary-General of the United Nations
276
False
What two factors determine whether it is possible to withdraw from a treaty?
56f7477aa6d7ea1400e1714b
the terms of the treaty and its travaux preparatoire
41
False
The terms and travaux preparatoire of the International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights were both factors in determining what aspect of the treaty as it relates to North Korea's stated intentions?
56f7477aa6d7ea1400e1714c
The possibility of withdrawal
0
False
The possibility of withdrawal depends on the terms of the treaty and its travaux preparatoire. It has, for example, been held that it is not possible to withdraw from the International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights. When North Korea declared its intention to do this the Secretary-General of the United Nations, acting as registrar, said that original signatories of the ICCPR had not overlooked the possibility of explicitly providing for withdrawal, but rather had deliberately intended not to provide for it. Consequently, withdrawal was not possible.
What factor, in practice, allows a state to withdraw from any treaty at any time?
56f7489aaef2371900625ab7
sovereignty
24
False
What really determines whether withdrawal from a treaty is permitted?
56f7489aaef2371900625ab8
how other states will react
155
False
What might a state do in response to another state's withdrawal from a treaty?
56f7489aaef2371900625ab9
impose sanctions or go to war
236
False
Although withdrawal from a treaty may not be possible in theory, when might it be possible anyway?
56f7489aaef2371900625aba
In practice
0
False
Because of sovereignty when may a state withdrawal from a treaty?
56f7489aaef2371900625abb
at any time
76
False
In practice, because of sovereignty, any state can withdraw from any treaty at any time. The question of whether this is permitted is really a question of how other states will react to the withdrawal; for instance, another state might impose sanctions or go to war over a treaty violation.
What happens to a state's obligations under a treaty upon its withdrawal from the treaty?
56f74a32a6d7ea1400e17168
terminated
94
False
What kind of treaty is terminated by the withdrawal of just one party?
56f74a32a6d7ea1400e17169
a bilateral treaty
139
False
What happens to a multilateral treaty's rights and obligations among the other parties when just one party withdraws?
56f74a32a6d7ea1400e1716a
remain in force
276
False
After what action by a state are its obligations under a treaty considered terminated?
56f74a32a6d7ea1400e1716b
withdrawal
19
False
Under what conditions could a single state's withdrawal result in the termination of a multilateral treaty?
56f74a32a6d7ea1400e1716c
agreed upon between the remaining states parties
380
False
If a state party's withdrawal is successful, its obligations under that treaty are considered terminated, and withdrawal by one party from a bilateral treaty of course terminates the treaty. When a state withdraws from a multi-lateral treaty, that treaty will still otherwise remain in force among the other parties, unless, of course, otherwise should or could be interpreted as agreed upon between the remaining states parties to the treaty.[citation needed]
What may be invoked as grounds for permanently terminating a treaty?
56f74c09a6d7ea1400e17172
A material breach
200
False
In addition to terminating the treaty itself, what actions by the other parties might result from one party materially violating or beaching its obligations?
56f74c09a6d7ea1400e17173
temporarily suspending their obligations to that party
127
False
In addition to suspending their obligations under a treaty to the violating party, what may result from a material breach of treaty obligations?
56f74c09a6d7ea1400e17174
terminating the treaty itself
265
False
Who may invoke a material breach committed by a party to a treaty to suspend their obligations to that party?
56f74c09a6d7ea1400e17175
the other parties
71
False
What temporary actions can parties of a treaty take in response to a material violation of a party's obligations?
56f74c09a6d7ea1400e17176
suspending their obligations to that party
139
False
If a party has materially violated or breached its treaty obligations, the other parties may invoke this breach as grounds for temporarily suspending their obligations to that party under the treaty. A material breach may also be invoked as grounds for permanently terminating the treaty itself.
What might a tribunal or an arbiter be asked to determine regarding a breach of a treaty?
56f74dd9aef2371900625adf
the seriousness of a breach
216
False
Using what to determine the seriousness of a breach can prevent a party from prematurely suspending its obligations due to another party's alleged material breach?
56f74dd9aef2371900625ae0
a tribunal or other independent arbiter
264
False
Does a material breach necessarily suspend or terminate treaty relations?
56f74dd9aef2371900625ae1
does not
16
False
What determines whether a breach automatically suspends or terminates treaty relations?
56f74dd9aef2371900625ae2
how the other parties regard the breach and how they resolve to respond to it
101
False
A treaty breach does not necessarily affect treaty relations depending on how serious the other parties view the breach and what other factor?
56f74dd9aef2371900625ae3
how they resolve to respond to it
145
False
A treaty breach does not automatically suspend or terminate treaty relations, however. It depends on how the other parties regard the breach and how they resolve to respond to it. Sometimes treaties will provide for the seriousness of a breach to be determined by a tribunal or other independent arbiter. An advantage of such an arbiter is that it prevents a party from prematurely and perhaps wrongfully suspending or terminating its own obligations due to another's alleged material breach.
Some treaties contains provisions for what to happen if certain defined conditions are met?
56f74ffaa6d7ea1400e1719a
self-termination
42
False
What provision might a treaty include if it's meant to be only temporarily binding?
56f74ffaa6d7ea1400e1719b
set to expire on a given date
232
False
In addition to passing an expiration date, what might cause a treaty to self-terminate?
56f74ffaa6d7ea1400e1719c
certain defined conditions are met
115
False
What happens to a treaty that was designed to terminate under certain conditions when those conditions are actually met?
56f74ffaa6d7ea1400e1719d
automatically terminated
87
False
What may we assume the parties to a treaty intended the treaty's obligations to be if the treaty included an expiration date?
56f74ffaa6d7ea1400e1719e
temporarily binding
204
False
Treaties sometimes include provisions for self-termination, meaning that the treaty is automatically terminated if certain defined conditions are met. Some treaties are intended by the parties to be only temporarily binding and are set to expire on a given date. Other treaties may self-terminate if the treaty is meant to exist only under certain conditions.[citation needed]
What might result in a party to a treaty claiming a treaty should be terminated even absent an express provision for its termination?
56f75218aef2371900625b11
a fundamental change in circumstances
106
False
A party cannot base its claim of a fundamental change in circumstances if the change was brought about by what?
56f75218aef2371900625b12
its own breach of the treaty
432
False
The claim of a fundamental change in circumstances cannot be used to invalidate treaties that established or redrew what?
56f75218aef2371900625b13
political boundaries
543
False
The radical transformation of what aspect of the obligations between the parties is a necessary condition for a claim of a fundamental change in circumstances to terminate a treaty?
56f75218aef2371900625b14
the extent of obligations
277
False
In order to be considered a fundamental change, a change in circumstances must have been what at the time of the adoption of the treaty?
56f75218aef2371900625b15
unforeseen
176
False
A party may claim that a treaty should be terminated, even absent an express provision, if there has been a fundamental change in circumstances. Such a change is sufficient if unforeseen, if it undermined the “essential basis” of consent by a party, if it radically transforms the extent of obligations between the parties, and if the obligations are still to be performed. A party cannot base this claim on change brought about by its own breach of the treaty. This claim also cannot be used to invalidate treaties that established or redrew political boundaries.[citation needed]
The Islamic Prophet Muhammad carried out a siege against what tribe in February 624?
56f754cea6d7ea1400e171c4
the Banu Qaynuqa tribe
57
False
Muhammad ordered his followers to attack the Banu Qaynuqa Jews for allegedly breaking what treaty?
56f754cea6d7ea1400e171c5
the Constitution of Medina
241
False
Who's insistence led the Prophet Muhammad to expel the Banu Qaynuqa Jews instead of kill them?
56f754cea6d7ea1400e171c6
Abdullah ibn Ubayy
717
False
Pinning the clothes of a Muslim woman, which led to her being what, was the action that allegedly violated the Constitution of Medina?
56f754cea6d7ea1400e171c7
stripped naked
333
False
What chained actions resulted from the alleged violation of the Constitution of Medina by the Banu Qaynuqa Jews?
56f754cea6d7ea1400e171c8
revenge killings
472
False
The Islamic Prophet Muhammad carried out a siege against the Banu Qaynuqa tribe known as the Invasion of Banu Qaynuqa in February 624  Muhammad ordered his followers to attack the Banu Qaynuqa Jews for allegedly breaking the treaty known as the Constitution of Medina by pinning the clothes of a Muslim woman, which led to her being stripped naked As a result, a Muslim killed a Jew in retaliation, and the Jews in turn killed the Muslim man. This escalated to a chain of revenge killings, and enmity grew between Muslims and the Banu Qaynuqa, leading to the siege of their fortress.:122 The tribe eventually surrendered to Muhammad, who initially wanted to kill the members of Banu Qaynuqa but ultimately yielded to Abdullah ibn Ubayy's insistence and agreed to expel the Qaynuqa.
What angel, according to Muslim tradition, ordered Muhammad to order a siege on the Banu Qurayza?
56f756b2aef2371900625b25
Gabriel
173
False
Who claims Muhammad had a treaty with the Banu Qurayza that was torn apart?
56f756b2aef2371900625b26
Al-Waqidi
182
False
How many members of the Banu Qurayza were beheaded after surrendering to Muhammad and his followers according to Tabari and Ibn Hisham?
56f756b2aef2371900625b27
600-900
405
False
According to Sunni Hadith which members of the Banu Qurayza were beheaded after surrendering to Muhammad and his followers?
56f756b2aef2371900625b28
all Males and 1 woman
536
False
How many Muslims were killed during the invasion of Banu Qurayza?
56f756b2aef2371900625b29
Two
596
False
Muhammad also ordered another siege on the Banu Qurayza during the Invasion of Banu Qurayza, because according to Muslim tradition he had been ordered to do so by the angel Gabriel. Al-Waqidi claims Muhammad had a treaty with the tribe which was torn apart. Stillman and Watt deny the authenticity of al-Waqidi. Al-Waqidi has been frequently criticized by Muslim writers, who claim that he is unreliable. 600-900 members of the Banu Qurayza were beheaded after they surrendered (according to Tabari and Ibn Hisham). Another source says all Males and 1 woman beheaded (according to Sunni Hadith). Two Muslims were killed
When are most of the problems created that might result in an otherwise valid treaty being rejected as a binding international agreement?
56f75884a6d7ea1400e171e6
at the formation of the treaty
161
False
What treaties between Japan and Korea are examples of treaties that were declared null and void?
56f75884a6d7ea1400e171e7
the serial Japan-Korea treaties of 1905, 1907 and 1910
223
False
In what treaty were the serial Japan-Korea treaties of 1905, 1907, and 1910 confirmed as "already null and void?"
56f75884a6d7ea1400e171e8
the 1965 Treaty on Basic Relations between Japan and the Republic of Korea
348
False
Which two states signed a treaty that declared previous treaties between the two from 1905, 1907, and 1910 to be already void?
56f75884a6d7ea1400e171e9
Japan and the Republic of Korea
391
False
An otherwise valid and agreed upon treaty may be rejected as what for several reasons most of which involve problems created at the formation of a treaty?
56f75884a6d7ea1400e171ea
a binding international agreement
87
False
There are several reasons an otherwise valid and agreed upon treaty may be rejected as a binding international agreement, most of which involve problems created at the formation of the treaty.[citation needed] For example, the serial Japan-Korea treaties of 1905, 1907 and 1910 were protested; and they were confirmed as "already null and void" in the 1965 Treaty on Basic Relations between Japan and the Republic of Korea.
A party's consent to a treaty is invalid if it had been given by an agent or body without power to do so under what?
56f75adda6d7ea1400e171f8
that state's domestic law
111
False
For what does a strong presumption exist internationally that a head of state has acted within in entering into a treaty?
56f75adda6d7ea1400e171f9
his proper authority
433
False
What is required to invalidate a party's consent due to a reluctance to inquire into the internal affairs and processes of other states?
56f75adda6d7ea1400e171fa
a "manifest violation"
234
False
A manifest violation is required to invalidate a party's consent to a treaty due to a reluctance internationally to inquire into what aspects of other states?
56f75adda6d7ea1400e171fb
the internal affairs and processes
175
False
What might a party's consent to a treaty be considered if it has been given by an agent without the power under the state's domestic law to do so?
56f75adda6d7ea1400e171fc
invalid
33
False
A party's consent to a treaty is invalid if it had been given by an agent or body without power to do so under that state's domestic law. States are reluctant to inquire into the internal affairs and processes of other states, and so a "manifest violation" is required such that it would be "objectively evident to any State dealing with the matter". A strong presumption exists internationally that a head of state has acted within his proper authority. It seems that no treaty has ever actually been invalidated on this provision.[citation needed]
If a state's representative ignored restrictions he is subject to by his sovereign, what might that state's consent to a treaty be considered to be?
56f75cbfaef2371900625b55
invalid
16
False
Who might place restrictions on a representative during negotiation of a treaty?
56f75cbfaef2371900625b56
his sovereign
104
False
What must be true of the ignored restrictions placed on a representative by his sovereign in order for a state's consent to a treaty to be considered invalid?
56f75cbfaef2371900625b57
the other parties to the treaty were notified of those restrictions prior to his signing
146
False
Who must have been notified of the ignored restrictions placed by a sovereign on his representative prior to the signing of a treaty in order for a state's consent to be considered invalid?
56f75cbfaef2371900625b58
the other parties
146
False
Consent is also invalid if it is given by a representative who ignored restrictions he is subject to by his sovereign during the negotiations, if the other parties to the treaty were notified of those restrictions prior to his signing.[citation needed]
The preamble of what states that treaties are a source of international law?
56f75e62aef2371900625b67
The Law of Treaties
29
False
Which will prevail in a conflict between international and domestic law?
56f75e62aef2371900625b68
international law
296
False
What are started to be a source of international law in the preamble in The Law of Treaties?
56f75e62aef2371900625b69
treaties
50
False
Approval under what law will not make an act or lack thereof legal if condemned under international law?
56f75e62aef2371900625b6a
internal law
225
False
An act or lack thereof cannot be made legal under what law even if made legal under internal law?
56f75e62aef2371900625b6b
international law
296
False
According to the preamble in The Law of Treaties, treaties are a source of international law. If an act or lack thereof is condemned under international law, the act will not assume international legality even if approved by internal law. This means that in case of a conflict with domestic law, international law will always prevail.
Which articles of the Vienna Convention on the Law of Treaties set out the ways that treaties can be invalidated?
56f76011a6d7ea1400e17216
Articles 46–53
0
False
In addition to the circumstances by which a state party joined a treaty, why might a treaty be invalidated?
56f76011a6d7ea1400e17217
the content of the treaty itself
290
False
In addition to the content of the treaty itself, why might a treated by invalidated?
56f76011a6d7ea1400e17218
the circumstances by which a state party joined the treaty
220
False
A treaty might be considered what if it's considered unenforceable and void under international law?
56f76011a6d7ea1400e17219
invalidated
106
False
Which processes simply alter the consent given by parties to a previously valid treaty rather than invalidating the consent completely?
56f76011a6d7ea1400e1721a
withdrawal, suspension, or termination
354
False
Articles 46–53 of the Vienna Convention on the Law of Treaties set out the only ways that treaties can be invalidated—considered unenforceable and void under international law. A treaty will be invalidated due to either the circumstances by which a state party joined the treaty, or due to the content of the treaty itself. Invalidation is separate from withdrawal, suspension, or termination (addressed above), which all involve an alteration in the consent of the parties of a previously valid treaty rather than the invalidation of that consent in the first place.
What on behalf of a state cannot invalidate that state's consent to a treaty?
56f7e9f4a6d7ea1400e172af
own conduct
265
False
Consent to a treaty will not be invalidated if what should have been evident?
56f7e9f4a6d7ea1400e172b0
the truth
284
False
What may be invalidated if there was an erroneous understanding of a fact or situation at the time of conclusion of a treaty?
56f7e9f4a6d7ea1400e172b1
A state's consent
0
False
An erroneous understanding of a fact or situation may only invalidate a state's consent to a treaty if what is also true about the erroneous understanding?
56f7e9f4a6d7ea1400e172b2
formed the "essential basis" of the state's consent
133
False
What, if it formed the "essential basis" of a state's consent to a treaty, may invalidate that consent?
56f7e9f4a6d7ea1400e172b3
an erroneous understanding of a fact or situation
50
False
A state's consent may be invalidated if there was an erroneous understanding of a fact or situation at the time of conclusion, which formed the "essential basis" of the state's consent. Consent will not be invalidated if the misunderstanding was due to the state's own conduct, or if the truth should have been evident.
What type of conduct of a party to a treaty can invalidate the consent of another party?
56f7eb38a6d7ea1400e172c3
fraudulent conduct
58
False
What type of action, either direct or indirect, of a state's representative by another type of party to a treaty can invalidate a state's consent?
56f7eb38a6d7ea1400e172c4
corruption
125
False
Coercion of a representative or a state itself will result in what happening to its consent to a treaty?
56f7eb38a6d7ea1400e172c5
invalidate that consent
346
False
Coercion of a state or its what through the threat or use of force, if used to obtain the consent of that state to a treaty, will invalidate that consent?
56f7eb38a6d7ea1400e172c6
representative
212
False
What must  be true of coercion through the threat or use of force of a party to treaty for it to invalidate the state's consent to a treaty?
56f7eb38a6d7ea1400e172c7
used to obtain the consent of that state to a treaty
287
False
Consent will also be invalidated if it was induced by the fraudulent conduct of another party, or by the direct or indirect "corruption" of its representative by another party to the treaty. Coercion of either a representative, or the state itself through the threat or use of force, if used to obtain the consent of that state to a treaty, will invalidate that consent.
What will a treaty be if it is in violation of a peremptory norm?
56f7ece0aef2371900625c60
null and void
12
False
What type of norm is recognized as permitting no violations and so cannot be altered through treaty obligations?
56f7ece0aef2371900625c61
peremptory norm
53
False
What is true of acts such as genocide and piracy in regard to treaty law?
56f7ece0aef2371900625c62
no state can legally assume an obligation to commit or permit such acts
495
False
What distinguishes peremptory norms from other principles of customary law?
56f7ece0aef2371900625c63
permitting no violations and so cannot be altered through treaty obligations
143
False
What is an example of a type of universally prohibited action that no state can legally assume an obligation to commit or permit through a treaty?
56f7ece0aef2371900625c64
genocide
327
False
A treaty is null and void if it is in violation of a peremptory norm. These norms, unlike other principles of customary law, are recognized as permitting no violations and so cannot be altered through treaty obligations. These are limited to such universally accepted prohibitions as those against the aggressive use of force, genocide and other crimes against humanity, piracy, hostilities directed at civilian population, racial discrimination and apartheid, slavery and torture, meaning that no state can legally assume an obligation to commit or permit such acts.
What is the judiciary organ of the United Nations?
56f7ee11aef2371900625c6a
the International Court of Justice
139
False
What document states that treaties must be registered with the United Nations to be invoked before it or enforced in the International Court of Justice?
56f7ee11aef2371900625c6b
The United Nations Charter
0
False
Why does the United Nations Charter state that treaties must be registered with the United Nations?
56f7ee11aef2371900625c6c
to prevent the proliferation of secret treaties
189
False
In which centuries did a proliferation of secret treaties occur that led the United Nations Charter to include an obligation to register treaties to be invoked before it?
56f7ee11aef2371900625c6d
19th and 20th century
258
False
What section of the United Nations Charter states that its members' obligation under the charter outweigh any competing obligations under other treaties?
56f7ee11aef2371900625c6e
Section 103
281
False
The United Nations Charter states that treaties must be registered with the UN to be invoked before it or enforced in its judiciary organ, the International Court of Justice. This was done to prevent the proliferation of secret treaties that occurred in the 19th and 20th century. Section 103 of the Charter also states that its members' obligations under it outweigh any competing obligations under other treaties.
Treaties and their amendments must follow the official legal procedures of what body after their adoption?
56f7ef08a6d7ea1400e172e1
the United Nations
107
False
Which office of the United Nations is in charge of applying its official legal procedures?
56f7ef08a6d7ea1400e172e2
the Office of Legal Affairs
141
False
When must all treaties and their amendments follow the official legal procedures of the United Nations?
56f7ef08a6d7ea1400e172e3
After their adoption
0
False
In addition to signature and ratification, what legal procedure of the United Nations must all treaties follow after their adoption?
56f7ef08a6d7ea1400e172e4
entry into force
208
False
What are three official legal procedures of the United Nations that all treaties must follow after their adoption?
56f7ef08a6d7ea1400e172e5
signature, ratification and entry into force
180
False
After their adoption, treaties as well as their amendments have to follow the official legal procedures of the United Nations, as applied by the Office of Legal Affairs, including signature, ratification and entry into force.
The United Nations has been compared to what government in function and effectiveness?
56f7f0b9aef2371900625c88
the pre-Constitutional United States Federal government
59
False
In which aspects has the United Nations been compared to the pre-Constitutional United States Federal government?
56f7f0b9aef2371900625c89
function and effectiveness
3
False
The comparison of the United Nations to the pre-Constitutional United States Federal government gives us a comparison between what modern and historical legal topics of interest?
56f7f0b9aef2371900625c8a
modern treaty law and the historical Articles of Confederation
169
False
Modern treaty law can be compared in function and effectiveness to the historical Articles of Confederation by comparing the pre-Constitutional United States Federal government with what modern institution?
56f7f0b9aef2371900625c8b
the UN
31
False
What legal document formed the basis of the pre-Constitutional Federal government of the United States?
56f7f0b9aef2371900625c8c
Articles of Confederation
206
False
In function and effectiveness, the UN has been compared to the pre-Constitutional United States Federal government by some[citation needed], giving a comparison between modern treaty law and the historical Articles of Confederation.
What part of the Brazilian federal consitution states that the power to enter into treaties is vested in the president and that such treaties must be approved by Congress?
56f7f1d8a6d7ea1400e172f5
articles 84, clause VIII, and 49, clause I
160
False
In practice the Brazilian president must get the prior approval of what body in order to negotiate and sign a treaty?
56f7f1d8a6d7ea1400e172f6
Congress
400
False
What Brazilian institution has ruled that a treaty must be incorporated into domestic law by means of a presidential decree?
56f7f1d8a6d7ea1400e172f7
the Federal Supreme Court
424
False
In order for a treaty to be valid in Brazil, a presidential decree incorporating the treaty into domestic law must be published where in order to be valid?
56f7f1d8a6d7ea1400e172f8
the federal register
606
False
In what office is the power to enter into treaties vested according to the Brazilian federal constitution?
56f7f1d8a6d7ea1400e172f9
president
97
False
The Brazilian federal constitution states that the power to enter into treaties is vested in the president and that such treaties must be approved by Congress (articles 84, clause VIII, and 49, clause I). In practice, this has been interpreted as meaning that the executive branch is free to negotiate and sign a treaty, but its ratification by the president is contingent upon the prior approval of Congress. Additionally, the Federal Supreme Court has ruled that, following ratification and entry into force, a treaty must be incorporated into domestic law by means of a presidential decree published in the federal register in order to be valid in Brazil and applicable by the Brazilian authorities.
The Brazilian Federal Supreme Court has ruled that treaties enjoy what position relative to ordinary legislation?
56f7f36daef2371900625cba
same hierarchical position
107
False
In what year did the Brazilian Supreme Court rule that treaties containing human rights provisions enjoy a status above ordinary legislation?
56f7f36daef2371900625cbb
2008
257
False
What amendment to the Brazilian constitution states that human rights treaties approved by means of a special procedure by Congress enjoy the same position as a constitutional amendment?
56f7f36daef2371900625cbc
the 45th amendment
480
False
The hierarchical position of treaties relative to domestic legislation in Brazil determines whether the latter can do what to the former and vice versa?
56f7f36daef2371900625cbd
abrogate
817
False
What is the Portuguese term for ordinary laws?
56f7f36daef2371900625cbe
leis ordinárias
159
False
The Federal Supreme Court has established that treaties are subject to constitutional review and enjoy the same hierarchical position as ordinary legislation (leis ordinárias, or "ordinary laws", in Portuguese). A more recent ruling by the Supreme Court in 2008 has altered that scheme somewhat, by stating that treaties containing human rights provisions enjoy a status above that of ordinary legislation, though they remain beneath the constitution itself. Additionally, as per the 45th amendment to the constitution, human rights treaties which are approved by Congress by means of a special procedure enjoy the same hierarchical position as a constitutional amendment. The hierarchical position of treaties in relation to domestic legislation is of relevance to the discussion on whether (and how) the latter can abrogate the former and vice versa.
What kind of clause does the United States constitution have that the Brazilian constitution does not have with the same effects?
56f7f497a6d7ea1400e17313
supremacy clause
51
False
A supremacy clause in a federal constitution is relevant to the discussion on the relation between treaties and what other type of legislation?
56f7f497a6d7ea1400e17314
state legislation
209
False
What clause of the United States Constitution is relevant to the discussion of the relation between treaties and U.S. legislation?
56f7f497a6d7ea1400e17315
supremacy clause
51
False
The Brazilian constitution does not have a supremacy clause that would be of interest to the relation between state legislation and what other legal agreements?
56f7f497a6d7ea1400e17316
treaties
196
False
The Brazilian federal constitution does not have a supremacy clause with the same effects as the one on the U.S. constitution, a fact that is of interest to the discussion on the relation between treaties and state legislation.
Treaties, executive agreements, congressional-executive agreements, and sole executive agreements are the same under international law but different with respect to what?
56f7f5e9aef2371900625ce8
internal American law
377
False
Under US law, what primarily distinguishes treaties, executive agreements, congressional-executive agreements, and sole executive agreements?
56f7f5e9aef2371900625ce9
their method of approval
442
False
What percentage of United States Senators must give advice and consent in order for the US to enter a treaty?
56f7f5e9aef2371900625cea
two-thirds
515
False
What type of agreement may a US president enter by acting alone?
56f7f5e9aef2371900625ceb
sole executive agreements
551
False
What type of agreement requires majority approval by both the House and the Senate before or after a treaty is signed by the United States president?
56f7f5e9aef2371900625cec
congressional-executive agreements
778
False
In the United States, the term "treaty" has a different, more restricted legal sense than exists in international law. United States law distinguishes what it calls treaties from executive agreement, congressional-executive agreements, and sole executive agreements. All four classes are equally treaties under international law; they are distinct only from the perspective of internal American law. The distinctions are primarily concerning their method of approval. Whereas treaties require advice and consent by two-thirds of the Senators present, sole executive agreements may be executed by the President acting alone. Some treaties grant the President the authority to fill in the gaps with executive agreements, rather than additional treaties or protocols. And finally, congressional-executive agreements require majority approval by both the House and the Senate, either before or after the treaty is signed by the President.
In the United States, what is the ratio of executive agreements to treaties?
56f7f7dea6d7ea1400e1732f
10:1
106
False
What is it about the approval process of executive agreements might lead a US president to prefer them over treaties?
56f7f7dea6d7ea1400e17330
the relative ease
120
False
The president of the United States might prefer the formal treaty process on matters that require Congress to do what?
56f7f7dea6d7ea1400e17331
pass implementing legislation or appropriate funds
340
False
The president of the United States might prefer the formal treaty process for agreements that impose what type of legal obligations on the US?
56f7f7dea6d7ea1400e17332
long-term, complex
425
False
The international deal between the US, other countries, and what controversial nation is not a treaty?
56f7f7dea6d7ea1400e17333
Iran
528
False
Currently, international agreements are executed by executive agreement rather than treaties at a rate of 10:1. Despite the relative ease of executive agreements, the President still often chooses to pursue the formal treaty process over an executive agreement in order to gain congressional support on matters that require the Congress to pass implementing legislation or appropriate funds, and those agreements that impose long-term, complex legal obligations on the United States. For example, the deal by the United States, Iran and other countries is not a Treaty.
In what cases did the US Supreme Court rule that treaties do not have a privileged position over Acts of Congress?
56f7f923aef2371900625d0e
Head Money Cases
31
False
The US Supreme Court ruled that treaties can be repealed or modified by what for the purposes of US law?
56f7f923aef2371900625d0f
Act of Congress
201
False
What Supreme Court case ruled that a treaty provision that conflicts with the US Constitution is null and void under US law?
56f7f923aef2371900625d10
Reid v. Covert
288
False
The US Supreme Court ruled that treaties can be repealed or modified for the purposes of US law just like what by any subsequent Act of Congress?
56f7f923aef2371900625d11
any other regular law
233
False
Any treaty provision that conflicts with the US Constitution is considered what under US law?
56f7f923aef2371900625d12
null and void
370
False
The Supreme Court ruled in the Head Money Cases that "treaties" do not have a privileged position over Acts of Congress and can be repealed or modified (for the purposes of U.S. law) by any subsequent Act of Congress, just like with any other regular law. The Supreme Court also ruled in Reid v. Covert that any treaty provision that conflicts with the Constitution are null and void under U.S. law.
Into what 3 lists are legislation subjects divided in India?
56f7fa5da6d7ea1400e1734b
Union List, State List and Concurrent List
61
False
What type of legislative subjects can both the central legislative body and state legislatures make laws?
56f7fa5da6d7ea1400e1734c
Concurrent subjects
338
False
What is the central legislative body in India?
56f7fa5da6d7ea1400e1734d
Parliament of India
231
False
In order to implement international treaties, for what subjects can the Parliament of India legislate to override the general division of subject lists?
56f7fa5da6d7ea1400e1734e
any subject
465
False
What subjects can only be legislated by the central legislative body in India?
56f7fa5da6d7ea1400e1734f
the subjects in Union list
141
False
In India, the legislation subjects are divided into 3 lists -Union List, State List and Concurrent List . In the normal legislation process, the subjects in Union list can only be legislated upon by central legislative body called Parliament of India, for subjects in state list only respective state legislature can legislate. While for Concurrent subjects, both center and state can make laws. But to implement international treaties, Parliament can legislate on any subject overriding the general division of subject lists.
What formed an important part of European colonization?
56f7fb59aef2371900625d22
Treaties
0
False
With whom did Europeans attempt to sign treaties in order to legitimize their sovereignty during colonization?
56f7fb59aef2371900625d23
indigenous peoples
169
False
What terms in relation to Europeans did most indigenous people enjoy under treaties?
56f7fb59aef2371900625d24
extremely disadvantageous terms
226
False
What aspect of the treaties that indigenous people signed with Europeans did the indigenous people typically not understand?
56f7fb59aef2371900625d25
the implications
309
False
What did Europeans try to legitimize all over the world by signing treaties with indigenous people?
56f7fb59aef2371900625d26
their sovereignty
126
False
Treaties formed an important part of European colonization and, in many parts of the world, Europeans attempted to legitimize their sovereignty by signing treaties with indigenous peoples. In most cases these treaties were in extremely disadvantageous terms to the native people, who often did not appreciate the implications of what they were signing.
In what two rare cases were local governments able to mitigate the impact of of European colonization through treaties?
56f7fcbdaef2371900625d2c
Ethiopia and Qing Dynasty China
33
False
What did Ethiopians learn in order to use treaties to prevent a European power from overstepping their agreement?
56f7fcbdaef2371900625d2d
the intricacies of European diplomatic customs
199
False
Both Ethiopia and Qing Dynasty China learned the intricacies of European diplomatic customs to mitigate what through treaties?
56f7fcbdaef2371900625d2e
the impact of European colonization
139
False
In addition to preventing a power from overstepping their agreement, how was Ethiopia able to mitigate the impact of European colonization?
56f7fcbdaef2371900625d2f
by playing different powers against each other
330
False
Ethiopia and Qing Dynasty China were both able to prevent European powers from doing what to their agreements?
56f7fcbeaef2371900625d30
overstepping
298
False
In some rare cases, such as with Ethiopia and Qing Dynasty China, the local governments were able to use the treaties to at least mitigate the impact of European colonization. This involved learning the intricacies of European diplomatic customs and then using the treaties to prevent a power from overstepping their agreement or by playing different powers against each other.
What were native peoples able to maintain a minimum amount of through treaties?
56f7fdf7aef2371900625d40
autonomy
112
False
What indigenous people of New Zealand entered into a treaty entitling Europeans to land ownership?
56f7fdf7aef2371900625d41
Māori
177
False
What doctrine was overturned by Mabo v Queensland establishing the concept of native title?
56f7fdf7aef2371900625d42
terra nullius
324
False
The concept of native title was established by what court case?
56f7fdf7aef2371900625d43
Mabo v Queensland
359
False
Treaties between indigenous peoples and what other groups formed an important part of political discourse in the late 20th and early 21st century?
56f7fdf7aef2371900625d44
colonizers
495
False
In other cases, such as New Zealand and Canada, treaties allowed native peoples to maintain a minimum amount of autonomy. In the case of indigenous Australians, unlike with the Māori of New Zealand, no treaty was ever entered into with the indigenous peoples entitling the Europeans to land ownership, under the doctrine of terra nullius (later overturned by Mabo v Queensland, establishing the concept of native title well after colonization was already a fait accompli). Such treaties between colonizers and indigenous peoples are an important part of political discourse in the late 20th and early 21st century, the treaties being discussed have international standing as has been stated in a treaty study by the UN.
What legislative act provided that no Indian nation shall be acknowledged as an independent nation with whom the United States may contract by treaty?
56f7ff5faef2371900625d54
Indian Appropriations Act of March 3, 1871
113
False
By what did the US federal government provide contractual relations with Indian tribes following the Indian Appropriations Act of March 3, 1871?
56f7ff5faef2371900625d55
agreements, statutes, and executive orders
542
False
Prior to what year did the United States regularly enter into treaties with Native Americans?
56f7ff5faef2371900625d56
1871
9
False
A rider to the Indian Appropriations Act of 1871 provided that no Indian nation shall be acknowledged as what?
56f7ff5faef2371900625d57
an independent nation, tribe, or power
340
False
A rider to the Indian Appropriations Act of 1871 provided that the US government could not do what with an Indian nation?
56f7ff5faef2371900625d58
contract by treaty
411
False
Prior to 1871, the government of the United States regularly entered into treaties with Native Americans but the Indian Appropriations Act of March 3, 1871 (ch. 120, 16 Stat. 563) had a rider (25 U.S.C. § 71) attached that effectively ended the President’s treaty making by providing that no Indian nation or tribe shall be acknowledged as an independent nation, tribe, or power with whom the United States may contract by treaty. The federal government continued to provide similar contractual relations with the Indian tribes after 1871 by agreements, statutes, and executive orders.
Josip_Broz_Tito
In what year did Josip Broz Tito die?
56f71177711bf01900a4490a
1980
221
False
During World War II what resistance movement did he lead?
56f71177711bf01900a4490b
the Partisans,
268
False
For what country is Tito viewed as  unifying figure?
56f71177711bf01900a4490c
Yugoslavia
627
False
In the Non-Aligned Movement, which Egyptian leader did Tito work with?
56f71177711bf01900a4490d
Gamal Abdel Nasser
911
False
In the Non-Aligned Movement, which Indonesian leader did Tito work with?
56f71177711bf01900a4490e
Sukarno
943
False
Josip Broz Tito (Cyrillic: Јосип Броз Тито, pronounced [jǒsip brôːz tîto]; born Josip Broz; 7 May 1892[nb 1] – 4 May 1980) was a Yugoslav revolutionary and statesman, serving in various roles from 1943 until his death in 1980. During World War II he was the leader of the Partisans, often regarded as the most effective resistance movement in occupied Europe. While his presidency has been criticized as authoritarian, and concerns about the repression of political opponents have been raised, Tito was "seen by most as a benevolent dictator" due to his economic and diplomatic policies. He was a popular public figure both in Yugoslavia and abroad. Viewed as a unifying symbol, his internal policies maintained the peaceful coexistence of the nations of the Yugoslav federation. He gained further international attention as the chief leader of the Non-Aligned Movement, working with Jawaharlal Nehru of India, Gamal Abdel Nasser of Egypt and Sukarno of Indonesia.
What position in the League of Communists of Yugoslavia was Tito?
56f7144e711bf01900a44914
General Secretary
7
False
What position in Yugoslavia's government did Tito hold from 1944-63?
56f7144e711bf01900a44915
Prime Minister
229
False
How many foreign decorations did he receive?
56f7144e711bf01900a44916
98
623
False
What foreign decorations did Tito recieve?
56f7144e711bf01900a44917
Legion of Honour and the Order of the Bath
661
False
During what years did Tito lead the Partisans?
56f7144e711bf01900a44918
1941–45
193
False
He was General Secretary (later Chairman of the Presidium) of the League of Communists of Yugoslavia (1939–80), and went on to lead the World War II Yugoslav guerrilla movement, the Partisans (1941–45). After the war, he was the Prime Minister (1944–63), President (later President for Life) (1953–80) of the Socialist Federal Republic of Yugoslavia (SFRY). From 1943 to his death in 1980, he held the rank of Marshal of Yugoslavia, serving as the supreme commander of the Yugoslav military, the Yugoslav People's Army (JNA). With a highly favourable reputation abroad in both Cold War blocs, Josip Broz Tito received some 98 foreign decorations, including the Legion of Honour and the Order of the Bath.
What ethnicity was Tito's mother?
56f714ef711bf01900a4491e
Slovene
42
False
What ethnicity was Tito's father?
56f714ef711bf01900a4491f
Croat
25
False
Who captured him during World War I?
56f714ef711bf01900a44920
the Imperial Russians
277
False
Tito joined which unit in Omsk?
56f714ef711bf01900a44921
Red Guard
434
False
What party in Yugoslavia did he join?
56f714ef711bf01900a44922
Communist Party
567
False
Josip Broz was born to a Croat father and Slovene mother in the village of Kumrovec, Croatia. Drafted into military service, he distinguished himself, becoming the youngest Sergeant Major in the Austro-Hungarian Army of that time. After being seriously wounded and captured by the Imperial Russians during World War I, Josip was sent to a work camp in the Ural Mountains. He participated in the October Revolution, and later joined a Red Guard unit in Omsk. Upon his return home, Broz found himself in the newly established Kingdom of Yugoslavia, where he joined the Communist Party of Yugoslavia (KPJ).
When did the second Yugoslavia start?
56f715e43d8e2e1400e3732c
1943
95
False
What group did Tito found?
56f715e43d8e2e1400e3732d
Cominform
262
False
When did Tito implement a self-management system that differentiated Yugoslavia from other socialist coutnries?
56f715e43d8e2e1400e3732e
1951
418
False
When did Yugoslavia disintegrate?
56f715e43d8e2e1400e37330
1991
884
False
Tito was the chief architect of the second Yugoslavia, a socialist federation that lasted from 1943 to 1991–92. Despite being one of the founders of Cominform, soon he became the first Cominform member to defy Soviet hegemony and the only one to manage to leave Cominform and begin with its own socialist program. Tito was a backer of independent roads to socialism (sometimes referred to as "national communism"). In 1951 he implemented a self-management system that differentiated Yugoslavia from other socialist countries. A turn towards a model of market socialism brought economic expansion in the 1950s and 1960s and a decline during the 1970s. His internal policies included the suppression of nationalist sentiment and the promotion of the "brotherhood and unity" of the six Yugoslav nations. After Tito's death in 1980, tensions between the Yugoslav republics emerged and in 1991 the country disintegrated and went into a series of wars and unrest that lasted the rest of the decade, and which continue to impact most of the former Yugoslav republics. He remains a very controversial figure in the Balkans.
Where was Josip Broz born?
56f7165e3d8e2e1400e37336
Kumrovec
37
False
In what year was Broz born?
56f7165e3d8e2e1400e37337
1892
29
False
What ethnicity was Broz's father?
56f7165e3d8e2e1400e37338
Croat
246
False
What ethnicity was Broz's mother?
56f7165e3d8e2e1400e37339
Slovene
318
False
What grade did he fail?
56f7165e3d8e2e1400e3733a
2nd
560
False
Josip Broz was born on 7 May 1892 in Kumrovec, in the northern Croatian region of Hrvatsko Zagorje in Austria-Hungary.[nb 1] He was the seventh child of Franjo and Marija Broz. His father, Franjo Broz (26 November 1860 – 16 December 1936), was a Croat, while his mother Marija (25 March 1864 – 14 January 1918), was a Slovene. His parents were married on 21 January 1891. After spending part of his childhood years with his maternal grandfather Martin Javeršek in the Slovenian village of Podsreda, he entered primary school in 1900 at Kumrovec, he failed the 2nd grade and graduated in 1905. In 1907 he moved out of the rural environment and started working as a machinist's apprentice in Sisak. There, he became aware of the labour movement and celebrated 1 May – Labour Day for the first time. In 1910, he joined the union of metallurgy workers and at the same time the Social-Democratic Party of Croatia and Slavonia. Between 1911 and 1913, Broz worked for shorter periods in Kamnik (1911–1912, factory "Titan"), Cenkov, Munich and Mannheim, where he worked for the Benz car factory; then he went to Wiener Neustadt, Austria, and worked as a test driver for Daimler.
When was he conscripted into the army?
56f71780711bf01900a4493c
1913
17
False
What position in the army did he become after office school?
56f71780711bf01900a4493d
sergeant
141
False
What competition did he win a silver medal in?
56f71780711bf01900a4493e
fencing
254
False
For what crime was he arrested?
56f71780711bf01900a4493f
anti-war propaganda
374
False
Where was Tito serioiusly wounded and captured by the Russians at?
56f71780711bf01900a44940
Bukovina
825
False
In the autumn of 1913, he was conscripted into the Austro-Hungarian Army. He was sent to a school for non-commissioned officers and became a sergeant, serving in the 25th Croatian Regiment based in Zagreb. In May 1914, Broz won a silver medal at an army fencing competition in Budapest. At the outbreak of World War I in 1914, he was sent to Ruma, where he was arrested for anti-war propaganda and imprisoned in the Petrovaradin fortress. In January 1915, he was sent to the Eastern Front in Galicia to fight against Russia. He distinguished himself as a capable soldier, becoming the youngest Sergeant Major in the Austro-Hungarian Army. For his bravery in the face of the enemy, he was recommended for the Silver Bravery Medal but was taken prisoner of war before it could be formally presented. On 25 March 1915, while in Bukovina, he was seriously wounded and captured by the Russians.
How long was Broz in the hospital?
56f71800711bf01900a44946
13 months
6
False
Where was Broz's work camp?
56f71800711bf01900a44947
Ural Mountains
69
False
What position was he selected for at work camp?
56f71800711bf01900a44948
camp leader
123
False
Where did Broz flee to after a White counteroffensive?
56f71800711bf01900a44949
Kirgiziya
787
False
Where did Broz marry Belousova?
56f71800711bf01900a4494a
Omsk
826
False
After 13 months at the hospital, Broz was sent to a work camp in the Ural Mountains where prisoners selected him for their camp leader. In February 1917, revolting workers broke into the prison and freed the prisoners. Broz subsequently joined a Bolshevik group. In April 1917, he was arrested again but managed to escape and participate in the July Days demonstrations in Petrograd (St. Petersburg) on 16–17 July 1917. On his way to Finland, Broz was caught and imprisoned in the Peter and Paul Fortress for three weeks. He was again sent to Kungur, but escaped from the train. He hid with a Russian family in Omsk, Siberia where he met his future wife Pelagija Belousova. After the October Revolution, he joined a Red Guard unit in Omsk. Following a White counteroffensive, he fled to Kirgiziya and subsequently returned to Omsk, where he married Belousova. In the spring of 1918, he joined the Yugoslav section of the Russian Communist Party. By June of the same year, Broz left Omsk to find work and support his family, and was employed as a mechanic near Omsk for a year.
How many seats did the Communists win in 1920 Yugoslavia?
56f718d33d8e2e1400e37340
59
316
False
Who was elected mayor of Zagreb after the Communists won 59 parliamentary seats?
56f718d33d8e2e1400e37341
Svetozar Delić
487
False
Where did Broz move in 1921?
56f718d33d8e2e1400e37342
Veliko Trojstvo
891
False
How long was he in prison at Lepoglava for?
56f718d33d8e2e1400e37343
five years
1570
False
Who became his ideological mentor in prison?
56f718d33d8e2e1400e37344
Moša Pijade,
1608
False
In January 1920, Tito and his wife made a long and difficult journey home to Yugoslavia where he arrived in September. Upon his return, Broz joined the Communist Party of Yugoslavia. The CPY's influence on the political life of the Kingdom of Yugoslavia was growing rapidly. In the 1920 elections the Communists won 59 seats in the parliament and became the third strongest party. Winning numerous local elections, they gained a stronghold in the second largest city of Zagreb, electing Svetozar Delić for mayor. After the assassination of Milorad Drašković, the Yugoslav Minister of the Interior, by a young communist on 2 August 1921, the CPY was declared illegal under the Yugoslav State Security Act of 1921. During 1920 and 1921 all Communist-won mandates were nullified. Broz continued his work underground despite pressure on Communists from the government. As 1921 began he moved to Veliko Trojstvo near Bjelovar and found work as a machinist. In 1925, Broz moved to Kraljevica where he started working at a shipyard. He was elected as a union leader and a year later he led a shipyard strike. He was fired and moved to Belgrade, where he worked in a train coach factory in Smederevska Palanka. He was elected as Workers' Commissary but was fired as soon as his CPY membership was revealed. Broz then moved to Zagreb, where he was appointed secretary of Metal Workers' Union of Croatia. In 1928, he became the Zagreb Branch Secretary of the CPY. In the same year he was arrested, tried in court for his illegal communist activities, and sent to jail. During his five years at Lepoglava prison he met Moša Pijade, who became his ideological mentor. After his release, he lived incognito and assumed numerous noms de guerre, among them "Walter" and "Tito".
When was Tito sent to Vienna?
56f71a5e3d8e2e1400e3735a
1934
3
False
Who did Stalin have murdered in 1937?
56f71a5e3d8e2e1400e3735b
Milan Gorkić
771
False
Where was the Secretary-General of the CPY murdered?
56f71a5e3d8e2e1400e3735c
Moscow
797
False
Who became Secretary-General of the CPY after the prior one was murdered?
56f71a5e3d8e2e1400e3735d
Tito
818
False
Who is known as "Comrade Walter"?
56f71a5e3d8e2e1400e3735e
Tito
656
False
In 1934 the Zagreb Provincial Committee sent Tito to Vienna where all the Central Committee of the Communist Party of Yugoslavia had sought refuge. He was appointed to the Committee and started to appoint allies to him, among them Edvard Kardelj, Milovan Đilas, Aleksandar Ranković and Boris Kidrič. In 1935, Tito travelled to the Soviet Union, working for a year in the Balkans section of Comintern. He was a member of the Soviet Communist Party and the Soviet secret police (NKVD). Tito was also involved in recruiting for the Dimitrov Battalion, a group of volunteers serving in the Spanish Civil War. In 1936, the Comintern sent "Comrade Walter" (i.e. Tito) back to Yugoslavia to purge the Communist Party there. In 1937, Stalin had the Secretary-General of the CPY, Milan Gorkić, murdered in Moscow. Subsequently Tito was appointed Secretary-General of the still-outlawed CPY.
When did German forces launch an invasion of Yugoslavia?
56f71ca1711bf01900a4497c
6 April 1941
3
False
Which king fled the country in 1941?
56f71ca1711bf01900a4497d
King Peter II
413
False
What did Tito use to get the people to unit in a battle against the occupation in 1941?
56f71ca1711bf01900a4497e
pamphlet
662
False
What position was Tito appointed to in 1941 by the Central Committee?
56f71ca1711bf01900a4497f
Chief of all project national liberation military forces.
842
False
In 1941, where did representatives of the government and military meet with German officials?
56f71ca1711bf01900a44980
Belgrade
575
False
On 6 April 1941, German forces, with Hungarian and Italian assistance, launched an invasion of Yugoslavia. On 10 April 1941, Slavko Kvaternik proclaimed the Independent State of Croatia, and Tito responded by forming a Military Committee within the Central Committee of the Yugoslav Communist Party. Attacked from all sides, the armed forces of the Kingdom of Yugoslavia quickly crumbled. On 17 April 1941, after King Peter II and other members of the government fled the country, the remaining representatives of the government and military met with the German officials in Belgrade. They quickly agreed to end military resistance. On 1 May 1941, Tito issued a pamphlet calling on the people to unite in a battle against the occupation. On 27 June 1941, the Central Committee of the Communist Party of Yugoslavia appointed Tito Commander in Chief of all project national liberation military forces. On 1 July 1941, the Comintern sent precise instructions calling for immediate action.
Who succeeded in liberating territory despite conflicts?
56f71d1c3d8e2e1400e37364
Partisans
68
False
Who did the Partisans have conflicts with?
56f71d1c3d8e2e1400e37365
Chetnik movement
43
False
Which Chetnik leader did Tito hold talks with?
56f71d1c3d8e2e1400e37366
Draža Mihailović
202
False
Which group did Tito order his forces to assist?
56f71d1c3d8e2e1400e37367
escaping Jews,
306
False
2000 of what group fought directly for Tito?
56f71d1c3d8e2e1400e37368
Jews
346
False
Despite conflicts with the rival monarchic Chetnik movement, Tito's Partisans succeeded in liberating territory, notably the "Republic of Užice". During this period, Tito held talks with Chetnik leader Draža Mihailović on 19 September and 27 October 1941. It is said that Tito ordered his forces to assist escaping Jews, and that more than 2,000 Jews fought directly for Tito.
When did the Partisans create the First Proletarian Brigade?
56f71e4d711bf01900a4499a
1941
15
False
When did Tito create the Second Proletarian Brigade?
56f71e4d711bf01900a4499b
1942
116
False
What position was Tito named to for the National Committee of LIberation?
56f71e4d711bf01900a4499c
President
767
False
Where was the 67-member "presidency" located?
56f71e4d711bf01900a4499d
Jajce
582
False
How many members were in the "presidency" in Jajce?
56f71e4d711bf01900a4499e
67
591
False
On 21 December 1941, the Partisans created the First Proletarian Brigade (commanded by Koča Popović) and on 1 March 1942, Tito created the Second Proletarian Brigade. In liberated territories, the Partisans organised People's Committees to act as civilian government. The Anti-Fascist Council of National Liberation of Yugoslavia (AVNOJ) convened in Bihać on 26–27 November 1942 and in Jajce on 29 November 1943. In the two sessions, the resistance representatives established the basis for post-war organisation of the country, deciding on a federation of the Yugoslav nations. In Jajce, a 67-member "presidency" was elected and established a nine-member National Committee of Liberation (five communist members) as a de facto provisional government. Tito was named President of the National Committee of Liberation.
Who diverted resources to the destruction of the Partisans?
56f725793d8e2e1400e3739a
Axis
71
False
Who was the opponent of the Allies?
56f725793d8e2e1400e3739b
Axis
71
False
Which group of people wanted to capture Tito personally?
56f725793d8e2e1400e3739c
German
220
False
In 1944 where did Tito manage to avoid the Germans?
56f725793d8e2e1400e3739d
Drvar
339
False
What type of assault was there in Bosnia?
56f725793d8e2e1400e3739e
airborne
374
False
With the growing possibility of an Allied invasion in the Balkans, the Axis began to divert more resources to the destruction of the Partisans main force and its high command. This meant, among other things, a concerted German effort to capture Josip Broz Tito personally. On 25 May 1944, he managed to evade the Germans after the Raid on Drvar (Operation Rösselsprung), an airborne assault outside his Drvar headquarters in Bosnia.
Who was attacking the Partisans in 1943?
56f7279f711bf01900a449f4
Axis
62
False
From whom did Allied leaders switch their support from to Tito?
56f7279f711bf01900a449f5
Draža Mihailović
205
False
Who was the Soviet Premier who recognized Tito?
56f7279f711bf01900a449f6
Stalin
358
False
At what event was Tito recognized by Stalin?
56f7279f711bf01900a449f7
Tehran Conference
421
False
When was the Balkan air force formed?
56f7279f711bf01900a449f8
1944
762
False
After the Partisans managed to endure and avoid these intense Axis attacks between January and June 1943, and the extent of Chetnik collaboration became evident, Allied leaders switched their support from Draža Mihailović to Tito. King Peter II, American President Franklin Roosevelt and British Prime Minister Winston Churchill joined Soviet Premier Joseph Stalin in officially recognising Tito and the Partisans at the Tehran Conference. This resulted in Allied aid being parachuted behind Axis lines to assist the Partisans. On 17 June 1944 on the Dalmatian island of Vis, the Treaty of Vis (Viški sporazum) was signed in an attempt to merge Tito's government (the AVNOJ) with the government in exile of King Peter II. The Balkan Air Force was formed in June 1944 to control operations that were mainly aimed at aiding his forces.
Who was Tito considered loyal to?
56f72981711bf01900a44a04
Moscow
88
False
Who was Tito considered second to in the Eastern bloc?
56f72981711bf01900a44a05
Stalin
142
False
With whom did Tito have an uneasy alliance form the start?
56f72981711bf01900a44a06
Stalin
179
False
Who considered Tito too independent?
56f72981711bf01900a44a07
Stalin
239
False
Who was considered loyal to Moscow?
56f72981711bf01900a44a08
Tito
28
False
In the first post war years Tito was widely considered a communist leader very loyal to Moscow, indeed, he was often viewed as second only to Stalin in the Eastern Bloc. In fact, Stalin and Tito had an uneasy alliance from the start, with Stalin considering Tito too independent.
In 1944 who called on all Yuboslavs to come together under Tito's leadership?
56f72a1d3d8e2e1400e373bc
King Peter II
22
False
With whom did Tito sign an agreement on September 28 1944?
56f72a1d3d8e2e1400e373bd
Soviet Union
461
False
Who were allowed "temporary entry" into Yugoslav territory?
56f72a1d3d8e2e1400e373be
Soviet troops
504
False
Who assisted in operations in ortheastern areas of Yugoslavia?
56f72a1d3d8e2e1400e373bf
Red Army
560
False
Who executed a massive offensive and succeeded in breaking through German lines?
56f72a1d3d8e2e1400e373c0
the Partisans
698
False
On 12 September 1944, King Peter II called on all Yugoslavs to come together under Tito's leadership and stated that those who did not were "traitors", by which time Tito was recognized by all Allied authorities (including the government-in-exile) as the Prime Minister of Yugoslavia, in addition to commander-in-chief of the Yugoslav forces. On 28 September 1944, the Telegraph Agency of the Soviet Union (TASS) reported that Tito signed an agreement with the Soviet Union allowing "temporary entry" of Soviet troops into Yugoslav territory which allowed the Red Army to assist in operations in the northeastern areas of Yugoslavia. With their strategic right flank secured by the Allied advance, the Partisans prepared and executed a massive general offensive which succeeded in breaking through German lines and forcing a retreat beyond Yugoslav borders. After the Partisan victory and the end of hostilities in Europe, all external forces were ordered off Yugoslav territory.
Who offered amnesty to the retreatig column?
56f72af5711bf01900a44a1c
Tito
253
False
Who dispatched a telegram to the supreme headquarters prohibiting the execution of prisoners of war?
56f72af5711bf01900a44a1d
Tito
223
False
In the final days of WWII in Yugoslavia, who were responsible for atrocities?
56f72af5711bf01900a44a1e
Partisans
62
False
What did Tito offer to the retreating column?
56f72af5711bf01900a44a1f
amnesty
331
False
Where were possible suspects transferred to?
56f72af5711bf01900a44a20
military court.
603
False
In the final days of World War II in Yugoslavia, units of the Partisans were responsible for atrocities after the repatriations of Bleiburg, and accusations of culpability were later raised at the Yugoslav leadership under Tito. At the time, Josip Broz Tito repeatedly issued calls for surrender to the retreating column, offering amnesty and attempting to avoid a disorderly surrender. On 14 May he dispatched a telegram to the supreme headquarters Slovene Partisan Army prohibiting "in the sternest language" the execution of prisoners of war and commanding the transfer of the possible suspects to a military court.
Where was the provisional government of the Democratic Federal Yugoslavia assembled?
56f72d2e3d8e2e1400e373d2
Belgrade
141
False
When was the provisional government of the Democratic Federal Yugoslavia assembled?
56f72d2e3d8e2e1400e373d3
7 March 1945
3
False
Who Where assembled the provisional government of the Democratic Federal Yugoslavia?
56f72d2e3d8e2e1400e373d4
Tito
164
False
Who was seen as the liberator of Yugoslavia?
56f72d2e3d8e2e1400e373d5
Tito
777
False
Who was formally deposed by the Yugoslav Constitutent Assembly on November 29, 1945?
56f72d2e3d8e2e1400e373d6
King Peter II
1517
False
On 7 March 1945, the provisional government of the Democratic Federal Yugoslavia (Demokratska Federativna Jugoslavija, DFY) was assembled in Belgrade by Josip Broz Tito, while the provisional name allowed for either a republic or monarchy. This government was headed by Tito as provisional Yugoslav Prime Minister and included representatives from the royalist government-in-exile, among others Ivan Šubašić. In accordance with the agreement between resistance leaders and the government-in-exile, post-war elections were held to determine the form of government. In November 1945, Tito's pro-republican People's Front, led by the Communist Party of Yugoslavia, won the elections with an overwhelming majority, the vote having been boycotted by monarchists. During the period, Tito evidently enjoyed massive popular support due to being generally viewed by the populace as the liberator of Yugoslavia. The Yugoslav administration in the immediate post-war period managed to unite a country that had been severely affected by ultra-nationalist upheavals and war devastation, while successfully suppressing the nationalist sentiments of the various nations in favor of tolerance, and the common Yugoslav goal. After the overwhelming electoral victory, Tito was confirmed as the Prime Minister and the Minister of Foreign Affairs of the DFY. The country was soon renamed the Federal People's Republic of Yugoslavia (FPRY) (later finally renamed into Socialist Federal Republic of Yugoslavia, SFRY). On 29 November 1945, King Peter II was formally deposed by the Yugoslav Constituent Assembly. The Assembly drafted a new republican constitution soon afterwards.
What was formed as the new secret police?
56f72dee3d8e2e1400e373e6
The State Security Administration
174
False
Who was charged with brining to trial large numbers of Nazi collaborators?
56f72dee3d8e2e1400e373e7
Yugoslav intelligence
410
False
Who were controversial among those brought to trial for Nazi collaboration?
56f72dee3d8e2e1400e373e8
Catholic clergymen
551
False
Who was found guilty of collaboration, high treason?
56f72dee3d8e2e1400e373e9
Draža Mihailović
656
False
How was Draza executed?
56f72dee3d8e2e1400e373ea
firing squad
769
False
Yugoslavia organized the Yugoslav People's Army (Jugoslavenska narodna armija, or JNA) from the Partisan movement and became the fourth strongest army in Europe at the time. The State Security Administration (Uprava državne bezbednosti/sigurnosti/varnosti, UDBA) was also formed as the new secret police, along with a security agency, the Department of People's Security (Organ Zaštite Naroda (Armije), OZNA). Yugoslav intelligence was charged with imprisoning and bringing to trial large numbers of Nazi collaborators; controversially, this included Catholic clergymen due to the widespread involvement of Croatian Catholic clergy with the Ustaša regime. Draža Mihailović was found guilty of collaboration, high treason and war crimes and was subsequently executed by firing squad in July 1946.
Who was the president of the Bishops' Conference of Yugoslavia?
56f72f20711bf01900a44a36
Aloysius Stepinac
96
False
How long after his release from imprisonment did TIto attend the Bishops' Conference of Yugoslavia?
56f72f20711bf01900a44a37
two days
130
False
What topic was a sticking point at the Bishops' Conference?
56f72f20711bf01900a44a38
Catholic Church
233
False
Under whose leadership did the bishops' conference release a letter condemning alleged Partisan war crimes?
56f72f20711bf01900a44a39
Stepinac
256
False
What was Stepinac's sentence shortened to?
56f72f20711bf01900a44a3a
house-arrest
826
False
Prime Minister Josip Broz Tito met with the president of the Bishops' Conference of Yugoslavia, Aloysius Stepinac on 4 June 1945, two days after his release from imprisonment. The two could not reach an agreement on the state of the Catholic Church. Under Stepinac's leadership, the bishops' conference released a letter condemning alleged Partisan war crimes in September, 1945. The following year Stepinac was arrested and put on trial. In October 1946, in its first special session for 75 years, the Vatican excommunicated Tito and the Yugoslav government for sentencing Stepinac to 16 years in prison on charges of assisting Ustaše terror and of supporting forced conversions of Serbs to Catholicism. Stepinac received preferential treatment in recognition of his status and the sentence was soon shortened and reduced to house-arrest, with the option of emigration open to the archbishop. At the conclusion of the "Informbiro period", reforms rendered Yugoslavia considerably more religiously liberal than the Eastern Bloc states.
Who had a leading role in liberating Yugoslavia?
56f7302b3d8e2e1400e37408
Tito
154
False
Who was Tito formally an ally of after WWII?
56f7302b3d8e2e1400e37409
Stalin
576
False
Who set up a spy ring in the Yugoslav party?
56f7302b3d8e2e1400e3740a
Soviets
607
False
As early as what year was a spy ring set up in the Yugoslav party?
56f7302b3d8e2e1400e3740b
1945
671
False
From what domination did Yugoslavia liberate itself?
56f7302b3d8e2e1400e3740c
Axis
91
False
Unlike other new communist states in east-central Europe, Yugoslavia liberated itself from Axis domination with limited direct support from the Red Army. Tito's leading role in liberating Yugoslavia not only greatly strengthened his position in his party and among the Yugoslav people, but also caused him to be more insistent that Yugoslavia had more room to follow its own interests than other Bloc leaders who had more reasons (and pressures) to recognize Soviet efforts in helping them liberate their own countries from Axis control. Although Tito was formally an ally of Stalin after World War II, the Soviets had set up a spy ring in the Yugoslav party as early as 1945, giving way to an uneasy alliance.[citation needed]
What Italian territory did Yugoslavia acquire after the war?
56f731533d8e2e1400e37426
Istria
190
False
What territory did Yugoslavia leadership want to incorporate?
56f731533d8e2e1400e37427
Trieste
287
False
At least how many American aircraft were shot down between 1945 and 1948?
56f731533d8e2e1400e37428
four
536
False
Who openly supported the Communist side in the Greek Civil War?
56f731533d8e2e1400e37429
Tito
848
False
In what year did Tito model his economic development plan independently from Moscow?
56f731533d8e2e1400e3742a
1948
1155
False
In the immediate aftermath of World War II, there occurred several armed incidents between Yugoslavia and the Western Allies. Following the war, Yugoslavia acquired the Italian territory of Istria as well as the cities of Zadar and Rijeka. Yugoslav leadership was looking to incorporate Trieste into the country as well, which was opposed by the Western Allies. This led to several armed incidents, notably attacks by Yugoslav fighter planes on US transport aircraft, causing bitter criticism from the west. From 1945 to 1948, at least four US aircraft were shot down.[better source needed] Stalin was opposed to these provocations, as he felt the USSR unready to face the West in open war so soon after the losses of World War II and at the time when US had operational nuclear weapons whereas USSR had yet to conduct its first test. In addition, Tito was openly supportive of the Communist side in the Greek Civil War, while Stalin kept his distance, having agreed with Churchill not to pursue Soviet interests there, although he did support the Greek communist struggle politically, as demonstrated in several assemblies of the UN Security Council. In 1948, motivated by the desire to create a strong independent economy, Tito modeled his economic development plan independently from Moscow, which resulted in a diplomatic escalation followed by a bitter exchange of letters in which Tito affirmed that
Tito did not attend the second meeting of this.
56f732093d8e2e1400e3743a
Cominform
455
False
In what year did the crisis nearly escalate into armed conflict?
56f732093d8e2e1400e3743b
1949
520
False
What was the name of those purged in other socialist states in Eastern Europe?
56f732093d8e2e1400e3743c
Titoists
1248
False
Who made several assasination attempts on Tito?
56f732093d8e2e1400e3743d
Stalin
1259
False
The Soviet answer on 4 May admonished Tito and the Communist Party of Yugoslavia (CPY) for failing to admit and correct its mistakes, and went on to accuse them of being too proud of their successes against the Germans, maintaining that the Red Army had saved them from destruction. Tito's response on 17 May suggested that the matter be settled at the meeting of the Cominform to be held that June. However, Tito did not attend the second meeting of the Cominform, fearing that Yugoslavia was to be openly attacked. In 1949 the crisis nearly escalated into an armed conflict, as Hungarian and Soviet forces were massing on the northern Yugoslav frontier. On 28 June, the other member countries expelled Yugoslavia, citing "nationalist elements" that had "managed in the course of the past five or six months to reach a dominant position in the leadership" of the CPY. The assumption in Moscow was that once it was known that he had lost Soviet approval, Tito would collapse; 'I will shake my little finger and there will be no more Tito,' Stalin remarked. The expulsion effectively banished Yugoslavia from the international association of socialist states, while other socialist states of Eastern Europe subsequently underwent purges of alleged "Titoists". Stalin took the matter personally and arranged several assassination attempts on Tito, none of which succeeded. In a correspondence between the two leaders, Tito openly wrote:
Whose methods did Tito use to fight Yugoslav Stalinists?
56f732da3d8e2e1400e37442
Stalin
134
False
Who used inhumane methods against oponents through the UBDA?
56f732da3d8e2e1400e37443
Ranković
179
False
Until what year did the repression of the UBDA last?
56f732da3d8e2e1400e37444
1956
506
False
The work of the UBDA was due to tension between Yugoslavia and what country?
56f732da3d8e2e1400e37445
Soviet Union
74
False
What is another name for the UBDA?
56f732da3d8e2e1400e37446
State Security Service
196
False
One significant consequence of the tension arising between Yugoslavia and Soviet Union, was that Tito fought Yugoslav Stalinists with Stalin's methods. In other words, Aleksandar Ranković and the State Security Service (UBDA) employed the same inhumane methods against their opponents as Stalin did in the Soviet Union against his. Not every person accused of a political crime was convicted and nobody was sentenced to death for his or her pro-Soviet feelings. However this repression, which lasted until 1956, was marked by significant violations of human rights.
Which country gave Yugoslavia aid when Tito became estranged from the USSR?
56f733f53d8e2e1400e37456
US
63
False
What agency distributed aid to Yugoslavia?
56f733f53d8e2e1400e37457
ECA
115
False
What plan was also administered by the ECA?
56f733f53d8e2e1400e37458
Marshall Plan
172
False
Which leader feared that accepting American aid meant aligning with the West?
56f733f53d8e2e1400e37459
Tito
0
False
In what year did Stalin die?
56f733f53d8e2e1400e3745a
1953
329
False
Tito's estrangement from the USSR enabled Yugoslavia to obtain US aid via the Economic Cooperation Administration (ECA), the same US aid institution which administered the Marshall Plan. Still, he did not agree to align with the West, which was a common consequence of accepting American aid at the time. After Stalin's death in 1953, relations with the USSR were relaxed and he began to receive aid as well from the COMECON. In this way, Tito played East-West antagonism to his advantage. Instead of choosing sides, he was instrumental in kick-starting the Non-Aligned Movement, which would function as a 'third way' for countries interested in staying outside of the East-West divide.
What name refers to the period of instability during the rift between Tito and the USSR?
56f7348f3d8e2e1400e37460
Informbiro
549
False
What was Tito's form of communism called?
56f7348f3d8e2e1400e37461
Titoism
606
False
Who encouraged purges against Titoites?
56f7348f3d8e2e1400e37462
Moscow
618
False
Throughout what area did purges of Titoites occur?
56f7348f3d8e2e1400e37463
Eastern bloc
695
False
Who became the first leader to defy Stalin's leadership?
56f7348f3d8e2e1400e37464
Tito
293
False
The event was significant not only for Yugoslavia and Tito, but also for the global development of socialism, since it was the first major split between Communist states, casting doubt on Comintern's claims for socialism to be a unified force that would eventually control the whole world, as Tito became the first (and the only successful) socialist leader to defy Stalin's leadership in the COMINFORM. This rift with the Soviet Union brought Tito much international recognition, but also triggered a period of instability often referred to as the Informbiro period. Tito's form of communism was labeled "Titoism" by Moscow, which encouraged purges against suspected "Titoites'" throughout the Eastern bloc.
In what year did the National Assembly support a crucial bill about "self Management"?
56f736683d8e2e1400e37486
1950
11
False
Who wrote the bill with Tito about "self management"?
56f736683d8e2e1400e37487
Milovan Đilas
75
False
Tito succeeded who as the President of Yugoslavia?
56f736683d8e2e1400e37488
Ribar
501
False
Whose invitation did Tito reject after Stalin's death?
56f736683d8e2e1400e37489
USSR
597
False
When did Tito visit the USSR to signal that his country's animosity was decreasing?
56f736683d8e2e1400e3748a
1956
842
False
On 26 June 1950, the National Assembly supported a crucial bill written by Milovan Đilas and Tito about "self-management" (samoupravljanje): a type of cooperative independent socialist experiment that introduced profit sharing and workplace democracy in previously state-run enterprises which then became the direct social ownership of the employees. On 13 January 1953, they established that the law on self-management was the basis of the entire social order in Yugoslavia. Tito also succeeded Ivan Ribar as the President of Yugoslavia on 14 January 1953. After Stalin's death Tito rejected the USSR's invitation for a visit to discuss normalization of relations between two nations. Nikita Khrushchev and Nikolai Bulganin visited Tito in Belgrade in 1955 and apologized for wrongdoings by Stalin's administration. Tito visited the USSR in 1956, which signaled to the world that animosity between Yugoslavia and USSR was easing. However, the relationship between the USSR and Yugoslavia would reach another low in the late 1960s. Commenting on the crisis, Tito concluded that:
How many high-level Communists were purged in the Slansky trial?
56f736e2711bf01900a44a6c
14
197
False
How many Communists were executed at the Slansky trial?
56f736e2711bf01900a44a6d
11
249
False
What country had pressure put on it by Stalin to conduct purges?
56f736e2711bf01900a44a6e
Czechoslovakia
299
False
Who espoused the "national path to socialism"?
56f736e2711bf01900a44a6f
Tito
419
False
Who put pressure on Checkoslovakia to conduct purges?
56f736e2711bf01900a44a70
Stalin
276
False
The Tito-Stalin split had large ramifications for countries outside the USSR and Yugoslavia. It has, for example, been given as one of the reasons for the Slánský trial in Czechoslovakia, in which 14 high-level Communist officials were purged, with 11 of them being executed. Stalin put pressure on Czechoslovakia to conduct purges in order to discourage the spread of the idea of a "national path to socialism," which Tito espoused.
Under whose leadership did Yugoslavia become a founding member of the Non-Aligned Movement?
56f73856711bf01900a44a80
Tito
6
False
In what year did Tito co-found the Non-Aligned Movement?
56f73856711bf01900a44a81
1961
93
False
Nasser led which country in 1961?
56f73856711bf01900a44a82
Egypt
133
False
Which Indonesian leader co-founded the Non-Aligned movement with Tito?
56f73856711bf01900a44a83
Nehru
180
False
Who became the first Secretary General of the Non-Aligned Movement?
56f73856711bf01900a44a84
Tito
472
False
Under Tito's leadership, Yugoslavia became a founding member of the Non-Aligned Movement. In 1961, Tito co-founded the movement with Egypt's Gamal Abdel Nasser, India's Jawaharlal Nehru, Indonesia's Sukarno and Ghana's Kwame Nkrumah, in an action called The Initiative of Five (Tito, Nehru, Nasser, Sukarno, Nkrumah), thus establishing strong ties with third world countries. This move did much to improve Yugoslavia's diplomatic position. On 1 September 1961, Josip Broz Tito became the first Secretary-General of the Non-Aligned Movement.
When did Tito first visit Emperor Haile Selassie?
56f73a06711bf01900a44a94
1954
101
False
When did Tito last visit Emperor Selassie?
56f73a06711bf01900a44a95
1956
110
False
What country does Emperor Selassie rule?
56f73a06711bf01900a44a96
Ethiopia
147
False
In what country does Tito have a street named in his honor?
56f73a06711bf01900a44a97
Ethiopia
147
False
Who is the Emperor of Ethiopia in 1954?
56f73a06711bf01900a44a98
Selassie
135
False
Tito's foreign policy led to relationships with a variety of governments, such as exchanging visits (1954 and 1956) with Emperor Haile Selassie of Ethiopia, where a street was named in his honor.
During what period did Tito pursue a policy of neutrality?
56f7eff2aef2371900625c7e
Cold War
72
False
With whom did Tito's belief in self-determination cause a rift?
56f7eff2aef2371900625c7f
Stalin
206
False
What type of countries did Tito develop relations with?
56f7eff2aef2371900625c80
developing
118
False
Who had a strong belief in self-determination and was opposed to Stalin because of this?
56f7eff2aef2371900625c81
Tito
0
False
Tito had cordial relations with the United States and what other Western area?
56f7eff2aef2371900625c82
Western European nations
494
False
Tito was notable for pursuing a foreign policy of neutrality during the Cold War and for establishing close ties with developing countries. Tito's strong belief in self-determination caused early rift with Stalin and consequently, the Eastern Bloc. His public speeches often reiterated that policy of neutrality and cooperation with all countries would be natural as long as these countries did not use their influence to pressure Yugoslavia to take sides. Relations with the United States and Western European nations were generally cordial.
Nasser was a leader of what country?
56f7f110aef2371900625c92
Egypt
383
False
Nehru was a leader of what country?
56f7f110aef2371900625c93
Indian
411
False
Gandhi was a leader of what country?
56f7f110aef2371900625c94
Indian
411
False
Eisenhower was a president of what country?
56f7f110aef2371900625c95
U.S.
548
False
Nixon was a president of what country?
56f7f110aef2371900625c96
U.S.
548
False
Yugoslavia had a liberal travel policy permitting foreigners to freely travel through the country and its citizens to travel worldwide, whereas it was limited by most Communist countries. A number[quantify] of Yugoslav citizens worked throughout Western Europe. Tito met many world leaders during his rule, such as Soviet rulers Joseph Stalin, Nikita Khrushchev and Leonid Brezhnev; Egypt's Gamal Abdel Nasser, Indian politicians Jawaharlal Nehru and Indira Gandhi; British Prime Ministers Winston Churchill, James Callaghan and Margaret Thatcher; U.S. Presidents Dwight D. Eisenhower, John F. Kennedy, Richard Nixon, Gerald Ford and Jimmy Carter; other political leaders, dignitaries and heads of state that Tito met at least once in his lifetime included Che Guevara, Fidel Castro, Yasser Arafat, Willy Brandt, Helmut Schmidt, Georges Pompidou, Queen Elizabeth II, Hua Guofeng, Kim Il Sung, Sukarno, Sheikh Mujibur Rahman, Suharto, Idi Amin, Haile Selassie, Kenneth Kaunda, Gaddafi, Erich Honecker, Nicolae Ceaușescu, János Kádár and Urho Kekkonen. He also met numerous celebrities.
When did Tito first visit India?
56f7f171aef2371900625c9c
1954
37
False
When did Tito leave India?
56f7f171aef2371900625c9d
1955
61
False
After his return from where did Tito remove many restrictions on churches in Yugoslavia?
56f7f171aef2371900625c9e
India
13
False
Where did Tito visit from 1954 to 1955?
56f7f171aef2371900625c9f
India
13
False
After returning from India, Tito removed restrictions on what type of institutions?
56f7f171aef2371900625ca0
spiritual
130
False
Tito visited India from December 22, 1954 through January 8, 1955. After his return, he removed many restrictions on churches and spiritual institutions in Yugoslavia.
What country did U Nu lead?
56f7f1d0aef2371900625ca6
Burma
40
False
Who was the leader of Burma in 1955?
56f7f1d0aef2371900625ca7
U Nu
52
False
Who succeeded U Nu in Burma?
56f7f1d0aef2371900625ca8
Ne Win
184
False
Ne Win led what country?
56f7f1d0aef2371900625ca9
Burma
40
False
Who led Burma in 1959?
56f7f1d0aef2371900625caa
Ne Win
184
False
Tito also developed warm relations with Burma under U Nu, travelling to the country in 1955 and again in 1959, though he didn't receive the same treatment in 1959 from the new leader, Ne Win.
What was the only Communist country allowed to have an embassy in Stroessner's Paraguay?
56f7f364a6d7ea1400e17309
Yugoslavia
171
False
Yugoslavia was the only communist country to have an embassy where?
56f7f364a6d7ea1400e1730a
Alfredo Stroessner's Paraguay
243
False
Pinochet ruled what country?
56f7f364a6d7ea1400e1730b
Chile
363
False
Who did Pinochet overthrow?
56f7f364a6d7ea1400e1730c
Allende
483
False
What country did Kjell Eugenio Laugerud Garcia lead?
56f7f364a6d7ea1400e1730d
Guatemala
615
False
Because of its neutrality, Yugoslavia would often be rare among Communist countries to have diplomatic relations with right-wing, anti-Communist governments. For example, Yugoslavia was the only communist country allowed to have an embassy in Alfredo Stroessner's Paraguay. One notable exception to Yugoslavia's neutral stance toward anti-communist countries was Chile under Pinochet; Yugoslavia was one of many countries which severed diplomatic relations with Chile after Salvador Allende was overthrown. Yugoslavia also provided military aid and arms supplies to staunchly anti-Communist regimes such as that of Guatemala under Kjell Eugenio Laugerud García.
When did Yugoslavia change its name to the Socialist Federal Republic of Yugoslavia?
56f7f401aef2371900625cc4
7 April 1963
3
False
Two government ministers resigned over Tito's visit to what region?
56f7f401aef2371900625cc5
Americas
262
False
Eisenhower met Tito where in 1960?
56f7f401aef2371900625cc6
United Nations General Assembly meeting.
417
False
Who said that neutralism did not imply passivity but mean "not taking sides"?
56f7f401aef2371900625cc7
Tito
630
False
When did Tito meet Eisenhower at the U.N.?
56f7f401aef2371900625cc8
1960
365
False
On 7 April 1963, the country changed its official name to the Socialist Federal Republic of Yugoslavia. Reforms encouraged private enterprise and greatly relaxed restrictions on freedom of speech and religious expression. Tito subsequently went on a tour of the Americas. In Chile, two government ministers resigned over his visit to that country. In the autumn of 1960 Tito met President Dwight D. Eisenhower at the United Nations General Assembly meeting. Tito and Eisenhower discussed a range of issues from arms control to economic development. When Eisenhower remarked that Yugoslavia's neutralism was "neutral on his side", Tito replied that neutralism did not imply passivity but meant "not taking sides".
What anti-communist archbisoph died in 1960?
56f7f512aef2371900625cd4
Stepinac
125
False
Stepinac's death gave new freedom to what branch of the Roman Catholic Church?
56f7f512aef2371900625cd5
Yugoslav
264
False
What agency had its staff reduced to 5000 after Lenninist orthodoxy was abandoned?
56f7f512aef2371900625cd6
UDBA
813
False
What acronym describes the State Security Administration?
56f7f512aef2371900625cd7
UDBA
813
False
What ideology did Tito abandon as part of his new socialism?
56f7f512aef2371900625cd8
Leninist
720
False
In 1966 an agreement with the Vatican, fostered in part by the death in 1960 of anti-communist archbishop of Zagreb Aloysius Stepinac and shifts in the church's approach to resisting communism originating in the Second Vatican Council, accorded new freedom to the Yugoslav Roman Catholic Church, particularly to catechize and open seminaries. The agreement also eased tensions, which had prevented the naming of new bishops in Yugoslavia since 1945. Tito's new socialism met opposition from traditional communists culminating in conspiracy headed by Aleksandar Ranković. In the same year Tito declared that Communists must henceforth chart Yugoslavia's course by the force of their arguments (implying an abandonment of Leninist orthodoxy and development of liberal Communism). The State Security Administration (UDBA) saw its power scaled back and its staff reduced to 5000.
Who was the first communist country to open its borders to all foreign visitors?
56f7f588aef2371900625cde
Yugoslavia
19
False
In what year did the first communist country open its borders to all foreign visitors?
56f7f588aef2371900625cdf
1967
13
False
When did Tito start promoting a peaceful resolution to the Arab-Israeli conflict?
56f7f588aef2371900625ce0
1967
13
False
Whose plan called for Arabs to recognize the state of Israel in exchange for territories Israel gained?
56f7f588aef2371900625ce1
Tito
154
False
In what year did Tito start working in Arab Israeli peace processes?
56f7f588aef2371900625ce2
1967
13
False
On 1 January 1967, Yugoslavia was the first communist country to open its borders to all foreign visitors and abolish visa requirements. In the same year Tito became active in promoting a peaceful resolution of the Arab–Israeli conflict. His plan called for Arabs to recognize the state of Israel in exchange for territories Israel gained.
What country did Dubcek lead?
56f7f60daef2371900625cf2
Czechoslovak
22
False
How much time did Tito give Dubcek to fly to Prague?
56f7f60daef2371900625cf3
three hours
79
False
Where did Tito send Dubcek in 1968?
56f7f60daef2371900625cf4
Prague
69
False
Who removed generals Gosnjak and Hamovic?
56f7f60daef2371900625cf5
Tito
163
False
What army was unprepared for the invasion of Czechoslovakia?
56f7f60daef2371900625cf6
Yugoslavia
349
False
In 1968, Tito offered Czechoslovak leader Alexander Dubček to fly to Prague on three hours notice if Dubček needed help in facing down the Soviets. In April 1969, Tito removed generals Ivan Gošnjak and Rade Hamović in the aftermath of the invasion of Czechoslovakia due to the unpreparedness of the Yugoslav army to respond to a similar invasion of Yugoslavia.
In what year was Tito reelected president of Yugoslavia for the sixth time?
56f7f7eea6d7ea1400e17339
1971
3
False
Who elected Tito president in 1971?
56f7f7eea6d7ea1400e1733a
Federal Assembly
63
False
How many sweeping constitutional amendments did Tito introduce in 1971?
56f7f7eea6d7ea1400e1733b
20
156
False
Who was chosen as a premier in 1971 in Yugoslavia?
56f7f7eea6d7ea1400e1733c
Bijedić
810
False
What branch of the Yugoslav government would retain control over foreign affairs, defense and internal security?
56f7f7eea6d7ea1400e1733d
federal
959
False
In 1971, Tito was re-elected as President of Yugoslavia by the Federal Assembly for the sixth time. In his speech before the Federal Assembly he introduced 20 sweeping constitutional amendments that would provide an updated framework on which the country would be based. The amendments provided for a collective presidency, a 22-member body consisting of elected representatives from six republics and two autonomous provinces. The body would have a single chairman of the presidency and chairmanship would rotate among six republics. When the Federal Assembly fails to agree on legislation, the collective presidency would have the power to rule by decree. Amendments also provided for stronger cabinet with considerable power to initiate and pursue legislature independently from the Communist Party. Džemal Bijedić was chosen as the Premier. The new amendments aimed to decentralize the country by granting greater autonomy to republics and provinces. The federal government would retain authority only over foreign affairs, defense, internal security, monetary affairs, free trade within Yugoslavia, and development loans to poorer regions. Control of education, healthcare, and housing would be exercised entirely by the governments of the republics and the autonomous provinces.
What person's calls for unity is credited by western communists of holding together Yugoslavia?
56f81c7da6d7ea1400e173b9
Tito
0
False
What was referred to as the "Mass Movement"?
56f81c7da6d7ea1400e173ba
the Croatian Spring
335
False
When was the new Yugoslavian constitution passed?
56f81c7da6d7ea1400e173bb
16 May 1974
742
False
Who was named President for Life of Yugoslavia in 1974?
56f81c7da6d7ea1400e173bc
Tito
652
False
How long did the person named "president for life" serve?
56f81c7da6d7ea1400e173bd
five years.
871
False
Tito's greatest strength, in the eyes of the western communists, had been in suppressing nationalist insurrections and maintaining unity throughout the country. It was Tito's call for unity, and related methods, that held together the people of Yugoslavia. This ability was put to a test several times during his reign, notably during the Croatian Spring (also referred as the Masovni pokret, maspok, meaning "Mass Movement") when the government suppressed both public demonstrations and dissenting opinions within the Communist Party. Despite this suppression, much of maspok's demands were later realized with the new constitution, heavily backed by Tito himself against opposition from the Serbian branch of the party.[citation needed] On 16 May 1974, the new Constitution was passed, and the aging Tito was named president for life, a status which he would enjoy for five years.
What flag did protesters of Tito often burn?
56f81d9ba6d7ea1400e173c3
Yugoslav
260
False
What did protesters scream during Tito's visit to the United Nations in the late 1970's?
56f81d9ba6d7ea1400e173c4
Tito murderer
349
False
Which authorities fielded complaints from TIto about protesters?
56f81d9ba6d7ea1400e173c5
United States authorities.
418
False
What American state did Tito visit when he saw the U.N.?
56f81d9ba6d7ea1400e173c6
New York
376
False
Security for Tito's visit was unusually high to keep Tito away from what individuals?
56f81d9ba6d7ea1400e173c7
protesters
218
False
Tito's visits to the United States avoided most of the Northeast due to large minorities of Yugoslav emigrants bitter about communism in Yugoslavia. Security for the state visits was usually high to keep him away from protesters, who would frequently burn the Yugoslav flag. During a visit to the United Nations in the late 1970s emigrants shouted "Tito murderer" outside his New York hotel, for which he protested to United States authorities.
Where did Tito travel in 1977 to reconcile with Chinese leadership?
56f81eceaef2371900625de1
Beijing
180
False
In what year did Tito travel to China to reconcile with Chinese leadership?
56f81eceaef2371900625de2
1977
191
False
What Chinese leader traveled to Yugoslavia in 1979?
56f81eceaef2371900625de3
Chairman Hua Guofeng
288
False
After the constitutional changes made in what year did Tito reduce his role in the day-to-day running of the state.
56f81eceaef2371900625de4
1974
36
False
In what year did Tito travel to the U.S. to visit Washington D.C., amist protest by anti-communist Croat, Serb and Albanian groups?
56f81eceaef2371900625de5
1978
340
False
After the constitutional changes of 1974, Tito began reducing his role in the day-to-day running of the state. He continued to travel abroad and receive foreign visitors, going to Beijing in 1977 and reconciling with a Chinese leadership that had once branded him a revisionist. In turn, Chairman Hua Guofeng visited Yugoslavia in 1979. In 1978, Tito traveled to the U.S. During the visit strict security was imposed in Washington, D.C. owing to protests by anti-communist Croat, Serb and Albanian groups.
During what year did Tito become increasingly ill?
56f81fb1aef2371900625deb
1979
48
False
What was built near Morovic for Tito to use in the event of his recovery?
56f81fb1aef2371900625dec
Vila Srna
71
False
Where was Tito admitted on 7 January and again on 11 January 1980 with circulatory problems?
56f81fb1aef2371900625ded
the Medical Centre in Ljubljana
210
False
When did Tito die?
56f81fb1aef2371900625dee
4 May 1980
446
False
Tito's cause of death was what?
56f81fb1aef2371900625def
gangrene
402
False
Tito became increasingly ill over the course of 1979. During this time Vila Srna was built for his use near Morović in the event of his recovery. On 7 January and again on 11 January 1980, Tito was admitted to the Medical Centre in Ljubljana, the capital city of the SR Slovenia, with circulation problems in his legs. His left leg was amputated soon afterward due to arterial blockages and he died of gangrene at the Medical Centre Ljubljana on 4 May 1980 at 15:05, three days short of his 88th birthday. His funeral drew many world statesmen. Based on the number of attending politicians and state delegations, at the time it was the largest state funeral in history; this concentration of dignitaries would be unmatched until the funeral of Pope John Paul II in 2005 and the memorial service of Nelson Mandela in 2013. Those who attended included four kings, 31 presidents, six princes, 22 prime ministers and 47 ministers of foreign affairs. They came from both sides of the Cold War, from 128 different countries out of 154 UN members at the time.
In what city was Tito interred?
56f82089aef2371900625dfd
Belgrade
36
False
What museum was formerly called "Museum 25 May"?
56f82089aef2371900625dfe
Museum of Yugoslav History
107
False
What name was given to Tito's mausoleum?
56f82089aef2371900625dff
House of Flowers
231
False
Who made the original print of Los Caprichos?
56f82089aef2371900625e00
Francisco Goya
457
False
After whose death did speculation begin concerning whether his successors could continue to hold Yugoslavia together?
56f82089aef2371900625e01
Tito
355
False
Tito was interred in a mausoleum in Belgrade, which forms part of a memorial complex in the grounds of the Museum of Yugoslav History (formerly called "Museum 25 May" and "Museum of the Revolution"). The actual mausoleum is called House of Flowers (Kuća Cveća) and numerous people visit the place as a shrine to "better times". The museum keeps the gifts Tito received during his presidency. The collection also includes original prints of Los Caprichos by Francisco Goya, and many others. The Government of Serbia has planned to merge it into the Museum of the History of Serbia. At the time of his death, speculation began about whether his successors could continue to hold Yugoslavia together. Ethnic divisions and conflict grew and eventually erupted in a series of Yugoslav wars a decade after his death.
What name was changed to Titograd?
56f82341aef2371900625e11
Podgorica
181
False
When did Uziece revert to its original name?
56f82341aef2371900625e12
1992
363
False
Where is the birthplace of Antun Augustincic?
56f82341aef2371900625e13
Kumrovec
554
False
What country is Stejpan Mesic president of?
56f82341aef2371900625e14
Croatian
1019
False
Where is the largest Tito monument located?
56f82341aef2371900625e15
Slovenia
1736
False
During his life and especially in the first year after his death, several places were named after Tito. Several of these places have since returned to their original names, such as Podgorica, formerly Titograd (though Podgorica's international airport is still identified by the code TGD), and Užice, formerly Titovo Užice, which reverted to its original name in 1992. Streets in Belgrade, the capital, have all reverted to their original pre–World War II and pre-communist names as well. In 2004, Antun Augustinčić's statue of Broz in his birthplace of Kumrovec was decapitated in an explosion. It was subsequently repaired. Twice in 2008, protests took place in Zagreb's Marshal Tito Square, organized by a group called Circle for the Square (Krug za Trg), with an aim to force the city government to rename it to its previous name, while a counter-protest by Citizens' Initiative Against Ustašism (Građanska inicijativa protiv ustaštva) accused the "Circle for the Square" of historical revisionism and neo-fascism. Croatian president Stjepan Mesić criticized the demonstration to change the name. In the Croatian coastal city of Opatija the main street (also its longest street) still bears the name of Marshal Tito, as do streets in numerous towns in Serbia, mostly in the country's north. One of the main streets in downtown Sarajevo is called Marshal Tito Street, and Tito's statue in a park in front of the university campus (ex. JNA barrack "Maršal Tito") in Marijin Dvor is a place where Bosnians and Sarajevans still today commemorate and pay tribute to Tito (image on the right). The largest Tito monument in the world, about 10 m (33 ft) high, is located at Tito Square (Slovene: Titov trg), the central square in Velenje, Slovenia. One of the main bridges in Slovenia's second largest city of Maribor is Tito Bridge (Titov most). The central square in Koper, the largest Slovenian port city, is as well named Tito Square.
Where does the annual "Brotherhood and Unity" relay race end?
56f823f3aef2371900625e1b
"House of Flowers"
115
False
Where is the final resting place of Tito?
56f823f3aef2371900625e1c
Belgrade
137
False
Where is Tito's birthplace in Croatia?
56f823f3aef2371900625e1d
Kumrovec
277
False
How often is the "Brotherhood and Unity" relay race done?
56f823f3aef2371900625e1e
Every year
0
False
On what day in May does the "Brotherhood and Unity" relay race end?
56f823f3aef2371900625e1f
25
153
False
Every year a "Brotherhood and Unity" relay race is organized in Montenegro, Macedonia and Serbia which ends at the "House of Flowers" in Belgrade on May 25 – the final resting place of Tito. At the same time, runners in Slovenia, Croatia and Bosnia and Herzegovina set off for Kumrovec, Tito's birthplace in northern Croatia. The relay is a left-over from Yugoslav times, when young people made a similar yearly trek on foot through Yugoslavia that ended in Belgrade with a massive celebration.
On what year did a Slovenian court find a 2009 naming of a street after Tito to be unconstitutional?
56f82554aef2371900625e25
2011
215
False
Where was the street named after Tito that was found unconstitutional located?
56f82554aef2371900625e26
Ljubljana
291
False
Several public area of Slovenia bear which person's name.
56f82554aef2371900625e27
Tito
426
False
Under which ruler do historians argue human rights were suppressed in Yugoslavia?
56f82554aef2371900625e28
Tito
131
False
In the years following the dissolution of Yugoslavia, some historians stated that human rights were suppressed in Yugoslavia under Tito, particularly in the first decade up until the Tito-Stalin split. On 4 October 2011, the Slovenian Constitutional Court found a 2009 naming of a street in Ljubljana after Tito to be unconstitutional. While several public areas in Slovenia (named during the Yugoslav period) do already bear Tito's name, on the issue of renaming an additional street the court ruled that:
Tito Square is located in what Slovenian city?
56f8262eaef2371900625e33
Velenje
291
False
How tall is the statue in Tito Square?
56f8262eaef2371900625e34
10-meter
316
False
Where is a 10-meter statue of Tito located?
56f8262eaef2371900625e35
Tito Square
276
False
Where is Velenje located?
56f8262eaef2371900625e36
Slovenia
209
False
The court, however, explicitly made it clear that the purpose of the review was "not a verdict on Tito as a figure or on his concrete actions, as well as not a historical weighing of facts and circumstances". Slovenia has several streets and squares named after Tito, notably Tito Square in Velenje, incorporating a 10-meter statue.
What is the ethnic origin of the Danube Swabian people?
56f826b1aef2371900625e3b
German
81
False
Where is the location of the Danube Swabian population?
56f826b1aef2371900625e3c
Vojvodina
119
False
There were mass executions of Danube Swabian populations in what city?
56f826b1aef2371900625e3d
Vojvodina
119
False
Which group of people occupied Yugoslavia at the end of World War II?
56f826b1aef2371900625e3e
German
193
False
At the end of what World War did the Germans occupy Yugoslavia?
56f826b1aef2371900625e3f
World War II,
239
False
Tito has also been named as responsible for systematic eradication of the ethnic German (Danube Swabian) population in Vojvodina by expulsions and mass executions following the collapse of the German occupation of Yugoslavia at the end of World War II, in contrast to his inclusive attitude towards other Yugoslav nationalities.
Where in Russia was Tito brought as a prisoner of war in 1918?
56f8275aaef2371900625e45
Omsk
90
False
When was Tito brought to Russia as a prisoner of war?
56f8275aaef2371900625e46
1918
67
False
How old was Pelagija Belousava when Tito met her?
56f8275aaef2371900625e47
thirteen
171
False
How many children did Pelagija bore for Tito?
56f8275aaef2371900625e48
five
266
False
Who was the only surviving child of Tito's?
56f8275aaef2371900625e49
Žarko Leon
299
False
Tito carried on numerous affairs and was married several times. In 1918 he was brought to Omsk, Russia, as a prisoner of war. There he met Pelagija Belousova who was then thirteen; he married her a year later, and she moved with him to Yugoslavia. Pelagija bore him five children but only their son Žarko Leon (born 4 February, 1924) survived. When Tito was jailed in 1928, she returned to Russia. After the divorce in 1936 she later remarried.
Where is the Hotel Lux located in Russia?
56f827c4aef2371900625e4f
Moscow
46
False
When did Tito stay at the Hotel Lux?
56f827c4aef2371900625e50
1936
3
False
What is the name of the Austrian comrade Tito met in Moscow in 1936?
56f827c4aef2371900625e51
Lucia Bauer
82
False
When did Tito marry Lucia Bauer?
56f827c4aef2371900625e52
1936
119
False
Tito's marriage to what person was later erased in records?
56f827c4aef2371900625e53
Lucia Bauer
82
False
In 1936, when Tito stayed at the Hotel Lux in Moscow, he met the Austrian comrade Lucia Bauer. They married in October 1936, but the records of this marriage were later erased.
Who did Tito marry in 1940?
56f82a24aef2371900625e75
Herta Haas
31
False
When did Haas give birth to Tito's son?
56f82a24aef2371900625e76
1941
142
False
What was the name of Tito's son born to him and Haas?
56f82a24aef2371900625e77
Aleksandar "Mišo" Broz
177
False
With whom did Tito have a parallel life during his marriage to Haas?
56f82a24aef2371900625e78
Davorjanka Paunović
320
False
When did Davorjanka die of Tuberculosis?
56f82a24aef2371900625e79
1946
640
False
His next relationship was with Herta Haas, whom he married in 1940. Broz left for Belgrade after the April War, leaving Haas pregnant. In May 1941, she gave birth to their son, Aleksandar "Mišo" Broz. All throughout his relationship with Haas, Tito had maintained a promiscuous life and had a parallel relationship with Davorjanka Paunović, who, under the codename "Zdenka", served as a courier in the resistance and subsequently became his personal secretary. Haas and Tito suddenly parted company in 1943 in Jajce during the second meeting of AVNOJ after she reportedly walked in on him and Davorjanka. The last time Haas saw Broz was in 1946. Davorjanka died of tuberculosis in 1946 and Tito insisted that she be buried in the backyard of the Beli Dvor, his Belgrade residence.
Who was Tito's best known wife?
56f82ae4a6d7ea1400e1744d
Jovanka Broz
24
False
How old was Jovanka Broz when she married Tito?
56f82ae4a6d7ea1400e1744e
27
92
False
In what year did Tito and Jovanka marry?
56f82ae4a6d7ea1400e1744f
1952
131
False
Who was the best man at the wedding of Jovanka and Tito?
56f82ae4a6d7ea1400e17450
Aleksandar Ranković
163
False
Who went down in history as Yugoslavia's first lady?
56f82ae4a6d7ea1400e17451
Jovanka
713
False
His best known wife was Jovanka Broz. Tito was just shy of his 59th birthday, while she was 27, when they finally married in April 1952, with state security chief Aleksandar Ranković as the best man. Their eventual marriage came about somewhat unexpectedly since Tito actually rejected her some years earlier when his confidante Ivan Krajacic brought her in originally. At that time, she was in her early 20s and Tito, objecting to her energetic personality, opted for the more mature opera singer Zinka Kunc instead. Not one to be discouraged easily, Jovanka continued working at Beli Dvor, where she managed the staff and eventually got another chance after Tito's strange relationship with Zinka failed. Since Jovanka was the only female companion he married while in power, she also went down in history as Yugoslavia's first lady. Their relationship was not a happy one, however. It had gone through many, often public, ups and downs with episodes of infidelities and even allegations of preparation for a coup d'état by the latter pair. Certain unofficial reports suggest Tito and Jovanka even formally divorced in the late 1970s, shortly before his death. However, during Tito's funeral she was officially present as his wife, and later claimed rights for inheritance. The couple did not have any children.
Which of Tito's grandchildren is a theatre director?
56f82b9eaef2371900625e93
Aleksandra Broz
37
False
Which of Tito's grandchildren is a cardiologist and writer?
56f82b9eaef2371900625e94
Svetlana Broz
95
False
Where does Svetlana Broz live?
56f82b9eaef2371900625e95
Bosnia-Herzegovina
139
False
Where does Leksandra Broz live?
56f82b9eaef2371900625e96
Croatia
86
False
Where does Edvard Broz live?
56f82b9eaef2371900625e97
Bosnia-Herzegovina
231
False
Tito's notable grandchildren include Aleksandra Broz, a prominent theatre director in Croatia; Svetlana Broz, a cardiologist and writer in Bosnia-Herzegovina; and Josip "Joška" Broz, Edvard Broz and Natali Klasevski, an artisan of Bosnia-Herzegovina.
What is the name of the official residence in Belgrade?
56f83323a6d7ea1400e17487
Beli dvor
187
False
What islands were the site of the State Summer Residence from 1949 on?
56f83323a6d7ea1400e17488
Brijuni
242
False
Who designed the pavilion at the State Summer Residence?
56f83323a6d7ea1400e17489
Jože Plečnik
345
False
In what city was the official residence for Tito?
56f83323a6d7ea1400e1748a
Belgrade
136
False
Film stars including Elizabeth Taylor visited what island residence of Tito?
56f83323a6d7ea1400e1748b
State Summer Residence
279
False
As the President, Tito had access to extensive (state-owned) property associated with the office, and maintained a lavish lifestyle. In Belgrade he resided in the official residence, the Beli dvor, and maintained a separate private home. The Brijuni islands were the site of the State Summer Residence from 1949 on. The pavilion was designed by Jože Plečnik, and included a zoo. Close to 100 foreign heads of state were to visit Tito at the island residence, along with film stars such as Elizabeth Taylor, Richard Burton, Sophia Loren, Carlo Ponti, and Gina Lollobrigida.
The grounds at what location were the site of "diplomatic hunts"?
56f8360ca6d7ea1400e174ab
Karađorđevo
68
False
What was the name of the yacht the Yugoslav president had at his disposal?
56f8360ca6d7ea1400e174ac
Galeb
220
False
What company bought the presidential Boeing 727 after Tito's death?
56f8360ca6d7ea1400e174ad
Aviogenex
361
False
Where was the Galeb docked after Tito's death?
56f8360ca6d7ea1400e174ae
Montenegro
401
False
What is the English translation of Galeb?
56f8360ca6d7ea1400e174af
seagull
228
False
Another residence was maintained at Lake Bled, while the grounds at Karađorđevo were the site of "diplomatic hunts". By 1974 the Yugoslav President had at his disposal 32 official residences, larger and small, the yacht Galeb ("seagull"), a Boeing 727 as the presidential airplane, and the Blue Train. After Tito's death the presidential Boeing 727 was sold to Aviogenex, the Galeb remained docked in Montenegro, while the Blue Train was stored in a Serbian train shed for over two decades. While Tito was the person who held the office of president for by far the longest period, the associated property was not private and much of it continues to be in use by Yugoslav successor states, as public property, or maintained at the disposal of high-ranking officials.
With what accent did Tito speak German according to a biographer?
56f83708aef2371900625f1d
Viennese
217
False
How much English did Tito speak?
56f83708aef2371900625f1e
some
99
False
Other than Serbo-Croatian, German, Russian, Czech, Slovenian and English, French and Italian, what language does Tito speak?
56f83708aef2371900625f1f
Kirghiz
301
False
As regards knowledge of languages, Tito replied that he spoke Serbo-Croatian, German, Russian, and some English. A biographer also stated that he spoke "Serbo-Croatian ... Russian, Czech, Slovenian ... German (with a Viennese accent) ... understands and reads French and Italian ... [and] also speaks Kirghiz."
What did Tito declare himself to be religiously as an adult?
56f837f9aef2371900625f23
atheist
302
False
What type of religious educaton did Tito attend as a child?
56f837f9aef2371900625f24
Catholic
27
False
What did a priest do to Tito as a child when he had difficulty removing the priest's vestments?
56f837f9aef2371900625f25
slapped and shouted at
110
False
After being yelled at by a priest as a child, what place of worship would Tito refuse to enter again?
56f837f9aef2371900625f26
church
237
False
In his youth Tito attended Catholic Sunday school, and was later an altar boy. After an incident where he was slapped and shouted at by a priest when he had difficulty assisting the priest to remove his vestments, Tito would not enter a church again. As an adult, he frequently declared that he was an atheist.
What is the name of the largest town or city renamed in Tito's name?
56f83905a6d7ea1400e174bd
Titograd
157
False
What is Titograd now called?
56f83905a6d7ea1400e174be
Podgorica
171
False
What is Podgorica the capital city of?
56f83905a6d7ea1400e174bf
Montenegro
202
False
Whose name was added to the name for every town or city with historical signiciance from the World War II period?
56f83905a6d7ea1400e174c0
Tito's
110
False
Every federal unit had a town or city with historic significance from the World War II period renamed to have Tito's name included. The largest of these was Titograd, now Podgorica, the capital city of Montenegro. With the exception of Titograd, the cities were renamed simply by the addition of the adjective "Tito's" ("Titov"). The cities were:
What was the name of Tito's personal doctor?
56f839d9a6d7ea1400e174cf
Aleksandar Matunović
112
False
Who wrote a book about Tito questioning his true origin?
56f839d9a6d7ea1400e174d0
Aleksandar Matunović
112
False
What Serbian journalist includes several alternate identities of Tito?
56f839d9a6d7ea1400e174d1
Vladan Dinić
319
False
In what year waas Vladan Dinic born?
56f839d9a6d7ea1400e174d2
1949
338
False
Dinic gives several alternate identities of what person?
56f839d9a6d7ea1400e174d3
Tito
414
False
In the years after Tito's death up to nowadays, some people have disputed his identity. Tito's personal doctor, Aleksandar Matunović, wrote a book about Tito in which he also questioned his true origin, noting that Tito's habits and lifestyle could only mean that he was from an aristocratic family. Serbian journalist Vladan Dinić (born 1949), in Tito nije tito, includes several possible alternate identities of Tito.
In what year did the study in Cryptologic Spectrum come out?
56f83a84a6d7ea1400e174d9
2013
3
False
What organization created the Cryptologic Spectrum?
56f83a84a6d7ea1400e174da
NSA
58
False
What other Slavic languages did the Cryptologic Spectrum conclude Tito spoke?
56f83a84a6d7ea1400e174db
Russian and Polish
203
False
The Cryptologic Spectrum also notes whose impressions of Tito's Russian origins?
56f83a84a6d7ea1400e174dc
Draža Mihailović's
350
False
In 2013 a lot of media coverage was given to unclassified NSA's study in Cryptologic Spectrum that concluded that Tito did not speak the language as a native, and had features of other Slavic languages (Russian and Polish). The hypothesis that "a non-Yugoslav, perhaps a Russian or a Pole" assumed Tito's identity was included. The report also notes Draža Mihailović's impressions of Tito's Russian origins.
Experts from what country disproved the NSA's report?
56f83b11a6d7ea1400e174e1
Croatian
54
False
What was the distinct local dialect Tito spoke?
56f83b11a6d7ea1400e174e2
Zagorje
185
False
Croatian experts disproved the report from which group concerning Tito's ethnic origins?
56f83b11a6d7ea1400e174e3
NSA
13
False
Tito's acute accent is present only in what type of dialects?
56f83b11a6d7ea1400e174e4
Croatian
228
False
However, the NSA's report was completely disproved by Croatian experts. The report failed to recognize that Tito was a native speaker of the very distinctive local Kajkavian dialect of Zagorje. The acute accent, present only in Croatian dialects, which Tito is perfectly pronouncing, is the strongest proof of Tito's belonging to Kajkavian dialect.
Starting in what year was the Communist Party outlawed in Yugoslavia?
56f83bdda6d7ea1400e174f1
1920
74
False
What party was outlawed in Yugoslavia in 1920?
56f83bdda6d7ea1400e174f2
Communist
7
False
"Rudi", "Walter" and "Tito" are names that what person assumed?
56f83bdda6d7ea1400e174f3
Josip Broz
80
False
On what date in 1920 was the Communist party outlawed in Yugoslavia?
56f83bdda6d7ea1400e174f4
30 December
62
False
What was Tito's former name?
56f83bdda6d7ea1400e174f5
Josip Broz
80
False
As the Communist Party was outlawed in Yugoslavia starting on 30 December 1920, Josip Broz took on many assumed names during his activity within the Party, including "Rudi", "Walter", and "Tito." Broz himself explains:
How many awards and decorations did Josip Broz Tito recieve?
56f83f70a6d7ea1400e17505
119
36
False
Of all of the awards Tito received, how many were from Yugoslavia itself?
56f83f70a6d7ea1400e17506
21
129
False
Which government awards the Legion of Honour and the National Order of Merit?
56f83f70a6d7ea1400e17507
French
453
False
Which government awards the Order of the Bath?
56f83f70a6d7ea1400e17508
British
510
False
Which government awards the Order of the Chrysanthemum?
56f83f70a6d7ea1400e17509
Japanese
568
False
Josip Broz Tito received a total of 119 awards and decorations from 60 countries around the world (59 countries and Yugoslavia). 21 decorations were from Yugoslavia itself, 18 having been awarded once, and the Order of the National Hero on three occasions. Of the 98 international awards and decorations, 92 were received once, and three on two occasions (Order of the White Lion, Polonia Restituta, and Karl Marx). The most notable awards included the French Legion of Honour and National Order of Merit, the British Order of the Bath, the Soviet Order of Lenin, the Japanese Order of the Chrysanthemum, the German Federal Cross of Merit, and the Order of Merit of Italy.
In what year did the Tito-Stalin split occur?
56f83ffaaef2371900625f49
1948
79
False
In what year was Tito inaugurated as president?
56f83ffaaef2371900625f4a
1953
121
False
In what year was Tito's funeral?
56f83ffaaef2371900625f4b
1980
357
False
Who was the founder of the Non-Aligned Movement?
56f83ffaaef2371900625f4c
Tito
363
False
Who was inauguarated as President of Yugoslavia in 1953?
56f83ffaaef2371900625f4d
Tito
127
False
The decorations were seldom displayed, however. After the Tito–Stalin split of 1948 and his inauguration as president in 1953, Tito rarely wore his uniform except when present in a military function, and then (with rare exception) only wore his Yugoslav ribbons for obvious practical reasons. The awards were displayed in full number only at his funeral in 1980. Tito's reputation as one of the Allied leaders of World War II, along with his diplomatic position as the founder of the Non-Aligned Movement, was primarily the cause of the favorable international recognition.
Tito was awarded the Star of what country?
56f840dea6d7ea1400e1750f
Romania
261
False
Tito was awarded the Decoration of Honour for Services to the Republic of what country?
56f840dea6d7ea1400e17510
Austria
443
False
Tito was awarded the Queen of where?
56f840dea6d7ea1400e17511
Sheba
788
False
Tito was awarded with the Order of the White Rose of what country?
56f840dea6d7ea1400e17512
Finland
822
False
Tito was awarded with the Royal Order of what country?
56f840dea6d7ea1400e17513
Cambodia
862
False
Some of the other foreign awards and decorations of Josip Broz Tito include Order of Merit, Order of Manuel Amador Guerrero, Order of Prince Henry, Order of Independence, Order of Merit, Order of the Nile, Order of the Condor of the Andes, Order of the Star of Romania, Order of the Gold Lion of the House of Nassau, Croix de Guerre, Order of the Cross of Grunwald, Czechoslovak War Cross, Decoration of Honour for Services to the Republic of Austria, Military Order of the White Lion, Nishan-e-Pakistan, Order of Al Rafidain, Order of Carol I, Order of Georgi Dimitrov, Order of Karl Marx, Order of Manuel Amador Guerrero, Order of Michael the Brave, Order of Pahlavi, Order of Sukhbaatar, Order of Suvorov, Order of the Liberator, Order of the October Revolution, Order of the Queen of Sheba, Order of the White Rose of Finland, Partisan Cross, Royal Order of Cambodia and Star of People's Friendship and Thiri Thudhamma Thingaha.[citation needed]
Marshall_Islands
What is the name of the Marshall Islands in its native language?
56f78825aef2371900625b95
Aolepān Aorōkin M̧ajeļ
84
False
Near what major line of latitutde are the Marshall Islands located?
56f78825aef2371900625b96
the equator
151
False
As of 2011, how many people live in the Marshall Islands?
56f78825aef2371900625b97
53,158
337
False
What country borders the Marshall Islands on the western side?
56f78825aef2371900625b98
the Federated States of Micronesia
499
False
Which island is home to the capital of the Marshall Islands?
56f78825aef2371900625b99
Majuro
692
False
What is the official name of the Marshall Islands?
56f9519a9e9bad19000a0825
Republic of the Marshall Islands
37
False
In what ocean are the Marshall Islands located?
56f9519a9e9bad19000a0826
Pacific Ocean
170
False
How many people lived in the Marshall Islands in 2011?
56f9519a9e9bad19000a0827
53,158
337
False
How many coral atolls comprise the Marshall Islands?
56f9519a9e9bad19000a0828
29
391
False
On what island is the capital of the Marshall Islands?
56f9519a9e9bad19000a0829
Majuro
692
False
The Marshall Islands, officially the Republic of the Marshall Islands (Marshallese: Aolepān Aorōkin M̧ajeļ),[note 1] is an island country located near the equator in the Pacific Ocean, slightly west of the International Date Line. Geographically, the country is part of the larger island group of Micronesia. The country's population of 53,158 people (at the 2011 Census) is spread out over 29 coral atolls, comprising 1,156 individual islands and islets. The islands share maritime boundaries with the Federated States of Micronesia to the west, Wake Island to the north,[note 2] Kiribati to the south-east, and Nauru to the south. About 27,797 of the islanders (at the 2011 Census) live on Majuro, which contains the capital.
Who were the original settlers of the area that became the Marshall Islands?
56f788eeaef2371900625b9f
Micronesian colonists
0
False
How were original settlers of the area able to move between islands?
56f788eeaef2371900625ba0
traditional stick charts
140
False
In what year did a European explorer first see the Marshall Islands?
56f788eeaef2371900625ba1
1526
308
False
Which explorer first saw the Marshall Islands?
56f788eeaef2371900625ba2
Alonso de Salazar
262
False
For whom are the Marshall Islands named?
56f788eeaef2371900625ba3
John Marshall
423
False
During what span were the Marshall Islands first settled?
56f9525a9b226e1400dd1308
2nd millennium BC
72
False
In what decade did Europeans first visit the Marshall Islands?
56f9525a9b226e1400dd130a
1520s
233
False
In what month and year did a European first arrive at the Marshall Islands?
56f9525a9b226e1400dd130b
August 1526
301
False
After whom are the Marshall Islands named?
56f9525a9b226e1400dd130c
John Marshall
423
False
Micronesian colonists gradually settled the Marshall Islands during the 2nd millennium BC, with inter-island navigation made possible using traditional stick charts. Islands in the archipelago were first explored by Europeans in the 1520s, with Spanish explorer Alonso de Salazar sighting an atoll in August 1526. Other expeditions by Spanish and English ships followed. The islands derive their name from British explorer John Marshall, who visited in 1788. The islands were historically known by the inhabitants as "jolet jen Anij" (Gifts from God).
In what year did the Marshall Islands gain official recognition by the major European nations?
56f78981aef2371900625ba9
1874
81
False
In 1884, which country purchased the Marshall Islands?
56f78981aef2371900625baa
the German Empire
122
False
What group was the Marshall Islands a part of following World War I?
56f78981aef2371900625bab
the South Pacific Mandate
356
False
Who took over the Marshall Islands in the second world war?
56f78981aef2371900625bac
the United States
400
False
In what year did the Marshall Islands achieve total sovereignty?
56f78981aef2371900625bad
1986
694
False
What European nation owned the Marshall Islands in 1874?
56f952ba9b226e1400dd1312
Spain
96
False
Who bought the Marshall Islands from the Spanish in 1884?
56f952ba9b226e1400dd1313
the German Empire
122
False
Who occupied the Marshall Islands during the First World War?
56f952ba9b226e1400dd1314
Japan
229
False
In what year was the South Pacific Mandate created?
56f952ba9b226e1400dd1315
1919
275
False
In what year did the Marshall Islands become a sovereign nation?
56f952ba9b226e1400dd1316
1986
694
False
The European powers recognized the islands as part of the Spanish East Indies in 1874. However, Spain sold the islands to the German Empire in 1884, and they became part of German New Guinea in 1885. In World War I the Empire of Japan occupied the Marshall Islands, which in 1919 the League of Nations combined with other former German territories to form the South Pacific Mandate. In World War II, the United States conquered the islands in the Gilbert and Marshall Islands campaign. Along with other Pacific Islands, the Marshall Islands were then consolidated into the Trust Territory of the Pacific Islands governed by the US. Self-government was achieved in 1979, and full sovereignty in 1986, under a Compact of Free Association with the United States. Marshall Islands has been a United Nations member state since 1991.
What term describes the type of government of the Marshall Islands?
56f78a17aef2371900625bb3
presidential republic
39
False
With which country are the Marshall Islands closely related?
56f78a17aef2371900625bb4
the United States
86
False
What is the main focus of the Marshall Islands' economy?
56f78a17aef2371900625bb5
service
273
False
What does the Marshall Islands receive from the United States?
56f78a17aef2371900625bb6
aid
331
False
What is the currency of the Marshall Islands?
56f78a17aef2371900625bb7
the United States dollar
445
False
Along with the USPS, what United States agency operates in the Marshall Islands?
56f9532e9b226e1400dd131c
the FCC
189
False
What is the main component of the Marshall Islands economy?
56f9532e9b226e1400dd131d
service
273
False
What is the official currency of the Marshall Islands?
56f9532e9b226e1400dd131e
United States dollar
449
False
What is the government structure of the Marshall Islands?
56f9532e9b226e1400dd131f
presidential republic
39
False
Assistance from what country is an important part of the Marshall Islands economy?
56f9532e9b226e1400dd1320
the United States
340
False
Politically, the Marshall Islands is a presidential republic in free association with the United States, with the US providing defense, subsidies, and access to U.S. based agencies such as the FCC and the USPS. With few natural resources, the islands' wealth is based on a service economy, as well as some fishing and agriculture; aid from the United States represents a large percentage of the islands' gross domestic product. The country uses the United States dollar as its currency.
What is the ethnicity of most people living in the Marshall Islands?
56f78ae6a6d7ea1400e17242
Marshallese
60
False
What family of languages does Marshallese belong to?
56f78ae6a6d7ea1400e17243
Malayo-Polynesian
265
False
What does UCCCMI stand for?
56f78ae6a6d7ea1400e17244
United Church of Christ – Congregational in the Marshall Islands
432
False
Aside from UCCCMI, what is the other major religious denomination of the Marshall Islands?
56f78ae6a6d7ea1400e17245
the Assemblies of God
509
False
From what non-Asian nation do some people living in the Marshall Islands come?
56f78ae6a6d7ea1400e17246
the United States
131
False
Of what ancestry are most Marshall Islands citizens?
56f953f49b226e1400dd1326
Marshallese
60
False
Along with Marshallese, what is the official language of the Marshall Islands?
56f953f49b226e1400dd1327
English
298
False
Of what language group is the Marshallese language?
56f953f49b226e1400dd1328
Malayo-Polynesian
265
False
What fraction of Marshall Islands residents are religious?
56f953f49b226e1400dd1329
three-quarters
381
False
Along with the United Church of Christ and the UCCCMI, what is a main religion of the Marshall Islands?
56f953f49b226e1400dd132a
the Assemblies of God
509
False
The majority of the citizens of the Marshall Islands are of Marshallese descent, though there are small numbers of immigrants from the United States, China, Philippines and other Pacific islands. The two official languages are Marshallese, which is a member of the Malayo-Polynesian languages, and English. Almost the entire population of the islands practises some religion, with three-quarters of the country either following the United Church of Christ – Congregational in the Marshall Islands (UCCCMI) or the Assemblies of God.
Who arrived at the Marshall Islands in the second millennium BC?
56f78bb1a6d7ea1400e1724c
Micronesians
0
False
What did not exist at the time during which Micronesians arrived at the Marshall Islands?
56f78bb1a6d7ea1400e1724d
historical or oral records
85
False
What vessel did early settlers of the Marshall Islands use to travel?
56f78bb1a6d7ea1400e1724e
canoe
215
False
What is the name of the item used as a primitive type of map for navigation by early settlers of the Marshall Islands?
56f78bb1a6d7ea1400e1724f
traditional stick charts
227
False
Who first settled the Marshall Islands?
56f954419b226e1400dd1330
Micronesians
0
False
When were the Marshal Islands first settled?
56f954419b226e1400dd1331
2nd millennium BC
49
False
In what vehicles did the Marshall Islanders travel by water?
56f954419b226e1400dd1332
canoe
215
False
What navigation aids did the Marshall Islanders use?
56f954419b226e1400dd1333
stick charts
239
False
Micronesians settled the Marshall Islands in the 2nd millennium BC, but there are no historical or oral records of that period. Over time, the Marshall Island people learned to navigate over long ocean distances by canoe using traditional stick charts.
Which European first saw the Marshall Islands?
56f78c18a6d7ea1400e17254
Alonso de Salazar
17
False
What was Alonso de Salazar's nationality?
56f78c18a6d7ea1400e17255
Spanish
0
False
In what year did Salazar view the Marshall Islands?
56f78c18a6d7ea1400e17256
1526
80
False
What was the name of Alonso de Salazar's ship?
56f78c18a6d7ea1400e17257
Santa Maria de la Victoria
106
False
What did Alonso de Salazar call the island that he saw?
56f78c18a6d7ea1400e17258
San Bartolome
262
False
Who was the first person from Europe to observe the Marshall Islands?
56f954c09b226e1400dd1338
Alonso de Salazar
17
False
What was the nationality of the first European to observe the Marshall Islands?
56f954c09b226e1400dd1339
Spanish
0
False
In what year did the first European view the Marshall Islands?
56f954c09b226e1400dd133a
1526
80
False
What was the name of Alonso de Salazar's ship?
56f954c09b226e1400dd133b
Santa Maria de la Victoria
106
False
Which of the Marshall Islands did Salazar most likely see?
56f954c09b226e1400dd133c
Taongi
231
False
Spanish explorer Alonso de Salazar was the first European to see the islands in 1526, commanding the ship Santa Maria de la Victoria, the only surviving vessel of the Loaísa Expedition. On August 21, he sighted an island (probably Taongi) at 14°N that he named "San Bartolome".
Whose ship was named Florida?
56f78ce7aef2371900625bbd
Álvaro de Saavedra Cerón
23
False
From where did Cerón attempt to cross the Pacific Ocean?
56f78ce7aef2371900625bbe
the Maluku Islands
134
False
What did Cerón name the islands from which people threw rocks at his vessel?
56f78ce7aef2371900625bbf
Los Pintados
273
False
What was the name given to the islands reached by Cerón in October of 1529?
56f78ce7aef2371900625bc0
Los Jardines
489
False
What are two possible modern names for the islands called Los Jardines by Cerón?
56f78ce7aef2371900625bc1
Enewetak or Bikini Atoll
518
False
Who was in charge of the ship named Florida?
56f955b19b226e1400dd1342
Álvaro de Saavedra Cerón
23
False
Where did Cerón's expedition begin?
56f955b19b226e1400dd1343
the Maluku Islands
134
False
What name did Cerón give to the island that might have been Ujelang?
56f955b19b226e1400dd1344
Los Pintados
273
False
What group of islands might have been Bikini Atoll or Enewetak?
56f955b19b226e1400dd1345
Los Jardines
489
False
How long did Cerón spend on Los Jardines?
56f955b19b226e1400dd1346
eight days
384
False
On September 21, 1529, Álvaro de Saavedra Cerón commanded the Spanish ship Florida, on his second attempt to recross the Pacific from the Maluku Islands. He stood off a group of islands from which local inhabitants hurled stones at his ship. These islands, which he named "Los Pintados", may have been Ujelang. On October 1, he found another group of islands where he went ashore for eight days, exchanged gifts with the local inhabitants and took on water. These islands, which he named "Los Jardines", may have been Enewetak or Bikini Atoll.
What was the name given to the island reached by Miguel Lopez de Legazpi on January 9th of 1530?
56f78d9daef2371900625bc7
Los Barbudos
187
False
What is thought to be the modern name of the island Legazpi called Los Barbudos?
56f78d9daef2371900625bc8
Mejit
153
False
On what date did Legazpi's expedition see the island it named Placeres?
56f78d9daef2371900625bc9
January 10
270
False
What name did the expedition give to the island it saw on January 12th?
56f78d9daef2371900625bca
Corrales
520
False
What was the location of Corrales?
56f78d9daef2371900625bcb
10°N
497
False
Who led the expedition involving the ship San Pedro?
56f956539b226e1400dd1356
Miguel López de Legazpi
79
False
What did Miguel López de Legazpi call the island discovered on January 9, 1530?
56f956539b226e1400dd1357
Los Barbudos
187
False
What did the Spanish call the island that might have been Ailuk?
56f956539b226e1400dd1358
Placeres
336
False
On what day did the Spanish see the island they named Corrales?
56f956539b226e1400dd1359
January 12
454
False
What island may have been spotted by the Spanish on January 15?
56f956539b226e1400dd135a
Ujelang
613
False
The Spanish ship San Pedro and two other vessels in an expedition commanded by Miguel López de Legazpi discovered an island on January 9, 1530, possibly Mejit, at 10°N, which they named "Los Barbudos". The Spaniards went ashore and traded with the local inhabitants. On January 10, the Spaniards sighted another island that they named "Placeres", perhaps Ailuk; ten leagues away, they sighted another island that they called "Pajares" (perhaps Jemo). On January 12, they sighted another island at 10°N that they called "Corrales" (possibly Wotho). On January 15, the Spaniards sighted another low island, perhaps Ujelang, at 10°N, where they described the people on "Barbudos". After that, ships including the San Jeronimo, Los Reyes and Todos los Santos also visited the islands in different years.
Who arrived at the Marshall Islands in 1788?
56f78e35aef2371900625bd1
Captain John Charles Marshall and Thomas Gilbert
0
False
What do natives of the Marshall Islands call their country?
56f78e35aef2371900625bd2
jolet jen Anij
190
False
Which Russian was involved in naming the Marshall Islands?
56f78e35aef2371900625bd3
Adam Johann von Krusenstern
254
False
Which French citizen was involved in naming the Marshall Islands?
56f78e35aef2371900625bd4
Louis Isidore Duperrey
306
False
At what island did the Globe arrive in 1824?
56f78e35aef2371900625bd5
Mulgrave
557
False
Who notably accompanied John Charles Marshall to the Marshall Islands?
56f956c89b226e1400dd1360
Thomas Gilbert
34
False
In what year did Marshall and Gilbert go to the islands?
56f956c89b226e1400dd1361
1788
72
False
What is the traditional name of the Marshall Islands?
56f956c89b226e1400dd1362
jolet jen Anij
190
False
What is the English translation of the traditional name of the Marshall Islands?
56f956c89b226e1400dd1363
Gifts from God
207
False
On what island did mutinous American whalers land in 1824?
56f956c89b226e1400dd1364
Mulgrave Island
557
False
Captain John Charles Marshall and Thomas Gilbert visited the islands in 1788. The islands were named for Marshall on Western charts, although the natives have historically named their home "jolet jen Anij" (Gifts from God). Around 1820, Russian explorer Adam Johann von Krusenstern and the French explorer Louis Isidore Duperrey named the islands after John Marshall, and drew maps of the islands. The designation was repeated later on British maps.[citation needed] In 1824 the crew of the American whaler Globe mutinied and some of the crew put ashore on Mulgrave Island. One year later, the American schooner Dolphin arrived and picked up two boys, the last survivors of a massacre by the natives due to their brutal treatment of the women.:2
Who was the leader of the group attacked by the people of the Marshall Islands in 1834?
56f799d2a6d7ea1400e1725e
Captain DonSette
88
False
What vessel was attacked in 1845?
56f799d2a6d7ea1400e1725f
Naiad
163
False
What ships were attacked in 1852?
56f799d2a6d7ea1400e17260
Glencoe and Sea Nymph
343
False
In what year did missionaries arrive to live in the Marshall Islands?
56f799d2a6d7ea1400e17261
1857
585
False
On what island did the Missionaries live with citizens of the Marshall Islands?
56f799d2a6d7ea1400e17262
Ebon
632
False
Who was the captain of the crew killed in 1834?
56f9575c9e9bad19000a0849
Captain DonSette
88
False
In what year was the ship Naiad attacked by natives?
56f9575c9e9bad19000a084a
1845
145
False
What type of ship was the Naiad?
56f9575c9e9bad19000a084b
schooner
154
False
Out of what city was the Sea Nymph sailing?
56f9575c9e9bad19000a084c
San Francisco
317
False
Where did missionaries live as of 1857?
56f9575c9e9bad19000a084d
Ebon
632
False
A number of vessels visiting the islands were attacked and their crews killed. In 1834, Captain DonSette and his crew were killed. Similarly, in 1845 the schooner Naiad punished a native for stealing with such violence that the natives attacked the ship. Later that year a whaler's boat crew were killed. In 1852 the San Francisco-based ships Glencoe and Sea Nymph were attacked and everyone aboard except for one crew member were killed. The violence was usually attributed as a response to the ill treatment of the natives in response to petty theft, which was a common practice. In 1857, two missionaries successfully settled on Ebon, living among the natives through at least 1870.:3
What nation had a claim on the Marshall Islands as of 1874?
56f957e29b226e1400dd136a
the Spanish Empire
9
False
What nation formed a protectorate over the Marshall Islands?
56f957e29b226e1400dd136b
the German Empire
166
False
What nation asserted their rights over the Gilbert and Ellice islands?
56f957e29b226e1400dd136c
Britain
215
False
On what ship did German ambassadors arrive in the Marshall Islands?
56f957e29b226e1400dd136d
SMS Nautilus
403
False
What title did the Germans give to Kabua?
56f957e29b226e1400dd136e
King of the Ralik Islands
551
False
Although the Spanish Empire had a residual claim on the Marshalls in 1874, when she began asserting her sovereignty over the Carolines, she made no effort to prevent the German Empire from gaining a foothold there. Britain also raised no objection to a German protectorate over the Marshalls in exchange for German recognition of Britain's rights in the Gilbert and Ellice Islands. On October 13, 1885, SMS Nautilus under Captain Rötger brought German emissaries to Jaluit. They signed a treaty with Kabua, whom the Germans had earlier recognized as "King of the Ralik Islands," on October 15.
On what day was a final treaty signed between the Marshall Islands chiefs and the Germans?
56f9586b9b226e1400dd1374
November 1
138
False
What status did the Marshall Islands have in Germany?
56f9586b9b226e1400dd1375
Imperial German Protectorate
228
False
What nation had control of the Carolines?
56f9586b9b226e1400dd1376
Spain
332
False
What notable resource was available in the Marshall Islands?
56f9586b9b226e1400dd1377
copra
529
False
In what year did Germany buy the Marshalls from Spain?
56f9586b9b226e1400dd1378
1884
587
False
Subsequently, seven other chiefs on seven other islands signed a treaty in German and Marshallese and a final copy witnessed by Rötger on November 1 was sent to the German Foreign Office. The Germans erected a sign declaring a "Imperial German Protectorate" at Jaluit. It has been speculated that the crisis over the Carolines with Spain, which almost provoked a war, was in fact "a feint to cover the acquisition of the Marshall Islands", which went almost unnoticed at the time, despite the islands being the largest source of copra in Micronesia. Spain sold the islands to Germany in 1884 through papal mediation.
What company ran the Marshall Islands in the late 19th century?
56f959019e9bad19000a085d
the Jaluit Gesellschaft
26
False
When did the Jaluit Gesellschaft's administration of the islands end?
56f959019e9bad19000a085e
1905
92
False
What document was signed in 1899?
56f959019e9bad19000a085f
the German–Spanish Treaty of 1899
168
False
Along with the Marianas and Palau, what islands were acquired from Spain in 1899?
56f959019e9bad19000a0860
the Carolines
229
False
What official administered Germany's Micronesian possessions?
56f959019e9bad19000a0861
the governor of German New Guinea
358
False
A German trading company, the Jaluit Gesellschaft, administered the islands from 1887 until 1905. They conscripted the islanders as laborers and mistreated them. After the German–Spanish Treaty of 1899, in which Germany acquired the Carolines, Palau, and the Marianas from Spain, Germany placed all of its Micronesian islands, including the Marshalls, under the governor of German New Guinea.
What Catholic group was Father Erdland a part of?
56f959be9b226e1400dd137e
the Sacred Heart Jesu Society
44
False
In what year did Father Erdland leave the Marshall Islands?
56f959be9b226e1400dd137f
1914
137
False
In what year was Father Linckens' last visit to the Marshalls?
56f959be9b226e1400dd1380
1911
434
False
When was Father Linckens' book published?
56f959be9b226e1400dd1381
1912
487
False
In what year did Father Linckens first travel to the Marshalls?
56f959be9b226e1400dd1382
1904
425
False
Catholic missionary Father A. Erdland, from the Sacred Heart Jesu Society based in Hiltrup, Germany, lived on Jaluit from around 1904 to 1914. He was very interested in the islands and conducted considerable research on the Marshallese culture and language. He published a 376-page monograph on the islands in 1914. Father H. Linckens, another missionary from the Sacred Heart of Jesu Society visited the Marshall Islands in 1904 and 1911 for several weeks. He published a small work in 1912 about the Catholic mission activities and the people of the Marshall Islands.
What notable historical event occurred in Japan in 1868?
56f95a099b226e1400dd1388
the Meiji Restoration
180
False
In what region did the Japanese attempt to build up their power after 1868?
56f95a099b226e1400dd1389
East Asia
326
False
Along with fishermen, what sort of Japanese people visited the Marshalls?
56f95a099b226e1400dd138a
traders
53
False
Under German control, and even before then, Japanese traders and fishermen from time to time visited the Marshall Islands, although contact with the islanders was irregular. After the Meiji Restoration (1868), the Japanese government adopted a policy of turning the Japanese Empire into a great economic and military power in East Asia.
On what date did the Japanese land on Enewetak?
56f95a919b226e1400dd138e
September 29, 1914
134
False
What military alliance did the Japanese join in the First World War?
56f95a919b226e1400dd138f
the Entente
22
False
What did the Japanese occupy on September 30, 1914?
56f95a919b226e1400dd1390
the Jaluit Atoll
226
False
On what date was the Treaty of Versailles signed?
56f95a919b226e1400dd1391
June 28, 1919
313
False
When was the South Pacific Mandate for Japan approved?
56f95a919b226e1400dd1392
December 17, 1920
465
False
In 1914, Japan joined the Entente during World War I and captured various German Empire colonies, including several in Micronesia. On September 29, 1914, Japanese troops occupied the Enewetak Atoll, and on September 30, 1914, the Jaluit Atoll, the administrative centre of the Marshall Islands. After the war, on June 28, 1919, Germany signed (under protest) the Treaty of Versailles. It renounced all of its Pacific possessions, including the Marshall Islands. On December 17, 1920, the Council of the League of Nations approved the South Pacific Mandate for Japan to take over all former German colonies in the Pacific Ocean located north of the Equator. The Administrative Centre of the Marshall Islands archipelago remained Jaluit.
About how many Japanese emigrated to the Marshalls when it was a Japanese colony?
56f95b049e9bad19000a0871
1,000
386
False
What was the primary nature of Germany's interest in the Marshall Islands?
56f95b049e9bad19000a0872
economic
32
False
What was the primary nature of Japan's interest in the Marshall Islands?
56f95b049e9bad19000a0873
land
97
False
Along with the Mariana Islands, on what island were there more Japanese settlers than indigenous inhabitants?
56f95b049e9bad19000a0874
Palau
519
False
The German Empire had primarily economic interests in Micronesia. The Japanese interests were in land. Despite the Marshalls' small area and few resources, the absorption of the territory by Japan would to some extent alleviate Japan's problem of an increasing population with a diminishing amount of available land to house it. During its years of colonial rule, Japan moved more than 1,000 Japanese to the Marshall Islands although they never outnumbered the indigenous peoples as they did in the Mariana Islands and Palau.
What was the traditional social organization of the Marshall Islanders?
56f95b769e9bad19000a0879
Matrilineality
196
False
What system of social organization was used in Japan?
56f95b769e9bad19000a087a
the Japanese Patriarchal system
214
False
On what date did the Japanese leave the League of Nations?
56f95b769e9bad19000a087b
March 27, 1933
761
False
What language were Marshall Islanders taught in schools while under Japanese colonial administration?
56f95b769e9bad19000a087c
Japanese
587
False
Along with Protestants, missionaries from what denomination were allowed to operate in the Marshalls?
56f95b769e9bad19000a087d
Catholic
471
False
The Japanese enlarged administration and appointed local leaders, which weakened the authority of local traditional leaders. Japan also tried to change the social organization in the islands from Matrilineality to the Japanese Patriarchal system, but with no success. Moreover, during the 1930s, one third of all land up to the high water level was declared the property of the Japanese government. On the archipelago, before it banned foreign traders, the activities of Catholic and Protestant missionaries were allowed. Indigenous people were educated in Japanese schools, and studied Japanese language and Japanese culture. This policy was the government strategy not only in the Marshall Islands, but on all the other mandated territories in Micronesia. On March 27, 1933, Japan handed in its notice at the League of Nations, but continued to manage the islands, and in the late 1930s began building air bases on several atolls. The Marshall Islands were in an important geographical position, being the easternmost point in Japan's defensive ring at the beginning of World War II.
What Japanese fleet was based in the Marshall Islands?
56f95bb59b226e1400dd13a2
6th Fleet
111
False
On what atoll was the 6th Fleet Forces Service based?
56f95bb59b226e1400dd13a3
Kwajalein
49
False
What was the mission of the 6th Fleet Forces Service?
56f95bb59b226e1400dd13a4
defense of the Marshall Islands
156
False
In the months before the attack on Pearl Harbor, Kwajalein Atoll was the administrative center of the Japanese 6th Fleet Forces Service, whose task was the defense of the Marshall Islands.
During what conflict did the US occupy the Marshall Islands?
56f95c439b226e1400dd13a8
World War II
3
False
What was the name of the campaign in which the US occupied the Marshalls?
56f95c439b226e1400dd13a9
the Gilbert and Marshall Islands campaign
43
False
In what year did the United States occupy the Marshalls?
56f95c439b226e1400dd13aa
1944
122
False
How many months did it take for the US to occupy Kwajalein Atoll, Majuro and Enewetak?
56f95c439b226e1400dd13ab
one
184
False
Along with Mili, Maloelap and Jaluit, what parts of the Marshall Islands were not occupied in the first three months of the American campaign?
56f95c439b226e1400dd13ac
Wotje
334
False
In World War II, the United States, during the Gilbert and Marshall Islands campaign, invaded and occupied the islands in 1944, destroying or isolating the Japanese garrisons. In just one month in 1944, Americans captured Kwajalein Atoll, Majuro and Enewetak, and, in the next two months, the rest of the Marshall Islands, except for Wotje, Mili, Maloelap and Jaluit.
In what year did American air attacks on the Marshalls begin?
56f95ca49e9bad19000a088b
1943
222
False
How large was the Japanese garrison on Mili?
56f95ca49e9bad19000a088c
5,100
269
False
What fraction of the Japanese garrison on Mili died due to hunger?
56f95ca49e9bad19000a088d
half
239
False
Along with injuries, what suffering did the American bombing cause to the Marshall Islanders?
56f95ca49e9bad19000a088e
lack of food
159
False
The battle in the Marshall Islands caused irreparable damage, especially on Japanese bases. During the American bombing, the islands' population suffered from lack of food and various injuries. U.S. attacks started in mid-1943, and caused half the Japanese garrison of 5,100 people in the atoll Mili to die from hunger by August 1945.
During what conflict did the US occupy the Marshalls?
56f95d2a9b226e1400dd13ba
World War II
61
False
What resolution of the UN Security Council gave the United States control over the Marshalls?
56f95d2a9b226e1400dd13bb
Security Council Resolution 21
312
False
In what year was the Trust Territory of the Pacific Islands created?
56f95d2a9b226e1400dd13bc
1947
229
False
What is the name of the broader region that the Marshall Islands are a part of?
56f95d2a9b226e1400dd13bd
Micronesia
147
False
Following capture and occupation by the United States during World War II, the Marshall Islands, along with several other island groups located in Micronesia, passed formally to the United States under United Nations auspices in 1947 as part of the Trust Territory of the Pacific Islands established pursuant to Security Council Resolution 21.
In what year did the Cold War begin?
56f95da19b226e1400dd13c2
1946
44
False
How many nuclear weapons were tested in the Marshall Islands between 1946 and 1958?
56f95da19b226e1400dd13c3
67
83
False
What was the name of the United States' largest atmospheric nuclear test?
56f95da19b226e1400dd13c4
Castle Bravo
252
False
What was the yield of the Castle Bravo bombs in kilotons?
56f95da19b226e1400dd13c5
108,496
298
False
Which of the Marshall Islands was destroyed in a United States hydrogen bomb test?
56f95da19b226e1400dd13c6
Elugelab
487
False
During the early years of the Cold War from 1946 to 1958, the United States tested 67 nuclear weapons at its Pacific Proving Grounds located in the Marshall Islands, including the largest atmospheric nuclear test ever conducted by the U.S., code named Castle Bravo. "The bombs had a total yield of 108,496 kilotons, over 7,200 times more powerful than the atomic weapons used during World War II." With the 1952 test of the first U.S. hydrogen bomb, code named "Ivy Mike," the island of Elugelab in the Enewetak atoll was destroyed. In 1956, the United States Atomic Energy Commission regarded the Marshall Islands as "by far the most contaminated place in the world."
What was the name of the US study of nuclear fallout on Bikini Atoll?
56f95e089e9bad19000a0893
Project 4.1
122
False
When did the United States begin to pay compensation to Marshall Islanders for nuclear weapon exposure?
56f95e089e9bad19000a0894
1956
261
False
In millions of dollars, how much money did the United States pay out in nuclear testing compensation to Marshall Island residents between 1956 and 1998?
56f95e089e9bad19000a0895
759
292
False
Nuclear claims between the U.S. and the Marshall Islands are ongoing, and health effects from these nuclear tests linger. Project 4.1 was a medical study conducted by the United States of those residents of the Bikini Atoll exposed to radioactive fallout. From 1956 to August 1998, at least $759 million was paid to the Marshallese Islanders in compensation for their exposure to U.S. nuclear weapon testing.
What document granted sovereignty to the Marshall Islands?
56f95e5e9e9bad19000a0899
the Compact of Free Association
9
False
In what year did the Marshall Islands receive sovereignty?
56f95e5e9e9bad19000a089a
1986
3
False
Where in the Marshall Islands does the United States have a missile testing range?
56f95e5e9e9bad19000a089b
Kwajalein Atoll
290
False
When did UN Trusteeship over the Marshall Islands end?
56f95e5e9e9bad19000a089c
1990
384
False
What Security Council Resolution ended UN Trusteeship over the Marshalls?
56f95e5e9e9bad19000a089d
Security Council Resolution 683
454
False
In 1986, the Compact of Free Association with the United States entered into force, granting the Republic of the Marshall Islands (RMI) its sovereignty. The Compact provided for aid and U.S. defense of the islands in exchange for continued U.S. military use of the missile testing range at Kwajalein Atoll. The independence procedure was formally completed under international law in 1990, when the UN officially ended the Trusteeship status pursuant to Security Council Resolution 683.
What is the capital of the Marshall Islands?
56f95ecc9e9bad19000a08a3
Majuro
88
False
On what day in 2008 did the Marshall Island government declare a state of emergency?
56f95ecc9e9bad19000a08a4
Christmas
156
False
In meters, how high were the 2008 floods?
56f95ecc9e9bad19000a08a5
0.91
128
False
What caused the 2008 floods?
56f95ecc9e9bad19000a08a6
extreme waves and high tides
9
False
In what year did waves overcome the walls of the capital city?
56f95ecc9e9bad19000a08a7
2013
232
False
In 2008, extreme waves and high tides caused widespread flooding in the capital city of Majuro and other urban centres, 3 feet (0.91 m) above sea level. On Christmas morning in 2008, the government declared a state of emergency. In 2013, heavy waves once again breached the city walls of Majuro.
What part of the Marshall Islands experienced drought in 2013?
56f95f3a9e9bad19000a08ad
the northern atolls
9
False
How many people were stricken by drought in 2013?
56f95f3a9e9bad19000a08ae
6,000
91
False
In the drought stricken areas, how many litres of water did residents consume each day?
56f95f3a9e9bad19000a08af
1
127
False
Along with pink eye and influenza, what other health issue was caused by the drought?
56f95f3a9e9bad19000a08b0
diarrhea
259
False
What official declared a state of emergency in the Marshall Islands in response to the drought?
56f95f3a9e9bad19000a08b1
the United States President
324
False
In 2013, the northern atolls of the Marshall Islands experienced drought. The drought left 6,000 people surviving on less than 1 litre (0.22 imp gal; 0.26 US gal) of water per day. This resulted in the failure of food crops and the spread of diseases such as diarrhea, pink eye, and influenza. These emergencies resulted in the United States President declaring an emergency in the islands. This declaration activated support from US government agencies under the Republic's "free association" status with the United States, which provides humanitarian and other vital support.
As of 2013, who was the Marshall Islands Minister of Foreign Affairs?
56f95fca9b226e1400dd13d4
Tony de Brum
64
False
In what month and year did the 44th Pacific Islands Forum summit take place?
56f95fca9b226e1400dd13d5
September 2013
394
False
What document did Foreign Minister de Brum present at the 44th Pacific Islands Forum summit?
56f95fca9b226e1400dd13d6
Majuro Declaration for Climate Leadership
496
False
What environmental issue did the Majuro Declaration for Climate Leadership address?
56f95fca9b226e1400dd13d7
climate change
570
False
Who encouraged de Brum to address climate issues?
56f95fca9b226e1400dd13d8
the Obama administration
95
False
Following the 2013 emergencies, the Minister of Foreign Affairs Tony de Brum was encouraged by the Obama administration in the United States to turn the crises into an opportunity to promote action against climate change. De Brum demanded new commitment and international leadership to stave off further climate disasters from battering his country and other similarly vulnerable countries. In September 2013, the Marshall Islands hosted the 44th Pacific Islands Forum summit. De Brum proposed a Majuro Declaration for Climate Leadership to galvanize concrete action on climate change.
What is the governing system of the Marshall Islands?
56f9608b9b226e1400dd13de
parliamentary-presidential system
62
False
How old must a citizen of the Marshall Islands be to vote?
56f9608b9b226e1400dd13df
18
212
False
How often are elections held in the Marshall Islands?
56f9608b9b226e1400dd13e0
every four years
149
False
What is the name of the Marshall Islands legislature?
56f9608b9b226e1400dd13e1
Nitijela
377
False
When was the most recent constitution of the Marshall Islands adopted?
56f9608b9b226e1400dd13e2
1979
652
False
The government of the Marshall Islands operates under a mixed parliamentary-presidential system as set forth in its Constitution. Elections are held every four years in universal suffrage (for all citizens above 18), with each of the twenty-four constituencies (see below) electing one or more representatives (senators) to the lower house of RMI's unicameral legislature, the Nitijela. (Majuro, the capital atoll, elects five senators.) The President, who is head of state as well as head of government, is elected by the 33 senators of the Nitijela. Four of the five Marshallese presidents who have been elected since the Constitution was adopted in 1979 have been traditional paramount chiefs.
What is the name of the upper house of the Marshall Islands Parliament?
56f961049b226e1400dd13e8
the Council of Iroij
80
False
Who comprises the upper house of the Marshall Islands Parliament?
56f961049b226e1400dd13e9
twelve tribal chiefs
133
False
How many ministers are in the Presidential Cabinet?
56f961049b226e1400dd13ea
ten
250
False
Along with the United Democratic Party, what party currently rules the Marshall Islands?
56f961049b226e1400dd13eb
the AKA
633
False
How many electoral districts exist in the Marshall Islands?
56f961049b226e1400dd13ec
twenty-four
330
False
Legislative power lies with the Nitijela. The upper house of Parliament, called the Council of Iroij, is an advisory body comprising twelve tribal chiefs. The executive branch consists of the President and the Presidential Cabinet, which consists of ten ministers appointed by the President with the approval of the Nitijela. The twenty-four electoral districts into which the country is divided correspond to the inhabited islands and atolls. There are currently four political parties in the Marshall Islands: Aelon̄ Kein Ad (AKA), United People's Party (UPP), Kien Eo Am (KEA) and United Democratic Party (UDP). Rule is shared by the AKA and the UDP. The following senators are in the legislative body:
What document governs the defense of the Marshall Islands?
56f963d79e9bad19000a08b7
Compact of Free Association
4
False
What nation is responsible for the defense of the Marshall Islands?
56f963d79e9bad19000a08b8
the U.S.
61
False
Along with economic aid, what assistance does the Compact of Free Association provide?
56f963d79e9bad19000a08b9
technical aid
228
False
The Compact of Free Association with the United States gives the U.S. sole responsibility for international defense of the Marshall Islands. It allows islanders to live and work in the United States and establishes economic and technical aid programs.
When did the UN Security Council recommend that the Marshall Islands be allowed to join the UN?
56f964559e9bad19000a08bd
August 9, 1991
106
False
When did the UN General Assembly approve the Marshall Islands joining the UN?
56f964559e9bad19000a08be
September 17, 1991
179
False
What nation does the Marshall Islands vote similarly to in the General Assembly?
56f964559e9bad19000a08bf
the United States
327
False
What Security Council Resolution recommended that the Marshall Islands be allowed to join the UN?
56f964559e9bad19000a08c0
Resolution 704
125
False
The Marshall Islands was admitted to the United Nations based on the Security Council's recommendation on August 9, 1991, in Resolution 704 and the General Assembly's approval on September 17, 1991, in Resolution 46/3. In international politics within the United Nations, the Marshall Islands has often voted consistently with the United States with respect to General Assembly resolutions.
On what date did the Iranian Navy capture a Marshall Islands ship?
56f964d89e9bad19000a08c5
28 April 2015
3
False
What was the name of the Marshall Islands ship seized by Iran?
56f964d89e9bad19000a08c6
MV Maersk Tigris
70
False
Who chartered the captured Marshall Islands ship?
56f964d89e9bad19000a08c7
Rickmers Ship Management
155
False
How many crew members were on the MV Maersk Tigris?
56f964d89e9bad19000a08c8
34
662
False
Near what body of water was the Maersk Tigris seized?
56f964d89e9bad19000a08c9
the Strait of Hormuz
92
False
On 28 April 2015, the Iranian navy seized the Marshall Island-flagged MV Maersk Tigris near the Strait of Hormuz. The ship had been chartered by Germany's Rickmers Ship Management, which stated that the ship contained no special cargo and no military weapons. The ship was reported to be under the control of the Iranian Revolutionary Guard according to the Pentagon. Tensions escallated in the region due to the intensifying of Saudi-led coalition attacks in Yemen. The Pentagon reported that the destroyer USS Farragut and a maritime reconnaissance aircraft were dispatched upon receiving a distress call from the ship Tigris and it was also reported that all 34 crew members were detained. US defense officials have said that they would review U.S. defense obligations to the Government of the Marshall Islands in the wake of recent events and also condemned the shots fired at the bridge as "inappropriate". It was reported in May 2015 that Tehran would release the ship after it paid a penalty.
What nation lies to the west of the Marshall Islands?
56f965fc9b226e1400dd13f8
the Federated States of Micronesia
105
False
What United States territory does the Marshall Islands claim?
56f965fc9b226e1400dd13f9
Wake Island
176
False
How many square kilometers of ocean do the Marshall Islands cover?
56f965fc9b226e1400dd13fa
1,900,000
433
False
How many square kilometers of land do the Marshall Islands cover?
56f965fc9b226e1400dd13fb
180
489
False
How many atolls are part of the Marshall Islands?
56f965fc9b226e1400dd13fc
29
590
False
The islands are located about halfway between Hawaii and Australia, north of Nauru and Kiribati, east of the Federated States of Micronesia, and south of the U.S. territory of Wake Island, to which it lays claim. The atolls and islands form two groups: the Ratak (sunrise) and the Ralik (sunset). The two island chains lie approximately parallel to one another, running northwest to southeast, comprising about 750,000 square miles (1,900,000 km2) of ocean but only about 70 square miles (180 km2) of land mass. Each includes 15 to 18 islands and atolls. The country consists of a total of 29 atolls and five isolated islands.
How large is the Marshall Islands shark sanctuary in square miles?
56f9668e9e9bad19000a08cf
772,000
99
False
In what month and year did the Marshall Islands declare the largest shark sanctuary in the world?
56f9668e9e9bad19000a08d0
October 2011
3
False
In how many square miles of ocean around the world are sharks protected?
56f9668e9e9bad19000a08d1
1,776,000
333
False
What is forbidden in shark sanctuaries?
56f9668e9e9bad19000a08d2
shark fishing
376
False
In October 2011, the government declared that an area covering nearly 2,000,000 square kilometres (772,000 sq mi) of ocean shall be reserved as a shark sanctuary. This is the world's largest shark sanctuary, extending the worldwide ocean area in which sharks are protected from 2,700,000 to 4,600,000 square kilometres (1,042,000 to 1,776,000 sq mi). In protected waters, all shark fishing is banned and all by-catch must be released. However, some have questioned the ability of the Marshall Islands to enforce this zone.
What island do the Marshall Islands claim?
56f966c39b226e1400dd1402
Wake Island
40
False
Who controls Wake Island?
56f966c39b226e1400dd1403
the United States
89
False
In what year did the US take control of Wake Island?
56f966c39b226e1400dd1404
1899
113
False
What does the Marshall Islands government call Wake Island?
56f966c39b226e1400dd1405
Enen-kio
171
False
The Marshall Islands also lays claim to Wake Island. While Wake has been administered by the United States since 1899, the Marshallese government refers to it by the name Enen-kio.
When does the wet season in the Marshalls begin?
56f968419b226e1400dd140a
May
53
False
In what month does the Marshall Islands wet season end?
56f968419b226e1400dd140b
November
60
False
Typhoons sometimes begin as what whether event in the Marshalls?
56f968419b226e1400dd140c
tropical storms
101
False
Along with the Marianas, where do typhoons that begin in the Marshalls sometimes terminate?
56f968419b226e1400dd140d
the Philippines
216
False
The climate is hot and humid, with a wet season from May to November. Many Pacific typhoons begin as tropical storms in the Marshall Islands region, and grow stronger as they move west toward the Mariana Islands and the Philippines.
What feature makes the Marshalls susceptible to harm due to rising sea levels?
56f968f09e9bad19000a08e1
its very low elevation
7
False
Who said that the Marshalls are the most endangered nation in the world?
56f968f09e9bad19000a08e2
the president of Nauru
124
False
Why are the Marshall Islands the most endangered nation on Earth?
56f968f09e9bad19000a08e3
flooding from climate change
220
False
Due to its very low elevation, the Marshall Islands are threatened by the potential effects of sea level rise. According to the president of Nauru, the Marshall Islands are the most endangered nation in the world due to flooding from climate change.
How many millimeters of rain do the northern atolls of the Marshall Islands receive?
56f969499b226e1400dd1412
1,300
111
False
What is the main source of fresh water for the Marshall Islands?
56f969499b226e1400dd1413
rainfall
66
False
What is the Marshall Islands often threatened with?
56f969499b226e1400dd1414
drought
195
False
How much more rain do the southern atolls get compared to the northern?
56f969499b226e1400dd1415
twice
169
False
Population has outstripped the supply of freshwater, usually from rainfall. The northern atolls get 50 inches (1,300 mm) of rainfall annually; the southern atolls about twice that. The threat of drought is commonplace throughout the island chains.
What body did the Marshall Islands join in 2007?
56f969b89e9bad19000a08e7
the International Labour Organization
37
False
What is the significance of the Marshall Islands joining the International Labour Organization?
56f969b89e9bad19000a08e8
its labour laws will comply with international benchmarks
88
False
What may see benefits from the Marshalls joining the International Labour Organization?
56f969b89e9bad19000a08e9
business conditions
163
False
In 2007, the Marshall Islands joined the International Labour Organization, which means its labour laws will comply with international benchmarks. This may impact business conditions in the islands.
How much money did the Marshall Islands receive yearly from the United States until 2013?
56f96a3c9e9bad19000a08ed
US$57.7 million
157
False
How much money will the United States give the Marshal Islands every year until 2023?
56f96a3c9e9bad19000a08ee
US$62.7 million
249
False
What document defines how much money is transferred from the United States to the Marshall Islands?
56f96a3c9e9bad19000a08ef
the Amended Compact of Free Association
83
False
What will be established in 2023?
56f96a3c9e9bad19000a08f0
a trust fund
293
False
United States government assistance is the mainstay of the economy. Under terms of the Amended Compact of Free Association, the U.S. is committed to provide US$57.7 million per year in assistance to the Marshall Islands (RMI) through 2013, and then US$62.7 million through 2023, at which time a trust fund, made up of U.S. and RMI contributions, will begin perpetual annual payouts.
On what atoll is a missile test facility based?
56f96a9d9b226e1400dd1424
Kwajalein Atoll
90
False
Who is the missile test facility named after?
56f96a9d9b226e1400dd1425
Ronald Reagan
37
False
What is the official name of the missile test facility?
56f96a9d9b226e1400dd1426
Ronald Reagan Ballistic Missile Defense Test Site
37
False
What organization operates the missile test site?
56f96a9d9b226e1400dd1427
United States Army
4
False
The United States Army maintains the Ronald Reagan Ballistic Missile Defense Test Site on Kwajalein Atoll. Marshallese land owners receive rent for the base.
Along with coconuts, tomatoes and melons, what crops are notably grown in the Marshalls?
56f96aca9e9bad19000a08f5
breadfruit
145
False
Where does most agricultural production take place?
56f96aca9e9bad19000a08f6
small farms
43
False
Agricultural production is concentrated on small farms.[citation needed] The most important commercial crops are coconuts, tomatoes, melons, and breadfruit.[citation needed]
In what year was a tuna loining plant constructed?
56f96f929b226e1400dd144a
1999
3
False
How many people worked at the tuna loining plant?
56f96f929b226e1400dd144b
400
69
False
In what year did the tuna loining plant shut down?
56f96f929b226e1400dd144c
2005
122
False
Before it shut down, what was the tuna loining plant attempting to produce?
56f96f929b226e1400dd144d
tuna steaks
175
False
What was the amount of the loan to the tuna loining plant that the Marshall Islands government was responsible for?
56f96f929b226e1400dd144e
$2 million
543
False
In 1999, a private company built a tuna loining plant with more than 400 employees, mostly women. But the plant closed in 2005 after a failed attempt to convert it to produce tuna steaks, a process that requires half as many employees. Operating costs exceeded revenue, and the plant's owners tried to partner with the government to prevent closure. But government officials personally interested in an economic stake in the plant refused to help. After the plant closed, it was taken over by the government, which had been the guarantor of a $2 million loan to the business.[citation needed]
Who did Witon Barry work for?
56f970019b226e1400dd145c
the Tobolar Copra processing plant
39
False
Where was the Tobolar Copra plant located?
56f970019b226e1400dd145d
Majuro
109
False
What is copra?
56f970019b226e1400dd145e
the meat of the coconut
354
False
How many coconuts are required to produce 1 liter of coconut oil?
56f970019b226e1400dd145f
6 to 10
417
False
How many kilowatts of power are produced by the solar plant built in 2009?
56f970019b226e1400dd1460
57
447
False
On September 15, 2007, Witon Barry (of the Tobolar Copra processing plant in the Marshall Islands capital of Majuro) said power authorities, private companies, and entrepreneurs had been experimenting with coconut oil as alternative to diesel fuel for vehicles, power generators, and ships. Coconut trees abound in the Pacific's tropical islands. Copra, the meat of the coconut, yields coconut oil (1 liter for every 6 to 10 coconuts). In 2009, a 57 kW solar power plant was installed, the largest in the Pacific at the time, including New Zealand. It is estimated that 330 kW of solar and 450 kW of wind power would be required to make the College of the Marshall Islands energy self-sufficient. Marshalls Energy Company (MEC), a government entity, provides the islands with electricity. In 2008, 420 solar home systems of 200 Wp each were installed on Ailinglaplap Atoll, sufficient for limited electricity use.
About how many people lived in the Marshall Islands in 1862?
56f975da9e9bad19000a0949
10,000
90
False
How many people lived in the Marshall Islands in 1960?
56f975da9e9bad19000a094a
15,000
139
False
As of July 2011, how many people resided on the Marshall Islands?
56f975da9e9bad19000a094b
72,191
222
False
On what atoll is Ebeye located?
56f975da9e9bad19000a094c
Kwajalein Atoll
342
False
What town hosts the largest number of Marshall Islanders outside the Marshall Islands?
56f975da9e9bad19000a094d
Springdale, Arkansas
621
False
Historical population figures are unknown. In 1862, the population was estimated at about 10,000. In 1960, the entire population was about 15,000. In July 2011, the number of island residents was estimated to number about 72,191. Over two-thirds of the population live in the capital, Majuro and Ebeye, the secondary urban center, located in Kwajalein Atoll. This excludes many who have relocated elsewhere, primarily to the United States. The Compact of Free Association allows them to freely relocate to the United States and obtain work there. A large concentration of about 4,300 Marshall Islanders have relocated to Springdale, Arkansas, the largest population concentration of natives outside their island home.
What is the ethnicity of most Marshall Islands residents?
56f976e69e9bad19000a095b
Marshallese
26
False
From what continent did the Marshallese originate?
56f976e69e9bad19000a095c
Asia
87
False
What fraction of the population lives on Majuro or Ebeye?
56f976e69e9bad19000a095d
one-half
202
False
What recent Asian ancestry do some Marshall Island residents have?
56f976e69e9bad19000a095e
Japanese
186
False
From when did the Marshallese migrate from the Asian continent?
56f976e69e9bad19000a095f
several thousand years ago
92
False
Most of the residents are Marshallese, who are of Micronesian origin and migrated from Asia several thousand years ago. A minority of Marshallese have some recent Asian ancestry, mainly Japanese. About one-half of the nation's population lives on Majuro, the capital, and Ebeye, a densely populated island. The outer islands are sparsely populated due to lack of employment opportunities and economic development. Life on the outer atolls is generally traditional.
What was the previous name of the United Church of Christ?
56f977339e9bad19000a0965
Congregational
109
False
What percentage of Marshall Islanders belong to the Assemblies of God?
56f977339e9bad19000a0966
24.2%
179
False
What percentage of Marshall Islands residents are Mormons?
56f977339e9bad19000a0967
8.3%
282
False
What percentage of Marshall Islanders worship at the Assembly of God Part Two?
56f977339e9bad19000a0968
2.2%
367
False
When did the first mosque in Majuro open?
56f977339e9bad19000a0969
September 2012
680
False
Major religious groups in the Republic of the Marshall Islands include the United Church of Christ (formerly Congregational), with 51.5% of the population; the Assemblies of God, 24.2%; the Roman Catholic Church, 8.4%; and The Church of Jesus Christ of Latter-day Saints (Mormons), 8.3%; Also represented are Bukot Nan Jesus (also known as Assembly of God Part Two), 2.2%; Baptist, 1.0%; Seventh-day Adventists, 0.9%; Full Gospel, 0.7%; and the Baha'i Faith, 0.6%; Persons without any religious affiliation account for a very small percentage of the population. There is also a small community of Ahmadiyya Muslims based in Majuro, with the first mosque opening in the capital in September 2012.
What body operates the state schools in the Marshall Islands?
56f9776f9e9bad19000a096f
Ministry of Education (Marshall Islands)
4
False
Along with the University of the South Pacific, what tertiary education institution exists in the Marshall Islands?
56f9776f9e9bad19000a0970
College of the Marshall Islands
172
False
The Ministry of Education (Marshall Islands) operates the state schools in the Marshall Islands. There are two tertiary institutions operating in the Marshall Islands, the College of the Marshall Islands and the University of the South Pacific.
Where is the Marshall Islands International Airport located?
56f977939b226e1400dd1480
Majuro
81
False
What airfield operates in Kwajalein?
56f977939b226e1400dd1481
Bucholz Army Airfield
93
False
The Marshall Islands are served by the Marshall Islands International Airport in Majuro, the Bucholz Army Airfield in Kwajalein, and other small airports and airstrips.
Szlachta
What class was slackta in Poland?
56f7c172a6d7ea1400e17268
noble class
78
False
Under whos' reign did the szlachta gain institutional privileges?
56f7c172a6d7ea1400e17269
King Casimir III the Great
219
False
WHich two kingdoms shared tentative personal unions?
56f7c172a6d7ea1400e1726a
Grand Duchy of Lithuania and the Crown Kingdom of Poland
320
False
When did the polish-lithuanian commonwealth thrive?
56f7c172a6d7ea1400e1726b
1569–1795
482
False
What is one leader from the polish-lithuanian common weaith.
56f7c172a6d7ea1400e1726c
Ducal Prussia
574
False
The szlachta ([ˈʂlaxta] ( listen), exonym: Nobility) was a legally privileged noble class with origins in the Kingdom of Poland. It gained considerable institutional privileges between 1333 and 1370 during the reign of King Casimir III the Great.:211 In 1413, following a series of tentative personal unions between the Grand Duchy of Lithuania and the Crown Kingdom of Poland, the existing Lithuanian nobility formally joined this class.:211 As the Polish-Lithuanian Commonwealth (1569–1795) evolved and expanded in territory, its membership grew to include the leaders of Ducal Prussia, Podolian and Ruthenian lands.
What is another name for folwarks?
56f7c32ba6d7ea1400e17272
manor farms
203
False
Were the szlachta obscure and mysterious or obvious and proud.
56f7c32ba6d7ea1400e17273
obscurity and mystery
44
False
Around what time was the decline of the polish common wealth.
56f7c32ba6d7ea1400e17274
late 18th century
414
False
WHat did the commonwealth increase before it declined.
56f7c32ba6d7ea1400e17275
political and legal privileges
290
False
The origins of the szlachta are shrouded in obscurity and mystery and have been the subject of a variety of theories.:207 Traditionally, its members were owners of landed property, often in the form of "manor farms" or so-called folwarks. The nobility negotiated substantial and increasing political and legal privileges for itself throughout its entire history until the decline of the Polish Commonwealth in the late 18th century.
When, during the partitions of Poland, did the szlachta lose legal and social status.
56f7c49eaef2371900625bdb
1772 to 1795
37
False
What was one name of a power that the szlachta was dependent on.
56f7c49eaef2371900625bdc
Russian Empire
262
False
When was the March constitution implemented.
56f7c49eaef2371900625bdd
1921
448
False
What did the Mach constitution do?
56f7c49eaef2371900625bde
legal privileges of the szlachta were legally abolished
333
False
In what republic did the szlachta lose their legal privileges.
56f7c49eaef2371900625bdf
Second Polish Republic
396
False
During the Partitions of Poland from 1772 to 1795, its members began to lose these legal privileges and social status. From that point until 1918, the legal status of the nobility was essentially dependent upon the policies of the three partitioning powers: the Russian Empire, the Kingdom of Prussia, and the Habsburg Monarchy. The legal privileges of the szlachta were legally abolished in the Second Polish Republic by the March Constitution of 1921.
What was the notion for all polish nobles?
56f7c511aef2371900625be5
social equals
39
False
What ethnic saying is this traditional from?
56f7c511aef2371900625be6
Polish saying
138
False
Did it matter how much money a person had to polish nobles?
56f7c511aef2371900625be7
regardless of their financial status
54
False
The notion that all Polish nobles were social equals, regardless of their financial status or offices held, is enshrined in a traditional Polish saying:
What german word does the term szlachta come from?
56f7c5b0aef2371900625beb
slahta
59
False
What does slahta mean?
56f7c5b0aef2371900625bec
"(noble) family"
106
False
What is the polish name for knight?
56f7c5b0aef2371900625bed
rycerz
226
False
German name for knight?
56f7c5b0aef2371900625bee
Ritter
268
False
Where does the word her derive from in german?
56f7c5b0aef2371900625bef
Erbe
333
False
The term szlachta is derived from the Old High German word slahta (modern German Geschlecht), which means "(noble) family", much as many other Polish words pertaining to the nobility derive from German words—e.g., the Polish "rycerz" ("knight", cognate of the German "Ritter") and the Polish "herb" ("coat of arms", from the German "Erbe", "heritage").
What did the poles of the 17th century think the term szlachta came from?
56f7c6e1aef2371900625bff
German "schlachten"
64
False
What does schlachtan mean in german?
56f7c6e1aef2371900625c00
("to slaughter" or "to butcher")
84
False
What German word is also suggestive deriving from  szlachta?
56f7c6e1aef2371900625c01
Schlacht
149
False
What does schlacht mean?
56f7c6e1aef2371900625c02
battle
161
False
The polish believed szlachta derived from the name of who?
56f7c6e1aef2371900625c03
legendary proto-Polish chief, Lech
250
False
Poles of the 17th century assumed that "szlachta" came from the German "schlachten" ("to slaughter" or "to butcher"); also suggestive is the German "Schlacht" ("battle"). Early Polish historians thought the term may have derived from the name of the legendary proto-Polish chief, Lech, mentioned in Polish and Czech writings.
What were some powerful Polish nobles referred too?
56f7c779aef2371900625c09
magnates
49
False
What is the singular version of magnates?
56f7c779aef2371900625c0a
magnat
78
False
What is another name referring polish nobles?
56f7c779aef2371900625c0b
możny
111
False
What is the plural version of mozny?
56f7c779aef2371900625c0c
możni
151
False
What other country  besides Poland were polish nobles most likely found?
56f7c779aef2371900625c0d
Lithuania
187
False
Some powerful Polish nobles were referred to as "magnates" (Polish singular: "magnat", plural: "magnaci") and "możny" ("magnate", "oligarch"; plural: "możni"); see Magnates of Poland and Lithuania.
What term designated the noble class of polish Lithuania common wealth?
56f7cc5faef2371900625c13
szlachta
17
False
What are two adjectives that best describe the szlachta?
56f7cc5faef2371900625c14
formalized, hereditary
42
False
Who is referred to as nobilitas?
56f7cc5faef2371900625c15
hereditary szlachta
165
False
What is the legal status of nobilitas?
56f7cc5faef2371900625c16
equivalent in legal status of the English nobility
235
False
The Polish term "szlachta" designated the formalized, hereditary noble class of Polish-Lithuanian Commonwealth. In official Latin documents of the old Commonwealth, hereditary szlachta are referred to as "nobilitas" and are indeed the equivalent in legal status of the English nobility.
What simple word does the term szlachta translate too?
56f7ccffaef2371900625c1b
nobility
69
False
What were the non noble land owners referred too as?
56f7ccffaef2371900625c1c
szlachta
274
False
Why were the non nobles and nobles referred as the same term?
56f7ccffaef2371900625c1d
by courtesy or error
283
False
What does szlachta mainly denote?
56f7ccffaef2371900625c1e
old-Commonwealth nobility
417
False
Today the word szlachta in the Polish language simply translates to "nobility". In its broadest meaning, it can also denote some non-hereditary honorary knighthoods granted today by some European monarchs. Occasionally, 19th-century non-noble landowners were referred to as szlachta by courtesy or error, when they owned manorial estates though they were not noble by birth. In the narrow sense, szlachta denotes the old-Commonwealth nobility.
Why did the mistranslation of szlachta come about?
56f7d060a6d7ea1400e17298
included those almost rich and powerful enough to be magnates down to rascals
356
False
Who was inferior of the other, European countries or szlachta?
56f7d060a6d7ea1400e17299
szlachta
196
False
In the past, a certain misconception sometimes led to the mistranslation of "szlachta" as "gentry" rather than "nobility".:206 :xvi This mistaken practice began due to the economic status of some szlachta members being inferior to that of the nobility in other European countries (see also Estates of the Realm regarding wealth and nobility). The szlachta included those almost rich and powerful enough to be magnates down to rascals with a noble lineage, no land, no castle, no money, no village, and no peasants.:xvi
What ultimately determined nobility?
56f7d4f7aef2371900625c23
hereditary juridical status
303
False
What were some impoverished szlachta forced to do?
56f7d4f7aef2371900625c24
to become tenants of the wealthier gentry.
109
False
Did the tenants of the wealthier genrty lose their nobility?
56f7d4f7aef2371900625c25
no
348
False
What was one noble thing the poor szlachta did?
56f7d4f7aef2371900625c26
retained all their constitutional prerogatives
189
False
As some szlachta were poorer than some non-noble gentry, some particularly impoverished szlachta were forced to become tenants of the wealthier gentry. In doing so, however, these szlachta retained all their constitutional prerogatives, as it was not wealth or lifestyle (obtainable by the gentry), but hereditary juridical status, that determined nobility.
Have the origins of the szlachta been clear or obscure?
56f7d6d8aef2371900625c2b
obscure
72
False
What did they use to refer to the origin of szlactha?
56f7d6d8aef2371900625c2c
odwieczna
134
False
What was one historic theory of the szlachta origins?
56f7d6d8aef2371900625c2d
descent from the ancient Iranian tribes known as Sarmatians
274
False
What was another regional leader involved in the origins of szlachta?
56f7d6d8aef2371900625c2e
Alexander the Great
614
False
What was important and unique about regional leaders?
56f7d6d8aef2371900625c2f
had not mixed their bloodlines with those of 'slaves, prisoners, and aliens
662
False
The origins of the szlachta, while ancient, have always been considered obscure.:207 As a result, its members often referred to it as odwieczna (perennial).:207 Two popular historic theories of origin forwarded by its members and earlier historians and chroniclers involved descent from the ancient Iranian tribes known as Sarmatians or from Japheth, one of Noah's sons (by contrast, the peasantry were said to be the offspring of another son of Noah, Ham—and hence subject to bondage under the Curse of Ham—and the Jews as the offspring of Shem). Other fanciful theories included its foundation by Julius Caesar, Alexander the Great:207 or regional leaders who had not mixed their bloodlines with those of 'slaves, prisoners, and aliens'.:208
WHat was the name of the distinct element from a nnon-Slavic warrior class?
56f7d89aa6d7ea1400e1729d
Lechici/Lekhi (Lechitów):
123
False
In this theory, what was the upper class?
56f7d89aa6d7ea1400e1729e
was of a different origin than the Slavonic peasants
311
False
WHen did they find the polish kingdom?
56f7d89aa6d7ea1400e1729f
about the fifth century.
836
False
WHat caste system does the hindu society have?
56f7d89aa6d7ea1400e172a0
military caste
1284
False
Who shares the same caste system as Hindu?
56f7d89aa6d7ea1400e172a1
The szlachta
1255
False
Another theory describes its derivation from a non-Slavic warrior class,:42, 64–66 forming a distinct element known as the Lechici/Lekhi (Lechitów):430 :482 within the ancient Polonic tribal groupings (Indo-European caste systems). This hypothesis states this upper class was not of Slavonic extraction:482 and was of a different origin than the Slavonic peasants (kmiecie; Latin: cmethones):430 :118 over which they ruled.:482 The Szlachta were differentiated from the rural population. The nobleman's sense of distinction led to practices that in later periods would be characterized as racism.:233 The Szlachta were noble in the Aryan sense -- "noble" in contrast to the people over whom they ruled after coming into contact with them.:482 The szlachta traced their descent from Lech/Lekh, who probably founded the Polish kingdom in about the fifth century.:482 Lechia was the name of Poland in antiquity, and the szlachta's own name for themselves was Lechici/Lekhi.:482 An exact counterpart of Szlachta society was the Meerassee system of tenure of southern India—an aristocracy of equality—settled as conquerors among a separate race.:484 The Polish state paralleled the Roman Empire in that full rights of citizenship were limited to the szlachta. The szlachta were a caste, a military caste, as in Hindu society.
WHat is the earliest surviving use of the clan name of the polish knights?
56f7dbddaef2371900625c35
documentation regarding Raciborz and Albert's tenure
4
False
WHn did the knightly genealogiae associate with heraldic devices?
56f7dbddaef2371900625c36
Middle Ages and in the early modern period
264
False
The polish anem and cry ritualized what?
56f7dbddaef2371900625c37
the ius militare,
348
False
In 1244 the power to command and army had been used to do what?
56f7dbddaef2371900625c38
define knightly status
450
False
The documentation regarding Raciborz and Albert's tenure is the earliest surviving of the use of the clan name and cry defining the honorable status of Polish knights. The names of knightly genealogiae only came to be associated with heraldic devices later in the Middle Ages and in the early modern period. The Polish clan name and cry ritualized the ius militare, i.e., the power to command an army; and they had been used some time before 1244 to define knightly status. (Górecki 1992, pp. 183–185).
Around what time were the knights and szlachta very similiar?
56f7e0aaaef2371900625c3d
Around the 14th century
0
False
What was a personal obligation of the szlachtas?
56f7e0aaaef2371900625c3e
defend the country
152
False
Around the 14th century, there was little difference between knights and the szlachta in Poland. Members of the szlachta had the personal obligation to defend the country (pospolite ruszenie), thereby becoming the kingdom's most privileged social class. Inclusion in the class was almost exclusively based on inheritance.
What contributed to the long standing traditions?
56f7e340aef2371900625c42
geography
36
False
What was governing the polish tribes?
56f7e340aef2371900625c43
wiec
187
False
What was the wiec?
56f7e340aef2371900625c44
an assembly of free tribesmen
193
False
When power needed to be consolidated what was chosen to govern?
56f7e340aef2371900625c45
an elected prince
278
False
What was the governing position limited to?
56f7e340aef2371900625c46
elites
364
False
Concerning the early Polish tribes, geography contributed to long-standing traditions. The Polish tribes were internalized and organized around a unifying religious cult, governed by the wiec, an assembly of free tribesmen. Later, when safety required power to be consolidated, an elected prince was chosen to govern. The election privilege was usually limited to elites.
What ruled over the tribes?
56f7e518aef2371900625c4c
clans (ród)
25
False
What did the clans people all have in common?
56f7e518aef2371900625c4d
theoretically descending from a common ancestor
91
False
What gave them a sense of solidarity?
56f7e518aef2371900625c4e
related by blood or marriage
58
False
What were stronghold called?
56f7e518aef2371900625c4f
grόd
378
False
What was the territory occupied by a single tribe?
56f7e518aef2371900625c50
opole
514
False
The tribes were ruled by clans (ród) consisting of people related by blood or marriage and theoretically descending from a common ancestor, giving the ród/clan a highly developed sense of solidarity. (See gens.) The starosta (or starszyna) had judicial and military power over the ród/clan, although this power was often exercised with an assembly of elders. Strongholds called grόd were built where the religious cult was powerful, where trials were conducted, and where clans gathered in the face of danger. The opole was the territory occupied by a single tribe. (Manteuffel 1982, p. 44)
WHo established an elite knightly retinue?
56f7e80ba6d7ea1400e172a7
Mieszko I of Poland
0
False
How long was Miesko I of Poland reigning?
56f7e80ba6d7ea1400e172a8
(c. 935 – 25 May 992)
20
False
Along with uniting the lekhitic tribes what did poland succeed in?
56f7e80ba6d7ea1400e172a9
preserving the unity of his state
172
False
Who also established this retinue as well?
56f7e80ba6d7ea1400e172aa
Mieszko I's successors
234
False
Mieszko I of Poland (c. 935 – 25 May 992) established an elite knightly retinue from within his army, which he depended upon for success in uniting the Lekhitic tribes and preserving the unity of his state. Documented proof exists of Mieszko I's successors utilizing such a retinue, as well.
WHat was a polish nobleman referred to as before the 15th century?
56f7eae1a6d7ea1400e172b9
rycerz
210
False
What is roughly the same to the english version of rycerz?
56f7eae1a6d7ea1400e172ba
knight
259
False
What people did the rycerstwo class represent?
56f7eae1a6d7ea1400e172bb
wealthier families of Poland and itinerant knights from abroad seeking their fortunes
434
False
What positive did the szlachta class receive?
56f7eae1a6d7ea1400e172bc
gradually formed apart from Mieszko I's and his successors' elite retinues.
678
False
What did ducal law implement for the rycerstwo/nobility?
56f7eae1a6d7ea1400e172bd
could serve as officials in state administration.
1005
False
Another class of knights were granted land by the prince, allowing them the economic ability to serve the prince militarily. A Polish nobleman living at the time prior to the 15th century was referred to as a "rycerz", very roughly equivalent to the English "knight," the critical difference being the status of "rycerz" was almost strictly hereditary; the class of all such individuals was known as the "rycerstwo". Representing the wealthier families of Poland and itinerant knights from abroad seeking their fortunes, this other class of rycerstwo, which became the szlachta/nobility ("szlachta" becomes the proper term for Polish nobility beginning about the 15th century), gradually formed apart from Mieszko I's and his successors' elite retinues. This rycerstwo/nobility obtained more privileges granting them favored status. They were absolved from particular burdens and obligations under ducal law, resulting in the belief only rycerstwo (those combining military prowess with high/noble birth) could serve as officials in state administration.
WHen was the period of Division?
56f7f2eca6d7ea1400e172ff
A.D., 1138 – A.D., 1314
29
False
What stemmed the period of division?
56f7f2eca6d7ea1400e17300
Bolesław III's division of Poland among his sons
133
False
What tribe was the prior social structure from?
56f7f2eca6d7ea1400e17301
Polish
419
False
WHen did the Piast dynasty appear?
56f7f2eca6d7ea1400e17302
850 A.D.
543
False
Polish nation ruled by what dynasty?
56f7f2eca6d7ea1400e17303
Piast dynasty,
499
False
The Period of Division from, A.D., 1138 – A.D., 1314, which included nearly 200 years of feudal fragmentation and which stemmed from Bolesław III's division of Poland among his sons, was the genesis of the social structure which saw the economic elevation of the great landowning feudal nobles (możni/Magnates, both ecclesiastical and lay) from the rycerstwo they originated from. The prior social structure was one of Polish tribes united into the historic Polish nation under a state ruled by the Piast dynasty, this dynasty appearing circa 850 A.D.
What did some Mozni regard themselves with?
56f7f437aef2371900625cce
co-proprietors of Piast realms
83
False
What did the magnates do to the Piasts realms?
56f7f437aef2371900625ccf
attempted to deprive them of their independence
138
False
Who constantly sought to undermine princely authority?
56f7f437aef2371900625cd0
możni
193
False
Some możni (Magnates) descending from past tribal dynasties regarded themselves as co-proprietors of Piast realms, even though the Piasts attempted to deprive them of their independence. These możni (Magnates) constantly sought to undermine princely authority.:75, 76 In Gall Anonym's chronicle, there is noted the nobility's alarm when the Palatine Sieciech "elevated those of a lower class over those who were noble born" entrusting them with state offices. (Manteuffel 1982, p. 149)
WHat were nobles named in german language?
56f7f502a6d7ea1400e1731b
die beste leuten
120
False
What were the nobles named in lithuanian?
56f7f502a6d7ea1400e1731c
ponai
231
False
What were the higher nobility named?
56f7f502a6d7ea1400e1731d
kunigai' or 'kunigaikščiai'
270
False
The kunigai were subordinate to who?
56f7f502a6d7ea1400e1731e
King of Lithuania.
505
False
What word is used to denominate nobility?
56f7f502a6d7ea1400e1731f
бояре
725
False
In Lithuania Propria and in Samogitia prior to the creation of the Kingdom of Lithuania by Mindaugas, nobles were named die beste leuten in sources that were written in German language. In the Lithuanian language nobles were named ponai. The higher nobility were named 'kunigai' or 'kunigaikščiai' (dukes)—i.e., loanword from Scandinavic konung. They were the established local leaders and warlords. During the development of the state they gradually became subordinated to higher dukes, and later to the King of Lithuania. Because of expansion of Lithuanian duchy into lands of Ruthenia in the mid of 14th century a new term appeared to denominate nobility bajorai—from Ruthenian (modern Ukrainian and Belarusian languages) бояре. This word to this day is used in Lithuanian language to name nobility, not only for own, but also for nobility of other countries.
What other group had equal status with the lithuanian nobility?
56f7f5fca6d7ea1400e17325
Polish szlachta
82
False
What did the polish szlachta become more of?
56f7f5fca6d7ea1400e17326
polonized
143
False
What did some lithuanian nobility claim that caused a paradox?
56f7f5fca6d7ea1400e17327
they were of Roman extraction
340
False
What is the new term used for the lithuanian nobility?
56f7f5fca6d7ea1400e17328
šlėkta
851
False
Who forbid the use of the word slekta?
56f7f5fca6d7ea1400e17329
Lithuanian linguists
896
False
After the Union of Horodło the Lithuanian nobility acquired equal status with the Polish szlachta, and over time began to become more and more polonized, although they did preserve their national consciousness, and in most cases recognition of their Lithuanian family roots. In the 16th century some of the Lithuanian nobility claimed that they were of Roman extraction, and the Lithuanian language was just a morphed Latin language. This led to paradox: Polish nobility claimed own ancestry from Sarmatian tribes, but Sarmatians were considered enemies to Romans. Thus new Roman-Sarmatian theory was created. Strong cultural ties with Polish nobility led that in the 16th century the new term to name Lithuanian nobility appeared šlėkta—a direct loanword from Polish szlachta. From the view of historical truth Lithuanians also should use this term, šlėkta (szlachta), to name own nobility, but Lithuanian linguists forbade the usage of this Polish loanword. This refusal to use word szlachta (in Lithuanian text šlėkta) complicates all naming.
WHo was first invloved in the polonization?
56f7f695aef2371900625cfc
the highest members of the nobility
84
False
Who imposed various sanction on the people?
56f7f695aef2371900625cfd
Russian Empire
307
False
What was an example of imposing sanctions on lithuanians?
56f7f695aef2371900625cfe
removing Lithuania from the names of the Gubernyas
330
False
What did the russian officials announce as a sanction?
56f7f695aef2371900625cff
"Lithuanians are Russians seduced by Poles and Catholicism"
512
False
What language was banned from printing on books?
56f7f695aef2371900625d00
Lithuanian language.
650
False
The process of polonization took place over a lengthy period of time. At first only the highest members of the nobility were involved, although gradually a wider group of the population was affected. The major effects on the lesser Lithuanian nobility took place after various sanctions were imposed by the Russian Empire such as removing Lithuania from the names of the Gubernyas few years after the November Uprising. After the January Uprising the sanctions went further, and Russian officials announced that "Lithuanians are Russians seduced by Poles and Catholicism" and began to intensify russification, and to ban the printing of books in the Lithuanian language.
What group did the Nobility of Ruthenia gravitate its loyalty towards?
56f7f86faef2371900625d06
Grand Duchy of Lithuania
101
False
What type of people were the Grand Duchy of Lithuania?
56f7f86faef2371900625d07
multicultural and multilingual
70
False
What eventually became a part of the grand duchy of lithuania?
56f7f86faef2371900625d08
principalities of Halych and Volhynia
136
False
What was common for families of ruthenian and lithuanian?
56f7f86faef2371900625d09
intermarried
225
False
In Ruthenia the nobility gradually gravitated its loyalty towards the multicultural and multilingual Grand Duchy of Lithuania after the principalities of Halych and Volhynia became a part of it. Many noble Ruthenian families intermarried with Lithuanian ones.
What other rights were equal to orthodox nobles?
56f7f909a6d7ea1400e17343
Polish and Lithuanian nobility
69
False
What social pressure was pressing down the people?
56f7f909a6d7ea1400e17344
convert to Catholicism
138
False
What greatly eased the cultural pressure towards Catholicism.
56f7f909a6d7ea1400e17345
Union of Brest
200
False
What year was the union of brest
56f7f909a6d7ea1400e17346
1596
188
False
The Orthodox nobles' rights were nominally equal to those enjoyed by Polish and Lithuanian nobility, but there was a cultural pressure to convert to Catholicism, that was greatly eased in 1596 by the Union of Brest. See for example careers of Senator Adam Kisiel and Jerzy Franciszek Kulczycki.
Before 1641 the privileged ennoblement was granted by what?
56f7fd1faef2371900625d36
by monarch
243
False
What right was reversed by sijm?
56f7fd1faef2371900625d37
ennoblement
74
False
What would be given to the enobled one?
56f7fd1faef2371900625d38
undifferentiated coat of arms
418
False
After 1641 who was given the privilege of ennoblement?
56f7fd1faef2371900625d39
sejm
313
False
What clan was given the privileged of enoblement?
56f7fd1faef2371900625d3a
szlachta clan
389
False
In the Kingdom of Poland and later in the Polish-Lithuanian Commonwealth, ennoblement (nobilitacja) may be equated with an individual given legal status as a szlachta (member of the Polish nobility). Initially, this privilege could be granted by monarch, but from the 1641 onward, this right was reserved for the sejm. Most often the individual being ennobled would join an existing noble szlachta clan and assume the undifferentiated coat of arms of that clan.
Around what time was the total legal number of ennoblement at 800?
56f80258a6d7ea1400e17371
between the 14th century and the mid-18th century,
72
False
What is average for ennoblements between 14th and min 18th century.
56f80258a6d7ea1400e17372
two ennoblements per year
191
False
What type of sources give information regarding total number of enablements?
56f80258a6d7ea1400e17373
heraldic sources
13
False
According to heraldic sources total number of legal ennoblements issued between the 14th century and the mid-18th century, is estimated at approximately 800. This is an average of only about two ennoblements per year or only 0.000 000 14 – 0.000 001 of historical population. Compare: historical demography of Poland.
What was the toalt number of legal ennoblements thoughout history of poland and polish commonwealth
56f803c3a6d7ea1400e17381
1,600
30
False
When did theys tart recording the ennoblements?
56f803c3a6d7ea1400e17382
14th century onward
178
False
When were most ennoblements implemented?
56f803c3a6d7ea1400e17383
final years of the late 18th century
235
False
According to heraldic sources 1,600 is a total estimated number of all legal ennoblements throughout the history of Kingdom of Poland and Polish-Lithuanian Commonwealth from the 14th century onward (half of which were performed in the final years of the late 18th century).
WHo reformed the grand duchy army?
56f815cea6d7ea1400e173a5
Vytautas the Great
59
False
vytautas created what for compromising professional warriors?
56f815cea6d7ea1400e173a6
bajorai
198
False
What names did the newly formed noble families take afteR?
56f815cea6d7ea1400e173a7
Lithuanian pagan given names of their ennobled ancestors
551
False
What is an example of noble family name?
56f815cea6d7ea1400e173a8
Goštautai,
636
False
Who gave the coat of arms to others?
56f815cea6d7ea1400e173a9
Union of Horodlo
746
False
In the late 14th century, in the Grand Duchy of Lithuania, Vytautas the Great reformed the Grand Duchy's army: instead of calling all men to arms, he created forces comprising professional warriors—bajorai ("nobles"; see the cognate "boyar"). As there were not enough nobles, Vytautas trained suitable men, relieving them of labor on the land and of other duties; for their military service to the Grand Duke, they were granted land that was worked by hired men (veldams). The newly formed noble families generally took up, as their family names, the Lithuanian pagan given names of their ennobled ancestors; this was the case with the Goštautai, Radvilos, Astikai, Kęsgailos and others. These families were granted their coats of arms under the Union of Horodlo (1413).
Who defined the significant legislative changes?
56f816a9aef2371900625dbd
Robert Bideleux and Ian Jeffries
77
False
What is one exemption was part of the significant changes in legislation?
56f816a9aef2371900625dbe
1374 exemption from the land tax,
126
False
What did the 1425 requirement entail?
56f816a9aef2371900625dbf
requirement that military forces and new taxes be approved by provincial Sejms
259
False
What were the statutes issued between 1496 and 1611 prescribed from?
56f816a9aef2371900625dc0
rights of commoners
401
False
Significant legislative changes in the status of the szlachta, as defined by Robert Bideleux and Ian Jeffries, consist of its 1374 exemption from the land tax, a 1425 guarantee against the 'arbitrary arrests and/or seizure of property' of its members, a 1454 requirement that military forces and new taxes be approved by provincial Sejms, and statutes issued between 1496 and 1611 that prescribed the rights of commoners.
What was a rarest rare to become a noble?
56f81745aef2371900625dc5
service to the state
163
False
Many nobles were actually surprisingly acting in what way?
56f81745aef2371900625dc6
really usurpers, being commoners,
278
False
Who denounced many nobles?
56f81745aef2371900625dc7
Hieronim Nekanda Trepka
442
False
When did the denouncing of many nobles take place?
56f81745aef2371900625dc8
first half of the 16th century
532
False
What did the nobles lose by being denounced?
56f81745aef2371900625dc9
owning nobility-estates and promised the estate to the denouncer
596
False
Nobles were born into a noble family, adopted by a noble family (this was abolished in 1633) or ennobled by a king or Sejm for various reasons (bravery in combat, service to the state, etc.—yet this was the rarest means of gaining noble status). Many nobles were, in actuality, really usurpers, being commoners, who moved into another part of the country and falsely pretended to noble status. Hundreds of such false nobles were denounced by Hieronim Nekanda Trepka in his Liber generationis plebeanorium (or Liber chamorum) in the first half of the 16th century. The law forbade non-nobles from owning nobility-estates and promised the estate to the denouncer. Trepka was an impoverished nobleman who lived a townsman life and collected hundreds of such stories hoping to take over any of such estates. It does not seem he ever succeeded in proving one at the court. Many sejms issued decrees over the centuries in an attempt to resolve this issue, but with little success. It is unknown what percentage of the Polish nobility came from the 'lower' orders of society, but most historians agree that nobles of such base origins formed a 'significant' element of the szlachta.
THe polish nobility had many positives compared to others including what?
56f81878a6d7ea1400e173af
many rights
28
False
What was the nobilities commonwealth?
56f81878a6d7ea1400e173b0
Poland
289
False
WHo elected the king?
56f81878a6d7ea1400e173b1
not of the king or the ruling dynasty
473
False
WHy did the state affairs partly grow up on?
56f81878a6d7ea1400e173b2
the extinction of the male-line descendants of the old royal dynasty
561
False
The selection of nobility oh the polish kingdom was selected my whom?
56f81878a6d7ea1400e173b3
dynasty's female-line descendants.
739
False
The Polish nobility enjoyed many rights that were not available to the noble classes of other countries and, typically, each new monarch conceded them further privileges. Those privileges became the basis of the Golden Liberty in the Polish–Lithuanian Commonwealth. Despite having a king, Poland was called the nobility's Commonwealth because the king was elected by all interested members of hereditary nobility and Poland was considered to be the property of this class, not of the king or the ruling dynasty. This state of affairs grew up in part because of the extinction of the male-line descendants of the old royal dynasty (first the Piasts, then the Jagiellons), and the selection by the nobility of the Polish king from among the dynasty's female-line descendants.
When did kings grant privileges to the nobles?
56f81977aef2371900625dcf
at the time of their election to the throne
61
False
What specified the kings privileges?
56f81977aef2371900625dd0
king-elect's Pacta conventa
144
False
What was also in exchange during he election of the throne?
56f81977aef2371900625dd1
ad hoc permission to raise an extraordinary tax
208
False
What did nobles get in from the king during election?
56f81977aef2371900625dd2
privileges
34
False
Poland's successive kings granted privileges to the nobility at the time of their election to the throne (the privileges being specified in the king-elect's Pacta conventa) and at other times in exchange for ad hoc permission to raise an extraordinary tax or a pospolite ruszenie.
When did buda king casimir issue the heir to his nephew?
56f81cabaef2371900625dd7
1355
3
False
who issied the first country wide privilege for the nobility?
56f81cabaef2371900625dd8
Buda King Casimir III the Great
11
False
WHo is the nephew of buda king casimer III the great?
56f81cabaef2371900625dd9
Louis I of Hungary
212
False
What was promised by Buda King Casimer?
56f81cabaef2371900625dda
the nobility would no longer be subject to 'extraordinary' taxes
248
False
WHo would pay for expenses during travels or the royal courts?
56f81cabaef2371900625ddb
the king and the court
427
False
In 1355 in Buda King Casimir III the Great issued the first country-wide privilege for the nobility, in exchange for their agreement that in the lack of Casimir's male heirs, the throne would pass to his nephew, Louis I of Hungary. He decreed that the nobility would no longer be subject to 'extraordinary' taxes, or use their own funds for military expeditions abroad. He also promised that during travels of the royal court, the king and the court would pay for all expenses, instead of using facilities of local nobility.
When did King Louis of Hungary approve the privilege of Koszyce?
56f81ed1a6d7ea1400e173cd
1374
3
False
WHy did King louis approve the privilege?
56f81ed1a6d7ea1400e173ce
in order to guarantee the Polish throne for his daughter Jadwiga
125
False
What did king louis of hungary do for the nobles?
56f81ed1a6d7ea1400e173cf
exempted the entire class from all but one tax
259
False
WHat happened to the kings right to raise taxes?
56f81ed1a6d7ea1400e173d0
abolished
435
False
What could the king do to nobles injured or taken during war?
56f81ed1a6d7ea1400e173d1
King to pay indemnities
773
False
In 1374 King Louis of Hungary approved the Privilege of Koszyce (Polish: "przywilej koszycki" or "ugoda koszycka") in Košice in order to guarantee the Polish throne for his daughter Jadwiga. He broadened the definition of who was a member of the nobility and exempted the entire class from all but one tax (łanowy, which was limited to 2 grosze from łan (an old measure of land size)). In addition, the King's right to raise taxes was abolished; no new taxes could be raised without the agreement of the nobility. Henceforth, also, district offices (Polish: "urzędy ziemskie") were reserved exclusively for local nobility, as the Privilege of Koszyce forbade the king to grant official posts and major Polish castles to foreign knights. Finally, this privilege obliged the King to pay indemnities to nobles injured or taken captive during a war outside Polish borders.
Who establishd the inviolability of nobles property?
56f81fbba6d7ea1400e173e1
King Władysław II Jagiełło
8
False
When did the established right for inviolability of nobles property?
56f81fbba6d7ea1400e173e2
1422
3
False
What happened to the right to mint coinage?
56f81fbba6d7ea1400e173e3
ceded
221
False
In 1422 King Władysław II Jagiełło by the Privilege of Czerwińsk (Polish: "przywilej czerwiński") established the inviolability of nobles' property (their estates could not be confiscated except upon a court verdict) and ceded some jurisdiction over fiscal policy to the Royal Council (later, the Senat of Poland), including the right to mint coinage.
Where did the confirmation of privileges of Jedlnia take place?
56f8220daef2371900625e07
at Kraków in 1433
50
False
WHat was the privileges of jedlnia based mostly off of?
56f8220daef2371900625e08
Brześć Kujawski privilege
145
False
What was simliar to the english magna cartas habeas corpus?
56f8220daef2371900625e09
nobility a guarantee against arbitrary arrest
228
False
What does a court need to imprison a member of the nobility?
56f8220daef2371900625e0a
warrant from a court of justice
470
False
What was the nobles guarantee that his throne would be inherited by his sons?
56f8220daef2371900625e0b
King Władysław's quid pro quo for this boon
569
False
In 1430 with the Privileges of Jedlnia, confirmed at Kraków in 1433 (Polish: "przywileje jedlneńsko-krakowskie"), based partially on his earlier Brześć Kujawski privilege (April 25, 1425), King Władysław II Jagiełło granted the nobility a guarantee against arbitrary arrest, similar to the English Magna Carta's Habeas corpus, known from its own Latin name as "neminem captivabimus (nisi jure victum)." Henceforth no member of the nobility could be imprisoned without a warrant from a court of justice: the king could neither punish nor imprison any noble at his whim. King Władysław's quid pro quo for this boon was the nobles' guarantee that his throne would be inherited by one of his sons (who would be bound to honour the privileges theretofore granted to the nobility). On May 2, 1447 the same king issued the Wilno Privilege which gave the Lithuanian boyars the same rights as those possessed by the Polish szlachta.
When were the Nieszawa statutes granted?
56f8245fa6d7ea1400e17405
1454
3
False
What did the Nieszawa statues clarify?
56f8245fa6d7ea1400e17406
the legal basis of voivodship sejmiks
108
False
THe nobility was protected from what?
56f8245fa6d7ea1400e17407
judicial abuses
341
False
Whos power was curbed?
56f8245fa6d7ea1400e17408
magnates
409
False
Why did the szlachta demand privileges?
56f8245fa6d7ea1400e17409
their participation in the Thirteen Years' War.
608
False
In 1454 King Casimir IV granted the Nieszawa Statutes (Polish: "statuty cerkwicko-nieszawskie"), clarifying the legal basis of voivodship sejmiks (local parliaments). The king could promulgate new laws, raise taxes, or call for a levée en masse (pospolite ruszenie) only with the consent of the sejmiks, and the nobility were protected from judicial abuses. The Nieszawa Statutes also curbed the power of the magnates, as the Sejm (national parliament) received the right to elect many officials, including judges, voivods and castellans. These privileges were demanded by the szlachta as a compensation for their participation in the Thirteen Years' War.
When did the first free election take place?
56f82667a6d7ea1400e1741d
1492
76
False
What was different about later elections then first free election?
56f82667a6d7ea1400e1741e
no restrictions on the choice of candidates.
469
False
Who only voted in the election of 1492?
56f82667a6d7ea1400e1741f
senators
263
False
Who won the election of 1492?
56f82667a6d7ea1400e17420
John I Albert
322
False
What dynasty was in reign during the election of 1492?
56f82667a6d7ea1400e17421
Jagiellonian Dynasty
361
False
The first "free election" (Polish: "wolna elekcja") of a king took place in 1492. (To be sure, some earlier Polish kings had been elected with help from bodies such as that which put Casimir II on the throne, thereby setting a precedent for free elections.) Only senators voted in the 1492 free election, which was won by John I Albert. For the duration of the Jagiellonian Dynasty, only members of that royal family were considered for election; later, there would be no restrictions on the choice of candidates.
Who granted the privilege of Piotrkow?
56f8274ca6d7ea1400e1742f
King John I Albert
18
False
Privilege of Piotrkow was granted when?
56f8274ca6d7ea1400e17430
On April 26, 1496
0
False
WHat happened to the nobilities feudal power?
56f8274ca6d7ea1400e17431
increasing
159
False
Who was allowed to leave the village?
56f8274ca6d7ea1400e17432
one son (not the eldest)
252
False
What were the townsfolk prohibited from doing?
56f8274ca6d7ea1400e17433
owning land
370
False
On April 26, 1496 King John I Albert granted the Privilege of Piotrków (Polish: "Przywilej piotrkowski", "konstytucja piotrkowska" or "statuty piotrkowskie"), increasing the nobility's feudal power over serfs. It bound the peasant to the land, as only one son (not the eldest) was permitted to leave the village; townsfolk (Polish: "mieszczaństwo") were prohibited from owning land; and positions in the Church hierarchy could be given only to nobles.
When did the Mielnik Polish–Lithuanian union reform?
56f82b14aef2371900625e89
23 October 1501
3
False
Where was the Mielnik Polish–Lithuanian union refromed?
56f82b14aef2371900625e8a
Union of Mielnik
75
False
Where was the  coronation Sejm founded?
56f82b14aef2371900625e8b
Union of Mielnik
75
False
What did the actof of milno do?
56f82b14aef2371900625e8c
more to strengthen the magnate dominated Senate of Poland then the lesser nobility
499
False
What right was given to the nobles?
56f82b14aef2371900625e8d
disobey the King or his representatives
618
False
On 23 October 1501, at Mielnik Polish–Lithuanian union was reformed at the Union of Mielnik (Polish: unia mielnicka, unia piotrkowsko-mielnicka). It was there that the tradition of the coronation Sejm (Polish: "Sejm koronacyjny") was founded. Once again the middle nobility (middle in wealth, not in rank) attempted to reduce the power of the magnates with a law that made them impeachable before the Senate for malfeasance. However the Act of Mielno (Polish: Przywilej mielnicki) of 25 October did more to strengthen the magnate dominated Senate of Poland then the lesser nobility. The nobles were given the right to disobey the King or his representatives—in the Latin, "non praestanda oboedientia"—and to form confederations, an armed rebellion against the king or state officers if the nobles thought that the law or their legitimate privileges were being infringed.
When did the Act of "Nihil novi nisi commune consensu" happen?
56f82bcfaef2371900625e9d
3 May 1505
3
False
Who granted the act Act of "Nihil novi nisi commune consensu"?
56f82bcfaef2371900625e9e
King Alexander I Jagiellon
14
False
What did The Act of "Nihil novi nisi commune consensu" Do
56f82bcfaef2371900625e9f
forbade the king to pass any new law without the consent of the representatives of the nobility
158
False
What happened to the notabilities political position?
56f82bcfaef2371900625ea0
greatly strengthened
293
False
What has happened to the legislative power?
56f82bcfaef2371900625ea1
legislative power from the king to the Sejm.
381
False
On 3 May 1505 King Alexander I Jagiellon granted the Act of "Nihil novi nisi commune consensu" (Latin: "I accept nothing new except by common consent"). This forbade the king to pass any new law without the consent of the representatives of the nobility, in Sejm and Senat assembled, and thus greatly strengthened the nobility's political position. Basically, this act transferred legislative power from the king to the Sejm. This date commonly marks the beginning of the First Rzeczpospolita, the period of a szlachta-run "Commonwealth".
What was the movement called also known as execution of laws?
56f82cb7aef2371900625ea7
"executionist movement
20
False
What were the intentions of executionists movement?
56f82cb7aef2371900625ea8
seek to curb the power of the magnates at the Sejm and to strengthen the power of king and country
134
False
what did the Sejm in Piotrków forced the magnates to do?
56f82cb7aef2371900625ea9
return many leased crown lands to the king,
299
False
WHen did Jan Zamoyski. die?
56f82cb7aef2371900625eaa
1605
487
False
What happened when Jan Zamoyski died?
56f82cb7aef2371900625eab
movement lost its political force.
497
False
About that time the "executionist movement" (Polish: "egzekucja praw"--"execution of the laws") began to take form. Its members would seek to curb the power of the magnates at the Sejm and to strengthen the power of king and country. In 1562 at the Sejm in Piotrków they would force the magnates to return many leased crown lands to the king, and the king to create a standing army (wojsko kwarciane). One of the most famous members of this movement was Jan Zamoyski. After his death in 1605, the movement lost its political force.
Who was the last king of the Jagiellonian dynasty?
56f82fdaaef2371900625ec5
Sigismund II Augustus
19
False
What stopped after the death of Sigismund II Augustus?
56f82fdaaef2371900625ec6
monarchs could be elected from within only the royal family
85
False
After 1573 who could become a polish-lithuanian monarch?
56f82fdaaef2371900625ec7
any Polish noble or foreigner of royal blood
187
False
How many documents should the new elected king sign?
56f82fdaaef2371900625ec8
two documents
320
False
What was contained in the Henrican articles and the Pacta conventa?
56f82fdaaef2371900625ec9
basic laws of the Commonwealth
607
False
Until the death of Sigismund II Augustus, the last king of the Jagiellonian dynasty, monarchs could be elected from within only the royal family. However, starting from 1573, practically any Polish noble or foreigner of royal blood could become a Polish–Lithuanian monarch. Every newly elected king was supposed to sign two documents—the Pacta conventa ("agreed pacts")—a confirmation of the king's pre-election promises, and Henrican articles (artykuły henrykowskie, named after the first freely elected king, Henry of Valois). The latter document served as a virtual Polish constitution and contained the basic laws of the Commonwealth:
The crown tribunal was created when?
56f83048aef2371900625ecf
1578
3
False
Who created the crown tribunal?
56f83048aef2371900625ed0
king Stefan Batory
8
False
What was the crown tribunal supposed to do?
56f83048aef2371900625ed1
reduce the enormous pressure on the Royal Court
66
False
Where was a lot of power placed in result of the crown tribunal?
56f83048aef2371900625ed2
the nobility class
234
False
WHo joined the crown tribunal eventually?
56f83048aef2371900625ed3
Lithuanian Tribunal
327
False
In 1578 king Stefan Batory created the Crown Tribunal in order to reduce the enormous pressure on the Royal Court. This placed much of the monarch's juridical power in the hands of the elected szlachta deputies, further strengthening the nobility class. In 1581 the Crown Tribunal was joined by a counterpart in Lithuania, the Lithuanian Tribunal.
What did powerful leaders of szlachta sought?
56f83111aef2371900625ed9
gain legal privileges over their peers
75
False
What were most szlachtas class?
56f83111aef2371900625eda
Few szlachta were wealthy enough to be known as magnates
115
False
What is another name for magnates?
56f83111aef2371900625edb
Crimsons
188
False
A proper magnates own what?
56f83111aef2371900625edc
own at least 20 villages or estates.
327
False
Who is properly in the major office in the commonwealth?
56f83111aef2371900625edd
magnates
163
False
For many centuries, wealthy and powerful members of the szlachta sought to gain legal privileges over their peers. Few szlachta were wealthy enough to be known as magnates (karmazyni—the "Crimsons", from the crimson colour of their boots). A proper magnate should be able to trace noble ancestors back for many generations and own at least 20 villages or estates. He should also hold a major office in the Commonwealth.
Historians estimate how much of magnates make up szlachta?
56f83190a6d7ea1400e17473
1%
51
False
Out of one million szlachtas how many were magnates?
56f83190a6d7ea1400e17474
200–300
154
False
Out of one million how many people could be viewed with significant impact politically?
56f83190a6d7ea1400e17475
30–40
254
False
Some historians estimate the number of magnates as 1% of the number of szlachta. Out of approx. one million szlachta, tens of thousands of families, only 200–300 persons could be classed as great magnates with country-wide possessions and influence, and 30–40 of them could be viewed as those with significant impact on Poland's politics.
Magnates recieved gifts often from who?
56f831eba6d7ea1400e17479
monarchs
35
False
What significantly increased the magnates wealth?
56f831eba6d7ea1400e1747a
Magnates
0
False
What terms were these gifts given?
56f831eba6d7ea1400e1747b
temporary leases
118
False
What did the magnates do eventually with the gifts?
56f831eba6d7ea1400e1747c
never returned
155
False
Magnates often received gifts from monarchs, which significantly increased their wealth. Often, those gifts were only temporary leases, which the magnates never returned (in the 16th century, the anti-magnate opposition among szlachta was known as the ruch egzekucji praw—movement for execution of the laws—which demanded that all such possessions are returned to their proper owner, the king).
The right to create ordynacja's was important to what group?
56f83269aef2371900625eed
magnates
43
False
When did the right to create ordynacja's happen?
56f83269aef2371900625eee
late 16th century
60
False
What did the right to create ordynacja's entail?
56f83269aef2371900625eef
ensured that a family which gained wealth and power could more easily preserve this
135
False
What did the powerful families do with the kings estates?
56f83269aef2371900625ef0
often rivalled
290
False
What was an important power basis for the magnates?
56f83269aef2371900625ef1
estates of the king
309
False
One of the most important victories of the magnates was the late 16th century right to create ordynacja's (similar to majorats), which ensured that a family which gained wealth and power could more easily preserve this. Ordynacje's of families of Radziwiłł, Zamoyski, Potocki or Lubomirski often rivalled the estates of the king and were important power bases for the magnates.
When did the sovereignty of szlachta end?
56f832afa6d7ea1400e17481
1795
41
False
Who ended the sovereignty of szlachta?
56f832afa6d7ea1400e17482
Partitions of Poland
49
False
UNtil 1918 whos legal status was dependent on the russian empiresovereignty of szlachta?
56f832afa6d7ea1400e17483
szlachta
19
False
The sovereignty of szlachta was ended in 1795 by Partitions of Poland, and until 1918 their legal status was dependent on policies of the Russian Empire, the Kingdom of Prussia or the Habsburg Monarchy.
Who redused 64,000 szlachta to commoner status?
56f83350a6d7ea1400e17491
Nicholas I
13
False
IN 1858 who was szlachta out of all the russian nobles?
56f83350a6d7ea1400e17492
62.8%
82
False
When and who abolished the serfdom?
56f83350a6d7ea1400e17493
Russian Poland on February 19, 1864
179
False
Who could the ex serfs sell their land to?
56f83350a6d7ea1400e17494
only sell land to other peasants, not szlachta
543
False
How much land was held by the peasants?
56f83350a6d7ea1400e17495
48.9%
985
False
In the 1840s Nicholas I reduced 64,000 szlachta to commoner status. Despite this, 62.8% of Russia's nobles were szlachta in 1858 and still 46.1% in 1897. Serfdom was abolished in Russian Poland on February 19, 1864. It was deliberately enacted in a way that would ruin the szlachta. It was the only area where peasants paid the market price in redemption for the land (the average for the empire was 34% above the market price). All land taken from Polish peasants since 1846 was to be returned without redemption payments. The ex serfs could only sell land to other peasants, not szlachta. 90% of the ex serfs in the empire who actually gained land after 1861 were in the 8 western provinces. Along with Romania, Polish landless or domestic serfs were the only ones to be given land after serfdom was abolished. All this was to punish the szlachta's role in the uprisings of 1830 and 1863. By 1864 80% of szlachta were déclassé, 1/4 petty nobles were worse off than the average serf, 48.9% of land in Russian Poland was in peasant hands, nobles still held 46%. In Second Polish Republic the privileges of the nobility were lawfully abolished by the March Constitution in 1921 and as such not granted by any future Polish law.
What was different between the polish nobility and others?
56f83483aef2371900625f0b
European countries the nobility lost power as the ruler strove for absolute monarchy
138
False
What happened to nobility at expense of the king?
56f83483aef2371900625f0c
actually gained power
277
False
What did the political system eventually evolve into?
56f83483aef2371900625f0d
oligarchy
368
False
What did the ruler strive for?
56f83483aef2371900625f0e
absolute monarchy
205
False
The Polish nobility differed in many respects from the nobility of other countries. The most important difference was that, while in most European countries the nobility lost power as the ruler strove for absolute monarchy, in Poland the reverse process occurred: the nobility actually gained power at the expense of the king, and the political system evolved into an oligarchy.
How much of the total population was polish common wealth?
56f83b2faef2371900625f2b
10–12%
104
False
IN 1791 how much did the szalchta comprimise the total population?
56f83b2faef2371900625f2c
8%
506
False
Polish szlachta usually incorporated who?
56f83b2faef2371900625f2d
most local nobility from the areas that were absorbed by Poland–Lithuania
729
False
How many nobilities made up other European countries besides poland lithuania?
56f83b2faef2371900625f2e
1–3%
939
False
What dissolved the priveleges of Russian Empire, Kingdom of Prussia or Habsburg Monarchy?
56f83b2faef2371900625f2f
March Constitution of Poland
1330
False
Poland's nobility were also more numerous than those of all other European countries, constituting some 10–12% of the total population of historic Polish–Lithuanian Commonwealth also some 10–12% among ethnic Poles on ethnic Polish lands (part of Commonwealth), but up to 25% of all Poles worldwide (szlachta could dispose more of resources to travels and/or conquering), while in some poorer regions (e.g., Mazowsze, the area centred on Warsaw) nearly 30%. However, according to  szlachta comprised around 8% of the total population in 1791 (up from 6.6% in the 16th century), and no more than 16% of the Roman Catholic (mostly ethnically Polish) population. It should be noted, though, that Polish szlachta usually incorporated most local nobility from the areas that were absorbed by Poland–Lithuania (Ruthenian boyars, Livonian nobles, etc.) By contrast, the nobilities of other European countries, except for Spain, amounted to a mere 1–3%, however the era of sovereign rules of Polish nobility ended earlier than in other countries (excluding France) yet in 1795 (see: Partitions of Poland), since then their legitimation and future fate depended on legislature and procedures of Russian Empire, Kingdom of Prussia or Habsburg Monarchy. Gradually their privileges were under further limitations to be completely dissolved by March Constitution of Poland in 1921.
What class was polands nobility?
56f8410daef2371900625f53
closed class
137
False
Who could rise into polish ennoblement?
56f8410daef2371900625f54
Many low-born individuals
151
False
How much influence did each szlachcic have over politics?
56f8410daef2371900625f55
enormous influence
299
False
WHo could nullify all the proceedings of a given sejm?
56f8410daef2371900625f56
any nobleman
462
False
What is is called to nullify proceedings?
56f8410daef2371900625f57
liberum veto
631
False
There were a number of avenues to upward social mobility and the achievement of nobility. Poland's nobility was not a rigidly exclusive, closed class. Many low-born individuals, including townsfolk, peasants and Jews, could and did rise to official ennoblement in Polish society. Each szlachcic had enormous influence over the country's politics, in some ways even greater than that enjoyed by the citizens of modern democratic countries. Between 1652 and 1791, any nobleman could nullify all the proceedings of a given sejm (Commonwealth parliament) or sejmik (Commonwealth local parliament) by exercising his individual right of liberum veto (Latin for "I do not allow"), except in the case of a confederated sejm or confederated sejmik.
Children inherited polish nobility from whom?
56f84216aef2371900625f67
noble mother and father
72
False
What does an individual do to attain ennoblement?
56f84216aef2371900625f68
special services to the state
155
False
WHo could naturalize a polish noble?
56f84216aef2371900625f69
Polish king
270
False
What is another name for ennoblement?
56f84216aef2371900625f6a
nobilitacja
138
False
WHat is another name for polish noble?
56f84216aef2371900625f6b
indygenat
251
False
All children of the Polish nobility inherited their noble status from a noble mother and father. Any individual could attain ennoblement (nobilitacja) for special services to the state. A foreign noble might be naturalised as a Polish noble (Polish: "indygenat") by the Polish king (later, from 1641, only by a general sejm).
In theory how were all polish noblemen viewed?
56f85140a6d7ea1400e17555
equals
52
False
Was was unique about the dignities?
56f85140a6d7ea1400e17556
not hereditary
183
False
If one is high in dignities they are also high in what other form?
56f85140a6d7ea1400e17557
ritual
249
False
Nobles held land form whom?
56f85140a6d7ea1400e17558
other lords were only peers "de iure"
461
False
In theory at least, all Polish noblemen were social equals. Also in theory, they were legal peers. Those who held 'real power' dignities were more privileged but these dignities were not hereditary. Those who held honorary dignities were higher in 'ritual' hierarchy but these dignities were also granted for a lifetime. Some tenancies became hereditary and went with both privilege and titles. Nobles who were not direct barons of the Crown but held land from other lords were only peers "de iure".
Who could compose the polish landed gentry?
56f852d0a6d7ea1400e17567
any nobility that owned lands
78
False
whats is another name for polish landed gentry?
56f852d0a6d7ea1400e17568
(ziemianie or ziemiaństwo
35
False
Did all hold title of nobility?
56f852d0a6d7ea1400e17569
no
358
False
Note that the Polish landed gentry (ziemianie or ziemiaństwo) was composed of any nobility that owned lands: thus of course the magnates, the middle nobility and that lesser nobility that had at least part of the village. As manorial lordships were also opened to burgesses of certain privileged royal cities, not all landed gentry had a hereditary title of nobility.
What was very important to the polish nobility?
56f85351aef2371900625fd9
Coats of arms
0
False
What kind of system was the coats of arms?
56f85351aef2371900625fda
heraldic system
62
False
how did the polish nobility system compare to other heraldy countries?
56f85351aef2371900625fdb
differing in many ways
140
False
Where did polish knightshood originate?
56f85351aef2371900625fdc
Moravia (i.e. Poraj) and Germany
277
False
Coats of arms were very important to the Polish nobility. Its heraldic system evolved together with its neighbours in Central Europe, while differing in many ways from the heraldry of other European countries. Polish knighthood families had its counterparts, links or roots in Moravia (i.e. Poraj) and Germany (i.e. Junosza).
What is the most notable difference between countries?
56f8542caef2371900625fe1
minorities would be given the noble title
117
False
Coat of arms would be shared with who else?
56f8542caef2371900625fe2
most families sharing origin
166
False
How would unrelated families be attributed to the clan?
56f8542caef2371900625fe3
on the basis of similarity of arms
433
False
Did number of cat of arms in the late middle ages fall?
56f8542caef2371900625fe4
low and did not exceed 200
596
False
The most notable difference is that, contrary to other European heraldic systems, the Jews, Muslim Tatars or another minorities would be given the noble title. Also, most families sharing origin would also share a coat-of-arms. They would also share arms with families adopted into the clan (these would often have their arms officially altered upon ennoblement). Sometimes unrelated families would be falsely attributed to the clan on the basis of similarity of arms. Also often noble families claimed inaccurate clan membership. Logically, the number of coats of arms in this system was rather low and did not exceed 200 in late Middle Ages (40,000 in the late 18th century).
What was rarely used?
56f8547aa6d7ea1400e17581
brisure
198
False
Where did the  coat of arms proper and a lozenge granted to women not develoupe?
56f8547aa6d7ea1400e17582
Poland
121
False
Where did men get their coat of arms usually?
56f8547aa6d7ea1400e17583
their fathers
173
False
Also, the tradition of differentiating between the coat of arms proper and a lozenge granted to women did not develop in Poland. Usually men inherited the coat of arms from their fathers. Also, the brisure was rarely used.
What was the prevalent mentality and ideology called?
56f85519a6d7ea1400e17591
Sarmatism
68
False
Where did the name sarmatism originate?
56f85519a6d7ea1400e17592
powerful ancient nation of Sarmatians
139
False
How did sarmatism effect szlachta culture?
56f85519a6d7ea1400e17593
served to integrate the multi-ethnic nobility
575
False
What was also pushed for by result of sarmatism?
56f85519a6d7ea1400e17594
peace and pacifism
349
False
What languages were freely mixed?
56f85519a6d7ea1400e17595
Polish and Latin
802
False
The szlachta's prevalent mentality and ideology were manifested in "Sarmatism", a name derived from a myth of the szlachta's origin in the powerful ancient nation of Sarmatians. This belief system became an important part of szlachta culture and affected all aspects of their lives. It was popularized by poets who exalted traditional village life, peace and pacifism. It was also manifested in oriental-style apparel (the żupan, kontusz, sukmana, pas kontuszowy, delia); and made the scimitar-like szabla, too, a near-obligatory item of everyday szlachta apparel. Sarmatism served to integrate the multi-ethnic nobility as it created an almost nationalistic sense of unity and pride in the szlachta's "Golden Liberty" (złota wolność). Knowledge of Latin was widespread, and most szlachta freely mixed Polish and Latin vocabulary (the latter, "macaronisms"—from "macaroni") in everyday conversation.
What two religions were most common?
56f855e8a6d7ea1400e1759b
Roman Catholic or Orthodox
65
False
What was the minority group in the polish nobility?
56f855e8a6d7ea1400e1759c
Muslims
114
False
What was rewarding for switching judiasm to christianity?
56f855e8a6d7ea1400e1759d
ennoblement
867
False
What happened after the roman catholic church regained power in Poland?
56f855e8a6d7ea1400e1759e
the nobility became almost exclusively Catholic
269
False
What was the smallest amount of religion in the noble?
56f855e8a6d7ea1400e1759f
Jews
525
False
Prior to the Reformation, the Polish nobility were mostly either Roman Catholic or Orthodox with a small group of Muslims. Many families, however, soon adopted the Reformed faiths. After the Counter-Reformation, when the Roman Catholic Church regained power in Poland, the nobility became almost exclusively Catholic, despite the fact that Roman Catholicism was not the majority religion in Commonwealth (the Catholic and Orthodox churches each accounted for some 40% of all citizens population, with the remaining 20% being Jews or members of Protestant denominations). In the 18th century, many followers of Jacob Frank joined the ranks of Jewish-descended Polish gentry. Although Jewish religion wasn't usually a pretext to block or deprive of noble status, some laws favoured religious conversion from Judaism to Christianity (see: Neophyte) by rewarding it with ennoblement.
Virgil
During which period was Vigil a poet?
56f7fa54aef2371900625d18
Augustan
208
False
How many major works of literature is Virgil known for?
56f7fa54aef2371900625d19
three
241
False
Which major Latin epic is Virgil known for?
56f7fa54aef2371900625d1a
Aeneid
335
False
What is Virgil's full name?
56f7fa54aef2371900625d1b
Publius Vergilius Maro
0
False
Which collection of minor poems are sometimes attributed to Virgil?
56f7fa54aef2371900625d1c
Appendix Vergiliana
385
False
the Georgics
308
What work did Virgil write first?
5a7e0b0570df9f001a875457
True
September 21, 19 BC
97
What date did Virgil finish the Aeneid?
5a7e0b0570df9f001a875458
True
70 BC
89
When did the Augustan period start?
5a7e0b0570df9f001a875459
True
three
241
How many poems by Virgil still exist today?
5a7e0b0570df9f001a87545a
True
the epic Aeneid
326
What is Virgil's most famous work?
5a7e0b0570df9f001a87545b
True
three
241
How many chapters are in the Aeneid?
5a7e69b748f7d9001a0636c1
True
the Eclogues
280
What is Virgil's least famous work?
5a7e69b748f7d9001a0636c2
True
September 21, 19 BC
97
When did Virgil publish his last poem?
5a7e69b748f7d9001a0636c3
True
the Georgics
308
What is Virgil's longest book?
5a7e69b748f7d9001a0636c4
True
English
166
What was the first language the Aeneid was translated into?
5a7e69b748f7d9001a0636c5
True
Publius Vergilius Maro (Classical Latin: [ˈpuː.blɪ.ʊs wɛrˈɡɪ.lɪ.ʊs ˈma.roː]; October 15, 70 BC – September 21, 19 BC), usually called Virgil or Vergil /ˈvɜːrdʒᵻl/ in English, was an ancient Roman poet of the Augustan period. He is known for three major works of Latin literature, the Eclogues (or Bucolics), the Georgics, and the epic Aeneid. A number of minor poems, collected in the Appendix Vergiliana, are sometimes attributed to him.
Which of Virgil's works is considered the national epic of ancient Rome?
56f7fb3ea6d7ea1400e17355
Aeneid
68
False
Which works did Virgil model the Aeneid after?
56f7fb3ea6d7ea1400e17356
Iliad and Odyssey
204
False
Who is the main character in the Aeneid?
56f7fb3ea6d7ea1400e17357
Aeneas
261
False
What was Aeneas trying to accomplish in the Aeneid?
56f7fb3ea6d7ea1400e17358
fulfill his destiny and arrive on the shores of Italy
287
False
Who appears as Dante's guide through hell and purgatory in the Divine Comedy?
56f7fb3ea6d7ea1400e17359
Virgil
500
False
Italy
335
Where was Dante born?
5a7e0d6b70df9f001a87546b
True
fulfill his destiny
287
What is Dante's goal in the Divine Comedy?
5a7e0d6b70df9f001a87546c
True
the present day
165
What era did Dante write The Divine Comedy in?
5a7e0d6b70df9f001a87546e
True
Odyssey
214
What is the name of Homer's most famous epic?
5a7e0d6b70df9f001a87546f
True
Rome
124
Where was Virgil born?
5a7e6b4048f7d9001a0636cb
True
Odyssey
214
Which of Homer's works is longer, the Iliad or Odyssey?
5a7e6b4048f7d9001a0636cc
True
Italy
335
Where did Virgil write his works?
5a7e6b4048f7d9001a0636cd
True
Trojan
246
What was Dante's nationality?
5a7e6b4048f7d9001a0636ce
True
the founding act of Rome
360
What is the Iliad about?
5a7e6b4048f7d9001a0636cf
True
Virgil is traditionally ranked as one of Rome's greatest poets. His Aeneid has been considered the national epic of ancient Rome from the time of its composition to the present day. Modeled after Homer's Iliad and Odyssey, the Aeneid follows the Trojan refugee Aeneas as he struggles to fulfill his destiny and arrive on the shores of Italy—in Roman mythology the founding act of Rome. Virgil's work has had wide and deep influence on Western literature, most notably Dante's Divine Comedy, in which Virgil appears as Dante's guide through hell and purgatory.
Who was Virgil's editor?
56f7fd15a6d7ea1400e1735f
Varius
76
False
Whose two commentaries were incorporated into Virgil's biography by Suetonius?
56f7fd15a6d7ea1400e17360
Servius and Donatus
180
False
What do the comentaries rely on for some of their information about Virgil?
56f7fd15a6d7ea1400e17361
inferences made from his poetry and allegorizing
376
False
Is Virgil's biographical tradition easily researched or is it problematic?
56f7fd15a6d7ea1400e17362
problematic
472
False
Servius
180
Who edited Donatus' commentaries?
5a7e3aec70df9f001a8755c5
True
two
205
How many people did Virgil write biographies about?
5a7e3aec70df9f001a8755c6
True
his poetry
397
What was Varius most famous for?
5a7e3aec70df9f001a8755c7
True
Donatus
192
Who wrote a biography of Servius?
5a7e3aec70df9f001a8755c8
True
Donatus
192
Who wrote the most about Virgil?
5a7e3aec70df9f001a8755c9
True
Virgil's biographical tradition is thought to depend on a lost biography by Varius, Virgil's editor, which was incorporated into the biography by Suetonius and the commentaries of Servius and Donatus, the two great commentators on Virgil's poetry. Although the commentaries no doubt record much factual information about Virgil, some of their evidence can be shown to rely on inferences made from his poetry and allegorizing; thus, Virgil's biographical tradition remains problematic.
In which village does tradition believe Virgil was born?
56f7fe64aef2371900625d4a
Andes
59
False
In which cities did Virgil attend schools?
56f7fe64aef2371900625d4b
Cremona, Mediolanum, Rome and Naples
530
False
What other career did Virgil consider?
56f7fe64aef2371900625d4c
rhetoric and law
606
False
Which type of family do scholars generally believe Virgil belonged to?
56f7fe64aef2371900625d4d
equestrian landowning
433
False
Does Macrobius believe Virgil's father came from a distinguished or humble background?
56f7fe64aef2371900625d4e
humble
354
False
Naples
560
Where was Virgil's father born?
5a7e3c9870df9f001a8755fb
True
an equestrian landowning family
430
What kind of family did Macrobius have?
5a7e3c9870df9f001a8755fc
True
Rome
551
What city did Virgil live the longest in?
5a7e3c9870df9f001a8755fd
True
Mediolanum
539
Where was Macrobius born?
5a7e3c9870df9f001a8755fe
True
rhetoric and law
606
What career did Virgil's father have?
5a7e3c9870df9f001a8755ff
True
The tradition holds that Virgil was born in the village of Andes, near Mantua in Cisalpine Gaul. Analysis of his name has led to beliefs that he descended from earlier Roman colonists. Modern speculation ultimately is not supported by narrative evidence either from his own writings or his later biographers. Macrobius says that Virgil's father was of a humble background; however, scholars generally believe that Virgil was from an equestrian landowning family which could afford to give him an education. He attended schools in Cremona, Mediolanum, Rome and Naples. After considering briefly a career in rhetoric and law, the young Virgil turned his talents to poetry.
Which three studies did Virgil abandon for philosophy?
56f89312aef23719006261c4
rhetoric, medicine, and astronomy
157
False
How was Virgil regarded socially by his schoolmates?
56f89312aef23719006261c5
extremely shy and reserved
435
False
What was Virgil's nickname?
56f89312aef23719006261c6
Parthenias
507
False
How did Virgil earn his nickname "Parthenias" or "maiden"?
56f89312aef23719006261c7
social aloofness
546
False
Which short narrative poem was attributed to Virgil as early as the 1st century AD?
56f89312aef23719006261c8
the Culex
1100
False
medicine
167
What did Cinna study?
5a7e3e1f70df9f001a875623
True
shy
445
What did his friends think Catullus was like?
5a7e3e1f70df9f001a875624
True
bad health
594
What problem did Servius have?
5a7e3e1f70df9f001a875625
True
fourteen
1004
How many stanzas are in the poem the Culex?
5a7e3e1f70df9f001a875626
True
Milan
124
Where did Pollio live?
5a7e3e1f70df9f001a875627
True
According to the commentators, Virgil received his first education when he was five years old and he later went to Cremona, Milan, and finally Rome to study rhetoric, medicine, and astronomy, which he soon abandoned for philosophy. From Virgil's admiring references to the neoteric writers Pollio and Cinna, it has been inferred that he was, for a time, associated with Catullus' neoteric circle. However schoolmates considered Virgil extremely shy and reserved, according to Servius, and he was nicknamed "Parthenias" or "maiden" because of his social aloofness. Virgil seems to have suffered bad health throughout his life and in some ways lived the life of an invalid. According to the Catalepton, while in the Epicurean school of Siro the Epicurean at Naples, he began to write poetry. A group of small works attributed to the youthful Virgil by the commentators survive collected under the title Appendix Vergiliana, but are largely considered spurious by scholars. One, the Catalepton, consists of fourteen short poems, some of which may be Virgil's, and another, a short narrative poem titled the Culex ("The Gnat"), was attributed to Virgil as early as the 1st century AD.
Which Hellenistic poet was known for bucolic hexameter poetry?
56f894a19b226e1400dd0c40
Theocritus
364
False
Who tried to pay off veterans with land, some of which possibly belonged to Virgil?
56f894a19b226e1400dd0c41
Octavian
493
False
Virgil's loss of his famiyl farm and the attempt to regain his property though poetry was the inferred motive for which work?
56f894a19b226e1400dd0c42
Eclogues
845
False
To whom was Eclogue 4 addressed to?
56f894a19b226e1400dd0c43
Asinius Pollio
2004
False
Which Eclogues discusses homosexual love?
56f894a19b226e1400dd0c44
Ecl. 2
1919
False
Greek
223
What language was Virgil's work written in?
5a7e408270df9f001a875649
True
38 BC
161
When did Theocritus publish his last work?
5a7e408270df9f001a87564a
True
gratitude
1271
What theme did Virgil write about the most often?
5a7e408270df9f001a87564b
True
Italy
578
Where did Octavian live?
5a7e408270df9f001a87564c
True
4
1988
How many books of poetry did Cornelius Gallus write?
5a7e408270df9f001a87564d
True
The biographical tradition asserts that Virgil began the hexameter Eclogues (or Bucolics) in 42 BC and it is thought that the collection was published around 39–38 BC, although this is controversial. The Eclogues (from the Greek for "selections") are a group of ten poems roughly modeled on the bucolic hexameter poetry ("pastoral poetry") of the Hellenistic poet Theocritus. After his victory in the Battle of Philippi in 42 BC, fought against the army led by the assassins of Julius Caesar, Octavian tried to pay off his veterans with land expropriated from towns in northern Italy, supposedly including, according to the tradition, an estate near Mantua belonging to Virgil. The loss of his family farm and the attempt through poetic petitions to regain his property have traditionally been seen as Virgil's motives in the composition of the Eclogues. This is now thought to be an unsupported inference from interpretations of the Eclogues. In Eclogues 1 and 9, Virgil indeed dramatizes the contrasting feelings caused by the brutality of the land expropriations through pastoral idiom, but offers no indisputable evidence of the supposed biographic incident. While some readers have identified the poet himself with various characters and their vicissitudes, whether gratitude by an old rustic to a new god (Ecl. 1), frustrated love by a rustic singer for a distant boy (his master's pet, Ecl. 2), or a master singer's claim to have composed several eclogues (Ecl. 5), modern scholars largely reject such efforts to garner biographical details from works of fiction, preferring to interpret an author's characters and themes as illustrations of contemporary life and thought. The ten Eclogues present traditional pastoral themes with a fresh perspective. Eclogues 1 and 9 address the land confiscations and their effects on the Italian countryside. 2 and 3 are pastoral and erotic, discussing both homosexual love (Ecl. 2) and attraction toward people of any gender (Ecl. 3). Eclogue 4, addressed to Asinius Pollio, the so-called "Messianic Eclogue" uses the imagery of the golden age in connection with the birth of a child (who the child was meant to be has been subject to debate). 5 and 8 describe the myth of Daphnis in a song contest, 6, the cosmic and mythological song of Silenus; 7, a heated poetic contest, and 10 the sufferings of the contemporary elegiac poet Cornelius Gallus. Virgil is credited[by whom?] in the Eclogues with establishing Arcadia as a poetic ideal that still resonates in Western literature and visual arts and setting the stage for the development of Latin pastoral by Calpurnius Siculus, Nemesianus, and later writers.
Who helped finish the Aeneid?
56f8954b9b226e1400dd0c4a
Varius Rufus
415
False
When where the Eclogues likely published?
56f8954b9b226e1400dd0c4b
before 37 BC
57
False
What were Octavian' s agent d'affaires called?
56f8954b9b226e1400dd0c4c
Maecenas
108
False
Which leading literary figure often mentioned Virgin in his poetry?
56f8954b9b226e1400dd0c4d
Horace
364
False
Horace
364
Who invited Virgil to become part of the circle of Maecenas?
5a7e41ae70df9f001a875653
True
Varius Rufus
415
Which Roman figure of the time was the most prolific writer?
5a7e41ae70df9f001a875654
True
poetry
381
What was Octavian's favorite hobby?
5a7e41ae70df9f001a875655
True
the Aeneid
453
What work was Virgil the most proud of?
5a7e41ae70df9f001a875656
True
37
64
How many poems did Horace write?
5a7e41ae70df9f001a875657
True
Sometime after the publication of the Eclogues (probably before 37 BC), Virgil became part of the circle of Maecenas, Octavian's capable agent d'affaires who sought to counter sympathy for Antony among the leading families by rallying Roman literary figures to Octavian's side. Virgil came to know many of the other leading literary figures of the time, including Horace, in whose poetry he is often mentioned, and Varius Rufus, who later helped finish the Aeneid.
Which long didactic hexameter poem did Virgil work on for several years?
56f8961a9e9bad19000a018b
Georgics
150
False
To whom was Georgics dedicated to?
56f8961a9e9bad19000a018c
Maecenas
218
False
The theme of Georgics is instruction in the methods of what?
56f8961a9e9bad19000a018d
running a farm
298
False
Which of Virgil's poet friends committed suicide in 26 BC?
56f8961a9e9bad19000a018e
Gallus
1174
False
Who was Gallus disgraced by?
56f8961a9e9bad19000a018f
Augustus
1203
False
Aristaeus
947
Who discovered how to raise crops?
5a7e48f570df9f001a875687
True
4
817
How many poems did Hesiod write?
5a7e48f570df9f001a875688
True
beekeeping
600
What did the poet Gallus write about most?
5a7e48f570df9f001a875689
True
raising crops
535
What was Maecenas' profession?
5a7e48f570df9f001a87568a
True
hexameter
124
What kind of poems did Hesiod write?
5a7e48f570df9f001a87568b
True
At Maecenas' insistence (according to the tradition) Virgil spent the ensuing years (perhaps 37–29 BC) on the long didactic hexameter poem called the Georgics (from Greek, "On Working the Earth") which he dedicated to Maecenas. The ostensible theme of the Georgics is instruction in the methods of running a farm. In handling this theme, Virgil follows in the didactic ("how to") tradition of the Greek poet Hesiod's Works and Days and several works of the later Hellenistic poets. The four books of the Georgics focus respectively on raising crops and trees (1 and 2), livestock and horses (3), and beekeeping and the qualities of bees (4). Well-known passages include the beloved Laus Italiae of Book 2, the prologue description of the temple in Book 3, and the description of the plague at the end of Book 3. Book 4 concludes with a long mythological narrative, in the form of an epyllion which describes vividly the discovery of beekeeping by Aristaeus and the story of Orpheus' journey to the underworld. Ancient scholars, such as Servius, conjectured that the Aristaeus episode replaced, at the emperor's request, a long section in praise of Virgil's friend, the poet Gallus, who was disgraced by Augustus, and who committed suicide in 26 BC.
Octavian defeated Antony and Cleopatra at which battle?
56f896ab9e9bad19000a0195
Battle of Actium
311
False
When did Octavian return from the Battle of Actium?
56f896ab9e9bad19000a0196
31 BC
331
False
Who took turns with Virgil to read the Georgics to Octavian?
56f896ab9e9bad19000a0197
Maecenas
181
False
31 BC
331
When were the Georgics published?
5a7e4a7270df9f001a8756ad
True
Maecenas
181
Who wrote the Georgics?
5a7e4a7270df9f001a8756ae
True
Actium
321
Where were the Georgics written?
5a7e4a7270df9f001a8756af
True
didactic poetry
153
What did most of Virgil's writing compose of?
5a7e4a7270df9f001a8756b0
True
Octavian
243
Who funded the writing of the Georgics?
5a7e4a7270df9f001a8756b1
True
The Georgics' tone wavers between optimism and pessimism, sparking critical debate on the poet's intentions, but the work lays the foundations for later didactic poetry. Virgil and Maecenas are said to have taken turns reading the Georgics to Octavian upon his return from defeating Antony and Cleopatra at the Battle of Actium in 31 BC.
Which of Virgil's works is widely considered his finest?
56f8976b9b226e1400dd0c67
The Aeneid
0
False
Who commissioned the Aeneid according to Propertius?
56f8976b9b226e1400dd0c68
Augustus
250
False
How many books are included in The Aeneid?
56f8976b9b226e1400dd0c69
12
286
False
Which of Homer's works did the first six books of the Aeneid model after?
56f8976b9b226e1400dd0c6a
Odyssey
1220
False
Which of Homer's works did the last six books of the Aeneid connect to?
56f8976b9b226e1400dd0c6b
Iliad
1280
False
29
197
How old was Virgil when he died?
5a7e50c270df9f001a8756ff
True
Ennius
777
Which poet published the most work?
5a7e50c270df9f001a875701
True
Apollonius
809
Who commissioned the Iliad?
5a7e50c270df9f001a875702
True
the Odyssey
1216
Which of Homer's works was longer, the Iliad or the Odyssey?
5a7e50c270df9f001a875703
True
The Aeneid is widely considered Virgil's finest work and one of the most important poems in the history of western literature. Virgil worked on the Aeneid during the last eleven years of his life (29–19 BC), commissioned, according to Propertius, by Augustus. The epic poem consists of 12 books in dactylic hexameter verse which describe the journey of Aeneas, a warrior fleeing the sack of Troy, to Italy, his battle with the Italian prince Turnus, and the foundation of a city from which Rome would emerge. The Aeneid's first six books describe the journey of Aeneas from Troy to Rome. Virgil made use of several models in the composition of his epic; Homer, the preeminent author of classical epic, is everywhere present, but Virgil also makes special use of the Latin poet Ennius and the Hellenistic poet Apollonius of Rhodes among the various other writers to which he alludes. Although the Aeneid casts itself firmly into the epic mode, it often seeks to expand the genre by including elements of other genres such as tragedy and aetiological poetry. Ancient commentators noted that Virgil seems to divide the Aeneid into two sections based on the poetry of Homer; the first six books were viewed as employing the Odyssey as a model while the last six were connected to the Iliad.
Who is Aeneas' enemy throughout the Aeneid?
56f8984c9b226e1400dd0c81
Juno
70
False
Which queen committed suicide in Book 4 of the Aeneid?
56f8984c9b226e1400dd0c82
Dido
247
False
In which book does Aeneas' father die?
56f8984c9b226e1400dd0c83
5
871
False
Who reveals Rome's destiny to Aeneas?
56f8984c9b226e1400dd0c84
Anchises
1087
False
Who guides Aeneas through the Underworld?
56f8984c9b226e1400dd0c85
Sibyl
1012
False
Dido
726
Who is Jupiter's enemy in the Aeneid?
5a7e526770df9f001a87572d
True
Carthage
708
Where did Aeneas' father die?
5a7e526770df9f001a87572e
True
4
621
How many days did Aeneas travel through the underworld?
5a7e526770df9f001a87572f
True
suicide
741
How did Aeneas' wife die?
5a7e526770df9f001a875730
True
to found a new city
664
What did Anchises say Rome's destiny was?
5a7e526770df9f001a875731
True
Book 1 (at the head of the Odyssean section) opens with a storm which Juno, Aeneas' enemy throughout the poem, stirs up against the fleet. The storm drives the hero to the coast of Carthage, which historically was Rome's deadliest foe. The queen, Dido, welcomes the ancestor of the Romans, and under the influence of the gods falls deeply in love with him. At a banquet in Book 2, Aeneas tells the story of the sack of Troy, the death of his wife, and his escape, to the enthralled Carthaginians, while in Book 3 he recounts to them his wanderings over the Mediterranean in search of a suitable new home. Jupiter in Book 4 recalls the lingering Aeneas to his duty to found a new city, and he slips away from Carthage, leaving Dido to commit suicide, cursing Aeneas and calling down revenge in a symbolic anticipation of the fierce wars between Carthage and Rome. In Book 5, Aeneas' father Anchises dies and funeral games are celebrated for him. On reaching Cumae, in Italy in Book 6, Aeneas consults the Cumaean Sibyl, who conducts him through the Underworld where Aeneas meets the dead Anchises who reveals Rome's destiny to his son.
To whom is Aeneas betrothed?
56f899199b226e1400dd0c8b
Lavinia
125
False
Which King does Aeneas ally with in Book 8 of the Aeneid?
56f899199b226e1400dd0c8c
King Evander
332
False
Who had Lavinia already been promised to?
56f899199b226e1400dd0c8d
Turnus
197
False
Who is roused to war by the Fury Allecto and Amata Lavinia's mother?
56f899199b226e1400dd0c8e
Turnus
197
False
Camilla
611
What is the muse's name?
5a7e53d870df9f001a875741
True
12
717
How old was Pallas when he died?
5a7e53d870df9f001a875742
True
a duel
659
How did Camilla die?
5a7e53d870df9f001a875743
True
7
5
How many years did the war last?
5a7e53d870df9f001a875744
True
Amata
278
Who promised Lavinia to Turnus?
5a7e53d870df9f001a875745
True
Book 7 (beginning the Iliadic half) opens with an address to the muse and recounts Aeneas' arrival in Italy and betrothal to Lavinia, daughter of King Latinus. Lavinia had already been promised to Turnus, the king of the Rutulians, who is roused to war by the Fury Allecto, and Amata Lavinia's mother. In Book 8, Aeneas allies with King Evander, who occupies the future site of Rome, and is given new armor and a shield depicting Roman history. Book 9 records an assault by Nisus and Euryalus on the Rutulians, Book 10, the death of Evander's young son Pallas, and 11 the death of the Volscian warrior princess Camilla and the decision to settle the war with a duel between Aeneas and Turnus. The Aeneid ends in Book 12 with the taking of Latinus' city, the death of Amata, and Aeneas' defeat and killing of Turnus, whose pleas for mercy are spurned. The final book ends with the image of Turnus' soul lamenting as it flees to the underworld.
When did Augustus' victory at Actium against Mark Antony and Ceopatra VII occur?
56f89a0c9e9bad19000a01af
31 BC
789
False
Who is the protagonist of the Aeneid?
56f89a0c9e9bad19000a01b0
Aeneas
881
False
Who is mercilessly slaughtered by Aeneas?
56f89a0c9e9bad19000a01b1
Turnus
1140
False
Who is the founder of Rome which some scholars see strong associations with Aeneas?
56f89a0c9e9bad19000a01b2
Augustus
388
False
31 BC
789
When was the Aeneid published?
5a7e576e70df9f001a87575d
True
Actium
741
Where did Aeneas defeat Turnus?
5a7e576e70df9f001a87575e
True
Rome
981
Where did Augustus live?
5a7e576e70df9f001a87575f
True
mercilessly
1117
How did Augustus fight at Actium?
5a7e576e70df9f001a875760
True
the last sections of the poem
1046
What part of the Aeneid is the longest?
5a7e576e70df9f001a875761
True
Critics of the Aeneid focus on a variety of issues. The tone of the poem as a whole is a particular matter of debate; some see the poem as ultimately pessimistic and politically subversive to the Augustan regime, while others view it as a celebration of the new imperial dynasty. Virgil makes use of the symbolism of the Augustan regime, and some scholars see strong associations between Augustus and Aeneas, the one as founder and the other as re-founder of Rome. A strong teleology, or drive towards a climax, has been detected in the poem. The Aeneid is full of prophecies about the future of Rome, the deeds of Augustus, his ancestors, and famous Romans, and the Carthaginian Wars; the shield of Aeneas even depicts Augustus' victory at Actium against Mark Antony and Cleopatra VII in 31 BC. A further focus of study is the character of Aeneas. As the protagonist of the poem, Aeneas seems to waver constantly between his emotions and commitment to his prophetic duty to found Rome; critics note the breakdown of Aeneas' emotional control in the last sections of the poem where the "pious" and "righteous" Aeneas mercilessly slaughters Turnus.
Which book supposedly caused Augustus' sister to faint?
56f89b409b226e1400dd0cb1
6
120
False
What was the title of Jean-Baptiste Wicar's artwork inspired by the Aeneid?
56f89b409b226e1400dd0cb2
Virgil Reading the Aeneid
314
False
Who did Virgil recite Books 2, 4, and 6 of the Aeneid to?
56f89b409b226e1400dd0cb3
Augustus
101
False
4
89
How many paintings did Jean-Baptiste Wicar base on Virgil's life?
5a7e596970df9f001a8757ab
True
a great success
32
Did critics call the painting "Virgil Reading the Aeneid" a great success or a failure?
5a7e596970df9f001a8757ac
True
6
120
How many poems did Augustus commission from Virgil?
5a7e596970df9f001a8757ad
True
Jean-Baptiste Wicar
292
What was the name of a scholar that doubted claims that Augustus' sister fainted when Virgil recited the Aeneid?
5a7e596970df9f001a8757ae
True
2
86
What book of the Aeneid is the longest?
5a7e596970df9f001a8757af
True
The Aeneid appears to have been a great success. Virgil is said to have recited Books 2, 4, and 6 to Augustus; and Book 6 apparently caused Augustus' sister Octavia to faint. Although the truth of this claim is subject to scholarly scepticism, it has served as a basis for later art, such as Jean-Baptiste Wicar's Virgil Reading the Aeneid.
According to tradition, where did Virgil travel in 19 BC to revise the Aeneid?
56f89d879b226e1400dd0cc1
Greece
47
False
Where did Virgil die?
56f89d879b226e1400dd0cc2
Brundisium harbor
281
False
What date did Virgil die?
56f89d879b226e1400dd0cc3
September 21, 19 BC
302
False
Who were Virgil's literary executors?
56f89d879b226e1400dd0cc4
Lucius Varius Rufus and Plotius Tucca
369
False
What wish of Virgil's did Lucius Varius Rufus and Plotius Tucca disregard?
56f89d879b226e1400dd0cc5
the poem be burned
444
False
Brundisium harbor
281
Where did Augustus die?
5a7e5d5448f7d9001a0635bd
True
September 21, 19 BC
302
What date was the Aeneid published?
5a7e5d5448f7d9001a0635be
True
a fever
167
What did Augustus die from?
5a7e5d5448f7d9001a0635bf
True
Italy
228
Where was the Aeneid first published?
5a7e5d5448f7d9001a0635c0
True
19
63
Exactly how many unfinished lines are in the Aeneid?
5a7e5d5448f7d9001a0635c1
True
According to the tradition, Virgil traveled to Greece in about 19 BC to revise the Aeneid. After meeting Augustus in Athens and deciding to return home, Virgil caught a fever while visiting a town near Megara. After crossing to Italy by ship, weakened with disease, Virgil died in Brundisium harbor on September 21, 19 BC. Augustus ordered Virgil's literary executors, Lucius Varius Rufus and Plotius Tucca, to disregard Virgil's own wish that the poem be burned, instead ordering it published with as few editorial changes as possible. As a result, the text of the Aeneid that exists may contain faults which Virgil was planning to correct before publication. However, the only obvious imperfections are a few lines of verse that are metrically unfinished (i.e. not a complete line of dactylic hexameter). Some scholars have argued that Virgil deliberately left these metrically incomplete lines for dramatic effect. Other alleged imperfections are subject to scholarly debate.
Who was one of Virgil's most ardent admirers who referenced Virgil in almost every line of his epic?
56f89eb29e9bad19000a01e5
Silius Italicus
1028
False
.What was the title of Silius Italicus' epic in which Virgil was referenced in almost every line?
56f89eb29e9bad19000a01e6
Punica
1126
False
Who bought Virgil's tomb?
56f89eb29e9bad19000a01e7
Silius
1133
False
Which of Virgil's works was later widely interpreted to have predicted the birth of Jesus Christ?
56f89eb29e9bad19000a01e8
Fourth Eclogue
1288
False
The Eclogues
93
Which of Virgil's works was the least famous?
5a7e5f7448f7d9001a06367d
True
Ovid
352
Who was the first poet to reference Virgil in his work?
5a7e5f7448f7d9001a06367e
True
the Middle Ages
1589
What era did Statius live in?
5a7e5f7448f7d9001a06367f
True
Lucan
613
Who did Silius Italicus buy Virgil's tomb from?
5a7e5f7448f7d9001a063680
True
the 4th century AD
1844
When was the 12 book epic Thebaid written?
5a7e5f7448f7d9001a063681
True
The works of Virgil almost from the moment of their publication revolutionized Latin poetry. The Eclogues, Georgics, and above all the Aeneid became standard texts in school curricula with which all educated Romans were familiar. Poets following Virgil often refer intertextually to his works to generate meaning in their own poetry. The Augustan poet Ovid parodies the opening lines of the Aeneid in Amores 1.1.1–2, and his summary of the Aeneas story in Book 14 of the Metamorphoses, the so-called "mini-Aeneid", has been viewed as a particularly important example of post-Virgilian response to the epic genre. Lucan's epic, the Bellum Civile has been considered an anti-Virgilian epic, disposing with the divine mechanism, treating historical events, and diverging drastically from Virgilian epic practice. The Flavian poet Statius in his 12-book epic Thebaid engages closely with the poetry of Virgil; in his epilogue he advises his poem not to "rival the divine Aeneid, but follow afar and ever venerate its footsteps." In Silius Italicus, Virgil finds one of his most ardent admirers. With almost every line of his epic Punica Silius references Virgil. Indeed, Silius is known to have bought Virgil's tomb and worshipped the poet. Partially as a result of his so-called "Messianic" Fourth Eclogue—widely interpreted later to have predicted the birth of Jesus Christ—Virgil was in later antiquity imputed to have the magical abilities of a seer; the Sortes Vergilianae, the process of using Virgil's poetry as a tool of divination, is found in the time of Hadrian, and continued into the Middle Ages. In a similar vein Macrobius in the Saturnalia credits the work of Virgil as the embodiment of human knowledge and experience, mirroring the Greek conception of Homer. Virgil also found commentators in antiquity. Servius, a commentator of the 4th century AD, based his work on the commentary of Donatus. Servius' commentary provides us with a great deal of information about Virgil's life, sources, and references; however, many modern scholars find the variable quality of his work and the often simplistic interpretations frustrating.
Who cautioned "we ought not to relate their lying fables, lest we fall under sentence of eternal death"?
56f89fdc9b226e1400dd0cf3
Gregory of Tours
101
False
Literate men acknowledged Virgil as a master poet despite what empire collapsing?
56f89fdc9b226e1400dd0cf4
Western Roman
12
False
Did literate men acknowledge Virgil as a master or novice poet?
56f89fdc9b226e1400dd0cf5
master
88
False
poet
95
What was Gregory of Tours profession?
5a7e60bd48f7d9001a063687
True
the Western Roman empire
8
Where did Gregory of Tours live?
5a7e60bd48f7d9001a063688
True
poets
193
Who related to the fables in Virgil's work?
5a7e60bd48f7d9001a063689
True
Latin
187
What language did Gregory of Tours write in?
5a7e60bd48f7d9001a06368a
True
Even as the Western Roman empire collapsed, literate men acknowledged that Virgil was a master poet. Gregory of Tours read Virgil, whom he quotes in several places, along with some other Latin poets, though he cautions that "we ought not to relate their lying fables, lest we fall under sentence of eternal death."
In which of Dante's works was Virgil a guide through Hell and Purgatory?
56f8a0ae9e9bad19000a0201
Divine Comedy
77
False
Who was the author of the Divine Comedy?
56f8a0ae9e9bad19000a0202
Dante
0
False
Who was Dante's guide through Purgatory and Hell in the Divine Comedy?
56f8a0ae9e9bad19000a0203
Virgil
11
False
7
225
How many books did Dante write?
5a7e620448f7d9001a06368f
True
Ovid
156
Who was Dante's favorite author?
5a7e620448f7d9001a063690
True
The Divine Comedy
73
What was Dante's longest book?
5a7e620448f7d9001a063691
True
Statius
172
Which poet was more famous, Lucan or Statius?
5a7e620448f7d9001a063692
True
Dante made Virgil his guide in Hell and the greater part of Purgatory in The Divine Comedy. Dante also mentions Virgil in De vulgari eloquentia, along with Ovid, Lucan and Statius, as one of the four regulati poetae (ii, vi, 7).
Which of Virgil's works was said by some to have predicted Jesus' birth?
56f8a1fc9b226e1400dd0d13
Eclogues 4
177
False
Which religion did some consider Virgil to have heralded in?
56f8a1fc9b226e1400dd0d14
Christianity
394
False
During which time period did Virgil's reputation inspire legends associating him with magic and prophecy?
56f8a1fc9b226e1400dd0d15
Middle Ages
7
False
magic
95
What did Virgil write about the most?
5a7e641f48f7d9001a06369f
True
the Hebrew prophets
337
Who was the first to predict Jesus's birth?
5a7e641f48f7d9001a0636a0
True
Christianity
394
What religion did Virgil follow?
5a7e641f48f7d9001a0636a1
True
the 3rd century
129
When did Virgil predict Jesus would be born?
5a7e641f48f7d9001a0636a2
True
In the Middle Ages, Virgil's reputation was such that it inspired legends associating him with magic and prophecy. From at least the 3rd century, Christian thinkers interpreted Eclogues 4, which describes the birth of a boy ushering in a golden age, as a prediction of Jesus' birth. As such, Virgil came to be seen on a similar level as the Hebrew prophets of the Bible as one who had heralded Christianity.
Where did the tradition start which regarded Virgil as a great magician?
56f8a37b9e9bad19000a023f
Naples
304
False
How long did legends of Virgil's magical powers remain popular?
56f8a37b9e9bad19000a0240
over two hundred years
499
False
What is the modern Welsh word for phramacist?
56f8a37b9e9bad19000a0241
fferyllydd
777
False
Where did Virgil's name become a generic term for magic-worker?
56f8a37b9e9bad19000a0242
medieval Wales
601
False
When did Virgil's reputation as a great magician begin?
56f8a37b9e9bad19000a0243
12th century
274
False
Wales
610
Where did the tradition of seeing Virgil as a great magician last the longest?
5a7e672948f7d9001a0636ad
True
two hundred years
504
How long did it take for the legends of Virgil's magic powers to spread through Europe?
5a7e672948f7d9001a0636ae
True
Naples
304
Where did Virgil write his poetry?
5a7e672948f7d9001a0636af
True
Europe
354
What part of the world did Virgil write the most about?
5a7e672948f7d9001a0636b0
True
the 12th century
270
When were Virgil's works the most popular?
5a7e672948f7d9001a0636b1
True
Possibly as early as the second century AD, Virgil's works were seen as having magical properties and were used for divination. In what became known as the Sortes Vergilianae (Virgilian Lots), passages would be selected at random and interpreted to answer questions. In the 12th century, starting around Naples but eventually spreading widely throughout Europe, a tradition developed in which Virgil was regarded as a great magician. Legends about Virgil and his magical powers remained popular for over two hundred years, arguably becoming as prominent as his writings themselves. Virgil's legacy in medieval Wales was such that the Welsh version of his name, Fferyllt or Pheryllt, became a generic term for magic-worker, and survives in the modern Welsh word for pharmacist, fferyllydd.
During which time period did the legend of Virgil in his Basket arise?
56f8a4a59e9bad19000a0249
Middle Ages
48
False
What is the name of the beautiful woman who Virgil enamoured?
56f8a4a59e9bad19000a024a
Lucretia
357
False
Which story did Virgil being left halfway in basket parallel?
56f8a4a59e9bad19000a024b
Phyllis riding Aristotle
686
False
Which artist made a woodcut and later an engraving of Virgil and his basket?
56f8a4a59e9bad19000a024c
Lucas van Leyden
753
False
the Middle Ages
44
When did Lucas van Leyden live?
5a7e68d448f7d9001a0636b7
True
the emperor's daughter
311
What was Phyllis known as?
5a7e68d448f7d9001a0636b8
True
Aristotle
701
Who was one of the writers who wrote about Virgil in his Basket?
5a7e68d448f7d9001a0636b9
True
engraving
798
What form of art did the most artists use to depict Virgil in his Basket?
5a7e68d448f7d9001a0636ba
True
the Middle Ages
44
When did Phyllis ride Aristotle?
5a7e68d448f7d9001a0636bb
True
The legend of Virgil in his Basket arose in the Middle Ages, and is often seen in art and mentioned in literature as part of the Power of Women literary topos, demonstrating the disruptive force of female attractiveness on men. In this story Virgil became enamoured of a beautiful woman, sometimes described as the emperor's daughter or mistress and called Lucretia. She played him along and agreed to an assignation at her house, which he was to sneak into at night by climbing into a large basket let down from a window. When he did so he was only hoisted halfway up the wall and then left him trapped there into the next day, exposed to public ridicule. The story paralleled that of Phyllis riding Aristotle. Among other artists depicting the scene, Lucas van Leyden made a woodcut and later an engraving.
During which time period did Virgil's name become associated with miraclous powers?
56f8a5a89b226e1400dd0d45
Middle Ages
370
False
In which district is "Virgil's tomb" located?
56f8a5a89b226e1400dd0d46
Piedigrotta
127
False
What is the entrance of the ancient Roman tunnel where "Virgil's tomb" is located also called?
56f8a5a89b226e1400dd0d47
grotta vecchia
107
False
the Mergellina harbor
193
Where did Virgil die?
5a7e71d048f7d9001a0636f7
True
Naples
180
Where did pilgrims pass through on the way to Virgil's tomb?
5a7e71d048f7d9001a0636f8
True
Pozzuoli
261
Where did most of the pilgrims come from?
5a7e71d048f7d9001a0636f9
True
the Middle Ages
366
When were Virgil's books the most widely read?
5a7e71d048f7d9001a0636fa
True
The structure known as "Virgil's tomb" is found at the entrance of an ancient Roman tunnel (also known as "grotta vecchia") in Piedigrotta, a district two miles from the centre of Naples, near the Mergellina harbor, on the road heading north along the coast to Pozzuoli. While Virgil was already the object of literary admiration and veneration before his death, in the Middle Ages his name became associated with miraculous powers, and for a couple of centuries his tomb was the destination of pilgrimages and veneration.
Besides Virgilius, which other spelling is permitted in modern usage?
56f8a6f19e9bad19000a0265
Vergilius
35
False
During which time period was Vergilius spelled Virgilius?
56f8a6f19e9bad19000a0266
Late Empire and Middle Ages
7
False
In what century did some German-trained classicists in the US suggest modifying the common usage to Vergil?
56f8a6f19e9bad19000a0267
19th
690
False
Which style guide recommends using Vergilius to avoid confusion with Virgilius Maro Grammaticus?
56f8a6f19e9bad19000a0268
Oxford
929
False
to avoid confusion with the 8th-century grammarian Virgilius Maro Grammaticus
972
Why was Virgil called "The Swan of Mantua"?
5a7e776d48f7d9001a063713
True
Norman schools
549
Who attributed magical powers to Virgil in the middle ages?
5a7e776d48f7d9001a063714
True
the 19th century
686
When was the Oxford guide to style written?
5a7e776d48f7d9001a063715
True
German
857
What language was the Oxford guide to style originally written in?
5a7e776d48f7d9001a063716
True
the United States
739
What country was the Oxford guide to style written in?
5a7e776d48f7d9001a063717
True
In the Late Empire and Middle Ages Vergilius was spelled Virgilius. Two explanations are commonly given for this alteration. One deduces a false etymology associated with the word virgo ("maiden" in Latin) due to Virgil's excessive, "maiden"-like modesty. Alternatively, some argue that Vergilius was altered to Virgilius by analogy with the Latin virga ("wand") due to the magical or prophetic powers attributed to Virgil in the Middle Ages (this explanation is found in only a handful of manuscripts, however, and was probably not widespread). In Norman schools (following the French practice), the habit was to anglicize Latin names by dropping their Latin endings, hence Virgil. In the 19th century, some German-trained classicists in the United States suggested modification to Vergil, as it is closer to his original name, and is also the traditional German spelling.[citation needed] Modern usage permits both, though the Oxford guide to style recommends Vergilius to avoid confusion with the 8th-century grammarian Virgilius Maro Grammaticus. Some post-Renaissance writers liked to affect the sobriquet "The Swan of Mantua".[citation needed]
Alps
What Country are the Alps located in?
56f81f0ea6d7ea1400e173d7
Europe
190
False
How many kilometres do the Alps stretch?
56f81f0ea6d7ea1400e173d8
1,200 kilometres
223
False
How long has it taken for the Alps to form?
56f81f0ea6d7ea1400e173d9
over tens of millions of years
475
False
What is the highest mountain in the Alps?
56f81f0ea6d7ea1400e173da
Mont Blanc
732
False
The Alpine region is also known as what?
56f81f0ea6d7ea1400e173db
the "four-thousanders"
936
False
The Alps (/ælps/; Italian: Alpi [ˈalpi]; French: Alpes [alp]; German: Alpen [ˈʔalpm̩]; Slovene: Alpe [ˈáːlpɛ]) are the highest and most extensive mountain range system that lies entirely in Europe, stretching approximately 1,200 kilometres (750 mi) across eight Alpine countries: Austria, France, Germany, Italy, Liechtenstein, Monaco, Slovenia, and Switzerland. The Caucasus Mountains are higher, and the Urals longer, but both lie partly in Asia. The mountains were formed over tens of millions of years as the African and Eurasian tectonic plates collided. Extreme shortening caused by the event resulted in marine sedimentary rocks rising by thrusting and folding into high mountain peaks such as Mont Blanc and the Matterhorn. Mont Blanc spans the French–Italian border, and at 4,810 m (15,781 ft) is the highest mountain in the Alps. The Alpine region area contains about a hundred peaks higher than 4,000 m (13,123 ft), known as the "four-thousanders".
What affects the climate in Europe?
56f81fe6aef2371900625df5
The altitude and size of the range
0
False
What type of animal lives inn the higher peaks?
56f81fe6aef2371900625df6
ibex
185
False
What plant grows in the rocky areas of the range?
56f81fe6aef2371900625df7
Edelweiss
272
False
Evidence of human habitation in the Alps goes as far back to what era?
56f81fe6aef2371900625df8
Paleolithic era
413
False
The altitude and size of the range affects the climate in Europe; in the mountains precipitation levels vary greatly and climatic conditions consist of distinct zones. Wildlife such as ibex live in the higher peaks to elevations of 3,400 m (11,155 ft), and plants such as Edelweiss grow in rocky areas in lower elevations as well as in higher elevations. Evidence of human habitation in the Alps goes back to the Paleolithic era.
How old was the mummified man discovered at the Austrian-Italian bored?
56f82171a6d7ea1400e173e7
5,000 years old
34
False
What culture was well established by the 6th Century BC?
56f82171a6d7ea1400e173e8
the Celtic La Tène culture
142
False
Who famously crossed the Alps with a herd of elephants?
56f82171a6d7ea1400e173e9
Hannibal
191
False
What person took an army of 40,000 across the mountain passes?
56f82171a6d7ea1400e173ea
Napoleon
306
False
Where was Adolf Hitlers base of operation during World War 2?
56f82171a6d7ea1400e173eb
Bavarian Alps
627
False
A mummified man, determined to be 5,000 years old, was discovered on a glacier at the Austrian–Italian border in 1991. By the 6th century BC, the Celtic La Tène culture was well established. Hannibal famously crossed the Alps with a herd of elephants, and the Romans had settlements in the region. In 1800 Napoleon crossed one of the mountain passes with an army of 40,000. The 18th and 19th centuries saw an influx of naturalists, writers, and artists, in particular the Romantics, followed by the golden age of alpinism as mountaineers began to ascend the peaks. In World War II, Adolf Hitler kept a base of operation in the Bavarian Alps throughout the war.
The alps is home to how many people?
56f824aba6d7ea1400e1740f
14 million people
450
False
How many visitors go to the Alps annually?
56f824aba6d7ea1400e17410
120 million
476
False
What is the dominant industry in the Alpine region?
56f824aba6d7ea1400e17411
tourist industry
162
False
The Alpine region has a strong cultural identity. The traditional culture of farming, cheesemaking, and woodworking still exists in Alpine villages, although the tourist industry began to grow early in the 20th century and expanded greatly after World War II to become the dominant industry by the end of the century. The Winter Olympic Games have been hosted in the Swiss, French, Italian, Austrian and German Alps. At present the region is home to 14 million people and has 120 million annual visitors.
The English word Alps derives from what Latin Word?
56f82596aef2371900625e2d
Alpes
45
False
Who says that all high mountains are called Alpes by Celts?
56f82596aef2371900625e2e
Maurus Servius Honoratus
69
False
What languages have terms for high mountains derived from alp?
56f82596aef2371900625e2f
Celtic languages
265
False
The English word Alps derives from the Latin Alpes (through French). Maurus Servius Honoratus, an ancient commentator of Virgil, says in his commentary (A. X 13) that all high mountains are called Alpes by Celts. The term may be common to Italo-Celtic, because the Celtic languages have terms for high mountains derived from alp.
There is a theory that in Greek Alpes is a name of what origin?
56f827e6aef2371900625e59
Indo-European origin
76
False
What name has been used as a name for a number of mountainous areas across Europe?
56f827e6aef2371900625e5a
Albania
345
False
Albania was a name for what during Roman Times?
56f827e6aef2371900625e5b
the eastern Caucasus
533
False
Albania was occasionally used as a name for what in the English language?
56f827e6aef2371900625e5c
Scotland
645
False
This may be consistent with the theory that in Greek Alpes is a name of non-Indo-European origin (which is common for prominent mountains and mountain ranges in the Mediterranean region). According to the Old English Dictionary, the Latin Alpes might possibly derive from a pre-Indo-European word *alb "hill"; "Albania" is a related derivation. Albania, a name not native to the region known as the country of Albania, has been used as a name for a number of mountainous areas across Europe. In Roman times, "Albania" was a name for the eastern Caucasus, while in the English language "Albania" (or "Albany") was occasionally used as a name for Scotland.
What words are likely to have common origins?
56f84664aef2371900625f7b
alb ("white") and albus
31
False
Where do Alb and Albus share their origin from?
56f84664aef2371900625f7c
the association of the tops of tall mountains or steep hills with snow.
89
False
Alb can also mean what?
56f84664aef2371900625f7d
white
37
False
It's likely[weasel words] that alb ("white") and albus have common origins deriving from the association of the tops of tall mountains or steep hills with snow.
The term alp, alm, albe or alpe refers to what in modern languages?
56f87461aef23719006260a3
a grazing pastures in the alpine regions below the glaciers, not the peaks
62
False
What refers to a high mountain pasture where cows are taken to be grazed during the summer months?
56f87461aef23719006260a4
An alp
138
False
Words such as horn, kogel, gipfel, spitz, and berd are used in what regions?
56f87461aef23719006260a5
German speaking regions
466
False
Mont, pic, dent and aiguille are words used in what regions?
56f87461aef23719006260a6
French speaking regions
523
False
In modern languages the term alp, alm, albe or alpe refers to a grazing pastures in the alpine regions below the glaciers, not the peaks. An alp refers to a high mountain pasture where cows are taken to be grazed during the summer months and where hay barns can be found, and the term "the Alps", referring to the mountains, is a misnomer. The term for the mountain peaks varies by nation and language: words such as horn, kogel, gipfel, spitz, and berg are used in German speaking regions: mont, pic, dent and aiguille in French speaking regions; and monte, picco or cima in Italian speaking regions.
What are the crescent shaped geographic feature of central Europe?
56f8752baef23719006260b6
The Alps
0
False
What is the mean height of the Alp's peak?
56f8752baef23719006260b7
2.5 km (1.6 mi)
197
False
How far does the Alps range stretch?
56f8752baef23719006260b8
the Mediterranean Sea north above the Po basin, extending through France from Grenoble, eastward through mid and southern Switzerland
239
False
Switzerland, France, Austria and Italy have the greatest what?
56f8752baef23719006260b9
alpine territory
809
False
The Alps are a crescent shaped geographic feature of central Europe that ranges in a 800 km (500 mi) arc from east to west and is 200 km (120 mi) in width. The mean height of the mountain peaks is 2.5 km (1.6 mi). The range stretches from the Mediterranean Sea north above the Po basin, extending through France from Grenoble, eastward through mid and southern Switzerland. The range continues toward Vienna in Austria, and east to the Adriatic Sea and into Slovenia. To the south it dips into northern Italy and to the north extends to the south border of Bavaria in Germany. In areas like Chiasso, Switzerland, and Neuschwanstein, Bavaria, the demarcation between the mountain range and the flatlands are clear; in other places such as Geneva, the demarcation is less clear. The countries with the greatest alpine territory are Switzerland, France, Austria and Italy.
The highest portion of the Alp's range is divided by what?
56f875e9a6d7ea1400e17679
the glacial trough of the Rhone valley
47
False
Where are the peaks smaller in the range?
56f875e9a6d7ea1400e1767a
the easterly portion
231
False
The Bernese Alps are located in what part of the range?
56f875e9a6d7ea1400e1767b
northern
208
False
The highest portion of the range is divided by the glacial trough of the Rhone valley, with the Pennine Alps from Mont Blanc to the Matterhorn and Monte Rosa on the southern side, and the Bernese Alps on the northern. The peaks in the easterly portion of the range, in Austria and Slovenia, are smaller than those in the central and western portions.
What makes the classification of the mountains and subregions difficult?
56f876bda6d7ea1400e17689
The variances in nomenclature
0
False
Who came up with the general classification?
56f876bda6d7ea1400e1768a
geologist Stefan Schmid
280
False
Where is the divide between the Eastern Alps and Western Alps near?
56f876bda6d7ea1400e1768b
Splügen Pass
314
False
The variances in nomenclature in the region spanned by the Alps makes classification of the mountains and subregions difficult, but a general classification is that of the Eastern Alps and Western Alps with the divide between the two occurring in eastern Switzerland according to geologist Stefan Schmid, near the Splügen Pass.
The highest peak of the Western Alps is where?
56f87739aef23719006260c4
Mont Blanc
74
False
How tall is the peak at Mont Blanc?
56f87739aef23719006260c5
4,810 m
89
False
The highest peak of the Eastern Alps is where?
56f87739aef23719006260c6
Piz Bernina
113
False
How tall is the peak of Piz Bernina
56f87739aef23719006260c7
4,049 metres
128
False
The highest peaks of the Western Alps and Eastern Alps, respectively, are Mont Blanc, at 4,810 m (15,780 ft) and Piz Bernina at 4,049 metres (13,284 ft). The second-highest major peaks are Monte Rosa at 4,634 m (15,200 ft) and Ortler at 3,905 m (12,810 ft), respectively
Where are the French Prealps located?
56f8782aaef23719006260d6
France
108
False
What mountains are located in Switzerland and France?
56f8782aaef23719006260d7
the Jura Mountains
119
False
What follows the watershed from the Mediterranean Sea to the Wienerwald?
56f8782aaef23719006260d8
The secondary chain of the Alps
165
False
What heads approximately east-northeast once at the Swiss bored?
56f8782aaef23719006260d9
the line of the main chain
519
False
Series of lower mountain ranges run parallel to the main chain of the Alps, including the French Prealps in France and the Jura Mountains in Switzerland and France. The secondary chain of the Alps follows the watershed from the Mediterranean Sea to the Wienerwald, passing over many of the highest and most well-known peaks in the Alps. From the Colle di Cadibona to Col de Tende it runs westwards, before turning to the northwest and then, near the Colle della Maddalena, to the north. Upon reaching the Swiss border, the line of the main chain heads approximately east-northeast, a heading it follows until its end near Vienna.
What have been crossed for war and commerce?
56f878f1a6d7ea1400e176b3
The Alps
0
False
What was established during medieval periods by religious orders?
56f878f1a6d7ea1400e176b4
hospices
297
False
Where were hospices established?
56f878f1a6d7ea1400e176b5
the summits of many of the main passes
346
False
What is the highest of the most important passes of the Alps?
56f878f1a6d7ea1400e176b6
Col de l'Iseran
420
False
The Alps have been crossed for war and commerce, and by pilgrims, students and tourists. Crossing routes by road, train or foot are known as passes, and usually consist of depressions in the mountains in which a valley leads from the plains and hilly pre-mountainous zones. In the medieval period hospices were established by religious orders at the summits of many of the main passes. The most important passes are the Col de l'Iseran (the highest), the Brenner Pass, the Mont-Cenis, the Great St. Bernard Pass, the Col de Tende, the Gotthard Pass, the Semmering Pass, and the Stelvio Pass.
What seperates the Otztal Alps and Zillertal Alps?
56f87b15aef23719006260e8
the Brenner Pass
38
False
How long has the Brenner Pass been used as a trading route?
56f87b15aef23719006260e9
since the 14th century
139
False
The lowest of the Alpine passes at what elevation?
56f87b15aef23719006260ea
985 m (3,232 ft)
198
False
Who crossed the Great St. Bernard Pass with 40,000 troops?
56f87b15aef23719006260eb
Napoleon Bonaparte
670
False
Where is the highest point in the alps located?
56f87b15aef23719006260ec
col de l'Iseran in Savoy (France)
1251
False
Crossing the Italian-Austrian border, the Brenner Pass separates the Ötztal Alps and Zillertal Alps and has been in use as a trading route since the 14th century. The lowest of the Alpine passes at 985 m (3,232 ft), the Semmering crosses from Lower Austria to Styria; since the 12th century when a hospice was built there it has seen continuous use. A railroad with a tunnel 1 mile (1.6 km) long was built along the route of the pass in the mid-19th century. With a summit of 2,469 m (8,100 ft), the Great St. Bernard Pass is one of the highest in the Alps, crossing the Italian-Swiss border east of the Pennine Alps along the flanks of Mont Blanc. The pass was used by Napoleon Bonaparte to cross 40,000 troops in 1800. The Saint Gotthard Pass crosses from Central Switzerland to Ticino; in the late 19th century the 14 km (9 mi) long Saint Gotthard Tunnel was built connecting Lucerne in Switzerland, with Milan in Italy. The Mont Cenis pass has been a major commercial road between Western Europe and Italy. Now the pass has been supplanted by the Fréjus Road and Rail tunnel. At 2,756 m (9,042 ft), the Stelvio Pass in northern Italy is one of the highest of the Alpine passes; the road was built in the 1820s. The highest pass in the alps is the col de l'Iseran in Savoy (France) at 2,770 m (9,088 ft).
Who began studying the rock formations of the Alps
56f87c08aef23719006260f2
naturalists
50
False
When did the studying of rock formations begin in the Alps?
56f87c08aef23719006260f3
the 18th century
112
False
What was used in the mid-19th century to explain the presence of "folded" mountain chains?
56f87c08aef23719006260f4
theory of geosynclines
170
False
What theory was more widely accepted by the mid-20th century?
56f87c08aef23719006260f5
the theory of plate tectonics
282
False
Important geological concepts were established as naturalists began studying the rock formations of the Alps in the 18th century. In the mid-19th century the now defunct theory of geosynclines was used to explain the presence of "folded" mountain chains but by the mid-20th century the theory of plate tectonics became widely accepted.
When did the formation of the alps began?
56f87d46aef23719006260fa
about 300 million years ago
82
False
What did the Pangaean supercontinent consisted of what during the Paleozoic Era?
56f87d46aef23719006260fb
a single tectonic plate
173
False
When did the single tectonic plate break into separate plates?
56f87d46aef23719006260fc
the Mesozoic Era
235
False
The Tethys sea developed during what period of time?
56f87d46aef23719006260fd
Jurassic Period
322
False
The collision between the African and the Eurasian plates began during what time?
56f87d46aef23719006260fe
the late Cretaceous Period
737
False
The formation of the Alps (the Alpine orogeny) was an episodic process that began about 300 million years ago. In the Paleozoic Era the Pangaean supercontinent consisted of a single tectonic plate; it broke into separate plates during the Mesozoic Era and the Tethys sea developed between Laurasia and Gondwana during the Jurassic Period. The Tethys was later squeezed between colliding plates causing the formation of mountain ranges called the Alpide belt, from Gibraltar through the Himalayas to Indonesia—a process that began at the end of the Mesozoic and continues into the present. The formation of the Alps was a segment of this orogenic process, caused by the collision between the African and the Eurasian plates that began in the late Cretaceous Period.
What was uplifted from extreme compressive stresses and pressure?
56f8821eaef237190062613c
marine sedimentary rocks
49
False
When did the layer of marine flysch sediments get deposited in the foreland basin?
56f8821eaef237190062613d
As the rising peaks underwent erosion
160
False
What were later deposited in foreland areas as molasse?
56f8821eaef237190062613e
Coarse sediments
358
False
Switzerland and Bavaria saw a further upthrusting of what?
56f8821eaef237190062613f
flysch
562
False
Under extreme compressive stresses and pressure, marine sedimentary rocks were uplifted, creating characteristic recumbent folds, or nappes, and thrust faults. As the rising peaks underwent erosion, a layer of marine flysch sediments was deposited in the foreland basin, and the sediments became involved in younger nappes (folds) as the orogeny progressed. Coarse sediments from the continual uplift and erosion were later deposited in foreland areas as molasse. The molasse regions in Switzerland and Bavaria were well-developed and saw further upthrusting of flysch.
What caused the development of the Jura Mountains?
56f883c2aef2371900626144
a late-stage orogeny
117
False
What cause different paleogeographic regions in the Triassic, Jurassic and Cretaceous periods?
56f883c2aef2371900626145
A series of tectonic events
185
False
What is another word for rock composition?
56f883c2aef2371900626146
lithology
341
False
What geological subdivision is located in the north?
56f883c2aef2371900626147
Helveticum
534
False
The Alpine orogeny occurred in ongoing cycles through to the Paleogene causing differences in nappe structures, with a late-stage orogeny causing the development of the Jura Mountains. A series of tectonic events in the Triassic, Jurassic and Cretaceous periods caused different paleogeographic regions. The Alps are subdivided by different lithology (rock composition) and nappe structure according to the orogenic events that affected them. The geological subdivision differentiates the Western, Eastern Alps and Southern Alps: the Helveticum in the north, the Penninicum and Austroalpine system in the center and, south of the Periadriatic Seam, the Southern Alpine system.
What is Stefan Schmid's profession?
56f8851fa6d7ea1400e1770f
geologist
13
False
What happened to the Western Alps during the Cenozoic Era
56f8851fa6d7ea1400e17710
a metamorphic event
73
False
When did the Austroalpine peaks undergo their event?
56f8851fa6d7ea1400e17711
the Cretaceous Period
164
False
The Western Alps and the Austroalpine peaks show distinct differences in what?
56f8851fa6d7ea1400e17712
nappe formations
230
False
When did Flysch deposits probably occur in the Southern Alps of Lombardy?
56f8851fa6d7ea1400e17713
Cretaceous
322
False
According to geologist Stefan Schmid, because the Western Alps underwent a metamorphic event in the Cenozoic Era while the Austroalpine peaks underwent an event in the Cretaceous Period, the two areas show distinct differences in nappe formations. Flysch deposits in the Southern Alps of Lombardy probably occurred in the Cretaceous or later.
What area do peaks in France, Italy, and Switzerland lie in?
56f8868baef2371900626160
Houillière zone
51
False
What are more common in the Western Alps?
56f8868baef2371900626161
High "massifs"
134
False
When compared to the Western Alps, what area has few high peaked massifs?
56f8868baef2371900626162
Eastern Alps
288
False
Peaks in France, Italy and Switzerland lie in the "Houillière zone", which consists of basement with sediments from the Mesozoic Era. High "massifs" with external sedimentary cover are more common in the Western Alps and were affected by Neogene Period thin-skinned thrusting whereas the Eastern Alps have comparatively few high peaked massifs. Similarly the peaks in Switzerland extending to western Austria (Helvetic nappes) consist of thin-skinned sedimentary folding that detached from former basement rock.
Layers of rock from Europe, Africa and the ocean make up what?
56f88857a6d7ea1400e1772d
the structure of the Alps
16
False
What is the origin of the bottom nappe structure?
56f88857a6d7ea1400e1772e
continental Europe
153
False
Where are the top of the nappes derived from?
56f88857a6d7ea1400e1772f
the African plate
264
False
What is an example of the ongoing orogeny?
56f88857a6d7ea1400e17730
The Matterhorn
283
False
In simple terms the structure of the Alps consists of layers of rock of European, African and oceanic (Tethyan) origin. The bottom nappe structure is of continental European origin, above which are stacked marine sediment nappes, topped off by nappes derived from the African plate. The Matterhorn is an example of the ongoing orogeny and shows evidence of great folding. The tip of the mountain consists of gneisses from the African plate; the base of the peak, below the glaciated area, consists of European basement rock. The sequence of Tethyan marine sediments and their oceanic basement is sandwiched between rock derived from the African and European plates.
What happened to the Alpine orogenic belt that gave it the steep vertical peak?
56f88a0ca6d7ea1400e1773f
folded and fractured
55
False
Mont Blanc, the Matterhorn, and peaks in the Pennine Alps cosist of what?
56f88a0ca6d7ea1400e17740
layers of rock from the various orogenies
351
False
What are the common characteristics of the Alpine Orogenic Belt?
56f88a0ca6d7ea1400e17741
steep vertical peaks
133
False
The core regions of the Alpine orogenic belt have been folded and fractured in such a manner that erosion created the characteristic steep vertical peaks of the Swiss Alps that rise seemingly straight out of the foreland areas. Peaks such as Mont Blanc, the Matterhorn, and high peaks in the Pennine Alps, the Briançonnais, and Hohe Tauern consist of layers of rock from the various orogenies including exposures of basement rock.
What group defined a list of 82 official Apline summits that reach 4,000m?
56f88bb0aef2371900626170
Union Internationale des Associations d'Alpinisme (UIAA)
4
False
What is included in the list of 82 official Apline summits other than Mountains?
56f88bb0aef2371900626171
subpeaks with little prominence that are considered important mountaineering objectives
200
False
The list of twenty two summits has summits with at least how much prominence?
56f88bb0aef2371900626172
500 m (1,640 ft)
346
False
The Union Internationale des Associations d'Alpinisme (UIAA) has defined a list of 82 "official" Alpine summits that reach at least 4,000 m (13,123 ft). The list includes not only mountains, but also subpeaks with little prominence that are considered important mountaineering objectives. Below are listed the 22 "four-thousanders" with at least 500 m (1,640 ft) of prominence.
When was Mont Blanc first climbed?
56f88c53a6d7ea1400e1774d
1786
38
False
When were most of the Alpine fourthousanders climber?
56f88c53a6d7ea1400e1774e
first half of the 19th century
104
False
When was the ascent of the Matterhorn?
56f88c53a6d7ea1400e1774f
1865
168
False
What did the ascent of the Matterhorn mark?
56f88c53a6d7ea1400e17750
the end of the golden age of alpinism
180
False
Who was among the first to successfully climb all the major 4,000m peaks?
56f88c53a6d7ea1400e17751
Karl Blodig
219
False
While Mont Blanc was first climbed in 1786, most of the Alpine four-thousanders were climbed during the first half of the 19th century; the ascent of the Matterhorn in 1865 marked the end of the golden age of alpinism. Karl Blodig (1859–1956) was among the first to successfully climb all the major 4,000 m peaks. He completed his series of ascents in 1911.
When was the first British Mont Blanc ascent?
56f88e93a6d7ea1400e17757
1788
43
False
When was the first female ascent on Mont Blanc?
56f88e93a6d7ea1400e17758
1819
76
False
When had Swiss mountaineers ascended most of the peaks?
56f88e93a6d7ea1400e17759
the mid-1850s
85
False
What year did Edward Whymper reach the top of the Matterhorn?
56f88e93a6d7ea1400e1775a
1865
245
False
When were the last of the six great north faces of the Alps climbed?
56f88e93a6d7ea1400e1775b
1938
281
False
The first British Mont Blanc ascent was in 1788; the first female ascent in 1819. By the mid-1850s Swiss mountaineers had ascended most of the peaks and were eagerly sought as mountain guides. Edward Whymper reached the top of the Matterhorn in 1865 (after seven attempts), and in 1938 the last of the six great north faces of the Alps was climbed with the first ascent of the Eiger Nordwand (north face of the Eiger).
What have been mined in the Alps for thousands of years?
56f88f71aef237190062619e
minerals
25
False
What did Celtic tribes mine from the Alps?
56f88f71aef237190062619f
copper
160
False
What did the Romans mine in the Bad Gastein area?
56f88f71aef23719006261a0
gold
191
False
What does Erzberd in Styria furnish?
56f88f71aef23719006261a1
high-quality iron ore
259
False
The cinnabar deposits are found in what area?
56f88f71aef23719006261a2
Slovenia
426
False
The Alps are a source of minerals that have been mined for thousands of years. In the 8th to 6th centuries BC during the Hallstatt culture, Celtic tribes mined copper; later the Romans mined gold for coins in the Bad Gastein area. Erzberg in Styria furnishes high-quality iron ore for the steel industry. Crystals are found throughout much of the Alpine region such as cinnabar, amethyst, and quartz. The cinnabar deposits in Slovenia are a notable source of cinnabar pigments.
How long have Alpine crystals been studied and collected?
56f89035aef23719006261a8
hundreds of years
52
False
When did the alpine crystals begin to be classified?
56f89035aef23719006261a9
the 18th century
101
False
Who studied the shapes of crystals?
56f89035aef23719006261aa
Leonhard Euler
119
False
By the 19th century what was common in the Alpine regions?
56f89035aef23719006261ab
crystal hunting
190
False
Who amassed a collection 8000 crystals?
56f89035aef23719006261ac
David Friedrich Wiser
236
False
Alpine crystals have been studied and collected for hundreds of years, and began to be classified in the 18th century. Leonhard Euler studied the shapes of crystals, and by the 19th century crystal hunting was common in Alpine regions. David Friedrich Wiser amassed a collection of 8000 crystals that he studied and documented. In the 20th century Robert Parker wrote a well-known work about the rock crystals of the Swiss Alps; at the same period a commission was established to control and standardize the naming of Alpine minerals.
Where did the mountains undergo serve erosion?
56f8928baef23719006261bc
Miocene Epoch
7
False
What was the cause of the severe erosion?
56f8928baef23719006261bd
glaciation
71
False
Who noted the severe erosion of the mountains?
56f8928baef23719006261be
Louis Agassiz
137
False
What was Louis Agassiz also known as?
56f8928baef23719006261bf
the "father of the ice-age concept"
407
False
In the Miocene Epoch the mountains underwent severe erosion because of glaciation, which was noted in the mid-19th century by naturalist Louis Agassiz who presented a paper proclaiming the Alps were covered in ice at various intervals—a theory he formed when studying rocks near his Neuchâtel home which he believed originated to the west in the Bernese Oberland. Because of his work he came to be known as the "father of the ice-age concept" although other naturalists before him put forth similar ideas.
Where did Agassiz study during the 1840s?
56f893a2a6d7ea1400e1777d
the Unteraar Glacier
49
False
Agassiz found that the Unteraar Glacier moved how much per year?
56f893a2a6d7ea1400e1777e
100 m (328 ft)
103
False
The movement of the Unteraar Glacier moved more rapidly in what part?
56f893a2a6d7ea1400e1777f
the middle
144
False
Agassiz studied glacier movement in the 1840s at the Unteraar Glacier where he found the glacier moved 100 m (328 ft) per year, more rapidly in the middle than at the edges. His work was continued by other scientists and now a permanent laboratory exists inside a glacier under the Jungfraujoch, devoted exclusively to the study of Alpine glaciers.
What is an example of a valley carved by glaciers during the ice ages?
56f8960c9b226e1400dd0c53
The Inn valley
120
False
What lays at the bottom of the Inn Valley
56f8960c9b226e1400dd0c54
Eroded rocks from the most recent ice age
253
False
The top of the Inn Valley consists of what?
56f8960c9b226e1400dd0c55
erosion from earlier ice ages
367
False
What are Moraines?
56f8960c9b226e1400dd0c56
piles of rock picked up during the movement of the glacier
579
False
Where have moraines accumulated?
56f8960c9b226e1400dd0c57
at edges, center and the terminus of glaciers.
650
False
Glaciers pick up rocks and sediment with them as they flow. This causes erosion and the formation of valleys over time. The Inn valley is an example of a valley carved by glaciers during the ice ages with a typical terraced structure caused by erosion. Eroded rocks from the most recent ice age lie at the bottom of the valley while the top of the valley consists of erosion from earlier ice ages. Glacial valleys have characteristically steep walls (reliefs); valleys with lower reliefs and talus slopes are remnants of glacial troughs or previously infilled valleys. Moraines, piles of rock picked up during the movement of the glacier, accumulate at edges, center and the terminus of glaciers.
How do Piedmont glaciers appear?
56f897739b226e1400dd0c71
spread in a fan-like shape
69
False
What causes the ice to break and crack loudly?
56f897739b226e1400dd0c72
The stress of the movement
191
False
What does the cracking of the ice create?
56f897739b226e1400dd0c73
unpredictable and dangerous crevasses
378
False
Alpine glaciers can be straight rivers of ice, long sweeping rivers, spread in a fan-like shape (Piedmont glaciers), and curtains of ice that hang from vertical slopes of the mountain peaks. The stress of the movement causes the ice to break and crack loudly, perhaps explaining why the mountains were believed to be home to dragons in the medieval period. The cracking creates unpredictable and dangerous crevasses, often invisible under new snowfall, which cause the greatest danger to mountaineers.
What causes flooding, property damage, and loss of life?
56f89a8d9e9bad19000a01b7
a piece of glacier will detach or break
128
False
What killed about 2500 people in the 17th century?
56f89a8d9e9bad19000a01b8
an avalanche
278
False
How many homes in a village near Zermatt were destroyed by an avalanche in the 19th century?
56f89a8d9e9bad19000a01b9
120 homes
354
False
Glaciers end in ice caves (the Rhone Glacier), by trailing into a lake or river, or by shedding snowmelt on a meadow. Sometimes a piece of glacier will detach or break resulting in flooding, property damage and loss of life. In the 17th century about 2500 people were killed by an avalanche in a village on the French-Italian border; in the 19th century 120 homes in a village near Zermatt were destroyed by an avalanche.
What cause the glaciers to descend to permafrost levels in some areas?
56f89bfa9b226e1400dd0cb7
High levels of precipitation
0
False
From 1876 to 1973, how much did the glaciers that covered the Alps shrink?
56f89bfa9b226e1400dd0cb8
to 1,342 km2 (518 sq mi)
281
False
What resulted from the loss of the area the glaciers over the Alps?
56f89bfa9b226e1400dd0cb9
decreased river run-off levels.
328
False
How much of the glaciation in Austria disappeared?
56f89bfa9b226e1400dd0cba
Forty percent
360
False
How much of the glaciation disappeared in Switzerland?
56f89bfa9b226e1400dd0cbb
30%
435
False
High levels of precipitation cause the glaciers to descend to permafrost levels in some areas whereas in other, more arid regions, glaciers remain above about the 3,500 m (11,483 ft) level. The 1,817 square kilometres (702 sq mi) of the Alps covered by glaciers in 1876 had shrunk to 1,342 km2 (518 sq mi) by 1973, resulting in decreased river run-off levels. Forty percent of the glaciation in Austria has disappeared since 1850, and 30% of that in Switzerland.
What provides Europe with drinking water, irrigation, and hydroelectric power?
56f89db09b226e1400dd0ccb
The Alps
0
False
How much of Europe does the Alps cover?
56f89db09b226e1400dd0ccc
11 percent of the surface area
122
False
How much water does the Alps provide to lowland Europe?
56f89db09b226e1400dd0ccd
90 percent
187
False
How much water does Milan depend on from the Alpine runoff?
56f89db09b226e1400dd0cce
80 percent
314
False
Water from the rivers is used in over how many hydroelectric power plants?
56f89db09b226e1400dd0ccf
500
392
False
The Alps provide lowland Europe with drinking water, irrigation, and hydroelectric power. Although the area is only about 11 percent of the surface area of Europe, the Alps provide up to 90 percent of water to lowland Europe, particularly to arid areas and during the summer months. Cities such as Milan depend on 80 percent of water from Alpine runoff. Water from the rivers is used in over 500 hydroelectricity power plants, generating as much as 2900 kilowatts of electricity.
The Rhine, the Rhone, the Inn, the Ticino and the Po rivers flow from what Country?
56f89f569b226e1400dd0cdf
Switzerland
32
False
Where do the major tributaries that flow through the Danube originate from?
56f89f569b226e1400dd0ce0
the Alps
373
False
Which river is second to the Nile as a freshwater source to the Mediterranean?
56f89f569b226e1400dd0ce1
The Rhone
383
False
What does The Rhone begin as?
56f89f569b226e1400dd0ce2
glacial meltwater
484
False
Where does the Rhine originate?
56f89f569b226e1400dd0ce3
a 30 square kilometre area in Switzerland
631
False
Major European rivers flow from Switzerland, such as the Rhine, the Rhone, the Inn, the Ticino and the Po, all of which have headwaters in the Alps and flow into neighbouring countries, finally emptying into the North Sea, the Mediterranean Sea, the Adriatic Sea and the Black Sea. Other rivers such as the Danube have major tributaries flowing into them that originate in the Alps. The Rhone is second to the Nile as a freshwater source to the Mediterranean Sea; the river begins as glacial meltwater, flows into Lake Geneva, and from there to France where one of its uses is to cool nuclear power plants. The Rhine originates in a 30 square kilometre area in Switzerland and represents almost 60 percent of water exported from the country. Tributary valleys, some of which are complicated, channel water to the main valleys which can experience flooding during the snow melt season when rapid runoff causes debris torrents and swollen rivers.
Where is the medieval St. Bartholomew Chapel located?
56f8a2749e9bad19000a0225
Germany
180
False
What side of the Konigssee was St. Bartholomew's chapel built?
56f8a2749e9bad19000a0226
south side
244
False
What do the rivers form?
56f8a2749e9bad19000a0227
lakes
16
False
The rivers form lakes, such as Lake Geneva, a crescent shaped lake crossing the Swiss border with Lausanne on the Swiss side and the town of Evian-les-Bains on the French side. In Germany, the medieval St. Bartholomew's chapel was built on the south side of the Königssee, accessible only by boat or by climbing over the abutting peaks.
Who have been studying the impact of climate change and water use?
56f8a3aa9b226e1400dd0d23
Scientists
0
False
Water is diverted from rivers for what purpose?
56f8a3aa9b226e1400dd0d24
snowmaking in the ski resorts
136
False
What are the effects of diverting the water from rivers?
56f8a3aa9b226e1400dd0d25
unknown
194
False
Scientists have been studying the impact of climate change and water use. For example, each year more water is diverted from rivers for snowmaking in the ski resorts, the effect of which is yet unknown. Furthermore, the decrease of glaciated areas combined with a succession of winters with lower-than-expected precipitation may have a future impact on the rivers in the Alps as well as an effect on the water availability to the lowlands.
What are a classic example of what happens when a temperate area at lower altitude gives way to higher-elevation terrain?
56f8a4f49b226e1400dd0d33
The Alps
0
False
Elevations around the world that have a cold climate similar to that of the polar region have been called what?
56f8a4f49b226e1400dd0d34
Alpine
233
False
What causes the temperature to decrease?
56f8a4f49b226e1400dd0d35
A rise from sea level into the upper regions of the atmosphere
241
False
What is sufficient to divide the weather patterns in Europe into a wet north and dry south?
56f8a4f49b226e1400dd0d36
The height of the Alps
631
False
The Alps are a classic example of what happens when a temperate area at lower altitude gives way to higher-elevation terrain. Elevations around the world that have cold climates similar to those of the polar regions have been called Alpine. A rise from sea level into the upper regions of the atmosphere causes the temperature to decrease (see adiabatic lapse rate). The effect of mountain chains on prevailing winds is to carry warm air belonging to the lower region into an upper zone, where it expands in volume at the cost of a proportionate loss of temperature, often accompanied by precipitation in the form of snow or rain. The height of the Alps is sufficient to divide the weather patterns in Europe into a wet north and a dry south because moisture is sucked from the air as it flows over the high peaks.
Since when has the severe weather in the Alps been studied?
56f8a5839b226e1400dd0d3b
the 18th century
54
False
Particularly what part of the weather has been studied?
56f8a5839b226e1400dd0d3c
the weather patterns
85
False
What was placed in the mountains early in the 20th century?
56f8a5839b226e1400dd0d3d
Numerous weather stations
139
False
Where is the Aosta valley located?
56f8a5839b226e1400dd0d3e
Italy
336
False
Where is the Valais located?
56f8a5839b226e1400dd0d3f
Switzerland
382
False
The severe weather in the Alps has been studied since the 18th century; particularly the weather patterns such as the seasonal foehn wind. Numerous weather stations were placed in the mountains early in the early 20th century, providing continuous data for climatologists. Some of the valleys are quite arid such as the Aosta valley in Italy, the Maurienne in France, the Valais in Switzerland, and northern Tyrol.
What areas experience periodic flooding from rapid snowmelt and runoff?
56f8a6849b226e1400dd0d4b
The areas that are not arid and receive high precipitation
0
False
What are the ranges of mean precipitation in the Alps?
56f8a6849b226e1400dd0d4c
2,600 mm (100 in) per year to 3,600 mm (140 in) per year
176
False
Where do the higher levels of precipitation occur?
56f8a6849b226e1400dd0d4d
high altitudes
270
False
At what altitude does snowfall begin in November?
56f8a6849b226e1400dd0d4e
At altitudes between 1,000 and 3,000 m
286
False
The areas that are not arid and receive high precipitation experience periodic flooding from rapid snowmelt and runoff. The mean precipitation in the Alps ranges from a low of 2,600 mm (100 in) per year to 3,600 mm (140 in) per year, with the higher levels occurring at high altitudes. At altitudes between 1,000 and 3,000 m (3,281 and 9,843 ft), snowfall begins in November and accumulates through to April or May when the melt begins. Snow lines vary from 2,400 to 3,000 m (7,874 to 9,843 ft), above which the snow is permanent and the temperatures hover around the freezing point even July and August. High-water levels in streams and rivers peak in June and July when the snow is still melting at the higher altitudes.
How many zones are the Alps split into?
56f8a7729b226e1400dd0d65
five climatic zones
24
False
What is the lowest zone of the Alps called?
56f8a7729b226e1400dd0d66
colline zone
201
False
Where does the lowest zone of the Alps exist?
56f8a7729b226e1400dd0d67
between 500 and 1,000 m
228
False
Where does the montane zone extend from?
56f8a7729b226e1400dd0d68
from 800 to 1,700 m
326
False
Where does the sub-Alpine zone extend from?
56f8a7729b226e1400dd0d69
from 1,600 to 2,400 m
399
False
The Alps are split into five climatic zones, each with different vegetation. The climate, plant life and animal life vary among the different sections or zones of the mountains. The lowest zone is the colline zone, which exists between 500 and 1,000 m (1,640 and 3,281 ft), depending on the location. The montane zone extends from 800 to 1,700 m (2,625 to 5,577 ft), followed by the sub-Alpine zone from 1,600 to 2,400 m (5,249 to 7,874 ft). The Alpine zone, extending from tree line to snow line, is followed by the glacial zone, which covers the glaciated areas of the mountain. Climatic conditions show variances within the same zones; for example, weather conditions at the head of a mountain valley, extending directly from the peaks, are colder and more severe than those at the mouth of a valley which tend to be less severe and receive less snowfall.
What has been projected into the 22nd century for the Alps?
56f8a8639e9bad19000a0277
Various models of climate change
0
False
What will have an effect on snowfall, snowpack, glaciation, and river runoff?
56f8a8639e9bad19000a0278
increased temperatures
129
False
What have the various models been of?
56f8a8639e9bad19000a0279
climate change
18
False
Various models of climate change have been projected into the 22nd century for the Alps, with an expectation that a trend toward increased temperatures will have an effect on snowfall, snowpack, glaciation, and river runoff.
How many species of plants have been identified in the Alpine regions?
56f8a9139b226e1400dd0d7f
Thirteen thousand
0
False
How are Alpine plants grouped?
56f8a9139b226e1400dd0d80
by habitat and soil type
106
False
Oak, beech, ash, and sycamore maple make up what group of trees?
56f8a9139b226e1400dd0d81
chief deciduous trees
385
False
Thirteen thousand species of plants have been identified in the Alpine regions. Alpine plants are grouped by habitat and soil type which can be limestone or non-calcerous. The habitats range from meadows, bogs, woodland (deciduous and coniferous) areas to soilless scree and moraines, and rock faces and ridges. A natural vegetation limit with altitude is given by the presence of the chief deciduous trees—oak, beech, ash and sycamore maple. These do not reach exactly to the same elevation, nor are they often found growing together; but their upper limit corresponds accurately enough to the change from a temperate to a colder climate that is further proved by a change in the presence of wild herbaceous vegetation. This limit usually lies about 1,200 m (3,940 ft) above the sea on the north side of the Alps, but on the southern slopes it often rises to 1,500 m (4,920 ft), sometimes even to 1,700 m (5,580 ft).
What is often above the forestry?
56f8a99d9b226e1400dd0d8f
a band of short pine trees
35
False
What type of soil does Alpenrose prefer?
56f8a99d9b226e1400dd0d90
acidic soil
261
False
What is the area above the treeline defined as?
56f8a99d9b226e1400dd0d91
alpine
362
False
Why does the alpine area fluctuate greatly?
56f8a99d9b226e1400dd0d92
because of regional fluctuations in tree lines.
543
False
Above the forestry, there is often a band of short pine trees (Pinus mugo), which is in turn superseded by Alpenrosen, dwarf shrubs, typically Rhododendron ferrugineum (on acid soils) or Rhododendron hirsutum (on alkaline soils). Although the Alpenrose prefers acidic soil, the plants are found throughout the region. Above the tree line is the area defined as "alpine" where in the alpine meadow plants are found that have adapted well to harsh conditions of cold temperatures, aridity, and high altitudes. The alpine area fluctuates greatly because of regional fluctuations in tree lines.
What grows in abundance in areas such as the meadows above the Lauterbrunnental?
56f8aa359e9bad19000a0295
Alpine plants such the Alpine gentian
0
False
What are Gentians named after?
56f8aa359e9bad19000a0296
the Illyrian king Gentius
138
False
How many species of the early-spring blooming flower grow in the Alps?
56f8aa359e9bad19000a0297
40 species
169
False
Alpine plants such the Alpine gentian grow in abundance in areas such as the meadows above the Lauterbrunnental. Gentians are named after the Illyrian king Gentius, and 40 species of the early-spring blooming flower grow in the Alps, in a range of 1,500 to 2,400 m (4,921 to 7,874 ft). Writing about the gentians in Switzerland D. H. Lawrence described them as "darkening the day-time, torch-like with the smoking blueness of Pluto's gloom." Gentians tend to "appear" repeatedly as the spring blooming takes place at progressively later dates, moving from the lower altitude to the higher altitude meadows where the snow melts much later than in the valleys. On the highest rocky ledges the spring flowers bloom in the summer.
What do the plants tend to form at higher altitudes?
56f8abee9b226e1400dd0dbf
isolated cushions
51
False
Ranunculus glacialis have been recorded to have been found how far in the alps?
56f8abee9b226e1400dd0dc0
above 4,000 m
138
False
What is Eritrichium nanum commonly known as?
56f8abee9b226e1400dd0dc1
the King of the Alps
278
False
What is the best known of the alpine plants?
56f8abee9b226e1400dd0dc2
Edelweiss
460
False
At these higher altitudes, the plants tend to form isolated cushions. In the Alps, several species of flowering plants have been recorded above 4,000 m (13,120 ft), including Ranunculus glacialis, Androsace alpina and Saxifraga biflora. The Eritrichium nanum, commonly known as the King of the Alps, is the most elusive of the alpine flowers, growing on rocky ridges at 2,600 to 3,750 m (8,530 to 12,303 ft). Perhaps the best known of the alpine plants is the Edelweiss which grows in rocky areas and can be found at altitudes as low as 1,400 m (4,593 ft) and as high as 3,400 m (11,155 ft). The plants that grow at the highest altitudes have adapted to conditions by specialization such as growing in rock screes that give protection from winds.
What gives way to the growth of plant species with secondary metabolites important for medicinal purposes?
56f8ac5d9b226e1400dd0dcf
extreme and stressful climatic conditions
4
False
Origanum Vulgare has what useful properties?
56f8ac5d9b226e1400dd0dd0
medicinal
245
False
Where are Urtica dioica found?
56f8ac5d9b226e1400dd0dd1
the Alps
272
False
The extreme and stressful climatic conditions give way to the growth of plant species with secondary metabolites important for medicinal purposes. Origanum vulgare, Prunella vulgaris, Solanum nigrum and Urtica dioica are some of the more useful medicinal species found in the Alps.
What has nearly exterminated the trees in many areas?
56f8ae129b226e1400dd0ded
Human interference
0
False
What are rarely found after the extreme deforestation between the 17th and 19th centuries?
56f8ae129b226e1400dd0dee
forests of deciduous trees
124
False
What has changed since the second half of the 20th century?
56f8ae129b226e1400dd0def
The vegetation
237
False
The practice of building ski runs by mechanical means has destroyed what?
56f8ae129b226e1400dd0df0
the underlying tundra
528
False
Human interference has nearly exterminated the trees in many areas, and, except for the beech forests of the Austrian Alps, forests of deciduous trees are rarely found after the extreme deforestation between the 17th and 19th centuries. The vegetation has changed since the second half of the 20th century, as the high alpine meadows cease to be harvested for hay or used for grazing which eventually might result in a regrowth of forest. In some areas the modern practice of building ski runs by mechanical means has destroyed the underlying tundra from which the plant life cannot recover during the non-skiing months, whereas areas that still practice a natural piste type of ski slope building preserve the fragile underlayers.
How many species of wildlife habitat the Alps?
56f8af259b226e1400dd0dff
30,000 species
27
False
What have the wildlife done to survive the harsh conditions of the Alps?
56f8af259b226e1400dd0e00
made adaptations
126
False
Some species of wildlife can only survive in what specific environment?
56f8af259b226e1400dd0e01
directly above or below the snow line
261
False
The Alps are a habitat for 30,000 species of wildlife, ranging from the tiniest snow fleas to brown bears, many of which have made adaptations to the harsh cold conditions and high altitudes to the point that some only survive in specific micro-climates either directly above or below the snow line.
What is the largest mammal to live in the highest altitudes?
56f8afb99e9bad19000a0313
alpine ibex
60
False
How high have the Alpine Ibex been sighted?
56f8afb99e9bad19000a0314
as high as 3,000 m (9,843 ft)
97
False
Where do the ibex live?
56f8afb99e9bad19000a0315
in caves
142
False
What animal that live in the Alps are classified as antelopes?
56f8afb99e9bad19000a0316
chamois
225
False
What year was the last brown bear recorded to have been killed?
56f8afb99e9bad19000a0317
1792
526
False
The largest mammal to live in the highest altitudes are the alpine ibex, which have been sighted as high as 3,000 m (9,843 ft). The ibex live in caves and descend to eat the succulent alpine grasses. Classified as antelopes, chamois are smaller than ibex and found throughout the Alps, living above the tree line and are common in the entire alpine range. Areas of the eastern Alps are still home to brown bears. In Switzerland the canton of Bern was named for the bears but the last bear is recorded as having been killed in 1792 above Kleine Scheidegg by three hunters from Grindelwald.
Where do many rodents live?
56f8b0ae9b226e1400dd0e0f
underground
32
False
Where do Marmots live?
56f8b0ae9b226e1400dd0e10
almost exclusively above the tree line as high as 2,700 m (8,858 ft)
58
False
Where do marmots build their colonies?
56f8b0ae9b226e1400dd0e11
beneath the alpine pastures
250
False
What is the most common bird found in the Alps?
56f8b0ae9b226e1400dd0e12
the alpine chough
469
False
Many rodents such as voles live underground. Marmots live almost exclusively above the tree line as high as 2,700 m (8,858 ft). They hibernate in large groups to provide warmth, and can be found in all areas of the Alps, in large colonies they build beneath the alpine pastures. Golden eagles and bearded vultures are the largest birds to be found in the Alps; they nest high on rocky ledges and can be found at altitudes of 2,400 m (7,874 ft). The most common bird is the alpine chough which can be found scavenging at climber's huts or at the Jungfraujoch, a high altitude tourist destination.
Why do reptiles only live up to the snow line?
56f8b1949e9bad19000a0339
they cannot bear the cold temperatures
69
False
What do reptiles due since they cannot bear the cold temperatures?
56f8b1949e9bad19000a033a
they hibernate underground
108
False
How have the Alpine salamanders adapted to living above the snow line?
56f8b1949e9bad19000a033b
by giving birth to fully developed young rather than laying eggs
255
False
What can be found in the streams up to the snow line?
56f8b1949e9bad19000a033c
Brown trout
321
False
Reptiles such as adders and vipers live up to the snow line; because they cannot bear the cold temperatures they hibernate underground and soak up the warmth on rocky ledges. The high-altitude Alpine salamanders have adapted to living above the snow line by giving birth to fully developed young rather than laying eggs. Brown trout can be found in the streams up to the snow line. Molluscs such as the wood snail live up the snow line. Popularly gathered as food, the snails are now protected.
How long have some species of moths believed to have evolved from the same habitat?
56f8b2ab9e9bad19000a0351
120 million years
116
False
What can be commonly seen drinking from the snow melt?
56f8b2ab9e9bad19000a0352
Blue moths
174
False
The swallowtail Parnassius family of butterfly habitat ranges up to how much?
56f8b2ab9e9bad19000a0353
1,800 m (5,906 ft)
415
False
What species of beetles are were collected for their colors before being protected?
56f8b2ab9e9bad19000a0354
Rosalia alpina
579
False
A number of species of moths live in the Alps, some of which are believed to have evolved in the same habitat up to 120 million years ago, long before the Alps were created. Blue moths can commonly be seen drinking from the snow melt; some species of blue moths fly as high as 1,800 m (5,906 ft). The butterflies tend to be large, such as those from the swallowtail Parnassius family, with a habitat that ranges to 1,800 m (5,906 ft). Twelve species of beetles have habitats up to the snow line; the most beautiful and formerly collected for its colours but now protected is the Rosalia alpina. Spiders, such as the large wolf spider, live above the snow line and can be seen as high as 400 m (1,312 ft). Scorpions can be found in the Italian Alps.
Some species of moths and insects show evidence of what?
56f8b34f9b226e1400dd0e55
having been indigenous to the area
58
False
How long ago does the evidence show moths and insects to have been indigenous?
56f8b34f9b226e1400dd0e56
the Alpine orogeny
113
False
Where is Emosson located?
56f8b34f9b226e1400dd0e57
Valais, Switzerland
147
False
When were dinosaur tracks found in Emosson?
56f8b34f9b226e1400dd0e58
the 1970s
198
False
Some of the species of moths and insects show evidence of having been indigenous to the area from as long ago as the Alpine orogeny. In Emosson in Valais, Switzerland, dinosaur tracks were found in the 1970s, dating probably from the Triassic Period.
When were late Paleolithic communities established along the lake shores?
56f8b42f9e9bad19000a0369
About 10,000 years ago
0
False
What has been found in caves near Vercors?
56f8b42f9e9bad19000a036a
Evidence of human habitation
164
False
Why were houses built on piles?
56f8b42f9e9bad19000a036b
to keep them dry
321
False
What have been found in Alpine areas of France and Italy?
56f8b42f9e9bad19000a036c
Standing stones
339
False
How old are rock drawings in Valcamonica?
56f8b42f9e9bad19000a036d
more than 5000 years old
445
False
About 10,000 years ago, when the ice melted after the last glacial period, late Paleolithic communities were established along the lake shores and in cave systems. Evidence of human habitation has been found in caves near Vercors, close to Grenoble; in Austria the Mondsee culture shows evidence of houses built on piles to keep them dry. Standing stones have been found in Alpine areas of France and Italy. The rock drawings in Valcamonica are more than 5000 years old; more than 200,000 drawings and etchings have been identified at the site.
Who was Otzi the Iceman?
56f8b4f09b226e1400dd0e7f
a mummy of a neolithic body
8
False
When was Otzi the Iceman found?
56f8b4f09b226e1400dd0e80
In 1991
0
False
Where was Otzi the Iceman discovered?
56f8b4f09b226e1400dd0e81
the Similaun glacier
91
False
In 1991 a mummy of a neolithic body, known as Ötzi the Iceman, was discovered by hikers on the Similaun glacier. His clothing and gear indicate that he lived in an alpine farming community, while the location and manner of his death - an arrowhead was discovered in his shoulder - suggests he was travelling from one place to another. Analysis of the mitochondrial DNA of Ötzi, has shown that he belongs to the K1 subclade which cannot be categorized into any of the three modern branches of that subclade. The new subclade has provisionally been named K1ö for Ötzi.
When did Celtic tribes settle in Switzerland?
56f8b7519b226e1400dd0ea1
between 1000 to 1500 BC
37
False
The Raetians lived in what region?
56f8b7519b226e1400dd0ea2
the eastern regions
84
False
The Helvetii occupied which region?
56f8b7519b226e1400dd0ea3
the west
111
False
What did the Celtic tribes mine?
56f8b7519b226e1400dd0ea4
salt
259
False
Which were the most widespread of the mountain tribes?
56f8b7519b226e1400dd0ea5
The Celts
533
False
Celtic tribes settled in Switzerland between 1000 to 1500 BC. The Raetians lived in the eastern regions, while the west was occupied by the Helvetii and the Allobrogi settled in the Rhone valley and in Savoy. Among the many substances Celtic tribes mined was salt in areas such as Salzburg in Austria where evidence of the Hallstatt culture was found by a mine manager in the 19th century. By the 6th century BC the La Tène culture was well established in the region, and became known for high quality decorated weapons and jewelry. The Celts were the most widespread of the mountain tribes—they had warriors that were strong, tall and fair skinned skilled with iron weapons, which gave them an advantage in warfare.
When was the Second Punic War?
56f8b80d9b226e1400dd0eab
218 BC
31
False
Who was the Carthaginian general?
56f8b80d9b226e1400dd0eac
Hannibal
64
False
What did the Romans build along the mountain passes?
56f8b80d9b226e1400dd0ead
roads
375
False
What can still be found on the mountain passes?
56f8b80d9b226e1400dd0eae
Roman road markers
490
False
During the Second Punic War in 218 BC, the Carthaginian general Hannibal probably crossed the Alps with an army numbering 38,000 infantry, 8,000 cavalry, and 37 war elephants. This was one of the most celebrated achievements of any military force in ancient warfare, although no evidence exists of the actual crossing or the place of crossing. The Romans, however, had built roads along the mountain passes, which continued to be used through the medieval period to cross the mountains and Roman road markers can still be found on the mountain passes.
What brought the defeat of the Allobrogi?
56f8b8a89e9bad19000a03a7
The Roman expansion
0
False
When were the Allobrogi defeated?
56f8b8a89e9bad19000a03a8
in 121 BC
56
False
When did Julius Caesar overcome the Helvetii?
56f8b8a89e9bad19000a03a9
58 BC
96
False
What tribes settled much of the Alpine region?
56f8b8a89e9bad19000a03aa
Germanic tribes
564
False
The Roman expansion brought the defeat of the Allobrogi in 121 BC and during the Gallic Wars in 58 BC Julius Caesar overcame the Helvetii. The Rhaetians continued to resist but were eventually conquered when the Romans turned northward to the Danube valley in Austria and defeated the Brigantes. The Romans built settlements in the Alps; towns such as Aosta (named for Augustus) in Italy, Martigny and Lausanne in Switzerland, and Partenkirchen in Bavaria show remains of Roman baths, villas, arenas and temples. Much of the Alpine region was gradually settled by Germanic tribes, (Lombards, Alemanni, Bavarii, and Franks) from the 6th to the 13th centuries mixing with the local Celtic tribes.
Who established Christianity in the region?
56f8bbf89b226e1400dd0ed1
Romans
50
False
What did the Frankish expansion and the Bavarian expansion introduce?
56f8bbf89b226e1400dd0ed2
feudalism
240
False
What area still has intricate frescoes?
56f8bbf89b226e1400dd0ed3
Castello del Buonconsiglio in Trento, Italy
334
False
What is preserved as an example of medieval architecture?
56f8bbf89b226e1400dd0ed4
Château de Chillon
476
False
Christianity was established in the region by the Romans, and saw the establishment of monasteries and churches in the high regions. The Frankish expansion of the Carolingian Empire and the Bavarian expansion in the eastern Alps introduced feudalism and the building of castles to support the growing number of dukedoms and kingdoms. Castello del Buonconsiglio in Trento, Italy, still has intricate frescoes, excellent examples of Gothic art, in a tower room. In Switzerland, Château de Chillon is preserved as an example of medieval architecture.
Much of the medieval period was a time of what?
56f8be559b226e1400dd0f01
power struggles
42
False
Where were the Visconti from?
56f8be559b226e1400dd0f02
northern Italy
130
False
What dynastie was from Austria and Slovenia?
56f8be559b226e1400dd0f03
the House of Habsburg
149
False
What Country was a well-established separate state by the 16th century?
56f8be559b226e1400dd0f04
Switzerland
533
False
Much of the medieval period was a time of power struggles between competing dynasties such as the House of Savoy, the Visconti in northern Italy and the House of Habsburg in Austria and Slovenia. In 1291 to protect themselves from incursions by the Habsburgs, four cantons in the middle of Switzerland drew up a charter that is considered to be a declaration of independence from neighboring kingdoms. After a series of battles fought in the 13th, 14th and 15th centuries, more cantons joined the confederacy and by the 16th century Switzerland was well-established as a separate state.
What wars took place during the late 18th century and early 19th century?
56f8bec89b226e1400dd0f13
the Napoleonic Wars
7
False
Who annexed territory formerly controlled by the Habsburgs and Savoys?
56f8bec89b226e1400dd0f14
Napoleon
76
False
When was the Helvetic Republic established?
56f8bec89b226e1400dd0f15
1798
155
False
Where was the Helvetic Republic established?
56f8bec89b226e1400dd0f16
Switzerland
200
False
During the Napoleonic Wars in the late 18th century and early 19th century, Napoleon annexed territory formerly controlled by the Habsburgs and Savoys. In 1798 he established the Helvetic Republic in Switzerland; two years later he led an army across the St. Bernard pass and conquered almost all of the Alpine regions.
When did many alpine countries develop heavy protection to prevent new invasion?
56f8c0389b226e1400dd0f2d
After the fall of Napoléon
0
False
Who built a series of fortifications in the Maurienne valley?
56f8c0389b226e1400dd0f2e
Savoy
113
False
Why were a series of fortifications in the Maurienne valley built?
56f8c0389b226e1400dd0f2f
to protect the major alpine passes
185
False
Who ordered the construction of a paved road?
56f8c0389b226e1400dd0f30
Napoléon Bonaparte
415
False
After the fall of Napoléon, many alpine countries developed heavy protections to prevent any new invasion. Thus, Savoy built a series of fortifications in the Maurienne valley in order to protect the major alpine passes, such as the col du Mont-Cenis that was even crossed by, Charlemagne and his father to defeat the Lombarts. The later indeed became very popular after the construction of a paved road ordered by Napoléon Bonaparte. The Barrière de l'Esseillon is a serie of forts with heavy batteries, built on a cliff with a perfect view on the valley, a gorge on one side and steep mountains on the other side.
What became tourist destinations during the 19th century?
56f8c1a09b226e1400dd0f3d
the monasteries built in the high Alps
21
False
Who built monasteries in Lucerne, Switzerland and Oberammergau?
56f8c1a09b226e1400dd0f3e
The Benedictines
166
False
Who had abbeys in the Savor and one in the center of Interlaken?
56f8c1a09b226e1400dd0f3f
the Augustinians
304
False
When was the Great St. Bernard Hospice built?
56f8c1a09b226e1400dd0f40
the 9th or 10th centuries
434
False
In the 19th century, the monasteries built in the high Alps during the medieval period to shelter travelers and as places of pilgrimage, became tourist destinations. The Benedictines had built monasteries in Lucerne, Switzerland, and Oberammergau; the Cistercians in the Tyrol and at Lake Constance; and the Augustinians had abbeys in the Savoy and one in the center of Interlaken, Switzerland. The Great St Bernard Hospice, built in the 9th or 10th centuries, at the summit of the Great Saint Bernard Pass was shelter for travelers and place for pilgrims since its inception; by the 19th century it became a tourist attraction with notable visitors such as author Charles Dickens and mountaineer Edward Whymper.
How old was the charcoal placed in the Drachloch cave?
56f8c3ce9b226e1400dd0f4f
50,000 years
41
False
What does the finding of charcoal in Dragon's Hole prove?
56f8c3ce9b226e1400dd0f50
the high peaks were visited by prehistoric people
176
False
What may have been buried by the same prehistoric people?
56f8c3ce9b226e1400dd0f51
Seven bear skulls
227
False
People blindfolded themselves to cross what?
56f8c3ce9b226e1400dd0f52
Alpine passes
606
False
Radiocarbon dated charcoal placed around 50,000 years ago was found in the Drachloch (Dragon's Hole) cave above the village of Vattis in the canton of St. Gallen, proving that the high peaks were visited by prehistoric people. Seven bear skulls from the cave may have been buried by the same prehistoric people. The peaks, however, were mostly ignored except for a few notable examples, and long left to the exclusive attention of the people of the adjoining valleys. The mountain peaks were seen as terrifying, the abode of dragons and demons, to the point that people blindfolded themselves to cross the Alpine passes. The glaciers remained a mystery and many still believed the highest areas to be inhabited by dragons.
Where was Charles VII from?
56f8c4d09b226e1400dd0f71
France
15
False
What was Charles VII chamberlain ordered to do?
56f8c4d09b226e1400dd0f72
climb Mont Aiguille
49
False
What did the knight leave at the summit of Rocciamelone?
56f8c4d09b226e1400dd0f73
a bronze triptych of three crosses
138
False
When did Antioine de Ville climb Mont Aiguille?
56f8c4d09b226e1400dd0f74
1492
248
False
When did four Chamonix men almost reach the summit of Mont Blanc?
56f8c4d09b226e1400dd0f75
18th century
689
False
Charles VII of France ordered his chamberlain to climb Mont Aiguille in 1356. The knight reached the summit of Rocciamelone where he left a bronze triptych of three crosses, a feat which he conducted with the use of ladders to traverse the ice. In 1492 Antoine de Ville climbed Mont Aiguille, without reaching the summit, an experience he described as "horrifying and terrifying." Leonardo da Vinci was fascinated by variations of light in the higher altitudes, and climbed a mountain—scholars are uncertain which one; some believe it may have been Monte Rosa. From his description of a "blue like that of a gentian" sky it is thought that he reached a significantly high altitude. In the 18th century four Chamonix man almost made the summit of Mont Blanc but were overcome by altitude sickness and snowblindness.
Who was the first naturalist to ascend the mountains?
56f8c57f9e9bad19000a0474
Conrad Gessner
0
False
Where was Horace-Benedict de Saussure born?
56f8c57f9e9bad19000a0475
Geneva
516
False
Who was a member of the third ascent of Mont Blanc?
56f8c57f9e9bad19000a0476
Saussure
827
False
Conrad Gessner was the first naturalist to ascend the mountains in the 16th century, to study them, writing that in the mountains he found the "theatre of the Lord". By the 19th century more naturalists began to arrive to explore, study and conquer the high peaks; they were followed by artists, writers and painters. Two men who first explored the regions of ice and snow were Horace-Bénédict de Saussure (1740–1799) in the Pennine Alps, and the Benedictine monk of Disentis Placidus a Spescha (1752–1833). Born in Geneva, Saussure was enamored with the mountains from an early age; he left a law career to become a naturalist and spent many years trekking through the Bernese Oberland, the Savoy, the Piedmont and Valais, studying the glaciers and the geology, as he became an early proponent of the theory of rock upheaval. Saussure, in 1787, was a member of the third ascent of Mont Blanc—today the summits of all the peaks have been climbed.
Who was the first of many to present the Alps as a place of allure and beauty?
56f8c60f9e9bad19000a0484
Jean-Jacques Rousseau
0
False
Who wrote the poem Die Alpen?
56f8c60f9e9bad19000a0485
Albrecht von Haller
277
False
When did the Alpine countries see an influx of poets, artists, and musicians?
56f8c60f9e9bad19000a0486
After the end of the Napoleonic Wars
638
False
What did the visitors come to experience in the Alpine countries?
56f8c60f9e9bad19000a0487
the sublime effects of monumental nature
785
False
Jean-Jacques Rousseau was the first of many to present the Alps as a place of allure and beauty, banishing the prevalent conception of the mountains as a hellish wasteland inhabited by demons. Rousseau's conception of alpine purity was later emphasized with the publication of Albrecht von Haller's poem Die Alpen that described the mountains as an area of mythical purity. Late in the 18th century the first wave of Romantics such as Goethe and Turner came to admire the scenery; Wordsworth visited the area in 1790, writing of his experiences in The Prelude. Schiller later wrote the play William Tell romanticising Swiss independence. After the end of the Napoleonic Wars, the Alpine countries began to see an influx of poets, artists, and musicians, as visitors came to experience the sublime effects of monumental nature.
Percy and Mary Shelley were inspired by what region's scenery?
56f8c6c89b226e1400dd0f9f
Geneva
70
False
What poem did Shelley write during the visits to Geneva?
56f8c6c89b226e1400dd0fa0
Mont Blanc
183
False
When did scientists began to arrive en masse to study the geology and ecology of the Alpine region?
56f8c6c89b226e1400dd0fa1
the mid-19th century
675
False
In 1816 Byron, Percy Bysshe Shelley and his wife Mary Shelley visited Geneva and all three were inspired by the scenery in their writings. During these visits Shelley wrote the poem "Mont Blanc", Byron wrote "The Prisoner of Chillon" and the dramatic poem Manfred, and Mary Shelley, who found the scenery overwhelming, conceived the idea for the novel Frankenstein in her villa on the shores of Lake Geneva in the midst of a thunderstorm. When Coleridge travelled to Chamonix, he declaimed, in defiance of Shelley, who had signed himself "Atheos" in the guestbook of the Hotel de Londres near Montenvers, "Who would be, who could be an atheist in this valley of wonders". By the mid-19th century scientists began to arrive en masse to study the geology and ecology of the region.
Where was Adolf Hitler born?
56f8c72c9b226e1400dd0fab
Austrian
0
False
What did Adolf Hitler have a lifelong romantic fascination with?
56f8c72c9b226e1400dd0fac
the Alps
68
False
Where did Adolf Hitler establish a home in the 1930s?
56f8c72c9b226e1400dd0fad
the Obersalzberg region
116
False
When was Adolf Hitlers first visit to the Alps?
56f8c72c9b226e1400dd0fae
1923
201
False
Austrian-born Adolf Hitler had a lifelong romantic fascination with the Alps and by the 1930s established a home in the Obersalzberg region outside of Berchtesgaden. His first visit to the area was in 1923 and he maintained a strong tie there until the end of his life. At the end of World War II the US Army occupied Obersalzberg, to prevent Hitler from retreating with the Wehrmacht into the mountains.
By 1940 who occupied many of the Alpine countries?
56f8c7c89b226e1400dd0fc7
the Third Reich
8
False
What country underwent a political coup that made it part of the Third Reich?
56f8c7c89b226e1400dd0fc8
Austria
67
False
What was the only country that avoided invasion from the Third Reich?
56f8c7c89b226e1400dd0fc9
Switzerland
196
False
Who wired the infrastructure leading into Switzerland?
56f8c7c89b226e1400dd0fca
The Swiss commanders
468
False
By 1940 the Third Reich had occupied many of the Alpine countries. Austria underwent a political coup that made it part of the Third Reich; France had been invaded and Italy was a fascist regime. Switzerland was the only country to luckily avoid invasion. The Swiss Confederate mobilized its troops—the country follows the doctrine of "armed neutrality" with all males required to have military training—a number that General Eisenhower estimated to be about 850,000. The Swiss commanders wired the infrastructure leading into the country, and threatening to destroy bridges, railway tunnels and passes in the event of a Nazi invasion, and then they retreated to the heart of the mountain peaks where conditions were harsher and a military invasion would involve difficult and protracted battles.
Who were trained for the war?
56f8c8379e9bad19000a04be
Ski troops
0
False
Where was the battle at Riva Ridge?
56f8c8379e9bad19000a04bf
Italy
117
False
Where was a substantial amount of Nazi plunder found at the end of the war?
56f8c8379e9bad19000a04c0
Austria
293
False
Where did American troops find 75 kilos of gold coins?
56f8c8379e9bad19000a04c1
The salt mines surrounding the Altaussee area
364
False
Ski troops were trained for the war, and battles were waged in mountainous areas such as the battle at Riva Ridge in Italy, where the American 10th Mountain Division encountered heavy resistance in February 1945. At the end of the war, a substantial amount of Nazi plunder was found stored in Austria, where Hitler had hoped to retreat as the war drew to a close. The salt mines surrounding the Altaussee area, where American troops found 75 kilos of gold coins stored in a single mine, were used to store looted art, jewels, and currency; vast quantities of looted art were found and returned to the owners.
What is the population of the Alpine region?
56f8c9319e9bad19000a04da
14 million
32
False
What does the economy consist of on the rim of the mountains?
56f8c9319e9bad19000a04db
manufacturing and service jobs
158
False
Farming and Forestry continue to be a mainstay of what?
56f8c9319e9bad19000a04dc
Alpine culture
334
False
The population of the region is 14 million spread across eight countries. On the rim of the mountains, on the plateaus and the plains the economy consists of manufacturing and service jobs whereas in the higher altitudes and in the mountains farming is still essential to the economy. Farming and forestry continue to be mainstays of Alpine culture, industries that provide for export to the cities and maintain the mountain ecology.
Much of what has not changed since the medieval period?
56f8c9cd9b226e1400dd0ffd
Alpine culture
12
False
When were skills that guaranteed survival in the mountain valleys most important?
56f8c9cd9b226e1400dd0ffe
the medieval period
46
False
What is one of the strongest traditions in Alpine culture?
56f8c9cd9b226e1400dd0fff
carpentry
205
False
Much of the Alpine culture is unchanged since the medieval period when skills that guaranteed survival in the mountain valleys and in the highest villages became mainstays, leading to strong traditions of carpentry, woodcarving, baking and pastry-making, and cheesemaking.
What has been a traditional occupation for centuries?
56f8cc9a9b226e1400dd102f
Farming
0
False
What made farming less dominant in the 20th century?
56f8cc9a9b226e1400dd1030
tourism
129
False
Why is pasture land limited?
56f8cc9a9b226e1400dd1031
because of the steep and rocky topography of the Alps
175
False
When are cows moved to the highest pastures close to the snowline?
56f8cc9a9b226e1400dd1032
mid-June
233
False
Farming had been a traditional occupation for centuries, although it became less dominant in the 20th century with the advent of tourism. Grazing and pasture land are limited because of the steep and rocky topography of the Alps. In mid-June cows are moved to the highest pastures close to the snowline, where they are watched by herdsmen who stay in the high altitudes often living in stone huts or wooden barns during the summers. Villagers celebrate the day the cows are herded up to the pastures and again when they return in mid-September. The Alpanschluss or Désalpes ("coming down from the alps") is celebrated by decorating the cows with garlands and enormous cowbells while the farmers dress in traditional costumes.
What is an ancient tradition in most Alpine countries?
56f8cdb69e9bad19000a0538
Cheesemaking
0
False
How much can a wheel of cheese from the Emmental weigh?
56f8cdb69e9bad19000a0539
up to 45 kg (100 lb)
124
False
What is an important farming activity in mountain villages?
56f8cdb69e9bad19000a053a
Haymaking
374
False
How many times is Hay normally brought each year?
56f8cdb69e9bad19000a053b
twice
605
False
When is Carnival celebrated?
56f8cdb69e9bad19000a053c
before Lent
906
False
Cheesemaking is an ancient tradition in most Alpine countries. A wheel of cheese from the Emmental in Switzerland can weigh up to 45 kg (100 lb), and the Beaufort in Savoy can weight up to 70 kilograms (150 lb). Owners of the cows traditionally receive from the cheesemakers a portion in relation to the proportion of the cows' milk from the summer months in the high alps. Haymaking is an important farming activity in mountain villages which has become somewhat mechanized in recent years, although the slopes are so steep that usually scythes are necessary to cut the grass. Hay is normally brought in twice a year, often also on festival days. Alpine festivals vary from country to country and often include the display of local costumes such as dirndl and trachten, the playing of Alpenhorns, wrestling matches, some pagan traditions such as Walpurgis Night and, in many areas, Carnival is celebrated before Lent.
What do people in high villages build their homes according to?
56f8ceb29e9bad19000a0548
medieval designs that withstand cold winters
61
False
What is the area of the home heated by a stove called?
56f8ceb29e9bad19000a0549
the stube
161
False
The typic Swiss chalet originated from where?
56f8ceb29e9bad19000a054a
the Bernese Oberland
304
False
Which direction do Chalets often face?
56f8ceb29e9bad19000a054b
south or downhill
345
False
What are Chalets built of?
56f8ceb29e9bad19000a054c
solid wood
381
False
In the high villages people live in homes built according to medieval designs that withstand cold winters. The kitchen is separated from the living area (called the stube, the area of the home heated by a stove), and second-floor bedrooms benefit from rising heat. The typical Swiss chalet originated in the Bernese Oberland. Chalets often face south or downhill, and are built of solid wood, with a steeply gabled roof to allow accumulated snow to slide off easily. Stairs leading to upper levels are sometimes built on the outside, and balconies are sometimes enclosed.
The food is passed from the kitchen to where?
56f8cf5e9e9bad19000a0564
the stube
35
False
Where is the dining room table placed?
56f8cf5e9e9bad19000a0565
the stube
35
False
Traditionally, what are meals served on?
56f8cf5e9e9bad19000a0566
carved wooden plates
257
False
How is furniture traditionally carved?
56f8cf5e9e9bad19000a0567
elaborately
312
False
Food is passed from the kitchen to the stube, where the dining room table is placed. Some meals are communal, such as fondue, where a pot is set in the middle of the table for each person to dip into. Other meals are still served in a traditional manner on carved wooden plates. Furniture has been traditionally elaborately carved and in many Alpine countries carpentry skills are passed from generation to generation.
What are roofs traditionally constructed from?
56f8d0689b226e1400dd105b
Alpine rocks
41
False
Where are chalets typically used for roof construction found??
56f8d0689b226e1400dd105c
the higher parts of the valleys
133
False
The inclination of the roof cannot exceed how much?
56f8d0689b226e1400dd105d
40%
307
False
How many dialects have been identified in the Slavic Alps?
56f8d0689b226e1400dd105e
19
710
False
What language is spoken by two percent of the population in southeast Switzerland?
56f8d0689b226e1400dd105f
Romansh
987
False
Roofs are traditionally constructed from Alpine rocks such as pieces of schist, gneiss or slate. Such chalets are typically found in the higher parts of the valleys, as in the Maurienne valley in Savoy, where the amount of snow during the cold months is important. The inclination of the roof cannot exceed 40%, allowing the snow to stay on top, thereby functioning as insulation from the cold. In the lower areas where the forests are widespread, wooden tiles are traditionally used. Commonly made of Norway spruce, they are called "tavaillon". The Alpine regions are multicultural and linguistically diverse. Dialects are common, and vary from valley to valley and region to region. In the Slavic Alps alone 19 dialects have been identified. Some of the French dialects spoken in the French, Swiss and Italian alps of Aosta Valley derive from Arpitan, while the southern part of the western range is related to Old Provençal; the German dialects derive from Germanic tribal languages. Romansh, spoken by two percent of the population in southeast Switzerland, is an ancient Rhaeto-Romanic language derived from Latin, remnants of ancient Celtic languages and perhaps Etruscan.
What's one of the most popular tourist destinations in the world?
56f8d0e19e9bad19000a0592
the Alps
11
False
Where is Saalbach located?
56f8d0e19e9bad19000a0593
Austria
141
False
How many people visit the Alps every year?
56f8d0e19e9bad19000a0594
over 120 million
275
False
What is an integral part of the Alpine economy?
56f8d0e19e9bad19000a0595
tourism
308
False
At present the Alps are one of the more popular tourist destinations in the world with many resorts such Oberstdorf, in Bavaria, Saalbach in Austria, Davos in Switzerland, Chamonix in France, and Cortina d'Ampezzo in Italy recording more than a million annual visitors. With over 120 million visitors a year tourism is integral to the Alpine economy with much it coming from winter sports although summer visitors are an important component of the tourism industry.
When did the tourism industry begin?
56f8d17c9b226e1400dd106f
the early 19th century
30
False
When were large hotels built in the Alps?
56f8d17c9b226e1400dd1070
during the Belle Époque
203
False
When were cog-railways built in the Alps?
56f8d17c9b226e1400dd1071
early in the 20th century
248
False
When was the first figure skating championship held?
56f8d17c9b226e1400dd1072
1882
507
False
Where was the first figure skating championship held?
56f8d17c9b226e1400dd1073
St. Moritz
562
False
The tourism industry began in the early 19th century when foreigners visited the Alps, traveled to the bases of the mountains to enjoy the scenery, and stayed at the spa-resorts. Large hotels were built during the Belle Époque; cog-railways, built early in the 20th century, brought tourists to ever higher elevations, with the Jungfraubahn terminating at the Jungfraujoch, well above the eternal snow-line, after going through a tunnel in Eiger. During this period winter sports were slowly introduced: in 1882 the first figure skating championship was held in St. Moritz, and downhill skiing became a popular sport with English visitors early in the 20th century, as the first ski-lift was installed in 1908 above Grindelwald.
Where were the Winter Olympics held in 1924?
56f8d2919e9bad19000a059a
Chamonix, France
131
False
Where were the Winter Olympics held in 1928?
56f8d2919e9bad19000a059b
St. Moritz, Switzerland
177
False
Where were the Winter Olympics held in 1936?
56f8d2919e9bad19000a059c
Garmisch-Partenkirchen, Germany
234
False
When was the Lauberhorn Rennen ran for the first time on the Lauberhorn above Wengen?
56f8d2919e9bad19000a059d
1930
531
False
When were the Winter Olympics held in Albertville, France?
56f8d2919e9bad19000a059e
(1992)
501
False
In the first half of the 20th century the Olympic Winter Games were held three times in Alpine venues: the 1924 Winter Olympics in Chamonix, France; the 1928 Winter Olympics in St. Moritz, Switzerland; and the 1936 Winter Olympics in Garmisch-Partenkirchen, Germany. During World War II the winter games were canceled but after that time the Winter Games have been held in St. Moritz (1948), Cortina d'Ampezzo (1956), Innsbruck, Austria (1964 and 1976), Grenoble, France, (1968), Albertville, France, (1992), and Torino (2006). In 1930 the Lauberhorn Rennen (Lauberhorn Race), was run for the first time on the Lauberhorn above Wengen; the equally demanding Hahnenkamm was first run in the same year in Kitzbühl, Austria. Both races continue to be held each January on successive weekends. The Lauberhorn is the more strenuous downhill race at 4.5 km (2.8 mi) and poses danger to racers who reach 130 km/h (81 mph) within seconds of leaving the start gate.
When were ski-lifts built in Swiss and Austrian towns?
56f8d3179b226e1400dd1095
post-World War I
11
False
When were several new villages built in France almost exclusively for skiing?
56f8d3179b226e1400dd1096
the 1970s
274
False
Where is Les Menuires located?
56f8d3179b226e1400dd1097
France
319
False
During the post-World War I period ski-lifts were built in Swiss and Austrian towns to accommodate winter visitors, but summer tourism continued to be important; by the mid-20th century the popularity of downhill skiing increased greatly as it became more accessible and in the 1970s several new villages were built in France devoted almost exclusively to skiing, such as Les Menuires. Until this point Austria and Switzerland had been the traditional and more popular destinations for winter sports, but by the end of the 20th century and into the early 21st century, France, Italy and the Tyrol began to see increases in winter visitors. From 1980 to the present, ski-lifts have been modernized and snow-making machines installed at many resorts, leading to concerns regarding the loss of traditional Alpine culture and questions regarding sustainable development as the winter ski industry continues to develop quickly and the number of summer tourists decline.
How much area is devoted to roads in the Alpine region?
56f8d39d9b226e1400dd10a5
4,200 km (2,600 mi)
26
False
How many vehicles use the roads?
56f8d39d9b226e1400dd10a6
6 million
63
False
Where are most of Europe's highest railways located?
56f8d39d9b226e1400dd10a7
Switzerland
225
False
How long is the tunnel connecting Lotschberg and Gotthard planned to be?
56f8d39d9b226e1400dd10a8
57 km
331
False
The region is serviced by 4,200 km (2,600 mi) of roads used by 6 million vehicles. Train travel is well established in the Alps, with, for instance 120 km (75 mi) of track for every 1,000 km2 (390 sq mi) in a country such as Switzerland. Most of Europe's highest railways are located there. Moreover, plans are underway to build a 57 km (35 mi)-long sub-alpine tunnel connecting the older Lötschberg and Gotthard tunnels built in the 19th century.
Where is the village of Avoriaz located?
56f8d4209b226e1400dd10ad
France
49
False
Where are the villages of Wengen and Zermatt located?
56f8d4209b226e1400dd10ae
Switzerland
82
False
Why are villages considering becoming car free zones?
56f8d4209b226e1400dd10af
reasons of sustainability
268
False
Some high mountain villages, such as Avoriaz (in France), Wengen, and Zermatt (in Switzerland) are accessible only by cable car or cog-rail trains, and are car free. Other villages in the Alps are considering becoming car free zones or limiting the number of cars for reasons of sustainability of the fragile Alpine terrain.
When are many passes in the Alps closed?
56f8d4ee9b226e1400dd10b3
winter
254
False
The lower regions and larger towns of the Alps are well-served by what?
56f8d4ee9b226e1400dd10b4
motorways
66
False
What can be treacherous even in summer due to steep slopes?
56f8d4ee9b226e1400dd10b5
mountain passes
103
False
The lower regions and larger towns of the Alps are well-served by motorways and main roads, but higher mountain passes and byroads, which are amongst the highest in Europe, can be treacherous even in summer due to steep slopes. Many passes are closed in winter. A multitude of airports around the Alps (and some within), as well as long-distance rail links from all neighbouring countries, afford large numbers of travellers easy access from abroad.
Gene
What is a gene?
56f88b90aef2371900626166
a locus (or region) of DNA that encodes a functional RNA or protein product
11
False
What is the basis of inheritance of phenotypic traits?
56f88b90aef2371900626167
The transmission of genes to an organism's offspring
136
False
What influence are most biological traits under?
56f88b90aef2371900626168
polygenes (many different genes)
293
False
What is one instantly visible genetic trait?
56f88b90aef2371900626169
eye colour or number of limbs
423
False
What is one invisible genetic trait?
56f88b90aef237190062616a
blood type, risk for specific diseases, or the thousands of basic biochemical processes that comprise life
480
False
A gene is a locus (or region) of DNA that encodes a functional RNA or protein product, and is the molecular unit of heredity.:Glossary The transmission of genes to an organism's offspring is the basis of the inheritance of phenotypic traits. Most biological traits are under the influence of polygenes (many different genes) as well as the gene–environment interactions. Some genetic traits are instantly visible, such as eye colour or number of limbs, and some are not, such as blood type, risk for specific diseases, or the thousands of basic biochemical processes that comprise life.
What do mutations in a gene sequence lead to?
56f88e06aef2371900626180
different variants, known as alleles
58
False
What do alleles do?
56f88e06aef2371900626181
encode slightly different versions of a protein
129
False
What do alleles cause?
56f88e06aef2371900626182
different phenotype traits
190
False
What does "having a gene" or a "good gene" typically refer to?
56f88e06aef2371900626183
having a different allele of the gene
324
False
What causes genes to evolve?
56f88e06aef2371900626184
natural selection or survival of the fittest of the alleles
383
False
Genes can acquire mutations in their sequence, leading to different variants, known as alleles, in the population. These alleles encode slightly different versions of a protein, which cause different phenotype traits. Colloquial usage of the term "having a gene" (e.g., "good genes," "hair colour gene") typically refers to having a different allele of the gene. Genes evolve due to natural selection or survival of the fittest of the alleles.
What can regulatory regions of a gene be far removed from?
56f8935baef23719006261ce
its coding regions
145
False
What can coding regions be split into?
56f8935baef23719006261cf
several exons
202
False
What do some viruses store their genome in instead of DNA?
56f8935baef23719006261d0
RNA
252
False
What are some gene products?
56f8935baef23719006261d1
functional non-coding RNAs
298
False
What is a broad, modern working definition of a gene?
56f8935baef23719006261d2
any discrete locus of heritable, genomic sequence which affect an organism's traits by being expressed as a functional product
385
False
The concept of a gene continues to be refined as new phenomena are discovered. For example, regulatory regions of a gene can be far removed from its coding regions, and coding regions can be split into several exons. Some viruses store their genome in RNA instead of DNA and some gene products are functional non-coding RNAs. Therefore, a broad, modern working definition of a gene is any discrete locus of heritable, genomic sequence which affect an organism's traits by being expressed as a functional product or by regulation of gene expression.
Who first suggested the existence of discrete inheritable units?
56f895849e9bad19000a0181
Gregor Mendel (1822–1884)
67
False
If a distinct trait in edible pea plants is mathematically described as a 2n combination, what does n represent?
56f895849e9bad19000a0182
n is the number of differing characteristics in the original peas
289
False
What is one thing that Gregor Mendel was the first to demonstrate?
56f895849e9bad19000a0183
independent assortment
705
False
What is another thing that Gregor Mendel was the first to demonstrate?
56f895849e9bad19000a0184
the distinction between dominant and recessive traits
729
False
What did Gregor Mendel explain his results in terms of?
56f895849e9bad19000a0185
discrete inherited units that give rise to observable physical characteristics
432
False
The existence of discrete inheritable units was first suggested by Gregor Mendel (1822–1884). From 1857 to 1864, he studied inheritance patterns in 8000 common edible pea plants, tracking distinct traits from parent to offspring. He described these mathematically as 2n combinations where n is the number of differing characteristics in the original peas. Although he did not use the term gene, he explained his results in terms of discrete inherited units that give rise to observable physical characteristics. This description prefigured the distinction between genotype (the genetic material of an organism) and phenotype (the visible traits of that organism). Mendel was also the first to demonstrate independent assortment, the distinction between dominant and recessive traits, the distinction between a heterozygote and homozygote, and the phenomenon of discontinuous inheritance.
What was the dominant theory of heredity prior to Mendel's work?
56f896ef9e9bad19000a019b
one of blending inheritance
60
False
Who developed the theory of inheritance known as pangenesis?
56f896ef9e9bad19000a019c
Charles Darwin
249
False
What does the term gemmule describe?
56f896ef9e9bad19000a019d
hypothetical particles that would mix during reproduction
360
False
What year was Mendel's work first published?
56f896ef9e9bad19000a019e
1866
498
False
Who are the three scientists that claimed to have reached conclusions similar to Mendel's?
56f896ef9e9bad19000a019f
Hugo de Vries, Carl Correns, and Erich von Tschermak
564
False
Prior to Mendel's work, the dominant theory of heredity was one of blending inheritance, which suggested that each parent contributed fluids to the fertilisation process and that the traits of the parents blended and mixed to produce the offspring. Charles Darwin developed a theory of inheritance he termed pangenesis, which used the term gemmule to describe hypothetical particles that would mix during reproduction. Although Mendel's work was largely unrecognized after its first publication in 1866, it was 'rediscovered' in 1900 by three European scientists, Hugo de Vries, Carl Correns, and Erich von Tschermak, who claimed to have reached similar conclusions in their own research.
What ancient Greek word is the word 'gene' derived from?
56f8981f9b226e1400dd0c77
γένος (génos)
67
False
What does the ancient Greek word 'génos' mean?
56f8981f9b226e1400dd0c78
"race, offspring"
89
False
What Danish botanist coined the word 'gene'?
56f8981f9b226e1400dd0c79
Wilhelm Johannsen
151
False
What was the word 'gene' used to describe in 1909?
56f8981f9b226e1400dd0c7a
the fundamental physical and functional unit of heredity
181
False
Who first used the word 'genetics' in 1905?
56f8981f9b226e1400dd0c7b
William Bateson
289
False
The word gene is derived (via pangene) from the Ancient Greek word γένος (génos) meaning "race, offspring". Gene was coined in 1909 by Danish botanist Wilhelm Johannsen to describe the fundamental physical and functional unit of heredity, while the related word genetics was first used by William Bateson in 1905.
What was shown to be the molecular repository of genetic information by experiments in the 1940s to 1950s?
56f8997b9b226e1400dd0c93
Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA)
87
False
Who studied the structure of DNA using x-ray crystallography?
56f8997b9b226e1400dd0c94
Rosalind Franklin
253
False
What two scientists published a model of the double stranded DNA molecule?
56f8997b9b226e1400dd0c95
James D. Watson and Francis Crick
310
False
What is one exception to the central dogma of molecular biology?
56f8997b9b226e1400dd0c96
reverse transcription in retroviruses
736
False
What is the modern study of genetics at the level of DNA known as?
56f8997b9b226e1400dd0c97
molecular genetics
836
False
Advances in understanding genes and inheritance continued throughout the 20th century. Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) was shown to be the molecular repository of genetic information by experiments in the 1940s to 1950s. The structure of DNA was studied by Rosalind Franklin using X-ray crystallography, which led James D. Watson and Francis Crick to publish a model of the double-stranded DNA molecule whose paired nucleotide bases indicated a compelling hypothesis for the mechanism of genetic replication. Collectively, this body of research established the central dogma of molecular biology, which states that proteins are translated from RNA, which is transcribed from DNA. This dogma has since been shown to have exceptions, such as reverse transcription in retroviruses. The modern study of genetics at the level of DNA is known as molecular genetics.
When was the first sequence of a gene determined?
56f89b129b226e1400dd0ca7
In 1972
0
False
What was the first gene to be sequenced?
56f89b129b226e1400dd0ca8
the gene for Bacteriophage MS2 coat protein
114
False
Who developed chain termination DNA sequencing in 1977?
56f89b129b226e1400dd0ca9
Frederick Sanger
233
False
What did the devlopment of the chain termination DNA sequencing method do for the sequencing process?
56f89b129b226e1400dd0caa
improved the efficiency of sequencing and turned it into a routine laboratory tool.
250
False
What project used an automated version of the Sanger method in its early stages?
56f89b129b226e1400dd0cab
the Human Genome Project
404
False
In 1972, Walter Fiers and his team at the University of Ghent were the first to determine the sequence of a gene: the gene for Bacteriophage MS2 coat protein. The subsequent development of chain-termination DNA sequencing in 1977 by Frederick Sanger improved the efficiency of sequencing and turned it into a routine laboratory tool. An automated version of the Sanger method was used in early phases of the Human Genome Project.
In what time span were the theories to integrate molecular genetic with Darwinian evolution developed?
56f89cb39e9bad19000a01c7
the 1930s and 1940s
26
False
What are the theories that integrate molecular genetics with Darwinian evolution called?
56f89cb39e9bad19000a01c8
the modern evolutionary synthesis
114
False
Who proposed an evolutionary concept of the gene as a unit of natural selection?
56f89cb39e9bad19000a01c9
George C. Williams
252
False
What is the definition of the concept of the gene as a unit of natural selection?
56f89cb39e9bad19000a01ca
"that which segregates and recombines with appreciable frequency."
404
False
Who popularized ideas emphasizing the centrality of genes in evolution?
56f89cb39e9bad19000a01cb
Richard Dawkins
659
False
The theories developed in the 1930s and 1940s to integrate molecular genetics with Darwinian evolution are called the modern evolutionary synthesis, a term introduced by Julian Huxley. Evolutionary biologists subsequently refined this concept, such as George C. Williams' gene-centric view of evolution. He proposed an evolutionary concept of the gene as a unit of natural selection with the definition: "that which segregates and recombines with appreciable frequency.":24 In this view, the molecular gene transcribes as a unit, and the evolutionary gene inherits as a unit. Related ideas emphasizing the centrality of genes in evolution were popularized by Richard Dawkins.
What do the vast majority of living organisms encode their genes in?
56f89e2e9e9bad19000a01db
long strands of DNA (deoxyribonucleic acid)
60
False
What does DNA consist of?
56f89e2e9e9bad19000a01dc
a chain made from four types of nucleotide subunits
121
False
What type of sugar composes part of the DNA molecule?
56f89e2e9e9bad19000a01dd
a five-carbon sugar (2'-deoxyribose)
192
False
What are the four bases used in nucleotide subunits?
56f89e2e9e9bad19000a01de
adenine, cytosine, guanine, and thymine
275
False
Besides the sugar and the four bases, what else does DNA consist of?
56f89e2e9e9bad19000a01df
a phosphate group
230
False
The vast majority of living organisms encode their genes in long strands of DNA (deoxyribonucleic acid). DNA consists of a chain made from four types of nucleotide subunits, each composed of: a five-carbon sugar (2'-deoxyribose), a phosphate group, and one of the four bases adenine, cytosine, guanine, and thymine.:2.1
What is the backbone of a DNA double helix made of?
56f89fc39b226e1400dd0ce9
phosphate-sugar
78
False
What base pairs with thymine?
56f89fc39b226e1400dd0cea
adenine
170
False
What base does guanine pair with?
56f89fc39b226e1400dd0ceb
cytosine
217
False
What causes the specificity of base pairing?
56f89fc39b226e1400dd0cec
adenine and thymine align form two hydrogen bonds, whereas cytosine and guanine form three hydrogen bonds
274
False
Due to the cause of the specificity of base pairing, what must be true of the two strands in a double helix?
56f89fc39b226e1400dd0ced
The two strands in a double helix must therefore be complementary
381
False
Two chains of DNA twist around each other to form a DNA double helix with the phosphate-sugar backbone spiralling around the outside, and the bases pointing inwards with adenine base pairing to thymine and guanine to cytosine. The specificity of base pairing occurs because adenine and thymine align form two hydrogen bonds, whereas cytosine and guanine form three hydrogen bonds. The two strands in a double helix must therefore be complementary, with their sequence of bases matching such that the adenines of one strand are paired with the thymines of the other strand, and so on.:4.1
What causes the directionality of DNA strands?
56f8a0dd9e9bad19000a0207
the chemical composition of the pentose residues of the bases
7
False
What is known as the 3' end?
56f8a0dd9e9bad19000a0208
an exposed hydroxyl group on the deoxyribose
137
False
What is known as the 5' end?
56f8a0dd9e9bad19000a0209
an exposed phosphate group
251
False
What type of synthesis occurs in the 5'→3' direction?
56f8a0dd9e9bad19000a020a
Nucleic acid synthesis
361
False
Why does DNA replication and transcription occur in the 5'→3' direction?
56f8a0dd9e9bad19000a020b
because new nucleotides are added via a dehydration reaction that uses the exposed 3' hydroxyl as a nucleophile
460
False
Due to the chemical composition of the pentose residues of the bases, DNA strands have directionality. One end of a DNA polymer contains an exposed hydroxyl group on the deoxyribose; this is known as the 3' end of the molecule. The other end contains an exposed phosphate group; this is the 5' end. The two strands of a double-helix run in opposite directions. Nucleic acid synthesis, including DNA replication and transcription occurs in the 5'→3' direction, because new nucleotides are added via a dehydration reaction that uses the exposed 3' hydroxyl as a nucleophile.:27.2
How does the expression of genes encoded in DNA begin?
56f8a1fa9e9bad19000a0211
by transcribing the gene into RNA
46
False
What is RNA?
56f8a1fa9e9bad19000a0212
a second type of nucleic acid that is very similar to DNA
81
False
What base does RNA have in place of thymine?
56f8a1fa9e9bad19000a0213
the base uracil
227
False
What are codons?
56f8a1fa9e9bad19000a0214
a series of three-nucleotide sequences
381
False
What specifies the correspondence between codons and amino acids during protein translation?
56f8a1fa9e9bad19000a0215
The genetic code
489
False
The expression of genes encoded in DNA begins by transcribing the gene into RNA, a second type of nucleic acid that is very similar to DNA, but whose monomers contain the sugar ribose rather than deoxyribose. RNA also contains the base uracil in place of thymine. RNA molecules are less stable than DNA and are typically single-stranded. Genes that encode proteins are composed of a series of three-nucleotide sequences called codons, which serve as the "words" in the genetic "language". The genetic code specifies the correspondence during protein translation between codons and amino acids. The genetic code is nearly the same for all known organisms.:4.1
What is the total complement of genes in an organism or cell known as?
56f8a3099e9bad19000a0235
its genome
65
False
What does a chromosome consist of?
56f8a3099e9bad19000a0236
a single, very long DNA helix
150
False
What is encoded on a chromosome?
56f8a3099e9bad19000a0237
thousands of genes
189
False
What is the region of the chromosome at which a particular gene is located called?
56f8a3099e9bad19000a0238
its locus
302
False
What does each locus contain?
56f8a3099e9bad19000a0239
one allele of a gene
333
False
The total complement of genes in an organism or cell is known as its genome, which may be stored on one or more chromosomes. A chromosome consists of a single, very long DNA helix on which thousands of genes are encoded.:4.2 The region of the chromosome at which a particular gene is located is called its locus. Each locus contains one allele of a gene; however, members of a population may have different alleles at the locus, each with a slightly different gene sequence.
Where are the majority of eukaryotic genes stored?
56f8a4cf9b226e1400dd0d29
on a set of large, linear chromosomes
44
False
Chromosomes that are packed within the nucleus in complex with histones are called what?
56f8a4cf9b226e1400dd0d2a
a nucleosome
200
False
What does the manner of DNA storage on the histone and the chemical modifications of the histone itself regulate?
56f8a4cf9b226e1400dd0d2b
whether a particular region of DNA is accessible for gene expression
395
False
What are replication origins?
56f8a4cf9b226e1400dd0d2c
regions where DNA replication is initiated to make two copies of the chromosome
752
False
Long stretches of repetitive sequence that cap the ends of the linear chromosomes are called what?
56f8a4cf9b226e1400dd0d2d
Telomeres
833
False
The majority of eukaryotic genes are stored on a set of large, linear chromosomes. The chromosomes are packed within the nucleus in complex with storage proteins called histones to form a unit called a nucleosome. DNA packaged and condensed in this way is called chromatin.:4.2 The manner in which DNA is stored on the histones, as well as chemical modifications of the histone itself, regulate whether a particular region of DNA is accessible for gene expression. In addition to genes, eukaryotic chromosomes contain sequences involved in ensuring that the DNA is copied without degradation of end regions and sorted into daughter cells during cell division: replication origins, telomeres and the centromere.:4.2 Replication origins are the sequence regions where DNA replication is initiated to make two copies of the chromosome. Telomeres are long stretches of repetitive sequence that cap the ends of the linear chromosomes and prevent degradation of coding and regulatory regions during DNA replication. The length of the telomeres decreases each time the genome is replicated and has been implicated in the aging process. The centromere is required for binding spindle fibres to separate sister chromatids into daughter cells during cell division.:18.2
What are prokaryotes?
56f8a7409b226e1400dd0d5b
bacteria and archaea
13
False
How do prokaryotes store their genomes?
56f8a7409b226e1400dd0d5c
on a single large, circular chromosome
65
False
What type of chromosome do some eukaryotic organelles contain?
56f8a7409b226e1400dd0d5d
a remnant circular chromosome with a small number of genes
151
False
Small circles of DNA that encode only a few genes and are transferable between individuals are called what?
56f8a7409b226e1400dd0d5e
plasmids
310
False
What allows genes for antibiotic resistance to be passed between individual cells?
56f8a7409b226e1400dd0d5f
horizontal gene transfer
572
False
Prokaryotes (bacteria and archaea) typically store their genomes on a single large, circular chromosome. Similarly, some eukaryotic organelles contain a remnant circular chromosome with a small number of genes.:14.4 Prokaryotes sometimes supplement their chromosome with additional small circles of DNA called plasmids, which usually encode only a few genes and are transferable between individuals. For example, the genes for antibiotic resistance are usually encoded on bacterial plasmids and can be passed between individual cells, even those of different species, via horizontal gene transfer.
What type of organism has relatively gene dense chromosomes?
56f8a97a9e9bad19000a0285
prokaryotes
27
False
Regions of DNA that serve no obvious function are often found in what type of organism?
56f8a97a9e9bad19000a0286
eukaryotes
75
False
What is referred to as "junk DNA"?
56f8a97a9e9bad19000a0287
DNA without an identified function
328
False
What percentage of the human genome is made of protein coding DNA?
56f8a97a9e9bad19000a0288
barely 2%
496
False
What percentage of bases in the human genome are expressed by protein coding DNA
56f8a97a9e9bad19000a0289
about 80%
527
False
Whereas the chromosomes of prokaryotes are relatively gene-dense, those of eukaryotes often contain regions of DNA that serve no obvious function. Simple single-celled eukaryotes have relatively small amounts of such DNA, whereas the genomes of complex multicellular organisms, including humans, contain an absolute majority of DNA without an identified function. This DNA has often been referred to as "junk DNA". However, more recent analyses suggest that, although protein-coding DNA makes up barely 2% of the human genome, about 80% of the bases in the genome may be expressed, so the term "junk DNA" may be a misnomer.
Often, how large a part of the structure of a gene is the protein coding sequence?
56f8ae169e9bad19000a02f5
often only a small part
97
False
What often plays only a small part in the structure of a gene?
56f8ae169e9bad19000a02f6
the actual protein coding sequence
59
False
What is one of the many elements that the structure of a gene consists of?
56f8ae169e9bad19000a02f7
DNA regions that are not transcribed
136
False
What is another element of the structure of a gene?
56f8ae169e9bad19000a02f8
untranslated regions of the RNA
184
False
What elements does the structure of a gene consist of?
56f8ae169e9bad19000a02f9
DNA regions that are not transcribed as well as untranslated regions of the RNA
136
False
The structure of a gene consists of many elements of which the actual protein coding sequence is often only a small part. These include DNA regions that are not transcribed as well as untranslated regions of the RNA.
What do all genes contain that is required for their expression?
56f8af2b9e9bad19000a0309
a regulatory sequence
60
False
How is a promoter sequence recognized?
56f8af2b9e9bad19000a030a
by transcription factors and RNA polymerase
219
False
What results when genes have more than one promoter?
56f8af2b9e9bad19000a030b
messenger RNAs (mRNA) that differ in how far they extend in the 5' end
347
False
What does a "strong" promoter sequence do?
56f8af2b9e9bad19000a030c
bind the transcription machinery well
534
False
What does a "weak" promoter sequence do?
56f8af2b9e9bad19000a030d
bind poorly and initiate transcription less frequently
615
False
Firstly, flanking the open reading frame, all genes contain a regulatory sequence that is required for their expression. In order to be expressed, genes require a promoter sequence. The promoter is recognized and bound by transcription factors and RNA polymerase to initiate transcription.:7.1 A gene can have more than one promoter, resulting in messenger RNAs (mRNA) that differ in how far they extend in the 5' end. Promoter regions have a consensus sequence, however highly transcribed genes have "strong" promoter sequences that bind the transcription machinery well, whereas others have "weak" promoters that bind poorly and initiate transcription less frequently.:7.2 Eukaryotic promoter regions are much more complex and difficult to identify than prokaryotic promoters.:7.3
How do regulatory regions act?
56f8b1989b226e1400dd0e27
by binding to transcription factors
123
False
What happens when a regulatory region binds to transcription factors?
56f8b1989b226e1400dd0e28
the DNA to loop
176
False
How do enhancers increase transcription?
56f8b1989b226e1400dd0e29
by binding an activator protein
352
False
What happens after an enhancer binds an activator protein?
56f8b1989b226e1400dd0e2a
helps to recruit the RNA polymerase to the promoter
395
False
What causes DNA to be less available for RNA polymerase?
56f8b1989b226e1400dd0e2b
silencers bind repressor proteins
459
False
Additionally, genes can have regulatory regions many kilobases upstream or downstream of the open reading frame. These act by binding to transcription factors which then cause the DNA to loop so that the regulatory sequence (and bound transcription factor) become close to the RNA polymerase binding site. For example, enhancers increase transcription by binding an activator protein which then helps to recruit the RNA polymerase to the promoter; conversely silencers bind repressor proteins and make the DNA less available for RNA polymerase.
What is at both ends of the transcribed pre-mRNA?
56f8b2ec9b226e1400dd0e4b
untranslated regions
34
False
Where are the ribosome binding site, terminator and start and stop codons located on transcribed pre-mRNA?
56f8b2ec9b226e1400dd0e4c
untranslated regions
34
False
What do most eukaryotic open reading frames contain?
56f8b2ec9b226e1400dd0e4d
untranslated introns
202
False
What dictates the splice sites to generate the final mature mRNA?
56f8b2ec9b226e1400dd0e4e
The sequences at the ends of the introns
274
False
What encodes the protein or RNA product?
56f8b2ec9b226e1400dd0e4f
the splice sites to generate the final mature mRNA
324
False
The transcribed pre-mRNA contains untranslated regions at both ends which contain a ribosome binding site, terminator and start and stop codons. In addition, most eukaryotic open reading frames contain untranslated introns which are removed before the exons are translated. The sequences at the ends of the introns, dictate the splice sites to generate the final mature mRNA which encodes the protein or RNA product.
What are most prokaryotic genes organized into?
56f8b42a9b226e1400dd0e6b
operons
42
False
What are multiple protein coding sequences transcribed as?
56f8b42a9b226e1400dd0e6c
a unit
114
False
What sort of functions do the products of operon genes typically have?
56f8b42a9b226e1400dd0e6d
related functions
166
False
What type of network are the products of operon genes typically involved with?
56f8b42a9b226e1400dd0e6e
the same regulatory network
204
False
What type of coding sequences do prokaryotic genes typically have?
56f8b42a9b226e1400dd0e6f
multiple protein-coding sequences
56
False
Many prokaryotic genes are organized into operons, with multiple protein-coding sequences that are transcribed as a unit. The products of operon genes typically have related functions and are involved in the same regulatory network.:7.3
What is an example of a regulatory region of a gene that does not have to close to the coding sequence?
56f8b6149b226e1400dd0e8f
enhancers
116
False
Why do some regulatory regions of a gene not have to be close to the coding sequence?
56f8b6149b226e1400dd0e90
because the intervening DNA can be looped out to bring the gene and its regulatory region into proximity
208
False
What part of a gene can be much larger than its exons?
56f8b6149b226e1400dd0e91
a gene's introns
325
False
How do regulatory regions on different chromosomes operate in order to allow regions on different chromosomes to come into contact with one another?
56f8b6149b226e1400dd0e92
in trans
454
False
Where can regulatory regions be found?
56f8b6149b226e1400dd0e93
different chromosomes
420
False
Defining exactly what section of a DNA sequence comprises a gene is difficult. Regulatory regions of a gene such as enhancers do not necessarily have to be close to the coding sequence on the linear molecule because the intervening DNA can be looped out to bring the gene and its regulatory region into proximity. Similarly, a gene's introns can be much larger than its exons. Regulatory regions can even be on entirely different chromosomes and operate in trans to allow regulatory regions on one chromosome to come in contact with target genes on another chromosome.
What model did early work in molecular genetics suggest?
56f8b7f99e9bad19000a0393
the model that one gene makes one protein.
43
False
What discovery caused the model that one gene makes one protein to be refined?
56f8b7f99e9bad19000a0394
the discovery of genes that can encode multiple proteins
120
False
How do genes encode multiple proteins?
56f8b7f99e9bad19000a0395
by alternative splicing and coding sequences
177
False
How are alternative splicing and coding sequences distributed?
56f8b7f99e9bad19000a0396
split in short section across the genome
222
False
In order for a gene to encode multiple proteins, how must its mRNAs be arranged?
56f8b7f99e9bad19000a0397
concatenated by trans-splicing.
279
False
Early work in molecular genetics suggested the model that one gene makes one protein. This model has been refined since the discovery of genes that can encode multiple proteins by alternative splicing and coding sequences split in short section across the genome whose mRNAs are concatenated by trans-splicing.
What sort of definition can be used to conveniently encompass the complexity of diverse phenomena?
56f8b9549e9bad19000a03b5
A broad operational definition
0
False
What is the broad operational definition of a gene?
56f8b9549e9bad19000a03b6
a union of genomic sequences encoding a coherent set of potentially overlapping functional products
132
False
What does the typical definition of a gene categorize genes by?
56f8b9549e9bad19000a03b7
their specific DNA loci
326
False
What does the broad operational definition of gene categorize genes by?
56f8b9549e9bad19000a03b8
their functional products (proteins or RNA)
270
False
What does the broad operational definition of a gene classify as gene-associated regions?
56f8b9549e9bad19000a03b9
regulatory elements
356
False
A broad operational definition is sometimes used to encompass the complexity of these diverse phenomena, where a gene is defined as a union of genomic sequences encoding a coherent set of potentially overlapping functional products. This definition categorizes genes by their functional products (proteins or RNA) rather than their specific DNA loci, with regulatory elements classified as gene-associated regions.
How many steps are required to read the information encoded in a gene's DNA and produce the specified protein?
56f8ba5a9b226e1400dd0ebb
two steps are required
18
False
What is the first step to read the information encoded in a gene's DNA and produce the protein it specifies?
56f8ba5a9b226e1400dd0ebc
the gene's DNA is transcribed to messenger RNA (mRNA)
134
False
What is the second step to read the information encoded in a gene's DNA and produce the protein it specifies?
56f8ba5a9b226e1400dd0ebd
mRNA is translated to protein
206
False
What step must RNA-coding genes still go through?
56f8ba5a9b226e1400dd0ebe
the first step
280
False
What is the process of producing a biologically functional molecule of either RNA or protein called?
56f8ba5a9b226e1400dd0ebf
gene expression
428
False
In all organisms, two steps are required to read the information encoded in a gene's DNA and produce the protein it specifies. First, the gene's DNA is transcribed to messenger RNA (mRNA).:6.1 Second, that mRNA is translated to protein.:6.2 RNA-coding genes must still go through the first step, but are not translated into protein. The process of producing a biologically functional molecule of either RNA or protein is called gene expression, and the resulting molecule is called a gene product.
What specifies the amino acid sequence of a protein?
56f8bb479b226e1400dd0ec5
The nucleotide sequence of a gene's DNA
0
False
What are sets of three nucleotides known as?
56f8bb479b226e1400dd0ec6
codons
149
False
What does each codon correspond to?
56f8bb479b226e1400dd0ec7
a specific amino acid
176
False
What indicates the beginning and end of the protein coding region?
56f8bb479b226e1400dd0ec8
a "start codon", and three "stop codons"
215
False
How many possible codons are there?
56f8bb479b226e1400dd0ec9
There are 64 possible codons (four possible nucleotides at each of three positions, hence 43 possible codons)
317
False
The nucleotide sequence of a gene's DNA specifies the amino acid sequence of a protein through the genetic code. Sets of three nucleotides, known as codons, each correspond to a specific amino acid.:6 Additionally, a "start codon", and three "stop codons" indicate the beginning and end of the protein coding region. There are 64 possible codons (four possible nucleotides at each of three positions, hence 43 possible codons) and only 20 standard amino acids; hence the code is redundant and multiple codons can specify the same amino acid. The correspondence between codons and amino acids is nearly universal among all known living organisms.
What does transcription produce?
56f8bc609b226e1400dd0ee3
a single-stranded RNA molecule known as messenger RNA
23
False
How does the nucleotide sequence of mRNA compare to DNA?
56f8bc609b226e1400dd0ee4
complementary to the DNA from which it was transcribed
107
False
What is used as a template to generate a complementary mRNA?
56f8bc609b226e1400dd0ee5
The gene's DNA
252
False
Why does the mRNA match the sequence of the gene's DNA coding strand?
56f8bc609b226e1400dd0ee6
because it is synthesised as the complement of the template strand
385
False
What is the enzyme called that performs transcription?
56f8bc609b226e1400dd0ee7
an RNA polymerase
500
False
Transcription produces a single-stranded RNA molecule known as messenger RNA, whose nucleotide sequence is complementary to the DNA from which it was transcribed.:6.1 The mRNA acts as an intermediate between the DNA gene and its final protein product. The gene's DNA is used as a template to generate a complementary mRNA. The mRNA matches the sequence of the gene's DNA coding strand because it is synthesised as the complement of the template strand. Transcription is performed by an enzyme called an RNA polymerase, which reads the template strand in the 3' to 5' direction and synthesizes the RNA from 5' to 3'. To initiate transcription, the polymerase first recognizes and binds a promoter region of the gene. Thus, a major mechanism of gene regulation is the blocking or sequestering the promoter region, either by tight binding by repressor molecules that physically block the polymerase, or by organizing the DNA so that the promoter region is not accessible.:7
Where does transcription occur in prokaryotes?
56f8bd719b226e1400dd0ef7
in the cytoplasm
37
False
If the transcription is very long, where on the RNA may translation begin?
56f8bd719b226e1400dd0ef8
at the 5' end of the RNA
104
False
Where does transcription occur in eukaryotes?
56f8bd719b226e1400dd0ef9
transcription occurs in the nucleus
189
False
Where does a eukaryote store the cell's DNA?
56f8bd719b226e1400dd0efa
in the nucleus
210
False
What is the RNA molecule produced by the polymerase known as?
56f8bd719b226e1400dd0efb
the primary transcript
314
False
In prokaryotes, transcription occurs in the cytoplasm; for very long transcripts, translation may begin at the 5' end of the RNA while the 3' end is still being transcribed. In eukaryotes, transcription occurs in the nucleus, where the cell's DNA is stored. The RNA molecule produced by the polymerase is known as the primary transcript and undergoes post-transcriptional modifications before being exported to the cytoplasm for translation. One of the modifications performed is the splicing of introns which are sequences in the transcribed region that do not encode protein. Alternative splicing mechanisms can result in mature transcripts from the same gene having different sequences and thus coding for different proteins. This is a major form of regulation in eukaryotic cells and also occurs in some prokaryotes.:7.5
What is the process by which a mature mRNA molecule is used as a template for synthesizing a new protein called?
56f8bea09b226e1400dd0f09
Translation
0
False
What does a ribosome consist of?
56f8bea09b226e1400dd0f0a
large complexes of RNA and protein
158
False
What is a ribosome responsible for?
56f8bea09b226e1400dd0f0b
carrying out the chemical reactions to add new amino acids to a growing polypeptide chain
209
False
How is the genetic code read?
56f8bea09b226e1400dd0f0c
via interactions with specialized RNA molecules called transfer RNA (tRNA)
412
False
How many unpaired bases does each tRNA have?
56f8bea09b226e1400dd0f0d
three
502
False
Translation is the process by which a mature mRNA molecule is used as a template for synthesizing a new protein.:6.2 Translation is carried out by ribosomes, large complexes of RNA and protein responsible for carrying out the chemical reactions to add new amino acids to a growing polypeptide chain by the formation of peptide bonds. The genetic code is read three nucleotides at a time, in units called codons, via interactions with specialized RNA molecules called transfer RNA (tRNA). Each tRNA has three unpaired bases known as the anticodon that are complementary to the codon it reads on the mRNA. The tRNA is also covalently attached to the amino acid specified by the complementary codon. When the tRNA binds to its complementary codon in an mRNA strand, the ribosome attaches its amino acid cargo to the new polypeptide chain, which is synthesized from amino terminus to carboxyl terminus. During and after synthesis, most new proteins must folds to their active three-dimensional structure before they can carry out their cellular functions.:3
When are genes expressed?
56f8c02a9e9bad19000a041a
only when the product is needed
47
False
What are examples of a cell's external environment?
56f8c02a9e9bad19000a041b
available nutrients, temperature and other stresses
208
False
What are examples of a cell's internal environment?
56f8c02a9e9bad19000a041c
cell division cycle, metabolism, infection status
293
False
At which step can gene expression be regulated?
56f8c02a9e9bad19000a041d
at any step
432
False
What example of post-translational modification of a protein was first described in 1961?
56f8c02a9e9bad19000a041e
The regulation of lactose metabolism genes in E. coli
548
False
Genes are regulated so that they are expressed only when the product is needed, since expression draws on limited resources.:7 A cell regulates its gene expression depending on its external environment (e.g. available nutrients, temperature and other stresses), its internal environment (e.g. cell division cycle, metabolism, infection status), and its specific role if in a multicellular organism. Gene expression can be regulated at any step: from transcriptional initiation, to RNA processing, to post-translational modification of the protein. The regulation of lactose metabolism genes in E. coli (lac operon) was the first such mechanism to be described in 1961.
What is first copied into RNA as an intermediate in the manufacture of the final protein product?
56f8c1a59e9bad19000a0438
A typical protein-coding gene
0
False
In some cases, what are the actual functional products?
56f8c1a59e9bad19000a0439
the RNA molecules
143
False
What sort of synthesis occurs when the RNA molecules are the actual functional products?
56f8c1a59e9bad19000a043a
the synthesis of ribosomal RNA and transfer RNA
203
False
What sort of function are ribozymes capable of?
56f8c1a59e9bad19000a043b
enzymatic function
296
False
What are the DNA sequences from which ribozymes are transcribed known as?
56f8c1a59e9bad19000a043c
non-coding RNA genes
420
False
A typical protein-coding gene is first copied into RNA as an intermediate in the manufacture of the final protein product.:6.1 In other cases, the RNA molecules are the actual functional products, as in the synthesis of ribosomal RNA and transfer RNA. Some RNAs known as ribozymes are capable of enzymatic function, and microRNA has a regulatory role. The DNA sequences from which such RNAs are transcribed are known as non-coding RNA genes.
In what form do some viruses store their entire genome?
56f8c38d9e9bad19000a0456
in the form of RNA
40
False
Why do the cellular hosts of some viruses not have to wait for transcription to synthesize their proteins?
56f8c38d9e9bad19000a0457
Because they use RNA to store genes
87
False
What is one type of an RNA retrovirus?
56f8c38d9e9bad19000a0458
HIV
301
False
What sort of transcription does the genome of HIV require before its proteins can be synthesized?
56f8c38d9e9bad19000a0459
reverse transcription
318
False
Besides viruses, where has RNA-mediated epigenetic inheritance been observed?
56f8c38d9e9bad19000a045a
in plants and very rarely in animals
475
False
Some viruses store their entire genomes in the form of RNA, and contain no DNA at all. Because they use RNA to store genes, their cellular hosts may synthesize their proteins as soon as they are infected and without the delay in waiting for transcription. On the other hand, RNA retroviruses, such as HIV, require the reverse transcription of their genome from RNA into DNA before their proteins can be synthesized. RNA-mediated epigenetic inheritance has also been observed in plants and very rarely in animals.
Where do organisms inherit their genes from?
56f8c4f09e9bad19000a0460
from their parents
30
False
How much of an asexual organism's genome is inherited from its parents?
56f8c4f09e9bad19000a0461
a complete copy
83
False
How many copies of each chromosome does a sexual organism have?
56f8c4f09e9bad19000a0462
two copies of each chromosome
147
False
How many sets of chromosomes does a sexual organism inherit from each parent?
56f8c4f09e9bad19000a0463
one complete set from each parent
198
False
Why do sexual organisms have two copies of each chromosome?
56f8c4f09e9bad19000a0464
because they inherit one complete set from each parent
177
False
Organisms inherit their genes from their parents. Asexual organisms simply inherit a complete copy of their parent's genome. Sexual organisms have two copies of each chromosome because they inherit one complete set from each parent.:1
According to Mendelian inheritance, what is part of the cause of variations in an organism's phenotype?
56f8c6b29b226e1400dd0f95
variations in its genotype
146
False
What sort of characteristics are described by an organism's phenotype?
56f8c6b29b226e1400dd0f96
observable physical and behavioral characteristics
75
False
What is a genotype?
56f8c6b29b226e1400dd0f97
particular set of genes
174
False
What specifies a particular trait with a different sequence of alleles?
56f8c6b29b226e1400dd0f98
Each gene
200
False
How many alleles do most eukaryotic organisms have for each trait?
56f8c6b29b226e1400dd0f99
two alleles for each trait
393
False
According to Mendelian inheritance, variations in an organism's phenotype (observable physical and behavioral characteristics) are due in part to variations in its genotype (particular set of genes). Each gene specifies a particular trait with different sequence of a gene (alleles) giving rise to different phenotypes. Most eukaryotic organisms (such as the pea plants Mendel worked on) have two alleles for each trait, one inherited from each parent.:20
Where can alleles be located in order to be either dominant or recessive?
56f8c7b29b226e1400dd0fbd
at a locus
8
False
When paired with any other allele for the same trait, what do dominant alleles give rise to?
56f8c7b29b226e1400dd0fbe
their corresponding phenotypes
79
False
When do recessive alleles give rise to their corresponding phenotype?
56f8c7b29b226e1400dd0fbf
when paired with another copy of the same allele
238
False
When do alleles assort independently?
56f8c7b29b226e1400dd0fc0
in the production of gametes
595
False
What are gametes?
56f8c7b29b226e1400dd0fc1
germ cells
628
False
Alleles at a locus may be dominant or recessive; dominant alleles give rise to their corresponding phenotypes when paired with any other allele for the same trait, whereas recessive alleles give rise to their corresponding phenotype only when paired with another copy of the same allele. For example, if the allele specifying tall stems in pea plants is dominant over the allele specifying short stems, then pea plants that inherit one tall allele from one parent and one short allele from the other parent will also have tall stems. Mendel's work demonstrated that alleles assort independently in the production of gametes, or germ cells, ensuring variation in the next generation. Although Mendelian inheritance remains a good model for many traits determined by single genes (including a number of well-known genetic disorders) it does not include the physical processes of DNA replication and cell division.
What does the growth, development, and reproduction of organisms rely on?
56f8c9d29e9bad19000a04f0
cell division
65
False
In cell division, what two cells are created?
56f8c9d29e9bad19000a04f1
identical daughter cells
143
False
What specialized enzyme is responsible DNA replication?
56f8c9d29e9bad19000a04f2
DNA polymerases
334
False
Why does the sequence of one strand completely specify the sequence of its complement?
56f8c9d29e9bad19000a04f3
Because the DNA double helix is held together by base pairing
475
False
What one word characterizes the process of DNA replication?
56f8c9d29e9bad19000a04f4
semiconservative
733
False
The growth, development, and reproduction of organisms relies on cell division, or the process by which a single cell divides into two usually identical daughter cells. This requires first making a duplicate copy of every gene in the genome in a process called DNA replication.:5.2 The copies are made by specialized enzymes known as DNA polymerases, which "read" one strand of the double-helical DNA, known as the template strand, and synthesize a new complementary strand. Because the DNA double helix is held together by base pairing, the sequence of one strand completely specifies the sequence of its complement; hence only one strand needs to be read by the enzyme to produce a faithful copy. The process of DNA replication is semiconservative; that is, the copy of the genome inherited by each daughter cell contains one original and one newly synthesized strand of DNA.:5.2
What is one thing the cell must do once DNA replication is compete?
56f8cb819e9bad19000a0504
physically separate the two copies of the genome
49
False
What is another thing the cell must do once DNA replication is complete?
56f8cb819e9bad19000a0505
divide into two distinct membrane-bound cells
102
False
In binary fission, what shape is each genome?
56f8cb819e9bad19000a0506
circular
281
False
In binary fission. when does each genome separate into daughter cells?
56f8cb819e9bad19000a0507
as the membrane invaginates to split the cytoplasm
368
False
Compared to the rates of cell division in eukaryotes, with what speed does binary fission occur?
56f8cb819e9bad19000a0508
extremely fast
471
False
After DNA replication is complete, the cell must physically separate the two copies of the genome and divide into two distinct membrane-bound cells.:18.2 In prokaryotes (bacteria and archaea) this usually occurs via a relatively simple process called binary fission, in which each circular genome attaches to the cell membrane and is separated into the daughter cells as the membrane invaginates to split the cytoplasm into two membrane-bound portions. Binary fission is extremely fast compared to the rates of cell division in eukaryotes. Eukaryotic cell division is a more complex process known as the cell cycle; DNA replication occurs during a phase of this cycle known as S phase, whereas the process of segregating chromosomes and splitting the cytoplasm occurs during M phase.:18.1
The duplication and transmission of genetic material from one generation of cells to the next is the basis for what?
56f8cc9d9e9bad19000a0524
molecular inheritance
111
False
Why do organisms inherit the characteristics of their parents?
56f8cc9d9e9bad19000a0525
cells of the offspring contain copies of the genes in their parents' cells
269
False
In what type of organism will the offspring be a genetic copy or clone of the parent organism?
56f8cc9d9e9bad19000a0526
In asexually reproducing organisms
345
False
In what type of organism will a specialized form of cell division called meiosis produce cells called gametes?
56f8cc9d9e9bad19000a0527
In sexually reproducing organisms
451
False
What are the gametes produced by females called?
56f8cc9d9e9bad19000a0528
eggs or ova
686
False
The duplication and transmission of genetic material from one generation of cells to the next is the basis for molecular inheritance, and the link between the classical and molecular pictures of genes. Organisms inherit the characteristics of their parents because the cells of the offspring contain copies of the genes in their parents' cells. In asexually reproducing organisms, the offspring will be a genetic copy or clone of the parent organism. In sexually reproducing organisms, a specialized form of cell division called meiosis produces cells called gametes or germ cells that are haploid, or contain only one copy of each gene.:20.2 The gametes produced by females are called eggs or ova, and those produced by males are called sperm. Two gametes fuse to form a diploid fertilized egg, a single cell that has two sets of genes, with one copy of each gene from the mother and one from the father.:20
When can an event called genetic recombination or crossing-over sometimes occur?
56f8cf249e9bad19000a055a
During the process of meiotic cell division
0
False
If the alleles on the chromatids are the same, what effect arises from genetic recombination?
56f8cf249e9bad19000a055b
no effect
243
False
If the alleles on the chromatids are different, what effect arises from genetic recombination?
56f8cf249e9bad19000a055c
reassortment of otherwise linked alleles
315
False
Each of a parent's two genes for each trait will sort independently into gametes according to what Mendelian principle?
56f8cf249e9bad19000a055d
independent assortment
410
False
In genetic linkage, what sort of point is extremely unlikely to occur?
56f8cf249e9bad19000a055e
a crossover point
1023
False
During the process of meiotic cell division, an event called genetic recombination or crossing-over can sometimes occur, in which a length of DNA on one chromatid is swapped with a length of DNA on the corresponding sister chromatid. This has no effect if the alleles on the chromatids are the same, but results in reassortment of otherwise linked alleles if they are different.:5.5 The Mendelian principle of independent assortment asserts that each of a parent's two genes for each trait will sort independently into gametes; which allele an organism inherits for one trait is unrelated to which allele it inherits for another trait. This is in fact only true for genes that do not reside on the same chromosome, or are located very far from one another on the same chromosome. The closer two genes lie on the same chromosome, the more closely they will be associated in gametes and the more often they will appear together; genes that are very close are essentially never separated because it is extremely unlikely that a crossover point will occur between them. This is known as genetic linkage.
What is it called when errors occur in DNA replication?
56f8d0969e9bad19000a0588
mutations
73
False
What is the lowest error rate that occurs in eukaryotic cells?
56f8d0969e9bad19000a0589
10−8 per nucleotide per replication
150
False
What is the highest error rate that can occur for some RNA viruses?
56f8d0969e9bad19000a058a
10−3
237
False
What can small mutations be caused by?
56f8d0969e9bad19000a058b
DNA replication
358
False
What can larger mutations be caused by?
56f8d0969e9bad19000a058c
errors in recombination
720
False
DNA replication is for the most part extremely accurate, however errors (mutations) do occur.:7.6 The error rate in eukaryotic cells can be as low as 10−8 per nucleotide per replication, whereas for some RNA viruses it can be as high as 10−3. This means that each generation, each human genome accumulates 1–2 new mutations. Small mutations can be caused by DNA replication and the aftermath of DNA damage and include point mutations in which a single base is altered and frameshift mutations in which a single base is inserted or deleted. Either of these mutations can change the gene by missense (change a codon to encode a different amino acid) or nonsense (a premature stop codon). Larger mutations can be caused by errors in recombination to cause chromosomal abnormalities including the duplication, deletion, rearrangement or inversion of large sections of a chromosome. Additionally, the DNA repair mechanisms that normally revert mutations can introduce errors when repairing the physical damage to the molecule is more important than restoring an exact copy, for example when repairing double-strand breaks.:5.4
What is it called when multiple different alleles for a gene are present in a species's population?
56f8d1ba9b226e1400dd1079
polymorphic
94
False
What can some alleles give rise to?
56f8d1ba9b226e1400dd107a
different phenotypic traits
197
False
What is a gene's most common allele known as?
56f8d1ba9b226e1400dd107b
the wild type
264
False
What are rare alleles called?
56f8d1ba9b226e1400dd107c
mutants
307
False
What is one cause of the genetic variation in relative frequencies of different alleles in a population?
56f8d1ba9b226e1400dd107d
genetic drift
436
False
When multiple different alleles for a gene are present in a species's population it is called polymorphic. Most different alleles are functionally equivalent, however some alleles can give rise to different phenotypic traits. A gene's most common allele is called the wild type, and rare alleles are called mutants. The genetic variation in relative frequencies of different alleles in a population is due to both natural selection and genetic drift. The wild-type allele is not necessarily the ancestor of less common alleles, nor is it necessarily fitter.
What are mutations that have no effect on an organism's phenotype called?
56f8d3619b226e1400dd109b
silent mutations
87
False
What are mutations that do not change the amino acid sequence called?
56f8d3619b226e1400dd109c
synonymous mutations
211
False
What are mutations that lead to amino acid sequence changes but leave the protein functioning similarly called?
56f8d3619b226e1400dd109d
conservative mutations
382
False
What is a result of deleterious mutations?
56f8d3619b226e1400dd109e
Genetic disorders
519
False
What does the directional selection of beneficial mutations lead to?
56f8d3619b226e1400dd109f
adaptive evolution
839
False
Most mutations within genes are neutral, having no effect on the organism's phenotype (silent mutations). Some mutations do not change the amino acid sequence because multiple codons encode the same amino acid (synonymous mutations). Other mutations can be neutral if they lead to amino acid sequence changes, but the protein still functions similarly with the new amino acid (e.g. conservative mutations). Many mutations, however, are deleterious or even lethal, and are removed from populations by natural selection. Genetic disorders are the result of deleterious mutations and can be due to spontaneous mutation in the affected individual, or can be inherited. Finally, a small fraction of mutations are beneficial, improving the organism's fitness and are extremely important for evolution, since their directional selection leads to adaptive evolution.:7.6
What are genes with a most recent common ancestor called?
56f8d67a9b226e1400dd10b9
homologs
96
False
What is one reason for homologs to appear?
56f8d67a9b226e1400dd10ba
gene duplication within an organism's genome
137
False
What are genes that occur from duplication within an organism's genome called?
56f8d67a9b226e1400dd10bb
paralogous genes
207
False
What are genes that result from divergence of the genes after a speciation event called?
56f8d67a9b226e1400dd10bc
orthologous genes
320
False
Genes with a most recent common ancestor, and thus a shared evolutionary ancestry, are known as homologs. These genes appear either from gene duplication within an organism's genome, where they are known as paralogous genes, or are the result of divergence of the genes after a speciation event, where they are known as orthologous genes,:7.6 and often perform the same or similar functions in related organisms. It is often assumed that the functions of orthologous genes are more similar than those of paralogous genes, although the difference is minimal.
What does comparing the sequence alignment of genes' DNA measure?
56f8d7e39e9bad19000a05d0
The relationship between genes
0
False
What is the degree of sequence similarity between homologous genes called?
56f8d7e39e9bad19000a05d1
conserved sequence
170
False
How do genes typically accumulate mutations over time?
56f8d7e39e9bad19000a05d2
by neutral molecular evolution
295
False
Under what type of selection are genes constrained so they change more slowly?
56f8d7e39e9bad19000a05d3
stabilizing
433
False
What type of analyses can the sequence differences between genes be used for?
56f8d7e39e9bad19000a05d4
phylogenetic
624
False
The relationship between genes can be measured by comparing the sequence alignment of their DNA.:7.6 The degree of sequence similarity between homologous genes is called conserved sequence. Most changes to a gene's sequence do not affect its function and so genes accumulate mutations over time by neutral molecular evolution. Additionally, any selection on a gene will cause its sequence to diverge at a different rate. Genes under stabilizing selection are constrained and so change more slowly whereas genes under directional selection change sequence more rapidly. The sequence differences between genes can be used for phylogenetic analyses to study how those genes have evolved and how the organisms they come from are related.
What is the most common source of new genes in eukaryotic lineages?
56f8d9269e9bad19000a05f2
gene duplication
62
False
What creates copy number variation of an existing gene in the genome?
56f8d9269e9bad19000a05f3
gene duplication
62
False
What are the genes that result from eukaryotic gene duplication called?
56f8d9269e9bad19000a05f4
paralogs
172
False
What type of copy can gene duplication sometimes result in?
56f8d9269e9bad19000a05f5
nonfunctional
444
False
What are functional copies of a gene which have a loss of function due to mutation called?
56f8d9269e9bad19000a05f6
pseudogenes
592
False
The most common source of new genes in eukaryotic lineages is gene duplication, which creates copy number variation of an existing gene in the genome. The resulting genes (paralogs) may then diverge in sequence and in function. Sets of genes formed in this way comprise a gene family. Gene duplications and losses within a family are common and represent a major source of evolutionary biodiversity. Sometimes, gene duplication may result in a nonfunctional copy of a gene, or a functional copy may be subject to mutations that result in loss of function; such nonfunctional genes are called pseudogenes.:7.6
What is a gene whose sequence shows no similarity to existing genes called?
56f8da629e9bad19000a05fc
De novo or "orphan" genes
0
False
What is the estimate of the number of orphan genes in the human genome?
56f8da629e9bad19000a05fd
18 to 60
173
False
How do the lengths of orphan genes compare to most eukaryotic genes?
56f8da629e9bad19000a05fe
typically shorter
198
False
How does the structure of orphan genes compare to most eukaryotic genes?
56f8da629e9bad19000a05ff
simpler in structure
220
False
What is one primary source of orphan protein-coding genes?
56f8da629e9bad19000a0600
gene duplication followed by extremely rapid sequence change
349
False
De novo or "orphan" genes, whose sequence shows no similarity to existing genes, are extremely rare. Estimates of the number of de novo genes in the human genome range from 18 to 60. Such genes are typically shorter and simpler in structure than most eukaryotic genes, with few if any introns. Two primary sources of orphan protein-coding genes are gene duplication followed by extremely rapid sequence change, such that the original relationship is undetectable by sequence comparisons, and formation through mutation of "cryptic" transcription start sites that introduce a new open reading frame in a region of the genome that did not previously code for a protein.
What is the  transfer of genetic material through a mechanism other than reproduction known as?
56f8dbb99e9bad19000a0606
Horizontal gene transfer
0
False
In what type of organism is horizontal gene transfer a common source of new genes?
56f8dbb99e9bad19000a0607
prokaryotes
163
False
What is one trait that horizontal gene transfer is a common means of spreading?
56f8dbb99e9bad19000a0608
antibiotic resistance
291
False
In what type of organism is horizontal gene transfer rare?
56f8dbb99e9bad19000a0609
eukaryotes
404
False
What is one example of horizontal gene transfer in eukaryotes?
56f8dbb99e9bad19000a060a
alga genomes containing genes of bacterial origin
468
False
Horizontal gene transfer refers to the transfer of genetic material through a mechanism other than reproduction. This mechanism is a common source of new genes in prokaryotes, sometimes thought to contribute more to genetic variation than gene duplication. It is a common means of spreading antibiotic resistance, virulence, and adaptive metabolic functions. Although horizontal gene transfer is rare in eukaryotes, likely examples have been identified of protist and alga genomes containing genes of bacterial origin.
What is one characteristic that varies widely between organisms?
56f8dca99b226e1400dd1126
genome size
4
False
In which type of organism do the smallest genomes occur?
56f8dca99b226e1400dd1127
viruses
115
False
What is the smallest number of protein coding genes that a virus can have?
56f8dca99b226e1400dd1128
2
149
False
Which organism acts as a single non coding RNA gene?
56f8dca99b226e1400dd1129
viroids
178
False
What is the estimate for the total number of protein coding genes on Earth?
56f8dca99b226e1400dd112a
5 million
418
False
The genome size, and the number of genes it encodes varies widely between organisms. The smallest genomes occur in viruses (which can have as few as 2 protein-coding genes), and viroids (which act as a single non-coding RNA gene). Conversely, plants can have extremely large genomes, with rice containing >46,000 protein-coding genes. The total number of protein-coding genes (the Earth's proteome) is estimated to be 5 million sequences.
Since when has the number of base pairs of DNA in the human genome been known?
56f8de279e9bad19000a062a
the 1960s
82
False
What was the highest initial theoretical prediction of the number of human genes?
56f8de279e9bad19000a062b
2,000,000
296
False
What sort of variants did the Human Genome Project indicate that many of the measured transcripts were?
56f8de279e9bad19000a062c
alternative variants
520
False
After the Human Genome Project, how many genes were encoded on the mitochondrial genome?
56f8de279e9bad19000a062d
13
638
False
What percentage of the human genome consists of protein coding genes?
56f8de279e9bad19000a062e
1–2%
710
False
Although the number of base-pairs of DNA in the human genome has been known since the 1960s, the estimated number of genes has changed over time as definitions of genes, and methods of detecting them have been refined. Initial theoretical predictions of the number of human genes were as high as 2,000,000. Early experimental measures indicated there to be 50,000–100,000 transcribed genes (expressed sequence tags). Subsequently, the sequencing in the Human Genome Project indicated that many of these transcripts were alternative variants of the same genes, and the total number of protein-coding genes was revised down to ~20,000 with 13 genes encoded on the mitochondrial genome. Of the human genome, only 1–2% consists of protein-coding genes, with the remainder being 'noncoding' DNA such as introns, retrotransposons, and noncoding RNAs.
What are the set of genes which are thought to be crucial for the survival of an organism?
56f8df189e9bad19000a0648
Essential genes
0
False
What does the definition of essential genes assume an absence of?
56f8df189e9bad19000a0649
environmental stress
183
False
How many genes are essential for Escherichia coli?
56f8df189e9bad19000a064a
250–400
290
False
What fraction of Escherichia coli's essential genes are orthologs?
56f8df189e9bad19000a064b
Half
401
False
How many essential genes does Saccharomyces cerevisiae have?
56f8df189e9bad19000a064c
1000 genes
599
False
Essential genes are the set of genes thought to be critical for an organism's survival. This definition assumes the abundant availability of all relevant nutrients and the absence of environmental stress. Only a small portion of an organism's genes are essential. In bacteria, an estimated 250–400 genes are essential for Escherichia coli and Bacillus subtilis, which is less than 10% of their genes. Half of these genes are orthologs in both organisms and are largely involved in protein synthesis. In the budding yeast Saccharomyces cerevisiae the number of essential genes is slightly higher, at 1000 genes (~20% of their genes). Although the number is more difficult to measure in higher eukaryotes, mice and humans are estimated to have around 2000 essential genes (~10% of their genes).
What type of genes are necessary for performing basic cell functions?
56f8e01d9b226e1400dd1162
Housekeeping genes
0
False
At what relative level are housekeeping genes expressed at?
56f8e01d9b226e1400dd1163
constant
107
False
When investigating gene expression, what type of genes are used as a control for experiments?
56f8e01d9b226e1400dd1164
housekeeping genes
176
False
How are some essential genes regulated?
56f8e01d9b226e1400dd1165
developmentally
339
False
When are some essential genes expressed?
56f8e01d9b226e1400dd1166
at certain times during the organism's life cycle
378
False
Housekeeping genes are critical for carrying out basic cell functions and so are expressed at a relatively constant level (constitutively). Since their expression is constant, housekeeping genes are used as experimental controls when analysing gene expression. Not all essential genes are housekeeping genes since some essential genes are developmentally regulated or expressed at certain times during the organism's life cycle.
What committee has established gene nomenclature for every known human gene?
56f8e1499e9bad19000a0670
HUGO Gene Nomenclature Committee (HGNC)
46
False
How can the gene nomenclature be accessed?
56f8e1499e9bad19000a0671
through a database maintained by HGNC
209
False
How many symbols does each gene have?
56f8e1499e9bad19000a0672
only one
299
False
With what is it preferred that symbols are kept consistent with?
56f8e1499e9bad19000a0673
homologs in other species
445
False
What type of model does the mouse play a role for?
56f8e1499e9bad19000a0674
common model
516
False
Gene nomenclature has been established by the HUGO Gene Nomenclature Committee (HGNC) for each known human gene in the form of an approved gene name and symbol (short-form abbreviation), which can be accessed through a database maintained by HGNC. Symbols are chosen to be unique, and each gene has only one symbol (although approved symbols sometimes change). Symbols are preferably kept consistent with other members of a gene family and with homologs in other species, particularly the mouse due to its role as a common model organism.
What is known as the modification of an organism's genome through biotechnology?
56f8e2679b226e1400dd1182
Genetic engineering
0
False
When did techniques begin to be developed to add, remove and edit genes?
56f8e2679b226e1400dd1183
the 1970s
93
False
What sort of enzymes do recently developed genome engineering techniques use?
56f8e2679b226e1400dd1184
engineered nuclease enzymes
260
False
What sort of DNA repair is created by modern genetic engineering techniques?
56f8e2679b226e1400dd1185
targeted
298
False
What term refers to extensive genetic engineering of an organism?
56f8e2679b226e1400dd1186
synthetic biology
412
False
Genetic engineering is the modification of an organism's genome through biotechnology. Since the 1970s, a variety of techniques have been developed to specifically add, remove and edit genes in an organism. Recently developed genome engineering techniques use engineered nuclease enzymes to create targeted DNA repair in a chromosome to either disrupt or edit a gene when the break is repaired. The related term synthetic biology is sometimes used to refer to extensive genetic engineering of an organism.
What has become a common research tool with model organisms?
56f8e37f9b226e1400dd1194
Genetic engineering
0
False
What do scientists explore by adding genes to mice with a certain gene's function disrupted?
56f8e37f9b226e1400dd1195
that gene's function
217
False
What is an application for which organisms have been modified for?
56f8e37f9b226e1400dd1196
agriculture
305
False
What is another for which  organisms have been modified for?
56f8e37f9b226e1400dd1197
industrial biotechnology
318
False
What is yet another application for which  organisms have been modified for?
56f8e37f9b226e1400dd1198
medicine
348
False
Genetic engineering is now a routine research tool with model organisms. For example, genes are easily added to bacteria and lineages of knockout mice with a specific gene's function disrupted are used to investigate that gene's function. Many organisms have been genetically modified for applications in agriculture, industrial biotechnology, and medicine.
For what sort of organisms is the embryo normally engineered?
56f8e4e39e9bad19000a06b6
multicellular organisms
4
False
What techniques can be used to alter the genomes of an adult organism to treat genetic disease?
56f8e4e39e9bad19000a06b7
gene therapy techniques
193
False
What part of the organism is usually created which becomes a developed genetically altered organism?
56f8e4e39e9bad19000a06b8
the embryo
39
False
What can be changed in an adult organism using gene therapy techniques?
56f8e4e39e9bad19000a06b9
the genomes of cells
131
False
What can be treated using genetic engineering?
56f8e4e39e9bad19000a06ba
genetic diseases
226
False
For multicellular organisms, typically the embryo is engineered which grows into the adult genetically modified organism. However, the genomes of cells in an adult organism can be edited using gene therapy techniques to treat genetic diseases.
Guinea-Bissau
What is the official name for Guinea-Bissau?
56f89ee99b226e1400dd0cd5
the Republic of Guinea-Bissau
59
False
Where is Guinea-Bissau located?
56f89ee99b226e1400dd0cd6
West Africa
188
False
How many square miles is Guinea-Bissau?
56f89ee99b226e1400dd0cd7
13,948 sq mi
237
False
What is the estimated population of Guinea-Bissau?
56f89ee99b226e1400dd0cd8
1,704,000
283
False
How many kilometers does Guinea-Bissau cover?
56f89ee99b226e1400dd0cd9
36,125
211
False
Guinea-Bissau (i/ˈɡɪni bɪˈsaʊ/, GI-nee-bi-SOW), officially the Republic of Guinea-Bissau (Portuguese: República da Guiné-Bissau, pronounced: [ʁeˈpublikɐ dɐ ɡiˈnɛ biˈsaw]), is a country in West Africa. It covers 36,125 square kilometres (13,948 sq mi) with an estimated population of 1,704,000.
What kingdom was Guinea-Bissau once part of?
56f89fcd9e9bad19000a01ed
Gabu
46
False
What empire was Guinea-Bissau once part of?
56f89fcd9e9bad19000a01ee
Mali Empire
75
False
What year was Guinea-Bissau declared independent?
56f89fcd9e9bad19000a01ef
1973
324
False
What country did Guinea-Bissau seek to differentiate itself from?
56f89fcd9e9bad19000a01f0
Guinea (formerly French Guinea)
444
False
Guinea-Bissau has a history of what since independence?
56f89fcd9e9bad19000a01f1
political instability
508
False
Guinea-Bissau was once part of the kingdom of Gabu, as well as part of the Mali Empire. Parts of this kingdom persisted until the 18th century, while a few others were under some rule by the Portuguese Empire since the 16th century. In the 19th century, it was colonized as Portuguese Guinea. Upon independence, declared in 1973 and recognised in 1974, the name of its capital, Bissau, was added to the country's name to prevent confusion with Guinea (formerly French Guinea). Guinea-Bissau has a history of political instability since independence, and no elected president has successfully served a full five-year term.
What percentage of the population speaks Portuguese?
56f8a0a89b226e1400dd0cf9
14%
5
False
What percentage of the population speaks Crioulo?
56f8a0a89b226e1400dd0cfa
44%
135
False
What are the two main religions?
56f8a0a89b226e1400dd0cfb
African traditional religions and Islam
278
False
What is their gross domestic product status?
56f8a0a89b226e1400dd0cfc
one of the lowest in the world
425
False
What is the minority religion?
56f8a0a89b226e1400dd0cfd
Christian (mostly Roman Catholic)
330
False
Only 14% of the population speaks Portuguese, established as the official language in the colonial period. Almost half the population (44%) speaks Crioulo, a Portuguese-based creole language, and the remainder speak a variety of native African languages. The main religions are African traditional religions and Islam; there is a Christian (mostly Roman Catholic) minority. The country's per-capita gross domestic product is one of the lowest in the world.
What Islamic organization does Guinea-Bissau belong to?
56f8a1a49b226e1400dd0d09
Organisation of Islamic Cooperation
107
False
What Portuguese organization does Guinea-Bissau belong to?
56f8a1a49b226e1400dd0d0a
Community of Portuguese Language Countries
161
False
What West African organization does Guinea-Bissau belong to?
56f8a1a49b226e1400dd0d0b
Economic Community of West African States
64
False
What South Atlantic organization does Guinea-Bissau belong to?
56f8a1a49b226e1400dd0d0c
South Atlantic Peace and Cooperation Zone
229
False
What Latin organization does Guinea-Bissau belong to?
56f8a1a49b226e1400dd0d0d
the Latin Union
144
False
Guinea-Bissau is a member of the United Nations, African Union, Economic Community of West African States, Organisation of Islamic Cooperation, the Latin Union, Community of Portuguese Language Countries, La Francophonie and the South Atlantic Peace and Cooperation Zone.
What area was known as the Slave Coast?
56f8a8539b226e1400dd0d6f
Portuguese Guinea
244
False
Who exported African slaves to the western hemisphere?
56f8a8539b226e1400dd0d70
Europeans
356
False
What kingdom was Guinea-Bissau once a part of?
56f8a8539b226e1400dd0d71
Gabu
46
False
How long did the Mali Empire persist?
56f8a8539b226e1400dd0d72
until the 18th century
109
False
Who traded slaves into the Middle East?
56f8a8539b226e1400dd0d73
Arabs
430
False
Guinea-Bissau was once part of the kingdom of Gabu, part of the Mali Empire; parts of this kingdom persisted until the 18th century. Other parts of the territory in the current country were considered by the Portuguese as part of their empire. Portuguese Guinea was known as the Slave Coast, as it was a major area for the exportation of African slaves by Europeans to the western hemisphere. Previously slaves had been traded by Arabs north to the northern part of Africa and into the Middle East.
When was Alvise Cadamosto's voyage?
56f8a93c9b226e1400dd0d85
1455
105
False
When was Eustache de la Fosse's voyage?
56f8a93c9b226e1400dd0d86
1479–1480
115
False
What was the name of the Portuguese explorer?
56f8a93c9b226e1400dd0d87
Diogo Cão
183
False
What river did Diogo Cao reach in the 1480's?
56f8a93c9b226e1400dd0d88
Congo River
244
False
What country is about 4200 km from Guinea-Bissau?
56f8a93c9b226e1400dd0d89
Angola
319
False
Early reports of Europeans reaching this area include those of the Venetian Alvise Cadamosto's voyage of 1455, the 1479–1480 voyage by Flemish-French trader Eustache de la Fosse, and Diogo Cão. In the 1480s this Portuguese explorer reached the Congo River and the lands of Bakongo, setting up the foundations of modern Angola, some 4200 km down the African coast from Guinea-Bissau.
What areas were the first places colonized by the Portuguese?
56f8aa3e9e9bad19000a029b
the rivers and coast
9
False
When did the Portuguese first set up trading posts in Guinea-Bissau?
56f8aa3e9e9bad19000a029c
16th century
132
False
When did the Portuguese explore the interior of Guinea-Bissau?
56f8aa3e9e9bad19000a029d
19th century
190
False
Who controlled the inland trade in Guinea-Bissau during this time?
56f8aa3e9e9bad19000a029e
local African rulers
208
False
What ports were the Portuguese restricted to?
56f8aa3e9e9bad19000a029f
Bissau and Cacheu
637
False
Although the rivers and coast of this area were among the first places colonized by the Portuguese, who set up trading posts in the 16th century, they did not explore the interior until the 19th century. The local African rulers in Guinea, some of whom prospered greatly from the slave trade, controlled the inland trade and did not allow the Europeans into the interior. They kept them in the fortified coastal settlements where the trading took place. African communities that fought back against slave traders also distrusted European adventurers and would-be settlers. The Portuguese in Guinea were largely restricted to the port of Bissau and Cacheu. A small number of European settlers established isolated farms along Bissau's inland rivers.
Who tried to establish a rival foothold at Bolama?
56f8abb19e9bad19000a02af
the British
33
False
When was a rival foothold  attempted at Bolama?
56f8abb19e9bad19000a02b0
the 1790s
22
False
Who regarded Bolama as their own in the 19th century?
56f8abb19e9bad19000a02b1
the Portuguese
139
False
What other area did the Portuguese regard as their special territory?
56f8abb19e9bad19000a02b2
part of present South Senegal
275
False
What rival did the Portuguese fend off in Guinea-Bissau?
56f8abb19e9bad19000a02b3
the British
33
False
For a brief period in the 1790s, the British tried to establish a rival foothold on an offshore island, at Bolama. But by the 19th century the Portuguese were sufficiently secure in Bissau to regard the neighbouring coastline as their own special territory, also up north in part of present South Senegal.
What group started an armed rebellion in Guinea-Bissau?
56f8ac9b9e9bad19000a02c9
African Party for the Independence of Guinea and Cape Verde (PAIGC)
44
False
When did the armed rebellion begin?
56f8ac9b9e9bad19000a02ca
1956
32
False
Who was the leader of the armed rebellion?
56f8ac9b9e9bad19000a02cb
Amílcar Cabral
136
False
Who supplied doctors and technicians to the rebels?
56f8ac9b9e9bad19000a02cc
Cuba
545
False
When was Cabral assassinated?
56f8ac9b9e9bad19000a02cd
January 1973
842
False
An armed rebellion beginning in 1956 by the African Party for the Independence of Guinea and Cape Verde (PAIGC) under the leadership of Amílcar Cabral gradually consolidated its hold on then Portuguese Guinea. Unlike guerrilla movements in other Portuguese colonies, the PAIGC rapidly extended its military control over large portions of the territory, aided by the jungle-like terrain, its easily reached borderlines with neighbouring allies, and large quantities of arms from Cuba, China, the Soviet Union, and left-leaning African countries. Cuba also agreed to supply artillery experts, doctors, and technicians. The PAIGC even managed to acquire a significant anti-aircraft capability in order to defend itself against aerial attack. By 1973, the PAIGC was in control of many parts of Guinea, although the movement suffered a setback in January 1973 when Cabral was assassinated.
When was independence declared?
56f8c6b29e9bad19000a0496
24 September 1973
42
False
What date was independence considered universal?
56f8c6b29e9bad19000a0497
25 April 1974
104
False
What event caused the recognition to be universal?
56f8c6b29e9bad19000a0498
socialist-inspired military coup
118
False
Where did a coup take place?
56f8c6b29e9bad19000a0499
Portugal
154
False
Who was overthrown in the coup?
56f8c6b29e9bad19000a049a
Lisbon's Estado Novo regime
180
False
Independence was unilaterally declared on 24 September 1973. Recognition became universal following the 25 April 1974 socialist-inspired military coup in Portugal, which overthrew Lisbon's Estado Novo regime.
Who was the first President of Guinea-Bissau?
56f8c76e9e9bad19000a04aa
Luís Cabral
0
False
How many Guinean soldiers did the PAIGC kill?
56f8c76e9e9bad19000a04ab
thousands
150
False
Where did one of the massacres occur?
56f8c76e9e9bad19000a04ac
Bissorã
358
False
When did the PAIGC acknowledge the executions?
56f8c76e9e9bad19000a04ad
29 November 1980
433
False
Where were the soldiers buried?
56f8c76e9e9bad19000a04ae
Cumerá, Portogole, and Mansabá
554
False
Luís Cabral, brother of Amílcar and co-founder of PAIGC, was appointed the first President of Guinea-Bissau. Following independence, the PAIGC killed thousands of local Guinean soldiers who had fought along with the Portuguese Army against guerrillas. Some escaped to settle in Portugal or other African nations. One of the massacres occurred in the town of Bissorã. In 1980 the PAIGC acknowledged in its newspaper Nó Pintcha (dated 29 November 1980) that many Gueinean soldiers had been executed and buried in unmarked collective graves in the woods of Cumerá, Portogole, and Mansabá.
Who controlled the country prior to 1984?
56f8c7fa9b226e1400dd0fcf
a revolutionary council
30
False
When were the first multi-party elections held?
56f8c7fa9b226e1400dd0fd0
1994
111
False
What led to the Guinea-Bissau Civil War?
56f8c7fa9b226e1400dd0fd1
An army uprising
117
False
When was the president ousted?
56f8c7fa9b226e1400dd0fd2
June 1999
212
False
Who was elected president in the 2000 election?
56f8c7fa9b226e1400dd0fd3
Kumba Ialá
262
False
The country was controlled by a revolutionary council until 1984. The first multi-party elections were held in 1994. An army uprising in May 1998 led to the Guinea-Bissau Civil War and the president's ousting in June 1999. Elections were held again in 2000, and Kumba Ialá was elected president.
When was a military coup conducted?
56f8c8829e9bad19000a04d0
September 2003
3
False
Who did the military arrest?
56f8c8829e9bad19000a04d1
Ialá
72
False
When were legislative elections held?
56f8c8829e9bad19000a04d2
March 2004
202
False
When did the mutiny of military factions occur?
56f8c8829e9bad19000a04d3
October 2004
247
False
Who died in the mutiny?
56f8c8829e9bad19000a04d4
the head of the armed forces
285
False
In September 2003, a military coup was conducted. The military arrested Ialá on the charge of being "unable to solve the problems". After being delayed several times, legislative elections were held in March 2004. A mutiny of military factions in October 2004 resulted in the death of the head of the armed forces and caused widespread unrest.
After the coup, when were presidential elections held?
56f8c95e9b226e1400dd0ff3
June 2005
3
False
At that time, who ran claiming to be the legitimate president of the country?
56f8c95e9b226e1400dd0ff4
Ialá
100
False
Who won the election?
56f8c95e9b226e1400dd0ff5
João Bernardo Vieira
245
False
Who did Vieira beat in a runoff election?
56f8c95e9b226e1400dd0ff6
Malam Bacai Sanhá
305
False
When was Vieira, a former president, deposed?
56f8c95e9b226e1400dd0ff7
1999
282
False
In June 2005, presidential elections were held for the first time since the coup that deposed Ialá. Ialá returned as the candidate for the PRS, claiming to be the legitimate president of the country, but the election was won by former president João Bernardo Vieira, deposed in the 1999 coup. Vieira beat Malam Bacai Sanhá in a runoff election. Sanhá initially refused to concede, claiming that tampering and electoral fraud occurred in two constituencies including the capital, Bissau.
What was reported to be entering the country prior to the election?
56f8ca0f9e9bad19000a04fa
arms
19
False
What type of "disturbances" were reported during the campaign?
56f8ca0f9e9bad19000a04fb
attacks on government offices
121
False
How did foreign election monitors describe the election?
56f8ca0f9e9bad19000a04fc
"calm and organized"
240
False
What year was the election held?
56f8ca0f9e9bad19000a04fd
2005
215
False
Where the election monitors local, or foreign?
56f8ca0f9e9bad19000a04fe
foreign
175
False
Despite reports of arms entering the country prior to the election and some "disturbances during campaigning," including attacks on government offices by unidentified gunmen, foreign election monitors described the 2005 election overall as "calm and organized".
When was the parliamentary election held?
56f8cb539b226e1400dd101d
November 2008
122
False
Who won a strong majority in the election?
56f8cb539b226e1400dd101e
PAIGC
19
False
How many seats did PAIGC win in the election?
56f8cb539b226e1400dd101f
67
67
False
Whose residence was attacked by members of the armed forces?
56f8cb539b226e1400dd1020
President Vieira's
155
False
When did the attack on the residence occur?
56f8cb539b226e1400dd1021
November 2008
140
False
Three years later, PAIGC won a strong parliamentary majority, with 67 of 100 seats, in the parliamentary election held in November 2008. In November 2008, President Vieira's official residence was attacked by members of the armed forces, killing a guard but leaving the president unharmed.
Who was assassinated on 2 March 2009?
56f8ceed9b226e1400dd1047
Vieira
26
False
Who was assassinated on 1 March 2009?
56f8ceed9b226e1400dd1048
General Batista Tagme Na Wai
171
False
Who pledged to respect the constitutional order of succession?
56f8ceed9b226e1400dd1049
Military leaders
281
False
Who was appointed interim president?
56f8ceed9b226e1400dd104a
Raimundo Pereira
398
False
Who won the election in June 2009?
56f8ceed9b226e1400dd104b
Malam Bacai Sanhá
512
False
On 2 March 2009, however, Vieira was assassinated by what preliminary reports indicated to be a group of soldiers avenging the death of the head of joint chiefs of staff, General Batista Tagme Na Wai. Tagme died in an explosion on Sunday, 1 March 2009, target of an assassination. Military leaders in the country pledged to respect the constitutional order of succession. National Assembly Speaker Raimundo Pereira was appointed as an interim president until a nationwide election on 28 June 2009. It was won by Malam Bacai Sanhá.
When was a coup d'etat staged?
56f8cfb29e9bad19000a056c
12 April 2012
18
False
Who staged the coup d'etat?
56f8cfb29e9bad19000a056d
members of the country's military
33
False
Who assumed control of the country after the coup d'etat?
56f8cfb29e9bad19000a056e
Mamadu Ture Kuruma
197
False
Who did Kuruma negotiate with?
56f8cfb29e9bad19000a056f
opposition parties
305
False
What was Kuruma's former position?
56f8cfb29e9bad19000a0570
vice chief of staff
168
False
On the evening of 12 April 2012, members of the country's military staged a coup d'état and arrested the interim president and a leading presidential candidate. Former vice chief of staff, General Mamadu Ture Kuruma, assumed control of the country in the transitional period and started negotiations with opposition parties.
What country is listed as a republic?
56f8d0389e9bad19000a057e
Guinea-Bissau
0
False
When had the government been highly centralized?
56f8d0389e9bad19000a057f
In the past
29
False
When was multi-party governance established?
56f8d0389e9bad19000a0580
mid-1991
135
False
Who is the head of state?
56f8d0389e9bad19000a0581
president
149
False
Who is the head of government?
56f8d0389e9bad19000a0582
prime minister
188
False
Guinea-Bissau is a republic. In the past, the government had been highly centralized. Multi-party governance was not established until mid-1991. The president is the head of state and the prime minister is the head of government. Since 1974, no president has successfully served a full five-year term.
How many members compose the legislature?
56f8d10e9b226e1400dd1065
100
110
False
Is the legislature bicameral or unicameral?
56f8d10e9b226e1400dd1066
unicameral
28
False
How long do members serve in the legislature?
56f8d10e9b226e1400dd1067
four-year term
194
False
What is the head of the judicial system?
56f8d10e9b226e1400dd1068
Tribunal Supremo da Justiça (Supreme Court)
245
False
How many justices are on the Supreme Court?
56f8d10e9b226e1400dd1069
nine
301
False
At the legislative level, a unicameral Assembleia Nacional Popular (National People's Assembly) is made up of 100 members. They are popularly elected from multi-member constituencies to serve a four-year term. The judicial system is headed by a Tribunal Supremo da Justiça (Supreme Court), made up of nine justices appointed by the president; they serve at the pleasure of the president.
Who was elected as President in 2005?
56f8d6e09e9bad19000a05c6
João Bernardo "Nino" Vieira
0
False
What body made the declaration of who won the presidency?
56f8d6e09e9bad19000a05c7
CNE (Comité Nacional de Eleições)
146
False
How long was it since Vieira had held the office of president?
56f8d6e09e9bad19000a05c8
six years
214
False
What year did Vieira first assume power?
56f8d6e09e9bad19000a05c9
1980
336
False
Whose government did Vieira topple in 1980?
56f8d6e09e9bad19000a05ca
Luís Cabral
407
False
João Bernardo "Nino" Vieira was elected in 2005 as President of Guinea-Bissau as an independent, being declared winner of the second round by the CNE (Comité Nacional de Eleições). Vieira returned to power in 2005 six years after being ousted from office during a civil war. Previously, he held power for 19 years after taking power in 1980 in a bloodless coup. In that action, he toppled the government of Luís Cabral.
What was NOT triggered by Vieira's death?
56f8d7c39b226e1400dd10ca
widespread violence
217
False
When was Vieira killed?
56f8d7c39b226e1400dd10cb
2 March 2009
17
False
In the 2009 election, who was the candidate of the PAIGC?
56f8d7c39b226e1400dd10cc
Sanhá
437
False
In the 2009 election, who was the candidate of the PRS?
56f8d7c39b226e1400dd10cd
Kumba Ialá
493
False
Who won the 2009 election?
56f8d7c39b226e1400dd10ce
Sanhá
437
False
He was killed on 2 March 2009, possibly by soldiers in retaliation for the assassination of General Batista Tagme Na Waie, the head of the joint chiefs of staff, killed in an explosion. Vieira's death did not trigger widespread violence, but there were signs of turmoil in the country, according to the advocacy group Swisspeace. Malam Bacai Sanhá was elected after a transition. In the 2009 election to replace the assassinated Vieira, Sanhá was the presidential candidate of the PAIGC while Kumba Ialá was the presidential candidate of the PRS.
When did President Sanha die?
56f8d8959e9bad19000a05e0
2012
3
False
What party did Sanha belong to?
56f8d8959e9bad19000a05e1
PAIGC (African Party for the Independence of Guinea and Cape Verde)
78
False
Besides the PAIGC, what is the other major political party?
56f8d8959e9bad19000a05e2
PRS (Party for Social Renewal)
219
False
How many minor political parties are there?
56f8d8959e9bad19000a05e3
more than 20
261
False
What office did Sanha hold in 2012?
56f8d8959e9bad19000a05e4
President
9
False
In 2012, President Rachide Sambu-balde Malam Bacai Sanhá died. He belonged to PAIGC (African Party for the Independence of Guinea and Cape Verde), one of the two major political parties in Guinea-Bissau, along with the PRS (Party for Social Renewal). There are more than 20 minor parties.
How many regions does Guinea-Bissau contain?
56f8d9349b226e1400dd10da
eight
30
False
How many autonomous sectors does Guinea-Bissau contain?
56f8d9349b226e1400dd10db
one
58
False
How many subdivided Sectors does Guinea-Bissau contain?
56f8d9349b226e1400dd10dc
37
135
False
Guinea-Bissau is divided into eight regions (regiões) and one autonomous sector (sector autónomo). These, in turn, are subdivided into 37 Sectors. The regions are:
What country is on the north border of Guinea-Bissau?
56f8d9db9b226e1400dd10e0
Senegal
29
False
What country is on the south border of Guinea-Bissau?
56f8d9db9b226e1400dd10e1
Guinea
54
False
What is to the west of Guinea-Bissau?
56f8d9db9b226e1400dd10e2
Atlantic Ocean
93
False
What latitudes does Guinea-Bissau mostly lie between?
56f8d9db9b226e1400dd10e3
11° and 13°N
154
False
What longitudes does Guinea-Bissau mostly lie between?
56f8d9db9b226e1400dd10e4
13° and 17°W
214
False
Guinea-Bissau is bordered by Senegal to the north and Guinea to the south and east, with the Atlantic Ocean to its west. It lies mostly between latitudes 11° and 13°N (a small area is south of 11°), and longitudes 13° and 17°W.
Guinea-Bissau is larger than what two countries?
56f8daad9b226e1400dd10fa
Taiwan or Belgium
79
False
How high is the highest point in Guinea-Bissau?
56f8daad9b226e1400dd10fb
300 metres (984 ft)
146
False
What archipelago lies off the mainland?
56f8daad9b226e1400dd10fc
Bijagos
407
False
How many square kilometers is Guinea-Bissau?
56f8daad9b226e1400dd10fd
36,125
3
False
Where does Guinea-Bissau get its hot dry winds from?
56f8daad9b226e1400dd10fe
the Sahara
391
False
At 36,125 square kilometres (13,948 sq mi), the country is larger in size than Taiwan or Belgium. It lies at a low altitude; its highest point is 300 metres (984 ft). The terrain of is mostly low coastal plain with swamps of Guinean mangroves rising to Guinean forest-savanna mosaic in the east. Its monsoon-like rainy season alternates with periods of hot, dry harmattan winds blowing from the Sahara. The Bijagos Archipelago lies off of the mainland.
What is the average rainfall in Bissau, in millimetres?
56f8dbaa9b226e1400dd110e
2,024
149
False
When is the rainy season in Guinea-Bissau?
56f8dbaa9b226e1400dd110f
between June and September/October
260
False
What does the country experience from December through April?
56f8dbaa9b226e1400dd1110
drought
349
False
When is Guinea-Bissau warm?
56f8dbaa9b226e1400dd1111
all year around
22
False
What is the average temperature in Guinea-Bissau?
56f8dbaa9b226e1400dd1112
26.3 °C (79.3 °F)
95
False
Guinea-Bissau is warm all year around and there is little temperature fluctuation; it averages 26.3 °C (79.3 °F). The average rainfall for Bissau is 2,024 millimetres (79.7 in) although this is almost entirely accounted for during the rainy season which falls between June and September/October. From December through April, the country experiences drought.
How much of the population lives below the poverty line?
56f8dcd39b226e1400dd1130
More than two-thirds
129
False
What are Guinea-Bissau's major exports?
56f8dcd39b226e1400dd1131
fish, cashew nuts and ground nuts
241
False
What per capita index does Guinea-Bissau rank as one of the lowest in the world?
56f8dcd39b226e1400dd1132
GDP
16
False
For what index does Guinea-Bissau rank as one of the lowest on earth?
56f8dcd39b226e1400dd1133
Human Development Index
74
False
What area depends on agriculture in Guinea-Bissau?
56f8dcd39b226e1400dd1134
The economy
198
False
Guinea-Bissau's GDP per capita is one of the lowest in the world, and its Human Development Index is one of the lowest on earth. More than two-thirds of the population lives below the poverty line. The economy depends mainly on agriculture; fish, cashew nuts and ground nuts are its major exports.
Political instability has resulted in what type of economic activity?
56f8ddcc9b226e1400dd113a
depressed
55
False
Political instability has resulted in what description of social conditions?
56f8ddcc9b226e1400dd113b
deteriorating
84
False
What type of imbalances have increased as a result of the instability?
56f8ddcc9b226e1400dd113c
macroeconomic
131
False
How long does it take to register a business in Guinea-Bissau?
56f8ddcc9b226e1400dd113d
233 days or about 33 weeks
229
False
What is the one country that takes longer than Guinea-Bissau to register a business?
56f8ddcc9b226e1400dd113e
Suriname
303
False
A long period of political instability has resulted in depressed economic activity, deteriorating social conditions, and increased macroeconomic imbalances. It takes longer on average to register a new business in Guinea-Bissau (233 days or about 33 weeks) than in any other country in the world except Suriname. [The Economist, Pocket World in Figures, 2008 Edition, London: Profile Books]
What did the main political parties sign to help the economy?
56f8deb99b226e1400dd1144
a pact of stability
63
False
What organization backed a structural reform program?
56f8deb99b226e1400dd1145
IMF
154
False
When did Guinea-Bissau become independent?
56f8deb99b226e1400dd1146
1974
457
False
What country left Guinea-Bissau in 1974?
56f8deb99b226e1400dd1147
Portugal
445
False
What happened in Portugal that contributed to Guinea-Bissau's independence?
56f8deb99b226e1400dd1148
the Portuguese Colonial War and the Carnation Revolution
469
False
Guinea-Bissau has started to show some economic advances after a pact of stability was signed by the main political parties of the country, leading to an IMF-backed structural reform program. The key challenges for the country in the period ahead are to achieve fiscal discipline, rebuild public administration, improve the economic climate for private investment, and promote economic diversification. After the country became independent from Portugal in 1974 due to the Portuguese Colonial War and the Carnation Revolution, the rapid exodus of the Portuguese civilian, military, and political authorities resulted in considerable damage to the country's economic infrastructure, social order, and standard of living.
In what year did Guinea-Bissau start to bring some internal monetary stability to the country?
56f8df889b226e1400dd114e
1997
71
False
What did the government do in 1997 to increase monetary stability?
56f8df889b226e1400dd114f
entered the CFA franc monetary system
91
False
What years did the civil war take place?
56f8df889b226e1400dd1150
1998 and 1999
212
False
When was there a military coup in Guinea-Bissau?
56f8df889b226e1400dd1151
September 2003
250
False
When were parliamentary elections held?
56f8df889b226e1400dd1152
March 2004
468
False
After several years of economic downturn and political instability, in 1997, Guinea-Bissau entered the CFA franc monetary system, bringing about some internal monetary stability. The civil war that took place in 1998 and 1999, and a military coup in September 2003 again disrupted economic activity, leaving a substantial part of the economic and social infrastructure in ruins and intensifying the already widespread poverty. Following the parliamentary elections in March 2004 and presidential elections in July 2005, the country is trying to recover from the long period of instability, despite a still-fragile political situation.
When did drug traffickers begin to use Guinea-Bissau?
56f8e05b9e9bad19000a0652
2005
17
False
Where did the drug traffickers come from?
56f8e05b9e9bad19000a0653
Latin America
49
False
What was the final destination of the drugs going through Guinea-Bissau?
56f8e05b9e9bad19000a0654
Europe
172
False
Who described Guinea-Bissau as being at risk for becoming a "narco-state"?
56f8e05b9e9bad19000a0655
a United Nations official
220
False
Who has done little to stop drug trafficking in the country?
56f8e05b9e9bad19000a0656
The government and the military
293
False
Beginning around 2005, drug traffickers based in Latin America began to use Guinea-Bissau, along with several neighboring West African nations, as a transshipment point to Europe for cocaine. The nation was described by a United Nations official as being at risk for becoming a "narco-state". The government and the military have done little to stop drug trafficking, which increased after the 2012 coup d'état.
What was the population of Guinea-Bissau in 1950?
56f8e0f59e9bad19000a0666
518,000
130
False
What was the population of Guinea-Bissau in 2010?
56f8e0f59e9bad19000a0667
1,515,000
99
False
What is the source of the population data?
56f8e0f59e9bad19000a0668
the 2010 revison of the UN World Population Prospects
13
False
What percentage of the population was below the age of 15?
56f8e0f59e9bad19000a0669
41.3%
212
False
What percentage of the population was 65 or older?
56f8e0f59e9bad19000a066a
3.3%
273
False
According to the 2010 revison of the UN World Population Prospects, Guinea-Bissau's population was 1,515,000 in 2010, compared to 518,000 in 1950. The proportion of the population below the age of 15 in 2010 was 41.3%, 55.4% were aged between 15 and 65 years of age, while 3.3% were aged 65 years or older.
What natives comprise a very small percentage of the population?
56f8e1cd9b226e1400dd1178
Portuguese
0
False
Who left the country after Guinea-Bissau gained independence?
56f8e1cd9b226e1400dd1179
Portuguese nationals
126
False
What ethnic group has a tiny population in Guinea-Bissau?
56f8e1cd9b226e1400dd117a
Chinese
188
False
What is the name of a former Asian Portuguese colony?
56f8e1cd9b226e1400dd117b
Macau
290
False
What is the ancestry of the Chinese population in Guinea-Bissau?
56f8e1cd9b226e1400dd117c
mixed Portuguese and Chinese ancestry
247
False
Portuguese natives comprise a very small percentage of Guinea-Bissauans. After Guinea-Bissau gained independence, most of the Portuguese nationals left the country. The country has a tiny Chinese population. These include traders and merchants of mixed Portuguese and Chinese ancestry from Macau, a former Asian Portuguese colony.
What percentage of the population speaks Kriol?
56f8e26d9e9bad19000a068f
44%
152
False
What is the official language of Guinea-Bissau?
56f8e26d9e9bad19000a0690
Portuguese
51
False
How long was Guinea-Bissau under colonial rule?
56f8e26d9e9bad19000a0691
centuries
124
False
What type of language is Kriol?
56f8e26d9e9bad19000a0692
a Portuguese-based creole language
169
False
14% of the population speaks the official language Portuguese, the language of government and national communication during centuries of colonial rule. 44% speak Kriol, a Portuguese-based creole language, which is effectively a national language of communication among groups. The remainder speak a variety of native African languages unique to ethnicities.
What is the second language for most Portuguese in Guinea-Bissau?
56f8e31d9b226e1400dd118c
Kriol
68
False
Why is French taught in school?
56f8e31d9b226e1400dd118d
Guinea-Bissau is surrounded by French-speaking nations.
136
False
What is Guinea-Bissau a full member of?
56f8e31d9b226e1400dd118e
the Francophonie
226
False
Who speaks both African languages and Kriol?
56f8e31d9b226e1400dd118f
Most Portuguese and Mestiços
0
False
Most Portuguese and Mestiços speak one of the African languages and Kriol as second languages. French is also taught in schools because Guinea-Bissau is surrounded by French-speaking nations. Guinea-Bissau is a full member of the Francophonie.
In the 20th century most people practiced some form of what faith?
56f8e4159e9bad19000a06a2
Animism.
73
False
What religion was adopted by the population in the early 21st century?
56f8e4159e9bad19000a06a3
Islam
127
False
What percentage of the population now practices Islam?
56f8e4159e9bad19000a06a4
50%
160
False
What denomination are the majority of Guinea-Bissau's muslims?
56f8e4159e9bad19000a06a5
Sunni
236
False
What sect does 2% of the population belong to?
56f8e4159e9bad19000a06a6
Ahmadiyya
294
False
Throughout the 20th century, most Bissau-Guineans practiced some form of Animism. In the early 21st century, many have adopted Islam, which is now practiced by 50% of the country's population. Most of Guinea-Bissau's Muslims are of the Sunni denomination with approximately 2% belonging to the Ahmadiyya sect.
What percentage of the population is Christian?
56f8e4d89b226e1400dd119e
Approximately 10%
0
False
What percentage of the population continues to hold indigenous beliefs?
56f8e4d89b226e1400dd119f
40%
85
False
What forms of Islamic and Christian faiths do many residents practice?
56f8e4d89b226e1400dd11a0
syncretic
198
False
What do many residents combine with Islamic and Christian practices?
56f8e4d89b226e1400dd11a1
traditional African beliefs
278
False
Approximately 10% of the country's population belong to the Christian community, and 40% continue to hold Indigenous beliefs. These statistics can be misleading, however, as many residents practice syncretic forms of Islamic and Christian faiths, combining their practices with traditional African beliefs.
What infection has a very small prevalence in Guinea-Bissau?
56f8e59e9b226e1400dd11a6
HIV
18
False
What percentage of the adult population has an HIV-infection?
56f8e59e9b226e1400dd11a7
1.8%
62
False
How many HIV-infected pregnant women receive retroviral coverage?
56f8e59e9b226e1400dd11a8
20%
73
False
What does retroviral coverage help prevent?
56f8e59e9b226e1400dd11a9
transmission to newborns
148
False
Who receives retroviral coverage?
56f8e59e9b226e1400dd11aa
infected pregnant women
80
False
The prevalence of HIV-infection among the adult population is 1.8%. Only 20% of infected pregnant women receive anti retroviral coverage to prevent transmission to newborns.
What kills more residents than AIDS?
56f8e6839e9bad19000a06ca
Malaria
0
False
What percentage of the population has Malaria?
56f8e6839e9bad19000a06cb
9%
30
False
How many more deaths does malaria cause vs. AIDS?
56f8e6839e9bad19000a06cc
three times as many
86
False
How many children under five slept under antimalaria nets in 2008?
56f8e6839e9bad19000a06cd
fewer than half
131
False
What type of drugs did many young children not have access to in 2008?
56f8e6839e9bad19000a06ce
antimalarial
223
False
Malaria kills more residents; 9% of the population have reported infection, It causes three times as many deaths as AIDS. In 2008, fewer than half of children younger than five slept under antimalaria nets or had access to antimalarial drugs.
What type of disease was reported to be on the rise in Guinea-Bissau?
56f8e7679e9bad19000a06de
cholera
49
False
How many died from cholera in a November 2012 report?
56f8e7679e9bad19000a06df
nine
143
False
How many died from cholera in a 2008 epidemic?
56f8e7679e9bad19000a06e0
225
231
False
Where are there reported cholera rates that are lowering?
56f8e7679e9bad19000a06e1
surrounding countries
26
False
How many people were affected by the 2008 cholera epidemic?
56f8e7679e9bad19000a06e2
14,222
206
False
Despite lowering rates in surrounding countries, cholera rates were reported in November 2012 to be on the rise, with 1,500 cases reported and nine deaths. A 2008 cholera epidemic in Guinea-Bissau affected 14,222 people and killed 225.
What was the 2010 maternal mortality rate per 100,000 births?
56f8edb59e9bad19000a070e
1000
74
False
What was the 1990 maternal mortality rate per 100,000 births?
56f8edb59e9bad19000a070f
966
117
False
How many midwives are listed per 1,000 live births?
56f8edb59e9bad19000a0710
3
307
False
How many pregnant women die as a result of pregnancy?
56f8edb59e9bad19000a0711
one out of eighteen
310
False
According to UNICEF, what percentage of women in Guinea-Bissau had undergone female genital mutilation?
56f8edb59e9bad19000a0712
50%
410
False
The 2010 maternal mortality rate per 100,000 births for Guinea Bissau was 1000. This compares with 804.3 in 2008 and 966 in 1990. The under 5 mortality rate, per 1,000 births, was 195 and the neonatal mortality as a percentage of under 5's mortality was 24. The number of midwives per 1,000 live births was 3; one out of eighteen pregnant women die as a result of pregnancy. According to a 2013 UNICEF report, 50% of women in Guinea Bissau had undergone female genital mutilation. In 2010, Guinea Bissau had the 7th highest maternal mortality rate in the world.
What are the ages when education is compulsory?
56f8ee329e9bad19000a0718
7 to 13
40
False
What gender has a higher enrollment?
56f8ee329e9bad19000a0719
boys
67
False
What was the gross primary enrollment rate in 1998?
56f8ee329e9bad19000a071a
53.5%
149
False
What was the gross primary enrollment rate for males?
56f8ee329e9bad19000a071b
67.7%
196
False
What was the gross primary enrollment rate for females?
56f8ee329e9bad19000a071c
40%
224
False
Education is compulsory from the age of 7 to 13. The enrollment of boys is higher than that of girls. In 1998, the gross primary enrollment rate was 53.5%, with higher enrollment ratio for males (67.7%) compared to females (40%).
What type of secondary schools does Guinea-Bissau have?
56f8eee09e9bad19000a0722
general as well as technical
45
False
What institutions have added a Faculty of Law?
56f8eee09e9bad19000a0723
universities
91
False
What institutions have added a Faculty of Medicine?
56f8eee09e9bad19000a0724
universities
91
False
What two words are used to describe the Faculty of Law and Faculty of Medicine?
56f8eee09e9bad19000a0725
institutionally autonomous
117
False
Guinea-Bissau has several secondary schools (general as well as technical) and a number of universities, to which an institutionally autonomous Faculty of Law as well as a Faculty of Medicine have been added.
What music genre is usually associated with Guinea-Bissau?
56f8efcd9e9bad19000a0733
gumbe
71
False
What is considered the country's primary musical export?
56f8efcd9e9bad19000a0734
the polyrhythmic gumbe genre
54
False
What major factor has kept gumbe out of mainstream audiences?
56f8efcd9e9bad19000a0735
civil unrest
131
False
What other type of countries has gumbe been kept out of?
56f8efcd9e9bad19000a0736
generally syncretist African countries
261
False
The music of Guinea-Bissau is usually associated with the polyrhythmic gumbe genre, the country's primary musical export. However, civil unrest and other factors have combined over the years to keep gumbe, and other genres, out of mainstream audiences, even in generally syncretist African countries.
What is the primary instrument of Guinea-Bissau?
56f8f0c39b226e1400dd11da
The calabash
0
False
What type of music is the calabash used in?
56f8f0c39b226e1400dd11db
extremely swift and rhythmically complex dance music
80
False
What language are lyrics typically sung in?
56f8f0c39b226e1400dd11dc
Guinea-Bissau Creole
162
False
What do typical song lyrics revolve around?
56f8f0c39b226e1400dd11dd
current events and controversies
273
False
What is the main controversy found in song lyrics?
56f8f0c39b226e1400dd11de
AIDS
318
False
The calabash is the primary musical instrument of Guinea-Bissau, and is used in extremely swift and rhythmically complex dance music. Lyrics are almost always in Guinea-Bissau Creole, a Portuguese-based creole language, and are often humorous and topical, revolving around current events and controversies, especially AIDS.
What is sometimes used as a generic word for any music of Guinea-Bissau?
56f8f22f9e9bad19000a0753
gumbe
9
False
Gumbe fuses how many of the country's folk music traditions?
56f8f22f9e9bad19000a0754
about ten
150
False
Other than gumbe, what are two popular music genres?
56f8f22f9e9bad19000a0755
Tina and tinga
200
False
What sound comes from the Bissagos Islands?
56f8f22f9e9bad19000a0756
kundere
412
False
What type of tradition includes ceremonial music used in funerals?
56f8f22f9e9bad19000a0757
folk
254
False
The word gumbe is sometimes used generically, to refer to any music of the country, although it most specifically refers to a unique style that fuses about ten of the country's folk music traditions. Tina and tinga are other popular genres, while extent folk traditions include ceremonial music used in funerals, initiations and other rituals, as well as Balanta brosca and kussundé, Mandinga djambadon, and the kundere sound of the Bissagos Islands.
What grain is a staple for residents near the coast of Guinea-Bissau?
56f8f3129e9bad19000a0763
Rice
0
False
What grain is a staple for residents in the interior of Guinea-Bissau?
56f8f3129e9bad19000a0764
millet
61
False
Who encouraged peanut production in Guinea-Bissau?
56f8f3129e9bad19000a0765
The Portuguese
199
False
What type of oil is harvested?
56f8f3129e9bad19000a0766
Palm
385
False
What kind of pea is part of the diet in Guinea-Bissau?
56f8f3129e9bad19000a0767
Black-eyed peas
342
False
Rice is a staple in the diet of residents near the coast and millet a staple in the interior. Fish, shellfish, fruits and vegetables are commonly eaten along with cereal grains, milk, curd and whey. The Portuguese encouraged peanut production. Vigna subterranea (Bambara groundnut) and Macrotyloma geocarpum (Hausa groundnut) are also grown. Black-eyed peas are also part of the diet. Palm oil is harvested.
What are common dishes in Guinea-Bissau?
56f8f3b79b226e1400dd11ee
soups and stews
22
False
What are common ingredients in Guinea-Bissau?
56f8f3b79b226e1400dd11ef
yams, sweet potato, cassava, onion, tomato and plantain
66
False
What are spices, peppers and chilis used in?
56f8f3b79b226e1400dd11f0
cooking
162
False
What is another name for Guinea pepper?
56f8f3b79b226e1400dd11f1
Aframomum melegueta seeds
181
False
What are Guinea peppers used in?
56f8f3b79b226e1400dd11f2
cooking
162
False
Common dishes include soups and stews. Common ingredients include yams, sweet potato, cassava, onion, tomato and plantain. Spices, peppers and chilis are used in cooking, including Aframomum melegueta seeds (Guinea pepper).
Who is an internationally renowned film director from Guinea-Bissau?
56f8f4f49b226e1400dd11f8
Flora Gomes
0
False
What is Flora Gomes' most famous film?
56f8f4f49b226e1400dd11f9
Nha Fala (English: My Voice)
82
False
What year was the first feature film made in Guinea-Bissau?
56f8f4f49b226e1400dd11fa
1987
303
False
Who directed the first feature film in Guinea-Bissau?
56f8f4f49b226e1400dd11fb
Umban u’Kest
287
False
What prize did the film Mortu Nega win?
56f8f4f49b226e1400dd11fc
Oumarou Ganda Prize
358
False
Flora Gomes is an internationally renowned film director; his most famous film is Nha Fala (English: My Voice). Gomes's Mortu Nega (Death Denied) (1988) was the first fiction film and the second feature film ever made in Guinea-Bissau. (The first feature film was N’tturudu, by director Umban u’Kest in 1987.) At FESPACO 1989, Mortu Nega won the prestigious Oumarou Ganda Prize. Mortu Nega is in Creole with English subtitles. In 1992, Gomes directed Udju Azul di Yonta, which was screened in the Un Certain Regard section at the 1992 Cannes Film Festival. Gomes has also served on the boards of many Africa-centric film festivals.
List_of_numbered_streets_in_Manhattan
What is the grid plan aligned with rather than the cardinal directions?
56f8a91b9e9bad19000a027d
Hudson River
240
False
In this article, how many degrees north of true west is "West?"
56f8a91b9e9bad19000a027e
29
319
False
Does this article cover east-west or north-south streets?
56f8a91b9e9bad19000a027f
east-west
29
False
Which streets have their own linked articles?
56f8a91b9e9bad19000a0280
Major streets
76
False
This article covers numbered east-west streets in Manhattan, New York City. Major streets have their own linked articles; minor streets are discussed here. The streets do not run exactly east–west, because the grid plan is aligned with the Hudson River rather than with the cardinal directions. "West" is approximately 29 degrees north of true west.
Which streets are one-way eastbound?
56f8a9959e9bad19000a028f
even-numbered
58
False
Odd-numbered streets are one-way in which direction?
56f8a9959e9bad19000a0290
west
139
False
Do most wide streets carry one-way or two-way traffic?
56f8a9959e9bad19000a0291
two-way
203
False
The numbered streets carry crosstown traffic. In general, even-numbered streets are one-way eastbound and odd-numbered streets are one-way west. Several exceptions reverse this. Most wider streets carry two-way traffic, as do a few of the narrow ones.
What happens at Broadway below 8th Street?
56f8aa3e9b226e1400dd0da1
Streets' names change
0
False
What happens at Fifth Avenue from 8th street and above?
56f8aa3e9b226e1400dd0da2
Streets' names change
0
False
Do streets' names change from West to East or North to South?
56f8aa3e9b226e1400dd0da3
West to East
27
False
Streets' names change from West to East (for instance, East 10th Street to West 10th Street) at Broadway below 8th Street, and at Fifth Avenue from 8th Street and above.
The grid covers the length of the island from what starting point?
56f8aaba9b226e1400dd0dad
14th Street north
378
False
Which street do numbered streets begin just north of?
56f8aaba9b226e1400dd0dae
East Houston Street
50
False
In what village is East Houston Street located?
56f8aaba9b226e1400dd0daf
East Village
77
False
Which Village already had streets when the grid plan was laid out?
56f8aaba9b226e1400dd0db0
Greenwich Village
130
False
Who laid out the Grid Plan?
56f8aaba9b226e1400dd0db1
Commissioners' Plan of 1811
214
False
Although the numbered streets begin just north of East Houston Street in the East Village, they generally do not extend west into Greenwich Village, which already had streets when the grid plan was laid out by the Commissioners' Plan of 1811. Streets that do continue farther west change direction before reaching the Hudson River. The grid covers the length of the island from 14th Street north.
What is the highest numbered street on Manhattan Island?
56f8ab739e9bad19000a02a5
220th Street
0
False
What is the highest street number within the borough of Manhattan?
56f8ab739e9bad19000a02a6
228
165
False
What is the highest street number in the Bronx?
56f8ab739e9bad19000a02a7
263
231
False
Where is First Place located?
56f8ab739e9bad19000a02a8
Battery Park City
363
False
Where is East First Street located?
56f8ab739e9bad19000a02a9
Alphabet City
298
False
220th Street is the highest numbered street on Manhattan Island. Marble Hill is also within the borough of Manhattan, so the highest street number in the borough is 228th Street. However, the numbering continues in the Bronx up to 263rd Street. The lowest number is East First Street—which runs in Alphabet City near East Houston Street—as well as First Place in Battery Park City.
What is the spot where the grid takes hold called?
56f8ac249b226e1400dd0dc7
Peretz Square
94
False
What shape is the sliver park where Houston Street, First Street, and First Avenue meet?
56f8ac249b226e1400dd0dc8
triangular
117
False
Which street begins just North of East Houston Street at Avenue A?
56f8ac249b226e1400dd0dc9
East 1st Street
0
False
East 1st Street begins just North of East Houston Street at Avenue A and continues to where?
56f8ac249b226e1400dd0dca
Bowery
86
False
East 1st Street begins just North of East Houston Street at Avenue A and continues to Bowery. Peretz Square, a small triangular sliver park where Houston Street, First Street and First Avenue meet marks the spot where the grid takes hold.
East 6th Street continues further Eastward and connects to which Drive?
56f8ad589e9bad19000a02d3
FDR
231
False
Where is the East end of East 3rd, 4th, 5th, and 7th Streets?
56f8ad589e9bad19000a02d4
Avenue D
154
False
Which Avenue is the starting location for East 2nd Street?
56f8ad589e9bad19000a02d5
C
67
False
Which street begins just North of East Huston Street and continues to Bowery?
56f8ad589e9bad19000a02d6
East 2nd Street
0
False
East 2nd Street begins just North of East Houston Street at Avenue C and also continues to Bowery. The East end of East 3rd, 4th, 5th, and 7th Streets is Avenue D, with East 6th Street continuing further Eastward and connecting to FDR Drive.
What name did 3rd Street previously hold?
56f8adc19b226e1400dd0de5
Amity Place
90
False
Which village do 3rd and 4th Street extend into?
56f8adc19b226e1400dd0de6
Greenwich
201
False
Which street connects East 3rd to West 3rd?
56f8adc19b226e1400dd0de7
Great Jones
220
False
The west end of these streets is Third Avenue and where?
56f8adc19b226e1400dd0de8
Bowery
33
False
The west end of these streets is Bowery and Third Avenue, except for 3rd Street (formerly Amity Place; to Sixth Avenue) and 4th Street (to 13th Street), which extend west and north, respectively, into Greenwich Village. Great Jones Street connects East 3rd to West 3rd.
Which Apartments interrupt East 5th Street between First Avenue and Avenue A?
56f92c0f9e9bad19000a07f1
Village View
172
False
What is the Public School number that interrupts East 5th Street?
56f92c0f9e9bad19000a07f2
364
122
False
Which school interrupts East 5th Street?
56f92c0f9e9bad19000a07f3
The Earth School
90
False
East 5th Street goes west to what stopping point?
56f92c0f9e9bad19000a07f4
Cooper Square
29
False
East 5th Street goes west to Cooper Square, but is interrupted between Avenues B and C by The Earth School, Public School 364, and between First Avenue and Avenue A by the Village View Apartments.
West 8th Street is an important local street for what activity?
56f92d799b226e1400dd1268
shopping
211
False
8th Street between Avenue A and Third Avenue is called what?
56f92d799b226e1400dd1269
St Mark's Place
283
False
Where do 8th and 9th Streets begin?
56f92d799b226e1400dd126a
Avenue D
61
False
Where do 8th and 9th Streets end?
56f92d799b226e1400dd126b
Sixth Avenue
159
False
Which park interrupts 8th and 9th Street at Avenue B?
56f92d799b226e1400dd126c
Tompkins Square Park
86
False
8th and 9th Streets run parallel to each other, beginning at Avenue D, interrupted by Tompkins Square Park at Avenue B, resuming at Avenue A and continuing to Sixth Avenue. West 8th Street is an important local shopping street. 8th Street between Avenue A and Third Avenue is called St Mark's Place, but it is counted in the length below.
Which bus operates on 10th Street between Avenues D and A and between West Street and Sixth Ave?
56f92e7b9b226e1400dd1272
M8
413
False
Does the two-way section of 10th Street have a dedicated bike lane?
56f92e7b9b226e1400dd1273
no
763
False
The end of what road was once home to Newgate Prison?
56f92e7b9b226e1400dd1274
West 10th Street
866
False
Which prison was New York City's first?
56f92e7b9b226e1400dd1275
Newgate Prison
928
False
What was the name of the United States' second prison?
56f92e7b9b226e1400dd1276
Newgate Prison
928
False
10th Street (40°44′03″N 74°00′11″W﻿ / ﻿40.7342580°N 74.0029670°W﻿ / 40.7342580; -74.0029670) begins at the FDR Drive and Avenue C. West of Sixth Avenue, it turns southward about 40 degrees to join the Greenwich Village street grid and continue to West Street on the Hudson River. Because West 4th Street turns northward at Sixth Avenue, it intersects 10th, 11th and 12th and 13th Streets in the West Village. The M8 bus operates on 10th Street in both directions between Avenue D and Avenue A, and eastbound between West Street and Sixth Avenue. 10th Street has an eastbound bike lane from West Street to the East River. In 2009, the two-way section of 10th Street between Avenue A and the East River had bicycle markings and sharrows installed, but it still has no dedicated bike lane. West 10th Street was previously named Amos Street for Richard Amos. The end of West 10th Street toward the Hudson River was once the home of Newgate Prison, New York City's first prison and the United States' second.
Which street runs from Broadway to West Street?
56f930029b226e1400dd127c
West 11th Street
202
False
When was the Old Grapevine tavern demolished?
56f930029b226e1400dd127d
early 20th century
366
False
11th Street and 6th Avenue was the home of what tavern from the 1700s?
56f930029b226e1400dd127e
Old Grapevine
305
False
What church interuppts 11th Street between Broadway and Fourth Avenue?
56f930029b226e1400dd127f
Grace Church
71
False
11th Street is in two parts. It is interrupted by the block containing Grace Church between Broadway and Fourth Avenue. East 11th streets runs from Fourth Avenue to Avenue C and runs past Webster Hall. West 11th Street runs from Broadway to West Street. 11th Street and 6th Avenue was the location of the Old Grapevine tavern from the 1700s to its demolition in the early 20th century.
13th Street is divided into how many parts?
56f9313f9b226e1400dd1284
three
18
False
The first part of 13th Street is a dead end from which Avenue?
56f9313f9b226e1400dd1285
C
67
False
Where does the second part of 13th Street end?
56f9313f9b226e1400dd1286
Greenwich Avenue
137
False
Which street has its third section between Eighth Avenue and Tenth Avenue?
56f9313f9b226e1400dd1287
13th Street
0
False
13th Street is in three parts. The first is a dead end from Avenue C. The second starts at a dead end, just before Avenue B, and runs to Greenwich Avenue, and the third part is from Eighth Avenue to Tenth Avenue.
Where does 14th Street begin?
56f933959b226e1400dd128c
Avenue C
65
False
Where does 14th Street end?
56f933959b226e1400dd128d
West Street
86
False
How many subway stations are on 14th Street?
56f933959b226e1400dd128e
six
137
False
What is the length of 14th Street in miles?
56f933959b226e1400dd128f
2.1
121
False
14th Street is a main numbered street in Manhattan. It begins at Avenue C and ends at West Street. Its length is 3.4 km (2.1 mi). It has six subway stations:
Where does 15th Street start?
56f9347d9e9bad19000a0803
FDR Drive
22
False
Which road starts at a dead end half way between FDR Drive and Avenue C?
56f9347d9e9bad19000a0804
16th Street
37
False
16th Street pauses at which Square?
56f9347d9e9bad19000a0805
Stuyvesant
254
False
Which Square stops both 15th and 16th Streets?
56f9347d9e9bad19000a0806
Union Square
209
False
15th Street starts at FDR Drive, and 16th Street starts at a dead end half way between FDR Drive and Avenue C. They are both stopped at Avenue C and continue from First Avenue to West Street, stopped again at Union Square, and 16th Street also pauses at Stuyvesant Square.
What is unusual about the traffic between Broadway and Park Avenue South on 17th Street?
56f9357a9e9bad19000a080b
runs in both directions
226
False
Does traffic on 17th Street generally run one way or two ways?
56f9357a9e9bad19000a080c
one way
106
False
What was the job of the person who lived at 327 East 17th Street?
56f9357a9e9bad19000a080d
Composer
366
False
Where was Time Magazine started?
56f9357a9e9bad19000a080e
141 East 17th Street
650
False
What was Antonin Dvorak's New York home replaced with after it was demolished?
56f9357a9e9bad19000a080f
AIDS hospice
607
False
On 17th Street (40°44′08″N 73°59′12″W﻿ / ﻿40.735532°N 73.986575°W﻿ / 40.735532; -73.986575), traffic runs one way along the street, from east to west excepting the stretch between Broadway and Park Avenue South, where traffic runs in both directions. It forms the northern borders of both Union Square (between Broadway and Park Avenue South) and Stuyvesant Square. Composer Antonín Dvořák's New York home was located at 327 East 17th Street, near Perlman Place. The house was razed by Beth Israel Medical Center after it received approval of a 1991 application to demolish the house and replace it with an AIDS hospice. Time Magazine was started at 141 East 17th Street.
What is at the crossing of 18th Street and Seventh Avenue?
56f9367f9b226e1400dd1294
subway station
24
False
Which train line do the 1 2 trains serve?
56f9367f9b226e1400dd1295
IRT Broadway – Seventh Avenue Line
108
False
Which train line used to have an 18th Street Station at the crossing with Park Avenue South?
56f9367f9b226e1400dd1296
IRT Lexington Avenue Line
191
False
18th Street has a local subway station at the crossing with Seventh Avenue, served by the 1 2 trains on the IRT Broadway – Seventh Avenue Line. There used to be an 18th Street station on the IRT Lexington Avenue Line at the crossing with Park Avenue South.
Where does 10th Street start?
56f937b49b226e1400dd129a
Avenue C
22
False
At which Avenue do 21st and 22nd Streets begin?
56f937b49b226e1400dd129b
First
67
False
What is different about 20th Street between Avenue C and First Avenue?
56f937b49b226e1400dd129c
very wide
304
False
Which street is much wider from Avenue C to First Avenue?
56f937b49b226e1400dd129d
20th Street
289
False
How does traffic travel on the last block of the 20th, 21st, and 22nd Streets?
56f937b49b226e1400dd129e
in the opposite direction
214
False
20th Street starts at Avenue C, and 21st and 22nd Streets begin at First Avenue. They all end at Eleventh Avenue. Travel on the last block of the 20th, 21st and 22nd Streets, between Tenth and Eleventh Avenues, is in the opposite direction than it is on the rest of the respective street. 20th Street is very wide from the Avenue C to First Avenue.
Which Street is also known as Police Officer Anthony Sanchez Way?
56f938d29b226e1400dd12a4
21st Street
34
False
What is 21st Street known as along the northern perimeter of Gramercy Park?
56f938d29b226e1400dd12a5
Gramercy Park North
230
False
Between what avenues is 21st Street known by Police Officer Anthony Sanchez Way?
56f938d29b226e1400dd12a6
Second and Third Avenues
8
False
Which police officer does a section of 21st Street refer to?
56f938d29b226e1400dd12a7
Anthony Sanchez
87
False
Between Second and Third Avenues, 21st Street is alternatively known as Police Officer Anthony Sanchez Way. Along the northern perimeter of Gramercy Park, between Gramercy Park East and Gramercy Park West, 21st Street is known as Gramercy Park North.
Where does 23rd Street begin?
56f9396d9b226e1400dd12ac
FDR Drive
71
False
Where does 23rd Street end?
56f9396d9b226e1400dd12ad
Eleventh Avenue
93
False
What is the length of 23rd Street in kilometers?
56f9396d9b226e1400dd12ae
3.1 km
124
False
Does traffic move in one or two ways on 23rd Street?
56f9396d9b226e1400dd12af
two-way
144
False
How many local subway stations are on 23rd Street?
56f9396d9b226e1400dd12b0
five
185
False
23rd Street is another main numbered street in Manhattan. It begins at FDR Drive and ends at Eleventh Avenue. Its length is 3.1 km/1.9m. It has two-way travel. On 23rd Street there are five local subway stations:
Which street is a pedestrian plaza between Third Avenue and Lexington Avenue?
56f93cda9e9bad19000a0815
25th Street
127
False
Where does 24th street start?
56f93cda9e9bad19000a0816
First Avenue
51
False
Which park is at the end of 24th Street and Madison Avenue?
56f93cda9e9bad19000a0817
Madison Square Park
106
False
Where does 25th Street end?
56f93cda9e9bad19000a0818
Madison
263
False
After being interrupted, where do 24th and 25th Streets continue from?
56f93cda9e9bad19000a0819
Fifth Avenue
318
False
24th Street is in two parts. 24th Street starts at First Avenue and it ends at Madison Avenue, because of Madison Square Park. 25th Street, which is in three parts, starts at FDR Drive, is a pedestrian plaza between Third Avenue and Lexington Avenue, and ends at Madison. Then West 24th and 25th Streets continue from Fifth Avenue to Eleventh Avenue (25th) or Twelfth Avenue (24th).
Which street does Club Row occur on?
56f93d7d9b226e1400dd12b6
27th Street
0
False
Which strip is known for its numerous nightclubs and lounges?
56f93d7d9b226e1400dd12b7
Club Row
218
False
What is the strip of 27th Street between Tenth and Eleventh Avenues known as?
56f93d7d9b226e1400dd12b8
Club Row
218
False
Does traffuc on 27th Street run one-way or two-ways?
56f93d7d9b226e1400dd12b9
one-way
17
False
Where does 27th Street start?
56f93d7d9b226e1400dd12ba
Second Avenue
42
False
27th Street is a one-way street runs from Second Avenue to the West Side Highway with an interruption between Eighth Avenue and Tenth Avenue. It is most noted for its strip between Tenth and Eleventh Avenues, known as Club Row because it features numerous nightclubs and lounges.
How many blocks south of 27th Street is Manhattan's Meatpacking District?
56f93e359b226e1400dd12c0
fifteen blocks
132
False
Which businesses on 27th Street face competition from other venues in dowtown Manhattan?
56f93e359b226e1400dd12c1
nightclubs
21
False
What direction is Manhattan's Meatpacking District from West 27th Street?
56f93e359b226e1400dd12c2
south
147
False
In recent years, the nightclubs on West 27th Street have succumbed to stiff competition from Manhattan's Meatpacking District about fifteen blocks south, and other venues in downtown Manhattan.
The Fashion Institute of Technology is on the corner of 27th Street and what Avenue?
56f9409c9b226e1400dd12c6
Eighth
151
False
What year was the New York Life Building built?
56f9409c9b226e1400dd12c7
1928
294
False
Who designed the New York Life Building?
56f9409c9b226e1400dd12c8
Cass Gilbert
315
False
Which hospital is located at the end if 27th Street?
56f9409c9b226e1400dd12c9
Bellevue
472
False
Which park does 27th Street pass through between Ninth and Tenth Avenues?
56f9409c9b226e1400dd12ca
Chelsea
41
False
Heading east, 27th Street passes through Chelsea Park between Tenth and Ninth Avenues, with the Fashion Institute of Technology (FIT) on the corner of Eighth. On Madison Avenue between 26th and 27th streets, on the site of the old Madison Square Garden, is the New York Life Building, built in 1928 and designed by Cass Gilbert, with a square tower topped by a striking gilded pyramid. Twenty-Seventh Street passes one block north of Madison Square Park and culminates at Bellevue Hospital Center on First Avenue.
Where does 31st Street begin?
56f941eb9b226e1400dd12d0
West Side Yard
43
False
Which church is situated at 135-139 West 31st Street?
56f941eb9b226e1400dd12d1
Catholic church of St. Francis of Assisi
410
False
Who owned the building at 29 East 32nd Street between 1890 and 1917?
56f941eb9b226e1400dd12d2
Grolier Club
886
False
The corner of Broadway and West 31st Street is home to what business?
56f941eb9b226e1400dd12d3
Grand Hotel
661
False
Which religios center is located at 210 West?
56f941eb9b226e1400dd12d4
Capuchin Monastery of St. John the Baptist
511
False
31st Street begins on the West Side at the West Side Yard, while 32nd Street, which includes a segment officially known as Korea Way between Fifth Avenue and Broadway in Manhattan's Koreatown, begins at the entrance to Penn Station and Madison Square Garden. On the East Side, both streets end at Second Avenue at Kips Bay Towers and NYU Medical Center which occupy the area between 30th and 34th Streets. The Catholic church of St. Francis of Assisi is situated at 135–139 West 31st Street. At 210 West is the Capuchin Monastery of St. John the Baptist, part of St. John the Baptist Church on 30th Street. At the corner of Broadway and West 31st Street is the Grand Hotel. The former Hotel Pierrepont was located at 43 West 32nd Street, The Continental NYC tower is at the corner of Sixth Avenue and 32nd Street. 29 East 32nd Street was the location of the first building owned by the Grolier Club between 1890 and 1917.
Where does 35th Street begin?
56f9429c9b226e1400dd12da
FDR Drive
22
False
Where does 35th Street end?
56f9429c9b226e1400dd12db
Eleventh Avenue
35
False
On which street does LaptopMD headquarters sit?
56f9429c9b226e1400dd12dc
35th Street
0
False
On which street is the Jacob K. Javits Convention Center located?
56f9429c9b226e1400dd12dd
35th Street
0
False
Which street runs from FDR Drive to Eleventh Avenue?
56f9429c9b226e1400dd12de
35th Street
0
False
35th Street runs from FDR Drive to Eleventh Avenue. Notable locations include East River Ferry, LaptopMD headquarters, Mercy College Manhattan Campus, and Jacob K. Javits Convention Center.
What is the section of East 58th Street between Lexington and Second Avenues known as?
56f9453c9b226e1400dd12e4
Designers' Way
158
False
Which section of Eat 58th Street features high end interior design and decoration establishments?
56f9453c9b226e1400dd12e5
Designers' Way
158
False
Designers' Way occurs on East 58th Street between Lexington and which other Avenue?
56f9453c9b226e1400dd12e6
Second
131
False
A section of East 58th Street 40°45′40.3″N 73°57′56.9″W﻿ / ﻿40.761194°N 73.965806°W﻿ / 40.761194; -73.965806 between Lexington and Second Avenues is known as Designers' Way and features a number of high end interior design and decoration establishments, including
Which street begins at East Drive, at Engineers Gate of Central Park?
56f9461c9b226e1400dd12ea
East 90th Street
226
False
Which church is located on East 90th Street between Second and Third Avenue?
56f9461c9b226e1400dd12eb
Our Lady of Good Counsel Church
457
False
Which towers are located at 1601 and 1619 Third Avenue?
56f9461c9b226e1400dd12ec
Ruppert Towers
584
False
What is located on East 90th Street between York Avenue and East End Avenue?
56f9461c9b226e1400dd12ed
Asphalt Green
646
False
90th Street is split into two segments. The first segment, West 90th Street begins at Riverside Drive and ends at Central Park West or West Drive, when it is open, in Central Park on the Upper West Side. The second segment of East 90th Street begins at East Drive, at Engineers Gate of Central Park. When East Drive is closed, East 90th Street begins at Fifth Avenue on the Upper East Side and curves to the right at the FDR Drive becoming East End Avenue. Our Lady of Good Counsel Church, is located on East 90th Street between Third Avenue and Second Avenue, across the street from Ruppert Towers (1601 and 1619 Third Avenue) and Ruppert Park. Asphalt Green, which is located on East 90th Street between York Avenue and East End Avenue.
Where does 112th Street start?
56f948989b226e1400dd12f2
Morningside Heights
23
False
Which street runs from Riverside Drive to Amsterdam Avenue?
56f948989b226e1400dd12f3
112th Street
0
False
Which road meets the steps of the Cathedral of Saint John the Divine?
56f948989b226e1400dd12f4
112th Street
0
False
112th Street starts in Morningside Heights and runs from Riverside Drive to Amsterdam Avenue, where it meets the steps of the Cathedral of Saint John the Divine. The street resumes at the eastern edge of Morningside Park and extends through Harlem before ending at First Avenue adjacent Thomas Jefferson Park in East Harlem. Notable locations include:
Which library is Columbia University's largest?
56f949339e9bad19000a081f
Butler Library
116
False
114th Street marks the southern boundary of which university's Morningside Heights Campus?
56f949339e9bad19000a0820
Columbia University
44
False
114th Street runs along which boundary of Columbia University's Morningside Heights Campus?
56f949339e9bad19000a0821
southern
23
False
114th Street marks the southern boundary of Columbia University’s Morningside Heights Campus and is the location of Butler Library, which is the University’s largest.
On which street is a private indoor pedestrian bridge between Amsterdam Avenue and Morningside Drive?
56f94b2d9b226e1400dd12f8
114th Street
6
False
Aove 114th Street is a private pedestrian bridge connecting two buildings from what organization?
56f94b2d9b226e1400dd12f9
St. Luke's–Roosevelt Hospital Center
153
False
A bridge connecting two of St. Luke's-Roosevelt Hospital Center's buildings crosses above which road?
56f94b2d9b226e1400dd12fa
114th Street
6
False
Above 114th Street between Amsterdam Avenue and Morningside Drive, there is a private indoor pedestrian bridge connecting two buildings on the campus of St. Luke's–Roosevelt Hospital Center.
On which road does 120th Street begin?
56f94c019b226e1400dd12fe
Riverside Drive
173
False
The Interchurch Center is the start of which street?
56f94c019b226e1400dd12ff
120th Street
67
False
Morningside Park interrupts which street?
56f94c019b226e1400dd1300
120th Street
67
False
Who formerly lived at 58 West?
56f94c019b226e1400dd1301
Maya Angelou
589
False
120th Street turns into Paladino Avenue and into a pedestrian bridge across what road?
56f94c019b226e1400dd1302
FDR Drive
862
False
40°48′27″N 73°57′18″W﻿ / ﻿40.8076°N 73.9549°W﻿ / 40.8076; -73.9549 120th Street traverses the neighborhoods of Morningside Heights, Harlem, and Spanish Harlem. It begins on Riverside Drive at the Interchurch Center. It then runs east between the campuses of Barnard College and the Union Theological Seminary, then crosses Broadway and runs between the campuses of Columbia University and Teacher's College. The street is interrupted by Morningside Park. It then continues east, eventually running along the southern edge of Marcus Garvey Park, passing by 58 West, the former residence of Maya Angelou. It then continues through Spanish Harlem; when it crosses Pleasant Avenue it becomes a two‑way street and continues nearly to the East River, where for automobiles, it turns north and becomes Paladino Avenue, and for pedestrians, continues as a bridge across FDR Drive.
Which memorial park divides 122nd Street?
56f9551e9e9bad19000a082f
Marcus Garvey
194
False
Which park divides 122nd Street along with Marcus Garvey Memorial Park?
56f9551e9e9bad19000a0830
Morningside Park
226
False
How many segments is 122nd Street divided into?
56f9551e9e9bad19000a0831
three
96
False
Are 122nd Street's three segments contiguous or noncontiguous?
56f9551e9e9bad19000a0832
noncontiguous
102
False
40°48′32″N 73°57′14″W﻿ / ﻿40.8088°N 73.9540°W﻿ / 40.8088; -73.9540 122nd Street is divided into three noncontiguous segments, E 122nd Street, W 122nd Street, and W 122nd Street Seminary Row, by Marcus Garvey Memorial Park and Morningside Park.
How many blocks west of Second Avenue does E 122nd Street run?
56f956209b226e1400dd134c
four
20
False
At which park does E 122nd Street end?
56f956209b226e1400dd134d
Marcus Garvey Memorial Park
153
False
At which intersection does E 122nd Street terminate?
56f956209b226e1400dd134e
Madison Avenue
135
False
What is another name for Fourth Avenue?
56f956209b226e1400dd134f
Park
268
False
A segment of what road crosses portions of Third Avenue, Lexington, and Park and runs in East Harlem?
56f956209b226e1400dd1350
E 122nd Street
0
False
E 122nd Street runs four blocks (2,250 feet (690 m)) west from the intersection of Second Avenue and terminates at the intersection of Madison Avenue at Marcus Garvey Memorial Park. This segment runs in East Harlem and crosses portions of Third Avenue, Lexington, and Park (Fourth Avenue).
At which intersection does W 122nd Street terminate?
56f957d89e9bad19000a0853
Morningside Avenue
176
False
At which park does W 122nd Street end?
56f957d89e9bad19000a0854
Morningside Park
198
False
How many blocks west from the intersection of Mount Morris Park does W 122nd Street run?
56f957d89e9bad19000a0855
six
20
False
Through which historical district does W 122nd Street run?
56f957d89e9bad19000a0856
Mount Morris
241
False
What is an alternative name for Sixth Avenue?
56f957d89e9bad19000a0857
Lenox Avenue
298
False
W 122nd Street runs six blocks (3,280 feet (1,000 m)) west from the intersection of Mount Morris Park West at Marcus Garvey Memorial Park and terminates at the intersection of Morningside Avenue at Morningside Park. This segment runs in the Mount Morris Historical District and crosses portions of Lenox Avenue (Sixth Avenue), Seventh Avenue, Frederick Douglass Boulevard (Eighth Avenue), and Manhattan Avenue.
What is another name for Tenth Avenue?
56f95f549b226e1400dd13cc
Amsterdam Avenue
97
False
At which intersection does W 122nd Street end?
56f95f549b226e1400dd13cd
Riverside Drive
167
False
What is another name for Ninth Avenue?
56f95f549b226e1400dd13ce
Morningside Drive
270
False
Which district surrounds Columbia University?
56f95f549b226e1400dd13cf
Morningside Heights
325
False
W 122nd Street Seminary Row runs three blocks (1,500 feet (460 m)) west from the intersection of Amsterdam Avenue (Tenth Avenue) and terminates at the intersection of Riverside Drive. East of Amsterdam, Seminary Row bends south along Morningside Park and is resigned as Morningside Drive (Ninth Avenue). Seminary row runs in Morningside Heights, the district surrounding Columbia University, and crosses portions of Broadway and Claremont Avenue.
Besides the Union Theological Seminary, which other Seminary touches Seminary Row?
56f9613f9b226e1400dd13f2
Jewish Theological
65
False
Other than the Jewish Theological Seminary, which other Seminary touches Seminary Row?
56f9613f9b226e1400dd13f3
Union Theological
30
False
Which road runs by two Seminaries, the Manhattan School of Music, Riverside Church, and Grant's Tomb?
56f9613f9b226e1400dd13f4
Seminary Row
0
False
Seminary Row is named for the Union Theological Seminary and the Jewish Theological Seminary which it touches. Seminary Row also runs by the Manhattan School of Music, Riverside Church, Sakura Park, Grant's Tomb, and Morningside Park.
Who is the main character in Taxi Driver?
56f968aa9e9bad19000a08d7
Travis Bickle
69
False
What street is mentioned in the movie Taxi Driver as the location where a cab driver is assaulted?
56f968aa9e9bad19000a08d8
122nd Street
0
False
Which character in Taxi Driver deemed 122nd Street as "Mau Mau Land"?
56f968aa9e9bad19000a08d9
Wizard
271
False
What is the term given to 122nd Street by Wizard in Taxi Driver indicating the area is majority black?
56f968aa9e9bad19000a08da
"Mau Mau Land"
229
False
Which neighborhood surrounds 122nd Street?
56f968aa9e9bad19000a08db
Harlem
199
False
122nd Street is mentioned in the movie Taxi Driver by main character Travis Bickle as the location where a fellow cab driver is assaulted with a knife. The street and the surrounding neighborhood of Harlem is then referred to as "Mau Mau Land" by another character named Wizard, slang indicating it is a majority black area.
Which street in West Harlem runs just two blocks between Amersterdam Avenue and Claremont Avenue?
56f96a6f9b226e1400dd141a
La Salle Street
65
False
La Salle Street runs between Amsterdam Avenue and which other Avenue?
56f96a6f9b226e1400dd141b
Claremont
163
False
In which neighborhood does La Salle Street run?
56f96a6f9b226e1400dd141c
West Harlem
96
False
Which street was swallowed up to make low income housing projects?
56f96a6f9b226e1400dd141d
125th Street
276
False
Which street is the only area left of the routing onto old Manhattan Avenue?
56f96a6f9b226e1400dd141e
La Salle Street
403
False
40°48′47″N 73°57′27″W﻿ / ﻿40.813°N 73.9575°W﻿ / 40.813; -73.9575 La Salle Street is a street in West Harlem that runs just two blocks between Amsterdam Avenue and Claremont Avenue. West of Convent Avenue, 125th Street was re-routed onto the old Manhattan Avenue. The original 125th Street west of Convent Avenue was swallowed up to make the super-blocks where the low income housing projects now exist. La Salle Street is the only vestige of the original routing.
There is a small stretch of what road between Broadway and Twelfth Avenue?
56f96cf39b226e1400dd142c
West 132nd Street
463
False
The main portion of what road runs eastbound from Frederick Douglass Boulevard to Park Avenue?
56f96cf39b226e1400dd142d
132nd Street
199
False
On what Avenue is a southbound exit and entrance to the Harlem River Drive?
56f96cf39b226e1400dd142e
Park Avenue
280
False
West 132nd Street is interrupted by St. Nicholas Park and which college?
56f96cf39b226e1400dd142f
City College
415
False
West 132nd Street is interrupted by City College and which park?
56f96cf39b226e1400dd1430
St. Nicholas Park
393
False
40°48′52″N 73°56′53″W﻿ / ﻿40.814583°N 73.947944°W﻿ / 40.814583; -73.947944 132nd Street runs east-west above Central Park and is located in Harlem just south of Hamilton Heights. The main portion of 132nd Street runs eastbound from Frederick Douglass Boulevard to northern end of Park Avenue where there is a southbound exit from/entrance to the Harlem River Drive. After an interruption from St. Nicholas Park and City College, there is another small stretch of West 132nd Street between Broadway and Twelfth Avenue
Who takes care of the 132nd Street Community Garden?
56f96df19b226e1400dd1436
local residents
456
False
The 132nd Street Community Garden is located between Malcom X Boulevard and what other Boulevard?
56f96df19b226e1400dd1437
Adam Clayton Powell Jr.
69
False
In which year did the garden receive a makover with a water distribution system?
56f96df19b226e1400dd1438
1997
131
False
Who funded the 132nd Street Community Garden's water distribution system?
56f96df19b226e1400dd1439
Borough President's office
177
False
How much did the 132nd Street Community Garden's water distribution system cost?
56f96df19b226e1400dd143a
$100,000
233
False
The 132nd Street Community Garden is located on 132nd Street between Adam Clayton Powell Jr. Boulevard and Malcolm X Boulevard. In 1997, the lot received a garden makeover; the Borough President's office funded the installation of a $100,000 water distribution system that keeps the wide variety of trees green. The garden also holds a goldfish pond and several benches. The spirit of the neighborhood lives in gardens like this one, planted and tended by local residents.
What is the 132nd Street Bus Depot currently known as?
56f96ea89e9bad19000a08f9
Manhattanville Bus Depot
4
False
What was the Manhattanville Bus Depot formerly known as?
56f96ea89e9bad19000a08fa
132nd Street Bus Depot
52
False
In which neighborhood is the Manhattanville Bus Depot?
56f96ea89e9bad19000a08fb
Manhattanville
162
False
The former 132nd Street Bus Depot is located between Broadway and what other drive in the Manhattanville neighborhood?
56f96ea89e9bad19000a08fc
Riverside Drive
139
False
The Manhattanville Bus Depot (formerly known as the 132nd Street Bus Depot) is located on West 132nd and 133rd Street between Broadway and Riverside Drive in the Manhattanville neighborhood.
How many crosstown streets are mapped in the Commissioner's Plan of 1811?
56f96f4f9b226e1400dd1440
155
142
False
Which street is the northernmost of the streets mapped in the Commissioner's Plan of 1811?
56f96f4f9b226e1400dd1441
155th Street
0
False
Which street forms the boundary between Harlem and Washington Heights?
56f96f4f9b226e1400dd1442
155th Street
0
False
What document established Manhattan's numbered street grid?
56f96f4f9b226e1400dd1443
Commissioner's Plan of 1811
182
False
155th Street forms the boundary between Harlem and what other neighborhood?
56f96f4f9b226e1400dd1444
Washington Heights
92
False
155th Street is a major crosstown street considered to form the boundary between Harlem and Washington Heights. It is the northernmost of the 155 crosstown streets mapped out in the Commissioner's Plan of 1811 that established the numbered street grid in Manhattan.
Where does 155th Street start?
56f970229e9bad19000a090f
Riverside Drive
40
False
155th Street crosses Broadway, Amsterdam Avenue, and what other Avenue?
56f970229e9bad19000a0910
St. Nicholas
97
False
How many meters long is the viaduct on which 155th Street travels?
56f970229e9bad19000a0911
490
217
False
In what year was the viaduct along 155th Street constructed?
56f970229e9bad19000a0912
1893
269
False
A section of 155th Street connects Harlem River Drive and what Avenue?
56f970229e9bad19000a0913
Bradhurst
507
False
155th Street starts on the West Side at Riverside Drive, crossing Broadway, Amsterdam Avenue and St. Nicholas Avenue. At St. Nicholas Place, the terrain drops off steeply, and 155th Street is carried on a 1,600-foot (490 m) long viaduct, a City Landmark constructed in 1893, that slopes down towards the Harlem River, continuing onto the Macombs Dam Bridge, crossing over (but not intersecting with) the Harlem River Drive. A separate, unconnected section of 155th Street runs under the viaduct, connecting Bradhurst Avenue and the Harlem River Drive.
181st Street runs through what neighborhood?
56f970b39e9bad19000a0919
Washington Heights
57
False
What is the west end of 181st Street called?
56f970b39e9bad19000a091a
Plaza Lafayette
258
False
Does Plaza Lafayette refer to the east or west end of 181st Street?
56f970b39e9bad19000a091b
west
239
False
Which river does 181st Street run near?
56f970b39e9bad19000a091c
Hudson River
221
False
Which road runs from the Washington Bridge to the Henry Hudson Parkway?
56f970b39e9bad19000a091d
181st Street
0
False
181st Street is a major thoroughfare running through the Washington Heights neighborhood. It runs from the Washington Bridge in the east, to the Henry Hudson Parkway in the west, near the George Washington Bridge and the Hudson River. The west end is called Plaza Lafayette.
In which direction is 181st Street largely residential?
56f972499b226e1400dd1466
West
0
False
In which direction is 181st Street mostly commercial?
56f972499b226e1400dd1467
East
147
False
Which street marks the western boundary of the shopping distrit?
56f972499b226e1400dd1468
Fort Washington Avenue
155
False
Which river touches the major shopping district near 181st Street?
56f972499b226e1400dd1469
Harlem
343
False
West of Fort Washington Avenue, 181st Street is largely residential, bordering Hudson Heights and having a few shops to serve the local residents. East of Fort Washington Avenue, the street becomes increasingly commercial, becoming dominated entirely by retail stores where the street reaches Broadway and continues as such until reaching the Harlem River. It is the area's major shopping district.
How many subway lines serve 181st Street?
56f9760b9e9bad19000a0953
two
26
False
How many metres apart are 181st Street's two subway stations?
56f9760b9e9bad19000a0954
500
284
False
On what avenue is the George Wasington Bridge Bus Terminal?
56f9760b9e9bad19000a0955
Fort Washington Avenue
416
False
Which road is the Trans-Manhattan Expressway's last south/west exit?
56f9760b9e9bad19000a0956
181st Street
440
False
181st Street is served by two New York City Subway lines; there is a 181st Street station at Fort Washington Avenue on the IND Eighth Avenue Line (A trains) and a 181st Street station at St. Nicholas Avenue on the IRT Broadway – Seventh Avenue Line (1 trains). The stations are about 500 metres (550 yd) from each other and are not connected. The George Washington Bridge Bus Terminal is a couple of blocks south on Fort Washington Avenue. 181st Street is also the last south/west exit in New York on the Trans-Manhattan Expressway (I-95), just before crossing the George Washington Bridge to New Jersey.
187th Street runs from Laurel Hill Terrace in the east to which avenue in the west?
56f977969e9bad19000a0973
Chittenden Avenue
92
False
What is 187th Street interrupted by?
56f977969e9bad19000a0974
stairs
217
False
Where do the stairs interrupting 187th street lead to?
56f977969e9bad19000a0975
Broadway valley
270
False
An area of 187th Street serves as the main shopping district for which neighborhood?
56f977969e9bad19000a0976
Hudson Heights
386
False
187th Street crosses Washington Heights and running from Laurel Hill Terrace in the east to Chittenden Avenue in the west near the George Washington Bridge and Hudson River. The street is interrupted by a long set of stairs east of Fort Washington Avenue leading to the Broadway valley. West of there, it is mostly lined with store fronts and serves as a main shopping district for the Hudson Heights neighborhood.
Which is the eastmost intersection that 187th Street has?
56f978189e9bad19000a0981
Laurel Hill Terrace
49
False
Which is the westernmost intersection that 187th Street has?
56f978189e9bad19000a0982
Chittenden Avenue
251
False
Wadsworth Avenue is intersected by what street?
56f978189e9bad19000a0983
187th Street
0
False
187th Street intersects with, from East to West, Laurel Hill Terrace, Amsterdam Avenue, Audubon Avenue, St. Nicholas Avenue, Wadsworth Avenue, Broadway, Bennett Avenue, Overlook Terrace, Fort Washington Avenue, Pinehurst Avenue, Cabrini Boulevard and Chittenden Avenue.
Which school is located on Cabrini Boulevard?
56f978fb9b226e1400dd1484
P.S. 187
175
False
On what street is the Dombrov Shtiebel?
56f978fb9b226e1400dd1485
187th Street
25
False
Which University has a campus on 187th Street?
56f978fb9b226e1400dd1486
Yeshiva University
120
False
Cabrini Boulevard is just north of what street?
56f978fb9b226e1400dd1487
187th Street
245
False
On what street is the Mount Sinai Jewish Center?
56f978fb9b226e1400dd1488
187th Street
25
False
The many institutions on 187th Street include Mount Sinai Jewish Center, the Dombrov Shtiebel, and the uptown campus of Yeshiva University. The local public elementary school P.S. 187 is located on Cabrini Boulevard, just north of the eponymous 187th Street
Brain
What is the center of the nervous system in all creatures?
56f8b80e9e9bad19000a039d
The brain
0
False
What is the most complex organ in an animal's body?
56f8b80e9e9bad19000a039e
The brain
418
False
In people, how many neurons make up the cerebral cortex?
56f8b80e9e9bad19000a039f
15–33 billion
561
False
Neurons in the brain interact with each other by fibers called what?
56f8b80e9e9bad19000a03a0
axons
733
False
A few animals without spines that do not have a brain are what?
56f8b80e9e9bad19000a03a1
sponges, jellyfish, adult sea squirts
152
False
The brain is an organ that serves as the center of the nervous system in all vertebrate and most invertebrate animals. Only a few invertebrates such as sponges, jellyfish, adult sea squirts and starfish do not have a brain; diffuse or localised nerve nets are present instead. The brain is located in the head, usually close to the primary sensory organs for such senses as vision, hearing, balance, taste, and smell. The brain is the most complex organ in a vertebrate's body. In a typical human, the cerebral cortex (the largest part) is estimated to contain 15–33 billion neurons, each connected by synapses to several thousand other neurons. These neurons communicate with one another by means of long protoplasmic fibers called axons, which carry trains of signal pulses called action potentials to distant parts of the brain or body targeting specific recipient cells.
Hormones secreted are driven by what organ in the body?
56f8b9089e9bad19000a03af
The brain
110
False
What type of responsiveness can be used without a brain?
56f8b9089e9bad19000a03b0
reflexes
393
False
Reflexes only require one of what two structures in a body?
56f8b9089e9bad19000a03b1
spinal cord or peripheral ganglia
425
False
Physiologically, the function of the brain is to exert centralized control over the other organs of the body. The brain acts on the rest of the body both by generating patterns of muscle activity and by driving the secretion of chemicals called hormones. This centralized control allows rapid and coordinated responses to changes in the environment. Some basic types of responsiveness such as reflexes can be mediated by the spinal cord or peripheral ganglia, but sophisticated purposeful control of behavior based on complex sensory input requires the information integrating capabilities of a centralized brain.
Which part of a computer does the brain most resemble?
56f8bb559e9bad19000a03d9
central processing unit (CPU)
441
False
The operations of individual brain cells are now understood in considerable detail but the way they cooperate in ensembles of millions is yet to be solved. Recent models in modern neuroscience treat the brain as a biological computer, very different in mechanism from an electronic computer, but similar in the sense that it acquires information from the surrounding world, stores it, and processes it in a variety of ways, analogous to the central processing unit (CPU) in a computer.
Animals with a spine are called what?
56f8bbc59b226e1400dd0ecf
vertebrates
121
False
This article compares the properties of brains across the entire range of animal species, with the greatest attention to vertebrates. It deals with the human brain insofar as it shares the properties of other brains. The ways in which the human brain differs from other brains are covered in the human brain article. Several topics that might be covered here are instead covered there because much more can be said about them in a human context. The most important is brain disease and the effects of brain damage, covered in the human brain article because the most common diseases of the human brain either do not show up in other species, or else manifest themselves in different ways.
Animals without a spine are called what?
56f8bbf99e9bad19000a03e5
invertebrates
417
False
The shape and size of the brain varies greatly in different species, and identifying common features is often difficult. Nevertheless, there are a number of principles of brain architecture that apply across a wide range of species. Some aspects of brain structure are common to almost the entire range of animal species; others distinguish "advanced" brains from more primitive ones, or distinguish vertebrates from invertebrates.
The easiest way to learn about brain anatomy is by what?
56f8bd499e9bad19000a03ec
visual inspection
63
False
Brain tissue is naturally soft, but can be stiffened with what liquid?
56f8bd499e9bad19000a03ed
alcohol
241
False
The two main areas of the brain are what colors?
56f8bd499e9bad19000a03ee
grey matter, with a dark color, separated by areas of white matter
391
False
What instrument can you use to examine the microstructure of the brain?
56f8bd499e9bad19000a03ef
microscope
743
False
Grey matter of the brain is what color?
56f8bd499e9bad19000a03f0
dark color
411
False
The simplest way to gain information about brain anatomy is by visual inspection, but many more sophisticated techniques have been developed. Brain tissue in its natural state is too soft to work with, but it can be hardened by immersion in alcohol or other fixatives, and then sliced apart for examination of the interior. Visually, the interior of the brain consists of areas of so-called grey matter, with a dark color, separated by areas of white matter, with a lighter color. Further information can be gained by staining slices of brain tissue with a variety of chemicals that bring out areas where specific types of molecules are present in high concentrations. It is also possible to examine the microstructure of brain tissue using a microscope, and to trace the pattern of connections from one brain area to another.
Brains of organisms are made up mostly of what two classes of cells?
56f8be139e9bad19000a0400
neurons and glial cells
80
False
Glial cells are also referred to as what?
56f8be139e9bad19000a0401
glia or neuroglia
132
False
Which of the two broad classes of cells: neurons and glial cells send signals to other cells?
56f8be139e9bad19000a0402
neurons
80
False
Axons send signals that are named what?
56f8be139e9bad19000a0403
action potentials
1129
False
What is the typical speed that axons send their electrical signals?
56f8be139e9bad19000a0404
1–100 meters per second
1233
False
The brains of all species are composed primarily of two broad classes of cells: neurons and glial cells. Glial cells (also known as glia or neuroglia) come in several types, and perform a number of critical functions, including structural support, metabolic support, insulation, and guidance of development. Neurons, however, are usually considered the most important cells in the brain. The property that makes neurons unique is their ability to send signals to specific target cells over long distances. They send these signals by means of an axon, which is a thin protoplasmic fiber that extends from the cell body and projects, usually with numerous branches, to other areas, sometimes nearby, sometimes in distant parts of the brain or body. The length of an axon can be extraordinary: for example, if a pyramidal cell, (an excitatory neuron) of the cerebral cortex were magnified so that its cell body became the size of a human body, its axon, equally magnified, would become a cable a few centimeters in diameter, extending more than a kilometer. These axons transmit signals in the form of electrochemical pulses called action potentials, which last less than a thousandth of a second and travel along the axon at speeds of 1–100 meters per second. Some neurons emit action potentials constantly, at rates of 10–100 per second, usually in irregular patterns; other neurons are quiet most of the time, but occasionally emit a burst of action potentials.
Axons send signals to other neurons by junctions known as what?
56f8bead9e9bad19000a040a
synapses
81
False
The neurotansmitter binds to what of a target cell?
56f8bead9e9bad19000a040b
receptor molecules
347
False
An axon can connect to how many other cells?
56f8bead9e9bad19000a040c
several thousand
125
False
Axons transmit signals to other neurons by means of specialized junctions called synapses. A single axon may make as many as several thousand synaptic connections with other cells. When an action potential, traveling along an axon, arrives at a synapse, it causes a chemical called a neurotransmitter to be released. The neurotransmitter binds to receptor molecules in the membrane of the target cell.
How many synapses does the human brain supposedly contain?
56f8bf579b226e1400dd0f1b
100 trillion synapses;
241
False
The fruit fly has a brain that has how many synapses?
56f8bf579b226e1400dd0f1c
several million
303
False
A synapse whose purpose is to excite the target cell are called what?
56f8bf579b226e1400dd0f1d
excitatory
379
False
The primary job of the brain is what?
56f8bf579b226e1400dd0f1e
cell-to-cell communication
94
False
Synapses are the key functional elements of the brain. The essential function of the brain is cell-to-cell communication, and synapses are the points at which communication occurs. The human brain has been estimated to contain approximately 100 trillion synapses; even the brain of a fruit fly contains several million. The functions of these synapses are very diverse: some are excitatory (exciting the target cell); others are inhibitory; others work by activating second messenger systems that change the internal chemistry of their target cells in complex ways. A large number of synapses are dynamically modifiable; that is, they are capable of changing strength in a way that is controlled by the patterns of signals that pass through them. It is widely believed that activity-dependent modification of synapses is the brain's primary mechanism for learning and memory.
Axons grouped together are known as what?
56f8bfeb9b226e1400dd0f23
nerve fiber tracts
105
False
An axon that can greatly increase speed of signals is wrapped in what?
56f8bfeb9b226e1400dd0f24
sheath of myelin
176
False
Myelin is what color in the brain?
56f8bfeb9b226e1400dd0f25
white
307
False
Most of the space in the brain is made up of what structures?
56f8bfeb9b226e1400dd0f26
axons
46
False
Grey matter of the brain consist of lots of what?
56f8bfeb9b226e1400dd0f27
neuron cell bodies
501
False
Most of the space in the brain is taken up by axons, which are often bundled together in what are called nerve fiber tracts. A myelinated axon is wrapped in a fatty insulating sheath of myelin, which serves to greatly increase the speed of signal propagation. (There are also unmyelinated axons). Myelin is white, making parts of the brain filled exclusively with nerve fibers appear as light-colored white matter, in contrast to the darker-colored grey matter that marks areas with high densities of neuron cell bodies.
Creatures that have a diffuse nerve net are called what?
56f8c1999e9bad19000a042e
cnidarians
88
False
Bilaterians are animals that have what?
56f8c1999e9bad19000a042f
symmetric body shape
249
False
The Cambrian period was how long ago?
56f8c1999e9bad19000a0430
485-540 million years ago
465
False
A nerve cord with an enlargement is called what?
56f8c1999e9bad19000a0431
a ganglion
914
False
What type of creature has a ganglion at the back end of the nerve cord as well?
56f8c1999e9bad19000a0432
leeches
1198
False
Except for a few primitive organisms such as sponges (which have no nervous system) and cnidarians (which have a nervous system consisting of a diffuse nerve net), all living multicellular animals are bilaterians, meaning animals with a bilaterally symmetric body shape (that is, left and right sides that are approximate mirror images of each other). All bilaterians are thought to have descended from a common ancestor that appeared early in the Cambrian period, 485-540 million years ago, and it has been hypothesized that this common ancestor had the shape of a simple tubeworm with a segmented body. At a schematic level, that basic worm-shape continues to be reflected in the body and nervous system architecture of all modern bilaterians, including vertebrates. The fundamental bilateral body form is a tube with a hollow gut cavity running from the mouth to the anus, and a nerve cord with an enlargement (a ganglion) for each body segment, with an especially large ganglion at the front, called the brain. The brain is small and simple in some species, such as nematode worms; in other species, including vertebrates, it is the most complex organ in the body. Some types of worms, such as leeches, also have an enlarged ganglion at the back end of the nerve cord, known as a "tail brain".
A name for a group of primitive flatworms is what?
56f8c1d09e9bad19000a0442
acoelomorphs
116
False
Some bilaterians without a brain are what?
56f8c1d09e9bad19000a0443
echinoderms, tunicates, and acoelomorphs
88
False
There are a few types of existing bilaterians that lack a recognizable brain, including echinoderms, tunicates, and acoelomorphs (a group of primitive flatworms). It has not been definitively established whether the existence of these brainless species indicates that the earliest bilaterians lacked a brain, or whether their ancestors evolved in a way that led to the disappearance of a previously existing brain structure.
Which two groups of invertebrates have complex brains?
56f8c4bd9b226e1400dd0f6b
arthropods (insects, crustaceans, arachnids, and others), and cephalopods
57
False
Arthropods and cephalopods have brains that come from a pair of what?
56f8c4bd9b226e1400dd0f6c
parallel nerve cords
231
False
The invertebrates with the largest brain are what two animals?
56f8c4bd9b226e1400dd0f6d
octopus and squid
436
False
Two groups of invertebrates have notably complex brains: arthropods (insects, crustaceans, arachnids, and others), and cephalopods (octopuses, squids, and similar molluscs). The brains of arthropods and cephalopods arise from twin parallel nerve cords that extend through the body of the animal. Arthropods have a central brain with three divisions and large optical lobes behind each eye for visual processing. Cephalopods such as the octopus and squid have the largest brains of any invertebrates.
Which brains are easier to work on, vertebrates or invertebrates?
56f8c4f99b226e1400dd0f7b
invertebrate
18
False
There are several invertebrate species whose brains have been studied intensively because they have properties that make them convenient for experimental work:
How long ago did the first vertebrate organisms appear?
56f8c5a69e9bad19000a047a
over 500 million years ago
31
False
During which scientific period did vertebrates appear?
56f8c5a69e9bad19000a047b
Cambrian period
76
False
Sharks appeared at about how many Mya?
56f8c5a69e9bad19000a047c
450 Mya
166
False
The foremost part of the brain in mammals is known as what?
56f8c5a69e9bad19000a047d
(the telencephalon
633
False
At how many mya did mammals first appear in time?
56f8c5a69e9bad19000a047e
200 Mya
243
False
The first vertebrates appeared over 500 million years ago (Mya), during the Cambrian period, and may have resembled the modern hagfish in form. Sharks appeared about 450 Mya, amphibians about 400 Mya, reptiles about 350 Mya, and mammals about 200 Mya. Each species has an equally long evolutionary history, but the brains of modern hagfishes, lampreys, sharks, amphibians, reptiles, and mammals show a gradient of size and complexity that roughly follows the evolutionary sequence. All of these brains contain the same set of basic anatomical components, but many are rudimentary in the hagfish, whereas in mammals the foremost part (the telencephalon) is greatly elaborated and expanded.
Do predators have larger or smaller brains compared to their prey?
56f8c61b9b226e1400dd0f87
larger
767
False
In mammals, brain volume and body mass follows a power law with an exponent of what?
56f8c61b9b226e1400dd0f88
0.75
486
False
Which group of animals have brains 5-10 times larger than the formula predicts?
56f8c61b9b226e1400dd0f89
primates
675
False
Brains are most simply compared in terms of their size. The relationship between brain size, body size and other variables has been studied across a wide range of vertebrate species. As a rule, brain size increases with body size, but not in a simple linear proportion. In general, smaller animals tend to have larger brains, measured as a fraction of body size. For mammals, the relationship between brain volume and body mass essentially follows a power law with an exponent of about 0.75. This formula describes the central tendency, but every family of mammals departs from it to some degree, in a way that reflects in part the complexity of their behavior. For example, primates have brains 5 to 10 times larger than the formula predicts. Predators tend to have larger brains than their prey, relative to body size.
The forebrain during development is known as what?
56f8c6939e9bad19000a048c
prosencephalon
301
False
The midbrain during development is known as what?
56f8c6939e9bad19000a048d
mesencephalon
317
False
The hindbrain during development is known as what?
56f8c6939e9bad19000a048e
rhombencephalon
336
False
Which group of animals does the forebrain grow the largest?
56f8c6939e9bad19000a048f
mammals
577
False
During development, the brain is made up of three swellings at the front of what?
56f8c6939e9bad19000a0490
neural tube;
210
False
All vertebrate brains share a common underlying form, which appears most clearly during early stages of embryonic development. In its earliest form, the brain appears as three swellings at the front end of the neural tube; these swellings eventually become the forebrain, midbrain, and hindbrain (the prosencephalon, mesencephalon, and rhombencephalon, respectively). At the earliest stages of brain development, the three areas are roughly equal in size. In many classes of vertebrates, such as fish and amphibians, the three parts remain similar in size in the adult, but in mammals the forebrain becomes much larger than the other parts, and the midbrain becomes very small.
Brain tissue that is living is what color on the outside?
56f8c74d9b226e1400dd0fb3
pinkish
79
False
The color of the brain inside is what?
56f8c74d9b226e1400dd0fb4
white
113
False
Brains are surrounded by what system of tissues?
56f8c74d9b226e1400dd0fb5
meninges
250
False
Meninges separate what structure from the brain?
56f8c74d9b226e1400dd0fb6
the skull
273
False
The blood-brain barrier is made up of what?
56f8c74d9b226e1400dd0fb7
cells in the blood vessel walls
389
False
The brains of vertebrates are made of very soft tissue. Living brain tissue is pinkish on the outside and mostly white on the inside, with subtle variations in color. Vertebrate brains are surrounded by a system of connective tissue membranes called meninges that separate the skull from the brain. Blood vessels enter the central nervous system through holes in the meningeal layers. The cells in the blood vessel walls are joined tightly to one another, forming the blood–brain barrier, which blocks the passage of many toxins and pathogens (though at the same time blocking antibodies and some drugs, thereby presenting special challenges in treatment of diseases of the brain).
People who study the anatomy of the central nervous system are known as what?
56f8c90c9b226e1400dd0fdf
Neuroanatomists
0
False
The cerebral hemispheres of the brain are called what?
56f8c90c9b226e1400dd0fe0
telencephalon
79
False
The thalamus and hypothalamus comprise what region of the brain?
56f8c90c9b226e1400dd0fe1
diencephalon
117
False
The midbrain region of the brain is known as what?
56f8c90c9b226e1400dd0fe2
mesencephalon
159
False
Clusters of small nuclei comprise what parts of the brain?
56f8c90c9b226e1400dd0fe3
thalamus and hypothalamus
455
False
Neuroanatomists usually divide the vertebrate brain into six main regions: the telencephalon (cerebral hemispheres), diencephalon (thalamus and hypothalamus), mesencephalon (midbrain), cerebellum, pons, and medulla oblongata. Each of these areas has a complex internal structure. Some parts, such as the cerebral cortex and the cerebellar cortex, consist of layers that are folded or convoluted to fit within the available space. Other parts, such as the thalamus and hypothalamus, consist of clusters of many small nuclei. Thousands of distinguishable areas can be identified within the vertebrate brain based on fine distinctions of neural structure, chemistry, and connectivity.
The forebrain is everted in what type of fishes?
56f8c9d99b226e1400dd1003
teleost fishes
281
False
Which part of the brain has led to many distortions among different species?
56f8c9d99b226e1400dd1004
forebrain area
184
False
Although the same basic components are present in all vertebrate brains, some branches of vertebrate evolution have led to substantial distortions of brain geometry, especially in the forebrain area. The brain of a shark shows the basic components in a straightforward way, but in teleost fishes (the great majority of existing fish species), the forebrain has become "everted", like a sock turned inside out. In birds, there are also major changes in forebrain structure. These distortions can make it difficult to match brain components from one species with those of another species.
A mammal's brain is how many times larger than a birds relative to body size?
56f8ca819b226e1400dd100d
twice as large
142
False
A mammal's brain is how many times larger than a reptiles relative to body size?
56f8ca819b226e1400dd100e
ten times
202
False
The biggest difference between brains of mammals and other vertebrates is what?
56f8ca819b226e1400dd100f
size.
95
False
The most obvious difference between the brains of mammals and other vertebrates is in terms of size. On average, a mammal has a brain roughly twice as large as that of a bird of the same body size, and ten times as large as that of a reptile of the same body size.
What part of the brain most strongly differentiates mammals from other vertebrates?
56f8cc029b226e1400dd1027
The cerebral cortex
290
False
The three-layered structure covering the cerebrum in non-mammals is known as what?
56f8cc029b226e1400dd1028
pallium
507
False
Mammals have a pallium that involved into what?
56f8cc029b226e1400dd1029
neocortex or isocortex
592
False
The hippocampus and amygdala are ares inside what structure?
56f8cc029b226e1400dd102a
neocortex
649
False
Size, however, is not the only difference: there are also substantial differences in shape. The hindbrain and midbrain of mammals are generally similar to those of other vertebrates, but dramatic differences appear in the forebrain, which is greatly enlarged and also altered in structure. The cerebral cortex is the part of the brain that most strongly distinguishes mammals. In non-mammalian vertebrates, the surface of the cerebrum is lined with a comparatively simple three-layered structure called the pallium. In mammals, the pallium evolves into a complex six-layered structure called neocortex or isocortex. Several areas at the edge of the neocortex, including the hippocampus and amygdala, are also much more extensively developed in mammals than in other vertebrates.
The superior colliculus is related to what sensual control of vertebrates?
56f8cc7b9e9bad19000a051e
visual
138
False
The larger part of the cerebellum in mammals is called what?
56f8cc7b9e9bad19000a051f
(the neocerebellum
354
False
The Neocerebellum supports what other part of the brain?
56f8cc7b9e9bad19000a0520
cerebral cortex
402
False
The elaboration of the cerebral cortex carries with it changes to other brain areas. The superior colliculus, which plays a major role in visual control of behavior in most vertebrates, shrinks to a small size in mammals, and many of its functions are taken over by visual areas of the cerebral cortex. The cerebellum of mammals contains a large portion (the neocerebellum) dedicated to supporting the cerebral cortex, which has no counterpart in other vertebrates.
Comparing brain sizes among different creatures is used most commonly by what?
56f8cddd9e9bad19000a0542
encephalization quotient (EQ)
239
False
What is the average EQ of a person?
56f8cddd9e9bad19000a0543
7-to-8 range
380
False
Primates have an EQ in what range?
56f8cddd9e9bad19000a0544
2-to-3
438
False
The brains of humans and other primates contain the same structures as the brains of other mammals, but are generally larger in proportion to body size. The most widely accepted way of comparing brain sizes across species is the so-called encephalization quotient (EQ), which takes into account the nonlinearity of the brain-to-body relationship. Humans have an average EQ in the 7-to-8 range, while most other primates have an EQ in the 2-to-3 range. Dolphins have values higher than those of primates other than humans, but nearly all other mammals have EQ values that are substantially lower.
Primates have a visual processing network of how many brain areas?
56f8cee09e9bad19000a0552
30
241
False
The visual processing areas occupy how much of the surface of the neocortex or primates?
56f8cee09e9bad19000a0553
more than half
371
False
Planning, motivation, and attention are controlled by what area?
56f8cee09e9bad19000a0554
prefrontal cortex
437
False
The prefrontal cortex is the largest in what animals?
56f8cee09e9bad19000a0555
primates
616
False
Most of the enlargement of the primate brain comes from a massive expansion of the cerebral cortex, especially the prefrontal cortex and the parts of the cortex involved in vision. The visual processing network of primates includes at least 30 distinguishable brain areas, with a complex web of interconnections. It has been estimated that visual processing areas occupy more than half of the total surface of the primate neocortex. The prefrontal cortex carries out functions that include planning, working memory, motivation, attention, and executive control. It takes up a much larger proportion of the brain for primates than for other species, and an especially large fraction of the human brain.
The precursor of the nervous system is called what in vertebrates?
56f8d2919b226e1400dd108b
the neural plate
253
False
The neural groove is a hollow cord of cells with what in the center?
56f8d2919b226e1400dd108c
fluid-filled ventricle
468
False
The forebrain splits during development into vesicles called what?
56f8d2919b226e1400dd108d
telencephalon (which will contain the cerebral cortex, basal ganglia, and related structures) and the diencephalon
713
False
The vesicle that contains the cerebral cortex is which one?
56f8d2919b226e1400dd108e
telencephalon
713
False
The thalamus and hypothalamus are contained in which vesicle?
56f8d2919b226e1400dd108f
the diencephalon
811
False
For vertebrates, the early stages of neural development are similar across all species. As the embryo transforms from a round blob of cells into a wormlike structure, a narrow strip of ectoderm running along the midline of the back is induced to become the neural plate, the precursor of the nervous system. The neural plate folds inward to form the neural groove, and then the lips that line the groove merge to enclose the neural tube, a hollow cord of cells with a fluid-filled ventricle at the center. At the front end, the ventricles and cord swell to form three vesicles that are the precursors of the forebrain, midbrain, and hindbrain. At the next stage, the forebrain splits into two vesicles called the telencephalon (which will contain the cerebral cortex, basal ganglia, and related structures) and the diencephalon (which will contain the thalamus and hypothalamus). At about the same time, the hindbrain splits into the metencephalon (which will contain the cerebellum and pons) and the myelencephalon (which will contain the medulla oblongata). Each of these areas contains proliferative zones where neurons and glial cells are generated; the resulting cells then migrate, sometimes for long distances, to their final positions.
A growth cone of an axon is made up of a blob of what?
56f8d30f9e9bad19000a05a4
protoplasm
277
False
What two structures does a neuron extend when it is in place during development?
56f8d30f9e9bad19000a05a5
dendrites and an axon
38
False
Once a neuron is in place, it extends dendrites and an axon into the area around it. Axons, because they commonly extend a great distance from the cell body and need to reach specific targets, grow in a particularly complex way. The tip of a growing axon consists of a blob of protoplasm called a growth cone, studded with chemical receptors. These receptors sense the local environment, causing the growth cone to be attracted or repelled by various cellular elements, and thus to be pulled in a particular direction at each point along its path. The result of this pathfinding process is that the growth cone navigates through the brain until it reaches its destination area, where other chemical cues cause it to begin generating synapses. Considering the entire brain, thousands of genes create products that influence axonal pathfinding.
The infant brain contains more of what type of cells in the brain than the adult brain?
56f8db919b226e1400dd1104
neurons
128
False
The olfactory bulb is related to what sense?
56f8db919b226e1400dd1105
sense of smell
362
False
What area of the hippocampus plays a role in storing new memories?
56f8db919b226e1400dd1106
dentate gyrus of the hippocampus
386
False
Which type of cells in the brain are generated throughout your lifetime?
56f8db919b226e1400dd1107
Glial cells
636
False
Neurogenesis is the process of what?
56f8db919b226e1400dd1108
neurons continue to be generated throughout life
200
False
In humans and many other mammals, new neurons are created mainly before birth, and the infant brain contains substantially more neurons than the adult brain. There are, however, a few areas where new neurons continue to be generated throughout life. The two areas for which adult neurogenesis is well established are the olfactory bulb, which is involved in the sense of smell, and the dentate gyrus of the hippocampus, where there is evidence that the new neurons play a role in storing newly acquired memories. With these exceptions, however, the set of neurons that is present in early childhood is the set that is present for life. Glial cells are different: as with most types of cells in the body, they are generated throughout the lifespan.
The electrical properties of neurons are controlled by what?
56f8dc869b226e1400dd1122
neurotransmitters and receptors that take place at synapses
357
False
What type of signals do neurons transfer from one another?
56f8dc869b226e1400dd1123
electrochemical
72
False
The functions of the brain depend on the ability of neurons to transmit electrochemical signals to other cells, and their ability to respond appropriately to electrochemical signals received from other cells. The electrical properties of neurons are controlled by a wide variety of biochemical and metabolic processes, most notably the interactions between neurotransmitters and receptors that take place at synapses.
Chemicals called neurotransmitters are released at what part of the brain?
56f96f189e9bad19000a0901
synapses
53
False
What do neurotransmitters attach to?
56f96f189e9bad19000a0902
receptor molecules on the membrane of the synapse's target cell
141
False
Neurons that release the same chemicals are following what rule?
56f96f189e9bad19000a0903
Dale's principle
500
False
Neurotransmitters are chemicals that are released at synapses when an action potential activates them—neurotransmitters attach themselves to receptor molecules on the membrane of the synapse's target cell, and thereby alter the electrical or chemical properties of the receptor molecules. With few exceptions, each neuron in the brain releases the same chemical neurotransmitter, or combination of neurotransmitters, at all the synaptic connections it makes with other neurons; this rule is known as Dale's principle. Thus, a neuron can be characterized by the neurotransmitters that it releases. The great majority of psychoactive drugs exert their effects by altering specific neurotransmitter systems. This applies to drugs such as cannabinoids, nicotine, heroin, cocaine, alcohol, fluoxetine, chlorpromazine, and many others.
GABA is the abbreviation for what?
56f96fee9b226e1400dd1454
gamma-aminobutyric acid
160
False
Which of two neurotransmitters is usually inhibitory?
56f96fee9b226e1400dd1455
gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA)
160
False
The neurostransmitter that usually excites targets is called what?
56f96fee9b226e1400dd1456
glutamate,
80
False
Tranquilizers affect which of the two common neurotransmitters?
56f96fee9b226e1400dd1457
gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA)
160
False
The two neurotransmitters that are used most widely in the vertebrate brain are glutamate, which almost always exerts excitatory effects on target neurons, and gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA), which is almost always inhibitory. Neurons using these transmitters can be found in nearly every part of the brain. Because of their ubiquity, drugs that act on glutamate or GABA tend to have broad and powerful effects. Some general anesthetics act by reducing the effects of glutamate; most tranquilizers exert their sedative effects by enhancing the effects of GABA.
Serotonin comes from what part of the brain?
56f9725b9e9bad19000a092b
Raphe nuclei
296
False
Antidepressants typically affect what chemical of the brain?
56f9725b9e9bad19000a092c
Serotonin
151
False
Which chemical of the brain is involved with arousal?
56f9725b9e9bad19000a092d
Norepinephrine
310
False
Norepinephrine comes from an area of the brain known as what?
56f9725b9e9bad19000a092e
locus coeruleus
410
False
There are dozens of other chemical neurotransmitters that are used in more limited areas of the brain, often areas dedicated to a particular function. Serotonin, for example—the primary target of antidepressant drugs and many dietary aids—comes exclusively from a small brainstem area called the Raphe nuclei. Norepinephrine, which is involved in arousal, comes exclusively from a nearby small area called the locus coeruleus. Other neurotransmitters such as acetylcholine and dopamine have multiple sources in the brain, but are not as ubiquitously distributed as glutamate and GABA.
An EEG of the brain stands for what?
56f973599e9bad19000a0933
electroencephalography
291
False
MEG of the brain is an abbreviation of what?
56f973599e9bad19000a0934
magnetoencephalography
323
False
What type of test is used to tell that a brain is active even during sleep?
56f973599e9bad19000a0935
EEG
353
False
What type of brain waves are seen in mammals during sleep?
56f973599e9bad19000a0936
large slow delta waves
714
False
What type of brain waves are sen when a creature is awake, but inattentive?
56f973599e9bad19000a0937
faster alpha waves
751
False
As a side effect of the electrochemical processes used by neurons for signaling, brain tissue generates electric fields when it is active. When large numbers of neurons show synchronized activity, the electric fields that they generate can be large enough to detect outside the skull, using electroencephalography (EEG) or magnetoencephalography (MEG). EEG recordings, along with recordings made from electrodes implanted inside the brains of animals such as rats, show that the brain of a living animal is constantly active, even during sleep. Each part of the brain shows a mixture of rhythmic and nonrhythmic activity, which may vary according to behavioral state. In mammals, the cerebral cortex tends to show large slow delta waves during sleep, faster alpha waves when the animal is awake but inattentive, and chaotic-looking irregular activity when the animal is actively engaged in a task. During an epileptic seizure, the brain's inhibitory control mechanisms fail to function and electrical activity rises to pathological levels, producing EEG traces that show large wave and spike patterns not seen in a healthy brain. Relating these population-level patterns to the computational functions of individual neurons is a major focus of current research in neurophysiology.
What type of cells have a huge role in brain metabolism?
56f9738c9e9bad19000a093d
Glial cells
150
False
Glial cells control what inside the brain?
56f9738c9e9bad19000a093e
chemical composition of the fluid that surrounds neurons
219
False
All vertebrates have a blood–brain barrier that allows metabolism inside the brain to operate differently from metabolism in other parts of the body. Glial cells play a major role in brain metabolism by controlling the chemical composition of the fluid that surrounds neurons, including levels of ions and nutrients.
Where does the brain usually get most of its energy from inside the body?
56f974f69e9bad19000a0941
glucose (i.e., blood sugar
893
False
The energy used for metabolism of the brain in humans is what percentage?
56f974f69e9bad19000a0942
20–25%
559
False
Other sources than glucose that provide energy to the brain are what?
56f974f69e9bad19000a0943
ketones
926
False
Most vertebrates usually devote how much metabolism to the brain?
56f974f69e9bad19000a0944
2% and 8%
441
False
Brain tissue consumes a large amount of energy in proportion to its volume, so large brains place severe metabolic demands on animals. The need to limit body weight in order, for example, to fly, has apparently led to selection for a reduction of brain size in some species, such as bats. Most of the brain's energy consumption goes into sustaining the electric charge (membrane potential) of neurons. Most vertebrate species devote between 2% and 8% of basal metabolism to the brain. In primates, however, the percentage is much higher—in humans it rises to 20–25%. The energy consumption of the brain does not vary greatly over time, but active regions of the cerebral cortex consume somewhat more energy than inactive regions; this forms the basis for the functional brain imaging methods PET, fMRI, and NIRS. The brain typically gets most of its energy from oxygen-dependent metabolism of glucose (i.e., blood sugar), but ketones provide a major alternative source, together with contributions from medium chain fatty acids (caprylic and heptanoic acids), lactate, acetate, and possibly amino acids.
The function of the brain from an evolutionary-biological thought is what?
56f975539b226e1400dd146e
provide coherent control over the actions of an animal
77
False
From an evolutionary-biological perspective, the function of the brain is to provide coherent control over the actions of an animal. A centralized brain allows groups of muscles to be co-activated in complex patterns; it also allows stimuli impinging on one part of the body to evoke responses in other parts, and it can prevent different parts of the body from acting at cross-purposes to each other.
Computers were invented in what decade in history?
56f976429b226e1400dd1470
1940s
45
False
Neuroscience spawned from what field of science in history?
56f976429b226e1400dd1471
cybernetics
259
False
Who wrote the book, The Computer and the Brain?
56f976429b226e1400dd1472
John von Neumann's
504
False
When was John von Neumann's book, The Computer and the Brain published?
56f976429b226e1400dd1473
1958
523
False
The invention of electronic computers in the 1940s, along with the development of mathematical information theory, led to a realization that brains can potentially be understood as information processing systems. This concept formed the basis of the field of cybernetics, and eventually gave rise to the field now known as computational neuroscience. The earliest attempts at cybernetics were somewhat crude in that they treated the brain as essentially a digital computer in disguise, as for example in John von Neumann's 1958 book, The Computer and the Brain. Over the years, though, accumulating information about the electrical responses of brain cells recorded from behaving animals has steadily moved theoretical concepts in the direction of increasing realism.
The scientific paper, What the frog's eye tells the frog's brain was released in what year?
56f978649e9bad19000a0987
1959
207
False
Who won a Nobel Prize for the discovery that cells in the visual cortex of monkeys become active when sharp edges move?
56f978649e9bad19000a0988
David Hubel and Torsten Wiesel
547
False
The essence of the information processing approach is to try to understand brain function in terms of information flow and implementation of algorithms. One of the most influential early contributions was a 1959 paper titled What the frog's eye tells the frog's brain: the paper examined the visual responses of neurons in the retina and optic tectum of frogs, and came to the conclusion that some neurons in the tectum of the frog are wired to combine elementary responses in a way that makes them function as "bug perceivers". A few years later David Hubel and Torsten Wiesel discovered cells in the primary visual cortex of monkeys that become active when sharp edges move across specific points in the field of view—a discovery for which they won a Nobel Prize. Follow-up studies in higher-order visual areas found cells that detect binocular disparity, color, movement, and aspects of shape, with areas located at increasing distances from the primary visual cortex showing increasingly complex responses. Other investigations of brain areas unrelated to vision have revealed cells with a wide variety of response correlates, some related to memory, some to abstract types of cognition such as space.
What is the project called that is trying to build a realistic, detailed computer model of the human brain?
56f97e319b226e1400dd14c3
the Human Brain Project
365
False
Furthermore, even single neurons appear to be complex and capable of performing computations. So, brain models that don't reflect this are arguably too abstractive to be representative of brain operation; models that do try to capture this are very computationally expensive and arguably intractable with present computational resources. However, having said this, the Human Brain Project is trying to build a realistic, detailed computational model of the entire human brain. It remains to be seen what level of success they can achieve in the time frame of the project and the wisdom of it has been publicly contested, with high-profile scientists on both sides of the argument.
What type of animal has a sense that adapted into sonar?
56f97eb89e9bad19000a09c3
bats
604
False
What type of animal uses infrared heat to sense?
56f97eb89e9bad19000a09c4
snakes
405
False
The group of animals that can detect magnetic fields is what?
56f97eb89e9bad19000a09c5
birds
446
False
The group of creatures that can sense electric fields is what?
56f97eb89e9bad19000a09c6
fish
498
False
One of the primary functions of a brain is to extract biologically relevant information from sensory inputs. The human brain is provided with information about light, sound, the chemical composition of the atmosphere, temperature, head orientation, limb position, the chemical composition of the bloodstream, and more. In other animals additional senses may be present, such as the infrared heat-sense of snakes, the magnetic field sense of some birds, or the electric field sense of some types of fish. Moreover, other animals may develop existing sensory systems in new ways, such as the adaptation by bats of the auditory sense into a form of sonar. One way or another, all of these sensory modalities are initially detected by specialized sensors that project signals into the brain.
Light-receptive neurons are located in what part of the eye?
56f97f299b226e1400dd14c5
retina
99
False
Vibration-sensitive neurons are found in what part of the ear?
56f97f299b226e1400dd14c6
cochlea
153
False
Signals are sent from the thalamus to what part of the brain?
56f97f299b226e1400dd14c7
cerebral cortex
594
False
Each sensory system begins with specialized receptor cells, such as light-receptive neurons in the retina of the eye, vibration-sensitive neurons in the cochlea of the ear, or pressure-sensitive neurons in the skin. The axons of sensory receptor cells travel into the spinal cord or brain, where they transmit their signals to a first-order sensory nucleus dedicated to one specific sensory modality. This primary sensory nucleus sends information to higher-order sensory areas that are dedicated to the same modality. Eventually, via a way-station in the thalamus, the signals are sent to the cerebral cortex, where they are processed to extract biologically relevant features, and integrated with signals coming from other sensory systems.
What part of the body is controlled by nuclei in the midbrain?
56f97f669e9bad19000a09d5
the eye,
175
False
All the muscles controlled by motor neurons in the body are controlled by what?
56f97f669e9bad19000a09d6
spinal cord and hindbrain
314
False
Motor systems are areas of the brain that are directly or indirectly involved in producing body movements, that is, in activating muscles. Except for the muscles that control the eye, which are driven by nuclei in the midbrain, all the voluntary muscles in the body are directly innervated by motor neurons in the spinal cord and hindbrain. Spinal motor neurons are controlled both by neural circuits intrinsic to the spinal cord, and by inputs that descend from the brain. The intrinsic spinal circuits implement many reflex responses, and contain pattern generators for rhythmic movements such as walking or swimming. The descending connections from the brain allow for more sophisticated control.
Which motor areas of the brain control breathing and swallowing?
56f9808b9e9bad19000a09e3
the medulla and pons,
120
False
At the lowest level of the brain and spinal cord, are what areas?
56f9808b9e9bad19000a09e4
the medulla and pons
120
False
The red nucleus controls what part(s) of the body?
56f9808b9e9bad19000a09e5
coordinating movements of the arms and legs
316
False
A strip of tissue found at the edge of the frontal lobe is called what?
56f9808b9e9bad19000a09e6
primary motor cortex
390
False
The primary motor cortex sends signals to the spinal cord through what?
56f9808b9e9bad19000a09e7
pyramidal tract.
633
False
The brain contains several motor areas that project directly to the spinal cord. At the lowest level are motor areas in the medulla and pons, which control stereotyped movements such as walking, breathing, or swallowing. At a higher level are areas in the midbrain, such as the red nucleus, which is responsible for coordinating movements of the arms and legs. At a higher level yet is the primary motor cortex, a strip of tissue located at the posterior edge of the frontal lobe. The primary motor cortex sends projections to the subcortical motor areas, but also sends a massive projection directly to the spinal cord, through the pyramidal tract. This direct corticospinal projection allows for precise voluntary control of the fine details of movements. Other motor-related brain areas exert secondary effects by projecting to the primary motor areas. Among the most important secondary areas are the premotor cortex, basal ganglia, and cerebellum.
The brain and spinal cord work together to control what system of the body?
56f981a79b226e1400dd14d5
autonomic nervous system
102
False
What system in the body controls heart rate?
56f981a79b226e1400dd14d6
autonomic nervous system
102
False
What system in the body controls salivation?
56f981a79b226e1400dd14d7
autonomic nervous system
102
False
Most of the processes of the autonomic nervous system are called what?
56f981a79b226e1400dd14d8
not under direct voluntary control
403
False
Which system in the body controls urination?
56f981a79b226e1400dd14d9
The autonomic nervous system
213
False
In addition to all of the above, the brain and spinal cord contain extensive circuitry to control the autonomic nervous system, which works by secreting hormones and by modulating the "smooth" muscles of the gut. The autonomic nervous system affects heart rate, digestion, respiration rate, salivation, perspiration, urination, and sexual arousal, and several other processes. Most of its functions are not under direct voluntary control.
The SCN of the nervous system is an abbreviation for what?
56f984649b226e1400dd14f2
suprachiasmatic nucleus
45
False
The suprachiasmatic nucleus is a small part of what part of the brain?
56f984649b226e1400dd14f3
the hypothalamus
91
False
Which part of the arousal system controls the body's biological clock?
56f984649b226e1400dd14f4
the suprachiasmatic nucleus
41
False
The RHT is an abbreviation for what?
56f984649b226e1400dd14f5
retinohypothalamic tract
636
False
THE SCN receives information from the optic nerves through what?
56f984649b226e1400dd14f6
the retinohypothalamic tract (RHT
632
False
A key component of the arousal system is the suprachiasmatic nucleus (SCN), a tiny part of the hypothalamus located directly above the point at which the optic nerves from the two eyes cross. The SCN contains the body's central biological clock. Neurons there show activity levels that rise and fall with a period of about 24 hours, circadian rhythms: these activity fluctuations are driven by rhythmic changes in expression of a set of "clock genes". The SCN continues to keep time even if it is excised from the brain and placed in a dish of warm nutrient solution, but it ordinarily receives input from the optic nerves, through the retinohypothalamic tract (RHT), that allows daily light-dark cycles to calibrate the clock.
A group of neuron-clusters scattered in the core of the lower brain is called what?
56f984f59e9bad19000a0a0b
the reticular formation
173
False
Reticular neurons transfer signals to what part of the brain?
56f984f59e9bad19000a0a0c
the thalamus
316
False
Damage to the reticular formation can cause what?
56f984f59e9bad19000a0a0d
state of coma
472
False
The SCN transfers signals to a set of areas that implement what?
56f984f59e9bad19000a0a0e
sleep-wake cycles.
114
False
The SCN projects to a set of areas in the hypothalamus, brainstem, and midbrain that are involved in implementing sleep-wake cycles. An important component of the system is the reticular formation, a group of neuron-clusters scattered diffusely through the core of the lower brain. Reticular neurons send signals to the thalamus, which in turn sends activity-level-controlling signals to every part of the cortex. Damage to the reticular formation can produce a permanent state of coma.
There are two types of sleep called what?
56f9859b9e9bad19000a0a1d
REM sleep (with dreaming) and NREM
270
False
What type of sleep involves dreaming?
56f9859b9e9bad19000a0a1e
REM sleep
270
False
The three types of brain activity that can be measured are what?
56f9859b9e9bad19000a0a1f
REM, light NREM and deep NREM
489
False
Slow wave sleep is also known as what?
56f9859b9e9bad19000a0a20
deep NREM sleep
527
False
During what stage of sleep do serotonin and norepinephrine levels drop?
56f9859b9e9bad19000a0a21
slow wave sleep
773
False
Sleep involves great changes in brain activity. Until the 1950s it was generally believed that the brain essentially shuts off during sleep, but this is now known to be far from true; activity continues, but patterns become very different. There are two types of sleep: REM sleep (with dreaming) and NREM (non-REM, usually without dreaming) sleep, which repeat in slightly varying patterns throughout a sleep episode. Three broad types of distinct brain activity patterns can be measured: REM, light NREM and deep NREM. During deep NREM sleep, also called slow wave sleep, activity in the cortex takes the form of large synchronized waves, whereas in the waking state it is noisy and desynchronized. Levels of the neurotransmitters norepinephrine and serotonin drop during slow wave sleep, and fall almost to zero during REM sleep; levels of acetylcholine show the reverse pattern.
Homeostasis is defined as what?
56f986479e9bad19000a0a27
The ability of an animal to regulate the internal environment of its body
258
False
Homeostasis is Greek for what phrase?
56f986479e9bad19000a0a28
"standing still"
441
False
The milieu interieur term was used by what physiologist?
56f986479e9bad19000a0a29
Claude Bernard
381
False
Homeostasis is like what household tool?
56f986479e9bad19000a0a2a
a thermostat.
856
False
For any animal, survival requires maintaining a variety of parameters of bodily state within a limited range of variation: these include temperature, water content, salt concentration in the bloodstream, blood glucose levels, blood oxygen level, and others. The ability of an animal to regulate the internal environment of its body—the milieu intérieur, as pioneering physiologist Claude Bernard called it—is known as homeostasis (Greek for "standing still"). Maintaining homeostasis is a crucial function of the brain. The basic principle that underlies homeostasis is negative feedback: any time a parameter diverges from its set-point, sensors generate an error signal that evokes a response that causes the parameter to shift back toward its optimum value. (This principle is widely used in engineering, for example in the control of temperature using a thermostat.)
The hypothalamus is located at the base of what?
56f986ed9b226e1400dd1510
the forebrain
118
False
In vertebrates, the most important part of the brain is what?
56f986ed9b226e1400dd1511
the hypothalamus,
70
False
A collection of small nuclei at the base of the forebrain is called what?
56f986ed9b226e1400dd1512
the hypothalamus,
70
False
The gland directly underneath the hypothalamus is which gland?
56f986ed9b226e1400dd1513
the pituitary gland
830
False
The pituitary gland sends hormones through what in the body?
56f986ed9b226e1400dd1514
the bloodstream
967
False
In vertebrates, the part of the brain that plays the greatest role is the hypothalamus, a small region at the base of the forebrain whose size does not reflect its complexity or the importance of its function. The hypothalamus is a collection of small nuclei, most of which are involved in basic biological functions. Some of these functions relate to arousal or to social interactions such as sexuality, aggression, or maternal behaviors; but many of them relate to homeostasis. Several hypothalamic nuclei receive input from sensors located in the lining of blood vessels, conveying information about temperature, sodium level, glucose level, blood oxygen level, and other parameters. These hypothalamic nuclei send output signals to motor areas that can generate actions to rectify deficiencies. Some of the outputs also go to the pituitary gland, a tiny gland attached to the brain directly underneath the hypothalamus. The pituitary gland secretes hormones into the bloodstream, where they circulate throughout the body and induce changes in cellular activity.
A set of interconnected areas at the base of the forebrain is called what?
56f987c59b226e1400dd1524
basal ganglia
298
False
The basal ganglia is thought to be the central location at which what are made?
56f987c59b226e1400dd1525
decisions
456
False
Which neurotransmitter plays a large role in drug abuse?
56f987c59b226e1400dd1526
dopamine
1041
False
Which of the two systems, reward or punishment is better understood?
56f987c59b226e1400dd1527
The reward mechanism
846
False
Most organisms studied to date utilize a reward–punishment mechanism: for instance, worms and insects can alter their behavior to seek food sources or to avoid dangers. In vertebrates, the reward-punishment system is implemented by a specific set of brain structures, at the heart of which lie the basal ganglia, a set of interconnected areas at the base of the forebrain. There is substantial evidence that the basal ganglia are the central site at which decisions are made: the basal ganglia exert a sustained inhibitory control over most of the motor systems in the brain; when this inhibition is released, a motor system is permitted to execute the action it is programmed to carry out. Rewards and punishments function by altering the relationship between the inputs that the basal ganglia receive and the decision-signals that are emitted. The reward mechanism is better understood than the punishment mechanism, because its role in drug abuse has caused it to be studied very intensively. Research has shown that the neurotransmitter dopamine plays a central role: addictive drugs such as cocaine, amphetamine, and nicotine either cause dopamine levels to rise or cause the effects of dopamine inside the brain to be enhanced.
In what year did Tim Bliss and Terje Lomo publish a paper about long-term potentiation?
56f9888b9e9bad19000a0a4d
1971
538
False
BDNF is an abbreviation for what term?
56f9888b9e9bad19000a0a4e
Brain-derived neurotrophic factor
1097
False
Learning and memory expressed as changes in the synaptic connections was first theorized by whom?
56f9888b9e9bad19000a0a4f
Santiago Ramón y Cajal
269
False
Almost all animals are capable of modifying their behavior as a result of experience—even the most primitive types of worms. Because behavior is driven by brain activity, changes in behavior must somehow correspond to changes inside the brain. Theorists dating back to Santiago Ramón y Cajal argued that the most plausible explanation is that learning and memory are expressed as changes in the synaptic connections between neurons. Until 1970, however, experimental evidence to support the synaptic plasticity hypothesis was lacking. In 1971 Tim Bliss and Terje Lømo published a paper on a phenomenon now called long-term potentiation: the paper showed clear evidence of activity-induced synaptic changes that lasted for at least several days. Since then technical advances have made these sorts of experiments much easier to carry out, and thousands of studies have been made that have clarified the mechanism of synaptic change, and uncovered other types of activity-driven synaptic change in a variety of brain areas, including the cerebral cortex, hippocampus, basal ganglia, and cerebellum. Brain-derived neurotrophic factor (BDNF) and physical activity appear to play a beneficial role in the process.
What field of science studies the brain and the central nervous system?
56f989259e9bad19000a0a53
neuroscience
13
False
What scientific field tries to understand the mind and behavior?
56f989259e9bad19000a0a54
Psychology
123
False
What field of science strives to diagnose and treat diseases of the nervous system?
56f989259e9bad19000a0a55
neurology
177
False
Psychiatry is the branch of science that does what?
56f989259e9bad19000a0a56
study, prevent, and treat mental disorders
374
False
Cognitive science seeks to join what two branches of science with other fields?
56f989259e9bad19000a0a57
neuroscience and psychology
451
False
The field of neuroscience encompasses all approaches that seek to understand the brain and the rest of the nervous system. Psychology seeks to understand mind and behavior, and neurology is the medical discipline that diagnoses and treats diseases of the nervous system. The brain is also the most important organ studied in psychiatry, the branch of medicine that works to study, prevent, and treat mental disorders. Cognitive science seeks to unify neuroscience and psychology with other fields that concern themselves with the brain, such as computer science (artificial intelligence and similar fields) and philosophy.
The oldest known method of studying the brain is what?
56f989e59e9bad19000a0a67
anatomical,
43
False
What do neuroanatomists study?
56f989e59e9bad19000a0a68
the large-scale structure of the brain
228
False
What type of study uses medical imaging techniques to correlate changes in brain structure?
56f989e59e9bad19000a0a69
neuroanatomy
622
False
Until what century was brain studying mostly anatomical?
56f989e59e9bad19000a0a6a
the middle of the 20th century,
65
False
The oldest method of studying the brain is anatomical, and until the middle of the 20th century, much of the progress in neuroscience came from the development of better cell stains and better microscopes. Neuroanatomists study the large-scale structure of the brain as well as the microscopic structure of neurons and their components, especially synapses. Among other tools, they employ a plethora of stains that reveal neural structure, chemistry, and connectivity. In recent years, the development of immunostaining techniques has allowed investigation of neurons that express specific sets of genes. Also, functional neuroanatomy uses medical imaging techniques to correlate variations in human brain structure with differences in cognition or behavior.
What do neurophysiologists study?
56f98aa59e9bad19000a0a79
the chemical, pharmacological, and electrical properties of the brain
25
False
The most common tools that neurophysiologists use are what?
56f98aa59e9bad19000a0a7a
drugs and recording devices
120
False
What type of receptors does the brain lack?
56f98aa59e9bad19000a0a7b
pain receptors
529
False
Electrodes are often glued to what like in EEG studies?
56f98aa59e9bad19000a0a7c
the scalp
325
False
Neurophysiologists study the chemical, pharmacological, and electrical properties of the brain: their primary tools are drugs and recording devices. Thousands of experimentally developed drugs affect the nervous system, some in highly specific ways. Recordings of brain activity can be made using electrodes, either glued to the scalp as in EEG studies, or implanted inside the brains of animals for extracellular recordings, which can detect action potentials generated by individual neurons. Because the brain does not contain pain receptors, it is possible using these techniques to record brain activity from animals that are awake and behaving without causing distress. The same techniques have occasionally been used to study brain activity in human patients suffering from intractable epilepsy, in cases where there was a medical necessity to implant electrodes to localize the brain area responsible for epileptic seizures. Functional imaging techniques such as functional magnetic resonance imaging are also used to study brain activity; these techniques have mainly been used with human subjects, because they require a conscious subject to remain motionless for long periods of time, but they have the great advantage of being noninvasive.
The brain is surrounded by what type of fluid?
56f98b409e9bad19000a0a8b
cerebrospinal fluid
170
False
The brain is separated from the bloodstream by what feature?
56f98b409e9bad19000a0a8c
the blood–brain barrier
228
False
The two main structures that protect the brain are what?
56f98b409e9bad19000a0a8d
the skull and meninges
132
False
What type of disease if often studied to understand damage to the brain?
56f98b409e9bad19000a0a8e
strokes
382
False
What type of animal is most commonly used to study brain damage?
56f98b409e9bad19000a0a8f
rats
664
False
Another approach to brain function is to examine the consequences of damage to specific brain areas. Even though it is protected by the skull and meninges, surrounded by cerebrospinal fluid, and isolated from the bloodstream by the blood–brain barrier, the delicate nature of the brain makes it vulnerable to numerous diseases and several types of damage. In humans, the effects of strokes and other types of brain damage have been a key source of information about brain function. Because there is no ability to experimentally control the nature of the damage, however, this information is often difficult to interpret. In animal studies, most commonly involving rats, it is possible to use electrodes or locally injected chemicals to produce precise patterns of damage and then examine the consequences for behavior.
Computational neuroscience is concerned with what two studies?
56f98b7f9e9bad19000a0a95
the use of computers to study the brain; second, the study of how brains perform computation.
62
False
Computational neuroscience encompasses two approaches: first, the use of computers to study the brain; second, the study of how brains perform computation. On one hand, it is possible to write a computer program to simulate the operation of a group of neurons by making use of systems of equations that describe their electrochemical activity; such simulations are known as biologically realistic neural networks. On the other hand, it is possible to study algorithms for neural computation by simulating, or mathematically analyzing, the operations of simplified "units" that have some of the properties of neurons but abstract out much of their biological complexity. The computational functions of the brain are studied both by computer scientists and neuroscientists.
What is the most common test subjects for studying of the brain?
56f98c0d9e9bad19000a0a97
mice
228
False
Recent years have seen increasing applications of genetic and genomic techniques to the study of the brain  and a focus on the roles of neurotrophic factors and physical activity in neuroplasticity. The most common subjects are mice, because of the availability of technical tools. It is now possible with relative ease to "knock out" or mutate a wide variety of genes, and then examine the effects on brain function. More sophisticated approaches are also being used: for example, using Cre-Lox recombination it is possible to activate or deactivate genes in specific parts of the brain, at specific times.
Where was the oldest brain that was found?
56f98c609e9bad19000a0a99
Armenia
48
False
How old was the oldest brain discovered thought to be?
56f98c609e9bad19000a0a9a
over 5,000 years old
112
False
The oldest known brain discovered was found in how old of a person?
56f98c609e9bad19000a0a9b
12 to 14-year-old
162
False
The oldest brain found in a cave was from what gender of human?
56f98c609e9bad19000a0a9c
girl
180
False
The oldest brain to have been discovered was in Armenia in the Areni-1 cave complex. The brain, estimated to be over 5,000 years old, was found in the skull of a 12 to 14-year-old girl. Although the brains were shriveled, they were well preserved due to the climate found inside the cave.
The seal of the soul was debated to lie in what two organs of the body?
56f98e239b226e1400dd155e
brain or heart.
79
False
Aristotle thought the soul lied in what organ?
56f98e239b226e1400dd155f
the heart
113
False
Who invented the atomic theory of matter?
56f98e239b226e1400dd1560
Democritus,
197
False
The "father of medicine" is a name given to whom in history?
56f98e239b226e1400dd1561
Hippocrates
359
False
What philosopher in history argued for a three-part soul?
56f98e239b226e1400dd1562
Democritus
197
False
Early philosophers were divided as to whether the seat of the soul lies in the brain or heart. Aristotle favored the heart, and thought that the function of the brain was merely to cool the blood. Democritus, the inventor of the atomic theory of matter, argued for a three-part soul, with intellect in the head, emotion in the heart, and lust near the liver. Hippocrates, the "father of medicine", came down unequivocally in favor of the brain. In his treatise on epilepsy he wrote:
The physician Galen was from which country in history?
56f98eb09e9bad19000a0abf
Roman
4
False
What period in history was anatomical  studies of nerves greatly increased?
56f98eb09e9bad19000a0ac0
the Renaissance
571
False
Who coined the term pneumata psychikon?
56f98eb09e9bad19000a0ac1
The Roman physician Galen
0
False
Penumata psychikon is usually translated as what?
56f98eb09e9bad19000a0ac2
animal spirits
457
False
The Roman physician Galen also argued for the importance of the brain, and theorized in some depth about how it might work. Galen traced out the anatomical relationships among brain, nerves, and muscles, demonstrating that all muscles in the body are connected to the brain through a branching network of nerves. He postulated that nerves activate muscles mechanically by carrying a mysterious substance he called pneumata psychikon, usually translated as "animal spirits". Galen's ideas were widely known during the Middle Ages, but not much further progress came until the Renaissance, when detailed anatomical study resumed, combined with the theoretical speculations of René Descartes and those who followed him. Descartes, like Galen, thought of the nervous system in hydraulic terms. He believed that the highest cognitive functions are carried out by a non-physical res cogitans, but that the majority of behaviors of humans, and all behaviors of animals, could be explained mechanistically.
Who found out that a shock of electricity to an exposed nerve of a dead frog caused contractions?
56f98f329b226e1400dd1572
Luigi Galvani
115
False
The tool that was invented to stain only a small fractions of neurons was called what?
56f98f329b226e1400dd1573
the Golgi stain
566
False
What nationality was santiago Ramon y Cajal?
56f98f329b226e1400dd1574
Spanish
948
False
The first real progress toward a modern understanding of nervous function, though, came from the investigations of Luigi Galvani, who discovered that a shock of static electricity applied to an exposed nerve of a dead frog could cause its leg to contract. Since that time, each major advance in understanding has followed more or less directly from the development of a new technique of investigation. Until the early years of the 20th century, the most important advances were derived from new methods for staining cells. Particularly critical was the invention of the Golgi stain, which (when correctly used) stains only a small fraction of neurons, but stains them in their entirety, including cell body, dendrites, and axon. Without such a stain, brain tissue under a microscope appears as an impenetrable tangle of protoplasmic fibers, in which it is impossible to determine any structure. In the hands of Camillo Golgi, and especially of the Spanish neuroanatomist Santiago Ramón y Cajal, the new stain revealed hundreds of distinct types of neurons, each with its own unique dendritic structure and pattern of connectivity.
Work in the first half the 20th century in electrical properties of nerve cells were by what two main scientists?
56f98ffc9e9bad19000a0ad1
Alan Hodgkin, Andrew Huxley
153
False
In the first half of the 20th century, advances in electronics enabled investigation of the electrical properties of nerve cells, culminating in work by Alan Hodgkin, Andrew Huxley, and others on the biophysics of the action potential, and the work of Bernard Katz and others on the electrochemistry of the synapse. These studies complemented the anatomical picture with a conception of the brain as a dynamic entity. Reflecting the new understanding, in 1942 Charles Sherrington visualized the workings of the brain waking from sleep:
Which decade in history was officially called the "Decade of the Brain"?
56f990359b226e1400dd1596
the 1990s
249
False
In the second half of the 20th century, developments in chemistry, electron microscopy, genetics, computer science, functional brain imaging, and other fields progressively opened new windows into brain structure and function. In the United States, the 1990s were officially designated as the "Decade of the Brain" to commemorate advances made in brain research, and to promote funding for such research.
Multielectrode recording allows what?
56f990ab9b226e1400dd1598
the activity of many brain cells to be recorded all at the same time;
153
False
Genetic engineering allows what?
56f990ab9b226e1400dd1599
molecular components of the brain to be altered experimentally;
257
False
What does genomics allow the study of?
56f990ab9b226e1400dd159a
variations in brain structure to be correlated with variations in DNA properties and neuroimaging.
344
False
During what century was multielectrode recording invented?
56f990ab9b226e1400dd159b
the 21st century,
3
False
Genetic engineering was first discovered in what century?
56f990ab9b226e1400dd159c
the 21st century,
3
False
In the 21st century, these trends have continued, and several new approaches have come into prominence, including multielectrode recording, which allows the activity of many brain cells to be recorded all at the same time; genetic engineering, which allows molecular components of the brain to be altered experimentally; genomics, which allows variations in brain structure to be correlated with variations in DNA properties and neuroimaging.
Near_East
What is a geographical term that roughly encompasses Western Asia?
56f8d6b49b226e1400dd10c2
Near East (French: Proche-Orient)
0
False
The term near east was originally applies to the maximum extent of what empire?
56f8d6b49b226e1400dd10c3
Ottoman Empire
227
False
The term Near East has fallen into disuses in what language?
56f8d6b49b226e1400dd10c4
English
278
False
What has replaced the term Near East?
56f8d6b49b226e1400dd10c5
Middle East
321
False
Near East (French: Proche-Orient) is a geographical term that roughly encompasses Western Asia. Despite having varying definitions within different academic circles, the term was originally applied to the maximum extent of the Ottoman Empire. The term has fallen into disuse in English, and has been replaced by the term Middle East.
Who defines the Near East as including Armenia, Azerbaijan, Bahrain, Cyprus, Egypt. Georgia, Iran, Iraq, Isreal, Jordan, Kuwait, Lebanon, Libya, Oman, Palestine, Qatar, Saudi Arabia, Sudan, Syria, Turkey, the United Arab Emirates, the West Bank, and Yemen?
56f8d86f9b226e1400dd10d4
The Encyclopædia Britannica
0
False
The Food and Agriculture Organization of the United Nations also includes what Country in the definition of Near East?
56f8d86f9b226e1400dd10d5
Afghanistan
395
False
What group believes the terms Near East and Middle East denote the same territories?
56f8d86f9b226e1400dd10d6
the National Geographic Society
499
False
The Encyclopædia Britannica defines the Near East as including Armenia, Azerbaijan, Bahrain, Cyprus, Egypt, Georgia, Iran, Iraq, Israel, Jordan, Kuwait, Lebanon, Libya, Oman, Palestine, Qatar, Saudi Arabia, Sudan, Syria, Turkey, the United Arab Emirates, the West Bank, and Yemen. The Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) of the United Nations defines the region similarly, but also includes Afghanistan while excluding the countries of North Africa and the Palestinian territories. According to the National Geographic Society, the terms Near East and Middle East denote the same territories and are 'generally accepted as comprising the countries of the Arabian Peninsula, Cyprus, Egypt, Iraq, Iran, Israel, Jordan, Lebanon, Palestinian territories, Syria, and Turkey'.
What empire included all of the Balkan Peninsula north to the southern edge of the Hungarian Plain at the beginning of the 19th century?
56f8da749b226e1400dd10f0
the Ottoman Empire
37
False
When did the Ottoman Empire lose all of it's empire except Constantinople and Eastern Thrace?
56f8da749b226e1400dd10f1
1914
151
False
The rise of what saw the independence of Greece, Serbia, the Danubian Principalities and Bulgaria?
56f8da749b226e1400dd10f2
the rise of Balkan nationalism
219
False
Until what year did the Ottomans retain a band of territory including Albania, Macedonia and Thrace?
56f8da749b226e1400dd10f3
1912
348
False
When did the Ottomans lose the territory of Albania, Macedonia and Thrace?
56f8da749b226e1400dd10f4
the two Balkan Wars of 1912–13
455
False
At the beginning of the 19th century the Ottoman Empire included all of the Balkan Peninsula north to the southern edge of the Hungarian Plain, but by 1914 had lost all of it except Constantinople and Eastern Thrace to the rise of Balkan nationalism, which saw the independence of Greece, Serbia, the Danubian Principalities and Bulgaria. Up until 1912 the Ottomans retained a band of territory including Albania, Macedonia and Thrace, which were lost in the two Balkan Wars of 1912–13.
How was the Ottoman Empire portrayed in the press?
56f8dbf69b226e1400dd1118
as the sick man of Europe
81
False
The Balkan states were primarily what religion?
56f8dbf69b226e1400dd1119
Christian
193
False
When did the Ottomans strike at the Armenians?
56f8dbf69b226e1400dd111a
1894
216
False
What are the grounds on which the Ottomans struck at the Armenians?
56f8dbf69b226e1400dd111b
the explicit grounds that they were a non-Muslim people
261
False
What aroused the indignation of the entire Christian world?
56f8dbf69b226e1400dd111c
The Hamidian Massacres
401
False
The Ottoman Empire, believed to be about to collapse, was portrayed in the press as the sick man of Europe". The Balkan states, with the partial exception of Bosnia and Albania, were primarily Christian. Starting in 1894 the Ottomans struck at the Armenians on the explicit grounds that they were a non-Muslim people and as such were a potential threat to the Muslim empire within which they resided. The Hamidian Massacres aroused the indignation of the entire Christian world. In the United States the now aging Julia Ward Howe, author of the Battle Hymn of the Republic, leaped into the war of words and joined the Red Cross. Relations of minorities within the Ottoman Empire and the disposition of former Ottoman lands became known as the "Eastern Question," as the Ottomans were on the east of Europe.
When did "Near East" come into use to describe the part of the east closest to Europe?
56f8dea89e9bad19000a0634
middle of the 19th century
80
False
In short, the term Far East appeared to name this area
56f8dea89e9bad19000a0635
the East Indies
296
False
"Near East" applied to this mainly known area
56f8dea89e9bad19000a0636
the Levant
366
False
What was the jurisdiction of the Levant in?
56f8dea89e9bad19000a0637
the Ottoman Porte
411
False
What was needed to set foot on most of the shores of the southern and central Mediterranean?
56f8dea89e9bad19000a0638
permits from the Ottoman Empire
636
False
It now became relevant to define the east of the eastern question. In about the middle of the 19th century "Near East" came into use to describe that part of the east closest to Europe. The term "Far East" appeared contemporaneously meaning Japan, China, Korea, Indonesia and Viet Nam; in short, the East Indies. "Near East" applied to what had been mainly known as the Levant, which was in the jurisdiction of the Ottoman Porte, or government. Those who used the term had little choice about its meaning. They could not set foot on most of the shores of the southern and central Mediterranean from the Gulf of Sidra to Albania without permits from the Ottoman Empire.
What was one region included that was occupied by piratical kingdoms?
56f8dfe39b226e1400dd1158
North Africa west of Egypt
61
False
Where were the piratical kingdoms from?
56f8dfe39b226e1400dd1159
Barbary Coast
134
False
Why was Iran included in the collection of regions?
56f8dfe39b226e1400dd115a
because it could not easily be reached except through the Ottoman Empire or neighboring Russia
255
False
What did the term Near East focus on in the 1890s?
56f8dfe39b226e1400dd115b
the conflicts in the Balkan states and Armenia
392
False
The demise of what left considerable confusion as to what was to be meant by "Near East"
56f8dfe39b226e1400dd115c
of the sick man of Europe
451
False
Some regions beyond the Ottoman Porte were included. One was North Africa west of Egypt. It was occupied by piratical kingdoms of the Barbary Coast, de facto independent since the 18th century. Formerly part of the empire at its apogee. Iran was included because it could not easily be reached except through the Ottoman Empire or neighboring Russia. In the 1890s the term tended to focus on the conflicts in the Balkan states and Armenia. The demise of the sick man of Europe left considerable confusion as to what was to be meant by "Near East". It is now generally used only in historical contexts, to describe the countries of Western Asia from the Mediterranean to (or including) Iran. There is, in short, no universally understood fixed inventory of nations, languages or historical assets defined to be in it.
The terms "Near East" and "Far East" referring to areas of the globe in or contiguous to the former British Empire and the neighboring colonies fit together as a pair based on what?
56f8e0bc9b226e1400dd116c
the opposites of far and near
236
False
When do the terms "Near East" and "Far East" appear together in journals?
56f8e0bc9b226e1400dd116d
the mid-19th century
353
False
The term Near East and Far East were used in British and American meanings when referring to what?
56f8e0bc9b226e1400dd116e
the near or far east of a field, village or shire.
450
False
The geographical terms "Near East" and "Far East" referring to areas of the globe in or contiguous to the former British Empire and the neighboring colonies of the Dutch, Portuguese, Spanish and Germans, fit together as a pair based on the opposites of far and near, suggesting that they were innovated together. They appear together in the journals of the mid-19th century. Both terms were used before then with local British and American meanings: the near or far east of a field, village or shire.
Who used the terms near Gaul?
56f8e1749b226e1400dd1172
The Romans
57
False
The appearance of what culture using the terms appears in Linear B?
56f8e1749b226e1400dd1173
the Greeks
154
False
Usually the terms were given when referencing what?
56f8e1749b226e1400dd1174
a geographic feature
368
False
There was a linguistic predisposition to use such terms. The Romans had used them in near Gaul / far Gaul, near Spain / far Spain and others. Before them the Greeks had the habit, which appears in Linear B, the oldest known script of Europe, referring to the near province and the far province of the kingdom of Pylos. Usually these terms were given with reference to a geographic feature, such as a mountain range or a river.
What divided Asia on a similar basis?
56f8e22c9e9bad19000a0684
Ptolemy's Geography
0
False
"Scythia this side of the Himalayas" is located where?
56f8e22c9e9bad19000a0685
In the north
53
False
"India on this side of the Ganges" is located where?
56f8e22c9e9bad19000a0686
To the south
142
False
"Scythia beyond the Himalayas" is located where?
56f8e22c9e9bad19000a0687
In the north
53
False
Where did Asia begin?
56f8e22c9e9bad19000a0688
on the coast of Anatolia
235
False
Ptolemy's Geography divided Asia on a similar basis. In the north is "Scythia this side of the Himalayas" and "Scythia beyond the Himalayas." To the south is "India on this side of the Ganges" and "India beyond the Ganges." Asia began on the coast of Anatolia ("land of the rising sun"). Beyond the Ganges and Himalayas (including the Tien Shan) were Serica and Serae (sections of China) and some other identifiable far eastern locations known to the voyagers and geographers but not to the general European public.
When was John Seller's Atlas Maritima?
56f8e48f9e9bad19000a06ac
1670
47
False
What had "India Beyond the Ganges" become?
56f8e48f9e9bad19000a06ad
the East Indies
91
False
China, Korea, southeast Asia and the islands of the Pacific were included in what?
56f8e48f9e9bad19000a06ae
"the East Indies"
90
False
What was only an English translation of Latin Oriens and Orientalis, "the land of the rising sun"?
56f8e48f9e9bad19000a06af
"east"
285
False
What year did Jodocus Hondius make his world map?
56f8e48f9e9bad19000a06b0
1590
465
False
By the time of John Seller's Atlas Maritima of 1670, "India Beyond the Ganges" had become "the East Indies" including China, Korea, southeast Asia and the islands of the Pacific in a map that was every bit as distorted as Ptolemy's, despite the lapse of approximately 1500 years. That "east" in turn was only an English translation of Latin Oriens and Orientalis, "the land of the rising sun," used since Roman times for "east." The world map of Jodocus Hondius of 1590 labels all of Asia from the Caspian to the Pacific as India Orientalis, shortly to appear in translation as the East Indies.
Where was Elizabeth I from?
56f8e5f29e9bad19000a06c0
England
15
False
What was Elizabeth primarily interested in?
56f8e5f29e9bad19000a06c1
trade with the east
48
False
Who did Elizabeth I collaborate with?
56f8e5f29e9bad19000a06c2
English merchants
87
False
What was the goal of the first trading companies?
56f8e5f29e9bad19000a06c3
obtain trading concessions by treaty
211
False
What company was charted in 1600 for trade to the East Indies?
56f8e5f29e9bad19000a06c4
The East India Company
787
False
Elizabeth I of England, primarily interested in trade with the east, collaborated with English merchants to form the first trading companies to the far-flung regions, using their own jargon. Their goals were to obtain trading concessions by treaty. The queen chartered the Company of Merchants of the Levant, shortened to Levant Company, and soon known also as The Turkey Company, in 1581. In 1582, the ship The Great Susan transported the first ambassador, William Harebone, to the Ottoman Porte (government of the Ottoman Empire) at Constantinople. Compared to Anatolia, Levant also means "land of the rising sun," but where Anatolia always only meant the projection of land currently occupied by the Republic of Turkey, Levant meant anywhere in the domain ruled by the Ottoman Porte. The East India Company (short for a much longer formal name) was chartered in 1600 for trade to the East Indies.
What has pleased western historians?
56f8e6d39e9bad19000a06d4
to write of a decline of the Ottoman Empire
34
False
What was always in question from the beginning of the Ottoman Empire?
56f8e6d39e9bad19000a06d5
The borders
147
False
What was the Ottoman Empire created from?
56f8e6d39e9bad19000a06d6
the lands of the former eastern Roman Empire
299
False
How did the last Roman emperor die?
56f8e6d39e9bad19000a06d7
fighting hand-to-hand in the streets
420
False
Where was the Roman emperor's capital?
56f8e6d39e9bad19000a06d8
Constantinople
473
False
It has pleased western historians to write of a decline of the Ottoman Empire as though a stable and uncontested polity of that name once existed. The borders did expand and contract but they were always dynamic and always in "question" right from the beginning. The Ottoman Empire was created from the lands of the former eastern Roman Empire on the occasion of the latter's violent demise. The last Roman emperor died fighting hand-to-hand in the streets of his capital, Constantinople, overwhelmed by the Ottoman military, in May, 1453. The victors inherited his remaining territory in the Balkans.
The populations did not accept what?
56f8e7d39e9bad19000a06e8
Turkish rule
46
False
The Hungarians had thrown off Turkish rule by what year?
56f8e7d39e9bad19000a06e9
1688
248
False
What created Serbia?
56f8e7d39e9bad19000a06ea
the Serbian Revolution
276
False
When was the Serbian Revolution?
56f8e7d39e9bad19000a06eb
1815–1833
300
False
When was the Greek War of Independence?
56f8e7d39e9bad19000a06ec
1821–1832
342
False
The populations of those lands did not accept Turkish rule. The Turks to them were foreigners with completely different customs, way of life, and language. Intervals when there was no unrest were rare. The Hungarians had thrown off Turkish rule by 1688. Serbia was created by the Serbian Revolution, 1815–1833. The Greek War of Independence, 1821–1832, created modern Greece, which recovered most of the lands of ancient Greece, but could not gain Constantinople. The Ottoman Porte was continuously under attack from some quarter in its empire, primarily the Balkans. Also, on a number of occasions in the early 19th century, American and British warships had to attack the Barbary pirates to stop their piracy and recover thousands of enslaved Europeans and Americans.
When did the Russian Empire begin to question the existence of the Ottoman Empire?
56f8e8659e9bad19000a06f2
1853
3
False
When was the Crimean War?
56f8e8659e9bad19000a06f3
1853–1856
157
False
During the Crimean War who did the British and French support?
56f8e8659e9bad19000a06f4
the Ottoman Empire
228
False
What was the Ottoman Empire's struggle against in the Crimean War?
56f8e8659e9bad19000a06f5
the incursions of the Russian Empire
271
False
The Ottoman Empire eventually lost control of what region?
56f8e8659e9bad19000a06f6
the Balkan region
356
False
In 1853 the Russian Empire on behalf of the Slavic Balkan states began to question the very existence of the Ottoman Empire. The result was the Crimean War, 1853–1856, in which the British Empire and the French Empire supported the Ottoman Empire in its struggle against the incursions of the Russian Empire. Eventually, the Ottoman Empire lost control of the Balkan region.
Until what year did the words near east and far east not refer to any particular region?
56f8e9289b226e1400dd11b0
1855
12
False
What brought a change in vocabulary?
56f8e9289b226e1400dd11b1
The Crimean War
324
False
The Russian Empire became more militarily active against who?
56f8e9289b226e1400dd11b2
the Ottoman Empire
533
False
Who decided the two polities under attack were necessary for the balance of power?
56f8e9289b226e1400dd11b3
the British government
650
False
What empire began promulgating a new vocabulary?
56f8e9289b226e1400dd11b4
the British Empire
891
False
Until about 1855 the words near east and far east did not refer to any particular region. The far East, a phrase containing a noun, East, qualified by an adjective, far, could be at any location in the "far east" of the speaker's home territory. The Ottoman Empire, for example, was the far East as much as the East Indies. The Crimean War brought a change in vocabulary with the introduction of terms more familiar to the late 19th century. The Russian Empire had entered a more aggressive phase, becoming militarily active against the Ottoman Empire and also against China, with territorial aggrandizement explicitly in mind. Rethinking its policy the British government decided that the two polities under attack were necessary for the balance of power. It therefore undertook to oppose the Russians in both places, one result being the Crimean War. During that war the administration of the British Empire began promulgating a new vocabulary, giving specific regional meaning to "the Near East," the Ottoman Empire, and "the Far East," the East Indies. The two terms were now compound nouns often shown hyphenated.
When was a reprint of a letter sent to The Times appear in Littel's Living Age?
56f8e98f9b226e1400dd11ba
1855
3
False
Who was the author of the letter sent to the Times?
56f8e98f9b226e1400dd11bb
Thomas Taylor Meadows
198
False
What was Thomas Taylor Meadows replying to?
56f8e98f9b226e1400dd11bc
the suggestion by another interpreter
237
False
In 1855 a reprint of a letter earlier sent to The Times appeared in Littel's Living Age. Its author, an "official Chinese interpreter of 10 years' active service" and a member of the Oriental Club, Thomas Taylor Meadows, was replying to the suggestion by another interpreter that the British Empire was wasting its resources on a false threat from Russia against China. Toward the end of the letter he said:
What was one of the earliest presentations of this vocabulary?
56f8ea1d9b226e1400dd11c0
the letter to the Times
209
False
What was said must represent usage by that administration?
56f8ea1d9b226e1400dd11c1
Meadows' terminology
108
False
Who had formed the club that contained much of the colonial administration?
56f8ea1d9b226e1400dd11c2
Duke of Wellington
88
False
Much of the colonial administration belonged to this club, which had been formed by the Duke of Wellington. Meadows' terminology must represent usage by that administration. If not the first use of the terms, the letter to the Times was certainly one of the earliest presentations of this vocabulary to the general public. They became immediately popular, supplanting "Levant" and "East Indies," which gradually receded to minor usages and then began to change meaning.
What remained popular in diplomatic, trade and journalistic circles?
56f8eaef9b226e1400dd11c6
"Near East"
0
False
What variation soon developed among the scholars and the men of the cloth and their associates?
56f8eaef9b226e1400dd11c7
"the Nearer East,"
173
False
There was a need to separate what from the terrain of the Ottoman Empire?
56f8eaef9b226e1400dd11c8
the Biblical lands
322
False
What did the Christians see the country as?
56f8eaef9b226e1400dd11c9
the land of the Old and New Testaments
415
False
How did the scholars attempt their definition?
56f8eaef9b226e1400dd11ca
on the basis of archaeology
593
False
"Near East" remained popular in diplomatic, trade and journalistic circles, but a variation soon developed among the scholars and the men of the cloth and their associates: "the Nearer East," reverting to the classical and then more scholarly distinction of "nearer" and "farther." They undoubtedly saw a need to separate the Biblical lands from the terrain of the Ottoman Empire. The Christians saw the country as the land of the Old and New Testaments, where Christianity had developed. The scholars in the field of studies that eventually became Biblical archaeology attempted to define it on the basis of archaeology.
When was the London Review?
56f8ebe29e9bad19000a06fc
1861
34
False
Rawlinson, Layard and others were reviewed in what?
56f8ebe29e9bad19000a06fd
The London Review of 1861
13
False
Who wrote The London Review of 1861?
56f8ebe29e9bad19000a06fe
(Telford and Barber
39
False
For example, The London Review of 1861 (Telford and Barber, unsigned) in reviewing several works by Rawlinson, Layard and others, defined themselves as making:
What region was explicitly excluded?
56f8ec5d9e9bad19000a0702
India
191
False
What region has no mention?
56f8ec5d9e9bad19000a0703
the Balkans
220
False
Assyria, Chaldea, Mesopotamia, Persia, Armenia, Egypt, Arabia, Syria, Palestine, Ethiopia, Caucasus, Libya, Anatolia, and Abyssinia were all what?
56f8ec5d9e9bad19000a0704
regions in their inventory
4
False
The regions in their inventory were Assyria, Chaldea, Mesopotamia, Persia, Armenia, Egypt, Arabia, Syria, Palestine, Ethiopia, Caucasus, Libya, Anatolia and Abyssinia. Explicitly excluded is India. No mention is made of the Balkans.
What does Hogarth say in detail?
56f8ecd49e9bad19000a0708
where and why
29
False
Hogarth makes no mention of what?
56f8ecd49e9bad19000a0709
the classics
90
False
How is Hogarth's analysis?
56f8ecd49e9bad19000a070a
geopolitical
120
False
Hogarth then proceeds to say where and why in some detail, but no more mention is made of the classics. His analysis is geopolitical. His map delineates the Nearer East with regular lines as though surveyed. They include Iran, the Balkans, but not the Danube lands, Egypt, but not the rest of North Africa. Except for the Balkans, the region matches the later Middle East. It differs from the Ottoman Empire of the times in including Greece and Iran. Hogarth gives no evidence of being familiar with the contemporaneous initial concept of the Middle East.
When did the term "Near East" acquire considerable disrepute?
56f8ed819b226e1400dd11d0
the 19th century
21
False
The term "Near East" acquired considerable disrepute in whose eyes?
56f8ed819b226e1400dd11d1
English-speaking public
106
False
What was the cause of the onus?
56f8ed819b226e1400dd11d2
the Hamidian Massacres of Armenians
190
False
What was the cause of the Hamidian Massacres of Armenians?
56f8ed819b226e1400dd11d3
they were Christians
234
False
When was Robert Hickens' book wrote?
56f8ed819b226e1400dd11d4
1913)
419
False
In the last years of the 19th century the term "Near East" acquired considerable disrepute in eyes of the English-speaking public as did the Ottoman Empire itself. The cause of the onus was the Hamidian Massacres of Armenians because they were Christians, but it seemed to spill over into the protracted conflicts of the Balkans. For a time, "Near East" meant primarily the Balkans. Robert Hichens' book The Near East (1913) is subtitled Dalmatia, Greece and Constantinople.
Reports from who made the change evident?
56f8ef1c9e9bad19000a072a
influential British travellers
40
False
Where did Sir Henry Norman travel in 1894
56f8ef1c9e9bad19000a072b
the Far East
154
False
What book did Sir Henry Norman write after traveling to the Far East?
56f8ef1c9e9bad19000a072c
The Peoples and Politics of the Far East
201
False
What year did Sir Henry Norman's book come out?
56f8ef1c9e9bad19000a072d
1895
261
False
The change is evident in the reports of influential British travellers to the Balkans. In 1894, Sir Henry Norman, 1st Baronet, a journalist, travelled to the Far East, afterwards writing a book called The Peoples and Politics of the Far East, which came out in 1895. By "Far East" he meant Siberia, China, Japan, Korea, Siam and Malaya. As the book was a big success, he was off to the Balkan states with his wife in 1896 to develop detail for a sequel, The People and Politics of the Near East, which Scribners planned to publish in 1897. Mrs. Norman, a writer herself, wrote glowing letters of the home and person of Mme. Zakki, "the wife of a Turkish cabinet minister," who, she said, was a cultivated woman living in a country home full of books. As for the natives of the Balkans, they were "a semi-civilized people."
Where did the Normans go off to instead of publishing the book?
56f8effd9e9bad19000a073b
New York
65
False
When did Norman publish parts of his planned travel book?
56f8effd9e9bad19000a073c
June, 1896
206
False
What magazine did Norman publish his work in?
56f8effd9e9bad19000a073d
Scribner's Magazine
221
False
Who were liberators of oppressed Balkan states?
56f8effd9e9bad19000a073e
The Russians
696
False
Who did Norman say "turned her back"?
56f8effd9e9bad19000a073f
England
949
False
The book was never published. Instead the Normans whirled off to New York. Norman published the gist of his planned travel book curiously mixed with vituperation against the Ottoman Empire in an article in June, 1896, in Scribner's Magazine. The empire had descended from an enlightened civilization ruling over barbarians for their own good to something considerably less. The difference was the Hamidian Massacres, which were being conducted even as the couple traveled the Balkans. According to Norman now, the empire had been established by "the Moslem horde" from Asia, which was stopped by "intrepid Hungary." Furthermore, "Greece shook off the turbaned destroyer of her people" and so on. The Russians were suddenly liberators of oppressed Balkan states. Having portrayed the Armenians as revolutionaries in the name of freedom with the expectation of being rescued by the intervention of Christian Europe, he states "but her hope was vain." England had "turned her back." Norman concluded his exhortation with "In the Balkans one learns to hate the Turk." Norman made sure that Gladstone read the article. Prince Nicolas of Montenegro wrote a letter thanking him for his article.
What does Norman mean in the article when saying "Near East"?
56f8f0819e9bad19000a0745
the countries where "the eastern question" applied
56
False
What is the rest of the Ottoman domain demoted to?
56f8f0819e9bad19000a0746
just "the east."
373
False
"The East" refers to what?
56f8f0819e9bad19000a0747
The rest of the Ottoman domain
328
False
Throughout this article Norman uses "Near East" to mean the countries where "the eastern question" applied; that is, to all of the Balkans. The countries and regions mentioned are Greece, Bulgaria, Serbia, Bosnia-Herzegovina (which was Moslem and needed, in his view, to be suppressed), Macedonia, Montenegro, Albania, Romania. The rest of the Ottoman domain is demoted to just "the east."
What was William Miller's life span?
56f8f1b49e9bad19000a074b
1864–1945
93
False
What was William Miller an expert on?
56f8f1b49e9bad19000a074c
the Near East
130
False
So to speak, what did William Miller do?
56f8f1b49e9bad19000a074d
signed the death warrant, so to speak, of the Age of Empires
196
False
Where did Miller attend school?
56f8f1b49e9bad19000a074e
Oxford
597
False
If Norman was apparently attempting to change British policy, it was perhaps William Miller (1864–1945), journalist and expert on the Near East, who did the most in that direction. In essence, he signed the death warrant, so to speak, of the Age of Empires. The fall of the Ottoman Empire ultimately enmeshed all the others as well. In the Travel and Politics in the Near East, 1898, Miller claimed to have made four trips to the Balkans, 1894, 1896, 1897 and 1898, and to be, in essence, an expert on "the Near East," by which he primarily meant the Balkans. Apart from the fact that he attended Oxford and played Rugby not many biographical details have been promulgated. He was in effect (whatever his formal associations if any) a point man of British near eastern intelligence.
Miller's words were considered what?
56f8f2c89e9bad19000a075d
fighting words
11
False
It was considered Europe needed what country?
56f8f2c89e9bad19000a075e
Turkey
87
False
What was Miller citing?
56f8f2c89e9bad19000a075f
the "collective wisdom" of Europe
186
False
These were fighting words to be coming from a country that once insisted Europe needed Turkey and was willing to spill blood over it. For his authority Miller invokes the people, citing the "collective wisdom" of Europe, and introducing a concept to arise many times in the decades to follow under chilling circumstances:
The Ottoman Empire had no choice but to develop their relationship with what country?
56f8f36a9b226e1400dd11e4
Austro-Hungarian Empire
143
False
Who supported the Austro-Hungarian Empire?
56f8f36a9b226e1400dd11e5
the German Empire
191
False
Who did the British Empire side with?
56f8f36a9b226e1400dd11e6
the Russian Empire
49
False
The formation of the Triple Entente and the Triple Alliance partly caused what?
56f8f36a9b226e1400dd11e7
World War I
348
False
By what year were three empires gone?
56f8f36a9b226e1400dd11e8
1918
375
False
If the British Empire was now going to side with the Russian Empire, the Ottoman Empire had no choice but to cultivate a relationship with the Austro-Hungarian Empire, which was supported by the German Empire. In a few years these alignments became the Triple Entente and the Triple Alliance (already formed in 1882), which were in part a cause of World War I. By its end in 1918 three empires were gone, a fourth was about to fall to revolution, and two more, the British and French, were forced to yield in revolutions started under the aegis of their own ideologies.
What year was Arnold J toynbee becoming metaphysical about the Near East?
56f8f3eb9e9bad19000a076d
1916
3
False
Who was the Hegelesque historian of civilization?
56f8f3eb9e9bad19000a076e
Arnold J. Toynbee
152
False
Arnold J Toynbee believed what?
56f8f3eb9e9bad19000a076f
Geography alone was not a sufficient explanation of the terms
265
False
By 1916, when millions of Europeans were becoming casualties of imperial war in the trenches of eastern and western Europe over "the eastern question," Arnold J. Toynbee, Hegelesque historian of civilization at large, was becoming metaphysical about the Near East. Geography alone was not a sufficient explanation of the terms, he believed. If the Ottoman Empire had been a sick man, then:
What was able to rise from the death of the Near East?
56f8f4539e9bad19000a0773
new nations
32
False
What notable nation was able to rise from the ashes of the Near East?
56f8f4539e9bad19000a0774
the Republic of Turkey
86
False
How did the Republic of Turkey align themselves?
56f8f4539e9bad19000a0775
with the west
146
False
Who was the founder of the Republic of Turkey?
56f8f4539e9bad19000a0776
Mustafa Kemal
187
False
Who was a former Ottoman high-ranking officer?
56f8f4539e9bad19000a0777
Mustafa Kemal
187
False
From the death of the Near East new nations were able to rise from the ashes, notably the Republic of Turkey. Paradoxically it now aligned itself with the west rather than with the east. Mustafa Kemal, its founder, a former Ottoman high-ranking officer, was insistent on this social revolution, which, among other changes, liberated women from the strait rules still in effect in most Arabic-speaking countries. The demise of the political Near East now left a gap where it had been, into which stepped the Middle East.
When was the term middle east common as a noun and adjective?
56f8f52a9e9bad19000a077d
the 19th century
59
False
The middle east was not common in diplomacy and what other context?
56f8f52a9e9bad19000a077e
archaeology
121
False
Where did the "Far East" derive from?
56f8f52a9e9bad19000a077f
Ptolemy's "India Beyond the Ganges."
453
False
Where did the Ottoman Empire end?
56f8f52a9e9bad19000a0780
the eastern border of Iraq
518
False
Why did archaeologists count Iran as "The Near East"?
56f8f52a9e9bad19000a0781
because Old Persian cuneiform had been found there
656
False
The term middle east as a noun and adjective was common in the 19th century in nearly every context except diplomacy and archaeology. An uncountable number of places appear to have had their middle easts from gardens to regions, including the United States. The innovation of the term "Near East" to mean the holdings of the Ottoman Empire as early as the Crimean War had left a geographical gap. The East Indies, or "Far East," derived ultimately from Ptolemy's "India Beyond the Ganges." The Ottoman Empire ended at the eastern border of Iraq. "India This Side of the Ganges" and Iran had been omitted. The archaeologists counted Iran as "the Near East" because Old Persian cuneiform had been found there. This usage did not sit well with the diplomats; India was left in an equivocal state. They needed a regional term.
Where did the use of the term Middle East as a region of international affairs begin?
56f8f65b9b226e1400dd1202
in British and American diplomatic circles
86
False
What was Iran known as to the west?
56f8f65b9b226e1400dd1203
Persia
246
False
When did Thomas Edward Gordon publish "The Problem of the Middle East"?
56f8f65b9b226e1400dd1204
1900
257
False
What article did Thomas Edward Gordon publish?
56f8f65b9b226e1400dd1205
The Problem of the Middle East
305
False
The problem of the Middle East was published by who?
56f8f65b9b226e1400dd1206
Thomas Edward Gordon
262
False
The use of the term Middle East as a region of international affairs apparently began in British and American diplomatic circles quite independently of each other over concern for the security of the same country: Iran, then known to the west as Persia. In 1900 Thomas Edward Gordon published an article, The Problem of the Middle East, which began:
What threat caused Gordon to publish his article?
56f8f72e9e9bad19000a0787
resumption of work on a railway
89
False
Who was a diplomat and military officer?
56f8f72e9e9bad19000a0788
Gordon
23
False
Who had not used the term middle east previously in publications?
56f8f72e9e9bad19000a0789
Gordon
154
False
The threat that caused Gordon, diplomat and military officer, to publish the article was resumption of work on a railway from Russia to the Persian Gulf. Gordon, a published author, had not used the term previously, but he was to use it from then on.
Who was a member of American diplomatic and military circles?
56f8f77f9e9bad19000a078d
Alfred Thayer Mahan
78
False
What was Alfred Thayer Mahan concerned about?
56f8f77f9e9bad19000a078e
the naval vulnerability of the trade routes
115
False
When did Alfred Thayer Mahan comment on the trade routes?
56f8f77f9e9bad19000a078f
1902
210
False
A second strategic personality from American diplomatic and military circles, Alfred Thayer Mahan, concerned about the naval vulnerability of the trade routes in the Persian Gulf and Indian Ocean, commented in 1902:
Who did not connect with the soldier?
56f8f7ba9b226e1400dd120c
the sailor
11
False
What did Mahan believe he was innovating?
56f8f7ba9b226e1400dd120d
the term Middle East
92
False
What had already been there to be seen?
56f8f7ba9b226e1400dd120e
the term Middle East
92
False
Apparently the sailor did not connect with the soldier, as Mahan believed he was innovating the term Middle East. It was, however, already there to be seen.
The Near East and the Middle East coexisted until what period?
56f8f96c9e9bad19000a0793
the period following World War I
6
False
Who was the colonial officer killed in China?
56f8f96c9e9bad19000a0794
Bertram Lenox Simpson
127
False
Who wrote the 1910 book 'The Conflict of Color'?
56f8f96c9e9bad19000a0795
Bertram Lenox Simpson
127
False
What was Simpson's pen-name?
56f8f96c9e9bad19000a0796
Weale
443
False
Until the period following World War I the Near East and the Middle East coexisted, but they were not always seen as distinct. Bertram Lenox Simpson, a colonial officer killed eventually in China, uses the terms together in his 1910 book, The Conflict of Color, as "the Near and Middle East." The total super-region consisted of "India, Afghanistan, Persia, Arabistan, Asia Minor, and last, but not least, Egypt." Simpson (under his pen-name, Weale) explains that this entire region "is politically one region – in spite of the divisions into which it is academically divided." His own term revives "the Nearer East" as opposed to "the Far East."
What is the basis of Simpson's unity?
56f8f9f49e9bad19000a079b
color and colonial subjection
32
False
The great whites were appearing as late as what time?
56f8f9f49e9bad19000a079c
the 1920s
349
False
In whose works were the great whites appearing?
56f8f9f49e9bad19000a079d
James Henry Breasted
368
False
What was mainly of interest in America?
56f8f9f49e9bad19000a079e
A red wavelength
495
False
The basis of Simpson's unity is color and colonial subjection. His color chart recognizes a spectrum of black, brown and yellow, which at the time had been traditional since the late 19th century. Apart from these was "the great white race", which the moderate Simpson tones down to simply the white race. The great whites were appearing as late as the 1920s works of James Henry Breasted, which were taught as the gospel of ancient history throughout the entire first half of the 20th century. A red wavelength was mainly of interest in America. The eastern question was modified by Simpson to "The Problem of the Nearer East," which had nothing to do with the Ottomans but everything to do with British colonialism. Simpson wrote of the white man:
These regions were occupied by who?
56f8fa3c9b226e1400dd1212
the brown men
32
False
Where where the yellow?
56f8fa3c9b226e1400dd1213
the Far East
67
False
Where were the black?
56f8fa3c9b226e1400dd1214
Africa
97
False
When did Kenya become independent?
56f8fa3c9b226e1400dd1215
1963
171
False
The color issue was not settled until when?
56f8fa3c9b226e1400dd1216
Kenya became independent
143
False
These regions were occupied by "the brown men," with the yellow in the Far East and the black in Africa. The color issue was not settled until Kenya became independent in 1963, ending the last vestige of the British Empire.
The Ottomans were portrayed as what?
56f8fab19b226e1400dd121c
the slavers
216
False
Who is known as the saint of all British colonial officers?
56f8fab19b226e1400dd121d
Charles George Gordon
411
False
What did Charles George Gordon spend his time between?
56f8fab19b226e1400dd121e
assignments living among the poor and donating his salary
538
False
When did he win Ottoman confidence?
56f8fab19b226e1400dd121f
as a junior officer in the Crimean War
639
False
What did he become in his later career?
56f8fab19b226e1400dd1220
a high official in the Ottoman Empire
709
False
This view reveals a somewhat less than altruistic Christian intent of the British Empire; however, it was paradoxical from the beginning, as Simpson and most other writers pointed out. The Ottomans were portrayed as the slavers, but even as the American and British fleets were striking at the Barbary pirates on behalf of freedom, their countries were promulgating a vigorous African slave trade of their own. Charles George Gordon is known as the saint of all British colonial officers. A dedicated Christian, he spent his time between assignments living among the poor and donating his salary on their behalf. He won Ottoman confidence as a junior officer in the Crimean War. In his later career he became a high official in the Ottoman Empire, working as Governor of Egypt for the Ottoman khedive for the purpose of conducting campaigns against slavers and slavery in Egypt and the Sudan.
When did the term "Near and Middle East" hold stage?
56f8fb439b226e1400dd1226
a few years before World War I
52
False
What proved to be less acceptable to a colonial point of view?
56f8fb439b226e1400dd1227
The term "Near and Middle East,"
0
False
When did Captain T.C. Fowle write of a trip he had taken from Karachi to Syria?
56f8fb439b226e1400dd1228
1916
182
False
Who were the 40th Pathans?
56f8fb439b226e1400dd1229
(troops of British India
220
False
In the book Fowle wrote, what is the entire region considered?
56f8fb439b226e1400dd122a
"the Middle East.
420
False
The term "Near and Middle East," held the stage for a few years before World War I. It proved to be less acceptable to a colonial point of view that saw the entire region as one. In 1916 Captain T.C. Fowle, 40th Pathans (troops of British India), wrote of a trip he had taken from Karachi to Syria just before the war. The book does not contain a single instance of "Near East." Instead, the entire region is considered "the Middle East." The formerly Near Eastern sections of his trip are now "Turkish" and not Ottoman.
What prevailed with the disgrace of "Near East"?
56f8fba19b226e1400dd1230
"Middle East"
82
False
What continues in some circles at the discretion of the defining agency or academic department?
56f8fba19b226e1400dd1231
Near East
117
False
What term was disgraced in diplomatic and military circles?
56f8fba19b226e1400dd1232
Near East
35
False
Subsequently with the disgrace of "Near East" in diplomatic and military circles, "Middle East" prevailed. However, "Near East" continues in some circles at the discretion of the defining agency or academic department. They are not generally considered distinct regions as they were at their original definition.
What sentiment persists even though racial and colonial definitions of the Middle East are no longer ideologically sound?
56f8fc749e9bad19000a07a3
sentiment of unity
110
False
What definitions of the Middle East are no longer ideologically sound?
56f8fc749e9bad19000a07a4
racial and colonial definitions
9
False
What are racial and colonial definitions of the Middle East considered?
56f8fc749e9bad19000a07a5
no longer considered ideologically sound
64
False
Although racial and colonial definitions of the Middle East are no longer considered ideologically sound, the sentiment of unity persists. For much, but by no means all, of the Middle East, the predominance of Islam lends some unity, as does the transient accident of geographical continuity. Otherwise there is but little basis except for history and convention to lump together peoples of multiple, often unrelated languages, governments, loyalties and customs.
When were terms such as "Near East", "Far East", and "Middle East" relegated to the experts?
56f8fdaa9b226e1400dd1236
the 20th century
3
False
Where did the new wave of diplomats often come from?
56f8fdaa9b226e1400dd1237
the new field of political science
176
False
Where did archaeology on the international scene fall into?
56f8fdaa9b226e1400dd1238
the shadow of international relations
391
False
What replaced the fallen empires of the 19th century?
56f8fdaa9b226e1400dd1239
independent republics
628
False
In the 20th century after decades of intense warfare and political turmoil terms such as "Near East", "Far East" and "Middle East" were relegated to the experts, especially in the new field of political science. The new wave of diplomats often came from those programs. Archaeology on the international scene, although very much of intellectual interest to the major universities, fell into the shadow of international relations. Their domain became the Ancient Near East, which could no longer be relied upon to be the Near East. The Ottoman Empire was gone, along with all the other empires of the 19th century, replaced with independent republics. Someone had to reconcile the present with the past. This duty was inherited by various specialized agencies that were formed to handle specific aspects of international relations, now so complex as to be beyond the scope and abilities of a diplomatic corps in the former sense. The ancient Near East is frozen in time. The living Near East is primarily what the agencies say it is. In most cases this single term is inadequate to describe the geographical range of their operations. The result is multiple definitions.
What is the chief remaining nation to assign official responsibilities to a region called the Near East?
56f8fe559b226e1400dd123e
The United States
0
False
What has the state department been most influential in promulgating?
56f8fe559b226e1400dd123f
the Near Eastern regional system
203
False
Who has abandoned the term Near East?
56f8fe559b226e1400dd1240
The countries of the former empires of the 19th century
237
False
The United States is the chief remaining nation to assign official responsibilities to a region called the Near East. Within the government the State Department has been most influential in promulgating the Near Eastern regional system. The countries of the former empires of the 19th century have in general abandoned the term and the subdivision in favor of Middle East, North Africa and various forms of Asia. In many cases, such as France, no distinct regional substructures have been employed. Each country has its own French diplomatic apparatus, although regional terms, including Proche-Orient and Moyen-Orient, may be used in a descriptive sense. The most influential agencies in the United States still using Near East as a working concept are as follows.
The Bureau of Near Eastern Affairs is a division of what?
56f8fedd9e9bad19000a07a9
the United States Department of State
50
False
What is perhaps the most influential agency to still use the term Near East?
56f8fedd9e9bad19000a07aa
The Bureau of Near Eastern Affairs
0
False
Secretary Clinton also calls the implementation of official diplomacy of the United States what?
56f8fedd9e9bad19000a07ab
statecraft
262
False
The Bureau of Near Eastern Affairs, a division of the United States Department of State, is perhaps the most influential agency to still use the term Near East. Under the Secretary of State, it implements the official diplomacy of the United States, called also statecraft by Secretary Clinton. The name of the bureau is traditional and historic. There is, however, no distinct Middle East. All official Middle Eastern affairs are referred to this bureau.
Who works closely with the definition of the Near East?
56f8ff3d9b226e1400dd1244
the Near East South Asia Center for Strategic Studies (NESA)
104
False
What is NESA?
56f8ff3d9b226e1400dd1245
an educational institution of the United States Department of Defense
166
False
What does NESA Teach?
56f8ff3d9b226e1400dd1246
It teaches courses and holds seminars and workshops
237
False
Working closely in conjunction with the definition of the Near East provided by the State Department is the Near East South Asia Center for Strategic Studies (NESA), an educational institution of the United States Department of Defense. It teaches courses and holds seminars and workshops for government officials and military officers who will work or are working within its region. As the name indicates, that region is a combination of State Department regions; however, NESA is careful to identify the State Department region. As its Near East is not different from the State Department's it does not appear in the table. Its name, however, is not entirely accurate. For example, its region includes Mauritania, a member of the State Department's Africa (Sub-Sahara).
What is WINEP?
56f8ff969b226e1400dd124a
The Washington Institute for Near East Policy
0
False
What is WINEPS target countries as?
56f8ff969b226e1400dd124b
the Middle East
168
False
How does WINEP bundle the countries of Northwest Africa?
56f8ff969b226e1400dd124c
under "North Africa."
393
False
The Washington Institute for Near East Policy (WINEP) is a non-profit organization for research and advice on Middle Eastern policy. It regards its target countries as the Middle East but adopts the convention of calling them the Near East to be in conformance with the practices of the State Department. Its views are independent. The WINEP bundles the countries of Northwest Africa together under "North Africa." Details can be found in Policy Focus #65.
What does LoC stand for?
56f8ffed9b226e1400dd1250
The Library of Congress
0
False
What is the Library of Congress?
56f8ffed9b226e1400dd1251
an institution established by Congress to provide a research library for the government
33
False
The Library of Congress is under whose supervision?
56f8ffed9b226e1400dd1252
the United States Congress Joint Committee on the Library
206
False
The Library of Congress (LoC) is an institution established by Congress to provide a research library for the government of the United States and serve as a national library. It is under the supervision of the United States Congress Joint Committee on the Library and the Librarian of Congress. The Near East is a separate topic and subdivision of the African and Middle Eastern division. The Middle East contains a Hebraic section consisting of only Israel for a country, but including eleven modern and ancient languages relating to Judaism, such as Yiddish, a European pidgin language. The Near East is otherwise nearly identical to the Middle East, except that it extends partly into Central Asia and the Caucasus, regions that the State Department considers to be in Asia.
Who formulates multiple regional divisions as is convenient for its various operations?
56f900f69e9bad19000a07af
The United Nations
0
False
Who recognizes the "Middle East and North Africa" region?
56f900f69e9bad19000a07b0
UNICEF
165
False
The United Nations Statistics Division defines Western Asia to contain what?
56f900f69e9bad19000a07b1
the countries included elsewhere in the Middle East
649
False
The Food and Agriculture Organization describes its entire theater of operations as what?
56f900f69e9bad19000a07b2
the Near East
792
False
The United Nations formulates multiple regional divisions as is convenient for its various operations. But few of them include a Near East, and that poorly defined. UNICEF recognizes the "Middle East and North Africa" region, where the Middle East is bounded by the Red Sea on the west and includes Iran on the east. UNESCO recognizes neither a Near East nor a Middle East, dividing the countries instead among three regions: Arab States, Asia and the Pacific, and Africa. Its division "does not forcibly reflect geography" but "refers to the execution of regional activities." The United Nations Statistics Division defines Western Asia to contain the countries included elsewhere in the Middle East. The Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) describes its entire theatre of operations as the Near East, but then assigns many of its members to other regions as well; for example, Cyprus, Malta and Turkey are in both the European and the Near Eastern regions. Its total area extends further into Central Asia than that of most agencies.
What is a quasi-independent agency of the United States Government?
56f901629e9bad19000a07b7
The Central Intelligence Agency (CIA)
0
False
The CIA appears to have what?
56f901629e9bad19000a07b8
multiple leadership
120
False
Who appoints the director of the CIA?
56f901629e9bad19000a07b9
the president
186
False
Who oversees the operations of the CIA?
56f901629e9bad19000a07ba
Congress
294
False
The Central Intelligence Agency (CIA) is a quasi-independent agency of the United States Government. It appears to have multiple leadership. On the one hand its director is appointed by the president. It plays a significant role in providing the president with intelligence. On the other hand, Congress oversees its operations through a committee. The CIA was first formed under the National Security Act of 1947 from the army's Office of Strategic Services (OSS), which furnished both military intelligence and clandestine military operations to the army during the crisis of World War II. Many revisions and redefinitions have taken place since then. Although the name of the CIA reflects the original advised intent of Presidents Franklin D. Roosevelt and Harry S. Truman, the government's needs for strategic services have frustrated that intent from the beginning. The press received by the agency in countless articles, novels and other media have tended to create various popular myths; for example, that this agency replaced any intelligence effort other than that of the OSS, or that it contains the central intelligence capability of the United States. Strategic services are officially provided by some 17 agencies called the Intelligence Community. Army intelligence did not come to an end; in fact, all the branches of the Armed Forces retained their intelligence services. This community is currently under the leadership (in addition to all its other leadership) of the Office of the Director of National Intelligence.
The Near East of the NESA is the same as the Middle East define in what?
56f902439e9bad19000a07bf
The World Factbook
668
False
What does NESA stand for?
56f902439e9bad19000a07c0
Near Eastern and South Asian Analysis
241
False
Whose duties are defined as "support on Middle Eastern and North African countries?"
56f902439e9bad19000a07c1
(NESA)
279
False
Under these complex circumstances regional names are less useful. They are more historical than an accurate gauge of operations. The Directorate of Intelligence, one of four directorates into which the CIA is divided, includes the Office of Near Eastern and South Asian Analysis (NESA). Its duties are defined as "support on Middle Eastern and North African countries, as well as on the South Asian nations of India, Pakistan, and Afghanistan." The total range of countries is in fact the same as the State Department's Near East, but the names do not correspond. The Near East of the NESA is the same as the Middle East defined in the CIA-published on-line resource, The World Factbook. Its list of countries is limited by the Red Sea, comprises the entire eastern coast of the Mediterranean, including Israel, Turkey, the small nations of the Caucasus, Iran and the states of the Arabian Peninsula.
What does USAID stand for?
56f902ac9e9bad19000a07c5
U.S. Agency for International Development
4
False
What is the independant agency under the Department of State for the purpose of determining and distributing foreign aid called?
56f902ac9e9bad19000a07c6
USAID
47
False
What term does USAID not use?
56f902ac9e9bad19000a07c7
the term Near East
223
False
The U.S. Agency for International Development (USAID), an independent agency under the Department of State established in place of the Marshall Plan for the purpose of determining and distributing foreign aid, does not use the term Near East. Its definition of Middle East corresponds to that of the State Department, which officially prefers the term Near East.
The Foreign and Commonwealth Office of United Kingdom recognizes what?
56f903139e9bad19000a07cb
a Middle East and North Africa region
65
False
What region does the Foreign and Commonwealth office of United Kingdom not recognize?
56f903139e9bad19000a07cc
Near East
114
False
What consumed the Near East as far as the Red Sea?
56f903139e9bad19000a07cd
Their original Middle East
125
False
The Foreign and Commonwealth Office of United Kingdom recognises a Middle East and North Africa region, but not a Near East. Their original Middle East consumed the Near East as far as the Red Sea, ceded India to the Asia and Oceania region, and went into partnership with North Africa as far as the Atlantic.
What does the Ministry of Foreign Affairs of the Republic of Greece conduct?
56f903a79e9bad19000a07d1
"bilateral relationships"
67
False
The Ministry of Foreign Affairs of the Republic of Turkey does not use what term?
56f903a79e9bad19000a07d2
Near East
281
False
The Middle East, the Balkans and others are included in what republic?
56f903a79e9bad19000a07d3
Republic of Turkey
235
False
The Ministry of Foreign Affairs of the Republic of Greece conducts "bilateral relationships" with the countries of the "Mediterranean – Middle East Region" but has formulated no Near East Region. The Ministry of Foreign Affairs of the Republic of Turkey also does not use the term Near East. Its regions include the Middle East, the Balkans and others.
What is a term of the 20th centrury intended to stabilize the geographical application of Near East to ancient history?
56f9040d9e9bad19000a07d7
The Ancient Near East
0
False
The ancient nations, people and languages of the enhanced Fertile Crescent will always refer to what?
56f9040d9e9bad19000a07d8
the Ancient Near East
201
False
What is the sweep of land from the Nile Valley through Anatolia called?
56f9040d9e9bad19000a07d9
Fertile Crescent
310
False
The Ancient Near East is a term of the 20th century intended to stabilize the geographical application of Near East to ancient history.[citation needed] The Near East may acquire varying meanings, but the Ancient Near East always has the same meaning: the ancient nations, people and languages of the enhanced Fertile Crescent, a sweep of land from the Nile Valley through Anatolia and southward to the limits of Mesopotamia.
James Bennett Pritchard wrote what?
56f904a39e9bad19000a07dd
Texts relating to the Old Testament
232
False
When did James Bennett Pritchard write his textbook?
56f904a39e9bad19000a07de
1950
330
False
Who was a British archaeologist?
56f904a39e9bad19000a07df
Leonard Woolley
367
False
Who excavated ancient Ur?
56f904a39e9bad19000a07e0
Leonard Woolley
367
False
Resorting to this verbal device, however, did not protect the "Ancient Near East" from the inroads of "the Middle East." For example, a high point in the use of "Ancient Near East" was for Biblical scholars the Ancient Near Eastern Texts relating to the Old Testament by James Bennett Pritchard, a textbook of first edition dated 1950. The last great book written by Leonard Woolley, British archaeologist, excavator of ancient Ur and associate of T.E. Lawrence and Arthur Evans, was The Art of the Middle East, Including Persia, Mesopotamia and Palestine, published in 1961. Woolley had completed it in 1960 two weeks before his death. The geographical ranges in each case are identical.
What do most universities teaching liberal arts have?
56f9052e9e9bad19000a07e5
library and museum collections
278
False
What has had parallel growth of in the 20th century?
56f9052e9e9bad19000a07e6
the collection of resources
138
False
What are these resources collected for?
56f9052e9e9bad19000a07e7
for scholarship and research
166
False
Parallel with the growth of specialized agencies for conducting or supporting statescraft in the second half of the 20th century has been the collection of resources for scholarship and research typically in university settings. Most universities teaching the liberal arts have library and museum collections. These are not new; however, the erection of these into "centres" of national and international interest in the second half of the 20th century have created larger databases not available to the scholars of the past. Many of these focus on the Ancient Near East or Near East in the sense of Ancient Near East.
What does CSAD stand for?
56f905699e9bad19000a07eb
Centre for the Study of Ancient Documents
28
False
Who founded the CSAD?
56f905699e9bad19000a07ec
Oxford University
113
False
Where is Oxford University?
56f905699e9bad19000a07ed
Great Britain
132
False
One such institution is the Centre for the Study of Ancient Documents (CSAD) founded by and located centrally at Oxford University, Great Britain. Among its many activities CSAD numbers "a long-term project to create a library of digitised images of Greek inscriptions." These it arranges by region. The Egypt and the Near East region besides Egypt includes Cyprus, Persia and Afghanistan but not Asia Minor (a separate region).
Where did a large percentage of experts on the modern Middle East began their training?
56f906719b226e1400dd1256
university departments named for the Near East
80
False
What is the meaning of Near East in numerous establishments and publications?
56f906719b226e1400dd1257
Middle East
316
False
What is almost never mixed or confused with studies of the Ancient Near East?
56f906719b226e1400dd1258
Expertise on the modern Middle East
329
False
What includes such languages as Sumerian and Akkadian?
56f906719b226e1400dd1259
Near Eastern Languages
558
False
A large percentage of experts on the modern Middle East began their training in university departments named for the Near East. Similarly the journals associated with these fields of expertise include the words Near East or Near Eastern. The meaning of Near East in these numerous establishments and publications is Middle East. Expertise on the modern Middle East is almost never mixed or confused with studies of the Ancient Near East, although often "Ancient Near East" is abbreviated to "Near East" without any implication of modern times. For example, "Near Eastern Languages" in the ancient sense includes such languages as Sumerian and Akkadian. In the modern sense, it is likely to mean any or all of the Arabic languages.
Zhejiang
What was Zhejiang formerly romanized as?
56f92c369b226e1400dd125e
Chekiang
45
False
Which province is Zhejiang bordered by to the northwest?
56f92c369b226e1400dd125f
Anhui
177
False
Which province is Zhejiang bordered by to the west?
56f92c369b226e1400dd1260
Jiangxi
210
False
Which province is Zhejiang bordered by to the south?
56f92c369b226e1400dd1261
Fujian
244
False
Which body of water is to the east of Zhejiang?
56f92c369b226e1400dd1262
East China Sea
293
False
Chekiang
45
What was Zhejiang never romanized as?
5acfb5bd77cf76001a6859cc
True
Anhui
177
Which province is Zhejiang bordered by to the southwest?
5acfb5bd77cf76001a6859cd
True
Jiangxi
210
Which province is Zhejiang bordered by to the southeast?
5acfb5bd77cf76001a6859ce
True
Fujian
244
Which province is Zhejiang bordered by to the northeast?
5acfb5bd77cf76001a6859cf
True
East China Sea
293
Which body of water is to the west of Zhejiang?
5acfb5bd77cf76001a6859d0
True
Zhejiang (help·info), formerly romanized as Chekiang, is an eastern coastal province of China. Zhejiang is bordered by Jiangsu province and Shanghai municipality to the north, Anhui province to the northwest, Jiangxi province to the west, and Fujian province to the south; to the east is the East China Sea, beyond which lie the Ryukyu Islands of Japan.
What is the former name of the Qiantang River?
56f92d4b9e9bad19000a07f9
Zhe River
37
False
What does the mouth of the Qiantang River form?
56f92d4b9e9bad19000a07fa
Hangzhou Bay
150
False
What does Zhe mean in Chinese?
56f92d4b9e9bad19000a07fb
Crooked
198
False
Which river does the province of Zhejiang derive its name from?
56f92d4b9e9bad19000a07fc
Zhe River
37
False
What does the Qiantang River flow past?
56f92d4b9e9bad19000a07fd
Hangzhou
119
False
Zhe River
37
What is the current name of the Qiantang River?
5acfb63c77cf76001a6859e0
True
Qiantang River
87
What is the former name of the Zhe River?
5acfb63c77cf76001a6859e1
True
Crooked
198
What does Zhe mean in Japanese?
5acfb63c77cf76001a6859e2
True
Zhe River
37
Which lake does the province of Zhejiang derive its name from?
5acfb63c77cf76001a6859e3
True
Hangzhou
119
What does the Qiantang Ocean flow past?
5acfb63c77cf76001a6859e4
True
The province's name derives from the Zhe River (浙江, Zhè Jiāng), the former name of the Qiantang River which flows past Hangzhou and whose mouth forms Hangzhou Bay. It is usually glossed as meaning "Crooked" or "Bent River", from the meaning of Chinese 折, but is more likely a phono-semantic compound formed from adding 氵 (the "water" radical used for river names) to phonetic 折 (pinyin zhé but reconstructed Old Chinese *tet), preserving a proto-Wu name of the local Yue, similar to Yuhang, Kuaiji, and Jiang.
What kind of cultures were the Hemudu and Liangzhu?
56f97a529e9bad19000a098b
Neolithic
29
False
Where was the site of the Hemudu and LIangzhu cultures?
56f97a529e9bad19000a098c
Zhejiang
0
False
What year was there an analysis of the DNA recovered from human remains in Liangzhu culture?
56f97a529e9bad19000a098d
2007
78
False
Which culture were the Austronesian and Tai-Kadai peoples linked to in the DNA analysis?
56f97a529e9bad19000a098e
Liangzhu
253
False
What haplogroup did a DNA analysis of the Liangzhu culture reveal?
56f97a529e9bad19000a098f
O1
243
False
Neolithic
29
What kind of culture are the Hemudu and Liangzhu?
5acfb6d777cf76001a685a0e
True
Zhejiang
0
Where was the site of the Hemudu and LIangzhu cultures relocated to?
5acfb6d777cf76001a685a0f
True
analysis of the DNA recovered from human remains
83
What happened in 2006?
5acfb6d777cf76001a685a10
True
Liangzhu
66
Which culture were the Austronesian and Tai-Kadai peoples not linked to in the DNA analysis?
5acfb6d777cf76001a685a11
True
O1
243
What haplogroup did a DNA analysis of the Liangzhu culture not reveal?
5acfb6d777cf76001a685a12
True
Zhejiang was the site of the Neolithic cultures of the Hemudu and Liangzhu. A 2007 analysis of the DNA recovered from human remains in the archeological sites of prehistoric peoples along the Yangtze River shows high frequencies of haplogroup O1 in the Liangzhu culture, linking them to Austronesian and Tai-Kadai peoples.
Who populated the areas of Zhejiang in the 2nd millennium BC?
56f97b2e9b226e1400dd148e
Hundred Yue
199
False
When did the kingdom of Yue begin to appear?
56f97b2e9b226e1400dd148f
Spring and Autumn Period
333
False
Where was the kingdom of Yue located according to chronicles?
56f97b2e9b226e1400dd1490
northern Zhejiang
422
False
Who does Shiji claim that its leaders were descended from?
56f97b2e9b226e1400dd1491
Yu the Great
509
False
What does the Sword of Goujian bear?
56f97b2e9b226e1400dd1492
bird-worm seal script
1257
False
Hundred Yue
199
Who populated the areas of Zhejiang in the 1st millennium BC?
5acfb74d77cf76001a685a20
True
Spring and Autumn Period
333
When did the kingdom of Yue end?
5acfb74d77cf76001a685a21
True
northern Zhejiang
422
Where was the kingdom of Yue located according to new chronicles?
5acfb74d77cf76001a685a22
True
Yu the Great
509
Who does Shiji reject that its leaders were descended from?
5acfb74d77cf76001a685a23
True
bird-worm seal script
1257
What does the Sword of Goujian not have on it?
5acfb74d77cf76001a685a24
True
The area of modern Zhejiang was outside the major sphere of influence of the Shang civilization during the second millennium BC. Instead, this area was populated by peoples collectively known as the Hundred Yue, including the Dongyue and the Ouyue. The kingdom of Yue began to appear in the chronicles and records written during the Spring and Autumn Period. According to the chronicles, the kingdom of Yue was located in northern Zhejiang. Shiji claims that its leaders were descended from the Shang founder Yu the Great. Evidence suggests that Baiyue and the kingdom of Yue possessed their own culture and history that are different from those kingdoms in north and central China, whose cultures and histories were carefully recorded in chronicles and histories during the Spring and Autumn Period and into the Qin dynasty. The Song of the Yue Boatman (Chinese: 越人歌, p Yuèrén Gē, lit. "Song of the man of Yue") was transliterated into Chinese and recorded by authors in north China or inland China of Hebei and Henan around 528 BC. The song shows that the Yue people spoke a language that was mutually unintelligible with the dialects spoken in north and inland China. The Yue peoples seem to have had their own written script. The Sword of Goujian bears bird-worm seal script. Yuenü (Chinese: 越女; pinyin: Yuènǚ; Wade–Giles: Yüeh-nü; literally: "the Lady of Yue") was a swordswoman from the state of Yue. In order to check the growth of the kingdom of Wu, Chu pursued a policy of strengthening Yue. Under King Goujian, Yue recovered from its early reverses and fully annexed the lands of its rival in 473 BC. The Yue kings then moved their capital center from their original home around Mount Kuaiji in present-day Shaoxing to the former Wu capital at present-day Suzhou. With no southern power to turn against Yue, Chu opposed it directly and, in 333 BC, succeeded in destroying it. Yue's former lands were annexed by the Qin Empire in 222 BC and organized into a commandery named for Kuaiji in Zhejiang but initially headquartered in Wu in Jiangsu.
What was the initial power base for Xiang Liang and Xiang Yu's rebellion?
56f97c189b226e1400dd149b
Kuaiji Commandery
0
False
Who did the kingdom of Chu eventually fall to?
56f97c189b226e1400dd149c
the Han
190
False
In Later Han, which Mount did control of the area return to the settlement below?
56f97c189b226e1400dd149d
Kuaiji
279
False
Who led a rebellion with Xiang Liang against the Qin Empire?
56f97c189b226e1400dd149e
Xiang Yu
65
False
Which empire did Xiang Liang and Xiang Yu rebel against?
56f97c189b226e1400dd149f
the Qin Empire
94
False
Kuaiji Commandery
0
What wasn't the initial power base for Xiang Liang and Xiang Yu's rebellion?
5acfb7d377cf76001a685a40
True
the Han
190
Who did the kingdom of Chu never fall to?
5acfb7d377cf76001a685a41
True
Kuaiji
279
In early Han, which Mount did control of the area return to the settlement below?
5acfb7d377cf76001a685a42
True
Xiang Yu's
65
Who led a rebellion with Xiang Liang with the Qin Empire?
5acfb7d377cf76001a685a43
True
Qin Empire
98
Which empire did Xiang Liang and Xiang Yu team up with?
5acfb7d377cf76001a685a44
True
Kuaiji Commandery was the initial power base for Xiang Liang and Xiang Yu's rebellion against the Qin Empire which initially succeeded in restoring the kingdom of Chu but eventually fell to the Han. Under the Later Han, control of the area returned to the settlement below Mount Kuaiji but authority over the Minyue hinterland was nominal at best and its Yue inhabitants largely retained their own political and social structures.
When was the beginning of the Three Kingdoms era?
56f97cd79b226e1400dd14a5
220–280 CE
44
False
What was home to the warlord Yan Baihu?
56f97cd79b226e1400dd14a6
Zhejiang
57
False
What kingdom did Sun Ce and Sun Quan eventually establish?
56f97cd79b226e1400dd14a7
the Kingdom of Wu
188
False
Where was their court in Kuaiji removed to?
56f97cd79b226e1400dd14a8
Jianye
257
False
Along with Manchuria, where did trade reach as far as?
56f97cd79b226e1400dd14a9
Funan
484
False
220–280 CE
44
When was the end of the Three Kingdoms era?
5acfb94e77cf76001a685a82
True
Zhejiang
57
What wasn't home to the warlord Yan Baihu?
5acfb94e77cf76001a685a83
True
Kingdom of Wu
192
What kingdom did Sun Ce and Sun Quan never establish?
5acfb94e77cf76001a685a84
True
Jianye
257
Where was their court in Kuaiji demolished?
5acfb94e77cf76001a685a85
True
Funan
484
Along with Manchuria, where did trade never go to?
5acfb94e77cf76001a685a86
True
At the beginning of the Three Kingdoms era (220–280 CE), Zhejiang was home to the warlords Yan Baihu and Wang Lang prior to their defeat by Sun Ce and Sun Quan, who eventually established the Kingdom of Wu. Despite the removal of their court from Kuaiji to Jianye (present-day Nanjing), they continued development of the region and benefitted from influxes of refugees fleeing the turmoil in northern China. Industrial kilns were established and trade reached as far as Manchuria and Funan (south Vietnam).
When was Zhejiang part of the Wu?
56f97d8a9e9bad19000a09af
during the Three Kingdoms
28
False
What is another name for Wu or Eastern Wu?
56f97d8a9e9bad19000a09b0
Sun Wu
101
False
What was the most developed state among the Three Kingdoms?
56f97d8a9e9bad19000a09b1
Wu
55
False
Which historical novel records that Zhejiang had the best-equipped, strong navy force?
56f97d8a9e9bad19000a09b2
Romance of the Three Kingdoms
216
False
Along with Wei, which state avoided direct conflict with Wu?
56f97d8a9e9bad19000a09b3
Shu
358
False
Three Kingdoms
39
When was Zhejiang part of the Lu?
5acfb9c477cf76001a685aa8
True
Sun Wu
101
What is another name for Western Wu?
5acfb9c477cf76001a685aa9
True
Wu
105
What was the least developed state among the Three Kingdoms?
5acfb9c477cf76001a685aaa
True
Romance of the Three Kingdoms
216
Which historical novel records that Zhejiang had the worst-equipped, weak navy force?
5acfb9c477cf76001a685aab
True
Shu
358
Along with Wei, which state did not avoid direct conflict with Wu?
5acfb9c477cf76001a685aac
True
Zhejiang was part of the Wu during the Three Kingdoms. Wu (229–280), commonly known as Eastern Wu or Sun Wu, had been the economically most developed state among the Three Kingdoms (220–280 CE). The historical novel Romance of the Three Kingdoms records that Zhejiang had the best-equipped, strong navy force. The story depicts how the states of Wei (魏) and Shu (蜀), lack of material resources, avoided direct confrontation with the Wu. In armed military conflicts with Wu, the two states relied intensively on tactics of camouflage and deception to steal Wu's military resources including arrows and bows.
What was Nanjing formerly known as?
56f97e1c9e9bad19000a09b9
Jiankang
60
False
What was the former name of Hangzhou?
56f97e1c9e9bad19000a09ba
Qiantang
89
False
Besides Qiantang and Jiankang, what was the other major metropolitan center in the south?
56f97e1c9e9bad19000a09bb
Chengdu
320
False
What year was Qiantang raised in status and renamed Hangzhou?
56f97e1c9e9bad19000a09bc
589
332
False
How many major metropolitan centers were there in the south at the time?
56f97e1c9e9bad19000a09bd
three
148
False
Jiankang
60
What is Nanjing currently known as?
5acfbaca77cf76001a685ade
True
Nanjing
37
What is Jiankang formerly known as?
5acfbaca77cf76001a685adf
True
Qiantang
89
What is the current name of Hangzhou?
5acfbaca77cf76001a685ae0
True
Qiangtang was raised in status and renamed Hangzhou
337
What happened in 578?
5acfbaca77cf76001a685ae1
True
Despite the continuing prominence of Nanjing (then known as Jiankang), the settlement of Qiantang, the former name of Hangzhou, remained one of the three major metropolitan centers in the south to provide major tax revenue to the imperial centers in the north China. The other two centers in the south were Jiankang and Chengdu. In 589, Qiangtang was raised in status and renamed Hangzhou.
When was the Jin Dynasty?
56f97f069e9bad19000a09cb
265–420
88
False
Where did the clan of Zhuge Liang gather together?
56f97f069e9bad19000a09cc
Zhuge Village (Zhege Cun)
623
False
When did Zhuge Village isolate itself until?
56f97f069e9bad19000a09cd
this day
800
False
What kind of geography is in Zhejiang?
56f97f069e9bad19000a09ce
mountainous
1028
False
When did Zhuge Liang live from?
56f97f069e9bad19000a09cf
181–234
426
False
Jin dynasty
75
What dynasty ended in 265?
5acfbb4977cf76001a685aee
True
Jin dynasty
75
What dynasty started in 420?
5acfbb4977cf76001a685aef
True
mountainous
1028
What kind of geography is not in Zhejiang?
5acfbb4977cf76001a685af0
True
recently
819
When did Zhuge Village expose itself until?
5acfbb4977cf76001a685af1
True
Zhuge Liang
413
Who died in 181?
5acfbb4977cf76001a685af2
True
Following the fall of Wu and the turmoil of the Wu Hu uprising against the Jin dynasty (265–420), most of elite Chinese families had collaborated with the non-Chinese rulers and military conquerors in the north. Some may have lost social privilege, and took refugee in areas south to Yangtze River. Some of the Chinese refugees from north China might have resided in areas near Hangzhou. For example, the clan of Zhuge Liang (181–234), a chancellor of the state of Shu Han from Central Plain in north China during the Three Kingdoms period, gathered together at the suburb of Hangzhou, forming an exclusive, closed village Zhuge Village (Zhege Cun), consisting of villagers all with family name "Zhuge". The village has intentionally isolated itself from the surrounding communities for centuries to this day, and only recently came to be known in public. It suggests that a small number of powerful, elite Chinese refugees from the Central Plain might have taken refugee in south of the Yangtze River. However, considering the mountainous geography and relative lack of agrarian lands in Zhejiang, most of these refugees might have resided in some areas in south China beyond Zhejiang, where fertile agrarian lands and metropolitan resources were available, mainly north Jiangsu, west Fujian, Jiangxi, Hunan, Anhui,and provinces where less cohesive, organized regional governments had been in place. Metropolitan areas of Sichuan was another hub for refugees, given that the state of Shu had long been founded and ruled by political and military elites from the Central Plain and north China. Some refugees from the north China might have found residence in south China depending on their social status and military power in the north. The rump Jin state or the Southern Dynasties vied against some elite Chinese from the Central Plain and south of the Yangtze River.
When did the Six Dynasties end?
56f982999b226e1400dd14ea
589
132
False
What was the wealthiest area during the Six Dynasties?
56f982999b226e1400dd14eb
Zhejiang
0
False
Which dynasty restored and expanded the network that became the Grand Canal of China?
56f982999b226e1400dd14ec
the Sui dynasty
340
False
What river was one of the Grand Canal of China's hinterlands?
56f982999b226e1400dd14ed
the Zhe River
569
False
589
132
When did the Five Dynasties end?
5acfbbba77cf76001a685b14
True
Six Dynasties
106
What ended in 220?
5acfbbba77cf76001a685b15
True
Six Dynasties
106
What started in 579?
5acfbbba77cf76001a685b16
True
Zhe River
573
What ocean was one of the Grand Canal of China's hinterlands?
5acfbbba77cf76001a685b17
True
Zhejiang, as the heartland of the Jiangnan (Yangtze River Delta), remained the wealthiest area during the Six Dynasties (220 or 222–589), Sui, and Tang. After being incorporated into the Sui dynasty, its economic richness was used for the Sui dynasty's ambitions to expand north and south, particularly into Korea and Vietnam. The plan led the Sui dynasty to restore and expand the network which became the Grand Canal of China. The Canal regularly transported grains and resources from Zhejiang, through its metropolitan center Hangzhou (and its hinterland along both the Zhe River and the shores of Hangzhou Bay), and from Suzhou, and thence to the North China Plain. The débâcle of the Korean war led to Sui's overthrow by the Tang, who then presided over a centuries-long golden age for the country. Zhejiang was an important economic center of the empire's Jiangnan East Circuit and was considered particularly prosperous. Throughout the Tang dynasty, The Grand Canal had remained effective, transporting grains and material resources to North China plain and metropolitan centers of the empire. As the Tang Dynasty disintegrated, Zhejiang constituted most of the territory of the regional kingdom of Wuyue.
When did the Song dynasty reestablish unity around?
56f9839d9e9bad19000a09f7
960
44
False
When was the North lost to the Jurchen Jin dynasty?
56f9839d9e9bad19000a09f8
1127
189
False
What was Hangzhou known as while the capitol of the Southern Song?
56f9839d9e9bad19000a09f9
Lin'an
291
False
When was the Yuan dynasty established?
56f9839d9e9bad19000a09fa
Lin'an
291
False
What did Marco Polo call Lin'an when he visited it?
56f9839d9e9bad19000a09fb
Kinsay
712
False
The Song dynasty reëstablished unity
0
What happened in 950?
5acfbbe877cf76001a685b24
True
The Song dynasty
0
Who dissolved in 960?
5acfbbe877cf76001a685b25
True
north was lost to the Jurchen Jin dynasty
144
What happened in 1126?
5acfbbe877cf76001a685b26
True
1127
189
When was the south lost to the Jurchen Jin dynasty?
5acfbbe877cf76001a685b27
True
The Song dynasty reëstablished unity around 960. Under the Song, the prosperity of South China began to overtake that of North China. After the north was lost to the Jurchen Jin dynasty in 1127 following the Jingkang Incident, Hangzhou became the capital of the Southern Song under the name Lin'an. Renowned for its prosperity and beauty, it may have been the largest city in the world at the time. From then on, north Zhejiang and neighboring south Jiangsu have been synonymous with luxury and opulence in Chinese culture. The Mongol conquest and the establishment of the Yuan dynasty in 1279 ended Hangzhou's political clout, but its economy continued to prosper. Marco Polo visited the city, which he called "Kinsay" (after the Chinese Jingshi, meaning "Capital City") claiming it was "the finest and noblest city in the world".
What were greenware ceramics made from?
56f9849c9e9bad19000a0a01
celadon
29
False
What color tint is Longquan greenware characterized by?
56f9849c9e9bad19000a0a02
bluish-green
266
False
What period did Longquan ceramics decline?
56f9849c9e9bad19000a0a03
the Ming
674
False
What kilns were Longquan kilns replaced by in popularity and production?
56f9849c9e9bad19000a0a04
Jingdezhen in Jiangxi
872
False
What decorations are Yuan Longquan celadons derived from?
56f9849c9e9bad19000a0a05
Middle Eastern
497
False
celadon
29
What were blueware ceramics made from?
5acfbc3a77cf76001a685b3e
True
celadon
29
What were redware ceramics made from?
5acfbc3a77cf76001a685b3f
True
the Ming
674
What period did Longquan ceramics rise?
5acfbc3a77cf76001a685b40
True
Jingdezhen in Jiangxi
872
What kilns were Longquan kilns not replaced by in popularity and production?
5acfbc3a77cf76001a685b41
True
Middle East
628
What decorations are Yuan Longquan non-celadons derived from?
5acfbc3a77cf76001a685b42
True
Greenware ceramics made from celadon had been made in the area since the 3rd-century Jin dynasty, but it returned to prominence—particularly in Longquan—during the Southern Song and Yuan. Longquan greenware is characterized by a thick unctuous glaze of a particular bluish-green tint over an otherwise undecorated light-grey porcellaneous body that is delicately potted. Yuan Longquan celadons feature a thinner, greener glaze on increasingly large vessels with decoration and shapes derived from Middle Eastern ceramic and metalwares. These were produced in large quantities for the Chinese export trade to Southeast Asia, the Middle East, and (during the Ming) Europe. By the Ming, however, production was notably deficient in quality. It is in this period that the Longquan kilns declined, to be eventually replaced in popularity and ceramic production by the kilns of Jingdezhen in Jiangxi.
What do 'to-min' mean?
56f985239e9bad19000a0a13
idle people
24
False
What does 'yoh-hu' mean?
56f985239e9bad19000a0a14
music people
107
False
What does 'si-min' mean?
56f985239e9bad19000a0a15
small people
156
False
What does Tanka mean?
56f985239e9bad19000a0a16
egg-people
227
False
What is 'Keh Chiang' a romanization for?
56f985239e9bad19000a0a17
Zhejiang
413
False
idle people
24
What do 'mo-min' mean?
5acfbc6a77cf76001a685b5a
True
music people
107
What does 'yoh-hue' mean?
5acfbc6a77cf76001a685b5b
True
small people
156
What does 'se-min' mean?
5acfbc6a77cf76001a685b5c
True
egg-people
227
What does Tonka mean?
5acfbc6a77cf76001a685b5d
True
Zhejiang
413
What is 'Keh Chyng' a romanization for?
5acfbc6a77cf76001a685b5e
True
"In 1727 the to-min or 'idle people' of Cheh Kiang province (a Ningpo name still existing), the yoh-hu or 'music people' of Shanxi province, the si-min or 'small people' of Kiang Su (Jiangsu) province, and the Tanka people or 'egg-people' of Canton (to this day the boat population there), were all freed from their social disabilities, and allowed to count as free men." "Cheh Kiang" is another romanization for Zhejiang. The Duomin (Chinese: 惰民; pinyin: duò mín; Wade–Giles: to-min) are a caste of outcasts in this province.
During which war did the British navy defeat Eight Banners forces at Ningbo and Dinghai?
56f985bd9b226e1400dd1506
the First Opium War
7
False
When was the Treaty of Nanking signed?
56f985bd9b226e1400dd1507
1843
150
False
What became one of the five Chinese treaty ports under the terms of the Treaty of Nanking?
56f985bd9b226e1400dd1508
Ningbo
156
False
What did much of Zhejiang come under control of during the Taiping Rebellion?
56f985bd9b226e1400dd1509
the Taiping Heavenly Kingdom
298
False
When did Wenzhou become Zhejiang's second treaty port?
56f985bd9b226e1400dd150a
1876
423
False
First Opium War
11
During which war did the British navy get beaten by Eight Banners forces at Ningbo and Dinghai?
5acfbcb477cf76001a685b72
True
1843
150
When was the Treaty of Nanking rejected?
5acfbcb477cf76001a685b73
True
Ningbo
78
What did not become one of the five Chinese treaty ports under the terms of the Treaty of Nanking?
5acfbcb477cf76001a685b74
True
Taiping Heavenly Kingdom
302
What did much of Zhejiang reject of during the Taiping Rebellion?
5acfbcb477cf76001a685b75
True
1876
423
When did Wenzhou become Zhejiang's third treaty port?
5acfbcb477cf76001a685b76
True
During the First Opium War, the British navy defeated Eight Banners forces at Ningbo and Dinghai. Under the terms of the Treaty of Nanking, signed in 1843, Ningbo became one of the five Chinese treaty ports opened to virtually unrestricted foreign trade. Much of Zhejiang came under the control of the Taiping Heavenly Kingdom during the Taiping Rebellion, which resulted in a considerable loss of life in the province. In 1876, Wenzhou became Zhejiang's second treaty port.
What war did the Second Sino-Japanese War lead into?
56f9867d9e9bad19000a0a2f
World War II
52
False
Who occupied much of Zhejiang during the Second Sino-Japanese War?
56f9867d9e9bad19000a0a30
Japan
99
False
How many estimated civilians were killed by the Japanese searching for Doolittle's men?
56f9867d9e9bad19000a0a31
250,000
630
False
What type of American crews came down in China following the Doolittle raid?
56f9867d9e9bad19000a0a32
B-25
260
False
The Japanese puppet state that occupied Zhejiang was called what?
56f9867d9e9bad19000a0a33
the Reorganized National Government of China
172
False
World War II,
52
What war did the Third Sino-Japanese War lead into?
5acfbd0a77cf76001a685b98
True
Second Sino-Japanese War
11
What led into World War I?
5acfbd0a77cf76001a685b99
True
Japan
99
Who occupied none of Zhejiang during the Second Sino-Japanese War?
5acfbd0a77cf76001a685b9a
True
250,000
630
How many estimated civilians were rescued by the Japanese searching for Doolittle's men?
5acfbd0a77cf76001a685b9b
True
During the Second Sino-Japanese War, which led into World War II, much of Zhejiang was occupied by Japan and placed under the control of the Japanese puppet state known as the Reorganized National Government of China. Following the Doolittle Raid, most of the B-25 American crews that came down in China eventually made it to safety with the help of Chinese civilians and soldiers. The Chinese people who helped them, however, paid dearly for sheltering the Americans. The Imperial Japanese Army began the Zhejiang-Jiangxi Campaign to intimidate the Chinese out of helping downed American airmen. The Japanese killed an estimated 250,000 civilians while searching for Doolittle’s men.
When did the People's Republic of China take control of Mainland China?
56f9872e9e9bad19000a0a39
1949
71
False
When did the Republic of China control the Dachen Islands until?
56f9872e9e9bad19000a0a3a
1955
198
False
When was the Cultural Revolution?
56f9872e9e9bad19000a0a3b
1966–76
355
False
When was the high tide of the Cultural Revolution?
56f9872e9e9bad19000a0a3c
1966–69
464
False
What production did the agricultural policy favor over industrial and cash crops?
56f9872e9e9bad19000a0a3d
grain
525
False
People's Republic of China took control of Mainland China
10
What happened in 1944?
5acfbd4c77cf76001a685ba0
True
Taiwan continued to control the Dachen Islands off the coast of Zhejiang
119
What happened in 1956?
5acfbd4c77cf76001a685ba1
True
Cultural Revolution
334
What happened from 1955-1977?
5acfbd4c77cf76001a685ba2
True
1966–69
464
When was the low tide of the cultural revolution?
5acfbd4c77cf76001a685ba3
True
After the People's Republic of China took control of Mainland China in 1949, the Republic of China government based in Taiwan continued to control the Dachen Islands off the coast of Zhejiang until 1955, even establishing a rival Zhejiang provincial government there, creating a situation similar to Fujian province today. During the Cultural Revolution (1966–76), Zhejiang was in chaos and disunity, and its economy was stagnant, especially during the high tide (1966–69) of the revolution. The agricultural policy favoring grain production at the expense of industrial and cash crops intensified economic hardships in the province. Mao’s self-reliance policy and the reduction in maritime trade cut off the lifelines of the port cities of Ningbo and Wenzhou. While Mao invested heavily in railroads in interior China, no major railroads were built in South Zhejiang, where transportation remained poor.
What type of resources does Zhejiang have a lack of?
56f987c29b226e1400dd151a
natural
104
False
What is Zhejiang's location vulnerable to from the sea?
56f987c29b226e1400dd151b
flooding
158
False
What type of development has Zhejiang been an epicenter of?
56f987c29b226e1400dd151c
capitalist
271
False
Which part of Zhejiang is part of the Yangtze Delta?
56f987c29b226e1400dd151d
Northeast Zhejiang
391
False
What type of geography is Northeast Zhejiang?
56f987c29b226e1400dd151e
flat
444
False
natural
104
What type of resources does Zhejiang have a lot of?
5acfbd8477cf76001a685bba
True
flooding
158
What is Zhejiang's location not vulnerable to from the sea?
5acfbd8477cf76001a685bbb
True
capitalist
271
What type of development has Zhejiang never been an epicenter of?
5acfbd8477cf76001a685bbc
True
Northeast Zhejiang
391
Which part of Zhejiang is not part of the Yangtze Delta?
5acfbd8477cf76001a685bbd
True
flat
444
What type of geography is Southeast Zhejiang?
5acfbd8477cf76001a685bbe
True
Zhejiang benefited less from central government investment than some other provinces due to its lack of natural resources, a location vulnerable to potential flooding from the sea, and an economic base at the national average. Zhejiang, however, has been an epicenter of capitalist development in China, and has led the nation in the development of a market economy and private enterprises. Northeast Zhejiang, as part of the Yangtze Delta, is flat, more developed, and industrial.
What does Zhejiang consist mostly of?
56f9882e9e9bad19000a0a43
hills
28
False
What percent of Zhejiang is hills?
56f9882e9e9bad19000a0a44
70%
59
False
What is the highest peak of the province?
56f9882e9e9bad19000a0a45
Huangmaojian Peak
175
False
How high is Huangmaojian Peak in meters?
56f9882e9e9bad19000a0a46
1,929
194
False
How high is Huangmaojian Peak in feet?
56f9882e9e9bad19000a0a47
6,329
210
False
hills
28
What does Zhejiang not consist mostly of?
5acfbdaa77cf76001a685bc4
True
70%
59
What percent of Zhejiang is flat?
5acfbdaa77cf76001a685bc5
True
Huangmaojian Peak
175
What is the lowest peak of the province?
5acfbdaa77cf76001a685bc6
True
1,929 meters
194
How low is Huangmaojian Peak in meters?
5acfbdaa77cf76001a685bc7
True
6,329 feet
210
How low is Huangmaojian Peak in feet?
5acfbdaa77cf76001a685bc8
True
Zhejiang consists mostly of hills, which account for about 70% of its total area. Altitudes tend to be the highest to the south and west and the highest peak of the province, Huangmaojian Peak (1,929 meters or 6,329 feet), is located there. Other prominent mountains include Mounts Yandang, Tianmu, Tiantai, and Mogan, which reach altitudes of 700 to 1,500 meters (2,300 to 4,900 ft).
What does the north of the province lie just south of?
56f988a09b226e1400dd152c
the Yangtze Delta
106
False
Where does the Grand Canal of China end?
56f988a09b226e1400dd152d
Hangzhou
273
False
What is a major river of the province in addition to the Qiangtang River?
56f988a09b226e1400dd152e
Ou Rivers
419
False
What is a well-known lake of Hangzhou?
56f988a09b226e1400dd152f
West Lake
581
False
What is a well-known lake of Jiaxing?
56f988a09b226e1400dd1530
South Lake
611
False
Yangtze Delta
110
What does the north of the province lie just north of?
5acfbddd77cf76001a685be2
True
Hangzhou
273
Where does the Grand Canal of Japan end?
5acfbddd77cf76001a685be3
True
Ou Rivers
419
What is a minor river of the province in addition to the Qiangtang River?
5acfbddd77cf76001a685be4
True
West Lake
581
What is not a well-known lake of Hangzhou?
5acfbddd77cf76001a685be5
True
South Lake
611
What is not a well-known lake of Jiaxing?
5acfbddd77cf76001a685be6
True
Valleys and plains are found along the coastline and rivers. The north of the province lies just south of the Yangtze Delta, and consists of plains around the cities of Hangzhou, Jiaxing, and Huzhou, where the Grand Canal of China enters from the northern border to end at Hangzhou. Another relatively flat area is found along the Qu River around the cities of Quzhou and Jinhua. Major rivers include the Qiangtang and Ou Rivers. Most rivers carve out valleys in the highlands, with plenty of rapids and other features associated with such topography. Well-known lakes include the West Lake of Hangzhou and the South Lake of Jiaxing.
How many islands are along the rugged coastline of Zhejiang?
56f989239b226e1400dd1536
over three thousand
10
False
What is the largest island near Zhejiang?
56f989239b226e1400dd1537
Zhoushan Island
91
False
What is the largest bay of Zhejiang?
56f989239b226e1400dd1538
Hangzhou Bay
213
False
How many distinct seasons does Zhejiang have?
56f989239b226e1400dd1539
four
289
False
When does Spring start in Zhejiang?
56f989239b226e1400dd153a
March
329
False
over three thousand islands
10
How many islands are not along the rugged coastline of Zhejiang?
5acfc08277cf76001a685ca0
True
Hangzhou Bay
213
What is the smallest bay of Zhejiang?
5acfc08277cf76001a685ca1
True
four
289
How many seasons does Zhejiang never have?
5acfc08277cf76001a685ca2
True
There are over three thousand islands along the rugged coastline of Zhejiang. The largest, Zhoushan Island, is Mainland China's third largest island, after Hainan and Chongming. There are also many bays, of which Hangzhou Bay is the largest.  Zhejiang has a humid subtropical climate with four distinct seasons. Spring starts in March and is rainy with changeable weather. Summer, from June to September is long, hot, rainy, and humid. Fall is generally dry, warm and sunny. Winters are short but cold except in the far south. Average annual temperature is around 15 to 19 °C (59 to 66 °F), average January temperature is around 2 to 8 °C (36 to 46 °F) and average July temperature is around 27 to 30 °C (81 to 86 °F). Annual precipitation is about 1,000 to 1,900 mm (39 to 75 in). There is plenty of rainfall in early summer, and by late summer Zhejiang is directly threatened by typhoons forming in the Pacific.
How many prefecture-level divisions of Zhejiang are there?
56f989939e9bad19000a0a5d
eleven
4
False
How many county-level divisions of Zhejiang are there?
56f989939e9bad19000a0a5e
90
70
False
How many township-level divisions of Zhejiang are there?
56f989939e9bad19000a0a5f
1,570
207
False
What is the largest base of shooting films and TV dramas in China?
56f989939e9bad19000a0a60
Jinhua
329
False
What is called 'China's Hollywood'?
56f989939e9bad19000a0a61
Hengdian
405
False
eleven
4
How many unprefecture-level divisions of Zhejiang are there?
5acfc0d277cf76001a685cb8
True
90
70
How many non-county-level divisions of Zhejiang are there?
5acfc0d277cf76001a685cb9
True
1,570
207
How many township-level divisions of Zhejiang are there?
5acfc0d277cf76001a685cba
True
Hengdian
405
What is called 'China's New York'?
5acfc0d277cf76001a685cbb
True
The eleven prefecture-level divisions of Zhejiang are subdivided into 90 county-level divisions (36 districts, 20 county-level cities, 33 counties, and one autonomous county). Those are in turn divided into 1,570 township-level divisions (761 towns, 505 townships, 14 ethnic townships, and 290 subdistricts). Hengdian belongs to Jinhua, which is the largest base of shooting films and TV dramas in China. Hengdian is called "China's Hollywood".
How are the politics of Zhejiang structured?
56f98a729b226e1400dd1540
a dual party-government system
42
False
Who is the highest-ranking official in the People's Government of Zhejiang?
56f98a729b226e1400dd1541
The Governor of Zhejiang
130
False
Who is the Governor subordinate to?
56f98a729b226e1400dd1542
the Zhejiang Communist Party of China (CPC) Provincial Committee Secretary
325
False
What is the Zhejiang Communist Party of China (CPC) Provincial Committee Secretary provincially known as?
56f98a729b226e1400dd1543
Zhejiang CPC Party Chief
426
False
What type of party-government system are all governing institutions in Mainland China?
56f98a729b226e1400dd1544
dual
44
False
dual party-government
44
How are the politics of Zhejiang not structured?
5acfc18077cf76001a685cfe
True
Governor of Zhejiang
134
Who is the lowest-ranking official in the People's Government of Zhejiang?
5acfc18077cf76001a685cff
True
Zhejiang Communist Party of China
329
Who is the Governor not subordinate to?
5acfc18077cf76001a685d00
True
Zhejiang CPC Party Chief
426
What is the Zhejiang Communist Party of China (CPC) Provincial Committee Secretary not provincially known as?
5acfc18077cf76001a685d01
True
dual
44
What type of party-government system are never governing institutions in Mainland China?
5acfc18077cf76001a685d02
True
The politics of Zhejiang is structured in a dual party-government system like all other governing institutions in Mainland China. The Governor of Zhejiang is the highest-ranking official in the People's Government of Zhejiang. However, in the province's dual party-government governing system, the Governor is subordinate to the Zhejiang Communist Party of China (CPC) Provincial Committee Secretary, colloquially termed the "Zhejiang CPC Party Chief".
When was Tan Zhenlin's term as Zhenjiang's Communist Party Secretary?
56f98b129e9bad19000a0a81
1949-1952
175
False
Who was the inaugural Communist Party Secretary of Zhenjiang?
56f98b129e9bad19000a0a82
Tan Zhenlin
157
False
When was the so-called February Countercurrent?
56f98b129e9bad19000a0a83
1967
330
False
When was Jiang Hua's term?
56f98b129e9bad19000a0a84
1956-1968
352
False
When was the case against the Gang of Four?
56f98b129e9bad19000a0a85
1980
449
False
the inaugural Party Secretary, was one of the leading voices against Mao's Cultural Revolution
187
What happened in 1948?
5acfc22277cf76001a685d2c
True
against Mao's Cultural Revolution
248
What was the March Countercurrent 1967?
5acfc22277cf76001a685d2d
True
1967
330
When was the October Countercurrent?
5acfc22277cf76001a685d2e
True
1980
449
When was the case against the Gang of Five?
5acfc22277cf76001a685d2f
True
Several political figures who served as Zhejiang's top political office of Communist Party Secretary have played key roles in various events in PRC history. Tan Zhenlin (term 1949-1952), the inaugural Party Secretary, was one of the leading voices against Mao's Cultural Revolution during the so-called February Countercurrent of 1967. Jiang Hua (term 1956-1968), was the "chief justice" on the Special Court in the case against the Gang of Four in 1980. Three provincial Party Secretaries since the 1990s have gone onto prominence at the national level. They include CPC General Secretary and President Xi Jinping (term 2002-2007), National People's Congress Chairman and former Vice-Premier Zhang Dejiang (term 1998-2002), and Zhao Hongzhu (term 2007-2012), the Deputy Secretary of the Central Commission for Discipline Inspection, China's top anti-corruption body. Of Zhejiang's fourteen Party Secretaries since 1949, none were native to the province.
What is the province traditionally known as?
56f98b729b226e1400dd154a
Land of Fish and Rice
44
False
What is the main crop of the province?
56f98b729b226e1400dd154b
rice
86
False
What is the second main crop of the province?
56f98b729b226e1400dd154c
wheat
121
False
What part of Zhejiang is a center of aquaculture in China?
56f98b729b226e1400dd154d
north Zhejiang
128
False
What is the largest fishery in the country?
56f98b729b226e1400dd154e
Zhoushan fishery
193
False
Land of Fish and Rice
44
What is the province never known as?
5acfc26277cf76001a685d3e
True
rice
86
What isn't the main crop of the province?
5acfc26277cf76001a685d3f
True
wheat
121
What is the least main crop of the province?
5acfc26277cf76001a685d40
True
north Zhejiang
128
What part of Zhejiang is not a center of aquaculture in China?
5acfc26277cf76001a685d41
True
Zhoushan fishery
193
What is the smallest fishery in the country?
5acfc26277cf76001a685d42
True
The province is traditionally known as the "Land of Fish and Rice". True to its name, rice is the main crop, followed by wheat; north Zhejiang is also a center of aquaculture in China, and the Zhoushan fishery is the largest fishery in the country. The main cash crops include jute and cotton, and the province also leads the provinces of China in tea production. (The renowned Longjing tea is a product of Hangzhou.) Zhejiang's towns have been known for handicraft production of goods such as silk, for which it is ranked second among the provinces. Its many market towns connect the cities with the countryside.
What is an important commercial port along with Ningbo, Wenzhou and Taizhou?
56f98bf79b226e1400dd1554
Zhoushan
29
False
What bridge is between Haiyan County and Cixi?
56f98bf79b226e1400dd1555
The Hangzhou Bay Bridge
70
False
What is the longest bridge over a continuous body of sea water in the world?
56f98bf79b226e1400dd1556
The Hangzhou Bay Bridge
70
False
What kind of ports are Taizhou and Ningbo?
56f98bf79b226e1400dd1557
commercial
52
False
The Hangzhou Bay Bridge goes between Haiyan County and where else?
56f98bf79b226e1400dd1558
Cixi
120
False
Zhoushan
29
What is not an important commercial port along with Ningbo, Wenzhou and Taizhou?
5acfc2d177cf76001a685d62
True
The Hangzhou Bay Bridge
70
What bridge does not go to Haiyan County?
5acfc2d177cf76001a685d63
True
The Hangzhou Bay Bridge
70
What bridge does not go to Cixi?
5acfc2d177cf76001a685d64
True
commercial
52
What kind of ports are Taizhou and Ningbo not considered?
5acfc2d177cf76001a685d65
True
Ningbo, Wenzhou, Taizhou and Zhoushan are important commercial ports. The Hangzhou Bay Bridge between Haiyan County and Cixi, is the longest bridge over a continuous body of sea water in the world.
What is Zhejiang's own development model dubbed?
56f98cd19e9bad19000a0aa1
Zhejiang model
214
False
What is the Zhejiang model based on prioritizing and encouraging?
56f98cd19e9bad19000a0aa2
entrepreneurship
278
False
What direction is the economic heart of Zhejiang moving toward?
56f98cd19e9bad19000a0aa3
southeast
1078
False
What was the annual real growth of urbanites in Zhejiang in 2009?
56f98cd19e9bad19000a0aa4
8.3%
1262
False
What was Zhejiang's nominal GDP in yuan for 2011?
56f98cd19e9bad19000a0aa5
3.20 trillion
1419
False
Zhejiang model
214
What is Zhejiang's own development model not considered?
5acfc32a77cf76001a685d7c
True
entrepreneurship
278
What is the Zhejiang model based discouraging?
5acfc32a77cf76001a685d7d
True
southeastward
1078
What direction is the economic heart of Zhejiang moving away from?
5acfc32a77cf76001a685d7e
True
8.3%
1262
What was the annual real growth of urbanites in Zhejiang in 2008?
5acfc32a77cf76001a685d7f
True
506 billion
1442
What was Zhejiang's nominal GDP in yuan for 2001?
5acfc32a77cf76001a685d80
True
Zhejiang's main manufacturing sectors are electromechanical industries, textiles, chemical industries, food, and construction materials. In recent years Zhejiang has followed its own development model, dubbed the "Zhejiang model", which is based on prioritizing and encouraging entrepreneurship, an emphasis on small businesses responsive to the whims of the market, large public investments into infrastructure, and the production of low-cost goods in bulk for both domestic consumption and export. As a result, Zhejiang has made itself one of the richest provinces, and the "Zhejiang spirit" has become something of a legend within China. However, some economists now worry that this model is not sustainable, in that it is inefficient and places unreasonable demands on raw materials and public utilities, and also a dead end, in that the myriad small businesses in Zhejiang producing cheap goods in bulk are unable to move to more sophisticated or technologically more advanced industries. The economic heart of Zhejiang is moving from North Zhejiang, centered on Hangzhou, southeastward to the region centered on Wenzhou and Taizhou. The per capita disposable income of urbanites in Zhejiang reached 24,611 yuan (US$3,603) in 2009, an annual real growth of 8.3%. The per capita pure income of rural residents stood at 10,007 yuan (US$1,465), a real growth of 8.1% year-on-year. Zhejiang's nominal GDP for 2011 was 3.20 trillion yuan (US$506 billion) with a per capita GDP of 44,335 yuan (US$6,490). In 2009, Zhejiang's primary, secondary, and tertiary industries were worth 116.2 billion yuan (US$17 billion), 1.1843 trillion yuan (US$173.4 billion), and 982.7 billion yuan (US$143.9 billion) respectively.
What day of the week was September 15, 2011?
56f98d699e9bad19000a0aab
Thursday
3
False
What village protested over the large-scale death of fish in a nearby river on September 15, 2011?
56f98d699e9bad19000a0aac
Hongxiao
59
False
How many company vehicles did angry protesters overturn at the Zhejiang Jinko Solar Company?
56f98d699e9bad19000a0aad
eight
227
False
How many more nights after the first day did protests last?
56f98d699e9bad19000a0aae
two
345
False
Who was the deputy head of Haining's environmental protection bureau at the time?
56f98d699e9bad19000a0aaf
Chen Hongming
408
False
Thursday
3
What day of the week was September 14, 2011?
5acfc36077cf76001a685d8e
True
more than 500 people from Hongxiao Village protested over the large-scale death of fish
33
What happened in September 15 2001?
5acfc36077cf76001a685d8f
True
September 15, 2011
13
When did people agree with the large-scale death of fish?
5acfc36077cf76001a685d90
True
the large-scale death of fish
91
What did 50 people protest against?
5acfc36077cf76001a685d91
True
On Thursday, September 15, 2011, more than 500 people from Hongxiao Village protested over the large-scale death of fish in a nearby river. Angry protesters stormed the Zhejiang Jinko Solar Company factory compound, overturned eight company vehicles, and destroyed the offices before police came to disperse the crowd. Protests continued on the two following nights with reports of scuffles, officials said. Chen Hongming, a deputy head of Haining's environmental protection bureau, said the factory's waste disposal had failed pollution tests since April. The environmental watchdog had warned the factory, but it had not effectively controlled the pollution, Chen added.
What kind of Chinese make up the vast majority of the population?
56f98ddc9e9bad19000a0ab5
Han
0
False
What varieties of Chinese do the largest Han subgroup speak?
56f98ddc9e9bad19000a0ab6
Wu
106
False
How many members of ethnic minorities are there?
56f98ddc9e9bad19000a0ab7
400,000
146
False
How many She people are there?
56f98ddc9e9bad19000a0ab8
200,000
208
False
Where is the only She autonomous county in China?
56f98ddc9e9bad19000a0ab9
Lishui
316
False
Han
0
What kind of Japanese make up the vast majority of the population?
5acfc3cd77cf76001a685da8
True
Wu
106
What varieties of Chinese do the smallest Han subgroup speak?
5acfc3cd77cf76001a685da9
True
400,000
146
How many members of ethnic majorities are there?
5acfc3cd77cf76001a685daa
True
20,000
245
How many non-She people are there?
5acfc3cd77cf76001a685dab
True
Lishui
316
Where is the only She autonomous county in Japan?
5acfc3cd77cf76001a685dac
True
Han Chinese make up the vast majority of the population, and the largest Han subgroup are the speakers of Wu varieties of Chinese. There are also 400,000 members of ethnic minorities, including approximately 200,000 She people and approximately 20,000 Hui Chinese[citation needed]. Jingning She Autonomous County in Lishui is the only She autonomous county in China.
What is another predominant religion of Zhejiang besides Chinese folk religions and Taoist traditions?
56f98e839b226e1400dd1568
Chinese Buddhism
88
False
According to surveys in 2007 and 2009, what percent of the population believes in cults of ancestors?
56f98e839b226e1400dd1569
23.02%
155
False
According to surveys in 2007 and 2009, what percent of the population identifies as Christian?
56f98e839b226e1400dd156a
2.62%
234
False
What percent of the population identified as Christians in 2004?
56f98e839b226e1400dd156b
3.92%
299
False
What percent of the population may be irreligious?
56f98e839b226e1400dd156c
74.36%
375
False
Buddhism
96
What is another predominant religion of Zhejiang besides Japanese folk religions and Taoist traditions?
5acfc3fb77cf76001a685dbc
True
23.02%
155
According to surveys in 2007 and 2009, what percent of the population does not believe in cults of ancestors?
5acfc3fb77cf76001a685dbd
True
3.92%
299
What percent of the population identified as Christians in 2007?
5acfc3fb77cf76001a685dbe
True
74.36%
375
What percent of the population is not irreligious?
5acfc3fb77cf76001a685dbf
True
The predominant religions in Zhejiang are Chinese folk religions, Taoist traditions and Chinese Buddhism. According to surveys conducted in 2007 and 2009, 23.02% of the population believes and is involved in cults of ancestors, while 2.62% of the population identifies as Christian, decreasing from 3.92% in 2004. The reports didn't give figures for other types of religion; 74.36% of the population may be either irreligious or involved in worship of nature deities, Buddhism, Confucianism, Taoism, folk religious sects, and small minorities of Muslims.
What year did the government of Zhejiang recognise folk religion as 'civil religion'?
56f98f199e9bad19000a0ac7
2015
7
False
When did Buddhism arrive in Zhejiang?
56f98f199e9bad19000a0ac8
1,800 years ago
234
False
What has an important presence in Zhejiang since its arrival 1,800 years ago?
56f98f199e9bad19000a0ac9
Buddhism
169
False
What part of 2015 did the government of Zhejiang recognise folk religion as 'civil religion'?
56f98f199e9bad19000a0aca
mid
3
False
More than how many thousand folk religious organisations were registered in Zhejiang in 2015?
56f98f199e9bad19000a0acb
twenty
124
False
2015
7
What year did the government of Zhejiang reject folk religion as 'civil religion'?
5acfc47b77cf76001a685de6
True
1,800 years ago
234
When did Buddhism leave Zhejiang?
5acfc47b77cf76001a685de7
True
Buddhism
169
What has an important presence in Zhejiang since its departure 1,800 years ago?
5acfc47b77cf76001a685de8
True
mid
3
What part of 2013 did the government of Zhejiang recognise folk religion as 'civil religion'?
5acfc47b77cf76001a685de9
True
twenty
124
More than how many hundred folk religious organisations were registered in Zhejiang in 2015?
5acfc47b77cf76001a685dea
True
In mid-2015 the government of Zhejiang recognised folk religion as "civil religion" beginning the registration of more than twenty thousand folk religious associations. Buddhism has an important presence since its arrival in Zhejiang 1,800 years ago.
How many years ago did Catholicism arrive in the province?
56f98f939b226e1400dd1578
400
20
False
How many years ago did Protestantism arrive in the province?
56f98f939b226e1400dd1579
150
68
False
Where are Protestants especially notable in Zhejiang?
56f98f939b226e1400dd157a
Wenzhou
207
False
What percent of Zhejiang was Protestant in 1999?
56f98f939b226e1400dd157b
2.8%
267
False
Which religion came to Zhejiang 400 years ago?
56f98f939b226e1400dd157c
Catholicism
0
False
400
20
How many years ago did Catholicism leave the province?
5acfc4a677cf76001a685df0
True
150
68
How many years ago did Protestantism leave in the province?
5acfc4a677cf76001a685df1
True
Wenzhou
207
Where are Protestants not notable in Zhejiang?
5acfc4a677cf76001a685df2
True
2.8%
267
What percent of Zhejiang was Protestant in 1998?
5acfc4a677cf76001a685df3
True
Catholicism
0
Which religion came to Zhejiang 500 years ago?
5acfc4a677cf76001a685df4
True
Catholicism arrived 400 years ago in the province and Protestantism 150 years ago. Zhejiang is one of the provinces of China with the largest concentrations of Protestants, especially notable in the city of Wenzhou. In 1999 Zhejiang's Protestant population comprised 2.8% of the provincial population, a small percentage but higher than the national average.
When did the rapid development of religions in Zhejiang drive the local committee of ethnic and religious affairs to enact measures to rationalise them?
56f9906d9e9bad19000a0ad3
2014
151
False
According to the locality, in addition to "Three Rectifications and One Demolition", what was another name for these measures?
56f9906d9e9bad19000a0ad4
Special Treatment Work on Illegally Constructed Sites of Religious and Folk Religion Activities
230
False
These regulations have led to the demolition of churches and what else?
56f9906d9e9bad19000a0ad5
folk religion temples
420
False
What have these regulations led to the removal of from churches?
56f9906d9e9bad19000a0ad6
crosses
461
False
What was an exemplary case of all this?
56f9906d9e9bad19000a0ad7
Sanjiang Church
536
False
2014
151
When did the slow development of religions in Zhejiang drive the local committee of ethnic and religious affairs to enact measures to rationalise them?
5acfc4ee77cf76001a685e08
True
Special Treatment Work on Illegally Constructed Sites of Religious and Folk Religion Activities
230
According to the locality, in addition to "Five Rectifications and Two Demolition", what was another name for these measures?
5acfc4ee77cf76001a685e09
True
Folk Religion Activities
301
These regulations have not led to the demolition of churches and what else?
5acfc4ee77cf76001a685e0a
True
crosses
461
What have these regulations led to the addition to in churches?
5acfc4ee77cf76001a685e0b
True
Sanjiang Church
536
What was not an exemplary case of all this?
5acfc4ee77cf76001a685e0c
True
The rapid development of religions in Zhejiang has driven the local committee of ethnic and religious affairs to enact measures to rationalise them in 2014, variously named "Three Rectifications and One Demolition" operations or "Special Treatment Work on Illegally Constructed Sites of Religious and Folk Religion Activities" according to the locality. These regulations have led to cases of demolition of churches and folk religion temples, or the removal of crosses from churches' roofs and spires. An exemplary case was that of the Sanjiang Church.
How long ago did Islam arrive in Zhejiang?
56f990ce9e9bad19000a0add
1,400 years
14
False
What religion do the Hui Chinese living in Zhejiang practice?
56f990ce9e9bad19000a0ade
Islam
0
False
How many of the Hui Chinese living in Zhejiang practice Islam?
56f990ce9e9bad19000a0adf
virtually all
106
False
What is practiced by the She ethnic minority in Zhejiang?
56f990ce9e9bad19000a0ae0
She shamanism
200
False
What religion came to Zhejiang 1,400 years ago?
56f990ce9e9bad19000a0ae1
Islam
0
False
1,400
14
How long ago did Islam leave Zhejiang?
5acfc52077cf76001a685e1a
True
Islam
49
What religion do the Hui Chinese living in Zhejiang not practice?
5acfc52077cf76001a685e1b
True
virtually all
106
How many of the Hui Chinese living in Zhejiang do not practice Islam?
5acfc52077cf76001a685e1c
True
She shamanism
200
What is not practiced by the She ethnic minority in Zhejiang?
5acfc52077cf76001a685e1d
True
Islam
0
What religion left Zhejiang 1,400 years ago?
5acfc52077cf76001a685e1e
True
Islam arrived 1,400 years ago in Zhejiang. Today Islam is practiced by a small number of people including virtually all the Hui Chinese living in Zhejiang. Another religion present in the province is She shamanism (practiced by She ethnic minority).
How diverse is Zhejiang, linguistically speaking?
56f9914a9b226e1400dd15ac
extremely
137
False
What do most inhabitants of Zhejiang speak?
56f9914a9b226e1400dd15ad
Wu
191
False
Mandarin and Huizhou dialects are spoken on the border where?
56f9914a9b226e1400dd15ae
with Anhui
491
False
Min dialects are spoken on the border where?
56f9914a9b226e1400dd15af
with Fujian
547
False
What type of geography is Zhejiang?
56f9914a9b226e1400dd15b0
mountainous
12
False
extremely
137
How similar is Zhejiang, linguistically speaking?
5acfc57177cf76001a685e24
True
Wu
191
What do no inhabitants of Zhejiang speak?
5acfc57177cf76001a685e25
True
the border with Anhui
480
Mandarin and Huizhou dialects are spoken inside of what?
5acfc57177cf76001a685e26
True
Fujian
552
Min dialects are not spoken on the border where?
5acfc57177cf76001a685e27
True
mountainous
12
What type of geography is Zhejiang never considered?
5acfc57177cf76001a685e28
True
Zhejiang is mountainous and has therefore fostered the development of many distinct local cultures. Linguistically speaking, Zhejiang is extremely diverse. Most inhabitants of Zhejiang speak Wu, but the Wu dialects are very diverse, especially in the south, where one valley may speak a dialect completely unintelligible to the next valley a few kilometers away. Other varieties of Chinese are spoken as well, mostly along the borders; Mandarin and Huizhou dialects are spoken on the border with Anhui, while Min dialects are spoken on the border with Fujian. (See Hangzhou dialect, Shaoxing dialect, Ningbo dialect, Wenzhou dialect, Taizhou dialect, Jinhua dialect, and Quzhou dialect for more information).
When was the People's Republic of China founded?
56f991dc9e9bad19000a0ae7
1949
257
False
What has been promoted as the standard language of communication throughout China since 1949?
56f991dc9e9bad19000a0ae8
Mandarin
263
False
A majority of the population educated since what year can speak Mandarin?
56f991dc9e9bad19000a0ae9
1978
589
False
What type of residents tend to be more fluent in Mandarin than rural ones?
56f991dc9e9bad19000a0aea
Urban
614
False
Throughout history there have been a series of what in the area to allow for better communication?
56f991dc9e9bad19000a0aeb
lingua francas
47
False
1949
257
When was the People's Republic of China defunct?
5acfc5ba77cf76001a685e50
True
Mandarin
263
What has been not promoted as the standard language of communication throughout China since 1949?
5acfc5ba77cf76001a685e51
True
1978
589
A minority of the population educated since what year can speak Mandarin?
5acfc5ba77cf76001a685e52
True
Urban
614
What type of residents tend to be less fluent in Mandarin than rural ones?
5acfc5ba77cf76001a685e53
True
lingua francas
47
Throughout history there have been a series of what in the area to allow for worse communication?
5acfc5ba77cf76001a685e54
True
Throughout history there have been a series of lingua francas in the area to allow for better communication. The dialects spoken in Hangzhou, Shaoxing, and Ningbo have taken on this role historically. Since the founding of the People's Republic of China in 1949, Mandarin, which is not mutually intelligible with any of the local dialects, has been promoted as the standard language of communication throughout China. As a result, most of the population now can, to some degree, speak and comprehend Mandarin and can code-switch when necessary. A majority of the population educated since 1978 can speak Mandarin. Urban residents tend to be more fluent in Mandarin than rural people. Nevertheless, a Zhejiang accent is detectable in almost everyone from the area communicating in Mandarin, and the home dialect remains an important part of the everyday lives and cultural identities of most Zhejiang residents.
What is one of the most prominent forms of Chinese opera?
56f992449e9bad19000a0af1
Yueju
24
False
Where did Yueju originate?
56f992449e9bad19000a0af2
Shengzhou
106
False
Who is Yueju traditionally performed by?
56f992449e9bad19000a0af3
actresses only
150
False
Who plays male roles in Yueju?
56f992449e9bad19000a0af4
actresses
150
False
Who plays female roles in Yueju?
56f992449e9bad19000a0af5
actresses
150
False
Yueju
24
What is one of the least prominent forms of Chinese opera?
5acfc5fb77cf76001a685e64
True
Shengzhou
106
Where did Yueju end?
5acfc5fb77cf76001a685e65
True
actresses
150
Who is Yueju never performed by?
5acfc5fb77cf76001a685e66
True
actresses
150
Who doesn't play male roles in Yueju?
5acfc5fb77cf76001a685e67
True
actresses
150
Who doesn't play female roles in Yueju?
5acfc5fb77cf76001a685e68
True
Zhejiang is the home of Yueju (越劇), one of the most prominent forms of Chinese opera. Yueju originated in Shengzhou and is traditionally performed by actresses only, in both male and female roles. Other important opera traditions include Yongju (of Ningbo), Shaoju (of Shaoxing), Ouju (of Wenzhou), Wuju (of Jinhua), Taizhou Luantan (of Taizhou) and Zhuji Luantan (of Zhuji).
What is Longjing tea also called?
56f992a89b226e1400dd15c0
dragon well tea
26
False
Where does Longjing tea originate from?
56f992a89b226e1400dd15c1
Hangzhou
59
False
What type of umbrellas is Hangzhou known for?
56f992a89b226e1400dd15c2
silk
176
False
What type of fans is Hangzhou known for?
56f992a89b226e1400dd15c3
hand
195
False
Zhejiang cuisine is one of how many great traditions of Chinese cuisine?
56f992a89b226e1400dd15c4
eight
306
False
dragon well tea
26
What is Shortjing tea also called?
5acfc64177cf76001a685e7e
True
Hangzhou
142
Where is Longjing tea banned from?
5acfc64177cf76001a685e7f
True
silk
176
What type of clothes is Hangzhou known for?
5acfc64177cf76001a685e80
True
fans
200
What type of shoes is Hangzhou known for?
5acfc64177cf76001a685e81
True
eight
306
Zhejiang cuisine is one of how many great traditions of Japenese cuisine?
5acfc64177cf76001a685e82
True
Longjing tea (also called dragon well tea), originating in Hangzhou, is one of the most prestigious, if not the most prestigious Chinese tea. Hangzhou is also renowned for its silk umbrellas and hand fans. Zhejiang cuisine (itself subdivided into many traditions, including Hangzhou cuisine) is one of the eight great traditions of Chinese cuisine.
What neighbours north Zhejiang to the south?
56f993459e9bad19000a0afb
Jiangsu
59
False
What neighbours south Jiangsu to the north?
56f993459e9bad19000a0afc
Zhejiang
27
False
North Zhejiang and south Jiangsu are famed for their opulence and what else?
56f993459e9bad19000a0afd
prosperity
93
False
Inserting north Zhejiang names into poetry gave an effect of what?
56f993459e9bad19000a0afe
dreaminess
239
False
The fame of where led to a popular saying?
56f993459e9bad19000a0aff
Hangzhou
319
False
Jiangsu
59
What neighbours north Zhejiang to the east?
5acfc68477cf76001a685ea0
True
Zhejiang
162
What neighbours south Jiangsu to the west?
5acfc68477cf76001a685ea1
True
prosperity
93
South Zhejiang and North Jiangsu are famed for their opulence and what else?
5acfc68477cf76001a685ea2
True
dreaminess
239
Inserting south Zhejiang names into poetry gave an effect of what?
5acfc68477cf76001a685ea3
True
popular saying
396
What said "Below there is heaven"
5acfc68477cf76001a685ea4
True
Since ancient times, north Zhejiang and neighbouring south Jiangsu have been famed for their prosperity and opulence[citation needed], and simply inserting north Zhejiang place names (Hangzhou, Jiaxing, etc.) into poetry gave an effect of dreaminess, a practice followed by many noted poets. In particular, the fame of Hangzhou (as well as Suzhou in neighbouring Jiangsu province) has led to the popular saying: "Above there is heaven; below there is Suzhou and Hangzhou" (上有天堂，下有苏杭), a saying that continues to be a source of pride for the people of these two still prosperous cities.
Ministry_of_Defence_(United_Kingdom)
Which government's Ministry of Defence is mentioned here?
56f955c99e9bad19000a0837
British
37
False
What does MoD stand for?
56f955c99e9bad19000a0838
Ministry of Defence
4
False
Who sets the defence policy in Great Britain?
56f955c99e9bad19000a0839
Her Majesty's Government
122
False
For which part of the government is the MoD the headquarters?
56f955c99e9bad19000a083a
British Armed Forces
179
False
(MoD)
24
What is another name for Her Majesty's Government?
5a56892f6349e2001acdce10
True
The Ministry of Defence
0
What is the headquarters of Her Majesty's Government?
5a56892f6349e2001acdce11
True
The Ministry of Defence
0
Who implements the location of Her Majesty's Government?
5a56892f6349e2001acdce12
True
The Ministry of Defence
0
Where is the headquarters of Her Majesty's Government?
5a56892f6349e2001acdce13
True
the defence policy
96
What does the British Armed Forces implement?
5a56892f6349e2001acdce14
True
The Ministry of Defence (MoD) is the British government department responsible for implementing the defence policy set by Her Majesty's Government, and is the headquarters of the British Armed Forces.
What does the MoD wish to strengthen?
56f957049e9bad19000a083f
international peace and stability
152
False
The UK consists of what two areas?
56f957049e9bad19000a0840
Great Britain and Northern Ireland
81
False
What does the MoD defend?
56f957049e9bad19000a0841
United Kingdom of Great Britain and Northern Ireland
63
False
What are the threats that the MoD has identified?
56f957049e9bad19000a0842
weapons of mass destruction, international terrorism, and failed and failing states
350
False
What does the MoD manage?
56f957049e9bad19000a0843
day-to-day running of the armed forces, contingency planning and defence procurement
505
False
international peace and stability
152
What is strengthened  in the Soviet Union after the Cold War?
5a5695656349e2001acdce60
True
does not foresee any short-term conventional military threat
262
What does Northern Ireland see as far as short term threats?
5a5695656349e2001acdce61
True
weapons of mass destruction, international terrorism, and failed and failing states
350
What has Northern Ireland found are threats to international peace and stability?
5a5695656349e2001acdce62
True
day-to-day running of the armed forces, contingency planning and defence procurement
505
What needs to be managed daily by Northern Ireland?
5a5695656349e2001acdce63
True
its interests
120
What is one thing that the Soviet Union wants to defend?
5a5695656349e2001acdce64
True
The MoD states that its principal objectives are to defend the United Kingdom of Great Britain and Northern Ireland and its interests and to strengthen international peace and stability. With the collapse of the Soviet Union and the end of the Cold War, the MoD does not foresee any short-term conventional military threat; rather, it has identified weapons of mass destruction, international terrorism, and failed and failing states as the overriding threats to Britain's interests. The MoD also manages day-to-day running of the armed forces, contingency planning and defence procurement.
What three services make up the armed forces of the UK?
56f959f79e9bad19000a0867
the British Army, the Royal Navy, and the Royal Air Force
270
False
What did David Lloyd George's coalition government reject in 1921?
56f959f79e9bad19000a0868
The formation of a united ministry of defence
329
False
When was the Chiefs of Staff Committee formed?
56f959f79e9bad19000a0869
1923
490
False
Who created the position of Minister for Coordination of Defence?
56f959f79e9bad19000a086a
Stanley Baldwin
594
False
What post did Lord Chatfield hold until 1940?
56f959f79e9bad19000a086b
Minister for Coordination of Defence
634
False
in 1921
433
When was the creation of a Royal Navy rejected by David Lloyd George's coalition government?
5a56b2846349e2001acdceee
True
for the purposes of inter-Service co-ordination
496
Why was the a group of British civil servantsformed in 1923?
5a56b2846349e2001acdceef
True
the position of Minister for Coordination of Defence
618
What was created by Neville Chamberlain in the 1920"s?
5a56b2846349e2001acdcef0
True
in 1940
752
When was the Royal Air Force disbanded?
5a56b2846349e2001acdcef1
True
the British Army, the Royal Navy, and the Royal Air Force
270
What three services were limited by political influence in 1923?
5a56b2846349e2001acdcef2
True
During the 1920s and 1930s, British civil servants and politicians, looking back at the performance of the state during World War I, concluded that there was a need for greater co-ordination between the three Services that made up the armed forces of the United Kingdom—the British Army, the Royal Navy, and the Royal Air Force. The formation of a united ministry of defence was rejected by David Lloyd George's coalition government in 1921; but the Chiefs of Staff Committee was formed in 1923, for the purposes of inter-Service co-ordination. As rearmament became a concern during the 1930s, Stanley Baldwin created the position of Minister for Coordination of Defence. Lord Chatfield held the post until the fall of Neville Chamberlain's government in 1940; his success was limited by his lack of control over the existing Service departments and his limited political influence.
Who created the office of Minister of Defence?
56f95b969b226e1400dd1398
Winston Churchill
0
False
When was the Ministry of Defence Act introduced?
56f95b969b226e1400dd1399
1946
326
False
When did Winstron Churchill form his government?
56f95b969b226e1400dd139a
1940
48
False
The new ministry, according to the Act of 1946, was headed by a Minister of Defence who possessed what?
56f95b969b226e1400dd139b
a seat in the Cabinet
399
False
Who stopped attending Cabinet with the passage of the Ministry of Defence Act of 1946?
56f95b969b226e1400dd139c
the Secretary of State for War, the First Lord of the Admiralty, and the Secretary of State for Air
459
False
Winston Churchill
0
Who created the Chiefs of Staff Committee?
5a56b4176349e2001acdcef8
True
the Prime Minister of the day
220
Who was the Secretary of State for War?
5a56b4176349e2001acdcef9
True
until Clement Attlee's government introduced the Ministry of Defence Act of 1946
250
How long did someone hold the position of Secretary of State for War?
5a56b4176349e2001acdcefa
True
1946
326
When was the Secretary of State Act introduced?
5a56b4176349e2001acdcefb
True
a seat in the Cabinet
399
What did Winston Churchill possess while Minister of Defence?
5a56b4176349e2001acdcefc
True
Winston Churchill, on forming his government in 1940, created the office of Minister of Defence to exercise ministerial control over the Chiefs of Staff Committee and to co-ordinate defence matters. The post was held by the Prime Minister of the day until Clement Attlee's government introduced the Ministry of Defence Act of 1946. The new ministry was headed by a Minister of Defence who possessed a seat in the Cabinet. The three existing service Ministers—the Secretary of State for War, the First Lord of the Admiralty, and the Secretary of State for Air—remained in direct operational control of their respective services, but ceased to attend Cabinet.
During what years did the five Departments of State do the work of the modern Ministry of Defence?
56f95c639e9bad19000a0883
1946 to 1964
5
False
What were the five Departments of State that did the work of the modern Ministry of Defence?
56f95c639e9bad19000a0884
the Admiralty, the War Office, the Air Ministry, the Ministry of Aviation, and an earlier form of the Ministry of Defence
92
False
When did the defence functions of the Ministry of Aviation Supply merge into the Ministry of Defence?
56f95c639e9bad19000a0885
1971
345
False
All former Departments of State (except the Ministry of Aviation Supply) merged in what year?
56f95c639e9bad19000a0886
1964
243
False
of the modern Ministry of Defence
57
What work was done by the War Office in 1971?
5a56b6d26349e2001acdcf02
True
the Admiralty, the War Office, the Air Ministry, the Ministry of Aviation, and an earlier form of the Ministry of Defence
92
What five defence functions merged together in 1971?
5a56b6d26349e2001acdcf03
True
the work of the modern Ministry of Defence
48
What did the Ministry of Aviation Supply do from 1946 to 1964?
5a56b6d26349e2001acdcf04
True
the Ministry of Defence
318
What did the defence functions of the Ministry of Aviation Supply merge into in 1964?
5a56b6d26349e2001acdcf05
True
merged
233
What happened to the War Office in 1971?
5a56b6d26349e2001acdcf06
True
From 1946 to 1964 five Departments of State did the work of the modern Ministry of Defence: the Admiralty, the War Office, the Air Ministry, the Ministry of Aviation, and an earlier form of the Ministry of Defence. These departments merged in 1964; the defence functions of the Ministry of Aviation Supply merged into the Ministry of Defence in 1971.
Who is supported by civilian, scientific, and professional military advisors?
56f95d179b226e1400dd13b2
The Ministers and Chiefs of the Defence Staff
0
False
What is the Permanent Under-Secretary of State for Defence generally known as?
56f95d179b226e1400dd13b3
Permanent Secretary
207
False
Where does the Permanent Secretary serve as the senior civil servant?
56f95d179b226e1400dd13b4
MoD
263
False
What is the role of the Permanent Secretary?
56f95d179b226e1400dd13b5
to ensure the MoD operates effectively as a department of the government
287
False
a number of civilian, scientific and professional military advisors
63
Who supports the Permanent Secretary?
5a56bf806349e2001acdcf0c
True
the Permanent Secretary
203
What is another name for the Minister of the Defense?
5a56bf806349e2001acdcf0d
True
to ensure the MoD operates effectively as a department of the government
287
What is the role of the Chief of Defence?
5a56bf806349e2001acdcf0e
True
at the MoD
256
Where does the Minister of Defence serve as the senior civil servant?
5a56bf806349e2001acdcf0f
True
ensure the MoD operates effectively as a department of the government
290
What does the Chief of Defense do?
5a56bf806349e2001acdcf10
True
The Ministers and Chiefs of the Defence Staff are supported by a number of civilian, scientific and professional military advisors. The Permanent Under-Secretary of State for Defence (generally known as the Permanent Secretary) is the senior civil servant at the MoD. His or her role is to ensure the MoD operates effectively as a department of the government.
What is the name of the person who is the current Chief of the Defence Staff?
56f96f969e9bad19000a0907
General Sir Nicholas Houghton
94
False
Who is the professional head of the British Armed Forces?
56f96f969e9bad19000a0908
Chief of the Defence Staff
12
False
The professional heads of what three services support the Chief of the Defence Staff?
56f96f969e9bad19000a0909
HM Armed Forces
252
False
Which person in the Joint Forces Command supports the Chief of the Defence Staff?
56f96f969e9bad19000a090a
the Commander
275
False
General Sir Nicholas Houghton
94
Who is the current Commander of Joint Forces Command?
5a56c41a6349e2001acdcf16
True
Chief of the Defence Staff
12
What is the title of the head of the HM Armed Forces?
5a56c41a6349e2001acdcf17
True
HM Armed Forces
252
The heads of what three services support the Commander of Joint Forces Command?
5a56c41a6349e2001acdcf18
True
Green Howards
130
What is the name of the person who used to be the Commander of Joint Forces Command?
5a56c41a6349e2001acdcf19
True
Chief of the Defence Staff
12
Who is the professional head of the British Defense Staff?
5a56c41a6349e2001acdcf1a
True
The current Chief of the Defence Staff, the professional head of the British Armed Forces, is General Sir Nicholas Houghton, late Green Howards. He is supported by the Vice Chief of the Defence Staff, by the professional heads of the three services of HM Armed Forces and by the Commander of Joint Forces Command.
How many Deputy Chiefs of the Defence Staff are there?
56f970f49e9bad19000a0923
three
15
False
What are the three Deputy Chiefs of the Defence Staff?
56f970f49e9bad19000a0924
Deputy Chief of the Defence Staff (Capability), Deputy CDS (Personnel and Training) and Deputy CDS (Operations)
80
False
Who represents the Defence Medical Services on the Defence Staff?
56f970f49e9bad19000a0925
The Surgeon General
193
False
Who leads the Defence Medical Services?
56f970f49e9bad19000a0926
The Surgeon General
193
False
three
15
How many Defence Medical Services are there?
5a56c5956349e2001acdcf20
True
Deputy Chief of the Defence Staff (Capability), Deputy CDS (Personnel and Training) and Deputy CDS (Operations)
80
What three groups are part of the Defence Medical Services?
5a56c5956349e2001acdcf21
True
The Surgeon General
193
Who is in charge of the Deputy Chief of the Defense Staff?
5a56c5956349e2001acdcf22
True
The Surgeon General
193
Who is the leader of the Deputy CDS?
5a56c5956349e2001acdcf23
True
on the Defence Staff
254
Where is the Deputy CDS that the Surgeon General represents?
5a56c5956349e2001acdcf24
True
There are also three Deputy Chiefs of the Defence Staff with particular remits, Deputy Chief of the Defence Staff (Capability), Deputy CDS (Personnel and Training) and Deputy CDS (Operations). The Surgeon General, represents the Defence Medical Services on the Defence Staff, and is the clinical head of that service.
One of the Assistant Chiefs of the Defence Staff is for Reserves and what?
56f977009b226e1400dd1478
Cadets
136
False
The Personnel Chief is also known as what?
56f977009b226e1400dd1479
the Defence Services Secretary in the Royal Household of the Sovereign of the United Kingdom
148
False
There is a Defence Services Secretary in the Royal Household of the what?
56f977009b226e1400dd147a
Sovereign
209
False
Who are two of the Assistant Chiefs of the Defence Staff?
56f977009b226e1400dd147b
Assistant Chief of the Defence Staff (Reserves and Cadets) and the Defence Services Secretary in the Royal Household of the Sovereign of the United Kingdom
85
False
the Defence Services Secretary
148
What is the Assistant Chief of the Defense Staff  for Reserves and Cadets also known as?
5a56c7e36349e2001acdcf2a
True
(Reserves and Cadets)
122
What two groups is the Defense Services Secretary responsible for?
5a56c7e36349e2001acdcf2b
True
the Royal Household of the Sovereign
182
In what household is the Assistant Chief of the Defense Staff for Reserves and Cadets?
5a56c7e36349e2001acdcf2c
True
a number
24
How many Defence Services Secretaries are there?
5a56c7e36349e2001acdcf2d
True
Defence Services Secretary
152
What assistant in the royal household is also responsible for Reserves and Cadets?
5a56c7e36349e2001acdcf2e
True
Additionally, there are a number of Assistant Chiefs of Defence Staff, including the Assistant Chief of the Defence Staff (Reserves and Cadets) and the Defence Services Secretary in the Royal Household of the Sovereign of the United Kingdom, who is also the Assistant Chief of Defence Staff (Personnel).
In what year was there a Strategic Defence Review?
56f977b19e9bad19000a097b
1998
4
False
What paper was published in 2003?
56f977b19e9bad19000a097c
Delivering Security in a Changing World White Paper
47
False
Which part of the Britsh government were the two publications listed concerning?
56f977b19e9bad19000a097d
British Armed Forces
138
False
1998
4
In what year was the British Armed Forces created?
5a56c8e56349e2001acdcf34
True
Strategic Defence Review
9
What did the British Armed Forces write in 1998?
5a56c8e56349e2001acdcf35
True
Delivering Security in a Changing World White Paper
47
What was written by the British Armed Forces in 2003?
5a56c8e56349e2001acdcf36
True
the following posture
108
What was outlined by the British Armed Forces in the two publications?
5a56c8e56349e2001acdcf37
True
Security
58
What was the topic of the paper written by the British Armed Forces in 2003?
5a56c8e56349e2001acdcf38
True
The 1998 Strategic Defence Review and the 2003 Delivering Security in a Changing World White Paper outlined the following posture for the British Armed Forces:
In what concept is the MoD considered a leader?
56f97a649e9bad19000a0995
defence diplomacy
100
False
Who was the PM of Britain in 2010?
56f97a649e9bad19000a0996
David Cameron
198
False
Who was the president of France in 2010?
56f97a649e9bad19000a0997
Nicolas Sarkozy
258
False
In which two countries is the UK installing military bases?
56f97a649e9bad19000a0998
UAE and Bahrain
431
False
In which other country is the UK thinking about installing a military base?
56f97a649e9bad19000a0999
Oman
462
False
air and naval bases
375
What is France establishing in the Persian Gulf?
5a56c9b96349e2001acdcf3e
True
Oman
462
Where is France thinking about also putting air and naval bases?
5a56c9b96349e2001acdcf3f
True
"defence diplomacy"
99
What concept is France considered a leader in?
5a56c9b96349e2001acdcf40
True
a 50-year treaty
219
What did Oman sign with France?
5a56c9b96349e2001acdcf41
True
co-operate intensively in military matters
308
What would the treaty allow Oman and France to do?
5a56c9b96349e2001acdcf42
True
The MoD has since been regarded as a leader in elaborating the post-Cold War organising concept of "defence diplomacy". As a result of the Strategic Defence and Security Review 2010, Prime Minister David Cameron signed a 50-year treaty with French President Nicolas Sarkozy that would have the two countries co-operate intensively in military matters. The UK is establishing air and naval bases in the Persian Gulf, located in the UAE and Bahrain. A presence in Oman is also being considered.
How much was the investment in new equipment and capabilities worth?
56f97afc9e9bad19000a099f
£178 billion
56
False
In which year was a £178 billion investment made?
56f97afc9e9bad19000a09a0
2015
42
False
How many primary missions were included in the 2015 Review?
56f97afc9e9bad19000a09a1
four
152
False
What is the name of the yearly statement released by the MoD?
56f97afc9e9bad19000a09a2
The Strategic Defence and Security Review
0
False
£178 billion
56
How much did the Strategic Defence and Security Review cost to produce?
5a56cb4f6349e2001acdcf48
True
£178 billion
56
How much did the government invest in four primary missions?
5a56cb4f6349e2001acdcf49
True
The Strategic Defence and Security Review
0
What is the name of the defence policy of the Armed Forces in 2015?
5a56cb4f6349e2001acdcf4a
True
2015
42
When did the Armed Forces take part in four primary missions?
5a56cb4f6349e2001acdcf4b
True
a defence policy
130
What did the Armed Forces set for the Strategic Defense and Security Review?
5a56cb4f6349e2001acdcf4c
True
The Strategic Defence and Security Review 2015 included £178 billion investment in new equipment and capabilities. The review set a defence policy with four primary missions for the Armed Forces:
What was the new threat that arose after the end of the Cold War?
56f97b8e9b226e1400dd1498
terrorism
131
False
"probably the fight of our generation"
431
What was fighting during the Cold War considered by Dannatt?
5a56cc9b6349e2001acdcf52
True
an "era of persistent conflict"
290
What was the Cold War era also called?
5a56cc9b6349e2001acdcf53
True
the threat of direct conventional military confrontation
35
What has the threat of terrorism been replaced by?
5a56cc9b6349e2001acdcf54
True
"predatory non-state actors"
215
What does Chatham House predict al-Qaeda will fight in the future?
5a56cc9b6349e2001acdcf55
True
other states
97
Who was involved with terrorism in the Cold War?
5a56cc9b6349e2001acdcf56
True
Following the end of the Cold War, the threat of direct conventional military confrontation with other states has been replaced by terrorism. Sir Richard Dannatt predicted British forces to be involved in combating "predatory non-state actors" for the foreseeable future, in what he called an "era of persistent conflict". He told the Chatham House think tank that the fight against al-Qaeda and other militant Islamist groups was "probably the fight of our generation".
Military spending that is based on conventional threats has been dismissed as what?
56f97d559e9bad19000a09a7
Cold War mentality
30
False
How much of the MoD's equipment budget is invested in the "land environment"?
56f97d559e9bad19000a09a8
10%
181
False
Where was Britain involved in a land war when some thought that land wars were basically a thing of the past?
56f97d559e9bad19000a09a9
Afghanistan and Iraq
349
False
Which years make up the time span mentioned for the military budget numbers?
56f97d559e9bad19000a09aa
2003 and 2018
233
False
10%
181
What percentage of Iraq's budget was invested to help fight a direct threat in 2003?
5a56cdf36349e2001acdcf5c
True
Afghanistan and Iraq
349
What two countries were also involved in the Cold War?
5a56cdf36349e2001acdcf5d
True
"Cold War mentality"
29
What is it called when Iraq was criticized for their military budget to stop a threat?
5a56cdf36349e2001acdcf5e
True
between 2003 and 2018
225
What time period was Britain involved in the Cold War?
5a56cdf36349e2001acdcf5f
True
the "land environment"
269
What was 10% of Iraq's military budget to be invested in?
5a56cdf36349e2001acdcf60
True
Dannatt criticised a remnant "Cold War mentality", with military expenditures based on retaining a capability against a direct conventional strategic threat; He said currently only 10% of the MoD's equipment programme budget between 2003 and 2018 was to be invested in the "land environment"—at a time when Britain was engaged in land-based wars in Afghanistan and Iraq.
Who was the Chief of Defence Materiel in 2009?
56f97e179b226e1400dd14b9
General Sir Kevin O’Donoghue
154
False
Which department is overseen by the Chief of Defence Materiel?
56f97e179b226e1400dd14ba
Defence Equipment and Support (DE&S)
212
False
Which programme was mentioned as being underfunded?
56f97e179b226e1400dd14bb
Equipment Programme
765
False
Who was the Secretary of State for Defence in 2009?
56f97e179b226e1400dd14bc
Bob Ainsworth MP
1066
False
Which publication said the 2009 defence budget was more than 10% overbudget?
56f97e179b226e1400dd14bd
London Evening Standard
1502
False
Bob Ainsworth
1066
Who is the head of the London Evening Standard?
5a56d1a86349e2001acdcf66
True
there was not enough money within the defence budget
1332
What did the MoD mention about the defence science and technology budget?
5a56d1a86349e2001acdcf67
True
more than 10% overspent"
1558
What has the Equipment Programme done with its budget in 2009 according to an internal memo?
5a56d1a86349e2001acdcf68
True
IT
1743
What has the Equipment Programme been investing in to cut costs and improve personnel services?
5a56d1a86349e2001acdcf69
True
"major shifts"
1170
What did former Secretary of State for Defence Mark Stanhope not rule out for spending on personnel?
5a56d1a86349e2001acdcf6a
True
The Defence Committee—Third Report "Defence Equipment 2009" cites an article from the Financial Times website stating that the Chief of Defence Materiel, General Sir Kevin O’Donoghue, had instructed staff within Defence Equipment and Support (DE&S) through an internal memorandum to reprioritize the approvals process to focus on supporting current operations over the next three years; deterrence related programmes; those that reflect defence obligations both contractual or international; and those where production contracts are already signed. The report also cites concerns over potential cuts in the defence science and technology research budget; implications of inappropriate estimation of Defence Inflation within budgetary processes; underfunding in the Equipment Programme; and a general concern over striking the appropriate balance over a short-term focus (Current Operations) and long-term consequences of failure to invest in the delivery of future UK defence capabilities on future combatants and campaigns. The then Secretary of State for Defence, Bob Ainsworth MP, reinforced this reprioritisation of focus on current operations and had not ruled out "major shifts" in defence spending. In the same article the First Sea Lord and Chief of the Naval Staff, Admiral Sir Mark Stanhope, Royal Navy, acknowledged that there was not enough money within the defence budget and it is preparing itself for tough decisions and the potential for cutbacks. According to figures published by the London Evening Standard the defence budget for 2009 is "more than 10% overspent" (figures cannot be verified) and the paper states that this had caused Gordon Brown to say that the defence spending must be cut. The MoD has been investing in IT to cut costs and improve services for its personnel.
How much land is owned by the MoD?
56f97f629b226e1400dd14cb
227,300 hectares
82
False
How much is the land owned by the MoD worth?
56f97f629b226e1400dd14cc
£20 billion
194
False
The MoD owns or has rights of access to what percentage of the UK's total land?
56f97f629b226e1400dd14cd
1.8%
299
False
How much is the annual cost to support the defence estate?
56f97f629b226e1400dd14ce
in excess of £3.3 billion
381
False
Who is one of the largest landowners in the UK?
56f97f629b226e1400dd14cf
The Ministry of Defence
0
False
The Ministry of Defence
0
Who is one of the UK's largest owners of debt?
5a56d3866349e2001acdcf70
True
£20 billion
194
How much debt does the Ministry of Defence own?
5a56d3866349e2001acdcf71
True
"in excess of £3.3 billion"
380
What is the annual cost to support rights of access for UK citizens?
5a56d3866349e2001acdcf72
True
1.8%
299
How much of the population of the UK has rights of access?
5a56d3866349e2001acdcf73
True
£3.3 billion"
394
What is the total cost of supporting UK citizens rights to own land?
5a56d3866349e2001acdcf74
True
The Ministry of Defence is one of the United Kingdom's largest landowners, owning 227,300 hectares of land and foreshore (either freehold or leasehold) at April 2014, which was valued at "about £20 billion". The MoD also has "rights of access" to a further 222,000 hectares. In total, this is about 1.8% of the UK land mass. The total annual cost to support the defence estate is "in excess of £3.3 billion".
What percentage of the defence estate makes up training areas and ranges?
56f980059e9bad19000a09d9
84.0%
58
False
What makes up the smallest portion of the defence estate?
56f980059e9bad19000a09da
storage & supply depots
140
False
What percentage of the defence estate is taken up by airfields?
56f980059e9bad19000a09db
(3.4%
107
False
Who manages the defence estate?
56f980059e9bad19000a09dc
Defence Infrastructure Organisation
223
False
Barracks and camps are what percentage of the defence estate?
56f980059e9bad19000a09dd
(2.5%
132
False
the Defence Infrastructure Organisation
219
What organization do airfields manage?
5a56d5296349e2001acdcf7a
True
(84.0%)
57
What percentage of storage and supply depots are part of airfields as the largest percentage?
5a56d5296349e2001acdcf7b
True
(3.4%)
107
What percentage of airfields are managed by training areas and ranges?
5a56d5296349e2001acdcf7c
True
(2.5%)
132
What percentage of barracks & camps are managed by airfields?
5a56d5296349e2001acdcf7d
True
(5.4%)
89
What percentage of research and development is managed by airfields?
5a56d5296349e2001acdcf7e
True
The defence estate is divided as training areas & ranges (84.0%), research & development (5.4%), airfields (3.4%), barracks & camps (2.5%), storage & supply depots (1.6%), and other (3.0%). These are largely managed by the Defence Infrastructure Organisation.
In what city are the headquarters of the MoD?
56f981b79b226e1400dd14df
Whitehall
35
False
Who designed the headquarters of the MoD?
56f981b79b226e1400dd14e0
Vincent Harris
182
False
Who designed the statues that are on either side of the northern entrance to the MoD headquarters?
56f981b79b226e1400dd14e1
Charles Wheeler
350
False
What is the headquarters of the MoD called?
56f981b79b226e1400dd14e2
Main Building
66
False
Who made the Gurkha Monument?
56f981b79b226e1400dd14e3
Philip Jackson
416
False
The headquarters of the MoD
0
What did Vincent Harris originally build in 2004?
5a56d6886349e2001acdcf84
True
in 2004
709
When was the Gurkha Monument refurbished?
5a56d6886349e2001acdcf85
True
Skanska
701
What group refurbished the Gurkha Monument in 2004?
5a56d6886349e2001acdcf86
True
1997
447
When was Horse Guards Avenue unveiled by Queen Elizabeth II?
5a56d6886349e2001acdcf87
True
two monumental statues, Earth and Water
306
What did Vincent Harris create near the northern entrance of the MoD Headquarters?
5a56d6886349e2001acdcf88
True
The headquarters of the MoD are in Whitehall and are now known as Main Building. This structure is neoclassical in style and was originally built between 1938 and 1959 to designs by Vincent Harris to house the Air Ministry and the Board of Trade. The northern entrance in Horse Guards Avenue is flanked by two monumental statues, Earth and Water, by Charles Wheeler. Opposite stands the Gurkha Monument, sculpted by Philip Jackson and unveiled in 1997 by Queen Elizabeth II. Within it is the Victoria Cross and George Cross Memorial, and nearby are memorials to the Fleet Air Arm and RAF (to its east, facing the riverside). A major refurbishment of the building was completed under a PFI contract by Skanska in 2004.
Who had a wine cellar at the Palace of Whitehall?
56f982569e9bad19000a09ed
Henry VIII
0
False
Where is Henry VIII's wine cellar?
56f982569e9bad19000a09ee
the basement of Main Building
99
False
When was the cellar in the basement of Main Building built?
56f982569e9bad19000a09ef
1514–1516
62
False
What is the main material used to build the cellar in the basement of Main Building?
56f982569e9bad19000a09f0
brick
180
False
When was the cellar relocated?
56f982569e9bad19000a09f1
1949
317
False
nine feet to the west and nearly 19 feet (5.8 m) deep
258
Where is Cardinal Wolsey buried?
5a56d7bd6349e2001acdcf8e
True
1514–1516
62
When was Henry VIII's reign?
5a56d7bd6349e2001acdcf8f
True
Henry VIII
0
Who did Cardinal Wolsey build the wine cellar for?
5a56d7bd6349e2001acdcf90
True
1949
317
When was the Palace of Whitehall relocated?
5a56d7bd6349e2001acdcf91
True
steel and concrete
225
What was the Palace of Whitehall built with in 1949?
5a56d7bd6349e2001acdcf92
True
Henry VIII's wine cellar at the Palace of Whitehall, built in 1514–1516 for Cardinal Wolsey, is in the basement of Main Building, and is used for entertainment. The entire vaulted brick structure of the cellar was encased in steel and concrete and relocated nine feet to the west and nearly 19 feet (5.8 m) deeper in 1949, when construction was resumed at the site after World War II. This was carried out without any significant damage to the structure.
Who in the MoD was convicted of fraud?
56f9851f9b226e1400dd14fc
Gordon Foxley
46
False
What position was held by Foxley?
56f9851f9b226e1400dd14fd
head of defence procurement
61
False
What years was Foxley employed by the MoD?
56f9851f9b226e1400dd14fe
1981 to 1984
121
False
How much money was Foxley accused of taking?
56f9851f9b226e1400dd14ff
at least £3.5m
162
False
What do the police believe the bribes were intended to do?
56f9851f9b226e1400dd1500
influence the allocation of contracts
275
False
fraud
17
What were overseas arms contractors convicted of?
5a56d93f6349e2001acdcf98
True
at least £3.5m
162
How much was stolen by overseas arms contractors?
5a56d93f6349e2001acdcf99
True
the allocation of contracts
285
What did police want to influence?
5a56d93f6349e2001acdcf9a
True
1981 to 1984
121
When were police found to be making bribes?
5a56d93f6349e2001acdcf9b
True
Ministry of Defence
96
What ministry was influencing how police investigated fraud?
5a56d93f6349e2001acdcf9c
True
The most notable fraud conviction was that of Gordon Foxley, head of defence procurement at the Ministry of Defence from 1981 to 1984. Police claimed he received at least £3.5m in total in corrupt payments, such as substantial bribes from overseas arms contractors aiming to influence the allocation of contracts.
What publication released a report about the Ministry of Defence in 2002?
56f98a3f9e9bad19000a0a6f
the Guardian
31
False
What was the MoD accused of doing to the public?
56f98a3f9e9bad19000a0a70
secret germ warfare tests
196
False
What are the children of some families in the area of the testing experiencing?
56f98a3f9e9bad19000a0a71
children with birth defects and physical and mental handicaps
593
False
When was the supposed germ warfare testing taking place?
56f98a3f9e9bad19000a0a72
between 1940 and 1979
67
False
When were millions of people supposedly exposed to e. coli and an anthrax-like bacteria?
56f98a3f9e9bad19000a0a73
between 1961 and 1968
792
False
A government report
0
What was released by Porton Down in 2002?
5a56dafb6349e2001acdcfa2
True
turned large parts of the country into a giant laboratory
115
What did Porton Down do between 1940 and 1979?
5a56dafb6349e2001acdcfa3
True
to conduct a series of secret germ warfare tests
173
What was the purpose of Porton Down releasing germs on the public unknowingly?
5a56dafb6349e2001acdcfa4
True
the tests were harmless
488
What does Torquay say about the secret germ warfare tests?
5a56dafb6349e2001acdcfa5
True
a public inquiry
679
What is the Guardian asking for regarding the secret tests?
5a56dafb6349e2001acdcfa6
True
A government report covered by the Guardian in 2002 indicates that between 1940 and 1979, the Ministry of Defence "turned large parts of the country into a giant laboratory to conduct a series of secret germ warfare tests on the public" and many of these tests "involved releasing potentially dangerous chemicals and micro-organisms over vast swaths of the population without the public being told." The Ministry of Defence claims that these trials were to simulate germ warfare and that the tests were harmless. Still, families who have been in the area of many of the tests are experiencing children with birth defects and physical and mental handicaps and many are asking for a public inquiry. According to the report these tests affected estimated millions of people including one period between 1961 and 1968 where "more than a million people along the south coast of England, from Torquay to the New Forest, were exposed to bacteria including e.coli and bacillus globigii, which mimics anthrax." Two scientists commissioned by the Ministry of Defence stated that these trials posed no risk to the public. This was confirmed by Sue Ellison, a representative of Porton Down who said that the results from these trials "will save lives, should the country or our forces face an attack by chemical and biological weapons." Asked whether such tests are still being carried out, she said: "It is not our policy to discuss ongoing research." It is unknown whether or not the harmlessness of the trials was known at the time of their occurrence.
How much did the MoD spend on Chinook helicopters?
56f98fca9b226e1400dd1582
£240m
64
False
When were the helicopters ordered?
56f98fca9b226e1400dd1583
1995
181
False
Which office reported that the helicopters were being stored, rather than used?
56f98fca9b226e1400dd1584
National Audit Office
211
False
In what year were the helicopters brought into service?
56f98fca9b226e1400dd1585
2010
142
False
What is the estimated total cost of the Chinook helicopter project?
56f98fca9b226e1400dd1586
£500m
552
False
eight Chinook HC3 helicopters
73
In 1995 what did the National Audit Office order?
5a56dc506349e2001acdcfac
True
in 1995
178
When were the helicopters with safety faults ordered by the Audit Office?
5a56dc506349e2001acdcfad
True
since their 2001[why?] delivery
324
Since what year have the helicopters with safety faults been stored?
5a56dc506349e2001acdcfae
True
£240m
64
How much did the helicopters with safety faults cost when ordered in 2010?
5a56dc506349e2001acdcfaf
True
in 2010
139
When were the helicopters flown with safety faults in Afghanistan put in service?
5a56dc506349e2001acdcfb0
True
The MoD has been criticised for an ongoing fiasco, having spent £240m on eight Chinook HC3 helicopters which only started to enter service in 2010, years after they were ordered in 1995 and delivered in 2001. A National Audit Office report reveals that the helicopters have been stored in air conditioned hangars in Britain since their 2001[why?] delivery, while troops in Afghanistan have been forced to rely on helicopters which are flying with safety faults. By the time the Chinooks are airworthy, the total cost of the project could be as much as £500m.
Which aircraft manufacturer got a contract with the MoD?
56f990289b226e1400dd158c
Boeing
47
False
When was the Boeing contract signed?
56f990289b226e1400dd158d
April 2008
3
False
Who is downgrading the Chinook helicopters?
56f990289b226e1400dd158e
QinetiQ
107
False
How much was the Boeing contract worth?
56f990289b226e1400dd158f
£90m
17
False
What was removed from the Chinook helicopters?
56f990289b226e1400dd1590
more advanced equipment
171
False
a £90m contract
15
What did Chinook sign in April 2008?
5a56dd956349e2001acdcfb6
True
the Chinooks
130
What will Boeing downgrade?
5a56dd956349e2001acdcfb7
True
some of their more advanced equipment
157
What will Boeing remove from the Chinooks?
5a56dd956349e2001acdcfb8
True
April 2008
3
When was a contract signed for more advanced equipment?
5a56dd956349e2001acdcfb9
True
a "quick fix" solution
58
What was Chinook looking for when signing the contract?
5a56dd956349e2001acdcfba
True
In April 2008, a £90m contract was signed with Boeing for a "quick fix" solution, so they can fly by 2010: QinetiQ will downgrade the Chinooks—stripping out some of their more advanced equipment.
When was the TA budget withdrawn?
56f990bd9b226e1400dd15a2
October 2009
3
False
How much money was allocated to the volunteer Territorial Army?
56f990bd9b226e1400dd15a3
£20m
103
False
When was the training for the TA supposed to resume?
56f990bd9b226e1400dd15a4
April 2010
211
False
How much of the UK's troops are provided by the TA?
56f990bd9b226e1400dd15a5
a small percentage
303
False
How often do the TA troops regularly train?
56f990bd9b226e1400dd15a6
weekly evenings and monthly weekends
375
False
the bi-annual non-operational training £20m budget
64
What was the Territorial Army criticized for removing from the MoD?
5a56dfd96349e2001acdcfc0
True
ending all non-operational training for 6 months until April 2010
156
What did the Territorial Army removing the MoD budget end up causing?
5a56dfd96349e2001acdcfc1
True
the funding
274
What was eventually restored by the TA?
5a56dfd96349e2001acdcfc2
True
a small percentage
303
What percentage of the troops take part in other courses?
5a56dfd96349e2001acdcfc3
True
weekly evenings and monthly weekends, as well as two-week exercises generally annually and occasionally bi-annually
375
How often did the MoD members train in 2009?
5a56dfd96349e2001acdcfc4
True
In October 2009, the MoD was heavily criticized for withdrawing the bi-annual non-operational training £20m budget for the volunteer Territorial Army (TA), ending all non-operational training for 6 months until April 2010. The government eventually backed down and restored the funding. The TA provides a small percentage of the UK's operational troops. Its members train on weekly evenings and monthly weekends, as well as two-week exercises generally annually and occasionally bi-annually for troops doing other courses. The cuts would have meant a significant loss of personnel and would have had adverse effects on recruitment.
By how much did the MoD go over its equipment budget?
56f991b19b226e1400dd15b6
£6.5bn
91
False
When was the overbudget amount discovered?
56f991b19b226e1400dd15b7
2013
3
False
What are some of the criticisms that have been directed at the MoD?
56f991b19b226e1400dd15b8
poor management and financial control
210
False
What is a long-range estimate on fulfillment of some of the equipment orders made by the MoD?
56f991b19b226e1400dd15b9
up to 39 years
124
False
Past projects ordered by the MoD have taken what type of time frame to fulfill?
56f991b19b226e1400dd15ba
up to 10 and even as much as 15 years
287
False
10 and even as much as 15 years
293
For how long did the MoD go over its equipment budget?
5a56ed8e770dc0001aeefc58
True
39 years
130
How long has the MoD existed?
5a56ed8e770dc0001aeefc59
True
39 years
130
How long has the MoD been poorly managed?
5a56ed8e770dc0001aeefc5a
True
financial control
230
What has the government had for 10 to 15 years?
5a56ed8e770dc0001aeefc5b
True
£6.5bn
91
What was the Mod's equipment budget in 2013?
5a56ed8e770dc0001aeefc5c
True
In 2013 it was found that the Ministry of Defence had overspent on its equipment budget by £6.5bn on orders that could take up to 39 years to fulfil. The Ministry of Defence has been criticised in the past for poor management and financial control, investing in projects that have taken up to 10 and even as much as 15 years to be delivered.
High-definition_television
The term "high definition" originally described televisions systems from what year?
56f9d73f9e9bad19000a0b05
1936
95
False
Earlier television systems were based on what?
56f9d73f9e9bad19000a0b06
mechanical systems with as few as 30 lines of resolution
202
False
During which entire century were companies and nations trying to achieve true HDTV?
56f9d73f9e9bad19000a0b07
20th
355
False
In what century were 4k, 5k, and 8k systems introduced?
56f9d73f9e9bad19000a0b08
21st
441
False
What is the most current HDTV system development?
56f9d73f9e9bad19000a0b09
8K
503
False
high definition
9
What came out in 1935?
5ad3a1dc604f3c001a3fe9ff
True
1936
95
The term "high definition" originally described vcrs from what year?
5ad3a1dc604f3c001a3fea00
True
mechanical systems with as few as 30 lines of resolution
202
Earlier television systems were not based on what?
5ad3a1dc604f3c001a3fea01
True
20th
355
During which entire century were companies and nations trying to achieve true SDTV?
5ad3a1dc604f3c001a3fea02
True
21st
441
In what century were 10k systems introduced?
5ad3a1dc604f3c001a3fea03
True
The term high definition once described a series of television systems originating from August 1936; however, these systems were only high definition when compared to earlier systems that were based on mechanical systems with as few as 30 lines of resolution. The ongoing competition between companies and nations to create true "HDTV" spanned the entire 20th century, as each new system became more HD than the last.In the beginning of the 21st century, this race has continued with 4k, 5k and current 8K systems.
Who started trials in August 1936?
56f9d96b9e9bad19000a0b0f
The British high-definition TV service
0
False
When was the Baird system discontinued?
56f9d96b9e9bad19000a0b10
February 1937
322
False
Which country developed the 441-line system?
56f9d96b9e9bad19000a0b11
France
345
False
What prevented France's 819-line system from achieving the definition it was capable of?
56f9d96b9e9bad19000a0b12
the technical limitations of the time
679
False
Which system used interlaced scanning to correct the flicker problem of the 240-line?
56f9d96b9e9bad19000a0b13
405-line system
1061
False
British high-definition
4
Who started trials in September 1936?
5ad3a213604f3c001a3fea09
True
February 1937
322
When was the Baird system created?
5ad3a213604f3c001a3fea0a
True
France
345
Which country developed the 941-line system?
5ad3a213604f3c001a3fea0b
True
technical limitations of the time
683
What prevented France's 919-line system from achieving the definition it was capable of?
5ad3a213604f3c001a3fea0c
True
405-line
1061
Which system used interlaced scanning to correct the flicker problem of the 940-line?
5ad3a213604f3c001a3fea0d
True
The British high-definition TV service started trials in August 1936 and a regular service on 2 November 1936 using both the (mechanical) Baird 240 line sequential scan (later to be inaccurately rechristened 'progressive') and the (electronic) Marconi-EMI 405 line interlaced systems. The Baird system was discontinued in February 1937. In 1938 France followed with their own 441-line system, variants of which were also used by a number of other countries. The US NTSC 525-line system joined in 1941. In 1949 France introduced an even higher-resolution standard at 819 lines, a system that should have been high definition even by today's standards, but was monochrome only and the technical limitations of the time prevented it from achieving the definition of which it should have been capable. All of these systems used interlacing and a 4:3 aspect ratio except the 240-line system which was progressive (actually described at the time by the technically correct term "sequential") and the 405-line system which started as 5:4 and later changed to 4:3. The 405-line system adopted the (at that time) revolutionary idea of interlaced scanning to overcome the flicker problem of the 240-line with its 25 Hz frame rate. The 240-line system could have doubled its frame rate but this would have meant that the transmitted signal would have doubled in bandwidth, an unacceptable option as the video baseband bandwidth was required to be not more than 3 MHz.
What year did color broadcasts start in the US?
56f9dacd9e9bad19000a0b19
1953,
98
False
How many lines of resolution did the US NTSC color system have in 1953?
56f9dacd9e9bad19000a0b1a
525
188
False
When did Europe begin color broadcasts?
56f9dacd9e9bad19000a0b1b
1960s
257
False
The PAL and SECAM were color systems where?
56f9dacd9e9bad19000a0b1c
Europe
213
False
How many lines of resolution were the European monochrome broadcasts?
56f9dacd9e9bad19000a0b1d
625
330
False
1953
98
What year did black and white broadcasts start in the US?
5ad3a94e604f3c001a3feb0f
True
525
188
How many lines of resolution did the UK NTSC color system have in 1953?
5ad3a94e604f3c001a3feb10
True
1960s
257
When did Asia begin color broadcasts?
5ad3a94e604f3c001a3feb11
True
European
213
The PAL and SECAM were black and white systems where?
5ad3a94e604f3c001a3feb12
True
625
330
How many lines of resolution were the European color broadcasts?
5ad3a94e604f3c001a3feb13
True
Colour broadcasts started at similarly higher resolutions, first with the US NTSC color system in 1953, which was compatible with the earlier monochrome systems and therefore had the same 525 lines of resolution. European standards did not follow until the 1960s, when the PAL and SECAM color systems were added to the monochrome 625 line broadcasts.
What is the Japan Broadcasting Corporation called?
56f9dbea9b226e1400dd15ca
Nippon Hōsō Kyōkai
4
False
What does NHK stand for in Japan?
56f9dbea9b226e1400dd15cb
Nippon Hōsō Kyōkai
4
False
What year was NHK Color created?
56f9dbea9b226e1400dd15cc
1972
391
False
What was the aspect ratio of the NHK Color?
56f9dbea9b226e1400dd15cd
5:3
420
False
What organization became the authority on testing and studying international HDTV technology?
56f9dbea9b226e1400dd15ce
The Society of Motion Picture and Television Engineers (SMPTE)
461
False
Nippon Hōsō Kyōkai
4
What is the Chinese Broadcasting Corporation called?
5ad3a985604f3c001a3feb19
True
Nippon Hōsō Kyōkai
4
What does NHK stand for in China?
5ad3a985604f3c001a3feb1a
True
1972
391
What year was NHK Black and White created?
5ad3a985604f3c001a3feb1b
True
5:3
420
What was the aspect ratio of the NHK black and white?
5ad3a985604f3c001a3feb1c
True
Society of Motion Picture and Television Engineers
465
What organization became the authority on testing and studying international SDTV technology?
5ad3a985604f3c001a3feb1d
True
The Nippon Hōsō Kyōkai (NHK, the Japan Broadcasting Corporation) began conducting research to "unlock the fundamental mechanism of video and sound interactions with the five human senses" in 1964, after the Tokyo Olympics. NHK set out to create an HDTV system that ended up scoring much higher in subjective tests than NTSC's previously dubbed "HDTV". This new system, NHK Color, created in 1972, included 1125 lines, a 5:3 aspect ratio and 60 Hz refresh rate. The Society of Motion Picture and Television Engineers (SMPTE), headed by Charles Ginsburg, became the testing and study authority for HDTV technology in the international theater. SMPTE would test HDTV systems from different companies from every conceivable perspective, but the problem of combining the different formats plagued the technology for many years.
How many major HDTV systems were tested by SMPTE in the late 70's?
56f9dccf9e9bad19000a0b23
four
11
False
Who tested the four major HDTV systems in the late 1970's?
56f9dccf9e9bad19000a0b24
SMPTE
45
False
Who released A Study of High Definition Television Systems?
56f9dccf9e9bad19000a0b25
an SMPTE study group
82
False
In what year was A Study of High Definition Television Systems released?
56f9dccf9e9bad19000a0b26
1979
77
False
What was released by an SMPTE study group in 1979?
56f9dccf9e9bad19000a0b27
A Study of High Definition Television Systems
112
False
four
11
How many major SDTV systems were tested by SMPTE in the late 70's?
5ad3aa34604f3c001a3feb31
True
SMPTE
85
Who tested the three major HDTV systems in the late 1970's?
5ad3aa34604f3c001a3feb32
True
SMPTE
45
Who released A Study of Standard Definition Television Systems?
5ad3aa34604f3c001a3feb33
True
1979
77
In what year was A Study of Standard Definition Television Systems released?
5ad3aa34604f3c001a3feb34
True
A Study of High Definition Television Systems
112
What was released by an SMPTE study group in 1989?
5ad3aa34604f3c001a3feb35
True
There were four major HDTV systems tested by SMPTE in the late 1970s, and in 1979 an SMPTE study group released A Study of High Definition Television Systems:
When was widescreen HDTV transmission modes formally adopted?
56f9de7f9e9bad19000a0b2e
early 2000s
106
False
In addition to the 625-line PAL system, what European system is considered a standard definition television system?
56f9de7f9e9bad19000a0b2f
SECAM systems
199
False
In addition to the NTSC system, what 525-line system is considered a standard definition television system?
56f9de7f9e9bad19000a0b30
PAL-M
142
False
525 and 625-line systems are now considered what?
56f9de7f9e9bad19000a0b31
standard definition television systems
234
False
digital video broadcasting's
29
What does DVD stand for?
5ad3aa61604f3c001a3feb3b
True
early 2000s
106
When was widescreen SDTV transmission modes formally adopted?
5ad3aa61604f3c001a3feb3c
True
SECAM systems
199
In addition to the 625-line PAL system, what Asian system is considered a standard definition television system?
5ad3aa61604f3c001a3feb3d
True
PAL-M
142
In addition to the NTSC system, what 525-line system is considered a high definition television system?
5ad3aa61604f3c001a3feb3e
True
standard definition television systems
234
525 and 625-line systems are not considered what?
5ad3aa61604f3c001a3feb3f
True
Since the formal adoption of digital video broadcasting's (DVB) widescreen HDTV transmission modes in the early 2000s; the 525-line NTSC (and PAL-M) systems, as well as the European 625-line PAL and SECAM systems, are now regarded as standard definition television systems.
In what year did France start transmissions using and 819 line system?
56f9df829b226e1400dd15d4
1949
3
False
What country started transmissions using and 819 line system in 1949?
56f9df829b226e1400dd15d5
France
9
False
What did France start transmissions with in 1949?
56f9df829b226e1400dd15d6
an 819 lines system
47
False
Was France's 819 line system in color?
56f9df829b226e1400dd15d7
monochrome only
107
False
When was France's 819 line system discontinued?
56f9df829b226e1400dd15d8
1983
205
False
1949
3
In what year did England start transmissions using and 819 line system?
5ad3aaab604f3c001a3feb57
True
France
9
What country started transmissions using and 819 line system in 1959?
5ad3aaab604f3c001a3feb58
True
819 lines system
50
What did France start transmissions with in 1939?
5ad3aaab604f3c001a3feb59
True
monochrome
107
Was Englands 819 line system in color?
5ad3aaab604f3c001a3feb5a
True
1983
205
When was France's 811 line system discontinued?
5ad3aaab604f3c001a3feb5b
True
In 1949, France started its transmissions with an 819 lines system (with 737 active lines). The system was monochrome only, and was used only on VHF for the first French TV channel. It was discontinued in 1983.
In the end what was the Soviet Union's Transformator system used for?
56f9e1b39b226e1400dd15de
a research project
287
False
When did the Soviet Union develop Transformator?
56f9e1b39b226e1400dd15df
1958
3
False
Who developed Transformator in 1958?
56f9e1b39b226e1400dd15e0
the Soviet Union
9
False
How many lines of resolution could an image using the Transformator system have?
56f9e1b39b226e1400dd15e1
1,125
196
False
What was the goal of the Transformator system?
56f9e1b39b226e1400dd15e2
providing teleconferencing for military command
231
False
research project
289
In the end what was the Non-Soviet Union's Transformator system used for?
5ad3aaea604f3c001a3feb61
True
1958
3
When did the Soviet Union not develop Transformator?
5ad3aaea604f3c001a3feb62
True
Soviet Union
13
Who developed Transformator in 1988?
5ad3aaea604f3c001a3feb63
True
1,125
196
How many lines of resolution could an image using the Transformator never system have?
5ad3aaea604f3c001a3feb64
True
providing teleconferencing for military command
231
What was the goal of the non-Transformator system?
5ad3aaea604f3c001a3feb65
True
In 1958, the Soviet Union developed Тransformator (Russian: Трансформатор, meaning Transformer), the first high-resolution (definition) television system capable of producing an image composed of 1,125 lines of resolution aimed at providing teleconferencing for military command. It was a research project and the system was never deployed by either the military or consumer broadcasting.
In what year did NHK first develop consumer HD television with a 5:3 aspect ratio?
56f9e38a9e9bad19000a0b37
1979
3
False
Who first developed consumer HD television with a 5:3 aspect ratio?
56f9e38a9e9bad19000a0b38
the Japanese state broadcaster NHK
9
False
When did satellite test broadcasts of Hi-Vision start?
56f9e38a9e9bad19000a0b39
1989
407
False
When did regular broadcasting of BS-9ch start?
56f9e38a9e9bad19000a0b3a
November 25, 1994
500
False
When did regular testing of Hi-Vision start?
56f9e38a9e9bad19000a0b3b
1991
446
False
1979
3
In what year did NHK first develop consumer SD television with a 5:3 aspect ratio?
5ad3abec604f3c001a3feb97
True
Japanese state broadcaster
13
Who first developed consumer HD television with a 1:3 aspect ratio?
5ad3abec604f3c001a3feb98
True
1989
407
When did satellite test broadcasts of lo-Vision start?
5ad3abec604f3c001a3feb99
True
November 25, 1994
500
When did regular broadcasting of BS-8ch start?
5ad3abec604f3c001a3feb9a
True
1991
446
When did regular testing of Lo-Vision start?
5ad3abec604f3c001a3feb9b
True
In 1979, the Japanese state broadcaster NHK first developed consumer high-definition television with a 5:3 display aspect ratio. The system, known as Hi-Vision or MUSE after its Multiple sub-Nyquist sampling encoding for encoding the signal, required about twice the bandwidth of the existing NTSC system but provided about four times the resolution (1080i/1125 lines). Satellite test broadcasts started in 1989, with regular testing starting in 1991 and regular broadcasting of BS-9ch commencing on November 25, 1994, which featured commercial and NHK programming.
When was the MUSE system demonstrated in the US first?
56f9e4999e9bad19000a0b41
1981
3
False
What aspect ratio did the MUSE system use when demonstrated in 1981?
56f9e4999e9bad19000a0b42
5:3
98
False
Which president declared it "a matter of national interest" to introduce HDTV to the US?
56f9e4999e9bad19000a0b43
President Ronald Reagan
195
False
Which system was demonstrated in the US for the first time in 1981?
56f9e4999e9bad19000a0b44
MUSE
13
False
Which system was demonstrated in Washington to President Ronald Reagan?
56f9e4999e9bad19000a0b45
MUSE
172
False
1981
3
When was the MUSE system demonstrated in the UK first?
5ad3ac19604f3c001a3febab
True
5:3
98
What aspect ratio did the MUSE system use when demonstrated in 1988?
5ad3ac19604f3c001a3febac
True
President Ronald Reagan
195
Which president declared it "a matter of national interest" to introduce SDTV to the US?
5ad3ac19604f3c001a3febad
True
MUSE
13
Which system was demonstrated in the UK for the first time in 1981?
5ad3ac19604f3c001a3febae
True
MUSE
172
Which system was demonstrated in Washington to President Bush?
5ad3ac19604f3c001a3febaf
True
In 1981, the MUSE system was demonstrated for the first time in the United States, using the same 5:3 aspect ratio as the Japanese system. Upon visiting a demonstration of MUSE in Washington, US President Ronald Reagan was impressed and officially declared it "a matter of national interest" to introduce HDTV to the US.
Why did the FCC reject systems such as MUSE?
56f9e6119b226e1400dd15f2
their higher bandwidth requirements
142
False
What was increasing and consuming a lot of bandwidth?
56f9e6119b226e1400dd15f3
television channels
207
False
Who rejected systems such as MUSE as the new standard for the US?
56f9e6119b226e1400dd15f4
the FCC
123
False
What was one of the requirements for a new standard system in the US?
56f9e6119b226e1400dd15f5
had to be more efficient, needing less bandwidth
299
False
What was the existing system at the time?
56f9e6119b226e1400dd15f6
NTSC
375
False
higher bandwidth requirements
148
Why did the ECC reject systems such as MUSE?
5ad3ac48604f3c001a3febb5
True
television channels
207
What was decreasing and consuming a lot of bandwidth?
5ad3ac48604f3c001a3febb6
True
FCC
127
Who rejected systems such as MUSE as the old standard for the US?
5ad3ac48604f3c001a3febb7
True
had to be more efficient
299
What was one of the requirements for an old standard system in the US?
5ad3ac48604f3c001a3febb8
True
NTSC
375
What wasn't the existing system at the time?
5ad3ac48604f3c001a3febb9
True
Several systems were proposed as the new standard for the US, including the Japanese MUSE system, but all were rejected by the FCC because of their higher bandwidth requirements. At this time, the number of television channels was growing rapidly and bandwidth was already a problem. A new standard had to be more efficient, needing less bandwidth for HDTV than the existing NTSC.
What constraints kept HDTV from being widely adopted in the 90's?
56f9e7ab9b226e1400dd15fc
technical and economic
96
False
What was HDTV not permitted to do in the 90's?
56f9e7ab9b226e1400dd15fd
use bandwidths greater than normal television
166
False
technical and economic
96
What constraints kept SDTV from being widely adopted in the 90's?
5ad3ac5e604f3c001a3febbf
True
use bandwidths greater than normal television
166
What was SDTV not permitted to do in the 90's?
5ad3ac5e604f3c001a3febc0
True
The limited standardization of analog HDTV in the 1990s did not lead to global HDTV adoption as technical and economic constraints at the time did not permit HDTV to use bandwidths greater than normal television.
How much more bandwith was required from early HDTV commercial experiments than an SD broadcast?
56f9e9128f12f3190062ffdf
over four times
64
False
Efforts were made to reduce analog HDTV to how much of the bandwith of SDTV?
56f9e9128f12f3190062ffe0
about twice
176
False
Despite the reduced bandwith, HDTV format still had to be distributed how?
56f9e9128f12f3190062ffe1
by satellite
266
False
What kind of experiments required over four times the bandwith of a SDTV broadcast?
56f9e9128f12f3190062ffe2
Early HDTV commercial experiments
0
False
four times
69
How much more bandwith was required from early SDTV commercial experiments than an SD broadcast?
5ad3ac8b604f3c001a3febc3
True
twice
182
Efforts were made to reduce analog SDTV to how much of the bandwith of SDTV?
5ad3ac8b604f3c001a3febc4
True
satellite
269
Despite the reduced bandwith, SDTV format still had to be distributed how?
5ad3ac8b604f3c001a3febc5
True
Early HDTV commercial experiments
0
What kind of experiments required over five times the bandwith of a SDTV broadcast?
5ad3ac8b604f3c001a3febc6
True
Early HDTV commercial experiments, such as NHK's MUSE, required over four times the bandwidth of a standard-definition broadcast. Despite efforts made to reduce analog HDTV to about twice the bandwidth of SDTV, these television formats were still distributable only by satellite.
How many broadcasters did Japan have sharing a single channel?
56f9eaae8f12f3190062fff1
seven
221
False
Which country had successful public analog HDTV broadcasting?
56f9eaae8f12f3190062fff2
Japan
132
False
What was particularly challenging in the early years of HDTV?
56f9eaae8f12f3190062fff3
recording and reproducing an HDTV signal
13
False
What accomplishment in early HDTV did Japan have?
56f9eaae8f12f3190062fff4
the only country with successful public broadcasting of analog HDTV
147
False
seven
221
How many broadcasters did Japan have sharing a multi channel?
5ad3b065604f3c001a3fec9f
True
Japan
132
Which country had successful public analog SDTV broadcasting?
5ad3b065604f3c001a3feca0
True
recording and reproducing
13
What was particularly challenging in the early years of SDTV?
5ad3b065604f3c001a3feca1
True
the only country with successful public broadcasting
147
What accomplishment in early SDTV did Japan have?
5ad3b065604f3c001a3feca2
True
In addition, recording and reproducing an HDTV signal was a significant technical challenge in the early years of HDTV (Sony HDVS). Japan remained the only country with successful public broadcasting of analog HDTV, with seven broadcasters sharing a single channel.
What does ITU-R stand for?
56f9ebe18f12f3190062fff9
International Telecommunication Union's radio telecommunications sector
12
False
What does DVB stand for?
56f9ebe18f12f3190062fffa
Digital Video Broadcasting
399
False
What is the DVB?
56f9ebe18f12f3190062fffb
an alliance of broadcasters, consumer electronics manufacturers and regulatory bodies
457
False
What is the DVB's role?
56f9ebe18f12f3190062fffc
develops and agrees upon specifications
552
False
Who standardizes HDTV specifications?
56f9ebe18f12f3190062fffd
ETSI
627
False
International Telecommunication Union's
12
What does ETU-R stand for?
5ad3b2f6604f3c001a3fed2d
True
an alliance of broadcasters, consumer electronics manufacturers and regulatory bodies
457
What is the DVD?
5ad3b2f6604f3c001a3fed2f
True
develops and agrees upon specifications
552
What is the DVD's role?
5ad3b2f6604f3c001a3fed30
True
ETSI
627
Who standardizes SDTV specifications?
5ad3b2f6604f3c001a3fed31
True
Since 1972, International Telecommunication Union's radio telecommunications sector (ITU-R) had been working on creating a global recommendation for Analog HDTV. These recommendations, however, did not fit in the broadcasting bands which could reach home users. The standardization of MPEG-1 in 1993 also led to the acceptance of recommendations ITU-R BT.709. In anticipation of these standards the Digital Video Broadcasting (DVB) organisation was formed, an alliance of broadcasters, consumer electronics manufacturers and regulatory bodies. The DVB develops and agrees upon specifications which are formally standardised by ETSI.
What did the Grand Alliance propose as the new standard for SDTV and HDTV?
56f9ed16f34c681400b0beef
ATSC
221
False
Which standard were ATSC and DVB based on?
56f9ed16f34c681400b0bef0
MPEG-2
301
False
Who created the standard for DVB-2, DVB-C, and DVB-T?
56f9ed16f34c681400b0bef1
DVB
0
False
Who proposed ATSC as the new standard for SDTV and HDTV?
56f9ed16f34c681400b0bef2
the Grand Alliance
193
False
DVB created first the standard for DVB-S digital satellite TV, DVB-C digital cable TV and DVB-T digital terrestrial TV. These broadcasting systems can be used for both SDTV and HDTV. In the US the Grand Alliance proposed ATSC as the new standard for SDTV and HDTV. Both ATSC and DVB were based on the MPEG-2 standard, although DVB systems may also be used to transmit video using the newer and more efficient H.264/MPEG-4 AVC compression standards. Common for all DVB standards is the use of highly efficient modulation techniques for further reducing bandwidth, and foremost for reducing receiver-hardware and antenna requirements.
When did ITU-R start trying to work towards setting a single international HDTV standard?
56fa6e23f34c681400b0c0b7
1983
3
False
What did ITU-R start trying to do in 1983?
56fa6e23f34c681400b0c0b8
setting a single international HDTV standard
142
False
What was one of the issues with setting a single HDTV standard?
56fa6e23f34c681400b0c0b9
a suitable frame/field refresh rate
225
False
What was used as a conversion between the two main frame/field rates?
56fa6e23f34c681400b0c0ba
motion vectors
601
False
How many frame/field rates were primarily being used in 1983?
56fa6e23f34c681400b0c0bb
two
298
False
1983
3
When did ITU-R start trying to work towards setting a single international DVD standard?
5ad3b3a7604f3c001a3fed5d
True
working party
102
What did ITU-R start trying to do in 1981?
5ad3b3a7604f3c001a3fed5e
True
suitable frame/field refresh rate, the world already having split into two camps
227
What was one of the issues with setting a single DVD standard?
5ad3b3a7604f3c001a3fed5f
True
motion vectors
601
What was used as a conversion between the three main frame/field rates?
5ad3b3a7604f3c001a3fed60
True
two
298
How many frame/field rates were primarily being used in 1981?
5ad3b3a7604f3c001a3fed61
True
In 1983, the International Telecommunication Union's radio telecommunications sector (ITU-R) set up a working party (IWP11/6) with the aim of setting a single international HDTV standard. One of the thornier issues concerned a suitable frame/field refresh rate, the world already having split into two camps, 25/50 Hz and 30/60 Hz, largely due to the differences in mains frequency. The IWP11/6 working party considered many views and throughout the 1980s served to encourage development in a number of video digital processing areas, not least conversion between the two main frame/field rates using motion vectors, which led to further developments in other areas. While a comprehensive HDTV standard was not in the end established, agreement on the aspect ratio was achieved.
What aspect ratio was agreed upon due to the influence of widescreen cinema?
56fa6fd3f34c681400b0c0c1
16:9
133
False
Who agreed upon the 16:9 aspect ratio?
56fa6fd3f34c681400b0c0c2
the IWP11/6 working party
331
False
What was a leading factor in the 16:9 aspect ratio being chosen?
56fa6fd3f34c681400b0c0c3
widescreen cinema
97
False
Which encoding contains both progressive and interlaced content?
56fa6fd3f34c681400b0c0c4
MBAFF
706
False
Which aspect ratio was the early favorite?
56fa6fd3f34c681400b0c0c5
5:3
23
False
16:9
133
What aspect ratio was agreed upon due to the influence of full screen cinema?
5ad3b4db604f3c001a3fed85
True
IWP11/6 working party
335
Who agreed upon the 11:9 aspect ratio?
5ad3b4db604f3c001a3fed86
True
widescreen cinema
236
What was a leading factor in the 11:9 aspect ratio being chosen?
5ad3b4db604f3c001a3fed87
True
MBAFF
706
Which encoding contains both not progressive and interlaced content?
5ad3b4db604f3c001a3fed88
True
5:3
205
Which aspect ratio was the late favorite?
5ad3b4db604f3c001a3fed89
True
Initially the existing 5:3 aspect ratio had been the main candidate but, due to the influence of widescreen cinema, the aspect ratio 16:9 (1.78) eventually emerged as being a reasonable compromise between 5:3 (1.67) and the common 1.85 widescreen cinema format. An aspect ratio of 16:9 was duly agreed upon at the first meeting of the IWP11/6 working party at the BBC's Research and Development establishment in Kingswood Warren. The resulting ITU-R Recommendation ITU-R BT.709-2 ("Rec. 709") includes the 16:9 aspect ratio, a specified colorimetry, and the scan modes 1080i (1,080 actively interlaced lines of resolution) and 1080p (1,080 progressively scanned lines). The British Freeview HD trials used MBAFF, which contains both progressive and interlaced content in the same encoding.
What scan format is also included in MBAFF?
56fa74058f12f31900630149
1440×1152 HDMAC
33
False
What was viewed by some as enhanced television format and not true HDTV format?
56fa74058f12f3190063014a
a mooted 750-line
90
False
A mooted 750-line was seen by some at the ITU as what?
56fa74058f12f3190063014b
an enhanced television format
189
False
What were 1920x1080i and 1280x720p defined by?
56fa74058f12f3190063014c
US SMPTE standards
379
False
1440×1152
33
What scan format is never included in MBAFF?
5ad3b528604f3c001a3fedab
True
mooted 750-line
92
What was viewed by some as enhanced television format and not true SDTV format?
5ad3b528604f3c001a3fedac
True
enhanced television format
192
A mooted 750-line was seen by some at the IEU as what?
5ad3b528604f3c001a3fedad
True
US SMPTE standards
379
What were 1920x1080i and 1280x720p not defined by?
5ad3b528604f3c001a3fedae
True
It also includes the alternative 1440×1152 HDMAC scan format. (According to some reports, a mooted 750-line (720p) format (720 progressively scanned lines) was viewed by some at the ITU as an enhanced television format rather than a true HDTV format, and so was not included, although 1920×1080i and 1280×720p systems for a range of frame and field rates were defined by several US SMPTE standards.)
When was HDTV introduced in the US?
56fa7909f34c681400b0c0cb
late 1980s
59
False
Who made HDTV official in 1993?
56fa7909f34c681400b0c0cc
the Digital HDTV Grand Alliance
99
False
AT&T, Philips, Zenith, and MIT, among others, made up what group in the 90's?
56fa7909f34c681400b0c0cd
the Digital HDTV Grand Alliance
99
False
When did the first public HDTV broadcast happen in the US?
56fa7909f34c681400b0c0ce
July 23, 1996
485
False
What does ATSC stand for?
56fa7909f34c681400b0c0cf
Advanced Television Systems Committee
857
False
late 1980s
59
When was SDTV introduced in the US?
5ad3b5af604f3c001a3fedcf
True
the Digital HDTV Grand Alliance
99
Who made SDTV official in 1993?
5ad3b5af604f3c001a3fedd0
True
Digital HDTV Grand Alliance
103
AT&T, Philips, Zenith, and MIT, among others, made up what group in the 50's?
5ad3b5af604f3c001a3fedd1
True
July 23, 1996
485
When did the last public HDTV broadcast happen in the US?
5ad3b5af604f3c001a3fedd2
True
Advanced Television Systems Committee
857
What does STSC stand for?
5ad3b5af604f3c001a3fedd3
True
HDTV technology was introduced in the United States in the late 1980s and made official in 1993 by the Digital HDTV Grand Alliance, a group of television, electronic equipment, communications companies consisting of AT&T Bell Labs, General Instrument, Philips, Sarnoff, Thomson, Zenith and the Massachusetts Institute of Technology. Field testing of HDTV at 199 sites in the United States was completed August 14, 1994. The first public HDTV broadcast in the United States occurred on July 23, 1996 when the Raleigh, North Carolina television station WRAL-HD began broadcasting from the existing tower of WRAL-TV southeast of Raleigh, winning a race to be first with the HD Model Station in Washington, D.C., which began broadcasting July 31, 1996 with the callsign WHD-TV, based out of the facilities of NBC owned and operated station WRC-TV. The American Advanced Television Systems Committee (ATSC) HDTV system had its public launch on October 29, 1998, during the live coverage of astronaut John Glenn's return mission to space on board the Space Shuttle Discovery. The signal was transmitted coast-to-coast, and was seen by the public in science centers, and other public theaters specially equipped to receive and display the broadcast.
When did the first HDTV transmissions happen in Europe?
56fa7a6cf34c681400b0c0d5
1990
76
False
What event was the first HDTV broadcast in Europe?
56fa7a6cf34c681400b0c0d6
FIFA World Cup
180
False
When did Europe abandon standard transmission?
56fa7a6cf34c681400b0c0d7
mid-1990s
485
False
Where was the FIFA World Cup able to be watched in HDTV?
56fa7a6cf34c681400b0c0d8
8 cinemas in Italy and 2 in Spain
222
False
FIFA World Cup
180
When did the first SDTV transmissions happen in Europe?
5ad3b998604f3c001a3fee76
True
mid-1990s
485
When did Europe not abandon standard transmission?
5ad3b998604f3c001a3fee77
True
8 cinemas in Italy and 2 in Spain
222
Where was the FIFA World Cup able to be watched in SDTV?
5ad3b998604f3c001a3fee78
True
The first HDTV transmissions in Europe, albeit not direct-to-home, began in 1990, when the Italian broadcaster RAI used the HD-MAC and MUSE HDTV technologies to broadcast the 1990 FIFA World Cup. The matches were shown in 8 cinemas in Italy and 2 in Spain. The connection with Spain was made via the Olympus satellite link from Rome to Barcelona and then with a fiber optic connection from Barcelona to Madrid. After some HDTV transmissions in Europe the standard was abandoned in the mid-1990s.
When did regular broadcasts start in Europe?
56fa7b568f12f31900630151
January 1, 2004
40
False
What event was first broadcasted on January 1, 2004?
56fa7b568f12f31900630152
Vienna New Year's Concert
136
False
The New Year's Day broadcast officially launched which channel?
56fa7b568f12f31900630153
HD1
309
False
When did test transmissions of HDTV begin in Europe?
56fa7b568f12f31900630154
September 2003
226
False
Which European company launched HD1?
56fa7b568f12f31900630155
Euro1080
81
False
January 1, 2004
40
When did non-regular broadcasts start in Europe?
5ad3ba09604f3c001a3fee91
True
Vienna New Year's Concert
136
What event was first broadcasted on March 1, 2004?
5ad3ba09604f3c001a3fee92
True
HD1
103
The New Year's Day broadcast officially did not launch which channel?
5ad3ba09604f3c001a3fee93
True
September 2003
226
When did test transmissions of SDTV begin in Europe?
5ad3ba09604f3c001a3fee94
True
Euro1080
81
Which European company launched SD1?
5ad3ba09604f3c001a3fee95
True
The first regular broadcasts started on January 1, 2004 when the Belgian company Euro1080 launched the HD1 channel with the traditional Vienna New Year's Concert. Test transmissions had been active since the IBC exhibition in September 2003, but the New Year's Day broadcast marked the official launch of the HD1 channel, and the official start of direct-to-home HDTV in Europe.
Euro1080 was a division of what former company?
56fa7cba8f12f3190063015b
Alfacam
80
False
What "chicken or the egg" stalemate prompted Euro1080 to broadcast HDTV channels?
56fa7cba8f12f3190063015c
"no HD broadcasts mean no HD TVs bought means no HD broadcasts ..."
152
False
What was Euro1080 hoping to kick-start by broadcasting HDTV channels?
56fa7cba8f12f3190063015d
HDTV interest in Europe
235
False
How much did viewers have to pay for the HD1 channel?
56fa7cba8f12f3190063015e
free-to-air
290
False
What was on HD1 for 4 or 5 hours per day?
56fa7cba8f12f3190063015f
a multi-lingual soundtrack on a rolling schedule
392
False
Alfacam
80
Euro180 was a division of what former company?
5ad3ba85604f3c001a3feea5
True
no HD broadcasts mean no HD TVs bought means no HD broadcasts
153
What "chicken or the egg" stalemate prompted Asia1080 to broadcast HDTV channels?
5ad3ba85604f3c001a3feea6
True
HDTV interest in Europe
235
What was Euro1080 hoping to kick-start by broadcasting SDTV channels?
5ad3ba85604f3c001a3feea7
True
free-to-air
290
How much did viewers have to pay for the SD1 channel?
5ad3ba85604f3c001a3feea8
True
multi-lingual soundtrack
394
What was on SD1 for 4 or 5 hours per day?
5ad3ba85604f3c001a3feea9
True
Euro1080, a division of the former and now bankrupt Belgian TV services company Alfacam, broadcast HDTV channels to break the pan-European stalemate of "no HD broadcasts mean no HD TVs bought means no HD broadcasts ..." and kick-start HDTV interest in Europe. The HD1 channel was initially free-to-air and mainly comprised sporting, dramatic, musical and other cultural events broadcast with a multi-lingual soundtrack on a rolling schedule of 4 or 5 hours per day.
What format did the first European HDTV broadcast use?
56fa81d38f12f31900630165
1080i format
46
False
What compression did the first European HDTV broadcast use?
56fa81d38f12f31900630166
MPEG-2
64
False
What signal did the first European HDTV broadcast use?
56fa81d38f12f31900630167
DVB-S
88
False
What compression did Euro1080 later change to?
56fa81d38f12f31900630168
MPEG-4/AVC
172
False
What signal did Euro1080 later change to?
56fa81d38f12f31900630169
DVB-S2
200
False
1080i format
46
What format did the first European SDTV broadcast use?
5ad3bc2d604f3c001a3feee9
True
MPEG-2
64
What compression did the first Asian HDTV broadcast use?
5ad3bc2d604f3c001a3feeea
True
DVB-S
88
What signal did the first European SDTV broadcast use?
5ad3bc2d604f3c001a3feeeb
True
MPEG-4/AVC
172
What compression did Euro1180 later change to?
5ad3bc2d604f3c001a3feeec
True
These first European HDTV broadcasts used the 1080i format with MPEG-2 compression on a DVB-S signal from SES's Astra 1H satellite. Euro1080 transmissions later changed to MPEG-4/AVC compression on a DVB-S2 signal in line with subsequent broadcast channels in Europe.
According to the 2010 Satellite Monitor market survey, how many HD capable TV's were sold in Europe?
56fa84e7f34c681400b0c0dd
185 million
278
False
According to the 2010 Satellite Monitor market survey, how many European households were watching HD broadcasts?
56fa84e7f34c681400b0c0de
20 million
353
False
How many pounds were spent in Europe on HD capable TVs in 2010?
56fa84e7f34c681400b0c0df
£60 million
321
False
What percentage of European digital satellite TV homes were watching HD broadcasts in 2010?
56fa84e7f34c681400b0c0e0
27%
376
False
The number of European HD channels and viewers has done what since the first HDTV broadcasts?
56fa84e7f34c681400b0c0e1
risen steadily
85
False
185 million
278
According to the 2010 Satellite Monitor market survey, how many SD capable TV's were sold in Europe?
5ad3bd5f604f3c001a3fef19
True
20 million
353
According to the 2010 Satellite Monitor market survey, how many European households were watching SD broadcasts?
5ad3bd5f604f3c001a3fef1a
True
60 million
322
How many pounds were spent in Europe on SD capable TVs in 2010?
5ad3bd5f604f3c001a3fef1b
True
27%
376
What percentage of European digital satellite TV homes were watching SD broadcasts in 2010?
5ad3bd5f604f3c001a3fef1c
True
risen steadily
85
The number of European HD channels and viewers has done what since the first SDTV broadcasts?
5ad3bd5f604f3c001a3fef1d
True
Despite delays in some countries, the number of European HD channels and viewers has risen steadily since the first HDTV broadcasts, with SES's annual Satellite Monitor market survey for 2010 reporting more than 200 commercial channels broadcasting in HD from Astra satellites, 185 million HD capable TVs sold in Europe (£60 million in 2010 alone), and 20 million households (27% of all European digital satellite TV homes) watching HD satellite broadcasts (16 million via Astra satellites).
Which European country first deployed HD content using the new DVB-T2 standard?
56fa85dd8f12f3190063016f
the United Kingdom
17
False
When did the UK deploy HD content using the new DVB-T2 transmission standard?
56fa85dd8f12f31900630170
December 2009
3
False
What transmission standard did the UK start using in December 2009?
56fa85dd8f12f31900630171
DVB-T2
118
False
What does DTG stand for?
56fa85dd8f12f31900630172
Digital TV Group
168
False
United Kingdom
21
Which European country first deployed SD content using the new DVB-T2 standard?
5ad3bee3604f3c001a3fef4b
True
December 2009
3
When did the UK deploy SD content using the new DVB-T2 transmission standard?
5ad3bee3604f3c001a3fef4c
True
DVB
118
What transmission standard did the US start using in December 2009?
5ad3bee3604f3c001a3fef4d
True
Digital TV Group
168
What does DTD stand for?
5ad3bee3604f3c001a3fef4e
True
In December 2009 the United Kingdom became the first European country to deploy high definition content using the new DVB-T2 transmission standard, as specified in the Digital TV Group (DTG) D-book, on digital terrestrial television.
How many HD channels did the Freeview HD service contain as of December 2013?
56fa88b8f34c681400b0c0e7
10
43
False
When was the digital switchover process completed in the UK?
56fa88b8f34c681400b0c0e8
October 2012
216
False
Which service contains 10 HD channels and finished its roll out in October 2012?
56fa88b8f34c681400b0c0e9
Freeview HD
4
False
How was the Freeview HD service rolled out in the UK?
56fa88b8f34c681400b0c0ea
region by region
107
False
10
43
How many SD channels did the Freeview SD service contain as of December 2013?
5ad3bf36604f3c001a3fef53
True
October 2012
216
When was the digital switchover process completed in the US?
5ad3bf36604f3c001a3fef54
True
Freeview HD
4
Which service contains 10 HD channels and finished its roll out in October 2022?
5ad3bf36604f3c001a3fef55
True
region by region
107
How was the Freeview HD service rolled out in the US?
5ad3bf36604f3c001a3fef56
True
The Freeview HD service currently contains 10 HD channels (as of December 2013[update]) and was rolled out region by region across the UK in accordance with the digital switchover process, finally being completed in October 2012. However, Freeview HD is not the first HDTV service over digital terrestrial television in Europe;
What are the three HDTV parameters?
56fa8b328f12f31900630177
[frame size][scanning system][frame or field rate]
76
False
Which two parameters can be dropped if its value is implied from context?
56fa8b328f12f31900630178
frame size or frame rate
207
False
When can the frame size or frame rate parameter specification be dropped?
56fa8b328f12f31900630179
if its value is implied from context
247
False
When a parameter is dropped, the remaining numeric parameter is specified first, followed by what?
56fa8b328f12f3190063017a
the scanning system
363
False
[frame size][scanning system][frame or field rate] or [frame size]
76
What are the three SDTV parameters?
5ad3c44c604f3c001a3fefa9
True
frame size or frame rate
207
Which two parameters can't be dropped if its value is implied from context?
5ad3c44c604f3c001a3fefaa
True
value is implied from context
254
When can the frame size or frame rate parameter specification be not dropped?
5ad3c44c604f3c001a3fefab
True
scanning system
367
When a parameter is dropped, the remaining numeric parameter is specified last, followed by what?
5ad3c44c604f3c001a3fefac
True
If all three parameters are used, they are specified in the following form: [frame size][scanning system][frame or field rate] or [frame size]/[frame or field rate][scanning system].[citation needed] Often, frame size or frame rate can be dropped if its value is implied from context. In this case, the remaining numeric parameter is specified first, followed by the scanning system.
What size is each 1920x1080p25 frame?
56fa8e4af34c681400b0c0ef
1,920 pixels wide and 1,080 pixels high
109
False
The 1920x1080p25 notion identifies progressive scanning format with how many frames per second?
56fa8e4af34c681400b0c0f0
25
70
False
The 1080i25 or 1080i50 notion identifies interlaced scanning format with how many frames per second?
56fa8e4af34c681400b0c0f1
25
225
False
The 1080i30 or 1080i60 notion identifies interlaced scanning format with how many frames per second?
56fa8e4af34c681400b0c0f2
30
392
False
The 720p60 notion identifies progressive scanning format with how many frames per second?
56fa8e4af34c681400b0c0f3
60
548
False
1,920 pixels wide and 1,080 pixels high
109
What size is each 120x180p25 frame?
5ad3c496604f3c001a3fefbb
True
25
225
The 580i25 or 1380i50 notion identifies interlaced scanning format with how many frames per second?
5ad3c496604f3c001a3fefbc
True
25
225
The 1030i25 or 1480i50 notion identifies interlaced scanning format with how many frames per second?
5ad3c496604f3c001a3fefbd
True
30
392
The 1080i30 or 1080i60 notion identifies interlaced scanning format with how many frames per minute?
5ad3c496604f3c001a3fefbe
True
60
548
The 720p60 notion identifies progressive scanning format with how many frames per minute?
5ad3c496604f3c001a3fefbf
True
For example, 1920×1080p25 identifies progressive scanning format with 25 frames per second, each frame being 1,920 pixels wide and 1,080 pixels high. The 1080i25 or 1080i50 notation identifies interlaced scanning format with 25 frames (50 fields) per second, each frame being 1,920 pixels wide and 1,080 pixels high. The 1080i30 or 1080i60 notation identifies interlaced scanning format with 30 frames (60 fields) per second, each frame being 1,920 pixels wide and 1,080 pixels high. The 720p60 notation identifies progressive scanning format with 60 frames per second, each frame being 720 pixels high; 1,280 pixels horizontally are implied.
What three scanning rates do 50 Hz systems support?
56fa97178f12f3190063017f
50i, 25p and 50p
44
False
Which system suports 59.94i, 60i, 23.976p, 24p, 29.97p, 30p, 59.94p, and 60p
56fa97178f12f31900630180
60 Hz
62
False
SD television fractional rates were often rounded to what?
56fa97178f12f31900630181
whole numbers
266
False
Strict notation is required with HD fractional rates to avoid what?
56fa97178f12f31900630182
ambiguity
500
False
50 Hz systems support three scanning rates: 50i, 25p and 50p. 60 Hz systems support a much wider set of frame rates: 59.94i, 60i, 23.976p, 24p, 29.97p, 30p, 59.94p and 60p. In the days of standard definition television, the fractional rates were often rounded up to whole numbers, e.g. 23.976p was often called 24p, or 59.94i was often called 60i. 60 Hz high definition television supports both fractional and slightly different integer rates, therefore strict usage of notation is required to avoid ambiguity. Nevertheless, 29.97i/59.94i is almost universally called 60i, likewise 23.976p is called 24p.
What is usually dropped for the commercial naming of an HDTV product?
56fa995df34c681400b0c0f9
the frame rate
40
False
What does 24p mean?
56fa995df34c681400b0c0fa
24 progressive scan frames per second
212
False
What does 50i mean?
56fa995df34c681400b0c0fb
25 interlaced frames per second
265
False
When naming a commercial HDTV product, a frame rate can be specified without what?
56fa995df34c681400b0c0fc
a resolution
175
False
frame rate
134
What is usually dropped for the commercial naming of an SDTV product?
5ad3c4e9604f3c001a3fefd7
True
24 progressive scan frames per second
212
What does 54p mean?
5ad3c4e9604f3c001a3fefd8
True
25 interlaced frames per second
265
What does 10i mean?
5ad3c4e9604f3c001a3fefd9
True
resolution
177
When naming a commercial SDTV product, a frame rate can be specified without what?
5ad3c4e9604f3c001a3fefda
True
For the commercial naming of a product, the frame rate is often dropped and is implied from context (e.g., a 1080i television set). A frame rate can also be specified without a resolution. For example, 24p means 24 progressive scan frames per second, and 50i means 25 interlaced frames per second.
Is there a single standard for HDTV color support?
56fa9afa8f12f31900630187
no
9
False
Before being converted to RGB, colors are ususally broadcasted using what color space?
56fa9afa8f12f31900630188
YUV
113
False
Colors are typically broadcast using YUV and then converted to what?
56fa9afa8f12f31900630189
a RGB color space
244
False
When transmitted over the internet, colors are typically to what?
56fa9afa8f12f3190063018a
8-bit RGB channels
383
False
What assumption is made with colors being transmitted over the internet?
56fa9afa8f12f3190063018b
it will only be viewed only on a (sRGB) computer screen
458
False
no
9
Is there a single standard for SDTV color support?
5ad3c52c604f3c001a3fefdf
True
YUV
113
Before being converted to RGB, colors are not usually broadcasted using what color space?
5ad3c52c604f3c001a3fefe0
True
RGB color space
246
Colors are typically broadcast using UUV and then converted to what?
5ad3c52c604f3c001a3fefe1
True
8-bit RGB channels
383
When transmitted over the internet,  black and white are typically to what?
5ad3c52c604f3c001a3fefe2
True
it will only be viewed only on a (sRGB) computer screen
458
What assumption is made with colors being transmitted not over the internet?
5ad3c52c604f3c001a3fefe3
True
There is no single standard for HDTV color support. Colors are typically broadcast using a (10-bits per channel) YUV color space but, depending on the underlying image generating technologies of the receiver, are then subsequently converted to a RGB color space using standardized algorithms. When transmitted directly through the Internet, the colors are typically pre-converted to 8-bit RGB channels for additional storage savings with the assumption that it will only be viewed only on a (sRGB) computer screen. As an added benefit to the original broadcasters, the losses of the pre-conversion essentially make these files unsuitable for professional TV re-broadcasting.
At least how many times more linear resolution does HDTV have over SDTV?
56fa9f9df34c681400b0c101
twice
23
False
HDTV increases the effective image resolution by not using what?
56fa9f9df34c681400b0c102
letterboxing or anamorphic stretching
268
False
What does SDTV stand for?
56fa9f9df34c681400b0c103
standard-definition television
54
False
HDTV handles what aspect ratio without using letterboxing or anamorphic stretching?
56fa9f9df34c681400b0c104
16:9
229
False
twice
23
At least how many times more linear resolution does SDTV have?
5ad3c558604f3c001a3fefe9
True
letterboxing or anamorphic stretching
268
HDTV increases the effective image resolution by using what?
5ad3c558604f3c001a3fefea
True
standard-definition television
54
What does HDTV stand for?
5ad3c558604f3c001a3fefeb
True
16:9
229
SDTV handles what aspect ratio without using letterboxing or anamorphic stretching?
5ad3c558604f3c001a3fefec
True
At a minimum, HDTV has twice the linear resolution of standard-definition television (SDTV), thus showing greater detail than either analog television or regular DVD. The technical standards for broadcasting HDTV also handle the 16:9 aspect ratio images without using letterboxing or anamorphic stretching, thus increasing the effective image resolution.
If more bandwith is required than is available, a very high resolution source my not be able to transmitted without loss of what?
56faa8ff8f12f31900630191
fidelity
115
False
The compression used in all HDTV storage and transmission systems will do what if resolution is too high?
56faa8ff8f12f31900630192
distort the received picture
218
False
A very high resolution source may require more of what?
56faa8ff8f12f31900630193
bandwidth
47
False
fidelity
115
If more bandwidth is required than is available, a very low resolution source my not be able to transmitted without loss of what?
5ad3c57b604f3c001a3feffb
True
distort the received picture
218
The compression used in all SDTV storage and transmission systems will do what if resolution is too high?
5ad3c57b604f3c001a3feffc
True
bandwidth
47
A very low resolution source may require more of what?
5ad3c57b604f3c001a3feffd
True
A very high resolution source may require more bandwidth than available in order to be transmitted without loss of fidelity. The lossy compression that is used in all digital HDTV storage and transmission systems will distort the received picture, when compared to the uncompressed source.
A broadcasts optimum format depends on what two things?
56faaa04f34c681400b0c109
the type of videographic recording medium used and the image's characteristics
48
False
For best fidelity to the source, what three things should match the source?
56faaa04f34c681400b0c10a
transmitted field ratio, lines, and frame rate
164
False
For best fidelity to the source, the transmitted field ratio, lines, and frame rate should match what?
56faaa04f34c681400b0c10b
those of the source
224
False
The type of videographic recording medium used and the image's characteristics determine what?
56faaa04f34c681400b0c10c
The optimum format for a broadcast
0
False
the type of videographic recording medium
48
A broadcasts optimum format depends on what three things?
5ad3c5c4604f3c001a3ff001
True
transmitted field ratio, lines, and frame rate
164
For best fidelity to the source, what five things should match the source?
5ad3c5c4604f3c001a3ff002
True
those of the source
224
For best fidelity to the source, the transmitted field ratio, lines, and frame rate should not match what?
5ad3c5c4604f3c001a3ff003
True
optimum format for a broadcast
4
The type of videographic recording medium didn't use and the image's characteristics determine what?
5ad3c5c4604f3c001a3ff004
True
The optimum format for a broadcast depends upon the type of videographic recording medium used and the image's characteristics. For best fidelity to the source the transmitted field ratio, lines, and frame rate should match those of the source.
PAL, SECAM, and NTSC frame rates apply to what definition televisions?
56faaac38f12f31900630197
analogue standard
58
False
PAL, SECAM, and NTSC frame rates do not apply to what broadcasts?
56faaac38f12f31900630198
digital or high definition
106
False
In former PAL and SECAM countries, what frame rate does HDTV operate at?
56faaac38f12f31900630199
25/50 Hz
336
False
In former NTSC countries, what frame rate does HDTV operate at?
56faaac38f12f3190063019a
30/60 Hz
394
False
analogue standard
58
PEL, CAM, and ETSC frame rates apply to what definition televisions?
5ad3c608604f3c001a3ff009
True
digital or high definition broadcasts
106
PAL, SECAM, and NTSC frame rates do apply to what broadcasts?
5ad3c608604f3c001a3ff00a
True
25/50 Hz
336
In former PAL and SECAM countries, what frame rate does SDTV operate at?
5ad3c608604f3c001a3ff00b
True
30/60 Hz
394
In former NTSC countries, what frame rate does SDTV operate at?
5ad3c608604f3c001a3ff00c
True
PAL, SECAM and NTSC frame rates technically apply only to analogue standard definition television, not to digital or high definition broadcasts. However, with the roll out of digital broadcasting, and later HDTV broadcasting, countries retained their heritage systems. HDTV in former PAL and SECAM countries operates at a frame rate of 25/50 Hz, while HDTV in former NTSC countries operates at 30/60 Hz.
At what rate is standard 35mm photographic film exposed and projected?
56faae57f34c681400b0c111
24 frames per second
155
False
To be shown on SDTV in PAL-system countries, at what rate is cinema film scanned?
56faae57f34c681400b0c112
25 frame/s
289
False
The technique in which with successive pair of film frames, one is held for three video fields, and the next is held for two, is called what?
56faae57f34c681400b0c113
3:2 Pulldown
560
False
The 3:2 Pulldown techniques gives what total time for two frames?
56faae57f34c681400b0c114
1/12 of a second
774
False
What is achieved by the 3:2 Pulldown technique producing a total time of 1/12 of a second for two frames?
56faae57f34c681400b0c115
the correct average film frame rate
810
False
24 frames per second
155
At what rate is standard 50mm photographic film exposed and projected?
5ad3c65a604f3c001a3ff021
True
25 frame/s,
289
To be shown on SDTV in PAL-system countries, at what rate is cinema film not scanned?
5ad3c65a604f3c001a3ff022
True
3:2 Pulldown:
560
The technique in which with successive pair of film frames, one is held for three video fields, and the next is held for two, isn't called what?
5ad3c65a604f3c001a3ff023
True
1/12 of a second
774
The 3:2 Pulldown techniques gives what total time for five frames?
5ad3c65a604f3c001a3ff024
True
correct average film frame rate
814
What is achieved by the 3:2 Pulldown technique producing a total time of 1/15 of a second for two frames?
5ad3c65a604f3c001a3ff025
True
Standard 35mm photographic film used for cinema projection has a much higher image resolution than HDTV systems, and is exposed and projected at a rate of 24 frames per second (frame/s). To be shown on standard television, in PAL-system countries, cinema film is scanned at the TV rate of 25 frame/s, causing a speedup of 4.1 percent, which is generally considered acceptable. In NTSC-system countries, the TV scan rate of 30 frame/s would cause a perceptible speedup if the same were attempted, and the necessary correction is performed by a technique called 3:2 Pulldown: Over each successive pair of film frames, one is held for three video fields (1/20 of a second) and the next is held for two video fields (1/30 of a second), giving a total time for the two frames of 1/12 of a second and thus achieving the correct average film frame rate.
What two formats are typically used to recorde non-cinematic HDTV video intended for broadcast?
56fab555f34c681400b0c11b
720p or 1080i
92
False
Which format is typically used for internet distribution of HD video?
56fab555f34c681400b0c11c
720p
147
False
Most computer monitors operate in what mode?
56fab555f34c681400b0c11d
progressive-scan
263
False
1080i, 1080p, and 720p are often used on what kind of disc.
56fab555f34c681400b0c11e
Blu-ray
451
False
720p or 1080i
92
What two formats are typically used to record cinematic HDTV video intended for broadcast?
5ad3c68d604f3c001a3ff02b
True
720p
92
Which format is typically used for internet distribution of SD video?
5ad3c68d604f3c001a3ff02c
True
progressive-scan
263
No computer monitors operate in what mode?
5ad3c68d604f3c001a3ff02d
True
Blu-ray
451
1080i, 1080p, and 720p are never used on what kind of disc.
5ad3c68d604f3c001a3ff02e
True
Non-cinematic HDTV video recordings intended for broadcast are typically recorded either in 720p or 1080i format as determined by the broadcaster. 720p is commonly used for Internet distribution of high-definition video, because most computer monitors operate in progressive-scan mode. 720p also imposes less strenuous storage and decoding requirements compared to both 1080i and 1080p. 1080p/24, 1080i/30, 1080i/25, and 720p/30 is most often used on Blu-ray Disc.
In the US, what kind of tuner is needed for residents to receive free, over the air programming?
56fac6d48f12f3190063019f
ATSC
156
False
Laws regarding antennas were upated before what?
56fac6d48f12f319006301a0
the change to digital terrestrial broadcasts
633
False
Who do these laws prohibit from banning the installation of antennas?
56fac6d48f12f319006301a1
home owners' associations and city government
703
False
Laws about antennas keep home owners' associations and city government from banning what?
56fac6d48f12f319006301a2
the installation of antennas
762
False
Most television sets sold since what year have an ATSC tuner?
56fac6d48f12f319006301a3
2009
189
False
ATSC
156
In the UK, what kind of tuner is needed for residents to receive free, over the air programming?
5ad3c6c6604f3c001a3ff033
True
change to digital terrestrial broadcasts
637
Laws regarding antennas weren't updated before what?
5ad3c6c6604f3c001a3ff034
True
home owners' associations and city government
703
Who do these laws allow the installation of antennas?
5ad3c6c6604f3c001a3ff035
True
installation of antennas
766
Laws about antennas keep home owners' associations and city government from allowing what?
5ad3c6c6604f3c001a3ff036
True
In the US, residents in the line of sight of television station broadcast antennas can receive free, over the air programming with a television set with an ATSC tuner (most sets sold since 2009 have this). This is achieved with a TV aerial, just as it has been since the 1940s except now the major network signals are broadcast in high definition (ABC, Fox, and Ion Television broadcast at 720p resolution; CBS, My Network TV, NBC, PBS, and The CW at 1080i). As their digital signals more efficiently use the broadcast channel, many broadcasters are adding multiple channels to their signals. Laws about antennas were updated before the change to digital terrestrial broadcasts. These new laws prohibit home owners' associations and city government from banning the installation of antennas.
HD content can be displayed by cable-ready TVs without using what?
56fac7ddf34c681400b0c123
an external box
71
False
Without using an external box, cable-ready TVs can display what?
56fac7ddf34c681400b0c124
HD content
46
False
What features allow the cable-ready TVs to display HD content without an external box?
56fac7ddf34c681400b0c125
a QAM tuner built-in and/or a card slot for inserting a CableCARD
98
False
What kind of built-in tuner will allow a cable-ready TV to display HD content without an external box?
56fac7ddf34c681400b0c126
QAM
100
False
What kind of card will allow a cable-ready TV to display HD content without an external box?
56fac7ddf34c681400b0c127
CableCARD
154
False
external box
74
SD content can be displayed by cable-ready TVs without using what?
5ad3c735604f3c001a3ff03b
True
HD content
46
Without using an internal box, cable-ready TVs can display what?
5ad3c735604f3c001a3ff03c
True
QAM tuner built-in
100
What features allow the cable-ready TVs to display HD content without an internal box?
5ad3c735604f3c001a3ff03d
True
QAM
100
What kind of built-in tuner will allow a cable-ready TV to display HD content without an intenal box?
5ad3c735604f3c001a3ff03e
True
CableCARD
154
What kind of card will allow a cable-ready TV to display HD content without an external box?
5ad3c735604f3c001a3ff03f
True
Additionally, cable-ready TV sets can display HD content without using an external box. They have a QAM tuner built-in and/or a card slot for inserting a CableCARD.
Roku and AppleTV are examples of what?
56fac8e58f12f319006301a9
IPTV
104
False
Internet downloads, Blu-ray videos, and Apple TV are examples of what?
56fac8e58f12f319006301aa
High-definition image sources
0
False
Terrestrial broadcast and direct broadcast satellite are examples of what?
56fac8e58f12f319006301ab
High-definition image sources
0
False
Digital cable and Roku are examples of what?
56fac8e58f12f319006301ac
High-definition image sources
0
False
IPTV
104
Roku and AppleTV aren't examples of what?
5ad3c75e604f3c001a3ff04f
True
High-definition image sources
0
Internet downloads, Blu-ray videos, and Apple TV aren't examples of what?
5ad3c75e604f3c001a3ff050
True
High-definition image
0
Digital cable and Roku aren't examples of what?
5ad3c75e604f3c001a3ff051
True
High-definition image sources include terrestrial broadcast, direct broadcast satellite, digital cable, IPTV (including GoogleTV Roku boxes and AppleTV or built into "Smart Televisions"), Blu-ray video disc (BD), and internet downloads.
Why does the PlayStation 3 have extensive HD compatibility?
56faca31f34c681400b0c12d
because of its built in Blu-ray disc based player
52
False
In addition to having a Blu-ray player the Xbox 360 also features what?
56faca31f34c681400b0c12e
Netflix and Windows Media Center HTPC streaming capabilities, and the Zune marketplace
153
False
What high definition gaming platform did Nintendo recently release?
56faca31f34c681400b0c12f
The Wii U
372
False
The HD capabilities of modern gaming systems has inspired developers to do what?
56faca31f34c681400b0c130
port games from past consoles onto the PS3, Xbox 360 and Wii U, often with remastered or upscaled graphics
548
False
because of its built in Blu-ray disc based player
52
Why does the PlayStation 3 have extensive SD compatibility?
5ad3c7ae604f3c001a3ff055
True
Netflix and Windows Media Center HTPC streaming capabilities
153
In addition to having a Blu-ray player the Xbox One also features what?
5ad3c7ae604f3c001a3ff056
True
Wii U,
376
What low definition gaming platform did Nintendo recently release?
5ad3c7ae604f3c001a3ff057
True
port games from past consoles
548
The HD capabilities of modern gaming systems has not inspired developers to do what?
5ad3c7ae604f3c001a3ff058
True
Sony's PlayStation 3 has extensive HD compatibility because of its built in Blu-ray disc based player, so does Microsoft's Xbox 360 with the addition of Netflix and Windows Media Center HTPC streaming capabilities, and the Zune marketplace where users can rent or purchase digital HD content. Recently, Nintendo released a next generation high definition gaming platform, The Wii U, which includes TV remote control features in addition to IPTV streaming features like Netflix. The HD capabilities of the consoles has influenced some developers to port games from past consoles onto the PS3, Xbox 360 and Wii U, often with remastered or upscaled graphics.
Sky HD's set-top box, TiVo's Series 3, and Dish Network's VIP 622 are examples of what?
56facb5d8f12f319006301b1
an HDTV-capable digital video recorder
81
False
Some cable boxes are capable of doing what?
56facb5d8f12f319006301b2
receiving or recording two or more broadcasts at a time in HDTV format
381
False
What restriction does W-VHS recordings have?
56facb5d8f12f319006301b3
analog only
64
False
What does D-VHS stand for?
56facb5d8f12f319006301b4
Digital-VHS or Data-VHS
31
False
HDTV-capable digital video recorder
84
Sky HD's set-top box, TiVo's Series 3, and Dish Network's VIP 622 aren't examples of what?
5ad3c7fb604f3c001a3ff05d
True
receiving or recording two or more broadcasts
381
Some cable boxes can't be capable of doing what?
5ad3c7fb604f3c001a3ff05e
True
analog only
64
What restriction does W-VHS recordings not have?
5ad3c7fb604f3c001a3ff05f
True
Digital-VHS or Data-VHS
31
What does DVD stand for?
5ad3c7fb604f3c001a3ff060
True
HDTV can be recorded to D-VHS (Digital-VHS or Data-VHS), W-VHS (analog only), to an HDTV-capable digital video recorder (for example DirecTV's high-definition Digital video recorder, Sky HD's set-top box, Dish Network's VIP 622 or VIP 722 high-definition Digital video recorder receivers, or TiVo's Series 3 or HD recorders), or an HDTV-ready HTPC. Some cable boxes are capable of receiving or recording two or more broadcasts at a time in HDTV format, and HDTV programming, some included in the monthly cable service subscription price, some for an additional fee, can be played back with the cable company's on-demand feature.
When was the Hauppauge 1212 Personal Video Recorder introduced?
56facca98f12f319006301b9
2008
167
False
How does the Personal Video Recorder store content?
56facca98f12f319006301ba
in MPEG-2 format in a .ts file or in a Blu-ray compatible format .m2ts file
317
False
Recent systems can record a broadcast HD program in what format?
56facca98f12f319006301bb
'as broadcast' format or transcode to a format more compatible with Blu-ray
571
False
What uncompressed storage option was introduced in 2008?
56facca98f12f319006301bc
the Hauppauge 1212 Personal Video Recorder
173
False
2008
167
When was the Hauppauge 1212 NonPersonal Video Recorder introduced?
5ad3c82a604f3c001a3ff065
True
MPEG-2 format in a .ts file or in a Blu-ray compatible format .m2ts
320
How doesn't the Personal Video Recorder store content?
5ad3c82a604f3c001a3ff066
True
as broadcast
572
Recent systems can record a broadcast SD program in what format?
5ad3c82a604f3c001a3ff067
True
Hauppauge 1212 Personal Video Recorder
177
What uncompressed storage option wasn't introduced in 2008?
5ad3c82a604f3c001a3ff068
True
The massive amount of data storage required to archive uncompressed streams meant that inexpensive uncompressed storage options were not available to the consumer. In 2008, the Hauppauge 1212 Personal Video Recorder was introduced. This device accepts HD content through component video inputs and stores the content in MPEG-2 format in a .ts file or in a Blu-ray compatible format .m2ts file on the hard drive or DVD burner of a computer connected to the PVR through a USB 2.0 interface. More recent systems are able to record a broadcast high definition program in its 'as broadcast' format or transcode to a format more compatible with Blu-ray.
W-VHS recorders are capable of recording what kinds of signals?
56facd2f8f12f319006301c1
analog HD
58
False
What kind of recorder is no longer produced for the consumer market?
56facd2f8f12f319006301c2
Analog tape
0
False
In the secondary market, analog tape recorders are considered what?
56facd2f8f12f319006301c3
expensive and scarce
162
False
analog HD
58
W-VHS recorders aren't capable of recording what kinds of signals?
5ad3c84c604f3c001a3ff073
True
Analog tape
0
What kind of recorder is still produced for the consumer market?
5ad3c84c604f3c001a3ff074
True
expensive and scarce
162
In the secondary market, analog tape recorders arent considered what?
5ad3c84c604f3c001a3ff075
True
Analog tape recorders with bandwidth capable of recording analog HD signals, such as W-VHS recorders, are no longer produced for the consumer market and are both expensive and scarce in the secondary market.
Prior to 2004, what were US cable companies required to provide customers who rent HD set-top boxes?
56faceb3f34c681400b0c135
a set-top box with "functional" FireWire (IEEE 1394) on request
149
False
When were boxes with "functional" FireWire no longer included in the FCC mandate?
56faceb3f34c681400b0c136
July 2004
362
False
Content is now protected by what encryption?
56faceb3f34c681400b0c137
5C
473
False
What can 5c encryption prevent?
56faceb3f34c681400b0c138
duplication of content or simply limit the number of copies permitted
505
False
set-top boxes with a set-top box with "functional" FireWire
130
Prior to 2006, what were US cable companies required to provide customers who rent HD set-top boxes?
5ad3c87b604f3c001a3ff079
True
July 2004
362
When were boxes with "functional" FireWire included in the FCC mandate?
5ad3c87b604f3c001a3ff07a
True
5C
473
Content is not protected by what encryption?
5ad3c87b604f3c001a3ff07b
True
duplication of content
505
What can 5c encryption not prevent?
5ad3c87b604f3c001a3ff07c
True
In the United States, as part of the FCC's plug and play agreement, cable companies are required to provide customers who rent HD set-top boxes with a set-top box with "functional" FireWire (IEEE 1394) on request. None of the direct broadcast satellite providers have offered this feature on any of their supported boxes, but some cable TV companies have. As of July 2004[update], boxes are not included in the FCC mandate. This content is protected by encryption known as 5C. This encryption can prevent duplication of content or simply limit the number of copies permitted, thus effectively denying most if not all fair use of the content.
Wood
In addition to being used to build things, what has wood been used for over thousands of years?
56f9e2819b226e1400dd15e8
fuel
49
False
What kind of strong fibers are part of the composite of wood?
56f9e2819b226e1400dd15e9
cellulose
136
False
What's the matrix in wood made up of?
56f9e2819b226e1400dd15ea
lignin
207
False
What one word describes the function wood provides to a tree or plant?
56f9e2819b226e1400dd15eb
support
482
False
What does wood convey to leaves, roots, and other tissues of a woody plant in addition to water?
56f9e2819b226e1400dd15ec
nutrients
592
False
It has been used for thousands of years for both fuel and as a construction material. It is an organic material, a natural composite of cellulose fibers (which are strong in tension) embedded in a matrix of lignin which resists compression. Wood is sometimes defined as only the secondary xylem in the stems of trees, or it is defined more broadly to include the same type of tissue elsewhere such as in the roots of trees or shrubs.[citation needed] In a living tree it performs a support function, enabling woody plants to grow large or to stand up by themselves. It also conveys water and nutrients between the leaves, other growing tissues, and the roots. Wood may also refer to other plant materials with comparable properties, and to material engineered from wood, or wood chips or fiber.
How many cubic meters of growing stock forest are there on the planet?
56f9e5219e9bad19000a0b4b
434 billion
25
False
What percentage of the Earth's stock forest is commercial?
56f9e5219e9bad19000a0b4c
47%
75
False
In addition to buildings, what is wood often used to make?
56f9e5219e9bad19000a0b4d
furniture
324
False
About how many cubic kilometers of the vast stock forest's wood were harvested in 1991?
56f9e5219e9bad19000a0b4e
3.5
256
False
In addition to being carbon neutral, what other adjective describes wood that makes it compelling as a renewable energy source?
56f9e5219e9bad19000a0b4f
abundant
109
False
The Earth contains about 434 billion cubic meters of growing stock forest, 47% of which is commercial. As an abundant, carbon-neutral renewable resource, woody materials have been of intense interest as a source of renewable energy. In 1991, approximately 3.5 cubic kilometers of wood were harvested. Dominant uses were for furniture and building construction.
What year were the earliest plants that grew wood discovered?
56f9e7ba9e9bad19000a0b55
2011
2
False
In which Canadian province were the oldest woody plants found?
56f9e7ba9e9bad19000a0b56
New Brunswick
45
False
If dendrochronology can't be used, what method would scientists employ to date wood?
56f9e7ba9e9bad19000a0b57
carbon dating
180
False
How many millions of years old were the plants that were discovered in New Brunswick?
56f9e7ba9e9bad19000a0b58
395 to 400
129
False
A 2011 discovery in the Canadian province of New Brunswick uncovered the earliest known plants to have grown wood, approximately 395 to 400 million years ago. Wood can be dated by carbon dating and in some species by dendrochronology to make inferences about when a wooden object was created.
What has been the primary purpose of wood for millennia other than fuel?
56f9e9738f12f3190062ffe7
construction material
83
False
What is often made of wood that provides shelter to people?
56f9e9738f12f3190062ffe8
houses
116
False
For clues about the climate of a place, we can look at variation in isotopic abundances or what other thing?
56f9e9738f12f3190062ffe9
tree-ring widths
213
False
What could be made out of wood that could be used to fight off attackers?
56f9e9738f12f3190062ffea
weapons
131
False
What category of items often constructed from wood does a chair belong to?
56f9e9738f12f3190062ffeb
furniture
140
False
People have used wood for millennia for many purposes, primarily as a fuel or as a construction material for making houses, tools, weapons, furniture, packaging, artworks, and paper. The year-to-year variation in tree-ring widths and isotopic abundances gives clues to the prevailing climate at that time.
Where does wood come from?
56f9eb0bf34c681400b0bedb
trees
41
False
What forms in a tree to increase its diameter?
56f9eb0bf34c681400b0bedc
woody layers
146
False
What is the process of trees growing out to get bigger around called?
56f9eb0bf34c681400b0bedd
secondary growth
243
False
What do many places have four of that would cause growth rings in a tree?
56f9eb0bf34c681400b0bede
seasons
405
False
If a place has annual seasons, what are the growth rings on the trees there called?
56f9eb0bf34c681400b0bedf
annual rings
668
False
Wood, in the strict sense, is yielded by trees, which increase in diameter by the formation, between the existing wood and the inner bark, of new woody layers which envelop the entire stem, living branches, and roots. This process is known as secondary growth; it is the result of cell division in the vascular cambium, a lateral meristem, and subsequent expansion of the new cells. Where there are clear seasons, growth can occur in a discrete annual or seasonal pattern, leading to growth rings; these can usually be most clearly seen on the end of a log, but are also visible on the other surfaces. If these seasons are annual these growth rings are referred to as annual rings. Where there is no seasonal difference growth rings are likely to be indistinct or absent.
If a growth ring has differences over one season, would the part nearest the tree's center be narrower or wider?
56f9ecbff34c681400b0bee5
wider
194
False
What name, besides springwood, is used for the part of a growth ring formed in the beginning of the growing season?
56f9ecbff34c681400b0bee6
earlywood
303
False
If the opposite of springwood is summerwood, what's the opposite of earlywood?
56f9ecbff34c681400b0bee7
latewood
394
False
Is earlywood usually lighter or darker than the part of the growth ring that forms later in the season?
56f9ecbff34c681400b0bee8
lighter
224
False
Is summerwood the inner or outer portion of a growth ring?
56f9ecbff34c681400b0bee9
outer
332
False
If there are differences within a growth ring, then the part of a growth ring nearest the center of the tree, and formed early in the growing season when growth is rapid, is usually composed of wider elements. It is usually lighter in color than that near the outer portion of the ring, and is known as earlywood or springwood. The outer portion formed later in the season is then known as the latewood or summerwood. However, there are major differences, depending on the kind of wood (see below).
What is the sort of circular imperfection in a piece of wood called?
56f9ee81f34c681400b0bef7
knot
2
False
What property of wood does a knot usually reduce in the wood around it?
56f9ee81f34c681400b0bef8
strength
144
False
In what direction is wood often sawn so that a knot appears as a solid circle that the grain flows around?
56f9ee81f34c681400b0bef9
longitudinally
262
False
Are knots usually lighter or darker than the surrounding wood?
56f9ee81f34c681400b0befa
darker
347
False
The direction of grain in a knot can differ by as much as how many degrees from the regular wood?
56f9ee81f34c681400b0befb
90
513
False
A knot is a particular type of imperfection in a piece of wood; it will affect the technical properties of the wood, usually reducing the local strength and increasing the tendency for splitting along the wood grain, but may be exploited for visual effect. In a longitudinally sawn plank, a knot will appear as a roughly circular "solid" (usually darker) piece of wood around which the grain of the rest of the wood "flows" (parts and rejoins). Within a knot, the direction of the wood (grain direction) is up to 90 degrees different from the grain direction of the regular wood.
Other than the base of a side branch, what tree feature causes a knot?
56f9efa98f12f31900630003
a dormant bud
58
False
What shape is the knot formed by a side branch's base?
56f9efa98f12f31900630004
conical
116
False
What measurement of a stem determines a knot's inner tip placement?
56f9efa98f12f31900630005
diameter
216
False
Because a knot's shape is conical, what shape does a cross-section of it have?
56f9efa98f12f31900630006
circular
152
False
In the tree a knot is either the base of a side branch or a dormant bud. A knot (when the base of a side branch) is conical in shape (hence the roughly circular cross-section) with the inner tip at the point in stem diameter at which the plant's vascular cambium was located when the branch formed as a bud.
What will the lower limbs of a tree usually do during development?
56f9f187f34c681400b0bf01
die
56
False
For what length of time can a dead lower limb stay attached to a tree?
56f9f187f34c681400b0bf02
years
107
False
Rather than being joined to the limb that died, where do subsequent layers grow?
56f9f187f34c681400b0bf03
around it
230
False
Are the knots that dead tree limbs form attached or not attached?
56f9f187f34c681400b0bf04
not attached
286
False
A detached knot will probably drop out of the wood when someone saws it into what?
56f9f187f34c681400b0bf05
boards
357
False
During the development of a tree, the lower limbs often die, but may remain attached for a time, sometimes years. Subsequent layers of growth of the attaching stem are no longer intimately joined with the dead limb, but are grown around it. Hence, dead branches produce knots which are not attached, and likely to drop out after the tree has been sawn into boards.
What's the process in which knots are classified called?
56f9f2568f12f3190063000b
grading
3
False
Along with firmness, soundness, and form, what property of a knot is classified?
56f9f2568f12f3190063000c
size
87
False
What property of knots does the amount of time a branch stayed on a tree while the stem kept growing affect?
56f9f2568f12f3190063000d
firmness
161
False
In grading lumber and structural timber, knots are classified according to their form, size, soundness, and the firmness with which they are held in place. This firmness is affected by, among other factors, the length of time for which the branch was dead while the attaching stem continued to grow.
What is wood's breaking strength susceptible to?
56f9f63b8f12f31900630011
defects
258
False
Depending on the placement and size of a knot, what property of structural timber can be affected?
56f9f63b8f12f31900630012
stiffness
39
False
What do stiffness and elastic strength depend on more than defects?
56f9f63b8f12f31900630013
sound wood
173
False
What direction of compression in relation to its grain won't weaken wood with sound knots in it?
56f9f63b8f12f31900630014
parallel
326
False
Knots do not necessarily influence the stiffness of structural timber, this will depend on the size and location. Stiffness and elastic strength are more dependent upon the sound wood than upon localized defects. The breaking strength is very susceptible to defects. Sound knots do not weaken wood when subject to compression parallel to the grain.
What positive visual component can knots sometimes add to decorative pieces?
56f9f78c8f12f31900630019
interest
80
False
What term is used to describe what knots can do to affect the finish of things made from wood even when they've been painted?
56f9f78c8f12f3190063001a
bleed
242
False
Is bleed easy or difficult to control?
56f9f78c8f12f3190063001b
difficult
481
False
The stain from a knot bleeding is usually brownish or what other color?
56f9f78c8f12f3190063001c
yellow
339
False
In what stage of processing does knot primer need to be applied for maximum effectiveness?
56f9f78c8f12f3190063001d
preparation
423
False
In some decorative applications, wood with knots may be desirable to add visual interest. In applications where wood is painted, such as skirting boards, fascia boards, door frames and furniture, resins present in the timber may continue to 'bleed' through to the surface of a knot for months or even years after manufacture and show as a yellow or brownish stain. A knot primer paint or solution, correctly applied during preparation, may do much to reduce this problem but it is difficult to control completely, especially when using mass-produced kiln-dried timber stocks.
What's another word for "duramen"?
56f9f869f34c681400b0bf15
Heartwood
0
False
What is heartwood naturally resistant to?
56f9f869f34c681400b0bf16
decay
126
False
How does heartwood formation occur due to its being genetically programmed?
56f9f869f34c681400b0bf17
spontaneously
160
False
What adjective describes fully formed heartwood?
56f9f869f34c681400b0bf18
dead
271
False
Despite being considered dead, what can heartwood have one chemical reaction to?
56f9f869f34c681400b0bf19
decay organisms
382
False
Heartwood (or duramen) is wood that as a result of a naturally occurring chemical transformation has become more resistant to decay. Heartwood formation occurs spontaneously (it is a genetically programmed process). Once heartwood formation is complete, the heartwood is dead. Some uncertainty still exists as to whether heartwood is truly dead, as it can still chemically react to decay organisms, but only once.
In what part of a tree's cross-section is heartwood visible?
56f9f994f34c681400b0bf1f
growth rings
149
False
What simple color distinction can heartwood have that makes it stand out from living wood in a tree?
56f9f994f34c681400b0bf20
darker
197
False
Along with insect infestation, what process can discolor wood and make it look like heartwood?
56f9f994f34c681400b0bf21
decay
238
False
What kind of plants never form heartwood?
56f9f994f34c681400b0bf22
woody
295
False
What is the living wood in a tree called?
56f9f994f34c681400b0bf23
sapwood
53
False
Heartwood is often visually distinct from the living sapwood, and can be distinguished in a cross-section where the boundary will tend to follow the growth rings. For example, it is sometimes much darker. However, other processes such as decay or insect invasion can also discolor wood, even in woody plants that do not form heartwood, which may lead to confusion.
What term is interchangeable with "sapwood"?
56f9fb8df34c681400b0bf29
alburnum
12
False
Is sapwood the younger or older wood in a tree?
56f9fb8df34c681400b0bf2a
younger
29
False
What essential liquid is the sapwood tasked with carrying around a tree?
56f9fb8df34c681400b0bf2b
water
136
False
How much of the wood in a tree is sapwood at some point in its life?
56f9fb8df34c681400b0bf2c
All
428
False
Does a tree growing quickly out in the open have thinner or thicker sapwood for its size than the same kind of tree in a dense forest?
56f9fb8df34c681400b0bf2d
thicker
630
False
Sapwood (or alburnum) is the younger, outermost wood; in the growing tree it is living wood, and its principal functions are to conduct water from the roots to the leaves and to store up and give back according to the season the reserves prepared in the leaves. However, by the time they become competent to conduct water, all xylem tracheids and vessels have lost their cytoplasm and the cells are therefore functionally dead. All wood in a tree is first formed as sapwood. The more leaves a tree bears and the more vigorous its growth, the larger the volume of sapwood required. Hence trees making rapid growth in the open have thicker sapwood for their size than trees of the same species growing in dense forests. Sometimes trees (of species that do form heartwood) grown in the open may become of considerable size, 30 cm or more in diameter, before any heartwood begins to form, for example, in second-growth hickory, or open-grown pines.
If a tree starts forming heartwood right away, will its sapwood layer be thin or thick?
56f9fcfbf34c681400b0bf33
thin
261
False
What property of heartwood that has nothing to do with how important it is to trees got it its name?
56f9fcfbf34c681400b0bf34
position
43
False
Does a beech tree usually have thin or thick sapwood?
56f9fcfbf34c681400b0bf35
thick
501
False
Does a sassafras tree typically have a thin or thick sapwood layer?
56f9fcfbf34c681400b0bf36
Thin
330
False
Would a thin or a thick sapwood layer be found in a pine tree?
56f9fcfbf34c681400b0bf37
thick
501
False
The term heartwood derives solely from its position and not from any vital importance to the tree. This is evidenced by the fact that a tree can thrive with its heart completely decayed. Some species begin to form heartwood very early in life, so having only a thin layer of live sapwood, while in others the change comes slowly. Thin sapwood is characteristic of such species as chestnut, black locust, mulberry, osage-orange, and sassafras, while in maple, ash, hickory, hackberry, beech, and pine, thick sapwood is the rule. Others never form heartwood.
What part of a tree is the cross-sectional area of the sapwood approximately proportional to?
56f9fe9b8f12f31900630047
crown
202
False
Are more rings necessary if they're narrow or wide?
56f9fe9b8f12f31900630048
narrow
238
False
As a tree grows bigger, if the sapwood layer doesn't increase in volume, what will it become?
56f9fe9b8f12f31900630049
thinner
359
False
In what part of the tree trunk is the sapwood layer thinnest?
56f9fe9b8f12f3190063004a
near the base
469
False
Along with the smaller diameter of the upper trunk, what factor leads to thinner sapwood higher up a tree?
56f9fe9b8f12f3190063004b
age
496
False
No definite relation exists between the annual rings of growth and the amount of sapwood. Within the same species the cross-sectional area of the sapwood is very roughly proportional to the size of the crown of the tree. If the rings are narrow, more of them are required than where they are wide. As the tree gets larger, the sapwood must necessarily become thinner or increase materially in volume. Sapwood is thicker in the upper portion of the trunk of a tree than near the base, because the age and the diameter of the upper sections are less.
What usually covers the whole trunk of a very young tree?
56fa00f28f12f31900630051
limbs
45
False
What evidence of the stubs of the limbs a tree loses can always be seen in the wood?
56fa00f28f12f31900630052
knots
280
False
In a very old tree, are you more likely to find a lot of knots in the heartwood or the sapwood?
56fa00f28f12f31900630053
heartwood
509
False
What hides the stubs of a tree's lost limbs from being visible later in its life?
56fa00f28f12f31900630054
Subsequent growth
192
False
Since knots are defects that weaken lumber, would the heartwood or the sapwood from the same tree be stronger?
56fa00f28f12f31900630055
sapwood
683
False
When a tree is very young it is covered with limbs almost, if not entirely, to the ground, but as it grows older some or all of them will eventually die and are either broken off or fall off. Subsequent growth of wood may completely conceal the stubs which will however remain as knots. No matter how smooth and clear a log is on the outside, it is more or less knotty near the middle. Consequently, the sapwood of an old tree, and particularly of a forest-grown tree, will be freer from knots than the inner heartwood. Since in most uses of wood, knots are defects that weaken the timber and interfere with its ease of working and other properties, it follows that a given piece of sapwood, because of its position in the tree, may well be stronger than a piece of heartwood from the same tree.
What do broken limbs and deep wounds open a door for in a tree?
56fa02638f12f3190063006d
decay
283
False
Decay can spread to all of what part of a tree?
56fa02638f12f3190063006e
the trunk
341
False
What growth stage of insects bore holes into trees?
56fa02638f12f3190063006f
larvae
356
False
What part of a tree often stays impressively sound even when hundreds or thousands of years old?
56fa02638f12f31900630070
inner heartwood
26
False
What evidence do some insect larvae leave in a tree forever?
56fa02638f12f31900630071
tunnels
409
False
It is remarkable that the inner heartwood of old trees remains as sound as it usually does, since in many cases it is hundreds, and in a few instances thousands, of years old. Every broken limb or root, or deep wound from fire, insects, or falling timber, may afford an entrance for decay, which, once started, may penetrate to all parts of the trunk. The larvae of many insects bore into the trees and their tunnels remain indefinitely as sources of weakness. Whatever advantages, however, that sapwood may have in this connection are due solely to its relative age and position.
In what stage of its life does a tree usually grow the fastest?
56fa04db8f12f31900630095
youth
133
False
As a tree ages, do its growth rings usually get wider or narrower?
56fa04db8f12f31900630096
narrower
243
False
What part of a tree opens and spreads out more as it matures?
56fa04db8f12f31900630097
crown
543
False
Is wood production of a tree lessened or increased as it ages?
56fa04db8f12f31900630098
lessened
601
False
Along with nutrients, what do trees growing in forests have to compete for?
56fa04db8f12f31900630099
light
776
False
If a tree grows all its life in the open and the conditions of soil and site remain unchanged, it will make its most rapid growth in youth, and gradually decline. The annual rings of growth are for many years quite wide, but later they become narrower and narrower. Since each succeeding ring is laid down on the outside of the wood previously formed, it follows that unless a tree materially increases its production of wood from year to year, the rings must necessarily become thinner as the trunk gets wider. As a tree reaches maturity its crown becomes more open and the annual wood production is lessened, thereby reducing still more the width of the growth rings. In the case of forest-grown trees so much depends upon the competition of the trees in their struggle for light and nourishment that periods of rapid and slow growth may alternate. Some trees, such as southern oaks, maintain the same width of ring for hundreds of years. Upon the whole, however, as a tree gets larger in diameter the width of the growth rings decreases.
When a big tree is cut up, will the pieces of wood differ or all be the same?
56fa0745f34c681400b0bf5d
differ
51
False
In a large log, will the heartwood or sapwood usually be stronger and tougher?
56fa0745f34c681400b0bf5e
heartwood
510
False
If you need really hard, strong wood from a small tree, would it likely be better to use the heartwood or sapwood?
56fa0745f34c681400b0bf5f
sapwood
368
False
Besides big trees, what trees are more likely to have a range of different kinds of wood?
56fa0745f34c681400b0bf60
mature
105
False
Different pieces of wood cut from a large tree may differ decidedly, particularly if the tree is big and mature. In some trees, the wood laid on late in the life of a tree is softer, lighter, weaker, and more even-textured than that produced earlier, but in other trees, the reverse applies. This may or may not correspond to heartwood and sapwood. In a large log the sapwood, because of the time in the life of the tree when it was grown, may be inferior in hardness, strength, and toughness to equally sound heartwood from the same log. In a smaller tree, the reverse may be true.
When trees have a visible difference in color between sapwood and heartwood, which is darker?
56fa09098f12f3190063009f
heartwood
95
False
What is deposited naturally in heartwood that changes its color?
56fa09098f12f319006300a0
chemical substances
278
False
Is the color difference between heartwood and sapwood usually very subtle or conspicuous?
56fa09098f12f319006300a1
conspicuous
185
False
What type of properties of heartwood and sapwood is often the same even if their colors are very different?
56fa09098f12f319006300a2
mechanical
378
False
Although heartwood and sapwood might be similar mechanically, if their colors are very different, what other type of difference would they have?
56fa09098f12f319006300a3
chemical
459
False
In species which show a distinct difference between heartwood and sapwood the natural color of heartwood is usually darker than that of the sapwood, and very frequently the contrast is conspicuous (see section of yew log above). This is produced by deposits in the heartwood of chemical substances, so that a dramatic color difference does not mean a dramatic difference in the mechanical properties of heartwood and sapwood, although there may be a dramatic chemical difference.
What type of tree has resin that makes it stronger when it dries?
56fa0bfa8f12f319006300b3
Longleaf Pine
34
False
What's the funny name for resin-saturated heartwood?
56fa0bfa8f12f319006300b4
fat lighter
190
False
What is fat lighter practically impervious to in addition to termites?
56fa0bfa8f12f319006300b5
rot
261
False
If spruce is shot full of crude resin and dried, which of its properties is increased?
56fa0bfa8f12f319006300b6
strength
558
False
Since it's highly flammable, what do people often use little pieces of longleaf pine tree stumps for?
56fa0bfa8f12f319006300b7
kindling
392
False
Some experiments on very resinous Longleaf Pine specimens indicate an increase in strength, due to the resin which increases the strength when dry. Such resin-saturated heartwood is called "fat lighter". Structures built of fat lighter are almost impervious to rot and termites; however they are very flammable. Stumps of old longleaf pines are often dug, split into small pieces and sold as kindling for fires. Stumps thus dug may actually remain a century or more since being cut. Spruce impregnated with crude resin and dried is also greatly increased in strength thereby.
Which of the wood in a growth ring is usually darker?
56fa0e0df34c681400b0bf8d
latewood
10
False
Which property of a tree's wood that gives clues about its strength and hardness can be judged by it's color?
56fa0e0df34c681400b0bf8e
density
120
False
What category of trees show this difference greatly?
56fa0e0df34c681400b0bf8f
coniferous
221
False
What type of woods might sometimes appear to have darker earlywood on a finished surface?
56fa0e0df34c681400b0bf90
ring-porous
242
False
With the exception of earlywood/latewood difference in some types of trees, how much of an indication of strength is a wood's color?
56fa0e0df34c681400b0bf91
no indication
494
False
Since the latewood of a growth ring is usually darker in color than the earlywood, this fact may be used in judging the density, and therefore the hardness and strength of the material. This is particularly the case with coniferous woods. In ring-porous woods the vessels of the early wood not infrequently appear on a finished surface as darker than the denser latewood, though on cross sections of heartwood the reverse is commonly true. Except in the manner just stated the color of wood is no indication of strength.
What condition does an abnormal color usually indicate in wood?
56fa104bf34c681400b0bf97
diseased
47
False
What other property can you assume of wood that is diseased?
56fa104bf34c681400b0bf98
unsoundness
78
False
What causes the black checked pattern in the wood of western hemlocks?
56fa104bf34c681400b0bf99
insect attacks
143
False
What animals cause the reddish-brown streaks of color in hickory wood?
56fa104bf34c681400b0bf9a
birds
265
False
What's the name for the pretty coloring effect caused in some wood by rot-producing fungi?
56fa104bf34c681400b0bf9b
spalting
551
False
Abnormal discoloration of wood often denotes a diseased condition, indicating unsoundness. The black check in western hemlock is the result of insect attacks. The reddish-brown streaks so common in hickory and certain other woods are mostly the result of injury by birds. The discoloration is merely an indication of an injury, and in all probability does not of itself affect the properties of the wood. Certain rot-producing fungi impart to wood characteristic colors which thus become symptomatic of weakness; however an attractive effect known as spalting produced by this process is often considered a desirable characteristic. Ordinary sap-staining is due to fungal growth, but does not necessarily produce a weakening effect.
What does wood retain in its cell walls despite being air-dried?
56fa115c8f12f319006300bd
water
112
False
Air-dried wood keeps up to what percentage of the water in its cell walls?
56fa115c8f12f319006300be
16
101
False
What kind of dried wood retains a small quantity of water but is considered absolutely dry?
56fa115c8f12f319006300bf
oven-dried
193
False
In heartwood it occurs only in the first and last forms. Wood that is thoroughly air-dried retains 8–16% of the water in the cell walls, and none, or practically none, in the other forms. Even oven-dried wood retains a small percentage of moisture, but for all except chemical purposes, may be considered absolutely dry.
Often the water in wood makes it more pliable and what else?
56fa142af34c681400b0bfa1
softer
80
False
What material sometimes used for dog chews reacts similarly to wood because of its water content?
56fa142af34c681400b0bfa2
rawhide
183
False
What material we use to write or print on, like wood, becomes softer and more pliable when wet?
56fa142af34c681400b0bfa3
paper
192
False
When water content increases within certain limits in wood, does is have a less or greater softening effect?
56fa142af34c681400b0bfa4
greater
267
False
What type of action does water create in cloth?
56fa142af34c681400b0bfa5
softening
154
False
The general effect of the water content upon the wood substance is to render it softer and more pliable. A similar effect of common observation is in the softening action of water on rawhide, paper, or cloth. Within certain limits, the greater the water content, the greater its softening effect.
What will drying often increase in wood?
56fa160f8f12f319006300c3
strength
42
False
What color is also used interchangeably with "undried" for wood?
56fa160f8f12f319006300c4
green
235
False
What type of wood can hold four times as much of a load when dried?
56fa160f8f12f319006300c5
spruce
144
False
Drying produces a decided increase in the strength of wood, particularly in small specimens. An extreme example is the case of a completely dry spruce block 5 cm in section, which will sustain a permanent load four times as great as a green (undried) block of the same size will.
What type of "ultimate" strength is one of the two types increased the most by drying wood?
56fa184cf34c681400b0bfab
crushing
64
False
What property of wood is least affected by drying?
56fa184cf34c681400b0bfac
elasticity
250
False
Is strength at elastic limit in endwise compression or stress at elastic limit in cross-bending increased more by drying wood?
56fa184cf34c681400b0bfad
strength at elastic limit in endwise compression
87
False
Is the strength of the modulus of rupture or elasticity increased more when wood is dried?
56fa184cf34c681400b0bfae
modulus of rupture
163
False
The greatest strength increase due to drying is in the ultimate crushing strength, and strength at elastic limit in endwise compression; these are followed by the modulus of rupture, and stress at elastic limit in cross-bending, while the modulus of elasticity is least affected.
Along with hygroscopic, cellular, and anisotropic, how is the material of wood described?
56fa19cc8f12f319006300c9
heterogeneous
10
False
What does wood consist of?
56fa19cc8f12f319006300ca
cells
88
False
What part of wood's cells are composed of cellulose and hemicellulose?
56fa19cc8f12f319006300cb
walls
108
False
What makes up 40-50% of the cell walls in wood?
56fa19cc8f12f319006300cc
cellulose
147
False
What substance is hemicellulose impregnated with?
56fa19cc8f12f319006300cd
lignin
216
False
Wood is a heterogeneous, hygroscopic, cellular and anisotropic material. It consists of cells, and the cell walls are composed of micro-fibrils of cellulose (40% – 50%) and hemicellulose (15% – 25%) impregnated with lignin (15% – 30%).
What type of cells makes up most wood cells in coniferous trees?
56fa1c3d8f12f319006300d3
tracheids
73
False
Are hardwood or softwood species more uniform in structure?
56fa1c3d8f12f319006300d4
softwood
17
False
What are the visible vessels in hardwoods commonly called?
56fa1c3d8f12f319006300d5
pores
199
False
What hardwood that starts with the letter "O" would have pores?
56fa1c3d8f12f319006300d6
oak
261
False
Besides oak, what's an example of a hardwood with prominent pores?
56fa1c3d8f12f319006300d7
ash
269
False
In coniferous or softwood species the wood cells are mostly of one kind, tracheids, and as a result the material is much more uniform in structure than that of most hardwoods. There are no vessels ("pores") in coniferous wood such as one sees so prominently in oak and ash, for example.
Is the structure of hardwood simple or complex?
56fa1d25f34c681400b0bfb3
complex
35
False
What handles most of the water conduction in hardwoods?
56fa1d25f34c681400b0bfb4
vessels
103
False
Are the vessels in chestnut wood large or small?
56fa1d25f34c681400b0bfb5
large
163
False
In wood from a willow tree, what would you need to use to see the tiny vessels?
56fa1d25f34c681400b0bfb6
a hand lens
248
False
Besides ring-porous, what's the other class hardwoods are often divided into?
56fa1d25f34c681400b0bfb7
diffuse-porous
357
False
The structure of hardwoods is more complex. The water conducting capability is mostly taken care of by vessels: in some cases (oak, chestnut, ash) these are quite large and distinct, in others (buckeye, poplar, willow) too small to be seen without a hand lens. In discussing such woods it is customary to divide them into two large classes, ring-porous and diffuse-porous.
What species of hardwood are hickory and mulberry trees?
56fa1ee4f34c681400b0bfbd
ring-porous
3
False
In what season do the growth-rings of ring-porous species form with larger vessels localized?
56fa1ee4f34c681400b0bfbe
spring
228
False
In what season does the part of the growth-ring with smaller vessels form in ring-porous species?
56fa1ee4f34c681400b0bfbf
summer
332
False
What fibers does the summer's section of growth-ring have more of?
56fa1ee4f34c681400b0bfc0
wood fibers
403
False
Along with strength, what property do wood fibers lend to wood?
56fa1ee4f34c681400b0bfc1
toughness
470
False
In ring-porous species, such as ash, black locust, catalpa, chestnut, elm, hickory, mulberry, and oak, the larger vessels or pores (as cross sections of vessels are called) are localised in the part of the growth ring formed in spring, thus forming a region of more or less open and porous tissue. The rest of the ring, produced in summer, is made up of smaller vessels and a much greater proportion of wood fibers. These fibers are the elements which give strength and toughness to wood, while the vessels are a source of weakness.[citation needed]
What kind of woods have pores that are uniformly sized?
56fa2008f34c681400b0bfc7
diffuse-porous
3
False
What species do aspen, cottonwood, and poplar trees belong to?
56fa2008f34c681400b0bfc8
Populus
282
False
With walnut, what's another tree in the intermediate group?
56fa2008f34c681400b0bfc9
cherry
369
False
What capability is spread through the growth ring in ring-porous species?
56fa2008f34c681400b0bfca
water conducting
63
False
Is maple wood diffuse-porous or ring-porous?
56fa2008f34c681400b0bfcb
diffuse-porous
3
False
In diffuse-porous woods the pores are evenly sized so that the water conducting capability is scattered throughout the growth ring instead of being collected in a band or row. Examples of this kind of wood are alder, basswood,[citation needed] birch, buckeye, maple, willow,and the Populus species such as aspen, cottonwood and poplar. Some species, such as walnut and cherry, are on the border between the two classes, forming an intermediate group.[citation needed]
What kind of softwoods often have significant differences in their earlywood and latewood?
56fa21cdf34c681400b0bfd1
temperate
3
False
Is latewood denser or less dense than earlywood?
56fa21cdf34c681400b0bfd2
denser
111
False
Does strength come from the walls or cavities of wood cells?
56fa21cdf34c681400b0bfd3
walls
388
False
Are the cell walls of earlywood thick or thin?
56fa21cdf34c681400b0bfd4
thin
329
False
What general size are the cavities in the cells of very dense latewood?
56fa21cdf34c681400b0bfd5
very small
259
False
In temperate softwoods there often is a marked difference between latewood and earlywood. The latewood will be denser than that formed early in the season. When examined under a microscope the cells of dense latewood are seen to be very thick-walled and with very small cell cavities, while those formed first in the season have thin walls and large cell cavities. The strength is in the walls, not the cavities. Hence the greater the proportion of latewood the greater the density and strength. In choosing a piece of pine where strength or stiffness is the important consideration, the principal thing to observe is the comparative amounts of earlywood and latewood. The width of ring is not nearly so important as the proportion and nature of the latewood in the ring.
Comparing a heavy and a lightweight piece of wood from a pine, which would have a greater proportion of latewood?
56fa236c8f12f319006300dd
heavy
5
False
What feature of a piece of pine with more latewood would be more clear and pronounced?
56fa236c8f12f319006300de
growth rings
213
False
What type of tree has very little contrast between parts of its growth rings?
56fa236c8f12f319006300df
white pines
230
False
Is white pine easy or difficult to work with because of its texture?
56fa236c8f12f319006300e0
easy
369
False
What kind of pines have very deep, darkly colored hardwood that stands out against the light earlywood?
56fa236c8f12f319006300e1
hard pines
386
False
If a heavy piece of pine is compared with a lightweight piece it will be seen at once that the heavier one contains a larger proportion of latewood than the other, and is therefore showing more clearly demarcated growth rings. In white pines there is not much contrast between the different parts of the ring, and as a result the wood is very uniform in texture and is easy to work. In hard pines, on the other hand, the latewood is very dense and is deep-colored, presenting a very decided contrast to the soft, straw-colored earlywood.
Having a high proportion of latewood isn't all that matters; what else is important?
56fa254bf34c681400b0bfdb
quality
56
False
What can we judge in wood just by looking at it?
56fa254bf34c681400b0bfdc
comparative density
265
False
What property of wood could we project some indication of by looking at its density?
56fa254bf34c681400b0bfdd
strength
315
False
What could we call some specimens with a high proportion of latewood that explains why they weigh less than specimens with much less latewood?
56fa254bf34c681400b0bfde
porous
163
False
It is not only the proportion of latewood, but also its quality, that counts. In specimens that show a very large proportion of latewood it may be noticeably more porous and weigh considerably less than the latewood in pieces that contain but little. One can judge comparative density, and therefore to some extent strength, by visual inspection.
What facet of wood is affected to some degree by the place where the tree grows?
56fa29d8f34c681400b0bfe3
character
443
False
If you want wood that's easy to work with, what kind of growth would you want the tree to have?
56fa29d8f34c681400b0bfe4
moderate to slow
631
False
What species of tree can be said to growth ring proportions that aren't determined just by their rate of growth?
56fa29d8f34c681400b0bfe5
conifers
162
False
What counterpart of earlywood are scientists still trying to explain the formation of?
56fa29d8f34c681400b0bfe6
latewood
116
False
While there is some relationship between where and how a tree grows, what can't anyone formulate to govern it?
56fa29d8f34c681400b0bfe7
a rule
512
False
No satisfactory explanation can as yet be given for the exact mechanisms determining the formation of earlywood and latewood. Several factors may be involved. In conifers, at least, rate of growth alone does not determine the proportion of the two portions of the ring, for in some cases the wood of slow growth is very hard and heavy, while in others the opposite is true. The quality of the site where the tree grows undoubtedly affects the character of the wood formed, though it is not possible to formulate a rule governing it. In general, however, it may be said that where strength or ease of working is essential, woods of moderate to slow growth should be chosen.
What kind of woods always have very clearly marked seasonal growth?
56fa2ab88f12f319006300e7
ring-porous
3
False
What size pores form early in ring-porous woods' growing season?
56fa2ab88f12f319006300e8
large
78
False
When does the denser tissue the new pores abut come from?
56fa2ab88f12f319006300e9
the year before
146
False
In ring-porous woods each season's growth is always well defined, because the large pores formed early in the season abut on the denser tissue of the year before.
Ring-porous hardwoods have a clear relationship between their properties and what other factor?
56fa2d76f34c681400b0bfed
rate of growth
101
False
Is harder, heavier wood indicated by narrower or wider growth rings?
56fa2d76f34c681400b0bfee
wider
239
False
What kind of wood with a name that starts with "H" is a ring-porous hardwood?
56fa2d76f34c681400b0bfef
hickory
400
False
If the growth rings are wider, was the growth of the tree slower or more rapid?
56fa2d76f34c681400b0bff0
more rapid
210
False
What is the only kind of wood that will definitely be harder and stronger when it grows faster?
56fa2d76f34c681400b0bff1
ring-porous
364
False
In the case of the ring-porous hardwoods there seems to exist a pretty definite relation between the rate of growth of timber and its properties. This may be briefly summed up in the general statement that the more rapid the growth or the wider the rings of growth, the heavier, harder, stronger, and stiffer the wood. This, it must be remembered, applies only to ring-porous woods such as oak, ash, hickory, and others of the same group, and is, of course, subject to some exceptions and limitations.
Which specific type of wood within ring-porous woods have more fibers to make it strong?
56fa3006f34c681400b0bff7
latewood
54
False
When there is less latewood, what is diminishing?
56fa3006f34c681400b0bff8
breadth of ring
139
False
Does slow or rapid growth make relatively porous, light wood?
56fa3006f34c681400b0bff9
slow
205
False
What kind of oak has just 6-10% volume of large vessels in the log?
56fa3006f34c681400b0bffa
good
315
False
What kind of fibers are in the latewood of good oak, making it very firm?
56fa3006f34c681400b0bffb
thick-walled
546
False
In ring-porous woods of good growth it is usually the latewood in which the thick-walled, strength-giving fibers are most abundant. As the breadth of ring diminishes, this latewood is reduced so that very slow growth produces comparatively light, porous wood composed of thin-walled vessels and wood parenchyma. In good oak these large vessels of the earlywood occupy from 6 to 10 percent of the volume of the log, while in inferior material they may make up 25% or more. The latewood of good oak is dark colored and firm, and consists mostly of thick-walled fibers which form one-half or more of the wood. In inferior oak, this latewood is much reduced both in quantity and quality. Such variation is very largely the result of rate of growth.
What term is sometimes used for wood with wide rings?
56fa317bf34c681400b0c001
second-growth
34
False
Do young trees grow more quickly in open stands or in a closed forest?
56fa317bf34c681400b0c002
open stands
92
False
What property is important to manufacturers who use "second-growth" hardwood?
56fa317bf34c681400b0c003
strength
231
False
What specific kind of "second-growth" hardwood is often used to make handles and spokes?
56fa317bf34c681400b0c004
hickory
370
False
What organization tested hickory to find out about its properties?
56fa317bf34c681400b0c005
U.S. Forest Service
521
False
Wide-ringed wood is often called "second-growth", because the growth of the young timber in open stands after the old trees have been removed is more rapid than in trees in a closed forest, and in the manufacture of articles where strength is an important consideration such "second-growth" hardwood material is preferred. This is particularly the case in the choice of hickory for handles and spokes. Here not only strength, but toughness and resilience are important. The results of a series of tests on hickory by the U.S. Forest Service show that:
What kind of wood often has ring divisions that can't even be seen by looking at it?
56fa33388f12f319006300ed
diffuse-porous
7
False
In diffuse-porous woods, if the demarcation between rings is obvious, what type of difference within the ring might not be?
56fa33388f12f319006300ee
structure
248
False
What adjective describes how our eyes function without a tool like a microscope to help?
56fa33388f12f319006300ef
unaided
145
False
In the diffuse-porous woods, the demarcation between rings is not always so clear and in some cases is almost (if not entirely) invisible to the unaided eye. Conversely, when there is a clear demarcation there may not be a noticeable difference in structure within the growth ring.
What kind of wood has all similarly sized vessels?
56fa351cf34c681400b0c00b
diffuse-porous
3
False
What rate of growth in a tree will make the wood from it stronger than trees that grow very slowly or very quickly?
56fa351cf34c681400b0c00c
medium
383
False
The capability of diffuse-porous woods to carry what substance is spread out in the growth ring?
56fa351cf34c681400b0c00d
water
94
False
What division of trees are diffuse-porous woods more similar in growth rate to than ring-porous woods?
56fa351cf34c681400b0c00e
conifers
326
False
Does uniformity of the texture and grain of wood usually result from much or little contrast between earlywood and latewood?
56fa351cf34c681400b0c00f
little
700
False
In diffuse-porous woods, as has been stated, the vessels or pores are even-sized, so that the water conducting capability is scattered throughout the ring instead of collected in the earlywood. The effect of rate of growth is, therefore, not the same as in the ring-porous woods, approaching more nearly the conditions in the conifers. In general it may be stated that such woods of medium growth afford stronger material than when very rapidly or very slowly grown. In many uses of wood, total strength is not the main consideration. If ease of working is prized, wood should be chosen with regard to its uniformity of texture and straightness of grain, which will in most cases occur when there is little contrast between the latewood of one season's growth and the earlywood of the next.
What's another term used for "conifer" wood?
56fa37baf34c681400b0c015
dicot
46
False
What type of plants produce material that is referred to as "wood" even though it is technically not?
56fa37baf34c681400b0c016
monocot
134
False
What monocot plant produces "wood" by the same name that's often used for flooring and veneer?
56fa37baf34c681400b0c017
bamboo
205
False
While we call bamboo "wood," what botanical family does it belong to?
56fa37baf34c681400b0c018
grass
241
False
Along with bamboo, what's the other monocot that's a major source of so-called "wood"?
56fa37baf34c681400b0c019
palms
544
False
Structural material that resembles ordinary, "dicot" or conifer wood in its gross handling characteristics is produced by a number of monocot plants, and these also are colloquially called wood. Of these, bamboo, botanically a member of the grass family, has considerable economic importance, larger culms being widely used as a building and construction material in their own right and, these days, in the manufacture of engineered flooring, panels and veneer. Another major plant group that produce material that often is called wood are the palms. Of much less importance are plants such as Pandanus, Dracaena and Cordyline. With all this material, the structure and composition of the structural material is quite different from ordinary wood.
Which property of wood reveals the most about its quality?
56fa3a3b8f12f319006300f3
specific gravity
78
False
In addition to lumber strength, what important indicator of wood's quality can be determined using specific gravity?
56fa3a3b8f12f319006300f4
pulp yield
118
False
What measurement is expressed in mass per unit substance?
56fa3a3b8f12f319006300f5
density
269
False
When wood dries and shrinks, what happens to its density?
56fa3a3b8f12f319006300f6
increases
566
False
When wood is described as "green," what does "green" mean?
56fa3a3b8f12f319006300f7
water-saturated
619
False
The single most revealing property of wood as an indicator of wood quality is specific gravity (Timell 1986), as both pulp yield and lumber strength are determined by it. Specific gravity is the ratio of the mass of a substance to the mass of an equal volume of water; density is the ratio of a mass of a quantity of a substance to the volume of that quantity and is expressed in mass per unit substance, e.g., grams per millilitre (g/cm3 or g/ml). The terms are essentially equivalent as long as the metric system is used. Upon drying, wood shrinks and its density increases. Minimum values are associated with green (water-saturated) wood and are referred to as basic specific gravity (Timell 1986).
Along with growth, what kind of factors determine the density of wood?
56fa3b59f34c681400b0c01f
physiological
50
False
Into how many characteristics are the factors of wood combined?
56fa3b59f34c681400b0c020
one
89
False
What author called wood's density "fairly easily measured"?
56fa3b59f34c681400b0c021
Elliott
138
False
Wood density is determined by multiple growth and physiological factors compounded into “one fairly easily measured wood characteristic” (Elliott 1970).
What should be anticipated because of the many factors that influence wood's density?
56fa3d788f12f319006300fd
Variation
175
False
What specific type of growth has an effect on the density of wood?
56fa3d788f12f319006300fe
radial
23
False
Which part of a tree can have vertical or horizontal variation in its specific gravity?
56fa3d788f12f319006300ff
bole
388
False
Variation in what measurement is sometimes greater within one tree than from one tree to another?
56fa3d788f12f31900630100
density
253
False
What tiny object's source plays a role in determining wood density?
56fa3d788f12f31900630101
seed
119
False
Age, diameter, height, radial growth, geographical location, site and growing conditions, silvicultural treatment, and seed source, all to some degree influence wood density. Variation is to be expected. Within an individual tree, the variation in wood density is often as great as or even greater than that between different trees (Timell 1986). Variation of specific gravity within the bole of a tree can occur in either the horizontal or vertical direction. :)
What term do we use for the wood that comes from pine trees?
56fa3ec18f12f31900630107
softwood
107
False
What kind of wood does an oak tree have?
56fa3ec18f12f31900630108
hardwood
197
False
Is balsa a softwood or a hardwood?
56fa3ec18f12f31900630109
hardwood
344
False
What's an example of a softwood that isn't "soft," and is actually harder than a lot of hardwoods?
56fa3ec18f12f3190063010a
yew
436
False
What's the scientific name for trees like the oak with broad leaves?
56fa3ec18f12f3190063010b
dicotyledons
135
False
It is common to classify wood as either softwood or hardwood. The wood from conifers (e.g. pine) is called softwood, and the wood from dicotyledons (usually broad-leaved trees, e.g. oak) is called hardwood. These names are a bit misleading, as hardwoods are not necessarily hard, and softwoods are not necessarily soft. The well-known balsa (a hardwood) is actually softer than any commercial softwood. Conversely, some softwoods (e.g. yew) are harder than many hardwoods.
What kind of relationship exists between a tree's properties and its wood's properties?
56fa3f74f34c681400b0c025
strong
11
False
What property of wood varies according to species?
56fa3f74f34c681400b0c026
density
125
False
What property of wood has a correlation to its density?
56fa3f74f34c681400b0c027
strength
204
False
Is mahogany a hardwood or a softwood?
56fa3f74f34c681400b0c028
hardwood
278
False
What hobby is balsa wood often used for?
56fa3f74f34c681400b0c029
model building
379
False
There is a strong relationship between the properties of wood and the properties of the particular tree that yielded it. The density of wood varies with species. The density of a wood correlates with its strength (mechanical properties). For example, mahogany is a medium-dense hardwood that is excellent for fine furniture crafting, whereas balsa is light, making it useful for model building. One of the densest woods is black ironwood.
What approximate percentage of carbon does wood have?
56fa413bf34c681400b0c02f
50%
86
False
What element makes up about 6% of the chemical composition of wood?
56fa413bf34c681400b0c030
hydrogen
113
False
About what percentage of wood is composed of nitrogen?
56fa413bf34c681400b0c031
1%
123
False
Which element in wood composes about 42% of its weight?
56fa413bf34c681400b0c032
oxygen
102
False
What element joins potassium, calcium, manganese, iron, and sodium to make a combined 1% of the chemical composition of wood?
56fa413bf34c681400b0c033
magnesium
194
False
The chemical composition of wood varies from species to species, but is approximately 50% carbon, 42% oxygen, 6% hydrogen, 1% nitrogen, and 1% other elements (mainly calcium, potassium, sodium, magnesium, iron, and manganese) by weight. Wood also contains sulfur, chlorine, silicon, phosphorus, and other elements in small quantity.
How many main components make up wood, not counting water?
56fa4285f34c681400b0c039
three
27
False
What's the name for the crystalline polymer derived from glucose?
56fa4285f34c681400b0c03a
Cellulose
50
False
After cellulose, what component is most plentiful in wood?
56fa4285f34c681400b0c03b
hemicellulose
152
False
What kind of trees have about 30% hemicellulose?
56fa4285f34c681400b0c03c
conifers
222
False
Which of the three main components of wood is used to manufacture paper?
56fa4285f34c681400b0c03d
cellulose
716
False
Aside from water, wood has three main components. Cellulose, a crystalline polymer derived from glucose, constitutes about 41–43%. Next in abundance is hemicellulose, which is around 20% in deciduous trees but near 30% in conifers. It is mainly five-carbon sugars that are linked in an irregular manner, in contrast to the cellulose. Lignin is the third component at around 27% in coniferous wood vs. 23% in deciduous trees. Lignin confers the hydrophobic properties reflecting the fact that it is based on aromatic rings. These three components are interwoven, and direct covalent linkages exist between the lignin and the hemicellulose. A major focus of the paper industry is the separation of the lignin from the cellulose, from which paper is made.
What component of wood determines whether it is hardwood or softwood?
56fa43e9f34c681400b0c043
lignin
115
False
Which wood has lignin that comes primarily from one type of alcohol?
56fa43e9f34c681400b0c044
Softwood
204
False
Which type of alcohol mainly becomes softwood lignin?
56fa43e9f34c681400b0c045
coniferyl
243
False
In addition to coniferyl alcohol, what other alcohol is in hardwood lignin?
56fa43e9f34c681400b0c046
sinapyl
165
False
Which kind of wood contains lignin derived from two main alcohol sources?
56fa43e9f34c681400b0c047
Hardwood
123
False
In chemical terms, the difference between hardwood and softwood is reflected in the composition of the constituent lignin. Hardwood lignin is primarily derived from sinapyl alcohol and coniferyl alcohol. Softwood lignin is mainly derived from coniferyl alcohol.
What's the name for the low molecular weight organic compounds in wood?
56fa455af34c681400b0c04d
extractives
108
False
Along with fatty acids, what kind of acids are in the extractives in wood?
56fa455af34c681400b0c04e
resin
159
False
Wood extractives include resin and fatty acids, terpenes, and what other component?
56fa455af34c681400b0c04f
waxes
172
False
What do conifers use rosin to protect themselves from?
56fa455af34c681400b0c050
insects
252
False
Along with tall oil and rosin, what commercial product do we get from wood's extractives?
56fa455af34c681400b0c051
turpentine
332
False
Aside from the lignocellulose, wood consists of a variety of low molecular weight organic compounds, called extractives. The wood extractives are fatty acids, resin acids, waxes and terpenes. For example, rosin is exuded by conifers as protection from insects. The extraction of these organic materials from wood provides tall oil, turpentine, and rosin.
What type of wood is preferred as fuel?
56fa4690f34c681400b0c057
Hardwood
112
False
What type of wood burns quickly and makes more smoke than hardwood?
56fa4690f34c681400b0c058
softwood
139
False
What type of areas use more wood for fuel?
56fa4690f34c681400b0c059
rural
86
False
What benefit besides the cozy atmosphere would a wood-burning fireplace add to a home?
56fa4690f34c681400b0c05a
warmth
272
False
Wood has a long history of being used as fuel, which continues to this day, mostly in rural areas of the world. Hardwood is preferred over softwood because it creates less smoke and burns longer. Adding a woodstove or fireplace to a home is often felt to add ambiance and warmth.
What wood is decay-resistant when wet?
56fa49f9f34c681400b0c05f
Elm
232
False
What plumbing component was once made out of elm?
56fa49f9f34c681400b0c060
water pipe
344
False
Until the late 19th century, what vessels were almost always wooden?
56fa49f9f34c681400b0c061
boats
116
False
What significant purpose has wood been used for as long as humans have built shelters?
56fa49f9f34c681400b0c062
construction material
27
False
Other than boats, what do people often build with wood?
56fa49f9f34c681400b0c063
houses
87
False
Wood has been an important construction material since humans began building shelters, houses and boats. Nearly all boats were made out of wood until the late 19th century, and wood remains in common use today in boat construction. Elm in particular was used for this purpose as it resisted decay as long as it was kept wet (it also served for water pipe before the advent of more modern plumbing).
What term is used in North America for wood used in construction?
56fa4b89f34c681400b0c069
lumber
59
False
Outside of North America, if someone said "lumber," to what would they be referring?
56fa4b89f34c681400b0c06a
felled trees
120
False
What do people outside of North America call the sawn boards used for building?
56fa4b89f34c681400b0c06b
timber
180
False
What was the preferred wood for construction in Medieval Europe?
56fa4b89f34c681400b0c06c
oak
207
False
For modern solid wood doors, what wood is often used in addition to small-knotted pine or poplar?
56fa4b89f34c681400b0c06d
Douglas fir
413
False
Wood to be used for construction work is commonly known as lumber in North America. Elsewhere, lumber usually refers to felled trees, and the word for sawn planks ready for use is timber. In Medieval Europe oak was the wood of choice for all wood construction, including beams, walls, doors, and floors. Today a wider variety of woods is used: solid wood doors are often made from poplar, small-knotted pine, and Douglas fir.
What type of construction is often used now to build homes in much of the world?
56fa4d06f34c681400b0c073
timber-framed
76
False
In addition to residential applications, what type of buildings often have engineered wood components?
56fa4d06f34c681400b0c074
commercial
227
False
Along with decorative components, what type of building materials can be engineered from wood?
56fa4d06f34c681400b0c075
structural
251
False
What industry benefits greatly from engineered wood products?
56fa4d06f34c681400b0c076
construction
163
False
New domestic housing in many parts of the world today is commonly made from timber-framed construction. Engineered wood products are becoming a bigger part of the construction industry. They may be used in both residential and commercial buildings as structural and aesthetic materials.
What might wood be used for in a building made from brick or other materials?
56fa4e5e8f12f31900630111
supporting material
68
False
What crucial part of a house is often constructed from wood?
56fa4e5e8f12f31900630112
roof
103
False
Wood might be used to construct what exterior component of a building?
56fa4e5e8f12f31900630113
cladding
174
False
Inside a building, what wooden things might you open to enter or leave rooms?
56fa4e5e8f12f31900630114
doors
134
False
In buildings made of other materials, wood will still be found as a supporting material, especially in roof construction, in interior doors and their frames, and as exterior cladding.
What holds together an engineered wood product?
56fa50008f12f31900630119
glue
306
False
Engineered wood products are often used in construction, but what other major type of applications do they have?
56fa50008f12f3190063011a
industrial
149
False
What requirements do engineered wood products meet?
56fa50008f12f3190063011b
application-specific performance requirements
67
False
What efficient type of unit does the process of "engineering" wood result in?
56fa50008f12f3190063011c
composite structural unit
344
False
Wood fibers from wood strands, lumber, and what other source can be glued together to make larger units?
56fa50008f12f3190063011d
veneers
256
False
Engineered wood products, glued building products "engineered" for application-specific performance requirements, are often used in construction and industrial applications. Glued engineered wood products are manufactured by bonding together wood strands, veneers, lumber or other forms of wood fiber with glue to form a larger, more efficient composite structural unit.
What category do composite panels, strand board, and plywood all fit into?
56fa517b8f12f31900630123
wood structural panels
56
False
What's another word for glued laminated timber?
56fa517b8f12f31900630124
glulam
47
False
What does LVL stand for?
56fa517b8f12f31900630125
laminated veneer lumber
144
False
If current building trends continue, what material will be replaced by particle and fiber board?
56fa517b8f12f31900630126
plywood
421
False
About how many cubic meters of wood was used in 1991 to make products like glulam, LVL, and structural composite lumber?
56fa517b8f12f31900630127
100 million
280
False
These products include glued laminated timber (glulam), wood structural panels (including plywood, oriented strand board and composite panels), laminated veneer lumber (LVL) and other structural composite lumber (SCL) products, parallel strand lumber, and I-joists. Approximately 100 million cubic meters of wood was consumed for this purpose in 1991. The trends suggest that particle board and fiber board will overtake plywood.
What material results from chemically breaking down wood?
56fa5330f34c681400b0c07b
cellulose
127
False
What's the abbreviation for medium-density fiberboard?
56fa5330f34c681400b0c07c
MDF
284
False
How is wood broken down into chips and fibers?
56fa5330f34c681400b0c07d
mechanically
71
False
What type of flooring can be made from wood derivatives?
56fa5330f34c681400b0c07e
laminate
518
False
What widely-used product is almost always made of wood fibers?
56fa5330f34c681400b0c07f
paper
376
False
Wood unsuitable for construction in its native form may be broken down mechanically (into fibers or chips) or chemically (into cellulose) and used as a raw material for other building materials, such as engineered wood, as well as chipboard, hardboard, and medium-density fiberboard (MDF). Such wood derivatives are widely used: wood fibers are an important component of most paper, and cellulose is used as a component of some synthetic materials. Wood derivatives can also be used for kinds of flooring, for example laminate flooring.
What category of products usually made from wood includes chairs?
56fa5493f34c681400b0c085
furniture
42
False
What wooden utensil could you stir a pot of soup with?
56fa5493f34c681400b0c086
wooden spoon
185
False
Which parts of tools are sometimes made out of wood?
56fa5493f34c681400b0c087
handles
103
False
What pieces of furniture that most people use every night can be made out of wood?
56fa5493f34c681400b0c088
beds
72
False
What special wooden utensils do many people use to eat Chinese takeout?
56fa5493f34c681400b0c089
chopsticks
132
False
Wood has always been used extensively for furniture, such as chairs and beds. It is also used for tool handles and cutlery, such as chopsticks, toothpicks, and other utensils, like the wooden spoon.
What could we monitor electronically that could help inform new methods of wood protection?
56fa56e5f34c681400b0c08f
Moisture content
440
False
Development in the wood manufacturing industry include using lignin to make what substance?
56fa56e5f34c681400b0c090
glue
40
False
Instead of rubber, what important part of a car might someday be replaced by components of wood?
56fa56e5f34c681400b0c091
tire
93
False
What material might be developed from wood that could make clothes that resist wear and tear?
56fa56e5f34c681400b0c092
high strength fabrics
159
False
In addition to extracting components from wood, what might scientist do by adding components, for example, to make innovative products?
56fa56e5f34c681400b0c093
modify wood
326
False
Further developments include new lignin glue applications, recyclable food packaging, rubber tire replacement applications, anti-bacterial medical agents, and high strength fabrics or composites. As scientists and engineers further learn and develop new techniques to extract various components from wood, or alternatively to modify wood, for example by adding components to wood, new more advanced products will appear on the marketplace. Moisture content electronic monitoring can also enhance next generation wood protection.
Along with sculptures, what type of art have people been making out of wood for centuries?
56fa5855f34c681400b0c099
carvings
87
False
What did indigenous people in North America make out of the trunks of conifers?
56fa5855f34c681400b0c09a
totem poles
132
False
What type of tree was often used for totem poles?
56fa5855f34c681400b0c09b
Western Red Cedar
214
False
What city in Scotland would you visit to see the Millennium clock tower?
56fa5855f34c681400b0c09c
Edinburgh
330
False
What museum exhibits the Millennium clock tower?
56fa5855f34c681400b0c09d
National Museum of Scotland
299
False
Wood has long been used as an artistic medium. It has been used to make sculptures and carvings for millennia. Examples include the totem poles carved by North American indigenous people from conifer trunks, often Western Red Cedar (Thuja plicata), and the Millennium clock tower, now housed in the National Museum of Scotland in Edinburgh. It is also used in woodcut printmaking, and for engraving.
What kind of wood are clarinet bodies made from?
56fa59c2f34c681400b0c0a3
african blackwood
383
False
What expensive wood with a prized color is used to make the backs of violins?
56fa59c2f34c681400b0c0a4
ripple sycamore
594
False
What category of wood is often used for musical instruments?
56fa59c2f34c681400b0c0a5
tonewoods
307
False
What's the common name for Picea abies?
56fa59c2f34c681400b0c0a6
European spruce
462
False
Along with resonance, what property of an instrument will be affected by the wood used to make it?
56fa59c2f34c681400b0c0a7
tone
256
False
Certain types of musical instruments, such as those of the violin family, the guitar, the clarinet and recorder, the xylophone, and the marimba, are traditionally made mostly or entirely of wood. The choice of wood may make a significant difference to the tone and resonant qualities of the instrument, and tonewoods have widely differing properties, ranging from the hard and dense african blackwood (used for the bodies of clarinets) to the light but resonant European spruce (Picea abies), which is traditionally used for the soundboards of violins. The most valuable tonewoods, such as the ripple sycamore (Acer pseudoplatanus), used for the backs of violins, combine acoustic properties with decorative color and grain which enhance the appearance of the finished instrument.
What type of instruments with a misleading name aren't always made completely out of wood?
56fa5af68f12f3190063012d
woodwind instruments
39
False
What are woodwind instrument's reeds often made out of?
56fa5af68f12f3190063012e
Arundo donax
147
False
Is the Arundo donax a monocot or dicot cane plant?
56fa5af68f12f3190063012f
monocot
171
False
What objects do musicians have to have in order to play woodwind instruments?
56fa5af68f12f31900630130
reeds
91
False
Despite their collective name, not all woodwind instruments are made entirely of wood. The reeds used to play them, however, are usually made from Arundo donax, a type of monocot cane plant.
What wood is usually used for cricket bats?
56fa5c188f12f31900630135
white willow
138
False
Ash and hickory are often used for baseball bats to comply with the rules of what organization?
56fa5c188f12f31900630136
Major League Baseball
197
False
What is commonly used for the basketball courts the NBA plays on?
56fa5c188f12f31900630137
parquetry
411
False
What wood has recently started being used to make baseball bats in addition to hickory and ash?
56fa5c188f12f31900630138
maple
310
False
Compared to hickory and ash, what adjective might be used for a maple baseball bat?
56fa5c188f12f31900630139
fragile
355
False
Many types of sports equipment are made of wood, or were constructed of wood in the past. For example, cricket bats are typically made of white willow. The baseball bats which are legal for use in Major League Baseball are frequently made of ash wood or hickory, and in recent years have been constructed from maple even though that wood is somewhat more fragile. NBA courts have been traditionally made out of parquetry.
What pieces of equipment for shooting arrows used to be wooden?
56fa5e2df34c681400b0c0ad
archery bows
106
False
Which pieces of ice hockey equipment were once made out of wood?
56fa5e2df34c681400b0c0ae
sticks
78
False
When the golf club called the "wood" was actually made out of it, what type of wood was used?
56fa5e2df34c681400b0c0af
persimmon
422
False
What is the golf club known as the "wood" usually made out of today?
56fa5e2df34c681400b0c0b0
synthetic materials
505
False
What other modern material has joined composites, carbon fiber, titanium, and aluminum to replace wood in the manufacture of sporting equipment?
56fa5e2df34c681400b0c0b1
fiberglass
235
False
Many other types of sports and recreation equipment, such as skis, ice hockey sticks, lacrosse sticks and archery bows, were commonly made of wood in the past, but have since been replaced with more modern materials such as aluminium, fiberglass, carbon fiber, titanium, and composite materials. One noteworthy example of this trend is the golf club commonly known as the wood, the head of which was traditionally made of persimmon wood in the early days of the game of golf, but is now generally made of synthetic materials.
What component of wood is degraded by bacteria that scientists are still trying to learn about?
56fa621f8f12f3190063013f
cellulose
48
False
What type of bacteria are present in Xylophaga?
56fa621f8f12f31900630140
Symbiotic
59
False
What type of wood is it possible the bacteria in Xylophaga help break down?
56fa621f8f12f31900630141
sunken
129
False
How long was the wood submerged in water in the study that discovered the types of bacteria in it?
56fa621f8f12f31900630142
over a year
284
False
What bacteria starting with the letter "F" were found in wood after it was underwater for more than a year?
56fa621f8f12f31900630143
Flavobacteria
186
False
Little is known about the bacteria that degrade cellulose. Symbiotic bacteria in Xylophaga may play a role in the degradation of sunken wood; while bacteria such as Alphaproteobacteria, Flavobacteria, Actinobacteria, Clostridia, and Bacteroidetes have been detected in wood submerged over a year.
Somalis
What language family is Somali a part of?
56f9f848f34c681400b0bf0b
Afro-Asiatic
221
False
What part of the Afro-Asiatic language family is Somali a part of?
56f9f848f34c681400b0bf0c
Cushitic
198
False
What is the majority religion of Somalis?
56f9f848f34c681400b0bf0d
Sunni Muslim
265
False
How many people of Somali ethnicity live in Somalia?
56f9f848f34c681400b0bf0e
12.3 million
374
False
What country has the second largest Somali population?
56f9f848f34c681400b0bf0f
Ethiopia
389
False
Somalis (Somali: Soomaali, Arabic: صومال‎) are an ethnic group inhabiting the Horn of Africa (Somali Peninsula). The overwhelming majority of Somalis speak the Somali language, which is part of the Cushitic branch of the Afro-Asiatic family. They are predominantly Sunni Muslim. Ethnic Somalis number around 16-20 million and are principally concentrated in Somalia (around 12.3 million), Ethiopia (4.6 million), Kenya (2.4 million), and Djibouti (464,600), with many also residing in parts of the Middle East, North America and Europe.
From whom are several Somali clans descended?
56f9f8dc8f12f31900630023
Irir Samaale
0
False
From what words is the term 'Somali' generally regarded as being derived?
56f9f8dc8f12f31900630024
soo and maal
191
False
What does 'soo and maal' mean in English?
56f9f8dc8f12f31900630025
go and milk
226
False
What word in Arabic means 'wealthy' in English?
56f9f8dc8f12f31900630026
dhawamaal
405
False
What resource traditionally comprised Somali wealth?
56f9f8dc8f12f31900630027
livestock
453
False
Irir Samaale, the oldest common ancestor of several Somali clans, is generally regarded as the source of the ethnonym Somali. The name "Somali" is, in turn, held to be derived from the words soo and maal, which together mean "go and milk" — a reference to the ubiquitous pastoralism of the Somali people. Another plausible etymology proposes that the term Somali is derived from the Arabic for "wealthy" (dhawamaal), again referring to Somali riches in livestock.
What did the Arabs call the northern Somali coast in the 9th century?
56f9f9a18f12f3190063002d
Berbera
112
False
What did the Chinese call the northern Somali coast in the 9th century?
56f9f9a18f12f3190063002e
Po-pa-li
207
False
In what century was the term 'Somali' first used?
56f9f9a18f12f3190063002f
15th
303
False
Who ordered that a hymn be composed that first mentioned the Somalis?
56f9f9a18f12f31900630030
the Abyssinian Emperor
405
False
Where was the Sultanate of Ifat located?
56f9f9a18f12f31900630031
Zeila
372
False
An Ancient Chinese document from the 9th century referred to the northern Somali coast — which was then called "Berbera" by Arab geographers in reference to the region's "Berber" (Cushitic) inhabitants — as Po-pa-li. The first clear written reference of the sobriquet Somali, however, dates back to the 15th century. During the wars between the Sultanate of Ifat based at Zeila and the Solomonic Dynasty, the Abyssinian Emperor had one of his court officials compose a hymn celebrating a military victory over the Sultan of Ifat's eponymous troops.
How long ago were rock paintings found in Somalia created?
56f9fa1e8f12f31900630037
5000 years
53
False
Where are the most notable rock paintings located?
56f9fa1e8f12f31900630038
the Laas Geel complex
184
False
Along with animals, what is depicted on the rock paintings of Laas Geel?
56f9fa1e8f12f31900630039
human figures
346
False
Where does a notable rock painting of a man on horseback exist?
56f9fa1e8f12f3190063003a
the northern Dhambalin region
386
False
In what geographic part of Somalia are these rock paintings commonly found?
56f9fa1e8f12f3190063003b
northern
87
False
Ancient rock paintings in Somalia which date back to 5000 years have been found in the northern part of the country, depicting early life in the territory. The most famous of these is the Laas Geel complex, which contains some of the earliest known rock art on the African continent and features many elaborate pastoralist sketches of animal and human figures. In other places, such as the northern Dhambalin region, a depiction of a man on a horse is postulated as being one of the earliest known examples of a mounted huntsman.
Along with the Hargesian culture, what culture was present in Somalia in the Stone age?
56f9fb6e8f12f31900630041
the Doian culture
172
False
What undeciphered writings were found alongside the rock paintings?
56f9fb6e8f12f31900630042
Inscriptions
0
False
During what period did the Doian culture thrive?
56f9fb6e8f12f31900630043
the Stone age
157
False
Inscriptions have been found beneath many of the rock paintings, but archaeologists have so far been unable to decipher this form of ancient writing. During the Stone age, the Doian culture and the Hargeisan culture flourished here with their respective industries and factories.
In what country is the oldest evidence of ceremonial burial in the Horn of Africa located?
56fa0002f34c681400b0bf3d
Somalia
85
False
From what millennium do the oldest cemeteries in the Horn of Africa date?
56fa0002f34c681400b0bf3e
4th millennium BC
108
False
At what site were important paleolithic stone tools found?
56fa0002f34c681400b0bf3f
the Jalelo site
153
False
In what geographic part of Somalia were important paleolithic stone tools found?
56fa0002f34c681400b0bf40
northern
172
False
The oldest evidence of burial customs in the Horn of Africa comes from cemeteries in Somalia dating back to 4th millennium BC. The stone implements from the Jalelo site in northern Somalia are said to be the most important link in evidence of the universality in palaeolithic times between the East and the West.
What economic activity in the Horn of Africa did the ancient Somalis connect to the rest of the world?
56fa0064f34c681400b0bf45
commerce
118
False
Along with myrrh and spices, what important luxury did ancient Somali merchants provide?
56fa0064f34c681400b0bf46
frankincense
219
False
Along with the ancient Phoenicians, Egyptians and Babylonians, what ancient people regarded myrrh as a luxury?
56fa0064f34c681400b0bf47
Mycenaeans
336
False
In antiquity, the ancestors of the Somali people were an important link in the Horn of Africa connecting the region's commerce with the rest of the ancient world. Somali sailors and merchants were the main suppliers of frankincense, myrrh and spices, items which were considered valuable luxuries by the Ancient Egyptians, Phoenicians, Mycenaeans and Babylonians.
What ancient land was connected to the modern Somali people?
56fa00e2f34c681400b0bf4b
Land of Punt
40
False
What nation did the Land of Put have a close relationship with?
56fa00e2f34c681400b0bf4c
Pharaonic Egypt
202
False
Who was a Queen of Egypt during the time when Punt and Egypt were close?
56fa00e2f34c681400b0bf4d
Hatshepsut
263
False
Along with houses of dressed stone, what ancient architecture may have been influenced by Egypt?
56fa00e2f34c681400b0bf4e
pyramidal structures
279
False
According to most scholars, the ancient Land of Punt and its inhabitants formed part of the ethnogenesis of the Somali people. The ancient Puntites were a nation of people that had close relations with Pharaonic Egypt during the times of Pharaoh Sahure and Queen Hatshepsut. The pyramidal structures, temples and ancient houses of dressed stone littered around Somalia are said to date from this period.
Near what headland was Mosylon located?
56fa01668f12f3190063005b
Cape Guardafui
119
False
Along with Mosylon, Malao, Nikon, Sarapion, Opone and Essina, what city-state flourished in ancient Somalia?
56fa01668f12f3190063005c
Damo
97
False
Along with the Parthians and Axumites, who were the commercial competitors of the ancient Somalis?
56fa01668f12f3190063005d
Sabaeans
159
False
What trade did the ancient Somalis and others compete for?
56fa01668f12f3190063005e
Indo-Greco-Roman
208
False
In the classical era, several ancient city-states such as Opone, Essina, Sarapion, Nikon, Malao, Damo and Mosylon near Cape Guardafui, which competed with the Sabaeans, Parthians and Axumites for the wealthy Indo-Greco-Roman trade, also flourished in Somalia.
What body of water separated Somalia from the land where Islam was born?
56fa01e88f12f31900630063
Red Sea
53
False
In what location was Islam born?
56fa01e88f12f31900630064
the Arabian Peninsula
130
False
What civilization was Mogadishu a part of?
56fa01e88f12f31900630065
Berberi
608
False
What was another name for Mogadishu?
56fa01e88f12f31900630066
the City of Islam
672
False
The trade of what luxury in East Africa was once centered on Mogadishu?
56fa01e88f12f31900630067
gold
723
False
The birth of Islam on the opposite side of Somalia's Red Sea coast meant that Somali merchants, sailors and expatriates living in the Arabian Peninsula gradually came under the influence of the new religion through their converted Arab Muslim trading partners. With the migration of fleeing Muslim families from the Islamic world to Somalia in the early centuries of Islam and the peaceful conversion of the Somali population by Somali Muslim scholars in the following centuries, the ancient city-states eventually transformed into Islamic Mogadishu, Berbera, Zeila, Barawa and Merca, which were part of the Berberi civilization. The city of Mogadishu came to be known as the City of Islam, and controlled the East African gold trade for several centuries.
What dynasty ruled the Sultanate of Ifat?
56fa02b68f12f31900630077
the Walashma dynasty
30
False
What was the capital of the Sultanate of Ifat?
56fa02b68f12f31900630078
Zeila
71
False
Along with parts of Ethiopia and Somalia, in what modern-day country was the Sultanate of Ifat located?
56fa02b68f12f31900630079
Djibouti
128
False
According to al-Umari, how many cavalry did the Sultanate of Ifat have?
56fa02b68f12f3190063007a
15,000
313
False
Near what body of water did al-Umari say Ifat was located?
56fa02b68f12f3190063007b
the Red Sea
219
False
The Sultanate of Ifat, led by the Walashma dynasty with its capital at Zeila, ruled over parts of what is now eastern Ethiopia, Djibouti, and northern Somalia. The historian al-Umari records that Ifat was situated near the Red Sea coast, and states its size as 15 days travel by 20 days travel. Its army numbered 15,000 horsemen and 20,000 foot soldiers. Al-Umari also credits Ifat with seven "mother cities": Belqulzar, Kuljura, Shimi, Shewa, Adal, Jamme and Laboo.
What Somali polity of the Middle Ages was known for its fortresses?
56fa03388f12f31900630081
the Ajuran Sultanate
91
False
What state employed Abmad ibn Ibrahim al-Ghazi?
56fa03388f12f31900630082
the Sultanate of Adal
176
False
What was another name by which Abmad ibn Ibrahim al-Ghazi was known?
56fa03388f12f31900630083
Ahmed Gurey
241
False
What state did Adal conquer?
56fa03388f12f31900630084
the Ethiopian Empire
343
False
What Somali leader received tribute from the Omani empire?
56fa03388f12f31900630085
Sultan Ahmed Yusuf
515
False
In the Middle Ages, several powerful Somali empires dominated the regional trade including the Ajuran Sultanate, which excelled in hydraulic engineering and fortress building, the Sultanate of Adal, whose general Ahmad ibn Ibrahim al-Ghazi (Ahmed Gurey) was the first commander to use cannon warfare on the continent during Adal's conquest of the Ethiopian Empire, and the Sultanate of the Geledi, whose military dominance forced governors of the Omani empire north of the city of Lamu to pay tribute to the Somali Sultan Ahmed Yusuf.
What states supported the Dervish State?
56fa04418f12f3190063008b
the Ottoman and German empires
547
False
In what year did the British defeat the Dervishes?
56fa04418f12f3190063008c
1920
829
False
What was the capital of the Dervish State?
56fa04418f12f3190063008d
Taleex
923
False
In what year did Fascist Italy achieve full control of Somalia?
56fa04418f12f3190063008e
1927
1198
False
In what year did the Italian occupation of Somalia end?
56fa04418f12f3190063008f
1941
1232
False
In the late 19th century, after the Berlin conference had ended, European empires sailed with their armies to the Horn of Africa. The imperial clouds wavering over Somalia alarmed the Dervish leader Mohammed Abdullah Hassan, who gathered Somali soldiers from across the Horn of Africa and began one of the longest anti-colonial wars ever. The Dervish State successfully repulsed the British empire four times and forced it to retreat to the coastal region. As a result of its successes against the British, the Dervish State received support from the Ottoman and German empires. The Turks also named Hassan Emir of the Somali nation, and the Germans promised to officially recognize any territories the Dervishes were to acquire. After a quarter of a century of holding the British at bay, the Dervishes were finally defeated in 1920, when Britain for the first time in Africa used airplanes to bomb the Dervish capital of Taleex. As a result of this bombardment, former Dervish territories were turned into a protectorate of Britain. Italy similarly faced the same opposition from Somali Sultans and armies and did not acquire full control of parts of modern Somalia until the Fascist era in late 1927. This occupation lasted till 1941 and was replaced by a British military administration.
Along with British Somaliland, what country in the region was a British protectorate after the Second World War?
56fa051df34c681400b0bf53
Italian Somaliland
80
False
At what meeting did the United Nations give Italy trusteeship of Italian Somaliland?
56fa051df34c681400b0bf54
the Potsdam Conference
133
False
Along with the Somali Youth League and Somali National League, what was an early Somali political organization?
56fa051df34c681400b0bf55
Hizbia Digil Mirifle Somali
387
False
How many years would Italy have to allow Italian Somaliland to become independent?
56fa051df34c681400b0bf56
ten
502
False
In what year was the British protectorate over British Somaliland ended?
56fa051df34c681400b0bf57
1960
573
False
Following World War II, Britain retained control of both British Somaliland and Italian Somaliland as protectorates. In 1945, during the Potsdam Conference, the United Nations granted Italy trusteeship of Italian Somaliland, but only under close supervision and on the condition — first proposed by the Somali Youth League (SYL) and other nascent Somali political organizations, such as Hizbia Digil Mirifle Somali (HDMS) and the Somali National League (SNL) — that Somalia achieve independence within ten years. British Somaliland remained a protectorate of Britain until 1960.
Along with the Haud, what area of Somalia was given to Ethiopia by the British?
56fa07ecf34c681400b0bf65
the Ogaden
895
False
In what year did the British give the Haud to Ethiopia?
56fa07ecf34c681400b0bf66
1948
652
False
The Ogaden was given to Ethiopia on the basis of a treaty signed by the British with what Ethiopian leader?
56fa07ecf34c681400b0bf67
Emperor Menelik
1018
False
In what year did Britain try to purchase Somali lands from Ethiopia?
56fa07ecf34c681400b0bf68
1956
1280
False
What people constituted almost the entire population of the Northern Frontier District?
56fa07ecf34c681400b0bf69
Somali
1396
False
To the extent that Italy held the territory by UN mandate, the trusteeship provisions gave the Somalis the opportunity to gain experience in political education and self-government. These were advantages that British Somaliland, which was to be incorporated into the new Somali state, did not have. Although in the 1950s British colonial officials attempted, through various administrative development efforts, to make up for past neglect, the protectorate stagnated. The disparity between the two territories in economic development and political experience would cause serious difficulties when it came time to integrate the two parts. Meanwhile, in 1948, under pressure from their World War II allies and to the dismay of the Somalis, the British "returned" the Haud (an important Somali grazing area that was presumably 'protected' by British treaties with the Somalis in 1884 and 1886) and the Ogaden to Ethiopia, based on a treaty they signed in 1897 in which the British ceded Somali territory to the Ethiopian Emperor Menelik in exchange for his help against plundering by Somali clans. Britain included the proviso that the Somali nomads would retain their autonomy, but Ethiopia immediately claimed sovereignty over them. This prompted an unsuccessful bid by Britain in 1956 to buy back the Somali lands it had turned over. Britain also granted administration of the almost exclusively Somali-inhabited Northern Frontier District (NFD) to Kenyan nationalists despite an informal plebiscite demonstrating the overwhelming desire of the region's population to join the newly formed Somali Republic.
What was Djibouti called in 1958?
56fa083af34c681400b0bf6f
French Somaliland
61
False
In what year did Somalia become independent?
56fa083af34c681400b0bf70
1960
129
False
What was Mahmoud Harbi's title?
56fa083af34c681400b0bf71
Vice President of the Government Council
654
False
When did Djibouti achieve independence?
56fa083af34c681400b0bf72
1977
803
False
Who was the first president of Djibouti?
56fa083af34c681400b0bf73
Hassan Gouled Aptidon
813
False
A referendum was held in neighboring Djibouti (then known as French Somaliland) in 1958, on the eve of Somalia's independence in 1960, to decide whether or not to join the Somali Republic or to remain with France. The referendum turned out in favour of a continued association with France, largely due to a combined yes vote by the sizable Afar ethnic group and resident Europeans. There was also widespread vote rigging, with the French expelling thousands of Somalis before the referendum reached the polls. The majority of those who voted no were Somalis who were strongly in favour of joining a united Somalia, as had been proposed by Mahmoud Harbi, Vice President of the Government Council. Harbi was killed in a plane crash two years later. Djibouti finally gained its independence from France in 1977, and Hassan Gouled Aptidon, a Somali who had campaigned for a yes vote in the referendum of 1958, eventually wound up as Djibouti's first president (1977–1991).
On what date did British Somaliland gain independence?
56fa08a8f34c681400b0bf79
26 June 1960
41
False
What was British Somaliland known as upon achieving independence?
56fa08a8f34c681400b0bf7a
the State of Somaliland
57
False
What state formed the Somali Republic with British Somaliland?
56fa08a8f34c681400b0bf7b
the Trust Territory of Somalia
86
False
On what date did the former British Somaliland and Italian Somaliland unite?
56fa08a8f34c681400b0bf7c
1 July 1960
183
False
Who was the first President of the Somali Republic?
56fa08a8f34c681400b0bf7d
Aden Abdullah Osman Daar
528
False
British Somaliland became independent on 26 June 1960 as the State of Somaliland, and the Trust Territory of Somalia (the former Italian Somaliland) followed suit five days later. On 1 July 1960, the two territories united to form the Somali Republic, albeit within boundaries drawn up by Italy and Britain. A government was formed by Abdullahi Issa Mohamud and Muhammad Haji Ibrahim Egal other members of the trusteeship and protectorate governments, with Haji Bashir Ismail Yusuf as President of the Somali National Assembly, Aden Abdullah Osman Daar as the President of the Somali Republic and Abdirashid Ali Shermarke as Prime Minister (later to become President from 1967 to 1969). On 20 July 1961 and through a popular referendum, the people of Somalia ratified a new constitution, which was first drafted in 1960. In 1967, Muhammad Haji Ibrahim Egal became Prime Minister, a position to which he was appointed by Shermarke. Egal would later become the President of the autonomous Somaliland region in northwestern Somalia.
On what date was Abdirashid Ali Shermarke assassinated?
56fa09148f12f319006300a9
15 October 1969
3
False
Who assassinated Abdirashid Ali Shermarke?
56fa09148f12f319006300aa
one of his own bodyguards
142
False
On what day, the day after the funeral of Abdirashid Ali Shermarke, did a coup occur?
56fa09148f12f319006300ab
21 October 1969
237
False
Who was the commander of the army when the coup occurred?
56fa09148f12f319006300ac
Mohamed Siad Barre
438
False
What was Mohamed Siad Barre's rank?
56fa09148f12f319006300ad
Major General
424
False
On 15 October 1969, while paying a visit to the northern town of Las Anod, Somalia's then President Abdirashid Ali Shermarke was shot dead by one of his own bodyguards. His assassination was quickly followed by a military coup d'état on 21 October 1969 (the day after his funeral), in which the Somali Army seized power without encountering armed opposition — essentially a bloodless takeover. The putsch was spearheaded by Major General Mohamed Siad Barre, who at the time commanded the army.
Along with Jama Korshel, who led the Supreme Revolutionary Council?
56fa097df34c681400b0bf83
Salaad Gabeyre Kediye
148
False
What was Jama Korshel's title?
56fa097df34c681400b0bf84
Chief of Police
174
False
What was the military rank of Salaad Gabeyre Kediye?
56fa097df34c681400b0bf85
Lieutenant Colonel
129
False
What name did the Supreme Revolutionary Council give to Somalia?
56fa097df34c681400b0bf86
the Somali Democratic Republic
245
False
Along with dissolving the Supreme Court and parliament, what action did the Supreme Revolutionary Council take?
56fa097df34c681400b0bf87
suspended the constitution
329
False
Alongside Barre, the Supreme Revolutionary Council (SRC) that assumed power after President Sharmarke's assassination was led by Lieutenant Colonel Salaad Gabeyre Kediye and Chief of Police Jama Korshel. The SRC subsequently renamed the country the Somali Democratic Republic, dissolved the parliament and the Supreme Court, and suspended the constitution.
What did the new government nationalize along with land?
56fad3dc8f12f319006301c7
industry
234
False
What international body did the new government join?
56fad3dc8f12f319006301c8
the Arab League
389
False
In what year did the new government enter the Arab League?
56fad3dc8f12f319006301c9
1974
413
False
What organization would the Organization of African Unity later become?
56fad3dc8f12f319006301ca
the African Union
528
False
What rate did the new government's programs significantly increase?
56fad3dc8f12f319006301cb
literacy
175
False
The revolutionary army established large-scale public works programs and successfully implemented an urban and rural literacy campaign, which helped dramatically increase the literacy rate. In addition to a nationalization program of industry and land, the new regime's foreign policy placed an emphasis on Somalia's traditional and religious links with the Arab world, eventually joining the Arab League (AL) in 1974. That same year, Barre also served as chairman of the Organization of African Unity (OAU), the predecessor of the African Union (AU).
Along with Kenya, Djibouti and Somalia, in what Horn of Africa country do Somali people live?
56fad4558f12f319006301d1
Ethiopia
94
False
In what geographic portion of Kenya can Somali people be found?
56fad4558f12f319006301d2
northeastern
108
False
What is the name of the idea that believes all ethnic Somalis should live in the same country?
56fad4558f12f319006301d3
Pan-Somalism
225
False
Along with the Soviet Union, what country supported Ethiopia in its war against Somalia?
56fad4558f12f319006301d4
Cuba
590
False
What was the name of the conflict between Somalia and the Soviet Union, Cuba and Ethiopia?
56fad4558f12f319006301d5
the Ogaden War
532
False
Somali people in the Horn of Africa are divided among different countries (Somalia, Djibouti, Ethiopia, and northeastern Kenya) that were artificially and some might say arbitrarily partitioned by the former imperial powers. Pan-Somalism is an ideology that advocates the unification of all ethnic Somalis once part of Somali empires such as the Ajuran Empire, the Adal Sultanate, the Gobroon Dynasty and the Dervish State under one flag and one nation. The Siad Barre regime actively promoted Pan-Somalism, which eventually led to the Ogaden War between Somalia on one side, and Ethiopia, Cuba and the Soviet Union on the other.
In what year did Sanchez publish his study on Somali ethnicity?
56fad51ef34c681400b0c13d
2005
53
False
What language group speakers are ethnic Somalis closely related to?
56fad51ef34c681400b0c13e
Afro-Asiatic
142
False
What haplogroup is present in a significant number of Somalis?
56fad51ef34c681400b0c13f
E1b1b1a
253
False
Based on the presence of the M78 subclade, where do some researchers think Somalis originated?
56fad51ef34c681400b0c140
Egypt/Libya
702
False
What percentage of Somali males had DNA containing the M78 subclade of E1b1b?
56fad51ef34c681400b0c141
77%
523
False
According to Y chromosome studies by Sanchez et al. (2005), Cruciani et al. (2004, 2007), the Somalis are paternally closely related to other Afro-Asiatic-speaking groups in Northeast Africa. Besides comprising the majority of the Y-DNA in Somalis, the E1b1b1a (formerly E3b1a) haplogroup also makes up a significant proportion of the paternal DNA of Ethiopians, Sudanese, Egyptians, Berbers, North African Arabs, as well as many Mediterranean populations. Sanchez et al. (2005) observed the M78 subclade of E1b1b in about 77% of their Somali male samples. According to Cruciani et al. (2007), the presence of this subhaplogroup in the Horn region may represent the traces of an ancient migration from Egypt/Libya. After haplogroup E1b1b, the second most frequently occurring Y-DNA haplogroup among Somalis is the West Asian haplogroup T (M70). It is observed in slightly more than 10% of Somali males. Haplogroup T, like haplogroup E1b1b, is also typically found among populations of Northeast Africa, North Africa, the Near East and the Mediterranean.
When did Richards publish his mtDNA research?
56fad599f34c681400b0c147
2006
65
False
Along with Egyptians, Algerians and Somalis, what people commonly possess the M1 haplogroup?
56fad599f34c681400b0c148
Ethiopians
205
False
On what continent is the M1 haplogroup believed to have originated?
56fad599f34c681400b0c149
Asia
311
False
Who authored an mtDNA study in 2005?
56fad599f34c681400b0c14a
Holden
30
False
What family of languages is the M1 haplogroup associated with?
56fad599f34c681400b0c14b
Afro-Asiatic
448
False
According to mtDNA studies by Holden (2005) and Richards et al. (2006), a significant proportion of the maternal lineages of Somalis consists of the M1 haplogroup. This mitochondrial clade is common among Ethiopians and North Africans, particularly Egyptians and Algerians. M1 is believed to have originated in Asia, where its parent M clade represents the majority of mtDNA lineages. This haplogroup is also thought to possibly correlate with the Afro-Asiatic language family:
When did Hodgson publish his DNA study?
56fad69b8f12f319006301db
2014
55
False
According to Hodgson, what ancestral people spread the Afro-Asiatic languages?
56fad69b8f12f319006301dc
Ethio-Somali
260
False
According to Hodgson, what people is mostly descended from Ethio-Somalis?
56fad69b8f12f319006301dd
Somalis
428
False
According to Hodgson, how long ago did the Ethio-Somalis diverge from other non-African ancestries?
56fad69b8f12f319006301de
at least 23,000 years ago
651
False
According to Hodgson, where did the Ethio-Somalis originate?
56fad69b8f12f319006301df
the Near East
824
False
According to an autosomal DNA study by Hodgson et al. (2014), the Afro-Asiatic languages were likely spread across Africa and the Near East by an ancestral population(s) carrying a newly identified non-African genetic component, which the researchers dub the "Ethio-Somali". This Ethio-Somali component is today most common among Afro-Asiatic-speaking populations in the Horn of Africa. It reaches a frequency peak among ethnic Somalis, representing the majority of their ancestry. The Ethio-Somali component is most closely related to the Maghrebi non-African genetic component, and is believed to have diverged from all other non-African ancestries at least 23,000 years ago. On this basis, the researchers suggest that the original Ethio-Somali carrying population(s) probably arrived in the pre-agricultural period from the Near East, having crossed over into northeastern Africa via the Sinai Peninsula. The population then likely split into two branches, with one group heading westward toward the Maghreb and the other moving south into the Horn.
In what year did Mahamoud publish his research?
56fad6b8f34c681400b0c151
2006
204
False
The analysis of HLA antigens has also helped clarify the possible background of the Somali people, as the distribution of haplotype frequencies vary among population groups. According to Mohamoud et al. (2006):
In what geographic part of Somalia is Zeila located?
56fad729f34c681400b0c153
northern
175
False
From whom were the early Muslims fleeing?
56fad729f34c681400b0c154
the Quraysh
223
False
Along with the Shafi'i, to what sect of Islam do most Somalis belong?
56fad729f34c681400b0c155
Sunni
398
False
What is the majority religion in Somalia?
56fad729f34c681400b0c156
Islam
414
False
A small minority of Somalis belong to what branch of Islam?
56fad729f34c681400b0c157
Shia
510
False
The history of Islam in Somalia is as old as the religion itself. The early persecuted Muslims fled to various places in the region, including the city of Zeila in modern-day northern Somalia, so as to seek protection from the Quraysh. Somalis were among the first populations on the continent to embrace Islam. With very few exceptions, Somalis are entirely Muslims, the majority belonging to the Sunni branch of Islam and the Shafi`i school of Islamic jurisprudence, although a few are also adherents of the Shia Muslim denomination.
What is another name for a Qur'anic school?
56fad7698f12f319006301e5
dugsi
32
False
What percentage of students at Qur'anic schools are female?
56fad7698f12f319006301e6
40
769
False
What government body regulates Qur'anic education?
56fad7698f12f319006301e7
the Ministry of Endowment and Islamic Affairs
1023
False
Qur'anic schools (also known as dugsi) remain the basic system of traditional religious instruction in Somalia. They provide Islamic education for children, thereby filling a clear religious and social role in the country. Known as the most stable local, non-formal system of education providing basic religious and moral instruction, their strength rests on community support and their use of locally made and widely available teaching materials. The Qur'anic system, which teaches the greatest number of students relative to other educational sub-sectors, is oftentimes the only system accessible to Somalis in nomadic as compared to urban areas. A study from 1993 found, among other things, that "unlike in primary schools where gender disparity is enormous, around 40 per cent of Qur'anic school pupils are girls; but the teaching staff have minimum or no qualification necessary to ensure intellectual development of children." To address these concerns, the Somali government on its own part subsequently established the Ministry of Endowment and Islamic Affairs, under which Qur'anic education is now regulated.
Along with Minneapolis, London and Birmingham, what city contains a notable population of Somalis?
56fad7df8f12f319006301eb
Toronto
115
False
What is the name of the mosque under construction in Minneapolis?
56fad7df8f12f319006301ec
the Abuubakar-As-Saddique Mosque
467
False
Along with floods, what natural disaster often spurs Islamic fundraising?
56fad7df8f12f319006301ed
droughts
401
False
Along with universities, the construction of what educational buildings are sometimes the focus of Islamic fundraising?
56fad7df8f12f319006301ee
schools
296
False
In the Somali diaspora, multiple Islamic fundraising events are held every year in cities like Birmingham, London, Toronto and Minneapolis, where Somali scholars and professionals give lectures and answer questions from the audience. The purpose of these events is usually to raise money for new schools or universities in Somalia, to help Somalis that have suffered as a consequence of floods and/or droughts, or to gather funds for the creation of new mosques like the Abuubakar-As-Saddique Mosque, which is currently undergoing construction in the Twin cities.
Along with the Horn of Africa, what is a notable location where Somali Islamic figures have been influential?
56fad80d8f12f319006301f3
the Arabian Peninsula
207
False
In addition, the Somali community has produced numerous important Muslim figures over the centuries, many of whom have significantly shaped the course of Islamic learning and practice in the Horn of Africa, the Arabian Peninsula and well beyond.
What is a basic social unit of Somali society?
56fad858f34c681400b0c15d
clan
4
False
In what geographical portion of Somalia is the tomb of the founder of the Dir clan located?
56fad858f34c681400b0c15e
northern
366
False
Of what clan is the Abgaal a sub-clan?
56fad858f34c681400b0c15f
Hawiye
340
False
The clan groupings of the Somali people are important social units, and clan membership plays a central part in Somali culture and politics. Clans are patrilineal and are often divided into sub-clans, sometimes with many sub-divisions. The tombs of the founders of the Darod, Dir and Isaaq major clans as well as the Abgaal sub-clan of the Hawiye are all located in northern Somalia. Tradition holds this general area as an ancestral homeland of the Somali people.
What practice is often used to bind different clans together?
56fad8e28f12f319006301f5
marriage
86
False
According to a recent study, how many men of the Dhulbahante clan married women from the Hawiye clan?
56fad8e28f12f319006301f6
3
436
False
According to a recent study, how many Dhulbahante men married women of a different Dhulbahante sub-clan?
56fad8e28f12f319006301f7
55
259
False
To what clan family do the Ogaden belong?
56fad8e28f12f319006301f8
Darod
491
False
What percentage of Dhulbahante men married women of the Majerteen or Ogaden?
56fad8e28f12f319006301f9
4.3%
447
False
Somali society is traditionally ethnically endogamous. So to extend ties of alliance, marriage is often to another ethnic Somali from a different clan. Thus, for example, a recent study observed that in 89 marriages contracted by men of the Dhulbahante clan, 55 (62%) were with women of Dhulbahante sub-clans other than those of their husbands; 30 (33.7%) were with women of surrounding clans of other clan families (Isaaq, 28; Hawiye, 3); and 3 (4.3%) were with women of other clans of the Darod clan family (Majerteen 2, Ogaden 1).
What law gave Somali husbands and wives equal rights over personal property?
56fad9608f12f319006301ff
1975 Somali Family Law
228
False
What was the official name of the country in which the 1975 Somali Family Law was passed?
56fad9608f12f31900630200
the Somali Democratic Republic
110
False
In addition to giving spouses equal rights over their personal property during marriage, what did the Somali Family Law give them?
56fad9608f12f31900630201
equal division of property between the husband and wife upon divorce
270
False
In 1975, the most prominent government reforms regarding family law in a Muslim country were set in motion in the Somali Democratic Republic, which put women and men, including husbands and wives, on complete equal footing. The 1975 Somali Family Law gave men and women equal division of property between the husband and wife upon divorce and the exclusive right to control by each spouse over his or her personal property.
What is the biggest ethnic group in Somalia?
56fad9cef34c681400b0c163
Somalis
0
False
What percentage of Somalians are ethnic Somalis?
56fad9cef34c681400b0c164
85%
73
False
During what century did the nomad lifestyle decline among Somalis?
56fad9cef34c681400b0c165
20th
156
False
Why do many Somalis live in South Asia and Europe?
56fad9cef34c681400b0c166
their seafaring tradition
360
False
Along with Djibouti and Ethiopia, in what African country outside Somalia can Somalis be found?
56fad9cef34c681400b0c167
Kenya
300
False
Somalis constitute the largest ethnic group in Somalia, at approximately 85% of the nation's inhabitants. They are traditionally nomads, but since the late 20th century, many have moved to urban areas. While most Somalis can be found in Somalia proper, large numbers also live in Ethiopia, Djibouti, Kenya, Yemen, the Middle East, South Asia and Europe due to their seafaring tradition.
What led to an increase in the number of Somalis leaving the country?
56fada5c8f12f31900630205
Civil strife
0
False
Along with the Middle East and North America, to what continent did the Somali diaspora go in the 1990s?
56fada5c8f12f31900630206
Europe
146
False
Along with Ottawa, Calgary, Edmonton, Montreal, Winnipeg, Hamilton and Vancouver, what Canadian city has a significant Somali population?
56fada5c8f12f31900630207
Toronto
197
False
As of 2006, where did Somalis rank in terms of population by ethnicity in Canada?
56fada5c8f12f31900630208
69th
377
False
Civil strife in the early 1990s greatly increased the size of the Somali diaspora, as many of the best educated Somalis left for the Middle East, Europe and North America. In Canada, the cities of Toronto, Ottawa, Calgary, Edmonton, Montreal, Vancouver, Winnipeg and Hamilton all harbor Somali populations. Statistics Canada's 2006 census ranks people of Somali descent as the 69th largest ethnic group in Canada.
About how many Somalis live in the UK?
56fadfc58f12f3190063020d
108,000
194
False
What percentage of Somalis living in Britain reside in London?
56fadfc58f12f3190063020e
78%
436
False
As of 2014, how many Somalis lived in Sweden?
56fadfc58f12f3190063020f
57,906
529
False
In 2014, how many Somalis resided in Norway?
56fadfc58f12f31900630210
38,413
584
False
How many Somalis lived in Finland as of 2014?
56fadfc58f12f31900630211
16,721
636
False
While the distribution of Somalis per country in Europe is hard to measure because the Somali community on the continent has grown so quickly in recent years, an official 2010 estimate reported 108,000 Somalis living in the United Kingdom. Somalis in Britain are largely concentrated in the cities of London, Sheffield, Bristol, Birmingham, Cardiff, Liverpool, Manchester, Leeds, and Leicester, with London alone accounting for roughly 78% of Britain's Somali population. There are also significant Somali communities in Sweden: 57,906 (2014); the Netherlands: 37,432 (2014); Norway: 38,413 (2015); Denmark: 18,645 (2014); and Finland: 16,721 (2014).
What country is Cedar Rapids located in?
56fae0218f12f31900630217
the United States
3
False
In the United States, Minneapolis, Saint Paul, Columbus, San Diego, Seattle, Washington, D.C., Houston, Atlanta, Los Angeles, Portland, Denver, Nashville, Green Bay, Lewiston, Portland, Maine and Cedar Rapids have the largest Somali populations.
Along with Saint Paul, what city constitutes the Twin Cities?
56fae0a58f12f31900630219
Minneapolis
109
False
About how many Somalis moved to Minnesota ten years ago?
56fae0a58f12f3190063021a
20,000
13
False
What area of Minneapolis contains a notable number of Somalis?
56fae0a58f12f3190063021b
Cedar-Riverside
555
False
What is hawala?
56fae0a58f12f3190063021c
money transfer services
393
False
What sort of meat is sold in Somali businesses in Minneapolis?
56fae0a58f12f3190063021d
halal
367
False
An estimated 20,000 Somalis emigrated to the U.S. state of Minnesota some ten years ago and the Twin Cities (Minneapolis and Saint Paul) now have the highest population of Somalis in North America. The city of Minneapolis hosts hundreds of Somali-owned and operated businesses offering a variety of products, including leather shoes, jewelry and other fashion items, halal meat, and hawala or money transfer services. Community-based video rental stores likewise carry the latest Somali films and music. The number of Somalis has especially surged in the Cedar-Riverside area of Minneapolis.
In what Middle Eastern country is there a notable Somali population?
56fae1078f12f31900630223
the United Arab Emirates
39
False
What is another name for the city center of Dubai?
56fae1078f12f31900630224
Deira
109
False
People of what nationality export more products from Dubai than Somalis?
56fae1078f12f31900630225
Iranians
149
False
What is the name of an airline owned by Dubai-based Somalis?
56fae1078f12f31900630226
Star African Air
343
False
How many Dubai-based airlines are owned by Somalis?
56fae1078f12f31900630227
three
375
False
There is a sizable Somali community in the United Arab Emirates. Somali-owned businesses line the streets of Deira, the Dubai city centre, with only Iranians exporting more products from the city at large. Internet cafés, hotels, coffee shops, restaurants and import-export businesses are all testimony to the Somalis' entrepreneurial spirit. Star African Air is also one of three Somali-owned airlines which are based in Dubai.
Near what city in Sudan do many Somalis reside?
56fae1818f12f3190063022d
Khartoum
289
False
In what geographical portion of Sudan do some Somalis live?
56fae1818f12f3190063022e
north
279
False
Along with businesspeople, what sort of Somalis live in Sudan?
56fae1818f12f3190063022f
students
343
False
In what Somali enclave in Kenya have Somalis invested over $1.5 billion?
56fae1818f12f31900630230
Eastleigh
511
False
In what province of South Africa do Somalis congregate?
56fae1818f12f31900630231
Western Cape
640
False
Besides their traditional areas of inhabitation in Greater Somalia, a Somali community mainly consisting of entrepreneurs, academics, and students also exists in Egypt. In addition, there is an historical Somali community in the general Sudan area. Primarily concentrated in the north and Khartoum, the expatriate community mainly consists of students as well as some businesspeople. More recently, Somali entrepreneurs have established themselves in Kenya, investing over $1.5 billion in the Somali enclave of Eastleigh alone. In South Africa, Somali businesspeople also provide most of the retail trade in informal settlements around the Western Cape province.
What language family does the Somali language belong to?
56fae1d7f34c681400b0c16d
Afro-Asiatic
62
False
What branch of the Afro-Asiatic language family does the Somali language belong to?
56fae1d7f34c681400b0c16e
Cushitic
39
False
Along with Saho, what language is closely related to Somali?
56fae1d7f34c681400b0c16f
Afar
113
False
Among the Cushitic languages, which is the most well-documented?
56fae1d7f34c681400b0c170
Somali
4
False
Before what year did studies on the Somali language exist?
56fae1d7f34c681400b0c171
1900
242
False
The Somali language is a member of the Cushitic branch of the Afro-Asiatic family. Its nearest relatives are the Afar and Saho languages. Somali is the best documented of the Cushitic languages, with academic studies of it dating from before 1900.
About how many people in Somalia speak Somali?
56fae2a48f12f31900630237
7.78 million
87
False
In millions, about how many global Somali speakers are there?
56fae2a48f12f31900630238
12.65
141
False
Along with Greater Somalia ethnic Somalis, who speaks Somali?
56fae2a48f12f31900630239
the Somali diaspora
245
False
The exact number of speakers of Somali is unknown. One source estimates that there are 7.78 million speakers of Somali in Somalia itself and 12.65 million speakers globally. The Somali language is spoken by ethnic Somalis in Greater Somalia and the Somali diaspora.
Along with Northern and Maay, what is the third main group of Somali dialects?
56fae2fc8f12f3190063023d
Benaadir
62
False
What dialect is Standard Somali based on?
56fae2fc8f12f3190063023e
Northern Somali
81
False
What is another name for Benaadir?
56fae2fc8f12f3190063023f
Coastal Somali
187
False
What dialect is spoken on Mogadishu?
56fae2fc8f12f31900630240
Benaadir
163
False
In what geographic part of Somalia do the Rahanweyn live?
56fae2fc8f12f31900630241
southern
487
False
Somali dialects are divided into three main groups: Northern, Benaadir and Maay. Northern Somali (or Northern-Central Somali) forms the basis for Standard Somali. Benaadir (also known as Coastal Somali) is spoken on the Benadir coast from Adale to south of Merca, including Mogadishu, as well as in the immediate hinterland. The coastal dialects have additional phonemes which do not exist in Standard Somali. Maay is principally spoken by the Digil and Mirifle (Rahanweyn) clans in the southern areas of Somalia.
What is the most frequently used writing script for the Somali language?
56fae3818f12f31900630247
the Somali alphabet
99
False
Who introduced the Somali alphabet?
56fae3818f12f31900630248
Mohamed Siad Barre
248
False
In what month and year was the Somali alphabet introduced?
56fae3818f12f31900630249
October 1972
293
False
Who created the Somali alphabet?
56fae3818f12f3190063024a
Shire Jama Ahmed
355
False
Who invented the Osmanya script?
56fae3818f12f3190063024b
Osman Yusuf Kenadid
782
False
A number of writing systems have been used over the years for transcribing the language. Of these, the Somali alphabet is the most widely used, and has been the official writing script in Somalia since the government of former President of Somalia Mohamed Siad Barre formally introduced it in October 1972. The script was developed by the Somali linguist Shire Jama Ahmed specifically for the Somali language, and uses all letters of the English Latin alphabet except p, v and z. Besides Ahmed's Latin script, other orthographies that have been used for centuries for writing Somali include the long-established Arabic script and Wadaad's writing. Indigenous writing systems developed in the twentieth century include the Osmanya, Borama and Kaddare scripts, which were invented by Osman Yusuf Kenadid, Abdurahman Sheikh Nuur and Hussein Sheikh Ahmed Kaddare, respectively.
Other than Somali, what is an official language of Somalia?
56fae3e08f12f31900630251
Arabic
23
False
To what language family does Arabic belong?
56fae3e08f12f31900630252
Afro-Asiatic
48
False
In what neighboring country is Arabic also an official language?
56fae3e08f12f31900630253
Djibouti
122
False
What organization do both Djibouti and Somalia belong to?
56fae3e08f12f31900630254
the Arab League
320
False
For how long has Somalia had connections to the Arab world?
56fae3e08f12f31900630255
centuries
161
False
In addition to Somali, Arabic, which is also an Afro-Asiatic tongue, is an official national language in both Somalia and Djibouti. Many Somalis speak it due to centuries-old ties with the Arab world, the far-reaching influence of the Arabic media, and religious education. Somalia and Djibouti are also both members of the Arab League.
Civilizations from what geographic part of Africa influenced Somali culture?
56fae437f34c681400b0c177
Northeast
173
False
Civilizations from what geographic part of Asia influenced Somali culture?
56fae437f34c681400b0c178
Southeast
224
False
What Asian country notable influenced Somali culture?
56fae437f34c681400b0c179
India
214
False
Along with Northeast Africa, Southeast Asia and India, what locale had a significant influence on Somali culture?
56fae437f34c681400b0c17a
the Arabian Peninsula
191
False
The culture of Somalia is an amalgamation of traditions developed independently and through interaction with neighbouring and far away civilizations, such as other parts of Northeast Africa, the Arabian Peninsula, India and Southeast Asia.
Somali food contains influences from what region?
56fae4b5f34c681400b0c17f
Southeast Asian
314
False
Along with textiles, wood carving and pottery, what ancient cultural activity still dominates Somalia today?
56fae4b5f34c681400b0c180
monumental architecture
140
False
Who called Somalia a "Nation of Bards"?
56fae4b5f34c681400b0c181
Margaret Laurence
556
False
Of what nationality is the person who called Somalia a "Nation of Bards"?
56fae4b5f34c681400b0c182
Canadian
538
False
What is the profession of the individual who referred to Somalia as a "Nation of Bards"?
56fae4b5f34c681400b0c183
novelist
547
False
The textile-making communities in Somalia are a continuation of an ancient textile industry, as is the culture of wood carving, pottery and monumental architecture that dominates Somali interiors and landscapes. The cultural diffusion of Somali commercial enterprise can be detected in its cuisine, which contains Southeast Asian influences. Due to the Somali people's passionate love for and facility with poetry, Somalia has often been referred to by scholars as a "Nation of Poets" and a "Nation of Bards" including, among others, the Canadian novelist Margaret Laurence.
What is a notable game that is played in Somalia?
56fae4d9f34c681400b0c189
Shax
103
False
Along with sport, games, literature, dress and festivals, what is a notable Somali cultural tradition?
56fae4d9f34c681400b0c18a
martial arts
46
False
All of these traditions, including festivals, martial arts, dress, literature, sport and games such as Shax, have immensely contributed to the enrichment of Somali heritage.
What scale is used by most Somali songs?
56fae5418f12f3190063025b
pentatonic
100
False
How many notes are in a hepatonic scale?
56fae5418f12f3190063025c
seven
188
False
What is an exaple of a hepatonic scale?
56fae5418f12f3190063025d
the major scale
215
False
Along with Arabia and Ethiopia, what land has songs that sound similar to those of Somalia?
56fae5418f12f3190063025e
Sudan
331
False
What does midho mean in English?
56fae5418f12f3190063025f
lyricists
480
False
Somalis have a rich musical heritage centered on traditional Somali folklore. Most Somali songs are pentatonic. That is, they only use five pitches per octave in contrast to a heptatonic (seven note) scale, such as the major scale. At first listen, Somali music might be mistaken for the sounds of nearby regions such as Ethiopia, Sudan or Arabia, but it is ultimately recognizable by its own unique tunes and styles. Somali songs are usually the product of collaboration between lyricists (midho), songwriters (lahan) and singers ('odka or "voice").
In what decade were the first Somali feature films made?
56fae59a8f12f31900630265
1960s
151
False
In what year was the SFA founded?
56fae59a8f12f31900630266
1975
264
False
Who was the representative of the Somali Film Agency in Rome?
56fae59a8f12f31900630267
Ali Said Hassan
337
False
What are riwaaydo?
56fae59a8f12f31900630268
popular musicals
440
False
What was the name of Said Salah Ahmed's first feature?
56fae59a8f12f31900630269
The Somali Darwish
771
False
Growing out of the Somali people's rich storytelling tradition, the first few feature-length Somali films and cinematic festivals emerged in the early 1960s, immediately after independence. Following the creation of the Somali Film Agency (SFA) regulatory body in 1975, the local film scene began to expand rapidly. The Somali filmmaker Ali Said Hassan concurrently served as the SFA's representative in Rome. In the 1970s and early 1980s, popular musicals known as riwaayado were the main driving force behind the Somali movie industry. Epic and period films as well as international co-productions followed suit, facilitated by the proliferation of video technology and national television networks. Said Salah Ahmed during this period directed his first feature film, The Somali Darwish (The Somalia Dervishes), devoted to the Dervish State. In the 1990s and 2000s, a new wave of more entertainment-oriented movies emerged. Referred to as Somaliwood, this upstart, youth-based cinematic movement has energized the Somali film industry and in the process introduced innovative storylines, marketing strategies and production techniques. The young directors Abdisalam Aato of Olol Films and Abdi Malik Isak are at the forefront of this quiet revolution.
What is a notable characteristic of Somali art?
56fae60d8f12f3190063026f
aniconism
222
False
Along with wood carving, architecture and pottery, what is a notable Somali artistic tradition?
56fae60d8f12f31900630270
music
135
False
In what geographic region of Somalia are ancient rock paintings located?
56fae60d8f12f31900630271
northern
508
False
What animals are depicted on the Mogadishan canopies?
56fae60d8f12f31900630272
birds
537
False
In what area of Somalia can one find the tombs decorated with plants?
56fae60d8f12f31900630273
southern
619
False
Somali art is the artistic culture of the Somali people, both historic and contemporary. These include artistic traditions in pottery, music, architecture, wood carving and other genres. Somali art is characterized by its aniconism, partly as a result of the vestigial influence of the pre-Islamic mythology of the Somalis coupled with their ubiquitous Muslim beliefs. However, there have been cases in the past of artistic depictions representing living creatures, such as certain ancient rock paintings in northern Somalia, the golden birds on the Mogadishan canopies, and the plant decorations on religious tombs in southern Somalia. More typically, intricate patterns and geometric designs, bold colors and monumental architecture were the norm.
What do Somali women wear on their feet during Eid?
56fae6888f12f31900630279
henna
14
False
Along with triangular shapes, what are common henna designs in Somalia?
56fae6888f12f3190063027a
flower motifs
267
False
What do Somali women traditionally put around their eyes?
56fae6888f12f3190063027b
kohl
516
False
From what ancient region did kuul application come?
56fae6888f12f3190063027c
Land of Punt
623
False
What activity is often held before Somali weddings?
56fae6888f12f3190063027d
Henna parties
404
False
Additionally, henna is an important part of Somali culture. It is worn by Somali women on their hands, arms, feet and neck during weddings, Eid, Ramadan, and other festive occasions. Somali henna designs are similar to those in the Arabian peninsula, often featuring flower motifs and triangular shapes. The palm is also frequently decorated with a dot of henna and the fingertips are dipped in the dye. Henna parties are usually held before the wedding takes place. Somali women have likewise traditionally applied kohl (kuul) to their eyes. Usage of the eye cosmetic in the Horn region is believed to date to the ancient Land of Punt.
What sport do Somalis most enjoy?
56fae6fe8f12f31900630283
Football
0
False
What is the name of the Somali national football team?
56fae6fe8f12f31900630284
Ocean Stars
132
False
In what year did the Ocean Stars first compete in the Olympics?
56fae6fe8f12f31900630285
1972
213
False
Along with Liban Abdi, Ayub Daud and Abdisalam Ibrahim, who is a notable Somali football player?
56fae6fe8f12f31900630286
Mohammed Ahamed Jama
464
False
Along with the Somalia Cup, what is an important Somali football competition?
56fae6fe8f12f31900630287
the Somalia League
79
False
Football is the most popular sport amongst Somalis. Important competitions are the Somalia League and Somalia Cup. The multi-ethnic Ocean Stars, Somalia's national team, first participated at the Olympic Games in 1972 and has sent athletes to compete in most Summer Olympic Games since then. The equally diverse Somali beach soccer team also represents the country in international beach soccer competitions. In addition, several international footballers such as Mohammed Ahamed Jama, Liban Abdi, Ayub Daud and Abdisalam Ibrahim have played in European top divisions.
When did the 1981 FIBA African Championship take place?
56fae79e8f12f3190063028d
15–23 December 1981
61
False
Who hosted the 1981 FIBA African Championship?
56fae79e8f12f3190063028e
Somalia
48
False
In what city did the 1981 FIBA African Championship take place?
56fae79e8f12f3190063028f
Mogadishu
107
False
For what nation did Hussein Ahmed Salah compete?
56fae79e8f12f31900630290
Djibouti
464
False
Who did Mohammed Ahmed compete for in the Olympics?
56fae79e8f12f31900630291
Canada
1041
False
The FIBA Africa Championship 1981 was hosted by Somalia from 15–23 December 1981. The games were played in Mogadishu, and the Somali national team received the bronze prize. Abdi Bile won the 1500 m event at the World Championships in 1987, running the fastest final 800 m of any 1,500 meter race in history. He was a two-time Olympian (1984 and 1996) and dominated the event in the late 1980s. Hussein Ahmed Salah, a Somalia-born former long-distance runner from Djibouti, won a bronze medal in the marathon at the 1988 Summer Olympics. He also won silver medals in this event at the 1987 and 1991 World Championships, as well as the 1985 IAAF World Marathon Cup. Mo Farah is a double Olympic gold medal winner and world champion, and holds the European track record for 10,000 metres, the British road record for 10,000 metres, the British indoor record in the 3000 metres, the British track record for 5000 metres and the European indoor record for 5000 metres. Mohammed Ahmed (athlete) is a Canadian long-distance runner who represented Canada in the 10,000 meter races at the 2012 Summer Olympics and the 2013 World Championships in Athletics.
Who came in fourth in the 2013 Open World Taekwondo Challenge Cup?
56fae8008f12f31900630297
Mohamed Deq Abdulle
46
False
What medal did Faisal Jeylani Aweys win in the 2013 Open World Taekwondo Challenge Cup?
56fae8008f12f31900630298
silver
83
False
Where did the 2013 Open World Taekwondo Challenge Cup take place?
56fae8008f12f31900630299
Tongeren
178
False
Along with Thai Boxing, in what has Mohamed Jama won a European title?
56fae8008f12f3190063029a
K1
384
False
In the martial arts, Faisal Jeylani Aweys and Mohamed Deq Abdulle also took home a silver medal and fourth place, respectively, at the 2013 Open World Taekwondo Challenge Cup in Tongeren. The Somali National Olympic committee has devised a special support program to ensure continued success in future tournaments. Additionally, Mohamed Jama has won both world and European titles in K1 and Thai Boxing.
What is a koofiyad?
56fae8528f12f3190063029f
an embroidered fez
234
False
What do Somali men wear when they aren't wearing Western clothing?
56fae8528f12f319006302a0
the macawis
95
False
Where is the macawis worn?
56fae8528f12f319006302a1
around the waist
144
False
What piece of clothing is the macawis similar to?
56fae8528f12f319006302a2
sarong
119
False
Aside from the koofiyad, what do Somali men wear on their head?
56fae8528f12f319006302a3
turban
205
False
When not dressed in Westernized clothing such as jeans and t-shirts, Somali men typically wear the macawis, which is a sarong-like garment worn around the waist. On their heads, they often wrap a colorful turban or wear the koofiyad, an embroidered fez.
What is the jellabiya?
56fae8b88f12f319006302a9
a long white garment
147
False
Along with jellabiyad, what is the jellabiya called in Somali?
56fae8b88f12f319006302aa
qamiis
128
False
In what region do men commonly wear the jellabiya?
56fae8b88f12f319006302ab
the Arab world
178
False
Due to Somalia's proximity to and close ties with the Arabian Peninsula, many Somali men also wear the jellabiya (jellabiyad or qamiis in Somali), a long white garment common in the Arab world.
What is the regular garment of Somali women?
56fae9108f12f319006302af
the guntiino
65
False
What is the guntiino normally made from?
56fae9108f12f319006302b0
alandi
181
False
What is the usual formal attire for Somali women?
56fae9108f12f319006302b1
the dirac
485
False
Along with silk, saree fabric or chiffon, what might the dirac be made out of?
56fae9108f12f319006302b2
taffeta
563
False
What is the underskirt of the dirac called?
56fae9108f12f319006302b3
the gorgorad
660
False
During regular, day-to-day activities, Somali women usually wear the guntiino, a long stretch of cloth tied over the shoulder and draped around the waist. It is usually made out of alandi, which is a textile common in the Horn region and some parts of North Africa. The garment can be worn in different styles. It can also be made with other fabrics, including white cloth with gold borders. For more formal settings, such as at weddings or religious celebrations like Eid, women wear the dirac. It is a long, light, diaphanous voile dress made of silk, chiffon, taffeta or saree fabric. The gown is worn over a full-length half-slip and a brassiere. Known as the gorgorad, the underskirt is made out of silk and serves as a key part of the overall outfit. The dirac is usually sparkly and very colorful, the most popular styles being those with gilded borders or threads. The fabric is typically acquired from Somali clothing stores in tandem with the gorgorad. In the past, dirac fabric was also frequently purchased from South Asian merchandisers.
What is the name of the headscarf worn by married women?
56fae9bd8f12f319006302b9
shaash
55
False
What is the name of the shawl that married women wear on their upper bodies?
56fae9bd8f12f319006302ba
garbasaar
134
False
Along with abaya, what is a traditional Arab garment sometimes worn by Somali women?
56fae9bd8f12f319006302bb
the jilbab
247
False
Married women tend to sport headscarves referred to as shaash. They also often cover their upper body with a shawl, which is known as garbasaar. Unmarried or young women, however, do not always cover their heads. Traditional Arabian garb, such as the jilbab and abaya, is also commonly worn.
What is the jewelry worn by Somali women commonly made from?
56faea268f12f319006302bf
gold
60
False
Along with anklets, what pieces of jewelry are traditionally worn by Somali women?
56faea268f12f319006302c0
necklaces
200
False
What type of jewelry do Somali women wear at their weddings?
56faea268f12f319006302c1
gold
148
False
Additionally, Somali women have a long tradition of wearing gold jewelry, particularly bangles. During weddings, the bride is frequently adorned in gold. Many Somali women by tradition also wear gold necklaces and anklets.
In what year was the Somali flag invented?
56faea72f34c681400b0c18d
1954
91
False
Who devised the Somali flag?
56faea72f34c681400b0c18e
Mohammed Awale Liban
118
False
What was Mohammed Awale Liban by profession?
56faea72f34c681400b0c18f
scholar
110
False
What is the star at the center of the Somali flag called?
56faea72f34c681400b0c190
Star of Unity
371
False
How many points does the Star of Unity have?
56faea72f34c681400b0c191
five
358
False
The Somali flag is an ethnic flag conceived to represent ethnic Somalis. It was created in 1954 by the Somali scholar Mohammed Awale Liban, after he had been selected by the labour trade union of the Trust Territory of Somalia to come up with a design. Upon independence in 1960, the flag was adopted as the national flag of the nascent Somali Republic. The five-pointed Star of Unity in the flag's center represents the Somali ethnic group inhabiting the five territories in Greater Somalia.
What is the one culinary tradition that is present among all Somali regional cuisines?
56faeae4f34c681400b0c197
all food is served halal
258
False
What type of meat is never present in halal dishes?
56faeae4f34c681400b0c198
pork
307
False
What beverage is not halal?
56faeae4f34c681400b0c199
alcohol
320
False
Along with alcohol, what liquid is never present in halal food?
56faeae4f34c681400b0c19a
blood
389
False
Somali cuisine varies from region to region and consists of a fusion of diverse culinary influences. It is the product of Somalia's rich tradition of trade and commerce. Despite the variety, there remains one thing that unites the various regional cuisines: all food is served halal. There are therefore no pork dishes, alcohol is not served, nothing that died on its own is eaten, and no blood is incorporated.
What is the English word for qado?
56faeb28f34c681400b0c19f
lunch
8
False
What is bariis in English?
56faeb28f34c681400b0c1a0
rice
55
False
What is the most popular variety of bariis?
56faeb28f34c681400b0c1a1
basmati
94
False
When is the latest a Somali might eat dinner during Ramadan?
56faeb28f34c681400b0c1a2
11 pm
372
False
After what event during Ramadan is dinner served?
56faeb28f34c681400b0c1a3
Tarawih prayers
334
False
Qado or lunch is often elaborate. Varieties of bariis (rice), the most popular probably being basmati, usually serve as the main dish. Spices like cumin, cardamom, cloves, cinnamon, and garden sage are used to aromatize these different rice delicacies. Somalis eat dinner as late as 9 pm. During Ramadan, supper is often served after Tarawih prayers; sometimes as late as 11 pm.
What is another term for xalwo?
56faeb678f12f319006302c5
halva
7
False
Along with wedding receptions, when is xalwo often consumed?
56faeb678f12f319006302c6
Eid celebrations
78
False
What do the Somalis call frankincense?
56faeb678f12f319006302c7
lubaan
325
False
What is the English word for cunnsi?
56faeb678f12f319006302c8
incense
336
False
What do the Somalis call incense burners?
56faeb678f12f319006302c9
dabqaad
414
False
Xalwo (halva) is a popular confection eaten during festive occasions, such as Eid celebrations or wedding receptions. It is made from sugar, corn starch, cardamom powder, nutmeg powder and ghee. Peanuts are also sometimes added to enhance texture and flavor. After meals, homes are traditionally perfumed using frankincense (lubaan) or incense (cuunsi), which is prepared inside an incense burner referred to as a dabqaad.
When did Somalis begin to render their language using the Latin alphabet?
56faebc18f12f319006302cf
1972
162
False
Who is the most well-known modern Somali writer?
56faebc18f12f319006302d0
Nuruddin Farah
348
False
In what year did Nuruddin Farah win the Neustadt International Prize for Literature?
56faebc18f12f319006302d1
1998
545
False
Who wrote Ignorance is the enemy of love?
56faebc18f12f319006302d2
Farah Mohamed Jama Awl
595
False
Who won the 2010 Betty Trask Prize?
56faebc18f12f319006302d3
Nadifa Mohamed
752
False
Somali scholars have for centuries produced many notable examples of Islamic literature ranging from poetry to Hadith. With the adoption of the Latin alphabet in 1972 to transcribe the Somali language, numerous contemporary Somali authors have also released novels, some of which have gone on to receive worldwide acclaim. Of these modern writers, Nuruddin Farah is probably the most celebrated. Books such as From a Crooked Rib and Links are considered important literary achievements, works which have earned Farah, among other accolades, the 1998 Neustadt International Prize for Literature. Farah Mohamed Jama Awl is another prominent Somali writer who is perhaps best known for his Dervish era novel, Ignorance is the enemy of love. Young upstart Nadifa Mohamed was also awarded the 2010 Betty Trask Prize. Additionally, Mohamed Ibrahim Warsame 'Hadrawi' is considered by many to be the greatest living Somali poet, and several of his works have been translated internationally.
What is the Somali system of customary law?
56faec218f12f319006302d9
Xeer
78
False
Somalis for centuries have practiced a form of customary law, which they call Xeer. Xeer is a polycentric legal system where there is no monopolistic agent that determines what the law should be or how it should be interpreted.
In what century did the Xeer system begin?
56faec8b8f12f319006302db
7th
109
False
In what region did the Xeer system develop?
56faec8b8f12f319006302dc
the Horn of Africa
66
False
What fact about Somali legal terms implies that Xeer developed locally?
56faec8b8f12f319006302dd
devoid of loan words
280
False
The Xeer legal system is assumed to have developed exclusively in the Horn of Africa since approximately the 7th century. There is no evidence that it developed elsewhere or was greatly influenced by any foreign legal system. The fact that Somali legal terminology is practically devoid of loan words from foreign languages suggests that Xeer is truly indigenous.
In the Xeer system, what are judges called?
56faeccbf34c681400b0c1a9
odayal
141
False
What does xeer boggeyaal mean in English?
56faeccbf34c681400b0c1aa
jurists
174
False
What does the Xeer system call attorneys?
56faeccbf34c681400b0c1ab
garxajiyaal
209
False
By what term are witnesses known in the Xeer system?
56faeccbf34c681400b0c1ac
murkhaatiyal
234
False
What does the Xeer system call cops?
56faeccbf34c681400b0c1ad
waranle
263
False
The Xeer legal system also requires a certain amount of specialization of different functions within the legal framework. Thus, one can find odayal (judges), xeer boggeyaal (jurists), guurtiyaal (detectives), garxajiyaal (attorneys), murkhaatiyal (witnesses) and waranle (police officers) to enforce the law.
Along with Somalo-Islamic architecture, what influences modern Somali architecture?
56faed40f34c681400b0c1b3
Western designs
500
False
Along with the early modern and ancient, during what period did Somali architecture exist?
56faed40f34c681400b0c1b4
medieval
382
False
What material was used to make Somali cities?
56faed40f34c681400b0c1b5
stone
141
False
Somali architecture is a rich and diverse tradition of engineering and designing. It involves multiple different construction types, such as stone cities, castles, citadels, fortresses, mosques, mausoleums, towers, tombs, tumuli, cairns, megaliths, menhirs, stelae, dolmens, stone circles, monuments, temples, enclosures, cisterns, aqueducts, and lighthouses. Spanning the ancient, medieval and early modern periods in Greater Somalia, it also includes the fusion of Somalo-Islamic architecture with Western designs in contemporary times.
What do Somalis call their ancient pyramids?
56faed86f34c681400b0c1b9
taalo
62
False
What were taalo used for?
56faed86f34c681400b0c1ba
burial
83
False
What were ancient Somali houses made out of?
56faed86f34c681400b0c1bb
dressed stone
197
False
Ancient Somali houses were similar to houses in what country?
56faed86f34c681400b0c1bc
Egypt
242
False
What is a notable stone wall built in ancient Somalia?
56faed86f34c681400b0c1bd
the Wargaade Wall
340
False
In ancient Somalia, pyramidical structures known in Somali as taalo were a popular burial style, with hundreds of these dry stone monuments scattered around the country today. Houses were built of dressed stone similar to the ones in Ancient Egypt. There are also examples of courtyards and large stone walls enclosing settlements, such as the Wargaade Wall.
During what period was the Muslim faith introduced to Somalia?
56faedf8f34c681400b0c1c3
early medieval
42
False
Along with Arabian influences, where did architectural influences come from in the medieval period?
56faedf8f34c681400b0c1c4
Persia
139
False
In the medieval period, what buildings were notably built atop older ruins?
56faedf8f34c681400b0c1c5
mosques
388
False
Along with sundried bricks and coral stone, what construction material was widely used after the introduction of Islam?
56faedf8f34c681400b0c1c6
limestone
307
False
Before Islam was introduced, what was a common building material in Somalia?
56faedf8f34c681400b0c1c7
drystone
211
False
The peaceful introduction of Islam in the early medieval era of Somalia's history brought Islamic architectural influences from Arabia and Persia. This had the effect of stimulating a shift in construction from drystone and other related materials to coral stone, sundried bricks, and the widespread use of limestone in Somali architecture. Many of the new architectural designs, such as mosques, were built on the ruins of older structures. This practice would continue over and over again throughout the following centuries.
What is the academic study of the Somali people called?
56faee55f34c681400b0c1cd
Somali Studies
83
False
Along with sociology, linguistics, historiography and archaeology, what field is part of Somali Studies?
56faee55f34c681400b0c1ce
anthropology
142
False
Along with chronicles and records, what indigenous sources are used in Somali Studies?
56faee55f34c681400b0c1cf
oral literature
268
False
What is the name of the annual gathering of Somali Studies scholars?
56faee55f34c681400b0c1d0
the International Congress of Somali Studies
518
False
When did the International Congress of Somali Studies begin?
56faee55f34c681400b0c1d1
1980
426
False
The scholarly term for research concerning Somalis and Greater Somalia is known as Somali Studies. It consists of several disciplines such as anthropology, sociology, linguistics, historiography and archaeology. The field draws from old Somali chronicles, records and oral literature, in addition to written accounts and traditions about Somalis from explorers and geographers in the Horn of Africa and the Middle East. Since 1980, prominent Somalist scholars from around the world have also gathered annually to hold the International Congress of Somali Studies.
Middle_Ages
In what century did the Middle Ages begin?
56fb2a7cf34c681400b0c1d7
5th
72
False
What century saw the end of the Middle Ages?
56fb2a7cf34c681400b0c1d8
15th
83
False
What event marked the beginning of the Middle Ages?
56fb2a7cf34c681400b0c1d9
the collapse of the Western Roman Empire
111
False
Along with the Renaissance, what era occurred at the end of the Middle Ages?
56fb2a7cf34c681400b0c1da
Age of Discovery
192
False
What is the first period of the three that Western history is traditionally divided into?
56fb2a7cf34c681400b0c1db
Antiquity
302
False
In European history, the Middle Ages or medieval period lasted from the 5th to the 15th century. It began with the collapse of the Western Roman Empire and merged into the Renaissance and the Age of Discovery. The Middle Ages is the middle period of the three traditional divisions of Western history: Antiquity, Medieval period, and Modern period. The Medieval period is itself subdivided into the Early, the High, and the Late Middle Ages.
Along with the movement of peoples, invasion and depopulation, what event started in Late Antiquity and continued into the Middle Ages?
56fb2afef34c681400b0c1e1
deurbanisation
14
False
In what state did barbarian invaders establish kingdoms?
56fb2afef34c681400b0c1e2
the Western Roman Empire
236
False
What empire was North Africa previously a part of?
56fb2afef34c681400b0c1e3
the Eastern Roman Empire
328
False
In what century did the Caliphate conquer North Africa?
56fb2afef34c681400b0c1e4
7th
269
False
In what year did Italians discover the Code of Justinian?
56fb2afef34c681400b0c1e5
1070
740
False
Depopulation, deurbanisation, invasion, and movement of peoples, which had begun in Late Antiquity, continued in the Early Middle Ages. The barbarian invaders, including various Germanic peoples, formed new kingdoms in what remained of the Western Roman Empire. In the 7th century, North Africa and the Middle East—once part of the Eastern Roman Empire—came under the rule of the Caliphate, an Islamic empire, after conquest by Muhammad's successors. Although there were substantial changes in society and political structures, the break with Antiquity was not complete. The still-sizeable Byzantine Empire survived in the east and remained a major power. The empire's law code, the Code of Justinian, was rediscovered in Northern Italy in 1070 and became widely admired later in the Middle Ages. In the West, most kingdoms incorporated the few extant Roman institutions. Monasteries were founded as campaigns to Christianise pagan Europe continued. The Franks, under the Carolingian dynasty, briefly established the Carolingian Empire during the later 8th and early 9th century. It covered much of Western Europe, but later succumbed to the pressures of internal civil wars combined with external invasions—Vikings from the north, Magyars from the east, and Saracens from the south.
What year marked the beginning of the High Middle Ages?
56fb2c94f34c681400b0c1eb
1000
47
False
What event led to larger crop yields in the High Middle Ages?
56fb2c94f34c681400b0c1ec
the Medieval Warm Period
172
False
What was the name of the economic system that organized peasants into villages owing labor and rent to nobles?
56fb2c94f34c681400b0c1ed
Manorialism
245
False
What was the name of the political system that gave rents to knights in return for military service?
56fb2c94f34c681400b0c1ee
feudalism
355
False
In what year did the Crusades begin?
56fb2c94f34c681400b0c1ef
1095
626
False
During the High Middle Ages, which began after 1000, the population of Europe increased greatly as technological and agricultural innovations allowed trade to flourish and the Medieval Warm Period climate change allowed crop yields to increase. Manorialism, the organisation of peasants into villages that owed rent and labour services to the nobles, and feudalism, the political structure whereby knights and lower-status nobles owed military service to their overlords in return for the right to rent from lands and manors, were two of the ways society was organised in the High Middle Ages. The Crusades, first preached in 1095, were military attempts by Western European Christians to regain control of the Holy Land from the Muslims. Kings became the heads of centralised nation states, reducing crime and violence but making the ideal of a unified Christendom more distant. Intellectual life was marked by scholasticism, a philosophy that emphasised joining faith to reason, and by the founding of universities. The theology of Thomas Aquinas, the paintings of Giotto, the poetry of Dante and Chaucer, the travels of Marco Polo, and the architecture of Gothic cathedrals such as Chartres are among the outstanding achievements toward the end of this period, and into the Late Middle Ages.
When did the Black Death end?
56fb2e3bf34c681400b0c1f5
1350
172
False
In what period of the Middle Ages did the Black Death occur?
56fb2e3bf34c681400b0c1f6
Late
4
False
What portion of the European population died in the Black Death?
56fb2e3bf34c681400b0c1f7
a third
207
False
What era occurred after the Late Middle Ages?
56fb2e3bf34c681400b0c1f8
the early modern period
496
False
Along with controversy and schism, what upset the peace of the Church during the Late Middle Ages?
56fb2e3bf34c681400b0c1f9
heresy
242
False
The Late Middle Ages was marked by difficulties and calamities including famine, plague, and war, which significantly diminished the population of Europe; between 1347 and 1350, the Black Death killed about a third of Europeans. Controversy, heresy, and schism within the Church paralleled the interstate conflict, civil strife, and peasant revolts that occurred in the kingdoms. Cultural and technological developments transformed European society, concluding the Late Middle Ages and beginning the early modern period.
Along with Antiquity and the Middle Ages, what is the other major division of European history?
56fb2e6f8f12f319006302e1
the Modern Period
169
False
How many major periods is European history divided into?
56fb2e6f8f12f319006302e2
three
30
False
What is another name for Antiquity?
56fb2e6f8f12f319006302e3
classical civilisation
110
False
The Middle Ages is one of the three major periods in the most enduring scheme for analysing European history: classical civilisation, or Antiquity; the Middle Ages; and the Modern Period.
Along with the Six Ages, what other scheme did writers in the Middle Ages use to divide history?
56fb2ed48f12f319006302e7
Four Empires
77
False
What writer referred to the Christian period as new?
56fb2ed48f12f319006302e8
Petrarch
271
False
Who wrote the History of the Florentine People?
56fb2ed48f12f319006302e9
Leonardo Bruni
386
False
When was the History of the Florentine People published?
56fb2ed48f12f319006302ea
1442
498
False
Who first divided history into the ancient, medieval and modern periods?
56fb2ed48f12f319006302eb
Christoph Cellarius
1067
False
Medieval writers divided history into periods such as the "Six Ages" or the "Four Empires", and considered their time to be the last before the end of the world. When referring to their own times, they spoke of them as being "modern". In the 1330s, the humanist and poet Petrarch referred to pre-Christian times as antiqua (or "ancient") and to the Christian period as nova (or "new"). Leonardo Bruni was the first historian to use tripartite periodisation in his History of the Florentine People (1442). Bruni and later historians argued that Italy had recovered since Petrarch's time, and therefore added a third period to Petrarch's two. The "Middle Ages" first appears in Latin in 1469 as media tempestas or "middle season". In early usage, there were many variants, including medium aevum, or "middle age", first recorded in 1604, and media saecula, or "middle ages", first recorded in 1625. The alternative term "medieval" (or occasionally "mediaeval") derives from medium aevum. Tripartite periodisation became standard after the German 17th century historian Christoph Cellarius divided history into three periods: Ancient, Medieval, and Modern.
What date is usually given as the beginning of the Middle Ages?
56fb2f268f12f319006302f1
476
62
False
Who was the first writer to date the Middle Ages from 476?
56fb2f268f12f319006302f2
Bruni
81
False
When is the Middle Ages generally considered to have ended?
56fb2f268f12f319006302f3
1500
114
False
In what year did the Turks conquer Constantinople?
56fb2f268f12f319006302f4
1453
372
False
When did Ferdinand II die?
56fb2f268f12f319006302f5
1516
602
False
The most commonly given starting point for the Middle Ages is 476, first used by Bruni.[A] For Europe as a whole, 1500 is often considered to be the end of the Middle Ages, but there is no universally agreed upon end date. Depending on the context, events such as Christopher Columbus's first voyage to the Americas in 1492, the conquest of Constantinople by the Turks in 1453, or the Protestant Reformation in 1517 are sometimes used. English historians often use the Battle of Bosworth Field in 1485 to mark the end of the period. For Spain, dates commonly used are the death of King Ferdinand II in 1516, the death of Queen Isabella I of Castile in 1504, or the conquest of Granada in 1492. Historians from Romance-speaking countries tend to divide the Middle Ages into two parts: an earlier "High" and later "Low" period. English-speaking historians, following their German counterparts, generally subdivide the Middle Ages into three intervals: "Early", "High", and "Late". In the 19th century, the entire Middle Ages were often referred to as the "Dark Ages",[B] but with the adoption of these subdivisions, use of this term was restricted to the Early Middle Ages, at least among historians.
In what century did the Roman Empire achieve its greatest extent?
56fb2ff68f12f319006302fb
the 2nd century AD
64
False
In what century did the revival of Persia occur under the Sassanids?
56fb2ff68f12f319006302fc
3rd century
547
False
How much did the size of the Roman army increase in the 3rd century?
56fb2ff68f12f319006302fd
doubled
569
False
What did the need for increased revenue to pay for the Roman army lead to an increase in?
56fb2ff68f12f319006302fe
taxes
701
False
What is another term for the Roman landowning class?
56fb2ff68f12f319006302ff
curial
739
False
The Roman Empire reached its greatest territorial extent during the 2nd century AD; the following two centuries witnessed the slow decline of Roman control over its outlying territories. Economic issues, including inflation, and external pressure on the frontiers combined to make the 3rd century politically unstable, with emperors coming to the throne only to be rapidly replaced by new usurpers. Military expenses increased steadily during the 3rd century, mainly in response to the war with Sassanid Persia, which revived in the middle of the 3rd century. The army doubled in size, and cavalry and smaller units replaced the legion as the main tactical unit. The need for revenue led to increased taxes and a decline in numbers of the curial, or landowning, class, and decreasing numbers of them willing to shoulder the burdens of holding office in their native towns. More bureaucrats were needed in the central administration to deal with the needs of the army, which led to complaints from civilians that there were more tax-collectors in the empire than tax-payers.
In what year did Diocletian begin his reign?
56fb30738f12f31900630305
284
27
False
When was the Roman Empire split into western and eastern administrative divisions?
56fb30738f12f31900630306
286
112
False
What was the name of the city previously located on the site of Constantinople?
56fb30738f12f31900630307
Byzantium
376
False
During what century was the Roman conversion to Christianity considered complete?
56fb30738f12f31900630308
5th
1238
False
When did the rule of Constantine end?
56fb30738f12f31900630309
337
349
False
The Emperor Diocletian (r. 284–305) split the empire into separately administered eastern and western halves in 286; the empire was not considered divided by its inhabitants or rulers, as legal and administrative promulgations in one division were considered valid in the other.[C] In 330, after a period of civil war, Constantine the Great (r. 306–337) refounded the city of Byzantium as the newly renamed eastern capital, Constantinople. Diocletian's reforms strengthened the governmental bureaucracy, reformed taxation, and strengthened the army, which bought the empire time but did not resolve the problems it was facing: excessive taxation, a declining birthrate, and pressures on its frontiers, among others. Civil war between rival emperors became common in the middle of the 4th century, diverting soldiers from the empire's frontier forces and allowing invaders to encroach. For much of the 4th century, Roman society stabilised in a new form that differed from the earlier classical period, with a widening gulf between the rich and poor, and a decline in the vitality of the smaller towns. Another change was the Christianisation, or conversion of the empire to Christianity, a gradual process that lasted from the 2nd to the 5th centuries.
In what year did the Ostrogoths settle in the Roman Empire?
56fb3290f34c681400b0c1ff
376
3
False
Who invited the Ostrogoths to settle in the Roman Empire?
56fb3290f34c681400b0c200
Valens
80
False
In what province did the Ostrogoths settle?
56fb3290f34c681400b0c201
Thracia
135
False
At what battle was the Emperor Valens killed?
56fb3290f34c681400b0c202
the Battle of Adrianople
374
False
When did the Battle of Adrianople occur?
56fb3290f34c681400b0c203
9 August 378
402
False
In 376, the Ostrogoths, fleeing from the Huns, received permission from Emperor Valens (r. 364–378) to settle in the Roman province of Thracia in the Balkans. The settlement did not go smoothly, and when Roman officials mishandled the situation, the Ostrogoths began to raid and plunder.[D] Valens, attempting to put down the disorder, was killed fighting the Ostrogoths at the Battle of Adrianople on 9 August 378. As well as the threat from such tribal confederacies from the north, internal divisions within the empire, especially within the Christian Church, caused problems. In 400, the Visigoths invaded the Western Roman Empire and, although briefly forced back from Italy, in 410 sacked the city of Rome. In 406 the Alans, Vandals, and Suevi crossed into Gaul; over the next three years they spread across Gaul and in 409 crossed the Pyrenees Mountains into modern-day Spain. The Migration Period began, where various people, initially largely Germanic peoples, moved across Europe. The Franks, Alemanni, and the Burgundians all ended up in northern Gaul while the Angles, Saxons, and Jutes settled in Britain. In the 430s the Huns began invading the empire; their king Attila (r. 434–453) led invasions into the Balkans in 442 and 447, Gaul in 451, and Italy in 452. The Hunnic threat remained until Attila's death in 453, when the Hunnic confederation he led fell apart. These invasions by the tribes completely changed the political and demographic nature of what had been the Western Roman Empire.
Who was the last Western Roman Emperor?
56fb3441f34c681400b0c209
Romulus Augustus
225
False
When did the reign of the last Western Roman Emperor end?
56fb3441f34c681400b0c20a
476
246
False
What is another name for the Eastern Roman Empire?
56fb3441f34c681400b0c20b
Byzantine Empire
366
False
What Eastern Roman Emperor reconquered Italy?
56fb3441f34c681400b0c20c
Justinian
806
False
When did Justinian's reign end?
56fb3441f34c681400b0c20d
565
824
False
By the end of the 5th century the western section of the empire was divided into smaller political units, ruled by the tribes that had invaded in the early part of the century. The deposition of the last emperor of the west, Romulus Augustus, in 476 has traditionally marked the end of the Western Roman Empire.[E] The Eastern Roman Empire, often referred to as the Byzantine Empire after the fall of its western counterpart, had little ability to assert control over the lost western territories. The Byzantine emperors maintained a claim over the territory, but none of the new kings in the west dared to elevate himself to the position of emperor of the west, Byzantine control of most of the Western Empire could not be sustained; the reconquest of the Italian peninsula and Mediterranean periphery by Justinian (r. 527–565) was the sole, and temporary, exception.
When did Aspar die?
56fb34c7f34c681400b0c213
Aspar
545
False
What year saw the death of Gundobad?
56fb34c7f34c681400b0c214
516
595
False
What notable Roman figure died in 408?
56fb34c7f34c681400b0c215
Stilicho
526
False
The loss of what led to the differentiation between the Western Roman Empire and the new kingdoms?
56fb34c7f34c681400b0c216
tax revenue
1333
False
Rather than taxes, what did the new kingdoms use to support their armies?
56fb34c7f34c681400b0c217
land or rents
1482
False
The political structure of Western Europe changed with the end of the united Roman Empire. Although the movements of peoples during this period are usually described as "invasions", they were not just military expeditions but migrations of entire peoples into the empire. Such movements were aided by the refusal of the western Roman elites to support the army or pay the taxes that would have allowed the military to suppress the migration. The emperors of the 5th century were often controlled by military strongmen such as Stilicho (d. 408), Aspar (d. 471), Ricimer (d. 472), or Gundobad (d. 516), who were partly or fully of non-Roman background. When the line of western emperors ceased, many of the kings who replaced them were from the same background. Intermarriage between the new kings and the Roman elites was common. This led to a fusion of Roman culture with the customs of the invading tribes, including the popular assemblies that allowed free male tribal members more say in political matters than was common in the Roman state. Material artefacts left by the Romans and the invaders are often similar, and tribal items were often modelled on Roman objects. Much of the scholarly and written culture of the new kingdoms was also based on Roman intellectual traditions. An important difference was the gradual loss of tax revenue by the new polities. Many of the new political entities no longer supported their armies through taxes, instead relying on granting them land or rents. This meant there was less need for large tax revenues and so the taxation systems decayed. Warfare was common between and within the kingdoms. Slavery declined as the supply weakened, and society became more rural.[F]
In what century did the Ostrogoths arrive in Italy?
56fb353df34c681400b0c21d
5th
171
False
What Ostrogothic leader led his people into Italy?
56fb353df34c681400b0c21e
Theoderic
189
False
Who destroyed the Burgundian kingdom in 436?
56fb353df34c681400b0c21f
the Huns
426
False
In what part of Europe did the Burgundians settle?
56fb353df34c681400b0c220
Gaul
376
False
Who was the first notable king of the Franks?
56fb353df34c681400b0c221
Childeric
754
False
Between the 5th and 8th centuries, new peoples and individuals filled the political void left by Roman centralised government. The Ostrogoths settled in Italy in the late 5th century under Theoderic (d. 526) and set up a kingdom marked by its co-operation between the Italians and the Ostrogoths, at least until the last years of Theodoric's reign. The Burgundians settled in Gaul, and after an earlier realm was destroyed by the Huns in 436 formed a new kingdom in the 440s. Between today's Geneva and Lyon, it grew to become the realm of Burgundy in the late 5th and early 6th centuries. In northern Gaul, the Franks and Britons set up small polities. The Frankish Kingdom was centred in north-eastern Gaul, and the first king of whom much is known is Childeric (d. 481).[G] Under Childeric's son Clovis (r. 509–511), the Frankish kingdom expanded and converted to Christianity. Britons, related to the natives of Britannia — modern-day Great Britain — settled in what is now Brittany.[H] Other monarchies were established by the Visigoths in Iberia, the Suevi in north-western Iberia, and the Vandals in North Africa. In the 6th century, the Lombards settled in northern Italy, replacing the Ostrogothic kingdom with a grouping of duchies that occasionally selected a king to rule over them all. By the late 6th century this arrangement had been replaced by a permanent monarchy.
People of what ethnicity settled in the Balkan Peninsula?
56fb61e68ddada1400cd63af
Slavic
233
False
In what geographic region did most of the invaders settle in Gaul?
56fb61e78ddada1400cd63b0
north-east
198
False
What is the collective name for languages derived from Latin?
56fb61e78ddada1400cd63b1
Romance languages
511
False
What language was spoken in the Byzantine Empire?
56fb61e78ddada1400cd63b2
Greek
597
False
What languages were spoken by the Slavs?
56fb61e78ddada1400cd63b3
Slavonic
688
False
The invasions brought new ethnic groups to Europe, although some regions received a larger influx of new peoples than others. In Gaul for instance, the invaders settled much more extensively in the north-east than in the south-west. Slavic peoples settled in Central and Eastern Europe and the Balkan Peninsula. The settlement of peoples was accompanied by changes in languages. The Latin of the Western Roman Empire was gradually replaced by languages based on, but distinct from, Latin, collectively known as Romance languages. These changes from Latin to the new languages took many centuries. Greek remained the language of the Byzantine Empire, but the migrations of the Slavs added Slavonic languages to Eastern Europe.
In what century did the economic revival in the Eastern Roman Empire end?
56fb623d8ddada1400cd63b9
7th
163
False
In what century was there peace with one of Rome's traditional enemies?
56fb623d8ddada1400cd63ba
5th
351
False
Where did most of the invasion in the Eastern Roman Empire take place?
56fb623d8ddada1400cd63bb
the Balkans
258
False
What year saw the completion of the Theodosian Code?
56fb623d8ddada1400cd63bc
438
685
False
Who was Emperor when the Corpus Juris Civilis was compiled?
56fb623d8ddada1400cd63bd
Justinian
704
False
As Western Europe witnessed the formation of new kingdoms, the Eastern Roman Empire remained intact and experienced an economic revival that lasted into the early 7th century. There were fewer invasions of the eastern section of the empire; most occurred in the Balkans. Peace with Persia, the traditional enemy of Rome, lasted throughout most of the 5th century. The Eastern Empire was marked by closer relations between the political state and Christian Church, with doctrinal matters assuming an importance in eastern politics that they did not have in Western Europe. Legal developments included the codification of Roman law; the first effort—the Theodosian Code—was completed in 438. Under Emperor Justinian (r. 527–565), another compilation took place—the Corpus Juris Civilis. Justinian also oversaw the construction of the Hagia Sophia in Constantinople and the reconquest of North Africa from the Vandals and Italy from the Ostrogoths, under Belisarius (d. 565). The conquest of Italy was not complete, as a deadly outbreak of plague in 542 led to the rest of Justinian's reign concentrating on defensive measures rather than further conquests. At the emperor's death, the Byzantines had control of most of Italy, North Africa, and a small foothold in southern Spain. Justinian's reconquests have been criticised by historians for overextending his realm and setting the stage for the Muslim conquests, but many of the difficulties faced by Justinian's successors were due not just to over-taxation to pay for his wars but to the essentially civilian nature of the empire, which made raising troops difficult.
Who defeated the Eastern Roman Empire near Adrianople in 551?
56fb62a98ddada1400cd63c3
Slavic tribes
168
False
What tribe received tribute from the Eastern Roman emperors in the 6th century?
56fb62a98ddada1400cd63c4
the Avars
281
False
Near what river were the Avars originally based?
56fb62a98ddada1400cd63c5
the Danube
344
False
During the reign of what Emperor did the Persians occupy Egypt?
56fb62a98ddada1400cd63c6
Heraclius
828
False
In what year did the reign of Maurice end?
56fb62a98ddada1400cd63c7
602
642
False
In the Eastern Empire the slow infiltration of the Balkans by the Slavs added a further difficulty for Justinian's successors. It began gradually, but by the late 540s Slavic tribes were in Thrace and Illyrium, and had defeated an imperial army near Adrianople in 551. In the 560s the Avars began to expand from their base on the north bank of the Danube; by the end of the 6th century they were the dominant power in Central Europe and routinely able to force the eastern emperors to pay tribute. They remained a strong power until 796. An additional problem to face the empire came as a result of the involvement of Emperor Maurice (r. 582–602) in Persian politics when he intervened in a succession dispute. This led to a period of peace, but when Maurice was overthrown, the Persians invaded and during the reign of Emperor Heraclius (r. 610–641) controlled large chunks of the empire, including Egypt, Syria, and Asia Minor, until Heraclius' successful counterattack. In 628 the empire secured a peace treaty and recovered all of its lost territories.
What author would Jerome rather read than the Bible?
56fb630db28b3419009f1ce4
Cicero
405
False
In what year did Jerome die?
56fb630db28b3419009f1ce5
420
340
False
In what century did Gregory of Tours live?
56fb630db28b3419009f1ce6
6th
435
False
Along with art, how was religious instruction commonly received in the late 6th century?
56fb630db28b3419009f1ce7
music
682
False
When was the death of Sidonius Apollinaris?
56fb630db28b3419009f1ce8
489
908
False
In Western Europe, some of the older Roman elite families died out while others became more involved with Church than secular affairs. Values attached to Latin scholarship and education mostly disappeared, and while literacy remained important, it became a practical skill rather than a sign of elite status. In the 4th century, Jerome (d. 420) dreamed that God rebuked him for spending more time reading Cicero than the Bible. By the 6th century, Gregory of Tours (d. 594) had a similar dream, but instead of being chastised for reading Cicero, he was chastised for learning shorthand. By the late 6th century, the principal means of religious instruction in the Church had become music and art rather than the book. Most intellectual efforts went towards imitating classical scholarship, but some original works were created, along with now-lost oral compositions. The writings of Sidonius Apollinaris (d. 489), Cassiodorus (d. c. 585), and Boethius (d. c. 525) were typical of the age.
What was the focus of aristocratic culture during this period?
56fb6383b28b3419009f1cee
great feasts
73
False
Along with gold, what luxury was present on the clothes of the elite?
56fb6383b28b3419009f1cef
jewels
186
False
Along with loyalty and honor, what virtue did the elite value?
56fb6383b28b3419009f1cf0
courage
381
False
In what society did women have status as abbesses?
56fb6383b28b3419009f1cf1
Anglo-Saxon
832
False
In what country did Gregory of Tours live?
56fb6383b28b3419009f1cf2
Merovingian Gaul
552
False
Changes also took place among laymen, as aristocratic culture focused on great feasts held in halls rather than on literary pursuits. Clothing for the elites was richly embellished with jewels and gold. Lords and kings supported entourages of fighters who formed the backbone of the military forces.[I] Family ties within the elites were important, as were the virtues of loyalty, courage, and honour. These ties led to the prevalence of the feud in aristocratic society, examples of which included those related by Gregory of Tours that took place in Merovingian Gaul. Most feuds seem to have ended quickly with the payment of some sort of compensation. Women took part in aristocratic society mainly in their roles as wives and mothers of men, with the role of mother of a ruler being especially prominent in Merovingian Gaul. In Anglo-Saxon society the lack of many child rulers meant a lesser role for women as queen mothers, but this was compensated for by the increased role played by abbesses of monasteries. Only in Italy does it appear that women were always considered under the protection and control of a male relative.
How many people might live in a large peasant settlement?
56fb6409b28b3419009f1cf8
700
766
False
What was a way in which a free peasant might become an aristocrat?
56fb6409b28b3419009f1cf9
military service
1216
False
In what century did written records of peasant life begin to appear?
56fb6409b28b3419009f1cfa
9th
218
False
Along with aristocratic writers, where do contemporary written descriptions of peasants come from?
56fb6409b28b3419009f1cfb
law codes
291
False
What field produces most of the finding about peasants from this era?
56fb6409b28b3419009f1cfc
archaeology
128
False
Peasant society is much less documented than the nobility. Most of the surviving information available to historians comes from archaeology; few detailed written records documenting peasant life remain from before the 9th century. Most the descriptions of the lower classes come from either law codes or writers from the upper classes. Landholding patterns in the West were not uniform; some areas had greatly fragmented landholding patterns, but in other areas large contiguous blocks of land were the norm. These differences allowed for a wide variety of peasant societies, some dominated by aristocratic landholders and others having a great deal of autonomy. Land settlement also varied greatly. Some peasants lived in large settlements that numbered as many as 700 inhabitants. Others lived in small groups of a few families and still others lived on isolated farms spread over the countryside. There were also areas where the pattern was a mix of two or more of those systems. Unlike in the late Roman period, there was no sharp break between the legal status of the free peasant and the aristocrat, and it was possible for a free peasant's family to rise into the aristocracy over several generations through military service to a powerful lord.
About how many people lived in Rome at the end of the 500s?
56fb645ab28b3419009f1d02
30,000
233
False
What new use was found for Roman temples?
56fb645ab28b3419009f1d03
Christian churches
305
False
What group was notably persecuted after the Roman Empire converted to Christianity?
56fb645ab28b3419009f1d04
Jews
642
False
Roman city life and culture changed greatly in the early Middle Ages. Although Italian cities remained inhabited, they contracted significantly in size. Rome, for instance, shrank from a population of hundreds of thousands to around 30,000 by the end of the 6th century. Roman temples were converted into Christian churches and city walls remained in use. In Northern Europe, cities also shrank, while civic monuments and other public buildings were raided for building materials. The establishment of new kingdoms often meant some growth for the towns chosen as capitals. Although there had been Jewish communities in many Roman cities, the Jews suffered periods of persecution after the conversion of the empire to Christianity. Officially they were tolerated, if subject to conversion efforts, and at times were even encouraged to settle in new areas.
What was the ethnicity of a leader who converted to Judaism in this era?
56fb6507b28b3419009f1d08
Arab
169
False
What was the dominant religion of Persia before Islam?
56fb6507b28b3419009f1d09
Zoroastrianism
273
False
In what yer did Muhammad die?
56fb6507b28b3419009f1d0a
632
468
False
In what period did Islamic armies conquer Syria?
56fb6507b28b3419009f1d0b
634–635
578
False
In what century did Muslims conquer North Africa?
56fb6507b28b3419009f1d0c
7th
671
False
Religious beliefs in the Eastern Empire and Persia were in flux during the late 6th and early 7th centuries. Judaism was an active proselytising faith, and at least one Arab political leader converted to it.[J] Christianity had active missions competing with the Persians' Zoroastrianism in seeking converts, especially among residents of the Arabian Peninsula. All these strands came together with the emergence of Islam in Arabia during the lifetime of Muhammad (d. 632). After his death, Islamic forces conquered much of the Eastern Empire and Persia, starting with Syria in 634–635 and reaching Egypt in 640–641, Persia between 637 and 642, North Africa in the later 7th century, and the Iberian Peninsula in 711. By 714, Islamic forces controlled much of the peninsula in a region they called Al-Andalus.
In what year did the Battle of Poitiers take place?
56fb6570b28b3419009f1d12
732
122
False
What Islamic dynasty followed the Umayyad?
56fb6570b28b3419009f1d13
Abbasid
311
False
What was the capital of the Abbasid state?
56fb6570b28b3419009f1d14
Baghdad
364
False
What dynasty ruled Egypt in this period?
56fb6570b28b3419009f1d15
Tulunids
578
False
What group conquered southern France from Muslim forces?
56fb6570b28b3419009f1d16
the Franks
170
False
The Islamic conquests reached their peak in the mid-8th century. The defeat of Muslim forces at the Battle of Poitiers in 732 led to the reconquest of southern France by the Franks, but the main reason for the halt of Islamic growth in Europe was the overthrow of the Umayyad dynasty and its replacement by the Abbasid dynasty. The Abbasids moved their capital to Baghdad and were more concerned with the Middle East than Europe, losing control of sections of the Muslim lands. Umayyad descendants took over the Iberian Peninsula, the Aghlabids controlled North Africa, and the Tulunids became rulers of Egypt. By the middle of the 8th century, new trading patterns were emerging in the Mediterranean; trade between the Franks and the Arabs replaced the old Roman patterns of trade. Franks traded timber, furs, swords and slaves in return for silks and other fabrics, spices, and precious metals from the Arabs.
Along with Naples, what city still traded African goods in the 7th century?
56fb6623b28b3419009f1d1c
Rome
254
False
What event led to African goods no longer being traded in Western Europe by the end of the 7th century?
56fb6623b28b3419009f1d1d
Muslim conquests
325
False
What non-local goods have archaeologists typically found in Britain of this era?
56fb6623b28b3419009f1d1e
luxury goods
730
False
The migrations and invasions of the 4th and 5th centuries disrupted trade networks around the Mediterranean. African goods stopped being imported into Europe, first disappearing from the interior and by the 7th century found only in a few cities such as Rome or Naples. By the end of the 7th century, under the impact of the Muslim conquests, African products were no longer found in Western Europe. The replacement of goods from long-range trade with local products was a trend throughout the old Roman lands that happened in the Early Middle Ages. This was especially marked in the lands that did not lie on the Mediterranean, such as northern Gaul or Britain. Non-local goods appearing in the archaeological record are usually luxury goods. In the northern parts of Europe, not only were the trade networks local, but the goods carried were simple, with little pottery or other complex products. Around the Mediterranean, pottery remained prevalent and appears to have been traded over medium-range networks, not just produced locally.
During what century did gold coinage cease?
56fb6673b28b3419009f1d22
7th
156
False
Coinage from what metal replaced gold coinage?
56fb6673b28b3419009f1d23
silver
193
False
What was the Anglo-Saxon silver coin called?
56fb6673b28b3419009f1d24
penny
309
False
What was another name for the denarius?
56fb6673b28b3419009f1d25
denier
258
False
In what part of Europe were gold coins still minted?
56fb6673b28b3419009f1d26
Southern Europe
482
False
The various Germanic states in the west all had coinages that imitated existing Roman and Byzantine forms. Gold continued to be minted until the end of the 7th century, when it was replaced by silver coins. The basic Frankish silver coin was the denarius or denier, while the Anglo-Saxon version was called a penny. From these areas, the denier or penny spread throughout Europe during the centuries from 700 to 1000. Copper or bronze coins were not struck, nor were gold except in Southern Europe. No silver coins denominated in multiple units were minted.
What language was used by the eastern church?
56fb66c9b28b3419009f1d2c
Greek
315
False
What language did the western church use?
56fb66c9b28b3419009f1d2d
Latin
344
False
When did the eastern and western churches split?
56fb66c9b28b3419009f1d2e
1054
647
False
Over what issue did the eastern and western churches split?
56fb66c9b28b3419009f1d2f
papal supremacy
719
False
What was the eastern church subsequently known as?
56fb66c9b28b3419009f1d30
the Orthodox Church
901
False
Christianity was a major unifying factor between Eastern and Western Europe before the Arab conquests, but the conquest of North Africa sundered maritime connections between those areas. Increasingly the Byzantine Church differed in language, practices, and liturgy from the western Church. The eastern church used Greek instead of the western Latin. Theological and political differences emerged, and by the early and middle 8th century issues such as iconoclasm, clerical marriage, and state control of the church had widened to the extent that the cultural and religious differences were greater than the similarities. The formal break came in 1054, when the papacy and the patriarchy of Constantinople clashed over papal supremacy and excommunicated each other, which led to the division of Christianity into two churches—the western branch became the Roman Catholic Church and the eastern branch the Orthodox Church.
When did Gregory the Great become pope?
56fb673d8ddada1400cd63cd
590
442
False
About how many of Gregory's letters were concerned with Constantinople or Italy?
56fb673d8ddada1400cd63ce
850
484
False
In what region of Western Europe did the pope have influence?
56fb673d8ddada1400cd63cf
Britain
638
False
When did the Gregorian mission travel to Britain?
56fb673d8ddada1400cd63d0
597
695
False
When did Columbanus die?
56fb673d8ddada1400cd63d1
615
959
False
The ecclesiastical structure of the Roman Empire survived the movements and invasions in the west mostly intact, but the papacy was little regarded, and few of the western bishops looked to the bishop of Rome for religious or political leadership. Many of the popes prior to 750 were more concerned with Byzantine affairs and eastern theological controversies. The register, or archived copies of the letters, of Pope Gregory the Great (pope 590–604) survived, and of those more than 850 letters, the vast majority were concerned with affairs in Italy or Constantinople. The only part of Western Europe where the papacy had influence was Britain, where Gregory had sent the Gregorian mission in 597 to convert the Anglo-Saxons to Christianity. Irish missionaries were most active in Western Europe between the 5th and the 7th centuries, going first to England and Scotland and then on to the continent. Under such monks as Columba (d. 597) and Columbanus (d. 615), they founded monasteries, taught in Latin and Greek, and authored secular and religious works.
What religious lifestyle arose in the Early Middle Ages?
56fb67c88ddada1400cd63d7
monasticism
44
False
Who was the pioneer of cenobitism?
56fb67c88ddada1400cd63d8
Pachomius
347
False
Who composed the Benedictine Rule?
56fb67c88ddada1400cd63d9
Benedict of Nursia
530
False
From what part of England did Bede come?
56fb67c88ddada1400cd63da
northern
1350
False
What was the title of the leader of a monastery?
56fb67c88ddada1400cd63db
abbot
727
False
The Early Middle Ages witnessed the rise of monasticism in the West. The shape of European monasticism was determined by traditions and ideas that originated with the Desert Fathers of Egypt and Syria. Most European monasteries were of the type that focuses on community experience of the spiritual life, called cenobitism, which was pioneered by Pachomius (d. 348) in the 4th century. Monastic ideals spread from Egypt to Western Europe in the 5th and 6th centuries through hagiographical literature such as the Life of Anthony. Benedict of Nursia (d. 547) wrote the Benedictine Rule for Western monasticism during the 6th century, detailing the administrative and spiritual responsibilities of a community of monks led by an abbot. Monks and monasteries had a deep effect on the religious and political life of the Early Middle Ages, in various cases acting as land trusts for powerful families, centres of propaganda and royal support in newly conquered regions, and bases for missions and proselytisation. They were the main and sometimes only outposts of education and literacy in a region. Many of the surviving manuscripts of the Latin classics were copied in monasteries in the Early Middle Ages. Monks were also the authors of new works, including history, theology, and other subjects, written by authors such as Bede (d. 735), a native of northern England who wrote in the late 7th and early 8th centuries.
Along with Austrasia and Neustria, what kingdom was originally part of the Frankish kingdom?
56fb68ac8ddada1400cd63e1
Burgundy
90
False
What dynasty ruled Neustria?
56fb68ac8ddada1400cd63e2
Merovingian
158
False
From whom did the rulers of the Merovingian dynasty trace their ancestry?
56fb68ac8ddada1400cd63e3
Clovis
203
False
What was the title of Pippin?
56fb68ac8ddada1400cd63e4
Mayor of the Palace
342
False
What leader was victorious at the Battle of Poitiers?
56fb68ac8ddada1400cd63e5
Charles Martel
533
False
The Frankish kingdom in northern Gaul split into kingdoms called Austrasia, Neustria, and Burgundy during the 6th and 7th centuries, all of them ruled by the Merovingian dynasty, who were descended from Clovis. The 7th century was a tumultuous period of wars between Austrasia and Neustria. Such warfare was exploited by Pippin (d. 640), the Mayor of the Palace for Austrasia who became the power behind the Austrasian throne. Later members of his family inherited the office, acting as advisers and regents. One of his descendants, Charles Martel (d. 741), won the Battle of Poitiers in 732, halting the advance of Muslim armies across the Pyrenees.[K] Great Britain was divided into small states dominated by the kingdoms of Northumbria, Mercia, Wessex, and East Anglia, which were descended from the Anglo-Saxon invaders. Smaller kingdoms in present-day Wales and Scotland were still under the control of the native Britons and Picts. Ireland was divided into even smaller political units, usually known as tribal kingdoms, under the control of kings. There were perhaps as many as 150 local kings in Ireland, of varying importance.
What dynasty consisted of descendants of Charles Martel?
56fb691a8ddada1400cd63eb
Carolingian
4
False
In what year did the Carolingians take over Neustria?
56fb691a8ddada1400cd63ec
753
151
False
Who led the coup that gained control over Austrasia?
56fb691a8ddada1400cd63ed
Pippin III
162
False
When did Stephen II become pope?
56fb691a8ddada1400cd63ee
752
302
False
Along with Charles, who was the son of Pippin?
56fb691a8ddada1400cd63ef
Carloman
630
False
The Carolingian dynasty, as the successors to Charles Martel are known, officially took control of the kingdoms of Austrasia and Neustria in a coup of 753 led by Pippin III (r. 752–768). A contemporary chronicle claims that Pippin sought, and gained, authority for this coup from Pope Stephen II (pope 752–757). Pippin's takeover was reinforced with propaganda that portrayed the Merovingians as inept or cruel rulers, exalted the accomplishments of Charles Martel, and circulated stories of the family's great piety. At the time of his death in 768, Pippin left his kingdom in the hands of his two sons, Charles (r. 768–814) and Carloman (r. 768–771). When Carloman died of natural causes, Charles blocked the succession of Carloman's young son and installed himself as the king of the united Austrasia and Neustria. Charles, more often known as Charles the Great or Charlemagne, embarked upon a programme of systematic expansion in 774 that unified a large portion of Europe, eventually controlling modern-day France, northern Italy, and Saxony. In the wars that lasted beyond 800, he rewarded allies with war booty and command over parcels of land. In 774, Charlemagne conquered the Lombards, which freed the papacy from the fear of Lombard conquest and marked the beginnings of the Papal States.[L]
On what date did Charlemagne assume the imperial title?
56fb69e38ddada1400cd63f5
Christmas Day 800
44
False
Of what class were most inhabitants of the Carolingian Empire?
56fb69e38ddada1400cd63f6
peasants
703
False
About how many counts existed in the Carolingian Empire?
56fb69e38ddada1400cd63f7
300
1020
False
In what settlements did most inhabitants of the Carolingian Empire live?
56fb69e38ddada1400cd63f8
small farms
723
False
Along with the British Isles, with what land did the Carolingians trade?
56fb69e38ddada1400cd63f9
Scandinavia
805
False
The coronation of Charlemagne as emperor on Christmas Day 800 is regarded as a turning point in medieval history, marking a return of the Western Roman Empire, since the new emperor ruled over much of the area previously controlled by the western emperors. It also marks a change in Charlemagne's relationship with the Byzantine Empire, as the assumption of the imperial title by the Carolingians asserted their equivalence to the Byzantine state. There were several differences between the newly established Carolingian Empire and both the older Western Roman Empire and the concurrent Byzantine Empire. The Frankish lands were rural in character, with only a few small cities. Most of the people were peasants settled on small farms. Little trade existed and much of that was with the British Isles and Scandinavia, in contrast to the older Roman Empire with its trading networks centred on the Mediterranean. The empire was administered by an itinerant court that travelled with the emperor, as well as approximately 300 imperial officials called counts, who administered the counties the empire had been divided into. Clergy and local bishops served as officials, as well as the imperial officials called missi dominici, who served as roving inspectors and troubleshooters.
Where was Charlemagne's court based?
56fb72668ddada1400cd63ff
Aachen
23
False
What is the name of the cultural revival associated with Charlemagne?
56fb72668ddada1400cd6400
Carolingian Renaissance
99
False
Of what ethnicity was Alcuin?
56fb72668ddada1400cd6401
English
259
False
In what year did Alcuin die?
56fb72668ddada1400cd6402
804
283
False
What was the Latin of Charlemagne's era later known as?
56fb72668ddada1400cd6403
Medieval Latin
1287
False
Charlemagne's court in Aachen was the centre of the cultural revival sometimes referred to as the "Carolingian Renaissance". Literacy increased, as did development in the arts, architecture and jurisprudence, as well as liturgical and scriptural studies. The English monk Alcuin (d. 804) was invited to Aachen and brought the education available in the monasteries of Northumbria. Charlemagne's chancery—or writing office—made use of a new script today known as Carolingian minuscule,[M] allowing a common writing style that advanced communication across much of Europe. Charlemagne sponsored changes in church liturgy, imposing the Roman form of church service on his domains, as well as the Gregorian chant in liturgical music for the churches. An important activity for scholars during this period was the copying, correcting, and dissemination of basic works on religious and secular topics, with the aim of encouraging learning. New works on religious topics and schoolbooks were also produced. Grammarians of the period modified the Latin language, changing it from the Classical Latin of the Roman Empire into a more flexible form to fit the needs of the church and government. By the reign of Charlemagne, the language had so diverged from the classical that it was later called Medieval Latin.
Who was Charlemagne's only living son in 813?
56fb72beb28b3419009f1d36
Louis the Pious
143
False
How long did Louis the Pious reign?
56fb72beb28b3419009f1d37
26 years
286
False
When did the reign of Louis the Pious end?
56fb72beb28b3419009f1d38
840
167
False
Who ruled Italy after Louis the Pious?
56fb72beb28b3419009f1d39
Lothair I
522
False
Who was the middle son of Louis the Pious?
56fb72beb28b3419009f1d3a
Louis the German
839
False
Charlemagne planned to continue the Frankish tradition of dividing his kingdom between all his heirs, but was unable to do so as only one son, Louis the Pious (r. 814–840), was still alive by 813. Just before Charlemagne died in 814, he crowned Louis as his successor. Louis's reign of 26 years was marked by numerous divisions of the empire among his sons and, after 829, civil wars between various alliances of father and sons over the control of various parts of the empire. Eventually, Louis recognised his eldest son Lothair I (d. 855) as emperor and gave him Italy. Louis divided the rest of the empire between Lothair and Charles the Bald (d. 877), his youngest son. Lothair took East Francia, comprising both banks of the Rhine and eastwards, leaving Charles West Francia with the empire to the west of the Rhineland and the Alps. Louis the German (d. 876), the middle child, who had been rebellious to the last, was allowed to keep Bavaria under the suzerainty of his elder brother. The division was disputed. Pepin II of Aquitaine (d. after 864), the emperor's grandson, rebelled in a contest for Aquitaine, while Louis the German tried to annex all of East Francia. Louis the Pious died in 840, with the empire still in chaos.
How many years did the civil war after the death of Louis the Pious last?
56fb733cb28b3419009f1d40
three
2
False
Between what two rivers did Lothair receive a kingdom?
56fb733cb28b3419009f1d41
the Rhine and Rhone
92
False
In what modern country were Louis the German's lands?
56fb733cb28b3419009f1d42
Germany
292
False
In what modern country were Charles the Bald's lands?
56fb733cb28b3419009f1d43
France
385
False
When did Louis the Child die?
56fb733cb28b3419009f1d44
911
727
False
A three-year civil war followed his death. By the Treaty of Verdun (843), a kingdom between the Rhine and Rhone rivers was created for Lothair to go with his lands in Italy, and his imperial title was recognised. Louis the German was in control of Bavaria and the eastern lands in modern-day Germany. Charles the Bald received the western Frankish lands, comprising most of modern-day France. Charlemagne's grandsons and great-grandsons divided their kingdoms between their descendants, eventually causing all internal cohesion to be lost.[N] In 987 the Carolingian dynasty was replaced in the western lands, with the crowning of Hugh Capet (r. 987–996) as king.[O][P] In the eastern lands the dynasty had died out earlier, in 911, with the death of Louis the Child, and the selection of the unrelated Conrad I (r. 911–918) as king.
What group settled in Iceland during this period?
56fb73b5b28b3419009f1d4a
the Vikings
158
False
Who was king of the Franks in 899?
56fb73b5b28b3419009f1d4b
Charles the Simple
336
False
In what region of modern-day France did the Vikings settle?
56fb73b5b28b3419009f1d4c
Normandy
393
False
What group was defeated at the Battle of Lechfeld?
56fb73b5b28b3419009f1d4d
Magyar
501
False
In what year did the Battle of Lechfeld occur?
56fb73b5b28b3419009f1d4e
955
572
False
The breakup of the Carolingian Empire was accompanied by invasions, migrations, and raids by external foes. The Atlantic and northern shores were harassed by the Vikings, who also raided the British Isles and settled there as well as in Iceland. In 911, the Viking chieftain Rollo (d. c. 931) received permission from the Frankish King Charles the Simple (r. 898–922) to settle in what became Normandy.[Q] The eastern parts of the Frankish kingdoms, especially Germany and Italy, were under continual Magyar assault until the invader's defeat at the Battle of Lechfeld in 955. The breakup of the Abbasid dynasty meant that the Islamic world fragmented into smaller political states, some of which began expanding into Italy and Sicily, as well as over the Pyrenees into the southern parts of the Frankish kingdoms.
When did Alfred the Great begin his reign?
56fb741bb28b3419009f1d54
871
143
False
What was the kingdom of Kenneth MacAlpin?
56fb741bb28b3419009f1d55
the Kingdom of Alba
551
False
Of what dynasty was Otto I a member?
56fb741bb28b3419009f1d56
Ottonian dynasty
603
False
What group did Otto I defeat?
56fb741bb28b3419009f1d57
Magyars
691
False
In what year did Otto I become Holy Roman Emperor?
56fb741bb28b3419009f1d58
962
744
False
Efforts by local kings to fight the invaders led to the formation of new political entities. In Anglo-Saxon England, King Alfred the Great (r. 871–899) came to an agreement with the Viking invaders in the late 9th century, resulting in Danish settlements in Northumbria, Mercia, and parts of East Anglia. By the middle of the 10th century, Alfred's successors had conquered Northumbria, and restored English control over most of the southern part of Great Britain. In northern Britain, Kenneth MacAlpin (d. c. 860) united the Picts and the Scots into the Kingdom of Alba. In the early 10th century, the Ottonian dynasty had established itself in Germany, and was engaged in driving back the Magyars. Its efforts culminated in the coronation in 962 of Otto I (r. 936–973) as Holy Roman Emperor. In 972, he secured recognition of his title by the Byzantine Empire, which he sealed with the marriage of his son Otto II (r. 967–983) to Theophanu (d. 991), daughter of an earlier Byzantine Emperor Romanos II (r. 959–963). By the late 10th century Italy had been drawn into the Ottonian sphere after a period of instability; Otto III (r. 996–1002) spent much of his later reign in the kingdom. The western Frankish kingdom was more fragmented, and although kings remained nominally in charge, much of the political power devolved to the local lords.
Along with Sweden and Norway, what country saw missionary activity in the 9th and 10th centuries?
56fb7490b28b3419009f1d5e
Denmark
125
False
Along with 860, in what year did Swedish raiders attempt to conquer Constantinople?
56fb7490b28b3419009f1d5f
907
560
False
Along with the kingdom of León, what Spanish kingdom was established during this period?
56fb7490b28b3419009f1d60
Asturias
737
False
Along with Iceland, Normandy, Ireland and England, what other area did Scandinavians colonize during this period?
56fb7490b28b3419009f1d61
Russia
409
False
Missionary efforts to Scandinavia during the 9th and 10th centuries helped strengthen the growth of kingdoms such as Sweden, Denmark, and Norway, which gained power and territory. Some kings converted to Christianity, although not all by 1000. Scandinavians also expanded and colonised throughout Europe. Besides the settlements in Ireland, England, and Normandy, further settlement took place in what became Russia and in Iceland. Swedish traders and raiders ranged down the rivers of the Russian steppe, and even attempted to seize Constantinople in 860 and 907. Christian Spain, initially driven into a small section of the peninsula in the north, expanded slowly south during the 9th and 10th centuries, establishing the kingdoms of Asturias and León.
Of what dynasty was Leo VI a member?
56fb74e58ddada1400cd6409
Macedonian
173
False
During what period did Constantine VII reign?
56fb74e58ddada1400cd640a
913–959
148
False
When did Basil I's rule begin?
56fb74e58ddada1400cd640b
867
76
False
During what century did John Geometres flourish?
56fb74e58ddada1400cd640c
10th
615
False
In approximately what year was Bulgaria founded?
56fb74e58ddada1400cd640d
680
1062
False
In Eastern Europe, Byzantium revived its fortunes under Emperor Basil I (r. 867–886) and his successors Leo VI (r. 886–912) and Constantine VII (r. 913–959), members of the Macedonian dynasty. Commerce revived and the emperors oversaw the extension of a uniform administration to all the provinces. The military was reorganised, which allowed the emperors John I (r. 969–976) and Basil II (r. 976–1025) to expand the frontiers of the empire on all fronts. The imperial court was the centre of a revival of classical learning, a process known as the Macedonian Renaissance. Writers such as John Geometres (fl. early 10th century) composed new hymns, poems, and other works. Missionary efforts by both eastern and western clergy resulted in the conversion of the Moravians, Bulgars, Bohemians, Poles, Magyars, and Slavic inhabitants of the Kievan Rus'. These conversions contributed to the founding of political states in the lands of those peoples—the states of Moravia, Bulgaria, Bohemia, Poland, Hungary, and the Kievan Rus'. Bulgaria, which was founded around 680, at its height reached from Budapest to the Black Sea and from the Dnieper River in modern Ukraine to the Adriatic Sea. By 1018, the last Bulgarian nobles had surrendered to the Byzantine Empire.
When were the Constantinian basilicas built?
56fb7572b28b3419009f1d66
4th century
86
False
In what part of the church was the monumental entrance typically placed?
56fb7572b28b3419009f1d67
the west end
554
False
What type of architecture did the Carolingian Empire bring back into use?
56fb7572b28b3419009f1d68
the basilica
259
False
What is a notable architectural feature of the basilica?
56fb7572b28b3419009f1d69
transept
338
False
How is the transept positioned in relation to the nave?
56fb7572b28b3419009f1d6a
perpendicular
398
False
Few large stone buildings were constructed between the Constantinian basilicas of the 4th century and the 8th century, although many smaller ones were built during the 6th and 7th centuries. By the beginning of the 8th century, the Carolingian Empire revived the basilica form of architecture. One feature of the basilica is the use of a transept, or the "arms" of a cross-shaped building that are perpendicular to the long nave. Other new features of religious architecture include the crossing tower and a monumental entrance to the church, usually at the west end of the building.
What was the primary military arm of Anglo-Saxon armies?
56fb76b08ddada1400cd6413
infantry
422
False
What military arm did the Visigoths have a large amount of?
56fb76b08ddada1400cd6414
cavalry
522
False
What Scythian weapon was used during this era?
56fb76b08ddada1400cd6415
composite bow
952
False
What weapon replaced the Scythian composite bow?
56fb76b08ddada1400cd6416
Hunnic composite bow
885
False
Along with lamellar armor, what armor replaced scale armor?
56fb76b08ddada1400cd6417
mail
1075
False
During the later Roman Empire, the principal military developments were attempts to create an effective cavalry force as well as the continued development of highly specialised types of troops. The creation of heavily armoured cataphract-type soldiers as cavalry was an important feature of the 5th-century Roman military. The various invading tribes had differing emphasis on types of soldiers—ranging from the primarily infantry Anglo-Saxon invaders of Britain to the Vandals and Visigoths, who had a high proportion of cavalry in their armies. During the early invasion period, the stirrup had not been introduced into warfare, which limited the usefulness of cavalry as shock troops because it was not possible to put the full force of the horse and rider behind blows struck by the rider. The greatest change in military affairs during the invasion period was the adoption of the Hunnic composite bow in place of the earlier, and weaker, Scythian composite bow. Another development was the increasing use of longswords and the progressive replacement of scale armour by mail armour and lamellar armour.
Along with carved ivories, what religious works of the Early Middle Ages were common?
56fb76ebb28b3419009f1d70
illuminated manuscripts
574
False
What is a notable cross made during this era?
56fb76ebb28b3419009f1d71
the Cross of Lothair
804
False
Where was a notable hoard found near the former lands of the Byzantine Empire?
56fb76ebb28b3419009f1d72
Nagyszentmiklós
989
False
What is a notable decorated book with a binding of jewel-encrusted gold?
56fb76ebb28b3419009f1d73
Codex Aureus of St. Emmeram
1363
False
Where was a hoard from Visigothic Spain found?
56fb76ebb28b3419009f1d74
Guarrazar
953
False
Carolingian art was produced for a small group of figures around the court, and the monasteries and churches they supported. It was dominated by efforts to regain the dignity and classicism of imperial Roman and Byzantine art, but was also influenced by the Insular art of the British Isles. Insular art integrated the energy of Irish Celtic and Anglo-Saxon Germanic styles of ornament with Mediterranean forms such as the book, and established many characteristics of art for the rest of the medieval period. Surviving religious works from the Early Middle Ages are mostly illuminated manuscripts and carved ivories, originally made for metalwork that has since been melted down. Objects in precious metals were the most prestigious form of art, but almost all are lost except for a few crosses such as the Cross of Lothair, several reliquaries, and finds such as the Anglo-Saxon burial at Sutton Hoo and the hoards of Gourdon from Merovingian France, Guarrazar from Visigothic Spain and Nagyszentmiklós near Byzantine territory. There are survivals from the large brooches in fibula or penannular form that were a key piece of personal adornment for elites, including the Irish Tara Brooch. Highly decorated books were mostly Gospel Books and these have survived in larger numbers, including the Insular Book of Kells, the Book of Lindisfarne, and the imperial Codex Aureus of St. Emmeram, which is one of the few to retain its "treasure binding" of gold encrusted with jewels. Charlemagne's court seems to have been responsible for the acceptance of figurative monumental sculpture in Christian art, and by the end of the period near life-sized figures such as the Gero Cross were common in important churches.
The importance of what military arm increased during the Carolingian era?
56fb78ce8ddada1400cd641d
heavy cavalry
133
False
What region raised a militia army called the fyrd?
56fb78ce8ddada1400cd641e
Anglo-Saxon England
419
False
What Roman weapon began to be used again in the Early Middle Ages?
56fb78ce8ddada1400cd641f
the crossbow
618
False
Along with the horseshoe, what invention important for cavalry emerged in this period?
56fb78ce8ddada1400cd6420
the stirrup
790
False
Along with light cavalry, what military arm declined in importance during the Early Middle Ages?
56fb78ce8ddada1400cd6421
infantry
18
False
The importance of infantry and light cavalry began to decline during the early Carolingian period, with a growing dominance of elite heavy cavalry. The use of militia-type levies of the free population declined over the Carolingian period. Although much of the Carolingian armies were mounted, a large proportion during the early period appear to have been mounted infantry, rather than true cavalry. One exception was Anglo-Saxon England, where the armies were still composed of regional levies, known as the fyrd, which were led by the local elites. In military technology, one of the main changes was the return of the crossbow, which had been known in Roman times and reappeared as a military weapon during the last part of the Early Middle Ages. Another change was the introduction of the stirrup, which increased the effectiveness of cavalry as shock troops. A technological advance that had implications beyond the military was the horseshoe, which allowed horses to be used in rocky terrain.
What was the approximate population of Europe in 1347?
56fb795e8ddada1400cd6427
80 million
124
False
About how many millions of people lived in Europe in the year 1000?
56fb795e8ddada1400cd6428
35
118
False
During the High Middle Ages, what percentage of the European population consisted of rural peasants?
56fb795e8ddada1400cd6429
90
347
False
Along with manors, where did peasants in the High Middle Ages often live?
56fb795e8ddada1400cd642a
villages
525
False
What was the term for the practice of giving incentives to peasants to cultivate new lands?
56fb795e8ddada1400cd642b
assarting
819
False
The High Middle Ages was a period of tremendous expansion of population. The estimated population of Europe grew from 35 to 80 million between 1000 and 1347, although the exact causes remain unclear: improved agricultural techniques, the decline of slaveholding, a more clement climate and the lack of invasion have all been suggested. As much as 90 per cent of the European population remained rural peasants. Many were no longer settled in isolated farms but had gathered into small communities, usually known as manors or villages. These peasants were often subject to noble overlords and owed them rents and other services, in a system known as manorialism. There remained a few free peasants throughout this period and beyond, with more of them in the regions of Southern Europe than in the north. The practice of assarting, or bringing new lands into production by offering incentives to the peasants who settled them, also contributed to the expansion of population.
In what centuries did fiefs become hereditary?
56fb79f28ddada1400cd6431
11th and 12th
329
False
In this period, who usually inherited fiefs?
56fb79f28ddada1400cd6432
the eldest son
570
False
What were castles originally built out of?
56fb79f28ddada1400cd6433
wood
799
False
What group constituted the lowest nobility?
56fb79f28ddada1400cd6434
Knights
1315
False
In what century were castles first built?
56fb79f28ddada1400cd6435
9th
855
False
Other sections of society included the nobility, clergy, and townsmen. Nobles, both the titled nobility and simple knights, exploited the manors and the peasants, although they did not own lands outright but were granted rights to the income from a manor or other lands by an overlord through the system of feudalism. During the 11th and 12th centuries, these lands, or fiefs, came to be considered hereditary, and in most areas they were no longer divisible between all the heirs as had been the case in the early medieval period. Instead, most fiefs and lands went to the eldest son.[R] The dominance of the nobility was built upon its control of the land, its military service as heavy cavalry, control of castles, and various immunities from taxes or other impositions.[S] Castles, initially in wood but later in stone, began to be constructed in the 9th and 10th centuries in response to the disorder of the time, and provided protection from invaders as well as allowing lords defence from rivals. Control of castles allowed the nobles to defy kings or other overlords. Nobles were stratified; kings and the highest-ranking nobility controlled large numbers of commoners and large tracts of land, as well as other nobles. Beneath them, lesser nobles had authority over smaller areas of land and fewer people. Knights were the lowest level of nobility; they controlled but did not own land, and had to serve other nobles.[T]
What group constituted the clergy along with the regular clergy?
56fb7a7f8ddada1400cd643b
the secular clergy
39
False
What type of clergy were monks?
56fb7a7f8ddada1400cd643c
regular clergy
95
False
What percentage of the European population consisted of monks?
56fb7a7f8ddada1400cd643d
less than one per cent
256
False
What social class did many members of the regular clergy come from?
56fb7a7f8ddada1400cd643e
the nobility
323
False
From what class were many parish priests?
56fb7a7f8ddada1400cd643f
the peasant class
487
False
The clergy was divided into two types: the secular clergy, who lived out in the world, and the regular clergy, who lived under a religious rule and were usually monks. Throughout the period monks remained a very small proportion of the population, usually less than one per cent. Most of the regular clergy were drawn from the nobility, the same social class that served as the recruiting ground for the upper levels of the secular clergy. The local parish priests were often drawn from the peasant class. Townsmen were in a somewhat unusual position, as they did not fit into the traditional three-fold division of society into nobles, clergy, and peasants. During the 12th and 13th centuries, the ranks of the townsmen expanded greatly as existing towns grew and new population centres were founded. But throughout the Middle Ages the population of the towns probably never exceeded 10 per cent of the total population.
In what type of settlement did most Jews live?
56fb7af18ddada1400cd6445
cities
302
False
In what centuries did a Jewish community develop in England?
56fb7af18ddada1400cd6446
the 11th and 12th
105
False
What religion were Spanish Jews pressured into converting to?
56fb7af18ddada1400cd6447
Christianity
257
False
In what part of Europe did the Slavs live?
56fb7af18ddada1400cd6448
Eastern
454
False
What was the religion of the Slavs?
56fb7af18ddada1400cd6449
pagan
439
False
Jews also spread across Europe during the period. Communities were established in Germany and England in the 11th and 12th centuries, but Spanish Jews, long settled in Spain under the Muslims, came under Christian rule and increasing pressure to convert to Christianity. Most Jews were confined to the cities, as they were not allowed to own land or be peasants.[U] Besides the Jews, there were other non-Christians on the edges of Europe—pagan Slavs in Eastern Europe and Muslims in Southern Europe.
Along with gardening, animal husbandry and child-care, what work did medieval peasant women do?
56fb7b7f8ddada1400cd644f
taking care of the household
355
False
Along with spinning, what income-producing work did peasant women engage in?
56fb7b7f8ddada1400cd6450
brewing
513
False
What did peasant women do when it was time for the harvest?
56fb7b7f8ddada1400cd6451
help with field-work
574
False
What role did women fill in the Church?
56fb7b7f8ddada1400cd6452
nuns
1038
False
Women in the Middle Ages were officially required to be subordinate to some male, whether their father, husband, or other kinsman. Widows, who were often allowed much control over their own lives, were still restricted legally. Women's work generally consisted of household or other domestically inclined tasks. Peasant women were usually responsible for taking care of the household, child-care, as well as gardening and animal husbandry near the house. They could supplement the household income by spinning or brewing at home. At harvest-time, they were also expected to help with field-work. Townswomen, like peasant women, were responsible for the household, and could also engage in trade. What trades were open to women varied by country and period. Noblewomen were responsible for running a household, and could occasionally be expected to handle estates in the absence of male relatives, but they were usually restricted from participation in military or government affairs. The only role open to women in the Church was that of nuns, as they were unable to become priests.
What sea were the Hanseatic cities located on?
56fb7c108ddada1400cd6457
Baltic
232
False
Along with Venice and Pisa, what was a notable Italian maritime republic?
56fb7c108ddada1400cd6458
Genoa
345
False
Who wrote The Travels of Marco Polo?
56fb7c108ddada1400cd6459
Marco Polo
756
False
What accounting method was utilized in this period?
56fb7c108ddada1400cd645a
double-entry bookkeeping
1244
False
In what region was gold coinage first reintroduced?
56fb7c108ddada1400cd645b
Italy
1055
False
In central and northern Italy and in Flanders, the rise of towns that were to a degree self-governing stimulated economic growth and created an environment for new types of trade associations. Commercial cities on the shores of the Baltic entered into agreements known as the Hanseatic League, and the Italian Maritime republics such as Venice, Genoa, and Pisa expanded their trade throughout the Mediterranean.[V] Great trading fairs were established and flourished in northern France during the period, allowing Italian and German merchants to trade with each other as well as local merchants. In the late 13th century new land and sea routes to the Far East were pioneered, famously described in The Travels of Marco Polo written by one of the traders, Marco Polo (d. 1324). Besides new trading opportunities, agricultural and technological improvements enabled an increase in crop yields, which in turn allowed the trade networks to expand. Rising trade brought new methods of dealing with money, and gold coinage was again minted in Europe, first in Italy and later in France and other countries. New forms of commercial contracts emerged, allowing risk to be shared among merchants. Accounting methods improved, partly through the use of double-entry bookkeeping; letters of credit also appeared, allowing easy transmission of money.
Along with Poland, what Central European kingdom was formed during the High Middle Ages?
56fb7c988ddada1400cd6461
Hungary
216
False
Who was king when the Magyars settled in Hungary?
56fb7c988ddada1400cd6462
Árpád
358
False
When did the papacy of Innocent III begin?
56fb7c988ddada1400cd6463
1198
689
False
Along with France and Spain, the kings of what country consolidated power in the High Middle Ages?
56fb7c988ddada1400cd6464
England
107
False
In approximately what year did the Magyars settle in Hungary?
56fb7c988ddada1400cd6465
900
343
False
The High Middle Ages was the formative period in the history of the modern Western state. Kings in France, England, and Spain consolidated their power, and set up lasting governing institutions. New kingdoms such as Hungary and Poland, after their conversion to Christianity, became Central European powers. The Magyars settled Hungary around 900 under King Árpád (d. c. 907) after a series of invasions in the 9th century. The papacy, long attached to an ideology of independence from secular kings, first asserted its claim to temporal authority over the entire Christian world; the Papal Monarchy reached its apogee in the early 13th century under the pontificate of Innocent III (pope 1198–1216). Northern Crusades and the advance of Christian kingdoms and military orders into previously pagan regions in the Baltic and Finnic north-east brought the forced assimilation of numerous native peoples into European culture.
What dynasty controlled Germany in the early High Middle Ages?
56fb7d088ddada1400cd646b
Ottonian
60
False
What dynasty ruled Germany starting in 1024?
56fb7d088ddada1400cd646c
Salian
229
False
When did Henry IV's reign begin?
56fb7d088ddada1400cd646d
1084
309
False
The clash between Henry IV and the pope was part of what greater conflict?
56fb7d088ddada1400cd646e
Investiture Controversy
360
False
What was the regnal name of Frederick I Barbarossa's grandson?
56fb7d088ddada1400cd646f
Frederick II
787
False
During the early High Middle Ages, Germany was ruled by the Ottonian dynasty, which struggled to control the powerful dukes ruling over territorial duchies tracing back to the Migration period. In 1024, they were replaced by the Salian dynasty, who famously clashed with the papacy under Emperor Henry IV (r. 1084–1105) over church appointments as part of the Investiture Controversy. His successors continued to struggle against the papacy as well as the German nobility. A period of instability followed the death of Emperor Henry V (r. 1111–25), who died without heirs, until Frederick I Barbarossa (r. 1155–90) took the imperial throne. Although he ruled effectively, the basic problems remained, and his successors continued to struggle into the 13th century. Barbarossa's grandson Frederick II (r. 1220–1250), who was also heir to the throne of Sicily through his mother, clashed repeatedly with the papacy. His court was famous for its scholars and he was often accused of heresy. He and his successors faced many difficulties, including the invasion of the Mongols into Europe in the mid-13th century. Mongols first shattered the Kievan Rus' principalities and then invaded Eastern Europe in 1241, 1259, and 1287.
Who was Duke of Normandy in 1066?
56fb7d7a8ddada1400cd6475
William the Conqueror
269
False
During what period did William reign over England?
56fb7d7a8ddada1400cd6476
1066–87
331
False
When did Robert Guiscard die?
56fb7d7a8ddada1400cd6477
1085
522
False
What kingdom grew out of the duchy founded by Robert Guiscard?
56fb7d7a8ddada1400cd6478
Kingdom of Sicily
595
False
To what dynasty did Henry II belong?
56fb7d7a8ddada1400cd6479
Angevin
624
False
Under the Capetian dynasty France slowly began to expand its authority over the nobility, growing out of the Île-de-France to exert control over more of the country in the 11th and 12th centuries. They faced a powerful rival in the Dukes of Normandy, who in 1066 under William the Conqueror (duke 1035–1087), conquered England (r. 1066–87) and created a cross-channel empire that lasted, in various forms, throughout the rest of the Middle Ages. Normans also settled in Sicily and southern Italy, when Robert Guiscard (d. 1085) landed there in 1059 and established a duchy that later became the Kingdom of Sicily. Under the Angevin dynasty of Henry II (r. 1154–89) and his son Richard I (r. 1189–99), the kings of England ruled over England and large areas of France,[W] brought to the family by Henry II's marriage to Eleanor of Aquitaine (d. 1204), heiress to much of southern France.[X] Richard's younger brother John (r. 1199–1216) lost Normandy and the rest of the northern French possessions in 1204 to the French King Philip II Augustus (r. 1180–1223). This led to dissension among the English nobility, while John's financial exactions to pay for his unsuccessful attempts to regain Normandy led in 1215 to Magna Carta, a charter that confirmed the rights and privileges of free men in England. Under Henry III (r. 1216–72), John's son, further concessions were made to the nobility, and royal power was diminished. The French monarchy continued to make gains against the nobility during the late 12th and 13th centuries, bringing more territories within the kingdom under their personal rule and centralising the royal administration. Under Louis IX (r. 1226–70), royal prestige rose to new heights as Louis served as a mediator for most of Europe.[Y]
What was the name of the Christian reconquest of Iberia from the Muslims?
56fb7df48ddada1400cd647f
the Reconquista
179
False
How many major Christian kingdoms existed in Iberia around 1150?
56fb7df48ddada1400cd6480
five
254
False
Along with León, Portugal, Aragon and Castile, what major Christian kingdom existed in Iberia around 1150?
56fb7df48ddada1400cd6481
Navarre
300
False
What Islamic state controlled southern Iberia until 1031?
56fb7df48ddada1400cd6482
the Caliphate of Córdoba
397
False
What Islamic state controlled southern Iberia in the 1170s?
56fb7df48ddada1400cd6483
the Almohad Caliphate
539
False
In Iberia, the Christian states, which had been confined to the north-western part of the peninsula, began to push back against the Islamic states in the south, a period known as the Reconquista. By about 1150, the Christian north had coalesced into the five major kingdoms of León, Castile, Aragon, Navarre, and Portugal. Southern Iberia remained under control of Islamic states, initially under the Caliphate of Córdoba, which broke up in 1031 into a shifting number of petty states known as taifas, who fought with the Christians until the Almohad Caliphate re-established centralised rule over Southern Iberia in the 1170s. Christian forces advanced again in the early 13th century, culminating in the capture of Seville in 1248.
During what decade did the Seljuk Turks occupy Armenia?
56fb7e4fb28b3419009f1d7a
1060s
123
False
In what yer was the Battle of Manzikert fought?
56fb7e4fb28b3419009f1d7b
1071
156
False
Who was taken prisoner at the Battle of Manzikert?
56fb7e4fb28b3419009f1d7c
Byzantine Emperor Romanus IV
251
False
Who conquered Jerusalem from the Turks?
56fb7e4fb28b3419009f1d7d
the Fatimids of Egypt
656
False
During what century did the Seljuk Turks occupy Persia?
56fb7e4fb28b3419009f1d7e
11th
7
False
In the 11th century, the Seljuk Turks took over much of the Middle East, occupying Persia during the 1040s, Armenia in the 1060s, and Jerusalem in 1070. In 1071, the Turkish army defeated the Byzantine army at the Battle of Manzikert and captured the Byzantine Emperor Romanus IV (r. 1068–71). The Turks were then free to invade Asia Minor, which dealt a dangerous blow to the Byzantine Empire by seizing a large part of its population and its economic heartland. Although the Byzantines regrouped and recovered somewhat, they never fully regained Asia Minor and were often on the defensive. The Turks also had difficulties, losing control of Jerusalem to the Fatimids of Egypt and suffering from a series of internal civil wars. The Byzantines also faced a revived Bulgaria, which in the late 12th and 13th centuries spread throughout the Balkans.
What pope launched the First crusade?
56fb7e97b28b3419009f1d84
Urban II
108
False
At what gathering was the First Crusade preached?
56fb7e97b28b3419009f1d85
the Council of Clermont
135
False
In what year was the First Crusade proclaimed?
56fb7e97b28b3419009f1d86
1095
162
False
What Byzantine Emperor's request for assistance led to the First Crusade?
56fb7e97b28b3419009f1d87
Alexios I Komnenos
219
False
In what year did the First Crusade take Jerusalem?
56fb7e97b28b3419009f1d88
1099
450
False
The crusades were intended to seize Jerusalem from Muslim control. The First Crusade was proclaimed by Pope Urban II (pope 1088–99) at the Council of Clermont in 1095 in response to a request from the Byzantine Emperor Alexios I Komnenos (r. 1081–1118) for aid against further Muslim advances. Urban promised indulgence to anyone who took part. Tens of thousands of people from all levels of society mobilised across Europe and captured Jerusalem in 1099. One feature of the crusades was the pogroms against local Jews that often took place as the crusaders left their countries for the East. These were especially brutal during the First Crusade, when the Jewish communities in Cologne, Mainz, and Worms were destroyed, and other communities in cities between the rivers Seine and Rhine suffered destruction. Another outgrowth of the crusades was the foundation of a new type of monastic order, the military orders of the Templars and Hospitallers, which fused monastic life with military service.
What was the purpose of the Third Crusade?
56fb7ee6b28b3419009f1d8e
to regain Jerusalem
297
False
Who took Jerusalem in 1187?
56fb7ee6b28b3419009f1d8f
Saladin
345
False
In what year did the Fourth Crusade occur?
56fb7ee6b28b3419009f1d90
1203
378
False
What state was founded following the Fourth Crusade?
56fb7ee6b28b3419009f1d91
Latin Empire of Constantinople
498
False
After 1291, where did the titular King of Jerusalem reside?
56fb7ee6b28b3419009f1d92
Cyprus
804
False
The crusaders consolidated their conquests into crusader states. During the 12th and 13th centuries, there were a series of conflicts between those states and the surrounding Islamic states. Appeals from those states to the papacy led to further crusades, such as the Third Crusade, called to try to regain Jerusalem, which had been captured by Saladin (d. 1193) in 1187.[Z] In 1203, the Fourth Crusade was diverted from the Holy Land to Constantinople, and captured the city in 1204, setting up a Latin Empire of Constantinople and greatly weakening the Byzantine Empire. The Byzantines recaptured the city in 1261, but never regained their former strength. By 1291 all the crusader states had been captured or forced from the mainland, although a titular Kingdom of Jerusalem survived on the island of Cyprus for several years afterwards.
Along with the Baltic and Spain, in what area were crusades called?
56fb7f60b28b3419009f1d98
southern France
83
False
Where was the Teutonic Order headquartered in 1309?
56fb7f60b28b3419009f1d99
Marienburg
896
False
What military order was founded as a result of the Northern Crusades?
56fb7f60b28b3419009f1d9a
the Order of the Sword Brothers
681
False
In what century did the Northern Crusades begin?
56fb7f60b28b3419009f1d9b
12th
611
False
What century saw the end of the Northern Crusades?
56fb7f60b28b3419009f1d9c
14th
619
False
Popes called for crusades to take place elsewhere besides the Holy Land: in Spain, southern France, and along the Baltic. The Spanish crusades became fused with the Reconquista of Spain from the Muslims. Although the Templars and Hospitallers took part in the Spanish crusades, similar Spanish military religious orders were founded, most of which had become part of the two main orders of Calatrava and Santiago by the beginning of the 12th century. Northern Europe also remained outside Christian influence until the 11th century or later, and became a crusading venue as part of the Northern Crusades of the 12th to 14th centuries. These crusades also spawned a military order, the Order of the Sword Brothers. Another order, the Teutonic Knights, although originally founded in the crusader states, focused much of its activity in the Baltic after 1225, and in 1309 moved its headquarters to Marienburg in Prussia.
What group opposed the nominalists on the subject of universals?
56fb7fc38ddada1400cd6489
realists
134
False
What ancient philosopher was rediscovered, leading to a revival of philosophy?
56fb7fc38ddada1400cd648a
Aristotle
258
False
When did Peter Lombard die?
56fb7fc38ddada1400cd648b
1164
379
False
What was the name of the school of thought that combined theology and philosophy?
56fb7fc38ddada1400cd648c
scholasticism
730
False
Who authored the Summa Theologica?
56fb7fc38ddada1400cd648d
Thomas Aquinas
966
False
During the 11th century, developments in philosophy and theology led to increased intellectual activity. There was debate between the realists and the nominalists over the concept of "universals". Philosophical discourse was stimulated by the rediscovery of Aristotle and his emphasis on empiricism and rationalism. Scholars such as Peter Abelard (d. 1142) and Peter Lombard (d. 1164) introduced Aristotelian logic into theology. In the late 11th and early 12th centuries cathedral schools spread throughout Western Europe, signalling the shift of learning from monasteries to cathedrals and towns. Cathedral schools were in turn replaced by the universities established in major European cities. Philosophy and theology fused in scholasticism, an attempt by 12th- and 13th-century scholars to reconcile authoritative texts, most notably Aristotle and the Bible. This movement tried to employ a systemic approach to truth and reason and culminated in the thought of Thomas Aquinas (d. 1274), who wrote the Summa Theologica, or Summary of Theology.
What does chansons de geste mean in English?
56fb80258ddada1400cd6493
songs of great deeds
320
False
Along with The Song of Ronald, what is a notable chanson de geste?
56fb80258ddada1400cd6494
The Song of Hildebrand
373
False
Who wrote Historia Regum Britanniae?
56fb80258ddada1400cd6495
Geoffrey of Monmouth
449
False
What legendary figure was featured in the Historia Regum Britanniae?
56fb80258ddada1400cd6496
Arthur
565
False
Who was the subject of Gesta Friderici Imperatoris?
56fb80258ddada1400cd6497
Emperor Frederick Barbarossa
701
False
Chivalry and the ethos of courtly love developed in royal and noble courts. This culture was expressed in the vernacular languages rather than Latin, and comprised poems, stories, legends, and popular songs spread by troubadours, or wandering minstrels. Often the stories were written down in the chansons de geste, or "songs of great deeds", such as The Song of Roland or The Song of Hildebrand. Secular and religious histories were also produced. Geoffrey of Monmouth (d. c. 1155) composed his Historia Regum Britanniae, a collection of stories and legends about Arthur. Other works were more clearly history, such as Otto von Freising's (d. 1158) Gesta Friderici Imperatoris detailing the deeds of Emperor Frederick Barbarossa, or William of Malmesbury's (d. c. 1143) Gesta Regum on the kings of England.
What is another name for canon law?
56fb80728ddada1400cd649d
ecclesiastical law
83
False
What is another name for Roman law?
56fb80728ddada1400cd649e
Secular law
141
False
Where could one study Roman law in 1100?
56fb80728ddada1400cd649f
Bologna
297
False
In what century was the Corpus Juris Civilis rediscovered?
56fb80728ddada1400cd64a0
11th
241
False
Who wrote the Decretum?
56fb80728ddada1400cd64a1
Gratian
451
False
Legal studies advanced during the 12th century. Both secular law and canon law, or ecclesiastical law, were studied in the High Middle Ages. Secular law, or Roman law, was advanced greatly by the discovery of the Corpus Juris Civilis in the 11th century, and by 1100 Roman law was being taught at Bologna. This led to the recording and standardisation of legal codes throughout Western Europe. Canon law was also studied, and around 1140 a monk named Gratian (fl. 12th century), a teacher at Bologna, wrote what became the standard text of canon law—the Decretum.
What invention led to advances in mathematics?
56fb81078ddada1400cd64a7
algebra
189
False
What influential astronomy text did Ptomely author?
56fb81078ddada1400cd64a8
Almagest
297
False
In what language was Almagest originally written?
56fb81078ddada1400cd64a9
Greek
311
False
In what city was a medical school located that was notably influenced by Islamic medicine?
56fb81078ddada1400cd64aa
Salerno
459
False
Into what language was Almagest translated in the 12th century?
56fb81078ddada1400cd64ab
Latin
322
False
Among the results of the Greek and Islamic influence on this period in European history was the replacement of Roman numerals with the decimal positional number system and the invention of algebra, which allowed more advanced mathematics. Astronomy advanced following the translation of Ptolemy's Almagest from Greek into Latin in the late 12th century. Medicine was also studied, especially in southern Italy, where Islamic medicine influenced the school at Salerno.
Along with the astrolabe, windmill and distilled spirits, what was a notable technological advancement of the 12th and 13th centuries?
56fb815eb28b3419009f1da2
mechanical clocks
185
False
What was invented in approximately 1286?
56fb815eb28b3419009f1da3
Concave spectacles
272
False
Near what city were concave spectacles invented?
56fb815eb28b3419009f1da4
Pisa
376
False
In the 12th and 13th centuries, Europe produced economic growth and innovations in methods of production. Major technological advances included the invention of the windmill, the first mechanical clocks, the manufacture of distilled spirits, and the use of the astrolabe. Concave spectacles were invented around 1286 by an unknown Italian artisan, probably working in or near Pisa.
What fraction of land was under cultivation using the two-field system?
56fb81e5b28b3419009f1da8
one half
105
False
What fraction of land was under cultivate using the three-field system?
56fb81e5b28b3419009f1da9
two-thirds
165
False
What invention allowed horses rather than oxen to be used to plow?
56fb81e5b28b3419009f1daa
the horse collar
352
False
What invention led to an increase in efficiency in the farming of heavy soils?
56fb81e5b28b3419009f1dab
the heavy plough
259
False
In addition to requiring less pasture, what distinguishes horses from oxen?
56fb81e5b28b3419009f1dac
faster
438
False
The development of a three-field rotation system for planting crops[AA] increased the usage of land from one half in use each year under the old two-field system to two-thirds under the new system, with a consequent increase in production. The development of the heavy plough allowed heavier soils to be farmed more efficiently, aided by the spread of the horse collar, which led to the use of draught horses in place of oxen. Horses are faster than oxen and require less pasture, factors that aided the implementation of the three-field system.
Along with bridges, tithe barns and town halls, what notable new structures were built during this period?
56fb824db28b3419009f1db2
houses
172
False
What method, derived from the Romans, was traditionally used to build ships?
56fb824db28b3419009f1db3
mortise and tenon
305
False
What new shipbuilding method was invented in this period?
56fb824db28b3419009f1db4
rib and plank
248
False
What type of rudder was introduced during this period?
56fb824db28b3419009f1db5
stern-post
393
False
What type of sails were first used during this era?
56fb824db28b3419009f1db6
lateen
372
False
The construction of cathedrals and castles advanced building technology, leading to the development of large stone buildings. Ancillary structures included new town halls, houses, bridges, and tithe barns. Shipbuilding improved with the use of the rib and plank method rather than the old Roman system of mortise and tenon. Other improvements to ships included the use of lateen sails and the stern-post rudder, both of which increased the speed at which ships could be sailed.
In what century did Europeans become aware of gunpowder?
56fb82d8b28b3419009f1dbc
13th
553
False
Who was recorded as using gunpowder in 1304?
56fb82d8b28b3419009f1dbd
the English
609
False
Against whom was gunpowder used in 1304?
56fb82d8b28b3419009f1dbe
the Scots
629
False
In what decade were siege cannon known to have been used?
56fb82d8b28b3419009f1dbf
1320s
754
False
What led to the increased use of armor in the 12th century?
56fb82d8b28b3419009f1dc0
The increasing use of crossbows
362
False
In military affairs, the use of infantry with specialised roles increased. Along with the still-dominant heavy cavalry, armies often included mounted and infantry crossbowmen, as well as sappers and engineers. Crossbows, which had been known in Late Antiquity, increased in use partly because of the increase in siege warfare in the 10th and 11th centuries.[AB] The increasing use of crossbows during the 12th and 13th centuries led to the use of closed-face helmets, heavy body armour, as well as horse armour. Gunpowder was known in Europe by the mid-13th century with a recorded use in European warfare by the English against the Scots in 1304, although it was merely used as an explosive and not as a weapon. Cannon were being used for sieges in the 1320s, and hand-held guns were in use by the 1360s.
In what century was Romanesque architecture first used?
56fb8371b28b3419009f1dc6
10th
7
False
What feature of Romanesque architecture was especially prevalent in France?
56fb8371b28b3419009f1dc7
arched stone vaults
637
False
Who noted the prevalence of wall-paintings in Western churches of this era?
56fb8371b28b3419009f1dc8
C. R. Dodwell
905
False
What non-church architectural structure developed in the 10th century?
56fb8371b28b3419009f1dc9
the castle
1110
False
Around what year did the great wave of church-building in stone occur?
56fb8371b28b3419009f1dca
1000
433
False
In the 10th century the establishment of churches and monasteries led to the development of stone architecture that elaborated vernacular Roman forms, from which the term "Romanesque" is derived. Where available, Roman brick and stone buildings were recycled for their materials. From the tentative beginnings known as the First Romanesque, the style flourished and spread across Europe in a remarkably homogeneous form. Just before 1000 there was a great wave of building stone churches all over Europe. Romanesque buildings have massive stone walls, openings topped by semi-circular arches, small windows, and, particularly in France, arched stone vaults. The large portal with coloured sculpture in high relief became a central feature of façades, especially in France, and the capitals of columns were often carved with narrative scenes of imaginative monsters and animals. According to art historian C. R. Dodwell, "virtually all the churches in the West were decorated with wall-paintings", of which few survive. Simultaneous with the development in church architecture, the distinctive European form of the castle was developed, and became crucial to politics and warfare.
Who was a noted figure in Mosan art?
56fb8410b28b3419009f1dd0
Nicholas of Verdun
133
False
What year saw the death of Nicholas of Verdun?
56fb8410b28b3419009f1dd1
1205
156
False
On what wall of a church was the Last Judgment typically painted?
56fb8410b28b3419009f1dd2
west
521
False
Where are narrative biblical scenes painted in the church at Saint-Savin-sur-Gartempe?
56fb8410b28b3419009f1dd3
on the barrel-vaulted roof
677
False
What notable Romanesque metalwork is named for Gloucester?
56fb8410b28b3419009f1dd4
Gloucester Candlestick
317
False
Romanesque art, especially metalwork, was at its most sophisticated in Mosan art, in which distinct artistic personalities including Nicholas of Verdun (d. 1205) become apparent, and an almost classical style is seen in works such as a font at Liège, contrasting with the writhing animals of the exactly contemporary Gloucester Candlestick. Large illuminated bibles and psalters were the typical forms of luxury manuscripts, and wall-painting flourished in churches, often following a scheme with a Last Judgement on the west wall, a Christ in Majesty at the east end, and narrative biblical scenes down the nave, or in the best surviving example, at Saint-Savin-sur-Gartempe, on the barrel-vaulted roof.
In what century did the Gothic style first flourish?
56fb847db28b3419009f1dda
12th
15
False
In what century did the Gothic style cease to be used?
56fb847db28b3419009f1ddb
16th
252
False
Along with Reims, where is a notable Gothic cathedral in France located?
56fb847db28b3419009f1ddc
Chartres
332
False
What is a notable English Gothic cathedral?
56fb847db28b3419009f1ddd
Salisbury Cathedral
392
False
Among which builders was the Gothic style first used?
56fb847db28b3419009f1dde
French
29
False
From the early 12th century, French builders developed the Gothic style, marked by the use of rib vaults, pointed arches, flying buttresses, and large stained glass windows. It was used mainly in churches and cathedrals, and continued in use until the 16th century in much of Europe. Classic examples of Gothic architecture include Chartres Cathedral and Reims Cathedral in France as well as Salisbury Cathedral in England. Stained glass became a crucial element in the design of churches, which continued to use extensive wall-paintings, now almost all lost.
Who noted that 14th century monks bought books in shops?
56fb84ebb28b3419009f1de4
Janetta Benton
132
False
What form of art had the most prestige in this era?
56fb84ebb28b3419009f1de5
Metalwork
274
False
When did Giotto die?
56fb84ebb28b3419009f1de6
1337
533
False
What were many pieces of secular art carved from in this period?
56fb84ebb28b3419009f1de7
ivory
723
False
Along with Duccio, what Italian artist was a noted innovator in this period?
56fb84ebb28b3419009f1de8
Cimabue
470
False
During this period the practice of manuscript illumination gradually passed from monasteries to lay workshops, so that according to Janetta Benton "by 1300 most monks bought their books in shops", and the book of hours developed as a form of devotional book for lay-people. Metalwork continued to be the most prestigious form of art, with Limoges enamel a popular and relatively affordable option for objects such as reliquaries and crosses. In Italy the innovations of Cimabue and Duccio, followed by the Trecento master Giotto (d. 1337), greatly increased the sophistication and status of panel painting and fresco. Increasing prosperity during the 12th century resulted in greater production of secular art; many carved ivory objects such as gaming-pieces, combs, and small religious figures have survived.
In what century was thought given to monastic reform?
56fb853fb28b3419009f1dee
11th
53
False
In what year was Cluny Abbey founded?
56fb853fb28b3419009f1def
909
231
False
In what part of France was Cluny Abbey founded?
56fb853fb28b3419009f1df0
Mâcon
205
False
Along with rigor, what did Cluny have a reputation for?
56fb853fb28b3419009f1df1
austerity
390
False
What reforms were named for the abbey at Cluny?
56fb853fb28b3419009f1df2
Cluniac Reforms
267
False
Monastic reform became an important issue during the 11th century, as elites began to worry that monks were not adhering to the rules binding them to a strictly religious life. Cluny Abbey, founded in the Mâcon region of France in 909, was established as part of the Cluniac Reforms, a larger movement of monastic reform in response to this fear. Cluny quickly established a reputation for austerity and rigour. It sought to maintain a high quality of spiritual life by placing itself under the protection of the papacy and by electing its own abbot without interference from laymen, thus maintaining economic and political independence from local lords.
During what century did the Investiture Controversy occur?
56fb85aab28b3419009f1df8
11th
256
False
When did the reign of Pope Leo IX begin?
56fb85aab28b3419009f1df9
1049
137
False
What pope was involved in the Investiture Controversy?
56fb85aab28b3419009f1dfa
Pope Gregory VII
284
False
In what year was the Concordat of Worms agreed to?
56fb85aab28b3419009f1dfb
1122
790
False
What secular rulers did the Concordat of Worms increase the power of?
56fb85aab28b3419009f1dfc
German princes
1003
False
Monastic reform inspired change in the secular church. The ideals that it was based upon were brought to the papacy by Pope Leo IX (pope 1049–1054), and provided the ideology of the clerical independence that led to the Investiture Controversy in the late 11th century. This involved Pope Gregory VII (pope 1073–85) and Emperor Henry IV, who initially clashed over episcopal appointments, a dispute that turned into a battle over the ideas of investiture, clerical marriage, and simony. The emperor saw the protection of the Church as one of his responsibilities as well as wanting to preserve the right to appoint his own choices as bishops within his lands, but the papacy insisted on the Church's independence from secular lords. These issues remained unresolved after the compromise of 1122 known as the Concordat of Worms. The dispute represents a significant stage in the creation of a papal monarchy separate from and equal to lay authorities. It also had the permanent consequence of empowering German princes at the expense of the German emperors.
What monastic order did Bernard of Clairvaux belong to?
56fb862c8ddada1400cd64b1
Cistercians
236
False
When did Bernard of Clairvaux die?
56fb862c8ddada1400cd64b2
1153
356
False
Along with Bari, what was a notable new pilgrimage site in this era?
56fb862c8ddada1400cd64b3
Monte Gargano
832
False
Along with Rome and Jerusalem, what traditional pilgrimage site saw a greater number of visitors in the High Middle Ages?
56fb862c8ddada1400cd64b4
Compostela
758
False
Along with the Cistercians, what new monastic order was founded in the High Middle Ages?
56fb862c8ddada1400cd64b5
Carthusians
216
False
The High Middle Ages was a period of great religious movements. Besides the Crusades and monastic reforms, people sought to participate in new forms of religious life. New monastic orders were founded, including the Carthusians and the Cistercians. The latter especially expanded rapidly in their early years under the guidance of Bernard of Clairvaux (d. 1153). These new orders were formed in response to the feeling of the laity that Benedictine monasticism no longer met the needs of the laymen, who along with those wishing to enter the religious life wanted a return to the simpler hermetical monasticism of early Christianity, or to live an Apostolic life. Religious pilgrimages were also encouraged. Old pilgrimage sites such as Rome, Jerusalem, and Compostela received increasing numbers of visitors, and new sites such as Monte Gargano and Bari rose to prominence.
Along with the Dominicans, what mendicant order was founded in the 13th century?
56fb869f8ddada1400cd64bb
Franciscans
41
False
What notable vow was sworn by the mendicant orders?
56fb869f8ddada1400cd64bc
poverty
90
False
How did the mendicant orders make a living?
56fb869f8ddada1400cd64bd
begging
125
False
What was the crusade against the Cathars called?
56fb869f8ddada1400cd64be
the Albigensian Crusade
510
False
Along with the Cathars and Humiliati, what group was notably condemned as heretics in this period?
56fb869f8ddada1400cd64bf
the Waldensians
188
False
In the 13th century mendicant orders—the Franciscans and the Dominicans—who swore vows of poverty and earned their living by begging, were approved by the papacy. Religious groups such as the Waldensians and the Humiliati also attempted to return to the life of early Christianity in the middle 12th and early 13th centuries, but they were condemned as heretical by the papacy. Others joined the Cathars, another heretical movement condemned by the papacy. In 1209, a crusade was preached against the Cathars, the Albigensian Crusade, which in combination with the medieval Inquisition, eliminated them.
In what years did the Great Famine occur?
56fb87368ddada1400cd64c5
1315–17
95
False
What period resulted in poor weather that increased crop failures?
56fb87368ddada1400cd64c6
the Little Ice Age
197
False
What period preceded the Little Ice Age?
56fb87368ddada1400cd64c7
the Medieval Warm Period
169
False
Along with 1317–21, what span saw extreme rains in Europe?
56fb87368ddada1400cd64c8
1313–14
303
False
In what century did the European average annual temperature decrease?
56fb87368ddada1400cd64c9
14th
502
False
The first years of the 14th century were marked by famines, culminating in the Great Famine of 1315–17. The causes of the Great Famine included the slow transition from the Medieval Warm Period to the Little Ice Age, which left the population vulnerable when bad weather caused crop failures. The years 1313–14 and 1317–21 were excessively rainy throughout Europe, resulting in widespread crop failures. The climate change—which resulted in a declining average annual temperature for Europe during the 14th century—was accompanied by an economic downturn.
When did the Black Death start?
56fb879b8ddada1400cd64cf
1347
32
False
How many million people died from the Black Death?
56fb879b8ddada1400cd64d0
35
170
False
What popular uprising occurred in France during this period?
56fb879b8ddada1400cd64d1
the jacquerie
744
False
What English popular revolt took place during this period?
56fb879b8ddada1400cd64d2
the Peasants' Revolt
769
False
What Italian city experienced a popular revolt?
56fb879b8ddada1400cd64d3
Florence
831
False
These troubles were followed in 1347 by the Black Death, a pandemic that spread throughout Europe during the following three years.[AC] The death toll was probably about 35 million people in Europe, about one-third of the population. Towns were especially hard-hit because of their crowded conditions.[AD] Large areas of land were left sparsely inhabited, and in some places fields were left unworked. Wages rose as landlords sought to entice the reduced number of available workers to their fields. Further problems were lower rents and lower demand for food, both of which cut into agricultural income. Urban workers also felt that they had a right to greater earnings, and popular uprisings broke out across Europe. Among the uprisings were the jacquerie in France, the Peasants' Revolt in England, and revolts in the cities of Florence in Italy and Ghent and Bruges in Flanders. The trauma of the plague led to an increased piety throughout Europe, manifested by the foundation of new charities, the self-mortification of the flagellants, and the scapegoating of Jews. Conditions were further unsettled by the return of the plague throughout the rest of the 14th century; it continued to strike Europe periodically during the rest of the Middle Ages.
By the end of this period, about what percentage of Western Europeans were serfs?
56fb88a0b28b3419009f1e02
50
574
False
At serfdom's greatest extent, what percentage of Western Europeans were serfs?
56fb88a0b28b3419009f1e03
90
558
False
In what part of Europe did serfdom increase in this period?
56fb88a0b28b3419009f1e04
Eastern
272
False
Instead of work, how did most Western European peasants pay their landlords in this period?
56fb88a0b28b3419009f1e05
cash rents
476
False
What noble interest did city-dwellers start to mimic in this period?
56fb88a0b28b3419009f1e06
chivalry
1013
False
Society throughout Europe was disturbed by the dislocations caused by the Black Death. Lands that had been marginally productive were abandoned, as the survivors were able to acquire more fertile areas. Although serfdom declined in Western Europe it became more common in Eastern Europe, as landlords imposed it on those of their tenants who had previously been free. Most peasants in Western Europe managed to change the work they had previously owed to their landlords into cash rents. The percentage of serfs amongst the peasantry declined from a high of 90 to closer to 50 per cent by the end of the period. Landlords also became more conscious of common interests with other landholders, and they joined together to extort privileges from their governments. Partly at the urging of landlords, governments attempted to legislate a return to the economic conditions that existed before the Black Death. Non-clergy became increasingly literate, and urban populations began to imitate the nobility's interest in chivalry.
In what year were the Jews expelled from England?
56fb88f8b28b3419009f1e0c
1290
49
False
What year saw the expulsion of the French Jewish community?
56fb88f8b28b3419009f1e0d
1306
73
False
Along with Hungary, where did many expelled French Jews relocate to?
56fb88f8b28b3419009f1e0e
Poland
186
False
In what year were Jews kicked out of Spain?
56fb88f8b28b3419009f1e0f
1492
243
False
Along with Turkey, France and Italy, where did expelled Spanish Jews travel to?
56fb88f8b28b3419009f1e10
Holland
293
False
Jewish communities were expelled from England in 1290 and from France in 1306. Although some were allowed back into France, most were not, and many Jews emigrated eastwards, settling in Poland and Hungary. The Jews were expelled from Spain in 1492, and dispersed to Turkey, France, Italy, and Holland. The rise of banking in Italy during the 13th century continued throughout the 14th century, fuelled partly by the increasing warfare of the period and the needs of the papacy to move money between kingdoms. Many banking firms loaned money to royalty, at great risk, as some were bankrupted when kings defaulted on their loans.[AE]
Along with Aragon and Castile, what Christian kingdom was present on the Iberian Peninsula?
56fb896db28b3419009f1e16
Portugal
191
False
Why did kings increase the tax rate during this period?
56fb896db28b3419009f1e17
Paying for the wars
433
False
What English representative body provided consent for royal taxation?
56fb896db28b3419009f1e18
Parliament
667
False
What French body was similar in purpose to the English Parliament?
56fb896db28b3419009f1e19
Estates General
693
False
What social class was harmed by the lengthy wars of this era?
56fb896db28b3419009f1e1a
the peasantry
308
False
Strong, royalty-based nation states rose throughout Europe in the Late Middle Ages, particularly in England, France, and the Christian kingdoms of the Iberian Peninsula: Aragon, Castile, and Portugal. The long conflicts of the period strengthened royal control over their kingdoms and were extremely hard on the peasantry. Kings profited from warfare that extended royal legislation and increased the lands they directly controlled. Paying for the wars required that methods of taxation become more effective and efficient, and the rate of taxation often increased. The requirement to obtain the consent of taxpayers allowed representative bodies such as the English Parliament and the French Estates General to gain power and authority.
When did the Hundred Years' War begin?
56fb8a1cb28b3419009f1e20
1337
292
False
What was the nickname of Edward III's son Edward?
56fb8a1cb28b3419009f1e21
the Black Prince
385
False
When did the reign of Edward III begin?
56fb8a1cb28b3419009f1e22
1327
356
False
Along with Poitiers, what was the site of a notable victory by Edward III's England over the French?
56fb8a1cb28b3419009f1e23
Crécy
436
False
What decade saw the victories of Joan of Arc?
56fb8a1cb28b3419009f1e24
1420s
719
False
Throughout the 14th century, French kings sought to expand their influence at the expense of the territorial holdings of the nobility. They ran into difficulties when attempting to confiscate the holdings of the English kings in southern France, leading to the Hundred Years' War, waged from 1337 to 1453. Early in the war the English under Edward III (r. 1327–77) and his son Edward, the Black Prince (d. 1376),[AF] won the battles of Crécy and Poitiers, captured the city of Calais, and won control of much of France.[AG] The resulting stresses almost caused the disintegration of the French kingdom during the early years of the war. In the early 15th century, France again came close to dissolving, but in the late 1420s the military successes of Joan of Arc (d. 1431) led to the victory of the French and the capture of the last English possessions in southern France in 1453. The price was high, as the population of France at the end of the Wars was likely half what it had been at the start of the conflict. Conversely, the Wars had a positive effect on English national identity, doing much to fuse the various local identities into a national English ideal. The conflict with France also helped create a national culture in England separate from French culture, which had previously been the dominant influence. The dominance of the English longbow began during early stages of the Hundred Years' War, and cannon appeared on the battlefield at Crécy in 1346.
Along with Poland and Hungary, what Eastern European state grew in power?
56fb8d378ddada1400cd64d9
Bohemia
237
False
During what century did Portugal devote itself to overseas expansion?
56fb8d378ddada1400cd64da
15th
415
False
What nation lost the Hundred Years' War?
56fb8d378ddada1400cd64db
England
560
False
What was the regnal name of Henry Tudor?
56fb8d378ddada1400cd64dc
Henry VII
712
False
Along with Denmark and Sweden, what country was part of the Union of Kalmar?
56fb8d378ddada1400cd64dd
Norway
903
False
In modern-day Germany, the Holy Roman Empire continued to rule, but the elective nature of the imperial crown meant there was no enduring dynasty around which a strong state could form. Further east, the kingdoms of Poland, Hungary, and Bohemia grew powerful. In Iberia, the Christian kingdoms continued to gain land from the Muslim kingdoms of the peninsula; Portugal concentrated on expanding overseas during the 15th century, while the other kingdoms were riven by difficulties over royal succession and other concerns. After losing the Hundred Years' War, England went on to suffer a long civil war known as the Wars of the Roses, which lasted into the 1490s and only ended when Henry Tudor (r. 1485–1509 as Henry VII) became king and consolidated power with his victory over Richard III (r. 1483–85) at Bosworth in 1485. In Scandinavia, Margaret I of Denmark (r. in Denmark 1387–1412) consolidated Norway, Denmark, and Sweden in the Union of Kalmar, which continued until 1523. The major power around the Baltic Sea was the Hanseatic League, a commercial confederation of city states that traded from Western Europe to Russia. Scotland emerged from English domination under Robert the Bruce (r. 1306–29), who secured papal recognition of his kingship in 1328.
Emperors from what dynasty recaptured Constantinople in 1261?
56fb8dba8ddada1400cd64e3
Palaeologi
13
False
Along with the Second Bulgarian Empire and the Kingdom of Serbia, what polity controlled the former Byzantine Balkan lands?
56fb8dba8ddada1400cd64e4
Venice
486
False
What tribe of Turks emerged in 13th century Anatolia?
56fb8dba8ddada1400cd64e5
Ottomans
573
False
In what year did Bulgaria become a vassal of the Ottomans?
56fb8dba8ddada1400cd64e6
1366
767
False
Who was defeated at the Battle of Kosovo?
56fb8dba8ddada1400cd64e7
Serbia
788
False
Although the Palaeologi emperors recaptured Constantinople from the Western Europeans in 1261, they were never able to regain control of much of the former imperial lands. They usually controlled only a small section of the Balkan Peninsula near Constantinople, the city itself, and some coastal lands on the Black Sea and around the Aegean Sea. The former Byzantine lands in the Balkans were divided between the new Kingdom of Serbia, the Second Bulgarian Empire and the city-state of Venice. The power of the Byzantine emperors was threatened by a new Turkish tribe, the Ottomans, who established themselves in Anatolia in the 13th century and steadily expanded throughout the 14th century. The Ottomans expanded into Europe, reducing Bulgaria to a vassal state by 1366 and taking over Serbia after its defeat at the Battle of Kosovo in 1389. Western Europeans rallied to the plight of the Christians in the Balkans and declared a new crusade in 1396; a great army was sent to the Balkans, where it was defeated at the Battle of Nicopolis. Constantinople was finally captured by the Ottomans in 1453.
During what years did the Avignon Papacy occur?
56fb8e478ddada1400cd64ed
1305–78
110
False
What is another term for the Avignon Papacy?
56fb8e478ddada1400cd64ee
Babylonian Captivity of the Papacy
136
False
When did the Great Schism end?
56fb8e478ddada1400cd64ef
1418
278
False
How many popes existed simultaneously after the Council of Constance?
56fb8e478ddada1400cd64f0
two
521
False
Who was made pope in 1417?
56fb8e478ddada1400cd64f1
Martin V
607
False
During the tumultuous 14th century, disputes within the leadership of the Church led to the Avignon Papacy of 1305–78, also called the "Babylonian Captivity of the Papacy" (a reference to the Babylonian captivity of the Jews), and then to the Great Schism, lasting from 1378 to 1418, when there were two and later three rival popes, each supported by several states. Ecclesiastical officials convened at the Council of Constance in 1414, and in the following year the council deposed one of the rival popes, leaving only two claimants. Further depositions followed, and in November 1417 the council elected Martin V (pope 1417–31) as pope.
Of what nationality was John Wycliffe?
56fb9055b28b3419009f1e2a
English
143
False
In what year was Wycliffe declared a heretic?
56fb9055b28b3419009f1e2b
1415
193
False
Who did Wycliffe believe should read the Bible?
56fb9055b28b3419009f1e2c
the laity
216
False
What Bohemian movement was influenced by Wycliffe?
56fb9055b28b3419009f1e2d
Hussitism
474
False
How did Jan Hus die?
56fb9055b28b3419009f1e2e
burned at the stake
566
False
Besides the schism, the western church was riven by theological controversies, some of which turned into heresies. John Wycliffe (d. 1384), an English theologian, was condemned as a heretic in 1415 for teaching that the laity should have access to the text of the Bible as well as for holding views on the Eucharist that were contrary to church doctrine. Wycliffe's teachings influenced two of the major heretical movements of the later Middle Ages: Lollardy in England and Hussitism in Bohemia. The Bohemian movement initiated with the teaching of Jan Hus, who was burned at the stake in 1415 after being condemned as a heretic by the Council of Constance. The Hussite church, although the target of a crusade, survived beyond the Middle Ages. Other heresies were manufactured, such as the accusations against the Knights Templar that resulted in their suppression in 1312 and the division of their great wealth between the French King Philip IV (r. 1285–1314) and the Hospitallers.
In the Late Middle Ages, who was allowed to drink wine at Mass?
56fb9117b28b3419009f1e34
the clergy
90
False
When did Thomas à Kempis die?
56fb9117b28b3419009f1e35
1471
394
False
In what year did the Church condemn witches?
56fb9117b28b3419009f1e36
1484
738
False
In what year was the Malleus Maleficarum published?
56fb9117b28b3419009f1e37
1486
766
False
What was the Malleus Maleficarum?
56fb9117b28b3419009f1e38
handbook for witch-hunters
816
False
The papacy further refined the practice in the Mass in the Late Middle Ages, holding that the clergy alone was allowed to partake of the wine in the Eucharist. This further distanced the secular laity from the clergy. The laity continued the practices of pilgrimages, veneration of relics, and belief in the power of the Devil. Mystics such as Meister Eckhart (d. 1327) and Thomas à Kempis (d. 1471) wrote works that taught the laity to focus on their inner spiritual life, which laid the groundwork for the Protestant Reformation. Besides mysticism, belief in witches and witchcraft became widespread, and by the late 15th century the Church had begun to lend credence to populist fears of witchcraft with its condemnation of witches in 1484 and the publication in 1486 of the Malleus Maleficarum, the most popular handbook for witch-hunters.
What school of thought was Duns Scotus opposed to?
56fb91df8ddada1400cd64f7
scholasticism
140
False
Before Roman law, what were areas of jurisprudence traditionally decided by?
56fb91df8ddada1400cd64f8
customary law
513
False
What country did not see the increasing influence of Roman law?
56fb91df8ddada1400cd64f9
England
568
False
Along with Castile and Poland, what country developed a law code in the Later Middle Ages?
56fb91df8ddada1400cd64fa
Lithuania
710
False
What Platonic idea lost influence as a result of the work of Ockham and Duns Scotus?
56fb91df8ddada1400cd64fb
universals
262
False
During the Later Middle Ages, theologians such as John Duns Scotus (d. 1308)[AH] and William of Ockham (d. c. 1348), led a reaction against scholasticism, objecting to the application of reason to faith. Their efforts undermined the prevailing Platonic idea of "universals". Ockham's insistence that reason operates independently of faith allowed science to be separated from theology and philosophy. Legal studies were marked by the steady advance of Roman law into areas of jurisprudence previously governed by customary law. The lone exception to this trend was in England, where the common law remained pre-eminent. Other countries codified their laws; legal codes were promulgated in Castile, Poland, and Lithuania.
What was the main purpose of education in this period?
56fb92688ddada1400cd6501
training of future clergy
41
False
Along with rhetoric and logic, what constituted the trivium?
56fb92688ddada1400cd6502
grammar
213
False
About what percentage of European men were literate in 1500?
56fb92688ddada1400cd6503
ten
558
False
In 1500, approximately what percent of European women could read?
56fb92688ddada1400cd6504
one
584
False
Along with their family, who typically taught a child letters and numbers?
56fb92688ddada1400cd6505
a village priest
153
False
Education remained mostly focused on the training of future clergy. The basic learning of the letters and numbers remained the province of the family or a village priest, but the secondary subjects of the trivium—grammar, rhetoric, logic—were studied in cathedral schools or in schools provided by cities. Commercial secondary schools spread, and some Italian towns had more than one such enterprise. Universities also spread throughout Europe in the 14th and 15th centuries. Lay literacy rates rose, but were still low; one estimate gave a literacy rate of ten per cent of males and one per cent of females in 1500.
Along with Dante and Boccaccio, who was a notable Italian author of the 14th century?
56fb92c78ddada1400cd650b
Petrarch
74
False
When did Chaucer die?
56fb92c78ddada1400cd650c
1400
170
False
Who was a notable female French author of this period?
56fb92c78ddada1400cd650d
Christine de Pizan
256
False
In what language was most religious literature of this period written?
56fb92c78ddada1400cd650e
Latin
407
False
Along with Johannes Tauler, who was a prominent German mystic of this period?
56fb92c78ddada1400cd650f
Meister Eckhart
690
False
The publication of vernacular literature increased, with Dante (d. 1321), Petrarch (d. 1374) and Giovanni Boccaccio (d. 1375) in 14th-century Italy, Geoffrey Chaucer (d. 1400) and William Langland (d. c. 1386) in England, and François Villon (d. 1464) and Christine de Pizan (d. c. 1430) in France. Much literature remained religious in character, and although a great deal of it continued to be written in Latin, a new demand developed for saints' lives and other devotional tracts in the vernacular languages. This was fed by the growth of the Devotio Moderna movement, most prominently in the formation of the Brethren of the Common Life, but also in the works of German mystics such as Meister Eckhart and Johannes Tauler (d. 1361). Theatre also developed in the guise of miracle plays put on by the Church. At the end of the period, the development of the printing press in about 1450 led to the establishment of publishing houses throughout Europe by 1500.
Explorers in the employ of what nation discovered the Azores?
56fb9339b28b3419009f1e3e
Portugal
158
False
What leader sponsored the expedition that discovered Cape Verde?
56fb9339b28b3419009f1e3f
Prince Henry the Navigator
128
False
What Portuguese explorer visited India in 1498?
56fb9339b28b3419009f1e40
Vasco da Gama
390
False
What did Christopher Columbus discover in 1492?
56fb9339b28b3419009f1e41
the Americas
601
False
What English monarch financed John Cabot?
56fb9339b28b3419009f1e42
Henry VII
639
False
In the early 15th century, the countries of the Iberian peninsula began to sponsor exploration beyond the boundaries of Europe. Prince Henry the Navigator of Portugal (d. 1460) sent expeditions that discovered the Canary Islands, the Azores, and Cape Verde during his lifetime. After his death, exploration continued; Bartolomeu Dias (d. 1500) went around the Cape of Good Hope in 1486 and Vasco da Gama (d. 1524) sailed around Africa to India in 1498. The combined Spanish monarchies of Castile and Aragon sponsored the voyage of exploration by Christopher Columbus (d. 1506) in 1492 that discovered the Americas. The English crown under Henry VII sponsored the voyage of John Cabot (d. 1498) in 1497, which landed on Cape Breton Island.
Along with light cavalry, what military arm was used with increasing frequency in the Late Middle Ages?
56fb93b3b28b3419009f1e48
infantry
106
False
What troops were uniquely successful in English service?
56fb93b3b28b3419009f1e49
longbowmen
160
False
What influenced the increasing development of armor?
56fb93b3b28b3419009f1e4a
the increasing power of crossbows
292
False
What weapons were notably employed by the Swiss infantry?
56fb93b3b28b3419009f1e4b
pikes
543
False
Along with crossbows, what was plate armor designed to defend against?
56fb93b3b28b3419009f1e4c
hand-held guns
408
False
One of the major developments in the military sphere during the Late Middle Ages was the increased use of infantry and light cavalry. The English also employed longbowmen, but other countries were unable to create similar forces with the same success. Armour continued to advance, spurred by the increasing power of crossbows, and plate armour was developed to protect soldiers from crossbows as well as the hand-held guns that were developed. Pole arms reached new prominence with the development of the Flemish and Swiss infantry armed with pikes and other long spears.
What was replaced by the spinning wheel?
56fb942cb28b3419009f1e52
the traditional distaff
146
False
What invention replaced laces on clothing?
56fb942cb28b3419009f1e53
buttons
300
False
What new type of windmill was invented in this period?
56fb942cb28b3419009f1e54
the tower mill
458
False
In what country did the blast furnace first appear?
56fb942cb28b3419009f1e55
Sweden
629
False
Where did patent law originate?
56fb942cb28b3419009f1e56
Venice
737
False
In agriculture, the increased usage of sheep with long-fibred wool allowed a stronger thread to be spun. In addition, the spinning wheel replaced the traditional distaff for spinning wool, tripling production.[AI] A less technological refinement that still greatly affected daily life was the use of buttons as closures for garments, which allowed for better fitting without having to lace clothing on the wearer. Windmills were refined with the creation of the tower mill, allowing the upper part of the windmill to be spun around to face the direction from which the wind was blowing. The blast furnace appeared around 1350 in Sweden, increasing the quantity of iron produced and improving its quality. The first patent law in 1447 in Venice protected the rights of inventors to their inventions.
Around what year did the International Gothic style flourish?
56fb94f4b28b3419009f1e5c
1400
360
False
What is a notable masterpiece of the International Gothic style?
56fb94f4b28b3419009f1e5d
the Très Riches Heures du Duc de Berry
397
False
Along with the Trecento, what period occurred in Italy during the Late Middle Ages?
56fb94f4b28b3419009f1e5e
Early Renaissance
73
False
Who produced most of the Hispano-Moresque pottery?
56fb94f4b28b3419009f1e5f
Mudéjar potters
847
False
What is a notable piece of surviving Late Middle Age royal plate?
56fb94f4b28b3419009f1e60
the Royal Gold Cup
950
False
The Late Middle Ages in Europe as a whole correspond to the Trecento and Early Renaissance cultural periods in Italy. Northern Europe and Spain continued to use Gothic styles, which became increasingly elaborate in the 15th century, until almost the end of the period. International Gothic was a courtly style that reached much of Europe in the decades around 1400, producing masterpieces such as the Très Riches Heures du Duc de Berry. All over Europe secular art continued to increase in quantity and quality, and in the 15th century the mercantile classes of Italy and Flanders became important patrons, commissioning small portraits of themselves in oils as well as a growing range of luxury items such as jewellery, ivory caskets, cassone chests, and maiolica pottery. These objects also included the Hispano-Moresque ware produced by mostly Mudéjar potters in Spain. Although royalty owned huge collections of plate, little survives except for the Royal Gold Cup. Italian silk manufacture developed, so that western churches and elites no longer needed to rely on imports from Byzantium or the Islamic world. In France and Flanders tapestry weaving of sets like The Lady and the Unicorn became a major luxury industry.
Who carved the Pulpit in Sant'Andrea?
56fb955db28b3419009f1e66
Giovanni Pisano
229
False
Along with being carved, how were altarpieces often decorated in this period?
56fb955db28b3419009f1e67
Painted
261
False
When did Rogier van der Weyden die?
56fb955db28b3419009f1e68
1464
471
False
Of what nationality was Jan van Eyck?
56fb955db28b3419009f1e69
Netherlandish
376
False
What does incunabula refer to?
56fb955db28b3419009f1e6a
works printed before 1500
825
False
The large external sculptural schemes of Early Gothic churches gave way to more sculpture inside the building, as tombs became more elaborate and other features such as pulpits were sometimes lavishly carved, as in the Pulpit by Giovanni Pisano in Sant'Andrea. Painted or carved wooden relief altarpieces became common, especially as churches created many side-chapels. Early Netherlandish painting by artists such as Jan van Eyck (d. 1441) and Rogier van der Weyden (d. 1464) rivalled that of Italy, as did northern illuminated manuscripts, which in the 15th century began to be collected on a large scale by secular elites, who also commissioned secular books, especially histories. From about 1450 printed books rapidly became popular, though still expensive. There were around 30,000 different editions of incunabula, or works printed before 1500, by which time illuminated manuscripts were commissioned only by royalty and a few others. Very small woodcuts, nearly all religious, were affordable even by peasants in parts of Northern Europe from the middle of the 15th century. More expensive engravings supplied a wealthier market with a variety of images.
Along with the Renaissance, during what period were the Middle Ages disparaged?
56fb95f0b28b3419009f1e70
Enlightenment
231
False
What era did Renaissance scholars negatively compare the Middle Ages to?
56fb95f0b28b3419009f1e71
the Classical world
477
False
How did scholars of the Enlightenment see the Middle Ages?
56fb95f0b28b3419009f1e72
as a time of ignorance and superstition
586
False
What did Enlightenment scholars consider to be inferior to reason?
56fb95f0b28b3419009f1e73
faith
547
False
The medieval period is frequently caricatured as a "time of ignorance and superstition" that placed "the word of religious authorities over personal experience and rational activity." This is a legacy from both the Renaissance and Enlightenment, when scholars contrasted their intellectual cultures with those of the medieval period, to the detriment of the Middle Ages. Renaissance scholars saw the Middle Ages as a period of decline from the high culture and civilisation of the Classical world; Enlightenment scholars saw reason as superior to faith, and thus viewed the Middle Ages as a time of ignorance and superstition.
What is Edward Grant a historian of?
56fb966eb28b3419009f1e78
Science
83
False
Who argued that scholars in the Middle Ages were rarely coerced by the Church?
56fb966eb28b3419009f1e79
David Lindberg
383
False
According to Grant, the medieval use of reason was the forerunner the revolutionary rationalism of what century?
56fb966eb28b3419009f1e7a
18th
181
False
Others argue that reason was generally held in high regard during the Middle Ages. Science historian Edward Grant writes, "If revolutionary rational thoughts were expressed [in the 18th century], they were only made possible because of the long medieval tradition that established the use of reason as one of the most important of human activities". Also, contrary to common belief, David Lindberg writes, "the late medieval scholar rarely experienced the coercive power of the church and would have regarded himself as free (particularly in the natural sciences) to follow reason and observation wherever they led".
During what century was it first proposed that people in the Middle Ages thought the Earth was flat?
56fb971fb28b3419009f1e7e
19th
121
False
Along with autopsies, what is it erroneously believed that the medieval Church forbade?
56fb971fb28b3419009f1e7f
dissections
635
False
According to a misconception, what did the rise of Christianity destroy?
56fb971fb28b3419009f1e80
ancient science
709
False
According to another misconception, what field of study was the medieval Church opposed to?
56fb971fb28b3419009f1e81
natural philosophy
786
False
Along with Lindberg, who is a notable scholar of the Middle Ages?
56fb971fb28b3419009f1e82
Ronald Numbers
361
False
The caricature of the period is also reflected in some more specific notions. One misconception, first propagated in the 19th century and still very common, is that all people in the Middle Ages believed that the Earth was flat. This is untrue, as lecturers in the medieval universities commonly argued that evidence showed the Earth was a sphere. Lindberg and Ronald Numbers, another scholar of the period, state that there "was scarcely a Christian scholar of the Middle Ages who did not acknowledge [Earth's] sphericity and even know its approximate circumference". Other misconceptions such as "the Church prohibited autopsies and dissections during the Middle Ages", "the rise of Christianity killed off ancient science", or "the medieval Christian church suppressed the growth of natural philosophy", are all cited by Numbers as examples of widely popular myths that still pass as historical truth, although they are not supported by current historical research.
Phonology
What is phonology a branch of?
56fc2c4e00a8df19004037be
linguistics
25
False
What kind of systems are the traditional focus of phonology?
56fc2c4e00a8df19004037bf
phonemes
172
False
The study of sign language is a part of what?
56fc2c4e00a8df19004037c0
Phonology
553
False
linguistics
25
What is articulator a branch of?
5a81e05b31013a001a334f3d
True
phonemes
172
What kind of systems are the traditional focus of linguistics?
5a81e05b31013a001a334f3e
True
Phonology
553
What is the study of branches a part of?
5a81e05b31013a001a334f3f
True
Phonology
0
What is a branch of levels?
5a81e05b31013a001a334f40
True
languages
93
What kind of systems did branches focus on?
5a81e05b31013a001a334f41
True
Phonology is a branch of linguistics concerned with the systematic organization of sounds in languages. It has traditionally focused largely on the study of the systems of phonemes in particular languages (and therefore used to be also called phonemics, or phonematics), but it may also cover any linguistic analysis either at a level beneath the word (including syllable, onset and rime, articulatory gestures, articulatory features, mora, etc.) or at all levels of language where sound is considered to be structured for conveying linguistic meaning. Phonology also includes the study of equivalent organizational systems in sign languages.
What part of a language can phonology as a word also refer to?
56fc2e0800a8df19004037c4
the phonological system
70
False
What is another term for phonological system?
56fc2e0800a8df19004037c5
sound system
95
False
Aside from syntax and the phonological system, what else comprises a language?
56fc2e0800a8df19004037c6
vocabulary
237
False
What sort of language system is phonology?
56fc2e0800a8df19004037c7
fundamental
149
False
the phonological system
70
What part of a language can vocabulary as a word also refer to?
5a81e42031013a001a334f7f
True
sound system
95
What is another term for vocabulary?
5a81e42031013a001a334f80
True
vocabulary
237
Aside from syntax and the phonological system what else comprises words?
5a81e42031013a001a334f81
True
fundamental
149
What sort of language system is vocabulary?
5a81e42031013a001a334f82
True
phonology of English
30
What is an example of vocabulary?
5a81e42031013a001a334f83
True
The word phonology (as in the phonology of English) can also refer to the phonological system (sound system) of a given language. This is one of the fundamental systems which a language is considered to comprise, like its syntax and its vocabulary.
What branch of linguistics is phonology distinguished from?
56fc2f352603e71400409ff3
phonetics
38
False
What kind of linguistics is phonetics considered to be a part of?
56fc2f352603e71400409ff4
descriptive
309
False
Phonology is generally considered a part of the theoretical side of what discipline?
56fc2f352603e71400409ff5
linguistics
363
False
When was the phonome's modern concept developed?
56fc2f352603e71400409ff6
mid 20th century
654
False
What subfield of modern phonology other than phsycholinguistics crosses over with phonetics?
56fc2f352603e71400409ff7
speech perception
796
False
phonetics
38
What branch of linguistics is laboratory distinguished from?
5a81f29731013a001a334fbb
True
descriptive
309
What kind of linguistics is laboratory considered to be a part of?
5a81f29731013a001a334fbc
True
linguistics
321
Laboratory is generally considered a part of the theoretical side of what discipline?
5a81f29731013a001a334fbd
True
mid 20th century
654
When was the laboratory's modern concept developed?
5a81f29731013a001a334fbe
True
speech perception
796
What subfield of modern phonology other than phsycholinguistics crosses over with laboratory?
5a81f29731013a001a334fbf
True
Phonology is often distinguished from phonetics. While phonetics concerns the physical production, acoustic transmission and perception of the sounds of speech, phonology describes the way sounds function within a given language or across languages to encode meaning. For many linguists, phonetics belongs to descriptive linguistics, and phonology to theoretical linguistics, although establishing the phonological system of a language is necessarily an application of theoretical principles to analysis of phonetic evidence. Note that this distinction was not always made, particularly before the development of the modern concept of the phoneme in the mid 20th century. Some subfields of modern phonology have a crossover with phonetics in descriptive disciplines such as psycholinguistics and speech perception, resulting in specific areas like articulatory phonology or laboratory phonology.
What language does phonology as a word come from?
56fc2fec2603e71400409ffd
Greek
34
False
What Greek word is -logy derived from?
56fc2fec2603e71400409ffe
lógos
118
False
Who in 1939 defined phonology?
56fc2fec2603e71400409fff
Nikolai Trubetzkoy
195
False
A distinction was drawn between language and what?
56fc2fec2603e7140040a000
speech
408
False
When did Lass write about phonology?
56fc2fec2603e7140040a001
1998
549
False
Greek
34
What language does speech as a word come from?
5a81f32e31013a001a334fc5
True
lógos
118
What Greek word is speech derived from?
5a81f32e31013a001a334fc6
True
Nikolai Trubetzkoy
195
Who in 1939 defined speech?
5a81f32e31013a001a334fc7
True
speech
408
A distinction was drawn between phonology and what?
5a81f32e31013a001a334fc8
True
1998
549
When did Lass write about speech?
5a81f32e31013a001a334fc9
True
The word phonology comes from the Greek φωνή, phōnḗ, "voice, sound," and the suffix -logy (which is from Greek λόγος, lógos, "word, speech, subject of discussion"). Definitions of the term vary. Nikolai Trubetzkoy in Grundzüge der Phonologie (1939) defines phonology as "the study of sound pertaining to the system of language," as opposed to phonetics, which is "the study of sound pertaining to the act of speech" (the distinction between language and speech being basically Saussure's distinction between langue and parole). More recently, Lass (1998) writes that phonology refers broadly to the subdiscipline of linguistics concerned with the sounds of language, while in more narrow terms, "phonology proper is concerned with the function, behavior and organization of sounds as linguistic items." According to Clark et al. (2007), it means the systematic use of sound to encode meaning in any spoken human language, or the field of linguistics studying this use.
What type of grammar was phonology first a part of?
56fc30d800a8df19004037e0
Sanskrit
68
False
What is the name of ancient Sanskrit grammar?
56fc30d800a8df19004037e1
Ashtadhyayi
51
False
Who first composed the Ashtadhyayi?
56fc30d800a8df19004037e2
Pāṇini
97
False
During what time period did Panini do his work?
56fc30d800a8df19004037e3
4th century BC
111
False
What other text was related to the Ashtadhyayi?
56fc30d800a8df19004037e4
the Shiva Sutras
141
False
Sanskrit
68
What type of grammar were phenomes first a part of?
5a81f42031013a001a334fcf
True
Ashtadhyayi
51
What is the name of ancient phenome grammar?
5a81f42031013a001a334fd0
True
Pāṇini
97
Who first composed the Sanskrit language?
5a81f42031013a001a334fd1
True
4th century BC
111
During what time period did the Sanskrit language begin?
5a81f42031013a001a334fd2
True
the Shiva Sutras
141
What other text was related to morphology?
5a81f42031013a001a334fd3
True
The history of phonology may be traced back to the Ashtadhyayi, the Sanskrit grammar composed by Pāṇini in the 4th century BC. In particular the Shiva Sutras, an auxiliary text to the Ashtadhyayi, introduces what can be considered a list of the phonemes of the Sanskrit language, with a notational system for them that is used throughout the main text, which deals with matters of morphology, syntax and semantics.
When was the phoneme as a concept introduced?
56fc316300a8df19004037ea
1876
140
False
Who was Jan Baudouin de Courtenay's student?
56fc316300a8df19004037eb
Mikołaj Kruszewski
79
False
What nationality was de Courtenay?
56fc316300a8df19004037ec
Polish
4
False
What was de Courtenay's profession?
56fc316300a8df19004037ed
scholar
11
False
Who was influenced by  Jan Baudouin de Courtenay?
56fc316300a8df19004037ee
Ferdinand de Saussure
402
False
1876
140
When was allophony as a concept introduced?
5a81f70131013a001a334fe3
True
Mikołaj Kruszewski
79
Who was Jan Baudouin de Courtenay's father?
5a81f70131013a001a334fe4
True
Polish
4
What nationality was Kruszewski?
5a81f70131013a001a334fe5
True
scholar
11
What was Kruszewski's profession?
5a81f70131013a001a334fe6
True
Ferdinand de Saussure
402
Who was influenced by Mikolaj Kruszewski?
5a81f70131013a001a334fe7
True
The Polish scholar Jan Baudouin de Courtenay (together with his former student Mikołaj Kruszewski) introduced the concept of the phoneme in 1876, and his work, though often unacknowledged, is considered to be the starting point of modern phonology. He also worked on the theory of phonetic alternations (what is now called allophony and morphophonology), and had a significant influence on the work of Ferdinand de Saussure.
What was Nikolai Trubetzkoy's publication?
56fc36ad2603e7140040a01b
Principles of Phonology
171
False
When was Principles of Phonology published?
56fc36ad2603e7140040a01c
1939
223
False
What is Trubetzkoy considered to have founded?
56fc36ad2603e7140040a01d
morphophonology
380
False
What school was Trubetzkoy a member of?
56fc36ad2603e7140040a01e
the Prague school.
62
False
What was Trubetzkoy's title?
56fc36ad2603e7140040a01f
Prince
112
False
Principles of Phonology
171
What was Baudouin de Courtenay's publication?
5a81f82431013a001a334ffd
True
1939
223
When was Principles of Phonology made into a movie?
5a81f82431013a001a334ffe
True
morphophonology
380
What is de Courtenay considered to have founded?
5a81f82431013a001a334fff
True
the Prague school
62
What school was de Courtenay a member of?
5a81f82431013a001a335000
True
Prince
112
What was de Courtenay's title?
5a81f82431013a001a335001
True
An influential school of phonology in the interwar period was the Prague school. One of its leading members was Prince Nikolai Trubetzkoy, whose Grundzüge der Phonologie (Principles of Phonology), published posthumously in 1939, is among the most important works in the field from this period. Directly influenced by Baudouin de Courtenay, Trubetzkoy is considered the founder of morphophonology, although this concept had also been recognized by de Courtenay. Trubetzkoy also developed the concept of the archiphoneme. Another important figure in the Prague school was Roman Jakobson, who was one of the most prominent linguists of the 20th century.
When was The Sound Pattern of English published?
56fc38192603e7140040a025
1968
3
False
Other than Chomsky who else published The Sound Pattern of English?
56fc38192603e7140040a026
Morris Halle
25
False
Besides the syllable what was downplayed as a result of SPE's influence on phonological theory?
56fc38192603e7140040a027
emphasis on segments
820
False
What other discipline was combined with phonology by the generativists?
56fc38192603e7140040a028
morphophonology
880
False
1968
3
When were expansion rules published?
5a81f95631013a001a335019
True
Morris Halle
25
Other than Chornsky who else published expansion rules?
5a81f95631013a001a33501a
True
emphasis on segments
820
Besides the syllable what was downplayed as a result of SPE's influence on expansion rules?
5a81f95631013a001a33501b
True
morphophonology
880
What other discipline was combined with expansion by the generativists?
5a81f95631013a001a33501c
True
features
325
What are from a universally important syllable?
5a81f95631013a001a33501d
True
In 1968 Noam Chomsky and Morris Halle published The Sound Pattern of English (SPE), the basis for generative phonology. In this view, phonological representations are sequences of segments made up of distinctive features. These features were an expansion of earlier work by Roman Jakobson, Gunnar Fant, and Morris Halle. The features describe aspects of articulation and perception, are from a universally fixed set, and have the binary values + or −. There are at least two levels of representation: underlying representation and surface phonetic representation. Ordered phonological rules govern how underlying representation is transformed into the actual pronunciation (the so-called surface form). An important consequence of the influence SPE had on phonological theory was the downplaying of the syllable and the emphasis on segments. Furthermore, the generativists folded morphophonology into phonology, which both solved and created problems.
Whose publications started the theory of Natural phonology?
56fc3a7400a8df1900403806
David Stampe
73
False
According to Stampe what is phonology based on?
56fc3a7400a8df1900403807
a set of universal phonological processes
161
False
Aside from being active what other condition can the universal phonological processes exist in?
56fc3a7400a8df1900403808
suppressed
271
False
Who is the number two natural phonologist?
56fc3a7400a8df1900403809
Patricia Donegan
705
False
Who was the founder of natural morphology?
56fc3a7400a8df190040380a
Wolfgang U. Dressler
901
False
David Stampe
73
Whose publications started the theory of universal input?
5a81fce131013a001a33504b
True
a set of universal phonological processes
161
According to Stampe what is universal input based on?
5a81fce131013a001a33504c
True
suppressed
271
Aside from being active what other condition can the natural morphology exist in?
5a81fce131013a001a33504d
True
Patricia Donegan
705
Who is the number two universal processor?
5a81fce131013a001a33504e
True
Wolfgang U. Dressler
901
Who was the founder of active utterance?
5a81fce131013a001a33504f
True
Natural phonology is a theory based on the publications of its proponent David Stampe in 1969 and (more explicitly) in 1979. In this view, phonology is based on a set of universal phonological processes that interact with one another; which ones are active and which are suppressed is language-specific. Rather than acting on segments, phonological processes act on distinctive features within prosodic groups. Prosodic groups can be as small as a part of a syllable or as large as an entire utterance. Phonological processes are unordered with respect to each other and apply simultaneously (though the output of one process may be the input to another). The second most prominent natural phonologist is Patricia Donegan (Stampe's wife); there are many natural phonologists in Europe, and a few in the U.S., such as Geoffrey Nathan. The principles of natural phonology were extended to morphology by Wolfgang U. Dressler, who founded natural morphology.
Who founded autosegmental phonology?
56fc3b342603e7140040a037
John Goldsmith
8
False
When did John Goldsmith share his work?
56fc3b342603e7140040a038
1976
3
False
What did Autosegmental phonology morph into?
56fc3b342603e7140040a039
feature geometry
326
False
John Goldsmith
8
Who founded operating tiers?
5a81fdbf31013a001a335055
True
1976
3
When did John Goldsmith publish his work?
5a81fdbf31013a001a335056
True
feature geometry
326
What did operating tiers morph into?
5a81fdbf31013a001a335057
True
Phonological phenomena
59
What are no longer seen as operating on lexical phonology?
5a81fdbf31013a001a335058
True
geometry
334
What became the standard theory of phenomes?
5a81fdbf31013a001a335059
True
In 1976 John Goldsmith introduced autosegmental phonology. Phonological phenomena are no longer seen as operating on one linear sequence of segments, called phonemes or feature combinations, but rather as involving some parallel sequences of features which reside on multiple tiers. Autosegmental phonology later evolved into feature geometry, which became the standard theory of representation for theories of the organization of phonology as different as lexical phonology and optimality theory.
When was Government phonology first seen?
56fc3bd800a8df1900403816
the early 1980s
42
False
Jonathan Kaye is an important person in what form of phonology?
56fc3bd800a8df1900403817
Government
0
False
What is responsible for differences in surface realizations according to Government phonology?
56fc3bd800a8df1900403818
restricted variation
385
False
the early 1980s
42
When were government principles first seen?
5a82045b31013a001a3350c9
True
Government
0
Jonathan Kaye is an important person in what form of conflict?
5a82045b31013a001a3350ca
True
restricted variation
385
What is responsible for differences in surface realizations according to government conflict?
5a82045b31013a001a3350cb
True
languages
175
What vary according to their selection of government?
5a82045b31013a001a3350cc
True
essentially the same
350
What is true of all languages' field parameters?
5a82045b31013a001a3350cd
True
Government phonology, which originated in the early 1980s as an attempt to unify theoretical notions of syntactic and phonological structures, is based on the notion that all languages necessarily follow a small set of principles and vary according to their selection of certain binary parameters. That is, all languages' phonological structures are essentially the same, but there is restricted variation that accounts for differences in surface realizations. Principles are held to be inviolable, though parameters may sometimes come into conflict. Prominent figures in this field include Jonathan Kaye, Jean Lowenstamm, Jean-Roger Vergnaud, Monik Charette, and John Harris.
When did Prince and Smolensky develop their theory?
56fc3e072603e7140040a03d
1991
43
False
Where was optimality theory created?
56fc3e072603e7140040a03e
LSA summer institute
19
False
Aside from Alan Prince who brought optimality theory to morphology?
56fc3e072603e7140040a03f
John McCarthy
440
False
Who were prominent critics of optimality theory?
56fc3e072603e7140040a040
Mark Hale and Charles Reiss
709
False
1991
43
When did Prince and Smolensky develop pronunciation?
5a8205c631013a001a3350ed
True
LSA summer institute
19
Where was dominant theory created?
5a8205c631013a001a3350ee
True
John McCarthy
440
Aside from Alan Prince who brought dominant theory to morphology?
5a8205c631013a001a3350ef
True
Mark Hale and Charles Reiss
709
Who were prominent critics of dominant theory?
5a8205c631013a001a3350f0
True
Mark Hale and Charles Reiss
709
Who are proponents of dominant phonology?
5a8205c631013a001a3350f1
True
In a course at the LSA summer institute in 1991, Alan Prince and Paul Smolensky developed optimality theory—an overall architecture for phonology according to which languages choose a pronunciation of a word that best satisfies a list of constraints ordered by importance; a lower-ranked constraint can be violated when the violation is necessary in order to obey a higher-ranked constraint. The approach was soon extended to morphology by John McCarthy and Alan Prince, and has become a dominant trend in phonology. The appeal to phonetic grounding of constraints and representational elements (e.g. features) in various approaches has been criticized by proponents of 'substance-free phonology', especially Mark Hale and Charles Reiss.
What followed government phonology?
56fc3e7800a8df1900403824
strict-CV phonology
59
False
Where is government phonology popular?
56fc3e7800a8df1900403825
the United Kingdom,
107
False
What theory is seen more in the US?
56fc3e7800a8df1900403826
optimality theory
135
False
strict-CV phonology
59
What followed government optimality?
5a82075d31013a001a335113
True
the United Kingdom
107
Where is descendant phonology popular?
5a82075d31013a001a335114
True
optimality theory
135
What government idea is seen more in the UK?
5a82075d31013a001a335115
True
government phonology
18
What has a greater following in France?
5a82075d31013a001a335116
True
optimality theory
135
What began in the United States?
5a82075d31013a001a335117
True
Broadly speaking, government phonology (or its descendant, strict-CV phonology) has a greater following in the United Kingdom, whereas optimality theory is predominant in the United States.[citation needed]
What is Evolutionary Phonology an integrated approach to?
56fc3f0e00a8df190040382a
phonological theory
26
False
What is combined to sound patterns by Evolutionary Phonology?
56fc3f0e00a8df190040382b
synchronic and diachronic accounts
60
False
When did Evolutionary Phonology come into being?
56fc3f0e00a8df190040382c
recent years.
158
False
What sort of approach did Evolutionary Phonology take?
56fc3f0e00a8df190040382d
integrated
3
False
phonological theory
26
What is recent diachronic an integrated approach to?
5a8209af31013a001a335127
True
synchronic and diachronic accounts
60
What is combined to sound patterns by recent patterns?
5a8209af31013a001a335128
True
recent years
158
When did  diachronic come into being?
5a8209af31013a001a335129
True
integrated
3
What sort of approach did recent diachronic take?
5a8209af31013a001a33512a
True
An integrated approach to phonological theory
0
What was initiated with sound accounts?
5a8209af31013a001a33512b
True
An integrated approach to phonological theory that combines synchronic and diachronic accounts to sound patterns was initiated with Evolutionary Phonology in recent years.
What are the units called that traditional phonology studies?
56fc43d900a8df1900403832
phonemes
177
False
What is another word for variations?
56fc43d900a8df1900403833
allophones
389
False
What is the opposite of aspirated?
56fc43d900a8df1900403834
unaspirated
552
False
phonemes
177
What are the minimal pairs called that minimal phonology studies?
5a820bf031013a001a33513b
True
allophones
389
What is another word for phoneme?
5a820bf031013a001a33513c
True
unaspirated
1106
What is the opposite of phoneme?
5a820bf031013a001a33513d
True
Thai, Hindi, and Quechua
848
In what languages are there minimal pairs of words for which allophones are the only contrasting feature?
5a820bf031013a001a33513e
True
English
327
Which speakers treat both sounds as aspirations?
5a820bf031013a001a33513f
True
An important part of traditional, pre-generative schools of phonology is studying which sounds can be grouped into distinctive units within a language; these units are known as phonemes. For example, in English, the "p" sound in pot is aspirated (pronounced [pʰ]) while that in spot is not aspirated (pronounced [p]). However, English speakers intuitively treat both sounds as variations (allophones) of the same phonological category, that is of the phoneme /p/. (Traditionally, it would be argued that if an aspirated [pʰ] were interchanged with the unaspirated [p] in spot, native speakers of English would still hear the same words; that is, the two sounds are perceived as "the same" /p/.) In some other languages, however, these two sounds are perceived as different, and they are consequently assigned to different phonemes. For example, in Thai, Hindi, and Quechua, there are minimal pairs of words for which aspiration is the only contrasting feature (two words can have different meanings but with the only difference in pronunciation being that one has an aspirated sound where the other has an unaspirated one).
What type of language study involves trying to deduce underlying phonomes?
56fc44bb2603e7140040a04b
phonological
12
False
Aside from finding out what underlying phonemes are there what does the phonological study of a language try to find out about the language?
56fc44bb2603e7140040a04c
sound inventory
206
False
What kind of speaker data does studying a language phonologically involve examining?
56fc44bb2603e7140040a04d
native
122
False
phonological
12
What type of language study involves trying to deduce transcriptions?
5a820d7b31013a001a33514f
True
sound inventory
206
Aside from finding out what underlying phonemes are there what does the phnological study of a language tray to find out about minimal pairs?
5a820d7b31013a001a335150
True
native
122
What kind of transcription data does studying a language phonologically involve examining?
5a820d7b31013a001a335151
True
The presence or absence of minimal pairs
242
What is a frequently used criterion for deciding whether two languages should be assigned to the same phoneme?
5a820d7b31013a001a335152
True
looking at data
64
What does part of the assigned transcription of a language involve?
5a820d7b31013a001a335153
True
Part of the phonological study of a language therefore involves looking at data (phonetic transcriptions of the speech of native speakers) and trying to deduce what the underlying phonemes are and what the sound inventory of the language is. The presence or absence of minimal pairs, as mentioned above, is a frequently used criterion for deciding whether two sounds should be assigned to the same phoneme. However, other considerations often need to be taken into account as well.
What kind of linguistics describes how factors of languages change in history?
56fc86e1b53dbe190075511d
historical
374
False
With the passage of time what particular things phonemic in a language are known to change?
56fc86e1b53dbe190075511e
contrasts
15
False
In the past sounds that now belong to separate phonemes were allophones of what kind of phoneme in English?
56fc86e1b53dbe190075511f
the same phoneme
216
False
historical
327
What kind of linguistics describes how factors of phenomes change in history?
5a820f9431013a001a335175
True
contrasts
15
With the passage of phenomes what particular things phonemic in a language are known to change?
5a820f9431013a001a335176
True
the same phoneme
216
In the past sounds that now belong to separate phenomes were allophones of what kind  of change in English?
5a820f9431013a001a335177
True
The particular contrasts which are phonemic in a language
0
What cannot change over time?
5a820f9431013a001a335178
True
historical linguistics
374
Where is historical change of time described?
5a820f9431013a001a335179
True
The particular contrasts which are phonemic in a language can change over time. At one time, [f] and [v], two sounds that have the same place and manner of articulation and differ in voicing only, were allophones of the same phoneme in English, but later came to belong to separate phonemes. This is one of the main factors of historical change of languages as described in historical linguistics.
How do speech perception and articulation findings and insights affect previous and more traditional ideas?
56fc87acb53dbe1900755123
complicate
73
False
How does interchanging allophones of the same pheneme render words?
56fc87acb53dbe1900755124
unrecognizable
260
False
What does splicing words affect?
56fc87acb53dbe1900755125
speech perception
450
False
complicate
73
How do speech perception and articulation findings and insights affect previous and more traditional spliced words?
5a8210ef31013a001a335191
True
unrecognizable
260
How does interchanging phenomes of the same allophone render words?
5a8210ef31013a001a335192
True
speech perception
450
What does splicing phenomes affect?
5a8210ef31013a001a335193
True
interchanged allophones of the same phoneme
202
What can result in recognizable words?
5a8210ef31013a001a335194
True
findings and insights of speech perception and articulation research
4
What complicates the traditional ideas of phonemes being perceived as the same allophones?
5a8210ef31013a001a335195
True
The findings and insights of speech perception and articulation research complicate the traditional and somewhat intuitive idea of interchangeable allophones being perceived as the same phoneme. First, interchanged allophones of the same phoneme can result in unrecognizable words. Second, actual speech, even at a word level, is highly co-articulated, so it is problematic to expect to be able to splice words into simple segments without affecting speech perception.
What are assigned to phonemes by different linguists?
56fc88d898e8fc14001ea7d1
sounds
84
False
What part of a human does language processing?
56fc88d898e8fc14001ea7d2
brain
366
False
The phonetical similarity of what thing causes disagreements between linguists?
56fc88d898e8fc14001ea7d3
allophones
165
False
sounds
84
What are assigned to phonemes by different languages?
5a82122f31013a001a3351a5
True
brain
366
What part of a human does allophone processing?
5a82122f31013a001a3351a6
True
allophones
165
The phonetical similarity of what thing causes disagreements between phenomes?
5a82122f31013a001a3351a7
True
linguists
10
Who takes different approaches to the problem of assigning sounds to allophones?
5a82122f31013a001a3351a8
True
linguists
10
Who differs in the extent to which they requires phonemes to be phonetically similar?
5a82122f31013a001a3351a9
True
Different linguists therefore take different approaches to the problem of assigning sounds to phonemes. For example, they differ in the extent to which they require allophones to be phonetically similar. There are also differing ideas as to whether this grouping of sounds is purely a tool for linguistic analysis, or reflects an actual process in the way the human brain processes a language.
When did theoretical linguists turn away traditional phoneme concepts?
56fc89bbb53dbe1900755129
early 1960s
10
False
On what level do theoretical linguists consider basic units?
56fc89bbb53dbe190075512a
abstract
149
False
What is a name for the basic morpheme unit?
56fc89bbb53dbe190075512b
morphophonemes
220
False
What is the act of analyzing morphophones called?
56fc89bbb53dbe190075512c
morphophonology
279
False
What kind of linguists are leaving the old methods behind?
56fc89bbb53dbe190075512d
theoretical
23
False
early 1960s
10
When did theoretical linguists turn away traditioinal analysis concepts?
5a8214c031013a001a3351af
True
abstract
149
On what level do theoretical linguists consider basic approaches?
5a8214c031013a001a3351b0
True
morphophonemes
220
What is a name for the basic phoneme unit?
5a8214c031013a001a3351b1
True
theoretical
23
What kind of linguists are leaving the old phonemes behind?
5a8214c031013a001a3351b2
True
early 1960s
10
When did theoretical linguists move away from the traditional concept of a morpheme?
5a8214c031013a001a3351b3
True
Since the early 1960s, theoretical linguists have moved away from the traditional concept of a phoneme, preferring to consider basic units at a more abstract level, as a component of morphemes; these units can be called morphophonemes, and analysis using this approach is called morphophonology.
What do phonemes differentiate?
56fc965c98e8fc14001ea7d7
meaning
79
False
Aside from phonemes what is studied by phonology?
56fc965c98e8fc14001ea7d8
how sounds alternate
121
False
The study of syllable structure is part of what discipline?
56fc965c98e8fc14001ea7d9
phonology
103
False
meaning
79
What do allomorphs differentiate?
5a82162231013a001a3351b9
True
how sounds alternate
121
Aside from phonemes what is studies by geometry?
5a82162231013a001a3351ba
True
phonology
103
The study of accent structure is part of what discipline?
5a82162231013a001a3351bb
True
phonology
103
What studies how geometry alternates?
5a82162231013a001a3351bc
True
phonemes
92
What is another name for syllable?
5a82162231013a001a3351bd
True
In addition to the minimal units that can serve the purpose of differentiating meaning (the phonemes), phonology studies how sounds alternate, i.e. replace one another in different forms of the same morpheme (allomorphs), as well as, for example, syllable structure, stress, feature geometry, accent, and intonation.
Under what topic is suprasegmentals studied?
56fc975cb53dbe1900755133
prosody
338
False
Aside from bleeding what is an order of rules that define how pronunciation of a sound changes?
56fc975cb53dbe1900755134
feeding
305
False
Phonotactics, phonological alternation and prosody are topics contained in what discipline?
56fc975cb53dbe1900755135
Phonology
0
False
Stress and intonation are studied under what topic?
56fc975cb53dbe1900755136
prosody
338
False
prosody
338
Under what topic is phonological alternation studied?
5a82188631013a001a3351e5
True
feeding
305
Aside from bleeding what is an order of rules that define how suprasegmentals change?
5a82188631013a001a3351e6
True
Phonology
0
Phonotactics, phonological alternation and stress are topics contained in what discipline?
5a82188631013a001a3351e7
True
prosody
338
Stress and rules are studied under what topic?
5a82188631013a001a3351e8
True
Phonology
0
What includes topics such as sound rules?
5a82188631013a001a3351e9
True
Phonology also includes topics such as phonotactics (the phonological constraints on what sounds can appear in what positions in a given language) and phonological alternation (how the pronunciation of a sound changes through the application of phonological rules, sometimes in a given order which can be feeding or bleeding,) as well as prosody, the study of suprasegmentals and topics such as stress and intonation.
Instead of being language-specific what kind of tools are the principles of phonological analysis designed to be?
56fc989fb53dbe190075513b
general analytical tools
119
False
What other types of language have the phonological analysis principles been applied to?
56fc989fb53dbe190075513c
sign languages
230
False
What are the principles of phonological analysis able to be applied separately from?
56fc989fb53dbe190075513d
modality
72
False
In sign languages what are not represented as instances of speech sounds?
56fc989fb53dbe190075513e
sub-lexical units
295
False
general analytical tools
119
Instead of being language specific what kind of tool is sign language designed to be?
5a821ac031013a001a335201
True
sign languages
262
What other types of language have the speech sound principles been applied to
5a821ac031013a001a335202
True
modality
72
What are the principles of sign language able to be applied separately from?
5a821ac031013a001a335203
True
sub-lexical units
295
In sign laguages what are not represented as instances of analytical tools?
5a821ac031013a001a335204
True
principles of phonological analysis
4
What can be applied depending on modality?
5a821ac031013a001a335205
True
The principles of phonological analysis can be applied independently of modality because they are designed to serve as general analytical tools, not language-specific ones. The same principles have been applied to the analysis of sign languages (see Phonemes in sign languages), even though the sub-lexical units are not instantiated as speech sounds.
Computer
In computer terms, what does CPU stand for?
56fdc40c19033b140034cd4d
central processing unit
84
False
What are the devices called that are from an external source?
56fdc40c19033b140034cd4e
Peripheral devices
312
False
What are two things that a computer always has?
56fdc40c19033b140034cd4f
(CPU), and some form of memory
108
False
Conventionally, a computer consists of at least one processing element, typically a central processing unit (CPU), and some form of memory. The processing element carries out arithmetic and logic operations, and a sequencing and control unit can change the order of operations in response to stored information. Peripheral devices allow information to be retrieved from an external source, and the result of operations saved and retrieved.
What were analog computers originally used for?
56fdc48f19033b140034cd53
astronomical calculations
111
False
During what war were computers first used for military applications?
56fdc48f19033b140034cd54
World War II,
141
False
In computer terms, what does PC stand for?
56fdc48f19033b140034cd55
personal computers
436
False
During what war were the first digital computers invented?
56fdc48f19033b140034cd56
World War II
141
False
Mechanical analog computers started appearing in the first century and were later used in the medieval era for astronomical calculations. In World War II, mechanical analog computers were used for specialized military applications such as calculating torpedo aiming. During this time the first electronic digital computers were developed. Originally they were the size of a large room, consuming as much power as several hundred modern personal computers (PCs).
Computers in today's age are based on what that make them much faster than earlier computers?
56fdc4f319033b140034cd5b
integrated circuits
26
False
How much more powerful are modern computers versus early computers?
56fdc4f319033b140034cd5c
millions to billions of times
50
False
Modern computers based on integrated circuits are millions to billions of times more capable than the early machines, and occupy a fraction of the space. Computers are small enough to fit into mobile devices, and mobile computers can be powered by small batteries. Personal computers in their various forms are icons of the Information Age and are generally considered as "computers". However, the embedded computers found in many devices from MP3 players to fighter aircraft and from electronic toys to industrial robots are the most numerous.
When was the first known use of the word "computer"?
56fdc5b519033b140034cd5f
1613
50
False
In which book, was the term "computer" first used?
56fdc5b519033b140034cd60
The Yong Mans Gleanings
72
False
Who was the author of the book, The Yong Mans Gleanings?
56fdc5b519033b140034cd61
Richard Braithwait
114
False
From the end of what century, did the word "computer" take its well known meaning of today?
56fdc5b519033b140034cd62
19th century
442
False
The first known use of the word "computer" was in 1613 in a book called The Yong Mans Gleanings by English writer Richard Braithwait: "I haue read the truest computer of Times, and the best Arithmetician that euer breathed, and he reduceth thy dayes into a short number." It referred to a person who carried out calculations, or computations. The word continued with the same meaning until the middle of the 20th century. From the end of the 19th century the word began to take on its more familiar meaning, a machine that carries out computations.
The earliest device to help count was what?
56fdc60e19033b140034cd67
a form of tally stick
161
False
Calculi during the Fertile Crescent refers to what?
56fdc60e19033b140034cd68
(clay spheres, cones, etc.)
259
False
Devices have been used to aid computation for thousands of years, mostly using one-to-one correspondence with fingers. The earliest counting device was probably a form of tally stick. Later record keeping aids throughout the Fertile Crescent included calculi (clay spheres, cones, etc.) which represented counts of items, probably livestock or grains, sealed in hollow unbaked clay containers. The use of counting rods is one example.
What was the abacus first used for?
56fdc67a19033b140034cd6b
arithmetic tasks
34
False
When was the Roman abacus first used?
56fdc67a19033b140034cd6c
2400 BC
103
False
Where was the Roman abacus first used?
56fdc67a19033b140034cd6d
Babylonia
81
False
In medieval Europe was was placed on a table to help count money?
56fdc67a19033b140034cd6e
a checkered cloth
230
False
A checkered cloth on a table was used in medieval Europe to help count what?
56fdc67a19033b140034cd6f
sums of money
360
False
The abacus was initially used for arithmetic tasks. The Roman abacus was used in Babylonia as early as 2400 BC. Since then, many other forms of reckoning boards or tables have been invented. In a medieval European counting house, a checkered cloth would be placed on a table, and markers moved around on it according to certain rules, as an aid to calculating sums of money.
What is thought to be the first mechanical analog computer?
56fdc6e7761e401900d28bdd
The Antikythera mechanism
0
False
The Antikythera mechanism was thought to be the first computer according to whom?
56fdc6e7761e401900d28bde
Derek J. de Solla Price.
100
False
When was the Antikythera mechanism discovered?
56fdc6e7761e401900d28bdf
1901
199
False
Where was the Antikythera mechanism found in 1901?
56fdc6e7761e401900d28be0
Antikythera wreck off the Greek island of Antikythera
211
False
Where is the Greek Island of Antikythera located between?
56fdc6e7761e401900d28be1
Kythera and Crete
274
False
The Antikythera mechanism is believed to be the earliest mechanical analog "computer", according to Derek J. de Solla Price. It was designed to calculate astronomical positions. It was discovered in 1901 in the Antikythera wreck off the Greek island of Antikythera, between Kythera and Crete, and has been dated to circa 100 BC. Devices of a level of complexity comparable to that of the Antikythera mechanism would not reappear until a thousand years later.
Who invented the planisphere?
56fdc764761e401900d28be7
Abū Rayhān al-Bīrūnī
151
False
Who is thought to have invented the astrolabe in history?
56fdc764761e401900d28be8
Hipparchus
316
False
The astrolabe was a combination of what two devices in history?
56fdc764761e401900d28be9
the planisphere and dioptra
345
False
The first astrolabe with gear-wheels was invented when?
56fdc764761e401900d28bea
1235
627
False
The first astrolabe with a mechanical calendar was invented where?
56fdc764761e401900d28beb
Persia
617
False
Many mechanical aids to calculation and measurement were constructed for astronomical and navigation use. The planisphere was a star chart invented by Abū Rayhān al-Bīrūnī in the early 11th century. The astrolabe was invented in the Hellenistic world in either the 1st or 2nd centuries BC and is often attributed to Hipparchus. A combination of the planisphere and dioptra, the astrolabe was effectively an analog computer capable of working out several different kinds of problems in spherical astronomy. An astrolabe incorporating a mechanical calendar computer and gear-wheels was invented by Abi Bakr of Isfahan, Persia in 1235. Abū Rayhān al-Bīrūnī invented the first mechanical geared lunisolar calendar astrolabe, an early fixed-wired knowledge processing machine with a gear train and gear-wheels, circa 1000 AD.
The sector, a calculating instrument, was invented during what century?
56fdc789761e401900d28bf1
16th century
206
False
The sector, a calculating instrument used for solving problems in proportion, trigonometry, multiplication and division, and for various functions, such as squares and cube roots, was developed in the late 16th century and found application in gunnery, surveying and navigation.
When was the slide rule first invented?
56fdc947761e401900d28bf3
1620–1630
35
False
What is the slide rule used for?
56fdc947761e401900d28bf4
doing multiplication and division.
151
False
What industry are slide rules still used today?
56fdc947761e401900d28bf5
Aviation
438
False
The slide rule was invented around 1620–1630, shortly after the publication of the concept of the logarithm. It is a hand-operated analog computer for doing multiplication and division. As slide rule development progressed, added scales provided reciprocals, squares and square roots, cubes and cube roots, as well as transcendental functions such as logarithms and exponentials, circular and hyperbolic trigonometry and other functions. Aviation is one of the few fields where slide rules are still in widespread use, particularly for solving time–distance problems in light aircraft. To save space and for ease of reading, these are typically circular devices rather than the classic linear slide rule shape. A popular example is the E6B.
What was the profession of Pierre Jaquet-Droz?
56fdc9b8761e401900d28bf9
a Swiss watchmaker
33
False
When did Pierre Jaquet-Droz build a mechanical doll that could hold a pen?
56fdc9b8761e401900d28bfa
In the 1770s
0
False
Where is the doll Pierre Jaquet-Droz built today?
56fdc9b8761e401900d28bfb
Musée d'Art et d'Histoire
380
False
Where is the Musee d-Art et d'Histoire located?
56fdc9b8761e401900d28bfc
Neuchâtel, Switzerland
409
False
In the 1770s Pierre Jaquet-Droz, a Swiss watchmaker, built a mechanical doll (automata) that could write holding a quill pen. By switching the number and order of its internal wheels different letters, and hence different messages, could be produced. In effect, it could be mechanically "programmed" to read instructions. Along with two other complex machines, the doll is at the Musée d'Art et d'Histoire of Neuchâtel, Switzerland, and still operates.
When was the tide-predicting machine invented by Sir William Thomson invented?
56fdca0319033b140034cd75
1872
63
False
Who invented the first tide-predicting machine in 1872?
56fdca0319033b140034cd76
Sir William Thomson
40
False
What did Sir William Thomson's tide-predicting machine use to function?
56fdca0319033b140034cd77
system of pulleys and wires
132
False
The tide-predicting machine invented by Sir William Thomson in 1872 was of great utility to navigation in shallow waters. It used a system of pulleys and wires to automatically calculate predicted tide levels for a set period at a particular location.
What type of mechanisms did the differential analyzer use?
56fdcadf761e401900d28c01
wheel-and-disc
118
False
In 1876 who lobbied for the construction of the differential analyzers?
56fdcadf761e401900d28c02
Lord Kelvin
180
False
During what decade were mechanical differential analyzers developed?
56fdcadf761e401900d28c03
1920s
557
False
In the 1920s, who was the person who developed mechanical differential analyzers?
56fdcadf761e401900d28c04
Vannevar Bush
564
False
The differential analyser, a mechanical analog computer designed to solve differential equations by integration, used wheel-and-disc mechanisms to perform the integration. In 1876 Lord Kelvin had already discussed the possible construction of such calculators, but he had been stymied by the limited output torque of the ball-and-disk integrators. In a differential analyzer, the output of one integrator drove the input of the next integrator, or a graphing output. The torque amplifier was the advance that allowed these machines to work. Starting in the 1920s, Vannevar Bush and others developed mechanical differential analyzers.
Who invented the concept of a programmable computer?
56fdcbae19033b140034cd7b
Charles Babbage
0
False
Who is considered the "father of the computer"?
56fdcbae19033b140034cd7c
Charles Babbage
0
False
During what century was the first mechanical computer invented by Charles Babbage?
56fdcbae19033b140034cd7d
early 19th century
222
False
What year did Charles Babbage find out that An Analytical Engine was possible?
56fdcbae19033b140034cd7e
1833
345
False
Charles Babbage, an English mechanical engineer and polymath, originated the concept of a programmable computer. Considered the "father of the computer", he conceptualized and invented the first mechanical computer in the early 19th century. After working on his revolutionary difference engine, designed to aid in navigational calculations, in 1833 he realized that a much more general design, an Analytical Engine, was possible. The input of programs and data was to be provided to the machine via punched cards, a method being used at the time to direct mechanical looms such as the Jacquard loom. For output, the machine would have a printer, a curve plotter and a bell. The machine would also be able to punch numbers onto cards to be read in later. The Engine incorporated an arithmetic logic unit, control flow in the form of conditional branching and loops, and integrated memory, making it the first design for a general-purpose computer that could be described in modern terms as Turing-complete.
Who was Charles Babbage's son?
56fdcc3b19033b140034cd83
Henry Babbage
551
False
Who created a simple version of the analytical engine's computing unit?
56fdcc3b19033b140034cd84
Henry Babbage
551
False
When was the mill created by Henry Babbage?
56fdcc3b19033b140034cd85
1888
653
False
When was a demonstration by Henry Babbage of the mill given?
56fdcc3b19033b140034cd86
1906
728
False
The machine was about a century ahead of its time. All the parts for his machine had to be made by hand — this was a major problem for a device with thousands of parts. Eventually, the project was dissolved with the decision of the British Government to cease funding. Babbage's failure to complete the analytical engine can be chiefly attributed to difficulties not only of politics and financing, but also to his desire to develop an increasingly sophisticated computer and to move ahead faster than anyone else could follow. Nevertheless, his son, Henry Babbage, completed a simplified version of the analytical engine's computing unit (the mill) in 1888. He gave a successful demonstration of its use in computing tables in 1906.
Who invented the first analog computer in the form of a tide-predicting machine?
56fdcccd761e401900d28c09
Sir William Thomson
76
False
When was the first analog computer in the form of a tide-predicting machine created?
56fdcccd761e401900d28c0a
1872
99
False
Who created the idea of the differential analyzer in 1876?
56fdcccd761e401900d28c0b
James Thomson
280
False
James Thomson was the brother of what famous figure?
56fdcccd761e401900d28c0c
Lord Kelvin
326
False
The first modern analog computer was a tide-predicting machine, invented by Sir William Thomson in 1872. The differential analyser, a mechanical analog computer designed to solve differential equations by integration using wheel-and-disc mechanisms, was conceptualized in 1876 by James Thomson, the brother of the more famous Lord Kelvin.
Where was the differential analyzer built by H.L. Hazen?
56fdcd2e761e401900d28c11
MIT
132
False
The differential analyzer by H.L. Hazen and Vannevar Bush was first being built in what year?
56fdcd2e761e401900d28c12
1927
148
False
The torque amplifiers of the differential analyzer were created by whom?
56fdcd2e761e401900d28c13
H. W. Nieman
250
False
The art of mechanical analog computing reached its zenith with the differential analyzer, built by H. L. Hazen and Vannevar Bush at MIT starting in 1927. This built on the mechanical integrators of James Thomson and the torque amplifiers invented by H. W. Nieman. A dozen of these devices were built before their obsolescence became obvious.
By what decade were analog computing devices rendered obsolete?
56fdcd6019033b140034cd8b
50s
9
False
Analog computers remain in use in what industries?
56fdcd6019033b140034cd8c
education (control systems) and aircraft (slide rule).
189
False
By the 1950s the success of digital electronic computers had spelled the end for most analog computing machines, but analog computers remain in use in some specialized applications such as education (control systems) and aircraft (slide rule).
Who wrote the paper "On Computable Numbers"?
56fdda6219033b140034cd8f
Alan Turing
108
False
When did Alan Turing write the paper, "On Computable Numbers"?
56fdda6219033b140034cd90
1936
157
False
Who did Turing revise the results on the limits of proof and computation in 1931?
56fdda6219033b140034cd91
Kurt Gödel
212
False
The principle of the modern computer was first described by mathematician and pioneering computer scientist Alan Turing, who set out the idea in his seminal 1936 paper, On Computable Numbers. Turing reformulated Kurt Gödel's 1931 results on the limits of proof and computation, replacing Gödel's universal arithmetic-based formal language with the formal and simple hypothetical devices that became known as Turing machines. He proved that some such machine would be capable of performing any conceivable mathematical computation if it were representable as an algorithm. He went on to prove that there was no solution to the Entscheidungsproblem by first showing that the halting problem for Turing machines is undecidable: in general, it is not possible to decide algorithmically whether a given Turing machine will ever halt.
A Universal Machine is known as what today?
56fddf1719033b140034cd95
Universal Turing machine
71
False
He also introduced the notion of a 'Universal Machine' (now known as a Universal Turing machine), with the idea that such a machine could perform the tasks of any other machine, or in other words, it is provably capable of computing anything that is computable by executing a program stored on tape, allowing the machine to be programmable. Von Neumann acknowledged that the central concept of the modern computer was due to this paper. Turing machines are to this day a central object of study in theory of computation. Except for the limitations imposed by their finite memory stores, modern computers are said to be Turing-complete, which is to say, they have algorithm execution capability equivalent to a universal Turing machine.
What part of the US military developed an electromechanical analog computer to use on a submarine?
56fddf75761e401900d28c17
the United States Navy
8
False
When did the US Navy invent an electromechanical computer to use on a submarine?
56fddf75761e401900d28c18
1938
3
False
What type of math did the Torpedo Data computer use to fire a torpedo at a moving target?
56fddf75761e401900d28c19
trigonometry
169
False
By 1938 the United States Navy had developed an electromechanical analog computer small enough to use aboard a submarine. This was the Torpedo Data Computer, which used trigonometry to solve the problem of firing a torpedo at a moving target. During World War II similar devices were developed in other countries as well.
Who created the relay computer, the Z2?
56fde0be761e401900d28c1d
Konrad Zuse
294
False
When did Konrad Zuse invent the Z2?
56fde0be761e401900d28c1e
1939
309
False
What is one of the first electromechanical relay computers?
56fde0be761e401900d28c1f
The Z2
259
False
Konrad Zuse was an engineer with what nationality?
56fde0be761e401900d28c20
German
278
False
Early digital computers were electromechanical; electric switches drove mechanical relays to perform the calculation. These devices had a low operating speed and were eventually superseded by much faster all-electric computers, originally using vacuum tubes. The Z2, created by German engineer Konrad Zuse in 1939, was one of the earliest examples of an electromechanical relay computer.
When did Konrad Zuse create the Z3 computer?
56fde15e761e401900d28c25
1941
3
False
What was the first automatic, digital, programmable computer created by Konrad Zuse?
56fde15e761e401900d28c26
the Z3
51
False
How many relays did the Z3 contain?
56fde15e761e401900d28c27
2000
173
False
What did the Z3 operate for a clock frequency?
56fde15e761e401900d28c28
about 5–10 Hz
258
False
How many words of memory could be stored with the Z3?
56fde15e761e401900d28c29
64
345
False
In 1941, Zuse followed his earlier machine up with the Z3, the world's first working electromechanical programmable, fully automatic digital computer. The Z3 was built with 2000 relays, implementing a 22 bit word length that operated at a clock frequency of about 5–10 Hz. Program code was supplied on punched film while data could be stored in 64 words of memory or supplied from the keyboard. It was quite similar to modern machines in some respects, pioneering numerous advances such as floating point numbers. Replacement of the hard-to-implement decimal system (used in Charles Babbage's earlier design) by the simpler binary system meant that Zuse's machines were easier to build and potentially more reliable, given the technologies available at that time. The Z3 was Turing complete.
Where did the engineer Tommy Flowers work at during the 1930s?
56fde2cb761e401900d28c2f
Post Office Research Station
203
False
In what city did Tommy Flowers work in the 1930s?
56fde2cb761e401900d28c30
London
235
False
The Atanasoff-Berry computer was invented in what year?
56fde2cb761e401900d28c31
1942
684
False
How many vacuum tubes did the Atanasoff-Berry computer use?
56fde2cb761e401900d28c32
about 300
786
False
At what school did John Vincent Atansoff and Clifford E. Berry work?
56fde2cb761e401900d28c33
Iowa State University
603
False
Purely electronic circuit elements soon replaced their mechanical and electromechanical equivalents, at the same time that digital calculation replaced analog. The engineer Tommy Flowers, working at the Post Office Research Station in London in the 1930s, began to explore the possible use of electronics for the telephone exchange. Experimental equipment that he built in 1934 went into operation 5 years later, converting a portion of the telephone exchange network into an electronic data processing system, using thousands of vacuum tubes. In the US, John Vincent Atanasoff and Clifford E. Berry of Iowa State University developed and tested the Atanasoff–Berry Computer (ABC) in 1942, the first "automatic electronic digital computer". This design was also all-electronic and used about 300 vacuum tubes, with capacitors fixed in a mechanically rotating drum for memory.
Who built the first Colossus in 1943?
56fde387761e401900d28c39
Flowers
390
False
When was the Colossus sent to Bletchley Park?
56fde387761e401900d28c3a
18 January 1944
620
False
Who achieved success at cracking secret German military communications during World War II?
56fde387761e401900d28c3b
, the British
19
False
Where did the British crack secret German military communications during World War II?
56fde387761e401900d28c3c
Bletchley Park
36
False
During World War II, the British at Bletchley Park achieved a number of successes at breaking encrypted German military communications. The German encryption machine, Enigma, was first attacked with the help of the electro-mechanical bombes. To crack the more sophisticated German Lorenz SZ 40/42 machine, used for high-level Army communications, Max Newman and his colleagues commissioned Flowers to build the Colossus. He spent eleven months from early February 1943 designing and building the first Colossus. After a functional test in December 1943, Colossus was shipped to Bletchley Park, where it was delivered on 18 January 1944 and attacked its first message on 5 February.
What was the first electronic digital programmable computer in the world?
56fde3d4761e401900d28c41
Colossus
0
False
How many vacuum tubes did the Colossus Mark I contain?
56fde3d4761e401900d28c42
1500 thermionic valves (tubes)
400
False
How many tubes did Colossus Mark II contain?
56fde3d4761e401900d28c43
2400
449
False
Colossus was the world's first electronic digital programmable computer. It used a large number of valves (vacuum tubes). It had paper-tape input and was capable of being configured to perform a variety of boolean logical operations on its data, but it was not Turing-complete. Nine Mk II Colossi were built (The Mk I was converted to a Mk II making ten machines in total). Colossus Mark I contained 1500 thermionic valves (tubes), but Mark II with 2400 valves, was both 5 times faster and simpler to operate than Mark 1, greatly speeding the decoding process.
The US-buils ENIAC stands for what?
56fde41819033b140034cd97
Electronic Numerical Integrator and Computer)
20
False
What was the first electronic programmable computer built in the United States?
56fde41819033b140034cd98
ENIAC
13
False
The US-built ENIAC (Electronic Numerical Integrator and Computer) was the first electronic programmable computer built in the US. Although the ENIAC was similar to the Colossus it was much faster and more flexible. It was unambiguously a Turing-complete device and could compute any problem that would fit into its memory. Like the Colossus, a "program" on the ENIAC was defined by the states of its patch cables and switches, a far cry from the stored program electronic machines that came later. Once a program was written, it had to be mechanically set into the machine with manual resetting of plugs and switches.
How many times could it add or subtract a second?
56fde79819033b140034cd9b
5000
128
False
What was the limit of its high speed memory?
56fde79819033b140034cd9c
ENIAC
414
False
ENIAC was constructed by whom?
56fde79819033b140034cd9d
John Mauchly and J. Presper Eckert
344
False
Where did John Mauchly and J. Presper Eckert build the ENIAC?
56fde79819033b140034cd9e
University of Pennsylvania
386
False
When was ENIAC fully operational?
56fde79819033b140034cd9f
1945
500
False
It combined the high speed of electronics with the ability to be programmed for many complex problems. It could add or subtract 5000 times a second, a thousand times faster than any other machine. It also had modules to multiply, divide, and square root. High speed memory was limited to 20 words (about 80 bytes). Built under the direction of John Mauchly and J. Presper Eckert at the University of Pennsylvania, ENIAC's development and construction lasted from 1943 to full operation at the end of 1945. The machine was huge, weighing 30 tons, using 200 kilowatts of electric power and contained over 18,000 vacuum tubes, 1,500 relays, and hundreds of thousands of resistors, capacitors, and inductors.
The basis for the stored-program computer was written by whom?
56fde82419033b140034cda5
Alan Turing
406
False
When did Alan Turing write his paper about the basis for the stored-program computer?
56fde82419033b140034cda6
1936
425
False
When did Alan Turing join the National Physical Laboratory?
56fde82419033b140034cda7
1945
440
False
The first outline for the report on the EDVAC was released by John von Neumann when?
56fde82419033b140034cda8
1945.
776
False
Where did John von Neumann circulate the first draft of a report on the EDVAC?
56fde82419033b140034cda9
University of Pennsylvania
688
False
Early computing machines had fixed programs. Changing its function required the re-wiring and re-structuring of the machine. With the proposal of the stored-program computer this changed. A stored-program computer includes by design an instruction set and can store in memory a set of instructions (a program) that details the computation. The theoretical basis for the stored-program computer was laid by Alan Turing in his 1936 paper. In 1945 Turing joined the National Physical Laboratory and began work on developing an electronic stored-program digital computer. His 1945 report ‘Proposed Electronic Calculator’ was the first specification for such a device. John von Neumann at the University of Pennsylvania, also circulated his First Draft of a Report on the EDVAC in 1945.
What was the nickname of the Manchester Small-Scale Experimental Machine?
56fde89119033b140034cdaf
Baby
59
False
What was the first stored-program computer in the world?
56fde89119033b140034cdb0
The Manchester Small-Scale Experimental Machine
0
False
Where was the Manchester Small-Scale Experimental Machine built?
56fde89119033b140034cdb1
Victoria University of Manchester
132
False
Who built the Manchester Small-Scale Experimental Machine?
56fde89119033b140034cdb2
Frederic C. Williams, Tom Kilburn and Geoff Tootill
169
False
When did the Manchester Small-Scale Experimental Machine run its first program?
56fde89119033b140034cdb3
21 June 1948
251
False
The Manchester Small-Scale Experimental Machine, nicknamed Baby, was the world's first stored-program computer. It was built at the Victoria University of Manchester by Frederic C. Williams, Tom Kilburn and Geoff Tootill, and ran its first program on 21 June 1948. It was designed as a testbed for the Williams tube the first random-access digital storage device. Although the computer was considered "small and primitive" by the standards of its time, it was the first working machine to contain all of the elements essential to a modern electronic computer. As soon as the SSEM had demonstrated the feasibility of its design, a project was initiated at the university to develop it into a more usable computer, the Manchester Mark 1.
What was the prototype for the Ferranti Mark 1?
56fde8fe19033b140034cdb9
The Mark 1
0
False
What was the first available computer for the public?
56fde8fe19033b140034cdba
Ferranti Mark 1
56
False
When was the Ferranti Mark 1 built?
56fde8fe19033b140034cdbb
1951
220
False
Where was the Ferranti Mark 1 sent to after it was developed?
56fde8fe19033b140034cdbc
University of Manchester
183
False
When was the LEO 1 computer first operational?
56fde8fe19033b140034cdbd
April 1951
547
False
The Mark 1 in turn quickly became the prototype for the Ferranti Mark 1, the world's first commercially available general-purpose computer. Built by Ferranti, it was delivered to the University of Manchester in February 1951. At least seven of these later machines were delivered between 1953 and 1957, one of them to Shell labs in Amsterdam. In October 1947, the directors of British catering company J. Lyons & Company decided to take an active role in promoting the commercial development of computers. The LEO I computer became operational in April 1951  and ran the world's first regular routine office computer job.
When was the bipolar transistor created?
56fde92d761e401900d28c47
1947.
39
False
When did transistors start replacing vacuum tubes in computers?
56fde92d761e401900d28c48
1955
50
False
The bipolar transistor was invented in 1947. From 1955 onwards transistors replaced vacuum tubes in computer designs, giving rise to the "second generation" of computers. Compared to vacuum tubes, transistors have many advantages: they are smaller, and require less power than vacuum tubes, so give off less heat. Silicon junction transistors were much more reliable than vacuum tubes and had longer, indefinite, service life. Transistorized computers could contain tens of thousands of binary logic circuits in a relatively compact space.
At the University of Manchester, who oversaw the building of a computer using transistors instead of valves?
56fdea0919033b140034cdc3
Tom Kilburn
64
False
The first transistorised computer was operational in what year?
56fdea0919033b140034cdc4
1953
245
False
What did the machine use to generate its clock waveforms?
56fdea0919033b140034cdc5
valves
344
False
Who built the Harwell CADET?
56fdea0919033b140034cdc6
electronics division of the Atomic Energy Research Establishment at Harwell
584
False
In what year was the Harwell CADET built?
56fdea0919033b140034cdc7
1955
565
False
At the University of Manchester, a team under the leadership of Tom Kilburn designed and built a machine using the newly developed transistors instead of valves. Their first transistorised computer and the first in the world, was operational by 1953, and a second version was completed there in April 1955. However, the machine did make use of valves to generate its 125 kHz clock waveforms and in the circuitry to read and write on its magnetic drum memory, so it was not the first completely transistorized computer. That distinction goes to the Harwell CADET of 1955, built by the electronics division of the Atomic Energy Research Establishment at Harwell.
The integrated circuit of a computer was the idea of whom?
56fdea41761e401900d28c4b
Geoffrey W.A. Dummer
236
False
Where did Geoffrey W.A. Dummer work at?
56fdea41761e401900d28c4c
Royal Radar Establishment of the Ministry of Defence
182
False
The next great advance in computing power came with the advent of the integrated circuit. The idea of the integrated circuit was first conceived by a radar scientist working for the Royal Radar Establishment of the Ministry of Defence, Geoffrey W.A. Dummer. Dummer presented the first public description of an integrated circuit at the Symposium on Progress in Quality Electronic Components in Washington, D.C. on 7 May 1952.
Where created the first practical integrated circuits?
56fdeafd19033b140034cdcd
Jack Kilby at Texas Instruments and Robert Noyce at Fairchild Semiconductor.
41
False
Where did Jack Kilby work at when he created the first IC?
56fdeafd19033b140034cdce
Texas Instruments
55
False
When was the first functional IC demonstrated?
56fdeafd19033b140034cdcf
12 September 1958.
266
False
What was Kilby's IC made of?
56fdeafd19033b140034cdd0
germanium
732
False
Noyce's IC was made up of what material?
56fdeafd19033b140034cdd1
silicon
690
False
The first practical ICs were invented by Jack Kilby at Texas Instruments and Robert Noyce at Fairchild Semiconductor. Kilby recorded his initial ideas concerning the integrated circuit in July 1958, successfully demonstrating the first working integrated example on 12 September 1958. In his patent application of 6 February 1959, Kilby described his new device as "a body of semiconductor material ... wherein all the components of the electronic circuit are completely integrated". Noyce also came up with his own idea of an integrated circuit half a year later than Kilby. His chip solved many practical problems that Kilby's had not. Produced at Fairchild Semiconductor, it was made of silicon, whereas Kilby's chip was made of germanium.
What was the name of the first single-chip microprocessor?
56fdeb6419033b140034cdd7
Intel 4004
387
False
Who created the Intel 4004 microprocessor?
56fdeb6419033b140034cdd8
Ted Hoff, Federico Faggin, and Stanley Mazor
424
False
Where did Ted Hoff, Federico Faggin, and Stanley Mazor work at?
56fdeb6419033b140034cdd9
Intel.
472
False
This new development heralded an explosion in the commercial and personal use of computers and led to the invention of the microprocessor. While the subject of exactly which device was the first microprocessor is contentious, partly due to lack of agreement on the exact definition of the term "microprocessor", it is largely undisputed that the first single-chip microprocessor was the Intel 4004, designed and realized by Ted Hoff, Federico Faggin, and Stanley Mazor at Intel.
Computing resources that are created in cell phones are called what?
56fdebbf761e401900d28c4f
smartphones
342
False
How many tablets were sold in 2Q 2013?
56fdebbf761e401900d28c50
237 million devices
522
False
With the continued miniaturization of computing resources, and advancements in portable battery life, portable computers grew in popularity in the 2000s. The same developments that spurred the growth of laptop computers and other portable computers allowed manufacturers to integrate computing resources into cellular phones. These so-called smartphones and tablets run on a variety of operating systems and have become the dominant computing device on the market, with manufacturers reporting having shipped an estimated 237 million devices in 2Q 2013.
Billions of instructions per second are called what in computer terms?
56fdec0119033b140034cddd
(gigaflops)
257
False
In practical terms, a computer program may be just a few instructions or extend to many millions of instructions, as do the programs for word processors and web browsers for example. A typical modern computer can execute billions of instructions per second (gigaflops) and rarely makes a mistake over many years of operation. Large computer programs consisting of several million instructions may take teams of programmers years to write, and due to the complexity of the task almost certainly contain errors.
When a computer goes back and repeats instructions of a program over until an internal condition is met is called what?
56fdecd819033b140034cddf
the flow of control
399
False
What allows a computer to perform repetitive tasks without human intervening?
56fdecd819033b140034cde0
the flow of control
399
False
Program execution might be likened to reading a book. While a person will normally read each word and line in sequence, they may at times jump back to an earlier place in the text or skip sections that are not of interest. Similarly, a computer may sometimes go back and repeat the instructions in some section of the program over and over again until some internal condition is met. This is called the flow of control within the program and it is what allows the computer to perform tasks repeatedly without human intervention.
Which computer is the Harvard architecture modeled after?
56fdedfb761e401900d28c53
Harvard Mark I computer
1165
False
A computer that stores its program in memory and kept separate from the data is called what?
56fdedfb761e401900d28c54
the Harvard architecture
1130
False
In most computers, individual instructions are stored as machine code with each instruction being given a unique number (its operation code or opcode for short). The command to add two numbers together would have one opcode; the command to multiply them would have a different opcode, and so on. The simplest computers are able to perform any of a handful of different instructions; the more complex computers have several hundred to choose from, each with a unique numerical code. Since the computer's memory is able to store numbers, it can also store the instruction codes. This leads to the important fact that entire programs (which are just lists of these instructions) can be represented as lists of numbers and can themselves be manipulated inside the computer in the same way as numeric data. The fundamental concept of storing programs in the computer's memory alongside the data they operate on is the crux of the von Neumann, or stored program[citation needed], architecture. In some cases, a computer might store some or all of its program in memory that is kept separate from the data it operates on. This is called the Harvard architecture after the Harvard Mark I computer. Modern von Neumann computers display some traits of the Harvard architecture in their designs, such as in CPU caches.
A computer's assembly language is known as what?
56fdee67761e401900d28c57
basic instruction can be given a short name that is indicative of its function
278
False
Programs that convert assembly language into machine language are called what?
56fdee67761e401900d28c58
an assembler.
662
False
Computer programs that are long lists of numbers are called what?
56fdee67761e401900d28c59
machine language
74
False
While it is possible to write computer programs as long lists of numbers (machine language) and while this technique was used with many early computers, it is extremely tedious and potentially error-prone to do so in practice, especially for complicated programs. Instead, each basic instruction can be given a short name that is indicative of its function and easy to remember – a mnemonic such as ADD, SUB, MULT or JUMP. These mnemonics are collectively known as a computer's assembly language. Converting programs written in assembly language into something the computer can actually understand (machine language) is usually done by a computer program called an assembler.
Programming languages are translated into machine code by what?
56fdeebd19033b140034cde3
a compiler or an assembler
322
False
Programming languages are translated at run time by what?
56fdeebd19033b140034cde4
an interpreter
405
False
Programming languages provide various ways of specifying programs for computers to run. Unlike natural languages, programming languages are designed to permit no ambiguity and to be concise. They are purely written languages and are often difficult to read aloud. They are generally either translated into machine code by a compiler or an assembler before being run, or translated directly at run time by an interpreter. Sometimes programs are executed by a hybrid method of the two techniques.
An ARM architecture computer can be found in what?
56fdeee819033b140034cde7
a PDA or a hand-held videogame
239
False
Machine languages and the assembly languages that represent them (collectively termed low-level programming languages) tend to be unique to a particular type of computer. For instance, an ARM architecture computer (such as may be found in a PDA or a hand-held videogame) cannot understand the machine language of an Intel Pentium or the AMD Athlon 64 computer that might be in a PC.
Assembly language that is translated into machine language is done by what type of computer?
56fdefbe19033b140034cde9
a compiler
525
False
Though considerably easier than in machine language, writing long programs in assembly language is often difficult and is also error prone. Therefore, most practical programs are written in more abstract high-level programming languages that are able to express the needs of the programmer more conveniently (and thereby help reduce programmer error). High level languages are usually "compiled" into machine language (or sometimes into assembly language and then into machine language) using another computer program called a compiler. High level languages are less related to the workings of the target computer than assembly language, and more related to the language and structure of the problem(s) to be solved by the final program. It is therefore often possible to use different compilers to translate the same high level language program into the machine language of many different types of computer. This is part of the means by which software like video games may be made available for different computer architectures such as personal computers and various video game consoles.
An example of a 4GL is what?
56fdf01419033b140034cdeb
SQL
193
False
What is the pro of 4GL over a 3G language?
56fdf01419033b140034cdec
provides ways to obtain information without requiring the direct help of a programmer
88
False
These 4G languages are less procedural than 3G languages. The benefit of 4GL is that it provides ways to obtain information without requiring the direct help of a programmer. Example of 4GL is SQL.
Another name for errors in programs are called what?
56fdf2d419033b140034cdef
"bugs
39
False
Bugs are usually the fault of whom or what?
56fdf2d419033b140034cdf0
programmer error or an oversight made in the program's design
666
False
Errors in computer programs are called "bugs". They may be benign and not affect the usefulness of the program, or have only subtle effects. But in some cases, they may cause the program or the entire system to "hang", becoming unresponsive to input such as mouse clicks or keystrokes, to completely fail, or to crash. Otherwise benign bugs may sometimes be harnessed for malicious intent by an unscrupulous user writing an exploit, code designed to take advantage of a bug and disrupt a computer's proper execution. Bugs are usually not the fault of the computer. Since computers merely execute the instructions they are given, bugs are nearly always the result of programmer error or an oversight made in the program's design.
Who was the developer of the first compier?
56fdf33b19033b140034cdf3
Admiral Grace Hopper
0
False
Who first coined the term "bugs"?
56fdf33b19033b140034cdf4
Admiral Grace Hopper
0
False
What type of creature shorted a relay of Grace Hopper's computer?
56fdf33b19033b140034cdf5
moth
166
False
What type of computer of Grace Hopper's was shorted by a moth?
56fdf33b19033b140034cdf6
Harvard Mark II
205
False
When was Grace Hopper's Hardvard Mark II shorted by a moth?
56fdf33b19033b140034cdf7
September 1947
233
False
Admiral Grace Hopper, an American computer scientist and developer of the first compiler, is credited for having first used the term "bugs" in computing after a dead moth was found shorting a relay in the Harvard Mark II computer in September 1947.
The ALU of a computer stands for what?
56fdf3c119033b140034cdfd
arithmetic logic
57
False
Input and output devices are known as what term?
56fdf3c119033b140034cdfe
I/O
170
False
Besides the ALU, input and output devices, what are the other two main components of a computer?
56fdf3c119033b140034cdff
the control unit, the memory
86
False
A general purpose computer has four main components: the arithmetic logic unit (ALU), the control unit, the memory, and the input and output devices (collectively termed I/O). These parts are interconnected by buses, often made of groups of wires.
A circuit in a computer part represents what?
56fdf4c6761e401900d28c5d
a bit (binary digit) of information
171
False
In positive logic representation a "1" represents when a circuit is what?
56fdf4c6761e401900d28c5e
on
235
False
In positive logic representation a "0" represents when a circuit is what?
56fdf4c6761e401900d28c5f
off
268
False
Inside each of these parts are thousands to trillions of small electrical circuits which can be turned off or on by means of an electronic switch. Each circuit represents a bit (binary digit) of information so that when the circuit is on it represents a "1", and when off it represents a "0" (in positive logic representation). The circuits are arranged in logic gates so that one or more of the circuits may control the state of one or more of the other circuits.
What are other names for a control unit for a computer?
56fdf50019033b140034ce03
a control system or central controller)
31
False
Reading and interpreting from a control unit is called doing what?
56fdf50019033b140034ce04
(decodes
138
False
The control unit (often called a control system or central controller) manages the computer's various components; it reads and interprets (decodes) the program instructions, transforming them into control signals that activate other parts of the computer. Control systems in advanced computers may change the order of execution of some instructions to improve performance.
A special memory cell of a CPU is called what?
56fdf56519033b140034ce07
a register
82
False
A register of a CPU keeps track of what?
56fdf56519033b140034ce08
which location in memory the next instruction is to be read from
114
False
What is a component that all CPUs have?
56fdf56519033b140034ce09
the program counter
38
False
A key component common to all CPUs is the program counter, a special memory cell (a register) that keeps track of which location in memory the next instruction is to be read from.
In what part can the program counter be changed by calculations?
56fdf63d19033b140034ce0d
the ALU
120
False
Instructions that change the program counter are called what?
56fdf63d19033b140034ce0e
"jumps"
324
False
Loops are defined as what?
56fdf63d19033b140034ce0f
instructions that are repeated by the computer)
353
False
Since the program counter is (conceptually) just another set of memory cells, it can be changed by calculations done in the ALU. Adding 100 to the program counter would cause the next instruction to be read from a place 100 locations further down the program. Instructions that modify the program counter are often known as "jumps" and allow for loops (instructions that are repeated by the computer) and often conditional instruction execution (both examples of control flow).
In some CPU designs there is tinier computer called what?
56fdf66f761e401900d28c63
microsequencer
225
False
A microsequencer can be found in what other computer component?
56fdf66f761e401900d28c64
CPU
165
False
The sequence of operations that the control unit goes through to process an instruction is in itself like a short computer program, and indeed, in some more complex CPU designs, there is another yet smaller computer called a microsequencer, which runs a microcode program that causes all of these events to happen.
The CPU is an abbreviation for what?
56fdf6df761e401900d28c67
central processing unit
65
False
What 3 parts make up the CPU?
56fdf6df761e401900d28c68
The control unit, ALU, and registers
0
False
CPUs that are constructed on a single integrated circuit are called what?
56fdf6df761e401900d28c69
a microprocessor
248
False
Since when have CPUs been constructed with a microprocessor?
56fdf6df761e401900d28c6a
mid-1970s
163
False
The control unit, ALU, and registers are collectively known as a central processing unit (CPU). Early CPUs were composed of many separate components but since the mid-1970s CPUs have typically been constructed on a single integrated circuit called a microprocessor.
Some trigonometry functions are what?
56fdf722761e401900d28c6f
sine, cosine,
182
False
The term for whole numbers is what?
56fdf722761e401900d28c70
(integers
259
False
The set of arithmetic operations that a particular ALU supports may be limited to addition and subtraction, or might include multiplication, division, trigonometry functions such as sine, cosine, etc., and square roots. Some can only operate on whole numbers (integers) whilst others use floating point to represent real numbers, albeit with limited precision. However, any computer that is capable of performing just the simplest operations can be programmed to break down the more complex operations into simple steps that it can perform. Therefore, any computer can be programmed to perform any arithmetic operation—although it will take more time to do so if its ALU does not directly support the operation. An ALU may also compare numbers and return boolean truth values (true or false) depending on whether one is equal to, greater than or less than the other ("is 64 greater than 65?").
Boolean logic consists of what?
56fdf73719033b140034ce13
AND, OR, XOR, and NOT
40
False
Logic operations involve Boolean logic: AND, OR, XOR, and NOT. These can be useful for creating complicated conditional statements and processing boolean logic.
Computers that have multiple ALUs are called what?
56fdf762761e401900d28c73
Superscalar
0
False
Superscalar computers may contain multiple ALUs, allowing them to process several instructions simultaneously. Graphics processors and computers with SIMD and MIMD features often contain ALUs that can perform arithmetic on vectors and matrices.
How many numbers can a cell of a computer's memory hold?
56fdf80d761e401900d28c75
a single number
144
False
What is the responsibility of giving significance to what the memory sees as nothing but numbers?
56fdf80d761e401900d28c76
the software's
598
False
A computer's memory can be viewed as a list of cells into which numbers can be placed or read. Each cell has a numbered "address" and can store a single number. The computer can be instructed to "put the number 123 into the cell numbered 1357" or to "add the number that is in cell 1357 to the number that is in cell 2468 and put the answer into cell 1595." The information stored in memory may represent practically anything. Letters, numbers, even computer instructions can be placed into memory with equal ease. Since the CPU does not differentiate between different types of information, it is the software's responsibility to give significance to what the memory sees as nothing but a series of numbers.
A group of 8 bits is called what?
56fdf85a761e401900d28c79
a byte
115
False
How many numbers can a byte represent?
56fdf85a761e401900d28c7a
256 different numbers
155
False
What is the range of the numbers that a byte can represent?
56fdf85a761e401900d28c7b
0 to 255 or −128 to +127
201
False
In almost all modern computers, each memory cell is set up to store binary numbers in groups of eight bits (called a byte). Each byte is able to represent 256 different numbers (28 = 256); either from 0 to 255 or −128 to +127. To store larger numbers, several consecutive bytes may be used (typically, two, four or eight). When negative numbers are required, they are usually stored in two's complement notation. Other arrangements are possible, but are usually not seen outside of specialized applications or historical contexts. A computer can store any kind of information in memory if it can be represented numerically. Modern computers have billions or even trillions of bytes of memory.
What part of the computer has memory cells called registers?
56fdf89e761e401900d28c7f
The CPU
0
False
What is the typical range of registers for a CPU?
56fdf89e761e401900d28c80
two and one hundred registers
169
False
The CPU contains a special set of memory cells called registers that can be read and written to much more rapidly than the main memory area. There are typically between two and one hundred registers depending on the type of CPU. Registers are used for the most frequently needed data items to avoid having to access main memory every time data is needed. As data is constantly being worked on, reducing the need to access main memory (which is often slow compared to the ALU and control units) greatly increases the computer's speed.
What type of memory can a CPU only read from?
56fdf9de19033b140034ce15
ROM
64
False
What type of memory can a CPU read and write from?
56fdf9de19033b140034ce16
RAM
0
False
What type of memory is always kept and kept the same?
56fdf9de19033b140034ce17
ROM
335
False
A progam inside the ROM of a PC is called what?
56fdf9de19033b140034ce18
the BIOS
425
False
Software stored in ROM is called what usually?
56fdf9de19033b140034ce19
firmware,
726
False
RAM can be read and written to anytime the CPU commands it, but ROM is preloaded with data and software that never changes, therefore the CPU can only read from it. ROM is typically used to store the computer's initial start-up instructions. In general, the contents of RAM are erased when the power to the computer is turned off, but ROM retains its data indefinitely. In a PC, the ROM contains a specialized program called the BIOS that orchestrates loading the computer's operating system from the hard disk drive into RAM whenever the computer is turned on or reset. In embedded computers, which frequently do not have disk drives, all of the required software may be stored in ROM. Software stored in ROM is often called firmware, because it is notionally more like hardware than software. Flash memory blurs the distinction between ROM and RAM, as it retains its data when turned off but is also rewritable. It is typically much slower than conventional ROM and RAM however, so its use is restricted to applications where high speed is unnecessary.
RAM cache memory is slower than what?
56fdfa03761e401900d28c83
registers
99
False
In more sophisticated computers there may be one or more RAM cache memories, which are slower than registers but faster than main memory. Generally computers with this sort of cache are designed to move frequently needed data into the cache automatically, often without the need for any intervention on the programmer's part.
Devices that give input or output to a computer are called what?
56fdfa85761e401900d28c85
peripherals
147
False
A mouse is what type of peripheral device?
56fdfa85761e401900d28c86
input
212
False
A printer is what type of peripheral device?
56fdfa85761e401900d28c87
output
259
False
Hard disk drives are what type of peripheral device?
56fdfa85761e401900d28c88
input and output
382
False
A keyboard is what type of peripheral device?
56fdfa85761e401900d28c89
input
212
False
I/O is the means by which a computer exchanges information with the outside world. Devices that provide input or output to the computer are called peripherals. On a typical personal computer, peripherals include input devices like the keyboard and mouse, and output devices such as the display and printer. Hard disk drives, floppy disk drives and optical disc drives serve as both input and output devices. Computer networking is another form of I/O.
In computer terms, when a computer is switching rapidly between running each program in turn, is called what?
56fdfad119033b140034ce1f
multitasking
209
False
While a computer may be viewed as running one gigantic program stored in its main memory, in some systems it is necessary to give the appearance of running several programs simultaneously. This is achieved by multitasking i.e. having the computer switch rapidly between running each program in turn.
A method of multitasking that takes a "slice" of time in turn is called what?
56fdfb9219033b140034ce21
"time-sharing"
757
False
A signal that stops a compute executing instructions is called what?
56fdfb9219033b140034ce22
an interrupt,
64
False
One means by which this is done is with a special signal called an interrupt, which can periodically cause the computer to stop executing instructions where it was and do something else instead. By remembering where it was executing prior to the interrupt, the computer can return to that task later. If several programs are running "at the same time". then the interrupt generator might be causing several hundred interrupts per second, causing a program switch each time. Since modern computers typically execute instructions several orders of magnitude faster than human perception, it may appear that many programs are running at the same time even though only one is ever executing in any given instant. This method of multitasking is sometimes termed "time-sharing" since each program is allocated a "slice" of time in turn.
Multitasking would seemingly cause a computer to run in what fashion?
56fdfbee19033b140034ce25
more slowly,
97
False
What do a lot of programs spend time waiting for?
56fdfbee19033b140034ce26
input/output devices
232
False
Seemingly, multitasking would cause a computer that is switching between several programs to run more slowly, in direct proportion to the number of programs it is running, but most programs spend much of their time waiting for slow input/output devices to complete their tasks. If a program is waiting for the user to click on the mouse or press a key on the keyboard, then it will not take a "time slice" until the event it is waiting for has occurred. This frees up time for other programs to execute so that many programs may be run simultaneously without unacceptable speed loss.
Multiprocessor and multi-core computers have multiples of what?
56fdfc2c761e401900d28c8f
CPUs
268
False
Some computers are designed to distribute their work across several CPUs in a multiprocessing configuration, a technique once employed only in large and powerful machines such as supercomputers, mainframe computers and servers. Multiprocessor and multi-core (multiple CPUs on a single integrated circuit) personal and laptop computers are now widely available, and are being increasingly used in lower-end markets as a result.
How many CPUs do supercomputers typically possess?
56fdfd72761e401900d28c91
thousands
192
False
What is the name of a computer that has many CPUs and much more powerful?
56fdfd72761e401900d28c92
Supercomputers
0
False
Supercomputers in particular often have highly unique architectures that differ significantly from the basic stored-program architecture and from general purpose computers. They often feature thousands of CPUs, customized high-speed interconnects, and specialized computing hardware. Such designs tend to be useful only for specialized tasks due to the large scale of program organization required to successfully utilize most of the available resources at once. Supercomputers usually see usage in large-scale simulation, graphics rendering, and cryptography applications, as well as with other so-called "embarrassingly parallel" tasks.
What system of the U.S. military's was the first large-scale system to coordinate information between several locations?
56fe00a519033b140034ce29
SAGE system
115
False
When were computers first used to coordinate information between many locations?
56fe00a519033b140034ce2a
the 1950s
84
False
Computers have been used to coordinate information between multiple locations since the 1950s. The U.S. military's SAGE system was the first large-scale example of such a system, which led to a number of special-purpose commercial systems such as Sabre.
ARPA is now known as what?
56fe00e019033b140034ce2d
DARPA)
198
False
Who funded the linking of computers around the US in the 1970s?
56fe00e019033b140034ce2e
ARPA
188
False
In the 1970s, computer engineers at research institutions throughout the United States began to link their computers together using telecommunications technology. The effort was funded by ARPA (now DARPA), and the computer network that resulted was called the ARPANET. The technologies that made the Arpanet possible spread and evolved.
The network spread to be known as what today?
56fe0112761e401900d28c95
the Internet.
90
False
In time, the network spread beyond academic and military institutions and became known as the Internet. The emergence of networking involved a redefinition of the nature and boundaries of the computer. Computer operating systems and applications were modified to include the ability to define and access the resources of other computers on the network, such as peripheral devices, stored information, and the like, as extensions of the resources of an individual computer. Initially these facilities were available primarily to people working in high-tech environments, but in the 1990s the spread of applications like e-mail and the World Wide Web, combined with the development of cheap, fast networking technologies like Ethernet and ADSL saw computer networking become almost ubiquitous. In fact, the number of computers that are networked is growing phenomenally. A very large proportion of personal computers regularly connect to the Internet to communicate and receive information. "Wireless" networking, often utilizing mobile phone networks, has meant networking is becoming increasingly ubiquitous even in mobile computing environments.
The ability to store and execute lists of instructions are called what?
56fe016d761e401900d28c97
programs
62
False
The mathematical statement of computers versatility is known as what?
56fe016d761e401900d28c98
The Church–Turing thesis
146
False
The ability to store and execute lists of instructions called programs makes computers extremely versatile, distinguishing them from calculators. The Church–Turing thesis is a mathematical statement of this versatility: any computer with a minimum capability (being Turing-complete) is, in principle, capable of performing the same tasks that any other computer can perform. Therefore, any type of computer (netbook, supercomputer, cellular automaton, etc.) is able to perform the same computational tasks, given enough time and storage capacity.
All devices that can process information can qualify being called what?
56fe01af19033b140034ce31
a computer
513
False
A computer does not need to be electronic, nor even have a processor, nor RAM, nor even a hard disk. While popular usage of the word "computer" is synonymous with a personal electronic computer, the modern definition of a computer is literally: "A device that computes, especially a programmable [usually] electronic machine that performs high-speed mathematical or logical operations or that assembles, stores, correlates, or otherwise processes information." Any device which processes information qualifies as a computer, especially if the processing is purposeful.[citation needed]
Vacuum tubes in early computers were replaced by what?
56fe022c19033b140034ce33
transistors
94
False
Transistors are typically made up of what today?
56fe022c19033b140034ce34
photolithographed semiconductors
422
False
A computer that is made using pool balls is known as what?
56fe022c19033b140034ce35
billiard ball computer)
282
False
Historically, computers evolved from mechanical computers and eventually from vacuum tubes to transistors. However, conceptually computational systems as flexible as a personal computer can be built out of almost anything. For example, a computer can be made out of billiard balls (billiard ball computer); an often quoted example.[citation needed] More realistically, modern computers are made out of transistors made of photolithographed semiconductors.
What type of computer can break encryption algorithms quickly?
56fe0329761e401900d28c9b
quantum computers
433
False
By what method do quantum computers solve encryption algorithms quickly?
56fe0329761e401900d28c9c
quantum factoring
511
False
There is active research to make computers out of many promising new types of technology, such as optical computers, DNA computers, neural computers, and quantum computers. Most computers are universal, and are able to calculate any computable function, and are limited only by their memory capacity and operating speed. However different designs of computers can give very different performance for particular problems; for example quantum computers can potentially break some modern encryption algorithms (by quantum factoring) very quickly.
Computer programs that can learn are studied in what field?
56fe034c19033b140034ce39
artificial intelligence
249
False
A computer will solve problems in exactly the way it is programmed to, without regard to efficiency, alternative solutions, possible shortcuts, or possible errors in the code. Computer programs that learn and adapt are part of the emerging field of artificial intelligence and machine learning.
Parts of a computer that are real objects are collectively known as what?
56fe037c19033b140034ce3b
hardware
9
False
The term hardware covers all of those parts of a computer that are tangible objects. Circuits, displays, power supplies, cables, keyboards, printers and mice are all hardware.
Parts of a computer that are not material objects are collectively known as what?
56fe03d5761e401900d28c9f
Software
0
False
Software stored in hardware that cannot be changed easily is called what?
56fe03d5761e401900d28ca0
firmware
251
False
What type of "ware" is a BIOS ROM in a PC?
56fe03d5761e401900d28ca1
software
121
False
Software refers to parts of the computer which do not have a material form, such as programs, data, protocols, etc. When software is stored in hardware that cannot easily be modified (such as BIOS ROM in an IBM PC compatible), it is sometimes called "firmware".
A BIOS chip is located where in a computer?
56fe0408761e401900d28ca5
the motherboard
155
False
What type of software is stored in a BIOS chip?
56fe0408761e401900d28ca6
BIOS set up
183
False
Firmware is the technology which has the combination of both hardware and software such as BIOS chip inside a computer. This chip (hardware) is located on the motherboard and has the BIOS set up (software) stored in it.
Processing data from input and output devices is typically done by what?
56fe044419033b140034ce3d
CPU
230
False
Where is the data from input devices sent to after being processed?
56fe044419033b140034ce3e
output devices
112
False
When unprocessed data is sent to the computer with the help of input devices, the data is processed and sent to output devices. The input devices may be hand-operated or automated. The act of processing is mainly regulated by the CPU. Some examples of hand-operated input devices are:
Black_people
Do some countries have negative feelings towards the word "black"?
5705ca3352bb89140068962e
communities and countries, "black" is also perceived as a derogatory,
372
False
What is "black people" a term for?
5705ca3352bb89140068962f
racial classification or of ethnicity
85
False
Do all regions perceive that term "black people" the same?
5705ca3352bb891400689630
the meaning of the expression varies widely both between and within societies
227
False
Do some cultures not use the term "Black people"?
5705ca3352bb891400689631
, "black" is also perceived as a derogatory, outdated, reductive or otherwise unrepresentative label,
397
False
Can the term "black people" have different meanings?
5705ca3352bb891400689632
the meaning of the expression varies widely both between and within societies, and depends significantly on context.
227
False
Black people is a term used in certain countries, often in socially based systems of racial classification or of ethnicity, to describe persons who are perceived to be dark-skinned compared to other given populations. As such, the meaning of the expression varies widely both between and within societies, and depends significantly on context. For many other individuals, communities and countries, "black" is also perceived as a derogatory, outdated, reductive or otherwise unrepresentative label, and as a result is neither used nor defined.
Do all societies use the term "black" the same?
5706477d75f01819005e7af4
Different societies apply differing criteria regarding who is classified as "black"
0
False
What factors can affect the classification of "blackness"?
5706477d75f01819005e7af5
societal variables
168
False
Are mixed race people classified as black?
5706477d75f01819005e7af6
mixed-race people are generally not classified as "black."
611
False
How is the term "black" defined in the United States?
5706477d75f01819005e7af7
it is instead a socially based racial classification related to being African American, with a family history associated with institutionalized slavery.
409
False
How did European Colonists use the term "Black"?
5706477d75f01819005e7af8
European colonists applied the term "black" or it was used by populations with different histories and ethnic origin.
728
False
Different societies apply differing criteria regarding who is classified as "black", and these social constructs have also changed over time. In a number of countries, societal variables affect classification as much as skin color, and the social criteria for "blackness" vary. For example, in North America the term black people is not necessarily an indicator of skin color or majority ethnic ancestry, but it is instead a socially based racial classification related to being African American, with a family history associated with institutionalized slavery. In South Africa and Latin America, for instance, mixed-race people are generally not classified as "black." In South Pacific regions such as Australia and Melanesia, European colonists applied the term "black" or it was used by populations with different histories and ethnic origin.
What made up Mauretania?
5706480975f01819005e7afe
Morocco, western Algeria, and the Spanish cities Ceuta and Melilla
103
False
Who conquered parts of Mauretania?
5706480975f01819005e7aff
The Romans
0
False
During what period did Mauretania exist?
5706480975f01819005e7b00
the classical period.
177
False
Where were the people of the region noted?
5706480975f01819005e7b01
in Classical literature
235
False
What is Mauri in English?
5706480975f01819005e7b02
Moors
304
False
The Romans interacted with and later conquered parts of Mauretania, an early state that covered modern Morocco, western Algeria, and the Spanish cities Ceuta and Melilla during the classical period. The people of the region were noted in Classical literature as Mauri, which was subsequently rendered as Moors in English.
Where was the Arab Slave Trade?
5706498475f01819005e7b08
North Africa
312
False
When were the Arab Invasions?
5706498475f01819005e7b09
the 7th century
244
False
Where were numerous dark-skinned communities?
5706498475f01819005e7b0a
North Africa
60
False
When did these communities begin?
5706498475f01819005e7b0b
some dating from prehistoric communities.
74
False
Who are they descendants of?
5706498475f01819005e7b0c
Trans-Saharan trade in peoples
157
False
Numerous communities of dark-skinned peoples are present in North Africa, some dating from prehistoric communities. Others are descendants of the historical Trans-Saharan trade in peoples and/or, and after the Arab invasions of North Africa in the 7th century, descendants of slaves from the Arab Slave Trade in North Africa.
When did Moroccan Sultan Moulay Ismail live?
57064c4575f01819005e7b1a
(1672–1727)
74
False
How many black slaves did he own?
57064c4575f01819005e7b1b
150,000
104
False
What did he call his slave army?
57064c4575f01819005e7b1c
Black Guard
137
False
What did the Black Guard do?
57064c4575f01819005e7b1d
coerced the country into submission.
154
False
When did the Black Guard exist?
57064c4575f01819005e7b1e
In the 18th century
0
False
In the 18th century, the Moroccan Sultan Moulay Ismail "the Bloodthirsty" (1672–1727) raised a corps of 150,000 black slaves, called his Black Guard, who coerced the country into submission.
Why would a black-looking Arab consider himself white?
57064d0675f01819005e7b24
because they have some distant white ancestry.
355
False
Where does Dr. Carlos Moore work?
57064d0675f01819005e7b25
Brazil's University of the State of Bahia
51
False
How do Afro-multiracials identify in the 21st century?
57064d0675f01819005e7b26
in ways that resemble multi-racials
198
False
According to Dr. Carlos Moore, resident scholar at Brazil's University of the State of Bahia, in the 21st century Afro-multiracials in the Arab world, including Arabs in North Africa, self-identify in ways that resemble multi-racials in Latin America. He claims that black-looking Arabs, much like black-looking Latin Americans, consider themselves white because they have some distant white ancestry.
Who was the Egyptian President?
57064d8c52bb8914006899ce
Anwar Sadat
19
False
What ethnicity was his father?
57064d8c52bb8914006899d0
Egyptian
128
False
What color did he refer to himself as?
57064d8c52bb8914006899d1
reddish
296
False
Egyptian President Anwar Sadat had a mother who was a dark-skinned Nubian Sudanese woman and a father who was a lighter-skinned Egyptian. In response to an advertisement for an acting position, as a young man he said, "I am not white but I am not exactly black either. My blackness is tending to reddish".
Who was enslaved more often?
57064fb952bb8914006899d6
black women
121
False
What were female slaves used for?
57064fb952bb8914006899d7
domestic service and agriculture
181
False
What did the Qur'an permit?
57064fb952bb8914006899d8
sexual relations between a male master and his female slave
267
False
What is the term for a pregnant slave?
57064fb952bb8914006899d9
umm walad
511
False
What does umm walad mean?
57064fb952bb8914006899da
"mother of a child"
524
False
Due to the patriarchal nature of Arab society, Arab men, including during the slave trade in North Africa, enslaved more black women than men. They used more black female slaves in domestic service and agriculture than males. The men interpreted the Qur'an to permit sexual relations between a male master and his female slave outside of marriage (see Ma malakat aymanukum and sex), leading to many mixed-race children. When an enslaved woman became pregnant with her Arab master's child, she was considered as umm walad or "mother of a child", a status that granted her privileged rights. The child was given rights of inheritance to the father's property, so mixed-race children could share in any wealth of the father. Because the society was patrilineal, the children took their fathers' social status at birth and were born free.
Who was the ruler in Morocco?
5706511d52bb8914006899e0
Sultan Ahmad al-Mansur
48
False
When did Sultan Ahmad al-Mansur rule?
5706511d52bb8914006899e1
from 1578 to 1608
90
False
What ethnicity was his mother?
5706511d52bb8914006899e2
Fulani
192
False
What Arabic term is still used for black people?
5706511d52bb8914006899e3
(Arabic: عبد‎,) (meaning "slave")
403
False
Who still had the term "slave" used in reference to them?
5706511d52bb8914006899e4
sub-Saharan peoples
348
False
Some succeeded their fathers as rulers, such as Sultan Ahmad al-Mansur, who ruled Morocco from 1578 to 1608. He was not technically considered as a mixed-race child of a slave; his mother was Fulani and a concubine of his father. Such tolerance for black persons, even when technically "free", was not so common in Morocco. The long association of sub-Saharan peoples as slaves is shown in the term abd (Arabic: عبد‎,) (meaning "slave"); it is still frequently used in the Arabic-speaking world as a term for black people.
When did the Arab apartheid intensify?
570652ab75f01819005e7b46
early 1991
3
False
Who felt persecuted due to the apartheid?
570652ab75f01819005e7b47
non-Arabs of the Zaghawa tribe
15
False
Where did these people live?
570652ab75f01819005e7b48
Sudan
49
False
Who controlled the government?
570652ab75f01819005e7b49
Sudanese Arabs
217
False
What was the government being accused of?
570652ab75f01819005e7b4a
deftly manipulat(ing) Arab solidarity" to carry out policies of apartheid and ethnic cleansing.
378
False
In early 1991, non-Arabs of the Zaghawa tribe of Sudan attested that they were victims of an intensifying Arab apartheid campaign, segregating Arabs and non-Arabs (specifically people of sub-Saharan African descent). Sudanese Arabs, who controlled the government, were widely referred to as practicing apartheid against Sudan's non-Arab citizens. The government was accused of "deftly manipulat(ing) Arab solidarity" to carry out policies of apartheid and ethnic cleansing.
Who accused the Arab government of practicing acts of racism?
5706602375f01819005e7b88
George Ayittey
30
False
Who executed the apartheid?
5706602375f01819005e7b89
the Arab government
53
False
Who was excluded?
5706602375f01819005e7b8a
blacks
211
False
Where were they?
5706602375f01819005e7b8b
Sudan
290
False
What is George Ayittey's profession?
5706602375f01819005e7b8c
economist
20
False
American University economist George Ayittey accused the Arab government of Sudan of practicing acts of racism against black citizens. According to Ayittey, "In Sudan... the Arabs monopolized power and excluded blacks – Arab apartheid." Many African commentators joined Ayittey in accusing Sudan of practising Arab apartheid.
Who was the Canadian Minister of Justice?
5706621052bb891400689a04
Irwin Cotler
154
False
How did Alan Dershozitz describe the Sudan?
5706621052bb891400689a05
an example of a government that "actually deserve(s)" the appellation "apartheid."
35
False
Who argeed with Dershowitz?
5706621052bb891400689a06
Irwin Cotler
154
False
Where did Irwin Cotler live?
5706621052bb891400689a07
Canadian
125
False
Alan Dershowitz described Sudan as an example of a government that "actually deserve(s)" the appellation "apartheid." Former Canadian Minister of Justice Irwin Cotler echoed the accusation.
What did the colonization of South Africa result in?
5706931c52bb891400689a8a
many unions and marriages between European men and African women from various tribes
56
False
What was a result of these marriages?
5706931c52bb891400689a8b
mixed-race children
155
False
What class were Africans and Mixed Race children considered?
5706931c52bb891400689a8c
second-class
299
False
Who was included in the Coloured group?
5706931c52bb891400689a8d
Bantu, Khoisan, and European descent
558
False
What does apartheid mean?
5706931c52bb891400689a8e
a system of legal racial segregation
791
False
In South Africa, the period of colonization resulted in many unions and marriages between European men and African women from various tribes, resulting in mixed-race children. As the Europeans acquired territory and imposed rule over the Africans, they generally pushed mixed-race and Africans into second-class status. During the first half of the 20th century, the Afrikaaner-dominated government classified the population according to four main racial groups: Black, White, Asian (mostly Indian), and Coloured. The Coloured group included people of mixed Bantu, Khoisan, and European descent (with some Malay ancestry, especially in the Western Cape). The Coloured definition occupied an intermediary political position between the Black and White definitions in South Africa. It imposed a system of legal racial segregation, a complex of laws known as apartheid.
What act determined what class a citizen belonged to?
5706939352bb891400689a94
the Population Registration Act of 1945
76
False
What test was used to determine if someone was coloured or black?
5706939352bb891400689a95
pencil test
349
False
How did the pencil test work?
5706939352bb891400689a96
A pencil was inserted into a person's hair to determine if the hair was kinky enough to hold the pencil
372
False
Who administered the "Pencil Test"?
5706939352bb891400689a97
Minor officials
158
False
The apartheid bureaucracy devised complex (and often arbitrary) criteria in the Population Registration Act of 1945 to determine who belonged in which group. Minor officials administered tests to enforce the classifications. When it was unclear from a person's physical appearance whether the individual should be considered Coloured or Black, the "pencil test" was used. A pencil was inserted into a person's hair to determine if the hair was kinky enough to hold the pencil, rather than having it pass through, as it would with smoother hair. If so, the person was classified as Black. Such classifications sometimes divided families.
Who was featured in the movie "Skin"?
57069d2c75f01819005e7c4a
Sandra Laing
0
False
What year was the movie "Skin" made?
57069d2c75f01819005e7c4b
2008
412
False
At was age was Sandra Laing expelled from school?
57069d2c75f01819005e7c4c
age 10
237
False
What is Sandra Laing's ethnicity?
57069d2c75f01819005e7c4d
South African
18
False
How many generations of European Ancestors does Sandra Laing have?
57069d2c75f01819005e7c4e
three
193
False
Sandra Laing is a South African woman who was classified as Coloured by authorities during the apartheid era, due to her skin colour and hair texture, although her parents could prove at least three generations of European ancestors. At age 10, she was expelled from her all-white school. The officials' decisions based on her anomalous appearance disrupted her family and adult life. She was the subject of the 2008 biographical dramatic film Skin, which won numerous awards.
Who was oppressed and discriminated against?
57069fe575f01819005e7c68
those classed as "Coloured"
26
False
What era did this discrimination take place?
57069fe575f01819005e7c69
During the apartheid era
0
False
Who were "Coloured" people above in the class system?
57069fe575f01819005e7c6a
those classed as "Black"
187
False
Where were the "black" areas?
57069fe575f01819005e7c6b
large townships located away from the cities
308
False
During the apartheid era, those classed as "Coloured" were oppressed and discriminated against. But, they had limited rights and overall had slightly better socioeconomic conditions than those classed as "Black". The government required that Blacks and Coloureds live in areas separate from Whites, creating large townships located away from the cities as areas for Blacks.
What did South Africa's Constitution Declare to be?
5706a30b75f01819005e7c8e
a "Non-racial democracy"
91
False
What laws did they introduce to support blacks?
5706a30b75f01819005e7c8f
affirmative action policies
211
False
Who does the term "black" people include?
5706a30b75f01819005e7c90
"Africans", "Coloureds" and "Asians"
301
False
Who makes the "Coloured" people feel "Not black enough"?
5706a30b75f01819005e7c91
ANC (African National Congress)
729
False
Who is favored more under the affirmative action policies?
5706a30b75f01819005e7c92
"Africans
378
False
In the post-apartheid era, the Constitution of South Africa has declared the country to be a "Non-racial democracy". In an effort to redress past injustices, the ANC government has introduced laws in support of affirmative action policies for Blacks; under these they define "Black" people to include "Africans", "Coloureds" and "Asians". Some affirmative action policies favor "Africans" over "Coloureds" in terms of qualifying for certain benefits. Some South Africans categorized as "African Black" say that "Coloureds" did not suffer as much as they did during apartheid. "Coloured" South Africans are known to discuss their dilemma by saying, "we were not white enough under apartheid, and we are not black enough under the ANC (African National Congress)".[citation needed]
Who declared Chinese South Africans as "Black People"?
5706a58a75f01819005e7cb6
the High Court in South Africa
9
False
What year did this ruling happen?
5706a58a75f01819005e7cb7
2008
3
False
Why was this classification made?
5706a58a75f01819005e7cb8
solely for the purposes of accessing affirmative action benefits
184
False
What Chinese people did not qualify for benefits?
5706a58a75f01819005e7cb9
Chinese people who arrived in the country after the end of apartheid
315
False
Why did some Chinese citizens qualify for benefits?
5706a58a75f01819005e7cba
they were also "disadvantaged" by racial discrimination.
258
False
In 2008, the High Court in South Africa ruled that Chinese South Africans who were residents during the apartheid era (and their descendants) are to be reclassified as "Black people," solely for the purposes of accessing affirmative action benefits, because they were also "disadvantaged" by racial discrimination. Chinese people who arrived in the country after the end of apartheid do not qualify for such benefits.
What is another way "Coloureds" can be distinguished from "Blacks"?
5706ab5375f01819005e7cf6
language
84
False
What languages are most common?
5706ab5375f01819005e7cf7
Afrikaans or English
105
False
What are less common languages spoken?
5706ab5375f01819005e7cf8
Zulu or Xhosa
185
False
What types of names do "coloureds" have?
5706ab5375f01819005e7cf9
European-sounding names
228
False
What type of names do "blacks" have?
5706ab5375f01819005e7cfa
Bantu names
257
False
Other than by appearance, "Coloureds" can usually be distinguished from "Blacks" by language. Most speak Afrikaans or English as a first language, as opposed to Bantu languages such as Zulu or Xhosa. They also tend to have more European-sounding names than Bantu names.
How many sub-Saharan Black Africans were enslaved?
5706ac8d52bb891400689b66
10 to 18 million
141
False
In what time frame were these people enslaved?
5706ac8d52bb891400689b67
between the advent of Islam in 650CE and the abolition of slavery in the Arabian Peninsula in the mid-20th century
25
False
Who enslaved these people?
5706ac8d52bb891400689b68
Arab slave traders
202
False
Why were women slaves more popular?
5706ac8d52bb891400689b69
for them to serve as concubines
544
False
Who was assimilated into the Arab slave owner families?
5706ac8d52bb891400689b6a
The mixed-race children of female slaves and Arab owners
767
False
Historians estimate that between the advent of Islam in 650CE and the abolition of slavery in the Arabian Peninsula in the mid-20th century, 10 to 18 million sub-Saharan Black Africans were enslaved by Arab slave traders and transported to the Arabian Peninsula and neighboring countries. This number far exceeded the number of slaves who were taken to the Americas. Several factors affected the visibility of descendants of this diaspora in 21st-century Arab societies: The traders shipped more female slaves than males, as there was a demand for them to serve as concubines in harems in the Arabian Peninsula and neighboring countries. Male slaves were castrated in order to serve as harem guards. The death toll of Black African slaves from forced labor was high. The mixed-race children of female slaves and Arab owners were assimilated into the Arab owners' families under the patrilineal kinship system. As a result, few distinctive Afro-Arab black communities have survived in the Arabian Peninsula and neighboring countries.
How many people in Yemen have African lineage?
5706ad8c52bb891400689b70
average of 38%
153
False
How many people in Oman-Qatar have African lineage?
5706ad8c52bb891400689b71
16%
229
False
How many people in Saudi Arabia-United Arab Emirates have African lineage?
5706ad8c52bb891400689b72
10%
252
False
Genetic studies have found which gene in Arab communities?
5706ad8c52bb891400689b73
African female-mediated gene
39
False
Genetic studies have found significant African female-mediated gene flow in Arab communities in the Arabian Peninsula and neighboring countries, with an average of 38% of maternal lineages in Yemen are of direct African descent, 16% in Oman-Qatar, and 10% in Saudi Arabia-United Arab Emirates.
Who is seeking minority status from the government?
5706b0492eaba6190074ac30
African-Iraquis
186
False
Where would they be represented if minority status is granted?
5706b0492eaba6190074ac31
Parliament
285
False
How are Africans classified in the Arabian Peninsula?
5706b0492eaba6190074ac32
as Arab
512
False
What types of communities have been reported in Iraq?
5706b0492eaba6190074ac33
Distinctive and self-identified black communities
0
False
Who gave information on how blacks were classified in the Arabian Peninsula?
5706b0492eaba6190074ac34
Alamin M. Mazrui et al.
350
False
Distinctive and self-identified black communities have been reported in countries such as Iraq, with a reported 1.2 million black people, and they attest to a history of discrimination. African-Iraquis have sought minority status from the government, which would reserve some seats in Parliament for representatives of their population. According to Alamin M. Mazrui et al., generally in the Arabian Peninsula and neighboring countries, most of those of visible African descent are still classified and identify as Arab, not black.
How many East African and black people live in Israel?
5706b0e42eaba6190074ac44
About 150,000
0
False
What percent of Israel's population is black?
5706b0e42eaba6190074ac45
just over 2%
73
False
When did they migrate to Israel?
5706b0e42eaba6190074ac46
during the 1980s and 1990s
217
False
Where did they migrate from?
5706b0e42eaba6190074ac47
Ethiopia.
249
False
Where are most of the black converts from?
5706b0e42eaba6190074ac48
the United Kingdom, Canada, and the United States.
619
False
About 150,000 East African and black people live in Israel, amounting to just over 2% of the nation's population. The vast majority of these, some 120,000, are Beta Israel, most of whom are recent immigrants who came during the 1980s and 1990s from Ethiopia. In addition, Israel is home to over 5,000 members of the African Hebrew Israelites of Jerusalem movement that are descendants of African Americans who emigrated to Israel in the 20th century, and who reside mainly in a distinct neighborhood in the Negev town of Dimona. Unknown numbers of black converts to Judaism reside in Israel, most of them converts from the United Kingdom, Canada, and the United States.
How many non-jewish African immigrants live in Israel?
5706b77e0eeca41400aa0d8d
around 60,000
24
False
What have these immigrants sought?
5706b77e0eeca41400aa0d8e
asylum
104
False
Where are most of them from?
5706b77e0eeca41400aa0d8f
Sudan and Eritrea
157
False
What languages do they speak?
5706b77e0eeca41400aa0d90
Niger-Congo
193
False
Where are the non jewish immigrants from?
5706b77e0eeca41400aa0d91
southern Nuba Mountains
233
False
Additionally, there are around 60,000 non-Jewish African immigrants in Israel, some of whom have sought asylum. Most of the migrants are from communities in Sudan and Eritrea, particularly the Niger-Congo-speaking Nuba groups of the southern Nuba Mountains; some are illegal immigrants.
When did the slave trade begin?
5706baed2eaba6190074aca2
during the period of the Ottoman Empire
33
False
Where were the slaves brought?
5706baed2eaba6190074aca3
Antalya and Istanbul in present-day Turkey
195
False
Where did former slaves go for work once freed?
5706baed2eaba6190074aca4
İzmir area
431
False
What year did they begin to migrate to Izmir?
5706baed2eaba6190074aca5
1923
503
False
Beginning several centuries ago, during the period of the Ottoman Empire, tens of thousands of Black Africans were brought by slave traders to plantations and agricultural areas situated between Antalya and Istanbul in present-day Turkey. Some of their descendants remained in situ, and many migrated to larger cities and towns. Other blacks slaves were transported to Crete, from where they or their descendants later reached the İzmir area through the population exchange between Greece and Turkey in 1923, or indirectly from Ayvalık in pursuit of work.
Who are the Siddi?
5706bbd42eaba6190074acbe
an ethnic group inhabiting India and Pakistan
14
False
Who did the Siddi descend from?
5706bbd52eaba6190074acbf
Bantu peoples from Southeast Africa
93
False
What does the word "Siddi" derive from?
5706bbd52eaba6190074acc0
"Sayyid"
343
False
Where does the term Sayyid come from?
5706bbd52eaba6190074acc1
the title borne by the captains of the Arab vessels that first brought Siddi settlers to the area
353
False
When was the "black power" movement in Sindh?
5706bbd52eaba6190074acc2
1960s
644
False
The Siddi are an ethnic group inhabiting India and Pakistan whose members are descended from Bantu peoples from Southeast Africa that were brought to the Indian subcontinent as slaves by Arab and Portuguese merchants. Although it is commonly believed locally that "Siddi" derives from a word meaning "black", the term is actually derived from "Sayyid", the title borne by the captains of the Arab vessels that first brought Siddi settlers to the area. In the Makran strip of the Sindh and Balochistan provinces in southwestern Pakistan, these Bantu descendants are known as the Makrani. There was a brief "Black Power" movement in Sindh in the 1960s and many Siddi are proud of and celebrate their African ancestry.
Who were the first inhabitants of Southeast Asia?
5706bddb0eeca41400aa0ddd
The Negritos
0
False
Where do the Negritos reside currently?
5706bddb0eeca41400aa0dde
Thailand, the Malay Archipelago, and the Andaman and Nicobar Islands.
174
False
What does Negrito mean?
5706bddb0eeca41400aa0ddf
"little black people"
258
False
What language does the term Negrito come from?
5706bddb0eeca41400aa0de0
Spanish
283
False
What term is interchangable with Negrito?
5706bddb0eeca41400aa0de1
Semang
718
False
The Negritos are believed to be the first inhabitants of Southeast Asia. Once inhabiting Taiwan, Vietnam, and various other parts of Asia, they are now confined primarily to Thailand, the Malay Archipelago, and the Andaman and Nicobar Islands. Negrito means "little black people" in Spanish (negrito is the Spanish diminutive of negro, i.e., "little black person"); it is what the Spaniards called the short-statured, hunter-gatherer autochthones that they encountered in the Philippines. Despite this, Negritos are never referred to as black today, and doing so would cause offense. The term Negrito itself has come under criticism in countries like Malaysia, where it is now interchangeable with the more acceptable Semang, although this term actually refers to a specific group. The common Thai word for Negritos literally means "frizzy hair".
What does the term "Moors" refer to?
5706beac0eeca41400aa0df1
Muslims
93
False
What descent of Muslims does "Moors" refer to?
5706beac0eeca41400aa0df2
Arab or Berber descent
122
False
In Medieval and early Modern Europe what ethnicity were lumped together?
5706beac0eeca41400aa0df3
Muslim Arabs, Berbers, Black Africans and Europeans
294
False
Where did "Moors" migrate from?
5706beac0eeca41400aa0df4
North Africa or Iberia
164
False
What kind of term is "Moors"?
5706beac0eeca41400aa0df5
derogatory
64
False
The term "Moors" has been used in Europe in a broader, somewhat derogatory sense to refer to Muslims, especially those of Arab or Berber descent, whether living in North Africa or Iberia. Moors were not a distinct or self-defined people. Medieval and early modern Europeans applied the name to Muslim Arabs, Berbers, Black Africans and Europeans alike.
Who claimed that Maurus was derived from the Greek mauron?
5706bfe52eaba6190074acdc
Isidore of Seville
0
False
When was this claim made?
5706bfe52eaba6190074acdd
7th century,
35
False
What does mauron mean?
5706bfe52eaba6190074acde
black
154
False
What is the compilation of Isidore of Seville's work called?
5706bfe52eaba6190074acdf
Etymologies
218
False
What was "Black by definition"?
5706bfe52eaba6190074ace0
Moors
347
False
Isidore of Seville, writing in the 7th century, claimed that the Latin word Maurus was derived from the Greek mauron, μαύρον, which is the Greek word for black. Indeed, by the time Isidore of Seville came to write his Etymologies, the word Maurus or "Moor" had become an adjective in Latin, "for the Greeks call black, mauron". "In Isidore’s day, Moors were black by definition…"
What are Afro-Spaniards?
5706c0ba2eaba6190074ace6
Spanish nationals of West/Central African descent
19
False
Where do Afro-Spaniards come from?
5706c0ba2eaba6190074ace7
Angola, Brazil, Cameroon, Cape Verde, Equatorial Guinea, Ghana, Gambia, Guinea-Bissau, Mali, Nigeria and Senegal
98
False
Which Spanish colony do Afro-Spaniards reside?
5706c0ba2eaba6190074ace8
Equatorial Guinea
295
False
How many Afro-Spaniards currently live in Spain?
5706c0ba2eaba6190074ace9
an estimated 683,000
331
False
Afro-Spaniards are Spanish nationals of West/Central African descent. They today mainly come from Angola, Brazil, Cameroon, Cape Verde, Equatorial Guinea, Ghana, Gambia, Guinea-Bissau, Mali, Nigeria and Senegal. Additionally, many Afro-Spaniards born in Spain are from the former Spanish colony Equatorial Guinea. Today, there are an estimated 683,000 Afro-Spaniards in Spain.
In 2001 how many black people lived in the UK?
5706c2370eeca41400aa0e03
over a million black
79
False
What percentage of the population was "Black Caribbean"?
5706c2370eeca41400aa0e04
1%
130
False
What percentage of the population was "Black African"?
5706c2370eeca41400aa0e05
0.8%
200
False
What percentage of the population was "Black other"?
5706c2370eeca41400aa0e06
0.2%
229
False
When did Britain encourage immigration of workers?
5706c2370eeca41400aa0e07
after World War II
317
False
According to the Office for National Statistics, at the 2001 census there were over a million black people in the United Kingdom; 1% of the total population described themselves as "Black Caribbean", 0.8% as "Black African", and 0.2% as "Black other". Britain encouraged the immigration of workers from the Caribbean after World War II; the first symbolic movement was those who came on the ship the Empire Windrush. The preferred official umbrella term is "black and minority ethnic" (BME), but sometimes the term "black" is used on its own, to express unified opposition to racism, as in the Southall Black Sisters, which started with a mainly British Asian constituency, and the National Black Police Association, which has a membership of "African, African-Caribbean and Asian origin".
When did African states become independent?
5706c2a60eeca41400aa0e0d
1960s
44
False
Who offered many Africans a chance to study in their country?
5706c2a60eeca41400aa0e0e
Soviet Union
55
False
How many students moved from Africa to Russia?
5706c2a60eeca41400aa0e0f
about 400,000
157
False
Why did students move to Russia?
5706c2a60eeca41400aa0e10
to pursue higher studies
227
False
Migration to Russia continued into many countries where?
5706c2a60eeca41400aa0e11
Eastern bloc.
347
False
As African states became independent in the 1960s, the Soviet Union offered many of their citizens the chance to study in Russia. Over a period of 40 years, about 400,000 African students from various countries moved to Russia to pursue higher studies, including many Black Africans. This extended beyond the Soviet Union to many countries of the Eastern bloc.
Where did the Ottoman slave trade flourish?
5706c30b0eeca41400aa0e17
in the Balkans
51
False
What town had it's own black community?
5706c30b0eeca41400aa0e18
Ulcinj
87
False
What country is Ulcinj in?
5706c30b0eeca41400aa0e19
Montenegro
97
False
How many black people lived in Ulcinj until 1878?
5706c30b0eeca41400aa0e1a
100
233
False
How many blacks served in the Ottoman Army during the Austro-Turkish War of 1716-18?
5706c30b0eeca41400aa0e1b
an estimated 30,000
288
False
Due to the Ottoman slave trade that had flourished in the Balkans, the coastal town of Ulcinj in Montenegro had its own black community. As a consequence of the slave trade and privateer activity, it is told how until 1878 in Ulcinj 100 black people lived. The Ottoman Army also deployed an estimated 30,000 Black African troops and cavalrymen to its expedition in Hungary during the Austro-Turkish War of 1716–18.
Who has been referred to as "black people"?
5706cb470eeca41400aa0e2f
Indigenous Australians
0
False
What was the original term related to?
5706cb470eeca41400aa0e30
skin colour
149
False
Since when have Indigenous Australians been referred to as black?
5706cb470eeca41400aa0e31
since the early days of European settlement
76
False
What does the term relate to know in reference to Australians?
5706cb470eeca41400aa0e32
to indicate Aboriginal or Torres Strait Islander ancestry
188
False
Indigenous Australians have been referred to as "black people" in Australia since the early days of European settlement. While originally related to skin colour, the term is used to today to indicate Aboriginal or Torres Strait Islander ancestry in general and can refer to people of any skin pigmentation.
What was established to control the Indigenous Australians?
5706cbc50eeca41400aa0e37
Aboriginal Protection Boards
175
False
What did the Aboriginal Protection Boards control?
5706cbc50eeca41400aa0e38
where they lived, their employment, marriage, education and included the power to separate children from their parents.
301
False
Were Aborigines allowed to vote?
5706cbc50eeca41400aa0e39
Aborigines were not allowed to vote
421
False
Who reported how the Aborigines were treated?
5706cbc50eeca41400aa0e3a
Sir Baldwin Spencer
644
False
What year was his report from?
5706cbc50eeca41400aa0e3b
1913
629
False
Being identified as either "black" or "white" in Australia during the 19th and early 20th centuries was critical in one's employment and social prospects. Various state-based Aboriginal Protection Boards were established which had virtually complete control over the lives of Indigenous Australians – where they lived, their employment, marriage, education and included the power to separate children from their parents. Aborigines were not allowed to vote and were often confined to reserves and forced into low paid or effectively slave labour. The social position of mixed-race or "half-caste" individuals varied over time. A 1913 report by Sir Baldwin Spencer states that:
Which race was growing faster after the First World War?
5706cd480eeca41400aa0e41
mixed-race people
74
False
What did people fear in 1930?
5706cd480eeca41400aa0e42
"half-caste menace"
172
False
What did this menace undermine?
5706cd480eeca41400aa0e43
the White Australia ideal
204
False
Who noted this particular fear?
5706cd480eeca41400aa0e44
Dr. Cecil Cook
280
False
Who is Dr. Cecil Cook?
5706cd480eeca41400aa0e45
the Northern Territory Protector of Natives,
296
False
After the First World War, however, it became apparent that the number of mixed-race people was growing at a faster rate than the white population, and by 1930 fear of the "half-caste menace" undermining the White Australia ideal from within was being taken as a serious concern. Dr. Cecil Cook, the Northern Territory Protector of Natives, noted that:
Who did the government want raised as white?
5706ce092eaba6190074ad0c
"half-caste" individuals
236
False
What was the goal of removing mixed races from their homes?
5706ce092eaba6190074ad0d
Eliminate the full-blood and permit the white admixture to half-castes and eventually the race will become white"
73
False
What were the mixed race individuals kept from doing?
5706ce092eaba6190074ad0e
speaking their native language and practising traditional customs
384
False
What was this process referred to?
5706ce092eaba6190074ad0f
the Stolen Generation
474
False
The official policy became one of biological and cultural assimilation: "Eliminate the full-blood and permit the white admixture to half-castes and eventually the race will become white". This led to different treatment for "black" and "half-caste" individuals, with lighter-skinned individuals targeted for removal from their families to be raised as "white" people, restricted from speaking their native language and practising traditional customs, a process now known as the Stolen Generation.
When did human rights for Aboriginal people begin to improve?
5706cee50eeca41400aa0e4b
The second half of the 20th century
0
False
What year was constitutional discrimination ended?
5706cee50eeca41400aa0e4c
1967
134
False
What else was included in the 1967 referendum?
5706cee50eeca41400aa0e4d
to include Aborigines in the national census.
235
False
What term was embraced during this period?
5706cee50eeca41400aa0e4e
"black"
352
False
Who said the Aboriginal people started to embrace their ancestry?
5706cee50eeca41400aa0e4f
Activist Bob Maza
405
False
The second half of the 20th century to the present has seen a gradual shift towards improved human rights for Aboriginal people. In a 1967 referendum over 90% of the Australian population voted to end constitutional discrimination and to include Aborigines in the national census. During this period many Aboriginal activists began to embrace the term "black" and use their ancestry as a source of pride. Activist Bob Maza said:
Who wrote "Living Black?
5706cf6e0eeca41400aa0e55
Kevin Gilbert
26
False
What year was Gilbert awarded for his efforts?
5706cf6e0eeca41400aa0e56
1978
3
False
What was Living Black about?
5706cf6e0eeca41400aa0e57
a collection of Aboriginal people's stories
138
False
What award did Gilbert refuse in 1998?
5706cf6e0eeca41400aa0e58
the Human Rights Award for Literature
231
False
What was the award in 1998 for?
5706cf6e0eeca41400aa0e59
Inside Black Australia
273
False
In 1978 Aboriginal writer Kevin Gilbert received the National Book Council award for his book Living Black: Blacks Talk to Kevin Gilbert, a collection of Aboriginal people's stories, and in 1998 was awarded (but refused to accept) the Human Rights Award for Literature for Inside Black Australia, a poetry anthology and exhibition of Aboriginal photography. In contrast to previous definitions based solely on the degree of Aboriginal ancestry, in 1990 the Government changed the legal definition of Aboriginal to include any:
What did the improvements in quality of life increase?
5706e4d990286e26004fc727
people self-identifying as Aboriginal or Torres Strait Islander
111
False
What has the reappropriation of the word "black" done?
5706e4d990286e26004fc728
resulted in its widespread use in mainstream Australian culture,
263
False
In what year were there several cases that helped to redefine Aboriginal or Torres Strait Islander?
5706e4d990286e26004fc729
2012
407
False
What well known boxer was criticized for question someone's blackness?
5706e4d990286e26004fc72a
Anthony Mundine
603
False
Which Journalist was sued for publishing discriminatory comments?
5706e4d990286e26004fc72b
Andrew Bolt
707
False
This nationwide acceptance and recognition of Aboriginal people led to a significant increase in the number of people self-identifying as Aboriginal or Torres Strait Islander. The reappropriation of the term "black" with a positive and more inclusive meaning has resulted in its widespread use in mainstream Australian culture, including public media outlets, government agencies, and private companies. In 2012, a number of high-profile cases highlighted the legal and community attitude that identifying as Aboriginal or Torres Strait Islander is not dependent on skin colour, with a well-known boxer Anthony Mundine being widely criticised for questioning the "blackness" of another boxer and journalist Andrew Bolt being successfully sued for publishing discriminatory comments about Aboriginals with light skin.
Who described slaves as negars?
5706fa4c90286e26004fc787
John Rolfe
33
False
Where was John Rolfe?
5706fa4c90286e26004fc788
Colonial America
7
False
Where were slaves shipped to from West Africa?
5706fa4c90286e26004fc789
Virginia colony
140
False
What was the name of the African burial ground in New York City?
5706fa4c90286e26004fc78a
"Begraafplaats van de Neger"
429
False
What does "Begraafplaats van de Neger" mean?
5706fa4c90286e26004fc78b
Cemetery of the Negro
459
False
In the Colonial America of 1619, John Rolfe used negars in describing the slaves who were captured from West Africa and then shipped to the Virginia colony. Later American English spellings, neger and neggar, prevailed in a northern colony, New York under the Dutch, and in metropolitan Philadelphia's Moravian and Pennsylvania Dutch communities; the African Burial Ground in New York City originally was known by the Dutch name "Begraafplaats van de Neger" (Cemetery of the Negro); an early US occurrence of neger in Rhode Island, dates from 1625. Thomas Jefferson also used the term "black" in his Notes on the State of Virginia in allusion to the slave populations.
When did "nigger" become a pejorative word?
5706fb6190286e26004fc79b
By the 1900s
0
False
What term replaced negro as mainstream?
5706fb6190286e26004fc79c
colored
95
False
What term followed "negro" and "colored"?
5706fb6190286e26004fc79d
"black"
259
False
What movement sprouted this change in rhetoric?
5706fb6190286e26004fc79e
the African-American Civil rights movement
175
False
Who led the Civil Rights movement?
5706fb6190286e26004fc79f
Reverend Martin Luther King
577
False
By the 1900s, nigger had become a pejorative word in the United States. In its stead, the term colored became the mainstream alternative to negro and its derived terms. After the African-American Civil rights movement, the terms colored and negro gave way to "black". Negro had superseded colored as the most polite word for African Americans at a time when black was considered more offensive. This term was accepted as normal, including by people classified as Negroes, until the later Civil Rights movement in the late 1960s. One well-known example is the identification by Reverend Martin Luther King, Jr. of his own race as "Negro" in his famous speech of 1963, I Have a Dream. During the American Civil Rights movement of the 1950s and 1960s, some African-American leaders in the United States, notably Malcolm X, objected to the word Negro because they associated it with the long history of slavery, segregation, and discrimination that treated African Americans as second-class citizens, or worse. Malcolm X preferred Black to Negro, but later gradually abandoned that as well for Afro-American after leaving the Nation of Islam.
How did black people identify in early America?
570706b99e06ca38007e92bb
by their specific ethnic group
105
False
What was not acknowledged by English colonists?
570706b99e06ca38007e92bc
individual ethnic affiliations
401
False
How vast was the backgrounds of the captives?
570706b99e06ca38007e92bd
West African coastline stretching from Senegal to Angola and in some cases from the south-east coast
638
False
How was the new African American identity defined?
570706b99e06ca38007e92be
This new identity was based on provenance and slave status
968
False
Which colonists recorded more complete identities of the West Africans?
570706b99e06ca38007e92bf
French and Spanish colonists
1148
False
In the first 200 years that black people were in the United States, they primarily identified themselves by their specific ethnic group (closely allied to language) and not by skin color. Individuals identified themselves, for example, as Ashanti, Igbo, Bakongo, or Wolof. However, when the first captives were brought to the Americas, they were often combined with other groups from West Africa, and individual ethnic affiliations were not generally acknowledged by English colonists. In areas of the Upper South, different ethnic groups were brought together. This is significant as the captives came from a vast geographic region: the West African coastline stretching from Senegal to Angola and in some cases from the south-east coast such as Mozambique. A new African-American identity and culture was born that incorporated elements of the various ethnic groups and of European cultural heritage, resulting in fusions such as the Black church and Black English. This new identity was based on provenance and slave status rather than membership in any one ethnic group.[citation needed] By contrast, slave records from Louisiana show that the French and Spanish colonists recorded more complete identities of the West Africans, including ethnicities and given tribal names.
What type of skin pigment does "Black" refer to?
5707074190286e26004fc80f
the darkest through to the very lightest skin colors
115
False
In the United States the term "black people" is an indicator for?
5707074190286e26004fc810
socially based racial classification related to being African American,
480
False
Where does the US base family history of African Americans from?
5707074190286e26004fc811
a family history associated with institutionalized slavery.
557
False
How are people defined as "black" or "white"?
5707074190286e26004fc812
they fulfill the social criteria
795
False
The US racial or ethnic classification "black" refers to people with all possible kinds of skin pigmentation, from the darkest through to the very lightest skin colors, including albinos, if they are believed by others to have West African ancestry (in any discernible percentage), or to exhibit cultural traits associated with being "African American". As a result, in the United States the term "black people" is not an indicator of skin color or ethnic origin but is instead a socially based racial classification related to being African American, with a family history associated with institutionalized slavery. Relatively dark-skinned people can be classified as white if they fulfill other social criteria of "whiteness", and relatively light-skinned people can be classified as black if they fulfill the social criteria for "blackness" in a particular setting.
Why did the use of "African" become an issue?
570708619e06ca38007e92c5
the majority of black people in the United States were native-born
14
False
Why did blacks fear to identify as African?
570708619e06ca38007e92c6
would be a hindrance to their fight for full citizenship in the US.
229
False
What year did Black leaders call for this change in language?
570708619e06ca38007e92c7
1835,
416
False
What group decided to keep the "African" in their name?
570708619e06ca38007e92c8
the African Methodist Episcopal Church
635
False
What terms did African Americans use instead?
570708619e06ca38007e92c9
"Negro" or "colored"
718
False
By that time, the majority of black people in the United States were native-born, so the use of the term "African" became problematic. Though initially a source of pride, many blacks feared that the use of African as an identity would be a hindrance to their fight for full citizenship in the US. They also felt that it would give ammunition to those who were advocating repatriating black people back to Africa. In 1835, black leaders called upon Black Americans to remove the title of "African" from their institutions and replace it with "Negro" or "Colored American". A few institutions chose to keep their historic names, such as the African Methodist Episcopal Church. African Americans popularly used the terms "Negro" or "colored" for themselves until the late 1960s.
Who argued for Americans to use the term "African American"?
570709ba9e06ca38007e92d9
Jesse Jackson
33
False
What year did Jesse Jackson make this argument?
570709ba9e06ca38007e92da
1988
3
False
Why did Jackson want this term to be used?
570709ba9e06ca38007e92db
it had a historical cultural base and was a construction similar to terms used by European descendants
114
False
Who also argued for the term "African American"?
570709ba9e06ca38007e92dc
African-American
461
False
Why did some argue that "black" was the better term?
570709ba9e06ca38007e92dd
because "African" suggests foreignness
640
False
In 1988, the civil rights leader Jesse Jackson urged Americans to use instead the term "African American" because it had a historical cultural base and was a construction similar to terms used by European descendants, such as German American, Italian American, etc. Since then, African American and black have often had parallel status. However, controversy continues over which if any of the two terms is more appropriate. Maulana Karenga argues that the term African-American is more appropriate because it accurately articulates their geographical and historical origin.[citation needed] Others have argued that "black" is a better term because "African" suggests foreignness, although Black Americans helped found the United States. Still others believe that the term black is inaccurate because African Americans have a variety of skin tones. Some surveys suggest that the majority of Black Americans have no preference for "African American" or "Black", although they have a slight preference for "black" in personal settings and "African American" in more formal settings.
How does the U.S. census define "black" Americans?
57070b1490286e26004fc83d
having origins in any of the black (sub-Saharan) racial groups of Africa
60
False
What classification are given?
57070b1490286e26004fc83e
socio-political constructs
368
False
What percentage of African Americans have European ancestry?
57070b1490286e26004fc83f
17–18%
673
False
What is the Census definition not based on?
57070b1490286e26004fc840
scientific or anthropological
428
False
The U.S. census race definitions says a "black" is a person having origins in any of the black (sub-Saharan) racial groups of Africa. It includes people who indicate their race as "Black, African Am., or Negro" or who provide written entries such as African American, Afro-American, Kenyan, Nigerian, or Haitian. The Census Bureau notes that these classifications are socio-political constructs and should not be interpreted as scientific or anthropological. Most African Americans also have European ancestry in varying amounts; a lesser proportion have some Native American ancestry. For instance, genetic studies of African Americans show an ancestry that is on average 17–18% European.
What did the "one-drop" rule do?
57070b889e06ca38007e92ff
classify as black a person of any known African ancestry
84
False
When was the "one-drop" rule put into place?
57070b889e06ca38007e9300
early 20th century.
202
False
When was racial definition more flexible?
57070b889e06ca38007e9301
18th and 19th centuries
316
False
What war changed the way the United States looked at race?
57070b889e06ca38007e9302
the American Civil War
347
False
When did Virginia adopt The Principle of Partus Sequitur Ventrem?
57070b889e06ca38007e9303
1662
674
False
From the late 19th century, the South used a colloquial term, the one-drop rule, to classify as black a person of any known African ancestry. This practice of hypodescent was not put into law until the early 20th century. Legally the definition varied from state to state. Racial definition was more flexible in the 18th and 19th centuries before the American Civil War. For instance, President Thomas Jefferson held persons who were legally white (less than 25% black) according to Virginia law at the time, but, because they were born to slave mothers, they were born into slavery, according to the principle of partus sequitur ventrem, which Virginia adopted into law in 1662.
How is blackness described in the US?
57070cab90286e26004fc859
the degree to which one associates themselves with mainstream African-American culture, politics, and values.
68
False
What defines "blackness"?
57070cab90286e26004fc85a
political orientation, culture and behavior
253
False
What is the opposite of "blackness"?
57070cab90286e26004fc85b
"acting white"
331
False
How does one "act white"?
57070cab90286e26004fc85c
black Americans are said to behave with assumed characteristics of stereotypical white Americans
353
False
In what regards can one "act white"?
57070cab90286e26004fc85d
with regard to fashion, dialect, taste in music,
450
False
The concept of blackness in the United States has been described as the degree to which one associates themselves with mainstream African-American culture, politics, and values. To a certain extent, this concept is not so much about race but more about political orientation, culture and behavior. Blackness can be contrasted with "acting white", where black Americans are said to behave with assumed characteristics of stereotypical white Americans with regard to fashion, dialect, taste in music, and possibly, from the perspective of a significant number of black youth, academic achievement.
Who described Bill Clinton as "Black"?
57070d4b9e06ca38007e932d
Toni Morrison
150
False
Who was offended by Clinton being referred to as black?
57070d4b9e06ca38007e932e
Christopher Hitchens
315
False
Who is Toni Morrison?
57070d4b9e06ca38007e932f
Nobel Prize-winning novelist
457
False
Why were people offended by this comment?
57070d4b9e06ca38007e9330
Clinton used his knowledge of black culture to exploit black people for political gain
1009
False
What horrible event was on-going during Clinton's term that made people upset?
57070d4b9e06ca38007e9331
Rwandan Genocide
1205
False
Due to the often political and cultural contours of blackness in the United States, the notion of blackness can also be extended to non-black people. Toni Morrison once described Bill Clinton as the first black President of the United States, because, as she put it, he displayed "almost every trope of blackness". Christopher Hitchens was offended by the notion of Clinton as the first black president, noting, "Mr Clinton, according to Toni Morrison, the Nobel Prize-winning novelist, is our first black President, the first to come from the broken home, the alcoholic mother, the under-the-bridge shadows of our ranking systems. Thus, we may have lost the mystical power to divine diabolism, but we can still divine blackness by the following symptoms: broken homes, alcoholic mothers, under-the-bridge habits and (presumable from the rest of [Arthur] Miller's senescent musings) the tendency to sexual predation and to shameless perjury about same." Some black activists were also offended, claiming that Clinton used his knowledge of black culture to exploit black people for political gain as no other president had before, while not serving black interests. They cite the lack of action during the Rwandan Genocide and his welfare reform, which Larry Roberts said had led to the worst child poverty since the 1960s. Others cited that the number of black people in jail increased during his administration.
Who is Obama possibly an ancestor of?
57070e0c9e06ca38007e9341
John Punch
150
False
Who is John Punch?
57070e0c9e06ca38007e9342
the first African slave in the Virginia colony
198
False
When was Punch indentured?
57070e0c9e06ca38007e9343
1640
296
False
Why was he indentured for life?
57070e0c9e06ca38007e9344
trying to escape
307
False
Why were his children free?
57070e0c9e06ca38007e9345
they were born to free English women
570
False
In July 2012, Ancestry.com reported on historic and DNA research by its staff that discovered that Obama is likely a descendant through his mother of John Punch, considered by some historians to be the first African slave in the Virginia colony. An indentured servant, he was "bound for life" in 1640 after trying to escape. The story of him and his descendants is that of multi-racial America since it appeared he and his sons married or had unions with white women, likely indentured servants and working-class like them. Their multi-racial children were free because they were born to free English women. Over time, Obama's line of the Bunch family (as they became known) were property owners and continued to "marry white"; they became part of white society, likely by the early to mid-18th century.
How many Africans were shipped to the US between 1492 to 1888?
57070e8590286e26004fc863
12 million
14
False
How many were shipped to South America and the Caribbean?
57070e8590286e26004fc864
11.5 million
119
False
How many slaves were imported by Brazil?
57070e8590286e26004fc865
5.5 million
239
False
How many slaves were imported by the British Caribbean?
57070e8590286e26004fc866
2.76 million
315
False
How is black identified in South America?
57070e8590286e26004fc867
closely tied to social status and socioeconomic variables,
797
False
Approximately 12 million Africans were shipped to the Americas during the Atlantic slave trade from 1492 to 1888, with 11.5 million of those shipped to South America and the Caribbean. Brazil was the largest importer in the Americas, with 5.5 million African slaves imported, followed by the British Caribbean with 2.76 million, the Spanish Caribbean and Spanish Mainland with 1.59 million Africans, and the French Caribbean with 1.32 million. Today their descendants number approximately 150 million in South America and the Caribbean. In addition to skin color, other physical characteristics such as facial features and hair texture are often variously used in classifying peoples as black in South America and the Caribbean. In South America and the Caribbean, classification as black is also closely tied to social status and socioeconomic variables, especially in light of social conceptions of "blanqueamiento" (racial whitening) and related concepts.
How are people in Brazil classified?
57070f769e06ca38007e935d
by appearance
602
False
What country has a complex way of acknowledging race?
57070f769e06ca38007e935e
Brazil
23
False
How does one determine ethnicity in Brazil?
57070f769e06ca38007e935f
based on various combinations of hair color, hair texture, eye color, and skin color
351
False
How are people evaluated in Brazil?
57070f769e06ca38007e9360
like the colors of the spectrum
471
False
The concept of race in Brazil is complex. A Brazilian child was never automatically identified with the racial type of one or both of his or her parents, nor were there only two categories to choose from. Between an individual of unmixed West African descent and a very light mulatto individual, more than a dozen racial categories were acknowledged, based on various combinations of hair color, hair texture, eye color, and skin color. These types grade into each other like the colors of the spectrum, and no one category stands significantly isolated from the rest. In Brazil, people are classified by appearance, not heredity.
What type of skin color has a better chance of a good life in Brazil?
57070fe090286e26004fc877
lighter skin
216
False
What are poor whites considered in Brazil?
57070fe090286e26004fc878
black
294
False
What are wealthy blacks considered in Brazil?
57070fe090286e26004fc879
white
334
False
What does Preto mean?
57070fe090286e26004fc87a
(black)
529
False
Scholars disagree over the effects of social status on racial classifications in Brazil. It is generally believed that achieving upward mobility and education results in individuals being classified as a category of lighter skin. The popular claim is that in Brazil, poor whites are considered black and wealthy blacks are considered white. Some scholars disagree, arguing that "whitening" of one's social status may be open to people of mixed race, a large part of the population known as pardo, but a person perceived as preto (black) will continue to be classified as black regardless of wealth or social status.
How many slaves were shipped from Africa to Brazil between 1500 and 1850?
5707106b90286e26004fc87f
estimated 3.5 million
32
False
How much of the Brazilian population are descendants of slavery?
5707106b90286e26004fc880
more than half
228
False
Second to Africa, what is Brazil have the largest population of?
5707106b90286e26004fc881
Afro-descendants
362
False
What was not passed in Brazil during slavery?
5707106b90286e26004fc882
segregation laws
566
False
What was prevalent in Brazilian culture during slavery?
5707106b90286e26004fc883
intermarriage
613
False
From the years 1500 to 1850, an estimated 3.5 million captives were forcibly shipped from West/Central Africa to Brazil; the territory received the highest number of slaves of any country in the Americas. Scholars estimate that more than half of the Brazilian population is at least in part descended from these individuals. Brazil has the largest population of Afro-descendants outside of Africa. In contrast to the US, during the slavery period and after, the Portuguese colonial government and later Brazilian government did not pass formal anti-miscegenation or segregation laws. As in other Latin countries, intermarriage was prevalent during the colonial period and continued afterward. In addition, people of mixed race (pardo) often tended to marry white, and their descendants became accepted as white. As a result, some of the European descended population also has West African or Amerindian blood. According to the last census of the 20th century, in which Brazilians could choose from five color/ethnic categories with which they identified, 54% of individuals identified as white, 6.2% identified as black, and 39.5% identified as pardo (brown) — a broad multi-racial category, including tri-racial persons.
How much of the Brazilian population identified as black in 2000?
5707111d90286e26004fc89b
6.2%
193
False
How much identified as mixed race?
5707111d90286e26004fc89c
40%
237
False
How much identified as white?
5707111d90286e26004fc89d
55%
255
False
How much of the Brazilian population had connections to African ancestry in 2007?
5707111d90286e26004fc89e
29%
411
False
By the 2000 census, demographic changes including the end to slavery, immigration from Europe and Asia, assimilation of multiracial persons, and other factors resulted in a population in which 6.2% of the population identified as black, 40% as pardo, and 55% as white. Essentially most of the black population was absorbed into the multi-racial category by intermixing. A 2007 genetic study found that at least 29% of the middle-class, white Brazilian population had some recent (since 1822 and the end of the colonial period) African ancestry.
What has Brazil avoided?
570712049e06ca38007e9389
the binary polarization of society into black and white
63
False
What is happened in the US that did not happen in Brazil when slavery ended?
570712049e06ca38007e938a
civil war
164
False
How do the US and Brazil vary after slavery has ended?
570712049e06ca38007e938b
violent racial tensions that have divided the US are notably absent in Brazil.
200
False
Who is the Brazilian Prime Minister for racial equality?
570712049e06ca38007e938c
Elio Ferreira de Araujo
443
False
Who is responsible for the growing pride in Brazilian communities?
570712049e06ca38007e938d
black and indigenous communities.
569
False
Because of the acceptance of miscegenation, Brazil has avoided the binary polarization of society into black and white. In addition, it abolished slavery without a civil war. The bitter and sometimes violent racial tensions that have divided the US are notably absent in Brazil. According to the 2010 census, 6.7% of Brazilians said they were black, compared with 6.2% in 2000, and 43.1% said they were racially mixed, up from 38.5%. In 2010, Elio Ferreira de Araujo, Brazil's minister for racial equality, attributed the increases to growing pride among his country's black and indigenous communities.
In the US, how much of what white people earn, do blacks earn?
570712c99e06ca38007e939b
75%
67
False
In Brazil, how much less do blacks earn compared to whites?
570712c99e06ca38007e939c
50%
140
False
What rule is Brazil accused of practicing?
570712c99e06ca38007e939d
one-drop rule
288
False
What does the one drop rule do?
570712c99e06ca38007e939e
discrimination against people who are not visibly European in ancestry.
306
False
What other patterns are consistent with unequal living standards?
570712c99e06ca38007e939f
illiteracy and education levels
548
False
In the US, African Americans, who include multiracial people, earn 75% of what white people earn. In Brazil, people of color earn less than 50% of what whites earn. Some have posited that the facts of lower socioeconomic status for people of color suggest that Brazil practices a kind of one-drop rule, or discrimination against people who are not visibly European in ancestry. The gap in income between blacks and other non-whites is relatively small compared to the large gap between whites and all people of color. Other social factors, such as illiteracy and education levels, show the same patterns of disadvantage for people of color. Some commentators observe that the United States practice of segregation and white supremacy in the South, and discrimination in many areas outside that region, forced many African Americans to unite in the civil rights struggle. They suggest that the fluid nature of race in Brazil has divided individuals of African descent, between those with more or less ancestry. As a result, they have not united for a stronger civil rights movement.[citation needed]
What race has a very low rate of holding public office in Brazil?
5707135a90286e26004fc8bf
blacks
105
False
How much of the population of Salvador, Bahia is black or mixed race?
5707135a90286e26004fc8c0
80%
192
False
When did the US institute the Voting Rights Act?
5707135a90286e26004fc8c1
1965
453
False
When did New Orleans elect it's first black Mayor?
5707135a90286e26004fc8c2
1970s
653
False
What large hurricane hit New Orleans?
5707135a90286e26004fc8c3
Hurricane Katrina
739
False
Though Brazilians of at least partial African heritage make up a large percentage of the population, few blacks have been elected as politicians. The city of Salvador, Bahia, for instance, is 80% people of color, but voters have not elected a mayor of color. Journalists like to say that US cities with black majorities, such as Detroit and New Orleans, have not elected white mayors since after the civil rights movement, when the Voting Rights Act of 1965 protected the franchise for minorities, and blacks in the South regained the power to vote for the first time since the turn of the 20th century. New Orleans elected its first black mayor in the 1970s. New Orleans elected a white mayor after the widescale disruption and damage of Hurricane Katrina in 2005.
What do critics claim people of color have?
570713c490286e26004fc8c9
limited media visibility
39
False
What has the Brazilian media been accused of?
570713c490286e26004fc8ca
hiding or overlooking the nation's Black, Indigenous, Multiracial and East Asian populations.
105
False
What ethnicity of actors are mainly used for shows in Brazil?
570713c490286e26004fc8cb
northern Europeans
286
False
What is another word for "Light Skinned"
570713c490286e26004fc8cc
mulatto
392
False
Critics note that people of color have limited media visibility. The Brazilian media has been accused of hiding or overlooking the nation's Black, Indigenous, Multiracial and East Asian populations. For example, the telenovelas or soaps are criticized for featuring actors who resemble northern Europeans rather than actors of the more prevalent Southern European features) and light-skinned mulatto and mestizo appearance. (Pardos may achieve "white" status if they have attained the middle-class or higher social status).
What would scholars like the term "Negro" to include?
5707142a90286e26004fc8d1
all African-descended people
157
False
What does this aim to stimulate?
5707142a90286e26004fc8d2
a "black" consciousness and identity.
209
False
What does the term "pardo" include?
5707142a90286e26004fc8d3
a wide range of multiracial people
327
False
What does caboclos mean?
5707142a90286e26004fc8d4
mestizos
381
False
These patterns of discrimination against non-whites have led some academic and other activists to advocate for use of the Portuguese term negro to encompass all African-descended people, in order to stimulate a "black" consciousness and identity. This proposal has been criticized since the term pardo is considered to include a wide range of multiracial people, such as caboclos (mestizos), assimilated Amerindians and tri-racials, not only people of partial African and European descent. Trying to identify this entire group as "black" would be a false imposition of a different identity from outside the culture and deny people their other, equally valid, ancestries and cultures. It seems a one-drop rule in reverse.
The_Times
The Times is based in what major British city?
5705de1675f01819005e76c0
London
57
False
What year did the initial incarnation of The Times start?
5705de1675f01819005e76c1
1785
77
False
What was the original name of The Times before changing its name?
5705de1675f01819005e76c2
The Daily Universal Register
98
False
The Times, owned by News UK, is itself owned by what major corporation?
5705de1675f01819005e76c4
News Corp group
331
False
The Times and its sister paper The Sunday Times are published by what company?
5705dec952bb891400689639
Times Newspapers
250
False
What year did The Times change its name from The Daily Universal Register?
5705dec952bb89140068963a
1788
161
False
What year did The Daily Universal Register initially start?
5705dec952bb89140068963b
1785
77
False
The Times is a British daily national newspaper based in London. It began in 1785 under the title The Daily Universal Register and became The Times on 1 January 1788. The Times and its sister paper The Sunday Times (founded in 1821) are published by Times Newspapers, since 1981 a subsidiary of News UK, itself wholly owned by the News Corp group headed by Rupert Murdoch. The Times and The Sunday Times do not share editorial staff, were founded independently and have only had common ownership since 1967.
What year did The Times of India start?
5705df8d75f01819005e76ca
1838
153
False
What year did The Strait Times (Singapore) start?
5705df8d75f01819005e76cb
1845
191
False
What year did The New York Times start?
5705df8d75f01819005e76cc
1851
218
False
What year did the Irish Times start?
5705df8d75f01819005e76cd
1859
242
False
What year did the Cape Times (South Africa) start?
5705df8d75f01819005e76ce
1872
311
False
The Times is the first newspaper to have borne that name, lending it to numerous other papers around the world, including The Times of India (founded in 1838), The Straits Times (Singapore) (1845), The New York Times (1851), The Irish Times (1859), Le Temps (France) (1861-1942), the Cape Times (South Africa) (1872), the Los Angeles Times (1881), The Seattle Times (1891), The Manila Times (1898), The Daily Times (Malawi) (1900), El Tiempo (Colombia) (1911), The Canberra Times (1926), and The Times (Malta) (1935). In these countries, the newspaper is often referred to as The London Times or The Times of London.
What major typeface font was started by The Times?
5705e06c52bb891400689642
Times Roman
47
False
Who was the creator of typeface font used by The Times?
5705e06c52bb891400689643
Stanley Morison
93
False
In November 2006, The Times changed its font to what new font typeface?
5705e06c52bb891400689644
Times Modern
277
False
How long was The Times printed in broadsheet format?
5705e06c52bb891400689645
219 years
338
False
In what year did The Times change its broadsheet format to a compact size?
5705e06c52bb891400689646
2004
381
False
The Times is the originator of the widely used Times Roman typeface, originally developed by Stanley Morison of The Times in collaboration with the Monotype Corporation for its legibility in low-tech printing. In November 2006 The Times began printing headlines in a new font, Times Modern. The Times was printed in broadsheet format for 219 years, but switched to compact size in 2004 in an attempt to appeal more to younger readers and commuters using public transport. The Sunday Times remains a broadsheet.
Traditionally, what political spectrum did The Times support?
5705e4f452bb891400689674
moderate
23
False
What party did The Times support in 2001 and 2005 general elections?
5705e4f452bb891400689675
Labour Party
112
False
In March 2014, The Times had an average daily circulation of how many people?
5705e4f452bb891400689676
394,448
367
False
The complete historical file of the digitized paper of The Times is online and published by what publisher?
5705e4f452bb891400689677
Gage Cengage
737
False
What political party has the highest readership of The Times?
5705e4f452bb891400689678
Conservative Party
250
False
Though traditionally a moderate newspaper and sometimes a supporter of the Conservative Party, it supported the Labour Party in the 2001 and 2005 general elections. In 2004, according to MORI, the voting intentions of its readership were 40% for the Conservative Party, 29% for the Liberal Democrats, and 26% for Labour. The Times had an average daily circulation of 394,448 in March 2014; in the same period, The Sunday Times had an average daily circulation of 839,077. An American edition of The Times has been published since 6 June 2006. It has been heavily used by scholars and researchers because of its widespread availability in libraries and its detailed index. A complete historical file of the digitized paper is online from Gage Cengage publisher.
The Times was founded by what publisher who also was the editor?
5705ec4652bb8914006896ae
John Walter
35
False
The Times was known as what name before it became The Times?
5705ec4652bb8914006896af
The Daily Universal Register
68
False
What year was the very first publication of The Times?
5705ec4652bb8914006896b0
1785
785
False
The first publisher and editor of The Times when to prison for what crime when printed in his newspaper?
5705ec4652bb8914006896b1
libel
1059
False
Before the newspaper changed its name to The Times, how many editions were printed?
5705ec4652bb8914006896b2
940
880
False
The Times was founded by publisher John Walter on 1 January 1785 as The Daily Universal Register, with Walter in the role of editor. Walter had lost his job by the end of 1784 after the insurance company where he was working went bankrupt because of the complaints of a Jamaican hurricane. Being unemployed, Walter decided to set a new business up. It was in that time when Henry Johnson invented the logography, a new typography that was faster and more precise (three years later, it was proved that it was not as efficient as had been said). Walter bought the logography's patent and to use it, he decided to open a printing house, where he would daily produce an advertising sheet. The first publication of the newspaper The Daily Universal Register in Great Britain was 1 January 1785. Unhappy because people always omitted the word Universal, Ellias changed the title after 940 editions on 1 January 1788 to The Times. In 1803, Walter handed ownership and editorship to his son of the same name. Walter Sr had spent sixteen months in Newgate Prison for libel printed in The Times, but his pioneering efforts to obtain Continental news, especially from France, helped build the paper's reputation among policy makers and financiers.
In 1815, The Times had a circulation of how many people?
5705ede675f01819005e7782
5,000
460
False
Beginning in 1814, The Times was printed using what new kind of press?
5705ede675f01819005e7783
steam-driven cylinder press
361
False
The Times used contributions from significant figures to build what?
5705ede675f01819005e7784
reputation
128
False
Who developed the new press type in 1814 for The Times?
5705ede675f01819005e7785
Friedrich Koenig
402
False
The Times used contributions from significant figures in the fields of politics, science, literature, and the arts to build its reputation. For much of its early life, the profits of The Times were very large and the competition minimal, so it could pay far better than its rivals for information or writers. Beginning in 1814, the paper was printed on the new steam-driven cylinder press developed by Friedrich Koenig. In 1815, The Times had a circulation of 5,000.
Who was appointed general editor for The Times in 1817?
5705eece75f01819005e778a
Thomas Barnes
0
False
In 1817, The Times paper's printer James Lawson passed his business to which family member?
5705eece75f01819005e778b
his son
138
False
Peter Fraser and Edward Sterling, two noted The Times journalists, gained what nickname for themselves?
5705eece75f01819005e778c
The Thunderer
479
False
What kind of printing press helped increase the circulation and influence of The Times back in 1817?
5705eece75f01819005e778d
steam-driven rotary printing press
678
False
Who succeeded Thomas Barnes as editor of The Times in 1841?
5705eece75f01819005e778e
John Thadeus Delane
235
False
Thomas Barnes was appointed general editor in 1817. In the same year, the paper's printer James Lawson, died and passed the business onto his son John Joseph Lawson(1802–1852). Under the editorship of Barnes and his successor in 1841, John Thadeus Delane, the influence of The Times rose to great heights, especially in politics and amongst the City of London. Peter Fraser and Edward Sterling were two noted journalists, and gained for The Times the pompous/satirical nickname 'The Thunderer' (from "We thundered out the other day an article on social and political reform."). The increased circulation and influence of the paper was based in part to its early adoption of the steam-driven rotary printing press. Distribution via steam trains to rapidly growing concentrations of urban populations helped ensure the profitability of the paper and its growing influence.
The Times was the first newspaper to send correspondents to what kind of event?
5705ef7375f01819005e779e
war
42
False
Who was The Times first correspondent with an army?
5705ef7375f01819005e779f
W. H. Russell
92
False
Which war did The Times first cover using correspondents?
5705ef7375f01819005e77a0
Crimean War
154
False
The Times was the first newspaper to send war correspondents to cover particular conflicts. W. H. Russell, the paper's correspondent with the army in the Crimean War, was immensely influential with his dispatches back to England.
What major event did The Times reluctantly support in the nineteenth century despite being initially opposed?
5705f12375f01819005e77ae
Irish Potato Famine
218
False
The Times greatly supported what bill in 1832 which reduced corruption and increased the electorate?
5705f12375f01819005e77af
Great Reform Bill of 1832
273
False
Many demonstrations in the nineteenth century convinced The Times editorial board to finally support the repeal of what laws?
5705f12375f01819005e77b0
Corn Laws
79
False
During the American Civil War, what classes of people did The Times support?
5705f12375f01819005e77b1
wealthy classes
505
False
The Times favoured which political side of the American Civil War?
5705f12375f01819005e77b2
the secessionists
532
False
In other events of the nineteenth century, The Times opposed the repeal of the Corn Laws until the number of demonstrations convinced the editorial board otherwise, and only reluctantly supported aid to victims of the Irish Potato Famine. It enthusiastically supported the Great Reform Bill of 1832, which reduced corruption and increased the electorate from 400,000 people to 800,000 people (still a small minority of the population). During the American Civil War, The Times represented the view of the wealthy classes, favouring the secessionists, but it was not a supporter of slavery.
What year did the founder's grandson succeed his father as editor of The Times?
5705f1f752bb8914006896fa
1847
71
False
What is the name of the The Times founder's grandson who succeeded his father as editor?
5705f1f752bb8914006896fb
John Walter
10
False
In the 1850s, the Times was beginning to suffer from the rise in competition from what kind of press?
5705f1f752bb8914006896fc
the penny press
213
False
The third John Walter, the founder's grandson, succeeded his father in 1847. The paper continued as more or less independent, but from the 1850s The Times was beginning to suffer from the rise in competition from the penny press, notably The Daily Telegraph and The Morning Post.
Which agency often used The Times for continental intelligence?
5705f30452bb891400689708
the Foreign Office
51
False
Which century was The Times first often relied upon for continental intelligence?
5705f30452bb891400689709
19th century
11
False
Continental intelligence conveyed by The Times was often superior to what?
5705f30452bb89140068970a
official sources
175
False
During the 19th century, it was not infrequent for the Foreign Office to approach The Times and ask for continental intelligence, which was often superior to that conveyed by official sources.[citation needed]
Which editor nearly ruined The Times in 1890?
5705f48452bb89140068972c
Arthur Fraser Walter
51
False
Which energetic editor rescued The Times from financial collapse in 1890?
5705f48452bb89140068972d
Charles Frederic Moberly Bell
116
False
Which encyclopedia was The Times aggressively selling to American markets?
5705f48452bb89140068972e
Britannica
236
False
Who was the creator of the encyclopedia that The Times was known for selling to America?
5705f48452bb89140068972f
Horace Everett Hooper
305
False
Who later bought the well-known encyclopedia from The Times in 1908?
5705f48452bb891400689730
Alfred Harmsworth
556
False
The Times faced financial extinction in 1890 under Arthur Fraser Walter, but it was rescued by an energetic editor, Charles Frederic Moberly Bell. During his tenure (1890–1911), The Times became associated with selling the Encyclopædia Britannica using aggressive American marketing methods introduced by Horace Everett Hooper and his advertising executive, Henry Haxton. Due to legal fights between the Britannica's two owners, Hooper and Walter Montgomery Jackson, The Times severed its connection in 1908 and was bought by pioneering newspaper magnate, Alfred Harmsworth, later Lord Northcliffe.
Who was The Times' Chief Editor in 1914?
5705f57252bb891400689740
Wickham Steed
48
False
The Chief Editor of The Times in 1914 argued that the British Empire should enter what war?
5705f57252bb891400689741
World War I
133
False
What anti-Semitic fabrication did The Times endorse in 1920?
5705f57252bb891400689742
The Protocols of the Learned Elders of Zion
261
False
After publishing anti-Semitic editorials in 1920, what did The Times refer to Jews as being?
5705f57252bb891400689743
the world's greatest danger
344
False
What was the name of the anti-Semitic article that The Time's Chief Editor published in 1914?
5705f57252bb891400689744
The Jewish Peril, a Disturbing Pamphlet: Call for Inquiry
397
False
In editorials published on 29 and 31 July 1914, Wickham Steed, the Times's Chief Editor, argued that the British Empire should enter World War I. On 8 May 1920, also under the editorship of Steed, The Times in an editorial endorsed the anti-Semitic fabrication The Protocols of the Learned Elders of Zion as a genuine document, and called Jews the world's greatest danger. In the leader entitled "The Jewish Peril, a Disturbing Pamphlet: Call for Inquiry", Steed wrote about The Protocols of the Elders of Zion:
A Constantinople correspondent of The Times exposed what anti-Semitic document as a forgery?
5705f66d52bb89140068974a
The Protocols
113
False
Who was the name of the The Times Constantinople correspondent who exposed the anti-Semitic document as a forgery?
5705f66d52bb89140068974b
Philip Graves
25
False
How did The Times respond to the exposing of anti-Semitic documents as forgery?
5705f66d52bb89140068974c
retracted the editorial
151
False
The following year, when Philip Graves, the Constantinople (modern Istanbul) correspondent of The Times, exposed The Protocols as a forgery, The Times retracted the editorial of the previous year.
In 1922, who bought The Times?
5705f75b75f01819005e77d2
John Jacob Astor
9
False
In 1922, which estate sold The Times?
5705f75b75f01819005e77d3
Northcliffe estate
84
False
The Times gained much notoriety in the 1930s because of its advocacy of what?
5705f75b75f01819005e77d4
German appeasement
178
False
Which The Times editor was closely allied with the government who practised German appeasement?
5705f75b75f01819005e77d5
Geoffrey Dawson
210
False
Which notable government official did The Times ally with in the 1930s whom practised German appeasement?
5705f75b75f01819005e77d6
Neville Chamberlain
314
False
In 1922, John Jacob Astor, son of the 1st Viscount Astor, bought The Times from the Northcliffe estate. The paper gained a measure of notoriety in the 1930s with its advocacy of German appeasement; then-editor Geoffrey Dawson was closely allied with those in the government who practised appeasement, most notably Neville Chamberlain.
Who was the name of the Soviet double agent who was the correspondent for The Times in Spain in the late 1930s?
5705f88475f01819005e77f0
Kim Philby
0
False
A Soviet double agent working for The Times in Spain was a war correspondent during what war in the late 1930s?
5705f88475f01819005e77f1
Spanish Civil War
93
False
During World War II, the Soviet double agent who was corresponding for The Times in Spain in the 1930s later joined what agency?
5705f88475f01819005e77f2
MI6
262
False
In 1963, a notable double agent providing valuable and high-quality reporting for The Times during a war in the late 1930s eventually defected to which country?
5705f88475f01819005e77f3
Soviet Union
375
False
Kim Philby, a Soviet double agent, was a correspondent for the newspaper in Spain during the Spanish Civil War of the late 1930s. Philby was admired for his courage in obtaining high-quality reporting from the front lines of the bloody conflict. He later joined MI6 during World War II, was promoted into senior positions after the war ended, then eventually defected to the Soviet Union in 1963.
Between 1941 and 1946, which left-wing British historian was Assistant Editor for The Times?
5705f9de75f01819005e7802
E.H. Carr
55
False
The Assistant Editor of The Times in 1941-1946 strongly supported what stance?
5705f9de75f01819005e7803
pro-Soviet
124
False
Which side did The Times support in the fighting that broke out in Athens in 1944?
5705f9de75f01819005e7804
Communists
307
False
Which major political figure condemned The Times in 1944 for not supporting the British Army?
5705f9de75f01819005e7805
Winston Churchill
327
False
During World War II, The Times was nicknamed what in 1944?
5705f9de75f01819005e7806
the threepenny Daily Worker
516
False
Between 1941 and 1946, the left-wing British historian E.H. Carr was Assistant Editor. Carr was well known for the strongly pro-Soviet tone of his editorials. In December 1944, when fighting broke out in Athens between the Greek Communist ELAS and the British Army, Carr in a Times editorial sided with the Communists, leading Winston Churchill to condemn him and that leader in a speech to the House of Commons. As a result of Carr's editorial, The Times became popularly known during that stage of World War II as the threepenny Daily Worker (the price of the Daily Worker being one penny).
In what year did The Times resume printing news on the front page instead of small advertisements?
5705fb2375f01819005e781c
1966
9
False
In 1967, what well-known family sold The Times to a Canadian publishing magnate?
5705fb2375f01819005e781d
Astor family
203
False
In 1967, which Canadian publishing magnate bought The Times?
5705fb2375f01819005e781e
Roy Thomson
262
False
What is the name of the corporation that bought The Times in 1967?
5705fb2375f01819005e781f
Thomson Corporation
279
False
Which other newspaper was brought under the same ownership as The Times in 1967 to form Times Newspapers Limited?
5705fb2375f01819005e7820
The Sunday Times
338
False
On 3 May 1966 it resumed printing news on the front page - previously the front page featured small advertisements, usually of interest to the moneyed classes in British society. In 1967, members of the Astor family sold the paper to Canadian publishing magnate Roy Thomson. His Thomson Corporation brought it under the same ownership as The Sunday Times to form Times Newspapers Limited.
In 1979, which corporation was struggling to run The Times?
5705fc0752bb891400689764
Thomson Corporation
4
False
What crisis in 1979 caused near ruin to The Times?
5705fc0752bb891400689765
1979 Energy Crisis
82
False
What kind of demands were causing ruin to The Times in 1979?
5705fc0752bb891400689766
union demands
105
False
The Thomson Corporation management were struggling to run the business due to the 1979 Energy Crisis and union demands. Management were left with no choice but to find a buyer who was in a position to guarantee the survival of both titles, and also one who had the resources and was committed to funding the introduction of modern printing methods.
A media magnate from which country bought The Times in the 1980s?
5705fcd775f01819005e783a
Australian
160
False
What is the name of the media magnate that bought The Times in the 1980s?
5705fcd775f01819005e783b
Rupert Murdoch
185
False
Who did a media magnate in the 1980s buy The Times from?
5705fcd775f01819005e783c
Thomson
145
False
Several suitors appeared, including Robert Maxwell, Tiny Rowland and Lord Rothermere; however, only one buyer was in a position to meet the full Thomson remit, Australian media magnate Rupert Murdoch. Robert Holmes à Court, another Australian magnate had previously tried to buy The Times in 1980.
What corporation bought The Times in 1981?
5705fd9e52bb891400689774
News International
85
False
Who owned the major corporation that bought The Times in 1981?
5705fd9e52bb891400689775
Rupert Murdoch
68
False
During the acquisition of The Times in 1981, John Collier and Bill O'Neill were part of what group that did three weeks of intensive bargaining?
5705fd9e52bb891400689776
the unions
171
False
In 1981, The Times and The Sunday Times were bought from Thomson by Rupert Murdoch's News International. The acquisition followed three weeks of intensive bargaining with the unions by company negotiators, John Collier and Bill O'Neill.
When The Times was bought in 1982, who resigned as editor?
5705fed175f01819005e784a
William Rees-Mogg
26
False
How many years as an editor was editor who resigned from The Times in 1982?
5705fed175f01819005e784b
14 years
6
False
In 1982, what is the name of the editor who replaced the previous editor of The Times?
5705fed175f01819005e784c
Harold Evans
164
False
What printing process for The Times was replaced by computers in 1982?
5705fed175f01819005e784d
hot-metal Linotype printing process
357
False
In 1982, the allowed print room staff at The Times and The Sunday Times was reduced by how much?
5705fed175f01819005e784e
half
590
False
After 14 years as editor, William Rees-Mogg resigned the post upon completion of the change of ownership. Murdoch began to make his mark on the paper by appointing Harold Evans as his replacement. One of his most important changes was the introduction of new technology and efficiency measures. In March–May 1982, following agreement with print unions, the hot-metal Linotype printing process used to print The Times since the 19th century was phased out and replaced by computer input and photo-composition. This allowed print room staff at The Times and The Sunday Times to be reduced by half. However, direct input of text by journalists ("single stroke" input) was still not achieved, and this was to remain an interim measure until the Wapping dispute of 1986, when The Times moved from New Printing House Square in Gray's Inn Road (near Fleet Street) to new offices in Wapping.
Which major journalist resigned as foreign correspondent of the Times in 1988?
5705ffff75f01819005e7854
Robert Fisk
0
False
The foreign correspondent who resigned from The Times in 1988 won how many major journalism awards?
5705ffff75f01819005e7855
seven
13
False
The foreign correspondent for The Times who resigned in 1988, resigned for what reason?
5705ffff75f01819005e7856
political censorship
134
False
What stance did The Times take that cause a famous foreign correspondent to resign in 1988?
5705ffff75f01819005e7857
pro-Israel stance
345
False
What airplane was shot down in July 1988 that a famous foreign correspondent from The Times wrote an article about that later lead to his resignation?
5705ffff75f01819005e7858
Iran Air Flight 655
195
False
Robert Fisk, seven times British International Journalist of the Year, resigned as foreign correspondent in 1988 over what he saw as "political censorship" of his article on the shooting-down of Iran Air Flight 655 in July 1988. He wrote in detail about his reasons for resigning from the paper due to meddling with his stories, and the paper's pro-Israel stance.
In what year did The Times ceased its policy of using courtesy titles for living persons before full names on first reference?
5706017c75f01819005e785e
1990
8
False
What kind of style is now confined to the "Court and Social" page of The Times when referring to the use of courtesy titles?
5706017c75f01819005e785f
formal style
238
False
When The Times ceased its policy of using courtesy titles, it continued to use them for what kind of name on references after the first?
5706017c75f01819005e7860
surnames
194
False
In June 1990, The Times ceased its policy of using courtesy titles ("Mr", "Mrs", or "Miss" prefixes) for living persons before full names on first reference, but it continues to use them before surnames on subsequent references. The more formal style is now confined to the "Court and Social" page, though "Ms" is now acceptable in that section, as well as before surnames in news sections.
In what year did News International begin producing The Times in both broadsheet in tabloid sizes?
5706021752bb891400689798
2003
12
False
When The Times began producing its newpaper in both broadsheet and tabloid sizes, which region did The Times withdraw its broadsheet from sale?
5706021752bb891400689799
Northern Ireland
177
False
The Times is printed solely in what format since 2004?
5706021752bb89140068979a
tabloid format
255
False
In November 2003, News International began producing the newspaper in both broadsheet and tabloid sizes. On 13 September 2004, the weekday broadsheet was withdrawn from sale in Northern Ireland. Since 1 November 2004, the paper has been printed solely in tabloid format.
On 6 June 2005, The Times redesigned what page of its newspaper?
5706035a75f01819005e7878
Letters page
41
False
In 2005, The Times dropped the practice of printing what kind of feature of its correspondents?
5706035a75f01819005e7879
full postal addresses
105
False
Which author and solicitor has had more letters published on the main letters page of The Times than any other known contributor?
5706035a75f01819005e787a
David Green of Castle Morris Pembrokeshire
222
False
The leading author and solicitor of the letters page in The Times had how many articles published?
5706035a75f01819005e787b
158
356
False
What is the name of the leading article that referenced the removal of a major feature in The Times in 2005?
5706035a75f01819005e787c
From Our Own Correspondents
415
False
On 6 June 2005, The Times redesigned its Letters page, dropping the practice of printing correspondents' full postal addresses. Published letters were long regarded as one of the paper's key constituents. Author/solicitor David Green of Castle Morris Pembrokeshire has had more letters published on the main letters page than any other known contributor – 158 by 31 January 2008. According to its leading article, "From Our Own Correspondents", removal of full postal addresses was in order to fit more letters onto the page.
In what year was the meeting of the House of Lords Select Committee on Communications that was investigating media ownership and the news?
570603ed52bb8914006897a4
2007
5
False
In the 2007 meeting with the government, Rupert Murdoch, owner of The Times, stated that the law and the independent board prevented him from doing what?
570603ed52bb8914006897a5
exercising editorial control
205
False
What government committee was investigating Rupert Murdoch and The Times in 2007?
570603ed52bb8914006897a6
House of Lords Select Committee on Communications
27
False
In a 2007 meeting with the House of Lords Select Committee on Communications, which was investigating media ownership and the news, Murdoch stated that the law and the independent board prevented him from exercising editorial control.
In May 2008, The Times switched from what plant to new plants in Broxbourne, Merseyside, and Glasgow?
5706049c52bb8914006897b2
Wapping
48
False
In 2008, The Times switched to a new plant in Broxbourne, which is on the outskirts of what city?
5706049c52bb8914006897b3
London
104
False
In May 2008, The Times switched to new plants which allowed for what kind of feature to be printed on every page for the first time?
5706049c52bb8914006897b4
full colour
179
False
In May 2008 printing of The Times switched from Wapping to new plants at Broxbourne on the outskirts of London, and Merseyside and Glasgow, enabling the paper to be produced with full colour on every page for the first time.
What major event took place in London in 2012?
5706050752bb8914006897b8
London 2012 Olympics
60
False
What kind of front cover did The Times issue on 26 July 2012?
5706050752bb8914006897b9
souvenir
112
False
In 2012, The Times added what suffix to its masthead?
5706050752bb8914006897ba
of London
163
False
On 26 July 2012, to coincide with the official start of the London 2012 Olympics and the issuing of a series of souvenir front covers, The Times added the suffix "of London" to its masthead.
The Times features what in the first half of its newspaper?
570605d175f01819005e7894
news
19
False
What section begins after the first half of The Times newspaper?
570605d175f01819005e7895
Opinion/Comment section
61
False
What is The Times current price for the daily edition?
570605d175f01819005e7896
£1.20
392
False
What feature begins on the centre spread of The Times?
570605d175f01819005e7897
business pages
166
False
What section is featured at the end of the main paper of The Times?
570605d175f01819005e7898
sport section
316
False
The Times features news for the first half of the paper, the Opinion/Comment section begins after the first news section with world news normally following this. The business pages begin on the centre spread, and are followed by The Register, containing obituaries, Court & Social section, and related material. The sport section is at the end of the main paper. The Times current prices are £1.20 for the daily edition and £1.50 for the Saturday edition.
What is the name of the lifestyle column of The Times?
5706064f75f01819005e789e
times2
47
False
The Times features a puzzles section called what?
5706064f75f01819005e789f
Mind Games
243
False
What is the name of the sudoku game in The Times?
5706064f75f01819005e78a0
Killer Sudoku
560
False
The Times's main supplement, every day, is the times2, featuring various lifestyle columns. It was discontinued on 1 March 2010 but reintroduced on 11 October 2010 after negative feedback. Its regular features include a puzzles section called Mind Games. Its previous incarnation began on 5 September 2005, before which it was called T2 and previously Times 2. Regular features include columns by a different columnist each weekday. There was a column by Marcus du Sautoy each Wednesday, for example. The back pages are devoted to puzzles and contain sudoku, "Killer Sudoku", "KenKen", word polygon puzzles, and a crossword simpler and more concise than the main "Times Crossword".
What sports activity is featured in The Times on Mondays?
570606f052bb8914006897c6
football
80
False
What kind of football game is featured in the Scottish edition of The Times?
570606f052bb8914006897c7
Scottish Premier League
249
False
What is the name of the section that features football on Mondays in The Times?
570606f052bb8914006897c8
The Game
0
False
The Game is included in the newspaper on Mondays, and details all the weekend's football activity (Premier League and Football League Championship, League One and League Two.) The Scottish edition of The Game also includes results and analysis from Scottish Premier League games.
What is the name of the section of the Saturday edition of The Times that features travel and lifestyle?
5706076875f01819005e78ae
Weekend
130
False
Arts, books, and ideas are featured in what section in the Saturday edition of The Times?
5706076875f01819005e78af
Saturday Review
181
False
An entertainment listings guide in the Saturday edition of The Times is called what?
5706076875f01819005e78b0
Playlist
275
False
The Saturday edition of The Times contains a variety of supplements. These supplements were relaunched in January 2009 as: Sport, Weekend (including travel and lifestyle features), Saturday Review (arts, books, and ideas), The Times Magazine (columns on various topics), and Playlist (an entertainment listings guide).
What is the name of the notable contributor to The Times Magazine columns that became the Food and Drink Writer of the Year in 2005?
5706088275f01819005e78be
Giles Coren
199
False
What is the name of the winner of BBC's The Great British Bake Off who is also a column writer in The Times Magazine section?
5706088275f01819005e78bf
Nadiya Hussain
258
False
In what year did notable Times Magazine contributor, Gile Coren, become Food and Drink Writer of the Year?
5706088275f01819005e78c0
2005
249
False
Nadiya Hussain, a Times Magazine column writer, is known for being the winner of what BBC contest?
5706088275f01819005e78c1
The Great British Bake Off
290
False
What is the name of the section that features columns touching on subjects such as celebrities, fashion and beauty, food and drink, homes and garden or simply writers' anecdotes?
5706088275f01819005e78c2
The Times Magazine
0
False
The Times Magazine features columns touching on various subjects such as celebrities, fashion and beauty, food and drink, homes and gardens or simply writers' anecdotes. Notable contributors include Giles Coren, Food and Drink Writer of the Year in 2005 and Nadiya Hussain, winner of BBC's The Great British Bake Off.
Since what year has The Times and The Sunday Times had an online presense?
5706095a75f01819005e78c8
1999
71
False
What is the URL of online website for The Times?
5706095a75f01819005e78c9
timesonline.co.uk
144
False
The website, thetimes.co.uk, is aimed at what kind of reader?
5706095a75f01819005e78ca
daily readers
218
False
The website, thesundaytimes.co.uk, provides what kind of content?
5706095a75f01819005e78cb
weekly magazine-like content
280
False
How much does a non-subscriber of The Times need to pay to read the online versions?
5706095a75f01819005e78cc
£2 per week
466
False
The Times and The Sunday Times have had an online presence since March 1999, originally at the-times.co.uk and sunday-times.co.uk, and later at timesonline.co.uk. There are now two websites: thetimes.co.uk is aimed at daily readers, and the thesundaytimes.co.uk site at providing weekly magazine-like content. There are also iPad and Android editions of both newspapers. Since July 2010, News UK has required readers who do not subscribe to the print edition to pay £2 per week to read The Times and The Sunday Times online.
What is the name of the digital archive that holds The Times historical archive?
570609e452bb8914006897f2
The Times Digital Archive
0
False
The Times historical archive is freely accessible online from what database?
570609e452bb8914006897f3
Gale databases
63
False
What kind of reader can subscribe to the digital archive of The Times?
570609e452bb8914006897f4
academic
117
False
The Times Digital Archive (1785–2008) is freely accessible via Gale databases to readers affiliated with subscribing academic, public, and school libraries.
Visits to The Times website have decreased by how much since October 2011?
57060a7675f01819005e78dc
87%
41
False
What is the reason for the dramatic drop in visits to The Times website?
57060a7675f01819005e78dd
paywall
55
False
In April 2009, how many readers did the timesonline website have per day?
57060a7675f01819005e78de
750,000
190
False
As of October 2011, how many subscribers does The Times' digital product currently have?
57060a7675f01819005e78df
111,000
253
False
Visits to the websites have decreased by 87% since the paywall was introduced, from 21 million unique users per month to 2.7 million. In April 2009, the timesonline site had a readership of 750,000 readers per day. As of October 2011, there were around 111,000 subscribers to The Times' digital products.
What year was Harold Evans appointed to editor of The Times?
57060b2575f01819005e78e4
1981
54
False
The Times has a traditional rival with what other major British newspaper?
57060b2575f01819005e78e5
The Daily Telegraph
184
False
What is the name of the highest-selling tabloid daily newspaper in the United Kingdom?
57060b2575f01819005e78e6
The Sun
715
False
What is the name of the highest-selling middle market British daily newspaper?
57060b2575f01819005e78e7
Daily Mail
852
False
At the time of Harold Evans' appointment as editor in 1981, The Times had an average daily sale of 282,000 copies in comparison to the 1.4 million daily sales of its traditional rival The Daily Telegraph. By November 2005 The Times sold an average of 691,283 copies per day, the second-highest of any British "quality" newspaper (after The Daily Telegraph, which had a circulation of 903,405 copies in the period), and the highest in terms of full-rate sales. By March 2014, average daily circulation of The Times had fallen to 394,448 copies, compared to The Daily Telegraph's 523,048, with the two retaining respectively the second-highest and highest circulations among British "quality" newspapers. In contrast The Sun, the highest-selling "tabloid" daily newspaper in the United Kingdom, sold an average of 2,069,809 copies in March 2014, and the Daily Mail, the highest-selling "middle market" British daily newspaper, sold an average of 1,708,006 copies in the period.
Which newspaper has a significantly higher circulation, The Sunday Times or The Times?
57060b8875f01819005e78ec
The Sunday Times
0
False
As of January 2013, The Times has a circulation of how many people?
57060b8875f01819005e78ed
399,339
168
False
As of January 2013, The Sunday Times has a circulation of how many people?
57060b8875f01819005e78ee
885,612
200
False
The Sunday Times has a significantly higher circulation than The Times, and sometimes outsells The Sunday Telegraph. As of January 2013, The Times has a circulation of 399,339 and The Sunday Times of 885,612.
In a 2009 national readership survey, what newspaper has the highest number of ABC1 25-44 readers?
57060c0052bb891400689808
The Times
37
False
What newspaper has the highest number of readers in London of any of the "quality" papers?
57060c0052bb891400689809
The Times
37
False
The Times is found to have the highest number of readers from what age group?
57060c0052bb89140068980a
25–44
92
False
In a 2009 national readership survey The Times was found to have the highest number of ABC1 25–44 readers and the largest numbers of readers in London of any of the "quality" papers.
The Times commissioned what serif typeface in 1931?
57060cc575f01819005e78f2
Times New Roman
42
False
Who is the creator of the serif typeface created in 1931 for The Times newspaper?
57060cc575f01819005e78f3
Victor Lardent
70
False
Who commissioned the change of the typeface of The Times in 1931?
57060cc575f01819005e78f4
Stanley Morison
155
False
What is the name of the typeface that Times New Roman is based on?
57060cc575f01819005e78f5
Plantin
425
False
How many years has The Times stayed with Times New Roman?
57060cc575f01819005e78f6
40
684
False
The Times commissioned the serif typeface Times New Roman, created by Victor Lardent at the English branch of Monotype, in 1931. It was commissioned after Stanley Morison had written an article criticizing The Times for being badly printed and typographically antiquated. The font was supervised by Morison and drawn by Victor Lardent, an artist from the advertising department of The Times. Morison used an older font named Plantin as the basis for his design, but made revisions for legibility and economy of space. Times New Roman made its debut in the issue of 3 October 1932. After one year, the design was released for commercial sale. The Times stayed with Times New Roman for 40 years, but new production techniques and the format change from broadsheet to tabloid in 2004 have caused the newspaper to switch font five times since 1972. However, all the new fonts have been variants of the original New Roman font:
At the 1945 general election, The Times adopted a stance that was referred to by what name?
57060e0c75f01819005e7906
peculiarly detached
173
False
After 1945, The Times supported what party for 5 years afterwards?
57060e0c75f01819005e7907
Tory
44
False
What kind of political coalition did The Times support in 1974?
57060e0c75f01819005e7908
Con-Lib coalition
620
False
From the 1970s until 1997, The Times supported what political party?
57060e0c75f01819005e7909
Conservatives
673
False
After 1997, The Times declined from making any party endorsements however, they supported individual candidates known by what name?
57060e0c75f01819005e790a
Eurosceptic
790
False
Historically, the paper was not overtly pro-Tory or Whig, but has been a long time bastion of the English Establishment and empire. The Times adopted a stance described as "peculiarly detached" at the 1945 general election; although it was increasingly critical of the Conservative Party's campaign, it did not advocate a vote for any one party. However, the newspaper reverted to the Tories for the next election five years later. It supported the Conservatives for the subsequent three elections, followed by support for both the Conservatives and the Liberal Party for the next five elections, expressly supporting a Con-Lib coalition in 1974. The paper then backed the Conservatives solidly until 1997, when it declined to make any party endorsement but supported individual (primarily Eurosceptic) candidates.
In the 2001 general election, The Times declared support for what political party?
57060ec552bb891400689826
Labour
78
False
What is the name of the political party's leader that The Times supported in the 2001 general election?
57060ec552bb891400689827
Tony Blair
65
False
For the 2010 general election, which political party did The Times support?
57060ec552bb891400689828
Tories
374
False
What political party did the Tories have to form a coalition with in 2010?
57060ec552bb891400689829
Liberal Democrats
453
False
What political party was re-elected by a landslide in 2001?
57060ec552bb89140068982a
Labour
78
False
For the 2001 general election The Times declared its support for Tony Blair's Labour government, which was re-elected by a landslide. It supported Labour again in 2005, when Labour achieved a third successive win, though with a reduced majority. For the 2010 general election, however, the newspaper declared its support for the Tories once again; the election ended in the Tories taking the most votes and seats but having to form a coalition with the Liberal Democrats in order to form a government as they had failed to gain an overall majority.
What is the name of the newspaper with the most varied political support in British history?
57060f3f52bb891400689830
The Times
109
False
Which political party is The Times columnist, Daniel Finkelstein, associated with?
57060f3f52bb891400689831
Conservative Party
140
False
Which political party is The Times columnist, David Aaronovitch, associated with?
57060f3f52bb891400689832
Labour Party
283
False
This makes it the most varied newspaper in terms of political support in British history. Some columnists in The Times are connected to the Conservative Party such as Daniel Finkelstein, Tim Montgomerie, Matthew Parris and Matt Ridley, but there are also columnists connected to the Labour Party such as David Aaronovitch, Phil Collins, Oliver Kamm and Jenni Russell.
In what year did The Times make an endorsement for Barack Obama?
57060fde52bb891400689836
2012
77
False
Who did The Times support in 2012 for the election of the U.S. president?
57060fde52bb891400689837
Barack Obama
113
False
What kind of policy did The Times express reservation for when concerning the political stances of Barack Obama?
57060fde52bb891400689838
foreign policy
176
False
The Times occasionally makes endorsements for foreign elections. In November 2012, it endorsed a second term for Barack Obama although it also expressed reservations about his foreign policy.
What film festival does The Times support that is also supported alongside the British Film Institute?
5706108452bb89140068983c
London Film Festival
79
False
What festival is featured at Asia House, London?
5706108452bb89140068983d
Asia House Festival of Asian Literature
161
False
The Cheltenham Literature Festival is supported by what major newspaper?
5706108452bb89140068983e
The Times
0
False
The Times, along with the British Film Institute, sponsors the "The Times" bfi London Film Festival. It also sponsors the Cheltenham Literature Festival and the Asia House Festival of Asian Literature at Asia House, London.
What is the name of the supplement that first appeared in 1902 as a supplement to The Times?
5706117a75f01819005e7934
Times Literary Supplement
4
False
In 1914, a separately paid-for supplement for The Times was a magazine that featured what kind of content?
5706117a75f01819005e7935
weekly literature
120
False
The editorial offices of The Times Literary Supplement is based in what location in London?
5706117a75f01819005e7936
Times House, Pennington Street
411
False
In what year did The Times Literary Supplement begin publishing online?
5706117a75f01819005e7937
2012
231
False
The Times Literary Supplement (TLS) first appeared in 1902 as a supplement to The Times, becoming a separately paid-for weekly literature and society magazine in 1914. The Times and the TLS have continued to be co-owned, and as of 2012 the TLS is also published by News International and cooperates closely with The Times, with its online version hosted on The Times website, and its editorial offices based in Times House, Pennington Street, London.
The Times began producing what kind of non-newspaper product in 1895?
5706125975f01819005e7942
Atlases
6
False
What publisher prints The Times atlas?
5706125975f01819005e7943
HarperCollins Publishers
111
False
What is the name of The Times' atlas?
5706125975f01819005e7944
The Times Comprehensive Atlas of the World
161
False
Times Atlases have been produced since 1895. They are currently produced by the Collins Bartholomew imprint of HarperCollins Publishers. The flagship product is The Times Comprehensive Atlas of the World.
What is the name of the travel magazine sold by The Times?
570612ba75f01819005e7948
Sunday Times Travel Magazine
149
False
In what year was The Times' travel magazine first sold?
570612ba75f01819005e7949
2003
185
False
How many pages is The Times' travel magazine?
570612ba75f01819005e794a
164
5
False
What is the name of Britain's best-selling travel magazine?
570612ba75f01819005e794b
Sunday Times Travel Magazine
149
False
This 164-page monthly magazine is sold separately from the newspaper of record and is Britain's best-selling travel magazine. The first issue of The Sunday Times Travel Magazine was in 2003, and it includes news, features and insider guides.
In what novel was The Times featured as an organ of a totalitarian ruling party?
5706131752bb89140068985e
Nineteen Eighty-Four
49
False
What is the name of the author of Nineteen Eighty-Four?
5706131752bb89140068985f
George Orwell
33
False
What kind of future world did George Orwell create in his novel, Nineteen Eighty-Four?
5706131752bb891400689860
dystopian
7
False
In the dystopian future world of George Orwell's Nineteen Eighty-Four, The Times has been transformed into the organ of the totalitarian ruling party, its editorials—of which several are quoted in the book—reflecting Big Brother's pronouncements.
The author, Rex Stout, created a fictional detection that is fond of solving London Times' crossword puzzles that goes by what name?
570613f152bb89140068986e
Nero Wolfe
32
False
In what part of the world did the fictional detective, Nero Wolfe, live in?
570613f152bb89140068986f
New York
117
False
The fictional detective, Nero Wolfe, preferred what newspaper to American newspapers?
570613f152bb891400689870
London Times
79
False
The fictional detective, Nero Wolfe, is described as fond of solving what kind of puzzle in the London Times newspaper?
570613f152bb891400689871
crossword
93
False
Rex Stout's fictional detective Nero Wolfe is described as fond of solving the London Times' crossword puzzle at his New York home, in preference to those of American papers.
The author, Ian Fleming, created a fictional character named James Bond who prefers to only read what newspaper?
5706148075f01819005e795a
The Times
122
False
What is the name of the spy and hero in Ian Fleming's books?
5706148075f01819005e795b
James Bond
41
False
In what Ian Fleming novel is James Bond described as only reading The Times newspaper?
5706148075f01819005e795c
From Russia, with Love
97
False
In the James Bond series by Ian Fleming, James Bond, reads The Times. As described by Fleming in From Russia, with Love: "The Times was the only paper that Bond ever read."
In what children TV series is there is a fictional character named Uncle Bulgaria that asks others to bring him copies of The Times found amongst the litter?
5706158575f01819005e7960
The Wombles
3
False
What is the name of the episode where the newspaper, The Times, is featured and plays a central role in an episode of The Wombles?
5706158575f01819005e7961
Very Behind the Times
189
False
In the children's TV show, The Wombles, what character asks others to bring him any copies of The Times that they find amongst the litter?
5706158575f01819005e7962
Uncle Bulgaria
16
False
In The Wombles, Uncle Bulgaria read The Times and asked for the other Wombles to bring him any copies that they found amongst the litter. The newspaper played a central role in the episode Very Behind the Times (Series 2, Episode 12).
New_Delhi
In what territory is New Delhi located?
5705e37175f01819005e76de
Delhi
61
False
What municipality serves as the capital of India?
5705e37175f01819005e76df
New Delhi
0
False
For what territory does New Delhi serve as the seat of Government?
5705e37175f01819005e76e0
Delhi
185
False
What municipality serves as the seat of Government for India?
5705e37175f01819005e76e1
New Delhi
0
False
What municipality serves as the seat of government of Delhi?
5705e37175f01819005e76e2
New Delhi
0
False
New Delhi (i/ˌnjuː ˈdɛli/) is a municipality and district in Delhi which serves as the capital and seat of government of India. In addition, it also serves as the seat of Government of Delhi.
In what year was the foundation stone of New Delhi laid?
5705e39275f01819005e76e9
1911
99
False
Who designed the foundation stone of the city of New Delhi?
5705e39275f01819005e76ea
Sir Edwin Lutyens and Sir Herbert Baker
144
False
On what date was New Delhi inaugurated?
5705e39275f01819005e76eb
13 February 1931
220
False
Who inaugurated the city of New Delhi?
5705e39275f01819005e76ec
Viceroy Lord Irwin
249
False
The foundation stone of the city was laid by George V, Emperor of India during the Delhi Durbar of 1911. It was designed by British architects, Sir Edwin Lutyens and Sir Herbert Baker. The new capital was inaugurated on 13 February 1931, by India's Viceroy Lord Irwin.
What are the two terms colloquially used to refer to the jurisdiction of NCT of Delhi?
5705e3a452bb891400689656
Delhi and New Delhi
22
False
New Delhi is a small part of what larger territory?
5705e3a452bb891400689657
Delhi
22
False
Delhi and New Delhi are colloquially used to refer to what jurisdiction?
5705e3a452bb891400689658
NCT of Delhi
108
False
What is one name used to refer to the jurisdiction of NCT of Delhi?
5705e3a452bb89140068965a
Delhi
22
False
Although colloquially Delhi and New Delhi as names are used interchangeably to refer to the jurisdiction of NCT of Delhi, these are two distinct entities, and the latter is a small part of the former.
How many Indian cities have been selected to be developed as a smart city?
5705e3b375f01819005e76f2
hundred
42
False
What is the name of the mission to develop Indian smart cities?
5705e3b375f01819005e76f3
Smart Cities Mission
130
False
Who is responsible for India's smart city initiative?
5705e3b375f01819005e76f4
PM Narendra Modi
102
False
What is one Indian city that has been selected to be developed as a smart city?
5705e3b375f01819005e76f5
New Delhi
0
False
New Delhi has been selected as one of the hundred Indian cities to be developed as a smart city under PM Narendra Modi's flagship Smart Cities Mission.
What city was the capital of India until December 1911?
5705e3cd52bb891400689660
Calcutta
0
False
What is the name of the city formerly known as Calcutta?
5705e3cd52bb891400689661
Kolkata
14
False
What is the name of the empire for which Delhi served as the political and financial capital from 1649 to 1857?
5705e3cd52bb891400689662
Mughal Empire
237
False
In the early 1900s, the capital of the British Indian Empire was shifted from Calcutta to what city?
5705e3cd52bb891400689663
Delhi
441
False
In what part of India is Delhi located?
5705e3cd52bb891400689664
the centre of northern India
527
False
Calcutta (now Kolkata) was the capital of India during the British Raj until December 1911. However, Delhi had served as the political and financial centre of several empires of ancient India and the Delhi Sultanate, most notably of the Mughal Empire from 1649 to 1857. During the early 1900s, a proposal was made to the British administration to shift the capital of the British Indian Empire (as it was officially called) from Calcutta to Delhi. Unlike Calcutta, which was located on the eastern coast of India, Delhi was at the centre of northern India and the Government of British India felt that it would be logistically easier to administer India from the latter rather than the former.
Who announced that the capital of India would be moved from Calcutta to Delhi?
5705e3dd75f01819005e76fa
George V
46
False
On what date was it announced that the capital of India would be moved to Delhi?
5705e3dd75f01819005e76fb
12 December 1911
3
False
Who laid the foundation stone of New Delhi?
5705e3dd75f01819005e76fc
King George V and Queen Mary
354
False
Who is responsible for designing large parts of New Delhi?
5705e3dd75f01819005e76fd
Edwin Lutyens
527
False
On what date did inauguration ceremonies for New Delhi begin?
5705e3dd75f01819005e76fe
10 February 1931
911
False
On 12 December 1911, during the Delhi Durbar, George V, then Emperor of India, along with Queen Mary, his Consort, made the announcement that the capital of the Raj was to be shifted from Calcutta to Delhi, while laying the foundation stone for the Viceroy's residence in the Coronation Park, Kingsway Camp. The foundation stone of New Delhi was laid by King George V and Queen Mary at the site of Delhi Durbar of 1911 at Kingsway Camp on 15 December 1911, during their imperial visit. Large parts of New Delhi were planned by Edwin Lutyens (Sir Edwin from 1918), who first visited Delhi in 1912, and Herbert Baker (Sir Herbert from 1926), both leading 20th-century British architects. The contract was given to Sobha Singh (later Sir Sobha Singh). Construction really began after World War I and was completed by 1931. The city that was later dubbed "Lutyens' Delhi" was inaugurated in ceremonies beginning on 10 February 1931 by Lord Irwin, the Viceroy. Lutyens designed the central administrative area of the city as a testament to Britain's imperial aspirations.
Who rejected the proposals of Brodie and Lutyens?
5705e5c275f01819005e7716
the Viceroy
284
False
Which site was eventually chosen by the Delhi Town Planning Committee?
5705e5c275f01819005e7717
the South site
793
False
Raisina Hill lay directly opposite what religious site?
5705e5c275f01819005e7718
Dinapanah citadel
1025
False
The Rajpath was also known by what name?
5705e5c275f01819005e7719
King's Way
1341
False
Who designed the Parliament House of New Delhi?
5705e5c275f01819005e771a
Herbert Baker
1582
False
Soon Lutyens started considering other places. Indeed, the Delhi Town Planning Committee, set up to plan the new imperial capital, with George Swinton as chairman and John A. Brodie and Lutyens as members, submitted reports for both North and South sites. However, it was rejected by the Viceroy when the cost of acquiring the necessary properties was found to be too high. The central axis of New Delhi, which today faces east at India Gate, was previously meant to be a north-south axis linking the Viceroy's House at one end with Paharganj at the other. During the project's early years, many tourists believed it was a gate from Earth to Heaven itself. Eventually, owing to space constraints and the presence of a large number of heritage sites in the North side, the committee settled on the South site. A site atop the Raisina Hill, formerly Raisina Village, a Meo village, was chosen for the Rashtrapati Bhawan, then known as the Viceroy's House. The reason for this choice was that the hill lay directly opposite the Dinapanah citadel, which was also considered the site of Indraprastha, the ancient region of Delhi. Subsequently, the foundation stone was shifted from the site of Delhi Durbar of 1911–1912, where the Coronation Pillar stood, and embedded in the walls of the forecourt of the Secretariat. The Rajpath, also known as King's Way, stretched from the India Gate to the Rashtrapati Bhawan. The Secretariat building, the two blocks of which flank the Rashtrapati Bhawan and houses ministries of the Government of India, and the Parliament House, both designed by Herbert Baker, are located at the Sansad Marg and run parallel to the Rajpath.
The construction of Connaught Place was completed in what year?
5705e72075f01819005e772a
1933
1175
False
On what hill did construction of Lutyen's Bungalow Zone begin?
5705e72075f01819005e772b
Raisina Hill
176
False
The Imperial Delhi Railway was built to transport workers and materials for how many years?
5705e72075f01819005e772c
twenty years
368
False
In what year did the Imperial Delhi Railway line begin operating?
5705e72075f01819005e772d
1924
732
False
In what year did the New Delhi Railway Station open?
5705e72075f01819005e772e
1926
778
False
In the south, land up to Safdarjung's Tomb was acquired in order to create what is today known as Lutyens' Bungalow Zone. Before construction could begin on the rocky ridge of Raisina Hill, a circular railway line around the Council House (now Parliament House), called the Imperial Delhi Railway, was built to transport construction material and workers for the next twenty years. The last stumbling block was the Agra-Delhi railway line that cut right through the site earmarked for the hexagonal All-India War Memorial (India Gate) and Kingsway (Rajpath), which was a problem because the Old Delhi Railway Station served the entire city at that time. The line was shifted to run along the Yamuna river, and it began operating in 1924. The New Delhi Railway Station opened in 1926 with a single platform at Ajmeri Gate near Paharganj and was completed in time for the city's inauguration in 1931. As construction of the Viceroy's House (the present Rashtrapati Bhavan), Central Secretariat, Parliament House, and All-India War Memorial (India Gate) was winding down, the building of a shopping district and a new plaza, Connaught Place, began in 1929, and was completed by 1933. Named after Prince Arthur, 1st Duke of Connaught (1850–1942), it was designed by Robert Tor Russell, chief architect to the Public Works Department (PWD).
A temporary secretariat building was built in New Delhi in what year?
5705e82775f01819005e773e
1912
111
False
In what year what New Delhi inaugurated as the capital of India?
5705e82775f01819005e773f
1931
342
False
Housing for employees was built in what area during the 1920s?
5705e82775f01819005e7740
Gole Market area
532
False
What was the name of the last residential area built by the British Raj?
5705e82775f01819005e7741
Lodhi colony
683
False
During what decade was the Lodhi colony built?
5705e82775f01819005e7742
the 1940s
572
False
After the capital of India moved to Delhi, a temporary secretariat building was constructed in a few months in 1912 in North Delhi. Most of the government offices of the new capital moved here from the 'Old secretariat' in Old Delhi (the building now houses the Delhi Legislative Assembly), a decade before the new capital was inaugurated in 1931. Many employees were brought into the new capital from distant parts of India, including the Bengal Presidency and Madras Presidency. Subsequently housing for them was developed around Gole Market area in the 1920s. Built in the 1940s, to house government employees, with bungalows for senior officials in the nearby Lodhi Estate area, Lodhi colony near historic Lodhi Gardens, was the last residential areas built by the British Raj.
In what year did India gain independence?
5705e91d52bb89140068967e
1947
35
False
In what year was Delhi converted into a union territory?
5705e91d52bb89140068967f
1956
173
False
What is the name of the act that caused the Union Territory of Delhi to become formally known as the National Capital Territory of Delhi?
5705e91d52bb891400689680
The Constitution (Sixty-ninth Amendment) Act
299
False
The enforcement of the legislation of the Constitution Act began in what year?
5705e91d52bb891400689681
1993
649
False
In 1956, Delhi was converted into what type of territory?
5705e91d52bb891400689682
a union territory
204
False
After India gained independence in 1947, a limited autonomy was conferred to New Delhi and was administered by a Chief Commissioner appointed by the Government of India. In 1956, Delhi was converted into a union territory and eventually the Chief Commissioner was replaced by a Lieutenant Governor. The Constitution (Sixty-ninth Amendment) Act, 1991 declared the Union Territory of Delhi to be formally known as National Capital Territory of Delhi. A system was introduced under which the elected Government was given wide powers, excluding law and order which remained with the Central Government. The actual enforcement of the legislation came in 1993.
In what decade did New Delhi first extend significantly from Lutyen's Delhi?
5705ea7975f01819005e775a
the 1950s
73
False
What organization developed land to expand New Delhi in the 1950s?
5705ea7975f01819005e775b
the Central Public Works Department
88
False
What was the name of the enclave created by the Central Public Works Department?
5705ea7975f01819005e775c
Chanakyapuri
226
False
In which direction did Chanakyapuri extend from New Delhi?
5705ea7975f01819005e775d
southwest
162
False
What was one use of the uses for the newly developed land of Chanakypuri?
5705ea7975f01819005e775e
residences of ambassadors
312
False
The first major extension of New Delhi outside of Lutyens' Delhi came in the 1950s when the Central Public Works Department (CPWD) developed a large area of land southwest of Lutyens' Delhi to create the diplomatic enclave of Chanakyapuri, where land was allotted for embassies, chanceries, high commissions and residences of ambassadors, around wide central vista, Shanti Path.
What is the total area of New Delhi in square miles?
5705eb4352bb8914006896a4
16.5 sq mi
31
False
On what plain is New Delhi located?
5705eb4352bb8914006896a5
the Indo-Gangetic Plain
136
False
The Delhi Ridge is also referred to by what name?
5705eb4352bb8914006896a6
the Lungs of Delhi
367
False
New Delhi is located on the floodplains of what river?
5705eb4352bb8914006896a7
Yamuna River
434
False
What seismic zone does New Delhi fall under?
5705eb4352bb8914006896a8
seismic zone-IV
560
False
With a total area of 42.7 km2 (16.5 sq mi), New Delhi forms a small part of the Delhi metropolitan area. Because the city is located on the Indo-Gangetic Plain, there is little difference in elevation across the city. New Delhi and surrounding areas were once a part of the Aravalli Range; all that is left of those mountains is the Delhi Ridge, which is also called the Lungs of Delhi. While New Delhi lies on the floodplains of the Yamuna River, it is essentially a landlocked city. East of the river is the urban area of Shahdara. New Delhi falls under the seismic zone-IV, making it vulnerable to earthquakes.
What was the magnitude of the notable 2015 earthquake that shook New Delhi?
5705ec5975f01819005e7778
5.4 magnitude
219
False
A 4.7 magnitude earthquake that affected New Delhi occurred on what date?
5705ec5975f01819005e7779
25 November 2007
311
False
What was the magnitude of the earthquake that affected New Delhi on September 2011?
5705ec5975f01819005e777a
4.2-magnitude
331
False
How many earthquakes occurred on March 5, 2012?
5705ec5975f01819005e777b
twelve
436
False
What is the geographical feature New Delhi lies on that is responsible for frequent earthquakes?
5705ec5975f01819005e777c
fault lines
26
False
New Delhi lies on several fault lines and thus experiences frequent earthquakes, most of them of mild intensity. There has, however, been a spike in the number of earthquakes in the last six years, most notable being a 5.4 magnitude earthquake in 2015 with its epicentre in Nepal, a 4.7-magnitude earthquake on 25 November 2007, a 4.2-magnitude earthquake on 7 September 2011, a 5.2-magnitude earthquake on 5 March 2012, and a swarm of twelve earthquakes, including four of magnitudes 2.5, 2.8, 3.1, and 3.3, on 12 November 2013.
In what type of climate is New Delhi located?
5705ed1c52bb8914006896c0
subtropical climate
55
False
Between which months do New Delhi's long summers last?
5705ed1c52bb8914006896c1
April to October
552
False
When does the monsoon season occur in New Delhi?
5705ed1c52bb8914006896c2
the middle of the summer
607
False
What is the annual mean temperature of New Delhi?
5705ed1c52bb8914006896c3
25 °C (77 °F)
719
False
What is the highest ever recorded temperature in New Delhi?
5705ed1c52bb8914006896c4
49.1 °C (120.4 °F)
867
False
The climate of New Delhi is a monsoon-influenced humid subtropical climate (Köppen Cwa) with high variation between summer and winter in terms of both temperature and rainfall. The temperature varies from 46 °C (115 °F) in summers to around 0 °C (32 °F) in winters. The area's version of a humid subtropical climate is noticeably different from many other cities with this climate classification in that it features long and very hot summers, relatively dry and mild winters, a monsoonal period, and dust storms. Summers are long, extending from early April to October, with the monsoon season occurring in the middle of the summer. Winter starts in November and peaks in January. The annual mean temperature is around 25 °C (77 °F); monthly daily mean temperatures range from approximately 14 to 34 °C (57 to 93 °F). New Delhi's highest temperature ever recorded is 49.1 °C (120.4 °F) while the lowest temperature ever recorded is −3.2 °C (26.2 °F). Those for Delhi metropolis stand at 49.9 °C (121.8 °F) and −3.2 °C (26.2 °F) respectively. The average annual rainfall is 784 millimetres (30.9 in), most of which is during the monsoons in July and August.
What is New Delhi's rank in Mercer's 2015 quality of living survey?
5705edea52bb8914006896d4
154
83
False
What is the main cause of New Delhi's relatively low ranking in Mercer's quality of life survey?
5705edea52bb8914006896d5
bad air quality and pollution
112
False
New Delhi was ranked as the world's worst polluted city by what organization?
5705edea52bb8914006896d6
The World Health Organization
143
False
How many cities were tracked for pollution by the World Health Organization in 2014?
5705edea52bb8914006896d7
1,600
245
False
How many cities were studied in Mercer's 2015 quality of living survey?
5705edea52bb8914006896d8
230
94
False
In recent Mercer’s 2015 annual quality-of-living survey, New Delhi ranks at number 154 out of 230 cities due to bad air quality and pollution. The World Health Organization ranked New Delhi as the world’s worst polluted city in 2014 among about 1,600 cities the organization tracked around the world.
In what season does New Delhi's air pollution worsen?
5705eef775f01819005e7794
winter
78
False
What method was introduced in December 2015 to reduce New Delhi's air pollution?
5705eef775f01819005e7795
alternate-day travel
98
False
New Delhi's alternate-day travel scheme allowed trucks to enter the city after what hour?
5705eef775f01819005e7796
11 p.m
314
False
How long is the initial trial period for New Delhi's driving restriction scheme?
5705eef775f01819005e7797
15 days
487
False
On what day of the week will travel remain unrestricted by New Delhi's alternate day driving scheme?
5705eef775f01819005e7798
Sundays
594
False
In an attempt to curb air pollution in New Delhi, which gets worst during the winter, a temporary alternate-day travel scheme for cars using the odd- and even-numbered license plates system was announced by Delhi government in December 2015. In addition, trucks will be allowed to enter India's capital only after 11 p.m., two hours later than the existing restriction. The driving restriction scheme is planned to be implemented as a trial from January 1, 2016 for an initial period of 15 days. The restriction will be in force between 8 a.m. and 8 p.m., and traffic will not be restricted on Sundays. Public transportation service will be increased during the restriction period.
On what date did the Supreme Court of India enact restrictions on Delhi's transportation system to reduce pollution?
5705f31875f01819005e77b8
December 16, 2015
3
False
The Supreme Court restricted registration of some vehicles with engines of 2000 cc and over until what date?
5705f31875f01819005e77b9
March 31, 2016
284
False
All taxis in Delhi were ordered to switch to what type of fuel by March 1, 2016?
5705f31875f01819005e77ba
compressed natural gas
366
False
Which transportation vehicles were banned from entering New Delhi?
5705f31875f01819005e77bb
vehicles that are more than 10 years old
422
False
New restrictions on New Delhi's transportation system were enacted by the Supreme Court to accomplish what goal?
5705f31875f01819005e77bc
curb pollution
115
False
On December 16, 2015, the Supreme Court of India mandated several restrictions on Delhi's transportation system to curb pollution. Among the measures, the court ordered to stop registrations of diesel cars and sport utility vehicles with an engine capacity of 2,000 cc and over until March 31, 2016. The court also ordered all taxis in the Delhi region to switch to compressed natural gas by March 1, 2016. Transportation vehicles that are more than 10 years old were banned from entering the capital.
New Delhi is the capital of what National Capital Territory?
5705f41752bb891400689722
Delhi
206
False
What is the national capital of India?
5705f41752bb891400689723
New Delhi
31
False
The local Government of Delhi and the Central Government of India jointly administer what city?
5705f41752bb891400689724
New Delhi
31
False
What city is the official capital of the National Capital Territory of Delhi?
5705f41752bb891400689725
New Delhi
31
False
What is the name of one government body that oversees the capital of New Delhi?
5705f41752bb891400689726
the Central Government of India
73
False
The national capital of India, New Delhi is jointly administered by both the Central Government of India and the local Government of Delhi, it is also the capital of the National Capital Territory (NCT) of Delhi.
The government structure of the New Delhi Municipal Council includes three members from what government body?
5705fbe575f01819005e7826
New Delhi's Legislative Assembly
113
False
What government body is responsible for nominating five members to the New Delhi Municipal Council?
5705fbe575f01819005e7827
the central government
241
False
What government official is responsible for nominating two members to the New Delhi Municipal Council?
5705fbe575f01819005e7828
Chief Minister of the NCT of Delhi
176
False
The Chief Minister of what NCT is responsible for nominating two members to the New Delhi Municipal Council?
5705fbe575f01819005e7829
NCT of Delhi
198
False
What is the name of the government structure created for New Delhi that is comprised of ten representatives?
5705fbe575f01819005e782a
New Delhi Municipal Council
44
False
As of 2015, the government structure of the New Delhi Municipal Council includes a chairperson, three members of New Delhi's Legislative Assembly, two members nominated by the Chief Minister of the NCT of Delhi and five members nominated by the central government.
What is the official title of Delhi's head of state?
570680d952bb891400689a12
Lieutenant Governor of the Union Territory of Delhi
34
False
Who is responsible for appointing the Lieutenant Governor of the Union Territory of Delhi?
570680d952bb891400689a13
President of India
104
False
Which takes precedent when a law passed by Parliament conflicts with a law passed by Delhi's Legislative assembly?
570680d952bb891400689a14
the law enacted by the parliament
478
False
What government body advises the president on appointing a Lieutenant Governor?
570680d952bb891400689a15
the Central government
140
False
Which government position is given most of the executive powers over Delhi?
570680d952bb891400689a16
Chief Minister of the Union Territory of Delhi
206
False
The head of state of Delhi is the Lieutenant Governor of the Union Territory of Delhi, appointed by the President of India on the advice of the Central government and the post is largely ceremonial, as the Chief Minister of the Union Territory of Delhi is the head of government and is vested with most of the executive powers. According to the Indian constitution, if a law passed by Delhi's legislative assembly is repugnant to any law passed by the Parliament of India, then the law enacted by the parliament will prevail over the law enacted by the assembly.
What is the name of the municipal government by which New Delhi is governed?
5706848475f01819005e7bc2
New Delhi Municipal Council (NDMC)
67
False
What government body is responsible for administering other urban areas of the metropolis of Delhi?
5706848475f01819005e7bc3
Municipal Corporation of Delhi (MCD)
172
False
What is the name commonly used to refer to the entire metropolis of Delhi?
5706848475f01819005e7bc4
New Delhi
271
False
The New Delhi Municipal Government oversees what large Indian city?
5706848475f01819005e7bc5
New Delhi
0
False
What form of government is responsible for the municipality of New Delhi?
5706848475f01819005e7bc6
a municipal government
30
False
New Delhi is governed through a municipal government, known as the New Delhi Municipal Council (NDMC). Other urban areas of the metropolis of Delhi are administered by the Municipal Corporation of Delhi (MCD). However, the entire metropolis of Delhi is commonly known as New Delhi in contrast to Old Delhi.
What British architect was responsible for designing much of New Delhi?
570685bf52bb891400689a30
Edwin Lutyens
73
False
What are the names of the two central promenades around which New Delhi is structured?
570685bf52bb891400689a31
Rajpath and the Janpath
266
False
Which of the two promenades is referred to as The King's Way?
570685bf52bb891400689a32
the Rajpath
262
False
Which promenade was formerly known as the Queen's Way?
570685bf52bb891400689a33
The Janpath
376
False
The largest diplomatic enclave in India which contains 19 foreign embassies is located along which promenade?
570685bf52bb891400689a34
Shantipath
553
False
Much of New Delhi, planned by the leading 20th-century British architect Edwin Lutyens, was laid out to be the central administrative area of the city as a testament to Britain's imperial pretensions. New Delhi is structured around two central promenades called the Rajpath and the Janpath. The Rajpath, or King's Way, stretches from the Rashtrapati Bhavan to the India Gate. The Janpath (Hindi: "Path of the People"), formerly Queen's Way, begins at Connaught Circus and cuts the Rajpath at right angles. 19 foreign embassies are located on the nearby Shantipath (Hindi: "Path of Peace"), making it the largest diplomatic enclave in India.
Formerly known as the Viceroy's House, which large building is located at the heart of New Delhi?
570686af52bb891400689a3a
Rashtrapati Bhavan
44
False
The Rashtrapati Bhavan was formerly known by what name?
570686af52bb891400689a3b
Viceroy's House
82
False
Connaught Place in New Delhi is modeled after what area of England?
570686af52bb891400689a3d
the Royal Crescent
434
False
How many roads lead out of the outer ring of Connaught Place?
570686af52bb891400689a3e
Twelve
465
False
At the heart of the city is the magnificent Rashtrapati Bhavan (formerly known as Viceroy's House) which sits atop Raisina Hill. The Secretariat, which houses ministries of the Government of India, flanks out of the Rashtrapati Bhavan. The Parliament House, designed by Herbert Baker, is located at the Sansad Marg, which runs parallel to the Rajpath. Connaught Place is a large, circular commercial area in New Delhi, modelled after the Royal Crescent in England. Twelve separate roads lead out of the outer ring of Connaught Place, one of them being the Janpath.
What major airport is located to the southwest of Delhi?
5706888d75f01819005e7bde
Indira Gandhi International Airport
0
False
Approximately how many passengers used Indira Gandhi Airport from 2012-2013?
5706888d75f01819005e7bdf
35 million
203
False
How much money did Terminal 3 of Indira Gandhi International Airport cost to construct?
5706888d75f01819005e7be0
₹96.8 billion
302
False
How many passengers use Terminal 3 of Indira Gandhi Airport each year?
5706888d75f01819005e7be1
37 million
391
False
What year was construction of Terminal 3 of Indira Gandhi airport finished?
5706888d75f01819005e7be2
2010
363
False
Indira Gandhi International Airport, situated to the southwest of Delhi, is the main gateway for the city's domestic and international civilian air traffic. In 2012-13, the airport was used by more than 35 million passengers, making it one of the busiest airports in South Asia. Terminal 3, which cost ₹96.8 billion (US$1.4 billion) to construct between 2007 and 2010, handles an additional 37 million passengers annually.
The Delhi Flying Club was established in what year?
5706899e75f01819005e7be8
1928
38
False
When established in 1928, which airport served as the base of the Delhi Flying Club?
5706899e75f01819005e7be9
Safdarjung Airport
119
False
In what year did the government close Safdarjung Airport due to security concerns?
5706899e75f01819005e7bea
2002
288
False
In what year did the Delhi Flying club begin operations?
5706899e75f01819005e7beb
1929
166
False
What type of aircraft was first used by the Delhi Flying Club after its founding?
5706899e75f01819005e7bec
de Havilland Moth aircraft
52
False
The Delhi Flying Club, established in 1928 with two de Havilland Moth aircraft named Delhi and Roshanara, was based at Safdarjung Airport which started operations in 1929, when it was the Delhi's only airport and the second in India. The airport functioned until 2001, however in January 2002 the government closed the airport for flying activities because of security concerns following the New York attacks in September 2001. Since then, the club only carries out aircraft maintenance courses, and is used for helicopter rides to Indira Gandhi International Airport for VIP including the president and the prime minister.
In what year did Indira Gandhi International Airport earn an award for being forth best airport in the world in the 15-25 million category?
57068cda75f01819005e7bf2
2010
3
False
What organization is responsible for awarding Indira Gandhi International Airport as Best Improved Airport in the Asia-Pacific Region?
57068cda75f01819005e7bf3
Airports Council International
196
False
What year did Indira Gandhi International Airport win an award for Best airport in the world in the 25-40 million passenger category?
57068cda75f01819005e7bf4
2015
327
False
How many awards did Indira Gandhi International Airport win at the Skytrax World Airport Awards 2015?
57068cda75f01819005e7bf5
two
437
False
In 2015, the Airports Council International gave what award to Indira Gandhi International Airport?
57068cda75f01819005e7bf6
Best airport in the world in the 25–40 million passengers category
257
False
In 2010, Indira Gandhi International Airport (IGIA) was conferred the fourth best airport award in the world in the 15–25 million category, and Best Improved Airport in the Asia-Pacific Region by Airports Council International. The airport was rated as the Best airport in the world in the 25–40 million passengers category in 2015, by Airports Council International.[not in citation given][better source needed] Delhi Airport also bags two awards for The Best Airport in Central Asia/India and Best Airport Staff in Central Asia/India at the Skytrax World Airport Awards 2015.
What state-owned organization operates New Delhi's bus transport system?
57068e4552bb891400689a56
Delhi Transport Corporation (DTC)
98
False
Delhi Transport Company owns the world's largest fleet of buses powered by what type of fuel?
57068e4552bb891400689a57
compressed natural gas
161
False
What city has the highest number of registered cars of any city in India?
57068e4552bb891400689a58
New Delhi
314
False
What large metropolis has some of the highest road density in India?
57068e4552bb891400689a59
New Delhi
453
False
What type of vehicle transport system is owned by the Delhi Transport Corporation?
57068e4552bb891400689a5a
Buses
60
False
New Delhi has one of India's largest bus transport systems. Buses are operated by the state-owned Delhi Transport Corporation (DTC), which owns largest fleet of compressed natural gas (CNG)-fueled buses in the world. Personal vehicles especially cars also form a major chunk of vehicles plying on New Delhi roads. New Delhi has the highest number of registered cars compared to any other metropolitan city in India. Taxis and Auto Rickshaws also ply on New Delhi roads in large numbers. New Delhi has one of the highest road density in India.
What Indian city is the headquarters of the Northern Railway?
57068f3a75f01819005e7c06
New Delhi
0
False
How many main stations of the Northern Railway serve the New Delhi area?
57068f3a75f01819005e7c07
five
113
False
The Delhi Metro consists of how many stations?
57068f3a75f01819005e7c09
146
564
False
What organization is responsible for building and operating the Delhi Metro system?
57068f3a75f01819005e7c0a
Delhi Metro Rail Corporation
325
False
New Delhi is a major junction in the Indian railway network and is the headquarters of the Northern Railway. The five main railway stations are New Delhi railway station, Old Delhi, Nizamuddin Railway Station, Anand Vihar Railway Terminal and Sarai Rohilla. The Delhi Metro, a mass rapid transit system built and operated by Delhi Metro Rail Corporation (DMRC), serves many parts of Delhi and the neighbouring cities Faridabad, Gurgaon, Noida and Ghaziabad. As of August 2011, the metro consists of six operational lines with a total length of 189 km (117 mi) and 146 stations, and several other lines are under construction. It carries millions of passengers every day. In addition to the Delhi Metro, a suburban railway, the Delhi Suburban Railway exists.
What is the name of the world's 12 largest metro system by length?
570691b652bb891400689a6c
The Delhi Metro
0
False
What is the total length of the Delhi Metro?
570691b652bb891400689a6d
189.63 kilometres
452
False
How many stations are there on the Delhi Metro?
570691b652bb891400689a6e
142
490
False
How many of the Delhi Metro's stations are located underground?
570691b652bb891400689a6f
35
513
False
How many of the New Delhi Metro's stations are located at ground level?
570691b652bb891400689a70
five
533
False
The Delhi Metro is a rapid transit system serving New Delhi, Delhi, Gurgaon, Faridabad, Noida, and Ghaziabad in the National Capital Region of India. Delhi Metro is the world's 12th largest metro system in terms of length. Delhi Metro was India's first modern public transportation system, which had revolutionised travel by providing a fast, reliable, safe, and comfortable means of transport. The network consists of six lines with a total length of 189.63 kilometres (117.83 miles) with 142 stations, of which 35 are underground, five are at-grade, and the remainder are elevated. All stations have escalators, elevators, and tactile tiles to guide the visually impaired from station entrances to trains. It has a combination of elevated, at-grade, and underground lines, and uses both broad gauge and standard gauge rolling stock. Four types of rolling stock are used: Mitsubishi-ROTEM Broad gauge, Bombardier MOVIA, Mitsubishi-ROTEM Standard gauge, and CAF Beasain Standard gauge.
What organization operates the Delhi Metro system?
5706930552bb891400689a80
Delhi Metro Rail Corporation
47
False
The Delhi Metro Rail Corporation operates under the administrative control of what government body?
5706930552bb891400689a81
Ministry of Urban Development
287
False
The Delhi Metro project was spearheaded by what Indian government figure?
5706930552bb891400689a82
Padma Vibhushan E. Sreedharan
645
False
Padma Vibhushan E. Sreedharan was popularly known by what nickname?
5706930552bb891400689a83
"Metro Man"
733
False
What major award was given to Padma Vibhushan E. Sreedharan for his contribution the the Delhi Metro?
5706930552bb891400689a84
Legion of Honour
910
False
Delhi Metro is being built and operated by the Delhi Metro Rail Corporation Limited (DMRC), a state-owned company with equal equity participation from Government of India and Government of National Capital Territory of Delhi. However, the organisation is under administrative control of Ministry of Urban Development, Government of India. Besides construction and operation of Delhi metro, DMRC is also involved in the planning and implementation of metro rail, monorail and high-speed rail projects in India and providing consultancy services to other metro projects in the country as well as abroad. The Delhi Metro project was spearheaded by Padma Vibhushan E. Sreedharan, the Managing Director of DMRC and popularly known as the "Metro Man" of India. He famously resigned from DMRC, taking moral responsibility for a metro bridge collapse which took five lives. Sreedharan was awarded with the prestigious Legion of Honour by the French Government for his contribution to Delhi Metro.
What is the population of New Delhi?
5706983475f01819005e7c22
249,998
30
False
What are the most common languages spoken in New Delhi?
5706983475f01819005e7c23
Hindi and Punjabi
39
False
What language is used for formal purposes by business and government institutes of New Delhi?
5706983475f01819005e7c24
English
142
False
What is the literacy rate of New Delhi according to the 2011 census?
5706983475f01819005e7c25
89.38%
263
False
What city in the territory of Delhi has the highest literacy rate?
5706983475f01819005e7c26
New Delhi
230
False
New Delhi has a population of 249,998. Hindi and Punjabi are the most widely spoken languages in New Delhi and the lingua franca of the city. English is primarily used as the formal language by business and government institutes. New Delhi has a literacy rate of 89.38% according to 2011 census, which is highest in Delhi.
What percentage of New Delhi's population is Hindu?
570698c075f01819005e7c2c
79.8%
28
False
What is the most commonly practiced religion in New Delhi?
570698c075f01819005e7c2d
Hinduism
0
False
What percentage of New Delhi's population is Muslim?
570698c075f01819005e7c2e
12.9%
100
False
What percentage of New Delhi's population is Sikh?
570698c075f01819005e7c2f
5.4%
115
False
What percentage of New Delhi's population is Christian?
570698c075f01819005e7c30
0.9%
151
False
Hinduism is the religion of 79.8% of New Delhi's population. There are also communities of Muslims (12.9%), Sikhs (5.4%), Jains (1.1%) and Christians (0.9%) in Delhi. Other religious groups (2.5%) include Parsis, Buddhists and Jews.
What is the name of the holiday celebrated in India that occurs on Gandhi's Birthday?
57069b2b75f01819005e7c40
Gandhi Jayanti
285
False
What is the date of India's Independence Day?
57069b2b75f01819005e7c41
15 August
422
False
On Indian Independence Day, the Prime Minister addresses the nation from what location?
57069b2b75f01819005e7c42
the Red Fort
487
False
On Indian Independence Day, kites are flown by citizens which symbolize what concept?
57069b2b75f01819005e7c43
freedom
584
False
What New Delhi celebration showcases India's cultural diversity and military power?
57069b2b75f01819005e7c44
Republic Day Parade
597
False
New Delhi is a cosmopolitan city due to the multi-ethnic and multi-cultural presence of the vast Indian bureaucracy and political system. The city's capital status has amplified the importance of national events and holidays. National events such as Republic Day, Independence Day and Gandhi Jayanti (Gandhi's birthday) are celebrated with great enthusiasm in New Delhi and the rest of India. On India's Independence Day (15 August) the Prime Minister of India addresses the nation from the Red Fort. Most Delhiites celebrate the day by flying kites, which are considered a symbol of freedom. The Republic Day Parade is a large cultural and military parade showcasing India's cultural diversity and military might.
What religious festival is also known as the festival of light?
57069c6952bb891400689ae2
Diwali
28
False
What cultural event showcases dancers and musicians from all over India?
57069c6952bb891400689ae3
The Qutub Festival
208
False
In what location is The Qutub Festival held?
57069c6952bb891400689ae4
the Qutub Minar
347
False
The Spring Festival which is held each year in Delhi is also known by what name?
57069c6952bb891400689ae5
Vasant Panchami
476
False
What is the name of the fruit related festival held annually in Delhi?
57069c6952bb891400689ae6
International Mango Festival
443
False
Religious festivals include Diwali (the festival of light), Maha Shivaratri, Teej, Guru Nanak Jayanti, Baisakhi, Durga Puja, Holi, Lohri, Eid ul-Fitr, Eid ul-Adha, Christmas, Chhath Puja and Mahavir Jayanti. The Qutub Festival is a cultural event during which performances of musicians and dancers from all over India are showcased at night, with the Qutub Minar as the chosen backdrop of the event. Other events such as Kite Flying Festival, International Mango Festival and Vasant Panchami (the Spring Festival) are held every year in Delhi.
The Nipponzan Myohoji decided to build a Peace Pagoda in new Delhi in what year?
57069d6f75f01819005e7c54
2007
3
False
The Peace Pagoda built in New Delhi by the Nipponzan Myohoji contained what type of artifacts?
57069d6f75f01819005e7c55
Buddha relics
117
False
Which Japanese Buddhist organization built a Peace Pagoda in New Delhi in 2007?
57069d6f75f01819005e7c56
Nipponzan Myohoji
44
False
The Peace Pagoda built in New Delhi by the Nipponzan Myohoji was inaugurated by which prominent figure?
57069d6f75f01819005e7c57
Dalai Lama
166
False
What structure did the Nipponzan Myohoji decide to build in New Delhi in 2007?
57069d6f75f01819005e7c58
Peace Pagoda
81
False
In 2007, the Japanese Buddhist organisation Nipponzan Myohoji decided to build a Peace Pagoda in the city containing Buddha relics. It was inaugurated by the current Dalai Lama.
The New Delhi town plan was chosen primarily to symbolize what?
57069e7a52bb891400689aec
British power and supremacy
114
False
The New Delhi town plan was influenced by what type of architecture?
57069e7a52bb891400689aed
Hindu and Islamic
294
False
What town plan was chosen with the chief consideration of displaying British power and superiority?
57069e7a52bb891400689aee
The New Delhi town plan
0
False
What is one type of architecture that heavily influenced the New Delhi town plan?
57069e7a52bb891400689aef
Hindu
294
False
The New Delhi town plan, like its architecture, was chosen with one single chief consideration: to be a symbol of British power and supremacy. All other decisions were subordinate to this, and it was this framework that dictated the choice and application of symbology and influences from both Hindu and Islamic architecture.
Approximately how long did it take to build New Delhi?
57069fac75f01819005e7c5e
20 years
14
False
The architecture of New Delhi borrows from indigenous sources but fits into what tradition?
57069fac75f01819005e7c5f
British Classical/Palladian
149
False
What historian is partially responsible for the use of indigenous features in the architecture of New Delhi?
57069fac75f01819005e7c60
E.B. Havell
344
False
Which government official urged that indigenous features be used in the design of New Delhi?
57069fac75f01819005e7c61
Viceroy Lord Hardinge
302
False
Many of the architectural elements of New Delhi borrow from what sources?
57069fac75f01819005e7c62
indigenous
104
False
It took about 20 years to build the city from 1911. Many elements of New Delhi architecture borrow from indigenous sources; however, they fit into a British Classical/Palladian tradition. The fact that there were any indigenous features in the design were due to the persistence and urging of both the Viceroy Lord Hardinge and historians like E.B. Havell.
On what date was the National Museum formally inaugurated?
5706a0a975f01819005e7c70
15 August 1949
311
False
How many works of art currently reside in the National Museum?
5706a0a975f01819005e7c71
200,000
390
False
What length of time do the 200,000 works of art in the National Museum encompass?
5706a0a975f01819005e7c72
5,000 years
461
False
The National Museum began in 1947 with a display of what type of art?
5706a0a975f01819005e7c73
Indian art
111
False
In the winter of 1947, the National Museum started with a display of Indian art in what location?
5706a0a975f01819005e7c74
Royal Academy in London
143
False
New Delhi is home to several historic sites and museums. The National Museum which began with an exhibition of Indian art and artefacts at the Royal Academy in London in the winter of 1947–48 was later at the end was shown at the Rashtrapati Bhawan in 1949. Later it was to form a permanent National Museum. On 15 August 1949, the National Museum was formally inaugurated and currently has 200,000 works of art, both of Indian and foreign origin, covering over 5,000 years.
What year was the India Gate built?
5706a1ad75f01819005e7c7a
1931
24
False
The Indian Gate was inspired by what Parisian monument?
5706a1ad75f01819005e7c7b
Arc de Triomphe
49
False
The India Gate commemorates how many soldiers of past wars?
5706a1ad75f01819005e7c7c
90,000
130
False
Which Indian monument, inspired by the Arc de Triomphe, was built in 1931?
5706a1ad75f01819005e7c7d
The India Gate
0
False
The India Gate commemorates the lost soldiers of what army?
5706a1ad75f01819005e7c7e
Indian Army
153
False
The India Gate built in 1931 was inspired by the Arc de Triomphe in Paris. It is the national monument of India commemorating the 90,000 soldiers of the Indian Army who lost their lives while fighting for the British Raj in World War I and the Third Anglo-Afghan War.
The Rajpath was constructed similarly to what famous Parisian street?
5706a25b75f01819005e7c84
the Champs-Élysées
39
False
What is the name of the ceremonial boulevard for the Republic of India in New Delhi?
5706a25b75f01819005e7c85
The Rajpath
0
False
On what boulevard does the Republic Day parade take place each year?
5706a25b75f01819005e7c86
The Rajpath
0
False
What annual parade takes place on the Rajpath each January?
5706a25b75f01819005e7c87
Republic Day parade
154
False
On which date is the annual Republic Day parade held in New Delhi?
5706a25b75f01819005e7c88
26 January
194
False
The Rajpath which was built similar to the Champs-Élysées in Paris is the ceremonial boulevard for the Republic of India located in New Delhi. The annual Republic Day parade takes place here on 26 January.
In which location did Mahatma Gandhi spend the final 144 days of his life?
5706a32852bb891400689af4
Gandhi Smriti
0
False
In which city is the Gandhi Smriti located?
5706a32852bb891400689af5
New Delhi
17
False
On which date was Mahatma Gandhi killed?
5706a32852bb891400689af6
30 January 1948
124
False
In what location was Mahatma Gandhi cremated?
5706a32852bb891400689af7
Rajghat
141
False
The Raj Ghat was designed by what architect?
5706a32852bb891400689af8
Vanu Bhuta
435
False
Gandhi Smriti in New Delhi is the location where Mahatma Gandhi spent the last 144 days of his life and was assassinated on 30 January 1948. Rajghat is the place where Mahatma Gandhi was cremated on 31 January 1948 after his assassination and his ashes were buried and make it a final resting place beside the sanctity of the Yamuna River. The Raj Ghat in the shape of large square platform with black marble was designed by architect Vanu Bhuta.
Who was responsible for constructing the Jantar Mantar?
5706a43e75f01819005e7cac
Maharaja Jai Singh II of Jaipur
54
False
In what area of New Delhi is the Jantar Mantar observatory located?
5706a43e75f01819005e7cad
Connaught Place
25
False
The Jantar Mantar consists of how many architectural astronomy instruments?
5706a43e75f01819005e7cae
13
102
False
What is one of the primary purposes of the Jantar Mantar observatory?
5706a43e75f01819005e7caf
compile astronomical tables
188
False
What is the name of the observatory built in Connaught Place by Maharaja Jai Singh II of Jaipur?
5706a43e75f01819005e7cb0
Jantar Mantar
0
False
Jantar Mantar located in Connaught Place was built by Maharaja Jai Singh II of Jaipur. It consists of 13 architectural astronomy instruments. The primary purpose of the observatory was to compile astronomical tables, and to predict the times and movements of the sun, moon and planets.
What is the name of the major railroad related museum located in New Delhi?
5706a52352bb891400689b10
National Rail Museum
120
False
What is the name of the doll themed museum located in New Delhi?
5706a52352bb891400689b11
Shankar's International Dolls Museum
232
False
The Supreme Court of India Museum is located in what major city?
5706a52352bb891400689b12
New Delhi
0
False
What is the name of the modern art museum located in new Delhi?
5706a52352bb891400689b13
National Gallery of Modern Art
52
False
The National Philatelic Museum is located in which large Indian city?
5706a52352bb891400689b14
New Delhi
0
False
New Delhi is home to Indira Gandhi Memorial Museum, National Gallery of Modern Art, National Museum of Natural History, National Rail Museum, National Handicrafts and Handlooms Museum, National Philatelic Museum, Nehru Planetarium, Shankar's International Dolls Museum. and Supreme Court of India Museum.
The Buddha Jayanti Park is located in which Indian city?
5706a64f75f01819005e7cd2
New Delhi
0
False
A notable New Delhi garden is located adjacent to what metro station?
5706a64f75f01819005e7cd3
Jangpura Metro Station
446
False
The gardens of New Delhi are particularly stunning in which season?
5706a64f75f01819005e7cd4
spring
106
False
New Delhi is well known for what type of beautifully landscaped feature?
5706a64f75f01819005e7cd5
gardens
66
False
What is the name of one of the largest gardens in new Delhi?
5706a64f75f01819005e7cd6
Buddha Jayanti Park
143
False
New Delhi is particularly renowned for its beautifully landscaped gardens that can look quite stunning in spring. The largest of these include Buddha Jayanti Park and the historic Lodi Gardens. In addition, there are the gardens in the Presidential Estate, the gardens along the Rajpath and India Gate, the gardens along Shanti Path, the Rose Garden, Nehru Park and the Railway Garden in Chanakya Puri. Also of note is the garden adjacent to the Jangpura Metro Station near the Defence Colony Flyover, as are the roundabout and neighbourhood gardens throughout the city.
New Delhi played host to what major athletic competition in 2010?
5706a71675f01819005e7cdc
Commonwealth Games
25
False
New Delhi first hosted the Asian Games in what year?
5706a71675f01819005e7cdd
1951
129
False
The Asian Games were most recently held in New Delhi in what year?
5706a71675f01819005e7cde
1982
154
False
New Delhi's bid for the 2019 Asian Games was turned down by the government for what reason?
5706a71675f01819005e7cdf
allegations of corruption
294
False
New Delhi is the annual host of what foot-race?
5706a71675f01819005e7ce0
Delhi Half Marathon
63
False
The city hosted the 2010 Commonwealth Games and annually hosts Delhi Half Marathon foot-race. The city has previously hosted the 1951 Asian Games and the 1982 Asian Games. New Delhi was interested  in bidding for the 2019 Asian Games but was turned down by the government on 2 August 2010 amid allegations of corruption in 2010 Commonwealth Games .
What major tennis stadium is located in New Delhi?
5706ab2e52bb891400689b40
R.K. Khanna Tennis Complex
146
False
What major sports venue in New Delhi bears the name of the former prime minister Indira Gandhi?
5706ab2e52bb891400689b41
Indira Gandhi Indoor Stadium
91
False
The Jawaharlal Nehru Stadium is located in which Indian city?
5706ab2e52bb891400689b42
New Delhi
25
False
In which Indian city is the Siri Fort Sports Complex located?
5706ab2e52bb891400689b43
New Delhi
25
False
The Dhyan Chand National Stadium is located in which major Indian city?
5706ab2e52bb891400689b44
New Delhi
25
False
Major sporting venues in New Delhi include the Jawaharlal Nehru Stadium, Ambedkar Stadium, Indira Gandhi Indoor Stadium, Feroz Shah Kotla Ground, R.K. Khanna Tennis Complex, Dhyan Chand National Stadium and Siri Fort Sports Complex.
What was the estimated net State Domestic Product of New Delhi for 2010?
5706ac5452bb891400689b5c
₹1595 billion
120
False
The per capita income of New Delhi was second only to what Indian municipality?
5706ac5452bb891400689b5d
Goa
306
False
What was the 2012-13 current price estimate for GSDP in Delhi?
5706ac5452bb891400689b5e
Rs 3.88 trillion
375
False
What was the 2011-12 GSDP estimate for Delhi?
5706ac5452bb891400689b5f
Rs 3.11 trillion
414
False
What is the per capita income of Delhi as of 2013?
5706ac5452bb891400689b60
Rs. 230000
264
False
New Delhi is the largest commercial city in northern India. It has an estimated net State Domestic Product (FY 2010) of ₹1595 billion (US$23 billion) in nominal terms and ~₹6800 billion (US$100 billion) in PPP terms. As of 2013, the per capita income of Delhi was Rs. 230000, second highest in India after Goa. GSDP in Delhi at the current prices for 2012-13 is estimated at Rs 3.88 trillion (short scale) against Rs 3.11 trillion (short scale) in 2011-12.
What is the name of the large commercial and financial district located in the northern part of New Delhi?
5706af7575f01819005e7d34
Connaught Place
0
False
New Delhi's service sector has expanded largely due to skilled workers that speak what language?
5706af7575f01819005e7d35
English
356
False
What is one of the key service industries of New Delhi?
5706af7575f01819005e7d36
information technology
463
False
Prior to the expansion of the service sector, what sector was the largest employer in New Delhi?
5706af7575f01819005e7d37
Government
206
False
The large skilled English-speaking workforce of New Delhi has been able to attract what type of organizations to the city?
5706af7575f01819005e7d38
multinational companies
407
False
Connaught Place, one of North India's largest commercial and financial centres, is located in the northern part of New Delhi. Adjoining areas such as Barakhamba Road, ITO are also major commercial centres. Government and quasi government sector was the primary employer in New Delhi. The city's service sector has expanded due in part to the large skilled English-speaking workforce that has attracted many multinational companies. Key service industries include information technology, telecommunications, hotels, banking, media and tourism.
According to the 2011 World Health Report, where does New Delhi rank in terms of economic activity?
5706b0940eeca41400aa0d2b
39
69
False
New Delhi shares the position as the most targeted retail destination in Asia-Pacific markets with what other city?
5706b0940eeca41400aa0d2c
Beijing
173
False
What organization ranked New Delhi 39th in economic activity in 2011?
5706b0940eeca41400aa0d2d
World Wealth Report
9
False
Major cities like Jakarta and Johannesburg rank below New Delhi in what key statistic?
5706b0940eeca41400aa0d2e
economic activity
35
False
In which year was New Delhi ranked 39th in economic activity by the World Wealth Report?
5706b0940eeca41400aa0d2f
2011
4
False
The 2011 World Wealth Report ranks economic activity in New Delhi at 39, but overall the capital is ranked at 37, above cities like Jakarta and Johannesburg. New Delhi with Beijing shares the top position as the most targeted emerging markets retail destination among Asia-Pacific markets.
What government body is responsible for releasing the annual official economic report for Delhi?
5706b1da0eeca41400aa0d49
The Government of National Capital Territory of Delhi
0
False
What was the 2004-05 State Domestic Product of Delhi?
5706b1da0eeca41400aa0d4a
83,085 crores
297
False
What was the 2008-09 Per Capita income of New Delhi?
5706b1da0eeca41400aa0d4b
Rs.1,16,886
438
False
What was New Delhi's Per Capita GDP in dollars for 2009-10?
5706b1da0eeca41400aa0d4c
$6,860
568
False
New Delhi's Per Capita income grew by what percentage in 2009-10?
5706b1da0eeca41400aa0d4d
16.2%
470
False
The Government of National Capital Territory of Delhi does not release any economic figures specifically for New Delhi but publishes an official economic report on the whole of Delhi annually. According to the Economic Survey of Delhi, the metropolis has a net State Domestic Product (SDP) of Rs. 83,085 crores (for the year 2004–05) and a per capita income of Rs. 53,976($1,200). In the year 2008–09 New Delhi had a Per Capita Income of Rs.1,16,886 ($2,595).It grew by 16.2% to reach Rs.1,35,814 ($3,018) in 2009–10 fiscal. New Delhi's Per Capita GDP (at PPP) was at $6,860 during 2009–10 fiscal, making it one of the richest cities in India. The tertiary sector contributes 78.4% of Delhi's gross SDP followed by secondary and primary sectors with 20.2% and 1.4% contribution respectively.
What was the gross state domestic product of Delhi for 2011-12?
5706b3e90eeca41400aa0d53
Rs 3.13 lakh crore
110
False
The GSDP of Delhi increased by what percentage over the previous year in 2011-12?
5706b3e90eeca41400aa0d54
18.7
154
False
In which fiscal year was the GSDP of Delhi estimated at Rs 3.13 lakh crore?
5706b3e90eeca41400aa0d55
2011-12
80
False
Did the GSDP of Delhi in 2011-12 increase or decrease from the previous fiscal year?
5706b3e90eeca41400aa0d56
increase
142
False
The gross state domestic product (GSDP) of Delhi at current prices for the year 2011-12 has been estimated at Rs 3.13 lakh crore, which is an increase of 18.7 per cent over the previous fiscal.
In what city is the Asian and Pacific Centre for Transfer of Technology located?
5706b6aa2eaba6190074ac60
New Delhi
183
False
What major city is home to most regional UN offices in India?
5706b6aa2eaba6190074ac61
New Delhi
194
False
What is one regional UN office located in New Delhi?
5706b6aa2eaba6190074ac62
UNDP
260
False
The regional office of the World Bank in India is located in what city?
5706b6aa2eaba6190074ac63
New Delhi
194
False
The regional offices of the IMF, UNICEF, and UNESCO are all located in what major Indian city?
5706b6aa2eaba6190074ac64
New Delhi
194
False
The city is home to numerous international organisations. The Asian and Pacific Centre for Transfer of Technology of the UNESCAP servicing the Asia-Pacific region is headquartered in New Delhi. New Delhi is home to most UN regional offices in India namely the UNDP, UNODC, UNESCO, UNICEF, WFP, UNV, UNCTAD, FAO, UNFPA, WHO, World Bank, ILO, IMF, UNIFEM, IFC and UNAIDS.
Bird_migration
Where does migration mainly occur?
5705e78f75f01819005e7734
the northern hemisphere
317
False
Why do birds primarily migrate?
5705e78f75f01819005e7735
availability of food
275
False
Which birds migrate?
5705e78f75f01819005e7736
Many species
127
False
What is bird migration?
5705e78f75f01819005e7737
the regular seasonal movement, often north and south along a flyway, between breeding and wintering grounds
18
False
What is a cause of death to birds during migration?
5705e78f75f01819005e7738
humans
240
False
Bird migration is the regular seasonal movement, often north and south along a flyway, between breeding and wintering grounds. Many species of bird migrate. Migration carries high costs in predation and mortality, including from hunting by humans, and is driven primarily by availability of food. It occurs mainly in the northern hemisphere, where birds are funnelled on to specific routes by natural barriers such as the Mediterranean Sea or the Caribbean Sea.
When was migration first recorded?
5705e90375f01819005e7748
3,000 years ago
53
False
Who recorded the earliest records of migration?
5705e90375f01819005e7749
Homer and Aristotle, and in the Book of Job
104
False
Where was Johannes Leche from?
5705e90375f01819005e774a
Finland
291
False
Which species of birds were recorded 3,000 years ago?
5705e90375f01819005e774b
storks, turtle doves, and swallows
169
False
What is a major threat to migratory birds?
5705e90375f01819005e774c
habitat destruction
442
False
Historically, migration has been recorded as much as 3,000 years ago by Ancient Greek authors including Homer and Aristotle, and in the Book of Job, for species such as storks, turtle doves, and swallows. More recently, Johannes Leche began recording dates of arrivals of spring migrants in Finland in 1749, and scientific studies have used techniques including bird ringing and satellite tracking. Threats to migratory birds have grown with habitat destruction especially of stopover and wintering sites, as well as structures such as power lines and wind farms.
Which birds migrate the furthest?
5705e9bf52bb891400689692
The Arctic tern
0
False
Where does the Arctic tern migrate each year?
5705e9bf52bb891400689693
between Arctic breeding grounds and the Antarctic
79
False
which bird migrates by circling the earth?
5705e9bf52bb891400689694
albatrosses
194
False
Where do Manx shearwaters migrate?
5705e9bf52bb891400689695
between their northern breeding grounds and the southern ocean
324
False
What is an example of a shorter migration?
5705e9bf52bb891400689696
altitudinal migrations on mountains such as the Andes and Himalayas
429
False
The Arctic tern holds the long-distance migration record for birds, travelling between Arctic breeding grounds and the Antarctic each year. Some species of tubenoses (Procellariiformes) such as albatrosses circle the earth, flying over the southern oceans, while others such as Manx shearwaters migrate 14,000 km (8,700 mi) between their northern breeding grounds and the southern ocean. Shorter migrations are common, including altitudinal migrations on mountains such as the Andes and Himalayas.
What causes the timing of migration?
5705ea4175f01819005e7752
changes in day length
60
False
How do migrating birds navigate?
5705ea4175f01819005e7753
celestial cues from the sun and stars
114
False
How else to migrating birds navigate?
5705ea4175f01819005e7754
the earth's magnetic field
153
False
What might help migrating birds navigate?
5705ea4175f01819005e7755
mental maps
199
False
The timing of migration seems to be controlled primarily by changes in day length. Migrating birds navigate using celestial cues from the sun and stars, the earth's magnetic field, and probably also mental maps.
Who recorded early records of migration?
5705eb3152bb89140068969d
Ancient Greek writers
70
False
Where in the bible does it mention migration?
5705eb3152bb89140068969e
the Book of Job (39:26)
171
False
What bird is mentioned in the book of Job?
5705eb3152bb89140068969f
hawk
255
False
Records of bird migration were made as much as 3,000 years ago by the Ancient Greek writers Hesiod, Homer, Herodotus and Aristotle. The Bible also notes migrations, as in the Book of Job (39:26), where the inquiry is made: "Is it by your insight that the hawk hovers, spreads its wings southward?" The author of Jeremiah (8:7) wrote: "Even the stork in the heavens knows its seasons, and the turtle dove, the swift and the crane keep the time of their arrival."
Who noted that cranes traveled from Scythia to the Nile?
5705ef1452bb8914006896e8
Aristotle
0
False
Who repeats Aristotle's observations?
5705ef1452bb8914006896e9
Pliny the Elder
107
False
Where did Pliny the Elder repeat Aristotle's observations?
5705ef1452bb8914006896ea
in his Historia Naturalis
124
False
What kind of bird did Aristotle and Pliny the Elder write about?
5705ef1452bb8914006896eb
cranes
21
False
Aristotle noted that cranes traveled from the steppes of Scythia to marshes at the headwaters of the Nile. Pliny the Elder, in his Historia Naturalis, repeats Aristotle's observations.
Which bird did Aristotle believe hibernated?
5705f22952bb891400689700
swallows
33
False
Until what year did the belief of hibernating birds persist?
5705f22952bb891400689701
1878
103
False
Who wrote 182 papers dealing with the hibernation of swallows?
5705f22952bb891400689702
Elliott Coues
114
False
Who wrote "The Natural History of Selborne"?
5705f22952bb891400689703
Gilbert White
243
False
Aristotle however suggested that swallows and other birds hibernated. This belief persisted as late as 1878, when Elliott Coues listed the titles of no less than 182 papers dealing with the hibernation of swallows. Even the "highly observant" Gilbert White, in his posthumously published 1789 The Natural History of Selborne, quoted a man's story about swallows being found in a chalk cliff collapse "while he was a schoolboy at Brighthelmstone", though the man denied being an eyewitness. However, he also writes that "as to swallows being found in a torpid state during the winter in the Isle of Wight or any part of this country, I never heard any such account worth attending to", and that if early swallows "happen to find frost and snow they immediately withdraw for a time—a circumstance this much more in favour of hiding than migration", since he doubts they would "return for a week or two to warmer latitudes".
When was migration finally accepted?
5705f31c52bb89140068970e
the end of the eighteenth century
17
False
Who wrote A History of British Birds?
5705f31c52bb89140068970f
Thomas Bewick
157
False
What year was Thomas Bewick's book published?
5705f31c52bb891400689710
1797
211
False
Where were Swallows seen flying?
5705f31c52bb891400689711
between the islands of Minorca and Majorca
286
False
Which directions were the Swallows flying?
5705f31c52bb891400689712
northward
367
False
It was not until the end of the eighteenth century that migration as an explanation for the winter disappearance of birds from northern climes was accepted. Thomas Bewick's A History of British Birds (Volume 1, 1797) mentions a report from "a very intelligent master of a vessel" who, "between the islands of Minorca and Majorca, saw great numbers of Swallows flying northward", and states the situation in Britain as follows:
Who describes an experiment with swallows?
5705f3a375f01819005e77c2
Bewick
0
False
Where did this experiment take place?
5705f3a375f01819005e77c3
Britain
81
False
How did the experiment succeed?
5705f3a375f01819005e77c4
they remained warm and dry through the winters
114
False
How long did the birds stay alive?
5705f3a375f01819005e77c5
several years
93
False
Bewick then describes an experiment which succeeded in keeping swallows alive in Britain for several years, where they remained warm and dry through the winters. He concludes:
Why do birds migrate?
5705f53452bb891400689736
response to changes in food availability, habitat, or weather
141
False
What are non=migratory birds called?
5705f53452bb891400689737
resident or sedentary
477
False
How many species of birds are there?
5705f53452bb891400689738
10,000
534
False
How many bird species are long distance migrants?
5705f53452bb891400689739
1800
514
False
Which direction do birds primarily migrate?
5705f53452bb89140068973a
north and south
50
False
Migration is the regular seasonal movement, often north and south, undertaken by many species of birds. Bird movements include those made in response to changes in food availability, habitat, or weather. Sometimes, journeys are not termed "true migration" because they are irregular (nomadism, invasions, irruptions) or in only one direction (dispersal, movement of young away from natal area). Migration is marked by its annual seasonality. Non-migratory birds are said to be resident or sedentary. Approximately 1800 of the world's 10,000 bird species are long-distance migrants.
Along where do many birds migrate?
5705f69d75f01819005e77ca
a flyway
51
False
What is the most common pattern of migration in the spring?
5705f69d75f01819005e77cb
flying north
94
False
What is the most common directionof migration in autumn?
5705f69d75f01819005e77cc
south
238
False
Why do the birds fly north?
5705f69d75f01819005e77cd
to breed
121
False
Many bird populations migrate long distances along a flyway. The most common pattern involves flying north in the spring to breed in the temperate or Arctic summer and returning in the autumn to wintering grounds in warmer regions to the south. Of course, in the southern hemisphere the directions are reversed, but there is less land area in the far south to support long-distance migration.
What is the primary motivation for migration?
5705f85275f01819005e77e6
food
51
False
Which birds will not migrate if they are well fed through winter?
5705f85275f01819005e77e7
hummingbirds
75
False
When do the birds return to warmer regions?
5705f85275f01819005e77e8
autumn
382
False
what do the longer days of summer provide the birds?
5705f85275f01819005e77e9
time for breeding birds to feed their young.
199
False
What do diurnal birds produce as opposed to non migratory species?
5705f85275f01819005e77ea
larger clutches
280
False
The primary motivation for migration appears to be food; for example, some hummingbirds choose not to migrate if fed through the winter. Also, the longer days of the northern summer provide extended time for breeding birds to feed their young. This helps diurnal birds to produce larger clutches than related non-migratory species that remain in the tropics. As the days shorten in autumn, the birds return to warmer regions where the available food supply varies little with the season.
What is hightened during migration?
5705f90475f01819005e77f8
Predation
100
False
Where do Eleonora's falcon breed?
5705f90475f01819005e77f9
Mediterranean islands
197
False
What do Eleonora's falcon feed their young?
5705f90475f01819005e77fa
southbound passerine migrants
292
False
What preys on nocturnal passerine migrants?
5705f90475f01819005e77fb
the greater noctule bat
385
False
What makes birds prone to parasites and pathogens?
5705f90475f01819005e77fc
higher concentrations of migrating birds
459
False
These advantages offset the high stress, physical exertion costs, and other risks of the migration. Predation can be heightened during migration: Eleonora's falcon Falco eleonorae, which breeds on Mediterranean islands, has a very late breeding season, coordinated with the autumn passage of southbound passerine migrants, which it feeds to its young. A similar strategy is adopted by the greater noctule bat, which preys on nocturnal passerine migrants. The higher concentrations of migrating birds at stopover sites make them prone to parasites and pathogens, which require a heightened immune response.
What is partial migration?
5705fa3075f01819005e780c
not all populations may be migratory
17
False
Where is partial migration most common?
5705fa3075f01819005e780d
the southern continents
129
False
In Australia, what percent of non-passerine birds are partially migratory?
5705fa3075f01819005e780e
44%
168
False
In Australia, what percent of passerine species are partially migratory?
5705fa3075f01819005e780f
32%
199
False
What is leap frog migration?
5705fa3075f01819005e7810
birds that nest at higher latitudes spend the winter at lower latitudes
604
False
Within a species not all populations may be migratory; this is known as "partial migration". Partial migration is very common in the southern continents; in Australia, 44% of non-passerine birds and 32% of passerine species are partially migratory. In some species, the population at higher latitudes tends to be migratory and will often winter at lower latitude. The migrating birds bypass the latitudes where other populations may be sedentary, where suitable wintering habitats may already be occupied. This is an example of leap-frog migration. Many fully migratory species show leap-frog migration (birds that nest at higher latitudes spend the winter at lower latitudes), and many show the alternative, chain migration, where populations 'slide' more evenly north and south without reversing order.
Which sex of the chaffinches Fringilla coelebs migrate earlier?
5705fae575f01819005e7816
Female
117
False
Where are chaffinches Fringilla coelebs from?
5705fae575f01819005e7817
Eastern Fennoscandia
157
False
When do the chaffinches Fringilla coelebs migrate?
5705fae575f01819005e7818
autumn
201
False
Within a population, it is common for different ages and/or sexes to have different patterns of timing and distance. Female chaffinches Fringilla coelebs in Eastern Fennoscandia migrate earlier in the autumn than males do.
How do most migrations begin?
5705fb9e52bb89140068975a
the birds starting off in a broad front
27
False
What to the migrating birds usually follow?
5705fb9e52bb89140068975b
mountain ranges or coastlines
174
False
What obsticals will migrating birds avoid?
5705fb9e52bb89140068975c
large stretches of open water
321
False
What is a common pattern in North America migration?
5705fb9e52bb89140068975d
clockwise
540
False
What are the preferred routes for migration called?
5705fb9e52bb89140068975e
flyways
135
False
Most migrations begin with the birds starting off in a broad front. Often, this front narrows into one or more preferred routes termed flyways. These routes typically follow mountain ranges or coastlines, sometimes rivers, and may take advantage of updrafts and other wind patterns or avoid geographical barriers such as large stretches of open water. The specific routes may be genetically programmed or learned to varying degrees. The routes taken on forward and return migration are often different. A common pattern in North America is clockwise migration, where birds flying North tend to be further West, and flying South tend to shift Eastwards.
How do most birds migrate?
5705fc5b75f01819005e7830
in flocks
33
False
How much energy do geese conserve flying in a flock?
5705fc5b75f01819005e7831
12–20%
140
False
How much faster do Red knots and dunlins fly in a flock?
5705fc5b75f01819005e7832
3.1 mph
289
False
How do birds conserve energy?
5705fc5b75f01819005e7833
a V-formation
113
False
What does flying in flocks reduce?
5705fc5b75f01819005e7834
energy cost
91
False
Many, if not most, birds migrate in flocks. For larger birds, flying in flocks reduces the energy cost. Geese in a V-formation may conserve 12–20% of the energy they would need to fly alone. Red knots Calidris canutus and dunlins Calidris alpina were found in radar studies to fly 5 km/h (3.1 mph) faster in flocks than when they were flying alone.
What part of birds was found on an expedition to Mt. Everest?
5706017552bb89140068978e
skeletons
84
False
Which birds have the highest rates of climb to altitude?
5706017552bb89140068978f
Bar-headed geese Anser indicus
209
False
What kind of birds fly low over water?
5706017552bb891400689790
Seabirds
518
False
What altitude range is most migration recorded?
5706017552bb891400689791
150 to 600 m
677
False
Where do most in air collisions occur?
5706017552bb891400689792
below 600 m
788
False
Birds fly at varying altitudes during migration. An expedition to Mt. Everest found skeletons of northern pintail Anas acuta and black-tailed godwit Limosa limosa at 5,000 m (16,000 ft) on the Khumbu Glacier. Bar-headed geese Anser indicus have been recorded by GPS flying at up to 6,540 metres (21,460 ft) while crossing the Himalayas, at the same time engaging in the highest rates of climb to altitude for any bird. Anecdotal reports of them flying much higher have yet to be corroborated with any direct evidence. Seabirds fly low over water but gain altitude when crossing land, and the reverse pattern is seen in landbirds. However most bird migration is in the range of 150 to 600 m (490 to 1,970 ft). Bird strike aviation records from the United States show most collisions occur below 600 m (2,000 ft) and almost none above 1,800 m (5,900 ft).
How do penguins migrate?
5706021475f01819005e7864
by swimming
100
False
How far do penguins travel when they migrate?
5706021475f01819005e7865
over 1,000 km
136
False
How do Dusky grouse migrate?
5706021475f01819005e7866
mostly by walking
224
False
How do Emus migrate long distances during droughts?
5706021475f01819005e7867
on foot
342
False
Where are Emus from?
5706021475f01819005e7868
Australia
276
False
Bird migration is not limited to birds that can fly. Most species of penguin (Spheniscidae) migrate by swimming. These routes can cover over 1,000 km (620 mi). Dusky grouse Dendragapus obscurus perform altitudinal migration mostly by walking. Emus Dromaius novaehollandiae in Australia have been observed to undertake long-distance movements on foot during droughts.
Where do the pink-footed goose migrate?
570602f875f01819005e786e
from Iceland to Britain
378
False
Where do the dark-eyed junco migrate?
570602f875f01819005e786f
arctic climates to the contiguous United States
500
False
Where do the European pied flycatcher breed?
570602f875f01819005e7870
Asia and Europe
992
False
Where does the European pied flycatcher spend the winter?
570602f875f01819005e7871
Africa
1025
False
How do young learn migratory routes?
570602f875f01819005e7872
during their first migration with their parents
750
False
The typical image of migration is of northern landbirds, such as swallows (Hirundinidae) and birds of prey, making long flights to the tropics. However, many Holarctic wildfowl and finch (Fringillidae) species winter in the North Temperate Zone, in regions with milder winters than their summer breeding grounds. For example, the pink-footed goose Anser brachyrhynchus migrates from Iceland to Britain and neighbouring countries, whilst the dark-eyed junco Junco hyemalis migrates from subarctic and arctic climates to the contiguous United States and the American goldfinch from taiga to wintering grounds extending from the American South northwestward to Western Oregon. Migratory routes and wintering grounds are traditional and learned by young during their first migration with their parents. Some ducks, such as the garganey Anas querquedula, move completely or partially into the tropics. The European pied flycatcher Ficedula hypoleuca also follows this migratory trend, breeding in Asia and Europe and wintering in Africa.
What route does a migrating bird usually follow?
5706046752bb8914006897aa
an hooked or arched line
155
False
What geographical barriers to land birds try to avoid?
5706046752bb8914006897ab
large water bodies or high mountain ranges
282
False
Why do migrating land birds avoid large water bodies or mountain ranges?
5706046752bb8914006897ac
the lack of stopover or feeding sites
337
False
Why do broad winged birds avoid geographical barriers?
5706046752bb8914006897ad
lack of thermal columns
383
False
Often, the migration route of a long-distance migrator bird doesn't follow a straight line between breeding and wintering grounds. Rather, it could follow an hooked or arched line, with detours around geographical barriers. For most land-birds, such barriers could consist in seas, large water bodies or high mountain ranges, because of the lack of stopover or feeding sites, or the lack of thermal columns for broad-winged birds.
What do water birds avoid while migrating?
5706057875f01819005e788c
a large area of land without bodies of water
137
False
Where do brent geese migrate from?
5706057875f01819005e788d
the Taymyr Peninsula
370
False
Where do brent geese migrate to?
5706057875f01819005e788e
the Wadden Sea
394
False
How do brent geese migrate?
5706057875f01819005e788f
via the White Sea coast and the Baltic Sea
416
False
The same considerations about barriers and detours that apply to long-distance land-bird migration apply to water birds, but in reverse: a large area of land without bodies of water that offer feeding sites may also be a barrier to a bird that feeds in coastal waters. Detours avoiding such barriers are observed: for example, brent geese Branta bernicla migrating from the Taymyr Peninsula to the Wadden Sea travel via the White Sea coast and the Baltic Sea rather than directly across the Arctic Ocean and northern Scandinavia.
What are waders called in North America?
5706068852bb8914006897be
shorebirds
47
False
Where do dunlin Calidris alpina migrate to?
5706068852bb8914006897bf
warmer locations in the same hemisphere
223
False
Where do semiplamated sandpiper C. pusilla migrate to?
5706068852bb8914006897c0
the tropics in the Southern Hemisphere
344
False
Where do western sandpiper Calidris migrate from?
5706068852bb8914006897c1
Arctic breeding grounds
196
False
A similar situation occurs with waders (called shorebirds in North America). Many species, such as dunlin Calidris alpina and western sandpiper Calidris mauri, undertake long movements from their Arctic breeding grounds to warmer locations in the same hemisphere, but others such as semipalmated sandpiper C. pusilla travel longer distances to the tropics in the Southern Hemisphere.
What does successful migration depend on for some waders?
5706071252bb8914006897cc
the availability of certain key food resources
57
False
Where do migrants refuel?
5706071252bb8914006897cd
stopover points along the migration route
107
False
Where is an important stopover location?
5706071252bb8914006897ce
the Bay of Fundy
281
False
What is another stopover location?
5706071252bb8914006897cf
Delaware Bay
302
False
For some species of waders, migration success depends on the availability of certain key food resources at stopover points along the migration route. This gives the migrants an opportunity to refuel for the next leg of the voyage. Some examples of important stopover locations are the Bay of Fundy and Delaware Bay.
Which bird has the longest migration?
5706783775f01819005e7ba4
bar-tailed godwits
5
False
How far do bar-tailed godwits travel to migrate?
5706783775f01819005e7ba5
11,000 km
103
False
Where do bar-tailed godwits migrate from
5706783775f01819005e7ba6
Alaska
118
False
Where do bar-tailed godwits migrate to?
5706783775f01819005e7ba7
New Zealand
134
False
How much of the bar-tailed godwits bodyweight is stored as fat before migration?
5706783775f01819005e7ba8
55 percent
186
False
Some bar-tailed godwits Limosa lapponica have the longest known non-stop flight of any migrant, flying 11,000 km from Alaska to their New Zealand non-breeding areas. Prior to migration, 55 percent of their bodyweight is stored as fat to fuel this uninterrupted journey.
Which seabird has the longest-distance migration?
5706791075f01819005e7bae
The Arctic tern
300
False
Which bird sees more daylight than any other during migration?
5706791075f01819005e7baf
The Arctic tern
300
False
How long did one Arctic tern take to migrate?
5706791075f01819005e7bb0
three months
628
False
How far did the Arctic tern chick travel?
5706791075f01819005e7bb1
22,000 km
678
False
Where do tubenosed birds breed?
5706791075f01819005e7bb2
the southern hemisphere
731
False
Seabird migration is similar in pattern to those of the waders and waterfowl. Some, such as the black guillemot Cepphus grylle and some gulls, are quite sedentary; others, such as most terns and auks breeding in the temperate northern hemisphere, move varying distances south in the northern winter. The Arctic tern Sterna paradisaea has the longest-distance migration of any bird, and sees more daylight than any other, moving from its Arctic breeding grounds to the Antarctic non-breeding areas. One Arctic tern, ringed (banded) as a chick on the Farne Islands off the British east coast, reached Melbourne, Australia in just three months from fledging, a sea journey of over 22,000 km (14,000 mi). Many tubenosed birds breed in the southern hemisphere and migrate north in the southern winter.
Which species are great wanderers?
5706865b75f01819005e7bcc
pelagic
9
False
Which bird broke a record in how far it flew over it's life?
5706865b75f01819005e7bcd
Manx shearwater
722
False
How far did a Manx shearwater fly over it's lifespan?
5706865b75f01819005e7bce
8 million km
766
False
How long did the Manx shearwater live?
5706865b75f01819005e7bcf
50 year
813
False
How far will Puffinus griseus migrate each year?
5706865b75f01819005e7bd0
14,000 km
455
False
The most pelagic species, mainly in the 'tubenose' order Procellariiformes, are great wanderers, and the albatrosses of the southern oceans may circle the globe as they ride the "roaring forties" outside the breeding season. The tubenoses spread widely over large areas of open ocean, but congregate when food becomes available. Many are also among the longest-distance migrants; sooty shearwaters Puffinus griseus nesting on the Falkland Islands migrate 14,000 km (8,700 mi) between the breeding colony and the North Atlantic Ocean off Norway. Some Manx shearwaters Puffinus puffinus do this same journey in reverse. As they are long-lived birds, they may cover enormous distances during their lives; one record-breaking Manx shearwater is calculated to have flown 8 million km (5 million miles) during its over-50 year lifespan.
What do some large broad-winged birds rely on to help them soar?
5706872b52bb891400689a44
thermal columns of rising hot air
38
False
When do large birds of pray migrate?
5706872b52bb891400689a45
daytime
213
False
What is one of the heaviest migratory funnels?
5706872b52bb891400689a46
Batumi bottleneck
983
False
How much of their body weight do honey buzzards lose during migration?
5706872b52bb891400689a47
10 to 20%
1312
False
How many birds funnel through Batumi, Georgia each year?
5706872b52bb891400689a48
hundreds of thousands
1138
False
Some large broad-winged birds rely on thermal columns of rising hot air to enable them to soar. These include many birds of prey such as vultures, eagles, and buzzards, but also storks. These birds migrate in the daytime. Migratory species in these groups have great difficulty crossing large bodies of water, since thermals only form over land, and these birds cannot maintain active flight for long distances. Mediterranean and other seas present a major obstacle to soaring birds, which must cross at the narrowest points. Massive numbers of large raptors and storks pass through areas such as the Strait of Messina, Gibraltar, Falsterbo, and the Bosphorus at migration times. More common species, such as the European honey buzzard Pernis apivorus, can be counted in hundreds of thousands in autumn. Other barriers, such as mountain ranges, can also cause funnelling, particularly of large diurnal migrants. This is a notable factor in the Central American migratory bottleneck. Batumi bottleneck in the Caucasus is one of the heaviest migratory funnels on earth. Avoiding flying over the Black Sea surface and across high mountains, hundreds of thousands of soaring birds funnel through an area around the city of Batumi, Georgia. Birds of prey such as honey buzzards which migrate using thermals lose only 10 to 20% of their weight during migration, which may explain why they forage less during migration than do smaller birds of prey with more active flight such as falcons, hawks and harriers.
When do many insectivorous birds migrate?
5706883275f01819005e7bd6
usually at night
118
False
Which kinds of birds land for a few days before resuming migration?
5706883275f01819005e7bd7
smaller insectivorous birds
12
False
What are smaller insectivorous birds referred to?
5706883275f01819005e7bd8
passage migrants
251
False
How long do passage migrants stop and feed before resuming migration?
5706883275f01819005e7bd9
a few days
178
False
Many of the smaller insectivorous birds including the warblers, hummingbirds and flycatchers migrate large distances, usually at night. They land in the morning and may feed for a few days before resuming their migration. The birds are referred to as passage migrants in the regions where they occur for short durations between the origin and destination.
What is a benefit of nocturnal migration?
570688d052bb891400689a4e
minimize predation
19
False
What is a cost of nocturnal migration?
570688d052bb891400689a4f
loss of sleep
126
False
How do nocturnal migrants compensate for loss of sleep?
570688d052bb891400689a50
Migrants may be able to alter their quality of sleep
141
False
What is another benefit of nocturnal migration?
570688d052bb891400689a51
avoid overheating
39
False
Nocturnal migrants minimize predation, avoid overheating, and can feed during the day. One cost of nocturnal migration is the loss of sleep. Migrants may be able to alter their quality of sleep to compensate for the loss.
What are many long distance migrants genetically programmed to do?
57068e2575f01819005e7bfc
respond to changing day length
67
False
How do species that move short distances know when to migrate?
57068e2575f01819005e7bfd
response to local weather conditions
199
False
Why do mountain and moorland breeders move only altitudinally?
57068e2575f01819005e7bfe
to escape the cold higher ground
384
False
Where do the merlin Falco columbarius migrate to?
57068e2575f01819005e7bff
the coast or towards the south
519
False
How far do British chaffinch more in their lives?
57068e2575f01819005e7c00
5 km
675
False
Many long-distance migrants appear to be genetically programmed to respond to changing day length. Species that move short distances, however, may not need such a timing mechanism, instead moving in response to local weather conditions. Thus mountain and moorland breeders, such as wallcreeper Tichodroma muraria and white-throated dipper Cinclus cinclus, may move only altitudinally to escape the cold higher ground. Other species such as merlin Falco columbarius and Eurasian skylark Alauda arvensis move further, to the coast or towards the south. Species like the chaffinch are much less migratory in Britain than those of continental Europe, mostly not moving more than 5 km in their lives.
How many evolutionary origins do short distance passerine migrants have?
5706909b52bb891400689a60
two
39
False
Which species have long-distance migrants in the same family?
5706909b52bb891400689a61
the common chiffchaff Phylloscopus collybita
132
False
Why have some specied progressively shortened their return migration?
5706909b52bb891400689a62
to stay in the northern hemisphere
278
False
Short-distance passerine migrants have two evolutionary origins. Those that have long-distance migrants in the same family, such as the common chiffchaff Phylloscopus collybita, are species of southern hemisphere origins that have progressively shortened their return migration to stay in the northern hemisphere.
What species has no long-distance migratory relatives?
5706910552bb891400689a66
the waxwings Bombycilla
64
False
What are the waxwings Bombycilla moving in response to?
5706910552bb891400689a67
winter weather and the loss of their usual winter food
127
False
Why are the waxwing Bombycilla not migrating for?
5706910552bb891400689a68
enhanced breeding opportunities
195
False
Species that have no long-distance migratory relatives, such as the waxwings Bombycilla, are effectively moving in response to winter weather and the loss of their usual winter food, rather than enhanced breeding opportunities.
Where is there little variation in the length of day throughout the year?
5706917375f01819005e7c10
In the tropics
0
False
Why does altitudinal migration occur in some tropical birds?
5706917375f01819005e7c11
to obtain more of their preferred foods
237
False
What are tropical birds preferred foods?
5706917375f01819005e7c12
fruits
285
False
Where is it always warm enough for food supply?
5706917375f01819005e7c13
In the tropics
0
False
In the tropics there is little variation in the length of day throughout the year, and it is always warm enough for a food supply, but altitudinal migration occurs in some tropical birds. There is evidence that this enables the migrants to obtain more of their preferred foods such as fruits.
For what reason would birds mor far beyond the normal range?
5706a3b152bb891400689afe
a good breeding season followed by a food source failure
32
False
How many times did Bohemian waxwings come to Britain in the nineteeth century?
5706a3b152bb891400689aff
five
298
False
How many times did Bohemian waxwings come to Britain between 1937 and 200?
5706a3b152bb891400689b00
18
364
False
What years did Red crossbills invade England?
5706a3b152bb891400689b01
1251, 1593, 1757, and 1791
502
False
Sometimes circumstances such as a good breeding season followed by a food source failure the following year lead to irruptions in which large numbers of a species move far beyond the normal range. Bohemian waxwings Bombycilla garrulus well show this unpredictable variation in annual numbers, with five major arrivals in Britain during the nineteenth century, but 18 between the years 1937 and 2000. Red crossbills Loxia curvirostra too are irruptive, with widespread invasions across England noted in 1251, 1593, 1757, and 1791.
In which hemisphere does bird migration primarily happen?
5706a4a052bb891400689b06
Northern
49
False
Where do birds from high northern latitutes migrate to?
5706a4a052bb891400689b07
south
197
False
Why do birds migrate south in winter?
5706a4a052bb891400689b08
food becomes scarce
142
False
Which species of seabirds are more likely to migrate?
5706a4a052bb891400689b09
species of the Southern Hemisphere
373
False
Why are seabirds from the southern hemisphere more likely to migrate?
5706a4a052bb891400689b0a
there is a large area of ocean in the Southern Hemisphere
452
False
Bird migration is primarily, but not entirely, a Northern Hemisphere phenomenon. This is because land birds in high northern latitudes, where food becomes scarce in winter, leave for areas further south (including the Southern Hemisphere) to overwinter, and because the continental landmass is much larger in the Northern Hemisphere. In contrast, among (pelagic) seabirds, species of the Southern Hemisphere are more likely to migrate. This is because there is a large area of ocean in the Southern Hemisphere, and more islands suitable for seabirds to nest.
What controls a birds migration?
5706a5bc75f01819005e7cc0
a primitive trait
94
False
How do birds navigate and orient themselves during migration?
5706a5bc75f01819005e7cc1
endogenous programs as well as learning
287
False
What is a primitive trait present even in non migrating birds?
5706a5bc75f01819005e7cc2
migration
15
False
What is a complex phenomenon in regards to migration?
5706a5bc75f01819005e7cc3
The ability to navigate
168
False
The control of migration, its timing and response are genetically controlled and appear to be a primitive trait that is present even in non-migratory species of birds. The ability to navigate and orient themselves during migration is a much more complex phenomenon that may include both endogenous programs as well as learning.
What is the primary cue for migration?
5706abd252bb891400689b4a
changes in the day length
52
False
How do birds act in the period before migration?
5706abd252bb891400689b4b
higher activity
195
False
What does Zugunruhe mean in English?
5706abd252bb891400689b4c
migratory restlessness
233
False
What do caged birds display that corresponds with migratory direction in nature?
5706abd252bb891400689b4d
preferential flight direction
620
False
When do caged birds change their preferential direction?
5706abd252bb891400689b4e
the same time their wild conspecifics change course
772
False
The primary physiological cue for migration are the changes in the day length. These changes are also related to hormonal changes in the birds. In the period before migration, many birds display higher activity or Zugunruhe (German: migratory restlessness), first described by Johann Friedrich Naumann in 1795, as well as physiological changes such as increased fat deposition. The occurrence of Zugunruhe even in cage-raised birds with no environmental cues (e.g. shortening of day and falling temperature) has pointed to the role of circannual endogenous programs in controlling bird migrations. Caged birds display a preferential flight direction that corresponds with the migratory direction they would take in nature, changing their preferential direction at roughly the same time their wild conspecifics change course.
What is it called when males return earlier to the breeding sites than females?
5706ac4e75f01819005e7d0a
protandry
145
False
What happens in polygynous species with sexual dimophism?
5706ac4e75f01819005e7d0b
males tend to return earlier to the breeding sites
59
False
Why do males in polygynous species return before the females?
5706ac4e75f01819005e7d0c
sexual dimorphism
40
False
In polygynous species with considerable sexual dimorphism, males tend to return earlier to the breeding sites than their females. This is termed protandry.
What is navigation based on?
5706acd875f01819005e7d10
a variety of senses
23
False
What do many birds use as a compass?
5706acd875f01819005e7d11
sun
80
False
What does using the sun for direction involve?
5706acd875f01819005e7d12
the need for making compensation based on the time
130
False
What else is navigation based on?
5706acd875f01819005e7d13
use visual landmarks
327
False
What is magnetoception?
5706acd875f01819005e7d14
the ability to detect magnetic fields
271
False
Navigation is based on a variety of senses. Many birds have been shown to use a sun compass. Using the sun for direction involves the need for making compensation based on the time. Navigation has also been shown to be based on a combination of other abilities including the ability to detect magnetic fields (magnetoception), use visual landmarks as well as olfactory cues.
When do long distance migrants disperse?
5706b5312eaba6190074ac4e
as young birds
48
False
What do young birds form attachments to?
5706b5312eaba6190074ac4f
potential breeding sites
87
False
What else do young birds form attachments to?
5706b5312eaba6190074ac50
wintering sites
129
False
What happens when the site attachment is made?
5706b5312eaba6190074ac51
they show high site-fidelity
179
False
Where do migrating birds visit?
5706b5312eaba6190074ac52
the same wintering sites year after year
218
False
Long distance migrants are believed to disperse as young birds and form attachments to potential breeding sites and to favourite wintering sites. Once the site attachment is made they show high site-fidelity, visiting the same wintering sites year after year.
What are older migrating birds better at?
5706b8810eeca41400aa0da1
making corrections for wind drift
485
False
How was the migrating of ospretys and honey buzzards tracked?
5706b8810eeca41400aa0da2
Satellite
359
False
What do the birds do to successfully perform long distance migration?
5706b8810eeca41400aa0da3
recognize habitats and form mental maps
318
False
What are examples of day migrating raptors?
5706b8810eeca41400aa0da4
ospreys and honey buzzards
411
False
The ability of birds to navigate during migrations cannot be fully explained by endogenous programming, even with the help of responses to environmental cues. The ability to successfully perform long-distance migrations can probably only be fully explained with an accounting for the cognitive ability of the birds to recognize habitats and form mental maps. Satellite tracking of day migrating raptors such as ospreys and honey buzzards has shown that older individuals are better at making corrections for wind drift.
What two electromagnetic tools do birds use to find their destinations?
5706baba2eaba6190074ac98
one that is entirely innate and another that relies on experience
78
False
Where is the neural connection that is active during migration located?
5706baba2eaba6190074ac99
between the eye and "Cluster N"
1135
False
What is Cluster N?
5706baba2eaba6190074ac9a
the part of the forebrain that is active during migrational orientation
1168
False
What is a young bird on it's first migration compared to?
5706baba2eaba6190074ac9b
a boy scout with a compass but no map
601
False
How does the magnetic field help the bird at different latitudes?
5706baba2eaba6190074ac9c
let it know when it has reached its destination
1057
False
Migratory birds may use two electromagnetic tools to find their destinations: one that is entirely innate and another that relies on experience. A young bird on its first migration flies in the correct direction according to the Earth's magnetic field, but does not know how far the journey will be. It does this through a radical pair mechanism whereby chemical reactions in special photo pigments sensitive to long wavelengths are affected by the field. Although this only works during daylight hours, it does not use the position of the sun in any way. At this stage the bird is in the position of a boy scout with a compass but no map, until it grows accustomed to the journey and can put its other capabilities to use. With experience it learns various landmarks and this "mapping" is done by magnetites in the trigeminal system, which tell the bird how strong the field is. Because birds migrate between northern and southern regions, the magnetic field strengths at different latitudes let it interpret the radical pair mechanism more accurately and let it know when it has reached its destination. There is a neural connection between the eye and "Cluster N", the part of the forebrain that is active during migrational orientation, suggesting that birds may actually be able to see the magnetic field of the earth.
How can migrating birds lose their way?
5706bbd02eaba6190074acb4
flying past their destinations
94
False
What is flying past their destinations called?
5706bbd02eaba6190074acb5
spring overshoot
136
False
What location has become famous for bird overshooters?
5706bbd02eaba6190074acb6
Point Pelee National Park
362
False
What other location is famous for spring overshoot?
5706bbd02eaba6190074acb7
Spurn in England
403
False
Where do bird overshooters end up?
5706bbd02eaba6190074acb8
further north than intended
224
False
Migrating birds can lose their way and appear outside their normal ranges. This can be due to flying past their destinations as in the "spring overshoot" in which birds returning to their breeding areas overshoot and end up further north than intended. Certain areas, because of their location, have become famous as watchpoints for such birds. Examples are the Point Pelee National Park in Canada, and Spurn in England.
What is it called when the genetic programing of young birds fail?
5706bcd30eeca41400aa0dcb
Reverse migration
0
False
What is reverse migration?
5706bcd30eeca41400aa0dcc
where the genetic programming of young birds fails to work properly
19
False
What does reverse migration lead to?
5706bcd30eeca41400aa0dcd
rarities turning up as vagrants thousands of kilometres out of range
100
False
How far out of range can rarities get?
5706bcd30eeca41400aa0dce
thousands of kilometres
132
False
Reverse migration, where the genetic programming of young birds fails to work properly, can lead to rarities turning up as vagrants thousands of kilometres out of range.
What is it called when birds from one region join birds from a different region?
5706c6190eeca41400aa0e21
abmigration
29
False
What kind of bird is most likely to abmigrate?
5706c6190eeca41400aa0e22
waterfowl
246
False
Who do abmigrating birds return with?
5706c6190eeca41400aa0e23
the new population
192
False
A related phenomenon called "abmigration" involves birds from one region joining similar birds from a different breeding region in the common winter grounds and then migrating back along with the new population. This is especially common in some waterfowl, which shift from one flyway to another.
What is a re-introduction scheme?
5706c6bf0eeca41400aa0e27
to teach a migration route to a flock of birds
21
False
What did they use to teach birds a migration route?
5706c6bf0eeca41400aa0e28
microlight aircraft
160
False
Which birds did they reintroduce to the US?
5706c6bf0eeca41400aa0e29
whooping cranes
247
False
Which birds did they use as a trial run?
5706c6bf0eeca41400aa0e2a
Canada geese
128
False
It has been possible to teach a migration route to a flock of birds, for example in re-introduction schemes. After a trial with Canada geese Branta canadensis, microlight aircraft were used in the US to teach safe migration routes to reintroduced whooping cranes Grus americana.
What do birds need to change to meet the demands of migration?
5706c7a52eaba6190074ad02
their metabolism
20
False
How often do birds molt?
5706c7a52eaba6190074ad03
usually once a year
338
False
How do birds store energy?
5706c7a52eaba6190074ad04
through the accumulation of fat and the control of sleep
102
False
Why do birds need to molt?
5706c7a52eaba6190074ad05
feathers of a bird suffer from wear-and-tear
241
False
When do birds molt?
5706c7a52eaba6190074ad06
varies with some species
380
False
Birds need to alter their metabolism in order to meet the demands of migration. The storage of energy through the accumulation of fat and the control of sleep in nocturnal migrants require special physiological adaptations. In addition, the feathers of a bird suffer from wear-and-tear and require to be molted. The timing of this molt - usually once a year but sometimes twice - varies with some species molting prior to moving to their winter grounds and others molting prior to returning to their breeding grounds. Apart from physiological adaptations, migration sometimes requires behavioural changes such as flying in flocks to reduce the energy used in migration or the risk of predation.
How was migration developed?
5706cfe02eaba6190074ad14
independently
70
False
What is highly labile?
5706cfe02eaba6190074ad15
Migration in birds
0
False
What causes the behavioral adaptations necessary for migration?
5706cfe02eaba6190074ad16
genetic control
211
False
What exists in nearly all avian lineages?
5706cfe02eaba6190074ad17
genetic framework for migratory behavior
358
False
Migration in birds is highly labile and is believed to have developed independently in many avian lineages. While it is agreed that the behavioral and physiological adaptations necessary for migration are under genetic control, some authors have argued that no genetic change is necessary for migratory behavior to develop in a sedentary species because the genetic framework for migratory behavior exists in nearly all avian lineages. This explains the rapid appearance of migratory behavior after the most recent glacial maximum.
What percentage increase in flight distance will often be adaptive?
5706d7150eeca41400aa0e69
20%
78
False
What kind of bird flies less efficiently?
5706d7150eeca41400aa0e6a
a bird that loads itself with food
130
False
What type of bird show circuitous migratory routes?
5706d7150eeca41400aa0e6b
Swainson's thrush
412
False
Where do Swainson's thrush fly from?
5706d7150eeca41400aa0e6c
far east across North America
460
False
Theoretical analyses show that detours that increase flight distance by up to 20% will often be adaptive on aerodynamic grounds - a bird that loads itself with food to cross a long barrier flies less efficiently. However some species show circuitous migratory routes that reflect historical range expansions and are far from optimal in ecological terms. An example is the migration of continental populations of Swainson's thrush Catharus ustulatus, which fly far east across North America before turning south via Florida to reach northern South America; this route is believed to be the consequence of a range expansion that occurred about 10,000 years ago. Detours may also be caused by differential wind conditions, predation risk, or other factors.
What is expected to have an effect on migration timing?
5706d7962eaba6190074ad30
climatic changes
12
False
What have studies shown regarding climate change?
5706d7962eaba6190074ad31
timing changes in migration
177
False
What else is climate change been shown to change?
5706d7962eaba6190074ad32
breeding as well as population variations
206
False
Large scale climatic changes, as have been experienced in the past, are expected to have an effect on the timing of migration. Studies have shown a variety of effects including timing changes in migration, breeding as well as population variations.
What other species does migration help?
5706d83b0eeca41400aa0e71
ectoparasites such as ticks and lice
83
False
What is a greater threat of disease transmission?
5706d83b0eeca41400aa0e72
import of pet and domestic birds
384
False
What has been studied as a mechanism of disease transmission?
5706d83b0eeca41400aa0e73
bird migration
250
False
What has a role in the dispersal of propagules of plants and plankton?
5706d83b0eeca41400aa0e74
Birds
574
False
What virus is maintained in birds without lethal effects?
5706d83b0eeca41400aa0e75
West Nile Virus
516
False
The migration of birds also aids the movement of other species, including those of ectoparasites such as ticks and lice, which in turn may carry micro-organisms including those of concern to human health. Due to the global spread of avian influenza, bird migration has been studied as a possible mechanism of disease transmission, but it has been found not to present a special risk; import of pet and domestic birds is a greater threat. Some viruses that are maintained in birds without lethal effects, such as the West Nile Virus may however be spread by migrating birds. Birds may also have a role in the dispersal of propagules of plants and plankton.
Who takes advantage of migrating birds?
5706d88c0eeca41400aa0e7b
Greater noctule bats
78
False
What do greater noctule bats feed on?
5706d88c0eeca41400aa0e7c
nocturnal migrating passerines
107
False
What do some birds of prey specialize on?
5706d88c0eeca41400aa0e7d
migrating waders
172
False
Some predators take advantage of the concentration of birds during migration. Greater noctule bats feed on nocturnal migrating passerines. Some birds of prey specialize on migrating waders.
What is the oldest way to study migration?
5706d9820eeca41400aa0e81
marking
89
False
How have swans been marked?
5706d9820eeca41400aa0e82
a nick on the beak
126
False
Since when have swans been marked?
5706d9820eeca41400aa0e83
1560
157
False
Who was scientific ringing pioneered by?
5706d9820eeca41400aa0e84
Hans Christian Cornelius Mortensen
210
False
What are other forms of studying migration?
5706d9820eeca41400aa0e85
radar and satellite tracking
279
False
Bird migration routes have been studied by a variety of techniques including the oldest, marking. Swans have been marked with a nick on the beak since about 1560 in England. Scientific ringing was pioneered by Hans Christian Cornelius Mortensen in 1899. Other techniques include radar and satellite tracking.
How are orientation behavior studies traditionally carried out?
5706f6a190286e26004fc76d
the Emlen funnel
101
False
What shape is the cage in the Emlen funnel?
5706f6a190286e26004fc76e
circular
139
False
What is studied quantitatively inside the cage?
5706f6a190286e26004fc76f
The orientation behaviour
318
False
What does the bird leave on the walls of the cage?
5706f6a190286e26004fc770
marks
424
False
Where does the homing pigeon vanish?
5706f6a190286e26004fc771
on the horizon
577
False
Orientation behaviour studies have been traditionally carried out using variants of a setup known as the Emlen funnel, which consists of a circular cage with the top covered by glass or wire-screen so that either the sky is visible or the setup is placed in a planetarium or with other controls on environmental cues. The orientation behaviour of the bird inside the cage is studied quantitatively using the distribution of marks that the bird leaves on the walls of the cage. Other approaches used in pigeon homing studies make use of the direction in which the bird vanishes on the horizon.
What threatens some bird species?
5706fac590286e26004fc791
Hunting along migration routes
0
False
What species declined due to hunting in Afghanistand and Asia?
5706fac590286e26004fc792
Siberian cranes
79
False
When were birds last seen in Keoladeo National Park?
5706fac590286e26004fc793
2002
320
False
What can power lines, wind farms and oil rigs affect?
5706fac590286e26004fc794
migratory birds
422
False
What are other migration hazards?
5706fac590286e26004fc795
pollution, storms, wildfires, and habitat destruction
471
False
Hunting along migration routes threatens some bird species. The populations of Siberian cranes (Leucogeranus leucogeranus) that wintered in India declined due to hunting along the route, particularly in Afghanistan and Central Asia. Birds were last seen in their favourite wintering grounds in Keoladeo National Park in 2002. Structures such as power lines, wind farms and offshore oil-rigs have also been known to affect migratory birds. Other migration hazards include pollution, storms, wildfires, and habitat destruction along migration routes, denying migrants food at stopover points. For example, in the East Asian–Australasian Flyway, up to 65% of key intertidal habitat at the Yellow Sea migration bottleneck has been destroyed since the 1950s.
Atlantic_City,_New_Jersey
What is the name of the island on which Atlantic City is located?
5706070375f01819005e78a4
Absecon Island
9
False
In what year was Atlantic City incorporated?
5706070375f01819005e78a5
1854
89
False
What are the names of the two townships that became part of Atlantic City when it was incorporated?
5706070375f01819005e78a6
Egg Harbor Township and Galloway Township
112
False
How many other towns share a border with Atlantic City?
5706070375f01819005e78a7
Absecon, Brigantine, Pleasantville, Ventnor City and West Atlantic City
172
False
Which coast is Atlantic City located on?
5706070375f01819005e78a8
Atlantic
32
False
It is on Absecon Island, on the Atlantic coast. Atlantic City was incorporated on May 1, 1854, from portions of Egg Harbor Township and Galloway Township. The city borders Absecon, Brigantine, Pleasantville, Ventnor City and West Atlantic City.
What is the name of the first commercial hotel built in Atlantic City?
5706099a52bb8914006897e8
The Belloe House
226
False
In what year was the first commercial hotel built in Atlantic City?
5706099a52bb8914006897e9
1853
192
False
What are the names of the two avenues at which The Belloe House is located?
5706099a52bb8914006897ea
Massachusetts and Atlantic Avenue
255
False
What are the two geographical features that Atlantic City is located between?
5706099a52bb8914006897eb
marshlands and islands
76
False
What were the two potential aspects of Atlantic City that originally attracted developers?
5706099a52bb8914006897ec
prime real estate and a potential resort town
142
False
Because of its location in South Jersey, hugging the Atlantic Ocean between marshlands and islands, Atlantic City was viewed by developers as prime real estate and a potential resort town. In 1853, the first commercial hotel, The Belloe House, located at Massachusetts and Atlantic Avenue, was built.
What other US city was linked to Atlantic City by the Camden and Atlantic Railroad train service?
57060b8852bb8914006897ff
Philadelphia
208
False
By 1874, how many passengers were coming to Atlantic City by rail each year?
57060b8852bb891400689800
500,000
423
False
What is the name of the lighthouse that is located on the Atlantic City coast?
57060b8852bb891400689801
Absecon Lighthouse
272
False
Who is considered to be "Atlantic City's Godfather?"
57060b8852bb891400689802
Nelson Johnson
592
False
The city was incorporated in 1854, the same year in which the Camden and Atlantic Railroad train service began. Built on the edge of the bay, this served as the direct link of this remote parcel of land with Philadelphia, Pennsylvania. That same year, construction of the Absecon Lighthouse, designed by George Meade of the Corps of Topographical Engineers, was approved, with work initiated the next year. By 1874, almost 500,000 passengers a year were coming to Atlantic City by rail. In Boardwalk Empire: The Birth, High Times, and Corruption of Atlantic City, "Atlantic City's Godfather" Nelson Johnson describes the inspiration of Dr. Jonathan Pitney (the "Father of Atlantic City") to develop Atlantic City as a health resort, his efforts to convince the municipal authorities that a railroad to the beach would be beneficial, his successful alliance with Samuel Richards (entrepreneur and member of the most influential family in southern New Jersey at the time) to achieve that goal, the actual building of the railroad, and the experience of the first 600 riders, who "were chosen carefully by Samuel Richards and Jonathan Pitney":
In what year was the first boardwalk built in Atlantic City?
57060d1275f01819005e78fc
1870
33
False
Why was the first boardwalk built in Atlantic City?
57060d1275f01819005e78fd
to help hotel owners keep sand out of their lobbies
80
False
What year was the Great Atlantic Hurricane?
57060d1275f01819005e78fe
1944
433
False
What was the historic length of the boardwalk before the Great Atlantic Hurricane?
57060d1275f01819005e78ff
about 7 miles
468
False
Before the Great Atlantic Hurricane the boardwalk extended from Atlantic City to what other city?
57060d1275f01819005e7900
Longport
528
False
The first boardwalk was built in 1870 along a portion of the beach in an effort to help hotel owners keep sand out of their lobbies. Businesses were restricted and the boardwalk was removed each year at the end of the peak season. Because of its effectiveness and popularity, the boardwalk was expanded in length and width, and modified several times in subsequent years. The historic length of the boardwalk, before the destructive 1944 Great Atlantic Hurricane, was about 7 miles (11 km) and it extended from Atlantic City to Longport, through Ventnor and Margate.
The first road connected Atlantic City to which mainland town?
57060ece75f01819005e791a
Pleasantville
54
False
The first road that connected Atlantic City to the mainland was completed in what year?
57060ece75f01819005e791b
1870
85
False
How much of a toll was charged on the first road to connect Atlantic City to the mainland?
57060ece75f01819005e791c
30-cent
104
False
What was the name of the first road to the mainland that did not charge a toll?
57060ece75f01819005e791d
Albany Avenue
118
False
The first road connecting the city to the mainland at Pleasantville was completed in 1870 and charged a 30-cent toll. Albany Avenue was the first road to the mainland that was available without a toll.
By what year was demand so great that one railroad line could no longer keep up with the demand?
5706109452bb891400689842
1878
3
False
What was the name of the new railway that was constructed to transport tourists to Atlantic City after 1878?
5706109452bb891400689843
Philadelphia and Atlantic City Railway
121
False
What was the name of the hotel that took up a full city block?
5706109452bb891400689844
The United States Hotel
353
False
Besides massive hotels, what else was appearing all over Atlantic City during this period?
5706109452bb891400689845
rooming houses
308
False
What were the names of the four avenues that surrounded The United States Hotel?
5706109452bb891400689846
Atlantic, Pacific, Delaware, and Maryland Avenues
411
False
By 1878, because of the growing popularity of the city, one railroad line could no longer keep up with demand. Soon, the Philadelphia and Atlantic City Railway was also constructed to transport tourists to Atlantic City. At this point massive hotels like The United States and Surf House, as well as smaller rooming houses, had sprung up all over town. The United States Hotel took up a full city block between Atlantic, Pacific, Delaware, and Maryland Avenues. These hotels were not only impressive in size, but featured the most updated amenities, and were considered quite luxurious for their time.
When did Atlantic City go through a radical building boom?
570612ce52bb891400689854
early part of the 20th century
7
False
What replaced many of the modest boarding houses?
570612ce52bb891400689855
large hotels
171
False
What were the names of two of the city's most distinctive hotels?
570612ce52bb891400689856
Marlborough-Blenheim Hotel and the Traymore Hotel
236
False
What happened to Atlantic City in the early part of the 20th century?
570612ce52bb891400689857
a radical building boom
66
False
Where were the modest boarding houses located before they were replaced by large hotels?
570612ce52bb891400689858
the boardwalk
138
False
In the early part of the 20th century, Atlantic City went through a radical building boom. Many of the modest boarding houses that dotted the boardwalk were replaced with large hotels. Two of the city's most distinctive hotels were the Marlborough-Blenheim Hotel and the Traymore Hotel.
In what year did Josiah White III by land to build a hotel?
5706143352bb891400689876
1903
3
False
What was the name of the hotel built by Josiah White III?
5706143352bb891400689877
Marlborough House
116
False
In what style was the Malborough House buit?
5706143352bb891400689878
Queen Anne
99
False
In what year was reinforced concrete invented?
5706143352bb891400689879
1848
490
False
What was the name of the second hotel built by Josiah White III?
5706143352bb89140068987a
Blenheim
747
False
In 1903, Josiah White III bought a parcel of land near Ohio Avenue and the boardwalk and built the Queen Anne style Marlborough House. The hotel was a hit and, in 1905–06, he chose to expand the hotel and bought another parcel of land next door to his Marlborough House. In an effort to make his new hotel a source of conversation, White hired the architectural firm of Price and McLanahan. The firm made use of reinforced concrete, a new building material invented by Jean-Louis Lambot in 1848 (Joseph Monier received the patent in 1867). The hotel's Spanish and Moorish themes, capped off with its signature dome and chimneys, represented a step forward from other hotels that had a classically designed influence. White named the new hotel the Blenheim and merged the two hotels into the Marlborough-Blenheim. Bally's Atlantic City was later constructed at this location.
What was the name of the hotel located at the corner of Illinois Avenue and the boardwalk?
5706160975f01819005e7966
The Traymore Hotel
0
False
What year was The Traymore Hotel begun?
5706160975f01819005e7967
1879
92
False
Who was the owner of The Traymore Hotel?
5706160975f01819005e7968
Daniel White
213
False
How many stories was The Traymore Hotel after its renovation?
5706160975f01819005e7969
16
355
False
What was the name of the firm commissioned to build The Traymore Hotel?
5706160975f01819005e796a
Price and McLanahan
297
False
The Traymore Hotel was located at the corner of Illinois Avenue and the boardwalk. Begun in 1879 as a small boarding house, the hotel grew through a series of uncoordinated expansions. By 1914, the hotel's owner, Daniel White, taking a hint from the Marlborough-Blenheim, commissioned the firm of Price and McLanahan to build an even bigger hotel. Rising 16 stories, the tan brick and gold-capped hotel would become one of the city's best-known landmarks. The hotel made use of ocean-facing hotel rooms by jutting its wings farther from the main portion of the hotel along Pacific Avenue.
What year did the Quaker-owned Chalfonte House open?
5706176852bb89140068989a
1868
232
False
What year did the Haddon House open?
5706176852bb89140068989b
1869
266
False
How many stories was the modern Chalfonte Hotel when it opened in 1904?
5706176852bb89140068989c
eight
456
False
How many rooms were in the merged Chalfonte-Haddon Hall Hotel?
5706176852bb89140068989d
nearly 1,000
718
False
What was the name given to the 24 story tall, 400-room Claridge?
5706176852bb89140068989e
Skyscraper By The Sea
982
False
One by one, additional large hotels were constructed along the boardwalk, including the Brighton, Chelsea, Shelburne, Ambassador, Ritz Carlton, Mayflower, Madison House, and the Breakers. The Quaker-owned Chalfonte House, opened in 1868, and Haddon House, opened in 1869, flanked North Carolina Avenue at the beach end. Their original wood-frame structures would be enlarged, and even moved closer to the beach, over the years. The modern Chalfonte Hotel, eight stories tall, opened in 1904. The modern Haddon Hall was built in stages and was completed in 1929, at eleven stories. By this time, they were under the same ownership and merged into the Chalfonte-Haddon Hall Hotel, becoming the city's largest hotel with nearly 1,000 rooms. By 1930, the Claridge, the city's last large hotel before the casinos, opened its doors. The 400-room Claridge was built by a partnership that included renowned Philadelphia contractor John McShain. At 24 stories, it would become known as the "Skyscraper By The Sea." The city became known as the "The World's Playground.
In what year was salt water taffy conceived?
5706195175f01819005e797a
1883
3
False
Who was the creator of salt water taffy?
5706195175f01819005e797b
David Bradley
60
False
What happened to David Bradley's shop that led to the creation of salt water taffy?
5706195175f01819005e797c
Bradley's shop was flooded after a major storm
105
False
Who did Bradley sell salt water taffy to for the first time?
5706195175f01819005e797d
a girl
239
False
Where did the water come from for the creation of the first salt water taffy?
5706195175f01819005e797e
Atlantic Ocean
182
False
In 1883, salt water taffy was conceived in Atlantic City by David Bradley. The traditional story is that Bradley's shop was flooded after a major storm, soaking his taffy with salty Atlantic Ocean water. He sold some "salt water taffy" to a girl, who proudly walked down to the beach to show her friends. Bradley's mother was in the back of the store when the sale was made, and loved the name, and so salt water taffy was born.
What years do many historians consider Atlantic City's golden age?
57061add52bb8914006898ae
1920s
4
False
What year was Prohibition enacted nationally?
57061add52bb8914006898af
1919
154
False
During Prohibition what name was given to Atlantic City?
57061add52bb8914006898b0
The World's Playground
679
False
During Prohibition how high was Nucky Johnson's income?
57061add52bb8914006898b1
as much as $500,000 annually
742
False
How long did Prohibition last?
57061add52bb8914006898b2
until 1933
170
False
The 1920s, with tourism at its peak, are considered by many historians as Atlantic City's golden age. During Prohibition, which was enacted nationally in 1919 and lasted until 1933, much liquor was consumed and gambling regularly took place in the back rooms of nightclubs and restaurants. It was during Prohibition that racketeer and political boss Enoch L. "Nucky" Johnson rose to power. Prohibition was largely unenforced in Atlantic City, and, because alcohol that had been smuggled into the city with the acquiescence of local officials could be readily obtained at restaurants and other establishments, the resort's popularity grew further. The city then dubbed itself as "The World's Playground". Nucky Johnson's income, which reached as much as $500,000 annually, came from the kickbacks he took on illegal liquor, gambling and prostitution operating in the city, as well as from kickbacks on construction projects.
During the 1920s, who was the mayor of Atlantic City?
57061efb52bb8914006898ca
Edward L. Bader
63
False
What three contributions to Atlantic City was Edward L. Bader known for?
57061efb52bb8914006898cb
construction, athletics and aviation
115
False
What year did Edward L. Bader lead the initiative to construct the Atlantic City High School?
57061efb52bb8914006898cc
1923
385
False
How much was the bond for that was to be used to purchase land for a Convention Center?
57061efb52bb8914006898cd
$1.5 million
681
False
What year was Boardwalk Hall finished?
57061efb52bb8914006898ce
1924
808
False
During this time, Atlantic City was under the mayoral reign of Edward L. Bader, known for his contributions to the construction, athletics and aviation of Atlantic City. Despite the opposition of many others, he purchased land that became the city's municipal airport and high school football stadium, both of which were later named Bader Field in his honor. He led the initiative, in 1923, to construct the Atlantic City High School at Albany and Atlantic Avenues. Bader, in November 1923, initiated a public referendum, during the general election, at which time residents approved the construction of a Convention Center. The city passed an ordinance approving a bond issue for $1.5 million to be used for the purchase of land for Convention Hall, now known as the Boardwalk Hall, finalized September 30, 1924. Bader was also a driving force behind the creation of the Miss America competition.
Who was a meeting organized for in 1929 in Atlantic City?
5706201b52bb8914006898d4
organized crime figures from all across America
63
False
What family was Charles
5706201b52bb8914006898d5
Charles "Lucky" Luciano and former Chicago South Side Gang boss Johnny "the Fox" Torrio
176
False
In what year was there a conference for organized crime figures in Atlantic City?
570621a675f01819005e79d4
1929
25
False
For which family was Charles "Lucky" Luciano a lieutenant?
570621a675f01819005e79d5
Masseria family
149
False
What was Johnny Torrio's nickname?
570621a675f01819005e79d6
the Fox
248
False
What was Charles Luciano's nickname?
570621a675f01819005e79d7
Lucky
185
False
Who was a former Chicago South Side Gang boss?
570621a675f01819005e79d8
Johnny "the Fox" Torrio
240
False
From May 13 to May 16 in 1929, Johnson hosted a conference for organized crime figures from all across America. The men who called this meeting were Masseria family lieutenant Charles "Lucky" Luciano and former Chicago South Side Gang boss Johnny "the Fox" Torrio, with heads of the Bugs and Meyer Mob, Meyer Lansky and Benjamin Siegel, being used as muscle for the meeting.
Which Atlantic City neighborhood became particularly impoverished in the mid-to-late 20th century?
570624bb52bb8914006898ec
the "Inlet"
204
False
What was the biggest factor in the decline in Atlantic City's popularity?
570624bb52bb8914006898ed
cheap, fast jet service
953
False
What were two other locations people began to fly to instead of going to Atlantic City?
570624bb52bb8914006898ee
Miami Beach and the Bahamas
1011
False
After the war, what form of transportation became more readily available to many Americans?
570624bb52bb8914006898ef
automobile
325
False
What two luxuries that people could have at their own homes led to a diminished interest in luxury beach resorts?
570624bb52bb8914006898f0
home air conditioning and swimming pools
737
False
Like many older east coast cities after World War II, Atlantic City became plagued with poverty, crime, corruption, and general economic decline in the mid-to-late 20th century. The neighborhood known as the "Inlet" became particularly impoverished. The reasons for the resort's decline were multi-layered. First of all, the automobile became more readily available to many Americans after the war. Atlantic City had initially relied upon visitors coming by train and staying for a couple of weeks. The car allowed them to come and go as they pleased, and many people would spend only a few days, rather than weeks. Also, the advent of suburbia played a huge role. With many families moving to their own private houses, luxuries such as home air conditioning and swimming pools diminished their interest in flocking to the luxury beach resorts during the hot summer. But perhaps the biggest factor in the decline in Atlantic City's popularity came from cheap, fast jet service to other premier resorts, such as Miami Beach and the Bahamas.
What event was hosted by Atlantic City in 1964?
5706268775f01819005e7a00
Democratic National Convention
25
False
Who was nominated for President during the 1964 Democratic National Convention?
5706268775f01819005e7a01
Lyndon Johnson
72
False
Who was nominated for Vice President during the 1964 Democratic National Convention?
5706268775f01819005e7a02
Hubert Humphrey
105
False
Who was the Governor of New Jersey in 1964?
5706268775f01819005e7a03
Richard J. Hughes
380
False
Despite being in the midst of a long period of economic decline many felt that the Convention was only held in Atlantic city because of a friendship between what two men?
5706268775f01819005e7a04
Johnson and Governor of New Jersey Richard J. Hughes
345
False
The city hosted the 1964 Democratic National Convention which nominated Lyndon Johnson for President and Hubert Humphrey as Vice President. The convention and the press coverage it generated, however, cast a harsh light on Atlantic City, which by then was in the midst of a long period of economic decline. Many felt that the friendship between Johnson and Governor of New Jersey Richard J. Hughes led Atlantic City to host the Democratic Convention.
By what years were many of the great hotels suffering from high vacancy rates?
570629cf75f01819005e7a0a
the late 1960s
3
False
Prior to and during the advent of legalized gaming, what happened to many of the hotels in Atlantic City?
570629cf75f01819005e7a0b
demolished
317
False
When were many of the large hotels demolished?
570629cf75f01819005e7a0c
1970s and 1980s
466
False
After the Ambassador Hotel was gutted what did it become?
570629cf75f01819005e7a0d
Tropicana Casino and Resort Atlantic City
797
False
Who purchased the old Ambassador Hotel in 1978?
570629cf75f01819005e7a0e
Ramada
753
False
By the late 1960s, many of the resort's once great hotels were suffering from embarrassing vacancy rates. Most of them were either shut down, converted to cheap apartments, or converted to nursing home facilities by the end of the decade. Prior to and during the advent of legalized gaming, many of these hotels were demolished. The Breakers, the Chelsea, the Brighton, the Shelburne, the Mayflower, the Traymore, and the Marlborough-Blenheim were demolished in the 1970s and 1980s. Of the many pre-casino resorts that bordered the boardwalk, only the Claridge, the Dennis, the Ritz-Carlton, and the Haddon Hall survive to this day as parts of Bally's Atlantic City, a condo complex, and Resorts Atlantic City. The old Ambassador Hotel was purchased by Ramada in 1978 and was gutted to become the Tropicana Casino and Resort Atlantic City, only reusing the steelwork of the original building. Smaller hotels off the boardwalk, such as the Madison also survived.
In what year did New Jersey voters pass a referendum approving casino gambling for Atlantic City?
57062b9075f01819005e7a1e
1976
60
False
The owners of the Chalfonte-Haddon Hall Hotel converted it into what?
57062b9075f01819005e7a1f
Resorts International
320
False
What was the name of the first legal casino in the eastern United States?
57062b9075f01819005e7a20
Resorts International
320
False
What year did Resorts International open?
57062b9075f01819005e7a21
1978
428
False
How many casinos are there in Atlantic City today?
57062b9075f01819005e7a22
eleven
540
False
In an effort at revitalizing the city, New Jersey voters in 1976 passed a referendum, approving casino gambling for Atlantic City; this came after a 1974 referendum on legalized gambling failed to pass. Immediately after the legislation passed, the owners of the Chalfonte-Haddon Hall Hotel began converting it into the Resorts International. It was the first legal casino in the eastern United States when it opened on May 26, 1978. Other casinos were soon constructed along the Boardwalk and, later, in the marina district for a total of eleven today. The introduction of gambling did not, however, quickly eliminate many of the urban problems that plagued Atlantic City. Many people have suggested that it only served to exacerbate those problems, as attested to by the stark contrast between tourism intensive areas and the adjacent impoverished working-class neighborhoods. In addition, Atlantic City has been less popular than Las Vegas, as a gambling city in the United States. Donald Trump helped bring big name boxing bouts to the city to attract customers to his casinos. The boxer Mike Tyson had most of his fights in Atlantic City in the 1980s, which helped Atlantic City achieve nationwide attention as a gambling resort. Numerous highrise condominiums were built for use as permanent residences or second homes. By end of the decade it was one of the most popular tourist destinations in the United States.
Atlantic City's tourism began to decline due to what failure?
57062dc675f01819005e7a28
to diversify away from gaming
245
False
Who did the Atlantic City Redevelopment Authority partner with in 1999?
57062dc675f01819005e7a29
Steve Wynn
386
False
Why did the Atlantic City Redevelopment Authority partner with Steve Wynn?
57062dc675f01819005e7a2a
to develop a new roadway
397
False
What was the project involving Steve Wynn nicknamed?
57062dc675f01819005e7a2b
The Tunnel Project
482
False
"The Tunnel Project" was later officially named what?
57062dc675f01819005e7a2c
Atlantic City-Brigantine Connector
746
False
With the redevelopment of Las Vegas and the opening of two casinos in Connecticut in the early 1990s, along with newly built casinos in the nearby Philadelphia metro area in the 2000s, Atlantic City's tourism began to decline due to its failure to diversify away from gaming. Determined to expand, in 1999 the Atlantic City Redevelopment Authority partnered with Las Vegas casino mogul Steve Wynn to develop a new roadway to a barren section of the city near the Marina. Nicknamed "The Tunnel Project", Steve Wynn planned the proposed 'Mirage Atlantic City' around the idea that he would connect the $330 million tunnel stretching 2.5 miles (4.0 km) from the Atlantic City Expressway to his new resort. The roadway was later officially named the Atlantic City-Brigantine Connector, and funnels incoming traffic off of the expressway into the city's marina district and Brigantine, New Jersey.
In what year did the tunnel open?
57062f3952bb891400689946
2001
94
False
What was the name of Atlantic City's newest casino?
57062f3952bb891400689947
The Borgata
208
False
When did The Borgata open?
57062f3952bb891400689948
July 2003
230
False
In what year was Wynn's plans for development scrapped?
57062f3952bb891400689949
2002
67
False
The new roadway prompted a partnership between which two companies?
57062f3952bb89140068994a
Boyd Gaming in partnership with MGM/Mirage
125
False
Although Wynn's plans for development in the city were scrapped in 2002, the tunnel opened in 2001. The new roadway prompted Boyd Gaming in partnership with MGM/Mirage to build Atlantic City's newest casino. The Borgata opened in July 2003, and its success brought an influx of developers to Atlantic City with plans for building grand Las Vegas style mega casinos to revitalize the aging city.
When did the Sands Atlantic City close permanently?
5706318d52bb89140068995a
November 11, 2006
266
False
What happened to the Sands Atlantic City a year after it closed?
5706318d52bb89140068995b
demolished in a dramatic, Las Vegas styled implosion
320
False
What did Pinnacle Entertainment intend to replace the Sands Atlantic City with?
5706318d52bb89140068995c
$1.5–2 billion casino resort
473
False
Why did many of the proposed mega casinos never get further than the initial planning stages?
5706318d52bb89140068995d
economic conditions and the late 2000s recession
9
False
Who purchased the Sands Atlantic City?
5706318d52bb89140068995e
Pinnacle Entertainment
174
False
Owing to economic conditions and the late 2000s recession, many of the proposed mega casinos never went further than the initial planning stages. One of these developers was Pinnacle Entertainment, who purchased the Sands Atlantic City, only to close it permanently November 11, 2006. The following year, the resort was demolished in a dramatic, Las Vegas styled implosion, the first of its kind in Atlantic City. While Pinnacle Entertainment intended to replace it with a $1.5–2 billion casino resort, the company canceled its construction plans and plans to sell the land. The biggest disappointment was when MGM Resorts International announced that it would pull out of all development for Atlantic City, effectively ending their plans for the MGM Grand Atlantic City.
In what year did Morgan Stanley purchase land for a new casino resort?
5706332975f01819005e7a7c
2006
3
False
How much land did Morgan Stanley purchase?
5706332975f01819005e7a7d
20 acres
34
False
Who was named as the developer for Morgan Stanley's casino resort?
5706332975f01819005e7a7e
Revel Entertainment Group
155
False
What percentage of ownership did Morgan Stanley hold in Revel Entertainment Group?
5706332975f01819005e7a7f
90%
373
False
Who offered Revel $261 million in state tax credits?
5706332975f01819005e7a80
Governor Chris Christie
858
False
In 2006, Morgan Stanley purchased 20 acres (8.1 ha) directly north of the Showboat Atlantic City Hotel and Casino for a new $2 billion plus casino resort. Revel Entertainment Group was named as the project's developer for the Revel Casino. Revel was hindered with many problems, with the biggest setback to the company being in April 2010 when Morgan Stanley, the owner of 90% of Revel Entertainment Group, decided to discontinue funding for continued construction and put its stake in Revel up for sale. Early in 2010 the New Jersey state legislature passed a bill offering tax incentives to attract new investors and complete the job, but a poll by Fairleigh Dickinson University's PublicMind released in March 2010 showed that three of five voters (60%) opposed the legislation, and two of three of those who opposed it "strongly" opposed it. Ultimately, Governor Chris Christie offered Revel $261 million in state tax credits to assist the casino once it opened. As of March 2011[update], Revel had completed all of the exterior work and had continued work on the interior after finally receiving the funding necessary to complete construction. It had a soft opening in April 2012, and was fully open by May 2012. Ten months later, in February 2013, after serious losses and a write-down in the value of the resort from $2.4 billion to $450 million, Revel filed for Chapter 11 bankruptcy. It was restructured but still could not carry on and re-entered bankruptcy on June 19, 2014. It was put up for sale, however as no suitable bids were received the resort closed its doors on September 2, 2014.
How long had Atlantic City held a monopoly on casino gambling?
5706352452bb891400689964
40-year
164
False
Who said that the state would consider a referendum to end the monopoly that Atlantic City holds on casino gambling?
5706352452bb891400689965
Governor Christie
64
False
When did Governor Christie say that the state would consider a referendum?
5706352452bb891400689966
September 2014
90
False
How much was casino revenue in 2006?
5706352452bb891400689967
$5.2 billion
311
False
How much was casino revenue in 2013?
5706352452bb891400689968
$2.9 billion
335
False
In the wake of the closures and declining revenue from casinos, Governor Christie said in September 2014 that the state would consider a 2015 referendum to end the 40-year-old monopoly that Atlantic City holds on casino gambling and allowing gambling in other municipalities. With casino revenue declining from $5.2 billion in 2006 to $2.9 billion in 2013, the state saw a drop in money from its 8% tax on those earnings, which is used to fund programs for senior citizens and the disabled.
When did "Superstorm Sandy" strike Atlantic City?
5706398252bb89140068998c
October 29, 2012
43
False
"Superstorm Sandy" produced an all-time record low barometric pressure reading of what?
5706398252bb89140068998d
943 mb
548
False
Although "Superstorm Sandy" left minimal damage to any of the tourist areas it did cause what two other things to occur?
5706398252bb89140068998e
flooding and power-outages
69
False
What was the source of the misinformation concerning damage to the city's boardwalk?
5706398252bb89140068998f
photograph
321
False
Why was there a photo of the Boardwalk if it wasn't actually damaged in the storm?
5706398252bb891400689990
the Boardwalk that was slated for repairs, prior to the storm
356
False
"Superstorm Sandy" struck Atlantic City on October 29, 2012, causing flooding and power-outages but left minimal damage to any of the tourist areas including the Boardwalk and casino resorts, despite widespread belief that the city's boardwalk had been destroyed. The source of the misinformation was a widely circulated photograph of a damaged section of the Boardwalk that was slated for repairs, prior to the storm, and incorrect news reports at the time of the disaster. The storm produced an all-time record low barometric pressure reading of 943 mb (27.85") for not only Atlantic City, but the state of New Jersey.
According to the United States Census Bureau, what is the total area in square miles?
57063ba175f01819005e7aa2
17.037 square miles
75
False
What is the area of land?
57063ba175f01819005e7aa3
10.747 square miles
119
False
What is the area of water?
57063ba175f01819005e7aa4
6.290 square miles
164
False
What percentage of the city is made up of water?
57063ba175f01819005e7aa5
36.92%
206
False
What organization provided data detailing the size of the city?
57063ba175f01819005e7aa6
United States Census Bureau
17
False
According to the United States Census Bureau, the city had a total area of 17.037 square miles (44.125 km2), including 10.747 square miles (27.835 km2) of land and 6.290 square miles (16.290 km2) of water (36.92%).
Besides Chelsea, City Island, and Great Island, what other community, locality, or place name is included in the city?
57063e7075f01819005e7ab2
Venice Park
150
False
Besides Chelsea, City Island, and Venice Park, what other community, locality, or place name is included in the city?
57063e7075f01819005e7ab3
Great Island
133
False
Besides Chelsea, Venice Park, and Great Island, what other community, locality, or place name is included in the city?
57063e7075f01819005e7ab4
City Island
120
False
Besides Venice Park, City Island, and Great Island, what other community, locality, or place name is included in the city?
57063e7075f01819005e7ab5
Chelsea
111
False
Besides localities and place names, what else is located partically or completely within the city?
57063e7075f01819005e7ab6
Unincorporated communities
0
False
Unincorporated communities, localities and place names located partially or completely within the city include Chelsea, City Island, Great Island and Venice Park.
What is the daily average temperature in July?
5706402075f01819005e7abc
75.6 °F
66
False
Atlantic City is a prime place to beat the heat from June through what month?
5706402075f01819005e7abd
September
294
False
What is the average temperature for January in Atlantic City?
5706402075f01819005e7abe
35.5 °F
591
False
How many days long is the growing season?
5706402075f01819005e7abf
239 days
790
False
What is the extreme low temperature of Atlantic City?
5706402075f01819005e7ac0
−9 °F
832
False
Summers are typically warm and humid with a July daily average of 75.6 °F (24.2 °C). During this time, the city gets a sea breeze off the ocean that often makes daytime temperatures much cooler than inland areas, making Atlantic City a prime place for beating the summer heat from June through September. Average highs even just a few miles west of Atlantic City exceed 85 °F (29 °C) in July. Near the coast, temperatures reach or exceed 90 °F (32 °C) on an average of only 6.8 days a year, but this reaches 21 days at nearby Atlantic City Int'l.[a] Winters are cool, with January averaging 35.5 °F (2 °C). Spring and autumn are erratic, although they are usually mild with low humidity. The average window for freezing temperatures is November 20 to March 25, allowing a growing season of 239 days. Extreme temperatures range from −9 °F (−23 °C) on February 9, 1934 to 104 °F (40 °C) on August 7, 1918.[b]
How many inches of precipitation does Atlantic City receive annually?
570680fe75f01819005e7bb8
40 inches
24
False
What is the average number of inches of snow received at the airport annually?
570680fe75f01819005e7bb9
16.5 inches
354
False
Atlantic City's lack of snowfall is due to its location in South Jersey and its proximaty to which body of water?
570680fe75f01819005e7bba
Atlantic Ocean
119
False
Atlantic City's lack of snowfall is due to its proximity to the Atlantic Ocean and its location where?
570680fe75f01819005e7bbb
South Jersey
154
False
Atlantic City is different from the northern and western parts of the state in the winter due to its tendency to receive which type of precipitation?
570680fe75f01819005e7bbc
rain
411
False
Annual precipitation is 40 inches (1,020 mm) which is fairly spread throughout the year. Owing to its proximity to the Atlantic Ocean and its location in South Jersey, Atlantic City receives less snow than a good portion of the rest of New Jersey. Even at the airport, where low temperatures are often much lower than along the coast, snow averages only 16.5 inches (41.9 cm) each winter. It is very common for rain to fall in Atlantic City while the northern and western parts of the state are receiving snow.
How many people were residing in Atlantic City during the 2010 United States Census?
570682cc52bb891400689a1c
39,558
45
False
How many housing units were in Atlantic City during the 2010 United States Census?
570682cc52bb891400689a1d
20,013
197
False
During the 2010 United States Census what percentage of Atlantic City's population was Hispanic or Latino?
570682cc52bb891400689a1e
30.45%
573
False
During the 2010 United States Census what percentage of Atlantic City's population was White?
570682cc52bb891400689a1f
26.65%
314
False
How many families were residing in Atlantic City during the 2010 United States Census?
570682cc52bb891400689a20
8,558
83
False
At the 2010 United States Census, there were 39,558 people, 15,504 households, and 8,558 families residing in the city. The population density was 3,680.8 per square mile (1,421.2/km2). There were 20,013 housing units at an average density of 1,862.2 per square mile (719.0/km2). The racial makeup of the city was 26.65% (10,543) White, 38.29% (15,148) Black or African American, 0.61% (242) Native American, 15.55% (6,153) Asian, 0.05% (18) Pacific Islander, 14.03% (5,549) from other races, and 4.82% (1,905) from two or more races. Hispanics or Latinos of any race were 30.45% (12,044) of the population.
How many households were there in Atlantic City during the 2010 United States Census?
5706845d52bb891400689a26
15,504
11
False
What percentage of households in Atlantic City had children under the age of 18 living with them?
5706845d52bb891400689a27
27.3%
39
False
What percentage of households in Atlantic City were comprised of non-families?
5706845d52bb891400689a28
44.8%
200
False
What percentage of households in Atlantic City were made up of individuals?
5706845d52bb891400689a29
37.5%
225
False
There were 15,504 households, of which 27.3% had children under the age of 18 living with them, 25.9% were married couples living together, 22.2% had a female householder with no husband present, and 44.8% were non-families. 37.5% of all households were made up of individuals, and 14.3% had someone living alone who was 65 years of age or older. The average household size was 2.50 and the average family size was 3.34.
What percentage of the population was under the age of 18?
5706b8bd0eeca41400aa0da9
24.6%
13
False
What percentage of the population was 65 years of age or older?
5706b8bd0eeca41400aa0daa
12.7%
130
False
What was the median age?
5706b8bd0eeca41400aa0dab
36.3 years
190
False
In the city, 24.6% of the population were under the age of 18, 10.2% from 18 to 24, 26.8% from 25 to 44, 25.8% from 45 to 64, and 12.7% who were 65 years of age or older. The median age was 36.3 years. For every 100 females there were 96.2 males. For every 100 females age 18 and over, there were 94.4 males.
How much was the median household income according to the American Community Survey?
5706ba0c2eaba6190074ac8e
$30,237
133
False
How much was the median family income according to the American Community Survey?
5706ba0c2eaba6190074ac8f
$35,488
213
False
How much was the median income for males according to the American Community Survey?
5706ba0c2eaba6190074ac90
$32,207
264
False
What percentage of the population was below the poverty line?
5706ba0c2eaba6190074ac92
25.3%
415
False
The Census Bureau's 2006–2010 American Community Survey showed that (in 2010 inflation-adjusted dollars) median household income was $30,237 (with a margin of error of +/- $2,354) and the median family income was $35,488 (+/- $2,607). Males had a median income of $32,207 (+/- $1,641) versus $29,298 (+/- $1,380) for females. The per capita income for the city was $20,069 (+/- $2,532). About 23.1% of families and 25.3% of the population were below the poverty line, including 36.6% of those under age 18 and 16.8% of those age 65 or over.
According to the 2000 United States Census, how many people were living in Atlantic City?
5706bb542eaba6190074acaa
40,517
47
False
According to the 2000 United States Census, what was the population density?
5706bb542eaba6190074acab
3,569.8 people per square mile
149
False
According to the 2000 United States Census, how many housing units were there in Atlantic City?
5706bb542eaba6190074acac
20,219
206
False
According to the 2000 United States Census, what percentage of the population of Atlantic City were Hispanic or Latino?
5706bb542eaba6190074acad
24.95%
486
False
According to the 2000 United States Census, what percentage of the population of Atlantic City were white?
5706bb542eaba6190074acae
26.68%
357
False
As of the 2000 United States Census there were 40,517 people, 15,848 households, and 8,700 families residing in the city. The population density was 3,569.8 people per square mile (1,378.3/km2). There were 20,219 housing units at an average density of 1,781.4 per square mile (687.8/km2). The racial makeup of the city was 44.16% black or African American, 26.68% White, 0.48% Native American, 10.40% Asian, 0.06% Pacific Islander, 13.76% other races, and 4.47% from two or more races. 24.95% of the population were Hispanic or Latino of any race. 19.44% of the population was non-Hispanic whites.
How many households had children under the age of 18 living with them?
5706bc1f2eaba6190074acd2
27.7%
42
False
How many households were there in Atlantic City?
5706bc1f2eaba6190074acd3
15,848
11
False
How many households were made up of individuals?
5706bc1f2eaba6190074acd4
37.2%
228
False
What was the average household size in Atlantic City?
5706bc1f2eaba6190074acd5
2.46
380
False
What was the average family size in Atlantic City?
5706bc1f2eaba6190074acd6
3.26
417
False
There were 15,848 households out of which 27.7% had children under the age of 18 living with them, 24.8% were married couples living together, 23.2% had a female householder with no husband present, and 45.1% were non-families. 37.2% of all households were made up of individuals and 15.4% had someone living alone who was 65 years of age or older. The average household size was 2.46 and the average family size was 3.26.
What was the median age of Atlantic City?
5706bd3e0eeca41400aa0dd3
35 years
200
False
For every 100 females, how many males were there?
5706bd3e0eeca41400aa0dd4
96.1
243
False
For every 100 females age 18 and over, how many males were there?
5706bd3e0eeca41400aa0dd5
93.2
305
False
What percentage of the population of Atlantic City was under the age of 18?
5706bd3e0eeca41400aa0dd6
25.7%
47
False
What percentage of the population of Atlantic City was 65 years of age or older?
5706bd3e0eeca41400aa0dd7
14.2%
140
False
In the city the population was spread out with 25.7% under the age of 18, 8.9% from 18 to 24, 31.0% from 25 to 44, 20.2% from 45 to 64, and 14.2% who were 65 years of age or older. The median age was 35 years. For every 100 females there were 96.1 males. For every 100 females age 18 and over, there were 93.2 males.
What was the median income for a household in the city?
5706be1e0eeca41400aa0de7
$26,969
50
False
What was the median income for a family in the city?
5706be1e0eeca41400aa0de8
$31,997
98
False
What was the per capita income for the city?
5706be1e0eeca41400aa0de9
$15,402
211
False
What percentage of families in the city were living below the poverty line?
5706be1e0eeca41400aa0dea
19.1%
226
False
What percentage of the population in the city were living below the poverty line?
5706be1e0eeca41400aa0deb
23.6%
248
False
The median income for a household in the city was $26,969, and the median income for a family was $31,997. Males had a median income of $25,471 versus $23,863 for females. The per capita income for the city was $15,402. About 19.1% of families and 23.6% of the population were below the poverty line, including 29.1% of those under age 18 and 18.9% of those age 65 or over.
As of September 2014, the greater Atlantic City area had one of the highest rates in the country of what?
5706bf590eeca41400aa0dfb
unemployment
76
False
What was the unemployment rate for the greater Atlantic City area, as of September 2014?
5706bf590eeca41400aa0dfc
13.8%
113
False
As of September 2014, what was the overall size of the labor force of the greater Atlantic City area?
5706bf590eeca41400aa0dfd
141,000
149
False
Out of a labor force of about 141,000 what was the unemployment rate?
5706bf590eeca41400aa0dfe
13.8%
113
False
As of September 2014, the greater Atlantic City area has one of the highest unemployment rates in the country at 13.8%, out of labor force of around 141,000.
In 2010, who stated that a state takeover of the city and local government of Atlantic City was imminent?
5706c2b22eaba6190074acee
Governor Chris Christie
14
False
What item were the regulations in Atlantic City compared to?
5706c2b22eaba6190074acef
antique car
165
False
What was the name of the district that would encompass the boardwalk casinos, the marina casinos, the Atlantic City Outlets, and Bader Field?
5706c2b22eaba6190074acf0
Atlantic City Tourism District
532
False
According to a poll, what percentage of New Jersey voters opposed the takeover of Atlantic City by the state?
5706c2b22eaba6190074acf1
43%
830
False
According to a poll, what percentage of New Jersey voters favored the takeover of Atlantic City by the state?
5706c2b22eaba6190074acf2
29%
860
False
In July 2010, Governor Chris Christie announced that a state takeover of the city and local government "was imminent". Comparing regulations in Atlantic City to an "antique car", Atlantic City regulatory reform is a key piece of Gov. Chris Christie's plan, unveiled on July 22, to reinvigorate an industry mired in a four-year slump in revenue and hammered by fresh competition from casinos in the surrounding states of Delaware, Pennsylvania, Connecticut, and more recently, Maryland. In January 2011, Chris Christie announced the Atlantic City Tourism District, a state-run district encompassing the boardwalk casinos, the marina casinos, the Atlantic City Outlets, and Bader Field. Fairleigh Dickinson University's PublicMind poll surveyed New Jersey voters' attitudes on the takeover. The February 16, 2011 survey showed that 43% opposed the measure while 29% favored direct state oversight. Interestingly, the poll also found that even South Jersey voters expressed opposition to the plan; 40% reported they opposed the measure and 37% reported they were in favor of it.
What year were the boundaries for the state-run tourism district finally set?
5706c3fa2eaba6190074acf8
2011
13
False
What were the three major things that the district would include?
5706c3fa2eaba6190074acf9
The district would include heavier police presence, as well as beautification and infrastructure improvements
79
False
Who would oversee all functions of the new district?
5706c3fa2eaba6190074acfa
The CRDA
190
False
Who would make the changes within the district to attract new businesses and attractions?
5706c3fa2eaba6190074acfb
The CRDA
190
False
What two qualities were mentioned in regards to new construction?
5706c3fa2eaba6190074acfc
would be ambitious and may resort to eminent domain
325
False
On April 29, 2011, the boundaries for the state-run tourism district were set. The district would include heavier police presence, as well as beautification and infrastructure improvements. The CRDA would oversee all functions of the district and will make changes to attract new businesses and attractions. New construction would be ambitious and may resort to eminent domain.
How many roadways will be included in the district?
5706d3592eaba6190074ad1c
10
172
False
What place is home to the Atlantic City Aquarium?
5706d3592eaba6190074ad1d
Gardner's Basin
275
False
What place was originally left off of the tourism district?
5706d3592eaba6190074ad1e
Gardner's Basin
275
False
Where was the residential neighborhood that was removed from the final boundaries of the district?
5706d3592eaba6190074ad1f
Chelsea
425
False
Who cast the lone "no" vote on the creation of the district citing Bader Field's inclusion?
5706d3592eaba6190074ad20
mayor Lorenzo Langford
616
False
The tourism district would comprise several key areas in the city; the Marina District, Ducktown, Chelsea, South Inlet, Bader Field, and Gardner's Basin. Also included are 10 roadways that lead into the district, including several in the city's northern end, or North Beach. Gardner's Basin, which is home to the Atlantic City Aquarium, was initially left out of the tourism district, while a residential neighborhood in the Chelsea section was removed from the final boundaries, owing to complaints from the city. Also, the inclusion of Bader Field in the district was controversial and received much scrutiny from mayor Lorenzo Langford, who cast the lone "no" vote on the creation of the district citing its inclusion.
What is Atlantic City known for?
5706d4f80eeca41400aa0e5f
Gambling Capital of the East Coast
36
False
How many large casinos are located in Atlantic City?
5706d4f80eeca41400aa0e60
eight
91
False
Approximately how many people did New Jersey casinos employ in 2011?
5706d4f80eeca41400aa0e61
33,000
190
False
Approximately how many people visited New Jersey's casinos in 2011?
5706d4f80eeca41400aa0e62
28.5 million
212
False
What two entities regulate New Jersey's casino?
5706d4f80eeca41400aa0e63
New Jersey Casino Control Commission and the New Jersey Division of Gaming Enforcement
330
False
Atlantic City is considered as the "Gambling Capital of the East Coast," and currently has eight large casinos and several smaller ones. In 2011, New Jersey's casinos employed approximately 33,000 employees, had 28.5 million visitors, made $3.3 billion in gaming revenue, and paid $278 million in taxes. They are regulated by the New Jersey Casino Control Commission and the New Jersey Division of Gaming Enforcement.
How many casino closures took place in Atlantic City in 2014?
5706d70e2eaba6190074ad26
four
175
False
What was the name of the poorest performing casino in the city that ultimately closed in 2014?
5706d70e2eaba6190074ad27
Trump Plaza
355
False
What year did Trump Plaza originally open?
5706d70e2eaba6190074ad28
1984
395
False
What was the name of Atlantic City's second-newest casino that ultimately closed in 2014?
5706d70e2eaba6190074ad29
Revel
280
False
What was the name of the first casino to close in 2014?
5706d70e2eaba6190074ad2a
Atlantic Club
220
False
In the wake of the United States' economic downturn and the legalization of gambling in adjacent and nearby states (including Delaware, Maryland, New York, and Pennsylvania), four casino closures took place in 2014: the Atlantic Club on January 13; the Showboat on August 31; the Revel, which was Atlantic City's second-newest casino, on September 2; and Trump Plaza, which originally opened in 1984, and was the poorest performing casino in the city, on September 16.
What is the sole remaining property owned by Trump Entertainment Group?
5706d85a2eaba6190074ad36
Trump Taj Mahal
85
False
What did Trump Entertainment Group say they were considering doing with the Trump Taj Mahal?
5706d85a2eaba6190074ad37
selling
156
False
In what year did executives at Trump Entertainment Group say they were considering selling the Taj?
5706d85a2eaba6190074ad38
2013
110
False
Why did executives say they were considering selling the Taj?
5706d85a2eaba6190074ad39
winding down and exiting the gaming and hotel business
176
False
Who spoke for the Trump Entertainment Group in regards to the Taj and what might be done in the future?
5706d85a2eaba6190074ad3a
Executives
0
False
Executives at Trump Entertainment Resorts, whose sole remaining property will be the Trump Taj Mahal, said in 2013 that they were considering the option of selling the Taj and winding down and exiting the gaming and hotel business.
How many remaining properties belong to Caesars Entertainment?
5706d97a2eaba6190074ad40
three
77
False
What are the names of the three remaining Caesars Entertainment properties?
5706d97a2eaba6190074ad41
Bally's, Caesars and Harrah's
119
False
What type of bankruptcy did Caesars Entertainment file for?
5706d97a2eaba6190074ad42
Chapter 11
168
False
What year did Caesars Entertainment file for bankruptcy?
5706d97a2eaba6190074ad43
2015
247
False
Which unit of Caesars Entertainment filed for bankruptcy in 2015?
5706d97a2eaba6190074ad44
casino operating unit
214
False
Caesars Entertainment executives have been reconsidering the future of their three remaining Atlantic City properties (Bally's, Caesars and Harrah's), in the wake of a Chapter 11 bankruptcy filing by the company's casino operating unit in January 2015.
What was Boardwalk Hall formerly known as?
5706de729e06ca38007e91cd
Historic Atlantic City Convention Hall
39
False
What is the Boardwalk Hall?
5706de729e06ca38007e91ce
an arena
83
False
In what year did the newer Atlantic City Convention Center open?
5706de729e06ca38007e91cf
1997
251
False
How many sq ft of showroom space is included in the Atlantic City Convention Center?
5706de729e06ca38007e91d0
500,000 sq ft
302
False
What hotel is adjacent to the Atlantic City Convention Center?
5706de729e06ca38007e91d1
Sheraton hotel
474
False
Boardwalk Hall, formally known as the "Historic Atlantic City Convention Hall", is an arena in Atlantic City along the boardwalk. Boardwalk Hall was Atlantic City's primary convention center until the opening of the Atlantic City Convention Center in 1997. The Atlantic City Convention Center includes 500,000 sq ft (46,000 m2) of showroom space, 5 exhibit halls, 45 meeting rooms with 109,000 sq ft (10,100 m2) of space, a garage with 1,400 parking spaces, and an adjacent Sheraton hotel. Both the Boardwalk Hall and Convention Center are operated by the Atlantic City Convention & Visitors Authority.
What is Atlantic City sometimes referred to?
5706df8f90286e26004fc71d
Monopoly City
41
False
The names of many properties near Atlantic City are used in which popular board game?
5706df8f90286e26004fc71e
Monopoly
159
False
Who learned the game of Monopoly and took it to Atlantic City?
5706df8f90286e26004fc71f
Ruth Hoskins
357
False
What location was originally featured in the  Monopoly game?
5706df8f90286e26004fc720
Indianapolis
339
False
Who did Ruth Hoskins teach the game of Monopoly to?
5706df8f90286e26004fc721
a group of local Quakers
517
False
Atlantic City (sometimes referred to as "Monopoly City") has become well-known over the years for its portrayal in the U.S. version of the popular board game, Monopoly, in which properties on the board are named after locations in and near Atlantic City. While the original incarnation of the game did not feature Atlantic City, it was in Indianapolis that Ruth Hoskins learned the game, and took it back to Atlantic City. After she arrived, Hoskins made a new board with Atlantic City street names, and taught it to a group of local Quakers.
What popular property in Monopoly was actually a misspelling?
5706e5579e06ca38007e91fb
Marvin Gardens
0
False
What is the name of the original property that Marvin Gardens takes its name from?
5706e5579e06ca38007e91fc
Marven Gardens
122
False
Whose game did Parker Brothers model the board game after?
5706e5579e06ca38007e91fd
Charles Darrow
266
False
In what year did Parker Brothers acknowledge and apologize for a spelling error in the game?
5706e5579e06ca38007e91fe
1995
326
False
Who copied Charles Todd's Monopoly board?
5706e5579e06ca38007e91ff
Charles Darrow
266
False
Marvin Gardens, the leading yellow property on the board shown, is actually a misspelling of the original location name, "Marven Gardens". The misspelling was said to have been introduced by Charles Todd and passed on when his home-made Monopoly board was copied by Charles Darrow and thence Parker Brothers. It was not until 1995 that Parker Brothers acknowledged this mistake and formally apologized to the residents of Marven Gardens for the misspelling although the spelling error was not corrected.
Immunology
In general, what does immunology study?
57060dce52bb891400689816
immune systems in all organisms
70
False
Immunology studies the functioning of the immune system in which two states of being?
57060dce52bb891400689817
both health and diseases
208
False
Name three types of immunological disorders?
57060dce52bb891400689818
autoimmune diseases, hypersensitivities, immune deficiency, and transplant rejection
304
False
Immunology studies the immune system in which three stages of existence?
57060dce52bb891400689819
in vitro, in situ, and in vivo
487
False
What disciplines in medicine have particularly strong immunology applications?
57060dce52bb89140068981a
organ transplantation, oncology, virology, bacteriology, parasitology, psychiatry, and dermatology
614
False
Immunology is a branch of biomedical science that covers the study of immune systems in all organisms. It charts, measures, and contextualizes the: physiological functioning of the immune system in states of both health and diseases; malfunctions of the immune system in immunological disorders (such as autoimmune diseases, hypersensitivities, immune deficiency, and transplant rejection); the physical, chemical and physiological characteristics of the components of the immune system in vitro, in situ, and in vivo. Immunology has applications in numerous disciplines of medicine, particularly in the fields of organ transplantation, oncology, virology, bacteriology, parasitology, psychiatry, and dermatology.
The term immunology is derived from a Latin word that means what?
57061a3352bb8914006898a4
exempt
93
False
What are the major organs of the immune system?
57061a3352bb8914006898a5
thymus and bone marrow, and chief lymphatic tissues such as spleen, tonsils, lymph vessels, lymph nodes, adenoids, and liver
272
False
Who originally discovered these parts of the immune system?
57061a3352bb8914006898a6
early physicians
102
False
How do physicians study a patient's immune system organs in emergency situations?
57061a3352bb8914006898a7
surgically excised for examination while patients are still alive
572
False
Which portions of the immune system can be safely removed in these emergency cases?
57061a3352bb8914006898a8
thymus, spleen, bone marrow, lymph nodes and other lymphatic tissues
496
False
Prior to the designation of immunity from the etymological root immunis, which is Latin for "exempt"; early physicians characterized organs that would later be proven as essential components of the immune system. The important lymphoid organs of the immune system are the thymus and bone marrow, and chief lymphatic tissues such as spleen, tonsils, lymph vessels, lymph nodes, adenoids, and liver. When health conditions worsen to emergency status, portions of immune system organs including the thymus, spleen, bone marrow, lymph nodes and other lymphatic tissues can be surgically excised for examination while patients are still alive.
The structure of immune system components can be described as what?
57061c5c52bb8914006898b8
typically cellular in nature
41
False
Are immune tissues typically fixed with specific organs usually?
57061c5c52bb8914006898b9
not associated with any specific organ
74
False
What is one way the cellular structures of the immune system are housed in the body?
57061c5c52bb8914006898ba
embedded
129
False
What is another way these tissues are housed within the body?
57061c5c52bb8914006898bb
circulating
141
False
Many components of the immune system are typically cellular in nature and not associated with any specific organ; but rather are embedded or circulating in various tissues located throughout the body.
Which two fields of study are associated with immunology?
57061fb875f01819005e79c0
epidemiology and medicine
48
False
Immunology studies how which three areas impact one another?
57061fb875f01819005e79c1
the body systems, pathogens, and immunity
111
False
When was the first written mention of immunity as it pertains to the body?
57061fb875f01819005e79c2
430 BCE
241
False
Which Greek historian made that notation?
57061fb875f01819005e79c3
Thucydides
250
False
When did immunology start to become codified as a scientific theory?
57061fb875f01819005e79c4
19th and 20th centuries
491
False
Classical immunology ties in with the fields of epidemiology and medicine. It studies the relationship between the body systems, pathogens, and immunity. The earliest written mention of immunity can be traced back to the plague of Athens in 430 BCE. Thucydides noted that people who had recovered from a previous bout of the disease could nurse the sick without contracting the illness a second time. Many other ancient societies have references to this phenomenon, but it was not until the 19th and 20th centuries before the concept developed into scientific theory.
What is the basic, primitive part of the immune system known as?
5706265075f01819005e79f6
innate immune system
221
False
Vertebrates also have what type of immune system component?
5706265075f01819005e79f7
acquired or adaptive immune system
266
False
What is one type of adaptive immune system component?
5706265075f01819005e79f8
humoral (or antibody)
337
False
Name the other type of adaptive immune system component?
5706265075f01819005e79f9
cell-mediated
363
False
The total immune system is generally composed of what types of structures?
5706265075f01819005e79fa
molecular and cellular components
17
False
The study of the molecular and cellular components that comprise the immune system, including their function and interaction, is the central science of immunology. The immune system has been divided into a more primitive innate immune system and, in vertebrates, an acquired or adaptive immune system. The latter is further divided into humoral (or antibody) and cell-mediated components.
Humoral immunology involves the interaction of what two elements?
57062eba75f01819005e7a3c
antibodies and antigens
70
False
What are antibodies comprised of?
57062eba75f01819005e7a3d
specific proteins
110
False
What cells produce antibodies?
57062eba75f01819005e7a3e
B lymphocytes
183
False
The term "antigen" is rooted in what two words?
57062eba75f01819005e7a3f
"anti"body "gen"erators
280
False
Immunology is the study of what type of responses to antibodies and antigens?
57062eba75f01819005e7a40
cellular response
402
False
The humoral (antibody) response is defined as the interaction between antibodies and antigens. Antibodies are specific proteins released from a certain class of immune cells known as B lymphocytes, while antigens are defined as anything that elicits the generation of antibodies ("anti"body "gen"erators). Immunology rests on an understanding of the properties of these two biological entities and the cellular response to both.
In the field of immunology, what aspect is becoming more specialized?
570632d275f01819005e7a74
research
14
False
What new areas are immunologists studying with more frequency?
570632d275f01819005e7a75
non-classical models of immunity
70
False
The latest research into newer aspects of immunology is focused on what three elements of the body?
570632d275f01819005e7a76
cells, organs and systems
120
False
These three elements of the body are of new interest for what reason?
570632d275f01819005e7a77
not previously associated with the immune system
146
False
Immunological research continues to become more specialized, pursuing non-classical models of immunity and functions of cells, organs and systems not previously associated with the immune system (Yemeserach 2010).
The study of diseases caused by immune system disorders is called?
5706a57852bb891400689b1a
Clinical immunology
0
False
What are three problems of the immune system studied by clinical immunology?
5706a57852bb891400689b1b
failure, aberrant action, and malignant growth
87
False
Where can these three elements occur in the immune system?
5706a57852bb891400689b1c
cellular elements
141
False
What else does clinical immunology concern itself with?
5706a57852bb891400689b1d
diseases of other systems
192
False
Why does clinical immunology extend to those areas?
5706a57852bb891400689b1e
immune reactions play a part in the pathology and clinical features
225
False
Clinical immunology is the study of diseases caused by disorders of the immune system (failure, aberrant action, and malignant growth of the cellular elements of the system). It also involves diseases of other systems, where immune reactions play a part in the pathology and clinical features.
What is a type of immune system disorder?
5706aa0a75f01819005e7ce6
hypersensitivities
46
False
What are some examples of hypersensitivities?
5706aa0a75f01819005e7ce7
asthma and other allergies
77
False
What characterizes a hypersensitivity?
5706aa0a75f01819005e7ce8
respond inappropriately to otherwise harmless compounds.
110
False
Other immune system disorders include various hypersensitivities (such as in asthma and other allergies) that respond inappropriately to otherwise harmless compounds.
What is the most famous immune system disease?
5706ac3452bb891400689b54
AIDS
69
False
What kind of disease is AIDS?
5706ac3452bb891400689b55
an immunodeficiency
75
False
Which types of cells are suppressed by AIDS?
5706ac3452bb891400689b56
CD4+ ("helper") T cells, dendritic cells and macrophages
131
False
What virus specifically suppresses those cells?
5706ac3452bb891400689b57
Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV)
195
False
The most well-known disease that affects the immune system itself is AIDS, an immunodeficiency characterized by the suppression of CD4+ ("helper") T cells, dendritic cells and macrophages by the Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV).
What are the four factors that determine how the body reacts to an antigen?
5706e1209e06ca38007e91d7
person's age, antigen type, maternal factors and the area
55
False
Why are newborns described as being physiologically immunodeficient?
5706e1209e06ca38007e91d8
both their innate and adaptive immunological responses are greatly suppressed
223
False
Newborns are particularly susceptible to infections caused by?
5706e1209e06ca38007e91d9
low virulence organisms like Staphylococcus and Pseudomonas
499
False
What activity is also greatly reduced in newborn infants?
5706e1209e06ca38007e91da
phagocytic
1110
False
Antigen cells in newborns are also struggle to do this?
5706e1209e06ca38007e91db
activate T cells
1331
False
The body’s capability to react to antigen depends on a person's age, antigen type, maternal factors and the area where the antigen is presented. Neonates are said to be in a state of physiological immunodeficiency, because both their innate and adaptive immunological responses are greatly suppressed. Once born, a child’s immune system responds favorably to protein antigens while not as well to glycoproteins and polysaccharides. In fact, many of the infections acquired by neonates are caused by low virulence organisms like Staphylococcus and Pseudomonas. In neonates, opsonic activity and the ability to activate the complement cascade is very limited. For example, the mean level of C3 in a newborn is approximately 65% of that found in the adult. Phagocytic activity is also greatly impaired in newborns. This is due to lower opsonic activity, as well as diminished up-regulation of integrin and selectin receptors, which limit the ability of neutrophils to interact with adhesion molecules in the endothelium. Their monocytes are slow and have a reduced ATP production, which also limits the newborn's phagocytic activity. Although, the number of total lymphocytes is significantly higher than in adults, the cellular and humoral immunity is also impaired. Antigen-presenting cells in newborns have a reduced capability to activate T cells. Also, T cells of a newborn proliferate poorly and produce very small amounts of cytokines like IL-2, IL-4, IL-5, IL-12, and IFN-g which limits their capacity to activate the humoral response as well as the phagocitic activity of macrophage. B cells develop early during gestation but are not fully active.
In babies, what is another element impacting immune response?
5706e36d9e06ca38007e91e1
Maternal factors
0
False
Newborns can acquire antibodies from the mother through what means?
5706e36d9e06ca38007e91e2
breast milk
246
False
For how long do these antibodies have an effect on infants?
5706e36d9e06ca38007e91e3
up to 18 months
323
False
At 6 to 9 months, an infant's immune system begins to respond to which proteins?
5706e36d9e06ca38007e91e4
glycoproteins
1004
False
The difference in responses in infant immune systems is the cause of what?
5706e36d9e06ca38007e91e5
distinct time frames found in vaccination schedules
1164
False
Maternal factors also play a role in the body’s immune response. At birth, most of the immunoglobulin present is maternal IgG. Because IgM, IgD, IgE and IgA don’t cross the placenta, they are almost undetectable at birth. Some IgA is provided by breast milk. These passively-acquired antibodies can protect the newborn for up to 18 months, but their response is usually short-lived and of low affinity. These antibodies can also produce a negative response. If a child is exposed to the antibody for a particular antigen before being exposed to the antigen itself then the child will produce a dampened response. Passively acquired maternal antibodies can suppress the antibody response to active immunization. Similarly the response of T-cells to vaccination differs in children compared to adults, and vaccines that induce Th1 responses in adults do not readily elicit these same responses in neonates. Between six to nine months after birth, a child’s immune system begins to respond more strongly to glycoproteins, but there is usually no marked improvement in their response to polysaccharides until they are at least one year old. This can be the reason for distinct time frames found in vaccination schedules.
What is the primary trigger for immunological changes in teens?
5706e5b49e06ca38007e9205
hormones
129
False
What specific hormone catalyzes these changes in females?
5706e5b49e06ca38007e9206
17-β-oestradiol (an oestrogen)
183
False
Which specific hormone precipitates the change in immunology in males?
5706e5b49e06ca38007e9207
testosterone
232
False
Adolescent immunological changes can also result in what?
5706e5b49e06ca38007e9208
increased risk in developing pubescent and post-pubescent autoimmunity
541
False
Evidence suggests that receptors on B cells may do what?
5706e5b49e06ca38007e9209
detect sex hormones in the system
700
False
During adolescence, the human body undergoes various physical, physiological and immunological changes triggered and mediated by hormones, of which the most significant in females is 17-β-oestradiol (an oestrogen) and, in males, is testosterone. Oestradiol usually begins to act around the age of 10 and testosterone some months later. There is evidence that these steroids act directly not only on the primary and secondary sexual characteristics but also have an effect on the development and regulation of the immune system, including an increased risk in developing pubescent and post-pubescent autoimmunity. There is also some evidence that cell surface receptors on B cells and macrophages may detect sex hormones in the system.
The routine practice of immunology can best be characterized as?
5706f5de90286e26004fc763
strongly experimental
14
False
What are two opposing theories of early 20th century immunology?
5706f5de90286e26004fc764
"cellular" and "humoral"
317
False
Cellular immunology expressed the theory that what cells caused immune responses?
5706f5de90286e26004fc765
phagocytes
488
False
Humoral immunology theorized that the origin of the immune system lay in what?
5706f5de90286e26004fc766
soluble components (molecules)
688
False
Rather than cells, in humoral immunology where did the molecules that cause immune response reside?
5706f5de90286e26004fc767
the organism’s “humors”
728
False
Immunology is strongly experimental in everyday practice but is also characterized by an ongoing theoretical attitude. Many theories have been suggested in immunology from the end of the nineteenth century up to the present time. The end of the 19th century and the beginning of the 20th century saw a battle between "cellular" and "humoral" theories of immunity. According to the cellular theory of immunity, represented in particular by Elie Metchnikoff, it was cells – more precisely, phagocytes – that were responsible for immune responses. In contrast, the humoral theory of immunity, held by Robert Koch and Emil von Behring, among others, stated that the active immune agents were soluble components (molecules) found in the organism’s “humors” rather than its cells.
What medical scientist first proposed the clonal selection theory of immunology?
5706f93b9e06ca38007e9267
Frank Burnet
18
False
What triggers an immune response according to CST?
5706f93b9e06ca38007e9268
self/nonself distinction
239
False
In CST, what triggers a destructive immune response?
5706f93b9e06ca38007e9269
"nonself" entities (e.g., pathogens, an allograft)
363
False
What property of T cells caused modification of CST?
5706f93b9e06ca38007e926a
the complex "two-signal" activation
542
False
When was clonal selection theory first proposed?
5706f93b9e06ca38007e926b
In the mid-1950s
0
False
In the mid-1950s, Frank Burnet, inspired by a suggestion made by Niels Jerne, formulated the clonal selection theory (CST) of immunity. On the basis of CST, Burnet developed a theory of how an immune response is triggered according to the self/nonself distinction: "self" constituents (constituents of the body) do not trigger destructive immune responses, while "nonself" entities (e.g., pathogens, an allograft) trigger a destructive immune response. The theory was later modified to reflect new discoveries regarding histocompatibility or the complex "two-signal" activation of T cells. The self/nonself theory of immunity and the self/nonself vocabulary have been criticized, but remain very influential.
What discipline can undergraduate students interested in general health study?
5706facf9e06ca38007e927b
Bioscience
0
False
Immunology is a branch of what larger field of study?
5706facf9e06ca38007e927c
bioscience
148
False
The goal of an immunologist is to study what beings?
5706facf9e06ca38007e927d
humans and animals
319
False
The biggest part of an immunologist's job is what?
5706facf9e06ca38007e927e
research
454
False
What two conditions apply to good immunological study?
5706facf9e06ca38007e927f
effective yet consistent research
346
False
Bioscience is the overall major in which undergraduate students who are interested in general well-being take in college. Immunology is a branch of bioscience for undergraduate programs but the major gets specified as students move on for graduate program in immunology. The aim of immunology is to study the health of humans and animals through effective yet consistent research, (AAAAI, 2013). The most important thing about being immunologists is the research because it is the biggest portion of their jobs.
Most graduate schools specializing in immunology follow what organization's parameters?
5706fbf590286e26004fc7a5
AAI courses
44
False
What is the name of the immunology school at Mount Sinai?
5706fbf590286e26004fc7a6
Icahn School of Medicine
281
False
AAI immunology courses include what two components?
5706fbf590286e26004fc7a7
Introductory Course and an Advance Course
541
False
What does the introductory AAI immunology course do?
5706fbf590286e26004fc7a8
gives students an overview of the basics of immunology
625
False
The Langone Medical Center is part of what college?
5706fbf590286e26004fc7a9
New York University
322
False
Most graduate immunology schools follow the AAI courses immunology which are offered throughout numerous schools in the United States. For example, in New York State, there are several universities that offer the AAI courses immunology: Albany Medical College, Cornell University, Icahn School of Medicine at Mount Sinai, New York University Langone Medical Center, University at Albany (SUNY), University at Buffalo (SUNY), University of Rochester Medical Center and Upstate Medical University (SUNY). The AAI immunology courses include an Introductory Course and an Advance Course. The Introductory Course is a course that gives students an overview of the basics of immunology.
Part 1 of the AAI introductory immunology course is meant to be what?
5706fd4e90286e26004fc7af
an introduction to the basic principles of immunology
164
False
Part 2 of the AAI introductory immunology course revolves around what?
5706fd4e90286e26004fc7b0
clinically-oriented lecture series
235
False
What pre-requisite should enrollees in the advanced immunology course have?
5706fd4e90286e26004fc7b1
a background of the principles of immunology
483
False
How long does it typically take to earn a Master's degree?
5706fd4e90286e26004fc7b2
two years of study
640
False
What program requires an additional two years of study?
5706fd4e90286e26004fc7b3
a doctoral programme
712
False
In addition, this Introductory Course gives students more information to complement general biology or science training. It also has two different parts: Part I is an introduction to the basic principles of immunology and Part II is a clinically-oriented lecture series. On the other hand, the Advanced Course is another course for those who are willing to expand or update their understanding of immunology. It is advised for students who want to attend the Advanced Course to have a background of the principles of immunology. Most schools require students to take electives in other to complete their degrees. A Master’s degree requires two years of study following the attainment of a bachelor's degree. For a doctoral programme it is required to take two additional years of study.
MP3
What is the common name for MPEG-2 Audio Layer III?
570616a075f01819005e7970
MP3
63
False
What kind of audio is the coding format for?
570616a075f01819005e7971
digital
98
False
Other than storage, what is the common audio format used for?
570616a075f01819005e7972
consumer audio streaming
189
False
What does MP3 use to format it's data?
570616a075f01819005e7973
lossy data compression
133
False
Where will MP3 files most commonly be found?
570616a075f01819005e7974
digital audio players
333
False
MPEG-1 or MPEG-2 Audio Layer III, more commonly referred to as MP3, is an audio coding format for digital audio which uses a form of lossy data compression. It is a common audio format for consumer audio streaming or storage, as well as a de facto standard of digital audio compression for the transfer and playback of music on most digital audio players.
What is the main goal aside from reducing the amount of data required to store the audio?
57061a1e75f01819005e7984
sound like a faithful reproduction
130
False
What kind of compression is used?
57061a1e75f01819005e7985
created
345
False
If a file is created using 128 kbit/s, what size is the file going to be compared to a CD?
57061a1e75f01819005e7986
1/11
316
False
How many total bit/s would a CD have?
57061a1e75f01819005e7987
1,411,200
447
False
How many total bit/s would an MP3 compressed at 128 kbit/s have?
57061a1e75f01819005e7988
128,000
494
False
The use of lossy compression is designed to greatly reduce the amount of data required to represent the audio recording and still sound like a faithful reproduction of the original uncompressed audio for most listeners. An MP3 file that is created using the setting of 128 kbit/s will result in a file that is about 1/11 the size of the CD file created from the original audio source (44,100 samples per second × 16 bits per sample × 2 channels = 1,411,200 bit/s; MP3 compressed at 128 kbit/s: 128,000 bit/s [1 k = 1,000, not 1024, because it is a bit rate]. Ratio: 1,411,200/128,000 = 11.025). An MP3 file can also be constructed at higher or lower bit rates, with higher or lower resulting quality.
What does the compression target in the song?
57061b0f75f01819005e798e
accuracy
38
False
The targetting focuses on what aspect that is beyond the ability of most people?
57061b0f75f01819005e798f
auditory resolution
112
False
What is this method commonly referred to as?
57061b0f75f01819005e7990
perceptual coding
195
False
What kind of model is used in this kind of compression?
57061b0f75f01819005e7991
psychoacoustic
222
False
These models ensure that the precision is reduced for the components that are what to human hearing?
57061b0f75f01819005e7992
less audible
289
False
The compression works by reducing the accuracy of certain parts of a sound that are considered to be beyond the auditory resolution ability of most people. This method is commonly referred to as perceptual coding. It uses psychoacoustic models to discard or reduce precision of components less audible to human hearing, and then records the remaining information in an efficient manner.
Who designed MP3?
57061bc675f01819005e7998
Moving Picture Experts Group
24
False
What was the first standard that this group had?
57061bc675f01819005e7999
MPEG-1
75
False
The first standard later developed into which standard?
57061bc675f01819005e799a
MPEG-2
117
False
When was the draft passed to have MPEG-1 Audio approved as a standard?
57061bc675f01819005e799b
1991
433
False
When was MPEG-2 Audio finally published?
57061bc675f01819005e799c
1995
613
False
MP3 was designed by the Moving Picture Experts Group (MPEG) as part of its MPEG-1 standard and later extended in the MPEG-2 standard. The first subgroup for audio was formed by several teams of engineers at Fraunhofer IIS, University of Hannover, AT&T-Bell Labs, Thomson-Brandt, CCETT, and others. MPEG-1 Audio (MPEG-1 Part 3), which included MPEG-1 Audio Layer I, II and III was approved as a committee draft of ISO/IEC standard in 1991, finalised in 1992 and published in 1993 (ISO/IEC 11172-3:1993). Backwards compatible MPEG-2 Audio (MPEG-2 Part 3) with additional bit rates and sample rates was published in 1995 (ISO/IEC 13818-3:1995).
What does the MP3 compression take advantage of?
57061d0c75f01819005e79a2
perceptual limitation
68
False
What is the limitation in human hearing referred to as?
57061d0c75f01819005e79a3
auditory masking
114
False
Who was the physicist to report that a tone could be rendered inaudible.
57061d0c75f01819005e79a4
Alfred M. Mayer
164
False
When were audio curves described by Richard Ehmer?
57061d0c75f01819005e79a5
1959
268
False
The initial work was aimed at determining critical ratios and what else?
57061d0c75f01819005e79a6
critical bandwidths
590
False
The MP3 lossy audio data compression algorithm takes advantage of a perceptual limitation of human hearing called auditory masking. In 1894, the American physicist Alfred M. Mayer reported that a tone could be rendered inaudible by another tone of lower frequency. In 1959, Richard Ehmer described a complete set of auditory curves regarding this phenomenon. Ernst Terhardt et al. created an algorithm describing auditory masking with high accuracy. This work added to a variety of reports from authors dating back to Fletcher, and to the work that initially determined critical ratios and critical bandwidths.
What was first proposed in 1979?
57061e0f52bb8914006898c0
The psychoacoustic masking codec
0
False
Which country were the researchers located in?
57061e0f52bb8914006898c1
United States
208
False
Who was the first to produce hardware for speech?
57061e0f52bb8914006898c2
Krasner
223
False
What does LPC stand for?
57061e0f52bb8914006898c3
linear predictive coding
755
False
What was reported in IEEE's Journal on Selected Areas in Communications?
57061e0f52bb8914006898c4
audio compression algorithms
1098
False
The psychoacoustic masking codec was first proposed in 1979, apparently independently, by Manfred R. Schroeder, et al. from Bell Telephone Laboratories, Inc. in Murray Hill, NJ, and M. A. Krasner both in the United States. Krasner was the first to publish and to produce hardware for speech (not usable as music bit compression), but the publication of his results as a relatively obscure Lincoln Laboratory Technical Report did not immediately influence the mainstream of psychoacoustic codec development. Manfred Schroeder was already a well-known and revered figure in the worldwide community of acoustical and electrical engineers, but his paper was not much noticed, since it described negative results due to the particular nature of speech and the linear predictive coding (LPC) gain present in speech. Both Krasner and Schroeder built upon the work performed by Eberhard F. Zwicker in the areas of tuning and masking of critical bands, that in turn built on the fundamental research in the area from Bell Labs of Harvey Fletcher and his collaborators. A wide variety of (mostly perceptual) audio compression algorithms were reported in IEEE's refereed Journal on Selected Areas in Communications. That journal reported in February 1988 on a wide range of established, working audio bit compression technologies, some of them using auditory masking as part of their fundamental design, and several showing real-time hardware implementations.
What does OCF stand for?
57061edc75f01819005e79ac
Optimum Coding in the Frequency Domain
40
False
What does PXFM stand for?
57061edc75f01819005e79ad
Perceptual Transform Coding
91
False
What was the name of the codec that OCF, PFXM and other contributes merged into?
57061edc75f01819005e79ae
ASPEC
239
False
Which competition did ASPEC win?
57061edc75f01819005e79af
quality
293
False
What was the first practical implementation based on?
57061edc75f01819005e79b0
Motorola 56000 DSP chips
593
False
The immediate predecessors of MP3 were "Optimum Coding in the Frequency Domain" (OCF), and Perceptual Transform Coding (PXFM). These two codecs, along with block-switching contributions from Thomson-Brandt, were merged into a codec called ASPEC, which was submitted to MPEG, and which won the quality competition, but that was mistakenly rejected as too complex to implement. The first practical implementation of an audio perceptual coder (OCF) in hardware (Krasner's hardware was too cumbersome and slow for practical use), was an implementation of a psychoacoustic transform coder based on Motorola 56000 DSP chips.
What kind of student was Karlheinz Brandenburg?
57061f8275f01819005e79b6
doctoral
5
False
When did Karlheinz start working on digitmal music compression?
57061f8275f01819005e79b7
early 1980s
141
False
Where did Bradenburg become an assistant professor at?
57061f8275f01819005e79b8
Erlangen-Nuremberg
635
False
Who did Brandenburg work with in music compression?
57061f8275f01819005e79b9
Fraunhofer Society
733
False
When did Brandenburg join the Fraunhofen Institute?
57061f8275f01819005e79ba
1993
756
False
As a doctoral student at Germany's University of Erlangen-Nuremberg, Karlheinz Brandenburg began working on digital music compression in the early 1980s, focusing on how people perceive music. He completed his doctoral work in 1989. MP3 is directly descended from OCF and PXFM, representing the outcome of the collaboration of Brandenburg—working as a postdoc at AT&T-Bell Labs with James D. Johnston ("JJ") of AT&T-Bell Labs—with the Fraunhofer Institut for Integrated Circuits, Erlangen, with relatively minor contributions from the MP2 branch of psychoacoustic sub-band coders. In 1990, Brandenburg became an assistant professor at Erlangen-Nuremberg. While there, he continued to work on music compression with scientists at the Fraunhofer Society (in 1993 he joined the staff of the Fraunhofer Institute).
What was the name of the first song used to develop the MP3?
5706202975f01819005e79ca
Tom's Diner
10
False
Who was the artist of the first song used?
5706202975f01819005e79cb
Suzanne Vega
26
False
Who adjusted the song?
5706202975f01819005e79cc
Karlheinz Brandenburg
66
False
The song was listened to multiple times to try and refine what?
5706202975f01819005e79cd
scheme
214
False
What particular aspect of the artists voice was he trying to preserve?
5706202975f01819005e79ce
subtlety
266
False
The song "Tom's Diner" by Suzanne Vega was the first song used by Karlheinz Brandenburg to develop the MP3. Brandenburg adopted the song for testing purposes, listening to it again and again each time refining the scheme, making sure it did not adversely affect the subtlety of Vega's voice.
How many proposals were available in 1991?
5706219a52bb8914006898d8
two
25
False
Other than ASPEC what was another proposal?
5706219a52bb8914006898d9
Musicam
111
False
The Musicam format was proposed by Philips, based in which country?
5706219a52bb8914006898da
Netherlands
306
False
Which other quality alongside simplicty was key in selecting this proposal?
5706219a52bb8914006898db
error robustness
415
False
What was the Musican format based on?
5706219a52bb8914006898dc
sub-band coding
564
False
In 1991, there were only two proposals available that could be completely assessed for an MPEG audio standard: Musicam (Masking pattern adapted Universal Subband Integrated Coding And Multiplexing) and ASPEC (Adaptive Spectral Perceptual Entropy Coding). The Musicam technique, as proposed by Philips (the Netherlands), CCETT (France) and Institut für Rundfunktechnik (Germany) was chosen due to its simplicity and error robustness, as well as its low computational power associated with the encoding of high quality compressed audio. The Musicam format, based on sub-band coding, was the basis of the MPEG Audio compression format (sampling rates, structure of frames, headers, number of samples per frame).
What was only incorporated into Layer III and not Layers I or II?
5706233475f01819005e79de
filter bank
118
False
Who was the chair that oversaw the editing of the standard?
5706233475f01819005e79df
Professor Musmann
253
False
Who's responsibility was it to edit the standard for Layer I?
5706233475f01819005e79e0
Leon van de Kerkhof
363
False
Who's responsibility was it to edit the standard for Layer II?
5706233475f01819005e79e1
Gerhard Stoll
397
False
Much of its technology and ideas were incorporated into the definition of ISO MPEG Audio Layer I and Layer II and the filter bank alone into Layer III (MP3) format as part of the computationally inefficient hybrid filter bank. Under the chairmanship of Professor Musmann (University of Hannover) the editing of the standard was made under the responsibilities of Leon van de Kerkhof (Layer I) and Gerhard Stoll (Layer II).
What was the name given to the proposal?
570623ba75f01819005e79e6
ASPEC
0
False
What did the joint proposal provide?
570623ba75f01819005e79e7
the highest coding efficiency
127
False
Other than Thomson Consumer Electronics, Fraunhofer Society and CNET, who else was a part of the joint proposal?
570623ba75f01819005e79e8
AT&T Bell Laboratories
32
False
ASPEC was the joint proposal of AT&T Bell Laboratories, Thomson Consumer Electronics, Fraunhofer Society and CNET. It provided the highest coding efficiency.
What did the working group take ideas from?
570624f252bb8914006898f6
ASPEC
232
False
What did the working group integrate their ideas with?
570624f252bb8914006898f7
filter bank
254
False
Where was the filter bank taken from?
570624f252bb8914006898f8
Layer 2
271
False
What did the working group eventually create?
570624f252bb8914006898f9
MP3
322
False
What quality were they hoping to match at 128 kbit/s?
570624f252bb8914006898fa
MP2 at 192 kbit/s
391
False
A working group consisting of Leon van de Kerkhof (The Netherlands), Gerhard Stoll (Germany), Leonardo Chiariglione (Italy), Yves-François Dehery (France), Karlheinz Brandenburg (Germany) and James D. Johnston (USA) took ideas from ASPEC, integrated the filter bank from Layer 2, added some of their own ideas and created MP3, which was designed to achieve the same quality at 128 kbit/s as MP2 at 192 kbit/s.
When were the algorithms approved?
5706254b75f01819005e79ec
1991
69
False
When were the approved algorithms finalized?
5706254b75f01819005e79ed
1992
91
False
What was the first started suite by MPEG?
5706254b75f01819005e79ee
MPEG-1
107
False
What was the official name of the internation standard?
5706254b75f01819005e79ef
ISO/IEC 11172-3
194
False
When was the international standard published?
5706254b75f01819005e79f0
1993
263
False
All algorithms for MPEG-1 Audio Layer I, II and III were approved in 1991 and finalized in 1992 as part of MPEG-1, the first standard suite by MPEG, which resulted in the international standard ISO/IEC 11172-3 (a.k.a. MPEG-1 Audio or MPEG-1 Part 3), published in 1993.
Further work on MPEG was finalized as a part of which MPEG standard?
5706262d52bb891400689900
second suite
64
False
What was the official name of ISO/IEC 13818-3 better known as?
5706262d52bb891400689901
MPEG-2
96
False
At what rate were the new sampling rates defined in comparison to MPEG-1 Audio?
5706262d52bb891400689902
half
427
False
Apart from cutting the frequency fidelity in half, what else was cut in half?
5706262d52bb891400689903
bitrate
596
False
Allowing the coding of audio programs with more than two channels was a major aspect of what?
5706262d52bb891400689904
MPEG-2 Part 3
612
False
Further work on MPEG audio was finalized in 1994 as part of the second suite of MPEG standards, MPEG-2, more formally known as international standard ISO/IEC 13818-3 (a.k.a. MPEG-2 Part 3 or backwards compatible MPEG-2 Audio or MPEG-2 Audio BC), originally published in 1995. MPEG-2 Part 3 (ISO/IEC 13818-3) defined additional bit rates and sample rates for MPEG-1 Audio Layer I, II and III. The new sampling rates are exactly half that of those originally defined in MPEG-1 Audio. This reduction in sampling rate serves to cut the available frequency fidelity in half while likewise cutting the bitrate by 50%. MPEG-2 Part 3 also enhanced MPEG-1's audio by allowing the coding of audio programs with more than two channels, up to 5.1 multichannel.
As MPEG-3 had a different meaning, what was the name given to the extension of MPEG-2?
5706282e52bb89140068990a
MPEG-2.5 audio
43
False
Where was this extension developed?
5706282e52bb89140068990b
Fraunhofer IIS
134
False
The new sampling rates widened the scope of MP3 to be able to include what?
5706282e52bb89140068990c
human speech
328
False
What is not an ISO recognized standard?
5706282e52bb89140068990d
MPEG-2.5
473
False
As MPEG-2.5 is unofficial, it is considered what kind of extension to the MP3 format?
5706282e52bb89140068990e
proprietary
817
False
An additional extension to MPEG-2 is named MPEG-2.5 audio, as MPEG-3 already had a different meaning. This extension was developed at Fraunhofer IIS, the registered MP3 patent holders. Like MPEG-2, MPEG-2.5 adds new sampling rates exactly half of that previously possible with MPEG-2. It thus widens the scope of MP3 to include human speech and other applications requiring only 25% of the frequency reproduction possible with MPEG-1. While not an ISO recognized standard, MPEG-2.5 is widely supported by both inexpensive and brand name digital audio players as well as computer software based MP3 encoders and decoders. A sample rate comparison between MPEG-1, 2 and 2.5 is given further down. MPEG-2.5 was not developed by MPEG and was never approved as an international standard. MPEG-2.5 is thus an unofficial or proprietary extension to the MP3 format.
What defines the compression efficiency of encoders?
570629ba52bb891400689914
bit rate
63
False
Compression ratio depends on the sample rate and bit depth of which signal?
570629ba52bb891400689915
input
149
False
What does CD stand for?
570629ba52bb891400689916
Compact Disc
234
False
What can CD parameters be used as references for?
570629ba52bb891400689917
compression ratios
177
False
Other than CD parameters, what else can be used as parameter references?
570629ba52bb891400689918
Digital Audio Tape (DAT) SP
353
False
Compression efficiency of encoders is typically defined by the bit rate, because compression ratio depends on the bit depth and sampling rate of the input signal. Nevertheless, compression ratios are often published. They may use the Compact Disc (CD) parameters as references (44.1 kHz, 2 channels at 16 bits per channel or 2×16 bit), or sometimes the Digital Audio Tape (DAT) SP parameters (48 kHz, 2×16 bit). Compression ratios with this latter reference are higher, which demonstrates the problem with use of the term compression ratio for lossy encoders.
What type of recording did Brandenburg use?
57062a3a75f01819005e7a14
CD
29
False
What did Brandenburg use the recording to refine?
57062a3a75f01819005e7a15
the MP3 compression algorithm
100
False
What word describes the nature of the song used?
57062a3a75f01819005e7a16
monophonic
174
False
As a result of her song being used, Suzanne Vega is sometimes referred to as what?
57062a3a75f01819005e7a17
The mother of MP3
333
False
Excerpts were taken from which reference compact disc to assess the subjective quality of the MPEG audio formats?
57062a3a75f01819005e7a18
EBU V3/SQAM
811
False
Karlheinz Brandenburg used a CD recording of Suzanne Vega's song "Tom's Diner" to assess and refine the MP3 compression algorithm. This song was chosen because of its nearly monophonic nature and wide spectral content, making it easier to hear imperfections in the compression format during playbacks. Some refer to Suzanne Vega as "The mother of MP3". This particular track has an interesting property in that the two channels are almost, but not completely, the same, leading to a case where Binaural Masking Level Depression causes spatial unmasking of noise artifacts unless the encoder properly recognizes the situation and applies corrections similar to those detailed in the MPEG-2 AAC psychoacoustic model. Some more critical audio excerpts (glockenspiel, triangle, accordion, etc.) were taken from the EBU V3/SQAM reference compact disc and have been used by professional sound engineers to assess the subjective quality of the MPEG Audio formats.
Which language was the reference simulation software written in?
57062b6152bb89140068991e
C
63
False
Who developed the reference simulation software?
57062b6152bb89140068991f
the ISO MPEG Audio committee
153
False
When was the reference software approved?
57062b6152bb891400689920
March 1994
330
False
When did the reference software become an international standard?
57062b6152bb891400689921
1998
548
False
What could the reference software demonstrate?
57062b6152bb891400689922
real time hardware decoding
743
False
A reference simulation software implementation, written in the C language and later known as ISO 11172-5, was developed (in 1991–1996) by the members of the ISO MPEG Audio committee in order to produce bit compliant MPEG Audio files (Layer 1, Layer 2, Layer 3). It was approved as a committee draft of ISO/IEC technical report in March 1994 and printed as document CD 11172-5 in April 1994. It was approved as a draft technical report (DTR/DIS) in November 1994, finalized in 1996 and published as international standard ISO/IEC TR 11172-5:1998 in 1998. The reference software in C language was later published as a freely available ISO standard. Working in non-real time on a number of operating systems, it was able to demonstrate the first real time hardware decoding (DSP based) of compressed audio. Some other real time implementation of MPEG Audio encoders were available for the purpose of digital broadcasting (radio DAB, television DVB) towards consumer receivers and set top boxes.
When was the first software MP3 encoder released?
57062c2552bb891400689928
7 July 1994
3
False
What was the name of the first software MP3 encoder?
57062c2552bb891400689929
l3enc
86
False
What was the filename extension?
57062c2552bb89140068992a
.mp3
116
False
What was the name of the first real-time software MP3 player?
57062c2552bb89140068992b
WinPlay3
261
False
What was the average high end hard drive size?
57062c2552bb89140068992c
1000 MB
437
False
On 7 July 1994, the Fraunhofer Society released the first software MP3 encoder called l3enc. The filename extension .mp3 was chosen by the Fraunhofer team on 14 July 1995 (previously, the files had been named .bit). With the first real-time software MP3 player WinPlay3 (released 9 September 1995) many people were able to encode and play back MP3 files on their PCs. Because of the relatively small hard drives back in that time (~ 500–1000 MB) lossy compression was essential to store non-instrument based (see tracker and MIDI) music for playback on computer.
What was Jonathan Sterne's profession?
57062c9b52bb891400689932
sound scholar
3
False
Which nationality was the hacker who acquired I3enc?
57062c9b52bb891400689933
Australian
44
False
What did the hacker use to acquire the software?
57062c9b52bb891400689934
stolen credit card
85
False
The hacker re-wrote which element of the program?
57062c9b52bb891400689935
user interface
166
False
How much did the new released program by the hacker cost?
57062c9b52bb891400689936
free
207
False
As sound scholar Jonathan Sterne notes, "An Australian hacker acquired l3enc using a stolen credit card. The hacker then reverse-engineered the software, wrote a new user interface, and redistributed it for free, naming it "thank you Fraunhofer"".
Where did MP3s begin to spread?
57062dd675f01819005e7a32
the Internet
57
False
Which audio player was released in 1997?
57062dd675f01819005e7a33
Winamp
159
False
Who released the audio player?
57062dd675f01819005e7a34
Nullsoft
135
False
What was the name of the first portable solid state digital audio player?
57062dd675f01819005e7a35
MPMan
246
False
In which country was the first portable audio player developed?
57062dd675f01819005e7a36
South Korea
326
False
In the second half of '90s, MP3 files began to spread on the Internet. The popularity of MP3s began to rise rapidly with the advent of Nullsoft's audio player Winamp, released in 1997. In 1998, the first portable solid state digital audio player MPMan, developed by SaeHan Information Systems which is headquartered in Seoul, South Korea, was released and the Rio PMP300 was sold afterwards in 1998, despite legal suppression efforts by the RIAA.
Which website offered MP3s for free?
57062e7e52bb89140068993c
mp3.com
30
False
How many MP3s were offered for free by the website?
57062e7e52bb89140068993d
thousands
51
False
What kind of file sharing became popular due to the file sizes of MP3s?
57062e7e52bb89140068993e
peer-to-peer
157
False
How did people come into possession of MP3s?
57062e7e52bb89140068993f
ripped from CDs
192
False
Which network was the first large peer to peer file sharing network?
57062e7e52bb891400689940
Napster
311
False
In November 1997, the website mp3.com was offering thousands of MP3s created by independent artists for free. The small size of MP3 files enabled widespread peer-to-peer file sharing of music ripped from CDs, which would have previously been nearly impossible. The first large peer-to-peer filesharing network, Napster, was launched in 1999.
What kind of infringement resulted from sharing MP3s?
57062ef375f01819005e7a46
copyright
61
False
What name did the record companies associate with MP3 file sharing?
57062ef375f01819005e7a47
music piracy
177
False
Who was the target of the record companies?
57062ef375f01819005e7a48
Napster
234
False
What happened to Napster?
57062ef375f01819005e7a49
shut down and later sold
264
False
The ease of creating and sharing MP3s resulted in widespread copyright infringement. Major record companies argued that this free sharing of music reduced sales, and called it "music piracy". They reacted by pursuing lawsuits against Napster (which was eventually shut down and later sold) and against individual users who engaged in file sharing.
What kind of MP3 file sharing continues on?
57062f6975f01819005e7a58
Unauthorized
0
False
Beatport, Bleep and Juno records are examples of what kind of service?
57062f6975f01819005e7a59
authorized
87
False
What kind of music is sold by these companies?
57062f6975f01819005e7a5a
unrestricted
275
False
Which format is used by the companies that sell the music legally?
57062f6975f01819005e7a5b
MP3
301
False
Unauthorized MP3 file sharing continues on next-generation peer-to-peer networks. Some authorized services, such as Beatport, Bleep, Juno Records, eMusic, Zune Marketplace, Walmart.com, Rhapsody, the recording industry approved re-incarnation of Napster, and Amazon.com sell unrestricted music in the MP3 format.
A header and data block together make up what?
5706300775f01819005e7a60
MP3 frames
26
False
What is a sequence of MP3 frames called?
5706300775f01819005e7a61
elementary stream
119
False
What is used to identify the begining of a valid frame of an MP3 header?
5706300775f01819005e7a62
dard
550
False
How many bits are needed to indicate that layer 3 is used?
5706300775f01819005e7a63
two
559
False
MP3 files today contain what kind of metadeta?
5706300775f01819005e7a64
ID3
850
False
An MP3 file is made up of MP3 frames, which consist of a header and a data block. This sequence of frames is called an elementary stream. Due to the "byte reservoir", frames are not independent items and cannot usually be extracted on arbitrary frame boundaries. The MP3 Data blocks contain the (compressed) audio information in terms of frequencies and amplitudes. The diagram shows that the MP3 Header consists of a sync word, which is used to identify the beginning of a valid frame. This is followed by a bit indicating that this is the MPEG standard and two bits that indicate that layer 3 is used; hence MPEG-1 Audio Layer 3 or MP3. After this, the values will differ, depending on the MP3 file. ISO/IEC 11172-3 defines the range of values for each section of the header along with the specification of the header. Most MP3 files today contain ID3 metadata, which precedes or follows the MP3 frames, as noted in the diagram.
Which standard does not include a specification for an MP3 encoder?
5706315b52bb891400689950
MPEG-1
4
False
Example psychoacoustic models and rate loops can be foundin which part of the original standard?
5706315b52bb891400689951
non-normative
160
False
What were implementers of the standard supposed to devise?
5706315b52bb891400689952
their own algorithms
319
False
It is easy for a prospective user of an encoder to research the best choice because of what factor?
5706315b52bb891400689953
Comparisons are widely available
514
False
An encoder that is proficient at encoding at higher bit rates might be worse at what?
5706315b52bb891400689954
lower bit rates
735
False
The MPEG-1 standard does not include a precise specification for an MP3 encoder, but does provide example psychoacoustic models, rate loop, and the like in the non-normative part of the original standard. At present, these suggested implementations are quite dated. Implementers of the standard were supposed to devise their own algorithms suitable for removing parts of the information from the audio input. As a result, there are many different MP3 encoders available, each producing files of differing quality. Comparisons are widely available, so it is easy for a prospective user of an encoder to research the best choice. An encoder that is proficient at encoding at higher bit rates (such as LAME) is not necessarily as good at lower bit rates.
How many domain samples are taken during encoding?
5706324275f01819005e7a6a
576
17
False
Domain samples are transformed into what?
5706324275f01819005e7a6b
frequency-domain samples
78
False
When are 192 samples taken instead of 576?
5706324275f01819005e7a6c
there is a transient
129
False
When 192 samples are taken instead of 576, it is done in an effort to limit what?
5706324275f01819005e7a6d
temporal spread
215
False
What accompanies a transient?
5706324275f01819005e7a6e
quantization noise
234
False
During encoding, 576 time-domain samples are taken and are transformed to 576 frequency-domain samples.[clarification needed] If there is a transient, 192 samples are taken instead of 576. This is done to limit the temporal spread of quantization noise accompanying the transient. (See psychoacoustics.)
What kind of structure does a filter bank have?
5706336875f01819005e7a86
tree
11
False
Due to a specific kind of structure, what kind of problems are made worse?
5706336875f01819005e7a87
pre-echo problems
46
False
What kind of resolution are the filter banks unable to provide an optimal solution for?
5706336875f01819005e7a88
time/frequency
190
False
Combining two filter banks' outputs creates what kind of problem?
5706336875f01819005e7a89
aliasing
286
False
The need to code excess energy in the frequency domain decreases what kind of efficiency?
5706336875f01819005e7a8a
coding
465
False
Due to the tree structure of the filter bank, pre-echo problems are made worse, as the combined impulse response of the two filter banks does not, and cannot, provide an optimum solution in time/frequency resolution. Additionally, the combining of the two filter banks' outputs creates aliasing problems that must be handled partially by the "aliasing compensation" stage; however, that creates excess energy to be coded in the frequency domain, thereby decreasing coding efficiency.[citation needed]
What is carefully defined in the standard?
5706347875f01819005e7a90
Decoding
0
False
What are most decoders?
5706347875f01819005e7a91
bitstream compliant
86
False
The ISO/IEC high standard document states that the decompressed output produced from a given MP3 file will be the same within what standards?
5706347875f01819005e7a92
specified degree of rounding tolerance
216
False
Decoders are usually compared by examining which factor?
5706347875f01819005e7a93
computationally efficient
410
False
The efficiency of decoders is examined by seeing how much memory and what other process they use in the decoding process?
5706347875f01819005e7a94
CPU time
471
False
Decoding, on the other hand, is carefully defined in the standard. Most decoders are "bitstream compliant", which means that the decompressed output that they produce from a given MP3 file will be the same, within a specified degree of rounding tolerance, as the output specified mathematically in the ISO/IEC high standard document (ISO/IEC 11172-3). Therefore, comparison of decoders is usually based on how computationally efficient they are (i.e., how much memory or CPU time they use in the decoding process).
What is there no official provision for?
570634ea75f01819005e7a9a
gapless playback
95
False
What is an example of an encoder that can attach additional metadeta?
570634ea75f01819005e7a9b
LAME
144
False
Adding additional metadata allows players to handle gapless playback and deliver what?
570634ea75f01819005e7a9c
seamless playback
234
False
For encoders and decoders, what is not defined?
570634ea75f01819005e7a9d
overall delay
18
False
Encoder / decoder overall delay is not defined, which means there is no official provision for gapless playback. However, some encoders such as LAME can attach additional metadata that will allow players that can handle it to deliver seamless playback.
A typical trade off when creating an MP3 file is between the amount of space used and what other factor?
5706371452bb89140068996e
sound quality of the result
130
False
What would an example of lossy audio encoding be?
5706371452bb89140068996f
creating an MP3 file
46
False
Who gets to set the bit rate for an MP3 file?
5706371452bb891400689970
the creator
170
False
What does the bit rate of the file actually mean?
5706371452bb891400689971
how many kilobits the file may use per second of audio
228
False
If the bit rate is higher, the size of the compressed file will be what?
5706371452bb891400689972
larger
313
False
When performing lossy audio encoding, such as creating an MP3 file, there is a trade-off between the amount of space used and the sound quality of the result. Typically, the creator is allowed to set a bit rate, which specifies how many kilobits the file may use per second of audio. The higher the bit rate, the larger the compressed file will be, and, generally, the closer it will sound to the original file.
If the bit rate is too low, what might be audible in the reproduction?
570637be52bb891400689978
compression artifacts
25
False
Sounds that were not in the original recording are referred to as what?
570637be52bb891400689979
compression artifacts
25
False
Randomness and sharp attacks are two reasons that may make it harder to to do what to an audio file?
570637be52bb89140068997a
compress
168
False
Other than pre - echo, what is another example of what can happen when audio is compressed?
570637be52bb89140068997b
ringing
279
False
What kind of sample can display a good example of compression artifacts?
570637be52bb89140068997c
A sample of applause
318
False
With too low a bit rate, compression artifacts (i.e., sounds that were not present in the original recording) may be audible in the reproduction. Some audio is hard to compress because of its randomness and sharp attacks. When this type of audio is compressed, artifacts such as ringing or pre-echo are usually heard. A sample of applause compressed with a relatively low bit rate provides a good example of compression artifacts.
Other than the bit rate and the difficulty of the signal, what can also affect the quality of an MP3 file?
570638d652bb891400689982
quality of the encoder
96
False
The MP3 standard allows encoders to have a lot of freedom with which aspect of encoding?
570638d652bb891400689983
encoding algorithms
230
False
As a result of the freedom, different encoders can result in different quality even if which aspect of the file is the same?
570638d652bb891400689984
bit rates
327
False
An example shown has a low range quality score of what value?
570638d652bb891400689985
2.22
498
False
To compare qualities, sound files are evaluated on a scale that ranges from 1 to what?
570638d652bb891400689986
5
461
False
Besides the bit rate of an encoded piece of audio, the quality of MP3 files also depends on the quality of the encoder itself, and the difficulty of the signal being encoded. As the MP3 standard allows quite a bit of freedom with encoding algorithms, different encoders may feature quite different quality, even with identical bit rates. As an example, in a public listening test featuring two different MP3 encoders at about 128 kbit/s, one scored 3.66 on a 1–5 scale, while the other scored only 2.22.
How many bit rates does the simplest type of MP3 file use?
57063bc552bb891400689996
one
35
False
What does CBR stand for?
57063bc552bb891400689997
Constant Bit Rate
86
False
What does VBR stand for?
57063bc552bb891400689998
Variable Bit Rate
293
False
Aside from silence, which sections of music highlight parts that are easier to compress?
57063bc552bb891400689999
music containing only a few instruments
440
False
What value do users need to know when encoding their music to help avoid them having to do tests on each piece of music?
57063bc552bb89140068999a
quality setting
828
False
The simplest type of MP3 file uses one bit rate for the entire file: this is known as Constant Bit Rate (CBR) encoding. Using a constant bit rate makes encoding simpler and faster. However, it is also possible to create files where the bit rate changes throughout the file. These are known as Variable Bit Rate (VBR) files. The idea behind this is that, in any piece of audio, some parts will be much easier to compress, such as silence or music containing only a few instruments, while others will be more difficult to compress. So, the overall quality of the file may be increased by using a lower bit rate for the less complex passages and a higher one for the more complex parts. With some encoders, it is possible to specify a given quality, and the encoder will vary the bit rate accordingly. Users who know a particular "quality setting" that is transparent to their ears can use this value when encoding all of their music, and generally speaking not need to worry about performing personal listening tests on each piece of music to determine the correct bit rate.
A listening environment is also know by which term?
57063c3e75f01819005e7aac
ambient noise
62
False
Other than speakers and headphones, what other piece of equipment affects the listener's perceived quality?
57063c3e75f01819005e7aad
sound cards
175
False
Listening environment, listener attention, listener training and listener audio equipment can all affect what kind of quality?
57063c3e75f01819005e7aae
Perceived quality
0
False
Perceived quality can be influenced by listening environment (ambient noise), listener attention, and listener training and in most cases by listener audio equipment (such as sound cards, speakers and headphones).
Who gave students a test to determine their preferences?
57063cb452bb8914006899a0
Music Professor Jonathan Berger
52
False
Where was a test performed to collect data on student preference for MP3 quality?
57063cb452bb8914006899a1
Stanford University
32
False
Data showed that students' preference for MP3 quality music followed which trend?
57063cb452bb8914006899a2
risen each year
141
False
What kind of sound did students seem to prefer?
57063cb452bb8914006899a3
sizzle
203
False
A test given to new students by Stanford University Music Professor Jonathan Berger showed that student preference for MP3-quality music has risen each year. Berger said the students seem to prefer the 'sizzle' sounds that MP3s bring to music.
What is the name of the study done by composer Ryan Maguire?
57063d8652bb8914006899a8
The Ghost in the MP3
90
False
What did the study aim to isolate?
57063d8652bb8914006899a9
sounds lost during MP3 compression
125
False
What is the track "moDernisT" an anagram of?
57063d8652bb8914006899aa
Tom's Diner
220
False
Where was an account of the study published?
57063d8652bb8914006899ab
International Computer Music Conference
591
False
Which year was the study published?
57063d8652bb8914006899ac
2014
567
False
An in-depth study of MP3 audio quality, sound artist and composer Ryan Maguire's project "The Ghost in the MP3" isolates the sounds lost during MP3 compression. In 2015, he released the track "moDernisT" (an anagram of "Tom's Diner"), composed exclusively from the sounds deleted during MP3 compression of the song "Tom's Diner", the track originally used in the formulation of the MP3 standard. A detailed account of the techniques used to isolate the sounds deleted during MP3 compression, along with the conceptual motivation for the project, was published in the 2014 Proceedings of the International Computer Music Conference.
What is the name of the sampling theorem?
57063fcb52bb8914006899b2
Nyquist–Shannon
543
False
In relation to the sampling frequency, the frequency reproduction is strictly how much less?
57063fcb52bb8914006899b3
less than half
619
False
What kind of filter requires a larger margin for error?
57063fcb52bb8914006899b4
imperfect filters
665
False
Having an 8 kHz sampling rate would limit the maximum frequency to how much?
57063fcb52bb8914006899b5
4 kHz
815
False
A sound reproduction of 24 kHz would represent which value of a maximum sampling rate?
57063fcb52bb8914006899b6
48
828
False
Several bit rates are specified in the MPEG-1 Audio Layer III standard: 32, 40, 48, 56, 64, 80, 96, 112, 128, 160, 192, 224, 256 and 320 kbit/s, with available sampling frequencies of 32, 44.1 and 48 kHz. MPEG-2 Audio Layer III allows bit rates of 8, 16, 24, 32, 40, 48, 56, 64, 80, 96, 112, 128, 144, 160 kbit/s with sampling frequencies of 16, 22.05 and 24 kHz. MPEG-2.5 Audio Layer III is restricted to bit rates of 8, 16, 24, 32, 40, 48, 56 and 64 kbit/s with sampling frequencies of 8, 11.025, and 12 kHz.[citation needed] Because of the Nyquist–Shannon sampling theorem, frequency reproduction is always strictly less than half of the sampling frequency, and imperfect filters requires a larger margin for error (noise level versus sharpness of filter), so 8 kHz sampling rate limits the maximum frequency to 4 kHz, while 48 kHz maximum sampling rate limits an MP3 to 24 kHz sound reproduction.
What sampling rate is used for CD audio?
570640a275f01819005e7ac6
44.1 kHz
17
False
What is the main source used for creating MP3 files?
570640a275f01819005e7ac7
CD audio
79
False
Where can one find a greater variety of bit rates?
570640a275f01819005e7ac8
the Internet
177
False
The common bit rate on the internet is 128 kbit/s using which compression ratio?
570640a275f01819005e7ac9
11:1
258
False
As technology advances, what is another higher bit rate that is beginning to spread?
570640a275f01819005e7aca
320 kbit/s
420
False
A sample rate of 44.1 kHz is almost always used, because this is also used for CD audio, the main source used for creating MP3 files. A greater variety of bit rates are used on the Internet. The rate of 128 kbit/s is commonly used, at a compression ratio of 11:1, offering adequate audio quality in a relatively small space. As Internet bandwidth availability and hard drive sizes have increased, higher bit rates up to 320 kbit/s are widespread.
What is stored on an audio-CD that has a bit rate of 1,411.2 kbit/s?
5706414c75f01819005e7ad0
Uncompressed audio
0
False
What does a bit rate of 128 represent in terms of compression ratio?
5706414c75f01819005e7ad1
11:1
237
False
What would a bit rate of 160 correspond to in terms of compression ratio?
5706414c75f01819005e7ad2
9:1
243
False
What would a bit rate of 192 kbit/s have for a compression ratio?
5706414c75f01819005e7ad3
7:1
251
False
Uncompressed audio as stored on an audio-CD has a bit rate of 1,411.2 kbit/s, (16 bit/sample × 44100 samples/second × 2 channels / 1000 bits/kilobit), so the bitrates 128, 160 and 192 kbit/s represent compression ratios of approximately 11:1, 9:1 and 7:1 respectively.
What is the highest bit rate the LAME encoder allows?
570641f775f01819005e7ad8
640 kbit/s
29
False
The LAME encoder allows bit rates that are what?
570641f775f01819005e7ad9
Non-standard
0
False
Even though few MP3 players can play it, LAME also offers which option?
570641f775f01819005e7ada
freeformat
86
False
The ISO standard dictates that decoders only need to be able to decode streams that have how high of a bit rate?
570641f775f01819005e7adb
320
245
False
Non-standard bit rates up to 640 kbit/s can be achieved with the LAME encoder and the freeformat option, although few MP3 players can play those files. According to the ISO standard, decoders are only required to be able to decode streams up to 320 kbit/s.
What does the term CBR mean?
5706443e75f01819005e7ae0
Constant Bit Rate
54
False
Which early MPEG layer used CBR?
5706443e75f01819005e7ae1
Layer III
11
False
The early software was restricted to which kind of bitrate?
5706443e75f01819005e7ae2
uniform
115
False
What did more sophisticated MP3 encoders use to target an average bit rate?
5706443e75f01819005e7ae3
bit reservoir
220
False
What did encoders base the encoding rate for each frame on?
5706443e75f01819005e7ae4
the complexity of the sound
316
False
Early MPEG Layer III encoders used what is now called Constant Bit Rate (CBR). The software was only able to use a uniform bitrate on all frames in an MP3 file. Later more sophisticated MP3 encoders were able to use the bit reservoir to target an average bit rate selecting the encoding rate for each frame based on the complexity of the sound in that portion of the recording.
What kind of audio can a sophisticated MP3 encoder produce?
5706457d75f01819005e7aea
variable bitrate audio
45
False
Which type of decoder must support bitrate switching on a per-frame basis?
5706457d75f01819005e7aeb
layer III
137
False
What do encoders use when the goal is to achieve a fixed level of quality?
5706457d75f01819005e7aec
VBR
264
False
Using VBR instead of a constant bit rate encoding makes which part of encoding less predictable?
5706457d75f01819005e7aed
final file size
243
False
An average bit rate is used when who choses an average value for the encoder to use?
5706457d75f01819005e7aee
the user
513
False
A more sophisticated MP3 encoder can produce variable bitrate audio. MPEG audio may use bitrate switching on a per-frame basis, but only layer III decoders must support it. VBR is used when the goal is to achieve a fixed level of quality. The final file size of a VBR encoding is less predictable than with constant bitrate. Average bitrate is VBR implemented as a compromise between the two: the bitrate is allowed to vary for more consistent quality, but is controlled to remain near an average value chosen by the user, for predictable file sizes. Although an MP3 decoder must support VBR to be standards compliant, historically some decoders have bugs with VBR decoding, particularly before VBR encoders became widespread.
A partially full frame's ability to have part of the next frame's audio data is referred to as what?
570646b852bb8914006899bc
bit reservoir
32
False
What kind of audio is required to use a bit reservoir?
570646b852bb8914006899bd
Layer III
0
False
A bit reservoir allows for what kind of changes in effective bit rate?
570646b852bb8914006899be
temporary
135
False
What is a possible result of handling the bit reservoir?
570646b852bb8914006899bf
encoding delay
259
False
A large benefit of a bit reservoir is that you can use it even while encoding what kind of stream?
570646b852bb8914006899c0
constant bitrate
185
False
Layer III audio can also use a "bit reservoir", a partially full frame's ability to hold part of the next frame's audio data, allowing temporary changes in effective bitrate, even in a constant bitrate stream. Internal handling of the bit reservoir increases encoding delay.[citation needed]
What can scale factor band 21 be shortened to?
5706493c52bb8914006899c6
sfb21
34
False
What is the maximum frequency that scale factor band 21 can go up to?
5706493c52bb8914006899c7
16 kHz
70
False
The encoder has to choose between less acurate representation in band 21 or which factor in all bands below band 21?
5706493c52bb8914006899c8
less efficient storage
159
False
What does less efficient storage result in for VBR encoding?
5706493c52bb8914006899c9
wasted bitrate
234
False
There is no scale factor band 21 (sfb21) for frequencies above approx 16 kHz, forcing the encoder to choose between less accurate representation in band 21 or less efficient storage in all bands below band 21, the latter resulting in wasted bitrate in VBR encoding.
What is a section of a file that contains metadeta referred to as?
57064bd375f01819005e7b12
tag
3
False
What else can metadeta contain other than the title, artist or track  number?
57064bd375f01819005e7b13
album
100
False
What do MP3 standards not define?
57064bd375f01819005e7b14
tag formats for MP3 files
200
False
What would be needed to support metadata and obviate the need for tags?
57064bd375f01819005e7b15
a standard container format
240
False
A "tag" in an audio file is a section of the file that contains metadata such as the title, artist, album, track number or other information about the file's contents. The MP3 standards do not define tag formats for MP3 files, nor is there a standard container format that would support metadata and obviate the need for tags.
Other than the ID3v1, which similar standard format for tag exists?
57064d5075f01819005e7b2a
ID3v2
105
False
What is the most recently introduced standard for tag formatting?
57064d5075f01819005e7b2b
APEv2
145
False
What is the second place in a file that tags are normally stored, with the first being at the beginning?
57064d5075f01819005e7b2c
end
205
False
What is important to note about where the tags are stored?
57064d5075f01819005e7b2d
separate from the actual MP3 frame data
223
False
If the MP3 decoders do not extract information from the tags, what do they do to them?
57064d5075f01819005e7b2e
treat them as ignorable, non-MP3 junk data
327
False
However, several de facto standards for tag formats exist. As of 2010, the most widespread are ID3v1 and ID3v2, and the more recently introduced APEv2. These tags are normally embedded at the beginning or end of MP3 files, separate from the actual MP3 frame data. MP3 decoders either extract information from the tags, or just treat them as ignorable, non-MP3 junk data.
What is the name given to the standard for measure and storing the loudness of an MP3 file?
57064fcc75f01819005e7b34
ReplayGain
0
False
What is measuring and storing loudness of an MP3 file also known as?
57064fcc75f01819005e7b35
audio normalization
80
False
What does the standard ReplayGain allow a player to automatically adjust?
57064fcc75f01819005e7b36
the overall playback volume
185
False
What program can be used to modify files based on ReplayGain measurements?
57064fcc75f01819005e7b37
MP3Gain
228
False
MP3Gain is important because it allows players without what capability to have adjusted playback?
57064fcc75f01819005e7b38
ReplayGain capability
369
False
ReplayGain is a standard for measuring and storing the loudness of an MP3 file (audio normalization) in its metadata tag, enabling a ReplayGain-compliant player to automatically adjust the overall playback volume for each file. MP3Gain may be used to reversibly modify files based on ReplayGain measurements so that adjusted playback can be achieved on players without ReplayGain capability.
Where is the basic MP3 decoding and technology patent free?
5706520375f01819005e7b3e
European Union
69
False
What happened to the patents that caused them to be patent-free?
5706520375f01819005e7b3f
expired
104
False
When will the technology be patent - free in the United States?
5706520375f01819005e7b40
31 December 2017
193
False
Between which years did most of the MP3 patents in the US expire?
5706520375f01819005e7b41
2007 and 2015
277
False
The basic MP3 decoding and encoding technology is patent-free in the European Union, all patents having expired there. In the United States, the technology will be substantially patent-free on 31 December 2017 (see below). The majority of MP3 patents expired in the US between 2007 and 2015.
What has many organizations claiming ownership of patents related to aspects of MP3 led to?
5706534d75f01819005e7b50
legal threats
135
False
Legal threats and confusion made it difficult to ensure what about patents regarding MP3 products?
5706534d75f01819005e7b51
which patents must be licensed
219
False
What was the danger of not correctly patenting products?
5706534d75f01819005e7b52
patent infringement
301
False
At what stage of the technology were these problems prevalent?
5706534d75f01819005e7b53
early stages
390
False
In the past, many organizations have claimed ownership of patents related to MP3 decoding or encoding. These claims led to a number of legal threats and actions from a variety of sources. As a result, uncertainty about which patents must be licensed in order to create MP3 products without committing patent infringement in countries that allow software patents was a common feature of the early stages of adoption of the technology.
What became publicly available on 6 December 1991?
570654ef75f01819005e7b58
MPEG-1 standard
26
False
When can patents not be filed in most countries?
570654ef75f01819005e7b59
after prior art has been made public
163
False
How long does it take for patents to expire after being filed?
570654ef75f01819005e7b5a
20 years
220
False
How long can it take for patents to be approved after initially being filed?
570654ef75f01819005e7b5b
12 months
279
False
When did patents required to implement MP3 expire in most countries?
570654ef75f01819005e7b5c
December 2012
403
False
The initial near-complete MPEG-1 standard (parts 1, 2 and 3) was publicly available on 6 December 1991 as ISO CD 11172. In most countries, patents cannot be filed after prior art has been made public, and patents expire 20 years after the initial filing date, which can be up to 12 months later for filings in other countries. As a result, patents required to implement MP3 expired in most countries by December 2012, 21 years after the publication of ISO CD 11172.
How long does it take for patents to expire in the United States?
5706565675f01819005e7b62
17 years after the publication date
83
False
A patent issue much later than normally expected can be referred to as what?
5706565675f01819005e7b63
submarine patents
239
False
What year is the latest that MP3 related patents will expire on in the United States?
5706565675f01819005e7b64
2017
328
False
Who holds the longest running MP3 patent in the United States?
5706565675f01819005e7b65
Fraunhofer-Gesellschaft
891
False
Who administered the longest running MP3 patent in the United States?
5706565675f01819005e7b66
Technicolor
935
False
An exception is the United States, where patents filed prior to 8 June 1995 expire 17 years after the publication date of the patent, but application extensions make it possible for a patent to issue much later than normally expected (see submarine patents). The various MP3-related patents expire on dates ranging from 2007 to 2017 in the U.S. Patents filed for anything disclosed in ISO CD 11172 a year or more after its publication are questionable. If only the known MP3 patents filed by December 1992 are considered, then MP3 decoding has been patent-free in the US since 22 September 2015 when U.S. Patent 5,812,672 expired which had a PCT filing in October 1992. If the longest-running patent mentioned in the aforementioned references is taken as a measure, then the MP3 technology will be patent-free in the United States on 30 December 2017 when U.S. Patent 5,703,999, held by the Fraunhofer-Gesellschaft and administered by Technicolor, expires.
What was Technicolor's previous name?
5706587852bb8914006899ea
Thomson Consumer Electronics
29
False
What patent does Technicolor claim to control?
5706587852bb8914006899eb
Layer 3
98
False
What are Technicolor constantly in the process of doing?
5706587852bb8914006899ec
actively enforcing these patents
215
False
Technicolor (formerly called Thomson Consumer Electronics) claims to control MP3 licensing of the Layer 3 patents in many countries, including the United States, Japan, Canada and EU countries. Technicolor has been actively enforcing these patents.
When did the Fraunhofer institute send out a letter?
570659e875f01819005e7b6c
September 1998
3
False
What did the letter claim would be required to distribute and/or sell decoders and/or encoders?
570659e875f01819005e7b6d
a license
109
False
What does selling unlicensed products mean that the seller is doing?
570659e875f01819005e7b6e
infringe the patent rights of Fraunhofer and Thomson
231
False
What can products not use if they want to avoid infringing on patent rights?
570659e875f01819005e7b6f
the [MPEG Layer-3] standard
332
False
In September 1998, the Fraunhofer Institute sent a letter to several developers of MP3 software stating that a license was required to "distribute and/or sell decoders and/or encoders". The letter claimed that unlicensed products "infringe the patent rights of Fraunhofer and Thomson. To make, sell and/or distribute products using the [MPEG Layer-3] standard and thus our patents, you need to obtain a license under these patents from us."
Who was sued for patent infringement on MP3 technology?
57065a7c75f01819005e7b74
Thomson
71
False
Who initially sued to protect their patent rights?
57065a7c75f01819005e7b75
Sisvel S.p.A.
0
False
What did Sisvel grant Thomson to end the lawsuit?
57065a7c75f01819005e7b76
a license to their patents
201
False
When did the majority of the patents held by Sisvel expire?
57065a7c75f01819005e7b77
2015
414
False
When does the last patent held by Sisvel expire?
57065a7c75f01819005e7b78
9. April 2017
575
False
Sisvel S.p.A. and its U.S. subsidiary Audio MPEG, Inc. previously sued Thomson for patent infringement on MP3 technology, but those disputes were resolved in November 2005 with Sisvel granting Thomson a license to their patents. Motorola followed soon after, and signed with Sisvel to license MP3-related patents in December 2005. Except for three patents, the US patents administered by Sisvel had all expired in 2015, however (the exceptions are: U.S. Patent 5,878,080, expires February 2017, U.S. Patent 5,850,456, expires February 2017 and U.S. Patent 5,960,037, expires 9. April 2017.
What did German officials seize from SanDisk on September 2006?
57065bea75f01819005e7b7e
MP3 players
43
False
At which show did SanDisk have their assets seized?
57065bea75f01819005e7b7f
IFA
83
False
Which company was the Italian patents firm representing?
57065bea75f01819005e7b80
Sisvel
163
False
What happened after the injunction was successful?
57065bea75f01819005e7b81
The injunction was later reversed
222
False
The continuous back and forth regarding the decisions on patents was referred to as what?
57065bea75f01819005e7b82
bringing the Patent Wild West to Germany
365
False
In September 2006, German officials seized MP3 players from SanDisk's booth at the IFA show in Berlin after an Italian patents firm won an injunction on behalf of Sisvel against SanDisk in a dispute over licensing rights. The injunction was later reversed by a Berlin judge, but that reversal was in turn blocked the same day by another judge from the same court, "bringing the Patent Wild West to Germany" in the words of one commentator.
Who sued Apple, Samsung Electronics and Sandisk in 2007?
57065e2352bb8914006899f0
Texas MP3 Technologies
18
False
Which court did the lawsuit take place in?
57065e2352bb8914006899f1
eastern Texas federal court
88
False
What was the claim that the lawsuit was based on?
57065e2352bb8914006899f2
infringement of a portable MP3 player patent
126
False
What action did the three companies being sued take?
57065e2352bb8914006899f3
all settled the claims against them
241
False
What year did the lawsuits end?
57065e2352bb8914006899f4
2009
288
False
In February 2007, Texas MP3 Technologies sued Apple, Samsung Electronics and Sandisk in eastern Texas federal court, claiming infringement of a portable MP3 player patent that Texas MP3 said it had been assigned. Apple, Samsung, and Sandisk all settled the claims against them in January 2009.
Which company allegedly inherited MP3 patents from AT&T-Bell LAbs?
5706605352bb8914006899fa
Alcatel-Lucent
0
False
What kind of patents were allegedly inherited?
5706605352bb8914006899fb
MP3 coding and compression
36
False
How many patents did Alcatel claim Microsoft infringed on?
5706605352bb8914006899fc
seven
235
False
How much money was awarded to Alcatel by a San Diego jury?
5706605352bb8914006899fd
US $1.52 billion
311
False
What subsequently happened after Alcatel was awarded damages?
5706605352bb8914006899fe
The court subsequently tossed the award
372
False
Alcatel-Lucent has asserted several MP3 coding and compression patents, allegedly inherited from AT&T-Bell Labs, in litigation of its own. In November 2006, before the companies' merger, Alcatel sued Microsoft for allegedly infringing seven patents. On 23 February 2007, a San Diego jury awarded Alcatel-Lucent US $1.52 billion in damages for infringement of two of them. The court subsequently tossed the award, however, finding that one patent had not been infringed and that the other was not even owned by Alcatel-Lucent; it was co-owned by AT&T and Fraunhofer, who had licensed it to Microsoft, the judge ruled. That defense judgment was upheld on appeal in 2008. See Alcatel-Lucent v. Microsoft for more information.
AAC, mp3PRO and MP2 are all members of the same technological family as which other lossy format?
5706635252bb891400689a0c
MP3
113
False
What model type do all of the lossy formats roughly depend on?
5706635252bb891400689a0d
psychoacoustic
147
False
Which company owns many of the patents that cover the other formats?
5706635252bb891400689a0e
Fraunhofer Gesellschaft
174
False
Other lossy formats exist. Among these, mp3PRO, AAC, and MP2 are all members of the same technological family as MP3 and depend on roughly similar psychoacoustic models. The Fraunhofer Gesellschaft owns many of the basic patents underlying these formats as well, with others held by Dolby Labs, Sony, Thomson Consumer Electronics, and AT&T.
Opus and Vorbis are two explans of what kind of compression format?
5706649675f01819005e7b92
open
15
False
Being open formats means that Opus and Vorbis can be used without what?
5706649675f01819005e7b93
any known patent restrictions
107
False
What are some benefits to some of the newer audio compression formats when compared to MP3?
5706649675f01819005e7b94
free of some limitations inherent to the MP3 format
220
False
How can one obtain an open compression format such as Opus or Vorbis?
5706649675f01819005e7b95
available free of charge
70
False
There are also open compression formats like Opus and Vorbis that are available free of charge and without any known patent restrictions. Some of the newer audio compression formats, such as AAC, WMA Pro and Vorbis, are free of some limitations inherent to the MP3 format that cannot be overcome by any MP3 encoder.
What is a significant alternative to MP3?
5706653e75f01819005e7b9a
lossless formats
35
False
What can lossless formats provide?
5706653e75f01819005e7b9b
unaltered audio content
110
False
What is the downside of using a lossless format?
5706653e75f01819005e7b9c
increased file size
150
False
What is another example of a lossless format other than Apple Lossless?
5706653e75f01819005e7b9d
FLAC
226
False
What does FLAC stand for?
5706653e75f01819005e7b9e
Free Lossless Audio Codec
232
False
Besides lossy compression methods, lossless formats are a significant alternative to MP3 because they provide unaltered audio content, though with an increased file size compared to lossy compression. Lossless formats include FLAC (Free Lossless Audio Codec), Apple Lossless and many others.
House_music
What city did House music originate from?
5706924752bb891400689a76
Chicago
68
False
What decade did House music first develop?
5706924752bb891400689a77
1980s
89
False
What year was House music first popularized?
5706924752bb891400689a78
1984
143
False
What genre does House music fall into?
5706924752bb891400689a79
electronic dance music
26
False
What song by MARRS was an early House hit in 1987?
5706924752bb891400689a7a
"Pump Up The Volume"
481
False
Chicago
128
What city did Boyz music originate from?
5ad23ff1d7d075001a428906
True
1980s
315
What decade did Boyz music first develop?
5ad23ff1d7d075001a428907
True
1984
143
What year was Boyz music first popularized?
5ad23ff1d7d075001a428908
True
electronic dance music
26
What genre does Boyz music fall into?
5ad23ff1d7d075001a428909
True
"Pump Up The Volume"
481
What song by MARRS was an early Boyz hit in 1987?
5ad23ff1d7d075001a42890a
True
House music is a genre of electronic dance music that originated in Chicago in the early 1980s. It was initially popularized in Chicago, circa 1984. House music quickly spread to other American cities such as Detroit, New York City, and Newark – all of which developed their own regional scenes. In the mid-to-late 1980s, house music became popular in Europe as well as major cities in South America, and Australia. Early house music commercial success in Europe saw songs such as "Pump Up The Volume" by MARRS (1987), "House Nation" by House Master Boyz and the Rude Boy of House (1987), "Theme from S'Express" by S'Express (1988) and "Doctorin' the House" by Coldcut (1988) in the pop charts. Since the early to mid-1990s, house music has been infused in mainstream pop and dance music worldwide.
House music is characterized by what type of beats?
570692ee75f01819005e7c18
4/4 beats
78
False
What are some subgenres of House music?
570692ee75f01819005e7c19
euro house, tech house, electro house and jump house
704
False
What are rhythms provided by in House music?
570692ee75f01819005e7c1a
drum machines
116
False
What are some differences between House and Disco music?
570692ee75f01819005e7c1b
it was more electronic and minimalistic
253
False
What type of music is House based on?
570692ee75f01819005e7c1c
dance-based music
32
False
4/4 beats
78
Cymbals music is characterized by what type of beats?
5ad26161d7d075001a429022
True
euro house, tech house, electro house and jump house
704
What are some subgenres of Cymbals music?
5ad26161d7d075001a429023
True
drum machines
116
What are rhythms provided by in Cymbals music?
5ad26161d7d075001a429024
True
it was more electronic and minimalistic
253
What are some differences between Cymbal and Disco music?
5ad26161d7d075001a429025
True
dance-based music
32
What type of music is Cymbal music based on?
5ad26161d7d075001a429026
True
Early house music was generally dance-based music characterized by repetitive 4/4 beats, rhythms mainly provided by drum machines, off-beat hi-hat cymbals, and synthesized basslines. While house displayed several characteristics similar to disco music, it was more electronic and minimalistic, and the repetitive rhythm of house was more important than the song itself. House music in the 2010s, while keeping several of these core elements, notably the prominent kick drum on every beat, varies widely in style and influence, ranging from the soulful and atmospheric deep house to the more minimalistic microhouse. House music has also fused with several other genres creating fusion subgenres, such as euro house, tech house, electro house and jump house.
When was the second wave of progressive house?
5706950a52bb891400689a9c
1999–2001
620
False
What are some popular subgenres of House?
5706950a52bb891400689a9d
G-house, Deep House, Tech House and Bass House
716
False
where is house music extremely popular?
5706950a52bb891400689a9e
both clubs and in the mainstream pop scene
817
False
What variation of house music was produced by artists such as Madonna and Kylie Minogue?
5706950a52bb891400689a9f
a more mainstream pop-based variation
179
False
1999–2001
620
When was the third wave of progressive house?
5ad262a3d7d075001a4290b6
True
G-house, Deep House, Tech House and Bass House
716
What are some popular subgenres of Ross?
5ad262a3d7d075001a4290b7
True
both clubs and in the mainstream pop scene
817
Where is Ross music extremely popular?
5ad262a3d7d075001a4290b8
True
a more mainstream pop-based variation
179
What variation of Ross music was produced by artists such as Madonna and Kylie Minogue?
5ad262a3d7d075001a4290b9
True
Artists and groups such as Madonna, Janet Jackson, Paula Abdul, Aretha Franklin
244
Who incorporated Chicago music into some of their work?
5ad262a3d7d075001a4290ba
True
In the late 1980s, many local Chicago house music artists suddenly found themselves presented with major label deals. House music proved to be a commercially successful genre and a more mainstream pop-based variation grew increasingly popular. Artists and groups such as Madonna, Janet Jackson, Paula Abdul, Aretha Franklin, Bananarama, Diana Ross, Tina Turner, Whitney Houston, Steps, Kylie Minogue, Bjork, and C+C Music Factoryhave all incorporated the genre into some of their work. After enjoying significant success in the early to mid-90s, house music grew even larger during the second wave of progressive house (1999–2001). The genre has remained popular and fused into other popular subgenres, for example, G-house, Deep House, Tech House and Bass House. As of 2015, house music remains extremely popular in both clubs and in the mainstream pop scene while retaining a foothold on underground scenes across the globe.[citation needed]
What instruments did disco songs incorporate from house music?
570695a652bb891400689aa4
synthesizers and drum machines
54
False
who produced Donna Summer's hit single "I Feel Love"?
570695a652bb891400689aa5
Giorgio Moroder
151
False
what sort of music did Hi-NRG group Lime produce?
570695a652bb891400689aa6
1980s disco-pop
419
False
What year did Cerrone's "Supernature" get released?
570695a652bb891400689aa7
1977
276
False
What year was solid state survivor released?
570695a652bb891400689aa8
1979
394
False
synthesizers and drum machines
54
What instruments did disco songs incorporate from Yellow music?
5ad2637fd7d075001a429110
True
Giorgio Moroder
151
Who produced Donna Summer's hit single "Yellow Magic"?
5ad2637fd7d075001a429111
True
1980s disco-pop
419
What sort of music did Hi-NRG group Yellow produce?
5ad2637fd7d075001a429112
True
1977
276
What year did Cerrone's "Yellow" get released?
5ad2637fd7d075001a429113
True
1979
394
What year was "Yellow State Survivor" released?
5ad2637fd7d075001a429114
True
Various disco songs incorporated sounds produced with synthesizers and drum machines, and some compositions were entirely electronic; examples include Giorgio Moroder's late 1970s productions such as Donna Summer's hit single "I Feel Love" from 1977, Cerrone's "Supernature" (1977), Yellow Magic Orchestra's synth-disco-pop productions from Yellow Magic Orchestra (1978), Solid State Survivor (1979), and several early 1980s disco-pop productions by the Hi-NRG group Lime.
What influenced House music?
5706962d52bb891400689aae
Soul and disco
0
False
What type of producer was Frankie Knuckles?
5706962d52bb891400689aaf
Early house producers
353
False
what did Frankie Knuckles use to create his compositions?
5706962d52bb891400689ab0
samplers, synthesizers, sequencers, and drum machines
449
False
Soul and disco
0
What influenced Drum music?
5ad264a8d7d075001a42916a
True
Early house producers
353
What type of producer was Larry Levan?
5ad264a8d7d075001a42916b
True
samplers, synthesizers, sequencers, and drum machines
449
What did Larry Levan use to create his composition?
5ad264a8d7d075001a42916c
True
audio engineers
149
Who produced longer arrangements of drum recordings?
5ad264a8d7d075001a42916d
True
Walter Gibbons, Tom Moulton, Jim Burgess, Larry Levan, Ron Hardy, M & M, and others
173
What audio engineers created drum machines?
5ad264a8d7d075001a42916e
True
Soul and disco influenced house music, plus mixing and editing techniques earlier explored by disco, garage music and post-disco DJs, producers, and audio engineers such as Walter Gibbons, Tom Moulton, Jim Burgess, Larry Levan, Ron Hardy, M & M, and others who produced longer, more repetitive, and percussive arrangements of existing disco recordings. Early house producers such as Frankie Knuckles created similar compositions from scratch, using samplers, synthesizers, sequencers, and drum machines.
What was the name of Charanjit Singh's 1982 album?
5706969952bb891400689ab4
Synthesizing: Ten Ragas to a Disco Beat
76
False
What did Singh's album contain?
5706969952bb891400689ab5
Indian ragas performed in a disco style
136
False
What year was synthesizing: ten ragas to a disco beat released?
5706969952bb891400689ab6
1982
117
False
What sort of arrangement did Charanjit Singh use on his 1982 album?
5706969952bb891400689ab7
minimal arrangement
35
False
Synthesizing: Ten Ragas to a Disco Beat
76
What was the name of Charanjit Singh's 1981 album?
5ad269fad7d075001a4292fc
True
Indian ragas performed in a disco style
136
What did Beat's album contains?
5ad269fad7d075001a4292fd
True
1982
117
What year was Rediscovery in the 21st Century released?
5ad269fad7d075001a4292fe
True
minimal arrangement
35
What sort of arrangement did Charanjit Singh use on his 1981 album?
5ad269fad7d075001a4292ff
True
Ten Ragas to a Disco Beat (1982)
90
What is known to have influence on the Indian ragas prior to its rediscovery?
5ad269fad7d075001a429300
True
The electronic instrumentation and minimal arrangement of Charanjit Singh's Synthesizing: Ten Ragas to a Disco Beat (1982), an album of Indian ragas performed in a disco style, anticipated the sounds of acid house music, but it is not known to have had any influence on the genre prior to the album's rediscovery in the 21st century.
Who is Rachel Cain?
57069abf75f01819005e7c36
co-founder of an influential Trax Records
13
False
Who were Frankie Knuckles and ron hardy?
57069abf75f01819005e7c37
two influential pioneers of house music
393
False
what was the nickname of frankie knuckles?
57069abf75f01819005e7c38
"the Godfather of House,"
503
False
marshall jefferson got involved in house music after hearing whose music?
57069abf75f01819005e7c39
Ron Hardy's
1041
False
what was ron hardy's music released in?
57069abf75f01819005e7c3a
Muzic Box
1062
False
co-founder of an influential Trax Records
13
Who is Rachel Chicago?
5ad26c00d7d075001a42936a
True
two influential pioneers of house music
393
Who were Frankie Hardy and Ron Knuckles?
5ad26c00d7d075001a42936b
True
"the Godfather of House,"
503
What was the nickname of Ron Knuckles?
5ad26c00d7d075001a42936c
True
Ron Hardy
1041
Ron Knuckles got involved in house music after hearing whose music?
5ad26c00d7d075001a42936d
True
Muzic Box
794
What was Ron Knuckles's music released in?
5ad26c00d7d075001a42936e
True
Rachel Cain, co-founder of an influential Trax Records, was previously involved in the burgeoning punk scene and cites industrial and post-punk record store Wax Trax! Records as an important connection between the ever-changing underground sounds of Chicago. As most proto-house DJs were primarily stuck to playing their conventional ensemble of dance records, Frankie Knuckles and Ron Hardy, two influential pioneers of house music, were known for their out-of-bounds behavior. The former, credited as "the Godfather of House," worked primarily with early disco music with a hint of new and different music (whether it was post-punk or post-disco) but still enjoying a variety of music, while the latter produced unconventional DIY mixtapes which he later played straight-on in the music club Muzic Box, boiling with raw energy. Marshall Jefferson, who would later appear with the Chicago house classic "Move Your Body (The House-Music Anthem)," (originally released on Chicago-based Trax Records) got involved in house music after hearing Ron Hardy's music in Muzic Box.
who were the chicago radio jocks that played dance music in the early 1980s?
57069b2452bb891400689abc
The Hot Mix 5
40
False
what style of music did man parrish play?
57069b2452bb891400689abd
B-Boy hip hop music
285
False
what style of music did afrika bambaataa play?
57069b2452bb891400689abe
electro funk
209
False
what style of music did kraftwerk play?
57069b2452bb891400689abf
electronic pop music
374
False
how did producers sometimes make edits of house music?
57069b2452bb891400689ac0
reel-to-reel tape
500
False
The Hot Mix 5
40
Who were the chicago radio jocks that played dance music in the early 1970s?
5ad26cdcd7d075001a4293ac
True
B-Boy hip hop music
285
What style of music did drum parrish play?
5ad26cdcd7d075001a4293ad
True
electro funk
209
What style of music did drum bambaataa play?
5ad26cdcd7d075001a4293ae
True
reel-to-reel tape
500
How did producers sometimes make edits of drum music?
5ad26cdcd7d075001a4293af
True
electronic pop music
374
What style of music did Drum Kraftwerk play?
5ad26cdcd7d075001a4293b0
True
In the early 1980s, Chicago radio jocks The Hot Mix 5, and club DJs Ron Hardy and Frankie Knuckles played various styles of dance music, including older disco records (mostly Philly disco and Salsoul tracks), electro funk tracks by artists such as Afrika Bambaataa, newer Italo disco, B-Boy hip hop music by Man Parrish, Jellybean Benitez, Arthur Baker, and John Robie, and electronic pop music by Kraftwerk and Yellow Magic Orchestra. Some made and played their own edits of their favorite songs on reel-to-reel tape, and sometimes mixed in effects, drum machines, and other rhythmic electronic instrumentation. In this era,
who produced the song "on and on" in 1984?
57069b7b52bb891400689ac6
Jesse Saunders
79
False
where was jesse saunders from?
57069b7b52bb891400689ac7
Chicago
68
False
who co-wrote the hit song "on and on" in 1984?
57069b7b52bb891400689ac8
Vince Lawrence
112
False
what type of bass synthesizer was a staple of the early house sound?
57069b7b52bb891400689ac9
Roland TB-303
199
False
when was player one's "space invaders" released?
57069b7b52bb891400689aca
1979
428
False
Jesse Saunders
79
Who produced the song "Roland" in 1984?
5ad271c1d7d075001a429468
True
Chicago
68
Where was Jesse Roland from?
5ad271c1d7d075001a429469
True
Vince Lawrence
112
Who co-wrote the hit song "Roland" in 1984?
5ad271c1d7d075001a42946a
True
Roland TB-303
199
What type of bass synthesizer was a staple of the early Sanders sound?
5ad271c1d7d075001a42946b
True
1979
428
When was player one's "Space Key" released?
5ad271c1d7d075001a42946c
True
The hypnotic electronic dance song "On and On", produced in 1984 by Chicago DJ Jesse Saunders and co-written by Vince Lawrence, had elements that became staples of the early house sound, such as the Roland TB-303 bass synthesizer and minimal vocals as well as a Roland (specifically TR-808) drum machine and Korg (specifically Poly-61) synthesizer. It also utilized the bassline from Player One's disco record "Space Invaders" (1979). "On and On" is sometimes cited as the 'first house record', though other examples from around that time, such as J.M. Silk's "Music is the Key" (1985), have also been cited.
when was jesse saunders' "on and on" a hit?
57069bdd52bb891400689ad0
1984
12
False
what type of audience was early disco and dance catered to?
57069bdd52bb891400689ad1
African-American and gay audiences
450
False
what year was house music first used as a genre?
57069bdd52bb891400689ad2
1985
489
False
what were two big subgenres of house music?
57069bdd52bb891400689ad3
deep house and acid house
638
False
what area radio was house music generally played on?
57069bdd52bb891400689ad4
Chicago-area radio
386
False
1984
12
When was Jesse Saunders' "House Music" a hit?
5ad27260d7d075001a429490
True
African-American and gay audiences
450
What type of audience was early house music catered to?
5ad27260d7d075001a429491
True
1985
489
What year was disco music first used as a genre?
5ad27260d7d075001a429492
True
deep house and acid house
638
What were two big subgenres of disco music?
5ad27260d7d075001a429493
True
Chicago-area radio
386
What area radio was disco music generally played on?
5ad27260d7d075001a429494
True
Starting in 1984, some of these DJs, inspired by Jesse Saunders' success with "On and On", tried their hand at producing and releasing original compositions. These compositions used newly affordable electronic instruments to emulate not just Saunders' song, but the edited, enhanced styles of disco and other dance music they already favored. These homegrown productions were played on Chicago-area radio and in local discothèques catering mainly to African-American and gay audiences. By 1985, although the exact origins of the term are debated, "house music" encompassed these locally produced recordings. Subgenres of house, including deep house and acid house, quickly emerged and gained traction.
what producer was the first to produce deep house?
57069c2652bb891400689ada
Mr Fingers
55
False
where was producer mr. fingers' from?
57069c2652bb891400689adb
Chicago
38
False
when was mr. fingers' "mystery of love" released?
57069c2652bb891400689adc
1985
124
False
when was mr. fingers' "can you feel it?" released?
57069c2652bb891400689add
1986
154
False
Mr Fingers
55
What producer was the first to produce deep sound?
5ad273e4d7d075001a4294c0
True
Chicago
38
Where was producer Mr. Unterberger from?
5ad273e4d7d075001a4294c1
True
1985
124
When was Mr. Unterberger's "Mystery of Lover" released?
5ad273e4d7d075001a4294c2
True
1986
154
When was Mr. Unterberger's "Can You Feel It?" released?
5ad273e4d7d075001a4294c3
True
Deep house's origins
0
What can be traced to early disco music?
5ad273e4d7d075001a4294c4
True
Deep house's origins can be traced to Chicago producer Mr Fingers's relatively jazzy, soulful recordings "Mystery of Love" (1985) and "Can You Feel It?" (1986). According to author Richie Unterberger, it moved house music away from its "posthuman tendencies back towards the lush" soulful sound of early disco music.
When was Phuture's "Acid Tracks" released?
5706a32275f01819005e7c98
1987
181
False
Who founded the group Phuture?
5706a32275f01819005e7c99
Nathan "DJ Pierre" Jones, Earl "Spanky" Smith Jr., and Herbert "Herb J" Jackson
216
False
what instrument was Phuture the first to use in house music?
5706a32275f01819005e7c9a
TB-303
347
False
how long was phuture's "acid tracks"?
5706a32275f01819005e7c9b
12-minute
394
False
what type of drum machine did "acid tracks" use?
5706a32275f01819005e7c9c
Roland TR-707
642
False
1987
181
When was Phuture's "Acid Hardy" released?
5ad2755fd7d075001a4294fa
True
Nathan "DJ Pierre" Jones, Earl "Spanky" Smith Jr., and Herbert "Herb J" Jackson
216
Who founded the group Hardy?
5ad2755fd7d075001a4294fb
True
TB-303
347
What instrument was Hardy the first to use in house music?
5ad2755fd7d075001a4294fc
True
12-minute
394
How long was Hardy's "acid tracks"?
5ad2755fd7d075001a4294fd
True
Roland TR-707
642
What type of drum machine did Hardy use?
5ad2755fd7d075001a4294fe
True
Acid house arose from Chicago artists' experiments with the squelchy Roland TB-303 bass synthesizer, and the style's origins on vinyl is generally cited as Phuture's "Acid Tracks" (1987). Phuture, a group founded by Nathan "DJ Pierre" Jones, Earl "Spanky" Smith Jr., and Herbert "Herb J" Jackson, is credited with having been the first to use the TB-303 in the house music context. The group's 12-minute "Acid Tracks" was recorded to tape and was played by DJ Ron Hardy at the Music Box, where Hardy was resident DJ. Hardy once played it four times over the course of an evening until the crowd responded favorably. The track also utilized a Roland TR-707 drum machine.
what radio station aired the Hot Mix 5 show?
5706a3fc75f01819005e7ca2
WBMX-FM
220
False
what record labels helped popularize house music?
5706a3fc75f01819005e7ca3
Trax Records and DJ International Records
336
False
what song by marshall jefferson became a big house hit?
5706a3fc75f01819005e7ca4
"Move Your Body"
507
False
what european country were big house music hits being released in, in 1987?
5706a3fc75f01819005e7ca5
UK
675
False
where was house music from chicago-based labels considered a must-play?
5706a3fc75f01819005e7ca6
clubs
922
False
WBMX-FM
220
What radio station aired the Chicago Mix 5 show?
5ad2769ad7d075001a429520
True
Trax Records and DJ International Records
336
What record labels helped popularize Chicago music?
5ad2769ad7d075001a429521
True
"Move Your Body"
507
What song by Marshall Chicago became a big house hit?
5ad2769ad7d075001a429522
True
UK
817
What European country were big house music hit being released in, in 1985?
5ad2769ad7d075001a429523
True
clubs
922
Where was house music from UK-based labels considered a must-play?
5ad2769ad7d075001a429524
True
Club play from pioneering Chicago DJs such as Hardy and Lil Louis, local dance music record shops such as Importes, State Street Records, Loop Records, Gramaphone Records and the popular Hot Mix 5 shows on radio station WBMX-FM helped popularize house music in Chicago. Later, visiting DJs & producers from Detroit fell into the genre. Trax Records and DJ International Records, Chicago labels with wider distribution, helped popularize house music inside and outside of Chicago. One 1986 house tune called "Move Your Body" by Marshall Jefferson, taken from the appropriately titled "The House Music Anthem" EP, became a big hit in Chicago and eventually worldwide. By 1986, UK labels were releasing house music by Chicago acts, and by 1987 house tracks by Chicago DJs and producers were appearing on and topping the UK music chart. By this time, house music released by Chicago-based labels was considered a must-play in clubs.
what club did the term 'house music' originate from?
5706a62375f01819005e7cc8
The Warehouse
77
False
what city was the club The Warehouse located in?
5706a62375f01819005e7cc9
Chicago
57
False
what years was the club The warehouse open?
5706a62375f01819005e7cca
1977 to 1983
111
False
what types of people did the club The Warehouse attract?
5706a62375f01819005e7ccb
primarily black and gay
156
False
who was the resident DJ at The Warehouse in Chicago?
5706a62375f01819005e7ccc
Frankie Knuckles
241
False
the Warehouse
711
What club did the term "Warehouse music" originate from?
5ad2783ed7d075001a429560
True
Chicago
57
What city was the club The Remix located in?
5ad2783ed7d075001a429561
True
1977 to 1983
111
What years was the club The Remix located in?
5ad2783ed7d075001a429562
True
primarily black and gay
156
What types of people did the club The Remix attract?
5ad2783ed7d075001a429563
True
Frankie Knuckles
241
Who was the resident DJ at The Remix in Chicago?
5ad2783ed7d075001a429564
True
The term "house music" is said to have originated from a Chicago club called The Warehouse, which existed from 1977 to 1983. Clubbers to The Warehouse were primarily black and gay, who came to dance to music played by the club's resident DJ Frankie Knuckles, whom fans refer to as the "godfather of house". After the Warehouse closed in 1983, the crowds went to Knuckles' new club, The Power Plant. In the Channel 4 documentary Pump Up The Volume, Knuckles remarks that the first time he heard the term "house music" was upon seeing "we play house music" on a sign in the window of a bar on Chicago's South Side. One of the people in the car with him joked, "you know, that's the kind of music you play down at the Warehouse!", and then everybody laughed. South-Side Chicago DJ Leonard "Remix" Roy, in self-published statements, claims he put such a sign in a tavern window because it was where he played music that one might find in one's home; in his case, it referred to his mother's soul & disco records, which he worked into his sets. Farley Jackmaster Funk was quoted as saying "In 1982, I was DJing at a club called The Playground and there was this kid named Leonard 'Remix' Roy who was a DJ at a rival club called The Rink. He came over to my club one night, and into the DJ booth and said to me, 'I've got the gimmick that's gonna take all the people out of your club and into mine – it's called House music.' Now, where he got that name from or what made him think of it I don't know, so the answer lies with him."
what is the name of Chip E's 1985 house hit?
5706a69352bb891400689b24
"It's House"
25
False
when was Chip E's hit "It's House" released?
5706a69352bb891400689b25
1985
10
False
the term 'house music' came from the labeling of records at what store?
5706a69352bb891400689b26
Importes Etc
236
False
"It's House"
25
What is the name of Chip E's 1980 house hit?
5ad27ab2d7d075001a429616
True
1985
10
When was Warehouse's hit "It's House" released?
5ad27ab2d7d075001a429617
True
Importes Etc
236
The term "house bins" came from the labeling records at what store?
5ad27ab2d7d075001a429618
True
Importes Etc.
236
Where did Warehouse work in the early 1980s?
5ad27ab2d7d075001a429619
True
"It's House"
25
What recording helped to define rock music?
5ad27ab2d7d075001a42961a
True
Chip E.'s 1985 recording "It's House" may also have helped to define this new form of electronic music. However, Chip E. himself lends credence to the Knuckles association, claiming the name came from methods of labeling records at the Importes Etc. record store, where he worked in the early 1980s: bins of music that DJ Knuckles played at the Warehouse nightclub were labelled in the store "As Heard At The Warehouse", which was shortened to simply "House". Patrons later asked for new music for the bins, which Chip E. implies was a demand the shop tried to meet by stocking newer local club hits.
who ran the D.J. International record label?
5706a6d852bb891400689b2a
Rocky Jones
21
False
House is a regional catch-all term for what kind of music?
5706a6d852bb891400689b2b
dance music,
231
False
what was 'house music' once synonymous with?
5706a6d852bb891400689b2c
older disco music
281
False
Rocky Jones
21
Who ran the Jones International record label?
5ad27b5bd7d075001a429648
True
dance music
231
For what kind of music was Jones a regional catch-all term?
5ad27b5bd7d075001a429649
True
older disco music
281
What was "Jones music" once synonymous with?
5ad27b5bd7d075001a42964a
True
Rocky Jones
21
Who ran the Rocky International record label?
5ad27b5bd7d075001a42964b
True
"house"
189
What was a regional catch-all term for rap music?
5ad27b5bd7d075001a42964c
True
In a 1986 interview, Rocky Jones, the former club DJ who ran the D.J. International record label, doesn't mention Importes Etc., Frankie Knuckles, or the Warehouse by name, but agrees that "house" was a regional catch-all term for dance music, and that it was once synonymous with older disco music.
What was the stage name of Larry Heard?
5706a92752bb891400689b30
Mr. Fingers
21
False
Why did the term house become popular?
5706a92752bb891400689b31
early DJs creating music in their own homes
98
False
what are the Roland TR-808, TR-909, and TB 303 examples of?
5706a92752bb891400689b32
synthesizers and drum machines
148
False
synthesizers were used to create what house subgenre?
5706a92752bb891400689b33
acid house
310
False
what was the real name of Mr. Fingers?
5706a92752bb891400689b34
Larry Heard
0
False
Mr. Fingers
21
What was the stage name of Larry House?
5ad27d08d7d075001a4296aa
True
early DJs creating music in their own homes
98
Why did the term fingers become popular?
5ad27d08d7d075001a4296ab
True
synthesizers and drum machines
148
What are the Fingers TR-808, TR-909, and TB 303 examples of?
5ad27d08d7d075001a4296ac
True
acid house
310
Synthesizers were used to create what Fingers subgenre?
5ad27d08d7d075001a4296ad
True
Larry Heard
0
What was the real name of Mr. Roland?
5ad27d08d7d075001a4296ae
True
Larry Heard, a.k.a. "Mr. Fingers", claims that the term "house" became popular due to many of the early DJs creating music in their own homes using synthesizers and drum machines such as the Roland TR-808, TR-909, and the TB 303.[citation needed] These synthesizers were used to create a house subgenre called acid house.
What is Juan Atkins an originator of?
5706aab252bb891400689b3a
Detroit techno music
30
False
What did Atkins claim the term house reflected?
5706aab252bb891400689b3b
the exclusive association of particular tracks with particular clubs and DJs
86
False
Why were DJs inspired to create their own house records?
5706aab252bb891400689b3c
differentiate the clubs and DJs
185
False
Detroit techno music
30
What is Juan House an originator of?
5ad27e04d7d075001a4296f6
True
the exclusive association of particular tracks with particular clubs and DJs
86
What did House claim the term house Atkins reflected?
5ad27e04d7d075001a4296f7
True
differentiate the clubs and DJs
185
Why were DJs inspired to create their own Atkins records?
5ad27e04d7d075001a4296f8
True
Juan Atkins
0
Who was the originator of DJ music?
5ad27e04d7d075001a4296f9
True
"house" records
356
What was Juan Atkins inspired to create?
5ad27e04d7d075001a4296fa
True
Juan Atkins, an originator of Detroit techno music, claims the term "house" reflected the exclusive association of particular tracks with particular clubs and DJs; those records helped differentiate the clubs and DJs, and thus were considered to be their "house" records. In an effort to maintain such exclusives, the DJs were inspired to create their own "house" records.
Who did House relay political messages to?
5706ab2075f01819005e7cec
outcasts of society
95
False
Who did Frankie Knuckles once say the Warehouse club was for?
5706ab2075f01819005e7ced
church for people who have fallen from grace
315
False
Who was a famous house producer?
5706ab2075f01819005e7cee
Marshall Jefferson
380
False
where was the warehouse club located?
5706ab2075f01819005e7cef
Chicago
297
False
what community was deep house popular with?
5706ab2075f01819005e7cf0
the black community
549
False
outcasts of society
95
Who did Jefferson replay political messages to?
5ad27edad7d075001a42972e
True
church for people who have fallen from grace
315
Who did Jefferson once say the Warehouse club was for?
5ad27edad7d075001a42972f
True
Marshall Jefferson
380
Who was a famous freedom producer?
5ad27edad7d075001a429730
True
Chicago
297
Where was the Jefferson club located?
5ad27edad7d075001a429731
True
the black community
549
What community was deep Jefferson popular with?
5ad27edad7d075001a429732
True
House also had an influence of relaying political messages to people who were considered to be outcasts of society. The music appealed to those who didn't fit into mainstream American society and was especially celebrated by many black males. Frankie Knuckles once said that the Warehouse club in Chicago was like "church for people who have fallen from grace" The house producer Marshall Jefferson compared it to "old-time religion in the way that people just get happy and screamin'". Deep house was similar to many of the messages of freedom for the black community.
what was one of the earliest Detroit techno hits?
5706abba75f01819005e7d00
"Big Fun" by Inner City
128
False
who started the Detroit techno development?
5706abba75f01819005e7d01
The Electrifying Mojo
207
False
what was the nickname of juan atkins, derrick may, and devin saunderson?
5706abba75f01819005e7d02
the "godfathers" of Detroit Techno
657
False
who were the early b-boy hip-hop artists that inspired detroit techno?
5706abba75f01819005e7d03
Man Parrish, Soul Sonic Force
502
False
who were the european electronica artists that inspired detroit techno?
5706abba75f01819005e7d04
Kraftwerk, Art of Noise
411
False
"Big Fun" by Inner City
128
What was one of the earliest Parrish techno hits?
5ad28119d7d075001a4297de
True
The Electrifying Mojo
207
Who started the Parrish techno development?
5ad28119d7d075001a4297df
True
the "godfathers" of Detroit Techno
657
What was the nickname of Juan Kraftwerk, Derrick Saunderson, and Devin May?
5ad28119d7d075001a4297e0
True
Man Parrish, Soul Sonic Force
502
Who were the early b-boy hip-hop artists that inspired Yellow techno?
5ad28119d7d075001a4297e1
True
Kraftwerk, Art of Noise
411
Who were the European electronica artists that inspired Yellow Techno?
5ad28119d7d075001a4297e2
True
Detroit techno is an offshoot of Chicago house music. It was developed starting in the late 80s, one of the earliest hits being "Big Fun" by Inner City. Detroit techno developed as the legendary disc jockey The Electrifying Mojo conducted his own radio program at this time, influencing the fusion of eclectic sounds into the signature Detroit techno sound. This sound, also influenced by European electronica (Kraftwerk, Art of Noise), Japanese synthpop (Yellow Magic Orchestra), early B-boy Hip-Hop (Man Parrish, Soul Sonic Force) and Italo disco (Doctor's Cat, Ris, Klein M.B.O.), was further pioneered by Juan Atkins, Derrick May, and Kevin Saunderson, the "godfathers" of Detroit Techno.[citation needed]
What was the real name of the artist Mayday?
5706adf975f01819005e7d1a
Derrick May
0
False
Mayday and Thomas Barnett released what hit in 1987?
5706adf975f01819005e7d1b
"Nude Photo"
56
False
what was the name of Mayday's record label?
5706adf975f01819005e7d1c
Transmat Records
93
False
what year was the hit song "wiggin" released?
5706adf975f01819005e7d1d
1988
507
False
what label did Derrick May have successful releases on after his own?
5706adf975f01819005e7d1e
Kool Kat Records
589
False
Derrick May
0
What was the real name of the artist Wiggin?
5ad2822fd7d075001a429816
True
"Nude Photo"
56
Mayday and Thomas Strings released what hit in 1987?
5ad2822fd7d075001a429817
True
Transmat Records
93
What was the name of Wiggin's record label?
5ad2822fd7d075001a429818
True
1988
507
What year was the hit song "Mayday" released?
5ad2822fd7d075001a429819
True
Kool Kat Records
589
What label did Wiggin have successful releases on after his own?
5ad2822fd7d075001a42981a
True
Derrick May a.k.a. "MAYDAY" and Thomas Barnett released "Nude Photo" in 1987 on May's label "Transmat Records", which helped kickstart the Detroit techno music scene and was put in heavy rotation on Chicago's Hot Mix 5 Radio DJ mix show and in many Chicago clubs.[citation needed] A year later, Transmat released what was to become one of techno and house music's classic anthems – the seminal track "Strings of Life". Transmat Records went on to have many more successful releases[citation needed] such as 1988's "Wiggin". As well, Derrick May had successful[citation needed] releases on Kool Kat Records and many remixes for a host of underground and mainstream recording artist.
who founded KMS Records?
5706ae9775f01819005e7d24
Kevin Saunderson
0
False
what was the name of Blake Baxter's 1986 hit recording?
5706ae9775f01819005e7d25
"When we Used to Play / Work your Body"
249
False
what was the name of Blake Baxter's 1987 hit recording?
5706ae9775f01819005e7d26
"Bounce Your Body to the Box"
297
False
what group released "Big Fun" and "Good Life" in 1988?
5706ae9775f01819005e7d27
Inner City
552
False
what was the 1989 hit theme released by KMS?
5706ae9775f01819005e7d28
"Rock to the Beat"
873
False
Kevin Saunderson
0
Who founded Groove Records?
5ad283add7d075001a429850
True
"When we Used to Play / Work your Body"
249
What was the name of Steve Hurley's 1986 hit recording?
5ad283add7d075001a429851
True
"Bounce Your Body to the Box"
297
What was the name of Blake Hurley's 1987 hit recording?
5ad283add7d075001a429852
True
Inner City
552
What group released "Big Fun" and "Good Life" in 1987?
5ad283add7d075001a429853
True
Rock to the Beat
874
What was the 1988 hit theme released by KMS?
5ad283add7d075001a429854
True
Kevin Saunderson's company KMS Records contributed many releases that were as much house music as they were techno. These tracks were well received in Chicago and played on Chicago radio and in clubs.[citation needed] Blake Baxter's 1986 recording, "When we Used to Play / Work your Body", 1987's "Bounce Your Body to the Box" and "Force Field", "The Sound / How to Play our Music" and "the Groove that Won't Stop" and a remix of "Grooving Without a Doubt". In 1988, as house music became more popular among general audiences, Kevin Saunderson's group Inner City with Paris Gray released the 1988 hits "Big Fun" and "Good Life", which eventually were picked up by Virgin Records. Each EP / 12 inch single sported remixes by Mike "Hitman" Wilson and Steve "Silk" Hurley of Chicago and Derrick "Mayday" May and Juan Atkins of Detroit. In 1989, KMS had another hit release of "Rock to the Beat" which was a theme in Chicago dance clubs.[citation needed]
what is credited as the first house hit in the UK?
5706aecd75f01819005e7d2e
Farley "Jackmaster" Funk's "Love Can't Turn Around"
215
False
what did "Love Can't Turn Around" peak at in the UK charts?
5706aecd75f01819005e7d2f
#10
281
False
what year did Farley Funk have his first UK hit?
5706aecd75f01819005e7d30
1986
322
False
Farley "Jackmaster" Funk's "Love Can't Turn Around"
215
What is created as the second house hit in the UK?
5ad2855cd7d075001a42989a
True
#10
281
What did "Love Can't Turn Around" peak at in the Farley charts?
5ad2855cd7d075001a42989b
True
1986
322
What year did Love Funk have his first UK hit?
5ad2855cd7d075001a42989c
True
"Love Can't Turn Around"
242
Which song reached #6 in the UK singles chart?
5ad2855cd7d075001a42989d
True
September 1986
312
When did "Jackmaster" reach #10 in the UK singles chart?
5ad2855cd7d075001a42989e
True
With house music already massive on the '80s dance-scene it was only a matter of time before it would penetrate the UK pop charts.[citation needed] The record generally credited as the first house hit in the UK was Farley "Jackmaster" Funk's "Love Can't Turn Around" which reached #10 in the UK singles chart in September 1986.
What was the first house single to hit #1 in the UK?
5706af4352bb891400689b78
Steve "Silk" Hurley's "Jack Your Body"
32
False
What year did "Jack Your Body" hit #1 in the UK?
5706af4352bb891400689b79
1987
11
False
Who had a hit single with "jack the groove"?
5706af4352bb891400689b7a
Raze
180
False
what group's productions for Mel and Kim added elements of house to the europop sound?
5706af4352bb891400689b7b
Stock Aitken Waterman
288
False
what was the name of mel and kim's number-one hit single in the UK?
5706af4352bb891400689b7c
Respectable
371
False
Steve "Silk" Hurley's "Jack Your Body"
32
What was the first house single to hit #2 in the UK?
5ad2864dd7d075001a4298d2
True
1987
11
What year did "Jack Your Body" hit #2 in the UK?
5ad2864dd7d075001a4298d3
True
Raze
180
Who had a hit single with Mel and Kim?
5ad2864dd7d075001a4298d4
True
Stock Aitken Waterman
288
What groups productions for Mel and Kim added elements of house to the Hurley sound?
5ad2864dd7d075001a4298d5
True
Respectable
371
What was the name of Mel and Kim's number-one hit single in Chicago?
5ad2864dd7d075001a4298d6
True
In January 1987, Chicago artist Steve "Silk" Hurley's "Jack Your Body" reached number one in the UK, showing it was possible for house music to cross over. The same month also saw Raze enter the top 20 with "Jack the Groove", and several further house hits reached the top ten that year. Stock Aitken Waterman's productions for Mel and Kim, including the number-one hit "Respectable", added elements of house to their previous Europop sound, and session group Mirage scored top-ten hits with "Jack Mix II" and "Jack Mix IV", medleys of previous electro and Europop hits rearranged in a house style. Key labels in the rise of house music in the UK included:
what tour boosted house in the UK in the late 80s?
5706afdf2eaba6190074ac26
Knuckles, Jefferson, Fingers Inc. (Heard) and Adonis as the DJ International Tour
43
False
when did the DJ International Tour take place?
5706afdf2eaba6190074ac27
March 1987
12
False
what was the name of MARRS' number-one single in October 1987?
5706afdf2eaba6190074ac28
"Pump Up The Volume"
193
False
what was frequently an important element of UK house music?
5706afdf2eaba6190074ac29
humor
662
False
Sample montages were a key difference between british house music and what?
5706afdf2eaba6190074ac2a
the original Chicago house sound
480
False
Knuckles, Jefferson, Fingers Inc. (Heard) and Adonis as the DJ International Tour
43
What tour boosted house in the US in the late 80s?
5ad2878bd7d075001a42991a
True
March 1987
12
When did the Chicago Tour take place?
5ad2878bd7d075001a42991b
True
"Pump Up The Volume"
193
What was the name of MARRS's number-one single in October 1989?
5ad2878bd7d075001a42991c
True
humor
662
What was frequently an important element of US house music?
5ad2878bd7d075001a42991d
True
rap
584
What was not used for vocals?
5ad2878bd7d075001a42991e
True
The tour in March 1987[citation needed] of Knuckles, Jefferson, Fingers Inc. (Heard) and Adonis as the DJ International Tour boosted house in the UK. Following the number-one success of MARRS' "Pump Up The Volume" in October, the years 1987 to 1989 also saw UK acts such as The Beatmasters, Krush, Coldcut, Yazz, Bomb The Bass, S-Express, and Italy's Black Box opening the doors to a house music onslaught on the UK charts. Early British house music quickly set itself apart from the original Chicago house sound;[citation needed] many of the early hits were based on sample montage, rap was often used for vocals (far more than in the US),[citation needed] and humor was frequently an important element.
who released the hit single "promised land"?
5706b03f0eeca41400aa0d23
Joe Smooth
52
False
who covered and charted the single "promised land"?
5706b03f0eeca41400aa0d24
Style Council
109
False
who was the resident of the Ministry of Sound?
5706b03f0eeca41400aa0d25
Justin Berkmann
266
False
who did Justin Berkmann bring into the club to play?
5706b03f0eeca41400aa0d26
Larry Levan
293
False
Joe Smooth
52
Who released the hit single "American Land"?
5ad28874d7d075001a429952
True
Style Council
109
Who covered and charted the single "American Land"?
5ad28874d7d075001a429953
True
Justin Berkmann
266
Who was the resident of the Ministry of House?
5ad28874d7d075001a429954
True
Larry Levan
293
Who did Joe Smooth bring into the club to play?
5ad28874d7d075001a429955
True
Larry Levan
293
Who covered and chartered "Ministry of Sound"?
5ad28874d7d075001a429956
True
One of the early anthemic tunes, "Promised Land" by Joe Smooth, was covered and charted within a week by the Style Council. Europeans embraced house, and began booking legendary American house DJs to play at the big clubs, such as Ministry of Sound, whose resident, Justin Berkmann brought in Larry Levan.
what cities in the UK had major house scenes?
5706b0a62eaba6190074ac3a
Birmingham, Leeds, Sheffield and London
34
False
what helped to bolster house music in the uk?
5706b0a62eaba6190074ac3b
underground Pirate Radio stations and DJs
103
False
what were the earliest and most influential record labels in UK house music?
5706b0a62eaba6190074ac3c
Warp Records and Network Records
320
False
what was network records also known as?
5706b0a62eaba6190074ac3d
Kool Kat records
373
False
what type of dance music was later introduced alongside American house music?
5706b0a62eaba6190074ac3e
Italian dance music
427
False
Birmingham, Leeds, Sheffield and London
34
What cities in the UK had major Warp scenes?
5ad289c1d7d075001a429994
True
underground Pirate Radio stations and DJs
103
What helped to bolster house music in Sheffield?
5ad289c1d7d075001a429995
True
Warp Records and Network Records
320
What were the earliest and most influential record labels in Sheffield house music?
5ad289c1d7d075001a429996
True
Kool Kat records
373
What was Italian Records also known as?
5ad289c1d7d075001a429997
True
Italian dance music
427
What type of dance music was later introduced alongside UK house music?
5ad289c1d7d075001a429998
True
The house scene in cities such as Birmingham, Leeds, Sheffield and London were also provided with many underground Pirate Radio stations and DJs alike which helped bolster an already contagious, but otherwise ignored by the mainstream, music genre. The earliest and influential UK house and techno record labels such as Warp Records and Network Records (otherwise known as Kool Kat records) helped introduce American and later Italian dance music to Britain as well as promoting select UK dance music acts.
what tiny island was house music also being devloped on?
5706b11d0eeca41400aa0d35
Ibiza
38
False
what was a popular club in ibiza that started playing dance and house music?
5706b11d0eeca41400aa0d36
Amnesia
251
False
who was the DJ at Amnesia in the mid 80s?
5706b11d0eeca41400aa0d37
DJ Alfredo
264
False
who were some of the DJs that brought the ibiza sound to uk clubs in late 1987?
5706b11d0eeca41400aa0d38
Trevor Fung, Paul Oakenfold and Danny Rampling
460
False
what was the name of the big dance club in Manchester UK in the late 80s?
5706b11d0eeca41400aa0d39
Haçienda
561
False
Ibiza
38
What tiny island was Rampling music also being developed on?
5ad28af9d7d075001a4299d4
True
Amnesia
251
What was a popular club in Southwark that started playing dance and house music?
5ad28af9d7d075001a4299d5
True
DJ Alfredo
264
Who was the DJ at Southwark in the mid 80s?
5ad28af9d7d075001a4299d6
True
Trevor Fung, Paul Oakenfold and Danny Rampling
460
Who were some of the DJs that brought the Southwark sound to UK clubs in late 1987?
5ad28af9d7d075001a4299d7
True
Haçienda
561
What was the name of the big dance club in Southwark UK in the late 80s?
5ad28af9d7d075001a4299d8
True
But house was also being developed on Ibiza,[citation needed] although no house artists or labels were coming from this tiny island at the time. By the mid-1980s a distinct Balearic mix of house was discernible.[citation needed] Several clubs such as Amnesia with DJ Alfredo were playing a mix of rock, pop, disco and house. These clubs, fueled by their distinctive sound and Ecstasy, began to have an influence on the British scene. By late 1987, DJs such as Trevor Fung, Paul Oakenfold and Danny Rampling were bringing the Ibiza sound to UK clubs such as the Haçienda in Manchester, and in London clubs such as Shoom in Southwark, Heaven, Future and Spectrum.
what group did Marshall Jefferson form?
5706b1910eeca41400aa0d3f
Ten City Byron Burke, Byron Stingily & Herb Lawson(from "intensity")
205
False
what sound emerged in Detroit with the recordings of juan atkins and derrick may?
5706b1910eeca41400aa0d40
proto-techno music sound
387
False
where were mateo & matos based?
5706b1910eeca41400aa0d41
New York
275
False
where was marshall jefferson based?
5706b1910eeca41400aa0d42
Chicago
150
False
what sound did US house music move beyond in the late 80s?
5706b1910eeca41400aa0d43
drum loops and short samples
117
False
Ten City Byron Burke, Byron Stingily & Herb Lawson(from "intensity")
205
What group did Devin Saunderson form?
5ad28c61d7d075001a429a04
True
proto-techno music sound
387
What sound emerged in Detroit with the recordings of Juan May and Derrick Atkins?
5ad28c61d7d075001a429a05
True
New York
275
Where were Mateo & Saunderson based?
5ad28c61d7d075001a429a06
True
Chicago
150
Where was Marshall Saunderson based?
5ad28c61d7d075001a429a07
True
drum loops and short samples
117
What sound did US house music move beyond in the late 70s?
5ad28c61d7d075001a429a08
True
In the U.S., the music was being developed to create a more sophisticated sound,[citation needed] moving beyond just drum loops and short samples. In Chicago, Marshall Jefferson had formed the house group Ten City Byron Burke, Byron Stingily & Herb Lawson(from "intensity"). New York–based performers such as Mateo & Matos and Blaze had slickly produced disco house tracks. In Detroit a proto-techno music sound began to emerge with the recordings of Juan Atkins, Derrick May and Kevin Saunderson.
atkins was a former member of what music group?
5706b4af0eeca41400aa0d5b
Cybotron
27
False
what hit single did atkins release in 1985?
5706b4af0eeca41400aa0d5c
"No UFOs"
56
False
what unusual single did derrick may release, featuring a darker strain of house?
5706b4af0eeca41400aa0d5d
"Strings of Life"
197
False
what did knights of the turntable release in 1984?
5706b4af0eeca41400aa0d5e
Techno-Scratch
277
False
who was the manager of the factory nightclub and co-owner of the hacienda?
5706b4af0eeca41400aa0d5f
Tony Wilson
459
False
Cybotron
382
May was a former member of what music group?
5ad28d6fd7d075001a429a2a
True
"No UFOs"
56
What hit single did May release in 1985?
5ad28d6fd7d075001a429a2b
True
"Strings of Life"
197
What unusual single did Derrick Atkins release, featuring a darker strain of house?
5ad28d6fd7d075001a429a2c
True
Techno-Scratch
277
What did Knights of the turntable release in 1980?
5ad28d6fd7d075001a429a2d
True
Tony Wilson
459
Who was the manager of the factory nightclub and co-owner of The Hummingbird?
5ad28d6fd7d075001a429a2e
True
Atkins, a former member of Cybotron, released Model 500 "No UFOs" in 1985, which became a regional hit, followed by dozens of tracks on Transmat, Metroplex and Fragile. One of the most unusual was "Strings of Life" by Derrick May, a darker, more intellectual strain of house. "Techno-Scratch" was released by the Knights Of The Turntable in 1984 which had a similar techno sound to Cybotron. The manager of the Factory nightclub and co-owner of the Haçienda, Tony Wilson, also promoted acid house culture on his weekly TV show. The Midlands also embraced the late 1980s house scene with illegal parties and more legal dance clubs such as The Hummingbird.
what was a top club for house music in new york city?
5706b5100eeca41400aa0d65
Paradise Garage
379
False
who was a pioneer of the genre in america?
5706b5100eeca41400aa0d66
Todd Terry
451
False
what hit house song did todd terry cover?
5706b5100eeca41400aa0d67
Weekend
560
False
what new influences led to a new house sound?
5706b5100eeca41400aa0d68
hip-hop influences
649
False
what was different about the bass-line in the hip-hop influenced house songs?
5706b5100eeca41400aa0d69
more rugged
708
False
Paradise Garage
379
What was a top club for house music in Detroit?
5ad28fb0d7d075001a429a78
True
Todd Terry
451
Who was a pioneer of the genre in the UK?
5ad28fb0d7d075001a429a79
True
Weekend
560
What hit house song did Larry Levan cover?
5ad28fb0d7d075001a429a7a
True
hip-hop influences
649
What new influences led to a new bass sound?
5ad28fb0d7d075001a429a7b
True
more rugged
708
What was different about the bass-line in the hip-hop influenced Chicago songs?
5ad28fb0d7d075001a429a7c
True
Back in America the scene had still not progressed beyond a small number of clubs in Chicago, Detroit, Newark and New York City. However, many independent Chicago-based record labels were making appearances on the Dance Chart with their releases. In the UK, any house song released by a Chicago-based label was routinely considered a must play at many clubs playing house music. Paradise Garage in New York City was still a top club. The emergence of Todd Terry, a pioneer of the genre, was important in America. His cover of Class Action's Larry Levan mixed "Weekend" demonstrated the continuum from the underground disco to a new house sound with hip-hop influences evident in the quicker sampling and the more rugged bass-line.
what label launched the careers of burrell?
5706b5912eaba6190074ac58
Nu Groove Records
19
False
what sound are the burrell's responsible for?
5706b5912eaba6190074ac59
"New York Underground"
336
False
how much can old vinyl releases of the burrells sell for today?
5706b5912eaba6190074ac5a
$100
605
False
what label were the burrell's briefly with before their success?
5706b5912eaba6190074ac5b
Virgin America
163
False
Nu Groove Record
507
What label launched the careers of DJ?
5ad29173d7d075001a429aa6
True
"New York Underground"
336
What sounds are the Mendezes responsible for?
5ad29173d7d075001a429aa7
True
$100
605
How much can old vinyl releases of the Mendezes sell for today?
5ad29173d7d075001a429aa8
True
Virgin America
163
What label were the Mendez's briefly with before their success?
5ad29173d7d075001a429aa9
True
late 1980s
7
When did DJ Records prolong the Burells's careers?
5ad29173d7d075001a429aaa
True
In the late 1980s, Nu Groove Records prolonged, if not launched the careers of Rheji Burrell & Rhano Burrell, collectively known as Burrell (after a brief stay on Virgin America via Timmy Regisford and Frank Mendez), along with basically every relevant DJ and Producer in the NY underground scene. The Burrell's are responsible for the "New York Underground" sound and are the undisputed champions of this style of house. Their 30+ releases on this label alone seems to support that fact. In today's market Nu Groove Record releases like the Burrells' enjoy a cult-like following and mint vinyl can fetch $100 U.S. or more in the open market.
where did DJs marques wyatt and billy long become successful?
5706b5fa0eeca41400aa0d6f
Los Angeles
123
False
what is the oldest dance club in america?
5706b5fa0eeca41400aa0d70
Jewel's Catch One
240
False
what label did robert ozn start in 1989?
5706b5fa0eeca41400aa0d71
One Voice Records
384
False
one voice records released a remix of what dada nada song in 1989?
5706b5fa0eeca41400aa0d72
Haunted House
460
False
dada nada was the moniker for what artist's solo act?
5706b5fa0eeca41400aa0d73
Ozn
762
False
Los Angeles
79
Where did DJs Marques, Wyatt, and Mike Wilson become successful?
5ad2932ad7d075001a429adc
True
Jewel's Catch One
240
What is the oldest dance club in San Deigo?
5ad2932ad7d075001a429add
True
One Voice Records
929
What label did Mike Wilson start in 1989?
5ad2932ad7d075001a429ade
True
Haunted House
460
One Voice Records released a remix of what dada nada song in 1988?
5ad2932ad7d075001a429adf
True
Ozn
974
David Morales was the moniker for what artist's solo act?
5ad2932ad7d075001a429ae0
True
By the late 80s, House had moved West, particularly to San Francisco, Oakland, Los Angeles, Fresno, San Diego and Seattle. Los Angeles saw a huge explosion of underground raves and DJs, notably DJs Marques Wyatt and Billy Long, who spun at Jewel's Catch One, the oldest dance club in America. In 1989, the L.A. based, former EBN-OZN singer/rapper Robert Ozn started indie house label One Voice Records, releasing the Mike "Hitman" Wilson remix of Dada Nada's "Haunted House," which garnered instant club and mix show radio play in Chicago, Detroit and New York as well as in the U.K. and France. The record shot up to Number Five on the Billboard Club Chart, marking it as the first House record by a white artist to chart in the U.S. Dada Nada, the moniker for Ozn's solo act, released in 1990, what has become a classic example of jazz-based Deep House, the Frankie Knuckles and David Morales remix of Dada Nada's "Deep Love" (One Voice Records/US, Polydor/UK), featuring Ozn's lush, crooning vocals and muted trumpet improvisational solos, underscoring Deep House's progression into a genre that integrated jazz and pop songwriting structures – a feature which continued to set it apart from Acid House and Techno.
what madonna single is credited as helping bring house music to the mainstream?
5706b68e0eeca41400aa0d79
Vogue
131
False
when was madonna's hit single "vogue" released?
5706b68e0eeca41400aa0d7a
1990
118
False
what decade did house music hit the mainstream in the us?
5706b68e0eeca41400aa0d7b
1990s
10
False
who sang the hit single "vogue"?
5706b68e0eeca41400aa0d7c
Madonna
108
False
how well did madonna's single "vogue" do in the us?
5706b68e0eeca41400aa0d7d
topped the US charts
177
False
Vogue
131
What Madonna single is credited as helping bring US music to the mainstream?
5ad29458d7d075001a429af0
True
1990
118
When was Madonna's hit single "House" released?
5ad29458d7d075001a429af1
True
1990s
10
What decade did Madonna's music hit the mainstream in the US?
5ad29458d7d075001a429af2
True
Madonna
108
Who sang the hit single "Pop"?
5ad29458d7d075001a429af3
True
topped the US charts
177
How well did Madonna's single "Pop" do in the US?
5ad29458d7d075001a429af4
True
The early 1990s additionally saw the rise in mainstream US popularity for house music. Pop recording artist Madonna's 1990 single "Vogue" became an international hit single and topped the US charts. The single is credited as helping to bring house music to the US mainstream.
What gospel/R&B-influenced group released "Time Passes On" in 1993?
5706b74a0eeca41400aa0d83
Aly-us
34
False
who released the hit single "time for the perculator" in the us?
5706b74a0eeca41400aa0d84
Cajmere
268
False
what was cajmere's alternate name?
5706b74a0eeca41400aa0d85
Green Velvet
472
False
what was the name of the label operated by dj funk in chicago?
5706b74a0eeca41400aa0d86
Dance Mania
686
False
what was the prototype of ghetto house?
5706b74a0eeca41400aa0d87
"Time for the Perculator" by Cajmere
239
False
Aly-us
34
What gospel/R&B-influenced group released "DJ Sneak" in 1993?
5ad29865d7d075001a429b42
True
Cajmere
268
Who released the hit single "DJ Sneak" in the US?
5ad29865d7d075001a429b43
True
Green Velvet
472
What was Cajual's alternative name?
5ad29865d7d075001a429b44
True
Dance Mania
686
What was the name of the label operated by Cajmere in Chicago?
5ad29865d7d075001a429b45
True
"Time for the Perculator" by Cajmere
239
What was the prototype of Chicago house?
5ad29865d7d075001a429b46
True
Influential gospel/R&B-influenced Aly-us released "Time Passes On" in 1993 (Strictly Rhythm), then later, "Follow Me" which received radio airplay as well as being played in clubs. Another U.S. hit which received radio play was the single "Time for the Perculator" by Cajmere, which became the prototype of ghetto house subgenre. Cajmere started the Cajual and Relief labels (amongst others). By the early 1990s artists such as Cajmere himself (under that name as well as Green Velvet and as producer for Dajae), DJ Sneak, Glenn Underground and others did many recordings. The 1990s saw new Chicago house artists emerge such as DJ Funk, who operates a Chicago house record label called Dance Mania. Ghetto house and acid house were other house music styles that were also started in Chicago.
where did the "chilling out" concept develop?
5706b7a92eaba6190074ac6a
Britain
213
False
who released the album analogue bubblebath?
5706b7a92eaba6190074ac6b
Aphex Twin
302
False
where was the band deee-lite based?
5706b7a92eaba6190074ac6c
New York
592
False
who released the track "little fluffy clouds"?
5706b7a92eaba6190074ac6d
Orb
715
False
who transformed happy mondays' "wrote for luck" into a dance hit?
5706b7a92eaba6190074ac6e
Vince Clarke
890
False
Britain
3
Where did the "indie dance" concept develop?
5ad29983d7d075001a429b70
True
Aphex Twin
302
Who released the album "Fluffy Orb"?
5ad29983d7d075001a429b71
True
New York
592
Where was the band Fluffy Orb based?
5ad29983d7d075001a429b72
True
Orb
715
Who released the track "Little Indie Dance"?
5ad29983d7d075001a429b73
True
Vince Clarke
890
Who transformed happy mondays' "Little Fluffy Clouds" into a dance hit?
5ad29983d7d075001a429b74
True
In Britain, further experiments in the genre boosted its appeal. House and rave clubs such as Lakota and Cream emerged across Britain, hosting house and dance scene events. The 'chilling out' concept developed in Britain with ambient house albums such as The KLF's Chill Out and Analogue Bubblebath by Aphex Twin. The Godskitchen superclub brand also began in the midst of the early 90's rave scene. After initially hosting small nights in Cambridge and Northampton, the associated events scaled up in Milton Keynes, Birmingham and Leeds. A new indie dance scene also emerged in the 90's. In New York, bands such as Deee-Lite furthered house's international influence. Two distinctive tracks from this era were the Orb's "Little Fluffy Clouds" (with a distinctive vocal sample from Rickie Lee Jones) and the Happy Mondays' "Wrote for Luck" ("WFL") which was transformed into a dance hit by Vince Clarke.
what act was passed in england in an attempt to ban large rave dance events?
5706b81c0eeca41400aa0d97
Criminal Justice and Public Order Act 1994
143
False
what was the nail in the coffin for illegal raves?
5706b81c0eeca41400aa0d98
The Spiral Tribe at Castle Morten
347
False
when did the bill become a law?
5706b81c0eeca41400aa0d99
November 1994
486
False
what single introduced dub and reggae into the house sound?
5706b81c0eeca41400aa0d9a
"Release the Pressure"
571
False
who recorded the hit single "release the pressure"?
5706b81c0eeca41400aa0d9b
Leftfield
556
False
Criminal Justice and Public Order Act 1994
143
What act was passed in England in attempt to ban large records?
5ad29c02d7d075001a429be2
True
The Spiral Tribe at Castle Morten
347
What was the nail in the coffin for illegal records?
5ad29c02d7d075001a429be3
True
November 1994
486
When did the bill get repealed?
5ad29c02d7d075001a429be4
True
"Release the Pressure"
571
What single introduced dub and reggae into the Castle sound?
5ad29c02d7d075001a429be5
True
Leftfield
658
Who recorded the hit single "Not Released"?
5ad29c02d7d075001a429be6
True
In England, one of the few licensed venues The Eclipse attracted people from up and down the country as it was open until the early hours. The Criminal Justice and Public Order Act 1994 was a government attempt to ban large rave dance events featuring music with "repetitive beats". There were a number of abortive "Kill the Bill" demonstrations. The Spiral Tribe at Castle Morten was probably the nail in the coffin for illegal raves, and forced through the bill, which became law, in November 1994. The music continued to grow and change, as typified by Leftfield with "Release the Pressure", which introduced dub and reggae into the house sound, although Leftfield had prior releases, such as "Not Forgotten" released in 1990 on Sheffield's Outer Rhythm records.
where was a new type of club called Cream located?
5706b8b42eaba6190074ac74
Liverpool
34
False
what was a new subgenre of house in chicago, developed by bad boy bill and others, called?
5706b8b42eaba6190074ac75
Chicago hard house
401
False
george centeno, darren ramirez, and martin o. cairo developed a hard house sound in what city?
5706b8b42eaba6190074ac76
Los Angeles
699
False
what was another name for hardcore techno from the netherlands?
5706b8b42eaba6190074ac77
gabber
740
False
who began opening "superclubs"?
5706b8b42eaba6190074ac78
Major record companies
137
False
Liverpool
34
Where was a new type of club called Darren Located?
5ad29df8d7d075001a429c38
True
Chicago hard house
401
What was a new subgenre of house in Los Angeles, developed by bad boy bill and others, called?
5ad29df8d7d075001a429c39
True
Los Angeles
699
George Centeno, Darren Ramirez, and Martin O. Cairo developed a superclub sound in what city?
5ad29df8d7d075001a429c3a
True
gabber
740
What was another name for hardcore techno from Chicago?
5ad29df8d7d075001a429c3b
True
Major record companies
137
Who began opening gabbers?
5ad29df8d7d075001a429c3c
True
A new generation of clubs such as Liverpool's Cream and the Ministry of Sound were opened to provide a venue for more commercial sounds. Major record companies began to open "superclubs" promoting their own acts. These superclubs entered into sponsorship deals initially with fast food, soft drinks, and clothing companies. Flyers in clubs in Ibiza often sported many corporate logos. A new subgenre, Chicago hard house, was developed by DJs such as Bad Boy Bill, DJ Lynnwood, DJ Irene, Richard "Humpty" Vission and DJ Enrie, mixing elements of Chicago house, funky house and hard house together. Additionally, Producers such as George Centeno, Darren Ramirez, and Martin O. Cairo would develop the Los Angeles Hard House sound. Similar to gabber or hardcore techno from the Netherlands, this sound was often associated with the "rebel" culture of the time. These 3 producers are often considered "ahead of their time" since many of the sounds they engineered during the late 20th century became more prominent during the 21st century.
Daft Punk began producing a new sound out of what european city?
5706b9072eaba6190074ac7e
Paris
158
False
Daft Punk, Stardust, Cassius, St. Germain, and DJ Falcon all came from what scene?
5706b9072eaba6190074ac7f
Paris's house scene
158
False
When did Daft Punk begin producing a new sound?
5706b9072eaba6190074ac80
end of the 1990s and into the 2000s
12
False
Paris
158
Daft Chicago began producing a new sound out of what European city?
5ad2a0efd7d075001a429cb4
True
Paris's house scene
158
Daft Stardust and Germain Chicago came from what scene?
5ad2a0efd7d075001a429cb5
True
end of the 1990s and into the 2000s
12
When did Germain Chicago begin producing a new sound?
5ad2a0efd7d075001a429cb6
True
end of the 1990s and into the 2000s
12
When did Daft Punk begin producing the a new sound out of Chicago's house scene?
5ad2a0efd7d075001a429cb7
True
French house movement
245
What did Chicago's house scene lead to?
5ad2a0efd7d075001a429cb8
True
Towards the end of the 1990s and into the 2000s, producers such as Daft Punk, Stardust, Cassius, St. Germain and DJ Falcon began producing a new sound out of Paris's house scene. Together, they laid the groundwork for what would be known as the French house movement. By combining the harder-edged-yet-soulful philosophy of Chicago house with the melodies of obscure funk, state-of-the-art production techniques and the sound of analog synthesizers, they began to create the standards that would shape all house music.
When was House Unity Day in Chicago?
5706b9942eaba6190074ac84
August 10, 2005
42
False
Who proclaimed House Unity Day in Chicago?
5706b9942eaba6190074ac85
Chicago Mayor Richard M. Daley
0
False
In 2005, what anniversary was house music celebrating?
5706b9942eaba6190074ac86
"21st anniversary of house music"
116
False
what was recognized as the original home of house music in 2005?
5706b9942eaba6190074ac87
Chicago
285
False
What event was organized by Chicago's Department of Cultural Affairs to celebrate house music?
5706b9942eaba6190074ac88
Summer Dance Series
631
False
August 10, 2005
42
When was House Unity Day in Jefferson?
5ad2a0e8d7d075001a429ca4
True
Chicago Mayor Richard M. Daley
0
Who proclaimed House Unity Day in Jefferson?
5ad2a0e8d7d075001a429ca5
True
21st anniversary of house music
117
In 2005, what anniversary was Oliver music celebrating?
5ad2a0e8d7d075001a429ca6
True
Chicago
285
What was recognized as the original home of Oliver music in 2005?
5ad2a0e8d7d075001a429ca7
True
Summer Dance Series
631
What event was organized by Chicago's Department of Cultural Affairs to celebrate Oliver music?
5ad2a0e8d7d075001a429ca8
True
Chicago Mayor Richard M. Daley proclaimed August 10, 2005 to be "House Unity Day" in Chicago, in celebration of the "21st anniversary of house music" (actually the 21st anniversary of the founding of Trax Records, an independent Chicago-based house label). The proclamation recognized Chicago as the original home of house music and that the music's original creators "were inspired by the love of their city, with the dream that someday their music would spread a message of peace and unity throughout the world". DJs such as Frankie Knuckles, Marshall Jefferson, Paul Johnson and Mickey Oliver celebrated the proclamation at the Summer Dance Series, an event organized by Chicago's Department of Cultural Affairs.
Defected Records was at the forefront of what type of house music?
5706bad60eeca41400aa0db3
vocal house
31
False
Roule and Om was at the forefront of what type of house music?
5706bad60eeca41400aa0db4
vocal house
31
False
Dennis Ferrer produced what type of house fusion?
5706bad60eeca41400aa0db5
electro house and fidget house
272
False
in what time period did fusion genres of house emerge?
5706bad60eeca41400aa0db6
mid-2000s
239
False
vocal house
31
Defected Records was at the forefront of what type of Roule music?
5ad2a231d7d075001a429cec
True
vocal house
31
Roule and Om was at the forefront of what type of Shade music?
5ad2a231d7d075001a429ced
True
electro house and fidget house
272
What type of Shade fusion did Dennis Ferrer produce?
5ad2a231d7d075001a429cee
True
mid-2000s
239
In what time period did Shade genres of house emerge?
5ad2a231d7d075001a429cef
True
fusion
334
What is apparent in the crossover of market styles?
5ad2a231d7d075001a429cf0
True
It was during this decade that vocal house became firmly established, both in the underground and as part of the pop market, and labels such as Defected Records, Roule and Om were at the forefront of championing the emerging sound. In the mid-2000s, fusion genres such as electro house and fidget house emerged.[citation needed] This fusion is apparent in the crossover of musical styles by artists such as Dennis Ferrer and Booka Shade, with the former's production style having evolved from the New York soulful house scene and the latter's roots in techno.
Where did the Winter Music Conference take place?
5706bb610eeca41400aa0dbb
Miami
180
False
The Shambhala Music Festival was dedicated to what?
5706bb610eeca41400aa0dbc
house music
46
False
where did house music gain popularity in the middle east?
5706bb610eeca41400aa0dbd
Dubai & Abu Dhabi
283
False
what event led to an increase in popularity for house music in the middle east?
5706bb610eeca41400aa0dbe
Creamfields
337
False
what large event in Miami was industry sponsored?
5706bb610eeca41400aa0dbf
Shambhala Music Festival
114
False
Miami
180
Where did the Middle East Conference take place?
5ad2a391d7d075001a429d50
True
house music
46
What was the Numerous Conference dedicated to?
5ad2a391d7d075001a429d51
True
Dubai & Abu Dhabi
283
Where did Miami music gain popularity in the Middle East?
5ad2a391d7d075001a429d52
True
Creamfields
337
What event led to an increase in popularity for Shambhala in the Middle East?
5ad2a391d7d075001a429d53
True
Shambhala Music Festival
114
What large event in the Middle East was industry sponsored?
5ad2a391d7d075001a429d54
True
Numerous live performance events dedicated to house music were founded during the course of the decade, including Shambhala Music Festival and major industry sponsored events like Miami's Winter Music Conference. The genre even gained popularity in the Middle East in cities such as Dubai & Abu Dhabi[citation needed] and at events like Creamfields.
What was different about swedish progressive house music?
5706bbe32eaba6190074acc8
snare-less
100
False
Sebastian Ingrosso, Axwell, and Steve Angello formed what successful trio?
5706bbe32eaba6190074acc9
Swedish House Mafia
237
False
What concept is characterized by abrasive leads and darker arpeggios?
5706bbe32eaba6190074acca
Dirty Dutch
323
False
Progressive house blended sounds were prominent in the song "Marry the Night" by what popular artist?
5706bbe32eaba6190074accb
Lady Gaga
980
False
Big room house has found increasing popularity since what year?
5706bbe32eaba6190074accc
2010
1165
False
snare-less
100
What was different about US progressive house music?
5ad2a48ad7d075001a429d82
True
Swedish House Mafia
237
Sebastian Ingrosso, Aswell, and Steve Spears formed what successful trio?
5ad2a48ad7d075001a429d83
True
Dirty Dutch
323
What concept is characterized by abrasive leads and darker houses?
5ad2a48ad7d075001a429d84
True
Lady Gaga
980
Progressive house blended sounds were prominent in the song "Swedish House" by what popular artist?
5ad2a48ad7d075001a429d85
True
2010
1165
Big room house has found increasing arpeggios since what year?
5ad2a48ad7d075001a429d86
True
2010s saw multiple new sounds in house music developed by numerous DJs. Sweden knew a prominence of snare-less "Swedish progressive house" with the emergence of Sebastian Ingrosso, Axwell, Steve Angello (These three formed a trio called Swedish House Mafia), Avicii, Alesso, etc. Netherlands brought together a concept of "Dirty Dutch", electro house subgenre characterized by very abrasive leads and darker arpeggios, with prominent DJs Chuckie, Hardwell, Laidback Luke, Afrojack, R3hab, Bingo Players, Quintino, Alvaro, Cedric Gervais, 2G, etc. Elsewhere, fusion genres derivative of 2000s progressive house returned to prominence, especially with the help of DJs Calvin Harris, Eric Prydz, Mat Zo, Above & Beyond and Fonzerelli in Europe, Deadmau5, Kaskade, Steve Aoki, Porter Robinson and Wolfgang Gartner in the US and Canada. The growing popularity of such artists led to the emergence of electro house and progressive house blended sounds in popular music, such as singles Lady Gaga's "Marry the Night", The Black Eyed Peas' "The Best One Yet (The Boy)" and the will.i.am and Britney Spears "Scream & Shout". Big room house found increasing popularity since 2010, particularly through international dance music festivals such as Tomorrowland, Ultra Music Festival, and Electric Daisy Carnival.
There has been a reunification of contemporary house with what?
5706bc630eeca41400aa0dc5
its roots
110
False
What genre of artists has recently turned to house music to add mass appeal?
5706bc630eeca41400aa0dc6
hip hop and R&B
126
False
Why do many hip hop and R&B artists turn to house music?
5706bc630eeca41400aa0dc7
to add a mass appeal to the music they produce
175
False
its roots
110
What has there been a reunification of contemporary mass with?
5ad2a599d7d075001a429dd4
True
hip hop and R&B
126
What genre of artists has recently turned to house music to add music roots?
5ad2a599d7d075001a429dd5
True
to add a mass appeal to the music they produce
175
Why do many hip hop and R&B artists turn to roots?
5ad2a599d7d075001a429dd6
True
contemporary house and its roots
87
What has there been a separation of?
5ad2a599d7d075001a429dd7
True
Many hip hop and R&B artists
121
Who turns to country music?
5ad2a599d7d075001a429dd8
True
In addition to these popular examples of house, there has also been a reunification of contemporary house and its roots. Many hip hop and R&B artists also turn to house music to add a mass appeal to the music they produce.
Letter_case
The terms uppercase and lowercase originated from the common layout which type of drawers?
5706ec1e90286e26004fc73f
shallow
231
False
Besides being a single word or two separate words, how can the words uppercase and lowercase be expressed?
5706ec1e90286e26004fc740
hyphen
94
False
In relation to the shelf the small letters were located, where were the capital letters?
5706ec1e90286e26004fc741
located above
396
False
Which characteristic of capital letters made it easy to remember.
5706ec1e90286e26004fc742
taller
511
False
The terms upper case and lower case can be written as two consecutive words, connected with a hyphen (upper-case and lower-case), or as a single word (uppercase and lowercase). These terms originated from the common layouts of the shallow drawers called type cases used to hold the movable type for letterpress printing. Traditionally, the capital letters were stored in a separate case that was located above the case that held the small letters, and the name proved easy to remember since capital letters are taller.
What is the basis of capitalization standards for the sentence-style capitalization?
5706ee379e06ca38007e921b
sentences
329
False
What is the popular capitalization structure and standard used by many British publishers and U.S. newspapers?
5706ee379e06ca38007e921c
sentence-style
226
False
What is an alternative name for sentence-style capitalization?
5706ee379e06ca38007e921d
sentence case
374
False
Which popular global publisher utilizes sentence case for titles and headers?
5706ee379e06ca38007e921e
International Organization for Standardization
620
False
Besides headlines, what is sentence-style capitalization often applied to?
5706ee379e06ca38007e921f
publication titles
415
False
The convention followed by many British publishers (including scientific publishers, like Nature, magazines, like The Economist and New Scientist, and newspapers, like The Guardian and The Times) and U.S. newspapers is to use sentence-style capitalisation in headlines, where capitalisation follows the same rules that apply for sentences. This convention is usually called sentence case. It may also be applied to publication titles, especially in bibliographic references and library catalogues. Examples of global publishers whose English-language house styles prescribe sentence-case titles and headings include the International Organization for Standardization.
Which century did the lower-case script for the Greek Alphabet originate?
5706ef6c9e06ca38007e9225
7th
126
False
Which century did the Greek alphabet acquire its quadrilinear form?
5706ef6c9e06ca38007e9226
8th
180
False
Overtime which type of letter forms were mixed increasingly into the Greek language script?
5706ef6c9e06ca38007e9227
uncial
204
False
Which year is the earliest dated Greek lower-case text?
5706ef6c9e06ca38007e9228
835
351
False
In which literature is the earliest dated Greek lower-case text?
5706ef6c9e06ca38007e9229
Uspenski Gospels
313
False
Similar developments have taken place in other alphabets. The lower-case script for the Greek alphabet has its origins in the 7th century and acquired its quadrilinear form in the 8th century. Over time, uncial letter forms were increasingly mixed into the script. The earliest dated Greek lower-case text is the Uspenski Gospels (MS 461) in the year 835.[citation needed] The modern practice of capitalising the first letter of every sentence seems to be imported (and is rarely used when printing Ancient Greek materials even today).
In orthography and typography, what is the distinction between the letters that are in larger upper case and lower upper case
5706f38e9e06ca38007e9239
letter case
31
False
Minuscule is a term uses to describe which case of letter?
5706f38e9e06ca38007e923a
smaller lower
230
False
Capital letters refer to which case of letter?
5706f38e9e06ca38007e923b
larger upper
109
False
Letter case is used to distinction betweem lowercase and uppercase letter in which common representation of certain languages?
5706f38e9e06ca38007e923c
written
322
False
In orthography and typography, letter case (or just case) is the distinction between the letters that are in larger upper case (also capital letters, capitals, caps, large letters, or more formally majuscule, see Terminology) and smaller lower case (also small letters, or more formally minuscule, see Terminology) in the written representation of certain languages. Here is a comparison of the upper and lower case versions of each letter included in the English alphabet (the exact representation will vary according to the font used):
Capitalization in English is universally standardized for which type of writing?
5706f5309e06ca38007e9249
formal
160
False
In English the first letter of a sentence is which type of letter?
5706f5309e06ca38007e924a
capital
364
False
What is capitalization commonly use to indicate in poetry independent of any grammatical feature?
5706f5309e06ca38007e924b
beginning of a line of verse
1105
False
How is the first letter of a first-person pronoun handled mid sentence in English?
5706f5309e06ca38007e924c
capitalised
647
False
The interjection "O" has been replaced by which more common and preferred word in English?
5706f5309e06ca38007e924d
oh
777
False
Capitalisation in English, in terms of the general orthographic rules independent of context (e.g. title vs. heading vs. text), is universally standardized for formal writing. (Informal communication, such as texting, instant messaging or a handwritten sticky note, may not bother, but that is because its users usually do not expect it to be formal.) In English, capital letters are used as the first letter of a sentence, a proper noun, or a proper adjective. There are a few pairs of words of different meanings whose only difference is capitalisation of the first letter. The names of the days of the week and the names of the months are also capitalised, as are the first-person pronoun "I" and the interjection "O" (although the latter is uncommon in modern usage, with "oh" being preferred). Other words normally start with a lower-case letter. There are, however, situations where further capitalisation may be used to give added emphasis, for example in headings and titles (see below). In some traditional forms of poetry, capitalisation has conventionally been used as a marker to indicate the beginning of a line of verse independent of any grammatical feature.
Originally alphabets were written entirely in which type of letter?
5706f6a790286e26004fc777
majuscule
46
False
Rounder and simpler forms of letters came from writing quickly with which instrument?
5706f6a790286e26004fc778
pen
145
False
Who developed the Carolingian minuscule script for handwriting?
5706f6a790286e26004fc779
Alcuin
449
False
Carolingian minuscule script quickly spread across which continent?
5706f6a790286e26004fc77a
Europe
521
False
What is a common advantage of miniscule over majuscule handwriting?
5706f6a790286e26004fc77b
faster readability
589
False
Originally alphabets were written entirely in majuscule letters, spaced between well-defined upper and lower bounds. When written quickly with a pen, these tended to turn into rounder and much simpler forms. It is from these that the first minuscule hands developed, the half-uncials and cursive minuscule, which no longer stayed bound between a pair of lines. These in turn formed the foundations for the Carolingian minuscule script, developed by Alcuin for use in the court of Charlemagne, which quickly spread across Europe. The advantage of the minuscule over majuscule was improved, faster readability.[citation needed]
What is often prescribed by the grammar of a language or by conventions of a particular discipline?
570700329e06ca38007e9297
Letter case
0
False
Which kind of purpose is uppercase reserved for in orthography?
570700329e06ca38007e9298
special
167
False
Which is the most common variant of case in text?
570700329e06ca38007e9299
lowercase
261
False
Engineering design drawings typically utiilze which case of letter in labeling?
570700329e06ca38007e929a
upper-case
559
False
Why are uppercase letters preferred often times when space is restricted?
570700329e06ca38007e929b
easier to distinguish than lowercase
589
False
Letter case is often prescribed by the grammar of a language or by the conventions of a particular discipline. In orthography, the uppercase is primarily reserved for special purposes, such as the first letter of a sentence or of a proper noun, which makes the lowercase the more common variant in text. In mathematics, letter case may indicate the relationship between objects with uppercase letters often representing "superior" objects (e.g. X could be a set containing the generic member x). Engineering design drawings are typically labelled entirely in upper-case letters, which are easier to distinguish than lowercase, especially when space restrictions require that the lettering be small.
Who do majuscules have which distinguish themselves from minuscules?
570702a89e06ca38007e92a9
generally have the same height
157
False
In Time New Roman the letter "b" would be consider which type of letter based on whether it is above or below average height?
570702a89e06ca38007e92aa
ascenders
394
False
Descending letters tend to have a part which falls where relative to the average height of a letter?
570702a89e06ca38007e92ab
lower than the average
263
False
Besides the number 6, which number makes of the ascender set in some traditional or classical fonts?
570702a89e06ca38007e92ac
8
609
False
Typographically, the basic difference between the majuscules and minuscules is not that the majuscules are big and minuscules small, but that the majuscules generally have the same height. The height of the minuscules varies, as some of them have parts higher or lower than the average, i.e. ascenders and descenders. In Times New Roman, for instance, b, d, f, h, k, l, t  are the letters with ascenders, and g, j, p, q, y are the ones with descenders. Further to this, with old-style numerals still used by some traditional or classical fonts—although most do have a set of alternative Lining Figures— 6 and 8 make up the ascender set, and 3, 4, 5, 7 and 9 the descender set.
What do most Western languages use in their written form to add clarity?
5707044d90286e26004fc7f3
letter cases
137
False
What are writing systems which make no distinction between majuscales and minuscules often referred to as?
5707044d90286e26004fc7f4
unicameral script
361
False
Which alphabet is a special case because it transitioned from bicameral to unicameral?
5707044d90286e26004fc7f5
Georgian
457
False
What are scripts that utilized two seperate cases called?
5707044d90286e26004fc7f6
bicameral
243
False
Most Western languages (particularly those with writing systems based on the Latin, Cyrillic, Greek, Coptic, and Armenian alphabets) use letter cases in their written form as an aid to clarity. Scripts using two separate cases are also called bicameral scripts. Many other writing systems make no distinction between majuscules and minuscules – a system called unicameral script or unicase. This includes most syllabic and other non-alphabetic scripts. The Georgian alphabet is special since it used to be bicameral, but today is mostly used in a unicameral way.
Papyri from Herculaneum dating before 79 AD have been to to be written in which hand writing?
5707066b9e06ca38007e92b1
old Roman cursive
120
False
Whicy papyrologist theorized lowercase letter actually developed from the fifth century uncials?
5707066b9e06ca38007e92b2
Knut Kleve
266
False
Which continents languages with few exceptions generally did not utilize case distinction until about the year 1300?
5707066b9e06ca38007e92b3
Europe
730
False
What was the initial difference between majuscule and minuscule letters?
5707066b9e06ca38007e92b4
stylistic
545
False
Which type of document was general unicameral because the writer used one type of writing but not another?
5707066b9e06ca38007e92b5
handwritten
643
False
In Latin, papyri from Herculaneum dating before 79 AD (when it was destroyed) have been found that have been written in old Roman cursive, where the early forms of minuscule letters "d", "h" and "r", for example, can already be recognised. According to papyrologist Knut Kleve, "The theory, then, that the lower-case letters have been developed from the fifth century uncials and the ninth century Carolingian minuscules seems to be wrong." Both majuscule and minuscule letters existed, but the difference between the two variants was initially stylistic rather than orthographic and the writing system was still basically unicameral: a given handwritten document could use either one style or the other but these were not mixed. European languages, except for Ancient Greek and Latin, did not make the case distinction before about 1300.[citation needed]
What is capitalization of significant words applied to in the United States besides titles?
5707093790286e26004fc835
headings
199
False
Capitalization of significant words refers to which family of typographic conventions?
5707093790286e26004fc836
title case
272
False
Which book of literature standards suggests capitalizing the first word and all nouns, pronouns, adjectives, verbs, and adverbs?
5707093790286e26004fc837
R. M. Ritter's Oxford Manual of Style
297
False
The use of bold fonts and capilization in titles falls under which unusual grammatical distinction?
5707093790286e26004fc838
not universally standardized
740
False
As regards publication titles it is, however, a common typographic practice among both British and U.S. publishers to capitalise significant words (and in the United States, this is often applied to headings, too). This family of typographic conventions is usually called title case. For example, R. M. Ritter's Oxford Manual of Style (2002) suggests capitalising "the first word and all nouns, pronouns, adjectives, verbs and adverbs, but generally not articles, conjunctions and short prepositions". This is an old form of emphasis, similar to the more modern practice of using a larger or boldface font for titles. The rules for which words to capitalise are not based on any grammatically inherent correct/incorrect distinction and are not universally standardized; they are arbitrary and differ between style guides, although in most styles they tend to follow a few strong conventions, as follows:
Attempts to unify Latin, Greek, and Cyrillic would create which sort of problems?
57070ba69e06ca38007e9309
make casing operations an unholy mess
171
False
What among many common letters is shared between Latin, Greek, and Cyrillic?
57070ba69e06ca38007e930a
shapes
299
False
What would be problematic for a multilingual character set or font to provide?
57070ba69e06ca38007e930b
single codepoint
622
False
What distinguishes Latin, Greek, and Cyrillic from one another?
57070ba69e06ca38007e930c
sets of symbols
1105
False
Although there are challenges a unified European alphabet is feasible even in the absence of which common language rule?
57070ba69e06ca38007e930d
letter case
878
False
As briefly discussed in Unicode Technical Note #26, "In terms of implementation issues, any attempt at a unification of Latin, Greek, and Cyrillic would wreak havoc [and] make casing operations an unholy mess, in effect making all casing operations context sensitive […]". In other words, while the shapes of letters like A, B, E, H, K, M, O, P, T, X, Y and so on are shared between the Latin, Greek, and Cyrillic alphabets (and small differences in their canonical forms may be considered to be of a merely typographical nature), it would still be problematic for a multilingual character set or a font to provide only a single codepoint for, say, uppercase letter B, as this would make it quite difficult for a wordprocessor to change that single uppercase letter to one of the three different choices for the lower-case letter, b (Latin), β (Greek), or в (Cyrillic). Without letter case, a "unified European alphabet" – such as ABБCГDΔΕZЄЗFΦGHIИJ…Z, with an appropriate subset for each language – is feasible; but considering letter case, it becomes very clear that these alphabets are rather distinct sets of symbols.
Chihuahua_(state)
What was the name of the nomad tribes that hunted bison?
5707070890286e26004fc805
Jornado
90
False
Along which river did they hunt bison?
5707070890286e26004fc806
Rio Grande
121
False
How did the Chichimeca survive?
5707070890286e26004fc807
hunting, gathering, and farming
412
False
The Chichimeca are the ancestors of what people?
5707070890286e26004fc808
Tepehuan
509
False
The Jornado painted onto what surface?
5707070890286e26004fc809
rock
152
False
During the 14th century in the northeastern part of the state nomad tribes by the name of Jornado hunted bison along the Rio Grande; they left numerous rock paintings throughout the northeastern part of the state. When the Spanish explorers reached this area they found their descendants, Suma and Manso tribes. In the southern part of the state, in a region known as Aridoamerica, Chichimeca people survived by hunting, gathering, and farming between AD 300 and 1300. The Chichimeca are the ancestors of the Tepehuan people.
What was the name of the town in which Miguel Hidalgo y Costilla declared independence?
5707083f90286e26004fc821
Dolores
161
False
What was the name of the Proclamation?
5707083f90286e26004fc822
Grito de Dolores
237
False
What was Hidalgo's occupation?
5707083f90286e26004fc823
priest
81
False
What was the name of the royalist who captured Hidalgo?
5707083f90286e26004fc824
Ignacio Elizondo
1057
False
Which country had Hidalgo attempted to reach to gain support?
5707083f90286e26004fc825
United States
749
False
During the Napoleonic Occupation of Spain, Miguel Hidalgo y Costilla, a Catholic priest of progressive ideas, declared Mexican independence in the small town of Dolores, Guanajuato on September 16, 1810 with a proclamation known as the "Grito de Dolores". Hidalgo built a large support among intellectuals, liberal priests and many poor people. Hidalgo fought to protect the rights of the poor and indigenous population. He started on a march to the capital, Mexico City, but retreated back north when faced with the elite of the royal forces at the outskirts of the capital. He established a liberal government from Guadalajara, Jalisco but was soon forced to flee north by the royal forces that recaptured the city. Hidalgo attempted to reach the United States and gain American support for Mexican independence. HIdalgo reached Saltillo, Coahuila where he publicly resigned his military post and rejected a pardon offered by Viceroy Francisco Venegas in return for Hidalgo's surrender. A short time later, he and his supporters were captured by royalist Ignacio Elizondo at the Wells of Baján (Norias de Baján) on March 21, 1811 and taken to the city of Chihuahua. Hidalgo forced the Bishop of Valladolid, Manuel Abad y Queipo, to rescind the excommunication order he had circulated against him on September 24, 1810. Later, the Inquisition issued an excommunication edict on October 13, 1810 condemning Miguel Hidalgo as a seditionary, apostate, and heretic.
Who did Santa Anna order the reinstatement as comandante general?
57070a329e06ca38007e92e3
Mendarozqueta
219
False
What was the name of the federalist army officer who eventually came into power during the new election?
57070a329e06ca38007e92e4
José Urrea
502
False
Who had actually won the original vote?
57070a329e06ca38007e92e5
Gutierrez
70
False
Who was his deputy?
57070a329e06ca38007e92e6
P. J. Escalante
104
False
Who refused to yield until troops were summoned?
57070a329e06ca38007e92e7
Escalante
356
False
At a convention of citizens called to select a new provisional ruler, Gutierrez obtained the vote, with P. J. Escalante for his deputy, and a council to guide the administration. Santa Anna ordered the reinstatement of Mendarozqueta as comandante general. Gutiérrez yielded, but Escalante refused to surrender office, demonstrations of support ensued, but Escalante yielded when troops were summoned from Zacatecas. A new election brought a new legislature, and conforming governors. In September 1835 José Urrea a federalist army officer came into power.
What was the name of the treaty that ended the war?
57070af49e06ca38007e92f5
The Treaty of Guadalupe Hidalgo
0
False
In which year was the treaty signed?
57070af49e06ca38007e92f6
1848
55
False
Control over which current U.S. state was given to the U.S. under this treaty?
57070af49e06ca38007e92f7
Texas
246
False
How long did the U.S. continue to maintain control over the state capital after the treaty?
57070af49e06ca38007e92f8
three months
1362
False
Which American general misunderstood the Mexican message sent to Sacramento Pass?
57070af49e06ca38007e92f9
General Price
802
False
The Treaty of Guadalupe Hidalgo, signed on February 2, 1848, by American diplomat Nicholas Trist and Mexican plenipotentiary representatives Luis G. Cuevas, Bernardo Couto, and Miguel Atristain, ended the war, gave the U.S. undisputed control of Texas, and established the U.S.–Mexican border of the Rio Grande. As news of peace negotiations reached the state, new call to arms began to flare among the people of the state. But as the Mexican officials in Chihuahua heard that General Price was heading back to Mexico with a large force comprising several companies of infantry and three companies of cavalry and one division of light artillery from Santa Fe on February 8, 1848, Ángel Trías sent a message to Sacramento Pass to ask for succession of the area as they understood the war had concluded. General Price, misunderstanding this as a deception by the Mexican forces, continued to advance towards the state capital. On March 16, 1848 Price began negotiations with Ángel Trías, but the Mexican leader responded with an ultimatum to General Price. The American forces engaged with the Mexican forces near Santa Cruz de los Rosales on March 16, 1848. The Battle of Santa Cruz de los Rosales was the last battle of the Mexican–American War and it occurred after the peace treaty was signed. The American forces maintained control over the state capital for three months after the confirmation of the peace treaty. The American presence served to delay the possible succession of the state which had been discussed at the end of 1847, and the state remained under United States occupation until May 22, 1848.
Which countries owned Mexican debt?
57070b9290286e26004fc845
Spain, England, and France
109
False
Who was the President of Mexico at the time?
57070b9290286e26004fc846
President Juárez
155
False
Who was the Foreign Affairs Minister?
57070b9290286e26004fc847
Manuel Doblado
622
False
Who convinced the English to accept the terms of the pact?
57070b9290286e26004fc848
General Juan Prim of Spain
715
False
Which country refused to accept?
57070b9290286e26004fc849
France
129
False
In consequence to the Reform War, the federal government was bankrupt and could not pay its foreign debts to Spain, England, and France. On July 17, 1861, President Juárez decreed a moratorium on payment to foreign debtors for a period of two years. Spain, England, and France did not accept the moratorium by Mexico; they united at the Convention of the Triple Alliance on October 31, 1861 in which they agreed to take possession of several custom stations within Mexico as payment. A delegation of the Triple Alliance arrived in Veracruz in December 1861. President Juárez immediately sent his Foreign Affairs Minister, Manuel Doblado, who is able to reduce the debts through the Pacto de Soledad (Soledad Pact). General Juan Prim of Spain persuaded the English delegation to accept the terms of the Pacto de Soledad, but the French delegation refused.
Who was deeply dissatisfied with Bazaine's decision to abandon Chihuahua?
57070c1d90286e26004fc84f
Maximilian
0
False
How many men did Billaut have when he recaptured the city?
57070c1d90286e26004fc850
500
221
False
At its zenith, the imperialist forces controlled all but how many states in Mexico?
57070c1d90286e26004fc851
four
435
False
Which four states opposed the French?
57070c1d90286e26004fc852
Guerrero, Chihuahua, Sonora, and Baja California
524
False
In which year did Billaut capture Chihuahua?
57070c1d90286e26004fc853
1865
191
False
Maximilian was deeply dissatisfied with General Bazaine's decision to abandon the state capital of Chihuahua and immediately ordered Agustín B. Billaut to recapture the city. On December 11, 1865, Billaut with a force of 500 men took control of the city. By January 31, 1866 Billaut was ordered to leave Chihuahua, but he left behind 500 men to maintain control. At the zenith of their power, the imperialist forces controlled all but four states in Mexico; the only states to maintain strong opposition to the French were: Guerrero, Chihuahua, Sonora, and Baja California.
In which year did Benito Juarez die?
57070c9b9e06ca38007e9323
1872
50
False
The two candidates were heroes of what battle?
57070c9b9e06ca38007e9324
Battle of Puebla
284
False
Which plan defended the "No Re-election" principle?
57070c9b9e06ca38007e9325
The Plan of Tuxtepec
539
False
Which party rebelled against the administration?
57070c9b9e06ca38007e9326
Lerdista party
1322
False
Which city was occupied by the Lerdista forces?
57070c9b9e06ca38007e9327
El Paso del Norte
1451
False
After the death of the president Benito Juárez in 1872, the first magistracy of the country was occupied by the vice-president Sebastián Lerdo de Tejada, who called for new elections. Two candidates were registered; Lerdo de Tejada and General Porfirio Díaz, one of the heroes of the Battle of Puebla which had taken place on May 5, 1862. Lerdeo de Tejada won the election, but lost popularity after he announced his intent to run for re-election. On March 21, 1876, Don Porfirio Díaz rebelled against President Sebastian Lerdo de Tejada. The Plan of Tuxtepec defended the "No Re-election" principle. On June 2, 1876 the garrisons in the state of Chihuahua surrendered to the authority of General Porfirio Díaz; Governor Antonio Ochoa was arrested until all the Lerdista forces were suppressed throughout the state. Porfirio Díaz then helped Tíras regain the governorship of the state of Chihuahua allowing for the Plan of Tuxtepec to be implemented. The victory of the Plan of Tuxtepec, gave the interim presidency to Jose Maria Iglesias and later, as the only candidate, the General Porfirio Díaz assumed the presidency on May 5, 1877. During the first years of the Porfiriato (Porfirio Díaz Era), the Díaz administration had to combat several attacks from the Lerdista forces and the Apache. A new rebellion led by the Lerdista party was orchestrated from exile in the United States. The Lerdista forces were able to temporarily occupy the city of El Paso del Norte until mid-1877. During 1877 the northern parts of the state suffered through a spell of extreme drought which were responsible for many deaths in El Paso del Norte.
Which year did Orozco revolt?
57070e6c9e06ca38007e934b
1912
9
False
Who notified Huerta the revolt had been put down?
57070e6c9e06ca38007e934c
Villa
304
False
Who saved Villa's life?
57070e6c9e06ca38007e934d
Raúl Madero
523
False
With whom did Orozco side?
57070e6c9e06ca38007e934e
Huerta
764
False
In March 1912, in Chihuahua, Gen. Pascual Orozco revolted. Immediately President Francisco Madero commanded Gen. Victoriano Huerta of the Federal Army, to put down the Orozco revolt. The governor of Chihuahua mobilized the state militia led by Colonel Pancho Villa to supplement General Huerta. By June, Villa notified Huerta that the Orozco revolt had been put down and that the militia would consider themselves no longer under Huerta's command and would depart. Huerta became furious and ordered that Villa be executed. Raúl Madero, Madero's brother, intervened to save Villa's life. Jailed in Mexico City, Villa fled to the United States. Madero's time as leader was short-lived, ended by a coup d'état in 1913 led by Gen. Victoriano Huerta; Orozco sided with Huerta, and Huerta made him one of his generals.
Which state has more forests than Chihuahua?
57070f0c9e06ca38007e9353
Durango
158
False
The state of Chihuahua is primarily identified with what type of landscape?
57070f0c9e06ca38007e9354
Desert
63
False
The Copper Canyon is deeper than what popular American canyon?
57070f0c9e06ca38007e9355
Grand Canyon
578
False
Along which two valleys do most inhabitants of Chihuahua live?
57070f0c9e06ca38007e9356
Rio Grande Valley and the Conchos River Valley
857
False
The Sierra Madre Occidentals are an extension of which American mountain range?
57070f0c9e06ca38007e9357
Rocky Mountains
397
False
Although Chihuahua is primarily identified with the Chihuahuan Desert for namesake, it has more forests than any other state in Mexico, with the exception of Durango. Due to its variant climate, the state has a large variety of fauna and flora. The state is mostly characterized by rugged mountainous terrain and wide river valleys. The Sierra Madre Occidental mountain range, an extension of the Rocky Mountains, dominates the state's terrain and is home to the state's greatest attraction, Las Barrancas del Cobre, or Copper Canyon, a canyon system larger and deeper than the Grand Canyon. On the slope of the Sierra Madre Occidental mountains (around the regions of Casas Grandes, Cuauhtémoc and Parral), there are vast prairies of short yellow grass, the source of the bulk of the state's agricultural production. Most of the inhabitants live along the Rio Grande Valley and the Conchos River Valley.
Which city did Villa raid?
57070f6d90286e26004fc86d
Columbus, New Mexico
87
False
Which American president pursued Villa?
57070f6d90286e26004fc86e
President Wilson
114
False
How long did the American troops pursue Villa?
57070f6d90286e26004fc86f
nearly a year
284
False
In which year was Villa assassinated?
57070f6d90286e26004fc870
1923
648
False
In which city was Villa killed?
57070f6d90286e26004fc871
Parral
772
False
Public opinion pressured the U.S. government to bring Villa to justice for the raid on Columbus, New Mexico; U.S. President Wilson sent Gen. John J. Pershing and some 5,000 troops into Mexico in an unsuccessful attempt to capture Villa. It was known as the Punitive Expedition. After nearly a year of pursuing Villa, American forces returned to the United States. The American intervention had been limited to the western sierras of Chihuahua. Villa had the advantage of intimately knowing the inhospitable terrain of the Sonoran Desert and the almost impassable Sierra Madre mountains and always managed to stay one step ahead of his pursuers. In 1923 Villa was assassinated by a group of seven gunmen who ambushed him while he was sitting in the back seat of his car in Parral.
Along which mountain range does the Cave of Windows lie?
57070fe09e06ca38007e9365
Sierra Madre
165
False
Cuarenta Casas is thought to be a branch of which settlement?
57070fe09e06ca38007e9366
Paquime
333
False
Where did the Paquime seek refuge?
57070fe09e06ca38007e9367
Sierra Madre Occidental
534
False
Which current native tribes are thought to be descendants of the Casas Grandes?
57070fe09e06ca38007e9368
Yaqui, Mayo, Opata, and Tarahumara
700
False
La Cueva De Las Ventanas (The Cave of Windows), a series of cliff dwellings along an important trade route, and Las Jarillas Cave scrambled along the canyons of the Sierra Madre in Northwestern Chihuahua date between AD 1205 and 1260 and belong to the Paquimé culture. Cuarenta Casas is thought to have been a branch settlement from Paquime to protect the trade route from attack. Archaeologists believe the civilization began to decline during the 13th century and by the 15th century the inhabitants of Paquime sought refuge in the Sierra Madre Occidental while others are thought to have emigrated north and joined the Ancestral Pueblo peoples. According to anthropologist current natives tribes (Yaqui, Mayo, Opata, and Tarahumara) are descendants of the Casas Grandes culture.
Which precious metal did Biezma discover?
5707107390286e26004fc889
silver
69
False
How many years was Parral an important economic and cultural center?
5707107390286e26004fc88a
300 years
212
False
In which year did Sante Fe inhabitants return home from seeking refuge?
5707107390286e26004fc88b
1692
855
False
Which new state capital was founded in 1709?
5707107390286e26004fc88c
Chihuahua City
975
False
In which city had the inhabitants of Sante Fe been seeking refuge?
5707107390286e26004fc88d
El Paso Del Norte
746
False
and Camargo. In 1631 Juan Rangel de Biezma discovered a rich vein of silver, and subsequently established San Jose del Parral near the site. Parral remained an important economic and cultural center for the next 300 years. On December 8, 1659 Fray García de San Francisco founded the mission of Nuestra Señora de Guadalupe de Mansos del Paso del Río del Norte and founded the town El Paso Del Norte (present day Ciudad Juárez) in 1667. The Spanish society that developed in the region replaced the sparse population of indigenous peoples. The absence of servants and workers forged the spirit of northern people as self-dependent, creative people that defended their European heritage. In 1680 settlers from Santa Fe, New Mexico sought refuge in El Paso Del Norte for twelve years after fleeing the attacks from Pueblo tribes, but returned to Santa Fe in 1692 after Diego de Vargas recaptured the city and vicinity. In 1709, Antonio de Deza y Ulloa founded the state capital Chihuahua City; shortly after, the city became the headquarters for the regional mining offices of the Spanish crown known as Real de Minas de San Francisco de Cuéllar in honor of the Viceroy of New Spain, Francisco Fernández de la Cueva Enríquez, Duke of Alburquerque and the Marquee of Cuéllar..
In which areas were the earliest human inhabitants discovered?
570710cb90286e26004fc893
Samalayuca and Rancho Colorado
97
False
What range of years are the oldest ruins from?
570710cb90286e26004fc894
12,000 BC to 7000 BC
211
False
Which vegetable were they found to have been farming?
570710cb90286e26004fc895
corn
368
False
Around what year were the ceramic artifacts found to have been from?
570710cb90286e26004fc896
2000 BC
535
False
The earliest evidence of human inhabitants of modern day Chihuahua was discovered in the area of Samalayuca and Rancho Colorado. Clovis points have been found in northeastern Chihuahua that have been dated from 12,000 BC to 7000 BC. It is thought that these inhabitants were hunter gatherers. Inhabitants of the state later developed farming with the domestication of corn. An archeological site in northern Chihuahua known as Cerro Juanaqueña revealed squash cultivation, irrigation techniques, and ceramic artifacts dating to around 2000 BC.
How many people left the state for the U.S. between 2000-2005?
570711569e06ca38007e9377
49,722
54
False
In which city is there a large number of undocumented immigrants?
570711569e06ca38007e9378
Ciudad Juárez
445
False
Is the population density the highest or lowest of any Mexican state?
570711569e06ca38007e9379
lowest
588
False
Which are the largest two cities in the state?
570711569e06ca38007e937a
Ciudad Juárez and Chihuahua
782
False
During the period from 2000–2005 it is estimated that 49,722 people left the state for the United States. Some 82,000 people are thought to have immigrated to the state from 2000–2005 mainly coming from Veracruz (17.6%), United States (16.2%), Durango (13.2%), Coahuila (8.0%) and Chiapas (4.5%). It is believed that there is a large number of undocumented immigrants in that state the come from Central and South America which mainly settle in Ciudad Juárez. According to the 2005 census, the population grew 1.06% from 2000 to 2005. The state has an uneven settlement of people and the lowest population density of any Mexican state; according to the 2005 census there were 12 people per km2. Of all the 3,241,444 people in the state, two-thirds (2,072,129) live in the cities of Ciudad Juárez and Chihuahua. Only three other cities have populations over 100,000: Parral 101,147, Cuauhtémoc 105,725, and Delicias 108,187.
Which nicknames were used to form the conservative and liberal elements?
570711b19e06ca38007e937f
Chirrines and Cuchas
114
False
Which was the third party?
570711b19e06ca38007e9380
The military
136
False
In which year was the body installed?
570711b19e06ca38007e9381
1826
266
False
Which party had gained control?
570711b19e06ca38007e9382
liberals
305
False
Who was the Durango governor?
570711b19e06ca38007e9383
Santiago Baca Ortiz
557
False
In the constituent legislature or convention, the conservative and liberal elements formed using the nicknames of Chirrines and Cuchas. The military entered as a third party. The elections for the first regular legislature were disputed, and it was not until May 1, 1826, that the body was installed. The liberals gained control and the opposition responded by fomenting a conspiracy. This was promptly stopped with the aid of informers, and more strenuous measures were taken against the conservatives. Extra powers were conferred on the Durango governor, Santiago Baca Ortiz, deputy to the first national congress, and leader of the liberal party.
Which cities was Ibarra looking for?
5707121890286e26004fc8a3
Cibola and Quivira
93
False
Through which present-day state did he travel?
5707121890286e26004fc8a4
Chihuahua
158
False
Ibarra is thought to have been the first European to see the ruins of which city?
5707121890286e26004fc8a5
Paquime
252
False
Which was the first Spanish city founded in the region?
5707121890286e26004fc8a6
Santa Barbara
493
False
What caused a temporary exodus from Nueva Vizcaya?
5707121890286e26004fc8a7
epidemic
889
False
In 1562 Francisco de Ibarra headed a personal expedition in search of the mythical cities of Cibola and Quivira; he traveled through the present-day state of Chihuahua. Francisco de Ibarra is thought to have been the first European to see the ruins of Paquime. In 1564 Rodrigo de Río de Loza, a lieutenant under Francisco de Ibarra, stayed behind after the expedition and found gold at the foot of the mountains of the Sierra Madre Occidental; he founded the first Spanish city in the region, Santa Barbara in 1567 by bringing 400 European families to the settlement. A few years later in 1569 Franciscan missionaries led by Fray Agustín Rodríguez from the coast of Sinaloa and the state of Durango founded the first mission in the state in Valle de San Bartolomé (present-day Valle de Allende). Fray Agustín Rodríguez evangelized the native population until 1581. Between 1586 and 1588 a epidemic caused a temporary exodus of the small population in the territory of Nueva Vizcaya.
What percentage of the population over 15 could read and write Spanish?
570712839e06ca38007e9393
95.6%
85
False
What percentage of children ages 8-14 could read and write Spanish?
570712839e06ca38007e9394
97.3%
162
False
What percentage of children age 6-14 attend an institution of education?
570712839e06ca38007e9395
93.5%
236
False
What percentage of the population have obtained a college degree?
570712839e06ca38007e9396
12.8%
316
False
According to the Instituto Nacional de Estadística, Geografía e Informática (INEGI), 95.6% of the population over the age of 15 could read and write Spanish, and 97.3% of children of ages 8–14 could read and write Spanish. An estimated 93.5% of the population ages 6–14 attend an institution of education. Estimated 12.8% of residents of the state have obtained a college degree. Average schooling is 8.5 years, which means that in general the average citizen over 15 years of age has gone as far as a second year in secondary education.
The state's economy ranks in what place in the country Mexico
5707130190286e26004fc8b5
12th-largest
18
False
What was the GDP of the state as of 2011?
5707130190286e26004fc8b6
396 billion pesos
290
False
Which sector was the largest portion of the economy?
5707130190286e26004fc8b7
service sector
401
False
Which sector was the second largest?
5707130190286e26004fc8b8
the manufacturing and industrial sector
482
False
The state received how much in remittances from the U.S. in 2011?
5707130190286e26004fc8b9
884 million dollars
791
False
The state has the 12th-largest state economy in Mexico, accounting for 2.7% of the country’s GDP. Chihuahua has the fifth highest manufacturing GDP in Mexico and ranks second for the most factories funded by foreign investment in the country. As of 2011[update], the state had an estimated 396 billion pesos (31.1 billion dollars) of annual GDP. According to official federal statistical studies, the service sector accounted for the largest portion of the state economy at 59.28%; the manufacturing and industrial sector is estimated to account for 34.36% of the state's GDP, with the agricultural sector accounting for 6.36% of the state's GDP. Manufacturing sector was the principal foreign investment in the state followed by the mining sector. In 2011, the state received approximately 884 million dollars in remittances from the United States, which was 4.5% of all remittances from the United States to Mexico.
Who was the first person elected under the new constitution?
570713ba9e06ca38007e93a5
Simón Elías Gonzalez
169
False
Where was Gonzalez located when he was elected?
570713ba9e06ca38007e93a6
Sonora
204
False
In which year did Gonzalez become commander of Chihuahua?
570713ba9e06ca38007e93a7
1829
300
False
For whom was the revolution named?
570713ba9e06ca38007e93a8
Bustamante
656
False
Stringed laws were issued against what group?
570713ba9e06ca38007e93a9
secret societies
999
False
The general features of the preceding occurrence applied also to Chihuahua, although in a modified form. The first person elected under the new constitution of 1825 was Simón Elías Gonzalez, who being in Sonora, was induced to remain there. José Antonio Arcé took his place as ruler in Chihuahua. In 1829, González became general commander of Chihuahua, when his term of office on the west coast expired. Arcé was less of a yorkino than his confrere of Durango. Although unable to resist the popular demand for the expulsion of the Spaniards, he soon quarreled with the legislature, which declared itself firmly for Guerrero, and announcing his support of Bustamante's revolution, he suspended, in March 1830, eight members of that body, the vice-governor, and several other officials, and expelled them from the state. The course thus outlined was followed by Governor José Isidro Madero, who succeeded in 1830, associated with J. J. Calvo as general commander, stringent laws being issued against secret societies, which were supposed to be the main spring to the anti-clerical feeling among liberals.
In which region of the state did culture develop?
570714249e06ca38007e93af
northern
31
False
To what does Casas Grandes translate in English?
570714249e06ca38007e93b0
Big Houses
132
False
Which prehistoric culture did Casas Grandes stem from?
570714249e06ca38007e93b1
Mogollon
287
False
What city was the center of the Casas Grandes civilization?
570714249e06ca38007e93b2
Paquime
346
False
To what does Cuarenta Casas translate in English?
570714249e06ca38007e93b3
Forty Houses
510
False
Between AD 300 and 1300 in the northern part of the state along the wide, fertile valley on the San Miguel River the Casas Grandes (Big Houses) culture developed into an advanced civilization. The Casas Grandes civilization is part of a major prehistoric archaeological culture known as Mogollon which is related to the Ancestral Pueblo culture. Paquime was the center of the Casas Grandes civilization. Extensive archaeological evidence shows commerce, agriculture, and hunting at Paquime and Cuarenta Casas (Forty Houses).
Until what year did the state remain calm?
570714959e06ca38007e93b9
1841
119
False
In which year did the state begin to reinforce defense?
570714959e06ca38007e93ba
1843
128
False
What was the price of the small force along the border?
570714959e06ca38007e93bb
160,603 pesos per year
601
False
The state decreed that how many men serve along the border in 1846?
570714959e06ca38007e93bc
6,000
975
False
Who took measures to the state level for self-dependence due to diminishing financial support from the federal government?
570714959e06ca38007e93bd
Ángel Trías
1373
False
The state seemed at relative calm compared to the rest of the country due to its close ties to the United States until 1841. In 1843 the possibility of war was anticipated by the state government and it began to reinforce the defense lines along the political boundary with Texas. Supplies of weapons were sent to fully equip the military and took steps to improve efficiency at the presidios. Later, the Regimen for the Defenders of the Border were organized by the state which were made up of: light cavalry, four squads of two brigades, and a small force of 14 men and 42 officials at the price of 160,603 pesos per year. During the beginning of the 1840s, private citizens took it upon themselves to stop the commercial caravans of supplies from the United States, but being so far away from the large suppliers in central Mexico the caravan was allowed to continue in March 1844. Continuing to anticipate a war, the state legislature on July 11, 1846 by decree enlisted 6,000 men to serve along the border; during that time Ángel Trías quickly rose to power by portraying zealous anti-American rhetoric. Trías took the opportunity to dedicate important state resources to gain economic concessions from the people and loans from many municipalities in preparation to defend the state; he used all the money he received to equip and organize a large volunteer militia. Ángel Trías took measures for state self-dependence in regards to state militia due to the diminishing financial support from the federal government.
Which city became the launching place for expeditions into New Mexico?
570714f39e06ca38007e93c3
Santa Bárbara
0
False
In which year was El Paso del Norte found?
570714f39e06ca38007e93c4
1598
316
False
The path was important for the expansion of which road?
570714f39e06ca38007e93c5
El Camino Real de Tierra Adentro
530
False
Which U.S. state benefited from this road?
570714f39e06ca38007e93c6
New Mexico
732
False
Santa Bárbara became the launching place for expeditions into New Mexico by Spanish conquistadors like: Antonio de Espejo, Gaspar Castaño, Antonio Gutiérrez de Umaña, Francisco Leyba de Bonilla, and Vicente de Zaldívar. Several expeditions were led to find a shorter route from Santa Barbara to New Mexico. In April 1598, Juan de Oñate finally found a short route from Santa Barbara to New Mexico which came to be called El Paso del Norte (The Northern Pass). The discovery of El Paso Del Norte was important for the expansion of El Camino Real de Tierra Adentro (The Inner Land Royal Road) to link Spanish settlements in New Mexico to Mexico City; El Camino Real de Tierra Adentro facilitated transport of settlers and supplies to New Mexico.
Who was hailed as the Father of the Nation?
570715649e06ca38007e93cb
Hidalgo
0
False
Who actually achieved independence for the nation?
570715649e06ca38007e93cc
Agustin de Iturbide
65
False
Which day eventually became the official day of Mexican Independence?
570715649e06ca38007e93cd
September 16, 1810
449
False
Who painted Hidalgo's image on half a dozen murals?
570715649e06ca38007e93ce
Diego Rivera
749
False
In which city do Hidalgo's remains lie?
570715649e06ca38007e93cf
Mexico City.
1496
False
Hidalgo is hailed as the Father of the Nation even though it was Agustin de Iturbide and not Hidalgo who achieved Mexican Independence in 1821. Shortly after gaining independence, the day to celebrate it varied between September 16, the day of Hidalgo's Grito, and September 27, the day Iturbide rode into Mexico City to end the war. Later, political movements would favor the more liberal Hidalgo over the conservative Iturbide, so that eventually September 16, 1810 became the officially recognized day of Mexican independence. The reason for this is that Hidalgo is considered to be "precursor and creator of the rest of the heroes of the (Mexican War of) Independence." Hidalgo has become an icon for Mexicans who resist tyranny in the country. Diego Rivera painted Hidalgo's image in half a dozen murals. José Clemente Orozco depicted him with a flaming torch of liberty and considered the painting among his best work. David Alfaro Siqueiros was commissioned by San Nicolas University in Morelia to paint a mural for a celebration commemorating the 200th anniversary of Hidalgo's birth. The town of his parish was renamed Dolores Hidalgo in his honor and the state of Hidalgo was created in 1869. Every year on the night of 15–16 September, the president of Mexico re-enacts the Grito from the balcony of the National Palace. This scene is repeated by the heads of cities and towns all over Mexico. The remains of Miguel Hidalgo y Costilla lie in the column of the Angel of Independence in Mexico City. Next to it is a lamp lit to represent the sacrifice of those who gave their lives for Mexican Independence.
In which year did Doniphan march with men from Missouri?
570715c09e06ca38007e93d5
1847
15
False
How many men did he have?
570715c09e06ca38007e93d6
924
55
False
What was the pass into the capital known as?
570715c09e06ca38007e93d7
Sacramento Pass
415
False
Which was the most important battle fought in Chihuahua?
570715c09e06ca38007e93d8
The Battle of Sacramento
486
False
How many Mexicans were killed in the battle of Sacramento?
570715c09e06ca38007e93d9
Almost 300
916
False
On February 8, 1847, Doniphan continued his march with 924 men mostly from Missouri; he accompanied a train of 315 wagons of a large commercial caravan heading to the state capital. Meanwhile, the Mexican forces in the state had time to prepare a defense against the Americans. About 20 miles (32 km) north of the capital where two mountain ranges join from east to west is the only pass into the capital; known as Sacramento Pass, this point is now part of present-day Chihuahua City. The Battle of Sacramento was the most important battle fought in the state of Chihuahua because it was the sole defense for the state capital. The battle ended quickly because of some devastating defensive errors from the Mexican forces and the ingenious strategic moves by the American forces. After their loss at the Battle of Sacramento, the remaining Mexican soldiers retreated south, leaving the city to American occupation. Almost 300 Mexicans were killed in the battle, as well as almost 300 wounded. The Americans also confiscated large amounts of Mexican supplies and took 400 Mexican soldiers prisoners of war. American forces maintained an occupation of the state capital for the rest of the Mexican–American War.
Who supported the reaction against the government?
570716129e06ca38007e93df
Durango
46
False
Who supported the restoration of President Pedraza?
570716129e06ca38007e93e0
José Urrea
132
False
Which state did Urrea prepare to invade?
570716129e06ca38007e93e1
Chihuahua
373
False
Who threatened to retaliate?
570716129e06ca38007e93e2
J.J.Calvo
497
False
The anti-clerical feeling was widespread, and Durango supported the initial reaction against the government at Mexico. In May 1832, José Urrea, a rising officer, supported the restoration of President Pedraza. On July 20, Governor Elorriaga was reinstated, and Baca along with the legislative minority were brought back to form a new legislature, which met on September 1. Chihuahua showed no desire to imitate the revolutionary movement and Urrea prepared to invade the state. Comandante-general J.J.Calvo threatened to retaliate, and a conflict seemed imminent. The entry of General Santa Anna into Mexico brought calm, as the leaders waited for clarity.
Who was deposed under threat from conservative forces?
570716b490286e26004fc8e3
Governor Terrazas
43
False
Who was established as the new governor?
570716b490286e26004fc8e4
Jesús José Casavantes
166
False
Who decided to march on Chihuahua in response?
570716b490286e26004fc8e5
José María Patoni
222
False
Which president was forced to flee?
570716b490286e26004fc8e6
President Benito Juárez
520
False
Until which year did his extended term last?
570716b490286e26004fc8e7
1867
700
False
Under threat from the conservative forces, Governor Terrazas was deposed, and the state legislature proclaimed martial law in the state in April 1864 and established Jesús José Casavantes as the new governor. In response, José María Patoni decided to march to Chihuahua with presidential support. Meanwhile, Maximilian von Habsburg, a younger brother of the Emperor of Austria, was proclaimed Emperor Maximilian I of Mexico on April 10, 1864 with the backing of Napoleon III and a group of Mexican conservatives. Before President Benito Juárez was forced to flee, Congress granted him an emergency extension of his presidency, which would go into effect in 1865 when his term expired, and last until 1867. At the same time, the state liberals and conservatives compromised to allow the popular Ángel Trías take the governorship; by this time the French forces had taken control over the central portions of the country and were making preparations to invade the northern states.
In which year was the new constitution ratified?
5707171c9e06ca38007e93fb
1855
80
False
The state was able to survive through which war?
5707171c9e06ca38007e93fc
Reform War
128
False
The conservative movement occurred during which year?
5707171c9e06ca38007e93fd
1858
217
False
1000 men occupied which cities?
5707171c9e06ca38007e93fe
Chihuahua and Parral
383
False
Who established himself as governor?
5707171c9e06ca38007e93ff
Cajen
833
False
The state united behind the Plan of Ayutla and ratified the new constitution in 1855. The state was able to survive through the Reform War with minimal damage due to the large number of liberal political figures. The 1858 conservative movement did not succeed in the state even after the successful military campaign of the conservative Zuloaga with 1,000 men occupied the cities of Chihuahua and Parral. In August 1859, Zuloaga and his forces were defeated by the liberal Orozco and his forces; Orozco soon after deposed the state governor, but had to flee to Durango two months later. In the late 1860s the conservative General Cajen briefly entered the state after his campaign through the state of Jalisco and helped establish conservative politicians and ran out the liberal leaders Jesús González Ortega and José María Patoni. Cajen took possession of the state capital and established himself as governor; he brooked no delay in uniting a large force to combat the liberal forces which he defeated in La Batalla del Gallo. Cajen attained several advantages over the liberals within the state, but soon lost his standing due to a strong resurgence of the liberal forces within the state. The successful liberal leaders José María Patoni of Durango and J.E. Muñoz of Chihuahua quickly strengthened their standing by limiting the political rights of the clergy implementing the presidential decree. The state elected General Luis Terrazas, a liberal leader, as governor; he would continue to fight small battles within the state to suppress conservative uprisings during 1861.
Brincourt made preparations to invade which state?
570717a99e06ca38007e9405
Chihuahua
154
False
In which states had Brincourt run military affairs previously?
570717a99e06ca38007e9406
Coahuila and Durango
57
False
Who remained in the capital until August 5, 1865?
570717a99e06ca38007e9407
President Juárez
544
False
Who surprised the imperial forces in control of Hidalgo?
570717a99e06ca38007e9408
General Villagran
875
False
The Republican government declared who in charge of the fight against the imperialists?
570717a99e06ca38007e9409
General Villagran
2104
False
After running imperial military affairs in the states of Coahuila and Durango, General Agustín Enrique Brincourt made preparations to invade the state of Chihuahua. On July 8, 1865 Brincourt crossed the Nazas River in northern Durango, heading toward Chihuahua. On July 22 Brincourt crossed the banks of Río Florido into Ciudad Jiménez; one day later he arrived at Valle de Allende where he sent Colonel Pyot with a garrison to take control of Hidalgo del Parral. Brincourt continued through Santa Rosalia de Camargo and Santa Cruz de Rosales. President Juárez remained in the state capital until August 5, 1865 when he left for El Paso del Norte (present-day Ciudad Juárez) due to evidence that the French were to attack the city. On the same day, the President named General Manuel Ojinaga the new governor and placed him in charge of all the republican forces. Meanwhile, General Villagran surprised the imperial forces in control of Hidalgo de Parral; after a short two-hour battle, Colonel Pyot was defeated and forced to retreat. At the Battle of Parral, the French lost 55 men to the Republican forces. On August 13, 1865, the French forces with an estimated 2,500 men arrived at the outskirts of Chihuahua City, and on August 15, 1865, General Brincourt defeated the republican forces, taking control of the state capital. Brincourt designated Tomás Zuloaga as Prefect of Chihuahua. Fearing the French would continue their campaign to El Paso del Norte, President Juárez relocated to El Carrizal, a secluded place in the mountains near El Paso del Norte, in August 1865, . It would have been easy for the French forces to continue in pursuit of President Juárez across the border, but they feared altercations with American forces. General François Achille Bazaine ordered the French troops to retreat back to the state of Durango after only reaching a point one days travel north of Chihuahua City. General Brincourt asked for 1,000 men to be left behind to help maintain control over the state, but his request was denied. After the death of General Ojinaga, the Republican government declared General Villagran in charge of the fight against the Imperial forces. The French left the state on October 29, 1865. President Juárez returned to Chihuahua City on November 20, 1865 and remained in the city until December 9, 1865 when he returned to El Paso del Norte. Shortly after the president left Chihuahua City, Terrazas was restored as governor of the state on December 11, 1865.
Where did Aguirre defeat the French forces?
570718049e06ca38007e940f
Parral
112
False
Who had been leading the French forces?
570718049e06ca38007e9410
Colonel Cottret
127
False
During which year was Chihuahua declared free of enemy control?
570718049e06ca38007e9411
1866
161
False
Who passed laws regarding rights of adjudication of property?
570718049e06ca38007e9412
President Juárez
444
False
Who was executed by firing squad on June 19, 1867?
570718049e06ca38007e9413
Maximilian
1287
False
General Aguirre moved to the deserts of the southeastern portion of the state and defeated the French forces in Parral, led by Colonel Cottret. By the middle of 1866, the state of Chihuahua was declared free of enemy control; Parral was the last French stronghold within the state. On June 17, 1866, President Juárez arrived in Chihuahua City and remained in the capital until December 10, 1866. During his two years in the state of Chihuahua, President Juárez passed ordinances regarding the rights of adjudication of property and nationalized the property of the clergy. The distance of the French forces and their allies allowed the Ministry of War, led by General Negrete, to reorganize the state's national guard into the Patriotic Battalion of Chihuahua, which was deployed to fight in the battle of Matamoros, Tamaulipas against the French. After a series of major defeats and an escalating threat from Prussia, France began pulling troops out of Mexico in late 1866. Disillusioned with the liberal political views of Maximilian, the Mexican conservatives abandoned him, and in 1867 the last of the Emperor's forces were defeated. Maximilian was sentenced to death by a military court; despite national and international pleas for amnesty, Juárez refused to commute the sentence. Maximilian was executed by firing squad on June 19, 1867.
Who declared war on Mexico in 1846?
570718919e06ca38007e9419
The United States
0
False
How many men did Chihuahua send to defend New Mexico?
570718919e06ca38007e941a
12,000
343
False
Which was the first battle fought by Chihuahua?
570718919e06ca38007e941b
battle of El Bracito
640
False
Who won the battle?
570718919e06ca38007e941c
The United States
0
False
Which general maintained camp in El Paso Del Norte after the battle?
570718919e06ca38007e941d
General Doniphan
971
False
The United States Congress declared war on Mexico on May 13, 1846 after only having a few hours to debate. Although President José Mariano Paredes's issuance of a manifesto on May 23 is sometimes considered the declaration of war, Mexico officially declared war by Congress on July 7. After the American invasion of New Mexico, Chihuahua sent 12,000 men led by Colonel Vidal to the border to stop the American military advance into the state. The Mexican forces being impatient to confront the American forces passed beyond El Paso del Norte about 20 miles (32 km) north along the Rio Grande. The first battle that Chihuahua fought was the battle of El Bracito; the Mexican forces consisting of 500 cavalry and 70 infantry confronted a force of 1,100–1,200 Americans on December 25, 1846. The battle ended badly by the Mexican forces that were then forced to retreat back into the state of Chihuahua. By December 27, 1846, the American forces occupied El Paso Del Norte. General Doniphan maintained camp in El Paso Del Norte awaiting supplies and artillery which he received in February 1847.
The elections of which year caused new hostilities?
570718ed9e06ca38007e9423
1875
63
False
Who led a movement against the government in June of 1875?
570718ed9e06ca38007e9424
Ángel Trías
92
False
Which orchestrator of the Revolution of the North was captured?
570718ed9e06ca38007e9425
Donato Guerra
232
False
Guerra was assassinated in a suburb of which city?
570718ed9e06ca38007e9426
Chihuahua City
354
False
With whom was he said to have conspired?
570718ed9e06ca38007e9427
Ángel Trías
415
False
But the peace in the state did not last long, the elections of 1875 caused new hostilities. Ángel Trías led a new movement against the government in June 1875 and maintained control over the government until September 18, 1875 when Donato Guerra the orchestrator of the Revolution of the North was captured. Donato Guerra was assassinated in a suburb of Chihuahua City where he was incarcerated for conspiring with Ángel Trías. During October 1875 several locations were controlled by rebel forces, but the government finally regained control on November 25, 1875.
Under which governor was the education system unified?
5707194190286e26004fc8ed
Miguel Ahumada
15
False
Which system of measurement was standardized?
5707194190286e26004fc8ee
metric system
144
False
What was inaugurated in Chihuahua City on September 16, 1897?
5707194190286e26004fc8ef
Civilian Hospital
279
False
The first large scale dam project was initiated on which river?
5707194190286e26004fc8f0
Chuviscar River
847
False
Under Governor Miguel Ahumada, the education system in the state was unified and brought under tighter control by the state government, and the metric system was standardized throughout the state to replace the colonial system of weights and measures. On September 16, 1897, the Civilian Hospital of Chihuahua was inaugurated in Chihuahua City and became known among the best in the country. In 1901 the Heroes Theater (Teatro de los Héroes) opened in Chihuahua City. On August 18, 1904, Governor Terrazas was replaced by Governor Enrique C. Creel. From 1907 to 1911, the Creel administration succeeded in advancing the state's legal system, modernizing the mining industry, and raising public education standards. In 1908 the Chihuahuan State Penitentiary was built, and the construction on the first large scale dam project was initiated on the Chuviscar River. During the same time, the streets of Chihuahua City were paved and numerous monuments were built in Chihuahua City and Ciudad Juárez.
The internal stability was known as what?
5707199590286e26004fc8f5
paz porfiriana
45
False
During what years did the economic growth occur?
5707199590286e26004fc8f6
1876 to 1910
134
False
Who committed to a strict "No Re-election" policy when running for office?
5707199590286e26004fc8f7
Díaz
229
False
Which class was frustrated with Diaz due to corruption?
5707199590286e26004fc8f8
working class
642
False
Despite the internal stability (known as the paz porfiriana), modernization, and economic growth in Mexico during the Porfiriato from 1876 to 1910, many across the state became deeply dissatisfied with the political system. When Díaz first ran for office, he committed to a strict “No Re-election” policy in which he disqualified himself to serve consecutive terms. Eventually backtracking on many of his initial political positions Díaz became a de facto dictator. Díaz became increasingly unpopular due to brutal suppression of political dissidents by using the Rurales and manipulating the elections to solidify his political machine. The working class was frustrated with the Díaz regime due to the corruption of the political system that had increased the inequality between the rich and poor. The peasants felt disenfranchised by the policies that promoted the unfair distribution of land where 95% of the land was owned by the top 5%.
Orozco responded to whose letter to action?
57071a0c90286e26004fc8fd
Madero
15
False
Which governor teamed up with Orozco?
57071a0c90286e26004fc8fe
Governor Abraham González
96
False
Orozco and Villa fought for and won which city?
57071a0c90286e26004fc8ff
Ciudad Juárez
347
False
Madero received support from which country?
57071a0c90286e26004fc900
United States
703
False
Orozco's army was called by what name?
57071a0c90286e26004fc901
Orozquistas
898
False
In response to Madero's letter to action, Pascual Orozco (a wealthy mining baron) and Chihuahua Governor Abraham González formed a powerful military union in the north, taking military control of several northern Mexican cities with other revolutionary leaders, including Pancho Villa. Against Madero's wishes, Orozco and Villa fought for and won Ciudad Juárez. After militias loyal to Madero defeated the Mexican federal army, on May 21, 1911, Madero signed the Treaty of Ciudad Juárez with Díaz. It required that Díaz abdicate his rule and be replaced by Madero. Insisting on a new election, Madero won overwhelmingly in late 1911, and he established a liberal democracy and received support from the United States and popular leaders such as Orozco and Villa. Orozco eventually became disappointed with the Madero's government and led a rebellion against him. He organized his own army, called "Orozquistas"—also called the Colorados ("Red Flaggers")—after Madero refused to agree to social reforms calling for better working hours, pay and conditions. The rural working class, which had supported Madero, now took up arms against him in support of Orozco.
War with what country seemed imminent?
57071a7190286e26004fc907
United States
48
False
Pancho Villa seeked a conversation with which American President?
57071a7190286e26004fc908
President Wilson
235
False
Villa stepped out of whose foreign policy?
57071a7190286e26004fc909
Carranza’s
756
False
To which Secretary did Carothers write?
57071a7190286e26004fc90a
Secretary William Jennings Bryan
388
False
The situation became so tense that war with the United States seemed imminent. On April 22, 1914, on the initiative of Felix A. Sommerfeld and Sherburne Hopkins, Pancho Villa traveled to Juárez to calm fears along the border and asked President Wilson's emissary George Carothers to tell "Señor Wilson" that he had no problems with the American occupation of Veracruz. Carothers wrote to Secretary William Jennings Bryan: "As far as he was concerned we could keep Vera Cruz [sic] and hold it so tight that not even water could get in to Huerta and . . . he could not feel any resentment". Whether trying to please the U.S. government or through the diplomatic efforts of Sommerfeld and Carothers, or maybe as a result of both, Villa stepped out from under Carranza’s stated foreign policy.
Which state is the largest in the country by land?
57071ad490286e26004fc90f
Chihuahua
13
False
What percentage of the country does it make up?
57071ad490286e26004fc910
12.6%
125
False
Which state borders Chihuahua to the direct west?
57071ad490286e26004fc911
Sonora
194
False
Which U.S. state borders to the northeast?
57071ad490286e26004fc912
Texas
315
False
The state of Chihuahua is the largest state in the country and is known as El Estado Grande (The Big State); it accounts for 12.6% of the land of Mexico. The area is landlocked by the states of Sonora to the west, Sinaloa to the south-west, Durango to the south, and Coahuila to the east, and by the U.S. states of Texas to the northeast and New Mexico to the north. The state is made up of three geologic regions: Mountains, Plains-Valleys, and Desert, which occur in large bands from west to east. Because of the different geologic regions there are contrasting climates and ecosystems.
Climate in the state depends mainly on what?
57071b4090286e26004fc917
elevation of the terrain
47
False
Which mountain range dominates the western part of the state?
57071b4090286e26004fc918
The Sierra Madre Occidental
156
False
Vegetation is much greener in which side of the state, east or west?
57071b4090286e26004fc919
west
753
False
Which side of the state has more precipitation?
57071b4090286e26004fc91a
west
753
False
Which part of the state has the most desert; north, south, east, or west?
57071b4090286e26004fc91b
southern
547
False
The climate in the state depends mainly in the elevation of the terrain. According to Köppen climate classification the state has five major climate zones. The Sierra Madre Occidental dominates the western part of the state; there are two main climates in this area: Subtropical Highland (Cfb) and Humid Subtropical (Cwa). There are some microclimates in the state due to the varying topology mostly found in the western side of the state. The two best known microclimates are: Tropical savanna climate (Aw) in deep canyons located in the extreme southern part of the state; Continental Mediterranean climate (Dsb) in the extremely high elevations of the Sierra Madre Occidental. Satellite image to the right shows the vegetation is much greener in the west because of the cooler temperatures and larger amounts of precipitation as compared to the rest of the state.
The Chihuahuan Desert is home to many of which type of animal?
57071b959e06ca38007e942d
mammals
89
False
Which type of reptile is most common in the desert?
57071b959e06ca38007e942e
rattlesnake
599
False
Mephitis macroura is which type of mammal?
57071b959e06ca38007e942f
skunk
236
False
The Chihuahuan Desert is home to a diverse ecosystem which is home to a large variety of mammals. The most common mammals in the desert include: Desert cottontail Sylvilagus audubonii, black-tailed jackrabbit Lepus californicus, hooded skunk Mephitis macroura, cactus mouse Peromyscus eremicus, swift fox Vulpes velox, white-throated woodrat Neotoma albigula, pallid bat Antrozous pallidus, and coyote Canis latrans. The most observed reptiles in the desert include: Mohave rattlesnake Crotalus scutulatus, twin-spotted rattlesnake Crotalus pricei, prairie rattlesnake Crotalus viridis, ridge-nosed rattlesnake Crotalus willardi, whip snake Masticophis flagellum, New Mexico whiptail Cnemidophorus neomexicanus, and red-spotted toad Bufo punctatus.
Villa became an enemy of whom?
57071bec9e06ca38007e9433
Carranza
10
False
Who took control in 1914?
57071bec9e06ca38007e9434
Carranza
101
False
Carranza met with his opposition at a meeting called what?
57071bec9e06ca38007e9435
Convention of Aguascalientes
207
False
The convention deposed Carranza in favor of whom?
57071bec9e06ca38007e9436
Eulalio Gutiérrez
281
False
At which battle was Obregon badly defeated?
57071bec9e06ca38007e9437
Battle of Celaya
476
False
Villa and Carranza had different political goals causing Villa to become an enemy of Carranza. After Carranza took control in 1914, Villa and other revolutionaries who opposed him met at what was called the Convention of Aguascalientes. The convention deposed Carranza in favor of Eulalio Gutiérrez. In the winter of 1914 Villa's and Zapata's troops entered and occupied Mexico City. Villa was forced from the city in early 1915 and attacked the forces of Gen. Obregón at the Battle of Celaya and was badly defeated in the bloodiest battle of the revolution, with thousands dead. With the defeat of Villa, Carranza seized power. A short time later the United States recognized Carranza as president of Mexico. Even though Villa's forces were badly depleted by his loss at Celaya, he continued his fight against the Carranza government. Finally, in 1920, Obregón—who had defeated him at Celaya—finally reached an agreement with Villa end his rebellion.
Which months make up the pronounced rainy season in the steppe?
57071c5c9e06ca38007e943d
July, August, and September
472
False
The steppe reaches temperatures above what in the winter?
57071c5c9e06ca38007e943e
100 °F
571
False
The steppe is important agriculturally because of what feature?
57071c5c9e06ca38007e943f
canals
712
False
The mountain climate is found in which part of the state?
57071c5c9e06ca38007e9440
western
202
False
The plains at the foot of the Sierra Madre Occidental is an elongated mesa known as Altiplanicie Mexicana that exhibits a steppe climate and serves as a transition zone from the mountain climate in the western part of the state to the desert climate in the eastern side of the state. The steppe zone accounts for a third of the state's area, and it experiences pronounced dry and wet seasons. The pronounced rainy season in the steppe is usually observed in the months of July, August, and September. The steppe also encounters extreme temperatures that often reach over 100 °F in the summer and drop below 32 °F in the winter. The steppe zone is an important agriculture zone due to an extensive development of canals exploiting several rivers that flow down from the mountains. The steppe zone is the most populated area of the state.
The state has great diversity thanks to the large number of what?
57071cb49e06ca38007e9445
microclimates
59
False
What type of life varies greatly with the elevation in the mountains?
57071cb49e06ca38007e9446
flora
113
False
The state is home to one of the largest variation species of which genus?
57071cb49e06ca38007e9447
Pinus
583
False
Several species of which type dot the steppe and transition zone?
57071cb49e06ca38007e9448
Juniperus
712
False
The state has a great diversity due to the large number of microclimates found and dramatic varying terrain. The flora throughout the Sierra Madre Occidental mountain range varies with elevation. Pine (Pinus) and oak (Quercus) species are usually found at an elevation of 2,000 m (6,560 ft) above sea level. The most common species of flora found in the mountains are: Pinus, Quercus, Abies, Ficus, Vachellia, Ipomoea, Acacia, Lysiloma, Bursera, Vitex, Tabebuia, Sideroxylon, Cordia, Fouquieria, Pithecellobium. The state is home to one of the largest variation species of the genus Pinus in the world. The lower elevations have a steppe vegetation with a variety of grasses and small bushes. Several species of Juniperus dot the steppe and the transition zone.
Which city in the state exceeds one million?
57071d329e06ca38007e944d
Ciudad Juárez
64
False
Juarez is ranked where among cities in the country?
57071d329e06ca38007e944e
eighth
103
False
El Paso and Ciudad Juarez combine for a population of how many people?
57071d329e06ca38007e944f
2.4 million
454
False
What is the literacy rate in Chihuahua City?
57071d329e06ca38007e9450
98%
992
False
What percentage of people in Chihuahua live in cities?
57071d329e06ca38007e9451
76.5%
1096
False
The state has one city with a population exceeding one million: Ciudad Juárez. Ciudad Juárez is ranked eighth most populous city in the country and Chihuahua City was ranked 16th most populous in Mexico. Chihuahua (along with Baja California) is the only state in Mexico to have two cities ranked in the top 20 most populated. El Paso and Ciudad Juárez comprise one of the largest binational metropolitan areas in the world with a combined population of 2.4 million. In fact, Ciudad Juárez is one of the fastest growing cities in the world in spite of the fact that it is "the most violent zone in the world outside of declared war zones". For instance, a few years ago the Federal Reserve Bank of Dallas published that in Ciudad Juárez "the average annual growth over the 10-year period 1990–2000 was 5.3 percent. Juárez experienced much higher population growth than the state of Chihuahua and than Mexico as a whole". Chihuahua City has one of the highest literacy rates in the country at 98%; 35% of the population is aged 14 or below, 60% 15-65, and 5% over 65. The growth rate is 2.4%. The 76.5% of the population of the state of Chihuahua live in cities which makes the state one of the most urbanized in Mexico.
French forces tried to capture the liberal government based where?
57071da79e06ca38007e9457
Saltillo
78
False
Which two generals lost against the French on September 21, 1864?
57071da79e06ca38007e9458
José María Patoni and Jesús González
111
False
The goverment led by whom was forced to evacuate Saltillo?
57071da79e06ca38007e9459
President Juárez
246
False
Which was the last city through which Juarez evacuated?
57071da79e06ca38007e945a
Chihuahua, Chihuahua
646
False
Which governor led the supportive reception of President Juarez?
57071da79e06ca38007e945b
Ángel Trías
791
False
The French forces tried to subdue and capture the liberal government based in Saltillo. On September 21, 1864, José María Patoni and Jesús González Ortega lost against the French forces at the Battle of Estanzuelas; the supreme government led by President Juárez was forced to evacuate the city of Saltillo and relocate to Chihuahua. Juárez stopped in Ciudad Jiménez, Valle de Allende, and Hidalgo de Parral, in turn. He decreed Parral the capital of Mexico from October 2–5, 1864. Perceiving the threat from the advancing French forces, the president continued his evacuation through Santa Rosalía de Camargo, Santa Cruz de Rosales, and finally Chihuahua, Chihuahua. On October 12, 1864, the people of the state gave President Juárez an overwhelmingly supportive reception, led by Governor Ángel Trías. On October 15, 1864 the city of Chihuahua was declared the temporary capital of Mexico.
Benito Juarez was reelected in which year?
57071e049e06ca38007e9461
1867
66
False
Which state gave Juarez a particularly notably strong support?
57071e049e06ca38007e9462
Chihuahua
130
False
Who was confirmed to be the president of the state of Chihuahua?
57071e049e06ca38007e9463
Luis Terrazas
141
False
Which general turned himself over to Donato Guerra?
57071e049e06ca38007e9464
General Canto
462
False
Which year's election was perceived to be fraudulent?
57071e049e06ca38007e9465
1871
937
False
President Benito Juárez was re-elected in the general election of 1867 in which he received strong liberal support, especially in Chihuahua. Luis Terrazas was confirmed by the people of Chihuahua to be governor of the state. But soon after the election, President Juárez had another crisis on his hands; the Juárez administration was suspected to be involved in the assassination of the military chief José María Patoni executed by General Canto in August 1868. General Canto turned himself over to Donato Guerra. Canto was sentenced to death, but later his sentence changed to 10 years imprisonment. The sense of injustice gave rise to a new rebellion in 1869 that threatened the federal government. In response, the Juárez administration took drastic measures by temporarily suspending constitutional rights, but the governor of Chihuahua did not support this action. Hostilities continued to increase especially after the election of 1871 which was perceived to be fraudulent. A new popular leader arose among the rebels, Porfirio Díaz. The federal government was successful in quelling rebellions in Durango an Chihuahua. On July 18, 1872, President Juárez died from a heart attack; soon after, many of his supporters ceased the fighting. Peace returned to Chihuahua and the new government was led by Governor Antonio Ochoa (formerly a co-owner of the Batopilas silver mines) in 1873 after Luis Terrazas finished his term in 1872.
The Diaz administration allowed the elite to concentrate wealth by favoring what?
57071e999e06ca38007e946b
monopolies
161
False
Two-fifths of the state's territory was divided between how many families?
57071e999e06ca38007e946c
17
245
False
This state grew at a rapid pace during the Porfiriato.
57071e999e06ca38007e946d
Chihuahua
400
False
What were installed throughout the state in 1883?
57071e999e06ca38007e946e
telephone lines
777
False
Asian immigrants became integral to the state economy by opening what businesses?
57071e999e06ca38007e946f
restaurants, small grocery stores, and hotels.
1295
False
The Díaz administration made political decisions and took legal measures that allowed the elite throughout Mexico to concentrate the nation's wealth by favoring monopolies. During this time, two-fifths of the state's territory was divided among 17 rich families which owned practically all of the arable land in Chihuahua. The state economy grew at a rapid pace during the Porfiriato; the economy in Chihuahua was dominated by agriculture and mining. The Díaz administration helped Governor Luis Terrazas by funding the Municipal Public Library in Chihuahua City and passing a federal initiative for the construction of the railroad from Chihuahua City to Ciudad Júarez. By 1881, the Central Mexican Railroad was completed which connected Mexico City to Ciudad Juárez. In 1883 telephone lines were installed throughout the state, allowing communication between Chihuahua City and Aldama. By 1888 the telephone services were extended from the capital to the cites of Julimes, Meoqui, and Hidalgo del Parral; the telecommunication network in the state covered an estimated 3,500 kilometers. The need of laborers to construct the extensive infrastructure projects resulted in a significant Asian immigration, mostly from China. Asian immigrants soon become integral to the state economy by opening restaurants, small grocery stores, and hotels. By the end of the Terrazas term, the state experienced an increase in commerce, mining, and banking. When the banks were nationalized, Chihuahua became the most important banking state in Mexico.
The Porfiriato ended in which year?
57071f039e06ca38007e9475
1910
34
False
The beginning of what ended the Porfiriato?
57071f039e06ca38007e9476
Mexican Revolution
65
False
Who stated that Mexico was ready for a Democracy and that he would step down?
57071f039e06ca38007e9477
Díaz
85
False
Who was incarcerated while running against Diaz?
57071f039e06ca38007e9478
Madero
294
False
Who took up arms in support of Madero?
57071f039e06ca38007e9479
Toribio Ortega
478
False
The end of the Porfiriato came in 1910 with the beginning of the Mexican Revolution. Díaz had stated that Mexico was ready for democracy and he would step down to allow other candidates to compete for the presidency, but Díaz decided to run again in 1910 for the last time against Francisco I. Madero. During the campaign Díaz incarcerated Madero on election day in 1910. Díaz was announced the winner of the election by a landslide, triggering the revolution. Madero supporter Toribio Ortega took up arms with a group of followers at Cuchillo Parado, Chihuahua on November 10, 1910.
The uneasy alliance between whom eventually won rebels the victory?
57071f5290286e26004fc921
Carranza, Obregón, Villa, and Zapata
23
False
The fight against Huerta formally ended on which date?
57071f5290286e26004fc922
August 15, 1914
141
False
In which city did Obregon sign a number of treaties?
57071f5290286e26004fc923
Teoloyucan
209
False
Who made a triumphant entry into Mexico City on August 20, 1914?
57071f5290286e26004fc924
Carranza
342
False
The uneasy alliance of Carranza, Obregón, Villa, and Zapata eventually led the rebels to victory. The fight against Huerta formally ended on August 15, 1914, when Álvaro Obregón signed a number of treaties in Teoloyucan in which the last of Huerta's forces surrendered to him and recognized the constitutional government. On August 20, 1914, Carranza made a triumphal entry into Mexico City. Carranza (supported by Obregón) was now the strongest candidate to fill the power vacuum and set himself up as head of the new government. This government successfully printed money, passed laws, etc.
Which is the main mountain range in the state?
570720299e06ca38007e947f
Sierra Madre Occidental
44
False
What altitude does the mountain range reach at maximum?
570720299e06ca38007e9480
10,826 ft (3,300 m)
99
False
Which state has more forests than any other?
570720299e06ca38007e9481
Chihuahua
290
False
Precipitation and temperature in the mountainous region depend on what?
570720299e06ca38007e9482
elevation
544
False
What type of plants can be found in some canyons?
570720299e06ca38007e9483
tropical
1107
False
The main mountain range in the state is the Sierra Madre Occidental reaching a maximum altitude of 10,826 ft (3,300 m) known as Cerro Mohinora. Mountains account for one third of the state's surface area which include large coniferous forests. The climate in the mountainous regions varies Chihuahua has more forests than any other state in Mexico making the area a bountiful source of wood; the mountainous areas are rich in minerals important to Mexico's mining industry. Precipitation and temperature in the mountainous areas depends on the elevation. Between the months of November and March snow storms are possible in the lower elevations and are frequent in the higher elevations. There are several watersheds located in the Sierra Madre Occidental all of the water that flows through the state; most of the rivers finally empty into the Río Grande. Temperatures in some canyons in the state reach over 100 °F in the summer while the same areas rarely drop below 32 °F in the winter. Microclimates found in the heart of the Sierra Madre Occidental in the state could be considered tropical, and wild tropical plants have been found in some canyons. La Barranca del Cobre, or Copper Canyon, a spectacular canyon system larger and deeper than the Grand Canyon; the canyon also contains Mexico's two tallest waterfalls: Basaseachic Falls and Piedra Volada. There are two national parks found in the mountainous area of the state: Cumbres de Majalca National Park and Basaseachic Falls National Park.
What type of land dominates in the eastern part of the state?
570720969e06ca38007e9489
Desert
52
False
Which city is known for its sand dunes?
570720969e06ca38007e948a
Samalayuca
228
False
Both types of climate zones in the eastern part of the state are what?
570720969e06ca38007e948b
Desert
324
False
The transition zone between east and west is called what?
570720969e06ca38007e948c
the Steppe
583
False
In the far eastern part of the state the Chihuahuan Desert dominates due to low precipitation and extremely high temperatures; some areas of the eastern part of the state are so dry no vegetation is found like the Sand Dunes of Samalayuca. There are two distinctive climate zones found in the eastern part of the state: Hot Desert (BWh) and Cool Desert (BWk) which are differentiated by average annual temperature due to differences in elevation. There is a transition zone in the middle of the state between the two extremely different climates from the east and west; this zone is the Steppe characterized by a compromise between juxtaposed climate zones.
The state hosts populations of birds of both endemic species and what?
570720f290286e26004fc929
migratory species
90
False
Cynanthus latirostris is what type of bird?
570720f290286e26004fc92a
hummingbird
385
False
Aquila chrysaetos is what type of bird?
570720f290286e26004fc92b
golden eagle
526
False
Which endemic species has symbolic significance to Mexicans?
570720f290286e26004fc92c
Trogon mexicanus
558
False
The state is also a host to a large population of birds which include endemic species and migratory species: greater roadrunner Geococcyx californianus, cactus wren Campylorhynchus brunneicapillus, Mexican jay Aphelocoma ultramarina, Steller's jay Cyanocitta stelleri, acorn woodpecker Melanerpes formicivorus, canyon towhee Pipilo fuscus, mourning dove Zenaida macroura, broad-billed hummingbird Cynanthus latirostris, Montezuma quail Cyrtonyx montezumae, mountain trogon Trogon mexicanus, turkey vulture Cathartes aura, and golden eagle Aquila chrysaetos. Trogon mexicanus is an endemic species found in the mountains in Mexico; it is considered an endangered species[citation needed] and has symbolic significance to Mexicans.
Who invited Canadians to resettle in Mexico during the Mexican Revolution?
5707217c90286e26004fc931
Álvaro Obregón
31
False
Today, Mexico accounts for what percentage of Mennonites in Latin America?
5707217c90286e26004fc932
42%
301
False
Mennonites speak a form of which language predominantly?
5707217c90286e26004fc933
German
481
False
Which food do Mennonites excel in producing?
5707217c90286e26004fc934
cheese
655
False
Mennonites account for about how much of the state's farm economy?
5707217c90286e26004fc935
half
608
False
During the Mexican Revolution, Álvaro Obregón invited a group of Canadian German-speaking Mennonites to resettle in Mexico. By the late 1920s, some 7,000 had immigrated to Chihuahua State and Durango State, almost all from Canada, only a few from the U.S. and Russia. Today, Mexico accounts for about 42% of all Mennonites in Latin America. Mennonites in the country stand out because of their light skin, hair, and eyes. They are a largely insular community that speaks a form of German and wear traditional clothing. They own their own businesses in various communities in Chihuahua, and account for about half of the state's farm economy, excelling in cheese production.
Agriculture varies across the state because of the variation in what?
5707220e90286e26004fc93b
climate
105
False
Which fruit does the state rank first in production?
5707220e90286e26004fc93c
apples
234
False
The state produces lots of dairy which large processors of what dairy product?
5707220e90286e26004fc93d
milk
318
False
The state ranks second in the production of what type of wood?
5707220e90286e26004fc93e
oak
485
False
The state ranked second with over 150,000 metric tons of what metal?
5707220e90286e26004fc93f
zinc
735
False
Agriculture is a relatively small component of the state's economy and varies greatly due to the varying climate across the state. The state ranked first in Mexico for the production of the following crops: oats, chile verde, cotton, apples, pecans, and membrillo. The state has an important dairy industry with large milk processors throughout the state. Delicias is home to Alpura, the second-largest dairy company in Mexico. The state has a large logging industry ranking second in oak and third in pine in Mexico. The mining industry is a small but continues to produce large amounts of minerals. The state ranked first place in the country for the production of lead with 53,169 metric tons. Chihuahua ranked second in Mexico for zinc at 150,211 metric tons, silver at 580,271 kg, and gold at 15,221.8 kg.
What was the first province of northern New Spain to be explored?
5707229c90286e26004fc945
Nueva Vizcaya
0
False
Around 1528, a group of Spaniards entered the territory that now makes up what state?
5707229c90286e26004fc946
Chihuahua
244
False
The conquest of the territory lasted nearly how long?
5707229c90286e26004fc947
one century
299
False
Which tribe resisted fiercely this conquest?
5707229c90286e26004fc948
Conchos tribe
355
False
The Spanish crown wanted to turn the region into what type of industry?
5707229c90286e26004fc949
mining center
446
False
Nueva Vizcaya (New Biscay) was the first province of northern New Spain to be explored and settled by the Spanish. Around 1528, a group of Spaniard explorers, led by Álvar Núñez Cabeza de Vaca, first entered the actual territory of what is now Chihuahua. The conquest of the territory lasted nearly one century, and encountered fierce resistance from the Conchos tribe, but the desire of the Spanish Crown to transform the region into a bustling mining center led to a strong strategy to control the area.
Hidalgo was turned over by whom?
5707233f90286e26004fc94f
Bishop of Durango, Francisco Gabriel de Olivares
31
False
In which year was Hidalgo turned over?
5707233f90286e26004fc950
1811
140
False
How was Hidalgo executed after having been found guilty?
5707233f90286e26004fc951
firing squad
218
False
Hidalgo refused the use of what during his execution?
5707233f90286e26004fc952
blindfold
521
False
In which state was Hidalgo's headless body buried?
5707233f90286e26004fc953
Chihuahua
967
False
Hidalgo was turned over to the Bishop of Durango, Francisco Gabriel de Olivares, for an official defrocking and excommunication on July 27, 1811. He was then found guilty of treason by a military court and executed by firing squad on July 30 at 7 in the morning. Before his execution, he thanked his jailers, Private Soldiers Ortega and Melchor, in letters for their humane treatment. At his execution, Hidalgo placed his right hand over his heart to show the riflemen where they should aim. He also refused the use of a blindfold. His body, along with the bodies of Allende, Aldama and José Mariano Jiménez were decapitated, and the heads were put on display on the four corners of the Alhóndiga de Granaditas in Guanajuato. The heads remained there for ten years until the end of the Mexican War of Independence to serve as a warning to other insurgents. Hidalgo's headless body was first displayed outside the prison but then buried in the Church of St Francis in Chihuahua. Those remains would later be transferred in 1824 to Mexico City.
During which year was the federal government unstable?
570725049e06ca38007e9491
1828
68
False
Who dissolved the government eventually?
570725049e06ca38007e9492
Governor Santiago de Baca Ortiz
201
False
With which type of government did Ortiz replace the old one?
570725049e06ca38007e9493
Yorkino
273
False
Which new governor was arrested by Ochoa and Bustamente?
570725049e06ca38007e9494
F. Elorriaga
489
False
Who now headed the civil and military authorities?
570725049e06ca38007e9495
J. A. Pescador and Simón Ochoa
662
False
Because of the general instability of the federal government during 1828, the installation of the new legislature did not take place until the middle of the following year. It was quickly dissolved by Governor Santiago de Baca Ortiz, who replaced it with a more pronounced Yorkino type. When Guerrero's liberal administration was overthrown in December, Gaspar de Ochoa aligned with Anastasio Bustamante, and in February 1830, organized an opposition group that arrested the new governor, F. Elorriaga, along with other prominent Yorkinos. He then summoned the legislature, which had been dissolved by Baca. The civil and military authorities were now headed by J. A. Pescador and Simón Ochoa.
Military command was given to whom based on his firmness?
5707258d90286e26004fc959
Colonel J.J. Calvo
98
False
The state was in a war with what group?
5707258d90286e26004fc95a
Apaches
210
False
Who declared the state's civil and military forces should be combined during the campaign?
5707258d90286e26004fc95b
Simón Elías González
310
False
In which year did Gonzalez receive renomination?
5707258d90286e26004fc95c
1837
527
False
Comandante general Simón Elías González, was nominated governor and military command was given to Colonel J.J. Calvo, whose firmness had earned well-merited praise. The state was in the midst of a war with the Apaches, which became the focus of all their energy and resources. After a review of the situation, Simón Elías González declared that the interests of the territory would be best served by uniting the civil and military power, at least while the campaign lasted. He resigned under opposition, but was renominated in 1837.
What group continuously attacked Mexican settlements?
5707261a90286e26004fc961
indigenous tribes
472
False
How many military colonies were established by the state?
5707261a90286e26004fc962
18
576
False
The military colonies replaced what as population centers?
5707261a90286e26004fc963
presidios
665
False
How many men per 1000 residents were mandated to defend?
5707261a90286e26004fc964
six men
1018
False
During the American occupation of the state, the number of Indian attacks was drastically reduced, but in 1848 the attacks resumed to such a degree that the Mexican officials had no choice but to resume military projects to protect Mexican settlements in the state. Through the next three decades the state faced constant attacks from indigenous on Mexican settlements. After the occupation the people of the state were worried about the potential attack from the hostile indigenous tribes north of the Rio Grande; as a result a decree on July 19, 1848, the state established 18 military colonies along the Rio Grande. The new military colonies were to replace the presidios as population centers to prevent future invasions by indigenous tribes; these policies remained prominent in the state until 1883. Eventually the state replaced the old state security with a state policy to form militias organized with every Mexican in the state capable to serve between the ages of 18 and 55 to fulfill the mandate of having six men defending for every 1000 residents.
Which political forces maintained strong control over the state until shortly after French intervention?
5707268f9e06ca38007e949b
liberal
4
False
The intervention had serious consequences for which state?
5707268f9e06ca38007e949c
Chihuahua
257
False
Who made an effort to organize a strong defense against the French?
5707268f9e06ca38007e949d
President Juárez
268
False
Who assigned the First Battalion of Chihuahua for integration into the army?
5707268f9e06ca38007e949e
Governor Luis Terrazas
527
False
To where was the battalion first deployed?
5707268f9e06ca38007e949f
Puebla
699
False
The liberal political forces maintained strong control over the state government until shortly after the French Intervention which turned the tables in favor to the conservative forces once again. The intervention had serious repercussions for the state of Chihuahua. President Juárez, in an effort to organize a strong defense against the French, decreed a list of national guard units that every state had to contribute to the Ministry of War and the Navy; Chihuahua was responsible for inducting 2,000 men. Regaining power, Governor Luis Terrazas assigned the First Battalion of Chihuahua for integration into the national army led by General Jesús González Ortega; the battalion was deployed to Puebla. After the defeat of the army in Puebla, the Juárez administration was forced to abandon Mexico City; the president retreated further north seeking refuge in the state of Chihuahua.
Juarez again based his government in which state?
570727889e06ca38007e94a5
Chihuahua
65
False
The base served as the center for the resistance against whose invasion?
570727889e06ca38007e94a6
the French invasion
130
False
On March 25, 1866, a battle ensued where in Chihuahua City?
570727889e06ca38007e94a7
Plaza de Armas
211
False
Who decided to fire a heavy artillery barrage with 8 kg cannonballs?
570727889e06ca38007e94a8
General Terrazas
611
False
Which structure in the church became a historical monument?
570727889e06ca38007e94a9
The bell
920
False
President Juárez once again based his government in the state of Chihuahua and it served as the center for the resistance against the French invasion throughout Mexico. On March 25, 1866, a battle ensued in the Plaza de Armas in the center of Chihuahua City between the French imperial forces that were guarding the plaza and the Republican forces led by General Terrazas. Being completely caught off guard, the French imperial forces sought refuge by bunkering themselves in the Cathedral of the Holy Cross, Our Lady of Regla, and St Fancis of Assisi and made it almost impossible to penetrate their defenses. General Terrazas then decided to fire a heavy artillery barrage with 8 kg cannonballs. The first cannon fired hit a bell in the tower of the church, instantly breaking it in half; soon after, 200 men of the imperial army forces surrendered. The republican forces had recovered control over the state capital. The bell in the church was declared a historical monument and can be seen today in the Cathedral. By April 1866, the state government had established a vital trading route from Chihuahua City to San Antonio, Texas; the government began to replenish their supplies and reinforce their fight against the Imperial forces.
The officials in Mexico reduced the price of what food from six cents to two cents per pound?
570728019e06ca38007e94af
corn
50
False
Who led the revolt for the northern portion of the state?
570728019e06ca38007e94b0
G. Casavantes
195
False
Casavantes was successful in getting which Governor to exile?
570728019e06ca38007e94b1
Governor Trías
419
False
Durango and Coahuila had a military confrontation over what natural resource?
570728019e06ca38007e94b2
water
788
False
Who was able to secure and stabilize the state eventually and gain the support of the people?
570728019e06ca38007e94b3
Díaz
1243
False
The officials in Mexico City reduced the price of corn from six cents to two cents a pound. The northern portion of the state continued to decline economically which led to another revolt led by G. Casavantes in August 1879; Governor Trías was accused of misappropriation of funds and inefficient administration of the state. Casavantes took the state capital and occupied it briefly; he was also successful in forcing Governor Trías to exile. Shortly afterwards, the federal government sent an entourage led by Treviño; Casavantes was immediately ordered to resign his position. Casavantes declared political victory as he was able to publicly accuse and depose Governor Trías. At the same time the states of Durango and Coahuila had a military confrontation over territorial claims and water rights; this altercation between the state required additional federal troops to stabilize the area. Later a dispute ensued again among the states of Coahuila, Durango, and Chihuahua over the mountain range area known as Sierra Mojada, when large deposits of gold ore was discovered. The state of Chihuahua officially submitted a declaration of protest in May 1880 that shortly after was amicably settled. Despite the difficulties at the beginning, Díaz was able to secure and stabilize the state, which earned the confidence and support of the people.
The state's economy was largely defined by these two industries.
570728b99e06ca38007e94b9
ranching and mining
219
False
Diaz promoted economic growth by encouraging investment from foreign companies at the expense of what group?
570728b99e06ca38007e94ba
working class
262
False
What was the name of the large estates owned by wealthy families?
570728b99e06ca38007e94bb
haciendas
52
False
This group was often exploited and had no legal protection or recourse.
570728b99e06ca38007e94bc
proletariat
452
False
A handful of families owned large estates (known as haciendas) and controlled the greater part of the land across the state while the vast majority of Chihuahuans were landless. The state economy was largely defined by ranching and mining. At the expense of the working class, the Díaz administration promoted economic growth by encouraging investment from foreign companies from the United Kingdom, France, Imperial Germany and the United States. The proletariat was often exploited, and found no legal protection or political recourse to redress injustices.
Who issued the Plan de Guadalupe?
5707294790286e26004fc969
Venustiano Carranza
19
False
The Plan de Guadalupe refused to recognize who as the president?
5707294790286e26004fc96a
Huerta
96
False
Who returned to Mexico to fight Huerta?
5707294790286e26004fc96b
Carranza
211
False
Which city was the rebellion's capital for most of the struggle?
5707294790286e26004fc96c
Ciudad Juárez
559
False
Carranza threatened war with what country in order to maintain credibility nationally?
5707294790286e26004fc96d
United States
854
False
On March 26, 1913, Venustiano Carranza issued the Plan de Guadalupe, which refused to recognize Huerta as president and called for war between the two factions. Soon after the assassination of President Madero, Carranza returned to Mexico to fight Huerta, but with only a handful of comrades. However, by 1913 his forces had swelled into an army of thousands, called the División del Norte (Northern Division). Villa and his army, along with Emiliano Zapata and Álvaro Obregón, united with Carranza to fight against Huerta. In March 1914 Carranza traveled to Ciudad Juárez, which served as rebellion's capital for the remainder of the struggle with Huerta. In April 1914 U.S. opposition to Huerta had reached its peak, blockading the regime's ability to resupply from abroad. Carranza trying to keep his nationalistic credentials threatened war with the United States. In his spontaneous response to U.S. President Woodrow Wilson Carranza asked "that the president withdraw American troops from Mexico.”
The desert zone accounts for how much of the state's surface area?
570729f090286e26004fc973
about a third
34
False
The Chihuahuan Desert also extends into which neighboring Mexican state?
570729f090286e26004fc974
Coahuila
181
False
The desert zone's topography is mostly what shape?
570729f090286e26004fc975
flat
269
False
Lower elevations and higher temperature are found in which region of the state; north, south, east, or west?
570729f090286e26004fc976
north
472
False
Which well-known river runs in the northern part of the state?
570729f090286e26004fc977
Rio Grande
488
False
The desert zone also accounts for about a third of the state's surface area. The Chihuahuan Desert is an international biome that also extends into the neighboring Mexican state of Coahuila and into the U.S. states of Texas and New Mexico. The desert zone is mainly of flat topography with some small mountain ranges that run north to south. The desert in the state varies slightly with a small variant in climate. The lower elevations of the desert zone are found in the north along the Rio Grande which experience hotter temperatures in the summer and winter while the southern portion of the desert zone experiences cooler temperatures due to its higher elevation. The Samalayuca dunes cover an area of about 150 km2; it is an impressive site of the Chihuahuan Desert and is a protected area by the state due to unique species of plants and animals.
Canis latrans is what animal?
57072adb9e06ca38007e94c1
coyote
647
False
Ursus Americanus is what animal that is found in relatively small numbers?
57072adb9e06ca38007e94c2
American black bear
669
False
The main cause of degradation has been what?
57072adb9e06ca38007e94c3
grazing
840
False
What type of snake is most popular in the region with many different species?
57072adb9e06ca38007e94c4
rattlesnake
1088
False
The fauna in the state is just as diverse as the flora and varies greatly due to the large contrast in climates. In the mountain zone of the state the most observed mammals are: Mexican fox squirrel (Sciurus nayaritensis), antelope jackrabbit (Lepus alleni), raccoon (Procyon lotor), hooded skunk (Mephitis macroura), wild boar (Sus scrofa), collared peccary (Pecari tajacu), white-tailed deer (Odocoileus virginianus), mule deer Odocoileus hemionus, American bison Bison bison, cougar (Puma concolor), eastern cottontail Sylvilagus floridanus, North American porcupine Erethizon dorsatum, bobcat Lynx rufus, Mexican wolf Canis lupus baileyi, and coyote Canis latrans. American black bear Ursus americanus is also found but in very small numbers. The Mexican wolf, once abundant, has been extirpated. The main cause of degradation has been grazing. Although there are many reptilian species in the mountains the most observed species include: Northern Mexican pine snake, Pituophis deppei jani, Texas horned lizard (Phrynosoma cornutum), rock rattlesnake (Crotalus lepidus), black-tailed rattlesnake (Crotalus molossus), and plateau tiger salamander Ambystoma velasci, one of possibly many amphibians to be found in the mountains.
The last census in Mexico that asked for race was carried out in which year?
57072b269e06ca38007e94c9
1921
82
False
According to the census of 1921, what percentage of citizens were Mestizo?
57072b269e06ca38007e94ca
50.09%
103
False
The second largest group of people were whom?
57072b269e06ca38007e94cb
whites
220
False
The last census in Mexico that asked for an individual's race, which was taken in 1921, indicated that 50.09% of the population identified as Mestizo (mixed Amerindian and European descent). The second-largest group was whites at 36.33% of the population. The third-largest group was the "pure indigenous" population, constituting 12.76% of the population. The remaining 0.82% of the population of Chihuahua was considered "other", i.e., neither Mestizo, indigenous, nor white. The most important indigenous tribes of the state of Chihuahua are:
What agreement sparked industrial development during the 1990s?
57072c019e06ca38007e94cf
NAFTA
23
False
Large factories called what were built to export manufactured goods to the US and Canada?
57072c019e06ca38007e94d0
maquiladoras
127
False
How many in the state are employed by maquiladoras?
57072c019e06ca38007e94d1
294,026
579
False
What type of business employs the largest portion of the population?
57072c019e06ca38007e94d2
Small business
985
False
Most maquiladoras today produce what?
57072c019e06ca38007e94d3
electronics, automobile, and aerospace components
253
False
During the 1990s after NAFTA was signed, industrial development grew rapidly with foreign investment. Large factories known as maquiladoras were built to export manufactured goods to the United States and Canada. Today, most of the maquiladoras produce electronics, automobile, and aerospace components. There are more than 406 companies operating under the federal IMMEX or Prosec program in Chihuahua. The large portion of the manufacturing sector of the state is 425 factories divided into 25 industrial parks accounting for 12.47% of the maquiladoras in Mexico, which employ 294,026 people in the state. While export-driven manufacturing is one of the most important components of the state's economy, the industrial sector is quite diverse and can be broken down into several sectors, which are: electronics, agro-industrial, wood base manufacturing, mineral, and biotech. Similar to the rest of the country, small businesses continue to be the foundation of the state’s economy. Small business employs the largest portion of the population.[citation needed]
Imamah_(Shia_doctrine)
Who believe that Imamah is of the Principles of Faith?
5707feb09e06ca38007e94d9
Shias
0
False
On what day was Ali appointed as the prophet's successor?
5707feb09e06ca38007e94da
Ghadir Khumm
779
False
What verse in the quran expresses the necessity to the appointment of the prophets?
5707feb09e06ca38007e94db
4:165
83
False
Who must assign a successor after the demise of a prophet?
5707feb09e06ca38007e94dc
Allah
378
False
What must a prophet do?
5707feb09e06ca38007e94dd
guide the people
471
False
Shias believe that Imamah is of the Principles of Faith (Usul al-Din).As the verse 4:165 of quran expresses the necessity to the appointment of the prophets; so after the demise of the prophet who will play the role of the prophet; till the people have not any plea against Allah.So the same logic that necessitated the assignment of prophets also is applied for Imamah.That is Allah Must assign someone similar to prophet in his attributes and Ismah as his successor to guide the people without any deviation in religion. They refer to the verse (...This day I have perfected for you your religion and completed My favor upon you and have approved for you Islam as religion...) 5:3 of Quran which was revealed to the prophet when he appointed Ali as his successor at the day of Ghadir Khumm.
What is the Shia Islam doctrine called?
5707ff5f9e06ca38007e94e3
Imamah
0
False
Who do the Shia believe are the true successors of Muhammad?
5707ff5f9e06ca38007e94e4
Imams
149
False
What is the role of Imams?
5707ff5f9e06ca38007e94e5
providing commentary and interpretation of the Quran
386
False
Who do the Shia believe are possessed of divine knowledge and authority?
5707ff5f9e06ca38007e94e6
Imams
149
False
Imamah (Arabic: إمامة‎) is the Shia Islam doctrine (belief) of religious, spiritual and political leadership of the Ummah. The Shia believe that the Imams are the true Caliphs or rightful successors of Muhammad, and further that Imams are possessed of divine knowledge and authority (Ismah) as well as being part of the Ahl al-Bayt, the family of Muhammad. These Imams have the role of providing commentary and interpretation of the Quran as well as guidance to their tariqa followers as is the case of the living Imams of the Nizari Ismaili tariqah.
Why did different sects come about within Shiism?
570800b19e06ca38007e94eb
they differed over their Imams' successions
70
False
What great separation came to be from a dispute over the succession to Muhammad?
570800b19e06ca38007e94ec
Shia - Sunni
127
False
What is the literal meaning of tariqah?
570800b19e06ca38007e94ed
path
333
False
What does each Shia tariqah follow?
570800b19e06ca38007e94ee
its own particular Imam's dynasty
411
False
What is it called when the last Imam or his unborn successor goes into concealment?
570800b19e06ca38007e94ef
The Occultation
724
False
Within Shia Islam (Shiism), the various sects came into being because they differed over their Imams' successions, just as the Shia - Sunni separation within Islam itself had come into being from the dispute that had arisen over the succession to Muhammad. Each succession dispute brought forth a different tariqah (literal meaning 'path'; extended meaning 'sect') within Shia Islam. Each Shia tariqah followed its own particular Imam's dynasty, thus resulting in different numbers of Imams for each particular Shia tariqah. When the dynastic line of the separating successor Imam ended with no heir to succeed him, then either he (the last Imam) or his unborn successor was believed to have gone into concealment, that is, The Occultation.
What is the basic characteristis of Muhammad and the prophets?
570802f39e06ca38007e94f5
their nobility
1048
False
What religion were all of Muhammad's ancestors?
570802f39e06ca38007e94f6
Muslims
1238
False
Who does the Quran say was also from a pious family?
570802f39e06ca38007e94f7
Jesus
1268
False
What is forbidden for the Divine Leader?
570802f39e06ca38007e94f8
not to be from the family of Muhammad
38
False
What is the sign that indicates the Divine Leader?
570802f39e06ca38007e94f9
his well-known ties of kinship with Muhammad
232
False
It is forbidden for the Divine Leader not to be from the family of Muhammad.[citation needed] According to Ali al-Ridha, since it is obligatory to obey him, there should be a sign to clearly indicate the Divine Leader. That sign is his well-known ties of kinship with Muhammad and his clear appointment so that the people could distinguish him from others, and be clearly guided toward him. Otherwise others are nobler than Muhammad's offspring and they are to be followed and obeyed; and the offspring of Muhammad are obedient and subject to the offspring of Muhammad’s enemies such as Abi Jahl or Ibn Abi Ma’eet.[original research?] However, Muhammad is much nobler than others to be in charge and to be obeyed. Moreover, once the prophethood of Muhammad is testified they would obey him, no one would hesitate to follow his offspring and this would not be hard for anyone. While to follow the offspring of the corrupted families is difficult.[original research?] And that is maybe why the basic characteristic of Muhammad and other prophets was their nobility.[original research?] For none of them, it is said, were originated from a disgraced family.[citation needed] It is believed that all Muhammad's ancestors up to Adam were true Muslims. [a][citation needed] Jesus was also from a pious family, as it is mentioned in Quran that after his birth, people said to Mary: O sister of Aaron, your father was not a man of evil, nor was your mother unchaste."[b][improper synthesis?]
What word literally means a person who stands or walks in front?
570804549e06ca38007e94ff
Imām
10
False
For Sunni Islam, what does the word Imam commonly mean?
570804549e06ca38007e9500
a person who leads the course of prayer in the mosque
116
False
What does the word madhhab mean?
570804549e06ca38007e9501
school of thought
209
False
What does Imam mean in its proper religious context?
570804549e06ca38007e9502
members of the house of Muhammad designated as infallible
422
False
The word "Imām" denotes a person who stands or walks "in front". For Sunni Islam, the word is commonly used to mean a person who leads the course of prayer in the mosque. It also means the head of a madhhab ("school of thought"). However, from the Shia point of view this is merely the basic understanding of the word in the Arabic language and, for its proper religious usage, the word "Imam" is applicable only to those members of the house of Muhammad designated as infallible by the preceding Imam.
What group do the Shia tariqahs belong to?
570805e39e06ca38007e9507
Shia
57
False
What has happened to some of the Shia tariqahs last Imams?
570805e39e06ca38007e9508
Occultation
301
False
Who deny the concept of Occulation?
570805e39e06ca38007e9509
Shia Nizari Ismailis
321
False
What kind of Imam do Shia Nizari Ismailis have?
570805e39e06ca38007e950a
present and living
438
False
What would happen to the Nizari Ismaili if the Imam fails to leave a successor?
570805e39e06ca38007e950b
come to an end
682
False
Although all these different Shia tariqahs belong to the Shia group (as opposed to the Sunni group) in Islam, there are major doctrinal differences between the main Shia tariqahs. After that there is the complete doctrinal break between all the different Shia tariqahs whose last Imams have gone into Occultation and the Shia Nizari Ismailis who deny the very concept of Occultation. The Shia Nizari Ismailis by definition have to have a present and living Imam until the end of time.[citation needed] Thus if any living Nizari Ismaili Imam fails to leave behind a successor after him then the Nizari Ismailism’s cardinal principle would be broken and it’s very raison d'être would come to an end.
How many great prophets has Allah sent?
570806c390286e26004fc97d
seven
41
False
What are the seven great prophets known as?
570806c390286e26004fc97e
Nātıq
73
False
What are the seven great prophets supposed to do?
570806c390286e26004fc97f
disseminate and improve his Dīn of Islam
101
False
What is the great prophets assistant called?
570806c390286e26004fc980
Sāmad (Silent) Imām
204
False
According to Ismā‘īlīsm, Allah has sent "seven" great prophets known as “Nātıq” (Spoken) in order to disseminate and improve his Dīn of Islam. All of these great prophets has also one assistant known as “Sāmad (Silent) Imām”. At the end of each seven “Sāmad” silsila, one great “Nātıq” (Spoken) has ben sent in order to reimprove the Dīn of Islam. After Adam and his son Seth, and after six “Nātıq” (Spoken) – “Sāmad” (Silent) silsila (Noah–Shem), (Abraham–Ishmael), (Moses–Aaron), (Jesus–Simeon), (Muhammad bin ʿAbd Allāh–Ali ibn Abu Tālib); the silsila of “Nātıqs and Sāmads have been completed with (Muhammad bin Ismā‘īl as-ṣaghīr (Maymûn’ûl-Qaddāh)–ʿAbd Allāh Ibn-i Maymûn and his sons).
In Shia tariqah, what are the Twelvers commonly known as?
5708077a9e06ca38007e9511
the "Shia"
89
False
What are the Nizari Ismailis more commonly known as?
5708077a9e06ca38007e9512
Ismailis
159
False
What are the Mustalian Ismailis commonly known as?
5708077a9e06ca38007e9513
Bohras
229
False
Which tariqah no longer exists?
5708077a9e06ca38007e9514
The Shia Sevener
485
False
Which tariah is known as the Fivers?
5708077a9e06ca38007e9515
Zaidi Shias
557
False
The Shia tariqah with a majority of adherents are the Twelvers who are commonly known as the "Shia". After that come the Nizari Ismailis commonly known as the Ismailis; and then come the Mustalian Ismailis commonly known as the "Bohras" with further schisms within their Bohri tariqah. The Druze tariqah (very small in number today) initially were of the Fatimid Ismailis and separated from them (the Fatimid Ismailis) after the death of the Fatimid Imam and Caliph Hakim Bi Amrillah. The Shia Sevener tariqah no longer exists. Another small tariqah is the Zaidi Shias, also known as the Fivers and who do not believe in The Occultation of their last Imam.
How did al-Mahdi maintain contact during his Occultation?
5708085c9e06ca38007e951b
via deputies
117
False
How did deputies represent al-Mahdi?
5708085c9e06ca38007e951c
acted as agents between him and his followers
205
False
What would believers do when they had a problem?
5708085c9e06ca38007e951d
write their concerns and send them to his deputy
303
False
What would the deputy endorse the concerns with?
5708085c9e06ca38007e951e
seal and signature
413
False
What did the deputies collect in the Imam's behalf?
5708085c9e06ca38007e951f
zakat and khums
499
False
During the Minor Occultation (Ghaybat al-Sughrá), it is believed that al-Mahdi maintained contact with his followers via deputies (Arab. an-nuwāb al-arbaʻa or "the Four Leaders"). They represented him and acted as agents between him and his followers. Whenever the believers faced a problem, they would write their concerns and send them to his deputy. The deputy would ascertain his verdict, endorse it with his seal and signature and return it to the relevant parties. The deputies also collected zakat and khums on his behalf.
How do Ismailis differ from Twelvers?
57080a949928a814004714b4
living imams
51
False
Who is the elder brother of Musa al-Kadhim?
57080a949928a814004714b5
Isma'il ibn Jafar
143
False
Who is the father of Isma'il ibn Jafar?
57080a949928a814004714b6
Ja'far al-Sadiq
233
False
What did Imam Ismail pass on to his son?
57080a949928a814004714b7
mantle of the imamate
356
False
The Ismailis differ from Twelvers because they had living imams for centuries after the last Twelver Imam went into concealment. They followed Isma'il ibn Jafar, elder brother of Musa al-Kadhim, as the rightful Imam after his father Ja'far al-Sadiq. The Ismailis believe that whether Imam Ismail did or did not die before Imam Ja'far, he had passed on the mantle of the imamate to his son Muḥammad ibn Ismail as the next imam. Thus, their line of imams is as follows (the years of their individual imamats during the Common Era are given in brackets):
What are the Mustali Ismaili Shia Muslims also known as?
57080bf29928a814004714bc
Bohras/Dawoodi Bohra
73
False
What do Bohras believe happened to Taiyab abi al-qasim?
57080bf29928a814004714bd
went into a Dawr-e-Satr
196
False
Who are the Bohras led by in the absence of an imam?
57080bf29928a814004714be
Dai-al-Mutlaq
316
False
What does a Dai-al-Mutlaq do?
57080bf29928a814004714bf
manages the affairs of the Imam
356
False
Who is Dawoodi Bohra's present 53rd Da'i al-Butlaq?
57080bf29928a814004714c0
Syedna Mufaddal Saifuddin
512
False
The line of imams of the Mustali Ismaili Shia Muslims (also known as the Bohras/Dawoodi Bohra) continued up to Aamir ibn Mustali. After his death, they believe their 21st Imam Taiyab abi al-Qasim went into a Dawr-e-Satr (period of concealment) that continues to this day. In the absence of an imam they are led by a Dai-al-Mutlaq (absolute missionary) who manages the affairs of the Imam-in-Concealment until re-emergence of the Imam from concealment. Dawoodi Bohra's present 53rd Da'i al-Mutlaq is His Holiness Syedna Mufaddal Saifuddin (TUS) who succeeded his predessor the 52nd Da'i al-Mutlaq His Holiness Syedna Mohammed Burhanuddin (RA). Furthermore, there has been a split in the Dawoodi Bohra sect which has led to the formation of Qutbi Bohra sect which was formed and led by Khuzaima Qutbuddin.
Who do Muslims believe said "To whomsoever I am Mawla, Ali is his Mawla?
57080cbb9928a814004714c6
Muhammad
25
False
How many books can this quote be found?
57080cbb9928a814004714c7
45
180
False
What is the point of conflict between Sunni and Shia?
57080cbb9928a814004714c8
the word 'Mawla'
486
False
What does the work Mawla mean to Sunnies?
57080cbb9928a814004714c9
beloved
1302
False
What does the word Mawla mean to Shia?
57080cbb9928a814004714ca
Lord and Master
533
False
All Muslims believe that Muhammad had said: "To whomsoever I am Mawla, Ali is his Mawla." This hadith has been narrated in different ways by many different sources in no less than 45 hadith books[citation needed] of both Sunni and Shia collections. This hadith has also been narrated by the collector of hadiths, al-Tirmidhi, 3713;[citation needed] as well as Ibn Maajah, 121;[citation needed] etc. The major point of conflict between the Sunni and the Shia is in the interpretation of the word 'Mawla'. For the Shia the word means 'Lord and Master' and has the same elevated significance as when the term had been used to address Muhammad himself during his lifetime. Thus, when Muhammad actually (by speech) and physically (by way of having his closest companions including Abu Bakr, Umar and Uthman [the three future Caliphs who had preceded Ali as Caliph] publicly accept Ali as their Lord and Master by taking Ali's hand in both of theirs as token of their allegiance to Ali) transferred this title and manner of addressing Ali as the Mawla for all Muslims at Ghadiri Khum Oasis just a few months before his death, the people that came to look upon Ali as Muhammad's immediate successor even before Muhamamd's death came to be known as the Shia. However, for the Sunnis the word simply means the 'beloved' or the 'revered' and has no other significance at all.
By what Quran verse to Shias believe that Imamah is a divine position?
57080ed1efce8f15003a7d90
2:124
20
False
What does the Quran verse 17:71 say?
57080ed1efce8f15003a7d91
no age can be without an Imam
234
False
Imamah is a position appointed by who?
57080ed1efce8f15003a7d92
God
343
False
What is an Imam protected by?
57080ed1efce8f15003a7d93
divine protection
401
False
Who knows everything that is needed to get to the truth and goal?
57080ed1efce8f15003a7d94
Imam
499
False
By the verse Quran, 2:124, Shias believe that Imamah is a divine position always Imamah is accompanied by the word guidance, of course a guidance by God's Command.A kind of guidance which brings humanity to the goal. Regarding 17:71, no age can be without an Imam. So, according to the upper verse 1.Imamah is a position which is appointed by God and must be specified by Him 2.Imam is protected by a divine protection and no one exceles him in nobility 3. No age can be without an Imam and finally Imam knows everything which is needed for human being to get to the truth and goal.
Who was the brother of Hassan ibn 'Ali?
57080f77efce8f15003a7d9a
Hussayn ibn 'Alī
196
False
Usually, how has each Imam been related to the previous Imam?
57080f77efce8f15003a7d9b
son
160
False
What bible verse do Shia use to support their belief of succession?
57080f77efce8f15003a7d9c
Genesis 17:19–20
455
False
According to the majority of Shī'a, namely the Twelvers (Ithnā'ashariyya), the following is a listing of the rightful successors to Muḥammad. Each Imam was the son of the previous Imam except for Hussayn ibn 'Alī, who was the brother of Hassan ibn 'Alī.The belief in this succession to Muḥammad stems from various Quranic verses which include: 75:36, 13:7, 35:24, 2:30, 2:124, 36:26, 7:142, 42:23.[citation needed] They support their discussion by citing Genesis 17:19–20 and Sunni hadith:Sahih Muslim, Hadith number 4478, English translation by Abdul Hamid Siddiqui.[original research?]
Pitch_(music)
What type of sensation is pitch?
57085206efce8f15003a7da0
auditory
12
False
What is pitch closely related to?
57085206efce8f15003a7da1
frequency
209
False
Each persons perception of sound is called?
57085206efce8f15003a7da2
Pitch
322
False
Pitch is an auditory sensation in which a listener assigns musical tones to relative positions on a musical scale based primarily on their perception of the frequency of vibration. Pitch is closely related to frequency, but the two are not equivalent. Frequency is an objective, scientific attribute that can be measured. Pitch is each person's subjective perception of a sound, which cannot be directly measured. However, this does not necessarily mean that most people won't agree on which notes are higher and lower.
Octaves in linear pitch are what size?
5708545e9928a814004714d0
12
61
False
Semitones in linear pitch are what size?
5708545e9928a814004714d1
1
144
False
A440 in linear pitch are what size?
5708545e9928a814004714d2
69
179
False
An equal-tempered semitone is subdivided into how many cents?
5708545e9928a814004714d3
100
341
False
The pitch halfway between C (60) and C♯ (61) is labeled what?
5708545e9928a814004714d4
60.5
518
False
This creates a linear pitch space in which octaves have size 12, semitones (the distance between adjacent keys on the piano keyboard) have size 1, and A440 is assigned the number 69. (See Frequencies of notes.) Distance in this space corresponds to musical intervals as understood by musicians. An equal-tempered semitone is subdivided into 100 cents. The system is flexible enough to include "microtones" not found on standard piano keyboards. For example, the pitch halfway between C (60) and C♯ (61) can be labeled 60.5.
What is the most common method of organization?
57096b77ed30961900e840d8
twelve-note chromatic scale
125
False
The pitch ratio between any two successive notes is?
57096b77ed30961900e840d9
the twelfth root of two
353
False
All these different methods have what in common?
57096b77ed30961900e840da
the octave
587
False
The relative pitches of individual notes in a scale may be determined by one of a number of tuning systems. In the west, the twelve-note chromatic scale is the most common method of organization, with equal temperament now the most widely used method of tuning that scale. In it, the pitch ratio between any two successive notes of the scale is exactly the twelfth root of two (or about 1.05946). In well-tempered systems (as used in the time of Johann Sebastian Bach, for example), different methods of musical tuning were used. Almost all of these systems have one interval in common, the octave, where the pitch of one note is double the frequency of another. For example, if the A above middle C is 440 Hz, the A an octave above that is 880 Hz (info).
Pitch is the auditory attribute to what?
57096efd200fba1400367fdd
sound
91
False
Pitch is a close proxy for what?
57096efd200fba1400367fde
frequency
205
False
High pitch is what type of oscillation?
57096efd200fba1400367fdf
rapid
414
False
Low pitch is what type of oscillation?
57096efd200fba1400367fe0
slower
464
False
According to the American National Standards Institute, pitch is the auditory attribute of sound according to which sounds can be ordered on a scale from low to high. Since pitch is such a close proxy for frequency, it is almost entirely determined by how quickly the sound wave is making the air vibrate and has almost nothing to do with the intensity, or amplitude, of the wave. That is, "high" pitch means very rapid oscillation, and "low" pitch corresponds to slower oscillation. Despite that, the idiom relating vertical height to sound pitch is shared by most languages. At least in English, it is just one of many deep conceptual metaphors that involve up/down. The exact etymological history of the musical sense of high and low pitch is still unclear. There is evidence that humans do actually perceive that the source of a sound is slightly higher or lower in vertical space when the sound frequency is increased or decreased.
This produces many modes of vibration that occur simultaneously?
570972d0ed30961900e8416c
sound generated
2
False
A listener can hear how many frequencies at once?
570972d0ed30961900e8416d
numerous
113
False
Harmonics are an important class of what?
570972d0ed30961900e8416e
overtones
293
False
Integer multiples are collectively called?
570972d0ed30961900e8416f
the partials
457
False
A sound generated on any instrument produces many modes of vibration that occur simultaneously. A listener hears numerous frequencies at once. The vibration with the lowest frequency is called the fundamental frequency; the other frequencies are overtones. Harmonics are an important class of overtones with frequencies that are integer multiples of the fundamental. Whether or not the higher frequencies are integer multiples, they are collectively called the partials, referring to the different parts that make up the total spectrum.
The pitch of complex tones can be?
57097cb6200fba1400368075
ambiguous
34
False
A complex tone is composed of how many waves?
57097cb6200fba1400368076
two
372
False
The percept at 200 Hz is commonly referred to as?
57097cb6200fba1400368077
the missing fundamental
718
False
the percept at 200 Hz is commonly referred to as the missing fundamental, which is often?
57097cb6200fba1400368078
divisor of the frequencies present
778
False
The pitch of complex tones can be ambiguous, meaning that two or more different pitches can be perceived, depending upon the observer. When the actual fundamental frequency can be precisely determined through physical measurement, it may differ from the perceived pitch because of overtones, also known as upper partials, harmonic or otherwise. A complex tone composed of two sine waves of 1000 and 1200 Hz may sometimes be heard as up to three pitches: two spectral pitches at 1000 and 1200 Hz, derived from the physical frequencies of the pure tones, and the combination tone at 200 Hz, corresponding to the repetition rate of the waveform. In a situation like this, the percept at 200 Hz is commonly referred to as the missing fundamental, which is often the greatest common divisor of the frequencies present.
The just-noticeable difference, at which a change is perceived depends on what?
57097da1ed30961900e84206
the tone's frequency content
95
False
The jnd is typically tested by?
57097da1ed30961900e84207
playing two tones in quick succession
306
False
What is the range of perceptible pitch steps to human hearing?
57097da1ed30961900e84208
1,400
620
False
The just-noticeable difference (jnd) (the threshold at which a change is perceived) depends on the tone's frequency content. Below 500 Hz, the jnd is about 3 Hz for sine waves, and 1 Hz for complex tones; above 1000 Hz, the jnd for sine waves is about 0.6% (about 10 cents). The jnd is typically tested by playing two tones in quick succession with the listener asked if there was a difference in their pitches. The jnd becomes smaller if the two tones are played simultaneously as the listener is then able to discern beat frequencies. The total number of perceptible pitch steps in the range of human hearing is about 1,400; the total number of notes in the equal-tempered scale, from 16 to 16,000 Hz, is 120.
Which drum has a higher perceived pitch even though they both have indefinite pitch?
57097e99ed30961900e84212
snare drum
120
False
Repetition pitch is caused by what phenomenon?
57097e99ed30961900e84213
the addition of a true repetition of the original sound
682
False
It is possible and often easy to roughly discern the relative pitches of two sounds of what?
57097e99ed30961900e84214
indefinite pitch
355
False
It is still possible for two sounds of indefinite pitch to clearly be higher or lower than one another. For instance, a snare drum sounds higher pitched than a bass drum though both have indefinite pitch, because its sound contains higher frequencies. In other words, it is possible and often easy to roughly discern the relative pitches of two sounds of indefinite pitch, but sounds of indefinite pitch do not neatly correspond to any specific pitch. A special type of pitch often occurs in free nature when sound reaches the ear of an observer directly from the source, and also after reflecting off a sound-reflecting surface. This phenomenon is called repetition pitch, because the addition of a true repetition of the original sound to itself is the basic prerequisite.
The notion of pitch is insensitive to what?
5709809d200fba14003680af
spelling
153
False
The description "G4 double sharp" refers to the same pitch as what?
5709809d200fba14003680b0
A4
226
False
Human perception of musical intervals is approximately what?
5709809d200fba14003680b1
logarithmic
339
False
Music theorist represent pitches using what kind of scale?
5709809d200fba14003680b2
numerical
618
False
For example, one might refer to the A above middle C as a', A4, or 440 Hz. In standard Western equal temperament, the notion of pitch is insensitive to "spelling": the description "G4 double sharp" refers to the same pitch as A4; in other temperaments, these may be distinct pitches. Human perception of musical intervals is approximately logarithmic with respect to fundamental frequency: the perceived interval between the pitches "A220" and "A440" is the same as the perceived interval between the pitches A440 and A880. Motivated by this logarithmic perception, music theorists sometimes represent pitches using a numerical scale based on the logarithm of fundamental frequency. For example, one can adopt the widely used MIDI standard to map fundamental frequency, f, to a real number, p, as follows
The precise way this temporal structure helps code for pitch at higher levels is based on what?
57098332ed30961900e84258
autocorrelation of action potentials in the auditory nerve
332
False
Is a temporal delay necessary to produce an autocorrelation model of pitch perception?
57098332ed30961900e84259
unnecessary
594
False
Pitch perception  has inherent octave what?
57098332ed30961900e8425a
ambiguities
1213
False
Temporal theories offer an alternative that appeals to the temporal structure of action potentials, mostly the phase-locking and mode-locking of action potentials to frequencies in a stimulus. The precise way this temporal structure helps code for pitch at higher levels is still debated, but the processing seems to be based on an autocorrelation of action potentials in the auditory nerve. However, it has long been noted that a neural mechanism that may accomplish a delay—a necessary operation of a true autocorrelation—has not been found. At least one model shows that a temporal delay is unnecessary to produce an autocorrelation model of pitch perception, appealing to phase shifts between cochlear filters; however, earlier work has shown that certain sounds with a prominent peak in their autocorrelation function do not elicit a corresponding pitch percept, and that certain sounds without a peak in their autocorrelation function nevertheless elicit a pitch. To be a more complete model, autocorrelation must therefore apply to signals that represent the output of the cochlea, as via auditory-nerve interspike-interval histograms. Some theories of pitch perception hold that pitch has inherent octave ambiguities, and therefore is best decomposed into a pitch chroma, a periodic value around the octave, like the note names in western music—and a pitch height, which may be ambiguous, that indicates the octave the pitch is in.
England_national_football_team
When did King Richard I begin his reign?
570887a4efce8f15003a7da6
1189
129
False
Which animal is the main motif of England's national football team?
570887a4efce8f15003a7da7
lions
58
False
What type of headgear originally appeared on the lions' heads on England's national football team motif?
570887a4efce8f15003a7da8
a crown
235
False
In which year was the FA given an official coat of arms by the College of Arms?
570887a4efce8f15003a7da9
1949
264
False
Since 2003, England has topped their logo with a star to recognize their World Cup win in which year?
570887a4efce8f15003a7daa
1966
505
False
1189
129
In what year was King Richard I born?
59fb2731ee36d60018400d51
True
left sleeve
547
Where is the English logo currently embroidered on their shirts?
59fb2731ee36d60018400d52
True
blue
160
What colour are the ten Tudor roses on England's shirts?
59fb2731ee36d60018400d53
True
1189
129
In what year was the College of Arms established?
59fb2731ee36d60018400d54
True
King Richard I
96
Who established the College of Arms?
59fb2731ee36d60018400d55
True
The motif of the England national football team has three lions passant guardant, the emblem of King Richard I, who reigned from 1189 to 1199. The lions, often blue, have had minor changes to colour and appearance. Initially topped by a crown, this was removed in 1949 when the FA was given an official coat of arms by the College of Arms; this introduced ten Tudor roses, one for each of the regional branches of the FA. Since 2003, England top their logo with a star to recognise their World Cup win in 1966; this was first embroidered onto the left sleeve of the home kit, and a year later was moved to its current position, first on the away shirt.
What color were England's first away kits?
570888bf9928a814004714da
blue
40
False
What color are the socks traditionally worn in England's away kits?
570888bf9928a814004714db
red
114
False
Three times in 1996, England wore what color socks in their away kits instead of the traditional red socks?
570888bf9928a814004714dc
grey
168
False
In 2011, England introduced a new away kit in what color?
570888bf9928a814004714dd
navy blue
420
False
When a new edition of England's away kit has been introduced, the kit is sometimes worn during what type of matches?
570888bf9928a814004714de
home matches
498
False
1996
128
In what year did England stop using blue away kits?
59fb256bee36d60018400d47
True
unpopular
337
What did Germany's supporters think of their kits during the Euro 96 matches?
59fb256bee36d60018400d48
True
navy
420
What shade of blue was used in England's first away kits?
59fb256bee36d60018400d49
True
red shirts, white shorts and red socks
85
What color kits was Germany wearing during the Euro 96?
59fb256bee36d60018400d4a
True
navy
420
What shade of red is England's traditional away colour shirts?
59fb256bee36d60018400d4b
True
Although England's first away kits were blue, England's traditional away colours are red shirts, white shorts and red socks. In 1996, England's away kit was changed to grey shirts, shorts and socks. This kit was only worn three times, including against Germany in the semi-final of Euro 96 but the deviation from the traditional red was unpopular with supporters and the England away kit remained red until 2011, when a navy blue away kit was introduced. The away kit is also sometimes worn during home matches, when a new edition has been released to promote it.
In what year was England most recently eliminated from FIFA World Cup contention?
57098392ed30961900e8425e
2014
197
False
In which three years did England fail to qualify for the World Cup?
57098392ed30961900e8425f
1974, 1978 and 1994
47
False
In 2014, England was eliminated from the World Cup after being defeated by Italy and which other team?
57098392ed30961900e84260
Uruguay
310
False
After the first round of the 2014 FIFA World Cup, how many teams remained in contention?
57098392ed30961900e84261
sixteen
423
False
What was the final score when, in 2010, England lost to Germany in the Round of 16 of the FIFA World Cup?
57098392ed30961900e84262
4–1
511
False
Uruguay
310
Where was the 1974 World Cup held?
59fb34d4ee36d60018400d65
True
Italy
300
What was one of the four teams that remained after the first round in 1950?
59fb34d4ee36d60018400d66
True
first
369
Where did Slovenia place in the 2010 World Cup games?
59fb34d4ee36d60018400d67
True
4–1
511
What was the score when England played Italy in the 2014 FIFA World Cup?
59fb34d4ee36d60018400d68
True
1978
53
In what year was Germany's football team's worst defeat?
59fb34d4ee36d60018400d69
True
England failed to qualify for the World Cup in 1974, 1978 and 1994. The team's earliest exit in the competition itself was its elimination in the first round in 1950, 1958 and most recently in the 2014 FIFA World Cup, after being defeated in both their opening two matches for the first time, versus Italy and Uruguay in Group D. In 1950, four teams remained after the first round, in 1958 eight teams remained and in 2014 sixteen teams remained. In 2010, England suffered its most resounding World Cup defeat (4–1 to Germany) in the Round of 16, after drawing with the United States and Algeria and defeating Slovenia 1–0 in the group stage.
In what year did England suffer their first defeat at home to a foreign team?
57098452ed30961900e84268
1949
115
False
What was the final score of England's worst ever defeat?
57098452ed30961900e84269
7–1
268
False
In what year did England reach the quarter-finals of the FIFA World Cup for the first time?
57098452ed30961900e8426a
1954
418
False
To whom is the quote "it was like playing men from outer space" attributed?
57098452ed30961900e8426b
Syd Owen
352
False
After reaching the FIFA World Cup quarter-finals for the first time, to whom did England lose with a final score of 4-2?
57098452ed30961900e8426c
Uruguay
529
False
1949
115
In what year was Goodison Park built?
59fb1d95ee36d60018400d17
True
1949
115
In what year did Syd Owen start playing for England's football team?
59fb1d95ee36d60018400d18
True
21 September
102
On what date in 1953 did England's football team lose to Hungary?
59fb1d95ee36d60018400d19
True
7–1
268
What was the score of England's football teams biggest win?
59fb1d95ee36d60018400d1a
True
Their first ever defeat on home soil to a foreign team was an 0–2 loss to the Republic of Ireland, on 21 September 1949 at Goodison Park. A 6–3 loss in 1953 to Hungary, was their second defeat by a foreign team at Wembley. In the return match in Budapest, Hungary won 7–1. This still stands as England's worst ever defeat. After the game, a bewildered Syd Owen said, "it was like playing men from outer space". In the 1954 FIFA World Cup, England reached the quarter-finals for the first time, and lost 4–2 to reigning champions Uruguay.
In what year did Capello resign as England's football manager?
57098554200fba1400368125
2012
12
False
Capello resigned as England's football manager after a dispute over removing which player from team captaincy?
57098554200fba1400368126
John Terry
135
False
Who became the new manager of England's football team in May of 2012?
57098554200fba1400368127
Roy Hodgson
331
False
In which round of UEFA Euro 2012 was England eliminated?
57098554200fba1400368128
the quarter-finals
540
False
A defeat by which team ultimately eliminated England from UEFA Euro 2012?
57098554200fba1400368129
Italy
597
False
2012
12
In what year was Capello made England's manager?
59fb2121ee36d60018400d33
True
Italy
597
what country hosted the UEFA Euro 2012?
59fb2121ee36d60018400d34
True
John Terry
135
Who was the manager of Italy's team in 2012?
59fb2121ee36d60018400d35
True
2012
12
In what year did John Terry become captain of England's team?
59fb2121ee36d60018400d36
True
Italy
597
Who won the UEFA Euro 2012?
59fb2121ee36d60018400d37
True
In February 2012, Capello resigned from his role as England manager, following a disagreement with the FA over their request to remove John Terry from team captaincy after accusations of racial abuse concerning the player. Following this, there was media speculation that Harry Redknapp would take the job. However, on 1 May 2012, Roy Hodgson was announced as the new manager, just six weeks before UEFA Euro 2012. England managed to finish top of their group, winning two and drawing one of their fixtures, but exited the Championships in the quarter-finals via a penalty shoot-out, this time to Italy.
Which governing body controls the England national football team?
570985de200fba140036812f
The Football Association
198
False
Which other team, besides England, is one of the  two oldest national teams in football?
570985de200fba1400368130
Scotland
340
False
In what year did England and Scotland play the world's first international football match?
570985de200fba1400368131
1872
420
False
What is the name of England's home field in London?
570985de200fba1400368132
Wembley Stadium
451
False
Who is the current team manager of England's football team?
570985de200fba1400368133
Roy Hodgson
508
False
1872
420
When was FIFA founded?
59fb1bb6ee36d60018400d03
True
Wembley Stadium
451
Where does the Isle of Man football team play home games?
59fb1bb6ee36d60018400d04
True
Roy Hodgson
508
Who is the Isle of Man football team manager?
59fb1bb6ee36d60018400d05
True
Jersey
84
Where is Roy Hodgson from?
59fb1bb6ee36d60018400d06
True
1872
420
In what year did Roy Hodgson become the team manager of England's football team?
59fb1bb6ee36d60018400d07
True
The England national football team represents England and the Crown Dependencies of Jersey, Guernsey and the Isle of Man for football matches as part of FIFA-authorised events, and is controlled by The Football Association, the governing body for football in England. England are one of the two oldest national teams in football; alongside Scotland, whom they played in the world's first international football match in 1872. England's home ground is Wembley Stadium, London, and the current team manager is Roy Hodgson.
In which year did England join FIFA?
5709867ced30961900e8427c
1906
74
False
England played against countries besides the Home Nations for the first time in what year?
5709867ced30961900e8427d
1908
190
False
In what year did Wembley Stadium open?
5709867ced30961900e8427e
1923
226
False
England left FIFA in 1928 and ultimately rejoined in what year?
5709867ced30961900e8427f
1946
400
False
What was the first year after England left and rejoined FIFA in which they played in a World Cup?
5709867ced30961900e84280
1950
461
False
1908
190
In what year did FIFA come into existence?
59fb1ceeee36d60018400d0d
True
1906
74
In what year was the first World Cup played?
59fb1ceeee36d60018400d0e
True
1–0
498
What was the score the first time the United States competed for a World Cup?
59fb1ceeee36d60018400d0f
True
Wembley Stadium
196
What was the name of one of the home stadiums England played in prior to 1923?
59fb1ceeee36d60018400d10
True
1946
400
In what year did the United States join FIFA?
59fb1ceeee36d60018400d11
True
To begin with, England had no permanent home stadium. They joined FIFA in 1906 and played their first ever games against countries other than the Home Nations on a tour of Central Europe in 1908. Wembley Stadium was opened in 1923 and became their home ground. The relationship between England and FIFA became strained, and this resulted in their departure from FIFA in 1928, before they rejoined in 1946. As a result, they did not compete in a World Cup until 1950, in which they were beaten in a 1–0 defeat by the United States, failing to get past the first round in one of the most embarrassing defeats in the team's history.
In which place did England finish in the UEFA European Football Championship in 1968?
57098741ed30961900e84290
third place
100
False
In how many UEFA European Championship Finals has England competed?
57098741ed30961900e84291
eight
200
False
Where does England rank in terms of the number of UEFA European Football Championship appearances?
57098741ed30961900e84292
tied for ninth-best
253
False
In what four years was England eliminated from the UEFA European Championship in the first round?
57098741ed30961900e84293
1980, 1988, 1992 and 2000
436
False
In which five years did England fail to qualify for the UEFA European Championship?
57098741ed30961900e84294
1964, 1972, 1976, 1984, and 2008
525
False
England
156
Who hosted the UEFA European Football Championship in 1968?
59fb3669ee36d60018400d6f
True
England
0
Who finished in first place at the 1968 UEFA European Football Championship?
59fb3669ee36d60018400d70
True
1960
489
In what year was the first UEFA European Football Championship held?
59fb3669ee36d60018400d71
True
2004
345
In what year did England play its first UEFA European Football Championship match?
59fb3669ee36d60018400d72
True
England
0
In what country was the 1980 UEFA European Football Championship held?
59fb3669ee36d60018400d73
True
England is quite a successful nation at the UEFA European Football Championship, having finished in third place in 1968 and reached the semi-final in 1996. England hosted Euro 96 and have appeared in eight UEFA European Championship Finals tournaments, tied for ninth-best. The team has also reached the quarter-final on two recent occasions in 2004 and 2012. The team's worst result in the competition was a first-round elimination in 1980, 1988, 1992 and 2000. The team did not enter in 1960, and they failed to qualify in 1964, 1972, 1976, 1984, and 2008.
A defeat by which team eliminated England from the 1970 FIFA World Cup?
570987d5200fba140036814d
West Germany
142
False
What was the final score of England's last match of the 1970 FIFA World Cup?
570987d5200fba140036814e
3–2
208
False
In which year did England fail to qualify for the FIFA World Cup resulting in Ramsey's dismissal?
570987d5200fba140036814f
1974
267
False
Where did the 1970 FIFA World Cup take place?
570987d5200fba1400368150
Mexico
49
False
Where did the 1982 FIFA World Cup take place?
570987d5200fba1400368151
Spain
406
False
1974
267
In what year was Ron Greenwood born?
59fb1ee2ee36d60018400d1f
True
Spain
406
In what country was the World Cup played in 1974?
59fb1ee2ee36d60018400d20
True
Mexico
49
Where was the World Cup played in 1974?
59fb1ee2ee36d60018400d21
True
West Germany
142
What was one of the teams England's football team played in the 1982 World Cup games?
59fb1ee2ee36d60018400d22
True
1970
26
In what year did Ron Greenwood take over leadership of England's football team?
59fb1ee2ee36d60018400d23
True
England qualified for the 1970 FIFA World Cup in Mexico as reigning champions, and reached the quarter-finals, where they were knocked out by West Germany. England had been 2–0 up, but were eventually beaten 3–2 after extra time. They failed in qualification for the 1974, leading to Ramsey's dismissal, and 1978 FIFA World Cups. Under Ron Greenwood, they managed to qualify for the 1982 FIFA World Cup in Spain (the first time competitively since 1962); despite not losing a game, they were eliminated in the second group stage.
Who was the first non-English person to manage England's football team?
5709885bed30961900e842ae
Sven-Göran Eriksson
0
False
How many competitive matches were lost under the tenure of manager Sven-Göran Eriksson?
5709885bed30961900e842af
five
380
False
What was the highest world ranking achieved by England under management by Sven-Göran Eriksson?
5709885bed30961900e842b0
No.4
447
False
In what year was the contract of Sven-Göran Eriksson terminated?
5709885bed30961900e842b1
2006
623
False
In what year did Sven-Göran Eriksson become the manager of England's football team?
5709885bed30961900e842b2
2001
52
False
Sven-Göran Eriksson
0
Who was the first English manager of England's football team?
59fb200cee36d60018400d29
True
No.4
447
What was the world ranking of England's team prior to Sven-Goran Eriksson taking over?
59fb200cee36d60018400d2a
True
England
108
Who won the 2006 FIFA World Cup?
59fb200cee36d60018400d2b
True
England
108
In what country was the 2006 FIFA World Cup played?
59fb200cee36d60018400d2c
True
2006
623
In what year was the Football Association established?
59fb200cee36d60018400d2d
True
Sven-Göran Eriksson took charge of the team between 2001 and 2006, and was the first non–English manager of England. Despite controversial press coverage of his personal life, Eriksson was consistently popular with the majority of fans.[citation needed] He guided England to the quarter-finals of the 2002 FIFA World Cup, UEFA Euro 2004, and the 2006 FIFA World Cup. He lost only five competitive matches during his tenure, and England rose to an No.4 world ranking under his guidance. His contract was extended by the Football Association by two years, to include UEFA Euro 2008. However, it was terminated by them at the 2006 FIFA World Cup's conclusion.
Commentated broadcasts of all England matches air on what network?
5709896b200fba1400368161
BBC Radio 5 Live
58
False
What was the first season in which England's qualifiers and friendlies were broadcast on ITV?
5709896b200fba1400368162
2008–09
85
False
What network is ITV's affiliate in northern and central Scotland?
5709896b200fba1400368163
STV
251
False
In what year was an England football match aired only via the internet for the first time?
5709896b200fba1400368164
2009
513
False
Approximately how many total viewers watched the England World Cup qualifier on the internet on 10 October 2009?
5709896b200fba1400368165
500,000
836
False
2008
85
In what year did BBC Radio 5 Live start broadcasting England's matches?
59fb2338ee36d60018400d3d
True
England
4
Who won the 2010 World Cup?
59fb2338ee36d60018400d3e
True
250,000
774
How many people listen to BBC Radio 5 Live broadcasts of England's matches during the 2008-09 season?
59fb2338ee36d60018400d3f
True
2009
513
In what year was Setanta Sports founded?
59fb2338ee36d60018400d40
True
Ukraine
491
Who did England play against on 10 October 2009?
59fb2338ee36d60018400d41
True
All England matches are broadcast with full commentary on BBC Radio 5 Live. From the 2008–09 season until the 2017–18 season, England's home and away qualifiers, and friendlies both home and away are broadcast live on ITV (often with the exception of STV, the ITV affiliate in central and northern Scotland). England's away qualifiers for the 2010 World Cup were shown on Setanta Sports until that company's collapse. As a result of Setanta Sports's demise, England's World Cup qualifier in Ukraine on 10 October 2009 was shown in the United Kingdom on a pay-per-view basis via the internet only. This one-off event was the first time an England game had been screened in such a way. The number of subscribers, paying between £4.99 and £11.99 each, was estimated at between 250,000 and 300,000 and the total number of viewers at around 500,000.
In how many FIFA world cups has England appeared?
57098a07ed30961900e842c2
14
71
False
Besides France, which other team is tied with England for number of appearances in the FIFA World Cup?
57098a07ed30961900e842c3
Spain
168
False
In which year did England win the FIFA World Cup for the first and only time?
57098a07ed30961900e842c4
1966
332
False
In what place did England finish in the 1990 FIFA World Cup?
57098a07ed30961900e842c5
fourth
453
False
Which country hosted the 1990 FIFA World Cup?
57098a07ed30961900e842c6
Italy
493
False
14
71
How many FIFA World Cups has France been in?
59fb3401ee36d60018400d5b
True
1950
30
In what year was Spain's first World Cup appearance?
59fb3401ee36d60018400d5c
True
Germany
398
Who won the 1990 World Cup?
59fb3401ee36d60018400d5d
True
Italy
493
Where was the 2002 World Cup held?
59fb3401ee36d60018400d5e
True
England
433
Where was the 1950 FIFA World Cup held?
59fb3401ee36d60018400d5f
True
England first appeared at the 1950 FIFA World Cup and have appeared in 14 FIFA World Cups, they are tied for sixth-best in terms of number of wins alongside France and Spain. The national team is one of eight national teams to have won at least one FIFA World Cup title. The England team won their first and only World Cup title in 1966. The tournament was played on home soil and England defeated Germany 4–2 in the final. In 1990, England finished in fourth place, losing 2–1 to host nation Italy in the third place play-off after losing on penalties to champions Germany in the semi-final. The team has also reached the quarter-final on two recent occasions in 2002 and 2006. Previously, they reached this stage in 1954, 1962, 1970 and 1986.
Houston
Where were Augustus Chapman Allen and John Kirby Allen from?
57093943efce8f15003a7dba
New York
95
False
How many acres of land did Augustus Chapman Allen and John Kirby Allen purchase in 1836?
57093943efce8f15003a7dbb
6,642
115
False
What was the reason the Allen brothers purchased land in 1836?
57093943efce8f15003a7dbc
founding a city
186
False
Who did the Allen brothers name the city they founded after?
57093943efce8f15003a7dbd
Sam Houston
253
False
In what year was Sam Houston elected President of Texas?
57093943efce8f15003a7dbe
1836
364
False
Who bought land along Buffalo Bayou to build a city?
5709aeceed30961900e84408
Allen brothers
207
False
How much land did the Allen brothers buy?
5709aeceed30961900e84409
6,642 acres
115
False
After which famous general was the city named?
5709aeceed30961900e8440a
Sam Houston
253
False
In 1860 what percentage of the city's population was slaves?
5709aeceed30961900e8440b
forty-nine percent
853
False
How much did the slave population of Houston increase from 1850 to 1860?
5709aeceed30961900e8440c
tripled
1176
False
Augustus Chapman Allen and John Kirby Allen—
46
Who originally came from Houston and moved to New York?
5ad41c80604f3c001a40057d
True
6,642 acres
115
How many acres of land did Augustus Chapman Allen and John Kirby Allen purchase in 1936?
5ad41c80604f3c001a40057e
True
founding a city
186
What was the reason the Allen brothers sold land in 1836?
5ad41c80604f3c001a40057f
True
slave states
446
What did the Allen brothers name the city they founded after?
5ad41c80604f3c001a400580
True
2,000
944
In 1830 what percentage of the city's population was slaves?
5ad41c80604f3c001a400581
True
In August 1836, two real estate entrepreneurs—Augustus Chapman Allen and John Kirby Allen—from New York, purchased 6,642 acres (26.88 km2) of land along Buffalo Bayou with the intent of founding a city. The Allen brothers decided to name the city after Sam Houston, the popular general at the Battle of San Jacinto, who was elected President of Texas in September 1836. The great majority of slaves in Texas came with their owners from the older slave states. Sizable numbers, however, came through the domestic slave trade. New Orleans was the center of this trade in the Deep South, but there were slave dealers in Houston. Thousands of enslaved African-Americans lived near the city before the Civil War. Many of them near the city worked on sugar and cotton plantations, while most of those in the city limits had domestic and artisan jobs. In 1860 forty-nine percent of the city's population was enslaved. A few slaves, perhaps as many as 2,000 between 1835 and 1865, came through the illegal African trade. Post-war Texas grew rapidly as migrants poured into the cotton lands of the state. They also brought or purchased enslaved African Americans, whose numbers nearly tripled in the state from 1850 to 1860, from 58,000 to 182,566.
What event cause shipping activities to be suspended?
57093dae9928a814004714e4
World War II
5
False
Petrochemical refineries and manufacturing plants were built due to the demand for what items during the war?
57093dae9928a814004714e5
petroleum and synthetic rubber products
281
False
When was Ellington Field built?
57093dae9928a814004714e6
during World War I
394
False
When was the Brown Shipbuilding Company founded?
57093dae9928a814004714e7
1942
539
False
What was the policy created by President Roosevelt due to the boom in defense jobs?
57093dae9928a814004714e8
non-discrimination for defense contractors
787
False
What kind of refineries were built along the Houston ship channel?
5709b0aaed30961900e8441c
Petrochemical
165
False
To fill what type of demand were refineries built?
5709b0aaed30961900e8441d
petroleum and synthetic rubber
281
False
What world event caused this increased need for petrochemicals?
5709b0aaed30961900e8441e
World War II
5
False
Why did thousands of new workers flock to Houston?
5709b0aaed30961900e8441f
defense jobs
617
False
Which president created a policy of non-discrimination for defense contractors?
5709b0aaed30961900e84420
President Roosevelt
739
False
World War II
5
What event cause shipping activities to begin?
5ad41d34604f3c001a4005bd
True
petroleum and synthetic rubber
281
Farms were built due to the demand for what items during the war?
5ad41d34604f3c001a4005be
True
during World War I
394
When was Ellington Field destroyed?
5ad41d34604f3c001a4005bf
True
1942
539
When was the Brown Shipbuilding Company destroyed?
5ad41d34604f3c001a4005c0
True
non-discrimination for defense contractors
787
hat was the policy created by the Vice-President due to the boom in defense jobs?
5ad41d34604f3c001a4005c1
True
When World War II started, tonnage levels at the port decreased and shipping activities were suspended; however, the war did provide economic benefits for the city. Petrochemical refineries and manufacturing plants were constructed along the ship channel because of the demand for petroleum and synthetic rubber products by the defense industry during the war. Ellington Field, initially built during World War I, was revitalized as an advanced training center for bombardiers and navigators. The Brown Shipbuilding Company was founded in 1942 to build ships for the U.S. Navy during World War II. Due to the boom in defense jobs, thousands of new workers migrated to the city, both blacks and whites competing for the higher-paying jobs. President Roosevelt had established a policy of non-discrimination for defense contractors, and blacks gained some opportunities, especially in shipbuilding, although not without resistance from whites and increasing social tensions that erupted into occasional violence. Economic gains of blacks who entered defense industries continued in the postwar years.
In what year did the space shuttle Challenger explode after launch?
570942b39928a814004714ee
1986
135
False
Why did Houston's economy have problems in the late 1980's?
570942b39928a814004714ef
the nationwide recession
316
False
In the 1990's, what is something Houston did to try to diversify it's economy?
570942b39928a814004714f0
reduced its dependence on the petroleum industry
481
False
The petroleum industry has become a larger part of Houston's economy again for what reason?
570942b39928a814004714f1
the increase of oil prices in the 2000s
537
False
What caused population growth to decline  in the 1980s?
5709b2a2200fba1400368275
oil prices fell
68
False
Which shuttle disintegrated in 1986 to cause a decline in the space industry?
5709b2a2200fba1400368276
Space Shuttle Challenger
150
False
When did Houston suffer an economic decline?
5709b2a2200fba1400368277
late 1980s
271
False
What did Houston focus on after the 1990s recession to improve its economy?
5709b2a2200fba1400368278
aerospace and health care
436
False
When did Houston begin to regain its dependence on the oil industry?
5709b2a2200fba1400368279
2000s
571
False
1986
135
In what year did the space shuttle Challenger succeed after launch?
5ad41d62604f3c001a4005d9
True
nationwide recession
320
Why didn't Houston's economy have problems in the late 1980's?
5ad41d62604f3c001a4005da
True
reduced its dependence on the petroleum industry
481
In the 1990's, what is something Houston did to try not to diversify it's economy?
5ad41d62604f3c001a4005db
True
oil prices in the 2000s
553
The petroleum industry did not become a larger part of Houston's economy again for what reason?
5ad41d62604f3c001a4005dc
True
One wave of the population boom ended abruptly in the mid-1980s, as oil prices fell precipitously. The space industry also suffered in 1986 after the Space Shuttle Challenger disintegrated shortly after launch. There was a cutback in some activities for a period. In the late 1980s, the city's economy suffered from the nationwide recession. After the early 1990s recession, Houston made efforts to diversify its economy by focusing on aerospace and health care/biotechnology, and reduced its dependence on the petroleum industry. Since the increase of oil prices in the 2000s, the petroleum industry has again increased its share of the local economy.
What materials are underpinning the land surface of Houston?
57094ba9efce8f15003a7dcc
unconsolidated clays, clay shales, and poorly cemented sands
40
False
Houston's geology was formed from river deposits from the erosion of what mountains?
57094ba9efce8f15003a7dcd
Rocky Mountains
209
False
The sand and clay deposited onto decaying marine matter transformed into what?
57094ba9efce8f15003a7dce
oil and natural gas
359
False
What is halite?
57094ba9efce8f15003a7dcf
a rock salt
449
False
What type of farming is Houston's surface soil good for?
57094ba9efce8f15003a7dd0
rice farming
749
False
What geological event caused the foundations of the land beneath Houston?
5709b50eed30961900e8443a
erosion of the Rocky Mountains
194
False
Besides sands, what are the foundations of Houston's land?
5709b50eed30961900e8443b
clays
55
False
How deep are the clay and sands foundations of Houston?
5709b50eed30961900e8443c
several miles
107
False
What did the decaying organics under the clay and sand deposits later form?
5709b50eed30961900e8443d
oil and natural gas
359
False
What agricultural crop was farmed in the rich soils on the outlying areas of Houston?
5709b50eed30961900e8443e
rice
749
False
unconsolidated clays, clay shales, and poorly cemented sands
40
What materials are underpinning the water of Houston?
5ad41e23604f3c001a400623
True
Rocky Mountains
209
Houston's geology was formed from river deposits from the erosion of what ocean?
5ad41e23604f3c001a400624
True
oil and natural gas
359
The glass deposited onto decaying marine matter transformed into what?
5ad41e23604f3c001a400625
True
rock salt
451
What is falsalite?
5ad41e23604f3c001a400626
True
rice farming
749
What type of fishing is Houston's waters good for?
5ad41e23604f3c001a400627
True
Underpinning Houston's land surface are unconsolidated clays, clay shales, and poorly cemented sands up to several miles deep. The region's geology developed from river deposits formed from the erosion of the Rocky Mountains. These sediments consist of a series of sands and clays deposited on decaying organic marine matter, that over time, transformed into oil and natural gas. Beneath the layers of sediment is a water-deposited layer of halite, a rock salt. The porous layers were compressed over time and forced upward. As it pushed upward, the salt dragged surrounding sediments into salt dome formations, often trapping oil and gas that seeped from the surrounding porous sands. The thick, rich, sometimes black, surface soil is suitable for rice farming in suburban outskirts where the city continues to grow.
Downtown Houston consisted of what type of building in the 1960's?
57094c819928a81400471500
mid-rise office structures
60
False
When were skyscrapers first built in Houston?
57094c819928a81400471501
throughout the 1970s
197
False
What is the tallest building in Texas?
57094c819928a81400471502
JPMorgan Chase Tower
349
False
How tall is the JP Morgan Chase Tower?
57094c819928a81400471503
1,002-foot
325
False
What is the second tallest building in Houston?
57094c819928a81400471504
Wells Fargo Plaza
639
False
In the 1970 s what developer built high rises in downtown Houston?
5709b6d7ed30961900e8444e
Gerald D. Hines
248
False
What was the highest building in Houston completed in 1982?
5709b6d7ed30961900e8444f
JPMorgan Chase Tower
349
False
What was the original name of the JP Morgan Chase Tower?
5709b6d7ed30961900e84450
Texas Commerce Tower
384
False
What is the Chase Tower rated as in height in Texas?
5709b6d7ed30961900e84451
tallest structure in Texas
436
False
By 2007 how many square feet of office space did Houston have?
5709b6d7ed30961900e84452
43 million square feet
914
False
mid-rise office structures
60
Texas consisted of what type of building in the 1960's?
5ad41f4e604f3c001a400697
True
1970
152
When were skyscrapers first built in Texas?
5ad41f4e604f3c001a400698
True
JPMorgan Chase Tower
349
What is the tallest building outside of Houston?
5ad41f4e604f3c001a400699
True
1,002-foot
325
How tall is the PNC Bank Tower?
5ad41f4e604f3c001a40069a
True
In the 1960s, Downtown Houston consisted of a collection of mid-rise office structures. Downtown was on the threshold of an energy industry–led boom in 1970. A succession of skyscrapers were built throughout the 1970s—many by real estate developer Gerald D. Hines—culminating with Houston's tallest skyscraper, the 75-floor, 1,002-foot (305 m)-tall JPMorgan Chase Tower (formerly the Texas Commerce Tower), completed in 1982. It is the tallest structure in Texas, 15th tallest building in the United States, and the 85th tallest skyscraper in the world, based on highest architectural feature. In 1983, the 71-floor, 992-foot (302 m)-tall Wells Fargo Plaza (formerly Allied Bank Plaza) was completed, becoming the second-tallest building in Houston and Texas. Based on highest architectural feature, it is the 17th tallest in the United States and the 95th tallest in the world. In 2007, downtown Houston had over 43 million square feet (4,000,000 m²) of office space.
Houston ranked 3rd in which category by Forbes magazine in 2006?
57094dde9928a81400471514
Best Places for Business and Careers
107
False
How many offices have been established in Houston by foreign governments?
57094dde9928a81400471515
92
202
False
How many foreign governments maintain trade and commercial offices in Houston?
57094dde9928a81400471516
Forty
287
False
How many foreign banks operate in Houston?
57094dde9928a81400471517
Twenty-five
423
False
How many nations do the 25 foreign banks operating in Houston represent?
57094dde9928a81400471518
13
462
False
When did the Houston area rank first in Texas for business?
5709c252200fba14003682b1
2006
3
False
How did Houston rank in the U.S. for business?
5709c252200fba14003682b2
third in the U.S
65
False
How many consular offices does Houston have?
5709c252200fba14003682b3
92
202
False
How many foreign countries have trade offices in Houston?
5709c252200fba14003682b4
Forty
287
False
How many nations do the twenty-five foreign banks represent?
5709c252200fba14003682b5
13
462
False
Best Places for Business and Careers"
107
Houston ranked 23rd in which category by Forbes magazine in 2006?
5ad420c6604f3c001a400715
True
92
202
How many offices have been established in Texas by foreign governments?
5ad420c6604f3c001a400716
True
Forty
287
How many foreign governments maintain trade and commercial offices in Texas?
5ad420c6604f3c001a400717
True
Twenty-five
423
How many foreign banks operate in Texas?
5ad420c6604f3c001a400718
True
13
462
How many nations do the 25 foreign banks operating in Texas represent?
5ad420c6604f3c001a400719
True
In 2006, the Houston metropolitan area ranked first in Texas and third in the U.S. within the Category of "Best Places for Business and Careers" by Forbes magazine. Foreign governments have established 92 consular offices in Houston's metropolitan area, the third highest in the nation. Forty foreign governments maintain trade and commercial offices here and 23 active foreign chambers of commerce and trade associations. Twenty-five foreign banks representing 13 nations operate in Houston, providing financial assistance to the international community.
What is the largest annual event held in Houston?
57094edcefce8f15003a7de0
Houston Livestock Show and Rodeo
108
False
How long does the Houston Livestock Show and Rodeo last?
57094edcefce8f15003a7de1
20 days
152
False
When is the annual Houston Pride Parade held?
57094edcefce8f15003a7de2
the end of June
328
False
What is some other annual events held in Houston?
57094edcefce8f15003a7de3
Houston Greek Festival, Art Car Parade, the Houston Auto Show, the Houston International Festival, and the Bayou City Art Festival
377
False
What art festival held in Houston is one of the top 5 in the US?
57094edcefce8f15003a7de4
the Bayou City Art Festival
480
False
What event is the longest running in Houston?
5709c39b200fba14003682c3
Houston Livestock Show and Rodeo
108
False
When is the Houston Livestock show and Rodeo held?
5709c39b200fba14003682c4
March
179
False
When is the Houston Pride Parade held?
5709c39b200fba14003682c5
end of June
332
False
What form of car parade is held in Houston?
5709c39b200fba14003682c6
Art Car Parade
401
False
Where does the Bayou City Art Festival rank in U.S. art festivals?
5709c39b200fba14003682c7
one of the top five
535
False
Houston Livestock Show and Rodeo
108
What is the largest annual event held in Texas?
5ad4216d604f3c001a400759
True
20 days
152
How long does the Texas Livestock Show and Rodeo last?
5ad4216d604f3c001a40075a
True
end of June
332
When is the annual Texas Pride Parade held?
5ad4216d604f3c001a40075b
True
Houston Greek Festival, Art Car Parade, the Houston Auto Show, the Houston International Festival
377
What is some other annual events held in Texas?
5ad4216d604f3c001a40075c
True
Houston Livestock Show and Rodeo
108
What art festival held in Houston is one of the top 3 in the US?
5ad4216d604f3c001a40075d
True
Many annual events celebrate the diverse cultures of Houston. The largest and longest running is the annual Houston Livestock Show and Rodeo, held over 20 days from early to late March, is the largest annual livestock show and rodeo in the world. Another large celebration is the annual night-time Houston Pride Parade, held at the end of June. Other annual events include the Houston Greek Festival, Art Car Parade, the Houston Auto Show, the Houston International Festival, and the Bayou City Art Festival, which is considered to be one of the top five art festivals in the United States.
What does Houston have the most of compared to other large US cities?
57094fef9928a8140047151e
parks and green space
72
False
How many acres of land does Houston's green spaces cover?
57094fef9928a8140047151f
19,600
184
False
Who manages Houston's green spaces?
57094fef9928a81400471520
the city
226
False
What is one of the largest skate parks in Texas?
57094fef9928a81400471521
The Lee and Joe Jamail Skatepark
286
False
Who ranked Houston the 23rd most walkable of the 50 largest cities in the US?
57094fef9928a81400471522
Walk Score
664
False
How many acres of parks does Houston have?
5709c4ed200fba14003682d7
56,405 acres
95
False
After whom is the Houston skate park named?
5709c4ed200fba14003682d8
Joe Jamail
298
False
Who owns and runs the skate park in Houston?
5709c4ed200fba14003682d9
city of Houston
367
False
For whom was the Uptown District water park in Houston named?
5709c4ed200fba14003682da
Gerald D. Hines
498
False
How does Houston rank as a walkable city?
5709c4ed200fba14003682db
23rd
694
False
parks and green space
72
What does Houston have the most of compared to other large UK cities?
5ad4220a604f3c001a40079b
True
19,600
184
How many acres of land does Texas's green spaces cover?
5ad4220a604f3c001a40079c
True
the city
226
Who manages Texas's green spaces?
5ad4220a604f3c001a40079d
True
Lee and Joe Jamail
290
What is one of the largest skate parks in Houston?
5ad4220a604f3c001a40079e
True
Walk Score
664
Who ranked Texas the 23rd most walkable of the 50 largest cities in the US?
5ad4220a604f3c001a40079f
True
Of the 10 most populous U.S. cities, Houston has the most total area of parks and green space, 56,405 acres (228 km2). The city also has over 200 additional green spaces—totaling over 19,600 acres (79 km2) that are managed by the city—including the Houston Arboretum and Nature Center. The Lee and Joe Jamail Skatepark is a public skatepark owned and operated by the city of Houston, and is one of the largest skateparks in Texas consisting of 30,000 (2,800 m2) square foot in-ground facility. The Gerald D. Hines Waterwall Park—located in the Uptown District of the city—serves as a popular tourist attraction, weddings, and various celebrations. A 2011 study by Walk Score ranked Houston the 23rd most walkable of the 50 largest cities in the United States. Wet'n'Wild SplashTown is a water park located north of Houston.
Who is the current mayor of Houston?
5709517c9928a81400471528
Sylvester Turner
302
False
What form of government does Houston have?
5709517c9928a81400471529
strong mayoral form of municipal government
26
False
Who are Houston's elected officials?
5709517c9928a8140047152a
the mayor, city controller and 16 members of the Houston City Council
199
False
What does Houston's mayor also serve as?
5709517c9928a8140047152b
the city's chief administrator, executive officer, and official representative
390
False
Besides the general management of the city, Houston's mayor is also responsible for what?
5709517c9928a8140047152c
seeing that all laws and ordinances are enforced
536
False
What is the form of city  government in Houston?
5709c638200fba14003682e1
strong mayoral
26
False
What type of municipal elections are held in Texas?
5709c638200fba14003682e2
nonpartisan
153
False
Besides the mayor and controller, how many members are there on the city council?
5709c638200fba14003682e3
16
230
False
Who is the mayor of Houston since the last election?
5709c638200fba14003682e4
Sylvester Turner
302
False
To what political party is Mayor Turner aligned?
5709c638200fba14003682e5
Democrat
322
False
Sylvester Turner
302
Who is the current senator of Houston?
5ad422ad604f3c001a4007d7
True
strong mayoral form of municipal
26
What form of government does Texas have?
5ad422ad604f3c001a4007d8
True
mayor, city controller and 16 members of the Houston City Council
203
Who are Texas's elected officials?
5ad422ad604f3c001a4007d9
True
city's chief administrator
394
What does Houston's senator also serve as?
5ad422ad604f3c001a4007da
True
The city of Houston has a strong mayoral form of municipal government. Houston is a home rule city and all municipal elections in the state of Texas are nonpartisan. The City's elected officials are the mayor, city controller and 16 members of the Houston City Council. The current mayor of Houston is Sylvester Turner, a Democrat elected on a nonpartisan ballot. Houston's mayor serves as the city's chief administrator, executive officer, and official representative, and is responsible for the general management of the city and for seeing that all laws and ordinances are enforced.
What was the first public television station in the US?
5709535eefce8f15003a7df4
KUHT (HoustonPBS)
129
False
How is Houston Public Radio funded?
5709535eefce8f15003a7df5
listener-funded
260
False
Houston Public Radio us comprised of how many stations?
5709535eefce8f15003a7df6
two NPR member stations
290
False
What stations comprise Houston Public Radio?
5709535eefce8f15003a7df7
KUHF (KUHF News) and KUHA (Classical 91.7)
315
False
Who owns the KUHT, KUHF, and KUHA stations?
5709535eefce8f15003a7df8
The University of Houston
422
False
Which of Houston's television stations was the first public television station in the U.S.?
5709c7d4ed30961900e84494
KUHT
129
False
What kind of radio station is KUHF?
5709c7d4ed30961900e84495
news/talk radio
367
False
What type of radio station is KUHA?
5709c7d4ed30961900e84496
classical music
397
False
From what building do the two public radio stations broadcast?
5709c7d4ed30961900e84497
Melcher Center for Public Broadcasting
549
False
Where is the Melcher Center located?
5709c7d4ed30961900e84498
University of Houston
618
False
KUHT
129
What was the first private television station in the US?
5ad423a0604f3c001a400841
True
listener-funded
260
How is Houston Private Radio funded?
5ad423a0604f3c001a400842
True
two NPR member
290
Texas Private Radio us comprised of how many stations?
5ad423a0604f3c001a400843
True
University of Houston
618
Who sold the KUHT, KUHF, and KUHA stations?
5ad423a0604f3c001a400844
True
KUHT
495
Which of Houston's television stations was the first private television station in the U.S.?
5ad423a0604f3c001a400845
True
The Houston–The Woodlands–Sugar Land metropolitan area is served by one public television station and two public radio stations. KUHT (HoustonPBS) is a PBS member station and is the first public television station in the United States. Houston Public Radio is listener-funded and comprises two NPR member stations: KUHF (KUHF News) and KUHA (Classical 91.7). KUHF is news/talk radio and KUHA is a classical music station. The University of Houston System owns and holds broadcasting licenses to KUHT, KUHF, and KUHA. The stations broadcast from the Melcher Center for Public Broadcasting, located on the campus of the University of Houston.
Where is Houston located?
570955309928a8140047153c
in Southeast Texas near the Gulf of Mexico
132
False
Where is Houston ranked among the most populous cities in the US?
570955309928a8140047153d
fourth
76
False
What was the population of Houston in 2014?
570955309928a8140047153e
2.239 million people
219
False
What is Houston the principle city of?
570955309928a8140047153f
Houston–The Woodlands–Sugar Land
420
False
What is the fifth most populated metropolitan area in the US?
570955309928a81400471540
Houston–The Woodlands–Sugar Land
420
False
What is the most populous city in Texas?
5709c934ed30961900e8449e
Houston
0
False
How does Houston rank as to population in the U.S.?
5709c934ed30961900e8449f
fourth
76
False
According to the 2014 census, how many people live in Houston?
5709c934ed30961900e844a0
2.239 million
219
False
What is the land are of the City of Houston?
5709c934ed30961900e844a1
599.6 square miles
263
False
Houston is located in which Texas county?
5709c934ed30961900e844a2
Harris County
377
False
Gulf of Mexico
160
Where is Texas located?
5ad41bc5604f3c001a400547
True
fourth
76
Where is Houston ranked among the least populous cities in the US?
5ad41bc5604f3c001a400548
True
2.239 million
219
What was the population of Houston in 2012?
5ad41bc5604f3c001a400549
True
Houston–The Woodlands–Sugar Land
420
What is Houston the non-principle city of?
5ad41bc5604f3c001a40054a
True
Houston–The Woodlands–Sugar Land
420
What is the sixth most populated metropolitan area in the US?
5ad41bc5604f3c001a40054b
True
Houston (i/ˈhjuːstən/ HYOO-stən) is the most populous city in Texas and the fourth most populous city in the United States, located in Southeast Texas near the Gulf of Mexico. With a census-estimated 2014 population of 2.239 million people, within a land area of 599.6 square miles (1,553 km2), it also is the largest city in the Southern United States, as well as the seat of Harris County. It is the principal city of Houston–The Woodlands–Sugar Land, which is the fifth most populated metropolitan area in the United States.
What commodity was Houston known for in 1860?
570a01b44103511400d594ec
cotton
80
False
What type of roads converged in Houston?
570a01b44103511400d594ed
rail lines
162
False
Which Civil War general used Houston as a headquarters?
570a01b44103511400d594ee
General John Bankhead Magruder
281
False
For what battle was Houston used as an organization point ?
570a01b44103511400d594ef
Battle of Galveston
364
False
What was Houston known for by 1890?
570a01b44103511400d594f0
railroad center of Texas
606
False
cotton
80
What commodity was Houston not known for in 1860?
5ad41ccd604f3c001a400599
True
rail lines
162
What type of roads didn't converge in Houston?
5ad41ccd604f3c001a40059a
True
General John Bankhead Magruder
281
Which WWII general used Houston as a headquarters?
5ad41ccd604f3c001a40059b
True
Civil War
395
For what war was Houston used as an organization point ?
5ad41ccd604f3c001a40059c
True
railroad hub
49
What was Houston known for by 1810?
5ad41ccd604f3c001a40059d
True
By 1860, Houston had emerged as a commercial and railroad hub for the export of cotton. Railroad spurs from the Texas inland converged in Houston, where they met rail lines to the ports of Galveston and Beaumont. During the American Civil War, Houston served as a headquarters for General John Bankhead Magruder, who used the city as an organization point for the Battle of Galveston. After the Civil War, Houston businessmen initiated efforts to widen the city's extensive system of bayous so the city could accept more commerce between downtown and the nearby port of Galveston. By 1890, Houston was the railroad center of Texas.
How many people evacuated to Houston after Hurricane Katrina?
570a03776d058f1900182c68
150,000
54
False
What event caused 2.5 million people to evacuate through Houston?
570a03776d058f1900182c69
Hurricane Rita
205
False
The evacuation of the Gulf coast before Hurricane Rita was what type of evacuation?
570a03776d058f1900182c6a
largest urban evacuation
303
False
When did Hurricane Ike hit the Houston area?
570a03776d058f1900182c6b
September 2008
368
False
Fearing traffic problems, how many people refused to leave Galveston before Hurricane Ike?
570a03776d058f1900182c6c
forty percent
429
False
150,000
54
How many people stayed in Houston after Hurricane Katrina?
5ad41d94604f3c001a4005e1
True
Hurricane Rita
205
What event caused 5 million people to evacuate through Houston?
5ad41d94604f3c001a4005e2
True
largest urban evacuation
303
The evacuation of the West coast before Hurricane Rita was what type of evacuation?
5ad41d94604f3c001a4005e3
True
September 2008
368
When did Hurricane Ike avoid the Houston area?
5ad41d94604f3c001a4005e4
True
forty percent
429
Fearing traffic problems, how many people flew out of Galveston before Hurricane Ike?
5ad41d94604f3c001a4005e5
True
In August 2005, Houston became a shelter to more than 150,000 people from New Orleans who evacuated from Hurricane Katrina. One month later, approximately 2.5 million Houston area residents evacuated when Hurricane Rita approached the Gulf Coast, leaving little damage to the Houston area. This was the largest urban evacuation in the history of the United States. In September 2008, Houston was hit by Hurricane Ike. As many as forty percent refused to leave Galveston Island because they feared the traffic problems that happened after Hurricane Rita.
What is the largest city in the U.S. without formal zoning?
570a059c6d058f1900182c72
Houston
7
False
Besides parking requirements, what land use regulations does Houston have?
570a059c6d058f1900182c73
mandatory lot size
251
False
What is Houston's land use policies credited with producing?
570a059c6d058f1900182c74
affordable housing
590
False
What serious situation of 2008 was Houston spared?
570a059c6d058f1900182c75
real estate crisis
656
False
How many building permits were issued in 2008 in Houston?
570a059c6d058f1900182c76
42,697
692
False
Houston
7
What is the largest city in the U.S. with formal zoning?
5ad41f18604f3c001a40067b
True
mandatory lot size
251
Besides parking requirements, what land use regulations does Texas have?
5ad41f18604f3c001a40067c
True
affordable housing
590
What is Houston's ocean use policies credited with producing?
5ad41f18604f3c001a40067d
True
real estate crisis
656
What serious situation of 2009 was Houston spared?
5ad41f18604f3c001a40067e
True
42,697
692
How many building permits were issued in 2019 in Houston?
5ad41f18604f3c001a40067f
True
Though Houston is the largest city in the United States without formal zoning regulations, it has developed similarly to other Sun Belt cities because the city's land use regulations and legal covenants have played a similar role. Regulations include mandatory lot size for single-family houses and requirements that parking be available to tenants and customers. Such restrictions have had mixed results. Though some have blamed the city's low density, urban sprawl, and lack of pedestrian-friendliness on these policies, the city's land use has also been credited with having significant affordable housing, sparing Houston the worst effects of the 2008 real estate crisis. The city issued 42,697 building permits in 2008 and was ranked first in the list of healthiest housing markets for 2009.
Of what is Houston a center?
570a07104103511400d5950a
oilfield equipment
50
False
What has the Houston ship channel served to promote into success?
570a07104103511400d5950b
petrochemical complex
95
False
Where does the Port of Houston rank in international commerce?
570a07104103511400d5950c
first
208
False
Where does Houston rate in the size ranking of world ports?
570a07104103511400d5950d
tenth
244
False
What lines begin or end in Houston?
570a07104103511400d5950e
pipelines
510
False
oilfield equipment
50
Of what is Texas a center?
5ad4203a604f3c001a4006e3
True
petrochemical complex
95
What has the Texas ship channel served to promote into success?
5ad4203a604f3c001a4006e4
True
first
208
Where does the Port of Texas rank in international commerce?
5ad4203a604f3c001a4006e5
True
tenth
244
Where does Texas rate in the size ranking of world ports?
5ad4203a604f3c001a4006e6
True
pipelines
510
What lines begin or end in Texas?
5ad4203a604f3c001a4006e7
True
The Houston area is a leading center for building oilfield equipment. Much of its success as a petrochemical complex is due to its busy ship channel, the Port of Houston. In the United States, the port ranks first in international commerce and tenth among the largest ports in the world. Unlike most places, high oil and gasoline prices are beneficial for Houston's economy, as many of its residents are employed in the energy industry. Houston is the beginning or end point of numerous oil, gas, and products pipelines:
What area of Houston hosts performing arts?
570a09306d058f1900182c7c
Houston Theater District
4
False
Of what is Houston second in performing arts?
570a09306d058f1900182c7d
theater seats
169
False
To what type of arts is Houston home?
570a09306d058f1900182c7e
major performing arts
323
False
To what group is Jones Hall home?
570a09306d058f1900182c7f
Houston Symphony Orchestra
756
False
Besides Jones Hall, what other organization is housed in the Theater District?
570a09306d058f1900182c80
Hobby Center for the Performing Arts
827
False
Houston Theater District
4
What area of Houston hosts visual arts?
5ad421a7604f3c001a400775
True
theater seats
169
Of what is Houston fourth in performing arts?
5ad421a7604f3c001a400776
True
all major performing
319
To what type of arts is Texas home?
5ad421a7604f3c001a400777
True
Houston Symphony Orchestra
419
What company is Jones Hall owned by?
5ad421a7604f3c001a400778
True
Hobby Center for the Performing Arts
827
Besides Jones Hall, what other organization is housed in the Movie District?
5ad421a7604f3c001a400779
True
The Houston Theater District, located downtown, is home to nine major performing arts organizations and six performance halls. It is the second-largest concentration of theater seats in a downtown area in the United States. Houston is one of few United States cities with permanent, professional, resident companies in all major performing arts disciplines: opera (Houston Grand Opera), ballet (Houston Ballet), music (Houston Symphony Orchestra), and theater (The Alley Theatre). Houston is also home to folk artists, art groups and various small progressive arts organizations. Houston attracts many touring Broadway acts, concerts, shows, and exhibitions for a variety of interests. Facilities in the Theater District include the Jones Hall—home of the Houston Symphony Orchestra and Society for the Performing Arts—and the Hobby Center for the Performing Arts.
How much area of downtown Houston does the Theater District cover?
570a0ae36d058f1900182c86
17-block area
26
False
What place produces live concerts, plays and comedy?
570a0ae36d058f1900182c87
Bayou Music Center
303
False
Where is Space Center Houston?
570a0ae36d058f1900182c88
Lyndon B. Johnson Space Center
442
False
What tourist offerings does the Space Center have?
570a0ae36d058f1900182c89
interactive exhibits
500
False
What is the Galleria the largest of in Texas?
570a0ae36d058f1900182c8a
shopping mall
703
False
17-block area
26
How much area of downtown Texas does the Theater District cover?
5ad421d9604f3c001a40077f
True
Bayou Music Center
303
What place banned live concerts, plays and comedy?
5ad421d9604f3c001a400780
True
Lyndon B. Johnson Space Center
442
Where is Space Center Texas?
5ad421d9604f3c001a400781
True
interactive exhibits
500
What tourist offerings does the Space Center not have?
5ad421d9604f3c001a400782
True
shopping mall
703
What is the Galleria the largest of in Houston?
5ad421d9604f3c001a400783
True
The Theater District is a 17-block area in the center of downtown Houston that is home to the Bayou Place entertainment complex, restaurants, movies, plazas, and parks. Bayou Place is a large multilevel building containing full-service restaurants, bars, live music, billiards, and Sundance Cinema. The Bayou Music Center stages live concerts, stage plays, and stand-up comedy. Space Center Houston is the official visitors' center of NASA's Lyndon B. Johnson Space Center. The Space Center has many interactive exhibits including moon rocks, a shuttle simulator, and presentations about the history of NASA's manned space flight program. Other tourist attractions include the Galleria (Texas's largest shopping mall, located in the Uptown District), Old Market Square, the Downtown Aquarium, and Sam Houston Race Park.
What is the name of the stadium that hosts the Houston Astros?
570a7fd14103511400d5978c
Minute Maid Park
0
False
Where in Houston is the Toyota Center located?
570a7fd14103511400d5978d
downtown
94
False
What is the home of the Texans named?
570a7fd14103511400d5978e
NRG Stadium
185
False
Which stadium is located in east downtown in Houston?
570a7fd14103511400d5978f
BBVA Compass Stadium
429
False
What was the first indoor stadium in the world?
570a7fd14103511400d59790
NRG Astrodome
589
False
Minute Maid Park
0
What is the name of the stadium that hosts the Texas Astros?
5ad42278604f3c001a4007c3
True
downtown
94
Where in Texas is the Toyota Center located?
5ad42278604f3c001a4007c4
True
NRG Stadium
185
What is the home of the Houstons named?
5ad42278604f3c001a4007c5
True
BBVA Compass Stadium
429
Which stadium is located in east downtown in Texas?
5ad42278604f3c001a4007c6
True
NRG Astrodome
589
What was the first outdoor stadium in the world?
5ad42278604f3c001a4007c7
True
Minute Maid Park (home of the Astros) and Toyota Center (home of the Rockets), are located in downtown Houston. Houston has the NFL's first retractable-roof stadium with natural grass, NRG Stadium (home of the Texans). Minute Maid Park is also a retractable-roof stadium. Toyota Center also has the largest screen for an indoor arena in the United States built to coincide with the arena's hosting of the 2013 NBA All-Star Game. BBVA Compass Stadium is a soccer-specific stadium for the Dynamo, the Texas Southern University football team, and Dash, located in East Downtown. In addition, NRG Astrodome was the first indoor stadium in the world, built in 1965. Other sports facilities include Hofheinz Pavilion (Houston Cougars basketball), Rice Stadium (Rice Owls football), and Reliant Arena. TDECU Stadium is where the University of Houston Houston Cougars football team plays. Houston has hosted several major sports events: the 1968, 1986 and 2004 Major League Baseball All-Star Games; the 1989, 2006 and 2013 NBA All-Star Games; Super Bowl VIII and Super Bowl XXXVIII, as well as hosting the 2005 World Series and 1981, 1986, 1994 and 1995 NBA Finals, winning the latter two. Super Bowl LI is currently slated to be hosted in NRG Stadium in 2017.
What is Houston's one Catholic university?
570a811e4103511400d597a0
The University of St. Thomas
92
False
What famous research university is located in Houston?
570a811e4103511400d597a1
Rice University
161
False
What is the student enrollment of Rice University?
570a811e4103511400d597a2
6,000
305
False
When was Houston Baptist University founded?
570a811e4103511400d597a3
1960
593
False
What area in Houston is the home of the Houston Baptist University?
570a811e4103511400d597a4
Sharpstown
620
False
The University of St. Thomas
92
What is Texas's one Catholic university?
5ad4233f604f3c001a400819
True
Rice University
161
What famous research university is located in Texas?
5ad4233f604f3c001a40081a
True
6,000
305
What is the teacher enrollment of Rice University?
5ad4233f604f3c001a40081b
True
1960
593
When was Texas Baptist University founded?
5ad4233f604f3c001a40081c
True
Sharpstown
620
What area in Texas is the home of the Houston Baptist University?
5ad4233f604f3c001a40081d
True
Several private institutions of higher learning—ranging from liberal arts colleges, such as The University of St. Thomas, Houston's only Catholic university, to Rice University, the nationally recognized research university—are located within the city. Rice, with a total enrollment of slightly more than 6,000 students, has a number of distinguished graduate programs and research institutes, such as the James A. Baker Institute for Public Policy. Houston Baptist University, affiliated with the Baptist General Convention of Texas, offers bachelor's and graduate degrees. It was founded in 1960 and is located in the Sharpstown area in Southwest Houston.
Where in Houston is the world's largest grouping of healthcare institutions?
570a826e6d058f1900182eea
Texas Medical Center
52
False
How many non profit organizations are members of the Medical Center?
570a826e6d058f1900182eeb
49
168
False
How many people are employed in the Texas Medical Center?
570a826e6d058f1900182eec
73,600
393
False
How many hospitals belong to the Medical Center group of organizations?
570a826e6d058f1900182eed
13
451
False
What is the name of the first air emergency service?
570a826e6d058f1900182eee
Life Flight
706
False
Texas Medical Center
52
Where in Texas is the world's largest grouping of healthcare institutions?
5ad423f3604f3c001a400871
True
49
168
How many for-profit organizations are members of the Medical Center?
5ad423f3604f3c001a400872
True
73,600
393
How many people are employed in the Houston Medical Center?
5ad423f3604f3c001a400873
True
13
451
How many hospitals are outside of the Medical Center group of organizations?
5ad423f3604f3c001a400874
True
Houston is the seat of the internationally renowned Texas Medical Center, which contains the world's largest concentration of research and healthcare institutions. All 49 member institutions of the Texas Medical Center are non-profit organizations. They provide patient and preventive care, research, education, and local, national, and international community well-being. Employing more than 73,600 people, institutions at the medical center include 13 hospitals and two specialty institutions, two medical schools, four nursing schools, and schools of dentistry, public health, pharmacy, and virtually all health-related careers. It is where one of the first—and still the largest—air emergency service, Life Flight, was created, and a very successful inter-institutional transplant program was developed. More heart surgeries are performed at the Texas Medical Center than anywhere else in the world.
Until 2010, which airline made Houston its headquarters?
570a83e04103511400d597e4
Continental Airlines
32
False
Where is United Airlines' largest air hub?
570a83e04103511400d597e5
Bush Intercontinental
198
False
With which airline did Continental Airlines merge?
570a83e04103511400d597e6
United Airlines
80
False
How many daily flights did United Airlines offer from Houston?
570a83e04103511400d597e7
700
357
False
In what year was Bush Intercontinental named a model by U.S. Customs?
570a83e04103511400d597e8
2007
402
False
Continental Airlines
32
Until 2010, which airline made Texas its headquarters?
5ad424a5604f3c001a4008b9
True
Bush
198
Where is United Airlines' smallest air hub?
5ad424a5604f3c001a4008ba
True
United Airlines
227
With which airline did Continental Airlines separate?
5ad424a5604f3c001a4008bb
True
700
357
How many daily flights did United Airlines offer from Texas?
5ad424a5604f3c001a4008bc
True
Houston was the headquarters of Continental Airlines until its 2010 merger with United Airlines with headquarters in Chicago; regulatory approval for the merger was granted in October of that year. Bush Intercontinental became United Airlines' largest airline hub. The airline retained a significant operational presence in Houston while offering more than 700 daily departures from the city. In early 2007, Bush Intercontinental Airport was named a model "port of entry" for international travelers by U.S. Customs and Border Protection.
What city has more Fortune 500 headquarters than Houston?
570a85a06d058f1900182f2c
New York City
185
False
What part of Houston ranks first in the U.S. in international tonnage?
570a85a06d058f1900182f2d
Port of Houston
268
False
What is Houston's nickname?
570a85a06d058f1900182f2e
Space City
418
False
What is varied about Houston's population?
570a85a06d058f1900182f2f
ethnic and religious backgrounds
647
False
What city is the most diverse in Texas?
570a85a06d058f1900182f30
Houston
729
False
New York City
185
What city doesn't have more Fortune 500 headquarters than Houston?
5ad41c31604f3c001a400569
True
Port of Houston
268
What part of Houston ranks last in the U.S. in international tonnage?
5ad41c31604f3c001a40056a
True
Space City
418
What is Texas's nickname?
5ad41c31604f3c001a40056b
True
ethnic and religious backgrounds
647
What isn't varied about Houston's population?
5ad41c31604f3c001a40056c
True
Houston
965
What city is the least diverse in Texas?
5ad41c31604f3c001a40056d
True
Houston's economy has a broad industrial base in energy, manufacturing, aeronautics, and transportation. It is also leading in health care sectors and building oilfield equipment; only New York City is home to more Fortune 500 headquarters within its city limits. The Port of Houston ranks first in the United States in international waterborne tonnage handled and second in total cargo tonnage handled. Nicknamed the Space City, Houston is a global city, with strengths in business, international trade, entertainment, culture, media, fashion, science, sports, technology, education, medicine and research. The city has a population from various ethnic and religious backgrounds and a large and growing international community. Houston is the most diverse city in Texas and has been described as the most diverse in the United States. It is home to many cultural institutions and exhibits, which attract more than 7 million visitors a year to the Museum District. Houston has an active visual and performing arts scene in the Theater District and offers year-round resident companies in all major performing arts.
What kind of winter weather does Houston have?
570a86fe6d058f1900182f48
mild winters
12
False
What is the usual mean temperature in Houston?
570a86fe6d058f1900182f49
53.1 °F
144
False
What type of weather is a rarity in Houston?
570a86fe6d058f1900182f4a
Snowfall
241
False
When was the coldest reported temperature in Houston?
570a86fe6d058f1900182f4b
January 18, 1940
659
False
How much rain does Houston usually get per year?
570a86fe6d058f1900182f4c
49.8 in
756
False
mild
12
What kind of summer weather does Houston have?
5ad41eaf604f3c001a40065d
True
53.1 °F
144
What is the usual mean temperature in Texas?
5ad41eaf604f3c001a40065e
True
snow
266
What type of weather is common in Houston?
5ad41eaf604f3c001a40065f
True
5 °F
642
When was the warmest reported temperature in Houston?
5ad41eaf604f3c001a400660
True
49.
756
How many tornadoes does Houston usually get per year?
5ad41eaf604f3c001a400661
True
Houston has mild winters in contrast to most areas of the United States. In January, the normal mean temperature at Intercontinental Airport is 53.1 °F (11.7 °C), while that station has an average of 13 days with a low at or below freezing. Snowfall is rare. Recent snow events in Houston include a storm on December 24, 2004 when one inch (2.5 cm) of snow accumulated in parts of the metro area. Falls of at least one inch on both December 10, 2008 and December 4, 2009 marked the first time measurable snowfall had occurred in two consecutive years in the city's recorded history. The coldest temperature officially recorded in Houston was 5 °F (−15 °C) on January 18, 1940. Houston has historically received an ample amount of rainfall, averaging about 49.8 in (1,260 mm) annually per 1981–2010 normals. Localized flooding often occurs, owing to the extremely flat topography and widespread typical clay-silt prairie soils, which do not drain quickly.
How much money does the University of Houston attract to Houston a year?
570a88724103511400d59818
$1.1 billion
119
False
How many local jobs are produced by the University of Houston?
570a88724103511400d59819
24,000
229
False
How many student graduate from the University of Houston per year?
570a88724103511400d5981a
12,500
285
False
Where do most university graduates stay after acquiring a degree?
570a88724103511400d5981b
in Houston
446
False
Even after five years, how many graduates remain in Houston?
570a88724103511400d5981c
80.5%
476
False
$1.1 billion
119
How much money does the University of Texas attract to Texas a year?
5ad42096604f3c001a400701
True
24,000 local jobs
229
How many local jobs are produced by the University of Texas?
5ad42096604f3c001a400702
True
12,500
285
How many student graduate from the University of Texas per year?
5ad42096604f3c001a400703
True
Houston
18
Where do most university graduates go to after acquiring a degree?
5ad42096604f3c001a400704
True
80.5%
476
Even after five years, how many graduates remain in Texas?
5ad42096604f3c001a400705
True
The University of Houston System's annual impact on the Houston area's economy equates to that of a major corporation: $1.1 billion in new funds attracted annually to the Houston area, $3.13 billion in total economic benefit and 24,000 local jobs generated. This is in addition to the 12,500 new graduates the U.H. System produces every year who enter the workforce in Houston and throughout the state of Texas. These degree-holders tend to stay in Houston. After five years, 80.5% of graduates are still living and working in the region.
When was Houston founded?
570a898d4103511400d59834
1836
23
False
Where is Allen's Landing?
570a898d4103511400d59835
Buffalo Bayou
54
False
When was the City of Houston incorporated?
570a898d4103511400d59836
June 5, 1837
129
False
For whom was Houston named?
570a898d4103511400d59837
Sam Houston
183
False
For what battle was Sam Houston known as commander?
570a898d4103511400d59838
Battle of San Jacinto
272
False
Buffalo Bayou
54
Where is Fallan's Landing?
5ad41bf5604f3c001a400551
True
Buffalo Bayou
54
What used to be known as Allan's Landing
5ad41bf5604f3c001a400552
True
Houston was founded
0
What happened in 1837?
5ad41bf5604f3c001a400553
True
June 5, 1837
129
When was the City of Houston unincorporated?
5ad41bf5604f3c001a400554
True
Houston was founded in 1836 on land near the banks of Buffalo Bayou (now known as Allen's Landing) and incorporated as a city on June 5, 1837. The city was named after former General Sam Houston, who was president of the Republic of Texas and had commanded and won at the Battle of San Jacinto 25 miles (40 km) east of where the city was established. The burgeoning port and railroad industry, combined with oil discovery in 1901, has induced continual surges in the city's population. In the mid-twentieth century, Houston became the home of the Texas Medical Center—the world's largest concentration of healthcare and research institutions—and NASA's Johnson Space Center, where the Mission Control Center is located.
In what part of the United States is Houston located?
570a8adb6d058f1900182f7e
South
24
False
What part of the Houston population is growing?
570a8adb6d058f1900182f7f
international community
82
False
How many of the people who live in Houston were foreign born?
570a8adb6d058f1900182f80
1.1 million
153
False
What percentage of Houston's foreign born population is from south of the U.S.-Mexican border?
570a8adb6d058f1900182f81
two-thirds
243
False
How many foreign born Houstonites are from Asia?
570a8adb6d058f1900182f82
one in five
363
False
American South
15
In what part of the United States is Texas located?
5ad42142604f3c001a40074f
True
international
82
What part of the Texas population is growing?
5ad42142604f3c001a400750
True
1.1 million
153
How many of the people who live in Texas were foreign born?
5ad42142604f3c001a400751
True
two-thirds
243
What percentage of Houston's foreign born population is from north of the U.S.-Mexican border?
5ad42142604f3c001a400752
True
one in five
363
How many foreign born Houstonites are from Africa?
5ad42142604f3c001a400753
True
Located in the American South, Houston is a diverse city with a large and growing international community. The metropolitan area is home to an estimated 1.1 million (21.4 percent) residents who were born outside the United States, with nearly two-thirds of the area's foreign-born population from south of the United States–Mexico border. Additionally, more than one in five foreign-born residents are from Asia. The city is home to the nation's third-largest concentration of consular offices, representing 86 countries.
What event caused an increase in effort to promote the Houston port?
570a8c674103511400d59848
hurricane
53
False
Where was oil found that promoted the development of the oil industry in Houston?
570a8c674103511400d59849
Spindletop
178
False
Near what Texas city is the Spindletop oil field located?
570a8c674103511400d5984a
Beaumont
204
False
Who approved the improvement project for the Houston ship channel?
570a8c674103511400d5984b
President Theodore Roosevelt
280
False
In what year did Houston's population reach 78,000?
570a8c674103511400d5984c
1910
384
False
hurricane
53
What event caused an decrease in effort to promote the Houston port?
5ad41cfa604f3c001a4005a3
True
Spindletop
178
Where was oil found that promoted the development of the cotton industry in Houston?
5ad41cfa604f3c001a4005a4
True
Beaumont
204
Near what Oklahoma city is the Spindletop oil field located?
5ad41cfa604f3c001a4005a5
True
President Theodore Roosevelt
280
Who rejected the improvement project for the Houston ship channel?
5ad41cfa604f3c001a4005a6
True
1910
384
In what year did Houston's population reach 98,000?
5ad41cfa604f3c001a4005a7
True
In 1900, after Galveston was struck by a devastating hurricane, efforts to make Houston into a viable deep-water port were accelerated. The following year, oil discovered at the Spindletop oil field near Beaumont prompted the development of the Texas petroleum industry. In 1902, President Theodore Roosevelt approved a $1 million improvement project for the Houston Ship Channel. By 1910 the city's population had reached 78,800, almost doubling from a decade before. African-Americans formed a large part of the city's population, numbering 23,929 people, or nearly one-third of the residents.
What is the square mile area of Houston?
570a946c6d058f1900182fc2
656.3 square miles
75
False
How much of Houston's total area is water?
570a946c6d058f1900182fc3
22.3 square miles
165
False
In what topography is Houston located?
570a946c6d058f1900182fc4
gulf coastal plain
273
False
How is the vegetation of the area classified?
570a946c6d058f1900182fc5
temperate grassland and forest
329
False
What kind of weather event is a recurring problem for Houston?
570a946c6d058f1900182fc6
flooding
586
False
656.3 square miles
75
What is the square mile area of Texas?
5ad41de2604f3c001a4005f5
True
22.3 square miles
165
How much of Houston's total area is farm?
5ad41de2604f3c001a4005f6
True
gulf coastal plain
273
In what topography is Texas located?
5ad41de2604f3c001a4005f7
True
temperate grassland and forest
329
How is the oil of the area classified?
5ad41de2604f3c001a4005f8
True
flooding
586
What kind of weather event is a not recurring problem for Houston?
5ad41de2604f3c001a4005f9
True
According to the United States Census Bureau, the city has a total area of 656.3 square miles (1,700 km2); this comprises 634.0 square miles (1,642 km2) of land and 22.3 square miles (58 km2) of water. The Piney Woods is north of Houston. Most of Houston is located on the gulf coastal plain, and its vegetation is classified as temperate grassland and forest. Much of the city was built on forested land, marshes, swamp, or prairie which resembles the Deep South, and are all still visible in surrounding areas. Flatness of the local terrain, when combined with urban sprawl, has made flooding a recurring problem for the city. Downtown stands about 50 feet (15 m) above sea level, and the highest point in far northwest Houston is about 125 feet (38 m) in elevation. The city once relied on groundwater for its needs, but land subsidence forced the city to turn to ground-level water sources such as Lake Houston, Lake Conroe and Lake Livingston. The city owns surface water rights for 1.20 billion gallons of water a day in addition to 150 million gallons a day worth of groundwater.
How many days per year are Houston temperatures over 90 degrees?
570a95c96d058f1900182fcc
106.5
104
False
How many days a year do Houston temperatures average above 100 degrees?
570a95c96d058f1900182fcd
4.6
204
False
What weather factor produces a higher heat index?
570a95c96d058f1900182fce
humidity
249
False
What weather factor provides little in heat relief in Houston?
570a95c96d058f1900182fcf
Winds
353
False
What was the highest temperature recorded in Houston?
570a95c96d058f1900182fd0
109 °F
740
False
106.5
104
How many days per year are Houston temperatures over 10 degrees?
5ad41e87604f3c001a400641
True
4.6
204
How many days a year do Houston temperatures average above 50 degrees?
5ad41e87604f3c001a400642
True
humidity
343
What weather factor produces a lower heat index?
5ad41e87604f3c001a400643
True
Winds
353
What weather factor provides a lot of in heat relief in Houston?
5ad41e87604f3c001a400644
True
109 °F
740
What was the lowest temperature recorded in Houston?
5ad41e87604f3c001a400645
True
During the summer months, it is common for temperatures to reach over 90 °F (32 °C), with an average of 106.5 days per year, including a majority from June to September, with a high of 90 °F or above and 4.6 days at or over 100 °F (38 °C). However, humidity usually yields a higher heat index. Summer mornings average over 90 percent relative humidity. Winds are often light in the summer and offer little relief, except in the far southeastern outskirts near the Gulf coast and Galveston. To cope with the strong humidity and heat, people use air conditioning in nearly every vehicle and building. In 1980, Houston was described as the "most air-conditioned place on earth". Officially, the hottest temperature ever recorded in Houston is 109 °F (43 °C), which was reached both on September 4, 2000 and August 28, 2011.
What is the political climate of Houston?
570a986c6d058f1900182fd6
divided
42
False
Who in Houston tends to vote Republican?
570a986c6d058f1900182fd7
wealthier areas
144
False
How do the working and minority areas vote in Houston?
570a986c6d058f1900182fd8
Democratic
231
False
What percent of Hispanics vote Democrat?
570a986c6d058f1900182fd9
62 percent
462
False
What percent of non-Hispanic whites vote Republican?
570a986c6d058f1900182fda
68 percent
286
False
divided
42
What is the political climate of Texas?
5ad422e4604f3c001a400803
True
Houston is considered to be a politically divided city whose balance of power often sways between Republicans and Democrats. Much of the city's wealthier areas vote Republican while the city's working class and minority areas vote Democratic. According to the 2005 Houston Area Survey, 68 percent of non-Hispanic whites in Harris County are declared or favor Republicans while 89 percent of non-Hispanic blacks in the area are declared or favor Democrats. About 62 percent Hispanics (of any race) in the area are declared or favor Democrats. The city has often been known to be the most politically diverse city in Texas, a state known for being generally conservative. As a result, the city is often a contested area in statewide elections. In 2009, Houston became the first US city with a population over 1 million citizens to elect a gay mayor, by electing Annise Parker.
How much of Houston's population is white?
570a9a214103511400d59866
51%
45
False
What percentage of Houston's population is African-American?
570a9a214103511400d59867
25%
164
False
What group makes up 6 % of Houston's population?
570a9a214103511400d59868
Asians
242
False
According to the 2000 census, what is the population of Houston?
570a9a214103511400d59869
1,953,631
601
False
What was the percentage of whites in 1970?
570a9a214103511400d5986a
62.4%
996
False
51%
45
How much of Texas's population is white?
5ad41fbf604f3c001a4006bb
True
25%
164
What percentage of Texas's population is African-American?
5ad41fbf604f3c001a4006bc
True
Asians
242
What group makes up 6 % of Texas's population?
5ad41fbf604f3c001a4006bd
True
1,953,631
601
According to the 2000 census, what is the population of Texas?
5ad41fbf604f3c001a4006be
True
62.4%
996
What was the percentage of whites in 1900?
5ad41fbf604f3c001a4006bf
True
According to the 2010 Census, whites made up 51% of Houston's population; 26% of the total population were non-Hispanic whites. Blacks or African Americans made up 25% of Houston's population. American Indians made up 0.7% of the population. Asians made up 6% (1.7% Vietnamese, 1.3% Chinese, 1.3% Indian, 0.9% Pakistani, 0.4% Filipino, 0.3% Korean, 0.1% Japanese), while Pacific Islanders made up 0.1%. Individuals from some other race made up 15.2% of the city's population, of which 0.2% were non-Hispanic. Individuals from two or more races made up 3.3% of the city. At the 2000 Census, there were 1,953,631 people and the population density was 3,371.7 people per square mile (1,301.8/km²). The racial makeup of the city was 49.3% White, 25.3% African American, 5.3% Asian, 0.7% American Indian, 0.1% Pacific Islander, 16.5% from some other race, and 3.1% from two or more races. In addition, Hispanics made up 37.4% of Houston's population while non-Hispanic whites made up 30.8%, down from 62.4% in 1970.
What was Houston's gross domestic product in 2012?
570a9c204103511400d5988e
$489 billion
84
False
Where in the rankings does Houston's gross domestic product place it compared to other U.S. domestic areas?
570a9c204103511400d5988f
fourth-largest
112
False
How many other countries have a gross domestic product exceeding Houston's?
570a9c204103511400d59890
26
241
False
How much did oil and gas exploration and production make up Houston's gross product?
570a9c204103511400d59891
26.3%
487
False
Under what category does oil and gas exploration fall?
570a9c204103511400d59892
mining
377
False
$489 billion
84
What was Houston's gross domestic product in 2001?
5ad4206d604f3c001a4006f7
True
fourth-largest
112
Where in the rankings does Texas's gross domestic product place it compared to other U.S. domestic areas?
5ad4206d604f3c001a4006f8
True
26
241
ow many other countries have a gross domestic product exceeding Texas's?
5ad4206d604f3c001a4006f9
True
26.3%
487
How much did oil and gas exploration and production make up Texas's gross product?
5ad4206d604f3c001a4006fa
True
mining
377
Under what category does ocean exploration fall?
5ad4206d604f3c001a4006fb
True
The Houston–The Woodlands–Sugar Land MSA's gross domestic product (GDP) in 2012 was $489 billion, making it the fourth-largest of any metropolitan area in the United States and larger than Austria's, Venezuela's, or South Africa's GDP. Only 26 countries other than the United States have a gross domestic product exceeding Houston's regional gross area product (GAP). In 2010, mining (which consists almost entirely of exploration and production of oil and gas in Houston) accounted for 26.3% of Houston's GAP up sharply in response to high energy prices and a decreased worldwide surplus of oil production capacity, followed by engineering services, health services, and manufacturing.
What Houston medical school ranks in the top ten U.S. medical schools?
570a9e836d058f1900183008
Baylor College of Medicine
4
False
How does MD Anderson Cancer Center rank in US hospitals dealing with cancer care?
570a9e836d058f1900183009
one of the top two
177
False
What type of treatments does the Menninger Clinic offer?
570a9e836d058f190018300a
psychiatric
312
False
What is the third largest acute care center in the U.S.?
570a9e836d058f190018300b
Triumph Healthcare
491
False
Where is the Triumph Healthcare hospital headquartered?
570a9e836d058f190018300c
Houston
478
False
Baylor College of Medicine
4
What Houston medical school ranks in the top ten UK medical schools?
5ad42417604f3c001a400879
True
one of the top two
177
How does MD Anderson Cancer Center rank in UK hospitals dealing with cancer care?
5ad42417604f3c001a40087a
True
psychiatric
312
What type of treatments does the Menninger Clinic never offer?
5ad42417604f3c001a40087b
True
Triumph Healthcare
491
What is the fourth largest acute care center in the U.S.?
5ad42417604f3c001a40087c
True
The Baylor College of Medicine has annually been considered within the top ten medical schools in the nation; likewise, the MD Anderson Cancer Center has consistently ranked as one of the top two U.S. hospitals specializing in cancer care by U.S. News & World Report since 1990. The Menninger Clinic, a renowned psychiatric treatment center, is affiliated with Baylor College of Medicine and The Methodist Hospital System. With hospital locations nationwide and headquarters in Houston, the Triumph Healthcare hospital system is the third largest long term acute care provider nationally.
Where did Houston rank for job creation in 2013?
570aa0106d058f1900183012
#1
39
False
What was Houston the first city to do regain after the recession caused job loss?
570aa0106d058f1900183013
jobs lost
163
False
How many jobs did Houston add for every one lost?
570aa0106d058f1900183014
two
240
False
How many foreign companies relocated to Houston?
570aa0106d058f1900183015
more than 100
539
False
On what Forbes list did Houston appear in 2013?
570aa0106d058f1900183016
Best Places for Business and Careers
836
False
#1
39
Where did Houston rank for job creation in 2003?
5ad42116604f3c001a40073b
True
jobs lost
163
What was Houston the first city to do regain after the recession caused job boom?
5ad42116604f3c001a40073c
True
two
240
How many jobs did Texas add for every one lost?
5ad42116604f3c001a40073d
True
more than 100
539
How many foreign companies relocated to Texas?
5ad42116604f3c001a40073e
True
Best Places for Business and Careers
836
On what Forbes list did Houston appear in 2003?
5ad42116604f3c001a40073f
True
In 2013, Houston was identified as the #1 U.S. city for job creation by the U.S. Bureau of Statistics after it was not only the first major city to regain all the jobs lost in the preceding economic downturn, but after the crash, more than two jobs were added for every one lost. Economist and vice president of research at the Greater Houston Partnership Patrick Jankowski attributed Houston's success to the ability of the region's real estate and energy industries to learn from historical mistakes. Furthermore, Jankowski stated that "more than 100 foreign-owned companies relocated, expanded or started new businesses in Houston" between 2008 and 2010, and this openness to external business boosted job creation during a period when domestic demand was problematically low. Also in 2013, Houston again appeared on Forbes' list of Best Places for Business and Careers.
How many community colleges serve Houston?
570aa1e34103511400d598a2
Three
0
False
How are the Houston Community College and Lone Star College systems ranked among educational facilities?
570aa1e34103511400d598a3
within the 10 largest
451
False
What college system serves most of Houston?
570aa1e34103511400d598a4
Houston Community College System
81
False
Which community college system serves the northwestern and northeastern areas?
570aa1e34103511400d598a5
Lone Star College System
232
False
What part of Houston does San Jacinto College serve?
570aa1e34103511400d598a6
southeastern
268
False
Three
0
How many community colleges serve Texas?
5ad42371604f3c001a40082d
True
within the 10 largest
451
How are the Texas Community College and Lone Star College systems ranked among educational facilities?
5ad42371604f3c001a40082e
True
Houston Community College System
81
What college system serves most of Texas?
5ad42371604f3c001a40082f
True
Lone Star College
421
Which community college system serves the southwestern and southeastern areas?
5ad42371604f3c001a400830
True
southeastern
268
What part of Texas does San Jacinto College serve?
5ad42371604f3c001a400831
True
Three community college districts exist with campuses in and around Houston. The Houston Community College System serves most of Houston. The northwestern through northeastern parts of the city are served by various campuses of the Lone Star College System, while the southeastern portion of Houston is served by San Jacinto College, and a northeastern portion is served by Lee College. The Houston Community College and Lone Star College systems are within the 10 largest institutions of higher learning in the United States.
When did Houston start using light rail lines?
570aa3634103511400d598ac
January 1, 2004
34
False
How long was the first light rail line in Houston?
570aa3634103511400d598ad
about 8 miles
97
False
Where did the Red Line rail track terminate?
570aa3634103511400d598ae
NRG Park
233
False
How many new rail lines are planned for the future in Houston light rail?
570aa3634103511400d598af
five
324
False
How many passengers used Amtrak to embark at Houston?
570aa3634103511400d598b0
20,327
712
False
January 1, 2004
34
When did Texas start using light rail lines?
5ad42466604f3c001a400893
True
8 miles
103
How wide was the first light rail line in Houston?
5ad42466604f3c001a400894
True
NRG Park.
233
Where did the Blue Line rail track terminate?
5ad42466604f3c001a400895
True
five
324
How many new rail lines are planned for the future in Texas light rail?
5ad42466604f3c001a400896
True
20,327 passengers
712
How many passengers used Amtrak to embark at Texas?
5ad42466604f3c001a400897
True
METRO began light rail service on January 1, 2004, with the inaugural track ("Red Line") running about 8 miles (13 km) from the University of Houston–Downtown (UHD), which traverses through the Texas Medical Center and terminates at NRG Park. METRO is currently in the design phase of a 10-year expansion plan that will add five more lines. and expand the current Red Line. Amtrak, the national passenger rail system, provides service three times a week to Houston via the Sunset Limited (Los Angeles–New Orleans), which stops at a train station on the north side of the downtown area. The station saw 14,891 boardings and alightings in fiscal year 2008. In 2012, there was a 25 percent increase in ridership to 20,327 passengers embarking from the Houston Amtrak station.
What is the second airport that serves Houston?
570aa4a44103511400d598b6
William P. Hobby Airport
41
False
What was the earlier name of Hobby Airport?
570aa4a44103511400d598b7
Houston International Airport
73
False
When was Houston International Airport renamed to Hobby Airport?
570aa4a44103511400d598b8
1967
109
False
Which airline now offers international flights from Hobby Airport?
570aa4a44103511400d598b9
Southwest Airlines
197
False
For what is Hobby Airport ranked in the top five performing airports?
570aa4a44103511400d598ba
customer service
690
False
William P. Hobby
41
What is the second airport that serves Texas?
5ad424d3604f3c001a4008cb
True
Houston International Airport
73
What was the last name of Hobby Airport?
5ad424d3604f3c001a4008cc
True
1967
109
When was Texas International Airport renamed to Hobby Airport?
5ad424d3604f3c001a4008cd
True
Southwest Airlines
197
Which airline never offered international flights from Hobby Airport?
5ad424d3604f3c001a4008ce
True
customer service
690
For what is Hobby Airport ranked in the top six performing airports?
5ad424d3604f3c001a4008cf
True
The second-largest commercial airport is William P. Hobby Airport (named Houston International Airport until 1967) which operates primarily short- to medium-haul domestic flights. However, in 2015 Southwest Airlines launched service from a new international terminal at Hobby airport to several destinations in Mexico, Central America, and the Caribbean. These were the first international flights flown from Hobby since 1969. Houston's aviation history is showcased in the 1940 Air Terminal Museum located in the old terminal building on the west side of the airport. Hobby Airport has been recognized with two awards for being one of the top five performing airports in the world and for customer service by Airports Council International.
How many estimated active faults does Houston have?
570aa83c6d058f190018301c
300
61
False
What is the total length of the Houston faults?
570aa83c6d058f190018301d
310 miles
114
False
Which of the geologic faults run through the center of Houston?
570aa83c6d058f190018301e
Long Point–Eureka Heights
148
False
What geological feature has been removed underground to cause sinking in areas of southeast Houston?
570aa83c6d058f190018301f
water
494
False
What is a slow smooth rate of movement of faults called?
570aa83c6d058f1900183020
fault creep
805
False
300
61
How many estimated unactive faults does Houston have?
5ad41e54604f3c001a400637
True
310 miles
114
What is the total width of the Houston faults?
5ad41e54604f3c001a400638
True
Long Point–Eureka
148
Which of the geologic faults run through the center of Texas?
5ad41e54604f3c001a400639
True
water
494
What geological feature has been placed underground to cause sinking in areas of southeast Houston?
5ad41e54604f3c001a40063a
True
fault creep
805
What is a fast smooth rate of movement of faults called?
5ad41e54604f3c001a40063b
True
The Houston area has over 150 active faults (estimated to be 300 active faults) with an aggregate length of up to 310 miles (500 km), including the Long Point–Eureka Heights fault system which runs through the center of the city. There have been no significant historically recorded earthquakes in Houston, but researchers do not discount the possibility of such quakes having occurred in the deeper past, nor occurring in the future. Land in some areas southeast of Houston is sinking because water has been pumped out of the ground for many years. It may be associated with slip along the faults; however, the slippage is slow and not considered an earthquake, where stationary faults must slip suddenly enough to create seismic waves. These faults also tend to move at a smooth rate in what is termed "fault creep", which further reduces the risk of an earthquake.
What system of incorporation was used in 1837 by Houston?
570aaa384103511400d59900
ward system
43
False
What is the present day system being used by Houston for representation?
570aaa384103511400d59901
Houston City Council districts
163
False
What highway is used to designate locations in Houston?
570aaa384103511400d59902
Interstate 610 Loop
279
False
Beside older pre-World War II residences, what is found inside the Loop?
570aaa384103511400d59903
central business district
327
False
What highway circles the outer areas of Houston?
570aaa384103511400d59904
Beltway 8
579
False
ward system
43
What system of incorporation was used in 1937 by Houston?
5ad41ed9604f3c001a400667
True
Houston City Council districts
163
What is the present day system being used by Texas for representation?
5ad41ed9604f3c001a400668
True
Interstate 610 Loop
279
What highway is used to designate locations in Texas?
5ad41ed9604f3c001a400669
True
central business district
327
Beside older pre-Civil war residences, what is found inside the Loop?
5ad41ed9604f3c001a40066a
True
Beltway 8
579
What highway circles the outer areas of Texas?
5ad41ed9604f3c001a40066b
True
Houston was incorporated in 1837 under the ward system of representation. The ward designation is the progenitor of the eleven current-day geographically oriented Houston City Council districts. Locations in Houston are generally classified as either being inside or outside the Interstate 610 Loop. The inside encompasses the central business district and many residential neighborhoods that predate World War II. More recently, high-density residential areas have been developed within the loop. The city's outlying areas, suburbs and enclaves are located outside of the loop. Beltway 8 encircles the city another 5 miles (8.0 km) farther out.
What area is located at Post Oak Boulevard and Westheimer Road?
570aabda4103511400d5990a
Uptown District
56
False
When did the Uptown district expand?
570aabda4103511400d5990b
1970s and early 1980s
90
False
What is the tallest building in Uptown Houston?
570aabda4103511400d5990c
Williams Tower
415
False
How many square feet of office space did Houston have in Uptown in 2002?
570aabda4103511400d5990d
23 million
1170
False
Until 1999 what was the Williams Tower known as?
570aabda4103511400d5990e
Transco Tower
444
False
Uptown District
56
What area is located at Post Oak Street and Westheimer Avenue?
5ad41f8f604f3c001a40069f
True
1970s and early 1980s
90
When did the Texas expand?
5ad41f8f604f3c001a4006a0
True
Williams Tower
415
What is the tallest building in Texas?
5ad41f8f604f3c001a4006a1
True
23 million square feet
1170
How many square feet of office space did Texas have in 2003?
5ad41f8f604f3c001a4006a2
True
Transco Tower
444
Until 1909 what was the Williams Tower known as?
5ad41f8f604f3c001a4006a3
True
Centered on Post Oak Boulevard and Westheimer Road, the Uptown District boomed during the 1970s and early 1980s when a collection of mid-rise office buildings, hotels, and retail developments appeared along Interstate 610 west. Uptown became one of the most prominent instances of an edge city. The tallest building in Uptown is the 64-floor, 901-foot (275 m)-tall, Philip Johnson and John Burgee designed landmark Williams Tower (known as the Transco Tower until 1999). At the time of construction, it was believed to be the world's tallest skyscraper outside of a central business district. The new 20-story Skanska building and BBVA Compass Plaza are the newest office buildings built in Uptown after 30 years. The Uptown District is also home to buildings designed by noted architects I. M. Pei, César Pelli, and Philip Johnson. In the late 1990s and early 2000s decade, there was a mini-boom of mid-rise and high-rise residential tower construction, with several over 30 stories tall. Since 2000 more than 30 high-rise buildings have gone up in Houston; all told, 72 high-rises tower over the city, which adds up to about 8,300 units. In 2002, Uptown had more than 23 million square feet (2,100,000 m²) of office space with 16 million square feet (1,500,000 m²) of Class A office space.
Besides oil and gas, what is Houston known for?
570aada54103511400d59914
biomedical research and aeronautics
108
False
What other industry is a large part of Houston's economy?
570aada54103511400d59915
Houston Ship Channel
234
False
What designation does the Globalization and World Cities Study Group give Houston?
570aada54103511400d59916
global city
359
False
In what did Houston pass New York City in 2013?
570aada54103511400d59917
market for exports
518
False
How much in dollars did the Houston area export in 2012?
570aada54103511400d59918
$110.3 billion
732
False
biomedical research and aeronautics
108
Besides oil and gas, what is Texas known for?
5ad4200d604f3c001a4006d9
True
The Houston Ship Channel
230
What other industry is a large part of Texas economy?
5ad4200d604f3c001a4006da
True
global city
359
What designation does the Globalization and World Cities Study Group give Texas?
5ad4200d604f3c001a4006db
True
market for exports
518
In what did Houston pass New York City in 2003?
5ad4200d604f3c001a4006dc
True
$110.3 billion
732
How much in dollars did the Texas area export in 2012?
5ad4200d604f3c001a4006dd
True
Houston is recognized worldwide for its energy industry—particularly for oil and natural gas—as well as for biomedical research and aeronautics. Renewable energy sources—wind and solar—are also growing economic bases in the city. The Houston Ship Channel is also a large part of Houston's economic base. Because of these strengths, Houston is designated as a global city by the Globalization and World Cities Study Group and Network and global management consulting firm A.T. Kearney. The Houston area is the top U.S. market for exports, surpassing New York City in 2013, according to data released by the U.S. Department of Commerce's International Trade Administration. In 2012, the Houston–The Woodlands–Sugar Land area recorded $110.3 billion in merchandise exports. Petroleum products, chemicals, and oil and gas extraction equipment accounted for approximately two-thirds of the metropolitan area's exports last year. The Top 3 destinations for exports were Mexico, Canada, and Brazil.
How did Kiplinger's Personal Finance Best Cities rate Houston?
570aaf434103511400d59928
top ranking
26
False
When did Houston receive a ranking in the top of Kiplinger's Best cities list?
570aaf434103511400d59929
2008
85
False
Where did Forbes magazine place Houston for technological innovation?
570aaf434103511400d5992a
fourth
227
False
Where did Houston place for Fortune 500 companies?
570aaf434103511400d5992b
second
386
False
When was Houston ranked the best city for shopping?
570aaf434103511400d5992c
2010
569
False
top ranking
26
How did Kiplinger's Personal Finance Best Cities rate Texas?
5ad420ea604f3c001a400729
True
2008
85
When did Texas receive a ranking in the top of Kiplinger's Best cities list?
5ad420ea604f3c001a40072a
True
fourth
227
Where did Forbes magazine place Texas for technological innovation?
5ad420ea604f3c001a40072b
True
second
386
Where did Texas place for Fortune 500 companies?
5ad420ea604f3c001a40072c
True
2010
569
When was Texas ranked the best city for shopping?
5ad420ea604f3c001a40072d
True
In 2008, Houston received top ranking on Kiplinger's Personal Finance Best Cities of 2008 list, which ranks cities on their local economy, employment opportunities, reasonable living costs, and quality of life. The city ranked fourth for highest increase in the local technological innovation over the preceding 15 years, according to Forbes magazine. In the same year, the city ranked second on the annual Fortune 500 list of company headquarters, first for Forbes magazine's Best Cities for College Graduates, and first on their list of Best Cities to Buy a Home. In 2010, the city was rated the best city for shopping, according to Forbes.
For which sports team category does Houston not have a team ?
570ab07c4103511400d5993c
National Hockey League
72
False
When were the Houston Astros formed?
570ab07c4103511400d5993d
1962
180
False
Until 1965 what were the Houston Astros called?
570ab07c4103511400d5993e
Colt .45s
200
False
When were the Houston Astros in the World Series?
570ab07c4103511400d5993f
2005
264
False
Since what year have the Houston Rockets been a Houston team?
570ab07c4103511400d59940
1971
368
False
National Hockey League
72
For which sports team category does Texas not have a team?
5ad42248604f3c001a4007b9
True
1962
180
When were the Houston Astros dissolved?
5ad42248604f3c001a4007ba
True
Colt .45s
200
Until 1935 what were the Houston Astros called?
5ad42248604f3c001a4007bb
True
2005
264
When did the the Houston Astros miss going to the World Series?
5ad42248604f3c001a4007bc
True
1971
368
Since what year have the Texas Rockets been a Texas team?
5ad42248604f3c001a4007bd
True
Houston has sports teams for every major professional league except the National Hockey League (NHL). The Houston Astros are a Major League Baseball (MLB) expansion team formed in 1962 (known as the "Colt .45s" until 1965) that made one World Series appearance in 2005. The Houston Rockets are a National Basketball Association (NBA) franchise based in the city since 1971. They have won two NBA Championships: in 1994 and 1995 under star players Hakeem Olajuwon, Otis Thorpe, Clyde Drexler, Vernon Maxwell, and Kenny Smith. The Houston Texans are a National Football League (NFL) expansion team formed in 2002. The Houston Dynamo are a Major League Soccer (MLS) franchise that has been based in Houston since 2006 after they won two MLS Cup titles in 2006 and 2007. The Houston Dash play in the National Women's Soccer League (NWSL). The Scrap Yard Dawgs, a women's pro softball team, is expected to play in the National Pro Fastpitch (NPF) from 2016.
How many members did the original Houston city council have?
570ab1ba6d058f1900183086
14
37
False
How many at-large positions were there originally?
570ab1ba6d058f1900183087
five
73
False
What areas do at-large council members represent?
570ab1ba6d058f1900183088
entire city
211
False
What population figure needs to be passed to add at large council members?
570ab1ba6d058f1900183089
2.1 million
296
False
How many at-large council members were added in the 2011 elections?
570ab1ba6d058f190018308a
two
532
False
14
37
How many members did the original Texas city council have?
5ad422d9604f3c001a4007f9
True
five
73
How many at-small positions were there originally?
5ad422d9604f3c001a4007fa
True
entire city
211
What areas do at-small council members represent?
5ad422d9604f3c001a4007fb
True
2.1 million residents
296
What population figure needs to be passed to add at small council members?
5ad422d9604f3c001a4007fc
True
two
532
How many at-large council members were added in the 2001 elections?
5ad422d9604f3c001a4007fd
True
The original city council line-up of 14 members (nine district-based and five at-large positions) was based on a U.S. Justice Department mandate which took effect in 1979. At-large council members represent the entire city. Under the city charter, once the population in the city limits exceeded 2.1 million residents, two additional districts were to be added. The city of Houston's official 2010 census count was 600 shy of the required number; however, as the city was expected to grow beyond 2.1 million shortly thereafter, the two additional districts were added for, and the positions filled during, the August 2011 elections.
How many separate universities does Houston have?
570ab31c6d058f1900183098
Four
0
False
How many students does the University of Houston have?
570ab31c6d058f1900183099
40,000
298
False
Where in Houston is the University of Houston campus located?
570ab31c6d058f190018309a
southeast
340
False
What university is located in Houston'd third ward?
570ab31c6d058f190018309b
Texas Southern University
575
False
What kind of college is Texas Southern University?
570ab31c6d058f190018309c
largest historically black
613
False
Four
0
How many separate universities does Texas have?
5ad4230e604f3c001a400805
True
40,000
298
How many students does the University of Texas have?
5ad4230e604f3c001a400806
True
southeast
340
Where in Texas is the University of Houston campus located?
5ad4230e604f3c001a400807
True
Texas Southern University
575
What university is located in Houston'd fourth ward?
5ad4230e604f3c001a400808
True
black
634
What kind of college is Texas Northern University?
5ad4230e604f3c001a400809
True
Four separate and distinct state universities are located in Houston. The University of Houston is a nationally recognized Tier One research university, and is the flagship institution of the University of Houston System. The third-largest university in Texas, the University of Houston has nearly 40,000 students on its 667-acre campus in southeast Houston. The University of Houston–Clear Lake and the University of Houston–Downtown are stand-alone universities; they are not branch campuses of the University of Houston. Located in the historic community of Third Ward is Texas Southern University, one of the largest historically black colleges and universities in the United States.
What is Houston's major newspaper?
570ab4204103511400d59946
Houston Chronicle
25
False
Who owns the Houston Chronicle?
570ab4204103511400d59947
Hearst Corporation
103
False
When did Chronicle rival newspaper, the Houston Post, cease operations?
570ab4204103511400d59948
1995
288
False
Whose family owned the Houston Post?
570ab4204103511400d59949
Bill Hobby
365
False
What is the other newspaper that serves Houston?
570ab4204103511400d5994a
Houston Press
446
False
Houston Chronicle
25
What is Texas's major newspaper?
5ad423c4604f3c001a400853
True
The Hearst Corporation
99
Who owns the Texas Chronicle?
5ad423c4604f3c001a400854
True
1995
288
When did Chronicle rival newspaper, the Houston Post, begin operations?
5ad423c4604f3c001a400855
True
Bill Hobby
365
Whose family owned the Texas Post?
5ad423c4604f3c001a400856
True
Houston Press
446
What is the other newspaper that serves Texas?
5ad423c4604f3c001a400857
True
Houston is served by the Houston Chronicle, its only major daily newspaper with wide distribution. The Hearst Corporation, which owns and operates the Houston Chronicle, bought the assets of the Houston Post—its long-time rival and main competition—when Houston Post ceased operations in 1995. The Houston Post was owned by the family of former Lieutenant Governor Bill Hobby of Houston. The only other major publication to serve the city is the Houston Press—a free alternative weekly with a weekly readership of more than 300,000.
What is the type of freeway system that serves Houston?
570ab5396d058f19001830a2
hub-and-spoke
31
False
What encircles the downtown area of Houston?
570ab5396d058f19001830a3
Interstate 610
113
False
What is the diameter of the downtown area?
570ab5396d058f19001830a4
8-mile
217
False
What part of the freeway system is Beltway 8?
570ab5396d058f19001830a5
middle loop
308
False
What is the diameter of the center of Beltway 8?
570ab5396d058f19001830a6
23 miles
345
False
hub-and-spoke
31
What is the type of freeway system that serves Texas?
5ad4243b604f3c001a40088b
True
Interstate 610
113
What encircles the downtown area of Texas?
5ad4243b604f3c001a40088c
True
8-mile (13 km)
217
What is the diameter of the uptown area?
5ad4243b604f3c001a40088d
True
middle loop
308
What part of the freeway system is Beltway 1?
5ad4243b604f3c001a40088e
True
Houston's highway system has a hub-and-spoke freeway structure serviced by multiple loops. The innermost loop is Interstate 610, which encircles downtown, the medical center, and many core neighborhoods with around a 8-mile (13 km) diameter. Beltway 8 and its freeway core, the Sam Houston Tollway, form the middle loop at a diameter of roughly 23 miles (37 km). A proposed highway project, State Highway 99 (Grand Parkway), will form a third loop outside of Houston, totaling 180 miles in length and making an almost-complete circumference, with the exception of crossing the ship channel. As of June 2014, two of eleven segments of State Highway 99 have been completed to the west of Houston, and three northern segments, totaling 38 miles, are actively under construction and scheduled to open to traffic late in 2015. In addition to the Sam Houston Tollway loop mentioned above, the Harris County Toll Road Authority currently operates four spoke tollways: The Katy Managed Lanes of Interstate 10, the Hardy Toll Road, the Westpark Tollway, and the Fort Bend Parkway Extension. Other spoke roads either planned or under construction include Crosby Freeway, and the future Alvin Freeway.
How does Houston's George Bush Intercontinental Airport rank for number of passengers?
570ab7096d058f19001830ac
tenth-busiest
76
False
How many destinations does George Bush Intercontinental Airport serve?
570ab7096d058f19001830ad
182
289
False
When did the U.S. Department of Transportation name IAH as fastest growing of U.S. airports?
570ab7096d058f19001830ae
2006
310
False
Where is the Houston Air Route Traffic Control Center located?
570ab7096d058f19001830af
George Bush Intercontinental Airport
498
False
What is Houston's primary airport?
570ab7096d058f19001830b0
George Bush Intercontinental Airport
28
False
tenth-busiest
76
How does Texas's George Bush Intercontinental Airport rank for number of passengers?
5ad42487604f3c001a4008a7
True
182
289
How many destinations does Bill Clinton Intercontinental Airport serve?
5ad42487604f3c001a4008a8
True
2006
310
When did the U.S. Department of Transportation name IAH as fastest growing of UK airports?
5ad42487604f3c001a4008a9
True
George Bush Intercontinental
498
Where is the Texas Air Route Traffic Control Center located?
5ad42487604f3c001a4008aa
True
The primary city airport is George Bush Intercontinental Airport (IAH), the tenth-busiest in the United States for total passengers, and twenty eighth-busiest worldwide. Bush Intercontinental currently ranks fourth in the United States for non-stop domestic and international service with 182 destinations. In 2006, the United States Department of Transportation named IAH the fastest-growing of the top ten airports in the United States. The Houston Air Route Traffic Control Center stands on the George Bush Intercontinental Airport grounds.
Copper
Where was copper mostly mined at in the Roman era?
57095096efce8f15003a7dea
Cyprus
50
False
What term does the name copper originate from?
57095096efce8f15003a7deb
сuprum
149
False
What componds are common in copper?
57095096efce8f15003a7dec
copper(II) salts
306
False
What is one color common in copper salts?
57095096efce8f15003a7ded
blue
343
False
What is the name of the color pigment on building structures that are made using copper.
57095096efce8f15003a7dee
green verdigris
528
False
Cyprus
50
Where was copper glowing at in the Roman era?
5a833e61e60761001a2eb4a9
True
copper(II) salts
306
What compounds are radioactive in copper?
5a833e61e60761001a2eb4aa
True
green verdigris
528
What is the name of the color pigment on water that is made using copper?
5a833e61e60761001a2eb4ab
True
сuprum
149
What term means that copper is an imaginary substance?
5a833e61e60761001a2eb4ac
True
blue or green
343
What color is most rare in copper salts?
5a833e61e60761001a2eb4ad
True
In the Roman era, copper was principally mined on Cyprus, the origin of the name of the metal from aes сyprium (metal of Cyprus), later corrupted to сuprum, from which the words copper (English), cuivre (French), Koper (Dutch) and Kupfer (German) are all derived. Its compounds are commonly encountered as copper(II) salts, which often impart blue or green colors to minerals such as azurite, malachite and turquoise and have been widely used historically as pigments. Architectural structures built with copper corrode to give green verdigris (or patina). Decorative art prominently features copper, both by itself and in the form of pigments.
When was copper first known to have been used?
570955119928a81400471532
9000 BC
204
False
In what area is the first recorded use of copper?
570955119928a81400471533
Middle East
219
False
When was copper thought to have been discovered in China?
570955119928a81400471534
2800 BC
955
False
Copper smelting resulted in the development of what other metal smelting?
570955119928a81400471535
iron smelting
1524
False
When did Natural bronze start to be used by the general public?
570955119928a81400471536
5500 BC
1773
False
9000 BC
204
When was copper last known to have been used?
5a8366bbe60761001a2eb66d
True
Middle East
219
What area is the only recorded use of copper?
5a8366bbe60761001a2eb66e
True
2800 BC
955
When was copper thought to have been discovered in Japan?
5a8366bbe60761001a2eb66f
True
5500 BC
1773
When did natural bronze stop being used by the general public?
5a8366bbe60761001a2eb670
True
copper
1663
What type of material can't be produced?
5a8366bbe60761001a2eb671
True
Copper occurs naturally as native copper and was known to some of the oldest civilizations on record. It has a history of use that is at least 10,000 years old, and estimates of its discovery place it at 9000 BC in the Middle East; a copper pendant was found in northern Iraq that dates to 8700 BC. There is evidence that gold and meteoric iron (but not iron smelting) were the only metals used by humans before copper. The history of copper metallurgy is thought to have followed the following sequence: 1) cold working of native copper, 2) annealing, 3) smelting, and 4) the lost wax method. In southeastern Anatolia, all four of these metallurgical techniques appears more or less simultaneously at the beginning of the Neolithic c. 7500 BC. However, just as agriculture was independently invented in several parts of the world, copper smelting was invented locally in several different places. It was probably discovered independently in China before 2800 BC, in Central America perhaps around 600 AD, and in West Africa about the 9th or 10th century AD. Investment casting was invented in 4500–4000 BC in Southeast Asia and carbon dating has established mining at Alderley Edge in Cheshire, UK at 2280 to 1890 BC. Ötzi the Iceman, a male dated from 3300–3200 BC, was found with an axe with a copper head 99.7% pure; high levels of arsenic in his hair suggest his involvement in copper smelting. Experience with copper has assisted the development of other metals; in particular, copper smelting led to the discovery of iron smelting. Production in the Old Copper Complex in Michigan and Wisconsin is dated between 6000 and 3000 BC. Natural bronze, a type of copper made from ores rich in silicon, arsenic, and (rarely) tin, came into general use in the Balkans around 5500 BC.[citation needed]
What material were the gates of the Temple of Jerusalem made from?
5709595eefce8f15003a7e10
Corinthian bronze
42
False
How is Corinthian bronze made?
5709595eefce8f15003a7e11
depletion gilding
68
False
Where do archeologists believe that alchemy was first practiced?
5709595eefce8f15003a7e12
Alexandria
112
False
What metal was used to make surgical equipment in ancient India?
5709595eefce8f15003a7e13
copper
182
False
What is the name of the battery that was developed using copper in 248 BC?
5709595eefce8f15003a7e14
Baghdad Battery
429
False
Corinthian bronze
42
What material were the gates of the Temple of Jermaine made from?
5a836bd7e60761001a2eb69d
True
depletion gilding
68
How is Corinthian bronze destroyed?
5a836bd7e60761001a2eb69e
True
Alexandria
112
Where do archaeologists believe that alchemy was last practiced?
5a836bd7e60761001a2eb69f
True
copper
182
What metal was used to make surgical equipment in ancient Atlantis?
5a836bd7e60761001a2eb6a0
True
Baghdad Battery
429
What is the name of the battery that was developed using copper in 168 BC?
5a836bd7e60761001a2eb6a1
True
The gates of the Temple of Jerusalem used Corinthian bronze made by depletion gilding. It was most prevalent in Alexandria, where alchemy is thought to have begun. In ancient India, copper was used in the holistic medical science Ayurveda for surgical instruments and other medical equipment. Ancient Egyptians (~2400 BC) used copper for sterilizing wounds and drinking water, and later on for headaches, burns, and itching. The Baghdad Battery, with copper cylinders soldered to lead, dates back to 248 BC to AD 226 and resembles a galvanic cell, leading people to believe this was the first battery; the claim has not been verified.
What metal is used most often in electrical wiring?
57095c13efce8f15003a7e20
copper
42
False
What is the most important market for copper today?
57095c13efce8f15003a7e21
Electrical wiring
411
False
How much of mined copper is used for cables and electrical wiring?
57095c13efce8f15003a7e22
Roughly half
620
False
What metal are most overhead electrical wires made out of?
57095c13efce8f15003a7e23
aluminium
212
False
What is one property of copper that makes it so useful in electrical wiring?
57095c13efce8f15003a7e24
high electrical conductivity
832
False
copper
42
What metal is used least often in electrical wiring?
5a836d7de60761001a2eb6bb
True
Electrical wiring
411
What is the most corrupt market for copper today?
5a836d7de60761001a2eb6bc
True
Roughly half
620
How much of mined copper is used for science experiments?
5a836d7de60761001a2eb6bd
True
aluminium
212
What liquid are most overhead electrical wires made out of?
5a836d7de60761001a2eb6be
True
high electrical conductivity
832
What is one property of copper that makes it so unhelpful in electrical wiring?
5a836d7de60761001a2eb6bf
True
Despite competition from other materials, copper remains the preferred electrical conductor in nearly all categories of electrical wiring with the major exception being overhead electric power transmission where aluminium is often preferred. Copper wire is used in power generation, power transmission, power distribution, telecommunications, electronics circuitry, and countless types of electrical equipment. Electrical wiring is the most important market for the copper industry. This includes building wire, communications cable, power distribution cable, appliance wire, automotive wire and cable, and magnet wire. Roughly half of all copper mined is used to manufacture electrical wire and cable conductors. Many electrical devices rely on copper wiring because of its multitude of inherent beneficial properties, such as its high electrical conductivity, tensile strength, ductility, creep (deformation) resistance, corrosion resistance, low thermal expansion, high thermal conductivity, solderability, and ease of installation.
What word means that bacteria won't grow on a substrate?
57095defed30961900e84004
biostatic
10
False
Because of copper's biostatic properties where is a common use for copper?
57095defed30961900e84005
ships
114
False
What has pure copper been replaced with in the building of ships?
57095defed30961900e84006
Muntz metal
224
False
In the aquaculture industry what is copper alloys commonly used to make?
57095defed30961900e84007
netting materials
330
False
Name a property that makes copper a good material to use in marine environments?
57095defed30961900e84008
corrosion-resistant
489
False
biostatic
10
What word means that bacteria constantly grows on a substrate?
5a836f64e60761001a2eb6e1
True
ships
114
Where is copper commonly used due to not having a biostatic property?
5a836f64e60761001a2eb6e2
True
Muntz metal
224
What has fake copper been replaced with in the building of ships?
5a836f64e60761001a2eb6e3
True
netting materials
330
What is copper alloys rarely used to make in the agriculture industry?
5a836f64e60761001a2eb6e4
True
Copper is biostatic, meaning bacteria will not grow on it. For this reason it has long been used to line parts of ships to protect against barnacles and mussels. It was originally used pure, but has since been superseded by Muntz metal. Similarly, as discussed in copper alloys in aquaculture, copper alloys have become important netting materials in the aquaculture industry because they are antimicrobial and prevent biofouling, even in extreme conditions and have strong structural and corrosion-resistant properties in marine environments.
What group of the periodic table is copper in?
5709614c200fba1400367f0b
group 11
31
False
Name a property that copper, silver and gold have in common.
5709614c200fba1400367f0c
one s-orbital electron
108
False
What makes copper bondings weaker than other metals?
5709614c200fba1400367f0d
filled d-electron shell
143
False
How is copper normally supplied?
5709614c200fba1400367f0e
fine-grained polycrystalline form
838
False
What is a weaker form of copper than fine-grained polycrystalline?
5709614c200fba1400367f0f
monocrystalline forms
905
False
group 11
31
What group of the periodic table is copper no longer in?
5a833f39e60761001a2eb4b3
True
one s-orbital electron
108
What is the only property that copper, silver and gold have in common?
5a833f39e60761001a2eb4b4
True
filled d-electron shell
143
What makes copper bondings stronger than other metals?
5a833f39e60761001a2eb4b5
True
fine-grained polycrystalline form
838
What is copper normally missing?
5a833f39e60761001a2eb4b6
True
monocrystalline forms
905
What is a better form of copper than fine-grained polycrystalline?
5a833f39e60761001a2eb4b7
True
Copper, silver and gold are in group 11 of the periodic table, and they share certain attributes: they have one s-orbital electron on top of a filled d-electron shell and are characterized by high ductility and electrical conductivity. The filled d-shells in these elements do not contribute much to the interatomic interactions, which are dominated by the s-electrons through metallic bonds. Unlike metals with incomplete d-shells, metallic bonds in copper are lacking a covalent character and are relatively weak. This explains the low hardness and high ductility of single crystals of copper. At the macroscopic scale, introduction of extended defects to the crystal lattice, such as grain boundaries, hinders flow of the material under applied stress, thereby increasing its hardness. For this reason, copper is usually supplied in a fine-grained polycrystalline form, which has greater strength than monocrystalline forms.
What is the concentration of copper in the earths crust.
570962e2ed30961900e8404e
50 parts per million
103
False
How large was the biggest find of copper?
570962e2ed30961900e8404f
420 tonnes
378
False
What year was the largest find of copper discovered?
570962e2ed30961900e84050
1857
406
False
Where was the largest mass of copper found?
570962e2ed30961900e84051
Michigan, US
440
False
How big is the largest copper crystal that has been found?
570962e2ed30961900e84052
4.4×3.2×3.2 cm
538
False
50 parts per million
103
What is the concentration of copper in the earths atmosphere?
5a8353c7e60761001a2eb58d
True
420 tonnes
378
How large was the smallest find of copper?
5a8353c7e60761001a2eb58e
True
1857
406
What year was the smallest find of copper discovered?
5a8353c7e60761001a2eb58f
True
Michigan, US
440
Where was the smallest mass of copper found?
5a8353c7e60761001a2eb590
True
4.4×3.2×3.2 cm
538
How big is the largest alien crystal that has been found?
5a8353c7e60761001a2eb591
True
Copper is synthesized in massive stars and is present in the Earth's crust at a concentration of about 50 parts per million (ppm), where it occurs as native copper or in minerals such as the copper sulfides chalcopyrite and chalcocite, the copper carbonates azurite and malachite, and the copper(I) oxide mineral cuprite. The largest mass of elemental copper discovered weighed 420 tonnes and was found in 1857 on the Keweenaw Peninsula in Michigan, US. Native copper is a polycrystal, with the largest described single crystal measuring 4.4×3.2×3.2 cm.
What was copper called in Greece?
57096523ed30961900e8408c
chalkos
40
False
In what area was copper first mined?
57096523ed30961900e8408d
Cyprus
250
False
What is the Greek goddess that symbolizes copper?
57096523ed30961900e8408e
Aphrodite
350
False
What is the Roman goddess that symbolizes copper?
57096523ed30961900e8408f
Venus
364
False
What property does copper have that links it to Aphrodite and Venus?
57096523ed30961900e84090
lustrous beauty
430
False
chalkos
40
What was copper forbidden to be called in Greece?
5a836a91e60761001a2eb681
True
Cyprus
250
What area was the only copper mine?
5a836a91e60761001a2eb682
True
Aphrodite
350
What is the Egyptian goddess that symbolizes copper?
5a836a91e60761001a2eb683
True
Venus
364
What is the German goddess that symbolizes copper?
5a836a91e60761001a2eb684
True
lustrous beauty
430
What property does silver have that links it to Aphrodite and Venus?
5a836a91e60761001a2eb685
True
In Greece, copper was known by the name chalkos (χαλκός). It was an important resource for the Romans, Greeks and other ancient peoples. In Roman times, it was known as aes Cyprium, aes being the generic Latin term for copper alloys and Cyprium from Cyprus, where much copper was mined. The phrase was simplified to cuprum, hence the English copper. Aphrodite and Venus represented copper in mythology and alchemy, because of its lustrous beauty, its ancient use in producing mirrors, and its association with Cyprus, which was sacred to the goddess. The seven heavenly bodies known to the ancients were associated with the seven metals known in antiquity, and Venus was assigned to copper.
What are compounds that have a carbon-copper bond called?
570967d5200fba1400367f63
organocopper compounds
57
False
What does organocopper compounds reactions toward oxygen form?
570967d5200fba1400367f64
copper(I) oxide
127
False
What is produced when copper compounds are treated with organolithium reagents?
570967d5200fba1400367f65
Gilman reagent
351
False
Coupling products can be made by substituting Gilman reagent with what?
570967d5200fba1400367f66
alkyl halides
403
False
Which form of copper is shock sensitive?
570967d5200fba1400367f67
Copper(I) acetylide
507
False
organocopper compounds
57
What are compounds that have a black-copper bond called?
5a836556e60761001a2eb661
True
copper(I) oxide
127
What does organocopper compounds reactions toward water form?
5a836556e60761001a2eb662
True
Gilman reagent
351
What is destroyed when copper compounds are treated with organolithium reagents?
5a836556e60761001a2eb663
True
Copper(I) acetylide
507
Which form of copper is time sensitive?
5a836556e60761001a2eb664
True
Compounds that contain a carbon-copper bond are known as organocopper compounds. They are very reactive towards oxygen to form copper(I) oxide and have many uses in chemistry. They are synthesized by treating copper(I) compounds with Grignard reagents, terminal alkynes or organolithium reagents; in particular, the last reaction described produces a Gilman reagent. These can undergo substitution with alkyl halides to form coupling products; as such, they are important in the field of organic synthesis. Copper(I) acetylide is highly shock-sensitive but is an intermediate in reactions such as the Cadiot-Chodkiewicz coupling and the Sonogashira coupling. Conjugate addition to enones and carbocupration of alkynes can also be achieved with organocopper compounds. Copper(I) forms a variety of weak complexes with alkenes and carbon monoxide, especially in the presence of amine ligands.
Who used copper to produce art?
57096959200fba1400367f89
Renaissance sculptors
71
False
What is the photographic technology that uses copper called?
57096959200fba1400367f8a
daguerreotype
134
False
What famous NY city landmark is made from copper?
57096959200fba1400367f8b
Statue of Liberty
157
False
What famous explorers ships was one of the first to have it's hulls made of copper?
57096959200fba1400367f8c
Christopher Columbus
258
False
When did The Norddeutsche Affinerie electroplating plant first begin production?
57096959200fba1400367f8d
1830
505
False
Renaissance sculptors
71
Who used copper to produce garbage?
5a836c85e60761001a2eb6a7
True
daguerreotype
134
What is the magical technology that uses copper called?
5a836c85e60761001a2eb6a8
True
Statue of Liberty
157
What famous Arizona city landmark is made from copper?
5a836c85e60761001a2eb6a9
True
Christopher Columbus
258
What unknown explorers ships was one of the first to have it's hulls made of copper?
5a836c85e60761001a2eb6aa
True
1830
505
When did The Norddeutsche Affinerie nuclear plant first begin production?
5a836c85e60761001a2eb6ab
True
The uses of copper in art were not limited to currency: it was used by Renaissance sculptors, in photographic technology known as the daguerreotype, and the Statue of Liberty. Copper plating and copper sheathing for ships' hulls was widespread; the ships of Christopher Columbus were among the earliest to have this feature. The Norddeutsche Affinerie in Hamburg was the first modern electroplating plant starting its production in 1876. The German scientist Gottfried Osann invented powder metallurgy in 1830 while determining the metal's atomic mass; around then it was discovered that the amount and type of alloying element (e.g., tin) to copper would affect bell tones. Flash smelting was developed by Outokumpu in Finland and first applied at Harjavalta in 1949; the energy-efficient process accounts for 50% of the world's primary copper production.
What property of copper increases the efficiency of electrical motors?
57096ba1200fba1400367fb1
conductivity
17
False
What percentage of electrical consumption does motor systems use globally?
57096ba1200fba1400367fb2
43%-46%
173
False
What percentage of electrical consumption does motor systems use in industry?
57096ba1200fba1400367fb3
69%
223
False
What does the acronym NEMA stand for?
57096ba1200fba1400367fb4
National Electrical Manufacturers Association
564
False
By using copper motor rotor technology it is allowing industry to exceed what standards?
57096ba1200fba1400367fb5
efficiency standards
625
False
conductivity
17
What property of copper ruins the efficiency of electrical motors?
5a836de2e60761001a2eb6c5
True
43%-46%
173
What percentage of water consumption does motor systems use globally?
5a836de2e60761001a2eb6c6
True
69%
223
What percentage of electrical consumption does motor systems use in secrecy?
5a836de2e60761001a2eb6c7
True
National Electrical Manufacturers Association
564
What does the acronym NEMA stand against?
5a836de2e60761001a2eb6c8
True
Copper's greater conductivity versus other metals enhances the electrical energy efficiency of motors. This is important because motors and motor-driven systems account for 43%-46% of all global electricity consumption and 69% of all electricity used by industry. Increasing the mass and cross section of copper in a coil increases the electrical energy efficiency of the motor. Copper motor rotors, a new technology designed for motor applications where energy savings are prime design objectives, are enabling general-purpose induction motors to meet and exceed National Electrical Manufacturers Association (NEMA) premium efficiency standards.
Name a compond that can mobilize sold copper?
57096cd6ed30961900e840e8
Chromobacterium violaceum
0
False
What fungi can grow in copper metalliferous soils?
57096cd6ed30961900e840e9
ericoid mycorrhizal fungi
113
False
What fungus protects pine trees from copper toxicity?
57096cd6ed30961900e840ea
Suillus luteus
251
False
What fungus grows from gold mining solution?
57096cd6ed30961900e840eb
Aspergillus niger
337
False
What fungus helps to soften heavy metal sulfides?
57096cd6ed30961900e840ec
fungus Aspergillus
330
False
Pseudomonas fluorescens
30
What is the only compound that can mobilize solid copper?
5a8370d7e60761001a2eb707
True
ericoid mycorrhizal fungi
113
What fungi can speak in copper metalliferous soils?
5a8370d7e60761001a2eb708
True
Suillus luteus
251
What fungus makes pine trees vulnerable to copper toxicity?
5a8370d7e60761001a2eb709
True
Aspergillus niger
337
What fungus grows from diamond mining solution?
5a8370d7e60761001a2eb70a
True
fungus Aspergillus niger
330
What fungus helps to toxify heavy metal sulfides?
5a8370d7e60761001a2eb70b
True
Chromobacterium violaceum and Pseudomonas fluorescens can both mobilize solid copper, as a cyanide compound. The ericoid mycorrhizal fungi associated with Calluna, Erica and Vaccinium can grow in copper metalliferous soils. The ectomycorrhizal fungus Suillus luteus protects young pine trees from copper toxicity. A sample of the fungus Aspergillus niger was found growing from gold mining solution; and was found to contain cyano metal complexes; such as gold, silver, copper iron and zinc. The fungus also plays a role in the solubilization of heavy metal sulfides.
What is an intrinsic property of copper-alloy touch surfaces?
57096ee9ed30961900e8410c
antimicrobial
509
False
355 copper alloys have been proven to kill what percentage of bacteria?
57096ee9ed30961900e8410d
99.9%
315
False
What does the acronym EPA stand for?
57096ee9ed30961900e8410e
Environmental Protection Agency
413
False
How many copper alloys has the EPA approved as antimicrobial materials?
57096ee9ed30961900e8410f
355
267
False
What disease do hospitals hope to prevent by installing copper doornobs?
57096ee9ed30961900e84110
Legionnaires' disease
1166
False
antimicrobial
688
What is an intrinsic property of gold-alloy touch surfaces?
5a836fe6e60761001a2eb6e9
True
Environmental Protection Agency
413
What does the acronym EPA oppose?
5a836fe6e60761001a2eb6ea
True
355
267
How many copper alloys has the EPA banned as antimicrobial materials?
5a836fe6e60761001a2eb6eb
True
Legionnaires' disease
1166
What disease do hospitals hope to prevent by installing golden doorknobs?
5a836fe6e60761001a2eb6ec
True
copper alloys
271
What has no ability to kill bacteria?
5a836fe6e60761001a2eb6ed
True
Copper-alloy touch surfaces have natural intrinsic properties to destroy a wide range of microorganisms (e.g., E. coli O157:H7, methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA), Staphylococcus, Clostridium difficile, influenza A virus, adenovirus, and fungi). Some 355 copper alloys were proven to kill more than 99.9% of disease-causing bacteria within just two hours when cleaned regularly. The United States Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) has approved the registrations of these copper alloys as "antimicrobial materials with public health benefits," which allows manufacturers to legally make claims as to the positive public health benefits of products made with registered antimicrobial copper alloys. In addition, the EPA has approved a long list of antimicrobial copper products made from these alloys, such as bedrails, handrails, over-bed tables, sinks, faucets, door knobs, toilet hardware, computer keyboards, health club equipment, shopping cart handles, etc. (for a comprehensive list of products, see: Antimicrobial copper-alloy touch surfaces#Approved products). Copper doorknobs are used by hospitals to reduce the transfer of disease, and Legionnaires' disease is suppressed by copper tubing in plumbing systems. Antimicrobial copper alloy products are now being installed in healthcare facilities in the U.K., Ireland, Japan, Korea, France, Denmark, and Brazil[citation needed] and in the subway transit system in Santiago, Chile, where copper-zinc alloy handrails will be installed in some 30 stations between 2011–2014.
What are copper compounds in liquid form used for?
570970afed30961900e8413c
wood preservative
46
False
What does copper wires along with zinc on roofs help to prevent?
570970afed30961900e8413d
moss
279
False
What function does copper serve when used in textile fibers?
570970afed30961900e8413e
antimicrobial protective fabrics
338
False
How is copper used with nickel?
570970afed30961900e8413f
as a base
469
False
What is used to treat structures for dry rot?
570970afed30961900e84140
Copper compounds
0
False
wood preservative
46
What are copper compounds in dragon form used for?
5a83705de60761001a2eb6fd
True
moss
279
What does copper wires along with mud on roofs help to prevent?
5a83705de60761001a2eb6fe
True
antimicrobial protective fabrics
338
What function does copper eliminate when used in textile fibers?
5a83705de60761001a2eb6ff
True
as a base
469
How is copper used with vodka?
5a83705de60761001a2eb700
True
Copper compounds
0
What is used to implode structures for dry rot?
5a83705de60761001a2eb701
True
Copper compounds in liquid form are used as a wood preservative, particularly in treating original portion of structures during restoration of damage due to dry rot. Together with zinc, copper wires may be placed over non-conductive roofing materials to discourage the growth of moss.[citation needed] Textile fibers use copper to create antimicrobial protective fabrics, as do ceramic glazes, stained glass and musical instruments. Electroplating commonly uses copper as a base for other metals such as nickel.
How long has copper been in use?
570971cb200fba1400368003
at least 10,000 years
23
False
What percentage of copper has been extracted since 1900?
570971cb200fba1400368004
95%
60
False
How much of mined cooper has been extracted in the last 24 years?
570971cb200fba1400368005
more than half
136
False
How much copper is estimated to exsist on earth?
570971cb200fba1400368006
1014 tons
276
False
What is a major source of cooper in modern times?
570971cb200fba1400368007
Recycling
667
False
at least 10,000 years
23
How long has copper been forbidden?
5a8357dde60761001a2eb5e3
True
95%
60
What percentage of copper has been stolen since 1900?
5a8357dde60761001a2eb5e4
True
more than half
136
How much of mined cooper has been extracted in the last 24 hours?
5a8357dde60761001a2eb5e5
True
1014 tons
276
How much copper is estimated to be missing on earth?
5a8357dde60761001a2eb5e6
True
Recycling
667
What is a minor source of cooper in modern times?
5a8357dde60761001a2eb5e7
True
Copper has been in use at least 10,000 years, but more than 95% of all copper ever mined and smelted has been extracted since 1900, and more than half was extracted in only the last 24 years. As with many natural resources, the total amount of copper on Earth is vast (around 1014 tons just in the top kilometer of Earth's crust, or about 5 million years' worth at the current rate of extraction). However, only a tiny fraction of these reserves is economically viable, given present-day prices and technologies. Various estimates of existing copper reserves available for mining vary from 25 years to 60 years, depending on core assumptions such as the growth rate. Recycling is a major source of copper in the modern world. Because of these and other factors, the future of copper production and supply is the subject of much debate, including the concept of peak copper, analogous to peak oil.
What did Romans use as money in the 6th through 3rd centuriesBC?
57097382ed30961900e8417e
copper lumps
122
False
Who had his own coins produced out of brass?
57097382ed30961900e8417f
Julius Caesar
255
False
During the 6th through 3rd centuries BC how much copper was mined in Rome?
57097382ed30961900e84180
15,000 t
419
False
Cctavianus Augustus Caesar had his coins made out of what alloys?
57097382ed30961900e84181
Cu-Pb-Sn alloys
360
False
What became more important than the copper value for Roman coins?
57097382ed30961900e84182
the shape and look
199
False
copper lumps
122
What did aliens use as money in the 6th through 3rd centuries BC?
5a836b58e60761001a2eb695
True
Julius Caesar
255
Who had his own trees produced out of brass?
5a836b58e60761001a2eb696
True
15,000 t
419
How much copper was stolen in Rome during the 6th through 3rd centuries BC?
5a836b58e60761001a2eb697
True
the shape and look
199
What became less important than the copper value for Roman coins?
5a836b58e60761001a2eb698
True
The cultural role of copper has been important, particularly in currency. Romans in the 6th through 3rd centuries BC used copper lumps as money. At first, the copper itself was valued, but gradually the shape and look of the copper became more important. Julius Caesar had his own coins made from brass, while Octavianus Augustus Caesar's coins were made from Cu-Pb-Sn alloys. With an estimated annual output of around 15,000 t, Roman copper mining and smelting activities reached a scale unsurpassed until the time of the Industrial Revolution; the provinces most intensely mined were those of Hispania, Cyprus and in Central Europe.
What percentage of copper is used in electrical wires?
570974d8200fba140036801f
60%
58
False
What percentage of copper is used in roofing and plumbing?
570974d8200fba1400368020
20%
86
False
What percentage of copper is used in industrial machinery?
570974d8200fba1400368021
15%
117
False
What property does combining copper with brass or bronze create?
570974d8200fba1400368022
hardness
180
False
What is a metal that copper is combined with to create a greater hardness?
570974d8200fba1400368023
brass
279
False
60%
58
What percentage of copper is used in paper wires?
5a836cfde60761001a2eb6b1
True
20%
86
What percentage of copper is forbidden in roofing and plumbing?
5a836cfde60761001a2eb6b2
True
15%
117
What percentage of copper is destroyed by industrial machinery?
5a836cfde60761001a2eb6b3
True
hardness
180
What property does combining copper with brass or bronze eliminate?
5a836cfde60761001a2eb6b4
True
brass
279
What is a plant that copper is combined with to create a smoother texture?
5a836cfde60761001a2eb6b5
True
The major applications of copper are in electrical wires (60%), roofing and plumbing (20%) and industrial machinery (15%). Copper is mostly used as a pure metal, but when a higher hardness is required it is combined with other elements to make an alloy (5% of total use) such as brass and bronze. A small part of copper supply is used in production of compounds for nutritional supplements and fungicides in agriculture. Machining of copper is possible, although it is usually necessary to use an alloy for intricate parts to get good machinability characteristics.
What is the explanation for copper's capacity for electrical conductivity?
57097747200fba1400368029
The softness
0
False
What metal has a higher thermal conductivity than copper?
57097747200fba140036802a
silver
161
False
What is the maximum premissible current density in open air of copper?
57097747200fba140036802b
3.1×106 A/m2
500
False
What occurs when copper is placed touching another metal?
57097747200fba140036802c
corrosion
655
False
What happens to copper if an electrical current gets too high?
57097747200fba140036802d
it begins to heat excessively
550
False
The softness
0
What is the explanation for copper's capacity for nuclear conductivity?
5a8342b6e60761001a2eb4d1
True
silver
161
What metal has an equal thermal conductivity to copper?
5a8342b6e60761001a2eb4d2
True
3.1×106 A/m2
500
What is the only permissible current density in open air of copper?
5a8342b6e60761001a2eb4d3
True
corrosion
655
What occurs when copper is placed apart from another metal?
5a8342b6e60761001a2eb4d4
True
The softness of copper partly explains its high electrical conductivity (59.6×106 S/m) and thus also high thermal conductivity, which are the second highest (to silver) among pure metals at room temperature. This is because the resistivity to electron transport in metals at room temperature mostly originates from scattering of electrons on thermal vibrations of the lattice, which are relatively weak for a soft metal. The maximum permissible current density of copper in open air is approximately 3.1×106 A/m2 of cross-sectional area, above which it begins to heat excessively. As with other metals, if copper is placed against another metal, galvanic corrosion will occur.
In what form is copper extracted?
570978be200fba1400368039
copper sulfides
37
False
From what types of mines is copper extracted?
570978be200fba140036803a
open pit mines
64
False
What percentage of copper do the deposits have that are extracted?
570978be200fba140036803b
0.4 to 1.0% copper
120
False
What country was the top producer of copper in 2005?
570978be200fba140036803c
Chile
324
False
What is the name of the process being considered in Arizona that allows copper to be recovered?
570978be200fba140036803d
in-situ leach process
494
False
copper sulfides
37
What form is copper hidden?
5a8356aae60761001a2eb5c9
True
open pit mines
64
What types of mines is copper invisible?
5a8356aae60761001a2eb5ca
True
0.4 to 1.0%
120
What percentage of mercury do the deposits have that are extracted?
5a8356aae60761001a2eb5cb
True
Chile
324
What village was the top producer of copper in 2005?
5a8356aae60761001a2eb5cc
True
in-situ leach process
494
What is the name of the process being considered in Australia that allows copper to be recovered?
5a8356aae60761001a2eb5cd
True
Most copper is mined or extracted as copper sulfides from large open pit mines in porphyry copper deposits that contain 0.4 to 1.0% copper. Examples include Chuquicamata in Chile, Bingham Canyon Mine in Utah, United States and El Chino Mine in New Mexico, United States. According to the British Geological Survey, in 2005, Chile was the top mine producer of copper with at least one-third world share followed by the United States, Indonesia and Peru. Copper can also be recovered through the in-situ leach process. Several sites in the state of Arizona are considered prime candidates for this method. The amount of copper in use is increasing and the quantity available is barely sufficient to allow all countries to reach developed world levels of usage.
What percent of copper is recyclable?
57097a0bed30961900e841ca
100%
26
False
What percentage of copper that has been mined is still being used today?
57097a0bed30961900e841cb
80%
252
False
What other metal besides copper is 100% recyclable?
57097a0bed30961900e841cc
aluminium
5
False
Name a metal that is recycled more often than copper?
57097a0bed30961900e841cd
aluminium
220
False
What is the amount of copper in use, per capita, globally?
57097a0bed30961900e841ce
35–55 kg
443
False
100%
26
What percent of copper is indestructible?
5a836015e60761001a2eb61d
True
80%
252
What percentage of copper that has been mined is still in the air today?
5a836015e60761001a2eb61e
True
aluminium
220
What other wood besides copper is 100% recyclable?
5a836015e60761001a2eb61f
True
aluminium
220
What metal is never recycled?
5a836015e60761001a2eb620
True
35–55 kg
443
What is the amount of copper stolen, per capita, globally?
5a836015e60761001a2eb621
True
Like aluminium, copper is 100% recyclable without any loss of quality, regardless of whether it is in a raw state or contained in a manufactured product. In volume, copper is the third most recycled metal after iron and aluminium. It is estimated that 80% of the copper ever mined is still in use today. According to the International Resource Panel's Metal Stocks in Society report, the global per capita stock of copper in use in society is 35–55 kg. Much of this is in more-developed countries (140–300 kg per capita) rather than less-developed countries (30–40 kg per capita).
What pigment color is natural to copper?
57097f5e200fba1400368091
green
32
False
What property does the final patina on cooper have?
57097f5e200fba1400368092
highly resistant to atmospheric corrosion
153
False
What mixture of compounds is the final patina?
57097f5e200fba1400368093
carbonate and sulfate
287
False
What conditions effect the mixture of carbonate and sulfate in copper?
57097f5e200fba1400368094
environmental
354
False
What can be done to copper to give it a certain look?
57097f5e200fba1400368095
finished
465
False
green
32
What pigment color is fake copper?
5a836eeee60761001a2eb6d7
True
highly resistant to atmospheric corrosion
153
What property does the final patina on copper avoid?
5a836eeee60761001a2eb6d8
True
carbonate and sulfate
287
What separation of compounds is the final patina?
5a836eeee60761001a2eb6d9
True
environmental
354
What conditions have no influence on the mixture of carbonate and sulfate in copper?
5a836eeee60761001a2eb6da
True
finished
465
What can be done to sugar to give it a certain look?
5a836eeee60761001a2eb6db
True
The metal's distinctive natural green patina has long been coveted by architects and designers. The final patina is a particularly durable layer that is highly resistant to atmospheric corrosion, thereby protecting the underlying metal against further weathering. It can be a mixture of carbonate and sulfate compounds in various amounts, depending upon environmental conditions such as sulfur-containing acid rain. Architectural copper and its alloys can also be 'finished' to embark a particular look, feel, and/or color. Finishes include mechanical surface treatments, chemical coloring, and coatings.
What are copper salts sometimes used for?
57098140200fba14003680cb
suicide attempts
59
False
When ingested in large amounts what does copper salts produce in humans?
57098140200fba14003680cc
copper toxicity
95
False
What is the minimum amount of copper rabbits should have in their diet?
57098140200fba14003680cd
3 ppm
373
False
What is a major benefit to rabbits having a higher concentration of copper in their diet?
57098140200fba14003680ce
growth rates
539
False
What amount of copper salt is toxic in animals?
57098140200fba14003680cf
30 mg/kg
254
False
suicide attempts
59
What are copper peppers sometimes used for?
5a8371c6e60761001a2eb71b
True
copper toxicity
95
When ingested in small amounts what does copper salts produce in humans?
5a8371c6e60761001a2eb71c
True
3 ppm
373
What is the minimum amount of copper dragons should have in their diet?
5a8371c6e60761001a2eb71d
True
growth rates
539
What is a major benefit to dragons having a higher concentration of copper in their diet?
5a8371c6e60761001a2eb71e
True
30 mg/kg
254
What amount of copper salt is toxic in robots?
5a8371c6e60761001a2eb71f
True
Gram quantities of various copper salts have been taken in suicide attempts and produced acute copper toxicity in humans, possibly due to redox cycling and the generation of reactive oxygen species that damage DNA. Corresponding amounts of copper salts (30 mg/kg) are toxic in animals. A minimum dietary value for healthy growth in rabbits has been reported to be at least 3 ppm in the diet. However, higher concentrations of copper (100 ppm, 200 ppm, or 500 ppm) in the diet of rabbits may favorably influence feed conversion efficiency, growth rates, and carcass dressing percentages.
When did Britain first use brass?
5709828fed30961900e84244
3rd–2nd century BC
49
False
Who were the first copper miners in North America?
5709828fed30961900e84245
Native Americans
133
False
Where was native copper extracted with primitive tools between 800 and 1600?
5709828fed30961900e84246
Isle Royale
211
False
What country had a strong copper production in 1000 AD
5709828fed30961900e84247
Peru
340
False
When did commercial production of copper begin?
5709828fed30961900e84248
early 20th century
548
False
3rd–2nd century BC
49
When did Britain ban use of brass?
5a836aeee60761001a2eb68b
True
Native Americans
133
Who were the only copper miners in North America?
5a836aeee60761001a2eb68c
True
Isle Royale
211
Where was native copper hidden with primitive tools between 800 and 1600?
5a836aeee60761001a2eb68d
True
Peru
340
What country stopped a strong copper production in 1000 AD?
5a836aeee60761001a2eb68e
True
early 20th century
548
When did commercial production of copper end?
5a836aeee60761001a2eb68f
True
Britain's first use of brass occurred around the 3rd–2nd century BC. In North America, copper mining began with marginal workings by Native Americans. Native copper is known to have been extracted from sites on Isle Royale with primitive stone tools between 800 and 1600. Copper metallurgy was flourishing in South America, particularly in Peru around 1000 AD; it proceeded at a much slower rate on other continents. Copper burial ornamentals from the 15th century have been uncovered, but the metal's commercial production did not start until the early 20th century.
How many isotopes are there of copper?
5709844f200fba1400368107
29
10
False
What are the two stable isotopes of cooper?
5709844f200fba1400368108
63Cu and 65Cu
33
False
Which isotope makes up about 69% of natural copper?
5709844f200fba1400368109
63Cu
64
False
What is the half life of the copper isotope 68mCu?
5709844f200fba140036810a
3.8 minutes
360
False
What is the half life of the copper isotope 67Cu?
5709844f200fba140036810b
61.83 hours
247
False
29
10
How many isotopes are missing in copper?
5a83518ce60761001a2eb56d
True
63Cu and 65Cu
33
What are the two dangerous isotopes of copper?
5a83518ce60761001a2eb56e
True
63Cu
64
Which isotope makes up about 74% of natural copper?
5a83518ce60761001a2eb56f
True
3.8 minutes
360
What is the half life of the supernatural isotope 68mCu?
5a83518ce60761001a2eb570
True
61.83 hours
247
What is the orbital period of the copper isotope 67Cu?
5a83518ce60761001a2eb571
True
There are 29 isotopes of copper. 63Cu and 65Cu are stable, with 63Cu comprising approximately 69% of naturally occurring copper; they both have a spin of 3⁄2. The other isotopes are radioactive, with the most stable being 67Cu with a half-life of 61.83 hours. Seven metastable isotopes have been characterized, with 68mCu the longest-lived with a half-life of 3.8 minutes. Isotopes with a mass number above 64 decay by β−, whereas those with a mass number below 64 decay by β+. 64Cu, which has a half-life of 12.7 hours, decays both ways.
What is the alloy of copper and nickel called?
5709867b200fba1400368143
cupronickel
39
False
what is the alloy of copper and nickel used for?
5709867b200fba1400368144
low-denomination coins
63
False
What is the metal composition of a US nickel?
5709867b200fba1400368145
75% copper and 25% nickel
164
False
What extraordinary property does the alloy made up of 90% copper and 10% nickel possess?
5709867b200fba1400368146
resistance to corrosion
297
False
What color is created when the alloys of copper and aluminium are combined?
5709867b200fba1400368147
golden
439
False
cupronickel
39
What is the liquid of copper and nickel called?
5a836094e60761001a2eb62f
True
low-denomination coins
63
What is the liquid of copper and nickel never used for?
5a836094e60761001a2eb630
True
75% copper and 25% nickel
164
What is the wood composition of a US nickel?
5a836094e60761001a2eb631
True
resistance to corrosion
297
What mundane property does the alloy made up of 90% copper and 10% nickel possess?
5a836094e60761001a2eb632
True
golden
439
What color is created when the alloys of copper and aluminium are apart?
5a836094e60761001a2eb633
True
The alloy of copper and nickel, called cupronickel, is used in low-denomination coins, often for the outer cladding. The US 5-cent coin called a nickel consists of 75% copper and 25% nickel and has a homogeneous composition. The alloy consisting of 90% copper and 10% nickel is remarkable for its resistance to corrosion and is used in various parts that are exposed to seawater. Alloys of copper with aluminium (about 7%) have a pleasant golden color and are used in decorations. Some lead-free solders consist of tin alloyed with a small proportion of copper and other metals.
What is the name of the componds that has more than one alcohol functional group?
5709880eed30961900e842a4
Polyols
0
False
What are copper salts used to test?
5709880eed30961900e842a5
reducing sugars
155
False
How is the presence of sugar shown by using Benedict's reagent and Fehling's solution?
5709880eed30961900e842a6
color change
277
False
What color does the copper salts turn to using Benedict's reagent and Fehling's solution if sugar is present?
5709880eed30961900e842a7
reddish
310
False
What does Schweizer's reagent dissolve?
5709880eed30961900e842a8
cellulose
424
False
Polyols
0
What is the name of the compounds that have no alcohol functional group?
5a836387e60761001a2eb64d
True
reducing sugars
155
What are copper salts used to burn?
5a836387e60761001a2eb64e
True
color change
277
How is the presence of sugar hidden by using Benedict's reagent and Fehling's solution?
5a836387e60761001a2eb64f
True
reddish
310
What color does the copper salts turn to using Benedict's reagent and Fehling's solution if dust is present?
5a836387e60761001a2eb650
True
cellulose
424
What does Schweizer's reagent grow?
5a836387e60761001a2eb651
True
Polyols, compounds containing more than one alcohol functional group, generally interact with cupric salts. For example, copper salts are used to test for reducing sugars. Specifically, using Benedict's reagent and Fehling's solution the presence of the sugar is signaled by a color change from blue Cu(II) to reddish copper(I) oxide. Schweizer's reagent and related complexes with ethylenediamine and other amines dissolve cellulose. Amino acids form very stable chelate complexes with copper(II). Many wet-chemical tests for copper ions exist, one involving potassium ferrocyanide, which gives a brown precipitate with copper(II) salts.
What started about 4000 years after copper smelting was discovered?
57098a0b200fba140036816b
Alloying copper with tin to make bronze
0
False
What are the first datings of Bronze artifacts from the Vinca culture?
57098a0b200fba140036816c
4500 BC
253
False
When did the Bronze Age began in Southeastern Europe?
57098a0b200fba140036816d
3700–3300 BC
390
False
What was the transition between the Neolithic period and the bronze age called?
57098a0b200fba140036816e
Chalcolithic
632
False
What is an alloy of copper and zinc?
57098a0b200fba140036816f
Brass
855
False
Alloying copper with tin to make bronze
0
What started about 3000 years after copper smelting was discovered?
5a836761e60761001a2eb677
True
4500 BC
253
What are the first datings of Platinum artifacts from the Vinca culture?
5a836761e60761001a2eb678
True
3700–3300 BC
390
When did the Silver Age begin in Southeastern Europe?
5a836761e60761001a2eb679
True
Chalcolithic
798
What was the transition between the Neolithic period and the silver age called?
5a836761e60761001a2eb67a
True
zinc
885
What is an alloy of copper and brass?
5a836761e60761001a2eb67b
True
Alloying copper with tin to make bronze was first practiced about 4000 years after the discovery of copper smelting, and about 2000 years after "natural bronze" had come into general use[citation needed]. Bronze artifacts from the Vinča culture date to 4500 BC. Sumerian and Egyptian artifacts of copper and bronze alloys date to 3000 BC. The Bronze Age began in Southeastern Europe around 3700–3300 BC, in Northwestern Europe about 2500 BC. It ended with the beginning of the Iron Age, 2000–1000 BC in the Near East, 600 BC in Northern Europe. The transition between the Neolithic period and the Bronze Age was formerly termed the Chalcolithic period (copper-stone), with copper tools being used with stone tools. This term has gradually fallen out of favor because in some parts of the world the Chalcolithic and Neolithic are coterminous at both ends. Brass, an alloy of copper and zinc, is of much more recent origin. It was known to the Greeks, but became a significant supplement to bronze during the Roman Empire.
What is the level of copper in the human body?
57098b07200fba1400368175
1.4 to 2.1 mg per kg of body mass
140
False
How is copper absorbed in humans?
57098b07200fba1400368176
in the gut
302
False
What is copper bound with when it is sent to the liver?
57098b07200fba1400368177
albumin
353
False
What protein carries the majority of copper in blood?
57098b07200fba1400368178
Ceruloplasmin
556
False
How can the body get rid of excess copper?
57098b07200fba1400368179
via bile
889
False
1.4 to 2.1 mg per kg
140
What is the level of copper in gold?
5a837151e60761001a2eb711
True
in the gut
302
How is copper reflected in humans?
5a837151e60761001a2eb712
True
albumin
353
What is copper bound with when it is sent to the brain?
5a837151e60761001a2eb713
True
Ceruloplasmin
556
What hero carries the majority of copper in blood?
5a837151e60761001a2eb714
True
via bile
889
How can the sand get rid of excess copper?
5a837151e60761001a2eb715
True
Copper is an essential trace element in plants and animals, but not some microorganisms. The human body contains copper at a level of about 1.4 to 2.1 mg per kg of body mass. Stated differently, the RDA for copper in normal healthy adults is quoted as 0.97 mg/day and as 3.0 mg/day. Copper is absorbed in the gut, then transported to the liver bound to albumin. After processing in the liver, copper is distributed to other tissues in a second phase. Copper transport here involves the protein ceruloplasmin, which carries the majority of copper in blood. Ceruloplasmin also carries copper that is excreted in milk, and is particularly well-absorbed as a copper source. Copper in the body normally undergoes enterohepatic circulation (about 5 mg a day, vs. about 1 mg per day absorbed in the diet and excreted from the body), and the body is able to excrete some excess copper, if needed, via bile, which carries some copper out of the liver that is not then reabsorbed by the intestine.
What is the average concentration of copper in ores?
57098d1bed30961900e842e0
0.6%
50
False
What are most commercial ores?
57098d1bed30961900e842e1
sulfides
85
False
What does heating copper ore materials with silica remove?
57098d1bed30961900e842e2
iron
357
False
What happens to the silicate slag  during the flash smelting process?
57098d1bed30961900e842e3
floats on top
523
False
What do the sulfides convert to after the copper matte is roasted?
57098d1bed30961900e842e4
oxides
648
False
0.6%
50
What is the average concentration of copper in holes?
5a8359d6e60761001a2eb5fd
True
sulfides
634
What are most fake ores?
5a8359d6e60761001a2eb5fe
True
iron
357
What does freezing copper ore materials with silica remove?
5a8359d6e60761001a2eb5ff
True
floats on top
523
What happens to the silicate slag during the flash freezing process?
5a8359d6e60761001a2eb600
True
oxides
648
What do the sulfides convert to after the copper matte is frozen?
5a8359d6e60761001a2eb601
True
The concentration of copper in ores averages only 0.6%, and most commercial ores are sulfides, especially chalcopyrite (CuFeS2) and to a lesser extent chalcocite (Cu2S). These minerals are concentrated from crushed ores to the level of 10–15% copper by froth flotation or bioleaching. Heating this material with silica in flash smelting removes much of the iron as slag. The process exploits the greater ease of converting iron sulfides into its oxides, which in turn react with the silica to form the silicate slag, which floats on top of the heated mass. The resulting copper matte consisting of Cu2S is then roasted to convert all sulfides into oxides:
How many metals have a natural color that isn't gray?
57098edded30961900e8430e
four
89
False
What color is pure copper?
57098edded30961900e8430f
orange-red
174
False
What does copper aquire when exposed to air?
57098edded30961900e84310
reddish tarnish
200
False
The energy difference between filled 3d and half-empty 4s atomic shells corresponds to what color of light?
57098edded30961900e84311
orange light
442
False
What color is the metal caesium?
57098edded30961900e84312
yellow
37
False
four
89
How many grains of sand have a natural color that isn't gray?
5a835042e60761001a2eb565
True
orange-red
174
What color is fake copper?
5a835042e60761001a2eb566
True
reddish tarnish
200
What does copper glow when exposed to air?
5a835042e60761001a2eb567
True
yellow
37
What color is the planet caesium?
5a835042e60761001a2eb568
True
Together with caesium and gold (both yellow), and osmium (bluish), copper is one of only four elemental metals with a natural color other than gray or silver. Pure copper is orange-red and acquires a reddish tarnish when exposed to air. The characteristic color of copper results from the electronic transitions between the filled 3d and half-empty 4s atomic shells – the energy difference between these shells is such that it corresponds to orange light. The same mechanism accounts for the yellow color of gold and caesium.
What has copper been used for since ancient times?
570990baed30961900e84338
architectural material
93
False
In recent times what is one interior use copper been expanded to include?
570990baed30961900e84339
antimicrobial indoor products
424
False
What is an important benefit to using copper as an architectural material?
570990baed30961900e8433a
low thermal movement
605
False
How long has copper been used in building construction?
570990baed30961900e8433b
hundreds or thousands of years
225
False
What is the benefit to using copper for things such as counter tops and hand rails?
570990baed30961900e8433c
antimicrobial
424
False
architectural material
93
What has copper been avoided as since ancient times?
5a836e5fe60761001a2eb6cd
True
antimicrobial indoor products
424
What is one interior use copper has been forbidden to include?
5a836e5fe60761001a2eb6ce
True
low thermal movement
605
What is an important danger to using copper as an architectural material?
5a836e5fe60761001a2eb6cf
True
hundreds or thousands of years
225
How long has copper been banned in building construction?
5a836e5fe60761001a2eb6d0
True
antimicrobial
424
What is the danger to using copper for things such as counter tops and hand rails?
5a836e5fe60761001a2eb6d1
True
Copper has been used since ancient times as a durable, corrosion resistant, and weatherproof architectural material. Roofs, flashings, rain gutters, downspouts, domes, spires, vaults, and doors have been made from copper for hundreds or thousands of years. Copper's architectural use has been expanded in modern times to include interior and exterior wall cladding, building expansion joints, radio frequency shielding, and antimicrobial indoor products, such as attractive handrails, bathroom fixtures, and counter tops. Some of copper's other important benefits as an architectural material include its low thermal movement, light weight, lightning protection, and its recyclability.
Identity_(social_science)
Self-image, self-esteem, and individuality relate to what?
5709547eefce8f15003a7e08
A psychological identity
0
False
What aspect or type of identity does Weinreich single out?
5709547eefce8f15003a7e09
ethnic identity
497
False
What psychological concept does Weinreich state as between the past and future?
5709547eefce8f15003a7e0a
identity
169
False
A person's identity is defined as the totality of what?
5709547eefce8f15003a7e0b
one's self-construal
208
False
self-image (one's mental model of oneself), self-esteem, and individuality
36
What does the physical identity relate to?
5a145367c8eab200188dca1f
True
One's ethnic identity
491
What is defined as part of the totality of one's self construal that expresses discord between once construal of past ancestry?
5a145367c8eab200188dca20
True
A psychological identity
0
What relates to once image of others?
5a145367c8eab200188dca21
True
A person's identity
158
What is defined as how one aspires to construe oneself in the past and how one construes oneself in the future?
5a145367c8eab200188dca22
True
A psychological identity relates to self-image (one's mental model of oneself), self-esteem, and individuality. Consequently, Weinreich gives the definition "A person's identity is defined as the totality of one's self-construal, in which how one construes oneself in the present expresses the continuity between how one construes oneself as one was in the past and how one construes oneself as one aspires to be in the future"; this allows for definitions of aspects of identity, such as: "One's ethnic identity is defined as that part of the totality of one's self-construal made up of those dimensions that express the continuity between one's construal of past ancestry and one's future aspirations in relation to ethnicity" (Weinreich, 1986a).
The central task for psychologists, sociologists, and anthropologists is to describe what topics?
5709598aefce8f15003a7e1a
individual and group identity
37
False
ISA stands for what?
5709598aefce8f15003a7e1b
Identity Structure Analysis
500
False
Who developed the ISA?
5709598aefce8f15003a7e1c
Weinreich
488
False
psychologists
89
His central task is to describe social identity?
5a147267c8eab200188dca37
True
ISA
1009
What provides a method that maps how cultural norms are used by the group?
5a147267c8eab200188dca38
True
ISA
1009
What results in the individual evaluating their community?
5a147267c8eab200188dca39
True
idiosyncratic qualities and their group memberships or identifications
301
What don't shift according to circumstances?
5a147267c8eab200188dca3a
True
The description or representation of individual and group identity is a central task for psychologists, sociologists and anthropologists and those of other disciplines where "identity" needs to be mapped and defined. How should one describe the identity of another, in ways which encompass both their idiosyncratic qualities and their group memberships or identifications, both of which can shift according to circumstance? Following on from the work of Kelly, Erikson, Tajfel and others Weinreich's Identity Structure Analysis (ISA), is "a structural representation of the individual's existential experience, in which the relationships between self and other agents are organised in relatively stable structures over time … with the emphasis on the socio-cultural milieu in which self relates to other agents and institutions" (Weinreich and Saunderson, (eds) 2003, p1). Using constructs drawn from the salient discourses of the individual, the group and cultural norms, the practical operationalisation of ISA provides a methodology that maps how these are used by the individual, applied across time and milieus by the "situated self" to appraise self and other agents and institutions (for example, resulting in the individual's evaluation of self and significant others and institutions).[citation needed]
Identity diffusion, foreclosure, and crisis are categories of what?
57095ba39928a81400471546
Weinreich's identity variant
0
False
Those with high levels of identity diffusion are classified as what?
57095ba39928a81400471547
diffused
504
False
Those with low levels of identity diffusion are classified as what?
57095ba39928a81400471548
foreclosed or defensive
543
False
An adolescent going through a family break up turning into an adult in a stable marriage is given as an example of change in what?
57095ba39928a81400471549
the identity variant
637
False
What level of identity diffusion is interpreted as the norm?
57095ba39928a8140047154a
an optimal level
204
False
diffusion
181
The optimal level of what is considered abnormal?
5a148b74a54d42001852923d
True
diffusion
181
What does a person who is foreclosed have high levels of?
5a148b74a54d42001852923e
True
identity variant
641
An adolescent in a stable family turning into an adult stable marriage is given as an example of a change in what
5a148b74a54d42001852923f
True
development and change
1054
What does identity vary have besides in continuity?
5a148b74a54d420018529240
True
Weinreich's identity variant similarly includes the categories of identity diffusion, foreclosure and crisis, but with a somewhat different emphasis. Here, with respect to identity diffusion for example, an optimal level is interpreted as the norm, as it is unrealistic to expect an individual to resolve all their conflicted identifications with others; therefore we should be alert to individuals with levels which are much higher or lower than the norm – highly diffused individuals are classified as diffused, and those with low levels as foreclosed or defensive. (Weinreich & Saunderson, 2003, pp 65–67; 105-106). Weinreich applies the identity variant in a framework which also allows for the transition from one to another by way of biographical experiences and resolution of conflicted identifications situated in various contexts – for example, an adolescent going through family break-up may be in one state, whereas later in a stable marriage with a secure professional role may be in another. Hence, though there is continuity, there is also development and change. (Weinreich & Saunderson, 2003, pp 22–23).
What group has shifted the focus of research in identity?
57095eaaed30961900e8400e
Anthropologists
0
False
What does a researcher have to identify to carry out empirical research?
57095eaaed30961900e8400f
an appropriate analytical tool
197
False
What researcher advocated for focus on the boundaries of ethnic groups rather than the cultural aspects of ethnic groups?
57095eaaed30961900e84010
Barth
327
False
If identity is a virtual site, what do boundaries supply to the virtual site?
57095eaaed30961900e84011
the framework
834
False
Boundaries are frequently used by researchers to help define what?
57095eaaed30961900e84012
identity
292
False
Anthropologists
0
Who has contributed to the debate by making the research more focused?
5a14a2b9a54d4200185292c5
True
Barth
327
What conce what research advocated for focusing on cultural aspects of ethnic groups rather than on boundaries of ethnic groups? Pt is useless for demonstrating how identity works?
5a14a2b9a54d4200185292c6
True
identity
618
What are boundaries not used to define?
5a14a2b9a54d4200185292c7
True
analytical study
596
What did Barth shift the focus of?
5a14a2b9a54d4200185292c8
True
the ethnic boundary that defines the group rather than the cultural stuff that it encloses
421
Cohan and Bray advocated what is the critical focus for investigation?
5a14a2b9a54d4200185292c9
True
Anthropologists have contributed to the debate by shifting the focus of research: One of the first challenges for the researcher wishing to carry out empirical research in this area is to identify an appropriate analytical tool. The concept of boundaries is useful here for demonstrating how identity works. In the same way as Barth, in his approach to ethnicity, advocated the critical focus for investigation as being "the ethnic boundary that defines the group rather than the cultural stuff that it encloses" (1969:15), social anthropologists such as Cohen and Bray have shifted the focus of analytical study from identity to the boundaries that are used for purposes of identification. If identity is a kind of virtual site in which the dynamic processes and markers used for identification are made apparent, boundaries provide the framework on which this virtual site is built. They concentrated on how the idea of community belonging is differently constructed by individual members and how individuals within the group conceive ethnic boundaries.
What are gender identity, ethnic identity, and occupational identity aspects of?
570961b2ed30961900e84036
one's total identity
178
False
How one construes oneself now and in the future differs considerably because of what 2 things?
570961b2ed30961900e84037
age and accumulated experiences
739
False
The young child, the adolescent, the young adult and the older adult are phases of what?
570961b2ed30961900e84038
the life cycle
415
False
The salient experiential markers one uses to define one's past self differ based on the age that one was at what?
570961b2ed30961900e84039
the height of one's powers
488
False
gender identity, ethnic identity, occupational identity and so on
214
What are the parts of one's family identity?
5a146b51c8eab200188dca2f
True
The inclusiveness of Weinreich's definition
0
What is directed at the totality of one's identity during all phases and all times?
5a146b51c8eab200188dca30
True
accumulated experiences
747
What makes how one construes oneself now and in the future similar?
5a146b51c8eab200188dca31
True
life cycle
419
The phases of what our gender identity, ethnic identity and occupational identity?
5a146b51c8eab200188dca32
True
The inclusiveness of Weinreich's definition (above) directs attention to the totality of one's identity at a given phase in time, and assists in elucidating component aspects of one's total identity, such as one's gender identity, ethnic identity, occupational identity and so on. The definition readily applies to the young child, to the adolescent, to the young adult, and to the older adult in various phases of the life cycle. Depending on whether one is a young child or an adult at the height of one's powers, how one construes oneself as one was in the past will refer to very different salient experiential markers. Likewise, how one construes oneself as one aspires to be in the future will differ considerably according to one's age and accumulated experiences. (Weinreich & Saunderson, (eds) 2003, pp 26–34).
What is distinct from the self?
5709633fed30961900e84062
identity
35
False
What can the literature of self-psychology offer insight into?
5709633fed30961900e84063
how identity is maintained
107
False
What have theorists shown interest in relating to the self-concept?
5709633fed30961900e84064
self-esteem
454
False
The I and the Me are two areas of interest in what?
5709633fed30961900e84065
self-psychology
188
False
self
13
What is synonymous with identity question
5a147584c8eab200188dca3f
True
the literature of self-psychology
45
What offers little insight into how identity is maintained?
5a147584c8eab200188dca40
True
the processes by which a self is formed (the "I"), and the actual content of the schemata which compose the self-concept (the "Me").
238
What are the vantage point of group psychology?
5a147584c8eab200188dca41
True
theorists
392
Who has shown this self-concept and self-esteem are the same?
5a147584c8eab200188dca42
True
Although the self is distinct from identity, the literature of self-psychology can offer some insight into how identity is maintained (Cote & Levin 2002, p. 24). From the vantage point of self-psychology, there are two areas of interest: the processes by which a self is formed (the "I"), and the actual content of the schemata which compose the self-concept (the "Me"). In the latter field, theorists have shown interest in relating the self-concept to self-esteem, the differences between complex and simple ways of organizing self-knowledge, and the links between those organizing principles and the processing of information (Cote & Levin 2002).
Self-psychology is compelled to investigate how personal self relates to what?
570964d4ed30961900e8407c
the social environment
113
False
What two factors are focused on when explaining an individual's actions within a group?
570964d4ed30961900e8407d
mental events and states
319
False
What are individual cognition and collective behavior are levels of?
570964d4ed30961900e8407e
identity
452
False
self-psychology
20
What is compelled to investigate how social self relates to the social environment?
5a1492c8a54d420018529259
True
mental events and states
319
What two factors are focused on explaining an individual's actions towards a group?
5a1492c8a54d42001852925a
True
identity
452
What are collective cognition and individual behavior levels of?
5a1492c8a54d42001852925b
True
the question of how the personal self relates to the social environment
64
What focuses on explaining the group's actions?
5a1492c8a54d42001852925c
True
At a general level, self-psychology is compelled to investigate the question of how the personal self relates to the social environment. To the extent that these theories place themselves in the tradition of "psychological" social psychology, they focus on explaining an individual's actions within a group in terms of mental events and states. However, some "sociological" social psychology theories go further by attempting to deal with the issue of identity at both the levels of individual cognition and of collective behavior.
What term have Anthropologists employed to refer to the Eriksonian idea of selfhood?
570966c3ed30961900e840aa
identity
56
False
Modern concerns with ethnicity and social movements in the 1970's led what group to be more interested in identity?
570966c3ed30961900e840ab
anthropologists
275
False
Until recently, what approach was used to refer to qualities of sameness in relation to a person's connection to others?
570966c3ed30961900e840ac
the Eriksonian approach
582
False
Anthropologists have most frequently employed the term 'identity' to refer to this idea of selfhood in a loosely Eriksonian way (Erikson 1972) properties based on the uniqueness and individuality which makes a person distinct from others. Identity became of more interest to anthropologists with the emergence of modern concerns with ethnicity and social movements in the 1970s. This was reinforced by an appreciation, following the trend in sociological thought, of the manner in which the individual is affected by and contributes to the overall social context. At the same time, the Eriksonian approach to identity remained in force, with the result that identity has continued until recently to be used in a largely socio-historical way to refer to qualities of sameness in relation to a person's connection to others and to a particular group of people.
What are the two types of group boundaries?
5709690e200fba1400367f81
inclusive or exclusive
18
False
A marker that imposes restriction on the behavior of others is what kind of boundary?
5709690e200fba1400367f82
exclusive
97
False
A marker that people are ready and willing to associate with is what kind of boundary?
5709690e200fba1400367f83
inclusive
224
False
What boundary is given as an example that can be inclusive or exclusive?
5709690e200fba1400367f84
language
794
False
inclusive or exclusive
18
What are two types of individual boundaries?
5a14a50fa54d4200185292e3
True
the behaviour of others
196
What does an inclusive boundary impose restrictions on?
5a14a50fa54d4200185292e4
True
associate
337
What are people not ready and willing to do within inclusive boundary?
5a14a50fa54d4200185292e5
True
language
794
What foundry is neither inclusive or exclusive?
5a14a50fa54d4200185292e6
True
Boundaries can be inclusive or exclusive depending on how they are perceived by other people. An exclusive boundary arises, for example, when a person adopts a marker that imposes restrictions on the behaviour of others. An inclusive boundary is created, by contrast, by the use of a marker with which other people are ready and able to associate. At the same time, however, an inclusive boundary will also impose restrictions on the people it has included by limiting their inclusion within other boundaries. An example of this is the use of a particular language by a newcomer in a room full of people speaking various languages. Some people may understand the language used by this person while others may not. Those who do not understand it might take the newcomer's use of this particular language merely as a neutral sign of identity. But they might also perceive it as imposing an exclusive boundary that is meant to mark them off from her. On the other hand, those who do understand the newcomer's language could take it as an inclusive boundary, through which the newcomer associates herself with them to the exclusion of the other people present. Equally, however, it is possible that people who do understand the newcomer but who also speak another language may not want to speak the newcomer's language and so see her marker as an imposition and a negative boundary. It is possible that the newcomer is either aware or unaware of this, depending on whether she herself knows other languages or is conscious of the plurilingual quality of the people there and is respectful of it or not.
What identity status paradigm emerged due to the work of James Marcia?
57096d4bed30961900e840f2
Neo-Eriksonian
5
False
The Neo-Eriksonian identity status paradigm focuses on what twin concepts?
57096d4bed30961900e840f3
exploration and commitment
169
False
In the Neo-Eriksonian identity status paradigm, exploration and commitments determine what in large part?
57096d4bed30961900e840f4
any individual's sense of identity
222
False
Neo-Eriksonian
5
What identity status emerged very early on?
5a1476c4c8eab200188dca47
True
exploration and commitment
169
The neo-Eriksonian identity status is based on what opposing concepts?
5a1476c4c8eab200188dca48
True
any individual's sense of identity
222
What is determined largely by the exploration and commitments that one makes regarding certain groups?
5a1476c4c8eab200188dca49
True
certain personal and social traits
352
Exploration and commitment of what determine a person's social identity?
5a1476c4c8eab200188dca4a
True
The "Neo-Eriksonian" identity status paradigm emerged in later years[when?], driven largely by the work of James Marcia. This paradigm focuses upon the twin concepts of exploration and commitment. The central idea is that any individual's sense of identity is determined in large part by the explorations and commitments that he or she makes regarding certain personal and social traits. It follows that the core of the research in this paradigm investigates the degrees to which a person has made certain explorations, and the degree to which he or she displays a commitment to those explorations.
What do many people gain from their identity groups?
57097006ed30961900e8412a
a sense of positive self-esteem
17
False
People favoring those in their group over outsiders, is an example of what?
57097006ed30961900e8412b
discrimination
225
False
Belonging and discrimination are both important to researchers working in what tradition?
57097006ed30961900e8412c
the social identity tradition
433
False
Distinction between in and out groups has been shown to affect people's evaluations of others in work related to what?
57097006ed30961900e8412d
social identity theory
497
False
positive self-esteem
28
Too many people gain from their social groups?
5a149412a54d420018529261
True
why people engage in discrimination
204
What issue regarding discrimination have researchers explained?
5a149412a54d420018529262
True
discrimination
225
It is the term for favoring outsiders?
5a149412a54d420018529263
True
social identity tradition
437
What are researchers working on who focus on discrimination and community alienation?
5a149412a54d420018529264
True
subtle effects on people's evaluations of others
620
Cognitive distinctions between out groups can lead to what?
5a149412a54d420018529265
True
Many people gain a sense of positive self-esteem from their identity groups, which furthers a sense of community and belonging. Another issue that researchers have attempted to address is the question of why people engage in discrimination, i.e., why they tend to favor those they consider a part of their "in-group" over those considered to be outsiders. Both questions have been given extensive attention by researchers working in the social identity tradition. For example, in work relating to social identity theory it has been shown that merely crafting cognitive distinction between in- and out-groups can lead to subtle effects on people's evaluations of others (Cote & Levine 2002).
What approach takes the sense of self and belonging as a fixed thing?
57097200200fba140036800d
a primordialist approach
18
False
The view that identity is based on a political choice of characteristics is rooted in what theory?
57097200200fba140036800e
social constructionist theory
242
False
Primordialist and social constructionist views need to be understood in what contexts?
57097200200fba1400368010
political and historical contexts
558
False
primordialist approach
20
What approach takes the sense of self and as a changing thing?
5a149ddea54d4200185292a7
True
social constructionist theory
242
What theory says that political choice is based on identity characteristics?
5a149ddea54d4200185292a8
True
identity
293
What influences primordalist and social constructionist views
5a149ddea54d4200185292a9
True
political and historical contexts
558
primordalist and social constructionist views need to be viewed outside of what?
5a149ddea54d4200185292aa
True
approaches to the conceptualisation of identity
729
What have primordalist and social constructionist views stopped exerting influence on?
5a149ddea54d4200185292ab
True
The first favours a primordialist approach which takes the sense of self and belonging to a collective group as a fixed thing, defined by objective criteria such as common ancestry and common biological characteristics. The second, rooted in social constructionist theory, takes the view that identity is formed by a predominantly political choice of certain characteristics. In so doing, it questions the idea that identity is a natural given, characterised by fixed, supposedly objective criteria. Both approaches need to be understood in their respective political and historical contexts, characterised by debate on issues of class, race and ethnicity. While they have been criticized, they continue to exert an influence on approaches to the conceptualisation of identity today.
Various research traditions are using what lens to examine phenomena?
57097697ed30961900e84192
the lens of identity
94
False
What stigma do correctional officers have to deal with?
57097697ed30961900e84193
glorified maids
706
False
The implications of identity and identity construction are discussed in what settings?
57097697ed30961900e84194
occupational settings
226
False
What are people in stigmatized jobs forced to create?
57097697ed30961900e84195
an identity they can live with
1021
False
What are the two examples give for justifications and values for occupational choices?
57097697ed30961900e84196
workplace satisfaction and overall quality of life
868
False
occupational settings
226
Where is the implication of identity and identity construction least obvious?
5a14a61aa54d4200185292f5
True
identity construction
189
What becomes increasingly challenging in prestigious jobs?
5a14a61aa54d4200185292f6
True
find ways in order to create an identity they can live with
992
What are people in high-powered forced to do? jobs
5a14a61aa54d4200185292f7
True
blaming the client
1523
What is a desirable alternative to crafting an occupational identity one can live with
5a14a61aa54d4200185292f8
True
The implications are multiple as various research traditions are now[when?] heavily utilizing the lens of identity to examine phenomena.[citation needed] One implication of identity and of identity construction can be seen in occupational settings. This becomes increasing challenging in stigmatized jobs or "dirty work" (Hughes, 1951). Tracy and Trethewey (2005) state that "individuals gravitate toward and turn away from particular jobs depending in part, on the extent to which they validate a "preferred organizational self" (Tracy & Tretheway 2005, p. 169). Some jobs carry different stigmas or acclaims. In her analysis Tracy uses the example of correctional officers trying to shake the stigma of "glorified maids" (Tracy & Tretheway 2005). "The process by which people arrive at justifications of and values for various occupational choices." Among these are workplace satisfaction and overall quality of life (Tracy & Scott 2006, p. 33). People in these types of jobs are forced to find ways in order to create an identity they can live with. "Crafting a positive sense of self at work is more challenging when one's work is considered "dirty" by societal standards" (Tracy & Scott 2006, p. 7). "In other words, doing taint management is not just about allowing the employee to feel good in that job. "If employees must navigate discourses that question the viability of their work, and/ or experience obstacles in managing taint through transforming dirty work into a badge of honor, it is likely they will find blaming the client to be an efficacious route in affirming their identity" (Tracy & Scott 2006, p. 33).
The formation of identity occurs through identifications with whom?
5709783fed30961900e841a6
significant others
83
False
What is it called when someone aspires to the characteristics of significant others?
5709783fed30961900e841a7
benign
254
False
What is it called when someone wants to dissociate from the characteristics of significant others?
5709783fed30961900e841a8
malign
375
False
Dissociating from the characteristics of significant others is a process of what?
5709783fed30961900e841a9
defensive contra-identification
455
False
one's identifications with significant others
56
What does the formation of one's family identity occurs through?
5a144db1c8eab200188dca17
True
characteristics, values and beliefs
294
Disassociating from others what is benign?
5a144db2c8eab200188dca18
True
their characteristics
419
Aspiring to others what is malign?
5a144db2c8eab200188dca19
True
during one's biographical experiences
148
When does formation family occur identity?
5a144db2c8eab200188dca1a
True
However, the formation of one's identity occurs through one's identifications with significant others (primarily with parents and other individuals during one's biographical experiences, and also with "groups" as they are perceived). These others may be benign - such that one aspires to their characteristics, values and beliefs (a process of idealistic-identification), or malign - when one wishes to dissociate from their characteristics (a process of defensive contra-identification) (Weinreich & Saunderson 2003, Chapter 1, pp 54–61).
What may a person display in terms of both exploration and commitments?
570979bfed30961900e841c0
relative weakness or relative strength
28
False
What is the permutation when a person lacks exploration and commitment?
570979bfed30961900e841c1
identity diffusion
174
False
What is the permutation when a person has not chosen goals in the past but is willing to in the future?
570979bfed30961900e841c2
identity foreclosure
194
False
What is the permutation when a person is ready to make commitments but unable to commit?
570979bfed30961900e841c3
identity moratorium
216
False
What is the permutation when a person commits to identity choices?
570979bfed30961900e841c4
identity achievement
241
False
exploration and commitments.
84
What is both relatively weak or relatively strong?
5a148907a54d420018529235
True
identity diffusion
174
What is the permutation when a person embraces exploration and commitment?
5a148907a54d420018529236
True
Moratorium
555
What is a permutation when a person is not ready to make a commitment?
5a148907a54d420018529237
True
achievement
676
What is a permutation when a person cannot make an identity choice wants to commit to them?
5a148907a54d420018529238
True
A person may display either relative weakness or relative strength in terms of both exploration and commitments. When assigned categories, four possible permutations result: identity diffusion, identity foreclosure, identity moratorium, and identity achievement. Diffusion is when a person lacks both exploration in life and interest in committing even to those unchosen roles that he or she occupies. Foreclosure is when a person has not chosen extensively in the past, but seems willing to commit to some relevant values, goals, or roles in the future. Moratorium is when a person displays a kind of flightiness, ready to make choices but unable to commit to them. Finally, achievement is when a person makes identity choices and commits to them.
What is it impossible to do with identity?
57097c64200fba140036806b
define it empirically
153
False
Many scholars confuse identity as a category of practice and what other category?
57097c64200fba140036806c
category of analysis
433
False
What do many scholars demonstrate a tendency towards?
57097c64200fba140036806d
their own preconceptions of identity
541
False
Some scholars try to introduce new concepts to capture the fluid qualities of what?
57097c64200fba140036806e
human social self-expression
1005
False
The idea that identity is made of components that are identified by individuals is what idea?
57097c64200fba140036806f
the idea of identification
1219
False
define it empirically
153
What is it possible to do with identity?
5a149fa3a54d4200185292bb
True
Discussions of identity
176
What discussion has an abiding sameness
5a149fa3a54d4200185292bc
True
to take into account the reality of diverse and ever-changing social experience
1108
How does Cooper suggest treating identity?
5a149fa3a54d4200185292bd
True
identity
1255
What do some scholars say is made up of different components that are identified in interpreted by groups?
5a149fa3a54d4200185292be
True
individual sense of self
1389
The direction of what is achieved by group choice regarding who and what to associate with?
5a149fa3a54d4200185292bf
True
These different explorations of 'identity' demonstrate how difficult a concept it is to pin down. Since identity is a virtual thing, it is impossible to define it empirically. Discussions of identity use the term with different meanings, from fundamental and abiding sameness, to fluidity, contingency, negotiated and so on. Brubaker and Cooper note a tendency in many scholars to confuse identity as a category of practice and as a category of analysis (Brubaker & Cooper 2000, p. 5). Indeed, many scholars demonstrate a tendency to follow their own preconceptions of identity, following more or less the frameworks listed above, rather than taking into account the mechanisms by which the concept is crystallised as reality. In this environment, some analysts, such as Brubaker and Cooper, have suggested doing away with the concept completely (Brubaker & Cooper 2000, p. 1). Others, by contrast, have sought to introduce alternative concepts in an attempt to capture the dynamic and fluid qualities of human social self-expression. Hall (1992, 1996), for example, suggests treating identity as a process, to take into account the reality of diverse and ever-changing social experience. Some scholars have introduced the idea of identification, whereby identity is perceived as made up of different components that are 'identified' and interpreted by individuals. The construction of an individual sense of self is achieved by personal choices regarding who and what to associate with. Such approaches are liberating in their recognition of the role of the individual in social interaction and the construction of identity.
What is identified as determining how a person views him or herself to a significant degree?
57097db3ed30961900e8420c
Gender identity
0
False
What are racial, religious, ethnic, and occupational aspects aspects of?
57097db3ed30961900e8420d
identity
213
False
Identity refers to the capacity for self-reflection and awareness in what scientific study?
57097db3ed30961900e8420e
cognitive psychology
410
False
Gender identity
0
What type of identity is less important in psychology?
5a14558cc8eab200188dca27
True
Gender identity
0
What what does not dictate to a significant degree how one views oneself?
5a14558cc8eab200188dca28
True
racial, religious, ethnic, occupational
231
What other aspects of identity are more important than gender?
5a14558cc8eab200188dca29
True
identity
442
What refers to capacity for self reflection and awareness of others?
5a14558cc8eab200188dca2a
True
Gender identity forms an important part of identity in psychology, as it dictates to a significant degree how one views oneself both as a person and in relation to other people, ideas and nature. Other aspects of identity, such as racial, religious, ethnic, occupational… etc. may also be more or less significant – or significant in some situations but not in others (Weinreich & Saunderson 2003 pp26–34). In cognitive psychology, the term "identity" refers to the capacity for self-reflection and the awareness of self.(Leary & Tangney 2003, p. 3)
Who was one of the earliest psychologists to take an explicit interest in identity?
57097fbb200fba140036809b
Erik Erikson
0
False
What distinction is sometimes referred to as the self?
57097fbb200fba140036809c
ego identity
216
False
The personal idiosyncrasies that separate individuals are called what?
57097fbb200fba140036809d
the personal identity
351
False
What are the 3 names for the collection of a person's social roles?
57097fbb200fba140036809e
the social identity or the cultural identity
451
False
In what tradition is Erikson's work to track identity formation throughout a lifetime?
57097fbb200fba140036809f
the psychodynamic tradition
516
False
Erik Erikson (1902-1994) became one of the earliest psychologists to take an explicit interest in identity. The Eriksonian framework rests upon a distinction among the psychological sense of continuity, known as the ego identity (sometimes identified simply as "the self"); the personal idiosyncrasies that separate one person from the next, known as the personal identity; and the collection of social roles that a person might play, known as either the social identity or the cultural identity. Erikson's work, in the psychodynamic tradition, aimed to investigate the process of identity formation across a lifespan. Progressive strength in the ego identity, for example, can be charted in terms of a series of stages in which identity is formed in response to increasingly sophisticated challenges. The process of forming a viable sense of identity for the culture is conceptualized as an adolescent task, and those who do not manage a resynthesis of childhood identifications are seen as being in a state of 'identity diffusion' whereas those who retain their initially given identities unquestioned have 'foreclosed' identities (Weinreich & Saunderson 2003 p7-8). On some readings of Erikson, the development of a strong ego identity, along with the proper integration into a stable society and culture, lead to a stronger sense of identity in general. Accordingly, a deficiency in either of these factors may increase the chance of an identity crisis or confusion (Cote & Levine 2002, p. 22).
Whose definition of identity closely follows Erikson's?
570980c1ed30961900e8423e
Laing's
0
False
One person's perception of another's perception is an example of what concept?
570980c1ed30961900e8423f
metaperspective of self
175
False
The person, aspects of self, and personal characteristics displayed to others are components of what?
570980c1ed30961900e84240
self/identity
422
False
Erikson's
47
Whose definition of identity closely follows Liang's
5a148cf3a54d420018529245
True
metaperspective of self
175
What concept is one person's perception of their own perception and example?
5a148cf3a54d420018529246
True
self/identity
422
What term includes characteristics displayed towards others?
5a148cf3a54d420018529247
True
the past, present and future components of the experienced self
73
What components of the experience itself did Erickson emphasize?
5a148cf3a54d420018529248
True
metaperspective of self
175
What is help others view you an important part of?
5a148cf3a54d420018529249
True
Laing's definition of identity closely follows Erikson's, in emphasising the past, present and future components of the experienced self. He also develops the concept of the "metaperspective of self", i.e. the self's perception of the other's view of self, which has been found to be extremely important in clinical contexts such as anorexia nervosa. (Saunderson and O'Kane, 2005). Harré also conceptualises components of self/identity – the "person" (the unique being I am to myself and others) along with aspects of self (including a totality of attributes including beliefs about one's characteristics including life history), and the personal characteristics displayed to others.
Who formulated the classifications of strategic manipulator, pastiche personality and the relational self?
57098302ed30961900e8424e
Kenneth Gergen
0
False
In what classification is a person who regards all experiences are role play and becomes alienated from his or her social self?
57098302ed30961900e8424f
The strategic manipulator
146
False
In what classification is a person who gives up the chance for a true self and adopts social perceptions of him or herself?
57098302ed30961900e84250
The pastiche personality
329
False
In what classification is a person who gives up their exclusive sense of self and defines him or herself only in terms of social engagement?
57098302ed30961900e84251
the relational self
532
False
The strategic manipulator, pastiche personality, and relational self are linked to the rise of what culture?
57098302ed30961900e84252
postmodern culture
809
False
Kenneth Gergen
0
Who formulated all new classifications?
5a149516a54d420018529275
True
the strategic manipulator, the pastiche personality, and the relational self
68
What classifications did Kenneth Gregen eliminate?
5a149516a54d420018529276
True
strategic manipulator
150
What type of person sees all of life is a role-playing exercise?
5a149516a54d420018529277
True
The pastiche personality
329
What type of person embraces all aspirations towards a true or essential identity?
5a149516a54d420018529278
True
relational self
536
What perspective embraces individual self and abandoned social engagements?
5a149516a54d420018529279
True
Kenneth Gergen formulated additional classifications, which include the strategic manipulator, the pastiche personality, and the relational self. The strategic manipulator is a person who begins to regard all senses of identity merely as role-playing exercises, and who gradually becomes alienated from his or her social "self". The pastiche personality abandons all aspirations toward a true or "essential" identity, instead viewing social interactions as opportunities to play out, and hence become, the roles they play. Finally, the relational self is a perspective by which persons abandon all sense of exclusive self, and view all sense of identity in terms of social engagement with others. For Gergen, these strategies follow one another in phases, and they are linked to the increase in popularity of postmodern culture and the rise of telecommunications technology.
What concept helps map and define people's experiences of self in society?
5709847a200fba1400368111
the concept of boundaries
49
False
What is a volatile, flexible, and abstract thing?
5709847a200fba1400368112
identity
218
False
Language, dress, behavior, and choice of space are affected by recognition by what group?
5709847a200fba1400368113
other social beings
507
False
What do markers help create?
5709847a200fba1400368114
boundaries
555
False
Markers can be used to exert what on other people?
5709847a200fba1400368115
influence
908
False
self in society
195
What concept helps people define boundaries of people's experiences?
5a14a3c2a54d4200185292cf
True
the use of markers such as language, dress, behaviour and choice of space,
387
What things make identity less evident?
5a14a3c2a54d4200185292d0
True
other social beings
507
Whose recognition is identity depended on
5a14a3c2a54d4200185292d1
True
Markers
528
What do boundaries help create?
5a14a3c2a54d4200185292d2
True
misunderstandings
752
What can cause misinterpretations of the significance of specific markers?
5a14a3c2a54d4200185292d3
True
As a non-directive and flexible analytical tool, the concept of boundaries helps both to map and to define the changeability and mutability that are characteristic of people's experiences of the self in society. While identity is a volatile, flexible and abstract 'thing', its manifestations and the ways in which it is exercised are often open to view. Identity is made evident through the use of markers such as language, dress, behaviour and choice of space, whose effect depends on their recognition by other social beings. Markers help to create the boundaries that define similarities or differences between the marker wearer and the marker perceivers, their effectiveness depends on a shared understanding of their meaning. In a social context, misunderstandings can arise due to a misinterpretation of the significance of specific markers. Equally, an individual can use markers of identity to exert influence on other people without necessarily fulfilling all the criteria that an external observer might typically associate with such an abstract identity.
Himachal_Pradesh
What is the third fastest growing economy in India?
57095c97200fba1400367ed9
Himachal Pradesh
15
False
What is Himachal Pradesh ranked in the highest per capita of Indian States?
57095c97200fba1400367eda
fourth
139
False
What enables Himachal to sell hydroelectricity to other states?
57095c97200fba1400367edb
Abundance of perennial rivers
282
False
What three things is the economy of the state dependent on?
57095c97200fba1400367edc
hydroelectric power, tourism, and agriculture
471
False
What other Indian states does it sell hydroelectricity to?
57095c97200fba1400367edd
Delhi, Punjab, and Rajasthan
378
False
Himachal Pradesh
15
What is the third fastest growing economy in Delhi?
5a360ab6788daf001a5f86c4
True
fourth
139
What is Rajasthan ranked in the highest per capita of Indian States?
5a360ab6788daf001a5f86c5
True
hydroelectricity
337
What dies Punjab sell to other states?
5a360ab6788daf001a5f86c6
True
hydroelectric power, tourism, and agriculture
471
What are three things that Delhi's economy is dependent on?
5a360ab6788daf001a5f86c7
True
one of the wealthiest
227
What is the economy like in Rajasthan?
5a360ab6788daf001a5f86c8
True
The economy of Himachal Pradesh is currently the third-fastest growing economy in India.[citation needed] Himachal Pradesh has been ranked fourth in the list of the highest per capita incomes of Indian states. This has made it one of the wealthiest places in the entire South Asia. Abundance of perennial rivers enables Himachal to sell hydroelectricity to other states such as Delhi, Punjab, and Rajasthan. The economy of the state is highly dependent on three sources: hydroelectric power, tourism, and agriculture.[citation needed]
When did the Chief Commissioners Province of HP come into being?
57095dca200fba1400367ee3
15 April 1948
81
False
When was the State of Himchal Pradesh Act passed?
57095dca200fba1400367ee4
18 December 1970
1376
False
When did Himachal emerge as the 18th state of the Indian Union?
57095dca200fba1400367ee5
25 January 1971
1490
False
When did Himachal Pradesh become a union territory?
57095dca200fba1400367ee6
1 November 1956
876
False
Why did the  Chief Commissioners Province of HP come into being?
57095dca200fba1400367ee7
as a result of integration of 28 petty princely states
95
False
1 November 1956
876
On what date did western Himalaya become a union territory?
5a3610d6788daf001a5f86ec
True
On 18 December 1970
1373
When was the Chief Commissioner's Act passed?
5a3610d6788daf001a5f86ed
True
25 January 1971
1490
When was the state of Nalagarh tehsil formed?
5a3610d6788daf001a5f86ee
True
the 18th state
1532
What is the rank of Simla in the state of India's union?
5a3610d6788daf001a5f86ef
True
as a result of integration of 28 petty princely states
95
Why did Lohara come into being in 15 April 1948?
5a3610d6788daf001a5f86f0
True
After independence, the Chief Commissioner's Province of H.P. came into being on 15 April 1948 as a result of integration of 28 petty princely states (including feudal princes and zaildars) in the promontories of the western Himalaya, known in full as the Simla Hills States and four Punjab southern hill states by issue of the Himachal Pradesh (Administration) Order, 1948 under Sections 3 and 4 of the Extra-Provincial Jurisdiction Act, 1947 (later renamed as the Foreign Jurisdiction Act, 1947 vide A.O. of 1950). The State of Bilaspur was merged in the Himachal Pradesh on 1 April 1954 by the Himachal Pradesh and Bilaspur (New State) Act, 1954. Himachal became a part C state on 26 January 1950 with the implementation of the Constitution of India and the Lt. Governor was appointed. Legislative Assembly was elected in 1952. Himachal Pradesh became a union territory on 1 November 1956. Following area of Punjab State namely Simla, Kangra, Kulu and Lahul and Spiti Districts, Nalagarh tehsil of Ambala District, Lohara, Amb and Una kanungo circles, some area of Santokhgarh kanungo circle and some other specified area of Una tehsil of Hoshiarpur District besides some parts of Dhar Kalan Kanungo circle of Pathankot tehsil of Gurdaspur District; were merged with Himachal Pradesh on 1 November 1966 on enactment of Punjab Reorganisation Act, 1966 by the Parliament. On 18 December 1970, the State of Himachal Pradesh Act was passed by Parliament and the new state came into being on 25 January 1971. Thus Himachal emerged as the 18th state of the Indian Union.
When did Congress secure an absolute majority?
57095e77200fba1400367eed
In the assembly elections held in November 2012
0
False
How many seats did Congress win?
57095e77200fba1400367eee
36 of the 68 seats
109
False
Who was sworn in as HImachal Pradesh's Chief Minister for a record sixth term?
57095e77200fba1400367eef
Virbhadra Singh
171
False
Who administered the oath of office and secrecy?
57095e77200fba1400367ef0
Governor Urmila Singh
423
False
Where was the oath of office and secrecy taken?
57095e77200fba1400367ef1
historic Ridge Maidan in Shimla
472
False
an absolute majority
70
What did the BJP secure in November 2012?
5a361ca8788daf001a5f871e
True
Himachal Pradesh's Chief Minister
203
What was Shimla sworn in as for a 6th term?
5a361ca8788daf001a5f871f
True
the historic Ridge Maidan
468
At what location did congress secure an absolute majorty in the election?
5a361ca8788daf001a5f8720
True
the oath of office and secrecy
389
What did Virbhadra Singh administer at an open ceremony?
5a361ca8788daf001a5f8721
True
36 of the 68 seats
109
How many seats did Himachal Pradesh win to gain an absolute majority?
5a361ca8788daf001a5f8722
True
In the assembly elections held in November 2012, the Congress secured an absolute majority. The Congress won 36 of the 68 seats while the BJP won only 26 of the 68 seats. Virbhadra Singh was sworn-in as Himachal Pradesh's Chief Minister for a record sixth term in Shimla on 25 December 2012. Virbhadra Singh who has held the top office in Himachal five times in the past, was administered the oath of office and secrecy by Governor Urmila Singh at an open ceremony at the historic Ridge Maidan in Shimla.
Himachal is extremely rich in?
57095fd8200fba1400367ef7
hydro electric resources
30
False
Who is the first state in India to have every family have a bank account?
57095fd8200fba1400367ef8
Himachal
0
False
How much hydroelectric power can be generated?
57095fd8200fba1400367ef9
20,300MW
156
False
What has rapidly spread due to economic increase?
57095fd8200fba1400367efa
Luxury hotels, food and franchisees of recognised brands e.g. Mc Donalds, KFC and Pizza hut
673
False
What is current GDP estimated at?
57095fd8200fba1400367efb
₹ 254 billion
501
False
hydro electric resources
30
What are luxury hotels extremely rich in?
5a3621ca788daf001a5f873c
True
a bank account
393
What has International Entrepreneurship rapidly allowed every family to achieve?
5a3621ca788daf001a5f873d
True
₹ 254 billion as against ₹ 230 billion in the year 2004–05
501
What is the increase of franchisees of recognised brands estimated to be in billions?
5a3621ca788daf001a5f873e
True
10.5%
584
By what percentage has business increased in the state?
5a3621ca788daf001a5f873f
True
about 25%
70
What percentage of franchisees of recognised brands have been opened recently?
5a3621ca788daf001a5f8740
True
Himachal is extremely rich in hydro electric resources. The state has about 25% of the national potential in this respect. It has been estimated that about 20,300MW of hydro electric power can be generated in the State by constructing various major, medium, small and mini/micro hydel projects on the five river basins. The state is also the first state in India to achieve the goal of having a bank account for every family.[citation needed] As per the current prices, the total GDP was estimated at ₹ 254 billion as against ₹ 230 billion in the year 2004–05, showing an increase of 10.5%. The recent years witnessed quick establishment of International Entrepreneurship. Luxury hotels, food and franchisees of recognised brands e.g. Mc Donalds, KFC and Pizza hut have rapidly spread.
What is the state well known for?
5709608ded30961900e84022
handicrafts
32
False
The majority of all households in Himachal own a what?
5709608ded30961900e84023
pit-loom
384
False
What is considered pure and used as a ritual cloth?
5709608ded30961900e84024
Wool
394
False
What is Kullu famous for?
5709608ded30961900e84025
shawls with striking patterns and vibrant colours
566
False
What are Kangra and Dharamshala famous for?
5709608ded30961900e84026
Kangra miniature paintings
655
False
handicrafts
32
What is Pashmina well known for?
5a363306788daf001a5f8778
True
Pashmina shawls
139
What product is in demand in Kangra as well as all over the country?
5a363306788daf001a5f8779
True
necessitated wool weaving
315
What did ritual cloth in Himchali cause?
5a363306788daf001a5f877a
True
a pit-loom
382
What does every household in Dharamshala own?
5a363306788daf001a5f877b
True
pure
416
What is desar considered as when used as ritual cloth?
5a363306788daf001a5f877c
True
The state is well known for its handicrafts. The carpets, leather works, shawls, metalware, woodwork and paintings are worth appreciating. Pashmina shawls are a product that is highly in demand in Himachal and all over the country. Himachali caps are famous art work of the people. Extreme cold winters of Himachal necessitated wool weaving. Nearly every household in Himachal owns a pit-loom. Wool is considered as pure and is used as a ritual cloth. The well-known woven object is the shawl, ranging from fine pashmina to the coarse desar. Kullu is famous for its shawls with striking patterns and vibrant colours. Kangra and Dharamshala are famous for Kangra miniature paintings.
What tribes inhibited the area that now constitutes Himachal Pradesh?
57096178ed30961900e8402c
Koilis, Halis, Dagis, Dhaugris, Dasa, Khasas, Kinnars, and Kirats
177
False
What time periods did the Indus Valley civilization flourish?
57096178ed30961900e8402d
between 2250 and 1750 BCE
131
False
Who conquered Kangara?
57096178ed30961900e8402e
Mahmud Ghaznavi
702
False
When did Mahmud Ghanznavi conquer Kangara?
57096178ed30961900e8402f
10th century
759
False
Who marched through the lower states and captured and forts and fought many battles?
57096178ed30961900e84030
Timur and Sikander Lodi
773
False
During the Vedic period
290
During what period did Dagis exist, and then become conquered by the Gupta Empire?
5a360d7c788daf001a5f86d8
True
the Koilis, Halis, Dagis, Dhaugris, Dasa, Khasas, Kinnars, and Kirats
173
What tribes lived in the area that is now Janapada?
5a360d7c788daf001a5f86d9
True
between 2250 and 1750 BCE
131
During what time period did King Harshavardhana rule?
5a360d7c788daf001a5f86da
True
Mahmud Ghaznavi
702
Who conqurered the Indus valley in 1750 BCE?
5a360d7c788daf001a5f86db
True
the Mughals
982
Who did the Dhali Sultanate pay tribute to?
5a360d7c788daf001a5f86dc
True
The history of the area that now constitutes Himachal Pradesh dates back to the time when the Indus valley civilisation flourished between 2250 and 1750 BCE. Tribes such as the Koilis, Halis, Dagis, Dhaugris, Dasa, Khasas, Kinnars, and Kirats inhabited the region from the prehistoric era. During the Vedic period, several small republics known as "Janapada" existed which were later conquered by the Gupta Empire. After a brief period of supremacy by King Harshavardhana, the region was once again divided into several local powers headed by chieftains, including some Rajput principalities. These kingdoms enjoyed a large degree of independence and were invaded by Delhi Sultanate a number of times. Mahmud Ghaznavi conquered Kangra at the beginning of the 10th century. Timur and Sikander Lodi also marched through the lower hills of the state and captured a number of forts and fought many battles. Several hill states acknowledged Mughal suzerainty and paid regular tribute to the Mughals.
What does Himachal have a rich heritage of?
57096228ed30961900e8403e
handicrafts
32
False
What handcrafts do they include?
57096228ed30961900e8403f
woolen and pashmina shawls
59
False
Has the demand increased or decreased for handcrafts?
57096228ed30961900e84040
increased
462
False
What declined under competition?
57096228ed30961900e84041
aesthetic and tasteful handicrafts
287
False
Has the demand increased inside or outside the country?
57096228ed30961900e84042
within and outside the country
472
False
handicrafts
32
What does Kangra have a rich heritage of?
5a362317788daf001a5f8746
True
wood work, horse-hair bangles, wooden and metal utensils
188
What are three examples of handicrafts from Gompa?
5a362317788daf001a5f8747
True
competition from machine made goods and also because of lack of marketing facilities
337
Why did the production of woolen and pashmina shawls decline?
5a362317788daf001a5f8748
True
increased within and outside the country
462
What has happened to the sale of grass shoes in Kangra?
5a362317788daf001a5f8749
True
increased
462
Has the demand for horese-hair bangles increased or decreased?
5a362317788daf001a5f874a
True
Himachal has a rich heritage of handicrafts. These include woolen and pashmina shawls, carpets, silver and metal ware, embroidered chappals, grass shoes, Kangra and Gompa style paintings, wood work, horse-hair bangles, wooden and metal utensils and various other house hold items. These aesthetic and tasteful handicrafts declined under competition from machine made goods and also because of lack of marketing facilities. But now the demand for handicrafts has increased within and outside the country.
Who heads the Himachal Pradesh?
570962a6ed30961900e84048
Deputy Commissioner or District Magistrate
83
False
Who maintains law and order?
570962a6ed30961900e84049
Superintendent of Police
541
False
Who assists the Superintendent of Police?
570962a6ed30961900e8404a
the officers of the Himachal Police Service and other Himachal Police officials.
737
False
Deputy Commissioner or District Magistrate
83
Who is in charge of the Indian Administrative Service?
5a361403788daf001a5f8700
True
A Superintendent of Police
539
Who maintains town municipalities of the district?
5a361403788daf001a5f8701
True
an administrative geographical unit
34
What is the Indian Administrative Service comprised of?
5a361403788daf001a5f8702
True
the Indian Administrative Service
151
What group does a panchayat officer belong to?
5a361403788daf001a5f8703
True
Sub-Divisions
386
What is each geographical unit divided into and governed by a district?
5a361403788daf001a5f8704
True
A district of Himachal Pradesh is an administrative geographical unit, headed by a Deputy Commissioner or District Magistrate, an officer belonging to the Indian Administrative Service. The district magistrate or the deputy commissioner is assisted by a number of officers belonging to Himachal Administrative Service and other Himachal state services. Each district is subdivided into Sub-Divisions, governed by a sub-divisional magistrate, and again into Blocks. Blocks consists of panchayats (village councils) and town municipalities. A Superintendent of Police, an officer belonging to the Indian Police Service is entrusted with the responsibility of maintaining law and order and related issues of the district. He is assisted by the officers of the Himachal Police Service and other Himachal Police officials.
When did the era of planning start in Himachal Pradesh?
57096337ed30961900e84058
1948
48
False
How much was allocated?
57096337ed30961900e84059
₹ 52.7 million
118
False
What kind of plan was it?
57096337ed30961900e8405a
five-year plan
93
False
Where does Himachal Pradesh rank in per capita?
57096337ed30961900e8405b
fourth
427
False
What was more than 50% used on?
57096337ed30961900e8405c
road construction
196
False
1948
48
When did the era of road construction start in India?
5a361ff0788daf001a5f8732
True
₹ 52.7 million
118
How much was allocated for developing far away areas?
5a361ff0788daf001a5f8733
True
50% of this expenditure
156
How much of the expense was for the planning process?
5a361ff0788daf001a5f8734
True
fourth
427
Where does India rank regarding per capita income?
5a361ff0788daf001a5f8735
True
the process of planning and development could not be carried to the people
274
What would happen without a proper five-year plan?
5a361ff0788daf001a5f8736
True
The era of planning in Himachal Pradesh started 1948 along with the rest of India. The first five-year plan allocated ₹ 52.7 million to Himachal. More than 50% of this expenditure was incurred on road construction since it was felt that without proper transport facilities, the process of planning and development could not be carried to the people, who mostly lived an isolated existence in far away areas. Himachal now ranks fourth in respect of per capita income among the states of the Indian Union.
Where did the state place on population chart?
57096446ed30961900e8406a
21st
33
False
Who was 22nd of chart?
57096446ed30961900e8406b
Tripura
75
False
Who was top ranked in population strength?
57096446ed30961900e8406c
Kangra district
98
False
Who was last in population strength?
57096446ed30961900e8406d
Lahaul Spiti
513
False
21st
33
Where on the population chart is the Shimla district census wise, after being followed by Tripura?
5a3625b0788daf001a5f875a
True
22nd place
86
What place was Sirmaur district, that followed the state?
5a3625b0788daf001a5f875b
True
21st
33
Was place is Lahaul Spiti on the population chart, even though it came first?
5a3625b0788daf001a5f875c
True
21.98%
170
What percentage of the population does Kullu district have, being top ranked?
5a3625b0788daf001a5f875d
True
1,507,223
159
If Hamirpur district is top ranked, what is its population?
5a3625b0788daf001a5f875e
True
Census-wise, the state is placed 21st on the population chart, followed by Tripura at 22nd place. Kangra district was top ranked with a population strength of 1,507,223 (21.98%), Mandi district 999,518 (14.58%), Shimla district 813,384 (11.86%), Solan district 576,670 (8.41%), Sirmaur district 530,164 (7.73%), Una district 521,057 (7.60%), Chamba district 518,844 (7.57%), Hamirpur district 454,293 (6.63%), Kullu district 437,474 (6.38%), Bilaspur district 382,056 (5.57%), Kinnaur district 84,298 (1.23%) and Lahaul Spiti 31,528 (0.46%).
What other religions form a small percentage?
570964e1200fba1400367f45
Buddhism and Sikhism
49
False
Who are mainly Buddhists?
570964e1200fba1400367f46
Lahaulis of Lahaul and Spiti
75
False
What is the Muslim population in Himachal Pradesh?
570964e1200fba1400367f47
slightly 2.18%
561
False
Where do Sikhs mostly live?
570964e1200fba1400367f48
towns and cities
154
False
HOw much of the population do Sikh's make up?
570964e1200fba1400367f49
1.16%
186
False
10%
240
What percentage of the Una District is Buddhist?
5a362701788daf001a5f8764
True
2.18%
570
What is the Sikh population of Himachal Pradesh?
5a362701788daf001a5f8765
True
Tibet
531
Where are most Sikh refugees from?
5a362701788daf001a5f8766
True
towns and cities
154
Where do Muslims mainly live in?
5a362701788daf001a5f8767
True
17%
312
What percentage of Muslims are in Shimla, the state capital?
5a362701788daf001a5f8768
True
Other religions that form a small percentage are Buddhism and Sikhism. The Lahaulis of Lahaul and Spiti region are mainly Buddhists. Sikhs mostly live in towns and cities and constitute 1.16% of the state population. For example, they form 10% of the population in Una District adjoining the state of Punjab and 17% in Shimla, the state capital. The Buddhists constitute 1.15% are mainly natives and tribals from Lahaul and Spiti, where they form majority of 60% and Kinnaur where they form 40%, however the bulk are refugees from Tibet. The Muslims constitute slightly 2.18% of the population of Himachal Pradesh.
When did the Gurkhas come into power?
570965c4ed30961900e84096
1768
65
False
Where did the Gurkhas come into power?
570965c4ed30961900e84097
Nepal
47
False
Who lead the Gorkas to siege Kangra?
570965c4ed30961900e84098
Amar Singh Thapa
221
False
In 1806 who did Gorkas defeat with the help of provincial chiefs?
570965c4ed30961900e84099
Sansar Chand Katoch, the ruler of Kangra,
292
False
Who rendered help to the British government during the revolt?
570965c4ed30961900e8409a
rulers of Chamba, Bilaspur, Bhagal and Dhami
1245
False
in the year 1768
53
In what year did Kangra come to power in Nepal?
5a360f18788daf001a5f86e2
True
They consolidated their military power and began to expand their territory
71
What were the Chamba doing with territory in Nepal?
5a360f18788daf001a5f86e3
True
Amar Singh Thapa
221
Who led the Dhami when they laid siege to Kangra?
5a360f18788daf001a5f86e4
True
Maharaja Ranjeet Singh
447
Who was in control of Lahore Darbar in 1809?
5a360f18788daf001a5f86e5
True
1857
933
When was the first Bilaspur war for independence against the British?
5a360f18788daf001a5f86e6
True
The Gurkhas, a martial tribe, came to power in Nepal in the year 1768. They consolidated their military power and began to expand their territory. Gradually, the Gorkhas annexed Sirmour and Shimla. With the leadership of Amar Singh Thapa, Gorkhas laid siege to Kangra. They managed to defeat Sansar Chand Katoch, the ruler of Kangra, in 1806 with the help of many provincial chiefs. However, Gurkhas could not capture Kangra fort which came under Maharaja Ranjeet Singh in 1809. After the defeat, the Gurkhas began to expand towards the south of the state. However, Raja Ram Singh, Raja of Siba State managed to capture the fort of Siba from the remnants of Lahore Darbar in Samvat 1846, during the First Anglo-Sikh War. They came into direct conflict with the British along the tarai belt after which the British expelled them from the provinces of the Satluj. The British gradually emerged as the paramount power. In the revolt of 1857, or first Indian war of independence, arising from a number of grievances against the British, the people of the hill states were not as politically active as were those in other parts of the country. They and their rulers, with the exception of Bushahr, remained more or less inactive. Some, including the rulers of Chamba, Bilaspur, Bhagal and Dhami, rendered help to the British government during the revolt.
What occurs in the climatic conditions of Himachal?
5709667eed30961900e840a0
great variation
39
False
What is the climate like?
5709667eed30961900e840a1
varies from hot and subhumid tropical
115
False
What three seasons does Himachal experience?
5709667eed30961900e840a2
summer, winter, and rainy season
461
False
How long does summer last?
5709667eed30961900e840a3
mid-April till the end of June
513
False
How long does winter last?
5709667eed30961900e840a4
late November till mid March.
722
False
Due to extreme variation in elevation
0
Why is there variation in the climate conditions of Lahaul?
5a361229788daf001a5f86f6
True
summer, winter, and rainy season
461
What three seasons are in Spiti?
5a361229788daf001a5f86f7
True
from mid-April till the end of June
508
How long does summer last in Dharamsala?
5a361229788daf001a5f86f8
True
from hot and subhumid tropical in the southern tracts to, with more elevation, cold, alpine, and glacial in the northern and eastern mountain ranges
122
How does the climate vary in the trans-Himalayan region?
5a361229788daf001a5f86f9
True
very hot
566
How are most parts of Lahaul except in Spiti?
5a361229788daf001a5f86fa
True
Due to extreme variation in elevation, great variation occurs in the climatic conditions of Himachal . The climate varies from hot and subhumid tropical in the southern tracts to, with more elevation, cold, alpine, and glacial in the northern and eastern mountain ranges. The state has areas like Dharamsala that receive very heavy rainfall, as well as those like Lahaul and Spiti that are cold and almost rainless. Broadly, Himachal experiences three seasons: summer, winter, and rainy season. Summer lasts from mid-April till the end of June and most parts become very hot (except in the alpine zone which experiences a mild summer) with the average temperature ranging from 28 to 32 °C (82 to 90 °F). Winter lasts from late November till mid March. Snowfall is common in alpine tracts (generally above 2,200 metres (7,218 ft) i.e. in the higher and trans-Himalayan region).
What does the Himachal legislature consist of?
5709672f200fba1400367f59
elected members and special office bearers such as the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker who are elected by the members
214
False
Who presides over meetings?
5709672f200fba1400367f5a
the Speaker or the Deputy Speaker in the Speaker's absence
371
False
Who is the Judiciary system made up of?
5709672f200fba1400367f5b
Himachal Pradesh High Court and a system of lower courts.
464
False
Who is the head of state appointed by the President of India?
5709672f200fba1400367f5c
The Governor
667
False
How long are the terms of office?
5709672f200fba1400367f5d
5 years, unless the Assembly is dissolved prior to the completion of the term
1131
False
68
1061
How many members are there in the Council of Ministers?
5a36159d788daf001a5f870a
True
5 years
1131
For how many years does a judiciary member serve?
5a36159d788daf001a5f870b
True
The Governor
667
Who is the head of state appointed by the lower courts?
5a36159d788daf001a5f870c
True
The leader of the party or coalition with a majority in the Legislative Assembly
738
Who is appointed as the Chief Minister by the President of India?
5a36159d788daf001a5f870d
True
the Council of Ministers
875
Who are appointed by the MLA with advice from the President of India?
5a36159d788daf001a5f870e
True
Himachal Pradesh is governed through a parliamentary system of representative democracy, a feature the state shares with other Indian states. Universal suffrage is granted to residents. The legislature consists of elected members and special office bearers such as the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker who are elected by the members. Assembly meetings are presided over by the Speaker or the Deputy Speaker in the Speaker's absence. The judiciary is composed of the Himachal Pradesh High Court and a system of lower courts. Executive authority is vested in the Council of Ministers headed by the Chief Minister, although the titular head of government is the Governor. The Governor is the head of state appointed by the President of India. The leader of the party or coalition with a majority in the Legislative Assembly is appointed as the Chief Minister by the Governor, and the Council of Ministers are appointed by the Governor on the advice of the Chief Minister. The Council of Ministers reports to the Legislative Assembly. The Assembly is unicameral with 68 Members of the Legislative Assembly (MLA). Terms of office run for 5 years, unless the Assembly is dissolved prior to the completion of the term. Auxiliary authorities known as panchayats, for which local body elections are regularly held, govern local affairs.
What is Railway Himachal famous for?
5709680e200fba1400367f6d
its narrow gauge tracks railways
31
False
What are the 2 narrow gauge railways in the Railway Himachal?
5709680e200fba1400367f6e
UNESCO World Heritage Kalka-Shimla Railway and another one is Pathankot–Jogindernagar
72
False
What are the other railways being proposed in the state?
5709680e200fba1400367f6f
Baddi-Bilaspur, Dharamsala-Palampur and Bilaspur-Manali-Leh.
564
False
What is being conducted to extend the railway?
5709680e200fba1400367f70
survey
445
False
What is the total length of the railways?
5709680e200fba1400367f71
259 kilometres (161 mi)
195
False
its narrow gauge tracks railways
31
What is Bilaspur-Manali-Leh railway famous for?
5a36242d788daf001a5f8750
True
UNESCO World Heritage Kalka-Shimla Railway and another one is Pathankot–Jogindernagar
72
What are the two tunnels in Railway Himachal?
5a36242d788daf001a5f8751
True
Baddi-Bilaspur, Dharamsala-Palampur and Bilaspur-Manali-Leh
564
What other railways are being proposed by UNESCO?
5a36242d788daf001a5f8752
True
259 kilometres (161 mi)
195
What is the total length of the Una district railway?
5a36242d788daf001a5f8753
True
A survey
443
What is being done to extend the railway line to Delhi?
5a36242d788daf001a5f8754
True
Railway Himachal is famous for its narrow gauge tracks railways, one is UNESCO World Heritage Kalka-Shimla Railway and another one is Pathankot–Jogindernagar. Total length of these two tracks is 259 kilometres (161 mi). Kalka-Shimla Railway track passes through many tunnels, while Pathankot–Jogindernagar gently meanders through a maze of hills and valleys. It also has standard gauge railway track which connect Amb (Una district) to Delhi. A survey is being conducted to extend this railway line to Kangra (via Nadaun). Other proposed railways in the state are Baddi-Bilaspur, Dharamsala-Palampur and Bilaspur-Manali-Leh.
Who is famous for natural beauty?
57096955ed30961900e840c4
Himachal Pradesh
0
False
What years was the Anglo-Gorkha War?
57096955ed30961900e840c5
1814–1816
137
False
What does HIma mean in Sanskirt?
57096955ed30961900e840c6
snow
467
False
What is the literal meaning of Himachal Pradesh?
57096955ed30961900e840c7
In the lap of Himalayas
533
False
Who was one of the great sanskirt scholars of Himachal Pradesh?
57096955ed30961900e840c8
Acharya Diwakar Datt Sharma
575
False
a union territory
326
What was Pradesh declared in 1950?
5a360940788daf001a5f86ba
True
its abundant natural beauty
31
What is  one thing Britain is famous for?
5a360940788daf001a5f86bb
True
the British colonial government
149
What came into power after the war between Himachal and Sanskrit?
5a360940788daf001a5f86bc
True
After the war between Nepal and Britain, also known as the Anglo-Gorkha War (1814–1816)
60
When did the Himalayas become part of the Punjab Province of British India?
5a360940788daf001a5f86bd
True
Acharya Diwakar Datt Sharma
575
Who was responsible for naming the Punjab Province of British India?
5a360940788daf001a5f86be
True
Himachal Pradesh is famous for its abundant natural beauty. After the war between Nepal and Britain, also known as the Anglo-Gorkha War (1814–1816), the British colonial government came into power and the land now comprising Himachal Pradesh became part of the Punjab Province of British India. In 1950, Himachal was declared a union territory, but after the State of Himachal Pradesh Act 1971, Himachal emerged as the 18th state of the Republic of India. Hima means snow in Sanskrit, and the literal meaning of the state's name is "In the lap of Himalayas". It was named by Acharya Diwakar Datt Sharma, one of the great Sanskrit scholars of Himachal Pradesh.
Who has an active community of journalists and publishers?
570969eaed30961900e840ce
Himachal Pradesh
49
False
What are the newspapers famous for?
570969eaed30961900e840cf
published in more than one language, and their reach extends to almost all the Hindi-speaking states
158
False
What is available in Shimla and district headquarters?
570969eaed30961900e840d0
All major English daily newspapers
418
False
What are the newspapers that are in Hindi and read widely?
570969eaed30961900e840d1
Aapka Faisla, Amar Ujala, Panjab Kesari, Divya Himachal
504
False
What has grown significantly?
570969eaed30961900e840d2
Radio and TV
260
False
Himachal Pradesh
49
What has an active community that reads the Ujala daily newspaper?
5a3636d5788daf001a5f878c
True
published in more than one language, and their reach extends to almost all the Hindi-speaking states
158
What are Divya's accomplishments?
5a3636d5788daf001a5f878d
True
All major English daily newspapers
418
What is available in Faisla and Aapka?
5a3636d5788daf001a5f878e
True
Radio and TV
260
What has grown in a remote part of the country?
5a3636d5788daf001a5f878f
True
Aapka Faisla, Amar Ujala, Panjab Kesari, Divya Himachal
504
What are the names of newspapers read widely in English?
5a3636d5788daf001a5f8790
True
Though situated in a remote part of the country, Himachal Pradesh has an active community of journalists and publishers. Several newspapers and magazines are published in more than one language, and their reach extends to almost all the Hindi-speaking states. Radio and TV have permeated significantly. Judging by the number of people writing to these media, there is a very large media-aware population in the state. All major English daily newspapers are available in Shimla and district headquarters. Aapka Faisla, Amar Ujala, Panjab Kesari, Divya Himachal are Hindi daily newspaper with local editions are read widely.
Who was elected as chief minister of the state of India?
57096a98200fba1400367f93
Virbhadra Singh
234
False
How many seats did the BJP win?
57096a98200fba1400367f94
41 of the 68 seats
396
False
Who is BJP's Chief MInister of Himachal Pradesh?
57096a98200fba1400367f95
Prem Kumar Dhumal
469
False
When was he sworn in?
57096a98200fba1400367f96
30 December 2007
541
False
When did the BJP secure a landslide victory?
57096a98200fba1400367f97
December 2007
332
False
the state legislative assembly
159
In 2003, what did the Bharatiya Party win?
5a361a4c788daf001a5f8714
True
the chief minister of the state
265
What was Prem Kumar Dhumal elected as in 2003?
5a361a4c788daf001a5f8715
True
in December 2007
329
When were the Indian National Congress elections held?
5a361a4c788daf001a5f8716
True
in December 2007
329
When did the Indian National Congress win by a landslide?
5a361a4c788daf001a5f8717
True
on 30 December 2007
538
When was Virbhadra Singh sworn in as Chief Minister of Himachal Pradesh?
5a361a4c788daf001a5f8718
True
Governments have seen alternates between Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP) and Indian National Congress (INC), no third front ever has become significant. In 2003, the state legislative assembly was won by the Indian National Congress and Virbhadra Singh was elected as the chief minister of the state. In the assembly elections held in December 2007, the BJP secured a landslide victory. The BJP won 41 of the 68 seats while the Congress won only 23 of the 68 seats. BJP's Prem Kumar Dhumal was sworn in as Chief Minister of Himachal Pradesh on 30 December 2007.
What type of agriculture is in the state?
57096b25200fba1400367f9d
seed potato, ginger, vegetables, vegetable seeds, mushrooms, chicory seeds, hops, olives and fig
118
False
Where is seed potato mostly grown?
57096b25200fba1400367f9e
Shimla, Kullu and Lahaul areas
251
False
Who is the largest vegetable producing district in the state?
57096b25200fba1400367f9f
Solan
432
False
What is the district of Sirmaur famous for?
57096b25200fba1400367fa0
growing flowers, and is the largest producer of flowers in the state
539
False
What is the state deficient in?
57096b25200fba1400367fa1
food grains
33
False
food grains
33
What is Shimla deficient in?
5a361e42788daf001a5f8728
True
the Shimla, Kullu and Lahaul areas
247
In what areas is ginger mostly grown?
5a361e42788daf001a5f8729
True
Solan
432
What is the largest fig producing district in the state?
5a361e42788daf001a5f872a
True
flowers
587
What is the Kullu district also famous for producing?
5a361e42788daf001a5f872b
True
olives, figs, hops, mushrooms, flowers, pistachio nuts, sarda melon and saffron
351
What is Solan making a special effort to produce?
5a361e42788daf001a5f872c
True
Though the state is deficient in food grains, it has gained a lot in other spheres of agricultural production such as seed potato, ginger, vegetables, vegetable seeds, mushrooms, chicory seeds, hops, olives and fig. Seed potato is mostly grown in the Shimla, Kullu and Lahaul areas. Special efforts are being made to promote cultivation of crops like olives, figs, hops, mushrooms, flowers, pistachio nuts, sarda melon and saffron. Solan is the largest vegetable producing district in the state. The district of Sirmaur is also famous for growing flowers, and is the largest producer of flowers in the state.
Who was largely untouched by external customs?
57096ba1ed30961900e840de
Himachal
0
False
What has made the state change very rapidly?
57096ba1ed30961900e840df
technological advancements
139
False
Himachal is?
57096ba1ed30961900e840e0
multireligional, multicultural as well as multilingual state like other Indian states
210
False
What are the common languages spoken?
57096ba1ed30961900e840e1
Hindi, Pahari, Dogri, Mandeali Kangri, Mandyali, Gojri and Kinnauri
349
False
Who makes up the tribal populations?
57096ba1ed30961900e840e2
Kinnars, Pangawals, Sulehria, and Lahaulis
686
False
largely due to its difficult terrain
92
Why was Dogri untouched by external customs?
5a3631dc788daf001a5f876e
True
technological advancements
139
What has caused rapid changes in Gojri?
5a3631dc788daf001a5f876f
True
It is a multireligional, multicultural as well as multilingual state
202
What aspects does Mandeali have like other Indian states?
5a3631dc788daf001a5f8770
True
Hindi, Pahari, Dogri, Mandeali Kangri, Mandyali, Gojri and Kinnauri
349
What are some languages spoken in Gaddis?
5a3631dc788daf001a5f8771
True
Kinnars, Pangawals, Sulehria, and Lahaulis
686
What groups comprise the tribal populations in Dogri?
5a3631dc788daf001a5f8772
True
Himachal was one of the few states that had remained largely untouched by external customs, largely due to its difficult terrain. With the technological advancements the state has changed very rapidly. It is a multireligional, multicultural as well as multilingual state like other Indian states. Some of the most commonly spoken languages includes Hindi, Pahari, Dogri, Mandeali Kangri, Mandyali, Gojri and Kinnauri. The caste communities residing in Himachal include the Khatri, Brahmins of the Hindu Faith and the Sikh Brahmin Caste Bhatra, Rajputs, Gujjars, Gaddis, Ghirth (choudhary), Kannets, Rathis and Kolis, Sood There are tribal populations in the state which mainly comprise Kinnars, Pangawals, Sulehria, and Lahaulis.The people Of Himachal Pradesh are very simple and live a traditional ´Pahari' lifestyle.
When was the state run Nehru Government Engineering College started?
57096cd5200fba1400367fc5
2006 at Sundernagar
1132
False
What are a few pioneer universities in the state?
57096cd5200fba1400367fc6
The Indian Institute of Technology Mandi, Himachal Pradesh University Shimla, Institute of Himalayan Bioresource Technology (IHBT, CSIR Lab)
0
False
What is the most renowned argricultural institues?
57096cd5200fba1400367fc7
CSK Himachal Pradesh Krishi Vishwavidyalya Palampur
722
False
What is Dr. Yashwant Singh Parmar University earned?
57096cd5200fba1400367fc8
unique distinction in India for imparting teaching, research and extension education in horticulture, forestry and allied disciplines
919
False
one of the most renowned hill agriculture institutes
777
What is the Indian Institute of Technology Mandi known for in the world?
5a363446788daf001a5f8782
True
a unique distinction in India
917
What recognition has IEC University earned?
5a363446788daf001a5f8783
True
for imparting teaching, research and extension education in horticulture, forestry and allied disciplines
947
Why has IEC University earned distinction?
5a363446788daf001a5f8784
True
in 2006
1129
When did IEC University start in Sundernagar?
5a363446788daf001a5f8785
True
CSK Himachal Pradesh Krishi Vishwavidyalya Palampur
722
What is one of the most renowned IT institutes?
5a363446788daf001a5f8786
True
The Indian Institute of Technology Mandi, Himachal Pradesh University Shimla, Institute of Himalayan Bioresource Technology (IHBT, CSIR Lab), Palampur, the National Institute of Technology, Hamirpur, Indian Institute of Information Technology, Una the Central University Dharamshala, AP Goyal (Alakh Prakash Goyal) Shimla University, The Bahra University (Waknaghat, Solan) the Baddi University of Emerging Sciences and Technologies Baddi, IEC University, Shoolini University Of Biotechnology and Management Sciences, Solan, Manav Bharti University Solan, the Jaypee University of Information Technology Waknaghat, Eternal University, Sirmaur & Chitkara University Solan are some of the pioneer universities in the state. CSK Himachal Pradesh Krishi Vishwavidyalya Palampur is one of the most renowned hill agriculture institutes in world. Dr. Yashwant Singh Parmar University of Horticulture and Forestry has earned a unique distinction in India for imparting teaching, research and extension education in horticulture, forestry and allied disciplines. Further, state-run Jawaharlal Nehru Government Engineering College started in 2006 at Sundernagar.
What is Doordarshan?
57096d7eed30961900e840f8
state-owned television broadcaster
19
False
What is provided by BSNL and others throughout the state?
57096d7eed30961900e840f9
Dial-up access
591
False
What is available in few cities?
57096d7eed30961900e840fa
Private FM stations
261
False
Who are the cellular phone operators available?
57096d7eed30961900e840fb
BSNL, Reliance Infocomm, Tata Indicom, Tata Docomo, Aircel, Vodafone, Idea Cellular and Airtel
327
False
What is All India Radio?
57096d7eed30961900e840fc
public radio station
239
False
Doordarshan
0
What is the name of the state-owned radio station?
5a363a5c788daf001a5f8796
True
Pahari
100
What language does BSNL provide programs in?
5a363a5c788daf001a5f8797
True
Shimla. BSNL, Reliance Infocomm, Tata Indicom, Tata Docomo, Aircel, Vodafone
319
What are some of the available dial-up providers?
5a363a5c788daf001a5f8798
True
Private FM stations
261
What is available in a few cities like Nepal?
5a363a5c788daf001a5f8799
True
Broadband internet
462
What do Reliance Infocomm and Tata Indicom provide only to certain cities and towns?
5a363a5c788daf001a5f879a
True
Doordarshan is the state-owned television broadcaster. Doordarshan Shimla also provides programs in Pahari language.Multi system operators provide a mix of Nepali, Hindi, English, and international channels via cable. All India Radio is a public radio station. Private FM stations are also available in few cities like Shimla. BSNL, Reliance Infocomm, Tata Indicom, Tata Docomo, Aircel, Vodafone, Idea Cellular and Airtel are available cellular phone operators. Broadband internet is available in select towns and cities and is provided by the state-run BSNL and by other private companies. Dial-up access is provided throughout the state by BSNL and other providers.
Where do 90% of the population live in Himachal Pradesh?
57096e1c200fba1400367fd3
villages and towns
78
False
No single house is without?
57096e1c200fba1400367fd4
a toilet
186
False
What are the villages well connected to?
57096e1c200fba1400367fd5
roads, public health centers, and now with Lokmitra kendra using high-speed broadband
231
False
What is Himachal Pradesh rank according to the 2005 Transparency international survey?
57096e1c200fba1400367fd6
second-least corrupt state in the country after Kerala
457
False
What are the most visited places in the country?
57096e1c200fba1400367fd7
The hill stations
513
False
ranked the second-least corrupt state in the country
446
How is Lokmitra kendra ranked after the government regarding corruption?
5a360c2e788daf001a5f86ce
True
The hill stations of the state
513
What are the most visited places in Shimla?
5a360c2e788daf001a5f86cf
True
The government has successfully imposed environmental protection and tourism development
594
What has the government done to meet maximum urban population standards?
5a360c2e788daf001a5f86d0
True
polyethylene and tobacco products
762
What products does Shimla forbid the use of?
5a360c2e788daf001a5f86d1
True
a toilet
186
What is no health center without in Himachal Pradesh?
5a360c2e788daf001a5f86d2
True
Himachal Pradesh is spread across valleys, and 90% of the population lives in villages and towns. However, the state has achieved 100% hygiene and practically no single house is without a toilet. The villages are well connected to roads, public health centers, and now with Lokmitra kendra using high-speed broadband. Shimla district has maximum urban population of 25%. According to a 2005 Transparency International survey, Himachal Pradesh is ranked the second-least corrupt state in the country after Kerala. The hill stations of the state are among the most visited places in the country. The government has successfully imposed environmental protection and tourism development, meeting European standards, and it is the only state which forbids the use of polyethylene and tobacco products.[citation needed]
Communication
What is nonverbal communication?
57096026ed30961900e84018
conveying meaning in the form of non-word messages
49
False
What is one example of nonverbal communication?
57096026ed30961900e84019
body language
202
False
What is an example of a voluntary intent of a message related to nonverbal communication?
57096026ed30961900e8401a
shaking a hand
392
False
What is an example of an involuntary intent of a message related to nonverbal communication?
57096026ed30961900e8401b
sweating
451
False
What percentage of human communication occurs through nonverbal facial expressions?
57096026ed30961900e8401c
55%
639
False
non-verbal facial expressions
684
What is an example of paralanguage?
59fc0c6da9fb160018f10d7b
True
Nonverbal communication
270
Dopamine levels can show what type of communication?
59fc0c6da9fb160018f10d7c
True
trust
827
Improper communication establishes what?
59fc0c6da9fb160018f10d7d
True
55%
639
What percentage of human communication occurs through foot tapping?
59fc0c6da9fb160018f10d7e
True
conveying meaning in the form of non-word messages
49
What is verbal communication?
59fc0c6da9fb160018f10d7f
True
Nonverbal communication describes the process of conveying meaning in the form of non-word messages. Examples of nonverbal communication include haptic communication, chronemic communication, gestures, body language, facial expression, eye contact, and how one dresses. Nonverbal communication also relates to intent of a message. Examples of intent are voluntary, intentional movements like shaking a hand or winking, as well as involuntary, such as sweating. Speech also contains nonverbal elements known as paralanguage, e.g. rhythm, intonation, tempo, and stress. There may even be a pheromone component. Research has shown that up to 55% of human communication may occur through non-verbal facial expressions, and a further 38% through paralanguage. It affects communication most at the subconscious level and establishes trust. Likewise, written texts include nonverbal elements such as handwriting style, spatial arrangement of words and the use of emoticons to convey emotion.
Why do fungi communicate?
5709630f200fba1400367f29
to coordinate and organize their growth and development
18
False
How do fungi communicate with insects?
5709630f200fba1400367f2a
through biochemicals of biotic origin
333
False
How many primary signalling molecules are known to organize different behavioral patterns?
5709630f200fba1400367f2b
five
734
False
What enables an organism to differentiate between self and other?
5709630f200fba1400367f2c
interpretation processes
973
False
What is an example of "noise" that is filtered out through the interpretation processes?
5709630f200fba1400367f2d
similar molecules without biotic content
1176
False
different behavioral patterns
802
There are four primary signalling molecules that are known to organize what?
59fc2a67a9fb160018f10db7
True
fungal organisms
586
What can't differentiate between molecules taking part in biotic messages or irrelevant messages?
59fc2a67a9fb160018f10db8
True
five
734
How many secondary signalling molecules are known to coordinate?
59fc2a67a9fb160018f10db9
True
biochemicals
376
What substance always triggers the fungal organism to react the same way every time?
59fc2a67a9fb160018f10dba
True
similar molecules without biotic content
1176
What 'noise' can't be filtered out?
59fc2a67a9fb160018f10dbb
True
Fungi communicate to coordinate and organize their growth and development such as the formation of Marcelia and fruiting bodies. Fungi communicate with their own and related species as well as with non fungal organisms in a great variety of symbiotic interactions, especially with bacteria, unicellular eukaryote, plants and insects through biochemicals of biotic origin. The biochemicals trigger the fungal organism to react in a specific manner, while if the same chemical molecules are not part of biotic messages, they do not trigger the fungal organism to react. This implies that fungal organisms can differentiate between molecules taking part in biotic messages and similar molecules being irrelevant in the situation. So far five different primary signalling molecules are known to coordinate different behavioral patterns such as filamentation, mating, growth, and pathogenicity. Behavioral coordination and production of signaling substances is achieved through interpretation processes that enables the organism to differ between self or non-self, a biotic indicator, biotic message from similar, related, or non-related species, and even filter out "noise", i.e. similar molecules without biotic content.
What is one dimension that communication is typically described along?
57096466ed30961900e84072
channel (through which medium)
181
False
Who said that we should examine the impact a message has on the recipient of the message?
57096466ed30961900e84073
Wilbur Schram
280
False
What acts are included in communication between parties?
57096466ed30961900e84074
confer knowledge and experiences, give advice and commands, and ask questions
483
False
The forms of the acts included in communication depends on what?
57096466ed30961900e84075
abilities of the group communicating
666
False
What is one target of communication?
57096466ed30961900e84076
another person or being
823
False
Communication
0
What is described as having many major dimensions?
59fc3ab7a9fb160018f10dd5
True
Communication
0
The destination or target is thought to be the medium of what?
59fc3ab7a9fb160018f10dd6
True
Wilbur Schram
280
Who didn't think a message would have any impact on the receiver?
59fc3ab7a9fb160018f10dd7
True
towards a destination
773
Together, communication content, intent and form make messages that are sent where?
59fc3ab7a9fb160018f10dd8
True
communication
450
Transferring knowledge and experiences are the only types of what?
59fc3ab7a9fb160018f10dd9
True
Communication is usually described along a few major dimensions: Message (what type of things are communicated), source / emisor / sender / encoder (by whom), form (in which form), channel (through which medium), destination / receiver / target / decoder (to whom), and Receiver. Wilbur Schram (1954) also indicated that we should also examine the impact that a message has (both desired and undesired) on the target of the message. Between parties, communication includes acts that confer knowledge and experiences, give advice and commands, and ask questions. These acts may take many forms, in one of the various manners of communication. The form depends on the abilities of the group communicating. Together, communication content and form make messages that are sent towards a destination. The target can be oneself, another person or being, another entity (such as a corporation or group of beings).
What is human communication defined as?
57096733ed30961900e840b0
a system of symbols
251
False
When does language learning primarily occur most intensively?
57096733ed30961900e840b1
during human childhood
481
False
How many human languages are there?
57096733ed30961900e840b2
thousands
517
False
What do human languages use to communicate with others?
57096733ed30961900e840b3
patterns of sound or gesture for symbols
550
False
What is an example of a language that is not restricted to properties of human language?
57096733ed30961900e840b4
programming languages
818
False
human childhood
488
When does language learning not occur most intensively?
59fc14d7a9fb160018f10d85
True
human languages
530
The combination and patterns of letters and gestures are the basis for thousands of what?
59fc14d7a9fb160018f10d86
True
programming languages
818
An example of a language that is restricted to properties of human language is what?
59fc14d7a9fb160018f10d87
True
Effective verbal or spoken communication
0
Listening skills are not a factor of important interpersonal skills in what type of communication?
59fc14d7a9fb160018f10d88
True
Human language
218
Grammars are not used in manipulating the symbols of what?
59fc14d7a9fb160018f10d89
True
Effective verbal or spoken communication is dependent on a number of factors and cannot be fully isolated from other important interpersonal skills such as non-verbal communication, listening skills and clarification. Human language can be defined as a system of symbols (sometimes known as lexemes) and the grammars (rules) by which the symbols are manipulated. The word "language" also refers to common properties of languages. Language learning normally occurs most intensively during human childhood. Most of the thousands of human languages use patterns of sound or gesture for symbols which enable communication with others around them. Languages tend to share certain properties, although there are exceptions. There is no defined line between a language and a dialect. Constructed languages such as Esperanto, programming languages, and various mathematical formalism is not necessarily restricted to the properties shared by human languages. Communication is two-way process not merely one-way.
What is some factors in family communication that could affect communication between family members?
57096d77200fba1400367fcd
family rules, family roles or family dialectics
51
False
What are some time periods that family communication study looks at?
57096d77200fba1400367fce
marriage, parenthood or divorce
335
False
What does trusted communication in a family lead to?
57096d77200fba1400367fcf
a well constructed family
512
False
family members
160
Family roles were found to have no affect on communication between whom?
59fc2023a9fb160018f10d99
True
Family communication study
0
The death of a family member was looked at in what?
59fc2023a9fb160018f10d9a
True
communication behaviors
219
Family members developed theories to understand what?
59fc2023a9fb160018f10d9b
True
well constructed family
514
It is important for researchers to understand communication as a trusted way which leads to a what?
59fc2023a9fb160018f10d9c
True
Family communication study
0
Family rules was not a topic that was covered in what?
59fc2023a9fb160018f10d9d
True
Family communication study looks at topics such as family rules, family roles or family dialectics and how those factors could affect the communication between family members. Researchers develop theories to understand communication behaviors. Family communication study also digs deep into certain time periods of family life such as marriage, parenthood or divorce and how communication stands in those situations. It is important for family members to understand communication as a trusted way which leads to a well constructed family.
How is animal communication defined?
57096fa9ed30961900e84120
any behavior of one animal that affects the current or future behavior of another animal
123
False
What is the study of animal communication called?
57096fa9ed30961900e84121
zoo semiotics
255
False
What is the study of human communication called?
57096fa9ed30961900e84122
anthroposemiotics
291
False
What are some fields of knowledge concerning the animal world that have been revolutionizes in the 21st century?
57096fa9ed30961900e84123
animal emotions, animal culture and learning
701
False
What field of communication has been investigated more thoroughly?
57096fa9ed30961900e84124
vibrational communication
918
False
communication
233
Anthroposemiotics is the study of animal what?
59fc23cca9fb160018f10da3
True
communication
329
Zoo semiotics is the study of human what?
59fc23cca9fb160018f10da4
True
vibrational communication
918
A special field of animal communication that has not been investigated is what?
59fc23cca9fb160018f10da5
True
Animal communication
84
What is defined as any one behavior of all animals that affects the current or future behavior of another animal?
59fc23cca9fb160018f10da6
True
21st
581
Human and animal communication is a rapidly growing field of study in what century.
59fc23cca9fb160018f10da7
True
The broad field of animal communication encompasses most of the issues in ethology. Animal communication can be defined as any behavior of one animal that affects the current or future behavior of another animal. The study of animal communication, called zoo semiotics (distinguishable from anthroposemiotics, the study of human communication) has played an important part in the development of ethology, sociobiology, and the study of animal cognition. Animal communication, and indeed the understanding of the animal world in general, is a rapidly growing field, and even in the 21st century so far, a great share of prior understanding related to diverse fields such as personal symbolic name use, animal emotions, animal culture and learning, and even sexual conduct, long thought to be well understood, has been revolutionized. A special field of animal communication has been investigated in more detail such as vibrational communication.
Who introduced the first major model for communication in 1949?
570971d6ed30961900e8414e
Claude Shannon and Warren Weaver
58
False
What did the first model for communication consist of?
570971d6ed30961900e8414f
sender, channel, and receiver
270
False
What was the sender in the initial model?
570971d6ed30961900e84150
the part of a telephone a person spoke into
316
False
What was the channel in the initial model?
570971d6ed30961900e84151
the telephone itself
377
False
What was the receiver in the initial model?
570971d6ed30961900e84152
the part of the phone where one could hear the other person
420
False
Bell Laboratories
95
In 1945 the first communication model was introduced for what company?
59fc2ce3a9fb160018f10dc1
True
initial model
222
What had two primary parts of a sender and a receiver?
59fc2ce3a9fb160018f10dc2
True
the other person
463
The channel was where one could hear what?
59fc2ce3a9fb160018f10dc3
True
static
536
Shannon and Bell recognized that what interfered with listening to a telephone conversation?
59fc2ce3a9fb160018f10dc4
True
Bell Laboratories
95
Warren Shannon and Claude Weaver worked for whom?
59fc2ce3a9fb160018f10dc5
True
The first major model for communication was introduced by Claude Shannon and Warren Weaver for Bell Laboratories in 1949 The original model was designed to mirror the functioning of radio and telephone technologies. Their initial model consisted of three primary parts: sender, channel, and receiver. The sender was the part of a telephone a person spoke into, the channel was the telephone itself, and the receiver was the part of the phone where one could hear the other person. Shannon and Weaver also recognized that often there is static that interferes with one listening to a telephone conversation, which they deemed noise.
A simple model is also referred to as what?
57097302ed30961900e84174
transmission model
44
False
What kind of message is sent in a simple model?
57097302ed30961900e84175
a message in natural language
127
False
In what form is the information or content sent in a simple model?
57097302ed30961900e84176
spoken language
183
False
How is information sent through a simple model?
57097302ed30961900e84177
from an emisor/ sender/ encoder
200
False
What are the strengths of the simple model?
57097302ed30961900e84178
simplicity, generality, and quantifiability
417
False
simplicity, generality, and quantifiability
417
What are the weaknesses of this model?
59fc36eaa9fb160018f10dcb
True
structured this model
495
Claude Weaver did what based on those elements?
59fc36eaa9fb160018f10dcc
True
destination/ receiver/ decoder
237
A complex model is a message sent from an emisor/ sender/ encoder to a what?
59fc36eaa9fb160018f10dcd
True
natural language
140
What type of message is sent in a complex model?
59fc36eaa9fb160018f10dce
True
Claude Shannon and Warren Weaver
462
Who invented this model?
59fc36eaa9fb160018f10dcf
True
In a simple model, often referred to as the transmission model or standard view of communication, information or content (e.g. a message in natural language) is sent in some form (as spoken language) from an emisor/ sender/ encoder to a destination/ receiver/ decoder. This common conception of communication simply views communication as a means of sending and receiving information. The strengths of this model are simplicity, generality, and quantifiability. Claude Shannon and Warren Weaver structured this model based on the following elements:
How are the sender and receiver connected in a slightly more complex form of communication model?
570979ba200fba1400368043
reciprocally
67
False
What is the model of communication in which the sender and receiver are connected reciprocally called?
570979ba200fba1400368044
constitutive model or constructionist view
139
False
What is communication viewed as?
570979ba200fba1400368045
a conduit
322
False
What is something that may alter the intended meaning of a message?
570979ba200fba1400368046
different regional traditions
625
False
What is something that may cause the reception and decoding of the content of a message to be faulty?
570979ba200fba1400368047
communication noise
755
False
the model
1300
Code books are represented in what?
59fc3e7ba9fb160018f10ddf
True
the constitutive model or constructionist view
135
The first attitude of communication is referred to as what?
59fc3e7ba9fb160018f10de0
True
a speech act
521
Occasionally instances of communication are called what?
59fc3e7ba9fb160018f10de1
True
personal filters
548
A sender or receiver's what never varies regardless of culture or gender?
59fc3e7ba9fb160018f10de2
True
personal filters
548
A person's age may change a sender or receiver's what?
59fc3e7ba9fb160018f10de3
True
In a slightly more complex form a sender and a receiver are linked reciprocally. This second attitude of communication, referred to as the constitutive model or constructionist view, focuses on how an individual communicates as the determining factor of the way the message will be interpreted. Communication is viewed as a conduit; a passage in which information travels from one individual to another and this information becomes separate from the communication itself. A particular instance of communication is called a speech act. The sender's personal filters and the receiver's personal filters may vary depending upon different regional traditions, cultures, or gender; which may alter the intended meaning of message contents. In the presence of "communication noise" on the transmission channel (air, in this case), reception and decoding of content may be faulty, and thus the speech act may not achieve the desired effect. One problem with this encode-transmit-receive-decode model is that the processes of encoding and decoding imply that the sender and receiver each possess something that functions as a codebook, and that these two code books are, at the very least, similar if not identical. Although something like code books is implied by the model, they are nowhere represented in the model, which creates many conceptual difficulties.
What is a form of communication observed within plants?
57097c1c200fba1400368061
between plant cells
81
False
What part of a plant communicates with rhizome bacteria, fungi, and insects within the soil?
57097c1c200fba1400368062
roots
228
False
How are the plant roots able to communicate with rhizome bacteria, fungi, and insects within the soil?
57097c1c200fba1400368063
the decentralized "nervous system" of plants
427
False
What is the meaning of the word neuron in Greek?
57097c1c200fba1400368064
vegetable fiber
528
False
How do plants communicate to warn nearby plants of danger?
57097c1c200fba1400368065
via volatiles
677
False
rhizome bacteria, fungi, and insects
251
The plants leaves communicates with what in the soil?
59fc2657a9fb160018f10dad
True
nervous
446
This centralized system makes plant interactions possible?
59fc2657a9fb160018f10dae
True
vegetable fiber
528
The Hebrew word for 'neuron' is what?
59fc2657a9fb160018f10daf
True
volatiles
681
During herbivory attack behavior what doesn't allow plants to communicate?
59fc2657a9fb160018f10db0
True
genomes
906
What can't plants overwrite when they are stressed?
59fc2657a9fb160018f10db1
True
Communication is observed within the plant organism, i.e. within plant cells and between plant cells, between plants of the same or related species, and between plants and non-plant organisms, especially in the root zone. Plant roots communicate with rhizome bacteria, fungi, and insects within the soil. These interactions are governed by syntactic, pragmatic, and semantic rules,[citation needed] and are possible because of the decentralized "nervous system" of plants. The original meaning of the word "neuron" in Greek is "vegetable fiber" and recent research has shown that most of the microorganism plant communication processes are neuron-like. Plants also communicate via volatiles when exposed to herbivory attack behavior, thus warning neighboring plants. In parallel they produce other volatiles to attract parasites which attack these herbivores. In stress situations plants can overwrite the genomes they inherited from their parents and revert to that of their grand- or great-grandparents.[citation needed]
What describes communication as creative and dynamic rather than discrete?
57097de3200fba1400368087
Theories of coregulation
0
False
Who theorized that the types of media people use to communicate will offer different possibilities for the shape of society?
57097de3200fba1400368088
Harold Innis
165
False
What ancient civilization did Harold Innis use as an example of his theory?
57097de3200fba1400368089
Egypt
424
False
What did Harold Innis call papyrus?
57097de3200fba140036808a
Space Binding
566
False
What did Space Binding make possible for the ancient Egyptian civilizations?
57097de3200fba140036808b
transmission of written orders across space, empires
603
False
media
151
Wark and McKenzie had a theory that people use different types of what to communicate?
59fc4121a9fb160018f10de9
True
Harold Innis
165
Ancient Rome was the famous example of the theory of whom?
59fc4121a9fb160018f10dea
True
in their society
943
Using the media to water, people can change and shape communication where?
59fc4121a9fb160018f10deb
True
Theories of coregulation
0
Describing communication as a creative but not a dynamic continuous process is the definition of what?
59fc4121a9fb160018f10dec
True
the shape and durability of society
321
Using the same media for communication will offer possibilities for what?
59fc4121a9fb160018f10ded
True
Theories of coregulation describe communication as a creative and dynamic continuous process, rather than a discrete exchange of information. Canadian media scholar Harold Innis had the theory that people use different types of media to communicate and which one they choose to use will offer different possibilities for the shape and durability of society (Wark, McKenzie 1997). His famous example of this is using ancient Egypt and looking at the ways they built themselves out of media with very different properties stone and papyrus. Papyrus is what he called 'Space Binding'. it made possible the transmission of written orders across space, empires and enables the waging of distant military campaigns and colonial administration. The other is stone and 'Time Binding', through the construction of temples and the pyramids can sustain their authority generation to generation, through this media they can change and shape communication in their society (Wark, McKenzie 1997).
Why do communications professionals typically specialize in only one or two areas of communication?
57097f61ed30961900e8422c
it is difficult to develop such a broad range of skills
168
False
What is one of the most important qualifications for a communications professional to have?
57097f61ed30961900e8422d
excellent writing ability
450
False
What kind of companies may engage in only a few types of communications?
57097f61ed30961900e8422e
Companies with limited resources
0
False
Good people skills is a qualification that is important to what profession?
57097f61ed30961900e8422f
communications
405
False
communications professionals
405
It is not necessary to have critical and strategical thinking abilities to do what job?
59fc1bffa9fb160018f10d8f
True
communications
146
All companies or organizations employ a full spectrum of what?
59fc1bffa9fb160018f10d90
True
excellent writing ability
450
One of the least important qualifications to be a communications professional is what?
59fc1bffa9fb160018f10d91
True
communications professionals
225
Who is always able to master a broad range of skills?
59fc1bffa9fb160018f10d92
True
the capacity to think critically and strategically
503
Besides excellent writing abilities and good 'people' skills, all company employees should  have what other skill?
59fc1bffa9fb160018f10d93
True
Companies with limited resources may choose to engage in only a few of these activities, while larger organizations may employ a full spectrum of communications. Since it is difficult to develop such a broad range of skills, communications professionals often specialize in one or two of these areas but usually have at least a working knowledge of most of them. By far, the most important qualifications communications professionals can possess are excellent writing ability, good 'people' skills, and the capacity to think critically and strategically.
Grape
What color are white grapes?
57096282200fba1400367f1f
green
162
False
What gene makes grapes purple?
57096282200fba1400367f20
anthocyanins
305
False
What shape do grapes usually resemble?
57096282200fba1400367f21
prolate spheroid
583
False
What type of food are grapes?
57096282200fba1400367f22
fruit
21
False
How many grapes are generally in a cluster?
57096282200fba1400367f23
15 to 300
52
False
Grapes are a type of fruit that grow in clusters of 15 to 300, and can be crimson, black, dark blue, yellow, green, orange, and pink. "White" grapes are actually green in color, and are evolutionarily derived from the purple grape. Mutations in two regulatory genes of white grapes turn off production of anthocyanins, which are responsible for the color of purple grapes. Anthocyanins and other pigment chemicals of the larger family of polyphenols in purple grapes are responsible for the varying shades of purple in red wines. Grapes are typically an ellipsoid shape resembling a prolate spheroid.
How long ago were grapes first cultivated?
5709644d200fba1400367f3b
6,000–8,000 years ago
48
False
What microorganisms are naturally found on a grapes skin?
5709644d200fba1400367f3c
Yeast
88
False
Where is the oldest know winery located?
5709644d200fba1400367f3d
Armenia
407
False
What city is Syrah red wine believed to have been named after?
5709644d200fba1400367f3e
Shiraz
627
False
How do we know that wine was made in ancient Egypt?
5709644d200fba1400367f3f
hieroglyphics
733
False
The cultivation of the domesticated grape began 6,000–8,000 years ago in the Near East. Yeast, one of the earliest domesticated microorganisms, occurs naturally on the skins of grapes, leading to the innovation of alcoholic drinks such as wine. The earliest archeological evidence for a dominant position of wine-making in human culture dates from 8,000 years ago in Georgia. The oldest winery was found in Armenia, dating to around 4000 BC.[citation needed] By the 9th century AD the city of Shiraz was known to produce some of the finest wines in the Middle East. Thus it has been proposed that Syrah red wine is named after Shiraz, a city in Persia where the grape was used to make Shirazi wine.[citation needed] Ancient Egyptian hieroglyphics record the cultivation of purple grapes,[citation needed] and history attests to the ancient Greeks, Phoenicians, and Romans growing purple grapes for both eating and wine production[citation needed]. The growing of grapes would later spread to other regions in Europe, as well as North Africa, and eventually in North America.
What do people in France eat more of that in most western countries?
570970f4ed30961900e84146
animal fat
123
False
What kind of the wine is regularly consumed by the French?
570970f4ed30961900e84147
red wine
313
False
What is the phenomenon that shows that the French have less heart disease, even though they eat more animal fat?
570970f4ed30961900e84148
the French paradox
221
False
What is a potential health benefit from drinking alcohol?
570970f4ed30961900e84149
vasodilation
415
False
Comparing diets among Western countries, researchers have discovered that although the French tend to eat higher levels of animal fat, the incidence of heart disease remains low in France. This phenomenon has been termed the French paradox, and is thought to occur from protective benefits of regularly consuming red wine. Apart from potential benefits of alcohol itself, including reduced platelet aggregation and vasodilation, polyphenols (e.g., resveratrol) mainly in the grape skin provide other suspected health benefits, such as:
What juice is made when grapes are crushed and blended?
5709720ded30961900e84162
Grape juice
0
False
What kind of grapes are made into vinegar?
5709720ded30961900e84163
fermented
110
False
What is the most common grape used to make juice in North America?
5709720ded30961900e84164
Concord grapes
491
False
What are Sultana grapes known as in California?
5709720ded30961900e84165
Thompson Seedless
710
False
What types of grapes are commonly used to make white grape juice?
5709720ded30961900e84166
Niagara grapes
553
False
Grape juice is obtained from crushing and blending grapes into a liquid. The juice is often sold in stores or fermented and made into wine, brandy, or vinegar. Grape juice that has been pasteurized, removing any naturally occurring yeast, will not ferment if kept sterile, and thus contains no alcohol. In the wine industry, grape juice that contains 7–23% of pulp, skins, stems and seeds is often referred to as "must". In North America, the most common grape juice is purple and made from Concord grapes, while white grape juice is commonly made from Niagara grapes, both of which are varieties of native American grapes, a different species from European wine grapes. In California, Sultana (known there as Thompson Seedless) grapes are sometimes diverted from the raisin or table market to produce white juice.
What type of wine is fermented with grape skin?
57097981ed30961900e841b8
red wine
131
False
What type of wine is fermented after the grapes skin has been removed?
57097981ed30961900e841b9
white wine
494
False
What substance is absorbed by wine when grapes are fermented with their skins?
57097981ed30961900e841ba
resveratrol
466
False
What type of wine is believed to have more health benefits?
57097981ed30961900e841bb
Red wine
0
False
Red wine may offer health benefits more so than white because potentially beneficial compounds are present in grape skin, and only red wine is fermented with skins. The amount of fermentation time a wine spends in contact with grape skins is an important determinant of its resveratrol content. Ordinary non-muscadine red wine contains between 0.2 and 5.8 mg/L, depending on the grape variety, because it is fermented with the skins, allowing the wine to absorb the resveratrol. By contrast, a white wine contains lower phenolic contents because it is fermented after removal of skins.
What are grapes that are eaten raw classified as?
57097b59ed30961900e841e8
table grapes
147
False
What are grapes that are used to make wine classified as?
57097b59ed30961900e841e9
wine grapes
183
False
What specie are table grapes and wine grapes?
57097b59ed30961900e841ea
Vitis vinifera
250
False
What Classification of grapes are typically large and seedless?
57097b59ed30961900e841eb
Table grape
360
False
What percentage of a wine grape is sugar when it is harvested?
57097b59ed30961900e841ec
approximately 24%
717
False
Commercially cultivated grapes can usually be classified as either table or wine grapes, based on their intended method of consumption: eaten raw (table grapes) or used to make wine (wine grapes). While almost all of them belong to the same species, Vitis vinifera, table and wine grapes have significant differences, brought about through selective breeding. Table grape cultivars tend to have large, seedless fruit (see below) with relatively thin skin. Wine grapes are smaller, usually seeded, and have relatively thick skins (a desirable characteristic in winemaking, since much of the aroma in wine comes from the skin). Wine grapes also tend to be very sweet: they are harvested at the time when their juice is approximately 24% sugar by weight. By comparison, commercially produced "100% grape juice", made from table grapes, is usually around 15% sugar by weight.
When are grapes first mentioned in the Bible?
57097d78200fba140036807d
Genesis 9:20–21
75
False
Who was the Greek and Roman god of agriculture?
57097d78200fba140036807e
Dionysus
401
False
Whose blood do grapes usually represent in Christian art?
57097d78200fba140036807f
Christ
751
False
Which book of the Bible talks about the use of wine during Jewish feasts?
57097d78200fba1400368080
Deuteronomy
228
False
Who in the Bible first grew grapes on their farm?
57097d78200fba1400368081
Noah
46
False
In the Bible, grapes are first mentioned when Noah grows them on his farm (Genesis 9:20–21). Instructions concerning wine are given in the book of Proverbs and in the book of Isaiah, such as in Proverbs 20:1 and Isaiah 5:20–25. Deuteronomy 18:3–5,14:22–27,16:13–15 tell of the use of wine during Jewish feasts. Grapes were also significant to both the Greeks and Romans, and their god of agriculture, Dionysus, was linked to grapes and wine, being frequently portrayed with grape leaves on his head. Grapes are especially significant for Christians, who since the Early Church have used wine in their celebration of the Eucharist. Views on the significance of the wine vary between denominations. In Christian art, grapes often represent the blood of Christ, such as the grape leaves in Caravaggio’s John the Baptist.
How many seedless grape sources are there for commercial cultivators?
570983a2200fba14003680f3
three
115
False
How many varieties of seedless grapes are there?
570983a2200fba14003680f4
more than a dozen
245
False
What species of grape are grown by Thompson Seedless?
570983a2200fba14003680f5
Vitis vinifera
209
False
What type of climate are Benjamin Gunnels's Prime seedless grapes specifically cultivated for?
570983a2200fba14003680f6
cold
468
False
What species of grape are grown by Black Monukka?
570983a2200fba14003680f7
Vitis vinifera
209
False
There are several sources of the seedlessness trait, and essentially all commercial cultivators get it from one of three sources: Thompson Seedless, Russian Seedless, and Black Monukka, all being cultivars of Vitis vinifera. There are currently more than a dozen varieties of seedless grapes. Several, such as Einset Seedless, Benjamin Gunnels's Prime seedless grapes, Reliance, and Venus, have been specifically cultivated for hardiness and quality in the relatively cold climates of northeastern United States and southern Ontario.
What are the most abundant polyphenolics in purple grapes?
570985f3200fba1400368139
Anthocyanins
0
False
What is the main phenolic in white grapes?
570985f3200fba140036813a
flavan-3-ols
72
False
What is the laboratory index of antioxidant strength in grapes known as?
570985f3200fba140036813b
Total phenolic content
153
False
What content of a grapes skin can be affected by soil composition, climate, and cultivation practices?
570985f3200fba140036813c
Phenolic content
488
False
Why causes antioxidant strength to be higher in purple grapes?
570985f3200fba140036813d
anthocyanins
338
False
Anthocyanins tend to be the main polyphenolics in purple grapes whereas flavan-3-ols (i.e. catechins) are the more abundant phenolic in white varieties. Total phenolic content, a laboratory index of antioxidant strength, is higher in purple varieties due almost entirely to anthocyanin density in purple grape skin compared to absence of anthocyanins in white grape skin. It is these anthocyanins that are attracting the efforts of scientists to define their properties for human health. Phenolic content of grape skin varies with cultivar, soil composition, climate, geographic origin, and cultivation practices or exposure to diseases, such as fungal infections.
What church uses wine to celebrate the Eucharist?
57098884ed30961900e842b8
The Catholic Church
0
False
When was Jesus Christ known to have used wine in celebration?
57098884ed30961900e842b9
the Last Supper
161
False
Where in the Code of Canon Law does it say that wine must be natural and not corrupt?
57098884ed30961900e842ba
Canon 924
516
False
What may a priest use in place of wine for consecration for health reasons?
57098884ed30961900e842bb
grape juice
683
False
What is the Catholic dogma known as that believes that consecrated bread and wine from the Last Supper literally became the body and blood of Jesus Christ?
57098884ed30961900e842bc
transubstantiation
303
False
The Catholic Church uses wine in the celebration of the Eucharist because it is part of the tradition passed down through the ages starting with Jesus Christ at the Last Supper, where Catholics believe the consecrated bread and wine literally become the body and blood of Jesus Christ, a dogma known as transubstantiation. Wine is used (not grape juice) both due to its strong Scriptural roots, and also to follow the tradition set by the early Christian Church. The Code of Canon Law of the Catholic Church (1983), Canon 924 says that the wine used must be natural, made from grapes of the vine, and not corrupt. In some circumstances, a priest may obtain special permission to use grape juice for the consecration, however this is extremely rare and typically requires sufficient impetus to warrant such a dispensation, such as personal health of the priest.
Computer_security
What must an operator deviate from to harm the computer?
57096f48ed30961900e84116
secure procedures
531
False
What is computer security also known as?
57096f48ed30961900e84117
cybersecurity or IT security
33
False
What is the protection of information systems?
57096f48ed30961900e84118
Computer security
0
False
What are the ways an operator can malpractice?
57096f48ed30961900e84119
intentional, accidental, or due to them being tricked
457
False
What is the practice that includes controlling physical access to hardware?
57096f48ed30961900e8411a
Computer security
0
False
the protection of information systems from theft or damage
66
What is the necessity of having an IT?
5a5540ac134fea001a0e19f8
True
protecting against harm
329
What can be caused by neglecting a computer security system?
5a5540ac134fea001a0e19f9
True
the software, and to the information on them,
142
What does the IT security protect?
5a5540ac134fea001a0e19fa
True
data and code injection, and due to malpractice by operators
387
How can a computer be attacked?
5a5540ac134fea001a0e19fb
True
controlling physical access to the hardware, as well as protecting against harm that may come via network access
273
How does IT security work?
5a5540ac134fea001a0e19fc
True
Computer security
0
What is the theft or damage to hardware or software?
5a5cb75b5e8782001a9d5d6e
True
secure
531
Protecting a device from harm requires deviating from what procedures?
5a5cb75b5e8782001a9d5d6f
True
services
238
What does computer security misdirect?
5a5cb75b5e8782001a9d5d70
True
data and code injection
387
What types of harm can come through network access?
5a5cb75b5e8782001a9d5d71
True
intentional, accidental, or due to them being tricked
457
Why would IT security partake in malpractice?
5a5cb75b5e8782001a9d5d72
True
Computer security, also known as cybersecurity or IT security, is the protection of information systems from theft or damage to the hardware, the software, and to the information on them, as well as from disruption or misdirection of the services they provide. It includes controlling physical access to the hardware, as well as protecting against harm that may come via network access, data and code injection, and due to malpractice by operators, whether intentional, accidental, or due to them being tricked into deviating from secure procedures.
What are attacks designed to make a machine or network unavailable to its intended users?
57097050200fba1400367fef
Denial of service attacks
0
False
What does deliberately entering the wrong password enough consecutive times cause?
57097050200fba1400367ff0
the victim account to be locked
246
False
What are attacks where innocent systems are fooled into sending traffic to the victom called?
57097050200fba1400367ff1
reflection and amplification attacks
751
False
What does DDoS stand for?
57097050200fba1400367ff2
Distributed denial of service
478
False
How can a network attack from a single IP address be blocked?
57097050200fba1400367ff3
by adding a new firewall rule
433
False
cause the victim account to be locked
240
What happens if an attacker enters the wrong password into an account enough times?
5a554385134fea001a0e1a02
True
deny service to individual victims
126
What is the point of making network resources unavailable to users?
5a554385134fea001a0e1a03
True
the attack comes from a large number of points
543
Why is it difficult to defend against DDos?
5a554385134fea001a0e1a04
True
they may overload the capabilities of a machine or network and block all users at once
282
Other than being locked out what other methods are used in DDos?
5a554385134fea001a0e1a05
True
from the zombie computers of a botnet
657
What causes multiple attacks?
5a554385134fea001a0e1a06
True
Denial of service
0
What allows a machine to be accessed by its user?
5a5cb8315e8782001a9d5d78
True
deliberately entering a wrong password enough consecutive times
173
What is done to a password to lock out all users at once?
5a5cb8315e8782001a9d5d79
True
adding a new firewall rule
436
How is a DDoS from multiple locations defended?
5a5cb8315e8782001a9d5d7a
True
Distributed denial of service
478
What is an IP address?
5a5cb8315e8782001a9d5d7b
True
innocent systems
795
What are zombie computers on a botnet?
5a5cb8315e8782001a9d5d7c
True
Denial of service attacks are designed to make a machine or network resource unavailable to its intended users. Attackers can deny service to individual victims, such as by deliberately entering a wrong password enough consecutive times to cause the victim account to be locked, or they may overload the capabilities of a machine or network and block all users at once. While a network attack from a single IP address can be blocked by adding a new firewall rule, many forms of Distributed denial of service (DDoS) attacks are possible, where the attack comes from a large number of points – and defending is much more difficult. Such attacks can originate from the zombie computers of a botnet, but a range of other techniques are possible including reflection and amplification attacks, where innocent systems are fooled into sending traffic to the victim.
What were researchers in 2011 able to use as a successful attack vector?
570971e6ed30961900e84158
a malicious compact disc in a car's stereo system
686
False
In cars with built-in voice recognition features, what can the onboard microphones be used for?
570971e6ed30961900e84159
eavesdropping
887
False
Wifi, bluetooth, and cell phone networks are examples of what?
570971e6ed30961900e8415a
a potential entry point for malware or an attacker
592
False
Assuming access has been gained to the car's internal controller area network, what is it possible to do?
570971e6ed30961900e8415b
disable the brakes and turn the steering wheel
83
False
What network is used to contact concierge and emergency assitance services as well as getting navigational and entetainment information?
570971e6ed30961900e8415c
the cell phone network
438
False
Computerized engine
131
What makes cars a risk for computerized attacks?
5a555888134fea001a0e1a3e
True
compact disc in a car's stereo system
698
How were researchers able to eavesdrop in a car?
5a555888134fea001a0e1a3f
True
each of these networks is a potential entry point for malware or an attacker
566
Why are cars with more technology at a higher risk for attack?
5a555888134fea001a0e1a40
True
wifi and bluetooth
369
What increases the likelihood of a car being attacked?
5a555888134fea001a0e1a41
True
networks
580
What entry points are viable for malware and attackers?
5a555888134fea001a0e1a42
True
the brakes and turn the steering wheel
91
What does an external controller area network control?
5a5cd2285e8782001a9d5db4
True
2011
659
When were self-driving cars built?
5a5cd2285e8782001a9d5db5
True
wifi and bluetooth
369
What networks prevent malware in connected cars?
5a5cd2285e8782001a9d5db6
True
compact disc
698
What did researchers use to prevent attacks in 2011?
5a5cd2285e8782001a9d5db7
True
eavesdropping
887
What can voice recognition not be used for?
5a5cd2285e8782001a9d5db8
True
If access is gained to a car's internal controller area network, it is possible to disable the brakes and turn the steering wheel. Computerized engine timing, cruise control, anti-lock brakes, seat belt tensioners, door locks, airbags and advanced driver assistance systems make these disruptions possible, and self-driving cars go even further. Connected cars may use wifi and bluetooth to communicate with onboard consumer devices, and the cell phone network to contact concierge and emergency assistance services or get navigational or entertainment information; each of these networks is a potential entry point for malware or an attacker. Researchers in 2011 were even able to use a malicious compact disc in a car's stereo system as a successful attack vector, and cars with built-in voice recognition or remote assistance features have onboard microphones which could be used for eavesdropping.
How many organisations are estimated to maintain computer systems with effective detection systems?
5709744f200fba1400368015
relatively few
9
False
What is the basic evidence gathered by that puts criminals behind bars?
5709744f200fba1400368016
packet capture appliances
516
False
The primary obstacle to the eradication of cyber crime is the excessive reliance on what?
5709744f200fba1400368017
firewalls and other automated "detection" systems
421
False
What is the source of the quote?
5709744f200fba1400368018
Reuters
173
False
Electronic theft of data is causing more loss than what?
5709744f200fba1400368019
physical stealing of assets
289
False
firewalls and other automated "detection" systems
421
What do companies rely on too much in order to keep their information safe?
5a555e72134fea001a0e1a5c
True
organised response mechanisms
119
What do even fewer companies have set in place for their defense?
5a555e72134fea001a0e1a5d
True
physical stealing of assets
289
What do companies have to worry about least?
5a555e72134fea001a0e1a5e
True
packet capture appliances
516
What is needed to catch these data stealing criminals?
5a555e72134fea001a0e1a5f
True
electronic theft of data
259
What is a common form of theft in companies?
5a555e72134fea001a0e1a60
True
effective
69
Most organizations have what kind of detection system?
5a5cd4d65e8782001a9d5dd2
True
Reuters
173
What is the name of the company that has lost more through electronic theft?
5a5cd4d65e8782001a9d5dd3
True
firewalls and other automated "detection" systems
421
What do most companies no longer rely on?
5a5cd4d65e8782001a9d5dd4
True
electronic theft of data
259
Physical stealing of assets is a bigger problem than what?
5a5cd4d65e8782001a9d5dd5
True
packet capture appliances
516
What do criminals use to avoid being captured?
5a5cd4d65e8782001a9d5dd6
True
However, relatively few organisations maintain computer systems with effective detection systems, and fewer still have organised response mechanisms in place. As result, as Reuters points out: "Companies for the first time report they are losing more through electronic theft of data than physical stealing of assets". The primary obstacle to effective eradication of cyber crime could be traced to excessive reliance on firewalls and other automated "detection" systems. Yet it is basic evidence gathering by using packet capture appliances that puts criminals behind bars.
Technology that is used to implement secure operating systems is one use of what term?
5709750fed30961900e84188
computer security
21
False
What does EAL stand for?
5709750fed30961900e84189
Evaluation Assurance Levels
327
False
What is the standard of EAL4?
5709750fed30961900e8418a
Methodically Designed, Tested and Reviewed
419
False
What is the standard for EAL6?
5709750fed30961900e8418b
Semiformally Verified Design and Tested
578
False
What is an example of a system that meets EAL6?
5709750fed30961900e8418c
Integrity-178B
630
False
Integrity-178B
630
Which system is used by the Airbus A380 and military jets?
5a55621f134fea001a0e1a70
True
uncommon
544
How common are the formal verification for the highest levels?
5a55621f134fea001a0e1a71
True
"Orange Book"
181
In the 1980s the Department of Defense used which standards?
5a55621f134fea001a0e1a72
True
a number of progressively more stringent Evaluation Assurance Levels
286
What does Common Criteria refer to?
5a55621f134fea001a0e1a73
True
EAL4
395
Which level do many common operating systems meet?
5a55621f134fea001a0e1a74
True
1980s
120
When was the Common Criteria defined?
5a5cd95a5e8782001a9d5de6
True
the United States Department of Defense
126
Who created the Common Criteria?
5a5cd95a5e8782001a9d5de7
True
Integrity-178B
630
What is the name of a system that meets the EAL4 standard?
5a5cd95a5e8782001a9d5de8
True
the formal verification required
468
What makes it difficult for systems to use the EAL4 standard?
5a5cd95a5e8782001a9d5de9
True
Airbus A380
667
What is an example of a system that uses the Orange Book Standards?
5a5cd95a5e8782001a9d5dea
True
One use of the term "computer security" refers to technology that is used to implement secure operating systems. In the 1980s the United States Department of Defense (DoD) used the "Orange Book" standards, but the current international standard ISO/IEC 15408, "Common Criteria" defines a number of progressively more stringent Evaluation Assurance Levels. Many common operating systems meet the EAL4 standard of being "Methodically Designed, Tested and Reviewed", but the formal verification required for the highest levels means that they are uncommon. An example of an EAL6 ("Semiformally Verified Design and Tested") system is Integrity-178B, which is used in the Airbus A380 and several military jets.
When was Chine's network security and information technology leadership team established?
57097780200fba1400368033
February 27, 2014
84
False
What is the reason for studying the promotion of national network security ad information technology law?
57097780200fba1400368034
enhanced national security capabilities.
565
False
What country has a network security and information technology leadership team??
57097780200fba1400368035
China
0
False
major issues related to network security and information technology
203
Why was China's network security team established?
5a5579bf134fea001a0e1ad2
True
Economic, political, cultural, social and military fields as related to network security
272
What long term developments do they hope to achieve?
5a5579bf134fea001a0e1ad3
True
enhanced national security capabilities
565
Why is network security under study?
5a5579bf134fea001a0e1ad4
True
China's network security and information technology
0
Who is the leadership team?
5a5579bf134fea001a0e1ad5
True
China's
0
Who is promoting the leadership team and its developments?
5a5579bf134fea001a0e1ad6
True
China's network security and information technology leadership team
0
Who is researching microeconomic policy?
5a5d023b5e8782001a9d5e54
True
Economic, political, cultural, social and military fields
272
Which fields unrelated to network security does China's leadership team research?
5a5d023b5e8782001a9d5e55
True
The leadership team
103
Who is tasked with the short term development of network security?
5a5d023b5e8782001a9d5e56
True
2014
97
When were China's enhanced national security capabilities established?
5a5d023b5e8782001a9d5e57
True
China's network security and information technology leadership team was established February 27, 2014. The leadership team is tasked with national security and long-term development and co-ordination of major issues related to network security and information technology. Economic, political, cultural, social and military fields as related to network security and information technology strategy, planning and major macroeconomic policy are being researched. The promotion of national network security and information technology law are constantly under study for enhanced national security capabilities.
What is the act of surreptitiously listening to a private conversation?
570978aaed30961900e841ae
Eavesdropping
0
False
Conversations that people eavesdrop on are typically between who?
570978aaed30961900e841af
hosts on a network
99
False
Who has used programs such as Carnivore and NarusInsight to eavesdrop on the systems of internet service providers?
570978aaed30961900e841b0
the FBI and NSA
195
False
Eavesdropping on a closed system via the faint electro-magnetic trasmissions generated by the hardware has been referred to as what by the NSA?
570978aaed30961900e841b1
TEMPEST
469
False
What are machines that operate with no contact to the outside world called?
570978aaed30961900e841b2
a closed system
300
False
faint electro-magnetic transmissions generated by the hardware
405
How can closed systems be eavesdropped upon?
5a554ade134fea001a0e1a16
True
the FBI and NSA
195
Who is guilty of eavesdropping on private conversations?
5a554ade134fea001a0e1a17
True
systems of internet service providers
231
Who does the FBI and NSA use Carnivore and Naruslnight to eavesdrop on?
5a554ade134fea001a0e1a18
True
the FBI and NSA
195
Who uses the programs Carnivore and Naruslnsight?
5a554ade134fea001a0e1a19
True
listening to a private conversation
44
What is eavesdropping?
5a554ade134fea001a0e1a1a
True
Carnivore and NarusInsight
150
What programs do ISPs use to eavesdrop on the FBI?
5a5cba215e8782001a9d5d8c
True
Eavesdropping
0
What is a conversation between hosts on a network called?
5a5cba215e8782001a9d5d8d
True
no contact to the outside world
328
What is special about hosts on a network?
5a5cba215e8782001a9d5d8e
True
faint electro-magnetic transmissions
405
What transmissions does NarusInsight listen to?
5a5cba215e8782001a9d5d8f
True
TEMPEST
469
What program does the FBI use to eavesdrop on closed systems?
5a5cba215e8782001a9d5d90
True
Eavesdropping is the act of surreptitiously listening to a private conversation, typically between hosts on a network. For instance, programs such as Carnivore and NarusInsight have been used by the FBI and NSA to eavesdrop on the systems of internet service providers. Even machines that operate as a closed system (i.e., with no contact to the outside world) can be eavesdropped upon via monitoring the faint electro-magnetic transmissions generated by the hardware; TEMPEST is a specification by the NSA referring to these attacks.
What are desktop computers and laptops commonly infected with?
57097fd9ed30961900e84234
malware
57
False
Constructing a botnet to attack another target is an example of the activity of what?
57097fd9ed30961900e84235
malware
57
False
Activity trackers are an example of what?
57097fd9ed30961900e84236
Quantified Self devices
257
False
What could wifi, bluetooth, and cellphone network on devices be used as?
57097fd9ed30961900e84237
attack vectors
620
False
What could be remotely activated after a sucessful breach?
57097fd9ed30961900e84238
sensors
640
False
passwords or financial account information
82
What do malware programs intend to collect from laptops and computers?
5a555504134fea001a0e1a34
True
construct a botnet to attack another target
132
What is the secondary interest of an attacker using malware?
5a555504134fea001a0e1a35
True
could be exploited
441
Why do gadgets that have GPS or collect data about your habits put you at risk for an attack?
5a555504134fea001a0e1a36
True
personal information, including sensitive health information.
477
What could be collected from your devices by an attacker?
5a555504134fea001a0e1a37
True
sensors
352
What are cameras, microphones, GPS receivers, compasses and accelerometers considered?
5a555504134fea001a0e1a38
True
Quantified Self
257
What is the name of the malware that affects activity trackers?
5a5cca8f5e8782001a9d5daa
True
botnet
144
What is another name for malware?
5a5cca8f5e8782001a9d5dab
True
sensors such as cameras, microphones, GPS receivers, compasses, and accelerometers
352
How are Quantified Self Devices breached?
5a5cca8f5e8782001a9d5dac
True
personal information, including sensitive health information
477
What sensitive information do wifi networks carry?
5a5cca8f5e8782001a9d5dad
True
passwords or financial account information
82
What type of information is rarely collected from a laptop?
5a5cca8f5e8782001a9d5dae
True
Desktop computers and laptops are commonly infected with malware either to gather passwords or financial account information, or to construct a botnet to attack another target. Smart phones, tablet computers, smart watches, and other mobile devices such as Quantified Self devices like activity trackers have also become targets and many of these have sensors such as cameras, microphones, GPS receivers, compasses, and accelerometers which could be exploited, and may collect personal information, including sensitive health information. Wifi, Bluetooth, and cell phone network on any of these devices could be used as attack vectors, and sensors might be remotely activated after a successful breach.
What does ACL stand for?
5709828a200fba14003680df
access control lists
99
False
ACLs and capability based security are two security models capable of what?
5709828a200fba14003680e0
enforcing privilege separation
64
False
A host computer tricked into indirectly allowing access to restricted files is known as what?
5709828a200fba14003680e1
the confused deputy problem
351
False
The confused deputy problem and the problem of not guaranteeing only one person has access are resolved by what?
5709828a200fba14003680e2
capabilities
553
False
What must designers of systems that are ACL based do?
5709828a200fba14003680e3
take responsibility to ensure that they do not introduce flaws
688
False
to be insecure in many situations
205
What has using ACLs to confine programs proven?
5a556f78134fea001a0e1a7a
True
indirectly allowing restricted file access
289
How can a computer with ACL be tricked?
5a556f78134fea001a0e1a7b
True
(ACLs) and capability-based security
120
Which two models in computer systems enforce privilege separation?
5a556f78134fea001a0e1a7c
True
can never be guaranteed in practice
477
Can an ACLs limit access to one person?
5a556f78134fea001a0e1a7d
True
two
25
What is the total number of security models in a computer system?
5a5cdafc5e8782001a9d5df0
True
if the host computer can be tricked into indirectly allowing restricted file access
248
When is an ACL most secure?
5a5cdafc5e8782001a9d5df1
True
capabilities
553
What prevents ACLs from giving access to only one person?
5a5cdafc5e8782001a9d5df2
True
access to an object to only one person
438
What do ACLs promise?
5a5cdafc5e8782001a9d5df3
True
the designers
648
Who is not responsible for the flaws in an ACL system?
5a5cdafc5e8782001a9d5df4
True
Within computer systems, two of many security models capable of enforcing privilege separation are access control lists (ACLs) and capability-based security. Using ACLs to confine programs has been proven to be insecure in many situations, such as if the host computer can be tricked into indirectly allowing restricted file access, an issue known as the confused deputy problem. It has also been shown that the promise of ACLs of giving access to an object to only one person can never be guaranteed in practice. Both of these problems are resolved by capabilities. This does not mean practical flaws exist in all ACL-based systems, but only that the designers of certain utilities must take responsibility to ensure that they do not introduce flaws.[citation needed]
In what year did over a hundred intrusions made into the Rome Laboraroty?
57099043200fba1400368199
1994
3
False
How were hackers able to obtain unrestricted access to Rome's networking systems?
57099043200fba140036819a
Using trojan horses
151
False
How were hackers able to penetrate connected networks?
57099043200fba140036819b
by posing as a trusted Rome center user
611
False
What is the Rome Laboratory?
57099043200fba140036819c
the US Air Force's main command and research facility
96
False
Who does the Goddard Space Flight Center belong to?
57099043200fba140036819d
National Aeronautics and Space Administration
435
False
classified files, such as air tasking order systems data
322
What did the hackers obtain?
5a557333134fea001a0e1a8c
True
and remove traces of their activities
249
Why were the hackers untraceable?
5a557333134fea001a0e1a8d
True
trojan horses
157
Posing as a trusted Rome Center user what did hackers use?
5a557333134fea001a0e1a8e
True
a trusted Rome center user
624
Intrusion hackers were thought to be who?
5a557333134fea001a0e1a8f
True
remove traces of their activities
253
How were hackers able to go undetected?
5a557333134fea001a0e1a90
True
the US Air Force
96
Who were the crackers identified as?
5a5ce5af5e8782001a9d5e04
True
1994
3
When was the Rome Laboratory created?
5a5ce5af5e8782001a9d5e05
True
classified files
322
What were the intruders unable to access?
5a5ce5af5e8782001a9d5e06
True
Rome Laboratory
79
What did the 1994 breach of the National Aeronautics and Space Administration's Goddard Space Flight Center also give the crackers access to?
5a5ce5af5e8782001a9d5e07
True
posing as a trusted Rome center user
614
What type of intrusion did the crackers use to gain access to Rome Laboratory?
5a5ce5af5e8782001a9d5e08
True
In 1994, over a hundred intrusions were made by unidentified crackers into the Rome Laboratory, the US Air Force's main command and research facility. Using trojan horses, hackers were able to obtain unrestricted access to Rome's networking systems and remove traces of their activities. The intruders were able to obtain classified files, such as air tasking order systems data and furthermore able to penetrate connected networks of National Aeronautics and Space Administration's Goddard Space Flight Center, Wright-Patterson Air Force Base, some Defense contractors, and other private sector organizations, by posing as a trusted Rome center user.
When did The Impact Team successfully breach Ashley Madison?
5709986aed30961900e84366
July of 2015
3
False
What is the name of the parent company that created Ashley Madison?
5709986aed30961900e84367
Avid Life Media
810
False
When did the Avid Life Media CEO resign?
5709986aed30961900e84368
After the second data dump
1002
False
What was in the first data dump?
5709986aed30961900e84369
emails from the company's CEO
259
False
What website, in addition to Ashley Madison, was Avid Media instructed to take offline?
5709986aed30961900e8436a
Established Men
509
False
they had taken not only company data but user data as well.
158
Why was the website to be removed?
5a557564134fea001a0e1aa0
True
CEO Noel Biderman resigned
1046
How did the site remain functional after the data breach?
5a557564134fea001a0e1aa1
True
release all customer records, including profiles with all the customers' secret sexual fantasies and matching credit card transactions, real names and addresses
570
What was the response from people using the service?
5a557564134fea001a0e1aa2
True
the website remained functional
1078
Was the Goal of the Impact Team carried out?
5a557564134fea001a0e1aa3
True
Ashley Madison and Established Men offline permanently in all forms
490
Were other sites compromised in addition to Ashley Madison?
5a557564134fea001a0e1aa4
True
Noel Biderman
1050
Who was the CEO of Ashley Madison?
5a5ce7425e8782001a9d5e18
True
July of 2015
3
When was Ashley Madison taken down?
5a5ce7425e8782001a9d5e19
True
After the second data dump
1002
When was Established Man taken offline?
5a5ce7425e8782001a9d5e1a
True
9.7GB
975
How large was the data dump of the CEO's emails?
5a5ce7425e8782001a9d5e1b
True
to prove their point
290
Why was the customer data dumped first?
5a5ce7425e8782001a9d5e1c
True
In July of 2015, a hacker group known as "The Impact Team" successfully breached the extramarital relationship website Ashley Madison. The group claimed that they had taken not only company data but user data as well. After the breach, The Impact Team dumped emails from the company's CEO, to prove their point, and threatened to dump customer data unless the website was taken down permanently. With this initial data release, the group stated “Avid Life Media has been instructed to take Ashley Madison and Established Men offline permanently in all forms, or we will release all customer records, including profiles with all the customers' secret sexual fantasies and matching credit card transactions, real names and addresses, and employee documents and emails. The other websites may stay online.”  When Avid Life Media, the parent company that created the Ashley Madison website, did not take the site offline, The Impact Group released two more compressed files, one 9.7GB and the second 20GB. After the second data dump, Avid Life Media CEO Noel Biderman resigned, but the website remained functional.
According to goverment officials, what has the failure of the private sector to solve efficiently the cybersecurity problem created?
57099c47ed30961900e84378
a crucial need for regulation
481
False
Where was the RSA Security Conference held?
57099c47ed30961900e84379
San Francisco
683
False
Who believes that government intervention would affect innovation?
57099c47ed30961900e8437a
executives from the private sector
866
False
Who said "industry only responds when you threaten regulation"?
57099c47ed30961900e8437b
R. Clarke
608
False
What is a virtual space free of any government intervention?
57099c47ed30961900e8437c
cyberspace
185
False
whether the government should intervene or not in the regulation of the cyberspace
16
What is the polemical problem presented?
5a55762f134fea001a0e1aaa
True
cyberspace is a virtual space free of any government intervention.
185
What is considered vital of the internet?
5a55762f134fea001a0e1aab
True
the private sector
541
Who currently runs cyberspace?
5a55762f134fea001a0e1aac
True
industry only responds when you threaten regulation
720
Is the cyberspace industry under attack or threatened by regulation?
5a55762f134fea001a0e1aad
True
the private sector agree that improvements are necessary, but think that the government intervention would affect their ability to innovate efficiently.
882
Who believes they are better at improving cyberspace?
5a55762f134fea001a0e1aae
True
whether the government should intervene or not
16
What do most people agree on in regards to internet security?
5a5cf3d75e8782001a9d5e2c
True
industry only responds when you threaten regulation
720
Why did R. Clarke want to avoid government intervention?
5a5cf3d75e8782001a9d5e2d
True
cyberspace
185
Where is government intervention most common?
5a5cf3d75e8782001a9d5e2e
True
industry doesn't respond (to the threat)
776
Why is threatening an industry unhelpful according to Clarke?
5a5cf3d75e8782001a9d5e2f
True
San Francisco
683
Where is Clarke from?
5a5cf3d75e8782001a9d5e30
True
The question of whether the government should intervene or not in the regulation of the cyberspace is a very polemical one. Indeed, for as long as it has existed and by definition, the cyberspace is a virtual space free of any government intervention. Where everyone agree that an improvement on cybersecurity is more than vital, is the government the best actor to solve this issue? Many government officials and experts think that the government should step in and that there is a crucial need for regulation, mainly due to the failure of the private sector to solve efficiently the cybersecurity problem. R. Clarke said during a panel discussion at the RSA Security Conference in San Francisco, he believes that the "industry only responds when you threaten regulation. If industry doesn't respond (to the threat), you have to follow through." On the other hand, executives from the private sector agree that improvements are necessary, but think that the government intervention would affect their ability to innovate efficiently.
When did Public Safety Canada unveil Canada's Cyber Security Strategy?
57099d82ed30961900e84382
October 3, 2010
3
False
What outlines the ongoing implementation of the Cyber Security Strategy?
57099d82ed30961900e84383
The Action Plan 2010–2015 for Canada's Cyber Security Strategy
848
False
What outlines the responsibilities and provides a plan for coordination during a cyber incident?
57099d82ed30961900e84384
The Cyber Incident Management Framework for Canada
647
False
a Speech from the Throne
94
Canadian cyberspace was boosted by who?
5a557754134fea001a0e1ab4
True
strengthen Canada’s "cyber systems
206
Multiple departments were involved in what?
5a557754134fea001a0e1ab5
True
coordinated response between government and other partners in the event of a cyber incident.
755
What type of plan is provided?
5a557754134fea001a0e1ab6
True
to boost the security of Canadian cyberspace
130
Why was a cyber security plan unveiled in October of 2010?
5a557754134fea001a0e1ab7
True
securing government systems, partnering to secure vital cyber systems outside the federal government
413
Who is the security measure meant to help the most?
5a557754134fea001a0e1ab8
True
2010
14
When was Public Safety Canada founded?
5a5cfad65e8782001a9d5e36
True
Three
373
How many departments does the new strategy involve?
5a5cfad65e8782001a9d5e37
True
Public Safety Canada
20
Who created the Action Plan?
5a5cfad65e8782001a9d5e38
True
The Action Plan 2010–2015
848
What was the predecessor to Canada's Cyber Security Strategy?
5a5cfad65e8782001a9d5e39
True
October 3, 2010
3
When was the Speech from the Throne?
5a5cfad65e8782001a9d5e3a
True
On October 3, 2010, Public Safety Canada unveiled Canada’s Cyber Security Strategy, following a Speech from the Throne commitment to boost the security of Canadian cyberspace. The aim of the strategy is to strengthen Canada’s "cyber systems and critical infrastructure sectors, support economic growth and protect Canadians as they connect to each other and to the world." Three main pillars define the strategy: securing government systems, partnering to secure vital cyber systems outside the federal government, and helping Canadians to be secure online. The strategy involves multiple departments and agencies across the Government of Canada. The Cyber Incident Management Framework for Canada outlines these responsibilities, and provides a plan for coordinated response between government and other partners in the event of a cyber incident. The Action Plan 2010–2015 for Canada's Cyber Security Strategy outlines the ongoing implementation of the strategy.
What is a potential attack vector for utilities such as the power grid?
57099ea3200fba14003681dd
The Internet
188
False
What demonstrated equipment controlled by computers not connected to the internet can also be vulnerable?
57099ea3200fba14003681de
the Stuxnet worm
266
False
When did the Computer Emergency Readiness Team investigate 79 hacking incidents at energy companies?
57099ea3200fba14003681df
2014
554
False
What department does the Computer Emergency Readiness Team belong to?
57099ea3200fba14003681e0
the Department of Homeland Security
613
False
How did the Stuxnet worm infect industrial equipment?
57099ea3200fba14003681e1
via removable media
530
False
the Computer Emergency Readiness Team
560
What division was part of the Department of Homeland Security?
5a55538e134fea001a0e1a2a
True
computers not connected to the Internet can be vulnerable
330
Can computers not attached to the internet be attack by a virus?
5a55538e134fea001a0e1a2b
True
uranium enrichment centrifuges
479
What industrial equipment effected after receiving malicious commands?
5a55538e134fea001a0e1a2c
True
physical damage
391
What type of damage was dealt to the industrial equipment?
5a55538e134fea001a0e1a2d
True
Computers
0
What controls the functions of our utilities such as telecommunications, power grid, nuclear power plants, etc?
5a55538e134fea001a0e1a2e
True
coordination of telecommunications, the power grid, nuclear power plants, and valve opening and closing
57
What controls computer functions?
5a5cc7fa5e8782001a9d5da0
True
the Computer Emergency Readiness Team
560
Who created the Stuxnet worm?
5a5cc7fa5e8782001a9d5da1
True
2014
554
When was the Stuxnet worm created?
5a5cc7fa5e8782001a9d5da2
True
uranium enrichment centrifuges
479
What was infected in the 79 hacking incidents at energy companies?
5a5cc7fa5e8782001a9d5da3
True
79
663
How many people were on the Computer Emergency Readiness Team?
5a5cc7fa5e8782001a9d5da4
True
Computers control functions at many utilities, including coordination of telecommunications, the power grid, nuclear power plants, and valve opening and closing in water and gas networks. The Internet is a potential attack vector for such machines if connected, but the Stuxnet worm demonstrated that even equipment controlled by computers not connected to the Internet can be vulnerable to physical damage caused by malicious commands sent to industrial equipment (in that case uranium enrichment centrifuges) which are infected via removable media. In 2014, the Computer Emergency Readiness Team, a division of the Department of Homeland Security, investigated 79 hacking incidents at energy companies.
Firewalls and exit procedures are considered what?
57099f7bed30961900e84388
"preventive" measures
42
False
What is defined as a way of filtering network data between a host or network and another network?
57099f7bed30961900e84389
A firewall
102
False
What does a physical firewall consist of?
57099f7bed30961900e8438a
a separate machine filtering network traffic
552
False
What type of machines normall have a firewall?
57099f7bed30961900e8438b
permanently connected to the Internet
645
False
What compromises mainly preventative measures?
57099f7bed30961900e8438c
computer security
7
False
"preventive" measures
42
Computer security is mostly comprised of what?
5a555ca9134fea001a0e1a52
True
software running on the machine
260
How are firewalls implemented?
5a555ca9134fea001a0e1a53
True
Linux
386
Which system has a built in firewall?
5a555ca9134fea001a0e1a54
True
hooking into the network stack
293
What is another form of having a firewall connected?
5a555ca9134fea001a0e1a55
True
operating system kernel
408
Which part of a Linux computer is the firewall built into?
5a555ca9134fea001a0e1a56
True
preventive
43
What types of measures do computer security firms rarely use today?
5a5cd39b5e8782001a9d5dc8
True
machines that are permanently connected to the Internet
627
What type of machine rarely uses firewalls?
5a5cd39b5e8782001a9d5dc9
True
a way of filtering network data between a host or a network and another network
131
What is an exit procedure?
5a5cd39b5e8782001a9d5dca
True
software running on the machine
260
How are exit procedures implemented?
5a5cd39b5e8782001a9d5dcb
True
Linux
386
What type of OS does not use the operating system kernel?
5a5cd39b5e8782001a9d5dcc
True
Today, computer security comprises mainly "preventive" measures, like firewalls or an exit procedure. A firewall can be defined as a way of filtering network data between a host or a network and another network, such as the Internet, and can be implemented as software running on the machine, hooking into the network stack (or, in the case of most UNIX-based operating systems such as Linux, built into the operating system kernel) to provide real time filtering and blocking. Another implementation is a so-called physical firewall which consists of a separate machine filtering network traffic. Firewalls are common amongst machines that are permanently connected to the Internet.
What has caused serious financial damage?
5709a208200fba14003681f7
security breaches
44
False
Data made public who is available to estimate the cost of an incident?
5709a208200fba14003681f8
the organizations involved
198
False
What is the amount of losses estimated from worms and viruses in 2003?
5709a208200fba14003681f9
$13 billion
443
False
Who produces estimates of worldwide losses attributable to security breaches?
5709a208200fba14003681fa
Several computer security consulting firms
227
False
What is the underlying methodology of finding worldwide estimates for losses fur to security breaches?
5709a208200fba14003681fb
basically anecdotal
617
False
$226 billion
483
What was the loss estimated for covert attacks in 2003?
5a555aad134fea001a0e1a48
True
virus and worm attacks and to hostile digital acts
330
What forms of attack were responsible for the loss?
5a555aad134fea001a0e1a49
True
that which is made public
169
What information is used to estimate the cost of the incident?
5a555aad134fea001a0e1a4a
True
worldwide losses
297
How wide-scale were the losses?
5a555aad134fea001a0e1a4b
True
there is no standard model for estimating the cost
75
Why is difficult to estimate loss in this situation?
5a555aad134fea001a0e1a4c
True
from $13 billion (worms and viruses only) to $226 billion (for all forms of covert attacks
438
How much did firms save in 2003 from preventing attacks?
5a5cd2f25e8782001a9d5dbe
True
2003
397
When was the standard model for estimating the cost of a breach established?
5a5cd2f25e8782001a9d5dbf
True
the cost of an incident
117
What data is not made public when an organization is breached?
5a5cd2f25e8782001a9d5dc0
True
$13 billion
443
What was the minimum estimate of losses due to security breaches in the US in 2003?
5a5cd2f25e8782001a9d5dc1
True
the underlying methodology is basically anecdotal
587
Why are loss estimates rarely challenged?
5a5cd2f25e8782001a9d5dc2
True
Serious financial damage has been caused by security breaches, but because there is no standard model for estimating the cost of an incident, the only data available is that which is made public by the organizations involved. "Several computer security consulting firms produce estimates of total worldwide losses attributable to virus and worm attacks and to hostile digital acts in general. The 2003 loss estimates by these firms range from $13 billion (worms and viruses only) to $226 billion (for all forms of covert attacks). The reliability of these estimates is often challenged; the underlying methodology is basically anecdotal."
Microchips vulnerabilities are introduced when?
5709a2e5200fba1400368201
during the manufacturing process
108
False
What offers an alternative to soft-ware only computer security?
5709a2e5200fba1400368202
hardware-based or assisted computer security
142
False
What can hardware be a source of?
5709a2e5200fba1400368203
insecurity
34
False
What is required in order for hardware to be compromised?
5709a2e5200fba1400368204
physical access (or sophisticated backdoor access)
443
False
physical access
443
What step can increase computer security?
5a55606b134fea001a0e1a66
True
devices
256
What is used in physical access of a computer?
5a55606b134fea001a0e1a67
True
microchip vulnerabilities
59
What causes hardware to be insecure?
5a55606b134fea001a0e1a68
True
mobile-enabled access
380
How can a cell phone increase computer security?
5a55606b134fea001a0e1a69
True
dongles
284
What physical device is used as a passkey for your computer?
5a55606b134fea001a0e1a6a
True
during the manufacturing process
108
When are microchip vulnerabilities removed?
5a5cd75a5e8782001a9d5ddc
True
the physical access (or sophisticated backdoor access) required in order to be compromised
439
Dongles less secure because of what?
5a5cd75a5e8782001a9d5ddd
True
dongles, trusted platform modules, intrusion-aware cases, drive locks, disabling USB ports, and mobile-enabled access
284
What is an example of software-only computer security?
5a5cd75a5e8782001a9d5dde
True
physical access (or sophisticated backdoor access)
443
What is required to compromise a software-only computer?
5a5cd75a5e8782001a9d5ddf
True
microchip
59
What type of vulnerability is hardware-based computer security impervious to?
5a5cd75a5e8782001a9d5de0
True
While hardware may be a source of insecurity, such as with microchip vulnerabilities maliciously introduced during the manufacturing process, hardware-based or assisted computer security also offers an alternative to software-only computer security. Using devices and methods such as dongles, trusted platform modules, intrusion-aware cases, drive locks, disabling USB ports, and mobile-enabled access may be considered more secure due to the physical access (or sophisticated backdoor access) required in order to be compromised. Each of these is covered in more detail below.
What does CCIRC stand for?
5709a391200fba1400368209
Canadian Cyber Incident Response Centre
23
False
Who is resposible for mitigating and responding to threats to Canada's critical infrastructure?
5709a391200fba140036820a
CCIRC
64
False
Where does the CCIRC post regular cyber security bulletins?
5709a391200fba140036820b
on the Public Safety Canada website
438
False
What functions as a counterpart document to the National Strategy and Action Plan for Critical Infrastructure?
5709a391200fba140036820c
Canada's Cyber Security Strategy
589
False
mitigating and responding to threats to Canada’s critical infrastructure and cyber systems
90
What sort of responses are CCIRC responsible for?
5a557830134fea001a0e1abe
True
to respond and recover from targeted cyber attacks
254
What would CCIRC do in an event of a breach?
5a557830134fea001a0e1abf
True
an online reporting tool where individuals and organizations can report a cyber incident
499
What does the CCIRC operate?
5a557830134fea001a0e1ac0
True
National Strategy and Action Plan for Critical Infrastructure.
749
CCIRC is part of what that is much larger?
5a557830134fea001a0e1ac1
True
technical support
236
Online tools are meant for what by CCIRC?
5a557830134fea001a0e1ac2
True
CCIRC
64
What organization is attacking Canada's infrastructure?
5a5cfd075e8782001a9d5e40
True
CCIRC
64
Who runs Public Safety Canada?
5a5cfd075e8782001a9d5e41
True
National Strategy and Action Plan for Critical Infrastructure
749
What document contradicts the Cyber Security Strategy?
5a5cfd075e8782001a9d5e42
True
CCIRC
64
Who controls Canada's infrastructure?
5a5cfd075e8782001a9d5e43
True
an online reporting tool
499
What do individuals use to create a cyber incident?
5a5cfd075e8782001a9d5e44
True
Public Safety Canada’s Canadian Cyber Incident Response Centre (CCIRC) is responsible for mitigating and responding to threats to Canada’s critical infrastructure and cyber systems. The CCIRC provides support to mitigate cyber threats, technical support to respond and recover from targeted cyber attacks, and provides online tools for members of Canada’s critical infrastructure sectors. The CCIRC posts regular cyber security bulletins on the Public Safety Canada website. The CCIRC also operates an online reporting tool where individuals and organizations can report a cyber incident. Canada's Cyber Security Strategy is part of a larger, integrated approach to critical infrastructure protection, and functions as a counterpart document to the National Strategy and Action Plan for Critical Infrastructure.
Who said "Connectedness begets vulnerability?"
5709a509200fba1400368211
Jay Cross
404
False
What organization does Jay Cross belong to?
5709a509200fba1400368212
the Internet Time Group
438
False
What is the advantage of more critical infrastructure being controlled via computer programs?
5709a509200fba1400368213
increasing efficiency
159
False
What is the disadvantage of more critical infrastructure being controlled via computer programs?
5709a509200fba1400368214
exposes new vulnerabilities
182
False
More and more critical infrastructure is being controlled via computer programs
67
What has led to cyberwarfare?
5a557b55134fea001a0e1ae6
True
attacks
374
What is cyberterrorism?
5a557b55134fea001a0e1ae7
True
cyberwarfare and cyberterrorism
34
In what way does "connectedness begets vulnerability?"
5a557b55134fea001a0e1ae8
True
able to prevent attacks before they occur.
358
What types of test will be run?
5a557b55134fea001a0e1ae9
True
Connectedness begets vulnerability
474
Will cyberterrorism evolve with new technology?
5a557b55134fea001a0e1aea
True
Jay Cross
404
Who coined the word "cyberwarfare"?
5a5d04505e8782001a9d5e66
True
Internet Time Group
442
What computer program controls critical infrastructure?
5a5d04505e8782001a9d5e67
True
critical systems such as energy, communications and other information
280
Which infrastructures are the least vulnerable to attack?
5a5d04505e8782001a9d5e68
True
computer programs that, while increasing efficiency, exposes new vulnerabilities
129
What is cyberterrorism?
5a5d04505e8782001a9d5e69
True
Jay Cross
404
Who disagreed with the saying "Connectedness begets vulnerability"?
5a5d04505e8782001a9d5e6a
True
This has led to new terms such as cyberwarfare and cyberterrorism. More and more critical infrastructure is being controlled via computer programs that, while increasing efficiency, exposes new vulnerabilities. The test will be to see if governments and corporations that control critical systems such as energy, communications and other information will be able to prevent attacks before they occur. As Jay Cross, the chief scientist of the Internet Time Group, remarked, "Connectedness begets vulnerability."
When did Public Safety Canada partner with Stop.Think. Connect?
5709a5d5ed30961900e843bc
September 27, 2010
3
False
When was the Cyber Security Cooperation Program launched by the Government of Canada?
5709a5d5ed30961900e843bd
February 4, 2014
233
False
Who routinely updates the GetCyberSafe portal for Canadian citizens?
5709a5d5ed30961900e843be
Public Safety Canada
593
False
What month is Cyber Security Awareness Month?
5709a5d5ed30961900e843bf
October
749
False
How much does the Cyber Security Cooperation Program cost?
5709a5d5ed30961900e843c0
$1.5 million
342
False
a coalition
79
STOP.THINK.CONNECT is what kind of organization?
5a5578ee134fea001a0e1ac8
True
Cyber Security
289
What type of grants were given out by the Canadian Government?
5a5578ee134fea001a0e1ac9
True
the GetCyberSafe portal for Canadian citizens
648
What does the Cyber Security Cooperation monitor?
5a5578ee134fea001a0e1aca
True
Awareness
726
Why is there a cyber security month?
5a5578ee134fea001a0e1acb
True
a coalition of non-profit, private sector, and government organizations dedicated to informing the general public on how to protect themselves online
79
How are people protected online?
5a5578ee134fea001a0e1acc
True
September 27, 2010
3
When was STOP.THINK.CONNECT created?
5a5cff985e8782001a9d5e4a
True
$1.5 million
342
How expensive is the GetCyberSafe portal?
5a5cff985e8782001a9d5e4b
True
early 2015
581
When was the Cyber Security Cooperation Program shut down?
5a5cff985e8782001a9d5e4c
True
2014
245
When was the GetCyberSafe portal created?
5a5cff985e8782001a9d5e4d
True
October
749
When is the international Cyber Security Awareness month?
5a5cff985e8782001a9d5e4e
True
On September 27, 2010, Public Safety Canada partnered with STOP.THINK.CONNECT, a coalition of non-profit, private sector, and government organizations dedicated to informing the general public on how to protect themselves online. On February 4, 2014, the Government of Canada launched the Cyber Security Cooperation Program. The program is a $1.5 million five-year initiative aimed at improving Canada’s cyber systems through grants and contributions to projects in support of this objective. Public Safety Canada aims to begin an evaluation of Canada's Cyber Security Strategy in early 2015. Public Safety Canada administers and routinely updates the GetCyberSafe portal for Canadian citizens, and carries out Cyber Security Awareness Month during October.
Installing keyloggers and making operating system modifications are examples of ways unauthorized users for what?
5709a7c7200fba1400368219
compromise security
128
False
Booting a tool or another operating system from a CD Rom can bypass what?
5709a7c7200fba140036821a
standard security measures
295
False
Disk encryption and Trusted Platform Module are designed to prevent what?
5709a7c7200fba140036821b
attacks
514
False
An unauthorized user with physical access to a computer can likely do what?
5709a7c7200fba140036821c
directly download data from it
82
False
Disk encryption and Trusted Platform Module
440
What increases the safety of a computer?
5a5546d5134fea001a0e1a0c
True
booting another operating system or tool from a CD-ROM or other bootable media
360
What can cause standard security measures to become obsolete?
5a5546d5134fea001a0e1a0d
True
An unauthorized user
0
What is the number one cause of data theft?
5a5546d5134fea001a0e1a0e
True
keyloggers, or covert listening devices
217
What can an attacker install to your computer in order to collect personal data?
5a5546d5134fea001a0e1a0f
True
software worms
201
What can infect other computers from your own?
5a5546d5134fea001a0e1a10
True
directly download data
82
What can an authorized user with access to a computer do?
5a5cb9315e8782001a9d5d82
True
making operating system modifications, installing software worms, keyloggers, or covert listening devices
151
How are computers made secure?
5a5cb9315e8782001a9d5d83
True
Disk encryption
440
What does CD-ROM stand for?
5a5cb9315e8782001a9d5d84
True
Trusted Platform Module
460
What is the name of a program designed to attack a computer?
5a5cb9315e8782001a9d5d85
True
booting another operating system
360
How does a user bypass a compromised security?
5a5cb9315e8782001a9d5d86
True
An unauthorized user gaining physical access to a computer is most likely able to directly download data from it. They may also compromise security by making operating system modifications, installing software worms, keyloggers, or covert listening devices. Even when the system is protected by standard security measures, these may be able to be by passed by booting another operating system or tool from a CD-ROM or other bootable media. Disk encryption and Trusted Platform Module are designed to prevent these attacks.
UI redress attack or User Interface redress attack is also known as what?
5709a8dd200fba140036822b
Clickjacking
0
False
What is a malicious technique in which an attacker tricks the user into clicking on a button or link?
5709a8dd200fba140036822c
Clickjacking
0
False
Where are the clicks meant for the top level page routed?
5709a8dd200fba140036822d
some other irrelevant page
407
False
Where would a password typed on a seemingly authetic webpage be directed?
5709a8dd200fba140036822e
into an invisible frame controlled by the attacker
748
False
How istricking the user accomplished in clickjacking?
5709a8dd200fba140036822f
using multiple transparent or opaque layers
264
False
the password or other information
660
What is intended to be hijacked through a page overlay?
5a5551b9134fea001a0e1a20
True
keystrokes
512
What else can be hijacked through UI redress?
5a5551b9134fea001a0e1a21
True
text boxes
594
What part of a webpage is meant to collect keystrokes?
5a5551b9134fea001a0e1a22
True
This is done using multiple transparent or opaque layers
251
Why can the user not see the other page used by the attacker?
5a5551b9134fea001a0e1a23
True
an invisible frame
753
Where is are the passwords and information stored by the attacker?
5a5551b9134fea001a0e1a24
True
Clickjacking
0
What is avoiding a UI redress attack called?
5a5cbc6f5e8782001a9d5d96
True
multiple transparent or opaque layers
270
How are clicks routed back to the top level page?
5a5cbc6f5e8782001a9d5d97
True
a combination of stylesheets, iframes, buttons and text boxes
543
How is an legitimate webpage created?
5a5cbc6f5e8782001a9d5d98
True
UI redress attack
29
What is another name for hijacking keystrokes?
5a5cbc6f5e8782001a9d5d99
True
some other irrelevant page
407
Where is a user redirected to after putting in their password?
5a5cbc6f5e8782001a9d5d9a
True
Clickjacking, also known as "UI redress attack or User Interface redress attack", is a malicious technique in which an attacker tricks a user into clicking on a button or link on another webpage while the user intended to click on the top level page. This is done using multiple transparent or opaque layers. The attacker is basically "hijacking" the clicks meant for the top level page and routing them to some other irrelevant page, most likely owned by someone else. A similar technique can be used to hijack keystrokes. Carefully drafting a combination of stylesheets, iframes, buttons and text boxes, a user can be led into believing that they are typing the password or other information on some authentic webpage while it is being channeled into an invisible frame controlled by the attacker.
How many computers were connected to the internet in 1988?
5709a976ed30961900e843da
60,000
14
False
When was the first computer worm released?
5709a976ed30961900e843db
November 2, 1988
137
False
Who was the first computer worm traced back to?
5709a976ed30961900e843dc
Robert Tappan Morris, Jr.
414
False
What is a malicious code that demands processor time and spreads itself to other computers?
5709a976ed30961900e843dd
computer worm
318
False
Why did Morris Jr make the computer worm?
5709a976ed30961900e843de
he wanted to count how many machines were connected to the Internet
450
False
mainframes, minicomputers and professional workstations
77
What types of computers were connected to the internet in 1988?
5a557057134fea001a0e1a82
True
a malicious code
208
On Nov 2, 1988 what caused many computers to slow down?
5a557057134fea001a0e1a83
True
November 2, 1988
137
When was the first computer worm?
5a557057134fea001a0e1a84
True
Robert Tappan Morris, Jr.
414
Who created the first computer worm?
5a557057134fea001a0e1a85
True
23-year-old
366
How old was the Cornell University Grad Student who created the worm?
5a557057134fea001a0e1a86
True
60,000
14
How many computers began to slow down on Nov. 2, 1988?
5a5ce0995e8782001a9d5dfa
True
Robert Tappan Morris, Jr
414
Who tracked down the first computer worm?
5a5ce0995e8782001a9d5dfb
True
November 2, 1988
137
When was the computer worm caught?
5a5ce0995e8782001a9d5dfc
True
Cornell University
378
Where was the computer worm created?
5a5ce0995e8782001a9d5dfd
True
mainframes, minicomputers and professional workstations
77
Which internet connected computers slowed down?
5a5ce0995e8782001a9d5dfe
True
In 1988, only 60,000 computers were connected to the Internet, and most were mainframes, minicomputers and professional workstations. On November 2, 1988, many started to slow down, because they were running a malicious code that demanded processor time and that spread itself to other computers – the first internet "computer worm". The software was traced back to 23-year-old Cornell University graduate student Robert Tappan Morris, Jr. who said 'he wanted to count how many machines were connected to the Internet'.
Who are Rescator?
5709aa1f200fba1400368235
a Russian/Ukrainian hacking ring
18
False
What was stolen from Target Corporation computers in 2013?
5709aa1f200fba1400368236
40 million credit cards
137
False
How many credit card numbers were stole from Home Depot in 2014?
5709aa1f200fba1400368237
between 53 and 56 million
210
False
What machines were involved in the physical security breaches that played a large role in the incident?
5709aa1f200fba1400368238
self checkout machines
349
False
Who is Jim Walter?
5709aa1f200fba1400368239
director of threat intelligence operations at security technology company McAfee
503
False
Warnings were delivered at both corporations, but ignored
257
What was done when credit cards were stolen?
5a55742a134fea001a0e1a96
True
self checkout machines
349
What was the main breach?
5a55742a134fea001a0e1a97
True
existing antivirus software had administrators responded to the warnings
644
Who could have easily stopped the hacking?
5a55742a134fea001a0e1a98
True
self checkout machines
349
Unsophisticated malware was used on what?
5a55742a134fea001a0e1a99
True
could have easily been stopped
610
Why was the malware uninteresting?
5a55742a134fea001a0e1a9a
True
Jim Walter
491
Who was the leader of Rescator?
5a5ce6645e8782001a9d5e0e
True
credit card numbers
236
What was stolen from McAfee?
5a5ce6645e8782001a9d5e0f
True
2014
195
When was the investigation concluded?
5a5ce6645e8782001a9d5e10
True
The malware utilized is absolutely unsophisticated and uninteresting
415
Why weren't the companies warned about the threat?
5a5ce6645e8782001a9d5e11
True
2013
3
When was Rescator formed?
5a5ce6645e8782001a9d5e12
True
In 2013 and 2014, a Russian/Ukrainian hacking ring known as "Rescator" broke into Target Corporation computers in 2013, stealing roughly 40 million credit cards, and then Home Depot computers in 2014, stealing between 53 and 56 million credit card numbers. Warnings were delivered at both corporations, but ignored; physical security breaches using self checkout machines are believed to have played a large role. "The malware utilized is absolutely unsophisticated and uninteresting," says Jim Walter, director of threat intelligence operations at security technology company McAfee – meaning that the heists could have easily been stopped by existing antivirus software had administrators responded to the warnings. The size of the thefts has resulted in major attention from state and Federal United States authorities and the investigation is ongoing.
What does NCAZ stand for?
5709aacc200fba140036823f
Nationales Cyber-Abwehrzentrum
179
False
What does NCAZ take care of?
5709aacc200fba1400368240
national security aspects
622
False
When was NCAZ opened?
5709aacc200fba1400368241
June 16, 2011
52
False
Whan was NCAZ founded?
5709aacc200fba1400368242
February 23, 2011
727
False
What is the purpose of NCAZ?
5709aacc200fba1400368243
to detect and prevent attacks against the national infrastructure
749
False
national security aspects.
622
Why does Berlin start a National Cyber Defense Initiative?
5a557a6e134fea001a0e1adc
True
to detect and prevent attacks against the national infrastructure
749
Why does NCAZ work closely with BSI?
5a557a6e134fea001a0e1add
True
MAD
486
Who takes care of national security?
5a557a6e134fea001a0e1ade
True
Stuxnet
844
What incidents are it to prevent?
5a557a6e134fea001a0e1adf
True
attacks against the national infrastructure
771
What was the Stuxnet incident?
5a557a6e134fea001a0e1ae0
True
Berlin
0
Where is the German Minister for Home Affairs located?
5a5d037f5e8782001a9d5e5c
True
February 23, 2011
727
When did the incident in Stuxnet happen?
5a5d037f5e8782001a9d5e5d
True
Bonn
221
Where is the BSI located?
5a5d037f5e8782001a9d5e5e
True
the German Minister for Home Affairs
67
Who opened the BDN?
5a5d037f5e8782001a9d5e5f
True
to detect and prevent attacks against the national infrastructure
749
What is the primary task of the Minister for Home Affairs?
5a5d037f5e8782001a9d5e60
True
Berlin starts National Cyber Defense Initiative: On June 16, 2011, the German Minister for Home Affairs, officially opened the new German NCAZ (National Center for Cyber Defense) Nationales Cyber-Abwehrzentrum located in Bonn. The NCAZ closely cooperates with BSI (Federal Office for Information Security) Bundesamt für Sicherheit in der Informationstechnik, BKA (Federal Police Organisation) Bundeskriminalamt (Deutschland), BND (Federal Intelligence Service) Bundesnachrichtendienst, MAD (Military Intelligence Service) Amt für den Militärischen Abschirmdienst and other national organisations in Germany taking care of national security aspects. According to the Minister the primary task of the new organisation founded on February 23, 2011, is to detect and prevent attacks against the national infrastructure and mentioned incidents like Stuxnet.
Orthodox_Judaism
What is the approach to Judiasm that subscribes to a tradition of mass revelation?
57097eaced30961900e84218
Orthodox
0
False
What is the name of the book that has the laws and ethics for Orthodox Judaism?
57097eaced30961900e84219
Torah
185
False
what texts were legislated by the Tanarim and Amoraim?
57097eaced30961900e8421a
Talmudic
212
False
What besides Modern Orthodox Judaism does Orthodox Judaism consist of?
57097eaced30961900e8421b
Haredi Judaism
478
False
Orthodox Judaism is a self-identification that distinguishes it from what?
57097eaced30961900e8421c
pre-modern Judaism
777
False
a tradition of mass revelation
74
What is Orthodox Christianity a religion that subscribes to?
5a578a88770dc0001aeefc62
True
interpretation and application of the laws and ethics
124
What does Orthodox Christianity adhere to?
5a578a88770dc0001aeefc63
True
the Tanaim and Amoraim
230
Who is the Bible legislated by?
5a578a88770dc0001aeefc64
True
Orthodox Judaism
374
Where will you not find Modern Judaism?
5a578a88770dc0001aeefc65
True
Judaism
645
What is a religion with a single philosophy?
5a578a88770dc0001aeefc66
True
Orthodox Judaism is the approach to religious Judaism which subscribes to a tradition of mass revelation and adheres to the interpretation and application of the laws and ethics of the Torah as legislated in the Talmudic texts by the Tanaim and Amoraim. These texts were subsequently developed and applied by later authorities, known as the Gaonim, Rishonim, and Acharonim. Orthodox Judaism generally includes Modern Orthodox Judaism (אורתודוקסיה מודרנית) and Ultra-Orthodox or Haredi Judaism (יהדות חרדית), but complete within is a wide range of philosophies. Although Orthodox Judaism would probably be considered the mainstream expression of Judaism prior to the 19th century, for some Orthodox Judaism is a modern self-identification that distinguishes it from traditional pre-modern Judaism.
What is the global Jewish news service known as?
57097f32ed30961900e84222
JTA
164
False
What is New Jersey's largest daily paper?
57097f32ed30961900e84223
the Star-Ledger
205
False
What term do media entities refrain from using?
57097f32ed30961900e84224
"ultra-Orthodox
98
False
Who is the spiritual leader of Temple Israel Community Center?
57097f32ed30961900e84225
Rabbi Shammai Engelmayer
474
False
Where is the Temple Israel Community Center located?
57097f32ed30961900e84226
Cliffside Park
554
False
several media entities refrain from using the term "ultra-Orthodox"
47
What did the New England press association claim?
5a578a9d770dc0001aeefc6c
True
New Jersey’s largest daily newspaper
222
How large is the global Jewish news service?
5a578a9d770dc0001aeefc6d
True
ultra-Orthodox
99
The Religion Newswriters Association was the first news source to drop what name?
5a578a9d770dc0001aeefc6e
True
New York's Jewish Week
368
What is a New York paper still using the term ultra-orthodox?
5a578a9d770dc0001aeefc6f
True
Rabbi Shammai Engelmayer
474
Who was the executive editor of the Star-Ledger?
5a578a9d770dc0001aeefc70
True
According to the New Jersey Press Association, several media entities refrain from using the term "ultra-Orthodox", including the Religion Newswriters Association; JTA, the global Jewish news service; and the Star-Ledger, New Jersey’s largest daily newspaper. The Star-Ledger was the first mainstream newspaper to drop the term. Several local Jewish papers, including New York's Jewish Week and Philadelphia's Jewish Exponent have also dropped use of the term. According to Rabbi Shammai Engelmayer, spiritual leader of Temple Israel Community Center in Cliffside Park and former executive editor of Jewish Week, this leaves "Orthodox" as "an umbrella term that designates a very widely disparate group of people very loosely tied together by some core beliefs."
What is the name  of the movement that comporises a fairly broad spectrum of distinct but related philosophies?
5709806e200fba14003680a5
Modern Orthodoxy
0
False
What integrity is orthodox judaism trying to preserve?
5709806e200fba14003680a6
halakha
675
False
Who does Modern Orthodoxy assign a central role to?
5709806e200fba14003680a7
People of Israel
847
False
What kind of work does orthodox Judiasm seek to transform the world with?
5709806e200fba14003680a8
Divine work
559
False
What is modern cutlture in conflict with?
5709806e200fba14003680a9
Torah
742
False
Modern Orthodoxy
0
What comprises a fairly narrow spectrum of movements?
5a57b8de770dc0001aeefcf0
True
philosophies
113
What are distinct and non-related in Modern Orthodoxy?
5a57b8de770dc0001aeefcf1
True
Jewish law is normative and binding
259
What does Classical Orthodoxy hold to be true?
5a57b8de770dc0001aeefcf2
True
modernity
460
What can Orthodox Judaism be harmed by it's interaction with?
5a57b8de770dc0001aeefcf3
True
People of Israel
847
Who do Modern Orthodoxy assign a non-central role to?
5a57b8de770dc0001aeefcf4
True
Modern Orthodoxy comprises a fairly broad spectrum of movements, each drawing on several distinct though related philosophies, which in some combination have provided the basis for all variations of the movement today. In general, Modern Orthodoxy holds that Jewish law is normative and binding, while simultaneously attaching a positive value to interaction with contemporary society. In this view, Orthodox Judaism can "be enriched" by its intersection with modernity; further, "modern society creates opportunities to be productive citizens engaged in the Divine work of transforming the world to benefit humanity". At the same time, in order to preserve the integrity of halakha, any area of "powerful inconsistency and conflict" between Torah and modern culture must be avoided. Modern Orthodoxy, additionally, assigns a central role to the "People of Israel".
How do orthodox women dress mosly?
570980f2200fba14003680c1
covered
151
False
what part of their body do married women cover with a scarf?
570980f2200fba14003680c2
hair
200
False
What is the Skullcap that orthodox men wear known as?
570980f2200fba14003680c3
kipa
356
False
What are the fringes Orthodox men wear called?
570980f2200fba14003680c4
tzitzit
387
False
What type of orthox men often grow beards and always wear black?
570980f2200fba14003680c5
Haredi
397
False
manner of dress
53
What do Orthodox Jews keep in common with the society's they live in?
5a57d66f770dc0001aeefdf0
True
Orthodox women
91
Who tend to wear clothing that exposes a lot of skin?
5a57d66f770dc0001aeefdf1
True
scarf
237
What do most Jewish women refuse to wear to cover their head?
5a57d66f770dc0001aeefdf2
True
skullcap
336
What do Orthodox men refuse to wear on their heads?
5a57d66f770dc0001aeefdf3
True
hats and suits
448
What do Orthodox men avoid wearing when they are indoors?
5a57d66f770dc0001aeefdf4
True
Externally, Orthodox Jews can be identified by their manner of dress and family lifestyle. Orthodox women dress modestly by keeping most of their skin covered. Additionally, married women cover their hair, most commonly in the form of a scarf, also in the form of hats, bandanas, berets, snoods or, sometimes, wigs. Orthodox men wear a skullcap known as a kipa and often fringes called "tzitzit". Haredi men often grow beards and always wear black hats and suits, indoors and outdoors. However, Modern Orthodox Jews are commonly indistinguishable in their dress from those around them.
What is the written law of the Torah known as?
570981cd200fba14003680d5
Pentateuch
84
False
Who dictated the oral law to Moses?
570981cd200fba14003680d6
God
182
False
What are the detailed explanations of how to apply and interpret the laws of the written Torah called?
570981cd200fba14003680d7
Oral Law
352
False
What is the law that is considered the core of religious laws Orthodox Jews know today?
570981cd200fba14003680d8
Sinaitic law
563
False
What is the origin of Jewish Law?
570981cd200fba14003680d9
Divine
859
False
Written Law
71
Which single part of the Law do Orthodox Jews hold to be dictated by God?
5a57dc1c770dc0001aeefe2c
True
halacha leMoshe m'Sinai
139
What parts of the oral law are different than the original dictation?
5a57dc1c770dc0001aeefe2d
True
Torah
262
What was not given a clear explanations on how to apply it?
5a57dc1c770dc0001aeefe2e
True
rabbis
493
Who added fences to historical law that are not a part of modern day?
5a57dc1c770dc0001aeefe2f
True
Jewish law's
846
What is considered divine and in no need of interpretation?
5a57dc1c770dc0001aeefe30
True
Orthodox Judaism holds that the words of the Torah, including both the Written Law (Pentateuch) and those parts of the Oral Law which are "halacha leMoshe m'Sinai", were dictated by God to Moses essentially as they exist today. The laws contained in the Written Torah were given along with detailed explanations as how to apply and interpret them, the Oral Law. Although Orthodox Jews believe that many elements of current religious law were decreed or added as "fences" around the law by the rabbis, all Orthodox Jews believe that there is an underlying core of Sinaitic law and that this core of the religious laws Orthodox Jews know today is thus directly derived from Sinai and directly reflects the Divine will. As such, Orthodox Jews believe that one must be extremely careful in interpreting Jewish law. Orthodox Judaism holds that, given Jewish law's Divine origin, no underlying principle may be compromised in accounting for changing political, social or economic conditions; in this sense, "creativity" and development in Jewish law is limited.
Where was Rabbi Azriel Hildesheimer from?
57098329200fba14003680e9
Berlin
833
False
what was the name of the Rabbi of Altona?
57098329200fba14003680ea
Jacob Ettlinger
436
False
What was the name of the manifesto that Rabbi Jacob Ettlinger produced?
57098329200fba14003680eb
Shlomei Emunei Yisrael
494
False
How many rabbi's signed on with the manifesto Jacob Ettlinger published?
57098329200fba14003680ec
177
547
False
Where was Rabbi Samson Raphael Hirsch from?
57098329200fba14003680ed
Berlin
833
False
values of the Haskalah
120
What did Roman Jews support?
5a578ac4770dc0001aeefc80
True
a group of traditionalist German Jews
48
What group supported a new temple in Hamburg?
5a578ac4770dc0001aeefc81
True
Braunschweig
416
Where did a group of orthodox Jews convene?
5a578ac4770dc0001aeefc82
True
Der Treue Zions Waechter
619
What was considered the first Reformed Jewish periodical?
5a578ac4770dc0001aeefc83
True
Rabbi Samson
772
Who fought against the strength and awareness of the Orthodox Jewry?
5a578ac4770dc0001aeefc84
True
In reaction to the emergence of Reform Judaism, a group of traditionalist German Jews emerged in support of some of the values of the Haskalah, but also wanted to defend the classic, traditional interpretation of Jewish law and tradition. This group was led by those who opposed the establishment of a new temple in Hamburg , as reflected in the booklet "Ele Divrei HaBerit". As a group of Reform Rabbis convened in Braunschweig, Rabbi Jacob Ettlinger of Altona published a manifesto entitled "Shlomei Emunei Yisrael" in German and Hebrew, having 177 Rabbis sign on. At this time the first Orthodox Jewish periodical, "Der Treue Zions Waechter", was launched with the Hebrew supplement "Shomer Zion HaNe'eman" [1845 - 1855]. In later years it was Rav Ettlinger's students Rabbi Samson Raphael Hirsch and Rabbi Azriel Hildesheimer of Berlin who deepened the awareness and strength of Orthodox Jewry. Rabbi Samson Raphael Hirsch commented in 1854:
When is a newborn boy's hair first cut?
5709840c200fba14003680fd
third birthday
293
False
What is done with the newborn boy's hair once it is cut?
5709840c200fba14003680fe
burned
427
False
What are grains and legumes known as?
5709840c200fba14003680ff
kitniyot
604
False
What is the name of the prohibition against eating grains and legumes during Passover?
5709840c200fba1400368100
Ashkenazi
567
False
What text rejects the Ashkenazi prohibition against kitniyot?
5709840c200fba1400368101
Talmud
720
False
certain customs
33
What do historians note are continuations of past practices?
5a57ab82770dc0001aeefcc4
True
certain customs
33
What do historians claim are practices of prior generations?
5a57ab82770dc0001aeefcc5
True
haredi
226
Who's tradition is it to cut a boy's hair on his second birthday?
5a57ab82770dc0001aeefcc6
True
upshirin or upsheerin
309
What is the Arabic word for haircut?
5a57ab82770dc0001aeefcc7
True
Ashkenazi
567
Who allows the eating of kitniyot?
5a57ab82770dc0001aeefcc8
True
Jewish historians also note that certain customs of today's Orthodox are not continuations of past practice, but instead represent innovations that would have been unknown to prior generations. For example, the now-widespread haredi tradition of cutting a boy's hair for the first time on his third birthday (upshirin or upsheerin, Yiddish for "haircut") "originated as an Arab custom that parents cut a newborn boy's hair and burned it in a fire as a sacrifice," and "Jews in Palestine learned this custom from Arabs and adapted it to a special Jewish context." The Ashkenazi prohibition against eating kitniyot (grains and legumes such as rice, corn, beans, and peanuts) during Passover was explicitly rejected in the Talmud, has no known precedent before the 12th century and represented a minority position for hundreds of years thereafter, but nonetheless has remained a mandatory prohibition among Ashkenazi Orthodox Jews due to their historic adherence to the ReMA's rulings in the Shulchan Aruch.
What type of Judaism advocated segregation from non-Jewish culture?
57098503200fba140036811b
Haredi Judaism
0
False
What should individuals participate as little as possible in?
57098503200fba140036811c
modern society
478
False
Attending secular institution of higher education is viewed as necessary but inferior in what society?
57098503200fba140036811d
Haredi
646
False
What do a significant portion of boys remain in until marriage?
57098503200fba140036811e
yeshiva
1045
False
What is a Torah study institute for married men called?
57098503200fba140036811f
kollel
1156
False
segregation from non-Jewish culture
25
What does Haredi Judaism refuse to advocate?
5a57bf28770dc0001aeefd3e
True
traditional halakhic concepts
273
In what interpretation are Haredi and Modern Orthodoxy the same?
5a57bf28770dc0001aeefd3f
True
engaging in the commercial world
358
What is not a legitimate means of livelihood in Haredi society?
5a57bf28770dc0001aeefd40
True
secular institutions
672
Where is it necessary for a Haredi Jew to attend college?
5a57bf28770dc0001aeefd41
True
girls
872
Who is not allowed to proceed to higher Torah studies?
5a57bf28770dc0001aeefd42
True
Haredi Judaism advocates segregation from non-Jewish culture, although not from non-Jewish society entirely. It is characterised by its focus on community-wide Torah study. Haredi Orthodoxy's differences with Modern Orthodoxy usually lie in interpretation of the nature of traditional halakhic concepts and in acceptable application of these concepts. Thus, engaging in the commercial world is a legitimate means to achieving a livelihood, but individuals should participate in modern society as little as possible. The same outlook is applied with regard to obtaining degrees necessary to enter one's intended profession: where tolerated in the Haredi society, attending secular institutions of higher education is viewed as a necessary but inferior activity. Academic interest is instead to be directed toward the religious education found in the yeshiva. Both boys and girls attend school and may proceed to higher Torah study, starting anywhere between the ages of 13 and 18. A significant proportion of students, especially boys, remain in yeshiva until marriage (which is often arranged through facilitated dating – see shiduch), and many study in a kollel (Torah study institute for married men) for many years after marriage. Most Orthodox men (including many Modern Orthodox), even those not in Kollel, will study Torah daily.
Where was the written law and the oral law transmitted?
570985f3ed30961900e84272
Mount Sinai
31
False
Who spoke the words of the Torah to Moses?
570985f3ed30961900e84273
God
160
False
What were the laws contained in the written Torah known as?
570985f3ed30961900e84274
Mitzvot
212
False
Where is Moses miraculously transported to?
570985f3ed30961900e84275
House of Study of Rabbi Akiva
659
False
What law is held to be transmitted with an extremely high degree of accuracy?
570985f3ed30961900e84276
Oral law
407
False
Orthodox Judaism
0
Who holds that the Oral Law was not transmitted on Mt. Sinai?
5a57df4d770dc0001aeefe4a
True
Mitzvot
212
What was given very few explanations on how to use it?
5a57df4d770dc0001aeefe4b
True
Oral law
407
Which law is set so that no new rules are created from it?
5a57df4d770dc0001aeefe4c
True
House of Study of Rabbi Akiva
659
Where was Noah transported according to a story in the Talmud?
5a57df4d770dc0001aeefe4d
True
The Oral law
403
What law is not considered to have a high degree of accuracy?
5a57df4d770dc0001aeefe4e
True
Orthodox Judaism holds that on Mount Sinai, the Written Law was transmitted along with an Oral Law. The words of the Torah (Pentateuch) were spoken to Moses by God; the laws contained in this Written Torah, the "Mitzvot", were given along with detailed explanations in the oral tradition as to how to apply and interpret them. Furthermore, the Oral law includes principles designed to create new rules. The Oral law is held to be transmitted with an extremely high degree of accuracy. Jewish theologians, who choose to emphasize the more evolutionary nature of the Halacha point to a famous story in the Talmud, where Moses is miraculously transported to the House of Study of Rabbi Akiva and is clearly unable to follow the ensuing discussion.
What maintains a historical understanding of jewish Identity?
570987baed30961900e8429a
Orthodox Judaism
0
False
What does orthodoxy reject as a means of establishing Jewish identiy?
570987baed30961900e8429b
patrilineal descent
221
False
What does Orthodoxy strongly condemn?
570987baed30961900e8429c
intermarriage
324
False
What is intermarriage typically seen as?
570987baed30961900e8429d
rejection of Judaism
377
False
What happens to most intermarried people in the orthodox community?
570987baed30961900e8429e
cut off
441
False
Orthodox Judaism
0
Who maintains the modern understanding of Jewish identity?
5a57da44770dc0001aeefe18
True
Jew
78
What is a person who is born to a Jewish father considered?
5a57da44770dc0001aeefe19
True
patrilineal
221
What descent by the father does Orthodoxy accept?
5a57da44770dc0001aeefe1a
True
Intermarriage
339
What form of marriage is an acceptance of Judaism?
5a57da44770dc0001aeefe1b
True
cut off
441
What does the Orthodox Community avoid doing to intermarried couples?
5a57da44770dc0001aeefe1c
True
Orthodox Judaism maintains the historical understanding of Jewish identity. A Jew is someone who was born to a Jewish mother, or who converts to Judaism in accordance with Jewish law and tradition. Orthodoxy thus rejects patrilineal descent as a means of establishing Jewish identity. Similarly, Orthodoxy strongly condemns intermarriage. Intermarriage is seen as a deliberate rejection of Judaism, and an intermarried person is effectively cut off from most of the Orthodox community. However, some Orthodox Jewish organizations do reach out to intermarried Jews.
What do haredi Judaism and modern orthodox Judaism disagree about the application of?
57098875200fba1400368157
Halakha
206
False
what law is halakha to the Orthodox Jew?
57098875200fba1400368158
God's Law,
679
False
Basic respect for human beings is known as what?
57098875200fba1400368159
"Kavod Habriyot"
1206
False
The sanctiy of human life is known as what?
57098875200fba140036815a
"Pikuach Nefesh"
1257
False
What does halakha guide?
57098875200fba140036815b
structure of daily life
704
False
Haredi Judaism and Modern Orthodox Judaism
89
Which groups maintain significant agreement within Orthodox Judaism about Halakha?
5a57de0e770dc0001aeefe40
True
the law should be maintained
336
Why must the Halakha never be re-examined?
5a57de0e770dc0001aeefe41
True
under scrupulous examination, identical principles may lead to different applications
521
What are Historical Orthodox more willing to assume about changing realities?
5a57de0e770dc0001aeefe42
True
halakha
659
What is a guide to the modern day Jew?
5a57de0e770dc0001aeefe43
True
halakha and a meta-principle
1039
What principles are never in opposition with each other?
5a57de0e770dc0001aeefe44
True
However, there is significant disagreement within Orthodox Judaism, particularly between Haredi Judaism and Modern Orthodox Judaism, about the extent and circumstances under which the proper application of Halakha should be re-examined as a result of changing realities. As a general rule, Haredi Jews believe that when at all possible the law should be maintained as it was understood by their authorities at the haskalah, believing that it had never changed. Modern Orthodox authorities are more willing to assume that under scrupulous examination, identical principles may lead to different applications in the context of modern life. To the Orthodox Jew, halakha is a guide, God's Law, governing the structure of daily life from the moment he or she wakes up to the moment he goes to sleep. It includes codes of behaviour applicable to a broad range of circumstances (and many hypothetical ones). There are though a number of halakhic meta-principles that guide the halakhic process and in an instance of opposition between a specific halakha and a meta-principle, the meta-principle often wins out . Examples of Halakhic Meta-Principles are: "Deracheha Darchei Noam" - the ways of Torah are pleasant, "Kavod Habriyot" - basic respect for human beings, "Pikuach Nefesh" - the sanctity of human life.
What is jewish law today based on?
57098af9ed30961900e842cc
Torah
84
False
what does the halakha represent to orthodox judiasm?
57098af9ed30961900e842cd
will of God
281
False
Where were the rules about the Torah revealed to Moses by God?
57098af9ed30961900e842ce
Mount Sinai
453
False
How many rules are jewish law derived from?
57098af9ed30961900e842cf
13
746
False
What law is considered to be no less the word of god?
57098af9ed30961900e842d0
Oral Law
536
False
Jewish law
31
What is the commandments in the Torah based on according to Modern day Judaism?
5a57e0c4770dc0001aeefe54
True
rabbinic literature
160
Which literature debated the accuracy of the commandments in the Torah?
5a57e0c4770dc0001aeefe55
True
represents the "will of God"
265
What does modern Judaism hold about the halakha?
5a57e0c4770dc0001aeefe56
True
The laws
351
What was given to Noah on Mt. Sinai?
5a57e0c4770dc0001aeefe57
True
Oral Law
536
Which kind of law is consider less because there is no written account?
5a57e0c4770dc0001aeefe58
True
According to Orthodox Judaism, Jewish law today is based on the commandments in the Torah, as viewed through the discussions and debates contained in classical rabbinic literature, especially the Mishnah and the Talmud. Orthodox Judaism thus holds that the halakha represents the "will of God", either directly, or as closely to directly as possible. The laws are from the word of God in the Torah, using a set of rules also revealed by God to Moses on Mount Sinai, and have been derived with the utmost accuracy and care, and thus the Oral Law is considered to be no less the word of God. If some of the details of Jewish law may have been lost over the millennia, they were reconstructed in accordance with internally consistent rules; see The 13 rules by which Jewish law was derived.
What overlaps significantly with Hasidic Judiasm?
57098bc7200fba140036817f
Haredi Judaism
56
False
What overlaps significantly with Haredi Judiasm?
57098bc7200fba1400368180
Chasidic Judaism
11
False
Who founded what is known as the Baal Shem Tov?
57098bc7200fba1400368181
Israel ben Eliezer
336
False
What sought to combine rigourous scholarship with more emotional mitzvah observance?
57098bc7200fba1400368182
Ba'al Shem Tov
788
False
What is the spoken word known as in Hasidic Judiasm?
57098bc7200fba1400368183
Yiddish
1427
False
Hasidic or Chasidic
0
What two forms of Judaism have very little overlaps of beliefs?
5a57c133770dc0001aeefd52
True
Hasidic
0
Which form of Judaism came before Haredi Judaism?
5a57c133770dc0001aeefd53
True
Ba'al Shem Tov
788
What tried to separate scholarship with emotional mitzvah?
5a57c133770dc0001aeefd54
True
Yiddish
1372
What is the spoken word of Chasidic Judiasm?
5a57c133770dc0001aeefd55
True
Hasidic teachings
560
Who was concerned that there was too much joy in the performance of the commandments?
5a57c133770dc0001aeefd56
True
Hasidic or Chasidic Judaism overlaps significantly with Haredi Judaism in its engagement with the secular and commercial world, and in regard to social issues. It precedes the later and differs in its genesis and emerged focus. The movement originated in Eastern Europe (what is now Belarus and Ukraine) in the 18th century. Founded by Israel ben Eliezer, known as the Baal Shem Tov (1698–1760), it emerged in an age of persecution of the Jewish people, when a schism existed between scholarly and common European Jews. In addition to bridging this class gap, Hasidic teachings sought to reintroduce joy in the performance of the commandments and in prayer through the popularisation of Jewish mysticism (this joy had been suppressed in the intense intellectual study of the Talmud). The Ba'al Shem Tov sought to combine rigorous scholarship with more emotional mitzvah observance. In a practical sense, what distinguishes Hasidic Judaism from other forms of Haredi Judaism is the close-knit organization of Hasidic communities centered on a Rebbe (sometimes translated as "Grand Rabbi"), and various customs and modes of dress particular to each community. In some cases, there are religious ideological distinctions between Hasidic groups, as well. Another phenomenon that sets Hasidic Judaism apart from general Haredi Judaism is the strong emphasis placed on speaking Yiddish; in (many) Hasidic households and communities, Yiddish is spoken exclusively.
What is the fertility rate among non-orthodox Jewish families??
57098ca3ed30961900e842d6
1.9 children
308
False
What is the fertility rate among orthodox Jewish families?
57098ca3ed30961900e842d7
4.1 children
268
False
What is the rate of intermarriage among orthodox Jews?
57098ca3ed30961900e842d8
2%
442
False
What is the intermarriage rate among non-orthodox jews?
57098ca3ed30961900e842d9
71%
463
False
how many raised on orthodox Jewish homes abandon orthodox Judaism typically?
57098ca3ed30961900e842da
half
583
False
dwindling
63
What is happening to Orthodox Jewish communities because of intermarriage?
5a57e4aa770dc0001aeefe82
True
4.1 children per family
268
What is the fertility rate of American Jewish communities?
5a57e4aa770dc0001aeefe83
True
Orthodox Jews
218
Who are non-Orthodox Jews allowed to marry in order to increase fertility rates?
5a57e4aa770dc0001aeefe84
True
retention rate
555
What is decreasing among Orthodox jews, according to the NY Times?
5a57e4aa770dc0001aeefe85
True
render them the dominant demographic force in New York Jewry
774
What does the NY Times claim that the rate of growth for non-Orthodox Jews will eventually mean?
5a57e4aa770dc0001aeefe86
True
In contrast to the general American Jewish community, which is dwindling due to low fertility and high intermarriage and assimilation rates, the Orthodox Jewish community of the United States is growing rapidly. Among Orthodox Jews, the fertility rate stands at about 4.1 children per family, as compared to 1.9 children per family among non-Orthodox Jews, and intermarriage among Orthodox Jews is practically non-existent, standing at about 2%, in contrast to a 71% intermarriage rate among non-Orthodox Jews. In addition, Orthodox Judaism has a growing retention rate; while about half of those raised in Orthodox homes previously abandoned Orthodox Judaism, that number is declining. According to The New York Times, the high growth rate of Orthodox Jews will eventually render them the dominant demographic force in New York Jewry.
Orthodox Jews subsciribing to modern orthodoxy tend to be what political alignment typically?
57098d60ed30961900e842ea
right-wing
122
False
half of orthodox judiasm tends to lean to what political ideaology?
57098d60ed30961900e842eb
conservative
385
False
What political party is mostly supported by orthodox jews?
57098d60ed30961900e842ec
Republican
482
False
Haredi and Hasidic Jewry have a stronger connection to what country?
57098d60ed30961900e842ed
Israel
659
False
Haredi and Hasidic Jewry have an attachment to what movement?
57098d60ed30961900e842ee
Zionism
693
False
Orthodox Jews
19
Which group that subscribes to modern orthodoxy are seen to be far more left-wing than non-orthodox Jews?
5a57e876770dc0001aeefea8
True
non-Orthodox American Jews
216
Which group of Jews are neither conservative or liberal?
5a57e876770dc0001aeefea9
True
non-Orthodox American Jews
216
Which group of Jews show no supporter of either political party?
5a57e876770dc0001aeefeaa
True
Israel
659
Which country have the Haredi and the Hasidic Jewry disowned?
5a57e876770dc0001aeefeab
True
Zionism
693
Which movement have the Haredi and Hasidic Jewry severed ties with?
5a57e876770dc0001aeefeac
True
On the other hand, Orthodox Jews subscribing to Modern Orthodoxy in its American and UK incarnations, tend to be far more right-wing than both non-orthodox and other orthodox Jews. While the overwhelming majority of non-Orthodox American Jews are on average strongly liberal and supporters of the Democratic Party, the Modern Orthodox subgroup of Orthodox Judaism tends to be far more conservative, with roughly half describing themselves as political conservatives, and are mostly Republican Party supporters. Modern Orthodox Jews, compared to both the non-Orthodox American Jewry and the Haredi and Hasidic Jewry, also tend to have a stronger connection to Israel due to their attachment to Zionism.
What does the US national council for Young Isreal represent?
57098db1200fba1400368189
Modern Orthodoxy
0
False
What is involvement with non-orthodox Jews known as?
57098db1200fba140036818a
"outreach (Kiruv)"
369
False
What is a core beliefe that was recognized as important by orthodox Jews?
57098db1200fba140036818b
secular studies
544
False
what is it important for both men and women orthodox jews to be able to do?
57098db1200fba140036818c
support oneself
692
False
U.S. National Council for Young Israel
90
What council is considered to be anti-Zionist?
5a57ba54770dc0001aeefd04
True
Zionist in orientation
272
What are affiliates of the State of Israel typically not?
5a57ba54770dc0001aeefd05
True
Zionist
272
Who avoids any practices with non-Orthodox Jews?
5a57ba54770dc0001aeefd06
True
secular studies
544
What is not considered to be a core belief of Zionists?
5a57ba54770dc0001aeefd07
True
men
608
Who do the Jews consider to be more worthy of a higher education?
5a57ba54770dc0001aeefd08
True
Modern Orthodoxy, as a stream of Orthodox Judaism represented by institutions such as the U.S. National Council for Young Israel, is pro-Zionist and thus places a high national, as well as religious, significance on the State of Israel, and its affiliates are, typically, Zionist in orientation. It also practices involvement with non-Orthodox Jews that extends beyond "outreach (Kiruv)" to continued institutional relations and cooperation; see further under Torah Umadda. Other "core beliefs" are a recognition of the value and importance of secular studies, a commitment to equality of education for both men and women, and a full acceptance of the importance of being able to financially support oneself and one's family.
what is the name of the movement of liberalism?
57098dbded30961900e842f4
Haskalah
288
False
what sometimes prefers a more lenient position on Dietray laws?
57098dbded30961900e842f5
Talmud
541
False
previous generations typically praciced a more lenient position in regard to what?
57098dbded30961900e842f6
dietary laws
435
False
What are dietary laws known as?
57098dbded30961900e842f7
halachic practices
343
False
absolute fidelity
31
What has not been challenged by scholars?
5a57a531770dc0001aeefcb2
True
Judaism
120
What has a lot of resemblance today as it did in the middle ages?
5a57a531770dc0001aeefcb3
True
began to embrace far more stringent halachic practices
307
What happened as a reaction to the conservatism movement?
5a57a531770dc0001aeefcb4
True
strictest possible interpretation
459
What is not a religious requirement regarding dietary laws?
5a57a531770dc0001aeefcb5
True
Talmud
541
What explicitly prefers a more stricter position regarding Passover dietary laws?
5a57a531770dc0001aeefcb6
True
However, the Orthodox claim to absolute fidelity to past tradition has been challenged by scholars who contend that the Judaism of the Middle Ages bore little resemblance to that practiced by today's Orthodox. Rather, the Orthodox community, as a counterreaction to the liberalism of the Haskalah movement, began to embrace far more stringent halachic practices than their predecessors, most notably in matters of Kashrut and Passover dietary laws, where the strictest possible interpretation becomes a religious requirement, even where the Talmud explicitly prefers a more lenient position, and even where a more lenient position was practiced by prior generations.
When can the roots of orthodox judaism be traced to?
57098dc3ed30961900e842fc
19th century
70
False
When did the German Jewry seek to reform Jewish belief?
57098dc3ed30961900e842fd
early 19th century
169
False
what did orthodox jews seek to modernize?
57098dc3ed30961900e842fe
education
289
False
what did the German Jewry reject about the Torah?
57098dc3ed30961900e842ff
absolute divine authorship
365
False
19th century
70
Which century can the roots of Orthodox Judaism trace back to?
5a578ab5770dc0001aeefc76
True
19th century
175
When did the Roman Jewry attempt to reform Jewish beliefs?
5a578ab5770dc0001aeefc77
True
modernize education
279
What did the German Jewry attempt in response to the middle ages?
5a578ab5770dc0001aeefc78
True
German Jewry
105
Who made the claim that the Torah had divine authorship?
5a578ab5770dc0001aeefc79
True
biblical laws
421
What part of the Torah was considered non-binding?
5a578ab5770dc0001aeefc7a
True
The roots of Orthodox Judaism can be traced to the late 18th or early 19th century, when elements within German Jewry sought to reform Jewish belief and practice in the early 19th century in response to the Age of Enlightenment, Jewish Emancipation, and Haskalah. They sought to modernize education in light of contemporary scholarship. They rejected claims of the absolute divine authorship of the Torah, declaring only biblical laws concerning ethics to be binding, and stated that the rest of halakha (Jewish law) need not be viewed as normative for Jews in wider society. (see Reform Judaism).
What do orthodox Jews express ambivalence towards?
57098e54ed30961900e84304
Zionism
410
False
What is the administration of the state of Isreal seen as?
57098e54ed30961900e84305
Zionist
633
False
What does the State of Isreal place emphasis on besides Militarism?
57098e54ed30961900e84306
nationalism
716
False
What does the State of Isreal place emphasis on in addition to Nationalism?
57098e54ed30961900e84307
militarism
701
False
what is the Zionist administrartion of the state of Israel seen as according to the judaic way of life?
57098e54ed30961900e84308
destructive
732
False
Orthodox Jews
13
Who is not ambivalent toward Zionism?
5a57e635770dc0001aeefe96
True
Orthodox Judaism, Haredi Orthodox and Hasidic Orthodox Jews
303
Which groups of Orthodox Jews are outspokenly pro-Zionistic?
5a57e635770dc0001aeefe97
True
Zionism
562
What ideology do many Orthodox Jews see as in support of the Torah?
5a57e635770dc0001aeefe98
True
militarism and nationalism
701
What do Orthodox Jews see as a benefit to the Judaic way of life?
5a57e635770dc0001aeefe99
True
State of Israel
442
Who is in charge of the Zionist administration?
5a57e635770dc0001aeefe9a
True
Politically, Orthodox Jews, given their variety of movements and affiliations, tend not to conform easily to the standard left-right political spectrum, with one of the key differences between the movements stemming from the groups' attitudes to Zionism. Generally speaking, of the three key strands of Orthodox Judaism, Haredi Orthodox and Hasidic Orthodox Jews are at best ambivalent towards the ideology of Zionism and the creation of the State of Israel, and there are many groups and organisations who are outspokenly anti-Zionistic, seeing the ideology of Zionism as diametrically opposed to the teaching of the Torah, and the Zionist administration of the State of Israel, with its emphasis on militarism and nationalism, as destructive of the Judaic way of life.
Tamudic schools are known as what?
57098f5ced30961900e84318
yeshivot
475
False
what are the colleges married men study in called?
57098f5ced30961900e84319
Talmudical colleges
531
False
Haredi and Chassidic communities are threatened by assimilation and intermarriage so they do not do what with non-orthodox populaions?
57098f5ced30961900e8431a
interact
198
False
Haredi Jews do not share what with other jewish sects?
57098f5ced30961900e8431b
doctrines
246
False
the emphasis on strictness
13
What resulted in the rise of heterogeneous enclaves?
5a57b2f3770dc0001aeefcde
True
haredi Jews
102
Who refused to practice assimilation and intermarriage in enclaves?
5a57b2f3770dc0001aeefcdf
True
emphasis on strictness
17
What practice proved unsuccessful to the adherents of Orthodox Judaism?
5a57b2f3770dc0001aeefce0
True
Chassidic communities
378
Which communities have grown slowly?
5a57b2f3770dc0001aeefce1
True
scholars
425
Who estimate that less Jewish men are studying in Talmudic schools?
5a57b2f3770dc0001aeefce2
True
In practice, the emphasis on strictness has resulted in the rise of "homogeneous enclaves" with other haredi Jews that are less likely to be threatened by assimilation and intermarriage, or even to interact with other Jews who do not share their doctrines. Nevertheless, this strategy has proved successful and the number of adherents to Orthodox Judaism, especially Haredi and Chassidic communities, has grown rapidly. Some scholars estimate more Jewish men are studying in yeshivot (Talmudic schools) and Kollelim (post-graduate Talmudical colleges for married (male) students) than at any other time in history.[citation needed]
What considers itself the only true heir to the Jewish tradition?
57098fc7ed30961900e84320
Orthodox Judaism
0
False
What do Orthodox Jewish movements consider all other non-orthodox moments?
57098fc7ed30961900e84321
unacceptable
170
False
What do Orthodox jewish groups characterize non-orthodox form of Judiasm as?
57098fc7ed30961900e84322
heretical
464
False
Orthodox Jewish groups reject what precedent?
57098fc7ed30961900e84323
Halakhic
355
False
true heir
56
What does Orthodox Judaism consider itself along with several other groups in the Jewish tradition?
5a57d821770dc0001aeefe04
True
non-Orthodox Jewish
134
Who do the Orthodox Jews consider to be acceptable deviations of Judaism?
5a57d821770dc0001aeefe05
True
unacceptable deviations
170
What do the non-Orthodox Jews consider the Orthodox Jewish movement to be?
5a57d821770dc0001aeefe06
True
authentic Judaism
199
What is the acceptance of the Witten and Oral Torah considered to be?
5a57d821770dc0001aeefe07
True
heretical
464
What do Non-Orthodox Jews characterize Orthodox Jewish groups to be?
5a57d821770dc0001aeefe08
True
Orthodox Judaism collectively considers itself the only true heir to the Jewish tradition. The Orthodox Jewish movements consider all non-Orthodox Jewish movements to be unacceptable deviations from authentic Judaism; both because of other denominations' doubt concerning the verbal revelation of Written and Oral Torah, and because of their rejection of Halakhic precedent as binding. As such, Orthodox Jewish groups characterize non-Orthodox forms of Judaism as heretical; see the article on Relationships between Jewish religious movements.
Where do many American Orthodox Jews live?
57099000200fba1400368191
New York State
123
False
Borough Park, Midwood, Williamsburg and Crown heights have particularly large communities of what?
57099000200fba1400368192
American Orthodox Jews
515
False
Where is a sizeable and rapidly growing Orthodox community currently located besides New York State?
57099000200fba1400368193
New Jersey
752
False
Where is the most rapidly growing community of American orthodox jews located?
57099000200fba1400368194
Rockland County
552
False
United States
72
Which country contains only a few small Jewish communities?
5a57e213770dc0001aeefe66
True
New York State
123
What area have many American Orthodox Jews left?
5a57e213770dc0001aeefe67
True
Brooklyn
421
Which NY borough have very small Jewish communities?
5a57e213770dc0001aeefe68
True
Rockland County
552
Where is an increasingly shrinking community of American Orthodox Jews located?
5a57e213770dc0001aeefe69
True
New Jersey
752
What area besides New York are the Orthodox communities in decline?
5a57e213770dc0001aeefe6a
True
Although sizable Orthodox Jewish communities are located throughout the United States, many American Orthodox Jews live in New York State, particularly in the New York City Metropolitan Area. Two of the main Orthodox communities in the United States are located in New York City and Rockland County. In New York City, the neighborhoods of Borough Park, Midwood, Williamsburg, and Crown Heights, located in the borough of Brooklyn, have particularly large Orthodox communities. The most rapidly growing community of American Orthodox Jews is located in Rockland County and the Hudson Valley of New York, including the communities of Monsey, Monroe, New Square, and Kiryas Joel. There are also sizable and rapidly growing Orthodox communities throughout New Jersey, particularly in Lakewood, Teaneck, Englewood, Passaic, and Fair Lawn.
Who did the modern orthodoxy arise from?
5709909ded30961900e84332
Western European Jewry
93
False
What do most Jews consider modern orthodoxy today?
5709909ded30961900e84333
traditional
159
False
the neo-orthodox movement holds that who's views are not accurately followed by the mordern orthodoxy?
5709909ded30961900e84334
Hirsch's
338
False
scholars
5
Who believe that Modern Orthodoxy arose from Eastern European Jewry?
5a5790b5770dc0001aeefc94
True
Modern Orthodoxy
142
What is not considered traditional today by most Jews?
5a5790b5770dc0001aeefc95
True
(the hareidi and hasidic
183
Who considers modern orthodoxy to have completely valid elements?
5a5790b5770dc0001aeefc96
True
neo-Orthodox movement
305
Who holds that Hirsch's views are accurate?
5a5790b5770dc0001aeefc97
True
traditional
159
What is classical Orthodoxy considered by the Western European Jewry?
5a5790b5770dc0001aeefc98
True
Some scholars believe that Modern Orthodoxy arose from the religious and social realities of Western European Jewry. While most Jews consider Modern Orthodoxy traditional today, some (the hareidi and hasidic groups) within the Orthodox community consider some elements to be of questionable validity. The neo-Orthodox movement holds that Hirsch's views are not accurately followed by Modern Orthodoxy. [See Torah im Derech Eretz and Torah Umadda "Relationship with Torah im Derech Eretz" for a more extensive listing.]
What do Orthodox Jews turn to for guidance and practical application of jewish law?
570990a2200fba14003681a3
Shulchan Aruch
97
False
there is a large degree of what amongst all orthodox jews?
570990a2200fba14003681a4
uniformity
282
False
What is the differences among regions in practices known as?
570990a2200fba14003681a5
minhag
868
False
Why are the codes and responsa different in regards to details?
570990a2200fba14003681a6
philosophical differences
629
False
Shulchan Aruch
97
Who do the Orthodox Jews avoid for guidance in practical application of Jewish law?
5a57c4a8770dc0001aeefd5c
True
Rabbi Joseph Caro
166
Who created the code of Jewish law in the 12th century?
5a57c4a8770dc0001aeefd5d
True
Jewish Law
441
What causes a large degree of differences regarding all Orthodox Jews?
5a57c4a8770dc0001aeefd5e
True
historic dispersal of the Jews
753
What is responsible for the common philosophy's of all Orthodox Jews?
5a57c4a8770dc0001aeefd5f
True
Jewish Law
441
What was developed recently to standardize codes?
5a57c4a8770dc0001aeefd60
True
For guidance in practical application of Jewish law, the majority of Orthodox Jews appeal to the Shulchan Aruch ("Code of Jewish Law" composed in the 16th century by Rabbi Joseph Caro) together with its surrounding commentaries. Thus, at a general level, there is a large degree of uniformity amongst all Orthodox Jews. Concerning the details, however, there is often variance: decisions may be based on various of the standardized codes of Jewish Law that have been developed over the centuries, as well as on the various responsa. These codes and responsa may differ from each other as regards detail (and reflecting the above philosophical differences, as regards the weight assigned to these). By and large, however, the differences result from the historic dispersal of the Jews and the consequent development of differences among regions in their practices (see minhag).
Who held the opinion that judiasm demands and application of torah thought to the entire realm of human experience?
57099130ed30961900e84342
Hirsch
0
False
What was Hirsch's approach called?
57099130ed30961900e84343
Torah im Derech Eretz
181
False
What was the Torah im Dereche Eretz aslo known as?
57099130ed30961900e84344
neo-Orthodoxy
217
False
The Torah im Derech Eretz insisted that Jews should attempt to engage and influence what?
57099130ed30961900e84345
modern world
363
False
Hirsch
0
Who held that Judaism demands an application of the bible through human experience?
5a578ae4770dc0001aeefc8a
True
secular
132
What discipline is not included in Hirsch's opinion?
5a578ae4770dc0001aeefc8b
True
the modern world
359
Where did Hirsch believe that Jewish beliefs had no influence?
5a578ae4770dc0001aeefc8c
True
secular studies
398
What studies were not encouraged by Hirsch?
5a578ae4770dc0001aeefc8d
True
Muslim and Christian
726
What two societies did the Jews refuse to engage with?
5a578ae4770dc0001aeefc8e
True
Hirsch held the opinion that Judaism demands an application of Torah thought to the entire realm of human experience, including the secular disciplines. His approach was termed the Torah im Derech Eretz approach, or "neo-Orthodoxy". While insisting on strict adherence to Jewish beliefs and practices, he held that Jews should attempt to engage and influence the modern world, and encouraged those secular studies compatible with Torah thought. This pattern of religious and secular involvement has been evident at many times in Jewish history. Scholars[who?] believe it was characteristic of the Jews in Babylon during the Amoraic and Geonic periods, and likewise in early medieval Spain, shown by their engagement with both Muslim and Christian society. It appeared as the traditional response to cultural and scientific innovation.
Animal
Where does the word animal come from?
570980be200fba14003680b7
Latin animalis
33
False
What does the Latin word animalis mean?
570980be200fba14003680b8
having breath, having soul or living being
57
False
The word animal is usually only used to refer to what?
570980be200fba14003680b9
non-human members of the kingdom Animalia
210
False
The biological definition of the word animal refers to all member of what kingdom?
570980be200fba14003680ba
Animalia
429
False
What are some of the creatures included in the kingdom of Animalia?
570980be200fba14003680bb
sponges, jellyfish, insects, and humans
476
False
The word "animal" comes from the Latin animalis, meaning having breath, having soul or living being. In everyday non-scientific usage the word excludes humans – that is, "animal" is often used to refer only to non-human members of the kingdom Animalia; often, only closer relatives of humans such as mammals, or mammals and other vertebrates, are meant. The biological definition of the word refers to all members of the kingdom Animalia, encompassing creatures as diverse as sponges, jellyfish, insects, and humans.
What type of cells do all animals have?
57098721ed30961900e84286
eukaryotic
17
False
What is the extracellular matrix surrounding eukaryotic cells made of?
57098721ed30961900e84287
collagen and elastic glycoproteins
99
False
What is formed when the collagen and elastic glycoproteins surrounding eukaryotic cells are calcified?
57098721ed30961900e84288
shells, bones, and spicules
181
False
How are cells held in place in plants and fungi?
57098721ed30961900e84289
cell walls
454
False
What are the intercellular junctions unique to animal cells?
57098721ed30961900e8428a
tight junctions, gap junctions, and desmosomes
576
False
All animals have eukaryotic cells, surrounded by a characteristic extracellular matrix composed of collagen and elastic glycoproteins. This may be calcified to form structures like shells, bones, and spicules. During development, it forms a relatively flexible framework upon which cells can move about and be reorganized, making complex structures possible. In contrast, other multicellular organisms, like plants and fungi, have cells held in place by cell walls, and so develop by progressive growth. Also, unique to animal cells are the following intercellular junctions: tight junctions, gap junctions, and desmosomes.
What is the biological interaction where a predator feeds on its prey called?
5709917b200fba14003681ab
Predation
0
False
The act of predation typically results in what for the prey?
5709917b200fba14003681ac
death
259
False
What is the consumption of dead organic matter called?
5709917b200fba14003681ad
detritivory
320
False
Why do parasitic species lay their eggs on their prey?
5709917b200fba14003681ae
their offspring to feed on its decaying corpse
537
False
The evolutionary arms race between prey and predator has resulted in what?
5709917b200fba14003681af
various antipredator adaptations
705
False
Predation is a biological interaction where a predator (a heterotroph that is hunting) feeds on its prey (the organism that is attacked). Predators may or may not kill their prey prior to feeding on them, but the act of predation almost always results in the death of the prey. The other main category of consumption is detritivory, the consumption of dead organic matter. It can at times be difficult to separate the two feeding behaviours, for example, where parasitic species prey on a host organism and then lay their eggs on it for their offspring to feed on its decaying corpse. Selective pressures imposed on one another has led to an evolutionary arms race between prey and predator, resulting in various antipredator adaptations.
Ctenophora and the Cnidaria include what sea creatures?
570993c9ed30961900e84354
anemones, corals, and jellyfish
75
False
The digestive chambers of the Ctenophora and the Cnidaria serve as what?
570993c9ed30961900e84355
both the mouth and the anus
198
False
What are the 2 main germ systems in the Ctenophora and the Cnidaria called?
570993c9ed30961900e84356
ectoderm and endoderm
336
False
What are the Ctenophora and the Cnidaria animals sometimes called?
570993c9ed30961900e84357
diploblastic
443
False
What differentiates placozoans from the ctenophora and the cnidaria?
570993c9ed30961900e84358
they do not have a permanent digestive chamber
494
False
Among the other phyla, the Ctenophora and the Cnidaria, which includes sea anemones, corals, and jellyfish, are radially symmetric and have digestive chambers with a single opening, which serves as both the mouth and the anus. Both have distinct tissues, but they are not organized into organs. There are only two main germ layers, the ectoderm and endoderm, with only scattered cells between them. As such, these animals are sometimes called diploblastic. The tiny placozoans are similar, but they do not have a permanent digestive chamber.
What sets animals apart from bacteria  and most protists?
57099526ed30961900e8435e
Animals are eukaryotic and multicellular
83
False
What are organisms called that digest food in an internal chamber?
57099526ed30961900e8435f
heterotrophic
188
False
What is another way in which animals are distinguished from plants and algae?
57099526ed30961900e84360
lacking rigid cell walls
357
False
The blastula stage is a characteristic exclusive to what organism?
57099526ed30961900e84361
animals
534
False
Animals have several characteristics that set them apart from other living things. Animals are eukaryotic and multicellular, which separates them from bacteria and most protists. They are heterotrophic, generally digesting food in an internal chamber, which separates them from plants and algae. They are also distinguished from plants, algae, and fungi by lacking rigid cell walls. All animals are motile, if only at certain life stages. In most animals, embryos pass through a blastula stage, which is a characteristic exclusive to animals.
What is the hollow sphere that a zygote initially develops into called?
57099732200fba14003681b5
blastula
59
False
In sponges, how do blastula develop into a new sponge?
57099732200fba14003681b6
swim to a new location
148
False
What are the 2 germ layers formed by most blastula?
57099732200fba14003681b7
an external ectoderm and an internal endoderm
376
False
What may be formed between the external ectoderm and an internal endoderm layers?
57099732200fba14003681b8
mesoderm
440
False
What do the external ectoderm and an internal endoderm layers develop into?
57099732200fba14003681b9
tissues and organs
522
False
A zygote initially develops into a hollow sphere, called a blastula, which undergoes rearrangement and differentiation. In sponges, blastula larvae swim to a new location and develop into a new sponge. In most other groups, the blastula undergoes more complicated rearrangement. It first invaginates to form a gastrula with a digestive chamber, and two separate germ layers — an external ectoderm and an internal endoderm. In most cases, a mesoderm also develops between them. These germ layers then differentiate to form tissues and organs.
How long ago do some paleontologists believe that animals first appeared?
57099a75200fba14003681c9
1 billion years
114
False
Fossils found in the Tonian period indicate the presence of what creatures?
57099a75200fba14003681ca
triploblastic worms
228
False
Triploblastic worms were comparable in size to what other creatures?
57099a75200fba14003681cb
earthworms
315
False
When was the beginning of the Tonian period?
57099a75200fba14003681cc
around 1 billion years ago
369
False
What produces tracks similar to the fossilized tracks discovered by paleontologists?
57099a75200fba14003681cd
Gromia sphaerica
821
False
Some paleontologists suggest that animals appeared much earlier than the Cambrian explosion, possibly as early as 1 billion years ago. Trace fossils such as tracks and burrows found in the Tonian period indicate the presence of triploblastic worms, like metazoans, roughly as large (about 5 mm wide) and complex as earthworms. During the beginning of the Tonian period around 1 billion years ago, there was a decrease in Stromatolite diversity, which may indicate the appearance of grazing animals, since stromatolite diversity increased when grazing animals went extinct at the End Permian and End Ordovician extinction events, and decreased shortly after the grazer populations recovered. However the discovery that tracks very similar to these early trace fossils are produced today by the giant single-celled protist Gromia sphaerica casts doubt on their interpretation as evidence of early animal evolution.
It is believed that animals evolved from what?
57099b92200fba14003681d3
a flagellated eukaryote
54
False
What are the closest known living relatives of animals?
57099b92200fba14003681d4
choanoflagellates
124
False
What is the name of the supergroup that animals have been placed in by molecular studies?
57099b92200fba14003681d5
opisthokonts
293
False
The opisthokonts also include what other organisms?
57099b92200fba14003681d6
choanoflagellates, fungi and a few small parasitic protists
330
False
Where does the name opisthokonts come from?
57099b92200fba14003681d7
the posterior location of the flagellum in motile cells
411
False
Animals are generally considered to have evolved from a flagellated eukaryote. Their closest known living relatives are the choanoflagellates, collared flagellates that have a morphology similar to the choanocytes of certain sponges. Molecular studies place animals in a supergroup called the opisthokonts, which also include the choanoflagellates, fungi and a few small parasitic protists. The name comes from the posterior location of the flagellum in motile cells, such as most animal spermatozoa, whereas other eukaryotes tend to have anterior flagella.
What is the group of animals that often have a specialized head with feeding and sensory organs called?
57099f78200fba14003681ef
Bilateria
59
False
How many openings in the digestive chamber do animals in the Bilateria group have?
57099f78200fba14003681f0
two
322
False
What are the openings in the digestive chambers for animals in the Bilateria group called?
57099f78200fba14003681f1
mouth and an anus
338
False
What is the internal body cavity of animals in the Bilateria group called?
57099f78200fba14003681f2
coelom or pseudocoelom
408
False
The remaining animals form a monophyletic group called the Bilateria. For the most part, they are bilaterally symmetric, and often have a specialized head with feeding and sensory organs. The body is triploblastic, i.e. all three germ layers are well-developed, and tissues form distinct organs. The digestive chamber has two openings, a mouth and an anus, and there is also an internal body cavity called a coelom or pseudocoelom. There are exceptions to each of these characteristics, however — for instance adult echinoderms are radially symmetric, and certain parasitic worms have extremely simplified body structures.
What are some examples of non-bilaterian animals?
5709a2feed30961900e843a2
Porifera, Ctenophora, Cnidaria and Placozoa
212
False
What are animals whose body plans display bilateral symmetry called?
5709a2feed30961900e843a3
bilaterian
262
False
Animals in what group are thought to form a monophyletic group?
5709a2feed30961900e843a4
bilaterian
507
False
Traditional morphological and modern molecular phylogenetic analysis have both recognized a major evolutionary transition from "non-bilaterian" animals, which are those lacking a bilaterally symmetric body plan (Porifera, Ctenophora, Cnidaria and Placozoa), to "bilaterian" animals (Bilateria) whose body plans display bilateral symmetry. The latter are further classified based on a major division between Deuterostomes and Protostomes. The relationships among non-bilaterian animals are disputed, but all bilaterian animals are thought to form a monophyletic group. Current understanding of the relationships among the major groups of animals is summarized by the following cladogram:
What groups is named after the trait of growth by moulting or ecdysis?
5709a434ed30961900e843b2
Ecdysozoa
4
False
What are some animals in the Arthropoda group?
5709a434ed30961900e843b3
insects, spiders, crabs
160
False
Organisms in the Arthropoda group have bodies that are divided into what?
5709a434ed30961900e843b4
repeating segments
245
False
What groups are relatives of the arthropods?
5709a434ed30961900e843b5
Onychophora and Tardigrada
322
False
What is another name for roundworms?
5709a434ed30961900e843b6
Nematoda
445
False
The Ecdysozoa are protostomes, named after the common trait of growth by moulting or ecdysis. The largest animal phylum belongs here, the Arthropoda, including insects, spiders, crabs, and their kin. All these organisms have a body divided into repeating segments, typically with paired appendages. Two smaller phyla, the Onychophora and Tardigrada, are close relatives of the arthropods and share these traits. The ecdysozoans also include the Nematoda or roundworms, perhaps the second largest animal phylum. Roundworms are typically microscopic, and occur in nearly every environment where there is water. A number are important parasites. Smaller phyla related to them are the Nematomorpha or horsehair worms, and the Kinorhyncha, Priapulida, and Loricifera. These groups have a reduced coelom, called a pseudocoelom.
Why is it more economical for scientists to study a small number of species?
5709b099200fba140036826d
the great diversity found in animals
11
False
Which organisms were among the first life-forms to be genetically sequenced?
5709b099200fba140036826e
fruit fly Drosophila melanogaster and the nematode Caenorhabditis elegans
290
False
Why are  the fruit fly and the nematode the most intensively studied metazoan model organisms?
5709b099200fba140036826f
they are easy to keep and breed
253
False
Analysis of what genome has emphasised the importance of sponges, placozoans, and choanoflagellates  in explaining the arrival of 1500 ancestral genes unique to the Eumetazoa?
5709b099200fba1400368270
starlet sea anemone
868
False
Because of the great diversity found in animals, it is more economical for scientists to study a small number of chosen species so that connections can be drawn from their work and conclusions extrapolated about how animals function in general. Because they are easy to keep and breed, the fruit fly Drosophila melanogaster and the nematode Caenorhabditis elegans have long been the most intensively studied metazoan model organisms, and were among the first life-forms to be genetically sequenced. This was facilitated by the severely reduced state of their genomes, but as many genes, introns, and linkages lost, these ecdysozoans can teach us little about the origins of animals in general. The extent of this type of evolution within the superphylum will be revealed by the crustacean, annelid, and molluscan genome projects currently in progress. Analysis of the starlet sea anemone genome has emphasised the importance of sponges, placozoans, and choanoflagellates, also being sequenced, in explaining the arrival of 1500 ancestral genes unique to the Eumetazoa.
What are two of the most successful animal phyla?
5709c643ed30961900e8448a
Mollusca and Annelida
101
False
What are some of the animals in Mollusca?
5709c643ed30961900e8448b
snails, clams, and squids
235
False
What are some of the animals in Annelida?
5709c643ed30961900e8448c
earthworms and leeches
316
False
Why are the Mollusca and Annelida considered to be close relatives?
5709c643ed30961900e8448d
common presence of trochophore larvae
414
False
What are the phyla that have a ring of ciliated tentacles around the mouth called?
5709c643ed30961900e8448e
lophophore
836
False
The Lophotrochozoa, evolved within Protostomia, include two of the most successful animal phyla, the Mollusca and Annelida. The former, which is the second-largest animal phylum by number of described species, includes animals such as snails, clams, and squids, and the latter comprises the segmented worms, such as earthworms and leeches. These two groups have long been considered close relatives because of the common presence of trochophore larvae, but the annelids were considered closer to the arthropods because they are both segmented. Now, this is generally considered convergent evolution, owing to many morphological and genetic differences between the two phyla. The Lophotrochozoa also include the Nemertea or ribbon worms, the Sipuncula, and several phyla that have a ring of ciliated tentacles around the mouth, called a lophophore. These were traditionally grouped together as the lophophorates. but it now appears that the lophophorate group may be paraphyletic, with some closer to the nemerteans and some to the molluscs and annelids. They include the Brachiopoda or lamp shells, which are prominent in the fossil record, the Entoprocta, the Phoronida, and possibly the Bryozoa or moss animals.
Animal phyla that are recognized for their lack of bilateral symmetry are thought to have come from where?
5709c9c4ed30961900e844a8
other animals early in evolution
112
False
Which animal represents the oldest animal phyla?
5709c9c4ed30961900e844a9
sponges
163
False
How do sponges typically feed?
5709c9c4ed30961900e844aa
drawing in water through pores
438
False
During what time were a series of phylogenomic studies conducted that found support for comb jellies as the basal lineage of animals?
5709c9c4ed30961900e844ab
2008-2015
517
False
Several animal phyla are recognized for their lack of bilateral symmetry, and are thought to have diverged from other animals early in evolution. Among these, the sponges (Porifera) were long thought to have diverged first, representing the oldest animal phylum. They lack the complex organization found in most other phyla. Their cells are differentiated, but in most cases not organized into distinct tissues. Sponges typically feed by drawing in water through pores. However, a series of phylogenomic studies from 2008-2015 have found support for Ctenophora, or comb jellies, as the basal lineage of animals. This result has been controversial, since it would imply that that sponges may not be so primitive, but may instead be secondarily simplified. Other researchers have argued that the placement of Ctenophora as the earliest-diverging animal phylum is a statistical anomaly caused by the high rate of evolution in ctenophore genomes.
What do deuterostomes and protostomes have in common?
5709cfcc4103511400d59450
both groups possess a complete digestive tract
68
False
In which group does the anus form first, with the mouth developing secondarily?
5709cfcc4103511400d59451
deuterostomes
290
False
What is the process in which cells fill in the interior of the gastrula to form the mesoderm called?
5709cfcc4103511400d59452
schizocoelous development
465
False
What is the process in which the mesoderm is formed through invagination of the endoderm called?
5709cfcc4103511400d59453
enterocoelic pouching
568
False
What do deuterostome embryos undergo during cell division?
5709cfcc4103511400d59454
radial cleavage
620
False
Deuterostomes differ from protostomes in several ways. Animals from both groups possess a complete digestive tract. However, in protostomes, the first opening of the gut to appear in embryological development (the archenteron) develops into the mouth, with the anus forming secondarily. In deuterostomes the anus forms first, with the mouth developing secondarily. In most protostomes, cells simply fill in the interior of the gastrula to form the mesoderm, called schizocoelous development, but in deuterostomes, it forms through invagination of the endoderm, called enterocoelic pouching. Deuterostome embryos undergo radial cleavage during cell division, while protostomes undergo spiral cleavage.
What is another name for flatworm?
5709d15f4103511400d59464
Platyhelminthes
32
False
What are some parasites included in the Platyhelminthes group?
5709d15f4103511400d59465
flukes and tapeworms
260
False
What does acoelomates mean?
5709d15f4103511400d59466
lacking a body cavity
309
False
What are the flatworms closest relative?
5709d15f4103511400d59467
Gastrotricha
380
False
Where are the rotifera most prominent?
5709d15f4103511400d59468
in aqueous environments
530
False
The Platyzoa include the phylum Platyhelminthes, the flatworms. These were originally considered some of the most primitive Bilateria, but it now appears they developed from more complex ancestors. A number of parasites are included in this group, such as the flukes and tapeworms. Flatworms are acoelomates, lacking a body cavity, as are their closest relatives, the microscopic Gastrotricha. The other platyzoan phyla are mostly microscopic and pseudocoelomate. The most prominent are the Rotifera or rotifers, which are common in aqueous environments. They also include the Acanthocephala or spiny-headed worms, the Gnathostomulida, Micrognathozoa, and possibly the Cycliophora. These groups share the presence of complex jaws, from which they are called the Gnathifera.
How do most animals use the energy of sunlight?
5709d4004103511400d59476
eating plants or plant-eating animals
54
False
What do plants use to convert inorganic molecules into carbohydrates, fats, proteins and other biomolecules?
5709d4004103511400d59477
light
109
False
What does photosynthesis convert the energy of sunlight into?
5709d4004103511400d59478
chemical energy
413
False
When an animal eats plants or another animal that has eaten plants, what happens to the reduced carbon compounds in the food?
5709d4004103511400d59479
become a source of energy and building materials for the animal
746
False
What happens with the reduced carbon compounds in the food are broken down releasing stored solar energy?
5709d4004103511400d5947a
giving the animal the energy required for motion
917
False
Most animals indirectly use the energy of sunlight by eating plants or plant-eating animals. Most plants use light to convert inorganic molecules in their environment into carbohydrates, fats, proteins and other biomolecules, characteristically containing reduced carbon in the form of carbon-hydrogen bonds. Starting with carbon dioxide (CO2) and water (H2O), photosynthesis converts the energy of sunlight into chemical energy in the form of simple sugars (e.g., glucose), with the release of molecular oxygen. These sugars are then used as the building blocks for plant growth, including the production of other biomolecules. When an animal eats plants (or eats other animals which have eaten plants), the reduced carbon compounds in the food become a source of energy and building materials for the animal. They are either used directly to help the animal grow, or broken down, releasing stored solar energy, and giving the animal the energy required for motion.
Beer
What is the process of making beer called?
57099056ed30961900e84328
brewing
39
False
What is a building called that is used for making beer?
57099056ed30961900e84329
a brewery
102
False
What is company that makes beer typically known as?
57099056ed30961900e8432a
a brewing company
243
False
What is beer classified as when it is made for non-commerical consumption?
57099056ed30961900e8432b
homebrewing
336
False
In what year was home brewing first allowed in the UK?
57099056ed30961900e8432c
1963
647
False
homebrewing to become a popular hobby
712
In 1973 what did Australia allow?
5acd474507355d001abf3be0
True
1978
697
The US was the last contry to allow homebrewing in which year?
5acd474507355d001abf3be1
True
brewery
104
A commercial building for brewing beer is called what?
5acd474507355d001abf3be2
True
legislation and taxation
456
Brewing beer is subject to what in all countries?
5acd474507355d001abf3be3
True
the UK
606
What country relaxed brewing legislation in 1936?
5acd61bb07355d001abf4012
True
Australia
665
What country relaxed brewing legislation in 1927?
5acd61bb07355d001abf4013
True
US
691
What country relaxed brewing legislation in 1987?
5acd61bb07355d001abf4014
True
homebrewing
712
What became a hobby in the US due to relaxed laws in 1987?
5acd61bb07355d001abf4015
True
The process of making beer is known as brewing. A dedicated building for the making of beer is called a brewery, though beer can be made in the home and has been for much of its history. A company that makes beer is called either a brewery or a brewing company. Beer made on a domestic scale for non-commercial reasons is classified as homebrewing regardless of where it is made, though most homebrewed beer is made in the home. Brewing beer is subject to legislation and taxation in developed countries, which from the late 19th century largely restricted brewing to a commercial operation only. However, the UK government relaxed legislation in 1963, followed by Australia in 1972 and the US in 1978, allowing homebrewing to become a popular hobby.
In breweries, what do you call a small vat that is filled with hops?
57099360ed30961900e8434a
a hopback
119
False
In what phase of brewing does hopped wort become beer?
57099360ed30961900e8434b
fermentation
321
False
What substance settles and make beer clear after it ferments?
57099360ed30961900e8434c
yeast
603
False
How long does the fermentation process take in brewing beer?
57099360ed30961900e8434d
a week to months
385
False
What substance is added to hopped wort once it cools after boiling?
57099360ed30961900e8434e
yeast
60
False
boiling
6
After what process is the hopped yeast cooled?
5acd68ab07355d001abf40f4
True
a small vat filled with hops, to add aromatic hop flavouring and to act as a filter;
139
What is a backhop?
5acd68ab07355d001abf40f5
True
the fermenter
273
What is the hopped yeast usually cooled for?
5acd68ab07355d001abf40f6
True
ethanol
484
What does fine particulate yeast produce?
5acd68ab07355d001abf40f7
True
clear
640
What color is the beer after the wort settles?
5acd68ab07355d001abf40f8
True
After boiling, the hopped wort is now cooled, ready for the yeast. In some breweries, the hopped wort may pass through a hopback, which is a small vat filled with hops, to add aromatic hop flavouring and to act as a filter; but usually the hopped wort is simply cooled for the fermenter, where the yeast is added. During fermentation, the wort becomes beer in a process which requires a week to months depending on the type of yeast and strength of the beer. In addition to producing ethanol, fine particulate matter suspended in the wort settles during fermentation. Once fermentation is complete, the yeast also settles, leaving the beer clear.
What is the main source of starch and most beer?
570a2cda6d058f1900182cd0
barley malt
25
False
At what point does barley have it's hull broken up into pieces?
570a2cda6d058f1900182cd1
After malting
149
False
What takes the place of barley malt in gluten-free beer?
570a2cda6d058f1900182cd2
sorghum
578
False
When is sweet wort separated during the brewing process?
570a2cda6d058f1900182cd3
during lautering
321
False
Aside from barley, what is a another product founded beer that might contain gluten?
570a2cda6d058f1900182cd4
wheat
666
False
starch
60
What does all beer include as the majority of malt?
5acd6eb307355d001abf41e8
True
malting
155
What is done to the barley after it is milled?
5acd6eb307355d001abf41e9
True
filter bed
310
What do the remaining grain pieces act as during lautering?
5acd6eb307355d001abf41ea
True
gluten-free beer
550
What is the beer containing wheat, barley, and rye called when made with sorghum as well?
5acd6eb307355d001abf41eb
True
Nearly all beer includes barley malt as the majority of the starch. This is because its fibrous hull remains attached to the grain during threshing. After malting, barley is milled, which finally removes the hull, breaking it into large pieces. These pieces remain with the grain during the mash, and act as a filter bed during lautering, when sweet wort is separated from insoluble grain material. Other malted and unmalted grains (including wheat, rice, oats, and rye, and less frequently, corn and sorghum) may be used. Some brewers have produced gluten-free beer, made with sorghum with no barley malt, for those who cannot consume gluten-containing grains like wheat, barley, and rye.
What is a brewery called that makes a small amount of beer?
570a30f74103511400d595b2
microbrewery
2
False
In general, how much beer can a microbrewery make and still be classified as a microbrewery?
570a30f74103511400d595b3
around 15,000 barrels
210
False
What would you call a microbrewery that also has a restaurant or a pub?
570a30f74103511400d595b4
brewpub
317
False
What city is home to the oldest known brewery in the world that is still active?
570a30f74103511400d595b5
Freising
835
False
What year was The Benedictine Weihenstephan Brewery first licensed as a brewery?
570a30f74103511400d595b6
1040
847
False
a year
307
How often can a microbrewery produce 396 thousand US gallons?
5acd75f907355d001abf4354
True
The highest density of breweries in the world
406
What exists in the Franconia Region of German?
5acd75f907355d001abf4355
True
about 200
581
How many breweries does the Upper German Region have?
5acd75f907355d001abf4356
True
The Benedictine Weihenstephan Brewery
602
What can trace its roots to the year 786?
5acd75f907355d001abf4357
True
The Benedictine Weihenstephan Brewery
602
What brewery was licensed in 1004?
5acd75f907355d001abf4358
True
A microbrewery, or craft brewery, produces a limited amount of beer. The maximum amount of beer a brewery can produce and still be classed as a microbrewery varies by region and by authority, though is usually around 15,000 barrels (1.8 megalitres, 396 thousand imperial gallons or 475 thousand US gallons) a year. A brewpub is a type of microbrewery that incorporates a pub or other eating establishment. The highest density of breweries in the world, most of them microbreweries, exists in the German Region of Franconia, especially in the district of Upper Franconia, which has about 200 breweries. The Benedictine Weihenstephan Brewery in Bavaria, Germany, can trace its roots to the year 768, as a document from that year refers to a hop garden in the area paying a tithe to the monastery. The brewery was licensed by the City of Freising in 1040, and therefore is the oldest working brewery in the world.
What is the main source of the alcohol in beer?
570a329c4103511400d595bc
sugars
59
False
What is the process during brewing in which sugar is metabolized into alcohol?
570a329c4103511400d595bd
fermentation
91
False
At what concentration can yeast no longer survive in alcohol?
570a329c4103511400d595be
above 12%
660
False
What could decrease alcohol content during the brewing process?
570a329c4103511400d595bf
Low temperatures
681
False
Why would more fermentable sugars be added to be beer during the brewing process?
570a329c4103511400d595c0
to increase alcohol content
332
False
The alcohol
0
Where do the sugars in beer come from?
5acd7aff07355d001abf440a
True
quantity of fermentable sugars in the wort and the variety of yeast used to ferment the wort
109
What are primary factors that determine the amount of sugars in the final beer?
5acd7aff07355d001abf440b
True
Alcohol
526
What is yeast toxic to?
5acd7aff07355d001abf440c
True
Low temperatures and too little fermentation time
681
What decreases wort content?
5acd7aff07355d001abf440d
True
The alcohol in beer comes primarily from the metabolism of sugars that are produced during fermentation. The quantity of fermentable sugars in the wort and the variety of yeast used to ferment the wort are the primary factors that determine the amount of alcohol in the final beer. Additional fermentable sugars are sometimes added to increase alcohol content, and enzymes are often added to the wort for certain styles of beer (primarily "light" beers) to convert more complex carbohydrates (starches) to fermentable sugars. Alcohol is a by-product of yeast metabolism and is toxic to the yeast; typical brewing yeast cannot survive at alcohol concentrations above 12% by volume. Low temperatures and too little fermentation time decreases the effectiveness of yeasts and consequently decreases the alcohol content.
What would you call a beer that has not been filtered or pasteurized?
570a34484103511400d595c6
Cask-conditioned ales
0
False
What would you call a frame that holds the cask of beer horizontally when it arrives at the pub?
570a34484103511400d595c7
stillage
226
False
What temperature are cask ales stored at before being tapped?
570a34484103511400d595c8
52–55 °F
374
False
How long does it take for sediment to settle and clear after a cask ale has been tapped?
570a34484103511400d595c9
from several hours to several days
822
False
What tool is used to pull beer from a cask to serve?
570a34484103511400d595ca
a hand pump
944
False
real ale
101
What are cask ales termed by the CARMA organisation?
5acd831a07355d001abf44fa
True
a cask
154
What cools at a temperature of 11-13 degrees F?
5acd831a07355d001abf44fb
True
cask
156
What cools at a temperature of 52-55 degrees C?
5acd831a07355d001abf44fc
True
"drop"
740
What takes beer several hours to do after being tapped and vented?
5acd831a07355d001abf44fd
True
Cask-conditioned ales (or cask ales) are unfiltered and unpasteurised beers. These beers are termed "real ale" by the CAMRA organisation. Typically, when a cask arrives in a pub, it is placed horizontally on a frame called a "stillage" which is designed to hold it steady and at the right angle, and then allowed to cool to cellar temperature (typically between 11–13 °C or 52–55 °F), before being tapped and vented—a tap is driven through a (usually rubber) bung at the bottom of one end, and a hard spile or other implement is used to open a hole in the side of the cask, which is now uppermost. The act of stillaging and then venting a beer in this manner typically disturbs all the sediment, so it must be left for a suitable period to "drop" (clear) again, as well as to fully condition—this period can take anywhere from several hours to several days. At this point the beer is ready to sell, either being pulled through a beer line with a hand pump, or simply being "gravity-fed" directly into the glass.
What type of alcohol is found in beer?
570a35f06d058f1900182cee
ethyl alcohol
14
False
How is alcohol measured in the human body?
570a35f06d058f1900182cef
blood alcohol concentration
601
False
What type of alcohol is found in wine and distilled spirits?
570a35f06d058f1900182cf0
ethyl alcohol
14
False
What is it called when someone dies from inhaling vomit?
570a35f06d058f1900182cf1
pulmonary aspiration
1223
False
What could be caused by a 0.80% Blood alcohol content in a human?
570a35f06d058f1900182cf2
fatal alcohol poisoning
1434
False
Beer
0
What does ethyl alcohol contain?
5acd906c07355d001abf4730
True
blood alcohol concentration
601
What does ABC stand for?
5acd906c07355d001abf4731
True
overall improvement in mood and possible euphoria, increased self-confidence and sociability,
670
What does a BAC of 0.3% - 1.2% typically causes what?
5acd906c07355d001abf4732
True
lethargy, sedation, balance problems and blurred vision.
904
What does an ABC of 0.09% to 0.25% cause?
5acd906c07355d001abf4733
True
coma (unconsciousness), life-threatening respiratory depression and possibly fatal alcohol poisoning
1357
What does an ABC of .35% to 0.80% cause?
5acd906c07355d001abf4734
True
Beer contains ethyl alcohol, the same chemical that is present in wine and distilled spirits and as such, beer consumption has short-term psychological and physiological effects on the user. Different concentrations of alcohol in the human body have different effects on a person. The effects of alcohol depend on the amount an individual has drunk, the percentage of alcohol in the beer and the timespan that the consumption took place, the amount of food eaten and whether an individual has taken other prescription, over-the-counter or street drugs, among other factors. Drinking enough to cause a blood alcohol concentration (BAC) of 0.03%-0.12% typically causes an overall improvement in mood and possible euphoria, increased self-confidence and sociability, decreased anxiety, a flushed, red appearance in the face and impaired judgment and fine muscle coordination. A BAC of 0.09% to 0.25% causes lethargy, sedation, balance problems and blurred vision. A BAC from 0.18% to 0.30% causes profound confusion, impaired speech (e.g., slurred speech), staggering, dizziness and vomiting. A BAC from 0.25% to 0.40% causes stupor, unconsciousness, anterograde amnesia, vomiting (death may occur due to inhalation of vomit (pulmonary aspiration) while unconscious and respiratory depression (potentially life-threatening). A BAC from 0.35% to 0.80% causes a coma (unconsciousness), life-threatening respiratory depression and possibly fatal alcohol poisoning. As with all alcoholic drinks, drinking while driving, operating an aircraft or heavy machinery increases the risk of an accident; many countries have penalties against drunk driving.
What types of containers is beer generally sold in?
570a37326d058f1900182cf8
bottles and cans
16
False
In addition to bottles and cans, How is beer often sold in bars?
570a37326d058f1900182cf9
draught
62
False
In general, what is usually the alcohol content in most beer?
570a37326d058f1900182cfa
around 4% to 6%
317
False
What festivals are a social tradition in many beer drinking countries?
570a37326d058f1900182cfb
beer festivals,
566
False
What is a pub game that is popular in many beer drinking nations?
570a37326d058f1900182cfc
bar billiards
674
False
4% to 6%
324
What is the alcohol content in all beer?
5acd177707355d001abf3452
True
40%
442
What is the highest percentage of alcohol in beer available?
5acd177707355d001abf3453
True
bar billiards
674
What is the most popular pub game?
5acd177707355d001abf3454
True
several
159
How many brewing companies are there?
5acd177707355d001abf3455
True
4% to 6%
324
What is the strength of beer in pubs?
5acd177707355d001abf3456
True
pubs and bars
87
Where is beer in bottles and cans most commonly sold?
5acd5ea807355d001abf3f4c
True
beer
301
The strength of what varies between 0.4% and 50%
5acd5ea807355d001abf3f4d
True
pub crawling, and pub games such as bar billiards.
638
What activities are common with beer festivals?
5acd5ea807355d001abf3f4e
True
Beer is sold in bottles and cans; it may also be available on draught, particularly in pubs and bars. The brewing industry is a global business, consisting of several dominant multinational companies and many thousands of smaller producers ranging from brewpubs to regional breweries. The strength of beer is usually around 4% to 6% alcohol by volume (abv), although it may vary between 0.5% and 20%, with some breweries creating examples of 40% abv and above. Beer forms part of the culture of beer-drinking nations and is associated with social traditions such as beer festivals, as well as a rich pub culture involving activities like pub crawling, and pub games such as bar billiards.
What is the main ingredient in beer?
570a38604103511400d595d0
water
27
False
What type of water is good for making stout beer, like Guinness?
570a38604103511400d595d1
hard water
245
False
What type of water is best for making pale lager?
570a38604103511400d595d2
soft water
330
False
What is the process called when gypsum is added to water?
570a38604103511400d595d3
Burtonisation
589
False
What type of beer benefits most from water that contains gypsum?
570a38604103511400d595d4
pale ale
480
False
water
27
What is composed of mostly beer?
5acd6c1707355d001abf417a
True
stout
278
What kind of beer is Dublin's soft water well-suited to make?
5acd6c1707355d001abf417b
True
Pilsner
363
What kind of beer is the Plzen Region's hard water well-suited to make?
5acd6c1707355d001abf417c
True
pale ales
522
What kind of beer is the Urquell waters in England ideal for?
5acd6c1707355d001abf417d
True
Beer is composed mostly of water. Regions have water with different mineral components; as a result, different regions were originally better suited to making certain types of beer, thus giving them a regional character. For example, Dublin has hard water well-suited to making stout, such as Guinness; while the Plzeň Region has soft water well-suited to making Pilsner (pale lager), such as Pilsner Urquell. The waters of Burton in England contain gypsum, which benefits making pale ale to such a degree that brewers of pale ales will add gypsum to the local water in a process known as Burtonisation.
In what year did William IV adopt a purity law pertaining to beer?
570a3a0e6d058f1900182d02
1516
3
False
What was the title of William IV in 1516?
570a3a0e6d058f1900182d03
Duke of Bavaria
21
False
What was the name of the purity law that regulated beer in 1516, and is still in use today?
570a3a0e6d058f1900182d04
Reinheitsgebot
50
False
Aside from water and hops, what is the only other ingredient allowed in beer?
570a3a0e6d058f1900182d05
barley-malt
232
False
Who was the Duke of Bavaria in 1516?
570a3a0e6d058f1900182d06
William IV
9
False
Reinheitsgebot (purity law)
50
In 1517 William IV adopted which law pertaining to beer?
5acd410907355d001abf3a82
True
Reinheitsgebot
50
What law stated that only ingredients in beer were to be water, hops and corn?
5acd410907355d001abf3a83
True
more control of the process and greater knowledge of the results.
724
The development of thermometers was the main factor that changed brewing by allowing what?
5acd410907355d001abf3a84
True
Reinheitsgebot
50
What was the name of the purity law that reulated beer in 1500?
5acd410907355d001abf3a85
True
the Reinheitsgebot
46
What was adopted in 1615?
5acd612907355d001abf3fe8
True
the Reinheitsgebot
46
What did William VI adopt?
5acd612907355d001abf3fe9
True
the Reinheitsgebot (purity law)
46
What is the oldest food-quality law in use in the 19th century?
5acd612907355d001abf3fea
True
brewing by allowing the brewer more control of the process and greater knowledge of the results
693
What did the development of hyrdrothermometers change?
5acd612907355d001abf3feb
True
In 1516, William IV, Duke of Bavaria, adopted the Reinheitsgebot (purity law), perhaps the oldest food-quality regulation still in use in the 21st century, according to which the only allowed ingredients of beer are water, hops and barley-malt. Beer produced before the Industrial Revolution continued to be made and sold on a domestic scale, although by the 7th century AD, beer was also being produced and sold by European monasteries. During the Industrial Revolution, the production of beer moved from artisanal manufacture to industrial manufacture, and domestic manufacture ceased to be significant by the end of the 19th century. The development of hydrometers and thermometers changed brewing by allowing the brewer more control of the process and greater knowledge of the results.
What is the main cause for the bitterness in beer?
570a3bf74103511400d595da
Hops
66
False
What is the main goals for the sweetness of beer?
570a3bf74103511400d595db
malt
130
False
How is the bitterness in most beers generally measured?
570a3bf74103511400d595dc
the International Bitterness Units scale
175
False
The acidity of what ingredient acts as a preservative in beer?
570a3bf74103511400d595dd
hops
515
False
What do you call the length of time that foam is on top of beer because of carbonation?
570a3bf74103511400d595de
head retention
412
False
several characteristics
13
What does beer contain that brewers desire in hops?
5acd703107355d001abf422c
True
bitterness of beers
140
What is measured by the Bitterness International Units scale?
5acd703107355d001abf422d
True
the length of time that a foamy head created by carbonation will last.
429
What is retention head?
5acd703107355d001abf422e
True
antibiotic effect
302
What type of effect do floral hops have?
5acd703107355d001abf422f
True
Hops contain several characteristics that brewers desire in beer. Hops contribute a bitterness that balances the sweetness of the malt; the bitterness of beers is measured on the International Bitterness Units scale. Hops contribute floral, citrus, and herbal aromas and flavours to beer. Hops have an antibiotic effect that favours the activity of brewer's yeast over less desirable microorganisms and aids in "head retention", the length of time that a foamy head created by carbonation will last. The acidity of hops is a preservative.
What is the first step of brewing when malted barley is mixed with hot water?
570a3d1f6d058f1900182d0c
mashing
125
False
How is hot water referred to by brewers?
570a3d1f6d058f1900182d0d
liquor
156
False
How long does the mashing step in the brewing process last?
570a3d1f6d058f1900182d0e
1 to 2 hours
285
False
In brewing, what do starches become during the mashing process?
570a3d1f6d058f1900182d0f
sugars
342
False
What is it called when used grain is separated in the brewing process?
570a3d1f6d058f1900182d10
wort separation
692
False
mashing
125
The 2nd step where maltd barley is mixed with hot water is known as what?
5acd578a07355d001abf3de4
True
1 to 2 hours
285
How long does the mashing process where the sweet wort is drained off the grains last?
5acd578a07355d001abf3de5
True
sugars
342
During the sparging process what do startches turn into?
5acd578a07355d001abf3de6
True
the grain bed
731
The modern process of wort separation called lautering uses what as the filter medium?
5acd578a07355d001abf3de7
True
The mashing process
252
What process takes 12 hours?
5acd645f07355d001abf4074
True
sugars
342
What does sparging convert starches into?
5acd645f07355d001abf4075
True
the wort and sparge water
611
What does wort separation filters barley from?
5acd645f07355d001abf4076
True
lautering
711
What is the modern process for wort separation called?
5acd645f07355d001abf4077
True
The first step, where the wort is prepared by mixing the starch source (normally malted barley) with hot water, is known as "mashing". Hot water (known as "liquor" in brewing terms) is mixed with crushed malt or malts (known as "grist") in a mash tun. The mashing process takes around 1 to 2 hours, during which the starches are converted to sugars, and then the sweet wort is drained off the grains. The grains are now washed in a process known as "sparging". This washing allows the brewer to gather as much of the fermentable liquid from the grains as possible. The process of filtering the spent grain from the wort and sparge water is called wort separation. The traditional process for wort separation is lautering, in which the grain bed itself serves as the filter medium. Some modern breweries prefer the use of filter frames which allow a more finely ground grist.
What causes fermentation during the brewing process when making a beer?
570a3e5b4103511400d595e4
yeast
198
False
Which ingredient gives beer its flavor?
570a3e5b4103511400d595e5
hops
258
False
What vegetable is sometimes used as a grain source for beer in Brazil?
570a3e5b4103511400d595e6
potato
560
False
What is a popular grain source for brewing beer in Mexico?
570a3e5b4103511400d595e7
agave
582
False
In a recipe, what would you call the list of each source of starch in beer?
570a3e5b4103511400d595e8
the grain bill
686
False
millet, sorghum and cassava root in Africa, and potato in Brazil, and agave in Mexico, among others
512
What are several widely used starch sources that are used and found in various countries?
5acd6b1707355d001abf414e
True
The amount of each starch source in a beer recipe
613
What is the bill grain?
5acd6b1707355d001abf414f
True
a starch source, such as malted barley, able to be saccharified (converted to sugars
41
What are the basic ingredients of water?
5acd6b1707355d001abf4150
True
ethanol
158
What does starch turn into when fermented in addition to carbon?
5acd6b1707355d001abf4151
True
The basic ingredients of beer are water; a starch source, such as malted barley, able to be saccharified (converted to sugars) then fermented (converted into ethanol and carbon dioxide); a brewer's yeast to produce the fermentation; and a flavouring such as hops. A mixture of starch sources may be used, with a secondary starch source, such as maize (corn), rice or sugar, often being termed an adjunct, especially when used as a lower-cost substitute for malted barley. Less widely used starch sources include millet, sorghum and cassava root in Africa, and potato in Brazil, and agave in Mexico, among others. The amount of each starch source in a beer recipe is collectively called the grain bill.
In what year were hops first known to be used in beer?
570a40346d058f1900182d16
822 AD
65
False
What name was Adalhard the Elder also known as in 822 AD?
570a40346d058f1900182d17
Adalard of Corbie
136
False
In which century were hops first widely cultivated for making beer?
570a40346d058f1900182d18
the thirteenth century
240
False
In which century did hops become the most popular flavoring for beer?
570a40346d058f1900182d19
the sixteenth century
305
False
What would you call a mixture of ingredients used for brewing before the 16th century?
570a40346d058f1900182d1a
gruit
593
False
use of hops in beer
36
What was first mentioned in 282 AD?
5acd6f8707355d001abf4218
True
monastery rules
75
What did Elder the Adalhard write?
5acd6f8707355d001abf4219
True
Adalard of Corbie
136
What else was Elder the Adalhard known as?
5acd6f8707355d001abf421a
True
plants other than hops
769
What does Heather Scottish Ales use in place of hops?
5acd6f8707355d001abf421b
True
plants
769
What does Lancelot Cervoise have in place of hops?
5acd6f8707355d001abf421c
True
The first historical mention of the use of hops in beer was from 822 AD in monastery rules written by Adalhard the Elder, also known as Adalard of Corbie, though the date normally given for widespread cultivation of hops for use in beer is the thirteenth century. Before the thirteenth century, and until the sixteenth century, during which hops took over as the dominant flavouring, beer was flavoured with other plants; for instance, grains of paradise or alehoof. Combinations of various aromatic herbs, berries, and even ingredients like wormwood would be combined into a mixture known as gruit and used as hops are now used. Some beers today, such as Fraoch' by the Scottish Heather Ales company and Cervoise Lancelot by the French Brasserie-Lancelot company, use plants other than hops for flavouring.
In what year was the name Porter first used for a dark beer?
570a41686d058f1900182d20
1721
246
False
In what year was the name stout first used to describe a dark beer?
570a41686d058f1900182d21
1677
431
False
What do you call a dark beer that is brewed with roasted malts or barley?
570a41686d058f1900182d22
Stout and porter
0
False
What type of yeast is used to make stout and porter beers?
570a41686d058f1900182d23
slow fermenting yeast
100
False
In what country was Porter beer popular in 1721?
570a41686d058f1900182d24
London
326
False
Porter
221
What name was first used in 1712?
5acd78c507355d001abf43b4
True
stout
399
What name was used as early as 1767?
5acd78c507355d001abf43b5
True
Stout and porter
0
What are made with slow fermenting malts?
5acd78c507355d001abf43b6
True
dark beers
21
What is Imperial porter a type of?
5acd78c507355d001abf43b7
True
Stout and porter are dark beers made using roasted malts or roast barley, and typically brewed with slow fermenting yeast. There are a number of variations including Baltic porter, dry stout, and Imperial stout. The name Porter was first used in 1721 to describe a dark brown beer popular with the street and river porters of London. This same beer later also became known as stout, though the word stout had been used as early as 1677. The history and development of stout and porter are intertwined.
What percentage of beer was sold in cans in Sweden in 2001?
570a430c6d058f1900182d2a
63.9%
134
False
What company first created the full aperture can for beer?
570a430c6d058f1900182d2b
Crown Holdings
256
False
In what year did Crown holdings create a can with a removable lid for beer?
570a430c6d058f1900182d2c
2010
279
False
What is it called when light damages beer that is not in a can?
570a430c6d058f1900182d2d
"skunked" beer
488
False
What were cans originally believed to maintain in beer?
570a430c6d058f1900182d2e
quality
645
False
63.9% of beer
134
How much beer was sold in cans in Sweden during the year 2010?
5acd8af107355d001abf4694
True
'full aperture' can
306
What technology was developed by Crown Holdings in 2001?
5acd8af107355d001abf4695
True
Plastic
803
What does PET stand for?
5acd8af107355d001abf4696
True
FIFA World Cup
284
What major sporting event was held in 2001?
5acd8af107355d001abf4697
True
Many beers are sold in cans, though there is considerable variation in the proportion between different countries. In Sweden in 2001, 63.9% of beer was sold in cans. People either drink from the can or pour the beer into a glass. A technology developed by Crown Holdings for the 2010 FIFA World Cup is the 'full aperture' can, so named because the entire lid is removed during the opening process, turning the can into a drinking cup. Cans protect the beer from light (thereby preventing "skunked" beer) and have a seal less prone to leaking over time than bottles. Cans were initially viewed as a technological breakthrough for maintaining the quality of a beer, then became commonly associated with less expensive, mass-produced beers, even though the quality of storage in cans is much like bottles. Plastic (PET) bottles are used by some breweries.
How much alcohol is in Schorschbock 57?
570a5b7e6d058f1900182d9c
57,5%
94
False
How much alcohol was in The End of History beer?
570a5b7e6d058f1900182d9d
55%
142
False
What company made The End of History beer in 2010?
570a5b7e6d058f1900182d9e
BrewDog
167
False
What is a strong ale called when it is frozen partially, and then the ice is removed again and again?
570a5b7e6d058f1900182d9f
fractional freezing
369
False
How much alcohol was contained in the beer Sink The Bismarck?
570a5b7e6d058f1900182da0
41%
243
False
Schorschbock 57
73
What beer with a 57.5% abv was made in 2010?
5acd803d07355d001abf4492
True
The End of History
120
What beer with a 55% abv was made in 2011?
5acd803d07355d001abf4493
True
1994
697
When was the 31% Hair of the Dog's Dave made?
5acd803d07355d001abf4494
True
blend of beer with whiskey
755
What 60% abv combination was made in a Dutch brewery in 2011?
5acd803d07355d001abf4495
True
The product claimed to be the strongest beer made is Schorschbräu's 2011 Schorschbock 57 with 57,5%. It was preceded by The End of History, a 55% Belgian ale, made by BrewDog in 2010. The same company had previously made Sink The Bismarck!, a 41% abv IPA, and Tactical Nuclear Penguin, a 32% abv Imperial stout. Each of these beers are made using the eisbock method of fractional freezing, in which a strong ale is partially frozen and the ice is repeatedly removed, until the desired strength is reached, a process that may class the product as spirits rather than beer. The German brewery Schorschbräu's Schorschbock, a 31% abv eisbock, and Hair of the Dog's Dave, a 29% abv barley wine made in 1994, used the same fractional freezing method. A 60% abv blend of beer with whiskey was jokingly claimed as the strongest beer by a Dutch brewery in July 2010.
What kind of containers are used for bottle conditioned beers?
570a5cad6d058f1900182db0
Glass bottles
656
False
What do bottle conditioned beers contain that most fears do not?
570a5cad6d058f1900182db1
yeast
126
False
What ingredient is filtered out of most beers when it is packaged in bottles and cans?
570a5cad6d058f1900182db2
yeast
126
False
What are the recommendations for pouring bottle conditioned beers?
570a5cad6d058f1900182db3
slowly
267
False
What type of bottle conditioned beer is customarily poured with the yeast in it?
570a5cad6d058f1900182db4
wheat beers
415
False
yeast
26
Filtering clears all beers of what?
5acd89ca07355d001abf4652
True
bottom of the bottle
309
Where is yeast left when serving a hefeweizen wheet beer?
5acd89ca07355d001abf4653
True
contents are poured
488
What happens to 9% of the contents of a hefeweizen?
5acd89ca07355d001abf4654
True
Most beers are cleared of yeast by filtering when packaged in bottles and cans. However, bottle conditioned beers retain some yeast—either by being unfiltered, or by being filtered and then reseeded with fresh yeast. It is usually recommended that the beer be poured slowly, leaving any yeast sediment at the bottom of the bottle. However, some drinkers prefer to pour in the yeast; this practice is customary with wheat beers. Typically, when serving a hefeweizen wheat beer, 90% of the contents are poured, and the remainder is swirled to suspend the sediment before pouring it into the glass. Alternatively, the bottle may be inverted prior to opening. Glass bottles are always used for bottle conditioned beers.
In addition to a lack of muscle tone, what is believed to be the main cause of the beer belly?
570a5da64103511400d5967e
overeating
22
False
What condition was attributed to binge drinking in a 2004 study?
570a5da64103511400d5967f
beer belly
187
False
What is believed to be the glycemic index in beer?
570a5da64103511400d59680
110
412
False
What is the glycemic index in maltose?
570a5da64103511400d59681
110
412
False
beer belly
80
What is caused by overeating and drinking beer?
5acd922e07355d001abf476a
True
binge drinking and a beer belly
166
What did a 2400 study find a link between?
5acd922e07355d001abf476b
True
beer
359
Some books quote a glycemic index of 114 for what?
5acd922e07355d001abf476c
True
It is considered that overeating and lack of muscle tone is the main cause of a beer belly, rather than beer consumption. A 2004 study, however, found a link between binge drinking and a beer belly. But with most overconsumption, it is more a problem of improper exercise and overconsumption of carbohydrates than the product itself. Several diet books quote beer as having an undesirably high glycemic index of 110, the same as maltose; however, the maltose in beer undergoes metabolism by yeast during fermentation so that beer consists mostly of water, hop oils and only trace amounts of sugars, including maltose.
What type of starch is used to make the beer Oshikundu?
570a5ec86d058f1900182dce
sorghum or millet
146
False
In what country is the beer Oshikundu produced?
570a5ec86d058f1900182dcf
Namibia
186
False
In what country is the beer Tella produced?
570a5ec86d058f1900182dd0
Ethiopia
207
False
What is the name of the millet based porridge like beer made in Kyrgystan?
570a5ec86d058f1900182dd1
Bozo
320
False
What is a beer-like beverage in China that is made with rice?
570a5ec86d058f1900182dd2
Choujiu
501
False
sorghum or millet
146
What are various beers made from in Ethiopia?
5acd955807355d001abf4796
True
Chhaang
378
What is a popular beverage in the far eastern Himalayas?
5acd955807355d001abf4797
True
China
472
Where is the rice based Oshikundu found?
5acd955807355d001abf4798
True
Around the world, there are many traditional and ancient starch-based drinks classed as beer. In Africa, there are various ethnic beers made from sorghum or millet, such as Oshikundu in Namibia and Tella in Ethiopia. Kyrgyzstan also has a beer made from millet; it is a low alcohol, somewhat porridge-like drink called "Bozo". Bhutan, Nepal, Tibet and Sikkim also use millet in Chhaang, a popular semi-fermented rice/millet drink in the eastern Himalayas. Further east in China are found Huangjiu and Choujiu—traditional rice-based beverages related to beer.
When does evidence show the earliest known barley beer was produced?
570a63f04103511400d596b6
circa 3500–3100 BC
61
False
In what country was the earliest chemical evidence of barley beer found?
570a63f04103511400d596b7
Iran
143
False
What country are the Zargos Mountains located in?
570a63f04103511400d596b8
Iran
143
False
What year were the elbow tablet first discovered?
570a63f04103511400d596b9
1974
658
False
What ingredient is used for amylotytic fermentation in sake?
570a63f04103511400d596ba
mould
820
False
3500–3100 BC
67
When does evidence show the earliest known beer was produced?
5acd19a107355d001abf34d4
True
Zagros Mountains
115
What mountains are located in eastern Iran?
5acd19a107355d001abf34d5
True
Ebla tablets
630
What tablets were discovered in Syria in 1970?
5acd19a107355d001abf34d6
True
7000 BC
798
Sake, made with rice and fruit, was produced in China around which year?
5acd19a107355d001abf34d7
True
sake
814
Which kind of beer used mould in the process?
5acd19a107355d001abf34d8
True
chemical evidence of barley beer
19
What dates to circa 3500-1300 BC?
5acd5f9b07355d001abf3f84
True
Godin Tepe
97
What site was the earliest known chemical evidence of barley beer found on in the Iran Mountains?
5acd5f9b07355d001abf3f85
True
both a prayer as well as a method of remembering the recipe for beer in a culture with few literate people, and the ancient advice
314
What did The Hymn to Gilgamesh serve as?
5acd5f9b07355d001abf3f86
True
the consumption of beer.
601
What may the Epic of Ninkasi have referred to?
5acd5f9b07355d001abf3f87
True
Ebla tablets
630
What was discovered in 1947?
5acd5f9b07355d001abf3f88
True
The earliest known chemical evidence of barley beer dates to circa 3500–3100 BC from the site of Godin Tepe in the Zagros Mountains of western Iran. Some of the earliest Sumerian writings contain references to beer; examples include a prayer to the goddess Ninkasi, known as "The Hymn to Ninkasi", which served as both a prayer as well as a method of remembering the recipe for beer in a culture with few literate people, and the ancient advice (Fill your belly. Day and night make merry) to Gilgamesh, recorded in the Epic of Gilgamesh, by the ale-wife Siduri may, at least in part, have referred to the consumption of beer. The Ebla tablets, discovered in 1974 in Ebla, Syria, show that beer was produced in the city in 2500 BC. A fermented beverage using rice and fruit was made in China around 7000 BC. Unlike sake, mould was not used to saccharify the rice (amylolytic fermentation); the rice was probably prepared for fermentation by mastication or malting.
What is a kettle called that is used to boil sweet wort after sparging?
570a65964103511400d596ca
copper
65
False
How long is sweet wort boiled for after sparging?
570a65964103511400d596cb
about one hour
168
False
What does boiling sweet wort destroy?
570a65964103511400d596cc
enzymes
388
False
What affect do hops have in brewing when they brew for a long time?
570a65964103511400d596cd
bitterness
605
False
a kettle, or "copper"
51
Where is the sparge collected from wort put into?
5acd67db07355d001abf40e0
True
During boiling
184
When does water in the sugar evaporate?
5acd67db07355d001abf40e1
True
Boiling
352
During what process is the remaining sugar destroyed?
5acd67db07355d001abf40e2
True
the boil
554
During what stage can starch sources be added at more than one point?
5acd67db07355d001abf40e3
True
bitterness
605
What increases the longer the starches are boiled?
5acd67db07355d001abf40e4
True
The sweet wort collected from sparging is put into a kettle, or "copper" (so called because these vessels were traditionally made from copper), and boiled, usually for about one hour. During boiling, water in the wort evaporates, but the sugars and other components of the wort remain; this allows more efficient use of the starch sources in the beer. Boiling also destroys any remaining enzymes left over from the mashing stage. Hops are added during boiling as a source of bitterness, flavour and aroma. Hops may be added at more than one point during the boil. The longer the hops are boiled, the more bitterness they contribute, but the less hop flavour and aroma remains in the beer.
What is generally used as starch in most beer?
570a66e66d058f1900182e14
malted grain
174
False
How does grain become malted?
570a66e66d058f1900182e15
by soaking it in water
204
False
What kind of container is partially germinated grain dried in?
570a66e66d058f1900182e16
a kiln
312
False
What happens to grain when it is soaked in water?
570a66e66d058f1900182e17
germination
249
False
What does a grains starch become after an is malted?
570a66e66d058f1900182e18
fermentable sugars
391
False
fermentable material
41
What material does the flavour source in beer provide?
5acd6d7607355d001abf41a8
True
malted grain
174
What is the most common enzyme source used in beer?
5acd6d7607355d001abf41a9
True
Grain
188
What is malted by soaking it in a kiln?
5acd6d7607355d001abf41aa
True
different colours of malt from the same grain
473
What do different roasting sugars produce?
5acd6d7607355d001abf41ab
True
The starch source in a beer provides the fermentable material and is a key determinant of the strength and flavour of the beer. The most common starch source used in beer is malted grain. Grain is malted by soaking it in water, allowing it to begin germination, and then drying the partially germinated grain in a kiln. Malting grain produces enzymes that convert starches in the grain into fermentable sugars. Different roasting times and temperatures are used to produce different colours of malt from the same grain. Darker malts will produce darker beers.
How many liters of beer are bought and sold every year?
570a681e4103511400d596dc
More than 133 billion
183
False
How much revenue did beer bring in in 2006?
570a681e4103511400d596dd
$294.5 billion
286
False
What year was the brewing Company SABMiller founded?
570a681e4103511400d596de
2002
436
False
What company acquired the Anheuser-Busch brewing Company in 2008?
570a681e4103511400d596df
InBev
924
False
What was the largest brewing company in the world in 2015?
570a681e4103511400d596e0
AB InBev
1096
False
beer
887
What is sold in the amount of 53 billion gallons per year?
5acd729107355d001abf42ac
True
2006.
321
What year did global revenues of $147.7 occur?
5acd729107355d001abf42ad
True
South African Breweries
441
What brewery did the North American Miller Brewing Company buy in 2002?
5acd729107355d001abf42ae
True
North American Anheuser-Bush
577
What brewery followed SABMiller as the second largest in 2002?
5acd729107355d001abf42af
True
SABMiller
1134
Which brewery followed Heineken International as the second largest in 2015?
5acd729107355d001abf42b0
True
The brewing industry is a global business, consisting of several dominant multinational companies and many thousands of smaller producers ranging from brewpubs to regional breweries. More than 133 billion litres (35 billion gallons) are sold per year—producing total global revenues of $294.5 billion (£147.7 billion) in 2006. The history of breweries has been one of absorbing smaller breweries in order to ensure economy of scale. In 2002 South African Breweries bought the North American Miller Brewing Company to found SABMiller, becoming the second largest brewery, after North American Anheuser-Bush. In 2004 the Belgian Interbrew was the third largest brewery by volume and the Brazilian AmBev was the fifth largest. They merged into InBev, becoming the largest brewery. In 2007, SABMiller surpassed InBev and Anheuser-Bush when it acquired Royal Grolsch, brewer of Dutch premium beer brand Grolsch in 2007. In 2008, InBev (the second-largest) bought Anheuser-Busch (the third largest), the new Anheuser-Busch InBev company became again the largest brewer in the world. As of 2015[update] AB InBev is the largest brewery, with SABMiller second, and Heineken International third.
What does abv stand for?
570a69376d058f1900182e30
alcohol by volume
30
False
What process can cause beer to have a 55% abv?
570a69376d058f1900182e31
freeze-distilling
184
False
What is the typical alcohol content of a pale logger?
570a69376d058f1900182e32
5%
382
False
What type of low alcohol beer is sometimes served in school?
570a69376d058f1900182e33
table beer
504
False
What percentage of alcohol by volume does beer achieve when it is re-pitched with champagne yeast?
570a69376d058f1900182e34
around 20%
114
False
alcohol by volume
30
What does avb stand for?
5acd79f607355d001abf43ec
True
alcohol by volume
30
What ranges from 3% to 6%?
5acd79f607355d001abf43ed
True
Beer
0
What drink ranges from 3% to 5% abv?
5acd79f607355d001abf43ee
True
some schools
602
Where are British ales served instead of soft drinks?
5acd79f607355d001abf43ef
True
re-pitching with champagne yeast,
128
What process achieves a 14% abv?
5acd79f607355d001abf43f0
True
Beer ranges from less than 3% alcohol by volume (abv) to around 14% abv, though this strength can be increased to around 20% by re-pitching with champagne yeast, and to 55% abv by the freeze-distilling process. The alcohol content of beer varies by local practice or beer style. The pale lagers that most consumers are familiar with fall in the range of 4–6%, with a typical abv of 5%. The customary strength of British ales is quite low, with many session beers being around 4% abv. Some beers, such as table beer are of such low alcohol content (1%–4%) that they are served instead of soft drinks in some schools.
What is the term used for the study of beer?
570a6a056d058f1900182e3a
zythology
225
False
What is a professional called at a restaurant who advises customers about beer and food pairs?
570a6a056d058f1900182e3b
beer sommelier
453
False
What is a popular drinking game where beer is often considered?
570a6a056d058f1900182e3c
beer pong
381
False
What is the most popular alcoholic drink in most societies?
570a6a056d058f1900182e3d
beer
19
False
beer
19
What is the most popular drink in society?
5acd935407355d001abf4778
True
beer sommelier
453
What new profession deals with food?
5acd935407355d001abf4779
True
zythology
225
What is the study of beer and food called?
5acd935407355d001abf477a
True
In many societies, beer is the most popular alcoholic drink. Various social traditions and activities are associated with beer drinking, such as playing cards, darts, or other pub games; attending beer festivals; engaging in zythology (the study of beer); visiting a series of pubs in one evening; visiting breweries; beer-oriented tourism; or rating beer. Drinking games, such as beer pong, are also popular. A relatively new profession is that of the beer sommelier, who informs restaurant patrons about beers and food pairings.
What is most popular alcoholic drink in the world?
570a6bdc6d058f1900182e42
Beer
0
False
What is believed to be the oldest alcoholic drinking the world?
570a6bdc6d058f1900182e43
Beer
0
False
What is the term used to describe the making beer?
570a6bdc6d058f1900182e44
brewing
181
False
What brewing process naturally carbonates beer?
570a6bdc6d058f1900182e45
fermentation
526
False
What prayer did people use in Mesopotamia to remember a beer recipe?
570a6bdc6d058f1900182e46
The Hymn to Ninkasi
832
False
Beer
0
What is the oldest drink in the world?
5acd147407355d001abf33ae
True
hops
382
What is all beer flavoured with?
5acd147407355d001abf33af
True
malted barley
283
What starch is always used in the fermentation process?
5acd147407355d001abf33b0
True
The Hymn to Ninkasi
832
What is the prayer in the Code of Hammurabi?
5acd147407355d001abf33b1
True
Ninkasi
844
Who is the world's goddess of beer?
5acd147407355d001abf33b2
True
water and tea
133
What two drinks follow beer as the most popular?
5acd5daa07355d001abf3f0d
True
brewing
181
What involves the fermentation of hops?
5acd5daa07355d001abf3f0e
True
malted barley, although wheat, maize (corn), and rice
283
What types of cereal grains is beer flavored with?
5acd5daa07355d001abf3f0f
True
laws regulating beer and beer parlours
787
What did the Code of Ninkasi include?
5acd5daa07355d001abf3f10
True
a prayer to the Mesopotamian goddess of beer
854
What is The Hymn to Haammurabi?
5acd5daa07355d001abf3f11
True
Beer is the world's most widely consumed and likely the oldest alcoholic beverage; it is the third most popular drink overall, after water and tea. The production of beer is called brewing, which involves the fermentation of starches, mainly derived from cereal grains—most commonly malted barley, although wheat, maize (corn), and rice are widely used. Most beer is flavoured with hops, which add bitterness and act as a natural preservative, though other flavourings such as herbs or fruit may occasionally be included. The fermentation process causes a natural carbonation effect which is often removed during processing, and replaced with forced carbonation. Some of humanity's earliest known writings refer to the production and distribution of beer: the Code of Hammurabi included laws regulating beer and beer parlours, and "The Hymn to Ninkasi", a prayer to the Mesopotamian goddess of beer, served as both a prayer and as a method of remembering the recipe for beer in a culture with few literate people.
What year were hops first believed to be added to beer?
570a6d794103511400d596e6
822
494
False
On what continent were hops first added to beer?
570a6d794103511400d596e7
Europe
480
False
What was a Carolingian Abbot credited for adding to beer in 822?
570a6d794103511400d596e8
hops
425
False
Who was believed to have added hops to beer in 1067?
570a6d794103511400d596e9
Abbess Hildegard
542
False
Where did Abbess Hildegard live?
570a6d794103511400d596ea
Bingen
562
False
hops
425
What was a Carolingian Abbot credited for adding to beer in 1067?
5acd201807355d001abf35e0
True
822
494
In which year did the Germanic and Celtic tribes add hops to beer?
5acd201807355d001abf35e1
True
Bingen
562
What town first added hops to beer?
5acd201807355d001abf35e2
True
fruits, honey, numerous types of plants, spices and other substances such as narcotic herbs
302
In addition to hops, what did the early European beers contain?
5acd201807355d001abf35e3
True
hops
425
In 822 what did Abbess Hilegard add to beer?
5acd201807355d001abf35e4
True
Beer
0
What was spread through Europe as far back as 1067 BC?
5acd607807355d001abf3fac
True
hops
425
What was first added around 282?
5acd607807355d001abf3fad
True
Carolingian Abbot
503
Who first mentioned hops in 282?
5acd607807355d001abf3fae
True
Abbess Hildegard of Bingen
542
Who was the second to mention hops in 1076?
5acd607807355d001abf3faf
True
Beer was spread through Europe by Germanic and Celtic tribes as far back as 3000 BC, and it was mainly brewed on a domestic scale. The product that the early Europeans drank might not be recognised as beer by most people today. Alongside the basic starch source, the early European beers might contain fruits, honey, numerous types of plants, spices and other substances such as narcotic herbs. What they did not contain was hops, as that was a later addition, first mentioned in Europe around 822 by a Carolingian Abbot and again in 1067 by Abbess Hildegard of Bingen.
What is the origin of the word ale?
570a701a4103511400d59702
Old English ealu
24
False
What is the origin of the word beer?
570a701a4103511400d59703
Old English bēor
258
False
What word means to drink in Latin?
570a701a4103511400d59704
bibere
494
False
What 12th century poet once wrote "Ale it is called among men, but among the gods, beer."?
570a701a4103511400d59705
Alvíssmál
625
False
ealoþ
49
What is the plural of the word ale?
5acd76e807355d001abf4372
True
sorcery, magic, possession, intoxication
190
What does the word alu hold connotations of?
5acd76e807355d001abf4373
True
"Ale it is called among men, but among the gods, beer."
641
What does the 12th-Century Old Germanic poem Alvissmal say?
5acd76e807355d001abf4374
True
bibere
494
What is the Latin word for barley?
5acd76e807355d001abf4375
True
The word ale comes from Old English ealu (plural ealoþ), in turn from Proto-Germanic *alu (plural *aluþ), ultimately from the Proto-Indo-European base *h₂elut-, which holds connotations of "sorcery, magic, possession, intoxication". The word beer comes from Old English bēor, from Proto-Germanic *beuzą, probably from Proto-Indo-European *bʰeusóm, originally "brewer's yeast, beer dregs", although other theories have been provided connecting the word with Old English bēow, "barley", or Latin bibere, "to drink". On the currency of two words for the same thing in the Germanic languages, the 12th-century Old Icelandic poem Alvíssmál says, "Ale it is called among men, but among the gods, beer."
How much alcohol is contained in the beer Vetter 33?
570a718e4103511400d5971c
10.5%
92
False
What was the strongest beer in 1994 according to the Guinness Book of World Records?
570a718e4103511400d5971d
Vetter 33
79
False
What brewing company produced the beer Millennium?
570a718e4103511400d5971e
Samuel Adams
480
False
What year did the brewing company BrewDog start producing a beer called Ghost Deer?
570a718e4103511400d5971f
2011
690
False
What do brewing companies sometimes use to give more alcohol content to their beer?
570a718e4103511400d59720
champagne yeasts
415
False
Vetter 33
79
What beer has a 10.5% volume by alcohol?
5acd7ecf07355d001abf446c
True
Vetter 33
79
What was the strongest beer in the 1949 Guinness Book of World Records?
5acd7ecf07355d001abf446d
True
20%
501
What percentage abv did Adams Samuel first reach by using champagne yeasts?
5acd7ecf07355d001abf446e
True
25.6%
560
What was the abv of Utopias that was brewed in Britain?
5acd7ecf07355d001abf446f
True
Ghost Deer
734
What was produced in September of 2001?
5acd7ecf07355d001abf4470
True
The strength of beers has climbed during the later years of the 20th century. Vetter 33, a 10.5% abv (33 degrees Plato, hence Vetter "33") doppelbock, was listed in the 1994 Guinness Book of World Records as the strongest beer at that time, though Samichlaus, by the Swiss brewer Hürlimann, had also been listed by the Guinness Book of World Records as the strongest at 14% abv. Since then, some brewers have used champagne yeasts to increase the alcohol content of their beers. Samuel Adams reached 20% abv with Millennium, and then surpassed that amount to 25.6% abv with Utopias. The strongest beer brewed in Britain was Baz's Super Brew by Parish Brewery, a 23% abv beer. In September 2011, the Scottish brewery BrewDog produced Ghost Deer, which, at 28%, they claim to be the world's strongest beer produced by fermentation alone.
What beer is better for the environment than bottled beer?
570a76684103511400d59738
Draught beer's
0
False
How many pounds of CO2 emissions are attributed to just one sixpack of microbrew?
570a76684103511400d59739
6.6
305
False
What type of container can be used to transport draft beer, and is better for the environment that a bottle?
570a76684103511400d5973a
a refillable jug
610
False
How much habitat is damaged from just one sixpack of microbrew?
570a76684103511400d5973b
2.5 square meters
410
False
How many square feet is 2.5 square meters?
570a76684103511400d5973c
26
429
False
bottled beer
58
What beer is better for the environment than draught beer?
5acd869707355d001abf45a2
True
a 6-pack of micro-brew beer
255
What produces about 6.6 kilograms of CO2 emissions?
5acd869707355d001abf45a3
True
6-pack of micro-brew beer
365
What can cause a loss of 2.5 square feet of natural habitat?
5acd869707355d001abf45a4
True
the environmental impact of beer consumption.
770
What can buying bottled beer reduce?
5acd869707355d001abf45a5
True
Draught beer's environmental impact can be 68% lower than bottled beer due to packaging differences. A life cycle study of one beer brand, including grain production, brewing, bottling, distribution and waste management, shows that the CO2 emissions from a 6-pack of micro-brew beer is about 3 kilograms (6.6 pounds). The loss of natural habitat potential from the 6-pack of micro-brew beer is estimated to be 2.5 square meters (26 square feet). Downstream emissions from distribution, retail, storage and disposal of waste can be over 45% of a bottled micro-brew beer's CO2 emissions. Where legal, the use of a refillable jug, reusable bottle or other reusable containers to transport draught beer from a store or a bar, rather than buying pre-bottled beer, can reduce the environmental impact of beer consumption.
What technology support the drinking of chilled beer?
570a77f96d058f1900182e84
artificial refrigeration
52
False
At what cool temperature is a beers flavor reduced?
570a77f96d058f1900182e85
below 15.5 °C
213
False
When is a beer at its most flavorful?
570a77f96d058f1900182e86
unchilled
335
False
What country is the organisation Cask Marque located?
570a77f96d058f1900182e87
UK
438
False
In what decade did drinking chilled pale lager become popular?
570a77f96d058f1900182e88
the 1870s
84
False
Drinking chilled beer
0
What began in the 1780s?
5acd8c5107355d001abf46c4
True
those countries that concentrated on brewing pale lager
109
What countries began drinking chilled beer in the 1780s?
5acd8c5107355d001abf46c5
True
a non-profit UK beer organisation
425
What is Marque Cask?
5acd8c5107355d001abf46c6
True
range of 12°–14 °C (53°–57 °F) for cask ales to be served.
491
What temperature standard has Marque Cask set?
5acd8c5107355d001abf46c7
True
reduce taste awareness
250
What happens to beer chilled below 15.5 degrees F?
5acd8c5107355d001abf46c8
True
Drinking chilled beer began with the development of artificial refrigeration and by the 1870s, was spread in those countries that concentrated on brewing pale lager. Chilling beer makes it more refreshing, though below 15.5 °C the chilling starts to reduce taste awareness and reduces it significantly below 10 °C (50 °F). Beer served unchilled—either cool or at room temperature, reveal more of their flavours. Cask Marque, a non-profit UK beer organisation, has set a temperature standard range of 12°–14 °C (53°–57 °F) for cask ales to be served.
What is beers primary active ingredient?
570a78f94103511400d5974c
alcohol
38
False
What disease can be caused by heavy alcohol consumption?
570a78f94103511400d5974d
alcoholic liver disease
410
False
How many deaths are believed to have been caused by alcohol?
570a78f94103511400d5974e
3.3 million
446
False
What is the third leading cause of premature dying in the US?
570a78f94103511400d5974f
Alcohol
594
False
How many years are removed from an alcoholic's life expectancy?
570a78f94103511400d59750
around ten
576
False
beer
30
What is the main active ingredient of alcohol?
5acd913607355d001abf4744
True
alcohol
512
What are 3.3% of all deaths believed to be due to?
5acd913607355d001abf4745
True
alcohol
512
What are 5.9 million deaths believed to be due to?
5acd913607355d001abf4746
True
Alcoholism
521
What reduces a person's life expectancy by around three years?
5acd913607355d001abf4747
True
Alcoholism
521
What is the tenth leading cause of early death in the United States?
5acd913607355d001abf4748
True
The main active ingredient of beer is alcohol, and therefore, the health effects of alcohol apply to beer. Consumption of small quantities of alcohol (less than one drink in women and two in men) is associated with a decreased risk of cardiac disease, stroke and diabetes mellitus. The long term health effects of continuous, moderate or heavy alcohol consumption include the risk of developing alcoholism and alcoholic liver disease. A total of 3.3 million deaths (5.9% of all deaths) are believed to be due to alcohol. Alcoholism often reduces a person's life expectancy by around ten years. Alcohol use is the third leading cause of early death in the United States.
What hormone can be triggered by the flavor of beer alone in males?
570a7c686d058f1900182e98
dopamine
131
False
What year did the Neuropsychopharmacology journal publist a study about the effect on the brain of beers flavor?
570a7c686d058f1900182e99
2013
60
False
What taste could significantly impact a man's desire to drink?
570a7c686d058f1900182e9a
beer
472
False
How many men were studied for tests on the flavor of beer in the Neuropsychopharmacology journal in 2013?
570a7c686d058f1900182e9b
49
230
False
finding that the flavour of beer alone could provoke dopamine activity in the brain of the male participants, who wanted to drink more as a result.
78
What did a 2031 study reveal?
5acd945207355d001abf4786
True
Neuropsychopharmacology
25
What journal published the study about the 94 men?
5acd945207355d001abf4787
True
sports drink
445
What taste increased participants desire to drink compared with beer?
5acd945207355d001abf4788
True
A study published in the Neuropsychopharmacology journal in 2013 revealed the finding that the flavour of beer alone could provoke dopamine activity in the brain of the male participants, who wanted to drink more as a result. The 49 men in the study were subject to positron emission tomography scans, while a computer-controlled device sprayed minute amounts of beer, water and a sports drink onto their tongues. Compared with the taste of the sports drink, the taste of beer significantly increased the participants desire to drink. Test results indicated that the flavour of the beer triggered a dopamine release, even though alcohol content in the spray was insufficient for the purpose of becoming intoxicated.
Race_and_ethnicity_in_the_United_States_Census
What word was dropped as a racial classification in this year's census?
57099760200fba14003681bf
Mulatto
121
False
What were people that had black and white ancestor classified as in this census?
57099760200fba14003681c0
Negro
323
False
How were people with both black and American Indian ancestry recorded in this census?
57099760200fba14003681c1
Neg
474
False
What is it called when a mixed race person in recorded as negro in this census, even if only a fraction of their ancestry is black?
57099760200fba14003681c2
one-drop rule
376
False
Which parent was the deciding factor for how interracial persons were recorded in this census?
57099760200fba14003681c3
their father
985
False
The biggest change in this year's census was in racial classification. Enumerators were instructed to no longer use the "Mulatto" classification. Instead, they were given special instructions for reporting the race of interracial persons. A person with both white and black ancestry (termed "blood") was to be recorded as "Negro," no matter the fraction of that lineage (the "one-drop rule"). A person of mixed black and American Indian ancestry was also to be recorded as "Neg" (for "Negro") unless he was considered to be "predominantly" American Indian and accepted as such within the community. A person with both White and American Indian ancestry was to be recorded as an Indian, unless his American Indian ancestry was small, and he was accepted as white within the community. In all situations in which a person had White and some other racial ancestry, he was to be reported as that other race. Persons who had minority interracial ancestry were to be reported as the race of their father.
In what year were census respondents first able to select more than one race?
57099bc1ed30961900e84370
2000
41
False
How many American reported being of more than one race in the Census 2000?
57099bc1ed30961900e84371
nearly seven million
226
False
What year was the last census before the Census 2000?
57099bc1ed30961900e84372
1990
403
False
How many race categories were respondents able to select in the Census 2000?
57099bc1ed30961900e84373
one or more
152
False
Race was asked differently in the Census 2000 in several other ways than previously. Most significantly, respondents were given the option of selecting one or more race categories to indicate racial identities. Data show that nearly seven million Americans identified as members of two or more races. Because of these changes, the Census 2000 data on race are not directly comparable with data from the 1990 census or earlier censuses. Use of caution is therefore recommended when interpreting changes in the racial composition of the US population over time.
What organization recommended that race and ethnicity categories be combined into one question for the 2000 US census?
57099f19200fba14003681e7
the American Anthropological Association
116
False
In what year are or racial categories first revised for the 2000 U.S. Census?
57099f19200fba14003681e8
1997
13
False
Prior to 1997, where were racial categories declared for the U.S. Census?
57099f19200fba14003681e9
OMB directive no. 15
94
False
How did racial categories appear in the US 2000 census?
57099f19200fba14003681ea
race/ethnicity
262
False
In September 1997, during the process of revision of racial categories previously declared by OMB directive no. 15, the American Anthropological Association (AAA) recommended that OMB combine the "race" and "ethnicity" categories into one question to appear as "race/ethnicity" for the 2000 US Census. The Interagency Committee agreed, stating that "race" and "ethnicity" were not sufficiently defined and "that many respondents conceptualize 'race' and 'ethnicity' as one in the same  [sic] underscor[ing] the need to consolidate these terms into one category, using a term that is more meaningful to the American people."
Who defines the concept of race in the United States Census?
5709a0c3ed30961900e84392
OMB
206
False
What do the race categories in the US Census include in addition to race?
5709a0c3ed30961900e84393
national-origin
541
False
In addition to social and cultural characteristics, what else is taken into account for race classification in the US census?
5709a0c3ed30961900e84394
ancestry
380
False
The racial categories represent a social-political construct for the race or races that respondents consider themselves to be and "generally reflect a social definition of race recognized in this country." OMB defines the concept of race as outlined for the U.S. Census as not "scientific or anthropological" and takes into account "social and cultural characteristics as well as ancestry", using "appropriate scientific methodologies" that are not "primarily biological or genetic in reference." The race categories include both racial and national-origin groups.
How many ethnic categories are there in the US census?
5709a209ed30961900e84398
two
227
False
In addition to Hispanic and Latino, what other ethnic category is included in the United States Census?
5709a209ed30961900e84399
Not Hispanic or Latino
286
False
What association criticized the separation of race and ethnicity in the UScensus?
5709a209ed30961900e8439a
the American Anthropological Association
422
False
Members of what commission criticized the separation of race and ethnic city on the US Census?
5709a209ed30961900e8439b
U.S. Commission on Civil Rights
478
False
In ethnic classification for the U.S. Census, What option do respondents have other than not Hispanic or Latino?
5709a209ed30961900e8439c
Hispanic or Latino
261
False
Race and ethnicity are considered separate and distinct identities, with Hispanic or Latino origin asked as a separate question. Thus, in addition to their race or races, all respondents are categorized by membership in one of two ethnic categories, which are "Hispanic or Latino" and "Not Hispanic or Latino". However, the practice of separating "race" and "ethnicity" as different categories has been criticized both by the American Anthropological Association and members of U.S. Commission on Civil Rights.
What country did President Frankiln Roosevelt have a good neighbor policy for in hopes of a better relationship?
5709a3e9ed30961900e843a8
Mexico
100
False
In what year did a federal judge say that three immigrants from Mexico were not eligible to be citizens because of their race?
5709a3e9ed30961900e843a9
1935
111
False
What US President wanted to treat Hispanic people as white by the federal government?
5709a3e9ed30961900e843aa
Roosevelt
279
False
People of what descent were classified as white by the federal government at the suggestion of President Roosevelt?
5709a3e9ed30961900e843ab
Mexican
534
False
In 1935, what race was a person required to be to become a United States citizen?
5709a3e9ed30961900e843ac
white
222
False
President Franklin D. Roosevelt promoted a "good neighbor" policy that sought better relations with Mexico. In 1935 a federal judge ruled that three Mexican immigrants were ineligible for citizenship because they were not white, as required by federal law. Mexico protested, and Roosevelt decided to circumvent the decision and make sure the federal government treated Hispanics as white. The State Department, the Census Bureau, the Labor Department, and other government agencies therefore made sure to uniformly classify people of Mexican descent as white. This policy encouraged the League of United Latin American Citizens in its quest to minimize discrimination by asserting their whiteness.
Who decided on the standards for the classification of race and ethnicity and federal data?
5709a704ed30961900e843c6
OMB
9
False
In what year did OMB revise the standards for race and ethnicity classifications?
5709a704ed30961900e843c7
1997
3
False
What did OMB hope to provide with their revision on race and ethnicity in 1997?
5709a704ed30961900e843c8
consistent data
206
False
How many races were people asked to mark on the US Census after OMB revised their standards in 1997?
5709a704ed30961900e843c9
one or more
451
False
How many races were people asked to report in the US census prior to 1997?
5709a704ed30961900e843ca
one
857
False
In 1997, OMB issued a Federal Register notice regarding revisions to the standards for the classification of federal data on race and ethnicity. OMB developed race and ethnic standards in order to provide "consistent data on race and ethnicity throughout the Federal Government. The development of the data standards stem in large measure from new responsibilities to enforce civil rights laws." Among the changes, OMB issued the instruction to "mark one or more races" after noting evidence of increasing numbers of interracial children and wanting to capture the diversity in a measurable way and having received requests by people who wanted to be able to acknowledge their or their children's full ancestry rather than identifying with only one group. Prior to this decision, the Census and other government data collections asked people to report only one race.
In what year were free persons first listed individually in the US census?
5709a8ad200fba1400368221
1850
4
False
How were free persons listed in the US census prior to 1850?
5709a8ad200fba1400368222
by head of household
160
False
In the 1850 US census, what was put into the color column for black persons?
5709a8ad200fba1400368223
B
386
False
If M was marked in the color column for a person in the 1850 census, How were they classified?
5709a8ad200fba1400368224
mulatto
443
False
How were slaves listed in the 1850 US census?
5709a8ad200fba1400368225
by owner
471
False
The 1850 census saw a dramatic shift in the way information about residents was collected. For the first time, free persons were listed individually instead of by head of household. There were two questionnaires: one for free inhabitants and one for slaves. The question on the free inhabitants schedule about color was a column that was to be left blank if a person was white, marked "B" if a person was black, and marked "M" if a person was mulatto. Slaves were listed by owner, and classified by gender and age, not individually, and the question about color was a column that was to be marked with a "B" if the slave was black and an "M" if mulatto.
What race selection did the census bureau consider getting rid of before the 2000 census?
5709a9f2ed30961900e843e4
Some other race
64
False
In what year did the ancestery question stop appearing in the US census?
5709a9f2ed30961900e843e5
2010
180
False
There were campaigns to try to get minorities to use what race category into 2010 census?
5709a9f2ed30961900e843e6
Some other race
502
False
In addition to the Census, where else is the "some other race" selection an option?
5709a9f2ed30961900e843e7
the American Community Survey
32
False
Although used in the Census and the American Community Survey, "Some other race" is not an official race, and the Bureau considered eliminating it prior to the 2000 Census. As the 2010 census form did not contain the question titled "Ancestry" found in prior censuses, there were campaigns to get non-Hispanic West Indian Americans, Turkish Americans, Armenian Americans, Arab Americans and Iranian Americans to indicate their ethnic or national background through the race question, specifically the "Some other race" category.
What act has rules and regulations for bilingual election?
5709ac95200fba1400368253
the Voting Rights Act
138
False
What act has rules and regulations for meeting the credit needs of minority populations?
5709ac95200fba1400368254
the Community Reinvestment Act
573
False
What act has laws about equal employment opportunities for ethnic groups?
5709ac95200fba1400368255
the Civil Rights Act
223
False
"Data on ethnic groups are important for putting into effect a number of federal statutes (i.e., enforcing bilingual election rules under the Voting Rights Act; monitoring and enforcing equal employment opportunities under the Civil Rights Act). Data on Ethnic Groups are also needed by local governments to run programs and meet legislative requirements (i.e., identifying segments of the population who may not be receiving medical services under the Public Health Act; evaluating whether financial institutions are meeting the credit needs of minority populations under the Community Reinvestment Act)."
In what year was the term race first used in the U.S. Census?
5709add7ed30961900e843f6
1890
4
False
How often was a new questionnaire sheet used in the 1890 census?
5709add7ed30961900e843f7
for each family
161
False
How were residents listed in the census in 1890?
5709add7ed30961900e843f8
individually
108
False
Why were different East Asian races divided in 1890 Census?
5709add7ed30961900e843f9
increased immigration
319
False
For 1890, the Census Office changed the design of the population questionnaire. Residents were still listed individually, but a new questionnaire sheet was used for each family. Additionally, this was the first year that the census distinguished between different East Asian races, such as Japanese and Chinese, due to increased immigration. This census also marked the beginning of the term "race" in the questionnaires. Enumerators were instructed to write "White," "Black," "Mulatto," "Quadroon," "Octoroon," "Chinese," "Japanese," or "Indian."
How many ethnicities or federal agencies required to use in data collection?
5709af49ed30961900e84412
a minimum of two
137
False
How would a person of Cuban origin be listed by the US Census Bureau?
5709af49ed30961900e84413
Hispanic or Latino
246
False
Aside from Hispanic or Latino, what other ethnicity are federal agencies required to use?
5709af49ed30961900e84414
Not Hispanic or Latino
193
False
In which ethnic category would a person of Mexican origin be listed by the US Census Bureau?
5709af49ed30961900e84415
Hispanic or Latino
168
False
In what ethnic category would a person from Puerto Rico to be listed in the United States Census?
5709af49ed30961900e84416
Hispanic or Latino
168
False
The federal government of the United States has mandated that "in data collection and presentation, federal agencies are required to use a minimum of two ethnicities: 'Hispanic or Latino' and 'Not Hispanic or Latino'." The Census Bureau defines "Hispanic or Latino" as "a person of Cuban, Mexican, Puerto Rican, South or Central American or other Spanish culture or origin regardless of race." For discussion of the meaning and scope of the Hispanic or Latino ethnicity, see the Hispanic and Latino Americans and Racial and ethnic demographics of the United States articles.
United_States_dollar
What is the US dollar based upon?
5709a923ed30961900e843d0
a decimal system of values
63
False
How much monetary value does a dime hold?
5709a923ed30961900e843d1
one-tenth of a dollar
275
False
How much was a union going to be worth as proposed in the 1800s?
5709a923ed30961900e843d2
one hundred dollars
439
False
What was the maximum value a gold coin used to be able to have?
5709a923ed30961900e843d3
$20
1542
False
In what legislation was the term "eagle" used?
5709a923ed30961900e843d4
Coinage Act of 1792
1635
False
a decimal system of values
63
What is the Union based upon?
5a8cc8f2fd22b3001a8d8e66
True
one-tenth of a dollar
275
How much monetary value does a treasury hold?
5a8cc8f2fd22b3001a8d8e67
True
one hundred dollars
439
How much was a union going to be worth as proposed in the 1900s?
5a8cc8f2fd22b3001a8d8e68
True
$20
1542
What was the maximum value paper money used to be able to have?
5a8cc8f2fd22b3001a8d8e69
True
Coinage Act of 1792
1635
In what legislation was the term "denomination" used?
5a8cc8f2fd22b3001a8d8e6a
True
Unlike the Spanish milled dollar the U.S. dollar is based upon a decimal system of values. In addition to the dollar the coinage act officially established monetary units of mill or one-thousandth of a dollar (symbol ₥), cent or one-hundredth of a dollar (symbol ¢), dime or one-tenth of a dollar, and eagle or ten dollars, with prescribed weights and composition of gold, silver, or copper for each. It was proposed in the mid-1800s that one hundred dollars be known as a union, but no union coins were ever struck and only patterns for the $50 half union exist. However, only cents are in everyday use as divisions of the dollar; "dime" is used solely as the name of the coin with the value of 10¢, while "eagle" and "mill" are largely unknown to the general public, though mills are sometimes used in matters of tax levies, and gasoline prices are usually in the form of $X.XX9 per gallon, e.g., $3.599, sometimes written as $3.599⁄10. When currently issued in circulating form, denominations equal to or less than a dollar are emitted as U.S. coins while denominations equal to or greater than a dollar are emitted as Federal Reserve notes (with the exception of gold, silver and platinum coins valued up to $100 as legal tender, but worth far more as bullion). Both one-dollar coins and notes are produced today, although the note form is significantly more common. In the past, "paper money" was occasionally issued in denominations less than a dollar (fractional currency) and gold coins were issued for circulation up to the value of $20 (known as the "double eagle", discontinued in the 1930s). The term eagle was used in the Coinage Act of 1792 for the denomination of ten dollars, and subsequently was used in naming gold coins. Paper currency less than one dollar in denomination, known as "fractional currency", was also sometimes pejoratively referred to as "shinplasters". In 1854, James Guthrie, then Secretary of the Treasury, proposed creating $100, $50 and $25 gold coins, which were referred to as a "Union", "Half Union", and "Quarter Union", thus implying a denomination of 1 Union = $100.
Which symbol is used to represent the dollar?
5709aab4ed30961900e843ec
$
11
False
What abbreviation was the dollar sign based off of?
5709aab4ed30961900e843ed
ps
213
False
What was the common name for the Spanish dollar?
5709aab4ed30961900e843ee
peso
225
False
Which century signalled the end of the Spanish dollar?
5709aab4ed30961900e843ef
19th
339
False
In which region of the world were the Spanish pesos minted?
5709aab4ed30961900e843f0
Spanish America
401
False
$
11
Which symbol is used to represent the peso?
5a8ccdb1fd22b3001a8d8eb6
True
ps
213
What abbreviation was the minted sign based off of?
5a8ccdb1fd22b3001a8d8eb7
True
peso
225
What was the common name for the Spanish sign?
5a8ccdb1fd22b3001a8d8eb8
True
19th
339
Which century signaled the end of the sign?
5a8ccdb1fd22b3001a8d8eb9
True
Spanish America
401
In which region of the world were Spanish signs minted?
5a8ccdb1fd22b3001a8d8eba
True
The symbol $, usually written before the numerical amount, is used for the U.S. dollar (as well as for many other currencies). The sign was the result of a late 18th-century evolution of the scribal abbreviation "ps" for the peso, the common name for the Spanish dollars that were in wide circulation in the New World from the 16th to the 19th centuries. These Spanish pesos or dollars were minted in Spanish America, namely in Mexico City, Potosí, Bolivia; and Lima, Peru. The p and the s eventually came to be written over each other giving rise to $.
What color was predominantly used?
5709ab89200fba1400368249
green
27
False
Which organization filed an accessibility lawsuit?
5709ab89200fba140036824a
American Council of the Blind
195
False
Other than the $100 bill, which other note is not going to be redesigned?
5709ab89200fba140036824b
$1
359
False
Who are currency readers meant to assist?
5709ab89200fba140036824c
visually impaired
538
False
The redesign of notes is being planned by which organization?
5709ab89200fba140036824d
Bureau of Engraving and Printing
230
False
green
27
What color was rarely used?
5a8cf205fd22b3001a8d9080
True
American Council of the Blind
195
Which organization filed a numeral lawsuit?
5a8cf205fd22b3001a8d9081
True
$1
359
Other than the $2 bill, which other note is not going to be redesigned?
5a8cf205fd22b3001a8d9082
True
visually impaired
538
Who are transition periods meant to assist?
5a8cf205fd22b3001a8d9083
True
Bureau of Engraving and Printing
230
The transition period is being planned by which organization?
5a8cf205fd22b3001a8d9084
True
Though still predominantly green, post-2004 series incorporate other colors to better distinguish different denominations. As a result of a 2008 decision in an accessibility lawsuit filed by the American Council of the Blind, the Bureau of Engraving and Printing is planning to implement a raised tactile feature in the next redesign of each note, except the $1 and the version of the $100 bill already in process. It also plans larger, higher-contrast numerals, more color differences, and distribution of currency readers to assist the visually impaired during the transition period.
Who has the power "to coin money"?
5709adeced30961900e843fe
United States Congress
67
False
Which section indicates the methods in which the dollar should be issued?
5709adeced30961900e843ff
5112
202
False
Coins are considered legal tender for which kind of transaction?
5709adeced30961900e84400
payment of debts
351
False
What is an example of a copper alloy dollar?
5709adeced30961900e84401
Sacagawea dollar
373
False
What is the pure silver dollar referred to as?
5709adeced30961900e84402
American Silver Eagle
472
False
United States Congress
67
Who has the power "to tender money"?
5a8cc54efd22b3001a8d8e34
True
5112
202
Which section indicates the methods in which coins should be issued?
5a8cc54efd22b3001a8d8e35
True
payment of debts
351
Coins are considered illegal tender for which type of transactions?
5a8cc54efd22b3001a8d8e36
True
Sacagawea dollar
373
What is an example of a silver alloy debt?
5a8cc54efd22b3001a8d8e37
True
American Silver Eagle
472
What is the impure silver dollar referred to as?
5a8cc54efd22b3001a8d8e38
True
The Constitution of the United States of America provides that the United States Congress has the power "To coin money". Laws implementing this power are currently codified at 31 U.S.C. § 5112. Section 5112 prescribes the forms, in which the United States dollars should be issued. These coins are both designated in Section 5112 as "legal tender" in payment of debts. The Sacagawea dollar is one example of the copper alloy dollar. The pure silver dollar is known as the American Silver Eagle. Section 5112 also provides for the minting and issuance of other coins, which have values ranging from one cent to 50 dollars. These other coins are more fully described in Coins of the United States dollar.
Who began minting the coins known as Joachimstalers?
5709af50200fba1400368259
Count Hieronymus Schlick of Bohemia
21
False
What is the modern name for St. Joachim's Valley?
5709af50200fba140036825a
Jáchymov
276
False
What were the Joachimstalers composed of?
5709af50200fba140036825b
silver
232
False
How did the word "taler" translate into Italian?
5709af50200fba140036825c
tallero
598
False
Other than "taler", what is the other name of the German coin?
5709af50200fba140036825d
Guldengroschen
689
False
Count Hieronymus Schlick of Bohemia
21
Who began minting the coins known as Hungarian?
5a8ccac8fd22b3001a8d8e7a
True
Jáchymov
276
What is the modern name for Joachimsthal?
5a8ccac8fd22b3001a8d8e7b
True
silver
232
What were the Dutch composed of?
5a8ccac8fd22b3001a8d8e7c
True
tallero
598
How did the word "silver" translate into Italian?
5a8ccac8fd22b3001a8d8e7d
True
Guldengroschen
689
Other than "taler" what is the other name of the Italian coin?
5a8ccac8fd22b3001a8d8e7e
True
In the 16th century, Count Hieronymus Schlick of Bohemia began minting coins known as Joachimstalers (from German thal, or nowadays usually Tal, "valley", cognate with "dale" in English), named for Joachimstal, the valley where the silver was mined (St. Joachim's Valley, now Jáchymov; then part of the Kingdom of Bohemia, now part of the Czech Republic). Joachimstaler was later shortened to the German Taler, a word that eventually found its way into Danish and Swedish as daler, Norwegian as dalar and daler, Dutch as daler or daalder, Ethiopian as ታላሪ (talari), Hungarian as tallér, Italian as tallero, and English as dollar. Alternatively, thaler is said to come from the German coin Guldengroschen ("great guilder", being of silver but equal in value to a gold guilder), minted from the silver from Joachimsthal.
What condition does a person have to meet to  be allowed by law on a coin?
5709b165ed30961900e84426
deceased
146
False
Having portraits of leaders on coins was compared to who's policies?
5709b165ed30961900e84427
European monarchs
337
False
When did modern day currency start getting the faces that they have?
5709b165ed30961900e84428
20th century
453
False
Other than Greek and Roman mythology, who else was featured on the "heads" side of past coins?
5709b165ed30961900e84429
composite Native Americans
600
False
What was the last coin to be converted to the modern day style of having historic Americans on the face?
5709b165ed30961900e8442a
Dollar
722
False
deceased
146
What condition does a person have to meet to be in mythology?
5a8cd753fd22b3001a8d8f2e
True
European monarchs
337
Having mythology on coins was compared to whose policies?
5a8cd753fd22b3001a8d8f2f
True
20th century
453
When did modern day currency start getting the Native Americans they have?
5a8cd753fd22b3001a8d8f30
True
composite Native Americans
600
Other than Greek and Roman mythology, who else was featured on the "heads" of past monarchs?
5a8cd753fd22b3001a8d8f31
True
Dollar
722
What was the last coin to be converted to the modern day style of having mythology on the face?
5a8cd753fd22b3001a8d8f32
True
The early currency of the United States did not exhibit faces of presidents, as is the custom now; although today, by law, only the portrait of a deceased individual may appear on United States currency. In fact, the newly formed government was against having portraits of leaders on the currency, a practice compared to the policies of European monarchs. The currency as we know it today did not get the faces they currently have until after the early 20th century; before that "heads" side of coinage used profile faces and striding, seated, and standing figures from Greek and Roman mythology and composite Native Americans. The last coins to be converted to profiles of historic Americans were the dime (1946) and the Dollar (1971).
Which year was it when paper money was first issued without the backing of precious metals?
5709b308ed30961900e84430
1777
404
False
What was the first war that caused paper money to be issued?
5709b308ed30961900e84431
Civil War
83
False
Which other war also caused a disconnect between paper money and precious metals?
5709b308ed30961900e84432
War of 1812
279
False
The quick loss in value of paper money resulted in which phrase being hear?
5709b308ed30961900e84433
"not worth a continental"
541
False
The loss in value resulted in a clause being written in which article in the US Constitution?
5709b308ed30961900e84434
article 1
701
False
1777
404
Which year was it when paper money was first issued without the backing of the Articles of Confederation?
5a8cdd89fd22b3001a8d8f6a
True
Civil War
83
What was the first war that caused silver money to be issued?
5a8cdd89fd22b3001a8d8f6b
True
War of 1812
279
Which other war also caused a disconnect between the United States Constitution?
5a8cdd89fd22b3001a8d8f6c
True
not worth a continental
542
The quick loss in value of silver resulted in which phrase being heard?
5a8cdd89fd22b3001a8d8f6d
True
article 1
701
The loss in value resulted in a clause being written in which article in the Articles of Confederation?
5a8cdd89fd22b3001a8d8f6e
True
In 1862, paper money was issued without the backing of precious metals, due to the Civil War. Silver and gold coins continued to be issued and in 1878 the link between paper money and coins was reinstated. This disconnection from gold and silver backing also occurred during the War of 1812. The use of paper money not backed by precious metals had also occurred under the Articles of Confederation from 1777 to 1788. With no solid backing and being easily counterfeited, the continentals quickly lost their value, giving rise to the phrase "not worth a continental". This was a primary reason for the "No state shall... make any thing but gold and silver coin a tender in payment of debts" clause in article 1, section 10 of the United States Constitution.
In which year was the new $1 US Presidential coin introduced?
5709b503200fba1400368289
2007
12
False
What does the reverse side of the new coins feature?
5709b503200fba140036828a
Statue of Liberty
348
False
What is the official version of "In God We Trust" printed on the coins?
5709b503200fba140036828b
E Pluribus Unum
446
False
Which inscription was eliminated due to the Statue of Liberty being added to the coin?
5709b503200fba140036828c
"Liberty"
739
False
Which President will have two coins with his portrait on it?
5709b503200fba140036828d
Grover Cleveland
1206
False
2007
12
In which year was the new Roosevelt Presidential coin introduced?
5a8ce841fd22b3001a8d9000
True
Statue of Liberty
348
What does the reverse side of the Roosevelt coin feature?
5a8ce841fd22b3001a8d9001
True
E Pluribus Unum
446
What is the official version of "Liberty" printed on the coins?
5a8ce841fd22b3001a8d9002
True
"Liberty"
739
Which inscription was eliminated due to Roosevelt being added to the coin?
5a8ce841fd22b3001a8d9003
True
Grover Cleveland
1206
Which President will have two dimes with his portrait on it?
5a8ce841fd22b3001a8d9004
True
In February 2007, the U.S. Mint, under the Presidential $1 Coin Act of 2005, introduced a new $1 U.S. Presidential dollar coin. Based on the success of the "50 State Quarters" series, the new coin features a sequence of presidents in order of their inaugurations, starting with George Washington, on the obverse side. The reverse side features the Statue of Liberty. To allow for larger, more detailed portraits, the traditional inscriptions of "E Pluribus Unum", "In God We Trust", the year of minting or issuance, and the mint mark will be inscribed on the edge of the coin instead of the face. This feature, similar to the edge inscriptions seen on the British £1 coin, is not usually associated with U.S. coin designs. The inscription "Liberty" has been eliminated, with the Statue of Liberty serving as a sufficient replacement. In addition, due to the nature of U.S. coins, this will be the first time there will be circulating U.S. coins of different denominations with the same president featured on the obverse (heads) side (Lincoln/penny, Jefferson/nickel, Franklin D. Roosevelt/dime, Washington/quarter, Kennedy/half dollar, and Eisenhower/dollar). Another unusual fact about the new $1 coin is Grover Cleveland will have two coins with his portrait issued due to the fact he was the only U.S. President to be elected to two non-consecutive terms.
Who can create "new high-powered money"?
5709b61eed30961900e84444
Federal Reserve
9
False
Who does the Federal Reserve have to place an order with for printed money?
5709b61eed30961900e84445
U.S. Treasury Department
452
False
Which organization stamps coins?
5709b61eed30961900e84446
Bureau of the Mint
607
False
Which Bureau prints new dollars?
5709b61eed30961900e84447
Engraving and Printing
548
False
Who can freely withdraw from  their reserve accounts at the Federal Reserve?
5709b61eed30961900e84448
Commercial banks
246
False
Federal Reserve
194
Who can create reserve accounts?
5a8cf43ffd22b3001a8d9094
True
U.S. Treasury Department
452
Who do the reserve accounts have to place an order with for printed money?
5a8cf43ffd22b3001a8d9095
True
Bureau of the Mint
607
Which organization orders existing funds?
5a8cf43ffd22b3001a8d9096
True
Engraving and Printing
548
Which Bureau reserves high-powered money?
5a8cf43ffd22b3001a8d9097
True
Commercial banks
246
Who can freely withdraw from their Federal Reserve accounts at the Bureau of Engraving and Printing?
5a8cf43ffd22b3001a8d9098
True
When the Federal Reserve makes a purchase, it credits the seller's reserve account (with the Federal Reserve). This money is not transferred from any existing funds—it is at this point that the Federal Reserve has created new high-powered money. Commercial banks can freely withdraw in cash any excess reserves from their reserve account at the Federal Reserve. To fulfill those requests, the Federal Reserve places an order for printed money from the U.S. Treasury Department. The Treasury Department in turn sends these requests to the Bureau of Engraving and Printing (to print new dollar bills) and the Bureau of the Mint (to stamp the coins).
During which times does the value of the dollar typically decline?
5709ba58200fba1400368293
wartime
59
False
When was the Federal Reserve established?
5709ba58200fba1400368294
1913
187
False
What was the Federal Reserve designed to furnish?
5709ba58200fba1400368295
an "elastic" currency
217
False
What had previously kept prices stable?
5709ba58200fba1400368296
gold standard
462
False
How much did the US prices deflate in the 1930s?
5709ba58200fba1400368297
30%
865
False
wartime
59
During which times does the value of the dollar typically maintain value?
5a8cfa0ffd22b3001a8d90b2
True
1913
187
When was the Civil Reserve established?
5a8cfa0ffd22b3001a8d90b3
True
an "elastic" currency
217
What was the Civil Reserve designed to furnish?
5a8cfa0ffd22b3001a8d90b4
True
gold standard
462
What had previously kept prices declining?
5a8cfa0ffd22b3001a8d90b5
True
30%
865
How much did the US prices inflate in the 1930s?
5a8cfa0ffd22b3001a8d90b6
True
The value of the U.S. dollar declined significantly during wartime, especially during the American Civil War, World War I, and World War II. The Federal Reserve, which was established in 1913, was designed to furnish an "elastic" currency subject to "substantial changes of quantity over short periods", which differed significantly from previous forms of high-powered money such as gold, national bank notes, and silver coins. Over the very long run, the prior gold standard kept prices stable—for instance, the price level and the value of the U.S. dollar in 1914 was not very different from the price level in the 1880s. The Federal Reserve initially succeeded in maintaining the value of the U.S. dollar and price stability, reversing the inflation caused by the First World War and stabilizing the value of the dollar during the 1920s, before presiding over a 30% deflation in U.S. prices in the 1930s.
What would zero inflation mean for the US dollar over time?
5709bb3ded30961900e84458
constant value
101
False
What would result in a slow declining of the value of the dollar over time?
5709bb3ded30961900e84459
low, stable inflation
150
False
Who is in favor of a zero inflation policy?
5709bb3ded30961900e8445a
some economists
287
False
A zero inflation policy would limit who's influence and ability to react?
5709bb3ded30961900e8445b
central bank
455
False
With a zero inflation rate, what would the central bank be unable to do other than control interest rates?
5709bb3ded30961900e8445c
stimulate the economy
498
False
constant value
101
What would zero inflation mean for control interest over time?
5a8cfcc1fd22b3001a8d90d0
True
low, stable inflation
150
What would result in a slow declining of the value of control interest over time?
5a8cfcc1fd22b3001a8d90d1
True
central bank
455
A zero inflation policy would limit who's influence and stimulate the economy?
5a8cfcc1fd22b3001a8d90d2
True
stimulate the economy
498
With a zero inflation rate, what would stable inflation be unable to do other than control interest rates?
5a8cfcc1fd22b3001a8d90d3
True
stable inflation
155
What would mean a continuously but slowly stimulating of the economy?
5a8cfcc1fd22b3001a8d90d4
True
There is ongoing debate about whether central banks should target zero inflation (which would mean a constant value for the U.S. dollar over time) or low, stable inflation (which would mean a continuously but slowly declining value of the dollar over time, as is the case now). Although some economists are in favor of a zero inflation policy and therefore a constant value for the U.S. dollar, others contend that such a policy limits the ability of the central bank to control interest rates and stimulate the economy when needed.
What is "dollars" a reference to?
5709bd0d200fba140036829d
the Spanish milled dollar
158
False
How much value did a Spanish milled dollar have in relation to Spanish units of currency?
5709bd0d200fba140036829e
8 Spanish units
221
False
How much value was one dollar meant to be equivalent to?
5709bd0d200fba140036829f
a Spanish milled dollar
510
False
How many grains of standard silver were meant to be in a single dollar?
5709bd0d200fba14003682a0
four hundred and sixteen
662
False
How many grains of pure silver were meant to be in a single dollar?
5709bd0d200fba14003682a1
three hundred and seventy-one
577
False
the Spanish milled dollar
158
What is "section" a reference to?
5a8cc7f9fd22b3001a8d8e5c
True
8 Spanish units
221
How much value did a Spanish milled dollar have in relation to coins of the United States?
5a8cc7f9fd22b3001a8d8e5d
True
a Spanish milled dollar
510
How much value was one grain meant to be equivalent to?
5a8cc7f9fd22b3001a8d8e5e
True
four hundred and sixteen
662
How many single silver dollars were meant cost one dollar to make?
5a8cc7f9fd22b3001a8d8e5f
True
three hundred and seventy-one
577
How many grains of pure silver were meant to be in a single milled dollar?
5a8cc7f9fd22b3001a8d8e60
True
The word "dollar" is one of the words in the first paragraph of Section 9 of Article 1 of the U.S. Constitution. In that context, "dollars" is a reference to the Spanish milled dollar, a coin that had a monetary value of 8 Spanish units of currency, or reales. In 1792 the U.S. Congress adopted legislation titled An act establishing a mint, and regulating the Coins of the United States. Section 9 of that act authorized the production of various coins, including "DOLLARS OR UNITS—each to be of the value of a Spanish milled dollar as the same is now current, and to contain three hundred and seventy-one grains and four sixteenth parts of a grain of pure, or four hundred and sixteen grains of standard silver". Section 20 of the act provided, "That the money of account of the United States shall be expressed in dollars, or units... and that all accounts in the public offices and all proceedings in the courts of the United States shall be kept and had in conformity to this regulation". In other words, this act designated the United States dollar as the unit of currency of the United States.
What is a "grand" sometimes shortened to?
5709c0e6ed30961900e84462
"G"
41
False
What is another term other than "large" that means a stack of mutiple thousands?
5709c0e6ed30961900e84463
"stack"
271
False
What is a "C-note" a reference to?
5709c0e6ed30961900e84464
the Roman numeral for 100
485
False
Which note is occasionally called a "yardstick"?
5709c0e6ed30961900e84465
$50
573
False
What is another term for "bigface" notes?
5709c0e6ed30961900e84466
Monopoly money
1399
False
G
42
What is a "sawbuck" sometimes shortened to?
5a8ccd13fd22b3001a8d8ea2
True
stack
272
What is another term other than "sawbuck" that means a stack of multiple thousands?
5a8ccd13fd22b3001a8d8ea3
True
the Roman numeral for 100
485
What is a G-note a reference to?
5a8ccd13fd22b3001a8d8ea4
True
$50
573
Which note is occasionally called a largestick?
5a8ccd13fd22b3001a8d8ea5
True
Monopoly money
1399
What is another term for obverse notes?
5a8ccd13fd22b3001a8d8ea6
True
A "grand", sometimes shortened to simply "G", is a common term for the amount of $1,000. The suffix "K" or "k" (from "kilo-") is also commonly used to denote this amount (such as "$10k" to mean $10,000). However, the $1,000 note is no longer in general use. A "large" or "stack", it is usually a reference to a multiple of $1,000 (such as "fifty large" meaning $50,000). The $100 note is nicknamed "Benjamin", "Benji", "Ben", or "Franklin" (after Benjamin Franklin), "C-note" (C being the Roman numeral for 100), "Century note" or "bill" (e.g. "two bills" being $200). The $50 note is occasionally called a "yardstick" or a "grant" (after President Ulysses S. Grant, pictured on the obverse). The $20 note is referred to as a "double sawbuck", "Jackson" (after Andrew Jackson), or "double eagle". The $10 note is referred to as a "sawbuck", "ten-spot" or "Hamilton" (after Alexander Hamilton). The $5 note as "Lincoln", "fin", "fiver" or "five-spot". The infrequently-used $2 note is sometimes called "deuce", "Tom", or "Jefferson" (after Thomas Jefferson). The $1 note as a "single" or "buck". The dollar has also been, referred to as a "bone" and "bones" in plural (e.g. "twenty bones" is equal to $20). The newer designs, with portraits displayed in the main body of the obverse rather than in cameo insets upon paper color-coded by denomination, are sometimes referred to as "bigface" notes or "Monopoly money".
What defined the US dollar?
5709c16bed30961900e8446c
Coinage Act of 1792
67
False
What was the dollar based on?
5709c16bed30961900e8446d
the Spanish milled dollar
127
False
How many grams of gold roughly were in an eagle?
5709c16bed30961900e8446e
17
319
False
Who made the decision to base the American Unit on the weight on the Spanish dollar?
5709c16bed30961900e8446f
Alexander Hamilton
408
False
What was the average weight of a new Spanish dollar in terms of grains?
5709c16bed30961900e84470
377
682
False
Coinage Act of 1792
67
What defined the Hamilton?
5a8cd4c6fd22b3001a8d8f1a
True
the Spanish milled dollar
127
What was the Hamilton based on?
5a8cd4c6fd22b3001a8d8f1b
True
17
319
How many grams did an eagle weigh?
5a8cd4c6fd22b3001a8d8f1c
True
Alexander Hamilton
408
Who made the decision to base the Hamilton Unit on the weight of the Spanish dollar?
5a8cd4c6fd22b3001a8d8f1d
True
377
682
What was the average weight of the Hamilton in grains?
5a8cd4c6fd22b3001a8d8f1e
True
The U.S. dollar was created by the Constitution and defined by the Coinage Act of 1792. It specified a "dollar" to be based in the Spanish milled dollar and of 371 grains and 4 sixteenths part of a grain of pure or 416 grains (27.0 g) of standard silver and an "eagle" to be 247 and 4 eighths of a grain or 270 grains (17 g) of gold (again depending on purity). The choice of the value 371 grains arose from Alexander Hamilton's decision to base the new American unit on the average weight of a selection of worn Spanish dollars. Hamilton got the treasury to weigh a sample of Spanish dollars and the average weight came out to be 371 grains. A new Spanish dollar was usually about 377 grains in weight, and so the new U.S. dollar was at a slight discount in relation to the Spanish dollar.
What is specifically produced for collectors?
5709c220ed30961900e84476
Proof Sets
32
False
What is the percentage of silver in coins in the Silver Proofs?
5709c220ed30961900e84477
90%
189
False
When did the Mint being producing proof sets?
5709c220ed30961900e84478
1983
213
False
Other than the Silver Proof set, what other type of Proof set exists?
5709c220ed30961900e84479
Presidential Dollar Proof Set
376
False
When was the production of Presidential dollar coins suspended?
5709c220ed30961900e8447a
December 13, 2011
652
False
Proof Sets
32
What is specifically produced for budget constraints?
5a8ce413fd22b3001a8d8fba
True
90%
189
What is the percentage of silver in coins in the budget constraints?
5a8ce413fd22b3001a8d8fbb
True
1983
213
When did the Mint begin producing budget sets?
5a8ce413fd22b3001a8d8fbc
True
Presidential Dollar Proof Set
376
Other than the Silver Budget set, what other type of Budget set exists?
5a8ce413fd22b3001a8d8fbd
True
December 13, 2011
652
When was the production of silver coins suspended?
5a8ce413fd22b3001a8d8fbe
True
The United States Mint produces Proof Sets specifically for collectors and speculators. Silver Proofs tend to be the standard designs but with the dime, quarter, and half dollar containing 90% silver. Starting in 1983 and ending in 1997, the Mint also produced proof sets containing the year's commemorative coins alongside the regular coins. Another type of proof set is the Presidential Dollar Proof Set where four special $1 coins are minted each year featuring a president. Because of budget constraints and increasing stockpiles of these relatively unpopular coins, the production of new Presidential dollar coins for circulation was suspended on December 13, 2011, by U.S. Treasury Secretary Timothy F. Geithner. Future minting of such coins will be made solely for collectors.
What dictates that a receipt for expenditures of all public money must be published?
5709c30f200fba14003682bb
The Constitution
0
False
Which section specifically states that receipts for public money must be published?
5709c30f200fba14003682bc
Section 331
211
False
Which currency are the sums of money in the "Statements" displayed in?
5709c30f200fba14003682bd
U.S. dollars
342
False
What is the unit of account of the United States?
5709c30f200fba14003682be
U.S. dollar
437
False
The Constitution
0
What dictates that a receipt for expenditures of all public codes must be published?
5a8cc676fd22b3001a8d8e48
True
Section 331
211
Which section specifically states that receipts for provisions must be published?
5a8cc676fd22b3001a8d8e49
True
U.S. dollars
342
In which currency are the sums of provisions in the "Statements" displayed in?
5a8cc676fd22b3001a8d8e4a
True
U.S. dollar
437
What is the unit of report provisions of the United States?
5a8cc676fd22b3001a8d8e4b
True
a regular Statement and Account of the Receipts and Expenditures of all public Money
32
What shall not be published?
5a8cc676fd22b3001a8d8e4c
True
The Constitution provides that "a regular Statement and Account of the Receipts and Expenditures of all public Money shall be published from time to time". That provision of the Constitution is made specific by Section 331 of Title 31 of the United States Code. The sums of money reported in the "Statements" are currently being expressed in U.S. dollars (for example, see the 2009 Financial Report of the United States Government). The U.S. dollar may therefore be described as the unit of account of the United States.
What is the highest currently printed denomination of bill?
5709c3b3200fba14003682cd
$100
67
False
In which year were notes valued above $100 no longer printed?
5709c3b3200fba14003682ce
1946
132
False
When were bills above the $100 denomination withdrawn from circulation?
5709c3b3200fba14003682cf
1969
187
False
What use of higher value bills prompted Nixon to halt the use of said bills?
5709c3b3200fba14003682d0
organized crime
258
False
What was issued to halt the use of higher currency denomations?
5709c3b3200fba14003682d1
an executive order
346
False
$100
89
What is the cost of an executive order?
5a8cf0f0fd22b3001a8d9076
True
1946
132
In which year were notes valued below $1 no longer printed?
5a8cf0f0fd22b3001a8d9077
True
1969
368
When were bills above the below the $1 withdrawn into circulation?
5a8cf0f0fd22b3001a8d9078
True
organized crime
258
What use of lower value bills prompted Nixon to halt the use of said bills?
5a8cf0f0fd22b3001a8d9079
True
an executive order
346
What was issued to halt the use of lower currency denominations?
5a8cf0f0fd22b3001a8d907a
True
Currently printed denominations are $1, $2, $5, $10, $20, $50, and $100. Notes above the $100 denomination stopped being printed in 1946 and were officially withdrawn from circulation in 1969. These notes were used primarily in inter-bank transactions or by organized crime; it was the latter usage that prompted President Richard Nixon to issue an executive order in 1969 halting their use. With the advent of electronic banking, they became less necessary. Notes in denominations of $500, $1,000, $5,000, $10,000 and $100,000 were all produced at one time; see large denomination bills in U.S. currency for details. These notes are now collectors' items and are worth more than their face value to collectors.
What is the British equivalent of a "buck"?
5709c499ed30961900e84480
quid
57
False
In which century can the term "buck" be traced back to?
5709c499ed30961900e84481
18th
200
False
What kind of trade may have been the origin of the "buck"?
5709c499ed30961900e84482
colonial leather trade
243
False
What was the nickname given to the Demand Note dollars that were used to finance the Civil War?
5709c499ed30961900e84483
Greenback
315
False
What color other than green was used on the backside of the original note?
5709c499ed30961900e84484
black
531
False
quid
57
What is the British equivalent of a "whole"?
5a8ccbedfd22b3001a8d8e8e
True
18th
200
In which century can the term "whole" be traced back to?
5a8ccbedfd22b3001a8d8e8f
True
colonial leather trade
243
What kind of trade may have been the origin of the "whole"?
5a8ccbedfd22b3001a8d8e90
True
Greenback
315
What was the nickname given to the Demand Bill dollars that were used to finance the buck?
5a8ccbedfd22b3001a8d8e91
True
black
531
What color other than red was used on the backside of the original note?
5a8ccbedfd22b3001a8d8e92
True
The colloquialism "buck"(s) (much like the British word "quid"(s, pl) for the pound sterling) is often used to refer to dollars of various nations, including the U.S. dollar. This term, dating to the 18th century, may have originated with the colonial leather trade. It may also have originated from a poker term. "Greenback" is another nickname originally applied specifically to the 19th century Demand Note dollars created by Abraham Lincoln to finance the costs of the Civil War for the North. The original note was printed in black and green on the back side. It is still used to refer to the U.S. dollar (but not to the dollars of other countries). Other well-known names of the dollar as a whole in denominations include "greenmail", "green" and "dead presidents" (the last because deceased presidents are pictured on most bills).
What was the value of the U.S. dollar no longer anchored to?
5709cbff6d058f1900182bae
gold
65
False
Who's duty did it become to maintain the value of the U.S. currency?
5709cbff6d058f1900182baf
Federal Reserve
92
False
What move did the Federal Reserve take that resulted in stagflation and the decline of the U.S. dollar?
5709cbff6d058f1900182bb0
increase the money supply
195
False
What claimed that inflation and economic growth were linked?
5709cbff6d058f1900182bb1
the Phillips curve
428
False
How much value did the U.S. dollar lose between 1965 and 1981?
5709cbff6d058f1900182bb2
two thirds
545
False
gold
65
What was the value of the Federal Reserve no longer anchored to?
5a8cfc17fd22b3001a8d90c6
True
Federal Reserve
92
Whose duty did it become to maintain the value of the Federal Reserve?
5a8cfc17fd22b3001a8d90c7
True
increase the money supply
195
What move did the Phillips take that resulted in stagflation and the decline of the U.S. dollar?
5a8cfc17fd22b3001a8d90c8
True
the Phillips curve
428
What claimed that inflation and the Federal Reserve were linked?
5a8cfc17fd22b3001a8d90c9
True
two thirds
545
How much value did the Federal Reserve lose between 1965 and 1981?
5a8cfc17fd22b3001a8d90ca
True
The value of the U.S. dollar was therefore no longer anchored to gold, and it fell upon the Federal Reserve to maintain the value of the U.S. currency. The Federal Reserve, however, continued to increase the money supply, resulting in stagflation and a rapidly declining value of the U.S. dollar in the 1970s. This was largely due to the prevailing economic view at the time that inflation and real economic growth were linked (the Phillips curve), and so inflation was regarded as relatively benign. Between 1965 and 1981, the U.S. dollar lost two thirds of its value.
What was the look of the dollar based on?
5709cc734103511400d59446
Spanish dollar
56
False
In which century did the Spanish dollar start being used in Spanish America?
5709cc734103511400d59447
16th
112
False
When was the United States Mint founded?
5709cc734103511400d59448
1792
205
False
Outside of Mexico, where else was the Spanish dollar minted?
5709cc734103511400d59449
Peru
292
False
When were the Spanish dollar and Mexican peso no longer accepted as legal tender?
5709cc734103511400d5944a
1857
497
False
Spanish dollar
56
What was the look of the colonies based on?
5a8cd3b0fd22b3001a8d8efc
True
16th
112
In which century did the Spanish dollar start being used in New York?
5a8cd3b0fd22b3001a8d8efd
True
1792
205
When was the Spanish Mint founded?
5a8cd3b0fd22b3001a8d8efe
True
Peru
292
Outside of the Netherlands, where else was the Dutch dollar minted?
5a8cd3b0fd22b3001a8d8eff
True
1857
497
When were the Dutch dollar and Mexican peso no longer accepted as legal tender?
5a8cd3b0fd22b3001a8d8f00
True
The dollar was first based on the value and look of the Spanish dollar, used widely in Spanish America from the 16th to the 19th centuries. The first dollar coins issued by the United States Mint (founded 1792) were similar in size and composition to the Spanish dollar, minted in Mexico and Peru. The Spanish, U.S. silver dollars, and later, Mexican silver pesos circulated side by side in the United States, and the Spanish dollar and Mexican peso remained legal tender until the Coinage Act of 1857. The coinage of various English colonies also circulated. The lion dollar was popular in the Dutch New Netherland Colony (New York), but the lion dollar also circulated throughout the English colonies during the 17th century and early 18th century. Examples circulating in the colonies were usually worn so that the design was not fully distinguishable, thus they were sometimes referred to as "dog dollars".
What was the name of the act introduced in the year 1900?
5709d8514103511400d59480
Gold Standard Act
4
False
How much gold in grams was one dollar equivalent to?
5709d8514103511400d59481
1.505
104
False
How much was 1 troy ounce of gold worth?
5709d8514103511400d59482
$20.67
181
False
Which year brought the end to silver being in dimes and quarters?
5709d8514103511400d59483
1964
247
False
Which President confiscated gold coins?
5709d8514103511400d59484
Franklin Roosevelt
485
False
Gold Standard Act
4
What was the name of the act introduced in the year 1800?
5a8cdf53fd22b3001a8d8f7e
True
1.505
104
How much silver in grams was one dollar equivalent to?
5a8cdf53fd22b3001a8d8f7f
True
$20.67
181
How much was 1 troy ounce of silver worth?
5a8cdf53fd22b3001a8d8f80
True
1964
247
Which of year brought the end to gold being in dimes and quarters?
5a8cdf53fd22b3001a8d8f81
True
Franklin Roosevelt
485
Which President confiscated silver coins?
5a8cdf53fd22b3001a8d8f82
True
The Gold Standard Act of 1900 abandoned the bimetallic standard and defined the dollar as 23.22 grains (1.505 g) of gold, equivalent to setting the price of 1 troy ounce of gold at $20.67. Silver coins continued to be issued for circulation until 1964, when all silver was removed from dimes and quarters, and the half dollar was reduced to 40% silver. Silver half dollars were last issued for circulation in 1970. Gold coins were confiscated by Executive Order 6102 issued in 1933 by Franklin Roosevelt. The gold standard was changed to 13.71 grains (0.888 g), equivalent to setting the price of 1 troy ounce of gold at $35. This standard persisted until 1968.
Where did error coins originate?
5709dce26d058f1900182bdc
Philadelphia mint
86
False
Other than Florida, which other state got send error coins?
5709dce26d058f1900182bdd
Tennessee
119
False
How much were error coins initially worth for collectors?
5709dce26d058f1900182bde
profit
766
False
What were some amateur collectors duped into buying?
5709dce26d058f1900182bdf
"upside down lettering error" coins
654
False
What do vending machines commonly only accept?
5709dce26d058f1900182be0
$1 bills
1223
False
Philadelphia mint
86
Where did permanent coins originate?
5a8ceed0fd22b3001a8d904e
True
Tennessee
119
Other than Florida, which other state got sent permanent coins?
5a8ceed0fd22b3001a8d904f
True
profit
766
How much were permanent coins initially worth for collectors?
5a8ceed0fd22b3001a8d9050
True
"upside down lettering error" coins
654
What were some cynics duped into buying?
5a8ceed0fd22b3001a8d9051
True
$1 bills
1223
What do collectors commonly only accept?
5a8ceed0fd22b3001a8d9052
True
Early releases of the Washington coin included error coins shipped primarily from the Philadelphia mint to Florida and Tennessee banks. Highly sought after by collectors, and trading for as much as $850 each within a week of discovery, the error coins were identified by the absence of the edge impressions "E PLURIBUS UNUM IN GOD WE TRUST 2007 P". The mint of origin is generally accepted to be mostly Philadelphia, although identifying the source mint is impossible without opening a mint pack also containing marked units. Edge lettering is minted in both orientations with respect to "heads", some amateur collectors were initially duped into buying "upside down lettering error" coins. Some cynics also erroneously point out that the Federal Reserve makes more profit from dollar bills than dollar coins because they wear out in a few years, whereas coins are more permanent. The fallacy of this argument arises because new notes printed to replace worn out notes, which have been withdrawn from circulation, bring in no net revenue to the government to offset the costs of printing new notes and destroying the old ones. As most vending machines are incapable of making change in banknotes, they commonly accept only $1 bills, though a few will give change in dollar coins.
What power was Congress given by the Constitution?
5709de964103511400d5948a
borrow money on the credit of the United States
70
False
What did Congress authorize the Federal Reserve Banks to do?
5709de964103511400d5948b
issue Federal Reserve Notes
194
False
What are the notes issued by the Federal Reserve?
5709de964103511400d5948c
obligations of the United States
240
False
Where, other than any Federal Reserve bank, can notes be redeemed?
5709de964103511400d5948d
Washington, District of Columbia
387
False
Since the 1970s, what is the only type of note that has remained in circulation?
5709de964103511400d5948e
Federal Reserve Note
698
False
borrow money on the credit of the United States
70
What power was Congress given by the Federal Reserve?
5a8cefb4fd22b3001a8d9062
True
issue Federal Reserve Notes
194
What did the Constitution authorize the Federal Reserve Banks to do?
5a8cefb4fd22b3001a8d9063
True
obligations of the United States
240
What are the noted issued by Congress?
5a8cefb4fd22b3001a8d9064
True
Washington, District of Columbia
387
Where, other than Congress can notes be redeemed?
5a8cefb4fd22b3001a8d9065
True
Federal Reserve Note
698
Since the 1970s, what is the only type of note that have been designated?
5a8cefb4fd22b3001a8d9066
True
The U.S. Constitution provides that Congress shall have the power to "borrow money on the credit of the United States". Congress has exercised that power by authorizing Federal Reserve Banks to issue Federal Reserve Notes. Those notes are "obligations of the United States" and "shall be redeemed in lawful money on demand at the Treasury Department of the United States, in the city of Washington, District of Columbia, or at any Federal Reserve bank". Federal Reserve Notes are designated by law as "legal tender" for the payment of debts. Congress has also authorized the issuance of more than 10 other types of banknotes, including the United States Note and the Federal Reserve Bank Note. The Federal Reserve Note is the only type that remains in circulation since the 1970s.
What is the short term goal of open market operations?
5709e0746d058f1900182be6
achieve a specific short-term interest rate target
61
False
What does the Federal Reserve target?
5709e0746d058f1900182be7
federal funds rate
350
False
What is the federal funds rate?
5709e0746d058f1900182be8
the rate at which member banks lend to one another overnight
370
False
What is the cajoling of certain market players to achieve specified outcomes also known as?
5709e0746d058f1900182be9
Moral suasion
627
False
What does "open mouth operations" mean?
5709e0746d058f1900182bea
talking monetary policy with the market
736
False
achieve a specific short-term interest rate target
61
What is the short term goal of open mouth operatioins?
5a8cf5f9fd22b3001a8d909e
True
federal funds rate
350
What do open mouth operations target?
5a8cf5f9fd22b3001a8d909f
True
the rate at which member banks lend to one another overnight
370
What is the federal specified outcome?
5a8cf5f9fd22b3001a8d90a0
True
Moral suasion
627
What is the cajoling of certain market players to achieve member bank rates also known as?
5a8cf5f9fd22b3001a8d90a1
True
talking monetary policy with the market
736
What does gold rate exchange mean?
5a8cf5f9fd22b3001a8d90a2
True
Usually, the short-term goal of open market operations is to achieve a specific short-term interest rate target. In other instances, monetary policy might instead entail the targeting of a specific exchange rate relative to some foreign currency or else relative to gold. For example, in the case of the United States the Federal Reserve targets the federal funds rate, the rate at which member banks lend to one another overnight. The other primary means of conducting monetary policy include: (i) Discount window lending (as lender of last resort); (ii) Fractional deposit lending (changes in the reserve requirement); (iii) Moral suasion (cajoling certain market players to achieve specified outcomes); (iv) "Open mouth operations" (talking monetary policy with the market).
When was the Bretton Woods system established?
5709e2fb6d058f1900182bf0
after World War II
43
False
What was the fixed value of gold?
5709e2fb6d058f1900182bf1
$35 per ounce
94
False
What was the value of the U.S. dollar linked to?
5709e2fb6d058f1900182bf2
the value of gold
163
False
What did banks and investors do that devalued the dollar?
5709e2fb6d058f1900182bf3
convert dollars to gold
385
False
In which year was gold convertability terminated?
5709e2fb6d058f1900182bf4
1971
648
False
after World War II
43
When was the Nixon Woods system established?
5a8cfb3efd22b3001a8d90bc
True
$35 per ounce
94
What was the fixed value of stocks?
5a8cfb3efd22b3001a8d90bd
True
the value of gold
63
What was the value of the Nixon investors linked to?
5a8cfb3efd22b3001a8d90be
True
convert dollars to gold
385
What did banks and investors do that terminated the dollar?
5a8cfb3efd22b3001a8d90bf
True
1971
648
In which year were dollars terminated?
5a8cfb3efd22b3001a8d90c0
True
Under the Bretton Woods system established after World War II, the value of gold was fixed to $35 per ounce, and the value of the U.S. dollar was thus anchored to the value of gold. Rising government spending in the 1960s, however, led to doubts about the ability of the United States to maintain this convertibility, gold stocks dwindled as banks and international investors began to convert dollars to gold, and as a result the value of the dollar began to decline. Facing an emerging currency crisis and the imminent danger that the United States would no longer be able to redeem dollars for gold, gold convertibility was finally terminated in 1971 by President Nixon, resulting in the "Nixon shock".
What kind of money is the U.S. dollar?
5709e5ca6d058f1900182c04
fiat money
19
False
Although for some countries the dollar is not their official currency, how do they use the currency?
5709e5ca6d058f1900182c05
de facto currency
223
False
Other than the British Virgin Islands, what other area in the Caribbean uses the dollar as it's sole currency?
5709e5ca6d058f1900182c06
Turks and Caicos islands
395
False
For countries that use the dollar as their paper currency, what other currency do they make?
5709e5ca6d058f1900182c07
mints its own coins
497
False
What is an example of a U.S. coin that can be used as payment in some countries?
5709e5ca6d058f1900182c08
Susan B. Anthony dollar
602
False
fiat money
19
What kind of money is the Caribbean dollar?
5a8cc43dfd22b3001a8d8e20
True
de facto currency
223
Although for some countries the Caribbean dollar is not their official currency, how do they use the currency?
5a8cc43dfd22b3001a8d8e21
True
Turks and Caicos islands
395
Other than the British Virgin Islands, what other area in the Caribbean uses the Caribbean dollar as its sole currency?
5a8cc43dfd22b3001a8d8e22
True
mints its own coins
497
For countries that use the Caribbean dollar as their paper currency, what other currency do they make?
5a8cc43dfd22b3001a8d8e23
True
Susan B. Anthony dollar
602
What is an example of a Caribbean coin that can be used as payment in some countries?
5a8cc43dfd22b3001a8d8e24
True
The U.S. dollar is fiat money. It is the currency most used in international transactions and is the world's most dominant reserve currency. Several countries use it as their official currency, and in many others it is the de facto currency. Besides the United States, it is also used as the sole currency in two British Overseas Territories in the Caribbean: the British Virgin Islands and the Turks and Caicos islands. A few countries use only the U.S. Dollar for paper money, while the country mints its own coins, or also accepts U.S. coins that can be used as payment in U.S. dollars, such as the Susan B. Anthony dollar.
What are dollar notes made from now adays?
5709e6f06d058f1900182c0e
cotton fiber paper
31
False
What is most common paper made of?
5709e6f06d058f1900182c0f
wood fiber
94
False
Since 1914, who issues the dollar banknotes?
5709e6f06d058f1900182c10
Federal Reserve
272
False
How long do the current notes measure?
5709e6f06d058f1900182c11
6.14 inches
438
False
What size currency are the new smaller notes similar to?
5709e6f06d058f1900182c12
Philippine
593
False
cotton fiber paper
31
What are Phillipine notes made from now adays?
5a8cc9a1fd22b3001a8d8e70
True
wood fiber
94
What is most common currency made of?
5a8cc9a1fd22b3001a8d8e71
True
Federal Reserve
272
Since 1911, who issues the dollar banknotes?
5a8cc9a1fd22b3001a8d8e72
True
6.14 inches
438
How long do the current reserves measure?
5a8cc9a1fd22b3001a8d8e73
True
Philippines
631
What size currency are the new larger notes similar to?
5a8cc9a1fd22b3001a8d8e74
True
Today, USD notes are made from cotton fiber paper, unlike most common paper, which is made of wood fiber. U.S. coins are produced by the United States Mint. U.S. dollar banknotes are printed by the Bureau of Engraving and Printing and, since 1914, have been issued by the Federal Reserve. The "large-sized notes" issued before 1928 measured 7.42 inches (188 mm) by 3.125 inches (79.4 mm); small-sized notes, introduced that year, measure 6.14 inches (156 mm) by 2.61 inches (66 mm) by 0.0043 inches (0.11 mm). When the current, smaller sized U.S. currency was introduced it was referred to as Philippine-sized currency because the Philippines had previously adopted the same size for its legal currency.
When was the Mint Act passed?
5709e96a4103511400d5949c
1792
5
False
How many grains of silver did the Mint Act define the dollar as?
5709e96a4103511400d5949d
371.25
67
False
Who suggested that the ratio of silver to gold should be fixed?
5709e96a4103511400d5949e
Alexander Hamilton
284
False
What market value were gold coins traded in relation to?
5709e96a4103511400d5949f
Congressional standard of the silver dollar
513
False
In what year did the shift in gold standard occur?
5709e96a4103511400d594a0
1834
558
False
1792
5
When was the Standard Act passed?
5a8cd843fd22b3001a8d8f38
True
371.25
67
How many grains of gold did the Mint Act define the dollar as?
5a8cd843fd22b3001a8d8f39
True
Alexander Hamilton
284
Who suggested that the ratio of silver to dollars should be fixed?
5a8cd843fd22b3001a8d8f3a
True
Congressional standard of the silver dollar
513
What market value were other silver coins traded in relation to?
5a8cd843fd22b3001a8d8f3b
True
1834
558
In what year did the shift in silver standard occur?
5a8cd843fd22b3001a8d8f3c
True
From 1792, when the Mint Act was passed, the dollar was defined as 371.25 grains (24.056 g) of silver. Many historians[who?] erroneously assume gold was standardized at a fixed rate in parity with silver; however, there is no evidence of Congress making this law. This has to do with Alexander Hamilton's suggestion to Congress of a fixed 15:1 ratio of silver to gold, respectively. The gold coins that were minted however, were not given any denomination whatsoever and traded for a market value relative to the Congressional standard of the silver dollar. 1834 saw a shift in the gold standard to 23.2 grains (1.50 g), followed by a slight adjustment to 23.22 grains (1.505 g) in 1837 (16:1 ratio).[citation needed]
What are gold and silver coins valuable for now adays?
5709eb696d058f1900182c22
their precious metal value
166
False
What are non primarily gold and silver coins valuable for?
5709eb696d058f1900182c23
their numismatic value
111
False
What was the only coin with any silver content in circulation from 1965 to 1970?
5709eb696d058f1900182c24
Kennedy half dollar
216
False
What was the Kennedy half dollar replaced with?
5709eb696d058f1900182c25
cupronickel
335
False
How much was the experimental Stella coin valued at?
5709eb696d058f1900182c26
$4.00
591
False
precious metal value
172
What is copper and nickel tender valuable for these days?
5a8ce29dfd22b3001a8d8fb0
True
their numismatic value
111
What are non copper and nickel coins  valuable for?
5a8ce29dfd22b3001a8d8fb1
True
Kennedy half dollar
216
What was the only coin with any copper content in circulation from 1965 to 1970?
5a8ce29dfd22b3001a8d8fb2
True
cupronickel
335
What was the Kennedy dollar replaced with?
5a8ce29dfd22b3001a8d8fb3
True
$4.00
591
How much was the experimental Kennedy coin valued at?
5a8ce29dfd22b3001a8d8fb4
True
Technically, all these coins are still legal tender at face value, though some are far more valuable today for their numismatic value, and for gold and silver coins, their precious metal value. From 1965 to 1970 the Kennedy half dollar was the only circulating coin with any silver content, which was removed in 1971 and replaced with cupronickel. However, since 1992, the U.S. Mint has produced special Silver Proof Sets in addition to the regular yearly proof sets with silver dimes, quarters, and half dollars in place of the standard copper-nickel versions. In addition, an experimental $4.00 (Stella) coin was also minted in 1879, but never placed into circulation, and is properly considered to be a pattern rather than an actual coin denomination.
When were silver dollars first minted?
5709ecb56d058f1900182c2c
1794
109
False
Who was featured on the copper - nickel dollar?
5709ecb56d058f1900182c2d
President Dwight D. Eisenhower
185
False
Which coin was introduced in 1979?
5709ecb56d058f1900182c2e
Susan B. Anthony dollar
307
False
What did the new $1 coin minted in 2000 feature?
5709ecb56d058f1900182c2f
Sacagawea
928
False
In which century were gold dollars minted?
5709ecb56d058f1900182c30
19th
289
False
1794
109
When were gold dollars first minted?
5a8ce676fd22b3001a8d8fe2
True
President Dwight D. Eisenhower
185
Who was featured on the milled dollar?
5a8ce676fd22b3001a8d8fe3
True
Susan B. Anthony dollar
307
Which coin was introduced in 1935?
5a8ce676fd22b3001a8d8fe4
True
Sacagawea
928
What did the new $1 coin minted in 1935 feature?
5a8ce676fd22b3001a8d8fe5
True
19th
289
In which century were milled dollars minted?
5a8ce676fd22b3001a8d8fe6
True
Dollar coins have not been very popular in the United States. Silver dollars were minted intermittently from 1794 through 1935; a copper-nickel dollar of the same large size, featuring President Dwight D. Eisenhower, was minted from 1971 through 1978. Gold dollars were also minted in the 19th century. The Susan B. Anthony dollar coin was introduced in 1979; these proved to be unpopular because they were often mistaken for quarters, due to their nearly equal size, their milled edge, and their similar color. Minting of these dollars for circulation was suspended in 1980 (collectors' pieces were struck in 1981), but, as with all past U.S. coins, they remain legal tender. As the number of Anthony dollars held by the Federal Reserve and dispensed primarily to make change in postal and transit vending machines had been virtually exhausted, additional Anthony dollars were struck in 1999. In 2000, a new $1 coin, featuring Sacagawea, (the Sacagawea dollar) was introduced, which corrected some of the problems of the Anthony dollar by having a smooth edge and a gold color, without requiring changes to vending machines that accept the Anthony dollar. However, this new coin has failed to achieve the popularity of the still-existing $1 bill and is rarely used in daily transactions. The failure to simultaneously withdraw the dollar bill and weak publicity efforts have been cited by coin proponents as primary reasons for the failure of the dollar coin to gain popular support.
What do coins, Federal Reserve Notes and deposits held by despository institutions make up?
5709ee056d058f1900182c36
The monetary base
0
False
What was the monetary base value in 1994?
5709ee056d058f1900182c37
400 billion dollars
266
False
How much did the monetar base value increase to in 2013?
5709ee056d058f1900182c38
over 3000 billion
323
False
How many times a year does the Federal Open Market Committee meet?
5709ee056d058f1900182c39
Eight
458
False
What would the Federal Reserve buy to try and increase money supply?
5709ee056d058f1900182c3a
securities
751
False
The monetary base
0
What do coins, Federal Reserve Notes, and monetary policy make up?
5a8cf2bcfd22b3001a8d908a
True
400 billion dollars
266
What was the Treasury Bond value in 1994?
5a8cf2bcfd22b3001a8d908b
True
3000 billion
328
How much did the monetary base value increase to in 1994?
5a8cf2bcfd22b3001a8d908c
True
Eight
458
How many times a year does the Federal Reserve Bank meet?
5a8cf2bcfd22b3001a8d908d
True
securities
751
What would the Federal Open Market Committee buy to try and increase money supply?
5a8cf2bcfd22b3001a8d908e
True
The monetary base consists of coins and Federal Reserve Notes in circulation outside the Federal Reserve Banks and the U.S. Treasury, plus deposits held by depository institutions at Federal Reserve Banks. The adjusted monetary base has increased from approximately 400 billion dollars in 1994, to 800 billion in 2005, and over 3000 billion in 2013. The amount of cash in circulation is increased (or decreased) by the actions of the Federal Reserve System. Eight times a year, the 12-person Federal Open Market Committee meet to determine U.S. monetary policy. Every business day, the Federal Reserve System engages in Open market operations to carry out that monetary policy. If the Federal Reserve desires to increase the money supply, it will buy securities (such as U.S. Treasury Bonds) anonymously from banks in exchange for dollars. Conversely, it will sell securities to the banks in exchange for dollars, to take dollars out of circulation.
What does the decline in value of the dollar correspond to?
5709ef704103511400d594a6
price inflation
59
False
The rise in level of prices in an economy is referred to as what?
5709ef704103511400d594a7
price inflation
59
False
What does CPI stand for?
5709ef704103511400d594a8
consumer price index
184
False
Who publishes the Consumer Price Index?
5709ef704103511400d594a9
Bureau of Labor Statistics
366
False
What does the CPI estimate?
5709ef704103511400d594aa
average price of consumer goods and services in the United States
422
False
price inflation
59
What does the decline in value of the average price correspond to?
5a8cf90cfd22b3001a8d90a8
True
price inflation
59
What is the rise in level of living expenses in an economy referred to?
5a8cf90cfd22b3001a8d90a9
True
The United States Consumer Price Index
309
What is published by the CPI?
5a8cf90cfd22b3001a8d90aa
True
Bureau of Labor Statistics
366
Who publishes the prices of goods and services?
5a8cf90cfd22b3001a8d90ab
True
average price of consumer goods and services in the United States
422
What does the Bureau of Labor Statistics estimate?
5a8cf90cfd22b3001a8d90ac
True
The decline in the value of the U.S. dollar corresponds to price inflation, which is a rise in the general level of prices of goods and services in an economy over a period of time. A consumer price index (CPI) is a measure estimating the average price of consumer goods and services purchased by households. The United States Consumer Price Index, published by the Bureau of Labor Statistics, is a measure estimating the average price of consumer goods and services in the United States. It reflects inflation as experienced by consumers in their day-to-day living expenses. A graph showing the U.S. CPI relative to 1982–1984 and the annual year-over-year change in CPI is shown at right.
Imperial_College_London
When was the Royal College of Chemistry established?
5709d00a6d058f1900182bb8
1845
74
False
Which politicians donated funds to establish the Royal College of Chemistry?
5709d00a6d058f1900182bb9
Benjamin Disraeli, William Gladstone and Robert Peel
407
False
Who was the first professor of the Royal College of Chemistry?
5709d00a6d058f1900182bba
August Wilhelm von Hofmann
515
False
Why was the Royal College of Chemistry founded?
5709d00a6d058f1900182bbb
in the United Kingdom the teaching of chemistry in particular had fallen behind that in Germany
194
False
Who supported the Royal College of Chemistry?
5709d00b6d058f1900182bbc
Prince Albert
486
False
When was the Royal College of Chemistry established?
570a49376d058f1900182d34
1845
74
False
What was not well taught that led to the founding of the Royal College of Chemistry?
570a49376d058f1900182d35
practical aspects of the experimental sciences
117
False
Which country was ahead of the United Kingdom in the teaching of chemistry?
570a49376d058f1900182d36
Germany
282
False
Which Prince supported the establishment of the college?
570a49376d058f1900182d37
Prince Albert
486
False
Who was the first professor of the college?
570a49376d058f1900182d38
August Wilhelm von Hofmann
515
False
The Royal College of Chemistry
0
What college was established by private donations in 1845?
5a482c9b84b8a4001a7e7802
True
chemistry
232
What subject was Germany behind the UK in teaching?
5a482c9b84b8a4001a7e7803
True
politicians
345
Who appealed for public funding of the college?
5a482c9b84b8a4001a7e7804
True
Wilhelm von Hofmann
522
Who requested to be the first professor?
5a482c9b84b8a4001a7e7805
True
The Royal College of Chemistry was established by private subscription in 1845 as there was a growing awareness that practical aspects of the experimental sciences were not well taught and that in the United Kingdom the teaching of chemistry in particular had fallen behind that in Germany. As a result of a movement earlier in the decade, many politicians donated funds to establish the college, including Benjamin Disraeli, William Gladstone and Robert Peel. It was also supported by Prince Albert, who persuaded August Wilhelm von Hofmann to be the first professor.
When was the City and Guilds College founded?
5709d0e84103511400d5945a
1876
39
False
What was the aim of the City and Guilds College when it was founded?
5709d0e84103511400d5945b
improve the training of craftsmen, technicians, technologists, and engineers
172
False
What were the main objectives of establishing the City and Guilds College?
5709d0e84103511400d5945c
to create a Central Institution in London and to conduct a system of qualifying examinations in technical subjects
279
False
How much did the 1851 Exhibition Commissioners pay for the land that became the City and Guilds College?
5709d0e84103511400d5945d
GBP 342,500
750
False
What was the former name of the City and Guilds College?
5709d0e84103511400d5945e
CGLI Central Technical College
931
False
Which college was founded in 1876?
570a4d256d058f1900182d3e
City and Guilds College
0
False
How many livery companies were in the meeting that founded the college?
570a4d256d058f1900182d3f
16
62
False
What does CGLI stand for?
570a4d256d058f1900182d40
Advancement of Technical Education
114
False
Other than conducting a system of qualifying examinations, what was the other main objective of the meeting of CGLI?
570a4d256d058f1900182d41
to create a Central Institution in London
279
False
How large was the land (in acres) that the institution was founded on?
570a4d256d058f1900182d42
eighty-seven
645
False
City and Guilds College
0
What college was founded in the 19th century?
5a48472784b8a4001a7e7828
True
16 of the City of London's livery companies for the Advancement of Technical Education
62
Who met to improve workiong conditions for craftsmen?
5a48472784b8a4001a7e7829
True
CGLI
150
Who's main objective was to set work standards for craftsmen, technicins, technologists and engineers?
5a48472784b8a4001a7e782a
True
eighty-seven acre
645
How large was the site in North Kennsington?
5a48472784b8a4001a7e782b
True
Imperial College of Science and Technology and the CGLI Central Technical College
880
What two colleges were form from the Imperial College?
5a48472784b8a4001a7e782c
True
City and Guilds College was founded in 1876 from a meeting of 16 of the City of London's livery companies for the Advancement of Technical Education (CGLI), which aimed to improve the training of craftsmen, technicians, technologists, and engineers. The two main objectives were to create a Central Institution in London and to conduct a system of qualifying examinations in technical subjects. Faced with their continuing inability to find a substantial site, the Companies were eventually persuaded by the Secretary of the Science and Art Department, General Sir John Donnelly (who was also a Royal Engineer) to found their institution on the eighty-seven acre (350,000 m²) site at South Kensington bought by the 1851 Exhibition Commissioners (for GBP 342,500) for 'purposes of art and science' in perpetuity. The latter two colleges were incorporated by Royal Charter into the Imperial College of Science and Technology and the CGLI Central Technical College was renamed the City and Guilds College in 1907, but not incorporated into Imperial College until 1910.
When did Imperial announce their science park program at the Wye Campus?
5709d1556d058f1900182bcc
December 2005
3
False
When did Imperial abandon their science park program?
5709d1556d058f1900182bcd
September 2006
136
False
When was the Wye College campus closed?
5709d1556d058f1900182bce
September 2009
856
False
Where was Imperial planning on launching their science park program?
5709d1556d058f1900182bcf
the Wye campus
65
False
Where was Imperial's science park programme located?
570a4d866d058f1900182d48
Wye campus
69
False
When was the science park programme abandoned?
570a4d866d058f1900182d49
September 2006
136
False
How much money could the science park programme have raised for the college?
570a4d866d058f1900182d4a
£110m
303
False
Who did not know about the potential revenue that the programme could have raised initially?
570a4d866d058f1900182d4b
the public
406
False
What was closed on September 2009?
570a4d866d058f1900182d4c
Wye College campus
815
False
December 2005
3
When did Imperial announce a science lab programme?
5a485b0784b8a4001a7e7844
True
science park programme
39
What programme was started in September of 2006?
5a485b0784b8a4001a7e7845
True
Wye campus
69
On what campus was the science park program built?
5a485b0784b8a4001a7e7846
True
Imperial
18
What scientific college developed an Area of Outstanding Natural Beuty?
5a485b0784b8a4001a7e7847
True
In December 2005, Imperial announced a science park programme at the Wye campus, with extensive housing; however, this was abandoned in September 2006 following complaints that the proposal infringed on Areas of Outstanding Natural Beauty, and that the true scale of the scheme, which could have raised £110m for the College, was known to Kent and Ashford Councils and their consultants but concealed from the public. One commentator observed that Imperial's scheme reflected "the state of democracy in Kent, the transformation of a renowned scientific college into a grasping, highly aggressive, neo-corporate institution, and the defence of the status of an Area of Outstanding Natural Beauty – throughout England, not just Wye – against rampant greed backed by the connivance of two important local authorities. Wye College campus was finally closed in September 2009.
What was the market value of the endowment the college received on July 31, 2015?
5709d26a6d058f1900182bd4
£512.4 million
630
False
What is a "Unitised Scheme"?
5709d26a6d058f1900182bd5
a unit trust vehicle for College, Faculties and Departments to invest endowments and unfettered income to produce returns for the long term
93
False
How much did the market value of the college's endowment increase between 2014 and 2015?
5709d26a6d058f1900182bd6
£78 million
609
False
How many percent did the college's endowment market value increase from 2014 to 2015?
5709d26a6d058f1900182bd7
18%
622
False
How many distinct portfolios is the College's endownment divided into?
570a4e444103511400d595ee
three
44
False
What is the term that represents a unit trust vehicle that allows endowments to be invested to produce returns for the lon term?
570a4e444103511400d595ef
Unitised Scheme
75
False
The 120 operational and developmental properties within the college that are not core to the academic mission belong to which portfolio?
570a4e444103511400d595f0
Non-Core Property
239
False
The College's restricted equity holdings would be considered a part of which portion of the portfolio?
570a4e444103511400d595f1
Strategic Asset Investments
411
False
How much did the market value of the endowment increase by during the year 2014/2015?
570a4e444103511400d595f2
£78 million
609
False
year 2014/15
548
When did the endowment increase by 512.4 million pounds?
5a486fb084b8a4001a7e786c
True
120
289
How many nonoperational and development properties were in the portfolio?
5a486fb084b8a4001a7e786d
True
120
289
How many properties were were core to the college's academic mission?
5a486fb084b8a4001a7e786e
True
The College's endowment is sub-divided into three distinct portfolios: (i) Unitised Scheme – a unit trust vehicle for College, Faculties and Departments to invest endowments and unfettered income to produce returns for the long term; (ii) Non-Core Property – a portfolio containing around 120 operational and developmental properties which College has determined are not core to the academic mission; and (iii) Strategic Asset Investments – containing College’s shareholding in Imperial Innovations and other restricted equity holdings. During the year 2014/15, the market value of the endowment increased by £78 million (18%) to £512.4 million on 31 July 2015.
How many staff members did Imperial submit assessments of for the REF assessment?
5709d33a4103511400d5946e
1,257
30
False
In the 2014 rankings produced by Times Higher Education, what position was Imperial ranked for GPA?
5709d33a4103511400d5946f
2nd
369
False
How many units of assessment did Imperial submit?
5709d33a4103511400d59470
14
49
False
How highly was Imperial ranked in "research power" in 2014?
5709d33a4103511400d59471
8th
393
False
How many staff members did Imperial claim to have in 2014?
570a4eb44103511400d595f8
1,257
30
False
What does REF stand for?
570a4eb44103511400d595f9
Research Excellence Framework
84
False
What was the percentage of Imperials research that was seemed to be 3*?
570a4eb44103511400d595fa
44%
210
False
What did the REF give Imperial as an overall GPA?
570a4eb44103511400d595fb
3.36
269
False
What was Imperial's overall GPA rank according to the Times Higher Education?
570a4eb44103511400d595fc
2nd
369
False
1,257
30
How many staff were submitted over the 16 units of assessment?
5a48730484b8a4001a7e7880
True
46%
151
What percentage of Imperials research was declassified?
5a48730484b8a4001a7e7881
True
Imperial
349
Who was ranked 2nd overall in test scores?
5a48730484b8a4001a7e7882
True
Imperial
349
Who was ranked 6th and 7th in research power?
5a48730484b8a4001a7e7883
True
Imperial submitted a total of 1,257 staff across 14 units of assessment to the 2014 Research Excellence Framework (REF) assessment. In the REF results 46% of Imperial's submitted research was classified as 4*, 44% as 3*, 9% as 2* and 1% as 1*, giving an overall GPA of 3.36. In rankings produced by Times Higher Education based upon the REF results Imperial was ranked 2nd overall for GPA and 8th for "research power" (compared to 6th and 7th respectively in the equivalent rankings for the RAE 2008).
When was Professor Stefan Grimm found dead?
5709e5336d058f1900182bfa
September 2014
3
False
When did Imperial College make its first public announcement of Stefan Grimm's death?
5709e5336d058f1900182bfb
4 December 2014
231
False
How many times was Professor Stefan Grimm's email viewed in the first four days after it was posted online?
5709e5336d058f1900182bfc
more than 100,000
400
False
What did Professor Grimm's last email accuse Imperial College of before his death?
5709e5336d058f1900182bfd
bullying
292
False
What did Imperial College announce it would do after Professor Grimm's death?
5709e5336d058f1900182bfe
internal inquiry
497
False
Which Professor was found dead in September 2014?
570a4f184103511400d59602
Professor Stefan Grimm
19
False
To which department did the professor who passed in September 2014 belong?
570a4f184103511400d59603
Department of Medicine
50
False
What was the dead professor threatened with before his death?
570a4f184103511400d59604
dismissal
117
False
How much did the Grimm claim his employers said he should raise in grant money per year?
570a4f184103511400d59605
£200,000
355
False
How many views did Grimm's last email get in the first four days after it was posted?
570a4f184103511400d59606
more than 100,000
400
False
Professor Stefan Grimm
19
Who was fired for not raising grant money?
5a48768584b8a4001a7e7896
True
2014
13
In what year was Grimm killed?
5a48768584b8a4001a7e7897
True
Stefan Grimm's death
519
What are police investigating?
5a48768584b8a4001a7e7898
True
bullying
292
What did the school acuse Grimm of doing?
5a48768584b8a4001a7e7899
True
his employers
275
Who did Grimm bully?
5a48768584b8a4001a7e789a
True
In September 2014, Professor Stefan Grimm, of the Department of Medicine, was found dead after being threatened with dismissal for failure to raise enough grant money. The College made its first public announcement of his death on 4 December 2014. Grimm's last email accused his employers of bullying by demanding that he should get grants worth at least £200,000 per year. His last email was viewed more than 100,000 times in the first four days after it was posted. The College has announced an internal inquiry into Stefan Grimm's death. The inquest on his death has not yet reported.
Which day was the Imperial College Boat Club formed on?
570a53286d058f1900182d52
12 December 1919
73
False
How many alumni from Imperial were a part of the Gold medal winning GB8+?
570a53286d058f1900182d53
3
229
False
What was the name of the coach of the Gold medal winning GB8+?
570a53286d058f1900182d54
Martin McElroy
276
False
Which event has the Boat Club been highly successful at?
570a53286d058f1900182d55
Henley Royal Regatta
347
False
Which event did the Boat Club claim victory in for 2013?
570a53286d058f1900182d56
The Prince Albert Challenge Cup event
416
False
12 December 1919
73
When was the Imperial College Yacht club founded?
5a48796884b8a4001a7e78b2
True
Martin McElroy.
276
Who coached the team at the Henley Royal Regatta?
5a48796884b8a4001a7e78b3
True
Imperial College London
570
Where must clyub members attend school?
5a48796884b8a4001a7e78b4
True
The Prince Albert Challenge Cup
416
What event did the club loose in 2013?
5a48796884b8a4001a7e78b5
True
GB 8+
114
What team consisted of 3 non alumni?
5a48796884b8a4001a7e78b6
True
Imperial College Boat Club The Imperial College Boat Club was founded on 12 December 1919. The Gold medal winning GB 8+ at the 2000 Sydney Olympics had been based at Imperial College's recently refurbished boathouse and included 3 alumni of the college along with their coach Martin McElroy. The club has been highly successful, with many wins at Henley Royal Regatta including most recently in 2013 with victory in The Prince Albert Challenge Cup event. The club has been home to numerous National Squad oarsmen and women and is open to all rowers not just students of Imperial College London.
What school was established in 1851?
570a53b16d058f1900182d5c
The Royal School of Mines
0
False
Who established the Royal School of Mines?
570a53b16d058f1900182d5d
Sir Henry de la Beche
45
False
A collection of miners, maps and mining equipment all belonged to what entity?
570a53b16d058f1900182d5e
the Museum of Economic Geology
92
False
Which famous prince was a patron at the Royal School of Mines?
570a53b16d058f1900182d5f
Prince Albert
312
False
Which region did Prince Albert aim to make famous as an educational region?
570a53b16d058f1900182d60
South Kensington
603
False
The Royal School of Mines
0
What school was established in the 18th century?
5a483eb284b8a4001a7e7814
True
the Museum of Economic Geology,
92
What museum was founded by Sir Henry de la Beche?
5a483eb284b8a4001a7e7815
True
Sir Henry de la Beche
45
Who created a school that established the foundation of education in the country?
5a483eb284b8a4001a7e7816
True
Prince Albert
312
Who helped make the Royal School of Mines part of the Royal College of Chemistry?
5a483eb284b8a4001a7e7817
True
Prince Albert
312
Who wanted to make North Kensington an education region?
5a483eb284b8a4001a7e7818
True
The Royal School of Mines was established by Sir Henry de la Beche in 1851, developing from the Museum of Economic Geology, a collection of minerals, maps and mining equipment. He created a school which laid the foundations for the teaching of science in the country, and which has its legacy today at Imperial. Prince Albert was a patron and supporter of the later developments in science teaching, which led to the Royal College of Chemistry becoming part of the Royal School of Mines, to the creation of the Royal College of Science and eventually to these institutions becoming part of his plan for South Kensington being an educational region.
Who granted Imperial degree-awarding powers?
570a54a84103511400d5960c
Privy Council
76
False
In which year was the London Centre for Nanotechnology established?
570a54a84103511400d5960d
2003
3
False
The Londre Centre for Nanotechnology was a joint effort between UCL and which college?
570a54a84103511400d5960e
Imperial College London
196
False
What is the old name of the Imperial College Business School?
570a54a84103511400d5960f
Tanaka Business School
233
False
The Faculties of Life Sciences and Physical Sciences merged in 2005 to become which faculty?
570a54a84103511400d59610
Faculty of Natural Sciences
573
False
Imperial
8
What school was given an award by the Privy Council?
5a485f0184b8a4001a7e784c
True
2003
3
When did the Privy Council give Imperial an award?
5a485f0184b8a4001a7e784d
True
The London Centre for Nanotechnology
91
What did UCL establish to compete with Imperial College?
5a485f0184b8a4001a7e784e
True
Tanaka Business School
233
What busniss school was funded by the Queen?
5a485f0184b8a4001a7e784f
True
the Faculties of Life Sciences and Physical Sciences
499
What two programs developed out of the Faculty of Natural Sciences?
5a485f0184b8a4001a7e7850
True
In 2003 Imperial was granted degree-awarding powers in its own right by the Privy Council. The London Centre for Nanotechnology was established in the same year as a joint venture between UCL and Imperial College London. In 2004 the Tanaka Business School (now named the Imperial College Business School) and a new Main Entrance on Exhibition Road were opened by The Queen. The UK Energy Research Centre was also established in 2004 and opened its headquarters at Imperial College. In November 2005 the Faculties of Life Sciences and Physical Sciences merged to become the Faculty of Natural Sciences.
In which area in London is Imperial's main campus located?
570a55836d058f1900182d66
South Kensington
41
False
What is the area inside of South Kensington where Imperial is located known as?
570a55836d058f1900182d67
Albertopolis
138
False
In which decade did the expansion of the South Kensington campus being?
570a55836d058f1900182d68
1950s
625
False
Who designed the Imperial Institue that was a victim of Imperial's expansion in the 1950s & 1960s?
570a55836d058f1900182d69
Thomas Collcutt
703
False
Which landmark still remains from the Imperial Institue after Imperial's expansion?
570a55836d058f1900182d6a
Queen's Tower
759
False
Imperial's
0
What school's main campus is located in North Kent?
5a4860a984b8a4001a7e7856
True
Albertopolis
138
What area of Kent is begining to develop cultural and academic institutions?
5a4860a984b8a4001a7e7857
True
Natural History Museum, the Science Museum, the Victoria and Albert Museum
238
What are some of the institutions are across from Imperial's main campus?
5a4860a984b8a4001a7e7858
True
the South Kensington campus
590
What campus reduced its size in the 1950's and 1960's?
5a4860a984b8a4001a7e7859
True
South Kensington campus
594
What campus was absorbed by the Imperial Institute?
5a4860a984b8a4001a7e785a
True
Imperial's main campus is located in the South Kensington area of central London. It is situated in an area of South Kensington, known as Albertopolis, which has a high concentration of cultural and academic institutions, adjacent to the Natural History Museum, the Science Museum, the Victoria and Albert Museum, the Royal College of Music, the Royal College of Art, the Royal Geographical Society and the Royal Albert Hall. Nearby public attractions include the Kensington Palace, Hyde Park and the Kensington Gardens, the National Art Library, and the Brompton Oratory. The expansion of the South Kensington campus in the 1950s & 1960s absorbed the site of the former Imperial Institute, designed by Thomas Collcutt, of which only the 287 foot (87 m) high Queen's Tower remains among the more modern buildings.
Which centre provides electives outside of science for students?
570a563c4103511400d59616
Centre For Co-Curricular Studies
4
False
Outside of doing it on their own time, what other motivation could students have to take non mandatory electives?
570a563c4103511400d59617
credit
224
False
Which unit is a part of the Co-Curricular Studies that offers master's degrees?
570a563c4103511400d59618
Science Communication Unit
637
False
Scientists seeking a master's degree might be interested in which other degree besides Science Communication from the Science Communication Unit?
570a563c4103511400d59619
Science Media Production
723
False
The Centre For Co-Curricular Studies
0
Where are elective science courses offered?
5a4861e784b8a4001a7e7860
True
take these classes
194
What are all students required to do on their own time?
5a4861e784b8a4001a7e7861
True
The Centre For Co-Curricular Studies
585
Where can students get a degree in mass communication?
5a4861e784b8a4001a7e7862
True
French, German, Japanese, Italian, Russian, Spanish, Arabic and Mandarin Chinese.
503
What language studies are required for students?
5a4861e784b8a4001a7e7863
True
The Centre For Co-Curricular Studies provides elective subjects and language courses outside the field of science for students in the other faculties and departments. Students are encouraged to take these classes either for credit or in their own time, and in some departments this is mandatory. Courses exist in a wide range of topics including philosophy, ethics in science and technology, history, modern literature and drama, art in the 20th century, film studies. Language courses are available in French, German, Japanese, Italian, Russian, Spanish, Arabic and Mandarin Chinese. The Centre For Co-Curricular Studies is home to the Science Communication Unit which offers master's degrees in Science Communication and Science Media Production for science graduates.
What statistic did the average Imperial graduate rank the highest in for 2014?
570a56e04103511400d5961e
average starting salary
55
False
Which type of graduate from Imperial earned the second highest average starting salary after graduation?
570a56e04103511400d5961f
Computing graduates
203
False
Who ranked different graduates according to their average starting salary after graduation in the UK?
570a56e04103511400d59620
Sunday Times
183
False
Which prestigious newspaper ranked Imperial College as one of the top 10 most welcomed universities by job markets?
570a56e04103511400d59621
New York Times
367
False
In which year did Imperial University claim the award for being voted the highest in the UK for Job Prospects?
570a56e04103511400d59622
2014
487
False
Imperial
85
What collegege had the highest higher rate in 2014 among graduates?
5a4870e084b8a4001a7e7872
True
Sunday Times
183
Who ranked Computing graduates as the 2nd most likely to find a job?
5a4870e084b8a4001a7e7873
True
the New York Times
363
Who ranked Imperial as one of the most welcoming universities?
5a4870e084b8a4001a7e7874
True
recruiters from the UK's major companies
716
Who ranks Imperial as 1st in quality of graduates?
5a4870e084b8a4001a7e7875
True
Furthermore, in terms of job prospects, as of 2014 the average starting salary of an Imperial graduate was the highest of any UK university. In terms of specific course salaries, the Sunday Times ranked Computing graduates from Imperial as earning the second highest average starting salary in the UK after graduation, over all universities and courses. In 2012, the New York Times ranked Imperial College as one of the top 10 most-welcomed universities by the global job market. In May 2014, the university was voted highest in the UK for Job Prospects by students voting in the Whatuni Student Choice Awards Imperial is jointly ranked as the 3rd best university in the UK for the quality of graduates according to recruiters from the UK's major companies.
What does the abbreviation STOIC stand for?
570a574f4103511400d59628
Student Television of Imperial College
42
False
What is STOIC's modern name?
570a574f4103511400d59629
Imperial College TV
0
False
When was Imperial College Union's TV station founded?
570a574f4103511400d5962a
1969
134
False
Where was a cable link located that connected the Southside Halls of residence?
570a574f4103511400d5962b
Exhibition Road
519
False
When was the station renamed to it's modern name?
570a574f4103511400d5962c
start of the 2014/15 academic year
796
False
1969
134
When was the college radio station founded?
5a48784b84b8a4001a7e78a8
True
a small TV studio in the Electrical Engineering block.
157
Where is the radio station operated from?
5a48784b84b8a4001a7e78a9
True
moving the VTR and a monitor into a common room
394
How where news programs played for staff?
5a48784b84b8a4001a7e78aa
True
1972
538
When was a cable link added to the dorms?
5a48784b84b8a4001a7e78ab
True
2014/15 academic year
809
When did the society change its name from ICTV
5a48784b84b8a4001a7e78ac
True
Imperial College TV ICTV (formerly STOIC (Student Television of Imperial College)) is Imperial College Union's TV station, founded in 1969 and operated from a small TV studio in the Electrical Engineering block. The department had bought an early AMPEX Type A 1-inch videotape recorder and this was used to produce an occasional short news programme which was then played to students by simply moving the VTR and a monitor into a common room. A cable link to the Southside halls of residence was laid in a tunnel under Exhibition Road in 1972. Besides the news, early productions included a film of the Queen opening what was then called College Block and interview programmes with DJ Mike Raven, Richard O'Brian and Monty Python producer Ian MacNaughton. The society was renamed to ICTV for the start of the 2014/15 academic year.
Which famous automobile designer is considered a non - academic alumni?
570a580b4103511400d59632
Nicholas Tombazis
78
False
Which famous author is considered an alumni for Imperial?
570a580b4103511400d59633
H. G. Wells
29
False
Which airline's CEO can be called a non - academic alumni of Imperial?
570a580b4103511400d59634
Singapore Airlines
166
False
Which incredibly prestigious position did Huw Thomas hold?
570a580b4103511400d59635
Head Physician to the Queen
393
False
Which hedge fund manager with a networth of over a billion is considered an alumni?
570a580b4103511400d59636
Alan Howard
546
False
H. G. Wells, McLaren and Ferrari Chief Designer, Nicholas Tombazis, CEO of Rolls Royce, Ralph Robins, rock band Queen, Brian May
29
Who are some academic alumni?
5a487a0a84b8a4001a7e78bc
True
Alan Howard
546
What hedge fund manager is an academic alumni?
5a487a0a84b8a4001a7e78bd
True
the Queen,
411
Who's doctor is an honorary graduate?
5a487a0a84b8a4001a7e78be
True
Non-academic alumni: Author, H. G. Wells, McLaren and Ferrari Chief Designer, Nicholas Tombazis, CEO of Rolls Royce, Ralph Robins, rock band Queen, Brian May, CEO of Singapore Airlines, Chew Choon Seng, Prime Minister of New Zealand, Julius Vogel, Prime Minister of India, Rajiv Gandhi, Deputy Prime Minister of Singapore, Teo Chee Hean, Chief Medical Officer for England, Sir Liam Donaldson, Head Physician to the Queen, Huw Thomas, CEO of Moonfruit, Wendy Tan White, Businessman and philanthropist, Winston Wong, billionaire hedge fund manager Alan Howard.
Which society organized The Great Exhibition?
570a58a06d058f1900182d70
Royal Society for the Encouragement of Arts, Manufactures and Commerce
105
False
How much of a surplus did The Great Ehibition raise?
570a58a06d058f1900182d71
£186,000
216
False
Who insisted that the surplus from The Great Exhibition be used as a home for culture and education for all?
570a58a06d058f1900182d72
Albert
343
False
What was Prince Albert's commitment?
570a58a06d058f1900182d73
to find practical solutions to today's social challenges
472
False
What did the Royal colleges and Imperial Institute form when they merged?
570a58a06d058f1900182d74
Imperial College London
1001
False
The Great Exhibition
0
What was organised by the Royal Society to promote the interests of the Empire?
5a482a0f84b8a4001a7e77fa
True
Prince Albert,
38
Who insisted that The Great Exhibition surplus should be used to aid the poor?
5a482a0f84b8a4001a7e77fb
True
today's social challenges
503
What did Prince Albert want to find novel and abitious solutions for?
5a482a0f84b8a4001a7e77fc
True
Royal colleges and the Imperial Institute
932
What institutions did The Imperial College of London split into?
5a482a0f84b8a4001a7e77fd
True
The Great Exhibition was organised by Prince Albert, Henry Cole, Francis Fuller and other members of the Royal Society for the Encouragement of Arts, Manufactures and Commerce. The Great Exhibition made a surplus of £186,000 used in creating an area in the South of Kensington celebrating the encouragement of the arts, industry, and science. Albert insisted the Great Exhibition surplus should be used as a home for culture and education for everyone. His commitment was to find practical solutions to today's social challenges. Prince Albert's vision built the Victoria and Albert Museum, Science Museum, Natural History Museum, Geological Museum, Royal College of Science, Royal College of Art, Royal School of Mines, Royal School of Music, Royal College of Organists, Royal School of Needlework, Royal Geographical Society, Institute of Recorded Sound, Royal Horticultural Gardens, Royal Albert Hall and the Imperial Institute. Royal colleges and the Imperial Institute merged to form what is now Imperial College London.
Who proposed a merger of many colleges in 1907?
570a596e6d058f1900182d84
Board of Education
31
False
What was the reasoning behind the proposal to merge many colleges?
570a596e6d058f1900182d85
greater capacity for higher technical education was needed
61
False
When the merger was passed, what constituent college was created?
570a596e6d058f1900182d86
The Imperial College of Science and Technology
266
False
Who did the constituent college belong to?
570a596e6d058f1900182d87
University of London
345
False
Which document, granted by Edward VII, was officially signed on the 8th of July 1907?
570a596e6d058f1900182d88
Imperial's Royal Charter
367
False
Board of Education
31
What was founded in the 19th century?
5a4842d584b8a4001a7e781e
True
Board of Education
31
Who decided that more liberal education was needed?
5a4842d584b8a4001a7e781f
True
the City and Guilds College, the Royal School of Mines and the Royal College of Science
144
What schools were formed from the Imperial College of Science?
5a4842d584b8a4001a7e7820
True
8 July 1907
441
When was the charter signed for the University of London?
5a4842d584b8a4001a7e7821
True
Edward VII,
404
Who granted the Royal Charted for the Unoiversity of London?
5a4842d584b8a4001a7e7822
True
In 1907, the newly established Board of Education found that greater capacity for higher technical education was needed and a proposal to merge the City and Guilds College, the Royal School of Mines and the Royal College of Science was approved and passed, creating The Imperial College of Science and Technology as a constituent college of the University of London. Imperial's Royal Charter, granted by Edward VII, was officially signed on 8 July 1907. The main campus of Imperial College was constructed beside the buildings of the Imperial Institute in South Kensington.
What was Imperial's net income for the financial year that ended on 31 July 2013?
570a5bbf4103511400d59658
£822.0 million
77
False
What was Imperial's total expenditure for the financial year that ended on the 31 July 2013?
570a5bbf4103511400d59659
£754.9 million
144
False
How much income was generated from research grants and contracts for 2013?
570a5bbf4103511400d5965a
£329.5 million
218
False
Who granted Imperial close to 170 million pounds in grants?
570a5bbf4103511400d5965b
Funding Council
397
False
What was Imperial's capital expenditure for the 2012/2013 financial year?
570a5bbf4103511400d5965c
£124 million
600
False
Imperial
42
What college ended the fiscal year 2013 with an income of 822 thousand pounds?
5a4869b284b8a4001a7e7868
True
In the financial year ended 31 July 2013
0
In what year was Imperial's expenditures 124 thousand pounds?
5a4869b284b8a4001a7e7869
True
In the financial year ended 31 July 2013, Imperial had a total net income of £822.0 million (2011/12 – £765.2 million) and total expenditure of £754.9 million (2011/12 – £702.0 million). Key sources of income included £329.5 million from research grants and contracts (2011/12 – £313.9 million), £186.3 million from academic fees and support grants (2011/12 – £163.1 million), £168.9 million from Funding Council grants (2011/12 – £172.4 million) and £12.5 million from endowment and investment income (2011/12 – £8.1 million). During the 2012/13 financial year Imperial had a capital expenditure of £124 million (2011/12 – £152 million).
In which year did Imperial merge with St Mary's Hospital Medical School?
570a5c426d058f1900182da6
1988
3
False
Which school resulted from Imperial's merger with St Mary's?
570a5c426d058f1900182da7
The Imperial College of Science, Technology and Medicine
73
False
Who did Imperial partner with to launch the Imperial College Press?
570a5c426d058f1900182da8
World Scientific
236
False
What year was the Imperial College School of Medicine formally established?
570a5c426d058f1900182da9
1997
467
False
What is the name of the building that was opened by Queen Elizabeth II?
570a5c426d058f1900182daa
Sir Alexander Fleming Building
797
False
The Imperial College of Science, Technology and Medicine.
73
What scool split into Imperial and and St Maries?
5a4857df84b8a4001a7e783c
True
1995
134
When did Imperial start its publishng house World Scientific?
5a4857df84b8a4001a7e783d
True
Charing Cross and Westminster Medical School, Royal Postgraduate Medical School (RPMS) and the Institute of Obstetrics and Gynaecology
329
What schools came out of Imperial in 1997?
5a4857df84b8a4001a7e783e
True
Royal Postgraduate Medical School
674
What school was founded by Sit Alexander Fleming?
5a4857df84b8a4001a7e783f
True
In 1988 Imperial merged with St Mary's Hospital Medical School, becoming The Imperial College of Science, Technology and Medicine. In 1995 Imperial launched its own academic publishing house, Imperial College Press, in partnership with World Scientific. Imperial merged with the National Heart and Lung Institute in 1995 and the Charing Cross and Westminster Medical School, Royal Postgraduate Medical School (RPMS) and the Institute of Obstetrics and Gynaecology in 1997. In the same year the Imperial College School of Medicine was formally established and all of the property of Charing Cross and Westminster Medical School, the National Heart and Lung Institute and the Royal Postgraduate Medical School were transferred to Imperial as the result of the Imperial College Act 1997. In 1998 the Sir Alexander Fleming Building was opened by Queen Elizabeth II to provide a headquarters for the College's medical and biomedical research.
What percentage of Imperial's staff was classified as world leading in 2008?
570a5ced4103511400d5966c
26%
47
False
What percentage of Imperial's staff was deemed to be internationally excellent in 2008?
570a5ced4103511400d5966d
47%
121
False
Which group assessed Imperial's staff members to determine their standing in relation to the rest of the world?
570a5ced4103511400d5966e
Research Assessment Exercise
9
False
How many subjects were judged to be the best in terms of internationally recognised research quality?
570a5ced4103511400d5966f
five
216
False
The 2008 Research Assessment Exercise
0
what assesment showed 1225 staff to be world-leading?
5a4871ef84b8a4001a7e787a
True
The 2008 Research Assessment Exercise
0
What showed 26% of staff to be internationally excellent?
5a4871ef84b8a4001a7e787b
True
Pure Mathematics, Epidemiology and Public Health, Chemical Engineering, Civil Engineering, and Mechanical, Aeronautical and Manufacturing Engineering
232
What five subjects where shown to the top ranked in the world?
5a4871ef84b8a4001a7e787c
True
The 2008 Research Assessment Exercise returned 26% of the 1225 staff submitted as being world-leading (4*) and a further 47% as being internationally excellent (3*). The 2008 Research Assessment Exercise also showed five subjects – Pure Mathematics, Epidemiology and Public Health, Chemical Engineering, Civil Engineering, and Mechanical, Aeronautical and Manufacturing Engineering – were assessed to be the best[clarification needed] in terms of the proportion of internationally recognised research quality.
What was formed on the 1st October 2007?
570a5d534103511400d59674
Imperial College Healthcare NHS Trust
0
False
How many hospitals does it manage?
570a5d534103511400d59675
five
379
False
What is it considered to be?
570a5d534103511400d59676
an academic health science centre
333
False
What is the annual turnover for the trust?
570a5d534103511400d59677
£800 million
602
False
How many patients a year does the trust treat?
570a5d534103511400d59678
more than a million
625
False
Charing Cross Hospital, Queen Charlotte's and Chelsea Hospital, Hammersmith Hospital, St Mary's Hospital, and Western Eye Hospital.
395
what  hospitals were formed from Imperial College Healthcare?
5a48747484b8a4001a7e7888
True
Imperial College Healthcare NHS Trust
0
what trust has an annual income of $800 million/
5a48747484b8a4001a7e7889
True
five
379
How many hospitals teamed to form the NHS in 2006?
5a48747484b8a4001a7e788a
True
Imperial College Healthcare NHS Trust was formed on 1 October 2007 by the merger of Hammersmith Hospitals NHS Trust (Charing Cross Hospital, Hammersmith Hospital and Queen Charlotte's and Chelsea Hospital) and St Mary's NHS Trust (St. Mary's Hospital and Western Eye Hospital) with Imperial College London Faculty of Medicine. It is an academic health science centre and manages five hospitals: Charing Cross Hospital, Queen Charlotte's and Chelsea Hospital, Hammersmith Hospital, St Mary's Hospital, and Western Eye Hospital. The Trust is currently the largest in the UK and has an annual turnover of £800 million, treating more than a million patients a year.[citation needed]
What portion of females reported that they were held back by managers?
570a5e0e6d058f1900182dba
one third
30
False
In which year were these allegations raised?
570a5e0e6d058f1900182dbb
2003
3
False
After the 2003 incident, what was the next major year in which conerns were raised?
570a5e0e6d058f1900182dbc
2007
330
False
In which faculty were the methods used to fire people being questioned?
570a5e0e6d058f1900182dbd
Faculty of Medicine
418
False
Who is the new President for Imperial College?
570a5e0e6d058f1900182dbe
Alice Gast
474
False
2003
3
In what years did 1/2 the female axademics say bullying held back their carreer?
5a4875a284b8a4001a7e788e
True
female
532
Who does Alice Ghast think will continue to struggle?
5a4875a284b8a4001a7e788f
True
Alice Gast
474
Who is the Vice President of Imperial?
5a4875a284b8a4001a7e7890
True
the methods that were being used to fire people
363
What waw beeing question in the school of engeneering?
5a4875a284b8a4001a7e7891
True
In 2003, it was reported that one third of female academics "believe that discrimination or bullying by managers has held back their careers". It was said then that "A spokesman for Imperial said the college was acting on the recommendations and had already made changes". Nevertheless, allegations of bullying have continued: in 2007, concerns were raised about the methods that were being used to fire people in the Faculty of Medicine. New President of Imperial College, Alice Gast says she sees bright lights in the horizon for female careers at Imperial College London.
What is the official name of the student's union?
570a5e736d058f1900182dc4
Imperial College Union
0
False
How many full time officers run the union?
570a5e736d058f1900182dc5
five
75
False
How long is the tenure for an officer to run the union?
570a5e736d058f1900182dc6
one year
156
False
How many clubs, projects and societies is the union responsible for managing?
570a5e736d058f1900182dc7
around 300
305
False
What kind of programmes do students work on for Project Nepal?
570a5e736d058f1900182dc8
educational development
462
False
Imperial College Union,
0
What is the naqme of the staff and student union?
5a48775284b8a4001a7e78a0
True
Imperial College Union,
0
What is run by 5 full-time students?
5a48775284b8a4001a7e78a1
True
a large subvention
229
What is used to maintain around 300 pubs?
5a48775284b8a4001a7e78a2
True
Central America.
573
Where are staff sent to work on building projects?
5a48775284b8a4001a7e78a3
True
Imperial College Union, the students' union at Imperial College, is run by five full-time sabbatical officers elected from the student body for a tenure of one year, and a number of permanent members of staff. The Union is given a large subvention by the university, much of which is spent on maintaining around 300 clubs, projects and societies. Examples of notable student groups and projects are Project Nepal which sends Imperial College students to work on educational development programmes in rural Nepal and the El Salvador Project, a construction based project in Central America. The Union also hosts sports-related clubs such as Imperial College Boat Club and Imperial College Gliding Club.
What kind of University is Imperial College London?
570a5ed04103511400d59688
public research university
29
False
Who founded the Imperial College London?
570a5ed04103511400d59689
Prince Albert
109
False
Who opened the Imperial Institute in 1907?
570a5ed04103511400d5968a
Queen Victoria
323
False
Which document allowed the Imperial College London to be formed?
570a5ed04103511400d5968b
Royal Charter
412
False
What was the focus of the Imperial College London?
570a5ed04103511400d5968c
science and technology
485
False
Imperial College London
0
What is the name of a private resdearch university in London?
5a48276284b8a4001a7e77f0
True
Prince Albert
109
Who helped to build the college?
5a48276284b8a4001a7e77f1
True
Queen Victoria
323
Who laid the final stone in the Imerial Institute?
5a48276284b8a4001a7e77f2
True
2004
605
When was coursework in medicine given over to St Mary's Hospital?
5a48276284b8a4001a7e77f3
True
during its one hundred year anniversary
747
When did the Imerial Institute join the University of London?
5a48276284b8a4001a7e77f4
True
Imperial College London is a public research university located in London, United Kingdom. It was founded by Prince Albert who envisioned an area composed of the Natural History Museum, Science Museum, Victoria and Albert Museum, Royal Albert Hall and the Imperial Institute. The Imperial Institute was opened by his wife, Queen Victoria, who laid the first stone. In 1907, Imperial College London was formed by Royal Charter, and soon joined the University of London, with a focus on science and technology. The college has expanded its coursework to medicine through mergers with St Mary's Hospital. In 2004, Queen Elizabeth II opened the Imperial College Business School. Imperial became an independent university from the University of London during its one hundred year anniversary.
Who discovered the first synthetic dye?
570a5f2f4103511400d59692
William Henry Perkin
0
False
What did the scientist who discovered the dye do after discovering it?
570a5f2f4103511400d59693
resigned his position
78
False
What is the name of the first synthetic dye discovered?
570a5f2f4103511400d59694
mauveine
143
False
The discovery of the synthetic dye is claimed by some histories to have sparked what event?
570a5f2f4103511400d59695
second chemical revolution
390
False
Which award is named after the discoverer of the dye?
570a5f2f4103511400d59696
Perkin Medal
462
False
William Henry Perkin
0
Who did von Hoffman study under?
5a483d5d84b8a4001a7e780a
True
first synthetic dye
122
What discovery by von Hoffman was prompted by his work with Perkins?
5a483d5d84b8a4001a7e780b
True
aniline
240
What was coal tar derived from?
5a483d5d84b8a4001a7e780c
True
Perkin's
162
Who's didcovery sparked the Chemical revolution?
5a483d5d84b8a4001a7e780d
True
Perkin
14
Who founded the Society of Chemical Industry?
5a483d5d84b8a4001a7e780e
True
William Henry Perkin studied and worked at the college under von Hofmann, but resigned his position after discovering the first synthetic dye, mauveine, in 1856. Perkin's discovery was prompted by his work with von Hofmann on the substance aniline, derived from coal tar, and it was this breakthrough which sparked the synthetic dye industry, a boom which some historians have labelled the second chemical revolution. His contribution led to the creation of the Perkin Medal, an award given annually by the Society of Chemical Industry to a scientist residing in the United States for an "innovation in applied chemistry resulting in outstanding commercial development". It is considered the highest honour given in the industrial chemical industry.
What site did Imperial acquire in 1947?
570a5f946d058f1900182dd8
Silwood Park
18
False
What was the name of Imperial's student newspaper?
570a5f946d058f1900182dd9
Felix
156
False
How much money was donated for a new Biochemistry Department?
570a5f946d058f1900182dda
£350,000
499
False
Who donated the large sum of money to help aid the establishement of the Biochemistry Department?
570a5f946d058f1900182ddb
Wolfson Foundation
472
False
Imperial formed a relationship with which other entity in 1963?
570a5f946d058f1900182ddc
Indian Institute of Technology Delhi
629
False
Silwood Park
18
What did Imperial aquire in the 19th century
5a484d6484b8a4001a7e7832
True
Silwood Park
18
What was aquired for teaching chemistry that was not well suited for the main campus?
5a484d6484b8a4001a7e7833
True
Felix
156
What was the name of Imperials staff news paper?
5a484d6484b8a4001a7e7834
True
9 December 1949
209
When was Imperial's staff paper founded?
5a484d6484b8a4001a7e7835
True
the Wolfson Foundation
468
Who donated money to establish a new bioengenering department?
5a484d6484b8a4001a7e7836
True
Imperial acquired Silwood Park in 1947, to provide a site for research and teaching in those aspects of biology not well suited for the main London campus. Felix, Imperial's student newspaper, was launched on 9 December 1949. On 29 January 1950, the government announced that it was intended that Imperial should expand to meet the scientific and technological challenges of the 20th century and a major expansion of the College followed over the next decade. In 1959 the Wolfson Foundation donated £350,000 for the establishment of a new Biochemistry Department.[citation needed] A special relationship between Imperial and the Indian Institute of Technology Delhi was established in 1963.[citation needed]
Hanover
Where did the Duke of Brunswick-Lüneburg move his residence to?
5709f21e4103511400d594b0
Hanover
126
False
Who elevated the status of the Dukes of Brunswick-Lüneburg?
5709f21e4103511400d594b1
Holy Roman Emperor
188
False
Who confirmed the elevation of the Dukes of Brunswick-Lüneburg in 1708?
5709f21e4103511400d594b2
Imperial Diet
286
False
Which other nation would the electors of Hanover become monarchs of?
5709f21e4103511400d594b3
Great Britain
533
False
Who was the first elector from Hanover to sit on the British throne?
5709f21e4103511400d594b4
George I Louis
639
False
George, Duke of Brunswick-Lüneburg
8
What Duke moved to Hanover in 1736?
5a104136decec900184755ed
True
the Holy Roman Emperor
184
Who elevated the Duke of Brunswick to the rank of Prince?
5a104136decec900184755ee
True
George I Louis
639
Who was the last Elector of Hanover to sit on the British throne?
5a104136decec900184755ef
True
George I Louis,
639
Who abdicated the British throne in 1714?
5a104136decec900184755f0
True
Electoral Princes of Hanover
1140
What other title did three queens of Great Britain with United kingdom also hold?
5a104136decec900184755f1
True
In 1636 George, Duke of Brunswick-Lüneburg, ruler of the Brunswick-Lüneburg principality of Calenberg, moved his residence to Hanover. The Dukes of Brunswick-Lüneburg were elevated by the Holy Roman Emperor to the rank of Prince-Elector in 1692, and this elevation was confirmed by the Imperial Diet in 1708. Thus the principality was upgraded to the Electorate of Brunswick-Lüneburg, colloquially known as the Electorate of Hanover after Calenberg's capital (see also: House of Hanover). Its electors would later become monarchs of Great Britain (and from 1801, of the United Kingdom of Great Britain and Ireland). The first of these was George I Louis, who acceded to the British throne in 1714. The last British monarch who ruled in Hanover was William IV. Semi-Salic law, which required succession by the male line if possible, forbade the accession of Queen Victoria in Hanover. As a male-line descendant of George I, Queen Victoria was herself a member of the House of Hanover. Her descendants, however, bore her husband's titular name of Saxe-Coburg-Gotha. Three kings of Great Britain, or the United Kingdom, were concurrently also Electoral Princes of Hanover.
Other than for railroads and road junction, what did Hanover have that made it a major target?
5709f3704103511400d594ba
production center
47
False
Which campaign specifically was Hanover a target for in World War II?
5709f3704103511400d594bb
Oil Campaign
150
False
What does VLW stand for?
5709f3704103511400d594bc
United light metal works
289
False
How many civilians were killed in the Allied bombing raids in World War II?
5709f3704103511400d594bd
more than 6,000
671
False
How many bombing raids were there during World War II?
5709f3704103511400d594be
88
799
False
railroad and road junction and production center,
16
What did Hanover have that made it less likely to be bombed during World War II
5a105346decec9001847561d
True
the Oil Campaign
146
Which campaign specifically targeted Hanover during World War I?
5a105346decec9001847561e
True
more than 6,000
671
How many civilians were killed during the axis bombing raids in World War II?
5a105346decec9001847561f
True
88
799
How many bombing raids destroyed 40% of the city?
5a105346decec90018475620
True
Residential areas
629
What areas were not targeted by Allied bombers?
5a105346decec90018475621
True
As an important railroad and road junction and production center, Hanover was a major target for strategic bombing during World War II, including the Oil Campaign. Targets included the AFA (Stöcken), the Deurag-Nerag refinery (Misburg), the Continental plants (Vahrenwald and Limmer), the United light metal works (VLW) in Ricklingen and Laatzen (today Hanover fairground), the Hanover/Limmer rubber reclamation plant, the Hanomag factory (Linden) and the tank factory M.N.H. Maschinenfabrik Niedersachsen (Badenstedt). Forced labourers were sometimes used from the Hannover-Misburg subcamp of the Neuengamme concentration camp. Residential areas were also targeted, and more than 6,000 civilians were killed by the Allied bombing raids. More than 90% of the city center was destroyed in a total of 88 bombing raids. After the war, the Aegidienkirche was not rebuilt and its ruins were left as a war memorial.
Which zoo is one of the best in Europe?
5709f59f4103511400d594c4
Hanover Zoo
4
False
What award did the Hanover Zoo receive four years in a row?
5709f59f4103511400d594c5
Park Scout Award
93
False
Which animal does the so-called swimming area have?
5709f59f4103511400d594c6
seabirds
408
False
When did the Canadian-theme area in the Hanover Zoo open?
5709f59f4103511400d594c7
2010
535
False
How many people visited the Hanover Zoo in 2010?
5709f59f4103511400d594c8
1.6 million
574
False
The Hanover Zoo
0
What is one of the earliest Jews in Europe?
5a105795decec9001847563b
True
the Park Scout Award
89
What award to the zoo win for fourteen years in a row?
5a105795decec9001847563c
True
1.6 million visitors.
574
How many people visited the Canadian themed area in 2010?
5a105795decec9001847563d
True
the so-called swimming area
370
What area of the zoo does not host seabirds?
5a105795decec9001847563e
True
2009/10
141
In what year do the Hanover zoo lose the park scout award?
5a105795decec9001847563f
True
The Hanover Zoo is one of the most spectacular and best zoos in Europe. The zoo received the Park Scout Award for the fourth year running in 2009/10, placing it among the best zoos in Germany. The zoo consists of several theme areas: Sambesi, Meyers Farm, Gorilla-Mountain, Jungle-Palace, and Mullewapp. Some smaller areas are Australia, the wooded area for wolves, and the so-called swimming area with many seabirds. There is also a tropical house, a jungle house, and a show arena. The new Canadian-themed area, Yukon Bay, opened in 2010. In 2010 the Hanover Zoo had over 1.6 million visitors.
What famous theatre is located in Georgs Palace?
5709f8b96d058f1900182c40
GOP Variety theatre
39
False
What is the most important Cabaret-Event?
5709f8b96d058f1900182c41
Kleines Fest im Großen Garten
290
False
What is a notable achievement about the Kleines Fest im Großen Garten?
5709f8b96d058f1900182c42
most successful Cabaret Festival in Germany
371
False
Where do artists who feature in the Kleines Fest im Großen Garten come from?
5709f8b96d058f1900182c43
around the world
441
False
What is another important event other than the Calenberger Cabaret Weeks or the Hanover Cabaret Festival?
5709f8b96d058f1900182c44
Wintervariety
559
False
the GOP Variety theatre
35
What is Germany's leading cabaret stage?
5a10706edecec9001847566b
True
Kleines Fest im Großen Garten (Little Festival in the Great Garden)
290
Artist and what Festival are from all over Germany?
5a10706edecec9001847566c
True
the Hanover Cabaret Festival and the Wintervariety
522
What other events usually take place after the Calenberger Cabaret Weeks
5a10706edecec9001847566d
True
the Variety Marlene, the Uhu-Theatre
135
What are some of the less well-known cabaret stages?
5a10706edecec9001847566e
True
the Kleines Fest im Großen Garten (Little Festival in the Great Garden)
286
What is one of the most unusual cabaret events?
5a10706edecec9001847566f
True
Hanover's leading cabaret-stage is the GOP Variety theatre which is located in the Georgs Palace. Some other famous cabaret-stages are the Variety Marlene, the Uhu-Theatre. the theatre Die Hinterbühne, the Rampenlich Variety and the revue-stage TAK. The most important Cabaret-Event is the Kleines Fest im Großen Garten (Little Festival in the Great Garden) which is the most successful Cabaret Festival in Germany. It features artists from around the world. Some other important events are the Calenberger Cabaret Weeks, the Hanover Cabaret Festival and the Wintervariety.
What does the German spelling of Hanover have that English does not?
5709fa026d058f1900182c4a
a double n
73
False
Which version of the spelling of Hanover does the local Government use on English websites?
5709fa026d058f1900182c4b
German
217
False
Which syllable does the English spoken version of Hanover stress?
5709fa026d058f1900182c4c
first
311
False
Which syllable does the German pronunciation of Hanover stress?
5709fa026d058f1900182c4d
second
486
False
Which spelling of Hanover is used in historical contexts?
5709fa026d058f1900182c4e
traditional English spelling
531
False
"Hanover" is the traditional English spelling. The German spelling (with a double n) is becoming more popular in English; recent editions of encyclopedias prefer the German spelling, and the local government uses the German spelling on English websites. The English pronunciation /ˈhænəvər/, with stress on the first syllable and a reduced second syllable, is applied to both the German and English spellings, which is different from German pronunciation [haˈnoːfɐ], with stress on the second syllable and a long second vowel. The traditional English spelling is still used in historical contexts, especially when referring to the British House of Hanover.
What does the NSDAP stand for?
5709fb5e4103511400d594ce
Nazi party
92
False
After which year did the Lord Mayor join the NSDAP?
5709fb5e4103511400d594cf
1937
6
False
How many Hanoverian Jews were expelled in 1938?
5709fb5e4103511400d594d0
484
173
False
Who assassinated the German diplomat Eduard Ernst vom Rath?
5709fb5e4103511400d594d1
Herschel Grynszpan
493
False
Which city was the German diplomat in when he got assassinated?
5709fb5e4103511400d594d2
Paris
611
False
the Lord Mayor and the state commissioners of Hanover
11
Who belong to the Nazi party prior to 1937?
5a1049b3decec9001847560b
True
Hanover
147
What city had a large Polish population in 1937?
5a1049b3decec9001847560c
True
484
173
How many Hanoverian Jews were sent to Paris?
5a1049b3decec9001847560d
True
Herschel Grynszpan
493
Who negotiated with the German diplomat?
5a1049b3decec9001847560e
True
After 1937 the Lord Mayor and the state commissioners of Hanover were members of the NSDAP (Nazi party). A large Jewish population then existed in Hanover. In October 1938, 484 Hanoverian Jews of Polish origin were expelled to Poland, including the Grynszpan family. However, Poland refused to accept them, leaving them stranded at the border with thousands of other Polish-Jewish deportees, fed only intermittently by the Polish Red Cross and Jewish welfare organisations. The Gryszpan's son Herschel Grynszpan was in Paris at the time. When he learned of what was happening, he drove to the German embassy in Paris and shot the German diplomat Eduard Ernst vom Rath, who died shortly afterwards.
What kind of garden is The Great Garden?
5709fca24103511400d594d8
European baroque garden
33
False
What destroyed the palace?
5709fca24103511400d594d9
Allied bombing
111
False
Who constructed the two pavilions in the palace?
5709fca24103511400d594da
Remy de la Fosse
353
False
Other than the Nouveau Jardin, what is the other popular part of The Great Garden?
5709fca24103511400d594db
Great Ground
445
False
What is at the centre of the Nouveau Jardin?
5709fca24103511400d594dc
Europe's highest garden fountain
521
False
European baroque garden
33
What kind of garden is the grand garden?
5a10542fdecec90018475627
True
The palace
58
What was destroyed by axis bombing and currently under reconstruction?
5a10542fdecec90018475628
True
Niki de Saint-Phalle)
269
What French artist designed the exterior?
5a10542fdecec90018475629
True
Great Ground and the Nouveau Jardin
445
What are the two least popular areas of the garden?
5a10542fdecec9001847562a
True
Heinz Rudolf Kunze.
642
What famous classical musician played at the historic garden theater?
5a10542fdecec9001847562b
True
The Great Garden is an important European baroque garden. The palace itself, however, was largely destroyed by Allied bombing but is currently under reconstruction.[citation needed] Some points of interest are the Grotto (the interior was designed by the French artist Niki de Saint-Phalle), the Gallery Building, the Orangerie and the two pavilions by Remy de la Fosse. The Great Garden consists of several parts. The most popular ones are the Great Ground and the Nouveau Jardin. At the centre of the Nouveau Jardin is Europe's highest garden fountain. The historic Garden Theatre inter alia hosted the musicals of the German rock musician Heinz Rudolf Kunze.[citation needed]
Who designed the Gehry Tower?
5709fd234103511400d594e2
Frank O. Gehry
415
False
What nationality was the architect of the Gehry Tower?
5709fd234103511400d594e3
American
396
False
What is notable about the city forest Eilenriede?
5709fd234103511400d594e4
one of the largest of its kind in Europe
563
False
How many parks are there approximately in Hanover?
5709fd234103511400d594e5
40
617
False
How many rivers run through Hanover?
5709fd234103511400d594e6
two
667
False
Frank O. Gehry
415
Who was the Austrian architect who built the Gehry Tower
5a106a36decec9001847564f
True
Maschsee lake
508
Which Lake is one of the largest in Europe?
5a106a36decec90018475650
True
leisure activities
727
What does Hanover offer a moderate amount of?
5a106a36decec90018475651
True
40
617
Approximately how many gardens are there in Hanover?
5a106a36decec90018475652
True
Some other popular sights are the Waterloo Column, the Laves House, the Wangenheim Palace, the Lower Saxony State Archives, the Hanover Playhouse, the Kröpcke Clock, the Anzeiger Tower Block, the Administration Building of the NORD/LB, the Cupola Hall of the Congress Centre, the Lower Saxony Stock, the Ministry of Finance, the Garten Church, the Luther Church, the Gehry Tower (designed by the American architect Frank O. Gehry), the specially designed Bus Stops, the Opera House, the Central Station, the Maschsee lake and the city forest Eilenriede, which is one of the largest of its kind in Europe. With around 40 parks, forests and gardens, a couple of lakes, two rivers and one canal, Hanover offers a large variety of leisure activities.
What is Hanover a German capital for?
5709fef56d058f1900182c54
marksmen
124
False
What is the name of the largest Marksmen's Fun Fair in the world?
5709fef56d058f1900182c55
Schützenfest Hannover
138
False
How many rides and inns does the fair have?
5709fef56d058f1900182c56
more than 260
308
False
How many participants are int he Parade of the Marksmen?
5709fef56d058f1900182c57
12.000
497
False
What year can the festival be traced back to?
5709fef56d058f1900182c58
1529
904
False
Hanover
4
What is the most important exhibition city in the world?
5a107aabdecec9001847567f
True
Marksmen's Fun Fair
175
What is the name of the smallest marksman's fun fair in the world?
5a107aabdecec90018475680
True
five
338
How many of your tents make up the highlight of the marksman's fair
5a107aabdecec90018475681
True
12.000
497
How many people watch the parade of the marksman?
5a107aabdecec90018475682
True
Fun Fair
765
Where can you find the biggest fixed Ferris wheel in the world?
5a107aabdecec90018475683
True
But Hanover is not only one of the most important Exhibition Cities in the world, it is also one of the German capitals for marksmen. The Schützenfest Hannover is the largest Marksmen's Fun Fair in the world and takes place once a year (late June to early July) (2014 - July 4th to the 13th). It consists of more than 260 rides and inns, five large beer tents and a big entertainment programme. The highlight of this fun fair is the 12 kilometres (7 mi) long Parade of the Marksmen with more than 12.000 participants from all over the world, among them around 5.000 marksmen, 128 bands and more than 70 wagons, carriages and big festival vehicles. It is the longest procession in Europe. Around 2 million people visit this fun fair every year. The landmark of this Fun Fair is the biggest transportable Ferris Wheel in the world (60 m or 197 ft high). The origins of this fun fair is located in the year 1529.
What is a Schnellweg?
570a01776d058f1900182c5e
expressway
20
False
What structure does the Schnellweg and a number of roads roughly form?
570a01776d058f1900182c5f
a large ring road
109
False
When does the Messeschnellweg change to the B6?
570a01776d058f1900182c60
Seelhorster Kreuz
354
False
What road does the Messeschnellweg pass the Hanover fairground as?
570a01776d058f1900182c61
B6
411
False
What road does the Südschnellweg start out as?
570a01776d058f1900182c62
B65
493
False
Westschnellweg
192
What road is called the B6 on the southern part?
5a1081e806e79900185c33cf
True
Messeschnellweg
259
What road becomes B3 near Burgdorf?
5a1081e806e79900185c33d0
True
Hanover fairground
389
What fairground does the Messeschnellweg pass?
5a1081e806e79900185c33d1
True
Westschnellweg
530
What road does B sixty-five become at Seelhorster Kreuz?
5a1081e806e79900185c33d2
True
The Schnellweg (en: expressway) system, a number of Bundesstraße roads, forms a structure loosely resembling a large ring road together with A2 and A7. The roads are B 3, B 6 and B 65, called Westschnellweg (B6 on the northern part, B3 on the southern part), Messeschnellweg (B3, becomes A37 near Burgdorf, crosses A2, becomes B3 again, changes to B6 at Seelhorster Kreuz, then passes the Hanover fairground as B6 and becomes A37 again before merging into A7) and Südschnellweg (starts out as B65, becomes B3/B6/B65 upon crossing Westschnellweg, then becomes B65 again at Seelhorster Kreuz).
What ended in the year 1837?
570a04be4103511400d594f6
the personal union of the United Kingdom and Hanover
9
False
What was the name of William IV's heir?
570a04be4103511400d594f7
Queen Victoria
128
False
Who did the throne of Hanover pass to instead of Queen Victoria?
570a04be4103511400d594f8
Ernest Augustus
238
False
What happened to the kingdom of Hanover in 1866?
570a04be4103511400d594f9
annexed by Prussia
302
False
In which battle was the Hanover army destroyed?
570a04be4103511400d594fa
Battle of Langensalza
401
False
Hanover could be inherited only by male heirs
145
Why did the political ties between United Kingdom in Hanover and?
5a10485adecec90018475601
True
Ernest Augustus,
238
What was the name of William IV son
5a10485adecec90018475602
True
Prussia
313
Who annexed the kingdom of Hanover in 1766?
5a10485adecec90018475603
True
Prussia
424
Who is Hanover expected to lose to at the battle of Langensalza?
5a10485adecec90018475604
True
Prussian government
673
Who did the people of Hanover generally support after the annexation?
5a10485adecec90018475605
True
In 1837, the personal union of the United Kingdom and Hanover ended because William IV's heir in the United Kingdom was female (Queen Victoria). Hanover could be inherited only by male heirs. Thus, Hanover passed to William IV's brother, Ernest Augustus, and remained a kingdom until 1866, when it was annexed by Prussia during the Austro-Prussian war. Despite being expected to defeat Prussia at the Battle of Langensalza, Prussia employed Moltke the Elder's Kesselschlacht order of battle to instead destroy the Hanoverian army. The city of Hanover became the capital of the Prussian Province of Hanover. After the annexation, the people of Hanover generally opposed the Prussian government.
What plan was implemented in September 1941?
570a067a4103511400d59500
Action Lauterbacher
32
False
Which portion of the population underwent ghettoisation?
570a067a4103511400d59501
Hanoverian Jewish families
92
False
What occured on the 15th of December 1941?
570a067a4103511400d59502
Wannsee Conference
142
False
How many Jews approximately lived in Hanover in 1938?
570a067a4103511400d59503
4,800
421
False
How many concentration camps were constructed in Hanover?
570a067a4103511400d59504
seven
311
False
Action Lauterbacher
32
What act ended the ghettos in 1941?
5a104aaadecec90018475613
True
the Wannsee Conference
138
After what conference were the Jews deported to Riga
5a104aaadecec90018475614
True
Hanoverian Jewish families
92
What portion of the population was moved to better housing?
5a104aaadecec90018475615
True
seven
311
How many concentration camps were constructed in Hanover before the war?
5a104aaadecec90018475616
True
10 April 1945
554
When did the Russian army arrive to occupy Hanover?
5a104aaadecec90018475617
True
In September 1941, through the "Action Lauterbacher" plan, a ghettoisation of the remaining Hanoverian Jewish families began. Even before the Wannsee Conference, on 15 December 1941, the first Jews from Hanover were deported to Riga. A total of 2,400 people were deported, and very few survived. During the war seven concentration camps were constructed in Hanover, in which many Jews were confined. Of the approximately 4,800 Jews who had lived in Hannover in 1938, fewer than 100 were still in the city when troops of the United States Army arrived on 10 April 1945 to occupy Hanover at the end of the war.[citation needed] Today, a memorial at the Opera Square is a reminder of the persecution of the Jews in Hanover. After the war a large group of Orthodox Jewish survivors of the nearby Bergen-Belsen concentration camp settled in Hanover.
Where was Hanover originally founded?
570a0a224103511400d59514
east bank of the River Leine
45
False
What did Hanover possibly originally mean?
570a0a224103511400d59515
"high (river)bank"
111
False
When did Hanover become a comparitvely large town?
570a0a224103511400d59516
13th century
275
False
Which city was Hanover connected to by the Leine?
570a0a224103511400d59517
Hanseatic League city of Bremen
498
False
What is one example of traffic that passed through Hanover?
570a0a224103511400d59518
mule trains
687
False
Hanover
0
What city was found on the west bank of the river Leine?
5a103c85decec900184755e3
True
13th century
275
Until when was hand over a comparatively large town?
5a103c85decec900184755e4
True
Honovere
93
What was the original name of Hanover meaning low riverbank?
5a103c85decec900184755e5
True
North German Plain
596
Hanover was near the northern edge of what?
5a103c85decec900184755e6
True
Harz mountains
637
What mountain was Hanover North East of?
5a103c85decec900184755e7
True
Hanover was founded in medieval times on the east bank of the River Leine. Its original name Honovere may mean "high (river)bank", though this is debated (cf. das Hohe Ufer). Hanover was a small village of ferrymen and fishermen that became a comparatively large town in the 13th century due to its position at a natural crossroads. As overland travel was relatively difficult, its position on the upper navigable reaches of the river helped it to grow by increasing trade. It was connected to the Hanseatic League city of Bremen by the Leine, and was situated near the southern edge of the wide North German Plain and north-west of the Harz mountains, so that east-west traffic such as mule trains passed through it. Hanover was thus a gateway to the Rhine, Ruhr and Saar river valleys, their industrial areas which grew up to the southwest and the plains regions to the east and north, for overland traffic skirting the Harz between the Low Countries and Saxony or Thuringia.
Who imposed the Convention of Artlenburg?
570a0ae44103511400d5951e
Napoleon
6
False
How many French soldiers occupied Hanover?
570a0ae44103511400d5951f
30,000
100
False
Where did many soldiers from Hanover emigrate to?
570a0ae44103511400d59520
Great Britain
350
False
What did the soldiers who emigrated form?
570a0ae44103511400d59521
King's German Legion
375
False
Who elevated Hanover to the Kingdom of Hanover in 1815?
570a0ae44103511400d59522
The Congress of Vienna
576
False
the Convention of Artlenburg
23
What convention did Napoleon suggest?
5a104760decec900184755f7
True
30,000
100
How many soldiers from Hanover occupied France?
5a104760decec900184755f8
True
Great Britain
350
Where did many of Hanover soldiers immigrate from?
5a104761decec900184755f9
True
the King's German Legion
371
What was the first German army to fight against France during the Napoleonic wars
5a104761decec900184755fa
True
The Congress of Vienna
576
Who elevated Hanover to a kingdom in 1850?
5a104761decec900184755fb
True
After Napoleon imposed the Convention of Artlenburg (Convention of the Elbe) on July 5, 1803, about 30,000 French soldiers occupied Hanover. The Convention also required disbanding the army of Hanover. However, George III did not recognize the Convention of the Elbe. This resulted in a great number of soldiers from Hanover eventually emigrating to Great Britain, where the King's German Legion was formed. It was the only German army to fight against France throughout the entire Napoleonic wars. The Legion later played an important role in the Battle of Waterloo in 1815. The Congress of Vienna in 1815 elevated the electorate to the Kingdom of Hanover. The capital town Hanover expanded to the western bank of the Leine and since then has grown considerably.
What is the Berggarten?
570a0b984103511400d59528
European botanical garden
31
False
What is the name of the area inside the Berggarten that hosts one of the world's biggest collection of orchids?
570a0b984103511400d59529
Orchid House
166
False
What historic landmark is near the entrance to the Berggarten?
570a0b984103511400d5952a
Library Pavillon
333
False
What is the name of the first tropical aquarium in Germany?
570a0b984103511400d5952b
Sea Life Centre Hanover
552
False
Other than orchids and birds, what else is housed in the Orchid House?
570a0b984103511400d5952c
butterflies
268
False
The Berggarten
0
What is the name of a minor European botanical garden?
5a105674decec90018475631
True
Sea Life Centre Hanover,
552
What is the name of the first aquarium in Germany?
5a105674decec90018475632
True
butterflies
268
What else can be found in the tropical house besides orchids and birds?
5a105674decec90018475633
True
the Guelphs
368
What mausoleum can be found in the great garden?
5a105674decec90018475634
True
the historic Library Pavillon
320
What pavilion is found near the entrance of the great garden?
5a105674decec90018475635
True
The Berggarten is an important European botanical garden.[citation needed] Some points of interest are the Tropical House, the Cactus House, the Canary House and the Orchid House, which hosts one of the world's biggest collection of orchids, and free-flying birds and butterflies. Near the entrance to the Berggarten is the historic Library Pavillon. The Mausoleum of the Guelphs is also located in the Berggarten. Like the Great Garden, the Berggarten also consists of several parts, for example the Paradies and the Prairie Garden. There is also the Sea Life Centre Hanover, which is the first tropical aquarium in Germany.[citation needed]
What does VWN stand for?
570a0d404103511400d59532
Volkswagen Commercial Vehicles Transporter
59
False
What part of town is the plant owned by VWN located in?
570a0d404103511400d59533
northern edge of town
207
False
Which company was founded in Hanover in 1871?
570a0d404103511400d59534
Continental AG
402
False
Where does TUI AG host their headquarters?
570a0d404103511400d59535
Hanover
738
False
Which major global reinsurance company has their headquarters east of the city center?
570a0d404103511400d59536
Hannover Re
871
False
The Volkswagen Commercial Vehicles Transporter
55
What is the only industrial business located in Hanover?
5a1082ca06e79900185c33d7
True
The Volkswagen Commercial Vehicles Transporter (VWN) factory at Hannover-Stöcken
55
What is the biggest employer in Europe?
5a1082ca06e79900185c33d8
True
Continental AG
348
Who has a gas burning power plant?
5a1082ca06e79900185c33d9
True
the Schaeffler Group
541
Who holds minority stock in Continental AG?
5a1082ca06e79900185c33da
True
insurance companies
771
What types of company does Hanover have that operate around the world?
5a1082ca06e79900185c33db
True
Various industrial businesses are located in Hannover. The Volkswagen Commercial Vehicles Transporter (VWN) factory at Hannover-Stöcken is the biggest employer in the region and operates a huge plant at the northern edge of town adjoining the Mittellandkanal and Motorway A2. Jointly with a factory of German tire and automobile parts manufacturer Continental AG, they have a coal-burning power plant. Continental AG, founded in Hanover in 1871, is one of the city's major companies, as is Sennheiser. Since 2008 a take-over is in progress: the Schaeffler Group from Herzogenaurach (Bavaria) holds the majority of the stock but were required due to the financial crisis to deposit the options as securities at banks. TUI AG has its HQ in Hanover. Hanover is home to many insurance companies, many of which operate only in Germany. One major global reinsurance company is Hannover Re, whose headquarters are east of the city centre.
How many theaters approximately are located in Hanover?
570a0f2e6d058f1900182c90
40
7
False
What is the Schauspielhaus in English?
570a0f2e6d058f1900182c91
Play House
80
False
Who does the Cumberlandsche Galerie belong to?
570a0f2e6d058f1900182c92
Lower Saxony State Theatre
171
False
Which theatre is Hanover's big theatre for musicals, shows and guest performances?
570a0f2e6d058f1900182c93
Theater am Aegi
203
False
Which theater has it's own musical company?
570a0f2e6d058f1900182c94
Theater für Niedersachsen
361
False
Around 40
0
How many theaters are in the area surrounding Hanover?
5a106c6fdecec90018475661
True
The Opera House, the Schauspielhaus (Play House), the Ballhofeins, the Ballhofzwei and the Cumberlandsche Galerie belong to the Lower Saxony State Theatre.
43
What buildings belong to the upper Saxony State Theatre?
5a106c6fdecec90018475662
True
The Theater für Niedersachsen
357
What is the only theater without its own musical company?
5a106c6fdecec90018475663
True
Heinz Rudolph Kunze
558
Who performs classical musicals in the Garden Theater?
5a106c6fdecec90018475664
True
The Theater am Aegi
199
What is Hanover smallest theater?
5a106c6fdecec90018475665
True
Around 40 theatres are located in Hanover. The Opera House, the Schauspielhaus (Play House), the Ballhofeins, the Ballhofzwei and the Cumberlandsche Galerie belong to the Lower Saxony State Theatre. The Theater am Aegi is Hanover's big theatre for musicals, shows and guest performances. The Neues Theater (New Theatre) is the Boulevard Theatre of Hanover. The Theater für Niedersachsen is another big theatre in Hanover, which also has an own Musical-Company. Some of the most important Musical-Productions are the rock musicals of the German rock musician Heinz Rudolph Kunze, which take place at the Garden-Theatre in the Great Garden.
Who does the nicname "Die Roten" belong to?
570a0f9d4103511400d59546
Hannover 96
0
False
What is another name for the top football division?
570a0f9d4103511400d59547
Bundesliga
96
False
What is the name of the stadium that the Hanover football team plays in?
570a0f9d4103511400d59548
HDI-Arena
150
False
Where did the reserve team for the main Hanover team used to play?
570a0f9d4103511400d59549
Eilenriedestadium
343
False
Which league does the reserve team Hanover 96 II play in?
570a0f9d4103511400d5954a
fourth league
280
False
Hannover 96
0
What is the nickname of the Reds?
5a1071b9decec90018475675
True
the Bundesliga top division
92
What division does the top national football team play in?
5a1071b9decec90018475676
True
the HDI-Arena,
146
Where does the national football team play?
5a1071b9decec90018475677
True
Eilenriedestadium
343
Where did the main Hanover team use to play?
5a1071b9decec90018475678
True
1974 and 2006
189
In what years to the Hanover reserve team host World Cup matches?
5a1071b9decec90018475679
True
Hannover 96 (nickname Die Roten or 'The Reds') is the top local football team that plays in the Bundesliga top division. Home games are played at the HDI-Arena, which hosted matches in the 1974 and 2006 World Cups and the Euro 1988. Their reserve team Hannover 96 II plays in the fourth league. Their home games were played in the traditional Eilenriedestadium till they moved to the HDI Arena due to DFL directives. Arminia Hannover is another very traditional soccer team in Hanover that has played in the first league for years and plays now in the Niedersachsen-West Liga (Lower Saxony League West). Home matches are played in the Rudolf-Kalweit-Stadium.
What is Hanover's population?
570a11074103511400d59550
518,000
21
False
What is Hanover's ranking in terms of size in Germany?
570a11074103511400d59551
thirteenth largest
94
False
What is the largest Oktoberfest in the world?
570a11074103511400d59552
Oktoberfest of Blumenau
383
False
In which year did Hanover host the Expo?
570a11074103511400d59553
2000
535
False
What is "highways" in German?
570a11074103511400d59554
Autobahnen
768
False
With a population of 518,000, Hanover is a major centre of Northern Germany and the country's thirteenth largest city. Hanover also hosts annual commercial trade fairs such as the Hanover Fair and the CeBIT. Every year Hanover hosts the Schützenfest Hannover, the world's largest marksmen's festival, and the Oktoberfest Hannover, the second largest Oktoberfest in the world (beside Oktoberfest of Blumenau). In 2000, Hanover hosted the world fair Expo 2000. The Hanover fairground, due to numerous extensions, especially for the Expo 2000, is the largest in the world. Hanover is of national importance because of its universities and medical school, its international airport and its large zoo. The city is also a major crossing point of railway lines and highways (Autobahnen), connecting European main lines in both the east-west (Berlin–Ruhr area) and north-south (Hamburg–Munich, etc.) directions.
Where are the large Martkirche located?
570a12fd6d058f1900182c9a
Old Town
33
False
What is the old royal sports hall now called?
570a12fd6d058f1900182c9b
Ballhof theatre
446
False
What is the name of the momument to the victims of war and violence?
570a12fd6d058f1900182c9c
Aegidien Church
550
False
What world famous landmark is located on the bank of the Leine?
570a12fd6d058f1900182c9d
Nanas of Niki de Saint-Phalle
718
False
Where does the Mile of Sculptures start?
570a12fd6d058f1900182c9e
Trammplatz
820
False
the large Marktkirche
61
What is located in the New Town center?
5a106921decec90018475645
True
royal sports hall
412
What is the old Ballhof theater called?
5a106921decec90018475646
True
Aegidien Church
550
What church was built as a monument to victims of war and violence?
5a106921decec90018475647
True
the Mile of Sculptures
778
What starts at the Trammplatz and stops at the river bank?
5a106921decec90018475648
True
district of Calenberger Neustadt
962
What district is near the new town?
5a106921decec90018475649
True
Another point of interest is the Old Town. In the centre are the large Marktkirche (Church St. Georgii et Jacobi, preaching venue of the bishop of the Lutheran Landeskirche Hannovers) and the Old Town Hall. Nearby are the Leibniz House, the Nolte House, and the Beguine Tower. A very nice quarter of the Old Town is the Kreuz-Church-Quarter around the Kreuz Church with many nice little lanes. Nearby is the old royal sports hall, now called the Ballhof theatre. On the edge of the Old Town are the Market Hall, the Leine Palace, and the ruin of the Aegidien Church which is now a monument to the victims of war and violence. Through the Marstall Gate you arrive at the bank of the river Leine, where the world-famous Nanas of Niki de Saint-Phalle are located. They are part of the Mile of Sculptures, which starts from Trammplatz, leads along the river bank, crosses Königsworther Square, and ends at the entrance of the Georgengarten. Near the Old Town is the district of Calenberger Neustadt where the Catholic Basilica Minor of St. Clemens, the Reformed Church and the Lutheran Neustädter Hof- und Stadtkirche St. Johannis are located.
What is the Münzkabinett der TUI-AG?
570a14c14103511400d5955a
A cabinet of coins
0
False
What is the name of the largest police museum in Germany?
570a14c14103511400d5955b
Polizeigeschichtliche Sammlung Niedersachsen
55
False
Where can you find carpets and objects from the orient?
570a14c14103511400d5955c
Oriental Carpet Museum
352
False
Other than in Hanover, where else can you find a Blind Man Museum?
570a14c14103511400d5955d
Berlin
444
False
What is the main topic of the Kunsthalle Faust?
570a14c14103511400d5955e
Modern art
827
False
Münzkabinett der TUI-AG
26
What is a box of coins?
5a106b3bdecec90018475657
True
The Polizeigeschichtliche Sammlung Niedersachsen
51
What is the name of the only police Museum in Germany?
5a106b3bdecec90018475658
True
Museum for textile art
196
What building contains textiles from all over Germany?
5a106b3bdecec90018475659
True
Oriental Carpet Museum
352
Carpets and other objects from around the world can be found in what museum?
5a106b3bdecec9001847565a
True
the 150 years old history of the application of energy
548
What does the Museum of natural energy history describe
5a106b3bdecec9001847565b
True
A cabinet of coins is the Münzkabinett der TUI-AG. The Polizeigeschichtliche Sammlung Niedersachsen is the largest police museum in Germany. Textiles from all over the world can be visited in the Museum for textile art. The EXPOseeum is the museum of the world-exhibition "EXPO 2000 Hannover". Carpets and objects from the orient can be visited in the Oriental Carpet Museum. The Blind Man Museum is a rarity in Germany, another one is only in Berlin. The Museum of veterinary medicine is unique in Germany. The Museum for Energy History describes the 150 years old history of the application of energy. The Home Museum Ahlem shows the history of the district of Ahlem. The Mahn- und Gedenkstätte Ahlem describes the history of the Jewish people in Hanover and the Stiftung Ahlers Pro Arte / Kestner Pro Arte shows modern art. Modern art is also the main topic of the Kunsthalle Faust, the Nord/LB Art Gellery and of the Foro Artistico / Eisfabrik.
Emotion
What system of the body is related to emotion's physiology?
570a58de6d058f1900182d7a
nervous
220
False
What sorts of people are more likely to be emotionally expressive?
570a58de6d058f1900182d7b
Extroverted
373
False
What type of people hide their emotions?
570a58de6d058f1900182d7c
introverted
455
False
What is emotion frequently responsible for driving?
570a58de6d058f1900182d7d
motivation
590
False
Along with physical changes, what sort of changes do emotions sometimes cause?
570a58de6d058f1900182d7e
psychological
107
False
nervous
220
What system of the body is not related to emotion's physiology?
5ad23dbbd7d075001a4288a0
True
Extroverted
373
What sorts of people are less likely to be emotionally expressive?
5ad23dbbd7d075001a4288a1
True
introverted
455
What type of people show their emotions?
5ad23dbbd7d075001a4288a2
True
motivation
884
What is emotion infrequently responsible for driving?
5ad23dbbd7d075001a4288a3
True
physiological
919
Along with physical changes, what sort of changes do emotions never cause?
5ad23dbbd7d075001a4288a4
True
Emotions are complex. According to some theories, they are a state of feeling that results in physical and psychological changes that influence our behavior. The physiology of emotion is closely linked to arousal of the nervous system with various states and strengths of arousal relating, apparently, to particular emotions. Emotion is also linked to behavioral tendency. Extroverted people are more likely to be social and express their emotions, while introverted people are more likely to be more socially withdrawn and conceal their emotions. Emotion is often the driving force behind motivation, positive or negative. Definition has been described as is a "positive or negative experience that is associated with a particular pattern of physiological activity." According to other theories, emotions are not causal forces but simply syndromes of components, which might include motivation, feeling, behavior, and physiological changes, but no one of these components is the emotion. Nor is the emotion an entity that causes these components
What is the name of the theory Plutchik created?
570a597e4103511400d5963c
wheel of emotions
87
False
How many main emotions exist in Plutchik's theory?
570a597e4103511400d5963d
eight
118
False
In Plutchik's theory, what emotion is the opposite of anticipation?
570a597e4103511400d5963e
surprise
247
False
What emotion can be perceived as a combination of disgust and anger?
570a597e4103511400d5963f
contempt
657
False
What does Plutchik see as the positive equivalent of disgust?
570a597e4103511400d59640
trust
221
False
wheel of emotions
87
What isn't the name of the theory Plutchik created?
5ad24432d7d075001a428a46
True
eight
118
How many nonmain emotions exist in Plutchik's theory?
5ad24432d7d075001a428a47
True
contempt
657
In Plutchik's theory, what emotion is the same as anticipation?
5ad24432d7d075001a428a48
True
trust
221
What does Plutchik see as the negative equivalent of disgust?
5ad24432d7d075001a428a49
True
Robert Plutchik agreed with Ekman's biologically driven perspective but developed the "wheel of emotions", suggesting eight primary emotions grouped on a positive or negative basis: joy versus sadness; anger versus fear; trust versus disgust; and surprise versus anticipation. Some basic emotions can be modified to form complex emotions. The complex emotions could arise from cultural conditioning or association combined with the basic emotions. Alternatively, similar to the way primary colors combine, primary emotions could blend to form the full spectrum of human emotional experience. For example, interpersonal anger and disgust could blend to form contempt. Relationships exist between basic emotions, resulting in positive or negative influences.
What was the name of the book that Darwin wrote on emotions?
570a59da4103511400d59646
The Expression of the Emotions in Man and Animals
117
False
Along with survival, what did Darwin see as the role of emotions in humans?
570a59da4103511400d59647
communication
237
False
Through what process did Darwin believe emotions developed?
570a59da4103511400d59648
natural selection
338
False
In what century did Darwin write?
570a59da4103511400d59649
19th
77
False
The Expression of the Emotions in Man and Animals
117
What was the name of the book that Darwin drew on emotions?
5ad245c7d7d075001a428ab0
True
communication
237
Along with survival, what did Darwin not see as the role of emotions in humans?
5ad245c7d7d075001a428ab1
True
natural selection
338
Through what process did Darwin not believe emotions developed?
5ad245c7d7d075001a428ab2
True
19th century
77
In what century did Darwin read?
5ad245c7d7d075001a428ab3
True
Perspectives on emotions from evolutionary theory were initiated in the late 19th century with Charles Darwin's book The Expression of the Emotions in Man and Animals. Darwin argued that emotions actually served a purpose for humans, in communication and also in aiding their survival. Darwin, therefore, argued that emotions evolved via natural selection and therefore have universal cross-cultural counterparts. Darwin also detailed the virtues of experiencing emotions and the parallel experiences that occur in animals. This led the way for animal research on emotions and the eventual determination of the neural underpinnings of emotion.
In this theory, what action evokes an emotion?
570a5a736d058f1900182d8e
stimulus
76
False
What sort of response does the stimulus cause?
570a5a736d058f1900182d8f
physiological
115
False
How is the stimulus interpreted by the mind?
570a5a736d058f1900182d90
as a particular emotion
207
False
In the James-Lange theory, what causes emotions?
570a5a736d058f1900182d91
bodily states
566
False
stimulus
76
In this theory, what action doesn't evoke an emotion?
5ad24701d7d075001a428b1a
True
physiological
115
What sort of response doesn't the stimulus cause?
5ad24701d7d075001a428b1b
True
particular emotion
212
How is the stimulus not interpreted by the mind?
5ad24701d7d075001a428b1c
True
bodily states
566
In the James-Lange theory, what doesn't cause emotions?
5ad24701d7d075001a428b1d
True
An example of this theory in action would be as follows: An emotion-evoking stimulus (snake) triggers a pattern of physiological response (increased heart rate, faster breathing, etc.), which is interpreted as a particular emotion (fear). This theory is supported by experiments in which by manipulating the bodily state induces a desired emotional state. Some people may believe that emotions give rise to emotion-specific actions: e.g. "I'm crying because I'm sad," or "I ran away because I was scared." The issue with the James–Lange theory is that of causation (bodily states causing emotions and being a priori), not that of the bodily influences on emotional experience (which can be argued and is still quite prevalent today in biofeedback studies and embodiment theory).
Who argued that emotions arise from cognitive intentionality?
570a5afd6d058f1900182d96
Richard Lazarus
256
False
Along with evaluations and thoughts, what cognitive activity did theorists believe to be required for emotion?
570a5afd6d058f1900182d97
judgments
127
False
In Lazarus' view, what could the cognitive activity be if it was not conscious?
570a5afd6d058f1900182d98
unconscious
436
False
Richard Lazarus
256
Who argued that emotions don't come from cognitive intentionality?
5ad24963d7d075001a428b9e
True
judgments
127
Along with evaluations and thoughts, what cognitive activity did theorists not believe to be required for emotion?
5ad24963d7d075001a428b9f
True
unconscious
436
In Lazarus' view, what couldn't the cognitive activity be if it was not conscious?
5ad24963d7d075001a428ba0
True
With the two-factor theory now incorporating cognition, several theories began to argue that cognitive activity in the form of judgments, evaluations, or thoughts were entirely necessary for an emotion to occur. One of the main proponents of this view was Richard Lazarus who argued that emotions must have some cognitive intentionality. The cognitive activity involved in the interpretation of an emotional context may be conscious or unconscious and may or may not take the form of conceptual processing.
What theory argues that conceptual cognition is not required for emotional meaning?
570a5b9a4103511400d5964e
the perceptual theory
184
False
What book by Prinz defended the perceptual theory?
570a5b9a4103511400d5964f
Gut Reactions
938
False
What book on the perceptual theory was written by James Laird?
570a5b9a4103511400d59650
Feelings
989
False
What is Laird's job title?
570a5b9a4103511400d59651
psychologist
957
False
What is Jesse Prinz's profession?
570a5b9a4103511400d59652
philosopher
907
False
perceptual theory
188
What theory doesn't argue that conceptual cognition is not required for emotional meaning?
5ad2531dd7d075001a428d14
True
Gut Reactions
938
What book by Prinz didn't defend the perceptual theory?
5ad2531dd7d075001a428d15
True
Feelings
989
What book on the perceptual theory wasn't written by James Laird?
5ad2531dd7d075001a428d16
True
Jesse
919
What is Laird's mother's name?
5ad2531dd7d075001a428d17
True
Theories dealing with perception either use one or multiples perceptions in order to find an emotion (Goldie, 2007).A recent hybrid of the somatic and cognitive theories of emotion is the perceptual theory. This theory is neo-Jamesian in arguing that bodily responses are central to emotions, yet it emphasizes the meaningfulness of emotions or the idea that emotions are about something, as is recognized by cognitive theories. The novel claim of this theory is that conceptually-based cognition is unnecessary for such meaning. Rather the bodily changes themselves perceive the meaningful content of the emotion because of being causally triggered by certain situations. In this respect, emotions are held to be analogous to faculties such as vision or touch, which provide information about the relation between the subject and the world in various ways. A sophisticated defense of this view is found in philosopher Jesse Prinz's book Gut Reactions, and psychologist James Laird's book Feelings.
What discipline examines the role emotions play in culture?
570a5c404103511400d59662
sociology
110
False
What discipline makes use of ethnography?
570a5c404103511400d59663
anthropology
234
False
What field of study studies the organizational role of emotions?
570a5c404103511400d59664
communication sciences
484
False
Who developed the concept of emotional labor?
570a5c404103511400d59665
Arlie Russell Hochschild
716
False
Roughly how many people are part of EmoNet?
570a5c404103511400d59666
700
1046
False
sociology
110
What discipline doesn't examine the role emotions play in culture?
5ad25f6bd7d075001a428f7c
True
anthropology
397
What discipline doesn't make use of ethnography?
5ad25f6bd7d075001a428f7d
True
communication sciences
484
What field of study doesn't study the organizational role of emotions?
5ad25f6bd7d075001a428f7e
True
Arlie Russell Hochschild's
716
Who rejected the concept of emotional labor?
5ad25f6bd7d075001a428f7f
True
Social sciences often examine emotion for the role that it plays in human culture and social interactions. In sociology, emotions are examined for the role they play in human society, social patterns and interactions, and culture. In anthropology, the study of humanity, scholars use ethnography to undertake contextual analyses and cross-cultural comparisons of a range of human activities. Some anthropology studies examine the role of emotions in human activities. In the field of communication sciences, critical organizational scholars have examined the role of emotions in organizations, from the perspectives of managers, employees, and even customers. A focus on emotions in organizations can be credited to Arlie Russell Hochschild's concept of emotional labor. The University of Queensland hosts EmoNet, an e-mail distribution list representing a network of academics that facilitates scholarly discussion of all matters relating to the study of emotion in organizational settings. The list was established in January 1997 and has over 700 members from across the globe.
Along with anger, pride and happiness, what is an example of an emotional label?
570a60076d058f1900182de2
fear
175
False
Aside from increased perspiration, what is a physiological change related to emotions?
570a60076d058f1900182de3
changes in pulse rate
246
False
Along with smiling and frowning, what is an example of a facial or body movement caused by emotion?
570a60076d058f1900182de4
baring teeth
333
False
Who developed a comprehensive theory related to human emotional arousal?
570a60076d058f1900182de5
Jonathan Turner
462
False
How many emotional categories did Turner recognize as being founded on human neurology?
570a60076d058f1900182de6
four
1197
False
fear
175
Along with anger, pride and happiness, what isn't an example of an emotional label?
5ad26126d7d075001a429004
True
changes in pulse rate
246
Aside from decreased perspiration, what is a physiological change related to emotions?
5ad26126d7d075001a429005
True
baring teeth
333
Along with smiling and frowning, what is not an example of a facial or body movement caused by emotion?
5ad26126d7d075001a429006
True
Jonathan Turner
462
Who didn't develop a comprehensive theory related to human emotional arousal?
5ad26126d7d075001a429007
True
four
1374
How many emotional categories did Turner recognize as not being founded on human neurology?
5ad26126d7d075001a429008
True
A common way in which emotions are conceptualized in sociology is in terms of the multidimensional characteristics including cultural or emotional labels (e.g., anger, pride, fear, happiness), physiological changes (e.g., increased perspiration, changes in pulse rate), expressive facial and body movements (e.g., smiling, frowning, baring teeth), and appraisals of situational cues. One comprehensive theory of emotional arousal in humans has been developed by Jonathan Turner (2007: 2009). Two of the key eliciting factors for the arousal of emotions within this theory are expectations states and sanctions. When people enter a situation or encounter with certain expectations for how the encounter should unfold, they will experience different emotions depending on the extent to which expectations for Self, other and situation are met or not met. People can also provide positive or negative sanctions directed at Self or other which also trigger different emotional experiences in individuals. Turner analyzed a wide range of emotion theories across different fields of research including sociology, psychology, evolutionary science, and neuroscience. Based on this analysis, he identified four emotions that all researchers consider being founded on human neurology including assertive-anger, aversion-fear, satisfaction-happiness, and disappointment-sadness. These four categories are called primary emotions and there is some agreement amongst researchers that these primary emotions become combined to produce more elaborate and complex emotional experiences. These more elaborate emotions are called first-order elaborations in Turner's theory and they include sentiments such as pride, triumph, and awe. Emotions can also be experienced at different levels of intensity so that feelings of concern are a low-intensity variation of the primary emotion aversion-fear whereas depression is a higher intensity variant.
Along with William James, who was an influential 19th century theorist?
570a604f6d058f1900182dec
Carl Lange
92
False
What was William James' nationality?
570a604f6d058f1900182ded
American
129
False
What was the nationality of Carl Lange?
570a604f6d058f1900182dee
Danish
299
False
What was the name of the theory that Lange and James developed independently?
570a604f6d058f1900182def
the James–Lange theory
372
False
In what year did Lange die?
570a604f6d058f1900182df0
1900
109
False
Carl Lange
92
Along with William James, who wasn't an influential 19th century theorist?
5ad2790bd7d075001a4295a0
True
philosopher
155
What was William James' religion?
5ad2790bd7d075001a4295a1
True
1900
109
What was the age of Carl Lange?
5ad2790bd7d075001a4295a2
True
James–Lange theory
376
What was the name of the theory that Lange and James developed dependently?
5ad2790bd7d075001a4295a3
True
In the late 19th century, the most influential theorists were William James (1842–1910) and Carl Lange (1834–1900). James was an American psychologist and philosopher who wrote about educational psychology, psychology of religious experience/mysticism, and the philosophy of pragmatism. Lange was a Danish physician and psychologist. Working independently, they developed the James–Lange theory, a hypothesis on the origin and nature of emotions. The theory states that within human beings, as a response to experiences in the world, the autonomic nervous system creates physiological events such as muscular tension, a rise in heart rate, perspiration, and dryness of the mouth. Emotions, then, are feelings which come about as a result of these physiological changes, rather than being their cause.
Along with psychology, neuroscience, endocrinology, medicine, history and sociology, what field has engaged in research on emotion?
570a61844103511400d5969c
computer science
194
False
Along with dopamine, noradrenaline, serotonin, cortisol and oxytocin, what neurotransmitter or hormone influences emotion?
570a61844103511400d5969d
GABA
710
False
Along with the experience, function and origin of emotion, what aspect of emotion does current research attempt to explain?
570a61844103511400d5969e
neurobiology
270
False
computer science
194
Along with psychology, neuroscience, endocrinology, medicine, history and sociology, what field has disengaged in research on emotion?
5ad23e52d7d075001a4288be
True
GABA
710
Besides dopamine, noradrenaline, serotonin, cortisol and oxytocin, what neurotransmitter or hormone do not influence emotion?
5ad23e52d7d075001a4288bf
True
neurobiology
270
Along with the experience, function and origin of emotion, what aspect of emotion does current research not attempt to explain?
5ad23e52d7d075001a4288c0
True
Research on emotion has increased significantly over the past two decades with many fields contributing including psychology, neuroscience, endocrinology, medicine, history, sociology, and even computer science. The numerous theories that attempt to explain the origin, neurobiology, experience, and function of emotions have only fostered more intense research on this topic. Current areas of research in the concept of emotion include the development of materials that stimulate and elicit emotion. In addition PET scans and fMRI scans help study the affective processes in the brain. It also is influenced by hormones and neurotransmitters such as dopamine, noradrenaline, serotonin, oxytocin, cortisol and GABA.
What are emotional episodes defined in contrast to?
570a61f14103511400d596a2
emotional dispositions
57
False
What other traits are emotional dispositions similar to?
570a61f14103511400d596a3
character traits
127
False
What category is defined to contain pleasure, pain, motivation, moods and dispositions?
570a61f14103511400d596a4
affective states
415
False
emotional dispositions
57
What are unemotional episodes defined in contrast to?
5ad2438fd7d075001a428a00
True
character traits
127
What other traits are emotional dispositions not similar to?
5ad2438fd7d075001a428a01
True
affective states
415
What category is not defined to contain pleasure, pain, motivation, moods and dispositions?
5ad2438fd7d075001a428a02
True
A distinction can be made between emotional episodes and emotional dispositions. Emotional dispositions are also comparable to character traits, where someone may be said to be generally disposed to experience certain emotions. For example, an irritable person is generally disposed to feel irritation more easily or quickly than others do. Finally, some theorists place emotions within a more general category of "affective states" where affective states can also include emotion-related phenomena such as pleasure and pain, motivational states (for example, hunger or curiosity), moods, dispositions and traits.
What theory sees an emotional episode as consisting of components?
570a628a4103511400d596a8
psychological construction
86
False
At what point does psychological construction theory believe the components of an emotion are put together?
570a628a4103511400d596a9
at the moment of its occurrence
459
False
What is an example of an emotion that, under psychological construction theory, is not the same from one case to another?
570a628a4103511400d596aa
fear
578
False
psychological construction
86
What theory sees an non-emotional episode as consisting of components?
5ad244e8d7d075001a428a7a
True
at the moment of its occurrence
459
At what point does psychological construction theory believe the components of a non-emotion are put together?
5ad244e8d7d075001a428a7b
True
fear
578
What is an example of an emotion that, under psychological construction theory, is the same from one case to another?
5ad244e8d7d075001a428a7c
True
The idea that core affect is but one component of the emotion led to a theory called “psychological construction.” According to this theory, an emotional episode consists of a set of components, each of which is an ongoing process and none of which is necessary or sufficient for the emotion to be instantiated. The set of components is not fixed, either by human evolutionary history or by social norms and roles. Instead, the emotional episode is assembled at the moment of its occurrence to suit its specific circumstances. One implication is that all cases of, for example, fear are not identical but instead bear a family resemblance to one another.
Who argued that physiological responses were insufficient to explain emotional experiences?
570a631b6d058f1900182df6
Walter Bradford Cannon
0
False
Along with the physiological response, what did Cannon believe was triggered by an emotional event?
570a631b6d058f1900182df7
a conscious experience of an emotion
714
False
Why did Cannon believe that physiological responses were insufficient cause for emotions?
570a631b6d058f1900182df8
too slow and often imperceptible
241
False
Walter Bradford Cannon
0
Who argued that physiological responses were sufficient to explain emotional experiences?
5ad2474fd7d075001a428b2c
True
conscious experience of an emotion
716
Along with the physiological response, what did Cannon believe wasn't triggered by an emotional event?
5ad2474fd7d075001a428b2d
True
too slow and often imperceptible
241
Why did Cannon believe that physiological responses weren't insufficient cause for emotions?
5ad2474fd7d075001a428b2e
True
Walter Bradford Cannon agreed that physiological responses played a crucial role in emotions, but did not believe that physiological responses alone could explain subjective emotional experiences. He argued that physiological responses were too slow and often imperceptible and this could not account for the relatively rapid and intense subjective awareness of emotion. He also believed that the richness, variety, and temporal course of emotional experiences could not stem from physiological reactions, that reflected fairly undifferentiated fight or flight responses. An example of this theory in action is as follows: An emotion-evoking event (snake) triggers simultaneously both a physiological response and a conscious experience of an emotion.
Who developed a situated perspective on emotion along with Andrea Scarantino?
570a638e4103511400d596ae
Paul E. Griffiths
48
False
What factors did the situated perspective believe to be most important?
570a638e4103511400d596af
external
119
False
The situated perspective was influenced by what school of thought?
570a638e4103511400d596b0
situationism
202
False
Along with infant and animal emotion, what did Scarantino and Griffiths believe the situated perspective could help to explain?
570a638e4103511400d596b1
phobias
1191
False
Paul E. Griffiths
48
Who didn't develop a situated perspective on emotion along with Andrea Scarantino?
5ad254ecd7d075001a428d2c
True
external
119
What factors did the situated perspective believe not to be most important?
5ad254ecd7d075001a428d2d
True
situationist
467
The situated perspective was not influenced by what school of thought?
5ad254ecd7d075001a428d2e
True
phobias
1191
Along with infant and animal emotion, what did Scarantino and Griffiths believe the situated perspective could not help to explain?
5ad254ecd7d075001a428d2f
True
A situated perspective on emotion, developed by Paul E. Griffiths and Andrea Scarantino , emphasizes the importance of external factors in the development and communication of emotion, drawing upon the situationism approach in psychology. This theory is markedly different from both cognitivist and neo-Jamesian theories of emotion, both of which see emotion as a purely internal process, with the environment only acting as a stimulus to the emotion. In contrast, a situationist perspective on emotion views emotion as the product of an organism investigating its environment, and observing the responses of other organisms. Emotion stimulates the evolution of social relationships, acting as a signal to mediate the behavior of other organisms. In some contexts, the expression of emotion (both voluntary and involuntary) could be seen as strategic moves in the transactions between different organisms. The situated perspective on emotion states that conceptual thought is not an inherent part of emotion, since emotion is an action-oriented form of skillful engagement with the world. Griffiths and Scarantino suggested that this perspective on emotion could be helpful in understanding phobias, as well as the emotions of infants and animals.
When did Broca publish his pioneering work?
570a64106d058f1900182dfc
1878
210
False
Who published a work in 1937 on the relationship between emotion and the limbic system?
570a64106d058f1900182dfd
Papez
217
False
Along with the cingulate cortex and hippocampi, what structure is a notable part of the limbic system?
570a64106d058f1900182dfe
hypothalamus
381
False
1878
210
When did Broca publish his non-pioneering work?
5ad256acd7d075001a428d76
True
Papez
217
Who published a work in 1937 on the relationship between non-emotional and the limbic system?
5ad256acd7d075001a428d77
True
hypothalamus
381
Along with the cingulate cortex and hippocampi, what structure is not a notable part of the limbic system?
5ad256acd7d075001a428d78
True
Emotions are thought to be related to certain activities in brain areas that direct our attention, motivate our behavior, and determine the significance of what is going on around us. Pioneering work by Broca (1878), Papez (1937), and MacLean (1952) suggested that emotion is related to a group of structures in the center of the brain called the limbic system, which includes the hypothalamus, cingulate cortex, hippocampi, and other structures. More recent research has shown that some of these limbic structures are not as directly related to emotion as others are while some non-limbic structures have been found to be of greater emotional relevance.
Along with the philosophies of music and art, what field of philosophy studies emotions?
570a64c64103511400d596c0
ethics
58
False
Along with drama and melodrama, in what filmmaking genre does emotion play an important role?
570a64c64103511400d596c1
romance
556
False
Of what discipline is ethology a branch?
570a64c64103511400d596c2
zoology
748
False
Along with laboratory work, what does an ethologist engage in?
570a64c64103511400d596c3
field science
858
False
Along with evolution, what area of study is ethology tied to?
570a64c64103511400d596c4
ecology
893
False
ethics
58
Along with the philosophies of music and art, what field of philosophy doesn't study emotions?
5ad2600bd7d075001a428fb6
True
romance
556
Along with drama and melodrama, in what filmmaking genre does emotion not play an important role?
5ad2600bd7d075001a428fb7
True
zoology
748
Of what discipline is ethology not a branch?
5ad2600bd7d075001a428fb8
True
field science
858
Along with laboratory work, what doesn't an ethologist engage in?
5ad2600bd7d075001a428fb9
True
In philosophy, emotions are studied in sub-fields such as ethics, the philosophy of art (for example, sensory–emotional values, and matters of taste and sentimentality), and the philosophy of music (see also Music and emotion). In history, scholars examine documents and other sources to interpret and analyze past activities; speculation on the emotional state of the authors of historical documents is one of the tools of interpretation. In literature and film-making, the expression of emotion is the cornerstone of genres such as drama, melodrama, and romance. In communication studies, scholars study the role that emotion plays in the dissemination of ideas and messages. Emotion is also studied in non-human animals in ethology, a branch of zoology which focuses on the scientific study of animal behavior. Ethology is a combination of laboratory and field science, with strong ties to ecology and evolution. Ethologists often study one type of behavior (for example, aggression) in a number of unrelated animals.
Who discussed the idea of a collective effervescence?
570a65b56d058f1900182e02
Emilé Durkheim
56
False
What society was studied to describe the notion of collective effervescence?
570a65b56d058f1900182e03
Australian aborigine society
198
False
Durkheim saw collective effervescence in what Australian aboriginal activity?
570a65b56d058f1900182e04
totemic rituals
179
False
What is another term for collective effervescence?
570a65b56d058f1900182e05
emotional energy
127
False
Emilé Durkheim
56
Who didn't discuss the idea of a collective effervescence?
5ad261a2d7d075001a429040
True
Australian aborigine society
198
What society was studied to describe the notion of collective non-effervescence?
5ad261a2d7d075001a429041
True
totemic rituals
179
Durkheim saw collective effervescence in what Australian non-aboriginal activity?
5ad261a2d7d075001a429042
True
emotional energy
269
What is another term for collective non-effervescence?
5ad261a2d7d075001a429043
True
Sociological attention to emotion has varied over time. Emilé Durkheim (1915/1965) wrote about the collective effervescence or emotional energy that was experienced by members of totemic rituals in Australian aborigine society. He explained how the heightened state of emotional energy achieved during totemic rituals transported individuals above themselves giving them the sense that they were in the presence of a higher power, a force, that was embedded in the sacred objects that were worshipped. These feelings of exaltation, he argued, ultimately lead people to believe that there were forces that governed sacred objects.
What theory was developed by Arnold?
570a661f6d058f1900182e0a
the appraisal theory of emotions
183
False
When did Richard Lazarus die?
570a661f6d058f1900182e0b
2002
239
False
Who wrote 'What Is An Emotion?'?
570a661f6d058f1900182e0c
Robert C. Solomon
700
False
Who published What Is An Emotion?: Classic and Contemporary Readings?
570a661f6d058f1900182e0d
Oxford
892
False
What is Nico Frijda's nationality?
570a661f6d058f1900182e0e
Dutch
1050
False
appraisal theory of emotions
187
What theory wasn't developed by Arnold?
5ad27982d7d075001a4295b0
True
1922
234
When did Richard Lazarus work?
5ad27982d7d075001a4295b1
True
Robert C. Solomon
700
Who wrote 'What Isn't An Emotion?'?
5ad27982d7d075001a4295b2
True
Oxford
892
Who published What Isn't An Emotion?: Classic and Contemporary Readings?
5ad27982d7d075001a4295b3
True
Some of the most influential theorists on emotion from the 20th century have died in the last decade. They include Magda B. Arnold (1903–2002), an American psychologist who developed the appraisal theory of emotions; Richard Lazarus (1922–2002), an American psychologist who specialized in emotion and stress, especially in relation to cognition; Herbert A. Simon (1916–2001), who included emotions into decision making and artificial intelligence; Robert Plutchik (1928–2006), an American psychologist who developed a psychoevolutionary theory of emotion; Robert Zajonc (1923–2008) a Polish–American social psychologist who specialized in social and cognitive processes such as social facilitation; Robert C. Solomon (1942–2007), an American philosopher who contributed to the theories on the philosophy of emotions with books such as What Is An Emotion?: Classic and Contemporary Readings (Oxford, 2003); Peter Goldie (1946–2011), a British philosopher who specialized in ethics, aesthetics, emotion, mood and character; Nico Frijda (1927–2015), a Dutch psychologist who advanced the theory that human emotions serve to promote a tendency to undertake actions that are appropriate in the circumstances, detailed in his book The Emotions (1986).
When did the word emotion enter the English language?
570a66fd4103511400d596d2
1579
33
False
From what French word is emotion derived?
570a66fd4103511400d596d3
émouvoir
80
False
What does émouvoir mean in English?
570a66fd4103511400d596d4
to stir up
103
False
Prior to the introduction of the word emotion, what word was used in its place?
570a66fd4103511400d596d5
passion
184
False
Along with anxiety, what is an example of directionless emotion?
570a66fd4103511400d596d6
depression
615
False
1579
33
When did the word emotion leave the English language?
5ad23e93d7d075001a4288ce
True
émouvoir
80
From what English word is emotion derived?
5ad23e93d7d075001a4288cf
True
to stir up
103
What does émouvoir mean in Italian?
5ad23e93d7d075001a4288d0
True
passion
184
Prior to the introduction of the word emotion, what word wasn't used in its place?
5ad23e93d7d075001a4288d1
True
depression
615
Along with anxiety, what is not an example of directionless emotion?
5ad23e93d7d075001a4288d2
True
The word "emotion" dates back to 1579, when it was adapted from the French word émouvoir, which means "to stir up". The term emotion was introduced into academic discussion to replace passion. According to one dictionary, the earliest precursors of the word likely dates back to the very origins of language. The modern word emotion is heterogeneous In some uses of the word, emotions are intense feelings that are directed at someone or something. On the other hand, emotion can be used to refer to states that are mild (as in annoyed or content) and to states that are not directed at anything (as in anxiety and depression). One line of research thus looks at the meaning of the word emotion in everyday language and this usage is rather different from that in academic discourse. Another line of research asks about languages other than English, and one interesting finding is that many languages have a similar but not identical term
What is the thalamus a part of?
570a68426d058f1900182e1e
the diencephalon
151
False
Who argued that an emotional stimulus triggered experiential and physiological responses to emotions at the same time?
570a68426d058f1900182e1f
Cannon
258
False
What creatures did Bard experiment on?
570a68426d058f1900182e20
animals
56
False
Along with sensory and motor information, what information had to pass through the diencephalon before being processed?
570a68426d058f1900182e21
physiological
101
False
diencephalon
155
What is the thalamus not a part of?
5ad247a4d7d075001a428b3a
True
Cannon
258
Who argued that an unemotional stimulus triggered experiential and physiological responses to emotions at the same time?
5ad247a4d7d075001a428b3b
True
animals
56
What creatures did Bard never experiment on?
5ad247a4d7d075001a428b3c
True
physiological
101
Along with sensory and motor information, what information had to pass through the diencephalon after being processed?
5ad247a4d7d075001a428b3d
True
Phillip Bard contributed to the theory with his work on animals. Bard found that sensory, motor, and physiological information all had to pass through the diencephalon (particularly the thalamus), before being subjected to any further processing. Therefore, Cannon also argued that it was not anatomically possible for sensory events to trigger a physiological response prior to triggering conscious awareness and emotional stimuli had to trigger both physiological and experiential aspects of emotion simultaneously.
Who wrote The Passions, Emotions and the Meaning of Life?
570a68cf6d058f1900182e26
Robert C. Solomon
205
False
In what year was The Passions, Emotions and the Meaning of Life published?
570a68cf6d058f1900182e27
1993
285
False
What does Solomon believe emotions to be?
570a68cf6d058f1900182e28
judgments
325
False
Whose theory discussed action tendencies?
570a68cf6d058f1900182e29
Nico Frijda
610
False
The idea that judgment can't be identified with emotion is an objection to what school of thought?
570a68cf6d058f1900182e2a
cognitivism
440
False
Robert C. Solomon
205
Who sang The Passions, Emotions and the Meaning of Life?
5ad24cbcd7d075001a428c02
True
1993
285
In what year was The Passions, Emotions and the Meaning of Life rejected?
5ad24cbcd7d075001a428c03
True
judgments
325
What does Solomon believe emotions not to be?
5ad24cbcd7d075001a428c04
True
Nico Frijda
610
Whose theory didn't discuss action tendencies?
5ad24cbcd7d075001a428c05
True
cognitivism
440
The idea that judgment can be identified with emotion is an objection to what school of thought?
5ad24cbcd7d075001a428c06
True
There are some theories on emotions arguing that cognitive activity in the form of judgments, evaluations, or thoughts are necessary in order for an emotion to occur. A prominent philosophical exponent is Robert C. Solomon (for example, The Passions, Emotions and the Meaning of Life, 1993). Solomon claims that emotions are judgments. He has put forward a more nuanced view which response to what he has called the ‘standard objection’ to cognitivism, the idea that a judgment that something is fearsome can occur with or without emotion, so judgment cannot be identified with emotion. The theory proposed by Nico Frijda where appraisal leads to action tendencies is another example.
Who researched the role of emotional phenotype temperaments on social connectedness?
570a6c176d058f1900182e4c
Kurt Kortschal
404
False
From where do zygotes derive their genetic information?
570a6c176d058f1900182e4d
their parental germ cells
719
False
What percentage of difference is there between the genetic material of humans and the genetic material of chimpanzees?
570a6c176d058f1900182e4e
1.2%
1059
False
How many million years ago did the evolution of chimpanzees and humans diverge?
570a6c176d058f1900182e4f
five
963
False
About how long ago did modern human beings first come into existence?
570a6c176d058f1900182e50
200,000 years
1878
False
Kurt Kortschal
404
Who rejected the research on the role of emotional phenotype temperaments on social connectedness?
5ad255afd7d075001a428d46
True
parental germ cells
725
From where don't zygotes derive their genetic information?
5ad255afd7d075001a428d47
True
1.2%
1059
What percentage of similarity is there between the genetic material of humans and the genetic material of chimpanzees?
5ad255afd7d075001a428d48
True
five
963
How many hundred years ago did the evolution of chimpanzees and humans diverge?
5ad255afd7d075001a428d49
True
200,000
1878
About how long ago did modern human beings not come into existence?
5ad255afd7d075001a428d4a
True
Emotions can motivate social interactions and relationships and therefore are directly related with basic physiology, particularly with the stress systems. This is important because emotions are related to the anti-stress complex, with an oxytocin-attachment system, which plays a major role in bonding. Emotional phenotype temperaments affect social connectedness and fitness in complex social systems (Kurt Kortschal 2013). These characteristics are shared with other species and taxa and are due to the effects of genes and their continuous transmission. Information that is encoded in the DNA sequences provides the blueprint for assembling proteins that make up our cells. Zygotes require genetic information from their parental germ cells, and at every speciation event, heritable traits that have enabled its ancestor to survive and reproduce successfully are passed down along with new traits that could be potentially beneficial to the offspring. In the five million years since the linages leading to modern humans and chimpanzees split, only about 1.2% of their genetic material has been modified. This suggests that everything that separates us from chimpanzees must be encoded in that very small amount of DNA, including our behaviors. Students that study animal behaviors have only identified intraspecific examples of gene-dependent behavioral phenotypes. In voles (Microtus spp.) minor genetic differences have been identified in a vasopressin receptor gene that corresponds to major species differences in social organization and the mating system (Hammock & Young 2005). Another potential example with behavioral differences is the FOCP2 gene, which is involved in neural circuitry handling speech and language (Vargha-Khadem et al. 2005). Its present form in humans differed from that of the chimpanzees by only a few mutations and has been present for about 200,000 years, coinciding with the beginning of modern humans (Enard et al. 2002). Speech, language, and social organization are all part of the basis for emotions.
Along with mood, temperament, disposition and motivation, what is emotion often tied to?
570a6db44103511400d596f0
personality
308
False
What do some theories see as an important part of emotion?
570a6db44103511400d596f1
cognition
368
False
Along with sweating and muscle tension, what might be a physiological response to danger?
570a6db44103511400d596f2
rapid heartbeat and breathing
663
False
Sweating is a product of the arousal of what system?
570a6db44103511400d596f3
nervous
642
False
personality
308
Along with mood, temperament, disposition and motivation, what is emotion never tied to?
5ad23ce5d7d075001a42887c
True
cognition
836
What do some theories see as an unimportant part of emotion?
5ad23ce5d7d075001a42887d
True
rapid heartbeat and breathing, sweating, muscle tension
663
Along with sweating and muscle tension, what might be a non-physiological response to danger?
5ad23ce5d7d075001a42887e
True
nervous system
642
Sweating is a not product of the arousal of what system?
5ad23ce5d7d075001a42887f
True
Emotion, in everyday speech, is any relatively brief conscious experience characterized by intense mental activity and a high degree of pleasure or displeasure. Scientific discourse has drifted to other meanings and there is no consensus on a definition. Emotion is often intertwined with mood, temperament, personality, disposition, and motivation. In some theories, cognition is an important aspect of emotion. Those acting primarily on emotion may seem as if they are not thinking, but mental processes are still essential, particularly in the interpretation of events. For example, the realization of danger and subsequent arousal of the nervous system (e.g. rapid heartbeat and breathing, sweating, muscle tension) is integral to the experience of fear. Other theories, however, claim that emotion is separate from and can precede cognition.
Who described the concept of a continuum of intensity?
570a6e2f4103511400d596f8
Michael C. Graham
341
False
What is Michael Graham's profession?
570a6e2f4103511400d596f9
Psychotherapist
325
False
What is an example of an extreme form of fear?
570a6e2f4103511400d596fa
terror
466
False
What would be an example of mild shame?
570a6e2f4103511400d596fb
embarrassment
506
False
What are non-intense feelings that lack a contextual stimulus called?
570a6e2f4103511400d596fc
Moods
715
False
Michael C. Graham
341
Who described the concept of a non-continuum of intensity?
5ad24351d7d075001a4289e0
True
Psychotherapist
325
What is Michael Graham's interest?
5ad24351d7d075001a4289e1
True
terror
466
What is not an example of an extreme form of fear?
5ad24351d7d075001a4289e2
True
embarrassment
506
What would be an example of middle shame?
5ad24351d7d075001a4289e3
True
Moods
715
What are intense feelings that lack a contextual stimulus called?
5ad24351d7d075001a4289e4
True
Emotions have been described by some theorists as discrete and consistent responses to internal or external events which have a particular significance for the organism. Emotions are brief in duration and consist of a coordinated set of responses, which may include verbal, physiological, behavioural, and neural mechanisms. Psychotherapist Michael C. Graham describes all emotions as existing on a continuum of intensity. Thus fear might range from mild concern to terror or shame might range from simple embarrassment to toxic shame. Emotions have also been described as biologically given and a result of evolution because they provided good solutions to ancient and recurring problems that faced our ancestors. Moods are feelings that tend to be less intense than emotions and that often lack a contextual stimulus.
Who has argued that emotions are discrete?
570a6f236d058f1900182e56
Paul Ekman
24
False
How many basic emotions did Ekman recognize?
570a6f236d058f1900182e57
six
638
False
Along with anger, disgust, happiness, sadness and fear, what is one of Ekman's basic emotions?
570a6f236d058f1900182e58
surprise
706
False
Paul Ekman
24
Who has agreed that emotions are discrete?
5ad243b2d7d075001a428a1a
True
six
638
How many non-basic emotions did Ekman recognize?
5ad243b2d7d075001a428a1b
True
surprise
706
Along with anger, disgust, happiness, sadness and fear, what isn't one of Ekman's basic emotions?
5ad243b2d7d075001a428a1c
True
For more than 40 years, Paul Ekman has supported the view that emotions are discrete, measurable, and physiologically distinct. Ekman's most influential work revolved around the finding that certain emotions appeared to be universally recognized, even in cultures that were preliterate and could not have learned associations for facial expressions through media. Another classic study found that when participants contorted their facial muscles into distinct facial expressions (e.g. disgust), they reported subjective and physiological experiences that matched the distinct facial expressions. His research findings led him to classify six emotions as basic: anger, disgust, fear, happiness, sadness and surprise.
What school of thought saw emotion as an impediment to virtue?
570a6f996d058f1900182e5c
stoic
56
False
What thinker believed that emotions were necessary for virtue?
570a6f996d058f1900182e5d
Aristotle
145
False
What did the Aristotelians call emotions?
570a6f996d058f1900182e5e
passions
263
False
Who was a notable scholastic thinker?
570a6f996d058f1900182e5f
Thomas Aquinas
415
False
Along with Descartes, Machiavelli and Hume, what notable philosopher developed a theory of emotions?
570a6f996d058f1900182e60
Baruch Spinoza
555
False
stoic
56
What school of thought saw emotion as not an impediment to virtue?
5ad24569d7d075001a428a9a
True
Aristotle
145
What thinker believed that emotions weren't necessary for virtue?
5ad24569d7d075001a428a9b
True
passions
263
What did the Aristotelians not call emotions?
5ad24569d7d075001a428a9c
True
Thomas Aquinas
415
Who wasn't a notable scholastic thinker?
5ad24569d7d075001a428a9d
True
Western philosophy regarded emotion in varying ways. In stoic theories it was seen as a hindrance to reason and therefore a hindrance to virtue. Aristotle believed that emotions were an essential component of virtue. In the Aristotelian view all emotions (called passions) corresponded to appetites or capacities. During the Middle Ages, the Aristotelian view was adopted and further developed by scholasticism and Thomas Aquinas in particular. There are also theories of emotions in the works of philosophers such as René Descartes, Niccolò Machiavelli, Baruch Spinoza and David Hume. In the 19th century emotions were considered adaptive and were studied more frequently from an empiricist psychiatric perspective.
Who wrote that exciting facts lead to emotions?
570a70116d058f1900182e66
William James
20
False
What did James believe a stimulus act upon to produce emotion?
570a70116d058f1900182e67
the autonomic nervous system
365
False
What did James believe emotion was synonymous with?
570a70116d058f1900182e68
the perception of bodily changes
630
False
Who developed a theory similar to that of James?
570a70116d058f1900182e69
Carl Lange
480
False
What was the profession of Lange?
570a70116d058f1900182e6a
psychologist
467
False
William James
20
Who wrote that exciting facts don't lead to emotions?
5ad2469cd7d075001a428b00
True
autonomic nervous system
369
What didn't James believe a stimulus act upon to produce emotion?
5ad2469cd7d075001a428b01
True
the perception of bodily changes
630
What did James believe emotion wasn't synonymous with?
5ad2469cd7d075001a428b02
True
Carl Lange
480
Who didn't develop a theory similar to that of James?
5ad2469cd7d075001a428b03
True
In his 1884 article William James argued that feelings and emotions were secondary to physiological phenomena. In his theory, James proposed that the perception of what he called an "exciting fact" directly led to a physiological response, known as "emotion." To account for different types of emotional experiences, James proposed that stimuli trigger activity in the autonomic nervous system, which in turn produces an emotional experience in the brain. The Danish psychologist Carl Lange also proposed a similar theory at around the same time, and therefore this theory became known as the James–Lange theory. As James wrote, "the perception of bodily changes, as they occur, is the emotion." James further claims that "we feel sad because we cry, angry because we strike, afraid because we tremble, and neither we cry, strike, nor tremble because we are sorry, angry, or fearful, as the case may be."
What historical school claims that sentiments and meta-emotions can be learned?
570a70f04103511400d5970a
constructivist
373
False
According to the constructivists, what is an example of a learned meta-emotion?
570a70f04103511400d5970b
Schadenfreude
470
False
Along with Germany, England, Spain and Australia, where has a research center on the history of emotions recently opened?
570a70f04103511400d5970c
Sweden
1061
False
Along with class and race, what is regarded as an essential category of historical analysis?
570a70f04103511400d5970d
gender
175
False
constructivist
373
What historical school claims that sentiments and meta-emotions can't be learned?
5ad26049d7d075001a428fbe
True
Schadenfreude
470
According to the constructivists, what isn't an example of a learned meta-emotion?
5ad26049d7d075001a428fbf
True
Sweden
1061
Along with Germany, England, Spain and Australia, where hasn't a research center on the history of emotions recently opened?
5ad26049d7d075001a428fc0
True
gender
175
Along with class and race, what isn't regarded as an essential category of historical analysis?
5ad26049d7d075001a428fc1
True
The history of emotions has become an increasingly popular topic recently, with some scholars arguing that it is an essential category of analysis, not unlike class, race, or gender. Historians, like other social scientists, assume that emotions, feelings and their expressions are regulated in different ways by both different cultures and different historical times, and constructivist school of history claims even that some sentiments and meta-emotions, for example Schadenfreude, are learnt and not only regulated by culture. Historians of emotion trace and analyse the changing norms and rules of feeling, while examining emotional regimes, codes, and lexicons from social, cultural or political history perspectives. Others focus on the history of medicine, science or psychology. What somebody can and may feel (and show) in a given situation, towards certain people or things, depends on social norms and rules. It is thus historically variable and open to change. Several research centers have opened in the past few years in Germany, England, Spain, Sweden and Australia.
Whose work did the theory of Stanley Schachter build on?
570a71734103511400d59712
Gregorio Marañón
84
False
What did Gregorio Marañón inject his patients with?
570a71734103511400d59713
epinephrine
129
False
What was the nationality of Gregorio Marañón?
570a71734103511400d59714
Spanish
65
False
Who was a notable student of  Stanley Schachter?
570a71734103511400d59715
Jerome Singer
1168
False
In what year was the book Gut Reactions by Jesse Prinz published?
570a71734103511400d59716
2004
1717
False
Gregorio Marañón
84
Whose work didn't the theory of Stanley Schachter build on?
5ad248ded7d075001a428b7a
True
epinephrine
129
What did Gregorio Marañón not inject his patients with?
5ad248ded7d075001a428b7b
True
Spanish
65
What wasn't the nationality of Gregorio Marañón?
5ad248ded7d075001a428b7c
True
Jerome Singer
1168
Who was a notable teacher of Stanley Schachter?
5ad248ded7d075001a428b7d
True
Stanley Schachter formulated his theory on the earlier work of a Spanish physician, Gregorio Marañón, who injected patients with epinephrine and subsequently asked them how they felt. Interestingly, Marañón found that most of these patients felt something but in the absence of an actual emotion-evoking stimulus, the patients were unable to interpret their physiological arousal as an experienced emotion. Schachter did agree that physiological reactions played a big role in emotions. He suggested that physiological reactions contributed to emotional experience by facilitating a focused cognitive appraisal of a given physiologically arousing event and that this appraisal was what defined the subjective emotional experience. Emotions were thus a result of two-stage process: general physiological arousal, and experience of emotion. For example, the physiological arousal, heart pounding, in a response to an evoking stimulus, the sight of a bear in the kitchen. The brain then quickly scans the area, to explain the pounding, and notices the bear. Consequently, the brain interprets the pounding heart as being the result of fearing the bear. With his student, Jerome Singer, Schachter demonstrated that subjects can have different emotional reactions despite being placed into the same physiological state with an injection of epinephrine. Subjects were observed to express either anger or amusement depending on whether another person in the situation (a confederate) displayed that emotion. Hence, the combination of the appraisal of the situation (cognitive) and the participants' reception of adrenaline or a placebo together determined the response. This experiment has been criticized in Jesse Prinz's (2004) Gut Reactions.
In what decade did sociologists focus on the social relevance of emotion?
570a71dd6d058f1900182e70
1990s
7
False
What emotions did Cooley regard as of paramount social importance?
570a71dd6d058f1900182e71
pride and shame
143
False
Who studied rage and shame cycles in married couples?
570a71dd6d058f1900182e72
Retzinger
497
False
Who developed the social bond theory?
570a71dd6d058f1900182e73
Scheff
645
False
Along with Cooley, from whose work did Scheff derive social bond theory?
570a71dd6d058f1900182e74
Goffman
618
False
1990s
7
In what decade didn't sociologists focus on the social relevance of emotion?
5ad261d7d7d075001a42906c
True
pride and shame
143
What emotions didn't Cooley regard as of paramount social importance?
5ad261d7d7d075001a42906d
True
Retzinger
497
Who studied rage and shame cycles in un-married couples?
5ad261d7d7d075001a42906e
True
Scheff
645
Who rejected the social bond theory?
5ad261d7d7d075001a42906f
True
Goffman
618
Along with Cooley, from whose work did Scheff not derive social bond theory?
5ad261d7d7d075001a429070
True
In the 1990s, sociologists focused on different aspects of specific emotions and how these emotions were socially relevant. For Cooley (1992), pride and shame were the most important emotions that drive people to take various social actions. During every encounter, he proposed that we monitor ourselves through the "looking glass" that the gestures and reactions of others provide. Depending on these reactions, we either experience pride or shame and this results in particular paths of action. Retzinger (1991) conducted studies of married couples who experienced cycles of rage and shame. Drawing predominantly on Goffman and Cooley's work, Scheff (1990) developed a micro sociological theory of the social bond. The formation or disruption of social bonds is dependent on the emotions that people experience during interactions.
What is the term for the strategies used by people to influence their emotional experiences?
570a72e64103511400d59726
Emotion regulation
0
False
What type of strategy involves avoiding a situation where unwanted emotions might be experienced?
570a72e64103511400d59727
behavioral
140
False
Rational emotive behavior therapy is an approach used by what psychotherapy schools?
570a72e64103511400d59728
Cognitively oriented schools
582
False
What sort of therapy might examine emotions based on components of facial expressions?
570a72e64103511400d59729
Gestalt therapy
806
False
Emotion regulation
0
What is the term for the strategies not used by people to influence their emotional experiences?
5ad2787cd7d075001a42956a
True
behavioral
47
What type of strategy involves avoiding a situation where wanted emotions might be experienced?
5ad2787cd7d075001a42956b
True
Cognitively oriented schools
582
Rational emotive behavior therapy is not an approach used by what psychotherapy schools?
5ad2787cd7d075001a42956c
True
Gestalt therapy
806
What sort of therapy might not examine emotions based on components of facial expressions?
5ad2787cd7d075001a42956d
True
Emotion regulation refers to the cognitive and behavioral strategies people use to influence their own emotional experience. For example, a behavioral strategy in which one avoids a situation to avoid unwanted emotions (e.g., trying not to think about the situation, doing distracting activities, etc.). Depending on the particular school's general emphasis on either cognitive components of emotion, physical energy discharging, or on symbolic movement and facial expression components of emotion, different schools of psychotherapy approach the regulation of emotion differently. Cognitively oriented schools approach them via their cognitive components, such as rational emotive behavior therapy. Yet others approach emotions via symbolic movement and facial expression components (like in contemporary Gestalt therapy).
What system was examined to develop the neurobiological explanation of human emotion?
570a73804103511400d5972e
limbic
56
False
What classification of chemicals do dopamine, serotonin and noradrenaline belong to?
570a73804103511400d5972f
neurochemicals
381
False
What chemicals may mediate emotions?
570a73804103511400d59730
pheromones
587
False
Reactive responses are present in the brains of what animals?
570a73804103511400d59731
reptiles
276
False
The neurobiological explanation is specific to what types of brains?
570a73804103511400d59732
mammalian
215
False
limbic
194
What system wasn't examined to develop the neurobiological explanation of human emotion?
5ad255efd7d075001a428d58
True
neurochemicals
381
What classification of chemicals do dopamine, serotonin and noradrenaline not belong to?
5ad255efd7d075001a428d59
True
pheromones
587
What chemicals do not mediate emotions?
5ad255efd7d075001a428d5a
True
reptiles
276
Reactive responses aren't present in the brains of what animals?
5ad255efd7d075001a428d5b
True
mammalian
309
The neurobiological explanation isn't specific to what types of brains?
5ad255efd7d075001a428d5c
True
Based on discoveries made through neural mapping of the limbic system, the neurobiological explanation of human emotion is that emotion is a pleasant or unpleasant mental state organized in the limbic system of the mammalian brain. If distinguished from reactive responses of reptiles, emotions would then be mammalian elaborations of general vertebrate arousal patterns, in which neurochemicals (for example, dopamine, noradrenaline, and serotonin) step-up or step-down the brain's activity level, as visible in body movements, gestures and postures. Emotions can likely be mediated by pheromones (see fear).
What discipline studies the role of emotions in neural mechanisms?
570a775d4103511400d59742
Human sciences
63
False
What fields studies the role of emotions in the treatment of human mental disorders?
570a775d4103511400d59743
psychiatry
163
False
What profession studies the role of emotions in providing holistic health care?
570a775d4103511400d59744
Nursing
276
False
What is affective neuroscience a sub-field of?
570a775d4103511400d59745
neuroscience
563
False
What field studies the relationship between emotion and learning?
570a775d4103511400d59746
education
865
False
Human sciences
63
What discipline doesn't study the role of emotions in neural mechanisms?
5ad257fbd7d075001a428db2
True
psychiatry
163
What fields studies the role of emotions in the treatment of non-human mental disorders?
5ad257fbd7d075001a428db3
True
Nursing
276
What profession studies the role of emotions in providing non-holistic health care?
5ad257fbd7d075001a428db4
True
neuroscience
563
What is affective neuroscience not a sub-field of?
5ad257fbd7d075001a428db5
True
education
865
What field doesn't study the relationship between emotion and learning?
5ad257fbd7d075001a428db6
True
Many different disciplines have produced work on the emotions. Human sciences study the role of emotions in mental processes, disorders, and neural mechanisms. In psychiatry, emotions are examined as part of the discipline's study and treatment of mental disorders in humans. Nursing studies emotions as part of its approach to the provision of holistic health care to humans. Psychology examines emotions from a scientific perspective by treating them as mental processes and behavior and they explore the underlying physiological and neurological processes. In neuroscience sub-fields such as social neuroscience and affective neuroscience, scientists study the neural mechanisms of emotion by combining neuroscience with the psychological study of personality, emotion, and mood. In linguistics, the expression of emotion may change to the meaning of sounds. In education, the role of emotions in relation to learning is examined.
Who came up with the interaction ritual theory?
570a79de4103511400d59756
Randall Collins
34
False
From what work of Durkheim's was interaction ritual theory derived?
570a79de4103511400d59757
totemic rituals
131
False
In addition to Durkheim, whose work influenced the development of interaction ritual theory?
570a79de4103511400d59758
Goffman
168
False
What is the term for a feeling of confidence to take action?
570a79de4103511400d59759
Emotional energy
364
False
What is the term for the energy generated during group gatherings, such as totemic rituals?
570a79de4103511400d5975a
collective effervescence
510
False
Randall Collins
34
Who rejected the interaction ritual theory?
5ad276ded7d075001a429534
True
totemic rituals
131
From what work of Durkheim's wasn't interaction ritual theory derived?
5ad276ded7d075001a429535
True
Goffman
168
In addition to Durkheim, whose work didn't influence the development of interaction ritual theory?
5ad276ded7d075001a429536
True
Emotional energy
364
What is the term for a feeling of confidence to not take action?
5ad276ded7d075001a429537
True
collective effervescence
510
What is the term for the energy not generated during group gatherings, such as totemic rituals?
5ad276ded7d075001a429538
True
Subsequent to these developments, Randall Collins (2004) formulated his interaction ritual theory by drawing on Durkheim's work on totemic rituals that was extended by Goffman (1964/2013; 1967) into everyday focused encounters. Based on interaction ritual theory, we experience different levels or intensities of emotional energy during face-to-face interactions. Emotional energy is considered to be a feeling of confidence to take action and a boldness that one experiences when they are charged up from the collective effervescence generated during group gatherings that reach high levels of intensity.
Of what discipline is affective computing a branch?
570a7b204103511400d59760
computer science
181
False
What is the foundational document of affective computing?
570a7b204103511400d59761
Rosalind Picard's 1995 paper
658
False
In affective computing, what devices are used to collect data about the physical state of a user?
570a7b204103511400d59762
passive sensors
755
False
How does emotional speech processing determine a user's emotional state?
570a7b204103511400d59763
analyzing speech patterns
1214
False
computer science
26
Of what discipline isn't affective computing a branch?
5ad278d6d7d075001a42958e
True
Rosalind Picard's 1995 paper
658
What isn't the foundational document of affective computing?
5ad278d6d7d075001a42958f
True
passive sensors
755
In affective computing, what devices aren't used to collect data about the physical state of a user?
5ad278d6d7d075001a429590
True
analyzing speech patterns
1214
How does emotional speech processing determine a user's non-emotional state?
5ad278d6d7d075001a429591
True
In the 2000s, research in computer science, engineering, psychology and neuroscience has been aimed at developing devices that recognize human affect display and model emotions. In computer science, affective computing is a branch of the study and development of artificial intelligence that deals with the design of systems and devices that can recognize, interpret, and process human emotions. It is an interdisciplinary field spanning computer sciences, psychology, and cognitive science. While the origins of the field may be traced as far back as to early philosophical enquiries into emotion, the more modern branch of computer science originated with Rosalind Picard's 1995 paper on affective computing. Detecting emotional information begins with passive sensors which capture data about the user's physical state or behavior without interpreting the input. The data gathered is analogous to the cues humans use to perceive emotions in others. Another area within affective computing is the design of computational devices proposed to exhibit either innate emotional capabilities or that are capable of convincingly simulating emotions. Emotional speech processing recognizes the user's emotional state by analyzing speech patterns. The detection and processing of facial expression or body gestures is achieved through detectors and sensors.
Along with subjective experience, cognitive processes, expressive behavior and psychophysiological changes, what is another notable emotional component?
570a7c016d058f1900182e8e
instrumental behavior
145
False
With what emotional component did William James identify emotion?
570a7c016d058f1900182e8f
subjective experience
274
False
What emotional component did behaviorists identify emotion with?
570a7c016d058f1900182e90
instrumental behavior
315
False
What academics identified emotions with physiological changes?
570a7c016d058f1900182e91
psychophysiologists
338
False
Who discussed emotions in the context of expressive body actions and cultural labels?
570a7c016d058f1900182e92
Peggy Thoits
853
False
instrumental behavior
145
Along with subjective experience, cognitive processes, expressive behavior and psychophysiological changes, what is another notable unemotional component?
5ad23e14d7d075001a4288aa
True
subjective experience
47
With what unemotional component did William James identify emotion?
5ad23e14d7d075001a4288ab
True
instrumental behavior
145
What emotional component did behaviorists not identify emotion with?
5ad23e14d7d075001a4288ac
True
psychophysiological
692
What academics did not identify emotions with physiological changes?
5ad23e14d7d075001a4288ad
True
Peggy Thoits
853
Who discussed emotions out of the context of expressive body actions and cultural labels?
5ad23e14d7d075001a4288ae
True
Emotions involve different components, such as subjective experience, cognitive processes, expressive behavior, psychophysiological changes, and instrumental behavior. At one time, academics attempted to identify the emotion with one of the components: William James with a subjective experience, behaviorists with instrumental behavior, psychophysiologists with physiological changes, and so on. More recently, emotion is said to consist of all the components. The different components of emotion are categorized somewhat differently depending on the academic discipline. In psychology and philosophy, emotion typically includes a subjective, conscious experience characterized primarily by psychophysiological expressions, biological reactions, and mental states. A similar multicomponential description of emotion is found in sociology. For example, Peggy Thoits described emotions as involving physiological components, cultural or emotional labels (e.g., anger, surprise etc.), expressive body actions, and the appraisal of situations and contexts.
What model of emotion was developed by Scherer?
570a7c684103511400d59768
components processing model
13
False
How many important emotional elements are present in the components processing model?
570a7c684103511400d59769
five
53
False
What processes drive the other components processing model processes?
570a7c684103511400d5976a
appraisal
288
False
components processing model
13
What model of emotion was undeveloped by Scherer?
5ad24373d7d075001a4289f2
True
five
53
How many unimportant emotional elements are present in the components processing model?
5ad24373d7d075001a4289f3
True
appraisal
288
What processes don't drive the other components processing model processes?
5ad24373d7d075001a4289f4
True
In Scherer's components processing model of emotion, five crucial elements of emotion are said to exist. From the component processing perspective, emotion experience is said to require that all of these processes become coordinated and synchronized for a short period of time, driven by appraisal processes. Although the inclusion of cognitive appraisal as one of the elements is slightly controversial, since some theorists make the assumption that emotion and cognition are separate but interacting systems, the component processing model provides a sequence of events that effectively describes the coordination involved during an emotional episode.
What do psychologists use to visually map emotional experiences?
570a7cdb6d058f1900182ea0
multidimensional scaling
19
False
Along with valence, what is the other of the two dimensions used to map emotional experiences?
570a7cdb6d058f1900182ea1
arousal
403
False
What is the term for the feeling of energy or enervation created by an emotional experience?
570a7cdb6d058f1900182ea2
arousal
403
False
What is the term for the degree to which an emotional experience feels positive or negative?
570a7cdb6d058f1900182ea3
valence
343
False
What component of emotion provides its perceived energy?
570a7cdb6d058f1900182ea4
core affect
615
False
multidimensional scaling
19
What do psychologists use to non-visually map emotional experiences?
5ad24477d7d075001a428a5e
True
arousal
403
Along with valence, what is the other of the three dimensions used to map emotional experiences?
5ad24477d7d075001a428a5f
True
arousal
403
What isn't the term for the feeling of energy or enervation created by an emotional experience?
5ad24477d7d075001a428a60
True
valence
343
What is the term for the degree to which an non-emotional experience feels positive or negative?
5ad24477d7d075001a428a61
True
Core affect
628
What component of non-emotion provides its perceived energy?
5ad24477d7d075001a428a62
True
Through the use of multidimensional scaling, psychologists can map out similar emotional experiences, which allows a visual depiction of the "emotional distance" between experiences. A further step can be taken by looking at the map's dimensions of the emotional experiences. The emotional experiences are divided into two dimensions known as valence (how negative or positive the experience feels) and arousal (how energized or enervated the experience feels). These two dimensions can be depicted on a 2D coordinate map. This two-dimensional map was theorized to capture one important component of emotion called core affect. Core affect is not the only component to emotion, but gives the emotion its hedonic and felt energy.
Who argued that emotional responses compete with instinct and reason?
570a7d566d058f1900182eaa
Paul D. MacLean
414
False
What technology has allowed for research into the earlier-evolved parts of the brain?
570a7d566d058f1900182eab
neuroimaging
589
False
Along with LeDoux, who was a notable neurological brain researcher?
570a7d566d058f1900182eac
António Damásio
787
False
In what decade did Damásio and LeDoux do notable work?
570a7d566d058f1900182ead
1990s
757
False
Paul D. MacLean
414
Who argued against emotional responses compete with instinct and reason?
5ad24633d7d075001a428adc
True
neuroimaging
589
What technology has disallowed for research into the earlier-evolved parts of the brain?
5ad24633d7d075001a428add
True
António Damásio
787
Along with LeDoux, who wasn't a notable neurological brain researcher?
5ad24633d7d075001a428ade
True
1990s
757
In what decade did Damásio and LeDoux do unnotable work?
5ad24633d7d075001a428adf
True
More contemporary views along the evolutionary psychology spectrum posit that both basic emotions and social emotions evolved to motivate (social) behaviors that were adaptive in the ancestral environment. Current research[citation needed] suggests that emotion is an essential part of any human decision-making and planning, and the famous distinction made between reason and emotion is not as clear as it seems. Paul D. MacLean claims that emotion competes with even more instinctive responses, on one hand, and the more abstract reasoning, on the other hand. The increased potential in neuroimaging has also allowed investigation into evolutionarily ancient parts of the brain. Important neurological advances were derived from these perspectives in the 1990s by Joseph E. LeDoux and António Damásio.
Along with Cropanzano, who developed a communication-based theory of emotional experience?
570a7de94103511400d5976e
Howard M. Weiss
50
False
When did Weiss and Cropanzano publish their work?
570a7de94103511400d5976f
1996
90
False
What context did the theory of Weiss and Cropanzano pay particular attention to?
570a7de94103511400d59770
work
191
False
Who did Beal write "Reflections on Affective Events Theory" with?
570a7de94103511400d59771
Howard M. Weiss
666
False
Where was "Reflections on Affective Events Theory" published?
570a7de94103511400d59772
Research on Emotion in Organizations
774
False
Howard M. Weiss
50
Along with Cropanzano, who did not develop a communication-based theory of emotional experience?
5ad253a8d7d075001a428d1c
True
1996
90
When did Weiss and Cropanzano reject their work?
5ad253a8d7d075001a428d1d
True
work
191
What context did the theory of Weiss and Cropanzano not pay any attention to?
5ad253a8d7d075001a428d1e
True
Howard M. Weiss
666
Who did Beal draw "Reflections on Affective Events Theory" with?
5ad253a8d7d075001a428d1f
True
This is a communication-based theory developed by Howard M. Weiss and Russell Cropanzano (1996), that looks at the causes, structures, and consequences of emotional experience (especially in work contexts). This theory suggests that emotions are influenced and caused by events which in turn influence attitudes and behaviors. This theoretical frame also emphasizes time in that human beings experience what they call emotion episodes— a "series of emotional states extended over time and organized around an underlying theme." This theory has been utilized by numerous researchers to better understand emotion from a communicative lens, and was reviewed further by Howard M. Weiss and Daniel J. Beal in their article, "Reflections on Affective Events Theory", published in Research on Emotion in Organizations in 2005.
What parts of reptiles respond to sensory cues?
570a7e7c4103511400d59778
motor centers
4
False
What is the principal sense of night-active mammals?
570a7e7c4103511400d59779
smell
202
False
Why were early mammals active at night?
570a7e7c4103511400d5977a
reptiles slept
467
False
What developed from the mammalian odor pathways?
570a7e7c4103511400d5977b
limbic brain
681
False
How do the olfactory lobes of mammals compare in size to those of reptiles?
570a7e7c4103511400d5977c
larger
561
False
motor centers
4
What parts of reptiles don't respond to sensory cues?
5ad25680d7d075001a428d6c
True
smell
202
What is the principal sense of morning-active mammals?
5ad25680d7d075001a428d6d
True
reptiles slept
467
Why were early mammals active in the morning?
5ad25680d7d075001a428d6e
True
limbic brain
681
What developed from the mammalian sonic pathways?
5ad25680d7d075001a428d6f
True
larger
561
How do the olfactory lobes of mammals not compare in size to those of reptiles?
5ad25680d7d075001a428d70
True
The motor centers of reptiles react to sensory cues of vision, sound, touch, chemical, gravity, and motion with pre-set body movements and programmed postures. With the arrival of night-active mammals, smell replaced vision as the dominant sense, and a different way of responding arose from the olfactory sense, which is proposed to have developed into mammalian emotion and emotional memory. The mammalian brain invested heavily in olfaction to succeed at night as reptiles slept—one explanation for why olfactory lobes in mammalian brains are proportionally larger than in the reptiles. These odor pathways gradually formed the neural blueprint for what was later to become our limbic brain.
What model described the opposite of approach as moving away?
570a7f296d058f1900182eb2
Direction Model
131
False
What model described the opposite of approach as unmoving but with resistance and strength?
570a7f296d058f1900182eb3
Movement Model
195
False
According to the Action Tendency Model, the opposite of approach is described as unmoving with what?
570a7f296d058f1900182eb4
passive yielding
232
False
Along with behavioral inhibition, research on what trait resulted in support for the Action Tendency Model?
570a7f296d058f1900182eb5
shyness
384
False
Direction Model
131
What model did not describe the opposite of approach as moving away?
5ad257a0d7d075001a428d90
True
Movement Model
195
What model described the same approach as unmoving but with resistance and strength?
5ad257a0d7d075001a428d91
True
passivity
313
According to the Action Tendency Model, the similar approach is described as unmoving with what?
5ad257a0d7d075001a428d92
True
shyness
384
Along with behavioral inhibition, research on what trait did not result in support for the Action Tendency Model?
5ad257a0d7d075001a428d93
True
This still left open the question of whether the opposite of approach in the prefrontal cortex is better described as moving away (Direction Model), as unmoving but with strength and resistance (Movement Model), or as unmoving with passive yielding (Action Tendency Model). Support for the Action Tendency Model (passivity related to right prefrontal activity) comes from research on shyness and research on behavioral inhibition. Research that tested the competing hypotheses generated by all four models also supported the Action Tendency Model.
In what economics sub-field are emotions discussed?
570a7fbf4103511400d59782
microeconomics
159
False
What is a notable political science subfield where emotions are analyzed?
570a7fbf4103511400d59783
the analysis of voter decision-making
926
False
Along with criminal law, what facet of law considers evidence related to emotion?
570a7fbf4103511400d59784
tort law
658
False
Along with sociology and behavioral sciences, what discipline informs the field of criminology?
570a7fbf4103511400d59785
psychology
388
False
Along with risk perception, what do economists study emotion in relate to?
570a7fbf4103511400d59786
purchase decision-making
218
False
microeconomics
159
In what economics sub-field are emotions not discussed?
5ad25fcbd7d075001a428f96
True
analysis of voter decision-making
930
What is not a notable political science subfield where emotions are analyzed?
5ad25fcbd7d075001a428f97
True
tort law
658
Along with criminal law, what facet of law doesn't consider evidence related to emotion?
5ad25fcbd7d075001a428f98
True
psychology
388
Along with sociology and behavioral sciences, what discipline does not inform the field of criminology?
5ad25fcbd7d075001a428f99
True
In economics, the social science that studies the production, distribution, and consumption of goods and services, emotions are analyzed in some sub-fields of microeconomics, in order to assess the role of emotions on purchase decision-making and risk perception. In criminology, a social science approach to the study of crime, scholars often draw on behavioral sciences, sociology, and psychology; emotions are examined in criminology issues such as anomie theory and studies of "toughness," aggressive behavior, and hooliganism. In law, which underpins civil obedience, politics, economics and society, evidence about people's emotions is often raised in tort law claims for compensation and in criminal law prosecutions against alleged lawbreakers (as evidence of the defendant's state of mind during trials, sentencing, and parole hearings). In political science, emotions are examined in a number of sub-fields, such as the analysis of voter decision-making.
What emotion do many cultures discourage in women?
570a803f4103511400d59796
anger
228
False
Some cultures attempt to regulate what emotion in boys?
570a803f4103511400d59797
fear
292
False
The open expression of what emotion is generally frowned upon in most cultures?
570a803f4103511400d59798
disgust
627
False
What social institution is associated with the emotion of love?
570a803f4103511400d59799
marriage
808
False
What emotion do political campaigns appeal to in regard to terrorism?
570a803f4103511400d5979a
fear
1013
False
anger
228
What emotion do many cultures encourage in women?
5ad2616cd7d075001a42902c
True
fear
292
Some cultures attempt to regulate what emotion in women?
5ad2616cd7d075001a42902d
True
disgust
627
The open expression of what emotion is generally accepted in most cultures?
5ad2616cd7d075001a42902e
True
marriage
808
What social institution is not associated with the emotion of love?
5ad2616cd7d075001a42902f
True
fear
1013
What emotion do political campaigns not appeal to in regard to terrorism?
5ad2616cd7d075001a429030
True
Attempts are frequently made to regulate emotion according to the conventions of the society and the situation based on many (sometimes conflicting) demands and expectations which originate from various entities. The emotion of anger is in many cultures discouraged in girls and women, while fear is discouraged in boys and men. Expectations attached to social roles, such as "acting as man" and not as a woman, and the accompanying "feeling rules" contribute to the differences in expression of certain emotions. Some cultures encourage or discourage happiness, sadness, or jealousy, and the free expression of the emotion of disgust is considered socially unacceptable in most cultures. Some social institutions are seen as based on certain emotion, such as love in the case of contemporary institution of marriage. In advertising, such as health campaigns and political messages, emotional appeals are commonly found. Recent examples include no-smoking health campaigns and political campaigns emphasizing the fear of terrorism.
Everton_F.C.
When was Everton admitted as a member of the Premier League?
570a7f606d058f1900182eba
1992
54
False
What year did Howard Kendall return to manage Everton?
570a7f606d058f1900182ebb
1990
132
False
Who replaced Howard Kendall as Everton's manager?
570a7f606d058f1900182ebc
Mike Walker
201
False
What year did former Everton player Joe Royle take over managing the club?
570a7f606d058f1900182ebd
1994
328
False
What was the score in the first Everton game managed by Joe Royle?
570a7f606d058f1900182ebe
2–0
400
False
Howard Kendall
101
Who was Everton's first manager after founding the Premier League?
5a3961672f14dd001ac722d7
True
1990
132
In what year did Howard Kendall start his first stint managing Everton?
5a3961672f14dd001ac722d8
True
1992
54
In what year was Mike Walker made Everton manager?
5a3961672f14dd001ac722d9
True
2–0
400
What was the score of Howard Kendall's first game managing Everton?
5a3961672f14dd001ac722da
True
1–0
578
What was the score of Mike Walker's first game managing Everton?
5a3961672f14dd001ac722db
True
Everton were founder members of the Premier League in 1992, but struggled to find the right manager. Howard Kendall had returned in 1990 but could not repeat his previous success, while his successor, Mike Walker, was statistically the least successful Everton manager to date. When former Everton player Joe Royle took over in 1994 the club's form started to improve; his first game in charge was a 2–0 victory over derby rivals Liverpool. Royle dragged Everton clear of relegation, leading the club to the FA Cup for the fifth time in its history, defeating Manchester United 1–0 in the final.
When was the Tower constructed?
570a7fd06d058f1900182ec4
1787
87
False
For what purpose was the Tower first used?
570a7fd06d058f1900182ec5
bridewell
121
False
On what road is the Tower located on?
570a7fd06d058f1900182ec6
Netherfield
226
False
What is the Everton club motto?
570a7fd06d058f1900182ec7
Nil Satis Nisi Optimum
471
False
What does the Everton club motto, "Nil Satis Nisi Optimum," mean in English?
570a7fd06d058f1900182ec8
Nothing but the best is good enough
505
False
1787
87
In what year were the two laurel wreaths first laid at The Tower?
5a3969212f14dd001ac722f5
True
Kelly
356
Who was responsible for building The Tower?
5a3969212f14dd001ac722f6
True
1787
87
In what year did football first get played professionally in Everton?
5a3969212f14dd001ac722f7
True
Kelly
356
Who wrote the motto, "Nil Satis Nisi Optimum"?
5a3969212f14dd001ac722f8
True
1787
87
In what year was the College of Arms established in London?
5a3969212f14dd001ac722f9
True
The Tower has been inextricably linked with the Everton area since its construction in 1787. It was originally used as a bridewell to incarcerate mainly drunks and minor criminals, and it still stands today on Everton Brow in Netherfield Road. The tower was accompanied by two laurel wreaths on either side and, according to the College of Arms in London, Kelly chose to include the laurels as they were the sign of winners. The crest was accompanied by the club motto, "Nil Satis Nisi Optimum", meaning "Nothing but the best is good enough".
What is the name of the theme song that players walk out to on Everton matchdays?
570a807e6d058f1900182ece
Johnny Todd
102
False
Where did "Johnny Todd"--the theme song for Everton matchdays--originate?
570a807e6d058f1900182ecf
Liverpool
130
False
What year did the Everton players walk out to a song other than "Johnny Todd"?
570a807e6d058f1900182ed0
1994
307
False
What was the reaction of the crowd to the Everton replacement theme songs in 1994?
570a807e6d058f1900182ed1
disapproval
541
False
What song did the Everton club replace its player walkout theme with in August 1994?
570a807e6d058f1900182ed2
Get Ready For This
398
False
1994
356
In what year was "Bad Moon Rising" released?
5a396d042f14dd001ac72325
True
1994
356
In what year was "Get Ready For This" released?
5a396d042f14dd001ac72326
True
Frank Kidson
177
Which musician wrote "Bad Moon Rising"?
5a396d042f14dd001ac72327
True
Frank Kidson
177
Who wrote "Get Ready for This"?
5a396d042f14dd001ac72328
True
1962
43
In what year Z-Cars have "Johnny Todd" become its theme song?
5a396d042f14dd001ac72329
True
On matchdays, in a tradition going back to 1962, players walk out to the theme tune to Z-Cars, named "Johnny Todd", a traditional Liverpool children's song collected in 1890 by Frank Kidson which tells the story of a sailor betrayed by his lover while away at sea, although on two separate occasions in the 1994, they ran out to different songs. In August 1994, the club played 2 Unlimited's song "Get Ready For This", and a month later, a reworking of the Creedence Clearwater Revival classic "Bad Moon Rising". Both were met with complete disapproval by Everton fans.
How many seasons out of the last 114 has Everton been in England's top tier?
570a80f26d058f1900182ed8
111
101
False
How many other teams have played all 22 seasons in the Premier League since its inception?
570a80f26d058f1900182ed9
seven
215
False
When was the Premier League established?
570a80f26d058f1900182eda
1992
309
False
What match has been played the most since the inception of the Premier League?
570a80f26d058f1900182edb
Everton against Aston Villa
417
False
How many games has Everton played against Aston Villa?
570a80f26d058f1900182edc
196
590
False
111
101
How many seasons of football has Chelsea played?
5a397d0c2f14dd001ac723c9
True
196
590
How many games has Arsenal played against Everton?
5a397d0c2f14dd001ac723ca
True
1930
172
In what year was Chelsea's football team established?
5a397d0c2f14dd001ac723cb
True
1930
172
In what year did Everton play its first game against Aston Villa?
5a397d0c2f14dd001ac723cc
True
111
101
How many seasons has Liverpool played?
5a397d0c2f14dd001ac723cd
True
Everton hold the record for the most seasons in England's top tier (Division One/Premier League), at 111 seasons out of 114 as of 2014–15 (the club played in Division 2 in 1930–31 and from 1951–54). They are one of seven teams to have played all 22 seasons of the Premier League since its inception in August 1992 – the others being Arsenal, Aston Villa, Chelsea, Liverpool, Manchester United, and Tottenham Hotspur. Everton against Aston Villa is the most played fixture in England's top flight, as of the 2012–13 season the two founder members of the Football League have played a record 196 league games.
When was the Everton club founded?
570a81684103511400d597aa
1878
10
False
In what decade did Everton experience a revival?
570a81684103511400d597ab
1960s
279
False
How many league championships did Everton win in the 1960s?
570a81684103511400d597ac
two
308
False
When was Everton's most recent trophy awarded?
570a81684103511400d597ad
1995
556
False
What nickname is used for Everton's club supporters?
570a81684103511400d597ae
Evertonians
604
False
Everton
16
Who won The Football League's first league championship?
5a395ee32f14dd001ac722af
True
1960s
279
In what decade did World War Two occur?
5a395ee32f14dd001ac722b0
True
Everton
16
Who were the first European Cup winners?
5a395ee32f14dd001ac722b1
True
1888
72
In what year did Everton win its first FA cup?
5a395ee32f14dd001ac722b2
True
Everton
16
Who won the FA cup in 1985?
5a395ee32f14dd001ac722b3
True
Formed in 1878, Everton were founding members of The Football League in 1888 and won their first league championship two seasons later. Following four league titles and two FA Cup wins, Everton experienced a lull in the immediate post World War Two period until a revival in the 1960s which saw the club win two league championships and an FA Cup. The mid-1980s represented their most recent period of sustained success, with two League Championship successes, an FA Cup, and the 1985 European Cup Winners' Cup. The club's most recent major trophy was the 1995 FA Cup. The club's supporters are known as Evertonians.
In what season did Everton win their fourth League title?
570a81dc6d058f1900182ee2
1931–32
239
False
In what year did Everton win their second FA Cup?
570a81dc6d058f1900182ee3
1933
395
False
What was the score in the final game that Everton won its second FA Cup in 1993 against Manchester City?
570a81dc6d058f1900182ee4
3–0
407
False
In what season did Everton win its fifth League title?
570a81dc6d058f1900182ee5
1938–39
470
False
1931
239
What was the record number of goals Everton had that promoted the team?
5a395fb82f14dd001ac722b9
True
3–0
407
What was the score of the final game that resulted in Everton winning its fourth league title?
5a395fb82f14dd001ac722ba
True
1933
395
In what year did Manchester City win its first league title?
5a395fb82f14dd001ac722bb
True
3–0
407
What was the score of the final game that resulted in Everton winning its fifth league title?
5a395fb82f14dd001ac722bc
True
1933
395
In what year did Manchester City first compete?
5a395fb82f14dd001ac722bd
True
Everton were relegated to the Second Division two years later during internal turmoil at the club. However, the club was promoted at the first attempt scoring a record number of goals in the second division. On return to the top flight in 1931–32, Everton wasted no time in reaffirming their status and won a fourth League title at the first opportunity. Everton also won their second FA Cup in 1933 with a 3–0 win against Manchester City in the final. The era ended in 1938–39 with a fifth League title.
When did the Everton club board fire Smith?
570a82684103511400d597be
2002
84
False
Who replaced Smith as manager of the Everton FC in 2002?
570a82684103511400d597bf
David Moyes
171
False
In what place did the Everton FC place in the 2004-05 season?
570a82684103511400d597c0
seventh
288
False
Where did Everton FC place in the 2009 FA Cup Final?
570a82684103511400d597c1
runners-up
630
False
David
171
What was Smith's first name?
5a3968522f14dd001ac722eb
True
Middlesbrough
113
Who eliminated Everton from the UEFA Cup during the 2004-2005 season?
5a3968522f14dd001ac722ec
True
Middlesbrough
113
Besides Everton who was one of the runners-up for the 2009 FA Cup Final?
5a3968522f14dd001ac722ed
True
David Moyes
171
Who coached Middlebrough in 2002?
5a3968522f14dd001ac722ee
True
seventh
288
What was Everton's finish spot in 1996?
5a3968522f14dd001ac722ef
True
The Everton board finally ran out of patience with Smith and he was sacked in March 2002 after an FA Cup exit at Middlesbrough, with Everton in real danger of relegation. David Moyes, was his replacement and guided Everton to a safe finish in fifteenth place. In 2002–03 Everton finished seventh, their highest finish since 1996. A fourth-place finish in 2004–05, ensured Everton qualified for the Champions League qualifying round. The team failed to make it through to the Champions League group stage and were then eliminated from the UEFA Cup. Everton qualified for the 2007–08 and 2008–09 UEFA Cup competitions and they were runners-up in the 2009 FA Cup Final.
When did Everton FC launch their new crest?
570a82f14103511400d597d0
2013
7
False
What company did critics suggest pressured Everton FC to change their crest?
570a82f14103511400d597d1
Nike
229
False
How was the Everton FC's crest redesign received by fans?
570a82f14103511400d597d2
poorly
431
False
What percentage of fans had a negative reaction to Everton FC's crest redesign in 2013?
570a82f14103511400d597d3
91
511
False
How many people signed a petition in protest of Everton FC's crest redesign in 2013?
570a82f14103511400d597d4
over 22,000
574
False
91%
511
What was the approval rating of the original Everton crest?
5a396a1b2f14dd001ac722ff
True
May
3
In what month did the 2014-15 season begin for Everton?
5a396a1b2f14dd001ac72300
True
91%
511
What percentage of people had a positive response to the new crest, as opposed to those who were negative or indifferent?
5a396a1b2f14dd001ac72301
True
22,000
579
How many votes were there in total on the Everton fan site about the new crest?
5a396a1b2f14dd001ac72302
True
Head of Marketing
760
What executive issued the apology for Everton?
5a396a1b2f14dd001ac72303
True
In May 2013, the club launched a new crest to improve the reproducibility of the design in print and broadcast media, particularly on a small scale. Critics[who?] suggested that it was external pressure from sports manufacturers Nike, Inc. that evoked the redesign as the number of colours has been reduced and the radial effect have been removed, making the kit more cost efficient to reproduce.[citation needed] The redesign was poorly received by supporters, with a poll on an Everton fan site registering a 91% negative response to the crest. A protest petition reached over 22,000 signatures before the club offered an apology and announced a new crest would be created for the 2014–15 season with an emphasis on fan consultation. Shortly afterwards, the Head of Marketing left the club.
In which park did Everton FC originally play?
570a83984103511400d597da
Stanley
53
False
Where was the new Liverpool FC stadium located in 1879?
570a83984103511400d597db
Stanley Park
53
False
Who donated land to Everton FC in 1882?
570a83984103511400d597dc
J. Cruitt
195
False
Who was the chairman of the Everton FC in 1892?
570a83984103511400d597dd
John Houlding
446
False
Where did Everton FC relocate their games to in 1892?
570a83984103511400d597de
Anfield
701
False
Liverpool F.C. stadium
98
What was the name of the stadium at Priory Road?
5a396c122f14dd001ac7231b
True
Liverpool F.C. stadium
98
What was the name of the stadium in Anfield?
5a396c122f14dd001ac7231c
True
1892
323
In what year did John Houlding become Everton's chairman?
5a396c122f14dd001ac7231d
True
Anfield
283
In what city is Goodison Park?
5a396c122f14dd001ac7231e
True
1882
177
In what year was the stadium built at Priory Road?
5a396c122f14dd001ac7231f
True
Everton originally played in the southeast corner of Stanley Park, which was the site for the new Liverpool F.C. stadium, with the first official match taking place in 1879. In 1882, a man named J. Cruitt donated land at Priory Road which became the club's home before they moved to Anfield, which was Everton's home until 1892. At this time, a dispute of how the club was to be owned and run emerged with Anfield's owner and Everton's chairman, John Houlding. A dispute between Houlding and the club's committee over how the club should be run, led to Houlding attempting to gain full control of the club by registering the company, "Everton F.C. and Athletic Grounds Ltd". In response, Everton left Anfield for a new ground, Goodison Park, where the club have played ever since. Houlding attempted to take over Everton's name, colours, fixtures and league position, but was denied by The Football Association. Instead, Houlding formed a new club, Liverpool F.C.
How many seats did the proposal for the new Everton stadium feature in 2000?
570a84444103511400d597ee
55,000
193
False
How much money did Everton FC need to generate for a half-stake in the new stadium project in 2000?
570a84444103511400d597ef
£30 million
310
False
In what year did the Liverpool city council reject Everton FC's new stadium proposal?
570a84444103511400d597f0
2003
418
False
In what year did Liverpool announce that they would build their own Stanley Park Stadium?
570a84444103511400d597f1
2005
685
False
What team did Everton FC consider sharing grounds with around the year 2000?
570a84444103511400d597f2
Liverpool
691
False
60,000
112
How many people could Everton's stadium seat in 1996?
5a396ecb2f14dd001ac7232f
True
55,000
193
How many could have sat at the proposed stadium on Stanley Park?
5a396ecb2f14dd001ac72330
True
50%
653
What percentage of the costs for the proposed stadium was Liverpool F.C. able to raise?
5a396ecb2f14dd001ac72331
True
£30 million
310
How much money did Everton need to raise for the proposed stadium deal with Liverpool F.C.?
5a396ecb2f14dd001ac72332
True
January
677
In what month in 2000 was the proposal submitted for the new stadium?
5a396ecb2f14dd001ac72333
True
There have been indications since 1996 that Everton will move to a new stadium. The original plan was for a new 60,000-seat stadium to be built, but in 2000 a proposal was submitted to build a 55,000 seat stadium as part of the King's Dock regeneration. This was unsuccessful as Everton failed to generate the £30 million needed for a half stake in the stadium project, with the city council rejecting the proposal in 2003. Late in 2004, driven by Liverpool Council and the Northwest Development Corporation, the club entered talks with Liverpool F.C. about sharing a proposed stadium on Stanley Park. Negotiations broke down as Everton failed to raise 50% of the costs. On 11 January 2005, Liverpool announced that ground-sharing was not a possibility, proceeding to plan their own Stanley Park Stadium.
What place did Everton FC rank in highest average attendance in the Premier League in the 2008-09 season?
570a84d84103511400d597f8
eighth
39
False
Where does the majority of Everton's matchday support hail from?
570a84d84103511400d597f9
North West of England
176
False
What is the name of Everton's official supporters club?
570a84d84103511400d597fa
FOREVERTON
812
False
Where can you find fanzines sold on Everton match days?
570a84d84103511400d597fb
Goodison Park
940
False
Merseyside
209
Where is Liverpool F.C.'s support heartland?
5a3976a52f14dd001ac7234b
True
FOREVERTON
812
What's the official supporters club for Liverpool F.C.?
5a3976a52f14dd001ac7234c
True
West Lancashire
231
In what part of Liverpool is Goodison Park?
5a3976a52f14dd001ac7234d
True
eighth highest
39
What was Liverpool F.C.'s rank for average attendance?
5a3976a52f14dd001ac7234e
True
Cheshire
221
What city in Ireland do many Everton fans come from to attend their games?
5a3976a52f14dd001ac7234f
True
Everton have a large fanbase, with the eighth highest average attendance in the Premier League in the 2008–09 season. The majority of Everton's matchday support comes from the North West of England, primarily Merseyside, Cheshire, West Lancashire and parts of Western Greater Manchester along with many fans who travel from North Wales and Ireland. Within the city of Liverpool support for Everton and city rivals Liverpool is not determined by geographical basis with supporters mixed across the city. However Everton's support heartland is traditionally based in the North West of the city and in the southern parts of Sefton. Everton also have many supporters' clubs worldwide, in places such as North America, Singapore, Indonesia, Lebanon, Malaysia, Thailand, and Australia. The official supporters club is FOREVERTON, and there are also several fanzines including When Skies are Grey and Speke from the Harbour, which are sold around Goodison Park on match days.
Who is the current manager of the Everton Football Club?
570a85536d058f1900182f22
Roberto Martínez
17
False
How many caretaker managers have their been in the Everton FC's history?
570a85536d058f1900182f23
four
141
False
Who was the Everton FC team's longest serving manager?
570a85536d058f1900182f24
Harry Catterick
294
False
When did Harry Catterick manage the Everton Football Club?
570a85536d058f1900182f25
1961–73
346
False
Which Everton manager won the most domestic and international trophies during his time?
570a85536d058f1900182f26
Howard Kendall
460
False
1984
537
In what year did Roberto Martinez become the current manager of Everton?
5a397a692f14dd001ac7238d
True
1939
114
In what year did Everton have its first caretaker manager?
5a397a692f14dd001ac7238e
True
Howard Kendall
460
Who has been Everton's shortest serving manager?
5a397a692f14dd001ac7238f
True
1984
520
In what year did Howard Kendall win his first Division One Championship?
5a397a692f14dd001ac72390
True
1984
537
In what year did Howard Kendall earn his first Charity Shield?
5a397a692f14dd001ac72391
True
Current manager, Roberto Martínez, is the fourteenth permanent holder of the position since it was established in 1939. There have also been four caretaker managers, and before 1939 the team was selected by either the club secretary or by committee. The club's longest-serving manager has been Harry Catterick, who was in charge of the team from 1961–73, taking in 594 first team matches. The Everton manager to win most domestic and international trophies is Howard Kendall, who won two Division One championships, the 1984 FA Cup, the 1984 UEFA Cup Winners' Cup, and three Charity Shields.
In what year did Everton's second successful era begin?
570a87566d058f1900182f52
1961
81
False
Who was the manager when Everton's second successful era began in 1961?
570a87566d058f1900182f53
Harry Catterick
45
False
In what year did Everton win the FA cup in a 3-2 win over Sheffield?
570a87566d058f1900182f54
1966
164
False
In what year did Everton lose the FA cup final to West Bromwich Albion?
570a87566d058f1900182f55
Wembley
333
False
1961
81
What was the last year that Harry Catterick managed Everton?
5a3960ba2f14dd001ac722cd
True
3–2
196
What was the score of the first Everton game Harry Catterick managed?
5a3960ba2f14dd001ac722ce
True
3–2
196
What was the score of the final game between Everton and West Bromwich Albion in 1968?
5a3960ba2f14dd001ac722cf
True
Harry Catterick
45
Who coached Everton during the 1969-70 season?
5a3960ba2f14dd001ac722d0
True
Harry Catterick
45
Who coached Everton during the 1966-67 season?
5a3960ba2f14dd001ac722d1
True
Everton's second successful era started when Harry Catterick was made manager in 1961. In 1962–63, his second season in charge, Everton won the League title and in 1966 the FA Cup followed with a 3–2 win over Sheffield Wednesday. Everton again reached the final in 1968, but this time were unable to overcome West Bromwich Albion at Wembley. Two seasons later in 1969–70, Everton won the League championship, nine points clear of nearest rivals Leeds United. During this period, Everton were the first English club to achieve five consecutive years in European competitions—seasons 1961–62 to 1966–67.
Where did a group of fans demand that Everton remain within the city boundaries of?
570a87f76d058f1900182f5a
Liverpool
587
False
In what year was it revealed that Everton had entered talks to build a new 55,000 seat stadium in Kirkby?
570a87f76d058f1900182f5b
2006
11
False
Who did Everton enter talks with to build a new 55,000 seat stadium in Kirkby?
570a87f76d058f1900182f5c
Knowsley Council and Tesco
75
False
What percentage of fans were supportive of Everton's plans to build a new stadium in 2006?
570a87f76d058f1900182f5d
59
339
False
60,000
181
How many supporters voted on the ballot?
5a39739f2f14dd001ac72339
True
Knowsley Council
75
What was one of the local councils that opposed the planned stadium?
5a39739f2f14dd001ac7233a
True
55,000
141
How many people were in the group of fans that wanted Everton to stay inside the Liverpool city boundaries?
5a39739f2f14dd001ac7233b
True
16 June 2006
3
On what date was the ballot held?
5a39739f2f14dd001ac7233c
True
On 16 June 2006, it was announced that Everton had entered into talks with Knowsley Council and Tesco over the possibility of building a new 55,000 seat stadium, expandable to over 60,000, in Kirkby. The club took the unusual move of giving its supporters a say in the club's future by holding a ballot on the proposal, finding a split of 59% to 41% in favour. Opponents to the plan included other local councils concerned by the effect of a large Tesco store being built as part of the development, and a group of fans demanding that Everton should remain within the city boundaries of Liverpool.
How many travelling fans did Everton bring with them to Benefica in 2009?
570a88d14103511400d59822
7,000
423
False
How does the Everton FC promote fans to purchase away tickets?
570a88d14103511400d59823
loyalty points
118
False
In what year did Everton take 7,000 travelling fans with them to an away game?
570a88d14103511400d59824
2009
404
False
Aside from 2009, in what year did Everton FC bring the most fans with them to an away game?
570a88d14103511400d59825
1985
507
False
7,000
423
How many of Everton's travelling fans attended the 1985 European  Cup Winner's Cup Final?
5a39779b2f14dd001ac7235f
True
7,000
423
How many season ticket holders does Everton have?
5a39779b2f14dd001ac72360
True
7,000
423
How many travelling fans usually attend Benfica's games?
5a39779b2f14dd001ac72361
True
2009
404
In what year did Everton start its loyalty points scheme?
5a39779b2f14dd001ac72362
True
October
396
In what month was the 1985 European Cup Winners' Cup Final held?
5a39779b2f14dd001ac72363
True
Everton regularly take large numbers away from home both domestically and in European fixtures. The club implements a loyalty points scheme offering the first opportunity to purchase away tickets to season ticket holders who have attended the most away matches. Everton often sell out the full allocation in away grounds and tickets sell particularly well for North West England away matches. In October 2009, Everton took 7,000 travelling fans to Benfica, their largest ever away crowd in Europe since the 1985 European Cup Winners' Cup Final.
Who holds a majority of the shares in the Everton FC?
570a89ad6d058f1900182f74
the board of directors
39
False
What is the Everton FC's overdraft with Barclays Bank secured against?
570a89ad6d058f1900182f75
Basic Award Fund
330
False
What is the Premier League's "Basic Award Fund" for?
570a89ad6d058f1900182f76
competing in the Premier League
385
False
How much money did Everton FC borrow from Bear Stearns and Prudential in 2002?
570a89ad6d058f1900182f77
£30 million
453
False
How long does Everton FC have to pay back £30 million they borrowed from Bear Stearns and Prudential?
570a89ad6d058f1900182f78
25 years
531
False
£28.2
234
How much profit did Everton F.C. have in 2002?
5a3979ad2f14dd001ac72383
True
£120.5 million
203
How much debt was consolidated in 2002 by Everton?
5a3979ad2f14dd001ac72384
True
£120.5 million
203
How much collateral is there on Goodison Park?
5a3979ad2f14dd001ac72385
True
May
134
In what month in 2002 did Everton agree to a long-term loan?
5a3979ad2f14dd001ac72386
True
£30 million
453
How big is Everton's overdraft with Barclays Bank?
5a3979ad2f14dd001ac72387
True
Everton F.C. is a limited company with the board of directors holding a majority of the shares. The club's most recent accounts, from May 2014, show a net total debt of £28.1 million, with a turnover of £120.5 million and a profit of £28.2 million. The club's overdraft with Barclays Bank is secured against the Premier League's "Basic Award Fund", a guaranteed sum given to clubs for competing in the Premier League. Everton agreed a long-term loan of £30 million with Bear Stearns and Prudential plc in 2002 over the duration of 25 years; a consolidation of debts at the time as well as a source of capital for new player acquisitions. Goodison Park is secured as collateral.
Who is the Everton Football Club's biggest rivals?
570a8c064103511400d5983e
Liverpool
45
False
What derby does Everton FC contest against Liverpool?
570a8c064103511400d5983f
Merseyside
108
False
In what year was the Liverpool Football Club established?
570a8c064103511400d59840
1892
701
False
Where did Everton FC move to that began their rivalry with Liverpool?
570a8c064103511400d59841
Goodison Park
635
False
The Merseyside derby is also known as?
570a8c064103511400d59842
the "friendly derby"
177
False
1892
701
In what year was the Merseyside derby first held?
5a3978fb2f14dd001ac72371
True
red
255
What color does Everton fans wear?
5a3978fb2f14dd001ac72372
True
blue
263
What color does Liverpool fans wear?
5a3978fb2f14dd001ac72373
True
1892
701
In what year was Everton established?
5a3978fb2f14dd001ac72374
True
1892
701
In what year did Everton move to Goodison Park?
5a3978fb2f14dd001ac72375
True
Everton's biggest rivalry is with neighbours Liverpool, against whom they contest the Merseyside derby. The Merseyside derby is usually a sellout fixture, and has been known as the "friendly derby" because both sets of fans can often be seen side by side red and blue inside the stadium both at Anfield and Goodison Park. Recently on the field, matches tend to be extremely stormy affairs; the derby has had more red cards than any other fixture in Premiership history. The rivalry stems from an internal dispute between Everton officials and the owners of Anfield, which was then Everton's home ground, resulting in Everton moving to Goodison Park, and the subsequent formation of Liverpool F.C., in 1892.
What player holds the Everton Football Club record for most appearances?
570a8ca86d058f1900182f88
Neville Southall
0
False
Who currently holds the record for the most league clean sheets during a season?
570a8ca86d058f1900182f89
Tim Howard
287
False
Which former captain made 534 appearances with the Everton Football Club?
570a8ca86d058f1900182f8a
Brian Labone
344
False
Who was the longest serving goalkeeper for the Everton FC?
570a8ca86d058f1900182f8b
Ted Sagar
437
False
How many years did Ted Sagar play for the Everton Football Club?
570a8ca86d058f1900182f8c
23
462
False
American
267
What nationality is Neville Southall?
5a397b342f14dd001ac723a1
True
1997
122
In what year did Neville Southall get the record for the most league clean sheets during a season?
5a397b342f14dd001ac723a2
True
1981
113
In what year did Brian LaBone join Everton?
5a397b342f14dd001ac723a3
True
751
82
How many appearances did the American goalkeeper Tim Howard have?
5a397b342f14dd001ac723a4
True
2008
225
In what year did Dixie Dean join Everton?
5a397b342f14dd001ac723a5
True
Neville Southall holds the record for the most Everton appearances, having played 751 first-team matches between 1981 and 1997, and previously held the record for the most league clean sheets during a season (15). During the 2008–09 season, this record was beaten by American goalkeeper Tim Howard (17). The late centre half and former captain Brian Labone comes second, having played 534 times. The longest serving player is Goalkeeper Ted Sagar who played for 23 years between 1929 and 1953, both sides of the Second World War, making a total of 495 appearances. The club's top goalscorer, with 383 goals in all competitions, is Dixie Dean; the second-highest goalscorer is Graeme Sharp with 159. Dean still holds the English national record of most goals in a season, with 60.
How many fans were in attendance during Everton's match against Liverpool on September 18, 1948?
570a8df96d058f1900182f92
78,299
51
False
How many fans were injured in Everton's 1948 match against Liverpool that drew the largest crowd they've had?
570a8df96d058f1900182f93
1
124
False
Who was injured during Everton's record attendance match against Liverpool in 1948?
570a8df96d058f1900182f94
Tom Fleetwood
146
False
How many people does Goodison Park stadium hold?
570a8df96d058f1900182f95
under 40,000
465
False
How much did Everton FC pay to transfer Belgian forward Romelu Lukaku?
570a8df96d058f1900182f96
£28m
656
False
78,299
51
What's the smallest attendance ever for an Everton home match against Liverpool?
5a397c302f14dd001ac723b5
True
1948
92
In what year was the Taylor Report recommendations implemented?
5a397c302f14dd001ac723b6
True
£28m
656
What was Romelu Lukaku's highest pay for one season?
5a397c302f14dd001ac723b7
True
£28m
656
How much did it cost to build Goodison Park?
5a397c302f14dd001ac723b8
True
1948
92
In what year was Goodison Park built?
5a397c302f14dd001ac723b9
True
The record attendance for an Everton home match is 78,299 against Liverpool on 18 September 1948. Amazingly, there was only 1 injury at this game-Tom Fleetwood was hit on the head by a coin thrown from the crowd whilst he marched around the perimeter with St Edward's Orphanage Band, playing the cornet. Goodison Park, like all major English football grounds since the recommendations of the Taylor Report were implemented, is now an all-seater and only holds just under 40,000, meaning it is unlikely that this attendance record will ever be broken at Goodison. Everton's record transfer paid was to Chelsea for Belgian forward Romelu Lukaku for a sum of £28m. Everton bought the player after he played the previous year with the team on loan.
What was the name of Everton's professional basketball team?
570a8e676d058f1900182f9c
Tigers
88
False
In which league do the Everton Tigers compete?
570a8e676d058f1900182f9d
British Basketball League
121
False
When was the Everton Tigers team launched?
570a8e676d058f1900182f9e
2007
187
False
Where do the Everton Tigers play their home games?
570a8e676d058f1900182f9f
Greenbank Sports Academy
268
False
When did the Everton Tigers win the BBL Cup?
570a8e676d058f1900182fa0
2009
477
False
1968
383
In what year was Everton F.C. launched?
5a397e202f14dd001ac723d3
True
British Basketball League
121
What league does Everton F.C. play in?
5a397e202f14dd001ac723d4
True
Everton Tigers
80
Who won the first BBL Cup?
5a397e202f14dd001ac723d5
True
Greenbank Sports Academy
268
Where does Everton play its football games?
5a397e202f14dd001ac723d6
True
The club also owned and operated a professional basketball team, by the name of Everton Tigers, who compete in the elite British Basketball League. The team was launched in the summer of 2007 as part of the clubs' Community programme, and play their home games at the Greenbank Sports Academy. The team was an amalgam of the Toxteth Tigers community youth programme which started in 1968. The team quickly became one of the most successful in the league winning the BBL Cup in 2009 and the play-offs in 2010. However Everton withdrew funding before the 2010–11 season and the team was re launched as the Mersey Tigers.
What is the name of the Chilean team that has ties to the Everton FC?
570a8f876d058f1900182fb0
Everton de Viña del Mar
42
False
When did the two Everton Football Clubs (English and Chilean) face off against one another?
570a8f876d058f1900182fb1
2010
117
False
Who organized the friendly match between the English and Chilean Everton football clubs in 2010?
570a8f876d058f1900182fb2
The Ruleteros Society
282
False
What US city also has an Everton football team?
570a8f876d058f1900182fb3
Elk Grove
472
False
4 August 2010
108
On what date was Everton's California team established?
5a397ef02f14dd001ac723e3
True
2010
117
In what year was The Ruleteros Society founded?
5a397ef02f14dd001ac723e4
True
2010
117
In what year did Cork, Ireland's Everton team first play?
5a397ef02f14dd001ac723e5
True
Everton de Viña del Mar
42
What is the name of the California Everton team?
5a397ef02f14dd001ac723e6
True
Everton de Viña del Mar
42
What is the name of the Everton team in Rio Cuarto?
5a397ef02f14dd001ac723e7
True
Everton also have links with Chilean team Everton de Viña del Mar who were named after the English club. On 4 August 2010, the two Evertons played each other in a friendly named the Copa Hermandad at Goodison Park to mark the centenary of the Chilean team, an occasion organised by The Ruleteros Society, a society founded to promote connections between the two clubs. Other Evertons exist in Rosario in Colonia Department, Uruguay, La Plata, and Río Cuarto in Argentina, Elk Grove, California in the United States, and in Cork, Ireland.
What year did the Everton FC release their UK pop song "The Boys in Blue"?
570a90494103511400d59852
1984
213
False
What position did the song "Here We Go" by the Everton FC peak at on the UK pop charts in 1985?
570a90494103511400d59853
14
321
False
What was the name of the song that the Everton Football Club released in 1986?
570a90494103511400d59854
Everybody's Cheering The Blues
352
False
Who originally sang the song "All Together Now" that was reworked and released by Everton Football Club in 1995?
570a90494103511400d59855
The Farm
470
False
How many times has the Everton FC entered the UK pop charts?
570a90494103511400d59856
four
43
False
1984
213
In what year did The Farm release their first album?
5a397fc62f14dd001ac723f7
True
The Farm
470
Who performed "The Boys in Blue"?
5a397fc62f14dd001ac723f8
True
The Farm
470
Who performed "Here We Go"?
5a397fc62f14dd001ac723f9
True
The Farm
470
Which band released "Everybody's Cheering The Blues"?
5a397fc62f14dd001ac723fa
True
1986
328
In what year did The Farm perform "All Together Now"?
5a397fc62f14dd001ac723fb
True
The club have entered the UK pop charts on four occasions under different titles during the 1980s and 1990s when many clubs released a song to mark their reaching the FA Cup Final. "The Boys in Blue", released in 1984, peaked at number 82. The following year the club scored their biggest hit when "Here We Go" peaked at 14. In 1986 the club released "Everybody's Cheering The Blues" which reached number 83. "All Together Now", a reworking of a song by Merseyside band The Farm, was released for the 1995 FA Cup Final and reached number 27. When the club next reached the 2009 FA Cup Final, the tradition had passed into history and no song was released.
Who temporarily replaced Joe Royle as club captain after he resigned?
570a91194103511400d5985c
Dave Watson
359
False
In what year was Howard Kendall appointed manager of the Everton FC for the third time?
570a91194103511400d5985d
1997
439
False
Who took over for Howard Kendall after his third attempt at managing the Everton FC was unsuccessful?
570a91194103511400d5985e
Walter Smith
646
False
How many successive finishes did Walter Smith manage for the Everton FC?
570a91194103511400d5985f
three
726
False
What rank did Everton place in the 1997 Premiership league?
570a91194103511400d59860
seventeenth
505
False
1995–96
160
In what season did Heysel stop managing Everton?
5a39624f2f14dd001ac722e1
True
1997
439
In what year did Howard Kendall first manage Everton?
5a39624f2f14dd001ac722e2
True
1997
439
In what year did Howard Kendall manage Everton for the second time?
5a39624f2f14dd001ac722e3
True
1995–96
160
During what season was Dave Watson made club captain?
5a39624f2f14dd001ac722e4
True
Dave Watson
359
Who managed the Bolton Wanderers during the 1995-96 season?
5a39624f2f14dd001ac722e5
True
The cup triumph was also Everton's passport to the Cup Winners' Cup—their first European campaign in the post-Heysel era. Progress under Joe Royle continued in 1995–96 as they climbed to sixth place in the Premiership. A fifteenth-place finish the following season saw Royle resign towards the end of the campaign, to be temporarily replaced by club captain, Dave Watson. Howard Kendall was appointed Everton manager for the third time in 1997, but the appointment proved unsuccessful as Everton finished seventeenth in the Premiership; only avoiding relegation due to their superior goal difference over Bolton Wanderers. Former Rangers manager Walter Smith then took over from Kendall in the summer of 1998 but only managed three successive finishes in the bottom half of the table.
What year did the Everton Football Club "go blue"?
570a91fd6d058f1900182fb8
1901
176
False
How did Steve Bloomer describe Everton's style of play in 1928?
570a91fd6d058f1900182fb9
scientific
313
False
What is Everton Football Club's semi-official club nickname?
570a91fd6d058f1900182fba
The People's Club
539
False
What was Everton's nickname when they wore black before 1901?
570a91fd6d058f1900182fbb
The Black Watch
106
False
What was Everton Football Club called after winning the 1995 FA Cup?
570a91fd6d058f1900182fbc
The Dogs of War
459
False
Everton
0
Who did Steve Bloomer play for during his career?
5a396ad82f14dd001ac72309
True
1995
419
In what year did David Moyes arrive as manager of Everton?
5a396ad82f14dd001ac7230a
True
David Moyes
482
Who came up with the nickname "The Blues"?
5a396ad82f14dd001ac7230b
True
Everton
0
What team did Steve Bloomer manage later in his career?
5a396ad82f14dd001ac7230c
True
Everton have had many other nicknames over the years. When the black kit was worn Everton were nicknamed "The Black Watch", after the famous army regiment. Since going blue in 1901, Everton have been given the simple nickname "The Blues". Everton's attractive style of play led to Steve Bloomer calling the team "scientific" in 1928, which is thought to have inspired the nickname "The School of Science". The battling 1995 FA Cup winning side were known as "The Dogs of War". When David Moyes arrived as manager he proclaimed Everton as "The People's Club", which has been adopted as a semi-official club nickname.
Old_English
What is the name of the English language's earliest form?
570a82334103511400d597b4
Old English
0
False
In what parts of Scotland was Old English spoken?
570a82334103511400d597b5
southern and eastern
134
False
in what historical period was Old English spoken?
570a82334103511400d597b6
the early Middle Ages
167
False
What people brought Old English to Britain?
570a82334103511400d597b7
Anglo-Saxon settlers
225
False
What language developed from Old English?
570a82334103511400d597b8
Middle English
571
False
Old English
0
What is the oldest form of Anglo-Saxon?
5a6743e3f038b7001ab0c22a
True
Anglo-Saxon
43
What language first developed in Great Britain during the Middle Ages?
5a6743e3f038b7001ab0c22b
True
Anglo-Saxon settlers
225
Who came to Great Britain in the 500's?
5a6743e3f038b7001ab0c22c
True
the first Old English literary works
283
What writing dates back to the mid 700's?
5a6743e3f038b7001ab0c22d
True
Old English (Ænglisc, Anglisc, Englisc) or Anglo-Saxon is the earliest historical form of the English language, spoken in England and southern and eastern Scotland in the early Middle Ages. It was brought to Great Britain by Anglo-Saxon settlers probably in the mid 5th century, and the first Old English literary works date from the mid 7th century. After the Norman Conquest of 1066, English was replaced for a time as the language of the upper classes by Anglo-Norman, a relative of French, and Old English developed into the next historical form of English, known as Middle English.
Along with West Saxon, Northumbrian and Mercian, what was one of the four main dialects of Old English?
570a82934103511400d597c6
Kentish
73
False
What is a term that collectively refers to Northumbrian and Mercian?
570a82934103511400d597c7
Anglian
151
False
Geographically, what river was Northumbria north of?
570a82934103511400d597c8
Humber
223
False
What river was the Mercian region south of?
570a82934103511400d597c9
Humber
290
False
Which of the Old English dialects covered the smallest geograhical region?
570a82934103511400d597ca
Kentish
372
False
Mercian, Northumbrian, Kentish, and West Saxon.
50
What were the four main dialects of Old German?
5a679272f038b7001ab0c2d8
True
Mercian and Northumbrian
98
What two dialects were replaced with Anglian?
5a679272f038b7001ab0c2d9
True
Northumbrian
186
What region was south of the Thames and north of the Humber River?
5a679272f038b7001ab0c2da
True
The Kentish region
443
What region has the most literary remains?
5a679272f038b7001ab0c2db
True
The four main dialectal forms of Old English were Mercian, Northumbrian, Kentish, and West Saxon. Mercian and Northumbrian are together referred to as Anglian. In terms of geography the Northumbrian region lay north of the Humber River; the Mercian lay north of the Thames and South of the Humber River; West Saxon lay south and southwest of the Thames; and the smallest, Kentish region lay southeast of the Thames, a small corner of England. The Kentish region, settled by the Jutes from Jutland, has the scantiest literary remains.
From what language did Old English borrow some words?
570a83046d058f1900182ef4
Latin
57
False
What individuals introduced the Latin alphabet to the speakers of Old English?
570a83046d058f1900182ef5
Irish Christian missionaries
585
False
Before the introduction of the Latin alphabet, how was Old English written?
570a83046d058f1900182ef6
runic system
719
False
After the Norman Conquest, Latin words entered English via what language?
570a83046d058f1900182ef7
Old French
790
False
In what year did the Norman Conquest occur?
570a83046d058f1900182ef8
1066
859
False
Old English
0
What contains loan words from Western Europe?
5a679adbf038b7001ab0c32c
True
before the ancestral Angles and Saxons left continental Europe for Britain
363
When were words borrowed from the Germanic languages?
5a679adbf038b7001ab0c32d
True
when the Anglo-Saxons were converted to Christianity
465
When did English influence Latin words?
5a679adbf038b7001ab0c32e
True
Irish Christian missionaries
585
Who introduced the Irish language?
5a679adbf038b7001ab0c32f
True
Old English contained a certain number of loanwords from Latin, which was the scholarly and diplomatic lingua franca of Western Europe. It is sometimes possible to give approximate dates for the borrowing of individual Latin words based on which patterns of sound change they have undergone. Some Latin words had already been borrowed into the Germanic languages before the ancestral Angles and Saxons left continental Europe for Britain. More entered the language when the Anglo-Saxons were converted to Christianity and Latin-speaking priests became influential. It was also through Irish Christian missionaries that the Latin alphabet was introduced and adapted for the writing of Old English, replacing the earlier runic system. Nonetheless, the largest transfer of Latin-based (mainly Old French) words into English occurred after the Norman Conquest of 1066, and thus in the Middle English rather than the Old English period.
What type of gender did Old English nouns possess?
570a83576d058f1900182efe
grammatical
22
False
What type of gender is present in modern English nouns?
570a83576d058f1900182eff
natural
94
False
What was a masculine word in Old English?
570a83576d058f1900182f00
mōna
148
False
What was a feminine word in Old English?
570a83576d058f1900182f01
sunne
133
False
What was the grammatical gender of the Old English word for wife?
570a83576d058f1900182f02
neuter
227
False
nouns
12
what did not have a gender in Old English?
5a67a198f038b7001ab0c378
True
Pronoun
406
What is used to show gender in modern English?
5a67a198f038b7001ab0c379
True
a neuter noun
518
What type of noun refers to a female person in modern English?
5a67a198f038b7001ab0c37a
True
Old English nouns had grammatical gender, a feature absent in modern English, which uses only natural gender. For example, the words sunne ("sun"), mōna ("moon") and wīf ("woman/wife") were respectively feminine, masculine and neuter; this is reflected, among other things, in the form of the definite article used with these nouns: sēo sunne ("the sun"), se mōna ("the moon"), þæt wīf ("the woman/wife"). Pronoun usage could reflect either natural or grammatical gender, when those conflicted (as in the case of wīf, a neuter noun referring to a female person).
When the Latin alphabet was introduced to Old English, what letter was the same as v?
570a842b6d058f1900182f08
u
108
False
Along with k and z, what Latin letter was not used in Old English?
570a842b6d058f1900182f09
q
168
False
What is the term for the letter þ?
570a842b6d058f1900182f0a
thorn
341
False
What number was the Tironian note visually similar to?
570a842b6d058f1900182f0b
ƿ
361
False
What was the term for the letter ƿ?
570a842b6d058f1900182f0c
wynn
355
False
Macrons
643
What was originally used to mark long vowels?
5a67a413f038b7001ab0c3c0
True
as digraphs, representing a single sound.
433
What were most letter pairs used for?
5a67a413f038b7001ab0c3c1
True
The Latin alphabet of the time still lacked the letters ⟨j⟩ and ⟨w⟩, and there was no ⟨v⟩ as distinct from ⟨u⟩; moreover native Old English spellings did not use ⟨k⟩, ⟨q⟩ or ⟨z⟩. The remaining 20 Latin letters were supplemented by four more: ⟨æ⟩ (æsc, modern ash) and ⟨ð⟩ (ðæt, now called eth or edh), which were modified Latin letters, and thorn ⟨þ⟩ and wynn ⟨ƿ⟩, which are borrowings from the futhorc. A few letter pairs were used as digraphs, representing a single sound. Also used was the Tironian note ⟨⁊⟩ (a character similar to the digit 7) for the conjunction and, and a thorn with a crossbar through the ascender for the pronoun þæt. Macrons over vowels were originally used not to mark long vowels (as in modern editions), but to indicate stress, or as abbreviations for a following m or n.
What is regarded as the greatest literary work in Old English?
570a84d76d058f1900182f12
Beowulf
67
False
About how many lines was Beowulf?
570a84d76d058f1900182f13
3,000
91
False
Who was Hrothgar a descendant of?
570a84d76d058f1900182f14
Scyld
205
False
Who adopted Hrothgar's ancestor?
570a84d76d058f1900182f15
a noble family
262
False
Beowulf,
67
What is the longest Old English work?
5a67a637f038b7001ab0c3e6
True
washed ashore
232
Where was Hrothgar found as a baby?
5a67a637f038b7001ab0c3e7
True
Old English
382
Beowulf is typical of what prose?
5a67a637f038b7001ab0c3e8
True
The first example is taken from the opening lines of the folk-epic Beowulf, a poem of some 3,000 lines and the single greatest work of Old English. This passage describes how Hrothgar's legendary ancestor Scyld was found as a baby, washed ashore, and adopted by a noble family. The translation is literal and represents the original poetic word order. As such, it is not typical of Old English prose. The modern cognates of original words have been used whenever practical to give a close approximation of the feel of the original poem.
To what language group does Old English belong?
570a85246d058f1900182f1a
West Germanic
26
False
Along with Old Saxon, what language is closely related to Old English?
570a85246d058f1900182f1b
Old Frisian
81
False
To what modern language is Old English similar?
570a85246d058f1900182f1c
German
310
False
In what century did the Latin alphabet replace the runic system in Old English writing?
570a85246d058f1900182f1d
9th
519
False
Old Frisian and Old Saxon
81
What other Germanic languages are close to modern English?
5a677485f038b7001ab0c244
True
old Germanic languages
119
What is modern German very different from?
5a677485f038b7001ab0c245
True
a version of the Latin alphabet
552
What replaced runic writing in the 900's
5a677485f038b7001ab0c246
True
Old English is one of the West Germanic languages, and its closest relatives are Old Frisian and Old Saxon. Like other old Germanic languages, it is very different from Modern English and difficult for Modern English speakers to understand without study. Old English grammar is quite similar to that of modern German: nouns, adjectives, pronouns, and verbs have many inflectional endings and forms, and word order is much freer. The oldest Old English inscriptions were written using a runic system, but from about the 9th century this was replaced by a version of the Latin alphabet.
Who was known by the nickname "the Grammarian"?
570a85944103511400d59800
Ælfric of Eynsham
173
False
What churchman was influential in the development of the Winchester standard?
570a85944103511400d59801
Bishop Æthelwold of Winchester
92
False
In what century did the Winchester standard arise?
570a85944103511400d59802
10th
49
False
What is another term for the Winchester standard?
570a85944103511400d59803
Late West Saxon
296
False
What event led to English temporarily losing its importance as a literary language?
570a85944103511400d59804
the Norman Conquest
435
False
"Winchester standard",
253
What standard was established in the 1000's?
5a678d67f038b7001ab0c2b2
True
Late West Saxon.
296
What replaced the classic form of Old English?
5a678d67f038b7001ab0c2b3
True
Bishop Æthelwold of Winchester,
92
Who influenced literary standards in the 1000's?
5a678d67f038b7001ab0c2b4
True
Ælfric of Eynsham
173
What writer helped develop the Winchester standard?
5a678d67f038b7001ab0c2b5
True
A later literary standard, dating from the later 10th century, arose under the influence of Bishop Æthelwold of Winchester, and was followed by such writers as the prolific Ælfric of Eynsham ("the Grammarian"). This form of the language is known as the "Winchester standard", or more commonly as Late West Saxon. It is considered to represent the "classical" form of Old English. It retained its position of prestige until the time of the Norman Conquest, after which English ceased for a time to be of importance as a literary language.
For about how many years was Old English used?
570a85de6d058f1900182f36
700
62
False
In what century was Old English first used?
570a85de6d058f1900182f37
5th
123
False
In what century did Old English cease to be used?
570a85de6d058f1900182f38
11th
147
False
According to Albert Baugh, what was the period in which Old English was used?
570a85de6d058f1900182f39
450 to 1150
308
False
About what percentage of Old English words are not present in Modern English?
570a85de6d058f1900182f3a
85
388
False
Britain
108
Where did Anglo-Saxons settle in the 500's?
5a6776a5f038b7001ab0c254
True
Old English
0
What language stopped being used in Britain during the 1100's?
5a6776a5f038b7001ab0c255
True
Albert Baugh
272
Who claims Old English was in use for from 450 to 1150 years?
5a6776a5f038b7001ab0c256
True
Old English
403
85% of what language is still in use today?
5a6776a5f038b7001ab0c257
True
Old English was not static, and its usage covered a period of 700 years, from the Anglo-Saxon settlement of Britain in the 5th century to the late 11th century, some time after the Norman invasion. While indicating that the establishment of dates is an arbitrary process, Albert Baugh dates Old English from 450 to 1150, a period of full inflections, a synthetic language. Perhaps around 85 per cent of Old English words are no longer in use, but those that survived, to be sure, are basic elements of Modern English vocabulary.
From what Old English dialect is the standard for of Modern English descended?
570a86c76d058f1900182f40
Mercian
616
False
From what Old English dialect did Scots derive?
570a86c76d058f1900182f41
Northumbrian
679
False
What modern dialect is sometimes regarded as being similar to that of the historical Kingdom of Wessex?
570a86c76d058f1900182f42
Somerset
881
False
Along with centralization, what reason is given for the lack of records in non-Wessex dialects after the unification of Alfred?
570a86c76d058f1900182f43
the Viking invasions
39
False
non-Wessex dialects
110
What dialects disappeared after Alfred's unification?
5a679a05f038b7001ab0c324
True
Mercian
232
What scholars lead the movement to translate texts into English?
5a679a05f038b7001ab0c325
True
Middle and Modern English
484
What languages are descended from Mercian and West Saxon?
5a679a05f038b7001ab0c326
True
Somerset
881
What was the capital of the Anglo-Saxon kingdom?
5a679a05f038b7001ab0c327
True
Due to the centralisation of power and the Viking invasions, there is relatively little written record of the non-Wessex dialects after Alfred's unification. Some Mercian texts continued to be written, however, and the influence of Mercian is apparent in some of the translations produced under Alfred's programme, many of which were produced by Mercian scholars. Other dialects certainly continued to be spoken, as is evidenced by the continued variation between their successors in Middle and Modern English. In fact, what would become the standard forms of Middle English and of Modern English are descended from Mercian rather than West Saxon, while Scots developed from the Northumbrian dialect. It was once claimed that, owing to its position at the heart of the Kingdom of Wessex, the relics of Anglo-Saxon accent, idiom and vocabulary were best preserved in the dialect of Somerset.
What language influenced Old English as a result of the Viking invasions?
570a877e4103511400d5980a
Danish
259
False
What language was spoken in Northern England after the Viking invasions?
570a877e4103511400d5980b
Old Norse
618
False
Between the English and Scandinavian language, what elements were most different?
570a877e4103511400d5980c
inflectional
941
False
Danish
259
What language was influenced by English as a result of Viking invasions?
5a679e07f038b7001ab0c358
True
Old English
632
What language replace Norse in Northern England?
5a679e07f038b7001ab0c359
True
inflectional elements
941
What did English and Scandinavian have in common?
5a679e07f038b7001ab0c35a
True
the mixed population which existed in the Danelaw
1110
What led to a simpler Norse grammar?
5a679e07f038b7001ab0c35b
True
The strength of the Viking influence on Old English appears from the fact that the indispensable elements of the language - pronouns, modals, comparatives, pronominal adverbs (like "hence" and "together"), conjunctions and prepositions - show the most marked Danish influence; the best evidence of Scandinavian influence appears in the extensive word borrowings for, as Jespersen indicates, no texts exist in either Scandinavia or in Northern England from this time to give certain evidence of an influence on syntax. The change to Old English from Old Norse was substantive, pervasive, and of a democratic character. Old Norse and Old English resembled each other closely like cousins and with some words in common, they roughly understood each other; in time the inflections melted away and the analytic pattern emerged. It is most “important to recognize that in many words the English and Scandinavian language differed chiefly in their inflectional elements. The body of the word was so nearly the same in the two languages that only the endings would put obstacles in the way of mutual understanding. In the mixed population which existed in the Danelaw these endings must have led to much confusion, tending gradually to become obscured and finally lost.” This blending of peoples and languages happily resulted in “simplifying English grammar.”
What trait does Old English possess that Modern English lacks?
570a87ef4103511400d59810
morphological diversity
57
False
Along with the nominative, genitive, dative and instrumental, what case did Old English possess?
570a87ef4103511400d59811
accusative
135
False
The Modern English ending -'s is derived from what ending in Old English?
570a87ef4103511400d59812
-es
427
False
In Old English, noun endings vary on what basis?
570a87ef4103511400d59813
their case
527
False
morphological diversity
57
What kind of diversity is found in Modern English?
5a679e75f038b7001ab0c360
True
the forms of a few pronouns
254
What were examples of morphology in Old English and Old Norse?
5a679e75f038b7001ab0c361
True
Unlike Modern English, Old English is a language rich in morphological diversity. It maintains several distinct cases: the nominative, accusative, genitive, dative and (vestigially) instrumental. The only remnants of this system in Modern English are in the forms of a few pronouns (such as I/me/mine, she/her, who/whom/whose) and in the possessive ending -'s, which derives from the old (masculine and neuter) genitive ending -es. In Old English, however, nouns and their modifying words take appropriate endings depending on their case.
What language had the greatest influence on English?
570a88636d058f1900182f62
Old Norse
17
False
What was the name of the area in England ruled by the Vikings?
570a88636d058f1900182f63
the Danelaw
259
False
Who argued that the influence of Old Norse caused English to become a clearer, stronger and more direct language?
570a88636d058f1900182f64
Simeon Potter
418
False
What parts of English grammar declined as a result of Old Norse influence?
570a88636d058f1900182f65
word-endings
404
False
Old Norse
17
What influence made English more of a synthetic language?
5a679cb7f038b7001ab0c33c
True
Old Norse
138
What language had the most impact on other languages?
5a679cb7f038b7001ab0c33d
True
The eagerness of Vikings in the Danelaw to communicate with their southern Anglo-Saxon neighbors
231
Why did the Vikings stop using complicated word-endings?
5a679cb7f038b7001ab0c33e
True
English
49
What did the Norse language gain clarity and directness from?
5a679cb7f038b7001ab0c33f
True
The influence of Old Norse certainly helped move English from a synthetic language along the continuum to a more analytic word order, and Old Norse most likely made a greater impact on the English language than any other language. The eagerness of Vikings in the Danelaw to communicate with their southern Anglo-Saxon neighbors produced a friction that led to the erosion of the complicated inflectional word-endings. Simeon Potter notes: “No less far-reaching was the influence of Scandinavian upon the inflexional endings of English in hastening that wearing away and leveling of grammatical forms which gradually spread from north to south. It was, after all, a salutary influence. The gain was greater than the loss. There was a gain in directness, in clarity, and in strength.”
Along with the present, what was a verb tense in Old English?
570a88dd6d058f1900182f6a
past
116
False
What were the three moods that caused verb variation in Old English?
570a88dd6d058f1900182f6b
indicative, subjunctive and imperative
133
False
Along with the first and second, what person influenced verb variation in Old English?
570a88dd6d058f1900182f6c
third
59
False
What is an example of a suffix used by Old English weak verbs?
570a88dd6d058f1900182f6d
-de
506
False
How did Old English strong verbs express the past tense?
570a88dd6d058f1900182f6e
altering the root vowel
438
False
compound constructions
206
What does modern English use to express verbal aspects?
5a67a255f038b7001ab0c392
True
strong verbs
395
What forms the past tense in Modern English?
5a67a255f038b7001ab0c393
True
dental suffixes
769
What no longer indicates the past tense of weak verbs?
5a67a255f038b7001ab0c394
True
The form of the verb varies with person (first, second and third), number (singular and plural), tense (present and past), and mood (indicative, subjunctive and imperative). Old English also sometimes uses compound constructions to express other verbal aspects, the future and the passive voice; in these we see the beginnings of the compound tenses of Modern English. Old English verbs include strong verbs, which form the past tense by altering the root vowel, and weak verbs, which use a suffix such as -de. As in Modern English, and peculiar to the Germanic languages, the verbs formed two great classes: weak (regular), and strong (irregular). Like today, Old English had fewer strong verbs, and many of these have over time decayed into weak forms. Then, as now, dental suffixes indicated the past tense of the weak verbs, as in work and worked.
What language family does Old English belong to?
570a89404103511400d5982a
West Germanic
17
False
What is another name for Ingvaeonic?
570a89404103511400d5982b
North Sea Germanic
85
False
In what century did Old English first develop?
570a89404103511400d5982c
5th
123
False
What Anglo-Saxon kingdom ruled parts of modern-day Scotland?
570a89404103511400d5982d
Northumbria
413
False
What language was spoken in Cornwall?
570a89404103511400d5982e
Medieval Cornish
663
False
Ingvaeonic
59
What Germanic dialects are from the 500's?
5a6787d6f038b7001ab0c284
True
Scotland
336
Who did the Anglo-Saxon kingdom of Northuumbria belong to?
5a6787d6f038b7001ab0c285
True
Cumbric
747
What language survived in Cumbria until the 1200's?
5a6787d6f038b7001ab0c286
True
Old Norse
572
What language replace Old English in Scandinavian settlements?
5a6787d6f038b7001ab0c287
True
Old English is a West Germanic language, developing out of Ingvaeonic (also known as North Sea Germanic) dialects from the 5th century. It came to be spoken over most of the territory of the Anglo-Saxon kingdoms which became the Kingdom of England. This included most of present-day England, as well as part of what is now southeastern Scotland, which for several centuries belonged to the Anglo-Saxon kingdom of Northumbria. Other parts of the island – Wales and most of Scotland – continued to use Celtic languages, except in the areas of Scandinavian settlements where Old Norse was spoken. Celtic speech also remained established in certain parts of England: Medieval Cornish was spoken all over Cornwall and in adjacent parts of Devon, while Cumbric survived perhaps to the 12th century in parts of Cumbria, and Welsh may have been spoken on the English side of the Anglo-Welsh border. Norse was also widely spoken in the parts of England which fell under Danish law.
What is an important Old English historical record?
570a8ed26d058f1900182fa6
the Anglo-Saxon Chronicle
96
False
What is an important Old English religious poem?
570a8ed26d058f1900182fa7
Cædmon's Hymn
220
False
What type of literary work is Beowulf?
570a8ed26d058f1900182fa8
an epic poem
82
False
Who is the earliest English poet known by name?
570a8ed26d058f1900182fa9
Cædmon
681
False
Where did Cædmon live?
570a8ed26d058f1900182faa
Whitby
776
False
Beowulf
73
What is the oldest surviving Old English literature?
5a67a5aff038b7001ab0c3d4
True
whalebone
196
What is the Anglo-Saxon Chronicle carved on?
5a67a5aff038b7001ab0c3d5
True
poetry
529
What is considered the heart of world literature?
5a67a5aff038b7001ab0c3d6
True
authors
610
Who are usually well known among the Anglo-Saxons?
5a67a5aff038b7001ab0c3d7
True
Some of the most important surviving works of Old English literature are Beowulf, an epic poem; the Anglo-Saxon Chronicle, a record of early English history; the Franks Casket, an inscribed early whalebone artefact; and Cædmon's Hymn, a Christian religious poem. There are also a number of extant prose works, such as sermons and saints' lives, biblical translations, and translated Latin works of the early Church Fathers, legal documents, such as laws and wills, and practical works on grammar, medicine, and geography. Still, poetry is considered the heart of Old English literature. Nearly all Anglo-Saxon authors are anonymous, with a few exceptions, such as Bede and Cædmon. Cædmon, the earliest English poet we know by name, served as a lay brother in the monastery at Whitby.
What is another name for Anglo-Frisian?
570a99ad6d058f1900182fe0
North Sea Germanic
53
False
Along with the Angles and Saxons, what tribe spoke Anglo-Frisian?
570a99ad6d058f1900182fe1
Jutes
165
False
What language family did Common Brittonic belong to?
570a99ad6d058f1900182fe2
Celtic
296
False
How was the Latin language brought to Britain?
570a99ad6d058f1900182fe3
Roman invasion
346
False
In what century did Scandinavian settlement begin in northern England?
570a99ad6d058f1900182fe4
9th
836
False
a set of Anglo-Frisian or North Sea Germanic dialects
27
What Germanic dialects developed from Old English?
5a676f6df038b7001ab0c232
True
Angles, Saxons, and Jutes
145
Whose language was replaced by Common Brittonic?
5a676f6df038b7001ab0c233
True
Latin
317
What language replace Common Brittonic after the Roman invasion?
5a676f6df038b7001ab0c234
True
Scandinavian
786
What people ruled the eastern and northern parts of England beginning in the 900's?
5a676f6df038b7001ab0c235
True
Old English developed from a set of Anglo-Frisian or North Sea Germanic dialects originally spoken by Germanic tribes traditionally known as the Angles, Saxons, and Jutes. As the Anglo-Saxons became dominant in England, their language replaced the languages of Roman Britain: Common Brittonic, a Celtic language, and Latin, brought to Britain by Roman invasion. Old English had four main dialects, associated with particular Anglo-Saxon kingdoms: Mercian, Northumbrian, Kentish and West Saxon. It was West Saxon that formed the basis for the literary standard of the later Old English period, although the dominant forms of Middle and Modern English would develop mainly from Mercian. The speech of eastern and northern parts of England was subject to strong Old Norse influence due to Scandinavian rule and settlement beginning in the 9th century.
What king unified the Anglo-Saxon realms in England?
570a9a216d058f1900182fea
Alfred the Great
74
False
What treatise was written by Pope Gregory?
570a9a216d058f1900182feb
Pastoral Care
389
False
When did Alfred the Great's reign begin?
570a9a216d058f1900182fec
871
566
False
In what century did Alfred unify Anglo-Saxon England?
570a9a216d058f1900182fed
9th
104
False
What dialect did Alfred's government use?
570a9a216d058f1900182fee
West Saxon
190
False
Alfred the Great
74
Who unified the Anglo-Saxon kingdoms in the 900's?
5a678b05f038b7001ab0c2aa
True
Alfred the Great
74
Who advocated making Latin the language of education?
5a678b05f038b7001ab0c2ab
True
Pastoral Care
389
What treatise did Pope Gregory I have translated into English?
5a678b05f038b7001ab0c2ac
True
King Alfred the Great
543
What Anglo-Saxon king died in the 9th century?
5a678b05f038b7001ab0c2ad
True
With the unification of the Anglo-Saxon kingdoms (outside the Danelaw) by Alfred the Great in the later 9th century, the language of government and literature became standardised around the West Saxon dialect (Early West Saxon). Alfred advocated education in English alongside Latin, and had many works translated into the English language; some of them, such as Pope Gregory I's treatise Pastoral Care, appear to have been translated by Alfred himself. In Old English, typical of the development of literature, poetry arose before prose, but King Alfred the Great (871 to 901) chiefly inspired the growth of prose.
Along with Northumbria, what kingdom was invaded by the Vikings?
570a9aba4103511400d59870
Mercia
139
False
Along with the part of Mercia not conquered by the Vikings, what other kingdom was combined with Wessex by Alfred?
570a9aba4103511400d59871
Kent
264
False
What is the modern name for the West Saxon dialect of Alfred's time?
570a9aba4103511400d59872
Early West Saxon
400
False
From what language was literature notably translated into West Saxon?
570a9aba4103511400d59873
Latin
571
False
North of what river in Northumbria was the kingdom not overrun by the Vikings?
570a9aba4103511400d59874
Tyne
121
False
Vikings
167
Who over ran most of Mercia in the 900's?
5a6794bef038b7001ab0c2fe
True
Alfred the Great
309
Who defended Kent from the Vikings?
5a6794bef038b7001ab0c2ff
True
Early West Saxon
400
What became the standard language in the 900's?
5a6794bef038b7001ab0c300
True
Latin
571
What language was West Saxon literature translated to?
5a6794bef038b7001ab0c301
True
Each of these four dialects was associated with an independent kingdom on the island. Of these, Northumbria south of the Tyne, and most of Mercia, were overrun by the Vikings during the 9th century. The portion of Mercia that was successfully defended, and all of Kent, were then integrated into Wessex under Alfred the Great. From that time on, the West Saxon dialect (then in the form now known as Early West Saxon) became standardised as the language of government, and as the basis for the many works of literature and religious materials produced or translated from Latin in that period.
During what century did Cnut rule?
570a9b464103511400d5987a
11th
231
False
What was Cnut's nationality?
570a9b464103511400d5987b
Danish
205
False
During what century did Scandinavians begin to settle in England?
570a9b464103511400d5987c
9th
154
False
What language was a source for English loanwords that are still used today?
570a9b464103511400d5987d
Old Norse
32
False
Along with eastern England, what part of England contains many place names of Scandinavian origin?
570a9b464103511400d5987e
northern
277
False
via the Scandinavian rulers and settlers in the Danelaw
84
How did the Norse borrow words from Old English?
5a679bd7f038b7001ab0c334
True
Scandinavian rulers and settlers
92
Who influenced the English language starting in the 900's?
5a679bd7f038b7001ab0c335
True
Cnut and other Danish kings
190
Who ruled in the 1100's?
5a679bd7f038b7001ab0c336
True
Norse influence
975
What led to more complicated grammar after the Old English period?
5a679bd7f038b7001ab0c337
True
Another source of loanwords was Old Norse, which came into contact with Old English via the Scandinavian rulers and settlers in the Danelaw from the late 9th century, and during the rule of Cnut and other Danish kings in the early 11th century. Many place-names in eastern and northern England are of Scandinavian origin. Norse borrowings are relatively rare in Old English literature, being mostly terms relating to government and administration. The literary standard, however, was based on the West Saxon dialect, away from the main area of Scandinavian influence; the impact of Norse may have been greater in the eastern and northern dialects. Certainly in Middle English texts, which are more often based on eastern dialects, a strong Norse influence becomes apparent. Modern English contains a great many, often everyday, words that were borrowed from Old Norse, and the grammatical simplification that occurred after the Old English period is also often attributed to Norse influence.
What form of c, when written, contains a dot over the letter?
570a9bd44103511400d59884
palatal
578
False
What conventional letter from the Latin alphabet typically replaces the wynn from Old English?
570a9bd44103511400d59885
w
690
False
What letter from the Latin alphabet replaces the Old English insular G?
570a9bd44103511400d59886
g
147
False
What Latin letter is used in place of the Old English long S?
570a9bd44103511400d59887
s
178
False
When eth is replaced, what is it replaced by?
570a9bd44103511400d59888
thorn
771
False
Modern editions
0
What removes some conventions from Old English manuscripts?
5a67a4dcf038b7001ab0c3ce
True
Macrons
285
What are used to indicate short vowels?
5a67a4dcf038b7001ab0c3cf
True
long and short vowels
373
What kind of vowels have no distinction in Old English?
5a67a4dcf038b7001ab0c3d0
True
Modern editions of Old English manuscripts generally introduce some additional conventions. The modern forms of Latin letters are used, including ⟨g⟩ in place of the insular G, ⟨s⟩ for long S, and others which may differ considerably from the insular script, notably ⟨e⟩, ⟨f⟩ and ⟨r⟩. Macrons are used to indicate long vowels, where usually no distinction was made between long and short vowels in the originals. (In some older editions an acute accent mark was used for consistency with Old Norse conventions.) Additionally, modern editions often distinguish between velar and palatal ⟨c⟩ and ⟨g⟩ by placing dots above the palatals: ⟨ċ⟩, ⟨ġ⟩. The letter wynn ⟨ƿ⟩ is usually replaced with ⟨w⟩, but æsc, eth and thorn are normally retained (except when eth is replaced by thorn).
What modern religion sometimes uses Old English?
570a9c454103511400d59898
Neo-Paganism
314
False
What hobby champions the use of Old English?
570a9c454103511400d59899
Historical re-enactment
331
False
Along with Tolkien, what modern scholar notably made use of Old English?
570a9c454103511400d5989a
Alistair Campbell
242
False
What Wikipedia project makes use of the Old English language?
570a9c454103511400d5989b
the Old English Wikipedia
483
False
What is a term for modern texts written in Old English?
570a9c454103511400d5989c
Neo-Old English
526
False
Old English
33
What is one of the few languages imitated by scholars?
5a67a71af038b7001ab0c3ec
True
J. R. R. Tolkien
264
What author promoted the active use of Old English?
5a67a71af038b7001ab0c3ed
True
the Old English Wikipedia
483
What Wikipedia project translate Old English texts?
5a67a71af038b7001ab0c3ee
True
Alistair Campbell and J. R. R. Tolkien
242
What modern authors wrote exclusively in Old English?
5a67a71af038b7001ab0c3ef
True
Like other historical languages, Old English has been used by scholars and enthusiasts of later periods to create texts either imitating Anglo-Saxon literature or deliberately transferring it to a different cultural context. Examples include Alistair Campbell and J. R. R. Tolkien. A number of websites devoted to Neo-Paganism and Historical re-enactment offer reference material and forums promoting the active use of Old English. By far the most ambitious project[peacock term] is the Old English Wikipedia, but most of the Neo-Old English texts published online bear little resemblance to the historical model and are riddled with very basic grammatical mistakes.
Old English
0
What was written using the Germanic 24-character elder Furthark?
5a67a352f038b7001ab0c3ac
True
five
137
How many Anglo-Saxon vowels were there?
5a67a352f038b7001ab0c3ad
True
half-uncial script
335
What script came into use in the 900's?
5a67a352f038b7001ab0c3ae
True
Irish Christian missionaries.
390
Who introduced a Latin script in the 900's?
5a67a352f038b7001ab0c3af
True
Carolingian minuscule
579
What writing form came into use in the 1200's?
5a67a352f038b7001ab0c3b0
True
Old English was first written in runes, using the futhorc – a rune set derived from the Germanic 24-character elder futhark, extended by five more runes used to represent Anglo-Saxon vowel sounds, and sometimes by several more additional characters. From around the 9th century, the runic system came to be supplanted by a (minuscule) half-uncial script of the Latin alphabet introduced by Irish Christian missionaries. This was replaced by insular script, a cursive and pointed version of the half-uncial script. This was used until the end of the 12th century when continental Carolingian minuscule (also known as Caroline) replaced the insular.
Aircraft_carrier
What type of carrier is the largest?
570a9c066d058f1900182ff4
fleet carrier
2
False
What capability does a fleet carrier offer?
570a9c066d058f1900182ff5
offensive
83
False
What purpose were excort carriers developed for?
570a9c066d058f1900182ff6
to provide defense for convoys of ships
206
False
What were most escort carriers built from?
570a9c066d058f1900182ff7
mercantile hulls
337
False
What are the soviet aircraft carriers used by Russia actually called?
570a9c066d058f1900182ff8
heavy aviation cruisers
660
False
fleet carrier
2
What type of carrier is the smallest?
5acd6dd107355d001abf41b8
True
offensive
83
What capability does a fleet carrier not offer?
5acd6dd107355d001abf41b9
True
provide defense for convoys of ships
209
What purpose were export carriers developed for?
5acd6dd107355d001abf41ba
True
mercantile hulls
337
What were few escort carriers built from?
5acd6dd107355d001abf41bb
True
heavy aviation cruisers
660
What are the soviet aircraft carriers used by Germany actually called?
5acd6dd107355d001abf41bc
True
A fleet carrier is intended to operate with the main fleet and usually provides an offensive capability. These are the largest carriers capable of fast speeds. By comparison, escort carriers were developed to provide defense for convoys of ships. They were smaller and slower with lower numbers of aircraft carried. Most were built from mercantile hulls or, in the case of merchant aircraft carriers, were bulk cargo ships with a flight deck added on top. Light aircraft carriers were carriers that were fast enough to operate with the fleet but of smaller size with reduced aircraft capacity. Soviet aircraft carriers now in use by Russia are actually called heavy aviation cruisers, these ships while sized in the range of large fleet carriers were designed to deploy alone or with escorts and provide both strong defensive weaponry and heavy offensive missiles equivalent to a guided missile cruiser in addition to supporting fighters and helicopters.
What type of aircraft carrier was the USS Bogue?
570a9dde6d058f1900182ffe
Escort
274
False
What type of aircraft was the USS Independence?
570a9dde6d058f1900182fff
light
515
False
What advantage did light carriers have over escort carriers?
570a9dde6d058f1900183000
speed
733
False
What was the expected serice life of the UK 1942 Design Light Fleet Carrier?
570a9dde6d058f1900183001
3 years
913
False
Who did the UK 1941 Design Light Fleet Carriers serve during the war?
570a9dde6d058f1900183002
Royal Navy
938
False
Escort
274
What type of aircraft carrier was the USS Vogue?
5acd712607355d001abf4266
True
light
515
What type of tank was the USS Independence?
5acd712607355d001abf4267
True
speed
733
What advantage did heavy carriers have over escort carriers?
5acd712607355d001abf4268
True
3 years
913
What was the expected service life of the UK 1924 Design Light Fleet Carrier?
5acd712607355d001abf4269
True
Royal Navy
938
Who did the UK 1941 Design Heavy Fleet Carriers serve during the war?
5acd712607355d001abf426a
True
This new-found importance of naval aviation forced nations to create a number of carriers, in efforts to provide air superiority cover for every major fleet in order to ward off enemy aircraft. This extensive usage required the construction of several new 'light' carriers. Escort aircraft carriers, such as USS Bogue, were sometimes purpose-built, but most were converted from merchant ships as a stop-gap measure to provide anti-submarine air support for convoys and amphibious invasions. Following this concept, light aircraft carriers built by the US, such as USS Independence, represented a larger, more "militarized" version of the escort carrier. Although with similar complement to Escort carriers, they had the advantage of speed from their converted cruiser hulls. The UK 1942 Design Light Fleet Carrier was designed for building quickly by civilian shipyards and with an expected service life of about 3 years. They served the Royal Navy during the war and was the hull design chosen for nearly all aircraft carrier equipped navies after the war until the 1980s. Emergencies also spurred the creation or conversion of highly unconventional aircraft carriers. CAM ships, were cargo-carrying merchant ships that could launch (but not retrieve) a single fighter aircraft from a catapult to defend the convoy from long range German aircraft.
When did Russia's United Shipbuilding Corporation expect to begin design work for a new carrier?
570aa5244103511400d598c0
2016
173
False
What year was the goal for Russia's new carrier to achieve initial operational capability?
570aa5244103511400d598c1
2023
290
False
What was Izvestiya?
570aa5244103511400d598c2
Russian newspaper
341
False
Where was the Northern Fleets nuclear-powered aircraft carrier supposed to be stationed?
570aa5244103511400d598c3
Murmansk
699
False
Where was the Pacific Fleets nuclear-powered aircraft carrier supposed to be stationed?
570aa5244103511400d598c4
Vladivostok
769
False
2016
173
When did Prussia's United Shipbuilding Corporation expect to begin design work for a new carrier?
5acd750707355d001abf432c
True
2023
290
What year was the goal for Russia's old carrier to achieve initial operational capability?
5acd750707355d001abf432d
True
Russian newspaper
341
What wasn't Izvestiya?
5acd750707355d001abf432e
True
Murmansk
699
Where was the Southern Fleets nuclear-powered aircraft carrier supposed to be stationed?
5acd750707355d001abf432f
True
Vladivostok
769
Where was the Atlantic Fleets nuclear-powered aircraft carrier supposed to be stationed?
5acd750707355d001abf4330
True
Speaking in St. Petersburg, Russia on 30 June 2011, the head of Russia's United Shipbuilding Corporation said his company expected to begin design work for a new carrier in 2016, with a goal of beginning construction in 2018 and having the carrier achieve initial operational capability by 2023. Several months later, on 3 November 2011 the Russian newspaper Izvestiya reported that the naval building plan now included (first) the construction of a new shipyard capable of building large hull ships, after which Moscow will build two (80,000 tons full load each) nuclear-powered aircraft carriers by 2027. The spokesperson said one carrier would be assigned to the Russian Navy's Northern Fleet at Murmansk, and the second would be stationed with the Pacific Fleet at Vladivostok.
What are typically regarded as "runways at sea"?
570aa9236d058f1900183026
aircraft carriers
21
False
What design feature do aircraft carriers feature to aid in launching and recovering aircraft?
570aa9236d058f1900183027
flat-top flight deck
46
False
Where are the most notable differences between a carrier and a land runway found?
570aa9236d058f1900183028
The flight deck
177
False
What is a primary reason that ships have shorter runways than land runways have?
570aa9236d058f1900183029
a full-length runway would be costly to construct and maintain
395
False
What do aircraft need to do when using shorter runway lengths?
570aa9236d058f190018302a
accelerate more quickly to gain lift
554
False
aircraft carriers
21
What are never regarded as "runways at sea"?
5acd78c707355d001abf43bc
True
flat-top flight deck
46
What design feature do aircraft carriers feature to hinder launching and recovering aircraft?
5acd78c707355d001abf43bd
True
The flight deck
177
Where are the least notable differences between a carrier and a land runway found?
5acd78c707355d001abf43be
True
a full-length runway would be costly to construct and maintain
395
What is a primary reason that ships have longer runways than land runways have?
5acd78c707355d001abf43bf
True
accelerate more quickly to gain lift
554
What do aircraft need to do when using longer runway lengths?
5acd78c707355d001abf43c0
True
As "runways at sea", aircraft carriers have a flat-top flight deck, which launches and recovers aircraft. Aircraft launch forward, into the wind, and are recovered from astern. The flight deck is where the most notable differences between a carrier and a land runway are found. Creating such a surface at sea poses constraints on the carrier – for example, the fact that it is a ship means that a full-length runway would be costly to construct and maintain. This affects take-off procedure, as a shorter runway length of the deck requires that aircraft accelerate more quickly to gain lift. This either requires a thrust boost, a vertical component to its velocity, or a reduced take-off load (to lower mass). The differing types of deck configuration, as above, influence the structure of the flight deck. The form of launch assistance a carrier provides is strongly related to the types of aircraft embarked and the design of the carrier itself.
When did conventional carriers start recovering aircraft at an angle to port of the axial line of the ship?
570aacc26d058f1900183068
early 1950s
10
False
What risk is avoided by aircraft by using an angled deck?
570aacc26d058f1900183069
hitting aircraft parked forward
306
False
How many "waist" catapults can be installed with an angled deck?
570aacc26d058f190018306a
one or two
382
False
How man bow cats can be installed with an angled deck?
570aacc26d058f190018306b
two
430
False
What aircraft design feature improves launch and recovery cycle flexibilty?
570aacc26d058f190018306c
An angled deck
444
False
early 1950s
10
When did conventional carriers stop recovering aircraft at an angle to port of the axial line of the ship?
5acd7e8407355d001abf4462
True
hitting aircraft parked forward
306
What risk is added by aircraft by using an angled deck?
5acd7e8407355d001abf4463
True
one or two
382
How many "waste" catapults can be installed with an angled deck?
5acd7e8407355d001abf4464
True
two
430
How man bow dogs can be installed with an angled deck?
5acd7e8407355d001abf4465
True
angled deck
447
What aircraft design feature improves launch and recovery cycle rigidity?
5acd7e8407355d001abf4466
True
Since the early 1950s on conventional carriers it has been the practice to recover aircraft at an angle to port of the axial line of the ship. The primary function of this angled deck is to allow aircraft that miss the arresting wires, referred to as a bolter, to become airborne again without the risk of hitting aircraft parked forward. The angled deck allows the installation of one or two "waist" catapults in addition to the two bow cats. An angled deck also improves launch and recovery cycle flexibility with the option of simultaneous launching and recovery of aircraft.
Where are ski-jump ramps located on aircraft carriers?
570aae5d4103511400d5991e
the forward end of the flight deck
62
False
What did ski-jump ramps allow STOVL aircraft to do that they couldn't do with a flat deck??
570aae5d4103511400d5991f
take off at far higher weights
153
False
Who originally developed the ski-jump ramp?
570aae5d4103511400d59920
the Royal Navy
275
False
What does a ski-jump ramp convert in order to be successful?
570aae5d4103511400d59921
some of the forward rolling movement of the aircraft into vertical velocity
390
False
What does the ski-jump ramp prevent a fully loaded and fueled aircraft from doing?
570aae5d4103511400d59922
either stalling out or crashing directly into the sea
823
False
forward end of the flight deck
66
Where are snowboard-jump ramps located on aircraft carriers?
5acd830507355d001abf44f0
True
take off at far higher weights
153
What did ski-jump ramps stop STOVL aircraft to do that they couldn't do with a flat deck?
5acd830507355d001abf44f1
True
the Royal Navy
275
Who originally hated the ski-jump ramp?
5acd830507355d001abf44f2
True
some of the forward rolling movement of the aircraft into vertical velocity
390
What does a ski-jump ramp convert in order to be a failure?
5acd830507355d001abf44f3
True
either stalling out or crashing directly into the sea
823
What does the ski-jump ramp prevent a unloaded and fueled aircraft from doing?
5acd830507355d001abf44f4
True
Another deck structure that can be seen is a ski-jump ramp at the forward end of the flight deck. This was first developed to help launch STOVL aircraft take off at far higher weights than is possible with a vertical or rolling takeoff on flat decks. Originally developed by the Royal Navy, it since has been adopted by many navies for smaller carriers. A ski-jump ramp works by converting some of the forward rolling movement of the aircraft into vertical velocity and is sometimes combined with the aiming of jet thrust partly downwards. This allows heavily loaded and fueled aircraft a few more precious seconds to attain sufficient air velocity and lift to sustain normal flight. Without a ski-jump launching fully loaded and fueled aircraft such as the Harrier would not be possible on a smaller flat deck ship before either stalling out or crashing directly into the sea.
What type of flight decks are aircraft carriers equipped with?
570ab06e4103511400d59932
full-length
84
False
What purpose do aircraft carriers serve for aircraft?
570ab06e4103511400d59933
carrying, arming, deploying, and recovering
127
False
Typically, what is the capital ship of any fleet?
570ab06e4103511400d59934
An aircraft carrier
0
False
What do aircraft carriers allow naval forces to accomplish?
570ab06e4103511400d59935
project air power worldwide without depending on local bases
257
False
What have the old converted cruiser aircraft carriers evolved into?
570ab06e4103511400d59936
nuclear-powered warships
475
False
full-length
84
What type of flight decks are aircraft carriers not equipped with?
5acd5ff607355d001abf3f8e
True
carrying, arming, deploying, and recovering aircraft
127
What purpose do aircraft carriers serve for land vehicles?
5acd5ff607355d001abf3f8f
True
An aircraft carrier
0
Typically, what is the capital ship of no fleets?
5acd5ff607355d001abf3f90
True
project air power worldwide without depending on local bases
257
What do aircraft carriers disallow naval forces to accomplish?
5acd5ff607355d001abf3f91
True
nuclear-powered warships
475
What have the new converted cruiser aircraft carriers devolved into?
5acd5ff607355d001abf3f92
True
An aircraft carrier is a warship that serves as a seagoing airbase, equipped with a full-length flight deck and facilities for carrying, arming, deploying, and recovering aircraft. Typically, it is the capital ship of a fleet, as it allows a naval force to project air power worldwide without depending on local bases for staging aircraft operations. Aircraft carriers are expensive to build and are critical assets. Aircraft carriers have evolved from converted cruisers to nuclear-powered warships that carry numerous fighter planes, strike aircraft, helicopters, and other types of aircraft.
In what year was the advent of heavier-than-air fixed-wing aircraft?
570ab54b4103511400d59950
1903
4
False
In what year was the first experimental take-off of an airplane?
570ab54b4103511400d59951
1910
80
False
In what year were the first experimental landings of an airplane?
570ab54b4103511400d59952
1911
266
False
What did the Imperial Japanese Navy Wakamiya conduct in September 1914?
570ab54b4103511400d59953
the world's first successful ship-launched air raid
537
False
What was the first carrier-launched airstrike?
570ab54b4103511400d59954
the Tondern Raid in July 1918
828
False
1903
4
In what year was the advent of lighter-than-air fixed-wing aircraft?
5acd6eb107355d001abf41d6
True
1910
80
In what year was the second experimental take-off of an airplane?
5acd6eb107355d001abf41d7
True
1911
266
In what year were the first experimental takeoffs of an airplane?
5acd6eb107355d001abf41d8
True
the world's first successful ship-launched air raid
537
What did the Imperial Chinese Navy Wakamiya conduct in September 1914?
5acd6eb107355d001abf41d9
True
Tondern Raid in July 1918
832
What was the first carrier-launched seastrike?
5acd6eb107355d001abf41da
True
The 1903 advent of heavier-than-air fixed-wing aircraft was closely followed in 1910 by the first experimental take-off of an airplane, made from the deck of a United States Navy vessel (cruiser USS Birmingham), and the first experimental landings were conducted in 1911. On 9 May 1912 the first airplane take-off from a ship underway was made from the deck of the British Royal Navy's HMS Hibernia. Seaplane tender support ships came next, with the French Foudre of 1911. In September 1914 the Imperial Japanese Navy Wakamiya conducted the world's first successful ship-launched air raid: on 6 September 1914 a Farman aircraft launched by Wakamiya attacked the Austro-Hungarian cruiser SMS Kaiserin Elisabeth and the German gunboat Jaguar in Kiaochow Bay off Tsingtao; neither was hit. The first carrier-launched airstrike was the Tondern Raid in July 1918. Seven Sopwith Camels launched from the converted battlecruiser HMS Furious damaged the German airbase at Tønder and destroyed two zeppelins.
Which ship was originally known as being the capital ship of the fleet?
570ab73a4103511400d5995a
the battleship
121
False
When did aircraft carriers begin being know as the capital ship of the fleet?
570ab73a4103511400d5995b
World War II
167
False
What type of carrier is capable of displacing 75,000 tonnes or greater?
570ab73a4103511400d5995c
Supercarriers
421
False
Which ships are used for carrying and landing Marines?
570ab73a4103511400d5995d
Amphibious assault ships
623
False
What do Amphibious assalut ships need a large contingent of for carrying Marines?
570ab73a4103511400d5995e
helicopters
768
False
the battleship
121
Which ship was never known as being the capital ship of the fleet?
5acd727e07355d001abf42a2
True
World War II
167
When did aircraft carriers begin being know as the minor ship of the fleet?
5acd727e07355d001abf42a3
True
Supercarriers
421
What type of carrier is capable of displacing 57,000 tonnes or greater?
5acd727e07355d001abf42a4
True
Amphibious assault ships
623
Which ships are used for carrying and landing Civilians?
5acd727e07355d001abf42a5
True
helicopters
768
What do Amphibious assault ships need a small contingent of for carrying Marines?
5acd727e07355d001abf42a6
True
Modern navies that operate such aircraft carriers treat them as the capital ship of the fleet, a role previously held by the battleship. This change took place during World War II in response to air power becoming a significant factor in warfare, driven by the superior range, flexibility and effectiveness of carrier-launched aircraft. Following the war, carrier operations continued to increase in size and importance. Supercarriers, displacing 75,000 tonnes or greater, have become the pinnacle of carrier development. Some are powered by nuclear reactors and form the core of a fleet designed to operate far from home. Amphibious assault ships, such as USS Tarawa and HMS Ocean, serve the purpose of carrying and landing Marines, and operate a large contingent of helicopters for that purpose. Also known as "commando carriers" or "helicopter carriers", many have the capability to operate VSTOL aircraft.
Who is in the process of procuring two Canbera-class LHD's?
570ab8c54103511400d59964
The Royal Australian Navy
0
False
How large will the two Canbera-class LDH's be?
570ab8c54103511400d59965
the largest in Australian naval history
210
False
What is one primary role of the Canbera-class LDH?
570ab8c54103511400d59966
to embark, transport and deploy an embarked force
275
False
How many troops can be maintained on a Canbera-class LHD?
570ab8c54103511400d59967
1,000 troops and their supporting vehicles
498
False
How many helicopters is the LHD capable of launching?
570ab8c54103511400d59968
multiple helicopters at one time
419
False
The Royal Australian Navy
0
Who is in the process of releasing two Canbera-class LHD's?
5acd731007355d001abf42de
True
the largest in Australian naval history
210
How small will the two Canbera-class LDH's be?
5acd731007355d001abf42df
True
to embark, transport and deploy an embarked force
275
What is a secondary role of the Canbera-class LDH?
5acd731007355d001abf42e0
True
1,000 troops and their supporting vehicles
498
How many civilians can be maintained on a Canbera-class LHD?
5acd731007355d001abf42e1
True
multiple helicopters at one time
419
How many tanks is the LHD capable of launching?
5acd731007355d001abf42e2
True
The Royal Australian Navy is in the process of procuring two Canberra-class LHD's, the first of which was commissioned in November 2015, while the second is expected to enter service in 2016. The ships will be the largest in Australian naval history. Their primary roles are to embark, transport and deploy an embarked force and to carry out or support humanitarian assistance missions. The LHD is capable of launching multiple helicopters at one time while maintaining an amphibious capability of 1,000 troops and their supporting vehicles (tanks, armoured personnel carriers etc.). The Australian Defence Minister has publicly raised the possibility of procuring F-35B STOVL aircraft for the carrier, stating that it "has been on the table since day one and stating the LHD's are "STOVL capable".
What is the British Navy constructing to replace their three Invincible-class carriers?
570aba3b4103511400d5996e
two new larger STOVL aircraft carriers, the Queen Elizabeth class
39
False
What will the 2 Queen Elizabeth class ships be named?
570aba3b4103511400d5996f
HMS Queen Elizabeth and HMS Prince of Wales
178
False
When are the 2 Queen Elizabeth class ships due to become operational?
570aba3b4103511400d59970
2020
411
False
How many tonnes can the Queen Elizabeth class ships displace?
570aba3b4103511400d59971
70,600
351
False
How large will the two Queen Elizabeth ships be?
570aba3b4103511400d59972
the largest warships ever built for the Royal Navy
840
False
two new larger STOVL aircraft carriers, the Queen Elizabeth class
39
What is the British Army constructing to replace their three Invincible-class carriers?
5acd75aa07355d001abf434a
True
HMS Queen Elizabeth and HMS Prince of Wales
178
What will the 2 Queen Victoria class ships be named?
5acd75aa07355d001abf434b
True
2020
411
When are the 2 Queen Elizabeth class ships due to become unoperational?
5acd75aa07355d001abf434c
True
70,600
351
How many grams can the Queen Elizabeth class ships displace?
5acd75aa07355d001abf434d
True
the largest warships ever built for the Royal Navy
840
How old will the two Queen Elizabeth ships be?
5acd75aa07355d001abf434e
True
The British Royal Navy is constructing two new larger STOVL aircraft carriers, the Queen Elizabeth class, to replace the three Invincible-class carriers. The ships will be named HMS Queen Elizabeth and HMS Prince of Wales. They will be able to operate up to 40 aircraft in peace time with a tailored group of up to 50, and will have a displacement of 70,600 tonnes. The ships are due to become operational from 2020. Their primary aircraft complement will be made up of F-35B Lightning IIs, and their ship's company will number around 680 with the total complement rising to about 1,600 when the air group is embarked. Defensive weapons will include the Phalanx Close-In Weapons System for anti-aircraft and anti-missile defence; also 30 mm Automated Small Calibre Guns and miniguns for use against fast attack craft. The two ships will be the largest warships ever built for the Royal Navy.
Why do the constraints of constructing a flight deck affect the role of a carrier?
570abc016d058f19001830b6
they influence the weight, type, and configuration of the aircraft that may be launched
94
False
What are assisted launch mechanisms primarily used for?
570abc016d058f19001830b7
heavy aircraft
246
False
What does CATOBAR allow for?
570abc016d058f19001830b8
deployment of heavy jets with full loadouts
382
False
Why is STOVL used by other navies?
570abc016d058f19001830b9
it is cheaper to operate
503
False
they influence the weight, type, and configuration of the aircraft that may be launched
94
Why do the constraints of deconstructing a flight deck affect the role of a carrier?
5acd77d807355d001abf43a0
True
heavy aircraft
246
What are assisted launch mechanisms secondarily used for?
5acd77d807355d001abf43a1
True
deployment of heavy jets with full loadouts
382
What doesn't CATOBAR allow for?
5acd77d807355d001abf43a2
True
it is cheaper to operate
503
Why is STOVL not used by other navies?
5acd77d807355d001abf43a3
True
STOVL
465
What is more expensive to operate?
5acd77d807355d001abf43a4
True
The constraints of constructing a flight deck affect the role of a given carrier strongly, as they influence the weight, type, and configuration of the aircraft that may be launched. For example, assisted launch mechanisms are used primarily for heavy aircraft, especially those loaded with air-to-ground weapons. CATOBAR is most commonly used on USN supercarriers as it allows the deployment of heavy jets with full loadouts, especially on ground-attack missions. STOVL is used by other navies because it is cheaper to operate and still provides good deployment capability for fighter aircraft.
Why do almost all carriers using conventional aircraft have arrested-recovery systems?
570abe786d058f19001830c8
conventional aircraft cannot decelerate on their own
105
False
What is the purpose of an arrested-recovery system?
570abe786d058f19001830c9
to recover their aircraft
261
False
What do aircraft do when landing in order to stop on a short distance?
570abe786d058f19001830ca
extend a tailhook that catches on arrestor wires stretched across the deck
314
False
What does a landing area angles off access allow an aircraft to do if if misses the arresting wires?
570abe786d058f19001830cb
bolt
620
False
What can a "bolt" prevent an aircraft from doing?
570abe786d058f19001830cc
crashing into aircraft on the forward deck
694
False
cannot decelerate on their own
127
Why do almost all carriers using nonconventional aircraft have arrested-recovery systems?
5acd7adc07355d001abf4400
True
recover their aircraft
264
What is not the purpose of an arrested-recovery system?
5acd7adc07355d001abf4401
True
extend a tailhook that catches on arrestor wires stretched across the deck
314
What do aircraft do when landing in order to stop on a long distance?
5acd7adc07355d001abf4402
True
bolt
620
What does a landing area angles off access allow an aircraft to do if it catches the arresting wires?
5acd7adc07355d001abf4403
True
crashing into aircraft on the forward deck
694
What can a "bolt" allow an aircraft to do?
5acd7adc07355d001abf4404
True
On the recovery side of the flight deck, the adaptation to the aircraft loadout is mirrored. Non-VTOL or conventional aircraft cannot decelerate on their own, and almost all carriers using them must have arrested-recovery systems (-BAR, e.g. CATOBAR or STOBAR) to recover their aircraft. Aircraft that are landing extend a tailhook that catches on arrestor wires stretched across the deck to bring themselves to a stop in a short distance. Post-WWII Royal Navy research on safer CATOBAR recovery eventually led to universal adoption of a landing area angled off axis to allow aircraft who missed the arresting wires to "bolt" and safely return to flight for another landing attempt rather than crashing into aircraft on the forward deck.
What are 3 key personnel involved in the flight deck?
570abf994103511400d59978
the shooters, the handler, and the air boss
50
False
What are shooters responsible for?
570abf994103511400d59979
launching aircraft
172
False
What is the handler responsible for?
570abf994103511400d5997a
the movement of aircraft before launching and after recovery
277
False
Where does the captain of the ship spend most of his time?
570abf994103511400d5997b
on the Navigation Bridge
745
False
Who is the Flag Bridge area of the ship designated for?
570abf994103511400d5997c
the embarked admiral and his staff
817
False
the shooters, the handler, and the air boss
50
What are 3 key personnel not involved in the flight deck?
5acd810007355d001abf44a4
True
launching aircraft
172
What are shooters unresponsible for?
5acd810007355d001abf44a5
True
movement of aircraft before launching and after recovery
281
What is the handler unresponsible for?
5acd810007355d001abf44a6
True
on the Navigation Bridge
745
Where does the captain of the ship spend the least of his time?
5acd810007355d001abf44a7
True
the embarked admiral and his staff
817
Who is the Flag Bridge area of the ship restricted from?
5acd810007355d001abf44a8
True
Key personnel involved in the flight deck include the shooters, the handler, and the air boss. Shooters are naval aviators or Naval Flight Officers and are responsible for launching aircraft. The handler works just inside the island from the flight deck and is responsible for the movement of aircraft before launching and after recovery. The "air boss" (usually a commander) occupies the top bridge (Primary Flight Control, also called primary or the tower) and has the overall responsibility for controlling launch, recovery and "those aircraft in the air near the ship, and the movement of planes on the flight deck, which itself resembles a well-choreographed ballet." The captain of the ship spends most of his time one level below primary on the Navigation Bridge. Below this is the Flag Bridge, designated for the embarked admiral and his staff.
What is the disadvantage of the ski-jump?
570ac16f4103511400d5998c
the penalty it exacts on aircraft size, payload, and fuel load
36
False
What cannot launch using a ski-jump due to their high loaded weight?
570ac16f4103511400d5998d
heavily laden aircraft
117
False
What do heavily laden aircraft sometimes require the assistance from?
570ac16f4103511400d5998e
a catapult or JATO rocket
298
False
Why is a ski-jump not included on mixed flight deck operations where helicopters are present?
570ac16f4103511400d5998f
would eliminate one or more helicopter landing areas
670
False
How is the Russian SU-33 able to launch from the carrier Admiral Kuznetsov?
570ac16f4103511400d59990
with a minimal armament and fuel load
414
False
the penalty it exacts on aircraft size, payload, and fuel load
36
What is the advantage of the ski-jump?
5acd84c307355d001abf453a
True
heavily laden aircraft
117
What can launch using a ski-jump due to their high loaded weight?
5acd84c307355d001abf453b
True
a catapult or JATO rocket
298
What do lightly laden aircraft sometimes require the assistance from?
5acd84c307355d001abf453c
True
would eliminate one or more helicopter landing areas
670
Why is a ski-jump included on mixed flight deck operations where helicopters are present?
5acd84c307355d001abf453d
True
with a minimal armament and fuel load
414
How is the Russian SU-33 unable to launch from the carrier Admiral Kuznetsov?
5acd84c307355d001abf453e
True
The disadvantage of the ski-jump is the penalty it exacts on aircraft size, payload, and fuel load (and thus range); heavily laden aircraft can not launch using a ski-jump because their high loaded weight requires either a longer takeoff roll than is possible on a carrier deck, or assistance from a catapult or JATO rocket. For example, the Russian Su-33 is only able to launch from the carrier Admiral Kuznetsov with a minimal armament and fuel load. Another disadvantage is on mixed flight deck operations where helicopters are also present such as a US Landing Helicopter Dock or Landing Helicopter Assault amphibious assault ship a ski jump is not included as this would eliminate one or more helicopter landing areas, this flat deck limits the loading of Harriers but is somewhat mitigated by the longer rolling start provided by a long flight deck compared to many STOVL carriers.
Why did China purchase the STOBAR carrier Liaoning in 1998?
570ac2e34103511400d599a0
on the pretext of use as a floating casino
176
False
What is Liaoning classifed as?
570ac2e34103511400d599a1
a training ship
507
False
What is the Liaoning intended to help the navy practice with?
570ac2e34103511400d599a2
carrier usage
568
False
Why is Liaoning not assigned to any of China's operation fleets?
570ac2e34103511400d599a3
it is a training ship
884
False
Why did the Chinese PLA Navy need 4-5 years for Liaoning to reach full capacity?
570ac2e34103511400d599a4
this is the first aircraft carrier in their possession
825
False
on the pretext of use as a floating casino
176
Why didn't China purchase the STOBAR carrier Liaoning in 1998?
5acd85f207355d001abf457a
True
training ship
509
What isn't Liaoning classifed as?
5acd85f207355d001abf457b
True
carrier usage
568
What is the Liaoning intended to hinder the navy practice with?
5acd85f207355d001abf457c
True
training ship
892
Why is Liaoning assigned to any of China's operation fleets?
5acd85f207355d001abf457d
True
this is the first aircraft carrier in their possession
825
Why did the Chinese PLA Navy need 14-15 years for Liaoning to reach full capacity?
5acd85f207355d001abf457e
True
One STOBAR carrier: Liaoning was originally built as the 57,000 tonne Soviet Admiral Kuznetsov-class carrier Varyag and was later purchased as a stripped hulk by China in 1998 on the pretext of use as a floating casino, then partially rebuilt and towed to China for completion. Liaoning was commissioned on 25 September 2012, and began service for testing and training. On 24 or 25 November 2012, Liaoning successfully launched and recovered several Shenyang J-15 jet fighter aircraft. She is classified as a training ship, intended to allow the navy to practice with carrier usage. On 26 December 2012, the People's Daily reported that it will take four to five years for Liaoning to reach full capacity, mainly due to training and coordination which will take significant amount of time for Chinese PLA Navy to complete as this is the first aircraft carrier in their possession. As it is a training ship, Liaoning is not assigned to any of China's operation fleets.
Who started construction of a 40,000-tonne Vikrant-class carrier in 2009?
570ac3de6d058f19001830d2
India
0
False
What will power the Indian-made ship?
570ac3de6d058f19001830d3
four gas-turbine engines
257
False
What will the range of the Indian-made ship be, carrying 160 officers, 1400 sailers, and 30 aircraft?
570ac3de6d058f19001830d4
8,000 nautical miles
307
False
Who is constructing the Indian-made ship?
570ac3de6d058f19001830d5
Cochin Shipyard
440
False
When was the Indian-made ship launched?
570ac3de6d058f19001830d6
August 2013
482
False
India
0
Who finished construction of a 40,000-tonne Vikrant-class carrier in 2009?
5acd878b07355d001abf45dc
True
four gas-turbine engines
257
What will not power the Indian-made ship?
5acd878b07355d001abf45dd
True
8,000 nautical miles
307
What will the range of the Indian-made ship be, carrying 106 officers, 1400 sailers, and 30 aircraft?
5acd878b07355d001abf45de
True
Cochin Shipyard
440
Who isn't constructing the Indian-made ship?
5acd878b07355d001abf45df
True
August 2013
482
When was the Indian-made ship retired?
5acd878b07355d001abf45e0
True
India started the construction of a 40,000-tonne, 260-metre-long (850 ft) Vikrant-class aircraft carrier in 2009. The new carrier will operate MiG-29K and naval HAL Tejas aircraft along with the Indian-made helicopter HAL Dhruv. The ship will be powered by four gas-turbine engines and will have a range of 8,000 nautical miles (15,000 kilometres), carrying 160 officers, 1,400 sailors, and 30 aircraft. The carrier is being constructed by Cochin Shipyard. The ship was launched in August 2013 and is scheduled for commissioning in 2018.
What were carriers used for in the early 20th century?
570ac50b4103511400d599bc
to deploy balloons
100
False
As of 3/3/2016, how many active aircraft carriers are there worldwide?
570ac50b4103511400d599bd
thirty-seven
248
False
What is another name for the 10 large nuclear-powered carriers operated by the U.S. Navy?
570ac50b4103511400d599be
supercarriers
392
False
How many aircraft can supercarriers carry?
570ac50b4103511400d599bf
up to 90
416
False
Who owns the largest carriers in the world?
570ac50b4103511400d599c0
The United States Navy
321
False
to deploy balloons
100
What were carriers used for in the early 19th century?
5acd614a07355d001abf3ff4
True
thirty-seven
248
As of 3/3/2016, how many active aircraft carriers are there in the united states?
5acd614a07355d001abf3ff5
True
supercarrier
562
What is another name for the 10 large nuclear-powered carriers operated by the U.N. Navy?
5acd614a07355d001abf3ff6
True
up to 90
416
How many warcraft can supercarriers carry?
5acd614a07355d001abf3ff7
True
The United States Navy
321
Who owns the smallest carriers in the world?
5acd614a07355d001abf3ff8
True
Carriers have evolved since their inception in the early twentieth century from wooden vessels used to deploy balloons to nuclear-powered warships that carry dozens of aircraft, including fighter jets and helicopters. As of 3 March 2016, there are thirty-seven active aircraft carriers in the world within twelve navies. The United States Navy has 10 large nuclear-powered carriers (known as supercarriers, carrying up to 90 aircraft each), the largest carriers in the world; the total deckspace is over twice that of all other nations' combined. As well as the supercarrier fleet, the US Navy has nine amphibious assault ships used primarily for helicopters (sometimes called helicopter carriers); these can also carry up to 25 fighter jets, and in some cases, are as large as some other nations' fixed-wing carriers.
What is the definition of an "aircraft carrier"?
570ac5ed4103511400d599c6
There is no single definition
0
False
How may aircraft carriers be classified?
570ac5ed4103511400d599c7
according to the type of aircraft they carry and their operational assignments
285
False
Who is Admiral Sir Mark Stanhope?
570ac5ed4103511400d599c8
former head of the Royal Navy
392
False
Who said, "countries that aspire to strategic international influence have aircraft carriers"?
570ac5ed4103511400d599c9
Admiral Sir Mark Stanhope
365
False
There is no single definition
0
What is the definition of an "warcraft carrier"?
5acd60a507355d001abf3fc6
True
according to the type of aircraft they carry and their operational assignments
285
How may aircraft be classified?
5acd60a507355d001abf3fc7
True
former head of the Royal Navy
392
Who is Admiral Sir Mark Royal?
5acd60a507355d001abf3fc8
True
Admiral Sir Mark Stanhope
365
Who said, "countries that aspire to strategic local influence have aircraft carriers"?
5acd60a507355d001abf3fc9
True
aircraft
37
what type of carrier has a single definition
5acd60a507355d001abf3fca
True
There is no single definition of an "aircraft carrier", and modern navies use several variants of the type. These variants are sometimes categorized as sub-types of aircraft carriers, and sometimes as distinct types of naval aviation-capable ships. Aircraft carriers may be classified according to the type of aircraft they carry and their operational assignments. Admiral Sir Mark Stanhope, former head of the Royal Navy, has said that "To put it simply, countries that aspire to strategic international influence have aircraft carriers".
What dramatically changed naval combat in World War II?
570ac7a74103511400d599d2
The aircraft carrier
0
False
What drove the advent of carrier-launched aircraft as focal weapons?
570ac7a74103511400d599d3
the superior range, flexibility and effectiveness
190
False
Why were carrier-launched aircraft more effective than naval guns?
570ac7a74103511400d599d4
They had higher range and precision
270
False
What was signalled in 1940 when HMS Illustrious launched an strike on an Italian fleet?
570ac7a74103511400d599d5
the beginning of the effective and highly mobile aircraft strikes
526
False
What event showed the vulnerability of carriers when forced into gun-range enounters?
570ac7a74103511400d599d6
the sinking of HMS Glorious by German battleships
1190
False
The aircraft carrier
0
What dramatically changed naval combat in World War I?
5acd709d07355d001abf4252
True
superior range, flexibility and effectiveness
194
What drove the advent of carrier-launched aircraft as secondary weapons?
5acd709d07355d001abf4253
True
They had higher range and precision
270
Why were carrier-launched aircraft less effective than naval guns?
5acd709d07355d001abf4254
True
the beginning of the effective and highly mobile aircraft strikes
526
What was signalled in 1904 when HMS Illustrious launched an strike on an Italian fleet?
5acd709d07355d001abf4255
True
the sinking of HMS Glorious by German battleships
1190
What event didn't show the vulnerability of carriers when forced into gun-range enounters?
5acd709d07355d001abf4256
True
The aircraft carrier dramatically changed naval combat in World War II, because air power was becoming a significant factor in warfare. The advent of aircraft as focal weapons was driven by the superior range, flexibility and effectiveness of carrier-launched aircraft. They had higher range and precision than naval guns, making them highly effective. The versatility of the carrier was demonstrated in November 1940 when HMS Illustrious launched a long-range strike on the Italian fleet at their base in Taranto, signalling the beginning of the effective and highly mobile aircraft strikes. This operation incapacitated three of the six battleships at a cost of two torpedo bombers. World War II in the Pacific Ocean involved clashes between aircraft carrier fleets. The 1941 Japanese surprise attack on Pearl Harbor was a clear illustration of the power projection capability afforded by a large force of modern carriers. Concentrating six carriers in a single unit turned naval history about, as no other nation had fielded anything comparable. However, the vulnerability of carriers compared to traditional battleships when forced into a gun-range encounter was quickly illustrated by the sinking of HMS Glorious by German battleships during the Norwegian campaign in 1940.
What develpment produced the first large fleet ships?
570ac9296d058f19001830f6
flattop vessels
19
False
What was the world's first carrier capable of launching and recovering naval aircraft?
570ac9296d058f19001830f7
HMS Argus
82
False
What did the Washington Naval Treaty of 1922 limit?
570ac9296d058f19001830f8
the construction of new heavy surface combat ships
243
False
What caused early aircraft carriers to be made up of conversions of ships that were previously cargo ships, cruisers or battlecruisers?
570ac9296d058f19001830f9
Washington Naval Treaty of 1922
196
False
What type of aircraft carriers did these ship conversions give rise to in 1927?
570ac9296d058f19001830fa
Lexington-class
501
False
flattop vessels
19
What develpment produced the first small fleet ships?
5acd6fb407355d001abf4222
True
HMS Argus
82
What was the world's first carrier capable of launching and recovering civilian aircraft?
5acd6fb407355d001abf4223
True
the construction of new heavy surface combat ships
243
What did the Washington Naval Treaty of 1920 limit?
5acd6fb407355d001abf4224
True
Washington Naval Treaty of 1922
196
What caused modern aircraft carriers to be made up of conversions of ships that were previously cargo ships, cruisers or battlecruisers?
5acd6fb407355d001abf4225
True
Lexington-class
501
What type of aircraft carriers did these ship conversions give rise to in 1972?
5acd6fb407355d001abf4226
True
The development of flattop vessels produced the first large fleet ships. In 1918, HMS Argus became the world's first carrier capable of launching and recovering naval aircraft. As a result of the Washington Naval Treaty of 1922, which limited the construction of new heavy surface combat ships, most early aircraft carriers were conversions of ships that were laid down (or had served) as different ship types: cargo ships, cruisers, battlecruisers, or battleships. These conversions gave rise to the Lexington-class aircraft carriers (1927), Akagi and Courageous class. Specialist carrier evolution was well underway, with several navies ordering and building warships that were purposefully designed to function as aircraft carriers by the mid-1920s, resulting in the commissioning of ships such as Hōshō (1922), HMS Hermes (1924), and Béarn (1927). During World War II, these ships would become known as fleet carriers.[citation needed]
What does EMALS stand for?
570ad72b4103511400d59a72
Electromagnetic Aircraft Launch System
652
False
Who developed EMALS?
570ad72b4103511400d59a73
General Atomics
791
False
What do EMALS enable the launching of?
570ad72b4103511400d59a74
varied aircraft including unmanned combat air vehicles (UCAV)
1014
False
Who was impressed by the demonstration of EMALS by General Atomics?
570ad72b4103511400d59a75
Indian Navy officers
906
False
How many in-service aircraft carriers are aimed for with EMALS?
570ad72b4103511400d59a76
three
1107
False
Electromagnetic Aircraft Launch System
652
What does MEALS stand for?
5acd738407355d001abf42fc
True
General Atomics
791
Who didn't develop EMALS?
5acd738407355d001abf42fd
True
varied aircraft including unmanned combat air vehicles (UCAV)
1014
What do EMALS disable the launching of?
5acd738407355d001abf42fe
True
Indian Navy officers
906
Who wasn't impressed by the demonstration of EMALS by General Atomics?
5acd738407355d001abf42ff
True
three
1107
How many out of service aircraft carriers are aimed for with EMALS?
5acd738407355d001abf4300
True
In December 2009, then Indian Navy chief Admiral Nirmal Kumar Verma said at his maiden navy week press conference that concepts currently being examined by the Directorate of Naval Design for the second indigenous aircraft carrier (IAC-2), are for a conventionally powered carrier displacing over 50,000 tons and equipped with steam catapults (rather than the ski-jump on the Gorshkov/Vikramaditya and the IAC) to launch fourth-generation aircraft. Later on in August 2013 Vice Admiral RK Dhowan, while talking about the detailed study underway on the IAC-II project, said that nuclear propulsion was also being considered. The navy also evaluated the Electromagnetic Aircraft Launch System (EMALS), which is being used by the US Navy in their latest Gerald R. Ford-class aircraft carriers. General Atomics, the developer of the EMALS, was cleared by the US government to give a technical demonstration to Indian Navy officers, who were impressed by the new capabilities of the system. The EMALS enables launching varied aircraft including unmanned combat air vehicles (UCAV). The aim is to have a total of three aircraft carriers in service, with two fully operational carriers and the third in refit.
What was the August 2013 launching ceremony in Yokohama held for?
570ad8714103511400d59a86
Japan's largest military ship since World War II
41
False
How many helicopters can simultaneously land on Japan's largest military ship?
570ad8714103511400d59a87
five
473
False
How long is Japan's largest military ship?
570ad8714103511400d59a88
820-foot-long (250 m)
116
False
How many troops can Japan's largest military ship carry?
570ad8714103511400d59a89
400
372
False
How much does Japan's largest military ship weigh?
570ad8714103511400d59a8a
19,500-ton
139
False
Japan's largest military ship since World War II
41
What was the August 2013 launching ceremony in Toyko held for?
5acd746107355d001abf431a
True
five
473
How many helicopters can simultaneously land on China's largest military ship?
5acd746107355d001abf431b
True
820-foot-long (250 m)
116
How long is Japan's largest civilian ship?
5acd746107355d001abf431c
True
400
372
How many troops can Japan's smallest military ship carry?
5acd746107355d001abf431d
True
19,500-ton
139
How much does Japan's smallest military ship weigh?
5acd746107355d001abf431e
True
In August 2013, a launching ceremony for Japan's largest military ship since World War II was held in Yokohama. The 820-foot-long (250 m), 19,500-ton flattop Izumo was deployed in March 2015. The ship is able to carry up to 14 helicopters; however, only seven ASW helicopters and two SAR helicopters were planned for the initial aircraft complement. For other operations, 400 troops and fifty 3.5 t trucks (or equivalent equipment) can also be carried. The flight deck has five helicopter landing spots that allow simultaneous landings or take-offs. The ship is equipped with two Phalanx CIWS and two SeaRAM for its defense. The destroyers of this class were initially intended to replace the two ships of the Shirane class, which were originally scheduled to begin decommissioning in FY2014.
What will some of the current US fleet of Nimitz-class carriers be replaced with?
570af1386b8089140040f626
the ten-ship Gerald R. Ford class
108
False
Which feature of the new ships will replace the old steam catapults?
570af1386b8089140040f627
Electromagnetic Aircraft Launch System (EMALS)
344
False
When is the USS Enterprise scheduled to be decommissioned?
570af1386b8089140040f628
2016
549
False
How much does the Gerald R. Ford-class carrier weigh?
570af1386b8089140040f629
100,000 ton
863
False
How much does the America-class amphibious assault ship weigh?
570af1386b8089140040f62a
45,000 ton
964
False
the ten-ship Gerald R. Ford class
108
What will some of the current UN fleet of Nimitz-class carriers be replaced with?
5acd770707355d001abf4384
True
Electromagnetic Aircraft Launch System (EMALS)
344
Which feature of the new ships will replace the old nuclear catapults?
5acd770707355d001abf4385
True
2016
549
When is the USS Enterprise scheduled to be commissioned?
5acd770707355d001abf4386
True
100,000 ton
863
How much does the Harrison R. Ford-class carrier weigh?
5acd770707355d001abf4387
True
45,000
964
How much does the America-class amphibious peace ship weigh?
5acd770707355d001abf4388
True
The current US fleet of Nimitz-class carriers will be followed into service (and in some cases replaced) by the ten-ship Gerald R. Ford class. It is expected that the ships will be more automated in an effort to reduce the amount of funding required to staff, maintain and operate its supercarriers. The main new features are implementation of Electromagnetic Aircraft Launch System (EMALS) (which replace the old steam catapults) and unmanned aerial vehicles. With the deactivation of USS Enterprise in December 2012 (decommissioning scheduled for 2016), the U.S. fleet comprises 10 active supercarriers. On 24 July 2007, the House Armed Services Seapower subcommittee recommended seven or eight new carriers (one every four years). However, the debate has deepened over budgeting for the $12–14.5 billion (plus $12 billion for development and research) for the 100,000 ton Gerald R. Ford-class carrier (estimated service 2016) compared to the smaller $2 billion 45,000 ton America-class amphibious assault ships able to deploy squadrons of F-35B of which one is already active, another is under construction and nine more are planned.
What type of aircraft have no need to decelerate?
570afdc16b8089140040f68a
VTOL-capable or helicopters
20
False
What does the angled deck separate the recovery operation area from?
570afdc16b8089140040f68b
the launch area
440
False
What does V/STOL refer to?
570afdc16b8089140040f68c
aircraft capable of vertical or short take-off and landing
473
False
What capability do helicopters use to move over the flight deck and land vertically?
570afdc16b8089140040f68d
hover
625
False
What don't helicopters need because of having hover capablility?
570afdc16b8089140040f68e
arresting gear
712
False
VTOL-capable or helicopters
20
What type of aircraft have no need to accelerate?
5acd7c5807355d001abf4444
True
the launch area
440
What does the non-angled deck separate the recovery operation area from?
5acd7c5807355d001abf4445
True
aircraft capable of vertical or short take-off and landing
473
What does V/STOL not refer to?
5acd7c5807355d001abf4446
True
hover
625
What capability do helicopters use to move over the flight deck and land horizontally?
5acd7c5807355d001abf4447
True
arresting gear
712
What don't planes need because of having hover capablility?
5acd7c5807355d001abf4448
True
If the aircraft are VTOL-capable or helicopters, they do not need to decelerate and hence there is no such need. The arrested-recovery system has used an angled deck since the 1950s because, in case the aircraft does not catch the arresting wire, the short deck allows easier take off by reducing the number of objects between the aircraft and the end of the runway. It also has the advantage of separating the recovery operation area from the launch area. Helicopters and aircraft capable of vertical or short take-off and landing (V/STOL) usually recover by coming abreast the carrier on the port side and then using their hover capability to move over the flight deck and land vertically without the need for arresting gear.
What feature was pioneered on the HMS Hermes in 1923?
570afee9ec8fbc190045b7b0
an island
126
False
What is concentrated in the small area called an island?
570afee9ec8fbc190045b7b1
The superstructure of a carrier
0
False
Other than Japanese carriers, which side of the flight deck are islands typically built on?
570afee9ec8fbc190045b7b2
starboard
225
False
What was the biggest drawback to the flush deck configuration?
570afee9ec8fbc190045b7b3
management of the exhaust from the power plant
501
False
What was a major issue in the USS Langley?
570afee9ec8fbc190045b7b4
Fumes coming across the deck
549
False
an island
126
What feature was pioneered on the HMS Hermes in 1932?
5acd81fa07355d001abf44d4
True
The superstructure of a carrier
0
What is concentrated in the large area called an island?
5acd81fa07355d001abf44d5
True
starboard
225
Other than Chinese carriers, which side of the flight deck are islands typically built on?
5acd81fa07355d001abf44d6
True
management of the exhaust from the power plant
501
What was the biggest advantage to the flush deck configuration?
5acd81fa07355d001abf44d7
True
Fumes coming across the deck
549
What was a minor issue in the USS Langley?
5acd81fa07355d001abf44d8
True
The superstructure of a carrier (such as the bridge, flight control tower) are concentrated in a relatively small area called an island, a feature pioneered on the HMS Hermes in 1923. While the island is usually built on the starboard side of the fight deck, the Japanese aircraft carriers Akagi and Hiryū had their islands built on the port side. Very few carriers have been designed or built without an island. The flush deck configuration proved to have significant drawbacks, primary of which was management of the exhaust from the power plant. Fumes coming across the deck were a major issue in USS Langley. In addition, lack of an island meant difficulties managing the flight deck, performing air traffic control, a lack of radar housing placements and problems with navigating and controlling the ship itself.
What is the name of the 42,000 tonne nuclear-powered carrier commissioned in 2001?
570affb86b8089140040f694
Charles de Gaulle
19
False
What is the Charles de Gaulle the flagship of?
570affb86b8089140040f695
the French Navy
133
False
What type of missiles does the Charles de Gaulle carry?
570affb86b8089140040f696
Aster
387
False
What is another name for the French Navy?
570affb86b8089140040f697
Marine Nationale
150
False
What type of carrier is the Charles de Gaulle?
570affb86b8089140040f698
CATOBAR
411
False
Charles de Gaulle
19
What is the name of the 24,000 tonne nuclear-powered carrier commissioned in 2001?
5acd869307355d001abf4598
True
French Navy
137
What is the Charles de Gaulle not the flagship of?
5acd869307355d001abf4599
True
Aster
387
What type of lasers does the Charles de Gaulle carry?
5acd869307355d001abf459a
True
Marine Nationale
150
What is not another name for the French Navy?
5acd869307355d001abf459b
True
CATOBAR
411
What type of airplane is the Charles de Gaulle?
5acd869307355d001abf459c
True
1 CATOBAR carrier: Charles de Gaulle is a 42,000 tonne nuclear-powered aircraft carrier, commissioned in 2001 and is the flagship of the French Navy (Marine Nationale). The ship carries a complement of Dassault-Breguet Super Étendard, Dassault Rafale M and E‑2C Hawkeye aircraft, EC725 Caracal and AS532 Cougar helicopters for combat search and rescue, as well as modern electronics and Aster missiles. It is a CATOBAR-type carrier that uses two 75 m C13‑3 steam catapults of a shorter version of the catapult system installed on the U.S. Nimitz-class carriers, one catapult at the bow and one across the front of the landing area.
How many supercarriers did the U.S. fleet have following the deactivation of the USS Enterprise?
570b03536b8089140040f6da
10
83
False
How many new carriers per year did the House Armed Services Seapower subcommittee recommend in 7/24/07?
570b03536b8089140040f6db
one every four years
212
False
What class does the USS America belong to?
570b03536b8089140040f6dc
America-class amphibious assault ships
476
False
What is the USS America capable of destroying squadrons of?
570b03536b8089140040f6dd
F-35Bs
554
False
Which other carrier joins the USS America in active service?
570b03536b8089140040f6de
USS Tripoli
639
False
10
83
How many supercarriers did the U.N. fleet have following the deactivation of the USS Enterprise?
5acd897f07355d001abf463e
True
one every four years
212
How many old carriers per year did the House Armed Services Seapower subcommittee recommend in 7/24/07?
5acd897f07355d001abf463f
True
America-class amphibious assault ships
476
What class doesn't the USS America belong to?
5acd897f07355d001abf4640
True
F-35Bs
554
What is the USS America incapable of destroying squadrons of?
5acd897f07355d001abf4641
True
USS Tripoli
639
Which other carrier joins the USS America in unactive service?
5acd897f07355d001abf4642
True
With the deactivation of USS Enterprise in December 2012, the U.S. fleet comprises 10 supercarriers. The House Armed Services Seapower subcommittee on 24 July 2007, recommended seven or maybe eight new carriers (one every four years). However, the debate has deepened over budgeting for the $12–14.5 billion (plus $12 billion for development and research) for the 100,000 ton Gerald R. Ford-class carrier (estimated service 2016) compared to the smaller $2 billion 45,000 ton America-class amphibious assault ships, which are able to deploy squadrons of F-35Bs. The first of this class, USS America, is now in active service with another, USS Tripoli, under construction and 9 more are planned.
Why have aircraft carriers increased in size since World War II?
570b04bf6b8089140040f6e4
to accommodate a steady increase in aircraft size
68
False
How much more displacement does the modern Nimitz class have compared to the older USS Enterprise?
570b04bf6b8089140040f6e5
nearly four times
184
False
Why do nations risk significant political impacts if a carrier is lost or even used in conflict?
570b04bf6b8089140040f6e6
Today's aircraft carriers are so expensive
392
False
Which era does the USS Enterprise belong to?
570b04bf6b8089140040f6e7
World War II
214
False
to accommodate a steady increase in aircraft size
68
Why have aircraft carriers increased in size since World War I?
5acd71cb07355d001abf427a
True
nearly four times
184
How much more displacement does the modern Nimitz class have compared to the newer USS Enterprise?
5acd71cb07355d001abf427b
True
Today's aircraft carriers are so expensive
392
Why do nations risk minimal political impacts if a carrier is lost or even used in conflict?
5acd71cb07355d001abf427c
True
World War II
214
Which era does the USA Enterprise belong to?
5acd71cb07355d001abf427d
True
significant political, economic, and military impact if a carrier is lost
472
Today's aircraft carriers are so cheap that nations which operate them risk what?
5acd71cb07355d001abf427e
True
Since World War II, aircraft carrier designs have increased in size to accommodate a steady increase in aircraft size. The large, modern Nimitz class of US carriers has a displacement nearly four times that of the World War II–era USS Enterprise, yet its complement of aircraft is roughly the same—a consequence of the steadily increasing size and weight of military aircraft over the years. Today's aircraft carriers are so expensive that nations which operate them risk significant political, economic, and military impact if a carrier is lost, or even used in conflict.
What does LSO stand for?
570b063eec8fbc190045b7e2
landing signal officer
47
False
Who does a conventional aircraft rely upon to moniter the aircraft's approach and transmit the data to the pilot?
570b063eec8fbc190045b7e3
a landing signal officer
45
False
What did LSO's use to signal corrections to the pilot prior to the angled deck designs introduced in the 1950's?
570b063eec8fbc190045b7e4
colored paddles
280
False
Which visual landing aids have provided information on proper glide slope since the late 1950's?
570b063eec8fbc190045b7e5
Optical Landing System
409
False
What are LSO's still being used to do?
570b063eec8fbc190045b7e6
transmit voice calls to approaching pilots by radio
496
False
landing signal officer
47
What does OSL stand for?
5acd7f5e07355d001abf4480
True
a landing signal officer
45
Who does a non-conventional aircraft rely upon to moniter the aircraft's approach and transmit the data to the pilot?
5acd7f5e07355d001abf4481
True
colored paddles
280
What did LSO's use to signal corrections to the pilot prior to the angled deck designs introduced in the 1960's?
5acd7f5e07355d001abf4482
True
Optical Landing System
409
Which visual landing aids have provided information on proper glide slope since the late 1940's?
5acd7f5e07355d001abf4483
True
transmit voice calls to approaching pilots by radio
496
What are LSO's no longer being used to do?
5acd7f5e07355d001abf4484
True
Conventional ("tailhook") aircraft rely upon a landing signal officer (LSO, radio call sign paddles) to monitor the aircraft's approach, visually gauge glideslope, attitude, and airspeed, and transmit that data to the pilot. Before the angled deck emerged in the 1950s, LSOs used colored paddles to signal corrections to the pilot (hence the nickname). From the late 1950s onward, visual landing aids such as Optical Landing System have provided information on proper glide slope, but LSOs still transmit voice calls to approaching pilots by radio.
What is a more fuel efficient way for STOVL aircraft to take off rather than vertically?
570b0780ec8fbc190045b7ec
using the ramp and a running start
86
False
What kind of aircraft are capable of taking off vertically?
570b0780ec8fbc190045b7ed
STOVL
9
False
What landing aircraft have removed the need for arresting cables?
570b0780ec8fbc190045b7ee
vertical
348
False
What do Russian carriers include for launching lightly loaded conventional fighters?
570b0780ec8fbc190045b7ef
a ski-jump ramp
491
False
What do Russian carriers still use to recover?
570b0780ec8fbc190045b7f0
traditional carrier arresting cables and a tailhook on their aircraft
584
False
using the ramp and a running start
86
What is a less fuel efficient way for STOVL aircraft to take off rather than vertically?
5acd83c507355d001abf4514
True
STOVL
9
What kind of aircraft are capable of taking off horizontally?
5acd83c507355d001abf4515
True
vertical
348
What landing aircraft have included the need for arresting cables?
5acd83c507355d001abf4516
True
a ski-jump ramp
491
What do Russian carriers include for launching heavily loaded conventional fighters?
5acd83c507355d001abf4517
True
traditional carrier arresting cables and a tailhook on their aircraft
584
What do Russian carriers no longer use to recover?
5acd83c507355d001abf4518
True
Although STOVL aircraft are capable of taking off vertically from a spot on the deck, using the ramp and a running start is far more fuel efficient and permits a heavier launch weight. As catapults are unnecessary, carriers with this arrangement reduce weight, complexity, and space needed for complex steam or electromagnetic launching equipment, vertical landing aircraft also remove the need for arresting cables and related hardware. Russian, Chinese, and future Indian carriers include a ski-jump ramp for launching lightly loaded conventional fighter aircraft but recover using traditional carrier arresting cables and a tailhook on their aircraft.
What class carrier is the Sao Paulo?
570b0878ec8fbc190045b7f6
Clemenceau
36
False
Who is the Sao Paulo currently in service for?
570b0878ec8fbc190045b7f7
the Brazilian Navy
96
False
Who was the Sao Paulo first commissioned by in 1963?
570b0878ec8fbc190045b7f8
the French Navy
160
False
What did Sao Paulo undergo during the period from 2005-2010?
570b0878ec8fbc190045b7f9
extensive modernization
334
False
What setback happened to Sao Paula in 2012?
570b0878ec8fbc190045b7fa
another major fire
573
False
Clemenceau
36
What class carrier is the Pao Saulo?
5acd856607355d001abf4556
True
the Brazilian Navy
96
Who is the Sao Paulo currently out of service for?
5acd856607355d001abf4557
True
the French Navy
160
Who was the Sao Paulo first commissioned by in 1936?
5acd856607355d001abf4558
True
extensive modernization
334
What didn't Sao Paulo undergo during the period from 2005-2010?
5acd856607355d001abf4559
True
another major fire
573
What advancement happened to Sao Paula in 2012?
5acd856607355d001abf455a
True
One CATOBAR carrier: São Paulo is a Clemenceau-class aircraft carrier currently in service with the Brazilian Navy. São Paulo was first commissioned in 1963 by the French Navy as Foch and was transferred in 2000 to Brazil, where she became the new flagship of the Brazilian Navy. During the period from 2005–2010, São Paulo underwent extensive modernization. At the end of 2010, sea trials began, and as of 2011[update] São Paulo had been evaluated by the CIASA (Inspection Commission and Training Advisory). She was expected to rejoin the fleet in late 2013, but suffered another major fire in 2012.
What type of carrier is Admiral Flota Sovetskovo Soyuza Kuznetsov?
570b09a96b8089140040f700
STOBAR
2
False
When was Admiral Flota Sovetskovo Soyuza Kuznetsov first launched?
570b09a96b8089140040f701
in 1985
132
False
What was Admiral Flota Sovetskovo Soyuza Kuznetsov renamed?
570b09a96b8089140040f702
Tbilisi
143
False
What is unique about Tbilisi?
570b09a96b8089140040f703
carrying a heavy cruiser's complement of defensive weapons and large P-700 Granit offensive missiles
430
False
What will be removed from Tbilisi in order to enlarge her below decks aviation facilities?
570b09a96b8089140040f704
The P-700 systems
532
False
STOBAR
2
What type of airplane is Admiral Flota Sovetskovo Soyuza Kuznetsov?
5acd884007355d001abf4604
True
in 1985
132
When was Admiral Flota Sovetskovo Soyuza Kuznetsov last launched?
5acd884007355d001abf4605
True
Tbilisi
143
What was Admiral Florida Sovetskovo Soyuza Kuznetsov renamed?
5acd884007355d001abf4606
True
carrying a heavy cruiser's complement of defensive weapons and large P-700 Granit offensive missiles
430
What is mundane about Tbilisi?
5acd884007355d001abf4607
True
The P-700 systems
532
What will be added from Tbilisi in order to enlarge her below decks aviation facilities?
5acd884007355d001abf4608
True
1 STOBAR carrier: Admiral Flota Sovetskovo Soyuza Kuznetsov: 55,000 tonne Admiral Kuznetsov-class STOBAR aircraft carrier. Launched in 1985 as Tbilisi, renamed and operational from 1995. Without catapults she can launch and recover lightly fueled naval fighters for air defense or anti-ship missions but not heavy conventional bombing strikes.[citation needed] Officially designated an aircraft carrying cruiser, she is unique in carrying a heavy cruiser's complement of defensive weapons and large P-700 Granit offensive missiles. The P-700 systems will be removed in the coming refit to enlarge her below decks aviation facilities as well as upgrading her defensive systems.
Which class of aircraft carriers is being constructed to replace the Invincible-class carriers?
570b0ac3ec8fbc190045b800
Queen Elizabeth
75
False
What will the displacement be for the HMS Queen Elizabeth?
570b0ac3ec8fbc190045b801
70,600 tonnes
356
False
When is HMS Queen Elizabeth projected to commission?
570b0ac3ec8fbc190045b802
in 2017
418
False
When is Prince of Wales projected to commission?
570b0ac3ec8fbc190045b803
in about 2020
454
False
Who is building HMS Queen Elizabeth and Prince of Wales?
570b0ac3ec8fbc190045b804
Royal Navy
790
False
Queen Elizabeth
75
Which class of aircraft carriers is being deconstructed to replace the Invincible-class carriers?
5acd88dc07355d001abf4622
True
70,600 tonnes
356
What will the displacement be for the SMH Queen Elizabeth?
5acd88dc07355d001abf4623
True
2017
421
When is HMS Queen Elizabeth projected to end?
5acd88dc07355d001abf4624
True
in about 2020
454
When is Prince of Wales projected to end?
5acd88dc07355d001abf4625
True
Royal Navy
790
Who is buying HMS Queen Elizabeth and Prince of Wales?
5acd88dc07355d001abf4626
True
The Royal Navy is constructing two new larger STOVL aircraft carriers, the Queen Elizabeth class, to replace the three now retired Invincible-class carriers. The ships are HMS Queen Elizabeth and HMS Prince of Wales. They will be able to operate up to 40 aircraft on peace time operations with a tailored group of up to 50, and will have a displacement of 70,600 tonnes. HMS Queen Elizabeth is projected to commission in 2017 followed by Prince of Wales in about 2020. The ships are due to become operational starting in 2020. Their primary aircraft complement will be made up of F-35B Lightning IIs, and their ship's company will number around 680 with the total complement rising to about 1600 when the air group is embarked. The two ships will be the largest warships ever built for the Royal Navy.
Federal_Aviation_Administration
When did two whisleblowers allege that Boutris  attempted to ground Southwest Airlines?
570aa91f4103511400d598ca
2007
3
False
How many planes did the FAA managers allow to fly in 2006 and 2007 that were overdue for safety inspections?
570aa91f4103511400d598cb
46
394
False
How much did the FAA propose to fine Southwest for failing to inspect older planes?
570aa91f4103511400d598cc
$10.2 million
1200
False
What former chairman of the committee said it's investigation uncovered a pattern of regulatory abuse?
570aa91f4103511400d598cd
Jim Oberstar
712
False
How many planes were allowed to be operated commercially although not in compliance with FAA safety regulations?
570aa91f4103511400d598ce
117
865
False
cracks in the fuselage
167
Why did Boutris say Peters attempted to ground Southwest?
5a2e105df28ef0001a526751
True
117
865
How many aircrafts were operated commercially that were in compliance with FAA safety rules?
5a2e105df28ef0001a526752
True
$7.5 million
1330
How much did Southwest pay in penalties for not adopting new safety procedures?
5a2e105df28ef0001a526753
True
two
543
How many other airlines were audited?
5a2e105df28ef0001a526754
True
In 2007, two FAA whistleblowers, inspectors Charalambe "Bobby" Boutris and Douglas E. Peters, alleged that Boutris said he attempted to ground Southwest after finding cracks in the fuselage, but was prevented by supervisors he said were friendly with the airline. This was validated by a report by the Department of Transportation which found FAA managers had allowed Southwest Airlines to fly 46 airplanes in 2006 and 2007 that were overdue for safety inspections, ignoring concerns raised by inspectors. Audits of other airlines resulted in two airlines grounding hundreds of planes, causing thousands of flight cancellations. The House Transportation and Infrastructure Committee held hearings in April 2008. Jim Oberstar, former chairman of the committee said its investigation uncovered a pattern of regulatory abuse and widespread regulatory lapses, allowing 117 aircraft to be operated commercially although not in compliance with FAA safety rules. Oberstar said there was a "culture of coziness" between senior FAA officials and the airlines and "a systematic breakdown" in the FAA's culture that resulted in "malfeasance, bordering on corruption." In 2008 the FAA proposed to fine Southwest $10.2 million for failing to inspect older planes for cracks, and in 2009 Southwest and the FAA agreed that Southwest would pay a $7.5 million penalty and would adopt new safety procedures, with the fine doubling if Southwest failed to follow through.
When did the aftermath of the Southwest Airlines inspection scandal happen?
570aa92c4103511400d598d4
July 22, 2008
3
False
who approved a mesaure to tigheten regulations concerning airplane maintenance prodecures?
570aa92c4103511400d598d5
House
120
False
What does the word 'customer' properly apply to?
570aa92c4103511400d598d6
the flying public
517
False
how long was the "cooling off" period that the FAA inspectors or supervisers of inspectors must wait before they can work for those they regulate?
570aa92c4103511400d598d7
two-year
253
False
July 22, 2008
3
When did the Senate approve a bill to tighten regulations concerning airplane maintenance procedures?
5a2e180bf28ef0001a52678f
True
must wait before they can work for those they regulated
332
What was the two year "cooling off" period for whistleblowers for?
5a2e180bf28ef0001a526790
True
customer
487
What did the bill require entities regulated by the FAA be called?
5a2e180bf28ef0001a526791
True
July 22, 2008
3
When did the unanimous decision of the house and senate to pass the bill take place?
5a2e180bf28ef0001a526792
True
On July 22, 2008, in the aftermath of the Southwest Airlines inspection scandal, a bill was unanimously approved in the House to tighten regulations concerning airplane maintenance procedures, including the establishment of a whistleblower office and a two-year "cooling off" period that FAA inspectors or supervisors of inspectors must wait before they can work for those they regulated. The bill also required rotation of principal maintenance inspectors and stipulated that the word "customer" properly applies to the flying public, not those entities regulated by the FAA. The bill died in a Senate committee that year.
What epidemic did the FAA have to handle in the 1960s?
570aa92f6d058f1900183030
hijacking
52
False
Who now takes responsibility for aviation security?
570aa92f6d058f1900183031
Department of Homeland Security
261
False
When did the FAA become more involved with the environmental aspects of aviation?
570aa92f6d058f1900183032
1968
369
False
When was legislation passed that gave the agency management of a new airport aide program?
570aa92f6d058f1900183033
1970
449
False
What is the altitude which the FAA regulates over?
570aa92f6d058f1900183034
500 feet
646
False
1960s and 1970s,
576
When did the FAA start to regulate low altitude kite and balloon flying?
5a2e0b8cf28ef0001a526735
True
hijacking epidemic
52
What epidemic in the 60's cause aviation security to be taken over by Homeland?
5a2e0b8cf28ef0001a526736
True
1968
369
Whne did Homeland become more involved with the environmental aspects of aviation?
5a2e0b8cf28ef0001a526737
True
1968
369
When did the Faa receive the power to set watercraft noise standards?
5a2e0b8cf28ef0001a526738
True
The FAA gradually assumed additional functions. The hijacking epidemic of the 1960s had already brought the agency into the field of civil aviation security. In response to the hijackings on September 11, 2001, this responsibility is now primarily taken by the Department of Homeland Security. The FAA became more involved with the environmental aspects of aviation in 1968 when it received the power to set aircraft noise standards. Legislation in 1970 gave the agency management of a new airport aid program and certain added responsibilities for airport safety. During the 1960s and 1970s, the FAA also started to regulate high altitude (over 500 feet) kite and balloon flying.
When did the CAA begin to exptend it's ATC responsibilities?
570aa9564103511400d598dc
World War II
35
False
What helped ATC controllers in their drive ot keep ahead of the postwar boom in commercial air transportation?
570aa9564103511400d598dd
radar
222
False
When did Congress give the CAA the task of administering the federal-air airport program?
570aa9564103511400d598de
1946
342
False
What did the federal-aid airport program aim to help develop?
570aa9564103511400d598df
civil airports
553
False
1946
342
When did America enter World War II?
5a2e04e1f28ef0001a5266fb
True
World War II
35
When did the CAA begin to extend it's ATC responsibilities at military airports?
5a2e04e1f28ef0001a5266fc
True
the federal-aid airport program
409
What was the first wartime program of financial assistance  aimed at promoting the development of civil airports?
5a2e04e1f28ef0001a5266fd
True
On the eve of America's entry into World War II
0
When did congress extend it's ATC responsibilities to takeoff and landing operations at airports?
5a2e04e1f28ef0001a5266fe
True
after the war
188
When did radar technology become permanent?
5a2e04e1f28ef0001a5266ff
True
On the eve of America's entry into World War II, CAA began to extend its ATC responsibilities to takeoff and landing operations at airports. This expanded role eventually became permanent after the war. The application of radar to ATC helped controllers in their drive to keep abreast of the postwar boom in commercial air transportation. In 1946, meanwhile, Congress gave CAA the added task of administering the federal-aid airport program, the first peacetime program of financial assistance aimed exclusively at promoting development of the nation's civil airports.
When did the agency acheive a semi-automated air traffic control system?
570aa95a6d058f190018303a
mid-1970s
7
False
When was the Airline Deregulation act?
570aa95a6d058f190018303b
1978
257
False
When did the nationwide strike by air traffic controlers union happen?
570aa95a6d058f190018303c
1981
380
False
when did the FAA shift to a more step-by-step approach to providing air traffic controllers with more advanced equipment?
570aa95a6d058f190018303d
1994
622
False
What helped operate radar in the new air-traffic control system?
570aa95a6d058f190018303e
computer technology
107
False
mid-1970s
7
When did the agency achieve fully automated air traffic control systems?
5a2e0d6df28ef0001a526747
True
1978
257
When was airline deregulation phased out?
5a2e0d6df28ef0001a526748
True
Airline Deregulation Act of 1978
229
What was the act that phased out airline deregulation?
5a2e0d6df28ef0001a526749
True
1981
380
When was the nationwide strike that forced flight restrictions but failed to shutdown the aerospace system?
5a2e0d6df28ef0001a52674a
True
radar and computer technology
97
What type of enhancement did the air traffic control system get to keep up with air traffic growth?
5a2e0d6df28ef0001a52674b
True
By the mid-1970s, the agency had achieved a semi-automated air traffic control system using both radar and computer technology. This system required enhancement to keep pace with air traffic growth, however, especially after the Airline Deregulation Act of 1978 phased out the CAB's economic regulation of the airlines. A nationwide strike by the air traffic controllers union in 1981 forced temporary flight restrictions but failed to shut down the airspace system. During the following year, the agency unveiled a new plan for further automating its air traffic control facilities, but progress proved disappointing. In 1994, the FAA shifted to a more step-by-step approach that has provided controllers with advanced equipment.
When was the Air Commerce Act passed?
570aa95e4103511400d598e4
May 20, 1926
24
False
Who was charged with fostering air commerce?
570aa95e4103511400d598e5
Secretary of Commerce
359
False
What new branch was created and operates under the Department of Commerce?
570aa95e4103511400d598e6
Aeronautics Branch
584
False
Who assumed primary responsibility for aviation oversight?
570aa95e4103511400d598e7
Aeronautics Branch
584
False
Who was responsible for operating and maintaining aids to air navigation?
570aa95e4103511400d598e8
Secretary of Commerce
359
False
the aviation industry
169
Who passed the Air Commerce Act?
5a2e0066f28ef0001a5266dd
True
the Secretary of Commerce
355
Who was charged with fostering aviation oversight?
5a2e0066f28ef0001a5266de
True
aviation industry
173
Who believed the airplane could not reach its federal potential without legislation?
5a2e0066f28ef0001a5266df
True
Secretary of Commerce
359
Who was charged with the fostering of manufacturing planes?
5a2e0066f28ef0001a5266e0
True
Department of Commerce
624
What department did the Aeronautic Branch create?
5a2e0066f28ef0001a5266e1
True
The Air Commerce Act of May 20, 1926, is the cornerstone of the federal government's regulation of civil aviation. This landmark legislation was passed at the urging of the aviation industry, whose leaders believed the airplane could not reach its full commercial potential without federal action to improve and maintain safety standards. The Act charged the Secretary of Commerce with fostering air commerce, issuing and enforcing air traffic rules, licensing pilots, certifying aircraft, establishing airways, and operating and maintaining aids to air navigation. The newly created Aeronautics Branch, operating under the Department of Commerce assumed primary responsibility for aviation oversight.
When did the Grand-Canyon mid-air collision happen?
570aa9616d058f1900183044
1956
91
False
when was the Federal Aviation Act passed?
570aa9616d058f1900183045
1958
177
False
What agency would now act like the CAA?
570aa9616d058f1900183046
Federal Aviation Agency
256
False
Who did the Federal Aviation Act transfer air safety regulation from?
570aa9616d058f1900183047
CAB
332
False
Who was the FAA's first administrator?
570aa9616d058f1900183048
Elwood R. Quesada
503
False
Elwood R. Quesada
503
Who did President Eisenhower appoint as the FAA's first administrator?
5a2e07a0f28ef0001a52670f
True
1956 Grand Canyon mid-air collision
91
What prompted the the legislation act of 1956?
5a2e07a0f28ef0001a526710
True
Federal Aviation Act of 1958
153
What legislation gave the CAAs function to the government body, the FAA?
5a2e07a0f28ef0001a526711
True
Elwood R. Quesada
503
Who was the former general to President Eisenhower?
5a2e07a0f28ef0001a526712
True
Federal Aviation Act of 1958
153
The approaching era of air traffic control prompted passage of what act?
5a2e07a0f28ef0001a526713
True
The approaching era of jet travel, and a series of midair collisions (most notable was the 1956 Grand Canyon mid-air collision), prompted passage of the Federal Aviation Act of 1958. This legislation gave the CAA's functions to a new independent body, the Federal Aviation Agency. The act transferred air safety regulation from the CAB to the new FAA, and also gave the FAA sole responsibility for a common civil-military system of air navigation and air traffic control. The FAA's first administrator, Elwood R. Quesada, was a former Air Force general and adviser to President Eisenhower.
When did the FAA decide to expand passengers use of portable elctronic devices during all phases of flight?
570aa9644103511400d598ee
October 31, 2013
3
False
What mode must mobile phones be put into?
570aa9644103511400d598ef
airplane mode
610
False
What phases of flight will passengers be able to use electronic devices?
570aa9644103511400d598f0
all phases
229
False
Where must devices be put during actual takeoff and landing?
570aa9644103511400d598f1
seat-back pocket
529
False
Are short-range bluetooth accessories able to be used?
570aa9644103511400d598f2
can also be used.
978
False
October 31, 2013
3
When did the FAA begin to allow mobile phone calls during flights?
5a2e12e1f28ef0001a526761
True
The New York Times
101
What paper criticized Nick Bilton?
5a2e12e1f28ef0001a526762
True
Federal Communications Commission
739
Who made regulations that phones must not be in airplane mode, with mobile service enabled and bars displayed?
5a2e12e1f28ef0001a526763
True
Devices
494
What must be in back pants pocket during takeoff and landing?
5a2e12e1f28ef0001a526764
True
On October 31, 2013, after outcry from media outlets, including heavy criticism  from Nick Bilton of The New York Times, the FAA announced it will allow airlines to expand the passengers use of portable electronic devices during all phases of flight, but mobile phone calls will still be prohibited. Implementation will vary among airlines. The FAA expects many carriers to show that their planes allow passengers to safely use their devices in airplane mode, gate-to-gate, by the end of 2013. Devices must be held or put in the seat-back pocket during the actual takeoff and landing. Mobile phones must be in airplane mode or with mobile service disabled, with no signal bars displayed, and cannot be used for voice communications due to Federal Communications Commission regulations that prohibit any airborne calls using mobile phones. If an air carrier provides Wi-Fi service during flight, passengers may use it. Short-range Bluetooth accessories, like wireless keyboards, can also be used.
When did the US DOT combine major federal responsibilities for air and surface transport?
570aa9676d058f190018304e
1967
3
False
What did the Federal Aviation Agency change it's name to?
570aa9676d058f190018304f
Federal Aviation Administration
176
False
Who would the FAA administrator report to?
570aa9676d058f1900183050
Secretary of Transportation
512
False
Who approves new programs and budget requests?
570aa9676d058f1900183051
DOT
603
False
Who is the final person to approve the budget that is submitted?
570aa9676d058f1900183052
president
691
False
Federal Aviation Administration
176
What did the Federal Aviation Agency change it's name from?
5a2e0a05f28ef0001a52672d
True
president
470
Who would the secretary of transport report to instead of the FAA?
5a2e0a05f28ef0001a52672e
True
Federal Highway Administration, Federal Railroad Administration, the Coast Guard, and the Saint Lawrence Seaway Commission
252
What agencies combined to make the Federal Aviation Administration?
5a2e0a05f28ef0001a52672f
True
DOT
603
Who did the secretary of transportation send budget requests to to be approved?
5a2e0a05f28ef0001a526730
True
In 1967, a new U.S. Department of Transportation (DOT) combined major federal responsibilities for air and surface transport. The Federal Aviation Agency's name changed to the Federal Aviation Administration as it became one of several agencies (e.g., Federal Highway Administration, Federal Railroad Administration, the Coast Guard, and the Saint Lawrence Seaway Commission) within DOT (albeit the largest). The FAA administrator would no longer report directly to the president but would instead report to the Secretary of Transportation. New programs and budget requests would have to be approved by DOT, which would then include these requests in the overall budget and submit it to the president.
What was the Areonautics Branch renamed to?
570aa9a06d058f1900183058
Bureau of Air Commerce
39
False
When was the Aeronautics Branch renamed?
570aa9a06d058f1900183059
1934
65
False
When did the Buerau take over and begin to expant the ATC system?
570aa9a06d058f190018305a
1936
297
False
What were the people who used maps, blackboards, and mental calculation to ensure the safe separation of aircraft traveling between cities called?
570aa9a06d058f190018305b
air traffic controllers
391
False
Aeronautics Branch
4
What was the Bureau of Air Commerce renamed to?
5a2e024ff28ef0001a5266e7
True
1936
297
When did the bureau create the first air traffic control centers?
5a2e024ff28ef0001a5266e8
True
1934
65
When was the Aeronautics branch renamed to reflect it's decreased status?
5a2e024ff28ef0001a5266e9
True
maps, blackboards, and mental calculations
420
What did the bureau used to ensure the safe travels of aircraft?
5a2e024ff28ef0001a5266ea
True
the first three centers for providing air traffic control (ATC) along the airways
211
As personal flying increased, what did the Bureau establish?
5a2e024ff28ef0001a5266eb
True
The Aeronautics Branch was renamed the Bureau of Air Commerce in 1934 to reflect its enhanced status within the Department. As commercial flying increased, the Bureau encouraged a group of airlines to establish the first three centers for providing air traffic control (ATC) along the airways. In 1936, the Bureau itself took over the centers and began to expand the ATC system. The pioneer air traffic controllers used maps, blackboards, and mental calculations to ensure the safe separation of aircraft traveling along designated routes between cities.
When did the FAA change it's long-standing approach to air traffic control candidates?
570aa9a54103511400d598f8
2014
3
False
What was now favored instead of training and experince at flight schools?
570aa9a54103511400d598f9
personality test
177
False
Who could be an air traffic controller irrespective of experience now because of the rule change?
570aa9a54103511400d598fa
anyone
202
False
What did applicants now take that many of them found baffling?
570aa9a54103511400d598fb
biographical questionnaire
645
False
college
595
What kind of degree do you need to be considered?
5a2e1a1ef28ef0001a526797
True
2014
3
When did the agency switch to a system where people could be "fast-tracked" for consideration?
5a2e1a1ef28ef0001a526798
True
baffling
700
How did applicants find the biological questionnaire?
5a2e1a1ef28ef0001a526799
True
agency
460
Who switched to an open system for candidates who completed the coursework at participating colleges?
5a2e1a1ef28ef0001a52679a
True
In 2014, the FAA changed a long-standing approach to air traffic control candidates that eliminated preferences based on training and experience at flight schools in favor of a personality test open to anyone irrespective of experience. The move was made to increase flight traffic controller racial diversity. Before the change, candidates who had completed coursework at participating colleges and universities could be "fast-tracked" for consideration. The agency eliminated that program and instead switched to an open system to the general public, with no need for any experience or even a college degree. Instead, applicants could take "a biographical questionnaire" that many applicants found baffling.
What retired NASA Office of inspector general is outspoken about the FAA?
570aa9bf6d058f1900183060
Joseph Gutheinz
304
False
How much do penalties against airlines cost per violation?
570aa9bf6d058f1900183061
$25,000
791
False
A heavy penalty for violating FAA reulations could said to be do what?
570aa9bf6d058f1900183062
impact their ability to continue operating
1302
False
What did the agency propose to find Southwest Airlines?
570aa9bf6d058f1900183063
$10.2 million
541
False
Joseph Gutheinz
304
Who used to be the Inspector General for the Department of Transportation?
5a2e15b6f28ef0001a52677b
True
2008
639
When did Joseph Gutheinz commend the agency for proposing a $10.2 million fine against Southwest?
5a2e15b6f28ef0001a52677c
True
Joseph Gutheinz
304
Who said penalties against airlines that violate FAA directives should be $25,000?
5a2e15b6f28ef0001a52677d
True
levy a heavy penalty
1221
What would be considered encouraging aerospace travel?
5a2e15b6f28ef0001a52677e
True
2008
639
When did Southwest conduct mandatory inspections.
5a2e15b6f28ef0001a52677f
True
The FAA has been cited as an example of regulatory capture, "in which the airline industry openly dictates to its regulators its governing rules, arranging for not only beneficial regulation, but placing key people to head these regulators." Retired NASA Office of Inspector General Senior Special Agent Joseph Gutheinz, who used to be a Special Agent with the Office of Inspector General for the Department of Transportation and with FAA Security, is one of the most outspoken critics of FAA. Rather than commend the agency for proposing a $10.2 million fine against Southwest Airlines for its failure to conduct mandatory inspections in 2008, he was quoted as saying the following in an Associated Press story: "Penalties against airlines that violate FAA directives should be stiffer. At $25,000 per violation, Gutheinz said, airlines can justify rolling the dice and taking the chance on getting caught. He also said the FAA is often too quick to bend to pressure from airlines and pilots." Other experts have been critical of the constraints and expectations under which the FAA is expected to operate. The dual role of encouraging aerospace travel and regulating aerospace travel are contradictory. For example, to levy a heavy penalty upon an airline for violating an FAA regulation which would impact their ability to continue operating would not be considered encouraging aerospace travel.
Lancashire
In what year did Blackpool and Blackburn become independent unitary authorities?
570abdb26d058f19001830be
1998
730
False
In what year was Simonswood transferred from Knowsley to West Lancashire
570abdb26d058f19001830bf
1994
721
False
Which places were added to the new county of Cheshire?
570abdb26d058f19001830c0
Warrington and Widnes
241
False
Where were the boroughs of Liverpool, Knowsley, St Helens and Sefton included?
570abdb26d058f19001830c1
Merseyside
75
False
Which parish was transferred from Knowsley to the district of West Lancashire?
570abdb26d058f19001830c2
Simonswood
612
False
Lancashire
588
Besides Greater Manchester, to what other county was a part of Oldham incorporated into?
5a036c09af157d001818f3dd
True
1998
730
In what year was Liverpool made a part of Merseyside?
5a036c09af157d001818f3de
True
1994
721
In what year was Skipton Rural District made part of Lancashire?
5a036c09af157d001818f3df
True
Merseyside
75
In addition to Greater Manchester, part of Tameside became a portion of what other county?
5a036c09af157d001818f3e0
True
1998
730
When was Sefton included as part of Merseyside?
5a036c09af157d001818f3e1
True
The boroughs of Liverpool, Knowsley, St Helens and Sefton were included in Merseyside. In Greater Manchester the successor boroughs were Bury, Bolton, Manchester, Oldham (part), Rochdale, Salford, Tameside (part), Trafford (part) and Wigan. Warrington and Widnes, south of the new Merseyside/Greater Manchester border were added to the new non-metropolitan county of Cheshire. The urban districts of Barnoldswick and Earby, Bowland Rural District and the parishes of Bracewell and Brogden and Salterforth from Skipton Rural District in the West Riding of Yorkshire became part of the new Lancashire. One parish, Simonswood, was transferred from the borough of Knowsley in Merseyside to the district of West Lancashire in 1994. In 1998 Blackpool and Blackburn with Darwen became independent unitary authorities.
When did the administrative boundaries for the Duchy of Lancaster change?
570ac1574103511400d59982
1970s
284
False
What is the Duchy of Lancaster?
570ac1574103511400d59983
one of two royal duchies in England
26
False
What does the Duchy of Lancaster operate as?
570ac1574103511400d59984
a property company
133
False
Who are appointed within the Duchy and County Palatine of Lancater?
570ac1574103511400d59985
High Sheriffs
383
False
Who exercises the right of the Crown in the County Palatine of Lancaster?
570ac1574103511400d59986
The Duchy of Lancaster
0
False
1970s
284
In what decade was the County Palatine of Lancaster established?
5a036dc2af157d001818f3f1
True
Merseyside
436
What is the other royal duchy of England beyond the Duchy of Lancaster?
5a036dc2af157d001818f3f2
True
1970s
284
When was the Duchy of Lancaster established?
5a036dc2af157d001818f3f3
True
Greater Manchester
413
What county lies to the east of Lancashire?
5a036dc2af157d001818f3f4
True
The Duchy of Lancaster is one of two royal duchies in England. It has landholdings throughout the region and elsewhere, operating as a property company, but also exercising the right of the Crown in the County Palatine of Lancaster. While the administrative boundaries changed in the 1970s, the county palatine boundaries remain the same as the historic boundaries. As a result, the High Sheriffs for Lancashire, Greater Manchester and Merseyside are appointed "within the Duchy and County Palatine of Lancaster".
How many state grammar schools are in Lancashire?
570ac1de4103511400d59996
four
50
False
How many state schools are in Lancashire?
570ac1de4103511400d59997
77
123
False
How many independant schools are in Lancashire?
570ac1de4103511400d59998
24
182
False
Who has the largest school population?
570ac1de4103511400d59999
South Ribble
474
False
Who has the smallest school population?
570ac1de4103511400d5999a
Fylde
525
False
24
182
How many sixth form colleges are there in Lancashire?
5a036fd6af157d001818f40d
True
77
123
How many schools are there in total in the Clitheroe area?
5a036fd6af157d001818f40e
True
77
123
What's the size of the South Ribble school population?
5a036fd6af157d001818f40f
True
2006
665
In what year was the Church of England established?
5a036fd6af157d001818f410
True
four
50
How many Catholic faith schools are there in Lancashire?
5a036fd6af157d001818f411
True
Lancashire has a mostly comprehensive system with four state grammar schools. Not including sixth form colleges, there are 77 state schools (not including Burnley's new schools) and 24 independent schools. The Clitheroe area has secondary modern schools. Sixth form provision is limited at most schools in most districts, with only Fylde and Lancaster districts having mostly sixth forms at schools. The rest depend on FE colleges and sixth form colleges, where they exist. South Ribble has the largest school population and Fylde the smallest (only three schools). Burnley's schools have had a new broom and have essentially been knocked down and started again in 2006. There are many Church of England and Catholic faith schools in Lancashire.
What years did the Lancashire League competition run from?
570ac42c4103511400d599aa
1895 to 1970
240
False
Which county was once the focal point for many professional competitions?
570ac42c4103511400d599ab
Lancashire
0
False
Which year was the Lancashire County Cup abandoned?
570ac42c4103511400d599ac
1993
307
False
What year did Rugby League start?
570ac42c4103511400d599ad
1895
440
False
1970
248
when were the first games played in the St Helens super league?
5a03752aaf157d001818f433
True
1895
240
When was the first Lancashire County Cup held?
5a03752aaf157d001818f434
True
89
408
How many rugby teams are there in Lancashire?
5a03752aaf157d001818f435
True
Wigan
72
What super league do the Blackpool Panthers play in?
5a03752aaf157d001818f436
True
Warrington
83
In what super league do the Chorley Panthers play in?
5a03752aaf157d001818f437
True
Lancashire produced well known teams in super league such as St Helens, Wigan, and Warrington. The county was once the focal point for many of the sport's professional competitions including the Lancashire League competition which ran from 1895 to 1970, and the Lancashire County Cup which was abandoned in 1993. Rugby League has also seen a representative fixture between Lancashire and Yorkshire contested 89 times since its inception in 1895. Currently there are several rugby league teams that are based within the ceremonial county which include Blackpool Panthers, East Lancashire Lions, Blackpool Sea Eagles, Bamber Bridge, Leyland Warriors, Chorley Panthers, Blackpool Stanley, Blackpool Scorpions and Adlington Rangers.
Where was the first open competition for brass bands held?
570acb424103511400d599fe
Manchester
518
False
What year was the first open competition for brass bands held?
570acb424103511400d599ff
1853
532
False
Where was David Atherton born?
570acb424103511400d59a00
Blackpool
1159
False
What did David Atherton co-found?
570acb424103511400d59a01
the London Sinfonietta
1123
False
Who began their musical career as organist of Salford Cathedral?
570acb424103511400d59a02
Leslie Stuart
1265
False
1853
532
How many local church choirs were there in Lancashire in the 17th century?
5a037806af157d001818f45b
True
St. Helens
965
Where was Sir Thomas Beecham born?
5a037806af157d001818f45c
True
Sir Thomas Beecham
925
Who founded the London Sinfonietta with David Atherton?
5a037806af157d001818f45d
True
Haslingden
1067
Where is the Salford Cathedral?
5a037806af157d001818f45e
True
Oldham
887
In what city did Handel primarily perform?
5a037806af157d001818f45f
True
Lancashire had a lively culture of choral and classical music, with very large numbers of local church choirs from the 17th century, leading to the foundation of local choral societies from the mid-18th century, often particularly focused on performances of the music of Handel and his contemporaries. It also played a major part in the development of brass bands which emerged in the county, particularly in the textile and coalfield areas, in the 19th century. The first open competition for brass bands was held at Manchester in 1853, and continued annually until the 1980s. The vibrant brass band culture of the area made an important contribution to the foundation and staffing of the Hallé Orchestra from 1857, the oldest extant professional orchestra in the United Kingdom. The same local musical tradition produced eminent figures such as Sir William Walton (1902–88), son of an Oldham choirmaster and music teacher, Sir Thomas Beecham (1879–1961), born in St. Helens, who began his career by conducting local orchestras and Alan Rawsthorne (1905–71) born in Haslingden. The conductor David Atherton, co-founder of the London Sinfonietta, was born in Blackpool in 1944. Lancashire also produced more populist figures, such as early musical theatre composer Leslie Stuart (1863–1928), born in Southport, who began his musical career as organist of Salford Cathedral.
What are the biggest cities in Lancashire?
570acc776d058f1900183108
Manchester and Liverpool
97
False
By the 1830's, how much of all cotton was processed in Lancashire?
570acc776d058f1900183109
85%
328
False
Where was a center for tourist for the people of Lancashire's mill towns?
570acc776d058f190018310a
Blackpool
559
False
What week was most popular to visit Lancashire's mill towns?
570acc776d058f190018310b
wakes week
662
False
When did Lancashire emerge as a major commercialand industrial region?
570acc776d058f190018310c
during the Industrial Revolution
63
False
1830s
307
In what decade was Liverpool founded?
5a03628baf157d001818f38d
True
1830s
307
When did the Industrial Revolution start?
5a03628baf157d001818f38e
True
85%
328
What percentage of all global trade went through Liverpool in the 1830's?
5a03628baf157d001818f38f
True
85%
328
What percentage of the cotton was milled in Oldham?
5a03628baf157d001818f390
True
Blackpool
559
What was the centre of tourism for those living in Bolton?
5a03628baf157d001818f391
True
Lancashire emerged as a major commercial and industrial region during the Industrial Revolution. Manchester and Liverpool grew into its largest cities, dominating global trade and the birth of modern capitalism. The county contained several mill towns and the collieries of the Lancashire Coalfield. By the 1830s, approximately 85% of all cotton manufactured worldwide was processed in Lancashire. Accrington, Blackburn, Bolton, Burnley, Bury, Chorley, Colne, Darwen, Nelson, Oldham, Preston, Rochdale and Wigan were major cotton mill towns during this time. Blackpool was a centre for tourism for the inhabitants of Lancashire's mill towns, particularly during wakes week.
When was Liverpool and Manchester removed from Lancashire boundaries?
570ad47c4103511400d59a48
1974
57
False
How many miles of land did Lancashire lose to other countries?
570ad47c4103511400d59a49
709
399
False
What is to the north of Lancashire today?
570ad47c4103511400d59a4a
Cumbria
573
False
What is to the east of Lancashire today?
570ad47c4103511400d59a4b
West Yorkshire
656
False
Who exercises sovereignty rights for Lancashire?
570ad47c4103511400d59a4c
Duke of Lancaster
809
False
709 square miles
399
How much land did Lancashire gain from West Riding of Yorkshire?
5a0363b3af157d001818f397
True
709 square miles
399
How large is the metropolitan county of Merseyside?
5a0363b3af157d001818f398
True
Merseyside
618
What county borders Cumbria to the east?
5a0363b3af157d001818f399
True
1974
57
When did the current Duke of Lancaster start his reign?
5a0363b3af157d001818f39a
True
709 square miles
399
How big was the West Riding of Yorkshire prior to 1974?
5a0363b3af157d001818f39b
True
The county was subject to significant boundary reform in 1974 that removed Liverpool and Manchester and most of their surrounding conurbations to form the metropolitan counties of Merseyside and Greater Manchester. The detached northern part of Lancashire in the Lake District, including the Furness Peninsula and Cartmel, was merged with Cumberland and Westmorland to form Cumbria. Lancashire lost 709 square miles of land to other counties, about two fifths of its original area, although it did gain some land from the West Riding of Yorkshire. Today the county borders Cumbria to the north, Greater Manchester and Merseyside to the south and North and West Yorkshire to the east; with a coastline on the Irish Sea to the west. The county palatine boundaries remain the same[clarification needed] with the Duke of Lancaster exercising sovereignty rights, including the appointment of lords lieutenant in Greater Manchester and Merseyside.
When was the administrative county of Lancashire created?
570ad6ac4103511400d59a68
1889
98
False
What is the area served by the Lord-Lieutenant called now?
570ad6ac4103511400d59a69
ceremonial county
361
False
Where is the ancient border between Lancashire and Yorkshire located?
570ad6ac4103511400d59a6a
the western part of Todmorden
661
False
Why is Lancashire smaller than its historical extent?
570ad6ac4103511400d59a6b
reform of local government
67
False
What area is covered by the Lord-Lieutenant?
570ad6ac4103511400d59a6c
the administrative county and the county boroughs
404
False
1889
98
When was the city of Liverpool established?
5a0367eeaf157d001818f3b5
True
Manchester
552
What county lies north of Lancashire?
5a0367eeaf157d001818f3b6
True
River Mersey
576
What's the main river in Todmorden?
5a0367eeaf157d001818f3b7
True
Cheshire
609
What county lies north of the River Mersey?
5a0367eeaf157d001818f3b8
True
1889
98
In what year was Cheshire made a county?
5a0367eeaf157d001818f3b9
True
Lancashire is smaller than its historical extent following a major reform of local government. In 1889, the administrative county of Lancashire was created, covering the historical county except for the county boroughs such as Blackburn, Burnley, Barrow-in-Furness, Preston, Wigan, Liverpool and Manchester. The area served by the Lord-Lieutenant (termed now a ceremonial county) covered the entirety of the administrative county and the county boroughs, and was expanded whenever boroughs annexed areas in neighbouring counties such as Wythenshawe in Manchester south of the River Mersey and historically in Cheshire, and southern Warrington. It did not cover the western part of Todmorden, where the ancient border between Lancashire and Yorkshire passes through the middle of the town.
When did the county become more urbanised?
570ad7de4103511400d59a7c
20th century
11
False
Which part in particular became urbanised in the 20th century?
570ad7de4103511400d59a7d
the southern part
80
False
When was Warrington added to Lancashire?
570ad7de4103511400d59a7e
1900
337
False
When was Southport added?
570ad7de4103511400d59a7f
1905
314
False
When was Blackpool added to the county?
570ad7de4103511400d59a80
1904
296
False
1904
296
When was the county borough of Liverpool created?
5a0369d6af157d001818f3bf
True
1900
337
What was the county borough of St Helens created?
5a0369d6af157d001818f3c0
True
Burnley
180
What a county bureau that lies in the southern part of Lancashire?
5a0369d6af157d001818f3c1
True
southern part
84
Where does Bootle lie in Lancashire?
5a0369d6af157d001818f3c2
True
1905
314
In what year was Oldham made part of Lancashire?
5a0369d6af157d001818f3c3
True
During the 20th century, the county became increasingly urbanised, particularly the southern part. To the existing county boroughs of Barrow-in-Furness, Blackburn, Bolton, Bootle, Burnley, Bury, Liverpool, Manchester, Oldham, Preston, Rochdale, Salford, St Helens and Wigan were added Blackpool (1904), Southport (1905), and Warrington (1900). The county boroughs also had many boundary extensions. The borders around the Manchester area were particularly complicated, with narrow protrusions of the administrative county between the county boroughs – Lees urban district formed a detached part of the administrative county, between Oldham county borough and the West Riding of Yorkshire.
What is most of the lowland in the county devoted to?
570ad8ec4103511400d59a90
dairy farming and cheesemaking
204
False
What is the higer ground in the county devoted to?
570ad8ec4103511400d59a91
sheep
283
False
What is in the highest ground?
570ad8ec4103511400d59a92
uncultivated moorland
316
False
Where is the Lancashire Coalfield located?
570ad8ec4103511400d59a93
modern-day Greater Manchester
695
False
where is Beacon Fell County Park located?
570ad8ec4103511400d59a94
North of the Ribble
68
False
Beacon Fell Country Park
91
What does AONB stand for?
5a036cf1af157d001818f3e7
True
dairy farming
204
What are the valleys of the River Ribble used for?
5a036cf1af157d001818f3e8
True
cheesemaking
222
What is the area around Ormskirk used for?
5a036cf1af157d001818f3e9
True
upland areas leading to the Pennines
30
What's to the west of the county?
5a036cf1af157d001818f3ea
True
sheep
283
What is cultivated in the Forest of Rossendale?
5a036cf1af157d001818f3eb
True
To the east of the county are upland areas leading to the Pennines. North of the Ribble is Beacon Fell Country Park and the Forest of Bowland, another AONB. Much of the lowland in this area is devoted to dairy farming and cheesemaking, whereas the higher ground is more suitable for sheep, and the highest ground is uncultivated moorland. The valleys of the River Ribble and its tributary the Calder form a large gap to the west of the Pennines, overlooked by Pendle Hill. Most of the larger Lancashire towns are in these valleys South of the Ribble are the West Pennine Moors and the Forest of Rossendale where former cotton mill towns are in deep valleys. The Lancashire Coalfield, largely in modern-day Greater Manchester, extended into Merseyside and to Ormskirk, Chorley, Burnley and Colne in Lancashire.
What does the Duchy administer within the County Palatine?
570ad9b56d058f190018312e
bona vacantia
22
False
What serves as the county town of the county palatine?
570ad9b56d058f190018312f
Lancaster
534
False
When did the title of Duke of Lancaster merge into the Crown?
570ad9b56d058f1900183130
many centuries ago
241
False
Who is the Duchy administered by?
570ad9b56d058f1900183131
the Queen
295
False
1971
417
In what year did the title of Duke of Lancaster get merged into the Crown?
5a036f02af157d001818f3f9
True
1971
417
When was the Loyal Toast first used?
5a036f02af157d001818f3fa
True
bona vacantia
22
What's the term for when legal ownership can be ascertained?
5a036f02af157d001818f3fb
True
Lancaster
481
Where does the Queen primarily live?
5a036f02af157d001818f3fc
True
many centuries
241
How long has there been a Queen in the UK?
5a036f02af157d001818f3fd
True
The Duchy administers bona vacantia within the County Palatine, receiving the property of persons who die intestate and where the legal ownership cannot be ascertained. There is no separate Duke of Lancaster, the title merged into the Crown many centuries ago – but the Duchy is administered by the Queen in Right of the Duchy of Lancaster. A separate court system for the county palatine was abolished by Courts Act 1971. A particular form of The Loyal Toast, 'The Queen, Duke of Lancaster' is in regular use in the county palatine. Lancaster serves as the county town of the county palatine.
What does the Lancashire economy rely on?
570ada444103511400d59aa4
the M6 motorway
42
False
Which direction does the M6 motorway run?
570ada444103511400d59aa5
north to south
74
False
What road connects Preston to Blackpool?
570ada444103511400d59aa6
The M55
118
False
Which road crosses the part of the county furthest south?
570ada444103511400d59aa7
M58
468
False
11.5
163
How many miles is it from Lancaster to Preston?
5a0370a6af157d001818f417
True
0.3
337
How far is it in miles from Blackburn to Preston?
5a0370a6af157d001818f418
True
southernmost part
484
In what geographic region of Lancashire does Blackpool lay?
5a0370a6af157d001818f419
True
500 metres
325
How far is Chorley away from the nearest county boundary?
5a0370a6af157d001818f41a
True
18.3 km
175
What is the length of the M6 motorway?
5a0370a6af157d001818f41b
True
The Lancashire economy relies strongly on the M6 motorway which runs from north to south, past Lancaster and Preston. The M55 connects Preston to Blackpool and is 11.5 miles (18.3 km) long. The M65 motorway from Colne, connects Burnley, Accrington, Blackburn to Preston. The M61 from Preston via Chorley and the M66 starting 500 metres (0.3 mi) inside the county boundary near Edenfield, provide links between Lancashire and Manchester] and the trans-Pennine M62. The M58 crosses the southernmost part of the county from the M6 near Wigan to Liverpool via Skelmersdale.
Where are the major settlements in the ceremonial county located?
570af5b76b8089140040f630
Fylde coast
71
False
Where is the Fylde coast?
570af5b76b8089140040f631
Blackpool Urban Area
88
False
Which part of the county is rural and sparsely populated?
570af5b76b8089140040f632
north
359
False
How many people live in Lancaster and Morecambe?
570af5b76b8089140040f633
100,000
515
False
What percentage of Lancashire is Asian?
570af5b76b8089140040f634
6%
611
False
1970
349
In what year was the Blackpool Urban Area established?
5a03718aaf157d001818f421
True
100,000
515
How many people lived in Preston as of 1970?
5a03718aaf157d001818f422
True
6%
611
What percentage of the population lives in north Lancashire?
5a03718aaf157d001818f423
True
Leyland and Chorley
257
What cities are north of Preston?
5a03718aaf157d001818f424
True
1970
349
In what year did Asians start emigrating to Lancashire?
5a03718aaf157d001818f425
True
The major settlements in the ceremonial county are concentrated on the Fylde coast (the Blackpool Urban Area), and a belt of towns running west-east along the M65: Preston, Blackburn, Accrington, Burnley, Nelson and Colne. South of Preston are the towns of Leyland and Chorley; the three formed part of the Central Lancashire New Town designated in 1970. The north of the county is predominantly rural and sparsely populated, except for the towns of Lancaster and Morecambe which form a large conurbation of almost 100,000 people. Lancashire is home to a significant Asian population, numbering over 70,000 and 6% of the county's population, and concentrated largely in the former cotton mill towns in the south east.
Where was pop star Frankie Vaughan from?
570af7036b8089140040f64e
Liverpool
0
False
How many bands were active in the Liverpool area in the 1960s?
570af7036b8089140040f64f
350
485
False
What was the first act to break through in the UK, not from Liverpool or managed by Brian Epstein?
570af7036b8089140040f650
Freddie and the Dreamers
897
False
Where were Freddie and the Dreamers based?
570af7036b8089140040f651
Manchester
941
False
Where were Herman's Hermints and the Hollies from?
570af7036b8089140040f652
Manchester
941
False
1962
647
When was Billy Furry born?
5a0379efaf157d001818f46f
True
1962
647
In what year did Freddie and the Dreamers get their first hit?
5a0379efaf157d001818f470
True
350
485
How many active bands did Manchester have in the 1960's?
5a0379efaf157d001818f471
True
350
485
How many local bands were still in Liverpool in the late 1960s?
5a0379efaf157d001818f472
True
Lita Roza
155
What was the name of one of the band members in the Beatles?
5a0379efaf157d001818f473
True
Liverpool produced a number of nationally and internationally successful popular singers in the 1950s, including traditional pop stars Frankie Vaughan and Lita Roza, and one of the most successful British rock and roll stars in Billy Fury. Many Lancashire towns had vibrant skiffle scenes in the late 1950s, out of which by the early 1960s a flourishing culture of beat groups began to emerge, particularly around Liverpool and Manchester. It has been estimated that there were around 350 bands active in and around Liverpool in this era, often playing ballrooms, concert halls and clubs, among them the Beatles. After their national success from 1962, a number of Liverpool performers were able to follow them into the charts, including Gerry & the Pacemakers, the Searchers and Cilla Black. The first act to break through in the UK who were not from Liverpool, or managed by Brian Epstein, were Freddie and the Dreamers, who were based in Manchester, as were Herman's Hermits and the Hollies. Led by the Beatles, beat groups from the region spearheaded the British Invasion of the US, which made a major contribution to the development of rock music. After the decline of beat groups in the late 1960s the centre of rock culture shifted to London and there were relatively few local bands who achieved national prominence until the growth of a disco funk scene and the punk rock revolution in the mid and late 1970s.
Who was "The Ballad of Chevy Chase" composed by?
570aff9fec8fbc190045b7c4
Richard Sheale
287
False
Where was Richard Sheale from?
570aff9fec8fbc190045b7c5
Lancashire
262
False
What is Lancashire's long and productive tradition?
570aff9fec8fbc190045b7c6
music making
57
False
What did the county share with it's national traditions?
570aff9fec8fbc190045b7c7
balladry
142
False
What is the finest border ballad?
570aff9fec8fbc190045b7c8
The Ballad of Chevy Chase
197
False
"The Lancashire Miller"
367
Besides "The Ballad of Chevy Chase" what was another composition written by Richard Sheale?
5a03764aaf157d001818f43d
True
Richard Sheale
287
Who composed "Warrington Ale"?
5a03764aaf157d001818f43e
True
"Maggie May"
569
What is one of the local Wassailing songs called?
5a03764aaf157d001818f43f
True
migration
759
What was "The Ballad of Chevy Chase" about?
5a03764aaf157d001818f440
True
clog dancing
931
What type of dancing is associated with "The Leaving of Liverpool"?
5a03764aaf157d001818f441
True
Lancashire has a long and highly productive tradition of music making. In the early modern era the county shared in the national tradition of balladry, including perhaps the finest border ballad, "The Ballad of Chevy Chase", thought to have been composed by the Lancashire-born minstrel Richard Sheale. The county was also a common location for folk songs, including "The Lancashire Miller", "Warrington Ale" and "The soldier's farewell to Manchester", while Liverpool, as a major seaport, was the subject of many sea shanties, including "The Leaving of Liverpool" and "Maggie May", beside several local Wassailing songs. In the Industrial Revolution changing social and economic patterns helped create new traditions and styles of folk song, often linked to migration and patterns of work. These included processional dances, often associated with rushbearing or the Wakes Week festivities, and types of step dance, most famously clog dancing.
When was Lancashire established?
570b0045ec8fbc190045b7ce
1182
30
False
When was the area part of Brigantes tribal area?
570b0045ec8fbc190045b7cf
Roman times
75
False
In what year did the northern parts of the country form the Brythonic kingdom of Rheged?
570b0045ec8fbc190045b7d0
410AD
324
False
What is the Brythonic kingdom of Rheged?
570b0045ec8fbc190045b7d1
a successor entity to the Brigantes tribe
420
False
When was the area incorporated into Northumbria?
570b0045ec8fbc190045b7d2
mid-8th century
474
False
410AD
324
When did the Romans enter the area of Manchester?
5a03655daf157d001818f3ab
True
1182
30
When was Lancaster established?
5a03655daf157d001818f3ac
True
410AD
324
In what year did Brigantes tribe become the Brythonic Kingdom of Rheged?
5a03655daf157d001818f3ad
True
10th century
600
In what century were Roman forts first established?
5a03655daf157d001818f3ae
True
1182
30
When was the town of Castleshaw founded?
5a03655daf157d001818f3af
True
The county was established in 1182, later than many other counties. During Roman times the area was part of the Brigantes tribal area in the military zone of Roman Britain. The towns of Manchester, Lancaster, Ribchester, Burrow, Elslack and Castleshaw grew around Roman forts. In the centuries after the Roman withdrawal in 410AD the northern parts of the county probably formed part of the Brythonic kingdom of Rheged, a successor entity to the Brigantes tribe. During the mid-8th century, the area was incorporated into the Anglo-Saxon Kingdom of Northumbria, which became a part of England in the 10th century.
How many people lived in Lancashire in 1971?
570b00ea6b8089140040f6a8
5,129,416
88
False
What is the most populous geographic county in the UK?
570b00ea6b8089140040f6a9
Lancashire
41
False
When was the administrative county abolished?
570b00ea6b8089140040f6aa
1 April 1974
280
False
What did the southern part of Lancashire turn into?
570b00ea6b8089140040f6ab
Merseyside and Greater Manchester
479
False
What incorporated the Furness exclave?
570b00ea6b8089140040f6ac
Cumbria
532
False
5,129,416
88
How many people like in the UK?
5a036b02af157d001818f3c9
True
southern part
415
In what geographic region of Lancashire is Cumbria county?
5a036b02af157d001818f3ca
True
2,280,359
258
How many people lived in Merseyside according to the 1971 census?
5a036b02af157d001818f3cb
True
5,129,416
88
How many people lived in Lancashire in 1961?
5a036b02af157d001818f3cc
True
2,280,359
258
How many people lived in Cumbria after it was made into a county in 1974?
5a036b02af157d001818f3cd
True
By the census of 1971, the population of Lancashire and its county boroughs had reached 5,129,416, making it the most populous geographic county in the UK. The administrative county was also the most populous of its type outside London, with a population of 2,280,359 in 1961. On 1 April 1974, under the Local Government Act 1972, the administrative county was abolished, as were the county boroughs. The urbanised southern part largely became part of two metropolitan counties, Merseyside and Greater Manchester. The new county of Cumbria incorporates the Furness exclave.
Who was a local pioneer of folk song collection?
570b01d56b8089140040f6bc
James Orchard Halliwell
104
False
Who did the most to popularize folk songs of the county?
570b01d56b8089140040f6bd
Harry Boardman
402
False
Who were the most influential fold artists from the region in the 20th century?
570b01d56b8089140040f6be
The Spinners
643
False
Who do the many folk clubs today cater to?
570b01d56b8089140040f6bf
Irish and Scottish folk music
825
False
What is one of the regular folk festivals called?
570b01d56b8089140040f6c0
Fylde Folk Festival
891
False
1965
427
In what year was James Orchard Halliwell born?
5a0376fbaf157d001818f447
True
1965
427
In what year did The Spinners release their first folk music album?
5a0376fbaf157d001818f448
True
1965
427
When was the first Fylde Folke Festival at Fleetwood held?
5a0376fbaf157d001818f449
True
Manchester
666
What city was Harry Boardman from?
5a0376fbaf157d001818f44a
True
Liverpool
622
Where was James Orchard Halliwell from?
5a0376fbaf157d001818f44b
True
A local pioneer of folk song collection in the first half of the 19th century was Shakespearean scholar James Orchard Halliwell, but it was not until the second folk revival in the 20th century that the full range of song from the county, including industrial folk song, began to gain attention. The county produced one of the major figures of the revival in Ewan MacColl, but also a local champion in Harry Boardman, who from 1965 onwards probably did more than anyone to popularise and record the folk song of the county. Perhaps the most influential folk artists to emerge from the region in the late 20th century were Liverpool folk group The Spinners, and from Manchester folk troubadour Roy Harper and musician, comedian and broadcaster Mike Harding. The region is home to numerous folk clubs, many of them catering to Irish and Scottish folk music. Regular folk festivals include the Fylde Folk Festival at Fleetwood.
What is the county flower of Lancaster?
570b02646b8089140040f6c6
The Red Rose of Lancaster
0
False
Where can the red rose of lancaster be found?
570b02646b8089140040f6c7
on the county's heraldic badge and flag
53
False
What is on the traditional Lancashire flag?
570b02646b8089140040f6c8
a red rose on a white field
318
False
What is on the official Lancashire flag?
570b02646b8089140040f6c9
red rose on a gold field
612
False
Whos flag officially is a red rose on a white field?
570b02646b8089140040f6ca
Montrose in Scotland
492
False
15th-century
252
In what century was the traditional Lancashire Flag established?
5a037316af157d001818f42b
True
15th-century
252
In what century was the Flag Institute founded?
5a037316af157d001818f42c
True
15th-century
252
In what century did Montrose register the Lancaster Flag?
5a037316af157d001818f42d
True
red rose on a gold field
612
What was Montrose's heraldic flag?
5a037316af157d001818f42e
True
The Red Rose of Lancaster is the county flower found on the county's heraldic badge and flag. The rose was a symbol of the House of Lancaster, immortalised in the verse "In the battle for England's head/York was white, Lancaster red" (referring to the 15th-century Wars of the Roses). The traditional Lancashire flag, a red rose on a white field, was not officially registered. When an attempt was made to register it with the Flag Institute it was found that it was officially registered by Montrose in Scotland, several hundred years earlier with the Lyon Office. Lancashire's official flag is registered as a red rose on a gold field.
In what year was Hugh Wood born?
570b03246b8089140040f6d0
1932
57
False
Where was Sir Peter Maxwell Davies born?
570b03246b8089140040f6d1
Salford
106
False
When was the Royal Manchester College of Music founded?
570b03246b8089140040f6d2
1893
452
False
When was the Royal Northern College of Music formed?
570b03246b8089140040f6d3
1972
632
False
What did the Royal Manchester College of Music merge with?
570b03246b8089140040f6d4
the Northern College of Music
538
False
Gordon Crosse
161
Who founded the Royal Manchester College of Music?
5a0378d6af157d001818f465
True
Sir Harrison Birtwistle
116
Who founded the Northern College of Music?
5a0378d6af157d001818f466
True
Hugh Wood
46
Who was the first head of the Royal Northern College of Music?
5a0378d6af157d001818f467
True
1948
273
In what year did Harrison Birtwistle receive the Sir title?
5a0378d6af157d001818f468
True
1958
344
In what year did Peter Maxwell Davies attain the title of Sir?
5a0378d6af157d001818f469
True
More recent Lancashire-born composers include Hugh Wood (1932- Parbold), Sir Peter Maxwell Davies (1934-, Salford), Sir Harrison Birtwistle (1934-, Accrington), Gordon Crosse (1937-, Bury),John McCabe (1939-2015, Huyton), Roger Smalley (1943-2015, Swinton), Nigel Osborne (1948-, Manchester), Steve Martland (1954-2013, Liverpool), Simon Holt (1958-, Bolton) and Philip Cashian (1963-, Manchester). The Royal Manchester College of Music was founded in 1893 to provide a northern counterpart to the London musical colleges. It merged with the Northern College of Music (formed in 1920) to form the Royal Northern College of Music in 1972.
Mesozoic
What era was 250 million to 247 million years ago?
570ac45d4103511400d599b2
Early Triassic
4
False
What geologic climate was found in the Early Triassic?
570ac45d4103511400d599b3
deserts
89
False
What landmass was still unbroken in the Early Triassic?
570ac45d4103511400d599b4
Pangaea
100
False
What percentage of extinction of species had recently happened??
570ac45d4103511400d599b5
95%
227
False
What species had evolved after  the extinction and would become the basic predator in the Triassic?
570ac45d4103511400d599b6
Temnospondyli
410
False
deserts
89
What geologic climate was not found in the Early Triassic?
5a2f449aa83784001a7d269b
True
95%
227
What percentage of species growth had recently happened?
5a2f449aa83784001a7d269c
True
Pangaea
100
What landmass broke in the Earl Triassic?
5a2f449aa83784001a7d269d
True
Temnospondyli
410
What species had evolved before the extinction and would become the basic predator in the Triassic?
5a2f449aa83784001a7d269e
True
Lystrosaurus
292
What was the most rare life on earth?
5a2f449aa83784001a7d269f
True
The Early Triassic was between 250 million to 247 million years ago and was dominated by deserts as Pangaea had not yet broken up, thus the interior was nothing but arid. The Earth had just witnessed a massive die-off in which 95% of all life went extinct. The most common life on earth were Lystrosaurus, Labyrinthodont, and Euparkeria along with many other creatures that managed to survive the Great Dying. Temnospondyli evolved during this time and would be the dominant predator for much of the Triassic.
What event produced further adaptations during  the Jurassic and Cretaceous periods?
570ac6156d058f19001830dc
climatic changes
4
False
When was the top of archosaur diversity?
570ac6156d058f19001830dd
Jurassic
102
False
What species spread towards the poles during the Jurassic?
570ac6156d058f19001830de
Angiosperms
207
False
What species dominated many tree floras by the end of the Cretaceous period?
570ac6156d058f19001830df
angiosperms
411
False
What types of species are thought to still have been dominate until after the extinction?
570ac6156d058f19001830e0
cycad and ferns
528
False
climatic changes
4
What event stunted adaptions during the Jurassic?
5a2f56e7a83784001a7d271f
True
Jurassic
33
When was the bottom of archosaur diversity?
5a2f56e7a83784001a7d2720
True
Angiosperms
207
The temperature gradient prevented what land species growth?
5a2f56e7a83784001a7d2721
True
temperature gradient
297
What prevented the spread of angiosperms towards the poles?
5a2f56e7a83784001a7d2722
True
cycad and ferns
528
What types of species are thought to have died before the extinction?
5a2f56e7a83784001a7d2723
True
The climatic changes of the late Jurassic and Cretaceous provided for further adaptive radiation. The Jurassic was the height of archosaur diversity, and the first birds and eutherian mammals also appeared. Angiosperms radiated sometime in the early Cretaceous, first in the tropics, but the even temperature gradient allowed them to spread toward the poles throughout the period. By the end of the Cretaceous, angiosperms dominated tree floras in many areas, although some evidence suggests that biomass was still dominated by cycad and ferns until after the Cretaceous–Paleogene extinction.
What event sets the boundary for the Triassic?
570ac8206d058f19001830e6
Permian–Triassic extinction
44
False
What percentage of marine life died during the extinction?
570ac8206d058f19001830e7
90% to 96%
106
False
How many terrestrial species died during the extinction?
570ac8206d058f19001830e8
70%
139
False
What is the largest extinction of species in Earth's history known as?
570ac8206d058f19001830e9
Great Dying
211
False
What is the possible cause of the upper Cretaceous extinction event ?
570ac8206d058f19001830ea
K–Pg) extinction
446
False
90% to 96%
106
What percentage of marine life growth happened during the Permian–Triassic era?
5a2f423ca83784001a7d2691
True
70%
139
How many terrestrial species were created during the Permian–Triassic era?
5a2f423ca83784001a7d2692
True
Cretaceous–Paleogene
668
Large volcanic eruptions contributed to the expansion of what period?
5a2f423ca83784001a7d2693
True
70%
139
What percent of terrestrial vertebrates became extinct on the Yucatán Peninsula?
5a2f423ca83784001a7d2694
True
50%
721
What percentage of all genera thrived during the Cretaceous–Paleogene era?
5a2f423ca83784001a7d2695
True
The lower (Triassic) boundary is set by the Permian–Triassic extinction event, during which approximately 90% to 96% of marine species and 70% of terrestrial vertebrates became extinct. It is also known as the "Great Dying" because it is considered the largest mass extinction in the Earth's history. The upper (Cretaceous) boundary is set at the Cretaceous–Tertiary (KT) extinction event (now more accurately called the Cretaceous–Paleogene (or K–Pg) extinction event), which may have been caused by the impactor that created Chicxulub Crater on the Yucatán Peninsula. Towards the Late Cretaceous large volcanic eruptions are also believed to have contributed to the Cretaceous–Paleogene extinction event. Approximately 50% of all genera became extinct, including all of the non-avian dinosaurs.
What is the span of the Late Cretaceous period?
570aca224103511400d599e4
100 million to 65 million years
31
False
What weather trend ocured in the Late Cretaceous and Cenozoic periods?
570aca224103511400d599e5
cooling
99
False
What climate was restricted to the equatorial areas?
570aca224103511400d599e6
tropics
172
False
What type of weather changes did areas outside of the tropics experience?
570aca224103511400d599e7
extreme seasonal changes
254
False
What event ended the age of the dinosaur by causing a 75% extinction?
570aca224103511400d599e8
K-T Extinction
831
False
cooling
99
What weather trend didn't ocur in the Late Cretaceous and Cenozoic periods?
5a2f4c6fa83784001a7d26e3
True
Tyrannosaurus
338
Which dinosaur species saw its demise during the Late Cretaceous?
5a2f4c6fa83784001a7d26e4
True
Ichthyosaurs
482
Which water borne species brought about the extinction of the Mosasaurs?
5a2f4c6fa83784001a7d26e5
True
Late Cretaceous
4
Flowering plants died out during which period?
5a2f4c6fa83784001a7d26e6
True
Ankylosaurus
353
Which dinosaurs help pollute the atmosphere?
5a2f4c6fa83784001a7d26e7
True
The Late Cretaceous spans from 100 million to 65 million years ago. The Late Cretaceous featured a cooling trend that would continue on in the Cenozoic period. Eventually, tropics were restricted to the equator and areas beyond the tropic lines featured extreme seasonal changes in weather. Dinosaurs still thrived as new species such as Tyrannosaurus, Ankylosaurus, Triceratops and Hadrosaurs dominated the food web. In the oceans, Mosasaurs ruled the seas to fill the role of the Ichthyosaurs, and huge plesiosaurs, such as Elasmosaurus, evolved. Also, the first flowering plants evolved. At the end of the Cretaceous, the Deccan traps and other volcanic eruptions were poisoning the atmosphere. As this was continuing, it is thought that a large meteor smashed into earth, creating the Chicxulub Crater in an event known as the K-T Extinction, the fifth and most recent mass extinction event, in which 75% of life on earth went extinct, including all non-avian dinosaurs. Everything over 10 kilograms went extinct. The age of the dinosaurs was over.
What is uncertain about the Cretaceous?
570acc2d4103511400d59a08
climate
4
False
What atmospheric gas caused temperatures levels to be 10 degrees higher than today?
570acc2d4103511400d59a09
carbon dioxide
89
False
What was about equal across the planet?
570acc2d4103511400d59a0a
temperatures
223
False
During the Cretaceous what climate was thought to be found in areas near the seas?
570acc2d4103511400d59a0b
deserts
562
False
What did large amounts of deposited un-decomposed organic matter later become?
570acc2d4103511400d59a0c
black shale
819
False
climate
4
What is most volatile aspect about the Cretaceous?
5a2f52b2a83784001a7d2705
True
temperature gradient from north to south to become almost flat
159
Lower levels of carbon dioxide caused what?
5a2f52b2a83784001a7d2706
True
Cretaceous
19
The circulation of oxygen in the deep ocean may have increased during what period?
5a2f52b2a83784001a7d2707
True
circulation of oxygen
608
Black shale was destroyed by what during the Cretaceous period?
5a2f52b2a83784001a7d2708
True
temperatures were also higher
283
Why were equatorial ocean waters too cold?
5a2f52b2a83784001a7d2709
True
The climate of the Cretaceous is less certain and more widely disputed. Higher levels of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere are thought to have caused the world temperature gradient from north to south to become almost flat: temperatures were about the same across the planet. Average temperatures were also higher than today by about 10°C. In fact, by the middle Cretaceous, equatorial ocean waters (perhaps as warm as 20 °C in the deep ocean) may have been too warm for sea life,[dubious – discuss][citation needed] and land areas near the equator may have been deserts despite their proximity to water. The circulation of oxygen to the deep ocean may also have been disrupted.[dubious – discuss] For this reason, large volumes of organic matter that was unable to decompose accumulated, eventually being deposited as "black shale".
What was the span of the Late Triassic?
570ace2c4103511400d59a1a
237 million to 200 million years
29
False
Besides moderate precipitation, what weather conditions did the Late Triassic have?
570ace2c4103511400d59a1b
heat spells
147
False
When did the first dinosaurs evolve?
570ace2c4103511400d59a1c
Triassic
120
False
According to theory, what did climate change in the Late Triassic cause?
570ace2c4103511400d59a1d
Triassic-Jurassic extinction
418
False
What was the only archosaur to survive the fourth mass extinction?
570ace2c4103511400d59a1e
crocodiles
497
False
heat spells
147
Besides moderate precipitation, what weather conditions did the Late Triassic not have?
5a2f4792a83784001a7d26ad
True
warming
230
What lead to the demise of a certain segment of reptilian evolution?
5a2f4792a83784001a7d26ae
True
climatic change
351
What resulted in a relatively small die-out known as the Triassic Jurassic extinction event?
5a2f4792a83784001a7d26af
True
large amphibians
541
What survived the Triassic Jurassic extinction event?
5a2f4792a83784001a7d26b0
True
Triassic-Jurassic extinction event
418
34% of marine life survived what extinction event?
5a2f4792a83784001a7d26b1
True
The Late Triassic spans from 237 million to 200 million years ago. Following the bloom of the Middle Triassic, the Late Triassic featured frequent heat spells, as well as moderate precipitation (10-20 inches per year). The recent warming led to a boom of reptilian evolution on land as the first true dinosaurs evolve, as well as pterosaurs. All this climatic change, however, resulted in a large die-out known as the Triassic-Jurassic extinction event, in which all archosaurs (excluding ancient crocodiles), most synapsids, and almost all large amphibians went extinct, as well as 34% of marine life in the fourth mass extinction event of the world. The cause is debatable.
What is the span of the Early Cretaceous?
570acf964103511400d59a24
145 million to 100 million years
32
False
What event of the Early Cretaceous caused the extinction of several species?
570acf964103511400d59a25
expansion of seaways
99
False
What species died out due to the expansion of coastal shallows?
570acf964103511400d59a26
Ichthyosaurs
257
False
What species dominated the seas?
570acf964103511400d59a27
Mosasaurs
282
False
What dinosaur spread to every continent?
570acf964103511400d59a28
Iguanodon
654
False
expansion of seaways
99
What event of the Early Cretaceous caused the proliferation of several species?
5a2f4b02a83784001a7d26d9
True
Iguanodon
654
What dinosaur was particularly confined to one continent?
5a2f4b02a83784001a7d26da
True
coastal shallows
210
What caused Ichthyosaurs to thrive?
5a2f4b02a83784001a7d26db
True
Leaellynasaura
813
Which species avoided the polar areas?
5a2f4b02a83784001a7d26dc
True
Koolasuchus
1037
What species was most similar to crocodiles?
5a2f4b02a83784001a7d26dd
True
The Early Cretaceous spans from 145 million to 100 million years ago. The Early Cretaceous saw the expansion of seaways, and as a result, the decline and extinction of sauropods (except in South America). Many coastal shallows were created, and that caused Ichthyosaurs to die out. Mosasaurs evolved to replace them as head of the seas. Some island-hopping dinosaurs, like Eustreptospondylus, evolved to cope with the coastal shallows and small islands of ancient Europe. Other dinosaurs rose up to fill the empty space that the Jurassic-Cretaceous extinction left behind, such as Carcharodontosaurus and Spinosaurus. Of the most successful would be the Iguanodon which spread to every continent. Seasons came back into effect and the poles got seasonally colder, but dinosaurs still inhabited this area like the Leaellynasaura which inhabited the polar forests year-round, and many dinosaurs migrated there during summer like Muttaburrasaurus. Since it was too cold for crocodiles, it was the last stronghold for large amphibians, like Koolasuchus. Pterosaurs got larger as species like Tapejara and Ornithocheirus evolved.
What caused the sea to rise during the Jurassic?
570ad1354103511400d59a34
increase in seafloor
78
False
Rising seas and displaced waters caused what  element along the coasts?
570ad1354103511400d59a35
flooded coastal areas
232
False
Pangaea beginning to break apart created what new sea?
570ad1354103511400d59a36
Tethys Sea
379
False
What weather condition increased?
570ad1354103511400d59a37
Temperatures
391
False
As humidity increased what land area decreased?
570ad1354103511400d59a38
deserts
507
False
seafloor spreading
90
What caused the sea to fall during the Jurassic?
5a2f511aa83784001a7d26fb
True
flooded coastal areas
232
Rising seas and displaced waters destroyed what element along the coasts?
5a2f511aa83784001a7d26fc
True
Temperatures
391
What weather condition became much more stable?
5a2f511aa83784001a7d26fd
True
proximity of water
483
Why did humidity decrease during the Jurassic?
5a2f511aa83784001a7d26fe
True
200 m
194
By how much did oceans increase in size compared to today?
5a2f511aa83784001a7d26ff
True
Sea levels began to rise during the Jurassic, which was probably caused by an increase in seafloor spreading. The formation of new crust beneath the surface displaced ocean waters by as much as 200 m (656 ft) more than today, which flooded coastal areas. Furthermore, Pangaea began to rift into smaller divisions, bringing more land area in contact with the ocean by forming the Tethys Sea. Temperatures continued to increase and began to stabilize. Humidity also increased with the proximity of water, and deserts retreated.
What is the span of years for the Early Jurassic?
570ad7b26d058f190018311a
200 million years to 175 million
30
False
What feature of the climate produced a more tropical world?
570ad7b26d058f190018311b
more humid
95
False
Besides Ichthyosaurs and Ammonites, what was the other dominate species in the seas?
570ad7b26d058f190018311c
Plesiosaurs
186
False
What was the highest order of species n land?
570ad7b26d058f190018311d
Dilophosaurus
384
False
What other order evolved during the Jurassic?
570ad7b26d058f190018311e
true mammals
564
False
more humid
95
What feature of the climate hindered a more tropical world
5a2f48c3a83784001a7d26bf
True
Ammonites
216
Plesiosaurs and Ichthyosaurs were mostly hunted by with competitive species?
5a2f48c3a83784001a7d26c0
True
Dilophosaurus
384
What species saw itself at the bottom of the race hierarchy?
5a2f48c3a83784001a7d26c1
True
Early Jurassic
4
Reptiles were a submissive species during what time period?
5a2f48c3a83784001a7d26c2
True
Plesiosaurs
186
Crocodiles were threatened by what species?
5a2f48c3a83784001a7d26c3
True
The Early Jurassic spans from 200 million years to 175 million years ago. The climate was much more humid than the Triassic, and as a result, the world was very tropical. In the oceans, Plesiosaurs, Ichthyosaurs and Ammonites fill waters as the dominant races of the seas. On land, dinosaurs and other reptiles stake their claim as the dominant race of the land, with species such as Dilophosaurus at the top. The first true crocodiles evolved, pushing out the large amphibians to near extinction. All-in-all, reptiles rise to rule the world. Meanwhile, the first true mammals evolve, but remained relatively small sized.
At what time was tectonic formation mild?
570ad9e64103511400d59a9a
Mesozoic
83
False
Where did the basic geological changes of this period occur?
570ad9e64103511400d59a9b
Arctic
197
False
What supercontinent split to form two smaller continents?
570ad9e64103511400d59a9c
Pangaea
566
False
What was the northern continent split from Pangaea?
570ad9e64103511400d59a9d
Laurasia
617
False
What was Pangaea's southern continent called?
570ad9e64103511400d59a9e
Gondwana
653
False
Mesozoic
83
At what time was tectonic formation especially active?
5a2f4e01a83784001a7d26ed
True
Laurasia
617
What was the northern continent that combined into Pangaea?
5a2f4e01a83784001a7d26ee
True
Pangaea
566
What continent split to destroy the passive continental margin near the Atlantic?
5a2f4e01a83784001a7d26ef
True
Mesozoic orogeny
152
What destroyed the Innuitian orogeny?
5a2f4e01a83784001a7d26f0
True
Compared to the vigorous convergent plate mountain-building of the late Paleozoic, Mesozoic tectonic deformation was comparatively mild. The sole major Mesozoic orogeny occurred in what is now the Arctic, creating the Innuitian orogeny, the Brooks Range, the Verkhoyansk and Cherskiy Ranges in Siberia, and the Khingan Mountains in Manchuria. This orogeny was related to the opening of the Arctic Ocean and subduction of the North China and Siberian cratons under the Pacific Ocean. Nevertheless, the era featured the dramatic rifting of the supercontinent Pangaea. Pangaea gradually split into a northern continent, Laurasia, and a southern continent, Gondwana. This created the passive continental margin that characterizes most of the Atlantic coastline (such as along the U.S. East Coast) today.
What type of animals took longer to reestablish?
570adc634103511400d59aac
specialized animals
35
False
When did recovery of these diverse animals begin?
570adc644103511400d59aad
mid-Triassic
233
False
How long after the Permian-Triassic extinction did animal recovery take to completion?
570adc644103511400d59aae
30M years
310
False
What dominated animal life in the Triassic?
570adc644103511400d59aaf
reptiles
420
False
How many years after the extinction did animal recovery begin?
570adc644103511400d59ab0
4M to 6M
247
False
specialized animals
35
What type of animals were especially quick to reestablish?
5a2f541ea83784001a7d2717
True
mid
233
The recovery of many species failed during what period of the Triassic?
5a2f541ea83784001a7d2718
True
reptiles
420
What animal life was most at risk in the Triassic?
5a2f541ea83784001a7d2719
True
4M to 6M
247
How many years of recovery did the extinction interrupt?
5a2f541ea83784001a7d271a
True
Recent research indicates that the specialized animals that formed complex ecosystems, with high biodiversity, complex food webs and a variety of niches, took much longer to reestablish, recovery did not begin until the start of the mid-Triassic, 4M to 6M years after the extinction and was not complete until 30M years after the Permian–Triassic extinction event. Animal life was then dominated by various archosaurian reptiles: dinosaurs, pterosaurs, and aquatic reptiles such as ichthyosaurs, plesiosaurs, and mosasaurs.
At what point did the Mesozoic era begin?
570ade206d058f1900183136
Permian–Triassic extinction
33
False
When did the Mesozoic end?
570ade206d058f1900183137
Cretaceous–Paleogene extinction
151
False
What kind of geologic activity occurred during the Mesozoic?
570ade206d058f1900183138
tectonic
354
False
Besides climate changes, what other important activity occurred during the Mesozoic?
570ade206d058f1900183139
evolutionary
376
False
When mamals appeared they remained small until what period?
570ade206d058f190018313a
Cenozoic
1117
False
Permian–Triassic
33
At what point did the Mesozoic era end?
5a2f3f52a83784001a7d2687
True
evolutionary
376
The Mesozoic was a time devoid of what activity?
5a2f3f52a83784001a7d2688
True
rifting
429
What quickly split the supercontinent Pangea into landmasses?
5a2f3f52a83784001a7d2689
True
Late Triassic
731
Non-avian dinosaurs disappeared in what period?
5a2f3f52a83784001a7d268a
True
theropod
987
Birds devolved from what branch of dinosaurs?
5a2f3f52a83784001a7d268b
True
The era began in the wake of the Permian–Triassic extinction event, the largest well-documented mass extinction in Earth's history, and ended with the Cretaceous–Paleogene extinction event, another mass extinction which is known for having killed off non-avian dinosaurs, as well as other plant and animal species. The Mesozoic was a time of significant tectonic, climate and evolutionary activity. The era witnessed the gradual rifting of the supercontinent Pangaea into separate landmasses that would eventually move into their current positions. The climate of the Mesozoic was varied, alternating between warming and cooling periods. Overall, however, the Earth was hotter than it is today. Non-avian dinosaurs appeared in the Late Triassic and became the dominant terrestrial vertebrates early in the Jurassic, occupying this position for about 135 million years until their demise at the end of the Cretaceous. Birds first appeared in the Jurassic, having evolved from a branch of theropod dinosaurs. The first mammals also appeared during the Mesozoic, but would remain small—less than 15 kg (33 lb)—until the Cenozoic.
What is the span of years of the Middle Triassic?
570adf774103511400d59ab6
247 million to 237 million
31
False
What continuing event began in the Middle Triassic?
570adf774103511400d59ab7
breakup of Pangaea
120
False
During the breakup of Pangaea, what sea was created?
570adf774103511400d59ab8
Tethys Sea
165
False
From what had the ecosystem had to recover?
570adf774103511400d59ab9
the Great Dying
235
False
What type of animal began to flourish and become increasingly large?
570adf774103511400d59aba
reptiles
317
False
breakup of Pangaea
120
What continuing event ended in the Middle Triassic?
5a2f46cca83784001a7d26a5
True
Middle Triassic
73
In what period did pine forests mostly die out?
5a2f46cca83784001a7d26a6
True
Tethys Sea
165
During the formation of Pangaea, what sea was created?
5a2f46cca83784001a7d26a7
True
mosquitoes and fruit flies
484
Pine forests brought about the demise of what insects?
5a2f46cca83784001a7d26a8
True
The Middle Triassic spans from 247 million to 237 million years ago. The Middle Triassic featured the beginnings of the breakup of Pangaea, and the beginning of the Tethys Sea. The ecosystem had recovered from the devastation that was the Great Dying. Phytoplankton, coral, and crustaceans all had recovered, and the reptiles began to get bigger and bigger. New aquatic reptiles evolved such as Ichthyosaurs and Nothosaurs. Meanwhile, on land, Pine forests flourished, bringing along mosquitoes and fruit flies. The first ancient crocodilians evolved, which sparked competition with the large amphibians that had since ruled the freshwater world.
How many years did the Late Jurassic cover?
570ae1586d058f1900183140
163 million to 145 million
29
False
What did the separation of Pangaea cause to become extinct?
570ae1586d058f1900183141
sauropods and Ichthyosaurs
118
False
What is the extinction caused by the splitting of Pangaea called?
570ae1586d058f1900183142
Jurassic-Cretaceous extinction
235
False
What caused the destruction of fern prairies and increasing shallows?
570ae1586d058f1900183143
Sea levels rose
267
False
What did the rise in sea levels open in the seaways?
570ae1586d058f1900183144
Atlantic sea
553
False
Ichthyosaurs
132
In the Late Jurassic what species survived?
5a2f49dfa83784001a7d26d1
True
Ichthyosaurs
132
The separation of Pangaea allowed what species to thrive above others?
5a2f49dfa83784001a7d26d2
True
Late Jurassic
4
Sea levels fell during what time period that spanned from 163 million to 145 million years ago?
5a2f49dfa83784001a7d26d3
True
Atlantic
553
The increase in sea levels closed up which sea?
5a2f49dfa83784001a7d26d4
True
The Late Jurassic spans from 163 million to 145 million years ago. The Late Jurassic featured a massive extinction of sauropods and Ichthyosaurs due to the separation of Pangaea into Laurasia and Gondwana in an extinction known as the Jurassic-Cretaceous extinction. Sea levels rose, destroying fern prairies and creating shallows in its wake. Ichthyosaurs went extinct whereas sauropods, as a whole, did not die out in the Jurassic; in fact, some species, like the Titanosaurus, lived up to the K-T extinction. The increase in sea-levels opened up the Atlantic sea way which would continue to get larger over time. The divided world would give opportunity for the diversification of new dinosaurs.
What was the general rainfall in the Triassic?
570ae2e74103511400d59ac0
dry
27
False
What could have made temperatures more extreme?
570ae2e74103511400d59ac1
Low sea levels
138
False
Because of distance form the sea and wide variance in temperatures, what was the interior of Pangaea like?
570ae2e74103511400d59ac2
desert
578
False
What were there periods of during the Triassic?
570ae2e74103511400d59ac3
increased rainfall
758
False
What was the Carnian Pluvial event?
570ae2e74103511400d59ac4
increased rainfall
758
False
Triassic
4
In what period was it consistently rainy?
5a2f504fa83784001a7d26f5
True
dry climate
700
What caused the Triassic–Jurassic extinction event?
5a2f504fa83784001a7d26f6
True
Low sea levels
138
Why was the Carnian Pluvial event especially dry?
5a2f504fa83784001a7d26f7
True
The Triassic was generally dry, a trend that began in the late Carboniferous, and highly seasonal, especially in the interior of Pangaea. Low sea levels may have also exacerbated temperature extremes. With its high specific heat capacity, water acts as a temperature-stabilizing heat reservoir, and land areas near large bodies of water—especially the oceans—experience less variation in temperature. Because much of the land that constituted Pangaea was distant from the oceans, temperatures fluctuated greatly, and the interior of Pangaea probably included expansive areas of desert. Abundant red beds and evaporites such as halite support these conclusions, but evidence exists that the generally dry climate of the Triassic was punctuated by episodes of increased rainfall. Most important humid episodes were the Carnian Pluvial Event and one in the Rhaetian, few million years before the Triassic–Jurassic extinction event.
What was the dominant plant species of the Mesozoic?
570ae41e4103511400d59aca
gymnosperms
49
False
What is an example of a gymnosperm?
570ae41e4103511400d59acb
conifers
125
False
What are the dominate plant species on Earth now?
570ae41e4103511400d59acc
angiosperms
286
False
When did the Ginkgo evolve?
570ae41e4103511400d59acd
Mesozoic
505
False
What famous tree species is believed to have evolved during the Mesozoic?
570ae41e4103511400d59ace
Sequoia
462
False
gymnosperms
49
What plant species died out in the Mesozoic?
5a2f5361a83784001a7d270f
True
Mesozoic
505
Ginkgo species died out in what period?
5a2f5361a83784001a7d2710
True
angiosperms
286
What are the most at risk species on Earth now?
5a2f5361a83784001a7d2711
True
angiosperms
286
What land species died out in this period?
5a2f5361a83784001a7d2712
True
The dominant land plant species of the time were gymnosperms, which are vascular, cone-bearing, non-flowering plants such as conifers that produce seeds without a coating. This is opposed to the earth's current flora, in which the dominant land plants in terms of number of species are angiosperms. One particular plant genus, Ginkgo, is thought to have evolved at this time and is represented today by a single species, Ginkgo biloba. As well, the extant genus Sequoia is believed to have evolved in the Mesozoic.
Videoconferencing
In what decade was digital telephony transmission made possible?
570aec4d6b8089140040f614
the 1980s
15
False
What is the minimum bit rate for compressed video and audio transmission?
570aec4d6b8089140040f615
128 kilobits/s
152
False
What is an example of an early form of digital video and audio communication?
570aec4d6b8089140040f616
the Media space
350
False
In what form did the first dedicated videoconferencing system appear as?
570aec4d6b8089140040f617
ISDN networks
526
False
What company offered the first commercial videoconferencing system?
570aec4d6b8089140040f618
PictureTel Corp.
659
False
in the 1980s
12
When did video and audio transmission come into being?
5a1f24463de3f40018b26518
True
other forms of digital video and audio communication
260
In November, 1984, what else was being researched?
5a1f24463de3f40018b26519
True
the Media space
350
What other minimum bit rate is not as widely used as videoconferencing?
5a1f24463de3f40018b2651a
True
The first dedicated systems
463
What started to appear as the Media space was expanding world wide?
5a1f24463de3f40018b2651b
True
PictureTel Corp.
659
Where did the first compressed video transmission that was sold sold come from?
5a1f24463de3f40018b2651c
True
It was only in the 1980s that digital telephony transmission networks became possible, such as with ISDN networks, assuring a minimum bit rate (usually 128 kilobits/s) for compressed video and audio transmission. During this time, there was also research into other forms of digital video and audio communication. Many of these technologies, such as the Media space, are not as widely used today as videoconferencing but were still an important area of research. The first dedicated systems started to appear in the market as ISDN networks were expanding throughout the world. One of the first commercial videoconferencing systems sold to companies came from PictureTel Corp., which had an Initial Public Offering in November, 1984.
What controls the conferencing while its active on the signaling plane?
570aedcfec8fbc190045b77e
The MC
0
False
Where does the videoconferencing system manage conferencing creation?
570aedcfec8fbc190045b77f
the signaling plane
55
False
What is one example of what the signaling plane controls in a videoconferencing system?
570aedcfec8fbc190045b780
endpoint signaling
140
False
On what plane does the MC operate?
570aedcfec8fbc190045b781
the media plane
377
False
What generates output streams from each endpoint?
570aedcfec8fbc190045b782
The MP
432
False
the conferencing
16
What does the MP control while active on the signaling plane?
5a1f590a54a786001a36b277
True
the signaling plane
55
Where does the system manage output streams while it is active?
5a1f590a54a786001a36b278
True
media
406
What does the MC receive from in-conferencing controls?
5a1f590a54a786001a36b279
True
redirects the information to other endpoints in the conference.
487
What does the signaling plane do with information in a conference?
5a1f590a54a786001a36b27a
True
the media plane
377
What signaling negotiations does the MP operate on?
5a1f590a54a786001a36b27b
True
The MC controls the conferencing while it is active on the signaling plane, which is simply where the system manages conferencing creation, endpoint signaling and in-conferencing controls. This component negotiates parameters with every endpoint in the network and controls conferencing resources. While the MC controls resources and signaling negotiations, the MP operates on the media plane and receives media from each endpoint. The MP generates output streams from each endpoint and redirects the information to other endpoints in the conference.
What technology has become more widely available and affordable?
570aef486b8089140040f61e
High speed Internet connectivity
0
False
What is an example of a personal videoconferencing system tool?
570aef486b8089140040f61f
webcam
215
False
What has made videoconferencing accessible to many?
570aef486b8089140040f620
The availability of freeware
471
False
Videoconferencing freeware is widely available in what programs?
570aef486b8089140040f621
chat programs
518
False
High speed Internet connectivity
0
What has become more available as the availability of freeware has decreased?
5a1f5f2954a786001a36b28b
True
has made software based videoconferencing accessible to many
533
What has having access to a webcam done for videoconferencing?
5a1f5f2954a786001a36b28c
True
prices have dropped dramatically
437
What has happened after internet connectivity for technology has improved?
5a1f5f2954a786001a36b28d
True
part of chat programs
510
What type of programs is video capture usually a part of?
5a1f5f2954a786001a36b28e
True
The availability of freeware
471
What has made high speed internet accessible to many?
5a1f5f2954a786001a36b28f
True
High speed Internet connectivity has become more widely available at a reasonable cost and the cost of video capture and display technology has decreased. Consequently, personal videoconferencing systems based on a webcam, personal computer system, software compression and broadband Internet connectivity have become affordable to the general public. Also, the hardware used for this technology has continued to improve in quality, and prices have dropped dramatically. The availability of freeware (often as part of chat programs) has made software based videoconferencing accessible to many.
Videophone calls are different from videoconferencing in what way?
570af0f8ec8fbc190045b788
serve individuals, not groups
144
False
What is an example of a videophone call program?
570af0f8ec8fbc190045b789
Skype
58
False
What term is more used today to refer to calls between two units?
570af0f8ec8fbc190045b78a
videoconferencing
406
False
What are videoconferencing calls now more commonly known as?
570af0f8ec8fbc190045b78b
a video link
593
False
What is another name for videophone calls?
570af0f8ec8fbc190045b78c
video chat
36
False
Videophone calls
0
What technology serves sophisticated software clients and not groups?
5a1f7b8554a786001a36b2db
True
serve individuals, not groups
144
How does increased bandwidth differ from point-to-point calls?
5a1f7b8554a786001a36b2dc
True
Skype
58
What is an example of a teleconferencing program?
5a1f7b8554a786001a36b2dd
True
a video link
593
What are software clients and multiple parties commonly called?
5a1f7b8554a786001a36b2de
True
Videophone calls
0
What type of call is another name for point-to-point chat?
5a1f7b8554a786001a36b2df
True
Videophone calls (also: videocalls, video chat as well as Skype and Skyping in verb form), differ from videoconferencing in that they expect to serve individuals, not groups. However that distinction has become increasingly blurred with technology improvements such as increased bandwidth and sophisticated software clients that can allow for multiple parties on a call. In general everyday usage the term videoconferencing is now frequently used instead of videocall for point-to-point calls between two units. Both videophone calls and videoconferencing are also now commonly referred to as a video link.
In what decade did developers extend the capabilities of videoconferencing to more devices?
570af6876b8089140040f644
the 2010s
62
False
What allows people in remote locations the ability to video-conference with colleagues far away?
570af6876b8089140040f645
Mobile collaboration systems
337
False
What is one example of an application that videoconferencing manufacturers have begun to offer?
570af6876b8089140040f646
still image streaming
689
False
What type of applications have videoconferencing manufacturers begun to offer?
570af6876b8089140040f647
mobile
622
False
What is an example of a place that videoconferencing can be used today?
570af6876b8089140040f648
hand-held mobile devices
167
False
mobile applications
622
What have moblie collaboration system manufacturers provided?
5a1f38073de3f40018b26540
True
extended the capabilities of video conferencing systems beyond the boardroom
77
What has the use of video done in the 2010's?
5a1f38073de3f40018b26541
True
live and still image streaming
680
What is one type of application that mobile collaboration manufacturers offer?
5a1f38073de3f40018b26542
True
extended the capabilities of video conferencing systems
77
What have videoconferencing developers created for use with off shore oil rigs?
5a1f38073de3f40018b26543
True
the ability to view and discuss issues with colleagues thousands of miles away
470
What does still image streaming allow?
5a1f38073de3f40018b26544
True
Technological developments by videoconferencing developers in the 2010s have extended the capabilities of video conferencing systems beyond the boardroom for use with hand-held mobile devices that combine the use of video, audio and on-screen drawing capabilities broadcasting in real-time over secure networks, independent of location. Mobile collaboration systems now allow multiple people in previously unreachable locations, such as workers on an off-shore oil rig, the ability to view and discuss issues with colleagues thousands of miles away. Traditional videoconferencing system manufacturers have begun providing mobile applications as well, such as those that allow for live and still image streaming.
What can videoconferencing offer students?
570af885ec8fbc190045b79c
participating in two-way communication forums
69
False
Who can benefit from two-way communication forums?
570af885ec8fbc190045b79d
students
27
False
What is a major barrier to videoconferencing between some communities?
570af885ec8fbc190045b79e
language
338
False
What is one example of how students can benefit from videoconferencing?
570af885ec8fbc190045b79f
virtual field trips
637
False
What is one experience that students using videoconferencing can achieve?
570af885ec8fbc190045b7a0
visit museums
590
False
the opportunity to learn by participating in two-way communication forums
41
What do geographically isolated areas provide to students?
5a1f69a754a786001a36b29f
True
teachers and lecturers worldwide
129
Who can  be brought to small schools to help students learn?
5a1f69a754a786001a36b2a0
True
language barriers
338
What will persist when teachers and lecturers are brought together?
5a1f69a754a786001a36b2a1
True
visit other parts of the world to speak with their peers, and visit museums and educational facilities
528
What can students do through geographically isolated locations
5a1f69a754a786001a36b2a2
True
students
27
Who can learn from foreign language forums?
5a1f69a754a786001a36b2a3
True
Videoconferencing provides students with the opportunity to learn by participating in two-way communication forums. Furthermore, teachers and lecturers worldwide can be brought to remote or otherwise isolated educational facilities. Students from diverse communities and backgrounds can come together to learn about one another, although language barriers will continue to persist. Such students are able to explore, communicate, analyze and share information and ideas with one another. Through videoconferencing, students can visit other parts of the world to speak with their peers, and visit museums and educational facilities. Such virtual field trips can provide enriched learning opportunities to students, especially those in geographically isolated locations, and to the economically disadvantaged. Small schools can use these technologies to pool resources and provide courses, such as in foreign languages, which could not otherwise be offered.
What company introduced the first device to help deaf people communicate through telecommunications?
570af9ad6b8089140040f658
AT&T
140
False
What was the name of AT&T's videophone device?
570af9ad6b8089140040f659
Picturephone
179
False
In what year was AT&T's "Picturephone" device introduced?
570af9ad6b8089140040f65a
1964
230
False
Where was AT&T's "Picturephone" device unveiled?
570af9ad6b8089140040f65b
1964 New York World's Fair
230
False
In what decade were more efficient ways of using sign language via video-telephony developed?
570af9ad6b8089140040f65c
1990s
906
False
at the 1964 New York World's Fair
223
Where was the Picturephone introduced in the 1990's?
5a1f6cbe54a786001a36b2b3
True
between the fair and another city
321
Where were universities able to communicate with each other at the fair?
5a1f6cbe54a786001a36b2b4
True
British Telecom's Martlesham facility
412
What organization conducted research on ISDN phone lines?
5a1f6cbe54a786001a36b2b5
True
difficulty of its use over slow analogue copper phone lines, coupled with the high cost of better quality ISDN (data) phone lines
604
How were video codecs hampered for years?
5a1f6cbe54a786001a36b2b6
True
more efficient video codecs and the advent of lower cost high-speed ISDN data and IP (Internet) services
794
What was introduced to make extensive research easier over video telephony?
5a1f6cbe54a786001a36b2b7
True
One of the first demonstrations of the ability for telecommunications to help sign language users communicate with each other occurred when AT&T's videophone (trademarked as the "Picturephone") was introduced to the public at the 1964 New York World's Fair –two deaf users were able to communicate freely with each other between the fair and another city. Various universities and other organizations, including British Telecom's Martlesham facility, have also conducted extensive research on signing via videotelephony. The use of sign language via videotelephony was hampered for many years due to the difficulty of its use over slow analogue copper phone lines, coupled with the high cost of better quality ISDN (data) phone lines. Those factors largely disappeared with the introduction of more efficient video codecs and the advent of lower cost high-speed ISDN data and IP (Internet) services in the 1990s.
In what industry has videoconferencing become useful?
570afaaa6b8089140040f66c
film
31
False
On what film was videoconferencing widely used?
570afaaa6b8089140040f66d
Frozen
268
False
What year was the movie Frozen released?
570afaaa6b8089140040f66e
2013
235
False
In what city were the songwriting team of Frozen located?
570afaaa6b8089140040f66f
New York City
330
False
How many months did the songwriters work on the movie via videoconferencing?
570afaaa6b8089140040f670
14
541
False
creative talent in many different locations can collaborate closely on the complex details of film production
103
How has videoconferencing become useful in the songwriting industry?
5a1f785854a786001a36b2d1
True
film industry
31
In what industry has using different locations become useful?
5a1f785854a786001a36b2d2
True
2013
235
In what year was the film industry globalized?
5a1f785854a786001a36b2d3
True
14
541
How long did songwriters work in different locations through videoconferencing?
5a1f785854a786001a36b2d4
True
Frozen
268
On what movie were complex details of film production used?
5a1f785854a786001a36b2d5
True
In the increasingly globalized film industry, videoconferencing has become useful as a method by which creative talent in many different locations can collaborate closely on the complex details of film production. For example, for the 2013 award-winning animated film Frozen, Burbank-based Walt Disney Animation Studios hired the New York City-based husband-and-wife songwriting team of Robert Lopez and Kristen Anderson-Lopez to write the songs, which required two-hour-long transcontinental videoconferences nearly every weekday for about 14 months.
What is a video-conference also known as?
570afc276b8089140040f680
videoteleconference
137
False
What does a video-conference use that allows communication in live situations?
570afc276b8089140040f681
a multipoint control unit
305
False
What is a multi-point control unit?
570afc276b8089140040f682
call management system
363
False
How does video-conferencing allow multiple parties to communicate with each other?
570afc276b8089140040f683
web-based applications
604
False
How many locations can one use videoconferencing for?
570afc276b8089140040f684
two or more
165
False
a videophone
55
What is a web-based application more expensive than?
5a1f7dfd54a786001a36b2e5
True
a multipoint control unit
305
How does a videophone allow live communication?
5a1f7dfd54a786001a36b2e6
True
videoteleconference
137
What is a videophone also known as?
5a1f7dfd54a786001a36b2e7
True
two or more
165
How many locations can you use a videophone in?
5a1f7dfd54a786001a36b2e8
True
multiple party videoconferencing via web-based applications
567
What have videophones allowed by going around traditional definitions?
5a1f7dfd54a786001a36b2e9
True
A videoconference system is generally higher cost than a videophone and deploys greater capabilities. A videoconference (also known as a videoteleconference) allows two or more locations to communicate via live, simultaneous two-way video and audio transmissions. This is often accomplished by the use of a multipoint control unit (a centralized distribution and call management system) or by a similar non-centralized multipoint capability embedded in each videoconferencing unit. Again, technology improvements have circumvented traditional definitions by allowing multiple party videoconferencing via web-based applications.
What is one area where teleconferencing could not be used?
570b00026b8089140040f69e
telemedicine
90
False
Who developed the first systems to transmit slow-scan video?
570b00026b8089140040f69f
AT&T Corporation
259
False
When was the first slow-scan video systems researched?
570b00026b8089140040f6a0
the 1950s
297
False
What was the bit rate of AT&T's Picturephone?
570b00026b8089140040f6a1
6 Mbit/s
442
False
What was the bandwidth of AT&T's Picturephone?
570b00026b8089140040f6a2
1 MHz
422
False
AT&T Corporation
259
Who developed the first system to transmit distance education?
5a1f22043de3f40018b2650e
True
telemedicine
90
In what area could business meetings not be used?
5a1f22043de3f40018b2650f
True
due to the poor picture quality and the lack of efficient video compression techniques.
322
Why did using business meetings to transmit slow-scan video fail?
5a1f22043de3f40018b26510
True
due to its high cost, but also due to a lack of network effect
541
In the 1950's why did the Picturephone not become a success?
5a1f22043de3f40018b26511
True
only a few hundred
610
How many telephony networks were there in the world?
5a1f22043de3f40018b26512
True
This technique was very expensive, though, and could not be used for applications such as telemedicine, distance education, and business meetings. Attempts at using normal telephony networks to transmit slow-scan video, such as the first systems developed by AT&T Corporation, first researched in the 1950s, failed mostly due to the poor picture quality and the lack of efficient video compression techniques. The greater 1 MHz bandwidth and 6 Mbit/s bit rate of the Picturephone in the 1970s also did not achieve commercial success, mostly due to its high cost, but also due to a lack of network effect —with only a few hundred Picturephones in the world, users had extremely few contacts they could actually call to, and interoperability with other videophone systems would not exist for decades.
What year did one the first community service usages of videoconferencing take place?
570b17956b8089140040f70a
1992
185
False
What company helped in the creation of community service videoconferencing?
570b17956b8089140040f70b
IBM
239
False
What is the videoconferencing product that both IBM and PictureTel worked on?
570b17956b8089140040f70c
PCS/1
362
False
What does DIANE in Project DIANE stand for?
570b17956b8089140040f70d
Diversified Information and Assistance Network
408
False
How many years did it take for Project DIANE to grow?
570b17956b8089140040f70e
15
383
False
within internal corporate communication networks
64
Where was distance education first used?
5a1f2a553de3f40018b2652c
True
videoconferencing technology
6
What was first used  in neighborhood centers?
5a1f2a553de3f40018b2652d
True
a jointly developed desktop based videoconferencing product known as the PCS/1.
289
What did a partnership between libraries and science museums promote in 1992?
5a1f2a553de3f40018b2652e
True
libraries, science museums
656
In 1992 what are two places that were part of the PictureTel network?
5a1f2a553de3f40018b2652f
True
a multi-state cooperative public service and distance education network
523
What did IBM Corporations grow to create over the next 15 years?
5a1f2a553de3f40018b26530
True
While videoconferencing technology was initially used primarily within internal corporate communication networks, one of the first community service usages of the technology started in 1992 through a unique partnership with PictureTel and IBM Corporations which at the time were promoting a jointly developed desktop based videoconferencing product known as the PCS/1. Over the next 15 years, Project DIANE (Diversified Information and Assistance Network) grew to utilize a variety of videoconferencing platforms to create a multi-state cooperative public service and distance education network consisting of several hundred schools, neighborhood centers, libraries, science museums, zoos and parks, public assistance centers, and other community oriented organizations.
What enables videoconferencing to connect three or more remote points?
570b198fec8fbc190045b81c
Multipoint Control Unit (MCU)
91
False
What is one type of MCU bridge?
570b198fec8fbc190045b81d
IP
368
False
In what way can an MCU be characterized?
570b198fec8fbc190045b81e
the number of simultaneous calls it can handle
543
False
What feature enables an MCU to allow for multiple parties to be seen on screen at the same time?
570b198fec8fbc190045b81f
Continuous Presence
676
False
Where can an MCU be embedded?
570b198fec8fbc190045b820
dedicated videoconferencing units
825
False
by means of a Multipoint Control Unit (MCU)
77
What makes videoconferencing between Continuous Presence possible?
5a1f561654a786001a36b26d
True
the number of simultaneous calls it can handle
543
What is one thing that characterizes an ISDN?
5a1f561654a786001a36b26e
True
Continuous Presence
676
What feature lets more than one person participate in sequence?
5a1f561654a786001a36b26f
True
pure software, and others which are a combination of hardware and software.
430
What are remote points made of?
5a1f561654a786001a36b270
True
IP
368
What is one type of simultaneous call that acts as a bridge?
5a1f561654a786001a36b271
True
Simultaneous videoconferencing among three or more remote points is possible by means of a Multipoint Control Unit (MCU). This is a bridge that interconnects calls from several sources (in a similar way to the audio conference call). All parties call the MCU, or the MCU can also call the parties which are going to participate, in sequence. There are MCU bridges for IP and ISDN-based videoconferencing. There are MCUs which are pure software, and others which are a combination of hardware and software. An MCU is characterised according to the number of simultaneous calls it can handle, its ability to conduct transposing of data rates and protocols, and features such as Continuous Presence, in which multiple parties can be seen on-screen at once. MCUs can be stand-alone hardware devices, or they can be embedded into dedicated videoconferencing units.
In what one way can videoconferencing help a person?
570b1a61ec8fbc190045b826
money savings
120
False
What technology can be used along with videoconferencing?
570b1a61ec8fbc190045b827
VoIP
154
False
What is another use of VoIP?
570b1a61ec8fbc190045b828
telecommuting
376
False
What is telecommuting?
570b1a61ec8fbc190045b829
work from home
410
False
What is the percentage of people who use videoconferencing a majority of the time?
570b1a61ec8fbc190045b82a
54%
525
False
to participate in meetings on short notice
62
What can time savings help people do?
5a1f74bf54a786001a36b2c7
True
telecommuting
376
What are face-to-face business meetings also used for?
5a1f74bf54a786001a36b2c8
True
54% of the respondents with access to video conferencing used it “all of the time” or “frequently”.
525
What did a report based on money savings show?
5a1f74bf54a786001a36b2c9
True
54%
525
As of June 2010 what  percentage of telecommuters used the technology frequently?
5a1f74bf54a786001a36b2ca
True
work from home
410
What are low-cost meetings also used for?
5a1f74bf54a786001a36b2cb
True
Videoconferencing can enable individuals in distant locations to participate in meetings on short notice, with time and money savings. Technology such as VoIP can be used in conjunction with desktop videoconferencing to enable low-cost face-to-face business meetings without leaving the desk, especially for businesses with widespread offices. The technology is also used for telecommuting, in which employees work from home. One research report based on a sampling of 1,800 corporate employees showed that, as of June 2010, 54% of the respondents with access to video conferencing used it “all of the time” or “frequently”.
In what decade was Internet video-conferencing made possible?
570b1c0c6b8089140040f714
1990s
16
False
In what device was videoconferencing finally able to be used in?
570b1c0c6b8089140040f715
desktop
159
False
In what year was CU-SeeMe, a desktop-based videoconferencing tool, developed?
570b1c0c6b8089140040f716
1992
222
False
In what year did the first public video-conference take place?
570b1c0c6b8089140040f717
1995
285
False
What South African city participated in the first public video-conference?
570b1c0c6b8089140040f718
Cape Town
442
False
CU-SeeMe
227
What was developed at Cornell by Seiji Ozawa?
5a1f27e33de3f40018b26522
True
In 1995
282
When did the CU-SeeMee take place that linked San Francisco and Captown?
5a1f27e33de3f40018b26523
True
Seiji Ozawa conducted the Ode to Joy from Beethoven's Ninth Symphony simultaneously across five continents in near-real time.
511
What happened at a technofair in Nagano, Japan in real time?
5a1f27e33de3f40018b26524
True
Internet Protocol-based videoconferencing
23
What became possible that allowed the Winter Olympics opening ceremony to happen?
5a1f27e33de3f40018b26525
True
In 1995
282
When did Nagano Japan take part in the first public video-conference linking two continents?
5a1f27e33de3f40018b26526
True
Finally, in the 1990s, Internet Protocol-based videoconferencing became possible, and more efficient video compression technologies were developed, permitting desktop, or personal computer (PC)-based videoconferencing. In 1992 CU-SeeMe was developed at Cornell by Tim Dorcey et al. In 1995 the first public videoconference between North America and Africa took place, linking a technofair in San Francisco with a techno-rave and cyberdeli in Cape Town. At the Winter Olympics opening ceremony in Nagano, Japan, Seiji Ozawa conducted the Ode to Joy from Beethoven's Ninth Symphony simultaneously across five continents in near-real time.
What is the software that performs audio and/or video compression?
570b1cf5ec8fbc190045b830
a codec (coder/decoder)
180
False
How high can compression rates go?
570b1cf5ec8fbc190045b831
1:500
232
False
What is one digital network through which a digital stream can be transmitted?
570b1cf5ec8fbc190045b832
IP
416
False
What does POTS stand for?
570b1cf5ec8fbc190045b833
Plain Old Telephone System
504
False
What do POTS do?
570b1cf5ec8fbc190045b834
convert the digital pulses to/from analog waves
601
False
digital compression of audio and video streams in real time
58
What is the core digital network used in a videoconferencing system?
5a1f508a54a786001a36b263
True
a codec (coder/decoder)
180
What is the low speed application that performs compression?
5a1f508a54a786001a36b264
True
up to 1:500
226
How high can audio modems go?
5a1f508a54a786001a36b265
True
The resulting digital stream of 1s and 0s is subdivided into labeled packets, which are then transmitted
255
What is transmitted through low speed applications of some kind?
5a1f508a54a786001a36b266
True
the digital pulses to/from analog waves
609
What does an ISDN convert in the audio spectrum range?
5a1f508a54a786001a36b267
True
The core technology used in a videoconferencing system is digital compression of audio and video streams in real time. The hardware or software that performs compression is called a codec (coder/decoder). Compression rates of up to 1:500 can be achieved. The resulting digital stream of 1s and 0s is subdivided into labeled packets, which are then transmitted through a digital network of some kind (usually ISDN or IP). The use of audio modems in the transmission line allow for the use of POTS, or the Plain Old Telephone System, in some low-speed applications, such as videotelephony, because they convert the digital pulses to/from analog waves in the audio spectrum range.
What profession utilizes videoconferencing technology to conduct online sessions?
570b1e4aec8fbc190045b83b
teachers
333
False
What is one way that videocalling can be used?
570b1e4aec8fbc190045b83c
personal videocalls to inmates
388
False
What is a common use of conferencing technology?
570b1e4aec8fbc190045b83d
tele-medical
205
False
conferencing on a one-on-one
75
What is one common use of tele-medical technology?
5a1f824b54a786001a36b2ef
True
personal videocalls to inmates incarcerated in penitentiaries
388
What is one way businesses can conduct online sessions?
5a1f824b54a786001a36b2f0
True
airline engineering issues
484
What can diagnostic services resolve at maintenance facilities?
5a1f824b54a786001a36b2f1
True
on an ongoing basis
568
How often is the def Video Relay Service evolving?
5a1f824b54a786001a36b2f2
True
videocalling and videoconferencing
289
What services do inmates incarcerated in penitentiaries use?
5a1f824b54a786001a36b2f3
True
Typical use of the various technologies described above include calling or conferencing on a one-on-one, one-to-many or many-to-many basis for personal, business, educational, deaf Video Relay Service and tele-medical, diagnostic and rehabilitative use or services. New services utilizing videocalling and videoconferencing, such as teachers and psychologists conducting online sessions, personal videocalls to inmates incarcerated in penitentiaries, and videoconferencing to resolve airline engineering issues at maintenance facilities, are being created or evolving on an ongoing basis.
What is one way that videoconferencing is useful?
570b1f6b6b8089140040f746
real-time telemedicine
52
False
What areas benefit especially from videoconferencing?
570b1f6b6b8089140040f747
Rural
367
False
In what US state did a rural area use videoconferencing to help reduce the number of transfers of sick infants to hospitals?
570b1f6b6b8089140040f748
Ohio
537
False
How far away was the hospital from this rural area?
570b1f6b6b8089140040f749
70 miles
655
False
How much money did videoconferencing help this rural area save?
570b1f6b6b8089140040f74a
$10,000 per transfer
711
False
Rural areas
367
What areas make contacting nurses more streamlined?
5a1f6b1454a786001a36b2a9
True
$10,000
711
How much did it cost to contact a doctor in rural Ohio?
5a1f6b1454a786001a36b2aa
True
Ohio
537
Where did a medical center use transmission of medical images to cut costs?
5a1f6b1454a786001a36b2ab
True
70 miles (110 km) away
655
How far away was the doctor from the rural area in Ohio?
5a1f6b1454a786001a36b2ac
True
videoconferencing
180
What allows medical centers to discuss cases across large distances?
5a1f6b1454a786001a36b2ad
True
Videoconferencing is a highly useful technology for real-time telemedicine and telenursing applications, such as diagnosis, consulting, transmission of medical images, etc... With videoconferencing, patients may contact nurses and physicians in emergency or routine situations; physicians and other paramedical professionals can discuss cases across large distances. Rural areas can use this technology for diagnostic purposes, thus saving lives and making more efficient use of health care money. For example, a rural medical center in Ohio, United States, used videoconferencing to successfully cut the number of transfers of sick infants to a hospital 70 miles (110 km) away. This had previously cost nearly $10,000 per transfer.
In what European country has VRS services become well developed?
570b2117ec8fbc190045b842
Sweden
54
False
What is one of the reasons why VRS services are not in most European countries?
570b2117ec8fbc190045b843
financing
386
False
What European country is a leader in providing VRS services to its citizens?
570b2117ec8fbc190045b844
Germany
498
False
What country is a world leader in providing VRS services?
570b2117ec8fbc190045b845
United States
580
False
VRS services
0
What has become developed in Germany since 1997?
5a1f6f6654a786001a36b2bd
True
VRS services
641
What has the European Union become a world leader in providing?
5a1f6f6654a786001a36b2be
True
financing
386
Why are VRS services not in the United States?
5a1f6f6654a786001a36b2bf
True
only a few years
205
For how long has Germany offered VRS services since the 2000's?
5a1f6f6654a786001a36b2c0
True
Sweden
54
Where has legislation and financing become well developed in Europe?
5a1f6f6654a786001a36b2c1
True
VRS services have become well developed nationally in Sweden since 1997 and also in the United States since the first decade of the 2000s. With the exception of Sweden, VRS has been provided in Europe for only a few years since the mid-2000s, and as of 2010 has not been made available in many European Union countries, with most European countries still lacking the legislation or the financing for large-scale VRS services, and to provide the necessary telecommunication equipment to deaf users. Germany and the Nordic countries are among the other leaders in Europe, while the United States is another world leader in the provisioning of VRS services.
What year was the first HD video conferencing system displayed?
570b221b6b8089140040f768
2005
7
False
Who produced the first high definition video conferencing system?
570b221b6b8089140040f769
LifeSize Communications
79
False
Where was the first HD video conferencing system displayed?
570b221b6b8089140040f76a
Las Vegas, Nevada
148
False
What company introduced the first HD video conferencing system to the general market?
570b221b6b8089140040f76b
Polycom
252
False
What was the resolution of the first HD video conferencing system?
570b221b6b8089140040f76c
1280 by 720
220
False
the first high definition video conferencing systems
13
In 2006, what was produced by Lifesize Comunications?
5a1f2bc43de3f40018b26536
True
at the Interop trade show in Las Vegas, Nevada
119
Where was Polycom displayed in May 2005?
5a1f2bc43de3f40018b26537
True
its first high definition video conferencing system to the market
271
What did LifeSize Communications introduce in 2006?
5a1f2bc43de3f40018b26538
True
As of the 2010s
346
When did Interlop become a popular feature?
5a1f2bc43de3f40018b26539
True
high definition resolution for videoconferencing
363
What did most suppliers in the display resolution market offer in the 2010's?
5a1f2bc43de3f40018b2653a
True
In May 2005, the first high definition video conferencing systems, produced by LifeSize Communications, were displayed at the Interop trade show in Las Vegas, Nevada, able to provide video at 30 frames per second with a 1280 by 720 display resolution. Polycom introduced its first high definition video conferencing system to the market in 2006. As of the 2010s, high definition resolution for videoconferencing became a popular feature, with most major suppliers in the videoconferencing market offering it.
What do systems with no MCU use in order to perform multipoint conferencing?
570b24776b8089140040f786
a standards-based H.323 technique
111
False
What is one advantage of using an H.323 technique?
570b24776b8089140040f787
higher quality
411
False
What is one disadvantage of using the H.323 technique?
570b24776b8089140040f788
increased network bandwidth
661
False
What is the H.323 technique also known as?
570b24776b8089140040f789
decentralized multipoint
155
False
Why is the video and audio of the H.323 technique higher quality?
570b24776b8089140040f78a
they don't have to be relayed through a central point
434
False
Some systems
0
What is capable of multipoint conferencing without the H.323 technique?
5a1f5c2554a786001a36b281
True
"decentralized multipoint"
154
What technique is used that transmits to an MCU?
5a1f5c2554a786001a36b282
True
increased network bandwidth
661
What is a main disadvantage of using an MCU technique?
5a1f5c2554a786001a36b283
True
a standards-based H.323 technique
111
What do systems that use an MCU, use for video conferencing?
5a1f5c2554a786001a36b284
True
the video and audio will generally be of higher quality
370
What are the advantages of using ad-hoc multipoint calls?
5a1f5c2554a786001a36b285
True
Some systems are capable of multipoint conferencing with no MCU, stand-alone, embedded or otherwise. These use a standards-based H.323 technique known as "decentralized multipoint", where each station in a multipoint call exchanges video and audio directly with the other stations with no central "manager" or other bottleneck. The advantages of this technique are that the video and audio will generally be of higher quality because they don't have to be relayed through a central point. Also, users can make ad-hoc multipoint calls without any concern for the availability or control of an MCU. This added convenience and quality comes at the expense of some increased network bandwidth, because every station must transmit to every other station directly.
Who has the world's largest administrative judicial system?
570b25ecec8fbc190045b87c
U.S.
4
False
What US Department oversees the World's largest administrative judicial system?
570b25ecec8fbc190045b87d
Social Security Administration (SSA)
9
False
In what year did the SSA see a 55% increase in videoconferenced hearings?
570b25ecec8fbc190045b87e
2009
281
False
When did the SSA open its largest videoconferencing-only center?
570b25ecec8fbc190045b87f
August 2010
409
False
Where is the SSA's fifth videoconferencing only center located?
570b25ecec8fbc190045b880
St. Louis, Missouri
516
False
86,320
343
In 2010 how many hearings did the U.S. SSA conduct?
5a1f62bc54a786001a36b295
True
opened its fifth and largest videoconferencing-only National Hearing Center (NHC), in St. Louis, Missouri
430
What did the ODAR do to clear its hearing backlog in August 2010?
5a1f62bc54a786001a36b296
True
Albuquerque, New Mexico, Baltimore, Maryland, Falls Church, Virginia, and Chicago, Illinois.
693
In what locations has the ODAR opened NHC's since 2007?
5a1f62bc54a786001a36b297
True
55%
379
By what percentage did the SSA's hearing backlog increase in 2009?
5a1f62bc54a786001a36b298
True
the world's largest administrative judicial system
62
What does the NHC oversee under its ODAR?
5a1f62bc54a786001a36b299
True
The U.S. Social Security Administration (SSA), which oversees the world's largest administrative judicial system under its Office of Disability Adjudication and Review (ODAR), has made extensive use of videoconferencing to conduct hearings at remote locations. In Fiscal Year (FY) 2009, the U.S. Social Security Administration (SSA) conducted 86,320 videoconferenced hearings, a 55% increase over FY 2008. In August 2010, the SSA opened its fifth and largest videoconferencing-only National Hearing Center (NHC), in St. Louis, Missouri. This continues the SSA's effort to use video hearings as a means to clear its substantial hearing backlog. Since 2007, the SSA has also established NHCs in Albuquerque, New Mexico, Baltimore, Maryland, Falls Church, Virginia, and Chicago, Illinois.
Gregorian_calendar
What does duel dating use to show the date?
570af6316b8089140040f63a
two consecutive years
136
False
What is the Old Style date mean?
570af6316b8089140040f63b
Julian calendar
509
False
What is N.S. stand for?
570af6316b8089140040f63c
New Style
71
False
What are New Style dates?
570af6316b8089140040f63d
Gregorian
548
False
Why use two consecutive year dates?
570af6316b8089140040f63e
starting date of the year
188
False
dual dating or Old Style (O.S.) and New Style (N.S.)
35
What is used with dates to determine whether a date is correct or not?
5a36f18395360f001af1b369
True
Dual dating
119
What uses two different dates because of a difference in the ending date of the year?
5a36f18395360f001af1b36a
True
New Style (N.S.)
278
Which system indicates that the Gregorian year has been adjusted to start on January 1?
5a36f18395360f001af1b36b
True
Old Style
264
Which system indicates that the date that the Julian date has been adjusted for length?
5a36f18395360f001af1b36c
True
To unambiguously specify the date, dual dating or Old Style (O.S.) and New Style (N.S.) are sometimes used with dates. Dual dating uses two consecutive years because of differences in the starting date of the year, or includes both the Julian and Gregorian dates. Old Style and New Style (N.S.) indicate either whether the start of the Julian year has been adjusted to start on 1 January (N.S.) even though documents written at the time use a different start of year (O.S.), or whether a date conforms to the Julian calendar (O.S.) rather than the Gregorian (N.S.).
Who revised the Julian calendar?
570af7f4ec8fbc190045b792
Pope Gregory XIII
81
False
When was the Gregorian Calendar introduced?
570af7f4ec8fbc190045b793
1582
73
False
What calendar was used in the reform to create the Gregorian calendar?
570af7f4ec8fbc190045b794
Julian calendar
43
False
What holiday was the inducement to revise the Julian calendar?
570af7f4ec8fbc190045b795
Easter
270
False
When did the First Council of Nicaea rule that Easter be celebrated by all Christians?
570af7f4ec8fbc190045b796
on the same day
486
False
The Gregorian calendar
0
What was the Julian calendar a reform of?
5a36f47295360f001af1b379
True
The Gregorian calendar
0
What calendar was started in the fifteenth century?
5a36f47295360f001af1b37a
True
Pope Gregory XIII
81
Which Pope started the Julian calendar?
5a36f47295360f001af1b37b
True
Easter
270
What holiday led to the revision of the Gregorian calendar
5a36f47295360f001af1b37c
True
the First Council of Nicaea
397
Who suggested that all Christians celebrate Easter on the same day during the third century?
5a36f47295360f001af1b37d
True
The Gregorian calendar was a reform of the Julian calendar instituted in 1582 by Pope Gregory XIII, after whom the calendar was named, by papal bull Inter gravissimas dated 24 February 1582. The motivation for the adjustment was to bring the date for the celebration of Easter to the time of year in which it was celebrated when it was introduced by the early Church. Although a recommendation of the First Council of Nicaea in 325 specified that all Christians should celebrate Easter on the same day, it took almost five centuries before virtually all Christians achieved that objective by adopting the rules of the Church of Alexandria (see Easter for the issues which arose).
What ruler decreed the change to the Gregorian calendar?
570af9f26b8089140040f662
Philip II of Spain
0
False
Besides part of Italy, over what areas did Phillip rule?
570af9f26b8089140040f663
Spain and Portugal
164
False
What was the first day selected to be the first day using the new calendar?
570af9f26b8089140040f664
Friday, 15 October 1582
465
False
What was the last day the Julian calendar was used?
570af9f26b8089140040f665
Thursday, 4 October 1582
411
False
Why did the Spanish colonies lag behind in adopting the calendar?
570af9f26b8089140040f666
delay in communication
570
False
Philip II of Spain
0
What King decreed the change from the Gregorian to the Julian calendar?
5a36ff0395360f001af1b3b7
True
much of Roman Catholic Europe
96
Who was affected by Philip II's switch to the Julian calendar?
5a36ff0395360f001af1b3b8
True
the bull
389
What changed Julian Thursday, 4 October 1582 to Gregorian Friday, 15 October 1582?
5a36ff0395360f001af1b3b9
True
Julian
47
What calendar was last used on Friday, October 15 1582?
5a36ff0395360f001af1b3ba
True
Philip II of Spain decreed the change from the Julian to the Gregorian calendar, which affected much of Roman Catholic Europe, as Philip was at the time ruler over Spain and Portugal as well as much of Italy. In these territories, as well as in the Polish–Lithuanian Commonwealth (ruled by Anna Jagiellon) and in the Papal States, the new calendar was implemented on the date specified by the bull, with Julian Thursday, 4 October 1582, being followed by Gregorian Friday, 15 October 1582. The Spanish and Portuguese colonies followed somewhat later de facto because of delay in communication.
When did the last country to adopt the Gregorian calendar start using it?
570afbdf6b8089140040f676
1923
93
False
At what date did the first country start using the new calendar?
570afbdf6b8089140040f677
1582
26
False
How which calendar did some countries notate the date?
570afbdf6b8089140040f678
in both
200
False
Who said that English writers usually used both dates on writings?
570afbdf6b8089140040f679
Woolley
574
False
What difference in dating caused the use of double-dating documents?
570afbdf6b8089140040f67a
different beginnings of the year
519
False
the first countries adopted the Gregorian calendar
37
What happened in the fifteenth century that made it necessary to give dates using both calendars?
5a37134395360f001af1b3e1
True
the last European country adopted it
104
What happened in the nineteenth century the Gregorian calendar that made it necessary to give dates using both calendars?
5a37134395360f001af1b3e2
True
some countries already beginning their numbered year on 1 January
331
Why was it not necessary to use the dual year when giving two dates?
5a37134395360f001af1b3e3
True
because of the different beginnings of the year in various countries
504
Why did the year sometimes have to be double dated after 1582?
5a37134395360f001af1b3e4
True
immediately after 1582 English letter writers "customarily" used "two dates" on their letters, one OS and one NS
646
What did John Dee note?
5a37134395360f001af1b3e5
True
During the period between 1582, when the first countries adopted the Gregorian calendar, and 1923, when the last European country adopted it, it was often necessary to indicate the date of some event in both the Julian calendar and in the Gregorian calendar, for example, "10/21 February 1750/51", where the dual year accounts for some countries already beginning their numbered year on 1 January while others were still using some other date. Even before 1582, the year sometimes had to be double dated because of the different beginnings of the year in various countries. Woolley, writing in his biography of John Dee (1527–1608/9), notes that immediately after 1582 English letter writers "customarily" used "two dates" on their letters, one OS and one NS.
What was the percentsge of correction from the Julian calendar to the new Gregorian calendar?
570afd13ec8fbc190045b7a6
0.002%
68
False
What was the correction due to?
570afd13ec8fbc190045b7a7
length of the year
93
False
What change in date motivated the change in calendars?
570afd13ec8fbc190045b7a8
celebration of Easter
173
False
To what astrological date was Easter tied?
570afd13ec8fbc190045b7a9
spring equinox
340
False
What was wrong in the Julian calendar?
570afd13ec8fbc190045b7aa
slightly too long
457
False
0.002%
68
What percentage did the Julian calendar fixed the Gregorian calendar?
5a36ce5695360f001af1b34b
True
the length of the year
89
What was too short in the Julian calendar?
5a36ce5695360f001af1b34c
True
The calendar
0
What did the spring equinox motivate the church to change?
5a36ce5695360f001af1b34d
True
the steady drift in the date of Easter caused by the year being slightly too long
393
What did the Protestant church considered to be undesirable?
5a36ce5695360f001af1b34e
True
The calendar
0
What was first adopted by Eastern Orthodox countries
5a36ce5695360f001af1b34f
True
The calendar was a refinement to the Julian calendar amounting to a 0.002% correction in the length of the year. The motivation for the reform was to bring the date for the celebration of Easter to the time of the year in which it was celebrated when it was introduced by the early Church. Because the celebration of Easter was tied to the spring equinox, the Roman Catholic Church considered the steady drift in the date of Easter caused by the year being slightly too long to be undesirable. The reform was adopted initially by the Catholic countries of Europe. Protestants and Eastern Orthodox countries continued to use the traditional Julian calendar and adopted the Gregorian reform after a time, for the sake of convenience in international trade. The last European country to adopt the reform was Greece, in 1923.
What kind of calendar is the Gregorian calendar?
570afefeec8fbc190045b7ba
solar
28
False
How many days are in the Gregorian calendar?
570afefeec8fbc190045b7bb
365
81
False
How often is a leap day added to the Julian calendar year?
570afefeec8fbc190045b7bc
every 4 years
213
False
When does the Gregorian calendar omit 3 leap days?
570afefeec8fbc190045b7bd
every 400 years
273
False
On what day did both the Julian and Gregorian calendars add leap day?
570afefeec8fbc190045b7be
24 February
353
False
The Gregorian calendar
0
What calendar is a lunar calendar?
5a36f34995360f001af1b371
True
every 400 years
273
When does the Julian calendar omit three leap days?
5a36f34995360f001af1b372
True
Roman Catholic Church
612
Which church still host festivals on the twenty-third in leap years?
5a36f34995360f001af1b373
True
leap day was inserted by doubling 24 February,
319
What did Julian reform not change about leap year?
5a36f34995360f001af1b374
True
The Gregorian calendar is a solar calendar. A regular Gregorian year consists of 365 days, but as in the Julian calendar, in a leap year, a leap day is added to February. In the Julian calendar a leap year occurs every 4 years, but the Gregorian calendar omits 3 leap days every 400 years. In the Julian calendar, this leap day was inserted by doubling 24 February, and the Gregorian reform did not change the date of the leap day. In the modern period, it has become customary to number the days from the beginning of the month, and February 29th is often considered as the leap day. Some churches, notably the Roman Catholic Church, delay February festivals after the 23rd by one day in leap years.
When was Easter Sunday celebrated after the equinox?
570b01c36b8089140040f6b2
15th day
32
False
What did churches do to settle the date if there was a difference?
570b01c36b8089140040f6b3
compromise
175
False
By what century had almost all churches begun celebrating Easter according to the Alexandrian Easter?
570b01c36b8089140040f6b4
10th century
255
False
On what border of the Byzantine Empire were the last holdouts for celebrating according the  Alexandrian Easter?
570b01c36b8089140040f6b5
eastern border
301
False
What date placement drifted increasingly off the true date on the calendar?
570b01c36b8089140040f6b6
vernal equinox
400
False
Easter
0
What was celebrated on the fifteenth day after the equinox?
5a36f96795360f001af1b38b
True
the 10th century
251
In what century did all the churches adopt the Alexandrian Easter?
5a36f96795360f001af1b38c
True
Bede
437
Who noticed the equinox drift in the seventh century?
5a36f96795360f001af1b38d
True
the vernal equinox
396
What did the Alexandrian Easter place on 25 March?
5a36f96795360f001af1b38e
True
Easter was the Sunday after the 15th day of this moon, whose 14th day was allowed to precede the equinox. Where the two systems produced different dates there was generally a compromise so that both churches were able to celebrate on the same day. By the 10th century all churches (except some on the eastern border of the Byzantine Empire) had adopted the Alexandrian Easter, which still placed the vernal equinox on 21 March, although Bede had already noted its drift in 725—it had drifted even further by the 16th century.
What did Lilius first propose to correct in the calendar?
570b03a2ec8fbc190045b7d8
length of the year
80
False
By how much is the Julian calendar too long?
570b03a2ec8fbc190045b7d9
11 minutes
228
False
How much difference does the extra 11 minutes make over 400 years time?
570b03a2ec8fbc190045b7da
three days
319
False
On what date was the original vernal equinox set?
570b03a2ec8fbc190045b7db
21 March
633
False
By the time of Lilius where was the equinox falling?
570b03a2ec8fbc190045b7dc
10 or 11 March
572
False
Lilius's
0
Who proposed lengthening the year?
5a36fcf095360f001af1b3a7
True
Julian year
206
Which year was eleven minutes too short?
5a36fcf095360f001af1b3a8
True
The mean tropical year is 365.24219 days long
100
What causes an extra three days every 400 years in the Gregorian calendar?
5a36fcf095360f001af1b3a9
True
vernal equinox
546
What was originally set as March 25?
5a36fcf095360f001af1b3aa
True
deleting the Julian leap day on each of its ten occurrences over a period of forty years,
746
What did Gregory propose deleting to correct the ten day drift?
5a36fcf095360f001af1b3ab
True
Lilius's proposals had two components. Firstly, he proposed a correction to the length of the year. The mean tropical year is 365.24219 days long. As the average length of a Julian year is 365.25 days, the Julian year is almost 11 minutes longer than the mean tropical year. The discrepancy results in a drift of about three days every 400 years. Lilius's proposal resulted in an average year of 365.2425 days (see Accuracy). At the time of Gregory's reform there had already been a drift of 10 days since the Council of Nicaea, resulting in the vernal equinox falling on 10 or 11 March instead of the ecclesiastically fixed date of 21 March, and if unreformed it would drift further. Lilius proposed that the 10-day drift should be corrected by deleting the Julian leap day on each of its ten occurrences over a period of forty years, thereby providing for a gradual return of the equinox to 21 March.
On what date did most European countries set the start of the new year?
570b057a6b8089140040f6ec
1 January
65
False
When did Scotland begin to use January 1 as the start of the new year?
570b057a6b8089140040f6ed
1600
200
False
When did the other British states and colonies set the year start date to January 1?
570b057a6b8089140040f6ee
1752
334
False
What act did Britain use to implement the use of the Gregorian calendar?
570b057a6b8089140040f6ef
Calendar (New Style) Act 1750
689
False
When did England finally change the tax year to 6 April?
570b057a6b8089140040f6f0
1800
478
False
changed the start of the year to 1 January
32
What do most European countries do after they adopted the Gregorian calendar?
5a3711c795360f001af1b3d7
True
Scotland
132
What country changed the new year to January 1 during the sixteenth century
5a3711c795360f001af1b3d8
True
England, Ireland and the British colonies
246
Who changed the start of the new year to January 1 during the seventeenth century?
5a3711c795360f001af1b3d9
True
Calendar (New Style) Act 1750.
689
What was the name of the act that changed the start of the year and a seventeenth century?
5a3711c795360f001af1b3da
True
start of the tax year
407
What remained on March 25 in Scotland?
5a3711c795360f001af1b3db
True
Most Western European countries changed the start of the year to 1 January before they adopted the Gregorian calendar. For example, Scotland changed the start of the Scottish New Year to 1 January in 1600 (this means that 1599 was a short year). England, Ireland and the British colonies changed the start of the year to 1 January in 1752 (so 1751 was a short year with only 282 days) though in England the start of the tax year remained at 25 March (O.S.), 5 April (N.S.) till 1800, when it moved to 6 April. Later in 1752 in September the Gregorian calendar was introduced throughout Britain and the British colonies (see the section Adoption). These two reforms were implemented by the Calendar (New Style) Act 1750.
Attempting to use Gregorian dates for earlier events  on the Julian calendar should be used with what action?
570b07e16b8089140040f6f6
caution
150
False
When are events usually shown as they appeared on the Julian calendar?
570b07e16b8089140040f6f7
prior to 15 October 1582
212
False
When was the Battle of Agincourt?
570b07e16b8089140040f6f8
25 October 1415
471
False
What other date is 25 October known for, that keeps the Battle of Agincourt on 25 October,1415?
570b07e16b8089140040f6f9
Saint Crispin's Day
496
False
In the Julian calendar when is the start of the new year?
570b07e16b8089140040f6fa
1 January
324
False
the Gregorian calendar
10
What can you extend backwards to create an accurate calendar?
5a3715fc95360f001af1b3f3
True
events occurring prior to 15 October 1582
195
What events are shown as they appeared on the Julian calendar with the year starting as it did when they occurred?
5a3715fc95360f001af1b3f4
True
25 October 1415
471
What is the disputed date for St. Crispin's Day?
5a3715fc95360f001af1b3f5
True
the year
303
What started in January Julian calendar?
5a3715fc95360f001af1b3f6
True
Extending the Gregorian calendar backwards to dates preceding its official introduction produces a proleptic calendar, which should be used with some caution. For ordinary purposes, the dates of events occurring prior to 15 October 1582 are generally shown as they appeared in the Julian calendar, with the year starting on 1 January, and no conversion to their Gregorian equivalents. For example, the Battle of Agincourt is universally considered to have been fought on 25 October 1415 which is Saint Crispin's Day.
Why would a knuckle -space count be used to determine months?
570b0c33ec8fbc190045b80a
language-independent
2
False
A knuckle count is a month of how many days?
570b0c33ec8fbc190045b80b
31
332
False
The space between knuckles is what kind of month?
570b0c33ec8fbc190045b80c
short month
366
False
What are held together for a knuckle-space month count?
570b0c33ec8fbc190045b80d
one's two fists
72
False
count knuckle, space, knuckle, space through the months
243
What method for determining months is dependent on language?
5a37170a95360f001af1b3fb
True
between the hands
439
What junction is counted for February?
5a37170a95360f001af1b3fc
True
A language-independent alternative used in many countries is to hold up one's two fists with the index knuckle of the left hand against the index knuckle of the right hand. Then, starting with January from the little knuckle of the left hand, count knuckle, space, knuckle, space through the months. A knuckle represents a month of 31 days, and a space represents a short month (a 28- or 29-day February or any 30-day month). The junction between the hands is not counted, so the two index knuckles represent July and August.
How many parts did the Gregorian calendar reform have?
570b0e40ec8fbc190045b812
two parts
31
False
What was the first reform concerning the calendar?
570b0e40ec8fbc190045b813
Julian calendar
58
False
What was the second reform of the calendar?
570b0e40ec8fbc190045b814
lunar cycle
136
False
What was calculated using the lunar calendar?
570b0e40ec8fbc190045b815
date of Easter
211
False
What did Lilius's calendar plan to reduce in every 400 years?
570b0e40ec8fbc190045b816
number of leap years
331
False
two parts
31
How many parts did the Gregorian reform have?
5a36d56b95360f001af1b355
True
Julian calendar
58
What calendar was changed by the Julia reform?
5a36d56b95360f001af1b356
True
The Gregorian reform
0
What reform change the lunar cycle used by pagans?
5a36d56b95360f001af1b357
True
Aloysius Lilius
279
Who oppose the proposal for the reform?
5a36d56b95360f001af1b358
True
Aloysius Lilius
279
Whose reform included increasing the number of leap years and for centuries?
5a36d56b95360f001af1b359
True
The Gregorian reform contained two parts: a reform of the Julian calendar as used prior to Pope Gregory XIII's time and a reform of the lunar cycle used by the Church, with the Julian calendar, to calculate the date of Easter. The reform was a modification of a proposal made by Aloysius Lilius. His proposal included reducing the number of leap years in four centuries from 100 to 97, by making 3 out of 4 centurial years common instead of leap years. Lilius also produced an original and practical scheme for adjusting the epacts of the moon when calculating the annual date of Easter, solving a long-standing obstacle to calendar reform.
What calendar did Turkey use before 1917 for general purposes?
570b1e506b8089140040f732
lunar Islamic
31
False
What calendar did Turkey utilize for fiscal purposes?
570b1e506b8089140040f733
Julian
103
False
Where did Turkey start the fiscal year?
570b1e506b8089140040f734
1 March
193
False
When did Turkey begin to use the Gregorian calendar for fiscal means?
570b1e506b8089140040f735
1 March 1917
450
False
When did Turkey start using the Gregorian calendar for all purposes?
570b1e506b8089140040f736
1 January 1926
520
False
Turkey
15
Who use the lunar Islamic calendar until the nineteenth century?
5a36fffb95360f001af1b3bf
True
Turkey
15
Who use the Hegira era is a fiscal calendar?
5a36fffb95360f001af1b3c0
True
the Hegira year
247
What was used to set the year number?
5a36fffb95360f001af1b3c1
True
"escape years"
368
What was needed because the lunar year is longer than the solar year?
5a36fffb95360f001af1b3c2
True
Gregorian calendar
550
What did Turkey start using for all purposes on March 1, 1917?
5a36fffb95360f001af1b3c3
True
Prior to 1917, Turkey used the lunar Islamic calendar with the Hegira era for general purposes and the Julian calendar for fiscal purposes. The start of the fiscal year was eventually fixed at 1 March and the year number was roughly equivalent to the Hegira year (see Rumi calendar). As the solar year is longer than the lunar year this originally entailed the use of "escape years" every so often when the number of the fiscal year would jump. From 1 March 1917 the fiscal year became Gregorian, rather than Julian. On 1 January 1926 the use of the Gregorian calendar was extended to include use for general purposes and the number of the year became the same as in other countries.
How many days do you subtract to convert days from a calendar?
570b20556b8089140040f758
subtract one day
78
False
What does one need to remember about  the date of February 29 in the Julian calendar?
570b20556b8089140040f759
February 29 is discounted
385
False
If you need a date of four days less, what do you subtract from the Julian calendar?
570b20556b8089140040f75a
-4
444
False
one day
87
How many days you add to convert days from a calendar?
5a3700b995360f001af1b3c9
True
February 29
385
What is discounted when converting from Gregorian to Julian?
5a3700b995360f001af1b3ca
True
days
251
What you add to move from the Julian calendar to the Gregorian calendar?
5a3700b995360f001af1b3cb
True
Up to February 28 in the calendar you are converting from add one day less or subtract one day more than the calculated value. Remember to give February the appropriate number of days for the calendar you are converting into. When you are subtracting days to move from Julian to Gregorian be careful, when calculating the Gregorian equivalent of February 29 (Julian), to remember that February 29 is discounted. Thus if the calculated value is -4 the Gregorian equivalent of this date is February 24.
What is the difference in time between the calendars?
570b2260ec8fbc190045b854
10 minutes 48 seconds
176
False
With what other difference did the Gregorian calendar concern itself?
570b2260ec8fbc190045b855
accumulated difference
258
False
When was the vernal equinox at the end of the third century?
570b2260ec8fbc190045b856
20 March or 21 March
417
False
In order to account for the full moon coming after the equinox, when was the equinox set?
570b2260ec8fbc190045b857
22 March
685
False
How did the Gregorian calendar set these same of the full moon not preceding Easterconditions?
570b2260ec8fbc190045b858
removing ten days
749
False
Gregorian calendar reform
212
What changed the length of the calendar year from 365.2425 days to 365.25 days?
5a36f03795360f001af1b35f
True
days
78
What was reduced by forty-eight minutes and ten seconds?
5a36f03795360f001af1b360
True
The canonical Easter tables
304
What was devised during the 300s
5a36f03795360f001af1b361
True
Easter
540
What was not to follow the equinox?
5a36f03795360f001af1b362
True
Easter
318
What was March 22 the latest date for?
5a36f03795360f001af1b363
True
In addition to the change in the mean length of the calendar year from 365.25 days (365 days 6 hours) to 365.2425 days (365 days 5 hours 49 minutes 12 seconds), a reduction of 10 minutes 48 seconds per year, the Gregorian calendar reform also dealt with the accumulated difference between these lengths. The canonical Easter tables were devised at the end of the third century, when the vernal equinox fell either on 20 March or 21 March depending on the year's position in the leap year cycle. As the rule was that the full moon preceding Easter was not to precede the equinox the equinox was fixed at 21 March for computational purposes and the earliest date for Easter was fixed at 22 March. The Gregorian calendar reproduced these conditions by removing ten days.
When did the Council of Trent agree to the corrected calendar?
570b241bec8fbc190045b85e
1563
40
False
To what time did the Council require the date of the vernal equinox to be set?
570b241bec8fbc190045b85f
325
210
False
What did mathematicians of the time want to use to set the date of Easter?
570b241bec8fbc190045b860
motions of the sun and moon
603
False
What method was used instead of computations of the sun and moon?
570b241bec8fbc190045b861
tabular method
652
False
Whose modified proposal was adopted?
570b241bec8fbc190045b862
Aloysius Lilius
793
False
for correcting the calendrical errors
45
What plan to the Council of Trent approve in the fifteenth century?
5a36fa9795360f001af1b393
True
date of the vernal equinox
103
What did the first Council of Nicaea require to be restored to the one set in 325?
5a36fa9795360f001af1b394
True
to prevent future drift.
265
What did the first Council of Nicaea require alterations for?
5a36fa9795360f001af1b395
True
a Compendium
386
What was sent to mathematicians in the fifteenth century?
5a36fa9795360f001af1b396
True
The reform
712
What was adopted from the proposal of Moleto
5a36fa9795360f001af1b397
True
The Council of Trent approved a plan in 1563 for correcting the calendrical errors, requiring that the date of the vernal equinox be restored to that which it held at the time of the First Council of Nicaea in 325 and that an alteration to the calendar be designed to prevent future drift. This would allow for a more consistent and accurate scheduling of the feast of Easter. In 1577, a Compendium was sent to expert mathematicians outside the reform commission for comments. Some of these experts, including Giambattista Benedetti and Giuseppe Moleto, believed Easter should be computed from the true motions of the sun and moon, rather than using a tabular method, but these recommendations were not adopted. The reform adopted was a modification of a proposal made by the Calabrian doctor Aloysius Lilius (or Lilio).
When were the rights to publish the calendar granted?
570b2597ec8fbc190045b872
3 April 1582
66
False
Who awarded the rights to publish the calendar?
570b2597ec8fbc190045b873
the pope
41
False
What problem caused the papal brief granting the right to publish to be withdrawn?
570b2597ec8fbc190045b874
demand for copies
589
False
When were the rights to print the calendar withdrawn?
570b2597ec8fbc190045b875
20 September 1582
514
False
Where were the first calendars printed?
570b2597ec8fbc190045b876
Rome
313
False
the pope
41
Who decreed the reform during the fifteenth century?
5a36fdbd95360f001af1b3b1
True
publish the calendar for a period of ten years.
156
What was Luigi Lilio given exclusive rights to?
5a36fdbd95360f001af1b3b2
True
Antonio Lilio proved unable to keep up with the demand for copies.
541
Why was a new brief granted in September 2015 eighty-two?September
5a36fdbd95360f001af1b3b3
True
A month after having decreed the reform, the pope with a brief of 3 April 1582 granted to Antonio Lilio, the brother of Luigi Lilio, the exclusive right to publish the calendar for a period of ten years. The Lunario Novo secondo la nuova riforma printed by Vincenzo Accolti, one of the first calendars printed in Rome after the reform, notes at the bottom that it was signed with papal authorization and by Lilio (Con licentia delli Superiori... et permissu Ant(onii) Lilij). The papal brief was later revoked, on 20 September 1582, because Antonio Lilio proved unable to keep up with the demand for copies.
What year did the Roman Republic use for dates?
570b27286b8089140040f79a
consular year
78
False
What event started the consular year?
570b27286b8089140040f79b
consuls first entered office
121
False
What was the date of the consular year before 222 BC?
570b27286b8089140040f79c
1 May
159
False
What was the date of the start of the consular year from 222 BC?
570b27286b8089140040f79d
15 March
180
False
When did Rome begin to use the Julian calendar?
570b27286b8089140040f79e
45 BC
264
False
consular year
78
What was used as the year in the early Roman church?
5a3701a195360f001af1b3cf
True
Julian calendar,
232
What calendar came into use in 153 BC?
5a3701a195360f001af1b3d0
True
Roman Republican period
462
During what period did a year used for dates not change?
5a3701a195360f001af1b3d1
True
The year
0
What was marked by the date the Emperor took office?
5a3701a195360f001af1b3d2
True
The year used in dates during the Roman Republic and the Roman Empire was the consular year, which began on the day when consuls first entered office—probably 1 May before 222 BC, 15 March from 222 BC and 1 January from 153 BC. The Julian calendar, which began in 45 BC, continued to use 1 January as the first day of the new year. Even though the year used for dates changed, the civil year always displayed its months in the order January to December from the Roman Republican period until the present.
What other system of calculations are inherent in the Gregorian calendar?
570b28ab6b8089140040f7a4
system of weeks
52
False
Why is calculating the days of the Gregorian calendar not simple?
570b28ab6b8089140040f7a5
irregularities
280
False
After each country adopted the calendar how did the weekly cycle continue?
570b28ab6b8089140040f7a6
uninterrupted
404
False
What was the date of adoption for the calendar?
570b28ab6b8089140040f7a7
Friday, 15 October 1582
566
False
What was the previous day's date by the Julian calendar?
570b28ab6b8089140040f7a8
Thursday, 4 October 1582
614
False
Calculating the day of the week
213
What is simple to do using the Gregorian system?
5a3717ea95360f001af1b3ff
True
the irregularities in the Gregorian system
276
What makes Calgary the days of the week symbol in the Gregorian system?
5a3717ea95360f001af1b400
True
the weekly cycle continued
377
What was interrupted when the Gregorian calendar was adopted in each country?
5a3717ea95360f001af1b401
True
Gregorian system
302
What ended on Friday, October 5 1582?
5a3717ea95360f001af1b402
True
In conjunction with the system of months there is a system of weeks. A physical or electronic calendar provides conversion from a given date to the weekday, and shows multiple dates for a given weekday and month. Calculating the day of the week is not very simple, because of the irregularities in the Gregorian system. When the Gregorian calendar was adopted by each country, the weekly cycle continued uninterrupted. For example, in the case of the few countries that adopted the reformed calendar on the date proposed by Gregory XIII for the calendar's adoption, Friday, 15 October 1582, the preceding date was Thursday, 4 October 1582 (Julian calendar).
Who thought that the seasonal drift in the date of Easter unacceptable?
570b2a686b8089140040f7b8
Roman Catholic Church
63
False
What even is tired to the date for Easter?
570b2a686b8089140040f7b9
spring equinox
12
False
What did the Church of Alexandria use to calculate the date of Easter?
570b2a686b8089140040f7ba
Metonic cycle
258
False
Where did the Church of Alexandria place the vernal equinox?
570b2a686b8089140040f7bb
21 March
337
False
Until 342 when did the Church of Rome think the vernal equinox fell?
570b2a686b8089140040f7bc
25 March
390
False
Roman Catholic Church
63
Who found the drifting and the date of the spring equinox unacceptable?
5a36f7b995360f001af1b383
True
the Sunday after the 14th day of the moon
196
What did the church of Rome use the metonic cycle to determine?
5a36f7b995360f001af1b384
True
vernal equinox
300
What did the church of Alexandria place on March 25?
5a36f7b995360f001af1b385
True
spring equinox
12
What did the Church of Rome place on 21 March
5a36f7b995360f001af1b386
True
Because the spring equinox was tied to the date of Easter, the Roman Catholic Church considered the seasonal drift in the date of Easter undesirable. The Church of Alexandria celebrated Easter on the Sunday after the 14th day of the moon (computed using the Metonic cycle) that falls on or after the vernal equinox, which they placed on 21 March. However, the Church of Rome still regarded 25 March as the equinox (until 342) and used a different cycle to compute the day of the moon. In the Alexandrian system, since the 14th day of the Easter moon could fall at earliest on 21 March its first day could fall no earlier than 8 March and no later than 5 April. This meant that Easter varied between 22 March and 25 April. In Rome, Easter was not allowed to fall later than 21 April, that being the day of the Parilia or birthday of Rome and a pagan festival.The first day of the Easter moon could fall no earlier than 5 March and no later than 2 April.
Who was the architect of the Gregorian calendar?
570b2c16ec8fbc190045b8ae
Christopher Clavius
50
False
What did the architects of the calendar notice about the astronomical tables?
570b2c16ec8fbc190045b8af
discrepancies
278
False
Whose solution to the discrepancies of the tables would have been agreeable to astronomers?
570b2c16ec8fbc190045b8b0
Petrus Pitatus
370
False
When did Pitatus offer his solution to the leap year problem?
570b2c16ec8fbc190045b8b1
1560
398
False
What is the theory about leap year called?
570b2c16ec8fbc190045b8b2
Gregorian leap year rule
297
False
Ancient tables
0
What provided the sons mean latitude?
5a36fbd195360f001af1b39d
True
Christopher Clavius
50
Who noticed that the tables agreed on the time the sun passed the vernal equinox?
5a36fbd195360f001af1b39e
True
Petrus Pitatus
370
Who suggested ninety-seven leap years in 400 years during the fifteenth century
5a36fbd195360f001af1b39f
True
Pitatus of Verona
377
Who solution to discrepancies in the tables was not agreeable to astronomers?
5a36fbd195360f001af1b3a0
True
Gregorian calendar,
92
What calendar did Pitatus create?
5a36fbd195360f001af1b3a1
True
Ancient tables provided the sun's mean longitude. Christopher Clavius, the architect of the Gregorian calendar, noted that the tables agreed neither on the time when the sun passed through the vernal equinox nor on the length of the mean tropical year. Tycho Brahe also noticed discrepancies. The Gregorian leap year rule (97 leap years in 400 years) was put forward by Petrus Pitatus of Verona in 1560. He noted that it is consistent with the tropical year of the Alfonsine tables and with the mean tropical year of Copernicus (De revolutionibus) and Reinhold (Prutenic tables). The three mean tropical years in Babylonian sexagesimals as the excess over 365 days (the way they would have been extracted from the tables of mean longitude) were 14,33,9,57 (Alphonsine), 14,33,11,12 (Copernicus) and 14,33,9,24 (Reinhold). All values are the same to two places (14:33) and this is also the mean length of the Gregorian year. Thus Pitatus' solution would have commended itself to the astronomers.
What designation was added to British dates to differentiate them from countries not using the new calendar?
570b2dd76b8089140040f7d4
"Old Style" (OS) and "New Style"
0
False
When was the Calendar act enacted?
570b2dd76b8089140040f7d5
1750
203
False
With what did the Calendar Act align the British calendar?
570b2dd76b8089140040f7d6
Gregorian calendar
286
False
What did the use of Old Style and New Style cause?
570b2dd76b8089140040f7d7
confusion
320
False
What law did the British make to cause the use of the Gregorian calendar?
570b2dd76b8089140040f7d8
Calendar Act of 1750
187
False
did not immediately change
147
Why are old-style new style not using the British Empire?
5a37143595360f001af1b3eb
True
altered the start of the year, and also aligned the British calendar with the Gregorian calendar,
208
What did the calendar after 1752 to clarify the meaning of old-style new style?
5a37143595360f001af1b3ec
True
Gregorian calendar
286
What did the calendar act aligned with the British calendar?
5a37143595360f001af1b3ed
True
that the start of the Julian year has been adjusted to start on 1 January
377
What this OS indicate January 1 is?
5a37143595360f001af1b3ee
True
"Old Style" (OS) and "New Style" (NS) are sometimes added to dates to identify which system is used in the British Empire and other countries that did not immediately change. Because the Calendar Act of 1750 altered the start of the year, and also aligned the British calendar with the Gregorian calendar, there is some confusion as to what these terms mean. They can indicate that the start of the Julian year has been adjusted to start on 1 January (NS) even though contemporary documents use a different start of year (OS); or to indicate that a date conforms to the Julian calendar (OS), formerly in use in many countries, rather than the Gregorian calendar (NS).
The Gregorian calendar is an improvement over what other calendar?
570b2f5e6b8089140040f7e8
Julian
62
False
How many days must be skipped to align the calendar with mean solar days in a year?
570b2f5e6b8089140040f7e9
three Julian leap days
90
False
What is the approximate error for every 3,300 years?
570b2f5e6b8089140040f7ea
one day
231
False
What is the error rate of the vernal equinox per every 7,700 years?
570b2f5e6b8089140040f7eb
1 day
455
False
What was the error rate in the Julian calendar?
570b2f5e6b8089140040f7ec
1 day in 128 years
640
False
skipping three Julian leap days in every 400 years,
81
How does Julian calendar improve the approximations made by the Gregorian calendar?
5a37191595360f001af1b407
True
3,300 years
243
How many years does it take for the Julian approximation to have an error of one day?
5a37191595360f001af1b408
True
1 day
640
In the Julia system what is the error rate for the vernal equinox first 7700 years?
5a37191595360f001af1b409
True
400 years,
122
The Julian system skips three leap days and how many years?
5a37191595360f001af1b40a
True
The Gregorian calendar improves the approximation made by the Julian calendar by skipping three Julian leap days in every 400 years, giving an average year of 365.2425 mean solar days long. This approximation has an error of about one day per 3,300 years with respect to the mean tropical year. However, because of the precession of the equinoxes, the error with respect to the vernal equinox (which occurs, on average, 365.24237 days apart near 2000) is 1 day every 7,700 years, assuming a constant time interval between vernal equinoxes, which is not true. By any criterion, the Gregorian calendar is substantially more accurate than the 1 day in 128 years error of the Julian calendar (average year 365.25 days).
Xbox_360
What Microsoft executive was in charge of 360 development?
570b1d3d6b8089140040f71e
J Allard
227
False
What manufacturer was enlisted to design the 360's graphics processor?
570b1d3d6b8089140040f71f
ATI
456
False
Where did Peter Moor work before being recruited to help on the 360?
570b1d3d6b8089140040f720
Sega of America
401
False
Original 360 Alpha dev kits used what existing system's hardware?
570b1d3d6b8089140040f721
Apple's Power Mac G5
667
False
What CPU did the 360 use?
570b1d3d6b8089140040f722
IBM's Xenon processor
833
False
Bellevue, Washington
295
Where is the Microsoft headquarters?
5a70ba658abb0b001a6760ff
True
J Allard
227
Who replaced Peter Moore as the president of Sega?
5a70ba658abb0b001a676100
True
David Shippy and Mickie Phipps
1007
What were the names of the IBM employees that hid their work?
5a70ba658abb0b001a676101
True
400
277
How many ATI developers worked on the graphic processing unit?
5a70ba658abb0b001a676102
True
Power Mac G5
675
What Apple hardware did Alpha kits use after the launch of the Xbox 360?
5a70ba658abb0b001a676103
True
Known during development as Xbox Next, Xenon, Xbox 2, Xbox FS or NextBox, the Xbox 360 was conceived in early 2003. In February 2003, planning for the Xenon software platform began, and was headed by Microsoft's Vice President J Allard. That month, Microsoft held an event for 400 developers in Bellevue, Washington to recruit support for the system. Also that month, Peter Moore, former president of Sega of America, joined Microsoft. On August 12, 2003, ATI signed on to produce the graphic processing unit for the new console, a deal which was publicly announced two days later. Before the launch of the Xbox 360, several Alpha development kits were spotted using Apple's Power Mac G5 hardware. This was because the system's PowerPC 970 processor running the same PowerPC architecture that the Xbox 360 would eventually run under IBM's Xenon processor. The cores of the Xenon processor were developed using a slightly modified version of the PlayStation 3's Cell Processor PPE architecture. According to David Shippy and Mickie Phipps, the IBM employees were "hiding" their work from Sony and Toshiba, IBM's partners in developing the Cell Processor. Jeff Minter created the music visualization program Neon which is included with the Xbox 360.
The Xbox 360 Pro included what size hard drive storage?
570b1e376b8089140040f728
20 GB
111
False
What was the official name of the lower-priced 360 SKU at launch?
570b1e376b8089140040f729
Xbox 360 Core
174
False
The Xbox 360 Elite eventually launched at what price point?
570b1e376b8089140040f72a
US$479
372
False
The 360 Pro's original storage was replaced by a hard drive of what size in 2008?
570b1e376b8089140040f72b
60 GB
460
False
What did Microsoft name the SKU that replaced the 360 Core?
570b1e376b8089140040f72c
Xbox 360 Arcade
421
False
20 GB Pro or Premium
111
What was the Xbox 360 Core package unofficially known as?
5a70ba5a8abb0b001a6760e1
True
US$479.
372
What was the Media Remote priced at in USD?
5a70ba5a8abb0b001a6760e2
True
US$299
200
How much was the Xbox 360 Arcade?
5a70ba5a8abb0b001a6760e3
True
October 2007
441
When was the Core package launched?
5a70ba5a8abb0b001a6760e4
True
Xbox 360 Core
385
What replaced the Arcade package?
5a70ba5a8abb0b001a6760e5
True
At launch, the Xbox 360 was available in two configurations: the "Xbox 360" package (unofficially known as the 20 GB Pro or Premium), priced at US$399 or GB£279.99, and the "Xbox 360 Core", priced at US$299 and GB£209.99. The original shipment of the Xbox 360 version included a cut-down version of the Media Remote as a promotion. The Elite package was launched later at US$479. The "Xbox 360 Core" was replaced by the "Xbox 360 Arcade" in October 2007 and a 60 GB version of the Xbox 360 Pro was released on August 1, 2008. The Pro package was discontinued and marked down to US$249 on August 28, 2009 to be sold until stock ran out, while the Elite was also marked down in price to US$299.
How many titles did the 360 have at launch in North America?
570b1ef16b8089140040f73c
14 games
27
False
What title was the console's best seller in 2005?
570b1ef16b8089140040f73d
Call of Duty 2
113
False
How many copies did Halo 3 sell?
570b1ef16b8089140040f73e
8 million copies
501
False
Halo 3 was released in what year?
570b1ef16b8089140040f73f
2007
476
False
Other than Call of Duty 2, how many games sold at least 1 million copies the first year of the 360?
570b1ef16b8089140040f740
Five
157
False
Call of Duty 2
113
What game was released in North America but not Europe?
5a70c0a48abb0b001a676163
True
2005
107
What year was Saints Row the best-selling game?
5a70c0a48abb0b001a676164
True
8 million
501
How many copies did Ghost REcon Advanced Warfighter sell in 2007?
5a70c0a48abb0b001a676165
True
2007
476
When did Gears of War overtake Halo 3?
5a70c0a48abb0b001a676166
True
Five
157
How many games sold over one million copies in 2007?
5a70c0a48abb0b001a676167
True
The Xbox 360 launched with 14 games in North America and 13 in Europe. The console's best-selling game for 2005, Call of Duty 2, sold over a million copies. Five other games sold over a million copies in the console's first year on the market: Ghost Recon Advanced Warfighter, The Elder Scrolls IV: Oblivion, Dead or Alive 4, Saints Row, and Gears of War. Gears of War would become the best-selling game on the console with 3 million copies in 2006, before being surpassed in 2007 by Halo 3 with over 8 million copies.
What 3 video formats did the 360 support natively at launch?
570b20036b8089140040f750
Windows Media Video (WMV) format (including high-definition and PlaysForSure videos), as well as H.264 and MPEG-4
32
False
Support for what video format was added in 2007?
570b20036b8089140040f751
MPEG-4 ASP
222
False
How are music player controls accessed by 360 users?
570b20036b8089140040f752
the Xbox 360 Guide button
438
False
What is one feature of 360 photo slide shows?
570b20036b8089140040f753
transition effects
343
False
MPEG-4 ASP
222
What did the 2007 update remove support for?
5a70c3328abb0b001a676181
True
December 2007
157
When was the visual synthesizer added?
5a70c3328abb0b001a676182
True
high-definition and PlaysForSure
76
Which type of WMV videos do not work on the Xbox 360?
5a70c3328abb0b001a676183
True
the Xbox 360 Guide button
438
How do gamers play videos while playing games?
5a70c3328abb0b001a676184
True
The Xbox 360 supports videos in Windows Media Video (WMV) format (including high-definition and PlaysForSure videos), as well as H.264 and MPEG-4 media. The December 2007 dashboard update added support for the playback of MPEG-4 ASP format videos. The console can also display pictures and perform slideshows of photo collections with various transition effects, and supports audio playback, with music player controls accessible through the Xbox 360 Guide button. Users may play back their own music while playing games or using the dashboard, and can play music with an interactive visual synthesizer.
What was the name of the non-subscription Xbox online gaming service?
570b212d6b8089140040f75e
Xbox Live Silver
181
False
What was the "color" name given to the premium version of Xbox Live?
570b212d6b8089140040f75f
Gold
310
False
What key feature is not supported by the free version of Live?
570b212d6b8089140040f760
multiplayer gaming
570
False
Which popular gaming titles have their own online service outside Xbox Live?
570b212d6b8089140040f761
EA Sports games
742
False
Voice support came online with what feature addition?
570b212d6b8089140040f762
Xbox Live Vision
863
False
Xbox Live Silver
181
What was Xbox Live Free renamed as?
5a70cb448abb0b001a67619d
True
Gold
310
What color is associated with Xbox Live Arcade?
5a70cb448abb0b001a67619e
True
24 hours
94
How long was voice support down after its launch?
5a70cb448abb0b001a67619f
True
Viva Piñata
670
What is an example of a game that does not support multiplayer online?
5a70cb448abb0b001a6761a0
True
EA Sports
742
What game with its own subscription service cannot be played using Live Free?
5a70cb448abb0b001a6761a1
True
When the Xbox 360 was released, Microsoft's online gaming service Xbox Live was shut down for 24 hours and underwent a major upgrade, adding a basic non-subscription service called Xbox Live Silver (later renamed Xbox Live Free) to its already established premium subscription-based service (which was renamed Gold). Xbox Live Free is included with all SKUs of the console. It allows users to create a user profile, join on message boards, and access Microsoft's Xbox Live Arcade and Marketplace and talk to other members. A Live Free account does not generally support multiplayer gaming; however, some games that have rather limited online functions already, (such as Viva Piñata) or games that feature their own subscription service (e.g. EA Sports games) can be played with a Free account. Xbox Live also supports voice the latter a feature possible with the Xbox Live Vision.
What is the name of the 360's online service?
570b2212ec8fbc190045b84a
Xbox Live
41
False
What is the name of the feature that allows users to download games from Live?
570b2212ec8fbc190045b84b
Xbox Live Arcade
302
False
What can people owning both a PC and 360 do?
570b2212ec8fbc190045b84c
stream media
591
False
What is the name of the 360's motion sensing camera peripheral?
570b2212ec8fbc190045b84d
the Kinect
725
False
The 360's multimedia capabilities transformed it from a game console to what?
570b2212ec8fbc190045b84e
a hub for living-room computing entertainment
908
False
Xbox Live
41
What was the name of the orginal Xbox's streaming service?
5a70ba5f8abb0b001a6760eb
True
Xbox Live
232
What service only offered subscription services?
5a70ba5f8abb0b001a6760ec
True
Xbox 360
566
What do PCs use to stream media?
5a70ba5f8abb0b001a6760ed
True
Kinect
729
What is the name of the additional hard drive storage?
5a70ba5f8abb0b001a6760ee
True
Xbox Live Arcade
302
What is the name of the feature that allows Live users to play game demos?
5a70ba5f8abb0b001a6760ef
True
The Xbox 360 features an online service, Xbox Live, which was expanded from its previous iteration on the original Xbox and received regular updates during the console's lifetime. Available in free and subscription-based varieties, Xbox Live allows users to: play games online; download games (through Xbox Live Arcade) and game demos; purchase and stream music, television programs, and films through the Xbox Music and Xbox Video portals; and access third-party content services through media streaming applications. In addition to online multimedia features, the Xbox 360 allows users to stream media from local PCs. Several peripherals have been released, including wireless controllers, expanded hard drive storage, and the Kinect motion sensing camera. The release of these additional services and peripherals helped the Xbox brand grow from gaming-only to encompassing all multimedia, turning it into a hub for living-room computing entertainment.
What was the software attach rate in the US for the 360 by March of 2008?
570b23406b8089140040f772
7.5 games per console in the US
322
False
What are two prominent 360 exclusive franchises?
570b23406b8089140040f773
the Halo franchise and Gears of War
652
False
Why were early multi-platform games considered superior on the 360?
570b23406b8089140040f774
the difficulties of programming for the PS3
1101
False
The 360 earned 38 nominations and 12 wins from what organization in 2007?
570b23406b8089140040f775
Game Critics Awards
151
False
Microsoft hoped to have how many titles available for the 360 by the end of 2008?
570b23406b8089140040f776
over 1,000
536
False
1,000
541
How many games were available for the Xbox in 2007?
5a70ba738abb0b001a676131
True
38
197
How many nominations did the PS3 receive?
5a70ba738abb0b001a676132
True
12
216
How many awards did the Wii win?
5a70ba738abb0b001a676133
True
3.8
410
How many games did the average person in Europe have for the PS3?
5a70ba738abb0b001a676134
True
Devil May Cry, Ace Combat, Virtua Fighter, Grand Theft Auto IV, Final Fantasy XIII, Tekken 6, Metal Gear Solid : Rising, and L.A. Noire
815
What PS3 exclusives launched in 2006 that the the Xbox 360 did not have access to?
5a70ba738abb0b001a676135
True
The Xbox 360's advantage over its competitors was due to the release of high profile titles from both first party and third party developers. The 2007 Game Critics Awards honored the platform with 38 nominations and 12 wins – more than any other platform. By March 2008, the Xbox 360 had reached a software attach rate of 7.5 games per console in the US; the rate was 7.0 in Europe, while its competitors were 3.8 (PS3) and 3.5 (Wii), according to Microsoft. At the 2008 Game Developers Conference, Microsoft announced that it expected over 1,000 games available for Xbox 360 by the end of the year. As well as enjoying exclusives such as additions to the Halo franchise and Gears of War, the Xbox 360 has managed to gain a simultaneous release of titles that were initially planned to be PS3 exclusives, including Devil May Cry, Ace Combat, Virtua Fighter, Grand Theft Auto IV, Final Fantasy XIII, Tekken 6, Metal Gear Solid : Rising, and L.A. Noire. In addition, Xbox 360 versions of cross-platform games were generally considered superior to their PS3 counterparts in 2006 and 2007, due in part to the difficulties of programming for the PS3.
What hardware defect code plagued the 360?
570b24296b8089140040f77c
"General Hardware Failure" error
161
False
What is the flashing indicator of a general hardware error known as?
570b24296b8089140040f77d
Red Ring of Death
393
False
How did Microsoft react to general hardware error problems?
570b24296b8089140040f77e
Microsoft extended the Xbox 360's manufacturer's warranty to three years
42
False
What other error code was eventually covered by this warranty extension?
570b24296b8089140040f77f
E74 error code
491
False
Where did users see the flashing light error codes display on their 360s?
570b24296b8089140040f780
the ring around the power button
312
False
three quadrants of the ring around the power button flashing red
293
How was the E74 error recognized?
5a70bbe88abb0b001a67614f
True
three
293
How many quadrants lit up with the E74 error?
5a70bbe88abb0b001a676150
True
Red Ring of Death
393
What is another name for the E74 error?
5a70bbe88abb0b001a676151
True
three years
103
By how many years was the warranty extended in 2009?
5a70bbe88abb0b001a676152
True
April 2009
416
When was the General Hardware Failure first discovered?
5a70bbe88abb0b001a676153
True
To aid customers with defective consoles, Microsoft extended the Xbox 360's manufacturer's warranty to three years for hardware failure problems that generate a "General Hardware Failure" error report. A "General Hardware Failure" is recognized on all models released before the Xbox 360 S by three quadrants of the ring around the power button flashing red. This error is often known as the "Red Ring of Death". In April 2009 the warranty was extended to also cover failures related to the E74 error code. The warranty extension is not granted for any other types of failures that do not generate these specific error codes.
What online source called the 360 the 6th greatest console of all time in 2009?
570b2526ec8fbc190045b868
IGN
9
False
TechRadar honored the 360 by calling it what?
570b2526ec8fbc190045b869
most influential
217
False
What 360 peripheral was the fastest selling consumer electronic device in history?
570b2526ec8fbc190045b86a
Kinect
574
False
According to PC Magazine, the 360 created the prototype for what?
570b2526ec8fbc190045b86b
online gaming
413
False
What magazine ranked the 360 as the second best console of the 1993-2013 period?
570b2526ec8fbc190045b86c
Edge
744
False
TechRadar
197
Who declared Kinect as the most influential console?
5a70ba688abb0b001a676109
True
Edge
744
Who ranked the PS3 as the second best console between 1993-2013?
5a70ba688abb0b001a67610a
True
Killzone
959
What did IGN compare Halo to?
5a70ba688abb0b001a67610b
True
Edge
744
Who claimed the importance of the Xbox 360 was its exclusives?
5a70ba688abb0b001a67610c
True
25
101
How many consoles did Edge compare?
5a70ba688abb0b001a67610d
True
In 2009, IGN named the Xbox 360 the sixth-greatest video game console of all time, out of a field of 25. Although not the best-selling console of the seventh-generation, the Xbox 360 was deemed by TechRadar to be the most influential, by emphasizing digital media distribution and online gaming through Xbox Live, and by popularizing game achievement awards. PC Magazine considered the Xbox 360 the prototype for online gaming as it "proved that online gaming communities could thrive in the console space". Five years after the Xbox 360's original debut, the well-received Kinect motion capture camera was released, which set the record of being the fastest selling consumer electronic device in history, and extended the life of the console. Edge ranked Xbox 360 the second-best console of the 1993–2013 period, stating "It had its own social network, cross-game chat, new indie games every week, and the best version of just about every multiformat game...Killzone is no Halo and nowadays Gran Turismo is no Forza, but it's not about the exclusives—there's nothing to trump Naughty Dog's PS3 output, after all. Rather, it's about the choices Microsoft made back in the original Xbox's lifetime. The PC-like architecture meant those early EA Sports titles ran at 60fps compared to only 30 on PS3, Xbox Live meant every dedicated player had an existing friends list, and Halo meant Microsoft had the killer next-generation exclusive. And when developers demo games on PC now they do it with a 360 pad—another industry benchmark, and a critical one."
Why was the 360 considered a market success for Microsoft?
570b260c6b8089140040f790
it strengthened Microsoft as a major force in the console market
155
False
What problem hurt Nintendo's Wii console?
570b260c6b8089140040f791
collapse of third-party software support in its later years
345
False
The Playstation 3 originally struggled for market share for what reasons?
570b260c6b8089140040f792
due to being too expensive and initially lacking quality titles
538
False
What is the successor to the 360 called?
570b260c6b8089140040f793
Xbox One
932
False
Which console sold the most units in the seventh generation era?
570b260c6b8089140040f794
Nintendo Wii
279
False
Xbox 360
4
What was the best selling console of the sixth gen?
5a70ba718abb0b001a676127
True
third-party software support
357
What feature of the Xbox 360 collapsed?
5a70ba718abb0b001a676128
True
2012
493
When did the PlayStation 3 debut?
5a70ba718abb0b001a676129
True
too expensive and initially lacking quality titles
551
What features caused Wii U to struggle?
5a70ba718abb0b001a67612a
True
PlayStation 3
702
What PlayStation put pressure on the Xbox One?
5a70ba718abb0b001a67612b
True
The Xbox 360 sold much better than its predecessor, and although not the best-selling console of the seventh-generation, it is regarded as a success since it strengthened Microsoft as a major force in the console market at the expense of well-established rivals. The inexpensive Nintendo Wii did sell the most console units but eventually saw a collapse of third-party software support in its later years, and it has been viewed by some as a fad since the succeeding Wii U had a poor debut in 2012. The PlayStation 3 struggled for a time due to being too expensive and initially lacking quality titles, making it far less dominant than its predecessor, the PlayStation 2, and it took until late in the PlayStation 3's lifespan for its sales and game titles to reach parity with the Xbox 360. TechRadar proclaimed that "Xbox 360 passes the baton as the king of the hill – a position that puts all the more pressure on its successor, Xbox One".
What was the original user interface for the 360 called?
570b26c7ec8fbc190045b886
Xbox 360 Dashboard
57
False
Who designed this user interface?
570b26c7ec8fbc190045b887
AKQA and Audiobrain
168
False
The simple dashboard could be accessed by pressing what controller button?
570b26c7ec8fbc190045b888
the Xbox Guide button on the gamepad
498
False
How many tabs were on the 360 dashboard interface?
570b26c7ec8fbc190045b889
five
110
False
The tabs on the user interface were called what?
570b26c7ec8fbc190045b88a
Blades
116
False
four
134
How many blades did the simplified version on the guide have?
5a70c2358abb0b001a676177
True
AKQA and Audiobrain
168
Who designed Xbox Live messaging?
5a70c2358abb0b001a676178
True
the user's gamercard, Xbox Live messages and friends list
567
What were the five Blades on the main dashboard?
5a70c2358abb0b001a676179
True
Blades
116
What was the stylized name for the gamercard called?
5a70c2358abb0b001a67617a
True
the Xbox 360 Dashboard
53
What could not be launched if the console had a disc in it?
5a70c2358abb0b001a67617b
True
The Xbox 360's original graphical user interface was the Xbox 360 Dashboard; a tabbed interface that featured five "Blades" (formerly four blades), and was designed by AKQA and Audiobrain. It could be launched automatically when the console booted without a disc in it, or when the disc tray was ejected, but the user had the option to select what the console does if a game is in the tray on start up, or if inserted when already on. A simplified version of it was also accessible at any time via the Xbox Guide button on the gamepad. This simplified version showed the user's gamercard, Xbox Live messages and friends list. It also allowed for personal and music settings, in addition to voice or video chats, or returning to the Xbox Dashboard from the game.
What was a classic title originally offered by the Xbox Live Arcade?
570b27b4ec8fbc190045b890
Ms. Pac-Man
185
False
What was a new, original title originally available from Arcade?
570b27b4ec8fbc190045b891
Assault Heroes
246
False
What date did the Xbox Live Arcade launch on?
570b27b4ec8fbc190045b892
November 3, 2004
449
False
When was Arcade Live relaunched with 360 support?
570b27b4ec8fbc190045b893
November 22, 2005
647
False
What is the name of the online virtual arcade that launched in 2010?
570b27b4ec8fbc190045b894
Game Room
1019
False
US$5
516
How much did the game Zuma cost?
5a70d3ef8abb0b001a6761bb
True
Castlevania: Symphony
353
What Playstation game was included in 2010?
5a70d3ef8abb0b001a6761bc
True
Geometry Wars, Street Fighter II' Hyper Fighting, and Uno
892
What games were released as part of the Game Room?
5a70d3ef8abb0b001a6761bd
True
$15
524
How much was Castlevania: Symphony sold for?
5a70d3ef8abb0b001a6761be
True
November 22, 2005
647
When was Xbox Live Arcade decommissioned?
5a70d3ef8abb0b001a6761bf
True
Xbox Live Arcade is an online service operated by Microsoft that is used to distribute downloadable video games to Xbox and Xbox 360 owners. In addition to classic arcade games such as Ms. Pac-Man, the service offers some new original games like Assault Heroes. The Xbox Live Arcade also features games from other consoles, such as the PlayStation game Castlevania: Symphony of the Night and PC games such as Zuma. The service was first launched on November 3, 2004, using a DVD to load, and offered games for about US$5 to $15. Items are purchased using Microsoft Points, a proprietary currency used to reduce credit card transaction charges. On November 22, 2005, Xbox Live Arcade was re-launched with the release of the Xbox 360, in which it was now integrated with the Xbox 360's dashboard. The games are generally aimed toward more casual gamers; examples of the more popular titles are Geometry Wars, Street Fighter II' Hyper Fighting, and Uno. On March 24, 2010, Microsoft introduced the Game Room to Xbox Live. Game Room is a gaming service for Xbox 360 and Microsoft Windows that lets players compete in classic arcade and console games in a virtual arcade.
At what conventions did Microsoft announce IPTV support through the 360?
570b28f1ec8fbc190045b89a
Consumer Electronics Shows
28
False
Which Microsoft executive announced IPTV as "soon" in 2007?
570b28f1ec8fbc190045b89b
Bill Gates
185
False
Who was Microsoft's president of Entertainment & Devices in 2008?
570b28f1ec8fbc190045b89c
Robbie Bach
392
False
What UK company did Microsoft partner with to bring IPTV to the 360?
570b28f1ec8fbc190045b89d
BT
433
False
What Microsoft executive announced the launch of version 2.0 of Mediaroom?
570b28f1ec8fbc190045b89e
Steve Ballmer
802
False
Robbie Bach
392
Who was the president of Microsoft in 2009?
5a70ca678abb0b001a676193
True
Steve Ballmer
802
Who is the CEO of BT?
5a70ca678abb0b001a676194
True
the United Kingdom
439
Where is the Entertainment & Devices branch located?
5a70ca678abb0b001a676195
True
2010
729
When were the DVR features made available?
5a70ca678abb0b001a676196
True
January 2010
935
When did IPTV launch beyond its initial beta testers?
5a70ca678abb0b001a676197
True
At the 2007, 2008, and 2009 Consumer Electronics Shows, Microsoft had announced that IPTV services would soon be made available to use through the Xbox 360. In 2007, Microsoft chairman Bill Gates stated that IPTV on Xbox 360 was expected to be available to consumers by the holiday season, using the Microsoft TV IPTV Edition platform. In 2008, Gates and president of Entertainment & Devices Robbie Bach announced a partnership with BT in the United Kingdom, in which the BT Vision advanced TV service, using the newer Microsoft Mediaroom IPTV platform, would be accessible via Xbox 360, planned for the middle of the year. BT Vision's DVR-based features would not be available on Xbox 360 due to limited hard drive capacity. In 2010, while announcing version 2.0 of Microsoft Mediaroom, Microsoft CEO Steve Ballmer mentioned that AT&T's U-verse IPTV service would enable Xbox 360s to be used as set-top boxes later in the year. As of January 2010, IPTV on Xbox 360 has yet to be deployed beyond limited trials.
What XBox Live service allows users to buy games and downloadable content?
570b29d26b8089140040f7ae
Xbox Live Marketplace
4
False
Which levels of Xbox Live membership may access the Marketplace?
570b29d26b8089140040f7af
Free and Gold members
354
False
What hardware is required to use the Marketplace?
570b29d26b8089140040f7b0
A hard drive or memory unit
390
False
What virtual currency is used to make Marketplace purchases?
570b29d26b8089140040f7b1
Microsoft Points
756
False
Prepaid cards for Microsoft Points are available in what denominations?
570b29d26b8089140040f7b2
1,600 and 4,000
719
False
Gold
363
The Marketplace is only available to which level of Xbox Live?
5a70d27d8abb0b001a6761b1
True
Microsoft Points
554
How are hard drives or memory units purchased?
5a70d27d8abb0b001a6761b2
True
1,600 and 4,000-point
719
What is the average price of a game?
5a70d27d8abb0b001a6761b3
True
seventy
1015
What percentage of users use prepaid cards?
5a70d27d8abb0b001a6761b4
True
themes
247
Microsoft points can be used to buy what for the dashboard?
5a70d27d8abb0b001a6761b5
True
The Xbox Live Marketplace is a virtual market designed for the console that allows Xbox Live users to download purchased or promotional content. The service offers movie and game trailers, game demos, Xbox Live Arcade games and Xbox 360 Dashboard themes as well as add-on game content (items, costumes, levels etc.). These features are available to both Free and Gold members on Xbox Live. A hard drive or memory unit is required to store products purchased from Xbox Live Marketplace. In order to download priced content, users are required to purchase Microsoft Points for use as scrip; though some products (such as trailers and demos) are free to download. Microsoft Points can be obtained through prepaid cards in 1,600 and 4,000-point denominations. Microsoft Points can also be purchased through Xbox Live with a credit card in 500, 1,000, 2,000 and 5,000-point denominations. Users are able to view items available to download on the service through a PC via the Xbox Live Marketplace website. An estimated seventy percent of Xbox Live users have downloaded items from the Marketplace.
What was the initial launch window of the 360 console?
570b2aab6b8089140040f7c2
2005–2006
26
False
What was one adverse condition that characterized early versions of the console?
570b2aab6b8089140040f7c3
high failure rate
186
False
What were the designations of the two redesigned 360 models and when did they come out?
570b2aab6b8089140040f7c4
Xbox 360 S in 2010, and the Xbox 360 E in 2013
374
False
As of June 2014, how many 360s across all SKUs have been sold worldwide?
570b2aab6b8089140040f7c5
84 million
439
False
When did the Xbox One launch?
570b2aab6b8089140040f7c6
November 22, 2013
887
False
2010
388
When did the new extension of the warranty expire?
5a70ba628abb0b001a6760f5
True
84 million
439
How many Xboxes were sold from 2005-2006?
5a70ba628abb0b001a6760f6
True
TechRadar
706
What company ranked the Xbox One as the most influential console of its generation?
5a70ba628abb0b001a6760f7
True
the sixth-highest-selling video game console in history
504
What historical honor does the Xbox One hold?
5a70ba628abb0b001a6760f8
True
the Xbox 360 S in 2010, and the Xbox 360 E
370
What were the names of the redesigned models of the Xbox One?
5a70ba628abb0b001a6760f9
True
Launched worldwide across 2005–2006, the Xbox 360 was initially in short supply in many regions, including North America and Europe. The earliest versions of the console suffered from a high failure rate, indicated by the so-called "Red Ring of Death", necessitating an extension of the device's warranty period. Microsoft released two redesigned models of the console: the Xbox 360 S in 2010, and the Xbox 360 E in 2013. As of June 2014, 84 million Xbox 360 consoles have been sold worldwide, making it the sixth-highest-selling video game console in history, and the highest-selling console made by an American company. Although not the best-selling console of its generation, the Xbox 360 was deemed by TechRadar to be the most influential through its emphasis on digital media distribution and multiplayer gaming on Xbox Live. The Xbox 360's successor, the Xbox One, was released on November 22, 2013. Microsoft has stated they plan to support the Xbox 360 until 2016. The Xbox One is also backwards compatible with the Xbox 360.
What sales figure was the 360 the first console of its generation to surpass?
570b2bacec8fbc190045b8a4
10 million
149
False
When did the 360 surrender its lead in total sales?
570b2bacec8fbc190045b8a5
June 2008
264
False
What console eventually passed the 360 in total sales?
570b2bacec8fbc190045b8a6
the Wii
300
False
During what 32-month later period was the 360 the best selling console?
570b2bacec8fbc190045b8a7
January 2011 and October 2013
396
False
When did the Xbox achieve 10 million units sold?
570b2bacec8fbc190045b8a8
May 2008
3
False
10 million
37
How many consoles did Wii sell in 2008?
5a70ba6b8abb0b001a676113
True
32
500
For how many months was the Wii the best-selling console?
5a70ba6b8abb0b001a676114
True
Microsoft
12
Who announced the Wii in 2008?
5a70ba6b8abb0b001a676115
True
870,000
342
How many units did the Xbox 360 sell in Canada in 2013?
5a70ba6b8abb0b001a676116
True
Xbox 360
193
What gaming console passed the Wii in 2008?
5a70ba6b8abb0b001a676117
True
In May 2008 Microsoft announced that 10 million Xbox 360s had been sold and that it was the "first current generation gaming console" to surpass the 10 million figure in the US. In the US, the Xbox 360 was the leader in current-generation home console sales until June 2008, when it was surpassed by the Wii. The Xbox 360 has sold a total of 870,000 units in Canada as of August 1, 2008. Between January 2011 and October 2013, the Xbox 360 was the best-selling console in the United States for these 32 consecutive months.
Besides online gaming and media distribution, what other feature made the 360 influential, according to TechRadar?
570b2c4e6b8089140040f7cc
game achievement feature
155
False
How many years after initial launch of the console was Kinect released?
570b2c4e6b8089140040f7cd
Five years
349
False
Besides it's features, what did Kinect do for the 360 in terms of sales?
570b2c4e6b8089140040f7ce
extended the life of the console
534
False
What is Kinect?
570b2c4e6b8089140040f7cf
motion capture camera
422
False
Five years after the Xbox 360's original debut
349
When was the Xbox 360 deemed the most influential gaming system?
5a70ba768abb0b001a67613b
True
Xbox 360
370
What console was the fastest selling in history?
5a70ba768abb0b001a67613c
True
TechRadar
0
Who considered the Kinect the most influential electronic device?
5a70ba768abb0b001a67613d
True
digital media distribution
90
What did Xbox 360 deemphasize?
5a70ba768abb0b001a67613e
True
gaming-only
242
The Xbox brand turned away from multimedia to what?
5a70ba768abb0b001a67613f
True
TechRadar deemed the Xbox 360 as the most influential game system through its emphasis of digital media distribution, Xbox Live online gaming service, and game achievement feature. During the console's lifetime, the Xbox brand has grown from gaming-only to encompassing all multimedia, turning it into a hub for "living-room computing environment". Five years after the Xbox 360's original debut, the well-received Kinect motion capture camera was released, which became the fastest selling consumer electronic device in history, and extended the life of the console.
How did Microsoft describe Kinect?
570b2ce2ec8fbc190045b8b8
a "controller-free gaming and entertainment experience"
10
False
When was Kinect first announced?
570b2ce2ec8fbc190045b8b9
June 1, 2009
110
False
At what event was Kinect announced?
570b2ce2ec8fbc190045b8ba
Electronic Entertainment Expo
130
False
What was the secret code name for Kinect while in development?
570b2ce2ec8fbc190045b8bb
Project Natal
181
False
How can users utilize the Kinect to interact with their 360 consoles?
570b2ce2ec8fbc190045b8bc
by using gestures, spoken commands and presented objects and images
300
False
Kinect
0
What was the codename for Project Natal?
5a70ba798abb0b001a676145
True
Microsoft CEO
586
What is Robbie Bach's position?
5a70ba798abb0b001a676146
True
Robbie Bach and Microsoft CEO Steve Ballmer
570
Whose speech first introduced the Kinect?
5a70ba798abb0b001a676147
True
a USB and mains power adapter
501
What prevents older models from working with the Kinect?
5a70ba798abb0b001a676148
True
Electronic Entertainment Expo
130
Where was the CES 2010 keynote speech?
5a70ba798abb0b001a676149
True
Kinect is a "controller-free gaming and entertainment experience" for the Xbox 360. It was first announced on June 1, 2009 at the Electronic Entertainment Expo, under the codename, Project Natal. The add-on peripheral enables users to control and interact with the Xbox 360 without a game controller by using gestures, spoken commands and presented objects and images. The Kinect accessory is compatible with all Xbox 360 models, connecting to new models via a custom connector, and to older ones via a USB and mains power adapter. During their CES 2010 keynote speech, Robbie Bach and Microsoft CEO Steve Ballmer went on to say that Kinect will be released during the holiday period (November–January) and it will work with every 360 console. Its name and release date of 2010-11-04 were officially announced on 2010-06-13, prior to Microsoft's press conference at E3 2010.
How did Microsoft modify the architecture of the 360 to reduce failure rates?
570b2dfcec8fbc190045b8c2
a reduction in the number, size, and placement of components
127
False
What was the root cause of hardware failures with the 360?
570b2dfcec8fbc190045b8c3
heat
320
False
When the newer 360 S models have their power buttons flash red, it means?
570b2dfcec8fbc190045b8c4
system overheating
587
False
How does the 360 S then react to an overheating situation?
570b2dfcec8fbc190045b8c5
imminent system shutdown until the system has cooled
835
False
How did Microsoft attempt to deal with potential heat-related expansion with GPU and CPU components?
570b2dfcec8fbc190045b8c6
dabs of epoxy on the corners and edges
205
False
GPU heatsink
349
The second what was removed because of heating issues?
5a70c0118abb0b001a676159
True
first and third quadrant
692
Which two quadrants light up on the Xbox 360 S to indicate overheating?
5a70c0118abb0b001a67615a
True
green and red
945
The third and first quadrant turn what two colors?
5a70c0118abb0b001a67615b
True
the corners and edges of the CPU and GPU
222
Where was extra epoxy placed on the models before the S?
5a70c0118abb0b001a67615c
True
the three-year extended coverage for "General Hardware Failures"
484
What warranty does the 360 S include?
5a70c0118abb0b001a67615d
True
Since these problems surfaced, Microsoft has attempted to modify the console to improve its reliability. Modifications include a reduction in the number, size, and placement of components, the addition of dabs of epoxy on the corners and edges of the CPU and GPU as glue to prevent movement relative to the board during heat expansion, and a second GPU heatsink to dissipate more heat. With the release of the redesigned Xbox 360 S, the warranty for the newer models does not include the three-year extended coverage for "General Hardware Failures". The newer Xbox 360 S model indicates system overheating when the console's power button begins to flash red, unlike previous models where the first and third quadrant of the ring would light up red around the power button if overheating occurred. The system will then warn the user of imminent system shutdown until the system has cooled, whereas a flashing power button that alternates between green and red is an indication of a "General Hardware Failure" unlike older models where three of the quadrants would light up red.
What was the name of the 360's video store service?
570b2ec76b8089140040f7de
Xbox Video Marketplace
45
False
When was this video service launched?
570b2ec76b8089140040f7df
November 22, 2006
159
False
When do movies rented through this marketplace expire?
570b2ec76b8089140040f7e0
14 days after download or at the end of the first 24 hours after the movie has begun playing
552
False
What resolution are videos sold through this service?
570b2ec76b8089140040f7e1
720p
851
False
What sound standard is supported for the marketplace videos?
570b2ec76b8089140040f7e2
5.1 surround audio
792
False
November 22, 2006
159
When was Video Marketplace released outside of the US?
5a70dbc78abb0b001a6761cf
True
14
552
After how many days do TV shows expire?
5a70dbc78abb0b001a6761d0
True
14 days after download or at the end of the first 24 hours
552
How long do users have to stream a film?
5a70dbc78abb0b001a6761d1
True
unlimited
741
How many consoles can movies be transferred to?
5a70dbc78abb0b001a6761d2
True
6.8 Mbit/s
875
What is the bitrate for the streamed short clips?
5a70dbc78abb0b001a6761d3
True
On November 6, 2006, Microsoft announced the Xbox Video Marketplace, an exclusive video store accessible through the console. Launched in the United States on November 22, 2006, the first anniversary of the Xbox 360's launch, the service allows users in the United States to download high-definition and standard-definition television shows and movies onto an Xbox 360 console for viewing. With the exception of short clips, content is not currently available for streaming, and must be downloaded. Movies are also available for rental. They expire in 14 days after download or at the end of the first 24 hours after the movie has begun playing, whichever comes first. Television episodes can be purchased to own, and are transferable to an unlimited number of consoles. Downloaded files use 5.1 surround audio and are encoded using VC-1 for video at 720p, with a bitrate of 6.8 Mbit/s. Television content is offered from MTV, VH1, Comedy Central, Turner Broadcasting, and CBS; and movie content is Warner Bros., Paramount, and Disney, along with other publishers.
How did the original Xbox fare in Japan in general?
570b2f83ec8fbc190045b8cc
sold poorly
24
False
How many original Xboxes were sold in Japan between 2002 and 2005?
570b2f83ec8fbc190045b8cd
2 million units
59
False
Between 2005 and 2011, how many 360 consoles were sold in Japan?
570b2f83ec8fbc190045b8ce
1.5 million units
193
False
What two console manufacturers dominate the Japanese market?
570b2f83ec8fbc190045b8cf
Sony and Nintendo
429
False
Lackluster sales caused Japanese retailers to take what action with the 360?
570b2f83ec8fbc190045b8d0
scaling down and in some cases discontinuing sales
469
False
Japan
39
Where did the Xbox sell exceptionally well?
5a70ba6d8abb0b001a67611d
True
1.5 million
193
How many of the original Xbox sell between 2005 and 2011?
5a70ba6d8abb0b001a67611e
True
2 million
59
How many units did Sony sell in 202 through 2005?
5a70ba6d8abb0b001a67611f
True
Xbox 360
148
What console, released in 2005, did Sony create?
5a70ba6d8abb0b001a676120
True
August 2011
256
When did Edge report Sony sales were falling?
5a70ba6d8abb0b001a676121
True
While the original Xbox sold poorly in Japan, selling just 2 million units while it was on the market (between 2002 and 2005),[citation needed] the Xbox 360 sold even more poorly, selling only 1.5 million units from 2005 to 2011. Edge magazine reported in August 2011 that initially lackluster and subsequently falling sales in Japan, where Microsoft had been unable to make serious inroads into the dominance of domestic rivals Sony and Nintendo, had led to retailers scaling down and in some cases discontinuing sales of the Xbox 360 completely.
How many major hardware revisions has the 360 had?
570b30386b8089140040f7f2
Two
0
False
By what other name is the 360 S model known?
570b30386b8089140040f7f3
"Slim"
121
False
Which SKUs did the 360 S replace?
570b30386b8089140040f7f4
the original "Elite" and "Arcade" models
138
False
What component of the 360 S prevents overheating issues prevalent in prior versions?
570b30386b8089140040f7f5
a redesigned motherboard
277
False
What video input format is not supported by the 360 E?
570b30386b8089140040f7f6
S/PDIF
696
False
smaller, streamlined
210
What was the appearance of the Arcade model?
5a70ba578abb0b001a6760d7
True
angular
250
What kind of case did the Elite have?
5a70ba578abb0b001a6760d8
True
one fewer
654
How many USB ports did the S model have?
5a70ba578abb0b001a6760d9
True
S/PDIF
696
Which video format does S not support?
5a70ba578abb0b001a6760da
True
two-tone
525
What was the color of the S model case?
5a70ba578abb0b001a6760db
True
Two major hardware revisions of the Xbox 360 have succeeded the original models; the Xbox 360 S (also referred to as the "Slim") replaced the original "Elite" and "Arcade" models in 2010. The S model carries a smaller, streamlined appearance with an angular case, and utilizes a redesigned motherboard designed to alleviate the hardware and overheating issues experienced by prior models. It also includes a proprietary port for use with the Kinect sensor. The Xbox 360 E, a further streamlined variation of the 360 S with a two-tone rectangular case inspired by Xbox One, was released in 2013. In addition to its revised aesthetics, Xbox 360 E also has one fewer USB port and no longer supports S/PDIF.
How many launch titles did the 360 have in Japan?
570b3121ec8fbc190045b8d6
Six
0
False
What was the name of the Japanese developer that strongly supported the 360?
570b3121ec8fbc190045b8d7
Mistwalker
395
False
What was Mistwalker's first title for the 360?
570b3121ec8fbc190045b8d8
Blue Dragon
485
False
Blue Dragon surpassed this sales figure in Japan?
570b3121ec8fbc190045b8d9
200,000 units
658
False
What was Mistwalker's second 360 title to be released?
570b3121ec8fbc190045b8da
Lost Odyssey
768
False
Hironobu Sakaguchi
440
Which developer created Chromehounds?
5a70c1378abb0b001a67616d
True
over 10,000
580
How many game pre-orders did the console have in its first year?
5a70c1378abb0b001a67616e
True
200,000
658
How many copies of the Phantasy Star Universe sold?
5a70c1378abb0b001a67616f
True
three
626
How many of the original six games available in Japan surpassed 200,000?
5a70c1378abb0b001a676170
True
2006
514
When was Mistwalker's second game released?
5a70c1378abb0b001a676171
True
Six games were initially available in Japan, while eagerly anticipated titles such as Dead or Alive 4 and Enchanted Arms were released in the weeks following the console's launch. Games targeted specifically for the region, such as Chromehounds, Ninety-Nine Nights, and Phantasy Star Universe, were also released in the console's first year. Microsoft also had the support of Japanese developer Mistwalker, founded by Final Fantasy creator Hironobu Sakaguchi. Mistwalker's first game, Blue Dragon, was released in 2006 and had a limited-edition bundle which sold out quickly with over 10,000 pre-orders. Blue Dragon is one of three Xbox 360 games to surpass 200,000 units in Japan, along with Tales of Vesperia and Star Ocean: The Last Hope. Mistwalker's second game, Lost Odyssey also sold over 100,000 copies.
What PC operating system is required to stream content to a 360?
570b31feec8fbc190045b8e0
Windows XP with Service pack 2 or higher
218
False
What modified AV protocol does the 360 utilize?
570b31feec8fbc190045b8e1
UPnP
355
False
What codecs are supported for 360 streaming from uShare?
570b31feec8fbc190045b8e2
MPEG-2, MPEG-4, WMV
638
False
What video formats are supported for UPnP streaming?
570b31feec8fbc190045b8e3
WMV, MOV, TS
682
False
streaming
292
A Service pack 2 or higher prevents what?
5a70c9588abb0b001a676189
True
UPnP
390
What type of server does a Windows XP have?
5a70c9588abb0b001a67618a
True
the GeeXboX project
427
What is MythTV part of?
5a70c9588abb0b001a67618b
True
WMV, MOV, TS
682
Which formats does UPnP not support?
5a70c9588abb0b001a67618c
True
2
247
The service pack number needs to be lower than what to work with Xbox 360?
5a70c9588abb0b001a67618d
True
Music, photos and videos can be played from standard USB mass storage devices, Xbox 360 proprietary storage devices (such as memory cards or Xbox 360 hard drives), and servers or computers with Windows Media Center or Windows XP with Service pack 2 or higher within the local-area network in streaming mode. As the Xbox 360 uses a modified version of the UPnP AV protocol, some alternative UPnP servers such as uShare (part of the GeeXboX project) and MythTV can also stream media to the Xbox 360, allowing for similar functionality from non-Windows servers. This is possible with video files up to HD-resolution and with several codecs (MPEG-2, MPEG-4, WMV) and container formats (WMV, MOV, TS).
What extra features do Xbox Live Gold members get?
570b32c46b8089140040f7fc
integrated online game playing capabilities outside of third-party subscriptions
63
False
What information does Microsoft allow users to retain when transitioning Live subscriptions?
570b32c46b8089140040f7fd
profile information, friends list, and games history
216
False
What does a user need to do to transfer a Live account to the new system?
570b32c46b8089140040f7fe
users need to link a Windows Live ID to their gamertag on Xbox.com
370
False
What is the annual cost of a Live Gold membership in USD?
570b32c46b8089140040f7ff
$59.99
738
False
How many users are subscribed to Xbox Live?
570b32c46b8089140040f800
30 million
828
False
passport account information and the last four digits of their credit card
552
What do users provide to get a Windows Live ID?
5a70d1458abb0b001a6761a7
True
over 30 million
823
How many users does the free version of Xbox live have?
5a70d1458abb0b001a6761a8
True
integrated online game playing capabilities outside of third-party subscriptions
63
What does the Free version have that Gold does not?
5a70d1458abb0b001a6761a9
True
profile information, friends list, and games history
216
What did Microsoft force previous subscribers to change?
5a70d1458abb0b001a6761aa
True
US$59.99
736
how much does a Windows Live ID cost in USD?
5a70d1458abb0b001a6761ab
True
Xbox Live Gold includes the same features as Free and includes integrated online game playing capabilities outside of third-party subscriptions. Microsoft has allowed previous Xbox Live subscribers to maintain their profile information, friends list, and games history when they make the transition to Xbox Live Gold. To transfer an Xbox Live account to the new system, users need to link a Windows Live ID to their gamertag on Xbox.com. When users add an Xbox Live enabled profile to their console, they are required to provide the console with their passport account information and the last four digits of their credit card number, which is used for verification purposes and billing. An Xbox Live Gold account has an annual cost of US$59.99, C$59.99, NZ$90.00, GB£39.99, or €59.99. As of January 5, 2011, Xbox Live has over 30 million subscribers.
What hardware device was merged with the video marketplace?
570b33686b8089140040f806
the Zune
59
False
Where and when was the Zune HD marketplace announced?
570b33686b8089140040f807
E3 2009
532
False
The Zune video marketplace was merged with what Live feature?
570b33686b8089140040f808
Xbox Live Video Store
254
False
What was the new name of this Live video store?
570b33686b8089140040f809
Zune Marketplace
303
False
How many countries were slated for the Zune Marketplace launch?
570b33686b8089140040f80a
7
360
False
7
360
How many countries was E3 held in?
5a70dcdb8abb0b001a6761d9
True
May
3
What month was E3?
5a70dcdb8abb0b001a6761da
True
Zune Video Marketplace and the Xbox Live Video Store
223
The Xbox Live Video Store is the merger of what two marketplaces?
5a70dcdb8abb0b001a6761db
True
Zune HD
63
Merging the Zune and Xbox Live stores affected the release of what product?
5a70dcdb8abb0b001a6761dc
True
the fall of 2009
75
When was the Zune HD set to be decommissioned?
5a70dcdb8abb0b001a6761dd
True
On May 26, 2009, Microsoft announced the future release of the Zune HD (in the fall of 2009), the next addition to the Zune product range. This is of an impact on the Xbox Live Video Store as it was also announced that the Zune Video Marketplace and the Xbox Live Video Store will be merged to form the Zune Marketplace, which will be arriving on Xbox Live in 7 countries initially, the United Kingdom, the United States, France, Italy, Germany, Ireland and Spain. Further details were released at the Microsoft press conference at E3 2009.
Military_history_of_the_United_States
When did wars between Britain and France in North America start?
570b38466b8089140040f810
1689
13
False
What was the most important North American conflict between France and Britain called?
570b38466b8089140040f811
Queen Anne's War
164
False
What French colony did Great Britain conquer in Queen Anne's War?
570b38466b8089140040f812
Acadia
227
False
When was the final French and Indian War fought?
570b38466b8089140040f813
1754–63
272
False
What future American founding father fought in the French and Indian War?
570b38466b8089140040f814
George Washington
434
False
1689
13
When did wars between China and France in North America start?
5ad16f07645df0001a2d1b22
True
Queen Anne's War,
164
What was the most important South American conflict between France and Britain called?
5ad16f07645df0001a2d1b23
True
Acadia
227
What French colony did Great Britain conquer outside of Queen Anne's War?
5ad16f07645df0001a2d1b24
True
1754–63
272
When was the first French and Indian War fought?
5ad16f07645df0001a2d1b25
True
George Washington
434
What future Canadian founding father fought in the French and Indian War?
5ad16f07645df0001a2d1b26
True
Beginning in 1689, the colonies became involved in a series of wars between Great Britain and France for control of North America, the most important of which were Queen Anne's War, in which the British conquered French colony Acadia, and the final French and Indian War (1754–63) when Britain was victorious over all the French colonies in North America. This final war was to give thousands of colonists, including Virginia colonel George Washington, military experience which they put to use during the American Revolutionary War.
What was the biggest war the US got involved with in the early 19th century?
570b3980ec8fbc190045b8e8
the War of 1812
90
False
What conflict caused Britain to blockade trade?
570b3980ec8fbc190045b8e9
a major war with Napoleon's France
130
False
What uprising did Britain support in North America?
570b3980ec8fbc190045b8ea
Indian insurrection
423
False
What country was the first the US ever declared war upon?
570b3980ec8fbc190045b8eb
the United Kingdom
595
False
What was the initial US strategy in the War of 1812?
570b3980ec8fbc190045b8ec
invading British Canada, hoping to use captured territory as a bargaining chip
757
False
War of 1812
94
What was the smallest war the US got involved with in the early 19th century?
5ad17132645df0001a2d1bac
True
major war with Napoleon's France
132
What conflict caused France to blockade trade?
5ad17132645df0001a2d1bad
True
Indian insurrection
423
What uprising did France support in North America?
5ad17132645df0001a2d1bae
True
United Kingdom
599
What country was the first the UK ever declared war upon?
5ad17132645df0001a2d1baf
True
invading British Canada, hoping to use captured territory as a bargaining chip
757
What was the initial Canadian strategy in the War of 1812?
5ad17132645df0001a2d1bb0
True
By far the largest military action in which the United States engaged during this era was the War of 1812. With Britain locked in a major war with Napoleon's France, its policy was to block American shipments to France. The United States sought to remain neutral while pursuing overseas trade. Britain cut the trade and impressed seamen on American ships into the Royal Navy, despite intense protests. Britain supported an Indian insurrection in the American Midwest, with the goal of creating an Indian state there that would block American expansion. The United States finally declared war on the United Kingdom in 1812, the first time the U.S. had officially declared war. Not hopeful of defeating the Royal Navy, the U.S. attacked the British Empire by invading British Canada, hoping to use captured territory as a bargaining chip. The invasion of Canada was a debacle, though concurrent wars with Native Americans on the western front (Tecumseh's War and the Creek War) were more successful. After defeating Napoleon in 1814, Britain sent large veteran armies to invade New York, raid Washington and capture the key control of the Mississippi River at New Orleans. The New York invasion was a fiasco after the much larger British army retreated to Canada. The raiders succeeded in the burning of Washington on 25 August 1814, but were repulsed in their Chesapeake Bay Campaign at the Battle of Baltimore and the British commander killed. The major invasion in Louisiana was stopped by a one-sided military battle that killed the top three British generals and thousands of soldiers. The winners were the commanding general of the Battle of New Orleans, Major General Andrew Jackson, who became president and the Americans who basked in a victory over a much more powerful nation. The peace treaty proved successful, and the U.S. and Britain never again went to war. The losers were the Indians, who never gained the independent territory in the Midwest promised by Britain.
Who was the Secretary of War who modernized the US military at the beginning of the 20th century?
570b3a9eec8fbc190045b8f2
Elihu Root
17
False
Which military academy did Root help grow?
570b3a9eec8fbc190045b8f3
West Point
248
False
What military advisement committee was established by Root?
570b3a9eec8fbc190045b8f4
General Staff
317
False
What officer rotation doctrine was developed under Root's guidance?
570b3a9eec8fbc190045b8f5
the principle of rotating officers from staff to line
454
False
What then-US protectorate did Root write a government charter for?
570b3a9eec8fbc190045b8f6
the Philippines
707
False
Elihu Root
17
Who was the Secretary of War who modernized the UK military at the beginning of the 20th century?
5ad172dd645df0001a2d1c14
True
West Point
248
Which military academy did Poot help grow?
5ad172dd645df0001a2d1c15
True
General Staff
317
What military advisement committee was established by Poot?
5ad172dd645df0001a2d1c16
True
principle of rotating officers from staff to line
458
What officer rotation doctrine was undeveloped under Root's guidance?
5ad172dd645df0001a2d1c17
True
Philippines
711
What then-UK protectorate did Root write a government charter for?
5ad172dd645df0001a2d1c18
True
Secretary of War Elihu Root (1899–1904) led the modernization of the Army. His goal of a uniformed chief of staff as general manager and a European-type general staff for planning was stymied by General Nelson A. Miles but did succeed in enlarging West Point and establishing the U.S. Army War College as well as the General Staff. Root changed the procedures for promotions and organized schools for the special branches of the service. He also devised the principle of rotating officers from staff to line. Root was concerned about the Army's role in governing the new territories acquired in 1898 and worked out the procedures for turning Cuba over to the Cubans, and wrote the charter of government for the Philippines.
When World War I started, what was the official US position?
570b3b4dec8fbc190045b8fc
neutral
46
False
When did World War I commence?
570b3b4dec8fbc190045b8fd
August 1914
84
False
What German war policy precipitated US involvement in WWI?
570b3b4dec8fbc190045b8fe
submarine attacks
285
False
What year did the US enter World War I?
570b3b4dec8fbc190045b8ff
1917
260
False
The United States built its army prior to joining the war in what way?
570b3b4dec8fbc190045b900
peacetime draft
572
False
neutral
46
When World War I started, what was the official UK position?
5ad1737c645df0001a2d1c42
True
August 1914
84
When did World War II commence?
5ad1737c645df0001a2d1c43
True
submarine attacks
285
What German war policy precipitated US involvement in WWII?
5ad1737c645df0001a2d1c44
True
1917
260
What year did the US enter World War II?
5ad1737c645df0001a2d1c45
True
peacetime draft
572
The UK built its army prior to joining the war in what way?
5ad1737c645df0001a2d1c46
True
The United States originally wished to remain neutral when World War I broke out in August 1914. However, it insisted on its right as a neutral party to immunity from German submarine attack, even though its ships carried food and raw materials to Britain. In 1917 the Germans resumed submarine attacks, knowing that it would lead to American entry. When the U.S declared war, the U.S. army was still small by European standards and mobilization would take a year. Meanwhile, the U.S. continued to provide supplies and money to Britain and France, and initiated the first peacetime draft. Industrial mobilization took longer than expected, so divisions were sent to Europe without equipment, relying instead on the British and French to supply them.
The Vietnam War was an element of what US diplomatic policy?
570b3c086b8089140040f81a
Containment
131
False
Communists were defeated in what country in 1972?
570b3c086b8089140040f81b
Indonesia
299
False
What term did critics of the Vietnam War use to describe it?
570b3c086b8089140040f81c
a "quagmire"
452
False
When did the draft end?
570b3c086b8089140040f81d
1973
720
False
Which president ended the draft?
570b3c086b8089140040f81e
1973
720
False
Containment
131
The Vietnam War was an element of what UK diplomatic policy?
5ad1763d645df0001a2d1d02
True
Indonesia
299
Communists were defeated in what country in 1977?
5ad1763d645df0001a2d1d03
True
quagmire
455
What term did critics of the Chinese War use to describe it?
5ad1763d645df0001a2d1d04
True
1973
720
When did the draft begin?
5ad1763d645df0001a2d1d05
True
President Nixon
692
Which president began the draft?
5ad1763d645df0001a2d1d06
True
Memories and lessons from the war are still a major factor in American politics. One side views the war as a necessary part of the Containment policy, which allowed the enemy to choose the time and place of warfare. Others note the U.S. made major strategic gains as the Communists were defeated in Indonesia, and by 1972 both Moscow and Beijing were competing for American support, at the expense of their allies in Hanoi. Critics see the conflict as a "quagmire"—an endless waste of American blood and treasure in a conflict that did not concern US interests. Fears of another quagmire have been major factors in foreign policy debates ever since. The draft became extremely unpopular, and President Nixon ended it in 1973, forcing the military (the Army especially) to rely entirely upon volunteers. That raised the issue of how well the professional military reflected overall American society and values; the soldiers typically took the position that their service represented the highest and best American values.
How many nations were against Iraq in the US-led coalition?
570b3d5fec8fbc190045b906
34
74
False
What precipitated the Persian Gulf War?
570b3d5fec8fbc190045b907
the Iraqi invasion of Kuwait
145
False
When did this precipitating event take place?
570b3d5fec8fbc190045b908
August 1990
177
False
When did hostilities in the Persian Gulf War begin?
570b3d5fec8fbc190045b909
January 1991
312
False
How many US veterans of the Persian Gulf War have been classed as permanently disabled?
570b3d5fec8fbc190045b90a
180,000
496
False
34
74
How many nations were against Iraq in the UK-led coalition?
5ad176a0645df0001a2d1d16
True
Iraqi invasion of Kuwait
149
What precipitated the American Gulf War?
5ad176a0645df0001a2d1d17
True
August 1990
177
When did this precipitating event end?
5ad176a0645df0001a2d1d18
True
January 1991
312
When did hostilities in the Chinese Gulf War begin?
5ad176a0645df0001a2d1d19
True
180,000
496
How many US veterans of the Chinese Gulf War have been classed as permanently disabled?
5ad176a0645df0001a2d1d1a
True
The Persian Gulf War was a conflict between Iraq and a coalition force of 34 nations led by the United States. The lead up to the war began with the Iraqi invasion of Kuwait in August 1990 which was met with immediate economic sanctions by the United Nations against Iraq. The coalition commenced hostilities in January 1991, resulting in a decisive victory for the U.S. led coalition forces, which drove Iraqi forces out of Kuwait with minimal coalition deaths. Despite the low death toll, over 180,000 US veterans would later be classified as "permanently disabled" according to the US Department of Veterans Affairs (see Gulf War Syndrome). The main battles were aerial and ground combat within Iraq, Kuwait and bordering areas of Saudi Arabia. Land combat did not expand outside of the immediate Iraq/Kuwait/Saudi border region, although the coalition bombed cities and strategic targets across Iraq, and Iraq fired missiles on Israeli and Saudi cities.
In what African country did US troops participate in peacekeeping operations?
570b3e296b8089140040f824
Somalia
55
False
What was the name of the Somalian warlord who directed massacres of peacekeeping troops?
570b3e296b8089140040f825
Mohamed Farrah Aidid
185
False
In what Somalian city did American troops become trapped?
570b3e296b8089140040f826
Mogadishu
288
False
How many US soldiers were killed in the battle of Mogadishu?
570b3e296b8089140040f827
Eighteen
384
False
What is the title of the book and movie about the Mogadishu uprising?
570b3e296b8089140040f828
Black Hawk Down
844
False
Somalia
55
In what African country did UK troops participate in peacekeeping operations?
5ad17818645df0001a2d1d66
True
Mohamed Farrah Aidid
185
What was the name of the Korean warlord who directed massacres of peacekeeping troops?
5ad17818645df0001a2d1d67
True
Mogadishu
373
In what Somalian city did African troops become trapped?
5ad17818645df0001a2d1d68
True
Eighteen
384
How many UK soldiers were killed in the battle of Mogadishu?
5ad17818645df0001a2d1d69
True
Black Hawk Down
844
What is the title of the song about the Mogadishu uprising?
5ad17818645df0001a2d1d6a
True
US troops participated in a UN peacekeeping mission in Somalia beginning in 1992. By 1993 the US troops were augmented with Rangers and special forces with the aim of capturing warlord Mohamed Farrah Aidid, whose forces had massacred peacekeepers from Pakistan. During a raid in downtown Mogadishu, US troops became trapped overnight by a general uprising in the Battle of Mogadishu. Eighteen American soldiers were killed, and a US television crew filmed graphic images of the body of one soldier being dragged through the streets by an angry mob. Somali guerrillas paid a staggering toll at an estimated 1,000–5,000 total casualties during the conflict. After much public disapproval, American forces were quickly withdrawn by President Bill Clinton. The incident profoundly affected US thinking about peacekeeping and intervention. The book Black Hawk Down was written about the battle, and was the basis for the later movie of the same name.
When did the US send troops to the Philippines to battle terrorists?
570b3f0fec8fbc190045b910
January 2002
3
False
Terrorists in the Philippines were linked to what larger terrorist organization?
570b3f0fec8fbc190045b911
al-Qaida
164
False
Where did anti-terrorist fighting take place?
570b3f0fec8fbc190045b912
the Sulu Archipelago
280
False
How many troops did the US initially send to the Philippines?
570b3f0fec8fbc190045b913
1,200
41
False
What was the name of the Philippine terrorist group the US was sent to help combat?
570b3f0fec8fbc190045b914
Abu Sayyaf
182
False
January 2002
3
When did the UK send troops to the Philippines to battle terrorists?
5ad178b7645df0001a2d1d7a
True
al-Qaida
164
Terrorists in the Koreas were linked to what larger terrorist organization?
5ad178b7645df0001a2d1d7b
True
Sulu Archipelago
284
Where did terrorist fighting take place?
5ad178b7645df0001a2d1d7c
True
1,200
41
How many troops did the US initially send to the Koreas?
5ad178b7645df0001a2d1d7d
True
Abu Sayyaf
182
What was the name of the Philippine terrorist group the UK was sent to help combat?
5ad178b7645df0001a2d1d7e
True
In January 2002, the U.S. sent more than 1,200 troops (later raised to 2,000) to assist the Armed Forces of the Philippines in combating terrorist groups linked to al-Qaida, such as Abu Sayyaf, under Operation Enduring Freedom - Philippines. Operations have taken place mostly in the Sulu Archipelago, where terrorists and other groups are active. The majority of troops provide logistics. However, there are special forces troops that are training and assisting in combat operations against the terrorist groups.
What battle ended a British invasion from Canada in the Revolutionary War?
570b3fc26b8089140040f82e
Saratoga
312
False
When was the battle of Saratoga fought?
570b3fc26b8089140040f82f
1777
250
False
What Prussian expatriate helped train the Continental army?
570b3fc26b8089140040f830
General von Steuben
349
False
What two European countries entered the Revolutionary War against Britain?
570b3fc26b8089140040f831
France and Spain
488
False
What advantage did Britain lose when the European countries entered the war?
570b3fc26b8089140040f832
its naval advantage
576
False
Saratoga
312
What battle ended a British invasion from the US in the Revolutionary War?
5ad16f84645df0001a2d1b3e
True
1777
341
When was the battle of Sorotoga fought?
5ad16f84645df0001a2d1b3f
True
General von Steuben
349
What Prussian expatriate helped not train the Continental army?
5ad16f84645df0001a2d1b40
True
France and Spain
488
What two African countries entered the Revolutionary War against Britain?
5ad16f84645df0001a2d1b41
True
naval advantage
580
What advantage did Britain win when the European countries entered the war?
5ad16f84645df0001a2d1b42
True
The British, for their part, lacked both a unified command and a clear strategy for winning. With the use of the Royal Navy, the British were able to capture coastal cities, but control of the countryside eluded them. A British sortie from Canada in 1777 ended with the disastrous surrender of a British army at Saratoga. With the coming in 1777 of General von Steuben, the training and discipline along Prussian lines began, and the Continental Army began to evolve into a modern force. France and Spain then entered the war against Great Britain as Allies of the US, ending its naval advantage and escalating the conflict into a world war. The Netherlands later joined France, and the British were outnumbered on land and sea in a world war, as they had no major allies apart from Indian tribes.
What was the US policy when France declared war on England in 1793?
570b40946b8089140040f838
to remain neutral
90
False
What treaty with England conflicted with the United States' Treaty of Alliance with France?
570b40946b8089140040f839
the Jay Treaty
113
False
Where did US ships and French privateers fight between 1798 and 1800?
570b40946b8089140040f83a
the Caribbean
452
False
What US President negotiated a truce with France to end the undeclared war at sea?
570b40946b8089140040f83b
John Adams
588
False
When was the Treaty of Alliance with France signed?
570b40946b8089140040f83c
1778
236
False
remain neutral
93
What was the UK policy when France declared war on England in 1793?
5ad1708a645df0001a2d1b84
True
Jay Treaty
117
What treaty with Ireland conflicted with the United States' Treaty of Alliance with France?
5ad1708a645df0001a2d1b85
True
Caribbean
456
Where did UK ships and French privateers fight between 1798 and 1800?
5ad1708a645df0001a2d1b86
True
John Adams
588
What US President negotiated a truce with Ireland to end the undeclared war at sea?
5ad1708a645df0001a2d1b87
True
1778
236
When was the Treaty of Alliance with France rejected?
5ad1708a645df0001a2d1b88
True
When revolutionary France declared war on Great Britain in 1793, the United States sought to remain neutral, but the Jay Treaty, which was favorable to Great Britain, angered the French government, which viewed it as a violation of the 1778 Treaty of Alliance. French privateers began to seize U.S. vessels, which led to an undeclared "Quasi-War" between the two nations. Fought at sea from 1798 to 1800, the United States won a string of victories in the Caribbean. George Washington was called out of retirement to head a "provisional army" in case of invasion by France, but President John Adams managed to negotiate a truce, in which France agreed to terminate the prior alliance and cease its attacks.
What treaty ceded territory to the US extending west to the Mississippi River?
570b4156ec8fbc190045b91a
Treaty of Paris
7
False
What three major tribes occupied these formerly British territories?
570b4156ec8fbc190045b91b
Shawnee, Cherokee, Choctaw
182
False
When was the Battle of Wabash fought?
570b4156ec8fbc190045b91c
1791
563
False
What was the decisive battle in the Northwest territories against the native population there?
570b4156ec8fbc190045b91d
the Battle of Fallen Timbers
784
False
When was this deciding battle fought?
570b4156ec8fbc190045b91e
1794
816
False
Treaty of Paris
7
What treaty ceded territory to the UK extending west to the Mississippi River?
5ad17055645df0001a2d1b7a
True
Shawnee, Cherokee, Choctaw
182
What three major tribes occupied these formerly French territories?
5ad17055645df0001a2d1b7b
True
1791
563
When was the Battle of Washburn fought?
5ad17055645df0001a2d1b7c
True
Battle of Fallen Timbers
788
What was the decisive battle in the Southeast territories against the native population there?
5ad17055645df0001a2d1b7d
True
1794
816
When was this deciding battle postponed?
5ad17055645df0001a2d1b7e
True
In the Treaty of Paris after the Revolution, the British had ceded the lands between the Appalachian Mountains and the Mississippi River to the United States, without consulting the Shawnee, Cherokee, Choctaw and other smaller tribes who lived there. Because many of the tribes had fought as allies of the British, the United States compelled tribal leaders to sign away lands in postwar treaties, and began dividing these lands for settlement. This provoked a war in the Northwest Territory in which the U.S. forces performed poorly; the Battle of the Wabash in 1791 was the most severe defeat ever suffered by the United States at the hands of American Indians. President Washington dispatched a newly trained army to the region, which decisively defeated the Indian confederacy at the Battle of Fallen Timbers in 1794.
What dividing line separated slave states from free states?
570b421bec8fbc190045b924
the Mason–Dixon line
72
False
When was Lincoln elected?
570b421bec8fbc190045b925
1860
392
False
How did slave states react to Lincoln's election?
570b421bec8fbc190045b926
states in the South seceded from the United States
449
False
What was the first state to formally secede?
570b421bec8fbc190045b927
South Carolina
516
False
When did Confederate forces bombard Fort Sumter?
570b421bec8fbc190045b928
April 12, 1861
548
False
Mason–Dixon
76
What dividing line separated slave states from non-free states?
5ad17172645df0001a2d1bc8
True
1860
392
When was Lincoln kicked out?
5ad17172645df0001a2d1bc9
True
seceded from the United States
469
How did slave states react to Lincoln's death?
5ad17172645df0001a2d1bca
True
April 12, 1861
548
When did Confederate forces bombard Fort Pumter?
5ad17172645df0001a2d1bcb
True
Sectional tensions had long existed between the states located north of the Mason–Dixon line and those south of it, primarily centered on the "peculiar institution" of slavery and the ability of states to overrule the decisions of the national government. During the 1840s and 1850s, conflicts between the two sides became progressively more violent. After the election of Abraham Lincoln in 1860 (who southerners thought would work to end slavery) states in the South seceded from the United States, beginning with South Carolina in late 1860. On April 12, 1861, forces of the South (known as the Confederate States of America or simply the Confederacy) opened fire on Fort Sumter, whose garrison was loyal to the Union.
Where did the American army fight the Spanish in the Spanish American War?
570b431eec8fbc190045b92e
Cuba
360
False
The army in this war was primarily made up of what sort of units?
570b431eec8fbc190045b92f
volunteers and state militia
486
False
What colonies did Spain hand over to the US after the war?
570b431eec8fbc190045b930
Puerto Rico, Guam, and the Philippines
744
False
What island territory voluntarily joined the US as a colony in 1898?
570b431eec8fbc190045b931
Hawaii
830
False
What is the name of the naval base the US leased from a newly independent Cuba?
570b431eec8fbc190045b932
Guantánamo Bay Naval Base
971
False
Cuba
360
Where did the American army fight the Irish in the Spanish American War?
5ad17238645df0001a2d1bec
True
volunteers and state militia
486
The army in this war was not primarily made up of what sort of units?
5ad17238645df0001a2d1bed
True
Puerto Rico, Guam, and the Philippines
744
What colonies did Spain hand over to the UK after the war?
5ad17238645df0001a2d1bee
True
Hawaii
830
What island territory voluntarily joined the UK as a colony in 1898?
5ad17238645df0001a2d1bef
True
Guantánamo Bay Naval Base
971
What is the name of the naval base the UK leased from a newly independent Cuba?
5ad17238645df0001a2d1bf0
True
The Spanish–American War was a short decisive war marked by quick, overwhelming American victories at sea and on land against Spain. The Navy was well-prepared and won laurels, even as politicians tried (and failed) to have it redeployed to defend East Coast cities against potential threats from the feeble Spanish fleet. The Army performed well in combat in Cuba. However, it was too oriented to small posts in the West and not as well-prepared for an overseas conflict. It relied on volunteers and state militia units, which faced logistical, training and food problems in the staging areas in Florida. The United States freed Cuba (after an occupation by the U.S. Army). By the peace treaty Spain ceded to the United States its colonies of Puerto Rico, Guam, and the Philippines. The Navy set up coaling stations there and in Hawaii (which voluntarily joined the U.S. in 1898). The U.S. Navy now had a major forward presence across the Pacific and (with the lease of Guantánamo Bay Naval Base in Cuba) a major base in the Caribbean guarding the approaches to the Gulf Coast and the Panama Canal.
When was the Philippine-American War fought?
570b43ccec8fbc190045b938
1899–1902
29
False
Where did the US defeat occupying Spanish forces prior to the Philippine American War?
570b43ccec8fbc190045b939
Manila
243
False
Who led American forces in this war?
570b43ccec8fbc190045b93a
General Elwell Otis
324
False
How many troops did the US send to the Philippines?
570b43ccec8fbc190045b93b
100,000
268
False
Who was the rebel leader captured by US forces at the end of this war?
570b43ccec8fbc190045b93c
Emilio Aguinaldo
523
False
1899–1902
29
When was the Philippine-African War fought?
5ad17271645df0001a2d1bf6
True
Manila
243
Where did the US defeat occupying Irish forces prior to the Philippine American War?
5ad17271645df0001a2d1bf7
True
General Elwell Otis
324
Who led African forces in this war?
5ad17271645df0001a2d1bf8
True
100,000
268
How many troops did the UK send to the Philippines?
5ad17271645df0001a2d1bf9
True
Emilio Aguinaldo
523
Who was the rebel leader captured by UK forces at the end of this war?
5ad17271645df0001a2d1bfa
True
The Philippine–American War (1899–1902) was an armed conflict between a group of Filipino revolutionaries and the American forces following the ceding of the Philippines to the United States after the defeat of Spanish forces in the Battle of Manila. The Army sent in 100,000 soldiers (mostly from the National Guard) under General Elwell Otis. Defeated in the field and losing its capital in March 1899, the poorly armed and poorly led rebels broke into armed bands. The insurgency collapsed in March 1901 when the leader Emilio Aguinaldo was captured by General Frederick Funston and his Macabebe allies. Casualties included 1,037 Americans killed in action and 3,340 who died from disease; 20,000 rebels were killed.
How many battleships did the US Navy lose at Pearl Harbor?
570b44876b8089140040f842
eight
12
False
How many Americans were killed during the Pearl Harbor attack?
570b44876b8089140040f843
2,403
34
False
What term describes the overall US strategy in the Pacific in WWII?
570b44876b8089140040f844
island hopping
290
False
When did the Allies invade North Africa?
570b44876b8089140040f845
1942
671
False
Which two Japanese cities were hit with atomic bombs?
570b44876b8089140040f846
Hiroshima and Nagasaki
1106
False
eight
12
How many battleships did the UK Navy lose at Pearl Harbor?
5ad1747c645df0001a2d1c84
True
2,403
34
How many non-americans were killed during the Pearl Harbor attack?
5ad1747c645df0001a2d1c85
True
island hopping
290
What term describes the overall UK strategy in the Pacific in WWII?
5ad1747c645df0001a2d1c86
True
1942
671
When did the Allies invade South Africa?
5ad1747c645df0001a2d1c87
True
Hiroshima and Nagasaki
1106
Which two Chinese cities were hit with atomic bombs?
5ad1747c645df0001a2d1c88
True
The loss of eight battleships and 2,403 Americans at Pearl Harbor forced the U.S. to rely on its remaining aircraft carriers, which won a major victory over Japan at Midway just six months into the war, and on its growing submarine fleet. The Navy and Marine Corps followed this up with an island hopping campaign across the central and south Pacific in 1943–45, reaching the outskirts of Japan in the Battle of Okinawa. During 1942 and 1943, the U.S. deployed millions of men and thousands of planes and tanks to the UK, beginning with the strategic bombing of Nazi Germany and occupied Europe and leading up to the Allied invasions of occupied North Africa in November 1942, Sicily and Italy in 1943, France in 1944, and the invasion of Germany in 1945, parallel with the Soviet invasion from the east. That led to the surrender of Nazi Germany in May 1945. In the Pacific, the U.S. experienced much success in naval campaigns during 1944, but bloody battles at Iwo Jima and Okinawa in 1945 led the U.S. to look for a way to end the war with minimal loss of American lives. The U.S. used atomic bombs on Hiroshima and Nagasaki to destroy the Japanese war effort and to shock the Japanese leadership, which quickly caused the surrender of Japan.
What country supplied troops to North Korea during the Korean War?
570b4563ec8fbc190045b942
the People's Republic of China
511
False
What country supplied advisors, pilots, and war materiel to North Korea?
570b4563ec8fbc190045b943
the Soviet Union
579
False
What country was the principal ally of South Korea during the war?
570b4563ec8fbc190045b944
the United States
38
False
What organization did all combatants on both sides of the war belong to?
570b4563ec8fbc190045b945
United Nations
64
False
Which two countries were the primary fighters for territory in the Korean War?
570b4563ec8fbc190045b946
North and South Korea
279
False
People's Republic of China
181
What country supplied troops to South Korea during the Korean War?
5ad174fe645df0001a2d1ca2
True
Soviet Union
583
What country supplied advisors, pilots, and war materiel to South Korea?
5ad174fe645df0001a2d1ca3
True
United States
347
What country was the principal ally of North Korea during the war?
5ad174fe645df0001a2d1ca4
True
United Nations
464
What organization did all combatants on both sides of the war not belong to?
5ad174fe645df0001a2d1ca5
True
North and South Korea
279
Which two countries were the primary fighters for territory in the Japanese War?
5ad174fe645df0001a2d1ca6
True
The Korean War was a conflict between the United States and its United Nations allies and the communist powers under influence of the Soviet Union (also a UN member nation) and the People's Republic of China (which later also gained UN membership). The principal combatants were North and South Korea. Principal allies of South Korea included the United States, Canada, Australia, the United Kingdom, although many other nations sent troops under the aegis of the United Nations. Allies of North Korea included the People's Republic of China, which supplied military forces, and the Soviet Union, which supplied combat advisors and aircraft pilots, as well as arms, for the Chinese and North Korean troops.
When did North Korean forces initiate attacks on US and UN forces in the Korean war?
570b464a6b8089140040f84c
1950
95
False
What South Korean city did the US and ROK forces defend while building reinforcements?
570b464a6b8089140040f84d
Pusan
302
False
What type of attack was used on Inchon?
570b464a6b8089140040f84e
amphibious invasion
389
False
Chinese troops attacked the UN forces when they crossed what river?
570b464a6b8089140040f84f
the Yalu River
659
False
What general was fired for defying President Truman's containment strategy?
570b464a6b8089140040f850
Douglas MacArthur
214
False
1950
95
When did North Korean forces initiate attacks on US and UK forces in the Korean war?
5ad1753b645df0001a2d1cac
True
Pusan
302
What South Korean city did the US and Canadian forces defend while building reinforcements?
5ad1753b645df0001a2d1cad
True
amphibious invasion
389
What type of attack was used on Pinchon?
5ad1753b645df0001a2d1cae
True
Yalu River
663
Chinese troops attacked the UN forces when they crossed what ocean?
5ad1753b645df0001a2d1caf
True
MacArthur
937
What general was fired for defying President Trump's containment strategy?
5ad1753b645df0001a2d1cb0
True
The war started badly for the US and UN. North Korean forces struck massively in the summer of 1950 and nearly drove the outnumbered US and ROK defenders into the sea. However the United Nations intervened, naming Douglas MacArthur commander of its forces, and UN-US-ROK forces held a perimeter around Pusan, gaining time for reinforcement. MacArthur, in a bold but risky move, ordered an amphibious invasion well behind the front lines at Inchon, cutting off and routing the North Koreans and quickly crossing the 38th Parallel into North Korea. As UN forces continued to advance toward the Yalu River on the border with Communist China, the Chinese crossed the Yalu River in October and launched a series of surprise attacks that sent the UN forces reeling back across the 38th Parallel. Truman originally wanted a Rollback strategy to unify Korea; after the Chinese successes he settled for a Containment policy to split the country. MacArthur argued for rollback but was fired by President Harry Truman after disputes over the conduct of the war. Peace negotiations dragged on for two years until President Dwight D. Eisenhower threatened China with nuclear weapons; an armistice was quickly reached with the two Koreas remaining divided at the 38th parallel. North and South Korea are still today in a state of war, having never signed a peace treaty, and American forces remain stationed in South Korea as part of American foreign policy.
What acronym was given to South Vietnamese troops?
570b46f8ec8fbc190045b94c
RVN
104
False
What acronym was given to North Vietnamese army regulars?
570b46f8ec8fbc190045b94d
NVA
267
False
By what name were fighters of the National Liberation Front known?
570b46f8ec8fbc190045b94e
Viet Cong
349
False
The VC operated in what geographic area?
570b46f8ec8fbc190045b94f
South Vietnam
395
False
The NVA was aided by military and financial aid from what two countries?
570b46f8ec8fbc190045b950
Soviet Union and China
474
False
RVN
104
What acronym was given to North Vietnamese troops?
5ad175a4645df0001a2d1cd4
True
NVA
267
What acronym was given to North Korean army regulars?
5ad175a4645df0001a2d1cd5
True
Viet Cong
349
By what name were fighters of the National Liberation Back known?
5ad175a4645df0001a2d1cd6
True
South Vietnam
395
The VIC operated in what geographic area?
5ad175a4645df0001a2d1cd7
True
Soviet Union and China,
474
he NVA was aided by military and financial aid from what five countries?
5ad175a4645df0001a2d1cd8
True
Fighting on one side was a coalition of forces including the Republic of Vietnam (South Vietnam or the "RVN"), the United States, supplemented by South Korea, Thailand, Australia, New Zealand, and the Philippines. The allies fought against the North Vietnamese Army (NVA) as well as the National Liberation Front (NLF, also known as Viet communists Viet Cong), or "VC", a guerrilla force within South Vietnam. The NVA received substantial military and economic aid from the Soviet Union and China, turning Vietnam into a proxy war.
What two northern Vietnamese cities did the US avoid bombing at the outset of the war?
570b47b6ec8fbc190045b956
Hanoi and Haiphong
255
False
What was the major supply trail for the Northern Vietnamese forces?
570b47b6ec8fbc190045b957
the Ho Chi Minh Trail
335
False
What US commander's strategy caused a loss of public opinion in the US?
570b47b6ec8fbc190045b958
William Westmoreland
400
False
Who helped orchestrate bombing campaigns in the Vietnam War?
570b47b6ec8fbc190045b959
the White House
165
False
When did the US start bombing Hanoi?
570b47b6ec8fbc190045b95a
1972
214
False
Hanoi and Haiphong
255
What two northern Chinese cities did the US avoid bombing at the outset of the war?
5ad175e2645df0001a2d1cde
True
Ho Chi Minh Trail
339
What was the minor supply trail for the Northern Vietnamese forces?
5ad175e2645df0001a2d1cdf
True
William Westmoreland
400
What US commander's strategy caused a loss of public opinion in the UK?
5ad175e2645df0001a2d1ce0
True
the White House
165
Who helped orchestrate bombing campaigns in the Chinese War?
5ad175e2645df0001a2d1ce1
True
1972
214
When did the UK start bombing Hanoi?
5ad175e2645df0001a2d1ce2
True
The military history of the American side of the war involved different strategies over the years. The bombing campaigns of the Air Force were tightly controlled by the White House for political reasons, and until 1972 avoided the main Northern cities of Hanoi and Haiphong and concentrated on bombing jungle supply trails, especially the Ho Chi Minh Trail. The most controversial Army commander was William Westmoreland whose strategy involved systematic defeat of all enemy forces in the field, despite heavy American casualties that alienated public opinion back home.
When did fighting between Palestinians and the Lebanese begin?
570b48596b8089140040f856
1983
3
False
When did US marines land in Lebanon?
570b48596b8089140040f857
1982
247
False
When did a suicide bomber successfully attack the marine barracks in Lebanon?
570b48596b8089140040f858
October 23, 1983
293
False
How many marines were killed in the attack?
570b48596b8089140040f859
241
437
False
When did President Reagan withdraw marines from Lebanon?
570b48596b8089140040f85a
February 1984
735
False
1983
3
When did fighting between Palestinians and the Lebanese stop?
5ad1766e645df0001a2d1d0c
True
1982
247
When did UK marines land in Lebanon?
5ad1766e645df0001a2d1d0d
True
October 23, 1983
293
When did a suicide bomber successfully attack the marine barracks in China?
5ad1766e645df0001a2d1d0e
True
241
437
How many Africans were killed in the attack?
5ad1766e645df0001a2d1d0f
True
February 1984
735
When did President Bush withdraw marines from Lebanon?
5ad1766e645df0001a2d1d10
True
In 1983 fighting between Palestinian refugees and Lebanese factions reignited that nation's long-running civil war. A UN agreement brought an international force of peacekeepers to occupy Beirut and guarantee security. US Marines landed in August 1982 along with Italian and French forces. On October 23, 1983, a suicide bomber driving a truck filled with 6 tons of TNT crashed through a fence and destroyed the Marine barracks, killing 241 Marines; seconds later, a second bomber leveled a French barracks, killing 58. Subsequently the US Navy engaged in bombing of militia positions inside Lebanon. While US President Ronald Reagan was initially defiant, political pressure at home eventually forced the withdrawal of the Marines in February 1984.
What is the main reason the US-led coalition won a decisive victory in the Persian Gulf War?
570b495aec8fbc190045b960
US technological superiority
189
False
What faults in the Iraqi forces led to their rapid defeat?
570b495aec8fbc190045b961
poor strategic and tactical leadership and low morale
313
False
US airstrikes on Iraqi air defenses and command and control facilities began when?
570b495aec8fbc190045b962
on 17 January 1991
540
False
When did US ground forces attack Iraqi positions?
570b495aec8fbc190045b963
24 February
1539
False
Who ordered Iraqi forces to hold their ground despite air bombardments?
570b495aec8fbc190045b964
Iraqi President Saddam Hussein
1462
False
US technological superiority
189
What is the main reason the UK-led coalition won a decisive victory in the Persian Gulf War?
5ad1776f645df0001a2d1d48
True
poor strategic and tactical leadership and low morale
313
What faults in the Iranian forces led to their rapid defeat?
5ad1776f645df0001a2d1d49
True
17 January 1991
543
US airstrikes on Iranian air defenses and command and control facilities began when?
5ad1776f645df0001a2d1d4a
True
24 February
1539
When did UK ground forces attack Iraqi positions?
5ad1776f645df0001a2d1d4b
True
Iraqi President Saddam Hussein
1462
Who ordered Iranian forces to hold their ground despite air bombardments?
5ad1776f645df0001a2d1d4c
True
However, the battle was one-sided almost from the beginning. The reasons for this are the subject of continuing study by military strategists and academics. There is general agreement that US technological superiority was a crucial factor but the speed and scale of the Iraqi collapse has also been attributed to poor strategic and tactical leadership and low morale among Iraqi troops, which resulted from a history of incompetent leadership. After devastating initial strikes against Iraqi air defenses and command and control facilities on 17 January 1991, coalition forces achieved total air superiority almost immediately. The Iraqi air force was destroyed within a few days, with some planes fleeing to Iran, where they were interned for the duration of the conflict. The overwhelming technological advantages of the US, such as stealth aircraft and infrared sights, quickly turned the air war into a "turkey shoot". The heat signature of any tank which started its engine made an easy target. Air defense radars were quickly destroyed by radar-seeking missiles fired from wild weasel aircraft. Grainy video clips, shot from the nose cameras of missiles as they aimed at impossibly small targets, were a staple of US news coverage and revealed to the world a new kind of war, compared by some to a video game. Over 6 weeks of relentless pounding by planes and helicopters, the Iraqi army was almost completely beaten but did not retreat, under orders from Iraqi President Saddam Hussein, and by the time the ground forces invaded on 24 February, many Iraqi troops quickly surrendered to forces much smaller than their own; in one instance, Iraqi forces attempted to surrender to a television camera crew that was advancing with coalition forces.
How long did ground combat operations last in the Persian Gulf War?
570b4b85ec8fbc190045b96a
100 hours
11
False
Who ordered the cease-fire that effectively ended hostilities?
570b4b85ec8fbc190045b96b
US President George H. W. Bush
113
False
What did some US Politicians think Coalition forces should have been allowed to have done?
570b4b85ec8fbc190045b96c
pressed on to Baghdad and removed Hussein from power
323
False
Coalition nations did what with regards to invading Northern Iraq to precipitate the cease fire?
570b4b85ec8fbc190045b96d
refused to participate
609
False
Why did Coalition nations fear the removal of Hussein from power?
570b4b85ec8fbc190045b96e
it would create a power vacuum and destabilize the region
661
False
100 hours
11
How long did ground combat operations last in the Kuwait Gulf War?
5ad177db645df0001a2d1d52
True
US President George H. W. Bush
113
Who ordered the cease-fire that effectively began hostilities?
5ad177db645df0001a2d1d53
True
pressed on to Baghdad and removed Hussein from power
323
What did some US Politicians think Coalition forces shouldn't have been allowed to have done?
5ad177db645df0001a2d1d54
True
refused to participate
609
Coalition nations did what with regards to invading Southern Iraq to precipitate the cease fire?
5ad177db645df0001a2d1d55
True
create a power vacuum and destabilize the region
670
Why did Coalition nations fear the removal of Bush from power?
5ad177db645df0001a2d1d56
True
After just 100 hours of ground combat, and with all of Kuwait and much of southern Iraq under coalition control, US President George H. W. Bush ordered a cease-fire and negotiations began resulting in an agreement for cessation of hostilities. Some US politicians were disappointed by this move, believing Bush should have pressed on to Baghdad and removed Hussein from power; there is little doubt that coalition forces could have accomplished this if they had desired. Still, the political ramifications of removing Hussein would have broadened the scope of the conflict greatly, and many coalition nations refused to participate in such an action, believing it would create a power vacuum and destabilize the region.
What term is given to the attempt by the US and her allies to fight global terrorist groups?
570b4c3c6b8089140040f860
The War on Terrorism
0
False
What religious groups are primarily targeted by this war?
570b4c3c6b8089140040f861
Islamic Extremist
191
False
What is one prominent, specific terrorist group targeted by the War on Terrorism?
570b4c3c6b8089140040f862
al-Qaeda
237
False
The War On Terrorism was caused by what event?
570b4c3c6b8089140040f863
the September 11, 2001 attacks
424
False
Since the start of the war on Terrorism, attacks on US service members have occurred in which two US states?
570b4c3c6b8089140040f864
Arkansas and Texas
555
False
The War on Terrorism
0
What term is given to the attempt by the UK and her allies to fight global terrorist groups?
5ad1787c645df0001a2d1d70
True
Islamic Extremist
191
What non-religious groups are primarily targeted by this war?
5ad1787c645df0001a2d1d71
True
al-Qaeda
237
What is one prominent, specific terrorist group targeted by the War on Terrorism?
5ad1787c645df0001a2d1d72
True
September 11, 2001 attacks
428
The War On Terrorism was stopped by what event?
5ad1787c645df0001a2d1d73
True
Arkansas and Texas
555
Since the start of the war on Terrorism, attacks on UK service members have occurred in which two UK states?
5ad1787c645df0001a2d1d74
True
The War on Terrorism is a global effort by the governments of several countries (primarily the United States and its principal allies) to neutralize international terrorist groups (primarily Islamic Extremist terrorist groups, including al-Qaeda) and ensure that countries considered by the US and some of its allies to be Rogue Nations no longer support terrorist activities. It has been adopted primarily as a response to the September 11, 2001 attacks on the United States. Since 2001, terrorist motivated attacks upon service members have occurred in Arkansas and Texas.
What demand did the US make before invading Iraq in 2003?
570b4f4dec8fbc190045b974
that Iraqi President Saddam Hussein leave Iraq
77
False
How many US troops participated in the invasion?
570b4f4dec8fbc190045b975
250,000
270
False
What country refused to allow forces to stage within it?
570b4f4dec8fbc190045b976
Turkey
443
False
How long did the first phase of fighting last?
570b4f4dec8fbc190045b977
approximately three weeks
630
False
How long did the US and its coalition partners have to occupy Iraq?
570b4f4dec8fbc190045b978
9 years
733
False
Iraqi President Saddam Hussein leave Iraq
82
What demand did the US make before invading Iraq in 2004?
5ad17932645df0001a2d1daa
True
250,000
270
How many UK troops participated in the invasion?
5ad17932645df0001a2d1dab
True
Turkey
443
What country allowed forces to stage within it?
5ad17932645df0001a2d1dac
True
three weeks
644
How long did the second phase of fighting last?
5ad17932645df0001a2d1dad
True
9 years
733
How long did the US and its coalition partners have to occupy Iran?
5ad17932645df0001a2d1dae
True
After the lengthy Iraq disarmament crisis culminated with an American demand that Iraqi President Saddam Hussein leave Iraq, which was refused, a coalition led by the United States and the United Kingdom fought the Iraqi army in the 2003 invasion of Iraq. Approximately 250,000 United States troops, with support from 45,000 British, 2,000 Australian and 200 Polish combat forces, entered Iraq primarily through their staging area in Kuwait. (Turkey had refused to permit its territory to be used for an invasion from the north.) Coalition forces also supported Iraqi Kurdish militia, estimated to number upwards of 50,000. After approximately three weeks of fighting, Hussein and the Ba'ath Party were forcibly removed, followed by 9 years of military presence by the United States and the coalition fighting alongside the newly elected Iraqi government against various insurgent groups.
What declaration established a no-fly zone over Libya?
570b50126b8089140040f86a
United Nations Security Council Resolution 1973
64
False
What is the name of the Libyan leader opposed by US and UN forces?
570b50126b8089140040f86b
Muammar Gaddafi
204
False
What was the name of the military action against Libya?
570b50126b8089140040f86c
Operation Unified Protector
550
False
What was the goal of this operation?
570b50126b8089140040f86d
to protect civilians
814
False
The Libyan conflict was primarily fought between which groups?
570b50126b8089140040f86e
Gaddafi's loyalists and Libyan rebels fighting to depose him
872
False
United Nations Security Council Resolution 1973
64
What declaration ended a no-fly zone over Libya?
5ad179a2645df0001a2d1dbe
True
Muammar Gaddafi
204
What is the name of the Libyan leader opposed by UK forces?
5ad179a2645df0001a2d1dbf
True
protection of civilians
161
What was the name of the military action against Iraq?
5ad179a2645df0001a2d1dc0
True
Gaddafi's loyalists and Libyan rebels
872
The Iraqi conflict was primarily fought between which groups?
5ad179a2645df0001a2d1dc1
True
As a result of the Libyan Civil War, the United Nations enacted United Nations Security Council Resolution 1973, which imposed a no-fly zone over Libya, and the protection of civilians from the forces of Muammar Gaddafi. The United States, along with Britain, France and several other nations, committed a coalition force against Gaddafi's forces. On 19 March, the first U.S. action was taken when 114 Tomahawk missiles launched by US and UK warships destroyed shoreline air defenses of the Gaddafi regime. The U.S. continued to play a major role in Operation Unified Protector, the NATO-directed mission that eventually incorporated all of the military coalition's actions in the theater. Throughout the conflict however, the U.S. maintained it was playing a supporting role only and was following the UN mandate to protect civilians, while the real conflict was between Gaddafi's loyalists and Libyan rebels fighting to depose him. During the conflict, American drones were also deployed.
What was the biggest problem General Washington faced?
570b51886b8089140040f874
logistics
302
False
Where were the two major surrenders of British forces in the war?
570b51886b8089140040f875
Saratoga (1777) and Yorktown (1781)
834
False
What percentage of the Colonial population were loyal to the Crown?
570b51886b8089140040f876
20%
1077
False
What did Washington do after defeating the British Army?
570b51886b8089140040f877
he retired quietly to his farm in Virginia.
1361
False
What advantage did Washington have over the British generals?
570b51886b8089140040f878
he had a better idea of how to win the war than they did
598
False
logistics
302
What was the smallest problem General Washington faced?
5ad16fd0645df0001a2d1b52
True
Saratoga (1777) and Yorktown (1781)
834
Where were the three major surrenders of British forces in the war?
5ad16fd0645df0001a2d1b53
True
20%
1077
What percentage of the Colonial population weren't loyal to the Crown?
5ad16fd0645df0001a2d1b54
True
retired quietly to his farm in Virginia
1364
What did Washington not do after defeating the British Army?
5ad16fd0645df0001a2d1b55
True
he had a better idea of how to win the war
598
What disadvantage did Washington have over the British generals?
5ad16fd0645df0001a2d1b56
True
General George Washington (1732–99) proved an excellent organizer and administrator, who worked successfully with Congress and the state governors, selecting and mentoring his senior officers, supporting and training his troops, and maintaining an idealistic Republican Army. His biggest challenge was logistics, since neither Congress nor the states had the funding to provide adequately for the equipment, munitions, clothing, paychecks, or even the food supply of the soldiers. As a battlefield tactician Washington was often outmaneuvered by his British counterparts. As a strategist, however, he had a better idea of how to win the war than they did. The British sent four invasion armies. Washington's strategy forced the first army out of Boston in 1776, and was responsible for the surrender of the second and third armies at Saratoga (1777) and Yorktown (1781). He limited the British control to New York and a few places while keeping Patriot control of the great majority of the population. The Loyalists, on whom the British had relied too heavily, comprised about 20% of the population but never were well organized. As the war ended, Washington watched proudly as the final British army quietly sailed out of New York City in November 1783, taking the Loyalist leadership with them. Washington astonished the world when, instead of seizing power, he retired quietly to his farm in Virginia.
Where was the Barbary Coast?
570b5245ec8fbc190045b97e
modern day Libya
37
False
Who sent pirates to capture merchant ships?
570b5245ec8fbc190045b97f
The Berbers
0
False
How did the United States initially deal with this problem?
570b5245ec8fbc190045b980
The U.S. paid protection money until 1801
125
False
What American naval officer led a raid that destroyed a captured American ship?
570b5245ec8fbc190045b981
Stephen Decatur
364
False
What city did William Eaton capture to end the first Barbary War?
570b5245ec8fbc190045b982
Derna
531
False
modern day Libya
37
Where was the Burrberry Coast?
5ad170c1645df0001a2d1b98
True
The Berbers
0
Who sent pirates to befriend merchant ships?
5ad170c1645df0001a2d1b99
True
paid protection money until 1801
134
How did the UK initially deal with this problem?
5ad170c1645df0001a2d1b9a
True
Stephen Decatur
364
What African naval officer led a raid that destroyed a captured African ship?
5ad170c1645df0001a2d1b9b
True
Derna
531
What city did William Eaton befriend to end the first Barbary War?
5ad170c1645df0001a2d1b9c
True
The Berbers along the Barbary Coast (modern day Libya) sent pirates to capture merchant ships and hold the crews for ransom. The U.S. paid protection money until 1801, when President Thomas Jefferson refused to pay and sent in the Navy to challenge the Barbary States, the First Barbary War followed. After the U.S.S. Philadelphia was captured in 1803, Lieutenant Stephen Decatur led a raid which successfully burned the captured ship, preventing Tripoli from using or selling it. In 1805, after William Eaton captured the city of Derna, Tripoli agreed to a peace treaty. The other Barbary states continued to raid U.S. shipping, until the Second Barbary War in 1815 ended the practice.
What was the Confederate overall strategy to win the Civil War?
570b52c7ec8fbc190045b988
getting Britain and France to intervene
85
False
What was the Union's original war aim?
570b52c7ec8fbc190045b989
capturing the Confederate capital at Richmond, Virginia
227
False
Who led the Confederate forces defending Richmond throughout the war?
570b52c7ec8fbc190045b98a
Robert E. Lee
307
False
How did the war effect both sides?
570b52c7ec8fbc190045b98b
the material and personnel of the South were used up, while the North prospered
449
False
getting Britain and France to intervene
85
What was the Confederate overall strategy to lose the Civil War?
5ad171a3645df0001a2d1bd0
True
capturing the Confederate capital at Richmond, Virginia
227
What wasn't the Union's original war aim?
5ad171a3645df0001a2d1bd1
True
Robert E. Lee
307
Who led the Confederate forces not defending Richmond throughout the war?
5ad171a3645df0001a2d1bd2
True
material and personnel of the South were used up
453
How didn't the war effect both sides?
5ad171a3645df0001a2d1bd3
True
The American Civil War caught both sides unprepared. The Confederacy hoped to win by getting Britain and France to intervene, or else by wearing down the North's willingness to fight. The U.S. sought a quick victory focused on capturing the Confederate capital at Richmond, Virginia. The Confederates under Robert E. Lee tenaciously defended their capital until the very end. The war spilled across the continent, and even to the high seas. Most of the material and personnel of the South were used up, while the North prospered.
When in the 19th century was the US navy modernized?
570b53996b8089140040f87e
the 1880s
27
False
What replaced the older sailing ships in the navy?
570b53996b8089140040f87f
modern steel battleships
194
False
By what name was the US fleet known at the start of the 20th Century?
570b53996b8089140040f880
the Great White Fleet
360
False
Who ordered this fleet to sail around the world?
570b53996b8089140040f881
President Theodore Roosevelt
453
False
What was the purpose of this order?
570b53996b8089140040f882
to demonstrate the Navy's capability to extend to the global theater
509
False
1880s
31
When in the 19th century was the UK navy modernized?
5ad172ad645df0001a2d1c00
True
modern steel battleships
194
What replaced the younger sailing ships in the navy?
5ad172ad645df0001a2d1c01
True
Great White Fleet
364
By what name was the US fleet known at the start of the 21st Century?
5ad172ad645df0001a2d1c02
True
President Theodore Roosevelt
453
Who wouldn't let this fleet to sail around the world?
5ad172ad645df0001a2d1c03
True
demonstrate the Navy's capability to extend to the global theater
512
What was the purpose of this order to be cancelled?
5ad172ad645df0001a2d1c04
True
The Navy was modernized in the 1880s, and by the 1890s had adopted the naval power strategy of Captain Alfred Thayer Mahan—as indeed did every major navy. The old sailing ships were replaced by modern steel battleships, bringing them in line with the navies of Britain and Germany. In 1907, most of the Navy's battleships, with several support vessels, dubbed the Great White Fleet, were featured in a 14-month circumnavigation of the world. Ordered by President Theodore Roosevelt, it was a mission designed to demonstrate the Navy's capability to extend to the global theater.
What early 20th century conflict sent tens of thousands of refugees to the US?
570b547c6b8089140040f888
The Mexican Revolution
0
False
US forces were sent to occupy what Mexican City during the Revolution?
570b547c6b8089140040f889
Veracruz
220
False
What was the name of the Mexican general who attacked an American city in New Mexico?
570b547c6b8089140040f88a
Pancho Villa
544
False
What foreign organization encouraged Villa's guerilla war against the US?
570b547c6b8089140040f88b
The German Secret Service
710
False
What US General led troops against Villa?
570b547c6b8089140040f88c
General John J. Pershing
1059
False
The Mexican Revolution
0
What early 21st century conflict sent tens of thousands of refugees to the US?
5ad17352645df0001a2d1c2e
True
Veracruz
220
UK forces were sent to occupy what Mexican City during the Revolution?
5ad17352645df0001a2d1c2f
True
Pancho Villa
747
What was the name of the Mexican general who attacked an African city in New Mexico?
5ad17352645df0001a2d1c30
True
The German Secret Service
710
What foreign organization discouraged Villa's guerilla war against the US?
5ad17352645df0001a2d1c31
True
General John J. Pershing
1059
What UK General led troops against Villa?
5ad17352645df0001a2d1c32
True
The Mexican Revolution involved a civil war with hundreds of thousands of deaths and large numbers fleeing combat zones. Tens of thousands fled to the U.S. President Wilson sent U.S. forces to occupy the Mexican city of Veracruz for six months in 1914. It was designed to show the U.S. was keenly interested in the civil war and would not tolerate attacks on Americans, especially the April 9, 1914, "Tampico Affair", which involved the arrest of American sailors by soldiers of the regime of Mexican President Victoriano Huerta. In early 1916 Pancho Villa a Mexican general ordered 500 soldiers on a murderous raid on the American city of Columbus New Mexico, with the goal of robbing banks to fund his army. The German Secret Service encouraged Pancho Villa in his attacks to involve the United States in an intervention in Mexico which would distract the United States from its growing involvement in the war and divert aid from Europe to support the intervention. Wilson called up the state militias (National Guard) and sent them and the U.S. Army under General John J. Pershing to punish Villa in the Pancho Villa Expedition. Villa fled, with the Americans in pursuit deep into Mexico, thereby arousing Mexican nationalism. By early 1917 President Venustiano Carranza had contained Villa and secured the border, so Wilson ordered Pershing to withdraw.
What general sentiment was the result of losses in World War I?
570b5532ec8fbc190045b990
isolationism
50
False
Congress refused to allow the US to join what organization?
570b5532ec8fbc190045b991
the League of Nations
118
False
What legislation was passed to discourage the country from getting involved in a foreign war?
570b5532ec8fbc190045b992
Neutrality Acts
231
False
Which US President sought to circumvent Neutrality acts to aid Britain?
570b5532ec8fbc190045b993
Franklin D. Roosevelt
348
False
What was the name of the 1940 program to send arms to Britain?
570b5532ec8fbc190045b994
the Lend-Lease Act
425
False
isolationism
50
What general sentiment was the result of losses in World War II?
5ad173e5645df0001a2d1c60
True
League of Nations
122
Congress refused to allow the UK to join what organization?
5ad173e5645df0001a2d1c61
True
Neutrality Acts
231
What legislation was passed to encourage the country from getting involved in a foreign war?
5ad173e5645df0001a2d1c62
True
Franklin D. Roosevelt
348
Which UK President sought to circumvent Neutrality acts to aid Britain?
5ad173e5645df0001a2d1c63
True
Lend-Lease Act
429
What was the name of the 1940 program to send arms to Ireland?
5ad173e5645df0001a2d1c64
True
After the costly U.S. involvement in World War I, isolationism grew within the nation. Congress refused membership in the League of Nations, and in response to the growing turmoil in Europe and Asia, the gradually more restrictive Neutrality Acts were passed, which were intended to prevent the U.S. from supporting either side in a war. President Franklin D. Roosevelt sought to support Britain, however, and in 1940 signed the Lend-Lease Act, which permitted an expansion of the "cash and carry" arms trade to develop with Britain, which controlled the Atlantic sea lanes.
How many Americans served in the military in World War II?
570b56026b8089140040f892
Over 16 million
198
False
How many American service personnel died in World War II?
570b56026b8089140040f893
400,000
261
False
What other country besides the United States became a super power after World War II?
570b56026b8089140040f894
the Soviet Union
388
False
What name is given to those Americans who served in World War II?
570b56026b8089140040f895
the Greatest Generation
172
False
Both during and after the conclusion of  World War II, the United States formed a firm alliance with what country?
570b56026b8089140040f896
Britain
528
False
16 million
203
How many Americans served in the military in World War I?
5ad174b5645df0001a2d1c8e
True
400,000
261
How many American service personnel died in World War I?
5ad174b5645df0001a2d1c8f
True
Soviet Union
392
What other country besides the UK became a super power after World War II?
5ad174b5645df0001a2d1c90
True
the Greatest Generation
172
What name is given to those Americans who served in World War I?
5ad174b5645df0001a2d1c91
True
Britain
528
Both during and after the conclusion of World War I, the United States formed a firm alliance with what country?
5ad174b5645df0001a2d1c92
True
World War II holds a special place in the American psyche as the country's greatest triumph, and the U.S. military personnel of World War II are frequently referred to as "the Greatest Generation." Over 16 million served (about 11% of the population), and over 400,000 died during the war. The U.S. emerged as one of the two undisputed superpowers along with the Soviet Union, and unlike the Soviet Union, the U.S. homeland was virtually untouched by the ravages of war. During and following World War II, the United States and Britain developed an increasingly strong defense and intelligence relationship. Manifestations of this include extensive basing of U.S. forces in the UK, shared intelligence, shared military technology (e.g. nuclear technology), and shared procurement.
The policy of containment in Asia was aimed at what ideology?
570b56c06b8089140040f89c
Communism
64
False
What was the psychological turning point of the war?
570b56c06b8089140040f89d
The Tet Offensive
288
False
When did this offensive take place?
570b56c06b8089140040f89e
1968
309
False
When were US forces withdrawn from Vietnam?
570b56c06b8089140040f89f
1973
796
False
The policy of supplying arms and war materiel for the Vietnamese to fight their own war was called what?
570b56c06b8089140040f8a0
"Vietnamization,"
607
False
Communism
64
The policy of containment in Korea was aimed at what ideology?
5ad17615645df0001a2d1cf8
True
Tet Offensive
292
What was the sociological turning point of the war?
5ad17615645df0001a2d1cf9
True
1968
309
When did this defense take place?
5ad17615645df0001a2d1cfa
True
1973
796
When were US forces withdrawn from China?
5ad17615645df0001a2d1cfb
True
Vietnamization
608
The policy of supplying arms and war materiel for the Chinese to fight their own war was called what?
5ad17615645df0001a2d1cfc
True
The U.S. framed the war as part of its policy of containment of Communism in south Asia, but American forces were frustrated by an inability to engage the enemy in decisive battles, corruption and incompetence in the Army of the Republic of Vietnam, and ever increasing protests at home. The Tet Offensive in 1968, although a major military defeat for the NLF with half their forces eliminated, marked the psychological turning point in the war. With President Richard M. Nixon opposed to containment and more interested in achieving détente with both the Soviet Union and China, American policy shifted to "Vietnamization," – providing very large supplies of arms and letting the Vietnamese fight it out themselves. After more than 57,000 dead and many more wounded, American forces withdrew in 1973 with no clear victory, and in 1975 South Vietnam was finally conquered by communist North Vietnam and unified.
When did Britain declare martial law in a North American colony?
570b57586b8089140040f8a6
1774
95
False
What colony was placed under martial law?
570b57586b8089140040f8a7
Massachusetts
140
False
What were the first conflicts of the American Revolution?
570b57586b8089140040f8a8
Lexington and Concord
305
False
Who appointed Washington to serve as commander in chief?
570b57586b8089140040f8a9
The Continental Congress
437
False
When did the colonies declare independence?
570b57586b8089140040f8aa
July 4, 1776
862
False
1774
95
When did Britain declare martial law in a South American colony?
5ad16f3d645df0001a2d1b2c
True
Massachusetts
140
What colony wasn't placed under martial law?
5ad16f3d645df0001a2d1b2d
True
Lexington and Concord
305
What were the second conflicts of the American Revolution?
5ad16f3d645df0001a2d1b2e
True
Continental Congress
441
Who rejected Washington to serve as commander in chief?
5ad16f3d645df0001a2d1b2f
True
July 4, 1776
862
When did the colonies declare dependence?
5ad16f3d645df0001a2d1b30
True
Ongoing political tensions between Great Britain and the thirteen colonies reached a crisis in 1774 when the British placed the province of Massachusetts under martial law after the Patriots protested taxes they regarded as a violation of their constitutional rights as Englishmen. When shooting began at Lexington and Concord in April 1775, militia units from across New England rushed to Boston and bottled up the British in the city. The Continental Congress appointed George Washington as commander-in-chief of the newly created Continental Army, which was augmented throughout the war by colonial militia. He drove the British out of Boston but in late summer 1776 they returned to New York and nearly captured Washington's army. Meanwhile, the revolutionaries expelled British officials from the 13 states, and declared themselves an independent nation on July 4, 1776.
What quality made the US only a minor military power after the Revolutionary War?
570b58f5ec8fbc190045b99a
having only a modest army
210
False
Why was the US military so small initially?
570b58f5ec8fbc190045b99b
A traditional distrust of standing armies
261
False
The founding fathers had faith in what military groups?
570b58f5ec8fbc190045b99c
local militia
344
False
What did early American leaders worry a large standing army would involve America in?
570b58f5ec8fbc190045b99d
foreign wars
584
False
Early leaders also feared a large army would allow what internal conflict to take place?
570b58f5ec8fbc190045b99e
a domestic tyrant to seize power
620
False
having only a modest army
210
What quality made the US a major military power after the Revolutionary War?
5ad1701c645df0001a2d1b5c
True
A traditional distrust of standing armies
261
Why was the US military so large initially?
5ad1701c645df0001a2d1b5d
True
local militia
344
The founding fathers had no faith in what military groups?
5ad1701c645df0001a2d1b5e
True
foreign wars
584
What did early American leaders worry a large standing army would involve Africa in?
5ad1701c645df0001a2d1b5f
True
domestic tyrant to seize power
622
Early leaders also feared a small army would allow what internal conflict to take place?
5ad1701c645df0001a2d1b60
True
Following the American Revolutionary War, the United States faced potential military conflict on the high seas as well as on the western frontier. The United States was a minor military power during this time, having only a modest army, Marine corps, and navy. A traditional distrust of standing armies, combined with faith in the abilities of local militia, precluded the development of well-trained units and a professional officer corps. Jeffersonian leaders preferred a small army and navy, fearing that a large military establishment would involve the United States in excessive foreign wars, and potentially allow a domestic tyrant to seize power.
What two tribes particularly resisted being confined to reservations?
570b59d76b8089140040f8b0
the Sioux and Comanche
186
False
What caused a spike in difficulties between settlers and indigenous peoples on the western plains after the Civil War?
570b59d76b8089140040f8b1
population expansion, railroad construction, and the disappearance of the buffalo herds
21
False
Who were two of the military leaders tasked with overseeing American policy of putting Indians on reservations?
570b59d76b8089140040f8b2
William Tecumseh Sherman and Philip Sheridan
385
False
When was the Battle of Little Big Horn fought?
570b59d76b8089140040f8b3
1876
527
False
What US officer led the troops who were destroyed at Little Big Horn?
570b59d76b8089140040f8b4
Col. George Armstrong Custer
538
False
Sioux and Comanche
190
What two tribes particularly resisted being not confined to reservations?
5ad171fd645df0001a2d1bd8
True
population expansion, railroad construction, and the disappearance of the buffalo herds
21
What caused a spike in difficulties between settlers and indigenous peoples on the eastern plains after the Civil War?
5ad171fd645df0001a2d1bd9
True
William Tecumseh Sherman and Philip Sheridan
385
Who were two of the military leaders tasked with overseeing African policy of putting Indians on reservations?
5ad171fd645df0001a2d1bda
True
1876
527
When was the Battle of Big Little Horn fought?
5ad171fd645df0001a2d1bdb
True
Col. George Armstrong Custer
538
hat US officer led the troops who were destroyed at Big Little Horn?
5ad171fd645df0001a2d1bdc
True
After the Civil War, population expansion, railroad construction, and the disappearance of the buffalo herds heightened military tensions on the Great Plains. Several tribes, especially the Sioux and Comanche, fiercely resisted confinement to reservations. The main role of the Army was to keep indigenous peoples on reservations and to end their wars against settlers and each other, William Tecumseh Sherman and Philip Sheridan were in charge. A famous victory for the Plains Nations was the Battle of the Little Big Horn in 1876, when Col. George Armstrong Custer and two hundred plus members of the 7th Cavalry were killed by a force consisting of Native Americans from the Lakota, Northern Cheyenne, and Arapaho nations. The last significant conflict came in 1891.
What naval officer developed new doctrines for gunnery at the turn of the 20th Century?
570b5b516b8089140040f8ba
Rear Admiral Bradley A. Fiske
0
False
What aircraft did Fiske call for the development of?
570b5b516b8089140040f8bb
torpedo plane
236
False
What assistant naval secretary did Fiske serve under?
570b5b516b8089140040f8bc
Franklin D. Roosevelt
315
False
When did Fiske propose his reforms to the way the Navy operated?
570b5b516b8089140040f8bd
1913–15
284
False
Rear Admiral Bradley A. Fiske
0
What naval officer developed old doctrines for gunnery at the turn of the 21st Century?
5ad1731b645df0001a2d1c1e
True
torpedo plane
236
What aircraft did Fiske call for the dissolvement of?
5ad1731b645df0001a2d1c1f
True
Franklin D. Roosevelt
315
What assistant naval secretary did Fiske serve over?
5ad1731b645df0001a2d1c20
True
1913–15
284
When did Fiske propose his reforms to the way the Army operated?
5ad1731b645df0001a2d1c21
True
Rear Admiral Bradley A. Fiske was at the vanguard of new technology in naval guns and gunnery, thanks to his innovations in fire control 1890–1910. He immediately grasped the potential for air power, and called for the development of a torpedo plane. Fiske, as aide for operations in 1913–15 to Assistant Secretary Franklin D. Roosevelt, proposed a radical reorganization of the Navy to make it a war-fighting instrument. Fiske wanted to centralize authority in a chief of naval operations and an expert staff that would develop new strategies, oversee the construction of a larger fleet, coordinate war planning including force structure, mobilization plans, and industrial base, and ensure that the US Navy possessed the best possible war machines. Eventually, the Navy adopted his reforms and by 1915 started to reorganize for possible involvement in the World War then underway.
What was the name given to American soldiers in Europe in 1918?
570b5c156b8089140040f8c2
doughboys
49
False
What was the official name of the American army that went to fight in Europe in 1918?
570b5c156b8089140040f8c3
American Expeditionary Forces
94
False
Who had overall command of the American forces in Europe?
570b5c156b8089140040f8c4
John J. Pershing
160
False
When did fighting on the western front end?
570b5c156b8089140040f8c5
November 11, 1918
492
False
What was the name of the conditional surrender that ended fighting on the western front?
570b5c156b8089140040f8c6
the Armistice
433
False
doughboys
49
What was the name given to African soldiers in Europe in 1918?
5ad173ad645df0001a2d1c4c
True
American Expeditionary Forces
94
What was the official name of the American army that went to fight in Asia in 1918?
5ad173ad645df0001a2d1c4d
True
John J. Pershing
160
Who had overall command of the African forces in Europe?
5ad173ad645df0001a2d1c4e
True
November 11, 1918
492
When did fighting on the eastern front end?
5ad173ad645df0001a2d1c4f
True
Armistice
437
What was the name of the conditional surrender that ended fighting on the eastern front?
5ad173ad645df0001a2d1c50
True
By summer 1918, a million American soldiers, or "doughboys" as they were often called, of the American Expeditionary Forces were in Europe under the command of John J. Pershing, with 25,000 more arriving every week. The failure of Germany's spring offensive exhausted its reserves and they were unable to launch new offensives. The German Navy and home front then revolted and a new German government signed a conditional surrender, the Armistice, ending the war against the western front on November 11, 1918.
What was the American priority in mobilization prior to entering World War II?
570b5cafec8fbc190045b9a4
air power
96
False
When did the US officially enter World War II?
570b5cafec8fbc190045b9a5
8 December 1941
303
False
What event led to America entering the war?
570b5cafec8fbc190045b9a6
the Japanese attack on Pearl Harbor, Hawaii
329
False
At the start of the conflict with the Allies, what did Japan do?
570b5cafec8fbc190045b9a7
seized American, Dutch, and British possessions across the Pacific and Southeast Asia
395
False
What country served as an American forward base to wage war with Japan?
570b5cafec8fbc190045b9a8
Australia
493
False
air power
96
What was the American priority in mobilization prior to entering World War I?
5ad1741f645df0001a2d1c6a
True
8 December 1941
303
When did the US officially enter World War I?
5ad1741f645df0001a2d1c6b
True
Japanese attack on Pearl Harbor, Hawaii
333
What event led to Africa entering the war?
5ad1741f645df0001a2d1c6c
True
seized American, Dutch, and British possessions across the Pacific and Southeast Asia
395
At the start of the conflict with the Allies, what did England do?
5ad1741f645df0001a2d1c6d
True
Australia
493
What country served as an African forward base to wage war with Japan?
5ad1741f645df0001a2d1c6e
True
Starting in 1940 (18 months before Pearl Harbor), the nation mobilized, giving high priority to air power. American involvement in World War II in 1940–41 was limited to providing war material and financial support to Britain, the Soviet Union, and the Republic of China. The U.S. entered officially on 8 December 1941 following the Japanese attack on Pearl Harbor, Hawaii. Japanese forces soon seized American, Dutch, and British possessions across the Pacific and Southeast Asia, except for Australia, which became a main American forward base along with Hawaii.
When was the Vietnam War fought?
570b5d446b8089140040f8cc
between 1959 and 1975
33
False
Besides Vietnam, what other countries saw fighting in this war?
570b5d446b8089140040f8cd
Cambodia and Laos
109
False
What was the name of the strategic bombing of North Vietnam?
570b5d446b8089140040f8ce
Operation Rolling Thunder
178
False
When did American military involvement ramp up in Vietnam?
570b5d446b8089140040f8cf
1964
397
False
What congressional declaration gave President Johnson authority to send troops to Vietnam?
570b5d446b8089140040f8d0
the Gulf of Tonkin Resolution
510
False
1959 and 1975
41
When was the Chinese War fought?
5ad1756f645df0001a2d1cb6
True
Cambodia and Laos
109
Besides China, what other countries saw fighting in this war?
5ad1756f645df0001a2d1cb7
True
Operation Rolling Thunder
178
What was the name of the bombing of South Korea?
5ad1756f645df0001a2d1cb8
True
1964
397
When did American military involvement ramp up in China?
5ad1756f645df0001a2d1cb9
True
Gulf of Tonkin Resolution
514
What congressional declaration gave President Johnson authority to send troops to China?
5ad1756f645df0001a2d1cba
True
The Vietnam War was a war fought between 1959 and 1975 on the ground in South Vietnam and bordering areas of Cambodia and Laos (see Secret War) and in the strategic bombing (see Operation Rolling Thunder) of North Vietnam. American advisors came in the late 1950s to help the RVN (Republic of Vietnam) combat Communist insurgents known as "Viet Cong." Major American military involvement began in 1964, after Congress provided President Lyndon B. Johnson with blanket approval for presidential use of force in the Gulf of Tonkin Resolution.
Some observers thought that the Persian Gulf War would have tank battles similar to what war?
570b5e2dec8fbc190045b9ae
North Africa during World War II
233
False
What conflict was supposed to have provided Iraqi forces with battle experience?
570b5e2dec8fbc190045b9af
8 years of war with Iran
547
False
What equipment did the Iraqi army possess?
570b5e2dec8fbc190045b9b0
late model Soviet tanks and jet fighters
606
False
Prior to the Persian Gulf War, where and when was the last major American military conflict?
570b5e2dec8fbc190045b9b1
Vietnam nearly 20 years earlier
777
False
What problem did the Iraqi forces have?
570b5e2dec8fbc190045b9b2
the antiaircraft weapons were crippled
652
False
North Africa during World War II
233
ome observers thought that the Chinese Gulf War would have tank battles similar to what war?
5ad1771f645df0001a2d1d2a
True
8 years of war with Iran
547
What conflict was supposed to have provided Iranian forces with battle experience?
5ad1771f645df0001a2d1d2b
True
late model Soviet tanks and jet fighters
606
What equipment did the Iranian army possess?
5ad1771f645df0001a2d1d2c
True
Vietnam nearly 20 years earlier
777
Prior to the Persian Gulf War, where and when was the last major African military conflict?
5ad1771f645df0001a2d1d2d
True
antiaircraft weapons were crippled
656
What problem did the Iranian forces have?
5ad1771f645df0001a2d1d2e
True
Before the war, many observers believed the US and its allies could win but might suffer substantial casualties (certainly more than any conflict since Vietnam), and that the tank battles across the harsh desert might rival those of North Africa during World War II. After nearly 50 years of proxy wars, and constant fears of another war in Europe between NATO and the Warsaw Pact, some thought the Persian Gulf War might finally answer the question of which military philosophy would have reigned supreme. Iraqi forces were battle-hardened after 8 years of war with Iran, and they were well equipped with late model Soviet tanks and jet fighters, but the antiaircraft weapons were crippled; in comparison, the US had no large-scale combat experience since its withdrawal from Vietnam nearly 20 years earlier, and major changes in US doctrine, equipment and technology since then had never been tested under fire.
What organization captured significant segments of Iraq and Syria?
570b5f0c6b8089140040f8d6
ISIL
22
False
What legal ethos does ISIL operate under?
570b5f0c6b8089140040f8d7
Sharia law
383
False
What actions did ISIL take against Western journalists and aid workers?
570b5f0c6b8089140040f8d8
kidnapping and decapitation
399
False
How did the US intervene against ISIL?
570b5f0c6b8089140040f8d9
airstrikes in Iraq over ISIL held territories
555
False
What was the goal of US and coalition airstrikes in Syria?
570b5f0c6b8089140040f8da
degrading and destroying ISIL and Al-Nusra-held territory
731
False
ISIL
22
What organization captured significant segments of Iran and Syria?
5ad178f7645df0001a2d1d98
True
Sharia law
383
What illegal ethos does ISIL operate under?
5ad178f7645df0001a2d1d99
True
kidnapping and decapitation
399
What actions did ISIL take against Eastern journalists and aid workers?
5ad178f7645df0001a2d1d9a
True
airstrikes in Iraq over ISIL held territories
555
How did the UK intervene against ISIL?
5ad178f7645df0001a2d1d9b
True
degrading and destroying ISIL and Al-Nusra-held territory
731
What was the goal of UK and coalition airstrikes in Syria?
5ad178f7645df0001a2d1d9c
True
With the emergence of ISIL and its capture of large areas of Iraq and Syria, a number of crises resulted that sparked international attention. ISIL had perpetrated sectarian killings and war crimes in both Iraq and Syria. Gains made in the Iraq war were rolled back as Iraqi army units abandoned their posts. Cities were taken over by the terrorist group which enforced its brand of Sharia law. The kidnapping and decapitation of numerous Western journalists and aid-workers also garnered interest and outrage among Western powers. The US intervened with airstrikes in Iraq over ISIL held territories and assets in August, and in September a coalition of US and Middle Eastern powers initiated a bombing campaign in Syria aimed at degrading and destroying ISIL and Al-Nusra-held territory.
Hard_rock
Where was the band Blue Cheer from?
570b5fef6b8089140040f8e0
San Francisco
136
False
What classic song did Blue Cheer cover?
570b5fef6b8089140040f8e1
"Summertime Blues"
230
False
What was the hit off Steppenwolf's self-titled debut lp?
570b5fef6b8089140040f8e2
"Born to Be Wild"
437
False
What movie featured that Steppenwolf single?
570b5fef6b8089140040f8e3
Easy Rider
576
False
The lyrics to "Born To Be Wild" contain the first reference to what hard rock style?
570b5fef6b8089140040f8e4
heavy metal
503
False
Summertime Blues
231
What Blue Cheer classic was duplicated by Eddie Cochran?
5a5a21ab9c0277001abe7070
True
Summertime Blues
231
What song was not included in the 1968 debut album Vincebus Eruptum?
5a5a21ab9c0277001abe7071
True
Blue Cheer
155
What LA based band released a distorted cover of Summertime Blues?
5a5a21ab9c0277001abe7072
True
1968
261
When did Vanilla Fudge release Born to be Wild?
5a5a21ab9c0277001abe7073
True
Born to Be Wild
438
What song was used in the film Easy Rider in 1965?
5a5a21ab9c0277001abe7074
True
Groups that emerged from the American psychedelic scene about the same time included Iron Butterfly, MC5, Blue Cheer and Vanilla Fudge. San Francisco band Blue Cheer released a crude and distorted cover of Eddie Cochran's classic "Summertime Blues", from their 1968 debut album Vincebus Eruptum, that outlined much of the later hard rock and heavy metal sound. The same month, Steppenwolf released its self-titled debut album, including "Born to Be Wild", which contained the first lyrical reference to heavy metal and helped popularise the style when it was used in the film Easy Rider (1969). Iron Butterfly's In-A-Gadda-Da-Vida (1968), with its 17-minute-long title track, using organs and with a lengthy drum solo, also prefigured later elements of the sound.
The band Rush is what nationality?
570b609e6b8089140040f8ea
Canadian
59
False
What are the first three Rush albums?
570b609e6b8089140040f8eb
Rush, Fly by Night and Caress of Steel
136
False
What nationality was Thin Lizzy?
570b609e6b8089140040f8ec
Irish
252
False
What was Thin Lizzy's hit single?
570b609e6b8089140040f8ed
"The Boys Are Back in Town"
430
False
The Scorpions hailed from what country?
570b609e6b8089140040f8ee
Germany
787
False
Rush
73
What British band released the album Rush in 1974?
5a5a32199c0277001abe70a2
True
a more progressive sound
197
What sound did the band Rush move toward in the 1976 album Caress of Steel?
5a5a32199c0277001abe70a3
True
1960s
304
When did the American band Lizzy moved to Ireland?
5a5a32199c0277001abe70a4
True
The Boys Are Back in Town
431
Which song by Lizzy reached number 8 on the US charts in 1976?
5a5a32199c0277001abe70a5
True
Judas Priest
1203
Who did Iron Maiden work with to re-introduce blues into hard rock music?
5a5a32199c0277001abe70a6
True
From outside the United Kingdom and the United States, the Canadian trio Rush released three distinctively hard rock albums in 1974–75 (Rush, Fly by Night and Caress of Steel) before moving toward a more progressive sound with the 1976 album 2112. The Irish band Thin Lizzy, which had formed in the late 1960s, made their most substantial commercial breakthrough in 1976 with the hard rock album Jailbreak and their worldwide hit "The Boys Are Back in Town", which reached number 8 in the UK and number 12 in the US. Their style, consisting of two duelling guitarists often playing leads in harmony, proved itself to be a large influence on later bands. They reached their commercial, and arguably their artistic peak with Black Rose: A Rock Legend (1979). The arrival of Scorpions from Germany marked the geographical expansion of the subgenre. Australian-formed AC/DC, with a stripped back, riff heavy and abrasive style that also appealed to the punk generation, began to gain international attention from 1976, culminating in the release of their multi-platinum albums Let There Be Rock (1977) and Highway to Hell (1979). Also influenced by a punk ethos were heavy metal bands like Motörhead, while Judas Priest abandoned the remaining elements of the blues in their music, further differentiating the hard rock and heavy metal styles and helping to create the New Wave of British Heavy Metal which was pursued by bands like Iron Maiden, Saxon and Venom.
What is the title of Bon Jovi's third lp?
570b612b6b8089140040f8f4
Slippery When Wet
24
False
How many copies did this record sell?
570b612b6b8089140040f8f5
12 million
171
False
What was the band Europe's international hit?
570b612b6b8089140040f8f6
The Final Countdown
569
False
What was Van Halen's 1986 album called?
570b612b6b8089140040f8f7
5150
923
False
Who was the new lead singer for Van Halen on 5150?
570b612b6b8089140040f8f8
Sammy Hagar
959
False
Slippery When Wet
24
What was Bon Jovi's second album?
5a5a41499c0277001abe70d4
True
Slippery When Wet
24
Which Bon Jovi album spent 10 weeks on top of the Billboard 200 charts?
5a5a41499c0277001abe70d5
True
Europe
613
What group from England released The Final Countdown in 1986?
5a5a41499c0277001abe70d6
True
The Final Countdown
569
What album by Europe reached number nine in ten countries besides the US?
5a5a41499c0277001abe70d7
True
5150
923
Which album did Van Halen release in 1986 which was the second album to feature Sammy Hagar as lead vocal singer?
5a5a41499c0277001abe70d8
True
Bon Jovi's third album, Slippery When Wet (1986), mixed hard rock with a pop sensitivity and spent a total of 8 weeks at the top of the Billboard 200 album chart, selling 12 million copies in the US while becoming the first hard rock album to spawn three top 10 singles — two of which reached number one. The album has been credited with widening the audiences for the genre, particularly by appealing to women as well as the traditional male dominated audience, and opening the door to MTV and commercial success for other bands at the end of the decade. The anthemic The Final Countdown (1986) by Swedish group Europe was an international hit, reaching number eight on the US charts while hitting the top 10 in nine other countries. This era also saw more glam-infused American hard rock bands come to the forefront, with both Poison and Cinderella releasing their multi-platinum début albums in 1986. Van Halen released 5150 (1986), their first album with Sammy Hagar on lead vocals, which was number one in the US for three weeks and sold over 6 million copies. By the second half of the decade, hard rock had become the most reliable form of commercial popular music in the United States.
What Aerosmith ballad debuted at number one on the charts?
570b62286b8089140040f906
"I Don't Want to Miss a Thing"
343
False
What was the title of AC/DC's 1995 double lp?
570b62286b8089140040f907
Ballbreaker
484
False
Bon Jovi's 1995 album was called what?
570b62286b8089140040f908
These Days
738
False
What commercially successful sub-genre emerged from the grunge movement?
570b62286b8089140040f909
post-grunge
1474
False
When did Aerosmith's album Get A Grip come out?
570b62286b8089140040f90a
1993
137
False
Get a Grip
125
What Aerosmith album did not succeed in 1993?
5a5a4e3b9c0277001abe7106
True
1998
299
When did AC/DC release their number one hit I don't Want to Miss a Thing?
5a5a4e3b9c0277001abe7107
True
Ballbreaker
484
What AC/DC album in 1995 became a muti-platinum seller?
5a5a4e3b9c0277001abe7108
True
These Days
738
Which Bon Jovi 1995 album was a bigger hit in the US than in Europe?
5a5a4e3b9c0277001abe7109
True
post-grunge bands
1101
Who emulated the attitudes of punk bands?
5a5a4e3b9c0277001abe710a
True
Some established acts continued to enjoy commercial success, such as Aerosmith, with their number one multi-platinum albums: Get a Grip (1993), which produced four Top 40 singles and became the band's best-selling album worldwide (going on to sell over 10 million copies), and Nine Lives (1997). In 1998, Aerosmith released the number one hit "I Don't Want to Miss a Thing", which remains the only single by a hard rock band to debut at number one. AC/DC produced the double platinum Ballbreaker (1995). Bon Jovi appealed to their hard rock audience with songs such as "Keep the Faith" (1992), but also achieved success in adult contemporary radio, with the Top 10 ballads "Bed of Roses" (1993) and "Always" (1994). Bon Jovi's 1995 album These Days was a bigger hit in Europe than it was in the United States, spawning four Top 10 singles on the UK Singles Chart. Metallica's Load (1996) and ReLoad (1997) each sold in excess of 4 million copies in the US and saw the band develop a more melodic and blues rock sound. As the initial impetus of grunge bands faltered in the middle years of the decade, post-grunge bands emerged. They emulated the attitudes and music of grunge, particularly thick, distorted guitars, but with a more radio-friendly commercially oriented sound that drew more directly on traditional hard rock. Among the most successful acts were the Foo Fighters, Candlebox, Live, Collective Soul, Australia's Silverchair and England's Bush, who all cemented post-grunge as one of the most commercially viable subgenres by the late 1990s. Similarly, some post-Britpop bands that followed in the wake of Oasis, including Feeder and Stereophonics, adopted a hard rock or "pop-metal" sound.
What are two examples of glam metal bands?
570b62e3ec8fbc190045b9b8
Bon Jovi and Def Leppard
436
False
What two genres cut into hard rock's popularity at the end of the 1980s and early 1990s?
570b62e3ec8fbc190045b9b9
grunge and later Britpop
636
False
What were some hard rock bands of the 1970s?
570b62e3ec8fbc190045b9ba
Led Zeppelin, The Who, Deep Purple, Aerosmith, AC/DC and Van Halen
88
False
What style did some hard rock bands embrace in the 1980s?
570b62e3ec8fbc190045b9bb
pop rock
250
False
1970s
62
When did soft rock become a major form of popular music?
5a5a20d79c0277001abe7034
True
1970s
62
Which band became popular in the 1960s?
5a5a20d79c0277001abe7035
True
During the 1980s
156
When did some bands move from pop rock to hard rock?
5a5a20d79c0277001abe7036
True
Guns N' Roses
485
What band made a come back in the mid-1990s?
5a5a20d79c0277001abe7037
True
in the 1990s
661
When did hard rock replace grunge and Britpop?
5a5a20d79c0277001abe7038
True
Hard rock developed into a major form of popular music in the 1970s, with bands such as Led Zeppelin, The Who, Deep Purple, Aerosmith, AC/DC and Van Halen. During the 1980s, some hard rock bands moved away from their hard rock roots and more towards pop rock, while others began to return to a hard rock sound. Established bands made a comeback in the mid-1980s and it reached a commercial peak in the 1980s, with glam metal bands like Bon Jovi and Def Leppard and the rawer sounds of Guns N' Roses, which followed up with great success in the later part of that decade. Hard rock began losing popularity with the commercial success of grunge and later Britpop in the 1990s.
What genre laid the roots for hard rock?
570b638b6b8089140040f910
electric blues
69
False
Who recorded "Rumble"?
570b638b6b8089140040f911
Link Wray
723
False
When was "Rumble" released?
570b638b6b8089140040f912
1958
760
False
What were two of Dick Dale's better known songs?
570b638b6b8089140040f913
"Let's Go Trippin'" (1961) and "Misirlou" (1962)
820
False
What city's blues style produced hard rock precursors in electric blues?
570b638b6b8089140040f914
Memphis
470
False
electric blues
69
What type of music known as the roots of hard rock was started in the 1940s?
5a5a21649c0277001abe7052
True
heavy guitar riffs
170
What is a key element that hard rock used to lay roots for electric blues music?
5a5a21649c0277001abe7053
True
driving rhythms
376
What did the electric blues guitarists avoid using from the hard rock genre?
5a5a21649c0277001abe7054
True
Pat Hare
552
Who was the Memphis hard rock guitarist known for using power chords?
5a5a21649c0277001abe7055
True
Dick Dale
801
Who wrote "Misirlou" in 1961?
5a5a21649c0277001abe7056
True
The roots of hard rock can be traced back to the 1950s, particularly electric blues, which laid the foundations for key elements such as a rough declamatory vocal style, heavy guitar riffs, string-bending blues-scale guitar solos, strong beat, thick riff-laden texture, and posturing performances. Electric blues guitarists began experimenting with hard rock elements such as driving rhythms, distorted guitar solos and power chords in the 1950s, evident in the work of Memphis blues guitarists such as Joe Hill Louis, Willie Johnson, and particularly Pat Hare, who captured a "grittier, nastier, more ferocious electric guitar sound" on records such as James Cotton's "Cotton Crop Blues" (1954). Other antecedents include Link Wray's instrumental "Rumble" in 1958, and the surf rock instrumentals of Dick Dale, such as "Let's Go Trippin'" (1961) and "Misirlou" (1962).
What was the landmark hard rock album recorded by the Rolling Stones in 1972?
570b6430ec8fbc190045b9c8
Exile on Main St.
75
False
Which Led Zeppelin album featured the hit "Stairway to Heaven"?
570b6430ec8fbc190045b9c9
Led Zeppelin IV
476
False
What two hard rock songs are featured on Deep Purple's Machine Head album?
570b6430ec8fbc190045b9ca
"Highway Star" and "Smoke on the Water"
752
False
Who was Deep Purple's guitarist?
570b6430ec8fbc190045b9cb
Ritchie Blackmore
811
False
Who was the drummer for The Who?
570b6430ec8fbc190045b9cc
Keith Moon
1340
False
Exile on Main St.
75
What Rolling Stones album got rave reviews in 1972?
5a5a28d59c0277001abe7084
True
Steve Erlewine
156
Who said of the album Exile on Main St.; it was not the Rolling Stones finest album?
5a5a28d59c0277001abe7085
True
1970
466
What year did Led Zeppelin move to folk music to get away from hard rock?
5a5a28d59c0277001abe7086
True
1971
493
What year was the song Stairway to Heaven by Deep Purple produced?
5a5a28d59c0277001abe7087
True
1975
796
When did David Coverdale form the band Rainbow?
5a5a28d59c0277001abe7088
True
In the early 1970s the Rolling Stones developed their hard rock sound with Exile on Main St. (1972). Initially receiving mixed reviews, according to critic Steve Erlewine it is now "generally regarded as the Rolling Stones' finest album". They continued to pursue the riff-heavy sound on albums including It's Only Rock 'n' Roll (1974) and Black and Blue (1976). Led Zeppelin began to mix elements of world and folk music into their hard rock from Led Zeppelin III (1970) and Led Zeppelin IV (1971). The latter included the track "Stairway to Heaven", which would become the most played song in the history of album-oriented radio. Deep Purple continued to define hard rock, particularly with their album Machine Head (1972), which included the tracks "Highway Star" and "Smoke on the Water". In 1975 guitarist Ritchie Blackmore left, going on to form Rainbow and after the break-up of the band the next year, vocalist David Coverdale formed Whitesnake. 1970 saw The Who release Live at Leeds, often seen as the archetypal hard rock live album, and the following year they released their highly acclaimed album Who's Next, which mixed heavy rock with extensive use of synthesizers. Subsequent albums, including Quadrophenia (1973), built on this sound before Who Are You (1978), their last album before the death of pioneering rock drummer Keith Moon later that year.
Who was the original lead singer of AC/DC who died?
570b64d36b8089140040f924
Bon Scott
137
False
Who was the Led Zeppelin drummer who passed away?
570b64d36b8089140040f925
John Bonham
178
False
What singer replaced Ozzy Osbourne in Black Sabbath?
570b64d36b8089140040f926
Ronnie James Dio
581
False
What was Ozzy Osbourne's first solo album?
570b64d36b8089140040f927
Blizzard of Ozz
769
False
What are some thrash metal bands?
570b64d36b8089140040f928
Metallica, Anthrax, Megadeth and Slayer
1142
False
1980s
25
When was Bon Scott born?
5a5a35509c0277001abe70b6
True
Led Zeppelin
204
What band was lead singer John Bonham from?
5a5a35509c0277001abe70b7
True
John Bonham
178
Who quit the band Led Zeppelin to move to another band?
5a5a35509c0277001abe70b8
True
Back in Black
313
What AC/DC album became the fifth highest selling album in the US?
5a5a35509c0277001abe70b9
True
Blizzard of Ozz
769
What solo album did Randy Rhoads release in 1980?
5a5a35509c0277001abe70ba
True
The opening years of the 1980s saw a number of changes in personnel and direction of established hard rock acts, including the deaths of Bon Scott, the lead singer of AC/DC, and John Bonham, drummer with Led Zeppelin. Whereas Zeppelin broke up almost immediately afterwards, AC/DC pressed on, recording the album Back in Black (1980) with their new lead singer, Brian Johnson. It became the fifth-highest-selling album of all time in the US and the second-highest-selling album in the world. Black Sabbath had split with original singer Ozzy Osbourne in 1979 and replaced him with Ronnie James Dio, formerly of Rainbow, giving the band a new sound and a period of creativity and popularity beginning with Heaven and Hell (1980). Osbourne embarked on a solo career with Blizzard of Ozz (1980), featuring American guitarist Randy Rhoads. Some bands, such as Queen, moved away from their hard rock roots and more towards pop rock, while others, including Rush with Moving Pictures (1981), began to return to a hard rock sound. The creation of thrash metal, which mixed heavy metal with elements of hardcore punk from about 1982, particularly by Metallica, Anthrax, Megadeth and Slayer, helped to create extreme metal and further remove the style from hard rock, although a number of these bands or their members would continue to record some songs closer to a hard rock sound. Kiss moved away from their hard rock roots toward pop metal: firstly removing their makeup in 1983 for their Lick It Up album, and then adopting the visual and sound of glam metal for their 1984 release, Animalize, both of which marked a return to commercial success. Pat Benatar was one of the first women to achieve commercial success in hard rock, with three successive Top 5 albums between 1980 and 1982.
Guns N Roses released both Use Your Illusion albums in what year?
570b6593ec8fbc190045b9d2
1991
210
False
What band's debut was titled Shake Your Money Maker?
570b6593ec8fbc190045b9d3
The Black Crowes
349
False
What was the title of Def Leppard's 1992 album?
570b6593ec8fbc190045b9d4
Adrenalize
553
False
Adrenalize followed what 1987 Def Leppard record?
570b6593ec8fbc190045b9d5
Hysteria
539
False
Adrenalize topped US album charts for how long?
570b6593ec8fbc190045b9d6
five weeks
675
False
1990s
22
In which decade did hard rock see a decline of dominance in commercial music?
5a5a45ab9c0277001abe70e8
True
1991
302
What year did Ozzy Osbourne release Unlawful Carnal Knowledge?
5a5a45ab9c0277001abe70e9
True
Shake Your Money Maker
394
What was The Black Crowes second album?
5a5a45ab9c0277001abe70ea
True
Adrenalize
553
Which Def Leppard 1987 album held the number one spot in the British charts for five weeks?
5a5a45ab9c0277001abe70eb
True
Shake Your Money Maker
394
Which 1990 Def Leppard album sold five million copies in 1990?
5a5a45ab9c0277001abe70ec
True
Hard rock entered the 1990s as one of the dominant forms of commercial music. The multi-platinum releases of AC/DC's The Razors Edge (1990), Guns N' Roses' Use Your Illusion I and Use Your Illusion II (both in 1991), Ozzy Osbourne's No More Tears (1991), and Van Halen's For Unlawful Carnal Knowledge (1991) showcased this popularity. Additionally, The Black Crowes released their debut album, Shake Your Money Maker (1990), which contained a bluesy classic rock sound and sold five million copies. In 1992, Def Leppard followed up 1987's Hysteria with Adrenalize, which went multi-platinum, spawned four Top 40 singles and held the number one spot on the US album chart for five weeks.
When did the band The Darkness break up?
570b66566b8089140040f92e
2006
653
False
The Sword, High on Fire, Witchcraft and Wolfmother are all examples of what hard rock sub-genre?
570b66566b8089140040f92f
retro-metal
10
False
What is the title of Airbourne's debut lp?
570b66566b8089140040f930
Runnin' Wild
305
False
Glam metal band Steel Panther is from what city?
570b66566b8089140040f931
Los Angeles
659
False
What are some Swedish sleaze metal revivalist bands?
570b66566b8089140040f932
Vains of Jenna, Hardcore Superstar and Crashdïet
860
False
retro-metal
10
What type of hard rock music is based in Texas and California?
5a5a52999c0277001abe711a
True
Wolfmother
155
Which band that debut in 2005 sang songs written by Deep Purple and Led Zeppelin?
5a5a52999c0277001abe711b
True
Runnin' Wild
305
What album did AC/DC produce in 2007 that displayed their hard riffing tradition?
5a5a52999c0277001abe711c
True
England's The Darkness' Permission to Land
374
What album from 2003 was described as a simulation of 70s metal and 80s glam?
5a5a52999c0277001abe711d
True
Sweden
842
What country was a serious attempt to revive punk rock attempted?
5a5a52999c0277001abe711e
True
The term "retro-metal" has been applied to such bands as Texas based The Sword, California's High on Fire, Sweden's Witchcraft and Australia's Wolfmother. Wolfmother's self-titled 2005 debut album combined elements of the sounds of Deep Purple and Led Zeppelin. Fellow Australians Airbourne's début album Runnin' Wild (2007) followed in the hard riffing tradition of AC/DC. England's The Darkness' Permission to Land (2003), described as an "eerily realistic simulation of '80s metal and '70s glam", topped the UK charts, going quintuple platinum. The follow-up, One Way Ticket to Hell... and Back (2005), reached number 11, before the band broke up in 2006. Los Angeles band Steel Panther managed to gain a following by sending up 80s glam metal. A more serious attempt to revive glam metal was made by bands of the sleaze metal movement in Sweden, including Vains of Jenna, Hardcore Superstar and Crashdïet.
Who were three Chicago blues players who influenced hard rock?
570b6750ec8fbc190045b9e4
Elmore James, Muddy Waters, and Howlin' Wolf
270
False
Who recorded "You Really Got Me"?
570b6750ec8fbc190045b9e5
The Kinks
502
False
"Shapes of Things" was a 1966 single by what band?
570b6750ec8fbc190045b9e6
The Yardbirds
584
False
What garage rock classic was recorded by The Kingsmen?
570b6750ec8fbc190045b9e7
"Louie Louie"
342
False
When did the Rolling Stones release "(I Can't Get No" Satisfaction"?
570b6750ec8fbc190045b9e8
1965
635
False
In the 1960s
0
When did rock bands began to modify rock by using softer sounds?
5a5a217f9c0277001abe705c
True
1963
357
When did Muddy Waters record the song Louie Louie?
5a5a217f9c0277001abe705d
True
1964
513
When did The Yardbirds record the song You Really Got Me?
5a5a217f9c0277001abe705e
True
My Generation
521
What song did The Kinks record in 1965?
5a5a217f9c0277001abe705f
True
Howlin' Wolf
302
Who was a Chicago blues player who had very little influence on hard rock?
5a5a217f9c0277001abe7060
True
In the 1960s, American and British blues and rock bands began to modify rock and roll by adding harder sounds, heavier guitar riffs, bombastic drumming, and louder vocals, from electric blues. Early forms of hard rock can be heard in the work of Chicago blues musicians Elmore James, Muddy Waters, and Howlin' Wolf, The Kingsmen's version of "Louie Louie" (1963) which made it a garage rock standard, and the songs of rhythm and blues influenced British Invasion acts, including "You Really Got Me" by The Kinks (1964), "My Generation" by The Who (1965), "Shapes of Things" (1966) by The Yardbirds and "(I Can't Get No) Satisfaction" (1965) by The Rolling Stones. From the late 1960s, it became common to divide mainstream rock music that emerged from psychedelia into soft and hard rock. Soft rock was often derived from folk rock, using acoustic instruments and putting more emphasis on melody and harmonies. In contrast, hard rock was most often derived from blues rock and was played louder and with more intensity.
When did Free break up?
570b6879ec8fbc190045b9ee
1973
194
False
What band did Free lead singer Paul Rodgers help form?
570b6879ec8fbc190045b9ef
Bad Company
240
False
Bad Company's self titled debut album was released in what year?
570b6879ec8fbc190045b9f0
1974
282
False
What nationality was the band Nazareth?
570b6879ec8fbc190045b9f1
Scottish
461
False
What was Queen's massive 1975 hit single called?
570b6879ec8fbc190045b9f2
"Bohemian Rhapsody"
1022
False
Free
31
What American act released the song All Right Now?
5a5a2b609c0277001abe708e
True
All Right Now
72
Which 1970 song by the band Free received no radio airplay in the US?
5a5a2b609c0277001abe708f
True
Bad Company
240
What 1974 album by Bad Company was an international flop?
5a5a2b609c0277001abe7090
True
Nazareth
475
What American band released Nazareth in 1971?
5a5a2b609c0277001abe7091
True
Queen
749
What band had the single Bohemian Rhapsody at number one on the US charts for nine weeks?
5a5a2b609c0277001abe7092
True
Emerging British acts included Free, who released their signature song "All Right Now" (1970), which has received extensive radio airplay in both the UK and US. After the breakup of the band in 1973, vocalist Paul Rodgers joined supergroup Bad Company, whose eponymous first album (1974) was an international hit. The mixture of hard rock and progressive rock, evident in the works of Deep Purple, was pursued more directly by bands like Uriah Heep and Argent. Scottish band Nazareth released their self-titled début album in 1971, producing a blend of hard rock and pop that would culminate in their best selling, Hair of the Dog (1975), which contained the proto-power ballad "Love Hurts". Having enjoyed some national success in the early 1970s, Queen, after the release of Sheer Heart Attack (1974) and A Night at the Opera (1975), gained international recognition with a sound that used layered vocals and guitars and mixed hard rock with heavy metal, progressive rock, and even opera. The latter featured the single "Bohemian Rhapsody", which stayed at number one in the UK charts for nine weeks.
What sub-genre of hard rock does Def Leppard belong to?
570b69c1ec8fbc190045ba00
the New Wave of British Heavy Metal
23
False
What was Def Leppard's second album called?
570b69c1ec8fbc190045ba01
High 'n' Dry
108
False
What were the three Top 40 singles from Def Leppard's Pyromania album?
570b69c1ec8fbc190045ba02
"Photograph", "Rock of Ages" and "Foolin'"
308
False
What band had the first glam metal album to hit number one on the Billboard charts?
570b69c1ec8fbc190045ba03
Quiet Riot
713
False
When did Motley Crue's album Shout At The Devil come out?
570b69c1ec8fbc190045ba04
1983
605
False
Def Leppard
68
Who is often categorized with the New Wave of American Heavy Metal?
5a5a3dd89c0277001abe70c0
True
High 'n' Dry
108
What is the first album released by Def Leppard?
5a5a3dd89c0277001abe70c1
True
Pyromania
232
What Def Leppard album reached number two on the British music charts?
5a5a3dd89c0277001abe70c2
True
1981
575
When did the band Ratt release their Too Fast for Love album?
5a5a3dd89c0277001abe70c3
True
Metal Health
732
What was the name of the 1983 Twisted Sister album that reached number one on the Billboard music charts?
5a5a3dd89c0277001abe70c4
True
Often categorised with the New Wave of British Heavy Metal, in 1981 Def Leppard released their second album High 'n' Dry, mixing glam-rock with heavy metal, and helping to define the sound of hard rock for the decade. The follow-up Pyromania (1983), reached number two on the American charts and the singles "Photograph", "Rock of Ages" and "Foolin'", helped by the emergence of MTV, all reached the Top 40. It was widely emulated, particularly by the emerging Californian glam metal scene. This was followed by US acts like Mötley Crüe, with their albums Too Fast for Love (1981) and Shout at the Devil (1983) and, as the style grew, the arrival of bands such as Ratt, White Lion, Twisted Sister and Quiet Riot. Quiet Riot's album Metal Health (1983) was the first glam metal album, and arguably the first heavy metal album of any kind, to reach number one in the Billboard music charts and helped open the doors for mainstream success by subsequent bands.
What was the title of Nirvana's 1991 album?
570b6a916b8089140040f938
Nevermind
283
False
What was the hard rock style that emerged in the early 1990s?
570b6a916b8089140040f939
grunge
182
False
What are some grunge bands with a strong 1970s influence?
570b6a916b8089140040f93a
Pearl Jam, Alice in Chains, Mother Love Bone and Soundgarden
614
False
What 1990s hard rock band had a big stadium rock sound?
570b6a916b8089140040f93b
Stone Temple Pilots
747
False
What element made Oasis unique among 1990s Britpop bands?
570b6a916b8089140040f93c
a hard rock sound
1043
False
Nirvana
273
Who had success with the soft rock song Nevermind in 1991?
5a5a48ea9c0277001abe70f2
True
hardcore punk and heavy metal
328
What form of music combined the clean sound of heavy guitar to produce feedback?
5a5a48ea9c0277001abe70f3
True
grunge bands
524
What kind of bands were consistent with mainstream hard rock?
5a5a48ea9c0277001abe70f4
True
alternative rock
783
What form of music did Stone Temple Pilots turn into mainstream hard rock?
5a5a48ea9c0277001abe70f5
True
macho, anthemic and fashion-focused aesthetics
867
What aesthetics did all grunge bands embrace?
5a5a48ea9c0277001abe70f6
True
While these few hard rock bands managed to maintain success and popularity in the early part of the decade, alternative forms of hard rock achieved mainstream success in the form of grunge in the US and Britpop in the UK. This was particularly evident after the success of Nirvana's Nevermind (1991), which combined elements of hardcore punk and heavy metal into a "dirty" sound that made use of heavy guitar distortion, fuzz and feedback, along with darker lyrical themes than their "hair band" predecessors. Although most grunge bands had a sound that sharply contrasted mainstream hard rock, several, including Pearl Jam, Alice in Chains, Mother Love Bone and Soundgarden, were more strongly influenced by 1970s and 1980s rock and metal, while Stone Temple Pilots managed to turn alternative rock into a form of stadium rock. However, all grunge bands shunned the macho, anthemic and fashion-focused aesthetics particularly associated with glam metal. In the UK, Oasis were unusual among the Britpop bands of the mid-1990s in incorporating a hard rock sound.
When did the Foo Fighters album In Your Honor come out?
570b6b77ec8fbc190045ba0a
2005
108
False
Three Days Grace is from what country?
570b6b77ec8fbc190045ba0b
Canada
1030
False
The band Jet is from what country?
570b6b77ec8fbc190045ba0c
Australia
1047
False
What supergroup featured members of Foo Fighters, Queens of the Stone Age and Led Zeppelin?
570b6b77ec8fbc190045ba0d
Them Crooked Vultures
1099
False
What was the title of Buckcherry's 2007 hit single?
570b6b77ec8fbc190045ba0e
"Sorry"
726
False
In Your Honor
93
What 2005 Foo Fighters album reached number one in both the US and UK?
5a5a54799c0277001abe7124
True
2005
108
What year did post-grunge bands began to become popular?
5a5a54799c0277001abe7125
True
Nickelback
269
What band had considerable commercial success by producing angst and anger?
5a5a54799c0277001abe7126
True
Beautiful Creatures
618
What Andrew W.K. album went platinum and spawned the single Sorry?
5a5a54799c0277001abe7127
True
2009
1094
What year did Them Crooked Vultures release a self-titled debut album featuring Jet?
5a5a54799c0277001abe7128
True
Although Foo Fighters continued to be one of the most successful rock acts, with albums like In Your Honor (2005) reaching number two in the US and UK, many of the first wave of post-grunge bands began to fade in popularity. Acts like Creed, Staind, Puddle of Mudd and Nickelback took the genre into the 2000s with considerable commercial success, abandoning most of the angst and anger of the original movement for more conventional anthems, narratives and romantic songs. They were followed in this vein by new acts including Shinedown and Seether. Acts with more conventional hard rock sounds included Andrew W.K., Beautiful Creatures and Buckcherry, whose breakthrough album 15 (2006) went platinum and spawned the single "Sorry" (2007), which made the Top 10 of the Billboard 100. These were joined by bands with hard rock leanings that emerged in the mid-2000s from the garage rock or post punk revival, including Black Rebel Motorcycle Club and Kings of Leon, and Queens of the Stone Age from the US, Three Days Grace from Canada, Jet from Australia and The Datsuns from New Zealand. In 2009 Them Crooked Vultures, a supergroup that brought together Foo Fighters' Dave Grohl, Queens of the Stone Age's Josh Homme and Led Zeppelin bass player John Paul Jones attracted attention as a live act and released a self-titled debut album that reached the top 20 in the US and UK and the top ten in several other countries.
What instrument is usually at the center of a hard rock sound?
570b6c436b8089140040f942
The electric guitar
52
False
Rhythm guitar in hard rock usually plays what?
570b6c436b8089140040f943
repetitive riffs with a varying degree of complexity
167
False
In hard rock, an electric guitar can also be used for what?
570b6c436b8089140040f944
a solo lead instrument
228
False
What carries the backbeat in hard rock drumming?
570b6c436b8089140040f945
snare
343
False
What instrument works in tandem with the drums to provide hard rock rhythms?
570b6c436b8089140040f946
The bass guitar
388
False
The electric guitar
52
What instrument is often used in soft rock music?
5a5a20ef9c0277001abe703e
True
rhythm instrument
143
What is played to keep the music from becoming repetitive?
5a5a20ef9c0277001abe703f
True
snare
343
Which bass drum is used to drive rhythms?
5a5a20ef9c0277001abe7040
True
bass guitar
392
What instrument is used without the drums for hard rock rhythms?
5a5a20ef9c0277001abe7041
True
screaming or wailing
579
What do the vocals of rock songs try to avoid?
5a5a20ef9c0277001abe7042
True
Hard rock is a form of loud, aggressive rock music. The electric guitar is often emphasised, used with distortion and other effects, both as a rhythm instrument using repetitive riffs with a varying degree of complexity, and as a solo lead instrument. Drumming characteristically focuses on driving rhythms, strong bass drum and a backbeat on snare, sometimes using cymbals for emphasis. The bass guitar works in conjunction with the drums, occasionally playing riffs, but usually providing a backing for the rhythm and lead guitars. Vocals are often growling, raspy, or involve screaming or wailing, sometimes in a high range, or even falsetto voice.
Who was the guitarist for the band Cream?
570b6d046b8089140040f94c
Eric Clapton
245
False
Who was the guitarist in the Kinks?
570b6d046b8089140040f94d
Dave Davies
551
False
Who played guitar in The Who?
570b6d046b8089140040f94e
Pete Townshend
615
False
When did The White Album come out?
570b6d046b8089140040f94f
1968
846
False
Keith Richards is the guitarist of what band?
570b6d046b8089140040f950
The Rolling Stones
595
False
Jimi Hendrix
61
Who was a hard rock act that pioneered the blues sound?
5a5a219c9c0277001abe7066
True
1966
147
When did The Jeff Beck Group record I Feel Free?
5a5a219c9c0277001abe7067
True
Eric Clapton
245
Which artist combined blues rock and psychedelia leaving out elements of jazz?
5a5a219c9c0277001abe7068
True
Jimi Hendrix
259
Who produced a form of psychedelic-influenced blues?
5a5a219c9c0277001abe7069
True
Jeff Beck
534
What artist avoided the use of distortion and pioneered new guitar effects?
5a5a219c9c0277001abe706a
True
Blues rock acts that pioneered the sound included Cream, The Jimi Hendrix Experience, and The Jeff Beck Group. Cream, in songs like "I Feel Free" (1966) combined blues rock with pop and psychedelia, particularly in the riffs and guitar solos of Eric Clapton. Jimi Hendrix produced a form of blues-influenced psychedelic rock, which combined elements of jazz, blues and rock and roll. From 1967 Jeff Beck brought lead guitar to new heights of technical virtuosity and moved blues rock in the direction of heavy rock with his band, The Jeff Beck Group. Dave Davies of The Kinks, Keith Richards of The Rolling Stones, Pete Townshend of The Who, Hendrix, Clapton and Beck all pioneered the use of new guitar effects like phasing, feedback and distortion. The Beatles began producing songs in the new hard rock style beginning with the White Album in 1968 and, with the track "Helter Skelter", attempted to create a greater level of noise than the Who. Stephen Thomas Erlewine of AllMusic has described the "proto-metal roar" of "Helter Skelter," while Ian MacDonald argued that "their attempts at emulating the heavy style were without exception embarrassing."
Who recorded the album School's Out?
570b6da3ec8fbc190045ba14
Alice Cooper
43
False
Tres Hombres is the name of an album by what band?
570b6da3ec8fbc190045ba15
ZZ Top
164
False
Who was the lead singer of Montrose?
570b6da3ec8fbc190045ba16
Sammy Hagar
478
False
Kiss' double live album Alive! came out in what year?
570b6da3ec8fbc190045ba17
1975
816
False
Who had a hit single with "(Don't Fear) The Reaper"?
570b6da3ec8fbc190045ba18
Blue Öyster Cult
1089
False
Alice Cooper
43
What British born singer achieved success with the album School's Out?
5a5a2ec89c0277001abe7098
True
Montrose
401
Who was the first British rock band to Challenge the American dominance of the hard rock genre?
5a5a2ec89c0277001abe7099
True
Kiss
626
What band did Alice Cooper mimic?
5a5a2ec89c0277001abe709a
True
1970s
889
What year was Toys in the Attic by Blue Oyster Cult produced?
5a5a2ec89c0277001abe709b
True
number 12
1404
How high on the billboard charts did the song (Don't Fear) The Reaper by Journey reach?
5a5a2ec89c0277001abe709c
True
In the United States, macabre-rock pioneer Alice Cooper achieved mainstream success with the top ten album School's Out (1972). In the following year blues rockers ZZ Top released their classic album Tres Hombres and Aerosmith produced their eponymous début, as did Southern rockers Lynyrd Skynyrd and proto-punk outfit New York Dolls, demonstrating the diverse directions being pursued in the genre. Montrose, including the instrumental talent of Ronnie Montrose and vocals of Sammy Hagar and arguably the first all American hard rock band to challenge the British dominance of the genre, released their first album in 1973. Kiss built on the theatrics of Alice Cooper and the look of the New York Dolls to produce a unique band persona, achieving their commercial breakthrough with the double live album Alive! in 1975 and helping to take hard rock into the stadium rock era. In the mid-1970s Aerosmith achieved their commercial and artistic breakthrough with Toys in the Attic (1975), which reached number 11 in the American album chart, and Rocks (1976), which peaked at number three. Blue Öyster Cult, formed in the late 60s, picked up on some of the elements introduced by Black Sabbath with their breakthrough live gold album On Your Feet or on Your Knees (1975), followed by their first platinum album, Agents of Fortune (1976), containing the hit single "(Don't Fear) The Reaper", which reached number 12 on the Billboard charts. Journey released their eponymous debut in 1975 and the next year Boston released their highly successful début album. In the same year, hard rock bands featuring women saw commercial success as Heart released Dreamboat Annie and The Runaways débuted with their self-titled album. While Heart had a more folk-oriented hard rock sound, the Runaways leaned more towards a mix of punk-influenced music and hard rock. The Amboy Dukes, having emerged from the Detroit garage rock scene and most famous for their Top 20 psychedelic hit "Journey to the Center of the Mind" (1968), were dissolved by their guitarist Ted Nugent, who embarked on a solo career that resulted in four successive multi-platinum albums between Ted Nugent (1975) and his best selling Double Live Gonzo (1978).
What was the title of Deep Purple's 1980s reunion album?
570b6ef56b8089140040f956
Perfect Strangers
163
False
What album was Van Halen's commercial high point?
570b6ef56b8089140040f957
1984
473
False
In what year did ZZ Top release Eliminator?
570b6ef56b8089140040f958
1983
1171
False
What band recorded "Keep On Loving You"?
570b6ef56b8089140040f959
REO Speedwagon
1337
False
The hit single "Amanda" was recorded by what band?
570b6ef56b8089140040f95a
Boston
1646
False
8
74
How many years was Deep Purple performing before producing Perfect Strangers?
5a5a3f9b9c0277001abe70ca
True
Perfect Strangers
163
What Deep Purple album reached number five on the US music charts?
5a5a3f9b9c0277001abe70cb
True
Fair Warning
354
What Van Halen album from 1982 had somewhat slower sales?
5a5a3f9b9c0277001abe70cc
True
Heart
645
Which Heart album contained 10 number one hits?
5a5a3f9b9c0277001abe70cd
True
Keep on Loving You
1358
What was ZZ Tops successful single produced in 1980?
5a5a3f9b9c0277001abe70ce
True
Established bands made something of a comeback in the mid-1980s. After an 8-year separation, Deep Purple returned with the classic Machine Head line-up to produce Perfect Strangers (1984), which reached number five in the UK, hit the top five in five other countries, and was a platinum-seller in the US. After somewhat slower sales of its fourth album, Fair Warning, Van Halen rebounded with the Top 3 album Diver Down in 1982, then reached their commercial pinnacle with 1984. It reached number two on the Billboard album chart and provided the track "Jump", which reached number one on the singles chart and remained there for several weeks. Heart, after floundering during the first half of the decade, made a comeback with their eponymous ninth studio album which hit number one and contained four Top 10 singles including their first number one hit. The new medium of video channels was used with considerable success by bands formed in previous decades. Among the first were ZZ Top, who mixed hard blues rock with new wave music to produce a series of highly successful singles, beginning with "Gimme All Your Lovin'" (1983), which helped their albums Eliminator (1983) and Afterburner (1985) achieve diamond and multi-platinum status respectively. Others found renewed success in the singles charts with power ballads, including REO Speedwagon with "Keep on Loving You" (1980) and "Can't Fight This Feeling" (1984), Journey with "Don't Stop Believin'" (1981) and "Open Arms" (1982), Foreigner's "I Want to Know What Love Is", Scorpions' "Still Loving You" (both from 1984), Heart’s "What About Love" (1985) and "These Dreams" (1986), and Boston's "Amanda" (1986).
What was Van Halen's last album with Sammy Hagar?
570b6fd2ec8fbc190045ba1e
Balance
462
False
Who was the Guns N Roses drummer who was fired by the band?
570b6fd2ec8fbc190045ba1f
Steven Adler
878
False
What former member of Extreme briefly served as the lead singer for Van Halen?
570b6fd2ec8fbc190045ba20
Gary Cherone
636
False
Who was the only original member left in Guns N Roses?
570b6fd2ec8fbc190045ba21
Axl Rose
1224
False
Slash left Guns N Roses in what year?
570b6fd2ec8fbc190045ba22
1996
1176
False
Whitesnake
102
Which band found their commercial success much greater after they re-united?
5a5a4cb69c0277001abe70fc
True
Balance
462
What album by Van Halen released in 1995 did not include Sammy Hagar on vocals?
5a5a4cb69c0277001abe70fd
True
Gary Cherone
636
Who replaced was the replacement for David Lee Roth after he was fired?
5a5a4cb69c0277001abe70fe
True
Van Halen III
727
What 2004 Van Halen album caused Van Halen to go on tour?
5a5a4cb69c0277001abe70ff
True
Tensions
1010
What did the release of Axl Rose's The Spaghetti Incident cause among the band?
5a5a4cb69c0277001abe7100
True
In the new commercial climate glam metal bands like Europe, Ratt, White Lion and Cinderella broke up, Whitesnake went on hiatus in 1991, and while many of these bands would re-unite again in the late 1990s or early 2000s, they never reached the commercial success they saw in the 1980s or early 1990s. Other bands such as Mötley Crüe and Poison saw personnel changes which impacted those bands' commercial viability during the decade. In 1995 Van Halen released Balance, a multi-platinum seller that would be the band's last with Sammy Hagar on vocals. In 1996 David Lee Roth returned briefly and his replacement, former Extreme singer Gary Cherone, was fired soon after the release of the commercially unsuccessful 1998 album Van Halen III and Van Halen would not tour or record again until 2004. Guns N' Roses' original lineup was whittled away throughout the decade. Drummer Steven Adler was fired in 1990, guitarist Izzy Stradlin left in late 1991 after recording Use Your Illusion I and II with the band. Tensions between the other band members and lead singer Axl Rose continued after the release of the 1993 covers album The Spaghetti Incident? Guitarist Slash left in 1996, followed by bassist Duff McKagan in 1997. Axl Rose, the only original member, worked with a constantly changing lineup in recording an album that would take over fifteen years to complete.
By the late 60s, what term was synonymous with hard rock?
570b70e66b8089140040f960
heavy metal
28
False
What heavy metal group introduced darker themes to the music?
570b70e66b8089140040f961
Black Sabbath
478
False
What genre was an influence on extreme metal in the 1980s?
570b70e66b8089140040f962
hardcore punk
648
False
Hard rock is differentiated from heavy metal by containing more of an influence of what genre?
570b70e66b8089140040f963
bluesy
203
False
In heavy metal, riffs typically form what element of a song?
570b70e66b8089140040f964
stand-alone melodies
380
False
heavy metal
28
Which term was never used interchangeably with hard rock?
5a5a21359c0277001abe7048
True
volume and intensity
152
What did hard rock music change to keep it's identity?
5a5a21359c0277001abe7049
True
heavy metal's riffs
340
What riffs were combined to create swing?
5a5a21359c0277001abe704a
True
Black Sabbath
478
What band had a 1960s break through with an emphasis on darker themes?
5a5a21359c0277001abe704b
True
hard rock and heavy metal
742
Which two genres have never considered to have very much in common?
5a5a21359c0277001abe704c
True
In the late 1960s, the term heavy metal was used interchangeably with hard rock, but gradually began to be used to describe music played with even more volume and intensity. While hard rock maintained a bluesy rock and roll identity, including some swing in the back beat and riffs that tended to outline chord progressions in their hooks, heavy metal's riffs often functioned as stand-alone melodies and had no swing in them. Heavy metal took on "darker" characteristics after Black Sabbath's breakthrough at the beginning of the 1970s. In the 1980s it developed a number of subgenres, often termed extreme metal, some of which were influenced by hardcore punk, and which further differentiated the two styles. Despite this differentiation, hard rock and heavy metal have existed side by side, with bands frequently standing on the boundary of, or crossing between, the genres.
Led Zeppelin's first two albums both came out in what year?
570b71adec8fbc190045ba28
1969
234
False
What was the title of Deep Purple's hard rock 1970 album?
570b71adec8fbc190045ba29
In Rock
417
False
Black Sabbath's lyrics contained references to what cultural touchstones?
570b71adec8fbc190045ba2a
occult and elements of Gothic horror
567
False
What is the title of Black Sabbath's 1970 album?
570b71adec8fbc190045ba2b
Paranoid
470
False
What is one band directly influenced by Black Sabbath?
570b71adec8fbc190045ba2c
Judas Priest
771
False
Zeppelin II
248
What acid rock album did Led Zeppelin record in 1970?
5a5a270a9c0277001abe707a
True
Deep Purple
272
What group moved from hard rock to progressive rock?
5a5a270a9c0277001abe707b
True
Deep Purple
272
Which group did not achieve a commercial breakthrough in 1970?
5a5a270a9c0277001abe707c
True
Black Sabbath
454
Who's lyrics contained elements that warned against the occult?
5a5a270a9c0277001abe707d
True
1970
480
What year did Judas Priest produced the album Paranoid?
5a5a270a9c0277001abe707e
True
By the end of the decade a distinct genre of hard rock was emerging with bands like Led Zeppelin, who mixed the music of early rock bands with a more hard-edged form of blues rock and acid rock on their first two albums Led Zeppelin (1969) and Led Zeppelin II (1969), and Deep Purple, who began as a progressive rock group but achieved their commercial breakthrough with their fourth and distinctively heavier album, In Rock (1970). Also significant was Black Sabbath's Paranoid (1970), which combined guitar riffs with dissonance and more explicit references to the occult and elements of Gothic horror. All three of these bands have been seen as pivotal in the development of heavy metal, but where metal further accentuated the intensity of the music, with bands like Judas Priest following Sabbath's lead into territory that was often "darker and more menacing", hard rock tended to continue to remain the more exuberant, good-time music.
What two genres made inroads on hard rock in the 1970s?
570b72646b8089140040f96a
disco in the US and punk rock in the UK
17
False
What punk band's songs rarely exceeded two minutes in length?
570b72646b8089140040f96b
The Ramones
287
False
What were three midwestern hard rock bands?
570b72646b8089140040f96c
Kansas, REO Speedwagon and Styx
724
False
What city was Van Halen originally from?
570b72646b8089140040f96d
Los Angeles
867
False
Which Van Halen instrumental showcased the guitar mastery of Eddie Van Halen?
570b72646b8089140040f96e
"Eruption"
1082
False
punk rock
37
What did hard rock replace as a mainstream genre?
5a5a34089c0277001abe70ac
True
drum solos and extended guitar solos
331
What did the punk band The Ramones embrace as part of their music?
5a5a34089c0277001abe70ad
True
Van Halen
840
What San Francisco band utilized the skills of guitarist Eddie Van Halen?
5a5a34089c0277001abe70ae
True
Eruption
1083
What album is the showcase song Van Halen from?
5a5a34089c0277001abe70af
True
Eddie Van Halen
946
Who was highly influential in creating the popularity of punk and disco music?
5a5a34089c0277001abe70b0
True
With the rise of disco in the US and punk rock in the UK, hard rock's mainstream dominance was rivalled toward the later part of the decade. Disco appealed to a more diverse group of people and punk seemed to take over the rebellious role that hard rock once held. Early punk bands like The Ramones explicitly rebelled against the drum solos and extended guitar solos that characterised stadium rock, with almost all of their songs clocking in around two minutes with no guitar solos. However, new rock acts continued to emerge and record sales remained high into the 1980s. 1977 saw the début and rise to stardom of Foreigner, who went on to release several platinum albums through to the mid-1980s. Midwestern groups like Kansas, REO Speedwagon and Styx helped further cement heavy rock in the Midwest as a form of stadium rock. In 1978, Van Halen emerged from the Los Angeles music scene with a sound based around the skills of lead guitarist Eddie Van Halen. He popularised a guitar-playing technique of two-handed hammer-ons and pull-offs called tapping, showcased on the song "Eruption" from the album Van Halen, which was highly influential in re-establishing hard rock as a popular genre after the punk and disco explosion, while also redefining and elevating the role of electric guitar.
How many copies did Whitesnake's 1987 self title album sell?
570b735dec8fbc190045ba32
17 million
116
False
What was the title of Aerosmith's 1987 comeback album?
570b735dec8fbc190045ba33
Permanent Vacation
524
False
Def Leppard's album Hysteria churned out how many hit singles?
570b735dec8fbc190045ba34
seven
901
False
What Guns N Roses album was the second best selling debut of all time?
570b735dec8fbc190045ba35
Appetite for Destruction
1010
False
What Guns N Roses song became a number one single?
570b735dec8fbc190045ba36
"Sweet Child O' Mine"
1157
False
the new commercial climate
32
What was benefited by the established acts?
5a5a44279c0277001abe70de
True
17 million copies
116
By how many albums did Deep Purple outsell Witesnake's self-titled album?
5a5a44279c0277001abe70df
True
it was a considerable disappointment
409
What did Steve Erlwine and Greg Prato call the performance of Deep Purples' song Here I Go Again?
5a5a44279c0277001abe70e0
True
Girls, Girls, Girls
754
With what song did Motley Crue reach their commercial peak?
5a5a44279c0277001abe70e1
True
a hard rock album
1896
What was number one on the Billboard 200 album charts for 20 consecutive weeks in 1988?
5a5a44279c0277001abe70e2
True
Established acts benefited from the new commercial climate, with Whitesnake's self-titled album (1987) selling over 17 million copies, outperforming anything in Coverdale's or Deep Purple's catalogue before or since. It featured the rock anthem "Here I Go Again '87" as one of 4 UK top 20 singles. The follow-up Slip of the Tongue (1989) went platinum, but according to critics Steve Erlwine and Greg Prato, "it was a considerable disappointment after the across-the-board success of Whitesnake". Aerosmith's comeback album Permanent Vacation (1987) would begin a decade long revival of their popularity. Crazy Nights (1987) by Kiss was the band's highest charting release in the US since 1979 and the highest of their career in the UK. Mötley Crüe with Girls, Girls, Girls (1987) continued their commercial success and Def Leppard with Hysteria (1987) hit their commercial peak, the latter producing seven hit singles (a record for a hard rock act). Guns N' Roses released the best-selling début of all time, Appetite for Destruction (1987). With a "grittier" and "rawer" sound than most glam metal, it produced three top 10 hits, including the number one "Sweet Child O' Mine". Some of the glam rock bands that formed in the mid-1980s, such as White Lion and Cinderella experienced their biggest success during this period with their respective albums Pride (1987) and Long Cold Winter (1988) both going multi-platinum and launching a series of hit singles. In the last years of the decade, the most notable successes were New Jersey (1988) by Bon Jovi, OU812 (1988) by Van Halen, Open Up and Say... Ahh! (1988) by Poison, Pump (1989) by Aerosmith, and Mötley Crüe's most commercially successful album Dr. Feelgood (1989). New Jersey spawned five Top 10 singles, a record for a hard rock act. In 1988 from 25 June to 5 November, the number one spot on the Billboard 200 album chart was held by a hard rock album for 18 out of 20 consecutive weeks; the albums were OU812, Hysteria, Appetite for Destruction, and New Jersey. A final wave of glam rock bands arrived in the late 1980s, and experienced success with multi-platinum albums and hit singles from 1989 until the early 1990s, among them Extreme, Warrant Slaughter and FireHouse. Skid Row also released their eponymous début (1989), reaching number six on the Billboard 200, but they were to be one of the last major bands that emerged in the glam rock era.
What hard rock supergroup contained members of Soundgarden and Rage Against the Machine?
570b745a6b8089140040f974
Audioslave
1074
False
What was the title of Bon Jovi's 2000 hit single?
570b745a6b8089140040f975
"It's My Life"
161
False
What band released an album called Stiff Upper Lip in 2000?
570b745a6b8089140040f976
AC/DC
237
False
Who was the lead singer of Stone Temple Pilots?
570b745a6b8089140040f977
Scott Weiland
1264
False
What was Guns N Roses long delayed 2008 album called?
570b745a6b8089140040f978
Chinese Democracy
1433
False
AC/DC
237
Which band beside Bon Jovi were two rock bands that had very little commercial success in the 1970s and 1980s?
5a5a50d49c0277001abe7110
True
2000
292
What year did Bon Jovi release their album Stiff Upper Lip?
5a5a50d49c0277001abe7111
True
Red Velvet Car
582
What top 10 album by Heart was released in the early 90s?
5a5a50d49c0277001abe7112
True
John Entwistle
845
What bassist for The Who died in 2006?
5a5a50d49c0277001abe7113
True
Chinese Democracy
1433
What Guns N' Roses album that was released in 2008 was there most successful album to date?
5a5a50d49c0277001abe7114
True
A few hard rock bands from the 1970s and 1980s managed to sustain highly successful recording careers. Bon Jovi were still able to achieve a commercial hit with "It's My Life" from their double platinum-certified album Crush (2000). and AC/DC released the platinum-certified Stiff Upper Lip (2000) Aerosmith released a number two platinum album, Just Push Play (2001), which saw the band foray further into pop with the Top 10 hit "Jaded", and a blues cover album, Honkin' on Bobo, which reached number five in 2004. Heart achieved their first Top 10 album since the early 90s with Red Velvet Car in 2010, becoming the first female-led hard rock band to earn Top 10 albums spanning five decades. There were reunions and subsequent tours from Van Halen (with Hagar in 2004 and then Roth in 2007), The Who (delayed in 2002 by the death of bassist John Entwistle until 2006) and Black Sabbath (with Osbourne 1997–2006 and Dio 2006–2010) and even a one off performance by Led Zeppelin (2007), renewing the interest in previous eras. Additionally, hard rock supergroups, such as Audioslave (with former members of Rage Against the Machine and Soundgarden) and Velvet Revolver (with former members of Guns N' Roses, punk band Wasted Youth and Stone Temple Pilots singer Scott Weiland), emerged and experienced some success. However, these bands were short-lived, ending in 2007 and 2008, respectively. The long awaited Guns N' Roses album Chinese Democracy was finally released in 2008, but only went platinum and failed to come close to the success of the band's late 1980s and early 1990s material. More successfully, AC/DC released the double platinum-certified Black Ice (2008). Bon Jovi continued to enjoy success, branching into country music with "Who Says You Can't Go Home", which reached number one on the Hot Country Singles chart in 2006, and the rock/country album Lost Highway, which reached number one in 2007. In 2009, Bon Jovi released another number one album, The Circle, which marked a return to their hard rock sound.
Great_Plains
what is the name of the region east of the Rocky Mountains?
570b61516b8089140040f8fe
"Great Plains
9
False
who brought the term great plains into widespread usage?
570b61516b8089140040f8ff
Nevin Fenneman's
167
False
what year was Nevin Fenneman's study?
570b61516b8089140040f900
1916
184
False
what was theregion called before "the great plans"?
570b61516b8089140040f901
the High Plains
354
False
Great Plains
10
What region lies east of the 96th or 98th meridian?
59d29adf2763a600182840fd
True
Nevin Fenneman
167
Who came up with the term High Plains?
59d29adf2763a600182840fe
True
Midwestern states
418
What area of states lie in the Great Plains?
59d29adf2763a600182840ff
True
20th century.
153
In what century did people start calling what we call the Great Plains the High Plains?
59d29adf2763a60018284100
True
The term "Great Plains", for the region west of about the 96th or 98th meridian and east of the Rocky Mountains, was not generally used before the early 20th century. Nevin Fenneman's 1916 study, Physiographic Subdivision of the United States, brought the term Great Plains into more widespread usage. Before that the region was almost invariably called the High Plains, in contrast to the lower Prairie Plains of the Midwestern states. Today the term "High Plains" is used for a subregion of the Great Plains.
what type of land is much of the great plans?
570b6365ec8fbc190045b9c0
open range
32
False
when did ranchers usually have a cattle round up?
570b6365ec8fbc190045b9c1
spring and fall
169
False
in a cattle round up, what did ranchers do to the new calves?
570b6365ec8fbc190045b9c2
branded
229
False
from 1866-95 about how many cattle did cowboys herd?
570b6365ec8fbc190045b9c3
10 million
384
False
1866
360
In what year were cattle first left free to roam the Great Plains?
59d2a07b2763a6001828412d
True
10 million
384
How many cowboys did it take to herd 10 million cattle north?
59d2a07b2763a6001828412e
True
10 million
384
How many people lived in Dodge City, Kansas in 1866?
59d2a07b2763a6001828412f
True
Ogallala, Nebraska
453
Where were the cattle shipped eastward to during the late 1800s?
59d2a07b2763a60018284130
True
10 million
384
How many cattle went through Dodge City, Kansas between the years 1866-95?
59d2a07b2763a60018284131
True
Much of the Great Plains became open range, or rangeland where cattle roamed free, hosting ranching operations where anyone was theoretically free to run cattle. In the spring and fall, ranchers held roundups where their cowboys branded new calves, treated animals and sorted the cattle for sale. Such ranching began in Texas and gradually moved northward. In 1866-95, cowboys herded 10 million cattle north to rail heads such as Dodge City, Kansas and Ogallala, Nebraska; from there, cattle were shipped eastward.
who was the spanish conquistador who had encounters with europeans and native americans?
570b64986b8089140040f91a
Francisco Vázquez de Coronado
20
False
who crossed a section of oklahoma and texas?
570b64986b8089140040f91b
Hernando de Soto
255
False
what is the section of oklahoma and texas that  Hernando de Soto traveled?
570b64986b8089140040f91c
the De Soto Trail
365
False
who thought the great plains were the locations of Quivira and Cíbola?
570b64986b8089140040f91d
The Spanish
384
False
what did the spanish think the cities of Quivira and Cíbola were rich in?
570b64986b8089140040f91e
gold
506
False
Texas
186
In what state did Francisco Vazquez de Coronado first encounter Native Americans?
59d29e6e2763a60018284119
True
Kansas
193
In 1540 Europeans first encountered Native Americans in what state?
59d29e6e2763a6001828411a
True
1540
218
In what year did the De Soto Trail gain its name?
59d29e6e2763a6001828411b
True
Spanish
388
What nationality was Hernando de Soto?
59d29e6e2763a6001828411c
True
1540
218
In what year did Texas become a state?
59d29e6e2763a6001828411d
True
With the arrival of Francisco Vázquez de Coronado, a Spanish conquistador, the first recorded history of encounter between Europeans and Native Americans in the Great Plains occurred in Texas, Kansas and Nebraska from 1540-1542. In that same time period, Hernando de Soto crossed a west-northwest direction in what is now Oklahoma and Texas. Today this is known as the De Soto Trail. The Spanish thought the Great Plains were the location of the mythological Quivira and Cíbola, a place said to be rich in gold.
what is the name of the line that divides the great plains?
570b6608ec8fbc190045b9dc
The 100th meridian
0
False
about how much rainfall does the great plains get per year?
570b6608ec8fbc190045b9dd
20 inches
109
False
what do high winds in the area sometimes cause?
570b6608ec8fbc190045b9de
dust storms
580
False
what type of climate does the eastern great plains fall into?
570b6608ec8fbc190045b9df
humid subtropical climate
657
False
Alberta
272
What Canadian province lies north of the Great Plains?
59d29da22763a6001828410f
True
Montana
320
What would be a state that lies east of the Great Plains?
59d29da22763a60018284110
True
100th
4
What meridian comprises the northern edge of the Great Plains?
59d29da22763a60018284111
True
100th
4
What meridian comprises the southern edge of the Great Plains?
59d29da22763a60018284112
True
20 inches
109
How much rain does Northern Alberta get every year?
59d29da22763a60018284113
True
The 100th meridian roughly corresponds with the line that divides the Great Plains into an area that receive 20 inches (510 millimetres) or more of rainfall per year and an area that receives less than 20 in (510 mm). In this context, the High Plains, as well as Southern Alberta, south-western Saskatchewan and Eastern Montana are mainly semi hot steppe land and are generally characterised by rangeland or marginal farmland. The region (especially the High Plains) is periodically subjected to extended periods of drought; high winds in the region may then generate devastating dust storms. The eastern Great Plains near the eastern boundary falls in the humid subtropical climate zone in the southern areas, and the northern and central areas fall in the humid continental climate.
after about what year did railroads bring hunters to the great plains?
570b690bec8fbc190045b9f8
1870
6
False
what animal did hunters kill off for their hides?
570b690bec8fbc190045b9f9
bison
94
False
what farmers rushed in to settle the land with the help of the railroads?
570b690bec8fbc190045b9fa
European farmers
189
False
what did the railroads offer the farmers that rushed in to settle the area?
570b690bec8fbc190045b9fb
packages of land and transportation
150
False
1870
6
In what year were the homestead laws passed?
59d29f642763a60018284123
True
617
561
How many towns existed in Kansas in 1950?
59d29f642763a60018284124
True
5000
516
How many free farms were doled out overall?
59d29f642763a60018284125
True
617
561
How many cities existed in Kansas as of 2000?
59d29f642763a60018284126
True
5000
516
How many bison were killed for their hides?
59d29f642763a60018284127
True
After 1870, the new railroads across the Plains brought hunters who killed off almost all the bison for their hides. The railroads offered attractive packages of land and transportation to European farmers, who rushed to settle the land. They (and Americans as well) also took advantage of the homestead laws to obtain free farms. Land speculators and local boosters identified many potential towns, and those reached by the railroad had a chance, while the others became ghost towns. In Kansas, for example, nearly 5000 towns were mapped out, but by 1970 only 617 were actually operating. In the mid-20th century, closeness to an interstate exchange determined whether a town would flourish or struggle for business.
how much of the population have the rural plains lost since 1920?
570b8145ec8fbc190045ba3c
a third
27
False
who declated the American frontier "closed" in 1893?
570b8145ec8fbc190045ba3d
Frederick Jackson Turner
276
False
how many ghost towns are in the state of Kansas?
570b8145ec8fbc190045ba3e
more than 6,000
459
False
how much prarie land does the "Buffalo Commons" want to return?
570b8145ec8fbc190045ba3f
139,000 square miles
1058
False
6
186
How many people lives per square mile on the Great Plains in 1900?
59d2a5782763a6001828415b
True
1893
351
In what year was the Great Plains considered "open" to inhabitants and farm activity?
59d2a5782763a6001828415c
True
6,000
469
What's the school-age population of Kansas?
59d2a5782763a6001828415d
True
1893
351
In what year was the "Buffalo Commons" proposal made?
59d2a5782763a6001828415e
True
6,000
469
How many high schools remain in Kansas?
59d2a5782763a6001828415f
True
The rural Plains have lost a third of their population since 1920. Several hundred thousand square miles (several hundred thousand square kilometers) of the Great Plains have fewer than 6 inhabitants per square mile (2.3 inhabitants per square kilometer)—the density standard Frederick Jackson Turner used to declare the American frontier "closed" in 1893. Many have fewer than 2 inhabitants per square mile (0.77 inhabitants per square kilometer). There are more than 6,000 ghost towns in the state of Kansas alone, according to Kansas historian Daniel Fitzgerald. This problem is often exacerbated by the consolidation of farms and the difficulty of attracting modern industry to the region. In addition, the smaller school-age population has forced the consolidation of school districts and the closure of high schools in some communities. The continuing population loss has led some to suggest that the current use of the drier parts of the Great Plains is not sustainable, and there has been a proposal - the "Buffalo Commons" - to return approximately 139,000 square miles (360,000 km2) of these drier parts to native prairie land.
who usually organized shared meals and potluck events?
570b819cec8fbc190045ba44
Women
356
False
Women
356
Who presided over church activities in the Great Plains?
59d2a3ad2763a6001828414b
True
Women
356
Who did barn raisings at farm on the Great Plains?
59d2a3ad2763a6001828414c
True
Women
356
Was it men or women that primarily engaged in corn huskings?
59d2a3ad2763a6001828414d
True
Women
356
Between men and women, who handled most school functions?
59d2a3ad2763a6001828414e
True
Although the eastern image of farm life in the prairies emphasized the isolation of the lonely farmer and wife, plains residents created busy social lives for themselves. They often sponsored activities that combined work, food and entertainment such as barn raisings, corn huskings, quilting bees, Grange meetings, church activities and school functions. Women organized shared meals and potluck events, as well as extended visits between families. The Grange was a nationwide farmers' organization, they reserved high offices for women, and gave them a voice in public affairs.
around when did the great plains become productive for crop growing
570b8219ec8fbc190045ba46
1950s
9
False
what is the large underground layer of water in the great plains called?
570b8219ec8fbc190045ba47
Ogallala Aquifer
266
False
what type of irrigation is used in the great plains?
570b8219ec8fbc190045ba48
Center pivot irrigation
363
False
the 1950s
5
When was the last ice age?
59d2a4a12763a60018284153
True
1950s
9
In what decade did center pivot irrigation get invented?
59d2a4a12763a60018284154
True
1950s
9
In what decade did aquafier depletion begin to outpace the ground's ability to recharge?
59d2a4a12763a60018284155
True
United States
151
In what country was center pivot irrigation invented?
59d2a4a12763a60018284156
True
From the 1950s on, many areas of the Great Plains have become productive crop-growing areas because of extensive irrigation on large landholdings. The United States is a major exporter of agricultural products. The southern portion of the Great Plains lies over the Ogallala Aquifer, a huge underground layer of water-bearing strata dating from the last ice age. Center pivot irrigation is used extensively in drier sections of the Great Plains, resulting in aquifer depletion at a rate that is greater than the ground's ability to recharge.
what is the great plains?
570b828bec8fbc190045ba4c
broad expanse of flat land
24
False
where does the great plains lie?
570b828bec8fbc190045ba4d
west of the Mississippi River
125
False
what is the region known for?
570b828bec8fbc190045ba4e
extensive cattle ranching
507
False
The Great Plains
0
What lies east of the Mississippi River tallgrass prairie states?
59d297d52763a600182840eb
True
The Great Plains
0
What lies west of the Rocky Mountains?
59d297d52763a600182840ec
True
Rocky Mountains
196
What lies north of the Great Plains?
59d297d52763a600182840ed
True
Mississippi River
137
What lies south of the Great Plains?
59d297d52763a600182840ee
True
Texas
386
Name one of the states the Mississippi River flows through.
59d297d52763a600182840ef
True
The Great Plains is the broad expanse of flat land (a plain), much of it covered in prairie, steppe and grassland, that lies west of the Mississippi River tallgrass prairie states and east of the Rocky Mountains in the United States and Canada. This area covers parts, but not all, of the states of Colorado, Kansas, Montana, Nebraska, New Mexico, North Dakota, Oklahoma, South Dakota, Texas, and Wyoming, and the Canadian provinces of Alberta, Manitoba and Saskatchewan. The region is known for supporting extensive cattle ranching and dry farming.
who is the North American Environmental Atlas made by?
570b83a86b8089140040f97e
Commission for Environmental Cooperation
56
False
what countries is the Commission for Environmental Cooperation made up of?
570b83a86b8089140040f97f
Mexican, American, and Canadian governments
158
False
Texas Louisiana
494
What states comprise the Temperate Prairies of the Great Plains?
59d2996f2763a600182840f5
True
Texas Louisiana
494
What states are in the West-Central Semi-Arid Praries?
59d2996f2763a600182840f6
True
Texas Louisiana
494
Which states are in the South-Central Semi-Arid Prairies?
59d2996f2763a600182840f7
True
Canadian
181
Between the Canadian, American, and Mexican portions of the Great Plains in which area does most of it lie?
59d2996f2763a600182840f8
True
The North American Environmental Atlas, produced by the Commission for Environmental Cooperation, a NAFTA agency composed of the geographical agencies of the Mexican, American, and Canadian governments uses the "Great Plains" as an ecoregion synonymous with predominant prairies and grasslands rather than as physiographic region defined by topography. The Great Plains ecoregion includes five sub-regions: Temperate Prairies, West-Central Semi-Arid Prairies, South-Central Semi-Arid Prairies, Texas Louisiana Coastal Plains, and Tamaulipus-Texas Semi-Arid Plain, which overlap or expand upon other Great Plains designations.
what mainly opened the great plains for settlement?
570b8534ec8fbc190045ba52
railroads
4
False
what did the railroads make it easy to do?
570b8534ec8fbc190045ba53
ship wheat and other crops
84
False
who did the railroads sell cheap lands to?
570b8534ec8fbc190045ba54
immigrants
260
False
who two new technologies were introducted in the 1930s?
570b8534ec8fbc190045ba55
sewing and washing machines
1055
False
1930s
740
In what decade did railroads start to appear in the Great Plains?
59d2a2d72763a60018284141
True
1930s
740
In what decade did many women work outdoors on the Great Plains?
59d2a2d72763a60018284142
True
1930s
740
In what decade were washing machines introduced?
59d2a2d72763a60018284143
True
1930s
740
In what decade did schools start offering home economics courses?
59d2a2d72763a60018284144
True
1930s
740
In what decade did the Great Plains start shipping wheat east?
59d2a2d72763a60018284145
True
The railroads opened up the Great Plains for settlement, for now it was possible to ship wheat and other crops at low cost to the urban markets in the East, and Europe. Homestead land was free for American settlers. Railroads sold their land at cheap rates to immigrants in expectation they would generate traffic as soon as farms were established. Immigrants poured in, especially from Germany and Scandinavia. On the plains, very few single men attempted to operate a farm or ranch by themselves; they clearly understood the need for a hard-working wife, and numerous children, to handle the many chores, including child-rearing, feeding and clothing the family, managing the housework, feeding the hired hands, and, especially after the 1930s, handling paperwork and financial details. During the early years of settlement, farm women played an integral role in assuring family survival by working outdoors. After approximately one generation, women increasingly left the fields, thus redefining their roles within the family. New technology including sewing and washing machines encouraged women to turn to domestic roles. The scientific housekeeping movement, promoted across the land by the media and government extension agents, as well as county fairs which featured achievements in home cookery and canning, advice columns for women regarding farm bookkeeping, and home economics courses in the schools.
about how long ago did the climate become favorable?
570b85a5ec8fbc190045ba5a
about 25 million years ago
38
False
what animals did the grasslands provide a new home for?
570b85a5ec8fbc190045ba5b
mammals
294
False
what diet did the mammals switch to from browsing diets?
570b85a5ec8fbc190045ba5c
grazing diets
377
False
the spread of grasslands and what have been strongly linked?
570b85a5ec8fbc190045ba5d
development of grazers
440
False
25 million
44
How many years ago did the Cenozoic era start?
59d29c042763a60018284105
True
Cenozoic
11
In what era did ungulates start eating a browsing diet?
59d29c042763a60018284106
True
Cenozoic
11
In what era did mammals develop teeth?
59d29c042763a60018284107
True
Cenozoic
11
In what era did forest biomes start to grow?
59d29c042763a60018284108
True
25 million years ago
44
When did the Cenozoic era end?
59d29c042763a60018284109
True
During the Cenozoic era, specifically about 25 million years ago during the Miocene and Pliocene epochs, the continental climate became favorable to the evolution of grasslands. Existing forest biomes declined and grasslands became much more widespread. The grasslands provided a new niche for mammals, including many ungulates and glires, that switched from browsing diets to grazing diets. Traditionally, the spread of grasslands and the development of grazers have been strongly linked. However, an examination of mammalian teeth suggests that it is the open, gritty habitat and not the grass itself which is linked to diet changes in mammals, giving rise to the "grit, not grass" hypothesis.
when did the US pass the Homestead ACt?
570b8627ec8fbc190045ba62
1862
126
False
how much land did the Homestead Act allow a person to claim?
570b8627ec8fbc190045ba63
up to 160 acres
162
False
how long did the person have to live on the land?
570b8627ec8fbc190045ba64
five years
240
False
when was the Kinkaid Act brought about?
570b8627ec8fbc190045ba65
1904
324
False
the dominion act was passed in what year
570b8627ec8fbc190045ba66
1871
962
False
1862
126
In what year was the Kinkaid Act repealed?
59d2a1c92763a60018284137
True
1904
324
In what year was the Dominions Lands Act repealed?
59d2a1c92763a60018284138
True
1871
962
In what year did the relatively wet years of the Great Plains end?
59d2a1c92763a60018284139
True
Hundreds of thousands
374
What number of people established homestead in Canada?
59d2a1c92763a6001828413a
True
Hundreds of thousands
374
How many homesteaders failed to establish cultivated land?
59d2a1c92763a6001828413b
True
To allow for agricultural development of the Great Plains and house a growing population, the US passed the Homestead Acts of 1862: it allowed a settler to claim up to 160 acres (65 ha) of land, provided that he lived on it for a period of five years and cultivated it. The provisions were expanded under the Kinkaid Act of 1904 to include a homestead of an entire section. Hundreds of thousands of people claimed such homesteads, sometimes building sod houses out of the very turf of their land. Many of them were not skilled dryland farmers and failures were frequent. Much of the Plains were settled during relatively wet years. Government experts did not understand how farmers should cultivate the prairies and gave advice counter to what would have worked[citation needed]. Germans from Russia who had previously farmed, under similar circumstances, in what is now Ukraine were marginally more successful than other homesteaders. The Dominion Lands Act of 1871 served a similar function for establishing homesteads on the prairies in Canada.
Infrared
Along with industrial and medical, in what applications is infrared radiation used?
570b8ef3ec8fbc190045ba6c
scientific
42
False
What technology is used by night-vision devices?
570b8ef3ec8fbc190045ba6d
active near-infrared illumination
107
False
What discipline uses infrared telescopes to see through molecular clouds?
570b8ef3ec8fbc190045ba6e
Infrared astronomy
217
False
What color shift indicates that space objects date from the early days of the universe?
570b8ef3ec8fbc190045ba6f
red
382
False
What devices are used to observe insulated system heat loss?
570b8ef3ec8fbc190045ba70
Infrared thermal-imaging cameras
439
False
active near-infrared illumination
107
What technology allows infrared thermal imaging cameras to observe people or animals without being detected?
5a07bed60ff9ab00181693ac
True
active near-infrared illumination
107
What technology is used by night vision devices to observe changing blood flow in the skin?
5a07bed60ff9ab00181693ad
True
Infrared astronomy
217
What science discipline uses infrared thermal-imaging cameras to penetrate dusty regions of space?
5a07bed60ff9ab00181693ae
True
scientific
42
Along with industrial and medical, in what applications is infrared astronomy used?
5a07bed60ff9ab00181693af
True
Infrared radiation
0
What type of radiation is used to detect heat loss in insulated systems?
5a07bed60ff9ab00181693b0
True
Infrared radiation is used in industrial, scientific, and medical applications. Night-vision devices using active near-infrared illumination allow people or animals to be observed without the observer being detected. Infrared astronomy uses sensor-equipped telescopes to penetrate dusty regions of space, such as molecular clouds; detect objects such as planets, and to view highly red-shifted objects from the early days of the universe. Infrared thermal-imaging cameras are used to detect heat loss in insulated systems, to observe changing blood flow in the skin, and to detect overheating of electrical apparatus.
At what wavelength does the human eye become significantly less sensitive to light?
570b8f6cec8fbc190045ba76
700 nm
257
False
What sort of light is generated by IR lasers?
570b8f6cec8fbc190045ba77
near-IR
408
False
Up to what wavelength does the human eye perceive IR LED sources as red?
570b8f6cec8fbc190045ba78
780 nm
569
False
Up to what wavelength does the human eye perceive certain intense lights as being dull red in color?
570b8f6cec8fbc190045ba79
1050 nm
654
False
What objects are notably bright in near IR?
570b8f6cec8fbc190045ba7a
Leaves
852
False
at various values typically between 700 nm and 800 nm
68
What is the defined boundary between visible and infrared light?
5a07c6570ff9ab00181693c0
True
700
257
At what wavelength does the human eye perceive red light?
5a07c6570ff9ab00181693c1
True
near-IR
740
What light is generated by an IR-passing photographic filter?
5a07c6570ff9ab00181693c2
True
Leaves
852
What objects are hard to see if all visible light leaks are blocked?
5a07c6570ff9ab00181693c3
True
The onset of infrared
0
What value measures wavelengths as long as 1050?
5a07c6570ff9ab00181693c4
True
The onset of infrared is defined (according to different standards) at various values typically between 700 nm and 800 nm, but the boundary between visible and infrared light is not precisely defined. The human eye is markedly less sensitive to light above 700 nm wavelength, so longer wavelengths make insignificant contributions to scenes illuminated by common light sources. However, particularly intense near-IR light (e.g., from IR lasers, IR LED sources, or from bright daylight with the visible light removed by colored gels) can be detected up to approximately 780 nm, and will be perceived as red light. Sources providing wavelengths as long as 1050 nm can be seen as a dull red glow in intense sources, causing some difficulty in near-IR illumination of scenes in the dark (usually this practical problem is solved by indirect illumination). Leaves are particularly bright in the near IR, and if all visible light leaks from around an IR-filter are blocked, and the eye is given a moment to adjust to the extremely dim image coming through a visually opaque IR-passing photographic filter, it is possible to see the Wood effect that consists of IR-glowing foliage.
What is the term for the property that describes how a surface's thermal emissions deviate from the ideal of a black body?
570b9002ec8fbc190045ba80
emissivity
15
False
How will the infrared image of an object with a higher emissivity appear in relation to one with lower emissivity?
570b9002ec8fbc190045ba81
hotter
432
False
Along with pyrometers, what devices can receive inaccurate results if emissivity is not set correctly?
570b9002ec8fbc190045ba82
infrared cameras
585
False
emissivity
15
What property describes how a surfaces thermal emissions give inaccurate results when using infrared cameras and pyrometers?
5a07d2a20ff9ab00181693dc
True
infrared image
292
What shows the same image of two objects with differing emissivity?
5a07d2a20ff9ab00181693dd
True
black body
192
What ideal shows inaccurate results when using infrared cameras?
5a07d2a20ff9ab00181693de
True
for any pre-set emissivity value, objects with higher emissivity will appear hotter, and those with a lower emissivity will appear cooler.
355
How does pre-set emissivity help infrared cameras give accurate results?
5a07d2a20ff9ab00181693df
True
The concept of emissivity is important in understanding the infrared emissions of objects.
0
How does comparing two differing objects to a black body give you accurate results?
5a07d2a20ff9ab00181693e0
True
The concept of emissivity is important in understanding the infrared emissions of objects. This is a property of a surface that describes how its thermal emissions deviate from the ideal of a black body. To further explain, two objects at the same physical temperature will not show the same infrared image if they have differing emissivity. For example, for any pre-set emissivity value, objects with higher emissivity will appear hotter, and those with a lower emissivity will appear cooler. For that reason, incorrect selection of emissivity will give inaccurate results when using infrared cameras and pyrometers.
What is the technique that analyzes the constituent bonds of molecules to identify them?
570b909a6b8089140040f982
Infrared vibrational spectroscopy
0
False
What happens to a molecule if an oscillation results in a dipole being changed?
570b909a6b8089140040f983
it will absorb a photon that has the same frequency
471
False
What do the vibrational frequencies of molecules usually correspond to?
570b909a6b8089140040f984
the frequencies of infrared light
584
False
What is the term for light radiation in the 4000–400 cm−1 spectrum?
570b909a6b8089140040f985
the mid-infrared
721
False
Infrared vibrational spectroscopy
0
What technique can be used to identify organic compounds by analysis of their constituent bonds?
5a07ec283fc874001820705f
True
multiple
304
A group of chemical bonds in a molecule may have how many modes of oscillation?
5a07ec283fc8740018207060
True
infrared light
603
What do most vibrations correspond to the frequencies of?
5a07ec283fc8740018207061
True
the stretching and bending motions of the group as a whole.
344
What are multiple modes of oscillation in a spectrum caused by?
5a07ec283fc8740018207062
True
3200 cm−1
1001
What is the amount of absorption a group of atoms will show in cm?
5a07ec283fc8740018207063
True
Infrared vibrational spectroscopy (see also near-infrared spectroscopy) is a technique that can be used to identify molecules by analysis of their constituent bonds. Each chemical bond in a molecule vibrates at a frequency characteristic of that bond. A group of atoms in a molecule (e.g., CH2) may have multiple modes of oscillation caused by the stretching and bending motions of the group as a whole. If an oscillation leads to a change in dipole in the molecule then it will absorb a photon that has the same frequency. The vibrational frequencies of most molecules correspond to the frequencies of infrared light. Typically, the technique is used to study organic compounds using light radiation from 4000–400 cm−1, the mid-infrared. A spectrum of all the frequencies of absorption in a sample is recorded. This can be used to gain information about the sample composition in terms of chemical groups present and also its purity (for example, a wet sample will show a broad O-H absorption around 3200 cm−1).
What is used in infrared photography to capture the near-infrared spectrum?
570b91106b8089140040f98a
infrared filters
25
False
What devices are often equipped with infrared blockers?
570b91106b8089140040f98b
Digital cameras
90
False
What is the technique that involves imaging with terahertz radiation?
570b91106b8089140040f98c
'T-ray' imaging
490
False
What is another name for terahertz radiation?
570b91106b8089140040f98d
far-infrared
530
False
What is a notable recent development in T-ray imaging?
570b91106b8089140040f98e
terahertz time-domain spectroscopy
784
False
infrared filters
25
What does T-ray imaging use to capture the near-infrared spectrum?
5a07dcd73fc8740018207023
True
terahertz time-domain spectroscopy.
784
What is a recent development in infrared photography?
5a07dcd73fc8740018207024
True
far-infrared
530
What is another name for IR bright areas?
5a07dcd73fc8740018207025
True
Digital cameras
90
What device uses far-infrared or terahertz radiation?
5a07dcd73fc8740018207026
True
when taking pictures of subjects near IR-bright areas (such as near a lamp)
314
How do infrared blockers wash out an image?
5a07dcd73fc8740018207027
True
In infrared photography, infrared filters are used to capture the near-infrared spectrum. Digital cameras often use infrared blockers. Cheaper digital cameras and camera phones have less effective filters and can "see" intense near-infrared, appearing as a bright purple-white color. This is especially pronounced when taking pictures of subjects near IR-bright areas (such as near a lamp), where the resulting infrared interference can wash out the image. There is also a technique called 'T-ray' imaging, which is imaging using far-infrared or terahertz radiation. Lack of bright sources can make terahertz photography more challenging than most other infrared imaging techniques. Recently T-ray imaging has been of considerable interest due to a number of new developments such as terahertz time-domain spectroscopy.
What technique is used in art to examine underlying layers of a painting without damaging it?
570b92316b8089140040f994
Infrared reflectography
0
False
What shows up particularly well in reflectograms?
570b92316b8089140040f995
carbon black
278
False
What is the term for differences in the painting and underdrawing made by the original artist?
570b92316b8089140040f996
pentimenti
564
False
Infrared reflectography
0
What painting technique is used to reveal working practices?
5a07ff1a3fc87400182070f3
True
carbon black
278
What is visible in alterations of paintings?
5a07ff1a3fc87400182070f4
True
pentimenti
564
What is it called when visible layers differ from the reflectogram?
5a07ff1a3fc87400182070f5
True
pentimenti
564
What is useful to show if a painting is original or part of a reflectogram?
5a07ff1a3fc87400182070f6
True
the prime version.
866
With carbon black what is the painting more likely to be?
5a07ff1a3fc87400182070f7
True
Infrared reflectography (fr; it; es), as called by art conservators, can be applied to paintings to reveal underlying layers in a completely non-destructive manner, in particular the underdrawing or outline drawn by the artist as a guide. This often reveals the artist's use of carbon black, which shows up well in reflectograms, as long as it has not also been used in the ground underlying the whole painting. Art conservators are looking to see whether the visible layers of paint differ from the underdrawing or layers in between – such alterations are called pentimenti when made by the original artist. This is very useful information in deciding whether a painting is the prime version by the original artist or a copy, and whether it has been altered by over-enthusiastic restoration work. In general, the more pentimenti the more likely a painting is to be the prime version. It also gives useful insights into working practices.
Who discovered infrared radiation?
570b92846b8089140040f99a
William Herschel
51
False
In what year did Herschel publish his work on infrared radiation?
570b92846b8089140040f99b
1800
146
False
To whom did Herschel present his work on infrared radiation?
570b92846b8089140040f99c
the Royal Society of London
158
False
What device did Herschel use to discover the infrared?
570b92846b8089140040f99d
a prism
201
False
What did Herschel call the infrared spectrum?
570b92846b8089140040f99e
Calorific Rays
417
False
William Herschel
51
Who discovered spectrum radiation?
5a0809c63fc874001820712f
True
late in the 19th century
475
When did the term Calorific Rays start to be used?
5a0809c63fc8740018207130
True
a prism
201
What did Herschel use to detect light from the sun?
5a0809c63fc8740018207131
True
light
220
What did Herschel refract from Calorific Rays?
5a0809c63fc8740018207132
True
the Royal Society of London
158
What society did Herschel present his work on the red spectrum?
5a0809c63fc8740018207133
True
The discovery of infrared radiation is ascribed to William Herschel, the astronomer, in the early 19th century. Herschel published his results in 1800 before the Royal Society of London. Herschel used a prism to refract light from the sun and detected the infrared, beyond the red part of the spectrum, through an increase in the temperature recorded on a thermometer. He was surprised at the result and called them "Calorific Rays". The term 'Infrared' did not appear until late in the 19th century.
What is a commonly used term for infrared radiation?
570b933d6b8089140040f9a4
heat radiation
42
False
What percentage of the Earth's heat is derived from the Sun's infrared light?
570b933d6b8089140040f9a5
49%
207
False
What is the common range of emitted radiation of room temperature objects, in micrometers?
570b933d6b8089140040f9a6
8 to 25
527
False
Other than infrared light, what type of light is responsible for heating the Earth?
570b933d6b8089140040f9a7
visible
266
False
Infrared radiation
0
What radiation is responsible for 49% of the heating of the Earth?
5a07c82b0ff9ab00181693ca
True
visible light
590
Other than infrared light, what type of light is responsible for emitting visible radiation?
5a07c82b0ff9ab00181693cb
True
Visible light or ultraviolet-emitting lasers
337
What type of light or laser will emit radiation concentrated mostly in the 8 to 25 um band?
5a07c82b0ff9ab00181693cc
True
electromagnetic waves
90
What type of waves will char paper?
5a07c82b0ff9ab00181693cd
True
Infrared radiation is popularly known as "heat radiation"[citation needed], but light and electromagnetic waves of any frequency will heat surfaces that absorb them. Infrared light from the Sun accounts for 49% of the heating of Earth, with the rest being caused by visible light that is absorbed then re-radiated at longer wavelengths. Visible light or ultraviolet-emitting lasers can char paper and incandescently hot objects emit visible radiation. Objects at room temperature will emit radiation concentrated mostly in the 8 to 25 µm band, but this is not distinct from the emission of visible light by incandescent objects and ultraviolet by even hotter objects (see black body and Wien's displacement law).
What is another term for infrared homing?
570b93a36b8089140040f9ac
Infrared tracking
0
False
What devices make use of infrared homing?
570b93a36b8089140040f9ad
Missiles
212
False
What is a common name for missiles that make use of infrared seeking?
570b93a36b8089140040f9ae
heat-seekers
273
False
Along with aircraft and people, what objects notably create and retain heat?
570b93a36b8089140040f9af
vehicle engines
434
False
What does IR stand for?
570b93a36b8089140040f9b0
infrared
294
False
Infrared tracking
0
What is another term for heat seekers?
5a07e4543fc874001820702d
True
Missiles
212
Besides vehicle engines and people what other objects create and retain heat?
5a07e4543fc874001820702e
True
heat-seekers
273
What term means to generate heat and is especially visible in infrared wavelengths of light?
5a07e4543fc874001820702f
True
infrared homing
33
What is the term that uses the infrared spectrum that is radiated by hot bodies?
5a07e4543fc8740018207030
True
infrared
294
What term describes the spectrum of light that is part of the visible spectrum?
5a07e4543fc8740018207031
True
Infrared tracking, also known as infrared homing, refers to a passive missile guidance system, which uses the emission from a target of electromagnetic radiation in the infrared part of the spectrum to track it. Missiles that use infrared seeking are often referred to as "heat-seekers", since infrared (IR) is just below the visible spectrum of light in frequency and is radiated strongly by hot bodies. Many objects such as people, vehicle engines, and aircraft generate and retain heat, and as such, are especially visible in the infrared wavelengths of light compared to objects in the background.
Along with Cirrus, what types of clouds are cold and high?
570b9ec26b8089140040f9b6
Cumulonimbus
40
False
What color do Cirrus clouds appear in infrared?
570b9ec26b8089140040f9b7
white
68
False
Along with Stratus, what clouds are lower and warmer?
570b9ec26b8089140040f9b8
Stratocumulus
114
False
What color are Strarus clouds in infrared?
570b9ec26b8089140040f9b9
grey
139
False
What is the range of the near-infrared channel in micrometers?
570b9ec26b8089140040f9ba
1.58–1.64
520
False
Cirrus
30
Besides cumulonimbus, what types of clouds are lower and warmer?
5a07f1fa3fc8740018207099
True
Cirrus or Cumulonimbus
30
What ice clouds show up grey in infrared?
5a07f1fa3fc874001820709a
True
Hot land surfaces
189
What land surface can be a similar temperature to the surrounding land?
5a07f1fa3fc874001820709b
True
grey
139
What color are lower intermediate clouds on infrared?
5a07f1fa3fc874001820709c
True
the difference in brightness of the IR4 channel (10.3–11.5 µm) and the near-infrared channel (1.58–1.64 µm)
426
What difference allows high clouds to be distinguished?
5a07f1fa3fc874001820709d
True
High, cold ice clouds such as Cirrus or Cumulonimbus show up bright white, lower warmer clouds such as Stratus or Stratocumulus show up as grey with intermediate clouds shaded accordingly. Hot land surfaces will show up as dark-grey or black. One disadvantage of infrared imagery is that low cloud such as stratus or fog can be a similar temperature to the surrounding land or sea surface and does not show up. However, using the difference in brightness of the IR4 channel (10.3–11.5 µm) and the near-infrared channel (1.58–1.64 µm), low cloud can be distinguished, producing a fog satellite picture. The main advantage of infrared is that images can be produced at night, allowing a continuous sequence of weather to be studied.
What limits the sensitivity of infrared telescopes on Earth?
570b9fa36b8089140040f9c0
water vapor in the atmosphere
79
False
To somewhat avoid the water vapor in the atmosphere, where can an observatory be sited?
570b9fa36b8089140040f9c1
at a high altitude
302
False
Along with aircraft, what object can be used to carry a telescope aloft?
570b9fa36b8089140040f9c2
balloon
364
False
What sorts of telescopes completely avoid water vapor in Earth's atmosphere?
570b9fa36b8089140040f9c3
Space telescopes
388
False
water vapor in the atmosphere
79
What limits the sensitivity of high altitude observatories?
5a07f52b3fc87400182070ad
True
outer space
446
What is the ideal location for atmospheric windows?
5a07f52b3fc87400182070ae
True
Space telescopes
388
What kind of telescopes avoid absorbing infrared radiation?
5a07f52b3fc87400182070af
True
at a high altitude
302
Where can you place an observatory to avoid the atmospheric window?
5a07f52b3fc87400182070b0
True
water vapor in the atmosphere,
79
What absorbs infrared radiation from space away from high altitude?
5a07f52b3fc87400182070b1
True
The sensitivity of Earth-based infrared telescopes is significantly limited by water vapor in the atmosphere, which absorbs a portion of the infrared radiation arriving from space outside of selected atmospheric windows. This limitation can be partially alleviated by placing the telescope observatory at a high altitude, or by carrying the telescope aloft with a balloon or an aircraft. Space telescopes do not suffer from this handicap, and so outer space is considered the ideal location for infrared astronomy.
What is the nearest wavelength to the radiation that a human eye can see?
570ba092ec8fbc190045ba86
Near-infrared
0
False
Along with the emission peaks and vs. bands mechanisms, what other physical mechanism is used to define near-infrared?
570ba092ec8fbc190045ba87
water absorption
254
False
In micrometers, when do common silicon detectors cease to be sensitive?
570ba092ec8fbc190045ba88
1,050
365
False
What is the lowest level of sensitivity, in micrometers, for InGaAs?
570ba092ec8fbc190045ba89
950
416
False
950
416
What is the lowest international standard in micrometers for InGaAs?
5a07c1ec0ff9ab00181693b6
True
Near-infrared
0
What is the nearest emission peak visible to the human eye?
5a07c1ec0ff9ab00181693b7
True
water absorption
254
Along with the emission peaks and vs. bands mechanisms, what other physical mechanism is used to define common silicon detectors?
5a07c1ec0ff9ab00181693b8
True
mid- and far-infrared
96
What InGaAs is progressively further from the visible spectrum for the human eye?
5a07c1ec0ff9ab00181693b9
True
1,050
365
At what measurement do different physical mechanisms cease to be sensitive?
5a07c1ec0ff9ab00181693ba
True
Near-infrared is the region closest in wavelength to the radiation detectable by the human eye, mid- and far-infrared are progressively further from the visible spectrum. Other definitions follow different physical mechanisms (emission peaks, vs. bands, water absorption) and the newest follow technical reasons (the common silicon detectors are sensitive to about 1,050 nm, while InGaAs's sensitivity starts around 950 nm and ends between 1,700 and 2,600 nm, depending on the specific configuration). Unfortunately, international standards for these specifications are not currently available.
What is the term for transit energy flowing as a result of differences in temperature?
570ba1b2ec8fbc190045ba8e
Heat
0
False
What type of heat transmission can propagate through a vacuum?
570ba1b2ec8fbc190045ba8f
thermal radiation
137
False
What object emits thermal radiation in the X-ray spectrum?
570ba1b2ec8fbc190045ba90
the solar corona
608
False
The visible, ultraviolet and X-ray spectra are all above what spectrum?
570ba1b2ec8fbc190045ba91
infrared
531
False
flows due to temperature difference
31
How does heat propagate through a vaccuum?
5a07cb0b0ff9ab00181693d2
True
the solar corona
608
What object emits heat in the x-ray spectrum?
5a07cb0b0ff9ab00181693d3
True
due to the vibration of its molecules at a given temperature
316
How is heat associated with emission from an object?
5a07cb0b0ff9ab00181693d4
True
visible, ultraviolet, and even X-ray regions
556
What spectra is heat extended into?
5a07cb0b0ff9ab00181693d5
True
is only a coincidence based on typical (comparatively low) temperatures often found near the surface of planet Earth.
702
What is the association of heat with thermal radiation?
5a07cb0b0ff9ab00181693d6
True
Heat is energy in transit that flows due to temperature difference. Unlike heat transmitted by thermal conduction or thermal convection, thermal radiation can propagate through a vacuum. Thermal radiation is characterized by a particular spectrum of many wavelengths that is associated with emission from an object, due to the vibration of its molecules at a given temperature. Thermal radiation can be emitted from objects at any wavelength, and at very high temperatures such radiations are associated with spectra far above the infrared, extending into visible, ultraviolet, and even X-ray regions (i.e., the solar corona). Thus, the popular association of infrared radiation with thermal radiation is only a coincidence based on typical (comparatively low) temperatures often found near the surface of planet Earth.
What is the range of the electromagnetic spectrum in micrometers?
570ba229ec8fbc190045ba96
0.9–14
127
False
In nanometers, what is the electromagnetic spectrum's range?
570ba229ec8fbc190045ba97
900–14,000
102
False
What law states that infrared radiation is emitted by objects based on temperature?
570ba229ec8fbc190045ba98
the black body radiation law
269
False
What happens to the amount of radiation an object emits as temperature increases?
570ba229ec8fbc190045ba99
increases
440
False
What type of cameras see infrared radiation?
570ba229ec8fbc190045ba9a
Thermographic
0
False
Thermographic cameras
0
What camera detects temperature in the infrared range?
5a07d87b3fc8740018207019
True
the black body radiation law
269
What law states that infrared radiation is emitted by objects based on environment?
5a07d87b3fc874001820701a
True
increases
440
When an object has visible illumination, what happens to the amount of radiation an object emits?
5a07d87b3fc874001820701b
True
0.9–14
127
What is the range of the black body radiation law?
5a07d87b3fc874001820701c
True
900–14,000 nanometers
102
What is the nanometer range that allows you to see temperature variations?
5a07d87b3fc874001820701d
True
Thermographic cameras detect radiation in the infrared range of the electromagnetic spectrum (roughly 900–14,000 nanometers or 0.9–14 μm) and produce images of that radiation. Since infrared radiation is emitted by all objects based on their temperatures, according to the black body radiation law, thermography makes it possible to "see" one's environment with or without visible illumination. The amount of radiation emitted by an object increases with temperature, therefore thermography allows one to see variations in temperature (hence the name).
What irradiates clouds of gas in the galaxy and makes them glow?
570ba2b3ec8fbc190045baa0
imbedded stars
195
False
What can be detected via infrared prior to their emitting visible light?
570ba2b3ec8fbc190045baa1
protostars
247
False
What objects emit less of their energy as infrared light versus visible light?
570ba2b3ec8fbc190045baa2
Stars
299
False
Cold, dark molecular clouds of gas and dust
82
What glows with heat and shows visible light?
5a07f8453fc87400182070cb
True
Infrared
211
What can be used to detect protostars when they are cool?
5a07f8453fc87400182070cc
True
infrared portion of the spectrum
4
What spectrum benefits stars?
5a07f8453fc87400182070cd
True
imbedded stars
195
What heats clouds of gas and makes them readily detected?
5a07f8453fc87400182070ce
True
their energy
331
What do stars emit a smaller portion of in our galaxy?
5a07f8453fc87400182070cf
True
The infrared portion of the spectrum has several useful benefits for astronomers. Cold, dark molecular clouds of gas and dust in our galaxy will glow with radiated heat as they are irradiated by imbedded stars. Infrared can also be used to detect protostars before they begin to emit visible light. Stars emit a smaller portion of their energy in the infrared spectrum, so nearby cool objects such as planets can be more readily detected. (In the visible light spectrum, the glare from the star will drown out the reflected light from a planet.)
What sort of equipment uses the infrared spectrum in the absence of sufficient visible light?
570ba2ff6b8089140040f9c8
night vision
20
False
What do night vision devices convert ambient light photons into?
570ba2ff6b8089140040f9c9
electrons
194
False
Along with a chemical process, what type of process is used by night vision devices to convert infrared into visible light?
570ba2ff6b8089140040f9ca
electrical
246
False
night vision
20
What equipment uses the infrared spectrum with visible light?
5a07d58c0ff9ab00181693e6
True
photons
181
What do night vision devices convert electrons into?
5a07d58c0ff9ab00181693e7
True
electrical
246
By what process do night vision devices convert infrared into photons?
5a07d58c0ff9ab00181693e8
True
conversion
387
What process uses a chemical source to augment ambient light?
5a07d58c0ff9ab00181693e9
True
in-the-dark visibility
434
What does a visible light source increase for a night vision device?
5a07d58c0ff9ab00181693ea
True
Infrared is used in night vision equipment when there is insufficient visible light to see. Night vision devices operate through a process involving the conversion of ambient light photons into electrons that are then amplified by a chemical and electrical process and then converted back into visible light. Infrared light sources can be used to augment the available ambient light for conversion by night vision devices, increasing in-the-dark visibility without actually using a visible light source.
What is the IrDA?
570baa0f6b8089140040f9ce
the Infrared Data Association
189
False
What does the acronym LEDs stand for?
570baa0f6b8089140040f9cf
light-emitting diodes
266
False
What is a term for when something is switched on and off?
570baa0f6b8089140040f9d0
modulated
388
False
What device is used to transform infrared radiation into an electric current?
570baa0f6b8089140040f9d1
silicon photodiode
465
False
Why does infrared not cause trouble for devices in adjacent rooms?
570baa0f6b8089140040f9d2
IR does not penetrate walls
775
False
modulated
388
What term means filtering out slowly to change infrared radiation from ambient light?
5a07ea473fc874001820704b
True
silicon photodiode
465
What device changes infrared radiation to standards published by the Ir DA?
5a07ea473fc874001820704c
True
computer peripherals and personal digital assistants
73
What devices use IR data transmission in short range communication to command appliances?
5a07ea473fc874001820704d
True
Remote controls and IrDA devices
220
Name the devices that use IrDA to emit infrared radiation that is focused by a plastic lens into a narrow beam.
5a07ea473fc874001820704e
True
RC-5, SIRC
982
What infrared remote control protocols are used in areas of high population density?
5a07ea473fc874001820704f
True
IR data transmission is also employed in short-range communication among computer peripherals and personal digital assistants. These devices usually conform to standards published by IrDA, the Infrared Data Association. Remote controls and IrDA devices use infrared light-emitting diodes (LEDs) to emit infrared radiation that is focused by a plastic lens into a narrow beam. The beam is modulated, i.e. switched on and off, to encode the data. The receiver uses a silicon photodiode to convert the infrared radiation to an electric current. It responds only to the rapidly pulsing signal created by the transmitter, and filters out slowly changing infrared radiation from ambient light. Infrared communications are useful for indoor use in areas of high population density. IR does not penetrate walls and so does not interfere with other devices in adjoining rooms. Infrared is the most common way for remote controls to command appliances. Infrared remote control protocols like RC-5, SIRC, are used to communicate with infrared.
What letter represents the index of refraction?
570baaabec8fbc190045baa6
n
241
False
What letter represents the extinction Coefficient?
570baaabec8fbc190045baa7
k
276
False
What equations are used to figure out the index of refraction and extinction Coefficient?
570baaabec8fbc190045baa8
Forouhi-Bloomer dispersion
305
False
Along with critical dimension and depth, what can the infrared light reflectance be used to determine in regard to high aspect ratio trench structures?
570baaabec8fbc190045baa9
sidewall angle
448
False
What reflectance is measured from a semiconductor wafer's surface to determine the index of refraction?
570baaabec8fbc190045baaa
light
167
False
the semiconductor industry
3
What industry can use infrared light to characterize the extinction Coefficient?
5a07ee703fc874001820707d
True
light
167
What reflectance is measured from the surface of a critical dimension?
5a07ee703fc874001820707e
True
(n)
240
What letter represents trench structures?
5a07ee703fc874001820707f
True
sidewall angle
448
Along with critical dimension and depth, what can infrared light reflectance be used to determine in regard to index of refraction?
5a07ee703fc8740018207080
True
In the semiconductor industry, infrared light can be used to characterize materials such as thin films and periodic trench structures. By measuring the reflectance of light from the surface of a semiconductor wafer, the index of refraction (n) and the extinction Coefficient (k) can be determined via the Forouhi-Bloomer dispersion equations. The reflectance from the infrared light can also be used to determine the critical dimension, depth, and sidewall angle of high aspect ratio trench structures.
What is the name of the technique used in scanners to minimize the effects of dust and scratches?
570bab20ec8fbc190045bab0
Infrared cleaning
0
False
Along with red and blue, what is the third visible color channel?
570bab20ec8fbc190045bab1
green
333
False
Along with replacement via inpainting, what procedure is used in infrared cleaning to remove the effect of scratches and dust?
570bab20ec8fbc190045bab2
scaling
515
False
Along with the visible light channels, what channel is used to locate scratches and dust in scanners?
570bab20ec8fbc190045bab3
infrared
355
False
Infrared cleaning
0
What cleaning technique is used to find position and resolution?
5a07fa813fc87400182070df
True
defects
487
What can be corrected by scanning or scaling?
5a07fa813fc87400182070e0
True
red, green, and blue
328
What color channels are used to detect inpainting?
5a07fa813fc87400182070e1
True
collecting an additional infrared channel from the scan at the same position and resolution as the three visible color channels
199
What does infrared cleaning do to detect scaling?
5a07fa813fc87400182070e2
True
Infrared cleaning
0
What removes the effects of an additional infrared channel on the scanner?
5a07fa813fc87400182070e3
True
Infrared cleaning is a technique used by some Motion picture film scanner, film scanners and flatbed scanners to reduce or remove the effect of dust and scratches upon the finished scan. It works by collecting an additional infrared channel from the scan at the same position and resolution as the three visible color channels (red, green, and blue). The infrared channel, in combination with the other channels, is used to detect the location of scratches and dust. Once located, those defects can be corrected by scaling or replaced by inpainting.
Along with the surface of the Earth, what objects absorb radiation from the sun?
570baba0ec8fbc190045bab8
clouds
24
False
After Earth surface's absorbs radiation, in what spectrum is much of it re-emitted?
570baba0ec8fbc190045bab9
infrared
117
False
Along with water vapor, what atmospheric substance primarily absorbs the infrared emitted by the Earth?
570baba0ec8fbc190045baba
cloud droplets
192
False
What notable warming effect does the presence of infrared absorbers contribute to?
570baba0ec8fbc190045babb
greenhouse
412
False
visible and invisible radiation
38
What does the greenhouse effect absorb from the sun?
5a0803c33fc8740018207111
True
infrared
331
After Earth absorbs methane, in what spectrum is it re-emitted?
5a0803c33fc8740018207112
True
cloud droplets and water vapor
192
What substances absorb the sulfur hexafluoride emitted by the Earth?
5a0803c33fc8740018207113
True
greenhouse effect
412
What keeps the atmosphere and surface re-radiated?
5a0803c33fc8740018207114
True
infrared absorbers
487
What substances emit water vapor back to the atmosphere?
5a0803c33fc8740018207115
True
Earth's surface and the clouds absorb visible and invisible radiation from the sun and re-emit much of the energy as infrared back to atmosphere. Certain substances in the atmosphere, chiefly cloud droplets and water vapor, but also carbon dioxide, methane, nitrous oxide, sulfur hexafluoride, and chlorofluorocarbons, absorb this infrared, and re-radiate it in all directions including back to Earth. Thus, the greenhouse effect keeps the atmosphere and surface much warmer than if the infrared absorbers were absent from the atmosphere.
Biodiversity
What term refers to  the variety and variability of life on Earth?
570bc0386b8089140040fa0a
Biodiversity
0
False
What types of variations does Biodiversity refer to?
570bc0386b8089140040fa0b
genetic variation, ecosystem variation, or species variation
352
False
What type of biodiversity happens near the equator?
570bc0386b8089140040fa0c
Terrestrial biodiversity
467
False
Where on Earth is biodiversity the most abundnant?
570bc0386b8089140040fa0d
It is richest in the tropics.
659
False
Where is sea surface temperature the highest?
570bc0386b8089140040fa0e
along coasts in the Western Pacific
729
False
Biodiversity
0
What term refers to the temperature of life on earth?
5a8c9fb1fd22b3001a8d8bfe
True
genetic variation, ecosystem variation, or species variation
352
What types of temperature does Biodiversity refer to?
5a8c9fb1fd22b3001a8d8bff
True
Terrestrial
467
What type of temperature happens near the equator?
5a8c9fb1fd22b3001a8d8c00
True
the tropics
676
Where on earth does temperature have the most variety?
5a8c9fb1fd22b3001a8d8c01
True
along coasts in the Western Pacific
729
Where is sea surface biodiversity the highest?
5a8c9fb1fd22b3001a8d8c02
True
Biodiversity, a contraction of "biological diversity," generally refers to the variety and variability of life on Earth. One of the most widely used definitions defines it in terms of the variability within species, between species, and between ecosystems. It is a measure of the variety of organisms present in different ecosystems. This can refer to genetic variation, ecosystem variation, or species variation (number of species) within an area, biome, or planet. Terrestrial biodiversity tends to be greater near the equator, which seems to be the result of the warm climate and high primary productivity. Biodiversity is not distributed evenly on Earth. It is richest in the tropics. Marine biodiversity tends to be highest along coasts in the Western Pacific, where sea surface temperature is highest and in the mid-latitudinal band in all oceans. There are latitudinal gradients in species diversity. Biodiversity generally tends to cluster in hotspots, and has been increasing through time, but will be likely to slow in the future.
Who is the author of the biodiversity research paper?
570bc2566b8089140040fa14
Bruce A. Wilcox
155
False
Who commissioned the biodiversity research paper?
570bc2566b8089140040fa15
International Union for the Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources (IUCN)
191
False
At what event was the biodiversity research paper presented?
570bc2566b8089140040fa16
1982 World National Parks Conference
279
False
What year did the United Nations Earth Summit define "biological diversity"?
570bc2566b8089140040fa17
1992
504
False
Bruce A. Wilcox
155
Who is the author of the park research paper?
5a8ca483fd22b3001a8d8c94
True
International Union for the Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources (IUCN)
191
Who commissioned the park research paper?
5a8ca483fd22b3001a8d8c95
True
1982 World National Parks Conference
279
At what event was the park research paper presented?
5a8ca483fd22b3001a8d8c96
True
1992
504
What year did the IUCN define "biological diversity"?
5a8ca483fd22b3001a8d8c97
True
the variability among living organisms from all sources
572
What did the IUCN define "biological diversity" as?
5a8ca483fd22b3001a8d8c98
True
This multilevel construct is consistent with Dasmann and Lovejoy. An explicit definition consistent with this interpretation was first given in a paper by Bruce A. Wilcox commissioned by the International Union for the Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources (IUCN) for the 1982 World National Parks Conference. Wilcox's definition was "Biological diversity is the variety of life forms...at all levels of biological systems (i.e., molecular, organismic, population, species and ecosystem)...". The 1992 United Nations Earth Summit defined "biological diversity" as "the variability among living organisms from all sources, including, 'inter alia', terrestrial, marine, and other aquatic ecosystems, and the ecological complexes of which they are part: this includes diversity within species, between species and of ecosystems". This definition is used in the United Nations Convention on Biological Diversity.
What model correlates much better than the hyperbolic model?
570bc3996b8089140040fa1c
the Phanerozoic
35
False
What model is widely used in macrosociology?
570bc3996b8089140040fa1d
hyperbolic model
82
False
What models imply that changes in diversity are guided by a first-order positive feedback?
570bc3996b8089140040fa1e
exponential and logistic models
208
False
What model implies a second-order positive feedback?
570bc3996b8089140040fa1f
Hyperbolic model
433
False
What can be accounted for by a feedback between diversity and community structure complexity?
570bc3996b8089140040fa20
The hyperbolic character of biodiversity growth
657
False
the Phanerozoic
35
What model correlates much better than the cyclical model?
5a8cab72fd22b3001a8d8d02
True
hyperbolic model
82
What model is widely used in Stochastic dynamics?
5a8cab72fd22b3001a8d8d03
True
exponential and logistic models
208
What models imply that changes in diversity are guided by stochastic dynamics?
5a8cab72fd22b3001a8d8d04
True
Hyperbolic model
433
What model implies a second-order macrosociology trend?
5a8cab72fd22b3001a8d8d05
True
The hyperbolic character of biodiversity growth
657
What can be accounted for by a feedback between diversity and macrosociology trends?
5a8cab72fd22b3001a8d8d06
True
On the other hand, changes through the Phanerozoic correlate much better with the hyperbolic model (widely used in population biology, demography and macrosociology, as well as fossil biodiversity) than with exponential and logistic models. The latter models imply that changes in diversity are guided by a first-order positive feedback (more ancestors, more descendants) and/or a negative feedback arising from resource limitation. Hyperbolic model implies a second-order positive feedback. The hyperbolic pattern of the world population growth arises from a second-order positive feedback between the population size and the rate of technological growth. The hyperbolic character of biodiversity growth can be similarly accounted for by a feedback between diversity and community structure complexity. The similarity between the curves of biodiversity and human population probably comes from the fact that both are derived from the interference of the hyperbolic trend with cyclical and stochastic dynamics.
What has some responsibility for offering variety in what we eat?
570bc5976b8089140040fa26
Interspecific crop diversity
0
False
What is the variety of alleles within a single species?
570bc5976b8089140040fa27
Interspecific crop diversity
0
False
When do we rely on agricultural diversity to replant the land with something new?
570bc5976b8089140040fa28
If a crop fails in a monoculture
200
False
What can destroy a wheat crop?
570bc5976b8089140040fa29
a pest
340
False
What type of a society primarily grows monocultures?
570bc5976b8089140040fa2a
agricultural society
567
False
Interspecific crop diversity
0
What has some responsibility for offering variety in monoculture?
5a8cae40fd22b3001a8d8d2a
True
Intraspecific diversity
91
What is the variety of alleles within a single production area?
5a8cae40fd22b3001a8d8d2b
True
If a crop fails in a monoculture
200
When do we rely on production diversity to replant the land with something new?
5a8cae40fd22b3001a8d8d2c
True
a pest
340
What can destroy a single species?
5a8cae40fd22b3001a8d8d2d
True
agricultural society
567
What type of a society primarily grows wheat?
5a8cae40fd22b3001a8d8d2e
True
Interspecific crop diversity is, in part, responsible for offering variety in what we eat. Intraspecific diversity, the variety of alleles within a single species, also offers us choice in our diets. If a crop fails in a monoculture, we rely on agricultural diversity to replant the land with something new. If a wheat crop is destroyed by a pest we may plant a hardier variety of wheat the next year, relying on intraspecific diversity. We may forgo wheat production in that area and plant a different species altogether, relying on interspecific diversity. Even an agricultural society which primarily grows monocultures, relies on biodiversity at some point.
What percentage of biodiversity has the planet lost since 1970
570bc6466b8089140040fa30
52%
39
False
What year was they study done by the World Wildlife Fund?
570bc6466b8089140040fa31
2014
89
False
What percentage accounts for the terrestrial wildlife gone?
570bc6466b8089140040fa32
39%
322
False
What percentage accounts for the marine wildlife gone?
570bc6466b8089140040fa33
39%
370
False
What percentage accounts for the freshwater wildlife gone?
570bc6466b8089140040fa34
76%
408
False
52%
39
What percentage of biodiversity has the planet lost since 2014?
5a8cb299fd22b3001a8d8d5c
True
2014
89
What year was the study canceled by World Wildlife Fund?
5a8cb299fd22b3001a8d8d5d
True
39%
322
What percentage accounts for the low-income countries gone?
5a8cb299fd22b3001a8d8d5e
True
39%
370
What percentage accounts for the wealthy nations gone?
5a8cb299fd22b3001a8d8d5f
True
76%
408
What percentage accounts for the Latin America freshwater wildlife gone?
5a8cb299fd22b3001a8d8d60
True
In absolute terms, the planet has lost 52% of its biodiversity since 1970 according to a 2014 study by the World Wildlife Fund. The Living Planet Report 2014 claims that "the number of mammals, birds, reptiles, amphibians and fish across the globe is, on average, about half the size it was 40 years ago". Of that number, 39% accounts for the terrestrial wildlife gone, 39% for the marine wildlife gone, and 76% for the freshwater wildlife gone. Biodiversity took the biggest hit in Latin America, plummeting 83 percent. High-income countries showed a 10% increase in biodiversity, which was canceled out by a loss in low-income countries. This is despite the fact that high-income countries use five times the ecological resources of low-income countries, which was explained as a result of process whereby wealthy nations are outsourcing resource depletion to poorer nations, which are suffering the greatest ecosystem losses.
In which year was the study published that found biodiversity and genetic diversity are codependent?
570bc7826b8089140040fa3a
2007
2
False
Who conducted the 2007 study?
570bc7826b8089140040fa3b
National Science Foundation
30
False
What can cause a break down of a biodiversity system?
570bc7826b8089140040fa3c
If any one type is removed from the system
203
False
Where are the most threatened ecosystems found?
570bc7826b8089140040fa3d
in fresh water
384
False
2007
2
In which year was the study published that found biodiversity and community diversity are codependent?
5a8cb54afd22b3001a8d8d84
True
National Science Foundation
30
Who conducted the 2000 study?
5a8cb54afd22b3001a8d8d85
True
If any one type is removed from the system
203
What can cause a break down of a water system?
5a8cb54afd22b3001a8d8d86
True
in fresh water
384
Where are the most threatened species found?
5a8cb54afd22b3001a8d8d87
True
Millennium Ecosystem Assessment 2005
417
What said that the most threatened ecosystems are found in France?
5a8cb54afd22b3001a8d8d88
True
A 2007 study conducted by the National Science Foundation found that biodiversity and genetic diversity are codependent—that diversity among species requires diversity within a species, and vice versa. "If any one type is removed from the system, the cycle can break down, and the community becomes dominated by a single species." At present, the most threatened ecosystems are found in fresh water, according to the Millennium Ecosystem Assessment 2005, which was confirmed by the "Freshwater Animal Diversity Assessment", organised by the biodiversity platform, and the French Institut de recherche pour le développement (MNHNP).
What may unintentionally injure a species that depends on the species it replaces?
570bc8b4ec8fbc190045baf2
an introduced species
9
False
Where does the Prunus spinosa leaf much sooner?
570bc8b4ec8fbc190045baf3
In Belgium
109
False
What animal can its feeding habits disturbed by the Prunus spinosa?
570bc8b4ec8fbc190045baf4
leaves endemic and other local species unable to compete with the exotic species and unable to survive
332
False
What species struggle to with the introduction of new species?
570bc8b4ec8fbc190045baf5
endemic and other local species
339
False
What types of new species can be introduced?
570bc8b4ec8fbc190045baf6
The exotic organisms may be predators, parasites
436
False
an introduced species
9
What may unintentionally injure a species that depends on the species it feeds on?
5a8cc204fd22b3001a8d8e16
True
In Belgium
109
Where does the Prunus spinosa leaf without sunlight?
5a8cc204fd22b3001a8d8e17
True
Prunus spinosa from Eastern Europe leafs much sooner
121
What disrupts the feeding habits of exotic organisms?
5a8cc204fd22b3001a8d8e18
True
often leaves endemic and other local species unable to compete
326
What does introducing new spinosas often do?
5a8cc204fd22b3001a8d8e19
True
exotic
398
What types of new nutrients can be introduced?
5a8cc204fd22b3001a8d8e1a
True
Finally, an introduced species may unintentionally injure a species that depends on the species it replaces. In Belgium, Prunus spinosa from Eastern Europe leafs much sooner than its West European counterparts, disrupting the feeding habits of the Thecla betulae butterfly (which feeds on the leaves). Introducing new species often leaves endemic and other local species unable to compete with the exotic species and unable to survive. The exotic organisms may be predators, parasites, or may simply outcompete indigenous species for nutrients, water and light.
What plays a vital role in harbouring floral and faunal species?
570bcd11ec8fbc190045bafc
The forests
0
False
How many endemic floral species do forests harbor?
570bcd11ec8fbc190045bafd
5150
103
False
How many endemic faunal species do forests harbor?
570bcd11ec8fbc190045bafe
1837
119
False
What types of animals and plans are confined to a specific geographical area?
570bcd11ec8fbc190045baff
endemic species
229
False
What types of activities are granted rights in reserved forests?
570bcd11ec8fbc190045bb00
hunting and grazing
293
False
The forests
0
What plays a vital role in harbouring finges?
5a8cbf23fd22b3001a8d8de6
True
5150
103
How many endemic floral species does grazing harbor?
5a8cbf23fd22b3001a8d8de7
True
1837
119
How many endemic faunal species does grazing harbor?
5a8cbf23fd22b3001a8d8de8
True
endemic species
229
What types of animals and plans are confined to a specific forest?
5a8cbf23fd22b3001a8d8de9
True
hunting and grazing
293
What types of activities are granted rights in reserved species?
5a8cbf23fd22b3001a8d8dea
True
The forests play a vital role in harbouring more than 45,000 floral and 81,000 faunal species of which 5150 floral and 1837 faunal species are endemic. Plant and animal species confined to a specific geographical area are called endemic species. In reserved forests, rights to activities like hunting and grazing are sometimes given to communities living on the fringes of the forest, who sustain their livelihood partially or wholly from forest resources or products. The unclassed forests covers 6.4 percent of the total forest area and they are marked by the following characteristics:
What global agreement gives sovereign national rights over biological resources?
570bce18ec8fbc190045bb06
the Convention on Biological Diversity
26
False
What agreement commits countries to conserve biodiversity?
570bce18ec8fbc190045bb07
the Convention on Biological Diversity
26
False
What agreement commits countries to develop resources for sustainability?
570bce18ec8fbc190045bb08
the Convention on Biological Diversity
26
False
What is the process of collecting natural products?
570bce18ec8fbc190045bb09
bioprospecting
323
False
the Convention on Biological Diversity
26
What global agreement gives sovereign national rights over private resources?
5a8cbffbfd22b3001a8d8dfa
True
the Convention on Biological Diversity
26
What agreement commits countries to conserve bioprospecting?
5a8cbffbfd22b3001a8d8dfb
True
the Convention on Biological Diversity
26
What agreement commits countries to develop resources for biopiracy?
5a8cbffbfd22b3001a8d8dfc
True
Bioprospecting
519
What is the process of collecting national rights?
5a8cbffbfd22b3001a8d8dfd
True
a share of the benefits
380
What do countries that allow natural agreements expect?
5a8cbffbfd22b3001a8d8dfe
True
Global agreements such as the Convention on Biological Diversity, give "sovereign national rights over biological resources" (not property). The agreements commit countries to "conserve biodiversity", "develop resources for sustainability" and "share the benefits" resulting from their use. Biodiverse countries that allow bioprospecting or collection of natural products, expect a share of the benefits rather than allowing the individual or institution that discovers/exploits the resource to capture them privately. Bioprospecting can become a type of biopiracy when such principles are not respected.[citation needed]
What can typically cause mass extinctions?
570bceb66b8089140040fa4c
Rapid environmental changes
0
False
What percentage of species is estimated to be extinct?
570bceb66b8089140040fa4d
More than 99 percent
62
False
How many species have ever lived on earth?
570bceb66b8089140040fa4e
over five billion species
112
False
How many species currently live on earth?
570bceb66b8089140040fa4f
Earth's current species range from 10 million to 14 million,
220
False
What is the estimated weight of the total amount of related DNA base pairs on Earth?
570bceb66b8089140040fa50
50 billion tonnes
469
False
Rapid environmental changes
0
What can typically cause the biosphere?
5a8ca117fd22b3001a8d8c26
True
More than 99 percent
62
What percentage of DNA base pairs are estimated to be extinct?
5a8ca117fd22b3001a8d8c27
True
over five billion
112
How many DNA base pairs have ever existed?
5a8ca117fd22b3001a8d8c28
True
10 million to 14 million
255
How many DNA base pairs are on earth?
5a8ca117fd22b3001a8d8c29
True
50 billion tonnes
469
What is the estimated weight of the total amount of species on Earth?
5a8ca117fd22b3001a8d8c2a
True
Rapid environmental changes typically cause mass extinctions. More than 99 percent of all species, amounting to over five billion species, that ever lived on Earth are estimated to be extinct. Estimates on the number of Earth's current species range from 10 million to 14 million, of which about 1.2 million have been documented and over 86 percent have not yet been described. The total amount of related DNA base pairs on Earth is estimated at 5.0 x 1037, and weighs 50 billion tonnes. In comparison, the total mass of the biosphere has been estimated to be as much as 4 TtC (trillion tons of carbon).
Which era included a rapid growth period?
570bd0036b8089140040fa56
the Cambrian explosion
113
False
The Phanerozoic era covers what time period?
570bd0036b8089140040fa57
the last 540 million years
52
False
In which era, did the first phylum of multicellular organisms appear?
570bd0036b8089140040fa58
the Cambrian explosion
113
False
What type of diversity showed an overall exponential trend?
570bd0036b8089140040fa59
vertebrate diversity
316
False
In which event did the rainforests collapsed in the carboniferous?
570bd0036b8089140040fa5a
the Permian-Triassic extinction event
586
False
the Cambrian explosion
113
Which era included a rapid phylum period?
5a8ca6b4fd22b3001a8d8cbc
True
the last 540 million years
52
The Cambrian era covers what time period?
5a8ca6b4fd22b3001a8d8cbd
True
the Cambrian explosion
113
In which era, did the first phylum of organisms appear?
5a8ca6b4fd22b3001a8d8cbe
True
vertebrate
316
What type of diversity showed an overall extinction trend?
5a8ca6b4fd22b3001a8d8cbf
True
the Permian-Triassic extinction event
586
In which event did the vertebrates collapse in the carboniferous?
5a8ca6b4fd22b3001a8d8cc0
True
The history of biodiversity during the Phanerozoic (the last 540 million years), starts with rapid growth during the Cambrian explosion—a period during which nearly every phylum of multicellular organisms first appeared. Over the next 400 million years or so, invertebrate diversity showed little overall trend, and vertebrate diversity shows an overall exponential trend. This dramatic rise in diversity was marked by periodic, massive losses of diversity classified as mass extinction events. A significant loss occurred when rainforests collapsed in the carboniferous. The worst was the Permian-Triassic extinction event, 251 million years ago. Vertebrates took 30 million years to recover from this event.
Who describes the "Evil Quartet"?
570bd0d9ec8fbc190045bb18
Jared Diamond
0
False
What describes habitat destruction, overkill, introduced species, and secondary extinctions?
570bd0d9ec8fbc190045bb19
Evil Quartet
28
False
What describes Habitat destruction, Invasive species, Pollution, human over-Population, and Over-harvesting?
570bd0d9ec8fbc190045bb1a
HIPPO
160
False
What is the most authoritative classification in use today?
570bd0d9ec8fbc190045bb1b
IUCN's Classification of Direct Threats
328
False
What funding organization uses the IUCN's Classification of Direct Threats?
570bd0d9ec8fbc190045bb1c
the World Wildlife Fund
476
False
Jared Diamond
0
Who describes the "IUCN"?
5a8cb3bbfd22b3001a8d8d66
True
Evil Quartet
28
What describes habitat destruction, overkill, introduced species, and organization extinctions?
5a8cb3bbfd22b3001a8d8d67
True
HIPPO
160
What describes Habitat destruction, Invasive species, Pollution, human over Population, and Over-conservation?
5a8cb3bbfd22b3001a8d8d68
True
IUCN's Classification of Direct Threats
328
What is the most invasive classification in use today?
5a8cb3bbfd22b3001a8d8d69
True
the World Wildlife Fund
476
What funding organization uses IUCN's Classification of Direct Population?
5a8cb3bbfd22b3001a8d8d6a
True
Jared Diamond describes an "Evil Quartet" of habitat destruction, overkill, introduced species, and secondary extinctions. Edward O. Wilson prefers the acronym HIPPO, standing for Habitat destruction, Invasive species, Pollution, human over-Population, and Over-harvesting. The most authoritative classification in use today is IUCN's Classification of Direct Threats which has been adopted by major international conservation organizations such as the US Nature Conservancy, the World Wildlife Fund, Conservation International, and BirdLife International.
What can threaten endemic species with extinction?
570bd233ec8fbc190045bb28
genetic pollution
73
False
What are another names for genetic pollution?
570bd233ec8fbc190045bb29
uncontrolled hybridization, introgression and genetic swamping
97
False
What causes genetic pollution?
570bd233ec8fbc190045bb2a
either a numerical and/or fitness advantage of an introduced species
250
False
What are are side-effects of introduction and invasion?
570bd233ec8fbc190045bb2b
Hybridization and introgression
320
False
What behavior causes swamping of a gene pool?
570bd233ec8fbc190045bb2c
The abundant species can interbreed with the rare species
509
False
genetic pollution
73
What can threaten morphological species with extinction?
5a8cba9cfd22b3001a8d8daa
True
uncontrolled hybridization, introgression and genetic swamping
97
What is another name for interbreeding?
5a8cba9cfd22b3001a8d8dab
True
either a numerical and/or fitness advantage of an introduced species
250
What causes introgression pollution?
5a8cba9cfd22b3001a8d8dac
True
Hybridization and introgression
320
What are side-effects of introduction and pollution?
5a8cba9cfd22b3001a8d8dad
True
The abundant species can interbreed with the rare species
509
What behavior causes swamping of a normal adaptation?
5a8cba9cfd22b3001a8d8dae
True
Endemic species can be threatened with extinction through the process of genetic pollution, i.e. uncontrolled hybridization, introgression and genetic swamping. Genetic pollution leads to homogenization or replacement of local genomes as a result of either a numerical and/or fitness advantage of an introduced species. Hybridization and introgression are side-effects of introduction and invasion. These phenomena can be especially detrimental to rare species that come into contact with more abundant ones. The abundant species can interbreed with the rare species, swamping its gene pool. This problem is not always apparent from morphological (outward appearance) observations alone. Some degree of gene flow is normal adaptation, and not all gene and genotype constellations can be preserved. However, hybridization with or without introgression may, nevertheless, threaten a rare species' existence.
What is the estimate age of the Earth?
570bd2fcec8fbc190045bb32
about 4.54 billion years old
24
False
What era contains the earliest undisputed evidence of life on Earth?
570bd2fcec8fbc190045bb33
the Eoarchean Era
154
False
What is the name of the era that predated life on Earth?
570bd2fcec8fbc190045bb34
Hadean Eon
246
False
Where were the billion year old microbial mat fossils found?
570bd2fcec8fbc190045bb35
Western Australia
345
False
Where were the 3.7 billion-year-old metasedimentary rocks discovered?
570bd2fcec8fbc190045bb36
Western Greenland
490
False
about 4.54 billion years old
24
What is the estimate age of rocks?
5a8ca215fd22b3001a8d8c4e
True
the Eoarchean Era
154
What era contains the earliest undisputed evidence of rocks on Earth?
5a8ca215fd22b3001a8d8c4f
True
Hadean Eon
246
What is the name of the era that predated rocks on Earth?
5a8ca215fd22b3001a8d8c50
True
Western Australia
345
Where was the 4.54 billion year old graphite found?
5a8ca215fd22b3001a8d8c51
True
Western Greenland
490
Where were the 3.7 billion year old fossils found?
5a8ca215fd22b3001a8d8c52
True
The age of the Earth is about 4.54 billion years old. The earliest undisputed evidence of life on Earth dates at least from 3.5 billion years ago, during the Eoarchean Era after a geological crust started to solidify following the earlier molten Hadean Eon. There are microbial mat fossils found in 3.48 billion-year-old sandstone discovered in Western Australia. Other early physical evidence of a biogenic substance is graphite in 3.7 billion-year-old metasedimentary rocks discovered in Western Greenland. More recently, in 2015, "remains of biotic life" were found in 4.1 billion-year-old rocks in Western Australia. According to one of the researchers, "If life arose relatively quickly on Earth ... then it could be common in the universe."
What suggests that the last few million years featured the greatest biodiversity in history?
570bd3b26b8089140040fa70
The fossil record
0
False
Why are some scientists uncertain about the fossil record?
570bd3b26b8089140040fa71
how strongly the fossil record is biased by the greater availability and preservation of recent geologic sections.
186
False
What is the estimate variation of the present global macroscopic species diversity?
570bd3b26b8089140040fa72
from 2 million to 100 million
615
False
What appears increase continually in the absence of natural selection?
570bd3b26b8089140040fa73
Diversity
726
False
The fossil record
0
What suggests that the last few million years featured the greatest scientists in history?
5a8ca7a2fd22b3001a8d8cd0
True
how strongly the fossil record is biased by the greater availability and preservation of recent geologic sections
186
Why are some scientists uncertain about the diversification of life?
5a8ca7a2fd22b3001a8d8cd1
True
2 million to 100 million
620
What is the time estimate variation of the present global fossils?
5a8ca7a2fd22b3001a8d8cd2
True
Diversity
726
What appears to increase continually in the absence of fossils?
5a8ca7a2fd22b3001a8d8cd3
True
modern biodiversity
364
What do some scientists believe is not much different from biodiversity 900 million years ago?
5a8ca7a2fd22b3001a8d8cd4
True
The fossil record suggests that the last few million years featured the greatest biodiversity in history. However, not all scientists support this view, since there is uncertainty as to how strongly the fossil record is biased by the greater availability and preservation of recent geologic sections. Some scientists believe that corrected for sampling artifacts, modern biodiversity may not be much different from biodiversity 300 million years ago., whereas others consider the fossil record reasonably reflective of the diversification of life. Estimates of the present global macroscopic species diversity vary from 2 million to 100 million, with a best estimate of somewhere near 9 million, the vast majority arthropods. Diversity appears to increase continually in the absence of natural selection.
What are two types of Agricultural diversity?
570bd493ec8fbc190045bb46
‘planned’ diversity or ‘associated’ diversity
60
False
What type of diversity includes the crops which a farmer has encouraged, planted or raised?
570bd493ec8fbc190045bb47
Planned diversity
209
False
What type of diversity arrives uninvited?
570bd493ec8fbc190045bb48
associated diversity
390
False
What type of diversity includes herbivores and pathogens?
570bd493ec8fbc190045bb49
associated diversity
390
False
‘planned’ diversity or ‘associated’ diversity
60
What are two types of uninvited diversity?
5a8cac2bfd22b3001a8d8d0c
True
Planned diversity
209
What type of diversity included the crops which a farmer has uninvited?
5a8cac2bfd22b3001a8d8d0d
True
associated diversity
390
What type of agriculure arrives uninvited?
5a8cac2bfd22b3001a8d8d0e
True
associated diversity
390
What type of agricluture includes herbivores and pathogens?
5a8cac2bfd22b3001a8d8d0f
True
Agricultural diversity
0
What can be divided by covers?
5a8cac2bfd22b3001a8d8d10
True
Agricultural diversity can also be divided by whether it is ‘planned’ diversity or ‘associated’ diversity. This is a functional classification that we impose and not an intrinsic feature of life or diversity. Planned diversity includes the crops which a farmer has encouraged, planted or raised (e.g.: crops, covers, symbionts and livestock, among others), which can be contrasted with the associated diversity that arrives among the crops, uninvited (e.g.: herbivores, weed species and pathogens, among others).
What is becoming an international political issue?
570bd5e26b8089140040fa78
Biodiversity's relevance to human health
0
False
What issue is closely linked with changes in biodiversity?
570bd5e26b8089140040fa79
climate change
220
False
What changes in biodiversity have an effect on the climate?
570bd5e26b8089140040fa7a
changes in populations and distribution of disease vectors, scarcity of fresh water, impacts on agricultural biodiversity and food resources
344
False
What types of species disappear when a new disease is introduced?
570bd5e26b8089140040fa7b
those that buffer against infectious disease transmission
548
False
Biodiversity's relevance to human health
0
What is becoming an international population issue?
5a8cafbafd22b3001a8d8d34
True
climate change
279
What issue is closely linked with changes in the West Nile Virus?
5a8cafbafd22b3001a8d8d35
True
changes in populations and distribution of disease vectors, scarcity of fresh water, impacts on agricultural biodiversity and food resources
344
What changes in biodiversity have an effect on human health?
5a8cafbafd22b3001a8d8d36
True
those that buffer against infectious disease transmission
548
What types of West Nile Virus disappear when a new disease is introduced?
5a8cafbafd22b3001a8d8d37
True
scientific evidence builds on the global health implications of biodiversity loss
90
What is causing biodiversity's relevance to human health to become an international  population issue?
5a8cafbafd22b3001a8d8d38
True
Biodiversity's relevance to human health is becoming an international political issue, as scientific evidence builds on the global health implications of biodiversity loss. This issue is closely linked with the issue of climate change, as many of the anticipated health risks of climate change are associated with changes in biodiversity (e.g. changes in populations and distribution of disease vectors, scarcity of fresh water, impacts on agricultural biodiversity and food resources etc.) This is because the species most likely to disappear are those that buffer against infectious disease transmission, while surviving species tend to be the ones that increase disease transmission, such as that of West Nile Virus, Lyme disease and Hantavirus, according to a study done co-authored by Felicia Keesing, an ecologist at Bard College, and Drew Harvell, associate director for Environment of the Atkinson Center for a Sustainable Future (ACSF) at Cornell University.
How many mass extinctions have happened since Life began on Earth?
570bd6f56b8089140040fa80
five major mass extinctions
27
False
When was the period where the majority of multicellular phyla first appeared?
570bd6f56b8089140040fa81
the Cambrian explosion
223
False
What happened in the Carboniferous?
570bd6f56b8089140040fa82
rainforest collapse led to a great loss of plant and animal life.
454
False
When was the Permian–Triassic extinction event?
570bd6f56b8089140040fa83
251 million years ago
559
False
How long did vertebrate recovery take?
570bd6f56b8089140040fa84
30 million years
622
False
five major mass extinctions
27
How many mass extinctions have happened since the Cambrian?
5a8ca315fd22b3001a8d8c6c
True
the Cambrian explosion
223
When was the period where the majority of biodiversity appeared?
5a8ca315fd22b3001a8d8c6d
True
rainforest collapse led to a great loss of plant and animal life
454
What happened in the several minor events?
5a8ca315fd22b3001a8d8c6e
True
251 million years ago
559
When was the first Cambrian extinction event?
5a8ca315fd22b3001a8d8c6f
True
30 million years
622
How long did rainforest recovery take?
5a8ca315fd22b3001a8d8c70
True
Since life began on Earth, five major mass extinctions and several minor events have led to large and sudden drops in biodiversity. The Phanerozoic eon (the last 540 million years) marked a rapid growth in biodiversity via the Cambrian explosion—a period during which the majority of multicellular phyla first appeared. The next 400 million years included repeated, massive biodiversity losses classified as mass extinction events. In the Carboniferous, rainforest collapse led to a great loss of plant and animal life. The Permian–Triassic extinction event, 251 million years ago, was the worst; vertebrate recovery took 30 million years. The most recent, the Cretaceous–Paleogene extinction event, occurred 65 million years ago and has often attracted more attention than others because it resulted in the extinction of the dinosaurs.
What century started the increase of species invasions?
570bd79aec8fbc190045bb56
1900s
89
False
Who intentionally and unintentionally moves species around?
570bd79aec8fbc190045bb57
humans
136
False
What invaders are causing changes in the Great Lakes region?
570bd79aec8fbc190045bb58
zebra mussels and the emerald ash borer
269
False
What invaders are causing changes along the North American Atlantic coast?
570bd79aec8fbc190045bb59
lion fish
343
False
1900s
89
What century started the increase of habitat invasions?
5a8cb688fd22b3001a8d8d98
True
humans
136
Who intentionally and unintentionally moves habitats around?
5a8cb688fd22b3001a8d8d99
True
zebra mussels and the emerald ash borer
269
What invaders are causing invasive plants in the Great Lakes region?
5a8cb688fd22b3001a8d8d9a
True
lion fish
343
What invaders are causing invasive plants to be along the North American Atlantic coast?
5a8cb688fd22b3001a8d8d9b
True
The number of species invasions has been on the rise at least since the beginning of the 1900s. Species are increasingly being moved by humans (on purpose and accidentally). In some cases the invaders are causing drastic changes and damage to their new habitats (e.g.: zebra mussels and the emerald ash borer in the Great Lakes region and the lion fish along the North American Atlantic coast). Some evidence suggests that invasive species are competitive in their new habitats because they are subject to less pathogen disturbance. Others report confounding evidence that occasionally suggest that species-rich communities harbor many native and exotic species simultaneously while some say that diverse ecosystems are more resilient and resist invasive plants and animals. An important question is, "do invasive species cause extinctions?" Many studies cite effects of invasive species on natives, but not extinctions. Invasive species seem to increase local (i.e.: alpha diversity) diversity, which decreases turnover of diversity (i.e.: beta diversity). Overall gamma diversity may be lowered because species are going extinct because of other causes, but even some of the most insidious invaders (e.g.: Dutch elm disease, emerald ash borer, chestnut blight in North America) have not caused their host species to become extinct. Extirpation, population decline, and homogenization of regional biodiversity are much more common. Human activities have frequently been the cause of invasive species circumventing their barriers, by introducing them for food and other purposes. Human activities therefore allow species to migrate to new areas (and thus become invasive) occurred on time scales much shorter than historically have been required for a species to extend its range.
How many plant species does Brazil's Atlantic Forest contain?
570bd878ec8fbc190045bb68
20,000 plant species
76
False
How many vertebrates does Brazil's Atlantic Forest contain?
570bd878ec8fbc190045bb69
1,350 vertebrates
98
False
Which country has the highest rate of species by area unit worldwide?
570bd878ec8fbc190045bb6a
Colombia
534
False
Which country has about 10% of the species on Earth?
570bd878ec8fbc190045bb6b
Colombia
534
False
What island separated from mainland Africa 66 million years ago?
570bd878ec8fbc190045bb6c
Madagascar
751
False
20,000 plant species
76
How many plant species does Africa contain?
5a8ca553fd22b3001a8d8ca8
True
1,350 vertebrates,
98
How many vertebrates does Africa contain?
5a8ca553fd22b3001a8d8ca9
True
Colombia
265
Which country has the highest rate of mammals by area unit worldwide?
5a8ca553fd22b3001a8d8caa
True
Colombia
534
Which country has about 12 percent of the species on Earth?
5a8ca553fd22b3001a8d8cab
True
Madagascar
751
What island separated from Africa 240 million years ago?
5a8ca553fd22b3001a8d8cac
True
Brazil's Atlantic Forest is considered one such hotspot, containing roughly 20,000 plant species, 1,350 vertebrates, and millions of insects, about half of which occur nowhere else.[citation needed] The island of Madagascar and India are also particularly notable. Colombia is characterized by high biodiversity, with the highest rate of species by area unit worldwide and it has the largest number of endemics (species that are not found naturally anywhere else) of any country. About 10% of the species of the Earth can be found in Colombia, including over 1,900 species of bird, more than in Europe and North America combined, Colombia has 10% of the world’s mammals species, 14% of the amphibian species, and 18% of the bird species of the world. Madagascar dry deciduous forests and lowland rainforests possess a high ratio of endemism.[citation needed] Since the island separated from mainland Africa 66 million years ago, many species and ecosystems have evolved independently.[citation needed] Indonesia's 17,000 islands cover 735,355 square miles (1,904,560 km2) and contain 10% of the world's flowering plants, 12% of mammals, and 17% of reptiles, amphibians and birds—along with nearly 240 million people. Many regions of high biodiversity and/or endemism arise from specialized habitats which require unusual adaptations, for example, alpine environments in high mountains, or Northern European peat bogs.[citation needed]
What limits the amount of life that can live at once on Earth?
570bd9336b8089140040fa8a
global carrying capacity
20
False
What type of animal shows a logistic pattern of growth?
570bd9336b8089140040fa8b
life in the sea
208
False
What type of animal shows an exponential rise in diversity?
570bd9336b8089140040fa8c
life on land
260
False
What percentage of potentially habitable modes have Tetrapods not yet invaded?
570bd9336b8089140040fa8d
64 per cent
398
False
global carrying capacity
20
What limits the amount of habitable modes on Earth?
5a8caa9ffd22b3001a8d8cf8
True
life in the sea
208
What type of animal shows a logistic pattern of diversity?
5a8caa9ffd22b3001a8d8cf9
True
life on land
260
What type of animal shows an exponential pattern of growth?
5a8caa9ffd22b3001a8d8cfa
True
64 per cent
398
What percentage potentially habitable modes has life in the sea not yet invaded?
5a8caa9ffd22b3001a8d8cfb
True
human
471
Without whose influence would sea growth increase?
5a8caa9ffd22b3001a8d8cfc
True
The existence of a "global carrying capacity", limiting the amount of life that can live at once, is debated, as is the question of whether such a limit would also cap the number of species. While records of life in the sea shows a logistic pattern of growth, life on land (insects, plants and tetrapods)shows an exponential rise in diversity. As one author states, "Tetrapods have not yet invaded 64 per cent of potentially habitable modes, and it could be that without human influence the ecological and taxonomic diversity of tetrapods would continue to increase in an exponential fashion until most or all of the available ecospace is filled."
What was the increase in population from 1950 to 2011?
570bd9e2ec8fbc190045bb7c
world population increased from 2.5 billion to 7 billion
19
False
What year started the increase of population to 7 billion?
570bd9e2ec8fbc190045bb7d
From 1950
0
False
What is the forecast plateau that the population will reach during the 21st century?
570bd9e2ec8fbc190045bb7e
more than 9 billion
114
False
Who is the former chief scientific adviser to the UK government?
570bd9e2ec8fbc190045bb7f
Sir David King
159
False
world population increased from 2.5 billion to 7 billion
19
What was the increase in population from 1957 to 2011?
5a8cbdcbfd22b3001a8d8dd2
True
From 1950
0
What year started the increase of population to 2 billion?
5a8cbdcbfd22b3001a8d8dd3
True
more than 9 billion
114
What is the forecast plateau that the population will reach during the 22nd century?
5a8cbdcbfd22b3001a8d8dd4
True
Sir David King
159
Who is the former chief scientific parliamentary to the UK government?
5a8cbdcbfd22b3001a8d8dd5
True
the middle of the 21st century
434
Until at least when will worldwide loss of scientific advisers probably depend much on the worldwide birth rate?
5a8cbdcbfd22b3001a8d8dd6
True
From 1950 to 2011, world population increased from 2.5 billion to 7 billion and is forecast to reach a plateau of more than 9 billion during the 21st century. Sir David King, former chief scientific adviser to the UK government, told a parliamentary inquiry: "It is self-evident that the massive growth in the human population through the 20th century has had more impact on biodiversity than any other single factor." At least until the middle of the 21st century, worldwide losses of pristine biodiverse land will probably depend much on the worldwide human birth rate.
What is one of the great agricultural challenges that farmers face?
570bda82ec8fbc190045bb84
The control of associated biodiversity
0
False
What farms use biologically destructive pesticides
570bda82ec8fbc190045bb85
monoculture farms
105
False
What farmers use integrated pest management strategies?
570bda82ec8fbc190045bb86
polyculture farmers
330
False
What farmers are generally less dependent on capital, biotechnology and energy?
570bda82ec8fbc190045bb87
polyculture farmers
330
False
The control of associated biodiversity
0
What is one of the great polyculture challenges that farmers face?
5a8cacfafd22b3001a8d8d16
True
monoculture farms
105
What farms use polyculture destructive pesticides?
5a8cacfafd22b3001a8d8d17
True
polyculture farmers
330
What farmers use integrated capital management strategies?
5a8cacfafd22b3001a8d8d18
True
polyculture farmers
330
What farmers are generally less dependent on monoculture farms?
5a8cacfafd22b3001a8d8d19
True
to eradicate associated diversity using a suite of biologically destructive pesticides
150
What is the approach on a biotechnology farm?
5a8cacfafd22b3001a8d8d1a
True
The control of associated biodiversity is one of the great agricultural challenges that farmers face. On monoculture farms, the approach is generally to eradicate associated diversity using a suite of biologically destructive pesticides, mechanized tools and transgenic engineering techniques, then to rotate crops. Although some polyculture farmers use the same techniques, they also employ integrated pest management strategies as well as strategies that are more labor-intensive, but generally less dependent on capital, biotechnology and energy.
What types of parks receive special protection against damage or degradation?
570bdbd46b8089140040fa92
National park and nature reserve
0
False
Who selects National parks?
570bdbd46b8089140040fa93
governments or private organizations
57
False
What is the goal of protecting National Parks from damage?
570bdbd46b8089140040fa94
with the objective of biodiversity and landscape conservation
147
False
Who usually owns and manages National parks?
570bdbd46b8089140040fa95
national or state governments
258
False
What activities are prohibited in national parks?
570bdbd46b8089140040fa96
Forestry operations, grazing of animals and hunting of animals
499
False
National park and nature reserve
0
What types of parks receive special protection against conservation?
5a8cbe56fd22b3001a8d8ddc
True
governments or private organizations
57
Who selects designated trails?
5a8cbe56fd22b3001a8d8ddd
True
with the objective of biodiversity and landscape conservation
147
What is the goal of protecting National Parks from roads?
5a8cbe56fd22b3001a8d8dde
True
national or state governments
258
Who usually owns and manages roads?
5a8cbe56fd22b3001a8d8ddf
True
Forestry operations, grazing of animals and hunting of animals
499
What activities are prohibited on roads?
5a8cbe56fd22b3001a8d8de0
True
National park and nature reserve is the area selected by governments or private organizations for special protection against damage or degradation with the objective of biodiversity and landscape conservation. National parks are usually owned and managed by national or state governments. A limit is placed on the number of visitors permitted to enter certain fragile areas. Designated trails or roads are created. The visitors are allowed to enter only for study, cultural and recreation purposes. Forestry operations, grazing of animals and hunting of animals are prohibited. Exploitation of habitat or wildlife is banned.
Who is the German Federal Environment Minister?
570bdcc9ec8fbc190045bb94
Sigmar Gabriel
129
False
What year did Gabriel estimate 30% of of all species will be extinct by?
570bdcc9ec8fbc190045bb95
2050
209
False
How many plant species are close to extinction?
570bdcc9ec8fbc190045bb96
about one eighth
225
False
2012 studies estimated what percentage of mammals could be extinct in 20 years?
570bdcc9ec8fbc190045bb97
25%
741
False
Sigmar Gabriel
129
Who is the German Federal Estimates Minister?
5a8cb1d8fd22b3001a8d8d52
True
2050
209
What year did Gabriel estimate 50 percent of all species will be extinct by?
5a8cb1d8fd22b3001a8d8d53
True
about one eighth
225
How many plant species are increasingly observed?
5a8cb1d8fd22b3001a8d8d54
True
25%
741
What percentage of animals did 2007 studies estimate could be extinct in 20 years?
5a8cb1d8fd22b3001a8d8d55
True
2007
87
When did Sigmar Gabriel cite Species-area theory?
5a8cb1d8fd22b3001a8d8d56
True
During the last century, decreases in biodiversity have been increasingly observed. In 2007, German Federal Environment Minister Sigmar Gabriel cited estimates that up to 30% of all species will be extinct by 2050. Of these, about one eighth of known plant species are threatened with extinction. Estimates reach as high as 140,000 species per year (based on Species-area theory). This figure indicates unsustainable ecological practices, because few species emerge each year.[citation needed] Almost all scientists acknowledge that the rate of species loss is greater now than at any time in human history, with extinctions occurring at rates hundreds of times higher than background extinction rates. As of 2012, some studies suggest that 25% of all mammal species could be extinct in 20 years.
What is systematically related to the numbers of species?
570bdd6fec8fbc190045bb9c
Habitat size
0
False
What animals are more sensitive to reduction in habitat area?
570bdd6fec8fbc190045bb9d
Physically larger species and those living at lower latitudes or in forests or oceans
64
False
How is a standardized ecosystem formed?
570bdd6fec8fbc190045bb9e
monoculture following deforestation
254
False
What leads to biodiversity loss is some countries?
570bdd6fec8fbc190045bb9f
lack of property rights or lax law/regulatory enforcement
397
False
Habitat size
0
What is systematically related to the numbers of communities?
5a8cb474fd22b3001a8d8d7a
True
Physically larger species and those living at lower latitudes or in forests or oceans
64
What animals are more sensitive to reduction of community area?
5a8cb474fd22b3001a8d8d7b
True
monoculture following deforestation
254
How is a community ecosystem formed?
5a8cb474fd22b3001a8d8d7c
True
lack of property rights or lax law/regulatory enforcement
397
What leads to biodiversity loss in some species?
5a8cb474fd22b3001a8d8d7d
True
Conversion to "trivial" standardized ecosystems
199
What destroys the more diverse species?
5a8cb474fd22b3001a8d8d7e
True
Habitat size and numbers of species are systematically related. Physically larger species and those living at lower latitudes or in forests or oceans are more sensitive to reduction in habitat area. Conversion to "trivial" standardized ecosystems (e.g., monoculture following deforestation) effectively destroys habitat for the more diverse species that preceded the conversion. In some countries lack of property rights or lax law/regulatory enforcement necessarily leads to biodiversity loss (degradation costs having to be supported by the community).[citation needed]
What animal unintentionally invaded the US waterways?
570bde086b8089140040faa4
the zebra mussel
108
False
What animal intentionally invaded Hawaii?
570bde086b8089140040faa5
mongooses
194
False
What animals were not vulnerable to the mongoose?
570bde086b8089140040faa6
nocturnal rats
263
False
What countries experienced unintended consequences from species invasion?
570bde086b8089140040faa7
Indonesia and Malaysia,
361
False
zebra mussel
112
What animal intentionally invaded the US waterways?
5a8cb774fd22b3001a8d8da0
True
mongooses
194
What animal unintentionally invaded Hawaii?
5a8cb774fd22b3001a8d8da1
True
nocturnal rats
263
What animals were not vulnerable to the zebra mussel?
5a8cb774fd22b3001a8d8da2
True
Indonesia and Malaysia
361
What countries experienced intended consequences from species invasion?
5a8cb774fd22b3001a8d8da3
True
introduction is deliberate
219
What is true about the introduction of the zebra mussel in Hawaii?
5a8cb774fd22b3001a8d8da4
True
Not all introduced species are invasive, nor all invasive species deliberately introduced. In cases such as the zebra mussel, invasion of US waterways was unintentional. In other cases, such as mongooses in Hawaii, the introduction is deliberate but ineffective (nocturnal rats were not vulnerable to the diurnal mongoose). In other cases, such as oil palms in Indonesia and Malaysia, the introduction produces substantial economic benefits, but the benefits are accompanied by costly unintended consequences.
What type of science is firmly fixated on the visible world?
570bdec2ec8fbc190045bbae
Contemporary biodiversity physics
161
False
What type of life is more metabolically diverse than multicellular life?
570bdec2ec8fbc190045bbaf
microbial life
264
False
What type of life is more enviromentally diverse than multicellular life?
570bdec2ec8fbc190045bbb0
microbial life
264
False
What rate supports the Holocene extinction hypothesis?
570bdec2ec8fbc190045bbb1
Insect extinction rates
666
False
Contemporary biodiversity physics
161
What type of science is firmly fixated on RNA?
5a8cc0ddfd22b3001a8d8e04
True
microbial life
264
What type of life is more metabolically diverse than extinction?
5a8cc0ddfd22b3001a8d8e05
True
microbial life
264
What type of life is more environmentally diverse than extinction?
5a8cc0ddfd22b3001a8d8e06
True
Insect extinction rates
666
What rate supports the Earth extinction hypothesis?
5a8cc0ddfd22b3001a8d8e07
True
Less than 1%
0
How many species that have been described have been extinct?
5a8cc0ddfd22b3001a8d8e08
True
Less than 1% of all species that have been described have been studied beyond simply noting their existence. The vast majority of Earth's species are microbial. Contemporary biodiversity physics is "firmly fixated on the visible [macroscopic] world". For example, microbial life is metabolically and environmentally more diverse than multicellular life (see e.g., extremophile). "On the tree of life, based on analyses of small-subunit ribosomal RNA, visible life consists of barely noticeable twigs. The inverse relationship of size and population recurs higher on the evolutionary ladder—"to a first approximation, all multicellular species on Earth are insects". Insect extinction rates are high—supporting the Holocene extinction hypothesis.
What term describes the number and variety of plants, animals and other organisms in existence?
570bdf846b8089140040faac
biodiversity
85
False
What ensures the survival of human species by providing food, shelter, other resources to mankind?
570bdf846b8089140040faad
biodiversity
85
False
What influences richness of biodiversity?
570bdf846b8089140040faae
the climatic conditions and area of the region
299
False
What term describes all the species of plants in existence?
570bdf846b8089140040faaf
flora
397
False
biodiversity
85
What term describes the components of insects?
5a8ca068fd22b3001a8d8c1c
True
biodiversity
85
What ensures the survival of human species by providing insects?
5a8ca068fd22b3001a8d8c1d
True
the climatic conditions and area of the region
299
What influences richness of insects?
5a8ca068fd22b3001a8d8c1e
True
flora
397
What term describes all the species of insects in existence?
5a8ca068fd22b3001a8d8c1f
True
70,000
413
How many species of insects are known to date?
5a8ca068fd22b3001a8d8c20
True
The number and variety of plants, animals and other organisms that exist is known as biodiversity. It is an essential component of nature and it ensures the survival of human species by providing food, fuel, shelter, medicines and other resources to mankind. The richness of biodiversity depends on the climatic conditions and area of the region. All species of plants taken together are known as flora and about 70,000 species of plants are known till date. All species of animals taken together are known as fauna which includes birds, mammals, fish, reptiles, insects, crustaceans, molluscs, etc.
Which scientist first used the term biological diversity?
570be04b6b8089140040fab4
Raymond F. Dasmann
87
False
What book first contained the term biological diversity?
570be04b6b8089140040fab5
A Different Kind of Country
132
False
What decade did the term biological diversity become common usage in science and economics?
570be04b6b8089140040fab6
the 1980s
252
False
Who introduced the term biological diversity to the scientific community?
570be04b6b8089140040fab7
Thomas Lovejoy
325
False
What term was common before biological diversity?
570be04b6b8089140040fab8
"natural diversity"
460
False
Raymond F. Dasmann
87
Which scientist first used the term biology?
5a8ca395fd22b3001a8d8c80
True
A Different Kind of Country
132
What book first contained the term biology?
5a8ca395fd22b3001a8d8c81
True
the 1980s
252
What decade did the term biology become common usage in science and economics?
5a8ca395fd22b3001a8d8c82
True
Thomas Lovejoy
325
Who introduced the term biology to the scientific community?
5a8ca395fd22b3001a8d8c83
True
"natural diversity"
460
What term was common before biology?
5a8ca395fd22b3001a8d8c84
True
The term biological diversity was used first by wildlife scientist and conservationist Raymond F. Dasmann in the year 1968 lay book A Different Kind of Country advocating conservation. The term was widely adopted only after more than a decade, when in the 1980s it came into common usage in science and environmental policy. Thomas Lovejoy, in the foreword to the book Conservation Biology, introduced the term to the scientific community. Until then the term "natural diversity" was common, introduced by The Science Division of The Nature Conservancy in an important 1975 study, "The Preservation of Natural Diversity." By the early 1980s TNC's Science program and its head, Robert E. Jenkins, Lovejoy and other leading conservation scientists at the time in America advocated the use of the term "biological diversity".
What provides critical support for drug discovery and the availability of medicinal resources?
570be0da6b8089140040fabe
Biodiversity
0
False
What percentage of US drugs are derived from plants, animals, and micro-organisms?
570be0da6b8089140040fabf
at least 50%
199
False
What percentage of worldwide drugs are derived from nature?
570be0da6b8089140040fac0
about 80%
322
False
What field has biodiversity made critical advances in?
570be0da6b8089140040fac1
bionics
618
False
Biodiversity
0
What provides critical support for drug discovery and the availability of economic resources?
5a8cb0dcfd22b3001a8d8d3e
True
at least 50%
199
What percentage of US drugs are derived from synthetics?
5a8cb0dcfd22b3001a8d8d3f
True
about 80%
322
What percentage of worldwide drugs are derived from synthetics?
5a8cb0dcfd22b3001a8d8d40
True
bionics
618
What field has economic resources made critical advances in?
5a8cb0dcfd22b3001a8d8d41
True
Marine
1192
What ecosystems are particularly natural?
5a8cb0dcfd22b3001a8d8d42
True
Biodiversity provides critical support for drug discovery and the availability of medicinal resources. A significant proportion of drugs are derived, directly or indirectly, from biological sources: at least 50% of the pharmaceutical compounds on the US market are derived from plants, animals, and micro-organisms, while about 80% of the world population depends on medicines from nature (used in either modern or traditional medical practice) for primary healthcare. Only a tiny fraction of wild species has been investigated for medical potential. Biodiversity has been critical to advances throughout the field of bionics. Evidence from market analysis and biodiversity science indicates that the decline in output from the pharmaceutical sector since the mid-1980s can be attributed to a move away from natural product exploration ("bioprospecting") in favor of genomics and synthetic chemistry, indeed claims about the value of undiscovered pharmaceuticals may not provide enough incentive for companies in free markets to search for them because of the high cost of development; meanwhile, natural products have a long history of supporting significant economic and health innovation. Marine ecosystems are particularly important, although inappropriate bioprospecting can increase biodiversity loss, as well as violating the laws of the communities and states from which the resources are taken.
What popularized the use of conventional hybridization to increase yield?
570be1b6ec8fbc190045bbb6
the Green Revolution
37
False
What did the high yield strains become resistant to?
570be1b6ec8fbc190045bbb7
local climate and diseases
300
False
Who has been pushing for hybridization?
570be1b6ec8fbc190045bbb8
Local governments and industry
328
False
What caused the loss of biodiversity?
570be1b6ec8fbc190045bbb9
Formerly huge gene pools of various wild and indigenous breeds have collapsed causing widespread genetic erosion
392
False
the Green Revolution
37
What popularized the use of conventional genetic erosion to increase yield?
5a8cbbe2fd22b3001a8d8db4
True
local climate and diseases
300
What did the high yield governments become resistant to?
5a8cbbe2fd22b3001a8d8db5
True
Local governments and industry
328
Who has been pushing for indigenous breeds?
5a8cbbe2fd22b3001a8d8db6
True
Formerly huge gene pools of various wild and indigenous breeds have collapsed causing widespread genetic erosion
392
What caused the loss of local governments?
5a8cbbe2fd22b3001a8d8db7
True
developed countries
165
What do conventional breeds often originate in?
5a8cbbe2fd22b3001a8d8db8
True
In agriculture and animal husbandry, the Green Revolution popularized the use of conventional hybridization to increase yield. Often hybridized breeds originated in developed countries and were further hybridized with local varieties in the developing world to create high yield strains resistant to local climate and diseases. Local governments and industry have been pushing hybridization. Formerly huge gene pools of various wild and indigenous breeds have collapsed causing widespread genetic erosion and genetic pollution. This has resulted in loss of genetic diversity and biodiversity as a whole.
ASCII
What is the ASCII based on?
570bce516b8089140040fa42
English alphabet
24
False
How many specific characters are there in the ASCII code?
570bce516b8089140040fa43
128 specified characters
56
False
How many are non-printing control characters?
570bce516b8089140040fa44
33 are non-printing control characters
453
False
How many characters are printable characters?
570bce516b8089140040fa45
95 printable characters
561
False
What is the space also known as what?
570bce516b8089140040fa46
invisible graphic:223
630
False
ASCII
42
What is based on the binary alphabet?
5a64ed447f3c80001a150bf1
True
128 specified characters
56
How many specific characters are there in the ASCII Teletype machines?
5a64ed447f3c80001a150bf2
True
Teletype machines
304
What did encoded numbers originate with?
5a64ed447f3c80001a150bf3
True
95 printable characters
561
How many definitions are printable characters?
5a64ed447f3c80001a150bf4
True
English
24
What alphabet is invisible graphic:223 based on?
5a64ed447f3c80001a150bf5
True
Originally based on the English alphabet, ASCII encodes 128 specified characters into seven-bit integers as shown by the ASCII chart on the right. The characters encoded are numbers 0 to 9, lowercase letters a to z, uppercase letters A to Z, basic punctuation symbols, control codes that originated with Teletype machines, and a space. For example, lowercase j would become binary 1101010 and decimal 106. ASCII includes definitions for 128 characters: 33 are non-printing control characters (many now obsolete) that affect how text and space are processed and 95 printable characters, including the space (which is considered an invisible graphic:223).
Why was the code patterned so that most codes were together?
570bd0da6b8089140040fa60
for ease of identification
109
False
How many positions are in the first two columns?
570bd0da6b8089140040fa61
32 positions
160
False
What did the committee decide was important?
570bd0da6b8089140040fa62
to support uppercase 64-character alphabets
474
False
Where was the letter A places in position?
570bd0da6b8089140040fa63
41hex
910
False
for ease of identification
109
Why were the lowercase letters patterned so that most codes were together?
5a64ffacc2b11c001a425b8d
True
32 positions
160
How many positions are are in the first numeric codes?
5a64ffacc2b11c001a425b8e
True
to support uppercase 64-character alphabets
474
What did the committee decide would help with special signs?
5a64ffacc2b11c001a425b8f
True
41hex
910
Where were the letters DEC in position?
5a64ffacc2b11c001a425b90
True
To keep options available for lowercase letters and other graphics
738
Why were numeric codes converted to graphic codes?
5a64ffacc2b11c001a425b91
True
The code itself was patterned so that most control codes were together, and all graphic codes were together, for ease of identification. The first two columns (32 positions) were reserved for control characters.:220, 236 § 8,9) The "space" character had to come before graphics to make sorting easier, so it became position 20hex;:237 § 10 for the same reason, many special signs commonly used as separators were placed before digits. The committee decided it was important to support uppercase 64-character alphabets, and chose to pattern ASCII so it could be reduced easily to a usable 64-character set of graphic codes,:228, 237 § 14 as was done in the DEC SIXBIT code. Lowercase letters were therefore not interleaved with uppercase. To keep options available for lowercase letters and other graphics, the special and numeric codes were arranged before the letters, and the letter A was placed in position 41hex to match the draft of the corresponding British standard.:238 § 18 The digits 0–9 were arranged so they correspond to values in binary prefixed with 011, making conversion with binary-coded decimal straightforward.
ASCII was incorporated into what other character set?
570bd1adec8fbc190045bb22
Unicode
32
False
How many of the symbols are the same in the beginning of the ASCII and Unicode?
570bd1adec8fbc190045bb23
128 symbols
67
False
What set is backward compatible with 7-bit ASCII?
570bd1adec8fbc190045bb24
UTF-8
164
False
Unicode
32
ASCII was incorporated into what other extensions?
5a650e0dc2b11c001a425bbb
True
128 symbols
67
How many of the symbols are the same in the end of the ASCII and Unicode?
5a650e0dc2b11c001a425bbc
True
UTF-8
164
What set is backward with 128 symbols?
5a650e0dc2b11c001a425bbd
True
ASCII
0
What was incorporated into the Unicode extensions?
5a650e0dc2b11c001a425bbe
True
an ASCII file containing the same sequence of characters
279
What is a UTF-8 file containing ISO-8859-1 identical to?
5a650e0dc2b11c001a425bbf
True
ASCII was incorporated into the Unicode character set as the first 128 symbols, so the 7-bit ASCII characters have the same numeric codes in both sets. This allows UTF-8 to be backward compatible with 7-bit ASCII, as a UTF-8 file containing only ASCII characters is identical to an ASCII file containing the same sequence of characters. Even more importantly, forward compatibility is ensured as software that recognizes only 7-bit ASCII characters as special and does not alter bytes with the highest bit set (as is often done to support 8-bit ASCII extensions such as ISO-8859-1) will preserve UTF-8 data unchanged.
What casued the automatic paper tape reader to stop?
570bd2ec6b8089140040fa68
a Control-S
78
False
What caused the automatic paper tape reader to start again?
570bd2ec6b8089140040fa69
Control-Q
177
False
What was the warning signal called that warned the sender that there was impending overflow?
570bd2ec6b8089140040fa6a
handshaking
322
False
What two controls can be configured with 33 ASR?
570bd2ec6b8089140040fa6b
Control-R (DC2) and Control-T (DC4)
647
False
a Control-S
78
What caused the paper tape reader to send a signal warning?
5a6513c9c2b11c001a425be1
True
Control-Q
177
What caused the automatic paper tape reader to output control technique?
5a6513c9c2b11c001a425be2
True
handshaking
322
What was the warning signal that warned TAPE that there was impending overflow?
5a6513c9c2b11c001a425be3
True
Control-R (DC2) and Control-T (DC4)
647
What two controls can be configured from a mobile phone?
5a6513c9c2b11c001a425be4
True
a second Control-S
564
What is impending overflow replaced by on some systems?
5a6513c9c2b11c001a425be5
True
When a Teletype 33 ASR equipped with the automatic paper tape reader received a Control-S (XOFF, an abbreviation for transmit off), it caused the tape reader to stop; receiving Control-Q (XON, "transmit on") caused the tape reader to resume. This technique became adopted by several early computer operating systems as a "handshaking" signal warning a sender to stop transmission because of impending overflow; it persists to this day in many systems as a manual output control technique. On some systems Control-S retains its meaning but Control-Q is replaced by a second Control-S to resume output. The 33 ASR also could be configured to employ Control-R (DC2) and Control-T (DC4) to start and stop the tape punch; on some units equipped with this function, the corresponding control character lettering on the keycap above the letter was TAPE and TAPE respectively.
What are glass TTYs also known as?
570bd3ceec8fbc190045bb3c
CRTs or terminals
231
False
What did Gary Kildall clone to create CP/M?
570bd3ceec8fbc190045bb3d
RT-11
394
False
When was the introduction of PC DOS?
570bd3ceec8fbc190045bb3e
1981
491
False
What programming did IBM use in the 1970s?
570bd3ceec8fbc190045bb3f
EBCDIC
564
False
What was IBM's PC DOS marketed as by Microsoft?
570bd3ceec8fbc190045bb40
MS-DOS
747
False
RT-11
394
What did Gary Klidall clone to create PC DOS?
5a651f58c2b11c001a425c3d
True
1981
491
When was the introduction of IBM?
5a651f58c2b11c001a425c3e
True
EBCDIC
564
What programming did DEC use in the 1970s?
5a651f58c2b11c001a425c3f
True
MS-DOS
859
What was IBM's PC DOS marketed as by ASCII?
5a651f58c2b11c001a425c40
True
CRTs or terminals
231
What is another name for Teletype machines?
5a651f58c2b11c001a425c41
True
DEC operating systems (OS/8, RT-11, RSX-11, RSTS, TOPS-10, etc.) used both characters to mark the end of a line so that the console device (originally Teletype machines) would work. By the time so-called "glass TTYs" (later called CRTs or terminals) came along, the convention was so well established that backward compatibility necessitated continuing the convention. When Gary Kildall cloned RT-11 to create CP/M he followed established DEC convention. Until the introduction of PC DOS in 1981, IBM had no hand in this because their 1970s operating systems used EBCDIC instead of ASCII and they were oriented toward punch-card input and line printer output on which the concept of carriage return was meaningless. IBM's PC DOS (also marketed as MS-DOS by Microsoft) inherited the convention by virtue of being a clone of CP/M, and Windows inherited it from MS-DOS.
What was created to solve the problem for ANSI C?
570bd4a6ec8fbc190045bb4e
C trigraphs
0
False
Why was their use limited?
570bd4a6ec8fbc190045bb4f
their late introduction and inconsistent implementation in compilers
68
False
What did many programmers keep their computers on?
570bd4a6ec8fbc190045bb50
US-ASCII
197
False
What what happening to the words that were sent from programmers?
570bd4a6ec8fbc190045bb51
contained "{, }" and similar variants in the middle of words
280
False
C trigraphs
0
What was created to solve the problem for Usenet?
5a6527a2c2b11c001a425ca7
True
US-ASCII
197
What did many programmers keep their sandwiches on?
5a6527a2c2b11c001a425ca8
True
contained "{, }" and similar variants in the middle of words
280
What was happening to the C trigraphs that were sent from programmers?
5a6527a2c2b11c001a425ca9
True
No I've got sandwiches.
578
What was "{, }" supposed to mean?
5a6527a2c2b11c001a425caa
True
variants in the middle of words
309
What did Germans get used to?
5a6527a2c2b11c001a425cab
True
C trigraphs were created to solve this problem for ANSI C, although their late introduction and inconsistent implementation in compilers limited their use. Many programmers kept their computers on US-ASCII, so plain-text in Swedish, German etc. (for example, in e-mail or Usenet) contained "{, }" and similar variants in the middle of words, something those programmers got used to. For example, a Swedish programmer mailing another programmer asking if they should go for lunch, could get "N{ jag har sm|rg}sar." as the answer, which should be "Nä jag har smörgåsar." meaning "No I've got sandwiches."
What was ASCII based on?
570bd80cec8fbc190045bb5e
teleprinter encoding systems
58
False
ASCII specifies correspondence between what?
570bd80cec8fbc190045bb5f
digital bit patterns and character symbols
161
False
What does ASCII correspondence allow digital devices to do?
570bd80cec8fbc190045bb60
communicate with each other and to process, store, and communicate character-oriented information
276
False
How many graphic symbols were used before ASCII?
570bd80cec8fbc190045bb61
11 to 25 special graphic symbols
514
False
How many codes were required for ASCII?
570bd80cec8fbc190045bb62
more than 64 codes
768
False
teleprinter encoding systems
58
What was the X3.2 based on?
5a64f841c2b11c001a425b5f
True
digital bit patterns and character symbols
161
ASCII specifies alphabetic characters by what?
5a64f841c2b11c001a425b60
True
communicate with each other and to process, store, and communicate character-oriented information
276
What does ASCII graphic symbols allow digital devices to do?
5a64f841c2b11c001a425b61
True
11 to 25 special graphic symbols
514
How many graphic symbols were used before encoding systems were invented?
5a64f841c2b11c001a425b62
True
more than 64 codes
768
How many codes were required for the X3.2?
5a64f841c2b11c001a425b63
True
The X3.2 subcommittee designed ASCII based on the earlier teleprinter encoding systems. Like other character encodings, ASCII specifies a correspondence between digital bit patterns and character symbols (i.e. graphemes and control characters). This allows digital devices to communicate with each other and to process, store, and communicate character-oriented information such as written language. Before ASCII was developed, the encodings in use included 26 alphabetic characters, 10 numerical digits, and from 11 to 25 special graphic symbols. To include all these, and control characters compatible with the Comité Consultatif International Téléphonique et Télégraphique (CCITT) International Telegraph Alphabet No. 2 (ITA2) standard, Fieldata, and early EBCDIC, more than 64 codes were required for ASCII.
When was ASCII first commercially used?
570bd90fec8fbc190045bb72
1963
48
False
What was it used for?
570bd90fec8fbc190045bb73
a seven-bit teleprinter code for American Telephone & Telegraph's TWX (TeletypeWriter eXchange) network
56
False
What did TWX use before ASCII?
570bd90fec8fbc190045bb74
five-bit ITA2
193
False
Who is the father of ASCII?
570bd90fec8fbc190045bb75
Bob Bemer
271
False
What was the code first called in Europe?
570bd90fec8fbc190045bb76
Bemer-Ross Code
497
False
1963
48
When was ASCII first used by Berner-Ross?
5a65080ac2b11c001a425ba7
True
five-bit ITA2
193
What did TWX use because to counter slow loading times of ASCII?
5a65080ac2b11c001a425ba8
True
Bob Bemer
271
Who competed against ASCII?
5a65080ac2b11c001a425ba9
True
Bemer-Ross Code
497
What was the TWX first called in Europe?
5a65080ac2b11c001a425baa
True
Telex teleprinter system
245
Who competed against eight-bit teleprinter code?
5a65080ac2b11c001a425bab
True
ASCII itself was first used commercially during 1963 as a seven-bit teleprinter code for American Telephone & Telegraph's TWX (TeletypeWriter eXchange) network. TWX originally used the earlier five-bit ITA2, which was also used by the competing Telex teleprinter system. Bob Bemer introduced features such as the escape sequence. His British colleague Hugh McGregor Ross helped to popularize this work –  according to Bemer, "so much so that the code that was to become ASCII was first called the Bemer-Ross Code in Europe". Because of his extensive work on ASCII, Bemer has been called "the father of ASCII."
What does the "line feed" function do?
570bdaffec8fbc190045bb8c
causes a printer to advance its paper
69
False
What character represents the "line feed" function?
570bdaffec8fbc190045bb8d
character 10
13
False
What does character 8 represent?
570bdaffec8fbc190045bb8e
backspace
137
False
What does RFC 2822 refers to what kind of control characters?
570bdaffec8fbc190045bb8f
control characters that do not include carriage return, line feed or white space as non-whitespace control characters
168
False
causes a printer to advance its paper
69
What do the "line feed" control characters do?
5a650f77c2b11c001a425bcd
True
character 10
13
What markup languages represent the "line feed" function?
5a650f77c2b11c001a425bce
True
backspace
137
What does document layout does 8 represent?
5a650f77c2b11c001a425bcf
True
control characters that do not include carriage return, line feed or white space as non-whitespace control characters
168
RFC 2822 translates what kind of languages?
5a650f77c2b11c001a425bd0
True
ASCII
373
What does not define any mechanism for carriage return?
5a650f77c2b11c001a425bd1
True
For example, character 10 represents the "line feed" function (which causes a printer to advance its paper), and character 8 represents "backspace". RFC 2822 refers to control characters that do not include carriage return, line feed or white space as non-whitespace control characters. Except for the control characters that prescribe elementary line-oriented formatting, ASCII does not define any mechanism for describing the structure or appearance of text within a document. Other schemes, such as markup languages, address page and document layout and formatting.
What did some software do to the ASCII characters?
570bdc256b8089140040fa9c
assigned special meanings
14
False
What interpretation became common in Unix systmes?
570bdc256b8089140040fa9d
interpreted DEL as an input character as meaning "remove previously-typed input character"
167
False
What do most other systmes use the DEL to mean?
570bdc256b8089140040fa9e
remove the character at the cursor
385
False
What did other systmes us for "remove previously-typed input character"?
570bdc256b8089140040fa9f
BS
343
False
assigned special meanings
14
What did some software do to the Digital Equipment Corporation?
5a651664c2b11c001a425c05
True
interpreted DEL as an input character as meaning "remove previously-typed input character
167
What interpretation became common in BS systems?
5a651664c2b11c001a425c06
True
BS
343
What other systems use for the terminal?
5a651664c2b11c001a425c07
True
remove the character at the cursor
385
What did the first systems use DEL to mean?
5a651664c2b11c001a425c08
True
Some software assigned special meanings to ASCII characters sent to the software from the terminal. Operating systems from Digital Equipment Corporation, for example, interpreted DEL as an input character as meaning "remove previously-typed input character", and this interpretation also became common in Unix systems. Most other systems used BS for that meaning and used DEL to mean "remove the character at the cursor".[citation needed] That latter interpretation is the most common now.[citation needed]
What do computers attached to the ARPANET use for line endings?
570bddefec8fbc190045bba4
CR-LF
110
False
What do computers using operating systems use for line endings?
570bddefec8fbc190045bba5
LF
187
False
Why did Telnet define an ASCII as a Network Virtual Terminal?
570bddefec8fbc190045bba6
so that connections between hosts with different line-ending conventions and character sets could be supported
452
False
How were the connections supported?
570bddefec8fbc190045bba7
by transmitting a standard text format over the network
563
False
Who else adopted this practice from Telnet?
570bddefec8fbc190045bba8
The File Transfer Protocol
765
False
CR-LF
110
What do computers attached to TENEX use for line endings?
5a6522bdc2b11c001a425c6b
True
LF
187
What do computers using standard text format use for line endings?
5a6522bdc2b11c001a425c6c
True
so that connections between hosts with different line-ending conventions and character sets could be supported
452
Why did Telnet define an ASCII as EBCDIC?
5a6522bdc2b11c001a425c6d
True
by transmitting a standard text format over the network
563
How were the Network Virtual Terminals supported?
5a6522bdc2b11c001a425c6e
True
The File Transfer Protocol
765
Who else adopted this practice from ASCII?
5a6522bdc2b11c001a425c6f
True
Computers attached to the ARPANET included machines running operating systems such as TOPS-10 and TENEX using CR-LF line endings, machines running operating systems such as Multics using LF line endings, and machines running operating systems such as OS/360 that represented lines as a character count followed by the characters of the line and that used EBCDIC rather than ASCII. The Telnet protocol defined an ASCII "Network Virtual Terminal" (NVT), so that connections between hosts with different line-ending conventions and character sets could be supported by transmitting a standard text format over the network. Telnet used ASCII along with CR-LF line endings, and software using other conventions would translate between the local conventions and the NVT. The File Transfer Protocol adopted the Telnet protocol, including use of the Network Virtual Terminal, for use when transmitting commands and transferring data in the default ASCII mode. This adds complexity to implementations of those protocols, and to other network protocols, such as those used for E-mail and the World Wide Web, on systems not using the NVT's CR-LF line-ending convention.
When was ISO/IEC 646 published?
570be770ec8fbc190045bbda
1972
176
False
What was ASCII inteded to be?
570be770ec8fbc190045bbdb
one of several national variants of an international character code standard
61
False
When was ISO's first acceptance of an international recommendation?
570be770ec8fbc190045bbdc
1967
466
False
What was causing the confusion and incompatibility of the code points?
570be770ec8fbc190045bbdd
ASCII's choices for the national use characters to seem to be de facto standards for the world
478
False
1967
466
When was ISO's last acceptance at an international recommendation?
5a652664c2b11c001a425c97
True
ASCII's choices for the national use characters to seem to be de facto standards for the world
478
What was causing the confusion and incompatibility of the shared characters?
5a652664c2b11c001a425c98
True
ISO/IEC 646 (1972)
163
What were code points ultimately published as?
5a652664c2b11c001a425c99
True
once other countries did begin to make their own assignments
612
When did the publication's choices cause confusion and incompatibility?
5a652664c2b11c001a425c9a
True
ISO/IEC 646 (1972)
163
What shared no characters in common?
5a652664c2b11c001a425c9b
True
From early in its development, ASCII was intended to be just one of several national variants of an international character code standard, ultimately published as ISO/IEC 646 (1972), which would share most characters in common but assign other locally useful characters to several code points reserved for "national use." However, the four years that elapsed between the publication of ASCII-1963 and ISO's first acceptance of an international recommendation during 1967 caused ASCII's choices for the national use characters to seem to be de facto standards for the world, causing confusion and incompatibility once other countries did begin to make their own assignments to these code points.
What did most early home computers develop?
570beefe6b8089140040fac6
their own 8-bit character sets
43
False
What did Kaypro CP/M computers use?
570beefe6b8089140040fac7
the "upper" 128 characters for the Greek alphabet
230
False
What did IBM PC replace the control-characters with?
570beefe6b8089140040fac8
graphic symbols such as smiley faces
358
False
What did Digital Equipment Corporation develop?
570beefe6b8089140040fac9
Multinational Character Set (DEC-MCS)
624
False
What did Macintosh use instead of graphics?
570beefe6b8089140040faca
typographic punctuation marks
923
False
their own 8-bit character sets
43
What did most early graphic characters develop?
5a6528c5c2b11c001a425cb1
True
graphic symbols such as smiley faces
358
What did IBM PC replace the code pages with?
5a6528c5c2b11c001a425cb2
True
typographic punctuation marks
923
What did Macintosh use instead of hardware?
5a6528c5c2b11c001a425cb3
True
the Multinational Character Set (DEC-MCS)
620
What did Digital Equipment Corporation develop for use in game glyphs?
5a6528c5c2b11c001a425cb4
True
code page 437
300
What replaced the Greek alphabet with graphic symbols?
5a6528c5c2b11c001a425cb5
True
Most early home computer systems developed their own 8-bit character sets containing line-drawing and game glyphs, and often filled in some or all of the control characters from 0–31 with more graphics. Kaypro CP/M computers used the "upper" 128 characters for the Greek alphabet. The IBM PC defined code page 437, which replaced the control-characters with graphic symbols such as smiley faces, and mapped additional graphic characters to the upper 128 positions. Operating systems such as DOS supported these code pages, and manufacturers of IBM PCs supported them in hardware. Digital Equipment Corporation developed the Multinational Character Set (DEC-MCS) for use in the popular VT220 terminal as one of the first extensions designed more for international languages than for block graphics. The Macintosh defined Mac OS Roman and Postscript also defined a set, both of these contained both international letters and typographic punctuation marks instead of graphics, more like modern character sets.
What does ASCII stand for?
570bf0126b8089140040fad0
American Standard Code for Information Interchange
43
False
What is the definition of ASCII?
570bf0126b8089140040fad1
is a character-encoding scheme
95
False
What does ASCII code represent?
570bf0126b8089140040fad2
text in computers, communications equipment, and other devices that use text
186
False
ASCI was the most common character encoding on the world wide web until when?
570bf0126b8089140040fad3
December 2007
444
False
Who surpassed ASCII?
570bf0126b8089140040fad4
UTF-8
484
False
text in computers, communications equipment, and other devices that use text
186
What was ASCII designed to represent before going through major changes?
5a64ca387f3c80001a150bdd
True
December 2007
444
ASCII was the second most common character encoding on the world wide web until when?
5a64ca387f3c80001a150bde
True
UTF-8
484
Who made ASCII obselete?
5a64ca387f3c80001a150bdf
True
ASCII
316
What are most fully backward schemes based on?
5a64ca387f3c80001a150be0
True
text in computers
186
What does most communications equipment represent?
5a64ca387f3c80001a150be1
True
ASCII (i/ˈæski/ ASS-kee), abbreviated from American Standard Code for Information Interchange, is a character-encoding scheme (the IANA prefers the name US-ASCII). ASCII codes represent text in computers, communications equipment, and other devices that use text. Most modern character-encoding schemes are based on ASCII, though they support many additional characters. ASCII was the most common character encoding on the World Wide Web until December 2007, when it was surpassed by UTF-8, which is fully backward compatibe to ASCII.
Why did the committee debate adding a shift function?
570bf0896b8089140040fada
would allow more than 64 codes to be represented by a six-bit code
80
False
What is different in a shifted code?
570bf0896b8089140040fadb
some character codes determine choices between options for the following character codes
167
False
Why did they decide against shifting code?
570bf0896b8089140040fadc
less reliable for data transmission as an error in transmitting the shift code typically makes a long part of the transmission unreadable
292
False
What happened after they decided agasint shifting?
570bf0896b8089140040fadd
ASCII required at least a seven-bit code
488
False
would allow more than 64 codes to be represented by a six-bit code
80
Why did the committee debate adding a character code function?
5a64fb54c2b11c001a425b69
True
some character codes determine choices between options for the following character codes
167
What is different in a compact code?
5a64fb54c2b11c001a425b6a
True
less reliable for data transmission as an error in transmitting the shift code typically makes a long part of the transmission unreadable
292
Why did they decide against deleting all the code?
5a64fb54c2b11c001a425b6b
True
ASCII required at least a seven-bit code
488
What happened after they decided to make all employees work the same schedule?
5a64fb54c2b11c001a425b6c
True
shifted code
153
What allows seven-bit code?
5a64fb54c2b11c001a425b6d
True
The committee debated the possibility of a shift function (like in ITA2), which would allow more than 64 codes to be represented by a six-bit code. In a shifted code, some character codes determine choices between options for the following character codes. It allows compact encoding, but is less reliable for data transmission as an error in transmitting the shift code typically makes a long part of the transmission unreadable. The standards committee decided against shifting, and so ASCII required at least a seven-bit code.:215, 236 § 4
What was the "escape" character originally intended for?
570bf1486b8089140040fae2
to allow sending other control characters as literals instead of invoking their meaning
174
False
What does modern ESC code do?
570bf1486b8089140040fae3
most often used as an out-of-band character used to terminate an operation
789
False
What does ESC generally mean for graphical user interfaces and windowing systems?
570bf1486b8089140040fae4
an application to abort its current operation or to exit (terminate) altogether
979
False
sending other control characters as literals instead of invoking their meaning
183
What was the "escape" character meant to stop?
5a651bc1c2b11c001a425c1f
True
an application to abort its current operation or to exit (terminate) altogether
979
What does ESC generally mean for left-brackets?
5a651bc1c2b11c001a425c20
True
An ESC sent from the terminal
756
What is most often used as a command sequence?
5a651bc1c2b11c001a425c21
True
In graphical user interface (GUI) and windowing systems
901
Where does ESC generally cause an application to abort its given meanings?
5a651bc1c2b11c001a425c22
True
a so-called "ANSI escape code"
609
What is an ESC sent to control characters usually in the form of?
5a651bc1c2b11c001a425c23
True
Many more of the control codes have been given meanings quite different from their original ones. The "escape" character (ESC, code 27), for example, was intended originally to allow sending other control characters as literals instead of invoking their meaning. This is the same meaning of "escape" encountered in URL encodings, C language strings, and other systems where certain characters have a reserved meaning. Over time this meaning has been co-opted and has eventually been changed. In modern use, an ESC sent to the terminal usually indicates the start of a command sequence, usually in the form of a so-called "ANSI escape code" (or, more properly, a "Control Sequence Introducer") beginning with ESC followed by a "[" (left-bracket) character. An ESC sent from the terminal is most often used as an out-of-band character used to terminate an operation, as in the TECO and vi text editors. In graphical user interface (GUI) and windowing systems, ESC generally causes an application to abort its current operation or to exit (terminate) altogether.
What did older operating systems use to mark the end of the text?
570bf2846b8089140040fae8
Control-Z (SUB)
116
False
What does EOF stand for?
570bf2846b8089140040fae9
end-of-file
205
False
What is still the conventional use of the ETX code?
570bf2846b8089140040faea
to interrupt and halt a program via an input data stream, usually from a keyboard
634
False
What else is the end-of-text code known as?
570bf2846b8089140040faeb
Control-C
364
False
Control-Z
116
What did older operating systems use to mark control code?
5a6524c6c2b11c001a425c83
True
to interrupt and halt a program via an input data stream, usually from a keyboard
634
What is still the conventional use of the EOF code?
5a6524c6c2b11c001a425c84
True
Control-C
364
What else does the end-of text code use to track file length?
5a6524c6c2b11c001a425c85
True
a keyboard
705
Where does a control code usually come from?
5a6524c6c2b11c001a425c86
True
it ending the alphabet
483
What is using Z as the end of text analogous to?
5a6524c6c2b11c001a425c87
True
Older operating systems such as TOPS-10, along with CP/M, tracked file length only in units of disk blocks and used Control-Z (SUB) to mark the end of the actual text in the file. For this reason, EOF, or end-of-file, was used colloquially and conventionally as a three-letter acronym for Control-Z instead of SUBstitute. The end-of-text code (ETX), also known as Control-C, was inappropriate for a variety of reasons, while using Z as the control code to end a file is analogous to it ending the alphabet and serves as a very convenient mnemonic aid. A historically common and still prevalent convention uses the ETX code convention to interrupt and halt a program via an input data stream, usually from a keyboard.
What was ASCII developed from?
570bf3abec8fbc190045bbe2
telegraphic codes
21
False
What was the first commercial use of ASCII?
570bf3abec8fbc190045bbe3
a seven-bit teleprinter code promoted by Bell data services
72
False
When did work on the ASCII standard begin?
570bf3abec8fbc190045bbe4
October 6, 1960
169
False
When was the first edition of the standard published?
570bf3abec8fbc190045bbe5
1963
329
False
When was the first major revision of the code done?
570bf3abec8fbc190045bbe6
1967
369
False
telegraphic codes
21
What did ASCII form a subcommittee from?
5a64ccfd7f3c80001a150be7
True
a seven-bit teleprinter code promoted by Bell data services
72
What was the first alphebetization use of ASCII?
5a64ccfd7f3c80001a150be8
True
October 6, 1960
169
When did work on the ASCII preliminary Bell code begin?
5a64ccfd7f3c80001a150be9
True
1963
329
When was the first edition of the Bell code published?
5a64ccfd7f3c80001a150bea
True
1967
369
When was the final revision of the code done?
5a64ccfd7f3c80001a150beb
True
ASCII developed from telegraphic codes. Its first commercial use was as a seven-bit teleprinter code promoted by Bell data services. Work on the ASCII standard began on October 6, 1960, with the first meeting of the American Standards Association's (ASA) X3.2 subcommittee. The first edition of the standard was published during 1963, underwent a major revision during 1967, and experienced its most recent update during 1986. Compared to earlier telegraph codes, the proposed Bell code and ASCII were both ordered for more convenient sorting (i.e., alphabetization) of lists, and added features for devices other than teleprinters.
Why did the committee consider a 8 bit code?
570bf49d6b8089140040faf0
eight bits (octets) would allow two four-bit patterns to efficiently encode two digits with binary-coded decimal
50
False
Why did the committee decide on 7bit instead?
570bf49d6b8089140040faf1
minimize costs associated with data transmission
304
False
What allowed for a parity bit for error chicking if needed?
570bf49d6b8089140040faf2
perforated tape at the time could record eight bits in one position
360
False
eight bits (octets) would allow two four-bit patterns to efficiently encode two digits with binary-coded decimal
50
Why did the committee consider a 0 bit code?
5a64fd37c2b11c001a425b73
True
minimize costs associated with data transmission
304
Why did the company decide on 9bit instead?
5a64fd37c2b11c001a425b74
True
perforated tape at the time could record eight bits in one position
360
What allowed for a parity bit for data transmission if needed?
5a64fd37c2b11c001a425b75
True
0
628
What did seven-bit machines that did not use parity typically set the eight bit to?
5a64fd37c2b11c001a425b76
True
eight
401
How many bits in one position could be recorded by binary code?
5a64fd37c2b11c001a425b77
True
The committee considered an eight-bit code, since eight bits (octets) would allow two four-bit patterns to efficiently encode two digits with binary-coded decimal. However, it would require all data transmission to send eight bits when seven could suffice. The committee voted to use a seven-bit code to minimize costs associated with data transmission. Since perforated tape at the time could record eight bits in one position, it also allowed for a parity bit for error checking if desired.:217, 236 § 5 Eight-bit machines (with octets as the native data type) that did not use parity checking typically set the eighth bit to 0.
What was ASCII published as and when?
570bf60b6b8089140040faf6
ASA X3.4-1963
86
False
How many code positions were left unassigned for furture standardization?
570bf60b6b8089140040faf7
28 code positions
109
False
When was the change to ASCII made official?
570bf60b6b8089140040faf8
May 1963
727
False
The lower case letters caused a differ in the patter, what did this cause?
570bf60b6b8089140040faf9
simplified case-insensitive character matching and the construction of keyboards and printers
885
False
28 code positions
109
How many code positions were left lowercase for future standardization?
5a6505fac2b11c001a425b9d
True
May 1963
398
When was the change to ASCII rejected?
5a6505fac2b11c001a425b9e
True
simplified case-insensitive character matching and the construction of keyboards and printers
885
The lower case letters caused a differ in the pattern, how did this change the vote?
5a6505fac2b11c001a425b9f
True
the CCITT Working Party on the New Telegraph Alphabet
407
Who proposed to assign code positions without any meaning?
5a6505fac2b11c001a425ba0
True
The X3.2.4 task group
655
What task group voted its approval for the standardization of ASCII stock prices?
5a6505fac2b11c001a425ba1
True
With the other special characters and control codes filled in, ASCII was published as ASA X3.4-1963, leaving 28 code positions without any assigned meaning, reserved for future standardization, and one unassigned control code.:66, 245 There was some debate at the time whether there should be more control characters rather than the lowercase alphabet.:435 The indecision did not last long: during May 1963 the CCITT Working Party on the New Telegraph Alphabet proposed to assign lowercase characters to columns 6 and 7, and International Organization for Standardization TC 97 SC 2 voted during October to incorporate the change into its draft standard. The X3.2.4 task group voted its approval for the change to ASCII at its May 1963 meeting. Locating the lowercase letters in columns 6 and 7 caused the characters to differ in bit pattern from the upper case by a single bit, which simplified case-insensitive character matching and the construction of keyboards and printers.
What is a retified versionof ASCII?
570bf7f9ec8fbc190045bbec
ISO/IEC 646
79
False
What type of extensions do these other character encodings have?
570bf7f9ec8fbc190045bbed
extensions for characters outside the English alphabet and symbols used outside the United States
145
False
Why did most countries need a adapted version of ASCII?
570bf7f9ec8fbc190045bbee
ASCII suited the needs of only the USA and a few other countries
371
False
Why are the other versions of ASCII not true ASCII?
570bf7f9ec8fbc190045bbef
true ASCII is defined strictly only by the ANSI standard
662
False
ISO/IEC 646
79
What is an identical version of ASCII?
5a650b16c2b11c001a425bb1
True
extensions for characters outside the English alphabet and symbols used outside the United States
145
What type of extensions do these other standard bodies have?
5a650b16c2b11c001a425bb2
True
ASCII suited the needs of only the USA and a few other countries
371
Why did Brasil need an adapted version of ASCII?
5a650b16c2b11c001a425bb3
True
true ASCII is defined strictly only by the ANSI standard
662
Why are the other versions of ASCII charging extra for extensions?
5a650b16c2b11c001a425bb4
True
Canada
450
What country had it own version that supported international standards?
5a650b16c2b11c001a425bb5
True
Other international standards bodies have ratified character encodings such as ISO/IEC 646 that are identical or nearly identical to ASCII, with extensions for characters outside the English alphabet and symbols used outside the United States, such as the symbol for the United Kingdom's pound sterling (£). Almost every country needed an adapted version of ASCII, since ASCII suited the needs of only the USA and a few other countries. For example, Canada had its own version that supported French characters. Other adapted encodings include ISCII (India), VISCII (Vietnam), and YUSCII (Yugoslavia). Although these encodings are sometimes referred to as ASCII, true ASCII is defined strictly only by the ANSI standard.
What was the most influential device that interpretated the characters?
570bfabb6b8089140040fafe
Teletype Model 33 ASR
94
False
What was the Teletype Model 33 ASR?
570bfabb6b8089140040faff
a printing terminal with an available paper tape reader/punch option
127
False
When was paper tape popular?
570bfabb6b8089140040fb00
until the 1980s
264
False
Why was paper tape better than magnetic tape?
570bfabb6b8089140040fb01
less costly and in some ways less fragile
281
False
What code eventually became neglected?
570bfabb6b8089140040fb02
code 15 (Control-O, Shift In)
896
False
Teletype Model 33 ASR
94
What was the most influential devide that became de facto standard?
5a6510ccc2b11c001a425bd7
True
a printing terminal with an available paper tape reader/punch option
127
What competed with the Teletype Model 33 ASR?
5a6510ccc2b11c001a425bd8
True
until the 1980s
264
When was paper trade classified as earned income?
5a6510ccc2b11c001a425bd9
True
less costly and in some ways less fragile
281
Why was paper tape better than timesharing systems?
5a6510ccc2b11c001a425bda
True
code 15 (Control-O, Shift In)
896
What code eventually became popularized by ASCII-1963?
5a6510ccc2b11c001a425bdb
True
Probably the most influential single device on the interpretation of these characters was the Teletype Model 33 ASR, which was a printing terminal with an available paper tape reader/punch option. Paper tape was a very popular medium for long-term program storage until the 1980s, less costly and in some ways less fragile than magnetic tape. In particular, the Teletype Model 33 machine assignments for codes 17 (Control-Q, DC1, also known as XON), 19 (Control-S, DC3, also known as XOFF), and 127 (Delete) became de facto standards. The Model 33 was also notable for taking the description of Control-G (BEL, meaning audibly alert the operator) literally as the unit contained an actual bell which it rang when it received a BEL character. Because the keytop for the O key also showed a left-arrow symbol (from ASCII-1963, which had this character instead of underscore), a noncompliant use of code 15 (Control-O, Shift In) interpreted as "delete previous character" was also adopted by many early timesharing systems but eventually became neglected.
Why were problems created when transferring files between systems?
570bfb6dec8fbc190045bbf4
The inherent ambiguity of many control characters, combined with their historical usage
0
False
Teletype machines had to have two codes to termanate a line, what were they?
570bfb6dec8fbc190045bbf5
"Carriage Return" (which moves the printhead to the beginning of the line) and "Line Feed" (which advances the paper one line without moving the printhead)
309
False
Where does the name "Carriage Return" come from?
570bfb6dec8fbc190045bbf6
on a manual typewriter the carriage holding the paper moved while the position where the typebars struck the ribbon remained stationary
518
False
What side does the carriage have to be pushed to when starting a new line?
570bfb6dec8fbc190045bbf7
right
710
False
The inherent ambiguity of many control characters, combined with their historical usage
0
Why were problems created when beginning a line?
5a651dd3c2b11c001a425c33
True
"Carriage Return" (which moves the printhead to the beginning of the line) and "Line Feed" (which advances the paper one line without moving the printhead)
309
Teletype machines had to have entire carriages to terminate a line, what were they?
5a651dd3c2b11c001a425c34
True
right
710
What side does the carriage have to be pushed to without moving the printhead?
5a651dd3c2b11c001a425c35
True
Carriage Return
310
What moves the printhead to the various operating systems?
5a651dd3c2b11c001a425c36
True
Line Feed
389
Which advances the paper where the typebars strike the ribbon?
5a651dd3c2b11c001a425c37
True
The inherent ambiguity of many control characters, combined with their historical usage, created problems when transferring "plain text" files between systems. The best example of this is the newline problem on various operating systems. Teletype machines required that a line of text be terminated with both "Carriage Return" (which moves the printhead to the beginning of the line) and "Line Feed" (which advances the paper one line without moving the printhead). The name "Carriage Return" comes from the fact that on a manual typewriter the carriage holding the paper moved while the position where the typebars struck the ribbon remained stationary. The entire carriage had to be pushed (returned) to the right in order to position the left margin of the paper for the next line.
When was the first typewritter with a shift key created?
570bfcd5ec8fbc190045bbfc
1878
285
False
What were used instead of 0 and 1?
570bfcd5ec8fbc190045bbfd
using O (capital letter o) and l (lowercase letter L) instead
420
False
What layout did the Teletype Model 33 use?
570bfcd5ec8fbc190045bbfe
which used the left-shifted layout corresponding to ASCII
1077
False
Do shift values for symbols on modern keyboards correspond closely to the ASCII table?
570bfcd5ec8fbc190045bbff
do not correspond as closely
1444
False
1878
285
When was the first typewriter with a 0 key created?
5a6501b4c2b11c001a425b97
True
using O (capital letter o) and l (lowercase letter L) instead,
420
What were used instead of underscores?
5a6501b4c2b11c001a425b98
True
which used the left-shifted layout corresponding to ASCII
1077
What space character did the Teletype Model 33 use?
5a6501b4c2b11c001a425b99
True
Many of the non-alphanumeric characters were positioned to correspond to their shifted position on typewriters; an important subtlety is that these were based on mechanical typewriters, not electric typewriters. Mechanical typewriters followed the standard set by the Remington No. 2 (1878), the first typewriter with a shift key, and the shifted values of 23456789- were "#$%_&'() –  early typewriters omitted 0 and 1, using O (capital letter o) and l (lowercase letter L) instead, but 1! and 0) pairs became standard once 0 and 1 became common. Thus, in ASCII !"#$% were placed in second column, rows 1–5, corresponding to the digits 1–5 in the adjacent column. The parentheses could not correspond to 9 and 0, however, because the place corresponding to 0 was taken by the space character. This was accommodated by removing _ (underscore) from 6 and shifting the remaining characters left, which corresponded to many European typewriters that placed the parentheses with 8 and 9. This discrepancy from typewriters led to bit-paired keyboards, notably the Teletype Model 33, which used the left-shifted layout corresponding to ASCII, not to traditional mechanical typewriters. Electric typewriters, notably the more recently introduced IBM Selectric (1961), used a somewhat different layout that has become standard on computers—​​following the IBM PC (1981), especially Model M (1984)—​​and thus shift values for symbols on modern keyboards do not correspond as closely to the ASCII table as earlier keyboards did. The /? pair also dates to the No. 2, and the ,< .> pairs were used on some keyboards (others, including the No. 2, did not shift , (comma) or . (full stop) so they could be used in uppercase without unshifting). However, ASCII split the ;: pair (dating to No. 2), and rearranged mathematical symbols (varied conventions, commonly -* =+) to :* ;+ -=.
What is the official name of code 127?
570bfe83ec8fbc190045bc04
delete
30
False
What was code 127 labeled as for the Teletype?
570bfe83ec8fbc190045bc05
rubout
66
False
Why did Teletype have the code for "rubout"?
570bfe83ec8fbc190045bc06
to make it an ignored character
268
False
delete
30
What is the official name of an existing mark?
5a651510c2b11c001a425bf3
True
rubout
66
What was NUL named as for the Teletype?
5a651510c2b11c001a425bf4
True
to make it an ignored character
268
Why did teletype have extra spaces for "rubout"?
5a651510c2b11c001a425bf5
True
put into the empty space
637
What happened to replacements of control codes?
5a651510c2b11c001a425bf6
True
punching the all-ones bit pattern on top of an existing mark would obliterate it
384
Why was standard code useful for paper tape?
5a651510c2b11c001a425bf7
True
Code 127 is officially named "delete" but the Teletype label was "rubout". Since the original standard did not give detailed interpretation for most control codes, interpretations of this code varied. The original Teletype meaning, and the intent of the standard, was to make it an ignored character, the same as NUL (all zeroes). This was useful specifically for paper tape, because punching the all-ones bit pattern on top of an existing mark would obliterate it. Tapes designed to be "hand edited" could even be produced with spaces of extra NULs (blank tape) so that a block of characters could be "rubbed out" and then replacements put into the empty space.
Why is adding two characters at the ned of a line problemsome?
570c0099ec8fbc190045bc0a
introduces unnecessary complexity and questions as to how to interpret each character when encountered alone
66
False
What id Multics use to simplify plain text data?
570c0099ec8fbc190045bc0b
line feed (LF) alone as a line terminator
254
False
Who adopted this practice from Multics?
570c0099ec8fbc190045bc0c
Unix and Unix-like systems, and Amiga systems
297
False
What used carriage return(CR) alone as a line terminator?
570c0099ec8fbc190045bc0d
Macintosh OS, Apple DOS, and ProDOS
395
False
When did Apple replace their CR with line feed (LF)?
570c0099ec8fbc190045bc0e
since Apple replaced these operating systems with the Unix-based OS X operating system
514
False
introduces unnecessary complexity and questions as to how to interpret each character when encountered alone
66
Why is adding the Unix-based operating system at the end of a line problemsome?
5a652128c2b11c001a425c51
True
line feed (LF) alone as a line terminator
254
What did characters use to simplify plain text data?
5a652128c2b11c001a425c52
True
Unix and Unix-like systems, and Amiga systems
297
Who adopted this practice from Apple?
5a652128c2b11c001a425c53
True
Macintosh OS, Apple DOS, and ProDOS
395
What used carriage return(CR) alone as a data stream?
5a652128c2b11c001a425c54
True
since Apple replaced these operating systems with the Unix-based OS X operating system
514
When did Amiga stystems replace their CR with line feed (LF)?
5a652128c2b11c001a425c55
True
Unfortunately, requiring two characters to mark the end of a line introduces unnecessary complexity and questions as to how to interpret each character when encountered alone. To simplify matters plain text data streams, including files, on Multics used line feed (LF) alone as a line terminator. Unix and Unix-like systems, and Amiga systems, adopted this convention from Multics. The original Macintosh OS, Apple DOS, and ProDOS, on the other hand, used carriage return (CR) alone as a line terminator; however, since Apple replaced these operating systems with the Unix-based OS X operating system, they now use line feed (LF) as well.
Digestion
What is the first step in the human digestive system?
570be2d2ec8fbc190045bbbe
the action of mastication (chewing)
100
False
What is saliva?
570be2d2ec8fbc190045bbbf
a liquid secreted by the salivary glands
212
False
What is in saliva that starts to digest the starches?
570be2d2ec8fbc190045bbc0
salivary amylase
263
False
What is the definition of bolus?
570be2d2ec8fbc190045bbc1
a small, round slurry mass
581
False
What is the action of the food morving down the esophagus into the stomach called?
570be2d2ec8fbc190045bbc2
peristalsis
701
False
In the human digestive system, food enters the mouth and mechanical digestion of the food starts by the action of mastication (chewing), a form of mechanical digestion, and the wetting contact of saliva. Saliva, a liquid secreted by the salivary glands, contains salivary amylase, an enzyme which starts the digestion of starch in the food; the saliva also contains mucus, which lubricates the food, and hydrogen carbonate, which provides the ideal conditions of pH (alkaline) for amylase to work. After undergoing mastication and starch digestion, the food will be in the form of a small, round slurry mass called a bolus. It will then travel down the esophagus and into the stomach by the action of peristalsis. Gastric juice in the stomach starts protein digestion. Gastric juice mainly contains hydrochloric acid and pepsin. As these two chemicals may damage the stomach wall, mucus is secreted by the stomach, providing a slimy layer that acts as a shield against the damaging effects of the chemicals. At the same time protein digestion is occurring, mechanical mixing occurs by peristalsis, which is waves of muscular contractions that move along the stomach wall. This allows the mass of food to further mix with the digestive enzymes.
What is the practive of coprophagia behaviours?
570be36dec8fbc190045bbc8
eating specialised faeces in order to re-digest food
78
False
Why do some animals pass food through their gut twice?
570be36dec8fbc190045bbc9
extract more nutrition
305
False
What happens with these soft feacal pellets?
570be36dec8fbc190045bbca
excreted and generally consumed immediately
442
False
Are normal droppings also eaten?
570be36dec8fbc190045bbcb
not eaten
533
False
Other animals, such as rabbits and rodents, practise coprophagia behaviours - eating specialised faeces in order to re-digest food, especially in the case of roughage. Capybara, rabbits, hamsters and other related species do not have a complex digestive system as do, for example, ruminants. Instead they extract more nutrition from grass by giving their food a second pass through the gut. Soft faecal pellets of partially digested food are excreted and generally consumed immediately. They also produce normal droppings, which are not eaten.
What are the two types of digestion?
570be5f1ec8fbc190045bbd0
internal and external digestion
78
False
When did external digestion develop?
570be5f1ec8fbc190045bbd1
earlier in evolutionary history
140
False
What still uses the external digestion system?
570be5f1ec8fbc190045bbd2
most fungi
177
False
What is the name of the tube that helps add in animal digestion?
570be5f1ec8fbc190045bbd3
gastrointestinal tract
410
False
Why is internal digection better than external?
570be5f1ec8fbc190045bbd4
more of the broken down products can be captured, and the internal chemical environment can be more efficiently controlled
502
False
Digestive systems take many forms. There is a fundamental distinction between internal and external digestion. External digestion developed earlier in evolutionary history, and most fungi still rely on it. In this process, enzymes are secreted into the environment surrounding the organism, where they break down an organic material, and some of the products diffuse back to the organism. Animals have a tube (gastrointestinal tract) in which internal digestion occurs, which is more efficient because more of the broken down products can be captured, and the internal chemical environment can be more efficiently controlled.
What elements can transfer to plant cells?
570cee7ffed7b91900d45afb
Agrobacterium Ti or Ri plasmids
151
False
Where do transferred genes enter?
570cee7ffed7b91900d45afc
the plant cell nucleus
258
False
What do bacteria use as carbon and energy sources?
570cee7ffed7b91900d45afd
opines
360
False
What happens to infected plant cells?
570cee7ffed7b91900d45afe
end
506
False
What are endosymbionts of the bacteria?
570cee7ffed7b91900d45aff
The Ti and Ri plasmids
474
False
The nitrogen fixing Rhizobia are an interesting case, wherein conjugative elements naturally engage in inter-kingdom conjugation. Such elements as the Agrobacterium Ti or Ri plasmids contain elements that can transfer to plant cells. Transferred genes enter the plant cell nucleus and effectively transform the plant cells into factories for the production of opines, which the bacteria use as carbon and energy sources. Infected plant cells form crown gall or root tumors. The Ti and Ri plasmids are thus endosymbionts of the bacteria, which are in turn endosymbionts (or parasites) of the infected plant.
Where are teeth found?
570cef0dfed7b91900d45b05
in the jaws (or mouths)
58
False
What are teeth used for?
570cef0dfed7b91900d45b06
to tear, scrape, milk and chew food
116
False
What are teeth made out of?
570cef0dfed7b91900d45b07
enamel, dentine and cementum
244
False
What in human teeth enables proprioception?
570cef0dfed7b91900d45b08
a blood and nerve supply
291
False
What happens when you bite something you cant chew?
570cef0dfed7b91900d45b09
our teeth send a message to our brain and we realise that it cannot be chewed, so we stop trying.
502
False
Teeth (singular tooth) are small whitish structures found in the jaws (or mouths) of many vertebrates that are used to tear, scrape, milk and chew food. Teeth are not made of bone, but rather of tissues of varying density and hardness, such as enamel, dentine and cementum. Human teeth have a blood and nerve supply which enables proprioception. This is the ability of sensation when chewing, for example if we were to bite into something too hard for our teeth, such as a chipped plate mixed in food, our teeth send a message to our brain and we realise that it cannot be chewed, so we stop trying.
What is the fourth and final stomach compartment in ruminants?
570cef82b3d812140066d33f
The abomasum
0
False
What is the abomasums close equivalent?
570cef82b3d812140066d340
a monogastric stomach
99
False
What does this site serve primarily as?
570cef82b3d812140066d341
a site for acid hydrolysis of microbial and dietary protein, preparing these protein sources for further digestion and absorption in the small intestine.
229
False
What happens to digesta when it moves to the small intestine?
570cef82b3d812140066d342
the digestion and absorption of nutrients occurs
440
False
What is also digested in the small intestine?
570cef82b3d812140066d343
Microbes produced in the reticulo-rumen are also digested in the small intestine
490
False
The abomasum is the fourth and final stomach compartment in ruminants. It is a close equivalent of a monogastric stomach (e.g., those in humans or pigs), and digesta is processed here in much the same way. It serves primarily as a site for acid hydrolysis of microbial and dietary protein, preparing these protein sources for further digestion and absorption in the small intestine. Digesta is finally moved into the small intestine, where the digestion and absorption of nutrients occurs. Microbes produced in the reticulo-rumen are also digested in the small intestine.
What does a earthworms digestive systme consist of?
570cf000fed7b91900d45b0f
a mouth, pharynx, esophagus, crop, gizzard, and intestine.
44
False
What does an earthworm eat?
570cf000fed7b91900d45b10
dead grass, leaves, and weeds
183
False
What helps the earthworm grab grass leaves and weeds?
570cf000fed7b91900d45b11
The mouth is surrounded by strong lips
103
False
What is the food coated with for easier passage?
570cf000fed7b91900d45b12
mucus
338
False
What part of the earthworm helps churn and mix the dirt and food?
570cf000fed7b91900d45b13
The powerful muscles of the gizzard
546
False
An earthworm's digestive system consists of a mouth, pharynx, esophagus, crop, gizzard, and intestine. The mouth is surrounded by strong lips, which act like a hand to grab pieces of dead grass, leaves, and weeds, with bits of soil to help chew. The lips break the food down into smaller pieces. In the pharynx, the food is lubricated by mucus secretions for easier passage. The esophagus adds calcium carbonate to neutralize the acids formed by food matter decay. Temporary storage occurs in the crop where food and calcium carbonate are mixed. The powerful muscles of the gizzard churn and mix the mass of food and dirt. When the churning is complete, the glands in the walls of the gizzard add enzymes to the thick paste, which helps chemically breakdown the organic matter. By peristalsis, the mixture is sent to the intestine where friendly bacteria continue chemical breakdown. This releases carbohydrates, protein, fat, and various vitamins and minerals for absorption into the body.
Where does the digestions of some fats start?
570cf05db3d812140066d349
in the mouth
33
False
Where are fats mainly digested?
570cf05db3d812140066d34a
the small intestine
158
False
What happens when there is a presence of fat in the small intestine?
570cf05db3d812140066d34b
produces hormones that stimulate the release of pancreatic lipase from the pancreas and bile from the liver
222
False
What does bile from the liver help do?
570cf05db3d812140066d34c
helps in the emulsification of fats for absorption of fatty acids
336
False
What is one molecule of fat?
570cf05db3d812140066d34d
a triglyceride
446
False
Digestion of some fats can begin in the mouth where lingual lipase breaks down some short chain lipids into diglycerides. However fats are mainly digested in the small intestine. The presence of fat in the small intestine produces hormones that stimulate the release of pancreatic lipase from the pancreas and bile from the liver which helps in the emulsification of fats for absorption of fatty acids. Complete digestion of one molecule of fat (a triglyceride) results a mixture of fatty acids, mono- and di-glycerides, as well as some undigested triglycerides, but no free glycerol molecules.
What is digestion?
570cf0b5b3d812140066d353
the breakdown of large insoluble food molecules into small water-soluble food molecules so that they can be absorbed into the watery blood plasma
13
False
In some organisms, how are these molecules absorbed?
570cf0b5b3d812140066d354
these smaller substances are absorbed through the small intestine into the blood stream
182
False
What are the two ways that food is broken down?
570cf0b5b3d812140066d355
mechanical and chemical digestion
380
False
What is mechanical digestion?
570cf0b5b3d812140066d356
the physical breakdown of large pieces of food into smaller pieces which can subsequently be accessed by digestive enzymes
455
False
What is chemical digestion?
570cf0b5b3d812140066d357
enzymes break down food into the small molecules the body can use
602
False
Digestion is the breakdown of large insoluble food molecules into small water-soluble food molecules so that they can be absorbed into the watery blood plasma. In certain organisms, these smaller substances are absorbed through the small intestine into the blood stream. Digestion is a form of catabolism that is often divided into two processes based on how food is broken down: mechanical and chemical digestion. The term mechanical digestion refers to the physical breakdown of large pieces of food into smaller pieces which can subsequently be accessed by digestive enzymes. In chemical digestion, enzymes break down food into the small molecules the body can use.
What are three digestions phases?
570cf137b3d812140066d35d
the cephalic phase , gastric phase, and intestinal phase
52
False
Where does the cephalic phase occur?
570cf137b3d812140066d35e
at the sight, thought and smell of food, which stimulate the cerebral cortex
136
False
Where are taste and smell stimuli sent to?
570cf137b3d812140066d35f
the hypothalamus and medulla oblongata
250
False
How long does the gastric phase take?
570cf137b3d812140066d360
3 to 4 hours
642
False
How is the gastric phase stimulated to start?
570cf137b3d812140066d361
by distension of the stomach, presence of food in stomach and decrease in pH
673
False
Different phases of digestion take place including: the cephalic phase , gastric phase, and intestinal phase. The cephalic phase occurs at the sight, thought and smell of food, which stimulate the cerebral cortex. Taste and smell stimuli are sent to the hypothalamus and medulla oblongata. After this it is routed through the vagus nerve and release of acetylcholine. Gastric secretion at this phase rises to 40% of maximum rate. Acidity in the stomach is not buffered by food at this point and thus acts to inhibit parietal (secretes acid) and G cell (secretes gastrin) activity via D cell secretion of somatostatin. The gastric phase takes 3 to 4 hours. It is stimulated by distension of the stomach, presence of food in stomach and decrease in pH. Distention activates long and myenteric reflexes. This activates the release of acetylcholine, which stimulates the release of more gastric juices. As protein enters the stomach, it binds to hydrogen ions, which raises the pH of the stomach. Inhibition of gastrin and gastric acid secretion is lifted. This triggers G cells to release gastrin, which in turn stimulates parietal cells to secrete gastric acid. Gastric acid is about 0.5% hydrochloric acid (HCl), which lowers the pH to the desired pH of 1-3. Acid release is also triggered by acetylcholine and histamine. The intestinal phase has two parts, the excitatory and the inhibitory. Partially digested food fills the duodenum. This triggers intestinal gastrin to be released. Enterogastric reflex inhibits vagal nuclei, activating sympathetic fibers causing the pyloric sphincter to tighten to prevent more food from entering, and inhibits local reflexes.
What happens in a chennel transupport system?
570cf193b3d812140066d367
several proteins form a contiguous channel traversing the inner and outer membranes of the bacteria
33
False
What three protien subunites are in the chennel transupport system?
570cf193b3d812140066d368
the ABC protein, membrane fusion protein (MFP), and outer membrane protein (OMP)[specify]
204
False
What does this secretion system transport?
570cf193b3d812140066d369
various molecules, from ions, drugs, to proteins of various sizes
328
False
In a channel transupport system, several proteins form a contiguous channel traversing the inner and outer membranes of the bacteria. It is a simple system, which consists of only three protein subunits: the ABC protein, membrane fusion protein (MFP), and outer membrane protein (OMP)[specify]. This secretion system transports various molecules, from ions, drugs, to proteins of various sizes (20 - 900 kDa). The molecules secreted vary in size from the small Escherichia coli peptide colicin V, (10 kDa) to the Pseudomonas fluorescens cell adhesion protein LapA of 900 kDa.
What other method does Gram-negative bacters use to release material?
570cf238fed7b91900d45b37
the formation of outer membrane vesicles
138
False
What happens with the pinch off part of the outer membrane?
570cf238fed7b91900d45b38
, forming spherical structures made of a lipid bilayer enclosing periplasmic materials
220
False
What does the release of vesicles seem to demenstrate?
570cf238fed7b91900d45b39
response to stress conditions
554
False
What virulence factors do some bacterial species have?
570cf238fed7b91900d45b3a
some have immunomodulatory effects, and some can directly adhere to and intoxicate host cells
398
False
In addition to the use of the multiprotein complexes listed above, Gram-negative bacteria possess another method for release of material: the formation of outer membrane vesicles. Portions of the outer membrane pinch off, forming spherical structures made of a lipid bilayer enclosing periplasmic materials. Vesicles from a number of bacterial species have been found to contain virulence factors, some have immunomodulatory effects, and some can directly adhere to and intoxicate host cells. While release of vesicles has been demonstrated as a general response to stress conditions, the process of loading cargo proteins seems to be selective.
What muscle movements are used for digestion?
570cf297b3d812140066d36d
swallowing and peristalsis
72
False
What does every stpe of digestion require?
570cf297b3d812140066d36e
energy
132
False
What does needing energy to digest impose?
570cf297b3d812140066d36f
an "overhead charge"
157
False
Over head charges influence what?
570cf297b3d812140066d370
lifestyle, behavior, and even physical structures
295
False
Underlying the process is muscle movement throughout the system through swallowing and peristalsis. Each step in digestion requires energy, and thus imposes an "overhead charge" on the energy made available from absorbed substances. Differences in that overhead cost are important influences on lifestyle, behavior, and even physical structures. Examples may be seen in humans, who differ considerably from other hominids (lack of hair, smaller jaws and musculature, different dentition, length of intestines, cooking, etc.).
Where does digestion begin?
570cf2e7fed7b91900d45b49
in the mouth with the secretion of saliva and its digestive enzymes
17
False
What is food formed into before it is swallowed?
570cf2e7fed7b91900d45b4a
a bolus
106
False
Where does food go after the esophagus?
570cf2e7fed7b91900d45b4b
the stomach
198
False
What is the action of food being moved into the stomach?
570cf2e7fed7b91900d45b4c
peristalsis
232
False
What does gastric juice consist of?
570cf2e7fed7b91900d45b4d
hydrochloric acid and pepsin
268
False
Digestion begins in the mouth with the secretion of saliva and its digestive enzymes. Food is formed into a bolus by the mechanical mastication and swallowed into the esophagus from where it enters the stomach through the action of peristalsis. Gastric juice contains hydrochloric acid and pepsin which would damage the walls of the stomach and mucus is secreted for protection. In the stomach further release of enzymes break down the food further and this is combined with the churning action of the stomach. The partially digested food enters the duodenum as a thick semi-liquid chyme. In the small intestine, the larger part of digestion takes place and this is helped by the secretions of bile, pancreatic juice and intestinal juice. The intestinal walls are lined with villi, and their epithelial cells is covered with numerous microvilli to improve the absorption of nutrients by increasing the surface area of the intestine.
What is lactase?
570cf364fed7b91900d45b53
an enzyme that breaks down the disaccharide lactose to its component parts
11
False
What are lactoses component parts?
570cf364fed7b91900d45b54
glucose and galactose
87
False
Where are glucose and galactose absorbed?
570cf364fed7b91900d45b55
small intestine
155
False
What percent of the population are unable to eat unfermented milk-based foods?
570cf364fed7b91900d45b56
Approximately 65 percent
172
False
What is knon as when you are  unable to eat unfermented milk-based foods?
570cf364fed7b91900d45b57
lactose intolerance
337
False
Lactase is an enzyme that breaks down the disaccharide lactose to its component parts, glucose and galactose. Glucose and galactose can be absorbed by the small intestine. Approximately 65 percent of the adult population produce only small amounts of lactase and are unable to eat unfermented milk-based foods. This is commonly known as lactose intolerance. Lactose intolerance varies widely by ethnic heritage; more than 90 percent of peoples of east Asian descent are lactose intolerant, in contrast to about 5 percent of people of northern European descent.
What is the resulting thick liquid called?
570cf3cefed7b91900d45b5d
chyme
147
False
What does chyme mix with in the duodenum?
570cf3cefed7b91900d45b5e
digestive enzymes from the pancreas and bile juice from the liver
240
False
Where does hyme go after the duodenum?
570cf3cefed7b91900d45b5f
the small intestine
330
False
Where is chyme absorbed into?
570cf3cefed7b91900d45b60
blood
439
False
Where does 95% of absobtion of nutrients occur?
570cf3cefed7b91900d45b61
the small intestine
487
False
After some time (typically 1–2 hours in humans, 4–6 hours in dogs, 3–4 hours in house cats),[citation needed] the resulting thick liquid is called chyme. When the pyloric sphincter valve opens, chyme enters the duodenum where it mixes with digestive enzymes from the pancreas and bile juice from the liver and then passes through the small intestine, in which digestion continues. When the chyme is fully digested, it is absorbed into the blood. 95% of absorption of nutrients occurs in the small intestine. Water and minerals are reabsorbed back into the blood in the colon (large intestine) where the pH is slightly acidic about 5.6 ~ 6.9. Some vitamins, such as biotin and vitamin K (K2MK7) produced by bacteria in the colon are also absorbed into the blood in the colon. Waste material is eliminated from the rectum during defecation.
What is the firs phase in preparation for digestion  in mammals?
570cf442fed7b91900d45b71
the cephalic phase
50
False
What is the cephalic phase?
570cf442fed7b91900d45b72
saliva is produced in the mouth and digestive enzymes are produced in the stomach
78
False
What digestions begin in the mouth?
570cf442fed7b91900d45b73
Mechanical and chemical digestion
161
False
What happens in the stomach after the food is chewed and mixed with starches?
570cf442fed7b91900d45b74
The stomach continues to break food down mechanically and chemically through churning and mixing with both acids and enzymes
301
False
Where does absorption occur?
570cf442fed7b91900d45b75
in the stomach and gastrointestinal tract
445
False
In mammals, preparation for digestion begins with the cephalic phase in which saliva is produced in the mouth and digestive enzymes are produced in the stomach. Mechanical and chemical digestion begin in the mouth where food is chewed, and mixed with saliva to begin enzymatic processing of starches. The stomach continues to break food down mechanically and chemically through churning and mixing with both acids and enzymes. Absorption occurs in the stomach and gastrointestinal tract, and the process finishes with defecation.
Where does protein digestion occur?
570cf4cefed7b91900d45b7b
in the stomach and duodenum
25
False
What are the three main enzymes that break down food?
570cf4cefed7b91900d45b7c
pepsin secreted by the stomach and trypsin and chymotrypsin
78
False
What are digestive enzymes mostly secreted as?
570cf4cefed7b91900d45b7d
inactive precursors, the zymogens
352
False
What are dipeptidases broken down into?
570cf4cefed7b91900d45b7e
amino acids
280
False
What organ secretes chymotrypsin?
570cf4cefed7b91900d45b7f
the pancreas
150
False
Protein digestion occurs in the stomach and duodenum in which 3 main enzymes, pepsin secreted by the stomach and trypsin and chymotrypsin secreted by the pancreas, break down food proteins into polypeptides that are then broken down by various exopeptidases and dipeptidases into amino acids. The digestive enzymes however are mostly secreted as their inactive precursors, the zymogens. For example, trypsin is secreted by pancreas in the form of trypsinogen, which is activated in the duodenum by enterokinase to form trypsin. Trypsin then cleaves proteins to smaller polypeptides.
Gymnastics
What is the maximum length of a runway?
570c02e4ec8fbc190045bc14
25 meters
53
False
Who gets to chose where a gymnast starts to run on the runway?
570c02e4ec8fbc190045bc15
The gymnast
111
False
What position is the gymnast when in the air?
570c02e4ec8fbc190045bc16
a standing position
318
False
What are later added to the landing by advanced gymnasts?
570c02e4ec8fbc190045bc17
multiple twists and somersaults
363
False
What do successful vaults depend on other than speed of the run?
570c02e4ec8fbc190045bc18
the length of the hurdle, the power the gymnast generates from the legs and shoulder girdle, the kinesthetic awareness in the air, and the speed of rotation
474
False
before hurdling onto a spring board
74
When does a gymnast put both hands in the air?
5a6123a8e9e1cc001a33cfa4
True
The gymnast then rotates to a standing position
290
What is kicking?
5a6123a8e9e1cc001a33cfa5
True
where they start on the runway
144
What do the judges choose?
5a6123a8e9e1cc001a33cfa6
True
advanced gymnastics
342
What is it called when gymnasts do routines with their team?
5a6123a8e9e1cc001a33cfa7
True
Gymnasts sprint down a runway, which is a maximum of 25 meters in length, before hurdling onto a spring board. The gymnast is allowed to choose where they start on the runway. The body position is maintained while "punching" (blocking using only a shoulder movement) the vaulting platform. The gymnast then rotates to a standing position. In advanced gymnastics, multiple twists and somersaults may be added before landing. Successful vaults depend on the speed of the run, the length of the hurdle, the power the gymnast generates from the legs and shoulder girdle, the kinesthetic awareness in the air, and the speed of rotation in the case of more difficult and complex vaults.
What rules state that only women can compete in rhythmic gymastics?
570c0ad6ec8fbc190045bc28
FIG
13
False
What does rhythmic gymastics combine together?
570c0ad6ec8fbc190045bc29
ballet, gymnastics, dance, and apparatus manipulation
109
False
What five seperate apparatuses are used in the five separate routines?
570c0ad6ec8fbc190045bc2a
ball, ribbon, hoop, clubs, rope
257
False
Which is more focused on, aesthetics or acrobatics?
570c0ad6ec8fbc190045bc2b
aesthetic
342
False
How many possible points are there for rhythmic routines?
570c0ad6ec8fbc190045bc2c
30 points
516
False
FIG rules
13
What rules determine what women are allowed to wear?
5a612ad2e9e1cc001a33cfca
True
rhythmic gymnastics
46
What places a greater emphasis on the acrobatic rather than the aesthetic?
5a612ad2e9e1cc001a33cfcb
True
ball, ribbon, hoop, clubs, rope
257
What items do men use?
5a612ad2e9e1cc001a33cfcc
True
rhythmic gymnastics
46
What sport combines elements of jumping, bars, and tumbling?
5a612ad2e9e1cc001a33cfcd
True
30 points
516
How many points do gymnasts need to get to the second round?
5a612ad2e9e1cc001a33cfce
True
According to FIG rules, only women compete in rhythmic gymnastics. This is a sport that combines elements of ballet, gymnastics, dance, and apparatus manipulation. The sport involves the performance of five separate routines with the use of five apparatus; ball, ribbon, hoop, clubs, rope—on a floor area, with a much greater emphasis on the aesthetic rather than the acrobatic. There are also group routines consisting of 5 gymnasts and 5 apparatuses of their choice. Rhythmic routines are scored out of a possible 30 points; the score for artistry (choreography and music) is averaged with the score for difficulty of the moves and then added to the score for execution.
What does AGG stand for?
570cdf17fed7b91900d45a3f
Aesthetic Group Gymnastics
0
False
Why is AGG different than Rhythmic Gymnastics?
570cdf17fed7b91900d45a40
body movement is large and continuous and teams are larger'
126
False
Do athletes use apparatuses in the international AGG competitions?
570cdf17fed7b91900d45a41
do not use apparatus in international AGG competitions
195
False
What physical qualities are needed for rhythmic gymastics?
570cdf17fed7b91900d45a42
flexibility, balance, speed, strength, coordination and sense of rhythm
391
False
What year was the Federsation of Aesthetic Group Gymnastics established?
570cdf17fed7b91900d45a43
2003
871
False
Aesthetic Group Gymnastics (AGG)
0
What is another name for Rhythmic Gymnastics?
5a6132d6e9e1cc001a33cffc
True
ball, ribbon, hoop and clubs
288
What is used on the floor area in AGG?
5a6132d6e9e1cc001a33cffd
True
uniformity and simultaneity
596
What characterized a bad performance?
5a6132d6e9e1cc001a33cffe
True
2003
871
In what year did AGG begin?
5a6132d6e9e1cc001a33cfff
True
Finnish
56
What language does the word expression come from?
5a6132d6e9e1cc001a33d000
True
Aesthetic Group Gymnastics (AGG) was developed from the Finnish "naisvoimistelu". It differs from Rhythmic Gymnastics in that body movement is large and continuous and teams are larger' Athletes do not use apparatus in international AGG competitions compared to Rhythmic Gymnastics where ball, ribbon, hoop and clubs are used on the floor area. The sport requires physical qualities such as flexibility, balance, speed, strength, coordination and sense of rhythm where movements of the body are emphasized through the flow, expression and aesthetic appeal. A good performance is characterized by uniformity and simultaneity. The competition program consists of versatile and varied body movements, such as body waves, swings, balances, pivots, jumps and leaps, dance steps, and lifts. The International Federation of Aesthetic Group Gymnastics (IFAGG) was established in 2003.
What is the rope made out of that the gymnists uses in their routine?
570cdfbefed7b91900d45a49
hemp or a synthetic material
30
False
How long is the rope?
570cdfbefed7b91900d45a4a
Its length is in proportion to the size of the gymnast
116
False
What are at the ends of the ropes to help the gymnists hold it?
570cdfbefed7b91900d45a4b
One or two knots at each end are for keeping hold of the rope while doing the routine.
254
False
What other requirement is there for the rope?
570cdfbefed7b91900d45a4c
The rope must be coloured, either all or partially and may either be of a uniform diameter or be progressively thicker in the center
493
False
When did FIG decide to nullify the use of ropes in competition?
570cdfbefed7b91900d45a4d
2011
851
False
The rope
172
What is made out of cotton and reeds?
5a61378ee9e1cc001a33d01a
True
for keeping hold of the rope while doing the routine
287
Why are the ropes covered in powder?
5a61378ee9e1cc001a33d01b
True
same material as the rope
666
What is the anti-slip material made from?
5a61378ee9e1cc001a33d01c
True
2011
851
In what year were ropes first used in the Gymnastic World Championships?
5a61378ee9e1cc001a33d01d
True
Its length is in proportion to the size of the gymnast
116
What is the length of gymnast head bands?
5a61378ee9e1cc001a33d01e
True
This apparatus may be made of hemp or a synthetic material which retains the qualities of lightness and suppleness. Its length is in proportion to the size of the gymnast. The rope should, when held down by the feet, reach both of the gymnasts' armpits. One or two knots at each end are for keeping hold of the rope while doing the routine. At the ends (to the exclusion of all other parts of the rope) an anti-slip material, either coloured or neutral may cover a maximum of 10 cm (3.94 in). The rope must be coloured, either all or partially and may either be of a uniform diameter or be progressively thicker in the center provided that this thickening is of the same material as the rope. The fundamental requirements of a rope routine include leaps and skipping. Other elements include swings, throws, circles, rotations and figures of eight. In 2011, the FIG decided to nullify the use of rope in rhythmic gymnastic competitions.
Where was the FIG founded?
570ce0b1fed7b91900d45a5d
Liege
64
False
What year was FIG founded?
570ce0b1fed7b91900d45a5e
1881
73
False
When was gymnastics included in the Olympics?
570ce0b1fed7b91900d45a5f
1896
219
False
When were the first women's Olympic competitions held?
570ce0b1fed7b91900d45a60
1928
774
False
Where were the first women's Olympic competitions held?
570ce0b1fed7b91900d45a61
in Amsterdam
780
False
1881
73
What year was the BIT founded?
5a6118ece9e1cc001a33cefe
True
Amsterdam
783
Where were the first Olympic Games held?
5a6118ece9e1cc001a33ceff
True
synchronized calisthenics and track and field
702
What events were in the first men's gymnastics?
5a6118ece9e1cc001a33cf00
True
the early 1950s
244
When did athletes start getting medals?
5a6118ece9e1cc001a33cf01
True
1928
774
When did the first South American country compete in the Olympic Games?
5a6118ece9e1cc001a33cf02
True
The Federation of International Gymnastics (FIG) was founded in Liege in 1881. By the end of the nineteenth century, men's gymnastics competition was popular enough to be included in the first "modern" Olympic Games in 1896. From then on until the early 1950s, both national and international competitions involved a changing variety of exercises gathered under the rubric, gymnastics, that would seem strange to today's audiences and that included for example, synchronized team floor calisthenics, rope climbing, high jumping, running, and horizontal ladder. During the 1920s, women organized and participated in gymnastics events. The first women's Olympic competition was primitive, only involving synchronized calisthenics and track and field. These games were held in 1928, in Amsterdam.
How long is the run way in vaulting?
570ce135fed7b91900d45a67
25 metres (82 ft)
47
False
How man feet do vaulters land on?
570ce135fed7b91900d45a68
a two footed landing
363
False
What determines where a vaulter starts on the runway?
570ce135fed7b91900d45a69
their height and strength
482
False
What is a round-off entry vault called?
570ce135fed7b91900d45a6a
Yurchenko
650
False
What is the most common vault in elite level gymnastics?
570ce135fed7b91900d45a6b
yurchenko
731
False
their height and strength
482
What factors in to a gymnast's score?
5a611e46e9e1cc001a33cf4e
True
multiple saltos or somersaults, and/or twisting movements
557
What do gymnasts do while waiting for their turn?
5a611e46e9e1cc001a33cf4f
True
a Yurchenko
648
What vault leaves gymnasts in a hand stand?
5a611e46e9e1cc001a33cf50
True
vaulting events
7
In what kind of events do gymnasts jump through fire?
5a611e46e9e1cc001a33cf51
True
Yurchenko
650
What is the most dangerous vault in elite gymnastics?
5a611e46e9e1cc001a33cf52
True
In the vaulting events, gymnasts sprint down a 25 metres (82 ft) runway, jump onto a spring filled board or perform a roundoff, or handspring entry onto a springboard (run/ take-off segment), land momentarily, inverted on the hands on the vaulting horse, or vaulting table (pre flight segment), then propel themselves forward or backward, off of this platform to a two footed landing (post flight segment). Every gymnast starts at a different point on the vault runway depending on their height and strength. The post flight segment may include one or more multiple saltos or somersaults, and/or twisting movements. A round-off entry vault, called a Yurchenko, is the most common vault in elite level gymnastics. When performing a yurchenko, gymnasts "round-off" so hands are on the runway while the feet land on the springboard (beatboard). From the roundoff position the gymnast travels backwards and executes a backhandspring so that the hands land on the vaulting table. The gymnast then blocks off the vaulting platform into various twisting and/or somersaulting combinations. The post flight segment brings the gymnast to her feet.
How are gymnasts scored?
570ce1bab3d812140066d2e1
from deductions taken from their start value
24
False
How is the start vaule determined?
570ce1bab3d812140066d2e2
e start value of a routine is based on the difficulty of the elements the gymnast attempts and whether or not the gymnast meets composition requirements
72
False
What is this score called?
570ce1bab3d812140066d2e3
D score
314
False
Deductions in execution and artistry are taken from what score?
570ce1bab3d812140066d2e4
10.0
375
False
What were added to scoring in 2007?
570ce1bab3d812140066d2e5
adding bonus plus the execution and then adding those two together to get the final score
568
False
start value
57
What is another name for a 10.0?
5a612607e9e1cc001a33cfac
True
this score is called the D score.
289
What is it called when a gymnast barely passes?
5a612607e9e1cc001a33cfad
True
E score
406
What score is determined by the fans?
5a612607e9e1cc001a33cfae
True
2007
528
When was the E score first implemented?
5a612607e9e1cc001a33cfaf
True
Deductions in execution and artistry
323
What deductions are taken from the E score?
5a612607e9e1cc001a33cfb0
True
A gymnast's score comes from deductions taken from their start value. The start value of a routine is based on the difficulty of the elements the gymnast attempts and whether or not the gymnast meets composition requirements. The composition requirements are different for each apparatus; this score is called the D score. Deductions in execution and artistry are taken from 10.0. This score is called the E score. The final score is calculated by taking deductions from the E score, and adding the result to the D score. Since 2007, the scoring system has changed by adding bonus plus the execution and then adding those two together to get the final score.
When were the technical rules for the Japanses version of men's rhythmic gymnastics formed?
570ce23eb3d812140066d2eb
1970s
90
False
How many apparatuses are used?
570ce23eb3d812140066d2ec
only four types
114
False
What are the types of apparatuses used?
570ce23eb3d812140066d2ed
the double rings, the stick, the rope, and the clubs
153
False
What apparatuses do groups use?
570ce23eb3d812140066d2ee
Groups do not use any apparatus
207
False
When did Japan hold the first of the Men's Rhythmic Gymnastics World Champtionship?
570ce23eb3d812140066d2ef
November 27–29, 2003
431
False
the 1970s
86
When did the technical rules for women's rhythmic gymnastics come around?
5a612e3ee9e1cc001a33cfde
True
tumbling performed on a spring floor
270
What does the Soviet version include?
5a612e3ee9e1cc001a33cfdf
True
November 27–29, 2003
431
When did China first host the Men's Rhythmic Gymnastics World Championship?
5a612e3ee9e1cc001a33cfe0
True
the double rings, the stick, the rope, and the clubs
153
What apparatus types are only used in Japan?
5a612e3ee9e1cc001a33cfe1
True
Japan
453
Who hosted the first Gymnastics World Championship?
5a612e3ee9e1cc001a33cfe2
True
The technical rules for the Japanese version of men's rhythmic gymnastics came around the 1970s. For individuals, only four types of apparatus are used: the double rings, the stick, the rope, and the clubs. Groups do not use any apparatus. The Japanese version includes tumbling performed on a spring floor. Points are awarded based a 10-point scale that measures the level of difficulty of the tumbling and apparatus handling. On November 27–29, 2003, Japan hosted first edition of the Men's Rhythmic Gymnastics World Championship.
What Greek word did gymnastics derive from?
570ce35bfed7b91900d45a85
γυμνός (gymnos) meaning "naked"
60
False
What does the  verb gymnazo mean?
570ce35bfed7b91900d45a86
to train naked", "train in gymnastic exercise", generally "to train, to exercise"
156
False
Why was this verb used?
570ce35bfed7b91900d45a87
because athletes in ancient times exercised and competed without clothing
266
False
When did the word come into use?
570ce35bfed7b91900d45a88
1570s
365
False
the 1570s
361
When did gymnasts start competing with clothing?
5a6115e6e9e1cc001a33cec2
True
to train naked", "train in gymnastic exercise", generally "to train, to exercise".
156
What does the word gymnoto mean?
5a6115e6e9e1cc001a33cec3
True
gymnos
68
What greek noun means "naked"?
5a6115e6e9e1cc001a33cec4
True
Greek
401
What language does gymnazein come from?
5a6115e6e9e1cc001a33cec5
True
gymnastics
9
What word means playing in the gymnasium?
5a6115e6e9e1cc001a33cec6
True
The word gymnastics derives from the common Greek adjective γυμνός (gymnos) meaning "naked", by way of the related verb γυμνάζω (gymnazo), whose meaning is to train naked", "train in gymnastic exercise", generally "to train, to exercise". The verb had this meaning, because athletes in ancient times exercised and competed without clothing. It came into use in the 1570s, from Latin gymnasticus, from Greek gymnastikos "fond of or skilled in bodily exercise," from gymnazein "to exercise or train" (see gymnasium).
What year was the Olympic Games apparatus and events standardized?
570ce418fed7b91900d45a8d
1954
3
False
What is the grading structure?
570ce418fed7b91900d45a8e
a point system from 1 to 15
149
False
Who set the first precedent that continues this day?
570ce418fed7b91900d45a8f
Soviet gymnasts
214
False
Who recieved the first perfect score?
570ce418fed7b91900d45a90
Nadia Comăneci
568
False
What year and where was the first perfect score given?
570ce418fed7b91900d45a91
1976 Summer Olympics held in Montreal, Canada
624
False
1954
3
When did men and women start wearing matching uniforms?
5a611a4ae9e1cc001a33cf12
True
Soviet gymnasts
214
Who wanted the Olympic games to be held every year?
5a611a4ae9e1cc001a33cf13
True
television
356
What medium gave gymnasts a bad reputation?
5a611a4ae9e1cc001a33cf14
True
Nadia Comăneci
568
Who received a perfect score at the 1980 Olympics?
5a611a4ae9e1cc001a33cf15
True
Béla Károlyi
731
Who was the first gymnastics judge?
5a611a4ae9e1cc001a33cf16
True
By 1954, Olympic Games apparatus and events for both men and women had been standardized in modern format, and uniform grading structures (including a point system from 1 to 15) had been agreed upon. At this time, Soviet gymnasts astounded the world with highly disciplined and difficult performances, setting a precedent that continues. The new medium of television has helped publicize and initiate a modern age of gymnastics. Both men's and women's gymnastics now attract considerable international interest, and excellent gymnasts can be found on every continent. Nadia Comăneci received the first perfect score, at the 1976 Summer Olympics held in Montreal, Canada. She was coached in Romania by coach, (Hungarian ethnicity), Béla Károlyi. Comaneci scored four of her perfect tens on the uneven bars, two on the balance beam and one in the floor exercise. Even with Nadia's perfect scores, the Romanians lost the gold medal to the Soviet Union. Nevertheless, Comaneci became an Olympic icon.
What does a typical pommel horse exercise consist of?
570ce4cfb3d812140066d2ff
both single leg and double leg work
41
False
Single leg skills are found in the form of what normally?
570ce4cfb3d812140066d300
form of scissors, an element often done on the pommels
123
False
What is the main staple of this event?
570ce4cfb3d812140066d301
Double leg work
179
False
When does the routine end?
570ce4cfb3d812140066d302
when the gymnast performs a dismount
590
False
What are two ways that a gymnist dismounts?
570ce4cfb3d812140066d303
by swinging his body over the horse, or landing after a handstand
635
False
A typical pommel horse exercise
0
What exercise involves single arm and double arm work?
5a61226ae9e1cc001a33cf9c
True
scissors
131
What is it called when a gymnast cartwheels on a pommel horse?
5a61226ae9e1cc001a33cf9d
True
when the gymnast performs a dismount
590
When do routines begin?
5a61226ae9e1cc001a33cf9e
True
To make the exercise more challenging
400
Why do gymnasts dismount?
5a61226ae9e1cc001a33cf9f
True
A typical pommel horse exercise involves both single leg and double leg work. Single leg skills are generally found in the form of scissors, an element often done on the pommels. Double leg work however, is the main staple of this event. The gymnast swings both legs in a circular motion (clockwise or counterclockwise depending on preference) and performs such skills on all parts of the apparatus. To make the exercise more challenging, gymnasts will often include variations on a typical circling skill by turning (moores and spindles) or by straddling their legs (Flares). Routines end when the gymnast performs a dismount, either by swinging his body over the horse, or landing after a handstand. This requires back muscles to do any sort of skill. From handstands being easy to back or front flips being a little difficult.
What is a critical skill in terms of execution in scores?
570ce79dfed7b91900d45ab3
landing
39
False
Where do most injuries happen?
570ce79dfed7b91900d45ab4
the lower extremities such as: cartilage lesions, ligament tears, and bone bruises/fractures
378
False
How do you avoid injuries?
570ce79dfed7b91900d45ab5
proper technique must be used by the gymnast
537
False
What is a successful landing?
570ce79dfed7b91900d45ab6
soft, meaning the knee and hip joints are at greater than 63 degrees of flexion
772
False
a tumbling pass
3
What kind of pass limits injuries?
5a6127e5e9e1cc001a33cfb6
True
cartilage lesions, ligament tears, and bone bruises/fractures
409
What injuries are caused when using the wrong mat?
5a6127e5e9e1cc001a33cfb7
True
soft
772
In what kind of landing are the knee and hip joints at less than 63 degrees of flexion?
5a6127e5e9e1cc001a33cfb8
True
somersaulting
320
What is the most dangerous gymnastic routine?
5a6127e5e9e1cc001a33cfb9
True
soft
772
What kind of landings cause gymnasts to lose points?
5a6127e5e9e1cc001a33cfba
True
In a tumbling pass, dismount or vault, landing is the final phase, following take off and flight  This is a critical skill in terms of execution in competition scores, general performance, and injury occurrence. Without the necessary magnitude of energy dissipation during impact, the risk of sustaining injuries during somersaulting increases. These injuries commonly occur at the lower extremities such as: cartilage lesions, ligament tears, and bone bruises/fractures. To avoid such injuries, and to receive a high performance score, proper technique must be used by the gymnast. "The subsequent ground contact or impact landing phase must be achieved using a safe, aesthetic and well-executed double foot landing."  A successful landing in gymnastics is classified as soft, meaning the knee and hip joints are at greater than 63 degrees of flexion.
Individual routines start with what phases?
570ce830fed7b91900d45abb
build-up phase during which the gymnast jumps repeatedly to achieve height
46
False
What does the gymnast do during the 10 bounces.
570ce830fed7b91900d45abc
a sequence of aerial skills
208
False
What is the maximum scroe for routines?
570ce830fed7b91900d45abd
10 points
283
False
How can additional points be earned?
570ce830fed7b91900d45abe
depending on the difficulty of the moves and the length of time taken to complete the ten skills
381
False
In high level competitions how many preliminary rountines are there?
570ce830fed7b91900d45abf
two preliminary routines
575
False
Individual routines
0
What routines involve the gymnast jumping once to achieve height?
5a612cd9e9e1cc001a33cfd4
True
ten
467
How many moves must be shown to the judges?
5a612cd9e9e1cc001a33cfd5
True
restart the score from zero
783
What happens if a gymnast falls down?
5a612cd9e9e1cc001a33cfd6
True
two preliminary routines
575
How many preliminary routines are there in novice competitions?
5a612cd9e9e1cc001a33cfd7
True
the athlete is free to perform any routine
666
What happens if the athlete does not know the assigned moves?
5a612cd9e9e1cc001a33cfd8
True
Individual routines in trampolining involve a build-up phase during which the gymnast jumps repeatedly to achieve height, followed by a sequence of ten bounces without pause during which the gymnast performs a sequence of aerial skills. Routines are marked out of a maximum score of 10 points. Additional points (with no maximum at the highest levels of competition) can be earned depending on the difficulty of the moves and the length of time taken to complete the ten skills which is an indication of the average height of the jumps. In high level competitions, there are two preliminary routines, one which has only two moves scored for difficulty and one where the athlete is free to perform any routine. This is followed by a final routine which is optional. Some competitions restart the score from zero for the finals, other add the final score to the preliminary results.
What are the uneven bars?
570ce8b4fed7b91900d45ac5
two horizontal bars set at different heights
54
False
What are these bars made out of?
570ce8b4fed7b91900d45ac6
fiberglass covered in wood laminate
123
False
Why are the bars not made of wood anymore?
570ce8b4fed7b91900d45ac7
the bars were prone to breaking,
232
False
How have the bars changed over the years?
570ce8b4fed7b91900d45ac8
They've been moved increasingly further apart
431
False
How do gymnasts normally mount the uneven bars?
570ce8b4fed7b91900d45ac9
using a springboard, or a small mat
713
False
to prevent them from breaking
160
Why are uneven bars round?
5a611fcfe9e1cc001a33cf62
True
They've been moved increasingly further apart
431
What did gymnasts do to accommodate taller people?
5a611fcfe9e1cc001a33cf63
True
a springboard, or a small mat. Chalk and
719
What are gymnasts prohibited from using with uneven bars?
5a611fcfe9e1cc001a33cf64
True
helps take the moisture out of gymnast's hands to decrease friction and prevent rips
894
What purpose to hand wraps serve?
5a611fcfe9e1cc001a33cf65
True
On the uneven bars, the gymnast performs a routine on two horizontal bars set at different heights. These bars are made of fiberglass covered in wood laminate, to prevent them from breaking. In the past, bars were made of wood, but the bars were prone to breaking, providing an incentive to switch to newer technologies. The width and height of the bars may be adjusted. In the past, the uneven parallel bars were closer together. They've been moved increasingly further apart, allowing gymnasts to perform swinging, circling, transitional, and release moves, that may pass over, under, and between the two bars. At the Elite level, movements must pass through the handstand. Gymnasts often mount the Uneven Bars using a springboard, or a small mat. Chalk and grips (a leather strip with holes for fingers to protect hands and improve performance) may be used while doing this event. The chalk helps take the moisture out of gymnast's hands to decrease friction and prevent rips (tears to the skin of the hands), dowel grips help gymnasts grip the bar.
What does a higher flight phase result in?
570ce94dfed7b91900d45acf
a higher vertical ground reaction force
33
False
What is vertical ground reaction force?
570ce94dfed7b91900d45ad0
s external force which the gymnasts have to overcome with their muscle force and has an impact on the gymnasts linear and angular momentum
114
False
What else is an important aspect that affects linear and agular movements?
570ce94dfed7b91900d45ad1
time the landing takes Gymnasts
325
False
external force
116
What does horizontal ground reaction force represent?
5a61296be9e1cc001a33cfc0
True
muscle force
178
What overcomes internal force?
5a61296be9e1cc001a33cfc1
True
Gymnasts can alter the shape of the area
348
What happens when gymnasts decrease the time taken to perform the landing?
5a61296be9e1cc001a33cfc2
True
by increasing hip, knee and ankle amplitude
468
How do gymnasts decrease the time taken to perform the landing?
5a61296be9e1cc001a33cfc3
True
A higher flight phase
0
What results in a lower vertical ground reaction force?
5a61296be9e1cc001a33cfc4
True
A higher flight phase results in a higher vertical ground reaction force. Vertical ground reaction force represents external force which the gymnasts have to overcome with their muscle force and has an impact on the gymnasts linear and angular momentum. Another important variable that affects linear and angular momentum is time the landing takes Gymnasts can alter the shape of the area by increasing the time taken to perform the landing. Gymnasts can achieve this by increasing hip, knee and ankle amplitude. With the increase of height, the amplitude in ankles knees and hips rise the bars.
What was aerobic gymnastics called orginally?
570ce9e1b3d812140066d309
Sport Aerobics
29
False
What does aerobic gymnastiscs involve?
570ce9e1b3d812140066d30a
the performance of routines by individuals, pairs, trios or groups up to 6 people, emphasizing strength, flexibility, and aerobic fitness
54
False
How many people can be in a routine?
570ce9e1b3d812140066d30b
individuals, pairs, trios or groups up to 6 people
85
False
What is the size of the mat?
570ce9e1b3d812140066d30c
7x7m
281
False
How long do the routines last?
570ce9e1b3d812140066d30d
Routines generally last 60–90 seconds depending on age of participant and routine category
477
False
Aerobic gymnastics
0
What involves the performance of routines by groups of up to 10 people?
5a613157e9e1cc001a33cff2
True
a 7x7m floor
279
What is the minimum floor size allowed by the FIG?
5a613157e9e1cc001a33cff3
True
60–90 seconds
501
How long do judges have to submit final scores?
5a613157e9e1cc001a33cff4
True
2009
349
When did aerobic gymnastics begin?
5a613157e9e1cc001a33cff5
True
age of participant and routine category
528
What determines what props groups can bring?
5a613157e9e1cc001a33cff6
True
Aerobic gymnastics (formally Sport Aerobics) involves the performance of routines by individuals, pairs, trios or groups up to 6 people, emphasizing strength, flexibility, and aerobic fitness rather than acrobatic or balance skills. Routines are performed for all individuals on a 7x7m floor and also for 12–14 and 15-17 trios and mixed pairs. From 2009, all senior trios and mixed pairs were required to be on the larger floor (10x10m), all groups also perform on this floor. Routines generally last 60–90 seconds depending on age of participant and routine category.
What kind of routines do general gymnastic groups perform?
570ceadbfed7b91900d45ad5
synchronized, choreographed routines
142
False
What do the troupes consist of?
570ceadbfed7b91900d45ad6
of both genders and are not separated into age divisions
200
False
When was the first World Gymnaestrada held?
570ceadbfed7b91900d45ad7
1939
362
False
What was the first Sport Program recongized by FIG?
570ceadbfed7b91900d45ad8
Gymnastics for All
376
False
How many participants are there?
570ceadbfed7b91900d45ad9
30 million
590
False
Troupes
180
What gymnastics are separated into age divisions?
5a6135e3e9e1cc001a33d010
True
1939
362
In what year did gymnastics first include men?
5a6135e3e9e1cc001a33d011
True
General gymnastics
0
What enables people of all ages to participate in performance groups of 5 or less?
5a6135e3e9e1cc001a33d012
True
30 million
590
How many gymnasts are governed by FIG?
5a6135e3e9e1cc001a33d013
True
1984
371
In what year did gymnastics start having group performances?
5a6135e3e9e1cc001a33d014
True
General gymnastics enables people of all ages and abilities to participate in performance groups of 6 to more than 150 athletes. They perform synchronized, choreographed routines. Troupes may consist of both genders and are not separated into age divisions. The largest general gymnastics exhibition is the quadrennial World Gymnaestrada which was first held in 1939. In 1984 Gymnastics for All was officially recognized first as a Sport Program by the FIG (International Gymnastic Federation), and subsequently by national gymnastic federations worldwide with participants that now number 30 million.
What is gymnastics?
570ceb3bfed7b91900d45adf
Gymnastics is a sport involving the performance of exercises requiring strength, flexibility, balance and control
0
False
Who governs all events in gymnastics?
570ceb3bfed7b91900d45ae0
Fédération Internationale de Gymnastique (FIG)
163
False
What does each country have?
570ceb3bfed7b91900d45ae1
Each country has its own national governing body (BIW) affiliated to FIG
211
False
What are the best known gymnastic events?
570ceb3bfed7b91900d45ae2
Competitive artistic gymnastics
285
False
What events does this normally consist of for women?
570ceb3bfed7b91900d45ae3
vault, uneven bars, balance beam, and floor exercise.
404
False
vault, uneven bars, balance beam, and floor exercise.
404
What are the children's events?
5a611333e9e1cc001a33ce9c
True
skills for mounting and dismounting a horse
633
What gymnastic event was discontinued?
5a611333e9e1cc001a33ce9d
True
ancient Greeks
604
Who were the first to use still rings?
5a611333e9e1cc001a33ce9e
True
Gymnastics
0
What sport evolved from polo?
5a611333e9e1cc001a33ce9f
True
its own national governing body (BIW) affiliated to FIG
228
What does each city have?
5a611333e9e1cc001a33cea0
True
Gymnastics is a sport involving the performance of exercises requiring strength, flexibility, balance and control. Internationally, all events are governed by the Fédération Internationale de Gymnastique (FIG). Each country has its own national governing body (BIW) affiliated to FIG. Competitive artistic gymnastics is the best known of the gymnastic events. It typically involves the women's events of vault, uneven bars, balance beam, and floor exercise. Men's events are floor exercise, pommel horse, still rings, vault, parallel bars, and the high bar. Gymnastics evolved from exercises used by the ancient Greeks that included skills for mounting and dismounting a horse, and from circus performance skills.
What two Germans were known for creating exercises on apparauses?
570cebbdb3d812140066d313
Johann Friedrich GutsMuths (1759–1839) and Friedrich Ludwig Jahn (1778–1852)
97
False
What did the exercises lead to?
570cebbdb3d812140066d314
to what is considered modern gymnastics
268
False
Who introduced educative gymnastics in France?
570cebbdb3d812140066d315
Don Francisco Amorós y Ondeano
309
False
What did Jahn promote the use of?
570cebbdb3d812140066d316
parallel bars, rings and high bar
535
False
Don Francisco Amorós y Ondeano
309
Who was born on February 18, 1770?
5a611752e9e1cc001a33ced6
True
Don Francisco Amorós y Ondeano
309
Who was a Spanish admiral?
5a611752e9e1cc001a33ced7
True
Johann Friedrich GutsMuths (1759–1839) and Friedrich Ludwig Jahn
97
Who created exercises for girls?
5a611752e9e1cc001a33ced8
True
Don Francisco Amorós y Ondeano
309
Who was the first person to introduce educative gymnastic in Italy?
5a611752e9e1cc001a33ced9
True
Johann Friedrich GutsMuths (1759–1839) and Friedrich Ludwig Jahn
97
Who designed what led to ancient gymnastics?
5a611752e9e1cc001a33ceda
True
In the late eighteenth- and early nineteenth-century Germany, three pioneer physical educators – Johann Friedrich GutsMuths (1759–1839) and Friedrich Ludwig Jahn (1778–1852) – created exercises for boys and young men on apparatus they had designed that ultimately led to what is considered modern gymnastics. Don Francisco Amorós y Ondeano, was born on February 19, 1770 in Valence and died on August 8, 1848 in Paris. He was a Spanish colonel, and the first person to introduce educative gymnastic in France. Jahn promoted the use of parallel bars, rings and high bar in international competition.
When did FIG decide that scores are no longer limited to 10 points?
570cec4dfed7b91900d45ae9
2006
3
False
What are the two different scores?
570cec4dfed7b91900d45aea
an execution score and a difficulty score
240
False
What score was added?
570cec4dfed7b91900d45aeb
difficulty score
265
False
How much is a fall deduction?
570cec4dfed7b91900d45aec
1.00 deduction
486
False
What is a gymnast's difficulty score based on?
570cec4dfed7b91900d45aed
what elements they perform
638
False
2006
3
When were scores first limited to 10 points?
5a611bdce9e1cc001a33cf30
True
execution score
243
Which score was thought to be more important?
5a611bdce9e1cc001a33cf31
True
Connection bonuses
806
What bonus is awarded if the gymnast arrives on time?
5a611bdce9e1cc001a33cf32
True
a 1.00
484
What is the minimum gymnastics score?
5a611bdce9e1cc001a33cf33
True
what elements they perform
638
What is used to determine an execution score?
5a611bdce9e1cc001a33cf34
True
In 2006, FIG introduced a new points system for Artistic gymnastics in which scores are no longer limited to 10 points. The system is used in the US for elite level competition. Unlike the old code of points, there are two separate scores, an execution score and a difficulty score. In the previous system, the "execution score" was the only score. It was and still is out of 10.00. During the gymnast's performance, the judges deduct this score only. A fall, on or off the event, is a 1.00 deduction, in elite level gymnastics. The introduction of the difficulty score is a significant change. The gymnast's difficulty score is based on what elements they perform and is subject to change if they do not perform or complete all the skills, or they do not connect a skill meant to be connected to another. Connection bonuses are the most common deduction from a difficulty score, as it can be difficult to connect multiple flight elements. It is very hard to connect skills if the first skill is not performed correctly. The new code of points allows the gymnasts to gain higher scores based on the difficulty of the skills they perform as well as their execution. There is no maximum score for difficulty, as it can keep increasing as the difficulty of the skills increase.
What is the floor exercise events performed on now?
570cecc0b3d812140066d31b
a carpeted 12m × 12m square, usually consisting of hard foam over a layer of plywood
134
False
What was the floor exercise even on before?
570cecc0b3d812140066d31c
the bare floor or mats such as wrestling mats
54
False
Why helps add an extra bounce to the floor?
570cecc0b3d812140066d31d
springs or foam blocks generally called a "spring" floor
242
False
What is the maximum for floor events?
570cecc0b3d812140066d31e
up to 90 seconds
515
False
the bare floor or mats such as wrestling mats
54
What kind of surface is banned from the Olympics?
5a612147e9e1cc001a33cf7e
True
provides a firm surface that provides extra bounce or spring when compressed
305
What advantage to wrestling mats have over spring floors?
5a612147e9e1cc001a33cf7f
True
90 seconds
521
How long do gymnasts have to rest between routines?
5a612147e9e1cc001a33cf80
True
a large deduction is taken from the score
862
What happens if a gymnast only used three tumbling lines?
5a612147e9e1cc001a33cf81
True
a gymnast is required to do 2–3
1325
How many tumbling passes are required for level 6?
5a612147e9e1cc001a33cf82
True
In the past, the floor exercise event was executed on the bare floor or mats such as wrestling mats. Today, the floor event occurs on a carpeted 12m × 12m square, usually consisting of hard foam over a layer of plywood, which is supported by springs or foam blocks generally called a "spring" floor. This provides a firm surface that provides extra bounce or spring when compressed, allowing gymnasts to achieve greater height and a softer landing after the composed skill. Gymnasts perform a choreographed routine up to 90 seconds in the floor exercise event; Depending on the level, they may choose their own, or, if known as a "compulsory gymnast," default music must be played. In some gymnastic associations such as United States Association of Gymnastic Clubs (USAIGC), gymnasts are allowed to have vocals in their music but at USA Gymnastics competitions a large deduction is taken from the score for having vocals in the music. The routine should consist of tumbling lines, series of jumps, leaps, dance elements, acrobatic skills, and turns, or piviots, on one foot. A gymnast can perform up to four tumbling lines that usually includes at least one flight element without hand support. Each level of gymnastics requires the athlete to perform a different number of tumbling passes. In level 7 in the United States, a gymnast is required to do 2–3, and in levels 8–10, at least 3–4 tumbling passes are required.
What do athletes perform for tumbling?
570ced3efed7b91900d45af3
an explosive series of flips and twists down a sprung tumbling track
30
False
When was tumbling orginally contested at the Olympics?
570ced3efed7b91900d45af4
1932
227
False
Where are offical tumbling competitions allowed?
570ced3efed7b91900d45af5
only allowed as an event in Trampoline gymnastics meets
617
False
What year did FIG reconginze Trampoline and Acrobatic Gymnastics?
570ced3efed7b91900d45af6
1999
576
False
athletes perform an explosive series of flips and twists down a sprung tumbling track
13
What is involved in trampolining?
5a612fb3e9e1cc001a33cfe8
True
1955
256
When were the first Pan American Games
5a612fb3e9e1cc001a33cfe9
True
official Tumbling competitions are only allowed as an event in Trampoline gymnastics meets
582
What restriction was placed on tumbling in 1997?
5a612fb3e9e1cc001a33cfea
True
1976
449
What year did the Trampoline Championships begin?
5a612fb3e9e1cc001a33cfeb
True
Tumbling
136
What was contested as one of the events in Men's Artistic Gymnastics at the 1938 Summer Olympics?
5a612fb3e9e1cc001a33cfec
True
In tumbling, athletes perform an explosive series of flips and twists down a sprung tumbling track. Scoring is similar to trampolining. Tumbling was originally contested as one of the events in Men's Artistic Gymnastics at the 1932 Summer Olympics, and in 1955 and 1959 at the Pan American Games. From 1974 to 1998 it was included as an event for both genders at the Acrobatic Gymnastics World Championships. The event has also been contested since 1976 at the Trampoline World Championships. Since the recognition of Trampoline and Acrobatic Gymnastics as FIG disciplines in 1999, official Tumbling competitions are only allowed as an event in Trampoline gymnastics meets.
What are mens' rhythmic gymnastics related to?
570cedbbb3d812140066d32d
both Men's artistic gymnastics and wushu martial arts
40
False
Where did mens' rhythmic gymnastics develop from?
570cedbbb3d812140066d32e
stick gymnastics
120
False
What is the aim of stick gymnastics?
570cedbbb3d812140066d32f
improving physical strength and health
216
False
What are the main focus?
570cedbbb3d812140066d330
tumbling, strength, power, and martial arts skills are the main focus
402
False
How many mens' rhythmic gymnasts were in Japan in 2002?
570cedbbb3d812140066d331
1000
752
False
Men's rhythmic gymnastics
0
What is related to Women's artistic gymnastics and hop scotch?
5a613474e9e1cc001a33d006
True
it is most popular in Asia
616
Where is dancing most popular?
5a613474e9e1cc001a33d007
True
Japan
658
What country practices an unusual form of rhythmic gymnastics?
5a613474e9e1cc001a33d008
True
Japan
109
Where did gymnastic begin?
5a613474e9e1cc001a33d009
True
physical strength and health
226
Why do people in Japan eat a diet high in fiber?
5a613474e9e1cc001a33d00a
True
Men's rhythmic gymnastics is related to both Men's artistic gymnastics and wushu martial arts. It emerged in Japan from stick gymnastics. Stick gymnastics has been taught and performed for many years with the aim of improving physical strength and health. Male athletes are judged on some of the same physical abilities and skills as their female counterparts, such as hand/body-eye co-ordination, but tumbling, strength, power, and martial arts skills are the main focus, as opposed to flexibility and dance in women's rhythmic gymnastics. There are a growing number of participants, competing alone and on a team; it is most popular in Asia, especially in Japan where high school and university teams compete fiercely. As of 2002[update], there were 1000 men's rhythmic gymnasts in Japan.[citation needed]
FC_Barcelona
How many UEFA Championship League titles has Barcelona won?
570c05b56b8089140040fb08
five
254
False
How many UEFA  Cup Winners' Cup wins does Barcelona have?
570c05b56b8089140040fb09
four
298
False
How many UEFA Super Cup wins does the Barcelona team have?
570c05b56b8089140040fb0a
five
342
False
How many FIFA Club World Cup trophies does football club Barcelona have?
570c05b56b8089140040fb0b
three
414
False
What club is Barcelona's long time rival?
570c05b56b8089140040fb0c
Real Madrid
657
False
Domestically, Barcelona has won 23 La Liga, 27 Copa del Rey, 11 Supercopa de España, 3 Copa Eva Duarte and 2 Copa de la Liga trophies, as well as being the record holder for the latter four competitions. In international club football, Barcelona has won five UEFA Champions League titles, a record four UEFA Cup Winners' Cup, a shared record five UEFA Super Cup, a record three Inter-Cities Fairs Cup and a record three FIFA Club World Cup trophies. Barcelona was ranked first in the IFFHS Club World Ranking for 1997, 2009, 2011, 2012 and 2015 and currently occupies the second position on the UEFA club rankings. The club has a long-standing rivalry with Real Madrid; matches between the two teams are referred to as El Clásico.
In 1925 what incident by the crowd caused the closing of the stadium?
570c0778ec8fbc190045bc1e
jeered the Royal March
108
False
How long was the stadium closed?
570c0778ec8fbc190045bc1f
six months
173
False
What year did Barcelona claim to be a professional football club?
570c0778ec8fbc190045bc20
1926
317
False
When did Barcelona win the Spanish League?
570c0778ec8fbc190045bc21
23 June 1929
898
False
What past president of the Barcelona club committed suicide in 1930?
570c0778ec8fbc190045bc22
Gamper
1012
False
On 14 June 1925, in a spontaneous reaction against Primo de Rivera's dictatorship, the crowd in the stadium jeered the Royal March. As a reprisal, the ground was closed for six months and Gamper was forced to relinquish the presidency of the club. This coincided with the transition to professional football, and, in 1926, the directors of Barcelona publicly claimed, for the first time, to operate a professional football club. On 3 July 1927, the club held a second testimonial match for Paulino Alcántara, against the Spanish national team. To kick off the match, local journalist and pilot Josep Canudas dropped the ball onto the pitch from his airplane. In 1928, victory in the Spanish Cup was celebrated with a poem titled "Oda a Platko", which was written by a member of the Generation of '27, Rafael Alberti, inspired by the heroic performance of the Barcelona goalkeeper, Franz Platko. On 23 June 1929, Barcelona won the inaugural Spanish League. A year after winning the championship, on 30 July 1930, Gamper committed suicide after a period of depression brought on by personal and financial problems.
How much did Barcelona pay to acquire Johan Cruyff?
570c0c53ec8fbc190045bc32
£920,000
86
False
For what team did Cruyff refuse to play?
570c0c53ec8fbc190045bc33
Real Madrid
251
False
What dictator's rule was Cruyff's reason for avoiding Real Madrid?
570c0c53ec8fbc190045bc34
Francisco Franco
316
False
What award did Cruyff win during his first year with Barcelona?
570c0c53ec8fbc190045bc35
European Footballer of the Year
647
False
When did Cruyff win his third Ballon d'Or?
570c0c53ec8fbc190045bc36
1974
888
False
The 1973–74 season saw the arrival of Johan Cruyff, who was bought for a world record £920,000 from Ajax. Already an established player with Ajax, Cruyff quickly won over the Barcelona fans when he told the European press that he chose Barcelona over Real Madrid because he could not play for a club associated with Francisco Franco. He further endeared himself when he named his son Jordi, after the local Catalan Saint George. Next to champions like Juan Manuel Asensi, Carles Rexach and Hugo Sotil, he helped the club win the 1973–74 season for the first time since 1960, defeating Real Madrid 5–0 at the Bernabéu along the way. He was crowned European Footballer of the Year in 1973 during his first season with Barcelona (his second Ballon d'Or win; he won his first while playing for Ajax in 1971). Cruyff received this prestigious award a third time (the first player to do so) in 1974, while he was still with Barcelona.
How long did Ronaldo remain with Barcelona?
570c0dc5ec8fbc190045bc3c
short time
37
False
When did Barcelona win a Copa del Rey and La Liga double?
570c0dc5ec8fbc190045bc3d
1998
229
False
When was the centenari of Barcelona celebrated?
570c0dc5ec8fbc190045bc3e
1999
238
False
What title did Barcelona win in 1999?
570c0dc5ec8fbc190045bc3f
Primera División
291
False
Which Barcelona player was the fourth to win European Footballer of the Year?
570c0dc5ec8fbc190045bc40
Rivaldo
319
False
Like Maradona, Ronaldo only stayed a short time before he left for Internazionale. However, new heroes emerged, such as Luís Figo, Patrick Kluivert, Luis Enrique and Rivaldo, and the team won a Copa del Rey and La Liga double in 1998. In 1999, the club celebrated its centenari, winning the Primera División title, and Rivaldo became the fourth Barcelona player to be awarded European Footballer of the Year. Despite this domestic success, the failure to emulate Real Madrid in the Champions League led to van Gaal and Núñez resigning in 2000.
How many players did Barcelona list on the day their transfer ban ended?
570c0fedec8fbc190045bc46
77
81
False
What event in February did Barcelona qualify for for the sixth time?
570c0fedec8fbc190045bc47
Copa del Rey final
267
False
How many consecutive wins did Barcelona have in 2010-11?
570c0fedec8fbc190045bc48
28
365
False
With which team did Barcelona have a 1-1 draw in the 2015-16 Copa del Rey?
570c0fedec8fbc190045bc49
Valencia
483
False
Besides Arda Turan, what other player became eligible to play in 2016?
570c0fedec8fbc190045bc4a
Aleix Vidal
169
False
On 4 January 2016, Barcelona's transfer ban ended. The same day, they registered 77 players across all categories and ages, and both last summer signings Arda Turan and Aleix Vidal became eligible to play with the first team. On 10 February, qualifying for the sixth Copa del Rey final in the last eight seasons, Luis Enrique’s Barcelona broke the club's record of 28 consecutive games unbeaten in all competitions set by Guardiola’s team in the 2010–11 season, with a 1–1 draw with Valencia in the second leg of the 2015–16 Copa del Rey.
What team is dominate in won games in La Liga?
570c119e6b8089140040fb12
Barcelona
105
False
What team has beaten Barcelona three times in 80 seasons?
570c119e6b8089140040fb13
Espanyol
178
False
What team won the all-Catalan Copa del Rey in 1957?
570c119e6b8089140040fb14
Barcelona
105
False
Which team has the largest margin win?
570c119e6b8089140040fb15
Espanyol
340
False
When was Espanyol's margin win of 6-0?
570c119e6b8089140040fb16
1951
419
False
Though it is the most played local derby in the history of La Liga, it is also the most unbalanced, with Barcelona overwhelmingly dominant. In the primera división league table, Espanyol has only managed to end above Barça on three occasions from 80 seasons (1928–2015) and the only all-Catalan Copa del Rey final was won by Barça in 1957. Espanyol has the consolation of achieving the largest margin win with a 6–0 in 1951, while Barcelona's biggest win was 5–0 on five occasions (in 1933, 1947, 1964, 1975 and 1992). Espanyol achieved a 2–1 win against Barça during the 2008–09 season, becoming the first team to defeat Barcelona at Camp Nou in their treble-winning season.
Besides Barcelona and Real Madrid, what other team has remained in the Primera Division?
570c13f96b8089140040fb1c
Athletic Bilbao
132
False
What series of wins did Barcelona achieve in 2009?
570c13f96b8089140040fb1d
continental treble
225
False
How many competition wins did Barcelona have in 2011?
570c13f96b8089140040fb1f
five
566
False
When was Barcelona able to win the continental treble for the second time?
570c13f96b8089140040fb20
June 2015
805
False
Barcelona is one of three founding members of the Primera División that have never been relegated from the top division, along with Athletic Bilbao and Real Madrid. In 2009, Barcelona became the first Spanish club to win the continental treble consisting of La Liga, Copa del Rey, and the UEFA Champions League, and also became the first football club to win six out of six competitions in a single year, completing the sextuple in also winning the Spanish Super Cup, UEFA Super Cup and FIFA Club World Cup. In 2011, the club became European champions again and won five trophies. This Barcelona team, which reached a record six consecutive Champions League semi-finals and won 14 trophies in just four years under Pep Guardiola, is considered by some in the sport to be the greatest team of all time. In June 2015, Barcelona became the first European club in history to achieve the continental treble twice.
How many UEFA Champions League wins does Barcelona have?
570c16366b8089140040fb26
five
252
False
What is the  number of UEFA Cup Winners' Cup competitions Barcelona has won?
570c16366b8089140040fb27
four
289
False
How many UEFA Super Cup awards does Barcelona have?
570c16366b8089140040fb28
five
333
False
What is the number of FIFA Club World  Cup trophies Barcelona has?
570c16366b8089140040fb29
three
366
False
What competition is the predecessor to the UEFA Cup-Europa League?
570c16366b8089140040fb2a
Inter-Cities Fairs Cup
431
False
As of December 2015[update], Barcelona has won 23 La Liga, 27 Copa del Rey, 11 Supercopa de España, three Copa Eva Duarte[note 2] and two Copa de la Liga trophies, as well as being the record holder for the latter four competitions. They have also won five UEFA Champions League, a record four UEFA Cup Winners' Cup, a shared record five UEFA Super Cup and a record three FIFA Club World Cup trophies. They also won a record three Inter-Cities Fairs Cup trophies, considered the predecessor to the UEFA Cup-Europa League.
Who was murdered on 6 August, 1936?
570c17c4ec8fbc190045bc50
Josep Sunyol
268
False
Besides being club president, what was Sunyol involved in to have caused his murder?
570c17c4ec8fbc190045bc51
pro-independence political party
306
False
What was Sunyol called after his death?
570c17c4ec8fbc190045bc52
martyr
358
False
What was club Barcelona considered to represent when on tour in 1937?
570c17c4ec8fbc190045bc53
Second Spanish Republic
596
False
Where did half of the Barcelona team seek asylum in 1937?
570c17c4ec8fbc190045bc54
Mexico and France
729
False
A month after the Spanish Civil War began in 1936, several players from Barcelona enlisted in the ranks of those who fought against the military uprising, along with players from Athletic Bilbao. On 6 August, Falangist soldiers near Guadarrama murdered club president Josep Sunyol, a representative of the pro-independence political party. He was dubbed the martyr of barcelonisme, and his murder was a defining moment in the history of FC Barcelona and Catalan identity. In the summer of 1937, the squad was on tour in Mexico and the United States, where it was received as an ambassador of the Second Spanish Republic. The tour led to the financial security of the club, but also resulted in half of the team seeking asylum in Mexico and France, making it harder for the remaining team to contest for trophies.
How many consecutive La Liga titles did Barcelona win from 1991-94?
570c19a06b8089140040fb30
four
296
False
By 1992 who was Barcelona's most successful manager?
570c19a06b8089140040fb31
Cruyff
645
False
For how many years was Cruyff manager for Barcelona?
570c19a06b8089140040fb32
eight
780
False
What feature of play did Cruyff introduce to Barcelona?
570c19a06b8089140040fb33
passing style
1003
False
What failure did Cruyff have in his last two seasons as manager with Barcelona?
570c19a06b8089140040fb34
win any trophies
869
False
It was ten years after the inception of the youth program, La Masia, when the young players began to graduate and play for their first team. One of the first graduates, who would later earn international acclaim, was previous Barcelona coach Pep Guardiola. Under Cruyff's guidance, Barcelona won four consecutive La Liga titles from 1991 to 1994. They beat Sampdoria in both the 1989 UEFA Cup Winners' Cup final and the 1992 European Cup final at Wembley, with a free kick goal from Dutch international Ronald Koeman. They also won a Copa del Rey in 1990, the European Super Cup in 1992 and three Supercopa de España trophies. With 11 trophies, Cruyff became the club's most successful manager at that point. He also became the club's longest consecutive serving manager, serving eight years. Cruyff's fortune was to change, and, in his final two seasons, he failed to win any trophies and fell out with president Núñez, resulting in his departure. On the legacy of Cruyff's football philosophy and the passing style of play he introduced to the club, future coach of Barcelona Pep Guardiola would state, "Cruyff built the cathedral, our job is to maintain and renovate it."
Under whose direction was there disappointment?
570c31776b8089140040fc04
Gaspart
32
False
After Gaspart, who was manager of team Barcelona?
570c31776b8089140040fc05
Frank Rijkaard
154
False
At this time, what type of players were added to Barcelona?
570c31776b8089140040fc06
international
223
False
What season did Barcelona win La Liga and Supercopa de Espana?
570c31776b8089140040fc07
2004–05
533
False
Which player won FIFA World Player of the Year?
570c31776b8089140040fc08
Ronaldinho
546
False
After the disappointment of the Gaspart era, the combination of a new young president, Joan Laporta, and a young new manager, former Dutch and Milan star Frank Rijkaard, saw the club bounce back. On the field, an influx of international players, including Ronaldinho, Deco, Henrik Larsson, Ludovic Giuly, Samuel Eto'o, and Rafael Márquez, combined with home grown Spanish players, such as Carles Puyol, Andrés Iniesta, Xavi and Víctor Valdés, led to the club's return to success. Barcelona won La Liga and the Supercopa de España in 2004–05, and Ronaldinho and Eto'o were voted first and third, respectively, in the FIFA World Player of the Year awards.
How many times did Barcelona win the Copa del Rey?
570c33b8ec8fbc190045bd96
25
109
False
What team did Barcelona beat to win La Liga for the 2008-09 season?
570c33b8ec8fbc190045bd97
Real Madrid
151
False
What team did Barcelona beat to win 2008-09 Champions League title?
570c33b8ec8fbc190045bd98
Manchester United
347
False
Which Spanish team did Barcelona defeat to win the Supercopa de Espana?
570c33b8ec8fbc190045bd99
Athletic Bilbao
562
False
When Barcelona won 2009 FIFA Club World Cup, what first time feat did they accomplish?
570c33b8ec8fbc190045bd9a
sextuple
850
False
Barça beat Athletic Bilbao 4–1 in the 2009 Copa del Rey Final, winning the competition for a record-breaking 25th time. A historic 2–6 victory against Real Madrid followed three days later and ensured that Barcelona became La Liga champions for the 2008–09 season. Barça finished the season by beating the previous year's Champions League winners Manchester United 2–0 at the Stadio Olimpico in Rome to win their third Champions League title and completed the first ever treble won by a Spanish team. The team went on to win the 2009 Supercopa de España against Athletic Bilbao and the 2009 UEFA Super Cup against Shakhtar Donetsk, becoming the first European club to win both domestic and European Super Cups following a treble. In December 2009, Barcelona won the 2009 FIFA Club World Cup, and became the first football club ever to accomplish the sextuple. Barcelona accomplished two new records in Spanish football in 2010 as they retained the La Liga trophy with 99 points and won the Spanish Super Cup trophy for a ninth time.
When did Tito Vilanova become manager of FC Barcelona?
570c3504ec8fbc190045bda0
2012
30
False
Who did Vilanova replace as manager?
570c3504ec8fbc190045bda1
Pep Guardiola
111
False
How many total points did Barcelona collect during the 20012 season?
570c3504ec8fbc190045bda2
100
314
False
Who was Barcelona's top scorer?
570c3504ec8fbc190045bda3
Lionel Messi
358
False
When was the Barcelona team become Spanish football champions for the 22nd time?
570c3504ec8fbc190045bda4
11 May 2013
436
False
It was announced in summer of 2012 that Tito Vilanova, assistant manager at FC Barcelona, would take over from Pep Guardiola as manager. Following his appointment, Barcelona went on an incredible run that saw them hold the top spot on the league table for the entire season, recording only two losses and amassing 100 points. Their top scorer once again was Lionel Messi, who scored 46 goals in the League, including two hat-tricks. On 11 May 2013 Barcelona were crowned as the Spanish football champions for the 22nd time, still with four games left to play. Ultimately Barcelona ended the season 15 points clear of rivals Real Madrid, despite losing 2–1 to them at the beginning of March. They reached the semifinal stage of both the Copa del Rey and the Champions League, going out to Real Madrid and Bayern Munich respectively. On 19 July, it was announced that Vilanova was resigning as Barcelona manager because his throat cancer had returned, and he would be receiving treatment for the second time after a three-month medical leave in December 2012.
To whom did Barcelona appeal to lift the transfer bad?
570c3666ec8fbc190045bdc8
Court of Arbitration for Sport
44
False
During what year was Barcelona not allowed to use  their transfer windows?
570c3666ec8fbc190045bdc9
2015
177
False
When was Zubizareta fired by the board?
570c3666ec8fbc190045bdca
5 January 2015
221
False
What position did Zubizareta have?
570c3666ec8fbc190045bdcb
director of football
289
False
After firing the director, what did Barcelona form?
570c3666ec8fbc190045bdcc
Football Area Technical Commission
370
False
In late December, Barcelona's appeal to the Court of Arbitration for Sport was unsuccessful and the original transfer ban was reinstated, leaving the club unable to utilise the 2015 winter and summer transfer windows. On 5 January 2015, Zubizareta was sacked by the board after 4 years as director of football. The next month, Barcelona announced the formation of a new Football Area Technical Commission, made up of vice-president Jordi Mestre, board member Javier Bordas, Carles Rexach and Ariedo Braida.
How many registered fan clubs does Barcelona have worldwide?
570c37b5ec8fbc190045bde2
1,335
56
False
What are the fan clubs called?
570c37b5ec8fbc190045bde3
penyes
102
False
How many Facebook followers does team Barcelona have?
570c37b5ec8fbc190045bde4
over 90 million
361
False
What famous cleric was a supporter of Barcelona?
570c37b5ec8fbc190045bde5
Pope John Paul II
483
False
What is the only team that has a higher attendance rate than Club Barcelona?
570c37b5ec8fbc190045bde6
Borussia Dortmund
689
False
In addition to membership, as of 2010[update] there are 1,335 officially registered fan clubs, called penyes, around the world. The fan clubs promote Barcelona in their locality and receive beneficial offers when visiting Barcelona. Among the best supported teams globally, Barcelona has the highest social media following in the world among sports teams, with over 90 million Facebook fans as of February 2016. The club has had many prominent people among its supporters, including Pope John Paul II, who was an honorary member, and former prime minister of Spain José Luis Rodríguez Zapatero. FC Barcelona has the second highest average attendance of European football clubs only behind Borussia Dortmund.
What team is Barcelona's local rival?
570c3aa8ec8fbc190045bdfe
Espanyol
36
False
What club was granted royal patronage?
570c3aa8ec8fbc190045bdff
Blanc-i-blaus
46
False
What type of group founded Espanyol?
570c3aa8ec8fbc190045be00
Spanish football fans
136
False
Of what element of Barcelona's board did Espanyol disapprove?
570c3aa8ec8fbc190045be01
multinational nature
170
False
Of what does team Espanyol view Barcelona as a team ?
570c3aa8ec8fbc190045be02
foreigners
332
False
Barça's local rival has always been Espanyol. Blanc-i-blaus, being one of the clubs granted royal patronage, was founded exclusively by Spanish football fans, unlike the multinational nature of Barça's primary board. The founding message of the club was clearly anti-Barcelona, and they disapprovingly saw FC Barcelona as a team of foreigners. The rivalry was strengthened by what Catalonians saw as a provocative representative of Madrid. Their original ground was in the affluent district of Sarrià.
What royal symbol appears on the club's crest?
570c3bad6b8089140040fc48
Crown of Aragon
77
False
Beside a palm, what tree appears on the crest?
570c3bad6b8089140040fc49
laurel
161
False
When was a competition held to produce a team crest?
570c3bad6b8089140040fc4a
1910
198
False
Who was the winner of the crest competition?
570c3bad6b8089140040fc4b
Carles Comamala
287
False
What flag is on the team crest?
570c3bad6b8089140040fc4c
Catalan
511
False
The club's original crest was a quartered diamond-shaped crest topped by the Crown of Aragon and the bat of King James, and surrounded by two branches, one of a laurel tree and the other a palm. In 1910 the club held a competition among its members to design a new crest. The winner was Carles Comamala, who at the time played for the club. Comamala's suggestion became the crest that the club wears today, with some minor variations. The crest consists of the St George Cross in the upper-left corner with the Catalan flag beside it, and the team colours at the bottom.
What was the number of team Barcelona supporters by 1922?
570c3cc96b8089140040fc52
20,000
48
False
What did Barcelona build in 1922?
570c3cc96b8089140040fc53
Camp de Les Corts
124
False
How many people could Camp de Les Corts hold?
570c3cc96b8089140040fc54
20,000
176
False
After several expansions how many people could the stadium hold?
570c3cc96b8089140040fc55
60,000
489
False
When was the last expansion of Les Corts?
570c3cc96b8089140040fc56
1950
436
False
In 1922, the number of supporters had surpassed 20,000 and by lending money to the club, Barça was able to build the larger Camp de Les Corts, which had an initial capacity of 20,000 spectators. After the Spanish Civil War the club started attracting more members and a larger number of spectators at matches. This led to several expansion projects: the grandstand in 1944, the southern stand in 1946, and finally the northern stand in 1950. After the last expansion, Les Corts could hold 60,000 spectators.
When did the Italians bomb Barcelona?
570c3e0dec8fbc190045be12
16 March 1938
3
False
Why was club Barcelona placed under restrictions during the occupation?
570c3e0dec8fbc190045be13
"undisciplined" Catalanism
243
False
What kind of signs were removed form club Barcelona?
570c3e0dec8fbc190045be14
regional nationalism
358
False
What flag was removed from the club's crest?
570c3e0dec8fbc190045be15
Catalan
648
False
What new named was the Barcelona club forced to adopt?
570c3e0dec8fbc190045be16
Club de Fútbol Barcelona
605
False
On 16 March 1938, Barcelona came under aerial bombardment from the Italian Air Force, causing more than 3,000 deaths, with one of the bombs hitting the club's offices. A few months later, Catalonia came under occupation and as a symbol of the "undisciplined" Catalanism, the club, now down to just 3,486 members, faced a number of restrictions. All signs of regional nationalism, including language, flag and other signs of separatism were banned throughout Spain. The Catalan flag was banned and the club were prohibited from using non-Spanish names. These measures forced the club to change its name to Club de Fútbol Barcelona and to remove the Catalan flag from its crest.
How much was the signing payment for Diego Maradona?
570c3ff26b8089140040fc64
£5 million
66
False
When was Diego Maradona signed by Barcelona?
570c3ff26b8089140040fc65
June 1982
3
False
Who did Barcelona defeat the season following the signing of Maradona?
570c3ff26b8089140040fc66
Real Madrid
179
False
Who was hired as manager in 1984?
570c3ff26b8089140040fc67
Terry Venables
313
False
What caused the loss to Steaua Bucuresti in Seville?
570c3ff26b8089140040fc68
penalties
516
False
In June 1982, Diego Maradona was signed for a world record fee of £5 million from Boca Juniors. In the following season, under coach Luis, Barcelona won the Copa del Rey, beating Real Madrid. However, Maradona's time with Barcelona was short-lived and he soon left for Napoli. At the start of the 1984–85 season, Terry Venables was hired as manager and he won La Liga with noteworthy displays by German midfielder Bernd Schuster. The next season, he took the team to their second European Cup final, only to lose on penalties to Steaua Bucureşti during a dramatic evening in Seville.
When was Barcelona founded?
570c49c2fed7b91900d45839
1899
11
False
Who led the founders of the Barcelona football club?
570c49c2fed7b91900d4583a
Joan Gamper
76
False
What is the Barcelona motto?
570c49c2fed7b91900d4583b
Més que un club
170
False
How much is club Barcelona worth?
570c49c2fed7b91900d4583c
$3.16 billion
346
False
What is the title of the Barcelona club song?
570c49c2fed7b91900d4583d
"Cant del Barça"
507
False
Founded in 1899 by a group of Swiss, English and Catalan footballers led by Joan Gamper, the club has become a symbol of Catalan culture and Catalanism, hence the motto "Més que un club" (More than a club). Unlike many other football clubs, the supporters own and operate Barcelona. It is the second most valuable sports team in the world, worth $3.16 billion, and the world's second richest football club in terms of revenue, with an annual turnover of €560.8 million. The official Barcelona anthem is the "Cant del Barça", written by Jaume Picas and Josep Maria Espinàs.
In what year did Barcelona win its first trophy?
570c4b09fed7b91900d4584d
1902
132
False
What was the first cup Barcelona won?
570c4b09fed7b91900d4584e
Copa Macaya
173
False
When did Joan Gamper become the president of the Barcelona club?
570c4b09fed7b91900d4584f
1908
332
False
How many times between 1908 and 1925 was Gamper president?
570c4b09fed7b91900d45850
five
471
False
Why did Gamper want Barcelona to acquire a stadium of its own?
570c4b09fed7b91900d45851
stable income
650
False
FC Barcelona had a successful start in regional and national cups, competing in the Campionat de Catalunya and the Copa del Rey. In 1902, the club won its first trophy, the Copa Macaya, and participated in the first Copa del Rey, losing 1–2 to Bizcaya in the final. Hans Gamper — now known as Joan Gamper — became club president in 1908, finding the club in financial difficulty after not winning a competition since the Campionat de Catalunya in 1905. Club president on five separate occasions between 1908 and 1925, he spent 25 years in total at the helm. One of his main achievements was ensuring Barça acquire its own stadium and thus generate a stable income.
What team won the first match in the 1943 Copa del Generalissimo?
570c4d68b3d812140066d0a1
Barcelona
152
False
What was the score of the second match in 1943 played against Real Madrid?
570c4d68b3d812140066d0a2
11–1
229
False
Who is rumored to have threatened Barcelona players before the match against Real Madrid?
570c4d68b3d812140066d0a3
police
582
False
What journalist alleged that the Barcelona team was threatened to make certain of Real Madrid's win?
570c4d68b3d812140066d0a4
Paco Aguilar
525
False
What was proven about the alleged threats to Barcelona before the game?
570c4d68b3d812140066d0a5
nothing
618
False
In 1943, Barcelona faced rivals Real Madrid in the semi-finals of Copa del Generalísimo (now the Copa del Rey). The first match at Les Corts was won by Barcelona 3–0. Real Madrid comfortably won the second leg, beating Barcelona 11–1. According to football writer Sid Lowe, "There have been relatively few mentions of the game [since] and it is not a result that has been particularly celebrated in Madrid. Indeed, the 11–1 occupies a far more prominent place in Barcelona's history." It has been alleged by local journalist Paco Aguilar that Barcelona's players were threatened by police in the changing room, though nothing was ever proven.
What team was dominate in the 1960s in La Liga?
570c4f18fed7b91900d45891
Real Madrid
50
False
Due to the emergence of Fuste and Rexach, what competition did Barcelona win in 1963?
570c4f18fed7b91900d45892
Copa del Generalísimo
280
False
What competition did Barcelona win in 1966?
570c4f18fed7b91900d45893
Fairs Cup
318
False
Who was present when Barcelona beat Real Madrid in 1968?
570c4f18fed7b91900d45894
Franco
462
False
With Franco's dictatorship over, to what did Barcelona change their name ?
570c4f18fed7b91900d45895
Futbol Club Barcelona
633
False
The 1960s were less successful for the club, with Real Madrid monopolising La Liga. The completion of the Camp Nou, finished in 1957, meant the club had little money to spend on new players. The 1960s saw the emergence of Josep Maria Fusté and Carles Rexach, and the club won the Copa del Generalísimo in 1963 and the Fairs Cup in 1966. Barcelona restored some pride by beating Real Madrid 1–0 in the 1968 Copa del Generalísimo final at the Bernabéu in front of Franco, with coach Salvador Artigas, a former republican pilot in the civil war. With the end of Franco's dictatorship in 1974, the club changed its official name back to Futbol Club Barcelona and reverted the crest to its original design, including the original letters once again.
What political group wanted Nunez to resign the presidency?
570c5132b3d812140066d0dd
Boixos Nois
144
False
To what did Boixos Nois idetify themselves as belonging?
570c5132b3d812140066d0de
left-wing separatism
186
False
What right-wing separatists tried to spread fascism to the Boixos Nois?
570c5132b3d812140066d0df
skinheads
369
False
What did the resulting split in the Boixos Nois group cause many to support?
570c5132b3d812140066d0e0
Núñez's presidency
582
False
What did the resulting violence perpetrated by the extremists produce?
570c5132b3d812140066d0e1
large-scale arrests
700
False
Around this time, tensions began to arise between what was perceived as president Núñez's dictatorial rule and the nationalistic support group, Boixos Nois. The group, identified with a left-wing separatism, repeatedly demanded the resignation of Núñez and openly defied him through chants and banners at matches. At the same time, Barcelona experienced an eruption in skinheads, who often identified with a right-wing separatism. The skinheads slowly transferred the Boixos Nois' ideology from liberalism to fascism, which caused division within the group and a sudden support for Núñez's presidency. Inspired by British hooligans, the remaining Boixos Nois became violent, causing havoc leading to large-scale arrests.
How did Barcelona finish the 2006-07 season?
570c52dfb3d812140066d103
without trophies
90
False
What event was blamed for the injuries to Barcelona stars?
570c52dfb3d812140066d104
US tour
121
False
What team beat Barcelona in La Liga in the 2006-07 season?
570c52dfb3d812140066d105
Real Madrid
508
False
To whom was Messi's goal in the first leg of the Copa del Rey compared?
570c52dfb3d812140066d106
Diego Maradona
702
False
What team pushed Barcelona out of the Champions League play?
570c52dfb3d812140066d107
Liverpool
1013
False
Despite being the favourites and starting strongly, Barcelona finished the 2006–07 season without trophies. A pre-season US tour was later blamed for a string of injuries to key players, including leading scorer Eto'o and rising star Lionel Messi. There was open feuding as Eto'o publicly criticized coach Frank Rijkaard and Ronaldinho. Ronaldinho also admitted that a lack of fitness affected his form. In La Liga, Barcelona were in first place for much of the season, but inconsistency in the New Year saw Real Madrid overtake them to become champions. Barcelona advanced to the semi-finals of the Copa del Rey, winning the first leg against Getafe 5–2, with a goal from Messi bringing comparison to Diego Maradona's goal of the century, but then lost the second leg 4–0. They took part in the 2006 FIFA Club World Cup, but were beaten by a late goal in the final against Brazilian side Internacional. In the Champions League, Barcelona were knocked out of the competition in the last 16 by eventual runners-up Liverpool on away goals.
What competition did Barcelona win because of goals by Messi and Fabregas?
570c5532b3d812140066d129
UEFA Super Cup
40
False
Which team did Barcelona beat to win the UEFA Super Cup?
570c5532b3d812140066d12a
Porto
71
False
How many total trophies did  Barcelona's Super Cup win produce?
570c5532b3d812140066d12b
74
198
False
What team did Barcelona's total competition wins pass?
570c5532b3d812140066d12c
Real Madrid
213
False
Who is the record holder for most trophy wins as coach of Barcelona?
570c5532b3d812140066d12d
Josep Guardiola
335
False
Later the same month, Barcelona won the UEFA Super Cup after defeating Porto 2–0 thanks to goals from Lionel Messi and Cesc Fàbregas. This extended the club's overall number of official trophies to 74, surpassing Real Madrid's total amount of official trophies. The UEFA Super Cup victory also marked another impressive achievement as Josep Guardiola won his 12th trophy out of 15 possible in only three years at the helm of the club, becoming the all-time record holder of most titles won as a coach at FC Barcelona.
When FIFA ban Barcelona from buying players?
570c56a1b3d812140066d149
April 2014
3
False
What was the FIFA  charge that Barcelona violated?
570c56a1b3d812140066d14a
footballers aged under 18
156
False
What fine did FIFA impose on Barcelona for the rules violation?
570c56a1b3d812140066d14b
CHF 450,000
736
False
When did FIFA reject an appeal of the rules violation ruling?
570c56a1b3d812140066d14c
August
901
False
What did the pending appeal allow Barcelona to do anyway?
570c56a1b3d812140066d14d
sign players
990
False
In April 2014, FIFA banned the club from buying players for the next two transfer windows following the violation of the FIFA's rules about the transfer of footballers aged under 18. A statement on FIFA's website read "With regard to the case in question, FC Barcelona has been found to be in breach of art. 19 of the Regulations in the case of ten minor players and to have committed several other concurrent infringements in the context of other players, including under Annexe 2 of the Regulations. The Disciplinary Committee regarded the infringements as serious and decided to sanction the club with a transfer ban at both national and international level for two complete and consecutive transfer periods, together with a fine of CHF 450,000. Additionally, the club was granted a period of 90 days in which to regularise the situation of all minor players concerned." FIFA rejected an appeal in August but the pending appeal to the Court of Arbitration for Sport allowed Barcelona to sign players during the summer of 2014.
Who did Barcelona beat to win the 2015 UEFA Super Cup?
570c5825fed7b91900d458e5
Sevilla FC
110
False
What team did Barcelona defeat to win the 2015 FIFA World Cup Final?
570c5825fed7b91900d458e6
River Plate
208
False
What was the only team to match Barcelona's record of trophy wins by 2015?
570c5825fed7b91900d458e7
Al Ahly SC
493
False
How many goals did Barcelona score to break the record for most goals in a year?
570c5825fed7b91900d458e8
180
516
False
What teams previous record was 178 goals in a year?
570c5825fed7b91900d458e9
Real Madrid
631
False
On 11 August, Barcelona started the 2015–16 season winning a joint record fifth European Super Cup by beating Sevilla FC 5–4 in the 2015 UEFA Super Cup. They ended the year with a 3–0 win over Argentine club River Plate in the 2015 FIFA Club World Cup Final on 20 December to win the trophy for a record third time, with Suárez, Messi and Iniesta the top three players of the tournament. The FIFA Club World Cup was Barcelona's 20th international title, a record only matched by Egyptian club Al Ahly SC. By scoring 180 goals in 2015 in all competitions, Barcelona set the record for most goals scored in a calendar year, breaking Real Madrid's record of 178 goals scored in 2014.
Where did Barcelona defeat Real Madrid for a trophy win in 2005-06?
570c59fcfed7b91900d458fb
Santiago Bernabéu Stadium
128
False
What was the winning score for the game with Real Madrid at Bernabeu stadium?
570c59fcfed7b91900d458fc
3–0
159
False
How many wins did Frank Rijkaard have at Bernabeu Stadium?
570c59fcfed7b91900d458fd
second victory
209
False
What recognition did Ronaldinho's second goal receive at Bernabeu?
570c59fcfed7b91900d458fe
standing ovation
433
False
What team did Barcelona defeat to win the Champions League trophy?
570c59fcfed7b91900d458ff
Arsenal
508
False
In the 2005–06 season, Barcelona repeated their league and Supercup successes. The pinnacle of the league season arrived at the Santiago Bernabéu Stadium in a 3–0 win over Real Madrid. It was Frank Rijkaard's second victory at the Bernabéu, making him the first Barcelona manager to win there twice. Ronaldinho's performance was so impressive that after his second goal, which was Barcelona's third, some Real Madrid fans gave him a standing ovation. In the Champions League, Barcelona beat the English club Arsenal in the final. Trailing 1–0 to a 10-man Arsenal and with less than 15 minutes remaining, they came back to win 2–1, with substitute Henrik Larsson, in his final appearance for the club, setting up goals for Samuel Eto'o and fellow substitute Juliano Belletti, for the club's first European Cup victory in 14 years.
What caused the suppression of regional cultures?
570c6506fed7b91900d45981
dictatorships
11
False
Of the languages of the are, what was the only approved language?
570c6506fed7b91900d45982
Spanish (Castilian)
207
False
How did the Catalans show their identity during the dictatorships?
570c6506fed7b91900d45983
joining Barça
486
False
What team was awarded by Franco for having a good relationship?
570c6506fed7b91900d45984
blaugrana
651
False
What motto of the team Barcelona appealed to the Catalans?
570c6506fed7b91900d45985
'More than a club'
325
False
During the dictatorships of Miguel Primo de Rivera (1923–1930) and especially of Francisco Franco (1939–1975), all regional cultures were suppressed. All of the languages spoken in Spanish territory, except Spanish (Castilian) itself, were officially banned. Symbolising the Catalan people's desire for freedom, Barça became 'More than a club' (Més que un club) for the Catalans. According to Manuel Vázquez Montalbán, the best way for the Catalans to demonstrate their identity was by joining Barça. It was less risky than joining a clandestine anti-Franco movement, and allowed them to express their dissidence. During Franco's regime, however, the blaugrana team was granted profit due to its good relationship with the dictator at management level, even giving two awards to him.
Who was elected as president of the Barcelona club in 2010?
570c6652fed7b91900d4599d
Sandro Rosell
54
False
What percentage of the votes for president did Rosell get?
570c6652fed7b91900d4599e
61.35%
156
False
What was Rosell's record number of votes he received for president?
570c6652fed7b91900d4599f
57,088
164
False
How much did Barcelona pay to sign  David Villa?
570c6652fed7b91900d459a0
€40 million
248
False
What team did Barcelona beat in El Clasico in 2010?
570c6652fed7b91900d459a1
Real Madrid
369
False
After Laporta's departure from the club in June 2010, Sandro Rosell was soon elected as the new president. The elections were held on 13 June, where he got 61.35% (57,088 votes, a record) of total votes. Rosell signed David Villa from Valencia for €40 million and Javier Mascherano from Liverpool for €19 million. In November 2010, Barcelona defeated their main rival, Real Madrid 5–0 in El Clásico. In the 2010–11 season, Barcelona retained the La Liga trophy, their third title in succession, finishing with 96 points. In April 2011, the club reached the Copa del Rey final, losing 1–0 to Real Madrid at the Mestalla in Valencia. In May, Barcelona defeated Manchester United in the 2011 Champions League Final 3–1 held at Wembley Stadium, a repeat of the 2009 final, winning their fourth European Cup. In August 2011, La Masia graduate Cesc Fàbregas was bought from Arsenal and he would help Barcelona defend the Spanish Supercup against Real Madrid. The Supercup victory brought the total number of official trophies to 73, matching the number of titles won by Real Madrid.
When did Espanyol  offer a counter-petition against autonomy?
570c73d8b3d812140066d1f5
1918
3
False
Which civil war group did some Espanyol supporters join?
570c73d8b3d812140066d1f6
Falangists
164
False
What event is more relevant to Espanyol supporters than to Barcelona fans?
570c73d8b3d812140066d1f7
derbi
270
False
From what language did Espanyol translate their name?
570c73d8b3d812140066d1f8
Spanish
498
False
How has the rivalry between Espanyol and Barcelona  changed?
570c73d8b3d812140066d1f9
less political
425
False
In 1918 Espanyol started a counter-petition against autonomy, which at that time had become a pertinent issue. Later on, an Espanyol supporter group would join the Falangists in the Spanish Civil War, siding with the fascists. Despite these differences in ideology, the derbi has always been more relevant to Espanyol supporters than Barcelona ones due to the difference in objectives. In recent years the rivalry has become less political, as Espanyol translated its official name and anthem from Spanish to Catalan.
What is Lionel Messi's goal total in all competitions?
570c75c9fed7b91900d459d1
474
107
False
How many players on the Barelona team have scored over 100 goals?
570c75c9fed7b91900d459d2
Four
415
False
What is Messi's total goal scores in official competitions?
570c75c9fed7b91900d459d3
445
235
False
How many goals has Messi scored in La Liga competitions?
570c75c9fed7b91900d459d4
305
393
False
Who is the next highest goal scorer after Mess?
570c75c9fed7b91900d459d5
César Rodríguez
506
False
FC Barcelona's all-time highest goalscorer in all competitions (including friendlies) is Lionel Messi with 474 goals. Messi is also the all-time highest goalscorer for Barcelona in all official competitions, excluding friendlies, with 445 goals. He is the record goalscorer for Barcelona in European (82 goals) and international club competitions (90 goals), and the record league scorer with 305 goals in La Liga. Four players have managed to score over 100 league goals at Barcelona: Lionel Messi (305), César Rodríguez (192), László Kubala (131) and Samuel Eto'o (108).
What team has won the treble competitions  twice?
570c774db3d812140066d1ff
Barcelona
0
False
What competition did Barcelona win on May 17 of the 2014-15 season?
570c774db3d812140066d200
La Liga
219
False
What team did Barcelona defeat to win their 23rd La Liga title?
570c774db3d812140066d201
Atlético Madrid
249
False
What have the trio of players , Messi, Suarez, and Neymar been called?
570c774db3d812140066d202
MSN
627
False
How many total goals have the trio MSN  scored in the 2014-15 season?
570c774db3d812140066d203
122
639
False
Barcelona won the treble in the 2014–2015 season, winning La Liga, Copa del Rey and UEFA Champions League titles, and became the first European team to have won the treble twice. On 17 May, the club clinched their 23rd La Liga title after defeating Atlético Madrid. This was Barcelona's seventh La Liga title in the last ten years. On 30 May, the club defeated Athletic Bilbao in the Copa del Rey final at Camp Nou. On 6 June, Barcelona won the UEFA Champions League final with a 3–1 win against Juventus, which completed the treble, the club's second in 6 years. Barcelona's attacking trio of Messi, Suárez and Neymar, dubbed MSN, scored 122 goals in all competitions, the most in a season for an attacking trio in Spanish football history.
What corporate sponsorship did Barcelona agree to in 2006?
570c78d9fed7b91900d459db
UNICEF
180
False
How much does Barcelona donate to UNICEF per year?
570c78d9fed7b91900d459dc
€1.5 million
277
False
What target does the Barcelona donation to UNICEF match?
570c78d9fed7b91900d459dd
UN International Aid Target
359
False
Who recommended setting up the FC Barcelona Foundation?
570c78d9fed7b91900d459de
Jaime Gil-Aluja
560
False
What was the Barcelona foundation meant to attract?
570c78d9fed7b91900d459df
financial sponsorships
632
False
Prior to the 2011–2012 season, Barcelona had a long history of avoiding corporate sponsorship on the playing shirts. On 14 July 2006, the club announced a five-year agreement with UNICEF, which includes having the UNICEF logo on their shirts. The agreement had the club donate €1.5 million per year to UNICEF (0.7 percent of its ordinary income, equal to the UN International Aid Target, cf. ODA) via the FC Barcelona Foundation. The FC Barcelona Foundation is an entity set up in 1994 on the suggestion of then-chairman of the Economical-Statutory Committee, Jaime Gil-Aluja. The idea was to set up a foundation that could attract financial sponsorships to support a non-profit sport company. In 2004, a company could become one of 25 "Honorary members" by contributing between £40,000–60,000 (£54,800–82,300) per year. There are also 48 associate memberships available for an annual fee of £14,000 (£19,200) and an unlimited number of "patronages" for the cost of £4,000 per year (£5,500). It is unclear whether the honorary members have any formal say in club policy, but according to the author Anthony King, it is "unlikely that Honorary Membership would not involve at least some informal influence over the club".
What is the game between the rivals Barcelona and Real Madrid called?
570c7a9afed7b91900d459e5
El Clásico
193
False
What basic difference is there between the teams of Barcelona and Real Madrid?
570c7a9afed7b91900d459e6
rival regions
291
False
What areas of Spain do the teams of Barcelona and Real Madrid represent?
570c7a9afed7b91900d459e7
Catalonia and Castile
315
False
What kind of tensions are the two teams viewed as displaying?
570c7a9afed7b91900d459e8
political and cultural
413
False
Besides the areas of Spain, what other differences are there between Barcelona and Real Madrid?
570c7a9afed7b91900d459e9
two cities
356
False
There is often a fierce rivalry between the two strongest teams in a national league, and this is particularly the case in La Liga, where the game between Barcelona and Real Madrid is known as El Clásico. From the start of national competitions the clubs were seen as representatives of two rival regions in Spain: Catalonia and Castile, as well as of the two cities. The rivalry reflects what many regard as the political and cultural tensions felt between Catalans and the Castilians, seen by one author as a re-enactment of the Spanish Civil War.
Why did the stadium need to be redesigned in 1980?
570c7c46b3d812140066d209
meet UEFA criteria
53
False
What were people allowed to do to bricks for a fee to support the stadium redesign?
570c7c46b3d812140066d20a
inscribe their name
137
False
How did supporters of the team view the inscriptions on bricks idea?
570c7c46b3d812140066d20b
popular
201
False
What name inscription was a center of controversy?
570c7c46b3d812140066d20c
Santiago Bernabéu
453
False
What is the capacity of the Barcelona stadium?
570c7c46b3d812140066d20d
99,354
610
False
In 1980, when the stadium was in need of redesign to meet UEFA criteria, the club raised money by offering supporters the opportunity to inscribe their name on the bricks for a small fee. The idea was popular with supporters, and thousands of people paid the fee. Later this became the centre of controversy when media in Madrid picked up reports that one of the stones was inscribed with the name of long-time Real Madrid chairman and Franco supporter Santiago Bernabéu. In preparation for the 1992 Summer Olympics two tiers of seating were installed above the previous roofline. It has a current capacity of 99,354 making it the largest stadium in Europe.
How was Espanyol viewed as being toward Spanish authority by the people of Barcelona?
570c7e1eb3d812140066d213
compliance
115
False
What kind of spirit does Team Barcelona seem to encourage?
570c7e1eb3d812140066d214
revolutionary
181
False
What type of supporters did Barcelona  attract?
570c7e1eb3d812140066d215
Catalonia's new arrivals
285
False
From where did Espanyol draw their supporters?
570c7e1eb3d812140066d216
close to the regime
420
False
When did Barcelona act as a draw to new arrivals from Catalan?
570c7e1eb3d812140066d217
1960s and 1970s
215
False
Traditionally, Espanyol was seen by the vast majority of Barcelona's citizens as a club which cultivated a kind of compliance to the central authority, in stark contrast to Barça's revolutionary spirit. Also in the 1960s and 1970s, while FC Barcelona acted as an integrating force for Catalonia's new arrivals from poorer regions of Spain expecting to find a better life, Espanyol drew their support mainly from sectors close to the regime such as policemen, military officers, civil servants and career fascists.
When were the blue and red colors worn for a game by Barcelona?
570c8d7cb3d812140066d21d
1900
85
False
When the colors were first worn, what team did Barcelona play?
570c8d7cb3d812140066d21e
Hispania
73
False
From what source do Catalons think the red/blue colors originated?
570c8d7cb3d812140066d21f
Joan Gamper
526
False
What do the red and yellow stripes of the away kit symbolize?
570c8d7cb3d812140066d220
flag of Catalonia
712
False
What are Barcelona's most often used change colors?
570c8d7cb3d812140066d221
yellow and orange
637
False
The blue and red colours of the shirt were first worn in a match against Hispania in 1900. Several competing theories have been put forth for the blue and red design of the Barcelona shirt. The son of the first president, Arthur Witty, claimed it was the idea of his father as the colours were the same as the Merchant Taylor's School team. Another explanation, according to author Toni Strubell, is that the colours are from Robespierre's First Republic. In Catalonia the common perception is that the colours were chosen by Joan Gamper and are those of his home team, FC Basel. The club's most frequently used change colours have been yellow and orange. An away kit featuring the red and yellow stripes of the flag of Catalonia has also been used.
How many goals did Laszlo Kubala score in 256 matches?
570c9048b3d812140066d227
196
213
False
What titles did Barcelona win in 1948 and 1949?
570c9048b3d812140066d228
La Liga
103
False
When did Barcelona sign Kubala?
570c9048b3d812140066d229
June 1950
171
False
In what year did Barcelona begin the construction of a new stadium?
570c9048b3d812140066d22a
1954
367
False
Who blessed the first stone of the new stadium?
570c9048b3d812140066d22b
Archbishop of Barcelona Gregorio Modrego
543
False
After the construction was complete there was no further room for expansion at Les Corts. Back-to-back La Liga titles in 1948 and 1949 and the signing of László Kubala in June 1950, who would later go on to score 196 goals in 256 matches, drew larger crowds to the games. The club began to make plans for a new stadium. The building of Camp Nou commenced on 28 March 1954, before a crowd of 60,000 Barça fans. The first stone of the future stadium was laid in place under the auspices of Governor Felipe Acedo Colunga and with the blessing of Archbishop of Barcelona Gregorio Modrego. Construction took three years and ended on 24 September 1957 with a final cost of 288 million pesetas, 336% over budget.
Which sports team has the world's largest social media following?
570c9204fed7b91900d459ef
Barcelona
0
False
How Ballon d'Or awards have members of the Barcelona team won?
570c9204fed7b91900d459f0
11
203
False
How amny FIFA World Player of the Year have members of FC Barcelona won?
570c9204fed7b91900d459f1
7
276
False
How amny of Barcelona's players were picked as the three best players of the year in 2010?
570c9204fed7b91900d459f2
three
316
False
Where did Messi, Iniesta and Xavi learn their football in Barcelona?
570c9204fed7b91900d459f3
youth academy
351
False
Barcelona is one of the most supported teams in the world, and has the largest social media following in the world among sports teams. Barcelona's players have won a record number of Ballon d'Or awards (11), as well as a record number of FIFA World Player of the Year awards (7). In 2010, the club made history when three players who came through its youth academy (Messi, Iniesta and Xavi) were chosen as the three best players in the world in the FIFA Ballon d'Or awards, an unprecedented feat for players from the same football school.
How many times did Barcelona win the Pyrenees Cup?
570c9341fed7b91900d459f9
four
401
False
From what area were the participants of the Pyrenees Cup competition?
570c9341fed7b91900d459fa
Marca Hispanica
256
False
When was the Pyrenees Cup play begun?
570c9341fed7b91900d459fb
1910
357
False
Who was Barcelona's first full time coach?
570c9341fed7b91900d459fc
Jack Greenwell
537
False
When was the last Pyrenees Cup played?
570c9341fed7b91900d459fd
1914
642
False
With the new stadium, Barcelona participated in the inaugural version of the Pyrenees Cup, which, at the time, consisted of the best teams of Languedoc, Midi and Aquitaine (Southern France), the Basque Country and Catalonia; all were former members of the Marca Hispanica region. The contest was the most prestigious in that era. From the inaugural year in 1910 to 1913, Barcelona won the competition four consecutive times. Carles Comamala played an integral part of the four-time champion, managing the side along with Amechazurra and Jack Greenwell. The latter became the club's first full-time coach in 1917. The last edition was held in 1914 in the city of Barcelona, which local rivals Espanyol won.
Who was the first elected president of the Barcelona club?
570c943eb3d812140066d231
Josep Lluís Núñez
9
False
When was Nunez elected as president of FC Barcelona?
570c943eb3d812140066d232
1978
3
False
What group elects the club president?
570c943eb3d812140066d233
members of Barcelona
100
False
How long was Nunez president of Barcelona?
570c943eb3d812140066d234
22 years
469
False
What was Nunez known to be strict about?
570c943eb3d812140066d235
wages and discipline
569
False
In 1978, Josep Lluís Núñez became the first elected president of FC Barcelona, and, since then, the members of Barcelona have elected the club president. The process of electing a president of FC Barcelona was closely tied to Spain's transition to democracy in 1974 and the end of Franco's dictatorship. The new president's main objective was to develop Barcelona into a world-class club by giving it stability both on and off the pitch. His presidency was to last for 22 years, and it deeply affected the image of Barcelona, as Núñez held to a strict policy regarding wages and discipline, letting go of such players as Maradona, Romário and Ronaldo rather than meeting their demands.
What team did favorite play Luis Figo leave Barcelona to join?
570c9615fed7b91900d45a03
Real Madrid
292
False
What kind of treatment was Figo offered during visits to Barcelona?
570c9615fed7b91900d45a04
hostile
380
False
After Figo's departure what happened the next three years?
570c9615fed7b91900d45a05
decline
539
False
What rank was club Barcelona in 2003?
570c9615fed7b91900d45a06
15th
1415
False
After Barcelona's poor showing in the 2003 season , who resigned from the presidency?
570c9615fed7b91900d45a07
Joan Gaspart
1689
False
The departures of Núñez and van Gaal were hardly noticed by the fans when compared to that of Luís Figo, then club vice-captain. Figo had become a cult hero, and was considered by Catalans to be one of their own. However, Barcelona fans were distraught by Figo's decision to join arch-rivals Real Madrid, and, during subsequent visits to the Camp Nou, Figo was given an extremely hostile reception. Upon his first return, a piglet's head and a full bottle of whiskey were thrown at him from the crowd. The next three years saw the club in decline, and managers came and went. van Gaal was replaced by Llorenç Serra Ferrer who, despite an extensive investment in players in the summer of 2000, presided over a mediocre league campaign and a humiliating first-round Champions League exit, and was eventually dismissed late in the season. Long-serving coach Carles Rexach was appointed as his replacement, initially on a temporary basis, and managed to at least steer the club to the last Champions League spot on the final day of the season. Despite better form in La Liga and a good run to the semi-finals of the Champions League, Rexach was never viewed as a long-term solution and that summer Louis van Gaal returned to the club for a second spell as manager. What followed, despite another decent Champions League performance, was one of the worst La Liga campaigns in the club's history, with the team as low as 15th in February 2003. This led to van Gaal's resignation and replacement for the rest of the campaign by Radomir Antić, though a sixth-place finish was the best that he could manage. At the end of the season, Antić's short-term contract was not renewed, and club president Joan Gaspart resigned, his position having been made completely untenable by such a disastrous season on top of the club's overall decline in fortunes since he became president three years prior.
Who returned to Barcelona as head coach?
570c9785b3d812140066d23b
Luis Enrique
38
False
How long did Enrique 's deal as coach run?
570c9785b3d812140066d23c
two-year
113
False
How much did Barcelona pay for Luis Saurez?
570c9785b3d812140066d23d
between €81 to €94 million
315
False
Why was Saurez not playing for four months?
570c9785b3d812140066d23e
ban from all football
396
False
Who banned Saurez for four months after he bit another player?
570c9785b3d812140066d23f
FIFA Disciplinary Committee
450
False
Two days later, it was announced that Luis Enrique would return to Barcelona as head coach, after he agreed to a two-year deal. He was recommended by sporting director Andoni Zubizarreta, his former national teammate. Following Enrique's arrival, Barcelona broke their transfer record when they paid Liverpool F.C. between €81 to €94 million for striker Luis Suárez, who was serving a four-month ban from all football-related activity imposed by the FIFA Disciplinary Committee after biting Italian defender Giorgio Chiellini during his appearance for Uruguay in a World Cup group stage match.
What is the nickname for a Barcelona supporter?
570c98ccfed7b91900d45a0d
culé
13
False
How much of the Spanish population are Barcelona supporters?
570c98ccfed7b91900d45a0e
25%
207
False
How much of the population of Spain are supporters of Real Madrid?
570c98ccfed7b91900d45a0f
32%
303
False
What was the club membership in 2003-04?
570c98ccfed7b91900d45a10
100,000
460
False
What did the club membership grow to by 2009?
570c98ccfed7b91900d45a11
170,000
493
False
The nickname culé for a Barcelona supporter is derived from the Catalan cul (English: arse), as the spectators at the first stadium, Camp de la Indústria, sat with their culs over the stand. In Spain, about 25% of the population is said to be Barça sympathisers, second behind Real Madrid, supported by 32% of the population. Throughout Europe, Barcelona is the favourite second-choice club. The club's membership figures have seen a significant increase from 100,000 in the 2003–04 season to 170,000 in September 2009, the sharp rise being attributed to the influence of Ronaldinho and then-president Joan Laporta's media strategy that focused on Spanish and English online media.
In 1950 what player was successful for Real Madrid?
570c9aa8b3d812140066d245
Alfredo di Stéfano
110
False
When did Barcelona meet Real Madrid twice in Europe?
570c9aa8b3d812140066d246
1960s
210
False
What was a match between Real Madrid and Barcelona called in 2002?
570c9aa8b3d812140066d247
Match of The Century
462
False
How many people watched the Match of the Century?
570c9aa8b3d812140066d248
500 million
544
False
Which team won the 2002 match between Real Madrid and Barcelona?
570c9aa8b3d812140066d249
Madrid
506
False
During the 1950s the rivalry was exacerbated further when there was a controversy surrounding the transfer of Alfredo di Stéfano, who finally played for Real Madrid and was key to their subsequent success. The 1960s saw the rivalry reach the European stage when they met twice in a controversial knock-out round of the European Cup, with Madrid receiving unfavourable treatment from the referee. In 2002, the European encounter between the clubs was dubbed the "Match of The Century" by Spanish media, and Madrid's win was watched by more than 500 million people.
What did Forbes say Barcelona was worth in 2010?
570c9c3eb3d812140066d24f
€752 million
57
False
In what place does the Forbes ranking put Barcelona?
570c9c3eb3d812140066d250
fourth
101
False
Besides Real Madrid and Arsenal,what other team is ahead of Barcelona in worth ranking?
570c9c3eb3d812140066d251
Manchester United
114
False
What was Barcelona's revenue in 2010?
570c9c3eb3d812140066d252
€366 million
260
False
Where  in 2014 did Forbes rank Barcelona as to how valuable a sports team they are?
570c9c3eb3d812140066d253
second
559
False
In 2010, Forbes evaluated Barcelona's worth to be around €752 million (USD $1 billion), ranking them fourth after Manchester United, Real Madrid, and Arsenal, based on figures from the 2008–09 season. According to Deloitte, Barcelona had a recorded revenue of €366 million in the same period, ranking second to Real Madrid, who generated €401 million in revenue. In 2013, Forbes magazine ranked Barcelona the third most valuable sports team in the world, behind Real Madrid and Manchester United, with a value of $2.6 billion. In 2014, Forbes ranked them the second most valuable sports team in the world, worth $3.2 billion, and Deloitte ranked them the world's fourth richest football club in terms of revenue, with an annual turnover of €484.6 million.
When did Barcelona become the first Spanish team to win the treble competitions?
570c9e2dfed7b91900d45a17
2009
210
False
In 2009 Barcelona became the first team to win six of six competitions in what span of time?
570c9e2dfed7b91900d45a18
single year
438
False
What European football team has won the treble twice?
570c9e2dfed7b91900d45a19
Barcelona
608
False
During which football season did Barcelona win its second treble?
570c9e2dfed7b91900d45a1a
2014–15
592
False
What team has played continental football every season since 1955?
570c9e2dfed7b91900d45a1b
Barcelona
0
False
Barcelona is the only European club to have played continental football every season since 1955, and one of three clubs to have never been relegated from La Liga, along with Athletic Bilbao and Real Madrid. In 2009, Barcelona became the first club in Spain to win the treble consisting of La Liga, Copa del Rey, and the Champions League. That same year, it also became the first football club ever to win six out of six competitions in a single year, thus completing the sextuple, comprising the aforementioned treble and the Spanish Super Cup, UEFA Super Cup and FIFA Club World Cup. In the 2014–15 season, Barcelona won another historic treble, making them the first club in European football to win the treble twice.
Federal_Bureau_of_Investigation
What tool did Hoover use to find bootleggers?
570c22336b8089140040fb3a
wiretapping
19
False
In what supreme court case was it ruled that FBI wiretaps did not violate the Fourth Amendment?
570c22336b8089140040fb3b
Olmstead v. United States
103
False
What Act did Congress pass to outlaw non-consensual phone tapping?
570c22336b8089140040fb3c
Communications Act of 1934
442
False
In what case was it ruled that evidence obtained by the FBI via wiretapping was inadmissible in court?
570c22336b8089140040fb3d
Nardone v. United States
553
False
What is now necessary to tap someone's telephone?
570c22336b8089140040fb3e
a warrant
922
False
Which president was the first to use wiretaps to find bootleggers?
570c22d96b8089140040fb4a
Hoover
0
False
What case centered around a bootlegger caught through phone tapping?
570c22d96b8089140040fb4b
Olmstead v. United States
103
False
What did Congress pass to outlaw phone tapping?
570c22d96b8089140040fb4c
Communications Act of 1934
442
False
What is now required to wire tap a citizen?
570c22d96b8089140040fb4d
a warrant
922
False
Is a warrant required before or after a wiretap?
570c22d96b8089140040fb4e
beforehand
932
False
1920s
38
When did Hoover stop using wiretapping?
5ad368bc604f3c001a3fe0c1
True
Olmstead v. United States
103
In what case did the United States Supreme Court rule that wiretaps are always unlawful?
5ad368bc604f3c001a3fe0c2
True
Communications Act of 1934
442
What act did Congress pass that legalized non-consensual phone tapping?
5ad368bc604f3c001a3fe0c3
True
1939
543
In what year did the Supreme Court rule that evidence obtained by phone tapping was admissible in court?
5ad368bc604f3c001a3fe0c4
True
Omnibus Crime Control Act
804
What act of Congress allowed authorities to tap telephones without a warrant?
5ad368bc604f3c001a3fe0c5
True
Hoover began using wiretapping in the 1920s during Prohibition to arrest bootleggers. In the 1927 case Olmstead v. United States, in which a bootlegger was caught through telephone tapping, the United States Supreme Court ruled that FBI wiretaps did not violate the Fourth Amendment as unlawful search and seizure, as long as the FBI did not break into a person's home to complete the tapping. After Prohibition's repeal, Congress passed the Communications Act of 1934, which outlawed non-consensual phone tapping, but allowed bugging. In the 1939 case Nardone v. United States, the court ruled that due to the 1934 law, evidence the FBI obtained by phone tapping was inadmissible in court. After the 1967 case Katz v. United States overturned the 1927 case that had allowed bugging, Congress passed the Omnibus Crime Control Act, allowing public authorities to tap telephones during investigations as long as they obtain a warrant beforehand.
Which group broke into an FBI office in Media, Pennsylvania?
570c2375ec8fbc190045bc76
Citizens' Commission to Investigate the FBI
123
False
Did the Citizens' Commission to Investigate the FBI take files?
570c2375ec8fbc190045bc77
Numerous files were taken
168
False
What files was the Citizens' Commission to Investigate the FBI's raid mainly focused on?
570c2375ec8fbc190045bc78
COINTELPRO program
306
False
What did the files about COINTELPRO reveal?
570c2375ec8fbc190045bc79
investigations into lives of ordinary citizens
341
False
How did the US react to these discoveries?
570c2375ec8fbc190045bc7a
The country was "jolted"
513
False
March 1971
3
When was the Citizens' Commission to Investigate the FBI burglarized?
5ad37f50604f3c001a3fe43d
True
Media, Pennsylvania
57
Where was the residential office of a CIA agent burglarized?
5ad37f50604f3c001a3fe43e
True
The Harvard Crimson
246
What was a paper that did not receive any FBI files?
5ad37f50604f3c001a3fe43f
True
Henry Reuss
487
Which congressman had his son investigated by the FBI?
5ad37f50604f3c001a3fe440
True
Hale Boggs
699
What member of Congress expressed support for the actions of the FBI?
5ad37f50604f3c001a3fe441
True
In March 1971, the residential office of an FBI agent in Media, Pennsylvania was burglarized by a group calling itself the Citizens' Commission to Investigate the FBI. Numerous files were taken and distributed to a range of newspapers, including The Harvard Crimson. The files detailed the FBI's extensive COINTELPRO program, which included investigations into lives of ordinary citizens—including a black student group at a Pennsylvania military college and the daughter of Congressman Henry Reuss of Wisconsin. The country was "jolted" by the revelations, which included assassinations of political activists, and the actions were denounced by members of Congress, including House Majority Leader Hale Boggs. The phones of some members of Congress, including Boggs, had allegedly been tapped.
Did the FBI reassign agents from counter-intelligence to violent crime?
570c23e1ec8fbc190045bc80
the FBI reassigned more than 300 agents from foreign counter-intelligence duties to violent crime
46
False
What priority were violent crimes in the 1990s, according to the FBI?
570c23e1ec8fbc190045bc81
sixth national priority
172
False
Did the new priorities of the FBI mean cutting other departments?
570c23e1ec8fbc190045bc82
With reduced cuts to other well-established departments
197
False
Was terrorism considered a threat after the cold war?
570c23e1ec8fbc190045bc83
terrorism was no longer considered a threat
266
False
What agency pioneered DNA testing?
570c23e1ec8fbc190045bc84
The FBI
467
False
300
75
How many agents did the FBI reassign before the 1980s?
5ad38282604f3c001a3fe4ad
True
foreign counter-intelligence
91
What were 300 agents reassigned from violent crime to focus on?
5ad38282604f3c001a3fe4ae
True
violent crime
130
What was the FBI's first national priority?
5ad38282604f3c001a3fe4af
True
terrorism
266
What was still considered a threat after the end of the Cold War?
5ad38282604f3c001a3fe4b0
True
1924
608
When did the FBI's pioneering role in identification end?
5ad38282604f3c001a3fe4b1
True
From the end of the 1980s to the early 1990s, the FBI reassigned more than 300 agents from foreign counter-intelligence duties to violent crime, and made violent crime the sixth national priority. With reduced cuts to other well-established departments, and because terrorism was no longer considered a threat after the end of the Cold War, the FBI assisted local and state police forces in tracking fugitives who had crossed state lines, which is a federal offense. The FBI Laboratory helped develop DNA testing, continuing its pioneering role in identification that began with its fingerprinting system in 1924.
What agencies were to blame for 9/11?
570c244fec8fbc190045bc8a
FBI and Central Intelligence Agency
68
False
Did 9/11 lead to more FBI oversight?
570c244fec8fbc190045bc8b
acceded to most of the recommendations, including oversight
431
False
Did many believe the FBI was resisting important changes?
570c244fec8fbc190045bc8c
resisting any meaningful changes
641
False
Did the people believe they were served well by the FBI?
570c244fec8fbc190045bc8d
not been well served
310
False
July 22, 2004
38
When was the 9/11 Commission's first report?
5ad38e93604f3c001a3fe615
True
FBI and Central Intelligence Agency
68
What agencies did the 9/11 Commission say were not to blame?
5ad38e93604f3c001a3fe616
True
September 11, 2001 attacks
207
What did the report conclude could not have been prevented?
5ad38e93604f3c001a3fe617
True
former members of the 9/11 Commission
542
Who privately criticized the FBI in October 2005?
5ad38e93604f3c001a3fe618
True
October 2005
611
When did former members of the 9/11 commission publicly praise the FBI?
5ad38e93604f3c001a3fe619
True
The 9/11 Commission's final report on July 22, 2004 stated that the FBI and Central Intelligence Agency (CIA) were both partially to blame for not pursuing intelligence reports that could have prevented the September 11, 2001 attacks. In its most damning assessment, the report concluded that the country had "not been well served" by either agency and listed numerous recommendations for changes within the FBI. While the FBI has acceded to most of the recommendations, including oversight by the new Director of National Intelligence, some former members of the 9/11 Commission publicly criticized the FBI in October 2005, claiming it was resisting any meaningful changes.
Where is the CJIS located?
570c24bcec8fbc190045bc92
Clarksburg, West Virginia
73
False
When was the CJIS created?
570c24bcec8fbc190045bc93
1991
123
False
What purpose does the CJIS serve?
570c24bcec8fbc190045bc94
main repository for information
254
False
Where is the data for the NCIC located?
570c24bcec8fbc190045bc95
Under the roof of the CJIS
311
False
Do states have access to CJIS?
570c24bcec8fbc190045bc96
Many state and local agencies use these data
597
False
The Criminal Justice Information Services (CJIS) Division
0
What opened in 1995 as the oldest agency division?
5ad3a0f0604f3c001a3fe9c7
True
1991
123
When did the CJIS division close?
5ad3a0f0604f3c001a3fe9c8
True
National Crime Information Center
363
What program is not under the roof of the CJIS?
5ad3a0f0604f3c001a3fe9c9
True
data systems
637
What are state and local agencies not allowed to use for their own investigations?
5ad3a0f0604f3c001a3fe9ca
True
local, state, federal, and international law enforcement agencies
836
What provides tools of sophisticated identification and information services to the FBI?
5ad3a0f0604f3c001a3fe9cb
True
The Criminal Justice Information Services (CJIS) Division, is located in Clarksburg, West Virginia. Organized beginning in 1991, the office opened in 1995 as the youngest agency division. The complex is the length of three football fields. It provides a main repository for information in various data systems. Under the roof of the CJIS are the programs for the National Crime Information Center (NCIC), Uniform Crime Reporting (UCR), Fingerprint Identification, Integrated Automated Fingerprint Identification System (IAFIS), NCIC 2000, and the National Incident-Based Reporting System (NIBRS). Many state and local agencies use these data systems as a source for their own investigations and contribute to the database using secure communications. FBI provides these tools of sophisticated identification and information services to local, state, federal, and international law enforcement agencies.
Who is responsible for day-to-day FBI operations?
570c25306b8089140040fb68
The FBI director
0
False
Who assists the FBI director?
570c25306b8089140040fb69
his deputies
85
False
What acts were passed relating to the FBI after 9/11?
570c25306b8089140040fb6a
Intelligence Reform and Terrorism Prevention Act
308
False
Who used to brief the President?
570c25306b8089140040fb6b
FBI director
413
False
Who now reports to the President?
570c25306b8089140040fb6c
Director of National Intelligence
572
False
FBI director
4
Who makes sure CIA field offices are manned with qualified agents?
5ad3a438604f3c001a3fea81
True
Intelligence Reform and Terrorism Prevention Act
308
What act was passed before September 11th?
5ad3a438604f3c001a3fea82
True
Director of National Intelligence
572
Who does the President report to?
5ad3a438604f3c001a3fea83
True
President of the United States
451
Who is responsible for briefing the FBI director?
5ad3a438604f3c001a3fea84
True
any issues that arise from within the FBI
485
What does the CIA director brief the President on?
5ad3a438604f3c001a3fea85
True
The FBI director is responsible for the day-to-day operations at the FBI. Along with his deputies, the director makes sure cases and operations are handled correctly. The director also is in charge of making sure the leadership in any one of the FBI field offices is manned with qualified agents. Before the Intelligence Reform and Terrorism Prevention Act was passed in the wake of the September 11 attacks, the FBI director would directly brief the President of the United States on any issues that arise from within the FBI. Since then, the director now reports to the Director of National Intelligence (DNI), who in turn reports to the President.
What compiles data from around 17,000 law enforcement agencies?
570c25c4ec8fbc190045bca2
The Uniform Crime Reports
0
False
What does UCR focus on?
570c25c4ec8fbc190045bca3
violent crimes, hate crimes, and property crimes
295
False
Where was the UCR created?
570c25c4ec8fbc190045bca4
1920s
360
False
Uniform Crime Reports
4
What agency compiles data from law enforcement agencies outside of the country?
5ad3a614604f3c001a3feab5
True
violent crimes, hate crimes, and property crimes
295
What kind of crimes does the UCR not focus on?
5ad3a614604f3c001a3feab6
True
1920s
360
When was the UCR disbanded?
5ad3a614604f3c001a3feab7
True
93
577
What percent of data submitted to the CIA is in this format?
5ad3a614604f3c001a3feab8
True
most states
684
What does not require law enforcement agencies to submit this data?
5ad3a614604f3c001a3feab9
True
The Uniform Crime Reports (UCR) compile data from over 17,000 law enforcement agencies across the country. They provide detailed data regarding the volume of crimes to include arrest, clearance (or closing a case), and law enforcement officer information. The UCR focuses its data collection on violent crimes, hate crimes, and property crimes. Created in the 1920s, the UCR system has not proven to be as uniform as its name implies. The UCR data only reflect the most serious offense in the case of connected crimes and has a very restrictive definition of rape. Since about 93% of the data submitted to the FBI is in this format, the UCR stands out as the publication of choice as most states require law enforcement agencies to submit this data.
What percentage of COINTELPRO resources were targeted at FBI labeled subversive groups?
570c26436b8089140040fb7c
85%
22
False
Did the FBI target MLK?
570c26436b8089140040fb7d
including Martin Luther King, Jr.
238
False
What percentage of COINTELPRO resources were used to target white hate groups?
570c26436b8089140040fb7e
15%
1075
False
What were the key white hate groups targeted?
570c26436b8089140040fb7f
Ku Klux Klan and the National States' Rights Party
1177
False
What was the term for the liberal groups appearing at this time?
570c26436b8089140040fb80
New Left
579
False
85%
22
How much of COINTELPRO resources were dedicated to targeting libertarian organizations?
5ad3ad33604f3c001a3febef
True
Martin Luther King, Jr.
248
Who is a Civil Rights leader that the CIA targeted?
5ad3ad33604f3c001a3febf0
True
15
1075
What percent of COINTELPRO resources were used to help white hate groups?
5ad3ad33604f3c001a3febf1
True
Ku Klux Klan
1177
What group did the FBI not target?
5ad3ad33604f3c001a3febf2
True
Southern Christian Leadership Conference
303
What is a group that the CIA targeted?
5ad3ad33604f3c001a3febf3
True
FBI records show that 85% of COINTELPRO resources targeted groups and individuals that the FBI deemed "subversive", including communist and socialist organizations; organizations and individuals associated with the Civil Rights Movement, including Martin Luther King, Jr. and others associated with the Southern Christian Leadership Conference, the National Association for the Advancement of Colored People, and the Congress of Racial Equality and other civil rights organizations; black nationalist groups; the American Indian Movement; a broad range of organizations labeled "New Left", including Students for a Democratic Society and the Weathermen; almost all groups protesting the Vietnam War, as well as individual student demonstrators with no group affiliation; the National Lawyers Guild; organizations and individuals associated with the women's rights movement; nationalist groups such as those seeking independence for Puerto Rico, United Ireland, and Cuban exile movements including Orlando Bosch's Cuban Power and the Cuban Nationalist Movement. The remaining 15% of COINTELPRO resources were expended to marginalize and subvert white hate groups, including the Ku Klux Klan and the National States' Rights Party.
What is the FBI comparable to?
570c26b0ec8fbc190045bca8
British MI5 and the Russian FSB
123
False
What kind of agency is the FBI?
570c26b0ec8fbc190045bca9
FBI is primarily a domestic agency
293
False
How many field offices does the FBI have in major cities?
570c26b0ec8fbc190045bcaa
56
341
False
Around how many offices does the FBI have in minor cities?
570c26b0ec8fbc190045bcab
400
418
False
Who serves as the representative of the Director of National Intelligence?
570c26b0ec8fbc190045bcac
senior-level FBI officer
512
False
British MI5
123
What intelligence agency is comparable to the CIA?
5ad36226604f3c001a3fdf7b
True
intelligence collection
259
What does the FBI focus on overseas?
5ad36226604f3c001a3fdf7c
True
56
341
How many field offices does the CIA have in major cities in the United States?
5ad36226604f3c001a3fdf7d
True
400
418
How many field offices does the FBI have outside of the United States?
5ad36226604f3c001a3fdf7e
True
Director of National Intelligence
586
Who does a senior level CIA officer serve as a representative of in a CIA field office?
5ad36226604f3c001a3fdf7f
True
Although many of FBI's functions are unique, its activities in support of national security are comparable to those of the British MI5 and the Russian FSB. Unlike the Central Intelligence Agency (CIA), which has no law enforcement authority and is focused on intelligence collection overseas, FBI is primarily a domestic agency, maintaining 56 field offices in major cities throughout the United States, and more than 400 resident agencies in lesser cities and areas across the nation. At an FBI field office, a senior-level FBI officer concurrently serves as the representative of the Director of National Intelligence.
What was the bureau's first task?
570c26fa6b8089140040fb90
visiting and making surveys of the houses of prostitution
37
False
What act was the bureau initially tasked with enforcing?
570c26fa6b8089140040fb91
White Slave Traffic Act
129
False
What was the other formal name of the Mann Act?
570c26fa6b8089140040fb92
White Slave Traffic Act
129
False
When was the Mann Act passed?
570c26fa6b8089140040fb93
June 25, 1910
178
False
When was the bureau renamed?
570c26fa6b8089140040fb94
In 1932,
193
False
houses of prostitution
72
What did the bureau visit during its last official task?
5ad36461604f3c001a3fe00d
True
White Slave Traffic Act
129
What was the last law that the FBI enforced?
5ad36461604f3c001a3fe00e
True
June 25, 1910
178
When was the Mann Act rejected by congress?
5ad36461604f3c001a3fe00f
True
1932
196
What year was the Division of Investigation renamed the United States Bureau of Investigation?
5ad36461604f3c001a3fe010
True
1935
458
When was the FBI separated from the Department of Justice?
5ad36461604f3c001a3fe011
True
The bureau's first official task was visiting and making surveys of the houses of prostitution in preparation for enforcing the "White Slave Traffic Act," or Mann Act, passed on June 25, 1910. In 1932, it was renamed the United States Bureau of Investigation. The following year it was linked to the Bureau of Prohibition and rechristened the Division of Investigation (DOI) before finally becoming an independent service within the Department of Justice in 1935. In the same year, its name was officially changed from the Division of Investigation to the present-day Federal Bureau of Investigation, or FBI.
When did the FBI become concerned about Civil Rights?
570c27686b8089140040fb9a
1950s and 1960s
11
False
What ties did the FBI believe civil rights leaders had?
570c27686b8089140040fb9b
communist ties
140
False
Who did Hoover send an open letter denouncing?
570c27686b8089140040fb9c
Dr. T.R.M. Howard
250
False
What agency had Dr. T.R.M. Howard criticized?
570c27686b8089140040fb9d
FBI
360
False
What was the controversial domestic surveillance operation in this era?
570c27686b8089140040fb9e
COINTELPRO
547
False
1950s and 1960s
11
When did FBI officials become less concerned about Civil Rights?
5ad37d89604f3c001a3fe417
True
communist ties
140
What ties did civil rights leaders believe the FBI had?
5ad37d89604f3c001a3fe418
True
1956
193
When did Dr. T.R.M. Howard send an open letter denouncing Hoover?
5ad37d89604f3c001a3fe419
True
COINTELPRO
547
What controversial domestic surveillance program did the CIA carry out?
5ad37d89604f3c001a3fe41a
True
Southern Christian Leadership Conference
804
What was not one of the targets of COINTELPRO?
5ad37d89604f3c001a3fe41b
True
During the 1950s and 1960s, FBI officials became increasingly concerned about the influence of civil rights leaders, whom they believed had communist ties or were unduly influenced by them. In 1956, for example, Hoover sent an open letter denouncing Dr. T.R.M. Howard, a civil rights leader, surgeon, and wealthy entrepreneur in Mississippi who had criticized FBI inaction in solving recent murders of George W. Lee, Emmett Till, and other blacks in the South. The FBI carried out controversial domestic surveillance in an operation it called the COINTELPRO, which was short for "COunter-INTELligence PROgram." It was to investigate and disrupt the activities of dissident political organizations within the United States, including both militant and non-violent organizations. Among its targets was the Southern Christian Leadership Conference, a leading civil rights organization with clergy leadership.
When did the FBI begin investigating espionage?
570c27d9ec8fbc190045bcb2
1940s
17
False
How many Nazis were arrested?
570c27d9ec8fbc190045bcb3
Eight
139
False
What project broke Soviet codes?
570c27d9ec8fbc190045bcb4
the Venona project
355
False
What agency did Hoover not tell about the code break and the discoveries gained from it?
570c27d9ec8fbc190045bcb5
CIA
744
False
cases of espionage against the United States
78
What did the bureau investigate before the 1940s?
5ad36cc8604f3c001a3fe1cb
True
Eight
139
How many Italian agents were arrested?
5ad36cc8604f3c001a3fe1cc
True
the Venona project
355
What project broke Nazi codes?
5ad36cc8604f3c001a3fe1cd
True
CIA
744
What agency did Hoover inform about the code break right away?
5ad36cc8604f3c001a3fe1ce
True
discovery of Soviet spies
835
What stopped Hoover from pursuing his obsession with the threat from the American Left?
5ad36cc8604f3c001a3fe1cf
True
Beginning in the 1940s and continuing into the 1970s, the bureau investigated cases of espionage against the United States and its allies. Eight Nazi agents who had planned sabotage operations against American targets were arrested, and six were executed (Ex parte Quirin) under their sentences. Also during this time, a joint US/UK code-breaking effort (the Venona project)—with which the FBI was heavily involved—broke Soviet diplomatic and intelligence communications codes, allowing the US and British governments to read Soviet communications. This effort confirmed the existence of Americans working in the United States for Soviet intelligence. Hoover was administering this project but failed to notify the Central Intelligence Agency (CIA) until 1952. Another notable case is the arrest of Soviet spy Rudolf Abel in 1957. The discovery of Soviet spies operating in the US allowed Hoover to pursue his longstanding obsession with the threat he perceived from the American Left, ranging from Communist Party of the United States of America (CPUSA) union organizers to American liberals.
When did a committee oppose the FBI's organized crime informant program?
570c285fec8fbc190045bcba
In 2003
0
False
How many innocent men did the FBI allow to be convicted?
570c285fec8fbc190045bcbb
four
175
False
What was the death sentence reduced to?
570c285fec8fbc190045bcbc
life in prison
450
False
How many of the men died in prison?
570c285fec8fbc190045bcbd
Two
466
False
How much was the US government ordered to pay in damages?
570c285fec8fbc190045bcbe
$100 million
789
False
FBI's organized crime informant program
45
What did a congressional committee call one of the greatest successes in federal law enforcement?
5ad381bc604f3c001a3fe48f
True
March 1965
216
When did the FBI stop four innocent men from being convicted?
5ad381bc604f3c001a3fe490
True
Vincent Flemmi
288
What was the name of the CIA's informant?
5ad381bc604f3c001a3fe491
True
Nancy Gertner
626
Who found that the bureau had not helped convict four men?
5ad381bc604f3c001a3fe492
True
$100 million
789
How much were the four defendants ordered to pay the U.S. government?
5ad381bc604f3c001a3fe493
True
In 2003 a congressional committee called the FBI's organized crime informant program "one of the greatest failures in the history of federal law enforcement." The FBI allowed four innocent men to be convicted of the March 1965 gangland murder of Edward "Teddy" Deegan in order to protect Vincent Flemmi, an FBI informant. Three of the men were sentenced to death (which was later reduced to life in prison), and the fourth defendant was sentenced to life in prison. Two of the four men died in prison after serving almost 30 years, and two others were released after serving 32 and 36 years. In July 2007, U.S. District Judge Nancy Gertner in Boston found the bureau helped convict the four men using false witness account by mobster Joseph Barboza. The U.S. Government was ordered to pay $100 million in damages to the four defendants.
When did the FBI increase it's counter-terrorism role?
570c28c0ec8fbc190045bcc4
Between 1993 and 1996
0
False
What prompted the FBI increase in counter-terrorism?
570c28c0ec8fbc190045bcc5
World Trade Center bombing
98
False
Where was the World Trade Center?
570c28c0ec8fbc190045bcc6
New York City, New York
128
False
When was Oklahoma city bombed?
570c28c0ec8fbc190045bcc7
1995
157
False
What did agents within the FBI do to investigations of the agency?
570c28c0ec8fbc190045bcc8
obstructed
494
False
counter-terrorism
45
What role did the FBI focus more on before 1993?
5ad3834b604f3c001a3fe4d5
True
1993
93
When did the second World Trade Center bombing occur?
5ad3834b604f3c001a3fe4d6
True
the Unabomber
230
Who was set free in 1996?
5ad3834b604f3c001a3fe4d7
True
Technological innovation
253
What stopped the FBI from ensuring that these three cases were successfully prosecuted?
5ad3834b604f3c001a3fe4d8
True
1996 Summer Olympics
545
During what Olympics was the FBI praised for its investigation?
5ad3834b604f3c001a3fe4d9
True
Between 1993 and 1996, the FBI increased its counter-terrorism role in the wake of the first 1993 World Trade Center bombing in New York City, New York; the 1995 Oklahoma City bombing in Oklahoma City, Oklahoma; and the arrest of the Unabomber in 1996. Technological innovation and the skills of FBI Laboratory analysts helped ensure that the three cases were successfully prosecuted. Justice Department investigations into the FBI's roles in the Ruby Ridge and Waco incidents were found to be obstructed by agents within the Bureau. During the 1996 Summer Olympics in Atlanta, Georgia, the FBI was criticized for its investigation of the Centennial Olympic Park bombing. It has settled a dispute with Richard Jewell, who was a private security guard at the venue, along with some media organizations, in regard to the leaking of his name during the investigation.
What FBI agent was killed during attacks on the World Trade Center?
570c2925ec8fbc190045bcce
Leonard W. Hatton Jr
75
False
What tower was Leonard W. Hatton Jr attempting to evacuate?
570c2925ec8fbc190045bccf
South Tower
198
False
What did the FBI's new director want?
570c2925ec8fbc190045bcd0
re-engineering
364
False
What was the new head of the FBI's top priority?
570c2925ec8fbc190045bcd1
countering every federal crime
420
False
What part of the FBI did Mueller want to re-engineer?
570c2925ec8fbc190045bcd2
structure and operations
386
False
Leonard W. Hatton Jr.
75
What CIA agent was killed during the attacks on the World Trade Center?
5ad38518604f3c001a3fe53f
True
helping the rescue personnel
139
What was Hatton trying to do in the North Tower of the World Trade Center?
5ad38518604f3c001a3fe540
True
Robert Mueller
286
Who was sworn in as FBI Director a week after the attacks?
5ad38518604f3c001a3fe541
True
countering every federal crime
420
What was a low priority for Mueller?
5ad38518604f3c001a3fe542
True
civil rights
620
What did Mueller not try to protect?
5ad38518604f3c001a3fe543
True
During the September 11, 2001 attacks on the World Trade Center, FBI agent Leonard W. Hatton Jr. was killed during the rescue effort while helping the rescue personnel evacuate the occupants of the South Tower and stayed when it collapsed. Within months after the attacks, FBI Director Robert Mueller, who had been sworn in a week before the attacks, called for a re-engineering of FBI structure and operations. He made countering every federal crime a top priority, including the prevention of terrorism, countering foreign intelligence operations, addressing cyber security threats, other high-tech crimes, protecting civil rights, combating public corruption, organized crime, white-collar crime, and major acts of violent crime.
When did the Washington Post publish excerpts from the book Spying Blind?
570c2999ec8fbc190045bcde
July 8, 2007
3
False
How many chances to disrupt the 9/11 attacks did the FBI dismiss?
570c2999ec8fbc190045bcdf
23
241
False
What two agencies had a lack of co-operation?
570c2999ec8fbc190045bce0
FBI, CIA
494
False
What was to blame for the FBI's failure?
570c2999ec8fbc190045bce1
FBI's decentralized structure
581
False
What did the FBI's decentralized structure prevent?
570c2999ec8fbc190045bce2
effective communication
628
False
Spying Blind: The CIA, the FBI, and the Origins of 9/11
93
What book did the New York Times publish excerpts from?
5ad38f7f604f3c001a3fe61f
True
23
241
How many times did the CIA and FBI disrupt the terrorist attacks of September 11th?
5ad38f7f604f3c001a3fe620
True
FBI, CIA
494
What two agencies cooperated well together?
5ad38f7f604f3c001a3fe621
True
FBI's decentralized structure
581
What facilitated communication among different FBI offices?
5ad38f7f604f3c001a3fe622
True
support staff
983
What did the FBI treat special agents as?
5ad38f7f604f3c001a3fe623
True
On July 8, 2007 The Washington Post published excerpts from UCLA Professor Amy Zegart's book Spying Blind: The CIA, the FBI, and the Origins of 9/11. The Post reported from Zegart's book that government documents show the CIA and FBI missed 23 potential chances to disrupt the terrorist attacks of September 11, 2001. The primary reasons for the failures included: agency cultures resistant to change and new ideas; inappropriate incentives for promotion; and a lack of cooperation between the FBI, CIA and the rest of the United States Intelligence Community. The book blamed the FBI's decentralized structure, which prevented effective communication and cooperation among different FBI offices. The book suggested that the FBI has not evolved into an effective counter-terrorism or counter-intelligence agency, due in large part to deeply ingrained agency cultural resistance to change. For example, FBI personnel practices continue to treat all staff other than special agents as support staff, classifying intelligence analysts alongside the FBI's auto mechanics and janitors.
What increased the powers of the FBI?
570c29ffec8fbc190045bce8
USA PATRIOT Act
4
False
What was one of the most controversial parts of the Patriot Act?
570c29ffec8fbc190045bce9
sneak and peek provision
194
False
What new residential powers did the FBI now have?
570c29ffec8fbc190045bcea
search a house while the residents are away
247
False
Could the FBI inquire into library records?
570c29ffec8fbc190045bceb
FBI also resumed inquiring into the library records
409
False
Who's library records did the FBI look into?
570c29ffec8fbc190045bcec
those who are suspected of terrorism
464
False
USA PATRIOT Act
4
What decreased the powers of the FBI?
5ad3958b604f3c001a3fe74d
True
wiretapping and monitoring of Internet activity
76
What did the USA PATRIOT Act allow the CIA to do more?
5ad3958b604f3c001a3fe74e
True
sneak and peek
194
What is one of the least controversial provisions of the USA PATRIOT Act?
5ad3958b604f3c001a3fe74f
True
FBI
233
What agency is required to notify residents of a search on their home right away?
5ad3958b604f3c001a3fe750
True
library
445
What records does the PATRIOT Act ban the FBI from looking at?
5ad3958b604f3c001a3fe751
True
The USA PATRIOT Act increased the powers allotted to the FBI, especially in wiretapping and monitoring of Internet activity. One of the most controversial provisions of the act is the so-called sneak and peek provision, granting the FBI powers to search a house while the residents are away, and not requiring them to notify the residents for several weeks afterwards. Under the PATRIOT Act's provisions, the FBI also resumed inquiring into the library records of those who are suspected of terrorism (something it had supposedly not done since the 1970s).
When did the FBI lab first appear?
570c2a5eec8fbc190045bcf2
1974
134
False
Where was the FBI lab?
570c2a5eec8fbc190045bcf3
J. Edgar Hoover Building
85
False
Who uses the FBI lab services?
570c2a5eec8fbc190045bcf4
state, local, and international agencies
901
False
How much does the FBI charges for lab services?
570c2a5eec8fbc190045bcf5
free
942
False
Where is the second FBI lab?
570c2a5eec8fbc190045bcf6
FBI Academy
1001
False
1974
134
When did the FBI Laboratory close?
5ad39902604f3c001a3fe811
True
J. Edgar Hoover Building
85
Where was the CIA lab located?
5ad39902604f3c001a3fe812
True
FBI laboratory workspace
268
Where do public tours of FBI headquarters run through after the move to the J. Edgar Hoover Building?
5ad39902604f3c001a3fe813
True
Chemistry
380
What is not a service the lab conducts?
5ad39902604f3c001a3fe814
True
state, local, and international
901
What kind of agencies must pay to use the services of the FBI Lab?
5ad39902604f3c001a3fe815
True
The FBI Laboratory, established with the formation of the BOI, did not appear in the J. Edgar Hoover Building until its completion in 1974. The lab serves as the primary lab for most DNA, biological, and physical work. Public tours of FBI headquarters ran through the FBI laboratory workspace before the move to the J. Edgar Hoover Building. The services the lab conducts include Chemistry, Combined DNA Index System (CODIS), Computer Analysis and Response, DNA Analysis, Evidence Response, Explosives, Firearms and Tool marks, Forensic Audio, Forensic Video, Image Analysis, Forensic Science Research, Forensic Science Training, Hazardous Materials Response, Investigative and Prospective Graphics, Latent Prints, Materials Analysis, Questioned Documents, Racketeering Records, Special Photographic Analysis, Structural Design, and Trace Evidence. The services of the FBI Laboratory are used by many state, local, and international agencies free of charge. The lab also maintains a second lab at the FBI Academy.
When did the FBI begin the Trilogy project?
570c2ab3ec8fbc190045bcfc
2000
3
False
What project centered on upgrading FBI Information Technology Infrastructure?
570c2ab3ec8fbc190045bcfd
Trilogy project
27
False
Did the Trilogy project go over budget?
570c2ab3ec8fbc190045bcfe
far over budget
211
False
When did the FBI abandon the VCF project?
570c2ab3ec8fbc190045bcff
January 2005
596
False
In 2000, the FBI began the Trilogy project to upgrade its outdated information technology (IT) infrastructure. This project, originally scheduled to take three years and cost around $380 million, ended up going far over budget and behind schedule. Efforts to deploy modern computers and networking equipment were generally successful, but attempts to develop new investigation software, outsourced to Science Applications International Corporation (SAIC), were not. Virtual Case File, or VCF, as the software was known, was plagued by poorly defined goals, and repeated changes in management. In January 2005, more than two years after the software was originally planned for completion, the FBI officially abandoned the project. At least $100 million (and much more by some estimates) was spent on the project, which never became operational. The FBI has been forced to continue using its decade-old Automated Case Support system, which IT experts consider woefully inadequate. In March 2005, the FBI announced it was beginning a new, more ambitious software project, code-named Sentinel, which they expected to complete by 2009.
What gun are FBI special agents issued?
570c2b156b8089140040fbae
Glock Model 22 pistol or a Glock 23 in .40 S&W caliber
33
False
What are FBI special agents issued if they fail their first qualification?
570c2b156b8089140040fbaf
Glock 17 or Glock 19
154
False
What did the FBI adopt in May 1997
570c2b156b8089140040fbb0
Glock .40 S&W pistol
256
False
What did the FBI adopt the Glock .40 S&W pistol for?
570c2b156b8089140040fbb1
general agent use
281
False
What class was the first to receive the Glock .40 S&W pistol?
570c2b156b8089140040fbb2
New Agent Class 98-1
322
False
Glock Model 22 pistol or a Glock 23 in .40 S&W caliber
33
What gun are CIA agents issued?
5ad3a576604f3c001a3fea9f
True
Glock 17 or Glock 19
154
What gun are FBI agents issued if they fail their second qualification?
5ad3a576604f3c001a3feaa0
True
Glock .40 S&W pistol
256
What gun did the FBI use before 1997?
5ad3a576604f3c001a3feaa1
True
Glock Model 21 in .45 ACP
743
What gun are special agents not authorized to carry?
5ad3a576604f3c001a3feaa2
True
Springfield Professional Model 1911A1 .45 ACP pistol
862
What gun are regional SWAT teams barred from using?
5ad3a576604f3c001a3feaa3
True
An FBI special agent is issued a Glock Model 22 pistol or a Glock 23 in .40 S&W caliber. If they fail their first qualification, they are issued either a Glock 17 or Glock 19, to aid in their next qualification. In May 1997, the FBI officially adopted the Glock .40 S&W pistol for general agent use and first issued it to New Agent Class 98-1 in October 1997. At present, the Model 23 "FG&R" (finger groove and rail) is the issue sidearm. New agents are issued firearms, on which they must qualify, on successful completion of their training at the FBI Academy. The Glock 26 in 9×19mm Parabellum, and Glock Models 23 and 27 in .40 S&W caliber are authorized as secondary weapons. Special agents are authorized to purchase and qualify with the Glock Model 21 in .45 ACP. Special agents of the FBI HRT (Hostage Rescue Team), and regional SWAT teams are issued the Springfield Professional Model 1911A1 .45 ACP pistol (see FBI Special Weapons and Tactics Teams).
What group of people may apply to join the FBI after age 37?
570c2b766b8089140040fbb8
preference-eligible veterans
302
False
What is the minimum age to join the FBI?
570c2b766b8089140040fbb9
23
171
False
Is American citizenship required to be an FBI agent?
570c2b766b8089140040fbba
must also hold American citizenship
470
False
What is a SSBI?
570c2b766b8089140040fbbb
Single Scope Background Investigations
950
False
Who conducts SSBIs?
570c2b766b8089140040fbbc
Office of Personnel Management
1024
False
FBI
4
What organization is considered easy to infiltrate?
5ad3a190604f3c001a3fe9eb
True
FBI agent
128
What can someone under the age of 23 apply to become?
5ad3a190604f3c001a3fe9ec
True
preference-eligible veterans
302
Who may not apply to the FBI after age 37?
5ad3a190604f3c001a3fe9ed
True
high moral character
513
What is not a requirement to be a FBI agent?
5ad3a190604f3c001a3fe9ee
True
pass a series of Single Scope Background Investigations
933
How do CIA personnel receive a security clearance?
5ad3a190604f3c001a3fe9ef
True
The FBI is near-impenetrable, with applicants intensely scrutinized and assessed over an extended period. To apply to become an FBI agent, one must be between the ages of 23 and 37. Due to the decision in Robert P. Isabella v. Department of State and Office of Personnel Management, 2008 M.S.P.B. 146, preference-eligible veterans may apply after age 37. In 2009, the Office of Personnel Management issued implementation guidance on the Isabella decision. The applicant must also hold American citizenship, be of high moral character, have a clean record, and hold at least a four-year bachelor's degree. At least three years of professional work experience prior to application is also required. All FBI employees require a Top Secret (TS) security clearance, and in many instances, employees need a TS/SCI (Top Secret/Sensitive Compartmented Information) clearance. To obtain a security clearance, all potential FBI personnel must pass a series of Single Scope Background Investigations (SSBI), which are conducted by the Office of Personnel Management. Special Agents candidates also have to pass a Physical Fitness Test (PFT), which includes a 300-meter run, one-minute sit-ups, maximum push-ups, and a 1.5-mile (2.4 km) run. Personnel must pass a polygraph test with questions including possible drug use. Applicants who fail polygraphs may not gain employment with the FBI.
Did the FBI keep files on Elvis Presley?
570c2becec8fbc190045bd18
including celebrities such as Elvis Presley
49
False
What activities was the FBI concerned with during the Vietnam war?
570c2becec8fbc190045bd19
antiwar activities
448
False
What kinds of treats were celebrities receiving?
570c2becec8fbc190045bd1a
threats or extortion attempts
567
False
What party was the FBI concerned with?
570c2becec8fbc190045bd1b
Communist party
374
False
Elvis Presley
79
Who has the FBI never maintained a file on?
5ad3ac00604f3c001a3feba1
True
Charlie Chaplin
391
Who was investigated due to ties with the Libertarian party?
5ad3ac00604f3c001a3feba2
True
John Denver
491
Who was investigated for pro war activity?
5ad3ac00604f3c001a3feba3
True
Sonny Bono
611
Who is a celebrity that did not have threats against them?
5ad3ac00604f3c001a3feba4
True
Frank Sinatra
94
Who is a celebrity that the CIA has a file on?
5ad3ac00604f3c001a3feba5
True
The FBI has maintained files on numerous people, including celebrities such as Elvis Presley, Frank Sinatra, John Denver, John Lennon, Jane Fonda, Groucho Marx, Charlie Chaplin, the band MC5, Lou Costello, Sonny Bono, Bob Dylan, Michael Jackson, and Mickey Mantle. The files were collected for various reasons. Some of the subjects were investigated for alleged ties to the Communist party (Charlie Chaplin and Groucho Marx), or in connection with antiwar activities during the Vietnam War (John Denver, John Lennon, and Jane Fonda). Numerous celebrity files concern threats or extortion attempts against them (Sonny Bono, John Denver, John Lennon, Elvis Presley, Michael Jackson, Mickey Mantle, Groucho Marx, and Frank Sinatra).
Who tipped of Bulger?
570c2c52ec8fbc190045bd20
his former FBI handler
44
False
What act was the indictment under?
570c2c52ec8fbc190045bd21
Racketeer Influenced and Corrupt Organizations Act
104
False
How long did Bulger remain at large?
570c2c52ec8fbc190045bd22
16
201
False
Was Bulger on the 10 Most Wanted Fugitives List?
570c2c52ec8fbc190045bd23
prominently listed
267
False
What did the revelations about Bulger cause?
570c2c52ec8fbc190045bd24
great embarrassment
488
False
Bulger
156
Who fled from Chicago?
5ad3b4e5604f3c001a3fed8f
True
December 1994
3
When was Bulger tipped off by his CIA handler?
5ad3b4e5604f3c001a3fed90
True
1997
342
When did New England media cover up criminal actions by federal, state, and local law enforcement officials tied to Bulger?
5ad3b4e5604f3c001a3fed91
True
2002
523
When was John J Connolly cleared of federal racketeering charges?
5ad3b4e5604f3c001a3fed92
True
Connolly
661
Whose murder did John B Callahan help to plan?
5ad3b4e5604f3c001a3fed93
True
In December 1994, after being tipped off by his former FBI handler about a pending indictment under the Racketeer Influenced and Corrupt Organizations Act, Bulger fled Boston and went into hiding. For 16 years, he remained at large. For 12 of those years, Bulger was prominently listed on the FBI Ten Most Wanted Fugitives list. Beginning in 1997, the New England media exposed criminal actions by federal, state, and local law enforcement officials tied to Bulger. The revelation caused great embarrassment to the FBI. In 2002, Special Agent John J Connolly was convicted of federal racketeering charges for helping Bulger avoid arrest. In 2008, Special Agent Connolly completed his term on the federal charges and was transferred to Florida where he was convicted of helping plan the murder of John B Callahan, a Bulger rival. In 2014, that conviction was overturned on a technicality. Connolly was the agent leading the investigation of Bulger.
What was Virgil Griffith focused on?
570c2cd7ec8fbc190045bd2a
computation and neural-systems
42
False
What part of the government was editing its own wikipedia page?
570c2cd7ec8fbc190045bd2b
United States Congress
435
False
What was Griffith's tool designed to detect?
570c2cd7ec8fbc190045bd2c
conflict of interest edits
556
False
What did Griffith's tool help increase?
570c2cd7ec8fbc190045bd2d
transparency
1083
False
How as Griffith's wikipedia scanner viewed by wikipedia?
570c2cd7ec8fbc190045bd2e
positively
971
False
Wikipedia
913
What organization viewed WikiScanner negatively?
5ad3b72d604f3c001a3fee19
True
edits from the United States Congress
420
What did not motivate Griffith?
5ad3b72d604f3c001a3fee1a
True
detect conflict of interest edits
549
What was the tool not designed to do?
5ad3b72d604f3c001a3fee1b
True
edit the FBI article in Wikipedia
640
What were CIA computers used to do?
5ad3b72d604f3c001a3fee1c
True
positively
971
How did the FBI view WikiScanner?
5ad3b72d604f3c001a3fee1d
True
In August 2007 Virgil Griffith, a Caltech computation and neural-systems graduate student, created a searchable database that linked changes made by anonymous Wikipedia editors to companies and organizations from which the changes were made. The database cross-referenced logs of Wikipedia edits with publicly available records pertaining to the internet IP addresses edits were made from. Griffith was motivated by the edits from the United States Congress, and wanted to see if others were similarly promoting themselves. The tool was designed to detect conflict of interest edits. Among his findings were that FBI computers were used to edit the FBI article in Wikipedia. Although the edits correlated with known FBI IP addresses, there was no proof that the changes actually came from a member or employee of the FBI, only that someone who had access to their network had edited the FBI article in Wikipedia. Wikipedia spokespersons received Griffith's "WikiScanner" positively, noting that it helped prevent conflicts of interest from influencing articles as well as increasing transparency and mitigating attempts to remove or distort relevant facts.
When did the FBI announce Robert Hanssen's arrest?
570c2d336b8089140040fbca
20 February 2001
3
False
What was Hanssen arrested for?
570c2d336b8089140040fbcb
spying for the Soviet Union
113
False
When was Hanssen a spy for Russia/the SU?
570c2d336b8089140040fbcc
1979 to 2001
162
False
How many life time sentences is Hanssen serving?
570c2d336b8089140040fbcd
15
190
False
What much money did Hanssen receive in cash?
570c2d336b8089140040fbce
$1.4 million
508
False
Robert Hanssen
64
Who had spied for the Soviet Union before 1979?
5ad3b59e604f3c001a3fedc5
True
1944
85
What year did Robert Hanssen die?
5ad3b59e604f3c001a3fedc6
True
Foxstone Park
367
Where did Hanssen escape custody?
5ad3b59e604f3c001a3fedc7
True
US$1.4 million
506
How much did the FBI pay Hanssen to spy on Russia?
5ad3b59e604f3c001a3fedc8
True
Robert Hanssen
64
Who sold Russian secrets to the FBI?
5ad3b59e604f3c001a3fedc9
True
On 20 February 2001, the bureau announced that a special agent, Robert Hanssen (born 1944) had been arrested for spying for the Soviet Union and then Russia from 1979 to 2001. He is serving 15 consecutive life sentences without the possibility of parole at ADX Florence, a federal supermax prison near Florence, Colorado. Hanssen was arrested on February 18, 2001 at Foxstone Park near his home in Vienna, Virginia, and was charged with selling US secrets to the USSR and subsequently Russia for more than US$1.4 million in cash and diamonds over a 22-year period. On July 6, 2001, he pleaded guilty to 15 counts of espionage in the United States District Court for the Eastern District of Virginia. His spying activities have been described by the US Department of Justice's Commission for the Review of FBI Security Programs as "possibly the worst intelligence disaster in U.S. history".
What agency is the domestic intelligence and security service for the US?
570c2d8e6b8089140040fbd4
FBI
37
False
What organization is the FBI a subset of?
570c2d8e6b8089140040fbd5
U.S. Department of Justice
242
False
What Director does the FBI report to?
570c2d8e6b8089140040fbd6
Director of National Intelligence
383
False
How many categories of federal crimes does the FBI have jurisdiction over?
570c2d8e6b8089140040fbd7
200
563
False
FBI
37
What is the domestic intelligence and security service for the United Kingdom?
5ad36134604f3c001a3fdf55
True
U.S. Department of Justice
242
What is under the jurisdiction of the FBI?
5ad36134604f3c001a3fdf56
True
Attorney General
358
Who does the U.S. Intelligence Community report to?
5ad36134604f3c001a3fdf57
True
FBI
513
Who has jurisdiction over more than 200 categories of state level crime?
5ad36134604f3c001a3fdf58
True
200
563
How many categories of federal crimes does the U.S. Intelligence Community have jurisdiction over?
5ad36134604f3c001a3fdf59
True
The Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI) is the domestic intelligence and security service of the United States, which simultaneously serves as the nation's prime federal law enforcement organization. Operating under the jurisdiction of the U.S. Department of Justice, FBI is concurrently a member of the U.S. Intelligence Community and reports to both the Attorney General and the Director of National Intelligence. A leading U.S. counterterrorism, counterintelligence, and criminal investigative organization, FBI has jurisdiction over violations of more than 200 categories of federal crimes.
Who was Director from 1924 to 1972?
570c2dd8ec8fbc190045bd34
J. Edgar Hoover
0
False
How many years was Hoover the FBI director?
570c2dd8ec8fbc190045bd35
48
65
False
What laboratory was Hoover responsible for creating?
570c2dd8ec8fbc190045bd36
Scientific Crime Detection Laboratory
146
False
What was the other name for the Scientific Crime Detection Laboratory?
570c2dd8ec8fbc190045bd37
FBI Laboratory
192
False
When did the FBI laboratory open?
570c2dd8ec8fbc190045bd38
1932
235
False
J. Edgar Hoover
0
Who served as FBI director before 1924?
5ad365c7604f3c001a3fe047
True
1932
235
What year did the FBI laboratory officially close?
5ad365c7604f3c001a3fe048
True
Scientific Crime Detection Laboratory
146
What laboratory was Hoover responsible for destroying?
5ad365c7604f3c001a3fe049
True
ten years
522
What was the tenure limit for FBI directors before Hoover's death?
5ad365c7604f3c001a3fe04a
True
Congress
443
What passed legislation to set the tenure limit of CIA directors to ten years?
5ad365c7604f3c001a3fe04b
True
J. Edgar Hoover served as Director from 1924 to 1972, a combined 48 years with the BOI, DOI, and FBI. He was chiefly responsible for creating the Scientific Crime Detection Laboratory, or the FBI Laboratory, which officially opened in 1932, as part of his work to professionalize investigations by the government. Hoover was substantially involved in most major cases and projects that the FBI handled during his tenure. After Hoover's death, Congress passed legislation that limited the tenure of future FBI Directors to ten years.
What kind of work was the FBI focused on?
570c2e35ec8fbc190045bd3e
domestic
12
False
How many LEGAT offices does the FBI operate?
570c2e35ec8fbc190045bd3f
60
100
False
Why does the FBI operate LEGAT offices?
570c2e35ec8fbc190045bd40
coordination with foreign security services
261
False
Do LEGAT offices conduct unilateral operations in host countries?
570c2e35ec8fbc190045bd41
not usually
312
False
What do oversea operations require?
570c2e35ec8fbc190045bd42
coordination
529
False
60
100
How many LEGAT offices does the CIA operate?
5ad3633f604f3c001a3fdfcb
True
15
137
How many sub-offices in U.S. embassies does the CIA have?
5ad3633f604f3c001a3fdfcc
True
coordination with foreign security services
261
Why does the CIA operate LEGAT offices?
5ad3633f604f3c001a3fdfcd
True
CIA
457
What intelligence agency conducts unilateral operations in host countries?
5ad3633f604f3c001a3fdfce
True
coordination
529
What is not important in overseas operations?
5ad3633f604f3c001a3fdfcf
True
Despite its domestic focus, the FBI also maintains a significant international footprint, operating 60 Legal Attache (LEGAT) offices and 15 sub-offices in U.S. embassies and consulates across the globe. These overseas offices exist primarily for the purpose of coordination with foreign security services and do not usually conduct unilateral operations in the host countries. The FBI can and does at times carry out secret activities overseas, just as the CIA has a limited domestic function; these activities generally require coordination across government agencies.
When did the Bureau begin compiling a custodial detention list?
570c2e976b8089140040fbdc
1939
3
False
When would the people on the custodial detention list be arrested?
570c2e976b8089140040fbdd
in the event of war with Axis
119
False
Who were the majority of names on the custodial detention list?
570c2e976b8089140040fbde
Issei community leaders
208
False
When was Pearl Harbor bombed?
570c2e976b8089140040fbdf
December 7, 1941
571
False
What group did the FBI continue surveillance on?
570c2e976b8089140040fbe0
Japanese Americans
1380
False
1939
3
When did the Bureau stop compiling a custodial detention list?
5ad36eee604f3c001a3fe219
True
December 7, 1941
571
When did Hoover stop Robert Shivers from detaining those on the list?
5ad36eee604f3c001a3fe21a
True
5,500
795
How many Issei men were released from FBI custody?
5ad36eee604f3c001a3fe21b
True
Executive Order 9066
898
What executive order blocked removing Japanese Americans from the West Coast?
5ad36eee604f3c001a3fe21c
True
Hoover
1000
Which FBI director supported Executive Order 9066?
5ad36eee604f3c001a3fe21d
True
In 1939, the Bureau began compiling a custodial detention list with the names of those who would be taken into custody in the event of war with Axis nations. The majority of the names on the list belonged to Issei community leaders, as the FBI investigation built on an existing Naval Intelligence index that had focused on Japanese Americans in Hawaii and the West Coast, but many German and Italian nationals also found their way onto the secret list. Robert Shivers, head of the Honolulu office, obtained permission from Hoover to start detaining those on the list on December 7, 1941, while bombs were still falling over Pearl Harbor. Mass arrests and searches of homes (in most cases conducted without warrants) began a few hours after the attack, and over the next several weeks more than 5,500 Issei men were taken into FBI custody. On February 19, 1942, President Franklin Roosevelt issued Executive Order 9066, authorizing the removal of Japanese Americans from the West Coast. FBI Director Hoover opposed the subsequent mass removal and confinement of Japanese Americans authorized under Executive Order 9066, but Roosevelt prevailed. The vast majority went along with the subsequent exclusion orders, but in a handful of cases where Japanese Americans refused to obey the new military regulations, FBI agents handled their arrests. The Bureau continued surveillance on Japanese Americans throughout the war, conducting background checks on applicants for resettlement outside camp, and entering the camps (usually without the permission of War Relocation Authority officials) and grooming informants in order to monitor dissidents and "troublemakers." After the war, the FBI was assigned to protect returning Japanese Americans from attacks by hostile white communities.
What was the Top Hoodlum Program a response to?
570c2effec8fbc190045bd52
organized crime
15
False
What did the Top Hoodlum Program gather information on?
570c2effec8fbc190045bd53
mobsters
161
False
After the RICO Act took effect what did the FBI start investigating?
570c2effec8fbc190045bd54
former Prohibition-organized groups
412
False
What groups did Hoover deny the existence of?
570c2effec8fbc190045bd55
National Crime Syndicate
744
False
Is the RICO Act still used today?
570c2effec8fbc190045bd56
The RICO Act is still used
939
False
created the Top Hoodlum Program
60
How did the FBI respond to organized crime before 1953?
5ad37ff4604f3c001a3fe45b
True
began investigating
388
What did the FBI do before the RICO Act took effect?
5ad37ff4604f3c001a3fe45c
True
National Crime Syndicate
744
What did Hoover confirm the existence of?
5ad37ff4604f3c001a3fe45d
True
Sam Giancana
910
Who was the head of a crime family the CIA targeted?
5ad37ff4604f3c001a3fe45e
True
RICO Act
943
What act is not longer in use?
5ad37ff4604f3c001a3fe45f
True
In response to organized crime, on August 25, 1953, the FBI created the Top Hoodlum Program. The national office directed field offices to gather information on mobsters in their territories and to report it regularly to Washington for a centralized collection of intelligence on racketeers. After the Racketeer Influenced and Corrupt Organizations Act, or RICO Act, took effect, the FBI began investigating the former Prohibition-organized groups, which had become fronts for crime in major cities and small towns. All of the FBI work was done undercover and from within these organizations, using the provisions provided in the RICO Act. Gradually the agency dismantled many of the groups. Although Hoover initially denied the existence of a National Crime Syndicate in the United States, the Bureau later conducted operations against known organized crime syndicates and families, including those headed by Sam Giancana and John Gotti. The RICO Act is still used today for all organized crime and any individuals who might fall under the Act.
What spurred the FBIs technological upgrade?
570c2f6bec8fbc190045bd5c
CALEA
77
False
What team underwent a technological upgrade in 1991?
570c2f6bec8fbc190045bd5d
CART
299
False
What were CITAC and NIPC created to deal with?
570c2f6bec8fbc190045bd5e
Internet-related problems
493
False
What were computer viruses seen as a threat to?
570c2f6bec8fbc190045bd5f
US operations
598
False
Did the FBI increase electronic surveillance?
570c2f6bec8fbc190045bd60
FBI increased its electronic surveillance
642
False
1998
269
When did the FBI undergo a technological downgrade?
5ad38461604f3c001a3fe521
True
CART
299
What team underwent a technological downgrade in 1991?
5ad38461604f3c001a3fe522
True
Internet-related problems
493
What was CITAC and NIPC unable to deal with?
5ad38461604f3c001a3fe523
True
1996
155
When did Congress get rid of HIPAA?
5ad38461604f3c001a3fe524
True
1998
269
When did the CIA receive a technological upgrade?
5ad38461604f3c001a3fe525
True
After Congress passed the Communications Assistance for Law Enforcement Act (CALEA, 1994), the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA, 1996), and the Economic Espionage Act (EEA, 1996), the FBI followed suit and underwent a technological upgrade in 1998, just as it did with its CART team in 1991. Computer Investigations and Infrastructure Threat Assessment Center (CITAC) and the National Infrastructure Protection Center (NIPC) were created to deal with the increase in Internet-related problems, such as computer viruses, worms, and other malicious programs that threatened US operations. With these developments, the FBI increased its electronic surveillance in public safety and national security investigations, adapting to the telecommunications advancements that changed the nature of such problems.
What precision did the FBI believe they could reach with chemical signatures?
570c301c6b8089140040fbe6
single box of bullets
253
False
How long was the National Academy of Sciences independent review?
570c301c6b8089140040fbe8
18-month
322
False
What did the National Academy of Sciences independent review discover about the FBIs analytical model?
570c301c6b8089140040fbe9
deeply flawed
584
False
Why did the FBI stop doing bullet lead analysis?
570c301c6b8089140040fbea
National Research Council
400
False
had unique chemical signatures
74
What did the CIA crime lab believe about lead in bullets?
5ad393bb604f3c001a3fe6e3
True
The National Academy of Sciences
276
Who conducted a 15-month independent review of comparative bullet-lead analysis?
5ad393bb604f3c001a3fe6e4
True
National Research Council
400
Who published a report confirming that the FBI model was correct?
5ad393bb604f3c001a3fe6e5
True
2003
390
When did the National Research Council confirm that the FBI's bullet analysis was correct?
5ad393bb604f3c001a3fe6e6
True
One year later
752
What did the CIA stop using bullet lead analysis?
5ad393bb604f3c001a3fe6e7
True
For over 40 years, the FBI crime lab in Quantico believed lead in bullets had unique chemical signatures. It analyzed the bullets with the goal of matching them chemically, not only to a single batch of ammunition coming out of a factory, but also to a single box of bullets. The National Academy of Sciences conducted an 18-month independent review of comparative bullet-lead analysis. In 2003, its National Research Council published a report whose conclusions called into question 30 years of FBI testimony. It found the analytic model used by the FBI for interpreting results was deeply flawed, and the conclusion, that bullet fragments could be matched to a box of ammunition, was so overstated that it was misleading under the rules of evidence. One year later, the FBI decided to stop doing bullet lead analysis.
What is the FBI's main tool against organized crime?
570c30996b8089140040fbf0
RICO
100
False
What act is the FBI required to enforce?
570c30996b8089140040fbf1
Civil Rights Act of 1964
204
False
What organization does the FBI prosecute violations of the United States Civil Rights Act with?
570c30996b8089140040fbf2
DOJ
358
False
What organization does the FBI share jurisdiction with?
570c30996b8089140040fbf3
DEA
450
False
What Substance act does the FBI enforce?
570c30996b8089140040fbf4
Controlled Substances Act of 1970
481
False
RICO
100
What is the FBI's least used tool against organized crime?
5ad394ee604f3c001a3fe727
True
enforcing compliance of the United States Civil Rights Act of 1964
162
What is the CIA also responsible for?
5ad394ee604f3c001a3fe728
True
FBI
115
What is not required to enforce compliance with the United States Civil Rights Act of 1964?
5ad394ee604f3c001a3fe729
True
enforcement of the Controlled Substances Act of 1970
462
What enforcement does the FBI not share with the DEA?
5ad394ee604f3c001a3fe72a
True
United States Department of Justice
321
Where does the FBI not investigate violations of the Civil Rights Act?
5ad394ee604f3c001a3fe72b
True
The FBI's chief tool against organized crime is the Racketeer Influenced and Corrupt Organizations (RICO) Act. The FBI is also charged with the responsibility of enforcing compliance of the United States Civil Rights Act of 1964 and investigating violations of the act in addition to prosecuting such violations with the United States Department of Justice (DOJ). The FBI also shares concurrent jurisdiction with the Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA) in the enforcement of the Controlled Substances Act of 1970.
When does the FBI work with the US Coast Guard and US Customs and Board Protection?
570c31266b8089140040fbfa
seaport and airport security
150
False
When does the FBI work with the National Transportation Safety Board?
570c31266b8089140040fbfb
investigating airplane crashes
228
False
What organization in the US government investigates the largest array of crimes?
570c31266b8089140040fbfc
ICE-HSI
359
False
What organization did General Ashcroft assign to lead organization in terrorism investigations?
570c31266b8089140040fbfd
FBI
565
False
What are the FBI and ICE-HSI both members of?
570c31266b8089140040fbfe
Joint Terrorism Task Force
750
False
FBI
4
What agency usually works alone, without the help of other agencies?
5ad39638604f3c001a3fe77b
True
U.S. Coast Guard
78
What is an agency the CIA works in conjunction with?
5ad39638604f3c001a3fe77c
True
National Transportation Safety Board
188
What agency is responsible for investigating automobile crashes?
5ad39638604f3c001a3fe77d
True
ICE-HSI
359
What agency investigates the smallest range of crimes?
5ad39638604f3c001a3fe77e
True
assigned the FBI as the designated lead organization in terrorism investigations
552
What did General Ashcroft do before the September 11th attacks?
5ad39638604f3c001a3fe77f
True
The FBI often works in conjunction with other Federal agencies, including the U.S. Coast Guard (USCG) and U.S. Customs and Border Protection (CBP) in seaport and airport security, and the National Transportation Safety Board in investigating airplane crashes and other critical incidents. Immigration and Customs Enforcement Homeland Security Investigations (ICE-HSI) has nearly the same amount of investigative man power as the FBI, and investigates the largest range of crimes. In the wake of the September 11 attacks, then-Attorney General Ashcroft assigned the FBI as the designated lead organization in terrorism investigations after the creation of the U.S. Department of Homeland Security. ICE-HSI and the FBI are both integral members of the Joint Terrorism Task Force.
Where are agents sent to become FBI Special Agents?
570c3185ec8fbc190045bd70
The FBI Academy
0
False
Where is the FBI Academy?
570c3185ec8fbc190045bd71
Quantico, Virginia
28
False
How long is the course required for all special agents?
570c3185ec8fbc190045bd72
21-week
218
False
What other groups does the FBI Academy train?
570c3185ec8fbc190045bd73
state and local law enforcement agencies
376
False
Quantico, Virginia
28
Where is the CIA academy located?
5ad39a3d604f3c001a3fe85f
True
21-week course
218
What is not required to become a Special Agent?
5ad39a3d604f3c001a3fe860
True
1972
294
When did the FBI Academy close?
5ad39a3d604f3c001a3fe861
True
Forensic Science Research and Training Center
578
What is a CIA unit that resides at Quantico?
5ad39a3d604f3c001a3fe862
True
state and local law enforcement agencies
376
Who does the Academy not train?
5ad39a3d604f3c001a3fe863
True
The FBI Academy, located in Quantico, Virginia, is home to the communications and computer laboratory the FBI utilizes. It is also where new agents are sent for training to become FBI Special Agents. Going through the 21-week course is required for every Special Agent. First opened for use in 1972, the facility located on 385 acres (1.6 km2) of woodland. The Academy trains state and local law enforcement agencies, which are invited to the law enforcement training center. The FBI units that reside at Quantico are the Field and Police Training Unit, Firearms Training Unit, Forensic Science Research and Training Center, Technology Services Unit (TSU), Investigative Training Unit, Law Enforcement Communication Unit, Leadership and Management Science Units (LSMU), Physical Training Unit, New Agents' Training Unit (NATU), Practical Applications Unit (PAU), the Investigative Computer Training Unit and the "College of Analytical Studies."
Did the FBI investigate Martin Luther King Jr.?
570c31e36b8089140040fc0e
frequently
8
False
Who did MLK begin criticizing in the mid-1960s?
570c31e36b8089140040fc0f
the Bureau
106
False
What group did MLK believe needed more attention from the FBI?
570c31e36b8089140040fc10
white supremacists
178
False
What did Hoover call MLK?
570c31e36b8089140040fc11
notorious liar
250
False
What kind of letter did the FBI send to MLK?
570c31e36b8089140040fc12
anonymous
390
False
mid-1960s
63
When did King publicly praise the FBI?
5ad37e20604f3c001a3fe421
True
white supremacists
178
What group did the FBI believe needed more attention?
5ad37e20604f3c001a3fe422
True
notorious liar
250
What did MLK call Hoover?
5ad37e20604f3c001a3fe423
True
anonymous
390
What kind of letter did MLK send to the FBI?
5ad37e20604f3c001a3fe424
True
1964
506
What year did King send a package to the FBI?
5ad37e20604f3c001a3fe425
True
The FBI frequently investigated Martin Luther King, Jr. In the mid-1960s, King began publicly criticizing the Bureau for giving insufficient attention to the use of terrorism by white supremacists. Hoover responded by publicly calling King the most "notorious liar" in the United States. In his 1991 memoir, Washington Post journalist Carl Rowan asserted that the FBI had sent at least one anonymous letter to King encouraging him to commit suicide. Historian Taylor Branch documents an anonymous November 1964 "suicide package" sent by the Bureau that combined a letter to the civil rights leader telling him "You are done. There is only one way out for you..." with audio recordings of King's sexual indiscretions.
What is the goal of the NIBRS?
570c3236ec8fbc190045bd78
address limitations inherent in UCR data
85
False
Who uses the NIBRS?
570c3236ec8fbc190045bd79
the United States
177
False
What is the NIBRS used for?
570c3236ec8fbc190045bd7a
collecting and reporting data
199
False
What does the NIBRS collect information on?
570c3236ec8fbc190045bd7b
crimes
232
False
Does the NIBRS system or UCR system have more detailed data?
570c3236ec8fbc190045bd7c
NIBRS
687
False
National Incident Based Reporting System
4
What system do Canadian law enforcement agencies use?
5ad3ab36604f3c001a3feb6b
True
Local, state, and federal agencies
240
What agencies do not generate NIBRS data?
5ad3ab36604f3c001a3feb6c
True
46 specific crimes grouped in 22 offense categories
439
What are Group C offenses?
5ad3ab36604f3c001a3feb6d
True
NIBRS
687
What offers less detail than the UCR system?
5ad3ab36604f3c001a3feb6e
True
5,271
768
How many law enforcement agencies submit UCR data?
5ad3ab36604f3c001a3feb6f
True
The National Incident Based Reporting System (NIBRS) crime statistics system aims to address limitations inherent in UCR data. The system is used by law enforcement agencies in the United States for collecting and reporting data on crimes. Local, state, and federal agencies generate NIBRS data from their records management systems. Data is collected on every incident and arrest in the Group A offense category. The Group A offenses are 46 specific crimes grouped in 22 offense categories. Specific facts about these offenses are gathered and reported in the NIBRS system. In addition to the Group A offenses, eleven Group B offenses are reported with only the arrest information. The NIBRS system is in greater detail than the summary-based UCR system. As of 2004, 5,271 law enforcement agencies submitted NIBRS data. That amount represents 20% of the United States population and 16% of the crime statistics data collected by the FBI.
What Puerto Rican leader did the FBI spy on?
570c329dec8fbc190045bd82
Pedro Albizu Campos
86
False
What party was Pedro Albizu Campos part of?
570c329dec8fbc190045bd83
Nationalist
114
False
How many times was Pedro Albizu Campos convicted of attacks on US officials?
570c329dec8fbc190045bd84
three
183
False
Who released the Campos operation to the public?
570c329dec8fbc190045bd85
Luis Gutierrez
589
False
When was the Abizu Campos operation made public?
570c329dec8fbc190045bd86
1980s
665
False
Pedro Albizu Campos
86
What independence leader did the CIA spy on?
5ad3adea604f3c001a3fec1f
True
FBI
4
What spied on the Cuban independence leader?
5ad3adea604f3c001a3fec20
True
Luis Gutierrez
589
What U.S. congressman covered up the FBI operation?
5ad3adea604f3c001a3fec21
True
Freedom of Information Act
631
What act made the Abizu Campos operation secret?
5ad3adea604f3c001a3fec22
True
1980s
665
When did Luis Gutierrez cover up the Abizu Campos operation?
5ad3adea604f3c001a3fec23
True
The FBI also spied upon and collected information on Puerto Rican independence leader Pedro Albizu Campos and his Nationalist political party in the 1930s. Abizu Campos was convicted three times in connection with deadly attacks on US government officials: in 1937 (Conspiracy to overthrow the government of the United States), in 1950 (attempted murder), and in 1954 (after an armed assault on the US House of Representatives while in session; although not present, Abizu Campos was considered the mastermind). The FBI operation was covert and did not become known until U.S. Congressman Luis Gutierrez had it made public via the Freedom of Information Act in the 1980s.
What office contains the FBI's administrative offices?
570c32ecec8fbc190045bd8c
Office of the Director
54
False
Who manages each FBI branch?
570c32ecec8fbc190045bd8d
An executive assistant director
122
False
What is a FBI branch divided into?
570c32ecec8fbc190045bd8e
offices and divisions
208
False
Who heads an office or division?
570c32ecec8fbc190045bd8f
an assistant director
246
False
Who leaders the sub-divisions of offices or divisions?
570c32ecec8fbc190045bd90
deputy assistant directors
337
False
Office of the Director
54
What office contains the CIA's administrative offices?
5ad39448604f3c001a3fe709
True
executive assistant director
125
Who manages each CIA branch?
5ad39448604f3c001a3fe70a
True
offices and divisions
208
What is a CIA branch divided into?
5ad39448604f3c001a3fe70b
True
Office of the Director
54
What contains only a few FBI administrative offices?
5ad39448604f3c001a3fe70c
True
branch
167
What is not led by an executive assistant director?
5ad39448604f3c001a3fe70d
True
The FBI is organized into functional branches and the Office of the Director, which contains most administrative offices. An executive assistant director manages each branch. Each branch is then divided into offices and divisions, each headed by an assistant director. The various divisions are further divided into sub-branches, led by deputy assistant directors. Within these sub-branches there are various sections headed by section chiefs. Section chiefs are ranked analogous to special agents in charge.
Where is the FBI located?
570c33506b8089140040fc18
J. Edgar Hoover Building in Washington, D.C.,
32
False
Where are specialized FBI functions located?
570c33506b8089140040fc19
Quantico, Virginia
355
False
Where is the FBI's data campus?
570c33506b8089140040fc1a
Clarksburg, West Virginia
405
False
What act is the FBI required to process requests for?
570c33506b8089140040fc1b
FOIA
739
False
How many sets of fingerprints does the FBI have?
570c33506b8089140040fc1c
96 million
438
False
Washington, D.C.
60
Where is the CIA headquarters located?
5ad396d7604f3c001a3fe7a1
True
56
83
How many field offices in major cities does the CIA have?
5ad396d7604f3c001a3fe7a2
True
50
234
How many legal attaches does the CIA employ?
5ad396d7604f3c001a3fe7a3
True
96 million
438
How many sets of fingerprints from outside the United States does the FBI store?
5ad396d7604f3c001a3fe7a4
True
Winchester, Virginia
758
Where is the CIA moving its Records Management Division to?
5ad396d7604f3c001a3fe7a5
True
The FBI is headquartered at the J. Edgar Hoover Building in Washington, D.C., with 56 field offices in major cities across the United States. The FBI also maintains over 400 resident agencies across the United States, as well as over 50 legal attachés at United States embassies and consulates. Many specialized FBI functions are located at facilities in Quantico, Virginia, as well as a "data campus" in Clarksburg, West Virginia, where 96 million sets of fingerprints "from across the United States are stored, along with others collected by American authorities from prisoners in Saudi Arabia and Yemen, Iraq and Afghanistan." The FBI is in process of moving its Records Management Division, which processes Freedom of Information Act (FOIA) requests, to Winchester, Virginia.
What was the electronic eavesdropping system used by the FBI during the Clinton presidency?
570c33ab6b8089140040fc22
Carnivore
0
False
What did Carnivore monitor?
570c33ab6b8089140040fc23
email and electronic communications
143
False
What was Carnivore renamed to?
570c33ab6b8089140040fc24
DCS1000
288
False
When did the FBI abandon Carnivore?
570c33ab6b8089140040fc25
2001
510
False
What kind of software replaced Carnivore?
570c33ab6b8089140040fc26
commercially available
528
False
Carnivore
273
What was the name DCS1000 changed to?
5ad39bb0604f3c001a3fe8ad
True
Carnivore
0
What software system received prolonged positive coverage in the press?
5ad39bb0604f3c001a3fe8ae
True
Clinton
92
What administration did the CIA implement Carnivore under?
5ad39bb0604f3c001a3fe8af
True
2005
446
In what year did the FBI stop using commercially available software?
5ad39bb0604f3c001a3fe8b0
True
NarusInsight
569
What is an example of software that is not available commercially?
5ad39bb0604f3c001a3fe8b1
True
Carnivore was an electronic eavesdropping software system implemented by the FBI during the Clinton administration; it was designed to monitor email and electronic communications. After prolonged negative coverage in the press, the FBI changed the name of its system from "Carnivore" to "DCS1000." DCS is reported to stand for "Digital Collection System"; the system has the same functions as before. The Associated Press reported in mid-January 2005 that the FBI essentially abandoned the use of Carnivore in 2001, in favor of commercially available software, such as NarusInsight.
Who appoints FBI directors?
570c34086b8089140040fc2c
President of the United States
35
False
What legislative body confirms FBI directors?
570c34086b8089140040fc2d
United States Senate
97
False
How long is the term of a FBI director?
570c34086b8089140040fc2e
five years
148
False
What made Hoover stop serving as the FBI Director?
570c34086b8089140040fc2f
his death
388
False
Who is the current FBI director?
570c34086b8089140040fc30
James B. Comey
802
False
FBI Directors
0
Who appoints the President of the United States?
5ad3a216604f3c001a3fea13
True
United States Senate
97
What legislative body confirms U.S. presidents?
5ad3a216604f3c001a3fea14
True
five years
148
How long is the term of a U.S. president?
5ad3a216604f3c001a3fea15
True
J. Edgar Hoover
278
Who was the shortest serving FBI director?
5ad3a216604f3c001a3fea16
True
2013
839
When did FBI Director Comey resign?
5ad3a216604f3c001a3fea17
True
FBI Directors are appointed by the President of the United States. They must be confirmed by the United States Senate and serve a term of office of five years, with a maximum of ten years, if reappointed, unless they resign or are fired by the President before their term ends. J. Edgar Hoover, appointed by Calvin Coolidge in 1924, was by far the longest-serving director, serving until his death in 1972. In 1968, Congress passed legislation as part of the Omnibus Crime Control and Safe Streets Act Pub.L. 90–351, June 19, 1968, 82 Stat. 197 that specified a 10-year limit, a maximum of two 5-year terms, for future FBI Directors, as well as requiring Senate confirmation of appointees. As the incumbent, this legislation did not apply to Hoover, only to his successors. The current FBI Director is James B. Comey, who was appointed in 2013 by Barack Obama.
When did the FBI first appear in popular media?
570c347e6b8089140040fc36
1930s
64
False
What notable TV show was concerned with FBI investigations of the paranormal?
570c347e6b8089140040fc37
X-Files
362
False
What is the TV drama 24 designed on?
570c347e6b8089140040fc38
FBI Counterterrorism Division
564
False
Who is the movie Point Break Based on?
570c347e6b8089140040fc39
undercover FBI agent
655
False
Who is the movie Donnie Brasco based on?
570c347e6b8089140040fc3a
Joseph D. Pistone
796
False
FBI
4
What was frequently depicted in popular media before the 1930s?
5ad3b7d6604f3c001a3fee35
True
The X-Files
358
What is not a notable portrayal of the FBI on television?
5ad3b7d6604f3c001a3fee36
True
providing consultation on operations
221
What has the FBI never done with popular media?
5ad3b7d6604f3c001a3fee37
True
FBI Counterterrorism Division
564
What is patterned after the Counter Terrorist Unit?
5ad3b7d6604f3c001a3fee38
True
Point Break
610
What 1991 movie is not based on a true story?
5ad3b7d6604f3c001a3fee39
True
The FBI has been frequently depicted in popular media since the 1930s. The bureau has participated to varying degrees, which has ranged from direct involvement in the creative process of film or TV series development, to providing consultation on operations and closed cases. A few of the notable portrayals of the FBI on television are the 1993-2002 series The X-Files, which concerned investigations into paranormal phenomena by five fictional Special Agents and the fictional Counter Terrorist Unit (CTU) agency in the TV drama 24, which is patterned after the FBI Counterterrorism Division. The 1991 movie Point Break is based on the true story of an undercover FBI agent who infiltrated a gang of bank robbers. The 1997 movie Donnie Brasco is based on the true story of undercover FBI agent Joseph D. Pistone infiltrating the Mafia.
How many times did FBI agents first their weapons from 1993 to 2011?
570c3527ec8fbc190045bdaa
289
71
False
How many times were FBI shots not justified?
570c3527ec8fbc190045bdab
5 cases
144
False
How many people were wounded in the cases where FBI shooting was not justified?
570c3527ec8fbc190045bdac
none
156
False
How did Samuel Walker describe the number of unjustified shots fired?
570c3527ec8fbc190045bdad
suspiciously low
334
False
On what was the shooting of an innocent Maryland man deemed justified?
570c3527ec8fbc190045bdae
the man's actions
825
False
289
71
How often did FBI agents fire their weapons before 1993?
5ad3af1b604f3c001a3fec69
True
Samuel Walker
197
What professor said the number of shots found to be unjustified was suspiciously high?
5ad3af1b604f3c001a3fec6a
True
150
394
How many people did the FBI wound before 1993?
5ad3af1b604f3c001a3fec6b
True
2011 to the present
505
During what period did the FBI find all shooting by FBI agents to be unjustified?
5ad3af1b604f3c001a3fec6c
True
1.3 million
683
How much did the CIA pay out to an innocent man that was shot?
5ad3af1b604f3c001a3fec6d
True
During the period from 1993 to 2011, FBI agents fired their weapons on 289 occasions; FBI internal reviews found the shots justified in all but 5 cases, in none of the 5 cases were people wounded. Samuel Walker, a professor of criminal justice at the University of Nebraska Omaha said the number of shots found to be unjustified was "suspiciously low." In the same time period, the FBI wounded 150 people, 70 of whom died; the FBI found all 150 shootings to be justified. Likewise, during the period from 2011 to the present, all shootings by FBI agents have been found to be justified by internal investigation. In a 2002 case in Maryland, an innocent man was shot, and later paid $1.3 million by the FBI after agents mistook him for a bank robber; the internal investigation found that the shooting was justified, based on the man's actions.
When did Puerto Rican Nationalist Filiberto Ojeda Ríos die?
570c3599ec8fbc190045bdb4
2005
3
False
Who killed Filiberto Ojeda Ríos?
570c3599ec8fbc190045bdb5
FBI agents
97
False
How did some people describe Filiberto Ojeda Ríos's death?
570c3599ec8fbc190045bdb6
assassination
144
False
How did the FBI respond to requests to release information beyond the initial press release?
570c3599ec8fbc190045bdb7
The FBI refused
345
False
What US court dismissed the Puerto Rican case for information crucial to their own investigation of Filiberto Ojeda Ríos's killing?
570c3599ec8fbc190045bdb8
Supreme Court
690
False
Filiberto Ojeda Ríos
50
What Cuban nationalist leader died in a gun battle with FBI agents?
5ad3b698604f3c001a3fedf1
True
Aníbal Acevedo Vilá
197
What Puerto Rican governor praised the FBI assault?
5ad3b698604f3c001a3fedf2
True
Puerto Rico
176
What government was informed of the raid?
5ad3b698604f3c001a3fedf3
True
security and agent privacy issues
426
Why did the FBI agree to release information?
5ad3b698604f3c001a3fedf4
True
Archbishop Roberto Octavio González Nieves
846
Who did not attend Ojeda Rios' funeral?
5ad3b698604f3c001a3fedf5
True
In 2005, fugitive Puerto Rican Nationalist leader Filiberto Ojeda Ríos died in a gun battle with FBI agents in 2005 in what some charged was an assassination.[citation needed] Puerto Rico Governor Aníbal Acevedo Vilá criticized the FBI assault as "improper" and "highly irregular" and demanded to know why his government was not informed of it. The FBI refused to release information beyond the official press release, citing security and agent privacy issues. The Puerto Rico Justice Department filed suit in federal court against the FBI and the US Attorney General, demanding information crucial to the Commonwealth's own investigation of the incident. The case was dismissed by the U.S Supreme Court. Ojeda Rios' funeral was attended by a long list of dignitaries, including the highest authority of the Roman Catholic Church in Puerto Rico, Archbishop Roberto Octavio González Nieves, ex-Governor Rafael Hernández Colón, and numerous other personalities.
Mary_(mother_of_Jesus)
Who were Mary's parents?
570c2b046b8089140040fba4
Saint Joachim and Saint Anne
70
False
How old was Mary when she was consecrated as a virgin?
570c2b046b8089140040fba5
three years old
268
False
Who was Mary betrothed to?
570c2b046b8089140040fba6
Joseph
434
False
When she was betrothed to Joseph, approximately how old was Mary?
570c2b046b8089140040fba7
12–14 years old
451
False
Where was Mary consecrated as a virgin?
570c2b046b8089140040fba8
the Temple in Jerusalem
231
False
12–14 years old
451
How old was Anne when she gave birth to Mary?
5ad14d11645df0001a2d167e
True
three years old
268
How old was Hannah when Samuel took her to the Tabernacle?
5ad14d11645df0001a2d167f
True
Samuel
307
Who was Hannah betrothed to?
5ad14d11645df0001a2d1680
True
the Temple in Jerusalem
231
Where did Saint Joachim and Saint Anne become betrothed?
5ad14d11645df0001a2d1681
True
the Temple in Jerusalem
231
Where was Saint Anne consecrated as a virgin?
5ad14d11645df0001a2d1682
True
According to the apocryphal Gospel of James, Mary was the daughter of Saint Joachim and Saint Anne. Before Mary's conception, Anne had been barren and was far advanced in years. Mary was given to service as a consecrated virgin in the Temple in Jerusalem when she was three years old, much like Hannah took Samuel to the Tabernacle as recorded in the Old Testament. Some apocryphal accounts state that at the time of her betrothal to Joseph, Mary was 12–14 years old, and he was thirty years old, but such accounts are unreliable.
Which angel appeared to Mary?
570c3da6ec8fbc190045be08
Gabriel
91
False
What happened to Mary's body at death?
570c3da6ec8fbc190045be09
assumed directly into Heaven
419
False
What did Gabriel announce to Mary at the Annunciation?
570c3da6ec8fbc190045be0a
her divine selection to be the mother of Jesus
129
False
How was Mary related to Jesus?
570c3da6ec8fbc190045be0b
mother of Jesus
160
False
Which goespel begins its story of Mary with the Annunciation?
570c3da6ec8fbc190045be0c
Gospel of Luke
4
False
Jerusalem
316
Where did Mary meet Gabriel?
5ad13a3c645df0001a2d12c2
True
Jerusalem
316
Where did Gabriel first meet Jesus?
5ad13a3c645df0001a2d12c3
True
Gabriel
91
Who else was present at the Crucifixion of Jesus?
5ad13a3c645df0001a2d12c4
True
empty
521
What state was the tomb in when the angel Gabriel found it?
5ad13a3c645df0001a2d12c5
True
The Gospel of Luke begins its account of Mary's life with the Annunciation, when the angel Gabriel appeared to her and announced her divine selection to be the mother of Jesus. According to gospel accounts, Mary was present at the Crucifixion of Jesus and is depicted as a member of the early Christian community in Jerusalem. According to Apocryphal writings, at some time soon after her death, her incorrupt body was assumed directly into Heaven, to be reunited with her soul, and the apostles thereupon found the tomb empty; this is known in Christian teaching as the Assumption.
When was the Assumption dogmatically define by the Catholic Church?
570c3f1dec8fbc190045be1c
1950
206
False
In which papal document was the dogma of the Assumption defined?
570c3f1dec8fbc190045be1d
Munificentissimus Deus
231
False
Which pope authored Munifentissimus Deus?
570c3f1dec8fbc190045be1e
Pope Pius XII
214
False
Other than the Roman Catholic Church, which church holds the doctrine of the Assumption to be true?
570c3f1dec8fbc190045be1f
Eastern Orthodox Church
414
False
What is another name for the Assumption of Mary?
570c3f1dec8fbc190045be20
Dormition
35
False
1950
206
What year did Pope Pius XII join The Roman Catholic Church?
5ad163ee645df0001a2d196a
True
1950
206
In what year did Mary die?
5ad163ee645df0001a2d196b
True
the Eastern Orthodox Church
410
Which Eastern Church did Pope Pius XII visit in 1950?
5ad163ee645df0001a2d196c
True
Pope Pius XII
214
Who authored the Dormition?
5ad163ee645df0001a2d196d
True
The doctrines of the Assumption or Dormition of Mary relate to her death and bodily assumption to Heaven. The Roman Catholic Church has dogmaically defined the doctrine of the Assumption, which was done in 1950 by Pope Pius XII in Munificentissimus Deus. Whether the Virgin Mary died or not is not defined dogmatically, however, although a reference to the death of Mary are made in Munificentissimus Deus. In the Eastern Orthodox Church, the Assumption of the Virgin Mary is believed, and celebrated with her Dormition, where they believe she died.
How long in total was the "blood of her purifying" for Mary?
570c4097ec8fbc190045be30
40 days
84
False
Where did Mary bring a burnt offering and sin offering?
570c4097ec8fbc190045be31
the Temple in Jerusalem
144
False
Who was presented at the Temple in Jerusalem?
570c4097ec8fbc190045be32
Jesus
298
False
Who prophesized in Luke 2:25-38?
570c4097ec8fbc190045be33
Simeon and the prophetess Anna in
465
False
To which Galilean city did Joseph and Mary take Jesus?
570c4097ec8fbc190045be34
Nazareth
596
False
33
61
How many days did Mary bring her burnt offering and sin offering to the Temple in Jerusalem?
5ad14498645df0001a2d1492
True
Galilee
569
Where did Simeon and the prophetess Anna travel to?
5ad14498645df0001a2d1493
True
Jerusalem
158
Where is the location of the temple where Mary heard Simeon prophecy?
5ad14498645df0001a2d1494
True
Jerusalem
158
Where is the location of the temple where Joseph continued in the "blood of her purifying"?
5ad14498645df0001a2d1495
True
Nazareth
596
To which Galilean city did Joseph and Mary take Simeon?
5ad14498645df0001a2d1496
True
After Mary continued in the "blood of her purifying" another 33 days for a total of 40 days, she brought her burnt offering and sin offering to the Temple in Jerusalem,[Luke 2:22] so the priest could make atonement for her sins, being cleansed from her blood.[Leviticus 12:1-8] They also presented Jesus –  "As it is written in the law of the Lord, Every male that openeth the womb shall be called holy to the Lord" (Luke 2:23other verses). After the prophecies of Simeon and the prophetess Anna in Luke 2:25-38 concluded, Joseph and Mary took Jesus and "returned into Galilee, to their own city Nazareth".[Luke 2:39]
What was Zechariah's occupation?
570c4160ec8fbc190045be3a
priest
79
False
Which tribe did Elizabeth belong to?
570c4160ec8fbc190045be3b
Levi
200
False
Who was Aaron's wife?
570c4160ec8fbc190045be3c
Elisheba
671
False
Which tribe did Elisheba belong to?
570c4160ec8fbc190045be3d
Judah
700
False
Who was the third son of David and Bathsheba?
570c4160ec8fbc190045be3e
Nathan
484
False
the Tribe of Judah
407
What tribe did Luke belong to?
5ad13f29645df0001a2d1396
True
Elizabeth
56
Who was Mary's sister?
5ad13f29645df0001a2d1397
True
Abijah
124
What priestly division did Luke belong to?
5ad13f29645df0001a2d1398
True
Mary
33
Who was Zechariah's sister in law?
5ad13f29645df0001a2d1399
True
Levi
746
What tribe did Matthew belong to?
5ad13f29645df0001a2d139a
True
According to the writer of Luke, Mary was a relative of Elizabeth, wife of the priest Zechariah of the priestly division of Abijah, who was herself part of the lineage of Aaron and so of the tribe of Levi.[Luke 1:5;1:36] Some of those who consider that the relationship with Elizabeth was on the maternal side, consider that Mary, like Joseph, to whom she was betrothed, was of the House of David and so of the Tribe of Judah, and that the genealogy of Jesus presented in Luke 3 from Nathan, third son of David and Bathsheba, is in fact the genealogy of Mary,[need quotation to verify] while the genealogy from Solomon given in Matthew 1 is that of Joseph. (Aaron's wife Elisheba was of the tribe of Judah, so all their descendants are from both Levi and Judah.)[Num.1:7 & Ex.6:23]
Name the two women present with Mary at the Crucifixion of Jesus?
570c42fdb3d812140066d05d
Mary of Clopas and Mary Magdalene
154
False
In art, what is the name for the motif of Mary cradling the body of Jesus?
570c42fdb3d812140066d05e
pietà
483
False
In Matthew, who else besides Mary of Clopas and Mary Magdalene are with Mary at the Crucifixion?
570c42fdb3d812140066d05f
Salome
287
False
What does pieta mean?
570c42fdb3d812140066d060
pity
494
False
What is a representation of Mary at the Crucifixion called?
570c42fdb3d812140066d061
a Stabat Mater
349
False
pietà
483
What is the name for the motif of Jesus cradling the body of Mary?
5ad14b3b645df0001a2d15f4
True
Zebedee
262
Who is "the disciple whom Jesus loved"?
5ad14b3b645df0001a2d15f5
True
Stabat Mater
351
What is a representation of Jesus at the Crucifixion called?
5ad14b3b645df0001a2d15f6
True
Mary Magdalene
173
Who was the sister of Mary of Clopas?
5ad14b3b645df0001a2d15f7
True
Mary is also depicted as being present among the women at the crucifixion during the crucifixion standing near "the disciple whom Jesus loved" along with Mary of Clopas and Mary Magdalene,[Jn 19:25-26] to which list Matthew 27:56 adds "the mother of the sons of Zebedee", presumably the Salome mentioned in Mark 15:40. This representation is called a Stabat Mater. While not recorded in the Gospel accounts, Mary cradling the dead body of her son is a common motif in art, called a "pietà" or "pity".
Which Egyptian goddess do some scholars ascribe similarities to?
570c46c0b3d812140066d067
Isis
171
False
What type of goddess is Isis?
570c46c0b3d812140066d068
Egyptian
154
False
What kind of relationship do some scholars believe exists between Isis and Mary?
570c46c0b3d812140066d069
iconographic
334
False
Isis
171
What is the name of the goddess that the Virgin Mary met in Egypt?
5ad150ee645df0001a2d172c
True
the Virgin Mary
189
Who is considered to be a sister of the Egyptian goddess Isis?
5ad150ee645df0001a2d172d
True
iconographic
334
What is the relationship between Jesus and the Egyptian goddess Isis?
5ad150ee645df0001a2d172e
True
the cult of Mary
507
What is the name of the cult that some scholars subscribe to?
5ad150ee645df0001a2d172f
True
The adoption of the mother of Jesus as a virtual goddess may represent a reintroduction of aspects of the worship of Isis. "When looking at images of the Egyptian goddess Isis and those of the Virgin Mary, one may initially observe iconographic similarities. These parallels have led many scholars to suggest that there is a distinct iconographic relationship between Isis and Mary. In fact, some scholars have gone even further, and have suggested, on the basis of this relationship, a direct link between the cult of Mary and that of Isis."
In which country is Ephesus?
570c481ffed7b91900d45825
Turkey
45
False
Whose visions led to the identification of the House of the Virgin Mary?
570c481ffed7b91900d45826
Anne Catherine Emmerich
87
False
Which disciple is known as "the Disciple whom Jesus loved?"
570c481ffed7b91900d45827
John the Evangelist
402
False
With whom is it believed that Mary lived with in Ephesus?
570c481ffed7b91900d45828
John
618
False
In which century was the House of the Virgin Mary found?
570c481ffed7b91900d45829
19th
7
False
a house near Ephesus in Turkey
21
Where did Anne Catherine Emmerich live?
5ad14f55645df0001a2d1706
True
in Ephesus with John
602
Where did Irenaeus and Eusebius of Caesarea live?
5ad14f55645df0001a2d1707
True
the 19th century
3
In what century did Anne Catherine Emmerich meet Irenaeus?
5ad14f55645df0001a2d1708
True
the 19th century
3
In what century did Mary live in Ephesus with John?
5ad14f55645df0001a2d1709
True
John the Evangelist
402
What Evangelist did Anne Catherine Emmerich meet in Turkey?
5ad14f55645df0001a2d170a
True
In the 19th century, a house near Ephesus in Turkey was found, based on the visions of Anne Catherine Emmerich, an Augustinian nun in Germany. It has since been visited as the House of the Virgin Mary by Roman Catholic pilgrims who consider it the place where Mary lived until her assumption. The Gospel of John states that Mary went to live with the Disciple whom Jesus loved,[Jn 19:27] identified as John the Evangelist.[citation needed] Irenaeus and Eusebius of Caesarea wrote in their histories that John later went to Ephesus, which may provide the basis for the early belief that Mary also lived in Ephesus with John.
In which year was the Second Council of Nicea?
570c49f9fed7b91900d45843
787
437
False
In which year did the Synod of Constantinople confirm the veneration of images of Mary?
570c49f9fed7b91900d45844
842
589
False
Which icon is most venerated in the Orthodox Church?
570c49f9fed7b91900d45845
icon of the Virgin Theotokos
209
False
What is the name given to artistic depictions of Mary?
570c49f9fed7b91900d45846
Marian art
118
False
In the Orthodox church, what types of icons are allowed to be venerated and prayed before?
570c49f9fed7b91900d45847
flat, two-dimensional icons
750
False
Roman Catholic
103
Which believers pray to and venerate three-dimensional statues?
5ad157aa645df0001a2d1800
True
787
437
In what year was the first image of the Madonna and Child found?
5ad157aa645df0001a2d1801
True
842
589
In what year was the first image of the Virgin Theotokos with Christ found?
5ad157aa645df0001a2d1802
True
Marian art
118
What is the name given to the artistic depictions of Jesus as an adult?
5ad157aa645df0001a2d1803
True
787
437
In what year was the Orthodox Church founded?
5ad157aa645df0001a2d1804
True
Devotions to artistic depictions of Mary vary among Christian traditions. There is a long tradition of Roman Catholic Marian art and no image permeates Catholic art as does the image of Madonna and Child. The icon of the Virgin Theotokos with Christ is without doubt the most venerated icon in the Orthodox Church. Both Roman Catholic and Orthodox Christians venerate images and icons of Mary, given that the Second Council of Nicaea in 787 permitted their veneration with the understanding that those who venerate the image are venerating the reality of the person it represents, and the 842 Synod of Constantinople confirming the same. According to Orthodox piety and traditional practice, however, believers ought to pray before and venerate only flat, two-dimensional icons, and not three-dimensional statues.
Where is the site of the first Church dedicated to Mary?
570c4b18b3d812140066d089
Ephesus
0
False
Which goddess was worshipped in Ephesus before Mary?
570c4b18b3d812140066d08a
Artemis
166
False
Who was the author of the book, "Survivals of Roman Religion?"
570c4b18b3d812140066d08b
William E. Phipps
371
False
Which Queen furthered the cult of Mary in the 6th Century?
570c4b18b3d812140066d08c
Queen Theodora
323
False
Where was Mary rumored to have died?
570c4b18b3d812140066d08d
Ephesus
0
False
Ephesus
0
Where was the place of Artemis' death?
5ad15331645df0001a2d1778
True
the 6th Century
341
In what century did Queen Theodora meet Gordon Laing?
5ad15331645df0001a2d1779
True
Gordon Laing
431
Who read the book, "Survivals of Roman Religion"?
5ad15331645df0001a2d177a
True
Queen Theodora
323
What Queen regarded The Temple of Artemis at Ephesus as one of the Seven Wonders of the Ancient World?
5ad15331645df0001a2d177b
True
Ephesus
0
Where is the birthplace of Artemis?
5ad15331645df0001a2d177c
True
Ephesus is a cultic centre of Mary, the site of the first Church dedicated to her and the rumoured place of her death. Ephesus was previously a centre for worship of Artemis a virgin goddess. The Temple of Artemis at Ephesus being regarded as one of the Seven Wonders of the Ancient World The cult of Mary was furthered by Queen Theodora in the 6th Century. According to William E. Phipps, in the book Survivals of Roman Religion "Gordon Laing argues convincingly that the worship of Artemis as both virgin and mother at the grand Ephesian temple contributed to the veneration of Mary."
Jesus was known as the "King of Kings" because of his lieage from who?
570c4cf5fed7b91900d4586b
King David
204
False
Which name is given to Mary because of her role as a protector of captives?
570c4cf5fed7b91900d4586c
Our Lady of Ransom
539
False
Who was the mother of Jesus?
570c4cf5fed7b91900d4586d
Mary
89
False
Which New Testament book provides a basis for the term Queen when referring to Mary?
570c4cf5fed7b91900d4586e
Luke
283
False
the "King of Kings"
162
What did David call Jesus when he met him?
5ad15b2d645df0001a2d1888
True
Queen Mother
58
What did David call Mary when he met her?
5ad15b2d645df0001a2d1889
True
Our Lady of Ransom
539
When Mary protected the captives of King David, what was she called?
5ad15b2d645df0001a2d188a
True
Our Lady of Navigators
513
When Mary assisted Kind David in finding his way to Jesus, what was the name given to her?
5ad15b2d645df0001a2d188b
True
Our Lady of Good Counsel
487
When Mary provided special counsel for Jesus, what name was she given?
5ad15b2d645df0001a2d188c
True
Some titles have a Biblical basis, for instance the title Queen Mother has been given to Mary since she was the mother of Jesus, who was sometimes referred to as the "King of Kings" due to his lineage of King David. The biblical basis for the term Queen can be seen in the Gospel of Luke 1:32 and the Book of Isaiah 9:6, and Queen Mother from 1 Kings 2:19-20 and Jeremiah 13:18-19. Other titles have arisen from reported miracles, special appeals or occasions for calling on Mary, e.g., Our Lady of Good Counsel, Our Lady of Navigators or Our Lady of Ransom who protects captives.
Who wrote polemics regarding Roman Catholic beliefs about Mary?
570c5057fed7b91900d458a3
Martin Luther
8
False
In which year was the Immaculate Conception dogmatized?
570c5057fed7b91900d458a4
1854
494
False
Which pope was responsible for the dogmatization of the Immaculate Conception?
570c5057fed7b91900d458a5
Pope Pius IX
478
False
What does Theotokos mean?
570c5057fed7b91900d458a6
Mother of God
324
False
Where did Martin Luther preach a sermon on Marian devotion a month before his death?
570c5057fed7b91900d458a7
Wittenberg
1791
False
three-hundred years
401
For how many years were the Roman Catholic opponents adhering to the Marian decrees?
5ad1812c645df0001a2d1e72
True
1854
494
What year did Martin Luther preach at Wittenberg?
5ad1812c645df0001a2d1e73
True
1854
494
In what year did Martin Luther stop celebrating Marian feasts?
5ad1812c645df0001a2d1e74
True
Pope Pius IX
478
With whom did Martin Luther argue about the veneration of Mary?
5ad1812c645df0001a2d1e75
True
Papists
1363
Who criticized Luther for revering Mary and for blurring the line?
5ad1812c645df0001a2d1e76
True
Despite Martin Luther's harsh polemics against his Roman Catholic opponents over issues concerning Mary and the saints, theologians appear to agree that Luther adhered to the Marian decrees of the ecumenical councils and dogmas of the church. He held fast to the belief that Mary was a perpetual virgin and the Theotokos or Mother of God. Special attention is given to the assertion that Luther, some three-hundred years before the dogmatization of the Immaculate Conception by Pope Pius IX in 1854, was a firm adherent of that view. Others maintain that Luther in later years changed his position on the Immaculate Conception, which, at that time was undefined in the Church, maintaining however the sinlessness of Mary throughout her life. For Luther, early in his life, the Assumption of Mary was an understood fact, although he later stated that the Bible did not say anything about it and stopped celebrating its feast. Important to him was the belief that Mary and the saints do live on after death. "Throughout his career as a priest-professor-reformer, Luther preached, taught, and argued about the veneration of Mary with a verbosity that ranged from childlike piety to sophisticated polemics. His views are intimately linked to his Christocentric theology and its consequences for liturgy and piety." Luther, while revering Mary, came to criticize the "Papists" for blurring the line, between high admiration of the grace of God wherever it is seen in a human being, and religious service given to another creature. He considered the Roman Catholic practice of celebrating saints' days and making intercessory requests addressed especially to Mary and other departed saints to be idolatry. His final thoughts on Marian devotion and veneration are preserved in a sermon preached at Wittenberg only a month before his death:
On what date does the Catholic Church celebrate the Feast of the Assumption?
570c5213fed7b91900d458ad
August 15
381
False
What do Eastern Catholics call the Feast of the Assumption?
570c5213fed7b91900d458ae
Dormition of the Theotokos
431
False
On what date of the Julian calendar do Eastern Catholics celebrate the Domition of the Theotokos?
570c5213fed7b91900d458af
August 28
476
False
How many Great Feasts does the Eastern Orthodox Church celebrate?
570c5213fed7b91900d458b0
12
610
False
Do Protestants celebrate Marian feasts or not?
570c5213fed7b91900d458b1
do not
639
False
the Feast of the Assumption
63
What is the name of the first Feast attended by Mary?
5ad15cff645df0001a2d18b6
True
August 15
381
When did Mary attend the Feast of Assumption?
5ad15cff645df0001a2d18b7
True
August 28
476
When did Mary attend the Dormition of the Theotokos?
5ad15cff645df0001a2d18b8
True
12 Great Feasts
610
When Mary finished attending all of the Feasts, what were the Feasts referred to as?
5ad15cff645df0001a2d18b9
True
Protestants
627
Who did Mary not get to go to Feast with?
5ad15cff645df0001a2d18ba
True
Differences in feasts may also originate from doctrinal issues—the Feast of the Assumption is such an example. Given that there is no agreement among all Christians on the circumstances of the death, Dormition or Assumption of Mary, the feast of assumption is celebrated among some denominations and not others.  While the Catholic Church celebrates the Feast of the Assumption on August 15, some Eastern Catholics celebrate it as Dormition of the Theotokos, and may do so on August 28, if they follow the Julian calendar. The Eastern Orthodox also celebrate it as the Dormition of the Theotokos, one of their 12 Great Feasts. Protestants do not celebrate this, or any other Marian feasts.
Which color is traditionally used to portray Mary in paintings?
570cba0cb3d812140066d259
blue
49
False
What rock was used as the source of blue pigment in paints in Medieval and Renaissance Europe?
570cba0cb3d812140066d25a
lapis lazuli
317
False
From which country was lapis lazuli imported?
570cba0cb3d812140066d25b
Afghanistan
353
False
Lapis lazuli was thought to be more valuable than which precious metal?
570cba0cb3d812140066d25c
gold
387
False
Which ancient empire is thought to have started the tradition of portraying Mary in paintings using the color blue?
570cba0cb3d812140066d25d
Byzantine Empire
98
False
blue
49
What color does Mary like to paint with?
5ad15e62645df0001a2d18d8
True
500 AD
123
What year did Mary visit the Byzantine Empire?
5ad15e62645df0001a2d18d9
True
lapis lazuli
317
What is the name of Mary's favorite stone?
5ad15e62645df0001a2d18da
True
Afghanistan
353
What country were the travelers from that brought Mary the lapis lazuli?
5ad15e62645df0001a2d18db
True
gold
387
What did Mary use to trade for the lapis lazuli?
5ad15e62645df0001a2d18dc
True
In paintings, Mary is traditionally portrayed in blue. This tradition can trace its origin to the Byzantine Empire, from c.500 AD, where blue was "the colour of an empress". A more practical explanation for the use of this colour is that in Medieval and Renaissance Europe, the blue pigment was derived from the rock lapis lazuli, a stone imported from Afghanistan of greater value than gold. Beyond a painter's retainer, patrons were expected to purchase any gold or lapis lazuli to be used in the painting. Hence, it was an expression of devotion and glorification to swathe the Virgin in gowns of blue.
According to Nontrinitarian belief, what is Mary's relationship to Jesus?
570cbdcfb3d812140066d263
biological mother
107
False
Which Nontrinitarian theologian says that God cannot approach eveil spirits to redeem them?
570cbdcfb3d812140066d264
Emanuel Swedenborg
417
False
Unittarians, Christadelphians and Jehovah's Witnesses are examples of what kind of church?
570cbdcfb3d812140066d265
Nontrinitarians
0
False
"Mother of God" is an example of what kind of title?
570cbdcfb3d812140066d266
Marian
163
False
Nontrinitarian churches
259
Why type of churches did Emanuel Swedenborg visit?
5ad186c5645df0001a2d1e96
True
Mother of God
186
Who did Mary recognize herself as?
5ad186c5645df0001a2d1e97
True
Unitarians, Christadelphians and Jehovah's Witnesses
25
Which Nontrinitarian churches once acknowledged Mary as "Mother of God"?
5ad186c5645df0001a2d1e98
True
Jesus Christ
615
Whom did Mary give access to the evil heredity of the human race?
5ad186c5645df0001a2d1e99
True
Nontrinitarians, such as Unitarians, Christadelphians and Jehovah's Witnesses also acknowledge Mary as the biological mother of Jesus Christ, but do not recognise Marian titles such as "Mother of God" as these groups generally reject Christ's divinity. Since Nontrinitarian churches are typically also mortalist, the issue of praying to Mary, whom they would consider "asleep", awaiting resurrection, does not arise. Emanuel Swedenborg says God as he is in himself could not directly approach evil spirits to redeem those spirits without destroying them (Exodus 33:20, John 1:18), so God impregnated Mary, who gave Jesus Christ access to the evil heredity of the human race, which he could approach, redeem and save.
By what name is Mary referred to in the Qur'an?
570cc5e1b3d812140066d26b
Maryam
50
False
Which Sura in the Qur'an describes the visitation of an angel upon Zakariya?
570cc5e1b3d812140066d26c
19
227
False
In how many places does the Qur'an give detailed accounts of Mary?
570cc5e1b3d812140066d26d
two
67
False
Which Gospel provides an identical account of the Virgin Birth as Sura 19 in the Qur'an?
570cc5e1b3d812140066d26e
Luke
287
False
Who was visited by an angel in Sura 19 of the Qur'an?
570cc5e1b3d812140066d26f
Zakariya
384
False
Maryam
50
Who wrote the detailed narrative accounts of Maryam?
5ad18acc645df0001a2d1ed8
True
Luke
287
Who wrote the account given in Sura 19?
5ad18acc645df0001a2d1ed9
True
19
227
How many accounts in the are written in the Qur'an about Mary?
5ad18acc645df0001a2d1eda
True
an angel
531
Who told Jesus that Mary would be the mother of Jesus?
5ad18acc645df0001a2d1edb
True
19
227
How many Gospel narratives are about Mary?
5ad18acc645df0001a2d1edc
True
The Qur'an relates detailed narrative accounts of Maryam (Mary) in two places, Qur'an 3:35–47 and 19:16–34. These state beliefs in both the Immaculate Conception of Mary and the Virgin birth of Jesus. The account given in Sura 19 is nearly identical with that in the Gospel according to Luke, and both of these (Luke, Sura 19) begin with an account of the visitation of an angel upon Zakariya (Zecharias) and Good News of the birth of Yahya (John), followed by the account of the annunciation. It mentions how Mary was informed by an angel that she would become the mother of Jesus through the actions of God alone.
What term is used to describe the belief that Mary remained a virgin for her entire life?
570cc952b3d812140066d275
Ever-Virgin
145
False
Which Latin father described the belief that Jesus' siblings were his cousins?
570cc952b3d812140066d276
Jerome
643
False
Which churches teach that Jesus' brothers and sister were step-siblings from a previous marriage of Joseph the Betrothed?
570cc952b3d812140066d277
Orthodox Churches
375
False
What document teaches that Jesus' brothers and sisters were older children of Joseph from a previous marriage?
570cc952b3d812140066d278
Protoevangelium of James
430
False
Which doctrine describes the belief that Mary remained a virgin, even though she gave birth to Jesus?
570cc952b3d812140066d279
The Perpetual Virginity of Mary
0
False
Jerome
643
What is the name of the Latin father who is considered Jesus' cousin?
5ad16a9a645df0001a2d1a6c
True
The Perpetual Virginity of Mary
0
What doctrine asserts Mary's real and perpetual virginity before the act of giving birth to Jesus?
5ad16a9a645df0001a2d1a6d
True
Ever-Virgin
145
What is the term used for Mary before giving birth to Jesus?
5ad16a9a645df0001a2d1a6e
True
Joseph the Betrothed
510
Who wrote the Protoevangelium of James?
5ad16a9a645df0001a2d1a6f
True
The Perpetual Virginity of Mary asserts Mary's real and perpetual virginity even in the act of giving birth to the Son of God made Man. The term Ever-Virgin (Greek ἀειπάρθενος) is applied in this case, stating that Mary remained a virgin for the remainder of her life, making Jesus her biological and only son, whose conception and birth are held to be miraculous. While the Orthodox Churches hold the position articulated in the Protoevangelium of James that Jesus' brothers and sisters are older children of Joseph the Betrothed, step-siblings from an earlier marriage that left him widowed, Roman Catholic teaching follows the Latin father Jerome in considering them Jesus' cousins.
In Orthodox tradition, what comes next in precdence after The Theotokos in the order of the saints?
570cce8afed7b91900d45a21
Angels
519
False
What are hymns to the Theotokos called in Orthodox tradition?
570cce8afed7b91900d45a22
The Theotokia
196
False
In the liturgical sequences of the Eastern Church, who is placed next in prominence after Christ?
570cce8afed7b91900d45a23
the Theotokos
380
False
What is Mary proclaimed to be in the Orthodox tradition?
570cce8afed7b91900d45a24
"Lady of the Angels"
651
False
What do the Orthodox believe Mary remained to be before and after she gave birth to Christ?
570cce8afed7b91900d45a25
a virgin
154
False
Lady of the Angels
652
Who did Mary proclaim that she was?
5ad17151645df0001a2d1bb6
True
the Eastern Church
289
What church did Mary give The Theotokia to?
5ad17151645df0001a2d1bb7
True
the angels
609
Who does the Virgin Mary say that she takes precedence over?
5ad17151645df0001a2d1bb8
True
Divine Services
270
What services did Mary perform in the Eastern Church?
5ad17151645df0001a2d1bb9
True
Orthodox Christianity includes a large number of traditions regarding the Ever Virgin Mary, the Theotokos. The Orthodox believe that she was and remained a virgin before and after Christ's birth. The Theotokia (i.e., hymns to the Theotokos) are an essential part of the Divine Services in the Eastern Church and their positioning within the liturgical sequence effectively places the Theotokos in the most prominent place after Christ. Within the Orthodox tradition, the order of the saints begins with: The Theotokos, Angels, Prophets, Apostles, Fathers, Martyrs, etc. giving the Virgin Mary precedence over the angels. She is also proclaimed as the "Lady of the Angels".
What is the mother church of the Angican Communion?
570cd23eb3d812140066d289
the Church of England
269
False
Which church in the United States is associated with the Angican Communion?
570cd23eb3d812140066d28a
the Episcopal Church
434
False
What practice differentiates the Angican Communon from Protestant churches at large?
570cd23eb3d812140066d28b
veneration of Mary
519
False
What branch of Christianity does the Angican Communion fall under?
570cd23eb3d812140066d28c
Protestant
365
False
Mary
533
Who founded the universal authority within the mother church (the Church of England)?
5ad17906645df0001a2d1da2
True
the Episcopal Church
434
Which church in the United States did Mary give universal authority to?
5ad17906645df0001a2d1da3
True
multiple churches
4
How many churches formed the Marian doctrines?
5ad17906645df0001a2d1da4
True
the Church of England
269
Which church is both "catholic" and "Reformed", but also Protestant?
5ad17906645df0001a2d1da5
True
The multiple churches that form the Anglican Communion and the Continuing Anglican movement have different views on Marian doctrines and venerative practices given that there is no single church with universal authority within the Communion and that the mother church (the Church of England) understands itself to be both "catholic" and "Reformed". Thus unlike the Protestant churches at large, the Anglican Communion (which includes the Episcopal Church in the United States) includes segments which still retain some veneration of Mary.
For what practice did the first Protestants criticize the Roman Catholics?
570cd44ab3d812140066d29b
venerating Mary
273
False
In which century did the Council of Trent occur?
570cd44ab3d812140066d29c
16th
328
False
Which Protestant churches still honor Mary?
570cd44ab3d812140066d29d
Anglicans and Lutherans
558
False
During which historical era did Protestant interest in Mary almost disappear?
570cd44ab3d812140066d29e
Age of the Enlightenment
447
False
Marian veneration became associated with which Christians after the Council of Trent?
570cd44ab3d812140066d29f
Catholics
386
False
the 16th century
74
In what century did Martin Luther honor Mary as the Mother of God?
5ad17e8d645df0001a2d1e38
True
the 16th century
324
In which century was the Council of Trent ended?
5ad17e8d645df0001a2d1e39
True
Anglicans and Lutherans
558
Which Protestant churches began honoring Mary before the 16th century?
5ad17e8d645df0001a2d1e3a
True
the Age of the Enlightenment
443
During what Age did Calvin and Huldrych Zwingli form the Council of Trent?
5ad17e8d645df0001a2d1e3b
True
Although Calvin and Huldrych Zwingli honored Mary as the Mother of God in the 16th century, they did so less than Martin Luther. Thus the idea of respect and high honor for Mary was not rejected by the first Protestants; but, they came to criticize the Roman Catholics for venerating Mary. Following the Council of Trent in the 16th century, as Marian veneration became associated with Catholics, Protestant interest in Mary decreased. During the Age of the Enlightenment any residual interest in Mary within Protestant churches almost disappeared, although Anglicans and Lutherans continued to honor her.
Which doctrine about Mary do Methodists reject?
570cd692b3d812140066d2af
the Immaculate Conception
424
False
Who was the founder of the Methodist movement?
570cd692b3d812140066d2b0
John Wesley
451
False
What are the sources of beliefs about Mary held by Methodists?
570cd692b3d812140066d2b1
Scripture and the ecumenical Creeds
153
False
The Methodist movement began in which church?
570cd692b3d812140066d2b2
the Church of England
519
False
Which Marian doctrine did John Wesley uphold in founding Methodism?
570cd692b3d812140066d2b3
the perpetual virginity of Mary
633
False
Orthodox Christians
348
What group founded the doctrine of the Immaculate Conception?
5ad18383645df0001a2d1e7c
True
England
533
What country was the church in that John Wesley departed from?
5ad18383645df0001a2d1e7d
True
John Wesley
451
Who wrote the the doctrine of the Assumption of Mary?
5ad18383645df0001a2d1e7e
True
the Church of England
519
The Methodist movement ended in which church?
5ad18383645df0001a2d1e7f
True
In Methodism, Mary is honored as the Mother of God. Methodists do not have any additional teachings on the Virgin Mary except from what is mentioned in Scripture and the ecumenical Creeds. As such, Methodists believe that Mary was conceived in her womb through the Holy Ghost and accept the doctrine of the Virgin Birth, although they, along with Orthodox Christians and other Protestant Christians, reject the doctrine of the Immaculate Conception. John Wesley, the principal founder of the Methodist movement within the Church of England, believed that Mary "continued a pure and unspotted virgin", thus upholding the doctrine of the perpetual virginity of Mary. Contemporary Methodism does hold that Mary was a virgin before, during, and immediately after the birth of Christ. In addition, some Methodists also hold the doctrine of the Assumption of Mary as a pious opinion.
To whom was Mary dedicated while still in the womb?
570cd803fed7b91900d45a2b
Allah
212
False
Which prophet cared for Mary?
570cd803fed7b91900d45a2c
Zakariya
347
False
What is understood to be the Holy of Holies in Islam?
570cd803fed7b91900d45a2d
Al-Mihrab
444
False
Where did Mary reside in her chilhood?
570cd803fed7b91900d45a2e
the Temple
406
False
What did God provide for Mary?
570cd803fed7b91900d45a2f
heavenly "provisions"
515
False
Zakariya
347
Who did Mary reside in the Temple with?
5ad1889c645df0001a2d1eb0
True
Allah
212
Who gave Mary unique access to Al-Mihrab?
5ad1889c645df0001a2d1eb1
True
God
540
Who provided Zakariya with heavenly "provisions"?
5ad1889c645df0001a2d1eb2
True
Zakariya
347
Who dedicated Mary to Allah while she still in her mother's womb?
5ad1889c645df0001a2d1eb3
True
in the Temple
403
Where did Mary's mother reside?
5ad1889c645df0001a2d1eb4
True
She is the only woman directly named in the Qur'an; declared (uniquely along with Jesus) to be a Sign of God to humanity; as one who "guarded her chastity"; an obedient one; chosen of her mother and dedicated to Allah whilst still in the womb; uniquely (amongst women) Accepted into service by God; cared for by (one of the prophets as per Islam) Zakariya (Zacharias); that in her childhood she resided in the Temple and uniquely had access to Al-Mihrab (understood to be the Holy of Holies), and was provided with heavenly "provisions" by God.
Who suggested that Jesus was the son of a Roman soldier?
570cda09b3d812140066d2c3
Celsus
427
False
What was the name of the Roman soldier said by Celsus to be the father of Jesus?
570cda09b3d812140066d2c4
Panthera
505
False
Origen was a Church Father in which Egyptian city?
570cda09b3d812140066d2c5
Alexandria
584
False
In which century did Celsus suggest that Jesus' father was a Roman soldier?
570cda09b3d812140066d2c6
2nd
365
False
For what purpose did detractors use the idea of Mary's virginity and the virgin conception of Jesus?
570cda09b3d812140066d2c7
to challenge the divinity of Jesus
279
False
Celsus
427
Who suggested that Panthera was the illegitimate son Jesus?
5ad19378645df0001a2d202a
True
2nd
365
What century did Panthera become a Roman Soldier?
5ad19378645df0001a2d202b
True
Alexandria
584
In what Egyptian city did Origen visit his Church Father?
5ad19378645df0001a2d202c
True
Alexandria
584
In what Egyptian city did Jesus find the Roman soldier?
5ad19378645df0001a2d202d
True
a Roman soldier
483
Who was Celsus an illegitimate son of?
5ad19378645df0001a2d202e
True
From the early stages of Christianity, belief in the virginity of Mary and the virgin conception of Jesus, as stated in the gospels, holy and supernatural, was used by detractors, both political and religious, as a topic for discussions, debates and writings, specifically aimed to challenge the divinity of Jesus and thus Christians and Christianity alike. In the 2nd century, as part of the earliest anti-Christian polemics, Celsus suggested that Jesus was the illegitimate son of a Roman soldier named Panthera. The views of Celsus drew responses from Origen, the Church Father in Alexandria, Egypt, who considered it a fabricated story. How far Celsus sourced his view from Jewish sources remains a subject of discussion.
What is the literal meaning of Theotokos?
570cdc1afed7b91900d45a35
Giver of birth to God
303
False
Which branch of Christianity gives a diminished role to Mary?
570cdc1afed7b91900d45a36
Protestants
624
False
What is Mary called in Islam?
570cdc1afed7b91900d45a37
Maryam
736
False
What is the basis for Mary's diminished role in Protestantism?
570cdc1afed7b91900d45a38
brevity of biblical references
698
False
Which two Protestant churches, along with the Roman Catholic and Orthodox churches, believe that Mary is the Mother of God?
570cdc1afed7b91900d45a39
Anglican, and Lutheran
181
False
Islam
775
Which other religion gives sainthood to Mary?
5ad13d95645df0001a2d1360
True
The Roman Catholic Church
436
Which church first considered Mary a saint?
5ad13d95645df0001a2d1361
True
the Qur'an
807
What other religious text do Protestants read?
5ad13d95645df0001a2d1362
True
the Marian beliefs
361
What other belief do believers of Islam believe?
5ad13d95645df0001a2d1363
True
Mary had been venerated since Early Christianity, and is considered by millions to be the most meritorious saint of the religion. The Eastern and Oriental Orthodox, Roman Catholic, Anglican, and Lutheran Churches believe that Mary, as Mother of Jesus, is the Mother of God and the Theotokos, literally "Giver of birth to God". There is significant diversity in the Marian beliefs and devotional practices of major Christian traditions. The Roman Catholic Church holds distinctive Marian dogmas; namely her status as the mother of God; her Immaculate Conception; her perpetual virginity; and her Assumption into heaven. Many Protestants minimize Mary's role within Christianity, based on the argued brevity of biblical references. Mary (Maryam) also has a revered position in Islam, where a whole chapter of the Qur'an is devoted to her, also describing the birth of Jesus.
What is the first stage of Jewish marriage?
570cdd7cb3d812140066d2cd
betrothal
107
False
Which angel announced to Mary that she was to be the mother of the Messiah?
570cdd7cb3d812140066d2ce
Gabriel
168
False
What did Joseph plan to do when told of Mary's coneption in a dream?
570cdd7cb3d812140066d2cf
divorce her
506
False
Where did Mary live when she was visited by the angel Gabriel?
570cdd7cb3d812140066d2d0
in Nazareth in Galilee
41
False
In his dream, who told Joseph about Mary's conception?
570cdd7cb3d812140066d2d1
an angel of the Lord
469
False
betrothal
107
What is the last stage of Jewish marriage?
5ad14069645df0001a2d13b6
True
Gabriel
168
What angel did Joseph meet before he had the dream?
5ad14069645df0001a2d13b7
True
Nazareth in Galilee
44
Where was Joseph born?
5ad14069645df0001a2d13b8
True
Nazareth in Galilee
44
Where did Joseph live when he was visited by the angel Gabriel?
5ad14069645df0001a2d13b9
True
Nazareth in Galilee
44
Where was Joseph conceived?
5ad14069645df0001a2d13ba
True
Mary resided in "her own house"[Lk.1:56] in Nazareth in Galilee, possibly with her parents, and during her betrothal — the first stage of a Jewish marriage — the angel Gabriel announced to her that she was to be the mother of the promised Messiah by conceiving him through the Holy Spirit, and she responded, "I am the handmaid of the Lord. Let it be done unto me according to your word." After a number of months, when Joseph was told of her conception in a dream by "an angel of the Lord", he planned to divorce her; but the angel told him to not hesitate to take her as his wife, which Joseph did, thereby formally completing the wedding rites.[Mt 1:18-25]
Which Gospel says that Mary fulfilled the prophecy of Isaiah?
570ce29dfed7b91900d45a71
Matthew
348
False
Until which century was the Virgin birth of Jesus held almost universally among Christians?
570ce29dfed7b91900d45a72
19th
104
False
What Hebrew word is used to describe Mary in Isaiah 7:14?
570ce29dfed7b91900d45a73
alma
457
False
Which verse in Luke states that Mary had "no relations with man" before Jesus' birth?
570ce29dfed7b91900d45a74
1:34
728
False
Along with the Nicene Creed, which other Christian creed asserts the Virgin birth of Jesus?
570ce29dfed7b91900d45a75
the Apostles' Creed
313
False
the 19th century
100
What century was the Apostles' Creed written in?
5ad1620b645df0001a2d1934
True
alma
457
When Isaiah spoke to Mary he called her by what Hebrew word?
5ad1620b645df0001a2d1935
True
the 2nd
86
In what century did Mary fulfill the prophecy?
5ad1620b645df0001a2d1936
True
the Nicene Creed
258
Which creed was written by Isaiah?
5ad1620b645df0001a2d1937
True
The Virgin birth of Jesus was an almost universally held belief among Christians from the 2nd until the 19th century. It is included in the two most widely used Christian creeds, which state that Jesus "was incarnate of the Holy Spirit and the Virgin Mary" (the Nicene Creed in what is now its familiar form) and the Apostles' Creed. The Gospel of Matthew describes Mary as a virgin who fulfilled the prophecy of Isaiah 7:14, mistranslating the Hebrew word alma ("young woman") in Isaiah 7:14 as "virgin", though.[citation needed] The authors of the Gospels of Matthew and Luke consider Jesus' conception not the result of intercourse and assert that Mary had "no relations with man" before Jesus' birth.[Mt 1:18] [Mt 1:25] [Lk 1:34] This alludes to the belief that Mary conceived Jesus through the action of God the Holy Spirit, and not through intercourse with Joseph or anyone else.
What title is given to Mary in the Catholic Church?
570ce45dfed7b91900d45a97
Blessed
53
False
What is the Latin word from which Mary's title of Blessed is derived?
570ce45dfed7b91900d45a98
beatus
75
False
How many Catholic dogmas are there regarding Mary?
570ce45dfed7b91900d45a9a
four
393
False
Along with Mother of God, Immaculate Conception and Assumption of Mary, what is the other Catholic dogma related to Mary?
570ce45dfed7b91900d45a9b
Perpetual virginity of Mary
449
False
Blessed
53
What title did Mary give to the Catholic Church?
5ad16eee645df0001a2d1b18
True
Catholic teachings
254
Since Mary states that she is not divine, what teachings carry on her statements?
5ad16eee645df0001a2d1b19
True
Heaven
181
Where does Mary send prayers to?
5ad16eee645df0001a2d1b1a
True
four
393
How many Latin dogmas are there regarding Mary?
5ad16eee645df0001a2d1b1b
True
Perpetual virginity of Mary
449
What state was Mary in before giving birth to Jesus?
5ad16eee645df0001a2d1b1c
True
In the Catholic Church, Mary is accorded the title "Blessed", (from Latin beatus, blessed, via Greek μακάριος, makarios and Latin facere, make) in recognition of her assumption to Heaven and her capacity to intercede on behalf of those who pray to her. Catholic teachings make clear that Mary is not considered divine and prayers to her are not answered by her, they are answered by God. The four Catholic dogmas regarding Mary are: Mother of God, Perpetual virginity of Mary, Immaculate Conception (of Mary) and Assumption of Mary.
What are Akathists?
570ce6fffed7b91900d45aab
standing hymns
321
False
How many of the Orthodox Great Feasts dedicated to Mary?
570ce6fffed7b91900d45aac
Five
405
False
What is name of the Orthodox hymn devoted to Mary?
570ce6fffed7b91900d45aad
the Akathist Hymn
386
False
Which event on the Orthodox calendar is related to Mary and icon veneration?
570ce6fffed7b91900d45aae
Sunday of Orthodoxy
477
False
Mary
351
Who wrote the Akathist Hymn?
5ad175a2645df0001a2d1cca
True
Five
405
How many of the of the twelve Great Feasts in Orthodoxy did Mary attend?
5ad175a2645df0001a2d1ccb
True
The Sunday of Orthodoxy
473
On what day does the Mother of God allow icon veneration?
5ad175a2645df0001a2d1ccc
True
Five
405
How many Orthodox feasts are connected with the miraculous icons of the Theotokos?
5ad175a2645df0001a2d1ccd
True
standing hymns
321
What does Mary also call Akathists?
5ad175a2645df0001a2d1cce
True
The views of the Church Fathers still play an important role in the shaping of Orthodox Marian perspective. However, the Orthodox views on Mary are mostly doxological, rather than academic: they are expressed in hymns, praise, liturgical poetry and the veneration of icons. One of the most loved Orthodox Akathists (i.e. standing hymns) is devoted to Mary and it is often simply called the Akathist Hymn. Five of the twelve Great Feasts in Orthodoxy are dedicated to Mary. The Sunday of Orthodoxy directly links the Virgin Mary's identity as Mother of God with icon veneration. A number of Orthodox feasts are connected with the miraculous icons of the Theotokos.
What is the name given to the Annunciation in the 1662 Book of Common Prayer?
570ced9cb3d812140066d323
Annunciation of our Lady
624
False
On what date do most Anglicans celebrate the Visitation of the Blessed Virgin?
570ced9cb3d812140066d324
31 May
753
False
What is another name for the feast of the Presentation of Christ in the Temple in the Anglican Communion?
570ced9cb3d812140066d325
the Purification of the Blessed Virgin Mary
387
False
On what date is the Presentation of Christ in the Temple celebrated by Anglicans?
570ced9cb3d812140066d326
February 2
434
False
On what day was the Annunciation tradtionally celebrated in England until the 18th century?
570ced9cb3d812140066d327
New Year's Day
565
False
February 2
434
When did Mary attain the special position within God's purpose of salvation as "God-bearer"?
5ad17a7d645df0001a2d1dda
True
March 25
500
When was Jesus born of the Virgin Mary?
5ad17a7d645df0001a2d1ddb
True
New Year's Day
565
On what day is the Presentation of Christ in the Temple?
5ad17a7d645df0001a2d1ddc
True
1662
657
What year was the Purification of the Blessed Virgin Mary?
5ad17a7d645df0001a2d1ddd
True
Anglican Christians
128
Who brought Book of Common Prayer to England?
5ad17a7d645df0001a2d1dde
True
Mary's special position within God's purpose of salvation as "God-bearer" (Theotokos) is recognised in a number of ways by some Anglican Christians. All the member churches of the Anglican Communion affirm in the historic creeds that Jesus was born of the Virgin Mary, and celebrates the feast days of the Presentation of Christ in the Temple. This feast is called in older prayer books the Purification of the Blessed Virgin Mary on February 2. The Annunciation of our Lord to the Blessed Virgin on March 25 was from before the time of Bede until the 18th century New Year's Day in England. The Annunciation is called the "Annunciation of our Lady" in the 1662 Book of Common Prayer. Anglicans also celebrate in the Visitation of the Blessed Virgin on 31 May, though in some provinces the traditional date of July 2 is kept. The feast of the St. Mary the Virgin is observed on the traditional day of the Assumption, August 15. The Nativity of the Blessed Virgin is kept on September 8.
Which theologian described Mariology as "the heresy of the Catholic Church?"
570cef04b3d812140066d337
Karl Barth
451
False
Protestants hold that Mary had what relationship to Jesus?
570cef04b3d812140066d338
mother
125
False
Protestants reject what practices in relation to the Saints?
570cef04b3d812140066d339
veneration and invocation
34
False
Protestants describe Mary as devoted to whom?
570cef04b3d812140066d33a
God
179
False
1174
75
How many pieces of Marian music did theologian Karl Barth write?
5ad17cdb645df0001a2d1e08
True
1174
75
How many of the Saints reject the Protestants?
5ad17cdb645df0001a2d1e09
True
an ordinary woman
150
Mary stated that she was the mother of Jesus, but also referred to herself as?
5ad17cdb645df0001a2d1e0a
True
Marian feasts
236
What feasts did Karl Barth attend?
5ad17cdb645df0001a2d1e0b
True
Mary
112
Who took the very first Marian Pilgrimage?
5ad17cdb645df0001a2d1e0c
True
Protestants in general reject the veneration and invocation of the Saints.:1174 Protestants typically hold that Mary was the mother of Jesus, but was an ordinary woman devoted to God. Therefore, there is virtually no Marian veneration, Marian feasts, Marian pilgrimages, Marian art, Marian music or Marian spirituality in today's Protestant communities. Within these views, Roman Catholic beliefs and practices are at times rejected, e.g., theologian Karl Barth wrote that "the heresy of the Catholic Church is its Mariology".
Who do Christians believe is prophesized in Isaiah 7:14?
570cff2cb3d812140066d393
Virgin Mary
741
False
What is the meaning of the Greek word "heos?"
570cff2cb3d812140066d394
until
297
False
Which verse in Matthew is believed to refer to Isaiah's prohecy of the Virgin Mary?
570cff2cb3d812140066d395
1:23
776
False
Which Gospel writer provided a version of the virgin birth that was different than Matthew's?
570cff2cb3d812140066d396
Luke
800
False
What is the English tranlation of the Greek word "parthenos?"
570cff2cb3d812140066d397
virgin
650
False
Joseph
19
Who knew Mary before she brought forth her first born son?
5ad18f44645df0001a2d1f4e
True
Galilee
923
Where did Philip first meet Joseph?
5ad18f44645df0001a2d1f4f
True
Galilee
923
Where did Matthew and Luke gather with the disbelieving Jews?
5ad18f44645df0001a2d1f50
True
Bart Ehrman
517
What Biblical scholar currently believes that Mary was a perpetual virgin?
5ad18f44645df0001a2d1f51
True
Hebrew
533
What language does Biblical scholar Bart Ehrmam primarily speak?
5ad18f44645df0001a2d1f52
True
The statement that Joseph "knew her not till she brought forth her first born son" (Matthew 1:25 DouayRheims) has been debated among scholars, with some saying that she did not remain a virgin and some saying that she was a perpetual virgin. Other scholars contend that the Greek word heos (i.e., until) denotes a state up to a point, but does not mean that the state ended after that point, and that Matthew 1:25 does not confirm or deny the virginity of Mary after the birth of Jesus. According to Biblical scholar Bart Ehrman the Hebrew word almah, meaning young woman of childbearing age, was translated into Greek as parthenos, which only means virgin, in Isaiah 7:14, which is commonly believed by Christians to be the prophecy of the Virgin Mary referred to in Matthew 1:23. While Matthew and Luke give differing versions of the virgin birth, John quotes the uninitiated Philip and the disbelieving Jews gathered at Galilee referring to Joseph as Jesus's father.
Who did Jesus say were his "brother, and sister, and mother?"
570d0128fed7b91900d45bb7
Whoever does the will of God
421
False
According to Jesus, who is "without honor except in his own town?"
570d0128fed7b91900d45bb8
A prophet
664
False
What do some Biblical scholars claim that Jesus' family did with his message during his ministry?
570d0128fed7b91900d45bb9
rejected
851
False
A leading Biblical scholar
761
Who had a conflict with Jesus and his family?
5ad14863645df0001a2d1550
True
his mother and his brothers
217
Who did Jesus send a message to while he was standing outside?
5ad14863645df0001a2d1551
True
Jesus
163
Who embraced his family according to the New Testament?
5ad14863645df0001a2d1552
True
the New Testament
193
What was Mary reading when she was standing outside?
5ad14863645df0001a2d1553
True
The hagiography of Mary and the Holy Family can be contrasted with other material in the Gospels. These references include an incident which can be interpreted as Jesus rejecting his family in the New Testament: "And his mother and his brothers arrived, and standing outside, they sent in a message asking for him ... And looking at those who sat in a circle around him, Jesus said, 'These are my mother and my brothers. Whoever does the will of God is my brother, and sister, and mother'."[3:31-35] Other verses suggest a conflict between Jesus and his family, including an attempt to have Jesus restrained because "he is out of his mind", and the famous quote: "A prophet is not without honor except in his own town, among his relatives and in his own home." A leading Biblical scholar commented: "there are clear signs not only that Jesus's family rejected his message during his public ministry but that he in turn spurned them publicly".
What is the term used for veneration of Mary in Roman Catholic theology?
570d03b1fed7b91900d45bbd
hyperdulia
681
False
In what year was the hierarchy of latria, hyperdulia and dulia established?
570d03b1fed7b91900d45bbe
787
936
False
Who is venerated in the Roman Catholic practice of dulia?
570d03b1fed7b91900d45bbf
other saints and angels
790
False
Which theologian wrote that Mary is considered to be "superior to all created beings," but is not to be the object of worhip?
570d03b1fed7b91900d45bc0
Sergei Bulgakov
266
False
What is the Roman Catholic term used to denote the worship of God?
570d03b1fed7b91900d45bc1
latria
727
False
787
936
When did the the Second Council of Nicaea begin?
5ad154fd645df0001a2d17c6
True
787
936
When did the the Second Council of Nicaea end?
5ad154fd645df0001a2d17c7
True
latria
727
What is the Ortodox term used to denote the worship of God?
5ad154fd645df0001a2d17c8
True
hyperdulia
681
What is the Ortodox term reserved for Marian veneration?
5ad154fd645df0001a2d17c9
True
787
936
In what year did Sergei Bulgakov attend the Second Council of Nicaea?
5ad154fd645df0001a2d17ca
True
Although the Catholics and the Orthodox may honor and venerate Mary, they do not view her as divine, nor do they worship her. Roman Catholics view Mary as subordinate to Christ, but uniquely so, in that she is seen as above all other creatures. Similarly Theologian Sergei Bulgakov wrote that the Orthodox view Mary as "superior to all created beings" and "ceaselessly pray for her intercession". However, she is not considered a "substitute for the One Mediator" who is Christ. "Let Mary be in honor, but let worship be given to the Lord", he wrote. Similarly, Catholics do not worship Mary as a divine being, but rather "hyper-venerate" her. In Roman Catholic theology, the term hyperdulia is reserved for Marian veneration, latria for the worship of God, and dulia for the veneration of other saints and angels. The definition of the three level hierarchy of latria, hyperdulia and dulia goes back to the Second Council of Nicaea in 787.
In what year did the Third Ecumenical Council occur in Ephesus?
570d0565fed7b91900d45bc7
431
251
False
Whose teachings were addressed at the Third Ecumenical Council?
570d0565fed7b91900d45bc8
Nestorius
237
False
What does the phrase "Mater Dei" mean?
570d0565fed7b91900d45bc9
Mother of God
389
False
What are the two Latin equivalents of the Greek term "Theokotos?"
570d0565fed7b91900d45bca
"Deipara" and "Dei genetrix"
295
False
What is the literal translation of Theokotos?
570d0565fed7b91900d45bcb
Godbearer
342
False
431
251
In what year did Mary attend the Third Ecumenical Council?
5ad159a0645df0001a2d1844
True
the Third Ecumenical Council
163
What is the name of the Council where Mary meet Nestorius?
5ad159a0645df0001a2d1845
True
Latin
422
What language was spoken by Nestorius?
5ad159a0645df0001a2d1846
True
Greek
524
What language was spoken by the Church Fathers?
5ad159a0645df0001a2d1847
True
in 431
248
When did Mary meet the Church Fathers?
5ad159a0645df0001a2d1848
True
Mary is referred to by the Eastern Orthodox Church, Oriental Orthodoxy, the Anglican Church, and all Eastern Catholic Churches as Theotokos, a title recognized at the Third Ecumenical Council (held at Ephesus to address the teachings of Nestorius, in 431). Theotokos (and its Latin equivalents, "Deipara" and "Dei genetrix") literally means "Godbearer". The equivalent phrase "Mater Dei" (Mother of God) is more common in Latin and so also in the other languages used in the Western Catholic Church, but this same phrase in Greek (Μήτηρ Θεοῦ), in the abbreviated form of the first and last letter of the two words (ΜΡ ΘΥ), is the indication attached to her image in Byzantine icons. The Council stated that the Church Fathers "did not hesitate to speak of the holy Virgin as the Mother of God".
On what date is the feast of the Immaculate Conception in the Latin Rite of the Roman Catholic Church?
570d078afed7b91900d45bdb
December 8
346
False
Which pope proclaimed the Immaculate Conception of Mary?
570d078afed7b91900d45bdc
Pope Pius IX
91
False
In what year did Pope Pius IX make his Ex Cathedra proclamation of the Immaculate Conception of Mary?
570d078afed7b91900d45bdd
1854
107
False
According to the doctrine of Immaculate Conception, where was Mary when she first become filled with grace?
570d078afed7b91900d45bde
in her mother's womb
190
False
What is the Greek term that means the same thing as "original sin?"
570d078afed7b91900d45bdf
ancestral sin
460
False
December 8
346
On what day did Mary attend The Latin Rite of the Roman Catholic Church liturgical feast?
5ad1671a645df0001a2d19e6
True
1854
107
When did Pope Pius IX become a Roman Catholic?
5ad1671a645df0001a2d19e7
True
Greek
479
What language, besides Latin, did Pope Pius IX speak?
5ad1671a645df0001a2d19e8
True
1854
107
In what year did Orthodox Christians reject the Ex Cathedra?
5ad1671a645df0001a2d19e9
True
Roman Catholics believe in the Immaculate Conception of Mary, as proclaimed Ex Cathedra by Pope Pius IX in 1854, namely that she was filled with grace from the very moment of her conception in her mother's womb and preserved from the stain of original sin. The Latin Rite of the Roman Catholic Church has a liturgical feast by that name, kept on December 8. Orthodox Christians reject the Immaculate Conception dogma principally because their understanding of ancestral sin (the Greek term corresponding to the Latin "original sin") differs from the Augustinian interpretation and that of the Roman Catholic Church.
What book is considered to be the source of many Orthodox beliefs regarding Mary?
570d0ef2fed7b91900d45be5
The Protoevangelium of James
0
False
At what age was Mary consecrated?
570d0ef2fed7b91900d45be6
three
205
False
Which priest officiated at Mary's consecration?
570d0ef2fed7b91900d45be7
Zachariah
228
False
While Mary lived in the temple, who was said to have fed her?
570d0ef2fed7b91900d45be8
an angel
456
False
Mary
246
Who blessed The High Priest Zachariah?
5ad17748645df0001a2d1d34
True
the third step
349
On what step of the altar did Mary place herself on?
5ad17748645df0001a2d1d35
True
twelve years
480
For how many years did Mary feed angels?
5ad17748645df0001a2d1d36
True
James
23
Who wrote The Protoevangelium of James?
5ad17748645df0001a2d1d37
True
twelve years old
480
How old was Mary when she traveled to Israel?
5ad17748645df0001a2d1d38
True
The Protoevangelium of James, an extra-canonical book, has been the source of many Orthodox beliefs on Mary. The account of Mary's life presented includes her consecration as a virgin at the temple at age three. The High Priest Zachariah blessed Mary and informed her that God had magnified her name among many generations. Zachariah placed Mary on the third step of the altar, whereby God gave her grace. While in the temple, Mary was miraculously fed by an angel, until she was twelve years old. At that point an angel told Zachariah to betroth Mary to a widower in Israel, who would be indicated. This story provides the theme of many hymns for the Feast of Presentation of Mary, and icons of the feast depict the story. The Orthodox believe that Mary was instrumental in the growth of Christianity during the life of Jesus, and after his Crucifixion, and Orthodox Theologian Sergei Bulgakov wrote: "The Virgin Mary is the center, invisible, but real, of the Apostolic Church."
Which religion believes that God put a veil between Satan and Mary?
570d0efcb3d812140066d3af
Islamic
7
False
According to Shabbir Akhtar, what role does Islam believe Jesus to hold?
570d0efcb3d812140066d3b0
a Messenger of God
484
False
Who does the Islamic religion hold to be the One, Unique God?
570d0efcb3d812140066d3b1
Allah
594
False
What term is used to refer to Christains by author Shabbir Akhtar?
570d0efcb3d812140066d3b2
People of the Book
330
False
Mary and Jesus
26
Who were the only children that could touch Satan?
5ad18d1c645df0001a2d1f00
True
at the moment of their birth
98
When did God remove the veil imposed between them (Mary and Jesus) and Satan?
5ad18d1c645df0001a2d1f01
True
Shabbir Akhtar
195
Who wrote that Allah is not above having a son?
5ad18d1c645df0001a2d1f02
True
author Shabbir Akhtar
188
Who wrote the Catholic perspective on Mary's Immaculate Conception?
5ad18d1c645df0001a2d1f03
True
In the Islamic tradition, Mary and Jesus were the only children who could not be touched by Satan at the moment of their birth, for God imposed a veil between them and Satan. According to author Shabbir Akhtar, the Islamic perspective on Mary's Immaculate Conception is compatible with the Catholic doctrine of the same topic. "O People of the Book! Do not go beyond the bounds in your religion, and do not say anything of Allah but the truth. The Messiah, Jesus son of Mary, was but a Messenger of God, and a Word of His (Power) which He conveyed to Mary, and a spirit from Him. So believe in Allah (as the One, Unique God), and His Messengers (including Jesus, as Messenger); and do not say: (Allah is one of) a trinity. Give up (this assertion) â€" (it is) for your own good (to do so). Allah is but One Allah ; All-Glorified He is in that He is absolutely above having a son. To Him belongs whatever is in the heavens and whatever is on the earth. And Allah suffices as the One to be relied on, to Whom affairs should be referred." Quran 4/171
Where in Jewish literature is the story about Panthera found?
570d0f38b3d812140066d3b7
the Toledot Yeshu
223
False
According to the Blackwell Companion to Jesus, for what purpose was the Toledot Yeshu written?
570d0f38b3d812140066d3b8
warding off conversions to Christianity
566
False
What is the meaning of the term "parthenos?"
570d0f38b3d812140066d3b9
virgin
668
False
During what historical period was the Toledot Yeshu written?
570d0f38b3d812140066d3ba
medieval
882
False
What event does Raymond E. Brown believe the Toledot Yeshu describes?
570d0f38b3d812140066d3bb
the birth of Jesus
755
False
Robert Van Voorst
822
Who wrote the medieval document the Toledot Yeshu?
5ad190f6645df0001a2d1fb0
True
Raymond E. Brown
680
Who wrote the story of Panthera?
5ad190f6645df0001a2d1fb1
True
the Talmud
39
What affects how Jesus views his mother?
5ad190f6645df0001a2d1fb2
True
the 4th century
352
In what century was The Blackwell Companion written?
5ad190f6645df0001a2d1fb3
True
Raymond E. Brown
680
Who wrote The Blackwell Companion?
5ad190f6645df0001a2d1fb4
True
The issue of the parentage of Jesus in the Talmud affects also the view of his mother. However the Talmud does not mention Mary by name and is considerate rather than only polemic. The story about Panthera is also found in the Toledot Yeshu, the literary origins of which can not be traced with any certainty and given that it is unlikely to go before the 4th century, it is far too late to include authentic remembrances of Jesus. The Blackwell Companion to Jesus states that the Toledot Yeshu has no historical facts as such, and was perhaps created as a tool for warding off conversions to Christianity. The name Panthera may be a distortion of the term parthenos (virgin) and Raymond E. Brown considers the story of Panthera a fanciful explanation of the birth of Jesus which includes very little historical evidence. Robert Van Voorst states that given that Toledot Yeshu is a medieval document and due to its lack of a fixed form and orientation towards a popular audience, it is "most unlikely" to have reliable historical information.
12
484
How old was Mary when she met Joseph?
5ad138e0645df0001a2d124e
True
Bethlehem
375
Where did Mary first meet Joseph?
5ad138e0645df0001a2d124f
True
12
484
How old was Mary when she conceived?
5ad138e0645df0001a2d1250
True
Bethlehem
375
Where was Mary born?
5ad138e0645df0001a2d1251
True
The gospels of Matthew and Luke in the New Testament describe Mary as a virgin (Greek: παρθένος, parthénos) and Christians believe that she conceived her son while a virgin by the Holy Spirit. This took place when she was already betrothed to Joseph and was awaiting the concluding rite of marriage, the formal home-taking ceremony. She married Joseph and accompanied him to Bethlehem, where Jesus was born. According to ancient Jewish custom, Mary could have been betrothed at about 12, however, there is no direct evidence of Mary's age at betrothal or in pregnancy. The term "betrothal" is an awkward translation of kiddushin; according to the Jewish law those called "betrothed" were actually husband and wife.
Latin
449
What language did Mary speak?
5ad14214645df0001a2d1416
True
Hebron, in the hill country of Judah
217
Where did Mary first meet the angel Gabriel?
5ad14214645df0001a2d1417
True
Hebron, in the hill country of Judah
217
Where did Elizabeth first meet Zechariah?
5ad14214645df0001a2d1418
True
Latin
449
What language did Elizabeth speak?
5ad14214645df0001a2d1419
True
the mother of my Lord
321
What did the angel Gabriel tell Elizabeth whom Mary was?
5ad14214645df0001a2d141a
True
Since the angel Gabriel had told Mary (according to Luke 1:36) that Elizabeth—having previously been barren—was then miraculously pregnant, Mary hurried to see Elizabeth, who was living with her husband Zechariah in "Hebron, in the hill country of Judah". Mary arrived at the house and greeted Elizabeth who called Mary "the mother of my Lord", and Mary spoke the words of praise that later became known as the Magnificat from her first word in the Latin version.[Luke 1:46-55] After about three months, Mary returned to her own house.[Lk 1:56-57]
Mary
573
Who did Jesus paint icons and carve statues of?
5ad16c95645df0001a2d1ab0
True
her Son, Jesus Christ
415
Who wrote poems and songs for Mary?
5ad16c95645df0001a2d1ab1
True
Roman Catholics
95
Which church first wrote the Mariological themes?
5ad16c95645df0001a2d1ab2
True
Mary
573
Who do the saints compose poems and songs about?
5ad16c95645df0001a2d1ab3
True
Christian Marian perspectives include a great deal of diversity. While some Christians such as Roman Catholics and Eastern Orthodox have well established Marian traditions, Protestants at large pay scant attention to Mariological themes. Roman Catholic, Eastern Orthodox, Oriental Orthodox, Anglican, and Lutherans venerate the Virgin Mary. This veneration especially takes the form of prayer for intercession with her Son, Jesus Christ. Additionally it includes composing poems and songs in Mary's honor, painting icons or carving statues of her, and conferring titles on Mary that reflect her position among the saints.
Melbourne
What airport serves Melbourne?
570c35b9ec8fbc190045bdbe
Melbourne Airport (also called Tullamarine Airport)
67
False
What is the main metropolitan train terminus called in Melbourne?
570c35b9ec8fbc190045bdbf
Flinders Street Station
342
False
What is the main regional train and coach terminus in Melbourne?
570c35b9ec8fbc190045bdc0
Southern Cross Station
417
False
What city is known to be home to Australia's most extensive freeway network?
570c35b9ec8fbc190045bdc1
Melbourne
441
False
What country has the world's largest urban tram network?
570c35b9ec8fbc190045bdc2
Australia
467
False
What passenger airport serves Melbourne?
570d0642fed7b91900d45bd1
Melbourne Airport (also called Tullamarine Airport)
67
False
What is the busiest seaport in Melbourne?
570d0642fed7b91900d45bd2
Port of Melbourne
170
False
What is the name of the main metropolitan train terminus called in Melbourne?
570d0642fed7b91900d45bd3
Flinders Street Station
342
False
What is the name of the coach terminus in Melbourne?
570d0642fed7b91900d45bd4
Southern Cross Station
417
False
Who has the most extensive freeway network?
570d0642fed7b91900d45bd5
Australia
467
False
What is another name for Melborne Airport?
570dfb650b85d914000d7c4d
Tullamarine Airport
98
False
Which airport is the second busiest in Australia?
570dfb650b85d914000d7c4e
Melbourne Airport (also called Tullamarine Airport)
67
False
Which port in Melborne is the busiest seaport for containerised and general cargo?
570dfb650b85d914000d7c4f
Port of Melbourne
170
False
What is Melborne's main metropolitan train terminus?
570dfb650b85d914000d7c50
Flinders Street Station
342
False
Where is the world's largest urban tram network located?
570dfb650b85d914000d7c51
Melbourne
441
False
The main passenger airport serving the metropolis and the state is Melbourne Airport (also called Tullamarine Airport), which is the second busiest in Australia, and the Port of Melbourne is Australia's busiest seaport for containerised and general cargo. Melbourne has an extensive transport network. The main metropolitan train terminus is Flinders Street Station, and the main regional train and coach terminus is Southern Cross Station. Melbourne is also home to Australia's most extensive freeway network and has the world's largest urban tram network.
Between what year's did Victorian aboriginal groups dispossessed?
570c376aec8fbc190045bdda
Between 1836 and 1842
0
False
In 1844 how many Aborigines resident in squalid camps in Melbourne?
570c376aec8fbc190045bddb
675
140
False
Who appointed five Aboriginal Protectors for the Aborigines of Victoria in 1839?
570c376aec8fbc190045bddc
The British Colonial Office
195
False
Who were the people that were power political and economic force in Victoria in 1845?
570c376aec8fbc190045bddd
240 wealthy Europeans
435
False
How many Aborigines were said to be resident in squalid camps in Melbourne in January 1844?
570dfc730b85d914000d7c61
675
140
False
How many Aboriginal Protectors for the Aborigines of Victoria were appointed in 1839?
570dfc730b85d914000d7c62
five
233
False
By what year did fewer than 240 wealthy Europeans hold all the pastoral licenses?
570dfc730b85d914000d7c63
1845
418
False
During what years were Victorian Aboriginal groups largely displaced from their land?
570dfc730b85d914000d7c64
Between 1836 and 1842
0
False
Between 1836 and 1842 Victorian Aboriginal groups were largely dispossessed[by whom?] of their land. By January 1844, there were said to be 675 Aborigines resident in squalid camps in Melbourne. The British Colonial Office appointed five Aboriginal Protectors for the Aborigines of Victoria, in 1839, however their work was nullified by a land policy that favoured squatters to take possession of Aboriginal lands. By 1845, fewer than 240 wealthy Europeans held all the pastoral licences then issued in Victoria and became a powerful political and economic force in Victoria for generations to come.
When was the gold rush over in Melbourne?
570c38b26b8089140040fc40
1860
35
False
How did Melbourne grow as major port for exporting the agricultural products?
570c38b26b8089140040fc41
gold mining
95
False
What was protected by high tarriffs?
570c38b26b8089140040fc42
wool
190
False
In 1863, why was Aboriginal population declining?
570c38b26b8089140040fc43
diseases, particularly smallpox, frontier violence and dispossession from their lands.
924
False
By what year was the gold rush largely over?
570dfd4c0b85d914000d7c73
1860
35
False
What was one of the major agricultural products of Victoria around 1860?
570dfd4c0b85d914000d7c74
wool
190
False
What were some of the reasons the Aboriginal population continued to recline?
570dfd4c0b85d914000d7c75
introduced diseases, particularly smallpox, frontier violence and dispossession from their lands
913
False
Which disease in particular caused the Aboriginal population to continue a decline?
570dfd4c0b85d914000d7c76
smallpox
947
False
The Aboriginal population declined by what estimated percentage by 1863?
570dfd4c0b85d914000d7c77
80%
868
False
With the gold rush largely over by 1860, Melbourne continued to grow on the back of continuing gold mining, as the major port for exporting the agricultural products of Victoria, especially wool, and a developing manufacturing sector protected by high tariffs. An extensive radial railway network centred on Melbourne and spreading out across the suburbs and into the countryside was established from the late 1850s. Further major public buildings were begun in the 1860s and 1870s such as the Supreme Court, Government House, and the Queen Victoria Market. The central city filled up with shops and offices, workshops, and warehouses. Large banks and hotels faced the main streets, with fine townhouses in the east end of Collins Street, contrasting with tiny cottages down laneways within the blocks. The Aboriginal population continued to decline with an estimated 80% total decrease by 1863, due primarily to introduced diseases, particularly smallpox, frontier violence and dispossession from their lands.
What is the most populas city in the Australian state of Victoria?
570c46e9fed7b91900d4581b
Melbourne
0
False
What is the second most populas city in Australia?
570c46e9fed7b91900d4581c
Oceania
164
False
Where is the Metropolis?
570c46e9fed7b91900d4581d
large natural bay of Port Phillip
446
False
What is the population of Melbourne?
570c46e9fed7b91900d4581e
4,347,955 as of 2013
667
False
What are inhabitants of Melbourne called?
570c46e9fed7b91900d4581f
Melburnians
720
False
Which city is the capital of Victoria?
570dfdf40b85d914000d7c7d
Melbourne
0
False
Which city is the most populous city in Victoria?
570dfdf40b85d914000d7c7e
Melbourne
0
False
Melbourne consists of how many municipalities?
570dfdf40b85d914000d7c7f
31
625
False
What was Melbourne's population in 2013?
570dfdf40b85d914000d7c80
4,347,955
667
False
What are the inhabitants of Melbourne called?
570dfdf40b85d914000d7c81
Melburnians
720
False
Melbourne (/ˈmɛlbərn/, AU i/ˈmɛlbən/) is the capital and most populous city in the Australian state of Victoria, and the second most populous city in Australia and Oceania. The name "Melbourne" refers to the area of urban agglomeration (as well as a census statistical division) spanning 9,900 km2 (3,800 sq mi) which comprises the broader metropolitan area, as well as being the common name for its city centre. The metropolis is located on the large natural bay of Port Phillip and expands into the hinterlands towards the Dandenong and Macedon mountain ranges, Mornington Peninsula and Yarra Valley. Melbourne consists of 31 municipalities. It has a population of 4,347,955 as of 2013, and its inhabitants are called Melburnians.
When did severe depression hit Melbourne's city?
570c488cb3d812140066d077
1890s
83
False
What went into liquidation in Melbourne around the 1890's?
570c488cb3d812140066d078
16 small "land banks" and building societies collapsed, and 133 limited companies
223
False
When did new construction start in Melbourne?
570c488cb3d812140066d079
late 1890s
581
False
When did Australia have a banking crisis?
570c488cb3d812140066d07a
1893.
473
False
During what decade did Melbourne suffer a sever economic depression?
570e4ed60dc6ce1900204f45
early 1890s
77
False
How many "land banks" and building societies collapsed during the 1890s depression in Melbourne?
570e4ed60dc6ce1900204f46
16
223
False
How many limited companies went into liquidation during the 1890s depression in Melbourne?
570e4ed60dc6ce1900204f47
133
283
False
The Melbourne financial crisis was a contributing factor to what banking crisis in 1893?
570e4ed60dc6ce1900204f48
Australian
444
False
When did new construction start to reimerge after the early 1890s depression in Melbourne?
570e4ed60dc6ce1900204f49
late 1890s
581
False
A brash boosterism that had typified Melbourne during this time ended in the early 1890s with a severe depression of the city's economy, sending the local finance and property industries into a period of chaos during which 16 small "land banks" and building societies collapsed, and 133 limited companies went into liquidation. The Melbourne financial crisis was a contributing factor in the Australian economic depression of the 1890s and the Australian banking crisis of 1893. The effects of the depression on the city were profound, with virtually no new construction until the late 1890s.
What term is given to the slums established on the souther banks of the Yarra?
570e4f8e0b85d914000d7df9
tent city
139
False
In what year was Melbourne Chinatown founded?
570e4f8e0b85d914000d7dfa
1851
250
False
Which ethninticities contributed an influx of interstate and overseas migrants to Melbourne?
570e4f8e0b85d914000d7dfb
Irish, German and Chinese
60
False
Which community is the longest continuous Chinese settlement in the Western World?
570e4f8e0b85d914000d7dfc
Melbourne Chinatown
227
False
During the second half of what century did the Burke and Wills expedition give an indication of immigration flows?
570e4f8e0b85d914000d7dfd
second half of the nineteenth century
714
False
An influx of interstate and overseas migrants, particularly Irish, German and Chinese, saw the development of slums including a temporary "tent city" established on the southern banks of the Yarra. Chinese migrants founded the Melbourne Chinatown in 1851, which remains the longest continuous Chinese settlement in the Western World. In the aftermath of the Eureka Stockade, mass public support for the plight of the miners resulted in major political changes to the colony, including changes to working conditions across local industries including mining, agriculture and manufacturing. The nationalities involved in the Eureka revolt and Burke and Wills expedition gave an indication of immigration flows in the second half of the nineteenth century.
In what year was a telephone exchange established in Melbourne?
570e50150dc6ce1900204f59
1880
126
False
When was the first electric light installed in the Eastern Market?
570e50150dc6ce1900204f5a
1881
233
False
In what year was the first line of the Melbourne cable tramway system built?
570e50150dc6ce1900204f5b
1885
404
False
In what building was the Melbourne Internation Exhibition of 1880 held?
570e50150dc6ce1900204f5c
Exhibition Building
102
False
The decade began with the Melbourne International Exhibition in 1880, held in the large purpose-built Exhibition Building. In 1880 a telephone exchange was established and in the same year the foundations of St Paul's, were laid; in 1881 electric light was installed in the Eastern Market, and in the following year a generating station capable of supplying 2,000 incandescent lamps was in operation. In 1885 the first line of the Melbourne cable tramway system was built, becoming one of the worlds most extensive systems by 1890.
What weather phrase has become part of local popular culture in Melbourne and concerns the city's rapid change in weather?
570e50af0b85d914000d7e0d
four seasons in one day
553
False
What is the lowest temperature on Melbourne's record?
570e50af0b85d914000d7e0e
−2.8 °C (27.0 °F)
705
False
On what date did the lowest temperature in Melbourne's records occur?
570e50af0b85d914000d7e0f
21 July 1869
727
False
What is Melbourne's highest temperature recorded?
570e50af0b85d914000d7e10
46.4 °C (115.5 °F)
796
False
On what date was Melbourne's highest temperature recorded?
570e50af0b85d914000d7e11
7 February 2009
819
False
Melbourne is also prone to isolated convective showers forming when a cold pool crosses the state, especially if there is considerable daytime heating. These showers are often heavy and can contain hail and squalls and significant drops in temperature, but they pass through very quickly at times with a rapid clearing trend to sunny and relatively calm weather and the temperature rising back to what it was before the shower. This often occurs in the space of minutes and can be repeated many times in a day, giving Melbourne a reputation for having "four seasons in one day", a phrase that is part of local popular culture and familiar to many visitors to the city. The lowest temperature on record is −2.8 °C (27.0 °F), on 21 July 1869. The highest temperature recorded in Melbourne city was 46.4 °C (115.5 °F), on 7 February 2009. While snow is occasionally seen at higher elevations in the outskirts of the city, it has not been recorded in the Central Business District since 1986.
What is the tallest tower in Australia?
570e51420b85d914000d7e17
Eureka Tower
235
False
Which tower is Melbourne's second tallest?
570e51420b85d914000d7e18
The Rialto
372
False
Is the observation deck in The Rialto currently opened or closed?
570e51420b85d914000d7e19
closed
509
False
On which of Melbourne's banks is the Eureka Tower located?
570e51420b85d914000d7e1a
Southbank
261
False
What building is the tallest building in the old CBD?
570e51420b85d914000d7e1b
The Rialto tower
372
False
Melbourne's CBD, compared with other Australian cities, has comparatively unrestricted height limits and as a result of waves of post-war development contains five of the six tallest buildings in Australia, the tallest of which is the Eureka Tower, situated in Southbank. It has an observation deck near the top from where you can see above all of Melbourne's structures. The Rialto tower, the city's second tallest, remains the tallest building in the old CBD; its observation deck for visitors has recently closed.
To what areas has Melbourne dedicated substantial international investment?
570e529d0b85d914000d7e33
industries and property market
158
False
In what areas has major inner-city urban renewal occurred?
570e529d0b85d914000d7e34
Southbank, Port Melbourne, Melbourne Docklands and more recently, South Wharf
251
False
Melbourne has sustained the highest population increase and economic growth rate in any Australian city according to what organization?
570e529d0b85d914000d7e35
Australian Bureau of Statistics
347
False
How many years did Melbourne sustain the highest population increase and economic growth?
570e529d0b85d914000d7e36
three
495
False
Since the mid-1990s, Melbourne has maintained significant population and employment growth. There has been substantial international investment in the city's industries and property market. Major inner-city urban renewal has occurred in areas such as Southbank, Port Melbourne, Melbourne Docklands and more recently, South Wharf. According to the Australian Bureau of Statistics, Melbourne sustained the highest population increase and economic growth rate of any Australian capital city in the three years ended June 2004. These factors have led to population growth and further suburban expansion through the 2000s.
What is generating high demand for housing in Melbourne?
570e53690b85d914000d7e3b
high population growth
26
False
What effect has the housing boom had on house prices and rents?
570e53690b85d914000d7e3c
increased
108
False
Which of Melbourne's suburbs have seen significant brownfields redevelopment in recent years?
570e53690b85d914000d7e3d
middle and outer-ring
515
False
What types of surburban development did Melbourne policies promote?
570e53690b85d914000d7e3e
medium-density and high-density
381
False
Melbourne is experiencing high population growth, generating high demand for housing. This housing boom has increased house prices and rents, as well as the availability of all types of housing. Subdivision regularly occurs in the outer areas of Melbourne, with numerous developers offering house and land packages. However, after 10 years[when?] of planning policies to encourage medium-density and high-density development in existing areas with greater access to public transport and other services, Melbourne's middle and outer-ring suburbs have seen significant brownfields redevelopment.
Who was Melbourne named by?
570e56af0dc6ce1900204f61
the Governor of New South Wales, Sir Richard Bourke
222
False
Who was Melbourne named in honor of?
570e56af0dc6ce1900204f62
the British Prime Minister of the day, William Lamb, 2nd Viscount Melbourne
288
False
What year was Melbourne officially declared a city?
570e56af0dc6ce1900204f63
1847
420
False
What year did Melbourne cease in serving as the nations interim seat of government?
570e56af0dc6ce1900204f64
1927
730
False
Melbourne became the capital of what colony in 1851?
570e56af0dc6ce1900204f65
Victoria
491
False
Founded by free settlers from the British Crown colony of Van Diemen's Land on 30 August 1835, in what was then the colony of New South Wales, it was incorporated as a Crown settlement in 1837. It was named "Melbourne" by the Governor of New South Wales, Sir Richard Bourke, in honour of the British Prime Minister of the day, William Lamb, 2nd Viscount Melbourne. It was officially declared a city by Queen Victoria in 1847, after which it became the capital of the newly founded colony of Victoria in 1851. During the Victorian gold rush of the 1850s, it was transformed into one of the world's largest and wealthiest cities. After the federation of Australia in 1901, it served as the nation's interim seat of government until 1927.
In what year did Melbourne set a target to reduce carbon emissions to net zero?
570e57e50dc6ce1900204f6b
2002
79
False
By what year did Melbourne state it wished to be completely carbon neutral?
570e57e50dc6ce1900204f6c
2020
140
False
Which city notably opted not to become carbon neutral in 2009?
570e57e50dc6ce1900204f6d
City of Glen Eira
278
False
Does Melbourne have one of the largest or smallest carbon footprints in the world?
570e57e50dc6ce1900204f6e
largest
376
False
Who is responsible for regulating pollution in Melbourne?
570e57e50dc6ce1900204f6f
EPA Victoria and several local councils
1660
False
In response to attribution of recent climate change, the City of Melbourne, in 2002, set a target to reduce carbon emissions to net zero by 2020 and Moreland City Council established the Zero Moreland program, however not all metropolitan municipalities have followed, with the City of Glen Eira notably deciding in 2009 not to become carbon neutral. Melbourne has one of the largest urban footprints in the world due to its low density housing, resulting in a vast suburban sprawl, with a high level of car dependence and minimal public transport outside of inner areas. Much of the vegetation within the city are non-native species, most of European origin, and in many cases plays host to invasive species and noxious weeds. Significant introduced urban pests include the common myna, feral pigeon, brown rat, European wasp, common starling and red fox. Many outlying suburbs, particularly towards the Yarra Valley and the hills to the north-east and east, have gone for extended periods without regenerative fires leading to a lack of saplings and undergrowth in urbanised native bushland. The Department of Sustainability and Environment partially addresses this problem by regularly burning off. Several national parks have been designated around the urban area of Melbourne, including the Mornington Peninsula National Park, Port Phillip Heads Marine National Park and Point Nepean National Park in the south east, Organ Pipes National Park to the north and Dandenong Ranges National Park to the east. There are also a number of significant state parks just outside Melbourne. Responsibility for regulating pollution falls under the jurisdiction of the EPA Victoria and several local councils. Air pollution, by world standards, is classified as being good. Summer and autumn are the worst times of year for atmospheric haze in the urban area.
Who designed the Rialto Building in 1889?
570e58ee0dc6ce1900204f75
William Pitt
390
False
Who designed the Winfield Building in 1890?
570e58ee0dc6ce1900204f76
Charles D'Ebro and Richard Speight
448
False
Which building was listed as the 13th tallest residential building in the world in January 2014?
570e58ee0dc6ce1900204f77
Eureka Tower
560
False
In what year was the Eureka Tower completed?
570e58ee0dc6ce1900204f78
2006
574
False
How does Melbourne's skyline rank in terms of other skylines in Australia?
570e58ee0dc6ce1900204f79
second largest
157
False
In 2012, the city contained a total of 594 high-rise buildings, with 8 under construction, 71 planned and 39 at proposal stage making the city's skyline the second largest in Australia. The CBD is dominated by modern office buildings including the Rialto Towers (1986), built on the site of several grand classical Victorian buildings, two of which — the Rialto Building (1889) designed by William Pitt and the Winfield Building (1890) designed by Charles D'Ebro and Richard Speight — still remain today and more recently hi-rise apartment buildings including Eureka Tower (2006), which is listed as the 13th tallest residential building in the world in January 2014.
Tasmania was formerly known as what?
570e59ea0dc6ce1900204f7f
Van Diemen's Land
156
False
Current central and northern Melbourne was explored by whom?
570e59ea0dc6ce1900204f80
John Batman
91
False
How many acres did John Batman claim to purchase?
570e59ea0dc6ce1900204f81
600,000
244
False
How many elders did John Batman claim to have negotiated with?
570e59ea0dc6ce1900204f82
eight
275
False
On what date did Batman reach Melbourne?
570e59ea0dc6ce1900204f83
2 September 1835
935
False
In May and June 1835, the area which is now central and northern Melbourne was explored by John Batman, a leading member of the Port Phillip Association in Van Diemen's Land (now known as Tasmania), who claimed to have negotiated a purchase of 600,000 acres (2,400 km2) with eight Wurundjeri elders. Batman selected a site on the northern bank of the Yarra River, declaring that "this will be the place for a village". Batman then returned to Launceston in Tasmania. In early August 1835 a different group of settlers, including John Pascoe Fawkner, left Launceston on the ship Enterprize. Fawkner was forced to disembark at Georgetown, Tasmania, because of outstanding debts. The remainder of the party continued and arrived at the mouth of the Yarra River on 15 August 1835. On 30 August 1835 the party disembarked and established a settlement at the site of the current Melbourne Immigration Museum. Batman and his group arrived on 2 September 1835 and the two groups ultimately agreed to share the settlement.
What is locally referred to as the Australian Dream?
570e5b3b0dc6ce1900204f89
quarter acre home and garden
139
False
Which year marked the start of the private automobile's popularity increase?
570e5b3b0dc6ce1900204f8a
1945
304
False
Do the Docklands, St. Kilda Road, and Southbank areas feature high-density or low-density forms?
570e5b3b0dc6ce1900204f8b
high-density
651
False
Is much of Melbourne's metropolitan area characterized as low-density sprawl or high-density sprawl?
570e5b3b0dc6ce1900204f8c
low density
464
False
Melbourne is typical of Australian capital cities in that after the turn of the 20th century, it expanded with the underlying notion of a 'quarter acre home and garden' for every family, often referred to locally as the Australian Dream. This, coupled with the popularity of the private automobile after 1945, led to the auto-centric urban structure now present today in the middle and outer suburbs. Much of metropolitan Melbourne is accordingly characterised by low density sprawl, whilst its inner city areas feature predominantly medium-density, transit-oriented urban forms. The city centre, Docklands, St. Kilda Road and Southbank areas feature high-density forms.
When Victoria was established as a seperate colony, the need for what followed?
570e5bf40dc6ce1900204f91
public buildings
157
False
During what two decades were the Parliament House, Treasury Building, Victoria Barracks, State Library, and General Post Office commenced?
570e5bf40dc6ce1900204f92
1850s and 1860s
229
False
Melbourne's weath was due in part to what event?
570e5bf40dc6ce1900204f93
gold rush
34
False
With the wealth brought on by the gold rush following closely on the heels of the establishment of Victoria as a separate colony and the subsequent need for public buildings, a program of grand civic construction soon began. The 1850s and 1860s saw the commencement of Parliament House, the Treasury Building, the Old Melbourne Gaol, Victoria Barracks, the State Library, University, General Post Office, Customs House, the Melbourne Town Hall, St Patrick's cathedral, though many remained uncompleted for decades, with some still not finished.
Which writer's festival is home to Melbourne?
570e5ce90dc6ce1900204f97
Melbourne Writers Festival
444
False
What type of work are The Mystery of a Hansom Cab, Monkey Grip, and The Slap?
570e5ce90dc6ce1900204f98
novels
630
False
What do the novels The Mystery of a Hansom Cab, Monkey Grip, and The Slap have in common?
570e5ce90dc6ce1900204f99
set in Melbourne
637
False
Where are Peter Carey, Germaine Greer, and Thomas Browne from?
570e5ce90dc6ce1900204f9a
Melbourne
796
False
What occupation to Peter Carey, Germaine Greer, and Thomas Browne hold?
570e5ce90dc6ce1900204f9b
writers and poets
773
False
Melbourne's rich and diverse literary history was recognised in 2008 when it became the second UNESCO City of Literature. The State Library of Victoria is one of Australia's oldest cultural institutions and one of many public and university libraries across the city. Melbourne also has Australia's widest range of bookstores, as well the nation's largest publishing sector. The city is home to significant writers' festivals, most notably the Melbourne Writers Festival. Several major literary prizes are open to local writers including the Melbourne Prize for Literature and the Victorian Premier's Literary Awards. Significant novels set in Melbourne include Fergus Hume's The Mystery of a Hansom Cab, Helen Garner's Monkey Grip and Christos Tsiolkas' The Slap. Notable writers and poets from Melbourne include Thomas Browne, C. J. Dennis, Germaine Greer and Peter Carey.
Which phrase was coined by George Augustus Henry Sala during a visit to Melbourne in 1885?
570e5daf0dc6ce1900204fab
Marvellous Melbourne
88
False
In what year did the land boom reach its peak of development?
570e5daf0dc6ce1900204fac
1888
259
False
In what year was a hydraulic facility established?
570e5daf0dc6ce1900204fad
1887
543
False
In what year was the APA Building completed?
570e5daf0dc6ce1900204fae
1889
755
False
What did Melbourne's hydraulic facilities help create that spurred high-rise developments?
570e5daf0dc6ce1900204faf
elevators
585
False
During a visit in 1885 English journalist George Augustus Henry Sala coined the phrase "Marvellous Melbourne", which stuck long into the twentieth century and is still used today by Melburnians. Growing building activity culminated in a "land boom" which, in 1888, reached a peak of speculative development fuelled by consumer confidence and escalating land value. As a result of the boom, large commercial buildings, coffee palaces, terrace housing and palatial mansions proliferated in the city. The establishment of a hydraulic facility in 1887 allowed for the local manufacture of elevators, resulting in the first construction of high-rise buildings; most notably the APA Building, amongst the world's tallest commercial buildings upon completion in 1889. This period also saw the expansion of a major radial rail-based transport network.
Melbourne is the world's most liveable city according to whom?
570e5eae0dc6ce1900204fbf
Economist Intelligence Unit
205
False
For how many years has Melbourne been considered the world's most liveable city?
570e5eae0dc6ce1900204fc0
fifth year in a row
159
False
Which city is referred to as Australia's cultural capital?
570e5eae0dc6ce1900204fc1
Melbourne
806
False
What is one example of Australian contemporary dance?
570e5eae0dc6ce1900204fc2
Melbourne Shuffle
598
False
Melbourne rates highly in education, entertainment, health care, research and development, tourism and sport, making it the world's most liveable city—for the fifth year in a row in 2015, according to the Economist Intelligence Unit. It is a leading financial centre in the Asia-Pacific region, and ranks among the top 30 cities in the world in the Global Financial Centres Index. Referred to as Australia's "cultural capital", it is the birthplace of Australian impressionism, Australian rules football, the Australian film and television industries, and Australian contemporary dance such as the Melbourne Shuffle. It is recognised as a UNESCO City of Literature and a major centre for street art, music and theatre. It is home to many of Australia's largest and oldest cultural institutions such as the Melbourne Cricket Ground, the National Gallery of Victoria, the State Library of Victoria and the UNESCO World Heritage-listed Royal Exhibition Building.
How many of the top twenty high school sin Australia are located in Mebourne according to the Better Education ranking?
570e5fa90b85d914000d7e75
six
169
False
According to the Toyal Melbourne Institute of Technology, how did Melborne rank as a top university city in 2008?
570e5fa90b85d914000d7e76
fourth
344
False
How many public universities are located in Melbourne?
570e5fa90b85d914000d7e77
seven
506
False
Is the University of Melbourne a public or private institution?
570e5fa90b85d914000d7e78
public
512
False
Has there been a recent increase or decrease in international students studying in Melbourne?
570e5fa90b85d914000d7e79
rapid increase
221
False
Some of Australia's most prominent and well known schools are based in Melbourne. Of the top twenty high schools in Australia according to the Better Education ranking, six are located in Melbourne. There has also been a rapid increase in the number of International students studying in the city. Furthermore, Melbourne was ranked the world's fourth top university city in 2008 after London, Boston and Tokyo in a poll commissioned by the Royal Melbourne Institute of Technology. Melbourne is the home of seven public universities: the University of Melbourne, Monash University, Royal Melbourne Institute of Technology (RMIT University), Deakin University, La Trobe University, Swinburne University of Technology and Victoria University.
In what year were height limits lifted in the Melbourne CBD?
570e61ce0b85d914000d7e7f
1958
50
False
Which was the first new indoor mall in Melbourne?
570e61ce0b85d914000d7e80
Chadstone Shopping Centre
244
False
What happened to many of the larger suburban mansions from the boom era?
570e61ce0b85d914000d7e81
demolished or subdivided
612
False
Which two areas saw a significant renewal after the post-war period and significantly modernised the city?
570e61ce0b85d914000d7e82
CBD and St Kilda Road
323
False
Height limits in the Melbourne CBD were lifted in 1958, after the construction of ICI House, transforming the city's skyline with the introduction of skyscrapers. Suburban expansion then intensified, serviced by new indoor malls beginning with Chadstone Shopping Centre. The post-war period also saw a major renewal of the CBD and St Kilda Road which significantly modernised the city. New fire regulations and redevelopment saw most of the taller pre-war CBD buildings either demolished or partially retained through a policy of facadism. Many of the larger suburban mansions from the boom era were also either demolished or subdivided.
In what year was Melbourne the host city for the first Olympic Games held in the southern hemisphere?
570e63fe0dc6ce1900205003
1956
46
False
Previous to Melbourne, where were all Olympic games held?
570e63fe0dc6ce1900205004
Europe and the United States
174
False
In what three years was Melbourne proclaimed the "World's Ultimate Sports City"?
570e63fe0dc6ce1900205005
2006, 2008 and 2010
732
False
Where did the National Sports Museum reopen in 2008?
570e63fe0dc6ce1900205006
Olympic Stand
919
False
Which city is so far the southernmost city to host the Olympic Games?
570e63fe0dc6ce1900205007
Melbourne
245
False
Melbourne is notable as the host city for the 1956 Summer Olympic Games (the first Olympic Games held in the southern hemisphere and Oceania, with all previous games held in Europe and the United States), along with the 2006 Commonwealth Games. Melbourne is so far the southernmost city to host the games. The city is home to three major annual international sporting events: the Australian Open (one of the four Grand Slam tennis tournaments); the Melbourne Cup (horse racing); and the Australian Grand Prix (Formula One). Also, the Australian Masters golf tournament is held at Melbourne since 1979, having been co-sanctioned by the European Tour from 2006 to 2009. Melbourne was proclaimed the "World's Ultimate Sports City", in 2006, 2008 and 2010. The city is home to the National Sports Museum, which until 2003 was located outside the members pavilion at the Melbourne Cricket Ground. It reopened in 2008 in the Olympic Stand.
In what year was the first plan for the city commissioned?
570e66100dc6ce190020500d
1837
382
False
What was the first plan for the city in 1837 called?
570e66100dc6ce190020500e
the Hoddle Grid
362
False
On what date did the official general post office open?
570e66100dc6ce190020500f
13 April 1837
648
False
What was the settlement originally named?
570e66100dc6ce1900205010
Batmania
413
False
Batman's Treaty with the Aborigines was annulled by the New South Wales governor (who at the time governed all of eastern mainland Australia), with compensation paid to members of the association. In 1836, Governor Bourke declared the city the administrative capital of the Port Phillip District of New South Wales, and commissioned the first plan for the city, the Hoddle Grid, in 1837. The settlement was named Batmania after Batman. However, later that year the settlement was named "Melbourne" after the British Prime Minister, William Lamb, 2nd Viscount Melbourne, whose seat was Melbourne Hall in the market town of Melbourne, Derbyshire. On 13 April 1837 the settlement's general post office officially opened with that name.
Was Melbourne more or less affected by the Late-2000s financial crisis in comparison to other Australian cities?
570e67a80b85d914000d7e91
less affected
310
False
Which market in Melbourne remained strong during the Late-2000s financial crisis and resulted in historically high property prices and rent increases?
570e67a80b85d914000d7e92
property market
587
False
After Melbourne, which were the next two fastest growing Australian cities in 2009?
570e67a80b85d914000d7e93
Brisbane and Perth
541
False
What is the name given to Melbourne's population strategy that was revised in 2008?
570e67a80b85d914000d7e94
Melbourne @ Five Million strategy
252
False
From 2006, the growth of the city extended into "green wedges" and beyond the city's urban growth boundary. Predictions of the city's population reaching 5 million people pushed the state government to review the growth boundary in 2008 as part of its Melbourne @ Five Million strategy. In 2009, Melbourne was less affected by the Late-2000s financial crisis in comparison to other Australian cities. At this time, more new jobs were created in Melbourne than any other Australian city—almost as many as the next two fastest growing cities, Brisbane and Perth, combined, and Melbourne's property market remained strong, resulting in historically high property prices and widespread rent increases.
How many of the big four banks are headquartered in Melbourne?
570e69280dc6ce190020503b
Two
49
False
Which two of the big four banks are headquartered in Melbourne?
570e69280dc6ce190020503c
NAB and ANZ
76
False
Which city is Australia's second-largest industrial centre?
570e69280dc6ce190020503d
Melbourne
0
False
Which south-eastern suburb is home to Nintendo's Australian headquarters?
570e69280dc6ce190020503e
Scoresby
965
False
Melbourne is home to a research and development hub for which auto manufacturer?
570e69280dc6ce190020503f
Ford Australia
1077
False
Melbourne is also an important financial centre. Two of the big four banks, NAB and ANZ, are headquartered in Melbourne. The city has carved out a niche as Australia's leading centre for superannuation (pension) funds, with 40% of the total, and 65% of industry super-funds including the $109 billion-dollar Federal Government Future Fund. The city was rated 41st within the top 50 financial cities as surveyed by the MasterCard Worldwide Centers of Commerce Index (2008), second only to Sydney (12th) in Australia. Melbourne is Australia's second-largest industrial centre. It is the Australian base for a number of significant manufacturers including Boeing, truck-makers Kenworth and Iveco, Cadbury as well as Bombardier Transportation and Jayco, among many others. It is also home to a wide variety of other manufacturers, ranging from petrochemicals and pharmaceuticals to fashion garments, paper manufacturing and food processing. The south-eastern suburb of Scoresby is home to Nintendo's Australian headquarters. The city also boasts a research and development hub for Ford Australia, as well as a global design studio and technical centre for General Motors and Toyota respectively.
In what two decades was the layout of Melbourne's inner suburbs established?
570e69d10b85d914000d7ea3
1850s and 1860s
189
False
In what year did the Melbourne Cricket Club secure possession of its now famous ground, the MCG?
570e69d10b85d914000d7ea4
1855
557
False
Around what year did Yarra rowing clubs and "regattas" become popular?
570e69d10b85d914000d7ea5
1859
714
False
In what year was the Melbourne Cup first run?
570e69d10b85d914000d7ea6
1861
797
False
What was the first public monumnet acquired in Melbourne in 1864?
570e69d10b85d914000d7ea7
the Burke and Wills statue
888
False
The layout of the inner suburbs on a largely one-mile grid pattern, cut through by wide radial boulevards, and string of gardens surrounding the central city was largely established in the 1850s and 1860s. These areas were rapidly filled from the mid 1850s by the ubiquitous terrace house, as well as detached houses and some grand mansions in large grounds, while some of the major roads developed as shopping streets. Melbourne quickly became a major finance centre, home to several banks, the Royal Mint, and Australia's first stock exchange in 1861. In 1855 the Melbourne Cricket Club secured possession of its now famous ground, the MCG. Members of the Melbourne Football Club codified Australian football in 1859, and Yarra rowing clubs and "regattas" became popular about the same time. In 1861 the Melbourne Cup was first run. In 1864 Melbourne acquired its first public monument—the Burke and Wills statue.
What percentage of Melburnians speak only English at home?
570e6a590b85d914000d7ead
68.1%
59
False
What is the second-most-common language in Melborne?
570e6a590b85d914000d7eae
Chinese
67
False
The Melbourne statistical division population has grown by how many people each year since 2005?
570e6a590b85d914000d7eaf
70,000
391
False
What factors make Melbourne more attractie than Sydney for overseas immigrants?
570e6a590b85d914000d7eb0
more affordable housing and cost of living
679
False
Over two-thirds of Melburnians speak only English at home (68.1%). Chinese (mainly Cantonese and Mandarin) is the second-most-common language spoken at home (3.6%), with Greek third, Italian fourth and Vietnamese fifth, each with more than 100,000 speakers. Although Victoria's net interstate migration has fluctuated, the population of the Melbourne statistical division has grown by about 70,000 people a year since 2005. Melbourne has now attracted the largest proportion of international overseas immigrants (48,000) finding it outpacing Sydney's international migrant intake on percentage, along with having strong interstate migration from Sydney and other capitals due to more affordable housing and cost of living.
During which seasons are Melbourne's temperature differentials most pronounced?
570e6b5f0b85d914000d7ebf
spring and summer
317
False
Which type of weather fronts are responsible for severe weather such as gales, thunderstorms, hail, and heavy rain in Melbourne?
570e6b5f0b85d914000d7ec0
cold fronts
395
False
What is Melbourne's Koppen climate classification?
570e6b5f0b85d914000d7ec1
Cfb
73
False
Is Melbourne known for changeable or steady weather patterns?
570e6b5f0b85d914000d7ec2
changeable
104
False
What is one cause for Melbourne's fluctuating weather patterns?
570e6b5f0b85d914000d7ec3
Melbourne's location situated on the boundary of the very hot inland areas and the cool southern ocean
157
False
Melbourne has a temperate oceanic climate (Köppen climate classification Cfb) and is well known for its changeable weather conditions. This is mainly due to Melbourne's location situated on the boundary of the very hot inland areas and the cool southern ocean. This temperature differential is most pronounced in the spring and summer months and can cause very strong cold fronts to form. These cold fronts can be responsible for all sorts of severe weather from gales to severe thunderstorms and hail, large temperature drops, and heavy rain.
Which government project aimed to deepen Melbourne ports by dredging?
570e6d560b85d914000d7ed3
the Port Phillip Channel Deepening Project
151
False
Why was the Port Phillip Channel Deppening Project subject to controversy and strict regulations?
570e6d560b85d914000d7ed4
fears that beaches and marine wildlife could be affected
254
False
Up to how many cigarette butts enter the storm water runoff every day in Melbourne?
570e6d560b85d914000d7ed5
350,000
557
False
What initiative was launched in Melbourne in February 2010 as an effort to transition human society towards sustainability?
570e6d560b85d914000d7ed6
The Transition Decade
717
False
What causes increased pollution and levels of bacteria such as E. coli to rise in the Yarra River and its tributaries?
570e6d560b85d914000d7ed7
septic systems, as well as litter
516
False
Another recent environmental issue in Melbourne was the Victorian government project of channel deepening Melbourne Ports by dredging Port Phillip Bay—the Port Phillip Channel Deepening Project. It was subject to controversy and strict regulations among fears that beaches and marine wildlife could be affected by the disturbance of heavy metals and other industrial sediments. Other major pollution problems in Melbourne include levels of bacteria including E. coli in the Yarra River and its tributaries caused by septic systems, as well as litter. Up to 350,000 cigarette butts enter the storm water runoff every day. Several programs are being implemented to minimise beach and river pollution. In February 2010, The Transition Decade, an initiative to transition human society, economics and environment towards sustainability, was launched in Melbourne.
Investment in what greatly accelerated the outward suburban sprawn and declining inner city population?
570e6e990dc6ce1900205057
freeway and highway developments
373
False
Which government sought to rapidly accelerate the modernisation of Melbourne?
570e6e990dc6ce1900205058
Bolte
495
False
The widening of what street helped to change the face of Melbourne into a car-dominated environment?
570e6e990dc6ce1900205059
Hoddle Street
657
False
Did the 1969 Melbourne Transportation Plan change Melbourne into a more car-dominated or tram-dominated environment?
570e6e990dc6ce190020505a
car-dominated
765
False
Did the rapid rise of motor vehicle ownership and highway developments lead to an increasing or declining inner city population?
570e6e990dc6ce190020505b
declining
458
False
To counter the trend towards low-density suburban residential growth, the government began a series of controversial public housing projects in the inner city by the Housing Commission of Victoria, which resulted in demolition of many neighbourhoods and a proliferation of high-rise towers. In later years, with the rapid rise of motor vehicle ownership, the investment in freeway and highway developments greatly accelerated the outward suburban sprawl and declining inner city population. The Bolte government sought to rapidly accelerate the modernisation of Melbourne. Major road projects including the remodelling of St Kilda Junction, the widening of Hoddle Street and then the extensive 1969 Melbourne Transportation Plan changed the face of the city into a car-dominated environment.
How many lines does the Melbourne rail network have?
570e6f710dc6ce1900205061
16
166
False
Which rail station is Melbourne's busiest?
570e6f710dc6ce1900205062
Flinders Street Station
315
False
Which Melbourne rail station was the world's busiest passenger station in 1926?
570e6f710dc6ce1900205063
Flinders Street Station
315
False
During which financial year did the Melbourne rail network record its highest volume of passenger trips?
570e6f710dc6ce1900205064
2013–2014
740
False
How often does the XPT to Sydney depart?
570e6f710dc6ce1900205065
twice a day
1041
False
The Melbourne rail network has its origins in privately built lines from the 1850s gold rush era, and today the suburban network consists of 209 suburban stations on 16 lines which radiate from the City Loop, a partially underground metro section of the network beneath the Central Business District (Hoddle Grid). Flinders Street Station is Melbourne's busiest railway station, and was the world's busiest passenger station in 1926. It remains a prominent Melbourne landmark and meeting place. The city has rail connections with regional Victorian cities, as well as direct interstate rail services to Sydney and Adelaide and beyond which depart from Melbourne's other major rail terminus, Southern Cross Station in Spencer Street. In the 2013–2014 financial year, the Melbourne rail network recorded 232.0 million passenger trips, the highest in its history. Many rail lines, along with dedicated lines and rail yards are also used for freight. The Overland to Adelaide departs Southern Cross twice a week, while the XPT to Sydney departs twice a day.
Which university maintains two major campuses in Melbourne and Geelong and is the third largest university in Victoria?
570e704e0b85d914000d7ef9
Deakin University
520
False
What is the role of the DEECD?
570e704e0b85d914000d7efa
'provide policy and planning advice for the delivery of education
970
False
Who oversees education in Melbourne?
570e704e0b85d914000d7efb
Victorian Department of Education and Early Childhood Development (DEECD)
878
False
RMIT University was also ranked among the top 51–100 universities in the world in the subjects of: accounting, Business and Management, communication and media studies, computer science and information systems. The Swinburne University of Technology, based in the inner city Melbourne suburb of Hawthorn is ranked 76–100 in the world for Physics by the Academic Ranking of World Universities making Swinburne the only Australian university outside the Group of Eight to achieve a top 100 rating in a science discipline. Deakin University maintains two major campuses in Melbourne and Geelong, and is the third largest university in Victoria. In recent years, the number of international students at Melbourne's universities has risen rapidly, a result of an increasing number of places being made available to full fee paying students. Education in Melbourne is overseen by the Victorian Department of Education and Early Childhood Development (DEECD), whose role is to 'provide policy and planning advice for the delivery of education'.
Which city is often referred to as Australia's garden city?
570e70c30b85d914000d7eff
Melbourne
0
False
Which Australian state was once known as the garden state?
570e70c30b85d914000d7f00
Victoria
76
False
Why is urban Melbourne divided into hundreds of suburbs?
570e70c30b85d914000d7f01
addressing and postal purposes
696
False
Melbourne is often referred to as Australia's garden city, and the state of Victoria was once known as the garden state. There is an abundance of parks and gardens in Melbourne, many close to the CBD with a variety of common and rare plant species amid landscaped vistas, pedestrian pathways and tree-lined avenues. Melbourne's parks are often considered the best public parks in all of Australia's major cities. There are also many parks in the surrounding suburbs of Melbourne, such as in the municipalities of Stonnington, Boroondara and Port Phillip, south east of the central business district. The extensive area covered by urban Melbourne is formally divided into hundreds of suburbs (for addressing and postal purposes), and administered as local government areas 31 of which are located within the metropolitan area.
Approximately how many sunny days does Melbourne receive annually?
570e719b0b85d914000d7f05
48.6
753
False
What is the range of Melbourne's dewpoint temperatures in the summer?
570e719b0b85d914000d7f06
9.5 °C (49.1 °F) to 11.7 °C (53.1 °F)
826
False
Which suburbs usually are affected by relatively narrow streams of heavy showers?
570e719b0b85d914000d7f07
eastern suburbs
337
False
Is Port Phillip generally warmer or colder than the surrounding oceans and/or the land mass?
570e719b0b85d914000d7f08
warmer
22
False
Port Phillip is often warmer than the surrounding oceans and/or the land mass, particularly in spring and autumn; this can set up a "bay effect" similar to the "lake effect" seen in colder climates where showers are intensified leeward of the bay. Relatively narrow streams of heavy showers can often affect the same places (usually the eastern suburbs) for an extended period, while the rest of Melbourne and surrounds stays dry. Overall, Melbourne is, owing to the rain shadow of the Otway Ranges, nonetheless drier than average for southern Victoria. Within the city and surrounds, however, rainfall varies widely, from around 425 millimetres (17 in) at Little River to 1,250 millimetres (49 in) on the eastern fringe at Gembrook. Melbourne receives 48.6 clear days annually. Dewpoint temperatures in the summer range from 9.5 °C (49.1 °F) to 11.7 °C (53.1 °F).
Which act sets functions for Melbourne such as urban planning and waste management?
570e72420dc6ce190020507f
Local Government Act 1989
78
False
From where does the Victorian state government operate?
570e72420dc6ce1900205080
Parliament House in Spring Street
260
False
Contrary to other countires, are public transport, traffic control, policing, and education the responsibility of local or state government?
570e72420dc6ce1900205081
state government
223
False
The local councils are responsible for providing the functions set out in the Local Government Act 1989 such as urban planning and waste management. Most other government services are provided or regulated by the Victorian state government, which governs from Parliament House in Spring Street. These include services which are associated with local government in other countries and include public transport, main roads, traffic control, policing, education above preschool level, health and planning of major infrastructure projects. The state government retains the right to override certain local government decisions, including urban planning, and Melburnian issues often feature prominently in state election.
What are the dimensions of the Hoddle Grid?
570e72df0dc6ce190020508f
1 by 1⁄2 mile (1.61 by 0.80 km)
31
False
Which edge of the Hoddle Grid fronts onto the Yarra River?
570e72df0dc6ce1900205090
southern
134
False
What is the name of a popular arcade located within the Hoddle Grid?
570e72df0dc6ce1900205091
Royal Arcade
464
False
The Hoddle Grid (dimensions of 1 by 1⁄2 mile (1.61 by 0.80 km)) forms the centre of Melbourne's central business district. The grid's southern edge fronts onto the Yarra River. Office, commercial and public developments in the adjoining districts of Southbank and Docklands have made these redeveloped areas into extensions of the CBD in all but name. The city centre has a reputation for its historic and prominent lanes and arcades (most notably Block Place and Royal Arcade) which contain a variety of shops and cafés and are a byproduct of the city's layout.
Which railway station was the busiest in the world in the mid-1920s?
570e737a0dc6ce1900205095
Flinders Street Station
694
False
In what year was construction on the Flinders Street Station completed?
570e737a0dc6ce1900205096
1909
719
False
On which street is the A.C. Goode House located?
570e737a0dc6ce1900205097
Collins Street
419
False
Who designed the A.C. Goode House?
570e737a0dc6ce1900205098
Wright, Reed & Beaver
446
False
What style of architecture is the A.C. Goode House?
570e737a0dc6ce1900205099
Neo Gothic
388
False
The city is recognised for its mix of modern architecture which intersects with an extensive range of nineteenth and early twentieth century buildings. Some of the most architecturally noteworthy historic buildings include the World Heritage Site-listed Royal Exhibition Building, constructed over a two-year period for the Melbourne International Exhibition in 1880, A.C. Goode House, a Neo Gothic building located on Collins Street designed by Wright, Reed & Beaver (1891), William Pitt's Venetian Gothic style Old Stock Exchange (1888), William Wardell's Gothic Bank (1883) which features some of Melbourne's finest interiors, the incomplete Parliament House, St Paul's Cathedral (1891) and Flinders Street Station (1909), which was the busiest commuter railway station in the world in the mid-1920s.
What are the two most popular sports in Melbourne?
570e73f00b85d914000d7f17
Australian rules football and cricket
0
False
When was the first official Test cricket match played at the Melbourne Cricket Ground?
570e73f00b85d914000d7f18
March 1877
232
False
Where is the Australian Football League headquartered?
570e73f00b85d914000d7f19
Docklands Stadium
393
False
How many of the Australian Football League's teams are based in the Melbourne metropolitan area?
570e73f00b85d914000d7f1a
Nine
412
False
Up to how many AFL matches are played each week in Melbourne?
570e73f00b85d914000d7f1b
five
603
False
Australian rules football and cricket are the most popular sports in Melbourne. It is considered the spiritual home of the two sports in Australia. The first official Test cricket match was played at the Melbourne Cricket Ground in March 1877. The origins of Australian rules football can be traced to matches played next to the MCG in 1858. The Australian Football League is headquartered at Docklands Stadium. Nine of the League's teams are based in the Melbourne metropolitan area: Carlton, Collingwood, Essendon, Hawthorn, Melbourne, North Melbourne, Richmond, St Kilda, and Western Bulldogs. Up to five AFL matches are played each week in Melbourne, attracting an average 40,000 people per game. Additionally, the city annually hosts the AFL Grand Final.
Which port is Australia's largest container and general cargo port?
570e74830b85d914000d7f21
The Port of Melbourne
74
False
How far upstream to water taxis run along the Yarra River?
570e74830b85d914000d7f22
South Yarra
575
False
How many shipping containers did the Port of Melbourne handle during a 12-month period in 2007, making it one of the top five ports in the Southern Hemisphere?
570e74830b85d914000d7f23
two million
191
False
Which is Australia's busiest port?
570e74830b85d914000d7f24
The Port of Melbourne
74
False
Where is Station Pier located?
570e74830b85d914000d7f25
Port Phillip Bay
337
False
Ship transport is an important component of Melbourne's transport system. The Port of Melbourne is Australia's largest container and general cargo port and also its busiest. The port handled two million shipping containers in a 12-month period during 2007, making it one of the top five ports in the Southern Hemisphere. Station Pier on Port Phillip Bay is the main passenger ship terminal with cruise ships and the Spirit of Tasmania ferries which cross Bass Strait to Tasmania docking there. Ferries and water taxis run from berths along the Yarra River as far upstream as South Yarra and across Port Phillip Bay.
How many people are employed by the ICT industry in Melbourne?
570e76540dc6ce19002050a9
60,000
242
False
What percentage of Australia's ICT workforce is imployed in Melbourne's ICT industry?
570e76540dc6ce19002050aa
one third
257
False
In 2008, Melbourne overtook what city with the amount of money that domestic tourists spent in the city?
570e76540dc6ce19002050ab
Sydney
560
False
How many international visitors did Melbourne have in 2004?
570e76540dc6ce19002050ac
1.88 million
487
False
Domestic visitors spend about how much money in the city of Melbourne annually?
570e76540dc6ce19002050ad
$15.8 billion
656
False
CSL, one of the world's top five biotech companies, and Sigma Pharmaceuticals have their headquarters in Melbourne. The two are the largest listed Australian pharmaceutical companies. Melbourne has an important ICT industry that employs over 60,000 people (one third of Australia's ICT workforce), with a turnover of $19.8 billion and export revenues of $615 million. In addition, tourism also plays an important role in Melbourne's economy, with about 7.6 million domestic visitors and 1.88 million international visitors in 2004. In 2008, Melbourne overtook Sydney with the amount of money that domestic tourists spent in the city, accounting for around $15.8 billion annually. Melbourne has been attracting an increasing share of domestic and international conference markets. Construction began in February 2006 of a $1 billion 5000-seat international convention centre, Hilton Hotel and commercial precinct adjacent to the Melbourne Exhibition and Convention Centre to link development along the Yarra River with the Southbank precinct and multibillion-dollar Docklands redevelopment.
Melbourne's population could overtake that of Sydney by 2037 or 2039 primarily due to what factor?
570e779d0dc6ce19002050b3
larger levels of internal migration losses assumed for Sydney
534
False
According to the first scenario projected by the ABS, how soon could Melbourne overtake Sydney's population level?
570e779d0dc6ce19002050b4
2037 or 2039
449
False
In how many scenarios will Sydney remain higher than Melbourne in population beyond 2056?
570e779d0dc6ce19002050b5
two
250
False
In recent years, Melton, Wyndham and Casey, part of the Melbourne statistical division, have recorded the highest growth rate of all local government areas in Australia. Melbourne could overtake Sydney in population by 2028, The ABS has projected in two scenarios that Sydney will remain larger than Melbourne beyond 2056, albeit by a margin of less than 3% compared to a margin of 12% today. Melbourne's population could overtake that of Sydney by 2037 or 2039, according to the first scenario projected by the ABS; primarily due to larger levels of internal migration losses assumed for Sydney. Another study claims that Melbourne will surpass Sydney in population by 2040.
Which theatre was Melbourne's first live performance institution?
570e78860dc6ce19002050b9
Pavilion
108
False
In what year did the Pavilion open?
570e78860dc6ce19002050ba
1841
129
False
The Princess Theatre, Regent Theatre, and Forum Theatre are members of which of Melbourne's theater districts?
570e78860dc6ce19002050bb
East End Theatre District
146
False
Where are the Melbourne Recital Centre and Southbank Theatre located?
570e78860dc6ce19002050bc
Southbank
679
False
From what year does the Sidney Myer Music Bowl date?
570e78860dc6ce19002050bd
1955
735
False
Melbourne's live performance institutions date from the foundation of the city, with the first theatre, the Pavilion, opening in 1841. The city's East End Theatre District includes theatres that similarly date from 1850s to the 1920s, including the Princess Theatre, Regent Theatre, Her Majesty's Theatre, Forum Theatre, Comedy Theatre, and the Athenaeum Theatre. The Melbourne Arts Precinct in Southbank is home to Arts Centre Melbourne, which includes the State Theatre, Hamer Hall, the Playhouse and the Fairfax Studio. The Melbourne Recital Centre and Southbank Theatre (principal home of the MTC, which includes the Sumner and Lawler performance spaces) are also located in Southbank. The Sidney Myer Music Bowl, which dates from 1955, is located in the gardens of Kings Domain; and the Palais Theatre is a feature of the St Kilda Beach foreshore.
How many daily newspapers serve Melbourne?
570e79000dc6ce19002050c3
Three
0
False
How many free-to-air television stations service Greater Melbourne and Geelong?
570e79000dc6ce19002050c4
Six
151
False
From where is C31 broadcast?
570e79000dc6ce19002050c5
transmitters at Mount Dandenong and South Yarra
493
False
What type of companies are Broadsheet and ThreeThousand?
570e79000dc6ce19002050c6
Hybrid digital/print media
542
False
Three daily newspapers serve Melbourne: the Herald Sun (tabloid), The Age (formerly broadsheet, now compact) and The Australian (national broadsheet). Six free-to-air television stations service Greater Melbourne and Geelong: ABC Victoria, (ABV), SBS Victoria (SBS), Seven Melbourne (HSV), Nine Melbourne (GTV), Ten Melbourne (ATV), C31 Melbourne (MGV) – community television. Each station (excluding C31) broadcasts a primary channel and several multichannels. C31 is only broadcast from the transmitters at Mount Dandenong and South Yarra. Hybrid digital/print media companies such as Broadsheet and ThreeThousand are based in and primarily serve Melbourne.
When did Melbourne Heart become known as Melbourne City FC?
570e79e90b85d914000d7f2b
June 2014
310
False
What are Melbourne's two ice hockey teams named?
570e79e90b85d914000d7f2c
Melbourne Ice and Melbourne Mustangs
942
False
In which river was the annual Race to Prince's Bridge held?
570e79e90b85d914000d7f2d
Yarra
1386
False
Where does the soccer club Melbourne Victory play home games?
570e79e90b85d914000d7f2e
Etihad Stadium
472
False
Which basketball club in Melbourne plays in the NBL?
570e79e90b85d914000d7f2f
Melbourne United
808
False
The city is home to many professional franchises/teams in national competitions including: cricket clubs Melbourne Stars, Melbourne Renegades and Victorian Bushrangers, which play in the Big Bash League and other domestic cricket competitions; soccer clubs Melbourne Victory and Melbourne City FC (known until June 2014 as Melbourne Heart), which play in the A-League competition, both teams play their home games at AAMI Park, with the Victory also playing home games at Etihad Stadium. Rugby league club Melbourne Storm which plays in the NRL competition; rugby union clubs Melbourne Rebels and Melbourne Rising, which play in the Super Rugby and National Rugby Championship competitions respectively; netball club Melbourne Vixens, which plays in the trans-Tasman trophy ANZ Championship; basketball club Melbourne United, which plays in the NBL competition; Bulleen Boomers and Dandenong Rangers, which play in the WNBL; ice hockey teams Melbourne Ice and Melbourne Mustangs, who play in the Australian Ice Hockey League; and baseball club Melbourne Aces, which plays in the Australian Baseball League. Rowing is also a large part of Melbourne's sporting identity, with a number of clubs located on the Yarra River, out of which many Australian Olympians trained. The city previously held the nation's premier long distance swimming event the annual Race to Prince's Bridge, in the Yarra River.
Does Melbourne have a high or low dependency on the automobile?
570e7adc0dc6ce19002050cb
high
45
False
How many private vehicles travel Melbourne's 13,870 miles of road?
570e7adc0dc6ce19002050cc
3.6 million
196
False
Which freeway spans the large Bolte Bridge?
570e7adc0dc6ce19002050cd
CityLink
979
False
Which freeway links Melbourne and Sydney?
570e7adc0dc6ce19002050ce
Hume Freeway
1123
False
Like many Australian cities, Melbourne has a high dependency on the automobile for transport, particularly in the outer suburban areas where the largest number of cars are bought, with a total of 3.6 million private vehicles using 22,320 km (13,870 mi) of road, and one of the highest lengths of road per capita in the world. The early 20th century saw an increase in popularity of automobiles, resulting in large-scale suburban expansion. By the mid 1950s there was just under 200 passenger vehicles per 1000 people by 2013 there was 600 passenger vehicles per 1000 people. Today it has an extensive network of freeways and arterial roadways used by private vehicles including freight as well as public transport systems including bus and taxis. Major highways feeding into the city include the Eastern Freeway, Monash Freeway and West Gate Freeway (which spans the large West Gate Bridge), whilst other freeways circumnavigate the city or lead to other major cities, including CityLink (which spans the large Bolte Bridge), Eastlink, the Western Ring Road, Calder Freeway, Tullamarine Freeway (main airport link) and the Hume Freeway which links Melbourne and Sydney.
What have Postcode 3000 and Melbourne 2030 aimed to do?
570e7b8c0b85d914000d7f35
curtail urban sprawl
245
False
How many people did Carlton have per km2 between 2012 and 2013?
570e7b8c0b85d914000d7f36
9,000
526
False
How many people did Fitzroy have per km2 between 2012 and 2013?
570e7b8c0b85d914000d7f37
7,900
561
False
According to the Australian Bureau of Statistics as of June 2013, inner city Melbourne had a population density of how many people per km2?
570e7b8c0b85d914000d7f38
12,400
394
False
After a trend of declining population density since World War II, the city has seen increased density in the inner and western suburbs, aided in part by Victorian Government planning, such as Postcode 3000 and Melbourne 2030 which have aimed to curtail urban sprawl. According to the Australian Bureau of Statistics as of June 2013, inner city Melbourne had the highest population density with 12,400 people per km2. Surrounding inner city suburbs experienced an increase in population density between 2012 and 2013; Carlton (9,000 people per km2) and Fitzroy (7,900).
Where are Million Dollar Minute and Family Feud based?
570e7c160b85d914000d7f3d
Melbourne
441
False
Where are Dancing with the Stars, MasterChef, and The Block filmed?
570e7c160b85d914000d7f3e
in and around Melbourne
589
False
Neighbours, Kath & Kim, Winners and Losers, Offspring, and Underbelly are examples of what kind of media produced in Melbourne?
570e7c160b85d914000d7f3f
Television shows
0
False
Which national news-based programs are based in Melbourne?
570e7c160b85d914000d7f40
The Project, Insiders and ABC News Breakfast
235
False
Which city is known as the game show capital of Australia?
570e7c160b85d914000d7f41
Melbourne
281
False
Television shows are produced in Melbourne, most notably Neighbours, Kath & Kim, Winners and Losers, Offspring, Underbelly , House Husbands, Wentworth and Miss Fisher's Murder Mysteries, along with national news-based programs such as The Project, Insiders and ABC News Breakfast. Melbourne is also known as the game show capital of Australia; productions such as Million Dollar Minute, Millionaire Hot Seat and Family Feud are all based in Melbourne. Reality television productions such as Dancing with the Stars, MasterChef, The Block and The Real Housewives of Melbourne are all filmed in and around Melbourne.
How many airports does Melbourne have?
570e7ca50b85d914000d7f47
four
14
False
Which airport is the city's main international and domestic gateway?
570e7ca50b85d914000d7f48
Melbourne Airport
29
False
Which airport is the second busiest in all of Australia?
570e7ca50b85d914000d7f49
Melbourne Airport
29
False
What are the only forms of public transport to and from the city's main airports?
570e7ca50b85d914000d7f4a
Buses and taxis
497
False
Melbourne has four airports. Melbourne Airport, at Tullamarine, is the city's main international and domestic gateway and second busiest in Australia. The airport is home base for passenger airlines Jetstar Airways and Tiger Airways Australia and cargo airlines Australian air Express and Toll Priority; and is a major hub for Qantas and Virgin Australia. Avalon Airport, located between Melbourne and Geelong, is a secondary hub of Jetstar. It is also used as a freight and maintenance facility. Buses and taxis are the only forms of public transport to and from the city's main airports. Air Ambulance facilities are available for domestic and international transportation of patients. Melbourne also has a significant general aviation airport, Moorabbin Airport in the city's south east that also handles a small number of passenger flights. Essendon Airport, which was once the city's main airport also handles passenger flights, general aviation and some cargo flights.
Which rail station was the world's busiest passenger station in 1927?
570e7da40dc6ce19002050d3
Flinders Street Station
110
False
In the 1940s, what percentage of travellers used public transport?
570e7da40dc6ce19002050d4
25%
289
False
In 2003, what percentage of travellers used public transport?
570e7da40dc6ce19002050d5
7.6%
365
False
In what year was the public transport system privatised?
570e7da40dc6ce19002050d6
1999
417
False
What was the target percentage of public transport mode share that was set by the state government in 2006?
570e7da40dc6ce19002050d7
20%
737
False
Melbourne has an integrated public transport system based around extensive train, tram, bus and taxi systems. Flinders Street Station was the world's busiest passenger station in 1927 and Melbourne's tram network overtook Sydney's to become the world's largest in the 1940s, at which time 25% of travellers used public transport but by 2003 it had declined to just 7.6%. The public transport system was privatised in 1999, symbolising the peak of the decline. Despite privatisation and successive governments persisting with auto-centric urban development into the 21st century, there have since been large increases in public transport patronage, with the mode share for commuters increasing to 14.8% and 8.4% of all trips. A target of 20% public transport mode share for Melbourne by 2020 was set by the state government in 2006. Since 2006 public transport patronage has grown by over 20%.
Who manages the water storage and supply for Melbourne?
570e7e5a0b85d914000d7f4f
Melbourne Water
53
False
Who owns Melbourne Water?
570e7e5a0b85d914000d7f50
the Victorian Government
88
False
Which is Melbourne's largest dam?
570e7e5a0b85d914000d7f51
Thomson River Dam
411
False
Where is the Thomson River Dam located?
570e7e5a0b85d914000d7f52
Victorian Alps
445
False
How much of Melbourne's water capacity is the Thomson River Dam capable of holding?
570e7e5a0b85d914000d7f53
60%
490
False
Water storage and supply for Melbourne is managed by Melbourne Water, which is owned by the Victorian Government. The organisation is also responsible for management of sewerage and the major water catchments in the region as well as the Wonthaggi desalination plant and North–South Pipeline. Water is stored in a series of reservoirs located within and outside the Greater Melbourne area. The largest dam, the Thomson River Dam, located in the Victorian Alps, is capable of holding around 60% of Melbourne's water capacity, while smaller dams such as the Upper Yarra Dam, Yan Yean Reservoir, and the Cardinia Reservoir carry secondary supplies.
Melbourne experienced rapid growth after 1851 due to the discovery of what?
570e7ff60b85d914000d7f59
gold
17
False
Melbourne and which other regional cities became the wealthiest cities in the world during the Gold Rush era?
570e7ff60b85d914000d7f5a
Ballarat and Geelong
487
False
How much did Melbourne's population increase within months of the gold rush?
570e7ff60b85d914000d7f5b
three-quarters, from 25,000 to 40,000 inhabitants
254
False
By what year had Melbourne overtaken Sydney as Australia's most populous city?
570e7ff60b85d914000d7f5c
1865
347
False
The discovery of gold in Victoria in mid 1851 led to the Victorian gold rush, and Melbourne, which served as the major port and provided most services for the region, experienced rapid growth. Within months, the city's population had increased by nearly three-quarters, from 25,000 to 40,000 inhabitants. Thereafter, growth was exponential and by 1865, Melbourne had overtaken Sydney as Australia's most populous city. Additionally, Melbourne along with the Victorian regional cities of Ballarat and Geelong became the wealthiest cities in the world during the Gold Rush era.
On what date was the first federal parliament convened?
570e808e0b85d914000d7f61
9 May 1901
161
False
Where was the first federal parliament convened in 1901?
570e808e0b85d914000d7f62
Royal Exhibition Building
179
False
The Governor-General of Australia resided at the Government House in Melbourne until what year?
570e808e0b85d914000d7f63
1930
405
False
Where was the federal parliament moved after 1927?
570e808e0b85d914000d7f64
Canberra
314
False
At the time of Australia's federation on 1 January 1901, Melbourne became the seat of government of the federation. The first federal parliament was convened on 9 May 1901 in the Royal Exhibition Building, subsequently moving to the Victorian Parliament House where it was located until 1927, when it was moved to Canberra. The Governor-General of Australia resided at Government House in Melbourne until 1930 and many major national institutions remained in Melbourne well into the twentieth century.
During which years did Melbourne experience an economic downturn?
570e815b0dc6ce19002050dd
1989 to 1992
93
False
Which city is the center of Australia's "rust belt"?
570e815b0dc6ce19002050de
Melbourne
42
False
The Australian Grand Prix moved to Melbourne from where?
570e815b0dc6ce19002050df
Adelaide
493
False
Which government in 1992 began a campaign to revive the economy?
570e815b0dc6ce19002050e0
Kennett
197
False
As the centre of Australia's "rust belt", Melbourne experienced an economic downturn between 1989 to 1992, following the collapse of several local financial institutions. In 1992 the newly elected Kennett government began a campaign to revive the economy with an aggressive development campaign of public works coupled with the promotion of the city as a tourist destination with a focus on major events and sports tourism. During this period the Australian Grand Prix moved to Melbourne from Adelaide. Major projects included the construction of a new facility for the Melbourne Museum, Federation Square, the Melbourne Exhibition and Convention Centre, Crown Casino and the CityLink tollway. Other strategies included the privatisation of some of Melbourne's services, including power and public transport, and a reduction in funding to public services such as health, education and public transport infrastructure.
Which body of water and township of the same name marks the border between Melbourne and Geelong?
570e82630b85d914000d7f69
Little River
689
False
Little River marks the boundary between Melbourne and which city?
570e82630b85d914000d7f6a
Geelong
790
False
Little River marks the boundary between Geelong and which other city?
570e82630b85d914000d7f6b
Melbourne
763
False
The city reaches south-east through Dandenong to the growth corridor of Pakenham towards West Gippsland, and southward through the Dandenong Creek valley, the Mornington Peninsula and the city of Frankston taking in the peaks of Olivers Hill, Mount Martha and Arthurs Seat, extending along the shores of Port Phillip as a single conurbation to reach the exclusive suburb of Portsea and Point Nepean. In the west, it extends along the Maribyrnong River and its tributaries north towards Sunbury and the foothills of the Macedon Ranges, and along the flat volcanic plain country towards Melton in the west, Werribee at the foothills of the You Yangs granite ridge south west of the CBD. The Little River, and the township of the same name, marks the border between Melbourne and neighbouring Geelong city.
Has Melbourne's air quality improved or declined since the 1980s?
570e83490b85d914000d7f6f
improved significantly
50
False
What factors deplete Melbourne water supplies?
570e83490b85d914000d7f70
Drought in Victoria, low rainfalls and high temperatures
349
False
Which government announced a $3.1 billion Wonthaggi desalination plant in June 2007?
570e83490b85d914000d7f71
Bracks Government
881
False
How many litres of water will the Wonthaggi desalination plant be capbale of treating per year?
570e83490b85d914000d7f72
150 billion litres
1025
False
Melbourne's air quality is generally good and has improved significantly since the 1980s. Like many urban environments, the city faces significant environmental issues, many of them relating to the city's large urban footprint and urban sprawl and the demand for infrastructure and services. One such issue is water usage, drought and low rainfall. Drought in Victoria, low rainfalls and high temperatures deplete Melbourne water supplies and climate change may have a long-term impact on the water supplies of Melbourne. In response to low water supplies and low rainfall due to drought, the government implemented water restrictions and a range of other options including: water recycling schemes for the city, incentives for household water tanks, greywater systems, water consumption awareness initiatives, and other water saving and reuse initiatives; also, in June 2007, the Bracks Government announced that a $3.1 billion Wonthaggi desalination plant would be built on Victoria's south-east coast, capable of treating 150 billion litres of water per year, as well as a 70 km (43 mi) pipeline from the Goulburn area in Victoria's north to Melbourne and a new water pipeline linking Melbourne and Geelong. Both projects are being conducted under controversial Public-Private Partnerships and a multitude of independent reports have found that neither project is required to supply water to the city and that Sustainable Water Management is the best solution. In the meantime, the drought must be weathered.
Which factors make Melbourne one of the moust vibrant destinations in Australia?
570e83d30b85d914000d7f77
The climate, waterfront location and nightlife
193
False
For how many years in a row has Melbourne held the top position in a survey of the world's most liveable cities?
570e83d30b85d914000d7f78
five
303
False
What is Australia's largest free community festival?
570e83d30b85d914000d7f79
Moomba
674
False
How many international overnight visitors came to Melbourne during the year ending March 2014?
570e83d30b85d914000d7f7a
just under two million
911
False
How many domestic overnight visitors came to Melbourne during the year ending March 2014?
570e83d30b85d914000d7f7b
57.7 million
971
False
Melbourne is an international cultural centre, with cultural endeavours spanning major events and festivals, drama, musicals, comedy, music, art, architecture, literature, film and television. The climate, waterfront location and nightlife make it one of the most vibrant destinations in Australia. For five years in a row (as of 2015) it has held the top position in a survey by The Economist Intelligence Unit of the world's most liveable cities on the basis of a number of attributes which include its broad cultural offerings. The city celebrates a wide variety of annual cultural events and festivals of all types, including Australia's largest free community festival—Moomba, the Melbourne International Arts Festival, Melbourne International Film Festival, Melbourne International Comedy Festival and the Melbourne Fringe Festival. The culture of the city is an important drawcard for tourists, of which just under two million international overnight visitors and 57.7 million domestic overnight visited during the year ending March 2014.
What was the world's first feature film?
570e8a5e0b85d914000d7f81
The Story of the Kelly Gang
0
False
In what city was the world's first feature film shot in 1906?
570e8a5e0b85d914000d7f82
Melbourne
73
False
Why were films banned by Victorian politicans in 1912?
570e8a5e0b85d914000d7f83
perceived promotion of crime
215
False
What year were bushranger films banned by Victorian politicians?
570e8a5e0b85d914000d7f84
1912
202
False
In what "lull" year was On the Beach filmed?
570e8a5e0b85d914000d7f85
1959
430
False
The Story of the Kelly Gang, the world's first feature film, was shot in Melbourne in 1906. Melbourne filmmakers continued to produce bushranger films until they were banned by Victorian politicians in 1912 for the perceived promotion of crime, thus contributing to the decline of one of the silent film era's most productive industries. A notable film shot and set in Melbourne during Australia's cinematic lull is On the Beach (1959). The 1970s saw the rise of the Australian New Wave and its Ozploitation offshoot, instigated by Melbourne-based productions Stork and Alvin Purple. Picnic at Hanging Rock and Mad Max, both shot in and around Melbourne, achieved worldwide acclaim. 2004 saw the construction of Melbourne's largest film and television studio complex, Docklands Studios Melbourne, which has hosted many domestic productions, as well as international features. Melbourne is also home to the headquarters of Village Roadshow Pictures, Australia's largest film production company. Famous modern day actors from Melbourne include Cate Blanchett, Rachel Griffiths, Guy Pearce, Geoffrey Rush and Eric Bana.
What are the most common type of housing outside inner city Melbourne?
570e8afb0dc6ce19002050e5
Free standing dwellings with relatively large gardens
227
False
Is residential architecture in Melbourne defined by a single architectural style or an eclectic mix of buildings?
570e8afb0dc6ce19002050e6
single architectural style
45
False
Are townhouses, condominiums, and apartment buildings found more prevalent in the metropolitan area or outside the city?
570e8afb0dc6ce19002050e7
metropolitan area (particularly in areas of urban sprawl)
168
False
Residential architecture is not defined by a single architectural style, but rather an eclectic mix of houses, townhouses, condominiums, and apartment buildings in the metropolitan area (particularly in areas of urban sprawl). Free standing dwellings with relatively large gardens are perhaps the most common type of housing outside inner city Melbourne. Victorian terrace housing, townhouses and historic Italianate, Tudor revival and Neo-Georgian mansions are all common in neighbourhoods such as Toorak.
In which areas does Melbourne's diversified economy have strengths?
570e8bb10dc6ce19002050eb
finance, manufacturing, research, IT, education, logistics, transportation and tourism
72
False
Which company is the world's largest mining company?
570e8bb10dc6ce19002050ec
BHP Billiton
391
False
Which city is home to Australia's largest and busiest seaport?
570e8bb10dc6ce19002050ed
Melbourne
0
False
Which city is home to Australia's second busiest airport?
570e8bb10dc6ce19002050ee
Melbourne
0
False
How much money in trade does Australia's largest and busiest seaport handle?
570e8bb10dc6ce19002050ef
$75 billion
844
False
Melbourne has a highly diversified economy with particular strengths in finance, manufacturing, research, IT, education, logistics, transportation and tourism. Melbourne houses the headquarters for many of Australia's largest corporations, including five of the ten largest in the country (based on revenue), and four of the largest six in the country (based on market capitalisation) (ANZ, BHP Billiton (the world's largest mining company), the National Australia Bank and Telstra), as well as such representative bodies and think tanks as the Business Council of Australia and the Australian Council of Trade Unions. Melbourne's suburbs also have the Head Offices of Wesfarmers companies Coles (including Liquorland), Bunnings, Target, K-Mart & Officeworks. The city is home to Australia's largest and busiest seaport which handles more than $75 billion in trade every year and 39% of the nation's container trade. Melbourne Airport provides an entry point for national and international visitors, and is Australia's second busiest airport.[citation needed]
Which city has the largest Greek-speaking population outside of Europe?
570e8c260dc6ce19002050f5
Melbourne
0
False
Which city in Greece is Melbourne's sister city?
570e8c260dc6ce19002050f6
Thessaloniki
147
False
What is the most common surname in Melbourne's phone book?
570e8c260dc6ce19002050f7
Smith
282
False
What is the secondmost common surname in Melbourne's phone book?
570e8c260dc6ce19002050f8
Nguyen
217
False
Melbourne has the largest Greek-speaking population outside of Europe, a population comparable to some larger Greek cities like Larissa and Volos. Thessaloniki is Melbourne's Greek sister city. The Vietnamese surname Nguyen is the second most common in Melbourne's phone book after Smith. The city also features substantial Indian, Sri Lankan, and Malaysian-born communities, in addition to recent South African and Sudanese influxes. The cultural diversity is reflected in the city's restaurants that serve international cuisines.
Which Melbourne based university has campuses in Malaysia?
570e8c830dc6ce19002050fd
Swinburne University
82
False
Which Melbourne based college has a research centre in Prato, Italy?
570e8c830dc6ce19002050fe
Monash
135
False
Which university is the second oldest in Australia?
570e8c830dc6ce19002050ff
The University of Melbourne
187
False
What is the Group of Eight?
570e8c830dc6ce1900205100
a coalition of leading Australian tertiary institutions offering comprehensive and leading education
638
False
Melbourne universities have campuses all over Australia and some internationally. Swinburne University has campuses in Malaysia, while Monash has a research centre based in Prato, Italy. The University of Melbourne, the second oldest university in Australia, was ranked first among Australian universities in the 2010 THES international rankings. The 2012–2013 Times Higher Education Supplement ranked the University of Melbourne as the 28th (30th by QS ranking) best university in the world. Monash University was ranked as the 99th (60th by QS ranking) best university in the world. Both universities are members of the Group of Eight, a coalition of leading Australian tertiary institutions offering comprehensive and leading education.
What are examples of Youth radio stations?
570e8dd10b85d914000d7f8b
ABC Triple J and youth run SYN
437
False
Which music stations strive to play under represented music?
570e8dd10b85d914000d7f8c
Triple J, and similarly PBS and Triple R
469
False
Which radio station caters for gay, lesbian, bisexual, and transgender audiences?
570e8dd10b85d914000d7f8d
JOY 94.9
551
False
Which station caters to sports fans and enthusiasts?
570e8dd10b85d914000d7f8e
SEN 1116
895
False
3MBS and ABC Classic FM play what type of music?
570e8dd10b85d914000d7f8f
classical
633
False
A long list of AM and FM radio stations broadcast to greater Melbourne. These include "public" (i.e., state-owned ABC and SBS) and community stations. Many commercial stations are networked-owned: DMG has Nova 100 and Smooth; ARN controls Gold 104.3 and KIIS 101.1; and Southern Cross Austereo runs both Fox and Triple M. Stations from towns in regional Victoria may also be heard (e.g. 93.9 Bay FM, Geelong). Youth alternatives include ABC Triple J and youth run SYN. Triple J, and similarly PBS and Triple R, strive to play under represented music. JOY 94.9 caters for gay, lesbian, bisexual and transgender audiences. For fans of classical music there are 3MBS and ABC Classic FM. Light FM is a contemporary Christian station. AM stations include ABC: 774, Radio National, and News Radio; also Fairfax affiliates 3AW (talk) and Magic (easy listening). For sport fans and enthusiasts there is SEN 1116. Melbourne has many community run stations that serve alternative interests, such as 3CR and 3KND (Indigenous). Many suburbs have low powered community run stations serving local audiences.
What are the origins of Melbourne's tram network?
570e8e700b85d914000d7f95
the city's 1880s land boom
77
False
How many passenger trips were made by tram in Melbourne between 2013-2014?
570e8e700b85d914000d7f96
176.9 million
119
False
How many tram stops are on Melbourne's tram network?
570e8e700b85d914000d7f97
1,763
319
False
How many routes does Melbourne's bus network consist of?
570e8e700b85d914000d7f98
almost 300
990
False
How many passenger trips were recorded on Melbourne's buses in 2013-2014
570e8e700b85d914000d7f99
127.6 million
1112
False
Melbourne has the largest tram network in the world which had its origins in the city's 1880s land boom. In 2013–2014, 176.9 million passenger trips were made by tram. Melbourne's is Australia's only tram network to comprise more than a single line and consists of 250 km (155.3 mi) of track, 487 trams, 25 routes, and 1,763 tram stops. Around 80 per cent of Melbourne's tram network shares road space with other vehicles, while the rest of the network is separated or are light rail routes. Melbourne's trams are recognised as iconic cultural assets and a tourist attraction. Heritage trams operate on the free City Circle route, intended for visitors to Melbourne, and heritage restaurant trams travel through the city and surrounding areas during the evening. Melbourne is currently building 50 new E Class trams with some already in service in 2014. The E Class trams are about 30 metres long and are superior to the C2 class tram of similar length. Melbourne's bus network consists of almost 300 routes which mainly service the outer suburbs and fill the gaps in the network between rail and tram services. 127.6 million passenger trips were recorded on Melbourne's buses in 2013–2014, an increase of 10.2 percent on the previous year.
John,_King_of_England
When was John born?
570c4c8ab3d812140066d093
24 December 1166
65
False
Who did Henry marry?
570c4c8ab3d812140066d094
Eleanor of Aquitaine
258
False
Who was Henry's ally?
570c4c8ab3d812140066d095
Holy Roman Emperor
1708
False
John was born to Henry II of England and Eleanor of Aquitaine on 24 December 1166. Henry had inherited significant territories along the Atlantic seaboard—Anjou, Normandy and England—and expanded his empire by conquering Brittany. Henry married the powerful Eleanor of Aquitaine, who reigned over the Duchy of Aquitaine and had a tenuous claim to Toulouse and Auvergne in southern France, in addition to being the former wife of Louis VII of France. The result was the Angevin Empire, named after Henry's paternal title as Count of Anjou and, more specifically, its seat in Angers.[nb 2] The Empire, however, was inherently fragile: although all the lands owed allegiance to Henry, the disparate parts each had their own histories, traditions and governance structures. As one moved south through Anjou and Aquitaine, the extent of Henry's power in the provinces diminished considerably, scarcely resembling the modern concept of an empire at all. Some of the traditional ties between parts of the empire such as Normandy and England were slowly dissolving over time. It was unclear what would happen to the empire on Henry's death. Although the custom of primogeniture, under which an eldest son would inherit all his father's lands, was slowly becoming more widespread across Europe, it was less popular amongst the Norman kings of England. Most believed that Henry would divide the empire, giving each son a substantial portion, and hoping that his children would continue to work together as allies after his death. To complicate matters, much of the Angevin empire was held by Henry only as a vassal of the King of France of the rival line of the House of Capet. Henry had often allied himself with the Holy Roman Emperor against France, making the feudal relationship even more challenging.
Who backed John's elder brothers?
570c4ce1b3d812140066d099
Eleanor
41
False
Where did Henry travel to?
570c4ce1b3d812140066d09a
Paris
314
False
Who returned to Brittany?
570c4ce1b3d812140066d09b
Geoffrey
753
False
Who was imprisoned?
570c4ce1b3d812140066d09c
Eleanor
802
False
In 1173 John's elder brothers, backed by Eleanor, rose in revolt against Henry in the short-lived rebellion of 1173 to 1174. Growing irritated with his subordinate position to Henry II and increasingly worried that John might be given additional lands and castles at his expense, Henry the Young King travelled to Paris and allied himself with Louis VII. Eleanor, irritated by her husband's persistent interference in Aquitaine, encouraged Richard and Geoffrey to join their brother Henry in Paris. Henry II triumphed over the coalition of his sons, but was generous to them in the peace settlement agreed at Montlouis. Henry the Young King was allowed to travel widely in Europe with his own household of knights, Richard was given Aquitaine back, and Geoffrey was allowed to return to Brittany; only Eleanor was imprisoned for her role in the revolt.
When did Richard die?
570c4d2dfed7b91900d45873
6 April 1199
25
False
Who was the sole surviving son?
570c4d2dfed7b91900d45874
John
96
False
Where was John crowned?
570c4d2dfed7b91900d45875
Westminster
761
False
Whose army pressed up the Loire valley?
570c4d2dfed7b91900d45876
Arthur
1004
False
After Richard's death on 6 April 1199 there were two potential claimants to the Angevin throne: John, whose claim rested on being the sole surviving son of Henry II, and young Arthur I of Brittany, who held a claim as the son of John's elder brother Geoffrey. Richard appears to have started to recognise John as his heir presumptive in the final years before his death, but the matter was not clear-cut and medieval law gave little guidance as to how the competing claims should be decided. With Norman law favouring John as the only surviving son of Henry II and Angevin law favouring Arthur as the only son of Henry's elder son, the matter rapidly became an open conflict. John was supported by the bulk of the English and Norman nobility and was crowned at Westminster, backed by his mother, Eleanor. Arthur was supported by the majority of the Breton, Maine and Anjou nobles and received the support of Philip II, who remained committed to breaking up the Angevin territories on the continent. With Arthur's army pressing up the Loire valley towards Angers and Philip's forces moving down the valley towards Tours, John's continental empire was in danger of being cut in two.
When did Philip summon John to attend court?
570c4d76fed7b91900d4587b
1202
268
False
What was John summoned as?
570c4d76fed7b91900d4587c
Count of Poitou
659
False
Although John was the Count of Poitou and therefore the rightful feudal lord over the Lusignans, they could legitimately appeal John's actions in France to his own feudal lord, Philip. Hugh did exactly this in 1201 and Philip summoned John to attend court in Paris in 1202, citing the Le Goulet treaty to strengthen his case. John was unwilling to weaken his authority in western France in this way. He argued that he need not attend Philip's court because of his special status as the Duke of Normandy, who was exempt by feudal tradition from being called to the French court. Philip argued that he was summoning John not as the Duke of Normandy, but as the Count of Poitou, which carried no such special status. When John still refused to come, Philip declared John in breach of his feudal responsibilities, reassigned all of John's lands that fell under the French crown to Arthur – with the exception of Normandy, which he took back for himself – and began a fresh war against John.
What principle did John's predecessors use?
570c4dd0fed7b91900d4587f
vis et voluntas
136
False
What quality did Henry II and Richard possess?
570c4dd0fed7b91900d45880
divine majesty
358
False
What century were there contrary opinions expressed about the nature of kingship?
570c4dd0fed7b91900d45881
12th century
474
False
What did John suffer from?
570c4dd0fed7b91900d45882
royal schizophrenia
1024
False
The nature of government under the Angevin monarchs was ill-defined and uncertain. John's predecessors had ruled using the principle of vis et voluntas, or "force and will", taking executive and sometimes arbitrary decisions, often justified on the basis that a king was above the law. Both Henry II and Richard had argued that kings possessed a quality of "divine majesty"; John continued this trend and claimed an "almost imperial status" for himself as ruler. During the 12th century, there were contrary opinions expressed about the nature of kingship, and many contemporary writers believed that monarchs should rule in accordance with the custom and the law, and take counsel of the leading members of the realm. There was as yet no model for what should happen if a king refused to do so. Despite his claim to unique authority within England, John would sometimes justify his actions on the basis that he had taken council with the barons. Modern historians remain divided as to whether John suffered from a case of "royal schizophrenia" in his approach to government, or if his actions merely reflected the complex model of Angevin kingship in the early 13th century.
What happened at the start of John's reign?
570c4ee1b3d812140066d0ab
sudden change in prices
41
False
How long did the inflationary pressure continue?
570c4ee1b3d812140066d0ac
13th century
224
False
When did John address problems with the English currency?
570c4ee1b3d812140066d0ad
1204 and 1205
1134
False
How did he address the problems with the English currency?
570c4ee1b3d812140066d0ae
carrying out a radical overhaul of the coinage
1151
False
At the start of John's reign there was a sudden change in prices, as bad harvests and high demand for food resulted in much higher prices for grain and animals. This inflationary pressure was to continue for the rest of the 13th century and had long-term economic consequences for England. The resulting social pressures were complicated by bursts of deflation that resulted from John's military campaigns. It was usual at the time for the king to collect taxes in silver, which was then re-minted into new coins; these coins would then be put in barrels and sent to royal castles around the country, to be used to hire mercenaries or to meet other costs. At those times when John was preparing for campaigns in Normandy, for example, huge quantities of silver had to be withdrawn from the economy and stored for months, which unintentionally resulted in periods during which silver coins were simply hard to come by, commercial credit difficult to acquire and deflationary pressure placed on the economy. The result was political unrest across the country. John attempted to address some of the problems with the English currency in 1204 and 1205 by carrying out a radical overhaul of the coinage, improving its quality and consistency.
Who was Henry's favorite child?
570c4f4cfed7b91900d4589b
John
0
False
When was John appointed the Lord of Ireland?
570c4f4cfed7b91900d4589c
1177
304
False
When did Richard I become king?
570c4f4cfed7b91900d4589d
1189
457
False
Who unsuccessfully attempted a rebellion against Richard's royal administrators?
570c4f4cfed7b91900d4589e
John
504
False
John, the youngest of five sons of King Henry II of England and Eleanor of Aquitaine, was at first not expected to inherit significant lands. Following the failed rebellion of his elder brothers between 1173 and 1174, however, John became Henry's favourite child. He was appointed the Lord of Ireland in 1177 and given lands in England and on the continent. John's elder brothers William, Henry and Geoffrey died young; by the time Richard I became king in 1189, John was a potential heir to the throne. John unsuccessfully attempted a rebellion against Richard's royal administrators whilst his brother was participating in the Third Crusade. Despite this, after Richard died in 1199, John was proclaimed King of England, and came to an agreement with Philip II of France to recognise John's possession of the continental Angevin lands at the peace treaty of Le Goulet in 1200.
Who was John's second wife?
570c5037b3d812140066d0bd
Isabella of Angoulême
59
False
Nicholas Vincent was described as what?
570c5037b3d812140066d0be
downright mean
581
False
When did John have conjugal relationships with Isabella?
570c5037b3d812140066d0bf
1207 and 1215
915
False
How many children did John and Isabella have?
570c5037b3d812140066d0c0
five children
939
False
The character of John's relationship with his second wife, Isabella of Angoulême, is unclear. John married Isabella whilst she was relatively young – her exact date of birth is uncertain, and estimates place her between at most 15 and more probably towards nine years old at the time of her marriage.[nb 15] Even by the standards of the time, Isabella was married whilst very young. John did not provide a great deal of money for his wife's household and did not pass on much of the revenue from her lands, to the extent that historian Nicholas Vincent has described him as being "downright mean" towards Isabella. Vincent concluded that the marriage was not a particularly "amicable" one. Other aspects of their marriage suggest a closer, more positive relationship. Chroniclers recorded that John had a "mad infatuation" with Isabella, and certainly John had conjugal relationships with Isabella between at least 1207 and 1215; they had five children. In contrast to Vincent, historian William Chester Jordan concludes that the pair were a "companionable couple" who had a successful marriage by the standards of the day.
When did war with France break out?
570c50aeb3d812140066d0c5
1202
40
False
When was John excommunicated?
570c50afb3d812140066d0c6
1209
591
False
When was the Magna Carta peace treaty agreed upon?
570c50afb3d812140066d0c7
1215
1017
False
Who won victory over Louis and the rebel barons?
570c50afb3d812140066d0c8
Henry III
1296
False
When war with France broke out again in 1202, John achieved early victories, but shortages of military resources and his treatment of Norman, Breton and Anjou nobles resulted in the collapse of his empire in northern France in 1204. John spent much of the next decade attempting to regain these lands, raising huge revenues, reforming his armed forces and rebuilding continental alliances. John's judicial reforms had a lasting impact on the English common law system, as well as providing an additional source of revenue. An argument with Pope Innocent III led to John's excommunication in 1209, a dispute finally settled by the king in 1213. John's attempt to defeat Philip in 1214 failed due to the French victory over John's allies at the battle of Bouvines. When he returned to England, John faced a rebellion by many of his barons, who were unhappy with his fiscal policies and his treatment of many of England's most powerful nobles. Although both John and the barons agreed to the Magna Carta peace treaty in 1215, neither side complied with its conditions. Civil war broke out shortly afterwards, with the barons aided by Louis of France. It soon descended into a stalemate. John died of dysentery contracted whilst on campaign in eastern England during late 1216; supporters of his son Henry III went on to achieve victory over Louis and the rebel barons the following year.
What prevented the departure of the planned 1205 expedition?
570c5109b3d812140066d0d5
Baronial unrest in England
0
False
When did Poitou depart?
570c5109b3d812140066d0d6
1206
155
False
Why did John divert south?
570c5109b3d812140066d0d7
to counter a threat to Gascony from Alfonso VIII of Castile
225
False
Why did Philip move south?
570c5109b3d812140066d0d8
to meet John
402
False
Baronial unrest in England prevented the departure of the planned 1205 expedition, and only a smaller force under William Longespée deployed to Poitou. In 1206 John departed for Poitou himself, but was forced to divert south to counter a threat to Gascony from Alfonso VIII of Castile. After a successful campaign against Alfonso, John headed north again, taking the city of Angers. Philip moved south to meet John; the year's campaigning ended in stalemate and a two-year truce was made between the two rulers.
When was Henry crowned King of England?
570c5164b3d812140066d0e7
1170
143
False
What was Henry promised as part of his future inheritance?
570c5164b3d812140066d0e8
Normandy and Anjou
221
False
Who became the Duke of Brittany?
570c5164b3d812140066d0e9
Geoffrey
357
False
What was John's nickname?
570c5164b3d812140066d0ea
Lackland
513
False
During John's early years, Henry attempted to resolve the question of his succession. Henry the Young King had been crowned King of England in 1170, but was not given any formal powers by his father; he was also promised Normandy and Anjou as part of his future inheritance. Richard was to be appointed the Count of Poitou with control of Aquitaine, whilst Geoffrey was to become the Duke of Brittany. At this time it seemed unlikely that John would ever inherit substantial lands, and he was jokingly nicknamed "Lackland" by his father.
How tall was John?
570c51f3b3d812140066d0ef
5 ft 5 in
26
False
What did John build up?
570c51f3b3d812140066d0f0
travelling library of books
248
False
Who became a connoisseur of jewels?
570c51f3b3d812140066d0f1
John
423
False
What did John do in fits of rage?
570c51f3b3d812140066d0f2
biting and gnawing his fingers
793
False
John grew up to be around 5 ft 5 in (1.68 m) tall, relatively short, with a "powerful, barrel-chested body" and dark red hair; he looked to contemporaries like an inhabitant of Poitou. John enjoyed reading and, unusually for the period, built up a travelling library of books. He enjoyed gambling, in particular at backgammon, and was an enthusiastic hunter, even by medieval standards. He liked music, although not songs. John would become a "connoisseur of jewels", building up a large collection, and became famous for his opulent clothes and also, according to French chroniclers, for his fondness for bad wine. As John grew up, he became known for sometimes being "genial, witty, generous and hospitable"; at other moments, he could be jealous, over-sensitive and prone to fits of rage, "biting and gnawing his fingers" in anger.[nb 3]
When did Hubert Walter die?
570c5266b3d812140066d0f7
13 July 1205
58
False
What lead to the king's excommunication?
570c5266b3d812140066d0f8
a dispute with Pope Innocent III
96
False
Who said Pope Innocent was an ambitious and aggressive religious leader?
570c5266b3d812140066d0f9
historian Ralph Turner
974
False
When the Archbishop of Canterbury, Hubert Walter, died on 13 July 1205, John became involved in a dispute with Pope Innocent III that would lead to the king's excommunication. The Norman and Angevin kings had traditionally exercised a great deal of power over the church within their territories. From the 1040s onwards, however, successive popes had put forward a reforming message that emphasised the importance of the church being "governed more coherently and more hierarchically from the centre" and established "its own sphere of authority and jurisdiction, separate from and independent of that of the lay ruler", in the words of historian Richard Huscroft. After the 1140s, these principles had been largely accepted within the English church, albeit with an element of concern about centralising authority in Rome. These changes brought the customary rights of lay rulers such as John over ecclesiastical appointments into question. Pope Innocent was, according to historian Ralph Turner, an "ambitious and aggressive" religious leader, insistent on his rights and responsibilities within the church.
When did John make his first visit to Ireland?
570c52b0b3d812140066d0fd
1185
3
False
How many knights accompanied John to Ireland?
570c52b0b3d812140066d0fe
300
61
False
How did John offend the local Irish rulers?
570c52b0b3d812140066d0ff
making fun of their unfashionable long beards
476
False
In 1185 John made his first visit to Ireland, accompanied by 300 knights and a team of administrators. Henry had tried to have John officially proclaimed King of Ireland, but Pope Lucius III would not agree. John's first period of rule in Ireland was not a success. Ireland had only recently been conquered by Anglo-Norman forces, and tensions were still rife between Henry II, the new settlers and the existing inhabitants. John infamously offended the local Irish rulers by making fun of their unfashionable long beards, failed to make allies amongst the Anglo-Norman settlers, began to lose ground militarily against the Irish and finally returned to England later in the year, blaming the viceroy, Hugh de Lacy, for the fiasco.
Who did Henry fight a short war with in 1183?
570c52fffed7b91900d458b7
Richard
57
False
How did Henry the Young King die?
570c52fffed7b91900d458b8
dysentery
198
False
Who became the Duke of Aquitaine in place of Richard?
570c52fffed7b91900d458b9
John
450
False
When did the war end?
570c52fffed7b91900d458ba
1184
836
False
Henry the Young King fought a short war with his brother Richard in 1183 over the status of England, Normandy and Aquitaine. Henry II moved in support of Richard, and Henry the Young King died from dysentery at the end of the campaign. With his primary heir dead, Henry rearranged the plans for the succession: Richard was to be made King of England, albeit without any actual power until the death of his father; Geoffrey would retain Brittany; and John would now become the Duke of Aquitaine in place of Richard. Richard refused to give up Aquitaine; Henry II was furious and ordered John, with help from Geoffrey, to march south and retake the duchy by force. The two attacked the capital of Poitiers, and Richard responded by attacking Brittany. The war ended in stalemate and a tense family reconciliation in England at the end of 1184.
When were the papal terms for submission accepted?
570c5350fed7b91900d458bf
May 1213
193
False
How many marks did John surrender?
570c5350fed7b91900d458c0
1,000
342
False
Where was the agreement formalised?
570c5350fed7b91900d458c1
Bulla Aurea
567
False
Under mounting political pressure, John finally negotiated terms for a reconciliation, and the papal terms for submission were accepted in the presence of the papal legate Pandulf Verraccio in May 1213 at the Templar Church at Dover. As part of the deal, John offered to surrender the Kingdom of England to the papacy for a feudal service of 1,000 marks (equivalent to £666 at the time) annually: 700 marks (£466) for England and 300 marks (£200) for Ireland, as well as recompensing the church for revenue lost during the crisis. The agreement was formalised in the Bulla Aurea, or Golden Bull. This resolution produced mixed responses. Although some chroniclers felt that John had been humiliated by the sequence of events, there was little public reaction. Innocent benefited from the resolution of his long-standing English problem, but John probably gained more, as Innocent became a firm supporter of John for the rest of his reign, backing him in both domestic and continental policy issues. Innocent immediately turned against Philip, calling upon him to reject plans to invade England and to sue for peace. John paid some of the compensation money he had promised the church, but he ceased making payments in late 1214, leaving two-thirds of the sum unpaid; Innocent appears to have conveniently forgotten this debt for the good of the wider relationship.
Who did John explore an alliance with?
570c539bb3d812140066d10d
French king Philip II
76
False
What did John do when Richard did not return from his crusade?
570c539bb3d812140066d10e
assert that his brother was dead
700
False
Who captured Richard?
570c539bb3d812140066d10f
Duke of Austria
825
False
When did the king return to England?
570c539bb3d812140066d110
1194
1284
False
The political turmoil continued. John began to explore an alliance with the French king Philip II, freshly returned from the crusade. John hoped to acquire Normandy, Anjou and the other lands in France held by Richard in exchange for allying himself with Philip. John was persuaded not to pursue an alliance by his mother. Longchamp, who had left England after Walter's intervention, now returned, and argued that he had been wrongly removed as justiciar. John intervened, suppressing Longchamp's claims in return for promises of support from the royal administration, including a reaffirmation of his position as heir to the throne. When Richard still did not return from the crusade, John began to assert that his brother was dead or otherwise permanently lost. Richard had in fact been captured en route to England by the Duke of Austria and was handed over to Emperor Henry VI, who held him for ransom. John seized the opportunity and went to Paris, where he formed an alliance with Philip. He agreed to set aside his wife, Isabella of Gloucester, and marry Philip's sister, Alys, in exchange for Philip's support. Fighting broke out in England between forces loyal to Richard and those being gathered by John. John's military position was weak and he agreed to a truce; in early 1194 the king finally returned to England, and John's remaining forces surrendered. John retreated to Normandy, where Richard finally found him later that year. Richard declared that his younger brother – despite being 27 years old – was merely "a child who has had evil counsellors" and forgave him, but removed his lands with the exception of Ireland.
Who refused to work with Puiset?
570c5401fed7b91900d458c5
Longchamp
65
False
When was Longchamp isolated in the Tower of London?
570c5401fed7b91900d458c6
October 1191
474
False
Where did Walter of Coutances return to?
570c5401fed7b91900d458c7
England
755
False
The political situation in England rapidly began to deteriorate. Longchamp refused to work with Puiset and became unpopular with the English nobility and clergy. John exploited this unpopularity to set himself up as an alternative ruler with his own royal court, complete with his own justiciar, chancellor and other royal posts, and was happy to be portrayed as an alternative regent, and possibly the next king. Armed conflict broke out between John and Longchamp, and by October 1191 Longchamp was isolated in the Tower of London with John in control of the city of London, thanks to promises John had made to the citizens in return for recognition as Richard's heir presumptive. At this point Walter of Coutances, the Archbishop of Rouen, returned to England, having been sent by Richard to restore order. John's position was undermined by Walter's relative popularity and by the news that Richard had married whilst in Cyprus, which presented the possibility that Richard would have legitimate children and heirs.
Where did the rebel barons congregate?
570c5439b3d812140066d115
Northampton
114
False
Who was the rebel baron leader?
570c5439b3d812140066d116
Robert fitz Walter
185
False
What did John instruct Langton to do?
570c5439b3d812140066d117
organise peace talks with the rebel barons
544
False
Letters of support from the pope arrived in April but by then the rebel barons had organised. They congregated at Northampton in May and renounced their feudal ties to John, appointing Robert fitz Walter as their military leader. This self-proclaimed "Army of God" marched on London, taking the capital as well as Lincoln and Exeter. John's efforts to appear moderate and conciliatory had been largely successful, but once the rebels held London they attracted a fresh wave of defectors from John's royalist faction. John instructed Langton to organise peace talks with the rebel barons.
How long did the new peace last?
570c54a7b3d812140066d11b
two years
34
False
When was John's decision to marry Isabella?
570c54a7b3d812140066d11c
August 1200
100
False
John acquired key land between Poitou and where?
570c54a7b3d812140066d11d
Gascony
851
False
The new peace would only last for two years; war recommenced in the aftermath of John's decision in August 1200 to marry Isabella of Angoulême. In order to remarry, John first needed to abandon Isabel, Countess of Gloucester, his first wife; John accomplished this by arguing that he had failed to get the necessary papal permission to marry Isabel in the first place – as a cousin, John could not have legally wed her without this. It remains unclear why John chose to marry Isabella of Angoulême. Contemporary chroniclers argued that John had fallen deeply in love with Isabella, and John may have been motivated by desire for an apparently beautiful, if rather young, girl. On the other hand, the Angoumois lands that came with Isabella were strategically vital to John: by marrying Isabella, John was acquiring a key land route between Poitou and Gascony, which significantly strengthened his grip on Aquitaine.[nb 5]
John moved south into where?
570c54efb3d812140066d121
France
44
False
Who renewed the anti-French alliances?
570c54efb3d812140066d122
Baldwin IX of Flanders and Renaud of Boulogne
299
False
When was the Treaty of Le Goulet negotiated?
570c54efb3d812140066d123
May 1200
971
False
What nickname did John's policy earn him?
570c54efb3d812140066d124
John Softsword
1437
False
After his coronation, John moved south into France with military forces and adopted a defensive posture along the eastern and southern Normandy borders. Both sides paused for desultory negotiations before the war recommenced; John's position was now stronger, thanks to confirmation that the counts Baldwin IX of Flanders and Renaud of Boulogne had renewed the anti-French alliances they had previously agreed to with Richard. The powerful Anjou nobleman William des Roches was persuaded to switch sides from Arthur to John; suddenly the balance seemed to be tipping away from Philip and Arthur in favour of John. Neither side was keen to continue the conflict, and following a papal truce the two leaders met in January 1200 to negotiate possible terms for peace. From John's perspective, what then followed represented an opportunity to stabilise control over his continental possessions and produce a lasting peace with Philip in Paris. John and Philip negotiated the May 1200 Treaty of Le Goulet; by this treaty, Philip recognised John as the rightful heir to Richard in respect to his French possessions, temporarily abandoning the wider claims of his client, Arthur.[nb 4] John, in turn, abandoned Richard's former policy of containing Philip through alliances with Flanders and Boulogne, and accepted Philip's right as the legitimate feudal overlord of John's lands in France. John's policy earned him the disrespectful title of "John Softsword" from some English chroniclers, who contrasted his behaviour with his more aggressive brother, Richard.
The rebel barons invited who to lead them?
570c5530fed7b91900d458cb
French prince Louis
43
False
Who was Henry II's granddaughter?
570c5530fed7b91900d458cc
Blanche of Castile
146
False
What did John do once he contained Alexander in Scotland?
570c5530fed7b91900d458cd
he marched south to deal with the challenge of the coming invasion
574
False
The rebel barons responded by inviting the French prince Louis to lead them: Louis had a claim to the English throne by virtue of his marriage to Blanche of Castile, a granddaughter of Henry II. Philip may have provided him with private support but refused to openly support Louis, who was excommunicated by Innocent for taking part in the war against John. Louis' planned arrival in England presented a significant problem for John, as the prince would bring with him naval vessels and siege engines essential to the rebel cause. Once John contained Alexander in Scotland, he marched south to deal with the challenge of the coming invasion.
Who did John attempt to convince?
570c5572fed7b91900d458d1
Pope Innocent III
152
False
Where was Arthur imprisoned?
570c5572fed7b91900d458d2
Falaise
468
False
Who was kept imprisoned by John for many years?
570c5572fed7b91900d458d3
Eleanor
970
False
Further desertions of John's local allies at the beginning of 1203 steadily reduced John's freedom to manoeuvre in the region. He attempted to convince Pope Innocent III to intervene in the conflict, but Innocent's efforts were unsuccessful. As the situation became worse for John, he appears to have decided to have Arthur killed, with the aim of removing his potential rival and of undermining the rebel movement in Brittany. Arthur had initially been imprisoned at Falaise and was then moved to Rouen. After this, Arthur's fate remains uncertain, but modern historians believe he was murdered by John. The annals of Margam Abbey suggest that "John had captured Arthur and kept him alive in prison for some time in the castle of Rouen ... when John was drunk he slew Arthur with his own hand and tying a heavy stone to the body cast it into the Seine."[nb 7] Rumours of the manner of Arthur's death further reduced support for John across the region. Arthur's sister, Eleanor, who had also been captured at Mirebeau, was kept imprisoned by John for many years, albeit in relatively good conditions.
What victory strengthened John's position?
570c55dab3d812140066d13b
Mirebeau
74
False
Who deserted John in favor of Philip?
570c55dab3d812140066d13c
William de Roches
537
False
How was John's financial situation?
570c55dab3d812140066d13d
tenuous
713
False
John's position in France was considerably strengthened by the victory at Mirebeau, but John's treatment of his new prisoners and of his ally, William de Roches, quickly undermined these gains. De Roches was a powerful Anjou noble, but John largely ignored him, causing considerable offence, whilst the king kept the rebel leaders in such bad conditions that twenty-two of them died. At this time most of the regional nobility were closely linked through kinship, and this behaviour towards their relatives was regarded as unacceptable. William de Roches and other of John's regional allies in Anjou and Brittany deserted him in favour of Philip, and Brittany rose in fresh revolt. John's financial situation was tenuous: once factors such as the comparative military costs of materiel and soldiers were taken into account, Philip enjoyed a considerable, although not overwhelming, advantage of resources over John.[nb 6]
Who was declared the protector of Henry III after John's death?
570c561eb3d812140066d141
William Marshal
33
False
Who gave up their claim to the English throne?
570c561eb3d812140066d142
Louis
202
False
What agreement failed?
570c561eb3d812140066d143
Magna Carta
293
False
Until when did Henry III continue his attempts to reclaim Normandy?
570c561eb3d812140066d144
1259
502
False
In the aftermath of John's death William Marshal was declared the protector of the nine-year-old Henry III. The civil war continued until royalist victories at the battles of Lincoln and Dover in 1217. Louis gave up his claim to the English throne and signed the Treaty of Lambeth. The failed Magna Carta agreement was resuscitated by Marshal's administration and reissued in an edited form in 1217 as a basis for future government. Henry III continued his attempts to reclaim Normandy and Anjou until 1259, but John's continental losses and the consequent growth of Capetian power in the 13th century proved to mark a "turning point in European history".
What was one of John's principal challenges?
570c56adfed7b91900d458d7
acquiring the large sums of money needed
39
False
When did Richard sell many royal properties?
570c56adfed7b91900d458d8
1189
506
False
Where did John derive income from?
570c56adfed7b91900d458d9
fines, court fees and the sale of charters and other privileges
805
False
One of John's principal challenges was acquiring the large sums of money needed for his proposed campaigns to reclaim Normandy. The Angevin kings had three main sources of income available to them, namely revenue from their personal lands, or demesne; money raised through their rights as a feudal lord; and revenue from taxation. Revenue from the royal demesne was inflexible and had been diminishing slowly since the Norman conquest. Matters were not helped by Richard's sale of many royal properties in 1189, and taxation played a much smaller role in royal income than in later centuries. English kings had widespread feudal rights which could be used to generate income, including the scutage system, in which feudal military service was avoided by a cash payment to the king. He derived income from fines, court fees and the sale of charters and other privileges. John intensified his efforts to maximise all possible sources of income, to the extent that he has been described as "avaricious, miserly, extortionate and moneyminded". John also used revenue generation as a way of exerting political control over the barons: debts owed to the crown by the king's favoured supporters might be forgiven; collection of those owed by enemies was more stringently enforced.
What was of particular importance to John?
570c572cb3d812140066d15d
administration of justice
4
False
When was the system of coroners first introduced?
570c572cb3d812140066d15e
1194
486
False
Why was John motivated?
570c572cb3d812140066d15f
potential of the royal legal process to raise fees
1041
False
The administration of justice was of particular importance to John. Several new processes had been introduced to English law under Henry II, including novel disseisin and mort d'ancestor. These processes meant the royal courts had a more significant role in local law cases, which had previously been dealt with only by regional or local lords. John increased the professionalism of local sergeants and bailiffs, and extended the system of coroners first introduced by Hubert Walter in 1194, creating a new class of borough coroners. John worked extremely hard to ensure that this system operated well, through judges he had appointed, by fostering legal specialists and expertise, and by intervening in cases himself. John continued to try relatively minor cases, even during military crises. Viewed positively, Lewis Warren considers that John discharged "his royal duty of providing justice ... with a zeal and a tirelessness to which the English common law is greatly endebted". Seen more critically, John may have been motivated by the potential of the royal legal process to raise fees, rather than a desire to deliver simple justice; John's legal system also only applied to free men, rather than to all of the population. Nonetheless, these changes were popular with many free tenants, who acquired a more reliable legal system that could bypass the barons, against whom such cases were often brought. John's reforms were less popular with the barons themselves, especially as they remained subject to arbitrary and frequently vindictive royal justice.
When did new interpretations of John's reign begin to emerge?
570c578fb3d812140066d163
1940s
7
False
Who wrote an essay in 1945 that proposed a "new approach?"
570c578fb3d812140066d164
Vivian Galbraith
220
False
Who suggested that Ireland was less stable by 1216 than previously supposed?
570c578fb3d812140066d165
Lewis Warren
1104
False
In the 1940s, new interpretations of John's reign began to emerge, based on research into the record evidence of his reign, such as pipe rolls, charters, court documents and similar primary records. Notably, an essay by Vivian Galbraith in 1945 proposed a "new approach" to understanding the ruler. The use of recorded evidence was combined with an increased scepticism about two of the most colourful chroniclers of John's reign, Roger of Wendover and Matthew Paris. In many cases the detail provided by these chroniclers, both writing after John's death, was challenged by modern historians. Interpretations of Magna Carta and the role of the rebel barons in 1215 have been significantly revised: although the charter's symbolic, constitutional value for later generations is unquestionable, in the context of John's reign most historians now consider it a failed peace agreement between "partisan" factions. There has been increasing debate about the nature of John's Irish policies. Specialists in Irish medieval history, such as Sean Duffy, have challenged the conventional narrative established by Lewis Warren, suggesting that Ireland was less stable by 1216 than was previously supposed.
John was deeply suspicious of who?
570c57f5fed7b91900d458dd
the barons
30
False
What famous knight was subjected to John's malevolentia?
570c57f5fed7b91900d458de
William Marshal
199
False
How many marks did De Braose refuse to pay?
570c57f5fed7b91900d458df
40,000
557
False
When did De Braose die?
570c57f5fed7b91900d458e0
1211
727
False
John was deeply suspicious of the barons, particularly those with sufficient power and wealth to potentially challenge the king. Numerous barons were subjected to John's malevolentia, even including William Marshal, a famous knight and baron normally held up as a model of utter loyalty. The most infamous case, which went beyond anything considered acceptable at the time, proved to be that of William de Braose, a powerful marcher lord with lands in Ireland. De Braose was subjected to punitive demands for money, and when he refused to pay a huge sum of 40,000 marks (equivalent to £26,666 at the time),[nb 13] his wife and one of his sons were imprisoned by John, which resulted in their deaths. De Braose died in exile in 1211, and his grandsons remained in prison until 1218. John's suspicions and jealousies meant that he rarely enjoyed good relationships with even the leading loyalist barons.
Who did Henry II express his fury and ill-will towards?
570c5881b3d812140066d169
Thomas Becket
595
False
What was exacerbated by the tradition of Angevin royal ira et malevolentia?
570c5881b3d812140066d16a
the king to rely on his own men at the expense of the barons
15
False
John had to additional ability to do what?
570c5881b3d812140066d16b
cripple his vassals
694
False
This trend for the king to rely on his own men at the expense of the barons was exacerbated by the tradition of Angevin royal ira et malevolentia – "anger and ill-will" – and John's own personality. From Henry II onwards, ira et malevolentia had come to describe the right of the king to express his anger and displeasure at particular barons or clergy, building on the Norman concept of malevoncia – royal ill-will. In the Norman period, suffering the king's ill-will meant difficulties in obtaining grants, honours or petitions; Henry II had infamously expressed his fury and ill-will towards Thomas Becket; this ultimately resulted in Becket's death. John now had the additional ability to "cripple his vassals" on a significant scale using his new economic and judicial measures, which made the threat of royal anger all the more serious.
John spent much of 1205 doing what?
570c58bafed7b91900d458ef
securing England
24
False
When did John recreate a version of Henry II's Assize of Arms?
570c58bafed7b91900d458f0
1181
160
False
How many knights out of ten would be mobilised?
570c58bafed7b91900d458f1
one
538
False
John spent much of 1205 securing England against a potential French invasion. As an emergency measure, John recreated a version of Henry II's Assize of Arms of 1181, with each shire creating a structure to mobilise local levies. When the threat of invasion faded, John formed a large military force in England intended for Poitou, and a large fleet with soldiers under his own command intended for Normandy. To achieve this, John reformed the English feudal contribution to his campaigns, creating a more flexible system under which only one knight in ten would actually be mobilised, but would be financially supported by the other nine; knights would serve for an indefinite period. John built up a strong team of engineers for siege warfare and a substantial force of professional crossbowmen. The king was supported by a team of leading barons with military expertise, including William Longespée, William the Marshal, Roger de Lacy and, until he fell from favour, the marcher lord William de Braose.
John focused on trying to retake what?
570c59bbfed7b91900d458f5
Normandy
68
False
John did not regard the loss of Duchy as a permanent shift in what?
570c59bbfed7b91900d458f6
Capetian power
181
False
What was John's preferred plan?
570c59bbfed7b91900d458f7
use Poitou as a base of operations
561
False
During the remainder of his reign, John focused on trying to retake Normandy. The available evidence suggests that John did not regard the loss of the Duchy as a permanent shift in Capetian power. Strategically, John faced several challenges: England itself had to be secured against possible French invasion, the sea-routes to Bordeaux needed to be secured following the loss of the land route to Aquitaine, and his remaining possessions in Aquitaine needed to be secured following the death of his mother, Eleanor, in April 1204. John's preferred plan was to use Poitou as a base of operations, advance up the Loire valley to threaten Paris, pin down the French forces and break Philip's internal lines of communication before landing a maritime force in the Duchy itself. Ideally, this plan would benefit from the opening of a second front on Philip's eastern frontiers with Flanders and Boulogne – effectively a re-creation of Richard's old strategy of applying pressure from Germany. All of this would require a great deal of money and soldiers.
John remained what throughout his reign?
570c59f8b3d812140066d179
Lord of Ireland
14
False
When did the king cross into Ireland with a large army?
570c59f8b3d812140066d17a
1210
449
False
During Richard's rule, what did John successfully do?
570c59f8b3d812140066d17b
increased the size of his lands in Ireland
364
False
John remained Lord of Ireland throughout his reign. He drew on the country for resources to fight his war with Philip on the continent. Conflict continued in Ireland between the Anglo-Norman settlers and the indigenous Irish chieftains, with John manipulating both groups to expand his wealth and power in the country. During Richard's rule, John had successfully increased the size of his lands in Ireland, and he continued this policy as king. In 1210 the king crossed into Ireland with a large army to crush a rebellion by the Anglo-Norman lords; he reasserted his control of the country and used a new charter to order compliance with English laws and customs in Ireland. John stopped short of trying to actively enforce this charter on the native Irish kingdoms, but historian David Carpenter suspects that he might have done so, had the baronial conflict in England not intervened. Simmering tensions remained with the native Irish leaders even after John left for England.
When was the political relationship between England and Scotland disputed?
570c5a9bfed7b91900d4590f
late 12th and early 13th centuries
7
False
Who forced William the Lion to swear fealty to him?
570c5a9bfed7b91900d45910
Henry II
213
False
What did John force William to sign?
570c5a9bfed7b91900d45911
Treaty of Norham
891
False
In the late 12th and early 13th centuries the border and political relationship between England and Scotland was disputed, with the kings of Scotland claiming parts of what is now northern England. John's father, Henry II, had forced William the Lion to swear fealty to him at the Treaty of Falaise in 1174. This had been rescinded by Richard I in exchange for financial compensation in 1189, but the relationship remained uneasy. John began his reign by reasserting his sovereignty over the disputed northern counties. He refused William's request for the earldom of Northumbria, but did not intervene in Scotland itself and focused on his continental problems. The two kings maintained a friendly relationship, meeting in 1206 and 1207, until it was rumoured in 1209 that William was intending to ally himself with Philip II of France. John invaded Scotland and forced William to sign the Treaty of Norham, which gave John control of William's daughters and required a payment of £10,000. This effectively crippled William's power north of the border, and by 1212 John had to intervene militarily to support the Scottish king against his internal rivals.[nb 16] John made no efforts to reinvigorate the Treaty of Falaise, though, and both William and Alexander remained independent kings, supported by, but not owing fealty to, John.
John treated the interdict as what?
570c5b53b3d812140066d17f
the equivalent of a papal declaration of war
31
False
John seized the lands of who?
570c5b53b3d812140066d180
those clergy unwilling to conduct services
299
False
When did Innocent excommunicate the king?
570c5b53b3d812140066d181
November 1209
1018
False
How many marks did the church lose?
570c5b53b3d812140066d182
100,000
1534
False
John treated the interdict as "the equivalent of a papal declaration of war". He responded by attempting to punish Innocent personally and to drive a wedge between those English clergy that might support him and those allying themselves firmly with the authorities in Rome. John seized the lands of those clergy unwilling to conduct services, as well as those estates linked to Innocent himself; he arrested the illicit concubines that many clerics kept during the period, only releasing them after the payment of fines; he seized the lands of members of the church who had fled England, and he promised protection for those clergy willing to remain loyal to him. In many cases, individual institutions were able to negotiate terms for managing their own properties and keeping the produce of their estates. By 1209 the situation showed no signs of resolution, and Innocent threatened to excommunicate John if he did not acquiesce to Langton's appointment. When this threat failed, Innocent excommunicated the king in November 1209. Although theoretically a significant blow to John's legitimacy, this did not appear to greatly worry the king. Two of John's close allies, Emperor Otto IV and Count Raymond VI of Toulouse, had already suffered the same punishment themselves, and the significance of excommunication had been somewhat devalued. John simply tightened his existing measures and accrued significant sums from the income of vacant sees and abbeys: one 1213 estimate, for example, suggested the church had lost an estimated 100,000 marks (equivalent to £66,666 at the time) to John. Official figures suggest that around 14% of annual income from the English church was being appropriated by John each year.
John felt Langton was overly influenced by what?
570c5be2fed7b91900d4591d
the Capetian court in Paris
226
False
Who was barred Langton from entering England?
570c5be2fed7b91900d4591e
England
321
False
when did Innocent place an interdict on England?
570c5be2fed7b91900d4591f
March 1208
544
False
John was incensed about what he perceived as an abrogation of his customary right as monarch to influence the election. He complained both about the choice of Langton as an individual, as John felt he was overly influenced by the Capetian court in Paris, and about the process as a whole. He barred Langton from entering England and seized the lands of the archbishopric and other papal possessions. Innocent set a commission in place to try to convince John to change his mind, but to no avail. Innocent then placed an interdict on England in March 1208, prohibiting clergy from conducting religious services, with the exception of baptisms for the young, and confessions and absolutions for the dying.
John besieged what castle?
570c5c6ffed7b91900d45923
Roche-au-Moine
193
False
Who refused to advance with the king?
570c5c6ffed7b91900d45924
The local Angevin nobles
284
False
Who won the battle of Bouvines?
570c5c6ffed7b91900d45925
Philip
436
False
How long was the truce intended to last for?
570c5c6ffed7b91900d45926
six years
729
False
The first part of the campaign went well, with John outmanoeuvring the forces under the command of Prince Louis and retaking the county of Anjou by the end of June. John besieged the castle of Roche-au-Moine, a key stronghold, forcing Louis to give battle against John's larger army. The local Angevin nobles refused to advance with the king; left at something of a disadvantage, John retreated back to La Rochelle. Shortly afterwards, Philip won the hard-fought battle of Bouvines in the north against Otto and John's other allies, bringing an end to John's hopes of retaking Normandy. A peace agreement was signed in which John returned Anjou to Philip and paid the French king compensation; the truce was intended to last for six years. John arrived back in England in October.
When did John begin his final campaign to reclaim Normandy?
570c5c99fed7b91900d4592b
1214
3
False
Who did John build alliances with?
570c5c99fed7b91900d4592c
Emperor Otto, Renaud of Boulogne and Count Ferdinand of Flanders
143
False
When did John leave for Poitou?
570c5c99fed7b91900d4592d
February 1214
383
False
In 1214 John began his final campaign to reclaim Normandy from Philip. John was optimistic, as he had successfully built up alliances with the Emperor Otto, Renaud of Boulogne and Count Ferdinand of Flanders; he was enjoying papal favour; and he had successfully built up substantial funds to pay for the deployment of his experienced army. Nonetheless, when John left for Poitou in February 1214, many barons refused to provide military service; mercenary knights had to fill the gaps. John's plan was to split Philip's forces by pushing north-east from Poitou towards Paris, whilst Otto, Renaud and Ferdinand, supported by William Longespée, marched south-west from Flanders.
Who made the first move in the war?
570c5cdefed7b91900d45931
rebels
4
False
What did the rebels seize?
570c5cdefed7b91900d45932
Rochester Castle
65
False
Who lead the rebellion against the 1211 settlement?
570c5cdefed7b91900d45933
Llywelyn the Great
851
False
What was John's strategy?
570c5cdefed7b91900d45934
isolate the rebel barons in London
562
False
The rebels made the first move in the war, seizing the strategic Rochester Castle, owned by Langton but left almost unguarded by the archbishop. John was well prepared for a conflict. He had stockpiled money to pay for mercenaries and ensured the support of the powerful marcher lords with their own feudal forces, such as William Marshal and Ranulf of Chester. The rebels lacked the engineering expertise or heavy equipment necessary to assault the network of royal castles that cut off the northern rebel barons from those in the south. John's strategy was to isolate the rebel barons in London, protect his own supply lines to his key source of mercenaries in Flanders, prevent the French from landing in the south-east, and then win the war through slow attrition. John put off dealing with the badly deteriorating situation in North Wales, where Llywelyn the Great was leading a rebellion against the 1211 settlement.
Who suspected that the proposed baronial council would be unacceptable?
570c5d12b3d812140066d18b
rebel barons
89
False
John appealed to who for help?
570c5d12b3d812140066d18c
Innocent
418
False
The failure of the agreement lead to what?
570c5d12b3d812140066d18d
First Barons' War
747
False
Neither John nor the rebel barons seriously attempted to implement the peace accord. The rebel barons suspected that the proposed baronial council would be unacceptable to John and that he would challenge the legality of the charter; they packed the baronial council with their own hardliners and refused to demobilise their forces or surrender London as agreed. Despite his promises to the contrary, John appealed to Innocent for help, observing that the charter compromised the pope's rights under the 1213 agreement that had appointed him John's feudal lord. Innocent obliged; he declared the charter "not only shameful and demeaning, but illegal and unjust" and excommunicated the rebel barons. The failure of the agreement led rapidly to the First Barons' War.
What did the king lose on his way to the west?
570c5d56b3d812140066d191
significant part of his baggage
50
False
When did John face a stalemate?
570c5d56b3d812140066d192
October 1216
589
False
When were the Crown Jewels lost?
570c5d56b3d812140066d193
as he crossed one of the tidal estuaries
241
False
The king returned west but is said to have lost a significant part of his baggage train along the way. Roger of Wendover provides the most graphic account of this, suggesting that the king's belongings, including the Crown Jewels, were lost as he crossed one of the tidal estuaries which empties into the Wash, being sucked in by quicksand and whirlpools. Accounts of the incident vary considerably between the various chroniclers and the exact location of the incident has never been confirmed; the losses may have involved only a few of his pack-horses. Modern historians assert that by October 1216 John faced a "stalemate", "a military situation uncompromised by defeat".
When did John begin a fresh, vigorous attack?
570c5dbbfed7b91900d4593f
September 1216
3
False
Where did John march from?
570c5dbbfed7b91900d45940
Cotswolds
75
False
Where did John contract dysentery?
570c5dbbfed7b91900d45941
King's Lynn
426
False
Who invaded northern England?
570c5dbbfed7b91900d45942
Alexander II
513
False
In September 1216 John began a fresh, vigorous attack. He marched from the Cotswolds, feigned an offensive to relieve the besieged Windsor Castle, and attacked eastwards around London to Cambridge to separate the rebel-held areas of Lincolnshire and East Anglia. From there he travelled north to relieve the rebel siege at Lincoln and back east to King's Lynn, probably to order further supplies from the continent.[nb 17] In King's Lynn, John contracted dysentery, which would ultimately prove fatal. Meanwhile, Alexander II invaded northern England again, taking Carlisle in August and then marching south to give homage to Prince Louis for his English possessions; John narrowly missed intercepting Alexander along the way. Tensions between Louis and the English barons began to increase, prompting a wave of desertions, including William Marshal's son William and William Longespée, who both returned to John's faction.
When did political and religious changes alter the attitude of historians towards John?
570c5e0efed7b91900d45947
16th century
7
False
Which historians were favourably inclined towards the king?
570c5e0efed7b91900d45948
Tudor historians
101
False
What praised John's "great renown" as a king?
570c5e0efed7b91900d45949
John Speed's Historie of Great Britaine
461
False
In the 16th century political and religious changes altered the attitude of historians towards John. Tudor historians were generally favourably inclined towards the king, focusing on John's opposition to the Papacy and his promotion of the special rights and prerogatives of a king. Revisionist histories written by John Foxe, William Tyndale and Robert Barnes portrayed John as an early Protestant hero, and John Foxe included the king in his Book of Martyrs. John Speed's Historie of Great Britaine in 1632 praised John's "great renown" as a king; he blamed the bias of medieval chroniclers for the king's poor reputation.
What heavily influenced nineteenth-century fictional depictions of John?
570c5e65fed7b91900d4594d
Ivanhoe
114
False
Who played John in 1938?
570c5e65fed7b91900d4594e
Claude Rains
727
False
Who was John depicted alongside?
570c5e65fed7b91900d4594f
Robin Hood
582
False
Nineteenth-century fictional depictions of John were heavily influenced by Sir Walter Scott's historical romance, Ivanhoe, which presented "an almost totally unfavourable picture" of the king; the work drew on Victorian histories of the period and on Shakespeare's play. Scott's work influenced the late 19th-century children's writer Howard Pyle's book The Merry Adventures of Robin Hood, which in turn established John as the principal villain within the traditional Robin Hood narrative. During the 20th century, John was normally depicted in fictional books and films alongside Robin Hood. Sam De Grasse's role as John in the black-and-white 1922 film version shows John committing numerous atrocities and acts of torture. Claude Rains played John in the 1938 colour version alongside Errol Flynn, starting a trend for films to depict John as an "effeminate ... arrogant and cowardly stay-at-home". The character of John acts either to highlight the virtues of King Richard, or contrasts with the Sheriff of Nottingham, who is usually the "swashbuckling villain" opposing Robin. An extreme version of this trend can be seen in the Disney cartoon version, for example, which depicts John, voiced by Peter Ustinov, as a "cowardly, thumbsucking lion". Popular works that depict John beyond the Robin Hood legends, such as James Goldman's play and later film, The Lion in Winter, set in 1183, commonly present him as an "effete weakling", in this instance contrasted with the more masculine Henry II, or as a tyrant, as in A. A. Milne's poem for children, "King John's Christmas".
Which historians wrote early in John's life?
570c5eb8b3d812140066d197
Richard of Devizes, William of Newburgh, Roger of Hoveden and Ralph de Diceto
295
False
How did historians feel about John's behavior under Richard's rule?
570c5eb8b3d812140066d198
unsympathetic
406
False
John attempted conversion of what in exchange for military aid?
570c5eb8b3d812140066d199
Islam
962
False
Historical interpretations of John have been subject to considerable change over the years. Medieval chroniclers provided the first contemporary, or near contemporary, histories of John's reign. One group of chroniclers wrote early in John's life, or around the time of his accession, including Richard of Devizes, William of Newburgh, Roger of Hoveden and Ralph de Diceto. These historians were generally unsympathetic to John's behaviour under Richard's rule, but slightly more positive towards the very earliest years of John's reign. Reliable accounts of the middle and later parts of John's reign are more limited, with Gervase of Canterbury and Ralph of Coggeshall writing the main accounts; neither of them were positive about John's performance as king. Much of John's later, negative reputation was established by two chroniclers writing after the king's death, Roger of Wendover and Matthew Paris, the latter claiming that John attempted conversion to Islam in exchange for military aid from the Almohad ruler Muhammad al-Nasir - a story which is considered to be untrue by modern historians.
When did popular representations of John begin to emerge?
570c5f39b3d812140066d19d
Tudor period
65
False
What was Anthony Munday's play?
570c5f39b3d812140066d19e
The Downfall and The Death of Robert Earl of Huntington
689
False
In The Troublesome Reign of King John, John portrayed the king as what?
570c5f39b3d812140066d19f
proto-Protestant martyr
207
False
Popular representations of John first began to emerge during the Tudor period, mirroring the revisionist histories of the time. The anonymous play The Troublesome Reign of King John portrayed the king as a "proto-Protestant martyr", similar to that shown in John Bale's morality play Kynge Johan, in which John attempts to save England from the "evil agents of the Roman Church". By contrast, Shakespeare's King John, a relatively anti-Catholic play that draws on The Troublesome Reign for its source material, offers a more "balanced, dual view of a complex monarch as both a proto-Protestant victim of Rome's machinations and as a weak, selfishly motivated ruler". Anthony Munday's play The Downfall and The Death of Robert Earl of Huntington portrays many of John's negative traits, but adopts a positive interpretation of the king's stand against the Roman Catholic Church, in line with the contemporary views of the Tudor monarchs. By the middle of the 17th century, plays such as Robert Davenport's King John and Matilda, although based largely on the earlier Elizabethan works, were transferring the role of Protestant champion to the barons and focusing more on the tyrannical aspects of John's behaviour.
Who was critical of John's performance as king?
570c5f7bb3d812140066d1a3
Contemporary chroniclers
0
False
What historian summarised the contemporary historical opinion of John's positive qualities?
570c5f7bb3d812140066d1a4
Jim Bradbury
217
False
John remains a recurring character within what culture?
570c5f7bb3d812140066d1a5
Western
783
False
Contemporary chroniclers were mostly critical of John's performance as king, and his reign has since been the subject of significant debate and periodic revision by historians from the 16th century onwards. Historian Jim Bradbury has summarised the contemporary historical opinion of John's positive qualities, observing that John is today usually considered a "hard-working administrator, an able man, an able general". Nonetheless, modern historians agree that he also had many faults as king, including what historian Ralph Turner describes as "distasteful, even dangerous personality traits", such as pettiness, spitefulness and cruelty. These negative qualities provided extensive material for fiction writers in the Victorian era, and John remains a recurring character within Western popular culture, primarily as a villain in films and stories depicting the Robin Hood legends.
Henry II wanted to secure the southern borders of what?
570c5feab3d812140066d1a9
Aquitaine
50
False
Who was Alais?
570c5feab3d812140066d1aa
the daughter and heiress of Humbert III of Savoy
110
False
What castles did Henry II transfer into John's name?
570c5feab3d812140066d1ab
Chinon, Loudun and Mirebeau
387
False
Henry II wanted to secure the southern borders of Aquitaine and decided to betroth his youngest son to Alais, the daughter and heiress of Humbert III of Savoy. As part of this agreement John was promised the future inheritance of Savoy, Piedmont, Maurienne, and the other possessions of Count Humbert. For his part in the potential marriage alliance, Henry II transferred the castles of Chinon, Loudun and Mirebeau into John's name; as John was only five years old his father would continue to control them for practical purposes. Henry the Young King was unimpressed by this; although he had yet to be granted control of any castles in his new kingdom, these were effectively his future property and had been given away without consultation. Alais made the trip over the Alps and joined Henry II's court, but she died before marrying John, which left the prince once again without an inheritance.
When did John successfully conduct a sudden attack and siege of Evreux castle?
570c602dfed7b91900d45953
1195
386
False
Richard withdrew what towards John?
570c602dfed7b91900d45954
malevolentia
723
False
Who was the Count of Mortain?
570c602dfed7b91900d45955
John
755
False
For the remaining years of Richard's reign, John supported his brother on the continent, apparently loyally. Richard's policy on the continent was to attempt to regain through steady, limited campaigns the castles he had lost to Philip II whilst on crusade. He allied himself with the leaders of Flanders, Boulogne and the Holy Roman Empire to apply pressure on Philip from Germany. In 1195 John successfully conducted a sudden attack and siege of Évreux castle, and subsequently managed the defences of Normandy against Philip. The following year, John seized the town of Gamaches and led a raiding party within 50 miles (80 km) of Paris, capturing the Bishop of Beauvais. In return for this service, Richard withdrew his malevolentia (ill-will) towards John, restored him to the county of Gloucestershire and made him again the Count of Mortain.
Who was Isabella engaged to?
570c6099fed7b91900d45959
Hugh of Lusignan
47
False
Hugh of Lusignan was an important member of what?
570c6099fed7b91900d4595a
a key Poitou noble family
88
False
John treated Hugh with what?
570c6099fed7b91900d4595b
contempt
509
False
Unfortunately, Isabella was already engaged to Hugh of Lusignan, an important member of a key Poitou noble family and brother of Count Raoul of Eu, who possessed lands along the sensitive eastern Normandy border. Just as John stood to benefit strategically from marrying Isabella, so the marriage threatened the interests of the Lusignans, whose own lands currently provided the key route for royal goods and troops across Aquitaine. Rather than negotiating some form of compensation, John treated Hugh "with contempt"; this resulted in a Lusignan uprising that was promptly crushed by John, who also intervened to suppress Raoul in Normandy.
What did John attempt to relieve in late 1203?
570c60d7fed7b91900d4595f
Château Gaillard
40
False
Who blocked John's relief operation?
570c60d7fed7b91900d45960
Philip's forces
414
False
When did Gaillard fall?
570c60d7fed7b91900d45961
March 1204
1458
False
What was John's only remaining possession on the Continent?
570c60d7fed7b91900d45962
Duchy of Aquitaine
1947
False
In late 1203, John attempted to relieve Château Gaillard, which although besieged by Philip was guarding the eastern flank of Normandy. John attempted a synchronised operation involving land-based and water-borne forces, considered by most historians today to have been imaginative in conception, but overly complex for forces of the period to have carried out successfully. John's relief operation was blocked by Philip's forces, and John turned back to Brittany in an attempt to draw Philip away from eastern Normandy. John successfully devastated much of Brittany, but did not deflect Philip's main thrust into the east of Normandy. Opinions vary amongst historians as to the military skill shown by John during this campaign, with most recent historians arguing that his performance was passable, although not impressive.[nb 8] John's situation began to deteriorate rapidly. The eastern border region of Normandy had been extensively cultivated by Philip and his predecessors for several years, whilst Angevin authority in the south had been undermined by Richard's giving away of various key castles some years before. His use of routier mercenaries in the central regions had rapidly eaten away his remaining support in this area too, which set the stage for a sudden collapse of Angevin power.[nb 9] John retreated back across the Channel in December, sending orders for the establishment of a fresh defensive line to the west of Chateau Gaillard. In March 1204, Gaillard fell. John's mother Eleanor died the following month. This was not just a personal blow for John, but threatened to unravel the widespread Angevin alliances across the far south of France. Philip moved south around the new defensive line and struck upwards at the heart of the Duchy, now facing little resistance. By August, Philip had taken Normandy and advanced south to occupy Anjou and Poitou as well. John's only remaining possession on the Continent was now the Duchy of Aquitaine.
How many times did John levi scutage payments?
570c612fb3d812140066d1af
eleven
110
False
When did John initiate a new round of appointments?
570c612fb3d812140066d1b0
1194
639
False
Who were subject to huge taxes?
570c612fb3d812140066d1b1
The Jews
1155
False
When did John create a new tax on income and movable goods?
570c612fb3d812140066d1b2
1207
1473
False
The result was a sequence of innovative but unpopular financial measures.[nb 10] John levied scutage payments eleven times in his seventeen years as king, as compared to eleven times in total during the reign of the preceding three monarchs. In many cases these were levied in the absence of any actual military campaign, which ran counter to the original idea that scutage was an alternative to actual military service. John maximised his right to demand relief payments when estates and castles were inherited, sometimes charging enormous sums, beyond barons' abilities to pay. Building on the successful sale of sheriff appointments in 1194, John initiated a new round of appointments, with the new incumbents making back their investment through increased fines and penalties, particularly in the forests. Another innovation of Richard's, increased charges levied on widows who wished to remain single, was expanded under John. John continued to sell charters for new towns, including the planned town of Liverpool, and charters were sold for markets across the kingdom and in Gascony.[nb 11] The king introduced new taxes and extended existing ones. The Jews, who held a vulnerable position in medieval England, protected only by the king, were subject to huge taxes; £44,000 was extracted from the community by the tallage of 1210; much of it was passed on to the Christian debtors of Jewish moneylenders.[nb 12] John created a new tax on income and movable goods in 1207 – effectively a version of a modern income tax – that produced £60,000; he created a new set of import and export duties payable directly to the crown. John found that these measures enabled him to raise further resources through the confiscation of the lands of barons who could not pay or refused to pay.
Many of John's mistresses were what?
570c6186b3d812140066d1b7
married noblewomen
257
False
How many children did John have with mistresses during his first marriage?
570c6186b3d812140066d1b8
five
330
False
How many of John's known illegitimate children were born after he remarried?
570c6186b3d812140066d1b9
None
568
False
John's personal life greatly affected his reign. Contemporary chroniclers state that John was sinfully lustful and lacking in piety. It was common for kings and nobles of the period to keep mistresses, but chroniclers complained that John's mistresses were married noblewomen, which was considered unacceptable. John had at least five children with mistresses during his first marriage to Isabelle of Gloucester, and two of those mistresses are known to have been noblewomen. John's behaviour after his second marriage to Isabella of Angoulême is less clear, however. None of John's known illegitimate children were born after he remarried, and there is no actual documentary proof of adultery after that point, although John certainly had female friends amongst the court throughout the period. The specific accusations made against John during the baronial revolts are now generally considered to have been invented for the purposes of justifying the revolt; nonetheless, most of John's contemporaries seem to have held a poor opinion of his sexual behaviour.[nb 14]
How many galleys were available by the end of 1204?
570c61e4b3d812140066d1bd
50
278
False
54 vessels were built between what years?
570c61e4b3d812140066d1be
1209 and 1212
344
False
Who was appointed "keeper of the galleys?"
570c61e4b3d812140066d1bf
William of Wrotham
359
False
John had already begun to improve his Channel forces before the loss of Normandy and he rapidly built up further maritime capabilities after its collapse. Most of these ships were placed along the Cinque Ports, but Portsmouth was also enlarged. By the end of 1204 he had around 50 large galleys available; another 54 vessels were built between 1209 and 1212. William of Wrotham was appointed "keeper of the galleys", effectively John's chief admiral. Wrotham was responsible for fusing John's galleys, the ships of the Cinque Ports and pressed merchant vessels into a single operational fleet. John adopted recent improvements in ship design, including new large transport ships called buisses and removable forecastles for use in combat.
Where did John visit every year between 1204 and 1211?
570c625dfed7b91900d45967
Wales
238
False
Who did John marry Joan to?
570c625dfed7b91900d45968
Llywelyn the Great
379
False
What did John use to increase his own territory and power?
570c625dfed7b91900d45969
marcher lords and the native Welsh
417
False
When did a royal expedition to enforce agreements occur?
570c625dfed7b91900d4596a
1211
662
False
Royal power in Wales was unevenly applied, with the country divided between the marcher lords along the borders, royal territories in Pembrokeshire and the more independent native Welsh lords of North Wales. John took a close interest in Wales and knew the country well, visiting every year between 1204 and 1211 and marrying his illegitimate daughter, Joan, to the Welsh prince Llywelyn the Great. The king used the marcher lords and the native Welsh to increase his own territory and power, striking a sequence of increasingly precise deals backed by royal military power with the Welsh rulers. A major royal expedition to enforce these agreements occurred in 1211, after Llywelyn attempted to exploit the instability caused by the removal of William de Braose, through the Welsh uprising of 1211. John's invasion, striking into the Welsh heartlands, was a military success. Llywelyn came to terms that included an expansion of John's power across much of Wales, albeit only temporarily.
Where were Monastic communities allowed to celebrate Mass in private?
570c62a1fed7b91900d4596f
1209
127
False
When was the Holy Viaticum for the dying authorised?
570c62a1fed7b91900d45970
1212
153
False
What threat was John worried about?
570c62a1fed7b91900d45971
French invasion
495
False
Innocent gave some dispensations as the crisis progressed. Monastic communities were allowed to celebrate Mass in private from 1209 onwards, and late in 1212 the Holy Viaticum for the dying was authorised. The rules on burials and lay access to churches appear to have been steadily circumvented, at least unofficially. Although the interdict was a burden to much of the population, it did not result in rebellion against John. By 1213, though, John was increasingly worried about the threat of French invasion. Some contemporary chroniclers suggested that in January Philip II of France had been charged with deposing John on behalf of the papacy, although it appears that Innocent merely prepared secret letters in case Innocent needed to claim the credit if Philip did successfully invade England.
Where did John hold a council in January 1215?
570c62e8fed7b91900d45975
London
147
False
Where did John recruit mercenary forces from?
570c62e8fed7b91900d45976
Poitou
632
False
John announced his intent to become what?
570c62e8fed7b91900d45977
a crusader
785
False
Within a few months of John's return, rebel barons in the north and east of England were organising resistance to his rule. John held a council in London in January 1215 to discuss potential reforms and sponsored discussions in Oxford between his agents and the rebels during the spring. John appears to have been playing for time until Pope Innocent III could send letters giving him explicit papal support. This was particularly important for John, as a way of pressuring the barons but also as a way of controlling Stephen Langton, the Archbishop of Canterbury. In the meantime, John began to recruit fresh mercenary forces from Poitou, although some were later sent back to avoid giving the impression that the king was escalating the conflict. John announced his intent to become a crusader, a move which gave him additional political protection under church law.
When did John retake Rochester Castle?
570c634eb3d812140066d1c3
November
33
False
John marched against who in January 1216?
570c634eb3d812140066d1c4
Alexander II of Scotland
694
False
John sent William Longespee to retake what?
570c634eb3d812140066d1c5
north side of London and East Anglia
424
False
John's campaign started well. In November John retook Rochester Castle from rebel baron William d'Aubigny in a sophisticated assault. One chronicler had not seen "a siege so hard pressed or so strongly resisted", whilst historian Reginald Brown describes it as "one of the greatest [siege] operations in England up to that time". Having regained the south-east John split his forces, sending William Longespée to retake the north side of London and East Anglia, whilst John himself headed north via Nottingham to attack the estates of the northern barons. Both operations were successful and the majority of the remaining rebels were pinned down in London. In January 1216 John marched against Alexander II of Scotland, who had allied himself with the rebel cause. John took back Alexander's possessions in northern England in a rapid campaign and pushed up towards Edinburgh over a ten-day period.
When did John die?
570c63d6b3d812140066d1c9
18 October
130
False
When was a new sarcophagus made for him?
570c63d6b3d812140066d1ca
1232
487
False
Where was John buried?
570c63d6b3d812140066d1cb
Worcester Cathedral
376
False
John's illness grew worse and by the time he reached Newark Castle he was unable to travel any farther; John died on the night of 18 October. Numerous – probably fictitious – accounts circulated soon after his death that he had been killed by poisoned ale, poisoned plums or a "surfeit of peaches". His body was escorted south by a company of mercenaries and he was buried in Worcester Cathedral in front of the altar of St Wulfstan. A new sarcophagus with an effigy was made for him in 1232, in which his remains now rest.
Who blamed John's family background for his cruel personality?
570c6499fed7b91900d4597b
James Ramsay
322
False
What documents trace a progressive and universalist course of political and economic development in England?
570c6499fed7b91900d4597c
Domesday Book and Magna Carta
485
False
What period in the 19th century were historians more inclined to draw on the judgements of the chroniclers?
570c6499fed7b91900d4597d
Victorian
7
False
By the Victorian period in the 19th century historians were more inclined to draw on the judgements of the chroniclers and to focus on John's moral personality. Kate Norgate, for example, argued that John's downfall had been due not to his failure in war or strategy, but due to his "almost superhuman wickedness", whilst James Ramsay blamed John's family background and his cruel personality for his downfall. Historians in the "Whiggish" tradition, focusing on documents such as the Domesday Book and Magna Carta, trace a progressive and universalist course of political and economic development in England over the medieval period. These historians were often inclined to see John's reign, and his signing of Magna Carta in particular, as a positive step in the constitutional development of England, despite the flaws of the king himself. Winston Churchill, for example, argued that "[w]hen the long tally is added, it will be seen that the British nation and the English-speaking world owe far more to the vices of John than to the labours of virtuous sovereigns".
John lost the duchy of Normandy to who?
570c6526b3d812140066d1cf
King Philip II of France
204
False
What led to the sealing of the Magna Carta?
570c6526b3d812140066d1d0
baronial revolt
394
False
The collapse of the Angevin Empire contributed to the growth in power of what dynasty?
570c6526b3d812140066d1d1
Capetian
348
False
John (24 December 1166 – 19 October 1216), also known as John Lackland (Norman French: Johan sanz Terre), was King of England from 6 April 1199 until his death in 1216. John lost the duchy of Normandy to King Philip II of France, which resulted in the collapse of most of the Angevin Empire and contributed to the subsequent growth in power of the Capetian dynasty during the 13th century. The baronial revolt at the end of John's reign led to the sealing of the Magna Carta, a document sometimes considered to be an early step in the evolution of the constitution of the United Kingdom.
Where did Eleanor leave to?
570c6560fed7b91900d4598b
Poitiers
158
False
John was taught by who?
570c6560fed7b91900d4598c
Ranulph Glanville
737
False
John was assigned what whilst he was at Fontevrault?
570c6560fed7b91900d4598d
magister
571
False
Shortly after his birth, John was passed from Eleanor into the care of a wet nurse, a traditional practice for medieval noble families. Eleanor then left for Poitiers, the capital of Aquitaine, and sent John and his sister Joan north to Fontevrault Abbey. This may have been done with the aim of steering her youngest son, with no obvious inheritance, towards a future ecclesiastical career. Eleanor spent the next few years conspiring against her husband Henry and neither parent played a part in John's very early life. John was probably, like his brothers, assigned a magister whilst he was at Fontevrault, a teacher charged with his early education and with managing the servants of his immediate household; John was later taught by Ranulph Glanville, a leading English administrator. John spent some time as a member of the household of his eldest living brother Henry the Young King, where he probably received instruction in hunting and military skills.
John spent the conflict traveling alongside who?
570c65bcfed7b91900d45991
his father
49
False
When did Henry II appropriate the estates of the late Earl of Cornwall?
570c65bcfed7b91900d45992
1175
393
False
Who dismissed William FitzAldelm as the Lord of Ireland?
570c65bcfed7b91900d45993
Henry
675
False
John had spent the conflict travelling alongside his father, and was given widespread possessions across the Angevin empire as part of the Montlouis settlement; from then onwards, most observers regarded John as Henry II's favourite child, although he was the furthest removed in terms of the royal succession. Henry II began to find more lands for John, mostly at various nobles' expense. In 1175 he appropriated the estates of the late Earl of Cornwall and gave them to John. The following year, Henry disinherited the sisters of Isabelle of Gloucester, contrary to legal custom, and betrothed John to the now extremely wealthy Isabelle. In 1177, at the Council of Oxford, Henry dismissed William FitzAldelm as the Lord of Ireland and replaced him with the ten-year-old John.
When did Richard become king?
570c660afed7b91900d45997
September 1189
49
False
Who took over as joint justiciar with Puiset after Mandeville died?
570c660afed7b91900d45998
Longchamp
1329
False
Who convinced Richard to allow John to join into England?
570c660afed7b91900d45999
Eleanor
1443
False
When John's elder brother Richard became king in September 1189, he had already declared his intention of joining the Third Crusade. Richard set about raising the huge sums of money required for this expedition through the sale of lands, titles and appointments, and attempted to ensure that he would not face a revolt while away from his empire. John was made Count of Mortain, was married to the wealthy Isabel of Gloucester, and was given valuable lands in Lancaster and the counties of Cornwall, Derby, Devon, Dorset, Nottingham and Somerset, all with the aim of buying his loyalty to Richard whilst the king was on crusade. Richard retained royal control of key castles in these counties, thereby preventing John from accumulating too much military and political power, and, for the time being, the king named the four-year-old Arthur of Brittany as the heir to the throne. In return, John promised not to visit England for the next three years, thereby in theory giving Richard adequate time to conduct a successful crusade and return from the Levant without fear of John seizing power. Richard left political authority in England – the post of justiciar – jointly in the hands of Bishop Hugh de Puiset and William Mandeville, and made William Longchamp, the Bishop of Ely, his chancellor. Mandeville immediately died, and Longchamp took over as joint justiciar with Puiset, which would prove to be a less than satisfactory partnership. Eleanor, the queen mother, convinced Richard to allow John into England in his absence.
Warfare in Normandy was shaped by what?
570c66a0fed7b91900d459a7
defensive potential of castles
50
False
What were mercenary forces called?
570c66a0fed7b91900d459a8
Brabançons
738
False
What castle was built at a strategic point?
570c66a0fed7b91900d459a9
Château Gaillard
231
False
Warfare in Normandy at the time was shaped by the defensive potential of castles and the increasing costs of conducting campaigns. The Norman frontiers had limited natural defences but were heavily reinforced with castles, such as Château Gaillard, at strategic points, built and maintained at considerable expense. It was difficult for a commander to advance far into fresh territory without having secured his lines of communication by capturing these fortifications, which slowed the progress of any attack. Armies of the period could be formed from either feudal or mercenary forces. Feudal levies could only be raised for a fixed length of time before they returned home, forcing an end to a campaign; mercenary forces, often called Brabançons after the Duchy of Brabant but actually recruited from across northern Europe, could operate all year long and provide a commander with more strategic options to pursue a campaign, but cost much more than equivalent feudal forces. As a result, commanders of the period were increasingly drawing on larger numbers of mercenaries.
Who accompanied John?
570c672cb3d812140066d1d5
William de Roches
370
False
Why was Philip forced to withdraw in the east?
570c672cb3d812140066d1d6
southern flank weakening
585
False
Who was caught by surprised?
570c672cb3d812140066d1d7
Arthur
489
False
John initially adopted a defensive posture similar to that of 1199: avoiding open battle and carefully defending his key castles. John's operations became more chaotic as the campaign progressed, and Philip began to make steady progress in the east. John became aware in July that Arthur's forces were threatening his mother, Eleanor, at Mirebeau Castle. Accompanied by William de Roches, his seneschal in Anjou, he swung his mercenary army rapidly south to protect her. His forces caught Arthur by surprise and captured the entire rebel leadership at the battle of Mirebeau. With his southern flank weakening, Philip was forced to withdraw in the east and turn south himself to contain John's army.
What did John inherit in England?
570c6790fed7b91900d459ad
sophisticated system of administration
17
False
Who dealt with income and expenditure?
570c6790fed7b91900d459ae
the Treasury and the Exchequer
185
False
John followed in the tradition of who?
570c6790fed7b91900d459af
Henry I and Henry II
747
False
John inherited a sophisticated system of administration in England, with a range of royal agents answering to the Royal Household: the Chancery kept written records and communications; the Treasury and the Exchequer dealt with income and expenditure respectively; and various judges were deployed to deliver justice around the kingdom. Thanks to the efforts of men like Hubert Walter, this trend towards improved record keeping continued into his reign. Like previous kings, John managed a peripatetic court that travelled around the kingdom, dealing with both local and national matters as he went. John was very active in the administration of England and was involved in every aspect of government. In part he was following in the tradition of Henry I and Henry II, but by the 13th century the volume of administrative work had greatly increased, which put much more pressure on a king who wished to rule in this style. John was in England for much longer periods than his predecessors, which made his rule more personal than that of previous kings, particularly in previously ignored areas such as the north.
John's royal household was based around what?
570c67dcfed7b91900d459b3
several groups of followers
40
False
Who were the curia regis?
570c67dcfed7b91900d459b4
senior officials and agents of the king
347
False
The mercenary leaders became infamous in England for what?
570c67dcfed7b91900d459b5
their uncivilised behaviour
965
False
John's royal household was based around several groups of followers. One group was the familiares regis, John's immediate friends and knights who travelled around the country with him. They also played an important role in organising and leading military campaigns. Another section of royal followers were the curia regis; these curiales were the senior officials and agents of the king and were essential to his day-to-day rule. Being a member of these inner circles brought huge advantages, as it was easier to gain favours from the king, file lawsuits, marry a wealthy heiress or have one's debts remitted. By the time of Henry II, these posts were increasingly being filled by "new men" from outside the normal ranks of the barons. This intensified under John's rule, with many lesser nobles arriving from the continent to take up positions at court; many were mercenary leaders from Poitou. These men included soldiers who would become infamous in England for their uncivilised behaviour, including Falkes de Breauté, Geard d'Athies, Engelard de Cigongé and Philip Marc. Many barons perceived the king's household as what Ralph Turner has characterised as a "narrow clique enjoying royal favour at barons' expense" staffed by men of lesser status.
Historians suspected that John was at best what?
570c6868b3d812140066d1db
impious
144
False
Who was later declared a saint?
570c6868b3d812140066d1dc
Hugh of Lincoln
953
False
Many records showed what?
570c6868b3d812140066d1dd
John's offerings to the poor
1135
False
John's lack of religious conviction has been noted by contemporary chroniclers and later historians, with some suspecting that John was at best impious, or even atheistic, a very serious issue at the time. Contemporary chroniclers catalogued his various anti-religious habits at length, including his failure to take communion, his blasphemous remarks, and his witty but scandalous jokes about church doctrine, including jokes about the implausibility of the Resurrection. They commented on the paucity of John's charitable donations to the church. Historian Frank McLynn argues that John's early years at Fontevrault, combined with his relatively advanced education, may have turned him against the church. Other historians have been more cautious in interpreting this material, noting that chroniclers also reported John's personal interest in the life of St Wulfstan of Worcester and his friendships with several senior clerics, most especially with Hugh of Lincoln, who was later declared a saint. Financial records show a normal royal household engaged in the usual feasts and pious observances – albeit with many records showing John's offerings to the poor to atone for routinely breaking church rules and guidance. The historian Lewis Warren has argued that the chronicler accounts were subject to considerable bias and the King was "at least conventionally devout," citing his pilgrimages and interest in religious scripture and commentaries.
What did John do during the truce of 1206-1208?
570c68b4b3d812140066d1e1
focused on building up his financial and military resources
36
False
By 1212, John had successfully concluded alliances  with who?
570c68b4b3d812140066d1e2
Otto IV
386
False
John launched his new fleet to attach the French where?
570c68b4b3d812140066d1e3
the harbour of Damme
910
False
During the truce of 1206–1208, John focused on building up his financial and military resources in preparation for another attempt to recapture Normandy. John used some of this money to pay for new alliances on Philip's eastern frontiers, where the growth in Capetian power was beginning to concern France's neighbours. By 1212 John had successfully concluded alliances with his nephew Otto IV, a contender for the crown of Holy Roman Emperor in Germany, as well as with the counts Renaud of Boulogne and Ferdinand of Flanders. The invasion plans for 1212 were postponed because of fresh English baronial unrest about service in Poitou. Philip seized the initiative in 1213, sending his elder son, Louis, to invade Flanders with the intention of next launching an invasion of England. John was forced to postpone his own invasion plans to counter this threat. He launched his new fleet to attack the French at the harbour of Damme. The attack was a success, destroying Philip's vessels and any chances of an invasion of England that year. John hoped to exploit this advantage by invading himself late in 1213, but baronial discontent again delayed his invasion plans until early 1214, in what would prove to be his final Continental campaign.
Who did John want to be appointed Archbishop of Canterbury?
570c6902fed7b91900d459b9
John de Gray
12
False
Who did Innocent disavow?
570c6902fed7b91900d459ba
Reginald and John de Gray
760
False
Who did John force to change their support to John de Gray?
570c6902fed7b91900d459bb
Canterbury chapter
601
False
John wanted John de Gray, the Bishop of Norwich and one of his own supporters, to be appointed Archbishop of Canterbury after the death of Walter, but the cathedral chapter for Canterbury Cathedral claimed the exclusive right to elect Walter's successor. They favoured Reginald, the chapter's sub-prior. To complicate matters, the bishops of the province of Canterbury also claimed the right to appoint the next archbishop. The chapter secretly elected Reginald and he travelled to Rome to be confirmed; the bishops challenged the appointment and the matter was taken before Innocent. John forced the Canterbury chapter to change their support to John de Gray, and a messenger was sent to Rome to inform the papacy of the new decision. Innocent disavowed both Reginald and John de Gray, and instead appointed his own candidate, Stephen Langton. John refused Innocent's request that he consent to Langton's appointment, but the pope consecrated Langton anyway in June 1207.
Where did many of the disaffected barons come from?
570c695efed7b91900d459bf
north of England
169
False
Who was appointed justiciar?
570c695efed7b91900d459c0
Peter des Roches
855
False
What was the final straw that precipitated the baronial uprising during John's final years as king?
570c695efed7b91900d459c1
The failure of John's French military campaign
978
False
Tensions between John and the barons had been growing for several years, as demonstrated by the 1212 plot against the king. Many of the disaffected barons came from the north of England; that faction was often labelled by contemporaries and historians as "the Northerners". The northern barons rarely had any personal stake in the conflict in France, and many of them owed large sums of money to John; the revolt has been characterised as "a rebellion of the king's debtors". Many of John's military household joined the rebels, particularly amongst those that John had appointed to administrative roles across England; their local links and loyalties outweighed their personal loyalty to John. Tension also grew across North Wales, where opposition to the 1211 treaty between John and Llywelyn was turning into open conflict. For some the appointment of Peter des Roches as justiciar was an important factor, as he was considered an "abrasive foreigner" by many of the barons. The failure of John's French military campaign in 1214 was probably the final straw that precipitated the baronial uprising during John's final years as king; James Holt describes the path to civil war as "direct, short and unavoidable" following the defeat at Bouvines.
When did John meet the rebel leaders at Runnymede?
570c69aeb3d812140066d1e7
15 June 1215
65
False
A council of how many barons was created to monitor John's future adherence to the charter?
570c69aeb3d812140066d1e8
twenty-five
635
False
The peace agreement was renamed what?
570c69aeb3d812140066d1e9
Magna Carta
189
False
John met the rebel leaders at Runnymede, near Windsor Castle, on 15 June 1215. Langton's efforts at mediation created a charter capturing the proposed peace agreement; it was later renamed Magna Carta, or "Great Charter". The charter went beyond simply addressing specific baronial complaints, and formed a wider proposal for political reform, albeit one focusing on the rights of free men, not serfs and unfree labour. It promised the protection of church rights, protection from illegal imprisonment, access to swift justice, new taxation only with baronial consent and limitations on scutage and other feudal payments. A council of twenty-five barons would be created to monitor and ensure John's future adherence to the charter, whilst the rebel army would stand down and London would be surrendered to the king.
When did Prince Louis int to land in the south of England?
570c69eafed7b91900d459c5
May 1216
57
False
Why did John hesitate to attack Louis?
570c69eafed7b91900d459c6
due to the risks of open battle
283
False
When did the rebels regain the south-east of England?
570c69eafed7b91900d459c7
end of the summer
624
False
Prince Louis intended to land in the south of England in May 1216, and John assembled a naval force to intercept him. Unfortunately for John, his fleet was dispersed by bad storms and Louis landed unopposed in Kent. John hesitated and decided not to attack Louis immediately, either due to the risks of open battle or over concerns about the loyalty of his own men. Louis and the rebel barons advanced west and John retreated, spending the summer reorganising his defences across the rest of the kingdom. John saw several of his military household desert to the rebels, including his half-brother, William Longespée. By the end of the summer the rebels had regained the south-east of England and parts of the north.
When was Isabel released from imprisonment?
570c6a8cb3d812140066d1ed
1214
85
False
Who did Joan marry to become queen consort?
570c6a8cb3d812140066d1ee
Alexander II of Scotland
571
False
How many legitimate children did John have?
570c6a8cb3d812140066d1ef
five
333
False
Who was John's eldest son?
570c6a8cb3d812140066d1f0
Henry III
392
False
John's first wife, Isabel, Countess of Gloucester, was released from imprisonment in 1214; she remarried twice, and died in 1217. John's second wife, Isabella of Angoulême, left England for Angoulême soon after the king's death; she became a powerful regional leader, but largely abandoned the children she had had by John. John had five legitimate children, all by Isabella. His eldest son, Henry III, ruled as king for the majority of the 13th century. Richard became a noted European leader and ultimately the King of the Romans in the Holy Roman Empire. Joan married Alexander II of Scotland to become his queen consort. Isabella married the Holy Roman Emperor Frederick II. His youngest daughter, Eleanor, married William Marshal's son, also called William, and later the famous English rebel Simon de Montfort. John had a number of illegitimate children by various mistresses, including nine sons – Richard, Oliver, John, Geoffrey, Henry, Osbert Gifford, Eudes, Bartholomew and probably Philip – and three daughters – Joan, Maud and probably Isabel. Of these, Joan became the most famous, marrying Prince Llywelyn the Great of Wales.
What biographers argue that John was an unsuccessful monarch?
570c6b74fed7b91900d459cb
Ralph Turner and Lewis Warren
59
False
Modern historians have been over lenient towards what?
570c6b74fed7b91900d459cc
John's numerous faults
807
False
John Gillingham considers John what?
570c6b74fed7b91900d459cd
a less effective general
574
False
Most historians today, including John's recent biographers Ralph Turner and Lewis Warren, argue that John was an unsuccessful monarch, but note that his failings were exaggerated by 12th- and 13th-century chroniclers. Jim Bradbury notes the current consensus that John was a "hard-working administrator, an able man, an able general", albeit, as Turner suggests, with "distasteful, even dangerous personality traits", including pettiness, spitefulness and cruelty. John Gillingham, author of a major biography of Richard I, follows this line too, although he considers John a less effective general than do Turner or Warren, and describes him "one of the worst kings ever to rule England". Bradbury takes a moderate line, but suggests that in recent years modern historians have been overly lenient towards John's numerous faults. Popular historian Frank McLynn maintains a counter-revisionist perspective on John, arguing that the king's modern reputation amongst historians is "bizarre", and that as a monarch John "fails almost all those [tests] that can be legitimately set".
Macintosh
What hindered the competetive ability of Apple when it was introduced?
570cd0bbb3d812140066d27f
expensive
28
False
Where did Macintosh initially find success in the market?
570cd0bbb3d812140066d280
education and desktop publishing
277
False
Which platform, when improved in the 1990's, took market share from Macintosh?
570cd0bbb3d812140066d281
Wintel
424
False
What type of advantage did Intel's Pentium over Macintosh systems in the 1990's?
570cd0bbb3d812140066d282
performance
579
False
Who became the top PC manufacturer in 1994, leaving Apple in 3rd place?
570cd0bbb3d812140066d283
Compaq
715
False
expensive
28
What hindered the competetive ability of Microsoft when it was introduced?
5ad5006e5b96ef001a10a8fe
True
education and desktop publishing
277
Where did Macintosh initially fail in the market?
5ad5006e5b96ef001a10a8ff
True
Wintel
424
Which platform, when improved in the 1980's, took market share from Macintosh?
5ad5006e5b96ef001a10a900
True
performance
579
What type of advantage did Intel's Pentium over Macintosh systems in the 1980's?
5ad5006e5b96ef001a10a901
True
Compaq
715
Who became the top PC manufacturer in 1984, leaving Apple in 3rd place?
5ad5006e5b96ef001a10a902
True
The Macintosh, however, was expensive, which hindered its ability to be competitive in a market already dominated by the Commodore 64 for consumers, as well as the IBM Personal Computer and its accompanying clone market for businesses. Macintosh systems still found success in education and desktop publishing and kept Apple as the second-largest PC manufacturer for the next decade. In the 1990s, improvements in the rival Wintel platform, notably with the introduction of Windows 3.0, then Windows 95, gradually took market share from the more expensive Macintosh systems. The performance advantage of 68000-based Macintosh systems was eroded by Intel's Pentium, and in 1994 Apple was relegated to third place as Compaq became the top PC manufacturer. Even after a transition to the superior PowerPC-based Power Macintosh (later renamed the PowerMac, in line with the PowerBook series) line in 1994, the falling prices of commodity PC components and the release of Windows 95 saw the Macintosh user base decline.
How much RAM did the first Maciuntosh board have?
570cd2e4b3d812140066d291
64 kilobytes (kB)
82
False
Whose idea was it to run Apple Lisa's graphical programs on the Macintosh?
570cd2e4b3d812140066d292
Bud Tribble, a member of the Mac team
226
False
What did Tribble first incorporate into the Mac?
570cd2e4b3d812140066d293
Lisa's Motorola 68000 microprocessor
394
False
Which design feature did Smith eventually use to make production of a newly designed board more cost-efficient?
570cd2e4b3d812140066d294
fewer RAM chips than the Lisa
713
False
What feature was missing from the final Mac design produced by Smith?
570cd2e4b3d812140066d295
memory slots
1092
False
64 kilobytes
82
How much ROM did the first Macintosh board have?
5ad502305b96ef001a10a94a
True
Bud Tribble
226
Whose idea was it to run Microsoft Lisa's graphical programs on the Macintosh?
5ad502305b96ef001a10a94b
True
Lisa's Motorola 68000 microprocessor
394
What did Tribble last incorporate into the Mac?
5ad502305b96ef001a10a94c
True
fewer RAM chips than the Lisa
713
Which design feature did Smith eventually use to make production of a newly designed board less cost-efficient?
5ad502305b96ef001a10a94d
True
memory slots
1092
What feature was present in the final Mac design produced by Smith?
5ad502305b96ef001a10a94e
True
Smith's first Macintosh board was built to Raskin's design specifications: it had 64 kilobytes (kB) of RAM, used the Motorola 6809E microprocessor, and was capable of supporting a 256×256-pixel black-and-white bitmap display. Bud Tribble, a member of the Mac team, was interested in running the Apple Lisa's graphical programs on the Macintosh, and asked Smith whether he could incorporate the Lisa's Motorola 68000 microprocessor into the Mac while still keeping the production cost down. By December 1980, Smith had succeeded in designing a board that not only used the 68000, but increased its speed from 5 MHz to 8 MHz; this board also had the capacity to support a 384×256-pixel display. Smith's design used fewer RAM chips than the Lisa, which made production of the board significantly more cost-efficient. The final Mac design was self-contained and had the complete QuickDraw picture language and interpreter in 64 kB of ROM – far more than most other computers; it had 128 kB of RAM, in the form of sixteen 64 kilobit (kb) RAM chips soldered to the logicboard. Though there were no memory slots, its RAM was expandable to 512 kB by means of soldering sixteen IC sockets to accept 256 kb RAM chips in place of the factory-installed chips. The final product's screen was a 9-inch, 512x342 pixel monochrome display, exceeding the size of the planned screen.
How much did Apple spend to advertise in a special post-election issue of Newsweek?
570cd5d7b3d812140066d2a5
$2.5 million
12
False
What was the name of the big promotion Apple ran in the special edition of Newsweek?
570cd5d7b3d812140066d2a6
"Test Drive a Macintosh"
118
False
What did Apple allow potential buyers to take home and try for 24 hours?
570cd5d7b3d812140066d2a7
a Macintosh
215
False
How were many computers returned during the Test Drive a Macintosh promotion that made them unsellable?
570cd5d7b3d812140066d2a8
a bad condition
429
False
Who was the CEO of Apple during the Test Drive a Macintosh promotion?
570cd5d7b3d812140066d2a9
John Sculley
515
False
Apple spent $2.5 million purchasing all 39 advertising pages in a special, post-election issue of Newsweek, and ran a "Test Drive a Macintosh" promotion, in which potential buyers with a credit card could take home a Macintosh for 24 hours and return it to a dealer afterwards. While 200,000 people participated, dealers disliked the promotion, the supply of computers was insufficient for demand, and many were returned in such a bad condition that they could no longer be sold. This marketing campaign caused CEO John Sculley to raise the price from US$1,995 to US$2,495 (about $5,200 when adjusted for inflation in 2010). The computer sold well, nonetheless, reportedly outselling the IBM PCjr which also began shipping early that year. By April 1984 the company sold 50,000 Macintoshes, and hoped for 70,000 by early May and almost 250,000 by the end of the year.
What was the longest-lived Macintosh in Apple's history while it was in production?
570cd73cb3d812140066d2b9
The Mac Plus
378
False
How long did the Mac Plus remain in production, unchanged?
570cd73cb3d812140066d2ba
just over four years and ten months
491
False
In 1986, what did Apple introduce to allow developers to create software for Macintosh on Macintosh?
570cd73cb3d812140066d2bb
Macintosh Programmer's Workshop
623
False
What did Apple's HyerCard and MultiFinder add to the Macintosh?
570cd73cb3d812140066d2bc
cooperative multitasking
870
False
After their unveiling in 1987, what did Apple begin bundling with every Macintosh?
570cd73cb3d812140066d2bd
HyperCard and MultiFinder
831
False
The Mac Plus
378
What was the shortest-lived Macintosh in Apple's history while it was in production?
5ad50c675b96ef001a10aad6
True
just over four years and ten months
491
How long did the Mac Minus remain in production, unchanged?
5ad50c675b96ef001a10aad7
True
Macintosh Programmer's Workshop
623
In 1984, what did Apple introduce to allow developers to create software for Macintosh on Macintosh?
5ad50c675b96ef001a10aad8
True
cooperative multitasking
870
What did Microsoft's HyerCard and MultiFinder add to the Macintosh?
5ad50c675b96ef001a10aad9
True
HyperCard and MultiFinder
831
After their unveiling in 1978, what did Apple begin bundling with every Macintosh?
5ad50c675b96ef001a10aada
True
Apple released the Macintosh Plus on January 10, 1986, for a price of US$2,600. It offered one megabyte of RAM, easily expandable to four megabytes by the use of socketed RAM boards. It also featured a SCSI parallel interface, allowing up to seven peripherals—such as hard drives and scanners—to be attached to the machine. Its floppy drive was increased to an 800 kB capacity. The Mac Plus was an immediate success and remained in production, unchanged, until October 15, 1990; on sale for just over four years and ten months, it was the longest-lived Macintosh in Apple's history. In September 1986, Apple introduced the Macintosh Programmer's Workshop, or MPW, an application that allowed software developers to create software for Macintosh on Macintosh, rather than cross compiling from a Lisa. In August 1987, Apple unveiled HyperCard and MultiFinder, which added cooperative multitasking to the Macintosh. Apple began bundling both with every Macintosh.
What Macintosh first included an on-board MMU?
570ce035fed7b91900d45a53
the Macintosh IIx
43
False
What was the first Mac to be "32-bit clean"?
570ce035fed7b91900d45a54
the Macintosh IIci
328
False
What was the starting price of the Macintosh llfx when it was unveiled?
570ce035fed7b91900d45a55
US$9,900
727
False
How many Apple II CPUS's did the new Macintosh llfx include?
570ce035fed7b91900d45a56
two
879
False
How fast was the processor on the new Macintosh llfx?
570ce035fed7b91900d45a57
40 MHz
771
False
the Macintosh IIx
43
What Macintosh first included an on-board MUM?
5ad548db5b96ef001a10ac34
True
Macintosh IIcx
176
What was the first Mac to be "23-bit clean"?
5ad548db5b96ef001a10ac35
True
two
879
How many Apple I CPUS's did the new Macintosh llfx include?
5ad548db5b96ef001a10ac36
True
US$9,900
727
What was the starting price of the Macintosh llf when it was unveiled?
5ad548db5b96ef001a10ac37
True
40 MHz
771
How fast was the processor on the new Macintosh llx?
5ad548db5b96ef001a10ac38
True
With the new Motorola 68030 processor came the Macintosh IIx in 1988, which had benefited from internal improvements, including an on-board MMU. It was followed in 1989 by the Macintosh IIcx, a more compact version with fewer slots  and a version of the Mac SE powered by the 16 MHz 68030, the Macintosh SE/30. Later that year, the Macintosh IIci, running at 25 MHz, was the first Mac to be "32-bit clean." This allowed it to natively support more than 8 MB of RAM, unlike its predecessors, which had "32-bit dirty" ROMs (8 of the 32 bits available for addressing were used for OS-level flags). System 7 was the first Macintosh operating system to support 32-bit addressing. The following year, the Macintosh IIfx, starting at US$9,900, was unveiled. Apart from its fast 40 MHz 68030 processor, it had significant internal architectural improvements, including faster memory and two Apple II CPUs (6502s) dedicated to I/O processing.
Which Mac is known for improving the handling of color graphics?
570ce1a4b3d812140066d2d7
Mac OS, System 7
7
False
Who did Apple pay expensive consulting fees to before doing in-house work?
570ce1a4b3d812140066d2d8
Frogdesign
359
False
What was established for bringing Apple's design work in-house?
570ce1a4b3d812140066d2d9
the Apple Industrial Design Group
434
False
Who was responsible for crafting a new look for all Apple products?
570ce1a4b3d812140066d2da
Apple Industrial Design Group
438
False
How did the Mac System 7 improve multitasking?
570ce1a4b3d812140066d2db
co-operative multitasking
186
False
Mac OS, System 7
7
Which Mac is known for improving the handling of non-color graphics?
5ad55c955b96ef001a10acbc
True
Frogdesign
359
Who did Microsoft pay expensive consulting fees to before doing in-house work?
5ad55c955b96ef001a10acbd
True
Apple Industrial Design Group
438
What was established for bringing Microsoft's design work in-house?
5ad55c955b96ef001a10acbe
True
Apple Industrial Design Group
438
Who was responsible for crafting a new look for all Microsoft products?
5ad55c955b96ef001a10acbf
True
co-operative multitasking
186
How did the Mac System 6 improve multitasking?
5ad55c955b96ef001a10acc0
True
As for Mac OS, System 7 was a 32-bit rewrite from Pascal to C++ that introduced virtual memory and improved the handling of color graphics, as well as memory addressing, networking, and co-operative multitasking. Also during this time, the Macintosh began to shed the "Snow White" design language, along with the expensive consulting fees they were paying to Frogdesign. Apple instead brought the design work in-house by establishing the Apple Industrial Design Group, becoming responsible for crafting a new look for all Apple products.
Who returned to Apple in 1997?
570ce2e6fed7b91900d45a7b
Steve Jobs
5
False
What did Steve Jobs order the OS version 7.7 to be branded as?
570ce2e6fed7b91900d45a7c
Mac OS 8
157
False
What did the branding of the Mac OS 8 effectively end?
570ce2e6fed7b91900d45a7d
the clone line
297
False
What effect did Mac's decision to brand the Mac OS8 have on companies such as Motorola?
570ce2e6fed7b91900d45a7e
significant financial losses
333
False
How much money did Umax lose when it exited the low-end Mac clone market?
570ce2e6fed7b91900d45a7f
USD$36 million
1211
False
Steve Jobs
5
Who returned to Apple in 1990?
5ad55e9a5b96ef001a10acda
True
Mac OS 8
157
What did Steve Jobs order the OS version 7.8 to be branded as?
5ad55e9a5b96ef001a10acdb
True
the clone line
297
What did the branding of the Mac OS 7 effectively end?
5ad55e9a5b96ef001a10acdc
True
significant financial losses
333
What effect did Mac's decision to brand the Mac OS7 have on companies such as Motorola?
5ad55e9a5b96ef001a10acdd
True
USD$36 million
1211
How much money did Umax lose when it exited the high-end Mac clone market?
5ad55e9a5b96ef001a10acde
True
When Steve Jobs returned to Apple in 1997 following the company's purchase of NeXT, he ordered that the OS that had been previewed as version 7.7 be branded Mac OS 8 (in place of the never-to-appear Copland OS). Since Apple had licensed only System 7 to third parties, this move effectively ended the clone line. The decision caused significant financial losses for companies like Motorola, who produced the StarMax; Umax, who produced the SuperMac; and Power Computing, who offered several lines of Mac clones, including the PowerWave, PowerTower, and PowerTower Pro. These companies had invested substantial resources in creating their own Mac-compatible hardware. Apple bought out Power Computing's license, but allowed Umax to continue selling Mac clones until their license expired, as they had a sizeable presence in the lower-end segment that Apple did not. In September 1997 Apple extended Umax' license allowing them to sell clones with Mac OS 8, the only clone maker to do so, but with the restriction that they only sell low-end systems. Without the higher profit margins of high-end systems, however, Umax judged this would not be profitable and exited the Mac clone market in May 1998, having lost USD$36 million on the program.
What did dated architecture on the Mac OS line make necessary?
570ce4c0b3d812140066d2f5
replacement
200
False
What programming language was the Mac OS initially developed in?
570ce4c0b3d812140066d2f6
Pascal
250
False
What language replaced Pascal for System 7?
570ce4c0b3d812140066d2f7
C++
313
False
What was the fuly overhauled successor to Mac OS 9?
570ce4c0b3d812140066d2f8
Mac OS X
691
False
Upon release, what interface allowed Mac users to sample Apple's new operating system and provide feedback for the actual release?
570ce4c0b3d812140066d2f9
Aqua
950
False
replacement
200
What did new architecture on the Mac OS line make necessary?
5ad55fe75b96ef001a10ad02
True
Pascal
250
What spoken language was the Mac OS initially developed in?
5ad55fe75b96ef001a10ad03
True
C++
313
What language replaced Pascal for System 8?
5ad55fe75b96ef001a10ad04
True
Mac OS X
691
What was the fuly overhauled successor to Mac OS 8?
5ad55fe75b96ef001a10ad05
True
Aqua
950
Upon release, what interface allowed Mac users to sample Microsoft's new operating system and provide feedback for the actual release?
5ad55fe75b96ef001a10ad06
True
Mac OS continued to evolve up to version 9.2.2, including retrofits such as the addition of a nanokernel and support for Multiprocessing Services 2.0 in Mac OS 8.6, though its dated architecture made replacement necessary. Initially developed in the Pascal programming language, it was substantially rewritten in C++ for System 7. From its beginnings on an 8 MHz machine with 128 KB of RAM, it had grown to support Apple's latest 1 GHz G4-equipped Macs. Since its architecture was laid down, features that were already common on Apple's competition, like preemptive multitasking and protected memory, had become feasible on the kind of hardware Apple manufactured. As such, Apple introduced Mac OS X, a fully overhauled Unix-based successor to Mac OS 9. OS X uses Darwin, XNU, and Mach as foundations, and is based on NeXTSTEP. It was released to the public in September 2000, as the Mac OS X Public Beta, featuring a revamped user interface called "Aqua". At US$29.99, it allowed adventurous Mac users to sample Apple's new operating system and provide feedback for the actual release. The initial version of Mac OS X, 10.0 "Cheetah", was released on March 24, 2001. Older Mac OS applications could still run under early Mac OS X versions, using an environment called "Classic". Subsequent releases of Mac OS X included 10.1 "Puma" (2001), 10.2 "Jaguar" (2002), 10.3 "Panther" (2003) and 10.4 "Tiger" (2005).
What is the only mainstream computer platform to successfully transition to a new CPU architecture?
570ce659fed7b91900d45aa1
Macintosh
241
False
What is the standard amount of RAM included with almost all current Mac models?
570ce659fed7b91900d45aa2
8 GB
418
False
Which MacBook Pro port can transfer data at speeds up to 10 gigabits per second?
570ce659fed7b91900d45aa3
Thunderbolt
1084
False
When was the iMac G5 released?
570ce659fed7b91900d45aa4
October 2005
1391
False
Which interface did Apple introduce that was capable of being operated by an Apple Remote or keyboard for accessing media stored on the computer?
570ce659fed7b91900d45aa5
Front Row
1513
False
What is the standard amount of RAM shipped with most Mac models?
570d3c29b3d812140066d5b0
8 GB
418
False
What processors are used by the current Mac product family?
570d3c29b3d812140066d5b1
Intel x86-64
36
False
How many data transfer ports are included in most current Macs?
570d3c29b3d812140066d5b2
two
864
False
According to Apple, how fast can the Thunderbolt port transfer data?
570d3c29b3d812140066d5b3
up to 10 gigabits per second.
1148
False
Macintosh
241
What is the only mainstream computer platform to unsuccessfully transition to a new CPU architecture?
5ad561af5b96ef001a10ad32
True
8 GB
418
What is the standard amount of ROM included with almost all current Mac models?
5ad561af5b96ef001a10ad33
True
Thunderbolt
906
Which MacBook Pro port can transfer data at speeds up to 20 gigabits per second?
5ad561af5b96ef001a10ad34
True
October 2005
1391
When was the iMac G6 released?
5ad561af5b96ef001a10ad35
True
Front Row
1513
Which interface did Apple introduce that was capable of being operated by an Microsoft Remote or keyboard for accessing media stored on the computer?
5ad561af5b96ef001a10ad36
True
The current Mac product family uses Intel x86-64 processors. Apple introduced an emulator during the transition from PowerPC chips (called Rosetta), much as it did during the transition from Motorola 68000 architecture a decade earlier. The Macintosh is the only mainstream computer platform to have successfully transitioned to a new CPU architecture, and has done so twice. All current Mac models ship with at least 8 GB of RAM as standard other than the 1.4 GHz Mac Mini, MacBook Pro (without Retina Display), and MacBook Air. Current Mac computers use ATI Radeon or nVidia GeForce graphics cards as well as Intel graphics built into the main CPU. All current Macs (except for the MacBook Pro without Retina Display) do not ship with an optical media drive that includes a dual-function DVD/CD burner. Apple refers to this as a SuperDrive. Current Macs include two standard data transfer ports: USB and Thunderbolt (except for the MacBook (2015 version), which only has a USB-C port and headphone port). MacBook Pro, iMac, MacBook Air, and Mac Mini computers now also feature the "Thunderbolt" port, which Apple says can transfer data at speeds up to 10 gigabits per second. USB was introduced in the 1998 iMac G3 and is ubiquitous today, while FireWire is mainly reserved for high-performance devices such as hard drives or video cameras. Starting with the then-new iMac G5, released in October 2005, Apple started to include built-in iSight cameras on appropriate models, and a media center interface called Front Row that can be operated by an Apple Remote or keyboard for accessing media stored on the computer. Front Row has been discontinued as of 2011, however, and the Apple Remote is no longer bundled with new Macs.
Which technique was once used to boot an alternate operating system than Mac OS?
570cf06efed7b91900d45b19
boot into Mac OS and then to hand over control to a Mac OS-based bootloader application
187
False
What was introduced that made using Mac OS alternative operating systems easier?
570cf06efed7b91900d45b1a
Open Firmware-based PCI Macs
381
False
What were Open Firmware-based PCI Macs used as a convenience because of?
570cf06efed7b91900d45b1b
bugs in the firmware implementation
492
False
Where does Mac hardware boot directly to in all Intel-based Macs?
570cf06efed7b91900d45b1c
EFI
628
False
Where does Mac harware boot directly to in most PowerPC-based Macs?
570cf06efed7b91900d45b1d
Open Firmware
584
False
boot into Mac OS and then to hand over control to a Mac OS-based bootloader application
187
Which technique was once used to boot an alternate operating system than Mac SO?
5ad563615b96ef001a10ad76
True
Open Firmware-based PCI Macs
381
What was introduced that made using Mac OP alternative operating systems easier?
5ad563615b96ef001a10ad77
True
bugs in the firmware implementation
492
What were Open Firmware-based PIC Macs used as a convenience because of?
5ad563615b96ef001a10ad78
True
EFI
628
Where does Mac hardware boot indirectly to in all Intel-based Macs?
5ad563615b96ef001a10ad79
True
Open Firmware
584
Where does Mac harware boot indirectly to in most PowerPC-based Macs?
5ad563615b96ef001a10ad7a
True
Originally, the hardware architecture was so closely tied to the Mac OS operating system that it was impossible to boot an alternative operating system. The most common workaround, is to boot into Mac OS and then to hand over control to a Mac OS-based bootloader application. Used even by Apple for A/UX and MkLinux, this technique is no longer necessary since the introduction of Open Firmware-based PCI Macs, though it was formerly used for convenience on many Old World ROM systems due to bugs in the firmware implementation.[citation needed] Now, Mac hardware boots directly from Open Firmware in most PowerPC-based Macs or EFI in all Intel-based Macs.
Who was brought in to shape the marketing of Macintosh in 1982?
570cf1b5fed7b91900d45b2d
Regis McKenna
9
False
What role did Andy Cunningham and Jane Anderson have in the Macintosh launch plan?
570cf1b5fed7b91900d45b2e
primary authors
271
False
Who introduced the "multiple exclusive" event marketing concept to Apple?
570cf1b5fed7b91900d45b2f
John Sculley
497
False
Which company first used the "multiple exclusive" event marketing concept?
570cf1b5fed7b91900d45b30
Pepsi
545
False
What did the "multiple exclusive" event marketing concept create around a product?
570cf1b5fed7b91900d45b31
a mystique
562
False
Regis McKenna
100
Who was brought in to shape the marketing of Macintosh in 1928?
5ad505055b96ef001a10a9ea
True
primary authors
271
What role did Andy Cunningham and Jane Anderson have in the Microsoft launch plan?
5ad505055b96ef001a10a9eb
True
John Sculley
497
Who introduced the "multiple exclusive" event marketing concept to Microsoft?
5ad505055b96ef001a10a9ec
True
Pepsi
545
Which company last used the "multiple exclusive" event marketing concept?
5ad505055b96ef001a10a9ed
True
a mystique
562
What didn't the "multiple exclusive" event marketing concept create around a product?
5ad505055b96ef001a10a9ee
True
In 1982, Regis McKenna was brought in to shape the marketing and launch of the Macintosh. Later the Regis McKenna team grew to include Jane Anderson, Katie Cadigan and Andy Cunningham, who eventually led the Apple account for the agency. Cunningham and Anderson were the primary authors of the Macintosh launch plan. The launch of the Macintosh pioneered many different tactics that are used today in launching technology products, including the "multiple exclusive," event marketing (credited to John Sculley, who brought the concept over from Pepsi), creating a mystique around a product and giving an inside look into a product's creation.
Who initiated a successful price war among PC manufacturers in 1994?
570cf2c1fed7b91900d45b3f
Compaq
0
False
Who did Compaq overtake in the price war of 1994?
570cf2c1fed7b91900d45b40
IBM
229
False
What happened to Apple's market share with the release of Windows 95?
570cf2c1fed7b91900d45b41
struggled
299
False
What unified Microsoft's MS-DOS and Windows products?
570cf2c1fed7b91900d45b42
Windows 95
335
False
What significantly enhanced the multimedia capability of IBM PC compatible computers?
570cf2c1fed7b91900d45b43
Windows 95
437
False
Compaq
0
Who initiated a successful price war among PC manufacturers in 1995
5ad564915b96ef001a10ad9e
True
IBM
229
Who did Compaq overtake in the price war of 1993?
5ad564915b96ef001a10ad9f
True
struggled
299
What happened to Apple's market share with the release of Windows 98?
5ad564915b96ef001a10ada0
True
Windows 95
335
What unified Apple's MS-DOS and Windows products?
5ad564915b96ef001a10ada1
True
Windows 95
437
What significantly enhanced the multimedia capability of IBM PC incompatible computers?
5ad564915b96ef001a10ada2
True
Compaq, who had previously held the third place spot among PC manufacturers during the 1980s and early-mid 1990s, initiated a successful price war in 1994 that vaulted them to the biggest by the year end, overtaking a struggling IBM and relegating Apple to third place. Apple's market share further struggled due to the release of the Windows 95 operating system, which unified Microsoft's formerly separate MS-DOS and Windows products. Windows 95 significantly enhanced the multimedia capability and performance of IBM PC compatible computers, and brought the capabilities of Windows to parity with the Mac OS GUI.
What percent of the desktop share in the U.S. did Apple have in 2003?
570cf3e5fed7b91900d45b67
2.06
50
False
Who are IDC and Gartner?
570cf3e5fed7b91900d45b68
research firms
172
False
What was Apple's market share in the U.S. by 2006?
570cf3e5fed7b91900d45b69
6.1 percent
362
False
What percentage of unit sale increase did Apple see from 2005 to 2006?
570cf3e5fed7b91900d45b6a
30
409
False
What was the estimated installed base of Mac computers in 2009?
570cf3e5fed7b91900d45b6b
16%
571
False
2.06
50
What percent of the desktop share in the U.S. did Apple have in 2004?
5ad565d65b96ef001a10adc4
True
research firms
172
Who are CID and Gartner?
5ad565d65b96ef001a10adc5
True
6.1 percent
362
What was Apple's market share in the U.S. by 2005?
5ad565d65b96ef001a10adc6
True
30
409
What percentage of unit sale increase did Apple see from 2005 to 2007?
5ad565d65b96ef001a10adc7
True
16%
571
What was the estimated installed base of Mac computers in 2010?
5ad565d65b96ef001a10adc8
True
Statistics from late 2003 indicate that Apple had 2.06 percent of the desktop share in the United States that had increased to 2.88 percent by Q4 2004. As of October 2006, research firms IDC and Gartner reported that Apple's market share in the U.S. had increased to about 6 percent. Figures from December 2006, showing a market share around 6 percent (IDC) and 6.1 percent (Gartner) are based on a more than 30 percent increase in unit sale from 2005 to 2006. The installed base of Mac computers is hard to determine, with numbers ranging from 5% (estimated in 2009) to 16% (estimated in 2005).
When was the Macintosh SE released at the same time as?
570cf8e1fed7b91900d45b85
the Macintosh II
50
False
What was the first compact Mac with a 20 MB internal hard drive and an expansion slot?
570cf8e1fed7b91900d45b86
The Macintosh SE
0
False
What was the starting price of the Macintosh SE?
570cf8e1fed7b91900d45b87
$2900
71
False
What did the location of the SE's expansion slot potentially expose an upgrader to?
570cf8e1fed7b91900d45b88
high voltage
294
False
Who did Apple suggest users go to for performing updates on their SE's?
570cf8e1fed7b91900d45b89
an authorized Apple dealer
367
False
Macintosh II
54
When was the Macintosh ES released at the same time as?
5ad53b0a5b96ef001a10abb4
True
The Macintosh SE
0
What was the last compact Mac with a 20 MB internal hard drive and an expansion slot?
5ad53b0a5b96ef001a10abb5
True
The Macintosh SE
0
What was the first compact Mac with a 40 MB internal hard drive and an expansion slot?
5ad53b0a5b96ef001a10abb6
True
$2900
71
What was the starting price of the Macintosh ES?
5ad53b0a5b96ef001a10abb7
True
high voltage
294
What did the location of the ES's expansion slot potentially expose an upgrader to?
5ad53b0a5b96ef001a10abb8
True
The Macintosh SE was released at the same time as the Macintosh II for $2900 (or $3900 with hard drive), as the first compact Mac with a 20 MB internal hard drive and an expansion slot. The SE's expansion slot was located inside the case along with the CRT, potentially exposing an upgrader to high voltage. For this reason, Apple recommended users bring their SE to an authorized Apple dealer to have upgrades performed. The SE also updated Jerry Manock and Terry Oyama's original design and shared the Macintosh II's Snow White design language, as well as the new Apple Desktop Bus (ADB) mouse and keyboard that had first appeared on the Apple IIGS some months earlier.
What is partially credited for the significant boost in sales of Macs in recent years?
570cfa75fed7b91900d45b8f
the success of the iPod and the iPhone
108
False
What allows users to easily sync data between an iPhone and a Mac?
570cfa75fed7b91900d45b90
iCloud cloud service
281
False
What consumer trend has hurt many personal computer manufacturers?
570cfa75fed7b91900d45b91
smartphones and tablet computers
494
False
Which smartphone has hurt personal computer manufacterers the most?
570cfa75fed7b91900d45b92
Apple's own iPhone
541
False
What are the top two computing devices consumers are choosing?
570cfa75fed7b91900d45b93
iPhone and iPad
553
False
the success of the iPod and the iPhone
108
What is partially credited for the insignificant boost in sales of Macs in recent years?
5ad567b85b96ef001a10adfe
True
iCloud cloud service
281
What allows users to easily sync data between an iPhone and a PC?
5ad567b85b96ef001a10adff
True
smartphones and tablet computers
494
What consumer trend has hurt many business computer manufacturers?
5ad567b85b96ef001a10ae00
True
Apple's own iPhone
541
Which smartphone has hurt personal computer manufacterers the least?
5ad567b85b96ef001a10ae01
True
iPhone and iPad
553
What are the top three computing devices consumers are choosing?
5ad567b85b96ef001a10ae02
True
In recent years, Apple has seen a significant boost in sales of Macs. This has been attributed, in part, to the success of the iPod and the iPhone, a halo effect whereby satisfied iPod or iPhone owners purchase more Apple products, and Apple has since capitalized on that with the iCloud cloud service that allows users to seamlessly sync data between these devices and Macs. Nonetheless, like other personal computer manufacturers, the Macintosh lines have been hurt by consumer trend towards smartphones and tablet computers (particularly Apple's own iPhone and iPad, respectively) as the computing devices of choice among consumers.
What did Apple introduce in 1990 to combat competition from smartphones?
570cfb78b3d812140066d375
relatively inexpensive Macs
41
False
What was the less expensive version of the Macintosh SE that was offered until 2001?
570cfb78b3d812140066d376
The Macintosh Classic
86
False
Which Macintosh had a distinctive "pizza box" case?
570cfb78b3d812140066d377
LC
249
False
How many expansion slots did the Macintosh IIsi have?
570cfb78b3d812140066d378
only one
429
False
How did Apple's profit margin on the lower cost Mac's compare to the profit margin onearlier models?
570cfb78b3d812140066d379
considerably lower
527
False
relatively inexpensive Macs
41
What did Apple introduce in 1991 to combat competition from smartphones?
5ad55bd45b96ef001a10aca8
True
The Macintosh Classic
86
What was the more expensive version of the Macintosh SE that was offered until 2001?
5ad55bd45b96ef001a10aca9
True
LC,
249
Which IBM had a distinctive "pizza box" case?
5ad55bd45b96ef001a10acaa
True
one
434
How many expansion slots did the Macintosh Isi have?
5ad55bd45b96ef001a10acab
True
considerably lower
527
How did Apple's profit margin on the higher cost Mac's compare to the profit margin on earlier models?
5ad55bd45b96ef001a10acac
True
In response, Apple introduced a range of relatively inexpensive Macs in October 1990. The Macintosh Classic, essentially a less expensive version of the Macintosh SE, was the least expensive Mac offered until early 2001. The 68020-powered Macintosh LC, in its distinctive "pizza box" case, offered color graphics and was accompanied by a new, low-cost 512×384 pixel monitor. The Macintosh IIsi was essentially a 20 MHz IIci with only one expansion slot. All three machines sold well, although Apple's profit margin on them was considerably lower than that on earlier models.
When did Apple begin to favor aluminum in their design?
570cfcdffed7b91900d45b99
2006
12
False
Which Mac used aluminum in it's construction?
570cfcdffed7b91900d45b9a
MacBook Pro
119
False
Which material did Apple add with the 2008 unibody MacBrook Pro?
570cfcdffed7b91900d45b9b
Glass
132
False
Are aluminum and glass considered to be environmentally friendly or environmentally harmful?
570cfcdffed7b91900d45b9c
environmentally friendly
236
False
What has Chief Designer Jonathan Ive been able to eliminate in Mac notebooks?
570cfcdffed7b91900d45b9d
replaceable batteries
513
False
2006
12
When did Apple begin not to favor aluminum in their design?
5ad5612c5b96ef001a10ad28
True
MacBook Pro
119
Which Mac used tin in it's construction?
5ad5612c5b96ef001a10ad29
True
Glass
132
Which material did Apple add with the 2009 unibody MacBrook Pro?
5ad5612c5b96ef001a10ad2a
True
environmentally friendly
236
Are tin and glass considered to be environmentally friendly or environmentally harmful?
5ad5612c5b96ef001a10ad2b
True
replaceable batteries
513
What has Chief Designer Jonathan Ive been able to eliminate in HP notebooks?
5ad5612c5b96ef001a10ad2c
True
Starting in 2006, Apple's industrial design shifted to favor aluminum, which was used in the construction of the first MacBook Pro. Glass was added in 2008 with the introduction of the unibody MacBook Pro. These materials are billed as environmentally friendly. The iMac, MacBook Pro, MacBook Air, and Mac Mini lines currently all use aluminum enclosures, and are now made of a single unibody. Chief designer Jonathan Ive continues to guide products towards a minimalist and simple feel, including eliminating of replaceable batteries in notebooks. Multi-touch gestures from the iPhone's interface have been applied to the Mac line in the form of touch pads on notebooks and the Magic Mouse and Magic Trackpad for desktops.
Who began the Macintosh project in 1979?
570cfdd0b3d812140066d389
Jef Raskin
43
False
What was Jef Raskin's profession?
570cfdd0b3d812140066d38a
an Apple employee
55
False
What did Jef Raskin envision for a computer to be for an average consumer?
570cfdd0b3d812140066d38b
easy-to-use, low-cost
91
False
Why was the spelling of McIntosh changed to Macintosh?
570cfdd0b3d812140066d38c
for legal reasons
271
False
What did McIntosh Laboratory, Inc. manufacture?
570cfdd0b3d812140066d38d
audio equipment
374
False
Jef Raskin
43
Who began the Macintosh project in 1997?
5ad5016e5b96ef001a10a92c
True
an Apple employee
55
What wasn't Jef Raskin's profession?
5ad5016e5b96ef001a10a92d
True
easy-to-use, low-cost
91
What did Jef Raskin envision for a computer to be for an average business?
5ad5016e5b96ef001a10a92e
True
for legal reasons
271
Why wasn't the spelling of McIntosh changed to Macintosh?
5ad5016e5b96ef001a10a92f
True
audio equipment
374
What did MacIntosh Laboratory, Inc. manufacture?
5ad5016e5b96ef001a10a930
True
The Macintosh project was begun in 1979 by Jef Raskin, an Apple employee who envisioned an easy-to-use, low-cost computer for the average consumer. He wanted to name the computer after his favorite type of apple, the McIntosh, but the spelling was changed to "Macintosh" for legal reasons as the original was the same spelling as that used by McIntosh Laboratory, Inc., the audio equipment manufacturer. Steve Jobs requested that McIntosh Laboratory give Apple a release for the name with its changed spelling so that Apple could use it, but the request was denied, forcing Apple to eventually buy the rights to use the name. (A 1984 Byte Magazine article suggested Apple changed the spelling only after "early users" misspelled "McIntosh". However, Jef Raskin had adopted the Macintosh spelling by 1981, when the Macintosh computer was still a single prototype machine in the lab. This explanation further clashes with the first explanation given above that the change was made for "legal reasons.")
Who discussed rumors of a mysterious "MacIntosh" project in 1983?
570cfee1fed7b91900d45ba3
John Dvorak
31
False
Where was the Macintosh 128K manufactured?
570cfee1fed7b91900d45ba4
Apple factory in Fremont, California
183
False
How much did the television commercial "1984" cost?
570cfee1fed7b91900d45ba5
US$1.5 million
348
False
What did the television commercial "1984" introduce?
570cfee1fed7b91900d45ba6
Macintosh 128K
149
False
What did Regis McKenna call the "1984" ad that was aired during the Super Bowl?
570cfee1fed7b91900d45ba7
"more successful than the Mac itself."
586
False
John Dvorak
31
Who discussed rumors of a mysterious "MacIntosh" project in 1938?
5ad505a45b96ef001a10aa10
True
Apple factory in Fremont, California
183
Where was the Microsoft 128K manufactured?
5ad505a45b96ef001a10aa11
True
US$1.5 million
348
How much did the television commercial "1948" cost?
5ad505a45b96ef001a10aa12
True
Macintosh 128K
149
What did the television commercial "1948" introduce?
5ad505a45b96ef001a10aa13
True
"more successful than the Mac itself."
586
What did Regis McKenna call the "1948" ad that was aired during the Super Bowl?
5ad505a45b96ef001a10aa14
True
After the Lisa's announcement, John Dvorak discussed rumors of a mysterious "MacIntosh" project at Apple in February 1983. The company announced the Macintosh 128K—manufactured at an Apple factory in Fremont, California—in October 1983, followed by an 18-page brochure included with various magazines in December. The Macintosh was introduced by a US$1.5 million Ridley Scott television commercial, "1984". It most notably aired during the third quarter of Super Bowl XVIII on January 22, 1984, and is now considered a "watershed event" and a "masterpiece." Regis McKenna called the ad "more successful than the Mac itself." "1984" used an unnamed heroine to represent the coming of the Macintosh (indicated by a Picasso-style picture of the computer on her white tank top) as a means of saving humanity from the "conformity" of IBM's attempts to dominate the computer industry. The ad alludes to George Orwell's novel, Nineteen Eighty-Four, which described a dystopian future ruled by a televised "Big Brother."
When was the Macintosh branded as Mac?
570cfff3fed7b91900d45bad
1997
61
False
Who designed, develped, and marketed the Mac computers?
570cfff3fed7b91900d45bae
Apple Inc.
144
False
What did Steve Jobs introduce on January 24, 1984?
570cfff3fed7b91900d45baf
original Macintosh computer
181
False
What interface type did the original Macintosh include?
570cfff3fed7b91900d45bb0
integral graphical user
292
False
When did Apple begin phasing out Macintosh in favor of "Mac"?
570cfff3fed7b91900d45bb1
Since 1998
527
False
1997
61
When was the Microsoft branded as Mac?
5ad4ffc25b96ef001a10a8e0
True
Apple Inc.
144
Who designed, develped, and marketed the IBM computers?
5ad4ffc25b96ef001a10a8e1
True
original Macintosh computer
181
What did Steve Jobs introduce on January 24, 1988?
5ad4ffc25b96ef001a10a8e2
True
integral graphical user interface and mouse
292
What interface type did the original Macintosh exclude?
5ad4ffc25b96ef001a10a8e3
True
1998
533
When did Microsoft begin phasing out Macintosh in favor of "Mac"?
5ad4ffc25b96ef001a10a8e4
True
The Macintosh (/ˈmækᵻntɒʃ/ MAK-in-tosh; branded as Mac since 1997) is a series of personal computers (PCs) designed, developed, and marketed by Apple Inc. Steve Jobs introduced the original Macintosh computer on January 24, 1984. This was the first mass-market personal computer featuring an integral graphical user interface and mouse. This first model was later renamed to "Macintosh 128k" for uniqueness amongst a populous family of subsequently updated models which are also based on Apple's same proprietary architecture. Since 1998, Apple has largely phased out the Macintosh name in favor of "Mac", though the product family has been nicknamed "Mac" or "the Mac" since the development of the first model.
When was the activity of desktop publishing first used?
570d0581b3d812140066d39d
1985
3
False
What company was desktop publishing unique to at it's beginning?
570d0581b3d812140066d39e
Macintosh
336
False
What three things were combined to develop desktop publishing?
570d0581b3d812140066d39f
Mac, Apple's LaserWriter printer, and Mac-specific software like Boston Software's MacPublisher
32
False
What did desktop publishing enable users to do?
570d0581b3d812140066d3a0
design, preview, and print page layouts complete with text and graphics
165
False
What applications strengthened Mac's position as a graphics computer?
570d0581b3d812140066d3a1
Macromedia FreeHand, QuarkXPress, and Adobe's Photoshop and Illustrator
428
False
1985
3
When was the activity of desktop publishing last used?
5ad50b865b96ef001a10aa9a
True
Macintosh
336
What company was desktop publishing not unique to at it's beginning?
5ad50b865b96ef001a10aa9b
True
Mac, Apple's LaserWriter printer, and Mac-specific software
32
What two things were combined to develop desktop publishing?
5ad50b865b96ef001a10aa9c
True
design, preview, and print page layouts complete with text and graphics
165
What did desktop publishing disable users from doing?
5ad50b865b96ef001a10aa9d
True
Macromedia FreeHand, QuarkXPress, and Adobe's Photoshop and Illustrator
428
What applications weakened Mac's position as a graphics computer?
5ad50b865b96ef001a10aa9e
True
In 1985, the combination of the Mac, Apple's LaserWriter printer, and Mac-specific software like Boston Software's MacPublisher and Aldus PageMaker enabled users to design, preview, and print page layouts complete with text and graphics—an activity to become known as desktop publishing. Initially, desktop publishing was unique to the Macintosh, but eventually became available for other platforms. Later, applications such as Macromedia FreeHand, QuarkXPress, and Adobe's Photoshop and Illustrator strengthened the Mac's position as a graphics computer and helped to expand the emerging desktop publishing market.
What year was Raskin hired by Apple?
570d0654b3d812140066d3a7
September 1979
57
False
Who did Raskin immediately hire to help him on the Apple project in 1979?
570d0654b3d812140066d3a8
his long-time colleague, Brian Howard
98
False
Who comprised the original Mac team besides Raskin?
570d0654b3d812140066d3a9
Howard, Joanna Hoffman, Burrell Smith, and Bud Tribble
204
False
Who eventually lead the project on the Mac team?
570d0654b3d812140066d3aa
Steve Jobs
471
False
1979
67
What year was Raskin fired by Apple?
5ad501c15b96ef001a10a936
True
Brian Howard
123
Who did Raskin immediately fire to help him on the Apple project in 1979?
5ad501c15b96ef001a10a937
True
Brian Howard
123
Who did Raskin immediately hire to help him on the Apple project in 1997?
5ad501c15b96ef001a10a938
True
Howard, Joanna Hoffman, Burrell Smith, and Bud Tribble
204
Who comprised the original Microsoft team besides Raskin?
5ad501c15b96ef001a10a939
True
Steve Jobs
471
Who eventually lead the project on the Microsoft team?
5ad501c15b96ef001a10a93a
True
Raskin was authorized to start hiring for the project in September 1979, and he immediately asked his long-time colleague, Brian Howard, to join him. His initial team would eventually consist of himself, Howard, Joanna Hoffman, Burrell Smith, and Bud Tribble. The rest of the original Mac team would include Bill Atkinson, Bob Belleville, Steve Capps, George Crow, Donn Denman, Chris Espinosa, Andy Hertzfeld, Bruce Horn, Susan Kare, Larry Kenyon, and Caroline Rose with Steve Jobs leading the project.
How many Macs did Apple sell worldwide during the 2009 holiday season?
570d0f33fed7b91900d45bed
3.36 million
106
False
What was Apples market share of all computer shipments in 2010?
570d0f33fed7b91900d45bee
7.3%
257
False
What was Apples market share of all computer shipments in 2011?
570d0f33fed7b91900d45bef
9.3%
299
False
What ranking was Apple in the PC global market share during 2014?
570d0f33fed7b91900d45bf0
about 6%
560
False
Who outperformed Apple in the 2014 PC global market share?
570d0f33fed7b91900d45bf1
Lenovo, HP, Dell and Acer
589
False
3.36 million
106
How many Macs did Apple sell worldwide during the 2008 holiday season?
5ad566455b96ef001a10add6
True
7.3%
257
What was Apples market share of all computer shipments in 2000?
5ad566455b96ef001a10add7
True
9.3%
299
What was Apples market share of all computer shipments in 2001?
5ad566455b96ef001a10add8
True
about 6%
560
What ranking was Apple in the PC global market share during 2016?
5ad566455b96ef001a10add9
True
Lenovo, HP, Dell and Acer
589
Who outperformed Apple in the 2017 PC global market share?
5ad566455b96ef001a10adda
True
From 2001 to 2008, Mac sales increased continuously on an annual basis. Apple reported worldwide sales of 3.36 million Macs during the 2009 holiday season. As of Mid-2011, the Macintosh continues to enjoy rapid market share increase in the US, growing from 7.3% of all computer shipments in 2010 to 9.3% in 2011. According to IDC's quarterly PC tracker, globally, in 3rd quarter of 2014, Apple's PC market share increased 5.7 percent year over year, with record sales of 5.5 million units. Apple now sits in the number five spot, with a global market share of about 6% during 2014, behind Lenovo, HP, Dell and Acer.
In 1987, what did Apple spin off its software business as?
570d1089b3d812140066d3c1
Claris
49
False
Which series of applications was Claris responsible for inventing?
570d1089b3d812140066d3c2
"Pro" series
256
False
What did Claris rename the Informix Wingz spreadsheet program?
570d1089b3d812140066d3c3
Claris Resolve
456
False
What was ClarisWorks renamed beginning with version 5.0?
570d1089b3d812140066d3c4
AppleWorks
832
False
When was ClarisWorks reincorporated back into Apple?
570d1089b3d812140066d3c5
1998
802
False
Claris
49
In 1978, what did Apple spin off its software business as?
5ad53b545b96ef001a10abbe
True
"Pro" series
256
Which series of applications was Claris not responsible for inventing?
5ad53b545b96ef001a10abbf
True
Claris Resolve
456
What didn't Claris rename the Informix Wingz spreadsheet program?
5ad53b545b96ef001a10abc0
True
AppleWorks
832
What was ClarisWorks renamed beginning with version 4.0?
5ad53b545b96ef001a10abc1
True
1998
802
When was ClarisWorks reincorporated back into Microsoft?
5ad53b545b96ef001a10abc2
True
In 1987, Apple spun off its software business as Claris. It was given the code and rights to several applications, most notably MacWrite, MacPaint, and MacProject. In the late 1980s, Claris released a number of revamped software titles; the result was the "Pro" series, including MacDraw Pro, MacWrite Pro, and FileMaker Pro. To provide a complete office suite, Claris purchased the rights to the Informix Wingz spreadsheet program on the Mac, renaming it Claris Resolve, and added the new presentation software Claris Impact. By the early 1990s, Claris applications were shipping with the majority of consumer-level Macintoshes and were extremely popular. In 1991, Claris released ClarisWorks, which soon became their second best-selling application. When Claris was reincorporated back into Apple in 1998, ClarisWorks was renamed AppleWorks beginning with version 5.0.
What two applications came bundled with Macs 2 days after "1984" was aired?
570d12d8b3d812140066d3df
MacWrite and MacPaint
132
False
Why did many software developers choose not to redesign the Mac operating system and rewrite the programming code?
570d12d8b3d812140066d3e0
This was a time-consuming task
514
False
What year did Microsoft's MultiPlan migrate over from MS-DOS?
570d12d8b3d812140066d3e1
1984
694
False
What year was Apple's Macintosh Office suite introduced?
570d12d8b3d812140066d3e2
1985
799
False
What did Apple's "Lemmings" ad, which introduced Macintosh Office, do that made the ad unsuccessful?
570d12d8b3d812140066d3e3
insulting its own potential customers
1045
False
MacWrite and MacPaint
132
What two applications came bundled with Macs 2 days after "1948" was aired?
5ad507d85b96ef001a10aa56
True
This was a time-consuming task
514
Why did many hardware developers choose not to redesign the Mac operating system and rewrite the programming code?
5ad507d85b96ef001a10aa57
True
1984
694
What year did Apple's MultiPlan migrate over from MS-DOS?
5ad507d85b96ef001a10aa58
True
1985
799
What year was Microsoft's Macintosh Office suite introduced?
5ad507d85b96ef001a10aa59
True
insulting its own potential customers
1045
What did Microsoft's "Lemmings" ad, which introduced Macintosh Office, do that made the ad unsuccessful?
5ad507d85b96ef001a10aa5a
True
Two days after "1984" aired, the Macintosh went on sale, and came bundled with two applications designed to show off its interface: MacWrite and MacPaint. It was first demonstrated by Steve Jobs in the first of his famous Mac keynote speeches, and though the Mac garnered an immediate, enthusiastic following, some labeled it a mere "toy." Because the operating system was designed largely around the GUI, existing text-mode and command-driven applications had to be redesigned and the programming code rewritten. This was a time-consuming task that many software developers chose not to undertake, and could be regarded as a reason for an initial lack of software for the new system. In April 1984, Microsoft's MultiPlan migrated over from MS-DOS, with Microsoft Word following in January 1985. In 1985, Lotus Software introduced Lotus Jazz for the Macintosh platform after the success of Lotus 1-2-3 for the IBM PC, although it was largely a flop. Apple introduced the Macintosh Office suite the same year with the "Lemmings" ad. Infamous for insulting its own potential customers, the ad was not successful.
According to NPD, who has generally dominated the premium PC market?
570d143eb3d812140066d3e9
Apple
0
False
What was Macintosh ranked on the "list of intended brands for desktop purchases" for the 2011 holiday season?
570d143eb3d812140066d3ea
third
1206
False
Who did Macintosh displace from 2nd place on the 2012 holiday season "list of intended brands for desktop purchases"?
570d143eb3d812140066d3eb
Hewlett Packard
1342
False
Who did Macintosh displace from 1st place on the 2013 holiday season "list of intended brands for desktop purchases"?
570d143eb3d812140066d3ec
Dell
1398
False
Which of Apple's products is focused on the ultraportable niche of PC's?
570d143eb3d812140066d3ed
MacBooks
614
False
Apple
0
According to NDP, who has generally dominated the premium PC market?
5ad569225b96ef001a10ae2c
True
third
1206
What was Macintosh ranked on the "list of intended brands for desktop purchases" for the 2010 holiday season?
5ad569225b96ef001a10ae2d
True
Hewlett Packard
1342
Who did Macintosh displace from 2nd place on the 2011 holiday season "list of intended brands for desktop purchases"?
5ad569225b96ef001a10ae2e
True
Dell
1398
Who did Macintosh displace from 1st place on the 2012 holiday season "list of intended brands for desktop purchases"?
5ad569225b96ef001a10ae2f
True
MacBooks
614
Which of Microsoft's products is focused on the ultraportable niche of PC's?
5ad569225b96ef001a10ae30
True
Apple has generally dominated the premium PC market, having a 91 percent market share for PCs priced at more than $1,000 in 2009, according to NPD. The Macintosh took 45 percent of operating profits in the PC industry during Q4 2012, compared to 13 percent for Dell, seven percent for Hewlett Packard, six percent for Lenovo and Asus, and one percent for Acer. While sales of the Macintosh have largely held steady, in comparison to Apple's sales of the iPhone and iPad which increased significantly during the 2010s, Macintosh computers still enjoy high margins on a per unit basis, with the majority being their MacBooks that are focused on the ultraportable niche that is the most profitable and only growing segment of PCs. It also helped that the Macintosh lineup is simple, updated on a yearly schedule, and consistent across both Apple retail stores, and authorized resellers where they have a special "store within a store" section to distinguish them from Windows PCs. In contrast, Windows PC manufacturers generally have a wide range of offerings, selling only a portion through retail with a full selection on the web, and often with limited-time or region-specific models. The Macintosh ranked third on the "list of intended brands for desktop purchases" for the 2011 holiday season, then moved up to second in 2012 by displacing Hewlett Packard, and in 2013 took the top spot ahead of Dell.
What part of the Mac's could not be expanded easily in 1984?
570d1595b3d812140066d3f3
memory
24
False
What did Mac's lack in 1984 and have no means to easily attach?
570d1595b3d812140066d3f4
a hard disk drive
150
False
What did some small companies suggest Mac's 16 memory chips be replaced with?
570d1595b3d812140066d3f5
larger-capacity chips
396
False
How much more memory did Apple's Macintosh 512K, introduced in 1984, have than the original?
570d1595b3d812140066d3f6
quadruple
513
False
What was replaced in the upgrade that was offered for 128k Macs?
570d1595b3d812140066d3f7
the logic board
640
False
memory
24
What part of the Mac's could not be expanded easily in 1994?
5ad50bed5b96ef001a10aab8
True
a hard disk drive
150
What did Mac's lack in 1994 and have no means to easily attach?
5ad50bed5b96ef001a10aab9
True
larger-capacity chips
396
What did some small companies suggest Mac's 32 memory chips be replaced with?
5ad50bed5b96ef001a10aaba
True
quadruple
513
How much more memory did Apple's Macintosh 512K, introduced in 1994, have than the original?
5ad50bed5b96ef001a10aabb
True
the logic board
640
What was replaced in the upgrade that was offered for 256k Macs?
5ad50bed5b96ef001a10aabc
True
The Macintosh's minimal memory became apparent, even compared with other personal computers in 1984, and could not be expanded easily. It also lacked a hard disk drive or the means to easily attach one. Many small companies sprang up to address the memory issue. Suggestions revolved around either upgrading the memory to 512 KB or removing the computer's 16 memory chips and replacing them with larger-capacity chips, a tedious and difficult operation. In October 1984, Apple introduced the Macintosh 512K, with quadruple the memory of the original, at a price of US$3,195. It also offered an upgrade for 128k Macs that involved replacing the logic board.
On what grounds did Apple sue Microsoft and Hewlett-Packard in 1988?
570d1a97b3d812140066d411
they infringed Apple's copyrighted GUI
70
False
How was the lawsuit decided for Apple vs. Microsoft and Hewlett-Packard?
570d1a97b3d812140066d412
against Apple
237
False
What did the FSF feel that Apple was trying to monopolize on?
570d1a97b3d812140066d413
GUIs in general
431
False
How long did the FSF boycott GNU software for the Macintosh platform?
570d1a97b3d812140066d414
seven years
506
False
What are some of the issues Apple cited in the lawsuit against Microsoft and HP?
570d1a97b3d812140066d415
the use of rectangular, overlapping, and resizable windows
138
False
they infringed Apple's copyrighted GUI
70
On what grounds did Apple sue Microsoft and Hewlett-Packard in 1998?
5ad548965b96ef001a10ac20
True
against Apple
237
How was the lawsuit decided for Apple vs. Compaq and Hewlett-Packard?
5ad548965b96ef001a10ac21
True
GUIs in general
431
What did the FSF feel that Microsoft was trying to monopolize on?
5ad548965b96ef001a10ac22
True
seven years
506
How long did the FSF boycott GUN software for the Macintosh platform?
5ad548965b96ef001a10ac23
True
the use of rectangular, overlapping, and resizable windows
138
What aren't some of the issues Apple cited in the lawsuit against Microsoft and HP?
5ad548965b96ef001a10ac24
True
In 1988, Apple sued Microsoft and Hewlett-Packard on the grounds that they infringed Apple's copyrighted GUI, citing (among other things) the use of rectangular, overlapping, and resizable windows. After four years, the case was decided against Apple, as were later appeals. Apple's actions were criticized by some in the software community, including the Free Software Foundation (FSF), who felt Apple was trying to monopolize on GUIs in general, and boycotted GNU software for the Macintosh platform for seven years.
What did Apple's creation of too many similar models do to potential buyers?
570d1dc0b3d812140066d42f
confused potential buyers
60
False
What was the hardware manufactured by third parties for Apple's System 7 known as?
570d1dc0b3d812140066d430
Macintosh clones
306
False
What did the Macintosh clones provide for consumers?
570d1dc0b3d812140066d431
cheaper hardware
471
False
What did Macintosh clones succeed in increasing for Macintosh?
570d1dc0b3d812140066d432
market share
435
False
Who did the Macintosh clones hurt financially?
570d1dc0b3d812140066d433
Apple
512
False
confused potential buyers
60
What did Microsoft's creation of too many similar models do to potential buyers?
5ad55dab5b96ef001a10acd0
True
Macintosh clones
306
What was the hardware manufactured by third parties for Apple's System 6 known as?
5ad55dab5b96ef001a10acd1
True
cheaper hardware
471
What did the Microsoft clones provide for consumers?
5ad55dab5b96ef001a10acd2
True
market share
435
What did Macintosh clones succeed in decreasing for Macintosh?
5ad55dab5b96ef001a10acd3
True
Apple
618
Who did the Macintosh clones help financially?
5ad55dab5b96ef001a10acd4
True
Furthermore, Apple had created too many similar models that confused potential buyers. At one point, its product lineup was subdivided into Classic, LC, II, Quadra, Performa, and Centris models, with essentially the same computer being sold under a number of different names. These models competed against Macintosh clones, hardware manufactured by third parties that ran Apple's System 7. This succeeded in increasing the Macintosh's market share somewhat, and provided cheaper hardware for consumers, but hurt Apple financially as existing Apple customers began to buy cheaper clones which cannibalized the sales of Apple's higher-margin Macintosh systems, yet Apple still shouldered the burden of developing the Mac OS platform.
When did Apple begin shipping computers with CD-RW drives?
570d1ef7fed7b91900d45c29
early 2001
3
False
What did Apple begin offering as standard features meant for playing DVD's?
570d1ef7fed7b91900d45c2a
DVD-ROM and DVD-RAM drives
123
False
Who admitted that Apple was late to the party with writable CD technology?
570d1ef7fed7b91900d45c2b
Steve Jobs
163
False
Which Apple campaign did some people feel encouraged media piracy?
570d1ef7fed7b91900d45c2c
"Rip, Mix, Burn"
485
False
What is the name of one of Apple's unsuccessful products?
570d1ef7fed7b91900d45c2d
Power Mac G4 Cube
708
False
early 2001
3
When did Microsoft begin shipping computers with CD-RW drives?
5ad55f655b96ef001a10acf8
True
DVD-ROM and DVD-RAM drives
123
What did Microsoft begin offering as standard features meant for playing DVD's?
5ad55f655b96ef001a10acf9
True
Steve Jobs
163
Who admitted that Microsoft was late to the party with writable CD technology?
5ad55f655b96ef001a10acfa
True
Rip, Mix, Burn
486
Which Apple campaign did some people feel discouraged media piracy?
5ad55f655b96ef001a10acfb
True
Power Mac G4 Cube
708
What is the name of one of Apple's successful products?
5ad55f655b96ef001a10acfc
True
In early 2001, Apple began shipping computers with CD-RW drives and emphasized the Mac's ability to play DVDs by including DVD-ROM and DVD-RAM drives as standard. Steve Jobs admitted that Apple had been "late to the party" on writable CD technology, but felt that Macs could become a "digital hub" that linked and enabled an "emerging digital lifestyle". Apple would later introduce an update to its iTunes music player software that enabled it to burn CDs, along with a controversial "Rip, Mix, Burn" advertising campaign that some felt encouraged media piracy. This accompanied the release of the iPod, Apple's first successful handheld device. Apple continued to launch products, such as the unsuccessful Power Mac G4 Cube, the education-oriented eMac, and the titanium (and later aluminium) PowerBook G4 laptop for professionals.
What was the name of Apple's first portable computer?
570d1fc0b3d812140066d453
Macintosh Portable
72
False
When was the Macintosh Portable first released?
570d1fc0b3d812140066d454
1989
94
False
What replaced the Macintosh Portable in 1991?
570d1fc0b3d812140066d455
the PowerBook line
191
False
What was the 1993 PowerBook 165c Apple's first portable computer to feature?
570d1fc0b3d812140066d456
a color screen
541
False
Which generation of PowerBooks introduced trackpads?
570d1fc0b3d812140066d457
second
616
False
Macintosh Portable
72
What was the name of Apple's last portable computer?
5ad55c385b96ef001a10acb2
True
1989
94
When was the Macintosh Portable last released?
5ad55c385b96ef001a10acb3
True
the PowerBook line
191
What replaced the Macintosh Portable in 1992?
5ad55c385b96ef001a10acb4
True
a color screen
541
What was the 1992 PowerBook 165c Apple's first portable computer to feature?
5ad55c385b96ef001a10acb5
True
second
616
Which generation of PowerMacs introduced trackpads?
5ad55c385b96ef001a10acb6
True
It was not long until Apple released their first portable computer, the Macintosh Portable in 1989. Although due to considerable design issues, it was soon replaced in 1991 with the first of the PowerBook line: the PowerBook 100, a miniaturized portable; the 16 MHz 68030 PowerBook 140; and the 25 MHz 68030 PowerBook 170. They were the first portable computers with the keyboard behind a palm rest and a built-in pointing device (a trackball) in front of the keyboard. The 1993 PowerBook 165c was Apple's first portable computer to feature a color screen, displaying 256 colors with 640 x 400-pixel resolution. The second generation of PowerBooks, the 68040-equipped 500 series, introduced trackpads, integrated stereo speakers, and built-in Ethernet to the laptop form factor in 1994.
What was Apple's Mac OS X based on?
570d2104b3d812140066d467
Darwin and NEXTSTEP
45
False
Who did Apple make Maverick free to?
570d2104b3d812140066d468
everyone running Snow Leopard or later
1047
False
What computers is Maverick compatible with?
570d2104b3d812140066d469
most Macs from 2007 and later
1109
False
What brought better multi display support to Mac?
570d2104b3d812140066d46a
Mavericks
1140
False
When was Mavericks introduced?
570d2104b3d812140066d46b
2013
965
False
Darwin and NEXTSTEP
45
What was Apple's Mac OS XX based on?
5ad5627e5b96ef001a10ad58
True
everyone running Snow Leopard or later
1047
Who did Microsoft make Maverick free to?
5ad5627e5b96ef001a10ad59
True
most Macs from 2007 and later
1109
What computers is Maverick incompatible with?
5ad5627e5b96ef001a10ad5a
True
Mavericks
1140
What brought better single display support to Mac?
5ad5627e5b96ef001a10ad5b
True
2013
965
When was Mavericks scrapped?
5ad5627e5b96ef001a10ad5c
True
In 2001, Apple introduced Mac OS X, based on Darwin and NEXTSTEP; its new features included the Dock and the Aqua user interface. During the transition, Apple included a virtual machine subsystem known as Classic, allowing users to run Mac OS 9 applications under Mac OS X 10.4 and earlier on PowerPC machines. Apple introduced Mac OS X 10.8 in February, and it was made available in the summer of 2012. Mountain Lion includes many new features, such as Mission Control, the Mac App Store (available to Mac OS X v10.6.6 "Snow Leopard." users by software update), Launchpad, an application viewer and launcher akin to the iOS Home Screen, and Resume, a feature similar to the hibernate function found in Microsoft Windows. The most recent version is OS X El Capitan . In addition to Mavericks, all new Macs are bundled with assorted Apple-produced applications, including iLife, the Safari web browser and the iTunes media player. Apple introduced Mavericks at WWDC 2013 in June, and released it on October 15 of that year. It is free of charge to everyone running Snow Leopard or later and is compatible with most Macs from 2007 and later. Mavericks brought a lot of the iOS apps, functions, and feel to the Mac as well as better multi display support, iBooks, Maps, app nap, and other upgrades to improve performance and battery life.
What desktop did Apple release after the discontinued Power Macintosh G3?
570d229ab3d812140066d471
Power Mac G4 Cube
28
False
Why were sales of the Power Mac G4 Cube slow?
570d229ab3d812140066d472
too expensive
345
False
What did the Power Mac G4 have trouble overcoming after they dropped their price and upgraded their hardware?
570d229ab3d812140066d473
earlier perception
629
False
When was the Power Mac G4 discontinued?
570d229ab3d812140066d474
July 2001
749
False
How did the actual sales of the G4's compare to the sales expectations?
570d229ab3d812140066d475
one third of expectations
441
False
Power Mac G4 Cube
28
What desktop did Apple release after the discontinued Power Macintosh G2?
5ad564fc5b96ef001a10ada8
True
too expensive
345
Why were sales of the Power Mac G5 Cube slow?
5ad564fc5b96ef001a10ada9
True
earlier perception
629
What did the Power Mac G5 have trouble overcoming after they dropped their price and upgraded their hardware?
5ad564fc5b96ef001a10adaa
True
July 2001
749
When was the Power Mac G5 discontinued?
5ad564fc5b96ef001a10adab
True
one third of expectations
441
How did the actual sales of the G5's compare to the sales expectations?
5ad564fc5b96ef001a10adac
True
In 2000, Apple released the Power Mac G4 Cube, their first desktop since the discontinued Power Macintosh G3, to slot between the iMac G3 and the Power Mac G4. Even with its innovative design, it was initially priced US$200 higher than the comparably-equipped and more-expandable base Power Mac G4, while also not including a monitor, making it too expensive and resulting in slow sales. Apple sold just 29,000 Cubes in Q4 of 2000 which was one third of expectations, compared to 308,000 Macs during that same quarter, and Cube sales dropped to 12,000 units in Q1 of 2001. A price drop and hardware upgrades could not offset the earlier perception of the Cube's reduced value compared to the iMac and Power Mac G4 lineup, and it was discontinued in July 2001.
Historically, what is near-absent in Mac OS X compared to Microsoft Windows?
570d260cfed7b91900d45c59
malware and spyware
62
False
When did Mac OS X experience a large increase in malware attacks?
570d260cfed7b91900d45c5a
early 2011
608
False
How was Mac's malware seen by many Mac users in 2011?
570d260cfed7b91900d45c5b
an increasing problem
752
False
What were Apple support staff initially instructed not to assist with concerning malware?
570d260cfed7b91900d45c5c
the removal
1001
False
How many users were affected by the increase in malware?
570d260cfed7b91900d45c5d
100,000
1195
False
malware and spyware
62
Historically, what is near-absent in Mac OS XX compared to Microsoft Windows?
5ad562de5b96ef001a10ad62
True
early 2011
608
When did Mac OS X experience a large decrease in malware attacks?
5ad562de5b96ef001a10ad63
True
an increasing problem
752
How was Mac's malware seen by many Mac users in 2012?
5ad562de5b96ef001a10ad64
True
the removal
1001
What were Microsoft support staff initially instructed not to assist with concerning malware?
5ad562de5b96ef001a10ad65
True
100,000
1195
How many users were affected by the decrease in malware?
5ad562de5b96ef001a10ad66
True
Historically, Mac OS X enjoyed a near-absence of the types of malware and spyware that affect Microsoft Windows users. Mac OS X has a smaller usage share compared to Microsoft Windows (roughly 5% and 92%, respectively), but it also has traditionally more secure UNIX roots. Worms, as well as potential vulnerabilities, were noted in February 2006, which led some industry analysts and anti-virus companies to issue warnings that Apple's Mac OS X is not immune to malware. Increasing market share coincided with additional reports of a variety of attacks. Apple releases security updates for its software. In early 2011, Mac OS X experienced a large increase in malware attacks, and malware such as Mac Defender, MacProtector, and MacGuard were seen as an increasing problem for Mac users. At first, the malware installer required the user to enter the administrative password, but later versions were able to install without user input. Initially, Apple support staff were instructed not to assist in the removal of the malware or admit the existence of the malware issue, but as the malware spread, a support document was issued. Apple announced an OS X update to fix the problem. An estimated 100,000 users were affected.
What was the market share of OS X in North America by March 2011?
570d282fb3d812140066d499
slightly over 14%
74
False
Being positioned as a higher end PC, what is it misleading to compare the Mac to?
570d282fb3d812140066d49a
a budget PC
598
False
Apple has remained profitable since what time?
570d282fb3d812140066d49b
Steve Jobs' return
1284
False
According to market research, who does Apple draw it's customer base from?
570d282fb3d812140066d49c
a higher-income demographic
1598
False
Whose return to Apple resulted in the company's reorganization?
570d282fb3d812140066d49d
Steve Jobs
1284
False
slightly over 14%
74
What was the market share of OS X in North America by March 2012?
5ad566cc5b96ef001a10ade0
True
a budget PC
598
Being positioned as a lower end PC, what is it misleading to compare the Mac to?
5ad566cc5b96ef001a10ade1
True
Steve Jobs' return
1284
Apple has remained unprofitable since what time?
5ad566cc5b96ef001a10ade2
True
a higher-income demographic
1598
According to market research, who does Microsoft draw it's customer base from?
5ad566cc5b96ef001a10ade3
True
Steve Jobs
1284
Whose return to Microsoft resulted in the company's reorganization?
5ad566cc5b96ef001a10ade4
True
By March 2011, the market share of OS X in North America had increased to slightly over 14%. Whether the size of the Mac's market share and installed base is relevant, and to whom, is a hotly debated issue. Industry pundits have often called attention to the Mac's relatively small market share to predict Apple's impending doom, particularly in the early and mid-1990s when the company's future seemed bleakest. Others argue that market share is the wrong way to judge the Mac's success. Apple has positioned the Mac as a higher-end personal computer, and so it may be misleading to compare it to a budget PC. Because the overall market for personal computers has grown rapidly, the Mac's increasing sales numbers are effectively swamped by the industry's expanding sales volume as a whole. Apple's small market share, then, gives the impression that fewer people are using Macs than did ten years ago, when exactly the opposite is true. Soaring sales of the iPhone and iPad mean that the portion of Apple's profits represented by the Macintosh has declined in 2010, dropping to 24% from 46% two years earlier. Others try to de-emphasize market share, citing that it is rarely brought up in other industries. Regardless of the Mac's market share, Apple has remained profitable since Steve Jobs' return and the company's subsequent reorganization. Notably, a report published in the first quarter of 2008 found that Apple had a 14% market share in the personal computer market in the US, including 66% of all computers over $1,000. Market research indicates that Apple draws its customer base from a higher-income demographic than the mainstream personal computer market.
Who refused to lower the profit margins on Mac computers in 1989?
570d2954fed7b91900d45c7f
Jean-Louis Gassée
276
False
What problem rocked the PC industry in 1989?
570d2954fed7b91900d45c80
a component shortage
379
False
What did the component shortage of 1989 force Allan Loren to do with Macs?
570d2954fed7b91900d45c81
cut prices
501
False
Who was Allan Loren?
570d2954fed7b91900d45c82
Apple USA head
471
False
When was Microsoft Windows 3.0 released?
570d2954fed7b91900d45c83
May 1990
581
False
Jean-Louis Gassée
276
Who refused to lower the profit margins on Mac computers in 1998?
5ad564345b96ef001a10ad8a
True
a component shortage
379
What problem rocked the PC industry in 1998?
5ad564345b96ef001a10ad8b
True
cut prices
501
What did the component shortage of 1998 force Allan Loren to do with Macs?
5ad564345b96ef001a10ad8c
True
Apple USA head
471
Who was Eric Loren?
5ad564345b96ef001a10ad8d
True
May 1990
581
When was Microsoft Windows 2.0 released?  May 1990
5ad564345b96ef001a10ad8e
True
Notwithstanding these technical and commercial successes on the Macintosh platform, their systems remained fairly expensive, making them less competitive in light of the falling costs of components that made IBM PC compatibles cheaper and accelerated their adoption. In 1989, Jean-Louis Gassée had steadfastly refused to lower the profit margins on Mac computers, then there was a component shortage that rocked the exponentially-expanding PC industry that year, forcing Apple USA head Allan Loren to cut prices which dropped Apple's margins. Microsoft Windows 3.0 was released in May 1990, the first iteration of Windows which had a feature set and performance comparable to the significantly costlier Macintosh. Furthermore, Apple had created too many similar models that confused potential buyers; at one point the product lineup was subdivided into Classic, LC, II, Quadra, Performa, and Centris models, with essentially the same computer being sold under a number of different names.
What did Apple begin to eliminate in 2002?
570d2ad5fed7b91900d45c89
CRT displays
43
False
Why was the new iMac G4 considerably more expensive than the G3?
570d2ad5fed7b91900d45c8a
higher cost of the LCD technology
305
False
Who did Apple create the more affordable eMac in April 2002 for?
570d2ad5fed7b91900d45c8b
the education market
398
False
What was the main problem with the eMac's CRT?
570d2ad5fed7b91900d45c8c
relatively bulky and somewhat outdated
554
False
After Apple's failed desktop sales, what products drove their sales growth?
570d2ad5fed7b91900d45c8d
the iPod portable music player and iTunes music download service
1276
False
CRT displays
43
What did Apple begin to eliminate in 2012?
5ad5657c5b96ef001a10adba
True
higher cost of the LCD technology
305
Why was the new iMac G4 considerably more expensive than the G5?
5ad5657c5b96ef001a10adbb
True
the education market
398
Who did Apple create the more affordable eMac in April 2003 for?
5ad5657c5b96ef001a10adbc
True
relatively bulky and somewhat outdated
554
What was the main problem with the iMac's CRT?
5ad5657c5b96ef001a10adbd
True
iPod portable music player
1280
After Microsoft's failed desktop sales, what products drove their sales growth?
5ad5657c5b96ef001a10adbe
True
Starting in 2002, Apple moved to eliminate CRT displays from its product line as part of aesthetic design and space-saving measures with the iMac G4. However, the new iMac with its flexible LCD flat-panel monitor was considerably more expensive on its debut than the preceding iMac G3, largely due to the higher cost of the LCD technology at the time. In order to keep the Macintosh affordable for the education market and due to obsolescence of the iMac G3, Apple created the eMac in April 2002 as the intended successor; however the eMac's CRT made it relatively bulky and somewhat outdated, while its all-in-one construction meant it could not be expanded to meet consumer demand for larger monitors. The iMac G4's relatively high prices were approaching that of laptops which were portable and had higher resolution LCD screens. Meanwhile, Windows PC manufacturers could offer desktop configurations with LCD flat panel monitors at prices comparable to the eMac and at much lower cost than the iMac G4. The flop of the Power Mac G4 Cube, along with the more expensive iMac G4 and heavy eMac, meant that Macintosh desktop sales never reached the market share attained by the previous iMac G3. For the next half-decade while Macintosh sales held steady, it would instead be the iPod portable music player and iTunes music download service that would drive Apple's sales growth.
In 2009, how many Macs sold were laptops?
570d2bfafed7b91900d45c9d
seven out of ten
180
False
What has helped Macs more directly compete with Windows on price and performance?
570d2bfafed7b91900d45c9e
The use of Intel microprocessors
878
False
In 2010, what did Apple receive before other PC manufacturers?
570d2bfafed7b91900d45c9f
Intel's latest CPUs
1044
False
What are the top-selling form factors of the Mac platform today?
570d2bfafed7b91900d45ca0
MacBooks
803
False
What is the name of the most inexpensive Mac offered?
570d2bfafed7b91900d45ca1
Mac Mini
692
False
seven out of ten
180
In 2008, how many Macs sold were laptops?
5ad5674d5b96ef001a10adf4
True
The use of Intel microprocessors
878
What has helped Macs more indirectly compete with Windows on price and performance?
5ad5674d5b96ef001a10adf5
True
Intel's latest CPUs
1044
In 2012, what did Apple receive before other PC manufacturers?
5ad5674d5b96ef001a10adf6
True
MacBooks
803
What are the low-selling form factors of the Mac platform today?
5ad5674d5b96ef001a10adf7
True
Mac Mini
692
What is the name of the most expensive Mac offered?
5ad5674d5b96ef001a10adf8
True
The sales breakdown of the Macintosh have seen sales of desktop Macs stayed mostly constant while being surpassed by that of Mac notebooks whose sales rate has grown considerably; seven out of ten Macs sold were laptops in 2009, a ratio projected to rise to three out of four by 2010. The change in sales of form factors is due to the desktop iMac moving from affordable (iMac G3) to upscale (iMac G4) and subsequent releases are considered premium all-in-ones. By contrast the MSRP of the MacBook laptop lines have dropped through successive generations such that the MacBook Air and MacBook Pro constitute the lowest price of entry to a Mac, with the exception of the even more inexpensive Mac Mini (the only sub-$1000 offering from Apple, albeit without a monitor and keyboard), not surprisingly the MacBooks are the top-selling form factors of the Macintosh platform today. The use of Intel microprocessors has helped Macs more directly compete with their Windows counterparts on price and performance, and by the 2010s Apple was receiving Intel's latest CPUs first before other PC manufacturers.
What did Apple consolidate in 1998?
570d2cb4fed7b91900d45cb1
its multiple consumer-level desktop models
60
False
What all-in-one product was created in 1998 through Apple's consolidations?
570d2cb4fed7b91900d45cb2
iMac G3
123
False
What did the iMac G3 do to the Mac reputation?
570d2cb4fed7b91900d45cb3
revitalized the brand
170
False
When was Mac's Xserve server discontinued?
570d2cb4fed7b91900d45cb4
2011
592
False
What took the place of Mac's Xserve server?
570d2cb4fed7b91900d45cb5
Mac Mini and Mac Pro
613
False
its multiple consumer-level desktop models
60
What did Apple consolidate in 1989?
5ad500c15b96ef001a10a908
True
iMac G3
123
What all-in-one product was created in 1989 through Apple's consolidations?
5ad500c15b96ef001a10a909
True
revitalized the brand
170
What did the iMac G2 do to the Mac reputation?
5ad500c15b96ef001a10a90a
True
2011
592
When was Mac's Xserve server continued?
5ad500c15b96ef001a10a90b
True
Mac Mini and Mac Pro
613
What took the place of Mac's iserve server?
5ad500c15b96ef001a10a90c
True
In 1998, after the return of Steve Jobs, Apple consolidated its multiple consumer-level desktop models into the all-in-one iMac G3, which became a commercial success and revitalized the brand. Since their transition to Intel processors in 2006, the complete lineup is entirely based on said processors and associated systems. Its current lineup comprises three desktops (the all-in-one iMac, entry-level Mac mini, and the Mac Pro tower graphics workstation), and four laptops (the MacBook, MacBook Air, MacBook Pro, and MacBook Pro with Retina display). Its Xserve server was discontinued in 2011 in favor of the Mac Mini and Mac Pro.
Why did Raskin leave the Apple team in 1981?
570d2dfdb3d812140066d4f7
over a personality conflict with Jobs
340
False
According to Andy Hertzfeld, whose idea is the final Mac design closer to?
570d2dfdb3d812140066d4f8
Jobs
456
False
What did Steve Jobs offer Xerox to visit and see their latest technology?
570d2dfdb3d812140066d4f9
Apple stock options
672
False
Whose technology influenced the user interfaces of the Lisa and Macintosh?
570d2dfdb3d812140066d4fa
Xerox PARC
770
False
What caused Steve Jobs to resign from Apple in 1985?
570d2dfdb3d812140066d4fb
an internal power struggle
1165
False
a personality conflict with Jobs
345
Why did Raskin leave the Apple team in 1918?
5ad5029e5b96ef001a10a968
True
Jobs
456
According to Andy Hertzfeld, whose idea is the first Mac design closer to?
5ad5029e5b96ef001a10a969
True
Apple stock options
672
What didn't Steve Jobs offer Xerox to visit and see their latest technology?
5ad5029e5b96ef001a10a96a
True
Xerox PARC
770
Whose technology influenced the user interfaces of the Lisa and Microsoft?
5ad5029e5b96ef001a10a96b
True
an internal power struggle
1165
What caused Steve Jobs to resign from Apple in 1958?
5ad5029e5b96ef001a10a96c
True
Burrel's innovative design, which combined the low production cost of an Apple II with the computing power of Lisa's CPU, the Motorola 68K, received the attention of Steve Jobs, co-founder of Apple. Realizing that the Macintosh was more marketable than the Lisa, he began to focus his attention on the project. Raskin left the team in 1981 over a personality conflict with Jobs. Team member Andy Hertzfeld said that the final Macintosh design is closer to Jobs' ideas than Raskin's. After hearing of the pioneering GUI technology being developed at Xerox PARC, Jobs had negotiated a visit to see the Xerox Alto computer and its Smalltalk development tools in exchange for Apple stock options. The Lisa and Macintosh user interfaces were influenced by technology seen at Xerox PARC and were combined with the Macintosh group's own ideas. Jobs also commissioned industrial designer Hartmut Esslinger to work on the Macintosh line, resulting in the "Snow White" design language; although it came too late for the earliest Macs, it was implemented in most other mid- to late-1980s Apple computers. However, Jobs' leadership at the Macintosh project did not last; after an internal power struggle with new CEO John Sculley, Jobs resigned from Apple in 1985. He went on to found NeXT, another computer company targeting the education market, and did not return until 1997, when Apple acquired NeXT.
What did Jobs state that he expected Macintosh to become?
570d307eb3d812140066d51d
the third industry standard
79
False
How many applications were widely available during Macintosh's introduction?
570d307eb3d812140066d51e
Only about ten
271
False
How many companies did Apple promise were develping products for the new computer?
570d307eb3d812140066d51f
79
455
False
How many Macintoshes had Apple sold after one year?
570d307eb3d812140066d520
280,000
762
False
How many databases did Apple have available the first year?
570d307eb3d812140066d521
two
703
False
the third industry standard
79
What did Gates state that he expected Macintosh to become?
5ad50a005b96ef001a10aa86
True
Only about ten
271
How many applications were widely unavailable during Macintosh's introduction?
5ad50a005b96ef001a10aa87
True
79
455
How many companies did Microsoft promise were develping products for the new computer?
5ad50a005b96ef001a10aa88
True
280,000
762
How many Macintoshes had Microsoft sold after one year?
5ad50a005b96ef001a10aa89
True
two
703
How many databases did Apple have available the last year?
5ad50a005b96ef001a10aa8a
True
Jobs stated during the Macintosh's introduction "we expect Macintosh to become the third industry standard", after the Apple II and IBM PC. Although outselling every other computer, it did not meet expectations during the first year, especially among business customers. Only about ten applications including MacWrite and MacPaint were widely available, although many non-Apple software developers participated in the introduction and Apple promised that 79 companies including Lotus, Digital Research, and Ashton-Tate were creating products for the new computer. After one year, it had less than one quarter of the software selection available compared to the IBM PC—including only one word processor, two databases, and one spreadsheet—although Apple had sold 280,000 Macintoshes compared to IBM's first year sales of fewer than 100,000 PCs.
Whose technology did Apple take advantage of when introducing the Macintosh II?
570d3164fed7b91900d45ced
Motorola
98
False
What powered the Macintosh II?
570d3164fed7b91900d45cee
a 16 MHz Motorola 68020 processor
171
False
How much did the Macintosh II sell for?
570d3164fed7b91900d45cef
$5500
153
False
What marked the start of a new direction for Macintosh?
570d3164fed7b91900d45cf0
The Macintosh II
486
False
What was the Macintosh II's new modular design similar to?
570d3164fed7b91900d45cf1
the IBM PC
738
False
Motorola
8
Whose technology did Apple take advantage of when introducing the Macintosh I?
5ad50cc15b96ef001a10aaf4
True
a 16 MHz Motorola 68020 processor
171
What powered the Macintosh I?
5ad50cc15b96ef001a10aaf5
True
$5500
153
How much did the Macintosh I sell for?
5ad50cc15b96ef001a10aaf6
True
Macintosh II
490
What marked the end of a new direction for Macintosh
5ad50cc15b96ef001a10aaf7
True
IBM PC
742
What was the Macintosh I's new modular design similar to?
5ad50cc15b96ef001a10aaf8
True
Updated Motorola CPUs made a faster machine possible, and in 1987 Apple took advantage of the new Motorola technology and introduced the Macintosh II at $5500, powered by a 16 MHz Motorola 68020 processor. The primary improvement in the Macintosh II was Color QuickDraw in ROM, a color version of the graphics language which was the heart of the machine. Among the many innovations in Color QuickDraw were the ability to handle any display size, any color depth, and multiple monitors. The Macintosh II marked the start of a new direction for the Macintosh, as now for the first time it had an open architecture with several NuBus expansion slots, support for color graphics and external monitors, and a modular design similar to that of the IBM PC. It had an internal hard drive and a power supply with a fan, which was initially fairly loud. One third-party developer sold a device to regulate fan speed based on a heat sensor, but it voided the warranty. Later Macintosh computers had quieter power supplies and hard drives.
When Microsfot Windows 3.0 was released, what was it commonly said to not be as good as?
570d32d5b3d812140066d531
Macintosh
121
False
Who was Microsoft Windows 3.0 commonly said to be good enough for?
570d32d5b3d812140066d532
the average user
159
False
What was responsible for the drop in Apple's margins in 1989?
570d32d5b3d812140066d533
a component shortage
539
False
Who made the decision in 1989 to cut prices on Mac computers?
570d32d5b3d812140066d534
Apple USA head Allan Loren
629
False
What was Microsoft Windows 3.0's performance comparable to?
570d32d5b3d812140066d535
Macintosh platform
353
False
Macintosh
121
When Microsoft Windows 4.0 was released, what was it commonly said to not be as good as?
5ad5493b5b96ef001a10ac3e
True
the average user
159
Who was Microsoft Windows 4.0 commonly said to be good enough for?
5ad5493b5b96ef001a10ac3f
True
a component shortage
539
What was responsible for the drop in Apple's margins in 1998?
5ad5493b5b96ef001a10ac40
True
Allan Loren
644
Who made the decision in 1998 to cut prices on Mac computers?
5ad5493b5b96ef001a10ac41
True
Macintosh platform
353
What was Microsoft Windows 3.1's performance comparable to?
5ad5493b5b96ef001a10ac42
True
Microsoft Windows 3.0 was released in May 1990, and according to a common saying at the time "Windows was not as good as Macintosh, but it was good enough for the average user". Though still a graphical wrapper that relied upon MS-DOS, 3.0 was the first iteration of Windows which had a feature set and performance comparable to the much more expensive Macintosh platform. It also did not help matters that during the previous year Jean-Louis Gassée had steadfastly refused to lower the profit margins on Mac computers. Finally, there was a component shortage that rocked the exponentially-expanding PC industry in 1989, forcing Apple USA head Allan Loren to cut prices which dropped Apple's margins.
What did Intel unsuccessfully try to push Apple to migrate to?
570d34b3fed7b91900d45d0b
Intel chips
82
False
Which platform did Apple choose to use?
570d34b3fed7b91900d45d0c
Motorola 68040
287
False
Who first rolled out Pentium processors in 1993?
570d34b3fed7b91900d45d0d
Intel
1299
False
How far behind was Macintosh set back compared to the new IBM compatibles?
570d34b3fed7b91900d45d0e
a generation
1444
False
When did Apple abandon Motorola CPU's?
570d34b3fed7b91900d45d0f
1994
1513
False
Intel chips
82
What did Intel successfully try to push Apple to migrate to?
5ad55d205b96ef001a10acc6
True
Motorola 68040
287
Which platform did Apple choose not to use?
5ad55d205b96ef001a10acc7
True
Intel
1299
Who first rolled out Pentium processors in 1992?
5ad55d205b96ef001a10acc8
True
a generation behind
1444
How far behind was Microsoft set back compared to the new IBM compatibles?
5ad55d205b96ef001a10acc9
True
1994
1513
When did Apple abandon AMD CPU's?
5ad55d205b96ef001a10acca
True
Intel had tried unsuccessfully to push Apple to migrate the Macintosh platform to Intel chips. Apple concluded that Intel's CISC (Complex Instruction Set Computer) architecture ultimately would not be able to compete against RISC (Reduced Instruction Set Computer) processors. While the Motorola 68040 offered the same features as the Intel 80486 and could on a clock-for-clock basis significantly outperform the Intel chip, the 486 had the ability to be clocked significantly faster without suffering from overheating problems, especially the clock-doubled i486DX2 which ran the CPU logic at twice the external bus speed, giving such equipped IBM compatible systems a significant performance lead over their Macintosh equivalents. Apple's product design and engineering didn't help matters as they restricted the use of the '040 to their expensive Quadras for a time while the 486 was readily available to OEMs as well as enthusiasts who put together their own machines. In late 1991, as the higher-end Macintosh desktop lineup transitioned to the '040, Apple was unable to offer the '040 in their top-of-the-line PowerBooks until early 1994 with the PowerBook 500 series, several years after the first 486-powered IBM compatible laptops hit the market which cost Apple considerable sales. In 1993 Intel rolled out the Pentium processors as the successor to the 486, while the Motorola 68050 was never released, leaving the Macintosh platform a generation behind IBM compatibles in the latest CPU technology. In 1994, Apple abandoned Motorola CPUs for the RISC PowerPC architecture developed by the AIM alliance of Apple Computer, IBM, and Motorola. The Power Macintosh line, the first to use the new chips, proved to be highly successful, with over a million PowerPC units sold in nine months. However, in the long run, spurning Intel for the PowerPC was a mistake as the commoditization of Intel-architecture chips meant Apple couldn't compete on price against "the Dells of the world".
What color was Apples new iMac, which was introduced in 1998?
570d35c0fed7b91900d45d15
Bondi blue
143
False
What did the iMac replace most of Apple's standard connections with?
570d35c0fed7b91900d45d16
two USB ports
375
False
What did the iMac replace the floppy disk drive with?
570d35c0fed7b91900d45d17
a CD-ROM drive
427
False
What did the iMac need to use in order to write CDs or other media?
570d35c0fed7b91900d45d18
external third-party hardware
526
False
How many iMac units sold in the first 139 days?
570d35c0fed7b91900d45d19
800,000
609
False
Bondi blue
143
What color was Apples new iMac, which was introduced in 1999?
5ad55eed5b96ef001a10acee
True
two USB ports
375
What did the iMac replace most of Microsoft's standard connections with?
5ad55eed5b96ef001a10acef
True
a CD-ROM drive
427
What did the iMac replace the hard disk drive with?
5ad55eed5b96ef001a10acf0
True
external third-party hardware
526
What did the iMac need to use in order to read CDs or other media?
5ad55eed5b96ef001a10acf1
True
800,000
609
How many iMac units sold in the first 193 days?
5ad55eed5b96ef001a10acf2
True
In 1998, Apple introduced its new iMac which, like the original 128K Mac, was an all-in-one computer. Its translucent plastic case, originally Bondi blue and later various additional colors, is considered an industrial design landmark of the late 1990s. The iMac did away with most of Apple's standard (and usually proprietary) connections, such as SCSI and ADB, in favor of two USB ports. It replaced a floppy disk drive with a CD-ROM drive for installing software, but was incapable of writing to CDs or other media without external third-party hardware. The iMac proved to be phenomenally successful, with 800,000 units sold in 139 days. It made the company an annual profit of US$309 million, Apple's first profitable year since Michael Spindler took over as CEO in 1995. This aesthetic was applied to the Power Macintosh and later the iBook, Apple's first consumer-level laptop computer, filling the missing quadrant of Apple's "four-square product matrix" (desktop and portable products for both consumers and professionals). More than 140,000 pre-orders were placed before it started shipping in September, and by October proved to be a large success.
When did Apple discontinue the use of PowerPC microprocessors?
570d3734fed7b91900d45d29
2006
57
False
Who announced the capability to run Windows XP on an Intel-based Mac in 2006?
570d3734fed7b91900d45d2a
a group of hackers
779
False
How did hackers release their software for running Windows on Macs?
570d3734fed7b91900d45d2b
for download on their website
936
False
When did Apple announce software that would allow Windows XP to be run on Intel-based Macs?
570d3734fed7b91900d45d2c
April 5, 2006
970
False
What is the name of the software that Apple introduced for running Windows XP?
570d3734fed7b91900d45d2d
Boot Camp
1040
False
2006
57
When did Microsoft discontinue the use of PowerPC microprocessors?
5ad560785b96ef001a10ad14
True
a group of hackers
779
Who announced the capability to run Windows XP on an Intel-based Mac in 2007?
5ad560785b96ef001a10ad15
True
for download on their website
936
How did hackers release their software for running MacOS on Macs?
5ad560785b96ef001a10ad16
True
April 5, 2006
970
When did Apple announce software that would allow Windows Vista to be run on Intel-based Macs?
5ad560785b96ef001a10ad17
True
Boot Camp
1040
What is the name of the software that Apple introduced for running Windows 98?
5ad560785b96ef001a10ad18
True
Apple discontinued the use of PowerPC microprocessors in 2006. At WWDC 2005, Steve Jobs announced this transition, revealing that Mac OS X was always developed to run on both the Intel and PowerPC architectures. All new Macs now use x86 processors made by Intel, and some were renamed as a result. Intel-based Macs running OS X 10.6 and below (support has been discontinued since 10.7) can run pre-existing software developed for PowerPC using an emulator called Rosetta, although at noticeably slower speeds than native programs. However, the Classic environment is unavailable on the Intel architecture. Intel chips introduced the potential to run the Microsoft Windows operating system natively on Apple hardware, without emulation software such as Virtual PC. In March 2006, a group of hackers announced that they were able to run Windows XP on an Intel-based Mac. The group released their software as open source and has posted it for download on their website. On April 5, 2006, Apple announced the availability of the public beta of Boot Camp, software that allows owners of Intel-based Macs to install Windows XP on their machines; later versions added support for Windows Vista and Windows 7. Classic was discontinued in Mac OS X 10.5, and Boot Camp became a standard feature on Intel-based Macs.
Who was initially reluctant to embrace mice with multiple buttons and scroll wheels?
570d3848fed7b91900d45d3d
Apple
0
False
What was the name of the 1st multiple button mouse introduced by Apple?
570d3848fed7b91900d45d3e
Mighty Mouse
362
False
How many buttons did the Mighty Mouse have?
570d3848fed7b91900d45d3f
four
445
False
What did Apple introduce to take the place of a physical scroll wheel in 2009?
570d3848fed7b91900d45d40
multi-touch gesture recognition
629
False
What Apple mouse 1st used multi-touch gesture recognition?
570d3848fed7b91900d45d41
Magic Mouse
605
False
Apple
0
Who was initially reluctant to embrace keyboards with multiple buttons and scroll wheels?
5ad5621e5b96ef001a10ad46
True
Mighty Mouse
362
What was the name of the last multiple button mouse introduced by Apple?
5ad5621e5b96ef001a10ad47
True
four
445
How many trackballs did the Mighty Mouse have?
5ad5621e5b96ef001a10ad48
True
multi-touch gesture recognition
629
What did Apple introduce to take the place of a physical scroll wheel in 2008?
5ad5621e5b96ef001a10ad49
True
Magic Mouse
605
What Apple mouse 1st used single-touch gesture recognition?
5ad5621e5b96ef001a10ad4a
True
Apple was initially reluctant to embrace mice with multiple buttons and scroll wheels. Macs did not natively support pointing devices that featured multiple buttons, even from third parties, until Mac OS X arrived in 2001. Apple continued to offer only single button mice, in both wired and Bluetooth wireless versions, until August 2005, when it introduced the Mighty Mouse. While it looked like a traditional one-button mouse, it actually had four buttons and a scroll ball, capable of independent x- and y-axis movement. A Bluetooth version followed in July 2006. In October 2009, Apple introduced the Magic Mouse, which uses multi-touch gesture recognition (similar to that of the iPhone) instead of a physical scroll wheel or ball. It is available only in a wireless configuration, but the wired Mighty Mouse (re-branded as "Apple Mouse") is still available as an alternative. Since 2010, Apple has also offered the Magic Trackpad as a means to control Macintosh desktop computers in a way similar to laptops.
What type of software began to emerge following the release of Intel-based Macs?
570d395db3d812140066d57f
third-party platform virtualization
43
False
At what speed do programs such as VirtualBox allow Microsoft Windows to run on Macs?
570d395db3d812140066d580
at near native speed
258
False
What is possible to run by using Boot camp, even though it is not condoned by Apple?
570d395db3d812140066d581
the Linux operating system
495
False
What do Macs lack that makes them unable to run many legacy PC operating systems?
570d395db3d812140066d582
the A20 gate
695
False
third-party platform virtualization
43
What type of hardware began to emerge following the release of Intel-based Macs?
5ad563b95b96ef001a10ad80
True
at near native speed
258
At what speed do programs such as VirtualBox allow Microsoft DOS to run on Macs?
5ad563b95b96ef001a10ad81
True
the Linux operating system
495
What is possible to run by using Boot camp, even though it is not condoned by Microsoft?
5ad563b95b96ef001a10ad82
True
A20 gate
699
What do Macs lack that makes them able to run many legacy PC operating systems?
5ad563b95b96ef001a10ad83
True
A20 gate
699
What do Macs have that makes them unable to run many legacy PC operating systems?
5ad563b95b96ef001a10ad84
True
Following the release of Intel-based Macs, third-party platform virtualization software such as Parallels Desktop, VMware Fusion, and VirtualBox began to emerge. These programs allow users to run Microsoft Windows or previously Windows-only software on Macs at near native speed. Apple also released Boot Camp and Mac-specific Windows drivers that help users to install Windows XP or Vista and natively dual boot between Mac OS X and Windows. Though not condoned by Apple, it is possible to run the Linux operating system using Boot camp or other virtualization workarounds. Unlike most PCs, however, Macs are unable to run many legacy PC operating systems. In particular, Intel-based macs lack the A20 gate.
What has been the best-selling ultra-portable over Windows Ultrabooks in the U.S.?
570d3ac0fed7b91900d45d5b
MacBook Air
316
False
What earned the title as best all-around subnotebook/ultraportable?
570d3ac0fed7b91900d45d5c
MacBook Air
316
False
What did the Air receive before other PC manufacturers?
570d3ac0fed7b91900d45d5d
Intel's latest CPUs
833
False
Through 7/1/13, what percentage of all Ultrabook sales in the U.S. were MacBook Airs?
570d3ac0fed7b91900d45d5e
56
991
False
When was the competetive pricing of MacBooks especially effective?
570d3ac0fed7b91900d45d5f
when rivals charged more for seemingly equivalent Ultrabooks
1258
False
MacBook Air
124
What has been the best-selling ultra-portable over Windows Ultrabooks in the U.K.?
5ad568d45b96ef001a10ae22
True
MacBook Air
316
What earned the title as worst all-around subnotebook/ultraportable?
5ad568d45b96ef001a10ae23
True
Intel's latest CPUs
833
What did the Air receive before other Mac manufacturers?
5ad568d45b96ef001a10ae24
True
56
991
Through 7/1/14, what percentage of all Ultrabook sales in the U.S. were MacBook Airs?
5ad568d45b96ef001a10ae25
True
when rivals charged more for seemingly equivalent Ultrabooks
1258
When was the competetive pricing of MacBooks especially ineffective?
5ad568d45b96ef001a10ae26
True
Although the PC market declined, Apple still managed to ship 2.8 million MacBooks in Q2 2012 (the majority of which are the MacBook Air) compared to 500,000 total Ultrabooks, although there were dozens of Ultrabooks from various manufacturers on the market while Apple only offered 11-inch and 13-inch models of the MacBook Air. The Air has been the best-selling ultra-portable in certain countries over Windows Ultrabooks, particularly the United States. While several Ultrabooks were able to claim individual distinctions such as being the lightest or thinnest, the Air was regarded by reviewers as the best all-around subnotebook/ultraportable in regard to "OS X experience, full keyboard, superior trackpad, Thunderbolt connector and the higher-quality, all-aluminum unibody construction". The Air was among the first to receive Intel's latest CPUs before other PC manufacturers, and OS X has gained market share on Windows in recent years. Through July 1, 2013, the MacBook Air took in 56 percent of all Ultrabook sales in the United States, although being one of the higher-priced competitors, though several Ultrabooks with better features were often more expensive than the MacBook Air. The competitive pricing of MacBooks was particularly effective when rivals charged more for seemingly equivalent Ultrabooks, as this contradicted the established "elitist aura" perception that Apple products cost more but were higher quality, which made these most expensive Ultrabooks seem exorbitant no matter how valid their higher prices were.
Anti-aircraft_warfare
What is another term for anti-aircraft warfare?
570cfb92b3d812140066d37f
counter-air defence
25
False
NATO defines anti-aircraft warfare as measures to reduce what?
570cfb92b3d812140066d380
the effectiveness of hostile air action
111
False
Barrage balloons are an example of what type of weapons system?
570cfb92b3d812140066d381
passive measures
267
False
What is the primary effort been for most countries when it comes to anti-aircraft warfare?
570cfb92b3d812140066d382
homeland defence
444
False
What does NATO ascribe naval air defence as?
570cfb92b3d812140066d383
anti-aircraft warfare
539
False
Anti-aircraft warfare or counter-air defence is defined by NATO as "all measures designed to nullify or reduce the effectiveness of hostile air action." They include ground-and air-based weapon systems, associated sensor systems, command and control arrangements and passive measures (e.g. barrage balloons). It may be used to protect naval, ground, and air forces in any location. However, for most countries the main effort has tended to be 'homeland defence'. NATO refers to airborne air defence as counter-air and naval air defence as anti-aircraft warfare. Missile defence is an extension of air defence as are initiatives to adapt air defence to the task of intercepting any projectile in flight.
What is the Russian term for air defence?
570d118ab3d812140066d3cb
Protivovozdushnaya oborona
182
False
How is the Russian term for air defence abbreviated?
570d118ab3d812140066d3cc
PVO
309
False
What are the AA systems called in Russian?
570d118ab3d812140066d3cd
zenitnye
351
False
What is air defence called in French?
570d118ab3d812140066d3ce
DCA
452
False
What is the generic term for an airplane or rocket in French?
570d118ab3d812140066d3cf
aéronef
487
False
Non-English terms for air defence include the German Flak (Fliegerabwehrkanone, "aircraft defence cannon", also cited as Flugabwehrkanone), whence English flak, and the Russian term Protivovozdushnaya oborona (Cyrillic: Противовозду́шная оборо́на), a literal translation of "anti-air defence", abbreviated as PVO. In Russian the AA systems are called zenitnye (i.e. "pointing to zenith") systems (guns, missiles etc.). In French, air defence is called DCA (Défense contre les aéronefs, "aéronef" being the generic term for all kind of airborne device (airplane, airship, balloon, missile, rocket, etc.)).
When were sensors initially developed?
570d3941fed7b91900d45d47
during the First World War
62
False
Radar was supplemented by what in the 1980s?
570d3941fed7b91900d45d48
optronics
191
False
What country created an integrated system for ADGB?
570d3941fed7b91900d45d49
Britain
281
False
What did the integrated system for ADGB link?
570d3941fed7b91900d45d4a
the ground-based air defence of the army's AA Command
339
False
What agency stated that the arrangements were an air defence ground environment?
570d3941fed7b91900d45d4b
NATO
473
False
Initially sensors were optical and acoustic devices developed during the First World War and continued into the 1930s, but were quickly superseded by radar, which in turn was supplemented by optronics in the 1980s. Command and control remained primitive until the late 1930s, when Britain created an integrated system for ADGB that linked the ground-based air defence of the army's AA Command, although field-deployed air defence relied on less sophisticated arrangements. NATO later called these arrangements an "air defence ground environment", defined as "the network of ground radar sites and command and control centres within a specific theatre of operations which are used for the tactical control of air defence operations".
Which country had the most severe case?
570d3a3cfed7b91900d45d51
Soviet Union
30
False
This separate service  was known as what in the Soviet Union?
570d3a3cfed7b91900d45d52
Voyska PVO
203
False
What two systems did Voyska PVO have?
570d3a3cfed7b91900d45d53
fighter aircraft and ground-based systems
228
False
What year did the PVO Strany become independent?
570d3a3cfed7b91900d45d54
1954
449
False
What was the arm that was the Air Defence of the Ground Forces?
570d3a3cfed7b91900d45d55
PVO SV
459
False
The most extreme case was the Soviet Union, and this model may still be followed in some countries: it was a separate service, on a par with the navy or ground force. In the Soviet Union this was called Voyska PVO, and had both fighter aircraft and ground-based systems. This was divided into two arms, PVO Strany, the Strategic Air defence Service responsible for Air Defence of the Homeland, created in 1941 and becoming an independent service in 1954, and PVO SV, Air Defence of the Ground Forces. Subsequently these became part of the air force and ground forces respectively
When did Serbian troops notice enemy aircraft approaching Kragujevac?
570d3b05b3d812140066d59b
30 September 1915
3
False
How many bombs did the three aircraft drop on the city?
570d3b05b3d812140066d59c
45
197
False
Which private shot down one aircraft with a cannon?
570d3b05b3d812140066d59d
Radoje Ljutovac
360
False
What happened to the pilots that were in the aircraft shot down?
570d3b05b3d812140066d59e
both pilots died
474
False
Which war was the cannon used in prior to this event?
570d3b05b3d812140066d59f
First Balkan War in 1912
641
False
On 30 September 1915, troops of the Serbian Army observed three enemy aircraft approaching Kragujevac. Soldiers shot at them with shotguns and machine-guns but failed to prevent them from dropping 45 bombs over the city, hitting military installations, the railway station and many other, mostly civilian, targets in the city. During the bombing raid, private Radoje Ljutovac fired his cannon at the enemy aircraft and successfully shot one down. It crashed in the city and both pilots died from their injuries. The cannon Ljutovac used was not designed as an anti-aircraft gun, it was a slightly modified Turkish cannon captured during the First Balkan War in 1912. This was the first occasion in military history that a military aircraft was shot down with ground-to-air fire.
What was the problem with AA gunnery?
570d3c44b3d812140066d5b9
successfully aiming a shell to burst close to its target's future position
56
False
Different things could affect what with the shell?
570d3c44b3d812140066d5ba
predicted trajectory
175
False
What was updated on the gunsight as a target moved?
570d3c44b3d812140066d5bb
'off-set' angles for range and elevation
236
False
Where was the barrel pointed when the sights were on a target?
570d3c44b3d812140066d5bc
the target's future position
414
False
What two things figured the fuse length?
570d3c44b3d812140066d5bd
Range and height of the target
444
False
AA gunnery was a difficult business. The problem was of successfully aiming a shell to burst close to its target's future position, with various factors affecting the shells' predicted trajectory. This was called deflection gun-laying, 'off-set' angles for range and elevation were set on the gunsight and updated as their target moved. In this method when the sights were on the target, the barrel was pointed at the target's future position. Range and height of the target determined fuse length. The difficulties increased as aircraft performance improved.
What showed that aircraft could be a significant contribution to the battlefield?
570d3e82fed7b91900d45d83
World War I
0
False
In addition to Zeppelins, what attacked London for four years with air attacks?
570d3e82fed7b91900d45d84
Gotha G.V bombers
291
False
The four year air attack was instrumental in Britain forming what?
570d3e82fed7b91900d45d85
an independent air force
399
False
The future of aircraft in war situations was important because of the growth in what two areas?
570d3e82fed7b91900d45d86
their range and weapon load
558
False
Where were most of the nations who had the strongest military after World War I?
570d3e82fed7b91900d45d87
Europe
709
False
World War I demonstrated that aircraft could be an important part of the battlefield, but in some nations it was the prospect of strategic air attack that was the main issue, presenting both a threat and an opportunity. The experience of four years of air attacks on London by Zeppelins and Gotha G.V bombers had particularly influenced the British and was one of if not the main driver for forming an independent air force. As the capabilities of aircraft and their engines improved it was clear that their role in future war would be even more critical as their range and weapon load grew. However, in the years immediately after World War I the prospect of another major war seemed remote, particularly in Europe where the most militarily capable nations were, and little financing was available.
How many different countries developed radar starting in the 1930s?
570d3f2ffed7b91900d45d95
eight
21
False
Where was the Observer Corps based?
570d3f2ffed7b91900d45d96
Britain
247
False
When was the Observer Corps formed?
570d3f2ffed7b91900d45d97
1925
294
False
What did the Observer Corps observe and report on?
570d3f2ffed7b91900d45d98
hostile aircraft flying over Britain
349
False
What was originally used to see hostile aircraft approaching?
570d3f2ffed7b91900d45d99
radar
397
False
From the early 1930s eight countries developed radar, these developments were sufficiently advanced by the late 1930s for development work on sound locating acoustic devices to be generally halted, although equipment was retained. Furthermore, in Britain the volunteer Observer Corps formed in 1925 provided a network of observation posts to report hostile aircraft flying over Britain. Initially radar was used for airspace surveillance to detect approaching hostile aircraft. However, the German Würzburg radar was capable of providing data suitable for controlling AA guns and the British AA No 1 Mk 1 GL radar was designed to be used on AA gun positions.
Who wanted the British to keep using machine guns in World War I?
570d4027b3d812140066d5e9
RAF
32
False
The military was not allowed to use anything that was bigger than what?
570d4027b3d812140066d5ea
.50-inch
201
False
What was determined to be the smallest effective round in 1935?
570d4027b3d812140066d5eb
an impact fused 2 lb HE shell
285
False
What was lighter than the water-cooled pom-pom?
570d4027b3d812140066d5ec
The air-cooled Bofors
441
False
What is the Kerrison Predictor's official name?
570d4027b3d812140066d5ed
The Predictor AA No 3
599
False
Until this time the British, at RAF insistence, continued their World War I use of machine guns, and introduced twin MG mountings for AAAD. The army was forbidden from considering anything larger than .50-inch. However, in 1935 their trials showed that the minimum effective round was an impact fused 2 lb HE shell. The following year they decided to adopt the Bofors 40 mm and a twin barrel Vickers 2-pdr (40 mm) on a modified naval mount. The air-cooled Bofors was vastly superior for land use, being much lighter than the water-cooled pom-pom, and UK production of the Bofors 40 mm was licensed. The Predictor AA No 3, as the Kerrison Predictor was officially known, was introduced with it.
What was under development in both the Soviet Union and Britain in the 1930s?
570d410afed7b91900d45db3
solid fuel rockets
17
False
Why was Britain mainly interested in solid fuel rockets?
570d410afed7b91900d45db4
for anti-aircraft fire
120
False
What were rockets called at this time?
570d410afed7b91900d45db5
unrotated projectiles
237
False
How big was the rocket that was introduced to handle dive bombing attacks?
570d410afed7b91900d45db6
2-inch
325
False
What size rocket was being developed at the end of the war?
570d410afed7b91900d45db7
3-inch
484
False
During the 1930s solid fuel rockets were under development in the Soviet Union and Britain. In Britain the interest was for anti-aircraft fire, it quickly became clear that guidance would be required for precision. However, rockets, or 'unrotated projectiles' as they were called could the used for anti-aircraft barrages. A 2-inch rocket using HE or wire obstacle warheads was introduced first to deal with low-level or dive bombing attacks on smaller targets such as airfields. The 3-inch was in development at the end of the inter-war period.
What did the British get a license to build?
570d43f9fed7b91900d45deb
the Bofors 40 mm
53
False
While light, the Bofors 40mm were powerful enough to take down what size aircraft?
570d43f9fed7b91900d45dec
aircraft of any size
140
False
What was produced to inspire people on the assembly line to work harder?
570d43f9fed7b91900d45ded
a movie
293
False
What was the movie made to inspire assembly line workers called?
570d43f9fed7b91900d45dee
The Gun
302
False
Who started making an unlicensed version of the 40mm at the beginning of the war?
570d43f9fed7b91900d45def
Americans
464
False
The British had already arranged licence building of the Bofors 40 mm, and introduced these into service. These had the power to knock down aircraft of any size, yet were light enough to be mobile and easily swung. The gun became so important to the British war effort that they even produced a movie, The Gun, that encouraged workers on the assembly line to work harder. The Imperial measurement production drawings the British had developed were supplied to the Americans who produced their own (unlicensed) copy of the 40 mm at the start of the war, moving to licensed production in mid-1941.
What kind of aircraft is used to intercept and destroy other aircraft?
570d4501b3d812140066d607
The interceptor aircraft
0
False
What particular aircraft did the interceptor target most?
570d4501b3d812140066d608
bombers
155
False
When were interceptors like the F-102 Delta Dagger first built?
570d4501b3d812140066d609
after the end of World War II
353
False
When were interceptors like the F-106 Delta Dart not being built anymore?
570d4501b3d812140066d60a
the late 1960s
397
False
The interceptors were no longer built because of the shift of the bombing role to what?
570d4501b3d812140066d60b
ICBMs
498
False
The interceptor aircraft (or simply interceptor) is a type of fighter aircraft designed specifically to intercept and destroy enemy aircraft, particularly bombers, usually relying on high speed and altitude capabilities. A number of jet interceptors such as the F-102 Delta Dagger, the F-106 Delta Dart, and the MiG-25 were built in the period starting after the end of World War II and ending in the late 1960s, when they became less important due to the shifting of the strategic bombing role to ICBMs. Invariably the type is differentiated from other fighter aircraft designs by higher speeds and shorter operating ranges, as well as much reduced ordnance payloads.
What is another possible weapon for anti-aircraft use?
570d4bd6b3d812140066d64f
the laser
57
False
When did personnel first start thinking about using lasers in combat?
570d4bd6b3d812140066d650
the late 1960s
127
False
What laser can currently be used in the type of role that was first thought of in the late 1960s?
570d4bd6b3d812140066d651
Tactical High Energy Laser
271
False
The use of lasers in anti-aircraft warfare is currently considered what?
570d4bd6b3d812140066d652
experimental usefulness
227
False
When do some people believe that lasers can play a more prominent role in air defence?
570d4bd6b3d812140066d653
in the next ten years
494
False
Another potential weapon system for anti-aircraft use is the laser. Although air planners have imagined lasers in combat since the late 1960s, only the most modern laser systems are currently reaching what could be considered "experimental usefulness". In particular the Tactical High Energy Laser can be used in the anti-aircraft and anti-missile role. If current developments continue, some[who?] believe it is reasonable to suggest that lasers will play a major role in air defence starting in the next ten years.
What is the air defence of a certain area called?
570d4f6bb3d812140066d689
Area air defence
0
False
Armies as well as what group have operated area air defences?
570d4f6bb3d812140066d68a
Air Forces
206
False
What U.S. Air Forces operated area air defence?
570d4f6bb3d812140066d68b
CIM-10 Bomarc
248
False
What range do area defence systems have?
570d4f6bb3d812140066d68c
medium to long range
290
False
What was the objective of the MIM-104 Patriot Missile batteries during the first Gulf War?
570d4f6bb3d812140066d68d
to cover populated areas
658
False
Area air defence, the air defence of a specific area or location, (as opposed to point defence), have historically been operated by both armies (Anti-Aircraft Command in the British Army, for instance) and Air Forces (the United States Air Force's CIM-10 Bomarc). Area defence systems have medium to long range and can be made up of various other systems and networked into an area defence system (in which case it may be made up of several short range systems combined to effectively cover an area). An example of area defence is the defence of Saudi Arabia and Israel by MIM-104 Patriot missile batteries during the first Gulf War, where the objective was to cover populated areas.
Which country probably coined the term air defence?
570d5163b3d812140066d6b1
Britain
48
False
What does ADGB stand for?
570d5163b3d812140066d6b2
Air Defence of Great Britain
61
False
What year was the ADGB created?
570d5163b3d812140066d6b3
1925
141
False
Who is probably the one who coined the term archie for anti-aircraft guns?
570d5163b3d812140066d6b4
Amyas Borton
661
False
What George Robey line is believed to have started the archie nickname?
570d5163b3d812140066d6b5
"Archibald, certainly not!"
773
False
The term air defence was probably first used by Britain when Air Defence of Great Britain (ADGB) was created as a Royal Air Force command in 1925. However, arrangements in the UK were also called 'anti-aircraft', abbreviated as AA, a term that remained in general use into the 1950s. After the First World War it was sometimes prefixed by 'Light' or 'Heavy' (LAA or HAA) to classify a type of gun or unit. Nicknames for anti-aircraft guns include AA, AAA or triple-A, an abbreviation of anti-aircraft artillery; "ack-ack" (from the spelling alphabet used by the British for voice transmission of "AA"); and archie (a World War I British term probably coined by Amyas Borton and believed to derive via the Royal Flying Corps from the music-hall comedian George Robey's line "Archibald, certainly not!").
What is the first purpose of air defence?
570d5228fed7b91900d45e99
detect hostile aircraft
33
False
What is the second purpose of air defence?
570d5228fed7b91900d45e9a
destroy them
61
False
What is the critical issue in air defence?
570d5228fed7b91900d45e9b
to hit a target moving in three-dimensional space
97
False
Projectiles must either be guided to the target or aimed where?
570d5228fed7b91900d45e9c
at the predicted position of the target at the time the projectile reaches it
343
False
What two things must be considered in regards to the projectile and target?
570d5228fed7b91900d45e9d
speed and direction
442
False
The essence of air defence is to detect hostile aircraft and destroy them. The critical issue is to hit a target moving in three-dimensional space; an attack must not only match these three coordinates, but must do so at the time the target is at that position. This means that projectiles either have to be guided to hit the target, or aimed at the predicted position of the target at the time the projectile reaches it, taking into account speed and direction of both the target and the projectile.
What does NATO define as passive measures to protect people, buildings and equipment from air or missile attacks?
570d5301fed7b91900d45ea3
Passive air defence
0
False
Which group is heavily responsible for passive air defence?
570d5301fed7b91900d45ea4
ground forces
259
False
Passive air defence includes camouflage and what?
570d5301fed7b91900d45ea5
concealment
301
False
What was camouflaged during World War II?
570d5301fed7b91900d45ea6
important buildings
404
False
Some airfield runways were painted green during what war?
570d5301fed7b91900d45ea7
the Cold War
468
False
Passive air defence is defined by NATO as "Passive measures taken for the physical defence and protection of personnel, essential installations and equipment in order to minimize the effectiveness of air and/or missile attack". It remains a vital activity by ground forces and includes camouflage and concealment to avoid detection by reconnaissance and attacking aircraft. Measures such as camouflaging important buildings were common in the Second World War. During the Cold War the runways and taxiways of some airfields were painted green.
How many guns or missile launchers are typically in a battery?
570d5502b3d812140066d6cf
2 to 12
55
False
In addition to guns or missile launchers, what else comprises the battery?
570d5502b3d812140066d6d0
fire control elements
93
False
Where do batteries typically get deployed?
570d5502b3d812140066d6d1
in a small area
172
False
Which missile batteries often have individual launchers several kilometres from one another?
570d5502b3d812140066d6d2
SHORAD
262
False
Several dozen teams can deploy individually in small sections when what is handled by a specialist?
570d5502b3d812140066d6d3
MANPADS
372
False
The basic air defence unit is typically a battery with 2 to 12 guns or missile launchers and fire control elements. These batteries, particularly with guns, usually deploy in a small area, although batteries may be split; this is usual for some missile systems. SHORAD missile batteries often deploy across an area with individual launchers several kilometres apart. When MANPADS is operated by specialists, batteries may have several dozen teams deploying separately in small sections; self-propelled air defence guns may deploy in pairs.
It was understood that ammunition needed to explode where?
570d55affed7b91900d45eb7
in the air
99
False
In addition to high explosive, what else was used?
570d55affed7b91900d45eb8
shrapnel
140
False
Airburst fuses could be which two things?
570d55affed7b91900d45eb9
igniferious (based on a burning fuse) or mechanical (clockwork)
206
False
What were hydrogen filled balloons called?
570d55affed7b91900d45eba
Zeppelins
503
False
What was used as targets in training practices?
570d55affed7b91900d45ebb
Smoke shells
802
False
The first issue was ammunition. Before the war it was recognised that ammunition needed to explode in the air. Both high explosive (HE) and shrapnel were used, mostly the former. Airburst fuses were either igniferious (based on a burning fuse) or mechanical (clockwork). Igniferious fuses were not well suited for anti-aircraft use. The fuse length was determined by time of flight, but the burning rate of the gunpowder was affected by altitude. The British pom-poms had only contact-fused ammunition. Zeppelins, being hydrogen filled balloons, were targets for incendiary shells and the British introduced these with airburst fuses, both shrapnel type-forward projection of incendiary 'pot' and base ejection of an incendiary stream. The British also fitted tracers to their shells for use at night. Smoke shells were also available for some AA guns, these bursts were used as targets during training.
What was the primary method for HAA fire?
570d656efed7b91900d45fbf
aimed fire
69
False
Along with predicting the gun data from tracking the target, what else needed to be known about the target to enable the aimed fire?
570d656efed7b91900d45fc0
its height
192
False
Another assumption was that the target would maintain a steady course along with what other two factors?
570d656efed7b91900d45fc1
speed and height
260
False
Targets could be how many feet for the HAA to engage them?
570d656efed7b91900d45fc2
24,000 feet
315
False
What kind of fuses were needed?
570d656efed7b91900d45fc3
Mechanical
328
False
Two assumptions underpinned the British approach to HAA fire; first, aimed fire was the primary method and this was enabled by predicting gun data from visually tracking the target and having its height. Second, that the target would maintain a steady course, speed and height. This HAA was to engage targets up to 24,000 feet. Mechanical, as opposed to igniferous, time fuses were required because the speed of powder burning varied with height so fuse length was not a simple function of time of flight. Automated fire ensured a constant rate of fire that made it easier to predict where each shell should be individually aimed.
What kind of guns did the United States end WW I with?
570d6620b3d812140066d813
two 3-inch AA guns
30
False
When were improvements developed for these guns?
570d6620b3d812140066d814
throughout the inter-war period
81
False
When did work begin on the 105 mm static mounting AA gun?
570d6620b3d812140066d815
1924
126
False
Only a few of the 105 mm static mounting AA guns were produced because work had started on which other gun?
570d6620b3d812140066d816
90 mm AA gun
275
False
What year was the M1 version approved?
570d6620b3d812140066d817
1940
407
False
The US ended World War I with two 3-inch AA guns and improvements were developed throughout the inter-war period. However, in 1924 work started on a new 105 mm static mounting AA gun, but only a few were produced by the mid-1930s because by this time work had started on the 90 mm AA gun, with mobile carriages and static mountings able to engage air, sea and ground targets. The M1 version was approved in 1940. During the 1920s there was some work on a 4.7-inch which lapsed, but revived in 1937, leading to a new gun in 1944.
Which country's air defence and aircraft has been under integrated command and control?
570d6767fed7b91900d45ff9
Soviet Union
80
False
What other group has also been under this integrated command and control?
570d6767fed7b91900d45ffa
NATO's Allied Command Europe
97
False
Who will deploy their own air defence if their is an air threat?
570d6767fed7b91900d45ffb
forces in the field
319
False
What can be deployed as an offensive measure to refuse airspace use to an opponent?
570d6767fed7b91900d45ffc
A surface-based air defence capability
437
False
In some countries, such as Britain and Germany during the Second World War, the Soviet Union and NATO's Allied Command Europe, ground based air defence and air defence aircraft have been under integrated command and control. However, while overall air defence may be for homeland defence including military facilities, forces in the field, wherever they are, invariably deploy their own air defence capability if there is an air threat. A surface-based air defence capability can also be deployed offensively to deny the use of airspace to an opponent.
What did the United States Army begin to develop after the first World War?
570d67fafed7b91900d46011
a dual-role (AA/ground) automatic 37 mm cannon
49
False
Who designed this cannon?
570d67fafed7b91900d46012
John M. Browning
109
False
How many rounds did this cannon fire per second?
570d67fafed7b91900d46013
125
348
False
What replaced the Browning 37nn because of jamming issues?
570d67fafed7b91900d46014
Bofors 40 mm
522
False
What other US group was interested in the Bofors?
570d67fafed7b91900d46015
US Navy
580
False
After World War I the US Army started developing a dual-role (AA/ground) automatic 37 mm cannon, designed by John M. Browning. It was standardised in 1927 as the T9 AA cannon, but trials quickly revealed that it was worthless in the ground role. However, while the shell was a bit light (well under 2 lbs) it had a good effective ceiling and fired 125 rounds per minute; an AA carriage was developed and it entered service in 1939. The Browning 37mm proved prone to jamming, and was eventually replaced in AA units by the Bofors 40 mm. The Bofors had attracted attention from the US Navy, but none were acquired before 1939. Also, in 1931 the US Army worked on a mobile anti-aircraft machine mount on the back of a heavy truck having four .30 caliber water-cooled machine guns and an optical director. It proved unsuccessful and was abandoned.
High altitude needs in Germany were going to be handled by what?
570d6b2bb3d812140066d8b7
a 75 mm gun from Krupp
68
False
Who also collaborated in the design of the 75 mm gun?
570d6b2bb3d812140066d8b8
Bofors
149
False
Because higher performance was needed, Krupp's workers designed what?
570d6b2bb3d812140066d8b9
a new 88 mm design, the FlaK 36
275
False
Where was the first place the FlaK 36 was used?
570d6b2bb3d812140066d8ba
Spain
322
False
What war was the FlaK first used in?
570d6b2bb3d812140066d8bb
Spanish Civil War
339
False
Germany's high-altitude needs were originally going to be filled by a 75 mm gun from Krupp, designed in collaboration with their Swedish counterpart Bofors, but the specifications were later amended to require much higher performance. In response Krupp's engineers presented a new 88 mm design, the FlaK 36. First used in Spain during the Spanish Civil War, the gun proved to be one of the best anti-aircraft guns in the world, as well as particularly deadly against light, medium, and even early heavy tanks.
What was one of the most often seen weapons that was used both on land and sea?
570d6cecb3d812140066d8dd
1940-origin Flakvierling quadruple-20 mm-gun antiaircraft weapon system
134
False
What weapons system did American troops use but received minute attention?
570d6cecb3d812140066d8de
Allied smaller-calibre air-defence weapons systems
295
False
How many of the M2HB guns were mounted together on the M45 Quadmount weapons system?
570d6cecb3d812140066d8df
four
588
False
This system was a direct answer to what?
570d6cecb3d812140066d8e0
the Flakvierling
743
False
The combat batteries of an Army AAA battalion were often spread how far apart from each other?
570d6cecb3d812140066d8e1
many kilometers
994
False
A plethora of anti-aircraft gun systems of smaller calibre were available to the German Wehrmacht combined forces, and among them the 1940-origin Flakvierling quadruple-20 mm-gun antiaircraft weapon system was one of the most often-seen weapons, seeing service on both land and sea. The similar Allied smaller-calibre air-defence weapons systems of the American forces were also quite capable, although they receive little attention. Their needs could cogently be met with smaller-calibre ordnance beyond using the usual singly-mounted M2 .50 caliber machine gun atop a tank's turret, as four of the ground-used "heavy barrel" (M2HB) guns were mounted together on the American Maxson firm's M45 Quadmount weapons system (as a direct answer to the Flakvierling),which were often mounted on the back of a half-track to form the Half Track, M16 GMC, Anti-Aircraft. Although of less power than Germany's 20 mm systems, the typical 4 or 5 combat batteries of an Army AAA battalion were often spread many kilometers apart from each other, rapidly attaching and detaching to larger ground combat units to provide welcome defence from enemy aircraft.
What acted as a physical obstacle to anti-aircraft defence?
570d6dfefed7b91900d460c1
barrage balloons
55
False
What were barrage balloons initially used as an obstacle to?
570d6dfefed7b91900d460c2
bomber aircraft over cities
113
False
How was a barrage balloon tethered to the ground?
570d6dfefed7b91900d460c3
steel cable
305
False
What did pilots have to do to avoid the barrage balloons?
570d6dfefed7b91900d460c4
fly at a higher altitude
425
False
What kind of success did barrage balloons have as far as bringing down aircraft?
570d6dfefed7b91900d460c5
minimal
544
False
Another aspect of anti-aircraft defence was the use of barrage balloons to act as physical obstacle initially to bomber aircraft over cities and later for ground attack aircraft over the Normandy invasion fleets. The balloon, a simple blimp tethered to the ground, worked in two ways. Firstly, it and the steel cable were a danger to any aircraft that tried to fly among them. Secondly, to avoid the balloons, bombers had to fly at a higher altitude, which was more favorable for the guns. Barrage balloons were limited in application, and had minimal success at bringing down aircraft, being largely immobile and passive defences.
What is an important number when it comes to guns engaging an aircraft?
570d7217b3d812140066d94f
The maximum distance
0
False
What can be used to determine the maximum distance for an AA gun?
570d7217b3d812140066d950
only the ascending part of the trajectory
253
False
What is the term used to describe the height that a projectile would go to if it was fired vertically?
570d7217b3d812140066d951
maximum ceiling
340
False
Few AA guns are able to fire which way?
570d7217b3d812140066d952
vertically
484
False
The maximum distance at which a gun or missile can engage an aircraft is an important figure. However, many different definitions are used but unless the same definition is used, performance of different guns or missiles cannot be compared. For AA guns only the ascending part of the trajectory can be usefully used. One term is 'ceiling', maximum ceiling being the height a projectile would reach if fired vertically, not practically useful in itself as few AA guns are able to fire vertically, and maximum fuse duration may be too short, but potentially useful as a standard to compare different weapons.
The missile started being used more often instead of what weapon?
570d72ecfed7b91900d46131
guns
113
False
Small missiles were designed that could be mounted on what?
570d72ecfed7b91900d46132
armored cars and tank chassis
307
False
When did these missiles start to supplant gun-based SPAAG systems?
570d72ecfed7b91900d46133
in the 1960s
420
False
What are man-portable missiles better known as?
570d72ecfed7b91900d46134
MANPADs
529
False
When were MANPADs introduced?
570d72ecfed7b91900d46135
the 1960s
581
False
As this process continued, the missile found itself being used for more and more of the roles formerly filled by guns. First to go were the large weapons, replaced by equally large missile systems of much higher performance. Smaller missiles soon followed, eventually becoming small enough to be mounted on armored cars and tank chassis. These started replacing, or at least supplanting, similar gun-based SPAAG systems in the 1960s, and by the 1990s had replaced almost all such systems in modern armies. Man-portable missiles, MANPADs as they are known today, were introduced in the 1960s and have supplanted or even replaced even the smallest guns in most advanced armies.
Smaller weapons are able to be used because of their low cost as well as what other factor?
570d7592fed7b91900d46159
ability to quickly follow the target
95
False
Who designed the 40 mm autocannon?
570d7592fed7b91900d4615a
Bofors of Sweden
262
False
When were the surface-to-air missile systems introduced?
570d7592fed7b91900d4615b
1950s
426
False
Where were surface-to-air missiles first developed?
570d7592fed7b91900d4615c
in Nazi Germany
533
False
How can land-based SAMs be deployed?
570d7592fed7b91900d4615d
from fixed installations or mobile launchers
834
False
Unlike the heavier guns, these smaller weapons are in widespread use due to their low cost and ability to quickly follow the target. Classic examples of autocannons and large caliber guns are the 40 mm autocannon and the 8.8 cm FlaK 18, 36 gun, both designed by Bofors of Sweden. Artillery weapons of this sort have for the most part been superseded by the effective surface-to-air missile systems that were introduced in the 1950s, although they were still retained by many nations. The development of surface-to-air missiles began in Nazi Germany during the late World War II with missiles such as the Wasserfall, though no working system was deployed before the war's end, and represented new attempts to increase effectiveness of the anti-aircraft systems faced with growing threat from [bomber]s. Land-based SAMs can be deployed from fixed installations or mobile launchers, either wheeled or tracked. The tracked vehicles are usually armoured vehicles specifically designed to carry SAMs.
What kind of weapons can usually be found on smaller boats and ships?
570d7708b3d812140066d9af
machine-guns or fast cannons
39
False
These weapons can be deadly to aircraft that is low if it is linked to what?
570d7708b3d812140066d9b0
a radar-directed fire-control system radar-controlled cannon for point defence
131
False
What type of ships are particularly well defended?
570d7708b3d812140066d9b1
Carrier battle groups
422
False
Carrier battle groups can launch what to intercept incoming threats?
570d7708b3d812140066d9b2
fighter jets
593
False
Smaller boats and ships typically have machine-guns or fast cannons, which can often be deadly to low-flying aircraft if linked to a radar-directed fire-control system radar-controlled cannon for point defence. Some vessels like Aegis cruisers are as much a threat to aircraft as any land-based air defence system. In general, naval vessels should be treated with respect by aircraft, however the reverse is equally true. Carrier battle groups are especially well defended, as not only do they typically consist of many vessels with heavy air defence armament but they are also able to launch fighter jets for combat air patrol overhead to intercept incoming airborne threats.
What type of weapon can be used against hovering helicopters?
570d77d0fed7b91900d46177
Rocket-propelled grenades
0
False
When an RPG is fired at a steep angle, who is in danger?
570d77d0fed7b91900d46178
the user
197
False
An RPG fired at a steep angle has what reflecting off the ground?
570d77d0fed7b91900d46179
the backblast
215
False
What did some militia members in Somalia weld in the exhaust of the RPG tube to protect the shooter?
570d77d0fed7b91900d4617a
a steel plate
311
False
What were the Somalian militia members firing RPGs at?
570d77d0fed7b91900d4617b
US helicopters
423
False
Rocket-propelled grenades can be—and often are—used against hovering helicopters (e.g., by Somali militiamen during the Battle of Mogadishu (1993)). Firing an RPG at steep angles poses a danger to the user, because the backblast from firing reflects off the ground. In Somalia, militia members sometimes welded a steel plate in the exhaust end of an RPG's tube to deflect pressure away from the shooter when shooting up at US helicopters. RPGs are used in this role only when more effective weapons are not available.
What term is used to describe the altitude for a gun to shoot shells against a target that is moving?
570d8477fed7b91900d461e1
"effective ceiling"
20
False
Who adopted the use of the term, effective ceiling?
570d8477fed7b91900d461e2
The British
0
False
Along with other factors, how long must a target be engaged to have effective ceiling?
570d8477fed7b91900d461e3
for 20 seconds
360
False
What affected the effective ceiling for heavy AA guns?
570d8477fed7b91900d461e4
non-ballistic factors
482
False
The British adopted "effective ceiling", meaning the altitude at which a gun could deliver a series of shells against a moving target; this could be constrained by maximum fuse running time as well as the gun's capability. By the late 1930s the British definition was "that height at which a directly approaching target at 400 mph (=643.6 km/h) can be engaged for 20 seconds before the gun reaches 70 degrees elevation". However, effective ceiling for heavy AA guns was affected by non-ballistic factors:
What was the standard weapon until the 1950s?
570d8943fed7b91900d461f9
guns firing ballistic munitions
16
False
After guns firing ballistic munitions lost their appeal, what weapon took their place?
570d8943fed7b91900d461fa
guided missiles
74
False
Which range did not use guided missiles?
570d8943fed7b91900d461fb
the very shortest ranges
122
False
Damaged aircraft can be out of action for days or what?
570d8943fed7b91900d461fc
permanently
474
False
What is the largest calibre ground-based air defence guns?
570d8943fed7b91900d461fd
at least 150 mm
600
False
Until the 1950s guns firing ballistic munitions were the standard weapon; guided missiles then became dominant, except at the very shortest ranges. However, the type of shell or warhead and its fuzing and, with missiles the guidance arrangement, were and are varied. Targets are not always easy to destroy; nonetheless, damaged aircraft may be forced to abort their mission and, even if they manage to return and land in friendly territory, may be out of action for days or permanently. Ignoring small arms and smaller machine-guns, ground-based air defence guns have varied in calibre from 20 mm to at least 150 mm.
When did the British see the need to add anti-aircraft capability?
570d8b5bb3d812140066da15
8 July 1914
106
False
Where did the New York times report say towers with guns should go?
570d8b5bb3d812140066da16
the coasts of the British Isles
195
False
What was built around naval installations?
570d8b5bb3d812140066da17
complete circle of towers
319
False
Who manned AA guns and searchlights?
570d8b5bb3d812140066da18
Royal Naval Volunteer Reserve (RNVR)
457
False
Who used motorised two-gun sections?
570d8b5bb3d812140066da19
Royal Garrison Artillery (RGA)
586
False
The British recognised the need for anti-aircraft capability a few weeks before World War I broke out; on 8 July 1914, the New York Times reported that the British government had decided to 'dot the coasts of the British Isles with a series of towers, each armed with two quick-firing guns of special design,' while 'a complete circle of towers' was to be built around 'naval installations' and 'at other especially vulnerable points.' By December 1914 the Royal Naval Volunteer Reserve (RNVR) was manning AA guns and searchlights assembled from various sources at some nine ports. The Royal Garrison Artillery (RGA) was given responsibility for AA defence in the field, using motorised two-gun sections. The first were formally formed in November 1914. Initially they used QF 1-pounder "pom-pom" (a 37 mm version of the Maxim Gun).
Who provided part of the air defence of the British Isles in WWI
570d8c74b3d812140066da1f
Royal Navy
187
False
Who protected airfields in WWII?
570d8c74b3d812140066da20
RAF Regiment
292
False
The United States Air Force helped protect the UK during what 'war'?
570d8c74b3d812140066da21
Cold War
415
False
What year was ground-based air defence taken from RAF?
570d8c74b3d812140066da22
2004
584
False
What was disbanded in 1955?
570d8c74b3d812140066da23
British Army's Anti-Aircraft Command
594
False
In Britain and some other armies, the single artillery branch has been responsible for both home and overseas ground-based air defence, although there was divided responsibility with the Royal Navy for air defence of the British Isles in World War I. However, during the Second World War the RAF Regiment was formed to protect airfields everywhere, and this included light air defences. In the later decades of the Cold War this included the United States Air Force's operating bases in UK. However, all ground-based air defence was removed from Royal Air Force (RAF) jurisdiction in 2004. The British Army's Anti-Aircraft Command was disbanded in March 1955, but during the 1960s and 1970s the RAF's Fighter Command operated long-range air -defence missiles to protect key areas in the UK. During World War II the Royal Marines also provided air defence units; formally part of the mobile naval base defence organisation, they were handled as an integral part of the army-commanded ground based air defences.
What helped with better fuse setting?
570d8d82b3d812140066da29
range measurement
23
False
What was the first model of HRF (Height Range Finder) used by the British?
570d8d82b3d812140066da2a
Barr & Stroud UB2
197
False
The HRF measured target distance and what else?
570d8d82b3d812140066da2b
elevation angle
325
False
What was the HRF used with to set fuses?
570d8d82b3d812140066da2c
Height/Fuse Indicator (HFI)
494
False
The fuse length could be set using height reported by whom?
570d8d82b3d812140066da2d
HRF operator
645
False
The British dealt with range measurement first, when it was realised that range was the key to producing a better fuse setting. This led to the Height/Range Finder (HRF), the first model being the Barr & Stroud UB2, a 2-metre optical coincident rangefinder mounted on a tripod. It measured the distance to the target and the elevation angle, which together gave the height of the aircraft. These were complex instruments and various other methods were also used. The HRF was soon joined by the Height/Fuse Indicator (HFI), this was marked with elevation angles and height lines overlaid with fuse length curves, using the height reported by the HRF operator, the necessary fuse length could be read off.
What kind of guns started attracting attention?
570d8eabfed7b91900d4620b
balloon, or airship, guns
26
False
In addition to ammo proposals, what other need was articulated?
570d8eabfed7b91900d4620c
The need for some form of tracer or smoke trail
215
False
The impact and time types of what were analyzed?
570d8eabfed7b91900d4620d
Fuzing options
280
False
As of 1910, who had published info available for gun designs?
570d8eabfed7b91900d4620e
Krupp, Erhardt, Vickers Maxim, and Schneider
474
False
What gun made the scene in 1910?
570d8eabfed7b91900d4620f
French balloon gun
762
False
By the early 20th century balloon, or airship, guns, for land and naval use were attracting attention. Various types of ammunition were proposed, high explosive, incendiary, bullet-chains, rod bullets and shrapnel. The need for some form of tracer or smoke trail was articulated. Fuzing options were also examined, both impact and time types. Mountings were generally pedestal type, but could be on field platforms. Trials were underway in most countries in Europe but only Krupp, Erhardt, Vickers Maxim, and Schneider had published any information by 1910. Krupp's designs included adaptations of their 65 mm 9-pounder, a 75 mm 12-pounder, and even a 105 mm gun. Erhardt also had a 12-pounder, while Vickers Maxim offered a 3-pounder and Schneider a 47 mm. The French balloon gun appeared in 1910, it was an 11-pounder but mounted on a vehicle, with a total uncrewed weight of 2 tons. However, since balloons were slow moving, sights were simple. But the challenges of faster moving airplanes were recognised.
What two guns were propped up against a hillside to get the muzzles pointed up?
570d8ff5b3d812140066da33
French 75 mm and Russian 76.2 mm
88
False
What anti-aircraft gun did the British Army begin to use?
570d8ff5b3d812140066da34
13-pdr QF 6 cwt Mk III
309
False
What gun size was relined to take 13-pounder shells?
570d8ff5b3d812140066da35
18-pdr guns
398
False
What was difficult to get set right on the new guns?
570d8ff5b3d812140066da36
get their fuse setting correct
797
False
Where did most rounds shot at aircraft usually explode?
570d8ff5b3d812140066da37
well below their targets
850
False
All armies soon deployed AA guns often based on their smaller field pieces, notably the French 75 mm and Russian 76.2 mm, typically simply propped up on some sort of embankment to get the muzzle pointed skyward. The British Army adopted the 13-pounder quickly producing new mountings suitable for AA use, the 13-pdr QF 6 cwt Mk III was issued in 1915. It remained in service throughout the war but 18-pdr guns were lined down to take the 13-pdr shell with a larger cartridge producing the 13-pr QF 9 cwt and these proved much more satisfactory. However, in general, these ad-hoc solutions proved largely useless. With little experience in the role, no means of measuring target, range, height or speed the difficulty of observing their shell bursts relative to the target gunners proved unable to get their fuse setting correct and most rounds burst well below their targets. The exception to this rule was the guns protecting spotting balloons, in which case the altitude could be accurately measured from the length of the cable holding the balloon.
What treaty was supposed to stop Germany from having antiaircraft weapons?
570d9187b3d812140066da47
Treaty of Versailles
4
False
When did covert antiaircraft training start in Germany?
570d9187b3d812140066da48
in the late 1920s
197
False
When did the 10.5 centimeter FlaK 38 appear in Germany?
570d9187b3d812140066da49
In the late 1930s
356
False
When did the design begin for the 12.8 centimeter FlaK?
570d9187b3d812140066da4a
1938
542
False
What did the FlaK 39 have?
570d9187b3d812140066da4b
220v 24 kW generators
516
False
The Treaty of Versailles prevented Germany having AA weapons, and for example, the Krupps designers joined Bofors in Sweden. Some World War I guns were retained and some covert AA training started in the late 1920s. Germany introduced the 8.8 cm FlaK 18 in 1933, 36 and 37 models followed with various improvements but ballistic performance was unchanged. In the late 1930s the 10.5 cm FlaK 38 appeared soon followed by the 39, this was designed primarily for static sites but had a mobile mounting and the unit had 220v 24 kW generators. In 1938 design started on the 12.8 cm FlaK.
What did the tachymetric devices do?
570d9275fed7b91900d46231
track targets and produce vertical and horizontal deflection angles
173
False
Which system had electrical tracking?
570d9275fed7b91900d46232
French Brocq
246
False
What gun was the French Brocq system used with?
570d9275fed7b91900d46233
75 mm
369
False
Which system used a pair of trackers?
570d9275fed7b91900d46234
British Wilson-Dalby gun director
380
False
Deflection settings were also called what?
570d9275fed7b91900d46235
aim-off
47
False
However, the problem of deflection settings — 'aim-off' — required knowing the rate of change in the target's position. Both France and UK introduced tachymetric devices to track targets and produce vertical and horizontal deflection angles. The French Brocq system was electrical, the operator entered the target range and had displays at guns; it was used with their 75 mm. The British Wilson-Dalby gun director used a pair of trackers and mechanical tachymetry; the operator entered the fuse length, and deflection angles were read from the instruments.
Poland and other European countries could not defend against what?
570d94dfb3d812140066da69
German attack
43
False
What battle marked the beginning of significant antiaircraft warfare?
570d94dfb3d812140066da6a
Battle of Britain
156
False
What was under command of the Air Defence UK orgnisation?
570d94dfb3d812140066da6b
Army's Anti-aircraft command
347
False
The Air Defence UK grew to have how many antiaircraft corps?
570d94dfb3d812140066da6c
3
464
False
What was formed in 1941 to protect airfields?
570d94dfb3d812140066da6d
RAF regiment
544
False
Poland's AA defences were no match for the German attack and the situation was similar in other European countries. Significant AA warfare started with the Battle of Britain in the summer of 1940. 3.7-inch HAA were to provide the backbone of the groundbased AA defences, although initially significant numbers of 3-inch 20-cwt were also used. The Army's Anti-aircraft command, which was under command of the Air Defence UK organisation, grew to 12 AA divisions in 3 AA corps. 40-mm Bofors entered service in increasing numbers. In addition the RAF regiment was formed in 1941 with responsibility for airfield air defence, eventually with Bofors 40mm as their main armament. Fixed AA defences, using HAA and LAA, were established by the Army in key overseas places, notably Malta, Suez Canal and Singapore.
When was the successful test of the 3.6-inch HAA gun?
570d95f0b3d812140066da83
1918
58
False
When did the 3.7-inch HAA gun become preferred?
570d95f0b3d812140066da84
1928
67
False
What gun did the Royal Navy start using?
570d95f0b3d812140066da85
4.5-inch (114 mm) gun in a twin turret
375
False
How long of a running time did the Number 199 fuse have?
570d95f0b3d812140066da86
30-second running time
656
False
What was introduced in 1939?
570d95f0b3d812140066da87
Machine Fuse Setter
767
False
Britain had successful tested a new HAA gun, 3.6-inch, in 1918. In 1928 3.7-inch became the preferred solution, but it took 6 years to gain funding. Production of the QF 3.7-inch (94 mm) began in 1937; this gun was used both on mobile carriages with the field army and transportable guns on fixed mountings for static positions. At the same time the Royal Navy adopted a new 4.5-inch (114 mm) gun in a twin turret, which the army adopted in simplified single-gun mountings for static positions, mostly around ports where naval ammunition was available. However, the performance of both 3.7 and 4.5-in guns was limited by their standard fuse No 199, with a 30-second running time, although a new mechanical time fuse giving 43 seconds was nearing readiness. In 1939 a Machine Fuse Setter was introduced to eliminate manual fuse setting.
What was shown to be practically not possible during service trials?
570d972b16d0071400510b91
ranging and tracking the new high-speed targets
58
False
Target area is relatively large at what range?
570d972b16d0071400510b92
short range
132
False
How was target lead watched at short range?
570d972b16d0071400510b93
by watching the tracers
272
False
At long range what, in theory, could be used to set ranging calculations?
570d972b16d0071400510b94
slide rules
421
False
What small errors caused large errors in shell fall height and the time until exploding?
570d972b16d0071400510b95
small errors in distance
451
False
Service trials demonstrated another problem however: that ranging and tracking the new high-speed targets was almost impossible. At short range, the apparent target area is relatively large, the trajectory is flat and the time of flight is short, allowing to correct lead by watching the tracers. At long range, the aircraft remains in firing range for a long time, so the necessary calculations can in theory be done by slide rules - though, because small errors in distance cause large errors in shell fall height and detonation time, exact ranging is crucial. For the ranges and speeds that the Bofors worked at, neither answer was good enough.
In the 1920s, which company developed the automatic 20 mm?
570d9860df2f5219002ecffa
Rheinmetall
0
False
Which Switzerland company obtained the patent for an automatic 20 mm gun during the first World War?
570d9860df2f5219002ecffb
Oerlikon
69
False
Which company redesigned the rapid fire 2 cm FlaK 30?
570d9860df2f5219002ecffc
Mauser-Werke
275
False
What did Germany add to the 20 mm to make it more effective?
570d9860df2f5219002ecffd
a 3.7 cm
486
False
When was the first 3.7 cm FlaK 18 introduced?
570d9860df2f5219002ecffe
1935
632
False
Rheinmetall in Germany developed an automatic 20 mm in the 1920s and Oerlikon in Switzerland had acquired the patent to an automatic 20 mm gun designed in Germany during World War I. Germany introduced the rapid-fire 2 cm FlaK 30 and later in the decade it was redesigned by Mauser-Werke and became the 2 cm FlaK 38. Nevertheless, while 20 mm was better than a machine gun and mounted on a very small trailer made it easy to move, its effectiveness was limited. Germany therefore added a 3.7 cm. The first, the 3.7 cm FlaK 18 developed by Rheinmetall in the early 1930s, was basically an enlarged 2 cm FlaK 30. It was introduced in 1935 and production stopped the following year. A redesigned gun 3.7 cm FlaK 36 entered service in 1938, it too had a two-wheel carriage. However, by the mid-1930s the Luftwaffe realised that there was still a coverage gap between 3.7 cm and 8.8 cm guns. They started development of a 5 cm gun on a four-wheel carriage.
What were the large blockhouses called that the Germans developed?
570d98dddf2f5219002ed004
Hochbunker "High Bunkers"
116
False
Another name for the High Bunkers was what?
570d98dddf2f5219002ed005
"Flaktürme" flak towers
145
False
What was placed on the blockhouses by the Germans?
570d98dddf2f5219002ed006
anti-aircraft artillery
191
False
What city had some of the last buildings to fall in 1945?
570d98dddf2f5219002ed007
Berlin
297
False
What structure did the British build in the North Sea?
570d98dddf2f5219002ed008
Maunsell Forts
437
False
The Germans developed massive reinforced concrete blockhouses, some more than six stories high, which were known as Hochbunker "High Bunkers" or "Flaktürme" flak towers, on which they placed anti-aircraft artillery. Those in cities attacked by the Allied land forces became fortresses. Several in Berlin were some of the last buildings to fall to the Soviets during the Battle of Berlin in 1945. The British built structures such as the Maunsell Forts in the North Sea, the Thames Estuary and other tidal areas upon which they based guns. After the war most were left to rot. Some were outside territorial waters, and had a second life in the 1960s as platforms for pirate radio stations.
Which military set up a large air defence network surrounding its larger cities?
570d999c16d0071400510bbf
the U.S. Army
112
False
What US system was created in the 1950s that included radar and computers?
570d999c16d0071400510bc0
the 75 mm Skysweeper system
271
False
The Skysweeper replaced the small guns that the Army was using, including which one?
570d999c16d0071400510bc1
the 40 mm Bofors
497
False
What does NADGE stand for?
570d999c16d0071400510bc2
NATO Air Defence Ground Environment
598
False
What did NADGE become?
570d999c16d0071400510bc3
the NATO Integrated Air Defence System
661
False
The developments during World War II continued for a short time into the post-war period as well. In particular the U.S. Army set up a huge air defence network around its larger cities based on radar-guided 90 mm and 120 mm guns. US efforts continued into the 1950s with the 75 mm Skysweeper system, an almost fully automated system including the radar, computers, power, and auto-loading gun on a single powered platform. The Skysweeper replaced all smaller guns then in use in the Army, notably the 40 mm Bofors. In Europe NATO's Allied Command Europe developed an integrated air defence system, NATO Air Defence Ground Environment (NADGE), that later became the NATO Integrated Air Defence System.
What was the name of the mechanical computer that used automation?
570d9a31df2f5219002ed00e
the Kerrison Predictor
67
False
What did the Predictor calculate after it was pointed at a target?
570d9a31df2f5219002ed00f
the proper aim point automatically
166
False
How did the Predictor display the information needed?
570d9a31df2f5219002ed010
as a pointer mounted on the gun
218
False
What two things did the operators of the gun have to do?
570d9a31df2f5219002ed011
followed the pointer and loaded the shells
276
False
What other country designed similar systems to the Predictor?
570d9a31df2f5219002ed012
Germany
509
False
The solution was automation, in the form of a mechanical computer, the Kerrison Predictor. Operators kept it pointed at the target, and the Predictor then calculated the proper aim point automatically and displayed it as a pointer mounted on the gun. The gun operators simply followed the pointer and loaded the shells. The Kerrison was fairly simple, but it pointed the way to future generations that incorporated radar, first for ranging and later for tracking. Similar predictor systems were introduced by Germany during the war, also adding radar ranging as the war progressed.
What did the muzzle flashes of the firearms used by the infantry reveal?
570d9b3e16d0071400510bd3
infantry positions
224
False
Along with speed of the modern jet, what else limits target opportunities?
570d9b3e16d0071400510bd4
altitude
254
False
Heavier artillery systems were typically used for what?
570d9b3e16d0071400510bd5
most anti-aircraft gunnery
535
False
Although the firearms used by the infantry, particularly machine guns, can be used to engage low altitude air targets, on occasion with notable success, their effectiveness is generally limited and the muzzle flashes reveal infantry positions. Speed and altitude of modern jet aircraft limit target opportunities, and critical systems may be armored in aircraft designed for the ground attack role. Adaptations of the standard autocannon, originally intended for air-to-ground use, and heavier artillery systems were commonly used for most anti-aircraft gunnery, starting with standard pieces on new mountings, and evolving to specially designed guns with much higher performance prior to World War II.
Rocket research began prior to which war in some countries?
570d9bebdf2f5219002ed022
World War II
44
False
What unguided missile systems was fitted to warships?
570d9bebdf2f5219002ed023
the British 2-inch RP and 3-inch
181
False
When did the Bethnal Green disaster occur?
570d9bebdf2f5219002ed024
1943
412
False
What was the US military's counterpart to the British Stooge to counter the attacks by Kamikazes?
570d9bebdf2f5219002ed025
American Lark
544
False
Which country's research was ahead of all other countries for missiles?
570d9bebdf2f5219002ed026
Germans missile research
634
False
Some nations started rocket research before World War II, including for anti-aircraft use. Further research started during the war. The first step was unguided missile systems like the British 2-inch RP and 3-inch, which was fired in large numbers from Z batteries, and were also fitted to warships. The firing of one of these devices during an air raid is suspected to have caused the Bethnal Green disaster in 1943. Facing the threat of Japanese Kamikaze attacks the British and US developed surface-to-air rockets like British Stooge or the American Lark as counter measures, but none of them were ready at the end of the war. The Germans missile research was the most advanced of the war as the Germans put considerable effort in the research and development of rocket systems for all purposes. Among them were several guided and unguided systems. Unguided systems involved the Fliegerfaust (literally "aircraft fist") as the first MANPADS. Guided systems were several sophisticated radio, wire, or radar guided missiles like the Wasserfall ("waterfall") rocket. Due to the severe war situation for Germany all of those systems were only produced in small numbers and most of them were only used by training or trial units.
Which weapon caused a major shift in anti-aircraft strategy?
570d9ca3df2f5219002ed036
guided missile
24
False
Which company wanted to introduce missile systems during the second World War but was not successful?
570d9ca3df2f5219002ed037
Germany
107
False
What missile did the United States upgrade their defences with?
570d9ca3df2f5219002ed038
the Nike Ajax missile
390
False
The introduction of the Nike Ajax missile caused what to disappear?
570d9ca3df2f5219002ed039
the larger anti-aircraft guns
422
False
The introduction of what caused the larger anti-aircraft guns to disappear in the USSR?
570d9ca3df2f5219002ed03a
SA-2 Guideline systems
533
False
The introduction of the guided missile resulted in a significant shift in anti-aircraft strategy. Although Germany had been desperate to introduce anti-aircraft missile systems, none became operational during World War II. Following several years of post-war development, however, these systems began to mature into viable weapons systems. The US started an upgrade of their defences using the Nike Ajax missile, and soon the larger anti-aircraft guns disappeared. The same thing occurred in the USSR after the introduction of their SA-2 Guideline systems.
Where can the future of projectile based weapons possibly be found?
570d9d71df2f5219002ed046
the railgun
55
False
Testing is being done on weapons to create as much damage as what missile at a much lower cost?
570d9d71df2f5219002ed047
a Tomahawk
155
False
When did the United States Navy test a railgun?
570d9d71df2f5219002ed048
February 2008
211
False
How fast was the shell that the Navy fired from the railgun?
570d9d71df2f5219002ed049
5,600 miles (9,000 km) per hour
275
False
When is the railgun expected to be ready?
570d9d71df2f5219002ed04a
2020 to 2025
569
False
The future of projectile based weapons may be found in the railgun. Currently tests are underway on developing systems that could create as much damage as a Tomahawk (missile), but at a fraction of the cost. In February 2008 the US Navy tested a railgun; it fired a shell at 5,600 miles (9,000 km) per hour using 10 megajoules of energy. Its expected performance is over 13,000 miles (21,000 km) per hour muzzle velocity, accurate enough to hit a 5-meter target from 200 nautical miles (370 km) away while shooting at 10 shots per minute. It is expected to be ready in 2020 to 2025.[verification needed] These systems while currently designed for static targets would only need the ability to be retargeted to become the next generation of AA system.
What are two types of fuses used for shells?
570d9efadf2f5219002ed06a
barometric, time-delay, or proximity
99
False
At shorter ranges a light weapon with what is used on fast targets?
570d9efadf2f5219002ed06b
a higher rate of fire
268
False
What size of weapon calibers are better hitting at short range fast targets?
570d9efadf2f5219002ed06c
between 20 mm and 40 mm caliber
368
False
Smaller .50 caliber and 8 millimeter guns have been used in what?
570d9efadf2f5219002ed06d
smallest mounts
529
False
The ammunition and shells fired by these weapons are usually fitted with different types of fuses (barometric, time-delay, or proximity) to explode close to the airborne target, releasing a shower of fast metal fragments. For shorter-range work, a lighter weapon with a higher rate of fire is required, to increase a hit probability on a fast airborne target. Weapons between 20 mm and 40 mm caliber have been widely used in this role. Smaller weapons, typically .50 caliber or even 8 mm rifle caliber guns have been used in the smallest mounts.
Air defence in such places as a carrier group are built around what?
570da01f16d0071400510c0d
a system of concentric layers
87
False
What protects the outer layer?
570da01f16d0071400510c0e
AEW&C aircraft combined with the CAP
243
False
The next layer's surface-to-air missiles are carried by what?
570da01f16d0071400510c0f
the carrier's escorts
405
False
What is the range in nautical miles of the RIM-67 Standard?
570da01f16d0071400510c10
100
506
False
What is the rate of fire for a radar-controlled Gatling gun of 20 and 30 millimeter?
570da01f16d0071400510c11
several thousand rounds per minute
797
False
Air defence in naval tactics, especially within a carrier group, is often built around a system of concentric layers with the aircraft carrier at the centre. The outer layer will usually be provided by the carrier's aircraft, specifically its AEW&C aircraft combined with the CAP. If an attacker is able to penetrate this layer, then the next layers would come from the surface-to-air missiles carried by the carrier's escorts; the area-defence missiles, such as the RIM-67 Standard, with a range of up to 100 nmi, and the point-defence missiles, like the RIM-162 ESSM, with a range of up to 30 nmi. Finally, virtually every modern warship will be fitted with small-calibre guns, including a CIWS, which is usually a radar-controlled Gatling gun of between 20mm and 30mm calibre capable of firing several thousand rounds per minute.
What is likely to entirely replace gun systems?
570da0f416d0071400510c17
missiles
28
False
What is being lead to specialty roles?
570da0f416d0071400510c18
Guns
115
False
What gun is used in the Dutch Goalkeeper CIWS?
570da0f416d0071400510c19
GAU-8 Avenger 30 mm seven-barrel Gatling gun
223
False
What RIM weapon permits mid-flight course adjustments?
570da0f416d0071400510c1a
RIM-116 Rolling Airframe Missile
424
False
What weapon's system uses guns and missiles?
570da0f416d0071400510c1b
Kashtan CIWS
635
False
If current trends continue, missiles will replace gun systems completely in "first line" service.[citation needed] Guns are being increasingly pushed into specialist roles, such as the Dutch Goalkeeper CIWS, which uses the GAU-8 Avenger 30 mm seven-barrel Gatling gun for last ditch anti-missile and anti-aircraft defence. Even this formerly front-line weapon is currently being replaced by new missile systems, such as the RIM-116 Rolling Airframe Missile, which is smaller, faster, and allows for mid-flight course correction (guidance) to ensure a hit. To bridge the gap between guns and missiles, Russia in particular produces the Kashtan CIWS, which uses both guns and missiles for final defence. Two six-barrelled 30 mm Gsh-6-30 Gatling guns and 9M311 surface-to-air missiles provide for its defensive capabilities.
Contemporary air defence systems are usually what?
570da1ea16d0071400510c21
mobile
43
False
What are larger weapon systems usually mounted on?
570da1ea16d0071400510c22
trailers
97
False
Radars, command posts and other such things are usually mounted on what?
570da1ea16d0071400510c23
a fleet of vehicles
673
False
A mobile weapons system is likely to pop up where?
570da1ea16d0071400510c24
places where it is not expected
802
False
What systems are really geared toward mobility?
570da1ea16d0071400510c25
Soviet
835
False
Most modern air defence systems are fairly mobile. Even the larger systems tend to be mounted on trailers and are designed to be fairly quickly broken down or set up. In the past, this was not always the case. Early missile systems were cumbersome and required much infrastructure; many could not be moved at all. With the diversification of air defence there has been much more emphasis on mobility. Most modern systems are usually either self-propelled (i.e. guns or missiles are mounted on a truck or tracked chassis) or easily towed. Even systems that consist of many components (transporter/erector/launchers, radars, command posts etc.) benefit from being mounted on a fleet of vehicles. In general, a fixed system can be identified, attacked and destroyed whereas a mobile system can show up in places where it is not expected. Soviet systems especially concentrate on mobility, after the lessons learnt in the Vietnam war between the USA and Vietnam. For more information on this part of the conflict, see SA-2 Guideline.
What military forces usually integrate air defnce as a separate arm or part of artillery?
570da2de16d0071400510c2b
Western and Commonwealth militaries
5
False
Air defence in the US Army is part of what arm?
570da2de16d0071400510c2c
artillery arm
260
False
Air defence in Pakistan was separated from the Army in what year?
570da2de16d0071400510c2d
1990
372
False
What type of countries have set branches for territorial air defence?
570da2de16d0071400510c2e
largely communist or ex-communist
407
False
Who had a separate military force for controlling nuclear ICBMs?
570da2de16d0071400510c2f
USSR
658
False
Most Western and Commonwealth militaries integrate air defence purely with the traditional services, of the military (i.e. army, navy and air force), as a separate arm or as part of artillery. In the United States Army for instance, air defence is part of the artillery arm, while in the Pakistan Army, it was split off from Artillery to form a separate arm of its own in 1990. This is in contrast to some (largely communist or ex-communist) countries where not only are there provisions for air defence in the army, navy and air force but there are specific branches that deal only with the air defence of territory, for example, the Soviet PVO Strany. The USSR also had a separate strategic rocket force in charge of nuclear intercontinental ballistic missiles.
What do armies tend to have in depth?
570da3fadf2f5219002ed094
air defence
22
False
Angara and Patriot are two examples of what type of system?
570da3fadf2f5219002ed095
army-level missile defence systems
133
False
Stinger and Igla are two examples of what type of system?
570da3fadf2f5219002ed096
smaller force levels
106
False
What does SPAAG stand for?
570da3fadf2f5219002ed097
self-propelled anti-aircraft guns
556
False
What kind of platform are Roland and SA-8 Gecko?
570da3fadf2f5219002ed098
all-in-one surface-to-air missile platforms
648
False
Armies typically have air defence in depth, from integral MANPADS such as the RBS 70, Stinger and Igla at smaller force levels up to army-level missile defence systems such as Angara and Patriot. Often, the high-altitude long-range missile systems force aircraft to fly at low level, where anti-aircraft guns can bring them down. As well as the small and large systems, for effective air defence there must be intermediate systems. These may be deployed at regiment-level and consist of platoons of self-propelled anti-aircraft platforms, whether they are self-propelled anti-aircraft guns (SPAAGs), integrated air-defence systems like Tunguska or all-in-one surface-to-air missile platforms like Roland or SA-8 Gecko.
In agreement with NATO members, the US Air Force and which country has created tactics for air defence suppression?
570da4a616d0071400510c35
Israel
0
False
The goal of what is to suppress opposing air defence systems?
570da4a616d0071400510c36
Dedicated weapons
134
False
As better weapons are created, what systems continue to improve as well to counter them?
570da4a616d0071400510c37
SAM systems with ECCM capabilities
454
False
Israel, and The US Air Force, in conjunction with the members of NATO, has developed significant tactics for air defence suppression. Dedicated weapons such as anti-radiation missiles and advanced electronics intelligence and electronic countermeasures platforms seek to suppress or negate the effectiveness of an opposing air-defence system. It is an arms race; as better jamming, countermeasures and anti-radiation weapons are developed, so are better SAM systems with ECCM capabilities and the ability to shoot down anti-radiation missiles and other munitions aimed at them or the targets they are defending.
What does AAAD stand for?
570da4f7df2f5219002ed0a8
All-Arms Air Defence
212
False
What does GBAD stand for?
570da4f7df2f5219002ed0a9
Ground Based AD
343
False
What does SHORAD stand for?
570da4f7df2f5219002ed0aa
Short Range AD
387
False
What does MANPADS stand for?
570da4f7df2f5219002ed0ab
Man Portable AD Systems
417
False
What does SAGW stand for?
570da4f7df2f5219002ed0ac
Surface to Air Guided Weapon
587
False
NATO defines anti-aircraft warfare (AAW) as "measures taken to defend a maritime force against attacks by airborne weapons launched from aircraft, ships, submarines and land-based sites." In some armies the term All-Arms Air Defence (AAAD) is used for air defence by non-specialist troops. Other terms from the late 20th century include GBAD (Ground Based AD) with related terms SHORAD (Short Range AD) and MANPADS ("Man Portable AD Systems": typically shoulder-launched missiles). Anti-aircraft missiles are variously called surface-to-air missile, abbreviated and pronounced "SAM" and Surface to Air Guided Weapon (SAGW).
What was one of the quickest areas to evolve in military technology in the 20th century?
570da5c6df2f5219002ed0b2
air defence
28
False
The evolution of air defence was in answer to the evolution of what?
570da5c6df2f5219002ed0b3
aircraft
133
False
In addition to radar and computing, what else did air defence want to exploit?
570da5c6df2f5219002ed0b4
guided missiles
208
False
In addition to sensors and technical fire control, and weapons, what else did air defence evolution cover?
570da5c6df2f5219002ed0b5
command and control
431
False
Throughout the 20th century air defence was one of the fastest-evolving areas of military technology, responding to the evolution of aircraft and exploiting various enabling technologies, particularly radar, guided missiles and computing (initially electromechanical analog computing from the 1930s on, as with equipment described below). Air defence evolution covered the areas of sensors and technical fire control, weapons, and command and control. At the start of the 20th century these were either very primitive or non-existent.
How are batteries typically grouped?
570da669df2f5219002ed0ba
into battalions
30
False
What type of battalion is normally tasked to a manoeuvre division in the field army?
570da669df2f5219002ed0bb
light gun or SHORAD
81
False
Which military section could have a full military structure?
570da669df2f5219002ed0bc
Homeland air defence
262
False
Who commanded the UK's Anti-Aircraft Command?
570da669df2f5219002ed0bd
a full British Army general
377
False
How many corps was the UK's Anti-Aircraft Command?
570da669df2f5219002ed0be
three AA corps
459
False
Batteries are usually grouped into battalions or equivalent. In the field army a light gun or SHORAD battalion is often assigned to a manoeuvre division. Heavier guns and long-range missiles may be in air-defence brigades and come under corps or higher command. Homeland air defence may have a full military structure. For example, the UK's Anti-Aircraft Command, commanded by a full British Army general was part of ADGB. At its peak in 1941–42 it comprised three AA corps with 12 AA divisions between them.
Air attacks headed by  Germany increased in 1915 in what area?
570da764df2f5219002ed0c4
the British Isles
22
False
Who was tasked with the job to make improvements to the AA as a result of the German attacks?
570da764df2f5219002ed0c5
Royal Navy gunnery expert, Admiral Sir Percy Scott
116
False
What was used because of night attacks?
570da764df2f5219002ed0c6
searchlights
515
False
How many AA Sections were defending Britain by December 1916?
570da764df2f5219002ed0c7
183
635
False
How many AA Sections were with the BEF in France during the same time?
570da764df2f5219002ed0c8
74
693
False
German air attacks on the British Isles increased in 1915 and the AA efforts were deemed somewhat ineffective, so a Royal Navy gunnery expert, Admiral Sir Percy Scott, was appointed to make improvements, particularly an integrated AA defence for London. The air defences were expanded with more RNVR AA guns, 75 mm and 3-inch, the pom-poms being ineffective. The naval 3-inch was also adopted by the army, the QF 3 inch 20 cwt (76 mm), a new field mounting was introduced in 1916. Since most attacks were at night, searchlights were soon used, and acoustic methods of detection and locating were developed. By December 1916 there were 183 AA Sections defending Britain (most with the 3-inch), 74 with the BEF in France and 10 in the Middle East.
What was many times unpopular with other troops?
570da8a816d0071400510c67
AA guns
78
False
What was mounted on poles by forces?
570da8a816d0071400510c68
machine-gun based weapons
318
False
What type of weapon is thought to have shot down the Red Baron?
570da8a816d0071400510c69
anti-aircraft Vickers machine gun
469
False
What made acquiring targets and aiming more required?
570da8a816d0071400510c6a
increasing capabilities of aircraft
546
False
Heavy weapons shot at high-altitude targets and what shot at low-altitude targets?
570da8a816d0071400510c6b
lighter weapons
782
False
As aircraft started to be used against ground targets on the battlefield, the AA guns could not be traversed quickly enough at close targets and, being relatively few, were not always in the right place (and were often unpopular with other troops), so changed positions frequently. Soon the forces were adding various machine-gun based weapons mounted on poles. These short-range weapons proved more deadly, and the "Red Baron" is believed to have been shot down by an anti-aircraft Vickers machine gun. When the war ended, it was clear that the increasing capabilities of aircraft would require better means of acquiring targets and aiming at them. Nevertheless, a pattern had been set: anti-aircraft weapons would be based around heavy weapons attacking high-altitude targets and lighter weapons for use when they came to lower altitudes.
What year did the British adopt the new Vickers instrument?
570da9dadf2f5219002ed0d8
1925
3
False
What was the Vickers device adopted by the British named?
570da9dadf2f5219002ed0d9
Predictor AA No 1
105
False
What was the designation name of the Sperry device in the US?
570da9dadf2f5219002ed0da
M3A3
714
False
What did the British designate the Sperry device as?
570da9dadf2f5219002ed0db
Predictor AA No 2
761
False
What replaced the UB 2?
570da9dadf2f5219002ed0dc
UB 7
914
False
In 1925 the British adopted a new instrument developed by Vickers. It was a mechanical analogue computer Predictor AA No 1. Given the target height its operators tracked the target and the predictor produced bearing, quadrant elevation and fuse setting. These were passed electrically to the guns where they were displayed on repeater dials to the layers who 'matched pointers' (target data and the gun's actual data) to lay the guns. This system of repeater electrical dials built on the arrangements introduced by British coast artillery in the 1880s, and coast artillery was the background of many AA officers. Similar systems were adopted in other countries and for example the later Sperry device, designated M3A3 in the US was also used by Britain as the Predictor AA No 2. Height finders were also increasing in size, in Britain, the World War I Barr & Stroud UB 2 (7 feet optical base) was replaced by the UB 7 (9 feet optical base) and the UB 10 (18 feet optical base, only used on static AA sites). Goertz in Germany and Levallois in France produced 5 metre instruments. However, in most countries the main effort in HAA guns until the mid-1930s was improving existing ones, although various new designs were on drawing boards.
When year did the Dambusters raid happen?
570dab4216d0071400510c85
1943
29
False
What did the new system designed after the Dambusters raid supposed to do?
570dab4216d0071400510c86
knock down any low-flying aircraft with a single hit
92
False
What replaced the 50 millimeter gun that was not accurate?
570dab4216d0071400510c87
a new 55 mm gun
238
False
What type of control system did the 55 millimeter gun use?
570dab4216d0071400510c88
a centralised control system
283
False
What was used to aim the guns after electrical commands were sent?
570dab4216d0071400510c89
hydraulics
499
False
After the Dambusters raid in 1943 an entirely new system was developed that was required to knock down any low-flying aircraft with a single hit. The first attempt to produce such a system used a 50 mm gun, but this proved inaccurate and a new 55 mm gun replaced it. The system used a centralised control system including both search and targeting radar, which calculated the aim point for the guns after considering windage and ballistics, and then sent electrical commands to the guns, which used hydraulics to point themselves at high speeds. Operators simply fed the guns and selected the targets. This system, modern even by today's standards, was in late development when the war ended.
What was also utilized to control ground targets?
570dac5916d0071400510c99
AAA battalions
0
False
Along with the 88, what other AAA battalion gun made a good anti-tank weapon?
570dac5916d0071400510c9a
90 mm M3 gun
76
False
What did the Americans use at the beginning of the war?
570dac5916d0071400510c9b
120 mm M1 gun stratosphere gun
285
False
What was the altitude range in feet of the stratosphere gun?
570dac5916d0071400510c9c
60,000 ft
371
False
What decade were the 90 and 120 millimeter guns used until?
570dac5916d0071400510c9d
1950s
518
False
AAA battalions were also used to help suppress ground targets. Their larger 90 mm M3 gun would prove, as did the eighty-eight, to make an excellent anti-tank gun as well, and was widely used late in the war in this role. Also available to the Americans at the start of the war was the 120 mm M1 gun stratosphere gun, which was the most powerful AA gun with an impressive 60,000 ft (18 km) altitude capability. No 120 M1 was ever fired at an enemy aircraft. The 90 mm and 120 mm guns would continue to be used into the 1950s.
What did advanced ally technology showcase it could defend against?
570daddb16d0071400510cb3
German V-1 cruise missiles
95
False
Where did the US Army's 419th and 601st locate at to defend London?
570daddb16d0071400510cb4
Folkestone-Dover coast
268
False
Where did the US Army 419th and 601st relocate to as part of the Antwerp X project?
570daddb16d0071400510cb5
Belgium
327
False
What city got attacked by more V-1 and V-2 missiles than any other?
570daddb16d0071400510cb6
Antwerp
401
False
What acquired and automatically tracked incoming targets?
570daddb16d0071400510cb7
SCR-584 radar
745
False
The allies' most advanced technologies were showcased by the anti-aircraft defence against the German V-1 cruise missiles (V stands for Vergeltungswaffe, "retaliation weapon"). The 419th and 601st Antiaircraft Gun Battalions of the US Army were first allocated to the Folkestone-Dover coast to defend London, and then moved to Belgium to become part of the "Antwerp X" project. With the liberation of Antwerp, the port city immediately became the highest priority target, and received the largest number of V-1 and V-2 missiles of any city. The smallest tactical unit of the operation was a gun battery consisting of four 90 mm guns firing shells equipped with a radio proximity fuse. Incoming targets were acquired and automatically tracked by SCR-584 radar, developed at the MIT Rad Lab. Output from the gun-laying radar was fed to the M-9 director, an electronic analog computer developed at Bell Laboratories to calculate the lead and elevation corrections for the guns. With the help of these three technologies, close to 90% of the V-1 missiles, on track to the defence zone around the port, were destroyed.
In what war did the armed forces from Argentina use the SAM Roland?
570daef116d0071400510ccf
1982 Falklands War
7
False
What two units used the Rapier missile system?
570daef116d0071400510cd0
British artillery and RAF regiment
229
False
What older system did the British naval use?
570daef116d0071400510cd1
Sea Slug longer range systems
436
False
What new short range systems did the British naval use?
570daef116d0071400510cd2
Sea Wolf
487
False
What was used in AA mountings on both land and water?
570daef116d0071400510cd3
Machine guns
517
False
In the 1982 Falklands War, the Argentine armed forces deployed the newest west European weapons including the Oerlikon GDF-002 35 mm twin cannon and SAM Roland. The Rapier missile system was the primary GBAD system, used by both British artillery and RAF regiment, a few brand-new FIM-92 Stinger were used by British special forces. Both sides also used the Blowpipe missile. British naval missiles used included Sea Dart and the older Sea Slug longer range systems, Sea Cat and the new Sea Wolf short range systems. Machine guns in AA mountings was used both ashore and afloat.
What can be deployed in fixed launchers but re-deploy at will?
570daf76df2f5219002ed0ec
Larger SAMs
0
False
What are the SAMs called that are launched by individuals in the US?
570daf76df2f5219002ed0ed
MANPADS
191
False
What does MANPADS mean?
570daf76df2f5219002ed0ee
Man-Portable Air Defence Systems
157
False
How are targets aquired for non-ManPAD SAMs?
570daf76df2f5219002ed0ef
air-search radar
375
False
Short range missiles are replacing what weapons?
570daf76df2f5219002ed0f0
autocannons
659
False
Larger SAMs may be deployed in fixed launchers, but can be towed/re-deployed at will. The SAMs launched by individuals are known in the United States as the Man-Portable Air Defence Systems (MANPADS). MANPADS of the former Soviet Union have been exported around the World, and can be found in use by many armed forces. Targets for non-ManPAD SAMs will usually be acquired by air-search radar, then tracked before/while a SAM is "locked-on" and then fired. Potential targets, if they are military aircraft, will be identified as friend or foe before being engaged. The developments in the latest and relatively cheap short-range missiles have begun to replace autocannons in this role.
What continues to grow along with stealth technology?
570db07b16d0071400510ceb
anti-stealth technology
46
False
What can detect stealth aircraft?
570db07b16d0071400510cec
Multiple transmitter radars
71
False
What can see stealth aircraft even with RCS?
570db07b16d0071400510ced
Advanced forms of thermographic cameras
221
False
What is the most notable SAM that can detect a stealth target?
570db07b16d0071400510cee
the S-400
743
False
How far away can the S-400 detect a target?
570db07b16d0071400510cef
90 km away
836
False
However, as stealth technology grows, so does anti-stealth technology. Multiple transmitter radars such as those from bistatic radars and low-frequency radars are said to have the capabilities to detect stealth aircraft. Advanced forms of thermographic cameras such as those that incorporate QWIPs would be able to optically see a Stealth aircraft regardless of the aircraft's RCS. In addition, Side looking radars, High-powered optical satellites, and sky-scanning, high-aperture, high sensitivity radars such as radio telescopes, would all be able to narrow down the location of a stealth aircraft under certain parameters. The newest SAM's have a claimed ability to be able to detect and engage stealth targets, with the most notable being the S-400, which is claimed to be able to detect a target with a 0.05 meter squared RCS from 90 km away.
Sanskrit
Sanskrit is the primary sacred language of which religion?
570d1264b3d812140066d3d5
Hinduism
147
False
How many scheduled languages are there in present-day India?
570d1264b3d812140066d3d6
22
502
False
Which Indian state has Sanskrit as its official language?
570d1264b3d812140066d3d7
Uttarakhand
578
False
Sanskrit is used as a pkilsosophical language in Hinduism, Buddhism, Jainism and which other religion?
570d1264b3d812140066d3d8
Sikhism
205
False
Sanskrit is a standardized dialect of which language?
570d1264b3d812140066d3d9
Old Indo-Aryan
335
False
What language is the sacred language of Hinduism?
570e22010dc6ce1900204ddd
Sanskrit
0
False
Besides its uses as language of religions, for what other application can Sanskrit be used?
570e22010dc6ce1900204dde
lingua franca
271
False
Where is Sanskrit usually found?
570e22010dc6ce1900204ddf
India
296
False
From what is Sanskrit an adaption?
570e22010dc6ce1900204de0
Old Indo-Aryan
335
False
From what language did Sanskrit originate?
570e22010dc6ce1900204de1
Vedic Sanskrit
366
False
Sanskrit
0
What literary philosophical language was used in Greater India?
5a29495603c0e7001a3e1770
True
Sanskrit
0
What is concidered a sacred language in Buddhism?
5a29495603c0e7001a3e1771
True
22
502
How many lanuages are spoken in India?
5a29495603c0e7001a3e1772
True
Uttarakhand
578
Which Indian state does not formally reckognize Sanskirt?
5a29495603c0e7001a3e1773
True
Sanskrit
0
What Indo[European language only has a small amount of written documentation?
5a29495603c0e7001a3e1774
True
Sanskrit
0
What is the primary sacred language of Buddhism?
5a2aac7b5b078a001a2f0699
True
Sanskrit
0
What is a philosophical language in Islam?
5a2aac7b5b078a001a2f069a
True
Greater India
288
Where was Sanskrit a classical language?
5a2aac7b5b078a001a2f069b
True
Sanskrit
0
What is listed as one of the 25 languages of India?
5a2aac7b5b078a001a2f069c
True
Indo-European studies
727
Where does the study of Sanskrit hold a less than prominent position?
5a2aac7b5b078a001a2f069d
True
Sanskrit (/ˈsænskrɪt/; Sanskrit: saṃskṛtam [səmskr̩t̪əm] or saṃskṛta, originally saṃskṛtā vāk, "refined speech") is the primary sacred language of Hinduism, a philosophical language in Buddhism, Hinduism, Sikhism and Jainism, and a literary language that was in use as a lingua franca in Greater India. It is a standardised dialect of Old Indo-Aryan, originating as Vedic Sanskrit and tracing its linguistic ancestry back to Proto-Indo-Iranian and Proto-Indo-European. Today it is listed as one of the 22 scheduled languages of India and is an official language of the state of Uttarakhand. As one of the oldest Indo-European languages for which substantial written documentation exists, Sanskrit holds a prominent position in Indo-European studies.
In what year was the daily newspaper Sudharma first published?
570d146cfed7b91900d45bf7
1970
163
False
Where are Sanskrit Vartman Patram and Vishwasya Vrittantam published?
570d146cfed7b91900d45bf8
Gujarat
235
False
In what year did daily news broadcasts in Sankrit begin on state-run All India Radio?
570d146cfed7b91900d45bf9
1974
277
False
Approximately how many weeklies, fortnightlies and quarterlies published in Sanskrit?
570d146cfed7b91900d45bfa
Over 90
0
False
What is the broadcast time for Sanskrit news on the DD National channel?
570d146cfed7b91900d45bfb
6:55 AM IST
520
False
What is the publication, Sudharma?
570e25080dc6ce1900204df1
daily newspaper
87
False
What language are many periodicals published in in India?
570e25080dc6ce1900204df2
Sanskrit
65
False
Where is the newspaper Sudharma published?
570e25080dc6ce1900204df3
Mysore, India
142
False
Since what year has there been a daily broadcast on All India Radio?
570e25080dc6ce1900204df4
1974
277
False
Where can the Sanskrit broadcasts be found online?
570e25080dc6ce1900204df5
AIR's website
417
False
90
5
How many weeklies are published in Sanskrit?
5a298deb03c0e7001a3e17e4
True
Sudharma
75
What news paper was first published in 1974?
5a298deb03c0e7001a3e17e5
True
short daily news broadcast
300
What first appeared in Sanskrit on All India Radio in 1970?
5a298deb03c0e7001a3e17e6
True
Vartman Patram and Vishwasya Vrittantam
184
What publications have been published out of Myrosa since 1970?
5a298deb03c0e7001a3e17e7
True
Sudharma
75
What has been published out of Mumbai India since 1970?
5a2ab26e5b078a001a2f06b7
True
Vartman Patram
184
Which publication in Gujarat started more than five years ago?
5a2ab26e5b078a001a2f06b8
True
1974
277
What year did weekly broadcasts start on All India Radio?
5a2ab26e5b078a001a2f06b9
True
Sanskrit news
432
What broadcast is only found on the internet?
5a2ab26e5b078a001a2f06ba
True
DD National channel
497
What channel can the Sanskrit news be found on a 9:55 AM IST?
5a2ab26e5b078a001a2f06bb
True
Over 90 weeklies, fortnightlies and quarterlies are published in Sanskrit. Sudharma, a daily newspaper in Sanskrit, has been published out of Mysore, India, since 1970, while Sanskrit Vartman Patram and Vishwasya Vrittantam started in Gujarat during the last five years. Since 1974, there has been a short daily news broadcast on state-run All India Radio. These broadcasts are also made available on the internet on AIR's website. Sanskrit news is broadcast on TV and on the internet through the DD National channel at 6:55 AM IST.
In Ancient India, which vernacular languages existed alongside Sanskrit?
570d1983fed7b91900d45c01
Prakrits
617
False
The works of which two scholars were used to teach Sanskrit to the higher castes of India?
570d1983fed7b91900d45c02
Pāṇini and Patanjali
436
False
The use of Sanskrit was considered to be a marker of what in Ancient India?
570d1983fed7b91900d45c03
social class and educational attainment
261
False
What type of language were Prakrits?
570d1983fed7b91900d45c04
Middle Indo-Aryan
638
False
Which Sanskrit linguist describes Sanskrit as a "particularly refined or perfected manner of speaking?"
570d1983fed7b91900d45c05
Madhav Deshpande
18
False
What style of speech did linguist Madhav Deshpande say Sanskrit started out as?
570e291c0dc6ce1900204e0f
perfected manner
193
False
Of what was Sanskrit once thought to be a divider?
570e291c0dc6ce1900204e10
social class
261
False
How was Sanskrit originally used?
570e291c0dc6ce1900204e11
ritual
519
False
Where was Sanskrit a learned language of the high classes?
570e291c0dc6ce1900204e12
Ancient India
564
False
With what did Sanskrit exist beside?
570e291c0dc6ce1900204e13
vernacular Prakrits
606
False
Madhav Deshpande
18
Who said that Sanskrit was a specific language set apart?
5a2ab8595b078a001a2f06cb
True
India
312
In what country did the lower class study Sanskrit?
5a2ab8595b078a001a2f06cc
True
Prakrits
617
What language exists alongside Sanskrit in modern India?
5a2ab8595b078a001a2f06cd
True
Pāṇini and Patanjali
436
What two scholars were instrumental in teaching Sanskrit to the lower class?
5a2ab8595b078a001a2f06ce
True
Prakrits
617
What vernacular language was used only by the upper social class in India?
5a2ab8595b078a001a2f06cf
True
Sanskrit linguist Madhav Deshpande says that when the term "Sanskrit" arose it was not thought of as a specific language set apart from other languages, but rather as a particularly refined or perfected manner of speaking. Knowledge of Sanskrit was a marker of social class and educational attainment in ancient India, and the language was taught mainly to members of the higher castes through the close analysis of Vyākaraṇins such as Pāṇini and Patanjali, who exhorted proper Sanskrit at all times, especially during ritual. Sanskrit, as the learned language of Ancient India, thus existed alongside the vernacular Prakrits, which were Middle Indo-Aryan languages. However, linguistic change led to an eventual loss of mutual intelligibility.
What types of script was used to write Sanskrit in the northwest part of Indai?
570d1aeafed7b91900d45c15
Kharosthi
136
False
Around what time did the Gupta script become prevalent for writing Sanskrit?
570d1aeafed7b91900d45c16
between the fourth and eighth centuries
202
False
Which script evolved from the Gupta script in the 8th century?
570d1aeafed7b91900d45c17
Śāradā
331
False
Which script replaced the Gupta script?
570d1aeafed7b91900d45c18
Devanagari
418
False
In what time period did the Devangari script become prevalent?
570d1aeafed7b91900d45c19
11th or 12th century
436
False
What were used to write Sanskrit?
570e2a730dc6ce1900204e23
Brahmic scripts
38
False
What script was used in the northwest of India?
570e2a730dc6ce1900204e24
Kharosthi
136
False
Between the forth and eighth century, what script evolved?
570e2a730dc6ce1900204e25
Gupta
247
False
From what was Gupta derived?
570e2a730dc6ce1900204e26
Brahmi
274
False
What script evolved from the Gupta script?
570e2a730dc6ce1900204e27
Śāradā
331
False
Kharosthi
136
What script was used in the northeast?
5a2adee65b078a001a2f0725
True
between the fourth and eighth centuries
202
In what centuries were the Brahmic scripts used?
5a2adee65b078a001a2f0726
True
the Gupta script
243
What was the Brahmi script derived from?
5a2adee65b078a001a2f0727
True
Gupta script
364
What script was the Devanagari script replace with in the 12th century?
5a2adee65b078a001a2f0728
True
the Bengali alphabet
526
What alphabet was mainly used in West India?
5a2adee65b078a001a2f0729
True
Brahmi evolved into a multiplicity of Brahmic scripts, many of which were used to write Sanskrit. Roughly contemporary with the Brahmi, Kharosthi was used in the northwest of the subcontinent. Sometime between the fourth and eighth centuries, the Gupta script, derived from Brahmi, became prevalent. Around the eighth century, the Śāradā script evolved out of the Gupta script. The latter was displaced in its turn by Devanagari in the 11th or 12th century, with intermediary stages such as the Siddhaṃ script. In East India, the Bengali alphabet, and, later, the Odia alphabet, were used.
Tagalog is what kind of language?
570d1d42b3d812140066d425
Philippine
376
False
From what language is a large proportion of Tagalog derived?
570d1d42b3d812140066d426
Spanish
474
False
What is an example of a Sanskrit loanword used in Southeast Asian languages?
570d1d42b3d812140066d427
bhāṣā
561
False
What is the meaning of the Sanskrit loanword "bhāṣā?"
570d1d42b3d812140066d428
spoken language
571
False
What is an example of a traditional language that derives much of its vocabulary from Sanskrit?
570d1d42b3d812140066d429
Malay
211
False
Where were many Sanskrit words found?
570e2c350dc6ce1900204e2d
Austronesian languages
42
False
In what older from of which language were more than half the words borrowed from Sanskrit?
570e2c350dc6ce1900204e2e
Javanese
74
False
What Sanskrit borrowed word is found in many Asian languages?
570e2c350dc6ce1900204e2f
bhāṣā
561
False
What is the meaning of bhasa?
570e2c350dc6ce1900204e30
spoken language
571
False
Where does traditional Malay get many of its loanwords?
570e2c350dc6ce1900204e31
Sanskrit
282
False
Austronesian languages
42
In what languages are Tagalog loan words found?
5a2af14b5b078a001a2f0757
True
Malay
211
Which language from Indonesia is not derived from Sanskrit?
5a2af14b5b078a001a2f0758
True
traditional Malay and modern Indonesian
199
What languages from the Austronesian languages is not derived from Arabic?
5a2af14b5b078a001a2f0759
True
Sanskrit loanwords
423
What language loan words does Arabic use?
5a2af14b5b078a001a2f075a
True
Tagalog
405
What language is Spanish derived from?
5a2af14b5b078a001a2f075b
True
Many Sanskrit loanwords are also found in Austronesian languages, such as Javanese, particularly the older form in which nearly half the vocabulary is borrowed. Other Austronesian languages, such as traditional Malay and modern Indonesian, also derive much of their vocabulary from Sanskrit, albeit to a lesser extent, with a larger proportion derived from Arabic. Similarly, Philippine languages such as Tagalog have some Sanskrit loanwords, although more are derived from Spanish. A Sanskrit loanword encountered in many Southeast Asian languages is the word bhāṣā, or spoken language, which is used to refer to the names of many languages.
What are two examples of epic poetry written in Sanskrit?
570d1ebdb3d812140066d443
the Ramayana and Mahabharata
263
False
What are prakritisms?
570d1ebdb3d812140066d444
borrowings from common speech
648
False
Which Sanskrit literary language has been influenced by the Middle Indo-Aryan languages?
570d1ebdb3d812140066d445
Buddhist Hybrid Sanskrit
714
False
How long was Sanskrit a language of culture?
570e2f430dc6ce1900204e4b
2000 years
11
False
Where is a post-Vedic form of Sanskrit found?
570e2f430dc6ce1900204e4c
Indian epic poetry
244
False
What epic poems are written in post-Vedic Sanskrit?
570e2f430dc6ce1900204e4d
Ramayana and Mahabharata
267
False
Of what are deviations in the epics thought to be the influence?
570e2f430dc6ce1900204e4e
Prakrits
396
False
What is found to a lesser extent in Classical Sanskrit?
570e2f430dc6ce1900204e4f
prakritisms
634
False
Sanskrit
23
What Language influenced a large part of EurAsia for nearly 2000 years?
5a298cb103c0e7001a3e17da
True
Vedic Sanskrit
201
What form of Sanskrit is found in Asian peotry?
5a298cb103c0e7001a3e17db
True
deviations
297
What is considered proof that pre-Panini was used in epics?
5a298cb103c0e7001a3e17dc
True
Buddhist Hybrid Sanskrit
714
What type of Sanskrit influenced Middle aIndo-Aryan languages?
5a298cb103c0e7001a3e17dd
True
Buddhist Prakrit
832
What did Classic Sanskrit assimilate to?
5a298cb103c0e7001a3e17de
True
South Asia
99
Where did Sanskrit exert influence for less than 1000 years?
5a2ab00c5b078a001a2f06ad
True
East Asia
163
Sanskrit was not influential in which part of Asia?
5a2ab00c5b078a001a2f06ae
True
Indian epic poetry
244
In what poetry will you find early Vedic Sanskrit?
5a2ab00c5b078a001a2f06af
True
Prakrits
396
Who caused deviations from Panini due to their lack of interference?
5a2ab00c5b078a001a2f06b0
True
Buddhist Hybrid Sanskrit
714
What classical language is influenced by the Middle Indo-Aryan languages?
5a2ab00c5b078a001a2f06b1
True
For nearly 2000 years, Sanskrit was the language of a cultural order that exerted influence across South Asia, Inner Asia, Southeast Asia, and to a certain extent East Asia. A significant form of post-Vedic Sanskrit is found in the Sanskrit of Indian epic poetry—the Ramayana and Mahabharata. The deviations from Pāṇini in the epics are generally considered to be on account of interference from Prakrits, or innovations, and not because they are pre-Paninian. Traditional Sanskrit scholars call such deviations ārṣa (आर्ष), meaning 'of the ṛṣis', the traditional title for the ancient authors. In some contexts, there are also more "prakritisms" (borrowings from common speech) than in Classical Sanskrit proper. Buddhist Hybrid Sanskrit is a literary language heavily influenced by the Middle Indo-Aryan languages, based on early Buddhist Prakrit texts which subsequently assimilated to the Classical Sanskrit standard in varying degrees.
When was the time of Panini?
570e31310dc6ce1900204e5f
fourth century BCE
43
False
What type of text is the Samaveda?
570e31310dc6ce1900204e60
Vedic texts
132
False
What was Sanskrit used for?
570e31310dc6ce1900204e61
sacred purposes
270
False
How was Sanskrit viewed to be in relation to maintaining class?
570e31310dc6ce1900204e62
conservative
365
False
To what did the use of Sanskrit as a upper class language produce a resistance ?
570e31310dc6ce1900204e63
change
430
False
fourth century BCE
43
When was the Samaveda witten?
5a299b2003c0e7001a3e183c
True
Vedic
92
What language was used for philisophical purposes?
5a299b2003c0e7001a3e183d
True
the prestige of the language
228
What allowed sanskrit to change linguistically?
5a299b2003c0e7001a3e183e
True
five
465
how many linguistic developments are there of Riveda from Vedic?
5a299b2003c0e7001a3e183f
True
fourth century
43
What century can the development of the early Vedic language be traced to?
5a2af5f25b078a001a2f076b
True
the prestige of the language, its use for sacred purposes, and the importance attached to its correct enunciation
228
What factors supported the process of linguistic change?
5a2af5f25b078a001a2f076c
True
Baudhayana sutras
595
Which early sutras did not follow the five-level linguistic development?
5a2af5f25b078a001a2f076d
True
linguistic change
419
What did upper class conservatives advocate in the use of language?
5a2af5f25b078a001a2f076e
True
five-level linguistic development
465
What levels of linguistic development did Sanskrit bypass?
5a2af5f25b078a001a2f076f
True
From the Rigveda until the time of Pāṇini (fourth century BCE) the development of the early Vedic language can be observed in other Vedic texts: the Samaveda, Yajurveda, Atharvaveda, Brahmanas, and Upanishads. During this time, the prestige of the language, its use for sacred purposes, and the importance attached to its correct enunciation all served as powerful conservative forces resisting the normal processes of linguistic change. However, there is a clear, five-level linguistic development of Vedic from the Rigveda to the language of the Upanishads and the earliest sutras such as the Baudhayana sutras.
Who has said the Sanskrit is dead?
570e580d0b85d914000d7e57
Sheldon Pollock
0
False
According to Pollock, how is Sanskrit solely used?
570e580d0b85d914000d7e58
literary cultures
178
False
What is Sanskrit not  able to express?
570e580d0b85d914000d7e59
the modern age
321
False
How is Sanskrit limited in it function towards ideas?
570e580d0b85d914000d7e5a
restatements
387
False
To what is Sanskrit restricted?
570e580d0b85d914000d7e5b
hymns
465
False
Sanskrit is dead
83
What did Andrew Pollock say of Sanskrit?
5a2abd485b078a001a2f06df
True
Mahābhārata
593
What 18th century commentary did Caturdhara's speak about?
5a2abd485b078a001a2f06e0
True
hymns and verses
465
Sanskrit is not often used in what forms of creative uses?
5a2abd485b078a001a2f06e1
True
literary cultures in India
178
Where is Sanskrit no longer used?
5a2abd485b078a001a2f06e2
True
to express the changing forms of subjectivity
227
In what way has Sanskrit adapted in the modern age?
5a2abd485b078a001a2f06e3
True
Sheldon Pollock argues that "most observers would agree that, in some crucial way, Sanskrit is dead".:393 Pollock has further argued that, while Sanskrit continued to be used in literary cultures in India, it was never adapted to express the changing forms of subjectivity and sociality as embodied and conceptualised in the modern age.:416 Instead, it was reduced to "reinscription and restatements" of ideas already explored, and any creativity was restricted to hymns and verses.:398 A notable exception are the military references of Nīlakaṇṭha Caturdhara's 17th-century commentary on the Mahābhārata.
To what has the Central Board of Education of India relegated Sanskrit?
570e59e00b85d914000d7e61
alternative option
128
False
Where has the Education Board ranked Sanskrit as a language option?
570e59e00b85d914000d7e62
second or third
189
False
What grades in Indian schools have an option for Sanskrit study?
570e59e00b85d914000d7e63
5 to 8
307
False
In what language states is Sanskrit considered an option?
570e59e00b85d914000d7e64
Hindi
454
False
In what other type of schools is Sanskrit also taught?
570e59e00b85d914000d7e65
gurukulas
500
False
The CBSE
0
What board refused to see Sanskrit as an alternative option?
5a2ac1e45b078a001a2f06f3
True
Central Board of Secondary Education
10
What is the only India board of education?
5a2ac1e45b078a001a2f06f4
True
Sanskrit
116
What language is the state official language of India?
5a2ac1e45b078a001a2f06f5
True
grades 5 to 8
300
In which grades is learning Sanskrit required?
5a2ac1e45b078a001a2f06f6
True
Hindi
454
Traditional gurukulas no longer teach what language?
5a2ac1e45b078a001a2f06f7
True
The CBSE (Central Board of Secondary Education) of India, along with several other state education boards, has made Sanskrit an alternative option to the state's own official language as a second or third language choice in the schools it governs. In such schools, learning Sanskrit is an option for grades 5 to 8 (Classes V to VIII). This is true of most schools affiliated with the ICSE board, especially in those states where the official language is Hindi. Sanskrit is also taught in traditional gurukulas throughout India.
What English school offers Sanskrit as a language study?
570e5bf50b85d914000d7e6b
St James Junior School
0
False
Since what date has Sanskrit been offered as a language option in the U.S.?
570e5bf50b85d914000d7e6c
September 2009
114
False
What is the credit towards in study in the U.S.?
570e5bf50b85d914000d7e6d
Foreign Language
216
False
Who coordinates the study program of Samskritam as a Foreign Language?
570e5bf50b85d914000d7e6e
Samskrita Bharati.
347
False
What school in Australia offers Sanskrit as a study?
570e5bf50b85d914000d7e6f
Sydney Grammar School
417
False
Sanskrit
50
What does St. Johns Junior School in London offer?
5a2ad2a55b078a001a2f0707
True
United States
93
Where have high school students been allowed to receive credits toward a Foreign Language since 2006?
5a2ad2a55b078a001a2f0708
True
from years 7 through to 12
455
What school years in Australia are students required to study Sanskrit?
5a2ad2a55b078a001a2f0709
True
Samskrita Bharati
347
Who coordinated Sanskrit as a foreign language?
5a2ad2a55b078a001a2f070a
True
Higher School Certificate
501
What does a student get at the Sydney private middle school for studying Sanskrit?
5a2ad2a55b078a001a2f070b
True
St James Junior School in London, England, offers Sanskrit as part of the curriculum. In the United States, since September 2009, high school students have been able to receive credits as Independent Study or toward Foreign Language requirements by studying Sanskrit, as part of the "SAFL: Samskritam as a Foreign Language" program coordinated by Samskrita Bharati. In Australia, the Sydney private boys' high school Sydney Grammar School offers Sanskrit from years 7 through to 12, including for the Higher School Certificate.
Under what type of tradition did Sanskrit begin?
570e5d860dc6ce1900204fa1
oral tradition
48
False
After what language evolved was writing introduced?
570e5d860dc6ce1900204fa2
Prakrits
220
False
What feature of written text influenced the use of scripts?
570e5d860dc6ce1900204fa3
regional scripts
302
False
What does Sanskrit not have of its own?
570e5d860dc6ce1900204fa4
native script
362
False
Which writing systems have been used to write Sanskrit?
570e5d860dc6ce1900204fa5
all
407
False
Prakrits
220
What originated in a progressive society?
5a2ad6af5b078a001a2f0711
True
Sanskrit
121
What written tradition was maintained in early literature?
5a2ad6af5b078a001a2f0712
True
Sanskrit
190
What did Prakrits evolve into?
5a2ad6af5b078a001a2f0713
True
Prakrits
220
What influenced the original scripts of the scribes?
5a2ad6af5b078a001a2f0714
True
Sanskrit manuscripts
488
What was used in very few writing systems in South Asia?
5a2ad6af5b078a001a2f0715
True
Sanskrit originated in an oral society, and the oral tradition was maintained through the development of early classical Sanskrit literature. Writing was not introduced to India until after Sanskrit had evolved into the Prakrits; when it was written, the choice of writing system was influenced by the regional scripts of the scribes. Therefore, Sanskrit has no native script of its own. As such, virtually all the major writing systems of South Asia have been used for the production of Sanskrit manuscripts.
From what time has the Latin alphabet been used to transcribe Sanskrit?
570e5ffb0dc6ce1900204fc7
late 18th century
10
False
What transliteration system is most common today?
570e5ffb0dc6ce1900204fc8
IAST
131
False
How long has IAST been the standard system used for transliteration of Sanskrit?
570e5ffb0dc6ce1900204fc9
since 1888
227
False
What is used in transliteration for computer systems?
570e5ffb0dc6ce1900204fca
ASCII
239
False
What transliteration scheme is often used on the internet?
570e5ffb0dc6ce1900204fcb
ITRANS
403
False
Sanskrit
29
What Greek alphabet has been transliterated since the 18th century?
5a2ae2765b078a001a2f072f
True
IAST (International Alphabet of Sanskrit Transliteration)
131
What system was commonly used in the 18th century to transliterate Sanskrit?
5a2ae2765b078a001a2f0730
True
IAST (International Alphabet of Sanskrit Transliteration)
131
What academic standard had been used before 1888?
5a2ae2765b078a001a2f0731
True
Mac OS X's
774
What software can only be used on Unicode-aware web browsers?
5a2ae2765b078a001a2f0732
True
ITRANS
403
What system of transliteration is not commonly used on the internet or e-mail?
5a2ae2765b078a001a2f0733
True
Since the late 18th century, Sanskrit has been transliterated using the Latin alphabet. The system most commonly used today is the IAST (International Alphabet of Sanskrit Transliteration), which has been the academic standard since 1888. ASCII-based transliteration schemes have also evolved because of difficulties representing Sanskrit characters in computer systems. These include Harvard-Kyoto and ITRANS, a transliteration scheme that is used widely on the Internet, especially in Usenet and in email, for considerations of speed of entry as well as rendering issues. With the wide availability of Unicode-aware web browsers, IAST has become common online. It is also possible to type using an alphanumeric keyboard and transliterate to Devanagari using software like Mac OS X's international support.
What in the use of Sanskrit has influenced Sino-Tibetan languages?
570e61b00dc6ce1900204fdb
Buddhist texts
74
False
Who sent missionaries to China?
570e61b00dc6ce1900204fdc
Ashoka
167
False
What religion was spread to China through Sanskrit translations?
570e61b00dc6ce1900204fdd
Buddhism
105
False
What were transliterated and added to the Chinese language?
570e61b00dc6ce1900204fde
Many terms
232
False
Where do many Sanskrit texts survive?
570e61b00dc6ce1900204fdf
Tibetan collections
450
False
Sanskrit
0
What have Sino-Tibetan languages influenced?
5a2aeb5c5b078a001a2f074d
True
Sino-Tibetan languages
29
What languages have been influenced through the spread of Hindi texts?
5a2aeb5c5b078a001a2f074e
True
Mahayana missionaries
137
What missionaries spread Islam to China?
5a2aeb5c5b078a001a2f074f
True
Ashoka
167
Who sent Mahayana missionaries to India?
5a2aeb5c5b078a001a2f0750
True
the Tengyur
513
What Sanskrit texts survive in Egyptian collections?
5a2aeb5c5b078a001a2f0751
True
Sanskrit has also influenced Sino-Tibetan languages through the spread of Buddhist texts in translation. Buddhism was spread to China by Mahayana missionaries sent by Ashoka, mostly through translations of Buddhist Hybrid Sanskrit. Many terms were transliterated directly and added to the Chinese vocabulary. Chinese words like 剎那 chànà (Devanagari: क्षण kṣaṇa 'instantaneous period') were borrowed from Sanskrit. Many Sanskrit texts survive only in Tibetan collections of commentaries to the Buddhist teachings, the Tengyur.
What language has influenced the languages of India?
570e63780dc6ce1900204ff9
Sanskrit
0
False
Of what is Hindi considered to be in relation to Sanskrit?
570e63780dc6ce1900204ffa
Sanskritised register
133
False
From what dialect is Hindi descended?
570e63780dc6ce1900204ffb
Khariboli
163
False
What is the percentage of Sanskrit words thought to be in modern Indo-Aryan languages?
570e63780dc6ce1900204ffc
fifty percent
448
False
What language texts  are as much as 70% Sanskrit?
570e63780dc6ce1900204ffd
Telugu
586
False
Sanskrit
0
What did the languages of India greatly influence?
5a2ae9bb5b078a001a2f0743
True
Hindi
121
What is the Khariboli dialect a Sanskritised register of?
5a2ae9bb5b078a001a2f0744
True
All modern Indo-Aryan languages, as well as Munda and Dravidian languages
182
Where has Sanskrit borrowed words from?
5a2ae9bb5b078a001a2f0745
True
roughly fifty percent
440
What percent of vocabulary comes from languages of India?
5a2ae9bb5b078a001a2f0746
True
Telugu
586
What place are literary texts rarely considered lexically Sanskrit?
5a2ae9bb5b078a001a2f0747
True
Sanskrit has greatly influenced the languages of India that grew from its vocabulary and grammatical base; for instance, Hindi is a "Sanskritised register" of the Khariboli dialect. All modern Indo-Aryan languages, as well as Munda and Dravidian languages, have borrowed many words either directly from Sanskrit (tatsama words), or indirectly via middle Indo-Aryan languages (tadbhava words). Words originating in Sanskrit are estimated at roughly fifty percent of the vocabulary of modern Indo-Aryan languages, as well as the literary forms of Malayalam and Kannada. Literary texts in Telugu are lexically Sanskrit or Sanskritised to an enormous extent, perhaps seventy percent or more.
From when are the earliest dated Sanskrit inscriptions?
570e65050b85d914000d7e87
first century BCE
56
False
In what script are the earliest Sanskrit inscriptions?
570e65050b85d914000d7e88
Brahmi
108
False
In what language was Brahmi first used?
570e65050b85d914000d7e89
Prakrit
153
False
What language is the descendant of Sanskrit?
570e65050b85d914000d7e8a
Prakrit
153
False
How were early sacred texts offered?
570e65050b85d914000d7e8b
orally
774
False
first century BCE
56
When were the latest inscriptions in Sanskrit known to exist?
5a2ad97b5b078a001a2f071b
True
first century
56
When was the earliest Vedic script known to exist?
5a2ad97b5b078a001a2f071c
True
Prakrit
295
What written language is known to occur centuries later than Sanskrit?
5a2ad97b5b078a001a2f071d
True
northern India
354
Where are there Prakrit inscriptions dating from the third century?
5a2ad97b5b078a001a2f071e
True
king Ashoka
509
What king's pillar is the most recent Brahmi inscription found on?
5a2ad97b5b078a001a2f071f
True
The earliest known inscriptions in Sanskrit date to the first century BCE.[citation needed] They are in the Brahmi script, which was originally used for Prakrit, not Sanskrit. It has been described as a paradox that the first evidence of written Sanskrit occurs centuries later than that of the Prakrit languages which are its linguistic descendants. In northern India, there are Brāhmī inscriptions dating from the third century BCE onwards, the oldest appearing on the famous Prakrit pillar inscriptions of king Ashoka. The earliest South Indian inscriptions in Tamil Brahmi, written in early Tamil, belong to the same period. When Sanskrit was written down, it was first used for texts of an administrative, literary or scientific nature. The sacred texts were preserved orally, and were set down in writing "reluctantly" (according to one commentator), and at a comparatively late date.
What is the Sanskrit grammatical tradition?
570e66e60dc6ce190020501d
Vyākaraṇa
36
False
In what period did Vyakarana begin?
570e66e60dc6ce190020501e
late Vedic
85
False
How many sutras are in the Astadhyayi?
570e66e60dc6ce190020501f
3990 sutras
165
False
Who composed Vartikas on the Panini sutras?
570e66e60dc6ce1900205020
Kātyāyana
249
False
What is the abbreviated alphabet called?
570e66e60dc6ce1900205021
Pratyāhara
773
False
Vārtikas
268
What was composed about a century before Panini?
5a2ae6a35b078a001a2f0739
True
Patanjali
299
Who lived three centuries before Panini?
5a2ae6a35b078a001a2f073a
True
Mahābhāṣya
360
What did Panini write?
5a2ae6a35b078a001a2f073b
True
Kāsikā
613
What is based on 12 Shiva sutras?
5a2ae6a35b078a001a2f073c
True
mātrika (alphabet)
706
What is Pratyahara a partial abbreviation of?
5a2ae6a35b078a001a2f073d
True
The Sanskrit grammatical tradition, Vyākaraṇa, one of the six Vedangas, began in the late Vedic period and culminated in the Aṣṭādhyāyī of Pāṇini, which consists of 3990 sutras (ca. fifth century BCE). About a century after Pāṇini (around 400 BCE), Kātyāyana composed Vārtikas on the Pāṇini sũtras. Patanjali, who lived three centuries after Pāṇini, wrote the Mahābhāṣya, the "Great Commentary" on the Aṣṭādhyāyī and Vārtikas. Because of these three ancient Vyākaraṇins (grammarians), this grammar is called Trimuni Vyākarana. To understand the meaning of the sutras, Jayaditya and Vāmana wrote a commentary, the Kāsikā, in 600 CE. Pāṇinian grammar is based on 14 Shiva sutras (aphorisms), where the whole mātrika (alphabet) is abbreviated. This abbreviation is called the Pratyāhara.
According to Panini, from where did Sanskrit evolve?
570e68a80b85d914000d7e99
earlier Vedic
51
False
To what time can the present form of Sanskrit be traced?
570e68a80b85d914000d7e9a
second millennium BCE
144
False
As what are Classical and Vedic Sanskrit often viewed?
570e68a80b85d914000d7e9b
separate dialects
265
False
What is Vedic Sanskrit meant to be used as?
570e68a80b85d914000d7e9c
the Vedas
439
False
What hymns are thought to be the earliest?
570e68a80b85d914000d7e9d
Rigveda Samhita
642
False
Sanskrit
0
What is described as Vedic and evolved outof earlier Panini?
5a296fa403c0e7001a3e177a
True
Sanskrit
97
What can be traced back to the second century A.D
5a296fa403c0e7001a3e177b
True
Vedic Sanskrit and Classical or "Pāṇinian" Sanskrit
210
What are often considered the same dialects?
5a296fa403c0e7001a3e177c
True
Vedic Sanskrit and Classical or "Pāṇinian" Sanskrit
210
What two dialects are vastly different?
5a296fa403c0e7001a3e177d
True
the composition of the Upanishads,
786
What is the begining of the Vedic period marked by?
5a296fa403c0e7001a3e177e
True
Vedic Sanskrit
91
What can be traced back to the first millennium?
5a2aae235b078a001a2f06a3
True
"Pāṇinian" Sanskrit
242
What is another name for Vedic Sanskrit?
5a2aae235b078a001a2f06a4
True
metrical hymns
620
What are considered to be some of the later hymns by modern linguists?
5a2aae235b078a001a2f06a5
True
Rigveda Samhita
642
What was composed by only one author?
5a2aae235b078a001a2f06a6
True
composition of the Upanishads
790
What marked the beginning of Vedic period?
5a2aae235b078a001a2f06a7
True
Sanskrit, as defined by Pāṇini, evolved out of the earlier Vedic form. The present form of Vedic Sanskrit can be traced back to as early as the second millennium BCE (for Rig-vedic). Scholars often distinguish Vedic Sanskrit and Classical or "Pāṇinian" Sanskrit as separate dialects. Though they are quite similar, they differ in a number of essential points of phonology, vocabulary, grammar and syntax. Vedic Sanskrit is the language of the Vedas, a large collection of hymns, incantations (Samhitas) and theological and religio-philosophical discussions in the Brahmanas and Upanishads. Modern linguists consider the metrical hymns of the Rigveda Samhita to be the earliest, composed by many authors over several centuries of oral tradition. The end of the Vedic period is marked by the composition of the Upanishads, which form the concluding part of the traditional Vedic corpus; however, the early Sutras are Vedic, too, both in language and content.
When is it thought that early speakers of Sanskrit came to India?
570e6b020b85d914000d7eb5
early second millennium BCE
299
False
What is the relationship between Indo-Iranian and Baltic languages?
570e6b020b85d914000d7eb6
close
368
False
From what direction did Sanskrit travel to come to India?
570e6b020b85d914000d7eb7
north-west
267
False
Sanskrit came from the north west and traveled to what present day countries?
570e6b020b85d914000d7eb8
India and Pakistan
239
False
What is the theory called dealing with the transfer of Sanskrit to India?
570e6b020b85d914000d7eb9
Indo-Aryan migration theory
126
False
the common features shared by Sanskrit and other Indo-European languages,
20
What does the Ino-European migration theory explain?
5a2994e803c0e7001a3e17ec
True
early second millennium BCE
299
When did the original speakers of Sanskrit migrate to the north-west?
5a2994e803c0e7001a3e17ed
True
Sanskrit
50
What arrived in the Batic region during the second millenium BCE?
5a2994e803c0e7001a3e17ee
True
that the original speakers of what became Sanskrit arrived in what is now India and Pakistan from the north-west
165
What does Indo-Aryan migration disprove?
5a2994e803c0e7001a3e17ef
True
Indo-Aryan migration theory
126
What theory explains the different features of Sanskrit and other Indo-European languages?
5a2ab45c5b078a001a2f06c1
True
India and Pakistan
239
To where did early speakers from the north-east bring Sanskrit?
5a2ab45c5b078a001a2f06c2
True
original speakers
174
Who arrived in India during the first millennium BCE?
5a2ab45c5b078a001a2f06c3
True
the Indo-Iranian tongues and the Baltic and Slavic languages
395
Which languages share nothing in common with each other?
5a2ab45c5b078a001a2f06c4
True
Indo-Aryan migration theory
126
Little evidence exists to support which theory?
5a2ab45c5b078a001a2f06c5
True
In order to explain the common features shared by Sanskrit and other Indo-European languages, many scholars have proposed the Indo-Aryan migration theory, asserting that the original speakers of what became Sanskrit arrived in what is now India and Pakistan from the north-west some time during the early second millennium BCE. Evidence for such a theory includes the close relationship between the Indo-Iranian tongues and the Baltic and Slavic languages, vocabulary exchange with the non-Indo-European Uralic languages, and the nature of the attested Indo-European words for flora and fauna.
What form of speech shows that Sanskrit and Prakrits existed together?
570e6cc60b85d914000d7ec9
Sanskrit dramas
5
False
What type of speakers spoke Sanskrit?
570e6cc60b85d914000d7eca
multilingual
88
False
For what did Brahmins use Sanskrit?
570e6cc60b85d914000d7ecb
scholarly communication
297
False
Until what period was high Sanskrit used?
570e6cc60b85d914000d7ecc
British times
556
False
How large of a group in society use Sanskrit?
570e6cc60b85d914000d7ecd
thin layer
333
False
Sanskrit dramas
5
What kind of dramas used exclusively the Sanskrit language?
5a2abad95b078a001a2f06d5
True
Prakrits
68
What language was spoken by the less educated?
5a2abad95b078a001a2f06d6
True
multilingual
180
What trait in the enlightened era did most Sanskrit speakers pocess?
5a2abad95b078a001a2f06d7
True
Brahmins
284
Who used Sanskrit for common communication?
5a2abad95b078a001a2f06d8
True
Varanasi
406
In what single location was Sanskrit centralized and maintained?
5a2abad95b078a001a2f06d9
True
Many Sanskrit dramas also indicate that the language coexisted with Prakrits, spoken by multilingual speakers with a more extensive education. Sanskrit speakers were almost always multilingual. In the medieval era, Sanskrit continued to be spoken and written, particularly by learned Brahmins for scholarly communication. This was a thin layer of Indian society, but covered a wide geography. Centres like Varanasi, Paithan, Pune and Kanchipuram had a strong presence of teaching and debating institutions, and high classical Sanskrit was maintained until British times.
What organization is trying to revive Sanskrit?
570e6e890b85d914000d7ee5
Samskrita Bharati
0
False
What kind of competitions does the All-India Sanskrit Festival have?
570e6e890b85d914000d7ee6
composition contests
120
False
How many speakers of Sanskrit were there by the 1991 census?
570e6e890b85d914000d7ee7
49,736
174
False
Where in India is Sanskrit still spoken by the population?
570e6e890b85d914000d7ee8
Mattur village
303
False
Who originally gave Mattur village to Sanskrit scholars?
570e6e890b85d914000d7ee9
king Krishnadevaraya
581
False
Samskrita Bharati
0
What organization is working to get rid of the use of the Sanskrit language?
5a2abee65b078a001a2f06e9
True
49,736
174
How many fluent Sanskrit speakers were reported in 2002?
5a2abee65b078a001a2f06ea
True
Mattur village
303
What village claims that it no longer has native Sanskrit speakers?
5a2abee65b078a001a2f06eb
True
Muslims
512
Which local population refuses to use Sanskrit as a language?
5a2abee65b078a001a2f06ec
True
Mattur village
303
Which village did Vedic scholars give to king Krishnadevaraya?
5a2abee65b078a001a2f06ed
True
Samskrita Bharati is an organisation working for Sanskrit revival. The "All-India Sanskrit Festival" (since 2002) holds composition contests. The 1991 Indian census reported 49,736 fluent speakers of Sanskrit. Sanskrit learning programmes also feature on the lists of most AIR broadcasting centres. The Mattur village in central Karnataka claims to have native speakers of Sanskrit among its population. Inhabitants of all castes learn Sanskrit starting in childhood and converse in the language. Even the local Muslims converse in Sanskrit. Historically, the village was given by king Krishnadevaraya of the Vijayanagara Empire to Vedic scholars and their families, while people in his kingdom spoke Kannada and Telugu. Another effort concentrates on preserving and passing along the oral tradition of the Vedas, www.shrivedabharathi.in is one such organisation based out of Hyderabad that has been digitising the Vedas by recording recitations of Vedic Pandits.
When was Sanskrit and Indian culture popular?
570e71fb0b85d914000d7f0d
18th century
28
False
In what century was Indian culture accorded a more hostile reception?
570e71fb0b85d914000d7f0e
early 19th century
285
False
How did the British academics show their feelings about Sanskrit?
570e71fb0b85d914000d7f0f
neglect
329
False
What did British of the 19th century want India to be as soon as possible?
570e71fb0b85d914000d7f10
assimilated to Britain
496
False
Besides assimilation of British culture, what else did the British consider Indians to be?
570e71fb0b85d914000d7f11
inferior
966
False
for Indian culture and for Sanskrit
92
What did Sir William Jones create enthusiasm about in the 17th century?
5a2ad0825b078a001a2f06fd
True
Sanskrit
217
What was there a hostility towards in 19th century India?
5a2ad0825b078a001a2f06fe
True
British academia
352
Who held fast to the teaching of Sanskrit in Britain?
5a2ad0825b078a001a2f06ff
True
culturally, religiously and linguistically
453
In what ways did Britain believe that India and Britain needed to be separated?
5a2ad0825b078a001a2f0700
True
scientific racism
865
What did Trautmann believe was the cause of India believing that there culture was superior?
5a2ad0825b078a001a2f0701
True
Orientalist scholars of the 18th century like Sir William Jones marked a wave of enthusiasm for Indian culture and for Sanskrit. According to Thomas Trautmann, after this period of "Indomania", a certain hostility to Sanskrit and to Indian culture in general began to assert itself in early 19th century Britain, manifested by a neglect of Sanskrit in British academia. This was the beginning of a general push in favor of the idea that India should be culturally, religiously and linguistically assimilated to Britain as far as possible. Trautmann considers two separate and logically opposite sources for the growing hostility: one was "British Indophobia", which he calls essentially a developmentalist, progressivist, liberal, and non-racial-essentialist critique of Hindu civilisation as an aid for the improvement of India along European lines; the other was scientific racism, a theory of the English "common-sense view" that Indians constituted a "separate, inferior and unimprovable race".
Who wrote an opera in Sanskrit?
570e73c20dc6ce190020509f
Philip Glass
24
False
On what was the Philip Glass opera based?
570e73c20dc6ce19002050a0
Bhagavad Gita
58
False
Which well known performer has used Sanskrit chants in her music?
570e73c20dc6ce19002050a1
Madonna
212
False
Which composer featured Sanskrit music in his movies?
570e73c20dc6ce19002050a2
John Williams
420
False
What is the source of the theme song of Battlestar Galactica?
570e73c20dc6ce19002050a3
Rigveda
643
False
Satyagraha
0
What is the opera created by Steven Glass that uses Sanskrit?
5a2af3a95b078a001a2f0761
True
Philip Glass
24
Who wrote the Bhagavad Gita?
5a2af3a95b078a001a2f0762
True
Madonna
212
What modern singer sang chants from Satyagraha?
5a2af3a95b078a001a2f0763
True
Battlestar Galactica 2004
579
Where did the Gayatri Mantra taken from Rigveda come from?
5a2af3a95b078a001a2f0764
True
The Child In Us
667
What song sung by Enigma is a vinyasa yoga chant?
5a2af3a95b078a001a2f0765
True
Satyagraha, an opera by Philip Glass, uses texts from the Bhagavad Gita, sung in Sanskrit. The closing credits of The Matrix Revolutions has a prayer from the Brihadaranyaka Upanishad. The song "Cyber-raga" from Madonna's album Music includes Sanskrit chants, and Shanti/Ashtangi from her 1998 album Ray of Light, which won a Grammy, is the ashtanga vinyasa yoga chant. The lyrics include the mantra Om shanti. Composer John Williams featured choirs singing in Sanskrit for Indiana Jones and the Temple of Doom and in Star Wars: Episode I – The Phantom Menace. The theme song of Battlestar Galactica 2004 is the Gayatri Mantra, taken from the Rigveda. The lyrics of "The Child In Us" by Enigma also contains Sanskrit verses.[better source needed].
Valencia
What country is Valencia in?
570d162cb3d812140066d3fd
Spain
169
False
What is the population of Valencia's urban area?
570d162cb3d812140066d3fe
1.5 million
354
False
Where does Valencia rank among Spain's largest cities?
570d162cb3d812140066d3ff
third
147
False
What body of water is Valencia located on?
570d162cb3d812140066d400
the Mediterranean Sea
610
False
What is the city of Valencia the capital of?
570d162cb3d812140066d401
the autonomous community of Valencia
102
False
Valencia (/vəˈlɛnsiə/; Spanish: [baˈlenθja]), or València (Valencian: [vaˈlensia]), is the capital of the autonomous community of Valencia and the third largest city in Spain after Madrid and Barcelona, with around 800,000 inhabitants in the administrative centre. Its urban area extends beyond the administrative city limits with a population of around 1.5 million people. Valencia is Spain's third largest metropolitan area, with a population ranging from 1.7 to 2.5 million. The city has global city status. The Port of Valencia is the 5th busiest container port in Europe and the busiest container port on the Mediterranean Sea.
What is the main type of employment in Valencia?
570d1780b3d812140066d407
service sector occupations
314
False
What percentage of Valencia's workers are employed in industry?
570d1780b3d812140066d408
5.5
428
False
What percentage of Valencia's workers are employed in the agricultural sector?
570d1780b3d812140066d409
1.9
595
False
How much of Valencia's land is used for agriculture?
570d1780b3d812140066d40a
3973 hectares
630
False
What are Valencia's agricultural areas mainly planted with?
570d1780b3d812140066d40b
orchards and citrus groves
662
False
Valencia enjoyed strong economic growth over the last decade, much of it spurred by tourism and the construction industry,[citation needed] with concurrent development and expansion of telecommunications and transport. The city's economy is service-oriented, as nearly 84% of the working population is employed in service sector occupations[citation needed]. However, the city still maintains an important industrial base, with 5.5% of the population employed in this sector. Agricultural activities are still carried on in the municipality, even though of relatively minor importance with only 1.9% of the working population and 3973 hectares planted mostly in orchards and citrus groves.
What airport is closest to Valencia?
570d1a25fed7b91900d45c0b
Valencia Airport
432
False
What airport is south of Valencia?
570d1a25fed7b91900d45c0c
Alicante Airport
505
False
What is the main train station in Valencia?
570d1a25fed7b91900d45c0d
Estació del Nord
155
False
What group runs Valencia's public transit?
570d1a25fed7b91900d45c0e
Ferrocarrils de la Generalitat Valenciana
36
False
What station in Valencia was built for high-speed trains?
570d1a25fed7b91900d45c0f
Estación de València-Joaquín Sorolla
255
False
Public transport is provided by the Ferrocarrils de la Generalitat Valenciana (FGV), which operates the Metrovalencia and other rail and bus services. The Estació del Nord (North Station) is the main railway terminus in Valencia. A new temporary station, Estación de València-Joaquín Sorolla, has been built on land adjacent to this terminus to accommodate high speed AVE trains to and from Madrid, Barcelona, Seville and Alicante. Valencia Airport is situated 9 km (5.6 mi) west of Valencia city centre. Alicante Airport is situated about 170 km (110 mi) south of Valencia.
What promenade was built north of Valencia's port?
570d1b93fed7b91900d45c1f
The Paseo Marítimo
493
False
How long is the Paseo Maritimo?
570d1b93fed7b91900d45c20
4 km (2 mi)
515
False
What Valencian landmark contains a conservation library?
570d1b93fed7b91900d45c21
San Miguel de los Reyes monastery
321
False
When did Valencia's rapid development begin?
570d1b93fed7b91900d45c22
the mid-1990s
12
False
What is an example of a section of Valencia that was majorly renovated?
570d1b93fed7b91900d45c23
the Carmen Quarter
440
False
Starting in the mid-1990s, Valencia, formerly an industrial centre, saw rapid development that expanded its cultural and touristic possibilities, and transformed it into a newly vibrant city. Many local landmarks were restored, including the ancient Towers of the medieval city (Serrano Towers and Quart Towers), and the San Miguel de los Reyes monastery, which now holds a conservation library. Whole sections of the old city, for example the Carmen Quarter, have been extensively renovated. The Paseo Marítimo, a 4 km (2 mi) long palm tree-lined promenade was constructed along the beaches of the north side of the port (Playa Las Arenas, Playa Cabañal and Playa de la Malvarrosa).
How long did the English occupy Valencia?
570d1cafb3d812140066d41b
16 months
30
False
At what battle were the Bourbons victorious?
570d1cafb3d812140066d41c
Battle of Almansa
193
False
Who ordered Valencia punished for supporting Charles?
570d1cafb3d812140066d41d
Philip V
269
False
What abolished Valencia's ancient charters?
570d1cafb3d812140066d41e
Nueva Planta decrees
397
False
Who resigned in protest against Philip?
570d1cafb3d812140066d41f
Cardinal Luis de Belluga
870
False
The English held the city for 16 months and defeated several attempts to expel them. English soldiers advanced as far as Requena on the road to Madrid. After the victory of the Bourbons at the Battle of Almansa on 25 April 1707, the English army evacuated Valencia and Philip V ordered the repeal of the privileges of Valencia as punishment for the kingdom's support of Charles of Austria. By the Nueva Planta decrees (Decretos de Nueva Planta) the ancient Charters of Valencia were abolished and the city was governed by the Castilian Charter. The Bourbon forces burned important cities like Xativa, where pictures of the Spanish Bourbons in public places are hung upside down as a protest to this day. The capital of the Kingdom of Valencia was moved to Orihuela, an outrage to the citizens of Valencia. Philip ordered the Cortes to meet with the Viceroy of Valencia, Cardinal Luis de Belluga, who opposed the change of capital because of the proximity of Orihuela, a religious, cultural and now political centre, to Murcia (capital of another viceroyalty and his diocese). Because of his hatred of the city of Orihuela, which had bombarded and looted Valencia during the War of Succession, the cardinal resigned the viceroyalty in protest against the actions of Philip, who finally relented and returned the capital to Valencia.
In what year did Christian troops lose control of Valencia?
570d1e05b3d812140066d439
1102
57
False
Who called himself the Emperor of All Spain?
570d1e05b3d812140066d43a
Alfonso VI of León and Castile
182
False
Who wrote poetry about Valencia's capture by the Almoravids?
570d1e05b3d812140066d43b
Ibn Khafaja
424
False
When did the Almohads gain control of the peninsula?
570d1e05b3d812140066d43c
1145
660
False
Who prevented the Almohads from entering Valencia?
570d1e05b3d812140066d43d
Ibn Mardanis
717
False
The city remained in the hands of Christian troops until 1102, when the Almoravids retook the city and restored the Muslim religion. Although the self-styled 'Emperor of All Spain', Alfonso VI of León and Castile, drove them from the city, he was not strong enough to hold it. The Christians set it afire before abandoning it, and the Almoravid Masdali took possession on 5 May 1109. The event was commemorated in a poem by Ibn Khafaja in which he thanked Yusuf ibn Tashfin for the city's liberation.The declining power of the Almoravids coincided with the rise of a new dynasty in North Africa, the Almohads, who seized control of the peninsula from the year 1145, although their entry into Valencia was deterred by Ibn Mardanis, King of Valencia and Murcia until 1171, at which time the city finally fell to the North Africans. The two Muslim dynasties would rule Valencia for more than a century.
When was the Valencian Golden Age?
570d1f63b3d812140066d449
15th century
4
False
Of what area was Valencia the largest city?
570d1f63b3d812140066d44a
Crown of Aragon
209
False
What building attracted merchants from other countries to Valencia?
570d1f63b3d812140066d44b
Silk Exchange
521
False
Who borrowed money from Valencian bankers in 1492?
570d1f63b3d812140066d44c
Queen Isabella I of Castile
432
False
What was Valencia's leading industry?
570d1f63b3d812140066d44d
textile production
249
False
The 15th century was a time of Islamic economic expansion, known as the Valencian Golden Age, in which culture and the arts flourished. Concurrent population growth made Valencia the most populous city in the Crown of Aragon. Local industry, led by textile production, reached a great development, and a financial institution, the Canvi de Taula, was created to support municipal banking operations; Valencian bankers lent funds to Queen Isabella I of Castile for Columbus's voyage in 1492. At the end of the century the Silk Exchange (Llotja de la Seda) building was erected as the city became a commercial emporium that attracted merchants from all over Europe.
Who suppressed agermanats' uprising?
570d2095b3d812140066d45d
Germaine of Foix
14
False
When did a similar revolt occur in Castile?
570d2095b3d812140066d45e
1520–1522
499
False
What group in Castile was similar to the agermanats?
570d2095b3d812140066d45f
comuneros
415
False
Up to how many executions took place after the agermanats' revolt?
570d2095b3d812140066d460
800
344
False
Whom did the comuneros rebel against?
570d2095b3d812140066d461
Charles
486
False
The vicereine Germaine of Foix brutally repressed the uprising and its leaders, and this accelerated the authoritarian centralisation of the government of Charles I. Queen Germaine favoured harsh treatment of the agermanats. She is thought to have signed the death warrants of 100 former rebels personally, and sources indicate that as many as 800 executions may have occurred. The agermanats are comparable to the comuneros of neighbouring Castile, who fought a similar revolt against Charles from 1520–1522.
What were Valencia's main food exports in the early 20th century?
570d257ab3d812140066d485
wine and citrus
232
False
When was an exhibition held that showed agricultural and industrial progress?
570d257ab3d812140066d486
1909
448
False
What architectural style was particularly successful?
570d257ab3d812140066d487
Art Nouveau
669
False
What station was built in the Art Nouveau style?
570d257ab3d812140066d488
North Station (Gare du Nord)
700
False
What markets were built in the Art Nouveau style?
570d257ab3d812140066d489
Central and Columbus
737
False
In the early 20th century Valencia was an industrialised city. The silk industry had disappeared, but there was a large production of hides and skins, wood, metals and foodstuffs, this last with substantial exports, particularly of wine and citrus. Small businesses predominated, but with the rapid mechanisation of industry larger companies were being formed. The best expression of this dynamic was in the regional exhibitions, including that of 1909 held next to the pedestrian avenue L'Albereda (Paseo de la Alameda), which depicted the progress of agriculture and industry. Among the most architecturally successful buildings of the era were those designed in the Art Nouveau style, such as the North Station (Gare du Nord) and the Central and Columbus markets.
What is Valencia's average yearly temperature?
570d26d2fed7b91900d45c6b
18.4 °C
34
False
Which month is the hottest in Valencia?
570d26d2fed7b91900d45c6c
August
342
False
Which month is the chilliest in Valencia?
570d26d2fed7b91900d45c6d
January
141
False
In northern Europe, which months have temperatures similar to Valencia's in January?
570d26d2fed7b91900d45c6e
May and September
1101
False
What is the average maximum daytime temperature in August in Valencia?
570d26d2fed7b91900d45c6f
28–34 °C
411
False
Its average annual temperature is 18.4 °C (65.1 °F). 22.8 °C (73.0 °F) during the day and 13.8 °C (56.8 °F) at night. In the coldest month – January, the maximum temperature typically during the day ranges from 13 to 21 °C (55 to 70 °F), the minimum temperature typically at night ranges from 4 to 12 °C (39 to 54 °F). In the warmest month – August, the maximum temperature during the day typically ranges from 28–34 °C (82–93 °F), about 23 °C (73 °F) at night. Generally, temperatures similar to those experienced in the northern part of Europe in summer last about 8 months, from April to November. March is transitional, the temperature often exceeds 20 °C (68 °F), with an average temperature of 19.0 °C (66 °F) during the day and 10.0 °C (50 °F) at night. December, January and February are the coldest months, with average temperatures around 17 °C (63 °F) during the day and 7 °C (45 °F) at night. Valencia has one of the mildest winters in Europe, owing to its southern location on the Mediterranean Sea and the Foehn phenomenon. The January average is comparable to temperatures expected for May and September in the major cities of northern Europe.
When was the age of Enlightenment?
570d3bd1fed7b91900d45d65
18th century
274
False
Who in Valencia was influenced by the age of Enlightenment's ideas?
570d3bd1fed7b91900d45d66
Gregory Maians and Perez Bayer
380
False
When was the Economic Society of Friends created?
570d3bd1fed7b91900d45d67
1776
657
False
What was manufactured that helped the Valencian economy improve?
570d3bd1fed7b91900d45d68
woven silk and ceramic tiles
87
False
Who reigned during the most affluent period of Bourbon rule?
570d3bd1fed7b91900d45d69
Charles III
257
False
The Valencian economy recovered during the 18th century with the rising manufacture of woven silk and ceramic tiles. The Palau de Justícia is an example of the affluence manifested in the most prosperous times of Bourbon rule (1758–1802) during the rule of Charles III. The 18th century was the age of the Enlightenment in Europe, and its humanistic ideals influenced such men as Gregory Maians and Perez Bayer in Valencia, who maintained correspondence with the leading French and German thinkers of the time. In this atmosphere of the exaltation of ideas the Economic Society of Friends of the Country (Societat Econòmica d'Amics del País) was founded in 1776; it introduced numerous improvements in agriculture and industry and promoted various cultural, civic, and economic institutions in Valencia.
Whose regime prohibited political parties?
570d3d19fed7b91900d45d79
Franco
20
False
According to official figures, how many died in the flood of 1957?
570d3d19fed7b91900d45d7a
eighty-one
621
False
What river flooded in 1957?
570d3d19fed7b91900d45d7b
Turia
550
False
What park is located in the previous river bed?
570d3d19fed7b91900d45d7c
Garden of the Turia
1285
False
What suggested use for the river bed was rejected?
570d3d19fed7b91900d45d7d
motorway
848
False
The dictatorship of Franco forbade political parties and began a harsh ideological and cultural repression countenanced and sometimes even led by the Church. The financial markets were destabilised, causing a severe economic crisis that led to rationing. A black market in rationed goods existed for over a decade. The Francoist administrations of Valencia silenced publicity of the catastrophic consequences of the floods of 1949 with the attendant dozens of deaths, but could not do the same after the even more tragic flood of 1957 when the river Turia overflowed its banks again, killing many Valencians (officially, eighty-one died; the actual figure is not known). To prevent further disasters, the river was eventually diverted to a new course. The old river bed was abandoned for years, and successive Francoist mayors proposed making it a motorway, but that option was finally rejected with the advent of democracy and fervent neighbourhood protests. The river was divided in two at the western city limits (Plan Sur de Valencia), and diverted southwards along a new course that skirts the city, before meeting the Mediterranean. The old course of the river continues, dry, through the city centre, almost to the sea. The old riverbed is now a verdant sunken park called the 'Garden of the Turia' (Jardí del Túria or Jardín del Turia) that allows cyclists and pedestrians to traverse much of the city without the use of roads; overhead bridges carry motor traffic across the park.
What percentage of Spanish exports does Valencia's port handle?
570d3ebefed7b91900d45d8d
20
169
False
Valencia has the largest port on which coast?
570d3ebefed7b91900d45d8e
Mediterranean western coast
38
False
Where does Valencia's port rank among Spanish ports in terms of total traffic?
570d3ebefed7b91900d45d8f
second
126
False
What type of fruit is exported from Valencia?
570d3ebefed7b91900d45d90
oranges
262
False
Valencia's port is the biggest on the Mediterranean western coast, the first of Spain in container traffic as of 2008 and the second of Spain in total traffic, handling 20% of Spain's exports. The main exports are foodstuffs and beverages. Other exports include oranges, furniture, ceramic tiles, fans, textiles and iron products. Valencia's manufacturing sector focuses on metallurgy, chemicals, textiles, shipbuilding and brewing. Small and medium-sized industries are an important part of the local economy, and before the current crisis unemployment was lower than the Spanish average.
Who helped repress the supporters of the Constitution and was later executed for it?
570d3fa3b3d812140066d5df
Elío
44
False
When was Elio killed?
570d3fa3b3d812140066d5e0
1822
193
False
How was Elio executed?
570d3fa3b3d812140066d5e1
by garroting
198
False
What are the years from 1823-1833 called?
570d3fa3b3d812140066d5e2
Ominous Decade
315
False
Who was the last person killed by the Inquisition?
570d3fa3b3d812140066d5e3
Gaietà Ripoli
499
False
A fervent follower of the absolutist cause, Elío had played an important role in the repression of the supporters of the Constitution of 1812. For this, he was arrested in 1820 and executed in 1822 by garroting. Conflict between absolutists and liberals continued, and in the period of conservative rule called the Ominous Decade (1823–1833), which followed the Trienio Liberal, there was ruthless repression by government forces and the Catholic Inquisition. The last victim of the Inquisition was Gaietà Ripoli, a teacher accused of being a deist and a Mason who was hanged in Valencia in 1824.
What is the name of the cup that some Catholics think is the Grail?
570d40f5fed7b91900d45da9
Santo Caliz
146
False
Which pope used the Santo Caliz for mass in Valencia?
570d40f5fed7b91900d45daa
Benedict XVI
93
False
What century is the Santo Caliz from?
570d40f5fed7b91900d45dab
1st
161
False
When was the Santo Caliz used for mass in Valencia?
570d40f5fed7b91900d45dac
9 July 2006
3
False
According to legend, who took the Santo Caliz to Rome?
570d40f5fed7b91900d45dad
St. Peter
354
False
On 9 July 2006, during Mass at Valencia's Cathedral, Our Lady of the Forsaken Basilica, Pope Benedict XVI used, at the World Day of Families, the Santo Caliz, a 1st-century Middle-Eastern artifact that some Catholics believe is the Holy Grail. It was supposedly brought to that church by Emperor Valerian in the 3rd century, after having been brought by St. Peter to Rome from Jerusalem. The Santo Caliz (Holy Chalice) is a simple, small stone cup. Its base was added in Medieval Times and consists of fine gold, alabaster and gem stones.
In what year did the cantonalist uprising occur?
570d4227fed7b91900d45dc7
1873
34
False
Who was sent to stop Valencia's uprising?
570d4227fed7b91900d45dc8
General Martinez-Campos
406
False
Who became king in 1874?
570d4227fed7b91900d45dc9
Alfonso XII
555
False
When did Alfonso XXII reach Valencia?
570d4227fed7b91900d45dca
11 January 1875
635
False
Who was the Republican leader after the granting of male suffrage?
570d4227fed7b91900d45dcb
Vicente Blasco Ibáñez
940
False
During the Cantonal Revolution of 1873, a cantonalist uprising that took place during the First Spanish Republic, the city was consolidated with most of the nearby cities in the Federal Canton of Valencia (proclaimed on 19 July and dissolved on 7 August). It did not have the revolutionary fervor of the movement in cities like Alcoy, as it was initiated by the bourgeoisie, but the Madrid government sent General Martinez-Campos to stifle the rebellion by force of arms and subjected Valencia to an intense bombardment. The city surrendered on 7 August; Alfonso XII was proclaimed king on 29 December 1874, and arrived in Valencia on 11 January 1875 on his way to Madrid, marking the end of the first republic. Despite the Bourbon restoration, the roughly even balance between conservatives and liberals in the government was sustained in Valencia until the granting of universal male suffrage in 1890, after which the Republicans, led by Vicente Blasco Ibáñez, gained considerably more of the popular vote.
Who designed the City of Arts and Sciences?
570d45acb3d812140066d611
Santiago Calatrava
41
False
Where is the bridge named for Calatrava located?
570d45acb3d812140066d612
centre of the city
406
False
What type of architecture does the Music Palace have?
570d45acb3d812140066d613
modern
497
False
Which of Calatrava's creations contains an IMAX theater?
570d45acb3d812140066d614
City of Arts and Sciences
84
False
World-renowned (and city-born) architect Santiago Calatrava produced the futuristic City of Arts and Sciences (Ciutat de les Arts i les Ciències), which contains an opera house/performing arts centre, a science museum, an IMAX cinema/planetarium, an oceanographic park and other structures such as a long covered walkway and restaurants. Calatrava is also responsible for the bridge named after him in the centre of the city. The Music Palace (Palau De La Música) is another noteworthy example of modern architecture in Valencia.
How many official languages does Valencia have?
570d478afed7b91900d45df5
two
60
False
What is very similar to Valencian and is considered another variety of the same language?
570d478afed7b91900d45df6
Catalan
404
False
What language is official in Valencia besides Valencian?
570d478afed7b91900d45df7
Spanish
44
False
How many schools offer education completely in Valencian?
570d478afed7b91900d45df8
more than 70
1966
False
When did Valencian regain its offical status?
570d478afed7b91900d45df9
1978
1060
False
Valencia is a bilingual city: Valencian and Spanish are the two official languages. Spanish is official in all of Spain, whereas Valencian is official in the Valencian Country, as well as in Catalonia and the Balearic Islands, where it receives the name of Catalan. Despite the differentiated denomination, the distinct dialectal traits and political tension between Catalonia and the Valencian Country, Catalan and Valencian are mutually intelligible and are considered two varieties of the same language. Valencian has been historically repressed in favour of Spanish. The effects have been more noticeable in the city proper, whereas the language has remained active in the rural and metropolitan areas. After the Castille-Aragon unification, a Spanish-speaking elite established itself in the city. In more recent history, the establishment of Franco's military and administrative apparatus in Valencia further excluded Valencian from public life. Valencian recovered its official status, prestige and use in education after the transition to democracy in 1978. However, due to industrialisation in recent decades, Valencia has attracted immigration from other regions in Spain, and hence there is also a demographic factor for its declining social use. Due to a combination of these reasons, Valencia has become the bastion of anti-Catalan blaverism, which celebrates Valencian as merely folkloric, but rejects the existing standard which was adapted from Catalan orthography. Spanish is currently the predominant language in the city proper but, thanks to the education system, most Valencians have basic knowledge of both Spanish and Valencian, and either can be used in the city. Valencia is therefore the second biggest Catalan-speaking city after Barcelona. Institutional buildings and streets are named in Valencian. The city is also home to many pro-Valencian political and civil organisations. Furthermore, education entirely in Valencian is offered in more than 70 state-owned schools in the city, as well as by the University of Valencia across all disciplines.
During what period has Valencia had a cultural surge?
570d489cb3d812140066d641
the last thirty years
68
False
Which structural engineer's work has helped Valencia's reputation?
570d489cb3d812140066d642
Santiago Calatrava
499
False
Which architect other than Calatrava has helped Valencia's reputation?
570d489cb3d812140066d643
Félix Candela
596
False
What part of Valencia is undergoing improvements?
570d489cb3d812140066d644
Old City
724
False
Valencia has experienced a surge in its cultural development during the last thirty years, exemplified by exhibitions and performances at such iconic institutions as the Palau de la Música, the Palacio de Congresos, the Metro, the City of Arts and Sciences (Ciutat de les Arts i les Ciències), the Valencian Museum of Enlightenment and Modernity (Museo Valenciano de la Ilustracion y la Modernidad), and the Institute of Modern Art (Instituto Valenciano de Arte Moderno). The various productions of Santiago Calatrava, a renowned structural engineer, architect, and sculptor and of the architect Félix Candela have contributed to Valencia's international reputation. These public works and the ongoing rehabilitation of the Old City (Ciutat Vella) have helped improve the city's livability and tourism is continually increasing.
What church holds some of Spain's greatest frescoes?
570d49abfed7b91900d45e09
Saints John
30
False
Who decorated the Saints John's dome?
570d49abfed7b91900d45e0a
Palonino
110
False
Who destroyed the Jesuit college?
570d49abfed7b91900d45e0b
the revolutionary Committee of the Popular Front
720
False
What was once headquartered in the former Dominican convent?
570d49abfed7b91900d45e0c
Capital General
421
False
What was once a college for nobles and is now a place of secondary education?
570d49abfed7b91900d45e0d
Colegio de San Juan
797
False
Among the parish churches are Saints John (Baptist and Evangelist), rebuilt in 1368, whose dome, decorated by Palonino, contains some of the best frescoes in Spain; El Templo (the Temple), the ancient church of the Knights Templar, which passed into the hands of the Order of Montesa and was rebuilt in the reigns of Ferdinand VI and Charles III; the former convent of the Dominicans, at one time the headquarters of the Capital General, the cloister of which has a beautiful Gothic wing and the chapter room, large columns imitating palm trees; the Colegio del Corpus Christi, which is devoted to the Blessed Sacrament, and in which perpetual adoration is carried on; the Jesuit college, which was destroyed in 1868 by the revolutionary Committee of the Popular Front, but later rebuilt; and the Colegio de San Juan (also of the Society), the former college of the nobles, now a provincial institute for secondary instruction.
When did the Byzantines invade the Iberian peninsula?
570d4ca0b3d812140066d659
554
398
False
When were the Byzantines expelled?
570d4ca0b3d812140066d65a
625
483
False
What archdiocese was Valencia under during the time of the Visigoths?
570d4ca0b3d812140066d65b
Toledo
917
False
Who took power in Valencia after the Roman administration was gone?
570d4ca0b3d812140066d65c
the church
218
False
After the Byzantines left, who was stationed in Valencia?
570d4ca0b3d812140066d65d
Visigothic military contingents
488
False
A few centuries later, coinciding with the first waves of the invading Germanic peoples (Suevi, Vandals and Alans, and later the Visigoths) and the power vacuum left by the demise of the Roman imperial administration, the church assumed the reins of power in the city and replaced the old Roman temples with religious buildings. With the Byzantine invasion of the southwestern Iberian peninsula in 554 the city acquired strategic importance. After the expulsion of the Byzantines in 625, Visigothic military contingents were posted there and the ancient Roman amphitheatre was fortified. Little is known of its history for nearly a hundred years; although this period is only scarcely documented by archeology, excavations suggest that there was little development of the city. During Visigothic times Valencia was an episcopal See of the Catholic Church, albeit a suffragan diocese subordinate to the archdiocese of Toledo, comprising the ancient Roman province of Carthaginensis in Hispania.
When was the dome built?
570d4d9efed7b91900d45e4d
15th century
7
False
Who started the construction of the main chapel?
570d4d9efed7b91900d45e4e
Archbishop Luis Alfonso de los Cameros
144
False
When was the main entrance constructed?
570d4d9efed7b91900d45e4f
beginning of the 18th century
324
False
In what style is the door of the Apostles?
570d4d9efed7b91900d45e50
Gothic
507
False
Who painted the pictures that are in the San Francesco chapel?
570d4d9efed7b91900d45e51
Francisco Goya
1220
False
In the 15th century the dome was added and the naves extended back of the choir, uniting the building to the tower and forming a main entrance. Archbishop Luis Alfonso de los Cameros began the building of the main chapel in 1674; the walls were decorated with marbles and bronzes in the Baroque style of that period. At the beginning of the 18th century the German Conrad Rudolphus built the façade of the main entrance. The other two doors lead into the transept; one, that of the Apostles in pure pointed Gothic, dates from the 14th century, the other is that of the Paláu. The additions made to the back of the cathedral detract from its height. The 18th-century restoration rounded the pointed arches, covered the Gothic columns with Corinthian pillars, and redecorated the walls. The dome has no lantern, its plain ceiling being pierced by two large side windows. There are four chapels on either side, besides that at the end and those that open into the choir, the transept, and the sanctuary. It contains many paintings by eminent artists. A silver reredos, which was behind the altar, was carried away in the war of 1808, and converted into coin to meet the expenses of the campaign. There are two paintings by Francisco Goya in the San Francesco chapel. Behind the Chapel of the Blessed Sacrament is a small Renaissance chapel built by Calixtus III. Beside the cathedral is the chapel dedicated to the Our Lady of the Forsaken (Virgen de los desamparados or Mare de Déu dels Desamparats).
What ruler attacked Valencia in 1238?
570d4e88fed7b91900d45e57
King James I of Aragon
9
False
When did Valencia surrender?
570d4e88fed7b91900d45e58
28 September
162
False
Who was expelled from Valencia after James I's victory?
570d4e88fed7b91900d45e59
the Muslim population
378
False
What were Valencia's new charters called?
570d4e88fed7b91900d45e5a
Furs of Valencia
604
False
What group did the crusaders who attacked Valencia belong to?
570d4e88fed7b91900d45e5b
Order of Calatrava
112
False
In 1238, King James I of Aragon, with an army composed of Aragonese, Catalans, Navarrese and crusaders from the Order of Calatrava, laid siege to Valencia and on 28 September obtained a surrender. Fifty thousand Moors were forced to leave. Poets such as Ibn al-Abbar and Ibn Amira mourned this exile from their beloved Valencia. After the Christian victory and the expulsion of the Muslim population the city was divided between those who had participated in the conquest, according to the testimony in the Llibre del Repartiment (Book of Distribution). James I granted the city new charters of law, the Furs of Valencia, which later were extended to the whole kingdom of Valencia. Thenceforth the city entered a new historical stage in which a new society and a new language developed, forming the basis of the character of the Valencian people as they are known today.
Which America's Cup competitions did Valencia host?
570d4fd7fed7b91900d45e69
the 32nd and the 33rd
612
False
What equestrian event has Valencia hosted?
570d4fd7fed7b91900d45e6a
Global Champions Tour
763
False
What tennis event has Valencia hosted?
570d4fd7fed7b91900d45e6b
Valencia Open 500 tennis tournament
718
False
When was the Water Tribunal declared a cultural heritage of humanity?
570d4fd7fed7b91900d45e6c
2009
424
False
What Valencian festivals were declared Celebrations of International Touristic Interest?
570d4fd7fed7b91900d45e6d
Falles
95
False
In its long history, Valencia has acquired many local traditions and festivals, among them the Falles, which were declared Celebrations of International Touristic Interest (Fiestas de Interés Turístico Internacional) on 25 January 1965, and the Water Tribunal of Valencia (Tribunal de las Aguas de Valencia), which was declared an intangible cultural heritage of humanity (Patrimonio Cultural Inmaterial de la Humanidad) in 2009. In addition to these Valencia has hosted world-class events that helped shape the city's reputation and put it in the international spotlight, e.g., the Regional Exhibition of 1909, the 32nd and the 33rd America's Cup competitions, the European Grand Prix of Formula One auto racing, the Valencia Open 500 tennis tournament, and the Global Champions Tour of equestrian sports.
Who commanded that Valencia be destroyed?
570d512ab3d812140066d6a7
Abd al-Rahman I
155
False
What did Abdullah have built outside Valencia?
570d512ab3d812140066d6a8
the Russafa
454
False
What was Valencia named during the time of Abdullah?
570d512ab3d812140066d6a9
Medina al-Turab
615
False
When did Valencia surrender to the Moors?
570d512ab3d812140066d6aa
by 714 AD
83
False
What feature of Valencia used to be a minaret?
570d512ab3d812140066d6ab
El Micalet
1062
False
The city had surrendered without a fight to the invading Moors (Berbers and Arabs) by 714 AD, and the cathedral of Saint Vincent was turned into a mosque. Abd al-Rahman I, the first emir of Cordoba, ordered the city destroyed in 755 during his wars against other nobility, but several years later his son, Abdullah, had a form of autonomous rule over the province of Valencia. Among his administrative acts he ordered the building of a luxurious palace, the Russafa, on the outskirts of the city in the neighbourhood of the same name. So far no remains have been found. Also at this time Valencia received the name Medina al-Turab (City of Sand). When Islamic culture settled in, Valencia, then called Balansiyya, prospered from the 10th century, due to a booming trade in paper, silk, leather, ceramics, glass and silver-work. The architectural legacy of this period is abundant in Valencia and can still be appreciated today in the remnants of the old walls, the Baños del Almirante bath house, Portal de Valldigna street and even the Cathedral and the tower, El Micalet (El Miguelete), which was the minaret of the old mosque.
When were the Serranos Towers constructed?
570d53f9b3d812140066d6c5
1392
185
False
What influential novel did Joanot Martorell write?
570d53f9b3d812140066d6c6
Tirant lo Blanch
612
False
Who was an early poet to use Valencian?
570d53f9b3d812140066d6c7
Ausiàs March
729
False
When was the University of Valencia founded?
570d53f9b3d812140066d6c8
between 1499 and 1502
877
False
What was the University of Valencia's original name?
570d53f9b3d812140066d6c9
Estudio General
970
False
This boom was reflected in the growth of artistic and cultural pursuits. Some of the most emblematic buildings of the city were built during this period, including the Serranos Towers (1392), the Lonja (1482), the Miguelete and the Chapel of the Kings of the Convent of Santo Domingo. In painting and sculpture, Flemish and Italian trends had an influence on artists such as Lluís Dalmau, Peris Gonçal and Damià Forment. Literature flourished with the patronage of the court of Alfonso the Magnanimous, supporting authors like Ausiàs March, Roiç de Corella, and Isabel de Villena. By 1460 Joanot Martorell wrote Tirant lo Blanch, an innovative novel of chivalry that influenced many later writers, from Cervantes to Shakespeare. Ausiàs March was one of the first poets to use the everyday language Valencian, instead of the troubadour language, Occitan. Also around this time, between 1499 and 1502, the University of Valencia was founded under the parsimonious name of Estudio General ("studium generale", place of general studies).
What war took place from 1702-1709?
570d5555b3d812140066d6d9
War of Spanish Succession
51
False
With whom did Valencia side in the War of Spanish Succession?
570d5555b3d812140066d6da
Charles of Austria
239
False
When did English cavalry enter Valencia?
570d5555b3d812140066d6db
24 January 1706
262
False
Who led the English cavalry into Valencia?
570d5555b3d812140066d6dc
Charles Mordaunt, 3rd Earl of Peterborough, 1st Earl of Monmouth
279
False
What did Mordaunt capture on his way from Barcelona?
570d5555b3d812140066d6dd
fortress at Sagunt
451
False
The decline of the city reached its nadir with the War of Spanish Succession (1702–1709) that marked the end of the political and legal independence of the Kingdom of Valencia. During the War of the Spanish Succession, Valencia sided with Charles of Austria. On 24 January 1706, Charles Mordaunt, 3rd Earl of Peterborough, 1st Earl of Monmouth, led a handful of English cavalrymen into the city after riding south from Barcelona, capturing the nearby fortress at Sagunt, and bluffing the Spanish Bourbon army into withdrawal.
Who attacked Valencia with French soldiers but failed to capture it?
570d5673b3d812140066d6f5
Moncey
110
False
When did Valencia surrender to the French?
570d5673b3d812140066d6f6
8 January 1812
401
False
Who led the successful attack against Valencia?
570d5673b3d812140066d6f7
Suchet
290
False
What forced Suchet to leave Valencia?
570d5673b3d812140066d6f8
Battle of Vitoria
682
False
What city did Jose I make Spain's capital?
570d5673b3d812140066d6f9
Valencia
474
False
The mutineers seized the Citadel, a Supreme Junta government took over, and on 26–28 June, Napoleon's Marshal Moncey attacked the city with a column of 9,000 French imperial troops in the First Battle of Valencia. He failed to take the city in two assaults and retreated to Madrid. Marshal Suchet began a long siege of the city in October 1811, and after intense bombardment forced it to surrender on 8 January 1812. After the capitulation, the French instituted reforms in Valencia, which became the capital of Spain when the Bonapartist pretender to the throne, José I (Joseph Bonaparte, Napoleon's elder brother), moved the Court there in the summer of 1812. The disaster of the Battle of Vitoria on 21 June 1813 obliged Suchet to quit Valencia, and the French troops withdrew in July.
What people group was descended from Muslim converts to Christianity?
570d5aabfed7b91900d45f05
Moriscos
91
False
When were the Jews expelled?
570d5aabfed7b91900d45f06
1609
66
False
Where did the Moriscos go when they were forced out of Spain?
570d5aabfed7b91900d45f07
North Africa
338
False
What proportion of the Valencia area's population were the Moriscos?
570d5aabfed7b91900d45f08
a third
518
False
When was the Taula de Canvi bankrupted?
570d5aabfed7b91900d45f09
1613
659
False
The crisis deepened during the 17th century with the expulsion in 1609 of the Jews and the Moriscos, descendants of the Muslim population that converted to Christianity under threat of exile from Ferdinand and Isabella in 1502. From 1609 through 1614, the Spanish government systematically forced Moriscos to leave the kingdom for Muslim North Africa. They were concentrated in the former Kingdom of Aragon, where they constituted a fifth of the population, and the Valencia area specifically, where they were roughly a third of the total population. The expulsion caused the financial ruin of some of the nobility and the bankruptcy of the Taula de Canvi in 1613. The Crown endeavoured to compensate the nobles, who had lost much of their agricultural labour force; this harmed the economy of the city for generations to come. Later, during the so-called Catalan Revolt (1640–1652), Valencia contributed to the cause of Philip IV with militias and money, resulting in a period of further economic hardship exacerbated by the arrival of troops from other parts of Spain.
Who had suppressed the Valencian language?
570d5ba3b3d812140066d725
Philip V
382
False
What group still exists and promotes Valencian culture?
570d5ba3b3d812140066d726
Lo Rat Penat
743
False
Who founded Lo Rat Penat?
570d5ba3b3d812140066d727
Constantine Llombart
675
False
What poet was an early influence on the Valencian Renaissance?
570d5ba3b3d812140066d728
Teodor Llorente
609
False
Who got rich from the Valencian orange crop and vineyards?
570d5ba3b3d812140066d729
land-owners
116
False
During the second half of the 19th century the bourgeoisie encouraged the development of the city and its environs; land-owners were enriched by the introduction of the orange crop and the expansion of vineyards and other crops,. This economic boom corresponded with a revival of local traditions and of the Valencian language, which had been ruthlessly suppressed from the time of Philip V. Around 1870, the Valencian Renaissance, a movement committed to the revival of the Valencian language and traditions, began to gain ascendancy. In its early stages the movement inclined to the romanticism of the poet Teodor Llorente, and resisted the more assertive remonstrances of Constantine Llombart, founder of the still extant cultural society, Lo Rat Penat, which is dedicated to the promotion and dissemination of the Valencian language and culture.
Who was Spain's 18th Prime Minister?
570d5cb9fed7b91900d45f35
Espartero
38
False
When did Espartero rule?
570d5cb9fed7b91900d45f36
16 September 1840 to 21 May 1841
106
False
What type of government did Espartero have?
570d5cb9fed7b91900d45f37
progressive
150
False
Who ended up getting most of Valencia's church property?
570d5cb9fed7b91900d45f38
local bourgeoisie
476
False
Whose troops threatened reprisals in Valencia?
570d5cb9fed7b91900d45f39
General Cabrera
674
False
During the regency of Maria Cristina, Espartero ruled Spain for two years as its 18th Prime Minister from 16 September 1840 to 21 May 1841. Under his progressive government the old regime was tenuously reconciled to his liberal policies. During this period of upheaval in the provinces he declared that all the estates of the Church, its congregations, and its religious orders were national property—though in Valencia, most of this property was subsequently acquired by the local bourgeoisie. City life in Valencia carried on in a revolutionary climate, with frequent clashes between liberals and republicans, and the constant threat of reprisals by the Carlist troops of General Cabrera.
How many people died when the Valencia metro derailed?
570d5dadb3d812140066d755
43
174
False
When did the Valencia metro derail?
570d5dadb3d812140066d756
3 July 2006
42
False
Who said the Valencia derailment was fortuitous?
570d5dadb3d812140066d757
Vicente Rambla and Mayor Rita Barberá
330
False
On which Valencia metro line did the derailment occur?
570d5dadb3d812140066d758
1
130
False
How many people were gravely injured by the derailment?
570d5dadb3d812140066d759
more than ten
200
False
The Valencia Metro derailment occurred on 3 July 2006 at 1 pm. CEST (1100 UTC) between Jesús and Plaça d'Espanya stations on Line 1 of the Metrovalencia mass transit system. 43 people were killed and more than ten were seriously injured. It was not immediately clear what caused the crash. Both the Valencian government spokesman Vicente Rambla and Mayor Rita Barberá called the accident a "fortuitous" event. However, the trade union CC.OO. accused the authorities of "rushing" to say anything but admit that Line 1 is in a state of "constant deterioration" with a "failure to carry out maintenance".
What was Valencia's population in 2000?
570d5f41b3d812140066d77d
739,014
150
False
Where did Valencia rank in economic development among Spanish cities in the 1900s?
570d5f41b3d812140066d77e
third
185
False
Where did Valencia rank in size among Spanish cities in the 1900s?
570d5f41b3d812140066d77f
third
46
False
When was the Gare du Nord station finished?
570d5f41b3d812140066d780
1921
475
False
When was the Valencian regional exhibition held?
570d5f41b3d812140066d781
1909
577
False
During the 20th century Valencia remained the third most populous city of Spain as its population tripled, rising from 213,550 inhabitants in 1900 to 739,014 in 2000. Valencia was also third in industrial and economic development; notable milestones include urban expansion of the city in the latter 1800s, the creation of the Banco de Valencia in 1900, construction of the Central and Columbus markets, and the construction of the Gare du Nord railway station, completed in 1921. The new century was marked in Valencia with a major event, the Valencian regional exhibition of 1909 (La Exposición Regional Valenciana de 1909), which emulated the national and universal expositions held in other cities. This production was promoted by the Ateneo Mercantil de Valencia (Mercantile Athenaeum of Valencia), especially by its chairman, Tomás Trénor y Palavicino, and had the support of the Government and the Crown; it was officially inaugurated by King Alfonso XIII himself.
Who was prime minister in 1936?
570d6008fed7b91900d45f67
Manuel Azana
234
False
What building did the government move to in 1936?
570d6008fed7b91900d45f68
Palau de Benicarló
276
False
How many bomb shelters were built?
570d6008fed7b91900d45f69
over two hundred
427
False
When did the Italian Navy first attack Valencia?
570d6008fed7b91900d45f6a
13 January 1937
488
False
Where did the government relocate to in 1937?
570d6008fed7b91900d45f6b
Barcelona
1051
False
The inevitable march to civil war and the combat in Madrid resulted in the removal of the capital of the Republic to Valencia. On 6 November 1936 the city became the capital of Republican Spain under the control of the prime minister Manuel Azana; the government moved to the Palau de Benicarló, its ministries occupying various other buildings. The city was heavily bombarded by air and sea, necessitating the construction of over two hundred bomb shelters to protect the population. On 13 January 1937 the city was first shelled by a vessel of the Fascist Italian Navy, which was blockading the port by the order of Benito Mussolini. The bombardment intensified and inflicted massive destruction on several occasions; by the end of the war the city had survived 442 bombardments, leaving 2,831 dead and 847 wounded, although it is estimated that the death toll was higher, as the data given are those recognised by Francisco Franco's government. The Republican government passed to Juan Negrín on 17 May 1937 and on 31 October of that year moved to Barcelona. On 30 March 1939 Valencia surrendered and the Nationalist troops entered the city. The postwar years were a time of hardship for Valencians. During Franco's regime speaking or teaching Valencian was prohibited; in a significant reversal it is now compulsory for every schoolchild in Valencia.
What TV program questioned the official account of the crash?
570d61a5b3d812140066d7a5
Salvados
278
False
What happened at the same time as the crash, which may have contributed to the government downplaying it?
570d61a5b3d812140066d7a6
visit of the pope to Valencia
452
False
What evidence related to the crash remains missing?
570d61a5b3d812140066d7a7
book of train breakdowns
516
False
Which paper published an article that raised questions about the handling of the investigation?
570d61a5b3d812140066d7a8
El Mundo
29
False
When did El Mundo's article with information about the crash investigation come out?
570d61a5b3d812140066d7a9
March 2012
3
False
In March 2012, the newspaper El Mundo published a story according to which FGV had instructed employees who were to testify at the crash commission investigation, providing a set of possible questions and guidelines to prepare the answers. In April 2013, the television program Salvados questioned the official version of the incident as there were indications that the Valencian Government had tried to downplay the accident, which coincided with the visit of the pope to Valencia, or even to hide evidence, as the book of train breakdowns was never found. The day after the broadcast of this report, which received extensive media coverage, several voices called for the reopening of the investigation. The investigation was effectively reopened and the accident is currently under re-examination.
Who was the hospital's patroness?
570d64bbb3d812140066d7e3
Santa María de los Inocentes
66
False
What was the confraternity called after its separation from the hospital?
570d64bbb3d812140066d7e4
Cofradia para el ámparo de los desamparados
377
False
Who placed the chapel's cornerstone?
570d64bbb3d812140066d7e5
Archbishop Pedro de Urbina
774
False
What was the archiepiscopal palace during the Moorish period?
570d64bbb3d812140066d7e6
a grain market
899
False
Who insisted on building the new chapel?
570d64bbb3d812140066d7e7
Conde de Oropesa
536
False
In 1409, a hospital was founded and placed under the patronage of Santa María de los Inocentes; to this was attached a confraternity devoted to recovering the bodies of the unfriended dead in the city and within a radius of three miles (4.8 km) around it. At the end of the 15th century this confraternity separated from the hospital, and continued its work under the name of "Cofradia para el ámparo de los desamparados". King Philip IV of Spain and the Duke of Arcos suggested the building of the new chapel, and in 1647 the Viceroy, Conde de Oropesa, who had been preserved from the bubonic plague, insisted on carrying out their project. The Blessed Virgin was proclaimed patroness of the city under the title of Virgen de los desamparados (Virgin of the Forsaken), and Archbishop Pedro de Urbina, on 31 June 1652, laid the cornerstone of the new chapel of this name. The archiepiscopal palace, a grain market in the time of the Moors, is simple in design, with an inside cloister and a handsome chapel. In 1357, the arch that connects it with the cathedral was built. In the council chamber are preserved the portraits of all the prelates of Valencia.
When did Valencia C.F. win the UEFA Cup?
570d65c3fed7b91900d45fc9
2004
119
False
How many times did Valencia C.F. win the Spanish league?
570d65c3fed7b91900d45fca
six
176
False
What is Levante UD's stadium?
570d65c3fed7b91900d45fcb
Estadi Ciutat de València
394
False
In which division does Huracan Valencia play?
570d65c3fed7b91900d45fcc
Segunda División B
552
False
Where does Huracan Valencia play?
570d65c3fed7b91900d45fcd
Municipal de Manises
523
False
Valencia is also internationally famous for its football club, Valencia C.F., which won the Spanish league in 2002 and 2004 (the year it also won the UEFA Cup), for a total of six times, and was a UEFA Champions League runner-up in 2000 and 2001. The team's stadium is the Mestalla; its city rival Levante UD also plays in the highest division after gaining promotion in 2010, their stadium is Estadi Ciutat de València. From the year 2011 there has been a third team in the city, Huracán Valencia, who play their games in Municipal de Manises, in the Segunda División B.
When was Valencia's founding?
570d66c6fed7b91900d45fef
138 BC
42
False
On what river is Valencia located?
570d66c6fed7b91900d45ff0
Turia
91
False
How big is Valencia's historic centre?
570d66c6fed7b91900d45ff1
169 hectares
269
False
What Valencian museum contains pieces by Velazquez and other famous artists?
570d66c6fed7b91900d45ff2
Museu de Belles Arts de València
766
False
What Valencian museum has a photography collection?
570d66c6fed7b91900d45ff3
Institut Valencià d'Art Modern
987
False
Valencia was founded as a Roman colony in 138 BC. The city is situated on the banks of the Turia, on the east coast of the Iberian Peninsula, fronting the Gulf of Valencia on the Mediterranean Sea. Its historic centre is one of the largest in Spain, with approximately 169 hectares; this heritage of ancient monuments, views and cultural attractions makes Valencia one of the country's most popular tourist destinations. Major monuments include Valencia Cathedral, the Torres de Serrans, the Torres de Quart, the Llotja de la Seda (declared a World Heritage Site by UNESCO in 1996), and the Ciutat de les Arts i les Ciències (City of Arts and Sciences), an entertainment-based cultural and architectural complex designed by Santiago Calatrava and Félix Candela. The Museu de Belles Arts de València houses a large collection of paintings from the 14th to the 18th centuries, including works by Velázquez, El Greco, and Goya, as well as an important series of engravings by Piranesi. The Institut Valencià d'Art Modern (Valencian Institute of Modern Art) houses both permanent collections and temporary exhibitions of contemporary art and photography.
How far from Valencia is the Albufera?
570d67b0fed7b91900d46001
11 km
333
False
In what park is the Albufera located?
570d67b0fed7b91900d46002
Parc Natural de l'Albufera
534
False
How far from the sea was Valencia when it was founded?
570d67b0fed7b91900d46003
6.4 km
253
False
Who founded Valencia?
570d67b0fed7b91900d46004
Romans
204
False
From what entity was the Albufera bought?
570d67b0fed7b91900d46005
Crown of Spain
445
False
Valencia stands on the banks of the Turia River, located on the eastern coast of the Iberian Peninsula and the western part of the Mediterranean Sea, fronting the Gulf of Valencia. At its founding by the Romans, it stood on a river island in the Turia, 6.4 km (4 mi) from the sea. The Albufera, a freshwater lagoon and estuary about 11 km (7 mi) south of the city, is one of the largest lakes in Spain. The City Council bought the lake from the Crown of Spain for 1,072,980 pesetas in 1911, and today it forms the main portion of the Parc Natural de l'Albufera (Albufera Nature Reserve), with a surface area of 21,120 hectares (52,200 acres). In 1986, because of its cultural, historical, and ecological value, the Generalitat Valenciana declared it a natural park.
How many inhabitants live within Valencia's limits?
570d6968b3d812140066d885
809,267
124
False
How much did Valencia's foreign population rise from 2007 to 2008?
570d6968b3d812140066d886
14%
450
False
Where does Valencia's population rank among EU municipalities?
570d6968b3d812140066d887
24th
40
False
How much land is within Valencia's limits?
570d6968b3d812140066d888
134.6 km2
183
False
From which countries does the biggest rise in Valencia's foreign population come?
570d6968b3d812140066d889
Bolivia, Romania and Italy
551
False
The third largest city in Spain and the 24th most populous municipality in the European Union, Valencia has a population of 809,267 within its administrative limits on a land area of 134.6 km2 (52 sq mi). The urban area of Valencia extending beyond the administrative city limits has a population of between 1,561,000 and 1,564,145. 1,705,742 or 2,300,000 or 2,516,818 people live in the Valencia metropolitan area. Between 2007 and 2008 there was a 14% increase in the foreign born population with the largest numeric increases by country being from Bolivia, Romania and Italy.
Who was the ruler of Valencia in 138 BC?
570d6ae3b3d812140066d8ad
Decimus Junius Brutus Galaico
90
False
How many Romans lived in Valencia in 138 BC?
570d6ae3b3d812140066d8ae
two thousand
6
False
What road crossed Valencia's island in Roman times?
570d6ae3b3d812140066d8af
Via Augusta
370
False
What is now located at the former centre of Valencia?
570d6ae3b3d812140066d8b0
Plaza de la Virgen
540
False
In Roman times, what two roads met at Valencia's centre?
570d6ae3b3d812140066d8b1
Cardo Maximus and the Decumanus Maximus
603
False
About two thousand Roman colonists were settled there in 138 BC during the rule of consul Decimus Junius Brutus Galaico. The Roman historian Florus says that Brutus transferred the soldiers who had fought under him to that province. This was a typical Roman city in its conception, as it was located in a strategic location near the sea on a river island crossed by the Via Augusta, the imperial road that connected the province to Rome, the capital of the empire. The centre of the city was located in the present-day neighbourhood of the Plaza de la Virgen. Here was the forum and the crossing of the Cardo Maximus and the Decumanus Maximus, which remain the two main axes of the city. The Cardo corresponds to the existing Calle de Salvador, Almoina, and the Decumanus corresponds to Calle de los Caballeros.
What was El Cid's real name?
570d6bb6b3d812140066d8c1
Rodrigo Diaz de Vivar
285
False
When did El Cid die?
570d6bb6b3d812140066d8c2
July 1099
835
False
Who took El Cid's position after his death?
570d6bb6b3d812140066d8c3
Ximena Díaz
914
False
When did El Cid rule?
570d6bb6b3d812140066d8c4
15 June 1094 to July 1099
606
False
Who was the ruler when the new city wall was constructed?
570d6bb6b3d812140066d8c5
Abd al-Aziz
146
False
Balansiyya had a rebirth of sorts with the beginning of the Taifa of Valencia kingdom in the 11th century. The town grew, and during the reign of Abd al-Aziz a new city wall was built, remains of which are preserved throughout the Old City (Ciutat Vella) today. The Castilian nobleman Rodrigo Diaz de Vivar, known as El Cid, who was intent on possessing his own principality on the Mediterranean, entered the province in command of a combined Christian and Moorish army and besieged the city beginning in 1092. By the time the siege ended in May 1094, he had carved out his own fiefdom—which he ruled from 15 June 1094 to July 1099. This victory was immortalised in the Lay of the Cid. During his rule, he converted nine mosques into churches and installed the French monk Jérôme as bishop of the See of Valencia. El Cid was killed in July 1099 while defending the city from an Almoravid siege, whereupon his wife Ximena Díaz ruled in his place for two years.
When did Valencia suffer from the Black Death?
570d6c96b3d812140066d8cb
1348
146
False
Which three religious groups lived in Valencia?
570d6c96b3d812140066d8cc
Christian, Jewish and Muslim
589
False
The Muslims lived near what current market?
570d6c96b3d812140066d8cd
Mosen Sorel
968
False
When was the Jewish section attacked?
570d6c96b3d812140066d8ce
1391
984
False
When was the Muslim section attacked?
570d6c96b3d812140066d8cf
1456
1229
False
The city went through serious troubles in the mid-fourteenth century. On the one hand were the decimation of the population by the Black Death of 1348 and subsequent years of epidemics — and on the other, the series of wars and riots that followed. Among these were the War of the Union, a citizen revolt against the excesses of the monarchy, led by Valencia as the capital of the kingdom — and the war with Castile, which forced the hurried raising of a new wall to resist Castilian attacks in 1363 and 1364. In these years the coexistence of the three communities that occupied the city—Christian, Jewish and Muslim — was quite contentious. The Jews who occupied the area around the waterfront had progressed economically and socially, and their quarter gradually expanded its boundaries at the expense of neighbouring parishes. Meanwhile, Muslims who remained in the city after the conquest were entrenched in a Moorish neighbourhood next to the present-day market Mosen Sorel. In 1391 an uncontrolled mob attacked the Jewish quarter, causing its virtual disappearance and leading to the forced conversion of its surviving members to Christianity. The Muslim quarter was attacked during a similar tumult among the populace in 1456, but the consequences were minor.
Whose government did the guilds rebel against?
570d6de5fed7b91900d460b7
Charles I
213
False
When did the guilds' rebellion take place?
570d6de5fed7b91900d460b8
1519–1523
103
False
What caused the nobility to leave Valencia?
570d6de5fed7b91900d460b9
plague
496
False
From where did the anti-monarchists get inspiration?
570d6de5fed7b91900d460ba
Italian republics
392
False
What were the artisan guilds called?
570d6de5fed7b91900d460bb
the Germanies
146
False
Faced with this loss of business, Valencia suffered a severe economic crisis. This manifested early in 1519–1523 when the artisan guilds known as the Germanies revolted against the government of the Habsburg king Charles I in Valencia, now part of the Crown of Aragon, with most of the fighting done in 1521. The revolt was an anti-monarchist, anti-feudal autonomist movement inspired by the Italian republics, and a social revolt against the nobility who had fled the city before an epidemic of plague in 1519. It also bore a strong anti-Islamic aspect, as rebels rioted against Aragon's population of mudéjars and imposed forced conversions to Christianity.
What type of people often held Valencia's offices?
570d6f53fed7b91900d460f7
foreign aristocrats
309
False
From where were Valencia's officials chosen?
570d6f53fed7b91900d460f8
Madrid
250
False
What convent was close to the area where troops lived?
570d6f53fed7b91900d460f9
Santo Domingo
471
False
Until when was the Lonja used to quarter troops?
570d6f53fed7b91900d460fa
1762
560
False
With the abolition of the charters of Valencia and most of its institutions, and the conformation of the kingdom and its capital to the laws and customs of Castile, top civil officials were no longer elected, but instead were appointed directly from Madrid, the king's court city, the offices often filled by foreign aristocrats. Valencia had to become accustomed to being an occupied city, living with the presence of troops quartered in the Citadel near the convent of Santo Domingo and in other buildings such as the Lonja, which served as a barracks until 1762.
Where did Ferdinand go rather than Madrid?
570d7049b3d812140066d93b
Valencia
30
False
How long did absolutist rule last?
570d7049b3d812140066d93c
six years
329
False
When was the Trieno Liberal?
570d7049b3d812140066d93d
1820–1823
495
False
When was the Constitution abolished?
570d7049b3d812140066d93e
1812
223
False
Who offered troops to the King?
570d7049b3d812140066d93f
General Elio
77
False
Ferdinand refused and went to Valencia instead of Madrid. Here, on 17 April, General Elio invited the King to reclaim his absolute rights and put his troops at the King's disposition. The king abolished the Constitution of 1812. He followed this act by dissolving the two chambers of the Spanish Parliament on 10 May. Thus began six years (1814–1820) of absolutist rule, but the constitution was reinstated during the Trienio Liberal, a period of three years of liberal government in Spain from 1820–1823.
When were plans for city expansion drawn?
570d710ffed7b91900d46109
1858
62
False
What was finished in 1850?
570d710ffed7b91900d4610a
public water supply network
4
False
When did Valencia get electricity?
570d710ffed7b91900d4610b
1882
607
False
What was knocked down in 1866?
570d710ffed7b91900d4610c
city walls
491
False
What was Valencia's population in 1860?
570d710ffed7b91900d4610d
140,416
436
False
The public water supply network was completed in 1850, and in 1858 the architects Sebastián Monleón Estellés, Antonino Sancho, and Timoteo Calvo drafted a general expansion project for the city that included demolishing its ancient walls (a second version was printed in 1868). Neither proposed project received final approval, but they did serve as a guide, though not closely followed, for future growth. By 1860 the municipality had 140,416 inhabitants, and beginning in 1866 the ancient city walls were almost entirely demolished to facilitate urban expansion. Electricity was introduced to Valencia in 1882.
When democracy began in Spain, what did the kingdom of Valencia become?
570d7229b3d812140066d957
the Valencian Community
346
False
Who led a coup in Valencia?
570d7229b3d812140066d958
Jaime Milans del Bosch
575
False
Whose message convinced much of the military to stay loyal?
570d7229b3d812140066d959
King Juan Carlos I
780
False
When did Milans del Bosch surrender?
570d7229b3d812140066d95a
24 February
1012
False
What law made Valencia the capital of its region?
570d7229b3d812140066d95b
Statute of Autonomy
375
False
The economy began to recover in the early 1960s, and the city experienced explosive population growth through immigration spurred by the jobs created with the implementation of major urban projects and infrastructure improvements. With the advent of democracy in Spain, the ancient kingdom of Valencia was established as a new autonomous entity, the Valencian Community, the Statute of Autonomy of 1982 designating Valencia as its capital. On the night of 23 February 1981, shortly after Antonio Tejero had stormed Congress, the Captain General of the Third Military Region, Jaime Milans del Bosch, rose up in Valencia, put tanks on the streets, declared a state of emergency and tried to convince other senior military figures to support the coup. After the televised message of King Juan Carlos I, those in the military who had not yet aligned themselves decided to remain loyal to the government, and the coup failed. Despite this lack of support, Milans del Bosch only surrendered at 5 a.m. on the next day, 24 February.
Where is Valencia's City Hall located?
570d7360b3d812140066d96b
Plaza del Ayuntamiento
37
False
What is on the eastern side of Valencia's largest plaza?
570d7360b3d812140066d96c
the central post office
128
False
What shape is the Plaza del Ayuntamiento?
570d7360b3d812140066d96d
triangular
275
False
What is in the north part of the plaza?
570d7360b3d812140066d96e
a large fountain
501
False
When are firewords heard every day?
570d7360b3d812140066d96f
during the Les Falles
405
False
The largest plaza in Valencia is the Plaza del Ayuntamiento; it is home to the City Hall (Ayuntamiento) on its western side and the central post office (Edificio de Correos) on its eastern side, a cinema that shows classic movies, and many restaurants and bars. The plaza is triangular in shape, with a large cement lot at the southern end, normally surrounded by flower vendors. It serves as ground zero during the Les Falles when the fireworks of the Mascletà can be heard every afternoon. There is a large fountain at the northern end.
What was the Valencia Cathedral called from 1866?
570d74d0b3d812140066d989
Basilica Metropolitana
244
False
What pagan deity may have had a temple where the Valencia Cathedral is now?
570d74d0b3d812140066d98a
Diana
356
False
How tall is the cathedral's tower?
570d74d0b3d812140066d98b
58 m
1143
False
What is the tower called?
570d74d0b3d812140066d98c
El Miguelete
1058
False
What was the Cathedral's name from early in the Reconquista?
570d74d0b3d812140066d98d
Iglesia Mayor
34
False
The Valencia Cathedral was called Iglesia Mayor in the early days of the Reconquista, then Iglesia de la Seo (Seo is from the Latin sedes, i.e., (archiepiscopal) See), and by virtue of the papal concession of 16 October 1866, it was called the Basilica Metropolitana. It is situated in the centre of the ancient Roman city where some believe the temple of Diana stood. In Gothic times, it seems to have been dedicated to the Holy Saviour; the Cid dedicated it to the Blessed Virgin; King James I of Aragon did likewise, leaving in the main chapel the image of the Blessed Virgin, which he carried with him and is reputed to be the one now preserved in the sacristy. The Moorish mosque, which had been converted into a Christian Church by the conqueror, was deemed unworthy of the title of the cathedral of Valencia, and in 1262 Bishop Andrés de Albalat laid the cornerstone of the new Gothic building, with three naves; these reach only to the choir of the present building. Bishop Vidal de Blanes built the chapter hall, and James I added the tower, called El Miguelete because it was blessed on St. Michael's day in 1418. The tower is about 58 m high and topped with a belfry (1660–1736).
Who won the last race of the European Grand Prix in 2012?
570d75ccb3d812140066d99d
Fernando Alonso
381
False
What motorcycle event is held in Valencia?
570d75ccb3d812140066d99e
Valencian Community motorcycle Grand Prix
462
False
In which years was the European Formula One Grand Prix in Valencia?
570d75ccb3d812140066d99f
2008–2012
20
False
What is another name for the Circuit Recardo Tormo?
570d75ccb3d812140066d9a0
Circuit de Valencia
655
False
Once a year between 2008–2012 the European Formula One Grand Prix took place in the Valencia Street Circuit. Valencia is among with Barcelona, Porto and Monte Carlo the only European cities ever to host Formula One World Championship Grands Prix on public roads in the middle of cities. The final race in 2012 European Grand Prix saw an extremely popular winner, since home driver Fernando Alonso won for Ferrari in spite of starting halfway down the field. The Valencian Community motorcycle Grand Prix (Gran Premi de la Comunitat Valenciana de motociclisme) is part of the Grand Prix motorcycle racing season at the Circuit Ricardo Tormo (also known as Circuit de Valencia). Periodically the Spanish round of the Deutsche Tourenwagen Masters touring car racing Championship (DTM) is held in Valencia.
General_Electric
During which decade did GE start manufacuring computers?
570d223afed7b91900d45c33
1950s
72
False
What was the name of GE's major appliance manufacturing plant?
570d223afed7b91900d45c34
Appliance Park
273
False
In what year did GE sell its computer division to Honeywell?
570d223afed7b91900d45c35
1970
350
False
What division of GE provides computer timesharing services?
570d223afed7b91900d45c36
GXS
633
False
What was the name of first business in the world to own a computer?
570d223afed7b91900d45c37
GE
22
False
1970
350
What year saw the release of GEnie?
59d286102763a60018284063
True
1970
350
In what year did GE's "Appliance Park" begin hosting computers?
59d286102763a60018284064
True
1950s
72
In what decade did Honeywell first enter the computer manufacturing industry?
59d286102763a60018284065
True
Honeywell
389
Who managed the second non-governmental computer hosting site?
59d286102763a60018284066
True
Honeywell
389
What was the second business to own a computer after GE?
59d286102763a60018284067
True
It has been said that GE got into computer manufacturing because in the 1950s they were the largest user of computers outside the United States federal government, aside from being the first business in the world to own a computer. Its major appliance manufacturing plant "Appliance Park" was the first non-governmental site to host one. However, in 1970, GE sold its computer division to Honeywell, exiting the computer manufacturing industry, though it retained its timesharing operations for some years afterwards. GE was a major provider of computer timesharing services, through General Electric Information Services (GEIS, now GXS), offering online computing services that included GEnie.
What was the name of the lamp manufacturer in East Newark which Thomas Edison an interest in?
570d23d4b3d812140066d47b
Edison Lamp Company
89
False
Where was Edison Machine Works located?
570d23d4b3d812140066d47c
Schenectady, New York
235
False
Who provided financial backing for the Edison Lighting Company?
570d23d4b3d812140066d47d
J.P. Morgan and the Vanderbilt family
464
False
In what year did Drexel, Morgan & Co. begin to finance Edison's research and form Edison General Electric Company?
570d23d4b3d812140066d47e
1889
540
False
What was the name of the company that held the patents from Edison's research?
570d23d4b3d812140066d47f
Edison Electric Light Company
374
False
1889
7
In what year was Thomas Edison born?
59d282622763a60018284045
True
East Newark
133
In what city was Bergmann & Company headquartered?
59d282622763a60018284046
True
Schenectady, New York
235
In what city was Drexel, Morgan & Co based?
59d282622763a60018284047
True
1889
7
In what year did J.P. Morgan first meet Thomas Edison?
59d282622763a60018284048
True
East Newark
133
In what city was Edison Electric Light Company incorporated?
59d282622763a60018284049
True
During 1889, Thomas Edison had business interests in many electricity-related companies: Edison Lamp Company, a lamp manufacturer in East Newark, New Jersey; Edison Machine Works, a manufacturer of dynamos and large electric motors in Schenectady, New York; Bergmann & Company, a manufacturer of electric lighting fixtures, sockets, and other electric lighting devices; and Edison Electric Light Company, the patent-holding company and the financial arm backed by J.P. Morgan and the Vanderbilt family for Edison's lighting experiments. In 1889, Drexel, Morgan & Co., a company founded by J.P. Morgan and Anthony J. Drexel, financed Edison's research and helped merge those companies under one corporation to form Edison General Electric Company which was incorporated in New York on April 24, 1889. The new company also acquired Sprague Electric Railway & Motor Company in the same year.
What is the business source of the majority of GE's revenues?
570d2598fed7b91900d45c51
financial services
48
False
In what other country besides the US does GE provide lending services?
570d2598fed7b91900d45c52
Japan
218
False
How much of GE's revenues is derived from the financial services it provides?
570d2598fed7b91900d45c53
over half
6
False
Besides ITT Corporation, which two companies tried to emulate GE, but failed by the mid-1980's?
570d2598fed7b91900d45c54
Ling-Temco-Vought, Tenneco
295
False
1990s
379
In what decade was GE founded?
59d289ab2763a6001828407f
True
Japan.
218
In what country was Tenneco headquartered?
59d289ab2763a60018284080
True
1980s
360
In what decade did ITT Corporation get founded?
59d289ab2763a60018284081
True
1980s
360
In what decade was Westinghouse established?
59d289ab2763a60018284082
True
United States
195
In what nation was Ling-Temco-Vought established?
59d289ab2763a60018284083
True
Since over half of GE's revenue is derived from financial services, it is arguably a financial company with a manufacturing arm. It is also one of the largest lenders in countries other than the United States, such as Japan. Even though the first wave of conglomerates (such as ITT Corporation, Ling-Temco-Vought, Tenneco, etc.) fell by the wayside by the mid-1980s, in the late 1990s, another wave (consisting of Westinghouse, Tyco, and others) tried and failed to emulate GE's success.[citation needed]
Who composed GE's slogan "Imagination at work?"?
570d2733fed7b91900d45c75
David Lucas
176
False
What was GE's slogan prior to "Imagination at work?"
570d2733fed7b91900d45c76
We Bring Good Things to Life
212
False
In what year was the slogan "We Bring Good Things to Life" first used?
570d2733fed7b91900d45c77
1979
253
False
Which company designed the standard format for GE's marketing literature and website?
570d2733fed7b91900d45c78
Wolff Olins
402
False
What is the name of the typeface family created for GE in 2014?
570d2733fed7b91900d45c79
GE Sans and Serif by Bold Monday
520
False
1979
253
In what year did GE start using the slogan, "Imagination at work"?
59d28a992763a60018284089
True
GE Sans and Serif
520
What was the first typeface family use by GE?
59d28a992763a6001828408a
True
David Lucas
176
Who composed the slogan, "We Bring Good Things to Life"?
59d28a992763a6001828408b
True
GE Sans
520
What was the typeface used for, "We Bring Good Things to Life"?
59d28a992763a6001828408c
True
Wolff Olins
584
Who created the GE Inspira font?
59d28a992763a6001828408d
True
The changes included a new corporate color palette, small modifications to the GE logo, a new customized font (GE Inspira) and a new slogan, "Imagination at work", composed by David Lucas, to replace the slogan "We Bring Good Things to Life" used since 1979. The standard requires many headlines to be lowercased and adds visual "white space" to documents and advertising. The changes were designed by Wolff Olins and are used on GE's marketing, literature and website. In 2014, a second typeface family was introduced: GE Sans and Serif by Bold Monday created under art direction by Wolff Olins.
Based on year 2000 data, where is GE ranked among the largest corporate producers of air pollution in the US?
570d295cb3d812140066d4b3
fourth-largest
206
False
How many tons of toxic chemicals does GE release into the atmosphere each year?
570d295cb3d812140066d4b4
2,000
323
False
According to which government agency is GE a leading producer of Superfund toxic waste sites?
570d295cb3d812140066d4b5
EPA
450
False
Which two commercial businesses produce more Superfund toxic waste sites than GE?
570d295cb3d812140066d4b6
Honeywell, and Chevron Corporation
500
False
Which organization identified GE as the fourth largest corporate producer of air pollution in the US?
570d295cb3d812140066d4b7
Political Economy Research Institute
139
False
4.4 million pounds
294
How much air pollution is spewed out by all of the Superfund toxic waste sites each year?
59d28bcd2763a60018284093
True
4.4 million pounds
294
How much air pollution in Chevron Corporation responsible for each year?
59d28bcd2763a60018284094
True
Chevron Corporation
515
Who is the largest corporate producer of air pollution each year?
59d28bcd2763a60018284095
True
United States Government
474
Who did the Political Economy Research Institute list as the third-largest producer of air pollution?
59d28bcd2763a60018284096
True
2,000 tons
323
How much air pollution did GE create in 1980?
59d28bcd2763a60018284097
True
GE has a history of some of its activities giving rise to large-scale air and water pollution. Based on year 2000 data, researchers at the Political Economy Research Institute listed the corporation as the fourth-largest corporate producer of air pollution in the United States, with more than 4.4 million pounds per year (2,000 tons) of toxic chemicals released into the air. GE has also been implicated in the creation of toxic waste. According to EPA documents, only the United States Government, Honeywell, and Chevron Corporation are responsible for producing more Superfund toxic waste sites.
In what year was General Electric formed?
570d2a80b3d812140066d4d1
1892
199
False
In which US state was GE incorporated?
570d2a80b3d812140066d4d2
New York
471
False
Which city was the home of GE's first headquarters?
570d2a80b3d812140066d4d3
Schenectady
490
False
Who led the Thomson-Houston Electric Company when GE was formed?
570d2a80b3d812140066d4d4
Charles Coffin
24
False
Where was the Thomson-Houston Electric Company based?
570d2a80b3d812140066d4d5
Lynn, Massachusetts
312
False
Lynn, Massachusetts
312
Where was Drexel, Morgan & Co incorporated?
59d283ce2763a6001828404f
True
1892
199
In what year was Canadian General Electric formed?
59d283ce2763a60018284050
True
1892
199
When was Drexel, Morgan & Co incorporated>
59d283ce2763a60018284051
True
Schenectady, New York
249
Where was Canadian General Electric based?
59d283ce2763a60018284052
True
Lynn, Massachusetts
312
Where was Thomson-Houston Electric Company headquartered?
59d283ce2763a60018284053
True
At about the same time, Charles Coffin, leading the Thomson-Houston Electric Company, acquired a number of competitors and gained access to their key patents. General Electric was formed through the 1892 merger of Edison General Electric Company of Schenectady, New York, and Thomson-Houston Electric Company of Lynn, Massachusetts, with the support of Drexel, Morgan & Co. Both plants continue to operate under the GE banner to this day. The company was incorporated in New York, with the Schenectady plant used as headquarters for many years thereafter. Around the same time, General Electric's Canadian counterpart, Canadian General Electric, was formed.
Which river did GE pollute with PCBs from its plant in Pittsfield, MA?
570d2c0bb3d812140066d4e3
Housatonic River
58
False
What were the primary contaminants contained in the pollution discharged into the Housatonic River?
570d2c0bb3d812140066d4e4
Aroclor 1254 and Aroclor 1260
158
False
Which company produced the Aroctor 1254 and Aroctor 1260?
570d2c0bb3d812140066d4e5
Monsanto
197
False
How many pounds of PCBs are estimated to be retained in the sediment behind Woods Pond dam?
570d2c0bb3d812140066d4e6
11,000
596
False
How high have the levels of PCBs in the sediments behind Woods Pond dam been measured at?
570d2c0bb3d812140066d4e7
110 mg/kg
422
False
1932
11
In what year was Monsanto founded?
59d28ef42763a600182840b1
True
110 mg/kg
422
How much Aroclor 1254 was found in Pittsfield?
59d28ef42763a600182840b2
True
1977
22
In what year did Monsanto create Aroclor 1260?
59d28ef42763a600182840b3
True
11,000
596
How many pounds of PCBs are found in Pittsfield?
59d28ef42763a600182840b4
True
110 mg/kg
422
How much PCBs is found in waterfowl and fish in the Housatonic River?
59d28ef42763a600182840b5
True
From circa 1932 until 1977, General Electric polluted the Housatonic River with PCBs discharges from the General Electric plant at Pittsfield, Massachusetts. Aroclor 1254 and Aroclor 1260, made by Monsanto was the primary contaminant of the pollution. The highest concentrations of PCBs in the Housatonic River are found in Woods Pond in Lenox, Massachusetts, just south of Pittsfield, where they have been measured up to 110 mg/kg in the sediment. About 50% of all the PCBs currently in the river are estimated to be retained in the sediment behind Woods Pond dam. This is estimated to be about 11,000 pounds of PCBs. Former filled oxbows are also polluted. Waterfowl and fish who live in and around the river contain significant levels of PCBs and can present health risks if consumed.
In what year did GE enter the renewable energy industry?
570d2d61b3d812140066d4ed
2002
192
False
How much money has GE invested in renewable energy commercialization?
570d2d61b3d812140066d4ee
more than $850 million
214
False
In what year did GE acquire Kelman Ltd.?
570d2d61b3d812140066d4ef
2008
286
False
As of 2009, how many people did GE employ in its renewable energy initiatives?
570d2d61b3d812140066d4f0
more than 4,900
710
False
When did GE announce an expansion of its business in Northern Ireland?
570d2d61b3d812140066d4f1
May 2010
527
False
2002
192
In what year was Kelman Ltd. formed?
59d291ec2763a600182840cf
True
4,900 people
720
How many people did GE employ overall as of 2009?
59d291ec2763a600182840d0
True
4,900 people
720
How many people worked for Kelman Ltd. as of 2008 when it was acquired by GE?
59d291ec2763a600182840d1
True
$850 million
224
How much was GE worth as of 2002?
59d291ec2763a600182840d2
True
$850 million
224
How much did GE pay to acquire Kelman Ltd?
59d291ec2763a600182840d3
True
GE (General Electric) Energy's renewable energy business has expanded greatly, to keep up with growing U.S. and global demand for clean energy. Since entering the renewable energy industry in 2002, GE has invested more than $850 million in renewable energy commercialization. In August 2008 it acquired Kelman Ltd, a Northern Ireland company specializing in advanced monitoring and diagnostics technologies for transformers used in renewable energy generation, and announced an expansion of its business in Northern Ireland in May 2010. In 2009, GE's renewable energy initiatives, which include solar power, wind power and GE Jenbacher gas engines using renewable and non-renewable methane-based gases, employ more than 4,900 people globally and have created more than 10,000 supporting jobs.
When did GE announce its Ecoimagination program?
570d2f3db3d812140066d509
May 2005
3
False
Who was the CEO of GE when it announced its Ecoimagination program?
570d2f3db3d812140066d50a
Jeff Immelt
104
False
What type of technology related to water was to be developed under the Ecoimagination program?
570d2f3db3d812140066d50b
water purification technology
300
False
Which newspaper printed an op-ed piece that questioned Immelt's credibility as a spokesman on environmental policy?
570d2f3db3d812140066d50c
The New York Times
376
False
What type of locomotive technology was to be developed by GE under its Ecoimagination program?
570d2f3db3d812140066d50d
hybrid
171
False
Jeff Immelt
104
Who wrote an op-ed piece in the New York Times about GE's CEO in May 2005?
59d28fe52763a600182840bb
True
2005
7
In what year did GE start polluting the environment?
59d28fe52763a600182840bc
True
2005
7
In what year was solar energy introduced as a way to generate electricity?
59d28fe52763a600182840bd
True
2005
7
In what year did Jeff Immelt become the CEO of GE?
59d28fe52763a600182840be
True
2005
7
In what year was the first hybrid locomotive introduced onto the market?
59d28fe52763a600182840bf
True
In May 2005, GE announced the launch of a program called "Ecomagination," intended, in the words of CEO Jeff Immelt "to develop tomorrow's solutions such as solar energy, hybrid locomotives, fuel cells, lower-emission aircraft engines, lighter and stronger durable materials, efficient lighting, and water purification technology". The announcement prompted an op-ed piece in The New York Times to observe that, "while General Electric's increased emphasis on clean technology will probably result in improved products and benefit its bottom line, Mr. Immelt's credibility as a spokesman on national environmental policy is fatally flawed because of his company's intransigence in cleaning up its own toxic legacy."
Who led GE's effort to build the first turbosupercharges during World War I?
570d30b8b3d812140066d527
Sanford Alexander Moss
186
False
Which jet engine did GE introduce in 1941?
570d30b8b3d812140066d528
Whittle W.1
560
False
What was GE's rank among US corporations in the value of wartime production contracts during World War II?
570d30b8b3d812140066d529
ninth
645
False
To which company did GE hand off their work on Whittle's jet engines?
570d30b8b3d812140066d52a
Allison Engine Company
799
False
Which company is ranked as the largest engine manufacturer in the world?
570d30b8b3d812140066d52b
Rolls-Royce plc
931
False
1941
629
In what year was Sanford Alexander Moss born?
59d284cc2763a60018284059
True
1941
629
In what year did World War II start?
59d284cc2763a6001828405a
True
1941
629
In what year was GE Aviation founded?
59d284cc2763a6001828405b
True
1941
629
In what year was the first superchargers introduced?
59d284cc2763a6001828405c
True
Whittle W.1 jet engine
560
What engines did Rolls-Royce plc. build?
59d284cc2763a6001828405d
True
GE's history of working with turbines in the power-generation field gave them the engineering know-how to move into the new field of aircraft turbosuperchargers.[citation needed] Led by Sanford Alexander Moss, GE introduced the first superchargers during World War I, and continued to develop them during the Interwar period. Superchargers became indispensable in the years immediately prior to World War II, and GE was the world leader in exhaust-driven supercharging when the war started. This experience, in turn, made GE a natural selection to develop the Whittle W.1 jet engine that was demonstrated in the United States in 1941. GE ranked ninth among United States corporations in the value of wartime production contracts. Although their early work with Whittle's designs was later handed to Allison Engine Company, GE Aviation emerged as one of the world's largest engine manufacturers, second only to the British company, Rolls-Royce plc.
In what time period did GE pollute the Hudson River with PCBs?
570d32cffed7b91900d45cf7
1947-77
101
False
Who founded the Hudson River Sloop Clearwater and the Clearwater Festival to bring attention to the pollution caused by GE?
570d32cffed7b91900d45cf8
Pete Seeger
311
False
What does PCB stand for?
570d32cffed7b91900d45cf9
polychlorinated biphenyls
60
False
What designation did the EPA give to the site of GE's Hudson River pollution
570d32cffed7b91900d45cfa
superfund
498
False
What other types of pollution have contaminated the Hudson River watershed?
570d32cffed7b91900d45cfb
mercury contamination and sewage dumping
581
False
1947
101
In what year did Pete Seeger found the Hudson River Sloop Clearwater?
59d28db72763a600182840a7
True
1947
101
In what year did the EPA designate GE's plant on the Hudson River as a superfund site?
59d28db72763a600182840a8
True
1947
101
In what year was musician Peter Singer born?
59d28db72763a600182840a9
True
1947
101
In what year did GE start polluting the Hudson River with mercury?
59d28db72763a600182840aa
True
1947
101
In what year did sewage dumping in the Hudson River become a problem?
59d28db72763a600182840ab
True
General Electric heavily contaminated the Hudson River with polychlorinated biphenyls (PCBs) between 1947-77. This pollution caused a range of harmful effects to wildlife and people who eat fish from the river or drink the water. In response to this contamination, activists protested in various ways. Musician Pete Seeger founded the Hudson River Sloop Clearwater and the Clearwater Festival to draw attention to the problem. The activism led to the site being designated by the EPA as one of the superfund sites requiring extensive cleanup. Other sources of pollution, including mercury contamination and sewage dumping, have also contributed to problems in the Hudson River watershed.
How much money has GE said it will invest in 2008 for clean technology R&D?
570d35c7b3d812140066d557
$1.4 billion
32
False
How many green products did GE bring to market via its Ecoimagination program as of October 2008?
570d35c7b3d812140066d558
70
186
False
What was GE's new revenue target for its Ecoimagination program in 2010?
570d35c7b3d812140066d559
$25 billion
381
False
What type of lamp was introduced by GE as part of its Ecoimagination initiative?
570d35c7b3d812140066d55a
halogen
242
False
What type of engine did GE bring to market as part of its Ecoimagination project?
570d35c7b3d812140066d55b
biogas
259
False
2008
93
In what year was the Ecomagination initiative introduced by GE?
59d290b72763a600182840c5
True
$1.4 billion
32
How much did GE spend on its Ecomagination initiative in 2009?
59d290b72763a600182840c6
True
70
186
How many green products did GE bring onto the market in 2009?
59d290b72763a600182840c7
True
70
186
What were the number of green products released onto the market by GE in 2010?
59d290b72763a600182840c8
True
$10 billion
510
How much did GE invest in it Ecomagination initiative in 2016?
59d290b72763a600182840c9
True
GE has said that it will invest $1.4 billion in clean technology research and development in 2008 as part of its Ecomagination initiative. As of October 2008, the scheme had resulted in 70 green products being brought to market, ranging from halogen lamps to biogas engines. In 2007, GE raised the annual revenue target for its Ecomagination initiative from $20 billion in 2010 to $25 billion following positive market response to its new product lines. In 2010, GE continued to raise its investment by adding $10 billion into Ecomagination over the next five years.
What was the name of the project introduced by GE at the 2011 Toronto International Fils Festival?
570d3780fed7b91900d45d33
Short Films, Big Ideas
0
False
Which company was GE's partner in the Short Fils, Big Ideas project?
570d3780fed7b91900d45d34
cinelan
104
False
What type of system is Sligshot?
570d3780fed7b91900d45d35
water vapor distillation
158
False
What prize was awarded to the winning amateur dirctor film at the 2013 Sundance Film Festival?
570d3780fed7b91900d45d36
US$100,000
497
False
How many online views did the Short Films, Big Ideas campaign generate?
570d3780fed7b91900d45d37
14 million
656
False
US$100,000
497
How much did it cost to produce the movie, "The Cyborg Foundation"?
59d293572763a600182840d9
True
2013
521
In what year was the first Sundance Film Festival held?
59d293572763a600182840da
True
2011
43
In what year was cinelan founded?
59d293572763a600182840db
True
1.5 billion
619
How many people saw the movie, "The Cyborg Foundation", at the 2013 Sundance Film Festival?
59d293572763a600182840dc
True
Toronto
48
In what city is the Tribeca Film Festival held?
59d293572763a600182840dd
True
Short Films, Big Ideas was launched at the 2011 Toronto International Film Festival in partnership with cinelan. Stories included breakthroughs in Slingshot (water vapor distillation system), cancer research, energy production, pain management and food access. Each of the 30 films received world premiere screenings at a major international film festival, including the Sundance Film Festival and the Tribeca Film Festival. The winning amateur director film, The Cyborg Foundation, was awarded a US$100,000 prize at the 2013 at Sundance Film Festival.[citation needed] According to GE, the campaign garnered more than 1.5 billion total media impressions, 14 million online views, and was seen in 156 countries.[citation needed]
When did GE announce it was in talks to acquire the French engineering group Alstom?
570d38f2b3d812140066d56b
April 2014
3
False
What was the final acquisition price paid by GE for Alstom?
570d38f2b3d812140066d56c
$17 billion
467
False
How big was the stake in Alstom taken by the French government as part of the acquisition deal?
570d38f2b3d812140066d56d
20%
575
False
When was GE's acquisition of Alstom agreed to by Alstom's board?
570d38f2b3d812140066d56e
June 2014
428
False
From which company did the Alstom board reject a rival acquisition proposal?
570d38f2b3d812140066d56f
Siemens-Mitsubishi Heavy Industries
687
False
2014
9
In what year was Alstom established?
59d2870d2763a6001828406d
True
$13 billion
148
How much was GE worth as of April 2014?
59d2870d2763a6001828406e
True
€3.9 billion
321
How much was Siemens and Mitsubishi Heave Industries worth as of June 2014?
59d2870d2763a6001828406f
True
$17 billion
467
How much was was Siemens-Mitsubishi Heavy Industries rival offer?
59d2870d2763a60018284070
True
2014
9
In what year was steam turbines invented?
59d2870d2763a60018284071
True
In April 2014, it was announced that GE was in talks to acquire the global power division of French engineering group Alstom for a figure of around $13 billion. A rival joint bid was submitted in June 2014 by Siemens and Mitsubishi Heavy Industries (MHI) with Siemens seeking to acquire Alstom's gas turbine business for €3.9 billion, and MHI proposing a joint venture in steam turbines, plus a €3.1 billion cash investment. In June 2014 a formal offer From GE worth $17 billion was agreed by the Alstom board. Part of the transaction involved the French government taking a 20% stake in Alstom to help secure France's energy and transport interests, and French jobs. A rival offer from Siemens-Mitsubishi Heavy Industries was rejected. The acquisition was expected to be completed in 2015.
Where is GE's headquarters located?
570d3a4ab3d812140066d587
Fairfield, Connecticut
52
False
On what street in New York was GE headquartered before moving to Fairfield?
570d3a4ab3d812140066d588
Lexington Avenue
518
False
In what year did GE move its headquarters to Fairfield?
570d3a4ab3d812140066d589
1974
551
False
Which television broadcast company is located in the same building as GE's main offices in New York City?
570d3a4ab3d812140066d58a
NBC
284
False
What was the former name of the Comcast Building, location of GE's main offices?
570d3a4ab3d812140066d58b
30 Rockefeller Plaza at Rockefeller Center
108
False
1930s
451
In what decade did NBC makes the Comcast Building their headquarters?
59d288272763a60018284077
True
1974
551
In what year was GE incorporated?
59d288272763a60018284078
True
1974
551
In what year did NBC begin broadcasting from the Comcast building?
59d288272763a60018284079
True
1974
551
In what year did 30 Rockefeller Plaza at Rockefeller Center change its name to the Comcast building?
59d288272763a6001828407a
True
GE is a multinational conglomerate headquartered in Fairfield, Connecticut. Its main offices are located at 30 Rockefeller Plaza at Rockefeller Center in New York City, known now as the Comcast Building. It was formerly known as the GE Building for the prominent GE logo on the roof; NBC's headquarters and main studios are also located in the building. Through its RCA subsidiary, it has been associated with the center since its construction in the 1930s. GE moved its corporate headquarters from the GE Building on Lexington Avenue to Fairfield in 1974.
Which New York State Attorney General filed suit in US District Court to force GE to pay for the cleanup of chemicals dumped by their plant in Waterford, NY?
570d3cf6fed7b91900d45d6f
Robert Abrams
41
False
How much did GE agree to pay in claims for the pollution it caused in the Housatonic River and other sites?
570d3cf6fed7b91900d45d70
$250 million
323
False
How many tons of PCBs were claimed to have been dumped by GE's Waterford Plant in the 1983 lawsuit?
570d3cf6fed7b91900d45d71
more than 100,000
202
False
In which year was a settlement reached regarding GE's pollution of the Housatonic River?
570d3cf6fed7b91900d45d72
1999
289
False
What was the location of the pollution caused by GE in the Housatonic River?
570d3cf6fed7b91900d45d73
Pittsfield, Massachusetts
407
False
1999
289
In what year was the suit against GE by New York State Attorney General Robert Abrams settled?
59d28ca72763a6001828409d
True
$250 million
323
How much money did GE pay to settle the lawsuit filed against it by the New York State Attorney General in 1983?
59d28ca72763a6001828409e
True
Housatonic River
389
What river is near GE's plant in Waterford, New York?
59d28ca72763a6001828409f
True
United States District Court for the Northern District of New York
73
Where was the lawsuit filed against GE in connection to it polluting the Housatonic River?
59d28ca72763a600182840a0
True
Robert Abrams
41
What was the name of the attorney general who filed a suit against GE for it polluting the Housatonic River?
59d28ca72763a600182840a1
True
In 1983, New York State Attorney General Robert Abrams filed suit in the United States District Court for the Northern District of New York to compel GE to pay for the cleanup of what was claimed to be more than 100,000 tons of chemicals dumped from their plant in Waterford, New York. In 1999, the company agreed to pay a $250 million settlement in connection with claims it polluted the Housatonic River (Pittsfield, Massachusetts) and other sites with polychlorinated biphenyls (PCBs) and other hazardous substances.
United_States_Army
When was the Continental Army created?
570d2681fed7b91900d45c63
14 June 1775
36
False
Who was the commander of the Continental Army?
570d2681fed7b91900d45c64
George Washington
141
False
From what country did Friedrich Wilhelm von Steuben come from?
570d2681fed7b91900d45c65
Europe
457
False
What did Friedrich Wilhelm von Steuben teach the Continental Army?
570d2681fed7b91900d45c66
Prussian tactics and organizational skills
561
False
by the Continental Congress as a unified army for the colonies
49
How was the Continental Army created?
5aceb6d132bba1001ae4b135
True
14 June 1775
36
When was the commander of the Continental Army appointed?
5aceb6d132bba1001ae4b136
True
Prussian
561
What European did Friedrich Wilhelm von Steuben come from?
5aceb6d132bba1001ae4b137
True
14 June 1775
36
When did Friedrich Wilhelm von Steuben teach Prussian tactics?
5aceb6d132bba1001ae4b138
True
The Continental Army was created on 14 June 1775 by the Continental Congress as a unified army for the colonies to fight Great Britain, with George Washington appointed as its commander. The army was initially led by men who had served in the British Army or colonial militias and who brought much of British military heritage with them. As the Revolutionary War progressed, French aid, resources, and military thinking influenced the new army. A number of European soldiers came on their own to help, such as Friedrich Wilhelm von Steuben, who taught the army Prussian tactics and organizational skills.
What year did American forces start being stationed in Vietnam?
570d2929b3d812140066d4ad
1959
315
False
What caused American forces to deploy in large number in 1965?
570d2929b3d812140066d4ae
Gulf of Tonkin Incident
423
False
What political structure did Vietnam have?
570d2929b3d812140066d4af
communist
620
False
1959
315
What year did Soviet forces start being stationed in Vietnam?
5acec95832bba1001ae4b3ff
True
Gulf of Tonkin Incident
423
What caused Soviet forces to deploy in large number in 1965?
5acec95832bba1001ae4b400
True
communist
620
What political structure did America have?
5acec95832bba1001ae4b401
True
"traditional" battlefield
518
What type of military warfare did Russian forces use?
5acec95832bba1001ae4b402
True
The Vietnam War is often regarded as a low point for the U.S. Army due to the use of drafted personnel, the unpopularity of the war with the American public, and frustrating restrictions placed on the military by American political leaders. While American forces had been stationed in the Republic of Vietnam since 1959, in intelligence & advising/training roles, they did not deploy in large numbers until 1965, after the Gulf of Tonkin Incident. American forces effectively established and maintained control of the "traditional" battlefield, however they struggled to counter the guerrilla hit and run tactics of the communist Viet Cong and the North Vietnamese Army. On a tactical level, American soldiers (and the U.S. military as a whole) did not lose a sizable battle.
What was organized to replace the concept of U.S. Volunteers?
570d2b46b3d812140066d4db
the "National Army"
178
False
When was the National Army demobilized?
570d2b46b3d812140066d4dc
end of World War I
303
False
Who filled vacancies in the Regular Army?
570d2b46b3d812140066d4de
"Enlisted Reserve Corps" and "Officer Reserve Corps"
502
False
National Army
183
What was organized to replace the concept of the militias?
5acecfac32bba1001ae4b4f9
True
end of World War I
303
When was the National Army started?
5acecfac32bba1001ae4b4fa
True
Regular Army
347
What was added to the National Army?
5acecfac32bba1001ae4b4fb
True
Enlisted Reserve Corps" and "Officer Reserve Corps
503
Who filled vacancies for militias?
5acecfac32bba1001ae4b4fc
True
Regular Army
479
What were temporary soldiers known as?
5acecfac32bba1001ae4b4fd
True
By the twentieth century, the U.S. Army had mobilized the U.S. Volunteers on four separate occasions during each of the major wars of the nineteenth century. During World War I, the "National Army" was organized to fight the conflict, replacing the concept of U.S. Volunteers. It was demobilized at the end of World War I, and was replaced by the Regular Army, the Organized Reserve Corps, and the State Militias. In the 1920s and 1930s, the "career" soldiers were known as the "Regular Army" with the "Enlisted Reserve Corps" and "Officer Reserve Corps" augmented to fill vacancies when needed.
Who is the highest-ranked military officer in the army?
570d2e5bb3d812140066d501
The Chief of Staff
196
False
Who does the Chief of Staff serve as the principal military adviser to?
570d2e5bb3d812140066d502
Secretary of the Army
353
False
How many military services beling to the Department of Defense?
570d2e5bb3d812140066d503
four
502
False
In what year did the Goldwater-Nichols act take place?
570d2e5bb3d812140066d504
1986
790
False
Secretary of the Army
30
Which civilian leads the Navy?
5aced26232bba1001ae4b5cb
True
The Chief of Staff
196
Who is the highest-ranked military officer in the Navy?
5aced26232bba1001ae4b5cc
True
four
502
How many European military services belong to the Department of Defense?
5aced26232bba1001ae4b5cd
True
1986
790
What year was the Goldwater-Nichols Act rejected?
5aced26232bba1001ae4b5ce
True
The army
1279
What branch of military does the Secretary of the Treasury direct?
5aced26232bba1001ae4b5cf
True
The army is led by a civilian Secretary of the Army, who has the statutory authority to conduct all the affairs of the army under the authority, direction and control of the Secretary of Defense. The Chief of Staff of the Army, who is the highest-ranked military officer in the army, serves as the principal military adviser and executive agent for the Secretary of the Army, i.e., its service chief; and as a member of the Joint Chiefs of Staff, a body composed of the service chiefs from each of the four military services belonging to the Department of Defense who advise the President of the United States, the Secretary of Defense, and the National Security Council on operational military matters, under the guidance of the Chairman and Vice Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff. In 1986, the Goldwater–Nichols Act mandated that operational control of the services follows a chain of command from the President to the Secretary of Defense directly to the unified combatant commanders, who have control of all armed forces units in their geographic or function area of responsibility. Thus, the secretaries of the military departments (and their respective service chiefs underneath them) only have the responsibility to organize, train and equip their service components. The army provides trained forces to the combatant commanders for use as directed by the Secretary of Defense.
What branch of the USA Armed Forces is the largest?
570d3003b3d812140066d513
The United States Army
0
False
How many uniformed services are there in the US?
570d3003b3d812140066d514
seven
147
False
What years did the American Revolutionary War span?
570d3003b3d812140066d515
1775–83
571
False
What date was the U.S. Army created?
570d3003b3d812140066d516
3 June 1784
723
False
What did the U.S Army replace?
570d3003b3d812140066d517
Continental Army
761
False
United States Army
4
What branch of the USA Armed Forces is the smallest?
5aceb7e032bba1001ae4b16f
True
seven
147
How many uniformed services are there in Canada?
5aceb7e032bba1001ae4b170
True
1775–83
571
What years did the French Revolutionary War span?
5aceb7e032bba1001ae4b171
True
Continental Army
480
What did the U.S. Navy replace?
5aceb7e032bba1001ae4b172
True
3 June 1784
723
When was the U.S.  Navy disbanded?
5aceb7e032bba1001ae4b173
True
The United States Army (USA) is the largest branch of the United States Armed Forces and performs land-based military operations. It is one of the seven uniformed services of the United States and is designated as the Army of the United States in the United States Constitution, Article 2, Section 2, Clause 1 and United States Code, Title 10, Subtitle B, Chapter 301, Section 3001. As the largest and senior branch of the U.S. military, the modern U.S. Army has its roots in the Continental Army, which was formed (14 June 1775) to fight the American Revolutionary War (1775–83)—before the U.S. was established as a country. After the Revolutionary War, the Congress of the Confederation created the United States Army on 3 June 1784, to replace the disbanded Continental Army. The United States Army considers itself descended from the Continental Army, and dates its institutional inception from the origin of that armed force in 1775.
The War of 1812 consisted of the U.S against whom?
570d3412b3d812140066d53b
United Kingdom
62
False
In what year did the U.S. take control of Lake Eerie?
570d3412b3d812140066d53c
1813
277
False
Who did the U.S. defeat to collapse the Indian Confederacy?
570d3412b3d812140066d53d
Tecumseh
368
False
In the Battle of New Orleans, who defeated the British?
570d3412b3d812140066d53e
Andrew Jackson
888
False
United Kingdom
62
The Siege of 1812 was fought against?
5acec19832bba1001ae4b2db
True
1813
277
What year did the U.S. take control of Lake Superior?
5acec19832bba1001ae4b2dc
True
Tecumseh
368
What did the English defeat to collapse the Indian Confederacy?
5acec19832bba1001ae4b2dd
True
British
535
In the Battle of the New Orleans, who defeated the Americans?
5acec19832bba1001ae4b2de
True
The War of 1812, the second and last American war against the United Kingdom, was less successful for the U.S. than the Revolution and Northwest Indian War against natives had been, though it ended on a high note for Americans as well. After the taking control of Lake Erie in 1813, the Americans were able to seize parts of western Upper Canada, burn York and defeat Tecumseh, which caused his Indian Confederacy to collapse. Following ending victories in the province of Upper Canada, which dubbed the U.S. Army "Regulars, by God!", British troops were able to capture and burn Washington. The regular army, however, proved they were professional and capable of defeating the British army during the invasions of Plattsburgh and Baltimore, prompting British agreement on the previously rejected terms of a status quo ante bellum. Two weeks after a treaty was signed (but not ratified), Andrew Jackson defeated the British in the Battle of New Orleans and became a national hero. Per the treaty both sides returned to the status quo with no victor.
What political party did not have trust in standing armies?
570d386cb3d812140066d561
republican
117
False
Who did the state militias have ongoing conflict with?
570d386cb3d812140066d562
Native Americans
382
False
Who was defeated at the Battle of the Wabash?
570d386cb3d812140066d563
General St. Clair
529
False
In what year was the Legion of the United States established?
570d386cb3d812140066d564
1791
679
False
In what year was the Legion of the United States renamed to the United States Army?
570d386cb3d812140066d565
1796
724
False
republican
117
What person did not trust the standing armies?
5acebf2832bba1001ae4b299
True
Native Americans
382
Who did the state militia have an ongoing peace treaty with?
5acebf2832bba1001ae4b29a
True
General St. Clair
529
Who was killed at the Battle of the Wabash?
5acebf2832bba1001ae4b29b
True
1791
679
In what year was the the government of the United States established?
5acebf2832bba1001ae4b29c
True
After the war, though, the Continental Army was quickly given land certificates and disbanded in a reflection of the republican distrust of standing armies. State militias became the new nation's sole ground army, with the exception of a regiment to guard the Western Frontier and one battery of artillery guarding West Point's arsenal. However, because of continuing conflict with Native Americans, it was soon realized that it was necessary to field a trained standing army. The Regular Army was at first very small, and after General St. Clair's defeat at the Battle of the Wabash, the Regular Army was reorganized as the Legion of the United States, which was established in 1791 and renamed the "United States Army" in 1796.
Where is the National Training Center located?
570d3c0eb3d812140066d5a5
Fort Irwin, California
228
False
Where is the Joint Readiness Training Center located?
570d3c0eb3d812140066d5a6
Fort Polk, Louisiana
298
False
Where is the Joint Multinational Training Center located?
570d3c0eb3d812140066d5a7
Hohenfels, Germany
405
False
In what year was ARFORGEN approved?
570d3c0eb3d812140066d5a8
2006
483
False
In what states is Fort Bliss located?
570d3c0eb3d812140066d5a9
New Mexico and Texas
778
False
Fort Irwin, California
228
Where is the International Training Center located?
5aced70932bba1001ae4b6cf
True
Fort Polk, Louisiana
298
Where is the Double Readiness Training Center located?
5aced70932bba1001ae4b6d0
True
Hohenfels, Germany
405
Where is the Joint International Training Center located?
5aced70932bba1001ae4b6d1
True
2006
483
What year was ARFORGEN rejected?
5aced70932bba1001ae4b6d2
True
New Mexico and Texas
778
In what cities is Fort Bliss located?
5aced70932bba1001ae4b6d3
True
Collective training at the unit level takes place at the unit's assigned station, but the most intensive training at higher echelons is conducted at the three combat training centers (CTC); the National Training Center (NTC) at Fort Irwin, California, the Joint Readiness Training Center (JRTC) at Fort Polk, Louisiana, and the Joint Multinational Training Center (JMRC) at the Hohenfels Training Area in Hohenfels, Germany. ARFORGEN is the Army Force Generation process approved in 2006 to meet the need to continuously replenish forces for deployment, at unit level, and for other echelons as required by the mission. Individual-level replenishment still requires training at a unit level, which is conducted at the continental US (CONUS) replacement center at Fort Bliss, in New Mexico and Texas, before their individual deployment.
In what year did the Union Forces capture New Orleans?
570d3df1b3d812140066d5cd
1862
536
False
Who took control of the Mississippi River in 1862-63?
570d3df1b3d812140066d5ce
Ulysses Grant
618
False
Who captured Atlanta?
570d3df1b3d812140066d5cf
William T. Sherman
827
False
Where did Lee surrender his army?
570d3df1b3d812140066d5d0
Appomattox Court House
1007
False
1862
536
In what year did the Union Forces capture Atlanta?
5acec4b532bba1001ae4b34b
True
Ulysses Grant
618
Who took control of the Snake River in 1862-63?
5acec4b532bba1001ae4b34c
True
William T. Sherman
827
Who released Atlanta?
5acec4b532bba1001ae4b34d
True
Appomattox Court House
1007
Where did Grant surrender his army?
5acec4b532bba1001ae4b34e
True
For the first two years Confederate forces did well in set battles but lost control of the border states. The Confederates had the advantage of defending a very large country in an area where disease caused twice as many deaths as combat. The Union pursued a strategy of seizing the coastline, blockading the ports, and taking control of the river systems. By 1863 the Confederacy was being strangled. Its eastern armies fought well, but the western armies were defeated one after another until the Union forces captured New Orleans in 1862 along with the Tennessee River. In the famous Vicksburg Campaign of 1862–63, Ulysses Grant seized the Mississippi River and cut off the Southwest. Grant took command of Union forces in 1864 and after a series of battles with very heavy casualties, he had Lee under siege in Richmond as William T. Sherman captured Atlanta and marched through Georgia and the Carolinas. The Confederate capital was abandoned in April 1865 and Lee subsequently surrendered his army at Appomattox Court House; all other Confederate armies surrendered within a few months.
What war occurred after the end of World War II?
570d4299fed7b91900d45dd1
Cold War
83
False
In what year were corps V and corps VII reactivated?
570d4299fed7b91900d45dd2
1950
255
False
How many divisions of the U.S. Army were in Europe?
570d4299fed7b91900d45dd3
four
318
False
Cold War
83
What war occurred after the end of War on Terror?
5acec7dd32bba1001ae4b3c9
True
1950
255
In what year were corps V and corps VII disbanded?
5acec7dd32bba1001ae4b3ca
True
four
318
How many divisions of the U.S. Army were in Germany?
5acec7dd32bba1001ae4b3cb
True
The end of World War II
0
What set the stage for the North-South confrontation?
5acec7dd32bba1001ae4b3cc
True
Korean War
118
With the outbreak of which war did concerns for the defense of Western Europe decrease?
5acec7dd32bba1001ae4b3cd
True
The end of World War II set the stage for the East–West confrontation known as the Cold War. With the outbreak of the Korean War, concerns over the defense of Western Europe rose. Two corps, V and VII, were reactivated under Seventh United States Army in 1950 and American strength in Europe rose from one division to four. Hundreds of thousands of U.S. troops remained stationed in West Germany, with others in Belgium, the Netherlands and the United Kingdom, until the 1990s in anticipation of a possible Soviet attack.
What month and year did the U.S. join World War II?
570d48a6fed7b91900d45dff
December 1941
41
False
Which military force attacked Pearl Harbor?
570d48a6fed7b91900d45e00
Japanese
65
False
What is the month, day and year of "D-Day"?
570d48a6fed7b91900d45e01
June 6, 1944
257
False
What war lead to the capture of the Pacific Islands by the U.S.?
570d48a6fed7b91900d45e02
Pacific War
401
False
Who was responsible for the desegregation of the army?
570d48a6fed7b91900d45e03
Harry S. Truman
935
False
December 1941
41
What month and year did the Chinese join World War II?
5acec6d432bba1001ae4b3ad
True
Japanese
525
Which military force aided  during Pearl Harbor?
5acec6d432bba1001ae4b3ae
True
June 6, 1944
257
What is month, day, and year V-Day?
5acec6d432bba1001ae4b3af
True
President Harry S. Truman
925
Who was responsible for the segregation of the army?
5acec6d432bba1001ae4b3b0
True
United States Marine Corps
460
Who participated along with U.S. Army soldiers in the French-Indian War?
5acec6d432bba1001ae4b3b1
True
The United States joined World War II in December 1941 after the Japanese attack on Pearl Harbor. On the European front, U.S. Army troops formed a significant portion of the forces that captured North Africa and Sicily, and later fought in Italy. On D-Day, June 6, 1944, and in the subsequent liberation of Europe and defeat of Nazi Germany, millions of U.S. Army troops played a central role. In the Pacific War, U.S. Army soldiers participated alongside the United States Marine Corps in capturing the Pacific Islands from Japanese control. Following the Axis surrenders in May (Germany) and August (Japan) of 1945, army troops were deployed to Japan and Germany to occupy the two defeated nations. Two years after World War II, the Army Air Forces separated from the army to become the United States Air Force in September 1947 after decades of attempting to separate. Also, in 1948, the army was desegregated by order of President Harry S. Truman.
Who adopted the Total Force Policy?
570d4b28b3d812140066d649
General Creighton Abrams
65
False
What war was responsible for the creation of the Total Force Policy?
570d4b28b3d812140066d64a
Vietnam War
114
False
How many army components were affected by the Total Force Policy?
570d4b28b3d812140066d64b
three
152
False
Army General Creighton Abrams
60
Who rejected the Total Force Policy?
5acecba032bba1001ae4b44d
True
Vietnam War
114
What war was responsible for the recall of the Total Force Policy?
5acecba032bba1001ae4b44e
True
three
152
How many Navy components were affected by the Total Force Policy?
5acecba032bba1001ae4b44f
True
the Regular Army, the Army National Guard and the Army Reserve
183
What three components of the Navy are a single force?
5acecba032bba1001ae4b450
True
The Total Force Policy was adopted by Chief of Staff of the Army General Creighton Abrams in the aftermath of the Vietnam War and involves treating the three components of the army – the Regular Army, the Army National Guard and the Army Reserve as a single force. Believing that no U.S. president should be able to take the United States (and more specifically the U.S. Army) to war without the support of the American people, General Abrams intertwined the structure of the three components of the army in such a way as to make extended operations impossible, without the involvement of both the Army National Guard and the Army Reserve.
Which country was invaded by the U.S. in October 2001?
570d4faffed7b91900d45e61
Afghanistan
111
False
The U.S. Army invaded Iraq in what year?
570d4faffed7b91900d45e62
2003
247
False
About how many U.S. soldiers died as of March 2008 due to counterinsurgency?
570d4faffed7b91900d45e63
more than 4,000
507
False
How many Iraqi insurgents were killed from 2003-2011?
570d4faffed7b91900d45e64
23,813
594
False
Afghanistan
111
Which country was liberated by the U.S. in October 2001?
5acece4032bba1001ae4b4b5
True
2003
247
What year did the  European country invade Iraq?
5acece4032bba1001ae4b4b6
True
more than 4,000
507
How many European soldiers died as of March 2008 due to counterinsurgency?
5acece4032bba1001ae4b4b7
True
23,813
594
How many Palestinian insurgents were killed from 2003-2011?
5acece4032bba1001ae4b4b8
True
2003
247
What year did the Chinese lead a combined coalition into Iraq?
5acece4032bba1001ae4b4b9
True
In response to the September 11 attacks, and as part of the Global War on Terror, U.S. and NATO forces invaded Afghanistan in October 2001, displacing the Taliban government. The U.S. Army also led the combined U.S. and allied invasion of Iraq in 2003. It served as the primary source for ground forces with its ability to sustain short and long-term deployment operations. In the following years the mission changed from conflict between regular militaries to counterinsurgency, resulting in the deaths of more than 4,000 U.S service members (as of March 2008) and injuries to thousands more. 23,813 insurgents were killed in Iraq between 2003–2011.
What were National Guard members considered before 1903?
570d58c8b3d812140066d6ff
state soldiers
300
False
In what year did the Milita Act take place?
570d58c8b3d812140066d700
1903
395
False
The Air Defense Artillery is a branch of what?
570d58c8b3d812140066d701
the Army
54
False
National Guardsmen are under the authority of who?
570d58c8b3d812140066d702
the governor
496
False
state soldiers
300
What was the U.S. Navy considered before 1903?
5aced07732bba1001ae4b53f
True
1903
249
In what year did the Milita Act disband?
5aced07732bba1001ae4b540
True
the Army
54
What is the State Defense Artillery a branch of?
5aced07732bba1001ae4b541
True
the governor
496
Who governs the U.S. Navy?
5aced07732bba1001ae4b542
True
Currently, the army is divided into the Regular Army, the Army Reserve, and the Army National Guard. The army is also divided into major branches such as Air Defense Artillery, Infantry, Aviation, Signal Corps, Corps of Engineers, and Armor. Before 1903 members of the National Guard were considered state soldiers unless federalized (i.e., activated) by the President. Since the Militia Act of 1903 all National Guard soldiers have held dual status: as National Guardsmen under the authority of the governor of their state or territory and, when activated, as a reserve of the U.S. Army under the authority of the President.
How many divisions are there in the U.S. Army?
570d5adeb3d812140066d71b
10
36
False
How many brigade teams did the Army downsize to by 2015?
570d5adeb3d812140066d71c
32
222
False
Who is the Army Chief of Staff?
570d5adeb3d812140066d71d
Raymond Odierno
347
False
By 2018, how many active Army members will there be?
570d5adeb3d812140066d71e
450,000
426
False
How many Army Reserve members will there be by 2018?
570d5adeb3d812140066d71f
195,000
493
False
10
36
How many divisions are there in the U.S. Navy?
5aced4bf32bba1001ae4b643
True
32
222
How many brigade teams did the Navy downsize to by 2015?
5aced4bf32bba1001ae4b644
True
Raymond Odierno
347
Who is the Navy Chief of Staff?
5aced4bf32bba1001ae4b645
True
450,000
426
How many active Navy members will there be in 2018?
5aced4bf32bba1001ae4b646
True
195,000
493
How many Navy Reserve members will there be by 2018?
5aced4bf32bba1001ae4b647
True
The U.S. Army currently consists of 10 active divisions as well as several independent units. The force is in the process of contracting after several years of growth. In June 2013, the Army announced plans to downsize to 32 active combat brigade teams by 2015 to match a reduction in active duty strength to 490,000 soldiers. Army Chief of Staff Raymond Odierno has projected that by 2018 the Army will eventually shrink to "450,000 in the active component, 335,000 in the National Guard and 195,000 in U.S. Army Reserve."
What categories are U.S. Army training divided into?
570d6db3fed7b91900d460ad
individual and collective
69
False
How long does basic training last?
570d6db3fed7b91900d460ae
10 weeks
123
False
How long does military occupation specialties training last?
570d6db3fed7b91900d460af
14–20 weeks
322
False
What does OSUT stand for?
570d6db3fed7b91900d460b0
One Station Unit Training
337
False
Where are the Armor School and the Infantry School both located?
570d6db3fed7b91900d460b1
Fort Benning, Georgia
828
False
individual and collective
69
What categories are the U.S. Navy divided into?
5aced57a32bba1001ae4b673
True
10 weeks
123
How long does basic artillery training last for?
5aced57a32bba1001ae4b674
True
14–20 weeks
322
How long does a military cooking class last?
5aced57a32bba1001ae4b675
True
14–20 weeks
322
How long does Naval military occupation specialties training last?
5aced57a32bba1001ae4b676
True
One Station Unit Training
337
What does ASUT stand for?
5aced57a32bba1001ae4b677
True
Training in the U.S. Army is generally divided into two categories – individual and collective. Basic training consists of 10 weeks for most recruits followed by Advanced Individualized Training (AIT) where they receive training for their military occupational specialties (MOS). Some individuals MOSs range anywhere from 14–20 weeks of One Station Unit Training (OSUT), which combines Basic Training and AIT. The length of AIT school varies by the MOS The length of time spent in AIT depends on the MOS of the soldier, and some highly technical MOS training may require many months (e.g., foreign language translators). Depending on the needs of the army, Basic Combat Training for combat arms soldiers is conducted at a number of locations, but two of the longest-running are the Armor School and the Infantry School, both at Fort Benning, Georgia.
What does the SAW in M249 SAW stand for?
570d6f14fed7b91900d460ed
Squad Automatic Weapon
91
False
What kind of gunfire is the M249 SAW generally used for?
570d6f14fed7b91900d460ee
suppressive fire
127
False
What is the Mossberg 590 used for?
570d6f14fed7b91900d460ef
door breaching and close-quarters combat
304
False
What gun do designated marksmen use?
570d6f14fed7b91900d460f0
M14EBR
350
False
What semi-automatic sniper do Snipers use?
570d6f14fed7b91900d460f1
M110
476
False
Squad Automatic Weapon
91
What does SAW in M248 stand for?
5aced8cd32bba1001ae4b73d
True
suppressive fire
127
What kind of gunfire is the M248 SAW generally used for?
5aced8cd32bba1001ae4b73e
True
M14EBR
350
What gun do designated marksmen use the least?
5aced8cd32bba1001ae4b73f
True
M110
476
What type of automatic weapon do snipers use?
5aced8cd32bba1001ae4b740
True
Many units are supplemented with a variety of specialized weapons, including the M249 SAW (Squad Automatic Weapon), to provide suppressive fire at the fire-team level. Indirect fire is provided by the M203 grenade launcher. The M1014 Joint Service Combat Shotgun or the Mossberg 590 Shotgun are used for door breaching and close-quarters combat. The M14EBR is used by designated marksmen. Snipers use the M107 Long Range Sniper Rifle, the M2010 Enhanced Sniper Rifle, and the M110 Semi-Automatic Sniper Rifle.
How many MRAP vehicles has the Pentagon bought since 2007?
570d7376fed7b91900d46145
25,000
20
False
How many of the 25,000 vehicles do they plan on getting rid of?
570d7376fed7b91900d46146
7,456
161
False
How many of the vehicles will be used for training?
570d7376fed7b91900d46147
1,073
276
False
The Army will be keeping 5,681 of what vehicle?
570d7376fed7b91900d46148
Oshkosh M-ATV
371
False
What type of ambulance will the Army have 301 of?
570d7376fed7b91900d46149
Maxxpro
591
False
25,000
20
How many MRAP vehicles has the pentagon bought since 2000?
5aceda0232bba1001ae4b75f
True
7,456
161
How many of the 25,00 vehicles does they plan on selling?
5aceda0232bba1001ae4b760
True
1,073
276
How many vehicles does the Army plan on not using for training?
5aceda0232bba1001ae4b761
True
8,585
187
How many vehicles will the Navy be keeping?
5aceda0232bba1001ae4b762
True
Maxxpro
591
What type of tank will the the Army have 301 of?
5aceda0232bba1001ae4b763
True
The Pentagon bought 25,000 MRAP vehicles since 2007 in 25 variants through rapid acquisition with no long-term plans for the platforms. The Army plans to divest 7,456 vehicles and retain 8,585. Of the total number of vehicles the Army will keep, 5,036 will be put in storage, 1,073 will be used for training, and the remainder will be spread across the active force. The Oshkosh M-ATV will be kept the most at 5,681 vehicles, as it is smaller and lighter than other MRAPs for off-road mobility. The other most retained vehicle will be the Navistar MaxxPro Dash with 2,633 vehicles, plus 301 Maxxpro ambulances. Thousands of other MRAPs like the Cougar, BAE Caiman, and larger MaxxPros will be disposed of.
What piece of the uniform has been replaced by the patrol cap?
570d7463b3d812140066d97f
black beret
14
False
Who was the Army Chief of Staff at this time?
570d7463b3d812140066d980
General Martin Dempsey
234
False
What month and year was the black beret replaced?
570d7463b3d812140066d981
June 2011
296
False
If a soldier is in a unit in jump status, what color beret do they wear?
570d7463b3d812140066d982
maroon
429
False
The rifle green beret is worn by whom?
570d7463b3d812140066d983
Special Forces
542
False
black beret
14
What piece of uniform has been replaced by the patrol top?
5aced7a832bba1001ae4b6ed
True
General Martin Dempsey
234
Who is the Navy Chief of Staff at this time?
5aced7a832bba1001ae4b6ee
True
June 2011
296
What month and year was the black shirt replaced?
5aced7a832bba1001ae4b6ef
True
maroon
429
What color beret does a soldier in a unit with permanent status wear?
5aced7a832bba1001ae4b6f0
True
rifle green
558
What color beret does the member of the 76th Ranger Regiment wear?
5aced7a832bba1001ae4b6f1
True
The U.S. Army black beret (having been permanently replaced with the patrol cap) is no longer worn with the new ACU for garrison duty. After years of complaints that it wasn't suited well for most work conditions, Army Chief of Staff General Martin Dempsey eliminated it for wear with the ACU in June 2011. Soldiers still wear berets who are currently in a unit in jump status, whether the wearer is parachute-qualified, or not (maroon beret), Members of the 75th Ranger Regiment and the Airborne and Ranger Training Brigade (tan beret), and Special Forces (rifle green beret) and may wear it with the Army Service Uniform for non-ceremonial functions. Unit commanders may still direct the wear of patrol caps in these units in training environments or motor pools.
How many military departments does the Department of Defense have?
570d7b58b3d812140066d9d5
three
101
False
What does SECARMY stand for?
570d7b58b3d812140066d9d6
Secretary of the Army
232
False
What does CSA stand for?
570d7b58b3d812140066d9d7
Chief of Staff of the Army
302
False
At the end of 2016, how many soldiers were in the Regular Army?
570d7b58b3d812140066d9d8
475,000
469
False
How many soldiers were there in the entire U.S. Army at the end of 2016?
570d7b58b3d812140066d9d9
1,015,000
657
False
three military departments
101
How many military departments does the Department of Agriculture have?
5aceb52432bba1001ae4b0f1
True
Secretary of the Army
232
What does SAACRMY stand for?
5aceb52432bba1001ae4b0f2
True
Chief of Staff of the Army
302
What does CSS stand for?
5aceb52432bba1001ae4b0f3
True
475,000
469
At the end of 2016,how many women were in the Regular Army?
5aceb52432bba1001ae4b0f4
True
1,015,000
657
How many women soldiers were there in the entire U.S. Army at the end of 2016?
5aceb52432bba1001ae4b0f5
True
As a uniformed military service, the Army is part of the Department of the Army, which is one of the three military departments of the Department of Defense. The U.S. Army is headed by a civilian senior appointed civil servant, the Secretary of the Army (SECARMY), and by a chief military officer, the Chief of Staff of the Army (CSA) who is also a member of the Joint Chiefs of Staff. In the fiscal year 2016, the projected end strength for the Regular Army (USA) was 475,000 soldiers; the Army National Guard (ARNG) had 342,000 soldiers, and the United States Army Reserve (USAR) had 198,000 soldiers; the combined-component strength of the U.S. Army was 1,015,000 soldiers. As a branch of the armed forces, the mission of the U.S. Army is "to fight and win our Nation's wars, by providing prompt, sustained, land dominance, across the full range of military operations and the spectrum of conflict, in support of combatant commanders." The service participates in conflicts worldwide and is the major ground-based offensive and defensive force.
What Indian tribe was the Army's major campaign against?
570d7c81fed7b91900d461c7
Seminoles
76
False
During what years did the wars between the Army and the Seminoles take place?
570d7c81fed7b91900d461c8
1818–58
106
False
What state were the Seminoles moved to?
570d7c81fed7b91900d461c9
Oklahoma
164
False
What did the Army traditionally take control of to defeat the Indians?
570d7c81fed7b91900d461ca
winter food supply
244
False
During what century did the Seminoles enter Florida?
570d7c81fed7b91900d461cb
eighteenth
511
False
Seminoles
76
What American tribe was the Army's major campaign against?
5acec28832bba1001ae4b307
True
1818–58
106
During what years did the wars between the Army and British take place?
5acec28832bba1001ae4b308
True
Oklahoma
164
What state did the Pilgrims move to?
5acec28832bba1001ae4b309
True
winter food supply
244
What did the Navy traditionally take control of to defeat the Indians?
5acec28832bba1001ae4b30a
True
eighteenth
511
During what century did the Seminoles enter Texas?
5acec28832bba1001ae4b30b
True
The army's major campaign against the Indians was fought in Florida against Seminoles. It took long wars (1818–58) to finally defeat the Seminoles and move them to Oklahoma. The usual strategy in Indian wars was to seize control of the Indians winter food supply, but that was no use in Florida where there was no winter. The second strategy was to form alliances with other Indian tribes, but that too was useless because the Seminoles had destroyed all the other Indians when they entered Florida in the late eighteenth century.
What year did the Korean War start?
570d7ed6b3d812140066da05
1950
124
False
Who walked out of the U.N. security meeting?
570d7ed6b3d812140066da06
the Soviets
135
False
In what two countries did the American troops fight Communist forces?
570d7ed6b3d812140066da07
Korea and Vietnam
81
False
In what year did the Korean war end?
570d7ed6b3d812140066da08
1953
575
False
1950
124
What year did the Vietnam War begin?
5acec88e32bba1001ae4b3dd
True
the Soviets
135
Who entered the U.N. security meeting?
5acec88e32bba1001ae4b3de
True
Korea and Vietnam
81
In what two countries did the American troops fight for Communist forces?
5acec88e32bba1001ae4b3df
True
1953
575
In what year did the Vietnam War end?
5acec88e32bba1001ae4b3e0
True
During the Cold War, American troops and their allies fought Communist forces in Korea and Vietnam. The Korean War began in 1950, when the Soviets walked out of a U.N. Security meeting, removing their possible veto. Under a United Nations umbrella, hundreds of thousands of U.S. troops fought to prevent the takeover of South Korea by North Korea, and later, to invade the northern nation. After repeated advances and retreats by both sides, and the PRC People's Volunteer Army's entry into the war, the Korean Armistice Agreement returned the peninsula to the status quo in 1953.
In 1989, what did the Pentagon plan to reduce the army end strength to?
570d80d7fed7b91900d461d7
580,000
264
False
Which country did Iraq invade in 1990?
570d80d7fed7b91900d461d8
Kuwait
375
False
What operation began in January 1991?
570d80d7fed7b91900d461d9
Desert Storm
490
False
How many troops were involved in Operation Desert Storm?
570d80d7fed7b91900d461da
500,000
555
False
How long did Operation Desert Storm last?
570d80d7fed7b91900d461db
one hundred hours
768
False
580,000
264
What did the Pentagon pan to increase the army strength to?
5acecc4b32bba1001ae4b469
True
Kuwait
375
What state did Iraq invade in 1990?
5acecc4b32bba1001ae4b46a
True
Operation Desert Storm
480
What operation ended in January 1991?
5acecc4b32bba1001ae4b46b
True
one hundred hours.
768
How many months did Operation Desert Storm last?
5acecc4b32bba1001ae4b46c
True
500,000 troops
555
How many Canadian-led troops were deployed?
5acecc4b32bba1001ae4b46d
True
By 1989 Germany was nearing reunification and the Cold War was coming to a close. Army leadership reacted by starting to plan for a reduction in strength. By November 1989 Pentagon briefers were laying out plans to reduce army end strength by 23%, from 750,000 to 580,000. A number of incentives such as early retirement were used. In 1990 Iraq invaded its smaller neighbor, Kuwait, and U.S. land forces, quickly deployed to assure the protection of Saudi Arabia. In January 1991 Operation Desert Storm commenced, a U.S.-led coalition which deployed over 500,000 troops, the bulk of them from U.S. Army formations, to drive out Iraqi forces. The campaign ended in total victory, as Western coalition forces routed the Iraqi Army, organized along Soviet lines, in just one hundred hours.
What year was the U.S. army organized?
570d875efed7b91900d461e9
1775
50
False
What group combined with the U.S. Army?
570d875efed7b91900d461ea
United States Volunteers
342
False
Who raised the United States Volunteers?
570d875efed7b91900d461eb
various state governments
402
False
1775
50
What year was the Canadian army organized?
5acecedc32bba1001ae4b4bf
True
United States Volunteers
342
What group combined with the U.S. Navy?
5acecedc32bba1001ae4b4c0
True
various state governments
402
Who dismantled the United States Volunteers?
5acecedc32bba1001ae4b4c1
True
militias
462
What did cities maintain full-time?
5acecedc32bba1001ae4b4c2
True
militias
462
What is also called into the service of the Navy?
5acecedc32bba1001ae4b4c3
True
The task of organizing the U.S. Army commenced in 1775. In the first one hundred years of its existence, the United States Army was maintained as a small peacetime force to man permanent forts and perform other non-wartime duties such as engineering and construction works. During times of war, the U.S. Army was augmented by the much larger United States Volunteers which were raised independently by various state governments. States also maintained full-time militias which could also be called into the service of the army.
What is the active component of the U.S. Army?
570d88cdfed7b91900d461ef
Regular Army
81
False
What are the two reserve components of the U.S. Army?
570d88cdfed7b91900d461f0
Army National Guard and the Army Reserve
127
False
What are UTAs?
570d88cdfed7b91900d461f1
unit training assemblies
292
False
The U.S. Army is organized under what title of the United States Code?
570d88cdfed7b91900d461f2
10
455
False
Who does the D.C. National Guard report to?
570d88cdfed7b91900d461f3
the U.S. President
803
False
Regular Army
81
What is the inactive component of the U.S. Army?
5aced13232bba1001ae4b577
True
Army National Guard and the Army Reserve
127
What are the two reserve components of the U.S. Navy?
5aced13232bba1001ae4b578
True
10
455
The U.S. Army is organized under what title of the United Nations Code?
5aced13232bba1001ae4b579
True
U.S. President
807
Who does the D.C. National Navy report to?
5aced13232bba1001ae4b57a
True
The United States Army is made up of three components: the active component, the Regular Army; and two reserve components, the Army National Guard and the Army Reserve. Both reserve components are primarily composed of part-time soldiers who train once a month, known as battle assemblies or unit training assemblies (UTAs), and conduct two to three weeks of annual training each year. Both the Regular Army and the Army Reserve are organized under Title 10 of the United States Code, while the National Guard is organized under Title 32. While the Army National Guard is organized, trained and equipped as a component of the U.S. Army, when it is not in federal service it is under the command of individual state and territorial governors; the District of Columbia National Guard, however, reports to the U.S. President, not the district's mayor, even when not federalized. Any or all of the National Guard can be federalized by presidential order and against the governor's wishes.
What does ASI stand for?
570d8c85fed7b91900d46203
additional skill identifier
134
False
What is are combat medics duties?
570d8c85fed7b91900d46204
provide pre-hospital emergency treatment
309
False
Where do the officers go to complete their branch specific training?
570d8c85fed7b91900d46205
Basic Officer Leaders Course
671
False
If the officers want to advance their careers even further, where is that available?
570d8c85fed7b91900d46206
Army Correspondence Course Program
863
False
additional skill identifier
134
What does ISI stand for?
5aced68932bba1001ae4b6ad
True
Basic Officer Leaders Course
671
Where do ensigns go to complete their branch specific training?
5aced68932bba1001ae4b6ae
True
at USMA, or via ROTC
557
Where does post-commissioning training take place?
5aced68932bba1001ae4b6af
True
cardiovascular specialist, a dialysis specialist, or even a licensed practical nurse
388
What does ISi training is offered?
5aced68932bba1001ae4b6b0
True
Following their basic and advanced training at the individual-level, soldiers may choose to continue their training and apply for an "additional skill identifier" (ASI). The ASI allows the army to take a wide ranging MOS and focus it into a more specific MOS. For example, a combat medic, whose duties are to provide pre-hospital emergency treatment, may receive ASI training to become a cardiovascular specialist, a dialysis specialist, or even a licensed practical nurse. For commissioned officers, ASI training includes pre-commissioning training either at USMA, or via ROTC, or by completing OCS. After commissioning, officers undergo branch specific training at the Basic Officer Leaders Course, (formerly called Officer Basic Course), which varies in time and location according their future assignments. Further career development is available through the Army Correspondence Course Program.
What does the army use for facilities while they are deployed?
570d90eeb3d812140066da3d
tents
31
False
What are the barracks used for?
570d90eeb3d812140066da3e
sleeping quarters
169
False
Where are the dining facilities called?
570d90eeb3d812140066da3f
DFAC buildings
189
False
What does FOB stand for?
570d90eeb3d812140066da40
forward operating bases
225
False
What is the abbreviation for a tactical operations center?
570d90eeb3d812140066da41
TOC
312
False
tents
31
What does the Coast Guard use for facilities while they are deployed?
5aced40a32bba1001ae4b627
True
sleeping quarters
169
What are DFAC ships used for?
5aced40a32bba1001ae4b628
True
forward operating bases
225
What does FAB stand for?
5aced40a32bba1001ae4b629
True
barracks
159
Where are horses stabled?
5aced40a32bba1001ae4b62a
True
Natick Soldier Systems Center
474
Who dismantles tents?
5aced40a32bba1001ae4b62b
True
The army has relied heavily on tents to provide the various facilities needed while on deployment. The most common tent uses for the military are as temporary barracks (sleeping quarters), DFAC buildings (dining facilities), forward operating bases (FOBs), after action review (AAR), tactical operations center (TOC), morale, welfare, and recreation (MWR) facilities, and security checkpoints. Furthermore, most of these tents are set up and operated through the support of Natick Soldier Systems Center.
Which war had the most U.S. casualties associated with it?
570d9363b3d812140066da5b
The American Civil War
0
False
What were the U.S. forces referred to as?
570d9363b3d812140066da5c
the "Union" or "the North"
303
False
What state did not contribute any troops to the Union Army?
570d9363b3d812140066da5d
South Carolina
487
False
American Civil War
4
Which war had the least U.S. casualties with it?
5acec34832bba1001ae4b317
True
the "Union" or "the North
303
What were the Southern forces referred to as?
5acec34832bba1001ae4b318
True
South Carolina
487
What state contributed the most troops to the Union Army?
5acec34832bba1001ae4b319
True
American Civil War
4
What was the least expensive war for the U.S.?
5acec34832bba1001ae4b31a
True
The American Civil War was the costliest war for the U.S. in terms of casualties. After most slave states, located in the southern U.S., formed the Confederate States, C.S. troops led by former U.S. Army officers, mobilized a very large fraction of Southern white manpower. Forces of the United States (the "Union" or "the North") formed the Union Army consisting of a small body of regular army units and a large body of volunteer units raised from every state, north and south, except South Carolina.[citation needed]
In what year did the army start using fixed-wing aircraft?
570d94bdb3d812140066da61
1910
12
False
Who attacked New Mexico in 1916?
570d94bdb3d812140066da62
Pancho Villa
254
False
What year did the U.S. join World War I?
570d94bdb3d812140066da63
1917
490
False
What date did the U.S. intervention in New Mexico end?
570d94bdb3d812140066da64
7 February 1917
367
False
1910
12
What year did the army start the left-wing aircraft?
5acec5db32bba1001ae4b367
True
Pancho Villa
254
Who surrendered New Mexico in 1916?
5acec5db32bba1001ae4b368
True
1917
490
What year did the Chinese join World War I?
5acec5db32bba1001ae4b369
True
7 February 1917
367
What date did the U.S. intervention in New York end?
5acec5db32bba1001ae4b36a
True
Starting in 1910, the army began acquiring fixed-wing aircraft. In 1910, Mexico was having a civil war, peasant rebels fighting government soldiers. The army was deployed to American towns near the border to ensure safety to lives and property. In 1916, Pancho Villa, a major rebel leader, attacked Columbus, New Mexico, prompting a U.S. intervention in Mexico until 7 February 1917. They fought the rebels and the Mexican federal troops until 1918. The United States joined World War I in 1917 on the side of Britain, France, Russia, Italy and other allies. U.S. troops were sent to the Western Front and were involved in the last offensives that ended the war. With the armistice in November 1918, the army once again decreased its forces.
Who was the Secretary of Defense in 1967?
570d95b5b3d812140066da7d
Robert McNamara
279
False
How many divisions did the Secretary of Defense cut the original 15 down to?
570d95b5b3d812140066da7e
8
394
False
How many brigades did the Secretary of Defense increase the number to?
570d95b5b3d812140066da7f
18
505
False
Robert McNamara
279
Who was the President of Defense in 1967?
5acecadc32bba1001ae4b41f
True
8
394
How many division did the Secretary of Defense cut the original 10 down to?
5acecadc32bba1001ae4b420
True
18
505
How many brigades did the Secretary of Defense decrease the number to?
5acecadc32bba1001ae4b421
True
the inadequate maneuver element mix for those that remained and the end to the practice of rotating divisional commands among the states that supported them
659
What suggestions did the states have regarding increase of division?
5acecadc32bba1001ae4b422
True
December 1967 and 1 May 1968
1109
What year did the federal government reorganize their forces?
5acecadc32bba1001ae4b423
True
During the 1960s the Department of Defense continued to scrutinize the reserve forces and to question the number of divisions and brigades as well as the redundancy of maintaining two reserve components, the Army National Guard and the Army Reserve. In 1967 Secretary of Defense Robert McNamara decided that 15 combat divisions in the Army National Guard were unnecessary and cut the number to 8 divisions (1 mechanized infantry, 2 armored, and 5 infantry), but increased the number of brigades from 7 to 18 (1 airborne, 1 armored, 2 mechanized infantry, and 14 infantry). The loss of the divisions did not set well with the states. Their objections included the inadequate maneuver element mix for those that remained and the end to the practice of rotating divisional commands among the states that supported them. Under the proposal, the remaining division commanders were to reside in the state of the division base. No reduction, however, in total Army National Guard strength was to take place, which convinced the governors to accept the plan. The states reorganized their forces accordingly between 1 December 1967 and 1 May 1968.
How many victims were killed in the attack on the Pentagon?
570d965afed7b91900d4624d
125
107
False
What aircraft was hijacked?
570d965afed7b91900d4624e
American Airlines Flight 77
169
False
Did they crash into the eastern or wester part of the Pentagon.
570d965afed7b91900d4624f
west
254
False
Who was the highest ranking official killed in the attack?
570d965afed7b91900d46250
Lieutenant General Timothy Maude
321
False
125
107
How many victims were killed in the attack of the White House?
5acecd5532bba1001ae4b49b
True
American Airlines Flight 77
169
What aircraft was released by terrorists?
5acecd5532bba1001ae4b49c
True
western side
254
Did the plane crash into the eastern or western part of the White HOuse?
5acecd5532bba1001ae4b49d
True
Lieutenant General Simon B. Buckner, Jr.
502
Who was the lowest ranking official killed in the attack?
5acecd5532bba1001ae4b49e
True
On September 11, 2001, 53 Army civilians (47 employees and six contractors) and 22 soldiers were among the 125 victims killed in the Pentagon in a terrorist attack when American Airlines Flight 77 commandeered by five Al-Qaeda hijackers slammed into the western side of the building, as part of the September 11 attacks. Lieutenant General Timothy Maude was the highest-ranking military official killed at the Pentagon, and the most senior U.S. Army officer killed by foreign action since the death of Lieutenant General Simon B. Buckner, Jr. on June 18, 1945, in the Battle of Okinawa during World War II.
What is the army replacing divisions with?
570d9cecdf2f5219002ed040
brigades
58
False
How will the brigades be structured?
570d9cecdf2f5219002ed041
modular
286
False
Who can command any brigade?
570d9cecdf2f5219002ed042
divisional headquarters
111
False
brigades
58
What is the Coast Guard replacing divisions with?
5aced34532bba1001ae4b60f
True
modular
286
How will the brigades be deconstructed?
5aced34532bba1001ae4b610
True
divisional headquarters
111
Who can command any branch of the Army?
5aced34532bba1001ae4b611
True
Division lineage
68
What is being dismissed?
5aced34532bba1001ae4b612
True
The army is also changing its base unit from divisions to brigades. Division lineage will be retained, but the divisional headquarters will be able to command any brigade, not just brigades that carry their divisional lineage. The central part of this plan is that each brigade will be modular, i.e., all brigades of the same type will be exactly the same, and thus any brigade can be commanded by any division. As specified before the 2013 end-strength re-definitions, the three major types of ground combat brigades are:
What is the primary sidearm used by the U.S. Army?
570d9d86df2f5219002ed050
9 mm M9 pistol
297
False
What type of frag grenade is used by the U.S. Army?
570d9d86df2f5219002ed051
M67
485
False
The M18 is a type of what kind of grenade?
570d9d86df2f5219002ed052
smoke
519
False
Through what system are handguns being replacedby the U.S. Army?
570d9d86df2f5219002ed053
Modular Handgun System
387
False
9 mm M9 pistol
297
What is the primary sidearm used by the Coast Guard?
5aced85832bba1001ae4b721
True
M67
485
What type of frag grenade is used by the Coast Guard?
5aced85832bba1001ae4b722
True
smoke
519
What type of grenade is the M17?
5aced85832bba1001ae4b723
True
Modular Handgun System program
387
What system is replacing hats in the U.S. Army?
5aced85832bba1001ae4b724
True
M16 rifle, the M4 carbine, as well as the 7.62×51mm variant of the FN SCAR
160
What are the most common weapons used by the Navy?
5aced85832bba1001ae4b725
True
The army employs various individual weapons to provide light firepower at short ranges. The most common weapons used by the army are the compact variant of the M16 rifle, the M4 carbine, as well as the 7.62×51mm variant of the FN SCAR for Army Rangers. The primary sidearm in the U.S. Army is the 9 mm M9 pistol; the M11 pistol is also used. Both handguns are to be replaced through the Modular Handgun System program. Soldiers are also equiped with various hand grenades, such as the M67 fragmentation grenade and M18 smoke grenade.
What does HMMWV stand for?
570d9e64df2f5219002ed062
High Mobility Multipurpose Wheeled Vehicle
38
False
What is the HMMWV also known as?
570d9e64df2f5219002ed063
Humvee
110
False
The M1A2 Abrams is an example of what?
570d9e64df2f5219002ed064
battle tank
396
False
What does MRAP stand for?
570d9e64df2f5219002ed065
Mine Resistant Ambush Protected
573
False
High Mobility Multipurpose Wheeled Vehicle
38
What does HMMWA stand for?
5aced94e32bba1001ae4b74d
True
Humvee
110
What is the HMMWA also known as?
5aced94e32bba1001ae4b74e
True
Mine Resistant Ambush Protected
573
What does MRAA stand for?
5aced94e32bba1001ae4b74f
True
HEMTT vehicles
345
What is the least common type of combat support vehicles?
5aced94e32bba1001ae4b750
True
The army's most common vehicle is the High Mobility Multipurpose Wheeled Vehicle (HMMWV), commonly called the Humvee, which is capable of serving as a cargo/troop carrier, weapons platform, and ambulance, among many other roles. While they operate a wide variety of combat support vehicles, one of the most common types centers on the family of HEMTT vehicles. The M1A2 Abrams is the army's main battle tank, while the M2A3 Bradley is the standard infantry fighting vehicle. Other vehicles include the Stryker, and the M113 armored personnel carrier, and multiple types of Mine Resistant Ambush Protected (MRAP) vehicles.
Franco-Prussian_War
Under what Prussian king did the German empire unite as a nation-state?
570d2a29b3d812140066d4c7
Wilhelm I
87
False
What was the date of the Treaty of Frankfurt?
570d2a29b3d812140066d4c8
10 May 1871
160
False
The Treaty of Frankfurt gave Germany which Imperial territory?
570d2a29b3d812140066d4c9
Alsace-Lorraine
267
False
Following the unification of Germany, who maintained great authority in international affairs for two decades?
570d2a29b3d812140066d4ca
Otto von Bismarck
469
False
Which specific fear was a factor in causing World War I?
570d2a29b3d812140066d4cb
another Franco-German war
615
False
The German states proclaimed their union as the German Empire under the Prussian king, Wilhelm I, uniting Germany as a nation-state. The Treaty of Frankfurt of 10 May 1871 gave Germany most of Alsace and some parts of Lorraine, which became the Imperial territory of Alsace-Lorraine (Reichsland Elsaß-Lothringen).The German conquest of France and the unification of Germany upset the European balance of power, that had existed since the Congress of Vienna in 1815 and Otto von Bismarck maintained great authority in international affairs for two decades. French determination to regain Alsace-Lorraine and fear of another Franco-German war, along with British apprehension about the balance of power, became factors in the causes of World War I.
What telegram had the intended effect on French public opinion?
570d2d98fed7b91900d45cc5
Ems telegram
4
False
Following the Ems telegram, what reaction did the French foreign minister report that he felt?
570d2d98fed7b91900d45cc6
he felt "he had just received a slap"
233
False
In Parliament, who was the leader of the monarchists?
570d2d98fed7b91900d45cc7
Adolphe Thiers
317
False
Which French prime minister believed he had done all that he could to prevent a war?
570d2d98fed7b91900d45cc8
Emile Ollivier
539
False
On which date did France issue a declaration of war to the Prussian government?
570d2d98fed7b91900d45cc9
19 July 1870
833
False
The Ems telegram had exactly the effect on French public opinion that Bismarck had intended. "This text produced the effect of a red flag on the Gallic bull", Bismarck later wrote. Gramont, the French foreign minister, declared that he felt "he had just received a slap". The leader of the monarchists in Parliament, Adolphe Thiers, spoke for moderation, arguing that France had won the diplomatic battle and there was no reason for war, but he was drowned out by cries that he was a traitor and a Prussian. Napoleon's new prime minister, Emile Ollivier, declared that France had done all that it could humanly and honorably do to prevent the war, and that he accepted the responsibility "with a light heart." A crowd of 15–20,000 people, carrying flags and patriotic banners, marched through the streets of Paris, demanding war. On 19 July 1870 a declaration of war was sent to the Prussian government. The southern German states immediately sided with Prussia.
In which battle did the Dreyse needle gun gain its fame?
570d2fe9fed7b91900d45cd9
Battle of Königgrätz
58
False
At the start of the Franco-Prussian War, what was the age of the Dreyse gun's design?
570d2fe9fed7b91900d45cda
25-year-old design
131
False
What was the Dreyse rifle's tactical range?
570d2fe9fed7b91900d45cdb
600 m (2,000 ft)
181
False
What was the name of the famous cannon issued to Prussian soldiers at the time?
570d2fe9fed7b91900d45cdc
Krupp
340
False
What type of shell did the Krupp weapon fire?
570d2fe9fed7b91900d45cdd
a contact-detonated shell
445
False
The army was still equipped with the Dreyse needle gun of Battle of Königgrätz fame, which was by this time showing the age of its 25-year-old design. The rifle had a range of only 600 m (2,000 ft) and lacked the rubber breech seal that permitted aimed shots. The deficiencies of the needle gun were more than compensated for by the famous Krupp 6-pounder (3 kg) steel breech-loading cannons being issued to Prussian artillery batteries. Firing a contact-detonated shell, the Krupp gun had a longer range and a higher rate of fire than the French bronze muzzle loading cannon, which relied on faulty time fuses.
What was the date of the first action of the Franco-Prussian War?
570d367efed7b91900d45d1f
4 August 1870
58
False
On that date, which elements were assisted by Prussian artillery forces?
570d367efed7b91900d45d20
Bavarian and two Prussian corps
314
False
Who initially held a strong position during the battle at the border?
570d367efed7b91900d45d21
General Douay of I Corps
117
False
Douay's initial success was credited by what?
570d367efed7b91900d45d22
long-range fire of the Chassepots
516
False
What threatened the French avenue of retreat?
570d367efed7b91900d45d23
the encirclement of the town by the Prussians
711
False
The first action of the Franco-Prussian War took place on 4 August 1870. This battle saw the unsupported division of General Douay of I Corps, with some attached cavalry, which was posted to watch the border, attacked in overwhelming but uncoordinated fashion by the German 3rd Army. During the day, elements of a Bavarian and two Prussian corps became engaged and were aided by Prussian artillery, which blasted holes in the defenses of the town. Douay held a very strong position initially, thanks to the accurate long-range fire of the Chassepots but his force was too thinly stretched to hold it. Douay was killed in the late morning when a caisson of the divisional mitrailleuse battery exploded near him; the encirclement of the town by the Prussians threatened the French avenue of retreat.
What factor were the French unaware of at the start of the battle?
570d3aa2b3d812140066d591
German numerical superiority
27
False
Which French commander miscalculated the severity of the battle?
570d3aa2b3d812140066d592
Frossard
190
False
What was a key factor in Frossard's disasterous retreat to the south?
570d3aa2b3d812140066d593
Seriously flawed communications
331
False
What factor was credited to the large number of German casualties?
570d3aa2b3d812140066d594
effectiveness of the chassepot rifle
939
False
What outcome surprised the Germans the following day?
570d3aa2b3d812140066d595
Frossard had abandoned his position
1077
False
The French were unaware of German numerical superiority at the beginning of the battle as the German 2nd Army did not attack all at once. Treating the oncoming attacks as merely skirmishes, Frossard did not request additional support from other units. By the time he realized what kind of a force he was opposing, it was too late. Seriously flawed communications between Frossard and those in reserve under Bazaine slowed down so much that by the time the reserves received orders to move out to Spicheren, German soldiers from the 1st and 2nd armies had charged up the heights. Because the reserves had not arrived, Frossard erroneously believed that he was in grave danger of being outflanked as German soldiers under General von Glume were spotted in Forbach. Instead of continuing to defend the heights, by the close of battle after dusk he retreated to the south. The German casualties were relatively high due to the advance and the effectiveness of the chassepot rifle. They were quite startled in the morning when they had found out that their efforts were not in vain—Frossard had abandoned his position on the heights.
On which date was the Battle of Gravelotte?
570d3cb9b3d812140066d5c3
18 August
52
False
Which battle was considered the biggest in the war?
570d3cb9b3d812140066d5c4
The Battle of Gravelotte
0
False
Where was the location of the Battle of Gravelotte?
570d3cb9b3d812140066d5c5
6 miles (9.7 km) west of Metz
139
False
Under which Field Marshall were the combined German forces commanded?
570d3cb9b3d812140066d5c6
Count Helmuth von Moltke
417
False
Who commanded the French Army of the Rhine?
570d3cb9b3d812140066d5c7
Marshal François-Achille Bazaine
683
False
The Battle of Gravelotte, or Gravelotte–St. Privat (18 August), was the largest battle during the Franco-Prussian War. It was fought about 6 miles (9.7 km) west of Metz, where on the previous day, having intercepted the French army's retreat to the west at the Battle of Mars-La-Tour, the Prussians were now closing in to complete the destruction of the French forces. The combined German forces, under Field Marshal Count Helmuth von Moltke, were the Prussian First and Second Armies of the North German Confederation numbering about 210 infantry battalions, 133 cavalry squadrons, and 732 heavy cannons totaling 188,332 officers and men. The French Army of the Rhine, commanded by Marshal François-Achille Bazaine, numbering about 183 infantry battalions, 104 cavalry squadrons, backed by 520 heavy cannons, totaling 112,800 officers and men, dug in along high ground with their southern left flank at the town of Rozerieulles, and their northern right flank at St. Privat.
What factor forced the French to retreat to Metz?
570d3e52b3d812140066d5d5
the defeat of Marshal Bazaine's Army
5
False
At Metz, what was the approximate number of Prussian troops?
570d3e52b3d812140066d5d6
over 150,000
140
False
Who formed the new French Army of Chalons?
570d3e52b3d812140066d5d7
Napoleon III and MacMahon
201
False
Along with the Army of the Meuse, what other army did Moltke march north with?
570d3e52b3d812140066d5d8
the Prussian Third Army
832
False
How many casualties did Moltke suffer at Beaumont?
570d3e52b3d812140066d5d9
5,000 men
977
False
With the defeat of Marshal Bazaine's Army of the Rhine at Gravelotte, the French were forced to retire to Metz, where they were besieged by over 150,000 Prussian troops of the First and Second Armies. Napoleon III and MacMahon formed the new French Army of Châlons, to march on to Metz to rescue Bazaine. Napoleon III personally led the army with Marshal MacMahon in attendance. The Army of Châlons marched northeast towards the Belgian border to avoid the Prussians before striking south to link up with Bazaine. The Prussians, under the command of Field Marshal Count Helmuth von Moltke, took advantage of this maneuver to catch the French in a pincer grip. He left the Prussian First and Second Armies besieging Metz, except three corps detached to form the Army of the Meuse under the Crown Prince of Saxony. With this army and the Prussian Third Army, Moltke marched northward and caught up with the French at Beaumont on 30 August. After a sharp fight in which they lost 5,000 men and 40 cannons, the French withdrew toward Sedan. Having reformed in the town, the Army of Châlons was immediately isolated by the converging Prussian armies. Napoleon III ordered the army to break out of the encirclement immediately. With MacMahon wounded on the previous day, General Auguste Ducrot took command of the French troops in the field.
At the start of the war, which country did European public opinion champion?
570d4103b3d812140066d5f3
the Germans
64
False
In which city did many Italians attempt to proffer their services to the Prussian embassy?
570d4103b3d812140066d5f4
Florence
153
False
What caused a dramatic shift in Italian sentiment toward the war?
570d4103b3d812140066d5f5
Bismarck's demand for the return of Alsace
225
False
To whom is the quote, "Rescue the French Republic by every means" attributed?
570d4103b3d812140066d5f6
Garibaldi
366
False
What army did Garibaldi gain command of in France?
570d4103b3d812140066d5f7
the Army of the Vosges
638
False
When the war had begun, European public opinion heavily favored the Germans; many Italians attempted to sign up as volunteers at the Prussian embassy in Florence and a Prussian diplomat visited Giuseppe Garibaldi in Caprera. Bismarck's demand for the return of Alsace caused a dramatic shift in that sentiment in Italy, which was best exemplified by the reaction of Garibaldi soon after the revolution in Paris, who told the Movimento of Genoa on 7 September 1870 that "Yesterday I said to you: war to the death to Bonaparte. Today I say to you: rescue the French Republic by every means." Garibaldi went to France and assumed command of the Army of the Vosges, with which he operated around Dijon till the end of the war.
On which date did hostilities between the German and French troops begin near Orleans?
570d43dafed7b91900d45de1
10 October
3
False
Which side was initially successful at the Battle of Coulmiers?
570d43dafed7b91900d45de2
the Germans
101
False
On which date did the French triump over the Germans at the Battle of Coulmiers?
570d43dafed7b91900d45de3
9 November
219
False
On which date were the French forced to abandon Orleans?
570d43dafed7b91900d45de4
4 December
401
False
Of the three battles that occured north of Paris, which was the first that forced the French army to retreat?
570d43dafed7b91900d45de5
Battle of Amiens
555
False
On 10 October, hostilities began between German and French republican forces near Orléans. At first, the Germans were victorious but the French drew reinforcements and defeated the Germans at the Battle of Coulmiers on 9 November. After the surrender of Metz, more than 100,000 well-trained and experienced German troops joined the German 'Southern Army'. The French were forced to abandon Orléans on 4 December, and were finally defeated at the Battle of Le Mans (10–12 January). A second French army which operated north of Paris was turned back at the Battle of Amiens (27 November), the Battle of Bapaume (3 January 1871) and the Battle of St. Quentin (13 January).
What was public opinion in Paris strongly opposed to?
570d46d1b3d812140066d623
any form of surrender
54
False
On what date did president Trochu resign?
570d46d1b3d812140066d624
25 January
301
False
Who replaced President Trochu?
570d46d1b3d812140066d625
Favre
332
False
In which French city was the surrender made official?
570d46d1b3d812140066d626
Versailles
382
False
Who disregarded the surrender and launched a failed attack on the Germans?
570d46d1b3d812140066d627
Gambetta
637
False
Although public opinion in Paris was strongly against any form of surrender or concession to the Prussians, the Government realised that it could not hold the city for much longer, and that Gambetta's provincial armies would probably never break through to relieve Paris. President Trochu resigned on 25 January and was replaced by Favre, who signed the surrender two days later at Versailles, with the armistice coming into effect at midnight. Several sources claim that in his carriage on the way back to Paris, Favre broke into tears, and collapsed into his daughter's arms as the guns around Paris fell silent at midnight. At Tours, Gambetta received word from Paris on 30 January that the Government had surrendered. Furious, he refused to surrender and launched an immediate attack on German forces at Orleans which, predictably, failed. A delegation of Parisian diplomats arrived in Tours by train on 5 February to negotiate with Gambetta, and the following day Gambetta stepped down and surrendered control of the provincial armies to the Government of National Defence, which promptly ordered a cease-fire across France.
What stunned neutral observers about the end of the war?
570d4876b3d812140066d637
The quick German victory
0
False
What outcome had most people expected from the war?
570d4876b3d812140066d638
French victory
96
False
Whose strategic advantages were not appreciated until after the war over?
570d4876b3d812140066d639
the Germans
191
False
What German advantages were discerned by other countries in the aftermath?
570d4876b3d812140066d63a
their military system
349
False
What is at least one German innovation that other countries would later adopt in other wars?
570d4876b3d812140066d63b
highly detailed mobilization systems
470
False
The quick German victory over the French stunned neutral observers, many of whom had expected a French victory and most of whom had expected a long war. The strategic advantages possessed by the Germans were not appreciated outside Germany until after hostilities had ceased. Other countries quickly discerned the advantages given to the Germans by their military system, and adopted many of their innovations, particularly the General Staff, universal conscription and highly detailed mobilization systems.
The effect of German victory and ensuing influence stems back to what factor?
570d4ac8fed7b91900d45e1d
pre-war preparations
55
False
What was the Prussian General staff quick to utilize at the onset of the war?
570d4ac8fed7b91900d45e1e
detailed mobilization plans using the railway system
126
False
What was one factor behind the inefficiency of the French railway system?
570d4ac8fed7b91900d45e1f
multiple competing companies
329
False
What factor especially affected travel to the front in Alsace and Lorraine?
570d4ac8fed7b91900d45e20
frequent changes between trains
489
False
Who was responsible for dealing with chaotic train yards and unloaded wagons?
570d4ac8fed7b91900d45e21
nobody
736
False
The effect of these differences was accentuated by the pre-war preparations. The Prussian General Staff had drawn up minutely detailed mobilization plans using the railway system, which in turn had been partly laid out in response to recommendations of a Railway Section within the General Staff. The French railway system, with multiple competing companies, had developed purely from commercial pressures and many journeys to the front in Alsace and Lorraine involved long diversions and frequent changes between trains. Furthermore, no system had been put in place for military control of the railways, and officers simply commandeered trains as they saw fit. Rail sidings and marshalling yards became choked with loaded wagons, with nobody responsible for unloading them or directing them to the destination.
Who commanded the Prussian 12 Cavalry Brigade?
570d4c0efed7b91900d45e27
General Adalbert von Bredow
80
False
What did General von Bredow lead a charge against at the Battle of Mars-la-Tour?
570d4c0efed7b91900d45e28
a French artillery battery
136
False
What did von Bredow's Pyrrhic victory become known as?
570d4c0efed7b91900d45e29
von Bredow's Death Ride
221
False
What military tactic proved to be unsuccessful on the 1914 battlefields?
570d4c0efed7b91900d45e2a
Use of traditional cavalry
332
False
What was one of two factors that led von Bredow's narrow success on the battlefield?
570d4c0efed7b91900d45e2b
favorable terrain that masked his approach
610
False
At the Battle of Mars-la-Tours, the Prussian 12th Cavalry Brigade, commanded by General Adalbert von Bredow, conducted a charge against a French artillery battery. The attack was a costly success and came to be known as "von Bredow's Death Ride", which was held to prove that cavalry charges could still prevail on the battlefield. Use of traditional cavalry on the battlefields of 1914 proved to be disastrous, due to accurate, long-range rifle fire, machine-guns and artillery. Von Bredow's attack had succeeded only because of an unusually effective artillery bombardment just before the charge, along with favorable terrain that masked his approach.
In which Prussian province did a large Polish population reside?
570d4d53fed7b91900d45e43
Posen
28
False
What was there strong support of in Posen?
570d4d53fed7b91900d45e44
the French
96
False
What calls were made for the Polish recruits?
570d4d53fed7b91900d45e45
to desert from the Prussian Army
263
False
On what date did Bismarkck receive the disturbing report on the Posen situation?
570d4d53fed7b91900d45e46
16 August 1870
394
False
What significant consequence was a result of German-Polish relations?
570d4d53fed7b91900d45e47
prolonged period of repressive measures
612
False
In the Prussian province of Posen, with a large Polish population, there was strong support for the French and angry demonstrations at news of Prussian-German victories—a clear manifestation of Polish nationalist feeling. Calls were also made for Polish recruits to desert from the Prussian Army—though these went mainly unheeded. An alarming report on the Posen situation, sent to Bismarck on 16 August 1870, led to the quartering of reserve troop contingents in the restive province. The Franco-Prussian War thus turned out to be a significant event also in German–Polish relations, marking the beginning of a prolonged period of repressive measures by the authorities and efforts at Germanisation.
What are the causes of the Franco-Prussian War deeply rooted in?
570d4eb5b3d812140066d677
the unification of Germany
82
False
In the aftermath of the Austro-Prussian war, formed what group?
570d4eb5b3d812140066d678
North German Confederation
219
False
What was the effect of that new group on the European balance of power?
570d4eb5b3d812140066d679
new power destabilized
252
False
What established the European balance of power in 1815?
570d4eb5b3d812140066d67a
the Congress of Vienna
320
False
As Prussia sought to incorporated several German kingdoms, what stance did France assume?
570d4eb5b3d812140066d67b
strongly opposed to any further alliance of German states
820
False
The causes of the Franco-Prussian War are deeply rooted in the events surrounding the unification of Germany. In the aftermath of the Austro–Prussian War of 1866, Prussia had annexed numerous territories and formed the North German Confederation. This new power destabilized the European balance of power established by the Congress of Vienna in 1815 after the Napoleonic Wars. Napoleon III, then the emperor of France, demanded compensations in Belgium and on the left bank of the Rhine to secure France's strategic position, which the Prussian chancellor, Otto von Bismarck, flatly refused. Prussia then turned its attention towards the south of Germany, where it sought to incorporate the southern German kingdoms, Bavaria, Württemberg, Baden and Hesse-Darmstadt, into a unified Prussia-dominated Germany. France was strongly opposed to any further alliance of German states, which would have significantly strengthened the Prussian military.
In peacetime, what the approximate number of French soldiers?
570d502db3d812140066d69d
400,000
56
False
Veterans of the French Army had prviously fought in which war in Italy?
570d502db3d812140066d69e
the Franco-Austrian War
285
False
The "Seven Weeks War" was between which two countries?
570d502db3d812140066d69f
Prussia and Austria
399
False
Who reformed the low numbers of troops by implementing universal conscription?
570d502db3d812140066d6a0
Marshal Adolphe Niel
586
False
If a citizen was for some reason not conscripted, in what militia were they were registered?
570d502db3d812140066d6a1
the Garde Mobile
910
False
The French Army consisted in peacetime of approximately 400,000 soldiers, some of them regulars, others conscripts who until 1869 served the comparatively long period of seven years with the colours. Some of them were veterans of previous French campaigns in the Crimean War, Algeria, the Franco-Austrian War in Italy, and in the Franco-Mexican War. However, following the "Seven Weeks War" between Prussia and Austria four years earlier, it had been calculated that the French Army could field only 288,000 men to face the Prussian Army when perhaps 1,000,000 would be required. Under Marshal Adolphe Niel, urgent reforms were made. Universal conscription (rather than by ballot, as previously) and a shorter period of service gave increased numbers of reservists, who would swell the army to a planned strength of 800,000 on mobilisation. Those who for any reason were not conscripted were to be enrolled in the Garde Mobile, a militia with a nominal strength of 400,000. However, the Franco-Prussian War broke out before these reforms could be completely implemented. The mobilisation of reservists was chaotic and resulted in large numbers of stragglers, while the Garde Mobile were generally untrained and often mutinous.
What entity controlled the Prussian army?
570d5595b3d812140066d6e3
the General Staff
36
False
Who commanded the General Staff?
570d5595b3d812140066d6e4
Field Marshal Helmuth von Moltke
61
False
What was the unique purpose of the Prussian Army during peacetime?
570d5595b3d812140066d6e5
to prepare the overall war strategy
217
False
The officers of the General Staff were hand-selected from which place?
570d5595b3d812140066d6e6
Prussian Kriegsakademie (War Academy)
403
False
What new technologies in particular were courted by Moltke?
570d5595b3d812140066d6e7
the railroad and telegraph
487
False
The Prussian army was controlled by the General Staff, under Field Marshal Helmuth von Moltke. The Prussian army was unique in Europe for having the only such organisation in existence, whose purpose in peacetime was to prepare the overall war strategy, and in wartime to direct operational movement and organise logistics and communications. The officers of the General Staff were hand-picked from the Prussian Kriegsakademie (War Academy). Moltke embraced new technology, particularly the railroad and telegraph, to coordinate and accelerate mobilisation of large forces.
On which date did Frossard's and Bazaines's troops cross the German border?
570d567ffed7b91900d45ec1
2 August
89
False
Which regiment did their respective corps force from the town of Saarbrucken?
570d567ffed7b91900d45ec2
the Prussian 40th Regiment of the 16th Infantry Division
118
False
What proved its worth against the Dreyse rifle?
570d567ffed7b91900d45ec3
The Chassepot rifle
237
False
How many casualties did the French suffer at Saarbrucken?
570d567ffed7b91900d45ec4
86 casualties
477
False
How many casualties did the Prussians suffer at Saarbrucken?
570d567ffed7b91900d45ec5
83 casualties
507
False
General Frossard's II Corps and Marshal Bazaine's III Corps crossed the German border on 2 August, and began to force the Prussian 40th Regiment of the 16th Infantry Division from the town of Saarbrücken with a series of direct attacks. The Chassepot rifle proved its worth against the Dreyse rifle, with French riflemen regularly outdistancing their Prussian counterparts in the skirmishing around Saarbrücken. However the Prussians resisted strongly, and the French suffered 86 casualties to the Prussian 83 casualties. Saarbrücken also proved to be a major obstacle in terms of logistics. Only one railway there led to the German hinterland but could be easily defended by a single force, and the only river systems in the region ran along the border instead of inland. While the French hailed the invasion as the first step towards the Rhineland and later Berlin, General Le Bœuf and Napoleon III were receiving alarming reports from foreign news sources of Prussian and Bavarian armies massing to the southeast in addition to the forces to the north and northeast.
What diplomatic crisis was Bismarck credited with skillfully creating?
570d5904fed7b91900d45ee7
succession to the Spanish throne
85
False
A dispatch was edited about a meeting between the French ambassador and what Prussian king?
570d5904fed7b91900d45ee8
King William
166
False
What was the purpose of editing the dispatch?
570d5904fed7b91900d45ee9
to make it appear that the French had been insulted
217
False
On which date did the French parliament vote to declare war on Prussia?
570d5904fed7b91900d45eea
16 July 1870
526
False
Where did the quickly mobilised troops first invade in France?
570d5904fed7b91900d45eeb
northeastern France
752
False
According to some historians, Bismarck adroitly created a diplomatic crisis over the succession to the Spanish throne, then edited a dispatch about a meeting between King William of Prussia and the French ambassador, to make it appear that the French had been insulted. The French press and parliament demanded a war, which the generals of Napoleon III assured him that France would win. Napoleon and his Prime Minister, Émile Ollivier, for their parts sought war to solve their problems with political disunity in France. On 16 July 1870, the French parliament voted to declare war on the German Kingdom of Prussia and hostilities began three days later. The German coalition mobilised its troops much more quickly than the French and rapidly invaded northeastern France. The German forces were superior in numbers, had better training and leadership and made more effective use of modern technology, particularly railroads and artillery.
Which town's people surrendered to the Germans?
570d5a0cfed7b91900d45ef1
Wissembourg
239
False
In which direction did the French troops who did not surrender head?
570d5a0cfed7b91900d45ef2
westward
337
False
How many dead troops leave behind?
570d5a0dfed7b91900d45ef3
1,000 dead
362
False
How many prisoners did the French leave behind?
570d5a0dfed7b91900d45ef4
1,000 prisoners
397
False
What weapon once again increased the effectiveness of the infantry attacks?
570d5a0dfed7b91900d45ef5
French Chassepot
735
False
The fighting within the town had become extremely intense, becoming a door to door battle of survival. Despite a never-ending attack of Prussian infantry, the soldiers of the 2nd Division kept to their positions. The people of the town of Wissembourg finally surrendered to the Germans. The French troops who did not surrender retreated westward, leaving behind 1,000 dead and wounded and another 1,000 prisoners and all of their remaining ammunition. The final attack by the Prussian troops also cost c. 1,000 casualties. The German cavalry then failed to pursue the French and lost touch with them. The attackers had an initial superiority of numbers, a broad deployment which made envelopment highly likely but the effectiveness of French Chassepot rifle-fire inflicted costly repulses on infantry attacks, until the French infantry had been extensively bombarded by the Prussian artillery.
What is the Franco-Prussian War also known as?
570d5b15fed7b91900d45f0f
Franco-German War
27
False
What was the war often referred to in France as?
570d5b15fed7b91900d45f10
the War of 1870
196
False
In the conflict, who lead the German states of the North German Confederation?
570d5b15fed7b91900d45f11
the Kingdom of Prussia
353
False
Whose ambitions are credited with causing the conflict?
570d5b15fed7b91900d45f12
Prussian ambitions
404
False
Which Prussian chancellor's motives in the conflict are still disputed?
570d5b15fed7b91900d45f13
Otto von Bismarck
504
False
The Franco-Prussian War or Franco-German War (German: Deutsch-Französischer Krieg, lit. German-French War, French: Guerre franco-allemande, lit. Franco-German War), often referred to in France as the War of 1870 (19 July 1870 – 10 May 1871), was a conflict between the Second French Empire and the German states of the North German Confederation led by the Kingdom of Prussia. The conflict was caused by Prussian ambitions to extend German unification. Some historians argue that the Prussian chancellor Otto von Bismarck planned to provoke a French attack in order to draw the southern German states—Baden, Württemberg, Bavaria and Hesse-Darmstadt—into an alliance with the North German Confederation dominated by Prussia, while others contend that Bismarck did not plan anything and merely exploited the circumstances as they unfolded.
In whose cadidacy did the immediate cause of war reside?
570d5c15fed7b91900d45f21
Leopold of Hohenzollern-Sigmaringen
61
False
What did France fear by an alliance between Prussia and Spain?
570d5c15fed7b91900d45f22
encirclement
155
False
Who goaded the French into war by editing a telegram sent by William I?
570d5c15fed7b91900d45f23
Otto von Bismarck
298
False
What was the name of the famous telelgram?
570d5c15fed7b91900d45f24
Ems Dispatch
409
False
What was the reaction of the French people to the deceptively crafted offense in the Ems Dispatch?
570d5c15fed7b91900d45f25
inflamed public opinion
534
False
The immediate cause of the war resided in the candidacy of a Leopold of Hohenzollern-Sigmaringen, a Prussian prince, to the throne of Spain. France feared encirclement by an alliance between Prussia and Spain. The Hohenzollern prince's candidacy was withdrawn under French diplomatic pressure, but Otto von Bismarck goaded the French into declaring war by altering a telegram sent by William I. Releasing the Ems Dispatch to the public, Bismarck made it sound as if the king had treated the French envoy in a demeaning fashion, which inflamed public opinion in France.
What battle began when two armies collided in the town of Froschwiller?
570d5cf5fed7b91900d45f3f
The Battle of Wörth
0
False
On what date did the Battle of Worth begin?
570d5cf5fed7b91900d45f40
6 August
108
False
What was the estimated number of troops in Prussia's 3rd Army?
570d5cf5fed7b91900d45f41
140,000 troops
364
False
What number of troops did France have to contend with?
570d5cf5fed7b91900d45f42
35,000
448
False
Instead of pursuing the French as they retreated, the Germans decided to remain where?
570d5cf5fed7b91900d45f43
Alsace
1104
False
The Battle of Wörth (also known as Fröschwiller or Reichshoffen) began when the two armies clashed again on 6 August near Wörth in the town of Fröschwiller, about 10 miles (16 km) from Wissembourg. The Crown Prince of Prussia's 3rd army had, on the quick reaction of his Chief of Staff General von Blumenthal, drawn reinforcements which brought its strength up to 140,000 troops. The French had been slowly reinforced and their force numbered only 35,000. Although badly outnumbered, the French defended their position just outside Fröschwiller. By afternoon, the Germans had suffered c. 10,500 killed or wounded and the French had lost a similar number of casualties and another c. 9,200 men taken prisoner, a loss of about 50%. The Germans captured Fröschwiller which sat on a hilltop in the centre of the French line. Having lost any hope for victory and facing a massacre, the French army disengaged and retreated in a westerly direction towards Bitche and Saverne, hoping to join French forces on the other side of the Vosges mountains. The German 3rd army did not pursue the French but remained in Alsace and moved slowly south, attacking and destroying the French garrisons in the vicinity.
In which country was a war against France condsidered desirable?
570d5e41b3d812140066d75f
Prussia
3
False
What was the overarching Prussian motive in starting a war with France?
570d5e41b3d812140066d760
unification of a great German empire
155
False
Who had no doubts that a Franco-German war was totally necessary?
570d5e41b3d812140066d761
Chancellor Otto von Bismarck
229
False
Who did Bismarck feel needed to be viewed as the aggressor in the conflict?
570d5e41b3d812140066d762
France
423
False
In bringing the southern German states to align with Prussia, what tactical outcome was achieved?
570d5e41b3d812140066d763
Germans numerical superiority
541
False
In Prussia, some officials considered a war against France both inevitable and necessary to arouse German nationalism in those states that would allow the unification of a great German empire. This aim was epitomized by Prussian Chancellor Otto von Bismarck's later statement: "I did not doubt that a Franco-German war must take place before the construction of a United Germany could be realised." Bismarck also knew that France should be the aggressor in the conflict to bring the southern German states to side with Prussia, hence giving Germans numerical superiority. Many Germans also viewed the French as the traditional destabilizer of Europe, and sought to weaken France to prevent further breaches of the peace.
On what date did the battle begin?
570d5f08fed7b91900d45f5d
18 August
3
False
Who order the First and Second armies to advance against the French?
570d5f08fed7b91900d45f5e
Moltke
45
False
Which general opened the battle with artillery from the 25th Infantry Division?
570d5f08fed7b91900d45f5f
General Manstein
139
False
Who did the battle first appear to favor?
570d5f08fed7b91900d45f60
the French
581
False
Who was the commander of the First Army?
570d5f08fed7b91900d45f61
General Steinmetz
729
False
On 18 August, the battle began when at 08:00 Moltke ordered the First and Second Armies to advance against the French positions. By 12:00, General Manstein opened up the battle before the village of Amanvillers with artillery from the 25th Infantry Division. But the French had spent the night and early morning digging trenches and rifle pits while placing their artillery and their mitrailleuses in concealed positions. Finally aware of the Prussian advance, the French opened up a massive return fire against the mass of advancing Germans. The battle at first appeared to favor the French with their superior Chassepot rifle. However, the Prussian artillery was superior with the all-steel Krupp breech-loading gun. By 14:30, General Steinmetz, the commander of the First Army, unilaterally launched his VIII Corps across the Mance Ravine in which the Prussian infantry were soon pinned down by murderous rifle and mitrailleuse fire from the French positions. At 15:00, the massed guns of the VII and VIII Corps opened fire to support the attack. But by 16:00, with the attack in danger of stalling, Steinmetz ordered the VII Corps forward, followed by the 1st Cavalry Division.
What modern, mass-produced weapon were the French infantry provided?
570d604afed7b91900d45f71
Chassepot rifle
54
False
What was the maximum effective range of the Chassepot rifle?
570d604afed7b91900d45f72
1,500 metres (4,900 ft)
241
False
In which type of warfare did the French best utilize the Chassepot?
570d604afed7b91900d45f73
trench-warfare
364
False
What precedent of the machine gun did the French troops also possess?
570d604afed7b91900d45f74
the mitrailleuse
551
False
On what was the mitrailleuse mounted?
570d604afed7b91900d45f75
on an artillery gun carriage
756
False
French infantry were equipped with the breech-loading Chassepot rifle, one of the most modern mass-produced firearms in the world at the time. With a rubber ring seal and a smaller bullet, the Chassepot had a maximum effective range of some 1,500 metres (4,900 ft) with a short reloading time. French tactics emphasised the defensive use of the Chassepot rifle in trench-warfare style fighting—the so-called feu de bataillon. The artillery was equipped with rifled, muzzle-loaded La Hitte guns. The army also possessed a precursor to the machine-gun: the mitrailleuse, which could unleash significant, concentrated firepower but nevertheless lacked range and was comparatively immobile, and thus prone to being easily overrun. The mitrailleuse was mounted on an artillery gun carriage and grouped in batteries in a similar fashion to cannon.
On which date did the battle begin with the Army of Chalons attacking various Prussian divisions?
570d615efed7b91900d45f83
1 September 1870
3
False
Who commanded the French V Corps in reserve?
570d615efed7b91900d45f84
General De Wimpffen
258
False
As the French were hard-hit by the Prussian artillery, what continued to show up to the battlefield?
570d615efed7b91900d45f85
more Prussian troops
478
False
Which commander of the French calvary led three desperate attacks on Floing?
570d615efed7b91900d45f86
General Marguerite
560
False
How many casualties did the French suffer?
570d615efed7b91900d45f87
over 17,000 men
913
False
On 1 September 1870, the battle opened with the Army of Châlons, with 202 infantry battalions, 80 cavalry squadrons and 564 guns, attacking the surrounding Prussian Third and Meuse Armies totaling 222 infantry battalions, 186 cavalry squadrons and 774 guns. General De Wimpffen, the commander of the French V Corps in reserve, hoped to launch a combined infantry and cavalry attack against the Prussian XI Corps. But by 11:00, Prussian artillery took a toll on the French while more Prussian troops arrived on the battlefield. The French cavalry, commanded by General Marguerite, launched three desperate attacks on the nearby village of Floing where the Prussian XI Corps was concentrated. Marguerite was killed leading the very first charge and the two additional charges led to nothing but heavy losses. By the end of the day, with no hope of breaking out, Napoleon III called off the attacks. The French lost over 17,000 men, killed or wounded, with 21,000 captured. The Prussians reported their losses at 2,320 killed, 5,980 wounded and 700 captured or missing. By the next day, on 2 September, Napoleon III surrendered and was taken prisoner with 104,000 of his soldiers. It was an overwhelming victory for the Prussians, for they not only captured an entire French army, but the leader of France as well. The defeat of the French at Sedan had decided the war in Prussia's favour. One French army was now immobilised and besieged in the city of Metz, and no other forces stood on French ground to prevent a German invasion. Nevertheless, the war would continue.
Pre-war, who planned for a strong French offensive?
570d62aab3d812140066d7bf
Marshal Niel
36
False
From Thionville towards Trier, what was the final destination of the offensive?
570d62aab3d812140066d7c0
the Prussian Rhineland
125
False
Niel's plan was cast aside in favour of a plan by General Frossard and what other general??
570d62aab3d812140066d7c1
Bartélemy Lebrun
236
False
The new plan called for which army to remain in a defensive grouping at the German border?
570d62aab3d812140066d7c2
Army of the Rhine
275
False
A pre-war plan laid out by the late Marshal Niel called for a strong French offensive from Thionville towards Trier and into the Prussian Rhineland. This plan was discarded in favour of a defensive plan by Generals Charles Frossard and Bartélemy Lebrun, which called for the Army of the Rhine to remain in a defensive posture near the German border and repel any Prussian offensive. As Austria along with Bavaria, Württemberg and Baden were expected to join in a revenge war against Prussia, I Corps would invade the Bavarian Palatinate and proceed to "free" the South German states in concert with Austro-Hungarian forces. VI Corps would reinforce either army as needed.
Which disaster made French planning supremely essential?
570d63cdfed7b91900d45fa3
the disaster at Wissembourg
35
False
Which general was determined to go on the attack over Saar?
570d63cdfed7b91900d45fa4
General Le Bœuf
85
False
Planning for the next battle was less based on emotion and more focused on what?
570d63cdfed7b91900d45fa5
the reality of unfolding events
263
False
Who told LeBoeuf that supply beyond the Saar would be impossible?
570d63cdfed7b91900d45fa6
General Wolff
338
False
What did the French armies decide on to protect against every possible attack point?
570d63cdfed7b91900d45fa7
a defensive position
470
False
On the French side, planning after the disaster at Wissembourg had become essential. General Le Bœuf, flushed with anger, was intent upon going on the offensive over the Saar and countering their loss. However, planning for the next encounter was more based upon the reality of unfolding events rather than emotion or pride, as Intendant General Wolff told him and his staff that supply beyond the Saar would be impossible. Therefore, the armies of France would take up a defensive position that would protect against every possible attack point, but also left the armies unable to support each other.
What army's defeats turned Gambetta to the Army of the North?
570d64fcb3d812140066d7ed
Army of the Loire's
14
False
Who led the Army of the North?
570d64fcb3d812140066d7ee
General Faidherbe
62
False
Several smaller victories were acheived by the protection of what?
570d64fcb3d812140066d7ef
belt of fortresses
216
False
The belt of fortresses were in what area of France?
570d64fcb3d812140066d7f0
northern France
238
False
This position in the north allowed whose men to launch fast attacks against Prussian units?
570d64fcb3d812140066d7f1
Faidherbe's
264
False
Following the Army of the Loire's defeats, Gambetta turned to General Faidherbe's Army of the North. The army had achieved several small victories at towns such as Ham, La Hallue, and Amiens and was protected by the belt of fortresses in northern France, allowing Faidherbe's men to launch quick attacks against isolated Prussian units, then retreat behind the fortresses. Despite access to the armaments factories of Lille, the Army of the North suffered from severe supply difficulties, which depressed morale. In January 1871, Gambetta forced Faidherbe to march his army beyond the fortresses and engage the Prussians in open battle. The army was severely weakened by low morale, supply problems, the terrible winter weather and low troop quality, whilst general Faidherbe was unable to command due to his poor health, the result of decades of campaigning in West Africa. At the Battle of St. Quentin, the Army of the North suffered a crushing defeat and was scattered, releasing thousands of Prussian soldiers to be relocated to the East.
What odds were at stake for the attack launched by the III Corps?
570d65fafed7b91900d45fdb
four to one
16
False
What town were the III Corps able to capture?
570d65fafed7b91900d45fdc
Vionville
118
False
In capturing Vionville, what was further blocked in the west?
570d65fafed7b91900d45fdd
escape attempts
150
False
With battle at Metz, what factor shattered the efforts of III Corps?
570d65fafed7b91900d45fde
incessant cavalry charges
404
False
The Germans recorded how many causualties in the battle?
570d65fafed7b91900d45fdf
15,780
499
False
Despite odds of four to one, the III Corps launched a risky attack. The French were routed and the III Corps captured Vionville, blocking any further escape attempts to the west. Once blocked from retreat, the French in the fortress of Metz had no choice but to engage in a fight that would see the last major cavalry engagement in Western Europe. The battle soon erupted, and III Corps was shattered by incessant cavalry charges, losing over half its soldiers. The German Official History recorded 15,780 casualties and French casualties of 13,761 men.
Which prince ordered an artillery attack against Canrobert?
570d675db3d812140066d84b
Prince Frederick Charles
35
False
Which army's defeat compelled Prince Charles to attack?
570d675db3d812140066d84c
defeat of the First Army,
9
False
As the Second Army pushed into Ravine, the XII Corps cleared out which adjacent town?
570d675db3d812140066d84d
Roncourt
327
False
The surving soldiers of the 1st Guards Infantry Division launched a new attack against what?
570d675db3d812140066d84e
ruins of St. Privat
431
False
Which army was forced to retreat to Metz and surrender two months later?
570d675db3d812140066d84f
French Army of the Rhine
1115
False
With the defeat of the First Army, Prince Frederick Charles ordered a massed artillery attack against Canrobert's position at St. Privat to prevent the Guards attack from failing too. At 19:00 the 3rd Division of Fransecky's II Corps of the Second Army advanced across Ravine while the XII Corps cleared out the nearby town of Roncourt and with the survivors of the 1st Guards Infantry Division launched a fresh attack against the ruins of St. Privat. At 20:00, the arrival of the Prussian 4th Infantry Division of the II Corps and with the Prussian right flank on Mance Ravine, the line stabilised. By then, the Prussians of the 1st Guards Infantry Division and the XII and II Corps captured St. Privat forcing the decimated French forces to withdraw. With the Prussians exhausted from the fighting, the French were now able to mount a counter-attack. General Bourbaki, however, refused to commit the reserves of the French Old Guard to the battle because, by that time, he considered the overall situation a 'defeat'. By 22:00, firing largely died down across the battlefield for the night. The next morning, the French Army of the Rhine, rather than resume the battle with an attack of its own against the battle-weary German armies, retreated to Metz where they were besieged and forced to surrender two months later.
A blockade of what coastline was ordered by the French government at the start of the war?
570d6878fed7b91900d46023
North German coasts
68
False
The small North German navy had how many ironclads at their disposal?
570d6878fed7b91900d46024
only five
156
False
What was the name of the only turret ship that was able to conduct operations?
570d6878fed7b91900d46025
SMS Arminius
322
False
How many ships was the French navy able to dispatch to sea?
570d6878fed7b91900d46026
470
697
False
In pursuing Prussian ships, what resource was quickly depleted?
570d6878fed7b91900d46027
coal reserves
1183
False
When the war began, the French government ordered a blockade of the North German coasts, which the small North German navy (Norddeutsche Bundesmarine) with only five ironclads could do little to oppose. For most of the war, the three largest German ironclads were out of service with engine troubles; only the turret ship SMS Arminius was available to conduct operations. By the time engine repairs had been completed, the French fleet had already departed. The blockade proved only partially successful due to crucial oversights by the planners in Paris. Reservists that were supposed to be at the ready in case of war, were working in the Newfoundland fisheries or in Scotland. Only part of the 470-ship French Navy put to sea on 24 July. Before long, the French navy ran short of coal, needing 200 short tons (180 t) per day and having a bunker capacity in the fleet of only 250 short tons (230 t). A blockade of Wilhelmshaven failed and conflicting orders about operations in the Baltic Sea or a return to France, made the French naval efforts futile. Spotting a blockade-runner became unwelcome because of the question du charbon; pursuit of Prussian ships quickly depleted the coal reserves of the French ships.
Which battle was the second of three key French losses?
570d69bafed7b91900d46033
Battle of Spicheren
4
False
On what date did the battle of Spicheren take place?
570d69bafed7b91900d46034
5 August
28
False
Moltke had originally planned to kee Bazaine's army on what river?
570d69bafed7b91900d46035
the Saar River
143
False
Which general's zeal and lack of planning led to cutting off Prince Charles from his calvary?
570d69bafed7b91900d46036
General von Steinmetz
300
False
Which town was the site of General von Steinmetz's grave error?
570d69bafed7b91900d46037
Spicheren
457
False
The Battle of Spicheren, on 5 August, was the second of three critical French defeats. Moltke had originally planned to keep Bazaine's army on the Saar River until he could attack it with the 2nd Army in front and the 1st Army on its left flank, while the 3rd Army closed towards the rear. The aging General von Steinmetz made an overzealous, unplanned move, leading the 1st Army south from his position on the Moselle. He moved straight toward the town of Spicheren, cutting off Prince Frederick Charles from his forward cavalry units in the process.
The General Staff developed by Moltke proved to be what?
570d6ae5fed7b91900d4604f
extremely effective
60
False
What was key factor did the Prussian General Staff study?
570d6ae5fed7b91900d46050
previous Prussian operations
219
False
What was the goal in the General Staff studying past operations?
570d6ae5fed7b91900d46051
learn to avoid mistakes
252
False
The structure also reinforced Moltke's ability control large formations spread out over what?
570d6ae5fed7b91900d46052
significant distances
378
False
Who is essentially considered the commander in chief of the Prussian army?
570d6ae5fed7b91900d46053
The Chief of the General Staff
401
False
The Prussian General Staff developed by Moltke proved to be extremely effective, in contrast to the traditional French school. This was in large part due to the fact that the Prussian General Staff was created to study previous Prussian operations and learn to avoid mistakes. The structure also greatly strengthened Moltke's ability to control large formations spread out over significant distances. The Chief of the General Staff, effectively the commander in chief of the Prussian army, was independent of the minister of war and answered only to the monarch. The French General Staff—along with those of every other European military—was little better than a collection of assistants for the line commanders. This disorganization hampered the French commanders' ability to exercise control of their forces.
What did the Germans expect to negotiate?
570d6ba1fed7b91900d4606b
an end to the war
34
False
On what date was the encirclement of Paris complete?
570d6ba1fed7b91900d4606c
20 September
172
False
Bismarck and Favre met on what date?
570d6ba1fed7b91900d4606d
18 September
238
False
What was the location of Bismarck and Favre's meeting?
570d6ba1fed7b91900d4606e
the Château de Ferrières
254
False
Bismarck demanded the surrender of Strasbourg and what fortress city?
570d6ba1fed7b91900d4606f
Toul
590
False
The Germans expected to negotiate an end to the war but immediately ordered an advance on Paris; by 15 September Moltke issued the orders for an investment of Paris and on 20 September the encirclement was complete. Bismarck met Favre on 18 September at the Château de Ferrières and demanded a frontier immune to a French war of revenge, which included Strasbourg, Alsace and most the Moselle department in Lorraine of which Metz was the capital. In return for an armistice for the French to elect a National Assembly, Bismarck demanded the surrender of Strasbourg and the fortress city of Toul. To allow supplies into Paris, one of the perimeter forts had to be handed over. Favre was unaware that the real aim of Bismarck in making such extortionate demands was to establish a durable peace on the new western frontier of Germany, preferably by a peace with a friendly government, on terms acceptable to French public opinion. An impregnable military frontier was an inferior alternative to him, favoured only by the militant nationalists on the German side.
By late afternoon, what were the Prussian southern attacks at risk of?
570d6cf1fed7b91900d460a5
breaking up
58
False
Which Prussian general commanded the attack against the French at St. Privat?
570d6cf1fed7b91900d460a6
General Canrobert
215
False
What factor immobilised the Prussian Guard?
570d6cf1fed7b91900d460a7
lethal French gunfire
421
False
By nightfall a major component of the VII and VII Corps withdrew towards what Prussian position?
570d6cf1fed7b91900d460a8
Rezonville
845
False
By 16:50, with the Prussian southern attacks in danger of breaking up, the Prussian 3rd Guards Infantry Brigade of the Second Army opened an attack against the French positions at St. Privat which were commanded by General Canrobert. At 17:15, the Prussian 4th Guards Infantry Brigade joined the advance followed at 17:45 by the Prussian 1st Guards Infantry Brigade. All of the Prussian Guard attacks were pinned down by lethal French gunfire from the rifle pits and trenches. At 18:15 the Prussian 2nd Guards Infantry Brigade, the last of the 1st Guards Infantry Division, was committed to the attack on St. Privat while Steinmetz committed the last of the reserves of the First Army across the Mance Ravine. By 18:30, a considerable portion of the VII and VIII Corps disengaged from the fighting and withdrew towards the Prussian positions at Rezonville.
What did the Prussian Army hold in Paris on 17 February?
570d6dfbb3d812140066d90b
a brief victory parade
58
False
Under what provision was the Prussian Army permitted to have a victory parade?
570d6dfbb3d812140066d90c
the terms of the armistice
25
False
To hounour the armistice, Bismarck allowed train loads of what into Paris?
570d6dfbb3d812140066d90d
food
242
False
France had to consent to pay how much in war indemnity?
570d6dfbb3d812140066d90e
five billion franc
370
False
An ensuing mass exodus from Paris saw how many people head for the countryside?
570d6dfbb3d812140066d90f
200,000
535
False
The Prussian Army, under the terms of the armistice, held a brief victory parade in Paris on 17 February; the city was silent and draped with black and the Germans quickly withdrew. Bismarck honoured the armistice, by allowing train loads of food into Paris and withdrawing Prussian forces to the east of the city, prior to a full withdrawal once France agreed to pay a five billion franc war indemnity. At the same time, Prussian forces were concentrated in the provinces of Alsace and Lorraine. An exodus occurred from Paris as some 200,000 people, predominantly middle-class, went to the countryside.
Whose surrender hit Paris as big news?
570d6edcfed7b91900d460d9
Napoleon III
60
False
Which empire was overthrown by a popular uprising in Paris?
570d6edcfed7b91900d460da
the Second Empire
89
False
The uprising forced a proclamation of what?
570d6edcfed7b91900d460db
Provisional Government and a Third Republic
189
False
How did the new government refer to itself?
570d6edcfed7b91900d460dc
Government of National Defence
334
False
Bismarck desired an early piece but lacked what in the negotiation process?
570d6edcfed7b91900d460dd
a legitimate French authority
601
False
When the news arrived at Paris of the surrender at Sedan of Napoleon III and 80,000 men, the Second Empire was overthrown by a popular uprising in Paris, which forced the proclamation of a Provisional Government and a Third Republic by general Trochu, Favre and Gambetta at Paris on 4 September, the new government calling itself the Government of National Defence. After the German victory at Sedan, most of the French standing army was either besieged in Metz or prisoner of the Germans, who hoped for an armistice and an end to the war. Bismarck wanted an early peace but had difficulty in finding a legitimate French authority with which to negotiate. The Government of National Defence had no electoral mandate, the Emperor was a captive and the Empress in exile but there had been no abdication de jure and the army was still bound by an oath of allegiance to the defunct imperial régime.
A series of Prussian and German victories took place in what part of France?
570d7002b3d812140066d931
eastern France
51
False
What seige did these victories lead to?
570d7002b3d812140066d932
Siege of Metz
86
False
What battle was a result of the Prussian and German victories in eastern France?
570d7002b3d812140066d933
Battle of Sedan
108
False
Which army definitively defeated Napolean III?
570d7002b3d812140066d934
the army of the Second Empire
129
False
On what date did the Government of National Defence declare the the Third Republic in Paris?
570d7002b3d812140066d935
4 September
310
False
A series of swift Prussian and German victories in eastern France, culminating in the Siege of Metz and the Battle of Sedan, saw the army of the Second Empire decisively defeated (Napoleon III had been captured at Sedan on 2 September). A Government of National Defence declared the Third Republic in Paris on 4 September and continued the war and for another five months, the German forces fought and defeated new French armies in northern France. Following the Siege of Paris, the capital fell on 28 January 1871 and then a revolutionary uprising called the Paris Commune seized power in the capital and held it for two months, until it was bloodily suppressed by the regular French army at the end of May 1871.
Some historians counter that Napolean III sought what?
570d7143fed7b91900d46113
war
52
False
Napoleon III belived he would win the Astro-Prussian war and win a conflict with what country?
570d7143fed7b91900d46114
Prussia
206
False
It is also argued that Napoleon III thought a war would resolve the growing issue of what?
570d7143fed7b91900d46115
domestic political problems
271
False
Before the war, French voters overwhelming supported what program of Napoleon III?
570d7143fed7b91900d46116
a national plebiscite
479
False
Who proposed that Emperor needed no war to increase his public appeal?
570d7143fed7b91900d46117
Milza
653
False
Some historians argue that Napoleon III also sought war, particularly for the diplomatic defeat in 1866 in leveraging any benefits from the Austro-Prussian War, and he believed he would win a conflict with Prussia. They also argue that he wanted a war to resolve growing domestic political problems. Other historians, notably French historian Pierre Milza, dispute this. On 8 May 1870, shortly before the war, French voters had overwhelmingly supported Napoleon III's program in a national plebiscite, with 7,358,000 votes yes against 1,582,000 votes no, an increase of support of two million votes since the legislative elections in 1869. According to Milza, the Emperor had no need for a war to increase his popularity.
What did Napoleon III plan to relieve pressure from an expected German attack?
570d724bfed7b91900d46127
invasion of northern Germany
134
False
What country were the French hoping to be allied with?
570d724bfed7b91900d46128
Denmark
259
False
What military strength could Denmark to France in a war?
570d724bfed7b91900d46129
the Royal Danish Navy
319
False
What had Prussia been discovered building around big north German ports?
570d724bfed7b91900d4612a
defences
392
False
What did the French navy lack in engaging coastal defenses?
570d724bfed7b91900d4612b
heavy guns
617
False
To relieve pressure from the expected German attack into Alsace-Lorraine, Napoleon III and the French high command planned a seaborne invasion of northern Germany as soon as war began. The French expected the invasion to divert German troops and to encourage Denmark to join in the war, with its 50,000-strong army and the Royal Danish Navy. It was discovered that Prussia had recently built defences around the big North German ports, including coastal artillery batteries with Krupp heavy artillery, which with a range of 4,000 yards (3,700 m), had double the range of French naval guns. The French Navy lacked the heavy guns to engage the coastal defences and the topography of the Prussian coast made a seaborne invasion of northern Germany impossible.
What was the Prussian Army composed of, instead of regulars?
570d72f3b3d812140066d961
conscripts
51
False
Service was mandatory for all men sharing which feature?
570d72f3b3d812140066d962
of military age
101
False
Together, Prussia and Germany expected to amass how many soldiers?
570d72f3b3d812140066d963
1,000,000
203
False
German tactics relied on what type of battle strategy?
570d72f3b3d812140066d964
encirclement battles
264
False
What is an example of a German encirclement battle?
570d72f3b3d812140066d965
Cannae
290
False
The Prussian Army was composed not of regulars but conscripts. Service was compulsory for all of men of military age, and thus Prussia and its North and South German allies could mobilise and field some 1,000,000 soldiers in time of war. German tactics emphasised encirclement battles like Cannae and using artillery offensively whenever possible. Rather than advancing in a column or line formation, Prussian infantry moved in small groups that were harder to target by artillery or French defensive fire. The sheer number of soldiers available made encirclement en masse and destruction of French formations relatively easy.
What Prussian system was superior to the French example?
570d73eeb3d812140066d975
military education
26
False
Prussian military officers were trained to exude what type thinking?
570d73eeb3d812140066d976
independent thinking
149
False
What commander of the General Staff held the expectaion of independent thinking in his officers?
570d73eeb3d812140066d977
Moltke
188
False
What did the French dearth of an education and promotion system stifle?
570d73eeb3d812140066d978
intellectual development
294
False
Which military historian criticized the French system as being defective?
570d73eeb3d812140066d979
Dallas Irvine
356
False
In addition, the Prussian military education system was superior to the French model; Prussian staff officers were trained to exhibit initiative and independent thinking. Indeed, this was Moltke's expectation. The French, meanwhile, suffered from an education and promotion system that stifled intellectual development. According to the military historian Dallas Irvine, the system "was almost completely effective in excluding the army's brain power from the staff and high command. To the resulting lack of intelligence at the top can be ascribed all the inexcusable defects of French military policy."
What aspect of the Chassepot was superior to the German needle gun?
570d74e0fed7b91900d4614f
longer range
58
False
What French weapon was considered a rough prototype of the first machine gun?
570d74e0fed7b91900d46150
the mitrailleuse
203
False
How many barrels did the mitrailleuse feature?
570d74e0fed7b91900d46151
thirty-seven barrels
242
False
What was the range of the mitrailleuse?
570d74e0fed7b91900d46152
1,200 yd (1,100 m)
284
False
Treating the mitrailleuse like what rendered it far less effective
570d74e0fed7b91900d46153
artillery
457
False
The French breech-loading rifle, the Chassepot, had a far longer range than the German needle gun; 1,500 yards (1,400 m) compared to 600 yd (550 m). The French also had an early machine-gun type weapon, the mitrailleuse, which could fire its thirty-seven barrels at a range of around 1,200 yd (1,100 m). It was developed in such secrecy, that little training with the weapon had occurred, leaving French gunners with no experience; the gun was treated like artillery and in this role it was ineffective. Worse still, once the small number of soldiers who had been trained how to use the new weapon became casualties, there were no replacements who knew how to operate the mitrailleuse.
The French Marines and naval infantry were dispatched to reinforce what?
570d75b4b3d812140066d993
French Army of Châlons
117
False
The French navy fell captive where?
570d75b4b3d812140066d994
at Sedan
164
False
Who also was captured at Sedan?
570d75b4b3d812140066d995
Napoleon III
184
False
The autumn storms of what sea forced the return of yet more French ships?
570d75b4b3d812140066d996
the North Sea
465
False
On which rough date did the French navy abandon their blockade?
570d75b4b3d812140066d997
September 1870
583
False
The French Marines and naval infantry intended for the invasion of northern Germany were dispatched to reinforce the French Army of Châlons and fell into captivity at Sedan along with Napoleon III. A shortage of officers, following the capture of most of the professional French army at the Siege of Metz and at the Battle of Sedan, led naval officers to be sent from their ships to command hastily assembled reservists of the Garde Mobile. As the autumn storms of the North Sea forced the return of more of the French ships, the blockade of the north German ports diminished and in September 1870 the French navy abandoned the blockade for the winter. The rest of the navy retired to ports along the English Channel and remained in port for the rest of the war.
Which marshal was closest to Wissembourg?
570d7649b3d812140066d9a5
Marshal MacMahon
0
False
How many divisions did MacMahon command?
570d7649b3d812140066d9a6
four divisions
57
False
Over how many miles did MacMahon's divisions cover?
570d7649b3d812140066d9a7
20 miles
77
False
Whose conduct made a bad situation worse?
570d7649b3d812140066d9a8
General Auguste-Alexandre Ducrot
380
False
What group did General Ducrot command?
570d7649b3d812140066d9a9
the 1st Division
427
False
Marshal MacMahon, now closest to Wissembourg, spread his four divisions over 20 miles (32 km) to react to any Prussian invasion. This organization of forces was due to a lack of supplies, forcing each division to seek out basic provisions along with the representatives of the army supply arm that was supposed to aid them. What made a bad situation much worse was the conduct of General Auguste-Alexandre Ducrot, commander of the 1st Division. He told General Abel Douay, commander of the 2nd Division, on 1 August that "The information I have received makes me suppose that the enemy has no considerable forces very near his advance posts, and has no desire to take the offensive". Two days later, he told MacMahon that he had not found "a single enemy post ... it looks to me as if the menace of the Bavarians is simply bluff". Even though Ducrot shrugged off the possibility of an attack by the Germans, MacMahon tried to warn the other divisions of his army, without success.
What became highly politicised during the war?
570d76f1fed7b91900d4616d
Paris National Guard
20
False
In what type of neighborhoods did the occur especially?
570d76f1fed7b91900d4616e
working-class neighbourhoods
62
False
What did the National Guard refuse to wear?
570d76f1fed7b91900d4616f
uniforms
180
False
What did the National Guard refuse to obey?
570d76f1fed7b91900d46170
commands from the national government
197
False
On which dates did La Semaine Sanglante occur in Paris?
570d76f1fed7b91900d46171
21–28 May
855
False
During the war, the Paris National Guard, particularly in the working-class neighbourhoods of Paris, had become highly politicised and units elected officers; many refused to wear uniforms or obey commands from the national government. National guard units tried to seize power in Paris on 31 October 1870 and 22 January 1871. On 18 March 1871, when the regular army tried to remove cannons from an artillery park on Montmartre, National Guard units resisted and killed two army generals. The national government and regular army forces retreated to Versailles and a revolutionary government was proclaimed in Paris. A Commune was elected, which was dominated by socialists, anarchists and revolutionaries. The red flag replaced the French tricolour and a civil war began between the Commune and the regular army, which attacked and recaptured Paris from 21–28 May in La Semaine Sanglante (Bloody week).
Who commanded the French army at the battle of Worth?
570d77cdb3d812140066d9b7
General MacMahon
28
False
Which German divisison did MacMahon engage?
570d77cdb3d812140066d9b8
German 3rd Army
57
False
Who commanded the German 1st Army?
570d77cdb3d812140066d9b9
Steinmetz
123
False
What did a German patrol spot that led them to believe that Frossard had retreated?
570d77cdb3d812140066d9ba
decoy fires
260
False
Whose plan did German armies ignore in attacking Frossard?
570d77cdb3d812140066d9bb
Moltke's
419
False
While the French army under General MacMahon engaged the German 3rd Army at the Battle of Wörth, the German 1st Army under Steinmetz finished their advance west from Saarbrücken. A patrol from the German 2nd Army under Prince Friedrich Karl of Prussia spotted decoy fires close and Frossard's army farther off on a distant plateau south of the town of Spicheren, and took this as a sign of Frossard's retreat. Ignoring Moltke's plan again, both German armies attacked Frossard's French 2nd Corps, fortified between Spicheren and Forbach.
Who were the casualties especially terrible for?
570d785cb3d812140066d9c1
the attacking Prussian forces
45
False
What was the grand total of German casualties and those missing in action?
570d785cb3d812140066d9c2
20,163
93
False
What were the number of French killed and wounded?
570d785cb3d812140066d9c3
7,855
208
False
What was the number of French prisoners?
570d785cb3d812140066d9c4
4,420
244
False
What did most Prussians fall under?
570d785cb3d812140066d9c5
French Chassepot rifles
361
False
The casualties were horrible, especially for the attacking Prussian forces. A grand total of 20,163 German troops were killed, wounded or missing in action during the August 18 battle. The French losses were 7,855 killed and wounded along with 4,420 prisoners of war (half of them were wounded) for a total of 12,275. While most of the Prussians fell under the French Chassepot rifles, most French fell under the Prussian Krupp shells. In a breakdown of the casualties, Frossard's II Corps of the Army of the Rhine suffered 621 casualties while inflicting 4,300 casualties on the Prussian First Army under Steinmetz before the Pointe du Jour. The Prussian Guards Infantry Divisions losses were even more staggering with 8,000 casualties out of 18,000 men. The Special Guards Jäger lost 19 officers, a surgeon and 431 men out of a total of 700. The 2nd Guards Infantry Brigade lost 39 officers and 1,076 men. The 3rd Guards Infantry Brigade lost 36 officers and 1,060 men. On the French side, the units holding St. Privat lost more than half their number in the village.
What was the republican government amenable to?
570d7908fed7b91900d4618b
war reparations
48
False
Who declared that France would not yield "an inch of its territory?"
570d7908fed7b91900d4618c
Favre
139
False
Who was Favre speaking on behalf of?
570d7908fed7b91900d4618d
Government of National Defense
162
False
When did Favre make the declaration concerning colonial territories?
570d7908fed7b91900d4618e
6 September
206
False
What did this cause the Republic to renew?
570d7908fed7b91900d4618f
declaration of war
334
False
While the republican government was amenable to war reparations or ceding colonial territories in Africa or in South East Asia to Prussia, Favre on behalf of the Government of National Defense, declared on 6 September that France would not "yield an inch of its territory nor a stone of its fortresses." The republic then renewed the declaration of war, called for recruits in all parts of the country and pledged to drive the German troops out of France by a guerre à outrance. Under these circumstances, the Germans had to continue the war, yet could not pin down any proper military opposition in their vicinity. As the bulk of the remaining French armies were digging-in near Paris, the German leaders decided to put pressure upon the enemy by attacking Paris. By September 15, German troops reached the outskirts of the fortified city. On September 19, the Germans surrounded it and erected a blockade, as already established at Metz.
Who was the Prussian Minister of War?
570d79d0fed7b91900d46195
Albrecht von Roon
0
False
What was the time span that von Roon acted as minister?
570d79d0fed7b91900d46196
1859 to 1873
53
False
He instituted a series of what regarding the Prussian military?
570d79d0fed7b91900d46197
reforms
95
False
What was the first step in the reforms?
570d79d0fed7b91900d46198
a reorganization of the army
258
False
What was the second reform?
570d79d0fed7b91900d46199
the conscription of every male
380
False
Albrecht von Roon, the Prussian Minister of War from 1859 to 1873, put into effect a series of reforms of the Prussian military system in the 1860s. Among these were two major reforms that substantially increased the military power of Germany. The first was a reorganization of the army that integrated the regular army and the Landwehr reserves. The second was the provision for the conscription of every male Prussian of military age in the event of mobilization. Thus, despite the population of France being greater than the population of all of the German states that participated in the war, the Germans mobilized more soldiers for battle.
What type of artillery were the French equipped with?
570d7a98fed7b91900d461a9
bronze, rifled muzzle-loading
30
False
What newer artillery were Prussians using?
570d7a98fed7b91900d461aa
steel breech-loading guns
100
False
What did the French believe was overly wasted in artillery with a higher rate of fire?
570d7a98fed7b91900d461ab
ammunition
302
False
The Prussian artillery batteries had what percentage more of guns than the French?
570d7a98fed7b91900d461ac
30% more
364
False
What was the typical range that Prussian guns could fire?
570d7a98fed7b91900d461ad
2–3 kilometres
464
False
The French were equipped with bronze, rifled muzzle-loading artillery, while the Prussians used new steel breech-loading guns, which had a far longer range and a faster rate of fire. Prussian gunners strove for a high rate of fire, which was discouraged in the French army in the belief that it wasted ammunition. In addition, the Prussian artillery batteries had 30% more guns than their French counterparts. The Prussian guns typically opened fire at a range of 2–3 kilometres (1.2–1.9 mi), beyond the range of French artillery or the Chassepot rifle. The Prussian batteries could thus destroy French artillery with impunity, before being moved forward to directly support infantry attacks.
On what date did the Government of National Defence negotiate an armistice?
570d7b36fed7b91900d461b3
28 January 1871
3
False
With whom did the French government negotiate?
570d7b36fed7b91900d461b4
the Prussians
98
False
What consequence of war were Parisians suffering?
570d7b36fed7b91900d461b5
starving
124
False
Which French minister traveled to Versailles to discuss peace?
570d7b36fed7b91900d461b6
Favre
232
False
What was the date on which jFarve and Bismarck met?
570d7b36fed7b91900d461b7
24 January
260
False
On 28 January 1871 the Government of National Defence based in Paris negotiated an armistice with the Prussians. With Paris starving, and Gambetta's provincial armies reeling from one disaster after another, French foreign minister Favre went to Versailles on 24 January to discuss peace terms with Bismarck. Bismarck agreed to end the siege and allow food convoys to immediately enter Paris (including trains carrying millions of German army rations), on condition that the Government of National Defence surrender several key fortresses outside Paris to the Prussians. Without the forts, the French Army would no longer be able to defend Paris.
How many were killed by the Communards?
570d7be1b3d812140066d9df
500 people
46
False
Which religious official was also killed during the fighting?
570d7be1b3d812140066d9e0
Archbishop of Paris
72
False
What type of buildings were especially targeted to be burned down?
570d7be1b3d812140066d9e1
government buildings
114
False
What famous palace was also burned down?
570d7be1b3d812140066d9e2
Tuileries Palace
150
False
What is the rough estimate of the number of people killed?
570d7be1b3d812140066d9e3
between 6,000 and 10,000
561
False
During the fighting, the Communards killed c. 500 people, including the Archbishop of Paris, and burned down many government buildings, including the Tuileries Palace and the Hotel de Ville. Communards captured with weapons were routinely shot by the army and Government troops killed from 7,000–30,000 Communards in the fighting and in massacres of men, women, and children during and after the Commune. More recent histories, based on studies of the number buried in Paris cemeteries and in mass graves after the fall of the Commune, put the number killed at between 6,000 and 10,000. Twenty-six courts were established to try more than 40,000 people who had been arrested, which took until 1875 and imposed 95 death sentences, of which 23 were inflicted. Forced labour for life was imposed on 251 people, 1,160 people were transported to "a fortified place" and 3,417 people were transported. About 20,000 Communards were held in prison hulks until released in 1872 and a great many Communards fled abroad to England, Switzerland, Belgium or the United States. The survivors were amnestied by a bill introduced by Gambetta in 1880 and allowed to return.
At the start of the war, how many German troops were focused on the French frontier?
570d7c8bb3d812140066d9e9
462,000
42
False
How many French troops were available to stand again the Germans?
570d7c8bb3d812140066d9ea
270,000
113
False
What is the literal meaning of the Prussian word "Kreis?"
570d7c8bb3d812140066d9eb
literally "circle"
391
False
What did the French military numbers suffer from the most?
570d7c8bb3d812140066d9ec
having lost 100,000 stragglers
182
False
At the outset of the Franco-Prussian War, 462,000 German soldiers concentrated on the French frontier while only 270,000 French soldiers could be moved to face them, the French army having lost 100,000 stragglers before a shot was fired through poor planning and administration. This was partly due to the peacetime organisations of the armies. Each Prussian Corps was based within a Kreis (literally "circle") around the chief city in an area. Reservists rarely lived more than a day's travel from their regiment's depot. By contrast, French regiments generally served far from their depots, which in turn were not in the areas of France from which their soldiers were drawn. Reservists often faced several days' journey to report to their depots, and then another long journey to join their regiments. Large numbers of reservists choked railway stations, vainly seeking rations and orders.
The events of the Franco-Prussian War had great influence on what?
570d7d86b3d812140066d9f1
military thinking
61
False
Lessons garnered from the war included recognizing the need for what kind of system?
570d7d86b3d812140066d9f2
general staff system
157
False
Who adopted the Prussian artillery tactics in 1914?
570d7d86b3d812140066d9f3
European armies
520
False
What was the French 75 optimised to directly support?
570d7d86b3d812140066d9f4
advancing infantry
638
False
Evidence from what war suggested the increased benefits of smokeless poweder rifles?
570d7d86b3d812140066d9f5
Russo-Japanese War
707
False
The events of the Franco-Prussian War had great influence on military thinking over the next forty years. Lessons drawn from the war included the need for a general staff system, the scale and duration of future wars and the tactical use of artillery and cavalry. The bold use of artillery by the Prussians, to silence French guns at long range and then to directly support infantry attacks at close range, proved to be superior to the defensive doctrine employed by French gunners. The Prussian tactics were adopted by European armies by 1914, exemplified in the French 75, an artillery piece optimised to provide direct fire support to advancing infantry. Most European armies ignored the evidence of the Russo-Japanese War of 1904–05 which suggested that infantry armed with new smokeless-powder rifles could engage gun crews effectively. This forced gunners to fire at longer range using indirect fire, usually from a position of cover.
A unified German Empire ended the balance of power in which congress?
570d7e8bb3d812140066d9fb
Congress of Vienna
98
False
At the end of the Napoleonic wars, Germany had established itself as what, in continental Europe?
570d7e8bb3d812140066d9fc
the main power
189
False
Who remained the dominant world power at this time?
570d7e8bb3d812140066d9fd
Great Britain
311
False
British involvement in European matters in the late 19th century was considered what?
570d7e8bb3d812140066d9fe
very limited
433
False
The Crown Prince's marriage to whom was considered the most prominent of German-British royal liasons?
570d7e8bb3d812140066d9ff
the daughter of Queen Victoria
579
False
The creation of a unified German Empire ended the balance of power that had been created with the Congress of Vienna after the end of the Napoleonic Wars. Germany had established itself as the main power in continental Europe with the most powerful and professional army in the world.[citation needed] Although Great Britain remained the dominant world power, British involvement in European affairs during the late 19th century was very limited, allowing Germany to exercise great influence over the European mainland.[citation needed] Besides, the Crown Prince's marriage with the daughter of Queen Victoria was only the most prominent of several German–British relationships.
Adolescence
A surge in hormone production triggers a number of physical changes during what stage of life?
570d5cb5b3d812140066d739
Puberty
0
False
Which gland secretes a surge of hormonal agents into the blood stream?
570d5cb5b3d812140066d73a
pituitary
463
False
Which part of the body releases testosterone in males?
570d5cb5b3d812140066d73b
testes
786
False
Which part of the body relesases estrogen in females?
570d5cb5b3d812140066d73c
ovaries
833
False
An imbalance in sex hormones, tissue responsiveness, or obesity can cause what in boys?
570d5cb5b3d812140066d73d
gynecomastia
981
False
Puberty occurs through a long process and begins with a surge in hormone production, which in turn causes a number of physical changes. It is the stage of life characterized by the appearance and development of secondary sex characteristics (for example, a deeper voice and larger adam's apple in boys, and development of breasts and more curved and prominent hips in girls) and a strong shift in hormonal balance towards an adult state. This is triggered by the pituitary gland, which secretes a surge of hormonal agents into the blood stream, initiating a chain reaction to occur. The male and female gonads are subsequently activated, which puts them into a state of rapid growth and development; the triggered gonads now commence the mass production of the necessary chemicals. The testes primarily release testosterone, and the ovaries predominantly dispense estrogen. The production of these hormones increases gradually until sexual maturation is met. Some boys may develop gynecomastia due to an imbalance of sex hormones, tissue responsiveness or obesity.
What is the cultural purpose of adolescence?
570d5d0cb3d812140066d743
preparation of children for adult roles
325
False
What is the transitional period between childhood and adulthood viewed as?
570d5d0cb3d812140066d744
adolescence
215
False
Is adolescence a period of one transition or multiple transitions?
570d5d0cb3d812140066d745
multiple transitions
384
False
What transitions occur during puberty in addition to living circumstances?
570d5d0cb3d812140066d746
education, training, employment and unemployment
415
False
A thorough understanding of adolescence in society depends on information from various perspectives, including psychology, biology, history, sociology, education, and anthropology. Within all of these perspectives, adolescence is viewed as a transitional period between childhood and adulthood, whose cultural purpose is the preparation of children for adult roles. It is a period of multiple transitions involving education, training, employment and unemployment, as well as transitions from one living circumstance to another.
How do a person's heart and lungs change during puberty?
570d5dcdfed7b91900d45f53
increase in both size and capacity
105
False
Increased size and capacity of the heart and lungs result in what changes to the body?
570d5dcdfed7b91900d45f54
increased strength and tolerance for exercise
163
False
Which sex tends to develop larger hearts and lungs?
570d5dcdfed7b91900d45f55
males
242
False
Which sex tends to have more red blood cells than the other?
570d5dcdfed7b91900d45f56
males
242
False
Which body system are a person's lungs a major proponent of?
570d5dcdfed7b91900d45f57
respiratory
50
False
Pubertal development also affects circulatory and respiratory systems as an adolescents' heart and lungs increase in both size and capacity. These changes lead to increased strength and tolerance for exercise. Sex differences are apparent as males tend to develop "larger hearts and lungs, higher systolic blood pressure, a lower resting heart rate, a greater capacity for carrying oxygen to the blood, a greater power for neutralizing the chemical products of muscular exercise, higher blood hemoglobin and more red blood cells".
Is a person's brain fully developed by the time they reach puberty?
570d5ecfb3d812140066d773
not
19
False
The brain reaches what percentage of its adult size by the time a person is six years old?
570d5ecfb3d812140066d774
90%
235
False
The biggest changes in the brain during puberty occur in the parts of the cortex that process what kinds of information?
570d5ecfb3d812140066d775
cognitive and emotional
559
False
What parts of the brain continue to become more complex into the late teens?
570d5ecfb3d812140066d776
creases
375
False
The brain reaches 90% of its adult size by the time a person reaches what year of age?
570d5ecfb3d812140066d777
six
281
False
The human brain is not fully developed by the time a person reaches puberty. Between the ages of 10 and 25, the brain undergoes changes that have important implications for behavior (see Cognitive development below). The brain reaches 90% of its adult size by the time a person is six years of age. Thus, the brain does not grow in size much during adolescence. However, the creases in the brain continue to become more complex until the late teens. The biggest changes in the folds of the brain during this time occur in the parts of the cortex that process cognitive and emotional information.
Which neuromodulator is involved in regulation of mood and behavior?
570d5fd0b3d812140066d791
Serotonin
0
False
Are the effects of serotonin limited to the limbic system?
570d5fd0b3d812140066d792
not
522
False
Serotonin is a neuromodulator that is involved in regulation of what?
570d5fd0b3d812140066d793
mood and behavior
56
False
Which system in the brain determines rewards and punishments, emotional experiences, and social information?
570d5fd0b3d812140066d794
limbic
94
False
Which two neurotransmitters cause adolescents to be more emotional and more responsive to rewards and stresses?
570d5fd0b3d812140066d795
dopamine and serotonin
278
False
Serotonin is a neuromodulator involved in regulation of mood and behavior. Development in the limbic system plays an important role in determining rewards and punishments and processing emotional experience and social information. Changes in the levels of the neurotransmitters dopamine and serotonin in the limbic system make adolescents more emotional and more responsive to rewards and stress. The corresponding increase in emotional variability also can increase adolescents' vulnerability. The effect of serotonin is not limited to the limbic system: Several serotonin receptors have their gene expression change dramatically during adolescence, particularly in the human frontal and prefrontal cortex .
Are adolescents or children more bound to concrete events?
570d6464b3d812140066d7db
children
68
False
Deductive reasoning leads to the development of what type of thinking?
570d6464b3d812140066d7dc
hypothetical
334
False
What type of thinking provides the ability to plan ahead and makes adolescents more skilled debaters?
570d6464b3d812140066d7dd
hypothetical
334
False
Adolescents develop a more sophisticated understanding of what mathematical concept thanks to their increased hypothetical thinking abilties?
570d6464b3d812140066d7de
probability
665
False
Adolescents' thinking is less bound to concrete events than that of children: they can contemplate possibilities outside the realm of what currently exists. One manifestation of the adolescent's increased facility with thinking about possibilities is the improvement of skill in deductive reasoning, which leads to the development of hypothetical thinking. This provides the ability to plan ahead, see the future consequences of an action and to provide alternative explanations of events. It also makes adolescents more skilled debaters, as they can reason against a friend's or parent's assumptions. Adolescents also develop a more sophisticated understanding of probability.
Are sexual actvity and risky behaviors more likely in boys that mature early or later?
570d6596b3d812140066d801
early
975
False
Increased aggresiveness and early sexual maturation in adolescent boys are due to a surge of what?
570d6596b3d812140066d802
hormones
657
False
Are early or late maturing boys generally taller and stronger than their friends?
570d6596b3d812140066d803
Early
80
False
What is one reason a late maturing boy may be less confident when comparing himself to others?
570d6596b3d812140066d804
poor body image
420
False
The timing of puberty can have important psychological and social consequences. Early maturing boys are usually taller and stronger than their friends. They have the advantage in capturing the attention of potential partners and in becoming hand-picked for sports. Pubescent boys often tend to have a good body image, are more confident, secure, and more independent. Late maturing boys can be less confident because of poor body image when comparing themselves to already developed friends and peers. However, early puberty is not always positive for boys; early sexual maturation in boys can be accompanied by increased aggressiveness due to the surge of hormones that affect them. Because they appear older than their peers, pubescent boys may face increased social pressure to conform to adult norms; society may view them as more emotionally advanced, despite the fact that their cognitive and social development may lag behind their appearance. Studies have shown that early maturing boys are more likely to be sexually active and are more likely to participate in risky behaviors.
How is wisdom defined?
570d6669b3d812140066d81d
capacity for insight and judgment that is developed through experience
15
False
Wisdom increases between age fourteen and what?
570d6669b3d812140066d81e
twenty-five
130
False
Is wisdom the same thing as intelligence?
570d6669b3d812140066d81f
not
344
False
Do adolescents perform significantly better on IQ tests than other age groups?
570d6669b3d812140066d820
not
344
False
What word is defined as the capacity for insight and judgement that is developed through experience?
570d6669b3d812140066d821
Wisdom
0
False
Wisdom, or the capacity for insight and judgment that is developed through experience, increases between the ages of fourteen and twenty-five, then levels off. Thus, it is during the adolescence-adulthood transition that individuals acquire the type of wisdom that is associated with age. Wisdom is not the same as intelligence: adolescents do not improve substantially on IQ tests since their scores are relative to others in their same age group, and relative standing usually does not change—everyone matures at approximately the same rate in this way.
How is adolescence defined biologically?
570d672cb3d812140066d837
the physical transition marked by the onset of puberty and the termination of physical growth
80
False
How is adolescence defined cognitively?
570d672cb3d812140066d838
changes in the ability to think abstractly and multi-dimensionally
191
False
Changes to sex organs, height, weight, and muscle mass are examples of which type of change?
570d672cb3d812140066d83a
biological
335
False
Increases in knowledge and the ability to think abstractly are examples of which kind of change?
570d672cb3d812140066d83b
Cognitive
484
False
In studying adolescent development, adolescence can be defined biologically, as the physical transition marked by the onset of puberty and the termination of physical growth; cognitively, as changes in the ability to think abstractly and multi-dimensionally; or socially, as a period of preparation for adult roles. Major pubertal and biological changes include changes to the sex organs, height, weight, and muscle mass, as well as major changes in brain structure and organization. Cognitive advances encompass both increases in knowledge and in the ability to think abstractly and to reason more effectively. The study of adolescent development often involves interdisciplinary collaborations. For example, researchers in neuroscience or bio-behavioral health might focus on pubertal changes in brain structure and its effects on cognition or social relations. Sociologists interested in adolescence might focus on the acquisition of social roles (e.g., worker or romantic partner) and how this varies across cultures or social conditions. Developmental psychologists might focus on changes in relations with parents and peers as a function of school structure and pubertal status.
Who founded the University of California, Berkeley's Institude of Human Development?
570d6819b3d812140066d869
Jean Macfarlane
0
False
What year was the University of California, Berkeley's Instutute of Human Development founded?
570d6819b3d812140066d86a
1927
148
False
What was the Univerity of California, Berkeley's Institute of Human Development formerly called?
570d6819b3d812140066d86b
Institute of Child Welfare
117
False
What year was the Oakland Growth Study initiated?
570d6819b3d812140066d86c
1931
570
False
What year did data for the Oakland Growth Study stop being collected?
570d6819b3d812140066d86d
1981
725
False
Jean Macfarlane founded the University of California, Berkeley's Institute of Human Development, formerly called the Institute of Child Welfare, in 1927. The Institute was instrumental in initiating studies of healthy development, in contrast to previous work that had been dominated by theories based on pathological personalities. The studies looked at human development during the Great Depression and World War II, unique historical circumstances under which a generation of children grew up. The Oakland Growth Study, initiated by Harold Jones and Herbert Stolz in 1931, aimed to study the physical, intellectual, and social development of children in the Oakland area. Data collection began in 1932 and continued until 1981, allowing the researchers to gather longitudinal data on the individuals that extended past adolescence into adulthood. Jean Macfarlane launched the Berkeley Guidance Study, which examined the development of children in terms of their socioeconomic and family backgrounds. These studies provided the background for Glen Elder in the 1960s, to propose a life-course perspective of adolescent development. Elder formulated several descriptive principles of adolescent development. The principle of historical time and place states that an individual's development is shaped by the period and location in which they grow up. The principle of the importance of timing in one's life refers to the different impact that life events have on development based on when in one's life they occur. The idea of linked lives states that one's development is shaped by the interconnected network of relationships of which one is a part; and the principle of human agency asserts that one's life course is constructed via the choices and actions of an individual within the context of their historical period and social network.
What is a male's major landmark of puberty?
570d7b4db3d812140066d9cb
first ejaculation
47
False
At what average age does a male's first ejaculation occur?
570d7b4db3d812140066d9cc
13
99
False
What is a female's major landmark of puberty?
570d7b4db3d812140066d9cd
menstruation
145
False
Besides heredity, what other factors contribute to when menustration begins?
570d7b4db3d812140066d9ce
diet and lifestyle
269
False
Do girls who are malnourished start menustrating earlier or later than those with high-fat diets?
570d7b4db3d812140066d9cf
later
777
False
The major landmark of puberty for males is the first ejaculation, which occurs, on average, at age 13. For females, it is menarche, the onset of menstruation, which occurs, on average, between ages 12 and 13. The age of menarche is influenced by heredity, but a girl's diet and lifestyle contribute as well. Regardless of genes, a girl must have a certain proportion of body fat to attain menarche. Consequently, girls who have a high-fat diet and who are not physically active begin menstruating earlier, on average, than girls whose diet contains less fat and whose activities involve fat reducing exercise (e.g. ballet and gymnastics). Girls who experience malnutrition or are in societies in which children are expected to perform physical labor also begin menstruating at later ages.
How can the ideal self be described in terms of the adolescent?
570d7fc7fed7b91900d461d1
who the adolescent wishes to be
340
False
How can the feared self be described in terms of the adolescent?
570d7fc7fed7b91900d461d2
who the adolescent does not want to be
404
False
Do adolescents demonstrate intended behavior moving towards the ideal or feared self?
570d7fc7fed7b91900d461d3
ideal
328
False
Adolescents can conceptualize multiple "possible selves" that they could become and long-term possibilities and consequences of their choices. Exploring these possibilities may result in abrupt changes in self-presentation as the adolescent chooses or rejects qualities and behaviors, trying to guide the actual self toward the ideal self (who the adolescent wishes to be) and away from the feared self (who the adolescent does not want to be). For many, these distinctions are uncomfortable, but they also appear to motivate achievement through behavior consistent with the ideal and distinct from the feared possible selves.
What term is the beginning of menstruation given?
570d80ccb3d812140066da0d
Menarche
139
False
How many years does regular ovulation follow menarche?
570d80ccb3d812140066da0e
two years
384
False
Do males or females appear physically mature before they are capable of reproduction?
570d80ccb3d812140066da0f
females
420
False
What are two areas of the reproductive system that experience growth in females during puberty?
570d80ccb3d812140066da10
uterus, vagina
77
False
In females, changes in the primary sex characteristics involve growth of the uterus, vagina, and other aspects of the reproductive system. Menarche, the beginning of menstruation, is a relatively late development which follows a long series of hormonal changes. Generally, a girl is not fully fertile until several years after menarche, as regular ovulation follows menarche by about two years. Unlike males, therefore, females usually appear physically mature before they are capable of becoming pregnant.
What activity often results in a boy's first ejaculation?
570d97d816d0071400510ba5
masturbation
565
False
What are primary sex characteristics?
570d97d816d0071400510ba6
those directly related to the sex organs
32
False
What does the first stage of puberty involve for males?
570d97d816d0071400510ba7
growth of the testes and scrotum
120
False
After growth of the testes and scrotum, while male body part experiences growth next?
570d97d816d0071400510ba8
penis
180
False
Which male body parts enlarge and develop at the same time as the penis?
570d97d816d0071400510ba9
seminal vesicles, the prostate, and the bulbourethral gland
228
False
Primary sex characteristics are those directly related to the sex organs. In males, the first stages of puberty involve growth of the testes and scrotum, followed by growth of the penis. At the time that the penis develops, the seminal vesicles, the prostate, and the bulbourethral gland also enlarge and develop. The first ejaculation of seminal fluid generally occurs about one year after the beginning of accelerated penis growth, although this is often determined culturally rather than biologically, since for many boys first ejaculation occurs as a result of masturbation. Boys are generally fertile before they have an adult appearance.
At what stage do parents see their children as equals?
570d995c16d0071400510bb9
early adolescence
190
False
During what stage of development is there increased parent-child conflict and a less cohesive familial bond?
570d995c16d0071400510bba
puberty
411
False
During puberty and adolescence, do most children share the same or different attitudes and values as their parents?
570d995c16d0071400510bbb
same
1833
False
Adolescence marks a rapid change in one's role within a family. Young children tend to assert themselves forcefully, but are unable to demonstrate much influence over family decisions until early adolescence, when they are increasingly viewed by parents as equals. The adolescent faces the task of increasing independence while preserving a caring relationship with his or her parents. When children go through puberty, there is often a significant increase in parent–child conflict and a less cohesive familial bond. Arguments often concern minor issues of control, such as curfew, acceptable clothing, and the adolescent's right to privacy, which adolescents may have previously viewed as issues over which their parents had complete authority. Parent-adolescent disagreement also increases as friends demonstrate a greater impact on one another, new influences on the adolescent that may be in opposition to parents' values. Social media has also played an increasing role in adolescent and parent disagreements. While parents never had to worry about the threats of social media in the past, it has become a dangerous place for children. While adolescents strive for their freedoms, the unknowns to parents of what their child is doing on social media sites is a challenging subject, due to the increasing amount of predators on social media sites. Many parents have very little knowledge of social networking sites in the first place and this further increases their mistrust. An important challenge for the parent–adolescent relationship is to understand how to enhance the opportunities of online communication while managing its risks. Although conflicts between children and parents increase during adolescence, these are just relatively minor issues. Regarding their important life issues, most adolescents still share the same attitudes and values as their parents.
Which part of the brain is involved in decision making and cognitive control?
570d9a1c16d0071400510bc9
prefrontal cortex
357
False
Which area of the brain is important for controlling impulses and planning ahead?
570d9a1c16d0071400510bca
dorsolateral prefrontal cortex
855
False
Which part of the brain is important for evaluating rewards and risks?
570d9a1c16d0071400510bcb
orbitofrontal cortex
1050
False
Which are the first areas to be pruned during puberty?
570d9a1c16d0071400510bcc
those involving primary functions
46
False
Motor and sensory skills are examples of what kind of brain function?
570d9a1c16d0071400510bcd
primary
62
False
The first areas of the brain to be pruned are those involving primary functions, such as motor and sensory areas. The areas of the brain involved in more complex processes lose matter later in development. These include the lateral and prefrontal cortices, among other regions. Some of the most developmentally significant changes in the brain occur in the prefrontal cortex, which is involved in decision making and cognitive control, as well as other higher cognitive functions. During adolescence, myelination and synaptic pruning in the prefrontal cortex increases, improving the efficiency of information processing, and neural connections between the prefrontal cortex and other regions of the brain are strengthened. This leads to better evaluation of risks and rewards, as well as improved control over impulses. Specifically, developments in the dorsolateral prefrontal cortex are important for controlling impulses and planning ahead, while development in the ventromedial prefrontal cortex is important for decision making. Changes in the orbitofrontal cortex are important for evaluating rewards and risks.
What is one area in which peer groups can have positive influences on an individual?
570d9b8216d0071400510bd9
academic motivation and performance
809
False
What are some of the negative experiences that peer pressure can influence during adolescence?
570d9b8216d0071400510bda
experimentation with drugs, drinking, vandalism, and stealing
998
False
At what age does succeptability to peer pressure peak?
570d9b8216d0071400510bdb
14
1168
False
What are some social skills that peer groups offer members the opportunity to develop?
570d9b8216d0071400510bdc
empathy, sharing, and leadership
219
False
Communication within peer groups allows adolescents to explore their feelings and identity as well as develop and evaluate their social skills. Peer groups offer members the opportunity to develop social skills such as empathy, sharing, and leadership. Adolescents choose peer groups based on characteristics similarly found in themselves. By utilizing these relationships, adolescents become more accepting of who they are becoming. Group norms and values are incorporated into an adolescent’s own self-concept. Through developing new communication skills and reflecting upon those of their peers, as well as self-opinions and values, an adolescent can share and express emotions and other concerns without fear of rejection or judgment. Peer groups can have positive influences on an individual, such as on academic motivation and performance. However, while peers may facilitate social development for one another they may also hinder it. Peers can have negative influences, such as encouraging experimentation with drugs, drinking, vandalism, and stealing through peer pressure. Susceptibility to peer pressure increases during early adolescence, peaks around age 14, and declines thereafter. Further evidence of peers hindering social development has been found in Spanish teenagers, where emotional (rather than solution-based) reactions to problems and emotional instability have been linked with physical aggression against peers. Both physical and relational aggression are linked to a vast number of enduring psychological difficulties, especially depression, as is social rejection. Because of this, bullied adolescents often develop problems that lead to further victimization. Bullied adolescents are both more likely to continued to be bullied and to bully others in the future. However, this relationship is less stable in cases of cyberbullying, a relatively new issue among adolescents.
What view towards cognitive development during adolescence did Piaget take?
570d9c7616d0071400510beb
constructivist
105
False
Did Piaget believe that cognitive improvement was sudden and drastic or slow and steadied?
570d9c7616d0071400510bec
sudden and drastic
296
False
Besides the information-processing perspective, what is the other major approach to understanding cognitive change during adolescence?
570d9c7616d0071400510bed
quantitative, state-theory
191
False
The information-processing perspective towards cognitive development derives from the study of what?
570d9c7616d0071400510bee
artificial intelligence
402
False
There are at least two major approaches to understanding cognitive change during adolescence. One is the constructivist view of cognitive development. Based on the work of Piaget, it takes a quantitative, state-theory approach, hypothesizing that adolescents' cognitive improvement is relatively sudden and drastic. The second is the information-processing perspective, which derives from the study of artificial intelligence and attempts to explain cognitive development in terms of the growth of specific components of the thinking process.
Casual sexual encounters are often referred to as what?
570d9dfadf2f5219002ed058
hookups
174
False
Do most sexual experiences during adolescence take place within or seperate from romantic relationships?
570d9dfadf2f5219002ed059
within
253
False
Where do some adolescents feel is a safe place to seek out romantic relationships, try out dating and indentity exploration?
570d9dfadf2f5219002ed05a
social media
321
False
What seperates "heavy" sexual activity from other forms of affection?
570d9dfadf2f5219002ed05b
genital stimulation
647
False
For older adolescents, is sexual activity in a romantic relationship associated with lower or higher levels of deviant behavior?
570d9dfadf2f5219002ed05c
lower
1206
False
Adolescence marks a time of sexual maturation, which manifests in social interactions as well. While adolescents may engage in casual sexual encounters (often referred to as hookups), most sexual experience during this period of development takes place within romantic relationships. Adolescents can use technologies and social media to seek out romantic relationships as they feel it is a safe place to try out dating and identity exploration. From these social media encounters, a further relationship may begin. Kissing, hand holding, and hugging signify satisfaction and commitment. Among young adolescents, "heavy" sexual activity, marked by genital stimulation, is often associated with violence, depression, and poor relationship quality. This effect does not hold true for sexual activity in late adolescence that takes place within a romantic relationship. Some research suggest that there are genetic causes of early sexual activity that are also risk factors for delinquency, suggesting that there is a group who are at risk for both early sexual activity and emotional distress. For old adolescents, though, sexual activity in the context of romantic relationships was actually correlated with lower levels of deviant behavior after controlling for genetic risks, as opposed to sex outside of a relationship (hook-ups)
What is the term used to describe thinking about thinking itself?
570d9f0316d0071400510bfd
metacognition
100
False
Are adolescents or children better able to understand that people do not have complete control over their thoughts?
570d9f0316d0071400510bfe
Adolescents
564
False
The imaginary audience and personal fable peak at what age?
570d9f0316d0071400510bff
fifteen
892
False
At what age does self-consciousness in general peak?
570d9f0316d0071400510c00
fifteen
892
False
A third gain in cognitive ability involves thinking about thinking itself, a process referred to as metacognition. It often involves monitoring one's own cognitive activity during the thinking process. Adolescents' improvements in knowledge of their own thinking patterns lead to better self-control and more effective studying. It is also relevant in social cognition, resulting in increased introspection, self-consciousness, and intellectualization (in the sense of thought about one's own thoughts, rather than the Freudian definition as a defense mechanism). Adolescents are much better able than children to understand that people do not have complete control over their mental activity. Being able to introspect may lead to two forms of adolescent egocentrism, which results in two distinct problems in thinking: the imaginary audience and the personal fable. These likely peak at age fifteen, along with self-consciousness in general.
What questionaire has been used to measure the age in which adolescents should be able to engage in autonomous behaviors?
570da031df2f5219002ed072
teen timetable
27
False
Do White or Asian parents tend to expect autonomy earlier than the other?
570da031df2f5219002ed073
White
310
False
What has the teen timetable questionnaire been used to guage?
570da031df2f5219002ed074
differences in cultural perceptions of adolescent autonomy
222
False
A questionnaire called the teen timetable has been used to measure the age at which individuals believe adolescents should be able to engage in behaviors associated with autonomy. This questionnaire has been used to gauge differences in cultural perceptions of adolescent autonomy, finding, for instance, that White parents and adolescents tend to expect autonomy earlier than those of Asian descent. It is, therefore, clear that cultural differences exist in perceptions of adolescent autonomy, and such differences have implications for the lifestyles and development of adolescents. In sub-Saharan African youth, the notions of individuality and freedom may not be useful in understanding adolescent development. Rather, African notions of childhood and adolescent development are relational and interdependent.
What is an example of a poor birth control method?
570da297df2f5219002ed082
withdrawal
174
False
Are higher or lower levels of parental support associated with risky sexual behavior?
570da297df2f5219002ed083
lower
457
False
Is exploratory sexual behavior seen as similar or seperate to other aspects of identity?
570da297df2f5219002ed084
similar
756
False
Does having unprotected sex, multiple sexual partners, and poor communication increase or decrease individual and social risk?
570da297df2f5219002ed085
increase
284
False
Given the potential consequences, engaging in sexual behavior is somewhat risky, particularly for adolescents. Having unprotected sex, using poor birth control methods (e.g. withdrawal), having multiple sexual partners, and poor communication are some aspects of sexual behavior that increase individual and/or social risk. Some qualities of adolescents' lives that are often correlated with risky sexual behavior include higher rates of experienced abuse, lower rates of parental support and monitoring. Adolescence is also commonly a time of questioning sexuality and gender. This may involve intimate experimentation with people identifying as the same gender as well as with people of differing genders. Such exploratory sexual behavior can be seen as similar to other aspects of identity, including the exploration of vocational, social, and leisure identity, all of which involve some risk.
Does research favor or reject the hypothesis that adolescents and adults think about risk similarly but hold different values and therefore come to different conclusions?
570da4e916d0071400510c3b
favor
18
False
A priority in sexual attraction and dating can prove helpful in order to complete what reproductive advantage?
570da4e916d0071400510c3c
impress potential mates
837
False
What does research indicate may affect risk-taking behavior throughout the lifespan?
570da4e916d0071400510c3d
baseline sensation seeking
891
False
Research seems to favor the hypothesis that adolescents and adults think about risk in similar ways, but hold different values and thus come to different conclusions. Some have argued that there may be evolutionary benefits to an increased propensity for risk-taking in adolescence. For example, without a willingness to take risks, teenagers would not have the motivation or confidence necessary to leave their family of origin. In addition, from a population perspective, there is an advantage to having a group of individuals willing to take more risks and try new methods, counterbalancing the more conservative elements more typical of the received knowledge held by older adults. Risktaking may also have reproductive advantages: adolescents have a newfound priority in sexual attraction and dating, and risk-taking is required to impress potential mates. Research also indicates that baseline sensation seeking may affect risk-taking behavior throughout the lifespan.
When does the search for identity begin for most individuals?
570da64516d0071400510c41
adolescent years
110
False
What are some factors that make developing and maintaining an identity during the adolescent years a difficult task?
570da64516d0071400510c42
family life, environment, and social status
543
False
What are two main aspects of identity development?
570da64516d0071400510c43
self-clarity and self-esteem
871
False
What are the three general approaches to understanding identity development?
570da64516d0071400510c44
self-concept, sense of identity, and self-esteem
1209
False
Do adolescents with a less privileged upbringing have a more or less difficult time developing their identity?
570da64516d0071400510c45
more difficult
1756
False
Identity development is a stage in the adolescent life cycle. For most, the search for identity begins in the adolescent years. During these years, adolescents are more open to 'trying on' different behaviours and appearances to discover who they are. In other words, in an attempt to find their identity and discover who they are adolescents are liking to cycle through a number of identities to find one that suits them best. But, developing and maintaining identity (in adolescent years) is a difficult task due to multiple factors such as family life, environment, and social status. Empirical studies suggest that this process might be more accurately described as identity development, rather than formation, but confirms a normative process of change in both content and structure of one's thoughts about the self. The two main aspects of identity development are self-clarity and self-esteem. Since choices made during adolescent years can influence later life, high levels of self-awareness and self-control during mid-adolescence will lead to better decisions during the transition to adulthood.[citation needed] Researchers have used three general approaches to understanding identity development: self-concept, sense of identity, and self-esteem. The years of adolescence create a more conscientious group of young adults. Adolescents pay close attention and give more time and effort to their appearance as their body goes through changes. Unlike children, teens put forth an effort to look presentable (1991). The environment in which an adolescent grows up also plays an important role in their identity development. Studies done by the American Psychological Association have shown that adolescents with a less privileged upbringing have a more difficult time developing their identity.
Identity achievement rarely occurs before what age?
570da71c16d0071400510c55
18
125
False
Is there a final endpoint in identity development?
570da71c16d0071400510c56
no
581
False
Evidence has supported which theorist's idea concerning stages of development?
570da71c16d0071400510c57
Erikson
432
False
Does self-examination begin early or late in adolescence?
570da71c16d0071400510c58
early
50
False
Research since reveals self-examination beginning early in adolescence, but identity achievement rarely occurring before age 18. The freshman year of college influences identity development significantly, but may actually prolong psychosocial moratorium by encouraging reexamination of previous commitments and further exploration of alternate possibilities without encouraging resolution. For the most part, evidence has supported Erikson's stages: each correlates with the personality traits he originally predicted. Studies also confirm the impermanence of the stages; there is no final endpoint in identity development.
Which theorist argued that not everyone fully achieves identity?
570da8e2df2f5219002ed0ce
Erik Erikson
332
False
How do adolescents initially define themselves?
570da8e2df2f5219002ed0cf
crowd membership
852
False
How is Moratorium defined?
570da8e2df2f5219002ed0d0
process of exploration
2330
False
Which researcher developed the current method for testing an individual's process along the stages of identity?
570da8e2df2f5219002ed0d1
James Marcia
1786
False
James Marcia divides questions into how many categories?
570da8e2df2f5219002ed0d2
three
1916
False
Egocentrism in adolescents forms a self-conscious desire to feel important in their peer groups and enjoy social acceptance. Unlike the conflicting aspects of self-concept, identity represents a coherent sense of self stable across circumstances and including past experiences and future goals. Everyone has a self-concept, whereas Erik Erikson argued that not everyone fully achieves identity. Erikson's theory of stages of development includes the identity crisis in which adolescents must explore different possibilities and integrate different parts of themselves before committing to their beliefs. He described the resolution of this process as a stage of "identity achievement" but also stressed that the identity challenge "is never fully resolved once and for all at one point in time". Adolescents begin by defining themselves based on their crowd membership. "Clothes help teens explore new identities, separate from parents, and bond with peers." Fashion has played a major role when it comes to teenagers "finding their selves"; Fashion is always evolving, which corresponds with the evolution of change in the personality of teenagers. Adolescents attempt to define their identity by consciously styling themselves in different manners to find what best suits them. Trial and error in matching both their perceived image and the image others respond to and see, allows for the adolescent to grasp an understanding of who they are Just as fashion is evolving to influence adolescents so is the media. "Modern life takes place amidst a never-ending barrage of flesh on screens, pages, and billboards." This barrage consciously or subconsciously registers into the mind causing issues with self-image a factor that contributes to an adolescence sense of identity. Researcher James Marcia developed the current method for testing an individual's progress along these stages. His questions are divided into three categories: occupation, ideology, and interpersonal relationships. Answers are scored based on extent to which the individual has explored and the degree to which he has made commitments. The result is classification of the individual into a) identity diffusion in which all children begin, b) Identity Foreclosure in which commitments are made without the exploration of alternatives, c) Moratorium, or the process of exploration, or d) Identity Achievement in which Moratorium has occurred and resulted in commitments.
Which term is defined as one's thoughts and feelings about one's self-concept and identity?
570da9c916d0071400510c71
Self-esteem
61
False
Is there evidence to support a drop in self-esteem during adolescence?
570da9c916d0071400510c72
no
337
False
Which type of self-esteem fluctuates rapidly and can cause severe distress and anxiety?
570da9c916d0071400510c73
Barometric self-esteem
430
False
Which type of self-esteem remains stable throughout adolescence?
570da9c916d0071400510c74
baseline self-esteem
520
False
What is the most important function of friendship?
570da9c916d0071400510c75
having someone who can provide social and moral support
896
False
The final major aspect of identity formation is self-esteem. Self-esteem is defined as one's thoughts and feelings about one's self-concept and identity. Most theories on self-esteem state that there is a grand desire, across all genders and ages, to maintain, protect and enhance their self-esteem. Contrary to popular belief, there is no empirical evidence for a significant drop in self-esteem over the course of adolescence. "Barometric self-esteem" fluctuates rapidly and can cause severe distress and anxiety, but baseline self-esteem remains highly stable across adolescence. The validity of global self-esteem scales has been questioned, and many suggest that more specific scales might reveal more about the adolescent experience. Girls are most likely to enjoy high self-esteem when engaged in supportive relationships with friends, the most important function of friendship to them is having someone who can provide social and moral support. When they fail to win friends' approval or couldn't find someone with whom to share common activities and common interests, in these cases, girls suffer from low self-esteem. In contrast, boys are more concerned with establishing and asserting their independence and defining their relation to authority. As such, they are more likely to derive high self-esteem from their ability to successfully influence their friends; on the other hand, the lack of romantic competence, for example, failure to win or maintain the affection of the opposite or same-sex (depending on sexual orientation), is the major contributor to low self-esteem in adolescent boys. Due to the fact that both men and women happen to have a low self-esteem after ending a romantic relationship, they are prone to other symptoms that is caused by this state. Depression and hopelessness are only two of the various symptoms and it is said that women are twice as likely to experience depression and men are three to four times more likely to commit suicide (Mearns, 1991; Ustun & Sartorius, 1995).
At what age does awareness of one's sexual orientation occur on average?
570daaea16d0071400510c7b
10
562
False
At what age does coming out to one's peers occur on average?
570daaea16d0071400510c7c
16
636
False
At what age does coming out to adults occur on average?
570daaea16d0071400510c7d
17
643
False
How many times higher is the suicide rate amongst LGBT adolescents than their heterosexual peers?
570daaea16d0071400510c7e
four
1324
False
What are factors causing a hightened suicide rate amongst LGBT adolescents?
570daaea16d0071400510c7f
bullying and rejection from peers or family members
1387
False
In terms of sexual identity, adolescence is when most gay/lesbian and transgender adolescents begin to recognize and make sense of their feelings. Many adolescents may choose to come out during this period of their life once an identity has been formed; many others may go through a period of questioning or denial, which can include experimentation with both homosexual and heterosexual experiences. A study of 194 lesbian, gay, and bisexual youths under the age of 21 found that having an awareness of one's sexual orientation occurred, on average, around age 10, but the process of coming out to peers and adults occurred around age 16 and 17, respectively. Coming to terms with and creating a positive LGBT identity can be difficult for some youth for a variety of reasons. Peer pressure is a large factor when youth who are questioning their sexuality or gender identity are surrounded by heteronormative peers and can cause great distress due to a feeling of being different from everyone else. While coming out can also foster better psychological adjustment, the risks associated are real. Indeed, coming out in the midst of a heteronormative peer environment often comes with the risk of ostracism, hurtful jokes, and even violence. Because of this, statistically the suicide rate amongst LGBT adolescents is up to four times higher than that of their heterosexual peers due to bullying and rejection from peers or family members.
Are adolescents with authoritative parents more or less likely to complete secondary education by age 22?
570dad1d16d0071400510cad
more
554
False
Are adolescents that have a good relationship with their parents more or less likely to smoke, drink, fight, or engage in unprotected sex?
570dad1d16d0071400510cae
less likely
213
False
Which researchers conducted a 2009 study that concerned adolescents, their parents, and secondary education completion?
570dad1d16d0071400510caf
Adalbjarnardottir and Blondal
420
False
Despite changing family roles during adolescence, the home environment and parents are still important for the behaviors and choices of adolescents. Adolescents who have a good relationship with their parents are less likely to engage in various risk behaviors, such as smoking, drinking, fighting, and/or unprotected sexual intercourse. In addition, parents influence the education of adolescence. A study conducted by Adalbjarnardottir and Blondal (2009) showed that adolescents at the age of 14 who identify their parents as authoritative figures are more likely to complete secondary education by the age of 22—as support and encouragement from an authoritative parent motivates the adolescence to complete schooling to avoid disappointing that parent.
Are modern day teenagers exposed to more or less media than other generations?
570dae6016d0071400510cc7
more
134
False
How many hours of television does the average teenager watch per year?
570dae6016d0071400510cc8
1500
267
False
Teenagers' views on body mass, loe self-esteem, and atypical eating patterns results in what?
570dae6016d0071400510cc9
body dissatisfaction
528
False
How is "body dissatisfaction" defined?
570dae6016d0071400510cca
The concept of a person being unhappy with their own image or appearance
397
False
Much research has been conducted on the psychological ramifications of body image on adolescents. Modern day teenagers are exposed to more media on a daily basis than any generation before them. Recent studies have indicated that the average teenager watches roughly 1500 hours of television per year. As such, modern day adolescents are exposed to many representations of ideal, societal beauty. The concept of a person being unhappy with their own image or appearance has been defined as "body dissatisfaction". In teenagers, body dissatisfaction is often associated with body mass, low self-esteem, and atypical eating patterns. Scholars continue to debate the effects of media on body dissatisfaction in teens.
What is the current divorce rate?
570dafb616d0071400510cd9
about 50%
130
False
Does divorce usually result in more or less contact with the noncustodial parent?
570dafb616d0071400510cda
less
367
False
What new theory states that traumatic events during adolescence have lifelong effects?
570dafb616d0071400510cdb
epistemological trauma theory
987
False
Does a parental divorce during childhood or adulthood have a positive or negative effect on a person during early adulthood?
570dafb616d0071400510cdc
negative
1408
False
A potential important influence on adolescence is change of the family dynamic, specifically divorce. With the divorce rate up to about 50%, divorce is common and adds to the already great amount of change in adolescence. Custody disputes soon after a divorce often reflect a playing out of control battles and ambivalence between parents. Divorce usually results in less contact between the adolescent and their noncustodial parent. In extreme cases of instability and abuse in homes, divorce can have a positive effect on families due to less conflict in the home. However, most research suggests a negative effect on adolescence as well as later development. A recent study found that, compared with peers who grow up in stable post-divorce families, children of divorce who experience additional family transitions during late adolescence, make less progress in their math and social studies performance over time. Another recent study put forth a new theory entitled the adolescent epistemological trauma theory, which posited that traumatic life events such as parental divorce during the formative period of late adolescence portend lifelong effects on adult conflict behavior that can be mitigated by effective behavioral assessment and training. A parental divorce during childhood or adolescence continues to have a negative effect when a person is in his or her twenties and early thirties. These negative effects include romantic relationships and conflict style, meaning as adults, they are more likely to use the styles of avoidance and competing in conflict management.
What are a few examples of social and religious transition ceremonies?
570db299df2f5219002ed0fc
Confirmation, Bar and Bat Mitzvahs, Quinceañeras, sweet sixteens, cotillions, and débutante balls
142
False
What are some physical ways that some cultures mark the transition into adulthood?
570db299df2f5219002ed0fd
tattoos and scarification
487
False
Do cultural transitions into adulthood vary, or are they the same?
570db299df2f5219002ed0fe
vary
563
False
Some examples of social and religious transition ceremonies that can be found in the U.S., as well as in other cultures around the world, are Confirmation, Bar and Bat Mitzvahs, Quinceañeras, sweet sixteens, cotillions, and débutante balls. In other countries, initiation ceremonies play an important role, marking the transition into adulthood or the entrance into adolescence. This transition may be accompanied by obvious physical changes, which can vary from a change in clothing to tattoos and scarification. Furthermore, transitions into adulthood may also vary by gender, and specific rituals may be more common for males or for females. This illuminates the extent to which adolescence is, at least in part, a social construction; it takes shape differently depending on the cultural context, and may be enforced more by cultural practices or transitions than by universal chemical or biological physical changes.
Do romantic relationships tend to increase or decrease throughout adolescence?
570db375df2f5219002ed102
increase
31
False
How many percent of adolescents have had a romantic relationship lasting one month or longer by age 15?
570db375df2f5219002ed103
53%
89
False
At what average age did American males report their first sexual intercourse took place?
570db375df2f5219002ed104
17.0
501
False
At what average age did American females report their first sexual intercourse took place?
570db375df2f5219002ed105
17.3
520
False
Does the typical duration of relationships increase or decrease throughout the teenage years?
570db375df2f5219002ed106
increases
576
False
Romantic relationships tend to increase in prevalence throughout adolescence. By age 15, 53% of adolescents have had a romantic relationship that lasted at least one month over the course of the previous 18 months. In a 2008 study conducted by YouGov for Channel 4, 20% of 14−17-year-olds surveyed revealed that they had their first sexual experience at 13 or under in the United Kingdom. A 2002 American study found that those aged 15–44 reported that the average age of first sexual intercourse was 17.0 for males and 17.3 for females. The typical duration of relationships increases throughout the teenage years as well. This constant increase in the likelihood of a long-term relationship can be explained by sexual maturation and the development of cognitive skills necessary to maintain a romantic bond (e.g. caregiving, appropriate attachment), although these skills are not strongly developed until late adolescence. Long-term relationships allow adolescents to gain the skills necessary for high-quality relationships later in life and develop feelings of self-worth. Overall, positive romantic relationships among adolescents can result in long-term benefits. High-quality romantic relationships are associated with higher commitment in early adulthood and are positively associated with self-esteem, self-confidence, and social competence. For example, an adolescent with positive self-confidence is likely to consider themselves a more successful partner, whereas negative experiences may lead to low confidence as a romantic partner. Adolescents often date within their demographic in regards to race, ethnicity, popularity, and physical attractiveness. However, there are traits in which certain individuals, particularly adolescent girls, seek diversity. While most adolescents date people approximately their own age, boys typically date partners the same age or younger; girls typically date partners the same age or older.
How is culture defined?
570db44716d0071400510d09
symbolic and behavioral inheritance received from the past that provides a community framework for what is valued
172
False
Does culture affect all, some, or none of the aspects of an individual's life?
570db44716d0071400510d0a
all
343
False
What is a challenge researchers face when studying culture and adolescents?
570db44716d0071400510d0b
not to define the culture's role in adolescence in terms of their own cultural beliefs
1157
False
Should culture be directly connected to a nation or ethnicity?
570db44716d0071400510d0c
not
954
False
There are certain characteristics of adolescent development that are more rooted in culture than in human biology or cognitive structures. Culture has been defined as the "symbolic and behavioral inheritance received from the past that provides a community framework for what is valued". Culture is learned and socially shared, and it affects all aspects of an individual's life. Social responsibilities, sexual expression, and belief system development, for instance, are all things that are likely to vary by culture. Furthermore, distinguishing characteristics of youth, including dress, music and other uses of media, employment, art, food and beverage choices, recreation, and language, all constitute a youth culture. For these reasons, culture is a prevalent and powerful presence in the lives of adolescents, and therefore we cannot fully understand today's adolescents without studying and understanding their culture. However, "culture" should not be seen as synonymous with nation or ethnicity. Many cultures are present within any given country and racial or socioeconomic group. Furthermore, to avoid ethnocentrism, researchers must be careful not to define the culture's role in adolescence in terms of their own cultural beliefs.
How do adolescents use online technology?
570db50f16d0071400510d1b
experiment with emerging identities and to broaden their peer groups
531
False
To what does "channel" refer in terms if adolescent communication?
570db50f16d0071400510d1c
form of communication
248
False
What is a potential negative effect of using newer online channels of communication?
570db50f16d0071400510d1d
cyberbullying
822
False
When discussing peer relationships among adolescents it is also important to include information in regards to how they communicate with one another. An important aspect of communication is the channel used. Channel, in this respect, refers to the form of communication, be it face-to-face, email, text message, phone or other. Teens are heavy users of newer forms of communication such as text message and social-networking websites such as Facebook, especially when communicating with peers. Adolescents use online technology to experiment with emerging identities and to broaden their peer groups, such as increasing the amount of friends acquired on Facebook and other social media sites. Some adolescents use these newer channels to enhance relationships with peers however there can be negative uses as well such as cyberbullying, as mentioned previously, and negative impacts on the family.
What percentage of sexually active teenagers will contract an STI?
570db64c16d0071400510d21
One in four
436
False
What percent of the teenage population is affected by herpes and HPV?
570db64c16d0071400510d22
15
806
False
Girls ages 15 to 19 have higher rates of what STD than any other age group?
570db64c16d0071400510d23
gonorrhea
877
False
What ratio of all new HIV cases occur in those under age 21?
570db64c16d0071400510d24
One-quarter
913
False
According to a survey by the Kaiser Family Foundation, what percentage of parents want schools to discuss contraception with their children?
570db64c16d0071400510d25
eighty-one percent
1084
False
In contemporary society, adolescents also face some risks as their sexuality begins to transform. While some of these, such as emotional distress (fear of abuse or exploitation) and sexually transmitted infections/diseases (STIs/STDs), including HIV/AIDS, are not necessarily inherent to adolescence, others such as teenage pregnancy (through non-use or failure of contraceptives) are seen as social problems in most western societies. One in four sexually active teenagers will contract an STI. Adolescents in the United States often chose "anything but intercourse" for sexual activity because they mistakenly believe it reduces the risk of STIs. Across the country, clinicians report rising diagnoses of herpes and human papillomavirus (HPV), which can cause genital warts, and is now thought to affect 15 percent of the teen population. Girls 15 to 19 have higher rates of gonorrhea than any other age group. One-quarter of all new HIV cases occur in those under the age of 21. Multrine also states in her article that according to a March survey by the Kaiser Family Foundation, eighty-one percent of parents want schools to discuss the use of condoms and contraception with their children. They also believe students should be able to be tested for STIs. Furthermore, teachers want to address such topics with their students. But, although 9 in 10 sex education instructors across the country believe that students should be taught about contraceptives in school, over one quarter report receiving explicit instructions from school boards and administrators not to do so. According to anthropologist Margaret Mead, the turmoil found in adolescence in Western society has a cultural rather than a physical cause; they reported that societies where young women engaged in free sexual activity had no such adolescent turmoil.
In what year was the Convention on the Rights of the Child created?
570db83c16d0071400510d3d
1989
302
False
What two countries have not legally committed to advancing an anti-discriminaory stance towards young people?
570db83c16d0071400510d3e
U.S. and South Sudan
390
False
A person below the age of majority may gain adult rights through what process?
570db83c16d0071400510d3f
legal emancipation
962
False
What is legally different for an individual who has reached the age of majority?
570db83c16d0071400510d40
regarded as adults who are responsible for their actions
782
False
Adolescence is a period frequently marked by increased rights and privileges for individuals. While cultural variation exists for legal rights and their corresponding ages, considerable consistency is found across cultures. Furthermore, since the advent of the Convention on the Rights of the Child in 1989 (children here defined as under 18), almost every country in the world (except the U.S. and South Sudan) has legally committed to advancing an anti-discriminatory stance towards young people of all ages. This includes protecting children against unchecked child labor, enrollment in the military, prostitution, and pornography. In many societies, those who reach a certain age (often 18, though this varies) are considered to have reached the age of majority and are legally regarded as adults who are responsible for their actions. People below this age are considered minors or children. A person below the age of majority may gain adult rights through legal emancipation.
In developing countries, is it common for children to attend fewer or greater years of formal schooling?
570db90fdf2f5219002ed120
fewer
765
False
Why, in developting countries, do children often attend fewer years of formal schooling?
570db90fdf2f5219002ed121
so that, when they reach adolescence, they can begin working
797
False
According to family economic and financial education specialists, how do adolescents develop sound money management skills?
570db90fdf2f5219002ed122
saving and spending money
280
False
In addition to the sharing of household chores, certain cultures expect adolescents to share in their family's financial responsibilities. According to family economic and financial education specialists, adolescents develop sound money management skills through the practices of saving and spending money, as well as through planning ahead for future economic goals. Differences between families in the distribution of financial responsibilities or provision of allowance may reflect various social background circumstances and intrafamilial processes, which are further influenced by cultural norms and values, as well as by the business sector and market economy of a given society. For instance, in many developing countries it is common for children to attend fewer years of formal schooling so that, when they reach adolescence, they can begin working.
What word refers to the first ejactulation of a male?
570dbdab16d0071400510d4f
semenarche
197
False
What word refers to the first menstrual period in females?
570dbdab16d0071400510d50
menarche
143
False
What is the term for a culture that discourages sexual activity in unmarried adolescents?
570dbdab16d0071400510d51
Restrictive
502
False
What is the term for cultures that perceive sexual behavior among unmarried teens as acceptable or even encouraged?
570dbdab16d0071400510d52
permissive
1352
False
Are males and females expected to express their sexuality in the same ways or are there discrepancies between genders and cultures?
570dbdab16d0071400510d53
discrepancies
1565
False
Many cultures define the transition into adultlike sexuality by specific biological or social milestones in an adolescent's life. For example, menarche (the first menstrual period of a female), or semenarche (the first ejaculation of a male) are frequent sexual defining points for many cultures. In addition to biological factors, an adolescent's sexual socialization is highly dependent upon whether their culture takes a restrictive or permissive attitude toward teen or premarital sexual activity. Restrictive cultures overtly discourage sexual activity in unmarried adolescents or until an adolescent undergoes a formal rite of passage. These cultures may attempt to restrict sexual activity by separating males and females throughout their development, or through public shaming and physical punishment when sexual activity does occur. In less restrictive cultures, there is more tolerance for displays of adolescent sexuality, or of the interaction between males and females in public and private spaces. Less restrictive cultures may tolerate some aspects of adolescent sexuality, while objecting to other aspects. For instance, some cultures find teenage sexual activity acceptable but teenage pregnancy highly undesirable. Other cultures do not object to teenage sexual activity or teenage pregnancy, as long as they occur after marriage. In permissive societies, overt sexual behavior among unmarried teens is perceived as acceptable, and is sometimes even encouraged. Regardless of whether a culture is restrictive or permissive, there are likely to be discrepancies in how females versus males are expected to express their sexuality. Cultures vary in how overt this double standard is—in some it is legally inscribed, while in others it is communicated through social convention. Lesbian, gay, bi-sexual and transsexual youth face much discrimination through bullying from those unlike them and may find telling others that they are gay to be a traumatic experience. The range of sexual attitudes that a culture embraces could thus be seen to affect the beliefs, lifestyles, and societal perceptions of its adolescents.
Which of the Five-Factor Model dimensions does not demonstrate an association with drinking motives?
570dc39016d0071400510d59
Openness
228
False
Is alcohol use a positive or negative emotion control mechanism?
570dc39016d0071400510d5a
negative
670
False
Which motivation for drinking alcohol results in low conscientiousness, lowered inhibition, and greater tendency towards aggression?
570dc39016d0071400510d5b
enjoyment
379
False
Drinking to cope with negative emotional states correlates strongly with what behavioral qualities?
570dc39016d0071400510d5c
high neuroticism and low agreeableness
613
False
Drinking habits and the motives behind them often reflect certain aspects of an individual's personality; in fact, four dimensions of the Five-Factor Model of personality demonstrate associations with drinking motives (all but 'Openness'). Greater enhancement motives for alcohol consumption tend to reflect high levels of extraversion and sensation-seeking in individuals; such enjoyment motivation often also indicates low conscientiousness, manifesting in lowered inhibition and a greater tendency towards aggression. On the other hand, drinking to cope with negative emotional states correlates strongly with high neuroticism and low agreeableness. Alcohol use as a negative emotion control mechanism often links with many other behavioral and emotional impairments, such as anxiety, depression, and low self-esteem.
According to research findings, does Internet use have a positive or negative effect on teen physical health?
570dc90a0b85d914000d7b5b
negative
959
False
Why do research findings believe the Internet has a negative effect on teen physical health?
570dc90a0b85d914000d7b5c
time spent using the Internet replaces time doing physical activities
1017
False
How can the Internet be beneficial for socially anxious teens?
570dc90a0b85d914000d7b5d
easier to interact socially online
862
False
Which online activity has been consistently associated with increased liklihood of depression?
570dc90a0b85d914000d7b5e
cyberbullying
362
False
Although research has been inconclusive, some findings have indicated that electronic communication negatively affects adolescents' social development, replaces face-to-face communication, impairs their social skills, and can sometimes lead to unsafe interaction with strangers. A 2015 review reported that “adolescents lack awareness of strategies to cope with cyberbullying, which has been consistently associated with an increased likelihood of depression.” Studies have shown differences in the ways the internet negatively impacts the adolescents' social functioning. Online socializing tends to make girls particularly vulnerable, while socializing in Internet cafés seems only to affect boys academic achievement. However, other research suggests that Internet communication brings friends closer and is beneficial for socially anxious teens, who find it easier to interact socially online. The more conclusive finding has been that Internet use has a negative effect on the physical health of adolescents, as time spent using the Internet replaces time doing physical activities. However, the Internet can be significantly useful in educating teens because of the access they have to information on many various topics.
What is the most commonly abused substance during adolescent years in the U.S.?
570dcb0c0dc6ce1900204cbb
alcohol
161
False
Aside from alcohol, what is the most commonly indulged drug habit during adolescent years?
570dcb0c0dc6ce1900204cbc
marijuana
170
False
The heightened usage of what drug is most likely due at least in some part to the rising popularity of rave culture?
570dcb0c0dc6ce1900204cbd
ecstasy
688
False
From the late 1990s to mid 2000s, was drug use in teens on the rise or decline?
570dcb0c0dc6ce1900204cbe
decline
19
False
Following a steady decline, beginning in the late 1990s up through the mid-2000s, illicit drug use among adolescents has been on the rise in the U.S. Aside from alcohol, marijuana is the most commonly indulged drug habit during adolescent years. Data collected by the National Institute on Drug Abuse shows that between the years of 2007 and 2011, marijuana use grew from 5.7% to 7.2% among 8th grade students; among 10th grade students, from 14.2% to 17.6%; and among 12th graders, from 18.8% to 22.6%. Additional, recent years have seen a surge in popularity of MDMA; between 2010 and 2011, the use of MDMA increased from 1.4% to 2.3% among high school seniors. The heightened usage of ecstasy most likely ties in at least to some degree with the rising popularity of rave culture.
During what ages do reasons for alcohol consumption between males and females begin to diverge?
570dcc300b85d914000d7b63
14–15
207
False
Do boys or girls view drinking in a more social light?
570dcc300b85d914000d7b64
boys
223
False
Which gender reports most frequently using alcohol as a coping mechanism?
570dcc300b85d914000d7b65
girls
278
False
Does age bring a greater or smaller desire to drink for pleasure rather than coping?
570dcc300b85d914000d7b66
greater
517
False
Until mid-to-late adolescence, boys and girls show relatively little difference in drinking motives. Distinctions between the reasons for alcohol consumption of males and females begin to emerge around ages 14–15; overall, boys tend to view drinking in a more social light than girls, who report on average a more frequent use of alcohol as a coping mechanism. The latter effect appears to shift in late adolescence and onset of early adulthood (18–19 years of age); however, despite this trend, age tends to bring a greater desire to drink for pleasure rather than coping in both boys and girls.
From which language does the word "adolescence" originate?
570dcd700b85d914000d7b75
Latin
18
False
What is the Latin meaning of the word "adolescere"?
570dcd700b85d914000d7b76
to grow up
45
False
What is another term for legal adulthood?
570dcd700b85d914000d7b77
age of majority
203
False
Physical growth and cognitive development generally observed in adolescents can extend to what age?
570dcd700b85d914000d7b78
early twenties
818
False
Adolescence (from Latin adolescere, meaning "to grow up") is a transitional stage of physical and psychological human development that generally occurs during the period from puberty to legal adulthood (age of majority). The period of adolescence is most closely associated with the teenage years, though its physical, psychological and cultural expressions may begin earlier and end later. For example, although puberty has been historically associated with the onset of adolescent development, it now typically begins prior to the teenage years and there has been a normative shift of it occurring in preadolescence, particularly in females (see precocious puberty). Physical growth, as distinct from puberty (particularly in males), and cognitive development generally seen in adolescence, can also extend into the early twenties. Thus chronological age provides only a rough marker of adolescence, and scholars have found it difficult to agree upon a precise definition of adolescence.
In recent years, has the amount of social networking sites available to the public increased or decreased?
570ddac40dc6ce1900204cc3
greatly increased
93
False
What percentage of 12-17 year olds claim to have at least one social networking profile?
570ddac40dc6ce1900204cc4
73%
238
False
What percentage of teens say they text every day?
570ddac40dc6ce1900204cc5
68%
329
False
What percentage of teens report visiting social netorking sites daily?
570ddac40dc6ce1900204cc6
51%
365
False
What ratio of teens are "heavy" social media users, using two types of media daily?
570ddac40dc6ce1900204cc7
One in four (23%)
566
False
Within the past ten years, the amount of social networking sites available to the public has greatly increased as well as the number of adolescents using them. Several sources report a high proportion of adolescents who use social media: 73% of 12–17 year olds reported having at least one social networking profile; two-thirds (68%) of teens text every day, half (51%) visit social networking sites daily, and 11% send or receive tweets at least once every day. In fact, more than a third (34%) of teens visit their main social networking site several times a day. One in four (23%) teens are "heavy" social media users, meaning they use at least two different types of social media each and every day.
Are girls reaching sexual maturation early more or less likely to develop eating disorers?
570ddc210dc6ce1900204ccd
more likely
288
False
Nearly half of Americam high school girls hope to achieve what goal with their diet?
570ddc210dc6ce1900204cce
lose weight
433
False
Are early or late maturing girls more exposed to alcohol and drug abuse?
570ddc210dc6ce1900204ccf
early maturing
673
False
Do early or late maturing girls have more unwanted pregnancies?
570ddc210dc6ce1900204cd0
early maturing
673
False
Who performs better in school: sexually experienced or inexperienced teen females?
570ddc210dc6ce1900204cd1
inexperienced
822
False
For girls, early maturation can sometimes lead to increased self-consciousness, though a typical aspect in maturing females. Because of their bodies' developing in advance, pubescent girls can become more insecure and dependent. Consequently, girls that reach sexual maturation early are more likely than their peers to develop eating disorders (such as anorexia nervosa). Nearly half of all American high school girls' diets are to lose weight. In addition, girls may have to deal with sexual advances from older boys before they are emotionally and mentally mature. In addition to having earlier sexual experiences and more unwanted pregnancies than late maturing girls, early maturing girls are more exposed to alcohol and drug abuse. Those who have had such experiences tend to perform not as well in school as their "inexperienced" peers.
Is change in bodily distribution of fat and muscle the same or different between males and females during puberty?
570ddd9c0dc6ce1900204cd7
different
124
False
Do boys or girls grow muscle faster during puberty?
570ddd9c0dc6ce1900204cd8
boys
257
False
Do boys or girls experience a more significant increase in body fat?
570ddd9c0dc6ce1900204cd9
girls
464
False
What is the ratio between muscle and fat among post-pubertal boys?
570ddd9c0dc6ce1900204cda
three to one
625
False
What is the ratio between muscle and fat amoung post-pubertal girls?
570ddd9c0dc6ce1900204cdb
five to four
667
False
Another set of significant physical changes during puberty happen in bodily distribution of fat and muscle. This process is different for females and males. Before puberty, there are nearly no sex differences in fat and muscle distribution; during puberty, boys grow muscle much faster than girls, although both sexes experience rapid muscle development. In contrast, though both sexes experience an increase in body fat, the increase is much more significant for girls. Frequently, the increase in fat for girls happens in their years just before puberty. The ratio between muscle and fat among post-pubertal boys is around three to one, while for girls it is about five to four. This may help explain sex differences in athletic performance.
What is a secondary sex characteristic change?
570ddf530b85d914000d7b87
every change that is not directly related to sexual reproduction
49
False
How many Tanner stages are there?
570ddf530b85d914000d7b88
five
614
False
What was the occupation of the person who devised the Tanner categorization system?
570ddf530b85d914000d7b89
pediatrician
658
False
Elevation of the breasts, development of pubic hair, and elevation of the nippes are examples of what type of changes?
570ddf530b85d914000d7b8a
Changes in secondary sex characteristics
0
False
Is deepening of the voice in males a primary or secondary sex characteristic?
570ddf530b85d914000d7b8b
secondary
11
False
Changes in secondary sex characteristics include every change that is not directly related to sexual reproduction. In males, these changes involve appearance of pubic, facial, and body hair, deepening of the voice, roughening of the skin around the upper arms and thighs, and increased development of the sweat glands. In females, secondary sex changes involve elevation of the breasts, widening of the hips, development of pubic and underarm hair, widening of the areolae, and elevation of the nipples. The changes in secondary sex characteristics that take place during puberty are often referred to in terms of five Tanner stages, named after the British pediatrician who devised the categorization system.
Are children or adolescents more likely to question assertions and less likely to accept facts?
570de0480dc6ce1900204ce1
adolescents
22
False
Is not dating until a certain age a common sense or culturally-relative standard?
570de0480dc6ce1900204ce2
culturally-relative
383
False
Is refraining from touching a hot stoce a common sense or culturally-relative standard?
570de0480dc6ce1900204ce3
common sense
317
False
Compared to children, adolescents are more likely to question others' assertions, and less likely to accept facts as absolute truths. Through experience outside the family circle, they learn that rules they were taught as absolute are in fact relativistic. They begin to differentiate between rules instituted out of common sense—not touching a hot stove—and those that are based on culturally-relative standards (codes of etiquette, not dating until a certain age), a delineation that younger children do not make. This can lead to a period of questioning authority in all domains.
Who was the first president of the American Psychological Association?
570de1cb0dc6ce1900204ce7
G. Stanley Hall
72
False
What was the title of the publication that started the formal study of adolescent psychology?
570de1cb0dc6ce1900204ce8
Adolescence in 1904
91
False
From the '50s to the '80s, was the field's focus devoted to describing patterns of behavior or explaining them?
570de1cb0dc6ce1900204ce9
describing
1305
False
Which theorist is known for his beliefs on evolution?
570de1cb0dc6ce1900204cea
Darwin
373
False
The formal study of adolescent psychology began with the publication of G. Stanley Hall's "Adolescence in 1904." Hall, who was the first president of the American Psychological Association, viewed adolescence primarily as a time of internal turmoil and upheaval (sturm und drang). This understanding of youth was based on two then new ways of understanding human behavior: Darwin's evolutionary theory and Freud's psychodynamic theory. He believed that adolescence was a representation of our human ancestors' phylogenetic shift from being primitive to being civilized. Hall's assertions stood relatively uncontested until the 1950s when psychologists such as Erik Erikson and Anna Freud started to formulate their theories about adolescence. Freud believed that the psychological disturbances associated with youth were biologically based and culturally universal while Erikson focused on the dichotomy between identity formation and role fulfillment. Even with their different theories, these three psychologists agreed that adolescence was inherently a time of disturbance and psychological confusion. The less turbulent aspects of adolescence, such as peer relations and cultural influence, were left largely ignored until the 1980s. From the '50s until the '80s, the focus of the field was mainly on describing patterns of behavior as opposed to explaining them.
How do children tend to define themselves?
570de31a0dc6ce1900204cef
by physical traits
579
False
Do children or adolescents define themselves based on values, thoughts, and opinions?
570de31a0dc6ce1900204cf0
adolescents
609
False
Which idea is known as the ability of a person to have opinions and beliefs that are defined confidently, consistent, and stable?
570de31a0dc6ce1900204cf1
self-concept
12
False
Greater self-awareness, greater awareness of others, and the ability to consider multiple possiblities at once are examples of what kind of developments?
570de31a0dc6ce1900204cf2
cognitive
165
False
The idea of self-concept is known as the ability of a person to have opinions and beliefs that are defined confidently, consistent and stable. Early in adolescence, cognitive developments result in greater self-awareness, greater awareness of others and their thoughts and judgments, the ability to think about abstract, future possibilities, and the ability to consider multiple possibilities at once. As a result, adolescents experience a significant shift from the simple, concrete, and global self-descriptions typical of young children; as children, they defined themselves by physical traits whereas as adolescents, they define themselves based on their values, thoughts, and opinions.
Which adolescent ethninticy is most often studied?
570de4770b85d914000d7b91
white
124
False
What social class of adolescents is most often studied?
570de4770b85d914000d7b92
middle class
131
False
The period of one's life that spans late adolescence and early adulthood is known as what?
570de4770b85d914000d7b93
youth
549
False
Is an inner city or crime-driven neighborhood more or less likely to be detrimental to one's development?
570de4770b85d914000d7b94
more likely
1142
False
Why are children from suburban communities more likely to participate in activies that benefit their identity?
570de4770b85d914000d7b95
exposed to more opportunities and better situations in general
1011
False
An adolescent's environment plays a huge role in their identity development. While most adolescent studies are conducted on white, middle class children, studies show that the more privileged upbringing people have, the more successfully they develop their identity. The forming of an adolescent's identity is a crucial time in their life. It has been recently found that demographic patterns suggest that the transition to adulthood is now occurring over a longer span of years than was the case during the middle of the 20th century. Accordingly, youth, a period that spans late adolescence and early adulthood, has become a more prominent stage of the life course. This therefore has caused various factors to become important during this development. So many factors contribute to the developing social identity of an adolescent from commitment, to coping devices, to social media. All of these factors are affected by the environment an adolescent grows up in. A child from a more privileged upbringing is exposed to more opportunities and better situations in general. An adolescent from an inner city or a crime-driven neighborhood is more likely to be exposed to an environment that can be detrimental to their development. Adolescence is a sensitive period in the development process, and exposure to the wrong things at that time can have a major effect on future decisions. While children that grow up in nice suburban communities are not exposed to bad environments they are more likely to participate in activities that can benefit their identity and contribute to a more successful identity development.
What has the largest affect over one's social development?
570de5f70b85d914000d7b9b
relationships
2120
False
Do a teen's friends have a large or small impact on their social development?
570de5f70b85d914000d7b9c
large
2143
False
Do adolescents become heavily emotionally invested in friends or are they generally anti-social?
570de5f70b85d914000d7b9d
heavily emotionally invested in friends
297
False
The relationships adolescents have with their peers, family, and members of their social sphere play a vital role in the social development of an adolescent. As an adolescent's social sphere develops rapidly as they distinguish the differences between friends and acquaintances, they often become heavily emotionally invested in friends. This is not harmful; however, if these friends expose an individual to potentially harmful situations, this is an aspect of peer pressure. Adolescence is a critical period in social development because adolescents can be easily influenced by the people they develop close relationships with. This is the first time individuals can truly make their own decisions, which also makes this a sensitive period. Relationships are vital in the social development of an adolescent due to the extreme influence peers can have over an individual. These relationships become significant because they begin to help the adolescent understand the concept of personalities, how they form and why a person has that specific type of personality. "The use of psychological comparisons could serve both as an index of the growth of an implicit personality theory and as a component process accounting for its creation. In other words, by comparing one person's personality characteristics to another's, we would be setting up the framework for creating a general theory of personality (and, ... such a theory would serve as a useful framework for coming to understand specific persons)." This can be likened to the use of social comparison in developing one’s identity and self-concept, which includes ones personality, and underscores the importance of communication, and thus relationships, in one’s development. In social comparison we use reference groups, with respect to both psychological and identity development. These reference groups are the peers of adolescents. This means that who the teen chooses/accepts as their friends and who they communicate with on a frequent basis often makes up their reference groups and can therefore have a huge impact on who they become. Research shows that relationships have the largest affect over the social development of an individual.
Does communication with peers increase or decrease during adolescence?
570de6db0b85d914000d7ba1
increases
86
False
Do children or adolescents tend to associae with friends of the opposite sex more?
570de6db0b85d914000d7ba2
Adolescents
747
False
How is adolescence defined socially?
570de6db0b85d914000d7ba3
a period of development characterized by a dramatic increase in time spent with peers and a decrease in adult supervision
624
False
Peer groups are essential to social and general development. Communication with peers increases significantly during adolescence and peer relationships become more intense than in other stages  and more influential to the teen, affecting both the decisions and choices being made. High quality friendships may enhance children's development regardless of the characteristics of those friends. As children begin to bond with various people and create friendships, it later helps them when they are adolescent and sets up the framework for adolescence and peer groups. Peer groups are especially important during adolescence, a period of development characterized by a dramatic increase in time spent with peers and a decrease in adult supervision. Adolescents also associate with friends of the opposite sex much more than in childhood and tend to identify with larger groups of peers based on shared characteristics. It is also common for adolescents to use friends as coping devices in different situations. A three-factor structure of dealing with friends including avoidance, mastery, and nonchalance has shown that adolescents use friends as coping devices with social stresses.
Did adolescents report more sexual or social events to researchers?
570de8a70b85d914000d7bb1
social events
865
False
Why do researchers believe the social event reporting by adolescents (rather than sexual activity) is important?
570de8a70b85d914000d7bb2
focus on the more positive aspects of adolescents
1001
False
Holding hands with one's partner and telling others about a relationship are examples of what kind of adolescent event?
570de8a70b85d914000d7bb3
romantic
829
False
Some researchers are now focusing on learning about how adolescents view their own relationships and sexuality; they want to move away from a research point of view that focuses on the problems associated with adolescent sexuality.[why?] College Professor Lucia O'Sullivan and her colleagues found that there weren't any significant gender differences in the relationship events adolescent boys and girls from grades 7-12 reported. Most teens said they had kissed their partners, held hands with them, thought of themselves as being a couple and told people they were in a relationship. This means that private thoughts about the relationship as well as public recognition of the relationship were both important to the adolescents in the sample. Sexual events (such as sexual touching, sexual intercourse) were less common than romantic events (holding hands) and social events (being with one's partner in a group setting). The researchers state that these results are important because the results focus on the more positive aspects of adolescents and their social and romantic interactions rather than focusing on sexual behavior and its consequences.
What are the three main types of autonomy?
570de9870b85d914000d7bc1
emotional independence, behavioral autonomy, and cognitive autonomy
212
False
How is behavioral autonomy defined?
570de9870b85d914000d7bc2
encompasses an adolescent's developing ability to regulate his or her own behavior, to act on personal decisions, and to self-govern
481
False
Adolescent cultural differences are especially visible in which type of autonomy?
570de9870b85d914000d7bc3
Behavioral
461
False
How is cognitive autonomy defined?
570de9870b85d914000d7bc4
the capacity for an adolescent to partake in processes of independent reasoning and decision-making without excessive reliance on social validation
798
False
Is an adolescent's mental health at its best when their feelings of autonomy match closely with their parents or when they are at odds?
570de9870b85d914000d7bc5
match closely
1468
False
The degree to which adolescents are perceived as autonomous beings varies widely by culture, as do the behaviors that represent this emerging autonomy. Psychologists have identified three main types of autonomy: emotional independence, behavioral autonomy, and cognitive autonomy. Emotional autonomy is defined in terms of an adolescent's relationships with others, and often includes the development of more mature emotional connections with adults and peers. Behavioral autonomy encompasses an adolescent's developing ability to regulate his or her own behavior, to act on personal decisions, and to self-govern. Cultural differences are especially visible in this category because it concerns issues of dating, social time with peers, and time-management decisions. Cognitive autonomy describes the capacity for an adolescent to partake in processes of independent reasoning and decision-making without excessive reliance on social validation. Converging influences from adolescent cognitive development, expanding social relationships, an increasingly adultlike appearance, and the acceptance of more rights and responsibilities enhance feelings of autonomy for adolescents. Proper development of autonomy has been tied to good mental health, high self-esteem, self-motivated tendencies, positive self-concepts, and self-initiating and regulating behaviors. Furthermore, it has been found that adolescents' mental health is best when their feelings about autonomy match closely with those of their parents.
Do American teenagers spend more or less time in shool than adolescents in other countires?
570dea310b85d914000d7bcb
less
222
False
Do American teenagers spend more or less time on leisure activities than adolescents in other countries?
570dea310b85d914000d7bcc
more
257
False
Does the amount of time adolescents spend on work and leisure vary from culture to culture or reman relatively constant?
570dea310b85d914000d7bcd
varies greatly
81
False
What are two potential reasons that adolescents in different cultures spend varying time on work and leisure activities?
570dea310b85d914000d7bce
cultural norms and expectations, as well as various socioeconomic factors
122
False
Furthermore, the amount of time adolescents spend on work and leisure activities varies greatly by culture as a result of cultural norms and expectations, as well as various socioeconomic factors. American teenagers spend less time in school or working and more time on leisure activities—which include playing sports, socializing, and caring for their appearance—than do adolescents in many other countries. These differences may be influenced by cultural values of education and the amount of responsibility adolescents are expected to assume in their family or community.
Is teenage alcohol drug use at al all-time high or low?
570deb1f0b85d914000d7bdd
low
53
False
Do teens smoke marijuana or cigarettes more commonly?
570deb1f0b85d914000d7bde
marijuana
434
False
Are male or female late adolescents more likely to smoke cigarettes?
570deb1f0b85d914000d7bdf
male
582
False
What is one possible explanation for the shift towards marijuana and away from cigarettes?
570deb1f0b85d914000d7be0
recent changing social and political views towards marijuana
979
False
Teenage alcohol drug use is currently at an all-time low. Out of a polled body of students, 4.4% of 8th graders reported having been on at least one occasion been drunk within the previous month; for 10th graders, the number was 13.7%, and for 12th graders, 25%. More drastically, cigarette smoking has become a far less prevalent activity among American middle- and high-school students; in fact, a greater number of teens now smoke marijuana than smoke cigarettes, with one recent study showing a respective 15.2% versus 11.7% of surveyed students. Recent studies have shown that male late adolescents are far more likely to smoke cigarettes rather than females. The study indicated that there was a discernible gender difference in the prevalence of smoking among the students. The finding of the study show that more males than females began smoking when they were in primary and high schools whereas most females started smoking after high school. This may be attributed to recent changing social and political views towards marijuana; issues such as medicinal use and legalization have tended towards painting the drug in a more positive light than historically, while cigarettes continue to be vilified due to associated health risks.
Are motives behind teen alcohol use varied or uniform across different cultures?
570debd40dc6ce1900204d01
uniform
38
False
What two reasons for adolescent drinking are shared across cultural contexts?
570debd40dc6ce1900204d02
Social engagement and personal enjoyment
115
False
What is the most common reason for drinking among adolescents according to surveys in Argentina, Hong Kong, and Canada?
570debd40dc6ce1900204d03
pleasure and recreation
409
False
What percentage of Argentenian teens reported drinking to improve a bad mood?
570debd40dc6ce1900204d04
7%
503
False
In Hong Kong, did males or females most frequently report drinking to feel the effects of the alcohol?
570debd40dc6ce1900204d05
males
773
False
Research has generally shown striking uniformity across different cultures in the motives behind teen alcohol use. Social engagement and personal enjoyment appear to play a fairly universal role in adolescents' decision to drink throughout separate cultural contexts. Surveys conducted in Argentina, Hong Kong, and Canada have each indicated the most common reason for drinking among adolescents to relate to pleasure and recreation; 80% of Argentinian teens reported drinking for enjoyment, while only 7% drank to improve a bad mood. The most prevalent answers among Canadian adolescents were to "get in a party mood," 18%; "because I enjoy it," 16%; and "to get drunk," 10%. In Hong Kong, female participants most frequently reported drinking for social enjoyment, while males most frequently reported drinking to feel the effects of alcohol.
The transition from child-to-adulthood can be broadly defined as what?
570dec870b85d914000d7be5
adolescence
24
False
How long does the United States believe adolescence lasts?
570dec870b85d914000d7be6
nearly a decade
429
False
Does the time frame of adolescence vary from culture to culture or remain universally agreed upon?
570dec870b85d914000d7be7
varies drastically by culture
331
False
Leaving school, starting a full-time job, getting married, and becoming a parent for the first time are markers in what stage of one's development, according to Hogan & Astone?
570dec870b85d914000d7be8
adolescence
24
False
A broad way of defining adolescence is the transition from child-to-adulthood. According to Hogan & Astone (1986), this transition can include markers such as leaving school, starting a full-time job, leaving the home of origin, getting married, and becoming a parent for the first time. However, the time frame of this transition varies drastically by culture. In some countries, such as the United States, adolescence can last nearly a decade, but in others, the transition—often in the form of a ceremony—can last for only a few days.
Is adolescence usually accompanied by increased parental supervision or increased independence?
570ded450dc6ce1900204d15
independence
616
False
Is the end of adolescence and beginning of adulthood easily agreed upon or does it vary by country?
570ded450dc6ce1900204d16
varies by country
54
False
Do milestones such as driving a vechile, serving on a jury, voting, and marriage all have a common age of responsibility?
570ded450dc6ce1900204d17
different ages
160
False
The end of adolescence and the beginning of adulthood varies by country and by function. Furthermore, even within a single nation state or culture there can be different ages at which an individual is considered (chronologically and legally) mature enough for society to entrust them with certain privileges and responsibilities. Such milestones include driving a vehicle, having legal sexual relations, serving in the armed forces or on a jury, purchasing and drinking alcohol, voting, entering into contracts, finishing certain levels of education, and marriage. Adolescence is usually accompanied by an increased independence allowed by the parents or legal guardians, including less supervision as compared to preadolescence.
When do the first facial hairs present in pubescent males?
570dedf10b85d914000d7bed
between 14 to 17 years of age
163
False
For how long does facial hair continue to get darker, coarser, and thicker?
570dedf10b85d914000d7bee
2–4 years after puberty
842
False
Where does facial hair first present during puberty?
570dedf10b85d914000d7bef
corners of the upper lip
127
False
Facial hair in males normally appears in a specific order during puberty: The first facial hair to appear tends to grow at the corners of the upper lip, typically between 14 to 17 years of age. It then spreads to form a moustache over the entire upper lip. This is followed by the appearance of hair on the upper part of the cheeks, and the area under the lower lip. The hair eventually spreads to the sides and lower border of the chin, and the rest of the lower face to form a full beard. As with most human biological processes, this specific order may vary among some individuals. Facial hair is often present in late adolescence, around ages 17 and 18, but may not appear until significantly later. Some men do not develop full facial hair for 10 years after puberty. Facial hair continues to get coarser, darker and thicker for another 2–4 years after puberty.
Do males or females experience growth spurts first?
570dee850b85d914000d7bf3
females
270
False
How much later on average do males experience their growth spurt?
570dee850b85d914000d7bf4
two years later
236
False
What is the growth rate during peak height velocity for a male adolescent?
570dee850b85d914000d7bf5
4 inches (10.3 cm) a year
424
False
What is the growth rate during peak height velocity for a female adolescent?
570dee850b85d914000d7bf6
3.5 inches (9 cm)
464
False
Growth rates during adolescent are comparible to those of what other life stage?
570dee850b85d914000d7bf7
toddler
410
False
The adolescent growth spurt is a rapid increase in the individual's height and weight during puberty resulting from the simultaneous release of growth hormones, thyroid hormones, and androgens. Males experience their growth spurt about two years later, on average, than females. During their peak height velocity (the time of most rapid growth), adolescents grow at a growth rate nearly identical to that of a toddler—about 4 inches (10.3 cm) a year for males and 3.5 inches (9 cm) for females. In addition to changes in height, adolescents also experience a significant increase in weight (Marshall, 1978). The weight gained during adolescence constitutes nearly half of one's adult body weight. Teenage and early adult males may continue to gain natural muscle growth even after puberty.
Does the amount of white matter in the brain increase or decrease over the course of adolescence?
570def080b85d914000d7bfd
increases
72
False
Does the amount of grey matter in the brain increase linearly or follow an inverted-U pattern over the course of adolescence?
570def080b85d914000d7bfe
inverted-U pattern
148
False
During which process are unnecessary neuronal connections in the brain eliminated?
570def080b85d914000d7bff
synaptic pruning
193
False
Does the brain become more or less efficient as a result of synaptic pruning?
570def080b85d914000d7c00
more efficient
400
False
Over the course of adolescence, the amount of white matter in the brain increases linearly, while the amount of grey matter in the brain follows an inverted-U pattern. Through a process called synaptic pruning, unnecessary neuronal connections in the brain are eliminated and the amount of grey matter is pared down. However, this does not mean that the brain loses functionality; rather, it becomes more efficient due to increased myelination (insulation of axons) and the reduction of unused pathways.
Who describes adolescence as the stage of life in which the individual's thoughts start taking more of an abstract form?
570defaa0b85d914000d7c0f
Piaget
60
False
What is another term for congitive skills that enable the control and coordination of thoughts and behavior?
570defaa0b85d914000d7c10
executive functions
371
False
Which cortex is commonly associated with the coordination of thoughts and behavior?
570defaa0b85d914000d7c11
prefrontal cortex
526
False
Does Piaget believe that egocentric thoughts decrease or increase during adolescence?
570defaa0b85d914000d7c12
decrease
211
False
Adolescence is also a time for rapid cognitive development. Piaget describes adolescence as the stage of life in which the individual's thoughts start taking more of an abstract form and the egocentric thoughts decrease. This allows the individual to think and reason in a wider perspective. A combination of behavioural and fMRI studies have demonstrated development of executive functions, that is, cognitive skills that enable the control and coordination of thoughts and behaviour, which are generally associated with the prefrontal cortex. The thoughts, ideas and concepts developed at this period of life greatly influence one's future life, playing a major role in character and personality formation.
Do adolescents or children understand puns, proverbs, metaphors, and analogies most effectively?
570df0740b85d914000d7c17
adolescents
137
False
Children under what age often cannot comprehend sarcasm?
570df0740b85d914000d7c18
nine
473
False
Are puns, proverbs, metaphors, and analogies lower-order or higher-order logic?
570df0740b85d914000d7c19
higher-order
205
False
The appearance of more systematic, abstract thinking is a notable aspect of what type of development during adolescence?
570df0740b85d914000d7c1a
cognitive
82
False
The appearance of more systematic, abstract thinking is another notable aspect of cognitive development during adolescence. For example, adolescents find it easier than children to comprehend the sorts of higher-order abstract logic inherent in puns, proverbs, metaphors, and analogies. Their increased facility permits them to appreciate the ways in which language can be used to convey multiple messages, such as satire, metaphor, and sarcasm. (Children younger than age nine often cannot comprehend sarcasm at all.) This also permits the application of advanced reasoning and logical processes to social and ideological matters such as interpersonal relationships, politics, philosophy, religion, morality, friendship, faith, democracy, fairness, and honesty.
Most injuries sustained by adolescents are related to what?
570df13e0dc6ce1900204d25
risky behavior
62
False
Do adolescents or adults seem to give more weight to rewards?
570df13e0dc6ce1900204d26
adolescents
766
False
Do adolescents, adults, or both weight the potential rewards and consequences of an action?
570df13e0dc6ce1900204d27
both
669
False
Which theory proposes that adults and adolescents both weigh the potential rewards and consequences of an action?
570df13e0dc6ce1900204d28
behavioral decision-making theory
598
False
Because most injuries sustained by adolescents are related to risky behavior (car crashes, alcohol, unprotected sex), a great deal of research has been done on the cognitive and emotional processes underlying adolescent risk-taking. In addressing this question, it is important to distinguish whether adolescents are more likely to engage in risky behaviors (prevalence), whether they make risk-related decisions similarly or differently than adults (cognitive processing perspective), or whether they use the same processes but value different things and thus arrive at different conclusions. The behavioral decision-making theory proposes that adolescents and adults both weigh the potential rewards and consequences of an action. However, research has shown that adolescents seem to give more weight to rewards, particularly social rewards, than do adults.
When does differentiation appear fully developed?
570df2080dc6ce1900204d37
by mid-adolescence
287
False
When adolescents begin to qualify their traits, what are they demonstrating?
570df2080dc6ce1900204d38
differentiation
46
False
Does the recognition of inconsistent content in one's self-concept typically bring distress or peace to an adolescent?
570df2080dc6ce1900204d39
distress
552
False
Further distinctions in self-concept, called "differentiation," occur as the adolescent recognizes the contextual influences on their own behavior and the perceptions of others, and begin to qualify their traits when asked to describe themselves. Differentiation appears fully developed by mid-adolescence. Peaking in the 7th-9th grades, the personality traits adolescents use to describe themselves refer to specific contexts, and therefore may contradict one another. The recognition of inconsistent content in the self-concept is a common source of distress in these years (see Cognitive dissonance), but this distress may benefit adolescents by encouraging structural development.
In what year did Troiden propose a four-stage model for the development of homosexual sexual identity?
570df27f0dc6ce1900204d3d
1989
3
False
What is Troiden's first stage of development known as?
570df27f0dc6ce1900204d3e
sensitization
122
False
When does sensitization usually start?
570df27f0dc6ce1900204d3f
childhood
155
False
Troiden's second stage is referred to as what?
570df27f0dc6ce1900204d40
identity confusion
253
False
In what stage is youth overwhelmed by feelings of inner turmoil regarding their sexual orientation?
570df27f0dc6ce1900204d41
identity confusion
253
False
In 1989, Troiden proposed a four-stage model for the development of homosexual sexual identity. The first stage, known as sensitization, usually starts in childhood, and is marked by the child's becoming aware of same-sex attractions. The second stage, identity confusion, tends to occur a few years later. In this stage, the youth is overwhelmed by feelings of inner turmoil regarding their sexual orientation, and begins to engage sexual experiences with same-sex partners. In the third stage of identity assumption, which usually takes place a few years after the adolescent has left home, adolescents begin to come out to their family and close friends, and assumes a self-definition as gay, lesbian, or bisexual. In the final stage, known as commitment, the young adult adopts their sexual identity as a lifestyle. Therefore, this model estimates that the process of coming out begins in childhood, and continues through the early to mid 20s. This model has been contested, and alternate ideas have been explored in recent years.
Does intimacy between same-sex siblings increase or decrease during adolescence?
570df36e0b85d914000d7c1f
increases
216
False
When siblings act as peers, what positive effects are possible?
570df36e0b85d914000d7c20
increase one another's sociability and feelings of self-worth
695
False
At what stage to mixed-sex siblings generally experience an increase in intimacy?
570df36e0b85d914000d7c21
middle adolescence
418
False
During childhood, siblings are a source of conflict and frustration as well as a support system. Adolescence may affect this relationship differently, depending on sibling gender. In same-sex sibling pairs, intimacy increases during early adolescence, then remains stable. Mixed-sex siblings pairs act differently; siblings drift apart during early adolescent years, but experience an increase in intimacy starting at middle adolescence. Sibling interactions are children's first relational experiences, the ones that shape their social and self-understanding for life. Sustaining positive sibling relations can assist adolescents in a number of ways. Siblings are able to act as peers, and may increase one another's sociability and feelings of self-worth. Older siblings can give guidance to younger siblings, although the impact of this can be either positive or negative depending on the activity of the older sibling.
Do adolescents associate with "cliques" on a large or small scale?
570df3f10dc6ce1900204d51
small
50
False
How are cliques defined?
570df3f10dc6ce1900204d52
exclusive, single-sex groups of peers with whom they are particularly close
160
False
What are the positive effects that cliques may have on an adolescent?
570df3f10dc6ce1900204d53
help adolescents become socially acclimated and form a stronger sense of identity
323
False
Do adolescents associate with "crowds" on a large or small scale?
570df3f10dc6ce1900204d54
larger
80
False
Adolescents tend to associate with "cliques" on a small scale and "crowds" on a larger scale. During early adolescence, adolescents often associate in cliques, exclusive, single-sex groups of peers with whom they are particularly close. Despite the common notion that cliques are an inherently negative influence, they may help adolescents become socially acclimated and form a stronger sense of identity. Within a clique of highly athletic male-peers, for example, the clique may create a stronger sense of fidelity and competition. Cliques also have become somewhat a "collective parent," i.e. telling the adolescents what to do and not to do. Towards late adolescence, cliques often merge into mixed-sex groups as teenagers begin romantically engaging with one another. These small friend groups then break down further as socialization becomes more couple-oriented. On a larger scale, adolescents often associate with crowds, groups of individuals who share a common interest or activity. Often, crowd identities may be the basis for stereotyping young people, such as jocks or nerds. In large, multi-ethnic high schools, there are often ethnically-determined crowds. While crowds are very influential during early and middle adolescence, they lose salience during high school as students identify more individually.
What percentage of adolescents reporting having experienced physical violence in a relationship?
570df4f00dc6ce1900204d63
10-45%
84
False
What percentage of adolescents reported experiencing psychological aggression?
570df4f00dc6ce1900204d64
a quarter to a third
191
False
Hitting, throwing objects, and slaps are examples of what type of aggression?
570df4f00dc6ce1900204d65
Physical
430
False
In heterosexual adolescent couples, is there a significant difference in the rates of male and female aggressors?
570df4f00dc6ce1900204d66
no
572
False
Does physical aggression decline or increase during high-school, college, and early adulthood?
570df4f00dc6ce1900204d67
decline
476
False
Dating violence is fairly prevalent within adolescent relationships. When surveyed, 10-45% of adolescents reported having experienced physical violence in the context of a relationship while a quarter to a third of adolescents reported having experiencing psychological aggression. This reported aggression includes hitting, throwing things, or slaps, although most of this physical aggression does not result in a medical visit. Physical aggression in relationships tends to decline from high school through college and young adulthood. In heterosexual couples, there is no significant difference between the rates of male and female aggressors, unlike in adult relationships.
Does adolescent participation in family work and routines have a positive or negative influence on feelings of self-worth, care, and concern for others?
570df5a00dc6ce1900204d6d
positive
699
False
What is one large determining factor in normative adolescent behavior?
570df5a00dc6ce1900204d6e
The extent to which an adolescent is expected to share family responsibilities
138
False
How are household chores frequently divided?
570df5a00dc6ce1900204d6f
self-care tasks and family-care tasks
457
False
The lifestyle of an adolescent in a given culture is profoundly shaped by the roles and responsibilities he or she is expected to assume. The extent to which an adolescent is expected to share family responsibilities is one large determining factor in normative adolescent behavior. For instance, adolescents in certain cultures are expected to contribute significantly to household chores and responsibilities. Household chores are frequently divided into self-care tasks and family-care tasks. However, specific household responsibilities for adolescents may vary by culture, family type, and adolescent age. Some research has shown that adolescent participation in family work and routines has a positive influence on the development of an adolescent's feelings of self-worth, care, and concern for others.
Through what means does an adolescent develop a unique belief system?
570df6e20b85d914000d7c25
interaction with social, familial, and cultural environments
324
False
The active seeking of new ideas rather than the unquestioning acceptance of adult authority is known as what stage of development?
570df6e20b85d914000d7c26
Adolescence
0
False
What things are youth responsible for forming a set of beliefs about during adolescence?
570df6e20b85d914000d7c27
themselves, the world around them, and whatever higher powers they may or may not believe in
544
False
Ceremonies, rituals, and confirmations are examples of what?
570df6e20b85d914000d7c28
cultural traditions that intend to provide a meaningful transition to adulthood
684
False
Adolescence is frequently characterized by a transformation of an adolescent's understanding of the world, the rational direction towards a life course, and the active seeking of new ideas rather than the unquestioning acceptance of adult authority. An adolescent begins to develop a unique belief system through his or her interaction with social, familial, and cultural environments. While organized religion is not necessarily a part of every adolescent's life experience, youth are still held responsible for forming a set of beliefs about themselves, the world around them, and whatever higher powers they may or may not believe in. This process is often accompanied or aided by cultural traditions that intend to provide a meaningful transition to adulthood through a ceremony, ritual, confirmation, or rite of passage.
What percentage of adolescent homes have access to the internet?
570df7fc0b85d914000d7c37
more than three-quarters
272
False
What percentage of adolescents use the internet at least occasionally?
570df7fc0b85d914000d7c38
90%
366
False
In the last decade, has the amount oftime adolescents spend on the computer increased or dereased?
570df7fc0b85d914000d7c39
greatly increased
625
False
What percentage of adolescents report using social networking sites?
570df7fc0b85d914000d7c3a
(65%)
810
False
What online activity has the largest number of reported adolescent particpation?
570df7fc0b85d914000d7c3b
video games
714
False
Because exposure to media has increased over the past decade, adolescents' utilization of computers, cell phones, stereos and televisions to gain access to various mediums of popular culture has also increased. Almost all American households have at least one television, more than three-quarters of all adolescents' homes have access to the Internet, and more than 90% of American adolescents use the Internet at least occasionally. As a result of the amount of time adolescents spend using these devices, their total media exposure is high. In the last decade, the amount of time that adolescents spend on the computer has greatly increased. Online activities with the highest rates of use among adolescents are video games (78% of adolescents), email (73%), instant messaging (68%), social networking sites (65%), news sources (63%), music (59%), and videos (57%).
What is DIS?
570df8950b85d914000d7c41
a fusion of the literature of both developmental and intervention sciences
203
False
What are some of the negative things adolescents are susceptible to?
570df8950b85d914000d7c42
drug addiction, sexual abuse, peer pressure, violent crimes and other illegal activities
69
False
What does the DIS focus on in adolescents?
570df8950b85d914000d7c43
risky and inappropriate behaviors
435
False
At the decision-making point of their lives, youth is susceptible to drug addiction, sexual abuse, peer pressure, violent crimes and other illegal activities. Developmental Intervention Science (DIS) is a fusion of the literature of both developmental and intervention sciences. This association conducts youth interventions that mutually assist both the needs of the community as well as psychologically stranded youth by focusing on risky and inappropriate behaviors while promoting positive self-development along with self-esteem among adolescents.
What does the alcohol and illegal drug habits of teens tend to be shaped by?
570df9a50dc6ce1900204d7d
the substance use of friends and other classmates
201
False
What is one possible reasoning behind many students choosing to continue their smoking habits from middle school into late adolescence?
570df9a50dc6ce1900204d7e
addictive nature of cigarettes
934
False
Do peer acceptance and social norms have a greater or lesser effect on behavior at the onset of adolescence?
570df9a50dc6ce1900204d7f
significantly greater
40
False
Peer acceptance and social norms gain a significantly greater hand in directing behavior at the onset of adolescence; as such, the alcohol and illegal drug habits of teens tend to be shaped largely by the substance use of friends and other classmates. In fact, studies suggest that more significantly than actual drug norms, an individual's perception of the illicit drug use by friends and peers is highly associated with his or her own habits in substance use during both middle and high school, a relationship that increases in strength over time. Whereas social influences on alcohol use and marijuana use tend to work directly in the short term, peer and friend norms on smoking cigarettes in middle school have a profound effect on one's own likelihood to smoke cigarettes well into high school. Perhaps the strong correlation between peer influence in middle school and cigarette smoking in high school may be explained by the addictive nature of cigarettes, which could lead many students to continue their smoking habits from middle school into late adolescence.
What is the range of consentual age variance between jurisdictions?
570dfa320b85d914000d7c47
12 to 20 years
88
False
Is the age that peope are allowed to marry universally decided upon?
570dfa320b85d914000d7c48
No
593
False
What are other areas in which legal societal age varies?
570dfa320b85d914000d7c49
enlisting in the military, gambling, and the purchase of alcohol, cigarettes or items with parental advisory labels
224
False
The age of consent to sexual activity varies widely between jurisdictions, ranging from 12 to 20 years, as does the age at which people are allowed to marry. Specific legal ages for adolescents that also vary by culture are enlisting in the military, gambling, and the purchase of alcohol, cigarettes or items with parental advisory labels. It should be noted that the legal coming of age often does not correspond with the sudden realization of autonomy; many adolescents who have legally reached adult age are still dependent on their guardians or peers for emotional and financial support. Nonetheless, new legal privileges converge with shifting social expectations to usher in a phase of heightened independence or social responsibility for most legal adolescents.
Antarctica
Which continent is the highest in elevation?
570d9260b3d812140066da51
Antarctica
0
False
What is the annual precipitation rate of coastal Antarctica?
570d9260b3d812140066da52
200 mm
202
False
What is the average coldest temperature?
570d9260b3d812140066da53
−63 °C
392
False
What is the coldest recorded temperature?
570d9260b3d812140066da54
−89.2 °C
295
False
Ehat is the vegetation type on Antarctica?
570d9260b3d812140066da55
tundra
780
False
Antarctica
0
What is on average is the coldest, wetest, and windiest continent?
5ad213d7d7d075001a42835a
True
Antarctica
133
What coninent has lowest average elevation?
5ad213d7d7d075001a42835b
True
Antarctica
272
Where has the temperature reached 89.2 degress Celsius
5ad213d7d7d075001a42835c
True
1,000 to 5,000
467
How many humans live in Antarctica?
5ad213d7d7d075001a42835d
True
Vegetation
748
What type of organism can not be found in Antarctica?
5ad213d7d7d075001a42835e
True
Antarctica
133
What continent has only 200 in of annual precipitation?
5ad29038d7d075001a429a8c
True
Antarctica
272
Where has the temperature reached -89.2°F?
5ad29038d7d075001a429a8d
True
anywhere from 1,000 to 5,000
453
How many permanent residents are living in research stations?
5ad29038d7d075001a429a8e
True
−63 °C (−81 °F)
392
What is the yearly average temperature in Antarctica?
5ad29038d7d075001a429a8f
True
Antarctica, on average, is the coldest, driest, and windiest continent, and has the highest average elevation of all the continents. Antarctica is considered a desert, with annual precipitation of only 200 mm (8 in) along the coast and far less inland. The temperature in Antarctica has reached −89.2 °C (−128.6 °F), though the average for the third quarter (the coldest part of the year) is −63 °C (−81 °F). There are no permanent human residents, but anywhere from 1,000 to 5,000 people reside throughout the year at the research stations scattered across the continent. Organisms native to Antarctica include many types of algae, bacteria, fungi, plants, protista, and certain animals, such as mites, nematodes, penguins, seals and tardigrades. Vegetation, where it occurs, is tundra.
To what mountainous area is Antarctica geologically similar?
570d94c3fed7b91900d46243
Andes
52
False
An uplift of what formed Antarctica?
570d94c3fed7b91900d46244
sea bed sediments
156
False
Starting from the late Paleozoic era, when did Antarctica finish forming?
570d94c3fed7b91900d46245
early Mesozoic
208
False
What are the most often found rocks in Antarctica?
570d94c3fed7b91900d46246
andesite and rhyolite
348
False
What type of geologic activity occurred even after the formation of the ice sheets?
570d94c3fed7b91900d46247
volcanic
441
False
West Antarctica
14
What was once part of the Andes mountains of South America?
5ad256b8d7d075001a428d7c
True
uplift and metamorphism of sea bed sediments
129
What caused the Antarctic Peninsula to for prior to the Paleozoic era?
5ad256b8d7d075001a428d7d
True
uplift and metamorphism of sea bed
129
What caused volcanism on the Antarctic Peninsula?
5ad256b8d7d075001a428d7e
True
andesite and rhyolite volcanics
348
What are the rarest rocks in Western Antarctica?
5ad256b8d7d075001a428d7f
True
volcanic activity
441
What activity stopped after the ice sheet formed?
5ad256b8d7d075001a428d80
True
West Antarctica
14
What closely resembles the Andes mountain range of Antarctica?
5ad2b664d7d075001a42a006
True
The Antarctic Peninsula
91
What was formed during the early Paleozoic and the late Mesozoic eras?
5ad2b664d7d075001a42a007
True
andesite and rhyolite
348
What are the most common rocks in Antarctica?
5ad2b664d7d075001a42a008
True
Jurassic period
398
When were the andesite and rhyolite formed in West Antarctica?
5ad2b664d7d075001a42a009
True
volcanic activity
441
What is there evidence of in Alexander Byrd Land and Marie Island?
5ad2b664d7d075001a42a00a
True
Geologically, West Antarctica closely resembles the Andes mountain range of South America. The Antarctic Peninsula was formed by uplift and metamorphism of sea bed sediments during the late Paleozoic and the early Mesozoic eras. This sediment uplift was accompanied by igneous intrusions and volcanism. The most common rocks in West Antarctica are andesite and rhyolite volcanics formed during the Jurassic period. There is also evidence of volcanic activity, even after the ice sheet had formed, in Marie Byrd Land and Alexander Island. The only anomalous area of West Antarctica is the Ellsworth Mountains region, where the stratigraphy is more similar to East Antarctica.
What did people once believe could not be found further south than Australia?
570d9730df2f5219002ecff0
significant landmass
209
False
What explorer gave the name of Terra Australis to Australia?
570d9730df2f5219002ecff1
Matthew Flinders
288
False
What was the name of Flinders book about his trip to Australia?
570d9730df2f5219002ecff2
A Voyage to Terra Australis
449
False
When did Flinders write his book of discovery?
570d9730df2f5219002ecff3
1814
478
False
What event caused people to misname Antarctica?
570d9730df2f5219002ecff4
mistake
167
False
Terra Australis
85
What land mass was named after after Australia?
5ad23a42d7d075001a42884c
True
Terra Australis
85
What land mass was believed to be further south than Australia?
5ad23a42d7d075001a42884d
True
Matthew Flinders
288
What explorer opposed naming Australia  after Terra Australis?
5ad23a42d7d075001a42884e
True
A Voyage to Terra Australis
449
What book did Matthew Flinders write in the 18th century?
5ad23a42d7d075001a42884f
True
Australia
124
What continent was given the name Australis Terra?
5ad2a888d7d075001a429e1a
True
popularizing the transfer of the name Terra Australis to Australia
344
What was Flinder Matthews credited with?
5ad2a888d7d075001a429e1b
True
A Voyage to Terra Australis
449
What book did Flinders write in 1841?
5ad2a888d7d075001a429e1c
True
Integral to the story of the origin of the name "Antarctica" is how it was not named Terra Australis—this name was given to Australia instead, and it was because of a mistake made by people who decided that a significant landmass would not be found farther south than Australia. Explorer Matthew Flinders, in particular, has been credited with popularizing the transfer of the name Terra Australis to Australia. He justified the titling of his book A Voyage to Terra Australis (1814) by writing in the introduction:
Part of what study is the census of Antarctic marine life?
570d9a8ddf2f5219002ed018
Census of Marine Life
166
False
When was the census of sea life carried out in Antarctica?
570d9a8ddf2f5219002ed019
International Polar Year
44
False
How many sea animals live in Earth's polar regions?
570d9a8ddf2f5219002ed01a
235
249
False
Besides birds, what large animals travel from one pole to the other?
570d9a8ddf2f5219002ed01b
cetaceans
373
False
What is the amount of difference in temperature  in the deep ocean?
570d9a8ddf2f5219002ed01c
5 °C
700
False
500 researchers
93
Who conducted a censuslife on Antarctica in 2010?
5ad26375d7d075001a429108
True
235
249
How many marine organism live in the South Pole region?
5ad26375d7d075001a429109
True
some cetaceans and birds
368
What animals live at the South Pole all year?
5ad26375d7d075001a42910a
True
at the poles and the equator
642
Where is there a large variatio in temperatures of the deep ocean?
5ad26375d7d075001a42910b
True
A census of sea life
0
What was conducted during the Polar Year International?
5ad2c424d7d075001a42a148
True
500
93
How many researchers were involved in the Polar Year International census?
5ad2c424d7d075001a42a149
True
A census of sea life
0
What was released in 2001?
5ad2c424d7d075001a42a14a
True
235
249
How many marine organisms were found in the 12,000 miles studied?
5ad2c424d7d075001a42a14b
True
235
249
How many marine species were found within the 7,456 km studied?
5ad2c424d7d075001a42a14c
True
A census of sea life carried out during the International Polar Year and which involved some 500 researchers was released in 2010. The research is part of the global Census of Marine Life (CoML) and has disclosed some remarkable findings. More than 235 marine organisms live in both polar regions, having bridged the gap of 12,000 km (7,456 mi). Large animals such as some cetaceans and birds make the round trip annually. More surprising are small forms of life such as mudworms, sea cucumbers and free-swimming snails found in both polar oceans. Various factors may aid in their distribution – fairly uniform temperatures of the deep ocean at the poles and the equator which differ by no more than 5 °C, and the major current systems or marine conveyor belt which transport eggs and larval stages.
What explorer led the Nimrod Expedition into Antarctica?
570d9c48df2f5219002ed02c
Ernest Shackleton
36
False
Who led the party to first climb Mount Erebus?
570d9c48df2f5219002ed02d
Edgeworth David
78
False
Who led the return expedition to find the Magnetic pole?
570d9c48df2f5219002ed02e
Douglas Mawson
171
False
When did Mawson retire after leading several expeditions?
570d9c48df2f5219002ed02f
1931
321
False
When did Roald Amundsen reach the geographic south pole?
570d9c48df2f5219002ed030
14 December 1911
783
False
Nimrod Expedition
11
What expitition was led by Shackleton in the 19th century?
5ad24023d7d075001a428918
True
Mount Erebus
120
What did the party led by Shckleton climb?
5ad24023d7d075001a428919
True
Nimrod Expedition
11
What expedition reached the North Magnetic Pole?
5ad24023d7d075001a42891a
True
Ross Ice Shelf
498
What did Edgeworth David traverse?
5ad24023d7d075001a42891b
True
Fram
723
What ship did Shackelton use to reach the geographic South Pole?
5ad24023d7d075001a42891c
True
Nimrod Expedition
11
What expedition was led by Edgeworth Shackleton?
5ad2ac0ad7d075001a429e86
True
Ernest Shackleton
36
Who led Nimrod Expedition to Antarctica?
5ad2ac0ad7d075001a429e87
True
Douglas Mawson
171
Who led the Magnetic Pole party in 1931?
5ad2ac0ad7d075001a429e88
True
Roald Amundsen
694
Who led the expedition that would first reach the geographic South Pole on 11 December 1914?
5ad2ac0ad7d075001a429e89
True
December 1908 – February 1909
424
When was the South Polar Plateau first traversed?
5ad2ac0ad7d075001a429e8a
True
During the Nimrod Expedition led by Ernest Shackleton in 1907, parties led by Edgeworth David became the first to climb Mount Erebus and to reach the South Magnetic Pole. Douglas Mawson, who assumed the leadership of the Magnetic Pole party on their perilous return, went on to lead several expeditions until retiring in 1931. In addition, Shackleton himself and three other members of his expedition made several firsts in December 1908 – February 1909: they were the first humans to traverse the Ross Ice Shelf, the first to traverse the Transantarctic Mountains (via the Beardmore Glacier), and the first to set foot on the South Polar Plateau. An expedition led by Norwegian polar explorer Roald Amundsen from the ship Fram became the first to reach the geographic South Pole on 14 December 1911, using a route from the Bay of Whales and up the Axel Heiberg Glacier. One month later, the doomed Scott Expedition reached the pole.
When was the Antarctic Conservation Act passed by the U.S.?
570da18bdf2f5219002ed078
1978
47
False
What type of penalty can importing plants and animals into Antarctica bring?
570da18bdf2f5219002ed079
criminal
182
False
Over fishing of which species of fish helped promote regulations on fishing?
570da18bdf2f5219002ed07a
krill
268
False
How many tonnes of Patagonian toothfish were illegally fished in 2000?
570da18bdf2f5219002ed07b
32,000
860
False
When did the Convention for the Conservation of Antarctic Marine Living Resources  come into force?
570da18bdf2f5219002ed07c
1980
491
False
Antarctic Conservation Act
19
What passed in 1987?
5ad2caa7d7d075001a42a272
True
in the U.S
53
Where was the 1987 Antarctic Conservation Act passed?
5ad2caa7d7d075001a42a273
True
Conservation of Antarctic Marine Living Resources
398
What does CMACLR stand for?
5ad2caa7d7d075001a42a274
True
1980
491
What year did the CMACLR come into force?
5ad2caa7d7d075001a42a275
True
2000
897
What year saw illegal fishing of toothfish measure 32,000 short tons?
5ad2caa7d7d075001a42a276
True
The passing of the Antarctic Conservation Act (1978) in the U.S. brought several restrictions to U.S. activity on Antarctica. The introduction of alien plants or animals can bring a criminal penalty, as can the extraction of any indigenous species. The overfishing of krill, which plays a large role in the Antarctic ecosystem, led officials to enact regulations on fishing. The Convention for the Conservation of Antarctic Marine Living Resources (CCAMLR), a treaty that came into force in 1980, requires that regulations managing all Southern Ocean fisheries consider potential effects on the entire Antarctic ecosystem. Despite these new acts, unregulated and illegal fishing, particularly of Patagonian toothfish (marketed as Chilean Sea Bass in the U.S.), remains a serious problem. The illegal fishing of toothfish has been increasing, with estimates of 32,000 tonnes (35,300 short tons) in 2000.
Since what year has tourism been ongoing to Antarctica?
570da377df2f5219002ed08a
1957
51
False
What is expedition tourism to Antarctica subject to?
570da377df2f5219002ed08b
Antarctic Treaty and Environmental Protocol
84
False
How many of the Antarctic tour operators belong to IAATO?
570da377df2f5219002ed08c
95%
342
False
What is the mode of travel for Antarctic tours?
570da377df2f5219002ed08d
small or medium ship
392
False
How many tourists went to Antarctica during the 2006-07 season?
570da377df2f5219002ed08e
37,506
514
False
Small-scale "expedition tourism"
0
What has existed since 1975?
5ad2ce93d7d075001a42a2e0
True
International Association of Antarctica Tour Operators
176
What does IATAO stand for?
5ad2ce93d7d075001a42a2e1
True
95%
342
What percentage of tourism do members of the IATAO account for?
5ad2ce93d7d075001a42a2e2
True
37,506
514
How many tourists visited in 2006?
5ad2ce93d7d075001a42a2e3
True
80,000
671
What was the number of tourists predicted to increase to in 2007?
5ad2ce93d7d075001a42a2e4
True
Small-scale "expedition tourism" has existed since 1957 and is currently subject to Antarctic Treaty and Environmental Protocol provisions, but in effect self-regulated by the International Association of Antarctica Tour Operators (IAATO). Not all vessels associated with Antarctic tourism are members of IAATO, but IAATO members account for 95% of the tourist activity. Travel is largely by small or medium ship, focusing on specific scenic locations with accessible concentrations of iconic wildlife. A total of 37,506 tourists visited during the 2006–07 Austral summer with nearly all of them coming from commercial ships. The number was predicted to increase to over 80,000 by 2010.
What is the main mineral found on Antarctica?
570da494df2f5219002ed09e
coal
52
False
Where was coal first found on Antarctica?
570da494df2f5219002ed09f
Beardmore Glacier
89
False
What expedition discovered coal on Antarctica?
570da494df2f5219002ed0a0
Nimrod Expedition
128
False
Where is iron ore found on Antarctica?
570da494df2f5219002ed0a1
Prince Charles Mountains
234
False
Where are oil and gas deposits located near Antarctica?
570da494df2f5219002ed0a2
Ross Sea
408
False
coal
52
What is the rarest mineral resource on the continent?
5ad25953d7d075001a428e02
True
Frank Wild
110
Who first discovered coal in the Southern Hemisphere?
5ad25953d7d075001a428e03
True
iron ore
291
What ore was found near the Beardmore Glacier?
5ad25953d7d075001a428e04
True
oil and natural gas
368
What valuable resources did the Nimrod Expodition find in the Ross Sea?
5ad25953d7d075001a428e05
True
mineral
446
What type od resources can only be explored until 2048?
5ad25953d7d075001a428e06
True
coal.
52
What is the main mineral resource of the Prince Charles Glacier?
5ad2b73fd7d075001a42a02c
True
coal
52
What did Frank Beardmore first record during the Nimrod Expedition?
5ad2b73fd7d075001a42a02d
True
iron ore
291
What significant deposits are found in the Transantarctic Mountains?
5ad2b73fd7d075001a42a02e
True
oil and natural gas fields
368
What was found in the Ross Sea in 1937?
5ad2b73fd7d075001a42a02f
True
Exploitation of all mineral resources
426
What is banned until 2084?
5ad2b73fd7d075001a42a030
True
The main mineral resource known on the continent is coal. It was first recorded near the Beardmore Glacier by Frank Wild on the Nimrod Expedition, and now low-grade coal is known across many parts of the Transantarctic Mountains. The Prince Charles Mountains contain significant deposits of iron ore. The most valuable resources of Antarctica lie offshore, namely the oil and natural gas fields found in the Ross Sea in 1973. Exploitation of all mineral resources is banned until 2048 by the Protocol on Environmental Protection to the Antarctic Treaty.
What type of research was Princess Elizabeth station built to study?
570da68e16d0071400510c4b
climate change
188
False
How much did the Princess Elizabeth station cost?
570da68e16d0071400510c4c
$16.3 million
212
False
What unique characteristic does the Princess Elizabeth station feature?
570da68e16d0071400510c4d
zero-emissions
125
False
From what country was the Princess Elizabeth station shipped?
570da68e16d0071400510c4e
Belgium
336
False
Who is the leader of the station design team?
570da68e16d0071400510c4f
Johan Berte
592
False
Belgian-based International Polar Foundation unveiled the Princess Elisabeth station
21
What happened on 7 September 2006?
5ad2d616d7d075001a42a3fa
True
Princess Elisabeth
79
What was unveiled on 7 September 2006?
5ad2d616d7d075001a42a3fb
True
International Polar Foundation
35
Who unveiled the Princess Elisabeth on 7 September 2006?
5ad2d616d7d075001a42a3fc
True
Princess Elisabeth station
79
What cost $13.6 million?
5ad2d616d7d075001a42a3fd
True
leader of the station design team and manager of the project
611
Who is Alain Berte?
5ad2d616d7d075001a42a3fe
True
On 6 September 2007, Belgian-based International Polar Foundation unveiled the Princess Elisabeth station, the world's first zero-emissions polar science station in Antarctica to research climate change. Costing $16.3 million, the prefabricated station, which is part of the International Polar Year, was shipped to the South Pole from Belgium by the end of 2008 to monitor the health of the polar regions. Belgian polar explorer Alain Hubert stated: "This base will be the first of its kind to produce zero emissions, making it a unique model of how energy should be used in the Antarctic." Johan Berte is the leader of the station design team and manager of the project which conducts research in climatology, glaciology and microbiology.
What type of ice originates on land and floats out to sea?
570da87816d0071400510c5d
floating ice shelves
11
False
What events have occurred in recent decades to the ice shelves surrounding Antarctica?
570da87816d0071400510c5e
collapses
397
False
Along what area has there been more collapsing ice shelves?
570da87816d0071400510c5f
Antarctic Peninsula
481
False
What could the displacement of ice cause?
570da87816d0071400510c60
glacial outflow
583
False
What weather event would offset loss of ice shelves?
570da87816d0071400510c61
snow falling
312
False
floating ice shelves
11
Where did ice on land originate?
5ad2d9a8d7d075001a42a474
True
a rise in global sea level
259
What is the result of floating ice shelves melting from the land?
5ad2d9a8d7d075001a42a475
True
outflow of the ice
191
What does snow offset on the continent shelves?
5ad2d9a8d7d075001a42a476
True
increased glacial outflow from the continental ice mass
573
Where is the concern with regard to disruption of ice melts?
5ad2d9a8d7d075001a42a477
True
Melting of floating ice shelves (ice that originated on the land) does not in itself contribute much to sea-level rise (since the ice displaces only its own mass of water). However it is the outflow of the ice from the land to form the ice shelf which causes a rise in global sea level. This effect is offset by snow falling back onto the continent. Recent decades have witnessed several dramatic collapses of large ice shelves around the coast of Antarctica, especially along the Antarctic Peninsula. Concerns have been raised that disruption of ice shelves may result in increased glacial outflow from the continental ice mass.
What can not grow extensively in Antarctica?
570dc8720b85d914000d7b53
vegetation
51
False
What does the climate of Antarctica inhibit?
570dc8720b85d914000d7b54
plant growth
177
False
hat is low and limited in Antarctica?
570dc8720b85d914000d7b55
diversity of plant life
208
False
How many species of Mosses are there in Antarctica?
570dc8720b85d914000d7b56
100
348
False
The climate of Antarctica
0
What allows extensive vegitation to occur?
5ad26784d7d075001a429224
True
freezing temperatures, poor soil quality, lack of moisture, and lack of sunlight
88
What promotes plant growth?
5ad26784d7d075001a429225
True
plant life
221
What is diverse and widely distributed?
5ad26784d7d075001a429226
True
Antarctica
15
Where are there 25 species of mosses?
5ad26784d7d075001a429227
True
climate of Antarctica
4
What climate allows extensive vegetation to form?
5ad2c5bfd7d075001a42a19e
True
mosses
363
What are there 105 species of?
5ad2c5bfd7d075001a42a19f
True
liverworts
388
What are there 20 species of?
5ad2c5bfd7d075001a42a1a0
True
three
409
How many species of plants are there?
5ad2c5bfd7d075001a42a1a1
True
Antarctic Peninsula
474
Where are all of the plants found?
5ad2c5bfd7d075001a42a1a2
True
The climate of Antarctica does not allow extensive vegetation to form. A combination of freezing temperatures, poor soil quality, lack of moisture, and lack of sunlight inhibit plant growth. As a result, the diversity of plant life is very low and limited in distribution. The flora of the continent largely consists of bryophytes. There are about 100 species of mosses and 25 species of liverworts, but only three species of flowering plants, all of which are found in the Antarctic Peninsula: Deschampsia antarctica (Antarctic hair grass), Colobanthus quitensis (Antarctic pearlwort) and the non-native Poa annua (annual bluegrass). Growth is restricted to a few weeks in the summer.
Since what year have claims been suspended in Antarctica?
570dccdd0b85d914000d7b6b
1959
51
False
What document regulates Antarctica's status?
570dccdd0b85d914000d7b6c
Antarctic Treaty System
292
False
What latitude is defined as being Antarctica's border?
570dccdd0b85d914000d7b6d
south of 60° S
367
False
How many countries signed the treaty protecting Antarctica from claims?
570dccdd0b85d914000d7b6e
twelve
446
False
What does the treaty set Antarctica aside as?
570dccdd0b85d914000d7b6f
scientific preserve
611
False
New claims on Antarctica
0
What has been suspended since 1995?
5ad2cb60d7d075001a42a27c
True
2015
75
What year did Norway formally define Maud Queen Land?
5ad2cb60d7d075001a42a27d
True
Antarctic Treaty
221
What 1995 treaty is Antarctica's status regulated by?
5ad2cb60d7d075001a42a27e
True
Antarctica
317
What is defined as all land and ice shelves south of 59° S?
5ad2cb60d7d075001a42a27f
True
New claims on Antarctica have been suspended since 1959 although Norway in 2015 formally defined Queen Maud Land as including the unclaimed area between it and the South Pole. Antarctica's status is regulated by the 1959 Antarctic Treaty and other related agreements, collectively called the Antarctic Treaty System. Antarctica is defined as all land and ice shelves south of 60° S for the purposes of the Treaty System. The treaty was signed by twelve countries including the Soviet Union (and later Russia), the United Kingdom, Argentina, Chile, Australia, and the United States. It set aside Antarctica as a scientific preserve, established freedom of scientific investigation and environmental protection, and banned military activity on Antarctica. This was the first arms control agreement established during the Cold War.
When did Cook's ships cross the Antarctic circle?
570dce860b85d914000d7b7d
17 January 1773
151
False
What kept Captain Cook from getting too close to Antarctica?
570dce860b85d914000d7b7e
field ice
306
False
How many men sighted Antarctica in 1820?
570dce860b85d914000d7b7f
three
606
False
How close did von Bellingshausen and Lazarev come to Antarctica?
570dce860b85d914000d7b80
32 km
941
False
When was the first recorded landing on Antarctica?
570dce860b85d914000d7b81
1895
1518
False
Captain James Cook
61
Who's ship crossed the Antarctic Circle in the 17th century?
5ad23e7bd7d075001a4288c4
True
HMS Resolution and Adventure
89
What ships did Cook use to circle the Antarctic Circle?
5ad23e7bd7d075001a4288c5
True
von Bellingshausen (a captain in the Imperial Russian Navy), Edward Bransfield (a captain in the Royal Navy), and Nathaniel Palmer
661
Who sighted Antarctica or its ice shelf in the 18th century?
5ad23e7bd7d075001a4288c6
True
Vostok and Mirny
901
What ships were captained by Bransfield and Lazarev?
5ad23e7bd7d075001a4288c7
True
Palmer
1213
Who sighted land ten months before Bransfield?
5ad23e7bd7d075001a4288c8
True
HMS Resolution and Adventure
89
What ships crossed the Arctic Circle on 17 January 1773?
5ad2aac9d7d075001a429e40
True
HMS Resolution and Adventure
89
What crossed the Antarctic Circle in December 1774?
5ad2aac9d7d075001a429e41
True
Cook
212
Who came within 120 mi of the Antarctic coast in 1773?
5ad2aac9d7d075001a429e42
True
Antarctica or its ice shelf
624
What did three might sight in 1802?
5ad2aac9d7d075001a429e43
True
Fimbul ice shelf
1116
What ice shelf was spotted within 32 mi from Queen Maud's Land?
5ad2aac9d7d075001a429e44
True
European maps continued to show this hypothesized land until Captain James Cook's ships, HMS Resolution and Adventure, crossed the Antarctic Circle on 17 January 1773, in December 1773 and again in January 1774. Cook came within about 120 km (75 mi) of the Antarctic coast before retreating in the face of field ice in January 1773. The first confirmed sighting of Antarctica can be narrowed down to the crews of ships captained by three individuals. According to various organizations (the National Science Foundation, NASA, the University of California, San Diego, and other sources), ships captained by three men sighted Antarctica or its ice shelf in 1820: von Bellingshausen (a captain in the Imperial Russian Navy), Edward Bransfield (a captain in the Royal Navy), and Nathaniel Palmer (a sealer out of Stonington, Connecticut). The expedition led by von Bellingshausen and Lazarev on the ships Vostok and Mirny reached a point within 32 km (20 mi) from Queen Maud's Land and recorded the sight of an ice shelf at 69°21′28″S 2°14′50″W﻿ / ﻿69.35778°S 2.24722°W﻿ / -69.35778; -2.24722, which became known as the Fimbul ice shelf. This happened three days before Bransfield sighted land, and ten months before Palmer did so in November 1820. The first documented landing on Antarctica was by the American sealer John Davis, apparently at Hughes Bay, near Cape Charles, in West Antarctica on 7 February 1821, although some historians dispute this claim. The first recorded and confirmed landing was at Cape Adair in 1895.
What has been an important atmospheric study since the 1970s?
570de6bd0dc6ce1900204cf7
ozone layer
58
False
Where in Antarctica is Halley Station?
570de6bd0dc6ce1900204cf8
Brunt Ice Shelf
199
False
When did scientists discover the hole in the ozone layer?
570de6bd0dc6ce1900204cf9
1985
109
False
What chemical was discovered to have caused the hole in the ozone?
570de6bd0dc6ce1900204cfa
chlorofluorocarbons
342
False
What agreement banned the use of CFC s?
570de6bd0dc6ce1900204cfb
Montreal Protocol
424
False
the ozone layer
54
What was studied in 1970?
5ad2d3f3d7d075001a42a3c2
True
a hole
243
What was discovered in 1985 in the ozone at the Brunt Station on the Halley Ice Shelf?
5ad2d3f3d7d075001a42a3c3
True
chlorofluorocarbons
342
What does CCF stand for?
5ad2d3f3d7d075001a42a3c4
True
CFCs
412
What were banned in 1998?
5ad2d3f3d7d075001a42a3c5
True
ozone layer will return to 1980 levels
489
What will happen to the ozone by 2050?
5ad2d3f3d7d075001a42a3c6
True
Since the 1970s, an important focus of study has been the ozone layer in the atmosphere above Antarctica. In 1985, three British scientists working on data they had gathered at Halley Station on the Brunt Ice Shelf discovered the existence of a hole in this layer. It was eventually determined that the destruction of the ozone was caused by chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) emitted by human products. With the ban of CFCs in the Montreal Protocol of 1989, climate projections indicate that the ozone layer will return to 1980 levels between 2050 and 2070.
What type of climate did Gondwana have during the Cambrian period?
570de84b0b85d914000d7ba7
mild
43
False
In what hemisphere did west Antarctica share during the Cambrian?
570de84b0b85d914000d7ba8
Northern
94
False
Where was east Antarctica during the Cambrian period?
570de84b0b85d914000d7ba9
equator
232
False
What was the climate of Gondwana at the beginning of the Devonian period?
570de84b0b85d914000d7baa
cooler
425
False
Where was Gondwana located by the end of the Devonian period?
570de84b0b85d914000d7bab
South Pole
678
False
West Antarctica
57
What part of Antarctica is currently in the Northern Hemispher?
5ad24ee3d7d075001a428c6a
True
sandstones, limestones and shales
155
What was deposited in Western Antarctica while it was in the Southern Hemisphere
5ad24ee3d7d075001a428c6b
True
invertebrates and trilobites
257
What life florishes in East Antarctica's tropical seas?
5ad24ee3d7d075001a428c6c
True
seed plants
792
What dominated the land during the Devion period?
5ad24ee3d7d075001a428c6d
True
end of the Permian period
955
When did Antarctica develop a hot dry climate?
5ad24ee3d7d075001a428c6e
True
Gondwana
28
What had a mild climate during the Devonian period?
5ad2b042d7d075001a429f32
True
Devonian period
339
What started 461 Ma?
5ad2b042d7d075001a429f33
True
at the equator
225
During the Devonian period, where was East Antarctica?
5ad2b042d7d075001a429f34
True
Glaciation
582
What began 306 Ma?
5ad2b042d7d075001a429f35
True
seed plants
792
What type of plants dominated the Devonian period?
5ad2b042d7d075001a429f36
True
During the Cambrian period, Gondwana had a mild climate. West Antarctica was partially in the Northern Hemisphere, and during this period large amounts of sandstones, limestones and shales were deposited. East Antarctica was at the equator, where sea floor invertebrates and trilobites flourished in the tropical seas. By the start of the Devonian period (416 Ma), Gondwana was in more southern latitudes and the climate was cooler, though fossils of land plants are known from this time. Sand and silts were laid down in what is now the Ellsworth, Horlick and Pensacola Mountains. Glaciation began at the end of the Devonian period (360 Ma), as Gondwana became centered on the South Pole and the climate cooled, though flora remained. During the Permian period, the land became dominated by seed plants such as Glossopteris, a pteridosperm which grew in swamps. Over time these swamps became deposits of coal in the Transantarctic Mountains. Towards the end of the Permian period, continued warming led to a dry, hot climate over much of Gondwana.
What is the Earth's most southern continent?
570de9330b85d914000d7bb7
Antarctica
0
False
Which pole is located in Antarctica?
570de9330b85d914000d7bb8
South Pole
166
False
What ocean surrounds Antarctica?
570de9330b85d914000d7bb9
Southern Ocean
317
False
What is the size of Antarctica?
570de9330b85d914000d7bba
14,000,000 square kilometres
336
False
How much of Antarctica is ice covered?
570de9330b85d914000d7bbb
98%
559
False
South Pole
166
What is the earths northernmost continent?
5ad20d99d7d075001a428286
True
Antarctica
0
What continent is almost entirely south of the Arctic Circle?
5ad20d99d7d075001a428287
True
Southern Ocean
317
What Ocean does Antarctica surround?
5ad20d99d7d075001a428288
True
Asia, Africa, North America, and South America
439
What continents is Antarctica larger than?
5ad20d99d7d075001a428289
True
1.9 km (1.2 mi; 6,200 ft)
609
How thick is the ice at the northernmost reaches of the Antarctic Peninsula?
5ad20d99d7d075001a42828a
True
Antarctica
0
What continent is 14,000,000 square miles?
5ad28f30d7d075001a429a64
True
Asia, Africa, North America, and South America.
439
What continents are largest after Antarctica?
5ad28f30d7d075001a429a65
True
Antarctica
503
What continent is Australia twice the size of?
5ad28f30d7d075001a429a66
True
ice
591
What averages 1.9 mi in thickness?
5ad28f30d7d075001a429a67
True
98%
559
How much of Australia is covered by ice?
5ad28f30d7d075001a429a68
True
Antarctica (US English i/æntˈɑːrktɪkə/, UK English /ænˈtɑːktɪkə/ or /ænˈtɑːtɪkə/ or /ænˈɑːtɪkə/)[Note 1] is Earth's southernmost continent, containing the geographic South Pole. It is situated in the Antarctic region of the Southern Hemisphere, almost entirely south of the Antarctic Circle, and is surrounded by the Southern Ocean. At 14,000,000 square kilometres (5,400,000 square miles), it is the fifth-largest continent in area after Asia, Africa, North America, and South America. For comparison, Antarctica is nearly twice the size of Australia. About 98% of Antarctica is covered by ice that averages 1.9 km (1.2 mi; 6,200 ft) in thickness, which extends to all but the northernmost reaches of the Antarctic Peninsula.
Where was the coldest temperature recorded on Earth?
570dea9c0b85d914000d7bd3
Antarctica
0
False
What was the coldest temperature ever recorded?
570dea9c0b85d914000d7bd4
−89.2 °C
108
False
On what date was the Earth's coldest temperature recorded?
570dea9c0b85d914000d7bd5
21 July 1983
189
False
What is Antarctica topographically ?
570dea9c0b85d914000d7bd6
frozen desert
470
False
What light caused condition is a serious problem for humans in Antarctica?
570dea9c0b85d914000d7bd7
Sunburn
783
False
−89.2 °C
108
What is the coldest temerature recorded in Russia?
5ad25a9ed7d075001a428e3a
True
South Pole
515
What recieves less than 10 cm of rain per year?
5ad25a9ed7d075001a428e3b
True
snow
822
What relflects most of the light falling on it?
5ad25a9ed7d075001a428e3c
True
−89.2 °C (−128.6 °F)
108
What temperature was recorded in Russia on 21 July 1983?
5ad2b9cdd7d075001a42a05c
True
air,
350
What does CO2 make up 0.39% of?
5ad2b9cdd7d075001a42a05d
True
dry ice snow
426
What be produced in Antarctica with temperatures less than -150°F
5ad2b9cdd7d075001a42a05e
True
South Pole
515
What receives 10 inches of precipitation on average?
5ad2b9cdd7d075001a42a05f
True
Antarctica is the coldest of Earth's continents. The coldest natural temperature ever recorded on Earth was −89.2 °C (−128.6 °F) at the Soviet (now Russian) Vostok Station in Antarctica on 21 July 1983. For comparison, this is 10.7 °C (20 °F) colder than subliming dry ice at one atmosphere of partial pressure, but since CO2 only makes up 0.039% of air, temperatures of less than −150 °C (−238 °F) would be needed to produce dry ice snow in Antarctica. Antarctica is a frozen desert with little precipitation; the South Pole itself receives less than 10 cm (4 in) per year, on average. Temperatures reach a minimum of between −80 °C (−112 °F) and −89.2 °C (−128.6 °F) in the interior in winter and reach a maximum of between 5 °C (41 °F) and 15 °C (59 °F) near the coast in summer. Sunburn is often a health issue as the snow surface reflects almost all of the ultraviolet light falling on it. Given the latitude, long periods of constant darkness or constant sunlight create climates unfamiliar to human beings in much of the rest of the world.
Who wrote a book describing a cold region in 350 B.C.?
570dec460dc6ce1900204d0b
Aristotle
0
False
What map maker used the name Antarctica in his map of the 2nd century A.D.?
570dec460dc6ce1900204d0c
Marinus of Tyre
81
False
What did authors Hyginus and Apuleious call the South Pole?
570dec460dc6ce1900204d0d
polus antarcticus
286
False
What did Chaucer call the area in 1391?
570dec460dc6ce1900204d0e
pol antartik
432
False
What was the old French words for the Antarctic?
570dec460dc6ce1900204d0f
pole antartike
339
False
Aristotle
0
Who wrote about an Antarctic region in the third century B.C?
5ad221f5d7d075001a4284e6
True
Marinus of Tyre
81
Who's map is still preserved from the 2nd century A.D
5ad221f5d7d075001a4284e7
True
Hyginus and Apuleius
195
What Greek authors used the term polus anarcticus?
5ad221f5d7d075001a4284e8
True
1391
450
Who refered to the South Pole as Antarctic Pole in the 13th century?
5ad221f5d7d075001a4284e9
True
Meteorology
28
What book did Aristotle write in the 3rd century B.C.
5ad221f5d7d075001a4284ea
True
Meteorology
28
What did Aristotle write in 530 B.C.?
5ad2a31ad7d075001a429d38
True
polus antarcticus
286
What is the Roman name for the South Pole?
5ad2a31ad7d075001a429d39
True
Marinus of Tyre
81
Who used Meteorology in his preserved world map?
5ad2a31ad7d075001a429d3a
True
unpreserved world map
129
What did Tyre of Marinus produce?
5ad2a31ad7d075001a429d3b
True
Aristotle wrote in his book Meteorology about an Antarctic region in c. 350 B.C. Marinus of Tyre reportedly used the name in his unpreserved world map from the 2nd century A.D. The Roman authors Hyginus and Apuleius (1–2 centuries A.D.) used for the South Pole the romanized Greek name polus antarcticus, from which derived the Old French pole antartike (modern pôle antarctique) attested in 1270, and from there the Middle English pol antartik in a 1391 technical treatise by Geoffrey Chaucer (modern Antarctic Pole).
In what do some scientists believe ozone depletion may have a role ?
570dedb80dc6ce1900204d1b
climatic change
91
False
What light does ozone absorb?
570dedb80dc6ce1900204d1c
ultraviolet radiation
199
False
How much cooling can ozone depletion cause over Antarctica?
570dedb80dc6ce1900204d1d
6 °C
304
False
What can the wind changes due to cooling cause in the Antarctic ice?
570dedb80dc6ce1900204d1e
accelerated melting
736
False
What does ozone depletion cause in the southern atmosphere?
570dedb80dc6ce1900204d1f
enhanced polar vortex
802
False
ozone depletion
37
What has played a dominant role in the climate change in Antarctica?
5ad2dc64d7d075001a42a51e
True
Ozone depletion
242
What can cause a cooling of around 6°C in the local air?
5ad2dc64d7d075001a42a51f
True
westerly winds which flow around the continent
384
What is a pole vortex?
5ad2dc64d7d075001a42a520
True
ozone depletion
786
What enhanced the pole vortex?
5ad2dc64d7d075001a42a521
True
Some scientific studies suggest that ozone depletion may have a dominant role in governing climatic change in Antarctica (and a wider area of the Southern Hemisphere). Ozone absorbs large amounts of ultraviolet radiation in the stratosphere. Ozone depletion over Antarctica can cause a cooling of around 6 °C in the local stratosphere. This cooling has the effect of intensifying the westerly winds which flow around the continent (the polar vortex) and thus prevents outflow of the cold air near the South Pole. As a result, the continental mass of the East Antarctic ice sheet is held at lower temperatures, and the peripheral areas of Antarctica, especially the Antarctic Peninsula, are subject to higher temperatures, which promote accelerated melting. Models also suggest that the ozone depletion/enhanced polar vortex effect also accounts for the recent increase in sea ice just offshore of the continent.
Who has research stations in Antarctica?
570def870b85d914000d7c05
Several governments
0
False
What is the span of population density per million square kilometers of researchers in Antarctica?
570def870b85d914000d7c06
between 70 and 350
299
False
About long long do researchers stay when researching in Antarctica?
570def870b85d914000d7c07
one-year
537
False
What station has an Orthodox church representative?
570def870b85d914000d7c08
Bellingshausen Station
623
False
When did the Trinity Church begin its posting at Bellinshausen station?
570def870b85d914000d7c09
2004
603
False
Several governments
0
Who maintains perminent settlements on the continent?
5ad25ca5d7d075001a428ec0
True
Trinity Church
577
What Antartcic Church closed in 2004?
5ad25ca5d7d075001a428ec1
True
on the continent and its nearby islands
164
Where are there 5,000 year round residents?
5ad25ca5d7d075001a428ec2
True
1,000
222
How many people are conducting research on nearby islands in the winter?
5ad2bd17d7d075001a42a0b8
True
5,000
247
How many people are conducting research on nearby islands in the summer?
5ad2bd17d7d075001a42a0b9
True
between 70 and 350 inhabitants per million square kilometres
299
What is the population density of the surrounding islands?
5ad2bd17d7d075001a42a0ba
True
2004
603
What year did Trinity Orthodox open?
5ad2bd17d7d075001a42a0bb
True
Russian Bellingshausen Station
615
What station opened Trinity Orthodox?
5ad2bd17d7d075001a42a0bc
True
Several governments maintain permanent manned research stations on the continent. The number of people conducting and supporting scientific research and other work on the continent and its nearby islands varies from about 1,000 in winter to about 5,000 in the summer, giving it a population density between 70 and 350 inhabitants per million square kilometres (180 and 900 per million square miles) at these times. Many of the stations are staffed year-round, the winter-over personnel typically arriving from their home countries for a one-year assignment. An Orthodox church—Trinity Church, opened in 2004 at the Russian Bellingshausen Station—is manned year-round by one or two priests, who are similarly rotated every year.
What is the southern most continent?
570df1970dc6ce1900204d2d
Antarctica
91
False
What is the size of Antarctica in square miles?
570df1970dc6ce1900204d2f
5,400,000
362
False
What is Antarctica's ranking among the continents?
570df1970dc6ce1900204d30
fifth-largest
394
False
How many miles long is Antarctica's coast line?
570df1970dc6ce1900204d31
11,165
489
False
Antarctica
91
What continent is largely north of the Antarctic Circle?
5ad2415cd7d075001a42895e
True
Southern Ocean
157
What ocean does Antarctica surround?
5ad2415cd7d075001a42895f
True
Pacific, Atlantic, and Indian Oceans
242
What other oceansbesides the Southern Ocean does Antarctica surround?
5ad2415cd7d075001a428960
True
Antarctica
91
What continent is 14,000,000 square miles?
5ad2415cd7d075001a428961
True
Antarctica
91
What coninent is 1.3 times smaller than Europe?
5ad2415cd7d075001a428962
True
Antarctica
91
What surrounds the Southern Ocean?
5ad2ad0bd7d075001a429ebe
True
Antarctica
91
What continent covers more than 14,000,000 sq mi?
5ad2ad0bd7d075001a429ebf
True
Antarctica
91
What continent is 3.1 times as large as Europe?
5ad2ad0bd7d075001a429ec0
True
The coastline
455
What measures 17,968 square miles?
5ad2ad0bd7d075001a429ec1
True
Antarctica
91
What is positioned symmetrically around the South Pole?
5ad2ad0bd7d075001a429ec2
True
Positioned asymmetrically around the South Pole and largely south of the Antarctic Circle, Antarctica is the southernmost continent and is surrounded by the Southern Ocean; alternatively, it may be considered to be surrounded by the southern Pacific, Atlantic, and Indian Oceans, or by the southern waters of the World Ocean. It covers more than 14,000,000 km2 (5,400,000 sq mi), making it the fifth-largest continent, about 1.3 times as large as Europe. The coastline measures 17,968 km (11,165 mi) and is mostly characterized by ice formations, as the following table shows:
What sea plankton doe many sea creatures rely on to live?
570df3470dc6ce1900204d47
phytoplankton
78
False
What breed of penguin lives in Antarctica?
570df3470dc6ce1900204d48
emperor penguin
186
False
During what season does the emperor penguin breed?
570df3470dc6ce1900204d49
winter
245
False
What feature does the rockhopper penguin have around its eyes?
570df3470dc6ce1900204d4a
feathers
376
False
Which penguin breeds the furterest south of all the penguin breeds?
570df3470dc6ce1900204d4b
Adélie
277
False
marine animals
16
What do the phytolankton depend on?
5ad2612bd7d075001a42900e
True
penguins, blue whales, orcas, colossal squids and fur seals
121
What animals live on the continent of Antarctica?
5ad2612bd7d075001a42900f
True
emperor penguin
186
What is the only penguin that breeds on Antarctica?
5ad2612bd7d075001a429010
True
the Adélie penguin
273
What penguin breeds south of Antarctica?
5ad2612bd7d075001a429011
True
feathers around the eyes
376
What type of feathers do king penguins have?
5ad2612bd7d075001a429012
True
phytoplankton
78
What do marine animals directly rely on?
5ad2c2a7d7d075001a42a122
True
breeds
227
What is the Adelie penguin the only one to do during winter in Antarctica?
5ad2c2a7d7d075001a42a123
True
south
307
What direction does the Emperor penguin go further than any other to breed?
5ad2c2a7d7d075001a42a124
True
Some species of marine animals exist and rely, directly or indirectly, on the phytoplankton. Antarctic sea life includes penguins, blue whales, orcas, colossal squids and fur seals. The emperor penguin is the only penguin that breeds during the winter in Antarctica, while the Adélie penguin breeds farther south than any other penguin. The rockhopper penguin has distinctive feathers around the eyes, giving the appearance of elaborate eyelashes. King penguins, chinstrap penguins, and gentoo penguins also breed in the Antarctic.
What is the highest peak in Antarctica?
570df47a0dc6ce1900204d59
Vinson Massif
0
False
How high is the Antarctic mountain Vinson Massif?
570df47a0dc6ce1900204d5a
4,892 m
49
False
In what mountainous area of Antarctica is Vinson Massif?
570df47a0dc6ce1900204d5b
Ellsworth Mountains
88
False
What is the Earth's most southern volcano?
570df47a0dc6ce1900204d5c
Mount Erebus
207
False
What type of volcano was located in 2004 by researchers?
570df47a0dc6ce1900204d5d
underwater
541
False
Vinson Massif
0
What is the highest peak in the world?
5ad249f8d7d075001a428bae
True
Ellsworth Mountains
88
What mountains are 4,892 ft high?
5ad249f8d7d075001a428baf
True
Mount Erebus
207
What is the worlds most active volcano?
5ad249f8d7d075001a428bb0
True
Ross Island
223
Wha island has the southern most volcano in the world?
5ad249f8d7d075001a428bb1
True
American and Canadian researchers
600
Who found the forst underwater volcano?
5ad249f8d7d075001a428bb2
True
Vinson Massif
0
What is the highest peak in Antarctica at 4,892 ft?
5ad2aed0d7d075001a429ef4
True
4,892 m (16,050 ft)
49
How tall is Massif Vinson?
5ad2aed0d7d075001a429ef5
True
Ellsworth Mountains
88
Where is Massif Vinson located?
5ad2aed0d7d075001a429ef6
True
the world's southernmost active volcano
238
What is Mount Ross considered to be?
5ad2aed0d7d075001a429ef7
True
Deception Island
318
What island had a volcanic eruption in 1907?
5ad2aed0d7d075001a429ef8
True
Vinson Massif, the highest peak in Antarctica at 4,892 m (16,050 ft), is located in the Ellsworth Mountains. Antarctica contains many other mountains, on both the main continent and the surrounding islands. Mount Erebus on Ross Island is the world's southernmost active volcano. Another well-known volcano is found on Deception Island, which is famous for a giant eruption in 1970. Minor eruptions are frequent and lava flow has been observed in recent years. Other dormant volcanoes may potentially be active. In 2004, a potentially active underwater volcano was found in the Antarctic Peninsula by American and Canadian researchers.
When did negotiations start to regulate mining in Antarctica?
570df5ec0dc6ce1900204d73
1983
3
False
What group led the fight to prevent mineral development in Antarctica?
570df5ec0dc6ce1900204d74
Greenpeace International,
252
False
When was the treaty to regulate mining agreed upon?
570df5ec0dc6ce1900204d75
1988
457
False
Which two countries refused to ratify the treaty to regulate mineral use in Antarctica?
570df5ec0dc6ce1900204d76
Australia and France
578
False
What was the alternate treaty offered by Australia and France?
570df5ec0dc6ce1900204d77
Madrid Protocol
886
False
the Antarctic Treaty Parties began negotiations on a convention to regulate mining in Antarctica
9
What began in 1938?
5ad2cc46d7d075001a42a2a2
True
Convention on the Regulation of Antarctic Mineral Resources
467
What does CARMAR stand for?
5ad2cc46d7d075001a42a2a3
True
1988
457
What year was the CARMAR adopted?
5ad2cc46d7d075001a42a2a4
True
Australia and France
578
Who announced they would not ratify the CARMAR?
5ad2cc46d7d075001a42a2a5
True
Antarctic Treaty
863
What was entered into force on 14 January 1983?
5ad2cc46d7d075001a42a2a6
True
In 1983, the Antarctic Treaty Parties began negotiations on a convention to regulate mining in Antarctica. A coalition of international organizations launched a public pressure campaign to prevent any minerals development in the region, led largely by Greenpeace International, which established its own scientific station—World Park Base—in the Ross Sea region and conducted annual expeditions to document environmental effects of humans on Antarctica. In 1988, the Convention on the Regulation of Antarctic Mineral Resources (CRAMRA) was adopted. The following year, however, Australia and France announced that they would not ratify the convention, rendering it dead for all intents and purposes. They proposed instead that a comprehensive regime to protect the Antarctic environment be negotiated in its place. The Protocol on Environmental Protection to the Antarctic Treaty (the "Madrid Protocol") was negotiated as other countries followed suit and on 14 January 1998 it entered into force. The Madrid Protocol bans all mining in Antarctica, designating Antarctica a "natural reserve devoted to peace and science".
What did most of Gondwana become when the polar ice melted?
570df7950b85d914000d7c2d
desert
90
False
What plants were abundant during this time?
570df7950b85d914000d7c2e
pteridosperms
135
False
What type of reptiles were common during the early Triassic?
570df7950b85d914000d7c2f
Synapsids
235
False
When did the Antarctic peninsula form?
570df7950b85d914000d7c30
Jurassic period
430
False
During what period did Gondwana begin to break apart?
570df7950b85d914000d7c31
Cretaceous
674
False
continued warming
15
What caused polar ice caps to form on Gondwana?
5ad252ddd7d075001a428d04
True
seed ferns
121
What type of plamdt became abundent on Gondwana?
5ad252ddd7d075001a428d05
True
Synapsids
235
What type of animal was coomon during the Late Triassic?
5ad252ddd7d075001a428d06
True
The Antarctic Peninsula
381
What penninsula formed during the Triassic period?
5ad252ddd7d075001a428d07
True
a desert
88
Why did Eastern Antarctica become?
5ad2b384d7d075001a429f9a
True
sandstone and shale
186
What type of rock was laid down in Eastern Gondwana?
5ad2b384d7d075001a429f9b
True
The Antarctic Peninsula
381
What began to form during the years 204-166 Ma?
5ad2b384d7d075001a429f9c
True
Ginkgo trees, conifers, bennettites, horsetails, ferns and cycads
505
What types of trees and plants appeared during the Triassic period?
5ad2b384d7d075001a429f9d
True
Cretaceous period
674
What period is marked by the years 166-46 Ma?
5ad2b384d7d075001a429f9e
True
As a result of continued warming, the polar ice caps melted and much of Gondwana became a desert. In Eastern Antarctica, seed ferns or pteridosperms became abundant and large amounts of sandstone and shale were laid down at this time. Synapsids, commonly known as "mammal-like reptiles", were common in Antarctica during the Early Triassic and included forms such as Lystrosaurus. The Antarctic Peninsula began to form during the Jurassic period (206–146 Ma), and islands gradually rose out of the ocean. Ginkgo trees, conifers, bennettites, horsetails, ferns and cycads were plentiful during this period. In West Antarctica, coniferous forests dominated through the entire Cretaceous period (146–66 Ma), though southern beech became more prominent towards the end of this period. Ammonites were common in the seas around Antarctica, and dinosaurs were also present, though only three Antarctic dinosaur genera (Cryolophosaurus and Glacialisaurus, from the Hanson Formation, and Antarctopelta) have been described to date. It was during this era that Gondwana began to break up.
What astronomical study is important research for Antarctica?
570dfbd20b85d914000d7c57
Meteorites
0
False
What is the supposed source of most Antarctica meteorites?
570dfbd20b85d914000d7c58
asteroids
134
False
When was the first meteorite found in Antarctica?
570dfbd20b85d914000d7c59
1912
226
False
What expedition found nine meteorites in 1969?
570dfbd20b85d914000d7c5a
Japanese
280
False
What is it about Antarctic meteorites that is different form meteorites found in other places?
570dfbd20b85d914000d7c5b
well-preserved.
711
False
The first meteorite
193
What was first found in 1921?
5ad2d663d7d075001a42a418
True
Adelie Land meteorite
246
What was the name of the 1921 meteorite?
5ad2d663d7d075001a42a419
True
a Japanese expedition discovered nine meteorites
278
What happened in 1996?
5ad2d663d7d075001a42a41a
True
nine
311
How many meteorites did the 1996 Japanese expedition find?
5ad2d663d7d075001a42a41b
True
Meteorites from Antarctica are an important area of study of material formed early in the solar system; most are thought to come from asteroids, but some may have originated on larger planets. The first meteorite was found in 1912, and named the Adelie Land meteorite. In 1969, a Japanese expedition discovered nine meteorites. Most of these meteorites have fallen onto the ice sheet in the last million years. Motion of the ice sheet tends to concentrate the meteorites at blocking locations such as mountain ranges, with wind erosion bringing them to the surface after centuries beneath accumulated snowfall. Compared with meteorites collected in more temperate regions on Earth, the Antarctic meteorites are well-preserved.
What location means that Antarctica get little solar radiation?
570dfd080b85d914000d7c69
South Pole
27
False
In what condition is most water in the Antarctica?
570dfd080b85d914000d7c6a
ice
175
False
What is the usual condition of precipitation in the Antarctic?
570dfd080b85d914000d7c6b
snow
267
False
What does the massed snow in Antarctica produce?
570dfd080b85d914000d7c6c
giant ice sheet
303
False
What are ice streams otherwise called?
570dfd080b85d914000d7c6d
glaciers
378
False
Due to its location at the South Pole
0
Why does Antarctica receive solar radiation?
5ad2d83cd7d075001a42a444
True
Antarctica
210
What continent is a complete desert?
5ad2d83cd7d075001a42a445
True
ice shelves.
495
What is next to the continental shelves?
5ad2d83cd7d075001a42a446
True
low
624
What are temperatures like offshore to effect global cooling?
5ad2d83cd7d075001a42a447
True
Due to its location at the South Pole, Antarctica receives relatively little solar radiation. This means that it is a very cold continent where water is mostly in the form of ice. Precipitation is low (most of Antarctica is a desert) and almost always in the form of snow, which accumulates and forms a giant ice sheet which covers the land. Parts of this ice sheet form moving glaciers known as ice streams, which flow towards the edges of the continent. Next to the continental shore are many ice shelves. These are floating extensions of outflowing glaciers from the continental ice mass. Offshore, temperatures are also low enough that ice is formed from seawater through most of the year. It is important to understand the various types of Antarctic ice to understand possible effects on sea levels and the implications of global cooling.
Where did the first semi-permanent residents of the Antarctic area live?
570dffe80dc6ce1900204d83
South Georgia
186
False
What was the profession of the residents of South Georgia?
570dffe80dc6ce1900204d84
sealers
142
False
In what year did the sealers start staying on South Georgia?
570dffe80dc6ce1900204d85
1786
206
False
What was the nationality of most whalers?
570dffe80dc6ce1900204d86
Norwegian
414
False
When did explorer Carl Anton Larsen become a British citizen?
570dffe80dc6ce1900204d87
1910
874
False
British and American sealers
121
Who were the first permenat residents of regions near Antarctica?
5ad25ed0d7d075001a428f42
True
1786
206
When was the first perminant settlment established on South Georgia?
5ad25ed0d7d075001a428f43
True
Norwegian
414
Who settled South Georgia in 1966?
5ad25ed0d7d075001a428f44
True
Grytviken, Leith Harbour, King Edward Point, Stromness, Husvik, Prince Olav Harbour, Ocean Harbour and Godthul
492
What settlements were established on Antarctica?
5ad25ed0d7d075001a428f45
True
Captain Carl Anton Larsen
746
What British citizens established Grtviken on Antarctica?
5ad25ed0d7d075001a428f46
True
British and American sealers
121
Who were the first permanent inhabitants of Antarctica?
5ad2c147d7d075001a42a104
True
whaling era
230
What lasted until 1696?
5ad2c147d7d075001a42a105
True
Grytviken, Leith Harbour, King Edward Point, Stromness, Husvik, Prince Olav Harbour, Ocean Harbour and Godthul
492
What were the Norwegian settlements?
5ad2c147d7d075001a42a106
True
Grytviken
735
What did Captain Anon Carl Larsen found?
5ad2c147d7d075001a42a107
True
Captain Carl Anton Larsen
746
Who adopted British citizenship in 1901?
5ad2c147d7d075001a42a108
True
The first semi-permanent inhabitants of regions near Antarctica (areas situated south of the Antarctic Convergence) were British and American sealers who used to spend a year or more on South Georgia, from 1786 onward. During the whaling era, which lasted until 1966, the population of that island varied from over 1,000 in the summer (over 2,000 in some years) to some 200 in the winter. Most of the whalers were Norwegian, with an increasing proportion of Britons. The settlements included Grytviken, Leith Harbour, King Edward Point, Stromness, Husvik, Prince Olav Harbour, Ocean Harbour and Godthul. Managers and other senior officers of the whaling stations often lived together with their families. Among them was the founder of Grytviken, Captain Carl Anton Larsen, a prominent Norwegian whaler and explorer who, along with his family, adopted British citizenship in 1910.
Where in Antarctica has warming been noticed?
570e06f60dc6ce1900204d8d
Antarctic Peninsula
90
False
How much has west Antarctica warmed per decade in the last 5o years?
570e06f60dc6ce1900204d8e
0.1 °C
388
False
What do some researchers believe to be that cause of this warming?
570e06f60dc6ce1900204d8f
carbon dioxide emissions
630
False
What is thought to be the cause of glacier outflow?
570e06f60dc6ce1900204d90
inflow of warm water
963
False
What is the thinking of the cause  of the Antarctic Peninsula sea level.
570e06f60dc6ce1900204d91
atmospheric warming
1157
False
Eric Steig
122
Who published a 2007 study?
5ad2da79d7d075001a42a4b0
True
the continent-wide average surface temperature trend of Antarctica is slightly positive at >0.05 °C
181
What has been the temperature trend of Antarctica per decade from 1959 to 2006?
5ad2da79d7d075001a42a4b1
True
has warmed by more than 0.1 °C (0.2 °F) per decade in the last 50 years
364
What did the study note about the temperatures in East Antarctica?
5ad2da79d7d075001a42a4b2
True
autumn cooling
514
What has the warming in East Antarctica been offset by in West Antarctica?
5ad2da79d7d075001a42a4b3
True
Some of Antarctica has been warming up; particularly strong warming has been noted on the Antarctic Peninsula. A study by Eric Steig published in 2009 noted for the first time that the continent-wide average surface temperature trend of Antarctica is slightly positive at >0.05 °C (0.09 °F) per decade from 1957 to 2006. This study also noted that West Antarctica has warmed by more than 0.1 °C (0.2 °F) per decade in the last 50 years, and this warming is strongest in winter and spring. This is partly offset by autumn cooling in East Antarctica. There is evidence from one study that Antarctica is warming as a result of human carbon dioxide emissions, but this remains ambiguous. The amount of surface warming in West Antarctica, while large, has not led to appreciable melting at the surface, and is not directly affecting the West Antarctic Ice Sheet's contribution to sea level. Instead the recent increases in glacier outflow are believed to be due to an inflow of warm water from the deep ocean, just off the continental shelf. The net contribution to sea level from the Antarctic Peninsula is more likely to be a direct result of the much greater atmospheric warming there.
What animal was greatly hunted during the 18th and 19th centuries?
570e08690dc6ce1900204d97
Antarctic fur seal
4
False
For whom is the Weddell seal named ?
570e08690dc6ce1900204d98
Sir James Weddell
197
False
What did  Sir James Weddell command?
570e08690dc6ce1900204d99
British sealing expeditions
229
False
What is a very important species in the Southern Ocean?
570e08690dc6ce1900204d9a
Antarctic krill
277
False
Why is the krill so important to the Antarctic area?
570e08690dc6ce1900204d9b
important food
403
False
fur seal
14
What animal was heavily hunted in the 18 and 1900's?
5ad2623cd7d075001a429088
True
The Weddell seal
149
What seal is named after the commander of American sealing expoditions?
5ad2623cd7d075001a429089
True
Sir James Weddell
197
What whaler had a seal named after him?
5ad2623cd7d075001a42908a
True
Antarctic krill
277
What is the keystone species of the Arctic Ocean?
5ad2623cd7d075001a42908b
True
albatrosses
498
What bird do leapard seals feed on?
5ad2623cd7d075001a42908c
True
Antarctic fur seal
4
What was hunted during 1819?
5ad2c367d7d075001a42a132
True
United States and the United Kingdom
111
What countries did the 1819 sealers come from?
5ad2c367d7d075001a42a133
True
Weddell seal
153
What is named after James Sir Weddell?
5ad2c367d7d075001a42a134
True
British sealing expeditions in the Weddell Sea
229
What was James Sir Weddell commander of?
5ad2c367d7d075001a42a135
True
The Antarctic fur seal was very heavily hunted in the 18th and 19th centuries for its pelt by sealers from the United States and the United Kingdom. The Weddell seal, a "true seal", is named after Sir James Weddell, commander of British sealing expeditions in the Weddell Sea. Antarctic krill, which congregate in large schools, is the keystone species of the ecosystem of the Southern Ocean, and is an important food organism for whales, seals, leopard seals, fur seals, squid, icefish, penguins, albatrosses and many other birds.
When did the Environmental Protocol become effective?
570e0a430b85d914000d7c87
1998
146
False
What is the main concern of the Protocol?
570e0a430b85d914000d7c88
conservation
194
False
What is seen as a major risk to Antarctica?
570e0a430b85d914000d7c89
non-native species
507
False
What group advises the Antarctic Treaty Consultative Meeting?
570e0a430b85d914000d7c8a
Committee for Environmental Protection
368
False
Besides conservation, what is the Environmental Protocol's goal to manage?
570e0a430b85d914000d7c8b
biodiversity
225
False
the Environmental Protocol or Madrid Protocol
80
What is the Environomental Protection Protocol to the Treaty Antarctic also known as?
5ad2c9ead7d075001a42a24c
True
Madrid Protocol
110
What came into force in 1988?
5ad2c9ead7d075001a42a24d
True
the main instrument concerned with conservation and management of biodiversity in Antarctica
159
What is the Environmental Protection Protocol to the Treaty Antarctic?
5ad2c9ead7d075001a42a24e
True
outside the region.
531
Where is the main concern about native species from?
5ad2c9ead7d075001a42a24f
True
The Protocol on Environmental Protection to the Antarctic Treaty (also known as the Environmental Protocol or Madrid Protocol) came into force in 1998, and is the main instrument concerned with conservation and management of biodiversity in Antarctica. The Antarctic Treaty Consultative Meeting is advised on environmental and conservation issues in Antarctica by the Committee for Environmental Protection. A major concern within this committee is the risk to Antarctica from unintentional introduction of non-native species from outside the region.
What does the Protocol on Environmental Protection seek to regulate?
570e0bb30b85d914000d7c91
resources
274
False
In what year was an agreement reached to ban mining in Antarctica?
570e0bb30b85d914000d7c92
1998
288
False
When will the mining ban be reviewed?
570e0bb30b85d914000d7c93
2048
385
False
What is the major economic activity near Antarctica?
570e0bb30b85d914000d7c94
trading of fish
505
False
How many tonnes of fish were reported caught in 2000-01?
570e0bb30b85d914000d7c95
112,934 tonnes
570
False
coal, hydrocarbons, iron ore, platinum, copper, chromium, nickel, gold and other minerals
9
What minerals have been found in quantities large enough to exploit?
5ad2ce11d7d075001a42a2d8
True
a struggle for resources
259
What does the 1919 Protocol on Environmental Protection to the Antarctic Treaty restrict?
5ad2ce11d7d075001a42a2d9
True
a compromise agreement was reached to place an indefinite ban on mining, to be reviewed in 2048, further limiting economic development and exploitation
294
What was reached in 1989?
5ad2ce11d7d075001a42a2da
True
112,934
570
How many tonnes did Antarctic fisheries report in 2000?
5ad2ce11d7d075001a42a2db
True
Although coal, hydrocarbons, iron ore, platinum, copper, chromium, nickel, gold and other minerals have been found, they have not been in large enough quantities to exploit. The 1991 Protocol on Environmental Protection to the Antarctic Treaty also restricts a struggle for resources. In 1998, a compromise agreement was reached to place an indefinite ban on mining, to be reviewed in 2048, further limiting economic development and exploitation. The primary economic activity is the capture and offshore trading of fish. Antarctic fisheries in 2000–01 reported landing 112,934 tonnes.
How do the meteorites found in Antarctica add to knowledge about the solar system?
570e0da70dc6ce1900204da1
better understanding
45
False
Beside rare types of meteorites, what other types of meteorites have been found in Antarctica?
570e0da70dc6ce1900204da2
New types
173
False
From where in the solar system could the meteorites have come?
570e0da70dc6ce1900204da3
Moon
273
False
About what nearby planet could the Antarctic meteorites hold data?
570e0da70dc6ce1900204da4
Mars
453
False
What do meteorites absorb that can be used to understand how old the meteorite is?
570e0da70dc6ce1900204da5
cosmic radiation
505
False
meteorites
186
What is AHL84010?
5ad2d7a2d7d075001a42a42e
True
ANSMET
363
Who discovered the AHL84010 meteorite?
5ad2d7a2d7d075001a42a42f
True
possible evidence of microbial life on Mars.
414
What controversy surrounds the AHL84010?
5ad2d7a2d7d075001a42a430
True
This large collection of meteorites allows a better understanding of the abundance of meteorite types in the solar system and how meteorites relate to asteroids and comets. New types of meteorites and rare meteorites have been found. Among these are pieces blasted off the Moon, and probably Mars, by impacts. These specimens, particularly ALH84001 discovered by ANSMET, are at the center of the controversy about possible evidence of microbial life on Mars. Because meteorites in space absorb and record cosmic radiation, the time elapsed since the meteorite hit the Earth can be determined from laboratory studies. The elapsed time since fall, or terrestrial residence age, of a meteorite represents more information that might be useful in environmental studies of Antarctic ice sheets.
When did the Larsen-B ice shelf collapse?
570e0f250dc6ce1900204dab
2002
3
False
What Antarctic ice shelf collapsed in 2008?
570e0f250dc6ce1900204dac
Wilkins Ice Shelf
144
False
When did the most widespread melting of ice occur?
570e0f250dc6ce1900204dad
2005
495
False
How large was the ice chunk that melted and refroze?
570e0f250dc6ce1900204dae
California
543
False
How high could the temperatures have risen to cause the melting?
570e0f250dc6ce1900204daf
5 °C
644
False
collapsed
53
What happened to the B-larsen ice shelf in 2002?
5ad2db41d7d075001a42a4e6
True
Between 28 February and 8 March 2008
64
When did 570 sq mi of ice from the Wilkins Ice Shelf collapse?
5ad2db41d7d075001a42a4e7
True
Wilkins Ice Shelf
144
Where did 15,000 sq mi of ice remain?
5ad2db41d7d075001a42a4e8
True
ice from the Wilkins Ice Shelf
131
What remaining ice collapsed on 9 April 2005?
5ad2db41d7d075001a42a4e9
True
In 2002 the Antarctic Peninsula's Larsen-B ice shelf collapsed. Between 28 February and 8 March 2008, about 570 km2 (220 sq mi) of ice from the Wilkins Ice Shelf on the southwest part of the peninsula collapsed, putting the remaining 15,000 km2 (5,800 sq mi) of the ice shelf at risk. The ice was being held back by a "thread" of ice about 6 km (4 mi) wide, prior to its collapse on 5 April 2009. According to NASA, the most widespread Antarctic surface melting of the past 30 years occurred in 2005, when an area of ice comparable in size to California briefly melted and refroze; this may have resulted from temperatures rising to as high as 5 °C (41 °F).
When was the first time humans visited Antarctica?
570e10d20b85d914000d7c9b
19th century
102
False
What was Antarctica presumed to be by the ancient thinkers?
570e10d20b85d914000d7c9c
balance
221
False
What did Ptolemy suggest that a southern land mass would do to preserve?
570e10d20b85d914000d7c9d
symmetry
378
False
Of what did early explores think Australia and South America were part?
570e10d20b85d914000d7c9e
Antarctica
544
False
Early geographers thought that Antarctica was what in size?
570e10d20b85d914000d7c9f
larger
606
False
19th century
102
When was Antarctica last seen by humans?
5ad23535d7d075001a4287e0
True
Terra Australis
154
What is the vast continent in the far north?
5ad23535d7d075001a4287e1
True
Ptolemy
313
Who suggested the idea of Terrs Australis in the 1st cuntury B.C.?
5ad23535d7d075001a4287e2
True
that South America and Australia were not part of the fabled "Antarctica",
482
What was discovered in the 1700's?
5ad23535d7d075001a4287e3
True
geographers
557
Who believed thet Antarctica was smaller then its actual size?
5ad23535d7d075001a4287e4
True
Antarctica
0
What continent has an indigenous population that arrived in the 19th century?
5ad2a781d7d075001a429e0c
True
a vast continent in the far south of the globe to "balance" the northern lands of Europe, Asia and North Africa
170
What is Australis Terra?
5ad2a781d7d075001a429e0d
True
Ptolemy
313
Who suggested Australis Terra?
5ad2a781d7d075001a429e0e
True
Antarctica has no indigenous population and there is no evidence that it was seen by humans until the 19th century. However, belief in the existence of a Terra Australis—a vast continent in the far south of the globe to "balance" the northern lands of Europe, Asia and North Africa—had existed since the times of Ptolemy (1st century AD), who suggested the idea to preserve the symmetry of all known landmasses in the world. Even in the late 17th century, after explorers had found that South America and Australia were not part of the fabled "Antarctica", geographers believed that the continent was much larger than its actual size.
How much of Antarctica is covered by ice?
570e11f30dc6ce1900204db5
98%
6
False
How thick is the ice that covers Antarctica?
570e11f30dc6ce1900204db6
1.6 km
97
False
How much of Earth's ice is in Antarctica?
570e11f30dc6ce1900204db7
90%
144
False
How much of the Earth's fresh water is held in Antarctica?
570e11f30dc6ce1900204db8
70%
186
False
What is the amount of precipitation per year in the interior of Antarctica?
570e11f30dc6ce1900204db9
20 mm
371
False
the Antarctic ice sheet
38
What ice sheet covers all of Antarctica?
5ad242ecd7d075001a4289ae
True
Antarctic ice sheet
42
What ice sheet averages at least1 kilometer thick?
5ad242ecd7d075001a4289af
True
Antarctic
42
What continent has 90% of the worlds fresh water?
5ad242ecd7d075001a4289b0
True
Antarctic
42
What continent has 70% of the worlds ice?
5ad242ecd7d075001a4289b1
True
the interior
305
Where on Antarctica is the ppercipitation as low as .8 mm?
5ad242ecd7d075001a4289b2
True
Antarctic ice sheet
42
What is, on average, 1.6 mi thick?
5ad2ae2ed7d075001a429eea
True
Antarctic ice sheet
42
What is 90% of Antarctica covered by?
5ad2ae2ed7d075001a429eeb
True
world's ice
155
What does Antarctica have 98% of for the world?
5ad2ae2ed7d075001a429eec
True
70%
186
How much of Antarctica is fresh water?
5ad2ae2ed7d075001a429eed
True
If all of this ice were melted
219
How would the sea levels rise 200 m?
5ad2ae2ed7d075001a429eee
True
About 98% of Antarctica is covered by the Antarctic ice sheet, a sheet of ice averaging at least 1.6 km (1.0 mi) thick. The continent has about 90% of the world's ice (and thereby about 70% of the world's fresh water). If all of this ice were melted, sea levels would rise about 60 m (200 ft). In most of the interior of the continent, precipitation is very low, down to 20 mm (0.8 in) per year; in a few "blue ice" areas precipitation is lower than mass loss by sublimation and so the local mass balance is negative. In the dry valleys, the same effect occurs over a rock base, leading to a desiccated landscape.
What lake is thought to contain microbial life?
570e13df0b85d914000d7ca5
Lake Vostok
110
False
To what does the frozen surface of Lake Vostok resemble?
570e13df0b85d914000d7ca6
Europa
231
False
With what is Europa associated??
570e13df0b85d914000d7ca7
Jupiter's moon
215
False
When did NASA go on an expedition to Lake Untersee?
570e13df0b85d914000d7ca8
7 February 2008
352
False
For what was NASA searching?
570e13df0b85d914000d7ca9
extremophiles
435
False
Lake Vostok's
110
What lake on Europe may conatin microbial life?
5ad24b36d7d075001a428bda
True
Jupiter
215
What planet might contain life?
5ad24b36d7d075001a428bdb
True
Lake Vostok
110
What lake has a frozen surface similar to Jupiter?
5ad24b36d7d075001a428bdc
True
NASA team
371
Who emberked on a mission to Lake Vostok in 2008?
5ad24b36d7d075001a428bdd
True
extremophiles
435
What was NASA searching for in Lake Vostok?
5ad24b36d7d075001a428bde
True
ice cores
39
What was drilled to about 400 ft?
5ad2af74d7d075001a429f08
True
microbial life
143
What might Vostok's Lake contain?
5ad2af74d7d075001a429f09
True
Jupiter's moon, Europa
215
What do the waters in the lake share similarities with?
5ad2af74d7d075001a429f0a
True
Lake Untersee
406
Where did a NASA team go on 8 February 2007?
5ad2af74d7d075001a429f0b
True
There is some evidence, in the form of ice cores drilled to about 400 m (1,300 ft) above the water line, that Lake Vostok's waters may contain microbial life. The frozen surface of the lake shares similarities with Jupiter's moon, Europa. If life is discovered in Lake Vostok, it would strengthen the argument for the possibility of life on Europa. On 7 February 2008, a NASA team embarked on a mission to Lake Untersee, searching for extremophiles in its highly alkaline waters. If found, these resilient creatures could further bolster the argument for extraterrestrial life in extremely cold, methane-rich environments.
In what period did Africa beak off from Antarctica?
570e152a0b85d914000d7caf
Jurassic
40
False
When was Antarctica still joined to Australia?
570e152a0b85d914000d7cb0
end of the Cretaceous
148
False
What type of climate did Antarctica have in the Cretaceous period?
570e152a0b85d914000d7cb1
subtropical
237
False
When did Australia separate from Antarctica?
570e152a0b85d914000d7cb2
Eocene epoch
308
False
After the division from Australia, what began to appear?
570e152a0b85d914000d7cb3
ice
466
False
Africa
0
What seperated from Antarctica in the Cretaceous?
5ad255b3d7d075001a428d50
True
Australia
214
What did Antactica connect to in the Jurassic?
5ad255b3d7d075001a428d51
True
Cretaceous
159
When did Antarctica have a tropical cimate?
5ad255b3d7d075001a428d52
True
latitudinal currents
390
What currents began isolating Australia in 66 Ma
5ad255b3d7d075001a428d53
True
Africa separated from Antarctica
0
What happened around 106 Ma?
5ad2b4f1d7d075001a429fd8
True
In the Eocene epoch
301
When did New-Australia Guinea separate from Antarctica?
5ad2b4f1d7d075001a429fd9
True
Eocene–Oligocene extinction event
498
What took place about 43 million years ago?
5ad2b4f1d7d075001a429fda
True
CO2 levels
560
What was found to be 670ppm about 34 million years ago?
5ad2b4f1d7d075001a429fdb
True
Africa separated from Antarctica in the Jurassic, around 160 Ma, followed by the Indian subcontinent in the early Cretaceous (about 125 Ma). By the end of the Cretaceous, about 66 Ma, Antarctica (then connected to Australia) still had a subtropical climate and flora, complete with a marsupial fauna. In the Eocene epoch, about 40 Ma Australia-New Guinea separated from Antarctica, so that latitudinal currents could isolate Antarctica from Australia, and the first ice began to appear. During the Eocene–Oligocene extinction event about 34 million years ago, CO2 levels have been found to be about 760 ppm and had been decreasing from earlier levels in the thousands of ppm.
Which of the the poles is colder?
570e16ea0b85d914000d7cb9
Antarctica
0
False
How high is the continent of Antarctica above sea level?
570e16ea0b85d914000d7cba
3,000 m
98
False
How does the Arctic Ocean warm the Arctic?
570e16ea0b85d914000d7cbb
warmth is transferred
270
False
What contributes to the Antarctic cold?
570e16ea0b85d914000d7cbc
orbital distance
649
False
What does temperature do with elevation?
570e16ea0b85d914000d7cbd
decreases
150
False
the Arctic Ocean covers the north polar zone
203
What is one reason the Actric colder than Antarctica?
5ad25bbed7d075001a428e82
True
3,000 m (9,800 ft)
98
How far above sea level is the Arctic?
5ad25bbed7d075001a428e83
True
temperature
138
What increases with elevation in the tropasphere?
5ad25bbed7d075001a428e84
True
the ocean's relative warmth is transferred through the icepack
249
How does the Arctic Ocean warm Antarctica?
5ad25bbed7d075001a428e85
True
three
41
How many reasons are given for the Arctic being colder than Antarctica?
5ad2bbf1d7d075001a42a094
True
Antarctica
0
What continent is 3,000 ft above sea level?
5ad2bbf1d7d075001a42a095
True
a colder Antarctic winter
681
What does the distance orbital contribute to?
5ad2bbf1d7d075001a42a096
True
Antarctica
0
What continent is 9,800 m above sea level?
5ad2bbf1d7d075001a42a097
True
Antarctica is colder than the Arctic for three reasons. First, much of the continent is more than 3,000 m (9,800 ft) above sea level, and temperature decreases with elevation in the troposphere. Second, the Arctic Ocean covers the north polar zone: the ocean's relative warmth is transferred through the icepack and prevents temperatures in the Arctic regions from reaching the extremes typical of the land surface of Antarctica. Third, the Earth is at aphelion in July (i.e., the Earth is farthest from the Sun in the Antarctic winter), and the Earth is at perihelion in January (i.e., the Earth is closest to the Sun in the Antarctic summer). The orbital distance contributes to a colder Antarctic winter (and a warmer Antarctic summer) but the first two effects have more impact.
Who was the first person born south of the 60th parallel?
570e18430b85d914000d7cc3
Emilio Marcos Palma
0
False
Where is the continental limit of Antarctica?
570e18430b85d914000d7cc4
60th parallel south
59
False
When was Palma born?
570e18430b85d914000d7cc5
1978
198
False
What was the Palma family sent to Antarctica to determine?
570e18430b85d914000d7cc6
suitable for family life
383
False
Antarctica
651
What continental limit is set below the 60th parallel?
5ad25febd7d075001a428fa8
True
Emilio Marcos Palma
0
Who was born in 20009
5ad25febd7d075001a428fa9
True
Frei Montalva Station
453
Where was Juan Pablo Camacho born in 1978?
5ad25febd7d075001a428faa
True
born south of the 60th parallel south
41
What was Marcos Emilio Palma the first to do?
5ad2c209d7d075001a42a10e
True
Antarctic
175
What mainland was Marcos Emilio Palma the first to be born on?
5ad2c209d7d075001a42a10f
True
Emilio Marcos Palma
0
Who was born in 1987?
5ad2c209d7d075001a42a110
True
Juan Pablo Camacho
418
Who was born in 1948 at the Frei Monalva Station?
5ad2c209d7d075001a42a111
True
eleven
622
How many children were born in Antarctica as of 2011?
5ad2c209d7d075001a42a112
True
Emilio Marcos Palma was the first person born south of the 60th parallel south (the continental limit according to the Antarctic Treaty), as well as the first one born on the Antarctic mainland, in 1978 at Base Esperanza, on the tip of the Antarctic Peninsula; his parents were sent there along with seven other families by the Argentine government to determine if the continent was suitable for family life. In 1984, Juan Pablo Camacho was born at the Frei Montalva Station, becoming the first Chilean born in Antarctica. Several bases are now home to families with children attending schools at the station. As of 2009, eleven children were born in Antarctica (south of the 60th parallel south): eight at the Argentine Esperanza Base and three at the Chilean Frei Montalva Station.
How many species of fungi have been found on Antarctica?
570e1a2a0dc6ce1900204dbf
1150
6
False
How many of the extant fungi in Antarctica are lichen-forming?
570e1a2a0dc6ce1900204dc0
400
110
False
What type of fungi help shape rock formations in Antarctica?
570e1a2a0dc6ce1900204dc1
cryptoendoliths
160
False
What has the study of fungi in Antarctica shown about these organisms?
570e1a2a0dc6ce1900204dc2
adaptations
818
False
How is it postulated that Mars life might have evolved?
570e1a2a0dc6ce1900204dc3
similar to Antarctic
960
False
1150 species
6
How many species of fungi are there at the South Pole?
5ad26518d7d075001a429198
True
Antarctica
52
Where are there 400 non-lichen forming fungi?
5ad26518d7d075001a429199
True
Antarctica
52
Where are there 750 lichen-forming fungi?
5ad26518d7d075001a42919a
True
cryptoendoliths
160
What type of fungi help break down rock in Antarctica?
5ad26518d7d075001a42919b
True
Antarctica
52
Where were 750 lichen-forming fungi found?
5ad2c4c7d7d075001a42a178
True
Antarctica
52
Where were 400 non-lichen-forming fungi found?
5ad2c4c7d7d075001a42a179
True
cryptoendoliths
160
What has significantly contributed to shaping the Dry McMurdo Valleys?
5ad2c4c7d7d075001a42a17a
True
harsh
580
What type of environment is the Dr McMurdo Valleys?
5ad2c4c7d7d075001a42a17b
True
About 1150 species of fungi have been recorded from Antarctica, of which about 750 are non-lichen-forming and 400 are lichen-forming. Some of these species are cryptoendoliths as a result of evolution under extreme conditions, and have significantly contributed to shaping the impressive rock formations of the McMurdo Dry Valleys and surrounding mountain ridges. The apparently simple morphology, scarcely differentiated structures, metabolic systems and enzymes still active at very low temperatures, and reduced life cycles shown by such fungi make them particularly suited to harsh environments such as the McMurdo Dry Valleys. In particular, their thick-walled and strongly melanized cells make them resistant to UV light. Those features can also be observed in algae and cyanobacteria, suggesting that these are adaptations to the conditions prevailing in Antarctica. This has led to speculation that, if life ever occurred on Mars, it might have looked similar to Antarctic fungi such as Cryomyces minteri. Some of these fungi are also apparently endemic to Antarctica. Endemic Antarctic fungi also include certain dung-inhabiting species which have had to evolve in response to the double challenge of extreme cold while growing on dung, and the need to survive passage through the gut of warm-blooded animals.
What did the British claim in 2012?
570e1bd10b85d914000d7ccd
Queen Elizabeth Land
178
False
To what was the claim of land in tribute?
570e1bd10b85d914000d7cce
Elizabeth II's Diamond Jubilee
219
False
What was the response of the Argentine response to the British land claim?
570e1bd10b85d914000d7ccf
protest
362
False
Of what war was 2012 the anniversary?
570e1bd10b85d914000d7cd0
Falklands War
557
False
When did the British claim Queen Elizabeth Land in Antarctica?
570e1bd10b85d914000d7cd1
18 December 2012
84
False
the British Foreign and Commonwealth Office named a previously unnamed area Queen Elizabeth Land in tribute to Queen Elizabeth II's Diamond Jubilee
102
What happened on 12 December 2018?
5ad2cd08d7d075001a42a2b4
True
the UK ambassador to Argentina, John Freeman, was summoned to the Argentine government as protest against the claim
272
What happened on 12 December 2012?
5ad2cd08d7d075001a42a2b5
True
Falkland Islands
507
What islands were fought over in the 30th Falklands War?
5ad2cd08d7d075001a42a2b6
True
The Argentine, British and Chilean claims all overlap, and have caused friction. On 18 December 2012, the British Foreign and Commonwealth Office named a previously unnamed area Queen Elizabeth Land in tribute to Queen Elizabeth II's Diamond Jubilee. On 22 December 2012, the UK ambassador to Argentina, John Freeman, was summoned to the Argentine government as protest against the claim. Argentine–UK relations had previously been damaged throughout 2012 due to disputes over the sovereignty of the nearby Falkland Islands, and the 30th anniversary of the Falklands War.
The entry of whom has caused some worry about the welfare of Antarctica?
570e1d420b85d914000d7cd7
visitors
115
False
What do environmentalists want enacted?
570e1d420b85d914000d7cd8
stricter regulations
184
False
What kind of tourist limit has been asked for by environmentalists?
570e1d420b85d914000d7cd9
tourism quota
221
False
What have the authorities produced in response to these requests?
570e1d420b85d914000d7cda
site use guidelines
391
False
When did an Air New Zealand crash on Mount Erebus?
570e1d420b85d914000d7cdb
1979
652
False
Air New Zealand Flight 901
622
What flight crashed in 1997?
5ad2cf2cd7d075001a42a2fe
True
257
691
How many people died in the 1997 Flight 901 crash?
5ad2cf2cd7d075001a42a2ff
True
Qantas
703
Who resumed commercial overflights to Antarctica to Australia in 1990?
5ad2cf2cd7d075001a42a300
True
Australia and New Zealand
571
Where did sightseeing flights that did land operate out of?
5ad2cf2cd7d075001a42a301
True
There has been some concern over the potential adverse environmental and ecosystem effects caused by the influx of visitors. Some environmentalists and scientists have made a call for stricter regulations for ships and a tourism quota. The primary response by Antarctic Treaty Parties has been to develop, through their Committee for Environmental Protection and in partnership with IAATO, "site use guidelines" setting landing limits and closed or restricted zones on the more frequently visited sites. Antarctic sightseeing flights (which did not land) operated out of Australia and New Zealand until the fatal crash of Air New Zealand Flight 901 in 1979 on Mount Erebus, which killed all 257 aboard. Qantas resumed commercial overflights to Antarctica from Australia in the mid-1990s.
What group of scientists study tectonics?
570e1f340dc6ce1900204dc9
Geologists
120
False
Which science is concerned with the study of the dynamics of ice?
570e1f340dc6ce1900204dca
Glaciologists
254
False
Who is interested in the effects of harsh environment on humans?
570e1f340dc6ce1900204dcb
Biologists
397
False
What kind of observations use  the high elevations and thin atmosphere for viewing space?
570e1f340dc6ce1900204dcc
astronomical
851
False
Where is the largest neutrino telescope on Earth?
570e1f340dc6ce1900204dcd
Amundsen–Scott station.
1347
False
celestial dome and cosmic microwave background radiation
788
What do astrophysicists at the Scott-Aumundsen South Pole Station study?
5ad2d28ed7d075001a42a388
True
the largest neutrino telescope in the world
1276
What was built 2 mi below the Amundsen-Scott station?
5ad2d28ed7d075001a42a389
True
because of the high elevation
958
Why are astronomical observations better made from most surface locations?
5ad2d28ed7d075001a42a38a
True
the shield and the detection medium
1236
What does the 2 mile ice serve as for the telescope?
5ad2d28ed7d075001a42a38b
True
Researchers include biologists, geologists, oceanographers, physicists, astronomers, glaciologists, and meteorologists. Geologists tend to study plate tectonics, meteorites from outer space, and resources from the breakup of the supercontinent Gondwana. Glaciologists in Antarctica are concerned with the study of the history and dynamics of floating ice, seasonal snow, glaciers, and ice sheets. Biologists, in addition to examining the wildlife, are interested in how harsh temperatures and the presence of people affect adaptation and survival strategies in a wide variety of organisms. Medical physicians have made discoveries concerning the spreading of viruses and the body's response to extreme seasonal temperatures. Astrophysicists at Amundsen–Scott South Pole Station study the celestial dome and cosmic microwave background radiation. Many astronomical observations are better made from the interior of Antarctica than from most surface locations because of the high elevation, which results in a thin atmosphere; low temperature, which minimizes the amount of water vapour in the atmosphere; and absence of light pollution, thus allowing for a view of space clearer than anywhere else on Earth. Antarctic ice serves as both the shield and the detection medium for the largest neutrino telescope in the world, built 2 km (1.2 mi) below Amundsen–Scott station.
Eritrea
Where in Eritrea did Italian scientists find one of the oldest hominids?
570dabef16d0071400510c8f
Buya
3
False
How old was the hominid that was found in Eritrea?
570dabef16d0071400510c90
over 1 million years
167
False
What place in Eritrea is believed to have played a major part in human evolution?
570dabef16d0071400510c91
section of the Danakil Depression
342
False
What possible link is represented by the hominid found in Eritrea?
570dabef16d0071400510c92
hominids and the earliest anatomically modern humans
264
False
What is the importance pertaining to the age of the hominid that was found in Eritrea?
570dabef16d0071400510c93
it is the oldest skeletal find of its kind
193
False
Homo sapiens
112
What did German scientists find in Eritrea?
5ad0a8a5645df0001a2cffd0
True
1 million years old
172
How old was the newest archaic Homo sapiens skeleton found in Eretria?
5ad0a8a5645df0001a2cffd1
True
Danakil Depression
357
Where in Eritrea is it believed that no traces of evolution to anatomically modern humans will ever be found?
5ad0a8a5645df0001a2cffd2
True
1 million years
172
How far back can anatomically modern human bones be found?
5ad0a8a5645df0001a2cffd3
True
1 million years
172
How far back do scientists think archaic Homo sapiens transitioned to anatomically modern humans?
5ad0a8a5645df0001a2cffd4
True
At Buya in Eritrea, one of the oldest hominids representing a possible link between Homo erectus and an archaic Homo sapiens was found by Italian scientists. Dated to over 1 million years old, it is the oldest skeletal find of its kind and provides a link between hominids and the earliest anatomically modern humans. It is believed that the section of the Danakil Depression in Eritrea was also a major player in terms of human evolution, and may contain other traces of evolution from Homo erectus hominids to anatomically modern humans.
Who was James Bruce?
570dacc916d0071400510ca3
Scottish traveler
4
False
In 1770, who reported that Medri Bahri was a distinct political entity from Abyssinia?
570dacc916d0071400510ca4
James Bruce
22
False
How is The Bahre-Nagassi translated?
570dacc916d0071400510ca5
"Kings of the Sea"
196
False
What determined whether The Bahre-Nagassi fought with or against the Abyssinians?
570dacc916d0071400510ca6
geopolitical circumstances
327
False
Which century marked the arrival of the Ottomans?
570dacc916d0071400510ca7
16th
564
False
Abyssinia
540
Where did the Ottomans come from?
5ad0b2a0645df0001a2d00ac
True
1770
46
When was James Bruce born?
5ad0b2a0645df0001a2d00ad
True
Imam Ahmad ibn Ibrahim al-Ghazi
417
Who was the ruler of Bahre-Nagassi?
5ad0b2a0645df0001a2d00ae
True
1572
553
In what year did Abyssinia collapse?
5ad0b2a0645df0001a2d00af
True
1572
553
In what year did Ahmad ibn Ibrahim al-Ghazi of Adal die?
5ad0b2a0645df0001a2d00b0
True
The Scottish traveler James Bruce reported in 1770 that Medri Bahri was a distinct political entity from Abyssinia, noting that the two territories were frequently in conflict. The Bahre-Nagassi ("Kings of the Sea") alternately fought with or against the Abyssinians and the neighbouring Muslim Adal Sultanate depending on the geopolitical circumstances. Medri Bahri was thus part of the Christian resistance against Imam Ahmad ibn Ibrahim al-Ghazi of Adal's forces, but later joined the Adalite states and the Ottoman Empire front against Abyssinia in 1572. That 16th century also marked the arrival of the Ottomans, who began making inroads in the Red Sea area.
What is the result of the incorporation of independent kingdoms and sultanates?
570dae0816d0071400510cbd
modern-day Eritrea
16
False
When did Eritrea join a federation with Ethiopia, the Federation of Ethipia and Eritrea?
570dae0816d0071400510cbe
1947
232
False
What was the result of the War of Independence?
570dae0816d0071400510cbf
Eritrean independence
417
False
What persisted and led to the Eritrean-Ethiopian War of 1998-2000?
570dae0816d0071400510cc0
Hostilities between Eritrea and Ethiopia
477
False
What subsequently led to the Eritran War of Independence?
570dae0816d0071400510cc1
annexation
339
False
1947
232
In what year was the Sultanate of Aussa founded?
5ad0a651645df0001a2cff8a
True
1993
471
In what year did the Eritrean War of Independence start?
5ad0a651645df0001a2cff8b
True
Eritrea
27
Who won the Eritrean-Ethiopian war of 1998-2000?
5ad0a651645df0001a2cff8c
True
2000
575
In what year did Eritrea first skirmish with Djibouti?
5ad0a651645df0001a2cff8d
True
1947
232
In what year did Italian Eritrea get founded?
5ad0a651645df0001a2cff8e
True
The creation of modern-day Eritrea is a result of the incorporation of independent, distinct kingdoms and sultanates (for example, Medri Bahri and the Sultanate of Aussa) eventually resulting in the formation of Italian Eritrea. In 1947 Eritrea became part of a federation with Ethiopia, the Federation of Ethiopia and Eritrea. Subsequent annexation into Ethiopia led to the Eritrean War of Independence, ending with Eritrean independence following a referendum in April 1993. Hostilities between Eritrea and Ethiopia persisted, leading to the Eritrean–Ethiopian War of 1998–2000 and further skirmishes with both Djibouti and Ethiopia.
What is the Gash Group?
570daf12df2f5219002ed0e2
an ancient pre-Aksumite civilization
74
False
What did excavations around Agordat yield the remains of?
570daf12df2f5219002ed0e3
the Gash Group
120
False
Where is Agordat located?
570daf12df2f5219002ed0e4
central Eritrea
35
False
When did the C-Group inhabit the Nile Valley?
570daf12df2f5219002ed0e5
between 2500–1500 BC
262
False
What type of evidence indicated that the C-Group spoke Afroasiatic languages of the Berber branches?
570daf12df2f5219002ed0e6
linguistic
611
False
Agordat
24
What city is located in northern Eritrea?
5ad0adef645df0001a2d0034
True
1500 BC
275
When can the Berber be dated back to?
5ad0adef645df0001a2d0035
True
Nile Valley
250
Where did the Berber live in ancient times?
5ad0adef645df0001a2d0036
True
Agordat
24
What city lies in southern Eritrea?
5ad0adef645df0001a2d0037
True
Eritrea
43
What country is Peter Behrens from?
5ad0adef645df0001a2d0038
True
Excavations in and near Agordat in central Eritrea yielded the remains of an ancient pre-Aksumite civilization known as the Gash Group. Ceramics were discovered that were related to those of the C-Group (Temehu) pastoral culture, which inhabited the Nile Valley between 2500–1500 BC. Some sources dating back to 3500 BC. Shards akin to those of the Kerma culture, another community that flourished in the Nile Valley around the same period, were also found at other local archaeological sites in the Barka valley belonging to the Gash Group. According to Peter Behrens (1981) and Marianne Bechaus-Gerst (2000), linguistic evidence indicates that the C-Group and Kerma peoples spoke Afroasiatic languages of the Berber and Cushitic branches, respectively.
What purpose did stelae serve?
570db00216d0071400510ce1
religious
63
False
Who erected a number of large stelae in pre-Christian times?
570db00216d0071400510ce2
The Aksumites
0
False
Which stelae is considered the largest in the world, standing at 90 feet?
570db00216d0071400510ce3
the obelisk of Aksum
135
False
Who eventually adopted Christianity under Ezana?
570db00216d0071400510ce4
Aksum
150
False
Where is the Ark of the Covenant believed to be resting?
570db00216d0071400510ce5
Aksum
150
False
360
243
In what year was the obelisk of Aksum carved?
5ad0af09645df0001a2d003e
True
320
239
In what year did the Aksum become Christians?
5ad0af09645df0001a2d003f
True
320
239
In what year was Mecca founded?
5ad0af09645df0001a2d0040
True
90 feet
213
How far above sea level is Mecca?
5ad0af09645df0001a2d0041
True
large stelae
34
What did Muslims build in the 7th century for religious purposes?
5ad0af09645df0001a2d0042
True
The Aksumites erected a number of large stelae, which served a religious purpose in pre-Christian times. One of these granite columns, the obelisk of Aksum, is the largest such structure in the world, standing at 90 feet. Under Ezana (fl. 320–360), Aksum later adopted Christianity. In the 7th century, early Muslims from Mecca also sought refuge from Quraysh persecution by travelling to the kingdom, a journey known in Islamic history as the First Hijra. It is also the alleged resting place of the Ark of the Covenant and the purported home of the Queen of Sheba.
What is the abbreviation for the United Nations' Advisory Committee on Administrative and Budgetary Questions?
570db0b7df2f5219002ed0f6
ACABQ
218
False
What does the acronym INTERPOL stand for?
570db0b7df2f5219002ed0f7
International Criminal Police Organization
354
False
Which league is Eritrea an observing member of?
570db0b7df2f5219002ed0f8
Arab League
96
False
ACABQ
218
What is the acronym for the Non-aligned Movement?
5ad0cde4645df0001a2d0406
True
INTERPOL
398
What is the acronym for the Organization for the Prohibition of Chemical Weapons?
5ad0cde4645df0001a2d0407
True
INTERPOL
398
What is the acronym for the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development?
5ad0cde4645df0001a2d0408
True
ACABQ
218
What is the acronym for the Permanent Court of Arbitration?
5ad0cde4645df0001a2d0409
True
INTERPOL
398
What is the acronym for the World Customs Organization?
5ad0cde4645df0001a2d040a
True
Eritrea is a member of the United Nations, the African Union, and is an observing member of the Arab League. The nation holds a seat on the United Nations' Advisory Committee on Administrative and Budgetary Questions (ACABQ). Eritrea also holds memberships in the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development, International Finance Corporation, International Criminal Police Organization (INTERPOL), Non-Aligned Movement, Organization for the Prohibition of Chemical Weapons, Permanent Court of Arbitration, and the World Customs Organization.
Who ruled Aksum and also governed the port of Adulis?
570db26616d0071400510cf5
Zoskales
183
False
How did the Aksumite rulers facilitate trade?
570db26616d0071400510cf6
by minting their own Aksumite currency
269
False
Which kingdoms did Aksum regularly enter the politics of?
570db26616d0071400510cf7
on the Arabian peninsula
435
False
Who did Aksum conquer in order to extend its rule over the Arabian peninsula?
570db26616d0071400510cf8
Himyarite Kingdom
532
False
Where was Ivory exported according to the Periplus of the Erythraean Sea?
570db26616d0071400510cf9
throughout the ancient world
122
False
Zoskales
183
Whose face was on the Aksumite currency?
5ad0afdc645df0001a2d0048
True
Kingdom of Kush
368
What country politics did the Aksumite rulers refuse to get involved with?
5ad0afdc645df0001a2d0049
True
Zoskales
183
Who was the ruler of the Himyarite Kingdom at the time?
5ad0afdc645df0001a2d004a
True
Himyarite Kingdom
532
In what country was the Periplus of the Erythraean Sea written?
5ad0afdc645df0001a2d004b
True
ivory
96
What product did the Kingdom of Kush export?
5ad0afdc645df0001a2d004c
True
The kingdom is mentioned in the Periplus of the Erythraean Sea as an important market place for ivory, which was exported throughout the ancient world. Aksum was at the time ruled by Zoskales, who also governed the port of Adulis. The Aksumite rulers facilitated trade by minting their own Aksumite currency. The state also established its hegemony over the declining Kingdom of Kush and regularly entered the politics of the kingdoms on the Arabian peninsula, eventually extending its rule over the region with the conquest of the Himyarite Kingdom.
When was the Eritrean Railway completed in Saati?
570db36a16d0071400510cff
1888
142
False
When did the Eritrean Railway reach the Asmara highlands?
570db36a16d0071400510d00
1911
187
False
What was the longest line in the world during its time?
570db36a16d0071400510d01
The Asmara–Massawa Cableway
193
False
Who dismantled the Asmara-Massawa Cableway?
570db36a16d0071400510d02
the British
300
False
In what areas of public service were Eritreans particularly employed?
570db36a16d0071400510d03
police and public works departments
584
False
1888
142
In what year was the Asmara-Massawa Cableway completed?
5ad0b728645df0001a2d0138
True
1911
187
In what year did the Italo-Turkish War start?
5ad0b728645df0001a2d0139
True
1911
187
In what year did the First Italo-Abyssinian War start?
5ad0b728645df0001a2d013a
True
Italian
13
What nationality started the Italo-Turkish war?
5ad0b728645df0001a2d013b
True
Massawa
204
Where did the Eritrean Railway originate?
5ad0b728645df0001a2d013c
True
In 1888, the Italian administration launched its first development projects in the new colony. The Eritrean Railway was completed to Saati in 1888, and reached Asmara in the highlands in 1911. The Asmara–Massawa Cableway was the longest line in the world during its time, but was later dismantled by the British in World War II. Besides major infrastructural projects, the colonial authorities invested significantly in the agricultural sector. It also oversaw the provision of urban amenities in Asmara and Massawa, and employed many Eritreans in public service, particularly in the police and public works departments. Thousands of Eritreans were concurrently enlisted in the army, serving during the Italo-Turkish War in Libya as well as the First and second Italo-Abyssinian Wars.
Who prompted Eritrea to be federated with Ethiopia in 1950?
570db4b716d0071400510d11
United States
129
False
Which UN Resolution called for Eritrea and Ethiopia to be linked via a loose federal structure under sovereignty of the Emperor?
570db4b716d0071400510d12
390A(V)
40
False
What would federal government control in Eritrea according to Resolution 390A(V)??
570db4b716d0071400510d13
foreign affairs (including commerce), defense, finance, and transportation
562
False
Which Eritrean wishes did Resolution 390A(V) ignore?
570db4b716d0071400510d14
independence
689
False
What did Resolution 390A(V) guarantee the population of Eritrea?
570db4b716d0071400510d15
democratic rights and a measure of autonomy
733
False
the United States
125
What country was being led by an Emperor in 1950?
5ad0c1be645df0001a2d01e4
True
independence
689
What Eritrean wishes did UN Resolution 390A(V) fulfill?
5ad0c1be645df0001a2d01e5
True
390A(V)
40
What UN Resolution was adopted in November 1950?
5ad0c1be645df0001a2d01e6
True
democratic
733
What rights did UN Resolution 390A(V) give to Ethiopians?
5ad0c1be645df0001a2d01e7
True
Following the adoption of UN Resolution 390A(V) in December 1950, Eritrea was federated with Ethiopia under the prompting of the United States. The resolution called for Eritrea and Ethiopia to be linked through a loose federal structure under the sovereignty of the Emperor. Eritrea was to have its own administrative and judicial structure, its own flag, and control over its domestic affairs, including police, local administration, and taxation. The federal government, which for all intents and purposes was the existing imperial government, was to control foreign affairs (including commerce), defense, finance, and transportation. The resolution ignored the wishes of Eritreans for independence, but guaranteed the population democratic rights and a measure of autonomy.
What did the Eritrea administration open to produce products such as buttons and construction materials?
570db606df2f5219002ed10c
a number of new factories
56
False
How many factories were in Eritrea by 1939?
570db606df2f5219002ed10d
around 2,198
232
False
Who were the main employees in the factories of Eritrea?
570db606df2f5219002ed10e
Eritrean citizens
286
False
Besides Eritreans, which other nationality increased its city population because of new industries?
570db606df2f5219002ed10f
Italians
381
False
How much did the number of Italians residing in Eritrea increase in 5 years due to factories being built?
570db606df2f5219002ed110
from 4,600 to 75,000
487
False
4,600
492
How many Italians lived in Eretria in 1939?
5ad0b8c2645df0001a2d0168
True
2,198
239
How many plantations were owned by Eritreans?
5ad0b8c2645df0001a2d0169
True
cooking oil
107
What did the first factory in Italian Eritrea produce?
5ad0b8c2645df0001a2d016a
True
75,000
501
How many Eritreans worked in the factories in 1939?
5ad0b8c2645df0001a2d016b
True
pasta
120
What was the main export of Italian Eritrea in 1939?
5ad0b8c2645df0001a2d016c
True
Additionally, the Italian Eritrea administration opened a number of new factories, which produced buttons, cooking oil, pasta, construction materials, packing meat, tobacco, hide and other household commodities. In 1939, there were around 2,198 factories and most of the employees were Eritrean citizens. The establishment of industries also made an increase in the number of both Italians and Eritreans residing in the cities. The number of Italians residing in the territory increased from 4,600 to 75,000 in five years; and with the involvement of Eritreans in the industries, trade and fruit plantation was expanded across the nation, while some of the plantations were owned by Eritreans.
What big cat is said to inhabit the mountains of the Gash-Barka Region?
570db6fb16d0071400510d2b
Lions
0
False
Which animal herds were thought to have fallen victim to the war of independence?
570db6fb16d0071400510d2c
elephant
488
False
In December 2001, how many elephants were seen in the vicinity of the Gash River?
570db6fb16d0071400510d2d
about 30
602
False
What species did the elephants at the Gash River seem to form a symbiotic relationship with?
570db6fb16d0071400510d2e
olive baboons
750
False
Gash-Barka Region
47
Where are African leopards predominantly found?
5ad0c41d645df0001a2d0258
True
2001
447
In what year did the war of independence end?
5ad0c41d645df0001a2d0259
True
the vicinity of the Gash River
652
Where are bushbucks mostly found?
5ad0c41d645df0001a2d025a
True
mountains
30
What is the topography of the Denkalia Region?
5ad0c41d645df0001a2d025b
True
30
608
How many African wild ass are thought to be left?
5ad0c41d645df0001a2d025c
True
Lions are said to inhabit the mountains of the Gash-Barka Region. There is also a small population of elephants that roam in some parts of the country. Dik-diks can also be found in many areas. The endangered African wild ass can be seen in Denakalia Region. Other local wildlife include bushbucks, duikers, greater kudus, klipspringers, African leopards, oryxs and crocodiles., The spotted hyena is widespread and fairly common. Between 1955 and 2001 there were no reported sightings of elephant herds, and they are thought to have fallen victim to the war of independence. In December 2001 a herd of about 30, including 10 juveniles, was observed in the vicinity of the Gash River. The elephants seemed to have formed a symbiotic relationship with olive baboons, with the baboons using the water holes dug by the elephants, while the elephants use the tree-top baboons as an early warning system.
How many ecoregions make up Eritrea?
570db7e416d0071400510d33
three
26
False
What is the highest point in Eritrea?
570db7e416d0071400510d34
Emba Soira
566
False
Where is Emba Soira located?
570db7e416d0071400510d35
in the center of Eritrea
589
False
How high is Emba Soira?
570db7e416d0071400510d36
3,018 meters (9,902 ft) above sea level
618
False
What is the probably location in Eritrea where three tectonic plates are pulling away from each other?
570db7e416d0071400510d37
The Afar Triangle or Danakil Depression
373
False
3000m
206
How high is Filfil Solomona above sea level?
5ad0c351645df0001a2d0232
True
Emba Soira
566
What is the low point of Eritrea?
5ad0c351645df0001a2d0233
True
rainforest
278
What is located in the Danakil Depression?
5ad0c351645df0001a2d0235
True
hot, arid
81
What is the climate of the Afar Triangle?
5ad0c351645df0001a2d0236
True
Eritrea can be split into three ecoregions. To the east of the highlands are the hot, arid coastal plains stretching down to the southeast of the country. The cooler, more fertile highlands, reaching up to 3000m has a different habitat. Habitats here vary from the sub-tropical rainforest at Filfil Solomona to the precipitous cliffs and canyons of the southern highlands. The Afar Triangle or Danakil Depression of Eritrea is the probable location of a triple junction where three tectonic plates are pulling away from one another.The highest point of the country, Emba Soira, is located in the center of Eritrea, at 3,018 meters (9,902 ft) above sea level.
How many elephants are believed to be left in Eritrea?
570db8dedf2f5219002ed116
around 100
31
False
What type of snakes are common in Gash Barka?
570db8dedf2f5219002ed117
deadly
266
False
Where in Eritrea can puff adder and red spitting cobra be found?
570db8dedf2f5219002ed118
widespread
352
False
Where in Eritrea are marine species such as dolphin, turtles and manta ray found?
570db8dedf2f5219002ed119
coastal areas
409
False
Which dog, previously found in Eritrea, is now considered extirpated from the entire country?
570db8dedf2f5219002ed11a
African wild dog (Lycaon pictus)
131
False
Eritrea
60
Where are the most southerly of East Africa's elephants to be found?
5ad0c500645df0001a2d029e
True
around 100
31
How many African wild dog are there left?
5ad0c500645df0001a2d029f
True
red spitting cobra
329
What nonpoisonous snake can be found in Eritrea?
5ad0c500645df0001a2d02a0
True
saw-scaled viper
285
What land species can be found in the coastal areas?
5ad0c500645df0001a2d02a1
True
manta ray
523
What rare marine species can be found in the coastal areas of Eritrea?
5ad0c500645df0001a2d02a2
True
It is estimated that there are around 100 elephants left in Eritrea, the most northerly of East Africa's elephants. The endangered African wild dog (Lycaon pictus) was previously found in Eritrea, but is now deemed extirpated from the entire country. In Gash Barka, deadly snakes like saw-scaled viper are common. Puff adder and red spitting cobra are widespread and can be found even in the highlands.In the coastal areas marine species that are common include dolphin, dugong, whale shark, turtles, marlin/swordfish, and manta ray.
According to Human Rights Watch, how do the human rights in Eritrea compare to the rest of the world?
570dbab2df2f5219002ed126
among the worst
185
False
According to a 500-page UN Human Rights Council report, what was widespread behavior by state officials in Eritrea?
570dbab2df2f5219002ed127
sexual harassment, rape and sexual servitude
716
False
What type of state government exists in Eritrea?
570dbab2df2f5219002ed128
a one-party state
11
False
According to many western countries, why have Eritrean authorities detained an unknown number of people?
570dbab2df2f5219002ed129
for their political activism
372
False
In what year was the United Nations Human Rights Council report written?
570dbab2df2f5219002ed12a
2015
511
False
June 2015
506
When was the last time national legislative elections were held?
5ad0ca67645df0001a2d0376
True
Eritrea
0
What country has one of the better human rights records in the world?
5ad0ca67645df0001a2d0377
True
500-page
519
How long was the Human Rights Watch report about Eritrea?
5ad0ca67645df0001a2d0378
True
June 2015
506
When was the Human Rights Watch report about Eritrea released?
5ad0ca67645df0001a2d0379
True
indefinitely prolonged national service
638
What accusations has the Eritrean government owned up to?
5ad0ca67645df0001a2d037a
True
Eritrea is a one-party state in which national legislative elections have been repeatedly postponed. According to Human Rights Watch, the government's human rights record is considered among the worst in the world. Most Western countries have accused the Eritrean authorities of arbitrary arrest and detentions, and of detaining an unknown number of people without charge for their political activism. However, the Eritrean government has continually dismissed the accusations as politically motivated. In June 2015, a 500-page United Nations Human Rights Council report accused Eritrea's government of extrajudicial executions, torture, indefinitely prolonged national service and forced labour, and indicated that sexual harassment, rape and sexual servitude by state officials are also widespread.
Why have Eritrean government officials participated in numerous meetings with NGO representatives?
570dbbe116d0071400510d45
In an attempt at reform
0
False
What did the Eritrean government ban in 2007?
570dbbe116d0071400510d46
female genital mutilation
379
False
What new movement is aimed at opening dialogue between the government and opposition?
570dbbe116d0071400510d47
Citizens for Democratic Rights in Eritrea
754
False
Who, along with ordinary citizens, makes up the Citizens for Democratic Rights in Eritrea?
570dbbe116d0071400510d48
some people close to the government
937
False
What are the main concerns Eritreans speak about in terms of female circumcision?
570dbbe116d0071400510d49
health concerns and individual freedom
546
False
2007
337
In what year did attempts at reform in Eritrea begin?
5ad0cc1d645df0001a2d03a4
True
2007
337
In what year was Citizens for Democratic Rights formed in Eretria?
5ad0cc1d645df0001a2d03a5
True
female genital mutilation
379
What new cultural practice are people trying to do away with in Eretria?
5ad0cc1d645df0001a2d03a6
True
female genital mutilation
379
What ancient cultural practice occurs in urban areas?
5ad0cc1d645df0001a2d03a7
True
In an attempt at reform, Eritrean government officials and NGO representatives have participated in numerous public meetings and dialogues. In these sessions they have answered questions as fundamental as, "What are human rights?", "Who determines what are human rights?", and "What should take precedence, human or communal rights?" In 2007, the Eritrean government also banned female genital mutilation. In Regional Assemblies and religious circles, Eritreans themselves speak out continuously against the use of female circumcision. They cite health concerns and individual freedom as being of primary concern when they say this. Furthermore, they implore rural peoples to cast away this ancient cultural practice. Additionally, a new movement called Citizens for Democratic Rights in Eritrea aimed at bringing about dialogue between the government and opposition was formed in early 2009. The group consists of ordinary citizens and some people close to the government.
In the 2014 Press Freedom Index, what organization ranked the media environment in Eritrea as the worse of 178 countries?
570e1feb0b85d914000d7ce1
Reporters Without Borders
33
False
How did Reporters Without Borders rank the media environment of Eritrea compared to totalitarian North Korea?
570e1feb0b85d914000d7ce2
just below
146
False
What type of media has been banned from Eritrea since 2001?
570e1feb0b85d914000d7ce3
Independent
552
False
According to the BBC, which African country is the only one that has no privately owned news media?
570e1feb0b85d914000d7ce4
Eritrea
206
False
According to Reporters Without Borders, where doesn't a single foreign news correspondent live?
570e1feb0b85d914000d7ce5
Asmara
479
False
2014
7
In what year was Reporters Without Borders founded?
5ad0cd2c645df0001a2d03ce
True
North Korea
170
What country was ranked at the top of the media environment list put together by Reporters Without Borders?
5ad0cd2c645df0001a2d03cf
True
Not a single [foreign correspondent] now lives in Asmara
429
What did The Guardian claim about Eritrea in 2015?
5ad0cd2c645df0001a2d03d0
True
178
131
How many native news correspondents are there in Asmara?
5ad0cd2c645df0001a2d03d1
True
In its 2014 Press Freedom Index, Reporters Without Borders ranked the media environment in Eritrea at the very bottom of a list of 178 countries, just below totalitarian North Korea. According to the BBC, "Eritrea is the only African country to have no privately owned news media", and Reporters Without Borders said of the public media, "[they] do nothing but relay the regime's belligerent and ultra-nationalist discourse. ... Not a single [foreign correspondent] now lives in Asmara." The state-owned news agency censors news about external events. Independent media have been banned since 2001. In 2015, The Guardian published an opinion piece claiming,
Under which program did Eritrea develp and repair its transportation infrastructure during the war?
570e21540dc6ce1900204dd3
Warsay Yika'alo
180
False
How long was the coastal highway between Massawa and Asseb?
570e21540dc6ce1900204dd4
more than 500 km
289
False
What type of locomotives are sometimes used on the Eritrean Railway to cater to groups of enthusiasts?
570e21540dc6ce1900204dd5
Steam
508
False
What is the capital of Eritrea?
570e21540dc6ce1900204dd6
Asmara
468
False
Which railway was rehabilitated under the Warsay Yika'alo Program?
570e21540dc6ce1900204dd7
Eritrean
374
False
500 km
299
How long is the Eritrean Railway?
5ad0d041645df0001a2d04aa
True
500 km
299
How many km of war-damaged roads has Eritrea fixed?
5ad0d041645df0001a2d04ab
True
Steam
508
How are most locomotives powered in Eritrea?
5ad0d041645df0001a2d04ac
True
500 km
299
What is the distance between Asseb and Asmara?
5ad0d041645df0001a2d04ad
True
500 km
299
What is the distance between Asmara and Massawa?
5ad0d041645df0001a2d04ae
True
Even during the war, Eritrea developed its transportation infrastructure by asphalting new roads, improving its ports, and repairing war-damaged roads and bridges as a part of the Warsay Yika'alo Program. The most significant of these projects was the construction of a coastal highway of more than 500 km connecting Massawa with Asseb, as well as the rehabilitation of the Eritrean Railway. The rail line has been restored between the port of Massawa and the capital Asmara, although services are sporadic. Steam locomotives are sometimes used for groups of enthusiasts.
What is the official language of Eritrea?
570e22860dc6ce1900204de7
The nation has no official language
35
False
What does the Constitution establish of all Eritrean languages?
570e22860dc6ce1900204de8
equality
109
False
What was the most widely spoken language in Eritrea in 2006?
570e22860dc6ce1900204de9
Tigrinya
155
False
What languages serve as de facto working languages in Eritrea?
570e22860dc6ce1900204dea
Modern Standard Arabic and English
390
False
What language is used in Eritrean university education and many technical fields?
570e22860dc6ce1900204deb
English
417
False
English
417
What is the second most spoken language in Eritrea?
5ad0d0e9645df0001a2d04d8
True
2,540,000
223
How many people speak English in Eritrea?
5ad0d0e9645df0001a2d04d9
True
5,254,000
267
How many speakers of Tigrinya are there in the world?
5ad0d0e9645df0001a2d04da
True
2,540,000
223
How many people speak Italian in Eritrea?
5ad0d0e9645df0001a2d04db
True
Modern Standard Arabic
390
What language is used for business in Eritrea?
5ad0d0e9645df0001a2d04dc
True
Eritrea is a multilingual country. The nation has no official language, as the Constitution establishes the "equality of all Eritrean languages". However, Tigrinya serves as the de facto language of national identity. With 2,540,000 total speakers of a population of 5,254,000 in 2006, Tigrinya is the most widely spoken language, particularly in the southern and central parts of Eritrea. Modern Standard Arabic and English serve as de facto working languages, with the latter used in university education and many technical fields. Italian, the former colonial language, is widely used in commerce and is taught as a second language in schools, with a few elderly monolinguals.
Which part of Eritrea's health care goals have they been most successful in?
570e24420b85d914000d7ceb
child health
188
False
What was the Eritrean life expectancy at birth in 1960?
570e24420b85d914000d7cec
39.1
246
False
What was the Eritrean life expectancy st birth in 2008?
570e24420b85d914000d7ced
59.5
262
False
Which practice was banned by the Eritrean government with claimes it is painful and has life-threatening health problems for women?
570e24420b85d914000d7cee
female genital mutilation
1172
False
How much did the National Malaria Protection Unit reduce malarial mortality by from 1998 - 2006?
570e24420b85d914000d7cef
85%
1079
False
2006
1131
In what year was female genital mutilation banned in Eretria?
5ad0d32d645df0001a2d0576
True
78.5%
810
How many kids had been vaccinated against measles in 2008?
5ad0d32d645df0001a2d0577
True
59.5
262
What was the life expectancy in 2006 in Eretria?
5ad0d32d645df0001a2d0578
True
2002
887
In what year was the Millenium Development Goal targets put in place?
5ad0d32d645df0001a2d0579
True
1960
254
When was the World Health Organisation established?
5ad0d32d645df0001a2d057a
True
Eritrea has achieved significant improvements in health care and is one of the few countries to be on target to meet its Millennium Development Goal (MDG) targets in health, in particular child health. Life expectancy at birth has increased from 39.1 in 1960 to 59.5 years in 2008, maternal and child mortality rates have dropped dramatically and the health infrastructure has been expanded. Due to Eritrea's relative isolation, information and resources are extremely limited and according to the World Health Organisation (WHO) found in 2008 average life expectancy to be slightly less than 63 years. Immunisation and child nutrition has been tackled by working closely with schools in a multi-sectoral approach; the number of children vaccinated against measles almost doubled in seven years, from 40.7% to 78.5% and the underweight prevalence among children decreased by 12% in 1995–2002 (severe underweight prevalence by 28%). The National Malaria Protection Unit of the Ministry of Health has registered tremendous improvements in reducing malarial mortality by as much as 85% and the number of cases by 92% between 1998 and 2006. The Eritrean government has banned female genital mutilation (FGM), saying the practice was painful and put women at risk of life-threatening health problems.
Where does the Italian influences on Eritrean cuisine come from?
570e25b30dc6ce1900204dfb
its colonial history
23
False
What food item did Italians bring to Eritrea during colonial times?
570e25b30dc6ce1900204dfc
pasta
379
False
What is Eritrea's popular alcoholic beverage Mies made out of?
570e25b30dc6ce1900204dfd
honey
827
False
How does 'Pasta al Sugo e Berbere' translate in English?
570e25b30dc6ce1900204dfe
"Pasta with tomato sauce and berbere" (spice)
571
False
What is the main food, influenced by Italy, eaten in Eritrea's capital today?
570e25b30dc6ce1900204dff
pasta
379
False
pasta
379
What is one of the main foods eaten in Ethiopia?
5ad0d8bf645df0001a2d06a6
True
Pasta al Sugo e Berbere
533
What is a common dish in Ethiopia?
5ad0d8bf645df0001a2d06a7
True
coffee
757
What do people tend to drink in Ethiopia?
5ad0d8bf645df0001a2d06a8
True
Mies
765
What is a popular alcoholic drink in Ethiopia?
5ad0d8bf645df0001a2d06a9
True
Kingdom of Italy
286
What was Ethiopia's cuisine influenced by?
5ad0d8bf645df0001a2d06aa
True
Additionally, owing to its colonial history, cuisine in Eritrea features more Italian influences than are present in Ethiopian cooking, including more pasta and greater use of curry powders and cumin.The Italian Eritrean cuisine started to be practiced during the colonial times of the Kingdom of Italy, when a large number of Italians moved to Eritrea. They brought the use of "pasta" to Italian Eritrea, and it is one of the main food eaten in present-day Asmara. An Italian Eritrean cuisine emerged, and dishes common dishes are 'Pasta al Sugo e Berbere', which means "Pasta with tomato sauce and berbere" (spice), but there are many more like "lasagna" and "cotoletta alla milanese" (milano cutlet). Alongside sowa, people in Eritrea also tend to drink coffee. Mies is another popular local alcoholic beverage, made out of honey.
What geographical location in Eritrea has largely shaped the culture of Eritrea?
570e28710dc6ce1900204e05
Red Sea coast
80
False
What is one of the most recognizable parts of Eritran culture that can be offered when visiting friends as well as being a daily staple of life?
570e28710dc6ce1900204e06
the coffee ceremony
153
False
How many rounds is coffee served in during a coffee ceremony?
570e28710dc6ce1900204e07
three
370
False
What do Eritrean's offer a person who declines coffee?
570e28710dc6ce1900204e08
most likely tea
599
False
What is the first round of the coffee ceremony called?
570e28710dc6ce1900204e09
awel
418
False
awel
418
What is the first round of coffee called in Italian?
5ad0d647645df0001a2d064a
True
kalaay
477
What is the second round of coffee called in Italian?
5ad0d647645df0001a2d064b
True
bereka
530
What is the third round of coffee called in Italian?
5ad0d647645df0001a2d064c
True
būn
191
What is someone served if they don't drink coffee or tea?
5ad0d647645df0001a2d064d
True
tea
611
What is one of the least drank beverages in Eretria?
5ad0d647645df0001a2d064e
True
The culture of Eritrea has been largely shaped by the country's location on the Red Sea coast. One of the most recognizable parts of Eritrean culture is the coffee ceremony. Coffee (Ge'ez ቡን būn) is offered when visiting friends, during festivities, or as a daily staple of life. During the coffee ceremony, there are traditions that are upheld. The coffee is served in three rounds: the first brew or round is called awel in Tigrinya meaning first, the second round is called kalaay meaning second, and the third round is called bereka meaning "to be blessed". If coffee is politely declined, then most likely tea ("shai" ሻሂ shahee) will instead be served.
What country borders Eritrea in the west?
570e29460dc6ce1900204e19
Sudan
149
False
What country borders Eritrea in the south?
570e29460dc6ce1900204e1a
Ethiopia
168
False
What country borders Eritrea in the southeast?
570e29460dc6ce1900204e1b
Djibouti
195
False
What extensive coastline makes up a portion of Eritrea's East border?
570e29460dc6ce1900204e1c
Red Sea
306
False
What is the total area of the nation of Eritrea?
570e29460dc6ce1900204e1d
117,600 km2 (45,406 sq mi)
360
False
117,600 km2
360
What is the total area of Ethiopia?
5ad0a5a5645df0001a2cff80
True
45,406 sq mi
373
What is the total area of Djibouti?
5ad0a5a5645df0001a2cff81
True
Djibouti
195
What is the name of one of the Hanish Islands?
5ad0a5a5645df0001a2cff82
True
1890
601
In what year was Eritrea founded?
5ad0a5a5645df0001a2cff83
True
117,600 km2
360
What is the total area of the Red Sea?
5ad0a5a5645df0001a2cff84
True
Eritrea (/ˌɛrᵻˈtreɪ.ə/ or /ˌɛrᵻˈtriːə/;, officially the State of Eritrea, is a country in East Africa. With its capital at Asmara, it is bordered by Sudan in the west, Ethiopia in the south, and Djibouti in the southeast. The northeastern and eastern parts of Eritrea have an extensive coastline along the Red Sea. The nation has a total area of approximately 117,600 km2 (45,406 sq mi), and includes the Dahlak Archipelago and several of the Hanish Islands. Its name Eritrea is based on the Greek name for the Red Sea (Ἐρυθρὰ Θάλασσα Erythra Thalassa), which was first adopted for Italian Eritrea in 1890.
What is the best know musical genre amongst the Tigrinya?
570e2a540b85d914000d7cf5
guaila
155
False
What is the Eritrean traditional instrument, the wata?
570e2a540b85d914000d7cf6
a distant/rudimentary cousin of the violin
275
False
Who is the most popular Eritrean singing artist?
570e2a540b85d914000d7cf7
Helen Meles
376
False
What is Helen Meles noted for?
570e2a540b85d914000d7cf8
her powerful voice and wide singing range
406
False
Who, in Eritrea, have their own styles of music and  accompanying dance?
570e2a540b85d914000d7cf9
ethnic groups
10
False
violin
311
What is the stringed krar a distant cousin of?
5ad0d964645df0001a2d06b8
True
Helen Meles
376
Who is the most popular Italian artist in Eritrea?
5ad0d964645df0001a2d06b9
True
masenqo
253
What instrument did Abraham Afewerki play?
5ad0d964645df0001a2d06ba
True
masenqo
253
What instrument does Yemane Baria play?
5ad0d964645df0001a2d06bb
True
begena
245
What musical instrument does Ruth Abraha play?
5ad0d964645df0001a2d06bc
True
Eritrea's ethnic groups each have their own styles of music and accompanying dances. Amongst the Tigrinya, the best known traditional musical genre is the guaila. Traditional instruments of Eritrean folk music include the stringed krar, kebero, begena, masenqo and the wata (a distant/rudimentary cousin of the violin). The most popular Eritrean artist is the Tigrinya singer Helen Meles, who is noted for her powerful voice and wide singing range. Other prominent local musicians include the Kunama singer Dehab Faytinga, Ruth Abraha, Bereket Mengisteab, Yemane Baria, and the late Abraham Afewerki.
What was the Eritrean region known as during the Middle Ages?
570e2b700b85d914000d7cff
Medri Bahri
56
False
When was Eritrea annexed by Ethiopia?
570e2b700b85d914000d7d01
1953
444
False
When did the Eritrean Liberation Front form?
570e2b700b85d914000d7d02
1960
535
False
When did Eritrea gain independence?
570e2b700b85d914000d7d03
following the 1993 referendum
569
False
Medri Bahri
56
What was the Roman name for the Red Sea?
5ad0a757645df0001a2cffa8
True
1997
669
In what year did the Eritrean Liberation Front cease operations?
5ad0a757645df0001a2cffa9
True
1890
265
When was Ethiopia founded?
5ad0a757645df0001a2cffaa
True
1890
265
In what year was Italian Eritrea founded?
5ad0a757645df0001a2cffab
True
Italian Eritrea
293
What was Ethiopia known as during the Middle Ages?
5ad0a757645df0001a2cffac
True
During the Middle Ages, the Eritrea region was known as Medri Bahri ("sea-land"). The name Eritrea is derived from the ancient Greek name for Red Sea (Ἐρυθρὰ Θάλασσα Erythra Thalassa, based on the adjective ἐρυθρός erythros "red"). It was first formally adopted in 1890, with the formation of Italian Eritrea (Colonia Eritrea). The territory became the Eritrea Governorate within Italian East Africa in 1936. Eritrea was annexed by Ethiopia in 1953 (nominally within a federation until 1962) and an Eritrean Liberation Front formed in 1960. Eritrea gained independence following the 1993 referendum, and the name of the new state was defined as State of Eritrea in the 1997 constitution.[citation needed]
In 2010, what was conducted on mummified remains of baboons?
570e2d360dc6ce1900204e37
genetic
11
False
What type of analysis did the scientists use to examine hairs from the 2 baboon mummies formerly preserved in the British Museum?
570e2d360dc6ce1900204e38
oxygen isotope analysis
245
False
Who was determined to be the closest match for the baboon mummies?
570e2d360dc6ce1900204e39
modern baboon specimens in Eritrea and Ethiopia
583
False
Where did the 2 baboons' mummified remains originate?
570e2d360dc6ce1900204e3a
Punt
112
False
Where did researchers suggest that Punt was located?
570e2d360dc6ce1900204e3b
region that included eastern Ethiopia and all of Eritrea
691
False
two
291
How many mummified baboons did Punt gift to the ancient Egyptians?
5ad0ac66645df0001a2d002a
True
2010
3
In what year were the mummified baboons transferred from Egypt to the British Museum?
5ad0ac66645df0001a2d002b
True
two
291
How many mummified baboons does the Egyptian Museum now have on display?
5ad0ac66645df0001a2d002c
True
present-day baboon specimens
468
Scientists compared the DNA of the baboon with distorted isotopic data to what?
5ad0ac66645df0001a2d002d
True
One
357
How many hairs on each baboon mummy did scientists study?
5ad0ac66645df0001a2d002e
True
In 2010, a genetic study was conducted on the mummified remains of baboons that were brought back as gifts from Punt by the ancient Egyptians. Led by a research team from the Egyptian Museum and the University of California, the scientists used oxygen isotope analysis to examine hairs from two baboon mummies that had been preserved in the British Museum. One of the baboons had distorted isotopic data, so the other's oxygen isotope values were compared to those of present-day baboon specimens from regions of interest. The researchers found that the mummies most closely matched modern baboon specimens in Eritrea and Ethiopia, which they suggested implied that Punt was likely a narrow region that included eastern Ethiopia and all of Eritrea.
What  domain were the Eritrean highlands under after the decline of Aksum?
570e2def0dc6ce1900204e41
Bahr Negash ruled by the Bahr Negus
76
False
What was the area in the Eritrean highlands named under Emperor Zaro Yaqob?
570e2def0dc6ce1900204e42
Medri Bahri
322
False
What was the capitol of Medri Bahri?
570e2def0dc6ce1900204e43
Debarwa
475
False
What were the main provinces of Medri Bahri?
570e2def0dc6ce1900204e44
Hamasien, Serae and Akele Guzai
516
False
What is the English translation of Medri Bahri?
570e2def0dc6ce1900204e45
Sea land
336
False
the Bahr Negus
97
Who ruled Aksum during its decline?
5ad0b104645df0001a2d005c
True
Ma'ikele Bahr
140
What was the area known as by the Aksum?
5ad0b104645df0001a2d005d
True
Hamasien
516
In what province was the capital Debarwa located?
5ad0b104645df0001a2d005e
True
Debarwa
475
What was the capital of the Aksum?
5ad0b104645df0001a2d005f
True
Emperor Zara Yaqob
265
Who was the ruler of Ethiopia at this time?
5ad0b104645df0001a2d0060
True
After the decline of Aksum, the Eritrean highlands were under the domain of Bahr Negash ruled by the Bahr Negus. The area was then known as Ma'ikele Bahr ("between the seas/rivers," i.e. the land between the Red Sea and the Mereb river). It was later renamed under Emperor Zara Yaqob as the domain of the Bahr Negash, the Medri Bahri ("Sea land" in Tingrinya, although it included some areas like Shire on the other side of the Mereb, today in Ethiopia). With its capital at Debarwa, the state's main provinces were Hamasien, Serae and Akele Guzai.
Whose rise to power in 1922 brought profounc change to the government in Italian Eritrea?
570e2f6e0b85d914000d7d1d
Benito Mussolini's
9
False
When was Italian Eritrea significantly enlarged?
570e2f6e0b85d914000d7d1e
After il Duce declared the birth of the Italian Empire
123
False
When was the birth of the Italian Empire declared?
570e2f6e0b85d914000d7d1f
May 1936
181
False
What was Eritrea chosen to be by the Italian government during the Italian Empire?
570e2f6e0b85d914000d7d20
industrial center of Italian East Africa
556
False
What does Africa Orientale Italiana mean?
570e2f6e0b85d914000d7d21
Italian East Africa
330
False
1922
3
In what year was Italian Somaliland established?
5ad0bc02645df0001a2d018c
True
Eritrea
501
What was chosen to be the governmental center of Italian East Africa?
5ad0bc02645df0001a2d018d
True
1936
185
In what year was Benito Mussolini nicknamed il Duce?
5ad0bc02645df0001a2d018e
True
Benito Mussolini
9
Who was Ethiopia's ruler before it was conquered?
5ad0bc02645df0001a2d018f
True
In 1922, Benito Mussolini's rise to power in Italy brought profound changes to the colonial government in Italian Eritrea. After il Duce declared the birth of the Italian Empire in May 1936, Italian Eritrea (enlarged with northern Ethiopia's regions) and Italian Somaliland were merged with the just conquered Ethiopia in the new Italian East Africa (Africa Orientale Italiana) administrative territory. This Fascist period was characterized by imperial expansion in the name of a "new Roman Empire". Eritrea was chosen by the Italian government to be the industrial center of Italian East Africa.
Who dissolved the Eritrean parliament in 1962?
570e30ec0dc6ce1900204e55
Emperor Haile Selassie
5
False
What does the acroynm ELF stand for?
570e30ec0dc6ce1900204e56
Eritrean Liberation Front
112
False
Who waged an armed struggle for independence in 1962 after Eritrea was annexed?
570e30ec0dc6ce1900204e57
ELF
139
False
How long did the Eritrean War for Independence last?
570e30ec0dc6ce1900204e58
30 years
240
False
What is the acronym for Eritrean People's Liberation Front?
570e30ec0dc6ce1900204e59
EPLF
347
False
1991
296
In what year did Haile Selassie step down as Emperor?
5ad0c270645df0001a2d0200
True
1991
296
In what year did the ELF collapse?
5ad0c270645df0001a2d0201
True
Eritrean Liberation Front
112
What was the name of one of the Ethiopian rebel forces?
5ad0c270645df0001a2d0202
True
Addis Ababa
506
What was the capital of Eritrea?
5ad0c270645df0001a2d0203
True
Addis Ababa
506
In what city was ELF headquartered?
5ad0c270645df0001a2d0204
True
When Emperor Haile Selassie unilaterally dissolved the Eritrean parliament and annexed the country in 1962, the Eritrean Liberation Front (ELF) waged an armed struggle for independence. The ensuing Eritrean War for Independence went on for 30 years against successive Ethiopian governments until 1991, when the Eritrean People's Liberation Front (EPLF), a successor of the ELF, defeated the Ethiopian forces in Eritrea and helped a coalition of Ethiopian rebel forces take control of the Ethiopian Capital Addis Ababa.
What did disagreements following the Eritrean War result in?
570e31d70b85d914000d7d27
stalemate
49
False
What did the stalemate lead the President of Eritrea to urge the UN to do?
570e31d70b85d914000d7d28
take action on Ethiopia
190
False
Who accused Eritrea of planting bombs at an African Union summit?
570e31d70b85d914000d7d29
Ethiopia
485
False
What supported the accusation that Eritrea planted bombs at the African Union summit?
570e31d70b85d914000d7d2a
a UN report
600
False
What did Eritrea do when it was accused of planting bombs at the African Union summit?
570e31d70b85d914000d7d2b
denied the claims
621
False
2011
479
In what year did the war technically end?
5ad0cf5b645df0001a2d0464
True
2011
479
In what year was the Eleven Letters sent to United Nations Security Council?
5ad0cf5b645df0001a2d0465
True
Addis Ababa
558
What is the capital of Eritrea?
5ad0cf5b645df0001a2d0466
True
Addis Ababa
558
In what city is the UN based?
5ad0cf5b645df0001a2d0467
True
Eritrea
502
Where was the African Union summit held in 2010?
5ad0cf5b645df0001a2d0468
True
Disagreements following the war have resulted in stalemate punctuated by periods of elevated tension and renewed threats of war. The stalemate led the President of Eritrea to urge the UN to take action on Ethiopia with the Eleven Letters penned by the President to the United Nations Security Council. The situation has been further escalated by the continued efforts of the Eritrean and Ethiopian leaders in supporting opposition in one another's countries.[citation needed] In 2011, Ethiopia accused Eritrea of planting bombs at an African Union summit in Addis Ababa, which was later supported by a UN report. Eritrea denied the claims.
In 2004, how many physicians did Eritrea have per 1000 people?
570e334b0b85d914000d7d39
0.5
111
False
How prevalent is HIV among the 15-49 age group in Eritrea?
570e334b0b85d914000d7d3a
exceeds 2%
253
False
What is the fertility rate in Eriterea?
570e334b0b85d914000d7d3b
5 births per woman
296
False
As of 2002, how many births were attended by skilled health personnel in Eriterea?
570e334b0b85d914000d7d3c
28.3%
537
False
What is a major cause of death in neonates in Eriterea?
570e334b0b85d914000d7d3d
severe infection
585
False
2%
261
What percentage of people in Eritrea get malaria each year?
5ad0d3fb645df0001a2d05bc
True
28.3%
537
What percentage of people with severe infections die in Eretria?
5ad0d3fb645df0001a2d05bd
True
2%
261
What percentage of people over age 49 have HIV?
5ad0d3fb645df0001a2d05be
True
5
296
How many physicians are there per 1000 people as of 2016?
5ad0d3fb645df0001a2d05bf
True
28.3%
537
What percentage of births are attended by health professionals as of 2016?
5ad0d3fb645df0001a2d05c0
True
However, Eritrea still faces many challenges. Despite number of physicians increasing from only 0.2 in 1993 to 0.5 in 2004 per 1000 population, this is still very low. Malaria and tuberculosis are common in Eritrea. HIV prevalence among the 15–49 group exceeds 2%. The fertility rate is at about 5 births per woman. Maternal mortality dropped by more than half from 1995 to 2002, although the figure is still high. Similarly, between 1995 and 2002, the number of births attended by skilled health personnel has doubled but still is only 28.3%. A major cause of death in neonates is by severe infection. Per capita expenditure on health is low in Eritrea.
How do most people dress in the larger cities of Eritrea?
570e349b0b85d914000d7d53
Western casual
123
False
How do both men and women often dress in offices in Eritrea?
570e349b0b85d914000d7d54
suits
216
False
What are zurias, the traditional clothes still worn by Christian highlander women in Eritrea?
570e349b0b85d914000d7d55
bright white gowns
300
False
How do women in the Muslim communities of the Eritrean lowland dress?
570e349b0b85d914000d7d56
in brightly colored clothes
487
False
Who are the only women who follow the tradition of covering half of their faces, though not their hair?
570e349b0b85d914000d7d57
Rashaida women
521
False
casual dress such as jeans and shirts
131
What do Muslims in the highlands wear?
5ad0d6d5645df0001a2d065e
True
suits
216
What do Christians in the Eritrean lowland wear?
5ad0d6d5645df0001a2d065f
True
Christian Tigrinya-speaking highlanders
248
What women in Eritrea cover their hair?
5ad0d6d5645df0001a2d0660
True
Muslim
413
What men in Eritrea cover their hair?
5ad0d6d5645df0001a2d0661
True
bright white gowns
300
What do Rashaida women generally wear?
5ad0d6d5645df0001a2d0662
True
Traditional Eritrean attire is quite varied among the ethnic groups of Eritrea. In the larger cities, most people dress in Western casual dress such as jeans and shirts. In offices, both men and women often dress in suits. Traditional clothing for Christian Tigrinya-speaking highlanders consists of bright white gowns called zurias for the women, and long white shirts accompanied by white pants for the men. In Muslim communities in the Eritrean lowland, the women traditionally dress in brightly colored clothes. Only Rashaida women maintain a tradition of covering half of their faces, though they do not cover their hair.
What are the most popular sports in Eritrea?
570e36da0b85d914000d7d81
Football and cycling
0
False
What world record is held by Eritrean athlete Zersenay Tadese?
570e36da0b85d914000d7d82
half marathon distance running
232
False
What is the name of the multi-stage international cycling event held throughout Eritrea?
570e36da0b85d914000d7d83
Tour of Eritrea
268
False
Who became the first black African riders to compete in the Tour de France?
570e36da0b85d914000d7d84
Teklehaimanot and fellow Eritrean Merhawi Kudus
915
False
Who became the first Eritrean to ride the Vuelta a Espana in 2012?
570e36da0b85d914000d7d85
Daniel Teklehaimanot
605
False
Zersenay Tadese
158
Who won the last Tour of Eritrea?
5ad0daad645df0001a2d06c2
True
Didier Drogba
720
Who is one of the members of the Eritrea national cycling team?
5ad0daad645df0001a2d06c3
True
MTN–Qhubeka
1065
What football team does Didier Drogba play for?
5ad0daad645df0001a2d06c4
True
polkadot jersey
1191
What was Merhawi Kudus wearing at the end of the 2015 Tour de France?
5ad0daad645df0001a2d06c5
True
Merhawi Kudus
949
Who won the 2012 Vuelta a Espana?
5ad0daad645df0001a2d06c6
True
Football and cycling are the most popular sports in Eritrea. In recent years, Eritrean athletes have also seen increasing success in the international arena. Zersenay Tadese, an Eritrean athlete, currently holds the world record in half marathon distance running. The Tour of Eritrea, a multi-stage international cycling event, is held annually throughout the country. The Eritrea national cycling team has experienced a lot of success, winning the continental cycling championship several years in a row. Six Eritrean riders have been signed to international cycling teams, including Natnael Berhane and Daniel Teklehaimanot. Berhane was named African Sportsman of the Year in 2013, ahead of footballers Yaya Touré and Didier Drogba, while Teklehaimanot became the first Eritrean to ride the Vuelta a España in 2012. In 2015 Teklehaimanot won the King of the Mountains classification in the Critérium du Dauphine. Teklehaimanot and fellow Eritrean Merhawi Kudus became the first black African riders to compete in the Tour de France when they were selected by the MTN–Qhubeka team for the 2015 edition of the race, where, on 9 July, Teklehaimanot became the first African rider to wear the polkadot jersey.
Who occupied the Red Sea coast during the last interglacial period?
570e381a0dc6ce1900204e91
early anatomically modern humans
82
False
How old were the obsidian tools that were discovered by the Eritrean Research Project Team?
570e381a0dc6ce1900204e92
over 125,000 years old
450
False
Where did the Research Project Team find the obsidian tools?
570e381a0dc6ce1900204e93
near the Bay of Zula
473
False
What were the tools believed to have been used for by early humans?
570e381a0dc6ce1900204e94
to harvest marine resources like clams and oysters
597
False
What Team was composed of Eritrean, Canadian, American, Dutch and French scientists?
570e381a0dc6ce1900204e95
Eritrean Research Project Team
280
False
125,000
455
How long ago was the last interglacial period?
5ad0a99b645df0001a2cfff8
True
125,000
455
How long ago is it believed that early humans left Africa?
5ad0a99b645df0001a2cfff9
True
clams
630
What land resources are the early humans thought to have eaten?
5ad0a99b645df0001a2cfffa
True
1999
270
In what year was the Eritrean Research Project Team formed?
5ad0a99b645df0001a2cfffb
True
stone and obsidian tools
416
What did the research team find in Massawa?
5ad0a99b645df0001a2cfffc
True
During the last interglacial period, the Red Sea coast of Eritrea was occupied by early anatomically modern humans. It is believed that the area was on the route out of Africa that some scholars suggest was used by early humans to colonize the rest of the Old World. In 1999, the Eritrean Research Project Team composed of Eritrean, Canadian, American, Dutch and French scientists discovered a Paleolithic site with stone and obsidian tools dated to over 125,000 years old near the Bay of Zula south of Massawa, along the Red Sea littoral. The tools are believed to have been used by early humans to harvest marine resources like clams and oysters.
When was the Aussa Sultanate established?
570e38fd0b85d914000d7d95
end of the 16th century
7
False
Where was the Aussa Sultanate established?
570e38fd0b85d914000d7d96
Denkel lowlands of Eritrea
75
False
Who was the leader of Afar in 1734?
570e38fd0b85d914000d7d97
Kedafu, head of the Mudaito clan
434
False
What did Kedafu establish in 1734?
570e38fd0b85d914000d7d98
Mudaito Dynasty
501
False
What marked the start of a new and sophisticated polity that would last into the colonial period?
570e38fd0b85d914000d7d99
Mudaito Dynasty
501
False
1577
141
In what year was Muhammed Jasa born?
5ad0b422645df0001a2d00e8
True
1734
412
In what year was the Afar leader Kedafu born?
5ad0b422645df0001a2d00e9
True
1672
309
In what year did Imam Umar Din bin Adam ascend to the throne?
5ad0b422645df0001a2d00ea
True
1672
309
In what year did Aussa collapse?
5ad0b422645df0001a2d00eb
True
Denkel lowlands of Eritrea
75
What area was the Mudaito Dynasty based in?
5ad0b422645df0001a2d00ec
True
At the end of the 16th century, the Aussa Sultanate was established in the Denkel lowlands of Eritrea. The polity had come into existence in 1577, when Muhammed Jasa moved his capital from Harar to Aussa (Asaita) with the split of the Adal Sultanate into Aussa and the Sultanate of Harar. At some point after 1672, Aussa declined in conjunction with Imam Umar Din bin Adam's recorded ascension to the throne. In 1734, the Afar leader Kedafu, head of the Mudaito clan, seized power and established the Mudaito Dynasty. This marked the start of a new and more sophisticated polity that would last into the colonial period.
When did Emperor Yohannes II die?
570e39f50dc6ce1900204eaf
1889
32
False
What did Gen. Oreste Baratieri proclaim in the highlands along the Eritrean coast?
570e39f50dc6ce1900204eb0
the new colony of Italian Eritrea
179
False
What was the new colony of Italia Eritrea a colony of?
570e39f50dc6ce1900204eb1
the Kingdom of Italy
226
False
When was the Treaty of Wuchale signed?
570e39f50dc6ce1900204eb2
1889
32
False
What years was the Treaty of Wuchale formally binding?
570e39f50dc6ce1900204eb3
1889–1913
655
False
1889
32
In what year was Emperor Yohannes II born?
5ad0b621645df0001a2d011a
True
1889
32
In what year did King Menelik of Shewa first gain access to European arms and ammunition?
5ad0b621645df0001a2d011b
True
Eritrea
205
In what modern-day country is Wuchale?
5ad0b621645df0001a2d011c
True
Oreste Baratieri
72
Who was one of King Menelik of Shewa's rival kings?
5ad0b621645df0001a2d011d
True
Oreste Baratieri
72
Who signed the Treaty of Wuchale for Italy?
5ad0b621645df0001a2d011e
True
In the vacuum that followed the 1889 death of Emperor Yohannes II, Gen. Oreste Baratieri occupied the highlands along the Eritrean coast and Italy proclaimed the establishment of the new colony of Italian Eritrea, a colony of the Kingdom of Italy. In the Treaty of Wuchale (It. Uccialli) signed the same year, King Menelik of Shewa, a southern Ethiopian kingdom, recognized the Italian occupation of his rivals' lands of Bogos, Hamasien, Akkele Guzay, and Serae in exchange for guarantees of financial assistance and continuing access to European arms and ammunition. His subsequent victory over his rival kings and enthronement as Emperor Menelek II (r. 1889–1913) made the treaty formally binding upon the entire territory.
What did Emperor Haile Selassie seek to annex in the 1950's?
570e3b210b85d914000d7db3
Eritrea and Italian Somaliland
95
False
Who laid claim to Eritrea and Italian Somaliland in a letter to Franklin D. Roosevelt?
570e3b210b85d914000d7db4
Emperor Haile Selassie
56
False
Why did the British and Americans want to cede most of Eritrea to the Ethiopians?
570e3b210b85d914000d7db5
as a reward for their support during World War II
471
False
Who consistently requested that a referendum be held immediately to settle the question of Eritrean sovereignty?
570e3b210b85d914000d7db6
The Independence Bloc of Eritrean parties
522
False
Who did Ethiopians support in World War II?
570e3b210b85d914000d7db7
The British and Americans
366
False
1950s
7
In what decade did Haile Selassie become emperor of Ethiopia?
5ad0c01e645df0001a2d01bc
True
Ethiopians
460
What nation was part of the Independence Bloc of Eritrean parties?
5ad0c01e645df0001a2d01bd
True
The British
366
Who was Franklin D. Roosevelt the leader of?
5ad0c01e645df0001a2d01be
True
Paris
205
In what city was the First Session of the United Nations held?
5ad0c01e645df0001a2d01bf
True
Haile Selassie
64
Who was leading Italian Somaliland during this time after World War II?
5ad0c01e645df0001a2d01c0
True
In the 1950s, the Ethiopian feudal administration under Emperor Haile Selassie sought to annex Eritrea and Italian Somaliland. He laid claim to both territories in a letter to Franklin D. Roosevelt at the Paris Peace Conference and at the First Session of the United Nations. In the United Nations, the debate over the fate of the former Italian colonies continued. The British and Americans preferred to cede all of Eritrea except the Western province to the Ethiopians as a reward for their support during World War II. The Independence Bloc of Eritrean parties consistently requested from the UN General Assembly that a referendum be held immediately to settle the Eritrean question of sovereignty.
How is the Eritrean highway system named?
570e3c3d0dc6ce1900204ec3
according to the road classification
37
False
What are the three levels of road classification in Eritrea?
570e3c3d0dc6ce1900204ec4
primary (P), secondary (S), and tertiary (T)
115
False
What are T roads, the lowest level that typically serves local interests?
570e3c3d0dc6ce1900204ec5
improved earth roads which are occasionally paved
242
False
What are S roads, the mid-level that connects district capitals to regional capitals?
570e3c3d0dc6ce1900204ec6
single-layered asphalt road
423
False
What are P roads, those that carry traffic between all major towns in Eritrea?
570e3c3d0dc6ce1900204ec7
fully asphalted (throughout their entire length)
587
False
The Eritrean highway system is named according to the road classification. The three levels of classification are: primary (P), secondary (S), and tertiary (T). The lowest level road is tertiary and serves local interests. Typically they are improved earth roads which are occasionally paved. During the wet seasons these roads typically become impassable. The next higher level road is a secondary road and typically is a single-layered asphalt road that connects district capitals together and those to the regional capitals. Roads that are considered primary roads are those that are fully asphalted (throughout their entire length) and in general they carry traffic between all the major towns in Eritrea.
What percentage of Eritrea is estimated to adhere to Christianity?
570e3d930dc6ce1900204ecd
50%
31
False
What percentage of Eritrea is estimated to adhere to Islam?
570e3d930dc6ce1900204ece
48%
84
False
What do unrecognized faiths and denominations in Eritrea have to undergo?
570e3d930dc6ce1900204ecf
a registration process
591
False
What does the government's registration system require religious groups to submit about their membership?
570e3d930dc6ce1900204ed0
personal information
708
False
When did the Eritrean government begin to officially recognize certain churches?
570e3d930dc6ce1900204ed1
May 2002
302
False
2%
95
How many people followed animism according to the Pew Research Center?
5ad0d23a645df0001a2d051a
True
2%
95
According to recent estimates, how many people follow just animism in Eretria?
5ad0d23a645df0001a2d051b
True
50%
31
What percentage of people are in the Eritrean Catholic Church according to recent estimates?
5ad0d23a645df0001a2d051c
True
63%
242
As of May 2002 what percentage of Eritrean people were in the Evangelical Lutheran church?
5ad0d23a645df0001a2d051d
True
36%
274
What percentage of people attend the Eritrean Orthodox Tewahedo Church in recent years?
5ad0d23a645df0001a2d051e
True
According to recent estimates, 50% of the population adheres to Christianity, Islam 48%, while 2% of the population follows other religions including traditional African religion and animism. According to a study made by Pew Research Center, 63% adheres to Christianity and 36% adheres to Islam. Since May 2002, the government of Eritrea has officially recognized the Eritrean Orthodox Tewahedo Church (Oriental Orthodox), Sunni Islam, the Eritrean Catholic Church (a Metropolitanate sui juris) and the Evangelical Lutheran church. All other faiths and denominations are required to undergo a registration process. Among other things, the government's registration system requires religious groups to submit personal information on their membership to be allowed to worship.
What ages are officially compulsary for education in Eritrea?
570e3e440dc6ce1900204ed7
between seven and 13 years of age
46
False
What percentage of school-aged children are estimated to attend primary school?
570e3e440dc6ce1900204ed8
70%
228
False
What percentage of school-aged children are estimated to attend secondary school?
570e3e440dc6ce1900204ed9
61%
293
False
What is the student-teacher ratio in elementary schools?
570e3e440dc6ce1900204eda
45 to 1
355
False
What is the student-teacher ratio in secondary schools?
570e3e440dc6ce1900204edb
54 to 1
391
False
40%
804
What percentage of children between seven and 13 can read and write?
5ad0d4dc645df0001a2d0612
True
61%
293
What percentage of primary schools are open less than six hours per day?
5ad0d4dc645df0001a2d0613
True
70%
228
What percentage of elementary schools are open less than six hours per day?
5ad0d4dc645df0001a2d0614
True
40%
804
What percentage of elementary schools are open more than six hours per day?
5ad0d4dc645df0001a2d0615
True
70%
822
What percentage of primary schools are open more than six hours per day?
5ad0d4dc645df0001a2d0616
True
Education in Eritrea is officially compulsory between seven and 13 years of age. However, the education infrastructure is inadequate to meet current needs. Statistics vary at the elementary level, suggesting that between 65 and 70% of school-aged children attend primary school; Approximately 61% attend secondary school. Student-teacher ratios are high: 45 to 1 at the elementary level and 54 to 1 at the secondary level. There are an average 63 students per classroom at the elementary level and 97 per classroom at the secondary level. Learning hours at school are often less than six hours per day. Skill shortages are present at all levels of the education system, and funding for and access to education vary significantly by gender and location. Illiteracy estimates for Eritrea range from around 40% to as high as 70%.
What meat does a traditional Eritrean stew consist of?
570e3f550b85d914000d7dbd
beef, kid, lamb or fish
110
False
Which neighbor does Eritrean cuisine strongly resemble?
570e3f550b85d914000d7dbe
Ethiopia
201
False
Why does Eritrean cooking tend to feature more seafood than Ethiopian cuisine?
570e3f550b85d914000d7dbf
their coastal location
294
False
How does the texture of Eritrean dishes compare to Ethiopian meals?
570e3f550b85d914000d7dc0
lighter
355
False
What ingredients fo Eritreans tend to use less of than Ethiopians?
570e3f550b85d914000d7dc1
seasoned butter and spices
431
False
fish
129
What kind of food is injera?
5ad0d822645df0001a2d0678
True
beef
110
What protein is most popular in Ethiopia?
5ad0d822645df0001a2d0679
True
lamb
121
What protein is in tsebhi dorho in Eretria?
5ad0d822645df0001a2d067a
True
kid
116
What do most Ethiopians put in their spicy stew?
5ad0d822645df0001a2d067b
True
beef
110
What do most Ethiopians put in their tsebhi dorho?
5ad0d822645df0001a2d067c
True
A typical traditional Eritrean dish consists of injera accompanied by a spicy stew, which frequently includes beef, kid, lamb or fish. Overall, Eritrean cuisine strongly resembles those of neighboring Ethiopia, Eritrean cooking tend to feature more seafood than Ethiopian cuisine on account of their coastal location. Eritrean dishes are also frequently "lighter" in texture than Ethiopian meals. They likewise tend to employ less seasoned butter and spices and more tomatoes, as in the tsebhi dorho delicacy.
Uranium
What kind of uranium is sometimes used to shield radioactive materials in containers?
570e2d500b85d914000d7d09
Depleted
0
False
What is a strong source of radiation that is blocked by depleted uranium?
570e2d500b85d914000d7d0a
radium
263
False
How is depleted uranium used in missile re-entry vehicles?
570e2d500b85d914000d7d0b
ballast
359
False
What trait causes depleted uranium to be used in gyroscopic compasses?
570e2d500b85d914000d7d0c
high density
437
False
What type of alpha emitter is uranium?
570e2d500b85d914000d7d0d
weak
809
False
Depleted
0
What kind of uranium is always used to shield radioactive materials in containers?
5ad11464645df0001a2d0cb2
True
radium
263
What is a weak source of radiation that is blocked by depleted uranium?
5ad11464645df0001a2d0cb3
True
ballast
359
How is depleted uranium not used in missile re-entry vehicles?
5ad11464645df0001a2d0cb4
True
high density
437
What trait causes depleted uranium not to be used in gyroscopic compasses?
5ad11464645df0001a2d0cb5
True
weak
809
What type of beta emitter is uranium?
5ad11464645df0001a2d0cb6
True
Depleted uranium is also used as a shielding material in some containers used to store and transport radioactive materials. While the metal itself is radioactive, its high density makes it more effective than lead in halting radiation from strong sources such as radium. Other uses of depleted uranium include counterweights for aircraft control surfaces, as ballast for missile re-entry vehicles and as a shielding material. Due to its high density, this material is found in inertial guidance systems and in gyroscopic compasses. Depleted uranium is preferred over similarly dense metals due to its ability to be easily machined and cast as well as its relatively low cost. The main risk of exposure to depleted uranium is chemical poisoning by uranium oxide rather than radioactivity (uranium being only a weak alpha emitter).
What is another term for uranium ore?
570e2db80b85d914000d7d13
pitchblende
54
False
Who isolated radium in uranium ore?
570e2db80b85d914000d7d14
Marie Curie
70
False
In what types of paints was radium first used?
570e2db80b85d914000d7d15
glow-in-the-dark
170
False
What devices were painted with radium paint?
570e2db80b85d914000d7d16
clock and aircraft dials
198
False
Along with red, blue, black, yellow and green, what was a notable color of uranium tile glaze?
570e2db80b85d914000d7d17
mauve
634
False
pitchblende
54
What isn't another term for uranium ore?
5ad1157f645df0001a2d0cec
True
Marie Curie
70
Who isolated radium in uranium core?
5ad1157f645df0001a2d0ced
True
glow-in-the-dark
170
In what types of paints was radium last used?
5ad1157f645df0001a2d0cee
True
clock and aircraft dials
198
What devices weren't painted with radium paint?
5ad1157f645df0001a2d0cef
True
mauve
634
Along with red, blue, black, yellow and green, what wasn't a notable color of uranium tile glaze?
5ad1157f645df0001a2d0cf0
True
The discovery and isolation of radium in uranium ore (pitchblende) by Marie Curie sparked the development of uranium mining to extract the radium, which was used to make glow-in-the-dark paints for clock and aircraft dials. This left a prodigious quantity of uranium as a waste product, since it takes three tonnes of uranium to extract one gram of radium. This waste product was diverted to the glazing industry, making uranium glazes very inexpensive and abundant. Besides the pottery glazes, uranium tile glazes accounted for the bulk of the use, including common bathroom and kitchen tiles which can be produced in green, yellow, mauve, black, blue, red and other colors.
What was the world's first artificial nuclear reactor?
570e31ca0dc6ce1900204e69
Enrico Fermi's Chicago Pile
198
False
In what state is the X-10 Graphite Reactor located?
570e31ca0dc6ce1900204e6a
Tennessee
80
False
Along with the X-10 Pile, what was the X-10 Graphite Reactor previously known as?
570e31ca0dc6ce1900204e6b
the Clinton Pile
109
False
In what state is Argonne National Laboratory's Experimental Breeder Reactor I located?
570e31ca0dc6ce1900204e6c
Idaho
446
False
On what date did Breeder Reactor I first make electricity?
570e31ca0dc6ce1900204e6d
20 December 1951
511
False
Enrico Fermi's Chicago Pile
198
What was the world's last artificial nuclear reactor?
5ad119f0645df0001a2d0d7e
True
Tennessee
80
In what state is the X-01 Graphite Reactor located?
5ad119f0645df0001a2d0d7f
True
the Clinton Pile
109
Along with the X-10 Pile, what was the X-10 Graphite Reactor never known as?
5ad119f0645df0001a2d0d80
True
Idaho
446
In what state is Argonne National Laboratory's Experimental Breeder Reactor II located?
5ad119f0645df0001a2d0d81
True
20 December 1951
511
On what date did Breeder Reactor II first make electricity?
5ad119f0645df0001a2d0d82
True
The X-10 Graphite Reactor at Oak Ridge National Laboratory (ORNL) in Oak Ridge, Tennessee, formerly known as the Clinton Pile and X-10 Pile, was the world's second artificial nuclear reactor (after Enrico Fermi's Chicago Pile) and was the first reactor designed and built for continuous operation. Argonne National Laboratory's Experimental Breeder Reactor I, located at the Atomic Energy Commission's National Reactor Testing Station near Arco, Idaho, became the first nuclear reactor to create electricity on 20 December 1951. Initially, four 150-watt light bulbs were lit by the reactor, but improvements eventually enabled it to power the whole facility (later, the town of Arco became the first in the world to have all its electricity come from nuclear power generated by BORAX-III, another reactor designed and operated by Argonne National Laboratory). The world's first commercial scale nuclear power station, Obninsk in the Soviet Union, began generation with its reactor AM-1 on 27 June 1954. Other early nuclear power plants were Calder Hall in England, which began generation on 17 October 1956, and the Shippingport Atomic Power Station in Pennsylvania, which began on 26 May 1958. Nuclear power was used for the first time for propulsion by a submarine, the USS Nautilus, in 1954.
Where does uranium rank among elements in terms of its abundance in the Earth's crust?
570e32740b85d914000d7d31
51st
122
False
Where is uranium naturally formed?
570e32740b85d914000d7d32
in supernovae
438
False
Along with potassium-40 and uranium, the decay of what element is a primary heat source driving plate tectonics?
570e32740b85d914000d7d33
thorium
475
False
In what state is the Earth's outer core?
570e32740b85d914000d7d34
liquid
590
False
51st
122
Where does uranium rank among elements in terms of its abundance in the Earth's atmosphere?
5ad11b91645df0001a2d0dac
True
in supernovae
438
Where is uranium unnaturally formed?
5ad11b91645df0001a2d0dad
True
thorium
475
Along with potassium-40 and uranium, the decay of what element is a primary cooling source driving plate tectonics?
5ad11b91645df0001a2d0dae
True
liquid
590
In what state is the Earth's inner core?
5ad11b91645df0001a2d0daf
True
liquid
590
In what state is the Earth's middle core?
5ad11b91645df0001a2d0db0
True
Uranium is a naturally occurring element that can be found in low levels within all rock, soil, and water. Uranium is the 51st element in order of abundance in the Earth's crust. Uranium is also the highest-numbered element to be found naturally in significant quantities on Earth and is almost always found combined with other elements. Along with all elements having atomic weights higher than that of iron, it is only naturally formed in supernovae. The decay of uranium, thorium, and potassium-40 in the Earth's mantle is thought to be the main source of heat that keeps the outer core liquid and drives mantle convection, which in turn drives plate tectonics.
What isotope of uranium was the first to be found fissile?
570e33510dc6ce1900204e73
235
8
False
How many nuclei does uranium-235 usually divide into when bombarded with slow neutrons?
570e33510dc6ce1900204e74
two
226
False
When a nuclear chain reaction in uranium-235 doesn't result in a burst of heat, what does it result in?
570e33510dc6ce1900204e75
an explosion
464
False
What is used to slow a chain reaction in a nuclear reactor?
570e33510dc6ce1900204e76
neutron poison
552
False
What does a neutron poison absorb?
570e33510dc6ce1900204e77
free neutrons
590
False
235
8
What isotope of uranium was the last to be found fissile?
5ad11389645df0001a2d0c80
True
two
226
How many nuclei does uranium-245 usually divide into when bombarded with slow neutrons?
5ad11389645df0001a2d0c81
True
an explosion
464
When a nuclear chain reaction in uranium-245 doesn't result in a burst of heat, what does it result in?
5ad11389645df0001a2d0c82
True
neutron poison
552
What is used to speed a chain reaction in a nuclear reactor?
5ad11389645df0001a2d0c83
True
free neutrons
590
What does a neutron poison give off?
5ad11389645df0001a2d0c84
True
Uranium-235 was the first isotope that was found to be fissile. Other naturally occurring isotopes are fissionable, but not fissile. On bombardment with slow neutrons, its uranium-235 isotope will most of the time divide into two smaller nuclei, releasing nuclear binding energy and more neutrons. If too many of these neutrons are absorbed by other uranium-235 nuclei, a nuclear chain reaction occurs that results in a burst of heat or (in special circumstances) an explosion. In a nuclear reactor, such a chain reaction is slowed and controlled by a neutron poison, absorbing some of the free neutrons. Such neutron absorbent materials are often part of reactor control rods (see nuclear reactor physics for a description of this process of reactor control).
What type of complexes does uranium(VI) form in nature?
570e33de0b85d914000d7d43
carbonate
44
False
The presence of what substance at alkaline pH makes it difficult to precipitate uranium as phosphate?
570e33de0b85d914000d7d44
carbonate
308
False
What is BSAR-1 a strain of?
570e33de0b85d914000d7d45
Sphingomonas sp.
336
False
carbonate
44
What type of complexes does uranium(V) form in nature?
5ad11dd6645df0001a2d0e04
True
carbonate
44
What type of complexes does uranium(VI) not form in nature?
5ad11dd6645df0001a2d0e05
True
carbonate
308
The presence of what substance at alkaline pH makes it easy to precipitate uranium as phosphate?
5ad11dd6645df0001a2d0e06
True
Sphingomonas sp.
336
What is BSAR-2 a strain of?
5ad11dd6645df0001a2d0e07
True
Sphingomonas sp.
336
What is BSAR-1 not a strain of?
5ad11dd6645df0001a2d0e08
True
In nature, uranium(VI) forms highly soluble carbonate complexes at alkaline pH. This leads to an increase in mobility and availability of uranium to groundwater and soil from nuclear wastes which leads to health hazards. However, it is difficult to precipitate uranium as phosphate in the presence of excess carbonate at alkaline pH. A Sphingomonas sp. strain BSAR-1 has been found to express a high activity alkaline phosphatase (PhoK) that has been applied for bioprecipitation of uranium as uranyl phosphate species from alkaline solutions. The precipitation ability was enhanced by overexpressing PhoK protein in E. coli.
How much economically viable uranium is there in ore reserves, in millions of tonnes?
570e347a0b85d914000d7d49
5.5
21
False
How many millions of tonnes are uranium are regarded as mineral resources?
570e347a0b85d914000d7d4a
35
137
False
What was the price of uranium per pound as of May 2003?
570e347a0b85d914000d7d4b
$10
268
False
In 2005, how much money was spent on uranium exploration?
570e347a0b85d914000d7d4c
US$200 million
376
False
How much money was spent to explore for uranium in 2006?
570e347a0b85d914000d7d4d
$774 million
543
False
5.5
21
How much economically viable uranium is there in ore reserves, in billions of tonnes?
5ad11eda645df0001a2d0e3e
True
35
137
How many billions of tonnes are uranium are regarded as mineral resources?
5ad11eda645df0001a2d0e3f
True
$10
268
What was the price of uranium per kilo as of May 2003?
5ad11eda645df0001a2d0e40
True
US$200 million
376
In 2015, how much money was spent on uranium exploration?
5ad11eda645df0001a2d0e41
True
$774 million
543
How much money was spent to explore for uranium in 2016?
5ad11eda645df0001a2d0e42
True
It is estimated that 5.5 million tonnes of uranium exists in ore reserves that are economically viable at US$59 per lb of uranium, while 35 million tonnes are classed as mineral resources (reasonable prospects for eventual economic extraction). Prices went from about $10/lb in May 2003 to $138/lb in July 2007. This has caused a big increase in spending on exploration, with US$200 million being spent worldwide in 2005, a 54% increase on the previous year. This trend continued through 2006, when expenditure on exploration rocketed to over $774 million, an increase of over 250% compared to 2004. The OECD Nuclear Energy Agency said exploration figures for 2007 would likely match those for 2006.
When was it observed that bombarding uranium with neutrons results in beta ray emission?
570e35280b85d914000d7d5d
1934
30
False
Who led the team that discovered that bombarding uranium with neutrons created beta ray emissions?
570e35280b85d914000d7d5e
Enrico Fermi
14
False
What was the name given by Corbino to the incorrectly designated atomic number 94?
570e35280b85d914000d7d5f
hesperium
362
False
What was the job title of Orso Mario Corbino?
570e35280b85d914000d7d60
Dean of the Faculty of Rome
289
False
Who was the aunt of Otto Robert Frisch?
570e35280b85d914000d7d61
Lise Meitner
604
False
1934
30
When was it observed that bombarding uranium with neutrons results in gamma ray emission?
5ad1184a645df0001a2d0d46
True
Enrico Fermi
14
Who led the team that discovered that bombarding uranium with neutrons created gamma ray emissions?
5ad1184a645df0001a2d0d47
True
hesperium
362
What was the name given by Corbino to the incorrectly designated atomic number 194?
5ad1184a645df0001a2d0d48
True
Dean of the Faculty of Rome,
289
What wasn't the job title of Orso Mario Corbino?
5ad1184a645df0001a2d0d49
True
Lise Meitner
604
Who was the uncle of Otto Robert Frisch?
5ad1184a645df0001a2d0d4a
True
A team led by Enrico Fermi in 1934 observed that bombarding uranium with neutrons produces the emission of beta rays (electrons or positrons from the elements produced; see beta particle). The fission products were at first mistaken for new elements of atomic numbers 93 and 94, which the Dean of the Faculty of Rome, Orso Mario Corbino, christened ausonium and hesperium, respectively. The experiments leading to the discovery of uranium's ability to fission (break apart) into lighter elements and release binding energy were conducted by Otto Hahn and Fritz Strassmann in Hahn's laboratory in Berlin. Lise Meitner and her nephew, the physicist Otto Robert Frisch, published the physical explanation in February 1939 and named the process "nuclear fission". Soon after, Fermi hypothesized that the fission of uranium might release enough neutrons to sustain a fission reaction. Confirmation of this hypothesis came in 1939, and later work found that on average about 2.5 neutrons are released by each fission of the rare uranium isotope uranium-235. Further work found that the far more common uranium-238 isotope can be transmuted into plutonium, which, like uranium-235, is also fissile by thermal neutrons. These discoveries led numerous countries to begin working on the development of nuclear weapons and nuclear power.
In what medium does the Pourbaix diagram change when carbonate anions interact with uranium(VI)?
570e357f0b85d914000d7d67
carbonate containing solution
142
False
What notable carbonates are often water soluble?
570e357f0b85d914000d7d68
uranium
340
False
What does a uranium(VI) cation form when it binds to two terminal oxides and three or more carbonates?
570e357f0b85d914000d7d69
anionic complexes
491
False
carbonate containing solution
142
In what medium does the Pourbaix diagram change when carbonate anions interact with uranium(VII)?
5ad14b6e645df0001a2d1606
True
carbonate containing solution
142
In what medium does the Pourbaix diagram change when carbonite anions interact with uranium(VI)?
5ad14b6e645df0001a2d1607
True
uranium
340
What notable carbonates are unoften water soluble?
5ad14b6e645df0001a2d1608
True
anionic complexes
491
What does a uranium(VI) cation form when it binds to two terminal dioxides and three or more carbonates?
5ad14b6e645df0001a2d1609
True
anionic complexes
491
What does a uranium(VII) cation form when it binds to two terminal oxides and three or more carbonates?
5ad14b6e645df0001a2d160a
True
The interactions of carbonate anions with uranium(VI) cause the Pourbaix diagram to change greatly when the medium is changed from water to a carbonate containing solution. While the vast majority of carbonates are insoluble in water (students are often taught that all carbonates other than those of alkali metals are insoluble in water), uranium carbonates are often soluble in water. This is because a U(VI) cation is able to bind two terminal oxides and three or more carbonates to form anionic complexes.
Along with arsenic, what metal is roughly as abundant as uranium?
570e35d20b85d914000d7d6d
molybdenum
117
False
Along with silver, mercury, tin and cadmium, what metal is uranium more plentiful than?
570e35d20b85d914000d7d6e
antimony
31
False
What is the most prevalent uranium ore?
570e35d20b85d914000d7d6f
uraninite
181
False
What mineral sometimes contains uranium?
570e35d20b85d914000d7d70
lignite
399
False
What types of rocks sometimes contain uranium?
570e35d20b85d914000d7d71
phosphate
353
False
molybdenum
117
Along with arsenic, what metal is less abundant as uranium?
5ad11cee645df0001a2d0de6
True
antimony
31
Along with silver, mercury, tin and cadmium, what metal is uranium less plentiful than?
5ad11cee645df0001a2d0de7
True
uraninite
181
What is the least prevalent uranium ore?
5ad11cee645df0001a2d0de8
True
lignite
399
What mineral always contains uranium?
5ad11cee645df0001a2d0de9
True
phosphate
353
What types of rocks never contain uranium?
5ad11cee645df0001a2d0dea
True
Uranium is more plentiful than antimony, tin, cadmium, mercury, or silver, and it is about as abundant as arsenic or molybdenum. Uranium is found in hundreds of minerals, including uraninite (the most common uranium ore), carnotite, autunite, uranophane, torbernite, and coffinite. Significant concentrations of uranium occur in some substances such as phosphate rock deposits, and minerals such as lignite, and monazite sands in uranium-rich ores (it is recovered commercially from sources with as little as 0.1% uranium).
What is the least prevalent major isotope of natural uranium?
570e366b0b85d914000d7d77
uranium-234
115
False
What is the natural abundance of uranium-235?
570e366b0b85d914000d7d78
0.71%
103
False
What isotope of uranium is formed when 238U experiences spontaneous fission?
570e366b0b85d914000d7d79
uranium-239
373
False
When uranium isotope is formed from the decay of neptunium-237?
570e366b0b85d914000d7d7a
uranium-233
616
False
What isotope is it theorized will form uranium-2343 after double beta decay?
570e366b0b85d914000d7d7b
thorium-232
808
False
uranium-234
115
What is the least prevalent major isotope of unnatural uranium?
5ad14d18645df0001a2d1688
True
0.71%
103
What is the unnatural abundance of uranium-235?
5ad14d18645df0001a2d1689
True
uranium-239
373
What isotope of uranium is formed when 239U experiences spontaneous fission?
5ad14d18645df0001a2d168a
True
uranium-233
616
When uranium isotope is formed from the decay of neptunium-247?
5ad14d18645df0001a2d168b
True
thorium-232
808
What isotope is it theorized will form uranium-2343 after double alpha decay?
5ad14d18645df0001a2d168c
True
Natural uranium consists of three major isotopes: uranium-238 (99.28% natural abundance), uranium-235 (0.71%), and uranium-234 (0.0054%). All three are radioactive, emitting alpha particles, with the exception that all three of these isotopes have small probabilities of undergoing spontaneous fission, rather than alpha emission. There are also five other trace isotopes: uranium-239, which is formed when 238U undergoes spontaneous fission, releasing neutrons that are captured by another 238U atom; uranium-237, which is formed when 238U captures a neutron but emits two more, which then decays to neptunium-237; uranium-233, which is formed in the decay chain of that neptunium-237; and finally, uranium-236 and -240, which appear in the decay chain of primordial plutonium-244. It is also expected that thorium-232 should be able to undergo double beta decay, which would produce uranium-232, but this has not yet been observed experimentally.
About how many tonnes of uranium is theorized to be present in the sea?
570e36e30dc6ce1900204e7d
4.6 billion
14
False
The presence of what substance in sea water has resulted in low yields when attempting to extract uranium?
570e36e30dc6ce1900204e7e
carbonate
309
False
What did ORNL call their material that performs surface retention on solid molecules?
570e36e30dc6ce1900204e7f
HiCap
439
False
Where were ORNL's results verified?
570e36e30dc6ce1900204e80
Pacific Northwest National Laboratory
621
False
When was HiCap announced?
570e36e30dc6ce1900204e81
2012
344
False
4.6 billion
14
About how many tonnes of uranium is theorized to be absent in the sea?
5ad11f4a645df0001a2d0e48
True
carbonate
309
The presence of what substance in fresh water has resulted in low yields when attempting to extract uranium?
5ad11f4a645df0001a2d0e49
True
HiCap
439
What did ORNL call their material that performs surface retention on liquid molecules?
5ad11f4a645df0001a2d0e4a
True
Pacific Northwest National Laboratory
621
Where were ORNL's results unverified?
5ad11f4a645df0001a2d0e4b
True
2012
344
When wasn't HiCap announced?
5ad11f4a645df0001a2d0e4c
True
An additional 4.6 billion tonnes of uranium are estimated to be in sea water (Japanese scientists in the 1980s showed that extraction of uranium from sea water using ion exchangers was technically feasible). There have been experiments to extract uranium from sea water, but the yield has been low due to the carbonate present in the water. In 2012, ORNL researchers announced the successful development of a new absorbent material dubbed HiCap which performs surface retention of solid or gas molecules, atoms or ions and also effectively removes toxic metals from water, according to results verified by researchers at Pacific Northwest National Laboratory.
What is the sole fissile isotope that occurs in nature?
570e37590dc6ce1900204e87
Uranium-235
73
False
What can be turned into plutonium-239 in a nuclear reactor?
570e37590dc6ce1900204e88
Uranium-238
160
False
What uranium isotope is produced from thorium?
570e37590dc6ce1900204e89
uranium-233
322
False
Along with uranium-235, what isotope is noted for having a high fission cross-section for slow neutrons?
570e37590dc6ce1900204e8a
uranium-233
562
False
What is 238U?
570e37590dc6ce1900204e8b
Depleted uranium
829
False
Uranium-235
73
What is the sole fissile isotope that occurs out of nature?
5ad1120d645df0001a2d0c12
True
Uranium-238
160
What can't be turned into plutonium-239 in a nuclear reactor?
5ad1120d645df0001a2d0c13
True
uranium-233
322
What uranium isotope is produced into thorium?
5ad1120d645df0001a2d0c14
True
uranium-233
562
Along with uranium-235, what isotope is noted for having a low fission cross-section for slow neutrons?
5ad1120d645df0001a2d0c15
True
Depleted uranium
829
What is 239U?
5ad1120d645df0001a2d0c16
True
Many contemporary uses of uranium exploit its unique nuclear properties. Uranium-235 has the distinction of being the only naturally occurring fissile isotope. Uranium-238 is fissionable by fast neutrons, and is fertile, meaning it can be transmuted to fissile plutonium-239 in a nuclear reactor. Another fissile isotope, uranium-233, can be produced from natural thorium and is also important in nuclear technology. While uranium-238 has a small probability for spontaneous fission or even induced fission with fast neutrons, uranium-235 and to a lesser degree uranium-233 have a much higher fission cross-section for slow neutrons. In sufficient concentration, these isotopes maintain a sustained nuclear chain reaction. This generates the heat in nuclear power reactors, and produces the fissile material for nuclear weapons. Depleted uranium (238U) is used in kinetic energy penetrators and armor plating.
What is OSHA?
570e37d60b85d914000d7d8b
Occupational Safety and Health Administration
756
False
What is the OSHA uranium exposure limit for an 8-hour workday?
570e37d60b85d914000d7d8c
0.25 mg/m3
889
False
What does REL stand for?
570e37d60b85d914000d7d8d
recommended exposure limit
1000
False
What is the NIOSH uranium exposure standard over an 8-hour workday?
570e37d60b85d914000d7d8e
0.2 mg/m3
1036
False
At what level of exposure does uranium become imminently dangerous to health?
570e37d60b85d914000d7d8f
10 mg/m3
1119
False
Occupational Safety and Health Administration
756
What is OHSA?
5ad15364645df0001a2d1782
True
0.25 mg/m3
889
What is the OSHA uranium exposure limit for an 9-hour workday?
5ad15364645df0001a2d1783
True
recommended exposure limit
1000
What doesn't REL stand for?
5ad15364645df0001a2d1784
True
0.2 mg/m3
1036
What is the NIOSH plutonium exposure standard over an 8-hour workday?
5ad15364645df0001a2d1785
True
10 mg/m3
1119
At what level of exposure doesn't uranium become imminently dangerous to health?
5ad15364645df0001a2d1786
True
A person can be exposed to uranium (or its radioactive daughters, such as radon) by inhaling dust in air or by ingesting contaminated water and food. The amount of uranium in air is usually very small; however, people who work in factories that process phosphate fertilizers, live near government facilities that made or tested nuclear weapons, live or work near a modern battlefield where depleted uranium weapons have been used, or live or work near a coal-fired power plant, facilities that mine or process uranium ore, or enrich uranium for reactor fuel, may have increased exposure to uranium. Houses or structures that are over uranium deposits (either natural or man-made slag deposits) may have an increased incidence of exposure to radon gas. The Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) has set the permissible exposure limit for uranium exposure in the workplace as 0.25 mg/m3 over an 8-hour workday. The National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH) has set a recommended exposure limit (REL) of 0.2 mg/m3 over an 8-hour workday and a short-term limit of 0.6 mg/m3. At levels of 10 mg/m3, uranium is immediately dangerous to life and health.
Along with UO2, what is the commonest form of uranium oxide?
570e386c0dc6ce1900204e9b
triuranium octoxide
43
False
What is the stablest uranium compound?
570e386c0dc6ce1900204e9c
Triuranium octoxide
217
False
In what form is uranium most often used as fuel for nuclear reactors?
570e386c0dc6ce1900204e9d
Uranium dioxide
349
False
triuranium octoxide
43
Along with UO2, what is the least commonest form of uranium oxide?
5ad14aa7645df0001a2d15b2
True
Triuranium octoxide
217
What is the least stable uranium compound?
5ad14aa7645df0001a2d15b3
True
Uranium dioxide
349
In what form is uranium least often used as fuel for nuclear reactors?
5ad14aa7645df0001a2d15b4
True
The most common forms of uranium oxide are triuranium octoxide (U 3O 8) and UO 2. Both oxide forms are solids that have low solubility in water and are relatively stable over a wide range of environmental conditions. Triuranium octoxide is (depending on conditions) the most stable compound of uranium and is the form most commonly found in nature. Uranium dioxide is the form in which uranium is most commonly used as a nuclear reactor fuel. At ambient temperatures, UO 2 will gradually convert to U 3O 8. Because of their stability, uranium oxides are generally considered the preferred chemical form for storage or disposal.
What was the earliest year in recorded history that uranium oxide was used?
570e38eb0dc6ce1900204ea5
79 CE
77
False
What color of ceramic glaze was extracted from uranium oxide?
570e38eb0dc6ce1900204ea6
yellow
110
False
In what county was glass with uranium oxide content found?
570e38eb0dc6ce1900204ea7
Italy
244
False
In what year was yellow uranium oxide glass discovered?
570e38eb0dc6ce1900204ea8
1912
299
False
What institution did R.T. Gunther belong to?
570e38eb0dc6ce1900204ea9
the University of Oxford
271
False
79 CE
77
What was the latest year in recorded history that uranium oxide was used?
5ad1167a645df0001a2d0d14
True
yellow
110
What color of ceramic glaze was subtracted from uranium oxide?
5ad1167a645df0001a2d0d15
True
Italy
244
In what county was glass with uranium dioxide content found?
5ad1167a645df0001a2d0d16
True
1912
299
In what year was yellow uranium oxide glass undiscovered?
5ad1167a645df0001a2d0d17
True
University of Oxford
275
What institution did T.T. Gunther belong to?
5ad1167a645df0001a2d0d18
True
The use of uranium in its natural oxide form dates back to at least the year 79 CE, when it was used to add a yellow color to ceramic glazes. Yellow glass with 1% uranium oxide was found in a Roman villa on Cape Posillipo in the Bay of Naples, Italy, by R. T. Gunther of the University of Oxford in 1912. Starting in the late Middle Ages, pitchblende was extracted from the Habsburg silver mines in Joachimsthal, Bohemia (now Jáchymov in the Czech Republic), and was used as a coloring agent in the local glassmaking industry. In the early 19th century, the world's only known sources of uranium ore were these mines.
What was the first self-sustained nuclear chain reaction created by human beings called?
570e39580b85d914000d7d9f
Chicago Pile-1
168
False
On what date was the first self-sustained nuclear chain reaction created artificially?
570e39580b85d914000d7da0
2 December 1942
3
False
What project was Fermi working for?
570e39580b85d914000d7da1
Manhattan
35
False
On the campus of what educational institution was Chicago Pile-1 created?
570e39580b85d914000d7da2
University of Chicago
240
False
How many metric tons of uranium oxide was used in Chicago Pile-1?
570e39580b85d914000d7da3
53
402
False
Chicago Pile-1
168
What was the last self-sustained nuclear chain reaction created by human beings called?
5ad118da645df0001a2d0d50
True
2 December 1942
3
On what date was the last self-sustained nuclear chain reaction created artificially?
5ad118da645df0001a2d0d51
True
Manhattan Project
35
What project wasn't Fermi working for?
5ad118da645df0001a2d0d52
True
University of Chicago
240
On the campus of what educational institution was Chicago Pile-11 created?
5ad118da645df0001a2d0d53
True
53
402
How many metric tons of uranium oxide was used in Chicago Pile-21?
5ad118da645df0001a2d0d54
True
On 2 December 1942, as part of the Manhattan Project, another team led by Enrico Fermi was able to initiate the first artificial self-sustained nuclear chain reaction, Chicago Pile-1. Working in a lab below the stands of Stagg Field at the University of Chicago, the team created the conditions needed for such a reaction by piling together 400 short tons (360 metric tons) of graphite, 58 short tons (53 metric tons) of uranium oxide, and six short tons (5.5 metric tons) of uranium metal, a majority of which was supplied by Westinghouse Lamp Plant in a makeshift production process.
Along with lemon yellow, what color is produced in uranium glass?
570e39bc0b85d914000d7da9
orange-red
57
False
Who discovered uranium in pitchblende?
570e39bc0b85d914000d7daa
Martin Heinrich Klaproth
225
False
Who was responsible for first isolating uranium?
570e39bc0b85d914000d7dab
Eugène-Melchior Péligot
302
False
Who discovered that uranium was radioactive?
570e39bc0b85d914000d7dac
Henri Becquerel
426
False
What was the first nuclear weapon used in a war called?
570e39bc0b85d914000d7dad
Little Boy
614
False
orange-red
57
Along with lemon yellow, what color is produced in uranium plastic?
5ad112ae645df0001a2d0c3a
True
Martin Heinrich Klaproth
225
Who never discovered uranium in pitchblende?
5ad112ae645df0001a2d0c3b
True
Eugène-Melchior Péligot
302
Who was responsible for last isolating uranium?
5ad112ae645df0001a2d0c3c
True
Henri Becquerel
426
Who discovered that uranium wasn't radioactive?
5ad112ae645df0001a2d0c3d
True
Little Boy
614
What was the last nuclear weapon used in a war called?
5ad112ae645df0001a2d0c3e
True
Uranium is used as a colorant in uranium glass producing orange-red to lemon yellow hues. It was also used for tinting and shading in early photography. The 1789 discovery of uranium in the mineral pitchblende is credited to Martin Heinrich Klaproth, who named the new element after the planet Uranus. Eugène-Melchior Péligot was the first person to isolate the metal and its radioactive properties were discovered in 1896 by Henri Becquerel. Research by Otto Hahn, Lise Meitner, Enrico Fermi and others, such as J. Robert Oppenheimer starting in 1934 led to its use as a fuel in the nuclear power industry and in Little Boy, the first nuclear weapon used in war. An ensuing arms race during the Cold War between the United States and the Soviet Union produced tens of thousands of nuclear weapons that used uranium metal and uranium-derived plutonium-239. The security of those weapons and their fissile material following the breakup of the Soviet Union in 1991 is an ongoing concern for public health and safety. See Nuclear proliferation.
What percentage of uranium in nature is uranium-235?
570e3a8a0dc6ce1900204eb9
0.7204%
71
False
What is the most prevalent natural isotope of uranium?
570e3a8a0dc6ce1900204eba
uranium-238
31
False
What is the term for the amount of uranium-235 needed to sustain a nuclear chain reaction?
570e3a8a0dc6ce1900204ebb
critical mass
486
False
What percentage of natural uranium is isotope 238?
570e3a8a0dc6ce1900204ebc
99.2742%
44
False
Along with gas cooled reactors, what type of reactor doesn't use uranium-235?
570e3a8a0dc6ce1900204ebd
pressurised heavy water
238
False
0.7204%
71
What percentage of uranium in nature is uranium-335?
5ad14ea1645df0001a2d16e8
True
uranium-238
31
What is the most prevalent unnatural isotope of uranium?
5ad14ea1645df0001a2d16e9
True
critical mass
486
What is the term for the amount of uranium-335 needed to sustain a nuclear chain reaction?
5ad14ea1645df0001a2d16ea
True
99.2742%
44
What percentage of unnatural uranium is isotope 238?
5ad14ea1645df0001a2d16eb
True
pressurised heavy water
238
Along with gas heated reactors, what type of reactor doesn't use uranium-235?
5ad14ea1645df0001a2d16ec
True
In nature, uranium is found as uranium-238 (99.2742%) and uranium-235 (0.7204%). Isotope separation concentrates (enriches) the fissionable uranium-235 for nuclear weapons and most nuclear power plants, except for gas cooled reactors and pressurised heavy water reactors. Most neutrons released by a fissioning atom of uranium-235 must impact other uranium-235 atoms to sustain the nuclear chain reaction. The concentration and amount of uranium-235 needed to achieve this is called a 'critical mass'.
What is uranium used for most often in the military?
570e432f0dc6ce1900204ee1
high-density penetrators
62
False
What percentage of high-density penetrators is not made up of depleted uranium?
570e432f0dc6ce1900204ee2
1–2%
151
False
Along with titanium, what element often makes up the portion of high-density penetrators not made of depleted uranium?
570e432f0dc6ce1900204ee3
molybdenum
192
False
Along with the Balkans, in what geographical location did a war take place where the UK used depleted uranium munitions?
570e432f0dc6ce1900204ee4
Persian Gulf
596
False
What illness is possibly tied to the use of depleted uranium munitions?
570e432f0dc6ce1900204ee5
Gulf War Syndrome
693
False
high-density penetrators
62
What is uranium used for least often in the military?
5ad113dc645df0001a2d0c8a
True
1–2%
151
What percentage of low-density penetrators is not made up of depleted uranium?
5ad113dc645df0001a2d0c8b
True
molybdenum
192
Along with titanium, what element rarely makes up the portion of high-density penetrators not made of depleted uranium?
5ad113dc645df0001a2d0c8c
True
Persian Gulf
596
Along with the Balkans, in what geographical location did a war take place where the UN used depleted uranium munitions?
5ad113dc645df0001a2d0c8d
True
Gulf War Syndrome
693
What illness is definitely tied to the use of depleted uranium munitions?
5ad113dc645df0001a2d0c8e
True
The major application of uranium in the military sector is in high-density penetrators. This ammunition consists of depleted uranium (DU) alloyed with 1–2% other elements, such as titanium or molybdenum. At high impact speed, the density, hardness, and pyrophoricity of the projectile enable the destruction of heavily armored targets. Tank armor and other removable vehicle armor can also be hardened with depleted uranium plates. The use of depleted uranium became politically and environmentally contentious after the use of such munitions by the US, UK and other countries during wars in the Persian Gulf and the Balkans raised questions concerning uranium compounds left in the soil (see Gulf War Syndrome).
Who discovered uranium?
570e437d0dc6ce1900204eeb
Martin Heinrich Klaproth
63
False
In what city was uranium discovered?
570e437d0dc6ce1900204eec
Berlin
144
False
In what year did the discovery of uranium occur?
570e437d0dc6ce1900204eed
1789
154
False
What did Klaproth probably create when he dissolved pitchblende in nitric acid?
570e437d0dc6ce1900204eee
sodium diuranate
219
False
Who discovered the planet Uranus?
570e437d0dc6ce1900204eef
William Herschel
733
False
Martin Heinrich Klaproth
63
Who discovered plutonium?
5ad1171b645df0001a2d0d28
True
Berlin
144
n what city wasn't uranium discovered?
5ad1171b645df0001a2d0d29
True
1789
154
In what year didn't the discovery of uranium occur?
5ad1171b645df0001a2d0d2a
True
sodium diuranate
219
What did Klaproth definitely create when he dissolved pitchblende in nitric acid?
5ad1171b645df0001a2d0d2b
True
William Herschel.
733
Who never discovered the planet Uranus?
5ad1171b645df0001a2d0d2c
True
The discovery of the element is credited to the German chemist Martin Heinrich Klaproth. While he was working in his experimental laboratory in Berlin in 1789, Klaproth was able to precipitate a yellow compound (likely sodium diuranate) by dissolving pitchblende in nitric acid and neutralizing the solution with sodium hydroxide. Klaproth assumed the yellow substance was the oxide of a yet-undiscovered element and heated it with charcoal to obtain a black powder, which he thought was the newly discovered metal itself (in fact, that powder was an oxide of uranium). He named the newly discovered element after the planet Uranus, (named after the primordial Greek god of the sky), which had been discovered eight years earlier by William Herschel.
What percentage range of uranium oxide is usually contained in low-grade uranium ore?
570e43e60dc6ce1900204ef5
0.01 to 0.25%
171
False
Along with underground, open pit and in-situ leaching, what sort of mining is used to mine uranium?
570e43e60dc6ce1900204ef6
borehole
86
False
In what country are high-grade uranium ores notably found?
570e43e60dc6ce1900204ef7
Canada
339
False
In what province of Canada is the Athabasca Basin?
570e43e60dc6ce1900204ef8
Saskatchewan
325
False
What is the average percentage of uranium oxide contained in the ores mined in the Athabasca Basin?
570e43e60dc6ce1900204ef9
23%
364
False
0.01 to 0.25%
171
What percentage range of uranium dioxide is usually contained in low-grade uranium ore?
5ad11e5a645df0001a2d0e20
True
borehole
86
Along with underground, open pit and in-situ leaching, what sort of mining is used to expel uranium?
5ad11e5a645df0001a2d0e21
True
Canada
339
In what country are high-grade uranium ores not found?
5ad11e5a645df0001a2d0e22
True
Saskatchewan
325
In what state of Canada is the Athabasca Basin?
5ad11e5a645df0001a2d0e23
True
23%
364
What is the average percentage of uranium dioxide contained in the ores mined in the Athabasca Basin?
5ad11e5a645df0001a2d0e24
True
Uranium ore is mined in several ways: by open pit, underground, in-situ leaching, and borehole mining (see uranium mining). Low-grade uranium ore mined typically contains 0.01 to 0.25% uranium oxides. Extensive measures must be employed to extract the metal from its ore. High-grade ores found in Athabasca Basin deposits in Saskatchewan, Canada can contain up to 23% uranium oxides on average. Uranium ore is crushed and rendered into a fine powder and then leached with either an acid or alkali. The leachate is subjected to one of several sequences of precipitation, solvent extraction, and ion exchange. The resulting mixture, called yellowcake, contains at least 75% uranium oxides U3O8. Yellowcake is then calcined to remove impurities from the milling process before refining and conversion.
What was the uranium-based bomb made by the US in World War II called?
570e44ec0b85d914000d7dc7
Little Boy
124
False
What was the codename of the plutonium-based bomb created in the Second World War?
570e44ec0b85d914000d7dc8
Fat Man
241
False
On what date was Little Boy detonated?
570e44ec0b85d914000d7dc9
6 August 1945
438
False
What was the equivalent yield in TNT of the Little Boy bomb, in tonnes?
570e44ec0b85d914000d7dca
12,500
490
False
Over what city was Little Boy detonated?
570e44ec0b85d914000d7dcb
Hiroshima
425
False
Little Boy
124
What was the uranium-based bomb made by the US in World War I called?
5ad11963645df0001a2d0d62
True
Fat Man
241
What was the codename of the plutonium-based bomb destroyed in the Second World War?
5ad11963645df0001a2d0d63
True
6 August 1945
438
On what date wasn't Little Boy detonated?
5ad11963645df0001a2d0d64
True
12,500
490
What was the equivalent yield in TNT of the Little Boy bomb, in pounds?
5ad11963645df0001a2d0d65
True
Hiroshima
425
Over what city wasn't Little Boy detonated?
5ad11963645df0001a2d0d66
True
Two major types of atomic bombs were developed by the United States during World War II: a uranium-based device (codenamed "Little Boy") whose fissile material was highly enriched uranium, and a plutonium-based device (see Trinity test and "Fat Man") whose plutonium was derived from uranium-238. The uranium-based Little Boy device became the first nuclear weapon used in war when it was detonated over the Japanese city of Hiroshima on 6 August 1945. Exploding with a yield equivalent to 12,500 tonnes of TNT, the blast and thermal wave of the bomb destroyed nearly 50,000 buildings and killed approximately 75,000 people (see Atomic bombings of Hiroshima and Nagasaki). Initially it was believed that uranium was relatively rare, and that nuclear proliferation could be avoided by simply buying up all known uranium stocks, but within a decade large deposits of it were discovered in many places around the world.
As of 2005, what country was the largest producer of uranium oxides?
570e45630b85d914000d7dd1
Canada
72
False
What percentage of world uranium oxide production is produced by Argentina?
570e45630b85d914000d7dd2
2.1%
282
False
What country produced 5.5% of the world's concentrated uranium oxide in 2005?
570e45630b85d914000d7dd3
Uzbekistan
226
False
How many tonnes of uranium was Australia expected to produce in 2009?
570e45630b85d914000d7dd4
9,430
567
False
How many countries produced concentrated uranium oxides in 2005?
570e45630b85d914000d7dd5
seventeen
9
False
Canada
72
As of 2015, what country was the largest producer of uranium oxides?
5ad149ab645df0001a2d158a
True
2.1%
282
What percentage of world uranium oxide production isn't produced by Argentina?
5ad149ab645df0001a2d158b
True
Uzbekistan
226
What country produced 5.5% of the world's concentrated uranium oxide in 2015?
5ad149ab645df0001a2d158c
True
9,430
567
How many pounds of uranium was Australia expected to produce in 2009?
5ad149ab645df0001a2d158d
True
seventeen
9
How many countries produced concentrated uranium oxides in 2015?
5ad149ab645df0001a2d158e
True
In 2005, seventeen countries produced concentrated uranium oxides, with Canada (27.9% of world production) and Australia (22.8%) being the largest producers and Kazakhstan (10.5%), Russia (8.0%), Namibia (7.5%), Niger (7.4%), Uzbekistan (5.5%), the United States (2.5%), Argentina (2.1%), Ukraine (1.9%) and China (1.7%) also producing significant amounts. Kazakhstan continues to increase production and may have become the world's largest producer of uranium by 2009 with an expected production of 12,826 tonnes, compared to Canada with 11,100 t and Australia with 9,430 t. In the late 1960s, UN geologists also discovered major uranium deposits and other rare mineral reserves in Somalia. The find was the largest of its kind, with industry experts estimating the deposits at over 25% of the world's then known uranium reserves of 800,000 tons.
Who was the Soviet Union's opponent in the Cold War?
570e45fe0b85d914000d7ddb
United States
53
False
How many nuclear warheads can be made with 540 metric tons of highly enriched weapons grade uranium?
570e45fe0b85d914000d7ddc
40,000
369
False
What was the expenditure of the Material Protection, Control, and Accounting Program between 1993 and 2005?
570e45fe0b85d914000d7ddd
US $550 million
870
False
What is another term for uranium that is enriched?
570e45fe0b85d914000d7dde
weapons grade
1301
False
Approximately how many times did police capture shipments of bomb-grade plutonium or uranium between 1993 and 2005?
570e45fe0b85d914000d7ddf
16
572
False
United States
53
Who was the Soviet Union's ally in the Cold War?
5ad11ad3645df0001a2d0d92
True
40,000
369
How many nuclear warheads can be made with 450 metric tons of highly enriched weapons grade uranium?
5ad11ad3645df0001a2d0d93
True
US $550 million
870
What was the expenditure of the Material Protection, Control, and Accounting Program between 1995 and 2005?
5ad11ad3645df0001a2d0d94
True
weapons grade
1301
What is another term for uranium that is not enriched?
5ad11ad3645df0001a2d0d95
True
16
572
Approximately how many times did police capture shipments of bomb-grade plutonium or uranium between 1993 and 2003?
5ad11ad3645df0001a2d0d96
True
During the Cold War between the Soviet Union and the United States, huge stockpiles of uranium were amassed and tens of thousands of nuclear weapons were created using enriched uranium and plutonium made from uranium. Since the break-up of the Soviet Union in 1991, an estimated 600 short tons (540 metric tons) of highly enriched weapons grade uranium (enough to make 40,000 nuclear warheads) have been stored in often inadequately guarded facilities in the Russian Federation and several other former Soviet states. Police in Asia, Europe, and South America on at least 16 occasions from 1993 to 2005 have intercepted shipments of smuggled bomb-grade uranium or plutonium, most of which was from ex-Soviet sources. From 1993 to 2005 the Material Protection, Control, and Accounting Program, operated by the federal government of the United States, spent approximately US $550 million to help safeguard uranium and plutonium stockpiles in Russia. This money was used for improvements and security enhancements at research and storage facilities. Scientific American reported in February 2006 that in some of the facilities security consisted of chain link fences which were in severe states of disrepair. According to an interview from the article, one facility had been storing samples of enriched (weapons grade) uranium in a broom closet before the improvement project; another had been keeping track of its stock of nuclear warheads using index cards kept in a shoe box.
What is the color of U4+?
570e469c0dc6ce1900204eff
green
155
False
What state is represented by the UO2+ 2 ion?
570e469c0dc6ce1900204f01
uranium(VI)
549
False
Along with uranyl sulfate and uranyl chloride, what compound is formed by the UO2+ 2 ion?
570e469c0dc6ce1900204f02
uranyl carbonate
606
False
What common complex is formed by the UO2+ 2 ion with organic chelating agents?
570e469c0dc6ce1900204f03
uranyl acetate
769
False
green
155
What is the color of U4-?
5ad14b13645df0001a2d15d6
True
uranium(VI)
549
What state isn't represented by the UO2+ 2 ion?
5ad14b13645df0001a2d15d8
True
uranyl carbonate
606
Along with uranyl sulfate and uranyl chloride, what compound isn't formed by the UO2+ 2 ion?
5ad14b13645df0001a2d15d9
True
uranyl acetate
769
What uncommon complex is formed by the UO2+ 2 ion with organic chelating agents?
5ad14b13645df0001a2d15da
True
Salts of many oxidation states of uranium are water-soluble and may be studied in aqueous solutions. The most common ionic forms are U3+ (brown-red), U4+ (green), UO+ 2 (unstable), and UO2+ 2 (yellow), for U(III), U(IV), U(V), and U(VI), respectively. A few solid and semi-metallic compounds such as UO and US exist for the formal oxidation state uranium(II), but no simple ions are known to exist in solution for that state. Ions of U3+ liberate hydrogen from water and are therefore considered to be highly unstable. The UO2+ 2 ion represents the uranium(VI) state and is known to form compounds such as uranyl carbonate, uranyl chloride and uranyl sulfate. UO2+ 2 also forms complexes with various organic chelating agents, the most commonly encountered of which is uranyl acetate.
What microorganism can notably absorb a very high concentrate of uranium?
570e47250dc6ce1900204f09
Citrobacter
93
False
What lichen is known to absorb a uranium concentration nearly 300 times higher than the amount in the environment?
570e47250dc6ce1900204f0a
Trapelia involuta
35
False
What is given to Citrobacter to cause it to absorb uranyl ions?
570e47250dc6ce1900204f0b
glycerol phosphate
250
False
What protobacterium notably bioremediates ground water uranium?
570e47250dc6ce1900204f0c
Geobacter
556
False
What fungus is known to cause uranium content in its symbiotic plant roots to increase?
570e47250dc6ce1900204f0d
Glomus intraradices
650
False
Citrobacter
93
What macroorganism can notably absorb a very high concentrate of uranium?
5ad11d6a645df0001a2d0dfa
True
Trapelia involuta
35
What lichen is known to absorb a uranium concentration nearly 400 times higher than the amount in the environment?
5ad11d6a645df0001a2d0dfb
True
glycerol phosphate
250
What is taken from Citrobacter to cause it to absorb uranyl ions?
5ad11d6a645df0001a2d0dfc
True
Geobacter
556
What protobacterium never bioremediates ground water uranium?
5ad11d6a645df0001a2d0dfd
True
Glomus intraradices
650
What fungus is known to cause uranium content in its symbiotic plant roots to decrease?
5ad11d6a645df0001a2d0dfe
True
Some organisms, such as the lichen Trapelia involuta or microorganisms such as the bacterium Citrobacter, can absorb concentrations of uranium that are up to 300 times the level of their environment. Citrobacter species absorb uranyl ions when given glycerol phosphate (or other similar organic phosphates). After one day, one gram of bacteria can encrust themselves with nine grams of uranyl phosphate crystals; this creates the possibility that these organisms could be used in bioremediation to decontaminate uranium-polluted water. The proteobacterium Geobacter has also been shown to bioremediate uranium in ground water. The mycorrhizal fungus Glomus intraradices increases uranium content in the roots of its symbiotic plant.
At what temperature range in degrees Fahrenheit will uranium metal form uranium hydride?
570e48100b85d914000d7de5
482 to 572
39
False
What does uranium metal react with to create uranium hydride?
570e48100b85d914000d7de6
hydrogen
66
False
Above what temperature is the β form of uranium hydride created?
570e48100b85d914000d7de7
250 °C
498
False
Along with uranium carbide and halide, what type of compound is often created with uranium hydride?
570e48100b85d914000d7de8
nitride
299
False
How many crystal modifications of uranium hydride are extant?
570e48100b85d914000d7de9
Two
330
False
482 to 572 °F
39
At what temperature range in degrees Fahrenheit won't uranium metal form uranium hydride?
5ad14c01645df0001a2d162e
True
hydrogen
66
What doesn't uranium metal react with to create uranium hydride?
5ad14c01645df0001a2d162f
True
250 °C
498
Above what temperature is the β form of uranium hydride destroyed?
5ad14c01645df0001a2d1630
True
nitride
299
Along with uranium carbide and halide, what type of compound is often destroyed with uranium hydride?
5ad14c01645df0001a2d1631
True
Two
330
How many crystal modifications of plutonium hydride are extant?
5ad14c01645df0001a2d1632
True
Uranium metal heated to 250 to 300 °C (482 to 572 °F) reacts with hydrogen to form uranium hydride. Even higher temperatures will reversibly remove the hydrogen. This property makes uranium hydrides convenient starting materials to create reactive uranium powder along with various uranium carbide, nitride, and halide compounds. Two crystal modifications of uranium hydride exist: an α form that is obtained at low temperatures and a β form that is created when the formation temperature is above 250 °C.
Along with uranium monocarbide and uranium dicarbide, what is a notable carbide of uranium?
570e489e0b85d914000d7df0
diuranium tricarbide
264
False
Below what temperature is U2C3 stable?
570e489e0b85d914000d7df2
1800 °C
437
False
diuranium tricarbide
264
Along with uranium monocarbide and uranium dicarbide, what is a unnotable carbide of uranium?
5ad14c7f645df0001a2d1657
True
1800 °C
437
Below what temperature is U2C3 unstable?
5ad14c7f645df0001a2d1659
True
Uranium carbides and uranium nitrides are both relatively inert semimetallic compounds that are minimally soluble in acids, react with water, and can ignite in air to form U 3O 8. Carbides of uranium include uranium monocarbide (UC), uranium dicarbide (UC 2), and diuranium tricarbide (U 2C 3). Both UC and UC 2 are formed by adding carbon to molten uranium or by exposing the metal to carbon monoxide at high temperatures. Stable below 1800 °C, U 2C 3 is prepared by subjecting a heated mixture of UC and UC 2 to mechanical stress. Uranium nitrides obtained by direct exposure of the metal to nitrogen include uranium mononitride (UN), uranium dinitride (UN 2), and diuranium trinitride (U 2N 3).
Between what percent fraction range of uranium-235 is uranium regarded as enriched?
570e491b0dc6ce1900204f13
3% and 5%
72
False
What is the maximum uranium-235 isotope concentration for uranium to be considered depleted?
570e491b0dc6ce1900204f14
0.3%
349
False
In what year did the cost of uranium notably begin to increase?
570e491b0dc6ce1900204f15
2001
392
False
What was the price of a kilogram of depleted uranium hexafluoride in 2001?
570e491b0dc6ce1900204f16
$5
593
False
How much did a kilogram of depleted uranium hexafluoride cost as of July 2007?
570e491b0dc6ce1900204f17
$130
557
False
between 3% and 5%
64
Between what percent fraction range of uranium-235 is uranium regarded as unenriched?
5ad15209645df0001a2d1746
True
0.3%
349
What is the maximum uranium-235 isotope concentration for plutonium to be considered depleted?
5ad15209645df0001a2d1747
True
2001
599
In what year did the cost of uranium notably begin to decrease?
5ad15209645df0001a2d1748
True
$5
593
What was the price of a pound of depleted uranium hexafluoride in 2001?
5ad15209645df0001a2d1749
True
$130
557
How much did a pound of depleted uranium hexafluoride cost as of July 2007?
5ad15209645df0001a2d174a
True
To be considered 'enriched', the uranium-235 fraction should be between 3% and 5%. This process produces huge quantities of uranium that is depleted of uranium-235 and with a correspondingly increased fraction of uranium-238, called depleted uranium or 'DU'. To be considered 'depleted', the uranium-235 isotope concentration should be no more than 0.3%. The price of uranium has risen since 2001, so enrichment tailings containing more than 0.35% uranium-235 are being considered for re-enrichment, driving the price of depleted uranium hexafluoride above $130 per kilogram in July 2007 from $5 in 2001.
Along with the heart, brain and liver, what system is notably affected by exposure to uranium?
570e4a0e0dc6ce1900204f1d
kidney
26
False
What is the main form of 238U decay?
570e4a0e0dc6ce1900204f1e
alpha radiation
269
False
What type of uranium compounds are uranium trioxide and uranyl nitrate?
570e4a0e0dc6ce1900204f20
hexavalent
451
False
At what temperature will grains of uranium metal spontaneously ignite in air?
570e4a0e0dc6ce1900204f21
room
1403
False
kidney
26
Along with the heart, brain and liver, what system is notably unaffected by exposure to uranium?
5ad154ad645df0001a2d17b2
True
alpha radiation
269
What is the main form of 239U decay?
5ad154ad645df0001a2d17b3
True
hexavalent
451
What type of uranium compounds are uranium dioxide and uranyl nitrate?
5ad154ad645df0001a2d17b5
True
room temperature
1403
At what temperature will grains of plutonium metal spontaneously ignite in air?
5ad154ad645df0001a2d17b6
True
Normal functioning of the kidney, brain, liver, heart, and other systems can be affected by uranium exposure, because, besides being weakly radioactive, uranium is a toxic metal. Uranium is also a reproductive toxicant. Radiological effects are generally local because alpha radiation, the primary form of 238U decay, has a very short range, and will not penetrate skin. Uranyl (UO2+ 2) ions, such as from uranium trioxide or uranyl nitrate and other hexavalent uranium compounds, have been shown to cause birth defects and immune system damage in laboratory animals. While the CDC has published one study that no human cancer has been seen as a result of exposure to natural or depleted uranium, exposure to uranium and its decay products, especially radon, are widely known and significant health threats. Exposure to strontium-90, iodine-131, and other fission products is unrelated to uranium exposure, but may result from medical procedures or exposure to spent reactor fuel or fallout from nuclear weapons. Although accidental inhalation exposure to a high concentration of uranium hexafluoride has resulted in human fatalities, those deaths were associated with the generation of highly toxic hydrofluoric acid and uranyl fluoride rather than with uranium itself. Finely divided uranium metal presents a fire hazard because uranium is pyrophoric; small grains will ignite spontaneously in air at room temperature.
What is the name of the most widely used enrichment process?
570e4a7f0dc6ce1900204f27
gas centrifuge
4
False
What compound is UF6?
570e4a7f0dc6ce1900204f28
uranium hexafluoride
42
False
What enrichment process was used by the Manhattan Project?
570e4a7f0dc6ce1900204f29
gaseous diffusion
229
False
In the gaseous diffusion process, what is diffused through a silver-zinc membrane?
570e4a7f0dc6ce1900204f2a
uranium hexafluoride
354
False
How does the weight of uranium-238 compare to that of uranium-235?
570e4a7f0dc6ce1900204f2b
heavier
522
False
gas centrifuge
4
What is the name of the least widely used enrichment process?
5ad152c5645df0001a2d1764
True
uranium hexafluoride
42
What compound is UF5?
5ad152c5645df0001a2d1765
True
gaseous diffusion
229
What enrichment process wasn't used by the Manhattan Project?
5ad152c5645df0001a2d1766
True
uranium hexafluoride
354
In the gaseous diffusion process, what is diffused through a gold-zinc membrane?
5ad152c5645df0001a2d1767
True
heavier
522
How does the height of uranium-238 compare to that of uranium-235?
5ad152c5645df0001a2d1768
True
The gas centrifuge process, where gaseous uranium hexafluoride (UF 6) is separated by the difference in molecular weight between 235UF6 and 238UF6 using high-speed centrifuges, is the cheapest and leading enrichment process. The gaseous diffusion process had been the leading method for enrichment and was used in the Manhattan Project. In this process, uranium hexafluoride is repeatedly diffused through a silver-zinc membrane, and the different isotopes of uranium are separated by diffusion rate (since uranium 238 is heavier it diffuses slightly slower than uranium-235). The molecular laser isotope separation method employs a laser beam of precise energy to sever the bond between uranium-235 and fluorine. This leaves uranium-238 bonded to fluorine and allows uranium-235 metal to precipitate from the solution. An alternative laser method of enrichment is known as atomic vapor laser isotope separation (AVLIS) and employs visible tunable lasers such as dye lasers. Another method used is liquid thermal diffusion.
What is uranium's symbol on the Periodic Table of Elements?
570e4e090dc6ce1900204f31
U
42
False
What is the atomic number of uranium?
570e4e090dc6ce1900204f32
92
62
False
What color is uranium?
570e4e090dc6ce1900204f33
silvery-white
74
False
Of what series in the Periodic Table of Elements is uranium a part?
570e4e090dc6ce1900204f34
actinide
101
False
How many valence electrons are contained in an atom of uranium?
570e4e090dc6ce1900204f35
6
197
False
U
42
What isn't uranium's symbol on the Periodic Table of Elements?
5ad111b4645df0001a2d0c08
True
92
62
What isn't the atomic number of uranium?
5ad111b4645df0001a2d0c09
True
silvery-white
74
What shape is uranium?
5ad111b4645df0001a2d0c0a
True
actinide
101
Of what series in the Periodic Table of Elements is uranium not a part?
5ad111b4645df0001a2d0c0b
True
6
197
How many valence electrons aren't contained in an atom of uranium?
5ad111b4645df0001a2d0c0c
True
Uranium is a chemical element with symbol U and atomic number 92. It is a silvery-white metal in the actinide series of the periodic table. A uranium atom has 92 protons and 92 electrons, of which 6 are valence electrons. Uranium is weakly radioactive because all its isotopes are unstable (with half-lives of the six naturally known isotopes, uranium-233 to uranium-238, varying between 69 years and 4.5 billion years). The most common isotopes of uranium are uranium-238 (which has 146 neutrons and accounts for almost 99.3% of the uranium found in nature) and uranium-235 (which has 143 neutrons, accounting for 0.7% of the element found naturally). Uranium has the second highest atomic weight of the primordially occurring elements, lighter only than plutonium. Its density is about 70% higher than that of lead, but slightly lower than that of gold or tungsten. It occurs naturally in low concentrations of a few parts per million in soil, rock and water, and is commercially extracted from uranium-bearing minerals such as uraninite.
What non-metal elements does uranium notably not react to?
570e4eaf0dc6ce1900204f3b
noble gases
82
False
Along with nitric acids, what acids dissolve uranium?
570e4eaf0dc6ce1900204f3c
Hydrochloric
161
False
What coats uranium metal in air?
570e4eaf0dc6ce1900204f3d
uranium oxide
403
False
What is a notable form uranium ore is converted into after extraction?
570e4eaf0dc6ce1900204f3e
uranium dioxide
477
False
What reacts with finely divided uranium?
570e4eaf0dc6ce1900204f3f
cold water
333
False
noble gases
82
What non-metal elements does uranium notably react to?
5ad11311645df0001a2d0c4e
True
Hydrochloric
161
Along with nitric acids, what acids dissolve in uranium?
5ad11311645df0001a2d0c4f
True
uranium oxide
403
What coats uranium metal in liquid?
5ad11311645df0001a2d0c50
True
uranium dioxide
477
What is a notable form uranium ore is converted into before extraction?
5ad11311645df0001a2d0c51
True
cold water
333
What reacts with finely multiplied uranium?
5ad11311645df0001a2d0c52
True
Uranium metal reacts with almost all non-metal elements (with an exception of the noble gases) and their compounds, with reactivity increasing with temperature. Hydrochloric and nitric acids dissolve uranium, but non-oxidizing acids other than hydrochloric acid attack the element very slowly. When finely divided, it can react with cold water; in air, uranium metal becomes coated with a dark layer of uranium oxide. Uranium in ores is extracted chemically and converted into uranium dioxide or other chemical forms usable in industry.
During what war was uranium-235 first used to create nuclear weapons?
570e4f430dc6ce1900204f4f
World War II
27
False
From what isotope of uranium is plutonium-239 derived?
570e4f430dc6ce1900204f50
238
368
False
What is mixed with tritium and experiences nuclear fusion in a fission/fusion bomb?
570e4f430dc6ce1900204f51
deuterium
557
False
What is another name for a fission/fusion bomb?
570e4f430dc6ce1900204f52
thermonuclear weapon
455
False
What does non-fissile mean?
570e4f430dc6ce1900204f53
unenriched
636
False
World War II
27
During what war was uranium-235 last used to create nuclear weapons?
5ad114d5645df0001a2d0cc4
True
uranium-238
360
From what isotope of uranium is plutonium-249 derived?
5ad114d5645df0001a2d0cc5
True
deuterium
557
What isn't mixed with tritium and experiences nuclear fusion in a fission/fusion bomb?
5ad114d5645df0001a2d0cc6
True
thermonuclear weapon
455
What is another name for a fission/fusion boat?
5ad114d5645df0001a2d0cc7
True
(unenriched
635
What does fissile mean?
5ad114d5645df0001a2d0cc8
True
During the later stages of World War II, the entire Cold War, and to a lesser extent afterwards, uranium-235 has been used as the fissile explosive material to produce nuclear weapons. Initially, two major types of fission bombs were built: a relatively simple device that uses uranium-235 and a more complicated mechanism that uses plutonium-239 derived from uranium-238. Later, a much more complicated and far more powerful type of fission/fusion bomb (thermonuclear weapon) was built, that uses a plutonium-based device to cause a mixture of tritium and deuterium to undergo nuclear fusion. Such bombs are jacketed in a non-fissile (unenriched) uranium case, and they derive more than half their power from the fission of this material by fast neutrons from the nuclear fusion process.
What product of uranium was used as toner?
570e4fe50b85d914000d7e03
nitrate
68
False
Along with uranyl formate, what product of uranium is used in transmission electron microscopy?
570e4fe50b85d914000d7e04
Uranyl acetate
276
False
What light bulbs use lamp filaments containing uranium?
570e4fe50b85d914000d7e05
stage
111
False
Along with leather, what industry uses uranium in dyes and stains?
570e4fe50b85d914000d7e06
wood
195
False
In addition to wool, what is uranium salt a mordant of?
570e4fe50b85d914000d7e07
silk
262
False
nitrate
68
What product of uranium wasn't used as toner?
5ad115f9645df0001a2d0cf6
True
Uranyl acetate
276
Along with uranyl formate, what product of uranium is used in transmission proton microscopy?
5ad115f9645df0001a2d0cf7
True
stage
111
What light bulbs don't use lamp filaments containing uranium?
5ad115f9645df0001a2d0cf8
True
wool.
270
Along with leather, what industry uses no uranium in dyes and stains?
5ad115f9645df0001a2d0cf9
True
silk
262
In addition to wool, what isn't uranium salt a mordant of?
5ad115f9645df0001a2d0cfa
True
Uranium was also used in photographic chemicals (especially uranium nitrate as a toner), in lamp filaments for stage lighting bulbs, to improve the appearance of dentures, and in the leather and wood industries for stains and dyes. Uranium salts are mordants of silk or wool. Uranyl acetate and uranyl formate are used as electron-dense "stains" in transmission electron microscopy, to increase the contrast of biological specimens in ultrathin sections and in negative staining of viruses, isolated cell organelles and macromolecules.
Of what nationality was Perrin?
570e51b50b85d914000d7e21
French
13
False
In what county was the Oklo mine located?
570e51b50b85d914000d7e22
Gabon
177
False
How old are the ore deposits in the Oklo mine?
570e51b50b85d914000d7e23
1.7 billion years
264
False
When the Oklo mine ore deposits came into being, what percentage of uranium on Earth consisted of uranium-235?
570e51b50b85d914000d7e24
3%
323
False
Where in the United States is there a nuclear waste repository?
570e51b50b85d914000d7e25
Yucca Mountain
687
False
French
13
Of what nationality wasn't Perrin?
5ad11a5c645df0001a2d0d88
True
Gabon
177
In what country was the Oklo mine not located
5ad11a5c645df0001a2d0d89
True
1.7 billion years old
264
How old are the ore deposits in the Oslo mine?
5ad11a5c645df0001a2d0d8a
True
3%
323
When the Oklo mine ore deposits came into being, what percentage of uranium on Earth consisted of uranium-253?
5ad11a5c645df0001a2d0d8b
True
Yucca Mountain
687
Where in the United States is there no nuclear waste repository?
5ad11a5c645df0001a2d0d8c
True
In 1972, the French physicist Francis Perrin discovered fifteen ancient and no longer active natural nuclear fission reactors in three separate ore deposits at the Oklo mine in Gabon, West Africa, collectively known as the Oklo Fossil Reactors. The ore deposit is 1.7 billion years old; then, uranium-235 constituted about 3% of the total uranium on Earth. This is high enough to permit a sustained nuclear fission chain reaction to occur, provided other supporting conditions exist. The capacity of the surrounding sediment to contain the nuclear waste products has been cited by the U.S. federal government as supporting evidence for the feasibility to store spent nuclear fuel at the Yucca Mountain nuclear waste repository.
How many times more abundant than silver is uranium in the Earth's crust?
570e52840b85d914000d7e2b
40
120
False
How many kilograms of uranium may be contained in the oceans?
570e52840b85d914000d7e2c
1013
294
False
Why is the concentrate of uranium in farmland so high?
570e52840b85d914000d7e2d
phosphate fertilizers
451
False
What is the concentration of uranium in sea water?
570e52840b85d914000d7e2e
3 parts per billion
513
False
40
120
How many times less abundant than silver is uranium in the Earth's crust?
5ad11c58645df0001a2d0dca
True
1013
294
How many pounds of uranium may be contained in the oceans?
5ad11c58645df0001a2d0dcb
True
phosphate fertilizers
451
Why is the concentrate of uranium in farmland so low?
5ad11c58645df0001a2d0dcc
True
3 parts per billion
513
What is the concentration of uranium in fresh water?
5ad11c58645df0001a2d0dcd
True
3 parts per billion
513
What is the concentration of plutonium in sea water?
5ad11c58645df0001a2d0dce
True
Uranium's average concentration in the Earth's crust is (depending on the reference) 2 to 4 parts per million, or about 40 times as abundant as silver. The Earth's crust from the surface to 25 km (15 mi) down is calculated to contain 1017 kg (2×1017 lb) of uranium while the oceans may contain 1013 kg (2×1013 lb). The concentration of uranium in soil ranges from 0.7 to 11 parts per million (up to 15 parts per million in farmland soil due to use of phosphate fertilizers), and its concentration in sea water is 3 parts per billion.
What isotope of uranium has the most stability?
570e53ae0b85d914000d7e43
Uranium-238
0
False
About how old is the Earth?
570e53ae0b85d914000d7e44
4.468×109 years
77
False
What is the half-life of uranium-234?
570e53ae0b85d914000d7e45
2.48×105 years
218
False
What fraction of the Earth's uranium was uranium-235 during the Earth's youth?
570e53ae0b85d914000d7e46
one-fifth
460
False
What percentage of the alpha rays of natural uranium are emitted by 234U?
570e53ae0b85d914000d7e47
49%
326
False
Uranium-238
0
What isotope of uranium has the least stability?
5ad14d8a645df0001a2d16ac
True
4.468×109 years
77
About how gold is the Earth?
5ad14d8a645df0001a2d16ad
True
2.48×105 years
218
What is the full-life of uranium-234?
5ad14d8a645df0001a2d16ae
True
one-fifth
460
What fraction of the Earth's uranium was uranium-237 during the Earth's youth?
5ad14d8a645df0001a2d16af
True
49%
261
What percentage of the gamma rays of natural uranium are emitted by 234U?
5ad14d8a645df0001a2d16b0
True
Uranium-238 is the most stable isotope of uranium, with a half-life of about 4.468×109 years, roughly the age of the Earth. Uranium-235 has a half-life of about 7.13×108 years, and uranium-234 has a half-life of about 2.48×105 years. For natural uranium, about 49% of its alpha rays are emitted by each of 238U atom, and also 49% by 234U (since the latter is formed from the former) and about 2.0% of them by the 235U. When the Earth was young, probably about one-fifth of its uranium was uranium-235, but the percentage of 234U was probably much lower than this.
What happens to a majority of ingested uranium?
570e54c20b85d914000d7e4d
excreted
25
False
Up to what percentage of uranyl ion can be absorbed when ingested?
570e54c20b85d914000d7e4e
5%
203
False
About what percentage of uranium oxide is absorbed when ingested?
570e54c20b85d914000d7e4f
0.5%
57
False
What does uranium have an affinity for?
570e54c20b85d914000d7e50
phosphates
559
False
Where does uranium accumulate in the body?
570e54c20b85d914000d7e51
bone tissue
513
False
excreted
25
What happens to a minority of ingested uranium?
5ad1542d645df0001a2d179e
True
5%
203
Up to what percentage of uranyl ion can be absorbed when digested?
5ad1542d645df0001a2d179f
True
0.5%
57
About what percentage of uranium dioxide is absorbed when ingested?
5ad1542d645df0001a2d17a0
True
phosphates
559
What does uranium not have an affinity for?
5ad1542d645df0001a2d17a1
True
bone tissue
513
Where doesn't uranium accumulate in the body?
5ad1542d645df0001a2d17a2
True
Most ingested uranium is excreted during digestion. Only 0.5% is absorbed when insoluble forms of uranium, such as its oxide, are ingested, whereas absorption of the more soluble uranyl ion can be up to 5%. However, soluble uranium compounds tend to quickly pass through the body, whereas insoluble uranium compounds, especially when inhaled by way of dust into the lungs, pose a more serious exposure hazard. After entering the bloodstream, the absorbed uranium tends to bioaccumulate and stay for many years in bone tissue because of uranium's affinity for phosphates. Uranium is not absorbed through the skin, and alpha particles released by uranium cannot penetrate the skin.
Calcined uranium yellowcake
0
What contains a distribution of uranium deoxidation species in various forms ranging from most oxidized to least oxidized?
5ad14a35645df0001a2d15a8
True
Calcined uranium yellowcake
0
What contains a distribution of uranium oxidation species in no forms ranging from most oxidized to least oxidized?
5ad14a35645df0001a2d15a9
True
Particles with short residence times in a calciner
178
What will generally be less oxidized than those with short retention times or particles recovered in the stack scrubber?
5ad14a35645df0001a2d15aa
True
Particles with short residence times in a calciner
178
What will generally be less oxidized than those with long retention times or particles replaced in the stack scrubber?
5ad14a35645df0001a2d15ab
True
Particles with short residence times in a calciner
178
What will never be less oxidized than those with long retention times or particles recovered in the stack scrubber?
5ad14a35645df0001a2d15ac
True
Calcined uranium yellowcake, as produced in many large mills, contains a distribution of uranium oxidation species in various forms ranging from most oxidized to least oxidized. Particles with short residence times in a calciner will generally be less oxidized than those with long retention times or particles recovered in the stack scrubber. Uranium content is usually referenced to U 3O 8, which dates to the days of the Manhattan project when U 3O 8 was used as an analytical chemistry reporting standard.
Order_of_the_British_Empire
How were the appointments to the Order of the British Empire made?
570e5e200dc6ce1900204fb5
nomination of the self-governing Dominions of the Empire, the Viceroy of India, and the colonial governors
74
False
What evolved as the Commonwealth nominations continued?
570e5e200dc6ce1900204fb6
Empire
247
False
What remained the head of state of the British Empire?
570e5e200dc6ce1900204fb7
the monarch
354
False
Why did the oversea nominations discontinue?
570e5e200dc6ce1900204fb8
established their own Orders
460
False
What countries established new orders?
570e5e200dc6ce1900204fb9
Order of Australia, the Order of Canada, and the New Zealand Order of Merit
501
False
Appointments to the Order of the British Empire were at first made on the nomination of the self-governing Dominions of the Empire, the Viceroy of India, and the colonial governors, as well as on nominations from within the United Kingdom. As the Empire evolved into the Commonwealth, nominations continued to come from the Commonwealth realms, in which the monarch remained head of state. These overseas nominations have been discontinued in realms that have established their own Orders—such as the Order of Australia, the Order of Canada, and the New Zealand Order of Merit—but members of the Order are still appointed in the British Overseas Territories.
Who could wear a emblem of two crossed silver oak leaves?
570e616f0dc6ce1900204fd1
Any individual made a member of the Order for gallantry
0
False
What was the emblem?
570e616f0dc6ce1900204fd2
two crossed silver oak leaves on the same riband, ribbon or bow as the badge
80
False
What year was it replaced?
570e616f0dc6ce1900204fd3
1974
227
False
What kind of medal was replaced in 1974?
570e616f0dc6ce1900204fd4
Queen's Gallantry Medal
241
False
They continued to wear what the insignia of what?
570e616f0dc6ce1900204fd5
lower grade with the oak leaves
450
False
Any individual made a member of the Order for gallantry could wear an emblem of two crossed silver oak leaves on the same riband, ribbon or bow as the badge. It could not be awarded posthumously and was effectively replaced in 1974 with the Queen's Gallantry Medal. If recipients of the Order of the British Empire for Gallantry received promotion within the Order, whether for gallantry or otherwise, they continued to wear also the insignia of the lower grade with the oak leaves. However, they only used the post-nominal letters of the higher grade.
Who are appointed to citizens of nations?
570e62ae0dc6ce1900204fe5
Honorary knighthoods
0
False
Where was Queen Elizabeth ll not Head of State?
570e62ae0dc6ce1900204fe6
citizens of nations
38
False
What is honorary appointees are incorrectly referred to?
570e62ae0dc6ce1900204fe7
Sir or Dame
248
False
Who are examples of Sir of Dame?
570e62ae0dc6ce1900204fe8
Bill Gates or Bob Geldof
262
False
What is an example of irish broadcaster?
570e62ae0dc6ce1900204fe9
Terry Wogan
599
False
Honorary knighthoods are appointed to citizens of nations where Queen Elizabeth II is not Head of State, and may permit use of post-nominal letters but not the title of Sir or Dame. Occasionally honorary appointees are, incorrectly, referred to as Sir or Dame - Bill Gates or Bob Geldof, for example. Honorary appointees who later become a citizen of a Commonwealth realm can convert their appointment from honorary to substantive, then enjoy all privileges of membership of the order including use of the title of Sir and Dame for the senior two ranks of the Order. An example is Irish broadcaster Terry Wogan, who was appointed an honorary Knight Commander of the Order in 2005 and on successful application for dual British and Irish citizenship was made a substantive member and subsequently styled as "Sir Terry Wogan KBE".
Who are the six officials of The Order?
570e63590dc6ce1900204fef
Prelate; the Dean; the Secretary; the Registrar; the King of Arms; and the Usher
33
False
Who serves as the Order's Prelate?
570e63590dc6ce1900204ff0
The Bishop of London, a senior bishop in the Church of England
115
False
Who was The Dean of St. Paul?
570e63590dc6ce1900204ff1
ex officio the Dean of the Order
235
False
Who is not a member of the College of Arms?
570e63590dc6ce1900204ff2
The Order's King of Arms
269
False
What is the Usher of the Order?
570e63590dc6ce1900204ff3
Gentleman Usher of the Purple Rod
410
False
The Order has six officials: the Prelate; the Dean; the Secretary; the Registrar; the King of Arms; and the Usher. The Bishop of London, a senior bishop in the Church of England, serves as the Order's Prelate. The Dean of St Paul's is ex officio the Dean of the Order. The Order's King of Arms is not a member of the College of Arms, as are many other heraldic officers. The Usher of the Order is known as the Gentleman Usher of the Purple Rod; he does not – unlike his Order of the Garter equivalent, the Gentleman Usher of the Black Rod – perform any duties related to the House of Lords.
Who was discontinued in the Commonwealth realms?
570e669f0dc6ce1900205015
Appointments to the Order of the British Empire
0
False
Who established a national system of honours and awards?
570e669f0dc6ce1900205016
Order of Australia, the Order of Canada, and the New Zealand Order of Merit
164
False
How were the different levels of award and honour reflected the imperial system?
570e669f0dc6ce1900205017
Canada, Australia, and New Zealand
351
False
What were the highest class?
570e669f0dc6ce1900205018
Knights and Dames
570
False
Appointments to the Order of the British Empire were discontinued in those Commonwealth realms that established a national system of honours and awards such as the Order of Australia, the Order of Canada, and the New Zealand Order of Merit. In many of these systems, the different levels of award and honour reflect the Imperial system they replaced. Canada, Australia, and New Zealand all have (in increasing level of precedence) Members of, Officers of, and Companions to (rather than Commanders of) their respective orders, with both Australia and New Zealand having Knights and Dames as their highest classes.
Who were MBE'S?
570e67880dc6ce1900205027
The members of The Beatles
0
False
In what year was the Beatles made MBE's?
570e67880dc6ce1900205028
1965
45
False
Who compared military membership in the Order?
570e67880dc6ce1900205029
John Lennon
51
False
Who said "lots of people who complained about us receiving the MBE received thris for heroism in the war.
570e67880dc6ce190020502a
John Lennon
51
False
When did John Lennon return his MBE insignia?
570e67880dc6ce190020502b
25 November 1969
411
False
The members of The Beatles were made MBEs in 1965. John Lennon justified the comparative merits of his investiture by comparing military membership in the Order: "Lots of people who complained about us receiving the MBE [status] received theirs for heroism in the war – for killing people… We received ours for entertaining other people. I'd say we deserve ours more." Lennon later returned his MBE insignia on 25 November 1969 as part of his ongoing peace protests. Other criticism centres on the claim that many recipients of the Order are being rewarded with honours for simply doing their jobs; critics claim that the civil service and judiciary receive far more orders and honours than leaders of other professions.
Who was the most excellent Order of the British Empire?
570e68670dc6ce1900205031
order of chivalry of British constitutional monarchy
55
False
Who rewarded contributions to the arts and sciences?
570e68670dc6ce1900205032
"order of chivalry of British constitutional monarchy
54
False
When was the order of chivalry of British constitutional monarchy established?
570e68670dc6ce1900205033
4 June 1917
275
False
Who established the chivalry of british constiutional monarchy?
570e68670dc6ce1900205034
King George V
290
False
Who is the recipient?
570e68670dc6ce1900205035
knight if male, or dame if female
423
False
The Most Excellent Order of the British Empire is the "order of chivalry of British constitutional monarchy", rewarding contributions to the arts and sciences, work with charitable and welfare organisations and public service outside the Civil Service. It was established on 4 June 1917 by King George V, and comprises five classes, in civil and military divisions, the most senior two of which make the recipient either a knight if male, or dame if female. There is also the related British Empire Medal, whose recipients are affiliated with, but not members of, the order.
What was instituted to serve as a lower award granting recipients affiliation?
570e69cb0dc6ce1900205045
Medal of the Order of the British Empire
37
False
In what year was the Medal of the Order of the British Empire established?
570e69cb0dc6ce1900205046
1922
176
False
What was the medal renamed as?
570e69cb0dc6ce1900205047
British Empire Medal
204
False
When was it stopped being rewarded?
570e69cb0dc6ce1900205048
1993
289
False
How many BEM's were awarded for the Queen's Diamond Jubilee?
570e69cb0dc6ce1900205049
293
380
False
At the foundation of the Order, the "Medal of the Order of the British Empire" was instituted, to serve as a lower award granting recipients affiliation but not membership. In 1922, this was renamed the "British Empire Medal". It stopped being awarded by the United Kingdom as part of the 1993 reforms to the honours system, but was again awarded beginning in 2012, starting with 293 BEMs awarded for the Queen's Diamond Jubilee. In addition, the BEM is awarded by the Cook Islands and by some other Commonwealth nations. In 2004, a report entitled "A Matter of Honour: Reforming Our Honours System" by a Commons committee recommended to phase out the Order of the British Empire, as its title was "now considered to be unacceptable, being thought to embody values that are no longer shared by many of the country’s population".
From what year could the Sovereign appoint a person as Commander, Officer or Member of the Order of the British Empire?
570e6d560dc6ce190020504f
1940
5
False
Of what acts did the Members of the Order of the British Empire appoint?
570e6d560dc6ce1900205050
below the level required for the George Medal
182
False
What grade was determined?
570e6d560dc6ce1900205051
same criteria as usual, and not by the level of gallantry
261
False
When was the awards designated the Order of the British Empire for Gallantry?
570e6d560dc6ce1900205052
14 January 1958
572
False
From 1940, the Sovereign could appoint a person as a Commander, Officer or Member of the Order of the British Empire for gallantry for acts of bravery (not in the face of the enemy) below the level required for the George Medal. The grade was determined by the same criteria as usual, and not by the level of gallantry (and with more junior people instead receiving the British Empire Medal). Oddly, this meant that it was awarded for lesser acts of gallantry than the George Medal, but, as an Order, was worn before it and listed before it in post-nominal initials. From 14 January 1958, these awards were designated the Order of the British Empire for Gallantry.
Who would prefix Sir, and Dames Grand Cross?
570e6eac0b85d914000d7eef
Knights Grand Cross and Knights Commander
0
False
Who would prefix Dame, to their forenames?
570e6eac0b85d914000d7ef0
Dames Grand Cross
58
False
Who would prefix Lady to their surnames?
570e6eac0b85d914000d7ef1
Wives of Knights
132
False
Such forms are not used by whom?
570e6eac0b85d914000d7ef2
peers and princes
291
False
Who wouldn't use the title Sir of Dame?
570e6eac0b85d914000d7ef3
Clergy of the Church of England or the Church of Scotland
386
False
Knights Grand Cross and Knights Commander prefix Sir, and Dames Grand Cross and Dames Commander prefix Dame, to their forenames.[b] Wives of Knights may prefix Lady to their surnames, but no equivalent privilege exists for husbands of Knights or spouses of Dames. Such forms are not used by peers and princes, except when the names of the former are written out in their fullest forms. Clergy of the Church of England or the Church of Scotland do not use the title Sir or Dame as they do not receive the accolade (i.e., they are not dubbed "knight" with a sword), although they do append the post-nominal letters.
Who has set honours awarded by the President of India?
570e6ff20dc6ce190020506b
India
0
False
Who holds a republican position some consider to monarch of Britain?
570e6ff20dc6ce190020506c
President of India
132
False
What is referred to as the Padma Awards?
570e6ff20dc6ce190020506d
President of India who holds a republican position some consider similar to that of the monarch in Britain
132
False
What does the Padma Awards consist of?
570e6ff20dc6ce190020506e
Padma Vibhushan, Padma Bhushan and Padma Shri
306
False
What does not carry any decoration or insignia that can be worn on the person?
570e6ff20dc6ce190020506f
Padma Vibhushan, Padma Bhushan and Padma Shri
306
False
India, while remaining an active member of the Commonwealth, chose as a republic to institute its own set of honours awarded by the President of India who holds a republican position some consider similar to that of the monarch in Britain. These are commonly referred to as the Padma Awards and consist of Padma Vibhushan, Padma Bhushan and Padma Shri in descending order. These do not carry any decoration or insignia that can be worn on the person and may not be used as titles along with individuals' names.
How many Knights are in The Order?
570e718c0dc6ce1900205075
300 Knights and Dames Grand Cross
24
False
How many Knights and Dames Commander?
570e718c0dc6ce1900205076
845
59
False
How many commanders are in The Order?
570e718c0dc6ce1900205077
8,960
96
False
How many officers and members maybe be appointed per year?
570e718c0dc6ce1900205078
858 Officers and 1,464 Members
223
False
Who has the highest numbers of the British Orders of Chivalry?
570e718c0dc6ce1900205079
Order of the British Empire
412
False
The Order is limited to 300 Knights and Dames Grand Cross, 845 Knights and Dames Commander, and 8,960 Commanders. There are no limits applied to the total number of members of the fourth and fifth classes, but no more than 858 Officers and 1,464 Members may be appointed per year. Foreign recipients, as honorary members, do not contribute to the numbers restricted to the Order as full members do. Although the Order of the British Empire has by far the highest number of members of the British Orders of Chivalry, with over 100,000 living members worldwide, there are fewer appointments to knighthoods than in other orders.
What are the Members of classes of the Order assigned to?
570e727b0dc6ce1900205085
positions in the order of precedence
49
False
Who of the male members feature on the order?
570e727b0dc6ce1900205086
Wives of male members of all classes also feature on the order of precedence, as do sons, daughters and daughters-in-law
87
False
Who are not assigned any special precedence?
570e727b0dc6ce1900205087
relatives of Ladies of the Order
254
False
Who can individuals derive precedence from?
570e727b0dc6ce1900205088
fathers or husbands
402
False
Who can individuals can not derive precedence from?
570e727b0dc6ce1900205089
mothers or wives
442
False
Members of all classes of the Order are assigned positions in the order of precedence. Wives of male members of all classes also feature on the order of precedence, as do sons, daughters and daughters-in-law of Knights Grand Cross and Knights Commander; relatives of Ladies of the Order, however, are not assigned any special precedence. As a general rule, individuals can derive precedence from their fathers or husbands, but not from their mothers or wives (see order of precedence in England and Wales for the exact positions).
Circadian_rhythm
For what do Circadian rhythms let an organism prepare?
570f25345ab6b81900390e83
environmental changes
84
False
What can an organism that uses circadian rhythms use to its advantage that others can not?
570f25345ab6b81900390e84
resources
170
False
By better using resources, how does that improve an organism's chances of surviving?
570f25345ab6b81900390e85
selective advantage
333
False
By improving what processes does the use of circadian rhythms serve to benefit the individual?
570f25345ab6b81900390e86
internal metabolic
455
False
What insect has been studied concerning the inheritability of rhythms?
570f25345ab6b81900390e87
fruit flies
602
False
Circadian rhythms
0
What allows organisms to anticipate and prepare for unexpected environmental changes?
5a220964819328001af389cd
True
environmental
156
What kind Of resources can organisms without circadian rhythms capitalize on?
5a220964819328001af389ce
True
organisms
318
What do circadian rhythms put at a selective disadvantage in evolutionary terms?
5a220964819328001af389cf
True
regulating and coordinating internal metabolic processes
427
What is rhythmicity more important for regulating then it is for coordinating with the environment?
5a220964819328001af389d0
True
Circadian rhythms allow organisms to anticipate and prepare for precise and regular environmental changes. They thus enable organisms to best capitalize on environmental resources (e.g. light and food) compared to those that cannot predict such availability. It has therefore been suggested that circadian rhythms put organisms at a selective advantage in evolutionary terms. However, rhythmicity appears to be as important in regulating and coordinating internal metabolic processes, as in coordinating with the environment. This is suggested by the maintenance (heritability) of circadian rhythms in fruit flies after several hundred generations in constant laboratory conditions, as well as in creatures in constant darkness in the wild, and by the experimental elimination of behavioral, but not physiological, circadian rhythms in quail.
What type of animals have been shown to have circadian rhythms only at certain times?
570f2b2b80d9841400ab3547
Arctic animals
71
False
What daily feature do animals that show limited circadian rhythms need?
570f2b2b80d9841400ab3548
sunrises and sunsets
177
False
In a study, when did reindeer at 70 degrees north only show circadian rhythms?
570f2b2b80d9841400ab3549
autumn, winter and spring
285
False
At what degree north did reindeer show rhythms only in autumn and summer?
570f2b2b80d9841400ab354a
78 degrees
359
False
What aninmals  do researchers think might also show a variance in circadian rhythms in different seasons?
570f2b2b80d9841400ab354b
other Arctic animals
452
False
in the parts of the year that have daily sunrises and sunsets
136
When do subarctic animals have circadian rythms?
5a2225ef819328001af38a0b
True
autumn, winter and spring
285
When do reindeer below 70 degrees show circadian rythems?
5a2225ef819328001af38a0c
True
autumn and spring
404
What reinder at 78 degrees do not show circadian rythems?
5a2225ef819328001af38a0d
True
Arctic animals
458
What animals show circadian rythems during the costant light of summer?
5a2225ef819328001af38a0e
True
Norwegian researchers at the University of Tromsø have shown that some Arctic animals (ptarmigan, reindeer) show circadian rhythms only in the parts of the year that have daily sunrises and sunsets. In one study of reindeer, animals at 70 degrees North showed circadian rhythms in the autumn, winter and spring, but not in the summer. Reindeer on Svalbard at 78 degrees North showed such rhythms only in autumn and spring. The researchers suspect that other Arctic animals as well may not show circadian rhythms in the constant light of summer and the constant dark of winter.
What produces a self-sustaining rhythm?
570f2d9b80d9841400ab3551
central oscillator
4
False
When do the CCA1  and LHY function?
570f2d9b80d9841400ab3552
morning
153
False
Which loop that consists of GI and ELF4 functions?
570f2d9b80d9841400ab3553
evening
414
False
What was the previous belief of feedback in the gene loop?
570f2d9b80d9841400ab3554
negative feedback loop
903
False
What researcher showed that the gene  feedback loop serves as a repressor?
570f2d9b80d9841400ab3555
Andrew Millar
1065
False
central oscillator
4
What is driven by  single feedback loop?
5a222e10819328001af38a21
True
morning
153
When do CCA1 ELF4 function?
5a222e10819328001af38a22
True
evening
414
When do GI and LHY function?
5a222e10819328001af38a23
True
a negative feedback loop
901
What does increased mRNA signals contribute to?
5a222e10819328001af38a24
True
TOC1 in fact serves as a repressor
1095
What did Andrew Millar show in 2000?
5a222e10819328001af38a25
True
The central oscillator generates a self-sustaining rhythm and is driven by two interacting feedback loops that are active at different times of day. The morning loop consists of CCA1 (Circadian and Clock-Associated 1) and LHY (Late Elongated Hypocotyl), which encode closely related MYB transcription factors that regulate circadian rhythms in Arabidopsis, as well as PRR 7 and 9 (Pseudo-Response Regulators.) The evening loop consists of GI (Gigantea) and ELF4, both involved in regulation of flowering time genes. When CCA1 and LHY are overexpressed (under constant light or dark conditions), plants become arrhythmic, and mRNA signals reduce, contributing to a negative feedback loop. Gene expression of CCA1 and LHY oscillates and peaks in the early morning, whereas TOC1 gene expression oscillates and peaks in the early evening. While it was previously hypothesised that these three genes model a negative feedback loop in which over-expressed CCA1 and LHY repress TOC1 and over-expressed TOC1 is a positive regulator of CCA1 and LHY, it was shown in 2012 by Andrew Millar and others that TOC1 in fact serves as a repressor not only of CCA1, LHY, and PRR7 and 9 in the morning loop but also of GI and ELF4 in the evening loop. This finding and further computational modeling of TOC1 gene functions and interactions suggest a reframing of the plant circadian clock as a triple negative-component repressilator model rather than the positive/negative-element feedback loop characterizing the clock in mammals.
What is the Drosophila gene the cause of?
570f2f5c5ab6b81900390e8d
sleep disorder FASPS
97
False
What is the Drosophila gene also known as?
570f2f5c5ab6b81900390e8e
period
51
False
What is Familial advanced sleep phase syndrome?
570f2f5c5ab6b81900390e8f
FASPS
112
False
What kind of clock have genetic functions?
570f2f5c5ab6b81900390e90
biological clock
282
False
What does the body interpret from the gene feedback loop?
570f2f5c5ab6b81900390e91
time of the day
475
False
Drosophila
39
What Jean is responsible for the circadian rhythm?
5a220e23819328001af389e7
True
biological clock
282
What kind of clock does not have genetic functions?
5a220e23819328001af389e8
True
as a specific time of the day
461
How do cells of the body interpret fluctuations in light?
5a220e23819328001af389e9
True
FASPS
112
What does a defect in the period genome cause?
5a220e23819328001af389ea
True
A defect in the human homologue of the Drosophila "period" gene was identified as a cause of the sleep disorder FASPS (Familial advanced sleep phase syndrome), underscoring the conserved nature of the molecular circadian clock through evolution. Many more genetic components of the biological clock are now known. Their interactions result in an interlocked feedback loop of gene products resulting in periodic fluctuations that the cells of the body interpret as a specific time of the day.[citation needed]
Whose work habits and environment prevents them from maintaining a regular sleep pattern?
570f31ba5ab6b81900390e97
airline pilots
26
False
What can the lack of regular sleep patterns cause?
570f31ba5ab6b81900390e98
fatigue
310
False
What organizations cites this disruption of sleep patterns as a cause of accidents?
570f31ba5ab6b81900390e99
NTSB
323
False
What has the NTSB conducted to find the cause of pilot fatigue?
570f31ba5ab6b81900390e9a
research studies
428
False
Of what does the NTSB want to find a means of doing?
570f31ba5ab6b81900390e9b
combating fatigue
473
False
airline pilots
26
Who follows a very natural human circadian rhythem?
5a2243af819328001af38a67
True
fatigue
310
what does a natural circadian rhythem lead to?
5a2243af819328001af38a68
True
NTSB
323
Who conducted studies on sewardes fatigue?
5a2243af819328001af38a69
True
Due to the work nature of airline pilots, who often cross several timezones and regions of sunlight and darkness in one day, and spend many hours awake both day and night, they are often unable to maintain sleep patterns that correspond to the natural human circadian rhythm; this situation can easily lead to fatigue. The NTSB cites this as contributing to many accidents[unreliable medical source?]  and has conducted several research studies in order to find methods of combating fatigue in pilots.
What is the earliest recorded instance of circadian rhythm?
570f33ad80d9841400ab355b
4th century B.C.E
68
False
What ship captain described daily leaf movements?
570f33ad80d9841400ab355c
Androsthenes
93
False
What tree leaves did Androsthenes describe?
570f33ad80d9841400ab355d
tamarind
197
False
What type of Chinese texts mention circadian process in humans?
570f33ad80d9841400ab355e
medical
296
False
When did the Chinese use diurnal rhythms to remember Acu-points?
570f33ad80d9841400ab355f
13th century
330
False
circadian process
35
What was first recorded in 400 BC?
5a2205ce819328001af389bb
True
diurnal leaf
167
What did Alexander the great described?
5a2205ce819328001af389bc
True
Chinese
288
What philosophers first described the diurnal process in humans?
5a2205ce819328001af389bd
True
diurnal process in humans
246
What was first described in medical texts during the 1300s?
5a2205ce819328001af389be
True
Aid in the Selection of Acu-points
409
What did Androsthenes use the noon and midnight manual for?
5a2205ce819328001af389bf
True
The earliest recorded account of a circadian process dates from the 4th century B.C.E., when Androsthenes, a ship captain serving under Alexander the Great, described diurnal leaf movements of the tamarind tree. The observation of a circadian or diurnal process in humans is mentioned in Chinese medical texts dated to around the 13th century, including the Noon and Midnight Manual and the Mnemonic Rhyme to Aid in the Selection of Acu-points According to the Diurnal Cycle, the Day of the Month and the Season of the Year.
What is the plant expression of circadian rhythm?
570f357e80d9841400ab3565
when to flower
61
False
What do plants need to attract to their flowering?
570f357e80d9841400ab3566
pollinators
110
False
With what feature of environment do plants need to be in sync?
570f357e80d9841400ab3567
light cycle
364
False
What does adaptive advantage allow for plants?
570f357e80d9841400ab3568
Anticipation of changes
783
False
Where can an understanding of circadian rhythms of plants be an advantage?
570f357e80d9841400ab3569
agriculture
991
False
leaf movement, growth, germination, stomatal/gas exchange, enzyme activity, photosynthetic activity, and fragrance emission
157
What plant behavior is not controlled by circadian rythems??
5a222914819328001af38a13
True
rhythms
414
What are constant but not self sustaining?
5a222914819328001af38a14
True
a plant
323
What needs to be in sync with ambient temperatures?
5a222914819328001af38a15
True
Plant circadian rhythms tell the plant what season it is and when to flower for the best chance of attracting pollinators. Behaviors showing rhythms include leaf movement, growth, germination, stomatal/gas exchange, enzyme activity, photosynthetic activity, and fragrance emission, among others. Circadian rhythms occur as a plant entrains to synchronize with the light cycle of its surrounding environment. These rhythms are endogenously generated and self-sustaining and are relatively constant over a range of ambient temperatures. Important features include two interacting transcription-translation feedback loops: proteins containing PAS domains, which facilitate protein-protein interactions; and several photoreceptors that fine-tune the clock to different light conditions. Anticipation of changes in the environment allows appropriate changes in a plant's physiological state, conferring an adaptive advantage. A better understanding of plant circadian rhythms has applications in agriculture, such as helping farmers stagger crop harvests to extend crop availability and securing against massive losses due to weather.
What has the simplest known circadian clock?
570f38055ab6b81900390ea1
prokaryotic cyanobacteria
50
False
With how many proteins can the circadian clock of Synechococcus elongatus are needed to reproduce its effect?
570f38055ab6b81900390ea2
three proteins
206
False
What type of feedback mechanism was previously thought to be needed to sustain the clock?
570f38055ab6b81900390ea3
DNA
451
False
How long a rhythm were researchers able to sustain in the in vitro experiment?
570f38055ab6b81900390ea4
22-hour
308
False
What were the only proteins necessary to the circadian timekeeper experiment?
570f38055ab6b81900390ea5
KaiA, KaiB, KaiC
222
False
prokaryotic cyanobacteria
50
What organism has the most complex circadian clock?
5a220bcc819328001af389df
True
in vitro
183
Where can the circadian clock of theprokaryotic cyanobacteria be reconstituted?
5a220bcc819328001af389e0
True
22-hour
308
What was the minimum amount of time the clock could be sustained in vitro?
5a220bcc819328001af389e1
True
KaiA, KaiB, KaiC
222
What three proteins needed to be removed to sustain the in vitro clock?
5a220bcc819328001af389e2
True
The simplest known circadian clock is that of the prokaryotic cyanobacteria. Recent research has demonstrated that the circadian clock of Synechococcus elongatus can be reconstituted in vitro with just the three proteins (KaiA, KaiB, KaiC) of their central oscillator. This clock has been shown to sustain a 22-hour rhythm over several days upon the addition of ATP. Previous explanations of the prokaryotic circadian timekeeper were dependent upon a DNA transcription/translation feedback mechanism.[citation needed]
To what is the circadian rhythm tied?
570f39c25ab6b81900390eab
light–dark cycle
28
False
What conditions will produce a free-running rhythm in humans?
570f39c25ab6b81900390eac
total darkness
81
False
What are the environmental factors that can change the rhythm?
570f39c25ab6b81900390ead
zeitgebers
382
False
What do blind mole rats have in place of vision?
570f39c25ab6b81900390eae
photoreceptors
631
False
light–dark cycle
28
What cycle is seperate from the circadian rythem?
5a2222d7819328001af38a03
True
free-running rhythm.
144
What does total light cause in humans?
5a2222d7819328001af38a04
True
zeitgebers
382
What is the term for the environmental cues that dertermine daily rythems?
5a2222d7819328001af38a05
True
Totally blind subterranean mammals
427
What kind of mammals need external stimuli to maintain their endogenous clock?
5a2222d7819328001af38a06
True
The rhythm is linked to the light–dark cycle. Animals, including humans, kept in total darkness for extended periods eventually function with a free-running rhythm. Their sleep cycle is pushed back or forward each "day", depending on whether their "day", their endogenous period, is shorter or longer than 24 hours. The environmental cues that reset the rhythms each day are called zeitgebers (from the German, "time-givers"). Totally blind subterranean mammals (e.g., blind mole rat Spalax sp.) are able to maintain their endogenous clocks in the apparent absence of external stimuli. Although they lack image-forming eyes, their photoreceptors (which detect light) are still functional; they do surface periodically as well.[page needed]
What chemical is absent or low during daylight?
570f40f65ab6b81900390eb3
Melatonin
0
False
When is the melatonin onset?
570f40f65ab6b81900390eb4
9 p.m
148
False
At its onset, what can be measured in blood or saliva?
570f40f65ab6b81900390eb5
Melatonin
0
False
The presence of what is a circadian marker?
570f40f65ab6b81900390eb6
hormone
320
False
What are the more reliable markers in determining sleep timing?
570f40f65ab6b81900390eb7
melatonin phase
509
False
Melatonin
0
When is Meletonin found in the system?
5a223ceb819328001af38a47
True
Melatonin
0
What starts to decrease at 9 p.m.
5a223ceb819328001af38a48
True
core temperature minimum
611
What is more stable than the melatonin offset?
5a223cec819328001af38a49
True
the timing of sleep
582
What is melatonin phase not a reliable marker for?
5a223cec819328001af38a4a
True
Melatonin is absent from the system or undetectably low during daytime. Its onset in dim light, dim-light melatonin onset (DLMO), at roughly 21:00 (9 p.m.) can be measured in the blood or the saliva. Its major metabolite can also be measured in morning urine. Both DLMO and the midpoint (in time) of the presence of the hormone in the blood or saliva have been used as circadian markers. However, newer research indicates that the melatonin offset may be the more reliable marker. Benloucif et al. found that melatonin phase markers were more stable and more highly correlated with the timing of sleep than the core temperature minimum. They found that both sleep offset and melatonin offset are more strongly correlated with phase markers than the onset of sleep. In addition, the declining phase of the melatonin levels is more reliable and stable than the termination of melatonin synthesis.
What physical factor must be continuously monitored during temperature studies>
570f42aa80d9841400ab356f
temperatures
115
False
At what time does the average adult human reach his lowest temperature?
570f42aa80d9841400ab3570
05:00
271
False
How long before wake time is the lowest temperature reached?
570f42aa80d9841400ab3571
two hours
293
False
When does the temperature of morning type young adults reach its lowest?
570f42aa80d9841400ab3572
04:00
425
False
What is the time of lowest temperature for evening type young adults?
570f42aa80d9841400ab3573
06:00
471
False
rectal temperatures
108
What physical factor must be periodicly monitored in temperature studies?
5a223afd819328001af38a3f
True
body temperature minimum
382
What do evening types reach at 4:00 a.m?
5a223afd819328001af38a40
True
body temperature minimum
382
What occurs close to waking for morning types?
5a223afd819328001af38a41
True
morning types
590
Who reaches their minimum temperature in the middle of their waking hours?
5a223afd819328001af38a42
True
For temperature studies, subjects must remain awake but calm and semi-reclined in near darkness while their rectal temperatures are taken continuously. Though variation is great among normal chronotypes, the average human adult's temperature reaches its minimum at about 05:00 (5 a.m.), about two hours before habitual wake time. Baehr et al. found that, in young adults, the daily body temperature minimum occurred at about 04:00 (4 a.m.) for morning types but at about 06:00 (6 a.m.) for evening types. This minimum occurred at approximately the middle of the eight hour sleep period for morning types, but closer to waking in evening types.
Who noticed that sleepiness increases and decreases in a 24 hour period?
570f44b95ab6b81900390ebd
Patrick and Gilbert
9
False
Who showed the animals could maintain activity in the absence of light and temperature changes?
570f44b95ab6b81900390ebe
J.S. Szymanski
176
False
What animals rhythmic feeding times were studied in the early 20th century ?
570f44b95ab6b81900390ebf
bees
429
False
What gene did Konopka and Benzer map in the early 1970 s?
570f44b95ab6b81900390ec0
"period"
704
False
What mutation did Takahashi discover in 1994?
570f44b95ab6b81900390ec1
circadian clock
835
False
Patrick and Gilbert
9
Who observed that sleepiness remained steady over twenty-four hour period?
5a2207b0819328001af389c5
True
animals are capable of maintaining 24-hour activity patterns in the absence of external cues
203
What did Patrick and Gilbert show in 1918?
5a2207b0819328001af389c6
True
circadian rhythms
365
What was noticed in the rhythmic feeding time of birds in the early twentieth century?
5a2207b0819328001af389c7
True
first clock mutant in Drosophila
637
What did Ingeborg Beling and Oskar Wahl isolate in the early 1970s?
5a2207b0819328001af389c8
True
In 1896, Patrick and Gilbert observed that during a prolonged period of sleep deprivation, sleepiness increases and decreases with a period of approximately 24 hours. In 1918, J.S. Szymanski showed that animals are capable of maintaining 24-hour activity patterns in the absence of external cues such as light and changes in temperature. In the early 20th century, circadian rhythms were noticed in the rhythmic feeding times of bees. Extensive experiments were done by Auguste Forel, Ingeborg Beling, and Oskar Wahl to see whether this rhythm was due to an endogenous clock.[citation needed] Ron Konopka and Seymour Benzer isolated the first clock mutant in Drosophila in the early 1970s and mapped the "period" gene, the first discovered genetic determinant of behavioral rhythmicity. Joseph Takahashi discovered the first mammalian circadian clock mutation (clockΔ19) using mice in 1994. However, recent studies show that deletion of clock does not lead to a behavioral phenotype (the animals still have normal circadian rhythms), which questions its importance in rhythm generation.
Inside of what can the molecular circadian clock operate?
570f46f55ab6b81900390ec7
single cell
73
False
By functioning within a single, what is the system?
570f46f55ab6b81900390ec8
cell-autonomous
98
False
What section of the brain periodically releases hormones?
570f46f55ab6b81900390ec9
endocrine glands
343
False
How are sleep and wake cycles as well as body functions coordinated?
570f46f55ab6b81900390eca
biological clock
841
False
What do body hormone receptors do with the body's organs?
570f46f55ab6b81900390ecb
synchronise
488
False
circadian clock
35
What requires multiple cells to function?
5a2215e5819328001af389ef
True
different cells may communicate with each other
210
What results in a synchronized output electrical signals?
5a2215e5819328001af389f0
True
endocrine
343
what section of the brain rarely releases hormones?
5a2215e5819328001af389f1
True
far across the body
464
Where in the body are receptors for electrical signals located?
5a2215e5819328001af389f2
True
sleep/wake, body temperature, thirst, and appetite
755
What is timed independently of the biological clock?
5a2215e5819328001af389f3
True
It is now known that the molecular circadian clock can function within a single cell; i.e., it is cell-autonomous. This was shown by Gene Block in isolated mollusk BRNs.[clarification needed] At the same time, different cells may communicate with each other resulting in a synchronised output of electrical signaling. These may interface with endocrine glands of the brain to result in periodic release of hormones. The receptors for these hormones may be located far across the body and synchronise the peripheral clocks of various organs. Thus, the information of the time of the day as relayed by the eyes travels to the clock in the brain, and, through that, clocks in the rest of the body may be synchronised. This is how the timing of, for example, sleep/wake, body temperature, thirst, and appetite are coordinately controlled by the biological clock.[citation needed]
What signals plants to synchronize their internal clocks?
570f48835ab6b81900390ed1
Light
0
False
What do plants use to sense light?
570f48835ab6b81900390ed2
photoreceptors
126
False
What receptors absorb red and blue light in plants?
570f48835ab6b81900390ed3
phytochromes and cryptochromes
190
False
Which phytochrome found in seedlings deteriorates with light and growth?
570f48835ab6b81900390ed4
phyA
239
False
What is the main phytochrome found in seedling grown in light?
570f48835ab6b81900390ed5
phyB
385
False
several phytochromes and cryptochromes
182
What absorbes white light for plants?
5a222b52819328001af38a19
True
phyA
239
What does Cry 1 degrade to?
5a222b52819328001af38a1a
True
seedlings grown in the dark
272
What is Cry 1 is the main phytochtome for?
5a222b52819328001af38a1b
True
Phytochromes B–E
347
What photochromes are less stable than phyA?
5a222b52819328001af38a1c
True
Light is the signal by which plants synchronize their internal clocks to their environment and is sensed by a wide variety of photoreceptors. Red and blue light are absorbed through several phytochromes and cryptochromes. One phytochrome, phyA, is the main phytochrome in seedlings grown in the dark but rapidly degrades in light to produce Cry1. Phytochromes B–E are more stable with phyB, the main phytochrome in seedlings grown in the light. The cryptochrome (cry) gene is also a light-sensitive component of the circadian clock and is thought to be involved both as a photoreceptor and as part of the clock's endogenous pacemaker mechanism. Cryptochromes 1–2 (involved in blue–UVA) help to maintain the period length in the clock through a whole range of light conditions.
What time cycle did studies in 1938 and 1990s use on humans?
570f4b245ab6b81900390edb
28-hour
124
False
What conditions were suppressed in the 28 hour wake-sleep cycle studies ?
570f4b245ab6b81900390edc
time cues
188
False
How long did the suppression of time clues study last?
570f4b245ab6b81900390edd
month
221
False
What is this forced type of study called?
570f4b245ab6b81900390ede
forced desynchrony
348
False
When in the cycle do wake-sleep cycles break off from the circadian period?
570f4b245ab6b81900390edf
24.18 hours
461
False
put human subjects on enforced 28-hour sleep–wake cycles
93
What did Kleitman do in the 1990's?
5a224145819328001af38a57
True
Nathaniel Kleitman
11
Whar dir Czeisler do in 1938?
5a224145819328001af38a58
True
in dim light
282
When can normal people adjust to a 28 hr sleep cycle?
5a224145819328001af38a59
True
Sleep and wake episodes are uncoupled from the endogenous circadian period
377
What happens at 24.5 hours?
5a224145819328001af38a5a
True
Studies by Nathaniel Kleitman in 1938 and by Derk-Jan Dijk and Charles Czeisler in the 1990s put human subjects on enforced 28-hour sleep–wake cycles, in constant dim light and with other time cues suppressed, for over a month. Because normal people cannot entrain to a 28-hour day in dim light if at all,[citation needed] this is referred to as a forced desynchrony protocol. Sleep and wake episodes are uncoupled from the endogenous circadian period of about 24.18 hours and researchers are allowed to assess the effects of circadian phase on aspects of sleep and wakefulness including sleep latency and other functions.[page needed]
What effect does jet-lag and shift-work have on the human body?
570f4d1080d9841400ab3579
profound consequences
35
False
Animals that eat during resting periods show what body increase?
570f4d1080d9841400ab357a
body mass
178
False
How does irregular eating during shift-work effect insulin?
570f4d1080d9841400ab357b
insulin sensitivity
350
False
Besides insulin sensitivity, what other effect does shift-work have on the body?
570f4d1080d9841400ab357c
higher body mass
374
False
What type of work can lead to heart, hypertension and inflammation?
570f4d1080d9841400ab357d
Shift-work
392
False
circadian and metabolic events in the body
60
What does shift work have little effect on?
5a2242d9819328001af38a5f
True
forced to eat during their resting period
121
What causes animals to have decreased body mass?
5a2242d9819328001af38a60
True
shift-work that favors irregular eating times
277
What decreases insulin sensativity?
5a2242d9819328001af38a61
True
Shift-work
392
What kind of work leads to lower body mass?
5a2242d9819328001af38a62
True
Shift-work or chronic jet-lag have profound consequences on circadian and metabolic events in the body. Animals that are forced to eat during their resting period show increased body mass and altered expression of clock and metabolic genes.[medical citation needed] In humans, shift-work that favors irregular eating times is associated with altered insulin sensitivity and higher body mass. Shift-work also leads to increased metabolic risks for cardio-metabolic syndrome, hypertension, inflammation.
What do studies show has a bidirectional relationship with the circadian system?
570f4f015ab6b81900390ee5
abusive drugs
117
False
What do abusive drugs effect in the circadian system?
570f4f015ab6b81900390ee6
circadian pacemaker
192
False
What do drug abusers show in their circadian processes?
570f4f015ab6b81900390ee7
disrupted rhythms
264
False
What can the disrupted circadian system cause?
570f4f015ab6b81900390ee8
abuse and relapse
343
False
What can disruption to genetics and environment in the sleep cycle cause?
570f4f015ab6b81900390ee9
susceptibility to addiction
476
False
Studies conducted on both animals and humans
0
What studies show a minor relationship between the circadian system and drug abuse?
5a2244e3819328001af38a6d
True
disrupted rhythms
264
What is displayed by individuals when not abusing drugs?
5a2244e3819328001af38a6e
True
the risk for substance abuse and relapse
320
What do steady rhythms increase?
5a2244e3819328001af38a6f
True
susceptibility to addiction
476
What may be increased by a person's normal sleep and wake cycle?
5a2244e3819328001af38a70
True
Studies conducted on both animals and humans show major bidirectional relationships between the circadian system and abusive drugs. It is indicated that these abusive drugs affect the central circadian pacemaker. Individuals suffering from substance abuse display disrupted rhythms. These disrupted rhythms can increase the risk for substance abuse and relapse. It is possible that genetic and/or environmental disturbances to the normal sleep and wake cycle can increase the susceptibility to addiction.
What is theorized to have evolved with circadian rhythms?
570f51d680d9841400ab3583
photosensitive proteins
107
False
What is thought that circadian rhythm evolved to protect?
570f51d680d9841400ab3584
replicating DNA
236
False
From what did  DNA need to be protected in the earliest cells?
570f51d680d9841400ab3585
ultraviolet radiation
281
False
One possible reason for the development of the circadian system is the need to counteract what ?
570f51d680d9841400ab3586
redox reactions
1020
False
What environmental event occurred 2.3 million years ago?
570f51d680d9841400ab3587
Great Oxidation Event
699
False
photosensitive
107
What type of proteins developed as a result of circadian rhythms?
5a220a80819328001af389d5
True
photosensitive proteins and circadian rhythms
107
What developed to protect replicating DNA from ultraviolet radiation and night?
5a220a80819328001af389d6
True
DNA
248
What type of replication is only done during the day?
5a220a80819328001af389d7
True
cyanobacteria
472
What simple organism provides evidence the DNA replicates at night?
5a220a80819328001af389d8
True
Great Oxidation Event
699
What event occurred approximately 2.3 million years ago?
5a220a80819328001af389d9
True
What drove circadian rhythms to evolve has been an enigmatic question. Previous hypotheses emphasized that photosensitive proteins and circadian rhythms may have originated together in the earliest cells, with the purpose of protecting replicating DNA from high levels of damaging ultraviolet radiation during the daytime. As a result, replication was relegated to the dark. However, evidence for this is lacking, since the simplest organisms with a circadian rhythm, the cyanobacteria, do the opposite of this - they divide more in the daytime. Recent studies instead highlight the importance of co-evolution of redox proteins with circadian oscillators in all three kingdoms of life following the Great Oxidation Event approximately 2.3 billion years ago. The current view is that circadian changes in environmental oxygen levels and the production of reactive oxygen species (ROS) in the presence of daylight are likely to have driven a need to evolve circadian rhythms to preempt, and therefore counteract, damaging redox reactions on a daily basis.
What is the body clock gene in animals necessary to ensure?
570f541b80d9841400ab358d
cellular/metabolic events
124
False
What do mice without the clock gene become?
570f541b80d9841400ab358e
hyperphagic and obese
173
False
Beside obesity, how else does the lack of a circadian clock effect   the mice?
570f541b80d9841400ab358f
glucose metabolism
213
False
How certain is it that these circadian clock  effects are the same in humans?
570f541b80d9841400ab3590
not clear
420
False
What gene needs to be deleted to cause obesity in mice?
570f541b80d9841400ab3591
Rev-ErbA alpha clock
258
False
importance of body clocks to ensure the proper timing of cellular/metabolic events
67
What does thhe addition of the clock gene in mice demonstrate?
5a221a05819328001af389f9
True
hyperphagic and obese, and have altered glucose metabolism.
173
what happens to mice with the clock gene?
5a221a05819328001af389fa
True
deletion of the Rev-ErbA alpha clock gene
242
what facilitates nondiiet induced obesity in mice?
5a221a05819328001af389fb
True
clock gene polymorphisms in humans and the susceptibility to develop the metabolic syndrome.
476
what effects are proven to be identical in mice and humans?
5a221a05819328001af389fc
True
Rev-ErbA alpha clock gene
258
Deletion of what gene in himans causes diabetes?
5a221a05819328001af389fd
True
Mutations or deletions of clock gene in mice have demonstrated the importance of body clocks to ensure the proper timing of cellular/metabolic events; clock-mutant mice are hyperphagic and obese, and have altered glucose metabolism. In mice, deletion of the Rev-ErbA alpha clock gene facilitates diet-induced obesity and changes the balance between glucose and lipid utilization predisposing to diabetes. However, it is not clear whether there is a strong association between clock gene polymorphisms in humans and the susceptibility to develop the metabolic syndrome.
Where is the primary circadian gene located in humans?
570f55cf5ab6b81900390eef
suprachiasmatic nucleus
59
False
Where are these cell groups found in humans?
570f55cf5ab6b81900390ef0
hypothalamus
152
False
What would the loss of the SCN cells cause in the sleep-wake rhythm?
570f55cf5ab6b81900390ef1
complete absence
204
False
What provides information to the SCN?
570f55cf5ab6b81900390ef2
eyes
313
False
What special cells in the eyes communicate directly to the SCN cells?
570f55cf5ab6b81900390ef3
ganglion
480
False
in the suprachiasmatic nucleus
52
Where is the secondary circadian clocl located?
5a223053819328001af38a2b
True
a pair of distinct groups of cells
102
What surrounds the hypothalamus?
5a223053819328001af38a2c
True
complete absence of a regular sleep–wake rhythm
204
What do the SCN cells cause in the sleep-wake rythem?
5a223053819328001af38a2d
True
information about illumination
270
What do the SCN recieve through the skin?
5a223053819328001af38a2e
True
specialized ganglion cells
468
What does the pupil contain that are directly photosensative?
5a223053819328001af38a2f
True
The primary circadian "clock" in mammals is located in the suprachiasmatic nucleus (or nuclei) (SCN), a pair of distinct groups of cells located in the hypothalamus. Destruction of the SCN results in the complete absence of a regular sleep–wake rhythm. The SCN receives information about illumination through the eyes. The retina of the eye contains "classical" photoreceptors ("rods" and "cones"), which are used for conventional vision. But the retina also contains specialized ganglion cells that are directly photosensitive, and project directly to the SCN, where they help in the entrainment (synchronization) of this master circadian clock.
What did early research show people preferred as a day length?
570f577a80d9841400ab3597
25 hours
91
False
What was the fault not considered in the early theories of day length?
570f577a80d9841400ab3598
artificial light
251
False
What did electric lighting in the evening do to the test subjects circadian phase?
570f577a80d9841400ab3599
delayed
591
False
When did more stringent testing determine that humans preferred a 24 hour day?
570f577a80d9841400ab359a
1999
675
False
To what is the 24 hours, 11 minutes day outcome of research closest ?
570f577a80d9841400ab359b
solar day
794
False
most people
53
Who prefers a 25 hour day when exposed to stimuli like daylight?
5a223728819328001af38a35
True
artificial light
251
What did the research shield the participants from?
5a223728819328001af38a36
True
the researchers
344
Who was aware of the phase-delaying effect of indoor ekectric lights?
5a223728819328001af38a37
True
1999
675
When did testing determine peple preferred a 25 hour day?
5a223728819328001af38a38
True
Harvard University
683
Who estimated the human rythem was in perfect sinc with the solar day?
5a223728819328001af38a39
True
Early research into circadian rhythms suggested that most people preferred a day closer to 25 hours when isolated from external stimuli like daylight and timekeeping. However, this research was faulty because it failed to shield the participants from artificial light. Although subjects were shielded from time cues (like clocks) and daylight, the researchers were not aware of the phase-delaying effects of indoor electric lights.[dubious – discuss] The subjects were allowed to turn on light when they were awake and to turn it off when they wanted to sleep. Electric light in the evening delayed their circadian phase.[citation needed] A more stringent study conducted in 1999 by Harvard University estimated the natural human rhythm to be closer to 24 hours, 11 minutes: much closer to the solar day but still not perfectly in sync.
Where else beside the SCN cells are independent circadian rhythms also found?
570f59605ab6b81900390ef9
organs and cells
61
False
What is the term for the independent clocks?
570f59605ab6b81900390efa
peripheral oscillators
173
False
What is the SCN considered to be in comparison to the peripheral oscillators?
570f59605ab6b81900390efb
master clock
137
False
In what body gland are the peripheral oscillators located?
570f59605ab6b81900390efc
adrenal gland
214
False
To what do oscillators in the skin respond?
570f59605ab6b81900390efd
light
367
False
in many organs and cells
53
Where are dependent circadian rythems found?
5a223e98819328001af38a4f
True
peripheral oscillators
173
What is the term for dependent clocks?
5a223e98819328001af38a50
True
oscillators
332
What in the skin responds to temperature?
5a223e98819328001af38a51
True
olfactory bulb and prostate
453
What structures are strong oscillators?
5a223e98819328001af38a52
True
More-or-less independent circadian rhythms are found in many organs and cells in the body outside the suprachiasmatic nuclei (SCN), the "master clock". These clocks, called peripheral oscillators, are found in the adrenal gland,[citation needed] oesophagus, lungs, liver, pancreas, spleen, thymus, and skin.[citation needed] Though oscillators in the skin respond to light, a systemic influence has not been proven. There is also some evidence that the olfactory bulb and prostate may experience oscillations when cultured, suggesting that these structures may also be weak oscillators.[citation needed]
Elizabeth_II
Who is the world's oldest reigning monarch?
570f887880d9841400ab35a1
Elizabeth
0
False
Than which queen has Elizabeth ruled longer?
570f887880d9841400ab35a2
Queen Victoria
509
False
How is Victoria related to Elizabeth?
570f887880d9841400ab35a3
great-great-grandmother
484
False
In what year did Elizabeth pass Victoria's length of rule?
570f887880d9841400ab35a4
2015
447
False
In the history of what is Elizabeth the longest reigning queen?
570f887880d9841400ab35a5
world history
620
False
2015
447
What was the last year that Elizabeth did a state visit in the Republic of Ireland?
5ad354ab604f3c001a3fdd89
True
2015
447
When was the last year Elizabeth traveled to the Vatican to visit the Pope?
5ad354ab604f3c001a3fdd8a
True
Queen Victoria
509
Who had the shortest reign on the British throne?
5ad354ab604f3c001a3fdd8b
True
2015
447
When was the last year the Pope traveled to England to meet Elizabeth?
5ad354ab604f3c001a3fdd8c
True
Queen Victoria
509
Who became Queen of England at the youngest age?
5ad354ab604f3c001a3fdd8d
True
Elizabeth's many historic visits and meetings include a state visit to the Republic of Ireland and reciprocal visits to and from the Pope. She has seen major constitutional changes, such as devolution in the United Kingdom, Canadian patriation, and the decolonisation of Africa. She has also reigned through various wars and conflicts involving many of her realms. She is the world's oldest reigning monarch as well as Britain's longest-lived. In 2015, she surpassed the reign of her great-great-grandmother, Queen Victoria, to become the longest-reigning British head of state and the longest-reigning queen regnant in world history.
Who did England propose to affiliate with Wales to quell Welsh nationalism?
570f8a9f80d9841400ab35ab
Elizabeth
78
False
Why did Britain not want Elizabeth to associate with conscientious objectors?
570f8a9f80d9841400ab35ac
Britain was at war
381
False
What did Elizabeth join in 1946?
570f8a9f80d9841400ab35ad
Welsh Gorsedd of Bards
736
False
Who was the always the Prince of Wales?
570f8a9f80d9841400ab35ae
heir apparent
686
False
Who wanted to name Elizabeth Princess of Wales?
570f8a9f80d9841400ab35af
Herbert Morrison
502
False
1946
704
In what year was the Welsh League of Youth established?
5ad35c5e604f3c001a3fde85
True
1946
704
In what year did Herbert Morrison become Home Secretary?
5ad35c5e604f3c001a3fde86
True
1946
704
In what year was the Welsh Gorsedd of Bards established?
5ad35c5e604f3c001a3fde87
True
Home Secretary, Herbert Morrison
486
Who rejected the idea of Elizabeth being appointed as the Constable of Caernarfon Castle?
5ad35c5e604f3c001a3fde88
True
the King
543
Who rejected the idea of Elizabeth being appointed as patron of Urdd Gobaith Cymru?
5ad35c5e604f3c001a3fde89
True
During the war, plans were drawn up to quell Welsh nationalism by affiliating Elizabeth more closely with Wales. Proposals, such as appointing her Constable of Caernarfon Castle or a patron of Urdd Gobaith Cymru (the Welsh League of Youth), were abandoned for various reasons, which included a fear of associating Elizabeth with conscientious objectors in the Urdd, at a time when Britain was at war. Welsh politicians suggested that she be made Princess of Wales on her 18th birthday. Home Secretary, Herbert Morrison supported the idea, but the King rejected it because he felt such a title belonged solely to the wife of a Prince of Wales and the Prince of Wales had always been the heir apparent. In 1946, she was inducted into the Welsh Gorsedd of Bards at the National Eisteddfod of Wales.
When were Elizabeth and Philip married?
570f8bb680d9841400ab35b5
20 November 1947
37
False
At what famous cathedral was Elizabeth married?
570f8bb680d9841400ab35b6
Westminster Abbey
57
False
How many wedding gifts did Elizabeth and Philip receive?
570f8bb680d9841400ab35b7
2500
90
False
Who designed Elizabeth's wedding gown?
570f8bb680d9841400ab35b8
Norman Hartnell
304
False
What former King was not invited to the wedding?
570f8bb680d9841400ab35b9
Duke of Windsor
483
False
2500
90
How many gifts did Elizabeth and Philip receive from British citizens?
5ad35d9b604f3c001a3fdec1
True
2500
90
How many people attended Elizabeth and Philip's wedding?
5ad35d9b604f3c001a3fdec2
True
three
424
How many sisters did Philip have in all?
5ad35d9b604f3c001a3fdec3
True
1947
49
In what year did King Edward VIII abdicate the throne?
5ad35d9b604f3c001a3fdec4
True
2500
90
How many ration coupons did Elizabeth need to buy for her gown?
5ad35d9b604f3c001a3fdec5
True
Elizabeth and Philip were married on 20 November 1947 at Westminster Abbey. They received 2500 wedding gifts from around the world. Because Britain had not yet completely recovered from the devastation of the war, Elizabeth required ration coupons to buy the material for her gown, which was designed by Norman Hartnell. In post-war Britain, it was not acceptable for the Duke of Edinburgh's German relations, including his three surviving sisters, to be invited to the wedding. The Duke of Windsor, formerly King Edward VIII, was not invited either.
Who did Princess Margaret want to marry?
570f8d0b5ab6b81900390f0d
Peter Townsend
101
False
What did Queen Elizabeth ask Margaret to do instead of marring Townsend?
570f8d0b5ab6b81900390f0e
wait for a year
222
False
What act would the Church of England not permit?
570f8d0b5ab6b81900390f0f
remarriage after divorce
490
False
Who did Princess Margaret marry in 1960?
570f8d0b5ab6b81900390f10
Antony Armstrong-Jones
708
False
What title was Armstrong-Jones given?
570f8d0b5ab6b81900390f11
Earl of Snowdon
748
False
Martin
255
What is the name of one of Peter Townsend's sons?
5ad36244604f3c001a3fdf8f
True
1960
690
In what year did Princess Margaret break up with Peter Townsend?
5ad36244604f3c001a3fdf90
True
16 years
128
How much older was Antony Armstrong-Jones than Princess Margaret?
5ad36244604f3c001a3fdf91
True
Peter
101
What was the Earl of Snowdon named?
5ad36244604f3c001a3fdf92
True
divorcé
119
What was Martin Charteris' marital status in 1960?
5ad36244604f3c001a3fdf93
True
Amid preparations for the coronation, Princess Margaret informed her sister that she wished to marry Peter Townsend, a divorcé‚ 16 years Margaret's senior, with two sons from his previous marriage. The Queen asked them to wait for a year; in the words of Martin Charteris, "the Queen was naturally sympathetic towards the Princess, but I think she thought—she hoped—given time, the affair would peter out." Senior politicians were against the match and the Church of England did not permit remarriage after divorce. If Margaret had contracted a civil marriage, she would have been expected to renounce her right of succession. Eventually, she decided to abandon her plans with Townsend. In 1960, she married Antony Armstrong-Jones, who was created Earl of Snowdon the following year. They divorced in 1978; she did not remarry.
Aside from her choice of Eden's successor, what crisis caused Elizabeth to be criticized?
570f8ec180d9841400ab35bf
Suez crisis
4
False
What did Lord Altrincham accuse Elizabeth of being?
570f8ec180d9841400ab35c0
out of touch
195
False
When did Macmillan resign?
570f8ec180d9841400ab35c1
1963
337
False
Who did Elizabeth appoint as Prime Minister after the resignation of Macmillan?
570f8ec180d9841400ab35c2
Earl of Home
399
False
When was a formal mechanism for electing the Minister adopted?
570f8ec180d9841400ab35c3
1965
598
False
1957
58
In what year did Lord Altrincham begin to own a newspaper?
5ad36796604f3c001a3fe099
True
Lord Altrincham
157
Who was one of the prominent people who criticized Elizabeth for appointing the Earl of Home as prime minister?
5ad36796604f3c001a3fe09a
True
1965
598
In what year did Lord Altrincham die?
5ad36796604f3c001a3fe09b
True
a single minister
576
How many ministers did Elizabeth consult before naming Eden as the prime minister?
5ad36796604f3c001a3fe09c
True
1957
58
In what year did the Earl of Home receive his title?
5ad36796604f3c001a3fe09d
True
The Suez crisis and the choice of Eden's successor led in 1957 to the first major personal criticism of the Queen. In a magazine, which he owned and edited, Lord Altrincham accused her of being "out of touch". Altrincham was denounced by public figures and slapped by a member of the public appalled by his comments. Six years later, in 1963, Macmillan resigned and advised the Queen to appoint the Earl of Home as prime minister, advice that she followed. The Queen again came under criticism for appointing the prime minister on the advice of a small number of ministers or a single minister. In 1965, the Conservatives adopted a formal mechanism for electing a leader, thus relieving her of involvement.
During the Australian constitutional crisis, what Prime Minister was dismissed?
570f90975ab6b81900390f17
Gough Whitlam
105
False
Who dismissed Whilam from the post of Australian Prime Minister?
570f90975ab6b81900390f18
Governor-General Sir John Kerr
151
False
What did Whitlam have in the House of Representatives?
570f90975ab6b81900390f19
a majority
274
False
Who appealed to Elizabeth to reverse the dismissal of Whitlam?
570f90975ab6b81900390f1a
Speaker Gordon Scholes
318
False
What did Elizabeth decline to do in response to the appeal by Scholes?
570f90975ab6b81900390f1b
interfere
432
False
1975
35
In what year did Gough Whitlam become prime minister of Australia?
5ad36afc604f3c001a3fe13b
True
1975
35
In what year did Sir John Kerr become governor-general of Australia?
5ad36afc604f3c001a3fe13c
True
1975
35
In what year did Gordon Scholes become Speaker of the House of Representatives in Australia?
5ad36afc604f3c001a3fe13d
True
Gordon Scholes
326
Who wanted Queen Elizabeth to approve of Sir John Kerr's decision to dismiss Gough Whitlam?
5ad36afc604f3c001a3fe13e
True
A year later, at the height of the 1975 Australian constitutional crisis, the Australian Prime Minister, Gough Whitlam, was dismissed from his post by Governor-General Sir John Kerr, after the Opposition-controlled Senate rejected Whitlam's budget proposals. As Whitlam had a majority in the House of Representatives, Speaker Gordon Scholes appealed to the Queen to reverse Kerr's decision. She declined, stating that she would not interfere in decisions reserved by the Constitution of Australia for the governor-general. The crisis fuelled Australian republicanism.
When did Elizabeth support constitutional amendments in Canada?
570f92ba80d9841400ab35c9
1987
3
False
What politician criticized the proposed changes?
570f92ba80d9841400ab35ca
Pierre Trudeau
167
False
In 1987 what elected government was removed in a coup?
570f92ba80d9841400ab35cb
Fijian government
210
False
What did coup leader Sitiveni Rabuka declare Fiji to be?
570f92ba80d9841400ab35cc
republic
482
False
In 1991 what money issue of the Queen was a feature of public criticism?
570f92ba80d9841400ab35cd
private wealth
596
False
Fijian government
210
What government was Pierre Trudeau prime minister of in 1987?
5ad3742c604f3c001a3fe2c5
True
1987
3
In what year did Ratu Sir Penaia Ganilau become Governor-General of Fiji?
5ad3742c604f3c001a3fe2c6
True
1991
508
In what year did It's a Royal Knockout air?
5ad3742c604f3c001a3fe2c7
True
Sitiveni Rabuka
430
Who was one of the younger royals who appeared on It's a Royal Knockout?
5ad3742d604f3c001a3fe2c8
True
Sitiveni Rabuka
430
Who in the press made estimates about the Queen's private wealth?
5ad3742d604f3c001a3fe2c9
True
In 1987, in Canada, Elizabeth publicly supported politically divisive constitutional amendments, prompting criticism from opponents of the proposed changes, including Pierre Trudeau. The same year, the elected Fijian government was deposed in a military coup. Elizabeth, as monarch of Fiji, supported the attempts of the Governor-General, Ratu Sir Penaia Ganilau, to assert executive power and negotiate a settlement. Coup leader Sitiveni Rabuka deposed Ganilau and declared Fiji a republic. By the start of 1991, republican feeling in Britain had risen because of press estimates of the Queen's private wealth—which were contradicted by the Palace—and reports of affairs and strained marriages among her extended family. The involvement of the younger royals in the charity game show It's a Royal Knockout was ridiculed and the Queen was the target of satire.
What did Elizabeth celebrate in 2002?
570f945f5ab6b81900390f21
Golden Jubilee
30
False
When did Elizabeth's mother die in 2002?
570f945f5ab6b81900390f22
March
89
False
What relative of Elizabeth died in February of 2002?
570f945f5ab6b81900390f23
Her sister
46
False
How many people in London attended each day of the the three day event?
570f945f5ab6b81900390f24
million
548
False
What group was surprised by the public's approval of the Queen?
570f945f5ab6b81900390f25
journalists
709
False
1977
439
In what year was the King's House in Jamaica built?
5ad377a8604f3c001a3fe371
True
Elizabeth
9
What was Elizabeth's mother's name?
5ad377a8604f3c001a3fe372
True
Jamaica
255
Where did Elizabeth realms tour end in 2002?
5ad377a8604f3c001a3fe373
True
March
89
In what month did Elizabeth's tour of her realms end in 2002?
5ad377a8604f3c001a3fe374
True
A million people
546
How many people saw Elizabeth when she was in Jamaica?
5ad377a8604f3c001a3fe375
True
In 2002, Elizabeth marked her Golden Jubilee. Her sister and mother died in February and March respectively, and the media speculated whether the Jubilee would be a success or a failure. She again undertook an extensive tour of her realms, which began in Jamaica in February, where she called the farewell banquet "memorable" after a power cut plunged the King's House, the official residence of the governor-general, into darkness. As in 1977, there were street parties and commemorative events, and monuments were named to honour the occasion. A million people attended each day of the three-day main Jubilee celebration in London, and the enthusiasm shown by the public for the Queen was greater than many journalists had expected.
When did Elizabeth open the Summer Olympics in Montreal?
570f96935ab6b81900390f2b
1976
26
False
When did Queen Elizabeth open the Summer Olympics in London?
570f96935ab6b81900390f2c
2012
76
False
For what event did Elizabeth appear in a film as part of the opening ceremonies?
570f96935ab6b81900390f2d
London Olympics
221
False
What actor also appeared with Elizabeth in the film?
570f96935ab6b81900390f2e
Daniel Craig
316
False
For what activity related to the film industry did Elizabeth receive a BAFTA award?
570f96935ab6b81900390f2f
patronage
400
False
Daniel Craig
316
Who directed the short film Elizabeth appeared in for the 2012 Summer Olympics?
5ad37a49604f3c001a3fe3c5
True
4 April
347
On what date did the Summer Olympics start in 2012?
5ad37a49604f3c001a3fe3c6
True
Daniel Craig
316
Who was the seventh actor to portray James Bond?
5ad37a49604f3c001a3fe3c7
True
1976
26
In what year did the BAFTA awards start?
5ad37a49604f3c001a3fe3c8
True
The Queen, who opened the 1976 Summer Olympics in Montreal, also opened the 2012 Summer Olympics and Paralympics in London, making her the first head of state to open two Olympic Games in two different countries. For the London Olympics, she played herself in a short film as part of the opening ceremony, alongside Daniel Craig as James Bond. On 4 April 2013, she received an honorary BAFTA for her patronage of the film industry and was called "the most memorable Bond girl yet" at the award ceremony.
What has been a subject of speculation concerning Elizabeth's wealth?
570f987980d9841400ab35d3
personal fortune
12
False
What was Elizabeth's wealth extimated to be in 1971?
570f987980d9841400ab35d4
£2 million
201
False
What did the palace call estimates of Elizabeth wealth in 1993?
570f987980d9841400ab35d5
"grossly overstated"
313
False
What did the Sunday Times estimate Elizabeth's fortune to be in 2015?
570f987980d9841400ab35d6
£340 million
470
False
Where does Elizabeth's wealth place her in the list of the richest in the UK?
570f987980d9841400ab35d7
302nd
499
False
1971
193
In what year did Jock Colville become Elizabeth's private secretary?
5ad381c2604f3c001a3fe499
True
£100 million
300
How much was Elizabeth worth in 1993 according to Buckingham Palace?
5ad381c2604f3c001a3fe49a
True
Jock Colville
81
Who is the wealthiest person in the UK as of 2015?
5ad381c2604f3c001a3fe49b
True
1971
193
In what year did Jock Colville leave Elizabeth's service?
5ad381c2604f3c001a3fe49c
True
1971
193
In what year did Jock Colville become the director of the Coutts bank?
5ad381c2604f3c001a3fe49d
True
Elizabeth's personal fortune has been the subject of speculation for many years. Jock Colville, who was her former private secretary and a director of her bank, Coutts, estimated her wealth in 1971 at £2 million (equivalent to about £25 million today). In 1993, Buckingham Palace called estimates of £100 million "grossly overstated". She inherited an estimated £70 million estate from her mother in 2002. The Sunday Times Rich List 2015 estimated her private wealth at £340 million, making her the 302nd richest person in the UK.
When was Elizabeth's coronation?
570fa2005ab6b81900390f3f
1953
144
False
When was Elizabeth's Diamond Jubilee?
570fa2005ab6b81900390f40
2012
251
False
How old was Elizabeth's father at the time of his death?
570fa2005ab6b81900390f41
56
336
False
How did Prince Philip's uncle, Lord Mounbatten, die?
570fa2005ab6b81900390f42
assassination
344
False
In what year did Elizabeth's  son's ex-wife die?
570fa2005ab6b81900390f43
1997
489
False
1977
235
In what year was Lord Mountbatten assassinated?
5ad35591604f3c001a3fdda3
True
56
336
How old was Elizabeth when her mother died?
5ad35591604f3c001a3fdda4
True
assassination
344
How did Elizabeth's father die?
5ad35591604f3c001a3fdda5
True
1992
447
In what year did Diana, Princess of Wales, marry Elizabeth's son?
5ad35591604f3c001a3fdda6
True
56
336
How old was Lord Mountbatten when he was assassinated?
5ad35591604f3c001a3fdda7
True
Times of personal significance have included the births and marriages of her children, grandchildren and great grandchildren, her coronation in 1953, and the celebration of milestones such as her Silver, Golden and Diamond Jubilees in 1977, 2002, and 2012, respectively. Moments of sadness for her include the death of her father, aged 56; the assassination of Prince Philip's uncle, Lord Mountbatten; the breakdown of her children's marriages in 1992 (her annus horribilis); the death in 1997 of her son's former wife, Diana, Princess of Wales; and the deaths of her mother and sister in 2002. Elizabeth has occasionally faced republican sentiments and severe press criticism of the royal family, but support for the monarchy and her personal popularity remain high.
When was the coronation of Elizabeth as Queen?
570fa3a280d9841400ab35ef
2 June 1953
63
False
How was much of the ceremony of Elizabeth's coronation presented to the public?
570fa3a280d9841400ab35f0
televised
223
False
What Commonwealth symbols were embroidered on Elizabeth's gown?
570fa3a280d9841400ab35f1
floral emblems
329
False
What is the emblem of England?
570fa3a280d9841400ab35f2
Tudor rose
379
False
What people have a thistle for their Commonwealth emblem?
570fa3a280d9841400ab35f3
Scots
391
False
2 June 1953
63
When was the first ceremony at Westminster Abbey to be broadcast on the radio?
5ad3631c604f3c001a3fdfc1
True
Scots thistle
391
What floral emblem was highest on Elizabeth's coronation dress?
5ad3631c604f3c001a3fdfc2
True
Australian wattle
434
What floral emblem was lowest on Elizabeth's coronation dress?
5ad3631c604f3c001a3fdfc3
True
Canadian maple leaf
453
What floral emblem was most prominent on Elizabeth's coronation dress?
5ad3631c604f3c001a3fdfc4
True
South African protea
499
What floral emblem was on the back of Elizabeth's coronation dress?
5ad3631c604f3c001a3fdfc5
True
Despite the death of Queen Mary on 24 March, the coronation on 2 June 1953 went ahead as planned, as Mary had asked before she died. The ceremony in Westminster Abbey, with the exception of the anointing and communion, was televised for the first time.[d] Elizabeth's coronation gown was embroidered on her instructions with the floral emblems of Commonwealth countries: English Tudor rose; Scots thistle; Welsh leek; Irish shamrock; Australian wattle; Canadian maple leaf; New Zealand silver fern; South African protea; lotus flowers for India and Ceylon; and Pakistan's wheat, cotton, and jute.
When did Elizabeth address the UN General Assembly?
570fa56680d9841400ab35f9
1957
3
False
What parliamentary session did Elizabeth open in 1957 while on tour?
570fa56680d9841400ab35fa
23rd Canadian Parliament
174
False
On a tour to Ghana in 1961 what did Elizabeth dismiss as a fear?
570fa56680d9841400ab35fb
her safety
502
False
In 1964 what was reported that Quebec extremists planned ?
570fa56680d9841400ab35fc
Elizabeth's assassination
1024
False
India
409
In 1961 what was the first country Elizabeth made a state visit to?
5ad36867604f3c001a3fe0b7
True
Nepal
426
In 1961 what was the last country Elizabeth made a state visit to?
5ad36867604f3c001a3fe0b8
True
1957
3
In what year did President Kwame Nkrumah of Ghana replace Elizabeth as the head of state?
5ad36867604f3c001a3fe0b9
True
Montreal
1114
In what Canadian city is the Canadian Parliament?
5ad36867604f3c001a3fe0ba
True
1964
931
In what year did Harold Macmillan die?
5ad36867604f3c001a3fe0bb
True
In 1957, she made a state visit to the United States, where she addressed the United Nations General Assembly on behalf of the Commonwealth. On the same tour, she opened the 23rd Canadian Parliament, becoming the first monarch of Canada to open a parliamentary session. Two years later, solely in her capacity as Queen of Canada, she revisited the United States and toured Canada. In 1961, she toured Cyprus, India, Pakistan, Nepal, and Iran. On a visit to Ghana the same year, she dismissed fears for her safety, even though her host, President Kwame Nkrumah, who had replaced her as head of state, was a target for assassins. Harold Macmillan wrote, "The Queen has been absolutely determined all through ... She is impatient of the attitude towards her to treat her as ... a film star ... She has indeed 'the heart and stomach of a man' ... She loves her duty and means to be a Queen." Before her tour through parts of Quebec in 1964, the press reported that extremists within the Quebec separatist movement were plotting Elizabeth's assassination. No attempt was made, but a riot did break out while she was in Montreal; the Queen's "calmness and courage in the face of the violence" was noted.
What Jubilee did Elizabeth celebrate in 1977?
570fa75480d9841400ab3613
Silver
30
False
When did Princess Margaret separate from her husband?
570fa75480d9841400ab3614
1977
3
False
In what year did Nicolae Ceausescu visit the UK?
570fa75480d9841400ab3615
1978
352
False
Who, in 1979, was discovered to be a communist spy?
570fa75480d9841400ab3616
Anthony Blunt
610
False
What group assassinated Lord Mountbatten?
570fa75480d9841400ab3617
Provisional Irish Republican Army
769
False
1977
3
In what year did Princess Margaret divorce her husband?
5ad36f0d604f3c001a3fe223
True
1977
3
In what year did Nicolae Ceausescu become the communist dictator of Romania?
5ad36f0d604f3c001a3fe224
True
1978
352
In what year did Anthony Blunt cease to be the Surveyor of the Queen's Pictures?
5ad36f0d604f3c001a3fe225
True
1978
352
In what year did Nicolae Ceausescu die?
5ad36f0d604f3c001a3fe226
True
1978
352
In what year did Anthony Blunt die?
5ad36f0d604f3c001a3fe227
True
In 1977, Elizabeth marked the Silver Jubilee of her accession. Parties and events took place throughout the Commonwealth, many coinciding with her associated national and Commonwealth tours. The celebrations re-affirmed the Queen's popularity, despite virtually coincident negative press coverage of Princess Margaret's separation from her husband. In 1978, the Queen endured a state visit to the United Kingdom by Romania's communist dictator, Nicolae Ceaușescu, and his wife, Elena, though privately she thought they had "blood on their hands". The following year brought two blows: one was the unmasking of Anthony Blunt, former Surveyor of the Queen's Pictures, as a communist spy; the other was the assassination of her relative and in-law Lord Mountbatten by the Provisional Irish Republican Army.
As what was Elizabeth portrayed in the 1950s?
570fa9745ab6b81900390f89
"fairytale Queen"
96
False
What was the time after WWII heralded as?
570fa9745ab6b81900390f8a
"new Elizabethan age"
229
False
Of what did Lord Altrincham say Elizabeth's speeches resembled?
570fa9745ab6b81900390f8b
"priggish schoolgirl"
331
False
What investiture featuring Prince Charles was televised in the late 1960s?
570fa9745ab6b81900390f8c
Prince of Wales
564
False
In the 1960s, what did Elizabeth begin wearing to events ?
570fa9745ab6b81900390f8d
solid-colour overcoats
619
False
1957
284
In what year did Lord Altrincham receive his lordship?
5ad37fec604f3c001a3fe451
True
solid-colour overcoats
619
What does Prince Charles tend to wear out in public?
5ad37fec604f3c001a3fe452
True
Lord Altrincham
252
Who directed the television documentary Royal Family in the late 1960s?
5ad37fec604f3c001a3fe453
True
Lord Altrincham
252
who first called it a "new Elizabethan age"?
5ad37fec604f3c001a3fe454
True
speeches sounded like those of a "priggish schoolgirl"
298
What has Prince Charles been accused of by one of his critics?
5ad37fec604f3c001a3fe455
True
In the 1950s, as a young woman at the start of her reign, Elizabeth was depicted as a glamorous "fairytale Queen". After the trauma of the Second World War, it was a time of hope, a period of progress and achievement heralding a "new Elizabethan age". Lord Altrincham's accusation in 1957 that her speeches sounded like those of a "priggish schoolgirl" was an extremely rare criticism. In the late 1960s, attempts to portray a more modern image of the monarchy were made in the television documentary Royal Family and by televising Prince Charles's investiture as Prince of Wales. In public, she took to wearing mostly solid-colour overcoats and decorative hats, which allow her to be seen easily in a crowd.
What famous jewelry collection is held in trust by Elizabeth?
570fab2280d9841400ab3625
Crown Jewels
80
False
What residences of Elizabeth are held in trust and not owned by Elizabeth?
570fab2280d9841400ab3626
official residences
164
False
What Scottish estate is privately owned by Elizabeth?
570fab2280d9841400ab3627
Balmoral Castle
334
False
How much is the worth of the British Crown Estate?
570fab2280d9841400ab3628
£9.4 billion
428
False
How is the British Crown Estate held by Elizabeth?
570fab2280d9841400ab3629
in trust
459
False
£442 million
298
How much is Buckingham Palace said to be worth as of 2014?
5ad382c4604f3c001a3fe4c1
True
Buckingham Palace
193
Where are the Crown Jewels on display?
5ad382c4604f3c001a3fe4c2
True
Balmoral Castle
334
Where does Elizabeth spend most of her time nowadays?
5ad382c4604f3c001a3fe4c3
True
£442 million
298
How much was Elizabeth worth as of 2014?
5ad382c4604f3c001a3fe4c4
True
£442 million
298
As of 2014 how much is Windsor Castle worth?
5ad382c4604f3c001a3fe4c5
True
The Royal Collection, which includes thousands of historic works of art and the Crown Jewels, is not owned by the Queen personally but is held in trust, as are her official residences, such as Buckingham Palace and Windsor Castle, and the Duchy of Lancaster, a property portfolio valued in 2014 at £442 million. Sandringham House and Balmoral Castle are privately owned by the Queen. The British Crown Estate – with holdings of £9.4 billion in 2014 – is held in trust by the sovereign and cannot be sold or owned by Elizabeth in a private capacity.
Who was Elizabeth only sibling?P
570fac3a80d9841400ab362f
Princess Margaret
26
False
When was Princess Margaret born?
570fac3a80d9841400ab3630
1930
57
False
Where were the royal princesses educated?
570fac3a80d9841400ab3631
at home
96
False
Who was Marion Crawford to the princesses?
570fac3a80d9841400ab3632
governess
152
False
What was the title of the book written by Crawford about the princesses?
570fac3a80d9841400ab3633
The Little Princesses
366
False
Margaret
35
What was Elizabeth and Princess Margaret's mothers name?
5ad35849604f3c001a3fde1b
True
horses and dogs
476
What did Princess Margaret love as a child?
5ad35849604f3c001a3fde1c
True
attitude of responsibility
518
What attitude of Princess Margaret did Marion Crawford wrote she had?
5ad35849604f3c001a3fde1d
True
1950
391
In what year did Marion Crawford die?
5ad35849604f3c001a3fde1e
True
1930
57
In what year was Margaret Rhodes born?
5ad35849604f3c001a3fde1f
True
Elizabeth's only sibling, Princess Margaret, was born in 1930. The two princesses were educated at home under the supervision of their mother and their governess, Marion Crawford, who was casually known as "Crawfie". Lessons concentrated on history, language, literature and music. Crawford published a biography of Elizabeth and Margaret's childhood years entitled The Little Princesses in 1950, much to the dismay of the royal family. The book describes Elizabeth's love of horses and dogs, her orderliness, and her attitude of responsibility. Others echoed such observations: Winston Churchill described Elizabeth when she was two as "a character. She has an air of authority and reflectiveness astonishing in an infant." Her cousin Margaret Rhodes described her as "a jolly little girl, but fundamentally sensible and well-behaved".
At what age was Elizabeth when she went on her first solo public appearance?
570fae4580d9841400ab3639
16
23
False
Where did Elizabeth visit on her first solo public appearance?
570fae4580d9841400ab363a
Grenadier Guards
98
False
In case of her father's absence, in what capacity could Elizabeth act?
570fae4580d9841400ab363b
Counsellors of State
276
False
When did Elizabeth join the Women's Auxiliary Territorial Service?
570fae4580d9841400ab363c
February 1945
400
False
In what capacity did Elizabeth serve in the Auxiliary?
570fae4580d9841400ab363d
driver and mechanic
552
False
1943
3
In what year was the Women's Auxiliary Territorial Service started?
5ad35b6b604f3c001a3fde73
True
1943
3
In what year was the Grenadier Guards started?
5ad35b6b604f3c001a3fde74
True
16
23
How old was Elizabeth in July 1944?
5ad35b6b604f3c001a3fde75
True
16
23
How old was Elizabeth in February 1945?
5ad35b6b604f3c001a3fde76
True
In 1943, at the age of 16, Elizabeth undertook her first solo public appearance on a visit to the Grenadier Guards, of which she had been appointed colonel the previous year. As she approached her 18th birthday, parliament changed the law so that she could act as one of five Counsellors of State in the event of her father's incapacity or absence abroad, such as his visit to Italy in July 1944. In February 1945, she joined the Women's Auxiliary Territorial Service as an honorary second subaltern with the service number of 230873. She trained as a driver and mechanic and was promoted to honorary junior commander five months later.
Where did Philip serve during WWII?
570fb0945ab6b81900390f93
Royal Navy
143
False
To whom did Philip's sisters marry?
570fb0945ab6b81900390f94
German noblemen
220
False
What did Elizabeth's mother call Philip?
570fb0945ab6b81900390f95
"The Hun"
588
False
What did Elizabeth's mother later say that Philip was?
570fb0945ab6b81900390f96
"an English gentleman"
669
False
What did Crawford report that some of the King's advisers thought of Philip?
570fb0945ab6b81900390f97
good enough
323
False
King's advisors
289
What was Marion Crawford a member of?
5ad35cff604f3c001a3fdea3
True
German
220
What nationality was Philip?
5ad35cff604f3c001a3fdea4
True
Marion Crawford
253
Who was one of Philip's sisters?
5ad35cff604f3c001a3fdea5
True
Philip
44
What was the King's name?
5ad35cff604f3c001a3fdea7
True
The engagement was not without controversy: Philip had no financial standing, was foreign-born (though a British subject who had served in the Royal Navy throughout the Second World War), and had sisters who had married German noblemen with Nazi links. Marion Crawford wrote, "Some of the King's advisors did not think him good enough for her. He was a prince without a home or kingdom. Some of the papers played long and loud tunes on the string of Philip's foreign origin." Elizabeth's mother was reported, in later biographies, to have opposed the union initially, even dubbing Philip "The Hun". In later life, however, she told biographer Tim Heald that Philip was "an English gentleman".
What was the state of George VI's health during 1951?
570fb20480d9841400ab3643
health declined
25
False
On what date did Elizabeth's father, King George VI, die?
570fb20480d9841400ab3644
6 February 1952
428
False
In what country was Elizabeth when George VI died?
570fb20480d9841400ab3645
Kenya
418
False
October
186
In what month in 1951 did George VI's health start to decline?
5ad36069604f3c001a3fdf2d
True
1951
194
In what year did Martin Charteris become Elizabeth's private secretary?
5ad36069604f3c001a3fdf2e
True
6 February 1952
428
On what date did the royal part arrive back in the UK?
5ad36069604f3c001a3fdf2f
True
New Zealand
396
Did Elizabeth tour Australia or New Zealand first?
5ad36069604f3c001a3fdf30
True
February
430
In what month in 1952 did Elizabeth and Philip set out for their tour of Australia and New Zealand?
5ad36069604f3c001a3fdf31
True
During 1951, George VI's health declined and Elizabeth frequently stood in for him at public events. When she toured Canada and visited President Harry S. Truman in Washington, D.C., in October 1951, her private secretary, Martin Charteris, carried a draft accession declaration in case the King died while she was on tour. In early 1952, Elizabeth and Philip set out for a tour of Australia and New Zealand by way of Kenya. On 6 February 1952, they had just returned to their Kenyan home, Sagana Lodge, after a night spent at Treetops Hotel, when word arrived of the death of the King and consequently Elizabeth's immediate accession to the throne. Philip broke the news to the new Queen. Martin Charteris asked her to choose a regnal name; she chose to remain Elizabeth, "of course". She was proclaimed queen throughout her realms and the royal party hastily returned to the United Kingdom. She and the Duke of Edinburgh moved into Buckingham Palace.
When did the prime ministers of Britain and France discuss the idea of France joining the Commonwealth?
570fb4715ab6b81900390f9d
1956
3
False
What did France sign instead of joining the Commonwealth?
570fb4715ab6b81900390f9e
Treaty of Rome
217
False
What did the Treaty of Rome establish?
570fb4715ab6b81900390f9f
European Economic Community
255
False
To what was the European Economic Community the precurser?
570fb4715ab6b81900390fa0
European Union
305
False
When did Britain and France invade Egypt?
570fb4715ab6b81900390fa1
November 1956
324
False
1956
3
In what year did Sir Anthony Eden become the British prime minister?
5ad365a7604f3c001a3fe03d
True
1956
3
In what year did Guy Mollet become the French prime minister?
5ad365a7604f3c001a3fe03e
True
1956
333
In what year was the Suez Canal dig completed?
5ad365a7604f3c001a3fe03f
True
Egypt
366
What was the first country Britain invaded during Queen Elizabeth's rule?
5ad365a7604f3c001a3fe040
True
1956
3
In what year did Queen Elizabeth get crowned?
5ad365a7604f3c001a3fe041
True
In 1956, the British and French prime ministers, Sir Anthony Eden and Guy Mollet, discussed the possibility of France joining the Commonwealth. The proposal was never accepted and the following year France signed the Treaty of Rome, which established the European Economic Community, the precursor to the European Union. In November 1956, Britain and France invaded Egypt in an ultimately unsuccessful attempt to capture the Suez Canal. Lord Mountbatten claimed the Queen was opposed to the invasion, though Eden denied it. Eden resigned two months later.
When did the decolonization of Africa and the Caribbean accelerate?
570fb64080d9841400ab364d
1960s and 1970s
4
False
How many countries got independence from Britain during decolonization?
570fb64080d9841400ab364e
Over 20 countries
91
False
When did Britain join the European Community?
570fb64080d9841400ab364f
1973
703
False
What did the Rhodesian president declare in 1965?
570fb64080d9841400ab3650
independence from Britain
318
False
In spite of sanctions by the international community, how long did the Ian Smith's regime last?
570fb64080d9841400ab3651
over a decade
554
False
Rhodesia
520
What was the first African country to gain independence from Britain?
5ad3692f604f3c001a3fe0df
True
1965
197
In what year did Ian Smith become the Prime Minister of Rhodesia?
5ad3692f604f3c001a3fe0e0
True
1965
197
In what year was the European Community established?
5ad3692f604f3c001a3fe0e1
True
1973
703
In what year did Rhodesia cease to exist?
5ad3692f604f3c001a3fe0e2
True
Rhodesia
520
What was the last of 20 countries to gain independence from Britain?
5ad3692f604f3c001a3fe0e3
True
The 1960s and 1970s saw an acceleration in the decolonisation of Africa and the Caribbean. Over 20 countries gained independence from Britain as part of a planned transition to self-government. In 1965, however, the Rhodesian Prime Minister, Ian Smith, in opposition to moves toward majority rule, declared unilateral independence from Britain while still expressing "loyalty and devotion" to Elizabeth. Although the Queen dismissed him in a formal declaration, and the international community applied sanctions against Rhodesia, his regime survived for over a decade. As Britain's ties to its former empire weakened, the British government sought entry to the European Community, a goal it achieved in 1973.
During what ceremony were shots fired at the Queen?
570fb86780d9841400ab3657
Trooping the Colour
16
False
Who was the assailant who shot at Queen Elizabeth?
570fb86780d9841400ab3658
Marcus Sarjeant
315
False
Which of Elizabeth's sons served in the Falklands War?
570fb86780d9841400ab3659
Prince Andrew
553
False
Who was the intruder Elizabeth awoke to find in her bedroom?
570fb86780d9841400ab365a
Michael Fagan
714
False
What island's invasion angered Elizabeth?
570fb86780d9841400ab365b
Grenada
1101
False
1983
1031
In what year did Ronald Reagan order the invasion of Grenada?
5ad3713a604f3c001a3fe27b
True
July
635
In what month in 1982 did Ronald Reagan visit Windsor Castle?
5ad3713a604f3c001a3fe27c
True
April
479
In what month in 1983 did Elizabeth visit Reagan's California ranch?
5ad3713a604f3c001a3fe27d
True
Burmese
227
What was Elizabeth's horses name in 1983?
5ad3713a604f3c001a3fe27e
True
three
389
How many years did Michael Fagan serve for breaking into Buckingham Palace?
5ad3713a604f3c001a3fe27f
True
During the 1981 Trooping the Colour ceremony and only six weeks before the wedding of Charles, Prince of Wales, and Lady Diana Spencer, six shots were fired at the Queen from close range as she rode down The Mall on her horse, Burmese. Police later discovered that the shots were blanks. The 17-year-old assailant, Marcus Sarjeant, was sentenced to five years in prison and released after three. The Queen's composure and skill in controlling her mount were widely praised. From April to September 1982, the Queen remained anxious but proud of her son, Prince Andrew, who was serving with British forces during the Falklands War. On 9 July, the Queen awoke in her bedroom at Buckingham Palace to find an intruder, Michael Fagan, in the room with her. Remaining calm and through two calls to the Palace police switchboard, she spoke to Fagan while he sat at the foot of her bed until assistance arrived seven minutes later. Though she hosted US President Ronald Reagan at Windsor Castle in 1982 and visited his Californian ranch in 1983, she was angered when his administration ordered the invasion of Grenada, one of her Caribbean realms, without informing her.
What political feeling is still a minority view in Britain?
570fc66e5ab6b81900390fb1
republicanism
197
False
What state of affairs produced revelations and problems for Elizabeth?
570fc66e5ab6b81900390fb2
Charles and Diana's marriage
59
False
In spite of criticisms what kind of approval ratings did Elizabeth have?
570fc66e5ab6b81900390fb3
high
269
False
What institution was being criticized during the time of Charles and Diana's breakup?
570fc66e5ab6b81900390fb4
monarchy
340
False
When did Elizabeth write to tell Charles and Diana to get a divorce?
570fc66e5ab6b81900390fb5
December 1995
641
False
republicanism
197
What was the majority viewpoint politically in the 1990s in Britain?
5ad375d6604f3c001a3fe319
True
1995
650
In what year did Charles and Diana finally get divorced?
5ad375d6604f3c001a3fe31a
True
high
269
What type of approval ratings did Prime Minister John Major have?
5ad375d6604f3c001a3fe31b
True
1995
650
In what year did Robert Fellowes become Elizabeth's private secretary?
5ad375d6604f3c001a3fe31c
True
1995
650
In what year did George Carey become the Archbishop of Canterbury?
5ad375d6604f3c001a3fe31d
True
In the years to follow, public revelations on the state of Charles and Diana's marriage continued. Even though support for republicanism in Britain seemed higher than at any time in living memory, republicanism was still a minority viewpoint, and the Queen herself had high approval ratings. Criticism was focused on the institution of the monarchy itself and the Queen's wider family rather than her own behaviour and actions. In consultation with her husband and the Prime Minister, John Major, as well as the Archbishop of Canterbury, George Carey, and her private secretary, Robert Fellowes, she wrote to Charles and Diana at the end of December 1995, saying that a divorce was desirable.
When was the second address to the UN by Elizabeth?
570fc84780d9841400ab3673
2010
60
False
Who was UN Secretary General when Elizabeth addressed the UN?
570fc84780d9841400ab3674
Ban Ki-moon
180
False
As what did Ban Ki-Moon introduce Elizabeth to the UN?
570fc84780d9841400ab3675
"an anchor for our age"
211
False
For whom was the garden Elizabeth opened a memorial?
570fc84780d9841400ab3676
British victims
347
False
When was Elizabeth's farewell visit to Australia?
570fc84780d9841400ab3677
October 2011
426
False
2010
60
In what year did the Queen first address the United Nations?
5ad378fa604f3c001a3fe39d
True
2010
60
In what year did Ban Ki-moon become the UN Secretary General?
5ad378fa604f3c001a3fe39e
True
1954
467
In what year did Elizabeth become Queen?
5ad378fa604f3c001a3fe39f
True
11
380
How many British people died in the 9-11 attack?
5ad378fa604f3c001a3fe3a0
True
11
380
How many times has the Queen toured Canada?
5ad378fa604f3c001a3fe3a1
True
The Queen addressed the United Nations for a second time in 2010, again in her capacity as Queen of all Commonwealth realms and Head of the Commonwealth. The UN Secretary General, Ban Ki-moon, introduced her as "an anchor for our age". During her visit to New York, which followed a tour of Canada, she officially opened a memorial garden for the British victims of the September 11 attacks. The Queen's visit to Australia in October 2011 – her sixteenth visit since 1954 – was called her "farewell tour" in the press because of her age.
Until she became queen, what flower was on Elizabeth's coat of arms?
570fca425ab6b81900390feb
Tudor rose
209
False
When did Elizabeth acquire her father's arms?
570fca425ab6b81900390fec
Upon her accession
266
False
Besides personal flags,what other types of flags does Elizabeth have?
570fca425ab6b81900390fed
royal standards
372
False
What type of flags are used in foreign countries?
570fca425ab6b81900390fee
personal
392
False
When did Elizabeth start to bear a coat of royal arms?
570fca425ab6b81900390fef
21 April 1944
5
False
three
161
How many points does Elizabeth's arms bear on her argent after her accession?
5ad38503604f3c001a3fe535
True
Tudor rose
209
What has been the centre point of Elizabeth's arms since she ascended to the throne?
5ad38503604f3c001a3fe536
True
21 April 1944
5
On what date was Elizabeth ascended to the throne?
5ad38503604f3c001a3fe537
True
the first and third a cross of St George
224
What are on each side of the three points argent of Elizabeth's current arms since she ascended to the throne?
5ad38503604f3c001a3fe538
True
lozenge
72
What shape is Elizabeth's royal coat of arms since her accession?
5ad38503604f3c001a3fe539
True
From 21 April 1944 until her accession, Elizabeth's arms consisted of a lozenge bearing the royal coat of arms of the United Kingdom differenced with a label of three points argent, the centre point bearing a Tudor rose and the first and third a cross of St George. Upon her accession, she inherited the various arms her father held as sovereign. The Queen also possesses royal standards and personal flags for use in the United Kingdom, Canada, Australia, New Zealand, Jamaica, Barbados, and elsewhere.
In what city was Elizabeth born?
570fcc475ab6b81900391013
London
22
False
At the time of her birth, what was the rank of Elizabeth's parents?
570fcc475ab6b81900391014
Duke and Duchess of York
36
False
What were Elizabeth's parents' titles after ascending to the throne?
570fcc475ab6b81900391015
King George VI and Queen Elizabeth
68
False
How many children did Elizabeth's parents have?
570fcc475ab6b81900391016
two daughters
131
False
What event caused Elizabeth's father to become King?
570fcc475ab6b81900391017
abdication of his brother
222
False
1936
263
In what year was Edward VIII crowned?
5ad352da604f3c001a3fdd25
True
Anne
509
What is Elizabeth's sisters name?
5ad352da604f3c001a3fdd26
True
Andrew
515
Who is Elizabeth's oldest child?
5ad352da604f3c001a3fdd27
True
Charles
500
Who is Elizabeth's youngest child?
5ad352da604f3c001a3fdd28
True
1947
422
In what year was Edward born?
5ad352da604f3c001a3fdd29
True
Elizabeth was born in London to the Duke and Duchess of York, later King George VI and Queen Elizabeth, and was the elder of their two daughters. She was educated privately at home. Her father acceded to the throne on the abdication of his brother Edward VIII in 1936, from which time she was the heir presumptive. She began to undertake public duties during World War II, serving in the Auxiliary Territorial Service. In 1947, she married Philip, Duke of Edinburgh, with whom she has four children: Charles, Anne, Andrew, and Edward.
When she was born, where in the order of succession was Elizabeth?
570fcfd680d9841400ab369b
third
46
False
Before Elizabeth's father who was next in line for the throne?
570fcfd680d9841400ab369c
Edward, Prince of Wales
110
False
When did Elizabeth's grandfather die?
570fcfd680d9841400ab369d
1936
389
False
What event caused Edward to abdicate the throne?
570fcfd680d9841400ab369e
proposed marriage
537
False
What did Edward's proposed marriage to Simpson cause?
570fcfd680d9841400ab369f
constitutional crisis
603
False
1936
389
In what year did Wallis Simpson divorce?
5ad35920604f3c001a3fde39
True
Edward, Prince of Wales
110
What was Elizabeth's father's name?
5ad35920604f3c001a3fde3b
True
1936
389
In what year was Elizabeth born?
5ad35920604f3c001a3fde3c
True
During her grandfather's reign, Elizabeth was third in the line of succession to the throne, behind her uncle Edward, Prince of Wales, and her father, the Duke of York. Although her birth generated public interest, she was not expected to become queen, as the Prince of Wales was still young, and many assumed that he would marry and have children of his own. When her grandfather died in 1936 and her uncle succeeded as Edward VIII, she became second-in-line to the throne, after her father. Later that year Edward abdicated, after his proposed marriage to divorced socialite Wallis Simpson provoked a constitutional crisis. Consequently, Elizabeth's father became king, and she became heir presumptive. If her parents had had a later son, she would have lost her position as first-in-line, as her brother would have been heir apparent and above her in the line of succession.
What name was it assumed Elizabeth would take upon her marriage to Philip?
570fea6c80d9841400ab3717
Mountbatten,
121
False
What Prime Minister objected to the name change?
570fea6c80d9841400ab3718
Winston Churchill
238
False
What name did Elizabeth keep as her married name?
570fea6c80d9841400ab3719
House of Windsor
328
False
What name was adopted for Elizabeth's male-line descendants who do not have royal titles?
570fea6c80d9841400ab371a
Mountbatten-Windsor
670
False
When did Elizabeth decree the use of Mountbatten-Windsor as the  surname?
570fea6c80d9841400ab371b
1960
572
False
1955
652
In what year did Winston Churchill die?
5ad36168604f3c001a3fdf5f
True
9
356
How many male-line descendants do Elizabeth and Philip have with no royal title?
5ad36168604f3c001a3fdf60
True
Winston
238
What was the Duke's first name?
5ad36168604f3c001a3fdf61
True
Winston
238
What was the name of Elizabeth and Philip's last child?
5ad36168604f3c001a3fdf62
True
With Elizabeth's accession, it seemed probable that the royal house would bear her husband's name, becoming the House of Mountbatten, in line with the custom of a wife taking her husband's surname on marriage. The British Prime Minister, Winston Churchill, and Elizabeth's grandmother, Queen Mary, favoured the retention of the House of Windsor, and so on 9 April 1952 Elizabeth issued a declaration that Windsor would continue to be the name of the royal house. The Duke complained, "I am the only man in the country not allowed to give his name to his own children." In 1960, after the death of Queen Mary in 1953 and the resignation of Churchill in 1955, the surname Mountbatten-Windsor was adopted for Philip and Elizabeth's male-line descendants who do not carry royal titles.
Who did Eden recommend that Elizabeth consult about appointing a new  Prime Minister?
570fefd85ab6b819003910e5
Lord Salisbury
234
False
What position did Lord Salisbury have in the government?
570fefd85ab6b819003910e6
Lord President of the Council
254
False
Who did Elizabeth appoint as Prime Minister?
570fefd85ab6b819003910e7
Harold Macmillan
502
False
What position did Lord Kilmuir have ?
570fefd85ab6b819003910e8
Lord Chancellor
322
False
Who in turn did Salisbury and Kilmuir consult?
570fefd85ab6b819003910e9
British Cabinet
353
False
1922
423
In what year was Harold Macmillan born?
5ad3663f604f3c001a3fe059
True
1922
423
In what year was Lord Salisbury born?
5ad3663f604f3c001a3fe05a
True
1922
423
In what year did Lord Salisbury become the Lord President of the Council?
5ad3663f604f3c001a3fe05b
True
Lord President of the Council
254
What occupation was Harold Macmillan at the time?
5ad3663f604f3c001a3fe05c
True
1922
423
In what year was Lord Kilmuir born?
5ad3663f604f3c001a3fe05d
True
The absence of a formal mechanism within the Conservative Party for choosing a leader meant that, following Eden's resignation, it fell to the Queen to decide whom to commission to form a government. Eden recommended that she consult Lord Salisbury, the Lord President of the Council. Lord Salisbury and Lord Kilmuir, the Lord Chancellor, consulted the British Cabinet, Winston Churchill, and the Chairman of the backbench 1922 Committee, resulting in the Queen appointing their recommended candidate: Harold Macmillan.
When did Edward Heath ask Elizabeth to call a general election?
57100918b654c5140001f77b
February 1974
3
False
Where was Elizabeth when Heath advised that sh call for an election?
57100918b654c5140001f77c
Austronesian Pacific Rim
138
False
What did Elizabeth do after Heath adviser her?
57100918b654c5140001f77d
fly back to Britain
181
False
What did Heath do after his party could not form a coalition with the Labor party?
57100918b654c5140001f77e
resigned
378
False
Who did Elizabeth ask to form a government?
57100918b654c5140001f77f
Harold Wilson
505
False
1974
12
In what year did Edward Heath become the British prime minister?
5ad36a0d604f3c001a3fe11f
True
February
3
In what month in 1974 did Edward Heath resign as prime minister?
5ad36a0d604f3c001a3fe120
True
February
3
In what month in 1974 did Harold Wilson become prime minister?
5ad36a0d604f3c001a3fe121
True
February 1974
3
When did Elizabeth begin her tour of the Austronesian Pacific Rim?
5ad36a0d604f3c001a3fe122
True
Conservatives
254
Who did  Labour's Prime Minister Harold Wilson form a government with?
5ad36a0d604f3c001a3fe123
True
In February 1974, the British Prime Minister, Edward Heath, advised the Queen to call a general election in the middle of her tour of the Austronesian Pacific Rim, requiring her to fly back to Britain. The election resulted in a hung parliament; Heath's Conservatives were not the largest party, but could stay in office if they formed a coalition with the Liberals. Heath only resigned when discussions on forming a coalition foundered, after which the Queen asked the Leader of the Opposition, Labour's Harold Wilson, to form a government.
What did high public interest in the  private lives of the royal family cause in the press?
57100ba4a58dae1900cd67fc
sensational stories
113
False
Who was editor of The Sun in the 1980s?
57100ba4a58dae1900cd67fd
Kelvin MacKenzie
187
False
What did the editor of The Observer call the sensational stories about the royals?
57100ba4a58dae1900cd67fe
royal soap opera
466
False
Who, it was rumored,  did Margaret Thatcher say the Queen would vote for?
57100ba4a58dae1900cd67ff
Thatcher's political opponents
1344
False
Who said the Elizabeth was a behind the scenes force in ending apartheid?
57100ba4a58dae1900cd6800
Brian Mulroney
1794
False
1986
455
In what year did Kelvin MacKenzie become editor of The Sun?
5ad37237604f3c001a3fe29f
True
1986
455
In what year did Donald Trelford begin to edit The Observer?
5ad37237604f3c001a3fe2a0
True
Social Democratic Party
1320
What party did Margaret Thatcher lead?
5ad37237604f3c001a3fe2a1
True
Order of the Garter
1676
In what year did Elizabeth give Margaret Thatcher the Order of the Garter?
5ad37237604f3c001a3fe2a2
True
John Major
1751
Besides Margaret Thatcher who is someone else has given the Order of Merit?
5ad37237604f3c001a3fe2a3
True
Intense media interest in the opinions and private lives of the royal family during the 1980s led to a series of sensational stories in the press, not all of which were entirely true. As Kelvin MacKenzie, editor of The Sun, told his staff: "Give me a Sunday for Monday splash on the Royals. Don't worry if it's not true—so long as there's not too much of a fuss about it afterwards." Newspaper editor Donald Trelford wrote in The Observer of 21 September 1986: "The royal soap opera has now reached such a pitch of public interest that the boundary between fact and fiction has been lost sight of ... it is not just that some papers don't check their facts or accept denials: they don't care if the stories are true or not." It was reported, most notably in The Sunday Times of 20 July 1986, that the Queen was worried that Margaret Thatcher's economic policies fostered social divisions and was alarmed by high unemployment, a series of riots, the violence of a miners' strike, and Thatcher's refusal to apply sanctions against the apartheid regime in South Africa. The sources of the rumours included royal aide Michael Shea and Commonwealth Secretary-General Shridath Ramphal, but Shea claimed his remarks were taken out of context and embellished by speculation. Thatcher reputedly said the Queen would vote for the Social Democratic Party—Thatcher's political opponents. Thatcher's biographer John Campbell claimed "the report was a piece of journalistic mischief-making". Belying reports of acrimony between them, Thatcher later conveyed her personal admiration for the Queen, and the Queen gave two honours in her personal gift—membership in the Order of Merit and the Order of the Garter—to Thatcher after her replacement as prime minister by John Major. Former Canadian Prime Minister Brian Mulroney said Elizabeth was a "behind the scenes force" in ending apartheid.
What incident killed Diana in Paris?
57100daba58dae1900cd6822
car crash
57
False
When did Diana die?
57100daba58dae1900cd6823
1997
3
False
How long did Elizabeth and the royal family remain in seclusion at Balmoral?
57100daba58dae1900cd6824
five days
318
False
What failure did the public find dismaying?
57100daba58dae1900cd6825
fly a flag at half-mast
524
False
What did Elizabeth do to diffuse hostile public sentiment?
57100daba58dae1900cd6826
live television broadcast
674
False
London
658
In what city is Balmoral?
5ad376f7604f3c001a3fe369
True
September
705
In what month in 1997 did Diana die in a car crash?
5ad376f7604f3c001a3fe36a
True
Balmoral
130
Where was Charles in the days after Diana died?
5ad376f7604f3c001a3fe36b
True
Balmoral
130
From what building did the Queen do her television broadcast about Diana's death?
5ad376f7604f3c001a3fe36c
True
In 1997, a year after the divorce, Diana was killed in a car crash in Paris. The Queen was on holiday with her extended family at Balmoral. Diana's two sons by Charles—Princes William and Harry—wanted to attend church and so the Queen and Prince Philip took them that morning. After that single public appearance, for five days the Queen and the Duke shielded their grandsons from the intense press interest by keeping them at Balmoral where they could grieve in private, but the royal family's seclusion and the failure to fly a flag at half-mast over Buckingham Palace caused public dismay. Pressured by the hostile reaction, the Queen agreed to return to London and do a live television broadcast on 5 September, the day before Diana's funeral. In the broadcast, she expressed admiration for Diana and her feelings "as a grandmother" for the two princes. As a result, much of the public hostility evaporated.
How many years has Elizabeth been Queen?
57101abda58dae1900cd688e
60 years
35
False
What celebration marks 60 years for Elizabeth as Queen?
57101abda58dae1900cd688f
Diamond Jubilee
4
False
What year marks Elizabeth's Diamond Jubilee?
57101abda58dae1900cd6890
2012
23
False
Where did Elizabeth tour as a celebration of her jubilee?
57101abda58dae1900cd6891
United Kingdom
642
False
When was the last time that a sovereign attended a peacetime cabinet meeting?
57101abda58dae1900cd6892
1781
930
False
1781
930
In what year did George III begin his reign on the throne?
5ad379a5604f3c001a3fe3b1
True
1781
930
In what year did George III die?
5ad379a5604f3c001a3fe3b2
True
60 years
35
For how long was George III king?
5ad379a5604f3c001a3fe3b3
True
4
766
How many Cabinet meetings did George III attend?
5ad379a5604f3c001a3fe3b4
True
4 June
766
What was King George III's Accession Day?
5ad379a5604f3c001a3fe3b5
True
Her Diamond Jubilee in 2012 marked 60 years on the throne, and celebrations were held throughout her realms, the wider Commonwealth, and beyond. In a message released on Accession Day, she stated: "In this special year, as I dedicate myself anew to your service, I hope we will all be reminded of the power of togetherness and the convening strength of family, friendship and good neighbourliness ... I hope also that this Jubilee year will be a time to give thanks for the great advances that have been made since 1952 and to look forward to the future with clear head and warm heart". She and her husband undertook an extensive tour of the United Kingdom, while her children and grandchildren embarked on royal tours of other Commonwealth states on her behalf. On 4 June, Jubilee beacons were lit around the world. On 18 December, she became the first British sovereign to attend a peacetime Cabinet meeting since George III in 1781.
What governmental style of monarch is Elizabeth?
57101cc5a58dae1900cd689e
constitutional monarch
88
False
How often does Elizabeth give interviews?
57101cc5a58dae1900cd689f
rarely
16
False
What type of political religious beliefs does Elizabeth seemed to support?
57101cc5a58dae1900cd68a0
inter-faith relations
486
False
What is Elizabeth's ranking in the Church of England?
57101cc5a58dae1900cd68a1
Supreme Governor
319
False
Apart from her membership in the Church of England, to what other church does she belong?
57101cc5a58dae1900cd68a2
Church of Scotland
433
False
theological significance of the millennium marking the 2000th anniversary of the birth of Jesus
789
What has she talked about with Pope John Paul II?
5ad37efb604f3c001a3fe435
True
2000
763
In what year did Elizabeth meet with Pope John Paul II?
5ad37efb604f3c001a3fe436
True
2000
763
When was the last time Elizabeth gave an interview?
5ad37efb604f3c001a3fe437
True
Pius XII
588
Beyond Christianity what leaders of other religions has Elizabeth met with?
5ad37efb604f3c001a3fe438
True
Since Elizabeth rarely gives interviews, little is known of her personal feelings. As a constitutional monarch, she has not expressed her own political opinions in a public forum. She does have a deep sense of religious and civic duty, and takes her coronation oath seriously. Aside from her official religious role as Supreme Governor of the established Church of England, she is personally a member of that church and the national Church of Scotland. She has demonstrated support for inter-faith relations and has met with leaders of other churches and religions, including five popes: Pius XII, John XXIII, John Paul II, Benedict XVI and Francis. A personal note about her faith often features in her annual Christmas message broadcast to the Commonwealth. In 2000, she spoke about the theological significance of the millennium marking the 2000th anniversary of the birth of Jesus:
During whose reign was Elizabeth born?
57101de3a58dae1900cd68a8
King George V
98
False
What was Elizabeth's fathers title at the time of her birth?
57101de3a58dae1900cd68a9
Prince Albert, Duke of York
125
False
What title and name did Elizabeth's father take upon becoming king?
57101de3a58dae1900cd68aa
King George VI
160
False
Which Bishop of York baptized Elizabeth?
57101de3a58dae1900cd68ab
Cosmo Gordon Lang
543
False
What was Elizabeth's nickname when she was young?
57101de3a58dae1900cd68ac
Lilibet
774
False
1926
46
In what year did Elizabeth's paternal grandmother Mary die?
5ad357ad604f3c001a3fde07
True
1929
928
In what year did King George V die?
5ad357ad604f3c001a3fde08
True
Prince Albert
125
Who was King George V's oldest son?
5ad357ad604f3c001a3fde09
True
1929
928
In what year was Elizabeth, Duchess of York, crowned as the Queen of England?
5ad357ad604f3c001a3fde0a
True
Cosmo Gordon Lang
543
Who was Elizabeth's paternal grandfather?
5ad357ad604f3c001a3fde0b
True
Elizabeth was born at 02:40 (GMT) on 21 April 1926, during the reign of her paternal grandfather, King George V. Her father, Prince Albert, Duke of York (later King George VI), was the second son of the King. Her mother, Elizabeth, Duchess of York (later Queen Elizabeth), was the youngest daughter of Scottish aristocrat Claude Bowes-Lyon, 14th Earl of Strathmore and Kinghorne. She was delivered by Caesarean section at her maternal grandfather's London house: 17 Bruton Street, Mayfair. She was baptised by the Anglican Archbishop of York, Cosmo Gordon Lang, in the private chapel of Buckingham Palace on 29 May,[c] and named Elizabeth after her mother, Alexandra after George V's mother, who had died six months earlier, and Mary after her paternal grandmother. Called "Lilibet" by her close family, based on what she called herself at first, she was cherished by her grandfather George V, and during his serious illness in 1929 her regular visits were credited in the popular press and by later biographers with raising his spirits and aiding his recovery.
When did Britain enter WWII?
57101f4aa58dae1900cd68bc
September 1939
3
False
Who recommended that the two princesses be evacuated to Canada?
57101f4aa58dae1900cd68bd
Lord Hailsham
213
False
Who rejected the idea of sending the princesses away?
57101f4aa58dae1900cd68be
Elizabeth's mother
297
False
Where did the two princesses live for most of the war?
57101f4aa58dae1900cd68bf
Windsor Castle
649
False
When did Elizabeth make her first radio broadcast?
57101f4aa58dae1900cd68c0
1940
859
False
May
587
In what year was the Queen's Wool Fund established?
5ad35ab6604f3c001a3fde5f
True
1939
517
In what year did the BBC start Children's Hour?
5ad35ab6604f3c001a3fde60
True
14-year-old
869
How old was Elizabeth's sister in 1940?
5ad35ab6604f3c001a3fde61
True
1939
13
In what year did Lord Hailsham become a senior politician?
5ad35ab6604f3c001a3fde62
True
September
3
In what month of 1945 did the Second World War end?
5ad35ab6604f3c001a3fde63
True
In September 1939, Britain entered the Second World War, which lasted until 1945. During the war, many of London's children were evacuated to avoid the frequent aerial bombing. The suggestion by senior politician Lord Hailsham that the two princesses should be evacuated to Canada was rejected by Elizabeth's mother, who declared, "The children won't go without me. I won't leave without the King. And the King will never leave." Princesses Elizabeth and Margaret stayed at Balmoral Castle, Scotland, until Christmas 1939, when they moved to Sandringham House, Norfolk. From February to May 1940, they lived at Royal Lodge, Windsor, until moving to Windsor Castle, where they lived for most of the next five years. At Windsor, the princesses staged pantomimes at Christmas in aid of the Queen's Wool Fund, which bought yarn to knit into military garments. In 1940, the 14-year-old Elizabeth made her first radio broadcast during the BBC's Children's Hour, addressing other children who had been evacuated from the cities. She stated: "We are trying to do all we can to help our gallant sailors, soldiers and airmen, and we are trying, too, to bear our share of the danger and sadness of war. We know, every one of us, that in the end all will be well."
Where did the newly married Elizabeth and Philip stay until 1949?
571020a9b654c5140001f813
Windlesham Moor
43
False
After 1949 where did Elizabeth live in London?
571020a9b654c5140001f814
Clarence House
131
False
In which armed force was the Duke of Edinburgh?
571020a9b654c5140001f815
Royal Navy
283
False
Where was Philip stationed during WWII?
571020a9b654c5140001f816
British Crown Colony of Malta
240
False
In whose home did Elizabeth and Philip stay in Malta?
571020a9b654c5140001f817
Lord Mountbatten
460
False
1949
182
In what year did Elizabeth live in Villa Guardamangia?
5ad35e74604f3c001a3fded5
True
1949
182
In what year did Lord Mountbatten start to rent Villa Guardamangia?
5ad35e74604f3c001a3fded6
True
1949
94
In what year did the Duke of Edinburgh become a Royal Navy officer?
5ad35e74604f3c001a3fded7
True
1949
182
In what year was Villa Guardamangia built?
5ad35e74604f3c001a3fded8
True
1949
94
In what year did Elizabeth marry the Duke of Edinburgh?
5ad35e74604f3c001a3fded9
True
Following their wedding, the couple leased Windlesham Moor, near Windsor Castle, until 4 July 1949, when they took up residence at Clarence House in London. At various times between 1949 and 1951, the Duke of Edinburgh was stationed in the British Crown Colony of Malta as a serving Royal Navy officer. He and Elizabeth lived intermittently, for several months at a time, in the hamlet of Gwardamanġa, at Villa Guardamangia, the rented home of Philip's uncle, Lord Mountbatten. The children remained in Britain.
What entity did the British Empire slowly become during Elizabeth's reign?
571021a1b654c5140001f831
Commonwealth of Nations
89
False
In what year did Elizabeth become Queen?
571021a1b654c5140001f832
1952
146
False
What tour did Elizabeth take in 1953?
571021a1b654c5140001f833
round-the-world tour
286
False
How many nations did Elizabeth visit on tour in 1953?
571021a1b654c5140001f834
13 countries
317
False
How many miles did Elizabeth cover on her world tour?
571021a1b654c5140001f835
40,000 miles
353
False
1952
146
In what year did the British Empire become the Commonwealth of Nations?
5ad363c8604f3c001a3fdfe7
True
Australia
429
In 1953 what was the first country visited by Elizabeth and Philip?
5ad363c8604f3c001a3fdfe8
True
New Zealand
443
In 1953 what was the last country visited by Elizabeth and Philip?
5ad363c8604f3c001a3fdfe9
True
40,000
353
How many miles has Elizabeth traveled by land during her reign?
5ad363c8604f3c001a3fdfea
True
40,000
353
How many miles has Elizabeth traveled by sea during her reign?
5ad363c8604f3c001a3fdfeb
True
From Elizabeth's birth onwards, the British Empire continued its transformation into the Commonwealth of Nations. By the time of her accession in 1952, her role as head of multiple independent states was already established. In 1953, the Queen and her husband embarked on a seven-month round-the-world tour, visiting 13 countries and covering more than 40,000 miles by land, sea and air. She became the first reigning monarch of Australia and New Zealand to visit those nations. During the tour, crowds were immense; three-quarters of the population of Australia were estimated to have seen her. Throughout her reign, the Queen has made hundreds of state visits to other countries and tours of the Commonwealth; she is the most widely travelled head of state.
About whom was Elizabeth worried in the 1970s?
57102309a58dae1900cd68ec
Pierre Trudeau
117
False
What was the subject under consideration in discussions in 1980?
57102309a58dae1900cd68ed
Canadian constitution
557
False
What did patriation of the Canadian Constitution remove from the constitution?
57102309a58dae1900cd68ee
British parliament
821
False
What was retained in the constitution?
57102309a58dae1900cd68ef
monarchy
880
False
What did Trudeau say Elizabeth favored?
57102309a58dae1900cd68f0
reform
970
False
1977
396
In what year did Pierre Trudeau become the Canadian prime minister?
5ad37006604f3c001a3fe23f
True
Pierre Trudeau
117
Who was one of the Canadians politicians sent to London in 1980?
5ad37006604f3c001a3fe240
True
1980
482
In what year did Bill C-60 fail?
5ad37006604f3c001a3fe241
True
1980
482
In what year did Pierre Trudeau cease to be Canada's prime minister?
5ad37006604f3c001a3fe242
True
Pierre Trudeau
117
Who was the prime minister of Britain in 1980?
5ad37006604f3c001a3fe243
True
According to Paul Martin, Sr., by the end of the 1970s the Queen was worried that the Crown "had little meaning for" Pierre Trudeau, the Canadian Prime Minister. Tony Benn said that the Queen found Trudeau "rather disappointing". Trudeau's supposed republicanism seemed to be confirmed by his antics, such as sliding down banisters at Buckingham Palace and pirouetting behind the Queen's back in 1977, and the removal of various Canadian royal symbols during his term of office. In 1980, Canadian politicians sent to London to discuss the patriation of the Canadian constitution found the Queen "better informed ... than any of the British politicians or bureaucrats". She was particularly interested after the failure of Bill C-60, which would have affected her role as head of state. Patriation removed the role of the British parliament from the Canadian constitution, but the monarchy was retained. Trudeau said in his memoirs that the Queen favoured his attempt to reform the constitution and that he was impressed by "the grace she displayed in public" and "the wisdom she showed in private".
What did Elizabeth's speech on 24 November, 1992 mark?
5710240aa58dae1900cd690a
her accession
65
False
What did Elizabeth call her past year?
5710240aa58dae1900cd690b
annus horribilis
106
False
When did Price Andrew separate from his wife?
5710240aa58dae1900cd690c
March
150
False
Who did Princess Anne divorce in April?
5710240aa58dae1900cd690d
Captain Mark Phillips
282
False
What great house caught fire in November?
5710240aa58dae1900cd690e
Windsor Castle
443
False
1992
97
In what year did Prince Andrew and Sarah get divorced?
5ad3751d604f3c001a3fe2e9
True
1992
27
In what year did Princess Anne marry Captain Mark Phillips?
5ad3751d604f3c001a3fe2ea
True
1992
27
In what year did Prince Charles and Diana divorce?
5ad3751d604f3c001a3fe2eb
True
£200,000
1253
How much in legal fees did the The Sun have to pay to the Queen?
5ad3751d604f3c001a3fe2ec
True
£200,000
1253
How much did the Windsor Castle fire cost to repair?
5ad3751d604f3c001a3fe2ed
True
In a speech on 24 November 1992, to mark the 40th anniversary of her accession, Elizabeth called 1992 her annus horribilis, meaning horrible year. In March, her second son, Prince Andrew, Duke of York, and his wife, Sarah, separated; in April, her daughter, Princess Anne, divorced Captain Mark Phillips; during a state visit to Germany in October, angry demonstrators in Dresden threw eggs at her; and, in November, a large fire broke out at Windsor Castle, one of her official residences. The monarchy came under increased criticism and public scrutiny. In an unusually personal speech, the Queen said that any institution must expect criticism, but suggested it be done with "a touch of humour, gentleness and understanding". Two days later, the Prime Minister, John Major, announced reforms to the royal finances planned since the previous year, including the Queen paying income tax from 1993 onwards, and a reduction in the civil list. In December, Prince Charles and his wife, Diana, formally separated. The year ended with a lawsuit as the Queen sued The Sun newspaper for breach of copyright when it published the text of her annual Christmas message two days before it was broadcast. The newspaper was forced to pay her legal fees and donated £200,000 to charity.
Who, in 2007, frustrated Elizabeth?
57102549b654c5140001f86b
Prime Minister, Tony Blair
146
False
What issue of Blair's did Elizabeth admire?
57102549b654c5140001f86c
peace in Northern Ireland
405
False
When did Elizabeth attend a service at Armagm, in Ireland?
57102549b654c5140001f86d
20 March 2008
435
False
What service did Elizabeth attend in Armagm?
57102549b654c5140001f86e
Maundy
536
False
When did Elizabeth make the first visit to Ireland by a British monarch?
57102549b654c5140001f86f
May 2011.
728
False
2007
7
In what year did Tony Blair become the British prime minister?
5ad37856604f3c001a3fe393
True
2007
7
In what year did Mary McAleese become the Irish President?
5ad37856604f3c001a3fe394
True
Mary McAleese
625
Who was Ireland's first female president?
5ad37856604f3c001a3fe395
True
20 March 2008
435
When was peace achieved in Northern Ireland?
5ad37856604f3c001a3fe396
True
Mary McAleese
625
Who was Ireland's president in 2007?
5ad37856604f3c001a3fe397
True
In May 2007, The Daily Telegraph, citing unnamed sources, reported that the Queen was "exasperated and frustrated" by the policies of the British Prime Minister, Tony Blair, that she was concerned the British Armed Forces were overstretched in Iraq and Afghanistan, and that she had raised concerns over rural and countryside issues with Blair. She was, however, said to admire Blair's efforts to achieve peace in Northern Ireland. On 20 March 2008, at the Church of Ireland St Patrick's Cathedral, Armagh, the Queen attended the first Maundy service held outside England and Wales. At the invitation of the Irish President, Mary McAleese, the Queen made the first state visit to the Republic of Ireland by a British monarch in May 2011.
Who did Elizabeth surpass in longest lived British monarch?
57102712b654c5140001f875
Queen Victoria
49
False
What relation was Victoria to Elizabeth?
57102712b654c5140001f876
great-great-grandmother
24
False
When did Elizabeth become the longest reigning monarch?
57102712b654c5140001f877
9 September 2015
171
False
In age of monarchs, what is the rank of Elizabeth's reign?
57102712b654c5140001f878
world's oldest
403
False
What head of stat has served longer than Elizabeth?
57102712b654c5140001f879
King Bhumibol Adulyadej
490
False
The Queen surpassed her great-great-grandmother, Queen Victoria, to become the longest-lived British monarch in December 2007, and the longest-reigning British monarch on 9 September 2015. She was celebrated in Canada as the "longest-reigning sovereign in Canada's modern era". (King Louis XIV of France reigned over part of Canada for longer.) She is the longest-reigning queen regnant in history, the world's oldest reigning monarch and second-longest-serving current head of state after King Bhumibol Adulyadej of Thailand.
When was Elizabeth's Silver Jubilee?
57102822a58dae1900cd692e
1977
25
False
What increased in the 1980s?
57102822a58dae1900cd692f
public criticism
106
False
What was the main subject of public criticism in the 80's?
57102822a58dae1900cd6930
royal family
130
False
What attribute of Elizabeth fell to  low in the 1990s?
57102822a58dae1900cd6931
popularity
251
False
What did Elizabeth start paying in the 1990 s?
57102822a58dae1900cd6932
income tax
349
False
1980s
99
What decade between now and the 1970s has been the high point for Elizabeth's popularity?
5ad38102604f3c001a3fe46d
True
1977
25
When was Elizabeth's Golden Jubilee?
5ad38102604f3c001a3fe46e
True
1977
25
In what year did Diana become the Princess of Wales?
5ad38102604f3c001a3fe46f
True
support for the monarchy rebounded
559
What happened after Elizabeth started to pay income taxes?
5ad38102604f3c001a3fe470
True
At her Silver Jubilee in 1977, the crowds and celebrations were genuinely enthusiastic, but in the 1980s, public criticism of the royal family increased, as the personal and working lives of Elizabeth's children came under media scrutiny. Elizabeth's popularity sank to a low point in the 1990s. Under pressure from public opinion, she began to pay income tax for the first time, and Buckingham Palace was opened to the public. Discontent with the monarchy reached its peak on the death of Diana, Princess of Wales, though Elizabeth's personal popularity and support for the monarchy rebounded after her live television broadcast to the world five days after Diana's death.
What feature do Elizabeth's titles usually follow in each country?
571029d1a58dae1900cd6938
similar formula
263
False
What are the Channel Islands and the Isle of Mann?
571029d1a58dae1900cd6939
Crown dependencies
471
False
What si Elizabeth's title in the Channel Islands?
571029d1a58dae1900cd693a
Duke of Normandy
535
False
What is Elizabeth's title on the Isle of Mann?
571029d1a58dae1900cd693b
Lord of Mann
556
False
Once in conversation with the Queen, how is Elizabeth addressed?
571029d1a58dae1900cd693c
Ma'am
767
False
Isle of Man,
448
What is one of Elizabeth's realms and territories besides Jamaica and Australia?
5ad383dd604f3c001a3fe505
True
Jamaica
337
Besides the Channel Islands and Isle of Man which territory is a Crown Dependency?
5ad383dd604f3c001a3fe506
True
initially address her
711
When is Elizabeth referred to as the Defender of the Faith?
5ad383dd604f3c001a3fe507
True
initially address her
711
When does a person call Elizabeth the Duke of Lancaster?
5ad383dd604f3c001a3fe508
True
Elizabeth has held many titles and honorary military positions throughout the Commonwealth, is Sovereign of many orders in her own countries, and has received honours and awards from around the world. In each of her realms she has a distinct title that follows a similar formula: Queen of Jamaica and her other realms and territories in Jamaica, Queen of Australia and her other realms and territories in Australia, etc. In the Channel Islands and Isle of Man, which are Crown dependencies rather than separate realms, she is known as Duke of Normandy and Lord of Mann, respectively. Additional styles include Defender of the Faith and Duke of Lancaster. When in conversation with the Queen, the practice is to initially address her as Your Majesty and thereafter as Ma'am.
Sexual_orientation
What is the favored influence as to the cause of sexual orientation?
570f8a7d5ab6b81900390f04
biologically-based
183
False
IS there evidence that parenting and/or childhood play a role in determining sexual orientation?
570f8a7d5ab6b81900390f05
no substantive evidence which suggests parenting or early childhood experiences play a role
338
False
What is the observed continuum for sexual orientation?
570f8a7d5ab6b81900390f06
exclusive attraction to the opposite sex to exclusive attraction to the same sex.
569
False
Do scientists know the cause of sexual orientation?
570f8a7d5ab6b81900390f07
Scientists do not know the exact cause of sexual orientation
0
False
What three factors do scientists believe are the cause of sexual orientation?
570fa05680d9841400ab35dd
genetic, hormonal, and environmental
123
False
Do scientists believe that parenting and/or childhood play a role in sexual orientation?
570fa05680d9841400ab35de
There is no substantive evidence which suggests parenting or early childhood experiences play a role when it comes to sexual orientation
329
False
What are the two extremes of the continuum of sexual orientation?
570fa05680d9841400ab35df
exclusive attraction to the opposite sex to exclusive attraction to the same sex.
569
False
Has science research figured out the cause of sexual orientation preferences?
570fa05680d9841400ab35e0
Scientists do not know the exact cause of sexual orientation
0
False
What type of theories are favored by scientists studying sexual orientation?
570fa05680d9841400ab35e1
biologically-based theories
183
False
Do scientist's know what can cause somebodys sexual orientation?
570ff36da58dae1900cd6792
Scientists do not know the exact cause of sexual orientation
0
False
What can scientifically be considered the main factors in somebodys sexual orientation?
570ff36da58dae1900cd6793
they believe that it is caused by a complex interplay of genetic, hormonal, and environmental influences.
66
False
What cannot be considered a factor in sexual orientation due to the lack of evidence?
570ff36da58dae1900cd6794
There is no substantive evidence which suggests parenting or early childhood experiences play a role when it comes to sexual orientation.
329
False
What has the research that has been done already show about sexual orientation show?
570ff36da58dae1900cd6795
has demonstrated that sexual orientation ranges along a continuum, from exclusive attraction to the opposite sex to exclusive attraction to the same sex.
497
False
Which ideas do scientist lean towards causing sexual orientation?
570ff36da58dae1900cd6796
They favor biologically-based theories, which point to genetic factors, the early uterine environment, both, or the inclusion of genetic and social factors
172
False
Scientists do not know the exact cause of sexual orientation, but they believe that it is caused by a complex interplay of genetic, hormonal, and environmental influences. They favor biologically-based theories, which point to genetic factors, the early uterine environment, both, or the inclusion of genetic and social factors. There is no substantive evidence which suggests parenting or early childhood experiences play a role when it comes to sexual orientation. Research over several decades has demonstrated that sexual orientation ranges along a continuum, from exclusive attraction to the opposite sex to exclusive attraction to the same sex.
What is sexual identity defined as?
570fa1345ab6b81900390f35
individual's conception of themselves
144
False
What is sexual behavior defined as?
570fa1345ab6b81900390f36
actual sexual acts performed by the individual
205
False
What is sexual orientation defined as?
570fa1345ab6b81900390f37
fantasies, attachments and longings
283
False
What does the term closeted mean?
570fa1345ab6b81900390f38
People who have a homosexual sexual orientation that does not align with their sexual identity
401
False
What are the terms related to the degree to which a person's sexual attractions, behavior and identity match?
570fa1345ab6b81900390f39
concordance or discordance
881
False
What are the differences in sexual identity and sexual behaviour?
570ff6fcb654c5140001f6f9
sexual identity referring to an individual's conception of themselves, behavior referring to actual sexual acts performed by the individual
112
False
Does a person have to show their sexual oreintation in their personal acts?
570ff6fcb654c5140001f6fa
Individuals may or may not express their sexual orientation in their behaviors.
321
False
What is a term that can be used for someone who does not show their homosexuality openly?
570ff6fcb654c5140001f6fb
closeted
526
False
What word is used when somebodys sexual orientation, behaviors, and idenity do not match?
570ff6fcb654c5140001f6fc
discordance
896
False
Which word is used when somebodys sexual orientation, behaviors, and idenity match?
570ff6fcb654c5140001f6fd
concordance
881
False
Sexual identity and sexual behavior are closely related to sexual orientation, but they are distinguished, with sexual identity referring to an individual's conception of themselves, behavior referring to actual sexual acts performed by the individual, and orientation referring to "fantasies, attachments and longings." Individuals may or may not express their sexual orientation in their behaviors. People who have a homosexual sexual orientation that does not align with their sexual identity are sometimes referred to as 'closeted'. The term may, however, reflect a certain cultural context and particular stage of transition in societies which are gradually dealing with integrating sexual minorities. In studies related to sexual orientation, when dealing with the degree to which a person's sexual attractions, behaviors and identity match, scientists usually use the terms concordance or discordance. Thus, a woman who is attracted to other women, but calls herself heterosexual and only has sexual relations with men, can be said to experience discordance between her sexual orientation (homosexual or lesbian) and her sexual identity and behaviors (heterosexual).
What is one reason that a homosexual would engage in heterosexual behavior?
570fa2a35ab6b81900390f4b
religious ostracism
203
False
What is a possible scenario that can occur when a closeted homosexual is in a heterosexual relationship?
570fa2a35ab6b81900390f4d
hide their respective orientations from their spouses
247
False
What are some things that can cause a homosexual person to be with the opposite sex?
570ff84db654c5140001f703
desire for a perceived traditional family and concerns of discrimination and religious ostracism
126
False
Can a homosexual person still grow their sexual identiries while with the opposit sex?
570ff84db654c5140001f704
others develop positive gay and lesbian identities while maintaining successful heterosexual marriages
302
False
What kind of hardships can a homosexual face when admitting their ssexuality while in a heterosexual marriage?
570ff84db654c5140001f705
Coming out of the closet to oneself, a spouse of the opposite sex, and children
406
False
Can a homosexual person hide their true idenitys?
570ff84db654c5140001f706
some LGBT people hide their respective orientations from their spouses
230
False
Gay and lesbian people can have sexual relationships with someone of the opposite sex for a variety of reasons, including the desire for a perceived traditional family and concerns of discrimination and religious ostracism. While some LGBT people hide their respective orientations from their spouses, others develop positive gay and lesbian identities while maintaining successful heterosexual marriages. Coming out of the closet to oneself, a spouse of the opposite sex, and children can present challenges that are not faced by gay and lesbian people who are not married to people of the opposite sex or do not have children.
How does the mental health profession approach efforts to change sexual orientation?
570fa35780d9841400ab35e7
have adopted policy statements
127
False
What do these policy statements suggest?
570fa35780d9841400ab35e8
cautioning the profession and the public about treatments that purport to change sexual orientation
158
False
What are some of the organizations that have released policy statements?
570fa35780d9841400ab35ea
National Association of Social Workers in the USA, the Royal College of Psychiatrists, and the Australian Psychological Society.
380
False
Are their any mental health proffesionals that have programs to change sexual orientation?
570ff9f3b654c5140001f70b
No major mental health professional organization has sanctioned efforts to change sexual orientation
0
False
What policy statement has almost all proffesionals applied to their practices?
570ff9f3b654c5140001f70c
cautioning the profession and the public about treatments that purport to change sexual orientation.
158
False
What are some professional associations that do not offer changing sexual orientation programs?
570ff9f3b654c5140001f70d
the American Psychiatric Association, American Psychological Association, American Counseling Association,
273
False
No major mental health professional organization has sanctioned efforts to change sexual orientation and virtually all of them have adopted policy statements cautioning the profession and the public about treatments that purport to change sexual orientation. These include the American Psychiatric Association, American Psychological Association, American Counseling Association, National Association of Social Workers in the USA, the Royal College of Psychiatrists, and the Australian Psychological Society.
Who was the sexologist that published a scheme in 1896?
570fa3d65ab6b81900390f53
Magnus Hirschfeld
201
False
What did the published scheme attempt to do?
570fa3d65ab6b81900390f54
measured the strength of an individual's sexual desire
251
False
How did the scheme measure desire?
570fa3d65ab6b81900390f55
on two independent 10-point scales
306
False
What were the two scales defined as?
570fa3d65ab6b81900390f56
A (homosexual) and B (heterosexual)
342
False
How many points were on each scale?
570fa3d65ab6b81900390f57
10-point
325
False
When did the questioning of human sexual responses begin?
570ffadea58dae1900cd67a4
From at least the late nineteenth century
0
False
Who created the ten point scale on a persons sexuals desire?
570ffadea58dae1900cd67a5
Magnus Hirschfeld
201
False
What year did Magnus Hirschfeld create the ten point scale on a persons sexual desire.
570ffadea58dae1900cd67a6
1896
241
False
On Magnus's ten point scale what would a homosexual person be considered?
570ffadea58dae1900cd67a7
a homosexual individual may be A5, B0
420
False
On the ten point scale what would an asexual person be considered as?
570ffadea58dae1900cd67a8
an asexual would be A0, B0
459
False
From at least the late nineteenth century in Europe, there was speculation that the range of human sexual response looked more like a continuum than two or three discrete categories. Berlin sexologist Magnus Hirschfeld published a scheme in 1896 that measured the strength of an individual's sexual desire on two independent 10-point scales, A (homosexual) and B (heterosexual). A heterosexual individual may be A0, B5; a homosexual individual may be A5, B0; an asexual would be A0, B0; and someone with an intense attraction to both sexes would be A9, B9.
What was a concern of the Kinsey scale?
570fa4675ab6b81900390f5d
it inappropriately measures heterosexuality and homosexuality
46
False
How are masculinity and femininity more appropriately measured?
570fa4675ab6b81900390f5e
as independent concepts on a separate scale
297
False
What happens if the concepts are measured on the same scale?
570fa4675ab6b81900390f5f
they act as tradeoffs such, whereby to be more feminine one had to be less masculine and vice versa
455
False
What is the advantage of measuring these elements separately?
570fa4675ab6b81900390f60
the degree of heterosexual and homosexual can be independently determined, rather than the balance between heterosexual and homosexual
878
False
What is considered to be a problem with the Kinsey scale?
570ffc01a58dae1900cd67ae
inappropriately measures heterosexuality and homosexuality on the same scale
49
False
What did the research performed in the 1970s show about masculinity and feminity?
570ffc01a58dae1900cd67af
more appropriately measured as independent concepts on a separate scale rather than as a single continuum
269
False
What would be possible if homesexuality and heterosexuality where measured on different scales?
570ffc01a58dae1900cd67b0
would allow one to be both very heterosexual and very homosexual or not very much of either.
747
False
What is another benefit of measuring sexuality on two scaless verses just the Kinsey scale?
570ffc01a58dae1900cd67b1
the degree of heterosexual and homosexual can be independently determined,
878
False
A third concern with the Kinsey scale is that it inappropriately measures heterosexuality and homosexuality on the same scale, making one a tradeoff of the other. Research in the 1970s on masculinity and femininity found that concepts of masculinity and femininity are more appropriately measured as independent concepts on a separate scale rather than as a single continuum, with each end representing opposite extremes. When compared on the same scale, they act as tradeoffs such, whereby to be more feminine one had to be less masculine and vice versa. However, if they are considered as separate dimensions one can be simultaneously very masculine and very feminine. Similarly, considering heterosexuality and homosexuality on separate scales would allow one to be both very heterosexual and very homosexual or not very much of either. When they are measured independently, the degree of heterosexual and homosexual can be independently determined, rather than the balance between heterosexual and homosexual as determined using the Kinsey Scale.
How does research identify sexual population groups?
570fa4fe5ab6b81900390f65
scales of assessment
45
False
What is the understanding of the scales used?
570fa4fe5ab6b81900390f66
to reliably identify and categorize people by their sexual orientation
169
False
Why might the scales fail?
570fa4fe5ab6b81900390f67
due to ambiguity regarding the definition of sexual orientation
344
False
How many components are used in assessment?
570fa4fe5ab6b81900390f68
three components
430
False
What does the research on sexual orientation use to determine who belongs in which sexual populaiton group?
570ffd0ea58dae1900cd67b6
scales of assessment
45
False
What is the general idea regading these scales that are used?
570ffd0ea58dae1900cd67b7
assumed that these scales will be able to reliably identify and categorize people by their sexual orientation.
130
False
What can cause problems with these scales that are used?
570ffd0ea58dae1900cd67b8
ambiguity regarding the definition of sexual orientation
351
False
How many components are used in an assessment?
570ffd0ea58dae1900cd67b9
there are three components of sexual orientation
420
False
Research focusing on sexual orientation uses scales of assessment to identify who belongs in which sexual population group. It is assumed that these scales will be able to reliably identify and categorize people by their sexual orientation. However, it is difficult to determine an individual's sexual orientation through scales of assessment, due to ambiguity regarding the definition of sexual orientation. Generally, there are three components of sexual orientation used in assessment. Their definitions and examples of how they may be assessed are as follows:
What myth did Bruce Voeller perpetuate in the 70's?
570fa5ab80d9841400ab3601
that the prevalence of homosexuality is 10% for the whole population
900
False
What were the calculations of this myth?
570fa5ab80d9841400ab3602
averaging a 13% number for men and a 7% number for women
972
False
What message did Voeller deliver using this myth?
570fa5ab80d9841400ab3603
we [gays and lesbians] are everywhere
1162
False
What comes along with defining how much of the population is homosexual?
570fa5ab80d9841400ab3604
influences how this population may be seen or treated by the public and government bodies
270
False
What does knowing the sexual population influence?
570ffeaab654c5140001f71b
how this population may be seen or treated by the public and government bodies
281
False
Who was the cahir of the national gay and lesbian task force in the 1970s?
570ffeaab654c5140001f71c
Bruce Voeller
806
False
What myth did Bruce Voeller preserve in the 1970s?
570ffeaab654c5140001f71d
that the prevalence of homosexuality is 10% for the whole population by averaging a 13% number for men and a 7% number for women
900
False
What did Bruce Voeller do with his findings?
570ffeaab654c5140001f71e
used it as part of the modern gay rights movement to convince politicians and the public that "we [gays and lesbians] are everywhere".
1067
False
Depending on which component of sexual orientation is being assessed and referenced, different conclusions can be drawn about the prevalence rate of homosexuality which has real world consequences. Knowing how much of the population is made up of homosexual individuals influences how this population may be seen or treated by the public and government bodies. For example, if homosexual individuals constitute only 1% of the general population they are politically easier to ignore or than if they are known to be a constituency that surpasses most ethnic and ad minority groups. If the number is relatively minor then it is difficult to argue for community based same sex programs and services, mass media inclusion of gay role models, or Gay/Straight Alliances in schools. For this reason, in the 1970s Bruce Voeller, the chair of the National Gay and Lesbian Task Force perpetuated a common myth that the prevalence of homosexuality is 10% for the whole population by averaging a 13% number for men and a 7% number for women. Voeller generalized this finding and used it as part of the modern gay rights movement to convince politicians and the public that "we [gays and lesbians] are everywhere".
Do men and women's patterns of arousal differ?
570fa65280d9841400ab3609
men and women have different patterns of arousal
75
False
Are the patterns related to orientation?
570fa65280d9841400ab360a
independent of their sexual orientations
125
False
What types of stimuli were found to arouse women?
570fa65280d9841400ab360b
both human and nonhuman stimuli
223
False
What stimuli did men show no arousal towards?
570fa65280d9841400ab360c
to non-human visual stimuli
440
False
Men's arousal patterns were found to be with?
570fa65280d9841400ab360d
their specific sexual interest
511
False
What did a study on men and womens sexual arousal show?
570ffff5b654c5140001f723
confirmed that men and women have different patterns of arousal, independent of their sexual orientations
60
False
Did women in the studys become aroused to heterosexual stimulation?
570ffff5b654c5140001f724
become aroused to both human and nonhuman stimuli from movies showing humans of both genders having sex (heterosexual and homosexual
205
False
Did men have any arousal from non human videos containing sex?
570ffff5b654c5140001f725
x. Men did not show any sexual arousal to non-human visual stimuli,
401
False
Did mens arousal relate to the sexual interests?
570ffff5b654c5140001f726
, their arousal patterns being in line with their specific sexual interest (women for heterosexual men and men for homosexual men).
467
False
Another study on men and women's patterns of sexual arousal confirmed that men and women have different patterns of arousal, independent of their sexual orientations. The study found that women's genitals become aroused to both human and nonhuman stimuli from movies showing humans of both genders having sex (heterosexual and homosexual) and from videos showing non-human primates (bonobos) having sex. Men did not show any sexual arousal to non-human visual stimuli, their arousal patterns being in line with their specific sexual interest (women for heterosexual men and men for homosexual men).
What science terms are used to describe sexual attraction?
570fa6fd5ab6b81900390f6d
Androphilia and gynephilia
0
False
These terms are an alternative to what conceptualization?
570fa6fd5ab6b81900390f6e
to a homosexual and heterosexual conceptualization
131
False
What are these terms not attributing to the subject/person being described?
570fa6fd5ab6b81900390f6f
a sex assignment or gender identity
266
False
What are other terms that do not make similar assignments?
570fa6fd5ab6b81900390f70
pansexual and polysexual
340
False
What are other terms used in the same vein as pansexual?
570fa6fd5ab6b81900390f71
queer, pansensual, polyfidelitous, ambisexual
449
False
Which terms are used in describing sexual desires?
57100108a58dae1900cd67be
Androphilia and gynephilia (or gynecophilia
0
False
What are two other words for androphilia and gynephlia?
57100108a58dae1900cd67bf
homosexual and heterosexual
136
False
What are the terms androphilia and gynephial use for?
57100108a58dae1900cd67c0
identifying a subject's object of attraction without attributing a sex assignment or gender identity to the subject
201
False
What are other common words that people may use for homosexual and heterosexual people?
57100108a58dae1900cd67c1
queer, pansensual, polyfidelitous, ambisexual, or personalized identities such as byke or biphilic.
449
False
Androphilia and gynephilia (or gynecophilia) are terms used in behavioral science to describe sexual attraction, as an alternative to a homosexual and heterosexual conceptualization. They are used for identifying a subject's object of attraction without attributing a sex assignment or gender identity to the subject. Related terms such as pansexual and polysexual do not make any such assignations to the subject. People may also use terms such as queer, pansensual, polyfidelitous, ambisexual, or personalized identities such as byke or biphilic.
What tends to be a major obstacle when comparing cultures?
570fa7b080d9841400ab361d
Translation
0
False
What can force individuals to identify with a label that may not reflect true orientation?
570fa7b080d9841400ab361e
Language
293
False
Where are the meanings of words negotiated?
570fa7b080d9841400ab361f
mass media
573
False
What can be brought into play to describe interpretations of sexual orientation?
570fa7b080d9841400ab3620
New words
620
False
What is a major hurdle when studying different cultures?
571001fea58dae1900cd67c6
Translation
0
False
Why does translation cause such issues among different cultures?
571001fea58dae1900cd67c7
English terms lack equivalents in other languages, while concepts and words from other languages fail to be reflected in the English language.
72
False
What problems can arise due to translation issues?
571001fea58dae1900cd67c8
can force individuals to identify with a label that may or may not accurately reflect their true sexual orientation
302
False
What can be used to signal sexual idenitys to others?
571001fea58dae1900cd67c9
Language
419
False
Translation is a major obstacle when comparing different cultures. Many English terms lack equivalents in other languages, while concepts and words from other languages fail to be reflected in the English language. Translation and vocabulary obstacles are not limited to the English language. Language can force individuals to identify with a label that may or may not accurately reflect their true sexual orientation. Language can also be used to signal sexual orientation to others. The meaning of words referencing categories of sexual orientation are negotiated in the mass media in relation to social organization. New words may be brought into use to describe new terms or better describe complex interpretations of sexual orientation. Other words may pick up new layers or meaning. For example, the heterosexual Spanish terms marido and mujer for "husband" and "wife", respectively, have recently been replaced in Spain by the gender-neutral terms cónyuges or consortes meaning "spouses".
Early writers linked orientation to what concept?
570fa86a5ab6b81900390f77
the subject's own sex
95
False
What theorists agreed with this concept?
570fa86a5ab6b81900390f78
Karl Heinrich Ulrichs, Richard von Krafft-Ebing, Magnus Hirschfeld, Havelock Ellis, Carl Jung, and Sigmund Freud,
422
False
What two things became to be seen as distinct from one another?
570fa86a5ab6b81900390f79
gender identity came to be increasingly seen as a phenomenon distinct from sexual orientation
743
False
What negative stereotypes have emerged from this understanding?
570fa86a5ab6b81900390f7a
gender-conforming heterosexual" and the "gender-nonconforming homosexual
1205
False
What did a majority of gay men and women experience in their childhood?
570fa86a5ab6b81900390f7b
gender-nonconformity
1448
False
What was thought of early lesbians and gay men?
571003d4a58dae1900cd67e0
it was thought that a typical female-bodied person who is attracted to female-bodied persons would have masculine attributes, and vice versa.
131
False
What did gender idenity become to be seen as?
571003d4a58dae1900cd67e1
phenomenon distinct from sexual orientation
793
False
What can be considered to be bad stereotypes to gay communities?
571003d4a58dae1900cd67e2
"gender-conforming heterosexual" and the "gender-nonconforming homosexual"
1204
False
Who performed the studies that found most homosexual people having different degrees of gender issues?
571003d4a58dae1900cd67e3
Michael Bailey and Kenneth Zucker
1332
False
In these studies when was the gender-noncomformity experienced?
571003d4a58dae1900cd67e4
during their childhood years.
1469
False
The earliest writers on sexual orientation usually understood it to be intrinsically linked to the subject's own sex. For example, it was thought that a typical female-bodied person who is attracted to female-bodied persons would have masculine attributes, and vice versa. This understanding was shared by most of the significant theorists of sexual orientation from the mid nineteenth to early twentieth century, such as Karl Heinrich Ulrichs, Richard von Krafft-Ebing, Magnus Hirschfeld, Havelock Ellis, Carl Jung, and Sigmund Freud, as well as many gender-variant homosexual people themselves. However, this understanding of homosexuality as sexual inversion was disputed at the time, and, through the second half of the twentieth century, gender identity came to be increasingly seen as a phenomenon distinct from sexual orientation. Transgender and cisgender people may be attracted to men, women, or both, although the prevalence of different sexual orientations is quite different in these two populations. An individual homosexual, heterosexual or bisexual person may be masculine, feminine, or androgynous, and in addition, many members and supporters of lesbian and gay communities now see the "gender-conforming heterosexual" and the "gender-nonconforming homosexual" as negative stereotypes. Nevertheless, studies by J. Michael Bailey and Kenneth Zucker found a majority of the gay men and lesbians sampled reporting various degrees of gender-nonconformity during their childhood years.
Who is finding themselves in a double minority in the US?
570fa93f5ab6b81900390f81
non-Caucasian LGBT
22
False
What is an example of a stereotype found in this double minority?
570fa93f5ab6b81900390f82
Asian-American LGBTs are viewed as more passive and feminine
361
False
What do the non-Caucasian LGBT experience?
570fa93f5ab6b81900390f83
neither fully accepted or understood by mainly Caucasian LGBT communities, nor are they accepted by their own ethnic group
110
False
What is an example of a culturally specific support network?
570fa93f5ab6b81900390f84
Ô-Môi" for Vietnamese American queer females.
620
False
Where can lgbt people who are not white find themselves in the united states?
571004d9b654c5140001f73d
in a double minority,
73
False
What does it mean for the LGBT people who are in a double monority?
571004d9b654c5140001f73e
they are neither fully accepted or understood by mainly Caucasian LGBT communities, nor are they accepted by their own ethnic group
101
False
What do many people in the dominant LGBT community face?
571004d9b654c5140001f73f
racism
257
False
Why is racism so bad in the non white LGBT community?
571004d9b654c5140001f740
racial stereotypes merge with gender stereotypes
301
False
What is the name of the Vietnamese American support network for the LGBT community?
571004d9b654c5140001f741
Ô-Môi
620
False
In the United States, non-Caucasian LGBT individuals may find themselves in a double minority, where they are neither fully accepted or understood by mainly Caucasian LGBT communities, nor are they accepted by their own ethnic group. Many people experience racism in the dominant LGBT community where racial stereotypes merge with gender stereotypes, such that Asian-American LGBTs are viewed as more passive and feminine, while African-American LGBTs are viewed as more masculine and aggressive. There are a number of culturally specific support networks for LGBT individuals active in the United States. For example, "Ô-Môi" for Vietnamese American queer females.
Can a persons sexual interest change over different times in their life?
571006d0b654c5140001f74f
Some research suggests that "[f]or some [people] the focus of sexual interest will shift at various points through the life span
0
False
Until 1995 what had no studies done concerning sexual orientation?
571006d0b654c5140001f750
longitudinal stability of sexual orientation over the adult life span.
193
False
What can possibly predict the future orientation a persons sexual idenity?
571006d0b654c5140001f751
. [the] measure [of 'the complex components of sexual orientation as differentiated from other aspects of sexual identity at one point in time']
316
False
What do some lesbian woman see as important part of the sexual orientation?
571006d0b654c5140001f752
choice
858
False
Some research suggests that "[f]or some [people] the focus of sexual interest will shift at various points through the life span..." "There... [was, as of 1995,] essentially no research on the longitudinal stability of sexual orientation over the adult life span... It [was]... still an unanswered question whether... [the] measure [of 'the complex components of sexual orientation as differentiated from other aspects of sexual identity at one point in time'] will predict future behavior or orientation. Certainly, it is... not a good predictor of past behavior and self-identity, given the developmental process common to most gay men and lesbians (i.e., denial of homosexual interests and heterosexual experimentation prior to the coming-out process)." Some studies report that "[a number of] lesbian women, and some heterosexual women as well, perceive choice as an important element in their sexual orientations."
When did part of the world health organization release a statement about curing homosexuals?
57100800b654c5140001f761
2012,
3
False
Why did the Pan American Health Organization release this statement?
57100800b654c5140001f762
they lack medical justification and represent a serious threat to the health and well-being of affected people,
241
False
What condition do they state cannot be linked to homosexuality?
57100800b654c5140001f763
pathological condition
520
False
What did the Pan American Health Organization reccomend for those who used treatment to stop homosexuality?
57100800b654c5140001f764
that such malpractices be denounced and subject to sanctions and penalties under national legislation,
1098
False
What did the Pan American Health organization say these treatments violated?
57100800b654c5140001f765
violation of the ethical principles of health care and violate human rights that are protected by international and regional agreements.
1222
False
In 2012, the Pan American Health Organization (the North and South American branch of the World Health Organization) released a statement cautioning against services that purport to "cure" people with non-heterosexual sexual orientations as they lack medical justification and represent a serious threat to the health and well-being of affected people, and noted that the global scientific and professional consensus is that homosexuality is a normal and natural variation of human sexuality and cannot be regarded as a pathological condition. The Pan American Health Organization further called on governments, academic institutions, professional associations and the media to expose these practices and to promote respect for diversity. The World Health Organization affiliate further noted that gay minors have sometimes been forced to attend these "therapies" involuntarily, being deprived of their liberty and sometimes kept in isolation for several months, and that these findings were reported by several United Nations bodies. Additionally, the Pan American Health Organization recommended that such malpractices be denounced and subject to sanctions and penalties under national legislation, as they constitute a violation of the ethical principles of health care and violate human rights that are protected by international and regional agreements.
What does the Kinsey scale provide a classification for?
571008d5a58dae1900cd67ea
sexual orientation based on the relative amounts of heterosexual and homosexual experience or psychic response in one's history at a given time.
46
False
How does the classifiacation scheme work on the Kinsey scale?
571008d5a58dae1900cd67eb
such that individuals in the same category show the same balance between the heterosexual and homosexual elements in their histories
223
False
What is the position on the Kinsey scale based on?
571008d5a58dae1900cd67ec
relation of heterosexuality to homosexuality in one's history
399
False
What positions does the KInsey scale not use?
571008d5a58dae1900cd67ed
the actual amount of overt experience or psychic response
474
False
The Kinsey scale provides a classification of sexual orientation based on the relative amounts of heterosexual and homosexual experience or psychic response in one's history at a given time. The classification scheme works such that individuals in the same category show the same balance between the heterosexual and homosexual elements in their histories. The position on the scale is based on the relation of heterosexuality to homosexuality in one's history, rather than the actual amount of overt experience or psychic response. An individual can be assigned a position on the scale in accordance with the following definitions of the points of the scale:
What does SASO stand for?
57100993b654c5140001f785
Sell Assessment of Sexual Orientation
4
False
Why was SASO created?
57100993b654c5140001f786
to address the major concerns with the Kinsey Scale and Klein Sexual Orientation Grid
63
False
What did SASO find wrong with the KInsey scale and Klein Sexual Orientation Grid?
57100993b654c5140001f787
measures sexual orientation on a continuum, considers various dimensions of sexual orientation, and considers homosexuality and heterosexuality separately
162
False
What is one of SASO's main goals?
57100993b654c5140001f788
providing a final solution to the question of how to best measure sexual orientation
330
False
What is SASO causing discussion and debate about?
57100993b654c5140001f789
measurements of sexual orientation.
473
False
The Sell Assessment of Sexual Orientation (SASO) was developed to address the major concerns with the Kinsey Scale and Klein Sexual Orientation Grid and as such, measures sexual orientation on a continuum, considers various dimensions of sexual orientation, and considers homosexuality and heterosexuality separately. Rather than providing a final solution to the question of how to best measure sexual orientation, the SASO is meant to provoke discussion and debate about measurements of sexual orientation.
How are the three component used to determine sexual orientation?
57100b34a58dae1900cd67f2
all three are used independently and provide different conclusions regarding sexual orientation
110
False
When did Savin WIlliams talk about the issues with these components?
57100b34a58dae1900cd67f3
(2006)
222
False
What issues to Savin address during this talk?
57100b34a58dae1900cd67f4
basing findings regarding sexual orientation on a single component, researchers may not actually capture the intended population
268
False
Why does basing sexual orientation on one component cause problems?
57100b34a58dae1900cd67f5
Because of the limited populations that each component captures
677
False
How should consumers of the research approach these findings?
57100b34a58dae1900cd67f6
should be cautious in generalizing these findings.
764
False
As there is no research indicating which of the three components is essential in defining sexual orientation, all three are used independently and provide different conclusions regarding sexual orientation. Savin Williams (2006) discusses this issue and notes that by basing findings regarding sexual orientation on a single component, researchers may not actually capture the intended population. For example, if homosexual is defined by same sex behavior, gay virgins are omitted, heterosexuals engaging in same sex behavior for other reasons than preferred sexual arousal are miscounted, and those with same sex attraction who only have opposite-sex relations are excluded. Because of the limited populations that each component captures, consumers of research should be cautious in generalizing these findings.
What have scientists started spending the most time on?
57100c2ea58dae1900cd6806
measuring changes in brain activity related to sexual arousal
51
False
How do scientiest measure brain activity?
57100c2ea58dae1900cd6807
by using brain-scanning techniques
114
False
How did both gay and straight men react to pictures of both naked men and women?
57100c2ea58dae1900cd6808
positively
307
False
What was the only difference in the study between gay and straight men?
57100c2ea58dae1900cd6809
The only significant group difference between these orientations was found in the amygdala,
379
False
What does the amygdala region of the brain do?
57100c2ea58dae1900cd680a
known to be involved in regulating fear.
486
False
More recently, scientists have started to focus on measuring changes in brain activity related to sexual arousal, by using brain-scanning techniques. A study on how heterosexual and homosexual men's brains react to seeing pictures of naked men and women has found that both hetero- and homosexual men react positively to seeing their preferred sex, using the same brain regions. The only significant group difference between these orientations was found in the amygdala, a brain region known to be involved in regulating fear.
What can affect how a person is treated?
57100d1da58dae1900cd681a
Perceived sexual orientation
0
False
What percent of hate crimes did the FBI relate to sexual orientation bias?
57100d1da58dae1900cd681b
15.6%
123
False
When was the UK emloyment eequality (sexual orientation) regulations law take effect?
57100d1da58dae1900cd681c
2003,
282
False
Under this law what does this state that is required by employers?
57100d1da58dae1900cd681d
workers or job applicants must not be treated less favourably because of their sexual orientation
353
False
Perceived sexual orientation may affect how a person is treated. For instance, in the United States, the FBI reported that 15.6% of hate crimes reported to police in 2004 were "because of a sexual-orientation bias". Under the UK Employment Equality (Sexual Orientation) Regulations 2003, as explained by Advisory, Conciliation and Arbitration Service, "workers or job applicants must not be treated less favourably because of their sexual orientation, their perceived sexual orientation or because they associate with someone of a particular sexual orientation".
What do the majority of defintions surronding sexual orientation include?
57100e4da58dae1900cd682c
psychological component, such as the direction of an individual's erotic desires, or a behavioral component
49
False
What does a behaviorial component focus on when defining sexual orientation?
57100e4da58dae1900cd682d
focuses on the sex of the individual's sexual partner/s.
164
False
What do other people use to determine a persons sexual idenity?
57100e4da58dae1900cd682e
an individual's self-definition
257
False
When do scientists and professions agree that sexual orientation shows in a person?
57100e4da58dae1900cd682f
typically emerge between middle childhood and early adolescence
423
False
What is the difference between sexual idenity and sexual orientation?
57100e4da58dae1900cd6830
sexual identity in that it encompasses relationships with others, while sexual identity is a concept of self.
521
False
Most definitions of sexual orientation include a psychological component, such as the direction of an individual's erotic desires, or a behavioral component, which focuses on the sex of the individual's sexual partner/s. Some people prefer simply to follow an individual's self-definition or identity. Scientific and professional understanding is that "the core attractions that form the basis for adult sexual orientation typically emerge between middle childhood and early adolescence". Sexual orientation differs from sexual identity in that it encompasses relationships with others, while sexual identity is a concept of self.
Which two studies where created by Alfred C. KInsey?
57100ff0a58dae1900cd6848
In the oft-cited and oft-criticized Sexual Behavior in the Human Male (1948) and Sexual Behavior in the Human Female (1953
0
False
What where people asked to do in these research studies?
57100ff0a58dae1900cd6849
people were asked to rate themselves on a scale from completely heterosexual to completely homosexual.
153
False
What did KInsey find during these studies ?
57100ff0a58dae1900cd684a
that when the individuals' behavior as well as their identity are analyzed, most people appeared to be at least somewhat bisexual
272
False
In Kinseys mind what percentage of people are considered to be fully heterosexual or homosexual?
57100ff0a58dae1900cd684b
(5–10%
534
False
Why do people say KInseys work is not correct?
57100ff0a58dae1900cd684c
the randomness of his sample population,
805
False
In the oft-cited and oft-criticized Sexual Behavior in the Human Male (1948) and Sexual Behavior in the Human Female (1953), by Alfred C. Kinsey et al., people were asked to rate themselves on a scale from completely heterosexual to completely homosexual. Kinsey reported that when the individuals' behavior as well as their identity are analyzed, most people appeared to be at least somewhat bisexual — i.e., most people have some attraction to either sex, although usually one sex is preferred. According to Kinsey, only a minority (5–10%) can be considered fully heterosexual or homosexual.[citation needed] Conversely, only an even smaller minority can be considered fully bisexual (with an equal attraction to both sexes). Kinsey's methods have been criticized as flawed, particularly with regard to the randomness of his sample population, which included prison inmates, male prostitutes and those who willingly participated in discussion of previously taboo sexual topics. Nevertheless, Paul Gebhard, subsequent director of the Kinsey Institute for Sex Research, reexamined the data in the Kinsey Reports and concluded that removing the prison inmates and prostitutes barely affected the results.
What idea did Sigmund Freud bring to the table?
571010e7b654c5140001f7a3
Innate bisexuality
0
False
What does Sigmunds idea theorize?
571010e7b654c5140001f7a4
all humans are born bisexual
85
False
Why did SIgmund believe all humans are born bisexual?
571010e7b654c5140001f7a5
this was true anatomically and therefore also psychologically, with sexual attraction to both sexes being one part of this psychological bisexuality
219
False
What does Sigmund believe we all as adults desire?
571010e7b654c5140001f7a6
both the masculine and the feminine sides of their natures
573
False
Even though Sigmund believed all people where born bisexual what did he not believe to be true?
571010e7b654c5140001f7a7
that everyone is bisexual in the sense of feeling the same level of sexual attraction to both genders
653
False
Innate bisexuality is an idea introduced by Sigmund Freud. According to this theory, all humans are born bisexual in a very broad sense of the term, that of incorporating general aspects of both sexes. In Freud's view, this was true anatomically and therefore also psychologically, with sexual attraction to both sexes being one part of this psychological bisexuality. Freud believed that in the course of sexual development the masculine side would normally become dominant in men and the feminine side in women, but that as adults everyone still has desires derived from both the masculine and the feminine sides of their natures. Freud did not claim that everyone is bisexual in the sense of feeling the same level of sexual attraction to both genders.
Whar words may people use for sexual idenity?
57101252a58dae1900cd685a
pansexual or polysexual,
142
False
What does the American Pyschological Association say sexual orientation refers to?
57101252a58dae1900cd685b
a person's sense of identity based on those attractions, related behaviors, and membership in a community of others who share those attractions
271
False
What terms does behavorial science use instead of using gender binary conceptualization?
57101252a58dae1900cd685c
Androphilia and gynephilia
417
False
What is androphilia used to describe?
57101252a58dae1900cd685d
sexual attraction to masculinity
590
False
What is gynephilia used to describe?
57101252a58dae1900cd685e
the sexual attraction to femininity
645
False
These categories are aspects of the more nuanced nature of sexual identity and terminology. For example, people may use other labels, such as pansexual or polysexual, or none at all. According to the American Psychological Association, sexual orientation "also refers to a person's sense of identity based on those attractions, related behaviors, and membership in a community of others who share those attractions". Androphilia and gynephilia are terms used in behavioral science to describe sexual orientation as an alternative to a gender binary conceptualization. Androphilia describes sexual attraction to masculinity; gynephilia describes the sexual attraction to femininity. The term sexual preference largely overlaps with sexual orientation, but is generally distinguished in psychological research. A person who identifies as bisexual, for example, may sexually prefer one sex over the other. Sexual preference may also suggest a degree of voluntary choice, whereas the scientific consensus is that sexual orientation is not a choice.
What does the American Physocological Association say that sexual orientation refers to?
57101326a58dae1900cd6864
an enduring pattern of emotional, romantic, and/or sexual attractions to men, women, or both sexes
83
False
What do a lot of cultures use to describe homosexual people?
57101326a58dae1900cd6865
identity labels
326
False
What are the most used labels in America to describe homosexuals?
57101326a58dae1900cd6866
lesbians (women attracted to women), gay men (men attracted to men), and bisexual people (men or women attracted to both sexes).
443
False
What do psychologists says sexual orientation can also mean?
57101326a58dae1900cd6867
a person’s choice of sexual partners
1080
False
The American Psychological Association states that "[s]exual orientation refers to an enduring pattern of emotional, romantic, and/or sexual attractions to men, women, or both sexes" and that "[t]his range of behaviors and attractions has been described in various cultures and nations throughout the world. Many cultures use identity labels to describe people who express these attractions. In the United States, the most frequent labels are lesbians (women attracted to women), gay men (men attracted to men), and bisexual people (men or women attracted to both sexes). However, some people may use different labels or none at all". They additionally state that sexual orientation "is distinct from other components of sex and gender, including biological sex (the anatomical, physiological, and genetic characteristics associated with being male or female), gender identity (the psychological sense of being male or female), and social gender role (the cultural norms that define feminine and masculine behavior)". According to psychologists, sexual orientation also refers to a person’s choice of sexual partners, who may be homosexual, heterosexual, or bisexual.
What does NARTH stand for?
57101489a58dae1900cd686c
The National Association for Research & Therapy of Homosexuality
0
False
What does NARTH consider itself to be?
57101489a58dae1900cd686d
a "professional, scientific organization that offers hope to those who struggle with unwanted homosexuality,
100
False
What does NARTH disagree with?
57101489a58dae1900cd686e
the mainstream mental health community's position on conversion therapy
225
False
What does NARTH state is wrong with the mainstream mental healths stand on conversion therapy?
57101489a58dae1900cd686f
its effectiveness and by describing sexual orientation not as a binary immutable quality
306
False
What concerns did both the American Psychological Association and the Royal College of PSychiatrist have with NARTH?
57101489a58dae1900cd6870
that the positions espoused by NARTH are not supported by the science and create an environment in which prejudice and discrimination can flourish
588
False
The National Association for Research & Therapy of Homosexuality (NARTH), which describes itself as a "professional, scientific organization that offers hope to those who struggle with unwanted homosexuality," disagrees with the mainstream mental health community's position on conversion therapy, both on its effectiveness and by describing sexual orientation not as a binary immutable quality, or as a disease, but as a continuum of intensities of sexual attractions and emotional affect. The American Psychological Association and the Royal College of Psychiatrists expressed concerns that the positions espoused by NARTH are not supported by the science and create an environment in which prejudice and discrimination can flourish.
What do the terms andophilia and gynephilia help prevent?
571015bea58dae1900cd6876
confusion and offense when describing people in non-western cultures, as well as when describing intersex and transgender people
43
False
Why does psychiatrist Anil Aggrawal say androphilia and gynephilia are needed terms?
571015bea58dae1900cd6877
the affected s
678
False
What can attempting to label members of the LGBT community cause?
571015bea58dae1900cd6878
confusion
643
False
What does MIlton Diamond say about the terms heterosexual, homosexual, and bisexual?
571015bea58dae1900cd6879
are better used as adjectives, not nouns, and are better applied to behaviors, not people.
938
False
What advantages do the terms androphilia and gynephilia have?
571015bea58dae1900cd687a
when discussing the partners of transsexual or intersexed individuals
1069
False
Using androphilia and gynephilia can avoid confusion and offense when describing people in non-western cultures, as well as when describing intersex and transgender people. Psychiatrist Anil Aggrawal explains that androphilia, along with gynephilia, "is needed to overcome immense difficulties in characterizing the sexual orientation of trans men and trans women. For instance, it is difficult to decide whether a trans man erotically attracted to males is a heterosexual female or a homosexual male; or a trans woman erotically attracted to females is a heterosexual male or a lesbian female. Any attempt to classify them may not only cause confusion but arouse offense among the affected subjects. In such cases, while defining sexual attraction, it is best to focus on the object of their attraction rather than on the sex or gender of the subject." Sexologist Milton Diamond writes, "The terms heterosexual, homosexual, and bisexual are better used as adjectives, not nouns, and are better applied to behaviors, not people. This usage is particularly advantageous when discussing the partners of transsexual or intersexed individuals. These newer terms also do not carry the social weight of the former ones."
What has the KInsey scaled been praised for?
57101794b654c5140001f7c9
dismissing the dichotomous classification of sexual orientation and allowing for a new perspective on human sexuality.
38
False
What has the Kinsey scale been critisized for?
57101794b654c5140001f7ca
because it is still not a true continuum
196
False
How many categories are used in the KInsey scale?
57101794b654c5140001f7cb
seven
246
False
In a study by Masters and Johnson what did the find difficult about KIneys ratings?
57101794b654c5140001f7cc
to determine the relative amount heterosexual and homosexual experience and response in a person's history when using the scale
651
False
What in somebodys past caused problems for the Kinsey scale?
57101794b654c5140001f7cd
a large number of heterosexual and homosexual experiences
856
False
The Kinsey scale has been praised for dismissing the dichotomous classification of sexual orientation and allowing for a new perspective on human sexuality. However, the scale has been criticized because it is still not a true continuum. Despite seven categories being able to provide a more accurate description of sexual orientation than a dichotomous scale it is still difficult to determine which category individuals should be assigned to. In a major study comparing sexual response in homosexual males and females, Masters and Johnson discuss the difficulty of assigning the Kinsey ratings to participants. Particularly, they found it difficult to determine the relative amount heterosexual and homosexual experience and response in a person's history when using the scale. They report finding it difficult to assign ratings 2-4 for individuals with a large number of heterosexual and homosexual experiences. When, there is a lot of heterosexual and homosexual experiences in one's history it becomes difficult for that individual to be fully objective in assessing the relative amount of each.
How many questions does the SASO contain?
57101890b654c5140001f7d3
12
21
False
What do six of the questions asses?
57101890b654c5140001f7d4
sexual attraction
65
False
What do the other six questions asses?
57101890b654c5140001f7d5
four assess sexual behavior, and two assess sexual orientation identity
84
False
What questions corresponds to the homosexual ones?
57101890b654c5140001f7d6
heterosexuality
264
False
How are the results simplified when using the SASO?
57101890b654c5140001f7d7
into four summaries that look specifically at responses that correspond to either homosexuality, heterosexuality, bisexuality or asexuality.
481
False
The SASO consists of 12 questions. Six of these questions assess sexual attraction, four assess sexual behavior, and two assess sexual orientation identity. For each question on the scale that measures homosexuality there is a corresponding question that measures heterosexuality giving six matching pairs of questions. Taken all together, the six pairs of questions and responses provide a profile of an individual's sexual orientation. However, results can be further simplified into four summaries that look specifically at responses that correspond to either homosexuality, heterosexuality, bisexuality or asexuality.
Has the cause for sexual orientation been found yet?
571019efa58dae1900cd6886
The exact causes for the development of a particular sexual orientation have yet to be established
0
False
What has the research that has been conducted for the influence of genetics made many people think?
571019efa58dae1900cd6887
that biology and environment factors play a complex role in forming it
284
False
What was once thought to cause homosexuality?
571019efa58dae1900cd6888
the result of faulty psychological development
399
False
What was found out about the theory of faulty psychological development being the cause for homosexuality?
571019efa58dae1900cd6889
this was based on prejudice and misinformation.
569
False
The exact causes for the development of a particular sexual orientation have yet to be established. To date, a lot of research has been conducted to determine the influence of genetics, hormonal action, development dynamics, social and cultural influences—which has led many to think that biology and environment factors play a complex role in forming it. It was once thought that homosexuality was the result of faulty psychological development, resulting from childhood experiences and troubled relationships, including childhood sexual abuse. It has been found that this was based on prejudice and misinformation.
What can the scales for sexual orientation be used for?
57101b41a58dae1900cd6898
determining what the prevalence of different sexual orientations are within a population
61
False
What will cause the amount of homosexuality to vary?
57101b41a58dae1900cd6899
which component of sexual orientation is being assessed
252
False
Out of sexual attraction, sexual behovior, and sexual identity which will show more accurately the amount of homosexuals in a population?
57101b41a58dae1900cd689a
Assessing sexual attraction will yield the greatest prevalence of homosexuality in a population
365
False
One of the uses for scales that assess sexual orientation is determining what the prevalence of different sexual orientations are within a population. Depending on subject's age, culture and sex, the prevalence rates of homosexuality vary depending on which component of sexual orientation is being assessed: sexual attraction, sexual behavior, or sexual identity. Assessing sexual attraction will yield the greatest prevalence of homosexuality in a population whereby the proportion of individuals indicating they are same sex attracted is two to three times greater than the proportion reporting same sex behavior or identify as gay, lesbian, or bisexual. Furthermore, reports of same sex behavior usually exceed those of gay, lesbian, or bisexual identification. The following chart demonstrates how widely the prevalence of homosexuality can vary depending on what age, location and component of sexual orientation is being assessed:
Which chromosome is responsible for produlcing male differentiation on defect female development?
57101c35b654c5140001f801
chromosome Y
70
False
What is the differentiation process driven by?
57101c35b654c5140001f802
androgen hormones,
212
False
What results in sexual differences in males and females?
57101c35b654c5140001f803
secretion of androgens, that will cooperate in driving the sexual differentiation of the developing fetus, included its brain
346
False
What have scientist began to test due to the fact that adrogen results in sexual differences?
57101c35b654c5140001f804
the result of modifying androgen exposure levels in mammals during fetus and early life
593
False
As female fetuses have two X chromosomes and male ones a XY pair, the chromosome Y is the responsible for producing male differentiation on the defect female development. The differentiation process is driven by androgen hormones, mainly testosterone and dihydrotestosterone (DHT). The newly formed testicles in the fetus are responsible for the secretion of androgens, that will cooperate in driving the sexual differentiation of the developing fetus, included its brain. This results in sexual differences between males and females. This fact has led some scientists to test in various ways the result of modifying androgen exposure levels in mammals during fetus and early life.
Who created on of the earliest sexual classification schemes?
57101dc2b654c5140001f809
Karl Heinrich Ulrichs
91
False
When did Karl Heinrich Ulrichs develop this classification scheme?
57101dc2b654c5140001f80a
in the 1860s
75
False
Was his classification scheme meant for males or females?
57101dc2b654c5140001f80b
meant only to describe males
199
False
What three categories are used in Ulrichs scheme?
57101dc2b654c5140001f80c
dionings, urnings and uranodionings
273
False
What did these three categories correspond with?
57101dc2b654c5140001f80d
the categories of sexual orientation used today:
414
False
One of the earliest sexual orientation classification schemes was proposed in the 1860s by Karl Heinrich Ulrichs in a series of pamphlets he published privately. The classification scheme, which was meant only to describe males, separated them into three basic categories: dionings, urnings and uranodionings. An urning can be further categorized by degree of effeminacy. These categories directly correspond with the categories of sexual orientation used today: heterosexual, homosexual, and bisexual. In the series of pamphlets, Ulrichs outlined a set of questions to determine if a man was an urning. The definitions of each category of Ulrichs' classification scheme are as follows:
What did both Weinrich and Weinberg critisize the KInsey scale for?
57101eefa58dae1900cd68b2
lumping individuals who are different based on different dimensions of sexuality into the same categories.
75
False
What caused valuable information to be lost while using the KInsey scale?
57101eefa58dae1900cd68b3
collapsing the two values into one final score
348
False
Why was collapsing the two values into one score a problem?
57101eefa58dae1900cd68b4
A person who has only predominantly same sex reactions is different from someone with relatively little reaction but lots of same sex experience
396
False
How could Kinsey have avoided losing this crucial information?
57101eefa58dae1900cd68b5
to have measured the two dimensions separately and report scores independently to avoid loss of information
585
False
Besides behavior and reactions what else could have been used in the KInsey scale?
57101eefa58dae1900cd68b6
one could also assess attraction, identification, lifestyle
804
False
Weinrich et al. (1993) and Weinberg et al. (1994) criticized the scale for lumping individuals who are different based on different dimensions of sexuality into the same categories. When applying the scale, Kinsey considered two dimensions of sexual orientation: overt sexual experience and psychosexual reactions. Valuable information was lost by collapsing the two values into one final score. A person who has only predominantly same sex reactions is different from someone with relatively little reaction but lots of same sex experience. It would have been quite simple for Kinsey to have measured the two dimensions separately and report scores independently to avoid loss of information. Furthermore, there are more than two dimensions of sexuality to be considered. Beyond behavior and reactions, one could also assess attraction, identification, lifestyle etc. This is addressed by the Klein Sexual Orientation Grid.
What questions did Sell consider the most important on the KInsey scale?
57102005a58dae1900cd68c6
those assessing sexual attraction
51
False
Why did Sell consider the questions regarding sexual attraction the most important?
57102005a58dae1900cd68c7
sexual attraction is a better reflection of the concept of sexual orientation
113
False
Rather than define sexual orientation as sexual idenity or behavior what did Sell define it as?
57102005a58dae1900cd68c8
extent of sexual attractions toward members of the other, same, both sexes or neither
212
False
What is a huge concern for SASO?
57102005a58dae1900cd68c9
the reliability and validity remains largely unexamined.
568
False
Of all the questions on the scale, Sell considered those assessing sexual attraction to be the most important as sexual attraction is a better reflection of the concept of sexual orientation which he defined as "extent of sexual attractions toward members of the other, same, both sexes or neither" than either sexual identity or sexual behavior. Identity and behavior are measured as supplemental information because they are both closely tied to sexual attraction and sexual orientation. Major criticisms of the SASO have not been established, but a concern is that the reliability and validity remains largely unexamined.
What reflects the prevalence rates varying?
571022d9b654c5140001f83b
people's inconsistent responses to the different components of sexual orientation within a study and the instability of their responses over time
49
False
What does it mean when someones sexualiity is fluid?
571022d9b654c5140001f83c
such that one's sexual orientation is not necessarily stable or consistent over time but is subject to change throughout life.
507
False
What did Diamond find about the women?
571022d9b654c5140001f83d
over 7 years 2/3 of the women changed their sexual identity at least once,
660
False
What did women acknowledge who considered themselves as lesbian or bisexual?
571022d9b654c5140001f83e
the possibility for future same sex attractions and/or behaviour
979
False
What makes it difficult to determine if someone is homosexual or not?
571022d9b654c5140001f83f
individuals classified as homosexual in one study might not be identified the same way in another depending on which components are assessed
1193
False
The variance in prevalence rates is reflected in people's inconsistent responses to the different components of sexual orientation within a study and the instability of their responses over time. Laumann et al., (1994) found that among U.S. adults 20% of those who would be considered homosexual on one component of orientation were homosexual on the other two dimensions and 70% responded in a way that was consistent with homosexuality on only one of the three dimensions. Furthermore, sexuality is fluid such that one's sexual orientation is not necessarily stable or consistent over time but is subject to change throughout life. Diamond (2003) found that over 7 years 2/3 of the women changed their sexual identity at least once, with many reporting that the label was not adequate in capturing the diversity of their sexual or romantic feelings. Furthermore, women who relinquished bisexual and lesbian identification did not relinquish same sex sexuality and acknowledged the possibility for future same sex attractions and/or behaviour. One woman stated "I'm mainly straight but I'm one of those people who, if the right circumstance came along, would change my viewpoint". Therefore, individuals classified as homosexual in one study might not be identified the same way in another depending on which components are assessed and when the assessment is made making it difficult to pin point who is homosexual and who is not and what the overall prevalence within a population may be.
Why do researches in homosexual studies argued that it is a social and historical constuction?
571023e0b654c5140001f845
Because sexual orientation is complex and multi-dimensional
0
False
Which philosopher argued homosexuality did not exist as an idenity in the eighteenth century?
571023e0b654c5140001f846
Michel Foucault
218
False
In what year did Michel Foucalt publish The History Of Sexuality?
571023e0b654c5140001f847
1976
186
False
What did he state was an invention of the modern state?
571023e0b654c5140001f848
'Sexuality
518
False
What was a crime in the eighteenth century that could cause severe punishment but was mostly ignored?
571023e0b654c5140001f849
Sodomy
414
False
Because sexual orientation is complex and multi-dimensional, some academics and researchers, especially in queer studies, have argued that it is a historical and social construction. In 1976, philosopher and historian Michel Foucault argued in The History of Sexuality that homosexuality as an identity did not exist in the eighteenth century; that people instead spoke of "sodomy," which referred to sexual acts. Sodomy was a crime that was often ignored, but sometimes punished severely (see sodomy law). He wrote, "'Sexuality' is an invention of the modern state, the industrial revolution, and capitalism."
What do some researchers argue about the idea of sexual orientation?
571024daa58dae1900cd6914
the concept may not apply similarly to men and women
57
False
What have studies found about women and their believed sexual orientations?
571024daa58dae1900cd6915
female-female, male-male and male-female sexual activity (oral sex or penetration), have patterns of arousal which do not match
201
False
What did the studies reveal about men and their declared sexual preference?
571024daa58dae1900cd6916
men's sexual arousal patterns tend to be more in line with their stated orientations,
616
False
Some researchers who study sexual orientation argue that the concept may not apply similarly to men and women. A study of sexual arousal patterns found that women, when viewing erotic films which show female-female, male-male and male-female sexual activity (oral sex or penetration), have patterns of arousal which do not match their declared sexual orientations as well as men's. That is, heterosexual and lesbian women's sexual arousal to erotic films do not differ significantly by the genders of the participants (male or female) or by the type of sexual activity (heterosexual or homosexual). On the contrary, men's sexual arousal patterns tend to be more in line with their stated orientations, with heterosexual men showing more penis arousal to female-female sexual activity and less arousal to female-male and male-male sexual stimuli, and homosexual and bisexual men being more aroused by films depicting male-male intercourse and less aroused by other stimuli.
What does research show about sexual orientation?
571025e8a58dae1900cd6924
is independent of cultural and other social influences
42
False
What can being openly gay be hindered by?
571025e8a58dae1900cd6925
homophobic/hetereosexist settings.
174
False
What social systems can greatly influence someone realization of their sexual preference?
571025e8a58dae1900cd6926
religion, language and ethnic traditions
232
False
What group of the LGBT community are the most researched?
571025e8a58dae1900cd6927
white, middle-class, well-educated
510
False
What does the american culture put a large emphasis on?
571025e8a58dae1900cd6928
individual attributes, and views the self as unchangeable and constant.
1138
False
Research suggests that sexual orientation is independent of cultural and other social influences, but that open identification of one's sexual orientation may be hindered by homophobic/hetereosexist settings. Social systems such as religion, language and ethnic traditions can have a powerful impact on realization of sexual orientation. Influences of culture may complicate the process of measuring sexual orientation. The majority of empirical and clinical research on LGBT populations are done with largely white, middle-class, well-educated samples, however there are pockets of research that document various other cultural groups, although these are frequently limited in diversity of gender and sexual orientation of the subjects. Integration of sexual orientation with sociocultural identity may be a challenge for LGBT individuals. Individuals may or may not consider their sexual orientation to define their sexual identity, as they may experience various degrees of fluidity of sexuality, or may simply identify more strongly with another aspect of their identity such as family role. American culture puts a great emphasis on individual attributes, and views the self as unchangeable and constant. In contrast, East Asian cultures put a great emphasis on a person's social role within social hierarchies, and view the self as fluid and malleable. These differing cultural perspectives have many implications on cognitions of the self, including perception of sexual orientation.
What is a common way to determine a persons sexuality?
5710282db654c5140001f87f
according to their sexual role (active/passive; insertive/penetrated)
134
False
When deteerming sexual preference this way what is the passive role associated with?
5710282db654c5140001f880
femininity and/or inferiority
272
False
When determining sexual preference this way what is the active role associated with?
5710282db654c5140001f881
masculinity and/or superiority
354
False
How much is known about lesbians and bisexual women in these cultures?
5710282db654c5140001f882
Little
868
False
Some other cultures do not recognize a homosexual/heterosexual/bisexual distinction. It is common to distinguish a person's sexuality according to their sexual role (active/passive; insertive/penetrated). In this distinction, the passive role is typically associated with femininity and/or inferiority, while the active role is typically associated with masculinity and/or superiority. For example, an investigation of a small Brazilian fishing village revealed three sexual categories for men: men who have sex only with men (consistently in a passive role), men who have sex only with women, and men who have sex with women and men (consistently in an active role). While men who consistently occupied the passive role were recognized as a distinct group by locals, men who have sex with only women, and men who have sex with women and men, were not differentiated. Little is known about same-sex attracted females, or sexual behavior between females in these cultures.
What do researchers generally believe causes sexual orientation?
57102bb6b654c5140001f887
a combination of genetic, hormonal, and environmental influences
104
False
What biological factors do they believe plays a complicated part in sexual orientation?
57102bb6b654c5140001f888
a complex interplay of genetic factors and the early uterine environment, they favor biological models for the cause
204
False
What do they believe about sexual orientation?
57102bb6b654c5140001f889
not a choice, and some of them believe that it is established at conception.
362
False
What differences hace scientist found in certain studies?
57102bb6b654c5140001f88a
statistical biological differences between gay people and heterosexuals
832
False
What can these results be caused from?
57102bb6b654c5140001f88b
the same underlying cause as sexual orientation itself
927
False
Though researchers generally believe that sexual orientation is not determined by any one factor but by a combination of genetic, hormonal, and environmental influences, with biological factors involving a complex interplay of genetic factors and the early uterine environment, they favor biological models for the cause. They believe that sexual orientation is not a choice, and some of them believe that it is established at conception. That is, individuals do not choose to be homosexual, heterosexual, bisexual, or asexual. While current scientific investigation usually seeks to find biological explanations for the adoption of a particular sexual orientation, there are yet no replicated scientific studies supporting any specific biological etiology for sexual orientation. However, scientific studies have found a number of statistical biological differences between gay people and heterosexuals, which may result from the same underlying cause as sexual orientation itself.
What concept is sexual orientation argued as?
57102d7aa58dae1900cd6942
a concept that evolved in the industrialized West
32
False
What is causing contreversy as to the concept of sexual orientation?
57102d7aa58dae1900cd6943
the universality of its application in other societies or cultures
116
False
What is the notion of sexual orientation in west defined as?
57102d7aa58dae1900cd6944
as a biological phenomenon rather than a social construction specific to a region and period
433
False
Sexual orientation is argued as a concept that evolved in the industrialized West, and there is a controversy as to the universality of its application in other societies or cultures. Non-westernized concepts of male sexuality differ essentially from the way sexuality is seen and classified under the Western system of sexual orientation.[unreliable source?] The validity of the notion of sexual orientation as defined in the West, as a biological phenomenon rather than a social construction specific to a region and period, has also been questioned within the industrialized Western society).
What does Bruce criticize the labels heterosexual and homsexual as?
57102e9eb654c5140001f891
confusing and degrading
104
False
What does Bruce Bagemilh write about the labels homosexual and heterosexual terms?
57102e9eb654c5140001f892
. These labels thereby ignore the individual's personal sense of gender identity taking precedence over biological sex, rather than the other way around
387
False
What does Bagemihl say a major issue with this terminology is?
57102e9eb654c5140001f893
it easy to claim transsexuals are really homosexual males seeking to escape from stigma.
609
False
Some researchers, such as Bruce Bagemihl, have criticized the labels "heterosexual" and "homosexual" as confusing and degrading. Bagemihl writes, "...the point of reference for 'heterosexual' or 'homosexual' orientation in this nomenclature is solely the individual's genetic sex prior to reassignment (see for example, Blanchard et al. 1987, Coleman and Bockting, 1988, Blanchard, 1989). These labels thereby ignore the individual's personal sense of gender identity taking precedence over biological sex, rather than the other way around." Bagemihl goes on to take issue with the way this terminology makes it easy to claim transsexuals are really homosexual males seeking to escape from stigma.
What can impact accurately assesing sexual identity?
57102f4eb654c5140001f897
sexual orientation and sexual orientation identity are not distinguished
7
False
What does the Centre For Addiction and Mental heal along with the American Psychiatric association state about sexual orientation?
57102f4eb654c5140001f898
sexual orientation is innate, continuous or fixed throughout their lives for some people, but is fluid or changes over time for others,
453
False
What does the American Psychological Assocation distinguish between?
57102f4eb654c5140001f899
sexual orientation (an innate attraction) and sexual orientation identity (which may change at any point in a person's life).
650
False
Often, sexual orientation and sexual orientation identity are not distinguished, which can impact accurately assessing sexual identity and whether or not sexual orientation is able to change; sexual orientation identity can change throughout an individual's life, and may or may not align with biological sex, sexual behavior or actual sexual orientation. While the Centre for Addiction and Mental Health and American Psychiatric Association state that sexual orientation is innate, continuous or fixed throughout their lives for some people, but is fluid or changes over time for others, the American Psychological Association distinguishes between sexual orientation (an innate attraction) and sexual orientation identity (which may change at any point in a person's life).
What does the FBO effect stand for?
57103069a58dae1900cd6948
fraternal birth order
13
False
What does this theory entail?
57103069a58dae1900cd6949
prenatal origin, although no evidence thus far has linked it to an exact prenatal mechanism
106
False
What does research show about the FBO effect?
57103069a58dae1900cd694a
this may be of immunological origin, caused by a maternal immune reaction against a substance crucial to male fetal development during pregnancy,
231
False
What does MIH stand for?
57103069a58dae1900cd694b
maternal immunization hypothesis
583
False
What does BBB stand for?
57103069a58dae1900cd694c
blood/brain barrier
1000
False
Known as the fraternal birth order (FBO) effect, this theory has been backed up by strong evidence of its prenatal origin, although no evidence thus far has linked it to an exact prenatal mechanism. However, research suggests that this may be of immunological origin, caused by a maternal immune reaction against a substance crucial to male fetal development during pregnancy, which becomes increasingly likely after every male gestation. As a result of this immune effect, alterations in later-born males' prenatal development have been thought to occur. This process, known as the maternal immunization hypothesis (MIH), would begin when cells from a male fetus enter the mother's circulation during pregnancy or while giving birth. These Y-linked proteins would not be recognized in the mother's immune system because she is female, causing her to develop antibodies which would travel through the placental barrier into the fetal compartment. From here, the anti-male bodies would then cross the blood/brain barrier (BBB) of the developing fetal brain, altering sex-dimorphic brain structures relative to sexual orientation, causing the exposed son to be more attracted to men over women.
What other name does the KInsey scale go by?
57103103b654c5140001f89d
Heterosexual-Homosexual Rating Scale
34
False
When was the KInsey scale first published?
57103103b654c5140001f89e
1948
130
False
Why was the KInsey scale developed?
57103103b654c5140001f89f
to combat the assumption at the time that people are either heterosexual or homosexual
277
False
What did KInsey state as his reasoning for the scale?
57103103b654c5140001f8a0
Recognizing that a large portion of population is not completely heterosexual or homosexual and people can experience both heterosexual and homosexual behavior
431
False
Who else was featured in The sexual behavior of the human male?
57103103b654c5140001f8a1
Wardell Pomeroy, and Clyde Martin
154
False
The Kinsey scale, also called the Heterosexual-Homosexual Rating Scale, was first published in Sexual Behavior in the Human Male (1948) by Alfred Kinsey, Wardell Pomeroy, and Clyde Martin and also featured in Sexual Behavior in the Human Female (1953). The scale was developed to combat the assumption at the time that people are either heterosexual or homosexual and that these two types represent antitheses in the sexual world. Recognizing that a large portion of population is not completely heterosexual or homosexual and people can experience both heterosexual and homosexual behavior and psychic responses, Kinsey et al., stated:
What does KSOG stand for?
57103183a58dae1900cd6952
Klein sexual orientation grid
128
False
Who invented the KSOG?
57103183a58dae1900cd6953
Fritz Klein
102
False
Why did pritz klein come up with the KSOG?
57103183a58dae1900cd6954
response to the criticism of the Kinsey scale only measuring two dimensions of sexual orientation
3
False
What kind of scale does the KSOG use?
57103183a58dae1900cd6955
a 7-point scale
288
False
What three points in life does the KSOG evaluate?
57103183a58dae1900cd6956
past (from early adolescence up to one year ago), present (within the last 12 months), and ideal (what would you choose if it were completely your choice).
405
False
In response to the criticism of the Kinsey scale only measuring two dimensions of sexual orientation, Fritz Klein developed the Klein sexual orientation grid (KSOG), a multidimensional scale for describing sexual orientation. Introduced in Klein's book The Bisexual Option, the KSOG uses a 7-point scale to assess seven different dimensions of sexuality at three different points in an individual's life: past (from early adolescence up to one year ago), present (within the last 12 months), and ideal (what would you choose if it were completely your choice).
What are sexual attraction. behavior, and idenity components of?
57103240a58dae1900cd695c
sexual orientation
71
False
What do individuals typically experience?
57103240a58dae1900cd695d
diverse attractions and behaviors that may reflect curiosity, experimentation, social pressure
539
False
What is there little coherent relationships between?
57103240a58dae1900cd695e
the amount and mix of homosexual and heterosexual behavior in a person's biography and that person's choice to label himself
327
False
Though sexual attraction, behavior, and identity are all components of sexual orientation, if a person defined by one of these dimensions were congruent with those defined by another dimension it would not matter which was used in assessing orientation, but this is not the case. There is "little coherent relationship between the amount and mix of homosexual and heterosexual behavior in a person's biography and that person's choice to label himself or herself as bisexual, homosexual, or heterosexual". Individuals typically experience diverse attractions and behaviors that may reflect curiosity, experimentation, social pressure and is not necessarily indicative of an underlying sexual orientation. For example, a woman may have fantasies or thoughts about sex with other women but never act on these thoughts and only have sex with opposite gender partners. If sexual orientation was being assessed based on one's sexual attraction then this individual would be considered homosexual, but her behavior indicates heterosexuality.
Who wrote the paper "Whos Gay? Does It Matter?
57103337b654c5140001f8a7
Ritch Savin-Williams
43
False
What does RItch SAvin-Williams propose in this paper?
57103337b654c5140001f8a8
suggests that greater priority should be given to sexual arousal and attraction
331
False
What did he propose to measure attraction?
57103337b654c5140001f8a9
that biological measures should be developed and used.
581
False
What else does Savin-Williams suggest?
57103337b654c5140001f8aa
researchers should forsake the general notion of sexual orientation altogether
932
False
What components does he believe shoud be used in studies?
57103337b654c5140001f8ab
assess only those components that are relevant for the research question being investigated
1015
False
In the paper "Who's Gay? Does It Matter?", Ritch Savin-Williams proposes two different approaches to assessing sexual orientation until well positioned and psychometrically sound and tested definitions are developed that would allow research to reliably identify the prevalence, causes, and consequences of homosexuality. He first suggests that greater priority should be given to sexual arousal and attraction over behaviour and identity because it is less prone to self- and other-deception, social conditions and variable meanings. To measure attraction and arousal he proposed that biological measures should be developed and used. There are numerous biological/physiological measures that exist that can measure sexual orientation such as sexual arousal, brain scans, eye tracking, body odour preference, and anatomical variations such as digit-length ratio and right or left handedness. Secondly, Savin-Williams suggests that researchers should forsake the general notion of sexual orientation altogether and assess only those components that are relevant for the research question being investigated. For example:
What do these studies suggest?
571033ecb654c5140001f8b1
that men and women are different in terms of sexual arousal patterns
22
False
How is this reflected in the studies?
571033ecb654c5140001f8b2
in how their genitals react to sexual stimuli of both genders or even to non-human stimuli.
123
False
What are some dimensions of sexual orientation?
571033ecb654c5140001f8b3
attractions, behavior, identity
255
False
What do mens sexual orientations tend be focused on?
571033ecb654c5140001f8b4
physical component of attractions
929
False
What do researches believe must be taken into account for women in these studies?
571033ecb654c5140001f8b5
emotional attachment
760
False
These studies suggest that men and women are different in terms of sexual arousal patterns and that this is also reflected in how their genitals react to sexual stimuli of both genders or even to non-human stimuli. Sexual orientation has many dimensions (attractions, behavior, identity), of which sexual arousal is the only product of sexual attractions which can be measured at present with some degree of physical precision. Thus, the fact that women are aroused by seeing non-human primates having sex does not mean that women's sexual orientation includes this type of sexual interest. Some researchers argue that women's sexual orientation depends less on their patterns of sexual arousal than men's and that other components of sexual orientation (like emotional attachment) must be taken into account when describing women's sexual orientations. In contrast, men's sexual orientations tend to be primarily focused on the physical component of attractions and, thus, their sexual feelings are more exclusively oriented according to sex.
What can make a person believe they know someone elses sexual orientation?
571034a1a58dae1900cd6962
perceived characteristics, such as appearance, clothing, tone of voice, and accompaniment by and behavior with other people
83
False
What is a term for someone who tries to determine someones sexuality?
571034a1a58dae1900cd6963
gaydar
282
False
What have somes studies show when researching how someone uses "gaydar"?
571034a1a58dae1900cd6964
that guesses based on face photos perform better than chance
314
False
What did research in 2015 suggest was an alternate label for gaydar?
571034a1a58dae1900cd6965
using LGBT stereotypes to infer orientation
439
False
What did this research also show about face-shape?
571034a1a58dae1900cd6966
not an accurate indication of orientation.
507
False
One person may presume knowledge of another person's sexual orientation based upon perceived characteristics, such as appearance, clothing, tone of voice, and accompaniment by and behavior with other people. The attempt to detect sexual orientation in social situations is known as gaydar; some studies have found that guesses based on face photos perform better than chance. 2015 research suggests that "gaydar" is an alternate label for using LGBT stereotypes to infer orientation, and that face-shape is not an accurate indication of orientation.
What is part of the reason for the varying estimates of the bisexual population?
5710353fa58dae1900cd696c
due to differing definitions of bisexuality.
95
False
What is one way a study can view bisexuality?
5710353fa58dae1900cd696d
if they are nearly equally attracted to both sexes,
185
False
What is another way studies can view bisexuality?
5710353fa58dae1900cd696e
they are at all attracted to the same sex (for otherwise mostly heterosexual persons) or to the opposite sex (for otherwise mostly homosexual persons)
278
False
What is the percentage of asexuals?
5710353fa58dae1900cd696f
1%.
565
False
Estimates for the percentage of the population that are bisexual vary widely, at least in part due to differing definitions of bisexuality. Some studies only consider a person bisexual if they are nearly equally attracted to both sexes, and others consider a person bisexual if they are at all attracted to the same sex (for otherwise mostly heterosexual persons) or to the opposite sex (for otherwise mostly homosexual persons). A small percentage of people are not sexually attracted to anyone (asexuality). A study in 2004 placed the prevalence of asexuality at 1%.
What do historians and researches argue about concerning the emotional and affectionate activities?
571035f5a58dae1900cd6974
activities associated with sexual-orientation terms such as "gay" and "heterosexual" change significantly over time and across cultural boundaries.
74
False
What can be assumed in english speaking nations when two men kiss?
571035f5a58dae1900cd6975
is a sign of homosexuality
332
False
What do some cultures have formal ceremonies for?
571035f5a58dae1900cd6976
expressing long-term commitment between same-sex friends
520
False
Some historians and researchers argue that the emotional and affectionate activities associated with sexual-orientation terms such as "gay" and "heterosexual" change significantly over time and across cultural boundaries. For example, in many English-speaking nations, it is assumed that same-sex kissing, particularly between men, is a sign of homosexuality, whereas various types of same-sex kissing are common expressions of friendship in other nations. Also, many modern and historic cultures have formal ceremonies expressing long-term commitment between same-sex friends, even though homosexuality itself is taboo within the cultures.
Dell
What number was dell on the Fortune 500 list until 2014?
570fc4805ab6b81900390fa7
51
26
False
When did Dell go private?
570fc4805ab6b81900390fa8
2013
89
False
Dell is currently the #1 shipper of what?
570fc4805ab6b81900390fa9
PC monitors
318
False
In which state is Dell the sixth largest company?
570fc4805ab6b81900390faa
Texas
381
False
What PC vendor rank did Dell hold?
570fc4805ab6b81900390fab
third largest
224
False
51
26
What number was dell on the Fortune 600 list until 2014?
5ad35625604f3c001a3fddcb
True
2013
89
When did Dell go public?
5ad35625604f3c001a3fddcc
True
PC monitors
318
Dell is currently the #2 shipper of what?
5ad35625604f3c001a3fddcd
True
Texas
480
In which state is Dell the sixth smallest company?
5ad35625604f3c001a3fddce
True
third largest
224
What PC vendor rank did IBM hold?
5ad35625604f3c001a3fddcf
True
Dell was listed at number 51 in the Fortune 500 list, until 2014. After going private in 2013, the newly confidential nature of its financial information prevents the company from being ranked by Fortune. In 2014 it was the third largest PC vendor in the world after Lenovo and HP. Dell is currently the #1 shipper of PC monitors in the world. Dell is the sixth largest company in Texas by total revenue, according to Fortune magazine. It is the second largest non-oil company in Texas – behind AT&T – and the largest company in the Greater Austin area. It was a publicly traded company (NASDAQ: DELL), as well as a component of the NASDAQ-100 and S&P 500, until it was taken private in a leveraged buyout which closed on October 30, 2013.
What market did Dell ignore at first?
570fc65b80d9841400ab366b
consumer market
39
False
When did Dell's internet site gain popularity?
570fc65b80d9841400ab366c
1996
216
False
What was happening to Dell's average sale to individuals?
570fc65b80d9841400ab366d
going up
316
False
When did Dell create their internal marketing group?
570fc65b80d9841400ab366e
1997
657
False
consumer market
39
What market did Dell appease at first?
5ad3586b604f3c001a3fde25
True
consumer market
39
What market did IBM ignore at first?
5ad3586b604f3c001a3fde26
True
1996 and 1997
216
When did Dell's internet site lose popularity?
5ad3586b604f3c001a3fde27
True
going up
316
What was happening to IBM's average sale to individuals?
5ad3586b604f3c001a3fde28
True
1997
657
When did Dell end their internal marketing group?
5ad3586b604f3c001a3fde29
True
Originally, Dell did not emphasize the consumer market, due to the higher costs and unacceptably low profit margins in selling to individuals and households; this changed when the company’s Internet site took off in 1996 and 1997. While the industry’s average selling price to individuals was going down, Dell's was going up, as second- and third-time computer buyers who wanted powerful computers with multiple features and did not need much technical support were choosing Dell. Dell found an opportunity among PC-savvy individuals who liked the convenience of buying direct, customizing their PC to their means, and having it delivered in days. In early 1997, Dell created an internal sales and marketing group dedicated to serving the home market and introduced a product line designed especially for individual users.
What sales model did Dell use for a long time?
570fc6df5ab6b81900390fbb
direct
27
False
Who were the main driving force behind PC sales?
570fc6df5ab6b81900390fbc
Consumers
47
False
Where were consumers going to buy devices other than online?
570fc6df5ab6b81900390fbd
consumer electronics retail stores
235
False
What market presence did Dell lack?
570fc6df5ab6b81900390fbe
retail
462
False
What was one city that Dell tested retail stores in?
570fc6df5ab6b81900390fbf
Texas
650
False
direct
27
What sales model did Dell not use for a long time?
5ad35d86604f3c001a3fdeb7
True
Consumers
47
Who were the minor driving force behind PC sales?
5ad35d86604f3c001a3fdeb8
True
consumer electronics retail stores
235
Where were consumers going to buy devices other than offline?
5ad35d86604f3c001a3fdeb9
True
retail
367
What market presence did Dell have?
5ad35d86604f3c001a3fdeba
True
Texas
650
What was one city that Dell tested retail stores in?
5ad35d86604f3c001a3fdebb
True
Dell had long stuck by its direct sales model. Consumers had become the main drivers of PC sales in recent years, yet there had a decline in consumers purchasing PCs through the Web or on the phone, as increasing numbers were visiting consumer electronics retail stores to try out the devices first. Dell's rivals in the PC industry, HP, Gateway and Acer, had a long retail presence and so were well poised to take advantage of the consumer shift. The lack of a retail presence stymied Dell's attempts to offer consumer electronics such as flat-panel TVs and MP3 players. Dell responded by experimenting with mall kiosks, plus quasi-retail stores in Texas and New York.
What industry was getting smaller?
570fc7d35ab6b81900390fcd
PC
17
False
When did Dell fall behind Lenovo?
570fc7d35ab6b81900390fce
2011
97
False
What other American company fell behind Lenovo with Dell?
570fc7d35ab6b81900390fcf
Hewlett Packard
178
False
What PC was taking corporate customers from Dell?
570fc7d35ab6b81900390fd0
ThinkPad
457
False
What company was Dell behind in profits in 2012?
570fc7d35ab6b81900390fd1
Apple Inc.
726
False
PC
17
What industry was getting bigger?
5ad36094604f3c001a3fdf37
True
2011
97
When did Dell fall behind IBM?
5ad36094604f3c001a3fdf38
True
Hewlett Packard
178
What other Canadian company fell behind Lenovo with Dell?
5ad36094604f3c001a3fdf39
True
Lenovo's ThinkPad
448
What PC was taking home customers from Dell?
5ad36094604f3c001a3fdf3a
True
Apple Inc.'s
726
What company was Dell behind in profits in 2014?
5ad36094604f3c001a3fdf3b
True
In the shrinking PC industry, Dell continued to lose market share, as it dropped below Lenovo in 2011 to fall to number three in the world. Dell and fellow American contemporary Hewlett Packard came under pressure from Asian PC manufacturers Lenovo, Asus, and Acer, all of which had lower production costs and willing to accept lower profit margins. In addition, while the Asian PC vendors had been improving their quality and design, for instance Lenovo's ThinkPad series was winning corporate customers away from Dell's laptops, Dell's customer service and reputation had been slipping. Dell remained the second-most profitable PC vendor, as it took 13 percent of operating profits in the PC industry during Q4 2012, behind Apple Inc.'s Macintosh that took 45 percent, seven percent at Hewlett Packard, six percent at Lenovo and Asus, and one percent for Acer.
Which of Dell's processes handles PC assembly, testing, and quality control?
570fc88e80d9841400ab367d
manufacturing
7
False
Where did Dell configure their notebooks?
570fc88e80d9841400ab367e
in-house
287
False
When did Dell describe their changing approach to manufacturing?
570fc88e80d9841400ab367f
2006
349
False
Who reported that Dell was offering to sell their manufacturing plants?
570fc88e80d9841400ab3680
The Wall Street Journal
512
False
What manufacturers was Dell losing to efficiency-wise?
570fc88e80d9841400ab3681
Asian
875
False
manufacturing
7
Which of Dell's processes handles CP assembly, testing, and quality control?
5ad36651604f3c001a3fe063
True
in-house
209
Where did Dell scrap their notebooks?
5ad36651604f3c001a3fe064
True
2006
349
When did Dell describe their changing approach to sales?
5ad36651604f3c001a3fe065
True
The Wall Street Journal
512
Who reported that Dell was offering to buy their manufacturing plants?
5ad36651604f3c001a3fe066
True
Asian
875
What manufacturers was Dell gaining efficiency-wise?
5ad36651604f3c001a3fe067
True
Dell's manufacturing process covers assembly, software installation, functional testing (including "burn-in"), and quality control. Throughout most of the company's history, Dell manufactured desktop machines in-house and contracted out manufacturing of base notebooks for configuration in-house. The company's approach has changed, as cited in the 2006 Annual Report, which states, "We are continuing to expand our use of original design manufacturing partnerships and manufacturing outsourcing relationships." The Wall Street Journal reported in September 2008 that "Dell has approached contract computer manufacturers with offers to sell" their plants. By the late 2000s, Dell's "configure to order" approach of manufacturing—delivering individual PCs configured to customer specifications from its US facilities was no longer as efficient or competitive with high-volume Asian contract manufacturers as PCs became powerful low-cost commodities.
What type of Dell media has appeared on TV, on the internet, and in magazines?
570fc93d5ab6b81900390fd7
advertisements
5
False
One of Dell's marketing strategies is what kind of shipping?
570fc93d5ab6b81900390fd8
free
271
False
What year did Dell cut its prices to keep its market share?
570fc93d5ab6b81900390fd9
2006
339
False
By how much did Dell cut it's margins when it cut its prices?
570fc93d5ab6b81900390fda
half
456
False
Where does Dell take most of its purchases for its products?
570fc93d5ab6b81900390fdb
Internet
579
False
advertisements
5
What type of Dell media hasn't appeared on TV, on the internet, and in magazines?
5ad369a5604f3c001a3fe103
True
free
271
One of Dell's marketing strategies isn't what kind of shipping?
5ad369a5604f3c001a3fe104
True
2006
339
What year did Dell up its prices to keep its market share?
5ad369a5604f3c001a3fe105
True
half
456
By how much did Dell up it's margins when it upped its prices?
5ad369a5604f3c001a3fe106
True
Internet
579
Where does Dell take less of its purchases for its products?
5ad369a5604f3c001a3fe107
True
Dell advertisements have appeared in several types of media including television, the Internet, magazines, catalogs and newspapers. Some of Dell Inc's marketing strategies include lowering prices at all times of the year, free bonus products (such as Dell printers), and free shipping to encourage more sales and stave off competitors. In 2006, Dell cut its prices in an effort to maintain its 19.2% market share. This also cut profit-margins by more than half, from 8.7 to 4.3 percent. To maintain its low prices, Dell continues to accept most purchases of its products via the Internet and through the telephone network, and to move its customer-care division to India and El Salvador.
What year did Dell make an agreement with Officeworks?
570fc9cd5ab6b81900390fe1
2008
7
False
What computer model did Dell ask Officeworks to carry?
570fc9cd5ab6b81900390fe2
Inspiron
138
False
In which country did Dell partner with Harris Technology?
570fc9cd5ab6b81900390fe3
Australian
326
False
What company did Dell team with in late 2008?
570fc9cd5ab6b81900390fe4
Dick Smith Electronics
746
False
What year did Dell's Australian program end up shutting down?
570fc9cd5ab6b81900390fe5
2010
1241
False
2008
7
What year did Dell make a disagreement with Officeworks?
5ad36acb604f3c001a3fe131
True
Inspiron
138
What computer model didn't Dell ask Officeworks to carry?
5ad36acb604f3c001a3fe132
True
Australian
326
In which country did Dell cut ties with Harris Technology?
5ad36acb604f3c001a3fe133
True
Dick Smith Electronics
746
What company did Dell team with in late 2009?
5ad36acb604f3c001a3fe134
True
2010
1241
What year didn't Dell's Australian program end up shutting down?
5ad36acb604f3c001a3fe135
True
In May 2008, Dell reached an agreement with office supply chain, Officeworks (part of Coles Group), to stock a few modified models in the Inspiron desktop and notebook range. These models have slightly different model numbers, but almost replicate the ones available from the Dell Store. Dell continued its retail push in the Australian market with its partnership with Harris Technology (another part of Coles Group) in November of the same year. In addition, Dell expanded its retail distributions in Australia through an agreement with discount electrical retailer, The Good Guys, known for "Slashing Prices". Dell agreed to distribute a variety of makes of both desktops and notebooks, including Studio and XPS systems in late 2008. Dell and Dick Smith Electronics (owned by Woolworths Limited) reached an agreement to expand within Dick Smith's 400 stores throughout Australia and New Zealand in May 2009 (1 year since Officeworks — owned by Coles Group — reached a deal). The retailer has agreed to distribute a variety of Inspiron and Studio notebooks, with minimal Studio desktops from the Dell range. As of 2009[update], Dell continues to run and operate its various kiosks in 18 shopping centres throughout Australia. On March 31, 2010 Dell announced to Australian Kiosk employees that they were shutting down the Australian/New Zealand Dell kiosk program.
What department did Dell launch an internal investigation on?
570fca635ab6b81900390ff5
accounting
86
False
What was the minimum amount of earnings that would be restated by Dell's investigation?
570fca635ab6b81900390ff6
$50 million
220
False
What year did Dell's internal investigation begin?
570fca635ab6b81900390ff7
2006
320
False
Who did Dell agree to not buy processors from?
570fca635ab6b81900390ff8
AMD
618
False
How much did Dell pay in fines to settle fraud charges against it?
570fca635ab6b81900390ff9
$100 million
649
False
accounting
86
What department did Dell launch an external investigation on?
5ad36d16604f3c001a3fe1df
True
$50 million
220
What was the maximum amount of earnings that would be restated by Dell's investigation?
5ad36d16604f3c001a3fe1e0
True
2006
320
What year did Dell's external investigation begin?
5ad36d16604f3c001a3fe1e1
True
$100 million
649
How much didn't Dell pay in fines to settle fraud charges against it?
5ad36d16604f3c001a3fe1e2
True
AMD
618
Who did Dell agree to buy processors from?
5ad36d16604f3c001a3fe1e3
True
On August 17, 2007, Dell Inc. announced that after an internal investigation into its accounting practices it would restate and reduce earnings from 2003 through to the first quarter of 2007 by a total amount of between $50 million and $150 million, or 2 cents to 7 cents per share. The investigation, begun in November 2006, resulted from concerns raised by the U.S. Securities and Exchange Commission over some documents and information that Dell Inc. had submitted. It was alleged that Dell had not disclosed large exclusivity payments received from Intel for agreeing not to buy processors from rival manufacturer AMD. In 2010 Dell finally paid $100 million to settle the SEC's charges of fraud. Michael Dell and other executives also paid penalties and suffered other sanctions, without admitting or denying the charges.
What decade did Dell begin to sell things other than PCs?
570fcb315ab6b81900390fff
1990s
11
False
IBM, Hewlett Packard, and Compaq were the major providers of what?
570fcb315ab6b81900391000
servers
149
False
What servers did Dell create that they tried to break into the market with?
570fcb315ab6b81900391001
PowerEdge
370
False
What year did Dell's enterprise revenue make up a large chunk of its profit?
570fcb315ab6b81900391002
1998
678
False
Which company did Dell exceed as a server provider?
570fcb315ab6b81900391003
Compaq
715
False
mid-1990s
7
What decade did Dell begin to buy things other than PCs?
5ad35a39604f3c001a3fde55
True
servers
149
IBM, Hewlett Packard, and Compaq were the minor providers of what?
5ad35a39604f3c001a3fde56
True
PowerEdge
370
What servers did Dell destroy that they tried to break into the market with?
5ad35a39604f3c001a3fde57
True
1998
678
What year did Dell's enterprise revenue make up a large chunk of its loss?
5ad35a39604f3c001a3fde58
True
Compaq
715
Which company did Dell lag behind of as a server provider?
5ad35a39604f3c001a3fde59
True
In the mid-1990s, Dell expanded beyond desktop computers and laptops by selling servers, starting with low-end servers. The major three providers of servers at the time were IBM, Hewlett Packard, and Compaq, many of which were based on proprietary technology, such as IBM's Power4 microprocessors or various proprietary versions of the Unix operating system. Dell's new PowerEdge servers did not require a major investment in proprietary technologies, as they ran Microsoft Windows NT on Intel chips, and could be built cheaper than its competitors. Consequently, Dell's enterprise revenues, almost nonexistent in 1994, accounted for 13 percent of the company's total intake by 1998. Three years later, Dell passed Compaq as the top provider of Intel-based servers, with 31 percent of the market. Dell's first acquisition occurred in 1999 with the purchase of ConvergeNet Technologies for $332 million, after Dell had failed to develop an enterprise storage system in-house; ConvergeNet's elegant but complex technology did not fit in with Dell's commodity-producer business model, forcing Dell to write down the entire value of the acquisition.
What market made up the majority of Dell's sales?
570fcc155ab6b81900391009
PC
61
False
What advantage did Dell hold in the PC market?
570fcc155ab6b8190039100a
price
245
False
What operation did Hewlett Packard and Acer make more efficient to compete with Dell?
570fcc155ab6b8190039100b
manufacturing
484
False
Where did Dell miss out on sales due to relying on the internet?
570fcc155ab6b8190039100c
big box stores
1253
False
What company stated that Dell was preventing itself from innovating?
570fcc155ab6b8190039100d
CNET
1269
False
PC
61
What market made up the minority of Dell's sales?
5ad35add604f3c001a3fde69
True
price
245
What disadvantage did Dell hold in the PC market?
5ad35add604f3c001a3fde6a
True
manufacturing
484
What operation did Hewlett Packard and Acer make more inefficient to compete with Dell?
5ad35add604f3c001a3fde6b
True
big box stores
1253
Where didn't Dell miss out on sales due to relying on the internet?
5ad35add604f3c001a3fde6c
True
CNET
1269
What company stated that IBM was preventing itself from innovating?
5ad35add604f3c001a3fde6d
True
The slowing sales growth has been attributed to the maturing PC market, which constituted 66% of Dell's sales, and analysts suggested that Dell needed to make inroads into non-PC businesses segments such as storage, services and servers. Dell's price advantage was tied to its ultra-lean manufacturing for desktop PCs, but this became less important as savings became harder to find inside the company's supply chain, and as competitors such as Hewlett-Packard and Acer made their PC manufacturing operations more efficient to match Dell, weakening Dell's traditional price differentiation. Throughout the entire PC industry, declines in prices along with commensurate increases in performance meant that Dell had fewer opportunities to upsell to their customers (a lucrative strategy of encouraging buyers to upgrade the processor or memory). As a result, the company was selling a greater proportion of inexpensive PCs than before, which eroded profit margins. The laptop segment had become the fastest-growing of the PC market, but Dell produced low-cost notebooks in China like other PC manufacturers which eliminated Dell's manufacturing cost advantages, plus Dell's reliance on Internet sales meant that it missed out on growing notebook sales in big box stores. CNET has suggested that Dell was getting trapped in the increasing commoditization of high volume low margin computers, which prevented it from offering more exciting devices that consumers demanded.
What decade did Dell's manufacturing process become less efficient?
570fccd080d9841400ab3687
2000s
12
False
What plant did Dell close in Texas?
570fccd080d9841400ab3688
Mort Topfer Manufacturing Center
389
False
What state was the Dell plant that received $280 million but was later closed?
570fccd080d9841400ab3689
North Carolina
584
False
What company bought the North Carolina plant from Dell?
570fccd080d9841400ab368a
Herbalife
860
False
The plant in what US state still remains in operation?
570fccd080d9841400ab368b
Florida
1049
False
late 2000s
7
What decade did Dell's manufacturing process become more efficient?
5ad35f99604f3c001a3fdf11
True
Mort Topfer Manufacturing Center
389
What plant did Dell open in Texas?
5ad35f99604f3c001a3fdf12
True
North Carolina
584
What state was the Dell plant that received $290 million but was later closed?
5ad35f99604f3c001a3fdf13
True
Herbalife
860
What company bought the South Carolina plant from Dell?
5ad35f99604f3c001a3fdf14
True
Florida
1049
The plant in what US state no longer remains in operation?
5ad35f99604f3c001a3fdf15
True
By the late 2000s, Dell's "configure to order" approach of manufacturing—delivering individual PCs configured to customer specifications from its US facilities was no longer as efficient or competitive with high-volume Asian contract manufacturers as PCs became powerful low-cost commodities. Dell closed plants that produced desktop computers for the North American market, including the Mort Topfer Manufacturing Center in Austin, Texas (original location) and Lebanon, Tennessee (opened in 1999) in 2008 and early 2009, respectively. The desktop production plant in Winston-Salem, North Carolina, received US$280 million in incentives from the state and opened in 2005, but ceased operations in November 2010. Dell's contract with the state required them to repay the incentives for failing to meet the conditions, and they sold the North Carolina plant to Herbalife. Most of the work that used to take place in Dell's U.S. plants was transferred to contract manufacturers in Asia and Mexico, or some of Dell's own factories overseas. The Miami, Florida, facility of its Alienware subsidiary remains in operation, while Dell continues to produce its servers (its most profitable products) in Austin, Texas. On January 8, 2009, Dell announced the closure of its manufacturing plant in Limerick, Ireland, with the loss of 1,900 jobs and the transfer of production to its plant in Łodź in Poland.
How much has Dell's value increased since they went private?
570fcd6d5ab6b8190039101d
doubled
244
False
What hedge fund group was pressuring EMC into restructuring?
570fcd6d5ab6b8190039101e
Elliott Management
291
False
What news source published revenue estimations between Dell and EMC?
570fcd6d5ab6b8190039101f
The Wall Street Journal
697
False
What year did Dell go private?
570fcd6d5ab6b81900391020
2013
1271
False
doubled
244
How much has Dell's value decreased since they went private?
5ad36293604f3c001a3fdf99
True
doubled
244
How much has Dell's value increased since they went public?
5ad36293604f3c001a3fdf9a
True
Elliott Management
291
What hedge fund group was pressuring MEC into restructuring?
5ad36293604f3c001a3fdf9b
True
The Wall Street Journal
697
What news source published revenue estimations between Dell and MEC?
5ad36293604f3c001a3fdf9c
True
2013
1271
What year did Dell go public?
5ad36293604f3c001a3fdf9d
True
The announcement came two years after Dell Inc. returned to private ownership, claiming that it faced bleak prospects and would need several years out of the public eye to rebuild its business. It's thought that the company's value has roughly doubled since then. EMC was being pressured by Elliott Management, a hedge fund holding 2.2% of EMC's stock, to reorganize their unusual "Federation" structure, in which EMC's divisions were effectively being run as independent companies. Elliott argued this structure deeply undervalued EMC's core "EMC II" data storage business, and that increasing competition between EMC II and VMware products was confusing the market and hindering both companies. The Wall Street Journal estimated that in 2014 Dell had revenue of $27.3 billion from personal computers and $8.9bn from servers, while EMC had $16.5bn from EMC II, $1bn from RSA Security, $6bn from VMware, and $230 million from Pivotal Software. EMC owns around 80 percent of the stock of VMware. The proposed acquisition will maintain VMware as a separate company, held via a new tracking stock, while the other parts of EMC will be rolled into Dell. Once the acquisition closes Dell will again publish quarterly financial results, having ceased these on going private in 2013.
In what foreign country did Dell open plants in 1995?
570fcdfc5ab6b81900391025
Malaysia
30
False
What percentage of Dell notebooks are assembled in their asian plants?
570fcdfc5ab6b81900391026
95%
131
False
How much did Dell spend to construct a new plant in India?
570fcdfc5ab6b81900391027
$60 million
197
False
How many PCs was Dell's Indian plant slated to make in 2007?
570fcdfc5ab6b81900391028
400,000
430
False
Malaysia
30
In what foreign country did Dell close plants in 1995?
5ad367cf604f3c001a3fe0a3
True
Malaysia
30
In what foreign country did Dell open plants in 1996?
5ad367cf604f3c001a3fe0a4
True
95%
131
What percentage of Dell notebooks are disassembled in their asian plants?
5ad367cf604f3c001a3fe0a5
True
$60 million
197
How much did Dell spend to destroy a new plant in India?
5ad367cf604f3c001a3fe0a6
True
400,000
430
How many PCs was Dell's Indian plant slated to make in 2017?
5ad367cf604f3c001a3fe0a7
True
Dell opened plants in Penang, Malaysia in 1995, and in Xiamen, China in 1999. These facilities serve the Asian market and assemble 95% of Dell notebooks. Dell Inc. has invested[when?] an estimated $60 million in a new manufacturing unit in Chennai, India, to support the sales of its products in the Indian subcontinent. Indian-made products bear the "Made in India" mark. In 2007 the Chennai facility had the target of producing 400,000 desktop PCs, and plans envisaged it starting to produce notebook PCs and other products in the second half of 2007.[citation needed]
Who is the founder of Dell?
570fce815ab6b8190039102d
Michael Dell
38
False
How many board members does Dell have?
570fce815ab6b8190039102e
nine
286
False
How many committees are appointed by the board of directors at Dell?
570fce815ab6b8190039102f
five
529
False
Which Dell committee handles accounting issues?
570fce815ab6b81900391030
Audit Committee
614
False
Which Dell committee keeps the company from violating antitrust laws?
570fce815ab6b81900391031
Antitrust Compliance Committee
1026
False
Michael Dell
38
Who isn't the founder of Dell?
5ad36951604f3c001a3fe0e9
True
nine
286
How many board members doesn't Dell have?
5ad36951604f3c001a3fe0ea
True
five
529
How many committees aren't appointed by the board of directors at Dell?
5ad36951604f3c001a3fe0eb
True
Audit Committee
614
Which Dell committee handles non-accounting issues?
5ad36951604f3c001a3fe0ec
True
Antitrust Compliance Committee
1026
Which IBM committee keeps the company from violating antitrust laws?
5ad36951604f3c001a3fe0ed
True
The board consists of nine directors. Michael Dell, the founder of the company, serves as chairman of the board and chief executive officer. Other board members include Don Carty, William Gray, Judy Lewent, Klaus Luft, Alex Mandl, Michael A. Miles, and Sam Nunn. Shareholders elect the nine board members at meetings, and those board members who do not get a majority of votes must submit a resignation to the board, which will subsequently choose whether or not to accept the resignation. The board of directors usually sets up five committees having oversight over specific matters. These committees include the Audit Committee, which handles accounting issues, including auditing and reporting; the Compensation Committee, which approves compensation for the CEO and other employees of the company; the Finance Committee, which handles financial matters such as proposed mergers and acquisitions; the Governance and Nominating Committee, which handles various corporate matters (including nomination of the board); and the Antitrust Compliance Committee, which attempts to prevent company practices from violating antitrust laws.[citation needed]
What decade did Dell sell electronics through big box stores?
570fcf3e80d9841400ab3691
1990s
13
False
what year did Dell stop selling products through physical retailers?
570fcf3e80d9841400ab3692
1994
142
False
What store did Dell sell electronics at in 2003?
570fcf3e80d9841400ab3693
Sears
305
False
What year did Dell begin selling products at retailers again?
570fcf3e80d9841400ab3694
2007
333
False
Who is the largest electronics retailer in the US?
570fcf3e80d9841400ab3695
Best Buy
517
False
1990s
13
What decade didn't Dell sell electronics through big box stores?
5ad369fb604f3c001a3fe10d
True
1994
142
what year did Dell start selling products through physical retailers?
5ad369fb604f3c001a3fe10e
True
Sears
305
What store did Dell sell electronics at in 2013?
5ad369fb604f3c001a3fe10f
True
2007
333
What year did Dell stop selling products at retailers again?
5ad369fb604f3c001a3fe110
True
Best Buy
517
Who is the smallest electronics retailer in the US?
5ad369fb604f3c001a3fe111
True
In the early 1990s, Dell sold its products through Best Buy, Costco and Sam's Club stores in the United States. Dell stopped this practice in 1994, citing low profit-margins on the business, exclusively distributing through a direct-sales model for the next decade. In 2003, Dell briefly sold products in Sears stores in the U.S. In 2007, Dell started shipping its products to major retailers in the U.S. once again, starting with Sam's Club and Wal-Mart. Staples, the largest office-supply retailer in the U.S., and Best Buy, the largest electronics retailer in the U.S., became Dell retail partners later that same year.
What was Dell the first IT company to establish?
570fcfe65ab6b81900391037
product-recycling goal
84
False
What year did Dell enact its global consumer recycling program?
570fcfe65ab6b81900391038
2006
194
False
How much electronics did Dell recycle by 2009?
570fcfe65ab6b81900391039
275 million pounds
459
False
What year was 78 million pounds of Dell equipment recycled?
570fcfe65ab6b8190039103a
2006
619
False
What percentage of Dell electronics from the previous seven years were recycled?
570fcfe65ab6b8190039103b
12.4%
662
False
product-recycling goal
84
What was Dell the last IT company to establish?
5ad36be8604f3c001a3fe173
True
2006
194
What year did Dell enact its local consumer recycling program?
5ad36be8604f3c001a3fe174
True
275 million pounds
459
How much electronics did Dell recycle by 2008?
5ad36be8604f3c001a3fe175
True
2006
619
What year was 87 million pounds of Dell equipment recycled?
5ad36be8604f3c001a3fe176
True
12.4%
662
What percentage of Dell electronics from the previous six years were recycled?
5ad36be8604f3c001a3fe177
True
Dell became the first company in the information technology industry to establish a product-recycling goal (in 2004) and completed the implementation of its global consumer recycling-program in 2006. On February 6, 2007, the National Recycling Coalition awarded Dell its "Recycling Works" award for efforts to promote producer responsibility. On July 19, 2007, Dell announced that it had exceeded targets in working to achieve a multi-year goal of recovering 275 million pounds of computer equipment by 2009. The company reported the recovery of 78 million pounds (nearly 40,000 tons) of IT equipment from customers in 2006, a 93-percent increase over 2005; and 12.4% of the equipment Dell sold seven years earlier.
What decade did Dell switch to PSUs and boards that had differently wired connectors?
570fd09a80d9841400ab36a5
1990s
7
False
With what kind of parts were consumers able to upgrade their Dell systems with?
570fd09a80d9841400ab36a6
Dell-compatible parts
266
False
What year did Dell revert its power connectors to industry standard ones?
570fd09a80d9841400ab36a7
2003
398
False
What part of their motherboards does Dell not reveal the specifications of?
570fd09a80d9841400ab36a8
pin-outs
463
False
1990s
7
What decade did Dell switch to SPUs and boards that had differently wired connectors?
5ad36c75604f3c001a3fe1a3
True
Dell-compatible parts
266
With what kind of parts weren't consumers able to upgrade their Dell systems with?
5ad36c75604f3c001a3fe1a4
True
Dell-compatible parts
266
With what kind of parts were consumers unable to upgrade their Dell systems with?
5ad36c75604f3c001a3fe1a5
True
2003
398
What year didn't Dell revert its power connectors to industry standard ones?
5ad36c75604f3c001a3fe1a6
True
pin-outs
463
What part of their motherboards does Dell reveal the specifications of?
5ad36c75604f3c001a3fe1a7
True
In the 1990s, Dell switched from using primarily ATX motherboards and PSU to using boards and power supplies with mechanically identical but differently wired connectors. This meant customers wishing to upgrade their hardware would have to replace parts with scarce Dell-compatible parts instead of commonly available parts. While motherboard power connections reverted to the industry standard in 2003, Dell continues to remain secretive about their motherboard pin-outs for peripherals (such as MMC readers and power on/off switches and LEDs).
When did Michael Dell found his company?
570fd1685ab6b81900391041
1984
27
False
How much did Dell receive as capital from his family?
570fd1685ab6b81900391042
$1,000
373
False
What school did Dell go to and later drop out of while he ran his business?
570fd1685ab6b81900391043
University of Texas at Austin
157
False
What year did Dell design its own computer?
570fd1685ab6b81900391044
1985
421
False
How much did Dell profit in its first year?
570fd1685ab6b81900391045
$73 million
725
False
1984
27
When did Michael Dell end his company?
5ad356d1604f3c001a3fddd5
True
$1,000
373
How much didn't Dell receive as capital from his family?
5ad356d1604f3c001a3fddd6
True
University of Texas at Austin
157
What school didn't Dell go to and later drop out of while he ran his business?
5ad356d1604f3c001a3fddd7
True
1985
421
What year didn't Dell design its own computer?
5ad356d1604f3c001a3fddd8
True
$73 million
725
How much did Dell lose in its first year?
5ad356d1604f3c001a3fddd9
True
Dell traces its origins to 1984, when Michael Dell created Dell Computer Corporation, which at the time did business as PC's Limited, while a student of the University of Texas at Austin. The dorm-room headquartered company sold IBM PC-compatible computers built from stock components. Dell dropped out of school to focus full-time on his fledgling business, after getting $1,000 in expansion-capital from his family. In 1985, the company produced the first computer of its own design, the Turbo PC, which sold for $795. PC's Limited advertised its systems in national computer magazines for sale directly to consumers and custom assembled each ordered unit according to a selection of options. The company grossed more than $73 million in its first year of operation.
What did Dell enjoy from 1997 to 2004?
570fd1ed5ab6b8190039104b
steady growth
32
False
What company did Dell overtake as the largest PC manufacturer?
570fd1ed5ab6b8190039104c
Compaq
297
False
How much were Dell profiting in 2002?
570fd1ed5ab6b8190039104d
$35 billion
401
False
What company did Compaq merge with in 2002?
570fd1ed5ab6b8190039104e
Hewlett Packard
570
False
What company was the fastest growing in the early 2000s?
570fd1ed5ab6b8190039104f
Dell
715
False
steady growth
32
What did Dell enjoy from 1996 to 2004?
5ad359a6604f3c001a3fde41
True
Compaq
297
What company did Dell overtake as the smallest PC manufacturer?
5ad359a6604f3c001a3fde42
True
$35 billion
401
How much were Dell losing in 2002?
5ad359a6604f3c001a3fde43
True
Hewlett Packard
570
What company did Compaq merge with in 2012?
5ad359a6604f3c001a3fde44
True
Dell
715
What company was the slowest growing in the early 2000s?
5ad359a6604f3c001a3fde45
True
From 1997 to 2004, Dell enjoyed steady growth and it gained market share from competitors even during industry slumps. During the same period, rival PC vendors such as Compaq, Gateway, IBM, Packard Bell, and AST Research struggled and eventually left the market or were bought out. Dell surpassed Compaq to become the largest PC manufacturer in 1999. Operating costs made up only 10 percent of Dell's $35 billion in revenue in 2002, compared with 21 percent of revenue at Hewlett-Packard, 25 percent at Gateway, and 46 percent at Cisco. In 2002, when Compaq merged with Hewlett Packard (the fourth-place PC maker), the newly combined Hewlett Packard took the top spot but struggled and Dell soon regained its lead. Dell grew the fastest in the early 2000s.
What did Dell rely on that gave it a reputation?
570fd2995ab6b81900391055
supply chain efficiencies
52
False
What did Dell maintain lower spending on than its competitors?
570fd2995ab6b81900391056
R&D
303
False
What was Dell's organizational structure considered?
570fd2995ab6b81900391057
horizontal
663
False
Dell lagged behind Hewlett Packard and Oracle in delivering what kind of solutions?
570fd2995ab6b81900391058
IT solutions
883
False
supply chain efficiencies
52
What did Dell rely on that gave it a bad reputation?
5ad35dfa604f3c001a3fdecb
True
supply chain efficiencies
52
What did IBM rely on that gave it a reputation?
5ad35dfa604f3c001a3fdecc
True
R&D
303
What did Dell maintain higher spending on than its competitors?
5ad35dfa604f3c001a3fdecd
True
horizontal
663
What wasn't Dell's organizational structure considered?
5ad35dfa604f3c001a3fdece
True
IT solutions
883
Dell went ahead of Hewlett Packard and Oracle in delivering what kind of solutions?
5ad35dfa604f3c001a3fdecf
True
Dell had a reputation as a company that relied upon supply chain efficiencies to sell established technologies at low prices, instead of being an innovator. By the mid-2000s many analysts were looking to innovating companies as the next source of growth in the technology sector. Dell's low spending on R&D relative to its revenue (compared to IBM, Hewlett Packard, and Apple Inc.)—which worked well in the commoditized PC market—prevented it from making inroads into more lucrative segments, such as MP3 players and later mobile devices. Increasing spending on R&D would have cut into the operating margins that the company emphasized. Dell had done well with a horizontal organization that focused on PCs when the computing industry moved to horizontal mix-and-match layers in the 1980s, but by the mid-2000 the industry shifted to vertically integrated stacks to deliver complete IT solutions and Dell lagged far behind competitors like Hewlett Packard and Oracle.
What was the name of Dell's change campaign?
570fd59c5ab6b8190039105d
Dell 2.0
41
False
Who relinquished his position as CEO to take a seat on the board?
570fd59c5ab6b8190039105e
Michael Dell
192
False
Michael Dell removed employee bonuses from what year with his new incentive?
570fd59c5ab6b8190039105f
2006
634
False
Who replaced Jim Schneider as Dell CFO?
570fd59c5ab6b81900391060
Donald Carty
860
False
Dell 2.0
41
What wasn't the name of Dell's change campaign?
5ad35ecc604f3c001a3fdef3
True
Dell 2.0
41
What was the name of IBM's change campaign?
5ad35ecc604f3c001a3fdef4
True
Michael Dell
192
Who relinquished his position as CFO to take a seat on the board?
5ad35ecc604f3c001a3fdef5
True
2006
634
Michael Dell added employee bonuses from what year with his new incentive?
5ad35ecc604f3c001a3fdef6
True
Donald Carty
860
Who replaced Jim Schneider as Dell COO?
5ad35ecc604f3c001a3fdef7
True
Dell announced a change campaign called "Dell 2.0," reducing the number of employees and diversifying the company's products. While chairman of the board after relinquishing his CEO position, Michael Dell still had significant input in the company during Rollins' years as CEO. With the return of Michael Dell as CEO, the company saw immediate changes in operations, the exodus of many senior vice-presidents and new personnel brought in from outside the company. Michael Dell announced a number of initiatives and plans (part of the "Dell 2.0" initiative) to improve the company's financial performance. These include elimination of 2006 bonuses for employees with some discretionary awards, reduction in the number of managers reporting directly to Michael Dell from 20 to 12, and reduction of "bureaucracy". Jim Schneider retired as CFO and was replaced by Donald Carty, as the company came under an SEC probe for its accounting practices.
How much of Dell's revenue was its PC division?
570fd63b80d9841400ab36ad
half
88
False
Who was Dell's main business rival?
570fd63b80d9841400ab36ae
Hewlett Packard
329
False
How much did Dell spend on acquiring different divisions?
570fd63b80d9841400ab36af
$13 billion
521
False
What happened to Dell's revenue and share price in the post-PC market?
570fd63b80d9841400ab36b0
declines
734
False
half
88
How much of Dell's revenue wasn't its PC division?
5ad360f7604f3c001a3fdf4b
True
half
88
How much of Dell's revenue was its phone division?
5ad360f7604f3c001a3fdf4c
True
Hewlett Packard
329
Who was Dell's main business ally?
5ad360f7604f3c001a3fdf4d
True
$13 billion
521
How much did Dell spend on selling different divisions?
5ad360f7604f3c001a3fdf4e
True
declines
734
What happened to Dell's expenses and share price in the post-PC market?
5ad360f7604f3c001a3fdf4f
True
Dell has been attempting to offset its declining PC business, which still accounted for half of its revenue and generates steady cash flow, by expanding into the enterprise market with servers, networking, software, and services. It avoided many of the acquisition writedowns and management turnover that plagued its chief rival Hewlett Packard. Dell also managed some success in taking advantage of its high-touch direct sales heritage to establish close relationships and design solutions for clients. Despite spending $13 billion on acquisitions to diversify its portfolio beyond hardware, the company was unable to convince the market that it could thrive or made the transformation in the post-PC world, as it suffered continued declines in revenue and share price. Dell's market share in the corporate segment was previously a "moat" against rivals but this has no longer been the case as sales and profits have fallen precipitously.
What city is Dell's New Hampshire facility in?
570fd7315ab6b81900391065
Nashua
81
False
What city is Dell's Tennessee facility in?
570fd7315ab6b81900391066
Nashville
104
False
What city is Dell's Minnesota facility in?
570fd7315ab6b81900391067
Eden Prairie
235
False
What city is Dell's Florida facility in?
570fd7315ab6b81900391068
Miami
326
False
Nashua
81
What city isn't Dell's New Hampshire facility in?
5ad36478604f3c001a3fe017
True
Nashville
104
What city isn't Dell's Tennessee facility in?
5ad36478604f3c001a3fe018
True
Eden Prairie
235
What city isn't Dell's Minnesota facility in?
5ad36478604f3c001a3fe019
True
Miami
326
What city isn't Dell's Florida facility in?
5ad36478604f3c001a3fe01a
True
Lincoln
303
What city isn't Dell's Nebraska facility in?
5ad36478604f3c001a3fe01b
True
Dell facilities in the United States are located in Austin, Texas; Plano, Texas; Nashua, New Hampshire; Nashville, Tennessee; Oklahoma City, Oklahoma; Peoria, Illinois; Hillsboro, Oregon (Portland area); Winston-Salem, North Carolina; Eden Prairie, Minnesota (Dell Compellent); Bowling Green, Kentucky; Lincoln, Nebraska; and Miami, Florida. Facilities located abroad include Penang, Malaysia; Xiamen, China; Bracknell, UK; Manila, Philippines Chennai, India; Hyderabad, India; Noida, India; Hortolandia and Porto Alegre, Brazil; Bratislava, Slovakia; Łódź, Poland; Panama City, Panama; Dublin and Limerick, Ireland; and Casablanca, Morocco.
What city is Dell's Texas facility in?
570fd82180d9841400ab36bf
Austin
98
False
What year was Dell's Tennessee facility opened?
570fd82180d9841400ab36c0
1999
166
False
What state was the Dell plant that received $280 million in incentives in?
570fd82180d9841400ab36c1
North Carolina
262
False
What continent did a lot of work from Dell's plants get transferred to?
570fd82180d9841400ab36c2
Asia
609
False
What subsidiary of Dell remains operating in Florida?
570fd82180d9841400ab36c3
Alienware
703
False
Austin
98
What city isn't Dell's Texas facility in?
5ad366b9604f3c001a3fe075
True
1999
166
What year was Dell's Tennessee facility closed?
5ad366b9604f3c001a3fe076
True
North Carolina
262
What state was the Dell plant that received $820 million in incentives in?
5ad366b9604f3c001a3fe077
True
Asia
609
What continent did a lot of work from Dell's plants get transferred from?
5ad366b9604f3c001a3fe078
True
Alienware
703
What subsidiary of Dell remains operating in Georgia?
5ad366b9604f3c001a3fe079
True
Assembly of desktop computers for the North American market formerly took place at Dell plants in Austin, Texas (original location) and Lebanon, Tennessee (opened in 1999), which have been closed in 2008 and early 2009, respectively. The plant in Winston-Salem, North Carolina received $280 million USD in incentives from the state and opened in 2005, but ceased operations in November 2010, and Dell's contract with the state requires them to repay the incentives for failing to meet the conditions. Most of the work that used to take place in Dell's U.S. plants was transferred to contract manufacturers in Asia and Mexico, or some of Dell's own factories overseas. The Miami, Florida facility of its Alienware subsidiary remains in operation, while Dell continues to produce its servers (its most profitable products) in Austin, Texas.
What emissions did Dell strive to reduce?
570fd8fd80d9841400ab36d3
greenhouse gas
25
False
By 2015, how much did Dell slate to reduce its emissions?
570fd8fd80d9841400ab36d4
40%
80
False
What year did Dell rank 2nd for product greenness?
570fd8fd80d9841400ab36d5
2011
353
False
What organization scores electronics manufacturers based on how environmentally friendly their products are?
570fd8fd80d9841400ab36d6
Greenpeace
153
False
greenhouse gas
25
What emissions didn't Dell strive to reduce?
5ad36b52604f3c001a3fe157
True
40%
80
By 2016, how much did Dell slate to reduce its emissions?
5ad36b52604f3c001a3fe158
True
40%
80
By 2015, how much did Dell slate to increase its emissions?
5ad36b52604f3c001a3fe159
True
2011
353
What year did Dell rank 1st for product greenness?
5ad36b52604f3c001a3fe15a
True
Greenpeace
153
What organization scores electronics manufacturers based on how environmentally damaging their products are?
5ad36b52604f3c001a3fe15b
True
Dell committed to reduce greenhouse gas emissions from its global activities by 40% by 2015, with 2008 fiscal year as the baseline year. It is listed in Greenpeace’s Guide to Greener Electronics that scores leading electronics manufacturers according to their policies on sustainability, climate and energy and how green their products are. In November 2011, Dell ranked 2nd out of 15 listed electronics makers (increasing its score to 5.1 from 4.9, which it gained in the previous ranking from October 2010).
What year did Dell come under fire from the Taiwanese Consumer Protection Commission?
570fdb9180d9841400ab36db
2009
8
False
What percent lower was Dell selling its notebooks in Taiwan?
570fdb9180d9841400ab36dc
70%
359
False
What did dell sell for $19 in Taiwan?
570fdb9180d9841400ab36dd
19" LCD
248
False
How much did Taiwan fine Dell for its practices?
570fdb9180d9841400ab36de
NT$1 million
647
False
2009
8
What year didn't Dell come under fire from the Taiwanese Consumer Protection Commission?
5ad36d6b604f3c001a3fe1fd
True
2009
8
What year did IBM come under fire from the Taiwanese Consumer Protection Commission?
5ad36d6b604f3c001a3fe1fe
True
70%
359
What percent lower was Dell buying its notebooks in Taiwan?
5ad36d6b604f3c001a3fe1ff
True
19" LCD
248
What did dell sell for $91 in Taiwan?
5ad36d6b604f3c001a3fe200
True
NT$1 million
647
How much didn't Taiwan fine Dell for its practices?
5ad36d6b604f3c001a3fe201
True
In July 2009, Dell apologized after drawing the ire of the Taiwanese Consumer Protection Commission for twice refusing to honour a flood of orders against unusually low prices offered on its Taiwanese website. In the first instance, Dell offered a 19" LCD panel for $15. In the second instance, Dell offered its Latitude E4300 notebook at NT$18,558 (US$580), 70% lower than usual price of NT$60,900 (US$1900). Concerning the E4300, rather than honour the discount taking a significant loss, the firm withdrew orders and offered a voucher of up to NT$20,000 (US$625) a customer in compensation. The consumer rights authorities in Taiwan fined Dell NT$1 million (US$31250) for customer rights infringements. Many consumers sued the firm for the unfair compensation. A court in southern Taiwan ordered the firm to deliver 18 laptops and 76 flat-panel monitors to 31 consumers for NT$490,000 (US$15,120), less than a third of the normal price. The court said the event could hardly be regarded as mistakes, as the prestigious firm said the company mispriced its products twice in Taiwanese website within 3 weeks.
Innovations in what kind of management is Dell known for?
570fdcbb80d9841400ab36e3
supply chain
252
False
What sales model did Dell follow?
570fdcbb80d9841400ab36e4
direct-sales
318
False
For the majority of Dell's existence, what were they a vendor of?
570fdcbb80d9841400ab36e5
hardware
493
False
What company did Dell acquire in 2009?
570fdcbb80d9841400ab36e6
Perot Systems
572
False
What market did Dell begin to compete in in 2009?
570fdcbb80d9841400ab36e7
IT services
615
False
direct-sales
318
What sales model didn't Dell follow?
5ad355e1604f3c001a3fddc1
True
supply chain
252
Innovations in what kind of management is Dell unknown for?
5ad355e1604f3c001a3fddc2
True
hardware
493
For the minority of Dell's existence, what were they a vendor of?
5ad355e1604f3c001a3fddc3
True
Perot Systems
572
What company did Dell acquire in 2008?
5ad355e1604f3c001a3fddc4
True
IT services
615
What market did Dell begin to compete in in 2011?
5ad355e1604f3c001a3fddc5
True
Dell sells personal computers (PCs), servers, data storage devices, network switches, software, computer peripherals, HDTVs, cameras, printers, MP3 players, and electronics built by other manufacturers. The company is well known for its innovations in supply chain management and electronic commerce, particularly its direct-sales model and its "build-to-order" or "configure to order" approach to manufacturing—delivering individual PCs configured to customer specifications. Dell was a pure hardware vendor for much of its existence, but with the acquisition in 2009 of Perot Systems, Dell entered the market for IT services. The company has since made additional acquisitions in storage and networking systems, with the aim of expanding their portfolio from offering computers only to delivering complete solutions for enterprise customers.
What year did Dell plan to sell PCs at retailers?
570fdda25ab6b8190039107f
1993
3
False
What was one retailer that were going to sell Dell PCs?
570fdda25ab6b81900391080
Wal-Mart
112
False
Who convinced Michael Dell to not use retailers to sell PCs?
570fdda25ab6b81900391081
Kevin Rollins
212
False
What position at Dell did Kevin Rollins eventually attain?
570fdda25ab6b81900391082
CEO
498
False
1993
3
What year didn't Dell plan to sell PCs at retailers?
5ad35760604f3c001a3fddf3
True
1993
3
What year did IBM plan to sell PCs at retailers?
5ad35760604f3c001a3fddf4
True
Wal-Mart
112
What was one retailer that weren't going to sell Dell PCs?
5ad35760604f3c001a3fddf5
True
Kevin Rollins
212
Who convinced Michael Dell to use retailers to sell PCs?
5ad35760604f3c001a3fddf6
True
President and CEO
484
What position at Dell did Kevin Rollins eventually lose?
5ad35760604f3c001a3fddf7
True
In 1993, to complement its own direct sales channel, Dell planned to sell PCs at big-box retail outlets such as Wal-Mart, which would have brought in an additional $125 million in annual revenue. Bain consultant Kevin Rollins persuaded Michael Dell to pull out of these deals, believing they would be money losers in the long run. Margins at retail were thin at best and Dell left the reseller channel in 1994. Rollins would soon join Dell full-time and eventually become the company President and CEO.
What year did Michael Dell bring in Lee Walker to the company?
570fde875ab6b81900391087
1986
3
False
What did Lee Walker recruit members to Dell for?
570fde875ab6b81900391088
board of directors
263
False
What year did Walker retire?
570fde875ab6b81900391089
1990
338
False
What was Morton Meyerson's position at his former company?
570fde875ab6b8190039108a
CEO
405
False
1986
3
What year didn't Michael Dell bring in Lee Walker to the company?
5ad35717604f3c001a3fdddf
True
board of directors
263
What didn't Lee Walker recruit members to Dell for?
5ad35717604f3c001a3fdde0
True
1990
338
What year did Walker die?
5ad35717604f3c001a3fdde1
True
CEO and president
405
What was Morton Meyerson's position at his current company?
5ad35717604f3c001a3fdde2
True
CEO and president
405
What was Morton Dell's position at his former company?
5ad35717604f3c001a3fdde3
True
In 1986, Michael Dell brought in Lee Walker, a 51-year-old venture capitalist, as president and chief operating officer, to serve as Michael's mentor and implement Michael's ideas for growing the company. Walker was also instrumental in recruiting members to the board of directors when the company went public in 1988. Walker retired in 1990 due to health, and Michael Dell hired Morton Meyerson, former CEO and president of Electronic Data Systems to transform the company from a fast-growing medium-sized firm into a billion-dollar enterprise.
What country's PC market was Dell reliant on?
570fdf9d80d9841400ab36ed
U.S
105
False
What percentage of Dell's profits were desktop PCs being sold to commercial and corporate buyers?
570fdf9d80d9841400ab36ee
32 percent
208
False
What year were Dell's PC profits shrinking?
570fdf9d80d9841400ab36ef
2006
375
False
What operating system was slated to be the next system upgrade for corporate clients?
570fdf9d80d9841400ab36f0
Microsoft's Windows Vista
786
False
U.S.
105
What country's PC market was Dell unreliant on?
5ad35ca7604f3c001a3fde8f
True
2006
375
What year were Dell's PC profits growing?
5ad35ca7604f3c001a3fde90
True
32 percent
208
What percentage of Dell's profits were laptop PCs being sold to commercial and corporate buyers?
5ad35ca7604f3c001a3fde91
True
32 percent
208
What percentage of Dell's profits were desktop PCs being sold to commercial and home buyers?
5ad35ca7604f3c001a3fde92
True
Microsoft's Windows Vista
786
What operating system was slated to be the next system upgrade for home clients?
5ad35ca7604f3c001a3fde93
True
Despite plans of expanding into other global regions and product segments, Dell was heavily dependent on U.S. corporate PC market, as desktop PCs sold to both commercial and corporate customers accounted for 32 percent of its revenue, 85 percent of its revenue comes from businesses, and Sixty-four percent of its revenue comes from North and South America, according to its 2006 third-quarter results. U.S. shipments of desktop PCs were shrinking, and the corporate PC market which purchases PCs in upgrade cycles had largely decided to take a break from buying new systems. The last cycle started around 2002, three or so years after companies started buying PCs ahead of the perceived Y2K problems, and corporate clients were not expected to upgrade again until extensive testing of Microsoft's Windows Vista (expected in early 2007), putting the next upgrade cycle around 2008. Heavily depending on PCs, Dell had to slash prices to boost sales volumes, while demanding deep cuts from suppliers.
The release of what electronic had a negative impact on Dell?
570fe1765ab6b8190039108f
iPad
23
False
Which division of Dell were unsuccessful in developing mobile devices?
570fe1765ab6b81900391090
mobility
169
False
What Dell product was a commercial failure?
570fe1765ab6b81900391091
Streak
303
False
What line of high end electronics did Dell create that failed to compete with Apple products?
570fe1765ab6b81900391092
XPS
704
False
What year did Dell see its first decline in holiday sales?
570fe1765ab6b81900391093
2012
942
False
iPad
23
The release of what electronic had a positive impact on Dell?
5ad36009604f3c001a3fdf23
True
mobility
169
Which division of Dell were successful in developing mobile devices?
5ad36009604f3c001a3fdf24
True
Streak
303
What Dell product was a commercial success?
5ad36009604f3c001a3fdf25
True
XPS
704
What line of low end electronics did Dell create that failed to compete with Apple products?
5ad36009604f3c001a3fdf26
True
2012
942
What year did Dell see its first rise in holiday sales?
5ad36009604f3c001a3fdf27
True
The release of Apple's iPad tablet computer had a negative impact on Dell and other major PC vendors, as consumers switched away from desktop and laptop PCs. Dell's own mobility division has not managed success with developing smartphones or tablets, whether running Windows or Google Android. The Dell Streak was a failure commercially and critically due to its outdated OS, numerous bugs, and low resolution screen. InfoWorld suggested that Dell and other OEMs saw tablets as a short-term, low-investment opportunity running Google Android, an approach that neglected user interface and failed to gain long term market traction with consumers. Dell has responded by pushing higher-end PCs, such as the XPS line of notebooks, which do not compete with the Apple iPad and Kindle Fire tablets. The growing popularity of smartphones and tablet computers instead of PCs drove Dell's consumer segment to an operating loss in Q3 2012. In December 2012, Dell suffered its first decline in holiday sales in five years, despite the introduction of Windows 8.
What did Dell have a poor reputation for?
570fe26380d9841400ab36f5
customer service
27
False
Where did Dell move its call centers?
570fe26380d9841400ab36f6
offshore
104
False
Which Dell employee was moved from head of manufacturing to head of customer service?
570fe26380d9841400ab36f7
Dick Hunter
470
False
How much had Dell spent by 2006 on improving customer service?
570fe26380d9841400ab36f8
$100 million
734
False
customer service
27
What did Dell have a good reputation for?
5ad35e7b604f3c001a3fdedf
True
customer service
27
What did IBM have a poor reputation for?
5ad35e7b604f3c001a3fdee0
True
offshore
104
Where didn't Dell move its call centers?
5ad35e7b604f3c001a3fdee1
True
Dick Hunter
470
Which Dell employee was moved from head of manufacturing to head of sales?
5ad35e7b604f3c001a3fdee2
True
$100 million
734
How much had Dell spent by 2005 on improving customer service?
5ad35e7b604f3c001a3fdee3
True
Dell's reputation for poor customer service, since 2002, which was exacerbated as it moved call centres offshore and as its growth outstripped its technical support infrastructure, came under increasing scrutiny on the Web. The original Dell model was known for high customer satisfaction when PCs sold for thousands but by the 2000s, the company could not justify that level of service when computers in the same lineup sold for hundreds. Rollins responded by shifting Dick Hunter from head of manufacturing to head of customer service. Hunter, who noted that Dell's DNA of cost-cutting "got in the way," aimed to reduce call transfer times and have call center representatives resolve inquiries in one call. By 2006, Dell had spent $100 million in just a few months to improve on this, and rolled out DellConnect to answer customer inquiries more quickly. In July 2006, the company started its Direct2Dell blog, and then in February 2007, Michael Dell launched IdeaStorm.com, asking customers for advice including selling Linux computers and reducing the promotional "bloatware" on PCs. These initiatives did manage to cut the negative blog posts from 49% to 22%, as well as reduce the "Dell Hell" prominent on Internet search engines.
What year did the Blackstone Group express interest in acquiring Dell?
570fe33980d9841400ab36fd
2013
9
False
What was the first private equity firm to decide not to submit a bid for Dell?
570fe33980d9841400ab36fe
KKR & Co
204
False
What company did analysts feel would need to find an exit strategy to profit from acquiring Dell?
570fe33980d9841400ab36ff
Silver Lake
453
False
How much was the potential enterprise value of Dell?
570fe33980d9841400ab3700
$25bn
644
False
2013
9
What year did the Blackstone Group express interest in selling Dell?
5ad36236604f3c001a3fdf85
True
2013
9
What year did the Blackstone Group express interest in acquiring IBM?
5ad36236604f3c001a3fdf86
True
KKR & Co.
204
What was the first public equity firm to decide not to submit a bid for Dell?
5ad36236604f3c001a3fdf87
True
Silver Lake
453
What company did analysts feel would need to find an exit strategy to profit from selling Dell?
5ad36236604f3c001a3fdf88
True
$25bn
644
How much wasn't the potential enterprise value of Dell?
5ad36236604f3c001a3fdf89
True
In March 2013, the Blackstone Group and Carl Icahn expressed interest in purchasing Dell. In April 2013, Blackstone withdrew their offer, citing deteriorating business. Other private equity firms such as KKR & Co. and TPG Capital declined to submit alternative bids for Dell, citing the uncertain market for personal computers and competitive pressures, so the "wide-open bidding war" never materialized. Analysts said that the biggest challenge facing Silver Lake would be to find an “exit strategy” to profit from its investment, which would be when the company would hold an IPO to go public again, and one warned “But even if you can get a $25bn enterprise value for Dell, it will take years to get out.”
What year did Dell close its largest Canadian call center?
570fe3fb80d9841400ab3705
2008
13
False
How many employees lost jobs when Dell closed their call center?
570fe3fb80d9841400ab3706
1100
136
False
How many workers did Dell plan to have at their Ottawa call center?
570fe3fb80d9841400ab3707
3,000
429
False
What percentage of its workforce did Dell terminate in from 2007 to 2008?
570fe3fb80d9841400ab3708
10%
841
False
2008
13
What year did Dell open its largest Canadian call center?
5ad35f3d604f3c001a3fdf07
True
2008
13
What year did Dell close its smallest Canadian call center?
5ad35f3d604f3c001a3fdf08
True
1100
136
How many employees lost jobs when Dell opened their call center?
5ad35f3d604f3c001a3fdf09
True
3,000
429
How many workers did Dell plan to have at their Toronto call center?
5ad35f3d604f3c001a3fdf0a
True
10%
841
What percentage of its workforce did Dell terminate in from 2007 to 2009?
5ad35f3d604f3c001a3fdf0b
True
On April 23, 2008, Dell announced the closure of one of its biggest Canadian call-centers in Kanata, Ontario, terminating approximately 1100 employees, with 500 of those redundancies effective on the spot, and with the official closure of the center scheduled for the summer. The call-center had opened in 2006 after the city of Ottawa won a bid to host it. Less than a year later, Dell planned to double its workforce to nearly 3,000 workers add a new building. These plans were reversed, due to a high Canadian dollar that made the Ottawa staff relatively expensive, and also as part of Dell's turnaround, which involved moving these call-center jobs offshore to cut costs. The company had also announced the shutdown of its Edmonton, Alberta office, losing 900 jobs. In total, Dell announced the ending of about 8,800 jobs in 2007–2008 — 10% of its workforce.
What type of computing is the combined effort of EMC and Dell slated to address?
570fe5335ab6b81900391099
private cloud computing
114
False
What organization commented on the deal between EMC and Dell?
570fe5335ab6b8190039109a
FBR Capital Markets
230
False
How much did VMware stock fall after the merger announcement?
570fe5335ab6b8190039109b
10%
800
False
What was the original valuation of the merger?
570fe5335ab6b8190039109c
$67bn
880
False
private cloud computing
114
What type of computing is the combined effort of MEC and Dell slated to address?
5ad362de604f3c001a3fdfad
True
private cloud computing
114
What type of computing is the combined effort of EMC and Dell slated to not address?
5ad362de604f3c001a3fdfae
True
FBR Capital Markets
230
What organization commented on the deal between MEC and Dell?
5ad362de604f3c001a3fdfaf
True
10%
800
How much did VMware stock fall before the merger announcement?
5ad362de604f3c001a3fdfb0
True
$67bn
880
What was the newest valuation of the merger?
5ad362de604f3c001a3fdfb1
True
The combined business is expected to address the markets for scale-out architecture, converged infrastructure and private cloud computing, playing to the strengths of both EMC and Dell. Commentators have questioned the deal, with FBR Capital Markets saying that though it makes a "ton of sense" for Dell, it's a "nightmare scenario that would lack strategic synergies" for EMC. Fortune said there was a lot for Dell to like in EMC's portfolio, but "does it all add up enough to justify tens of billions of dollars for the entire package? Probably not." The Register reported the view of William Blair & Company that the merger would "blow up the current IT chess board", forcing other IT infrastructure vendors to restructure to achieve scale and vertical integration. The value of VMware stock fell 10% after the announcement, valuing the deal at around $63–64bn rather than the $67bn originally reported.
What year did Dell announce its buyout deal?
570fe6145ab6b819003910a1
2013
100
False
What was the value of Dell's buyout deal?
570fe6145ab6b819003910a2
$24.4 billion
126
False
What was the value of the loan that Dell received from Microsoft?
570fe6145ab6b819003910a3
$2 billion
338
False
What was the value of the second largest technology buyout?
570fe6145ab6b819003910a4
$17.5 billion
657
False
2013
64
What year did IBM announce its buyout deal?
5ad36189604f3c001a3fdf69
True
$24.4 billion
126
What was the value of Microsoft's buyout deal?
5ad36189604f3c001a3fdf6a
True
$2 billion
338
What was the value of the loan that Dell received from IBM?
5ad36189604f3c001a3fdf6b
True
$17.5 billion
657
What was the value of the third largest technology buyout?
5ad36189604f3c001a3fdf6c
True
$17.5 billion
657
What was the value of the second smallest technology buyout?
5ad36189604f3c001a3fdf6d
True
After several weeks of rumors, which started around January 11, 2013, Dell announced on February 5, 2013 that it had struck a $24.4 billion leveraged buyout deal, that would have delisted its shares from the NASDAQ and Hong Kong Stock Exchange and taken it private. Reuters reported that Michael Dell and Silver Lake Partners, aided by a $2 billion loan from Microsoft, would acquire the public shares at $13.65 apiece. The $24.4 billion buyout was projected to be the largest leveraged buyout backed by private equity since the 2007 financial crisis. It is also the largest technology buyout ever, surpassing the 2006 buyout of Freescale Semiconductor for $17.5 billion.
How much space did Dell lease in Texas?
570fe6f15ab6b819003910a9
80,000 square feet
44
False
How many senior executives were slated to work in the building Dell leased?
570fe6f15ab6b819003910aa
100
260
False
What year did Dell announce its plans to sublease its building?
570fe6f15ab6b819003910ab
2002
779
False
Where did Dell move its headquarters back to in 2003?
570fe6f15ab6b819003910ac
Round Rock
992
False
What was the total amount of space that Dell leased in Las Cimas 1 and 2?
570fe6f15ab6b819003910ad
312,000 square feet
1057
False
80,000 square feet
44
How much space did Dell sell in Texas?
5ad36405604f3c001a3fdff9
True
100
260
How many minor executives were slated to work in the building Dell leased?
5ad36405604f3c001a3fdffa
True
2002
779
What year did Dell announce its plans to buy its building?
5ad36405604f3c001a3fdffb
True
Round Rock
909
Where did Dell move its headquarters back to in 2004?
5ad36405604f3c001a3fdffc
True
312,000 square feet
1057
What was the total amount of space that Dell leased in Las Cimas 2 and 3?
5ad36405604f3c001a3fdffd
True
In 2000, Dell announced that it would lease 80,000 square feet (7,400 m2) of space in the Las Cimas office complex in unincorporated Travis County, Texas, between Austin and West Lake Hills, to house the company's executive offices and corporate headquarters. 100 senior executives were scheduled to work in the building by the end of 2000. In January 2001, the company leased the space in Las Cimas 2, located along Loop 360. Las Cimas 2 housed Dell's executives, the investment operations, and some corporate functions. Dell also had an option for 138,000 square feet (12,800 m2) of space in Las Cimas 3. After a slowdown in business required reducing employees and production capacity, Dell decided to sublease its offices in two buildings in the Las Cimas office complex. In 2002 Dell announced that it planned to sublease its space to another tenant; the company planned to move its headquarters back to Round Rock once a tenant was secured. By 2003, Dell moved its headquarters back to Round Rock. It leased all of Las Cimas I and II, with a total of 312,000 square feet (29,000 m2), for about a seven-year period after 2003. By that year roughly 100,000 square feet (9,300 m2) of that space was absorbed by new subtenants.
What Texas city was Dell's headquarters previously in?
570fe7a580d9841400ab370d
Austin
74
False
How many employees worked at Dell's Texas headquarters?
570fe7a580d9841400ab370e
1,200
187
False
What year did Dell announce that it was moving most of its employees out of Texas?
570fe7a580d9841400ab370f
1994
482
False
Where was the board room located at Dells Arboretum building?
570fe7a580d9841400ab3710
top floor
734
False
How many customer support employees did Dell move to Round Rock in 1994?
570fe7a580d9841400ab3711
1,100
886
False
Austin
74
What Florida city was Dell's headquarters previously in?
5ad36368604f3c001a3fdfd5
True
1,200
187
How many employees never worked at Dell's Texas headquarters?
5ad36368604f3c001a3fdfd6
True
1994
482
What year did Dell announce that it was moving most of its employees into Texas?
5ad36368604f3c001a3fdfd7
True
top floor
734
Where wasn't the board room located at Dells Arboretum building?
5ad36368604f3c001a3fdfd8
True
1,100
886
How many customer support employees did Dell move to Round Rock in 1995?
5ad36368604f3c001a3fdfd9
True
Dell previously had its headquarters in the Arboretum complex in northern Austin, Texas. In 1989 Dell occupied 127,000 square feet (11,800 m2) in the Arboretum complex. In 1990, Dell had 1,200 employees in its headquarters. In 1993, Dell submitted a document to Round Rock officials, titled "Dell Computer Corporate Headquarters, Round Rock, Texas, May 1993 Schematic Design." Despite the filing, during that year the company said that it was not going to move its headquarters. In 1994, Dell announced that it was moving most of its employees out of the Arboretum, but that it was going to continue to occupy the top floor of the Arboretum and that the company's official headquarters address would continue to be the Arboretum. The top floor continued to hold Dell's board room, demonstration center, and visitor meeting room. Less than one month prior to August 29, 1994, Dell moved 1,100 customer support and telephone sales employees to Round Rock. Dell's lease in the Arboretum had been scheduled to expire in 1994.
For what market did Dell make computers for in Ireland?
570fe8555ab6b819003910bd
EMEA
33
False
How many Irish employees did Dell hire?
570fe8555ab6b819003910be
4,500
122
False
What year did Dell announce it was relocating its Irish facility?
570fe8555ab6b819003910bf
2009
322
False
What was the value of the aid package given to Dell that the European Union investigated?
570fe8555ab6b819003910c0
€52.7million
516
False
What year did Dell begin production in the Lodz, Poland facility?
570fe8555ab6b819003910c1
2007
1556
False
EMEA
33
For what market did Dell make computers for in Scotland?
5ad36790604f3c001a3fe08f
True
4,500
122
How many Irish employees did Dell fire?
5ad36790604f3c001a3fe090
True
2009
322
What year did Dell announce it wasn't relocating its Irish facility?
5ad36790604f3c001a3fe091
True
€52.7million
516
What was the value of the aid package taken from Dell that the European Union investigated?
5ad36790604f3c001a3fe092
True
2007
1556
What year did Dell quit production in the Lodz, Poland facility?
5ad36790604f3c001a3fe093
True
Dell assembled computers for the EMEA market at the Limerick facility in the Republic of Ireland, and once employed about 4,500 people in that country. Dell began manufacturing in Limerick in 1991 and went on to become Ireland's largest exporter of goods and its second-largest company and foreign investor. On January 8, 2009, Dell announced that it would move all Dell manufacturing in Limerick to Dell's new plant in the Polish city of Łódź by January 2010. European Union officials said they would investigate a €52.7million aid package the Polish government used to attract Dell away from Ireland. European Manufacturing Facility 1 (EMF1, opened in 1990) and EMF3 form part of the Raheen Industrial Estate near Limerick. EMF2 (previously a Wang facility, later occupied by Flextronics, situated in Castletroy) closed in 2002,[citation needed] and Dell Inc. has consolidated production into EMF3 (EMF1 now[when?] contains only offices). Subsidies from the Polish government did keep Dell for a long time. After ending assembly in the Limerick plant the Cherrywood Technology Campus in Dublin was the largest Dell office in the republic with over 1200 people in sales (mainly UK & Ireland), support (enterprise support for EMEA) and research and development for cloud computing, but no more manufacturing except Dell's Alienware subsidiary, which manufactures PCs in an Athlone, Ireland plant. Whether this facility will remain in Ireland is not certain. Construction of EMF4 in Łódź, Poland has started[update]: Dell started production there in autumn 2007.
What kind of hardware support does Dell provide?
570fe8ff5ab6b819003910c7
multivendor
74
False
What kind of customers does Dell provide support to for major outages?
570fe8ff5ab6b819003910c8
ProSupport
324
False
What kind of support does Dell provide using a computer's service-tag?
570fe8ff5ab6b819003910c9
on-line support
455
False
multivendor
74
What kind of software support does Dell provide?
5ad368ed604f3c001a3fe0cb
True
multivendor
74
What kind of hardware support doesn't Dell provide?
5ad368ed604f3c001a3fe0cc
True
multivendor
74
What kind of hardware support does IBM provide?
5ad368ed604f3c001a3fe0cd
True
ProSupport
324
What kind of customers does Dell provide support to for minor outages?
5ad368ed604f3c001a3fe0ce
True
on-line support
455
What kind of support doesn't Dell provide using a computer's service-tag?
5ad368ed604f3c001a3fe0cf
True
In addition, the company provides protection services, advisory services, multivendor hardware support, "how-to" support for software applications, collaborative support with many third-party vendors, and online parts and labor dispatching for customers who diagnose and troubleshoot their hardware. Dell also provides Dell ProSupport customers access to a crisis-center to handle major outages, or problems caused by natural disasters. Dell also provide on-line support by using the computer's service-tag that provides full list of the hardware elements installed originally, purchase date and provides the latest upgrades for the original hardware drivers.
What is the alternate name for the Dell Solution Station?
570fe9ff5ab6b819003910cd
Dell on Call
115
False
What Dell service offers certified technicians to tackle commercial technical support?
570fe9ff5ab6b819003910ce
Dell Business Support
187
False
What Dell service offers remote desktop management?
570fe9ff5ab6b819003910cf
Dell Everdream Desktop Management
336
False
What is the name of the Dell service that gives home-users a support queue?
570fe9ff5ab6b819003910d0
Your Tech Team
524
False
Dell on Call
115
What isn't the alternate name for the Dell Solution Station?
5ad36853604f3c001a3fe0ad
True
Dell Business Support
187
What Dell service offers uncertified technicians to tackle commercial technical support?
5ad36853604f3c001a3fe0ae
True
Dell Business Support
187
What Dell service offers certified technicians to tackle home technical support?
5ad36853604f3c001a3fe0af
True
Dell Everdream Desktop Management
336
What Dell service never offers remote desktop management?
5ad36853604f3c001a3fe0b0
True
Your Tech Team
524
What is the name of the Dell service that gives business-users a support queue?
5ad36853604f3c001a3fe0b1
True
Dell service and support brands include the Dell Solution Station (extended domestic support services, previously "Dell on Call"), Dell Support Center (extended support services abroad), Dell Business Support (a commercial service-contract that provides an industry-certified technician with a lower call-volume than in normal queues), Dell Everdream Desktop Management ("Software as a Service" remote-desktop management, originally a SaaS company founded by Elon Musk's cousin, Lyndon Rive, which Dell bought in 2007), and Your Tech Team (a support-queue available to home users who purchased their systems either through Dell's website or through Dell phone-centers).
What year did Dell lose its tech lead to Hewlett-Packard?
570fea465ab6b819003910d5
2006
8
False
What was HP's growth during the third quarter of 2006?
570fea465ab6b819003910d6
15%
240
False
What was the rate of decline that Dell experienced in PC shipments?
570fea465ab6b819003910d7
8.9%
375
False
What was Dell's market share at the end of 2006?
570fea465ab6b819003910d8
13.9%
480
False
2006
8
What year did IBM lose its tech lead to Hewlett-Packard?
5ad36b09604f3c001a3fe14d
True
2006
8
What year did Dell gain its tech lead to Hewlett-Packard?
5ad36b09604f3c001a3fe14e
True
15%
240
What was HP's growth during the third quarter of 2007?
5ad36b09604f3c001a3fe14f
True
8.9%
375
What was the rate of growth that Dell experienced in PC shipments?
5ad36b09604f3c001a3fe150
True
13.9%
480
What was Dell's market share at the end of 2005?
5ad36b09604f3c001a3fe151
True
In late 2006[update], Dell lost its lead in the PC-business to Hewlett-Packard. Both Gartner and IDC estimated that in the third quarter of 2006, HP shipped more units worldwide than Dell did. Dell's 3.6% growth paled in comparison to HP's 15% growth during the same period. The problem got worse in the fourth quarter, when Gartner estimated that Dell PC shipments declined 8.9% (versus HP's 23.9% growth). As a result, at the end of 2006 Dell's overall PC market-share stood at 13.9% (versus HP's 17.4%).
What toxic chemical did Dell set to eliminate from its products?
570fead580d9841400ab3721
polyvinyl chloride
85
False
By what year does Dell plan to remove chemicals from its computers?
570fead580d9841400ab3722
2011
277
False
What activists protested at Dell's offices in response to the usage of toxic chemicals?
570fead580d9841400ab3723
Greenpeace
333
False
What year did Dell launch its first products that were free of toxic chemicals?
570fead580d9841400ab3724
2009
715
False
polyvinyl chloride
85
What toxic chemical didn't Dell set to eliminate from its products?
5ad36ba0604f3c001a3fe161
True
polyvinyl chloride
85
What nontoxic chemical did Dell set to eliminate from its products?
5ad36ba0604f3c001a3fe162
True
2011
277
By what year does Dell plan to put chemicals in its computers?
5ad36ba0604f3c001a3fe163
True
Greenpeace
333
What activists protested at Dell's offices in response to the usage of nontoxic chemicals?
5ad36ba0604f3c001a3fe164
True
2009
715
What year did Dell launch its first products that weren't free of toxic chemicals?
5ad36ba0604f3c001a3fe165
True
Dell was the first company to publicly state a timeline for the elimination of toxic polyvinyl chloride (PVC) and brominated flame retardants (BFRs), which it planned to phase out by the end of 2009. It revised this commitment and now aims to remove these toxics by the end of 2011 but only in its computing products. In March 2010, Greenpeace activists protested at Dell offices in Bangalore, Amsterdam and Copenhagen calling for Dell’s founder and CEO Michael Dell to ‘drop the toxics’ and claiming that Dell’s aspiration to be ‘the greenest technology company on the planet’ was ‘hypocritical’. Dell has launched its first products completely free of PVC and BFRs with the G-Series monitors (G2210 and G2410) in 2009.
What percentage of Dell support calls were transferred?
570feb3480d9841400ab3729
45%
115
False
How much did Dell originally spend to fix their customer service?
570feb3480d9841400ab372a
$100 million
212
False
What amount did Dell increase its customer service budget to?
570feb3480d9841400ab372b
$150 million
375
False
45%
115
What percentage of Dell support calls weren't transferred?
5ad36cc0604f3c001a3fe1c1
True
45%
115
What percentage of IBM support calls were transferred?
5ad36cc0604f3c001a3fe1c2
True
$100 million
212
How much did Dell originally spend to end their customer service?
5ad36cc0604f3c001a3fe1c3
True
$100 million
212
How much did IBM originally spend to fix their customer service?
5ad36cc0604f3c001a3fe1c4
True
$150 million
375
What amount did Dell decrease its customer service budget to?
5ad36cc0604f3c001a3fe1c5
True
In 2006, Dell acknowledged that it had problems with customer service. Issues included call transfers of more than 45% of calls and long wait times. Dell's blog detailed the response: "We're spending more than a $100 million — and a lot of blood, sweat and tears of talented people — to fix this." Later in the year, the company increased its spending on customer service to $150 million. Despite significant investment in this space, Dell continues to face public scrutiny with even the company's own website littered with complaints regarding the issue escalation process.[original research?]
What does Dell aim to reduce by creating energy efficient products?
570feb9480d9841400ab372f
external environmental impact
31
False
How much does energy efficiency save Dell per year?
570feb9480d9841400ab3730
$3 million
265
False
What is the largest contributor to Dell's energy efficiency savings?
570feb9480d9841400ab3731
PC power management
397
False
How many PCs does Dell employ energy management software on?
570feb9480d9841400ab3732
50,000
544
False
external environmental impact
31
What does Dell aim to increase by creating energy efficient products?
5ad36c34604f3c001a3fe18f
True
external environmental impact
31
What doesn't Dell aim to reduce by creating energy efficient products?
5ad36c34604f3c001a3fe190
True
$3 million
265
How much does energy efficiency save Dell per month?
5ad36c34604f3c001a3fe191
True
PC power management
397
What is the smallest contributor to Dell's energy efficiency savings?
5ad36c34604f3c001a3fe192
True
50,000
544
How many PCs does Dell employ energy management hardware on?
5ad36c34604f3c001a3fe193
True
The company aims to reduce its external environmental impact through energy-efficient evolution of products, and also reduce its direct operational impact through energy-efficiency programs. Internal energy-efficiency programs reportedly save the company more than $3 million annually in energy-cost savings. The largest component of the company's internal energy-efficiency savings comes through PC power management: the company expects to save $1.8 million in energy costs through using specialized energy-management software on a network of 50,000 PCs.
Capital_punishment_in_the_United_States
What process begins after a death sentence is handed down at trial?
570fd72880d9841400ab36b5
direct review
83
False
In a direct review, what type of court looks at the record?
570fd72880d9841400ab36b6
appellate
154
False
How many possible outcomes are there of a capital sentencing direct review?
570fd72880d9841400ab36b7
three
399
False
What percentage of convictions survive direct review?
570fd72880d9841400ab36b8
60
1114
False
In a direct review, what court has its record reviewed by the appellate court?
570fd72880d9841400ab36b9
trial
219
False
direct review
102
What process begins before a death sentence is handed down at trial?
5ad3f63e604f3c001a3ff9cf
True
appellate
154
In an indirect review, what type of court looks at the record?
5ad3f63e604f3c001a3ff9d0
True
three
399
How many possible outcomes are there of a capital sentencing indirect review?
5ad3f63e604f3c001a3ff9d1
True
60
1114
What percentage of convictions don't survive direct review?
5ad3f63e604f3c001a3ff9d2
True
trial
44
In a direct review, what court has its record not reviewed by the appellate court?
5ad3f63e604f3c001a3ff9d3
True
If a defendant is sentenced to death at the trial level, the case then goes into a direct review. The direct review process is a typical legal appeal. An appellate court examines the record of evidence presented in the trial court and the law that the lower court applied and decides whether the decision was legally sound or not. Direct review of a capital sentencing hearing will result in one of three outcomes. If the appellate court finds that no significant legal errors occurred in the capital sentencing hearing, the appellate court will affirm the judgment, or let the sentence stand. If the appellate court finds that significant legal errors did occur, then it will reverse the judgment, or nullify the sentence and order a new capital sentencing hearing. Lastly, if the appellate court finds that no reasonable juror could find the defendant eligible for the death penalty, a rarity, then it will order the defendant acquitted, or not guilty, of the crime for which he/she was given the death penalty, and order him sentenced to the next most severe punishment for which the offense is eligible. About 60 percent survive the process of direct review intact.
In what year was the Antiterrorism and Effective Death Penalty Act passed?
570fd7d85ab6b8190039106d
1996
59
False
How many habeas corpus suits does the Antiterrorism and Effective Death Penalty Act normally allow in federal court?
570fd7d85ab6b8190039106e
one
109
False
What is the US Code citation for the Civil Rights Act of 1871?
570fd7d85ab6b8190039106f
42 U.S.C. § 1983
401
False
Why does a litigant initiate a lawsuit under the Civil Rights Act of 1871?
570fd7d85ab6b81900391070
to protect their federal constitutional and statutory rights
479
False
1996
59
In what year was the Antiterrorism and Effective Death Penalty Act rejected?
5ad3f803604f3c001a3ffa4b
True
one
109
How many habeas corpus suits does the Antiterrorism and Effective Death Penalty Act never allow in federal court?
5ad3f803604f3c001a3ffa4c
True
42 U.S.C. § 1983
401
What is the US Code citation for the Civil Rights Act of 1971?
5ad3f803604f3c001a3ffa4d
True
protect their federal constitutional and statutory rights
482
Why does a litigant initiate a lawsuit under the Civil Rights Act of 1801?
5ad3f803604f3c001a3ffa4e
True
Under the Antiterrorism and Effective Death Penalty Act of 1996, a state prisoner is ordinarily only allowed one suit for habeas corpus in federal court. If the federal courts refuse to issue a writ of habeas corpus, an execution date may be set. In recent times, however, prisoners have postponed execution through a final round of federal litigation using the Civil Rights Act of 1871 — codified at 42 U.S.C. § 1983 — which allows people to bring lawsuits against state actors to protect their federal constitutional and statutory rights.
Who was executed by firing squad on January 17, 1977?
570fd84d80d9841400ab36c9
Gary Gilmore
62
False
In what state was Gary Gilmore executed?
570fd84d80d9841400ab36ca
Utah
94
False
On what date was John Spenkelink executed?
570fd84d80d9841400ab36cb
May 25, 1979
212
False
In what state did Jesse Bishop's execution occur?
570fd84d80d9841400ab36cc
Nevada
315
False
How was Charles Brooks, Jr. executed?
570fd84d80d9841400ab36cd
lethal injection
482
False
Gary Gilmore
62
Who was executed by firing squad on January 17, 1927?
5ad3f96e604f3c001a3ffac3
True
Utah
94
In what state was Gary Gilmore freed?
5ad3f96e604f3c001a3ffac4
True
May 25, 1979
212
On what date was John Spenkelink freed?
5ad3f96e604f3c001a3ffac5
True
Nevada
315
In what state did Jesse Bishop's freedom ruling occur?
5ad3f96e604f3c001a3ffac6
True
lethal injection
482
How was Charles Brooks, Jr. freed?
5ad3f96e604f3c001a3ffac7
True
The moratorium ended on January 17, 1977 with the shooting of Gary Gilmore by firing squad in Utah. The first use of the electric chair after the moratorium was the electrocution of John Spenkelink in Florida on May 25, 1979. The first use of the gas chamber after the moratorium was the gassing of Jesse Bishop in Nevada on October 22, 1979. The first use of the gallows after the moratorium was the hanging of Westley Allan Dodd in Washington on January 5, 1993. The first use of lethal injection was on December 7, 1982, when Charles Brooks, Jr., was executed in Texas.
What was a common nickname for the electric chair?
570fd8a15ab6b81900391075
Old Sparky
122
False
What color was Alabama's electric chair?
570fd8a15ab6b81900391076
Yellow
189
False
What state notably had electric chair malfunctions?
570fd8a15ab6b81900391077
Florida
249
False
Due to electric chair malfunctions, what method of execution became preferred?
570fd8a15ab6b81900391078
lethal injection
355
False
Prior to the popularity of lethal injection, what was the preferred method of executing criminals in America?
570fd8a15ab6b81900391079
Electrocution
0
False
Old Sparky
122
What was an uncommon nickname for the electric chair?
5ad3fa36604f3c001a3ffaf5
True
Yellow
189
What color was Arkansas's electric chair?
5ad3fa36604f3c001a3ffaf6
True
Florida
249
What state never notably had electric chair malfunctions?
5ad3fa36604f3c001a3ffaf7
True
lethal injection
419
Due to electric chair malfunctions, what method of execution was not preferred?
5ad3fa36604f3c001a3ffaf8
True
Electrocution
0
Prior to the popularity of lethal injection, what was the preferred method of executing criminals in South America?
5ad3fa36604f3c001a3ffaf9
True
Electrocution was the preferred method of execution during the 20th century. Electric chairs have commonly been nicknamed Old Sparky; however, Alabama's electric chair became known as the "Yellow Mama" due to its unique color. Some, particularly in Florida, were noted for malfunctions, which caused discussion of their cruelty and resulted in a shift to lethal injection as the preferred method of execution. Although lethal injection dominates as a method of execution, some states allow prisoners on death row to choose the method used to execute them.
What state has had only a single execution?
570fe7425ab6b819003910b3
Wisconsin
61
False
When was the last person executed in the District of Columbia?
570fe7425ab6b819003910b4
1957
341
False
When did Oregon reinstate the death penalty?
570fe7425ab6b819003910b5
1984
466
False
In what year did an Oregon referendum succeed in restoring the death penalty, only to be shot down due to a court ruling?
570fe7425ab6b819003910b6
1978
561
False
What state notably abolished the death penalty and then reintroduced it, but didn't use it again?
570fe7425ab6b819003910b7
Rhode Island
113
False
Wisconsin
61
What state has had only a double execution?
5ad3f120604f3c001a3ff85b
True
1957
341
When was the first person executed in the District of Columbia?
5ad3f120604f3c001a3ff85c
True
1984
466
When did Oregon reject the death penalty?
5ad3f120604f3c001a3ff85d
True
1978
561
In what year did an Oregon referendum succeed in restoring the death penalty, only to be passed due to a court ruling?
5ad3f120604f3c001a3ff85e
True
Rhode Island
113
What state notably abolished the death penalty and then reintroduced it, and used it frequently?
5ad3f120604f3c001a3ff85f
True
Other states with long histories of no death penalty include Wisconsin (the only state with only one execution), Rhode Island (although later reintroduced, it was unused and abolished again), Maine, North Dakota, Minnesota, West Virginia, Iowa, and Vermont. The District of Columbia has also abolished the death penalty; it was last used in 1957. Oregon abolished the death penalty through an overwhelming majority in a 1964 public referendum but reinstated it in a 1984 joint death penalty/life imprisonment referendum by an even higher margin after a similar 1978 referendum succeeded but was not implemented due to judicial rulings.
In the United States, how many murders are there for each execution?
570fee9a80d9841400ab3737
700
206
False
How many murder convictions occur in the US per execution?
570fee9a80d9841400ab3738
325
260
False
How many states in the US have the death penalty?
570fee9a80d9841400ab3739
32
293
False
What state has the highest rate of death sentences per person?
570fee9a80d9841400ab373a
Alabama
347
False
What does Alabama law allow judges to do that isn't allowed in other states?
570fee9a80d9841400ab373b
overriding life imprisonment sentences and imposing the death penalty
429
False
700
206
In the United States, how many rapes are there for each execution?
5ad3fcc2604f3c001a3ffbab
True
325
260
How many murder releases occur in the US per execution?
5ad3fcc2604f3c001a3ffbac
True
32
293
How many states in the US do not have the death penalty?
5ad3fcc2604f3c001a3ffbad
True
32
293
What state has the lowest rate of death sentences per person?
5ad3fcc2604f3c001a3ffbae
True
overriding life imprisonment sentences and imposing the death penalty
429
What does Alabama law allow judges to do that is allowed in other states?
5ad3fcc2604f3c001a3ffbaf
True
Within the context of the overall murder rate, the death penalty cannot be said to be widely or routinely used in the United States; in recent years the average has been about one execution for about every 700 murders committed, or 1 execution for about every 325 murder convictions. However, 32 of the 50 states still execute people. Among them, Alabama has the highest per capita rate of death sentences. This is due to judges overriding life imprisonment sentences and imposing the death penalty. No other states allow this.
What territory's constitution says "The death penalty shall not exist"?
570fef8a5ab6b819003910dd
Puerto Rico's
0
False
What US state prohibits the death penalty in its constitution?
570fef8a5ab6b819003910de
Michigan
175
False
How many US states have passed laws outlawing the death penalty?
570fef8a5ab6b819003910df
eleven
230
False
Under what jurisdiction can capital offenses still be committed in Puerto Rico?
570fef8a5ab6b819003910e0
federal
466
False
Puerto Rico's
0
What territory's constitution says "The death penalty shall definitely exist"?
5ad3f298604f3c001a3ff8b9
True
Michigan
175
What US state allows the death penalty in its constitution?
5ad3f298604f3c001a3ff8ba
True
eleven
230
How many UK towns have passed laws outlawing the death penalty?
5ad3f298604f3c001a3ff8bb
True
federal
466
Under what jurisdiction can capital offenses never be committed in Puerto Rico?
5ad3f298604f3c001a3ff8bc
True
Puerto Rico's constitution expressly forbids capital punishment, stating "The death penalty shall not exist", setting it apart from all U.S. states and territories other than Michigan, which also has a constitutional prohibition (eleven other states and the District of Columbia have abolished capital punishment through statutory law). However, capital punishment is still applicable to offenses committed in Puerto Rico, if they fall under the jurisdiction of the federal government, though federal death penalty prosecutions there have generated significant controversy.
In what year was the death penalty suspended in the US?
570feffa80d9841400ab3741
1972
59
False
What Supreme Court case resulted in capital punishment being suspended?
570feffa80d9841400ab3742
Furman v. Georgia
134
False
Who was executed on June 2, 1967?
570feffa80d9841400ab3743
Luis Monge
195
False
What amendment to the United States Constitution forbids cruel and unusual punishment?
570feffa80d9841400ab3744
Eighth
392
False
In what year was the suspension of the death penalty in the United States ended?
570feffa80d9841400ab3745
1976
72
False
1972
59
In what year was the death penalty allowed in the US?
5ad3f2d0604f3c001a3ff8cb
True
Furman v. Georgia
134
What Supreme Court case resulted in capital punishment being allowed?
5ad3f2d0604f3c001a3ff8cc
True
Luis Monge
195
Who was executed on June 2, 1987?
5ad3f2d0604f3c001a3ff8cd
True
Eighth
392
What amendment to the United States Constitution allows cruel and unusual punishment?
5ad3f2d0604f3c001a3ff8ce
True
1976
72
In what year was the suspension of the death penalty in South America ended?
5ad3f2d0604f3c001a3ff8cf
True
Capital punishment was suspended in the United States from 1972 through 1976 primarily as a result of the Supreme Court's decision in Furman v. Georgia. The last pre-Furman execution was that of Luis Monge on June 2, 1967. In this case, the court found that the death penalty was being imposed in an unconstitutional manner, on the grounds of cruel and unusual punishment in violation of the Eighth Amendment to the United States Constitution. The Supreme Court has never ruled the death penalty to be per se unconstitutional.
What state's law says that death sentences must take place in an "enclosure"?
570ff147b654c5140001f6d1
Connecticut
169
False
What law has similar language to Missouri Revised Statute § 546.730?
570ff147b654c5140001f6d2
Kentucky Revised Statute 431.220
324
False
What state's law mandated that executions occur in ""room or place enclosed from public view"?
570ff147b654c5140001f6d3
New Mexico's
438
False
Along with United States Code Title 18 § 3596, what federal law limits the people who can witness a federal execution?
570ff147b654c5140001f6d4
Code of Federal Regulations 28 CFR 26.4
1156
False
What state's law requires that capital punishment occur "within the walls" of a penitentiary?
570ff147b654c5140001f6d5
North Carolina
739
False
Connecticut
169
What state's law says that death sentences must not take place in an "enclosure"?
5ad3fdac604f3c001a3ffbf5
True
Kentucky Revised Statute 431.220
324
What law has different language to Missouri Revised Statute § 546.730?
5ad3fdac604f3c001a3ffbf6
True
New Mexico's
438
What state's law mandated that executions occur in ""room or place enclosed from private view"?
5ad3fdac604f3c001a3ffbf7
True
Code of Federal Regulations 28 CFR 26.4
1156
Along with United States Code Title 18 § 3596, what federal law limits the people who won't witness a federal execution?
5ad3fdac604f3c001a3ffbf8
True
Present-day statutes from across the nation use the same words and phrases, requiring modern executions to take place within a wall or enclosure to exclude public view. Connecticut General Statute § 54–100 requires death sentences to be conducted in an "enclosure" which "shall be so constructed as to exclude public view." Kentucky Revised Statute 431.220 and Missouri Revised Statute § 546.730 contain substantially identical language. New Mexico's former death penalty, since repealed, see N.M. Stat. § 31-14-12, required executions be conducted in a "room or place enclosed from public view." Similarly, a dormant Massachusetts law, see Mass. Gen. Law ch. 279 § 60, required executions to take place "within an enclosure or building." North Carolina General Statute § 15-188 requires death sentences to be executed "within the walls" of the penitentiary, as do Oklahoma Statute Title 22 § 1015 and Montana Code § 46-19-103. Ohio Revised Code § 2949.22 requires that "[t]he enclosure shall exclude public view." Similarly, Tennessee Code § 40-23-116 requires "an enclosure" for "strict seclusion and privacy." United States Code Title 18 § 3596 and the Code of Federal Regulations 28 CFR 26.4 limit the witnesses permitted at federal executions.
In what year was Gregg v. Georgia decided?
570ff265b654c5140001f6db
1976
3
False
Along with the guilt-innocence phase, what is the other phase of a death penalty trial under Gregg v. Georgia?
570ff265b654c5140001f6dc
sentencing
188
False
What is the only conviction that can lead to the death penalty?
570ff265b654c5140001f6dd
first-degree murder
331
False
Along with aggravating factors, what other factors are considered at the second hearing?
570ff265b654c5140001f6de
mitigating
499
False
What is decided at the first proceeding?
570ff265b654c5140001f6df
the defendant's guilt
249
False
1976
3
In what year was Gregg v. Georgia undecided?
5ad3f336604f3c001a3ff8e5
True
sentencing
188
Along with the innocence phase, what is the other phase of a death penalty trial under Gregg v. Georgia?
5ad3f336604f3c001a3ff8e6
True
first-degree murder
331
What isn't the only conviction that can lead to the death penalty?
5ad3f336604f3c001a3ff8e7
True
mitigating
499
Along with aggravating factors, what other factors are considered at the third hearing?
5ad3f336604f3c001a3ff8e8
True
defendant's guilt
253
What is decided at the second proceeding?
5ad3f336604f3c001a3ff8e9
True
In 1976, contemporaneously with Woodson and Roberts, the Court decided Gregg v. Georgia and upheld a procedure in which the trial of capital crimes was bifurcated into guilt-innocence and sentencing phases. At the first proceeding, the jury decides the defendant's guilt; if the defendant is innocent or otherwise not convicted of first-degree murder, the death penalty will not be imposed. At the second hearing, the jury determines whether certain statutory aggravating factors exist, whether any mitigating factors exist, and, in many jurisdictions, weigh the aggravating and mitigating factors in assessing the ultimate penalty – either death or life in prison, either with or without parole.
How many executions occurred in 1999?
570ff37bb654c5140001f6e5
98
191
False
What was the number of people executed in 2015?
570ff37bb654c5140001f6e6
28
238
False
In what year did the reauthorization of capital punishment occur?
570ff37bb654c5140001f6e7
1976
294
False
How many people have been executed in the United States since 1976?
570ff37bb654c5140001f6e8
1,411
300
False
Which state has the largest number of people awaiting execution?
570ff37bb654c5140001f6e9
California
690
False
98
191
How many executions occurred in 1959?
5ad3f472604f3c001a3ff93d
True
28
238
What was the number of people executed in 2018?
5ad3f472604f3c001a3ff93e
True
1976
294
In what year did the unauthorization of capital punishment occur?
5ad3f472604f3c001a3ff93f
True
1,411
300
How many people have been freed from being executed in the United States since 1976?
5ad3f472604f3c001a3ff940
True
California
690
Which state has the smallest number of people awaiting execution?
5ad3f472604f3c001a3ff941
True
Possibly in part due to expedited federal habeas corpus procedures embodied in the Antiterrorism and Effective Death Penalty Act of 1996, the pace of executions picked up, reaching a peak of 98 in 1999 and then they declined gradually to 28 in 2015. Since the death penalty was reauthorized in 1976, 1,411 people have been executed, almost exclusively by the states, with most occurring after 1990. Texas has accounted for over one-third of modern executions (although only two death sentences were imposed in Texas during 2015, with the courts preferring to issue sentences of life without parole instead) and over four times as many as Oklahoma, the state with the second-highest number. California has the greatest number of prisoners on death row, has issued the highest number of death sentences but has held relatively few executions.
In November 2008, who was on death penalty without a murder conviction?
570ff55ab654c5140001f6ef
Demarcus Sears
123
False
Who did Demarcus Sears kidnap?
570ff55ab654c5140001f6f0
Gloria Ann Wilbur
305
False
In what state was Gloria Ann Wilbur murdered?
570ff55ab654c5140001f6f1
Kentucky
404
False
In what year was Demarcus Sears convicted of kidnapping?
570ff55ab654c5140001f6f2
1986
253
False
A jury in what state sentenced Demarcus Sears to death?
570ff55ab654c5140001f6f3
Georgia
517
False
Demarcus Sears
123
In November 2018, who was on death penalty without a murder conviction?
5ad3f56b604f3c001a3ff985
True
Gloria Ann Wilbur
305
Who did Demarcus Sears let go free?
5ad3f56b604f3c001a3ff986
True
Kentucky
404
In what state was Gloria Ann Wilbur born?
5ad3f56b604f3c001a3ff987
True
1986
253
In what year was Demarcus Sears freed of kidnapping?
5ad3f56b604f3c001a3ff988
True
Georgia
517
A jury in what state sentenced Demarcus Sears to freedom?
5ad3f56b604f3c001a3ff989
True
As of November 2008, there is only one person on death row facing capital punishment who has not been convicted of murder. Demarcus Sears remains under a death sentence in Georgia for the crime of "kidnapping with bodily injury." Sears was convicted in 1986 for the kidnapping and bodily injury of victim Gloria Ann Wilbur. Wilbur was kidnapped and beaten in Georgia, raped in Tennessee, and murdered in Kentucky. Sears was never charged with the murder of Wilbur in Kentucky, but was sentenced to death by a jury in Georgia for "kidnapping with bodily injury."
When a prisoner is given a death sentence in a state, what is the first step of collateral review?
570ff9cda58dae1900cd679c
state collateral review
463
False
About what percentage of capital convictions are overturned due to state collateral review?
570ff9cda58dae1900cd679d
6
1294
False
In 2010, how many death sentences were overturned due to reversals from courts or appeals?
570ff9cda58dae1900cd679e
53
1398
False
What is an example of an issue that is raised in collateral review?
570ff9cda58dae1900cd679f
ineffective assistance of counsel
936
False
state collateral review
463
When a prisoner is given a death sentence in a state, what is the last step of collateral review?
5ad3f6d9604f3c001a3ffa01
True
6
1294
About what percentage of capital convictions are never overturned due to state collateral review?
5ad3f6d9604f3c001a3ffa02
True
53
1398
In 2010, how many death sentences were never overturned due to reversals from courts or appeals?
5ad3f6d9604f3c001a3ffa03
True
ineffective assistance of counsel
936
What is an example of an issue that isn't raised in collateral review?
5ad3f6d9604f3c001a3ffa04
True
At times when a death sentence is affirmed on direct review, it is considered final. Yet, supplemental methods to attack the judgment, though less familiar than a typical appeal, do remain. These supplemental remedies are considered collateral review, that is, an avenue for upsetting judgments that have become otherwise final. Where the prisoner received his death sentence in a state-level trial, as is usually the case, the first step in collateral review is state collateral review. (If the case is a federal death penalty case, it proceeds immediately from direct review to federal habeas corpus.) Although all states have some type of collateral review, the process varies widely from state to state. Generally, the purpose of these collateral proceedings is to permit the prisoner to challenge his sentence on grounds that could not have been raised reasonably at trial or on direct review. Most often these are claims, such as ineffective assistance of counsel, which requires the court to consider new evidence outside the original trial record, something courts may not do in an ordinary appeal. State collateral review, though an important step in that it helps define the scope of subsequent review through federal habeas corpus, is rarely successful in and of itself. Only around 6 percent of death sentences are overturned on state collateral review. In 2010, the death sentences of 53 inmates were overturned as a result of legal appeals or high court reversals.
In what case did the Supreme Court allow Section 1983 to be used to challenge a method of execution?
570ffb75b654c5140001f711
Hill v. McDonough
260
False
In what year was Hill v. McDonough decided?
570ffb75b654c5140001f712
2006
255
False
What amendment of the Constitution does cruel and unusual punishment violate?
570ffb75b654c5140001f713
Eighth
469
False
What case notably upheld the use of a method of lethal injection?
570ffb75b654c5140001f714
Baze v. Rees
1052
False
Along with Section 1983, through what means can a convict on death row challenge his execution?
570ffb75b654c5140001f715
habeas corpus
132
False
Hill v. McDonough
260
n what case did the Supreme Court allow Section 1989 to be used to challenge a method of execution?
5ad3f86a604f3c001a3ffa67
True
2006
255
In what year was Hill v. McDonough rejected?
5ad3f86a604f3c001a3ffa68
True
Eighth
469
What amendment of the Constitution doesn't cruel and unusual punishment violate?
5ad3f86a604f3c001a3ffa69
True
Baze v. Rees
1052
What case notably did not uphold the use of a method of lethal injection?
5ad3f86a604f3c001a3ffa6a
True
habeas corpus
132
Along with Section 1983, through what means can a convict on death row submit to his execution?
5ad3f86a604f3c001a3ffa6b
True
Traditionally, Section 1983 was of limited use for a state prisoner under sentence of death because the Supreme Court has held that habeas corpus, not Section 1983, is the only vehicle by which a state prisoner can challenge his judgment of death. In the 2006 Hill v. McDonough case, however, the United States Supreme Court approved the use of Section 1983 as a vehicle for challenging a state's method of execution as cruel and unusual punishment in violation of the Eighth Amendment. The theory is that a prisoner bringing such a challenge is not attacking directly his judgment of death, but rather the means by which that the judgment will be carried out. Therefore, the Supreme Court held in the Hill case that a prisoner can use Section 1983 rather than habeas corpus to bring the lawsuit. Yet, as Clarence Hill's own case shows, lower federal courts have often refused to hear suits challenging methods of execution on the ground that the prisoner brought the claim too late and only for the purposes of delay. Further, the Court's decision in Baze v. Rees, upholding a lethal injection method used by many states, has drastically narrowed the opportunity for relief through Section 1983.
How many people were killed in the largest mass execution in US history?
57100090b654c5140001f72b
38
73
False
On what date did the largest mass execution in American history take place?
57100090b654c5140001f72c
December 26, 1862
190
False
In what state did the largest American mass execution occur?
57100090b654c5140001f72d
Minnesota
221
False
What was the ethnicity of the people executed in the second-largest mass execution in US history?
57100090b654c5140001f72e
African-American
493
False
In what year did the Admiralty Court hang 26 pirates in Newport, Rhode Island?
57100090b654c5140001f72f
1723
657
False
38
73
How many people were killed in the smallest mass execution in US history?
5ad3f046604f3c001a3ff833
True
December 26, 1862
190
On what date did the smallest mass execution in American history take place?
5ad3f046604f3c001a3ff834
True
Minnesota
221
In what state did the smallest American mass execution occur?
5ad3f046604f3c001a3ff835
True
African-American
493
What was the ethnicity of the people executed in the second-smallest mass execution in US history?
5ad3f046604f3c001a3ff836
True
1723
657
In what year did the Admiralty Court hang 26 pirates in Kansas?
5ad3f046604f3c001a3ff837
True
The largest single execution in United States history was the hanging of 38 American Indians convicted of murder and rape during the Dakota War of 1862. They were executed simultaneously on December 26, 1862, in Mankato, Minnesota. A single blow from an axe cut the rope that held the large four-sided platform, and the prisoners (except for one whose rope had broken and who had to be re-hanged) fell to their deaths. The second-largest mass execution was also a hanging: the execution of 13 African-American soldiers for taking part in the Houston Riot of 1917. The largest non-military mass execution occurred in one of the original thirteen colonies in 1723, when 26 convicted pirates were hanged in Newport, Rhode Island by order of the Admiralty Court.
What act restricted the scope of federal habeas corpus?
571001dab654c5140001f735
the Antiterrorism and Effective Death Penalty Act of 1996
508
False
How may state prisoners seek to have a death sentence overturned in federal court?
571001dab654c5140001f736
Federal habeas corpus
185
False
In what courts can federal habeas corpus suits be brought?
571001dab654c5140001f737
federal
89
False
If prisoners use federal habeas corpus to present evidence that they're innocent, what must the evidence be?
571001dab654c5140001f738
truly compelling
1059
False
Antiterrorism and Effective Death Penalty Act of 1996
512
What act didn't restrict the scope of federal habeas corpus?
5ad3f70e604f3c001a3ffa0f
True
federal
471
How may state prisoners seek to have a death sentence not overturned in federal court?
5ad3f70e604f3c001a3ffa10
True
truly compelling
1059
If prisoners use federal habeas corpus to present evidence that they're guilty, what must the evidence be?
5ad3f70e604f3c001a3ffa11
True
After a death sentence is affirmed in state collateral review, the prisoner may file for federal habeas corpus, which is a unique type of lawsuit that can be brought in federal courts. Federal habeas corpus is a species of collateral review, and it is the only way that state prisoners may attack a death sentence in federal court (other than petitions for certiorari to the United States Supreme Court after both direct review and state collateral review). The scope of federal habeas corpus is governed by the Antiterrorism and Effective Death Penalty Act of 1996, which restricted significantly its previous scope. The purpose of federal habeas corpus is to ensure that state courts, through the process of direct review and state collateral review, have done at least a reasonable job in protecting the prisoner's federal constitutional rights. Prisoners may also use federal habeas corpus suits to bring forth new evidence that they are innocent of the crime, though to be a valid defense at this late stage in the process, evidence of innocence must be truly compelling.
Along with New Jersey, what state commuted all life sentences when bills to repeal the death penalty were passed?
57100234a58dae1900cd67ce
Illinois
18
False
The governor of what state commuted four death sentences in January 2015?
57100234a58dae1900cd67cf
Maryland
173
False
Who was governor of Maryland in January 2015?
57100234a58dae1900cd67d0
Martin O'Malley
192
False
In what state's supreme court was State v. Santiago decided?
57100234a58dae1900cd67d1
Connecticut
394
False
How many people had their sentences commuted by State v. Santiago?
57100234a58dae1900cd67d2
11
626
False
Illinois
18
Along with Canada, what state commuted all life sentences when bills to repeal the death penalty were passed?
5ad3f1c6604f3c001a3ff889
True
Maryland
173
The governor of what state commuted four death sentences in March 2015?
5ad3f1c6604f3c001a3ff88a
True
Martin O'Malley
192
Who was governor of Maryland in January 2005?
5ad3f1c6604f3c001a3ff88b
True
Connecticut
357
In what state's supreme court was State v. Santiago not decided?
5ad3f1c6604f3c001a3ff88c
True
11
626
How many people had their sentences not commuted by State v. Santiago?
5ad3f1c6604f3c001a3ff88d
True
In New Jersey and Illinois, all death row inmates had their sentences commuted to life in prison without parole when the death penalty repeal bills were signed into law. In Maryland, Governor Martin O'Malley commuted the state's four remaining death sentences to life in prison without parole in January 2015. While the bill repealing capital punishment in Connecticut was not retroactive, the Connecticut Supreme Court ruled in 2015 in State v. Santiago that the legislature's decision to prospectively abolish capital punishment rendered it an offense to "evolving standards of decency," thus commuting the sentences of the 11 men remaining on death row to life in prison without parole. New Mexico may yet execute two condemned inmates sentenced prior to abolition, and Nebraska has ten death row inmates who may still be executed despite abolition.
In what court was Bigby v. Dretke decided?
57100286a58dae1900cd67d8
United States Court of Appeals for the Fifth Circuit
60
False
What court heard the case Penry v. Lynaugh?
57100286a58dae1900cd67d9
United States Supreme Court
4
False
What amendment to the Constitution did Penry v. Lynaugh address?
57100286a58dae1900cd67da
Eighth
318
False
What sentencing factors did Bigby v. Dretke consider?
57100286a58dae1900cd67db
mitigating
534
False
United States Court of Appeals for the Fifth Circuit
60
In what state was Bigby v. Dretke decided?
5ad3f8c8604f3c001a3ffa85
True
The United States Supreme Court
0
What court denied hearing the case Penry v. Lynaugh?
5ad3f8c8604f3c001a3ffa86
True
Eighth
318
What amendment to the Constitution did Penry v. Lynaugh never address?
5ad3f8c8604f3c001a3ffa87
True
mitigating
235
What sentencing factors did Bigby v. Dretke reject considering?
5ad3f8c8604f3c001a3ffa88
True
The United States Supreme Court in Penry v. Lynaugh and the United States Court of Appeals for the Fifth Circuit in Bigby v. Dretke have been clear in their decisions that jury instructions in death penalty cases that do not ask about mitigating factors regarding the defendant's mental health violate the defendant's Eighth Amendment rights, saying that the jury is to be instructed to consider mitigating factors when answering unrelated questions. This ruling suggests that specific explanations to the jury are necessary to weigh mitigating factors.
In what year was Tony Chebatoris killed?
571007ebb654c5140001f757
1938
255
False
When was Michigan's fourth Constitution ratified?
571007ebb654c5140001f758
1963
331
False
In what city was Tony Chebatoris executed?
571007ebb654c5140001f759
Milan
236
False
In what year was there a failed Michigan constitutional amendment to allow the death penalty?
571007ebb654c5140001f75a
2004
459
False
What article of the fourth Michigan Constitution forbids laws allowing capital punishment?
571007ebb654c5140001f75b
4
270
False
the United States government executed Tony Chebatoris
139
What happened in 1935?
5ad3f096604f3c001a3ff847
True
1963
331
When was Michigan's fifth Constitution ratified?
5ad3f096604f3c001a3ff848
True
Milan
236
In what city was Tony Chebatoris born?
5ad3f096604f3c001a3ff849
True
2004
459
In what year was there a successful Michigan constitutional amendment to allow the death penalty?
5ad3f096604f3c001a3ff84a
True
4
270
What article of the fourth Michigan Constitution forbids laws disallowing capital punishment?
5ad3f096604f3c001a3ff84b
True
Several states have never had capital punishment, the first being Michigan, which abolished it shortly after entering the Union. (However, the United States government executed Tony Chebatoris at the Federal Correctional Institution in Milan, Michigan in 1938.) Article 4, Section 46 of Michigan's fourth Constitution (ratified in 1963; effective in 1964) prohibits any law providing for the penalty of death. Attempts to change the provision have failed. In 2004, a constitutional amendment proposed to allow capital punishment in some circumstances failed to make it on the November ballot after a resolution failed in the legislature and a public initiative failed to gather enough signatures.
Under what federal statute are offenses punished by lethal injection?
5710088bb654c5140001f76b
Drug Kingpin Act of 1988
322
False
According to what law are federal prisoners executed according to the procedures in place in the state in which they were convicted?
5710088bb654c5140001f76c
Violent Crime Control and Law Enforcement Act of 1994
68
False
In what state is the Federal Correctional Complex in Terre Haute?
5710088bb654c5140001f76d
Indiana
442
False
In what month and year was Juan Garza executed?
5710088bb654c5140001f76e
June 2001
747
False
Who was executed by the federal government on March 18, 2003?
5710088bb654c5140001f76f
Louis Jones, Jr.
762
False
Drug Kingpin Act of 1988
322
Under what federal statute are offenses not punished by lethal injection?
5ad3f9bc604f3c001a3ffad7
True
Violent Crime Control and Law Enforcement Act of 1994
68
According to what law are federal prisoners executed according to the procedures in place in the state in which they were freed?
5ad3f9bc604f3c001a3ffad8
True
Indiana
442
In what state is the Federal Correctional Complex in Tennessee?
5ad3f9bc604f3c001a3ffad9
True
June 2001
747
In what month and year was Juan Garza freed?
5ad3f9bc604f3c001a3ffada
True
Louis Jones, Jr
762
Who was executed by the federal government on March 18, 2001?
5ad3f9bc604f3c001a3ffadb
True
The method of execution of federal prisoners for offenses under the Violent Crime Control and Law Enforcement Act of 1994 is that of the state in which the conviction took place. If the state has no death penalty, the judge must choose a state with the death penalty for carrying out the execution. For offenses under the Drug Kingpin Act of 1988, the method of execution is lethal injection. The Federal Correctional Complex in Terre Haute, Indiana is currently the home of the only death chamber for federal death penalty recipients in the United States, where inmates are put to death by lethal injection. The complex has so far been the only location used for federal executions post-Gregg. Timothy McVeigh and Juan Garza were put to death in June 2001, and Louis Jones, Jr. was put to death on March 18, 2003.
In what year did the American Law Institute create a death penalty framework for the Model Penal Code?
571008eab654c5140001f775
1962
121
False
In what year did the American Law Institute change their mind about their contribution on the death penalty to the Model Penal Code?
571008eab654c5140001f776
2009
11
False
What goal did the ALI's study say could not be reconciled with the goal of individualized execution decisions?
571008eab654c5140001f777
systemic fairness for minorities
476
False
1962
121
In what year did the American Law Institute create a non-death penalty framework for the Model Penal Code?
5ad3fac8604f3c001a3ffb25
True
2009
11
In what year did the American Law Institute change their mind about their contribution on the non-death penalty to the Model Penal Code?
5ad3fac8604f3c001a3ffb26
True
systemic fairness
476
What goal did the ALI's study say could be reconciled with the goal of individualized execution decisions?
5ad3fac8604f3c001a3ffb27
True
In October 2009, the American Law Institute voted to disavow the framework for capital punishment that it had created in 1962, as part of the Model Penal Code, "in light of the current intractable institutional and structural obstacles to ensuring a minimally adequate system for administering capital punishment." A study commissioned by the institute had said that experience had proved that the goal of individualized decisions about who should be executed and the goal of systemic fairness for minorities and others could not be reconciled.
In what year was Coker v. Georgia decided?
57100a7fb654c5140001f78f
1977
3
False
For what offense did Coker v. Georgia forbid the death penalty?
57100a7fb654c5140001f790
rape of an adult woman
84
False
Along with Georgia, what American jurisdiction allowed people to be executed for the rape of an adult prior to Coker?
57100a7fb654c5140001f791
U.S. Federal government
395
False
What ruling forbid the government from executing child rapists?
57100a7fb654c5140001f792
Kennedy v. Louisiana
670
False
Prior to Kennedy v. Louisiana, how many states criminalized child rape?
57100a7fb654c5140001f793
three
512
False
1977
3
In what year was Coker v. Georgia not decided?
5ad3f382604f3c001a3ff907
True
rape of an adult woman
84
For what offense did Coker v. Georgia allow the death penalty?
5ad3f382604f3c001a3ff908
True
U.S. Federal government
395
Along with Kentucky, what American jurisdiction allowed people to be executed for the rape of an adult prior to Coker?
5ad3f382604f3c001a3ff909
True
Kennedy v. Louisiana
670
What ruling allowed the government from executing child rapists?
5ad3f382604f3c001a3ff90a
True
In 1977, the Supreme Court's Coker v. Georgia decision barred the death penalty for rape of an adult woman, and implied that the death penalty was inappropriate for any offense against another person other than murder. Prior to the decision, the death penalty for rape of an adult had been gradually phased out in the United States, and at the time of the decision, the State of Georgia and the U.S. Federal government were the only two jurisdictions to still retain the death penalty for that offense. However, three states maintained the death penalty for child rape, as the Coker decision only imposed a ban on executions for the rape of an adult woman. In 2008, the Kennedy v. Louisiana decision barred the death penalty for child rape. The result of these two decisions means that the death penalty in the United States is largely restricted to cases where the defendant took the life of another human being. The current federal kidnapping statute, however, may be exempt because the death penalty applies if the victim dies in the perpetrator's custody, not necessarily by his hand, thus stipulating a resulting death, which was the wording of the objection. In addition, the Federal government retains the death penalty for non-murder offenses that are considered crimes against the state, including treason, espionage, and crimes under military jurisdiction.
In what year was Nebraska's death penalty statute ruled unconstitutional by a state court?
57100c99a58dae1900cd6810
2008
43
False
What state's court ruled capital punishment unconstitutional in 1984?
57100c99a58dae1900cd6811
Massachusetts
82
False
In what case did the Kansas Supreme Court rule that the death penalty is unconstitutional in Kansas?
57100c99a58dae1900cd6812
State v. Kleypas
320
False
What method of execution did the Nebraska Supreme Court rule unconstitutional?
57100c99a58dae1900cd6813
electrocution
578
False
After electrocution was outlawed, how were Nebraska death row inmates executed?
57100c99a58dae1900cd6814
lethal injection
724
False
2008
43
In what year was Kansas' death penalty statute ruled unconstitutional by a state court?
5ad3f25f604f3c001a3ff8b1
True
Massachusetts
195
What state's court ruled capital punishment unconstitutional in 1884?
5ad3f25f604f3c001a3ff8b2
True
State v. Kleypas
320
In what case did the Arkansas Supreme Court rule that the death penalty is unconstitutional in Arkansas?
5ad3f25f604f3c001a3ff8b3
True
electrocution
578
What method of execution did the Nebraska Supreme Court rule constitutional?
5ad3f25f604f3c001a3ff8b4
True
Four states in the modern era, Nebraska in 2008, New York and Kansas in 2004, and Massachusetts in 1984, had their statutes ruled unconstitutional by state courts. The death rows of New York and Massachusetts were disestablished, and attempts to restore the death penalty were unsuccessful. Kansas successfully appealed State v. Kleypas, the Kansas Supreme Court decision that declared the state's death penalty statute unconstitutional, to the United States Supreme Court. Nebraska's death penalty statute was rendered ineffective on February 8, 2008 when the required method, electrocution, was ruled unconstitutional by the Nebraska Supreme Court. In 2009, Nebraska enacted a bill that changed its method of execution to lethal injection.
What death penalty drug ceased to be manufactured in 2011?
57100ee5a58dae1900cd6836
sodium thiopental
193
False
Up until 2011, who manufactured sodium thiopental?
57100ee5a58dae1900cd6837
Hospira
154
False
What is the nationality of the company that makes pentobarbital?
57100ee5a58dae1900cd6838
Danish
577
False
Along with anti-death penalty advocacy, why has there been a shortage in drugs for lethal injections in the United States?
57100ee5a58dae1900cd6839
low production volume
131
False
The EU outlawed the export of products that could be used in what activity?
57100ee5a58dae1900cd683a
execution
328
False
sodium thiopental
193
What death penalty drug started to be manufactured in 2011?
5ad3fa8f604f3c001a3ffb11
True
Hospira
154
Up until 2015, who manufactured sodium thiopental?
5ad3fa8f604f3c001a3ffb12
True
Danish producer
577
What is the mission statement of the company that makes pentobarbital?
5ad3fa8f604f3c001a3ffb13
True
low production volume
131
Along with anti-death penalty advocacy, why has there been a shortage in drugs for lethal injections outside of the United States?
5ad3fa8f604f3c001a3ffb14
True
executioners
358
The EU outlawed the export of products that could never be used in what activity?
5ad3fa8f604f3c001a3ffb15
True
In the 2010s, American jurisdictions have experienced a shortage of lethal injection drugs, due to anti-death penalty advocacy and low production volume. Hospira, the only U.S. manufacturer of sodium thiopental, stopped making the drug in 2011. The European Union has outlawed the export of any product that could be used in an execution; this has prevented executioners from using EU-manufactured anesthetics like propofol which are needed for general medical purposes. Another alternative, pentobarbital, is also only manufactured in the European Union, which has caused the Danish producer to restrict distribution to U.S. government customers.
In what year did the most polled American support capital punishment?
57100f64a58dae1900cd6840
1994
644
False
What percentage of polled Americans opposed the death penalty in 1966?
57100f64a58dae1900cd6841
47
719
False
In a 1977 poll, what percentage of respondents preferred life imprisonment to the death penalty?
57100f64a58dae1900cd6842
29
873
False
In a 2006 poll, what percentage of polled Americans preferred the death penalty to life without parole?
57100f64a58dae1900cd6843
47
952
False
1994
644
In what year did the least polled American support capital punishment?
5ad3fb9b604f3c001a3ffb63
True
47
719
What percentage of polled Americans opposed the death penalty in 1916?
5ad3fb9b604f3c001a3ffb64
True
29
873
In a 1977 poll, what percentage of respondents rejected life imprisonment to the death penalty?
5ad3fb9b604f3c001a3ffb65
True
47
952
In a 2006 poll, what percentage of polled Americans rejected the death penalty to life without parole?
5ad3fb9b604f3c001a3ffb66
True
As noted in the introduction to this article, the American public has maintained its position of support for capital punishment for murder. However, when given a choice between the death penalty and life imprisonment without parole, support has traditionally been significantly lower than polling which has only mentioned the death penalty as a punishment. In 2010, for instance, one poll showed 49 percent favoring the death penalty and 46 percent favoring life imprisonment while in another 61% said they preferred another punishment to the death penalty. The highest level of support for the death penalty recorded overall was 80 percent in 1994 (16 percent opposed), and the lowest recorded was 42 percent in 1966 (47 percent opposed). On the question of the death penalty vs. life without parole, the strongest preference for the death penalty was 61 percent in 1997 (29 percent favoring life), and the lowest preference for the death penalty was 47 percent in 2006 (48 percent favoring life).
What is a notable capital crime in Louisiana?
57101004b654c5140001f799
aggravated rape
240
False
In what state is extortionate kidnapping a capital offense?
57101004b654c5140001f79a
Oklahoma
320
False
Along with Alabama, where is hijacking an aircraft a death penalty offense?
57101004b654c5140001f79b
Mississippi
434
False
In what state is armed robbery a capital crime?
57101004b654c5140001f79c
Georgia
514
False
In what states is perjury leading to death a capital offense?
57101004b654c5140001f79d
California, Colorado, Idaho and Nebraska
677
False
aggravated rape
240
What is a notable capital crime in Missouri?
5ad3f536604f3c001a3ff97b
True
Oklahoma
320
In what state is extortionate kidnapping not a capital offense?
5ad3f536604f3c001a3ff97c
True
Mississippi
434
Along with Alabama, where is hijacking an aircraft not a death penalty offense?
5ad3f536604f3c001a3ff97d
True
Georgia
355
In what state is armed robbery not a capital crime?
5ad3f536604f3c001a3ff97e
True
California, Colorado, Idaho and Nebraska
677
In what states is perjury leading to death not a capital offense?
5ad3f536604f3c001a3ff97f
True
Other capital crimes include: the use of a weapon of mass destruction resulting in death, espionage, terrorism, certain violations of the Geneva Conventions that result in the death of one or more persons, and treason at the federal level; aggravated rape in Louisiana, Florida, and Oklahoma; extortionate kidnapping in Oklahoma; aggravated kidnapping in Georgia, Idaho, Kentucky and South Carolina; aircraft hijacking in Alabama and Mississippi; assault by an escaping capital felon in Colorado; armed robbery in Georgia; drug trafficking resulting in a person's death in Florida; train wrecking which leads to a person's death, and perjury which leads to a person's death in California, Colorado, Idaho and Nebraska.
Along with Marshall, who believed that the Eighth Amendment forbade the death penalty?
571010b6a58dae1900cd6852
William J. Brennan, Jr.
709
False
Along with Stewart, what Supreme Court justice was concerned about racial disparity in death penalty enforcement?
571010b6a58dae1900cd6853
William O. Douglas
584
False
Aside from Stewart, what justice believed that the death penalty could be constitutional?
571010b6a58dae1900cd6854
Byron White
352
False
William J. Brennan, Jr
709
Along with Marshall, who believed that the Ninth Amendment forbade the death penalty?
5ad3f2f4604f3c001a3ff8d5
True
William O. Douglas
584
Along with Stewart, what Supreme Court justice was unconcerned about racial disparity in death penalty enforcement?
5ad3f2f4604f3c001a3ff8d6
True
Byron White
352
Aside from Stewart, what justice believed that the death penalty could be unconstitutional?
5ad3f2f4604f3c001a3ff8d7
True
In a five-to-four decision, the Supreme Court struck down the impositions of the death penalty in each of the consolidated cases as unconstitutional. The five justices in the majority did not produce a common opinion or rationale for their decision, however, and agreed only on a short statement announcing the result. The narrowest opinions, those of Byron White and Potter Stewart, expressed generalized concerns about the inconsistent application of the death penalty across a variety of cases but did not exclude the possibility of a constitutional death penalty law. Stewart and William O. Douglas worried explicitly about racial discrimination in enforcement of the death penalty. Thurgood Marshall and William J. Brennan, Jr. expressed the opinion that the death penalty was proscribed absolutely by the Eighth Amendment as "cruel and unusual" punishment.
Between 1973 and 2015, how amny prisoners were acquitted or received pardons or commutations of their death sentences due to possible innocence?
57101113a58dae1900cd6858
156
10
False
156
10
Between 1973 and 2015, how many prisoners were acquitted or received pardons or commutations of their death sentences due to possible guilt?
5ad3fb07604f3c001a3ffb39
True
prisoners have been either acquitted, or received pardons or commutations on the basis of possible innocence, between 1973 to 2015
14
What happened in 2016?
5ad3fb07604f3c001a3ffb3a
True
prisoners have been either acquitted, or received pardons or commutations on the basis of possible innocence, between 1973 to 2015
14
What happened in 1970?
5ad3fb07604f3c001a3ffb3b
True
Death penalty opponents
146
Who supported this statistic?
5ad3fb07604f3c001a3ffb3c
True
In total, 156 prisoners have been either acquitted, or received pardons or commutations on the basis of possible innocence, between 1973 to 2015. Death penalty opponents often argue that this statistic shows how perilously close states have come to undertaking wrongful executions; proponents point out that the statistic refers only to those exonerated in law, and that the truly innocent may be a smaller number. Statistics likely understate the actual problem of wrongful convictions because once an execution has occurred there is often insufficient motivation and finance to keep a case open, and it becomes unlikely at that point that the miscarriage of justice will ever be exposed.
What percentage of murderers in the United States are given a death sentence?
57101180b654c5140001f7ad
2.5
167
False
How many murderers in Nevada were given a capital sentence?
57101180b654c5140001f7ae
6
260
False
What state notably executes 40% of those given the death penalty?
57101180b654c5140001f7af
Texas
384
False
What percentage of murderers in California are given the death penalty and subsequently executed?
57101180b654c5140001f7b0
1
530
False
How much higher is the rate of execution in Texas versus the national average?
57101180b654c5140001f7b1
four times
456
False
2.5
167
What percentage of murderers in the United States aren't given a death sentence?
5ad3fcf2604f3c001a3ffbc1
True
6 percent
260
How many murderers in Nevada weren't given a capital sentence?
5ad3fcf2604f3c001a3ffbc2
True
Texas
384
What state notably executes 80% of those given the death penalty?
5ad3fcf2604f3c001a3ffbc3
True
1
530
What percentage of murderers in California are given the death penalty and subsequently freed?
5ad3fcf2604f3c001a3ffbc4
True
four times
456
How much higher is the rate of execution in Texas versus the international average?
5ad3fcf2604f3c001a3ffbc5
True
The death penalty is sought and applied more often in some jurisdictions, not only between states but within states. A 2004 Cornell University study showed that while 2.5 percent of murderers convicted nationwide were sentenced to the death penalty, in Nevada 6 percent were given the death penalty. Texas gave 2 percent of murderers a death sentence, less than the national average. Texas, however, executed 40 percent of those sentenced, which was about four times higher than the national average. California had executed only 1 percent of those sentenced.
Under the Drug Kingpin Act of 1988 and Federal Death Penalty Act of 1994, about how many crimes were punishable by death?
57101271b654c5140001f7b7
fifty
150
False
What body passed the Drug Kingpin Act of 1988?
57101271b654c5140001f7b8
Congress
0
False
What is another term for the act of spying for another country?
57101271b654c5140001f7b9
espionage
299
False
Along with treason and espionage, what non-death offense is still a federal capital crime?
57101271b654c5140001f7ba
high-level drug trafficking
343
False
fifty
150
Under the Drug Kingpin Act of 1998 and Federal Death Penalty Act of 1994, about how many crimes were punishable by death?
5ad3f5af604f3c001a3ff9a3
True
Congress
0
What body failed the Drug Kingpin Act of 1988?
5ad3f5af604f3c001a3ff9a4
True
espionage
299
What is another term for the act of spying on another country?
5ad3f5af604f3c001a3ff9a5
True
high-level drug trafficking
343
Along with treason and espionage, what death offense is still a federal capital crime?
5ad3f5af604f3c001a3ff9a6
True
Congress acted defiantly toward the Supreme Court by passing the Drug Kingpin Act of 1988 and the Federal Death Penalty Act of 1994 that made roughly fifty crimes punishable by death, including crimes that do not always involve the death of someone. Such non-death capital offenses include treason, espionage (spying for another country), and high-level drug trafficking. Since no one has yet been sentenced to death for such non-death capital offenses, the Supreme Court has not ruled on their constitutionality.
Who was executed on January 17, 1977?
571012cbb654c5140001f7bf
Gary Gilmore
45
False
By what method was Gary Gilmore executed?
571012cbb654c5140001f7c0
firing squad
72
False
Aside from Gary Gilmore, how many people were executed in the United States between January 17, 1977 and 1984?
571012cbb654c5140001f7c2
ten
407
False
What tactic did inmates on death row use to delay their executions?
571012cbb654c5140001f7c3
filing repeated writs of habeas corpus
174
False
Gary Gilmore
45
Who was pardoned on January 17, 1977?
5ad3f442604f3c001a3ff935
True
firing squad
72
By what method was Gary Gilmore let go free?
5ad3f442604f3c001a3ff936
True
ten
407
Aside from Gary Gilmore, how many people were executed in the United States between January 17, 1987 and 1987?
5ad3f442604f3c001a3ff937
True
filing repeated writs of habeas corpus
174
What tactic did inmates on death row use to delay their release?
5ad3f442604f3c001a3ff938
True
Executions resumed on January 17, 1977, when Gary Gilmore went before a firing squad in Utah. But the pace was quite slow due to the use of litigation tactics which involved filing repeated writs of habeas corpus, which succeeded for many in delaying their actual execution for many years. Although hundreds of individuals were sentenced to death in the United States during the 1970s and early 1980s, only ten people besides Gilmore (who had waived all of his appeal rights) were actually executed prior to 1984.
In what month and year was Troy Davis executed?
57101818a58dae1900cd6880
September 2011
10
False
Who was the Death Penalty Information Center director?
57101818a58dae1900cd6881
Richard Dieter
83
False
What organization did Brian Evans work for?
57101818a58dae1900cd6882
Amnesty International
515
False
September 2011
10
In what month and year was Troy Davis born?
5ad3fbc1604f3c001a3ffb75
True
Richard Dieter
83
Who was the Death Penalty Information Center secretary?
5ad3fbc1604f3c001a3ffb76
True
Amnesty International
515
What organization did Brian Evans reject working for?
5ad3fbc1604f3c001a3ffb77
True
After the September 2011 execution of Troy Davis, believed by many to be innocent, Richard Dieter, the director of the Death Penalty Information Center, said this case was a clear wake-up call to politicians across the United States. He said: "They weren't expecting such passion from people in opposition to the death penalty. There's a widely held perception that all Americans are united in favor of executions, but this message came across loud and clear that many people are not happy with it." Brian Evans of Amnesty International, which led the campaign to spare Davis's life, said that there was a groundswell in America of people "who are tired of a justice system that is inhumane and inflexible and allows executions where there is clear doubts about guilt". He predicted the debate would now be conducted with renewed energy.
How many execution methods are currently used in the United States?
57101911b654c5140001f7dd
five
102
False
What was the most common historical method of execution in the United States?
57101911b654c5140001f7de
hanging
253
False
In what state did the last burning at the stake take place in the US?
57101911b654c5140001f7df
South Carolina
346
False
Who was the last person hanged in chains in the Untied States?
57101911b654c5140001f7e0
John Marshall
437
False
When was execution by beheading ended in Utah?
57101911b654c5140001f7e1
1888
545
False
five
102
How many execution methods are currently outlawed in the United States?
5ad3f90f604f3c001a3ffa9b
True
hanging
253
What was the least common historical method of execution in the United States?
5ad3f90f604f3c001a3ffa9c
True
South Carolina
346
In what state did the first burning at the stake take place in the US?
5ad3f90f604f3c001a3ffa9d
True
John Marshall
437
Who was the first person hanged in chains in the Untied States?
5ad3f90f604f3c001a3ffa9e
True
1888
545
When was execution by beheading started in Utah?
5ad3f90f604f3c001a3ffa9f
True
Various methods have been used in the history of the American colonies and the United States but only five methods are currently used. Historically, burning, crushing, breaking on wheel, and bludgeoning were used for a small number of executions, while hanging was the most common method. The last person burned at the stake was a black slave in South Carolina in August 1825. The last person to be hanged in chains was a murderer named John Marshall in West Virginia on April 4, 1913. Although beheading was a legal method in Utah from 1851 to 1888, it was never used.
What percentage of American death row prisoners are African American?
57101978b654c5140001f7e7
41
26
False
What percentage of people executed in the United States since 1976 have been African American?
57101978b654c5140001f7e8
34
138
False
What percentage of American prison inmates are African American?
57101978b654c5140001f7e9
47
257
False
What percentage of homicides were committed by Asians between 1980 and 2008?
57101978b654c5140001f7ea
2.2%
441
False
What percentage of the American population is Hispanic?
57101978b654c5140001f7eb
17.4%
840
False
41
26
What percentage of American death row prisoners are South American
5ad3fd32604f3c001a3ffbd5
True
34
138
What percentage of people executed in the United States since 1976 have been South American?
5ad3fd32604f3c001a3ffbd6
True
47
257
What percentage of American prison inmates are South American?
5ad3fd32604f3c001a3ffbd7
True
2.2%
441
What percentage of homicides were committed by Canadians between 1980 and 2008?
5ad3fd32604f3c001a3ffbd8
True
17.4%
840
What percentage of the Canadian population is Hispanic?
5ad3fd32604f3c001a3ffbd9
True
African Americans made up 41 percent of death row inmates while making up only 12.6 percent of the general population. (They have made up 34 percent of those actually executed since 1976.) However, that number is lower than that of prison inmates, which is 47 percent. According to the US Department of Justice, African Americans accounted for 52.5% of homicide offenders from 1980 to 2008, with whites 45.3% and Native Americans and Asians 2.2%. This means African Americans are less likely to be executed on a per capita basis. However, according to a 2003 Amnesty International report, blacks and whites were the victims of murder in almost equal numbers, yet 80 percent of the people executed since 1977 were convicted of murders involving white victims. 13.5% of death row inmates are of Hispanic or Latino descent, while they make up 17.4% of the general population.
In the United States, how many important steps are usually present in the administration of capital punishment?
571019eab654c5140001f7f1
four
102
False
Along with the President, what officeholder can issue pardons?
571019eab654c5140001f7f2
Governor
379
False
How many death sentences were issued in the period 1995-1996?
571019eab654c5140001f7f3
309
589
False
How many capital sentences were given in 1973?
571019eab654c5140001f7f4
44
680
False
In what year were there 73 death penalty convictions?
571019eab654c5140001f7f5
2014
644
False
four
102
In the United States, how many important steps are never present in the administration of capital punishment?
5ad3f5e0604f3c001a3ff9bb
True
Governor
379
Along with the President, what officeholder can't issue pardons?
5ad3f5e0604f3c001a3ff9bc
True
309
589
How many death sentences were rejected in the period 1995-1996?
5ad3f5e0604f3c001a3ff9bd
True
44
680
How many capital sentences were rejected in 1973?
5ad3f5e0604f3c001a3ff9be
True
2014
644
In what year were there 73 death penalty convictions overturned?
5ad3f5e0604f3c001a3ff9bf
True
The legal administration of the death penalty in the United States is complex. Typically, it involves four critical steps: (1) sentencing, (2) direct review, (3) state collateral review, and (4) federal habeas corpus. Recently, a narrow and final fifth level of process – (5) the Section 1983 challenge – has become increasingly important. (Clemency or pardon, through which the Governor or President of the jurisdiction can unilaterally reduce or abrogate a death sentence, is an executive rather than judicial process.) The number of new death sentences handed down peaked in 1995–1996 (309). There were 73 new death sentences handed down in 2014, the lowest number since 1973 (44).
Where was Bethea hanged?
571020f7b654c5140001f81d
Owensboro
81
False
On what date was Fred Adams hanged?
571020f7b654c5140001f81e
April 2, 1937
207
False
In what state did the hanging of Adams take place?
571020f7b654c5140001f81f
Missouri
194
False
What was Roscoe Jackson's nickname?
571020f7b654c5140001f820
Red
270
False
How many people witnessed Timothy McVeigh's execution?
571020f7b654c5140001f821
300
786
False
Owensboro
81
Where was Bethea freed?
5ad3fde7604f3c001a3ffc07
True
April 2, 1937
207
On what date was Fred Adams freed?
5ad3fde7604f3c001a3ffc08
True
Missouri
323
In what state did the freedom of Adams take place?
5ad3fde7604f3c001a3ffc09
True
May 26, 1937
336
What was Roscoe Jackson's birthdate?
5ad3fde7604f3c001a3ffc0a
True
300
786
How many people refused Timothy McVeigh's execution?
5ad3fde7604f3c001a3ffc0b
True
All of the executions which have taken place since the 1936 hanging of Bethea in Owensboro have been conducted within a wall or enclosure. For example, Fred Adams was legally hanged in Kennett, Missouri, on April 2, 1937, within a 10-foot (3 m) wooden stockade. Roscoe "Red" Jackson was hanged within a stockade in Galena, Missouri, on May 26, 1937. Two Kentucky hangings were conducted after Galena in which numerous persons were present within a wooden stockade, that of John "Peter" Montjoy in Covington, Kentucky on December 17, 1937, and that of Harold Van Venison in Covington on June 3, 1938. An estimated 400 witnesses were present for the hanging of Lee Simpson in Ryegate, Montana, on December 30, 1939. The execution of Timothy McVeigh on June 11, 2001 was witnessed by some 300 people, some by closed-circuit television.
What institution does James Liebman work for?
5710218bb654c5140001f827
Columbia Law School
37
False
What does James Liebman teach?
5710218bb654c5140001f828
law
30
False
According to Liebman, about what percentage of death penalty habeas corpus petitions were successful between 1978 and 1995?
5710218bb654c5140001f829
40
223
False
According to Tabak, what percentage of habeas corpus petitions were granted to death row inmates between 1976 and 1991?
5710218bb654c5140001f82a
47
484
False
In what year did Liebman announce his findings?
5710218bb654c5140001f82b
1996
68
False
Columbia Law School
37
What institution did James Liebman get fired from?
5ad3f79b604f3c001a3ffa29
True
Law
46
What does James Liebman reject?
5ad3f79b604f3c001a3ffa2a
True
40
223
According to Liebman, about what percentage of death penalty habeas corpus petitions were successful between 1988 and 1999?
5ad3f79b604f3c001a3ffa2b
True
47
484
According to Tabak, what percentage of habeas corpus petitions were granted to death row inmates between 1978 and 1993
5ad3f79b604f3c001a3ffa2c
True
1996
68
In what year did Liebman reject his findings?
5ad3f79b604f3c001a3ffa2d
True
James Liebman, a professor of law at Columbia Law School, stated in 1996 that his study found that when habeas corpus petitions in death penalty cases were traced from conviction to completion of the case that there was "a 40 percent success rate in all capital cases from 1978 to 1995." Similarly, a study by Ronald Tabak in a law review article puts the success rate in habeas corpus cases involving death row inmates even higher, finding that between "1976 and 1991, approximately 47 percent of the habeas petitions filed by death row inmates were granted." The different numbers are largely definitional, rather than substantive. Freedam's statistics looks at the percentage of all death penalty cases reversed, while the others look only at cases not reversed prior to habeas corpus review.
Who was executed on March 30, 1960?
571021d7a58dae1900cd68ce
James W. Rodgers
129
False
What method of execution was used on James W. Rodgers?
571021d7a58dae1900cd68cf
firing squad
20
False
In what state was Rodgers executed?
571021d7a58dae1900cd68d0
Utah
119
False
On what date was George York executed?
571021d7a58dae1900cd68d1
June 22, 1965
263
False
Which state executed James French?
571021d7a58dae1900cd68d2
Oklahoma
391
False
James W. Rodgers
129
Who was executed on March 30, 1990?
5ad3f93e604f3c001a3ffaa5
True
firing squad
20
What method of execution was not used on James W. Rodgers?
5ad3f93e604f3c001a3ffaa6
True
Utah
119
In what state was Rodgers born?
5ad3f93e604f3c001a3ffaa7
True
June 22, 1965
263
On what date was George York freed?
5ad3f93e604f3c001a3ffaa8
True
Oklahoma
391
Which state freed James French?
5ad3f93e604f3c001a3ffaa9
True
The last use of the firing squad between 1608 and the moratorium on judicial executions between 1967 and 1977 was when Utah shot James W. Rodgers on March 30, 1960. The last use of the gallows between 1608 and the moratorium was when Kansas hanged George York on June 22, 1965. The last use of the electric chair between the first electrocution on August 6, 1890 and the moratorium was when Oklahoma electrocuted James French on August 10, 1966. The last use of the gas chamber between the first gassing on February 8, 1924 and the moratorium was when Colorado gassed Luis Monge on June 2, 1967.
About how many American juveniles have been executed since 1642?
5710224aa58dae1900cd68d8
364
131
False
In what year was Thomas Graunger executed?
5710224aa58dae1900cd68d9
1642
320
False
Since 1976, how many Americans have been executed for crimes committed as juveniles?
5710224aa58dae1900cd68da
Twenty-two
326
False
How old was George Stinney when he was executed?
5710224aa58dae1900cd68db
14
643
False
What method was used to execute Leonard Shockley?
5710224aa58dae1900cd68dc
gas chamber
754
False
364
131
About how many American juveniles have been executed since 1842?
5ad3fc3c604f3c001a3ffb85
True
1642
6
In what year was Thomas Graunger freed?
5ad3fc3c604f3c001a3ffb86
True
Twenty-two
326
Since 1976, how many Americans have been executed for crimes committed as adults?
5ad3fc3c604f3c001a3ffb87
True
14
643
How old was George Stinney when he was freed?
5ad3fc3c604f3c001a3ffb88
True
gas chamber
754
What method was used to free Leonard Shockley?
5ad3fc3c604f3c001a3ffb89
True
Since 1642 (in the 13 colonies, the United States under the Articles of Confederation, and the current United States) an estimated 364 juvenile offenders have been put to death by the states and the federal government. The earliest known execution of a prisoner for crimes committed as a juvenile was Thomas Graunger in 1642. Twenty-two of the executions occurred after 1976, in seven states. Due to the slow process of appeals, it was highly unusual for a condemned person to be under 18 at the time of execution. The youngest person to be executed in the 20th century was George Stinney, who was electrocuted in South Carolina at the age of 14 on June 16, 1944. The last execution of a juvenile may have been Leonard Shockley, who died in the Maryland gas chamber on April 10, 1959, at the age of 17. No one has been under age 19 at time of execution since at least 1964. Since the reinstatement of the death penalty in 1976, 22 people have been executed for crimes committed under the age of 18. Twenty-one were 17 at the time of the crime. The last person to be executed for a crime committed as a juvenile was Scott Hain on April 3, 2003 in Oklahoma.
As of May 2014, what was Robert Patton's job title?
571022aba58dae1900cd68e2
Director of Corrections
22
False
What state employed Robert Patton in May 2014?
571022aba58dae1900cd68e3
Oklahoma
13
False
What race was Clayton Lockett?
571022aba58dae1900cd68e4
African-American
151
False
What was Clayton Lockett's cause of death?
571022aba58dae1900cd68e5
heart attack
405
False
What gas did Oklahoma decide to use for executions in 2015?
571022aba58dae1900cd68e6
nitrogen
515
False
Director of Corrections
22
As of May 2011, what was Robert Patton's job title?
5ad3fec3604f3c001a3ffc5f
True
Oklahoma
13
What state executed Robert Patton in May 2014?
5ad3fec3604f3c001a3ffc60
True
African-American
151
What religion was Clayton Lockett?
5ad3fec3604f3c001a3ffc61
True
heart attack
405
What was Clayton Lockett's crime?
5ad3fec3604f3c001a3ffc62
True
nitrogen
515
What gas did Oklahoma decide to use for freedoms in 2015?
5ad3fec3604f3c001a3ffc63
True
In May 2014, Oklahoma Director of Corrections, Robert Patton, recommended an indefinite hold on executions in the state after the botched execution of African-American Clayton Lockett. The prisoner had to be tasered to restrain him prior to the execution, and the lethal injection missed a vein in his groin, resulting in Lockett regaining consciousness, trying to get up, and to speak, before dying of a heart attack 43 minutes later, after the attempted execution had been called off. In 2015, the state approved nitrogen asphyxiation as a method of execution.
Along with gender, geography and race, what bias do some opponents of the death penalty see in its administration?
57102369a58dae1900cd68f6
socio-economic
395
False
According to opponents of the death penalty, what does the death penalty cheapen?
57102369a58dae1900cd68f7
human life
168
False
According to death penalty opponents, on whose moral level does execution place the government?
57102369a58dae1900cd68f8
criminals involved in murder
240
False
What do death penalty opponents argue that capital punishment isn't effective at doing?
57102369a58dae1900cd68f9
deterring crime
68
False
Who do death penalty opponents believe may sometimes be executed?
57102369a58dae1900cd68fa
the innocent
108
False
socio-economic
395
Along with gender, geography and race, what bias do some people who agree with the death penalty see in its administration?
5ad3fb5d604f3c001a3ffb4b
True
human life
168
According to opponents of the death penalty, what does the death penalty strengthen?
5ad3fb5d604f3c001a3ffb4c
True
criminals involved in murder
240
According to death penalty supporters, on whose moral level does execution place the government?
5ad3fb5d604f3c001a3ffb4d
True
deterring crime
68
What do death penalty opponents argue that capital punishment is effective at doing?
5ad3fb5d604f3c001a3ffb4e
True
innocent
112
Who do death penalty opponents believe will never be executed?
5ad3fb5d604f3c001a3ffb4f
True
Opponents argue that the death penalty is not an effective means of deterring crime, risks the execution of the innocent, is unnecessarily barbaric in nature, cheapens human life, and puts a government on the same base moral level as those criminals involved in murder. Furthermore, some opponents argue that the arbitrariness with which it is administered and the systemic influence of racial, socio-economic, geographic, and gender bias on determinations of desert make the current practice of capital punishment immoral and illegitimate.
According to Thompson v. Oklahoma, what was the youngest age at which a person might be executed?
571023c2a58dae1900cd6900
Sixteen
0
False
In what year was Thompson v. Oklahoma decided?
571023c2a58dae1900cd6901
1988
58
False
In what month and year was Roper v. Simmons decided?
571023c2a58dae1900cd6902
March 2005
163
False
In Roper v. Simmons, how many Supreme Court justices believed juvenile execution to be unconstitutional?
571023c2a58dae1900cd6903
5
239
False
Based on Roper v. Simmons, what is now the minimum age to be executed in the United States?
571023c2a58dae1900cd6904
18
302
False
Sixteen
0
According to Thompson v. Oklahoma, what was the oldest age at which a person might be executed?
5ad3fc7c604f3c001a3ffba1
True
1988
58
In what year was Thompson v. Oklahoma postponed?
5ad3fc7c604f3c001a3ffba2
True
March 2005
163
In what month and year was Roper v. Simmons postponed?
5ad3fc7c604f3c001a3ffba3
True
5
239
In Roper v. Simmons, how many Supreme Court justices believed juvenile execution to be constitutional?
5ad3fc7c604f3c001a3ffba4
True
18
302
Based on Roper v. Simmons, what is now the maximum age to be executed in the United States?
5ad3fc7c604f3c001a3ffba5
True
Sixteen was held to be the minimum permissible age in the 1988 Supreme Court decision of Thompson v. Oklahoma. The Court, considering the case Roper v. Simmons in March 2005, found the execution of juvenile offenders unconstitutional by a 5–4 margin, effectively raising the minimum permissible age to 18. State laws have not been updated to conform with this decision. In the American legal system, unconstitutional laws do not need to be repealed; instead, they are held to be unenforceable. (See also List of juvenile offenders executed in the United States)
In what year did Missouri pass a law stating that executions should be inside of or near a jail?
57102438b654c5140001f84f
1919
239
False
What procedure did Missouri use to execute prisoners in 1919?
57102438b654c5140001f850
hanging
594
False
In the Missouri of 1919, who handed out passes to witness executions?
57102438b654c5140001f851
the local sheriff
479
False
In approximately what year did a movement in favor of private executions begin in the US?
57102438b654c5140001f852
1890
7
False
1919
239
In what year did Missouri pass a law stating that executions should be outside of a jail?
5ad3fd67604f3c001a3ffbdf
True
hanging
594
What procedure did Missouri use to free prisoners in 1919?
5ad3fd67604f3c001a3ffbe0
True
local sheriff
483
In the Missouri of 1959, who handed out passes to witness executions?
5ad3fd67604f3c001a3ffbe1
True
1890
7
In approximately what year did a movement in favor of public executions begin in the US?
5ad3fd67604f3c001a3ffbe2
True
Around 1890, a political movement developed in the United States to mandate private executions. Several states enacted laws which required executions to be conducted within a "wall" or "enclosure" to "exclude public view." For example, in 1919, the Missouri legislature adopted a statute (L.1919, p. 781) which required, "the sentence of death should be executed within the county jail, if convenient, and otherwise within an enclosure near the jail." The Missouri law permitted the local sheriff to distribute passes to individuals (usually local citizens) whom he believed should witness the hanging, but the sheriffs – for various reasons – sometimes denied passes to individuals who wanted to watch. Missouri executions conducted after 1919 were not "public" because they were conducted behind closed walls, and the general public was not permitted to attend.
Who commuted all state capital sentences in 1986?
57102482b654c5140001f857
Toney Anaya
85
False
Of what state was Toney Anaya governor?
57102482b654c5140001f858
New Mexico
59
False
Who was Governor of Ohio in 1991?
57102482b654c5140001f859
Dick Celeste
215
False
How many women were on Ohio's death row in 1991?
57102482b654c5140001f85a
four
286
False
In what year did Bob Graham become Governor of Florida?
57102482b654c5140001f85b
1979
349
False
Toney Anaya
85
Who commuted all state capital sentences in 1936?
5ad3fe16604f3c001a3ffc21
True
New Mexico
59
Of what state was Toney Anaya senator?
5ad3fe16604f3c001a3ffc22
True
Dick Celeste
215
Who was Governor of Nebraska in 1991?
5ad3fe16604f3c001a3ffc23
True
four
286
How many men were on Ohio's death row in 1991?
5ad3fe16604f3c001a3ffc24
True
1979
349
In what year did Bob Graham become Senator of Florida?
5ad3fe16604f3c001a3ffc25
True
Previous post-Furman mass clemencies took place in 1986 in New Mexico, when Governor Toney Anaya commuted all death sentences because of his personal opposition to the death penalty. In 1991, outgoing Ohio Governor Dick Celeste commuted the sentences of eight prisoners, among them all four women on the state's death row. And during his two terms (1979–1987) as Florida's Governor, Bob Graham, although a strong death penalty supporter who had overseen the first post-Furman involuntary execution as well as 15 others, agreed to commute the sentences of six people on the grounds of "possible innocence" or "disproportionality."
Along with South Dakota, what state rejected a death penalty abolition bill in 2010?
571024d8b654c5140001f861
Kansas
47
False
Who did Idaho execute in 2011?
571024d8b654c5140001f862
Paul Ezra Rhoades
257
False
Who was executed on October 30, 2012?
571024d8b654c5140001f863
Donald Moeller
298
False
Since 1976, how many prisoners has Nevada executed?
571024d8b654c5140001f864
12
422
False
Since 1976, in what year was a prisoner executed in Wyoming?
571024d8b654c5140001f865
1992
702
False
Kansas
47
Along with North Dakota, what state rejected a death penalty abolition bill in 2010?
5ad3fe50604f3c001a3ffc35
True
Paul Ezra Rhoades
257
Who did Idaho execute in 2013?
5ad3fe50604f3c001a3ffc36
True
Donald Moeller
298
Who was freed on October 30, 2012?
5ad3fe50604f3c001a3ffc37
True
1992
702
Since 1976, in what year was a prisoner freed in Wyoming?
5ad3fe50604f3c001a3ffc39
True
In 2010, bills to abolish the death penalty in Kansas and in South Dakota (which had a de facto moratorium at the time) were rejected. Idaho ended its de facto moratorium, during which only one volunteer had been executed, on November 18, 2011 by executing Paul Ezra Rhoades; South Dakota executed Donald Moeller on October 30, 2012, ending a de facto moratorium during which only two volunteers had been executed. Of the 12 prisoners whom Nevada has executed since 1976, 11 waived their rights to appeal. Kentucky and Montana have executed two prisoners against their will (KY: 1997 and 1999, MT: 1995 and 1998) and one volunteer, respectively (KY: 2008, MT: 2006). Colorado (in 1997) and Wyoming (in 1992) have executed only one prisoner, respectively.
How many drugs are used to administer lethal injection?
5710257ea58dae1900cd691a
three
56
False
What lethal injection drug is manufactured by Hospira?
5710257ea58dae1900cd691b
sodium thiopental
297
False
When did Hospira cease to manufacture its lethal injection drug for the United States?
5710257ea58dae1900cd691c
2011
381
False
In what country does Hospira manufacture sodium thiopental today?
5710257ea58dae1900cd691d
Italy
555
False
What EU law forbids products used in torture to be manufactured in the European Union?
5710257ea58dae1900cd691e
Torture Regulation
602
False
three
56
How many hours does it take to administer lethal injection?
5ad3fe7f604f3c001a3ffc3f
True
sodium thiopental
297
What lethal injection drug is not manufactured by Hospira?
5ad3fe7f604f3c001a3ffc40
True
2011
381
When did Hospira begin to manufacture its lethal injection drug for the United States?
5ad3fe7f604f3c001a3ffc41
True
Italy
555
In what state does Hospira manufacture sodium thiopental today?
5ad3fe7f604f3c001a3ffc42
True
Pharmaceutical companies whose products are used in the three-drug cocktails for lethal injections are predominantly European, and they have strenuously objected to the use of their drugs for executions and taken steps to prevent their use. For example, Hospira, the sole American manufacturer of sodium thiopental, the critical anesthetic in the three-drug cocktail, announced in 2011 that it would no longer manufacture the drug for the American market, in part for ethical reasons and in part because its transfer of sodium thiopental manufacturing to Italy would subject it to the European Union's Torture Regulation, which forbids the use of any product manufactured within the Union for torture (as execution by lethal injection is considered by the Regulation). Since the drug manufacturers began taking these steps and the EU regulation ended the importation of drugs produced in Europe, the resulting shortage of execution drugs has led to or influenced decisions to impose moratoria in Arkansas, California, Kentucky, Louisiana, Mississippi, Montana, Nevada, North Carolina, and Tennessee.
Pepperdine University
155
What University studied "Predictable Doom"?
5ad3f4f3604f3c001a3ff96d
True
22
832
How many cases are not special circumstances in California?
5ad3f4f3604f3c001a3ff96e
True
U.S. Department of Justice initiated with a 1995 protocol
1297
What happened in 1997?
5ad3f4f3604f3c001a3ff96f
True
In the decades since Furman, new questions have emerged about whether or not prosecutorial arbitrariness has replaced sentencing arbitrariness. A study by Pepperdine University School of Law published in Temple Law Review, "Unpredictable Doom and Lethal Injustice: An Argument for Greater Transparency in Death Penalty Decisions," surveyed the decision-making process among prosecutors in various states. The authors found that prosecutors' capital punishment filing decisions remain marked by local "idiosyncrasies," suggesting they are not in keeping with the spirit of the Supreme Court's directive. This means that "the very types of unfairness that the Supreme Court sought to eliminate" may still "infect capital cases." Wide prosecutorial discretion remains because of overly broad criteria. California law, for example, has 22 "special circumstances," making nearly all premeditated murders potential capital cases. The 32 death penalty states have varying numbers and types of "death qualifiers" – circumstances that allow for capital charges. The number varies from a high of 34 in California to 22 in Colorado and Delaware to 12 in Texas, Nebraska, Georgia and Montana. The study's authors call for reform of state procedures along the lines of reforms in the federal system, which the U.S. Department of Justice initiated with a 1995 protocol. Crimes subject to the death penalty vary by jurisdiction. All jurisdictions that use capital punishment designate the highest grade of murder a capital crime, although most jurisdictions require aggravating circumstances. Treason against the United States, as well as treason against the states of Arkansas, California, Georgia, Louisiana, Mississippi, and Missouri are capital offenses.
Age_of_Enlightenment
In what year did Louis XIV die?
57103d79b654c5140001f8bb
1715
64
False
In what year did the French Revolution begin?
57103d79b654c5140001f8bc
1789
104
False
In what decade did the scientific revolution begin?
57103d79b654c5140001f8bd
1620s
197
False
French historians traditionally place the Enlightenment between 1715, the year that Louis XIV died, and 1789, the beginning of the French Revolution. Some recent historians begin the period in the 1620s, with the start of the scientific revolution. The Philosophes, the French term for the philosophers of the period, widely circulated their ideas through meetings at scientific academies, Masonic lodges, literary salons and coffee houses, and through printed books and pamphlets. The ideas of the Enlightenment undermined the authority of the monarchy and the church, and paved the way for the revolutions of the 18th and 19th centuries. A variety of 19th-century movements, including liberalism and neo-classicism, trace their intellectual heritage back to the Enlightenment.
Which moral philosopher said "the greatest happiness for the greatest numbers"?
57103e53a58dae1900cd697a
Francis Hutcheson
0
False
Which two men were Francis Hutecheson's proteges?
57103e53a58dae1900cd697b
David Hume and Adam Smith
426
False
The nature of knowledge, evidence, experience, and causation together are called what?
57103e53a58dae1900cd697c
the scientific method
230
False
What type of philosopher was Francis Hutcheson?
57103e53a58dae1900cd697d
moral
21
False
In what areas of philosophy did Hume become a major figure?
57103e53a58dae1900cd697e
skeptical philosophical and empiricist traditions
487
False
Francis Hutcheson, a moral philosopher, described the utilitarian and consequentialist principle that virtue is that which provides, in his words, "the greatest happiness for the greatest numbers". Much of what is incorporated in the scientific method (the nature of knowledge, evidence, experience, and causation) and some modern attitudes towards the relationship between science and religion were developed by his protégés David Hume and Adam Smith. Hume became a major figure in the skeptical philosophical and empiricist traditions of philosophy.
Who wrote "Poem to the Memory of Newton?"
571040eca58dae1900cd6984
James Thomson
437
False
In what year did Newton die?
571040eca58dae1900cd6985
1727
384
False
Whose death in 1727 prompted poems to be written in his honour for decades?
571040eca58dae1900cd6986
Newton
366
False
Who wrote Creation, a Philosophical Poem in Seven Books?
571040eca58dae1900cd6987
Sir Richard Blackmore
241
False
In what year was Creation, a Philosophical Poem in Seven Books written?
571040eca58dae1900cd6988
1712
353
False
The influence of science also began appearing more commonly in poetry and literature during the Enlightenment. Some poetry became infused with scientific metaphor and imagery, while other poems were written directly about scientific topics. Sir Richard Blackmore committed the Newtonian system to verse in Creation, a Philosophical Poem in Seven Books (1712). After Newton's death in 1727, poems were composed in his honour for decades. James Thomson (1700–1748) penned his "Poem to the Memory of Newton," which mourned the loss of Newton, but also praised his science and legacy.
What did John Locke base his governance philosphy in?
571043a1a58dae1900cd698e
social contract theory
99
False
Which English philosopher wrote Leviathan in 1651?
571043a1a58dae1900cd698f
Thomas Hobbes
205
False
Who developed the view that all legitimate political power must be "representative?"
571043a1a58dae1900cd6990
Thomas Hobbes
205
False
Which of Hobbes' ideas led to the distinction between civil society and the state?
571043a1a58dae1900cd6991
the artificial character of the political order
417
False
John Locke, one of the most influential Enlightenment thinkers, based his governance philosophy in social contract theory, a subject that permeated Enlightenment political thought. The English philosopher Thomas Hobbes ushered in this new debate with his work Leviathan in 1651. Hobbes also developed some of the fundamentals of European liberal thought: the right of the individual; the natural equality of all men; the artificial character of the political order (which led to the later distinction between civil society and the state); the view that all legitimate political power must be "representative" and based on the consent of the people; and a liberal interpretation of law which leaves people free to do whatever the law does not explicitly forbid.
How does John Locke define mutual security?
57104598b654c5140001f8c1
the idea that one cannot infringe on another's natural rights
435
False
What do Locke's idea of natural rights include?
57104598b654c5140001f8c2
perfect equality and freedom, and the right to preserve life and property
586
False
Why did John Locke believe that one person cannot enslave another?
57104598b654c5140001f8c3
because it is morally reprehensible
926
False
What was John Locke's one exception to denouncing slavery?
57104598b654c5140001f8c4
enslavement of a lawful captive in time of war would not go against one's natural rights
1010
False
In which of John Locke's works are natural rights most famously defined and discussed?
57104598b654c5140001f8c5
Second Treatise
315
False
Both Rousseau and Locke's social contract theories rest on the presupposition of natural rights, which are not a result of law or custom, but are things that all men have in pre-political societies, and are therefore universal and inalienable. The most famous natural right formulation comes from John Locke in his Second Treatise, when he introduces the state of nature. For Locke the law of nature is grounded on mutual security, or the idea that one cannot infringe on another's natural rights, as every man is equal and has the same inalienable rights. These natural rights include perfect equality and freedom, and the right to preserve life and property. Locke also argued against slavery on the basis that enslaving yourself goes against the law of nature; you cannot surrender your own rights, your freedom is absolute and no one can take it from you. Additionally, Locke argues that one person cannot enslave another because it is morally reprehensible, although he introduces a caveat by saying that enslavement of a lawful captive in time of war would not go against one's natural rights.
Who dropped any passages dealing with miracles or visitations of angels from his work the Jefferson Bible?
571047cea58dae1900cd6996
Thomas Jefferson
707
False
The Enlightenment era religious commentary was, in part, a response to which war?
571047cea58dae1900cd6997
Thirty Years' War
127
False
What did the Enlightenment mean for moderate Christians?
571047cea58dae1900cd6998
a return to simple Scripture
424
False
Did John Locke want to foster or avoid increased detailed debate on the essence of Christianity?
571047cea58dae1900cd6999
avoid
676
False
Enlightenment era religious commentary was a response to the preceding century of religious conflict in Europe, especially the Thirty Years' War. Theologians of the Enlightenment wanted to reform their faith to its generally non-confrontational roots and to limit the capacity for religious controversy to spill over into politics and warfare while still maintaining a true faith in God. For moderate Christians, this meant a return to simple Scripture. John Locke abandoned the corpus of theological commentary in favor of an "unprejudiced examination" of the Word of God alone. He determined the essence of Christianity to be a belief in Christ the redeemer and recommended avoiding more detailed debate. Thomas Jefferson in the Jefferson Bible went further; he dropped any passages dealing with miracles, visitations of angels, and the resurrection of Jesus after his death. He tried to extract the practical Christian moral code of the New Testament.
In which country did the Enlightenment become associated with anti-government and anti-Church radicalism?
57105362b654c5140001f8cb
France
110
False
Which of the Enlightenment's leaders did the British government give a knighthood and lucrative government office?
57105362b654c5140001f8cc
Isaac Newton
662
False
In which country did the government respond with hostility to the Enlightenment, even imprisoning philosophes?
57105362b654c5140001f8cd
France
402
False
Was government response to the Enlightenment uniformly positive or widely varied?
57105362b654c5140001f8ce
varied
384
False
In which class did the Enlightenment reach deepest, expressing a nationalistic tone?
57105362b654c5140001f8cf
middle
228
False
The Enlightenment took hold in most European countries, often with a specific local emphasis. For example, in France it became associated with anti-government and anti-Church radicalism while in Germany it reached deep into the middle classes and where it expressed a spiritualistic and nationalistic tone without threatening governments or established churches. Government responses varied widely. In France, the government was hostile, and the philosophes fought against its censorship, sometimes being imprisoned or hounded into exile. The British government for the most part ignored the Enlightenment's leaders in England and Scotland, although it did give Isaac Newton a knighthood and a very lucrative government office.
What two ideas did conservative and clerical defenders of traditional religion attack as evil forces that encouraged immorality?
57105ed3b654c5140001f8d5
materialism and skepticism
597
False
By 1794, what did those against the Enlightenment point to as confirmation of their predictions?
57105ed3b654c5140001f8d6
Terror during the French Revolution
696
False
Which type of philosophers argued that excessive dependence on reason was a mistake perpetuated by the Enlightenment?
57105ed3b654c5140001f8d7
Romantic
803
False
The Enlightenment has always been contested territory. Its supporters "hail it as the source of everything that is progressive about the modern world. For them, it stands for freedom of thought, rational inquiry, critical thinking, religious tolerance, political liberty, scientific achievement, the pursuit of happiness, and hope for the future." However, its detractors accuse it of 'shallow' rationalism, naïve optimism, unrealistic universalism, and moral darkness. From the start there was a Counter-Enlightenment in which conservative and clerical defenders of traditional religion attacked materialism and skepticism as evil forces that encouraged immorality. By 1794, they pointed to the Terror during the French Revolution as confirmation of their predictions. As the Enlightenment was ending, Romantic philosophers argued that excessive dependence on reason was a mistake perpetuated by the Enlightenment, because it disregarded the bonds of history, myth, faith and tradition that were necessary to hold society together.
Most scholars use the beginning of the Napoleonic Wars or which other battle as a convenient date to end the Enlightenment?
5710655aa58dae1900cd69a8
French Revolution
925
False
French historians generally use the beginning of which King's reign to date the start of the Enlightenment?
5710655aa58dae1900cd69a9
Louis XV
350
False
What do French historians commonly call the Age of Enlightenment?
5710655aa58dae1900cd69aa
Siècle des Lumières (Century of Enlightenments)
243
False
In what year was Descartes' Discourse on Method published?
5710655aa58dae1900cd69ab
1637
517
False
In what year was Issaac Newton's Principia Mathematica published?
5710655aa58dae1900cd69ac
1687
604
False
There is little consensus on the precise beginning of the Age of Enlightenment; the beginning of the 18th century (1701) or the middle of the 17th century (1650) are often used as epochs. French historians usually place the period, called the Siècle des Lumières (Century of Enlightenments), between 1715 and 1789, from the beginning of the reign of Louis XV until the French Revolution. If taken back to the mid-17th century, the Enlightenment would trace its origins to Descartes' Discourse on Method, published in 1637. In France, many cited the publication of Isaac Newton's Principia Mathematica in 1687. It is argued by several historians and philosophers that the beginning of the Enlightenment is when Descartes shifted the epistemological basis from external authority to internal certainty by his cogito ergo sum published in 1637. As to its end, most scholars use the last years of the century, often choosing the French Revolution of 1789 or the beginning of the Napoleonic Wars (1804–15) as a convenient point in time with which to date the end of the Enlightenment.
The creation of the public sphere is associated with the rise of capitalism and which other historical trend?
57106dc3b654c5140001f8f9
rise of the modern nation state
96
False
What increased society's autonomy, self-awareness, and need for exchange of information?
57106dc3b654c5140001f8fa
Capitalism
333
False
In what year did the aristocracy move from the King's palace at Versailles to Paris?
57106dc3b654c5140001f8fb
1720
819
False
The creation of the public sphere has been associated with two long-term historical trends: the rise of the modern nation state and the rise of capitalism. The modern nation state, in its consolidation of public power, created by counterpoint a private realm of society independent of the state, which allowed for the public sphere. Capitalism also increased society's autonomy and self-awareness, and an increasing need for the exchange of information. As the nascent public sphere expanded, it embraced a large variety of institutions; the most commonly cited were coffee houses and cafés, salons and the literary public sphere, figuratively localized in the Republic of Letters. In France, the creation of the public sphere was helped by the aristocracy's move from the King's palace at Versailles to Paris in about 1720, since their rich spending stimulated the trade in luxuries and artistic creations, especially fine paintings.
The desire to explore, record and systematize knowledge had a meaningful impact on what other form of publication?
57107355b654c5140001f8ff
music
83
False
What publication of Jean-Jacques Rousseau was a leading text in the late 18th century and was published 1767 in Geneva and 1768 in Paris?
57107355b654c5140001f900
Dictionnaire de musique
127
False
In what year was Charles Burney's A General History of Music: From the Earliest Ages to the Present Period published?
57107355b654c5140001f901
1776
530
False
What Mozart piece did Rose Rosengard Subotnik conclude is "an ideal musical representation of the Enlightenment"?
57107355b654c5140001f902
Die Zauberflöte (1791)
876
False
Which two perspectives did Rose Rosengard Subotnik use to compare Mozart's Die Cauberflote?
57107355b654c5140001f903
Enlightenment and Romantic
909
False
The desire to explore, record and systematize knowledge had a meaningful impact on music publications. Jean-Jacques Rousseau's Dictionnaire de musique (published 1767 in Geneva and 1768 in Paris) was a leading text in the late 18th century. This widely available dictionary gave short definitions of words like genius and taste, and was clearly influenced by the Enlightenment movement. Another text influenced by Enlightenment values was Charles Burney's A General History of Music: From the Earliest Ages to the Present Period (1776), which was a historical survey and an attempt to rationalize elements in music systematically over time. Recently, musicologists have shown renewed interest in the ideas and consequences of the Enlightenment. For example, Rose Rosengard Subotnik's Deconstructive Variations (subtitled Music and Reason in Western Society) compares Mozart's Die Zauberflöte (1791) using the Enlightenment and Romantic perspectives, and concludes that the work is "an ideal musical representation of the Enlightenment".
What was the principal social institution of the republic during the French Enlightenment?
57107516a58dae1900cd69b2
salon
173
False
Was French society open or fearful of female participation in the literary sphere during the Enlightenment?
57107516a58dae1900cd69b3
open
607
False
What female occupation allowed women to play an essential part in the French Enlightenment?
57107516a58dae1900cd69b4
salonnières
96
False
Which event destroyed the former patronage and corporatism of France and allowed women to participate in society?
57107516a58dae1900cd69b5
French Revolution
499
False
Many women played an essential part in the French Enlightenment, due to the role they played as salonnières in Parisian salons, as the contrast to the male philosophes. The salon was the principal social institution of the republic, and "became the civil working spaces of the project of Enlightenment." Women, as salonnières, were "the legitimate governors of [the] potentially unruly discourse" that took place within. While women were marginalized in the public culture of the Ancien Régime, the French Revolution destroyed the old cultural and economic restraints of patronage and corporatism (guilds), opening French society to female participation, particularly in the literary sphere.
Where was Bibliotheque Bleue located?
571076d2a58dae1900cd69ba
Troyes, France
359
False
For what audience were the books of the Bibliotheque Bleue written?
571076d2a58dae1900cd69bb
largely rural and semi-literate
390
False
Which two influential periodicals  were closely associated with London coffee house culture and were sold from 1909 to 1714?
571076d2a58dae1900cd69bc
The Tatler and The Spectator
1127
False
What collection of cheaply produced books represents the lower class' desire to participate in the Enlightenment?
571076d2a58dae1900cd69bd
Bibliothèque Bleue
658
False
The vast majority of the reading public could not afford to own a private library, and while most of the state-run "universal libraries" set up in the 17th and 18th centuries were open to the public, they were not the only sources of reading material. On one end of the spectrum was the Bibliothèque Bleue, a collection of cheaply produced books published in Troyes, France. Intended for a largely rural and semi-literate audience these books included almanacs, retellings of medieval romances and condensed versions of popular novels, among other things. While some historians have argued against the Enlightenment's penetration into the lower classes, the Bibliothèque Bleue represents at least a desire to participate in Enlightenment sociability. Moving up the classes, a variety of institutions offered readers access to material without needing to buy anything. Libraries that lent out their material for a small price started to appear, and occasionally bookstores would offer a small lending library to their patrons. Coffee houses commonly offered books, journals and sometimes even popular novels to their customers. The Tatler and The Spectator, two influential periodicals sold from 1709 to 1714, were closely associated with coffee house culture in London, being both read and produced in various establishments in the city. This is an example of the triple or even quadruple function of the coffee house: reading material was often obtained, read, discussed and even produced on the premises.
Who was the target audience of natural history?
571078d1a58dae1900cd69c2
French polite society
43
False
Many texts had explicit instructive purposes as Naturalists catered to polite society's desire for what?
571078d1a58dae1900cd69c3
erudition
219
False
The idea of what quality was a social indicator that provided a new source of legitimacy for the dominant class?
571078d1a58dae1900cd69c4
taste (le goût)
592
False
Was the target audience of natural history evidenced more by the price of publications or its specific discourse of the genre?
571078d1a58dae1900cd69c5
specific discourse of the genre
88
False
The target audience of natural history was French polite society, evidenced more by the specific discourse of the genre than by the generally high prices of its works. Naturalists catered to polite society's desire for erudition – many texts had an explicit instructive purpose. However, natural history was often a political affair. As E. C. Spary writes, the classifications used by naturalists "slipped between the natural world and the social ... to establish not only the expertise of the naturalists over the natural, but also the dominance of the natural over the social". The idea of taste (le goût) was a social indicator: to truly be able to categorize nature, one had to have the proper taste, an ability of discretion shared by all members of polite society. In this way natural history spread many of the scientific developments of the time, but also provided a new source of legitimacy for the dominant class. From this basis, naturalists could then develop their own social ideals based on their scientific works.
Who drafted the first technical dictionary?
571079ada58dae1900cd69d4
John Harris
46
False
What was the first technical dictionary drafted by John Harris titled?
571079ada58dae1900cd69d5
Lexicon Technicum: Or, An Universal English Dictionary of Arts and Sciences
71
False
Did the Lexicon Technicum focus on theological and biographical entries or science and technology?
571079ada58dae1900cd69d6
science and technology
234
False
What year was the Lexicon Technicum published?
571079ada58dae1900cd69d7
1704
271
False
In what language was the Lexicon Technicum written?
571079ada58dae1900cd69d8
English
335
False
The first technical dictionary was drafted by John Harris and entitled Lexicon Technicum: Or, An Universal English Dictionary of Arts and Sciences. Harris' book avoided theological and biographical entries; instead it concentrated on science and technology. Published in 1704, the Lexicon technicum was the first book to be written in English that took a methodical approach to describing mathematics and commercial arithmetic along with the physical sciences and navigation. Other technical dictionaries followed Harris' model, including Ephraim Chambers' Cyclopaedia (1728), which included five editions, and was a substantially larger work than Harris'. The folio edition of the work even included foldout engravings. The Cyclopaedia emphasized Newtonian theories, Lockean philosophy, and contained thorough examinations of technologies, such as engraving, brewing, and dyeing.
What book was published in 1686 specifically for women with an interest in scientific writing?
57107cc7b654c5140001f913
Conversations on the Plurality of Worlds
193
False
Who was the author of Conversations on the Plurality of Worlds (1686)?
57107cc7b654c5140001f914
Bernard de Fontenelle
169
False
Who wrote a successful natural history textbook for children titled The Easy Introduction to the Knowledge of Nature (1782)?
57107cc7b654c5140001f915
Sarah Trimmer
1686
False
How many editions were published of Sarah Trimmer's history textbook for children?
57107cc7b654c5140001f916
eleven
1865
False
Emilie du Chatelet's translation of what Newton work was published after her death in 1756?
57107cc7b654c5140001f917
Principia
900
False
The first significant work that expressed scientific theory and knowledge expressly for the laity, in the vernacular, and with the entertainment of readers in mind, was Bernard de Fontenelle's Conversations on the Plurality of Worlds (1686). The book was produced specifically for women with an interest in scientific writing and inspired a variety of similar works. These popular works were written in a discursive style, which was laid out much more clearly for the reader than the complicated articles, treatises, and books published by the academies and scientists. Charles Leadbetter's Astronomy (1727) was advertised as "a Work entirely New" that would include "short and easie  [sic] Rules and Astronomical Tables." The first French introduction to Newtonianism and the Principia was Eléments de la philosophie de Newton, published by Voltaire in 1738. Émilie du Châtelet's translation of the Principia, published after her death in 1756, also helped to spread Newton's theories beyond scientific academies and the university. Francesco Algarotti, writing for a growing female audience, published Il Newtonianism per le dame, which was a tremendously popular work and was translated from Italian into English by Elizabeth Carter. A similar introduction to Newtonianism for women was produced by Henry Pembarton. His A View of Sir Isaac Newton's Philosophy was published by subscription. Extant records of subscribers show that women from a wide range of social standings purchased the book, indicating the growing number of scientifically inclined female readers among the middling class. During the Enlightenment, women also began producing popular scientific works themselves. Sarah Trimmer wrote a successful natural history textbook for children titled The Easy Introduction to the Knowledge of Nature (1782), which was published for many years after in eleven editions.
The practice of contests dates back to what time period?
571080dbb654c5140001f92f
Middle Ages
327
False
Previous to 1725, what subject matter was focused on by the concours academiques?
571080dbb654c5140001f930
generally religious and/or monarchical
420
False
Which topics of public controversy became more widely discussed around 1725?
571080dbb654c5140001f931
theories of Newton and Descartes, the slave trade, women's education, and justice
785
False
Were the concours academiques public or private matters?
571080dbb654c5140001f932
public
734
False
The strongest contribution of the French Academies to the public sphere comes from the concours académiques (roughly translated as 'academic contests') they sponsored throughout France. These academic contests were perhaps the most public of any institution during the Enlightenment. The practice of contests dated back to the Middle Ages, and was revived in the mid-17th century. The subject matter had previously been generally religious and/or monarchical, featuring essays, poetry, and painting. By roughly 1725, however, this subject matter had radically expanded and diversified, including "royal propaganda, philosophical battles, and critical ruminations on the social and political institutions of the Old Regime." Topics of public controversy were also discussed such as the theories of Newton and Descartes, the slave trade, women's education, and justice in France.
Where did the first English coffeehouse open in 1650?
5710831cb654c5140001f941
Oxford
40
False
According to Brian Cowan, was learning more or less formal in coffehouses as opposed to private institutions?
5710831cb654c5140001f942
less
173
False
What term did Brian Cowan give Oxford coffeehouses?
5710831cb654c5140001f943
penny universities
114
False
The first English coffeehouse opened in Oxford in 1650. Brian Cowan said that Oxford coffeehouses developed into "penny universities", offering a locus of learning that was less formal than structured institutions. These penny universities occupied a significant position in Oxford academic life, as they were frequented by those consequently referred to as the "virtuosi", who conducted their research on some of the resulting premises. According to Cowan, "the coffeehouse was a place for like-minded scholars to congregate, to read, as well as learn from and to debate with each other, but was emphatically not a university institution, and the discourse there was of a far different order than any university tutorial."
Diderot, Voltaire, Mozart, Goethe, and Benjamin Franklin were all members of what secret network?
5710840fa58dae1900cd69fc
Freemasonry
71
False
To whom was Freemasonry most attractive?
5710840fa58dae1900cd69fd
powerful aristocrats and politicians as well as intellectuals, artists and political activists
602
False
Freemasonry expanded rapidly to nearly every country in which continent?
5710840fa58dae1900cd69fe
Europe
421
False
Historians have long debated the extent to which the secret network of Freemasonry was a main factor in the Enlightenment. The leaders of the Enlightenment included Freemasons such as Diderot, Montesquieu, Voltaire, Pope, Horace Walpole, Sir Robert Walpole, Mozart, Goethe, Frederick the Great, Benjamin Franklin, and George Washington. Norman Davies said that Freemasonry was a powerful force on behalf of Liberalism in Europe, from about 1700 to the twentieth century. It expanded rapidly during the Age of Enlightenment, reaching practically every country in Europe. It was especially attractive to powerful aristocrats and politicians as well as intellectuals, artists and political activists.
Trying to apply Enlightenment thought on religious and political tolerance became known as what?
571084dcb654c5140001f947
enlightened absolutism
570
False
Which two Americans travelled to Europe during the Enlightenment and actively contributed to the scienific and political debate?
571084dcb654c5140001f948
Benjamin Franklin and Thomas Jefferson
608
False
The ideals of the Enlightenment were incorporated into which two United States documents?
571084dcb654c5140001f949
Declaration of Independence and the Constitution
822
False
Did the scientific revolution precede or follow the Age of Enlightenment?
571084dcb654c5140001f94a
preceded
29
False
The Age of Enlightenment was preceded by and closely associated with the scientific revolution. Earlier philosophers whose work influenced the Enlightenment included Francis Bacon, Descartes, Locke, and Spinoza. The major figures of the Enlightenment included Cesare Beccaria, Voltaire, Denis Diderot, Jean-Jacques Rousseau, David Hume, Adam Smith, and Immanuel Kant. Some European rulers, including Catherine II of Russia, Joseph II of Austria and Frederick I of Prussia, tried to apply Enlightenment thought on religious and political tolerance, which became known as enlightened absolutism. The Americans Benjamin Franklin and Thomas Jefferson came to Europe during the period and contributed actively to the scientific and political debate, and the ideals of the Enlightenment were incorporated into the United States Declaration of Independence and the Constitution of the United States.
Kant's work continued to shape German thought and European philosophy well into what century?
57108592b654c5140001f94f
20th
305
False
In what year was Immanuel Kant born?
57108592b654c5140001f950
1724
15
False
For which work is Mary Wollstonecraft best known?
57108592b654c5140001f951
A Vindication of the Rights of Woman (1791)
535
False
In what year was A Vindication on the Rights of Woman published?
57108592b654c5140001f952
1791
573
False
Mary Wollstonecraft argued for a society based on what idea?
57108592b654c5140001f953
reason
426
False
Immanuel Kant (1724–1804) tried to reconcile rationalism and religious belief, individual freedom and political authority, as well as map out a view of the public sphere through private and public reason. Kant's work continued to shape German thought, and indeed all of European philosophy, well into the 20th century. Mary Wollstonecraft was one of England's earliest feminist philosophers. She argued for a society based on reason, and that women, as well as men, should be treated as rational beings. She is best known for her work A Vindication of the Rights of Woman (1791).
The basis of classical liberalism comes from whose philosophical concepts?
57108677a58dae1900cd6a02
Hume
424
False
Whose philosophical concepts directly influenceed James Madison and thus the U.S. Constitution?
57108677a58dae1900cd6a03
Hume
424
False
Who popularised Hume's philosophical concepts?
57108677a58dae1900cd6a04
Dugald Stewart
548
False
Hume and other Scottish Enlightenment thinkers developed a 'science of man', which was expressed historically in works by authors including James Burnett, Adam Ferguson, John Millar, and William Robertson, all of whom merged a scientific study of how humans behaved in ancient and primitive cultures with a strong awareness of the determining forces of modernity. Modern sociology largely originated from this movement, and Hume's philosophical concepts that directly influenced James Madison (and thus the U.S. Constitution) and as popularised by Dugald Stewart, would be the basis of classical liberalism.
What did Locke, Hobbes, and Rousseau agree was necessary for a man to live in civil society?
571087b8b654c5140001f959
social contract
204
False
Which theorist wrote Two Treatises of Government?
571087b8b654c5140001f95a
Locke
5
False
Who wrote Discourse on Inequality?
571087b8b654c5140001f95b
Rousseau
15
False
From which state does Locke believe it is virtually improssible to break free?
571087b8b654c5140001f95c
state of war
627
False
For what reason did Rousseau feel people joined into civil society?
571087b8b654c5140001f95d
to achieve unity while preserving individual freedom
1214
False
Both Locke and Rousseau developed social contract theories in Two Treatises of Government and Discourse on Inequality, respectively. While quite different works, Locke, Hobbes, and Rousseau agreed that a social contract, in which the government's authority lies in the consent of the governed, is necessary for man to live in civil society. Locke defines the state of nature as a condition in which humans are rational and follow natural law; in which all men are born equal and with the right to life, liberty and property. However, when one citizen breaks the Law of Nature, both the transgressor and the victim enter into a state of war, from which it is virtually impossible to break free. Therefore, Locke said that individuals enter into civil society to protect their natural rights via an "unbiased judge" or common authority, such as courts, to appeal to. Contrastingly, Rousseau's conception relies on the supposition that "civil man" is corrupted, while "natural man" has no want he cannot fulfill himself. Natural man is only taken out of the state of nature when the inequality associated with private property is established. Rousseau said that people join into civil society via the social contract to achieve unity while preserving individual freedom. This is embodied in the sovereignty of the general will, the moral and collective legislative body constituted by citizens.
Leaders of the Enlightenment that helped design laws and programs to reform the court system are called what by historians?
5710889ba58dae1900cd6a08
enlightened despots
214
False
Which enlightened despot was so over-enthusiastic that revolts broke out and nearly all of his programs were reversed?
5710889ba58dae1900cd6a09
Joseph II of Austria
354
False
In what country was the model constitution of 1791 in effect for only one year?
5710889ba58dae1900cd6a0a
Poland
680
False
From what country was Enlightenment leader Catherine the Great?
5710889ba58dae1900cd6a0b
Russia
319
False
In several nations, rulers welcomed leaders of the Enlightenment at court and asked them to help design laws and programs to reform the system, typically to build stronger national states. These rulers are called "enlightened despots" by historians. They included Frederick the Great of Prussia, Catherine the Great of Russia, Leopold II of Tuscany, and Joseph II of Austria. Joseph was over-enthusiastic, announcing so many reforms that had so little support that revolts broke out and his regime became a comedy of errors and nearly all his programs were reversed. Senior ministers Pombal in Portugal and Struensee in Denmark also governed according to Enlightenment ideals. In Poland, the model constitution of 1791 expressed Enlightenment ideals, but was in effect for only one year as the nation was partitioned among its neighbors. More enduring were the cultural achievements, which created a nationalist spirit in Poland.
Did Mendelssohn and Spinoza judge religion on its moral fruits or logic of its theology??
5710898bb654c5140001f963
moral fruits
612
False
What did Enlightenment scholars seek to curtail and thereby prevent another age of intolerant religious war?
5710898bb654c5140001f964
organized religion
64
False
Spinoza was determined to remove what from contemporary and historical theology?
5710898bb654c5140001f965
politics
173
False
Did Moses Mendelssohn advise to follow a specific organized religion, or to whatever one found most convincing?
5710898bb654c5140001f966
what they found most convincing
387
False
Enlightenment scholars sought to curtail the political power of organized religion and thereby prevent another age of intolerant religious war. Spinoza determined to remove politics from contemporary and historical theology (e.g. disregarding Judaic law). Moses Mendelssohn advised affording no political weight to any organized religion, but instead recommended that each person follow what they found most convincing. A good religion based in instinctive morals and a belief in God should not theoretically need force to maintain order in its believers, and both Mendelssohn and Spinoza judged religion on its moral fruits, not the logic of its theology.
Who did Voltaire say that France looked to for ideas of civilization?
57108a13b654c5140001f96b
Scotland
455
False
What was the profession of James Anderson?
57108a13b654c5140001f96c
agronomist
693
False
Who was the first modern geologist?
57108a13b654c5140001f96d
James Hutton
746
False
William Cullen and Joseph Black shared what two occupations?
57108a13b654c5140001f96e
physicist and chemist
719
False
In the Scottish Enlightenment, Scotland's major cities created an intellectual infrastructure of mutually supporting institutions such as universities, reading societies, libraries, periodicals, museums and masonic lodges. The Scottish network was "predominantly liberal Calvinist, Newtonian, and 'design' oriented in character which played a major role in the further development of the transatlantic Enlightenment". In France, Voltaire said "we look to Scotland for all our ideas of civilization." The focus of the Scottish Enlightenment ranged from intellectual and economic matters to the specifically scientific as in the work of William Cullen, physician and chemist; James Anderson, an agronomist; Joseph Black, physicist and chemist; and James Hutton, the first modern geologist.
In what year was the French term Lumieres first used?
57108b74a58dae1900cd6a10
1733
203
False
What term became the German equivalent to the French term Lumieres?
57108b74a58dae1900cd6a11
Aufklärung
400
False
In what century did the term Enlightenment emerge in English?
57108b74a58dae1900cd6a12
19th
69
False
What is the Italian equivalent to the French term Lumieres?
57108b74a58dae1900cd6a13
illuminismo
630
False
Did the terms, Enlightenment, Lumieres, Aufklarung and illuminismo refer to distinct or overlapping movements?
57108b74a58dae1900cd6a14
overlapping
723
False
The term "Enlightenment" emerged in English in the later part of the 19th century, with particular reference to French philosophy, as the equivalent of the French term 'Lumières' (used first by Dubos in 1733 and already well established by 1751). From Immanuel Kant's 1784 essay "Beantwortung der Frage: Was ist Aufklärung?" ("Answering the Question: What is Enlightenment?") the German term became 'Aufklärung' (aufklären = to illuminate; sich aufklären = to clear up). However, scholars have never agreed on a definition of the Enlightenment, or on its chronological or geographical extent. Terms like "les Lumières" (French), "illuminismo" (Italian), "ilustración" (Spanish) and "Aufklärung" (German) referred to partly overlapping movements. Not until the late nineteenth century did English scholars agree they were talking about "the Enlightenment."
Did rising efficiency in production and communication lower or raise the prices of consumer goods?
57108c38b654c5140001f973
lowered
346
False
Was the variety of goods available to consumers increased or decreased by the economic and social change of the Industrial Revolution?
57108c38b654c5140001f974
increased
387
False
The context for the rise of the public sphere was the econoic and social change associated with what revolution?
57108c38b654c5140001f975
Industrial Revolution
110
False
The context for the rise of the public sphere was the economic and social change commonly associated with the Industrial Revolution: "economic expansion, increasing urbanization, rising population and improving communications in comparison to the stagnation of the previous century"." Rising efficiency in production techniques and communication lowered the prices of consumer goods and increased the amount and variety of goods available to consumers (including the literature essential to the public sphere). Meanwhile, the colonial experience (most European states had colonial empires in the 18th century) began to expose European society to extremely heterogeneous cultures, leading to the breaking down of "barriers between cultural systems, religious divides, gender differences and geographical areas".
A the economy and middle class expanded, what artistic profession had an increasing number of members?
57108d9ab654c5140001f98d
musicians
88
False
Which economic class expansion led to the emergence of music magazines and reviews?
57108d9ab654c5140001f98e
middle
23
False
Women increased their presence in the amateur performers scene with what instrument, especially?
57108d9ab654c5140001f98f
keyboard
336
False
Which musican mediums were the majority of amateur music works published for?
57108d9ab654c5140001f990
keyboard, voice and keyboard, and chamber ensemble
486
False
As the economy and the middle class expanded, there was an increasing number of amateur musicians. One manifestation of this involved women, who became more involved with music on a social level. Women were already engaged in professional roles as singers, and increased their presence in the amateur performers' scene, especially with keyboard music. Music publishers begin to print music that amateurs could understand and play. The majority of the works that were published were for keyboard, voice and keyboard, and chamber ensemble. After these initial genres were popularized, from the mid-century on, amateur groups sang choral music, which then became a new trend for publishers to capitalize on. The increasing study of the fine arts, as well as access to amateur-friendly published works, led to more people becoming interested in reading and discussing music. Music magazines, reviews, and critical works which suited amateurs as well as connoisseurs began to surface.
By what century in France had the men of letters fused with the elites?
57108f32a58dae1900cd6a24
mid-18th century
124
False
What was the term for the oppositional literary sphere of a "multitude of versifiers and would-be-authors"?
57108f32a58dae1900cd6a25
Grub Street
203
False
Could the London market support the large numbers of writers that were emerging?
57108f32a58dae1900cd6a26
not
379
False
Were men travelling to London to become authors paid well or poorly by the publishing-bookselling guilds?
57108f32a58dae1900cd6a27
very poorly
440
False
In France, the established men of letters (gens de lettres) had fused with the elites (les grands) of French society by the mid-18th century. This led to the creation of an oppositional literary sphere, Grub Street, the domain of a "multitude of versifiers and would-be authors". These men came to London to become authors, only to discover that the literary market simply could not support large numbers of writers, who, in any case, were very poorly remunerated by the publishing-bookselling guilds.
During which movement were the first scientific and literary journals established?
57108ff2a58dae1900cd6a2c
the Enlightenment
67
False
What was the title of the first scientific and literary journal?
57108ff2a58dae1900cd6a2d
the Parisian Journal des Sçavans
105
False
In what year did the first scientific and literary journal appear?
57108ff2a58dae1900cd6a2e
1665
151
False
Which two languages were the most dominant languages of scientific and literary publications?
57108ff2a58dae1900cd6a2f
French and Latin
239
False
Where were the vast majority of French language periodicals produced?
57108ff2a58dae1900cd6a30
Holland
860
False
The first scientific and literary journals were established during the Enlightenment. The first journal, the Parisian Journal des Sçavans, appeared in 1665. However, it was not until 1682 that periodicals began to be more widely produced. French and Latin were the dominant languages of publication, but there was also a steady demand for material in German and Dutch. There was generally low demand for English publications on the Continent, which was echoed by England's similar lack of desire for French works. Languages commanding less of an international market – such as Danish, Spanish and Portuguese – found journal success more difficult, and more often than not, a more international language was used instead. French slowly took over Latin's status as the lingua franca of learned circles. This in turn gave precedence to the publishing industry in Holland, where the vast majority of these French language periodicals were produced.
Which work published in 1712 explained terms that usefully described the trades and scientific and commercial education?
571090e2a58dae1900cd6a36
The Marperger Curieuses Natur-, Kunst-, Berg-, Gewerkund Handlungs-Lexicon
111
False
In the Jablonski Allgemeines Lexicon (1721) how many colums of text were dedicated to wine?
571090e2a58dae1900cd6a37
over five
446
False
Was the Jablonski Allgemeines Lexicon (1721) more dedicated to technical subjects or scientific theory?
571090e2a58dae1900cd6a38
technical subjects
383
False
In what year was the first edition of the Encyclopaedia Britannica published?
571090e2a58dae1900cd6a39
1771
637
False
The Encyclopaedia Britannica was modelled along the same lines as a work from which country?
571090e2a58dae1900cd6a3a
Germany
3
False
In Germany, practical reference works intended for the uneducated majority became popular in the 18th century. The Marperger Curieuses Natur-, Kunst-, Berg-, Gewerkund Handlungs-Lexicon (1712) explained terms that usefully described the trades and scientific and commercial education. Jablonksi Allgemeines Lexicon (1721) was better known than the Handlungs-Lexicon, and underscored technical subjects rather than scientific theory. For example, over five columns of text were dedicated to wine, while geometry and logic were allocated only twenty-two and seventeen lines, respectively. The first edition of the Encyclopædia Britannica (1771) was modelled along the same lines as the German lexicons.
What enforced contest rule guaranteed that neither gender nor social rank would determine the judging?
571091d6a58dae1900cd6a4a
anonymity
66
False
Were the vast majority of contest participants from the wealthier strata of society or the popular classes?
571091d6a58dae1900cd6a4b
wealthier strata of society
240
False
How many prize competitions did women win out of the 2300 in France?
571091d6a58dae1900cd6a4c
49
578
False
Women's education common stressed which literary genre?
571091d6a58dae1900cd6a4d
poetry
767
False
What literary genre were the majority of female winning contest entries?
571091d6a58dae1900cd6a4e
poetry
767
False
More importantly, the contests were open to all, and the enforced anonymity of each submission guaranteed that neither gender nor social rank would determine the judging. Indeed, although the "vast majority" of participants belonged to the wealthier strata of society ("the liberal arts, the clergy, the judiciary, and the medical profession"), there were some cases of the popular classes submitting essays, and even winning. Similarly, a significant number of women participated – and won – the competitions. Of a total of 2300 prize competitions offered in France, women won 49 – perhaps a small number by modern standards, but very significant in an age in which most women did not have any academic training. Indeed, the majority of the winning entries were for poetry competitions, a genre commonly stressed in women's education.
Where was the Cafe Procope established in 1686?
57109269a58dae1900cd6a54
Paris
36
False
By the 1720s. how many cafes were in Paris?
57109269a58dae1900cd6a55
around 400
75
False
In which Cafe was the Encyclopedie created?
57109269a58dae1900cd6a56
The Café Procope
223
False
Were bruits or newspapers allegedly a better source of information?
57109269a58dae1900cd6a57
bruits
409
False
The Café Procope was established in Paris in 1686; by the 1720s there were around 400 cafés in the city. The Café Procope in particular became a center of Enlightenment, welcoming such celebrities as Voltaire and Rousseau. The Café Procope was where Diderot and D'Alembert decided to create the Encyclopédie. The cafés were one of the various "nerve centers" for bruits publics, public noise or rumour. These bruits were allegedly a much better source of information than were the actual newspapers available at the time.
Where did Freemasonry originate?
5710947eb654c5140001f9a9
Scotland
381
False
Where did Freemasonry first spread?
5710947eb654c5140001f9aa
England
422
False
In what country was Freemaonry particularly prevalent?
5710947eb654c5140001f9ab
France
932
False
What was the most popular of all Enlightenment associations?
5710947eb654c5140001f9ac
Freemasonry
890
False
Which group was copied from the Freemasons and founded in Bavaria in 1776?
5710947eb654c5140001f9ad
Illuminati
1281
False
During the Age of Enlightenment, Freemasons comprised an international network of like-minded men, often meeting in secret in ritualistic programs at their lodges. they promoted the ideals of the Enlightenment, and helped diffuse these values across Britain and France and other places. Freemasonry as a systematic creed with its own myths, values and set of rituals originated in Scotland around 1600 and spread first to England and then across the Continent in the eighteenth century. They fostered new codes of conduct – including a communal understanding of liberty and equality inherited from guild sociability – "liberty, fraternity, and equality" Scottish soldiers and Jacobite Scots brought to the Continent ideals of fraternity which reflected not the local system of Scottish customs but the institutions and ideals originating in the English Revolution against royal absolutism. Freemasonry was particularly prevalent in France – by 1789, there were perhaps as many as 100,000 French Masons, making Freemasonry the most popular of all Enlightenment associations. The Freemasons displayed a passion for secrecy and created new degrees and ceremonies. Similar societies, partially imitating Freemasonry, emerged in France, Germany, Sweden and Russia. One example was the "Illuminati" founded in Bavaria in 1776, which was copied after the Freemasons but was never part of the movement. The Illuminati was an overtly political group, which most Masonic lodges decidedly were not.
Who is known for his statement that individuals have a right to "Life, Liberty and Property"?
57109529a58dae1900cd6a70
Locke
0
False
Locke believed that the natural right to property is derived from what?
57109529a58dae1900cd6a71
labor
162
False
Locke's theory of natural rights influenced what French document?
57109529a58dae1900cd6a72
French National Constituent Assembly's Declaration of the Rights of Man and of the Citizen
552
False
Locke is known for his statement that individuals have a right to "Life, Liberty and Property", and his belief that the natural right to property is derived from labor. Tutored by Locke, Anthony Ashley-Cooper, 3rd Earl of Shaftesbury wrote in 1706: "There is a mighty Light which spreads its self over the world especially in those two free Nations of England and Holland; on whom the Affairs of Europe now turn". Locke's theory of natural rights has influenced many political documents, including the United States Declaration of Independence and the French National Constituent Assembly's Declaration of the Rights of Man and of the Citizen.
Which king of Prussia saw himself as the leader of the Enlightenment?
571095d9a58dae1900cd6a80
Frederick the Great
0
False
Which Enlightenment theorist was extended an invitation to live at the palace after being iprisoned by the French government?
571095d9a58dae1900cd6a81
Voltaire
172
False
Who was the king of Prussia from 1740 to 1786?
571095d9a58dae1900cd6a82
Frederick the Great,
0
False
Frederick the Great, the king of Prussia from 1740 to 1786, saw himself as a leader of the Enlightenment and patronized philosophers and scientists at his court in Berlin. Voltaire, who had been imprisoned and maltreated by the French government, was eager to accept Frederick's invitation to live at his palace. Frederick explained, "My principal occupation is to combat ignorance and prejudice ... to enlighten minds, cultivate morality, and to make people as happy as it suits human nature, and as the means at my disposal permit."
Which American Enlightenment sympathiser was known for his political activism and advances in physics?
571096f2a58dae1900cd6a8e
Benjamin Franklin
30
False
Did the cultural exchange during the Age of Enlightenment travel exclusively to America or did information travel in both directions, back across the Atlantic to Europe?
571096f2a58dae1900cd6a8f
both directions
333
False
As diests, Americans were influenced by the ideas of which two Enlightenment followers?
571096f2a58dae1900cd6a90
John Toland (1670–1722) and Matthew Tindal (1656–1733)
656
False
Attempts to reconcile which two fields resulted in a widespread rejection of prophecy?
571096f2a58dae1900cd6a91
science and religion
850
False
All supernatural aspects were removed from which Thomas Paine work?
571096f2a58dae1900cd6a92
The Age of Reason
1005
False
Several Americans, especially Benjamin Franklin and Thomas Jefferson, played a major role in bringing Enlightenment ideas to the New World and in influencing British and French thinkers. Franklin was influential for his political activism and for his advances in physics. The cultural exchange during the Age of Enlightenment ran in both directions across the Atlantic. Thinkers such as Paine, Locke, and Rousseau all take Native American cultural practices as examples of natural freedom. The Americans closely followed English and Scottish political ideas, as well as some French thinkers such as Montesquieu. As deists, they were influenced by ideas of John Toland (1670–1722) and Matthew Tindal (1656–1733). During the Enlightenment there was a great emphasis upon liberty, democracy, republicanism and religious tolerance. Attempts to reconcile science and religion resulted in a widespread rejection of prophecy, miracle and revealed religion in preference for Deism – especially by Thomas Paine in The Age of Reason and by Thomas Jefferson in his short Jefferson Bible – from which all supernatural aspects were removed.
What term was given to the writers of Grub Street?
571097dca58dae1900cd6aa2
the Grub Street Hacks
28
False
Libelles were generally written in what form?
571097dca58dae1900cd6aa3
pamphlets
232
False
Which group inherited the "revolutionary spirit" once displayed by the philosophes, according to Darnton?
571097dca58dae1900cd6aa4
the Grub Street hacks
615
False
Which works by the Grub Street Hacks "slandered the court, the Church, the aristocracy, the academies, the salons, everything elevated and respectable, including the monarchy itself."?
571097dca58dae1900cd6aa5
the libelles
243
False
The writers of Grub Street, the Grub Street Hacks, were left feeling bitter about the relative success of the men of letters, and found an outlet for their literature which was typified by the libelle. Written mostly in the form of pamphlets, the libelles "slandered the court, the Church, the aristocracy, the academies, the salons, everything elevated and respectable, including the monarchy itself". Le Gazetier cuirassé by Charles Théveneau de Morande was a prototype of the genre. It was Grub Street literature that was most read by the public during the Enlightenment. More importantly, according to Darnton, the Grub Street hacks inherited the "revolutionary spirit" once displayed by the philosophes, and paved the way for the French Revolution by desacralizing figures of political, moral and religious authority in France.
Which venue created a unique environment in which people from many different walks of life could gather and share ideas?
571098c9a58dae1900cd6aaa
Coffeehouses
0
False
Coffehouses were criticized by which group of people, fearing the possiblity of an environmentin which class was disregarded?
571098c9a58dae1900cd6aab
nobles
245
False
What societal group derived much of their power from the disparity between classes of people?
571098c9a58dae1900cd6aac
Monarchs
748
False
Which societal group believed they held a divine right to rule and resented the idea of their subjects convening to discuss political matters?
571098c9a58dae1900cd6aad
Monarchs
748
False
Coffeehouses were especially important to the spread of knowledge during the Enlightenment because they created a unique environment in which people from many different walks of life gathered and shared ideas. They were frequently criticized by nobles who feared the possibility of an environment in which class and its accompanying titles and privileges were disregarded. Such an environment was especially intimidating to monarchs who derived much of their power from the disparity between classes of people. If classes were to join together under the influence of Enlightenment thinking, they might recognize the all-encompassing oppression and abuses of their monarchs and, because of their size, might be able to carry out successful revolts. Monarchs also resented the idea of their subjects convening as one to discuss political matters, especially those concerning foreign affairs - rulers thought political affairs to be their business only, a result of their supposed divine right to rule.
Did natural history in particular become increasingly popular amoung the upper or lower classes?
57109988a58dae1900cd6aba
upper
143
False
Which type of history encompassed botany, zoology, meteorolgy, hydrology, and mineralogy?
57109988a58dae1900cd6abb
natural history
400
False
Who wrote the Histoire naturelle des insectes?
57109988a58dae1900cd6abc
René-Antoine Ferchault de Réaumur
191
False
A genre that greatly rose in importance was that of scientific literature. Natural history in particular became increasingly popular among the upper classes. Works of natural history include René-Antoine Ferchault de Réaumur's Histoire naturelle des insectes and Jacques Gautier d'Agoty's La Myologie complète, ou description de tous les muscles du corps humain (1746). Outside ancien régime France, natural history was an important part of medicine and industry, encompassing the fields of botany, zoology, meteorology, hydrology and mineralogy. Students in Enlightenment universities and academies were taught these subjects to prepare them for careers as diverse as medicine and theology. As shown by M D Eddy, natural history in this context was a very middle class pursuit and operated as a fertile trading zone for the interdisciplinary exchange of diverse scientific ideas.
In what decade did the first Masonic lodges appear on the Continent?
57109aada58dae1900cd6ac0
1730s
419
False
The Freemason embodiment of what country's values was seen as threatening by Continental authorities?
57109aada58dae1900cd6ac1
British
446
False
Which lodge that met in the mid 1720s was composed of English Jacobite exiles?
57109aada58dae1900cd6ac2
the Parisian lodge
526
False
Which lodges assigned themselves the duty to "initate the unenlightened"?
57109aada58dae1900cd6ac3
British
856
False
What is the masonic term for the deistic divine being who created a scientifically ordered universe?
57109aada58dae1900cd6ac4
Grand Architect
1085
False
Masonic lodges created a private model for public affairs. They "reconstituted the polity and established a constitutional form of self-government, complete with constitutions and laws, elections and representatives." In other words, the micro-society set up within the lodges constituted a normative model for society as a whole. This was especially true on the Continent: when the first lodges began to appear in the 1730s, their embodiment of British values was often seen as threatening by state authorities. For example, the Parisian lodge that met in the mid 1720s was composed of English Jacobite exiles. Furthermore, freemasons all across Europe explicitly linked themselves to the Enlightenment as a whole. In French lodges, for example, the line "As the means to be enlightened I search for the enlightened" was a part of their initiation rites. British lodges assigned themselves the duty to "initiate the unenlightened". This did not necessarily link lodges to the irreligious, but neither did this exclude them from the occasional heresy. In fact, many lodges praised the Grand Architect, the masonic terminology for the deistic divine being who created a scientifically ordered universe.
Which venue represents a turning point in history during which people discovered that they could have enjoyable social lives within their communities?
57109b90b654c5140001f9bd
Coffeehouses
0
False
Coffehouses were essential to what movement by becoming centers of free-thinking and self-discovery?
57109b90b654c5140001f9be
the Enlightenment
412
False
In what year was The Spectator published?
57109b90b654c5140001f9bf
1711
1387
False
Which literary work used the fictional narrator Mr. Spectator to entertain and provoke discussion regarding serious philosophical matters?
57109b90b654c5140001f9c0
The Spectator
1372
False
Coffeehouses represent a turning point in history during which people discovered that they could have enjoyable social lives within their communities. Coffeeshops became homes away from home for many who sought, for the first time, to engage in discourse with their neighbors and discuss intriguing and thought-provoking matters, especially those regarding philosophy to politics. Coffeehouses were essential to the Enlightenment, for they were centers of free-thinking and self-discovery. Although many coffeehouse patrons were scholars, a great deal were not. Coffeehouses attracted a diverse set of people, including not only the educated wealthy but also members of the bourgeoisie and the lower class. While it may seem positive that patrons, being doctors, lawyers, merchants, etc. represented almost all classes, the coffeeshop environment sparked fear in those who sought to preserve class distinction. One of the most popular critiques of the coffeehouse claimed that it "allowed promiscuous association among people from different rungs of the social ladder, from the artisan to the aristocrat" and was therefore compared to Noah's Ark, receiving all types of animals, clean or unclean. This unique culture served as a catalyst for journalism when Joseph Addison and Richard Steele recognized its potential as an audience. Together, Steele and Addison published The Spectator (1711), a daily publication which aimed, through fictional narrator Mr. Spectator, both to entertain and to provoke discussion regarding serious philosophical matters.
Who was the major opponent to Freemasonry?
57109c92a58dae1900cd6aca
Roman Catholic Church
42
False
Which countries had a large Catholic element and therefore had confrontation with Freemasons?
57109c92a58dae1900cd6acb
France, Italy, Spain, and Mexico
125
False
Do American historians downplay or attribute the importance of Freemasonry in causing the American Revolution?
57109c92a58dae1900cd6acc
downplay
467
False
Who was the political enemy of the Patriots?
57109c92a58dae1900cd6acd
the Loyalists
630
False
Were the Masons political or non-political in the American Revolution?
57109c92a58dae1900cd6ace
non-political
573
False
The major opponent of Freemasonry was the Roman Catholic Church, so that in countries with a large Catholic element, such as France, Italy, Spain, and Mexico, much of the ferocity of the political battles involve the confrontation between what Davies calls the reactionary Church and enlightened Freemasonry. Even in France, Masons did not act as a group. American historians, while noting that Benjamin Franklin and George Washington were indeed active Masons, have downplayed the importance of Freemasonry in causing the American Revolution because the Masonic order was non-political and included both Patriots and their enemy the Loyalists.
How was the Enlightenment known in French?
57109d6bb654c5140001f9c5
Siècle des Lumières
43
False
Which movement dominated the world of ideas in Europe in the 18th century?
57109d6bb654c5140001f9c6
The Enlightenment
0
False
In France, what were the central doctrines of the Lumieres?
57109d6bb654c5140001f9c7
individual liberty and religious tolerance
541
False
The principle of absolute monarchy of which group was at odds with those following the Enlightenment?
57109d6bb654c5140001f9c8
Roman Catholic Church
665
False
The Enlightenment – known in French as the Siècle des Lumières, the Century of Enlightenment, and in German as the Aufklärung – was a philosophical movement which dominated the world of ideas in Europe in the 18th century. The Enlightenment included a range of ideas centered on reason as the primary source of authority and legitimacy, and came to advance ideals such as liberty, progress, tolerance, fraternity, constitutional government and ending the abuses of the church and state. In France, the central doctrines of the Lumières were individual liberty and religious tolerance, in opposition to the principle of absolute monarchy and the fixed dogmas of the Roman Catholic Church. The Enlightenment was marked by increasing empiricism, scientific rigor, and reductionism, along with increased questioning of religious orthodoxy.
Which city in the mid-18th century became the center of an explosion of philosophic and scientific activity?
57109e32b654c5140001f9cd
Paris
25
False
Who were the two leaders of Paris' philosophic movement?
57109e32b654c5140001f9ce
Voltaire and Jean-Jacques Rousseau
186
False
Rousseau argued for a society based on what, rather than faith?
57109e32b654c5140001f9cf
reason
258
False
Which philosopher introduced the idea of a separation of powers in government?
57109e32b654c5140001f9d0
Montesquieu
430
False
Montesquieu's ideas were enthusiastically adopted by the authors of what American document?
57109e32b654c5140001f9d1
the United States Constitution
568
False
In the mid-18th century, Paris became the center of an explosion of philosophic and scientific activity challenging traditional doctrines and dogmas. The philosophic movement was led by Voltaire and Jean-Jacques Rousseau, who argued for a society based upon reason rather than faith and Catholic doctrine, for a new civil order based on natural law, and for science based on experiments and observation. The political philosopher Montesquieu introduced the idea of a separation of powers in a government, a concept which was enthusiastically adopted by the authors of the United States Constitution. While the Philosophes of the French Enlightenment were not revolutionaries, and many were members of the nobility, their ideas played an important part in undermining the legitimacy of the Old Regime and shaping the French Revolution.
What was the most influential publication of the Enlightenment?
57109ebeb654c5140001f9d7
the Encyclopédie
58
False
The Encyclopedie was comprised of how many volumes?
57109ebeb654c5140001f9d8
thirty-five
235
False
Voltaire wrote Letters on the English in what year?
57109ebeb654c5140001f9d9
1733
449
False
When was Rousseau's Discourse on Inequality published?
57109ebeb654c5140001f9da
1754
512
False
What year did the French Revolution begin?
57109ebeb654c5140001f9db
1789
697
False
The most influential publication of the Enlightenment was the Encyclopédie, compiled by Denis Diderot and (until 1759) by Jean le Rond d'Alembert and a team of 150 scientists and philosophers. It was published between 1751 and 1772 in thirty-five volumes, and spread the ideas of the Enlightenment across Europe and beyond. Other landmark publications were the Dictionnaire philosophique (Philosophical Dictionary, 1764) and Letters on the English (1733) written by Voltaire; Rousseau's Discourse on Inequality (1754) and The Social Contract (1762); and Montesquieu's Spirit of the Laws (1748). The ideas of the Enlightenment played a major role in inspiring the French Revolution, which began in 1789. After the Revolution, the Enlightenment was followed by an opposing intellectual movement known as Romanticism.
What was the name of the conservative group opposing the Enlightenment?
57109f6eb654c5140001f9e1
Counter-Enlightenment.
492
False
The radical enlightenment was inspired by the philosophy of whom?
57109f6eb654c5140001f9e2
Spinoza
113
False
Which Enlightenment philosopher advocated democracy, individual liberty, freedom of expression, and eradication of religious authority?
57109f6eb654c5140001f9e3
Spinoza
113
False
Which Enlightenment philosophers sought accomodatin between reform and the traditional systems of power and faith?
57109f6eb654c5140001f9e4
René Descartes, John Locke, Christian Wolff, Isaac Newton and others
277
False
There were two distinct lines of Enlightenment thought: the radical enlightenment, inspired by the philosophy of Spinoza, advocating democracy, individual liberty, freedom of expression, and eradication of religious authority; and a second, more moderate variety, supported by René Descartes, John Locke, Christian Wolff, Isaac Newton and others, which sought accommodation between reform and the traditional systems of power and faith. Both lines of thought were opposed by the conservative Counter-Enlightenment.
Who is credited with the concept of separating church and state?
5710a004a58dae1900cd6ad4
John Locke
132
False
Which term describes John Locke's movement to seperate church and state?
5710a004a58dae1900cd6ad5
The "Radical Enlightenment"
0
False
In what year was John Locke born?
5710a004a58dae1900cd6ad6
1632
144
False
In what realm did John Locke feel the government lacked authority?
5710a004a58dae1900cd6ad7
the realm of individual conscience
258
False
The "Radical Enlightenment" promoted the concept of separating church and state, an idea that often credited to English philosopher John Locke (1632–1704). According to his principle of the social contract, Locke said that the government lacked authority in the realm of individual conscience, as this was something rational people could not cede to the government for it or others to control. For Locke, this created a natural right in the liberty of conscience, which he said must therefore remain protected from any government authority.
According to Thomas Paine, what is the definition of Deism?
5710a0eda58dae1900cd6adc
the simple belief in God the Creator, with no reference to the Bible or any other miraculous source
147
False
Which philosopher argued that atheists could indeed be moral men?
5710a0eda58dae1900cd6add
Pierre Bayle
713
False
Which philosopher argued that without belief in a God who punishes evil, the moral order of society was undermined?
5710a0eda58dae1900cd6ade
Voltaire
795
False
Who felt that since atheists gave themselves no Supreme Authority and no law, they were more likely to disrupt society?
5710a0eda58dae1900cd6adf
Voltaire
795
False
A number of novel ideas about religion developed with the Enlightenment, including Deism and talk of atheism. Deism, according to Thomas Paine, is the simple belief in God the Creator, with no reference to the Bible or any other miraculous source. Instead, the Deist relies solely on personal reason to guide his creed, which was eminently agreeable to many thinkers of the time. Atheism was much discussed, but there were few proponents. Wilson and Reill note that, "In fact, very few enlightened intellectuals, even when they were vocal critics of Christianity, were true atheists. Rather, they were critics of orthodox belief, wedded rather to skepticism, deism, vitalism, or perhaps pantheism." Some followed Pierre Bayle and argued that atheists could indeed be moral men. Many others like Voltaire held that without belief in a God who punishes evil, the moral order of society was undermined. That is, since atheists gave themselves to no Supreme Authority and no law, and had no fear of eternal consequences, they were far more likely to disrupt society. Bayle (1647–1706) observed that in his day, "prudent persons will always maintain an appearance of [religion].". He believed that even atheists could hold concepts of honor and go beyond their own self-interest to create and interact in society. Locke said that if there were no God and no divine law, the result would be moral anarchy: every individual "could have no law but his own will, no end but himself. He would be a god to himself, and the satisfaction of his own will the sole measure and end of all his actions".
Whixh population groups were excluded from most institutions of the public sphere?
5710a1c4b654c5140001f9e9
women and the lower classes
553
False
Which two areas experienced criss-cross influences through noble and lower class participation?
5710a1c4b654c5140001f9ea
coffeehouses and the Masonic lodges
679
False
Marmontel contrasted "the opinion of men of letters" with what?
5710a1c4b654c5140001f9eb
"the opinion of the multitude,"
370
False
d'Alembert contrasted the "truly enlightened public" with whom?
5710a1c4b654c5140001f9ec
"the blind and noisy multitude"
453
False
The word "public" implies the highest level of inclusivity – the public sphere by definition should be open to all. However, this sphere was only public to relative degrees. Enlightenment thinkers frequently contrasted their conception of the "public" with that of the people: Condorcet contrasted "opinion" with populace, Marmontel "the opinion of men of letters" with "the opinion of the multitude," and d'Alembert the "truly enlightened public" with "the blind and noisy multitude". Additionally, most institutions of the public sphere excluded both women and the lower classes. Cross-class influences occurred through noble and lower class participation in areas such as the coffeehouses and the Masonic lodges.
The increased consumption of what type of material was one of the key features of the "social" Enlightenment?
5710a309a58dae1900cd6ae4
reading materials
29
False
Developments in which revolution allowed consumer goods to be produced in greater quantities at lower prices?
5710a309a58dae1900cd6ae5
the Industrial Revolution
135
False
In additional to rising populations and increased urbanisation, what else did Commercial development increase the need for?
5710a309a58dae1900cd6ae6
demand for information
406
False
In what country did literacy rates double over the course of the 18th century?
5710a309a58dae1900cd6ae7
France
715
False
The number of books about religion in Paris from 1720 to 1780 dropped by what percentage?
5710a309a58dae1900cd6ae8
just one-tenth of the total
976
False
The increased consumption of reading materials of all sorts was one of the key features of the "social" Enlightenment. Developments in the Industrial Revolution allowed consumer goods to be produced in greater quantities at lower prices, encouraging the spread of books, pamphlets, newspapers and journals – "media of the transmission of ideas and attitudes". Commercial development likewise increased the demand for information, along with rising populations and increased urbanisation. However, demand for reading material extended outside of the realm of the commercial, and outside the realm of the upper and middle classes, as evidenced by the Bibliothèque Bleue. Literacy rates are difficult to gauge, but in France at least, the rates doubled over the course of the 18th century. Reflecting the decreasing influence of religion, the number of books about science and art published in Paris doubled from 1720 to 1780, while the number of books about religion dropped to just one-tenth of the total.
Whose incomes did public concerts help support?
5710a3ceb654c5140001f9f1
performers' and composers'
121
False
Handel gained considerable fame with performances of what two types of artistic work?
5710a3ceb654c5140001f9f2
operas and oratorios
363
False
Which two composers are usually regarded as being the most in line with the Enlightenment ideals?
5710a3ceb654c5140001f9f3
Haydn and Mozart
398
False
What style of music did Haydn and Mozart share?
5710a3ceb654c5140001f9f4
Viennese Classical
427
False
As musicians depended more and more on public support, public concerts became increasingly popular and helped supplement performers' and composers' incomes. The concerts also helped them to reach a wider audience. Handel, for example, epitomized this with his highly public musical activities in London. He gained considerable fame there with performances of his operas and oratorios. The music of Haydn and Mozart, with their Viennese Classical styles, are usually regarded as being the most in line with the Enlightenment ideals.
What year was the Academy of Science in France founded?
5710a874b654c5140001f9f9
1635
107
False
Members of what group were considered to be the "most useful of all citizens?"
5710a874b654c5140001f9fa
scientists
356
False
What percentage of clerics were members of the Academy of Science?
5710a874b654c5140001f9fb
13 percent
598
False
The Academy of Science was only open to which societal group?
5710a874b654c5140001f9fc
elite Parisian scholars
809
False
How did elite Parisian scholars perceive themselves?
5710a874b654c5140001f9fd
interpreters of the sciences for the people
864
False
The history of Academies in France during the Enlightenment begins with the Academy of Science, founded in 1635 in Paris. It was closely tied to the French state, acting as an extension of a government seriously lacking in scientists. It helped promote and organize new disciplines, and it trained new scientists. It also contributed to the enhancement of scientists' social status, considering them to be the "most useful of all citizens". Academies demonstrate the rising interest in science along with its increasing secularization, as evidenced by the small number of clerics who were members (13 percent). The presence of the French academies in the public sphere cannot be attributed to their membership; although the majority of their members were bourgeois, the exclusive institution was only open to elite Parisian scholars. They perceived themselves as "interpreters of the sciences for the people". For example, it was with this in mind that academicians took it upon themselves to disprove the popular pseudo-science of mesmerism.
Where were many of the leading universities associated with Enlightenment progressive principles located?
5710a972a58dae1900cd6aee
northern Europe
102
False
Which six universities were the most renowned in northern Europe?
5710a972a58dae1900cd6aef
Leiden, Göttingen, Halle, Montpellier, Uppsala and Edinburgh
168
False
Which university, especially, produced professors whose ideas had a significant impact on the colonies?
5710a972a58dae1900cd6af0
Edinburgh
261
False
Which of  France's universities was the exception and was hospitable to the Enlightenment?
5710a972a58dae1900cd6af1
the medical university at Montpellier
704
False
Many of the leading universities associated with Enlightenment progressive principles were located in northern Europe, with the most renowned being the universities of Leiden, Göttingen, Halle, Montpellier, Uppsala and Edinburgh. These universities, especially Edinburgh, produced professors whose ideas had a significant impact on Britain's North American colonies and, later, the American Republic. Within the natural sciences, Edinburgh's medical also led the way in chemistry, anatomy and pharmacology. In other parts of Europe, the universities and schools of France and most of Europe were bastions of traditionalism and were not hospitable to the Enlightenment. In France, the major exception was the medical university at Montpellier.
How can associationism be defined?
5710aa05a58dae1900cd6af6
the notion that the mind associates or dissociates ideas through repeated routines
124
False
What was the predominant educational psychology from the 1750s onward?
5710aa05a58dae1900cd6af7
associationism,
108
False
Children were taught to memorize facts through methods that originated during which time period?
5710aa05a58dae1900cd6af8
the Renaissance
635
False
The predominant educational psychology from the 1750s onward, especially in northern European countries was associationism, the notion that the mind associates or dissociates ideas through repeated routines. In addition to being conducive to Enlightenment ideologies of liberty, self-determination and personal responsibility, it offered a practical theory of the mind that allowed teachers to transform longstanding forms of print and manuscript culture into effective graphic tools of learning for the lower and middle orders of society. Children were taught to memorize facts through oral and graphic methods that originated during the Renaissance.
What were the prime examples of reference works that systemasized scientific knowledge in the age oif Enlightenment?
5710ab2eb654c5140001fa03
universal encyclopedias
118
False
What was the goal of universal encyclopedias?
5710ab2eb654c5140001fa04
to record all human knowledge in a comprehensive reference work
221
False
Which universal encyclopedia began publication in 1751 and was composed of 35 volumes and over 71,000 seperate entries?
5710ab2eb654c5140001fa05
Encyclopédie, ou dictionnaire raisonné des sciences, des arts et des métiers
368
False
In what work is the goal to record the extent of human knowledge in the arts and sciences outlined?
5710ab2eb654c5140001fa06
Preliminary Discourse to the Encyclopedia of Diderot
757
False
Who wrote the Preliminary Discourse to the Encyclopedia of Diderot?
5710ab2eb654c5140001fa07
d'Alembert's
744
False
However, the prime example of reference works that systematized scientific knowledge in the age of Enlightenment were universal encyclopedias rather than technical dictionaries. It was the goal of universal encyclopedias to record all human knowledge in a comprehensive reference work. The most well-known of these works is Denis Diderot and Jean le Rond d'Alembert's Encyclopédie, ou dictionnaire raisonné des sciences, des arts et des métiers. The work, which began publication in 1751, was composed of thirty-five volumes and over 71 000 separate entries. A great number of the entries were dedicated to describing the sciences and crafts in detail, and provided intellectuals across Europe with a high-quality survey of human knowledge. In d'Alembert's Preliminary Discourse to the Encyclopedia of Diderot, the work's goal to record the extent of human knowledge in the arts and sciences is outlined:
Anatomy, biology, geology, mineralogy, and zoology are all studies of which subject?
5710dcb5b654c5140001fa0d
natural history
296
False
Who criticized the sciences for distancing man from nature and not operating to make people happier?
5710dcb5b654c5140001fa0e
Rousseau
465
False
Who replaced universities as centres of scientific research and development during the Enlightenment?
5710dcb5b654c5140001fa0f
scientific societies and academies
621
False
Which century is considered by some as a "drab" period, however saw significant advancements in the practice of medicine, mathematics, and physics, the development of biological taxonomy, a new understanding of magnetism, and the maturation of chemistry as a discipline?
5710dcb5b654c5140001fa10
the 18th century
1154
False
Voltaire and Emilie du Chatelet populatized which scientific philosophy?
5710dcb5b654c5140001fa11
Newtonianism
1077
False
Broadly speaking, Enlightenment science greatly valued empiricism and rational thought, and was embedded with the Enlightenment ideal of advancement and progress. The study of science, under the heading of natural philosophy, was divided into physics and a conglomerate grouping of chemistry and natural history, which included anatomy, biology, geology, mineralogy, and zoology. As with most Enlightenment views, the benefits of science were not seen universally; Rousseau criticized the sciences for distancing man from nature and not operating to make people happier. Science during the Enlightenment was dominated by scientific societies and academies, which had largely replaced universities as centres of scientific research and development. Societies and academies were also the backbone of the maturation of the scientific profession. Another important development was the popularization of science among an increasingly literate population. Philosophes introduced the public to many scientific theories, most notably through the Encyclopédie and the popularization of Newtonianism by Voltaire and Émilie du Châtelet. Some historians have marked the 18th century as a drab period in the history of science; however, the century saw significant advancements in the practice of medicine, mathematics, and physics; the development of biological taxonomy; a new understanding of magnetism and electricity; and the maturation of chemistry as a discipline, which established the foundations of modern chemistry.
Many Enlightenment writers and thinkers had backgrounds in the sciences and associated scientific advancement with overthrow of religion and traditional authority in favor of what?
5710dd62a58dae1900cd6afc
the development of free speech and thought
256
False
Who discovered carbon dioxide or fixed air?
5710dd62a58dae1900cd6afd
chemist Joseph Black
405
False
Who created the argument for deep time?
5710dd62a58dae1900cd6afe
geologist James Hutton
461
False
Who invented the steam engine?
5710dd62a58dae1900cd6aff
James Watt
526
False
Who launched the first manned flight in a hot-air balloon in November 1783?
5710dd62a58dae1900cd6b00
the Montgolfier Brothers
653
False
Science came to play a leading role in Enlightenment discourse and thought. Many Enlightenment writers and thinkers had backgrounds in the sciences and associated scientific advancement with the overthrow of religion and traditional authority in favour of the development of free speech and thought. Scientific progress during the Enlightenment included the discovery of carbon dioxide (fixed air) by the chemist Joseph Black, the argument for deep time by the geologist James Hutton, and the invention of the steam engine by James Watt. The experiments of Lavoisier were used to create the first modern chemical plants in Paris, and the experiments of the Montgolfier Brothers enabled them to launch the first manned flight in a hot-air balloon on 21 November 1783, from the Château de la Muette, near the Bois de Boulogne.
For which masterpiece did Cesare Beccaria become famous?
5710de24a58dae1900cd6b06
Crimes and Punishments (1764)
107
False
Into how many languages was Cesare Beccaria's Crimes and Punishments (1764) translated?
5710de24a58dae1900cd6b07
22
170
False
Which work established Francesco Mario Pagano as an international authority on criminal law?
5710de24a58dae1900cd6b08
Considerazioni sul processo criminale (Considerations on the criminal trial, 1787)
379
False
In what year did Francesco Mario Pagano publish Saggi Politici?
5710de24a58dae1900cd6b09
1783
313
False
Cesare Beccaria, a jurist and one of the great Enlightenment writers, became famous for his masterpiece Of Crimes and Punishments (1764), which was later translated into 22 languages. Another prominent intellectual was Francesco Mario Pagano, who wrote important studies such as Saggi Politici (Political Essays, 1783), one of the major works of the Enlightenment in Naples, and Considerazioni sul processo criminale (Considerations on the criminal trial, 1787), which established him as an international authority on criminal law.
What did contemporary sources claim was the purpose of the universiity in contrast to the societies?
5710decca58dae1900cd6b0e
transmission of knowledge
385
False
Contemporary sources considered societies functioned for what purpose in contrast to universities?
5710decca58dae1900cd6b0f
to create knowledge
439
False
By what year were there over seventy official scientific societies?
5710decca58dae1900cd6b10
1789
947
False
Who coined the term "the Age of Academies" to describe the 18th century?
5710decca58dae1900cd6b11
Bernard de Fontenelle
1036
False
Scientific academies and societies grew out of the Scientific Revolution as the creators of scientific knowledge in contrast to the scholasticism of the university. During the Enlightenment, some societies created or retained links to universities. However, contemporary sources distinguished universities from scientific societies by claiming that the university's utility was in the transmission of knowledge, while societies functioned to create knowledge. As the role of universities in institutionalized science began to diminish, learned societies became the cornerstone of organized science. Official scientific societies were chartered by the state in order to provide technical expertise. Most societies were granted permission to oversee their own publications, control the election of new members, and the administration of the society. After 1700, a tremendous number of official academies and societies were founded in Europe, and by 1789 there were over seventy official scientific societies. In reference to this growth, Bernard de Fontenelle coined the term "the Age of Academies" to describe the 18th century.
The Enlightenment is frequently linked to the French Revolution of what year?
5710e0c2a58dae1900cd6b16
1789
73
False
Who delineated the "consent of the governed" in Two Treatises of Government (1689)?
5710e0c2a58dae1900cd6b17
Locke
218
False
The "divine right of kings" was in direct conflict with which of Locke's philosophies?
5710e0c2a58dae1900cd6b18
"consent of the governed"
164
False
According to Locke, the revolutions of the late 1700s and early 1800s were caused when what could not be resolved peacefully?
5710e0c2a58dae1900cd6b19
governance paradigm shift
476
False
The Enlightenment has been frequently linked to the French Revolution of 1789. One view of the political changes that occurred during the Enlightenment is that the "consent of the governed" philosophy as delineated by Locke in Two Treatises of Government (1689) represented a paradigm shift from the old governance paradigm under feudalism known as the "divine right of kings". In this view, the revolutions of the late 1700s and early 1800s were caused by the fact that this governance paradigm shift often could not be resolved peacefully, and therefore violent revolution was the result. Clearly a governance philosophy where the king was never wrong was in direct conflict with one whereby citizens by natural law had to consent to the acts and rulings of their government.
In what work did Ferguson explain how humans advanced from a hunting and gathering society to a commercial and civil society without "signing" a social contract?
5710e166a58dae1900cd6b1e
An Essay on the History of Civil Society
677
False
In what year did Ferguson publish An Essay on the History of Civil Society?
5710e166a58dae1900cd6b1f
1767
672
False
How many stages of progress did Ferguson theorize?
5710e166a58dae1900cd6b20
four
737
False
Who, along with Adam Ferguson, criticized the idea of social contract theorists?
5710e166a58dae1900cd6b21
David Hume
96
False
Though much of Enlightenment political thought was dominated by social contract theorists, both David Hume and Adam Ferguson criticized this camp. Hume's essay Of the Original Contract argues that governments derived from consent are rarely seen, and civil government is grounded in a ruler's habitual authority and force. It is precisely because of the ruler's authority over-and-against the subject, that the subject tacitly consents; Hume says that the subjects would "never imagine that their consent made him sovereign", rather the authority did so. Similarly, Ferguson did not believe citizens built the state, rather polities grew out of social development. In his 1767 An Essay on the History of Civil Society, Ferguson uses the four stages of progress, a theory that was very popular in Scotland at the time, to explain how humans advance from a hunting and gathering society to a commercial and civil society without "signing" a social contract.
What century produced the first Russian univeristy, library, theatre, public museum, and independent press?
5710ed9da58dae1900cd6b44
18th century
104
False
What did the Russian enlightenment focus on instead of societal enlightenment?
5710ed9da58dae1900cd6b45
the individual
821
False
From whom did Catherine the Great receive assistance in her Enlightenment ideals via correspondence?
5710ed9da58dae1900cd6b46
Voltaire
447
False
In Russia, the government began to actively encourage the proliferation of arts and sciences in the mid-18th century. This era produced the first Russian university, library, theatre, public museum, and independent press. Like other enlightened despots, Catherine the Great played a key role in fostering the arts, sciences, and education. She used her own interpretation of Enlightenment ideals, assisted by notable international experts such as Voltaire (by correspondence) and, in residence, world class scientists such as Leonhard Euler and Peter Simon Pallas. The national Enlightenment differed from its Western European counterpart in that it promoted further modernization of all aspects of Russian life and was concerned with attacking the institution of serfdom in Russia. The Russian enlightenment centered on the individual instead of societal enlightenment and encouraged the living of an enlightened life.
Which philosopher believed that the Enlightenment was ultimately born out of Protestant reaction against the Catholic counter-reformation?
5710ee7ea58dae1900cd6b54
Bertrand Russell
0
False
Where did Betrand Russell believe views such as affinity for democracy against monarachy originated from?
5710ee7ea58dae1900cd6b55
16th-century Protestants
428
False
Who does Betrand Russell started the schism that lead to the Enlightenment?
5710ee7ea58dae1900cd6b56
Martin Luther
704
False
Bertrand Russell saw the Enlightenment as a phase in a progressive development, which began in antiquity, and that reason and challenges to the established order were constant ideals throughout that time. Russell said that the Enlightenment was ultimately born out of the Protestant reaction against the Catholic counter-reformation, and that philosophical views such as affinity for democracy against monarchy originated among 16th-century Protestants to justify their desire to break away from the Catholic Church. Though many of these philosophical ideals were picked up by Catholics, Russell argues, by the 18th century the Enlightenment was the principal manifestation of the schism that began with Martin Luther.
How did Alexis de Tocqueville describe the French Revolution?
5710effca58dae1900cd6b5a
the inevitable result of the radical opposition created in the 18th century between the monarchy and the men of letters of the Enlightenment
57
False
Which group was considered "a substitute aristocracy that was both all-powerful and without real power" according to Tocqueville?
5710effca58dae1900cd6b5b
men of letters
162
False
From where did Tocqueville believe the illusory power of the men of letters came from?
5710effca58dae1900cd6b5c
the rise of "public opinion"
348
False
Alexis de Tocqueville described the French Revolution as the inevitable result of the radical opposition created in the 18th century between the monarchy and the men of letters of the Enlightenment. These men of letters constituted a sort of "substitute aristocracy that was both all-powerful and without real power". This illusory power came from the rise of "public opinion", born when absolutist centralization removed the nobility and the bourgeoisie from the political sphere. The "literary politics" that resulted promoted a discourse of equality and was hence in fundamental opposition to the monarchical regime. De Tocqueville "clearly designates ... the cultural effects of transformation in the forms of the exercise of power". Nevertheless, it took another century before cultural approach became central to the historiography, as typified by Robert Darnton, The Business of Enlightenment: A Publishing History of the Encyclopédie, 1775–1800 (1979).
Which Jewish philosopher referred to Enlightenment as a process by which man was educated in the use of reason?
5710f278a58dae1900cd6b6a
Moses Mendelssohn
417
False
How did Immanuel Kant describe the Enlightenment?
5710f278a58dae1900cd6b6b
"man's release from his self-incurred tutelage"
557
False
For whom was Enlightenment mankind's final coming of age, the emancipation of the human consciousness from an immature state of ignorance?"
5710f278a58dae1900cd6b6c
Immanuel Kant
522
False
According to historian Roy Porter, what was the Age of Enlightenment trying to capture?
5710f278a58dae1900cd6b6d
the liberation of the human mind from a dogmatic state of ignorance
1115
False
Enlightenment historiography began in the period itself, from what Enlightenment figures said about their work. A dominant element was the intellectual angle they took. D'Alembert's Preliminary Discourse of l'Encyclopédie provides a history of the Enlightenment which comprises a chronological list of developments in the realm of knowledge – of which the Encyclopédie forms the pinnacle. In 1783, Jewish philosopher Moses Mendelssohn referred to Enlightenment as a process by which man was educated in the use of reason. Immanuel Kant called Enlightenment "man's release from his self-incurred tutelage", tutelage being "man's inability to make use of his understanding without direction from another". "For Kant, Enlightenment was mankind's final coming of age, the emancipation of the human consciousness from an immature state of ignorance." The German scholar Ernst Cassirer called the Enlightenment "a part and a special phase of that whole intellectual development through which modern philosophic thought gained its characteristic self-confidence and self-consciousness". According to historian Roy Porter, the liberation of the human mind from a dogmatic state of ignorance is the epitome of what the Age of Enlightenment was trying to capture.
John Locke, Francis Bacon, and Isaac Newton where considered the the greatest men who ever lived by which American colonist?
5710f431b654c5140001fa3f
Thomas Jefferson
221
False
Religious tolerance and the importance of individual conscience was particularly influential in the drafting of which American document?
5710f431b654c5140001fa40
the United States Constitution
189
False
Whom, along with Francis Bacon and John Locke, did Thomas Jefferson consider to be one of the three greatest men that ever lived?
5710f431b654c5140001fa41
Isaac Newton
577
False
These views on religious tolerance and the importance of individual conscience, along with the social contract, became particularly influential in the American colonies and the drafting of the United States Constitution. Thomas Jefferson called for a "wall of separation between church and state" at the federal level. He previously had supported successful efforts to disestablish the Church of England in Virginia, and authored the Virginia Statute for Religious Freedom. Jefferson's political ideals were greatly influenced by the writings of John Locke, Francis Bacon, and Isaac Newton whom he considered the three greatest men that ever lived.
From a historical standpoint, what was one of the most important features of the debating society?
5710f874b654c5140001fa4f
openness to the public
433
False
Were debates only open to certain economic classes, or could all attend?
5710f874b654c5140001fa50
all classes providing they could pay the entrance fee
556
False
What were some of the issues discussed in addition to debates on religion?
5710f874b654c5140001fa51
politics and the role of women
71
False
In addition to debates on religion, societies discussed issues such as politics and the role of women. It is important to note, however, that the critical subject matter of these debates did not necessarily translate into opposition to the government. In other words, the results of the debate quite frequently upheld the status quo. From a historical standpoint, one of the most important features of the debating society was their openness to the public; women attended and even participated in almost every debating society, which were likewise open to all classes providing they could pay the entrance fee. Once inside, spectators were able to participate in a largely egalitarian form of sociability that helped spread Enlightenment ideas.
What aspect of the Enlightenment did Robert Darnton and Jurgen Habermas focus on within the Enlightenment?
5710f92ca58dae1900cd6b7c
social conditions
77
False
How did Habermas describe the public sphere?
5710f92ca58dae1900cd6b7d
bourgeois, egalitarian, rational, and independent from the state
332
False
The new venues and modes of communication allowing for rational exchange were given what term by Habermas in 18th century Europe?
5710f92ca58dae1900cd6b7e
the "bourgeois public sphere"
152
False
Intellectuals such as Robert Darnton and Jürgen Habermas have focused on the social conditions of the Enlightenment. Habermas described the creation of the "bourgeois public sphere" in 18th-century Europe, containing the new venues and modes of communication allowing for rational exchange. Habermas said that the public sphere was bourgeois, egalitarian, rational, and independent from the state, making it the ideal venue for intellectuals to critically examine contemporary politics and society, away from the interference of established authority. While the public sphere is generally an integral component of the social study of the Enlightenment, other historians have questioned whether the public sphere had these characteristics.
What do Jonathon Israel claim caused the change that eventually led to the revolutions of the latter half of the 18th centure and early 19th century?
5710fa0bb654c5140001fa55
the ideas themselves
310
False
What does Israel argue Western civilization was based on until the 1650s?
5710fa0bb654c5140001fa56
largely shared core of faith, tradition and authority
532
False
Jonathon Israel rejects the notion that the revolutionary ideas were by products of what transformations?
5710fa0bb654c5140001fa57
social and economic
151
False
What time period does Johnathon Israel focus on?
5710fa0bb654c5140001fa58
1650 to the end of the 18th century
250
False
Jonathan Israel rejects the attempts of postmodern and Marxian historians to understand the revolutionary ideas of the period purely as by-products of social and economic transformations. He instead focuses on the history of ideas in the period from 1650 to the end of the 18th century, and claims that it was the ideas themselves that caused the change that eventually led to the revolutions of the latter half of the 18th century and the early 19th century. Israel argues that until the 1650s Western civilization "was based on a largely shared core of faith, tradition and authority".
How was the public sphere defined?
5710faaeb654c5140001fa5d
realm of communication marked by new arenas of debate, more open and accessible forms of urban public space and sociability, and an explosion of print culture
102
False
During what centuries was the rise of the public sphere?
5710faaeb654c5140001fa5e
late 17th century and 18th century
270
False
The argument of the public sphere was founded on what?
5710faaeb654c5140001fa5f
reason
439
False
What term did Habermas give to describe the areas of political/social knowledge and discussion that were previously exlusive territory of the state and religious authorities?
5710faaeb654c5140001fa60
common concern
471
False
The values of the bourgeois public sphere included holding reason to the supreme, considering everything open to criticism, and the opposition of what?
5710faaeb654c5140001fa61
secrecy of all sorts
880
False
One of the primary elements of the culture of the Enlightenment was the rise of the public sphere, a "realm of communication marked by new arenas of debate, more open and accessible forms of urban public space and sociability, and an explosion of print culture," in the late 17th century and 18th century. Elements of the public sphere included: it was egalitarian, it discussed the domain of "common concern," and argument was founded on reason. Habermas uses the term "common concern" to describe those areas of political/social knowledge and discussion that were previously the exclusive territory of the state and religious authorities, now open to critical examination by the public sphere. The values of this bourgeois public sphere included holding reason to be supreme, considering everything to be open to criticism (the public sphere is critical), and the opposition of secrecy of all sorts.
Book sellers and publishers had to negotiate censorship laws of varying strictness in what country, especially?
5710fbc0b654c5140001fa67
France
34
False
Which work narrowly escaped seizure and had to be saved by Malesherbes?
5710fbc0b654c5140001fa68
The Encyclopédie
136
False
Many publishing companies were located outside of which country to avoid overzealous censors?
5710fbc0b654c5140001fa69
France
34
False
Readers were more interested in sensationalist stories about what topics than they were in political theory itself?
5710fbc0b654c5140001fa6a
criminals and political corruption
880
False
What was the term given to books that did not have a dominant motif and contained something to offend almost everyone in authority?
5710fbc0b654c5140001fa6b
general works
993
False
Across continental Europe, but in France especially, booksellers and publishers had to negotiate censorship laws of varying strictness. The Encyclopédie, for example, narrowly escaped seizure and had to be saved by Malesherbes, the man in charge of the French censure. Indeed, many publishing companies were conveniently located outside France so as to avoid overzealous French censors. They would smuggle their merchandise across the border, where it would then be transported to clandestine booksellers or small-time peddlers. The records of clandestine booksellers may give a better representation of what literate Frenchmen might have truly read, since their clandestine nature provided a less restrictive product choice. In one case, political books were the most popular category, primarily libels and pamphlets. Readers were more interested in sensationalist stories about criminals and political corruption than they were in political theory itself. The second most popular category, "general works" (those books "that did not have a dominant motif and that contained something to offend almost everyone in authority") demonstrated a high demand for generally low-brow subversive literature. However, these works never became part of literary canon, and are largely forgotten today as a result.
Who helped The Encyclopedie find its way into print using the French censorship law creatively?
5710fc6ab654c5140001fa71
Malesherbes
314
False
The King and Clement XII condemned which literary work?
5710fc6ab654c5140001fa72
The Encyclopédie
153
False
What percentage of books borrowed in England, Germany, and Norath America were novels?
5710fc6ab654c5140001fa73
70
536
False
What percentage of books borrowed were of a religious nature in England, Germany, and North America?
5710fc6ab654c5140001fa74
1
588
False
A healthy, and legal, publishing industry existed throughout Europe, although established publishers and book sellers occasionally ran afoul of the law. The Encyclopédie, for example, condemned not only by the King but also by Clement XII, nevertheless found its way into print with the help of the aforementioned Malesherbes and creative use of French censorship law. But many works were sold without running into any legal trouble at all. Borrowing records from libraries in England, Germany and North America indicate that more than 70 percent of books borrowed were novels. Less than 1 percent of the books were of a religious nature, indicating the general trend of declining religiosity.
What did the Republic of Letters support?
5710fd27b654c5140001fa79
free public examination of questions regarding religion or legislation
213
False
Once everyone was a part of what group did Kant believe all of society would be enlightened?
5710fd27b654c5140001fa7a
the "reading public"
411
False
Who were two of the figures that participated in the Republic of Letters?
5710fd27b654c5140001fa7b
Diderot and Voltaire
543
False
What did Immanuel Kant consider essential to his conception of the public sphere?
5710fd27b654c5140001fa7c
written communication
311
False
The Republic of Letters was the sum of a number of Enlightenment ideals: an egalitarian realm governed by knowledge that could act across political boundaries and rival state power. It was a forum that supported "free public examination of questions regarding religion or legislation". Immanuel Kant considered written communication essential to his conception of the public sphere; once everyone was a part of the "reading public", then society could be said to be enlightened. The people who participated in the Republic of Letters, such as Diderot and Voltaire, are frequently known today as important Enlightenment figures. Indeed, the men who wrote Diderot's Encyclopédie arguably formed a microcosm of the larger "republic".
Who called the journals the most influential cultural innovation of European intellectual culture?
5710fe32a58dae1900cd6b8c
Jonathan Israel
0
False
To what did the journals shift attention of the cultivated public away from and towards novelty and innovation?
5710fe32a58dae1900cd6b8d
established authorities
175
False
What enlightened ideas were promoted by the journals?
5710fe32a58dae1900cd6b8e
toleration and intellectual objectivity
267
False
The journals were a source of knowledge derived from what topics?
5710fe32a58dae1900cd6b8f
science and reason
349
False
Jonathan Israel called the journals the most influential cultural innovation of European intellectual culture. They shifted the attention of the "cultivated public" away from established authorities to novelty and innovation, and promoted the "enlightened" ideals of toleration and intellectual objectivity. Being a source of knowledge derived from science and reason, they were an implicit critique of existing notions of universal truth monopolized by monarchies, parliaments, and religious authorities. They also advanced Christian enlightenment that upheld "the legitimacy of God-ordained authority"—the Bible—in which there had to be agreement between the biblical and natural theories.
How did dictionaries and encyclopedias change in the 18th century?
5710febab654c5140001fa8b
from simply defining words in a long running list to far more detailed discussions of those words
103
False
What movement were dictionaries and encyclopedias trying to promote?
5710febab654c5140001fa8c
to systematize knowledge and provide education to a wider audience than the elite
293
False
How did the content of encyclopedias change in the 18th century?
5710febab654c5140001fa8d
tended to focus more strongly on secular affairs, particularly science and technology, rather than matters of theology
488
False
Encyclopedias in the 18th century tended to focus more strongly on what topics, rather than theology?
5710febab654c5140001fa8e
secular affairs, particularly science and technology
521
False
Although the existence of dictionaries and encyclopedias spanned into ancient times, the texts changed from simply defining words in a long running list to far more detailed discussions of those words in 18th-century encyclopedic dictionaries. The works were part of an Enlightenment movement to systematize knowledge and provide education to a wider audience than the elite. As the 18th century progressed, the content of encyclopedias also changed according to readers' tastes. Volumes tended to focus more strongly on secular affairs, particularly science and technology, rather than matters of theology.
How was the Encyclopedie arranged?
5710ff56b654c5140001fa93
according to a "tree of knowledge."
30
False
The rise of empiricism caused a division between which two subjects?
5710ff56b654c5140001fa94
the arts and sciences
113
False
What was considered the trunk of the tree of knowledge?
5710ff56b654c5140001fa95
philosophy
229
False
Which editions of the Encyclopedie were less expensive and more accessible to the non-elite?
5710ff56b654c5140001fa96
quarto and octavo
569
False
How many copies of the Encyclopedie were estimated to be in circulation throughout France and Europe before the French Revolution?
5710ff56b654c5140001fa97
25 000
758
False
The massive work was arranged according to a "tree of knowledge." The tree reflected the marked division between the arts and sciences, which was largely a result of the rise of empiricism. Both areas of knowledge were united by philosophy, or the trunk of the tree of knowledge. The Enlightenment's desacrilization of religion was pronounced in the tree's design, particularly where theology accounted for a peripheral branch, with black magic as a close neighbour. As the Encyclopédie gained popularity, it was published in quarto and octavo editions after 1777. The quarto and octavo editions were much less expensive than previous editions, making the Encyclopédie more accessible to the non-elite. Robert Darnton estimates that there were approximately 25 000 copies of the Encyclopédie in circulation throughout France and Europe before the French Revolution. The extensive, yet affordable encyclopedia came to represent the transmission of Enlightenment and scientific education to an expanding audience.
Which society in England also played a significant role in the public sphere and spread of Enlightenment ideas?
5710ffffa58dae1900cd6b9e
Royal Society of London
16
False
In what year was the Royal Society of London given a royal charter?
5710ffffa58dae1900cd6b9f
1662
212
False
Whose method based knowledge on experiementation, which had to be witnessed?
5710ffffa58dae1900cd6ba0
Robert Boyle
263
False
Who were considered more reliable witnesses than the Oxfordshire peasants?
5710ffffa58dae1900cd6ba1
Oxford professors
848
False
What two factors were taken into account in credibility in the Royal Society?
5710ffffa58dae1900cd6ba2
a witness's knowledge in the area; and a witness's "moral constitution"
970
False
In England, the Royal Society of London also played a significant role in the public sphere and the spread of Enlightenment ideas. It was founded by a group of independent scientists and given a royal charter in 1662. The Society played a large role in spreading Robert Boyle's experimental philosophy around Europe, and acted as a clearinghouse for intellectual correspondence and exchange. Boyle was "a founder of the experimental world in which scientists now live and operate," and his method based knowledge on experimentation, which had to be witnessed to provide proper empirical legitimacy. This is where the Royal Society came into play: witnessing had to be a "collective act", and the Royal Society's assembly rooms were ideal locations for relatively public demonstrations. However, not just any witness was considered to be credible; "Oxford professors were accounted more reliable witnesses than Oxfordshire peasants." Two factors were taken into account: a witness's knowledge in the area; and a witness's "moral constitution". In other words, only civil society were considered for Boyle's public.
Before the Enlightenment, most intellectual debates revoled around what subject?
5711008ba58dae1900cd6ba8
"confessional"
136
False
Catholic, Lutheran, Reformed (Calvinist), or Anglican issues were called what?
5711008ba58dae1900cd6ba9
"confessional"
136
False
During what time period did a "general process of rationalization and secularization set in"?
5711008ba58dae1900cd6baa
second half of the 17th century and during the 18th century
530
False
The aim of confessional debates was to establish which bloc of faith should have what?
5711008ba58dae1900cd6bab
the "monopoly of truth and a God-given title to authority"
309
False
The debating societies discussed an extremely wide range of topics. Before the Enlightenment, most intellectual debates revolved around "confessional" – that is, Catholic, Lutheran, Reformed (Calvinist), or Anglican issues, and the main aim of these debates was to establish which bloc of faith ought to have the "monopoly of truth and a God-given title to authority". After this date everything thus previously rooted in tradition was questioned and often replaced by new concepts in the light of philosophical reason. After the second half of the 17th century and during the 18th century, a "general process of rationalization and secularization set in," and confessional disputes were reduced to a secondary status in favor of the "escalating contest between faith and incredulity".
According to German historian Reinhart Koselleck, which two social structures left a decisive imprint on the Age of Enlightenment?
571101b2b654c5140001fa9d
the Republic of Letters and the Masonic lodges
158
False
Which Scottish professor believes that Masons were not a major radical or reformist network in their own right?
571101b2b654c5140001fa9e
Thomas Munck
226
False
Historian Margaret Jacob stresses the importance of the Masons in indirectly inspriting what type of thinking?
571101b2b654c5140001fa9f
political thought
849
False
Daniel Roche claims that Masonry promoted what idea by only attracting men of similar social background?
571101b2b654c5140001faa0
egalitarianism
941
False
The presence of whom in the French "lodges of adoption" formed in the 1780s was die to the close ties shared with aristocratic society?
571101b2b654c5140001faa1
noble women
1049
False
German historian Reinhart Koselleck claimed that "On the Continent there were two social structures that left a decisive imprint on the Age of Enlightenment: the Republic of Letters and the Masonic lodges." Scottish professor Thomas Munck argues that "although the Masons did promote international and cross-social contacts which were essentially non-religious and broadly in agreement with enlightened values, they can hardly be described as a major radical or reformist network in their own right." Many of the Masons values seemed to greatly appeal to Enlightenment values and thinkers. Diderot discusses the link between Freemason ideals and the enlightenment in D'Alembert's Dream, exploring masonry as a way of spreading enlightenment beliefs. Historian Margaret Jacob stresses the importance of the Masons in indirectly inspiring enlightened political thought. On the negative side, Daniel Roche contests claims that Masonry promoted egalitarianism. He argues that the lodges only attracted men of similar social backgrounds. The presence of noble women in the French "lodges of adoption" that formed in the 1780s was largely due to the close ties shared between these lodges and aristocratic society.
What ordering scheme did readers prefer?
57110273b654c5140001fab1
alphabetical
53
False
Who believed the avoidance of thematic and heirarhical systems allowed free interpretation of the works and caused them to beomce an example of eglitarianism?
57110273b654c5140001fab2
Charles Porset
149
False
Why did Encyclopedias and dictionaries become more popular during the Age of Reason?
57110273b654c5140001fab3
the number of educated consumers who could afford such texts began to multiply
603
False
How many dictionaries and encyclopedias were published between 1760 and 1769?
57110273b654c5140001fab4
63
802
False
How many dictionaries and encyclopedias were published in the decade preceding the French Revolution?
57110273b654c5140001fab5
148
844
False
Along with secular matters, readers also favoured an alphabetical ordering scheme over cumbersome works arranged along thematic lines. The historian Charles Porset, commenting on alphabetization, has said that "as the zero degree of taxonomy, alphabetical order authorizes all reading strategies; in this respect it could be considered an emblem of the Enlightenment." For Porset, the avoidance of thematic and hierarchical systems thus allows free interpretation of the works and becomes an example of egalitarianism. Encyclopedias and dictionaries also became more popular during the Age of Reason as the number of educated consumers who could afford such texts began to multiply. In the later half of the 18th century, the number of dictionaries and encyclopedias published by decade increased from 63 between 1760 and 1769 to approximately 148 in the decade proceeding the French Revolution (1780–1789). Along with growth in numbers, dictionaries and encyclopedias also grew in length, often having multiple print runs that sometimes included in supplemented editions.
What caused an increasingly literate population to develop in the Enlightenment era?
57110322b654c5140001fabb
a high rise in the availability of food
351
False
Instead of paying more for food, on what did people spend their money?
57110322b654c5140001fabc
education
497
False
Which ideal endeavoured to make information available to the greatest number of people?
57110322b654c5140001fabd
Popularization
508
False
Who wrote the celebrated Philosophiae Naturalis Principia Mathematica?
57110322b654c5140001fabe
Sir Isaac Newton
1079
False
Which work of Isaac Newton was published in Latin and remained inaccessible to readers without education until Enlightenment writers began to translate and analyze it in the vernacular?
57110322b654c5140001fabf
Philosophiae Naturalis Principia Mathematica
1109
False
One of the most important developments that the Enlightenment era brought to the discipline of science was its popularization. An increasingly literate population seeking knowledge and education in both the arts and the sciences drove the expansion of print culture and the dissemination of scientific learning. The new literate population was due to a high rise in the availability of food. This enabled many people to rise out of poverty, and instead of paying more for food, they had money for education. Popularization was generally part of an overarching Enlightenment ideal that endeavoured "to make information available to the greatest number of people." As public interest in natural philosophy grew during the 18th century, public lecture courses and the publication of popular texts opened up new roads to money and fame for amateurs and scientists who remained on the periphery of universities and academies. More formal works included explanations of scientific theories for individuals lacking the educational background to comprehend the original scientific text. Sir Isaac Newton's celebrated Philosophiae Naturalis Principia Mathematica was published in Latin and remained inaccessible to readers without education in the classics until Enlightenment writers began to translate and analyze the text in the vernacular.
Nintendo_Entertainment_System
Who attached a Game & Watch D-pad to the Famicom prototype?
571111f8a58dae1900cd6bc4
Katsuyah Nakawaka
381
False
What was installed on the front of the console so the joystick could be used?
571111f8a58dae1900cd6bc5
15-pin expansion port
549
False
Why were the controllers hard-wired to the console with no connectors?
571111f8a58dae1900cd6bc6
cost reasons
728
False
Where were the game pad controllers copied from?
571111f8a58dae1900cd6bc7
Game & Watch machines
68
False
Katsuyah Nakawaka
381
Who attached a Game & Watch C-pad to the Famicom prototype?
5ad2a28ed7d075001a429d0a
True
15-pin expansion port
549
What was installed on the front of the console so the joystick couldn't be used?
5ad2a28ed7d075001a429d0b
True
cost reasons
728
Why were the controllers hard-wired to the console with multiple connectors?
5ad2a28ed7d075001a429d0c
True
Game & Watch
410
Where were the game pad controllers not copied from?
5ad2a28ed7d075001a429d0d
True
The game pad controllers were more-or-less copied directly from the Game & Watch machines, although the Famicom design team originally wanted to use arcade-style joysticks, even taking apart ones from American game consoles to see how they worked. However, it was eventually decided that children might step on joysticks left on the floor and their durability was also questioned. Katsuyah Nakawaka attached a Game & Watch D-pad to the Famicom prototype and found that it was easy to use and had no discomfort. Ultimately though, they did install a 15-pin expansion port on the front of the console so that an arcade-style joystick could be used optionally. The controllers were hard-wired to the console with no connectors for cost reasons.
What was the abbreviation for Nintendo Entertainment System?
571112eab654c5140001faed
NES
225
False
What day did Nintendo unveil the new systems?
571112eab654c5140001faee
October 18, 1985
329
False
Where did Nintendo start unveiling the new systems?
571112eab654c5140001faef
New York City
312
False
What was the name of the convention where Nintendo unveiled its American version of the Famicom?
571112eab654c5140001faf0
Consumer Electronics Show
15
False
NES
225
What was the abbreviation for Nintendo NonEntertainment System?
5ad2a316d7d075001a429d30
True
October 18, 1985
329
What day did Nintendo not unveil the new systems?
5ad2a316d7d075001a429d31
True
New York City
312
Where did Nintendo stop unveiling the new systems?
5ad2a316d7d075001a429d32
True
Consumer Electronics Show
15
What was the name of the convention where Nintendo unveiled its American version of the Pamicom?
5ad2a316d7d075001a429d33
True
At June 1985's Consumer Electronics Show (CES), Nintendo unveiled the American version of its Famicom. This is the system which would eventually be officially deployed as the Nintendo Entertainment System, or the colloquial "NES". Nintendo seeded these first systems to limited American test markets starting in New York City on October 18, 1985, following up with a full-fledged North American release of the console in February of the following year. Nintendo released 17 launch titles: 10-Yard Fight, Baseball, Clu Clu Land, Duck Hunt, Excitebike, Golf, Gyromite, Hogan’s Alley, Ice Climber, Kung Fu, Pinball, Soccer, Stack-Up, Tennis, Wild Gunman, Wrecking Crew, and Super Mario Bros.h[›] Some varieties of these launch games contained Famicom chips with an adapter inside the cartridge so they would play on North American consoles, which is why the title screen of Gyromite has the Famicom title "Robot Gyro" and the title screen of Stack-Up has the Famicom title "Robot Block".
In June 1989 who was Nintendo of America's vice president of marketing?
57111370b654c5140001faf5
Peter Main
64
False
In 1990, what percentage of American households owned an NES?
57111370b654c5140001faf6
30%
149
False
What was the slogan for the Nintendo brand?
57111370b654c5140001faf7
It can't be beaten
360
False
What outsold the NES in Europe and South America?
57111370b654c5140001faf8
Sega's Master System
441
False
Where was Nintendo not available?
57111370b654c5140001faf9
Soviet Union
528
False
Peter Main
64
In June 1987 who was Nintendo of America's vice president of marketing?
5ad2a4f3d7d075001a429da6
True
30%
149
In 1990, what percentage of American households owned a SNES?
5ad2a4f3d7d075001a429da7
True
It can't be beaten
360
What wasn't the slogan for the Nintendo brand?
5ad2a4f3d7d075001a429da8
True
Sega's Master System
441
What outsold the NES in Europe and South Africa?
5ad2a4f3d7d075001a429da9
True
Soviet Union
528
Where was Nintendo always available?
5ad2a4f3d7d075001a429daa
True
In June 1989, Nintendo of America's vice president of marketing Peter Main, said that the Famicom was present in 37% of Japan's households. By 1990, 30% of American households owned the NES, compared to 23% for all personal computers. By 1990, the NES had outsold all previously released consoles worldwide.[better source needed] The slogan for this brand was It can't be beaten. In Europe and South America, however, the NES was outsold by Sega's Master System, while the Nintendo Entertainment System was not available in the Soviet Union.
Which cartridges were shaped slightly differently?
5711142aa58dae1900cd6be0
Japanese (Famicom)
0
False
Which interface did the NES use?
5711142aa58dae1900cd6be1
72-pin
84
False
Which interface did Famicom use?
5711142aa58dae1900cd6be2
60-pin
128
False
Various companies in Japan did what to their games for certain specifics?
5711142aa58dae1900cd6be3
develop their own customized chips
463
False
Japanese (Famicom)
0
Which cartridges weren't shaped slightly differently?
5ad2a5d3d7d075001a429de8
True
72-pin
84
Which interface did the SNES use?
5ad2a5d3d7d075001a429de9
True
60-pin
128
Which interface did Famicom not use?
5ad2a5d3d7d075001a429dea
True
develop their own customized chips
463
Various companies in China did what to their games for certain specifics?
5ad2a5d3d7d075001a429deb
True
Japanese (Famicom) cartridges are shaped slightly differently. While the NES used a 72-pin interface, the Famicom system used a 60-pin design. Unlike NES games, official Famicom cartridges were produced in many colors of plastic. Adapters, similar in design to the popular accessory Game Genie, are available that allow Famicom games to be played on an NES. In Japan, several companies manufactured the cartridges for the Famicom. This allowed these companies to develop their own customized chips designed for specific purposes, such as chips that increased the quality of sound in their games.
With the NES at its end, which competing consoles with less strict licensing terms were supported?
571114f7a58dae1900cd6be8
Sega Genesis and then the PlayStation
200
False
Who was an example of a 3rd party publisher?
571114f7a58dae1900cd6be9
Electronic Arts
102
False
Nintendo relied primarily on what for its support?
571114f7a58dae1900cd6bea
first-party games
484
False
Rivals in what self-identified era enjoyed much stronger 3rd party support?
571114f7a58dae1900cd6beb
post-SNES era
373
False
Sega Genesis and then the PlayStation
200
With the NES at its end, which competing consoles with more strict licensing terms were supported?
5ad2ab64d7d075001a429e66
True
Electronic Arts
102
Who was an example of a 2nd party publisher?
5ad2ab64d7d075001a429e67
True
first-party games
484
Nintendo didn't rely primarily on what for its support?
5ad2ab64d7d075001a429e68
True
post-SNES era
373
Rivals in what self-identified era enjoyed much stronger 2nd party support?
5ad2ab64d7d075001a429e69
True
In the longer run, however, with the NES near its end of its life many third-party publishers such as Electronic Arts supported upstart competing consoles with less strict licensing terms such as the Sega Genesis and then the PlayStation, which eroded and then took over Nintendo's dominance in the home console market, respectively. Consoles from Nintendo's rivals in the post-SNES era had always enjoyed much stronger third-party support than Nintendo, which relied more heavily on first-party games.
Who caused Nintendo to take formal action regarding rentals?
571115a5a58dae1900cd6bf0
Blockbuster Video
561
False
According to Nintendo what was the danger in renting games?
571115a5a58dae1900cd6bf1
would significantly hurt sales and drive up the cost of games
684
False
Blockbuster was banned from including what with their games?
571115a5a58dae1900cd6bf2
copyrighted instruction booklets
872
False
What did Blockbuster do instead of use copyrighted instruction booklets?
571115a5a58dae1900cd6bf3
produced their own short instructions
973
False
Blockbuster
824
Who caused Nintendo to take informal action regarding rentals?
5ad2ac37d7d075001a429e90
True
significantly hurt sales and drive up the cost of games
690
According to Nintendo what wasn't the danger in renting games?
5ad2ac37d7d075001a429e91
True
copyrighted instruction booklets
872
Blockbuster wasn't banned from including what with their games?
5ad2ac37d7d075001a429e92
True
produced their own short instructions
973
What did Blockbuster do along with use copyrighted instruction booklets?
5ad2ac37d7d075001a429e93
True
As the Nintendo Entertainment System grew in popularity and entered millions of American homes, some small video rental shops began buying their own copies of NES games, and renting them out to customers for around the same price as a video cassette rental for a few days. Nintendo received no profit from the practice beyond the initial cost of their game, and unlike movie rentals, a newly released game could hit store shelves and be available for rent on the same day. Nintendo took steps to stop game rentals, but didn't take any formal legal action until Blockbuster Video began to make game rentals a large-scale service. Nintendo claimed that allowing customers to rent games would significantly hurt sales and drive up the cost of games. Nintendo lost the lawsuit, but did win on a claim of copyright infringement. Blockbuster was banned from including original, copyrighted instruction booklets with their rented games. In compliance with the ruling, Blockbuster produced their own short instructions—usually in the form of a small booklet, card, or label stuck on the back of the rental box—that explained the game's basic premise and controls. Video rental shops continued the practice of renting video games and still do today.
Which company distributed the NES to the UK, Italy, and Australia?
5711165aa58dae1900cd6bf8
Mattel
214
False
When did Nintendo take over European distribution?
5711165aa58dae1900cd6bf9
1990
400
False
Which three countries share the PAL A region?
5711165aa58dae1900cd6bfa
UK, Italy and Australia
7
False
What two versions of the NES were released in the UK, Italy, and Australia?
5711165aa58dae1900cd6bfb
"Mattel Version" and "NES Version"
104
False
Mattel
105
Which company didn't distribute the NES to the UK, Italy, and Australia?
5ad2ac5dd7d075001a429e98
True
1990
400
When did Nintendo take over Asian distribution?
5ad2ac5dd7d075001a429e99
True
UK, Italy and Australia
7
Which three countries share the PAL B region?
5ad2ac5dd7d075001a429e9a
True
Mattel Version
105
What two versions of the NES were released in the UK, France, and Spain?
5ad2ac5dd7d075001a429e9b
True
In the UK, Italy and Australia which share the PAL A region, two versions of the NES were released; the "Mattel Version" and "NES Version". When the NES was first released in those countries, it was distributed by Mattel and Nintendo decided to use a lockout chip specific to those countries, different from the chip used in other European countries. When Nintendo took over European distribution in 1990, they produced consoles that were then labelled "NES Version"; therefore, the only differences between the two are the text on the front flap and texture on the top/bottom of the casing.
What were the two turbo controllers Nintendo made for the NES?
57111703b654c5140001fb1d
NES Advantage and the NES Max
60
False
What did the Turbo feature allow players to do?
57111703b654c5140001fb1e
shoot much faster during shooter games
226
False
Which controller had a non-adjustable Turbo feature?
57111703b654c5140001fb1f
The NES Max
576
False
Which two accessories were featured in the movie The Wizard?
57111703b654c5140001fb20
Power Pad and the Power Glove
938
False
The NES Max also did not feature what?
57111703b654c5140001fb21
"Slow" button
700
False
NES Max
82
What were the third turbo controllers Nintendo made for the NES?
5ad2b1fcd7d075001a429f72
True
shoot much faster during shooter games
226
What did the Turbo feature not allow players to do?
5ad2b1fcd7d075001a429f73
True
NES Max
82
Which controller had a adjustable Turbo feature?
5ad2b1fcd7d075001a429f74
True
Power Pad and the Power Glove
938
Which three accessories were featured in the movie The Wizard?
5ad2b1fcd7d075001a429f75
True
Slow
701
The SNES Max also did not feature what?
5ad2b1fcd7d075001a429f76
True
Nintendo also made two turbo controllers for the NES called NES Advantage and the NES Max. Both controllers had a Turbo feature, a feature where one tap of the button represented multiple taps. This feature allowed players to shoot much faster during shooter games. The NES Advantage had two knobs that adjusted the firing rate of the turbo button from quick to Turbo, as well as a "Slow" button that slowed down the game by rapidly pausing the game. The "Slow" button did not work with games that had a pause menu or pause screen and can interfere with jumping and shooting. The NES Max also had the Turbo Feature, but it was not adjustable, in contrast with the Advantage. It also did not have the "Slow" button. Its wing-like shape made it easier to hold than the Advantage and it also improved on the joystick. Turbo features were also featured on the NES Satellite, the NES Four Score, and the U-Force. Other accessories include the Power Pad and the Power Glove, which was featured in the movie The Wizard.
What year did Nintendo release the Famicom Disk System?
571117b1b654c5140001fb27
1986
3
False
Where could the disks for the game be obtained?
571117b1b654c5140001fb28
kiosks in malls
315
False
How were the disks purchased?
571117b1b654c5140001fb29
buyers could select a title and have it written to the disk
361
False
What were the storage disks used for?
571117b1b654c5140001fb2a
storing the game and saving progress
589
False
What was the total capacity of a disk?
571117b1b654c5140001fb2b
128k
649
False
1986
3
What year did Atari release the Famicom Disk System?
5ad2b3f4d7d075001a429fae
True
kiosks in malls
315
Where could the disks for the game not be obtained?
5ad2b3f4d7d075001a429faf
True
buyers could select a title and have it written to the disk
361
How were the disks sold?
5ad2b3f4d7d075001a429fb0
True
storing the game and saving progress
589
What weren't the storage disks used for?
5ad2b3f4d7d075001a429fb1
True
128k
649
What was half of the total capacity of a disk?
5ad2b3f4d7d075001a429fb2
True
In 1986, Nintendo released the Famicom Disk System (FDS) in Japan, a type of floppy drive that uses a single-sided, proprietary 5 cm (2") disk and plugs into the cartridge port. It contains RAM for the game to load into and an extra single-cycle wavetable-lookup sound chip. The disks were originally obtained from kiosks in malls and other public places where buyers could select a title and have it written to the disk. This process would cost less than cartridges and users could take the disk back to a vending booth and have it rewritten with a new game. The disks were used both for storing the game and saving progress and total capacity was 128k (64k per side).
When was the system originally supposed to be released?
5711181cb654c5140001fb3b
spring of 1985
54
False
Retailers in what test area reported a miserable failure of sales?
5711181cb654c5140001fb3c
New York City
136
False
When was the second time Nintendo test marketed the NES?
5711181cb654c5140001fb3d
February 1986
475
False
When was the nationwide release of the NES?
5711181cb654c5140001fb3e
September 1986
531
False
spring of 1985
54
When was the system originally not supposed to be released?
5ad2a33cd7d075001a429d40
True
New York City
136
Retailers in what test area reported a success of sales?
5ad2a33cd7d075001a429d41
True
February 1986
475
When was the first time Nintendo test marketed the NES?
5ad2a33cd7d075001a429d42
True
September 1986
531
When was the non-nationwide release of the NES?
5ad2a33cd7d075001a429d43
True
The system was originally targeted for release in the spring of 1985, but the release date was pushed back. After test-marketing in the New York City area in late fall, retailers had reportedly stated the system "failed miserably".[contradictory] While others stated that Nintendo had an excellent nine-week market test in New York last fall Due to the moderate success launch in New York City, Nintendo tried a second time; the system was test-marketed further beginning in February 1986, with the nationwide release occurring in September 1986.
Where was the system released to two separate marketing areas?
571118caa58dae1900cd6c14
Europe and Australia
3
False
One region comprised the entirety of mainland Europe save for which country?
571118caa58dae1900cd6c15
Italy
143
False
Who released cartridges in mainland Europe?
571118caa58dae1900cd6c16
Nintendo
227
False
Who handled distribution in the other region?
571118caa58dae1900cd6c17
Mattel
317
False
When did the European brance finally directly distribute throughout Europe?
571118caa58dae1900cd6c18
1990s
495
False
Europe and Australia
3
Where was the system released to three separate marketing areas?
5ad2a44cd7d075001a429d78
True
Italy
143
One region comprised the entirety of mainland Asia save for which country?
5ad2a44cd7d075001a429d79
True
Nintendo's
505
Who released cartridges in mainland Asia?
5ad2a44cd7d075001a429d7a
True
Mattel
317
Who didn't handle distribution in the other region?
5ad2a44cd7d075001a429d7b
True
1990s
495
When did the European brance finally directly redistribute throughout Europe?
5ad2a44cd7d075001a429d7c
True
In Europe and Australia, the system was released to two separate marketing regions. One region consisted of most of mainland Europe (excluding Italy), and distribution there was handled by a number of different companies, with Nintendo responsible for most cartridge releases. Most of this region saw a 1986 release. Mattel handled distribution for the other region, consisting of the United Kingdom, Ireland, Canada, Italy, Australia and New Zealand, starting the following year. Not until the 1990s did Nintendo's newly created European branch direct distribution throughout Europe.
Which example of a system started to mark the end of the NES dominance?
57111975a58dae1900cd6c28
16-bit Sega Mega Drive/Genesis
105
False
When did the demand for new NES software dry up?
57111975a58dae1900cd6c29
late 1993
559
False
What was the final Famicom game released in North America?
57111975a58dae1900cd6c2a
Wario's Woods
752
False
What year did Nintendo officially discontinue the NES?
57111975a58dae1900cd6c2b
1995
923
False
How late did Nintendo continue to repair Famicom units?
57111975a58dae1900cd6c2c
October 31, 2007
1062
False
16-bit Sega Mega Drive/Genesis
105
Which example of a system started to mark the end of the SNES dominance?
5ad2a532d7d075001a429db0
True
late 1993
559
When did the demand for new NES software get boosted?
5ad2a532d7d075001a429db1
True
Wario's Woods
752
What was the first Famicom game released in North America?
5ad2a532d7d075001a429db2
True
1995
923
What year did Nintendo officially discontinue the SNES?
5ad2a532d7d075001a429db3
True
October 31, 2007
1062
How late did Nintendo continue to repair nonFamicom units?
5ad2a532d7d075001a429db4
True
As the 1990s dawned, gamers predicted that competition from technologically superior systems such as the 16-bit Sega Mega Drive/Genesis would mean the immediate end of the NES’s dominance. Instead, during the first year of Nintendo's successor console the Super Famicom (named Super Nintendo Entertainment System outside Japan), the Famicom remained the second highest-selling video game console in Japan, outselling the newer and more powerful NEC PC Engine and Sega Mega Drive by a wide margin. The console remained popular in Japan and North America until late 1993, when the demand for new NES software abruptly plummeted. The final Famicom game released in Japan is Takahashi Meijin no Bōken Jima IV (Adventure Island IV), while in North America, Wario's Woods is the final licensed game. In the wake of ever decreasing sales and the lack of new software titles, Nintendo of America officially discontinued the NES by 1995. However, Nintendo kept producing new Famicom units in Japan until September 25, 2003, and continued to repair Famicom consoles until October 31, 2007, attributing the discontinuation of support to insufficient supplies of parts.
Who did Atari attempt to force ceasing production of games for its system?
57111a07b654c5140001fb4d
Activision
222
False
Nintendo actively encouraged  the involvement of what?
57111a07b654c5140001fb4e
third-party software developers
334
False
Nintendo's measures for third party game developers were also adopted by which later manufacturers?
57111a07b654c5140001fb4f
Sega, Sony, and Microsoft
506
False
Activision
222
Who didn't Atari attempt to force ceasing production of games for its system?
5ad2aab0d7d075001a429e3a
True
third-party developers
152
Nintendo actively discouraged the involvement of what?
5ad2aab0d7d075001a429e3b
True
Sega, Sony, and Microsoft
506
Nintendo's measures for third party game developers weren't adopted by which later manufacturers?
5ad2aab0d7d075001a429e3c
True
Nintendo's near monopoly on the home video game market left it with a degree of influence over the industry. Unlike Atari, which never actively courted third-party developers (and even went to court in an attempt to force Activision to cease production of Atari 2600 games), Nintendo had anticipated and encouraged the involvement of third-party software developers; strictly, however, on Nintendo's terms. Some of the Nintendo platform-control measures were adopted by later console manufacturers such as Sega, Sony, and Microsoft, although not as stringent.
Companies did what in an effort to circumvent Nintendo's console authentication?
57111ab0b654c5140001fb53
voltage spike to temporarily disable the 10NES chip
205
False
Why did the companies circumvent the authentication system?
57111ab0b654c5140001fb54
refusing to pay the licensing fee or having been rejected by Nintendo
19
False
Where did unlicensed games feature a dongle?
57111ab0b654c5140001fb55
Europe and Australia
304
False
What did Nintendo do to curb unlicensed game sales?
57111ab0b654c5140001fb56
threatened retailers
522
False
voltage spike to temporarily disable the 10NES chip in the NES
205
Companies didn't do what in an effort to circumvent Nintendo's console authentication?
5ad2ab91d7d075001a429e6e
True
pay the licensing fee or having been rejected by Nintendo
31
Why didn't the companies circumvent the authentication system?
5ad2ab91d7d075001a429e6f
True
Europe and Australia
304
Where didn't unlicensed games feature a dongle?
5ad2ab91d7d075001a429e70
True
threatened retailers
522
What did Nintendo do to curb licensed game sales?
5ad2ab91d7d075001a429e71
True
Several companies, refusing to pay the licensing fee or having been rejected by Nintendo, found ways to circumvent the console's authentication system. Most of these companies created circuits that used a voltage spike to temporarily disable the 10NES chip in the NES. A few unlicensed games released in Europe and Australia came in the form of a dongle that would be connected to a licensed game, in order to use the licensed game's 10NES chip for authentication. In order to combat unlicensed games, Nintendo of America threatened retailers who sold them with losing their supply of licensed titles. In addition, multiple revisions were made to the NES PCBs to prevent these games from working.
What is the abbreviation of Nintendo Entertainment System?
57111b3aa58dae1900cd6c46
NES
55
False
what was it called in Japan?
57111b3aa58dae1900cd6c47
Family Computer
187
False
When was the Family Computer (Famicom) released in Japan?
57111b3aa58dae1900cd6c48
July 15, 1983
350
False
When was it released in Australia?
57111b3aa58dae1900cd6c49
1987
458
False
What succeeded the Famicom?
57111b3aa58dae1900cd6c4a
Super Nintendo Entertainment System
642
False
NES
55
What is the abbreviation of Mintendo Entertainment System?
5ad2a217d7d075001a429cda
True
Family Computer
187
what was it called in China?
5ad2a217d7d075001a429cdb
True
July 15, 1983
350
When was the Family Computer (Famicom) released in China?
5ad2a217d7d075001a429cdc
True
1986
435
When was it released in Africa?
5ad2a217d7d075001a429cdd
True
Super Nintendo Entertainment System
642
What preceded the Famicom?
5ad2a217d7d075001a429cde
True
The Nintendo Entertainment System (also abbreviated as NES) is an 8-bit home video game console that was developed and manufactured by Nintendo. It was initially released in Japan as the Family Computer (Japanese: ファミリーコンピュータ, Hepburn: Famirī Konpyūta?) (also known by the portmanteau abbreviation Famicom (ファミコン, Famikon?) and abbreviated as FC) on July 15, 1983, and was later released in North America during 1985, in Europe during 1986, and Australia in 1987. In South Korea, it was known as the Hyundai Comboy (현대 컴보이 Hyeondae Keomboi) and was distributed by SK Hynix which then was known as Hyundai Electronics. It was succeeded by the Super Nintendo Entertainment System.
What was the console's most common problem?
57111bd0b654c5140001fb5b
blinking red power light
101
False
The 10NES would reset the system how often?
57111bd0b654c5140001fb5c
once per second
234
False
What disrupted the communication as well?
57111bd0b654c5140001fb5d
Dirty, aging and bent connectors
335
False
What was one example of what users did to combat the blinking problem?
57111bd0b654c5140001fb5e
blowing air onto the cartridge connectors
572
False
When did Nintendo release a cleaning kit?
57111bd0b654c5140001fb5f
1989
1209
False
blinking red power light
101
What wasn't the console's most common problem?
5ad2ad6fd7d075001a429ed0
True
once per second
234
The 10NES wouldn't reset the system how often?
5ad2ad6fd7d075001a429ed1
True
Dirty, aging and bent connectors
335
What didn't disrupt the communication as well?
5ad2ad6fd7d075001a429ed2
True
blowing air onto the cartridge connectors
572
What wasn't one example of what users did to combat the blinking problem?
5ad2ad6fd7d075001a429ed3
True
1989
1209
When didn't Nintendo release a cleaning kit?
5ad2ad6fd7d075001a429ed4
True
Problems with the 10NES lockout chip frequently resulted in the console's most infamous problem: the blinking red power light, in which the system appears to turn itself on and off repeatedly because the 10NES would reset the console once per second. The lockout chip required constant communication with the chip in the game to work. Dirty, aging and bent connectors would often disrupt the communication, resulting in the blink effect. Alternatively, the console would turn on but only show a solid white, gray, or green screen. Users attempted to solve this problem by blowing air onto the cartridge connectors, inserting the cartridge just far enough to get the ZIF to lower, licking the edge connector, slapping the side of the system after inserting a cartridge, shifting the cartridge from side to side after insertion, pushing the ZIF up and down repeatedly, holding the ZIF down lower than it should have been, and cleaning the connectors with alcohol. These attempted solutions often became notable in their own right and are often remembered alongside the NES. Many of the most frequent attempts to fix this problem instead ran the risk of damaging the cartridge and/or system.[citation needed] In 1989, Nintendo released an official NES Cleaning Kit to help users clean malfunctioning cartridges and consoles.
How many units of the Famicom were sold in Japan by the beginning of 1985?
57111c66b654c5140001fb65
2.5 million units
301
False
What was this system to be called in North America?
57111c66b654c5140001fb66
Advanced Video Entertainment System
400
False
What magazine stated that Nintendo could be errant in their anticipated product success?
57111c66b654c5140001fb67
Electronic Games magazine
586
False
2.5 million
301
How many units of the Famicom were sold in China by the beginning of 1985?
5ad2a2e2d7d075001a429d22
True
Advanced Video Entertainment System
400
What was this system to be called in South America?
5ad2a2e2d7d075001a429d23
True
Electronic Games magazine
586
What magazine stated that Nintendo couldn't be errant in their anticipated product success?
5ad2a2e2d7d075001a429d24
True
Subsequent plans to market a Famicom console in North America featuring a keyboard, cassette data recorder, wireless joystick controller and a special BASIC cartridge under the name "Nintendo Advanced Video System" likewise never materialized. By the beginning of 1985, the Famicom had sold more than 2.5 million units in Japan and Nintendo soon announced plans to release it in North America as the Advanced Video Entertainment System (AVS) that same year. The American video game press was skeptical that the console could have any success in the region, with the March 1985 issue of Electronic Games magazine stating that "the videogame market in America has virtually disappeared" and that "this could be a miscalculation on Nintendo's part."
Which console featured a top-loading design?
57111d15a58dae1900cd6c5a
NES 2
91
False
The design of what was modified slightly?
57111d15a58dae1900cd6c5b
game controllers
116
False
the original design of the controller was what shape?
57111d15a58dae1900cd6c5c
brick
240
False
What was the new design shape of the controller?
57111d15a58dae1900cd6c5d
dog bone
266
False
How long were standard NES controller cables?
57111d15a58dae1900cd6c5e
6 feet
557
False
NES 2
91
Which console featured a bottom-loading design?
5ad2b236d7d075001a429f7c
True
game controllers
116
The design of what wasn't modified slightly?
5ad2b236d7d075001a429f7d
True
brick
240
the unoriginal design of the controller was what shape?
5ad2b236d7d075001a429f7e
True
dog bone shape
266
What was the new design shape of the old controller?
5ad2b236d7d075001a429f7f
True
6 feet
557
How long were nonstandard NES controller cables?
5ad2b236d7d075001a429f80
True
Near the end of the NES's lifespan, upon the release of the AV Famicom and the top-loading NES 2, the design of the game controllers was modified slightly. Though the original button layout was retained, the redesigned device abandoned the brick shell in favor of a dog bone shape. In addition, the AV Famicom joined its international counterpart and dropped the hardwired controllers in favor of detachable controller ports. However, the controllers included with the Famicom AV had cables which were 90 cm (3 feet) long, as opposed to the standard 180 cm(6 feet) of NES controllers.
What year did Nintendo's market surpass all computer software?
57111d93a58dae1900cd6c64
1988
3
False
Who reported that Nintendo sold 7 million NES systems?
57111d93a58dae1900cd6c65
Compute!
175
False
When did Compute! report the number of systems sold at 7 million?
57111d93a58dae1900cd6c66
1989
196
False
The 7 million sold almost equated to which console's five year span?
57111d93a58dae1900cd6c67
Commodore 64s
291
False
1988
3
What year did Nintendo's market not surpass all computer software?
5ad2a4c4d7d075001a429d9e
True
Compute
175
Who reported that Nintendo sold 9 million NES systems?
5ad2a4c4d7d075001a429d9f
True
1989
196
When did Compute! report the number of systems sold at 9 million?
5ad2a4c4d7d075001a429da0
True
Commodore 64s
291
The 7 million sold almost equated to which console's six year span?
5ad2a4c4d7d075001a429da1
True
By 1988, industry observers stated that the NES's popularity had grown so quickly that the market for Nintendo cartridges was larger than that for all home computer software. Compute! reported in 1989 that Nintendo had sold seven million NES systems in 1988, almost as many as the number of Commodore 64s sold in its first five years. "Computer game makers [are] scared stiff", the magazine said, stating that Nintendo's popularity caused most competitors to have poor sales during the previous Christmas and resulted in serious financial problems for some.
Nintendo charged producers hefty sums to make what?
57111e46a58dae1900cd6c6c
FDS games
545
False
What did companies do instead of making FDS games?
57111e46a58dae1900cd6c6d
make cartridge titles
614
False
Many FDS disks lack what?
57111e46a58dae1900cd6c6e
dust covers
660
False
What broke frequently and needed replacement in the machine?
57111e46a58dae1900cd6c6f
belt
801
False
How long did Nintendo service drives and offer replacement disks?
57111e46a58dae1900cd6c70
2003
1057
False
FDS
27
Nintendo didn't charge producers hefty sums to make what?
5ad2b444d7d075001a429fb8
True
make cartridge titles
614
What did companies do while making FDS games?
5ad2b444d7d075001a429fb9
True
dust covers
660
Many FDS disks had what?
5ad2b444d7d075001a429fba
True
belt
801
What broke infrequently and needed replacement in the machine?
5ad2b444d7d075001a429fbb
True
2003
1057
How long did Atari service drives and offer replacement disks?
5ad2b444d7d075001a429fbc
True
A variety of games for the FDS were released by Nintendo (including some like Super Mario Bros. which had already been released on cartridge) and third party companies such as Konami and Taito. A few unlicensed titles were made as well. However, its limitations became quickly apparent as larger ROM chips were introduced, allowing cartridges with greater than 128k of space. More advanced memory management chips (MMC) soon appeared and the FDS quickly became obsolete. Nintendo also charged developers considerable amounts of money to produce FDS games, and many refused to develop for it, instead continuing to make cartridge titles. Many FDS disks have no dust covers (except in some unlicensed and bootleg variants) and are easily prone to getting dirt on the media. In addition, the drive use a belt which breaks frequently and requires invasive replacement. After only two years, the FDS was discontinued, although vending booths remained in place until 1993 and Nintendo continued to service drives, and to rewrite and offer replacement disks until 2003.
Which company produced the Twin Famicom and the 19SC111 TV?
57111f13b654c5140001fb75
Sharp Corporation
154
False
What was compatible with Famicom cartridges and FDS systems?
57111f13b654c5140001fb76
Twin Famicom
211
False
Hyundai licensed the Sharp 19SC111 TV with what name in South Korea?
57111f13b654c5140001fb77
Comboy
683
False
Until how long did South Korea ban Japanese cultural products?
57111f13b654c5140001fb78
1998
878
False
How could Japanese products only enter South Korea?
57111f13b654c5140001fb79
licensing to a third-party (non-Japanese) distributor
987
False
Sharp Corporation
154
Which company produced the Duo Famicom and the 19SC111 TV?
5ad2b4cfd7d075001a429fd2
True
Twin Famicom
211
What was compatible with Famicom cartridges and IDS systems?
5ad2b4cfd7d075001a429fd3
True
Comboy
683
Hyundai licensed the Sharp 19SC111 DVD with what name in South Korea?
5ad2b4cfd7d075001a429fd4
True
Although most hardware clones were not produced under license by Nintendo, certain companies were granted licenses to produce NES-compatible devices. The Sharp Corporation produced at least two such clones: the Twin Famicom and the SHARP 19SC111 television. The Twin Famicom was compatible with both Famicom cartridges and Famicom Disk System disks. It was available in two colors (red and black) and used hardwired controllers (as did the original Famicom), but it featured a different case design. The SHARP 19SC111 television was a television which included a built-in Famicom. A similar licensing deal was reached with Hyundai Electronics, who licensed the system under the name Comboy in the South Korean market. This deal with Hyundai was made necessary because of the South Korean government's wide ban on all Japanese "cultural products", which remained in effect until 1998 and ensured that the only way Japanese products could legally enter the South Korean market was through licensing to a third-party (non-Japanese) distributor (see also Japan–Korea disputes).
The Zelda games were manufactured in what color cartridge?
57111fd3b654c5140001fb7f
gold
302
False
What is the standard color of all other cartridges?
57111fd3b654c5140001fb80
gray
383
False
What color were cartridges produced by Nintendo for internal use?
57111fd3b654c5140001fb81
yellow
555
False
What was distinctly made by Nintendo, Konami, and Acclaim?
57111fd3b654c5140001fb82
licensed US cartridges
694
False
What was the opening lyric from the Duck Tales theme show?
57111fd3b654c5140001fb83
Life is like a hurricane
1046
False
gold
302
The Zelda games weren't manufactured in what color cartridge?
5ad2a5aad7d075001a429dde
True
gray
383
What wasn't the standard color of all other cartridges?
5ad2a5aad7d075001a429ddf
True
yellow
555
What color were cartridges produced by Nintendo for external use?
5ad2a5aad7d075001a429de0
True
licensed US cartridges
694
What wasn't distinctly made by Nintendo, Konami, and Acclaim?
5ad2a5aad7d075001a429de1
True
Life is like a hurricane
1046
What was the closing lyric from the Duck Tales theme show?
5ad2a5aad7d075001a429de2
True
The back of the cartridge bears a label with instructions on handling. Production and software revision codes were imprinted as stamps on the back label to correspond with the software version and producer. With the exception of The Legend of Zelda and Zelda II: The Adventure of Link, manufactured in gold-plastic carts, all licensed NTSC and PAL cartridges are a standard shade of gray plastic. Unlicensed carts were produced in black, robin egg blue, and gold, and are all slightly different shapes than standard NES cartridges. Nintendo also produced yellow-plastic carts for internal use at Nintendo Service Centers, although these "test carts" were never made available for purchase. All licensed US cartridges were made by Nintendo, Konami and Acclaim. For promotion of DuckTales: Remastered, Capcom sent 150 limited-edition gold NES cartridges with the original game, featuring the Remastered art as the sticker, to different gaming news agencies. The instruction label on the back included the opening lyric from the show's theme song, "Life is like a hurricane".
What was Nintendo accused of?
5711205bb654c5140001fb89
antitrust behavior
24
False
Why was Nintendo accused of antitrust behavior?
5711205bb654c5140001fb8a
strict licensing requirements
58
False
Who began probing Nintendo's business?
5711205bb654c5140001fb8b
United States Department of Justice
93
False
Who interviewed retailers as part of their investigation?
5711205bb654c5140001fb8c
FTC
276
False
How much were the vouchers worth that Nintendo sent out?
5711205bb654c5140001fb8d
$5
617
False
antitrust behavior
24
What wasn't Nintendo accused of?
5ad2ab33d7d075001a429e5c
True
strict licensing requirements
58
Why wasn't Nintendo accused of antitrust behavior?
5ad2ab33d7d075001a429e5d
True
United States Department of Justice
93
Who didn't probe Nintendo's business?
5ad2ab33d7d075001a429e5e
True
FTC
379
Who didn't interview retailers as part of their investigation?
5ad2ab33d7d075001a429e5f
True
$5
617
How much were the vouchers worth that Nintendo didn't send out?
5ad2ab33d7d075001a429e60
True
Nintendo was accused of antitrust behavior because of the strict licensing requirements. The United States Department of Justice and several states began probing Nintendo's business practices, leading to the involvement of Congress and the Federal Trade Commission (FTC). The FTC conducted an extensive investigation which included interviewing hundreds of retailers. During the FTC probe, Nintendo changed the terms of its publisher licensing agreements to eliminate the two-year rule and other restrictive terms. Nintendo and the FTC settled the case in April 1991, with Nintendo required to send vouchers giving a $5 discount off to a new game, to every person that had purchased a NES title between June 1988 and December 1990. GameSpy remarked that Nintendo's punishment was particularly weak giving the case's findings, although it has been speculated that the FTC did not want to damage the video game industry in the United States.
What was the first NES emulator?
571120ccb654c5140001fb9d
Pasofami
109
False
What was the first English available emulator?
571120ccb654c5140001fb9e
iNES
143
False
When was NESticle released?
571120ccb654c5140001fb9f
April 3, 1997
361
False
What platform was NESticle available for use?
571120ccb654c5140001fba0
MS-DOS
328
False
Pasofami
109
What wasn't the first NES emulator?
5ad2abeed7d075001a429e7e
True
iNES
143
What was the first Spanish available emulator?
5ad2abeed7d075001a429e7f
True
April 3, 1997
361
When was NESticle halted?
5ad2abeed7d075001a429e80
True
MS-DOS
328
What platform was NESticle unavailable for use?
5ad2abeed7d075001a429e81
True
The NES can be emulated on many other systems, most notably the PC. The first emulator was the Japanese-only Pasofami. It was soon followed by iNES, which was available in English and was cross-platform, in 1996. It was described as being the first NES emulation software that could be used by a non-expert. NESticle, a popular MS-DOS emulator, was released on April 3, 1997. There have since been many other emulators. The Virtual Console for the Wii, Nintendo 3DS and Wii U also offers emulation of many NES games.
What did the Famicom sorely lack?
5711215da58dae1900cd6c80
lockout hardware
25
False
What was the lockout chip number for the USA and Canada?
5711215da58dae1900cd6c81
3193
821
False
What was the lockout chip number for most of Europe, save the UK and Italy?
5711215da58dae1900cd6c82
3195
857
False
What was the lockout chip number for Asia?
5711215da58dae1900cd6c83
3196
870
False
What was the lockout chip number for UK, Italy, and Australia?
5711215da58dae1900cd6c84
3197
905
False
lockout
240
What did the Famicom not lack?
5ad2ad23d7d075001a429ec8
True
3193
821
What was the lockout chip number for the UK and Canada?
5ad2ad23d7d075001a429ec9
True
3193
821
What wasn't the lockout chip number for most of Asia, save the UK and Italy?
5ad2ad23d7d075001a429eca
True
3196
870
What was the lockout chip number for South Africa?
5ad2ad23d7d075001a429ecb
True
The Famicom contained no lockout hardware and, as a result, unlicensed cartridges (both legitimate and bootleg) were extremely common throughout Japan and the Far East. The original NES (but not the top-loading NES-101) contained the 10NES lockout chip, which significantly increased the challenges faced by unlicensed developers. Tinkerers at home in later years discovered that disassembling the NES and cutting the fourth pin of the lockout chip would change the chip’s mode of operation from "lock" to "key", removing all effects and greatly improving the console’s ability to play legal games, as well as bootlegs and converted imports. NES consoles sold in different regions had different lockout chips, so games marketed in one region would not work on consoles from another region. Known regions are: USA/Canada (3193 lockout chip), most of Europe (3195), Asia (3196) and UK, Italy and Australia (3197). Since two types of lockout chip were used in Europe, European NES game boxes often had an "A" or "B" letter on the front, indicating whether the game is compatible with UK/Italian/Australian consoles (A), or the rest of Europe (B). Rest-of-Europe games typically had text on the box stating "This game is not compatible with the Mattel or NES versions of the Nintendo Entertainment System". Similarly, UK/Italy/Australia games stated "This game is only compatible with the Mattel or NES versions of the Nintendo Entertainment System".
Who designed the Famicom system?
571121f4b654c5140001fba5
Masayuki Uemura
140
False
The plans called for how many bits as a feature?
571121f4b654c5140001fba6
16
215
False
Who was the Nintendo president at the time?
571121f4b654c5140001fba7
Hiroshi Yamauchi
339
False
When was the test model constructed?
571121f4b654c5140001fba8
October 1982
582
False
Early Famicom games were written on what computer system?
571121f4b654c5140001fba9
NEC PC-8001
907
False
Masayuki Uemura
140
Who designed the Pamicom system?
5ad2a24dd7d075001a429d00
True
16-bit
215
The first plans called for how many bits as a feature?
5ad2a24dd7d075001a429d01
True
Hiroshi Yamauchi
339
Who was the Nintendo vice president at the time?
5ad2a24dd7d075001a429d02
True
October 1982
582
When was the test model destroyed?
5ad2a24dd7d075001a429d03
True
NEC PC-8001
907
Early Famicom games weren't written on what computer system?
5ad2a24dd7d075001a429d04
True
Following a series of arcade game successes in the early 1980s, Nintendo made plans to create a cartridge-based console called the Famicom. Masayuki Uemura designed the system. Original plans called for an advanced 16-bit system which would function as a full-fledged computer with a keyboard and floppy disk drive, but Nintendo president Hiroshi Yamauchi rejected this and instead decided to go for a cheaper, more conventional cartridge-based game console as he felt that features such as keyboards and disks were intimidating to non-technophiles. A test model was constructed in October 1982 to verify the functionality of the hardware, after which work began on programming tools. Because 65xx CPUs had not been manufactured or sold in Japan up to that time, no cross-development software was available and it had to be produced from scratch. Early Famicom games were written on a system that ran on an NEC PC-8001 computer and LEDs on a grid were used with a digitizer to design graphics as no software design tools for this purpose existed at that time.[citation needed]
What was the light gun controller called?
5711225fa58dae1900cd6c8a
Zapper
209
False
What was the name of the auxiliary port used to connect additional devices on the Famicom?
5711225fa58dae1900cd6c8b
DA-15
303
False
How were the special controllers connected to the NES?
5711225fa58dae1900cd6c8c
control ports on the front
481
False
Zapper
209
What was the dark gun controller called?
5ad2b1b9d7d075001a429f58
True
DA-15
303
What was the name of the auxiliary port used to not connect additional devices on the Famicom?
5ad2b1b9d7d075001a429f59
True
two control ports on the front of the console
477
How were the special controllers disconnected to the NES?
5ad2b1b9d7d075001a429f5a
True
A number of special controllers designed for use with specific games were released for the system, though very few such devices proved particularly popular. Such devices included, but were not limited to, the Zapper (a light gun), the R.O.B., and the Power Pad. The original Famicom featured a deepened DA-15 expansion port on the front of the unit, which was used to connect most auxiliary devices. On the NES, these special controllers were generally connected to one of the two control ports on the front of the console.
What year did the video game market crash?
57112331b654c5140001fbaf
1983
175
False
The crash was caused in part by the confusion and misrepresentation of what in video games?
57112331b654c5140001fbb0
marketing
358
False
What specifically was misrepresented on game products?
57112331b654c5140001fbb1
artwork
456
False
Nintendo's marketing strategy aimed at what aspect of the consumer via realism?
57112331b654c5140001fbb2
confidence
823
False
1983
175
What year did the video game market boom?
5ad2a390d7d075001a429d48
True
marketing
358
The crash wasn't caused in part by the confusion and misrepresentation of what in video games?
5ad2a390d7d075001a429d49
True
artwork
456
What specifically was represented on game products?
5ad2a390d7d075001a429d4a
True
confidence
823
Nintendo's marketing strategy wasn't aimed at what aspect of the consumer via realism?
5ad2a390d7d075001a429d4b
True
The system's launch represented not only a new product, but also a reframing of the severely damaged home video game market segment as a whole. The video game market crash of 1983 had occurred in significant part due to a lack of consumer and retailer confidence in video games, which had in turn been due partially to confusion and misrepresentation in the marketing of video games. Prior to the NES, the packaging of many video games presented bombastic artwork which exaggerated the graphics of the actual game. In terms of product identity, a single game such as Pac-Man would appear in many versions on many different game consoles and computers, with large variations in graphics, sound, and general quality between the versions. By stark contrast, Nintendo's marketing strategy aimed to regain consumer and retailer confidence, by delivering a singular platform whose technology was not in need of heavy exaggeration and whose qualities were clearly defined.
How much did the Deluxe NES sell for?
571123e4b654c5140001fbb7
US$199.99
249
False
How much was the selling price equivalent to in today's money?
571123e4b654c5140001fbb8
$475
274
False
How much did the console sell for bundled with just the Super Mario Bros. game?
571123e4b654c5140001fbb9
US$99.99
457
False
Super Mario Bros was paired with which game in the Action Set?
571123e4b654c5140001fbba
Duck Hunt
671
False
The Basic Set sold for how much at release?
571123e4b654c5140001fbbb
US$89.99
1364
False
$199.99
251
How much did the Deluxe SNES sell for?
5ad2a497d7d075001a429d8c
True
$475
274
How much was the selling price equivalent to in 2018 money?
5ad2a497d7d075001a429d8d
True
$99.99
459
How much did the console sell for bundled with just the Luigi Bros. game?
5ad2a497d7d075001a429d8e
True
Duck Hunt
827
Super Luigi Bros was paired with which game in the Action Set?
5ad2a497d7d075001a429d8f
True
$89.99
1366
The Big Set sold for how much at release?
5ad2a497d7d075001a429d90
True
For its complete North American release, the Nintendo Entertainment System was progressively released over the ensuing years in four different bundles: the Deluxe Set, the Control Deck, the Action Set and the Power Set. The Deluxe Set, retailing at US$199.99 (equivalent to $475 in 2016), included R.O.B., a light gun called the NES Zapper, two controllers, and two Game Paks: Gyromite, and Duck Hunt. The Basic Set, retailing at US$89.99 with no game, and US$99.99 bundled with "Super Mario Bros." The Action Set, retailing in 1988 for US$149.99, came with the Control Deck, two game controllers, an NES Zapper, and a dual Game Pak containing both Super Mario Bros. and Duck Hunt. In 1989, the Power Set included the console, two game controllers, a NES Zapper, a Power Pad, and a triple Game Pak containing Super Mario Bros, Duck Hunt, and World Class Track Meet. In 1990, a Sports Set bundle was released, including the console, an NES Satellite infrared wireless multitap adapter, four game controllers, and a dual Game Pak containing Super Spike V'Ball and Nintendo World Cup. Two more bundle packages were later released using the original model NES console. The Challenge Set of 1992 included the console, two controllers, and a Super Mario Bros. 3 Game Pak for a retail price of US$89.99. The Basic Set, first released in 1987, was repackaged for a retail US$89.99. It included only the console and two controllers, and no longer was bundled with a cartridge. Instead, it contained a book called the Official Nintendo Player's Guide, which contained detailed information for every NES game made up to that point.
What thrived after the NES was discontinued?
57112478a58dae1900cd6c9a
unlicensed clone market
4
False
What feature does the PocketFami have?
57112478a58dae1900cd6c9b
color LCD
265
False
The NES was duplicated on which medium in order to make clones easy to produce?
57112478a58dae1900cd6c9c
chip
587
False
unlicensed clone market
4
What thrived after the SNES was discontinued?
5ad2b4aed7d075001a429fcc
True
color LCD
265
What feature doesn't the PocketFami have?
5ad2b4aed7d075001a429fcd
True
chip
587
The NES was duplicated on which medium in order to make non-clones easy to produce?
5ad2b4aed7d075001a429fce
True
The unlicensed clone market has flourished following Nintendo's discontinuation of the NES. Some of the more exotic of these resulting systems have gone beyond the functionality of the original hardware and have included variations such as a portable system with a color LCD (e.g. PocketFami). Others have been produced with certain specialized markets in mind, such as an NES clone that functions as a rather primitive personal computer, which includes a keyboard and basic word processing software. These unauthorized clones have been helped by the invention of the so-called NES-on-a-chip.
Nintendo produced toys and what other item before its game system?
5711252ab654c5140001fbc1
playing card
311
False
Nintendo's era was compared with who as another video game manufacturer?
5711252ab654c5140001fbc2
Atari
478
False
Nintendo required what from its software developers?
5711252ab654c5140001fbc3
licensed approval
772
False
What did licensing lead to regarding games?
5711252ab654c5140001fbc4
higher quality
803
False
playing card
311
Nintendo didn't produce toys and what other item before its game system?
5ad2a578d7d075001a429dc4
True
Atari
478
Nintendo's era was compared with who as another non-video game manufacturer?
5ad2a578d7d075001a429dc5
True
licensed approval
772
Nintendo didn't require what from its software developers?
5ad2a578d7d075001a429dc6
True
higher quality
803
What did no licensing lead to regarding games?
5ad2a578d7d075001a429dc7
True
The NES was released after the "video game crash" of the early 1980s, whereupon many retailers and adults had regarded electronic games as being merely a passing fad, and many believed at first that the NES was another fad. Before the NES/Famicom, Nintendo was known as a moderately successful Japanese toy and playing card manufacturer, and the popularity of the NES/Famicom helped the company grow into an internationally recognized name almost synonymous with video games as Atari had been during the 2600 era and set the stage for Japanese dominance of the video game industry. With the NES, Nintendo also changed the relationship of console manufacturers and third-party software developers by restricting developers from publishing and distributing software without licensed approval. This led to higher quality software titles, which helped to change the attitude of a public that had grown weary from poorly produced titles for other game systems of the day.
Atari created NES products under which name?
571125cea58dae1900cd6ca0
Tengen
58
False
What did Nintendo sue Tengen for?
571125cea58dae1900cd6ca1
copyright infringement
433
False
Tengen reverse engineered the lockout chip to develop what animal monikered prototype?
571125cea58dae1900cd6ca2
"Rabbit" chip
174
False
Tengen got a description of Nintendo's chip from whom?
571125cea58dae1900cd6ca3
United States Patent and Trademark Office
262
False
Tengen
58
Atari created SNES products under which name?
5ad2abced7d075001a429e76
True
copyright infringement
433
What didn't Nintendo sue Tengen for?
5ad2abced7d075001a429e77
True
Rabbit
175
Tengen reverse engineered the lockout chip to not develop what animal monikered prototype?
5ad2abced7d075001a429e78
True
United States Patent and Trademark Office
262
Tengen didn't get a description of Nintendo's chip from whom?
5ad2abced7d075001a429e79
True
Atari Games created a line of NES products under the name Tengen and took a different approach. The company attempted to reverse engineer the lockout chip to develop its own "Rabbit" chip. However, Tengen also obtained a description of the lockout chip from the United States Patent and Trademark Office by falsely claiming that it was required to defend against present infringement claims in a legal case. Nintendo sued Tengen for copyright infringement, which Tengen lost as it could not prove that the legally obtained patent documents had not been used by the reverse engineering team. Tengen's antitrust claims against Nintendo were never finally decided.
What month and year did the Famicom receive a redesign?
5711264da58dae1900cd6ca8
December 1993
3
False
What used composite video output?
5711264da58dae1900cd6ca9
HVC-101
174
False
What device was RF only?
5711264da58dae1900cd6caa
HVC-001
244
False
What was the newer model called?
5711264da58dae1900cd6cab
AV Famicom
294
False
What did Nintendo release in Japan only?
5711264da58dae1900cd6cac
3D graphic capable headset
796
False
December 1993
3
What month and year did the Famicom get designed?
5ad2ac97d7d075001a429eaa
True
HVC-101
174
What used composite video input?
5ad2ac97d7d075001a429eab
True
HVC-101
613
What device was HD only?
5ad2ac97d7d075001a429eac
True
AV Famicom
294
What was the older model called?
5ad2ac97d7d075001a429ead
True
graphic capable headset
799
What did Nintendo release in China only?
5ad2ac97d7d075001a429eae
True
In December 1993, the Famicom received a similar redesign. It also loads cartridges through a covered slot on the top of the unit and uses non-hardwired controllers. Because HVC-101 used composite video output instead of being RF only like the HVC-001, Nintendo marketed the newer model as the AV Famicom (AV仕様ファミコン, Eibui Shiyō Famikon?). Since the new controllers don't have microphones on them like the second controller on the original console, certain games such as the Disk System version of The Legend of Zelda and Raid on Bungeling Bay will have certain tricks that cannot be replicated when played on an HVC-101 Famicom without a modded controller. However, the HVC-101 Famicom is compatible with most NES controllers due to having the same controller port. Nintendo had also released a 3D graphic capable headset. However, this peripheral was never released outside Japan.[citation needed]
Who developed Nintendo's PPU?
571126c6b654c5140001fbdd
Ricoh
70
False
How many kb of Video RAM did the PPU have?
571126c6b654c5140001fbde
2
111
False
The system has how many colors available on it?
571126c6b654c5140001fbdf
48
558
False
How many grays could be used as well?
571126c6b654c5140001fbe0
6
572
False
What is the standard display resolution of the NES?
571126c6b654c5140001fbe1
256 horizontal pixels by 240 vertical pixels
954
False
Ricoh
70
Who developed Nintendo's SPU?
5ad2adc9d7d075001a429ee0
True
2
367
How many mb of Video RAM did the PPU have?
5ad2adc9d7d075001a429ee1
True
48
558
The system didn't have how many colors available on it?
5ad2adc9d7d075001a429ee2
True
6
572
How many blacks could be used as well?
5ad2adc9d7d075001a429ee3
True
256 horizontal pixels by 240 vertical pixels
954
What is not the standard display resolution of the NES?
5ad2adc9d7d075001a429ee4
True
The NES uses a custom-made Picture Processing Unit (PPU) developed by Ricoh. All variations of the PPU feature 2 kB of video RAM, 256 bytes of on-die "object attribute memory" (OAM) to store the positions, colors, and tile indices of up to 64 sprites on the screen, and 28 bytes of on-die palette RAM to allow selection of background and sprite colors. The console's 2 kB of onboard RAM may be used for tile maps and attributes on the NES board and 8 kB of tile pattern ROM or RAM may be included on a cartridge. The system has an available color palette of 48 colors and 6 grays. Up to 25 simultaneous colors may be used without writing new values mid-frame: a background color, four sets of three tile colors and four sets of three sprite colors. The NES palette is based on NTSC rather than RGB values. A total of 64 sprites may be displayed onscreen at a given time without reloading sprites mid-screen. The standard display resolution of the NES is 256 horizontal pixels by 240 vertical pixels.
Nintendo agreed with Atari to release the Famicom under what name?
5711275da58dae1900cd6cbc
Nintendo Advanced Video Gaming System
196
False
When was the Summer Consumer Electronics Show held?
5711275da58dae1900cd6cbd
June 1983
322
False
Which company was illegally demonstrating a Nintendo game?
5711275da58dae1900cd6cbe
Coleco
392
False
What was the name of the fired Atari CEO?
5711275da58dae1900cd6cbf
Ray Kassar
690
False
Nintendo Advanced Video Gaming System
196
Nintendo agreed with Patari to release the Famicom under what name?
5ad2a2b9d7d075001a429d1a
True
June 1983
322
When was the Summer Consumer Electronics Show rejected?
5ad2a2b9d7d075001a429d1b
True
Coleco
392
Which company was legally demonstrating a Nintendo game?
5ad2a2b9d7d075001a429d1c
True
Ray Kassar
690
What was the name of the new Atari CEO?
5ad2a2b9d7d075001a429d1d
True
Encouraged by these successes, Nintendo soon turned its attention to the North American market. Nintendo entered into negotiations with Atari to release the Famicom under Atari’s name as the name Nintendo Advanced Video Gaming System. The deal was set to be finalized and signed at the Summer Consumer Electronics Show in June 1983. However, Atari discovered at that show that its competitor Coleco was illegally demonstrating its Coleco Adam computer with Nintendo's Donkey Kong game. This violation of Atari's exclusive license with Nintendo to publish the game for its own computer systems delayed the implementation of Nintendo's game console marketing contract with Atari. Atari's CEO Ray Kassar was fired the next month, so the deal went nowhere, and Nintendo decided to market its system on its own.g[›]
What was Nintendo's euphemism for "video game system?"
57112804a58dae1900cd6cce
Entertainment System
304
False
What did Nintendo use instead of the word console?
57112804a58dae1900cd6ccf
Control Deck
404
False
What was the term used by Nintendo instead of "video games?"
57112804a58dae1900cd6cd0
Game Pak
597
False
What was printed on all licensed games and accessories by Nintendo?
57112804a58dae1900cd6cd1
seal of quality
1054
False
The seal of quality took on what eventual name?
57112804a58dae1900cd6cd2
Official Nintendo Seal of Quality
1301
False
Entertainment System
304
What was Nintendo's non-euphemism for "video game system?"
5ad2a3c1d7d075001a429d64
True
Control Deck
404
What didn't Nintendo use instead of the word console?
5ad2a3c1d7d075001a429d65
True
Game Paks
489
What was the term used by Nintendo instead of "games?"
5ad2a3c1d7d075001a429d66
True
Seal of Quality
1319
What was printed on all unlicensed games and accessories by Nintendo?
5ad2a3c1d7d075001a429d67
True
Official Nintendo Seal of Quality
1301
The seal of quality didn't take on what eventual name?
5ad2a3c1d7d075001a429d68
True
To differentiate Nintendo's new home platform from the early 1980s' common perception of a troubled and shallow video game market, the company freshened its product nomenclature and positioning, and it established a strict product approval and licensing policy. The overall system was referred to as an "Entertainment System" instead of a "video game system", which was centered upon a machine called a "Control Deck" instead of a "console", and which featured software cartridges called "Game Paks" instead of "video games". The 10NES lockout chip system acted as a lock-and-key coupling of each Game Pak and Control Deck, deterring the copying or production of NES games which had not first achieved Nintendo's licensed approval. The packaging of the launch lineup of NES games bore pictures of a very close representation of the actual onscreen graphics of the game, which were of sufficiently recognizable quality on their own. Symbols on the launch games' packaging clearly indicated the genre of the game, in order to reduce consumer confusion. A 'seal of quality' was printed on all appropriately licensed game and accessory packaging. The initial seal stated, "This seal is your assurance that Nintendo has approved and guaranteed the quality of this product". This text was later changed to "Official Nintendo Seal of Quality".
How were the Famicom controllers attached to the console?
5711288ea58dae1900cd6cd8
hardwired
77
False
The second Famicom controller lacked START and what other button?
5711288ea58dae1900cd6cd9
SELECT
158
False
What did the second Famicom controller have as a unique feature?
5711288ea58dae1900cd6cda
microphone
195
False
What shape were the A and B buttons on the earliest Famicom controllers?
5711288ea58dae1900cd6cdb
square
304
False
What shape did the A and B buttons eventually become?
5711288ea58dae1900cd6cdc
circular
352
False
hardwired
77
How were the Famicom controllers unattached to the console?
5ad2b05ed7d075001a429f3c
True
SELECT
158
The second Famicom controller lacked BEGIN and what other button?
5ad2b05ed7d075001a429f3d
True
microphone
195
What did the third Famicom controller have as a unique feature?
5ad2b05ed7d075001a429f3e
True
square
384
What shape were the D and E buttons on the earliest Famicom controllers?
5ad2b05ed7d075001a429f3f
True
circular
352
What shape did the E and F buttons eventually become?
5ad2b05ed7d075001a429f40
True
The original model Famicom featured two game controllers, both of which were hardwired to the back of the console. The second controller lacked the START and SELECT buttons, but featured a small microphone. Relatively few games made use of this feature. The earliest produced Famicom units initially had square A and B buttons. This was changed to the circular designs because of the square buttons being caught in the controller casing when pressed down and glitches within the hardware causing the system to freeze occasionally while playing a game.
When did Sega finally permit third-party publishing?
57112926b654c5140001fbf1
summer 1988
110
False
What was the name of the 1st company Sega permitted?
57112926b654c5140001fbf2
Mediagenic
91
False
Nintendo was the sole manufacturer of what component for third-party developers?
57112926b654c5140001fbf3
cartridges
339
False
As cartridges couldn't be returned to Nintendo, the developers took on the entirety of what?
57112926b654c5140001fbf4
risk
453
False
What year was there a shortage of DRAM and ROM chips?
57112926b654c5140001fbf5
1988
957
False
1988
957
When did Sega finally permit fourth-party publishing?
5ad2aaf2d7d075001a429e4a
True
Mediagenic
91
What was the name of the 2nd company Sega permitted?
5ad2aaf2d7d075001a429e4b
True
Cartridges
377
Nintendo wasn't the sole manufacturer of what component for third-party developers?
5ad2aaf2d7d075001a429e4c
True
risk
453
As cartridges could be returned to Nintendo, the developers took on the entirety of what?
5ad2aaf2d7d075001a429e4d
True
1988
957
What year wasn't there a shortage of DRAM and ROM chips?
5ad2aaf2d7d075001a429e4e
True
Nintendo was not as restrictive as Sega, which did not permit third-party publishing until Mediagenic in late summer 1988. Nintendo's intention, however, was to reserve a large part of NES game revenue for itself. Nintendo required that they be the sole manufacturer of all cartridges, and that the publisher had to pay in full before the cartridges for that game be produced. Cartridges could not be returned to Nintendo, so publishers assumed all the risk. As a result, some publishers lost more money due to distress sales of remaining inventory at the end of the NES era than they ever earned in profits from sales of the games. Because Nintendo controlled the production of all cartridges, it was able to enforce strict rules on its third-party developers, which were required to sign a contract by Nintendo that would obligate these parties to develop exclusively for the system, order at least 10,000 cartridges, and only make five games per year. A 1988 shortage of DRAM and ROM chips also reportedly caused Nintendo to only permit 25% of publishers' requests for cartridges. This was an average figure, with some publishers receiving much higher amounts and others almost none. GameSpy noted that Nintendo's "iron-clad terms" made the company many enemies during the 1980s. Some developers tried to circumvent the five game limit by creating additional company brands like Konami's Ultra Games label; others tried circumventing the 10NES chip.
What does ZIF stand for?
571129e6b654c5140001fbfb
zero insertion force
397
False
The ZIF insertion used by Nintendo was set to emulate what device?
571129e6b654c5140001fbfc
VCR
496
False
The force of pushing in the cartridge did what to the device over eventual use?
571129e6b654c5140001fbfd
bent the contact pins slightly
816
False
What material were the connector springs made of?
571129e6b654c5140001fbfe
nickel
1243
False
What material comprised the game cartridge connectors?
571129e6b654c5140001fbff
copper
1316
False
zero insertion force
397
What does ZID stand for?
5ad2acd6d7d075001a429eb4
True
VCR
496
The ZID insertion used by Nintendo was set to emulate what device?
5ad2acd6d7d075001a429eb5
True
bent the contact pins slightly
816
The force of pushing in the cartridge did what to the device without eventual use?
5ad2acd6d7d075001a429eb6
True
nickel
1243
What material weren't the early connector springs made of?
5ad2acd6d7d075001a429eb7
True
copper
1524
What material didn't comprise the game cartridge connectors?
5ad2acd6d7d075001a429eb8
True
When Nintendo released the NES in the US, the design styling was deliberately different from that of other game consoles. Nintendo wanted to distinguish its product from those of competitors and to avoid the generally poor reputation that game consoles had acquired following the video game crash of 1983. One result of this philosophy was to disguise the cartridge slot design as a front-loading zero insertion force (ZIF) cartridge socket, designed to resemble the front-loading mechanism of a VCR. The newly designed connector worked quite well when both the connector and the cartridges were clean and the pins on the connector were new. Unfortunately, the ZIF connector was not truly zero insertion force. When a user inserted the cartridge into the NES, the force of pressing the cartridge down and into place bent the contact pins slightly, as well as pressing the cartridge’s ROM board back into the cartridge itself. Frequent insertion and removal of cartridges caused the pins to wear out from repeated usage over the years and the ZIF design proved more prone to interference by dirt and dust than an industry-standard card edge connector. These design issues were not alleviated by Nintendo’s choice of materials; the console slot nickel connector springs would wear due to design and the game cartridge copper connectors were also prone to tarnishing. Many players would try to alleviate issues in the game caused by this corrosion by blowing into the cartridges, then reinserting them, which actually hurt the copper connectors by speeding up the tarnishing.
To address the shoddy hardware, what popped up across the United States?
57112a6eb654c5140001fc05
Nintendo Authorized Repair Centers
38
False
What did the repair centers promise?
57112a6eb654c5140001fc06
ensure that the machines were properly repaired
165
False
What was done to have the privilege of working on an NES for repair?
57112a6eb654c5140001fc07
paying a fee
398
False
Nintendo Authorized Repair Centers
38
To address the shoddy hardware, what popped up across the UK?
5ad2ad96d7d075001a429eda
True
ensure that the machines were properly repaired
165
What did the repair centers not promise?
5ad2ad96d7d075001a429edb
True
paying a fee
398
What was done to have the privilege of working on an SNES for repair?
5ad2ad96d7d075001a429edc
True
In response to these hardware flaws, "Nintendo Authorized Repair Centers" sprang up across the U.S. According to Nintendo, the authorization program was designed to ensure that the machines were properly repaired. Nintendo would ship the necessary replacement parts only to shops that had enrolled in the authorization program. In practice, the authorization process consisted of nothing more than paying a fee to Nintendo for the privilege. In a recent trend, many sites have sprung up to offer Nintendo repair parts, guides, and services that replace those formerly offered by the authorized repair centers.
The HVC-001 featured which kind of mod output?
57112b31a58dae1900cd6ce2
radio frequency (RF)
139
False
The HVC-101 lost the RF and adopted which output for use in North America and Europe?
57112b31a58dae1900cd6ce3
composite video
410
False
The Super NES had how many pins in its proprietary connector?
57112b31a58dae1900cd6ce4
12
451
False
The re-released NES-101 model in North America went back to what perceived primitive output?
57112b31a58dae1900cd6ce5
RF modulator
692
False
radio frequency
139
The HVC-001 featured which kind of mod input?
5ad2b00ad7d075001a429f2a
True
composite video
249
The HVC-101 lost the RF and adopted which input for use in North America and Europe?
5ad2b00ad7d075001a429f2b
True
12
451
The Super NES had how many pins in its non-proprietary connector?
5ad2b00ad7d075001a429f2c
True
(RF) modulator
155
The re-released NES-101 model in South America went back to what perceived primitive output?
5ad2b00ad7d075001a429f2d
True
Video output connections varied from one model of the console to the next. The original HVC-001 model of the Family Computer featured only radio frequency (RF) modulator output. When the console was released in North America and Europe, support for composite video through RCA connectors was added in addition to the RF modulator. The HVC-101 model of the Famicom dropped the RF modulator entirely and adopted composite video output via a proprietary 12-pin "multi-out" connector first introduced for the Super Famicom/Super Nintendo Entertainment System. Conversely, the North American re-released NES-101 model most closely resembled the original HVC-001 model Famicom, in that it featured RF modulator output only. Finally, the PlayChoice-10 utilized an inverted RGB video output.
How many pins did the controller ports have on the NES?
57112be4a58dae1900cd6cea
7
72
False
Unlike the Famicom, the NES controllers possessed what consistent feature?
57112be4a58dae1900cd6ceb
identical
189
False
The second controller possessed the START and SELECT buttons as what other device?
57112be4a58dae1900cd6cec
primary controller
350
False
What did the Legend of Zelda require in certain instances to kill enemies?
57112be4a58dae1900cd6ced
Famicom microphone
462
False
7
72
How many pins did the controller ports have on the SNES?
5ad2b18cd7d075001a429f50
True
identical
189
Unlike the Famicom, the SNES controllers possessed what consistent feature?
5ad2b18cd7d075001a429f51
True
primary controller
350
The second controller possessed the ON and OFF buttons as what other device?
5ad2b18cd7d075001a429f52
True
Famicom microphone
462
What did the Legend of Link require in certain instances to kill enemies?
5ad2b18cd7d075001a429f53
True
The NES dropped the hardwired controllers, instead featuring two custom 7-pin ports on the front of the console. Also in contrast to the Famicom, the controllers included with the NES were identical to each other—the second controller lacked the microphone that was present on the Famicom model and possessed the same START and SELECT buttons as the primary controller. Some NES localizations of games, such as The Legend of Zelda, which required the use of the Famicom microphone in order to kill certain enemies, suffered from the lack of hardware to do so.
What was the name of the NES clone produced in Taiwan?
57112c66a58dae1900cd6cf2
Dendy
238
False
Where was the Dendy sold?
57112c66a58dae1900cd6cf3
Soviet Union
334
False
Which country marketed a clone called "Family Game?"
57112c66a58dae1900cd6cf4
Argentina
573
False
What was the name of the clone in Poland?
57112c66a58dae1900cd6cf5
Pegasus
863
False
India's first gaming console was also a clone, called what?
57112c66a58dae1900cd6cf6
Samurai
886
False
Dendy
238
What was the name of the SNES clone produced in Taiwan?
5ad2b482d7d075001a429fc2
True
Soviet Union,
334
Where was the Nendy sold?
5ad2b482d7d075001a429fc3
True
Argentina
573
Which country marketed an anti-clone called "Family Game?"
5ad2b482d7d075001a429fc4
True
Pegasus
863
What was the name of the clone in France?
5ad2b482d7d075001a429fc5
True
Samurai
886
France's first gaming console was also a clone, called what?
5ad2b482d7d075001a429fc6
True
A thriving market of unlicensed NES hardware clones emerged during the climax of the console's popularity. Initially, such clones were popular in markets where Nintendo never issued a legitimate version of the console. In particular, the Dendy (Russian: Де́нди), an unlicensed hardware clone produced in Taiwan and sold in the former Soviet Union, emerged as the most popular video game console of its time in that setting and it enjoyed a degree of fame roughly equivalent to that experienced by the NES/Famicom in North America and Japan. A Famicom clone was marketed in Argentina under the name of "Family Game", resembling the original hardware design. The Micro Genius (Simplified Chinese: 小天才) was marketed in Southeast Asia as an alternative to the Famicom; Samurai was the popular PAL alternative to the NES; and in Central Europe, especially Poland, the Pegasus was available. Samurai was also available in India in early 90s which was the first instance of console gaming in India.
How much does the NES unit weigh in pounds?
57112cf3a58dae1900cd6cfc
11.7
295
False
How large was the typical television recommended for the device?
57112cf3a58dae1900cd6cfd
typically 11" to 14"
519
False
Where was the Television meant to be placed?
57112cf3a58dae1900cd6cfe
atop
563
False
What's the name of the feature on the front of the front of the NES test device?
57112cf3a58dae1900cd6cff
Game Pak slot
40
False
11.7
295
How much does the SNES unit weigh in pounds?
5ad2b4f9d7d075001a429fe0
True
11" to 14"
529
How small was the typical television recommended for the device?
5ad2b4f9d7d075001a429fe1
True
atop
563
Where was the Dvd player meant to be placed?
5ad2b4f9d7d075001a429fe2
True
Game Pak slot
40
What's the name of the feature on the front of the front of the SNES test device?
5ad2b4f9d7d075001a429fe3
True
The NES Test Station's front features a Game Pak slot and connectors for testing various components (AC adapter, RF switch, Audio/Video cable, NES Control Deck, accessories and games), with a centrally-located selector knob to chose which component to test. The unit itself weighs approximately 11.7 pounds without a TV. It connects to a television via a combined A/V and RF Switch cable. By actuating the green button, a user can toggle between an A/V Cable or RF Switch connection. The television it is connected to (typically 11" to 14") is meant to be placed atop it.
Athanasius_of_Alexandria
Who was the twentieth bishop of Alexandria?
57195a23010c361400c56d8f
Saint Athanasius of Alexandria
0
False
What was one nickname for Saint Athanasius of Alexandria?
57195a23010c361400c56d90
Athanasius the Great
139
False
For how many years was Saint Athanasius of Alexandria a bishop?
57195a23010c361400c56d91
45 years
337
False
How many years was Saint Athanasius of Alexandria in exile?
57195a23010c361400c56d92
17
389
False
When did Saint Athanasius die?
571a862710f8ca14003050d5
2 May 373
115
False
What name is Saint Athanasius also known as?
571a862710f8ca14003050d6
Athanasius the Great
139
False
Of what city was he bishop?
571a862710f8ca14003050d7
Alexandria
285
False
How long did his episcopate last?
571a862710f8ca14003050d8
45 years
337
False
What is another name that Saint Athanasius is know as?
571a862710f8ca14003050d9
Athanasius the Confessor
161
False
45 years
337
How old was Saint Athanasius of Alexandria when he became known as the chief defender of Trinitarianism against Arianism?
5ace6f6c32bba1001ae4a6ad
True
c. 8 June 328 – 2 May 373
347
During what years was Saint Athanasius of Alexandria exiled?
5ace6f6c32bba1001ae4a6ae
True
Alexandria
285
What city was Saint Athanasius of Alexandria exiled to?
5ace6f6c32bba1001ae4a6af
True
five
406
How many times has Saint Athanasius of Alexandria been to Egypt?
5ace6f6c32bba1001ae4a6b0
True
373
121
What year was Saint Athanasius of Alexandria named Athanasius the Great?
5ace6f6c32bba1001ae4a6b1
True
Saint Athanasius of Alexandria
0
Who was the thirteenth bishop of Alexandria?
5aceaefe32bba1001ae4b031
True
Athanasius the Great
139
What was not a nickname for Saint Athanasius of Alexandria?
5aceaefe32bba1001ae4b032
True
45 years
337
For how many years was Saint Athanasius of Alexandria a pope?
5aceaefe32bba1001ae4b033
True
17
389
How many years was Saint Athanasius of Alexandria in freedom?
5aceaefe32bba1001ae4b034
True
Alexandria
20
Of what city was he not a bishop?
5aceaefe32bba1001ae4b035
True
Saint Athanasius of Alexandria (/ˌæθəˈneɪʃəs/; Greek: Ἀθανάσιος Ἀλεξανδρείας, Athanásios Alexandrías; c. 296–298 – 2 May 373), also called Athanasius the Great, Athanasius the Confessor or, primarily in the Coptic Orthodox Church, Athanasius the Apostolic, was the twentieth bishop of Alexandria (as Athanasius I). His episcopate lasted 45 years (c. 8 June 328 – 2 May 373), of which over 17 were spent in five exiles ordered by four different Roman emperors. Athanasius is a renowned Christian theologian, a Church Father, the chief defender of Trinitarianism against Arianism, and a noted Egyptian leader of the fourth century.
In what year was Athanasius consecrated?
57195a28c0b6ea1900a093d5
326
591
False
How old was Athanasius when he became the Patriarch of Alexandria?
57195a28c0b6ea1900a093d6
about thirty years of age
608
False
Did Athanasius want to be the Patriarch of Alexandria?
57195a28c0b6ea1900a093d7
He was most unwilling to accept
241
False
Did the people want Athanasius as their bishop?
57195a28c0b6ea1900a093d8
people were determined to have him
372
False
How long after the Council of Nice did Saint Athanasius die?
571a86fe10f8ca14003050e5
five months
124
False
Was Saint Athanasius willing or unwilling to fill the vacancy?
571a86fe10f8ca14003050e6
unwilling
253
False
In what year was he consecrated?
571a86fe10f8ca14003050e7
in 326
588
False
How old was he when he was consecrated?
571a86fe10f8ca14003050e8
thirty years of age.
614
False
326
591
In what year was Athanasius not consecrated?
5aceb7d932bba1001ae4b167
True
thirty
614
How old was Athanasius when he became the Pope of Alexandria?
5aceb7d932bba1001ae4b168
True
unwilling
253
Did Athanasius want to be the Saint of Alexandria?
5aceb7d932bba1001ae4b169
True
five months
124
How long after the Council of Nice was Saint Athanasius born?
5aceb7d932bba1001ae4b16a
True
T. Gilmartin, (Professor of History, Maynooth, 1890), writes in Church History, Vol. 1, Ch XVII: On the death of Alexander, five months after the termination of the Council of Nice, Athanasius was unanimously elected to fill the vacant see. He was most unwilling to accept the dignity, for he clearly foresaw the difficulties in which it would involve him. The clergy and people were determined to have him as their bishop, Patriarch of Alexandria, and refused to accept any excuses. He at length consented to accept a responsibility that he sought in vain to escape, and was consecrated in 326, when he was about thirty years of age.
Where did Athanasius remain for 6 years while living as a monk?
57195bbec0b6ea1900a093dd
Upper Egypt
261
False
What is name of one of the compositions composed by Athanasius while he lived as a monk?
57195bbec0b6ea1900a093de
Letter to the Monks
470
False
Who took over after Athanasius?
57195bbec0b6ea1900a093df
George of Cappadocia
82
False
Who influenced George of Cappadocia to become the new ruler?
57195bbec0b6ea1900a093e0
the Eusebian faction at Constantinople
25
False
Who was appointed to rule the see of Alexandria?
571a87ce4faf5e1900b8aa1e
George of Cappadocia
82
False
To where did Saint Athanasius withdraw?
571a87ce4faf5e1900b8aa1f
the desert of Upper Egypt
247
False
How long did he spend in the desert?
571a87ce4faf5e1900b8aa20
six years
308
False
What is one thing he wrote during this time?
571a87ce4faf5e1900b8aa21
Apology to Constantius
410
False
Who influenced the appointment of George of Cappadocia?
571a87ce4faf5e1900b8aa22
the Eusebian faction at Constantinople
25
False
Alexandria
141
Who wrote "Gratitude for his Flight"?
5acec09032bba1001ae4b2b3
True
Athanasius
153
Who wrote "Future of the Arians"?
5acec09032bba1001ae4b2b4
True
monks
342
Who wrote "Gratitude to Constantius"?
5acec09032bba1001ae4b2b5
True
Through the influence of the Eusebian faction at Constantinople, an Arian bishop, George of Cappadocia, was now appointed to rule the see of Alexandria. Athanasius, after remaining some days in the neighbourhood of the city, finally withdrew into the desert of Upper Egypt, where he remained for a period of six years, living the life of the monks, devoting himself to the composition of a group of writings; "Apology to Constantius", the "Apology for his Flight", the "Letter to the Monks", and the "History of the Arians".
Who succeeded Emperor Constantius?
57195d1c010c361400c56d97
Julian
188
False
Who succeeded George of Cappadocia?
57195d1c010c361400c56d98
Pistus
436
False
In what year did Athanasius return to his episcopal capitol?
57195d1c010c361400c56d99
362
809
False
In what year did Emperor Constantius die?
57195d1c010c361400c56d9a
361
163
False
How did George of Cappadocia die in prison?
57195d1c010c361400c56d9b
murdered
390
False
Were the Arians united in their oppostion?
571a888e4faf5e1900b8aa32
The Arians no longer presented an unbroken front
0
False
Who succeeded the Emperor Constantius?
571a888e4faf5e1900b8aa33
Julian
188
False
What happened to the usurping bishop, George?
571a888e4faf5e1900b8aa34
flung into prison and murdered
368
False
Who then succeeded George?
571a888e4faf5e1900b8aa35
An obscure presbyter of the name of Pistus
400
False
When did Athanasius re-enter the capitol?
571a888e4faf5e1900b8aa36
22 February, 362
796
False
Julian
188
Who preceded Emperor Constantius?
5acec27232bba1001ae4b2ff
True
Constantius
90
Who preceded George of Cappadocia?
5acec27232bba1001ae4b300
True
362
809
In what year was Emperor Constantius born?
5acec27232bba1001ae4b301
True
murdered
390
How did George of Cappadocia die outside of prison?
5acec27232bba1001ae4b302
True
The Arians no longer presented an unbroken front to their orthodox opponents. The Emperor Constantius, who had been the cause of so much trouble, died 4 November, 361 and was succeeded by Julian. The proclamation of the new prince's accession was the signal for a pagan outbreak against the still dominant Arian faction in Alexandria. George, the usurping Bishop, was flung into prison and murdered. An obscure presbyter of the name of Pistus was immediately chosen by the Arians to succeed him, when fresh news arrived that filled the orthodox party with hope. An edict had been put forth by Julian permitting the exiled bishops of the "Galileans" to return to their "towns and provinces". Athanasius received a summons from his own flock, and he accordingly re-entered his episcopal capitol on 22 February, 362.
What party benefited from the accession of Valens?
571999714faf5e1900b8a7ce
Arian
58
False
Valens issued a decree banishing the bishops that were deposed by who?
571999714faf5e1900b8a7cf
Constantius
136
False
What saint fled from Alexandria on 5 October to a country house outside Alexandria?
571999714faf5e1900b8a7d0
Athanasius
398
False
Valens' banishment of Athanasius created the greatest consternation in what city?
571999714faf5e1900b8a7d1
Alexandria
270
False
What did the decree of Valens do?
571a89a74faf5e1900b8aa42
banishing the bishops who had been deposed by Constantius
90
False
When the people in the city were concerned about Athanasius, what did the prefect do?
571a89a74faf5e1900b8aa43
case of Athanasius would be laid before the emperor
390
False
What did  Athanasius do to protect himself?
571a89a74faf5e1900b8aa44
withdrew from Alexandria, 5 October
532
False
How did Valens get him to return?
571a89a74faf5e1900b8aa45
issued orders allowing Athanasius to return to his episcopal see
746
False
Arian
58
What party didn't benefit from the accession of Valens?
5acec39532bba1001ae4b331
True
Constantius
136
Valens didn't issue a decree banishing the bishops that were deposed by who?
5acec39532bba1001ae4b332
True
He quietly withdrew from Alexandria
521
What happened on October 4?
5acec39532bba1001ae4b333
True
banishing the bishops
90
What did the decree of Valens not do?
5acec39532bba1001ae4b334
True
The accession of Valens gave a fresh lease of life to the Arian party. He issued a decree banishing the bishops who had been deposed by Constantius, but who had been permitted by Jovian to return to their sees. The news created the greatest consternation in the city of Alexandria itself, and the prefect, in order to prevent a serious outbreak, gave public assurance that the very special case of Athanasius would be laid before the emperor. But the saint seems to have divined what was preparing in secret against him. He quietly withdrew from Alexandria, 5 October, and took up his abode in a country house outside the city. Valens, who seems to have sincerely dreaded the possible consequences of another popular outbreak, within a few weeks issued orders allowing Athanasius to return to his episcopal see.
Who wrote the biography entitled Life of Antony?
57199b4a10f8ca1400304e49
Athanasius
484
False
Life of Antony played an important role in the spreading of ascetic ideals in what religion?
57199b4a10f8ca1400304e4a
Eastern and Western Christianity
246
False
The biography, Life of Antony, also resembles of the life of who?
57199b4a10f8ca1400304e4b
Athanasius
484
False
The so-called Athanasian Creed draws upon the phraseology of what?
57199b4a10f8ca1400304e4c
Augustine's De trinitate
690
False
About whom did he write his most widely-read work?
571a8a964faf5e1900b8aa4a
Anthony the Great
17
False
Why was this work considered to be important?
571a8a964faf5e1900b8aa4b
spreading of the ascetic ideal in Eastern and Western Christianity
212
False
How did he depict Anthony?
571a8a964faf5e1900b8aa4c
illiterate and holy
304
False
Whose life did Anthony's resemble?
571a8a964faf5e1900b8aa4d
Athanasius
484
False
What does the Athanasian Creed draw upon?
571a8a964faf5e1900b8aa4e
Augustine's De trinitate
690
False
Athanasian
598
Who wrote the autobiography entitled Life of Antony?
5acec52332bba1001ae4b35f
True
Eastern and Western Christianity
246
Life of Antony played an unimportant role in the spreading of ascetic ideals in what religion?
5acec52332bba1001ae4b360
True
Christianity
266
The biography, Life of Antony, also resembles of the life of what religion?
5acec52332bba1001ae4b361
True
Augustine's De trinitate
690
About whom did he write his least widely-read work?
5acec52332bba1001ae4b362
True
His biography of Anthony the Great entitled Life of Antony(Βίος καὶ Πολιτεία Πατρὸς Ἀντωνίου, Vita Antonii) became his most widely-read work. Translated into several languages, it played an important role in the spreading of the ascetic ideal in Eastern and Western Christianity. Depicting Anthony as an illiterate and holy man who through his existence in a primordial landscape has an absolute connection to the divine truth, the biography also resembles the life of his biographer Athanasius. It later served as an inspiration to Christian monastics in both the East and the West. The so-called Athanasian Creed dates from well after Athanasius's death and draws upon the phraseology of Augustine's De trinitate.
Athanasius began his leading role at what age?
57199c7d4faf5e1900b8a7d6
27
120
False
In what year was the First Council of Nicaea?
57199c7d4faf5e1900b8a7d7
325
101
False
Athanasius was also known as what?
57199c7d4faf5e1900b8a7d8
Athanasius Contra Mundum
764
False
How many years after the First Council of Nicaea did Athanasius become archbishop?
57199c7d4faf5e1900b8a7d9
Three years
432
False
Who is one emporer Athanasius struggled against?
57199c7d4faf5e1900b8a7da
Constantine
686
False
What conflict shaped his career?
571a8b9d4faf5e1900b8aa5a
Conflict with Arius and Arianism
0
False
Why was the First Council of Nicaea convened?
571a8b9d4faf5e1900b8aa5b
Jesus of Nazareth, is of a distinct substance from the Father
369
False
Because of his conflicts with the emperors, how was he known?
571a8b9d4faf5e1900b8aa5c
Athanasius Against the World
801
False
Whose position was it that Jesus was the Son of God?
571a8b9d4faf5e1900b8aa5d
the Arian position
329
False
325
101
What year did Athanasius become a Roman emperor?
5ace71a732bba1001ae4a6df
True
325
101
What year did Constantine meet Athanasius?
5ace71a732bba1001ae4a6e0
True
27
120
How old was Constantine when he was crowned emperor?
5ace71a732bba1001ae4a6e1
True
325
314
In what year did the First Council of Nicaea end?
5ace71a732bba1001ae4a6e2
True
Three years
432
How many years did the First Council of Nicaea last?
5ace71a732bba1001ae4a6e3
True
27
120
Athanasius ended his leading role at what age?
5aceaf6632bba1001ae4b045
True
325
101
In what year was the last Council of Nicaea?
5aceaf6632bba1001ae4b046
True
Athanasius Contra Mundum
764
Athanasius was never known as what?
5aceaf6632bba1001ae4b047
True
Three years
432
How many years after the First Council of Nicaea did Athanasius become pope?
5aceaf6632bba1001ae4b048
True
Conflict with Arius and Arianism
0
What peaceful protest shaped his career?
5aceaf6632bba1001ae4b049
True
Conflict with Arius and Arianism as well as successive Roman emperors shaped Athanasius's career. In 325, at the age of 27, Athanasius began his leading role against the Arians as his bishop's assistant during the First Council of Nicaea. Roman emperor Constantine the Great had convened the council in May–August 325 to address the Arian position that the Son of God, Jesus of Nazareth, is of a distinct substance from the Father. Three years after that council, Athanasius succeeded his mentor as archbishop of Alexandria. In addition to the conflict with the Arians (including powerful and influential Arian churchmen led by Eusebius of Nicomedia), he struggled against the Emperors Constantine, Constantius II, Julian the Apostate and Valens. He was known as "Athanasius Contra Mundum" (Latin for Athanasius Against the World).
As a child, Athanasius imitated what ritual?
571a8c844faf5e1900b8aa6a
ritual of Christian baptism
129
False
Were the pretend baptisms real?
571a8c844faf5e1900b8aa6b
the baptisms were genuine
318
False
Why was Athanasius instructed to stop pretend baptising?
571a8c844faf5e1900b8aa6c
not been properly catechized
549
False
What work did the Bishop suggest for Athanasius?
571a8c844faf5e1900b8aa6d
clerical careers
636
False
the ritual of Christian baptism
125
When Rufinus stood by a window what did he witness?
5ace7fa432bba1001ae4a861
True
Athanasius
220
Who did Bishop Alexander baptize?
5ace7fa432bba1001ae4a862
True
Bishop Alexander
283
Who told Rufinus that the baptisms were genuine?
5ace7fa432bba1001ae4a863
True
clerical
636
What was Rufinus' career?
5ace7fa432bba1001ae4a864
True
ritual of Christian baptism
129
As an adult, Athanasius imitated what ritual?
5aceb35532bba1001ae4b0bf
True
not been properly catechized
549
Why was Athanasius ordered to continue baptising?
5aceb35532bba1001ae4b0c0
True
clerical
636
What school did the Bishop suggest for Athanasius?
5aceb35532bba1001ae4b0c1
True
Rufinus relates a story that as Bishop Alexander stood by a window, he watched boys playing on the seashore below, imitating the ritual of Christian baptism. He sent for the children and discovered that one of the boys (Athanasius) had acted as bishop. After questioning Athanasius, Bishop Alexander informed him that the baptisms were genuine, as both the form and matter of the sacrament had been performed through the recitation of the correct words and the administration of water, and that he must not continue to do this as those baptized had not been properly catechized. He invited Athanasius and his playfellows to prepare for clerical careers.
Where was persecution of Christianity the worst?
571a8edb10f8ca1400305135
in the East
201
False
In what year was Peter of Alexandria martyred?
571a8edb10f8ca1400305136
in 311
320
False
Who could have been one of Athanasius's teachers?
571a8edb10f8ca1400305137
Peter of Alexandria
251
False
What suggests that Athanasius was familiar with ancient Greek philosophers?
571a8edb10f8ca1400305138
quoting Plato
1008
False
What famous Greek author did Athanasius  quote?
571a8edb10f8ca1400305139
Homer
1462
False
Rome
145
Where was Athanasius martyred?
5ace955532bba1001ae4ab01
True
319
936
When was Homer martyred?
5ace955532bba1001ae4ab02
True
319
936
When did Athanasius meet Plato?
5ace955532bba1001ae4ab03
True
319
936
When did Athanasius attend the School of Alexandria?
5ace955532bba1001ae4ab04
True
East
208
Where was persecution of Christianity the best?
5aceb4ed32bba1001ae4b0dd
True
311
323
In what year was Peter of Alexandria born?
5aceb4ed32bba1001ae4b0de
True
Peter of Alexandria
251
Who could have been one of Athanasius's students?
5aceb4ed32bba1001ae4b0df
True
quoting Plato
1008
What suggests that Athanasius was unfamiliar with ancient Greek philosophers?
5aceb4ed32bba1001ae4b0e0
True
Homer
1462
What famous Italian author did Athanasius quote?
5aceb4ed32bba1001ae4b0e1
True
Athanasius recounts being a student, as well as being educated by the Martyrs of the Great (tenth) and last persecution of Christianity by pagan Rome.[citation needed] This persecution was most severe in the East, particularly in Egypt and Palestine. Peter of Alexandria, the 17th archbishop of Alexandria, was martyred in 311 in the closing days of that persecution, and may have been one of those teachers. His successor as bishop of Alexandria, Alexander of Alexandria (312–328) was an Origenist as well as a documented mentor of Athanasius. According to Sozomen, Bishop Alexander "invited Athanasius to be his commensal and secretary. He had been well educated, and was versed in grammar and rhetoric, and had already, while still a young man, and before reaching the episcopate, given proof to those who dwelt with him of his wisdom and acumen". Athanasius's earliest work, Against the Heathen – On the Incarnation (written before 319), bears traces of Origenist Alexandrian thought (such as repeatedly quoting Plato and used a definition from Aristotle's Organon) but in an orthodox way. Athanasius was also familiar with the theories of various philosophical schools, and in particular with the developments of Neo-Platonism. Ultimately, Athanasius would modify the philosophical thought of the School of Alexandria away from the Origenist principles such as the "entirely allegorical interpretation of the text". Still, in later works, Athanasius quotes Homer more than once (Hist. Ar. 68, Orat. iv. 29). In his letter to Emperor Constantius, he presents a defense of himself bearing unmistakable traces of a study of Demosthenes de Corona.
What made Arius's belief about Jesus different from Alexander's?
571a901410f8ca1400305149
Son (Logos) of God, made, not begotten
488
False
Was this differing view common among Christians of the day?
571a901410f8ca140030514a
common Christological view
600
False
What other leaders believed this?
571a901410f8ca140030514b
powerful bishops
677
False
What eventually happened to Arius?
571a901410f8ca140030514c
excommunicated by Alexander
876
False
319
9
When did Athanasius become a deacon?
5ace9aaa32bba1001ae4ac7b
True
319
9
When did Arius become a deacon?
5ace9aaa32bba1001ae4ac7c
True
Alexandria
114
Where was Arius born?
5ace9aaa32bba1001ae4ac7d
True
319
9
When did Athanasius become a bishop?
5ace9aaa32bba1001ae4ac7e
True
Alexandria
630
Where did Origen meet Athanasius?
5ace9aaa32bba1001ae4ac7f
True
Son (Logos) of God, made, not begotten
488
What made Arius's belief about Jesus the same from Alexander's?
5aceb75132bba1001ae4b147
True
bishops
954
What other leaders did not believe this?
5aceb75132bba1001ae4b148
True
Arius
853
Who was communicated by Alexander?
5aceb75132bba1001ae4b149
True
In about 319, when Athanasius was a deacon, a presbyter named Arius came into a direct conflict with Alexander of Alexandria. It appears that Arius reproached Alexander for what he felt were misguided or heretical teachings being taught by the bishop. Arius's theological views appear to have been firmly rooted in Alexandrian Christianity, and his Christological views were certainly not radical at all. He embraced a subordinationist Christology which taught that Christ was the divine Son (Logos) of God, made, not begotten, heavily influenced by Alexandrian thinkers like Origen, and which was a common Christological view in Alexandria at the time. Support for Arius from powerful bishops like Eusebius of Caesarea and Eusebius of Nicomedia, further illustrate how Arius's subordinationist Christology was shared by other Christians in the Empire. Arius was subsequently excommunicated by Alexander, and he would begin to elicit the support of many bishops who agreed with his position.
Who did Athanasius succeed?
571a90d74faf5e1900b8aa96
Alexander
109
False
How many exiles did he endure?
571a90d74faf5e1900b8aa97
five exiles
316
False
The churches of what countries were in his territory?
571a90d74faf5e1900b8aa98
Egypt and Libya
718
False
Was he united with the Arians in his beliefs?
571a90d74faf5e1900b8aa99
disputes against Arians
940
False
Alexander
109
Who did Athanasius proceed?
5aceb82732bba1001ae4b183
True
five
316
How many exiles did he evade?
5aceb82732bba1001ae4b184
True
Egypt and Libya
718
The churches of what countries were in not his territory?
5aceb82732bba1001ae4b185
True
Arians
957
Who did he agree with in his beliefs?
5aceb82732bba1001ae4b186
True
Athanasius's episcopate began on 9 May 328 as the Alexandrian Council elected Athanasius to succeed the aged Alexander. That council also denounced various heresies and schisms, many of which continued to preoccupy his 45-year-long episcopate (c. 8 June 328 – 2 May 373). Patriarch Athanasius spent over 17 years in five exiles ordered by four different Roman Emperors, not counting approximately six more incidents in which Athanasius fled Alexandria to escape people seeking to take his life. This gave rise to the expression "Athanasius contra mundum" or "Athanasius against the world". However, during his first years as bishop, Athanasius visited the churches of his territory, which at that time included all of Egypt and Libya. He established contacts with the hermits and monks of the desert, including Pachomius, which proved very valuable to him over the years. Shortly thereafter, Athanasius became occupied with the theological disputes against Arians within the Byzantine Empire that would occupy much of his life.
Where is Gaul currently located?
571aa5df10f8ca1400305259
Belgium / Holland and surrounding areas
115
False
With whom did Athanasius travel to Sardica?
571aa5df10f8ca140030525a
Hosius of Cordoba
162
False
About what did the Council of the Church question Athanasius?
571aa5df10f8ca140030525b
misdemeanours and even murder
577
False
Was Athanasius permitted admission to the Council?
571aa5df10f8ca140030525c
objections were overridden by the orthodox bishops
1289
False
What was the verdict at the Council of Sardica?
571aa5df10f8ca140030525d
his innocence reaffirmed
1713
False
Belgium
115
Where is Gaul not currently located?
5aceb9df32bba1001ae4b1e3
True
Hosius of Cordoba
162
With whom did Athanasius travel to Africa?
5aceb9df32bba1001ae4b1e4
True
misdemeanours
577
About what did the Council of the Church question Julius?
5aceb9df32bba1001ae4b1e5
True
Athanasius
2324
Who was found guilty?
5aceb9df32bba1001ae4b1e6
True
Early in the year 343 we find Athanasius had travelled, via Rome, from Alexandria, North Africa, to Gaul; nowadays Belgium / Holland and surrounding areas, where Hosius of Cordoba was Bishop, the great champion of orthodoxy in the West. The two, together, set out for Sardica. A full Council of the Church was convened / summoned there in deference to the Roman pontiff's wishes. The travel was a mammoth task in itself. At this great gathering of prelates, leaders of the Church, the case of Athanasius was taken up once more, that is, Athanasius was formally questioned over misdemeanours and even murder, (a man called Arsenius and using his body for magic, – an absurd charge.). [The Council was convoked for the purpose of inquiring into the charges against Athanasius and other bishops, on account of which they were deposed from their sees by the Semi-Arian Synod of Antioch (341), and went into exile. It was called according to Socrates, (E. H. ii. 20) by the two Emperors, Constans and Constantius; but, according to Baronius by Pope Julius (337–352), (Ad an. 343). One hundred and seventy six attended. Eusebian bishops objected to the admission of Athanasius and other deposed bishops to the Council, except as accused persons to answer the charges brought against them. Their objections were overridden by the orthodox bishops, about a hundred were orthodox, who were the majority. The Eusebians, seeing they had no chance of having their views carried, retired to Philoppopolis in Thrace, Philippopolis (Thracia), where they held an opposition council, under the presidency of the Patriarch of Antioch, and confirmed the decrees of the Synod of Antioch. ]. Once more, at the Council of Sardica, was his innocence reaffirmed. Two conciliar letters were prepared, one to the clergy and faithful of Alexandria, the other to the bishops of Egypt and Libya, in which the will of the Council was made known. Meanwhile, the Eusebian party had gone to Philippopolis, where they issued an anathema against Athanasius and his supporters. The persecution against the orthodox party broke out with renewed vigour, and Constantius was induced to prepare drastic measures against Athanasius and the priests who were devoted to him. Orders were given that if the Saint attempt to re-enter his see, he should be put to death. Athanasius, accordingly, withdrew from Sardica to Naissus in Mysia, where he celebrated the Easter festival of the year 344. It was Hosius who presided over the Council of Sardica, as he did for the First Council of Nicaea, which like the 341 synod, found Athanasius innocent. &. He celebrated his last Easter in exile in Aquileia in April 345, received by bishop Fortunatianus.
In what year did Pope Julius die?
571aa6aa4faf5e1900b8abb6
352
31
False
Did Liberius sympathize with Athanasius?
571aa6aa4faf5e1900b8abb7
Liberius had been favourable
81
False
What was the outcome of the Council of Milan?
571aa6aa4faf5e1900b8abb8
a fourth condemnation of Athanasius
431
False
What was  Athanasius doing when he was arrested?
571aa6aa4faf5e1900b8abb9
engaged in services
696
False
Where the men armed who arrested him?
571aa6aa4faf5e1900b8abba
armed men
755
False
352
31
In what year was Pope Julius born?
5acebc4032bba1001ae4b23f
True
a fourth condemnation
431
What wasn't the outcome of the Council of Milan?
5acebc4032bba1001ae4b240
True
Athanasius
456
Who was arrested by unarmed men?
5acebc4032bba1001ae4b241
True
while engaged in services in the Church of St. Thomas, a band of armed men burst in to secure his arrest
690
What happened in 368?
5acebc4032bba1001ae4b242
True
Pope Julius had died in April, 352, and was succeeded by Liberius. For two years Liberius had been favourable to the cause of Athanasius; but driven at last into exile, he was induced to sign an ambiguous formula, from which the great Nicene text, the "homoousion", had been studiously omitted. In 355 a council was held at Milan, where in spite of the vigorous opposition of a handful of loyal prelates among the Western bishops, a fourth condemnation of Athanasius was announced to the world. With his friends scattered, the saintly Hosius in exile, and Pope Liberius denounced as acquiescing in Arian formularies, Athanasius could hardly hope to escape. On the night of 8 February, 356, while engaged in services in the Church of St. Thomas, a band of armed men burst in to secure his arrest. It was the beginning of his third exile.
Who had a policy of condemning Athanasius?
571aaa854faf5e1900b8abde
the Arians
53
False
What was Athanasius doing the next time an arrest was attempted?
571aaa854faf5e1900b8abdf
a vigil service
182
False
Where did Athanasius flee to after this attempt?
571aaa854faf5e1900b8abe0
Upper Egypt
218
False
What did he write during this time?
571aaa854faf5e1900b8abe1
Four Orations against the Arians
338
False
In which work did he refer to Constantius as a precursor of the Antichrist?
571aaa854faf5e1900b8abe2
History of the Arians
694
False
Arians
57
Who had a policy of agreeing with Athanasius?
5acec0d732bba1001ae4b2c3
True
vigil service
184
What was Athanasius doing the first time an arrest was attempted?
5acec0d732bba1001ae4b2c4
True
Upper Egypt
218
Where did Athanasius flee to before this attempt?
5acec0d732bba1001ae4b2c5
True
Four Orations against the Arians
338
What did he paint during this time?
5acec0d732bba1001ae4b2c6
True
Constantius, renewing his previous policies favoring the Arians, banished Athanasius from Alexandria once again. This was followed, in 356, by an attempt to arrest Athanasius during a vigil service. Athanasius fled to Upper Egypt, where he stayed in several monasteries and other houses. During this period, Athanasius completed his work Four Orations against the Arians and defended his own recent conduct in the Apology to Constantius and Apology for His Flight. Constantius's persistence in his opposition to Athanasius, combined with reports Athanasius received about the persecution of non-Arians by the new Arian bishop George of Laodicea, prompted Athanasius to write his more emotional History of the Arians, in which he described Constantius as a precursor of the Antichrist.
Where did bishops of the West meet?
571aab8910f8ca14003052b7
Rimini in Italy
291
False
What did the Arians agree upon at Sirmium?
571aab8910f8ca14003052b8
a formula of faith
377
False
What was the belief that was approved at this council?
571aab8910f8ca14003052b9
The Son to be "like the Father"
438
False
What did the orthodox leaders believe?
571aab8910f8ca14003052ba
the Nicene
1213
False
What belief was accepted by Constantius?
571aab8910f8ca14003052bb
Arian
1721
False
Rimini in Italy
291
Where did bishops of the East meet?
5acec1e932bba1001ae4b2e3
True
formula of faith
379
What did the Arians disagree upon at Sirmium?
5acec1e932bba1001ae4b2e4
True
The Son to be "like the Father
438
What was the belief that was disproved at this council?
5acec1e932bba1001ae4b2e5
True
Nicene
1217
What did the orthodox leaders not believe?
5acec1e932bba1001ae4b2e6
True
Arian
1129
What belief was not accepted by Constantius?
5acec1e932bba1001ae4b2e7
True
T. Gilmartin, (Professor of History, Maynooth, 1890), writes in Church History, Vol. 1, Ch XVII: The Arians sought the approval of an Ecumenical Council. They sought to hold two councils. Constantius, summoned the bishops of the East to meet at Seleucia in Isauria, and those of the West to Rimini in Italy. A preliminary conference was held by the Arians at Sirmium, to agree a formula of faith. A "Homoeon" creed was adopted, declaring The Son to be "like the Father". The two met in autumn of 359. At Seleucia, one hundred and fifty bishops, of which one hundred and five were semi-Arian. The semi-Arians refused to accept anything less than the "Homoiousion", (see: Homoiousian), formulary of faith. The Imperial Prefect was obliged to disband, without agreeing on any creed. Acacius, the leader of the "Homoean" party went to Constantinople, where the Sirmian formulary of faith was approved by the "Home Synod", (consisted of those bishops who happened to be present at the Court for the time), and a decree of deposition issued against the leaders of the semi-Arians. At Rimini were over four hundred of which eighty were Arian, the rest were orthodox. The orthodox fathers refused to accept any creed but the Nicene, while the others were equally in favour of the Sirmian. Each party sent a deputation to the Emperor to say there was no probability to agreement, and asked for the bishops to return to their dioceses. For the purpose of wearing-down the orthodox bishops; (Sulpitius Severius says), Constantius delayed his answer for several months, and finally prevailed on them to accept the Sirmian creed. It was after this Council that Jerome said: " ...the whole world groaned in astonishment to find itself Arian."
Who was jealous of Athanasius's influence?
571aac8a4faf5e1900b8abfc
Julian
364
False
What position did Ecdicius hold?
571aac8a4faf5e1900b8abfd
Prefect of Egypt
513
False
What did Julian try to do to Athanasius?
571aac8a4faf5e1900b8abfe
expulsion
559
False
Did Athanasius tell the people to protest?
571aac8a4faf5e1900b8abff
urged them to submit
981
False
Did he think he would be gone a long time?
571aac8a4faf5e1900b8ac00
short duration
1064
False
Julian
364
Who wasn't jealous of Athanasius's influence?
5acec2e332bba1001ae4b311
True
Prefect of Egypt
513
What position did Ecdicius reject?
5acec2e332bba1001ae4b312
True
to submit
992
What did Athanasius not tell the people?
5acec2e332bba1001ae4b313
True
With characteristic energy he set to work to re-establish the somewhat shattered fortunes of the orthodox party and to purge the theological atmosphere of uncertainty. To clear up the misunderstandings that had arisen in the course of the previous years, an attempt was made to determine still further the significance of the Nicene formularies. In the meanwhile, Julian, who seems to have become suddenly jealous of the influence that Athanasius was exercising at Alexandria, addressed an order to Ecdicius, the Prefect of Egypt, peremptorily commanding the expulsion of the restored primate, on the ground that he had never been included in the imperial act of clemency. The edict was communicated to the bishop by Pythicodorus Trico, who, though described in the "Chronicon Athanasianum" (XXXV) as a "philosopher", seems to have behaved with brutal insolence. On 23 October the people gathered about the proscribed bishop to protest against the emperor's decree; but Athanasius urged them to submit, consoling them with the promise that his absence would be of short duration.
When did he write his first works on Orthodox Christianity?
571aad964faf5e1900b8ac06
before the Arian controversy
131
False
Which of the two first works addresses pagan practices?
571aad964faf5e1900b8ac07
Against the Heathen
33
False
How did he believe Jesus came into the world?
571aad964faf5e1900b8ac08
in human form
509
False
Which of his works addresses redemption and the Son of God?
571aad964faf5e1900b8ac09
Incarnation of the Word of God
61
False
before the Arian controversy
131
When did he write his last works on Orthodox Christianity?
5acec49232bba1001ae4b343
True
Against the Heathen
33
Which of the last works addresses pagan practices?
5acec49232bba1001ae4b344
True
in human form
509
How did he not believe Jesus came into the world?
5acec49232bba1001ae4b345
True
Incarnation of the Word of God
61
Which of his works did not address redemption and the Son of God?
5acec49232bba1001ae4b346
True
Athanasius also wrote a two-part Against the Heathen and The Incarnation of the Word of God. Completed probably early in his life, before the Arian controversy, they constitute the first classic work of developed Orthodox theology. In the first part, Athanasius attacks several pagan practices and beliefs. The second part presents teachings on the redemption. Also in these books, Athanasius put forward the belief that the Son of God, the eternal Word through whom God created the world, entered that world in human form to lead men back into the harmony from which they had earlier fallen away.
What did he do when he thought he might be made Bishop?
571aae454faf5e1900b8ac0e
fled
247
False
Who did the Catholics of Alexandria want as their Bishop?
571aae454faf5e1900b8ac0f
"Give us Athanasius!"
473
False
Was there someone else that was preferred as Bishop?
571aae454faf5e1900b8ac10
The Bishops had nothing better
495
False
When did Alexander ask to see Athanasius?
571aae454faf5e1900b8ac11
on his death-bed
204
False
fled
247
What did he do when he thought he might be fired from being Bishop?
5acec63232bba1001ae4b387
True
Athanasius
482
Who didn't the Catholics of Alexandria want as their Bishop?
5acec63232bba1001ae4b388
True
death-bed
211
When did Athanasius ask to see Alexander?
5acec63232bba1001ae4b389
True
In the light of Mother F. A. Forbes research and reference to Pope Saint Gregory's writings, it would appear that Athanasius was constrained to be Bishop: She writes that when the Patriarch Alexander was on his death-bed he called Athanasius, who fled fearing he would be constrained to be made Bishop. "When the Bishops of the Church assembled to elect their new Patriarch, the whole Catholic population surrounded the church, holding up their hands to Heaven and crying; "Give us Athanasius!" The Bishops had nothing better. Athanasius was thus elected, as Gregory tells us..." (Pope Gregory I, would have full access to the Vatican Archives).
Was Athanasius well liked by everyone?
571aaf0f10f8ca14003052df
many detractors
46
False
What was he accused of doing to a church?
571aaf0f10f8ca14003052e0
defiling an altar
154
False
He was accused of selling grain for what reason?
571aaf0f10f8ca14003052e1
his own personal gain
238
False
What did he call his detractors?
571aaf0f10f8ca14003052e2
Arian
514
False
What did the term Arian mean to him?
571aaf0f10f8ca14003052e3
Christians who disagreed with his formulation
411
False
Christians
411
Who liked Athanasius?
5acec8e032bba1001ae4b3ed
True
defiling an altar
154
What was he accused of doing to a mosque?
5acec8e032bba1001ae4b3ee
True
Arian
328
What did he not call his detractors?
5acec8e032bba1001ae4b3ef
True
derogatory polemical term
381
What did the term Arian not mean to him?
5acec8e032bba1001ae4b3f0
True
Throughout most of his career, Athanasius had many detractors. Classical scholar Timothy Barnes relates contemporary allegations against Athanasius: from defiling an altar, to selling Church grain that had been meant to feed the poor for his own personal gain, and even violence and murder to suppress dissent. Athanasius used "Arian" to describe both followers of Arius, and as a derogatory polemical term for Christians who disagreed with his formulation of the Trinity. Athanasius called many of his opponents "Arian", except for Miletus.
What was he known as soon after he died?
571ab0c810f8ca14003052e9
Pillar of the Church
83
False
How does the Eastern Orthodox Church refer to him?
571ab0c810f8ca14003052ea
Father of Orthodoxy
479
False
What do the Protestants call him?
571ab0c810f8ca14003052eb
Father of the Canon
529
False
What is his feast day in Western Christianity?
571ab0c810f8ca14003052ec
2 May
616
False
What day is he celebrated in the Eastern Orthodox Church?
571ab0c810f8ca14003052ed
18 January
689
False
2 May
616
On what day did Gregory of Nazianzus call Athanasius the "Pillar of the Church"?
5ace7ccf32bba1001ae4a7e3
True
18 January
689
When was Gregory of Nazianzus counted as one of the four great Eastern Doctors of the Church in the Roman Catholic Church?
5ace7ccf32bba1001ae4a7e4
True
15 May
647
What is Gregory of Nazianzus feast day in the Coptic Orthodox Church?
5ace7ccf32bba1001ae4a7e5
True
2 May
616
What is Gregory of Nazianzus feast day in Western Christianity?
5ace7ccf32bba1001ae4a7e6
True
18 January
689
What is Gregory of Nazianzus feast day in the other Eastern Orthodox Churches?
5ace7ccf32bba1001ae4a7e7
True
Pillar of the Church
83
What was he known as soon after he was born?
5aceb26d32bba1001ae4b099
True
Father of Orthodoxy
479
How does the Eastern Orthodox Church never refer to him?
5aceb26d32bba1001ae4b09a
True
Father of the Canon
529
What do the Catholics call him?
5aceb26d32bba1001ae4b09b
True
2 May
616
What is his feast day in Northern Christianity?
5aceb26d32bba1001ae4b09c
True
18 January
689
What day is he celebrated in the Southern Orthodox Church?
5aceb26d32bba1001ae4b09d
True
Nonetheless, within a few years of his death, Gregory of Nazianzus called him the "Pillar of the Church". His writings were well regarded by all Church fathers who followed, in both the West and the East, who noted their rich devotion to the Word-become-man, great pastoral concern, and profound interest in monasticism. Athanasius is counted as one of the four great Eastern Doctors of the Church in the Roman Catholic Church. In the Eastern Orthodox Church, he is labeled the "Father of Orthodoxy". Some Protestants label him "Father of the Canon". Athanasius is venerated as a Christian saint, whose feast day is 2 May in Western Christianity, 15 May in the Coptic Orthodox Church, and 18 January in the other Eastern Orthodox Churches. He is venerated by the Oriental and Eastern Orthodox Churches, the Roman Catholic Church, the Lutherans, and the Anglican Communion.
What was Alexandria known for?
571adcf932177014007e9f56
important trade center
24
False
Was the famous school in Alexandria religious only?
571adcf932177014007e9f57
secular character
479
False
Did only Christians attend the school?
571adcf932177014007e9f58
influential pagans
556
False
Was Alexandria welcoming to other cultures?
571adcf932177014007e9f59
ethnically diverse
155
False
the most important trade center
15
What was Rome known for?
5ace92fd32bba1001ae4aa9b
True
Alexandria
0
What was the name of the city where Athanasius went to catechetical school?
5ace92fd32bba1001ae4aa9c
True
Alexandria
0
Where did Athanasius meet pagans?
5ace92fd32bba1001ae4aa9d
True
Rome
209
Where were the pagans from?
5ace92fd32bba1001ae4aa9e
True
important trade center
24
What was Alexandria not known for?
5aceb49a32bba1001ae4b0d9
True
Alexandria
0
What epitomized the ethnically uniform world?
5aceb49a32bba1001ae4b0da
True
Alexandria was the most important trade center in the whole empire during Athanasius's boyhood. Intellectually, morally, and politically—it epitomized the ethnically diverse Graeco-Roman world, even more than Rome or Constantinople, Antioch or Marseilles. Its famous catechetical school, while sacrificing none of its famous passion for orthodoxy since the days of Pantaenus, Clement of Alexandria, Origen of Alexandria, Dionysius and Theognostus, had begun to take on an almost secular character in the comprehensiveness of its interests, and had counted influential pagans among its serious auditors.
What famous event happened in 303?
571addd732177014007e9f5e
Maximian persecution
165
False
What writing mentions the Arian accusation that Athanasius was under aged?
571addd732177014007e9f5f
the Festal Epistles
297
False
At what age was a man eligible to be ordained at Patriarch of Alexandria?
571addd732177014007e9f60
canonical age (30)
415
False
296
60
When was Cornelius Clifford born?
5ace7e3f32bba1001ae4a819
True
303
189
What year did Cornelius Clifford attend the Maximian persecution?
5ace7e3f32bba1001ae4a81a
True
328
511
When was Cornelius Clifford ordained as Patriarch of Alexandria?
5ace7e3f32bba1001ae4a81b
True
The Orthodox Church
559
What church does Cornelius Clifford belong to?
5ace7e3f32bba1001ae4a81c
True
ten years old
260
How old was Cornelius Clifford when he joined The Orthodox Church?
5ace7e3f32bba1001ae4a81d
True
Maximian persecution
165
What famous event happened in 305?
5aceb30232bba1001ae4b0b7
True
Festal Epistles
301
What writing denies that the Arian accusation that Athanasius was under aged?
5aceb30232bba1001ae4b0b8
True
30
430
At what age was a woman eligible to be ordained at Patriarch of Alexandria?
5aceb30232bba1001ae4b0b9
True
canonical age
415
What is the age of 20 called?
5aceb30232bba1001ae4b0ba
True
However Cornelius Clifford places his birth no earlier than 296 and no later than 298, based on the fact that Athanasius indicates no first hand recollection of the Maximian persecution of 303, which he suggests Athanasius would have remembered if he had been ten years old at the time. Secondly, the Festal Epistles state that the Arians had accused Athanasius, among other charges, of not having yet attained the canonical age (30) and thus could not have been properly ordained as Patriarch of Alexandria in 328. The accusation must have seemed plausible. The Orthodox Church places his year of birth around 297.
Did the followers of Meletius obey the guidelines of Nicaea?
571adf0732177014007e9f6e
failed to abide
85
False
What was Athanasius accused of planning against the Arians?
571adf0732177014007e9f6f
cut off essential Egyptian grain
549
False
What was the verdict of the accusation?
571adf0732177014007e9f70
was found guilty
613
False
What was his punishment?
571adf0732177014007e9f71
anathematized
151
False
Who was he accused of harming?
571adf0732177014007e9f72
Arians and Meletians
195
False
Meletius
36
Who did obey the guidelines of Nicaea?
5aceb8e532bba1001ae4b1af
True
Athanasius
525
Who claimed Constantinople would cut off grain supplies?
5aceb8e532bba1001ae4b1b0
True
Arians
510
Constantinople was afraid they wouldn't receive grains from whom?
5aceb8e532bba1001ae4b1b1
True
Augusta Treverorum
654
What exile is in modern day France?
5aceb8e532bba1001ae4b1b2
True
Athanasius's first problem lay with Meletius of Lycopolis and his followers, who had failed to abide by the First Council of Nicaea. That council also anathematized Arius. Accused of mistreating Arians and Meletians, Athanasius answered those charges at a gathering of bishops in Tyre, the First Synod of Tyre, in 335. There, Eusebius of Nicomedia and other supporters of Arius deposed Athanasius. On 6 November, both sides of the dispute met with Emperor Constantine I in Constantinople. At that meeting, the Arians claimed Athanasius would try to cut off essential Egyptian grain supplies to Constantinople. He was found guilty, and sent into exile to Augusta Treverorum in Gaul (now Trier in Germany).
Did Athanasius speak Greek?
571adfb39499d21900609b6f
knew Greek
11
False
Did he understand Hebrew?
571adfb39499d21900609b70
not knowing Hebrew
35
False
Did he know all of the Old Testament?
571adfb39499d21900609b71
limited to the Septuagint
365
False
What did students learn in the school in Alexandria?
571adfb39499d21900609b72
Scriptural study and of Greek
639
False
What translation of the Old Testament did he study?
571adfb39499d21900609b73
Septuagint Greek
167
False
Alexandrian School
711
What is the name of the school where Athanasius learned Hebrew?
5ace995332bba1001ae4ac33
True
Alexandrian School
711
Where did Athanasius obtain a Septuagint from?
5ace995332bba1001ae4ac34
True
Alexandrian School
711
Where did Athanasius obtain a Hebrew Septuagint from?
5ace995332bba1001ae4ac35
True
the 39th Festal Letter of St. Athan
66
What letter did Athanasius write in Hebrew?
5ace995332bba1001ae4ac36
True
Septuagint
167
What part of the Old Testament did he not know?
5aceb60032bba1001ae4b119
True
Septuagint Greek
167
What did teachers learn in the school in Alexandria?
5aceb60032bba1001ae4b11a
True
Septuagint
380
What copy of the scriptures did he have in exile?
5aceb60032bba1001ae4b11b
True
Greek learning
663
What was not a characteristic of the school?
5aceb60032bba1001ae4b11c
True
Athanasius knew Greek and admitted not knowing Hebrew [see, e.g., the 39th Festal Letter of St. Athan.]. The Old Testament passages he quotes frequently come from the Septuagint Greek translation. Only rarely did he use other Greek versions (to Aquila once in the Ecthesis, to other versions once or twice on the Psalms), and his knowledge of the Old Testament was limited to the Septuagint. Nonetheless, during his later exile, with no access to a copy of the Scriptures, Athanasius could quote from memory every verse in the Old Testament with a supposed reference to the Trinity without missing any.[citation needed] The combination of Scriptural study and of Greek learning was characteristic of the famous Alexandrian School.
Who did he have to thank for his ability to come back to Alexandria in 345?
571ae05d9499d21900609b83
Constans
58
False
Were the people glad to have him home?
571ae05d9499d21900609b84
enthusiastic demonstrations
157
False
In what writing did he recount his time in exiles?
571ae05d9499d21900609b85
Apology Against the Arians
366
False
What happened when Constans died?
571ae05d9499d21900609b86
civil war
441
False
Did the new emperor agree or disagree with the Arians?
571ae05d9499d21900609b87
pro-Arian
473
False
Constans
58
Who was not thanked for letting him back in Alexandria?
5acebb2432bba1001ae4b20f
True
Constans used his influence to allow Athanasius to return to Alexandria
58
What happened in 346?
5acebb2432bba1001ae4b210
True
350
428
When did the uncivil war happen?
5acebb2432bba1001ae4b211
True
350
428
When was Constan born?
5acebb2432bba1001ae4b212
True
After the death of the replacement bishop Gregory in 345, Constans used his influence to allow Athanasius to return to Alexandria in October 345, amidst the enthusiastic demonstrations of the populace. This began a "golden decade" of peace and prosperity, during which time Athanasius assembled several documents relating to his exiles and returns from exile in the Apology Against the Arians. However, upon Constans's death in 350, another civil war broke out, which left pro-Arian Constantius as sole emperor. An Alexandria local council in 350 replaced (or reaffirmed) Athanasius in his see.
What did Athanasius do to avoid speaking to Alexander on his deathbed?
571ae11032177014007e9f78
fled
109
False
Who did the Alexandrian people want to be their Bishop?
571ae11032177014007e9f79
Give us Athanasius
336
False
Did the Bishops have someone else in mind?
571ae11032177014007e9f7a
Bishops had nothing better
361
False
Who did Alexander ask for when he was dieing?
571ae11032177014007e9f7b
called Athanasius
86
False
fled
109
What did Athanasius do to avoid speaking to Alexander at lunch?
5aceb79c32bba1001ae4b157
True
Athanasius
344
Who did the Alexandrian people want to be their pope?
5aceb79c32bba1001ae4b158
True
Athanasius
389
Who did the bishops want to be their bishop?
5aceb79c32bba1001ae4b159
True
Athanasius
389
Who did Alexander deny talking to when he was dying?
5aceb79c32bba1001ae4b15a
True
Frances A. M. Forbes writes that when the Patriarch Alexander was on his death-bed he called Athanasius, who fled fearing he would be constrained to be made Bishop. "When the Bishops of the Church assembled to elect their new Patriarch, the whole Catholic population surrounded the church, holding up their hands to Heaven and crying; "Give us Athanasius!" The Bishops had nothing better. Athanasius was thus elected, as Gregory tells us..." (Pope Gregory I, would have full access to the Vatican Archives).
How much warning was Liberius given before his exile?
571ae22232177014007e9f8a
three days
66
False
Where did Liberius go?
571ae22232177014007e9f8b
Beroea
122
False
Did bribery work in convincing Liberius to believe the Arians?
571ae22232177014007e9f8c
were refused
235
False
Who tried to bribe Liberius?
571ae22232177014007e9f8d
Constantius
742
False
What did Liberius have to promise to do in order to return?
571ae22232177014007e9f8e
comply with the bishops
1307
False
three days
66
How much warning was Liberius given before his freedom?
5acec17932bba1001ae4b2cb
True
Constantius, ordered Liberius into exile
0
What happened in 355?
5acec17932bba1001ae4b2cc
True
Beroea
141
Where did Liberius come from?
5acec17932bba1001ae4b2cd
True
Constantius
616
Who tried to convince Liberius?
5acec17932bba1001ae4b2ce
True
Constantius, ordered Liberius into exile in 356 giving him, then, three days to comply. He was ordered into banishment to Beroea, in Thrace; Beroea (Thrace). He sent expensive presents, too, if he were to accept the Arian position but were refused. He sent him, indeed, five hundred pieces of gold "to bear his charges" but Liberius refused them, saying, he might bestow them on his flatters; as he did also a like present from the empress, bidding the messenger learn to believe in Christ, and not to persecute the Church of God. Attempts were made to leave the presents in The Church, but Liberius threw them out. Constantius hereupon sent for him under a strict guard to Milan, where, in a conference recorded by Theodoret, he boldly told Constantius that Athanasius had been acquitted at Sardica, and his enemies proved calumniators (see: "calumny") and impostors, and that it was unjust to condemn a person who could not be legally convicted of any crime. The emperor was reduced to silence on every article, but being the more out of patience, ordered him into banishment. Liberius went into exile. Constantius, after two years went to Rome to celebrate the twentieth year of his reign. The ladies joined in a petition to him that he would restore Liberius. He assented, upon condition that he should comply with the bishops, then, at court. He subscribed the condemnation of Athanasius, and a confession or creed which had been framed by the Arians at Sirmium. And he no sooner had recovered his see that he declared himself for the Creed of Niceae, as Theodoret testifies. (Theodoret, Hist. lib. ii. c. 17.). The Emperor knew what he wanted people to believe. So did the bishops at his court. Athanasius stuck by the orthodox creed. Constantius was an avowed Arian, became sole ruler in 350, at the death of his brother, Constans.
At what point could Athanasius return to Alexandria?
571ae2ea32177014007e9f9e
When Emperor Constantine I died
0
False
Who provided for his protection while he was in Rome?
571ae2ea32177014007e9f9f
Constans
294
False
Who became Patriarch in Alexandria while Athanasius was away?
571ae2ea32177014007e9fa0
Gregory of Cappadocia
347
False
How did the people of Alexandria know when to celebrate Easter?
571ae2ea32177014007e9fa1
Festal Letters
525
False
Who declared Athanasius to be exiled again?
571ae2ea32177014007e9fa2
Constantius II
162
False
When Emperor Constantine I died
0
At what point could Athanasius leave Alexandria?
5aceb92632bba1001ae4b1bf
True
Constans
294
Who provided for his judgement while he was in Rome?
5aceb92632bba1001ae4b1c0
True
Gregory of Cappadocia
347
Who became Patriarch in Alexandria while Athanasius was present?
5aceb92632bba1001ae4b1c1
True
Constantius II
162
Who declared Athanasius to be freed again?
5aceb92632bba1001ae4b1c2
True
When Emperor Constantine I died, Athanasius was allowed to return to his See of Alexandria. Shortly thereafter, however, Constantine's son, the new Roman Emperor Constantius II, renewed the order for Athanasius's banishment in 338. Athanasius went to Rome, where he was under the protection of Constans, the Emperor of the West. During this time, Gregory of Cappadocia was installed as the Patriarch of Alexandria, usurping the absent Athanasius. Athanasius did, however, remain in contact with his people through his annual Festal Letters, in which he also announced on which date Easter would be celebrated that year.
Why did the Bishops condemn Athanasius?
571ae3ba32177014007e9fa8
threats of the Emperor
345
False
Did the Pope agree with this order?
571ae3ba32177014007e9fa9
Pope refused to accept
440
False
Did the Emperor agree to a new trial for Athanasius?
571ae3ba32177014007e9faa
Constantius consented
608
False
What oath did the Bishops have to take at the trial?
571ae3ba32177014007e9fab
Arian formula of faith
941
False
What happened to the Bishops who did not take the oath?
571ae3ba32177014007e9fac
sent into exile
1261
False
threats of the Emperor
345
Why didn't the Bishops condemn Athanasius?
5acebc8432bba1001ae4b251
True
Pope
301
Who agreed with the order?
5acebc8432bba1001ae4b252
True
Constantius
608
Who did not consent to a new trial?
5acebc8432bba1001ae4b253
True
formula of faith
947
What oath was not taken at the trial?
5acebc8432bba1001ae4b254
True
T. Gilmartin, (Professor of History, Maynooth, 1890), writes in Church History, Vol. 1, Ch XVII: By Constantius's order, the sole ruler of The Roman Empire at the death of his brother Constans, the Council of Arles in 353, was held, which was presided over by Vincent, Bishop of Capua, in the name of Pope Liberius. The fathers terrified of the threats of the Emperor, an avowed Arian, they consented to the condemnation of Athanasius. The Pope refused to accept their decision, and requested the Emperor to hold another Council, in which the charges against Athanasius could be freely investigated. To this Constantius consented, for he felt able to control it, at Milan. Milan was named as the place, here three hundred bishops assembled, most from the West, only a few from the East, in 355. They met in the Church of Milan. Shortly, the Emperor ordered them to a hall in the Imperial Palace, thus ending any free debate. He presented an Arian formula of faith for their acceptance. He threatened any who refused with exile and death. All, with the exception of Dionysius (bishop of Milan), and the two Papal Legates, viz., Eusebius of Vercelli and Lucifer of Cagliari, consented to the Arian Creed and the condemnation of Athanasius. Those who refused were sent into exile. The decrees were forwarded to the Pope for approval, but were rejected, because of the violence to which the bishops were subjected.
What happened to Bishop George?
571ae53e9499d21900609b97
murder
72
False
What happened to Bishop leaders who did not agree with the doctrine?
571ae53e9499d21900609b98
severe penance
695
False
When did Athanasius return to his position as Patriarch?
571ae53e9499d21900609b99
after the death of Emperor Constantius
8
False
Who joined him when he formed a council to encourage unity among Christians?
571ae53e9499d21900609b9a
Eusebius of Vercelli
239
False
death of Emperor Constantius
18
What happened in 362?
5acec23a32bba1001ae4b2f7
True
severe penance
695
What happened to Bishop leaders who agreed with the doctrine?
5acec23a32bba1001ae4b2f8
True
after the death of Emperor Constantius
8
When did Athanasius return to his position as pope?
5acec23a32bba1001ae4b2f9
True
Eusebius of Vercelli
239
Who left him when he formed a council to encourage unity among Christians?
5acec23a32bba1001ae4b2fa
True
In 361, after the death of Emperor Constantius, shortly followed by the murder of the very unpopular Bishop George, Athanasius returned to his patriarchate. The following year he convened a council at Alexandria, and presided over it with Eusebius of Vercelli. Athanasius appealed for unity among all those who had faith in Christianity, even if they differed on matters of terminology. This prepared the groundwork for his definition of the orthodox doctrine of the Trinity. However, the council also was directed against those who denied the divinity of the Holy Spirit, the human soul of Christ, and Christ's divinity. Mild measures were agreed on for those heretic bishops who repented, but severe penance was decreed for the chief leaders of the major heresies.
What Christian beliefs did Emperor Valens adhere to?
571ae5e132177014007e9fb2
Arian
53
False
Where did Athanasius during his latest exile?
571ae5e132177014007e9fb3
outskirts of Alexandria
150
False
For how long was he exiled this time?
571ae5e132177014007e9fb4
few months
202
False
Where did he hide during this time?
571ae5e132177014007e9fb5
his father's tomb
513
False
Who convinced Valens to let him return to Alexandria?
571ae5e132177014007e9fb6
local authorities
224
False
Arian
53
What Catholic beliefs did Emperor Valens adhere to?
5acec35d32bba1001ae4b31f
True
outskirts of Alexandria
150
Where did Athanasius go during his first exile?
5acec35d32bba1001ae4b320
True
few months
202
How many years was he exiled?
5acec35d32bba1001ae4b321
True
local authorities
224
Who didn't convince Valens to let him return to Alexandria?
5acec35d32bba1001ae4b322
True
Two years later, the Emperor Valens, who favored the Arian position, in his turn exiled Athanasius. This time however, Athanasius simply left for the outskirts of Alexandria, where he stayed for only a few months before the local authorities convinced Valens to retract his order of exile. Some early reports state that Athanasius spent this period of exile at his family's ancestral tomb in a Christian cemetery. It was during this period, the final exile, that he is said to have spent four months in hiding in his father's tomb. (Soz., "Hist. Eccl.", VI, xii; Soc., "Hist. Eccl.", IV, xii).
Who standardized the books of the New Testament?
571ae6b632177014007e9fbc
Athanasius
0
False
What books were used before his decision to standardize?
571ae6b632177014007e9fbd
various
120
False
How many books are listed that should be included but were not?
571ae6b632177014007e9fbe
7 books
389
False
How many books are in the New Testament?
571ae6b632177014007e9fbf
27 books
52
False
Have those books changed over time?
571ae6b632177014007e9fc0
in use today
91
False
Athanasius
0
Who standardized the books of the Old Testament?
5acec60132bba1001ae4b375
True
various
120
What books were used after his decision to standardize?
5acec60132bba1001ae4b376
True
7 books
389
How many books are listed that shouldn't be included?
5acec60132bba1001ae4b377
True
27 books
52
How many books are in the old Testament?
5acec60132bba1001ae4b378
True
Athanasius is the first person to identify the same 27 books of the New Testament that are in use today. Up until then, various similar lists of works to be read in churches were in use. Athanasius compiled the list to resolve questions about such texts as The Epistle of Barnabas. Athanasius includes the Book of Baruch and the Letter of Jeremiah and places the Book of Esther among the "7 books not in the canon but to be read" along with the Wisdom of Solomon, Sirach (Ecclesiasticus), Judith, Tobit, the Didache, and the Shepherd of Hermas.
Did Athanasius feel that it was important to believe that Jesus was the Son of God?
571ae80b9499d21900609b9f
not optional but necessary
237
False
Did his place more value on his Faith or where he was living?
571ae80b9499d21900609ba0
the true Faith
704
False
Did he think that the people that had exiled him were true believers?
571ae80b9499d21900609ba1
outside of the true Faith
537
False
Where did Athanasius think Faith resides?
571ae80b9499d21900609ba2
within you
620
False
Who was the Festal Letter written for?
571ae80b9499d21900609ba3
his Church in Alexandria
67
False
accepting Jesus is the Divine Son of God
193
What did Athanasius feel was optional?
5acec4eb32bba1001ae4b359
True
within you
620
Where didn't Athanasius think Faith resides?
5acec4eb32bba1001ae4b35a
True
his Church in Alexandria
67
Who was the Festal book written for?
5acec4eb32bba1001ae4b35b
True
Perhaps, his most notable letter was his Festal Letter, written to his Church in Alexandria when he was in exile, as he could not be in their presence. This letter shows clearly his stand that accepting Jesus is the Divine Son of God is not optional but necessary; "I know moreover that not only this thing saddens you, but also the fact that while others have obtained the churches by violence, you are meanwhile cast out from your places. For they hold the places, but you the Apostolic Faith. They are, it is true, in the places, but outside of the true Faith; while you are outside the places indeed, but the Faith, within you. Let us consider whether is the greater, the place or the Faith. Clearly the true Faith. Who then has lost more, or who possesses more? He who holds the place, or he who holds the Faith?
How did the people  know that Alexander had chosen Athanasius as his successor?
571ae8d732177014007e9fd0
thrice repeating his name
201
False
How old was Athanasius when he was chosen as Patriarch?
571ae8d732177014007e9fd1
thirty years
498
False
Who came to Alexandria to confirm the choice?
571ae8d732177014007e9fd2
bishops of all Egypt
270
False
Did all the people want him as Patriarch?
571ae8d732177014007e9fd3
unanimous in their choice
350
False
How long after the Council of Nicae did Alexander die?
571ae8d732177014007e9fd4
Five months
38
False
thrice repeating his name
201
How did the people know that Alexander had chosen Athanasius as his predecesor?
5acec66032bba1001ae4b38d
True
thirty years
498
How old was Athanasius when he was chosen as Pope?
5acec66032bba1001ae4b38e
True
Five months
38
How long after the Council of Nicae was Alexander born?
5acec66032bba1001ae4b38f
True
Alban Butler, writes on the subject: "Five months after this great Council, Nicae, St Alexander lying on his death-bed, recommended to his clergy and people the choice of Athanasius for his successor, thrice repeating his name. In consequence of his recommendation, the bishops of all Egypt assembled at Alexandria, and finding the people and clergy unanimous in their choice of Athanasius for patriarch, they confirmed the election about the middle of year 326. He seems, then, to have been about thirty years of age. "
Which of the Gospels most agrees with Athanasius?
571ae9d332177014007e9fe4
Gospel of John
4
False
What does this Gospel show that Athanasius also believed?
571ae9d332177014007e9fe5
the Divinity of Jesus
67
False
Why is the Gospel of John said at the end of Catholic Mass?
571ae9d332177014007e9fe6
a result of Athanasius
245
False
Where was this Gospel said?
571ae9d332177014007e9fe7
at the altar
654
False
When are different Gospels said?
571ae9d332177014007e9fe8
certain Feast days
907
False
Gospel of John's
163
Which of the Gospels most disagrees with Athanasius?
5acec6ab32bba1001ae4b393
True
Divinity of Jesus
71
What does this Gospel show that Athanasius also didn't believe?
5acec6ab32bba1001ae4b394
True
result of Athanasius
247
Why is the Gospel of John said at the end of Christian Mass?
5acec6ab32bba1001ae4b395
True
at the altar
654
Where was this Gospel never said?
5acec6ab32bba1001ae4b396
True
The Gospel of John and particularly the first chapter demonstrates the Divinity of Jesus. This Gospel in itself is the greatest support of Athanasius's stand. The Gospel of John's first chapter began to be said at the end of Mass, we believe as a result of Athanasius, and his life's stand, but quietly. The Last Gospel of The Mass, The Eucharist, St John[1:1–14], together with the prayer; "Placeat tibi", the Blessing, are all private devotions that have been gradually absorbed by the liturgical service. The beginning of John's Gospel was much used as an object of special devotion throughout the Middle Ages. Nevertheless, the practice of saying it at the altar grew; eventually Pius V made this practice universal for the Roman Rite in his edition of the Missal (1570). It became a firm custom with exceptions in using an other Gospel in use from 1920. So the Missals showed different last Gospel for certain Feast days. A Prayer Card for the St John's Gospel. Also:
Did all Arians believe the same things?
571aeaf69499d21900609ba9
different theological views
83
False
Were Arians also Origenists?
571aeaf69499d21900609baa
supported the tenets
171
False
Did the bishops consider themselves Arians?
571aeaf69499d21900609bab
bishops disagreed
366
False
What did the Council of Nicaea decide about Arianism?
571aeaf69499d21900609bac
a real theological ideology
593
False
Did Arians have one set of beliefs?
571aeaf69499d21900609bad
not monolithic
46
False
Arian Party
30
What party was monolithic?
5acec97b32bba1001ae4b407
True
being labeled as followers
389
What did Homoousian bishops disagree with?
5acec97b32bba1001ae4b408
True
Council of Nicaea
531
What council wasn't used as proof?
5acec97b32bba1001ae4b409
True
Scholars now believe that the Arian Party was not monolithic, but held drastically different theological views that spanned the early Christian theological spectrum. They supported the tenets of Origenist thought and theology, but had little else in common. Moreover, many labelled "Arian" did not consider themselves followers of Arius. In addition, non-Homoousian bishops disagreed with being labeled as followers of Arius, since Arius was merely a presbyter, while they were fully ordained bishops. However, others point to the Council of Nicaea as proof in and of itself that Arianism was a real theological ideology.[citation needed]
Seattle
To what golden event was Seattle the portal?
5719c35b10f8ca1400304e51
Klondike Gold Rush
164
False
In what area was the Klondike Gold Rush located?
5719c35b10f8ca1400304e52
Alaska
146
False
What was Seattle's first primary money maker?
5719c35b10f8ca1400304e53
Logging
0
False
What was the airplane company that helped Seattle return to economic stability?
5719c35b10f8ca1400304e54
Boeing
391
False
Which large technology giant established its home base in Seattle?
5719c35b10f8ca1400304e55
Microsoft
567
False
Logging was Seattle's first major industry, but by the late 19th century the city had become a commercial and shipbuilding center as a gateway to Alaska during the Klondike Gold Rush. By 1910, Seattle was one of the 25 largest cities in the country. However, the Great Depression severely damaged the city's economy. Growth returned during and after World War II, due partially to the local Boeing company, which established Seattle as a center for aircraft manufacturing. The Seattle area developed as a technology center beginning in the 1980s, with companies like Microsoft becoming established in the region. In 1994 the Internet retail giant Amazon was founded in Seattle. The stream of new software, biotechnology, and Internet companies led to an economic revival, which increased the city's population by almost 50,000 between 1990 and 2000.
Of which Washington county is Seattle the center?
5719c4c310f8ca1400304e5b
King County
66
False
By 2015 what was Seattle's population?
5719c4c310f8ca1400304e5c
662,400
97
False
By what time was Seattle the most rapidly growing city in the US?
5719c4c310f8ca1400304e5d
July 2013
249
False
How far away is the Canadian border from Seattle?
5719c4c310f8ca1400304e5e
100 miles
634
False
What is Seattle's ranking in North America in terms of container processing?
5719c4c310f8ca1400304e5f
third largest
747
False
Seattle (i/siˈætəl/) is a West Coast seaport city and the seat of King County. With an estimated 662,400 residents as of 2015[update], Seattle is the largest city in both the state of Washington and the Pacific Northwest region of North America. In July 2013 it was the fastest-growing major city in the United States, and remained in the top five in May 2015 with an annual growth rate of 2.1%. The Seattle metropolitan area of around 3.6 million inhabitants is the 15th largest metropolitan area in the United States. The city is situated on an isthmus between Puget Sound (an inlet of the Pacific Ocean) and Lake Washington, about 100 miles (160 km) south of the Canada–United States border. A major gateway for trade with Asia, Seattle is the third largest port in North America in terms of container handling as of 2015.
What group of settlers established a site at Pioneer Square?
5719c6a94faf5e1900b8a7ea
Denny Party
38
False
by what name did Charles Terry and John Low first name their settlement?
5719c6a94faf5e1900b8a7eb
New York
276
False
What was the Chinook enhanced name of Terry and Low's settlement?
5719c6a94faf5e1900b8a7ec
New York Alki
300
False
What site was eventually abandoned when the settlers moved back in with Denny?
5719c6a94faf5e1900b8a7ed
New York Alki
418
False
When was New York Alki established?
5719c6a94faf5e1900b8a7ee
April 1853
318
False
After a difficult winter, most of the Denny Party relocated across Elliott Bay and claimed land a second time at the site of present-day Pioneer Square. Charles Terry and John Low remained at the original landing location and reestablished their old land claim and called it "New York", but renamed "New York Alki" in April 1853, from a Chinook word meaning, roughly, "by and by" or "someday". For the next few years, New York Alki and Duwamps competed for dominance, but in time Alki was abandoned and its residents moved across the bay to join the rest of the settlers.
At what date did the name Seattle first appear on official papers?
5719c87910f8ca1400304e65
May 23, 1853
73
False
When were the first land allocations made in Seattle?
5719c87910f8ca1400304e66
May 23, 1853
73
False
At what date was Seattle incorporated as a town?
5719c87910f8ca1400304e67
January 14, 1865
191
False
What type of governing body did Seattle have in 1869?
5719c87910f8ca1400304e68
Mayor-council
533
False
What famous Indian appears on the seal of Seattle?
5719c87910f8ca1400304e69
Chief Sealth
643
False
The name "Seattle" appears on official Washington Territory papers dated May 23, 1853, when the first plats for the village were filed. In 1855, nominal land settlements were established. On January 14, 1865, the Legislature of Territorial Washington incorporated the Town of Seattle with a board of trustees managing the city. The town of Seattle was disincorporated January 18, 1867 and remained a mere precinct of King County until late 1869, when a new petition was filed and the city was re-incorporated December 2, 1869 with a Mayor-council government. The corporate seal of the City of Seattle carries the date "1869" and a likeness of Chief Sealth in left profile.
What was the industry source that produced Seattle's first financial vigor?
5719ca564faf5e1900b8a7f4
lumber
71
False
What name was given to the street Yesler Way?
5719ca564faf5e1900b8a7f5
Skid Road
159
False
After Yesler Way fell into ill refute, what was the term generally used for this type of decline?
5719ca564faf5e1900b8a7f6
Skid Row
371
False
What events occurred in 1885-1886 due to racial disputes?
5719ca564faf5e1900b8a7f7
anti-Chinese riots
525
False
What percentage of the Seattle population was Asian in 1900?
5719ca564faf5e1900b8a7f8
4.2%
727
False
The first such boom, covering the early years of the city, rode on the lumber industry. (During this period the road now known as Yesler Way won the nickname "Skid Road", supposedly after the timber skidding down the hill to Henry Yesler's sawmill. The later dereliction of the area may be a possible origin for the term which later entered the wider American lexicon as Skid Row.) Like much of the American West, Seattle saw numerous conflicts between labor and management, as well as ethnic tensions that culminated in the anti-Chinese riots of 1885–1886. This violence originated with unemployed whites who were determined to drive the Chinese from Seattle (anti-Chinese riots also occurred in Tacoma). In 1900, Asians were 4.2% of the population. Authorities declared martial law and federal troops arrived to put down the disorder.
After lumbering, what was Seattle's second big economic boom?
5719cd844faf5e1900b8a7fe
Klondike Gold Rush
61
False
What event ended the Gold Rush?
5719cd844faf5e1900b8a7ff
depression
97
False
What was the start of the depression that stopped the Gold Rush?
5719cd844faf5e1900b8a800
Panic of 1893
132
False
For whom was Seattle the main port of supply ?
5719cd844faf5e1900b8a801
miners
346
False
What company did James E. Casey found in 1907 with a borrowed $100?
5719cd844faf5e1900b8a802
American Messenger Company
952
False
The second and most dramatic boom and bust resulted from the Klondike Gold Rush, which ended the depression that had begun with the Panic of 1893; in a short time, Seattle became a major transportation center. On July 14, 1897, the S.S. Portland docked with its famed "ton of gold", and Seattle became the main transport and supply point for the miners in Alaska and the Yukon. Few of those working men found lasting wealth, however; it was Seattle's business of clothing the miners and feeding them salmon that panned out in the long run. Along with Seattle, other cities like Everett, Tacoma, Port Townsend, Bremerton, and Olympia, all in the Puget Sound region, became competitors for exchange, rather than mother lodes for extraction, of precious metals. The boom lasted well into the early part of the 20th century and funded many new Seattle companies and products. In 1907, 19-year-old James E. Casey borrowed $100 from a friend and founded the American Messenger Company (later UPS). Other Seattle companies founded during this period include Nordstrom and Eddie Bauer. Seattle brought in the Olmsted Brothers landscape architecture firm to design a system of parks and boulevards.
During WWII what company added substantially to Seattle's economy?
5719cf3610f8ca1400304e6f
Boeing aircraft
83
False
What national event during WWII left Seattle without Japanese businessmen?
5719cf3610f8ca1400304e70
Japanese American internment
179
False
In what facet of the economy did Boeing excel?
5719cf3610f8ca1400304e71
commercial airliner market
303
False
How did Seattle celebrate its economic rise in 1962?
5719cf3610f8ca1400304e72
1962 World's Fair
447
False
What company's downturn drastically effected Seattle's economy?
5719cf3610f8ca1400304e73
Boeing
676
False
War work again brought local prosperity during World War II, this time centered on Boeing aircraft. The war dispersed the city's numerous Japanese-American businessmen due to the Japanese American internment. After the war, the local economy dipped. It rose again with Boeing's growing dominance in the commercial airliner market. Seattle celebrated its restored prosperity and made a bid for world recognition with the Century 21 Exposition, the 1962 World's Fair. Another major local economic downturn was in the late 1960s and early 1970s, at a time when Boeing was heavily affected by the oil crises, loss of Government contracts, and costs and delays associated with the Boeing 747. Many people left the area to look for work elsewhere, and two local real estate agents put up a billboard reading "Will the last person leaving Seattle – Turn out the lights."
What type of theater did Alexander Pantages start in Seattle?
5719d0c810f8ca1400304e79
vaudeville
138
False
When did Pantages open his movie houses?
5719d0c810f8ca1400304e7a
1902
81
False
Who was Pantages competitor in the theater business?
5719d0c810f8ca1400304e7b
John Considine
328
False
Who was the architect who built a number of theaters in the Seattle area?
5719d0c810f8ca1400304e7c
B. Marcus Priteca
413
False
Which of Seattle's famous, and still extant,  theaters did Priteca disign?
5719d0c810f8ca1400304e7d
Paramount Theatre
761
False
Seattle was also the home base of impresario Alexander Pantages who, starting in 1902, opened a number of theaters in the city exhibiting vaudeville acts and silent movies. His activities soon expanded, and the thrifty Greek went on and became one of America's greatest theater and movie tycoons. Between Pantages and his rival John Considine, Seattle was for a while the western United States' vaudeville mecca. B. Marcus Priteca, the Scottish-born and Seattle-based architect, built several theaters for Pantages, including some in Seattle. The theaters he built for Pantages in Seattle have been either demolished or converted to other uses, but many other theaters survive in other cities of the U.S., often retaining the Pantages name; Seattle's surviving Paramount Theatre, on which he collaborated, was not a Pantages theater.
When did Boeing move its headquarters to Chicago?
5719d2674faf5e1900b8a808
2001
60
False
What did Boeing separate from its headquarters facilities?
5719d2674faf5e1900b8a809
production facilities
125
False
Besides the Renton plant, where else are airplanes made for Boeing?
5719d2674faf5e1900b8a80a
Everett
342
False
To whom is the Boeing credit union open?
5719d2674faf5e1900b8a80b
all residents
523
False
Before 2001, where was Boeing headquartered?
5719d2674faf5e1900b8a80c
Seattle
0
False
Seattle remained the corporate headquarters of Boeing until 2001, when the company separated its headquarters from its major production facilities; the headquarters were moved to Chicago. The Seattle area is still home to Boeing's Renton narrow-body plant (where the 707, 720, 727, and 757 were assembled, and the 737 is assembled today) and Everett wide-body plant (assembly plant for the 747, 767, 777, and 787). The company's credit union for employees, BECU, remains based in the Seattle area, though it is now open to all residents of Washington.
When was ship building the economic master in Seattle?
5719d3af4faf5e1900b8a812
World War I
80
False
What was the first general labor strike in the 20th century?
5719d3af4faf5e1900b8a813
Seattle General Strike
175
False
When did the General Strike happen in Seattle?
5719d3af4faf5e1900b8a814
1919
201
False
What major strike in 1934 damaged Seattle's maritime economy?
5719d3af4faf5e1900b8a815
Maritime Strike
502
False
What city profited by Seattle's Maritime Strike?
5719d3af4faf5e1900b8a816
Port of Los Angeles.
595
False
A shipbuilding boom in the early part of the 20th century became massive during World War I, making Seattle somewhat of a company town; the subsequent retrenchment led to the Seattle General Strike of 1919, the first general strike in the country. A 1912 city development plan by Virgil Bogue went largely unused. Seattle was mildly prosperous in the 1920s but was particularly hard hit in the Great Depression, experiencing some of the country's harshest labor strife in that era. Violence during the Maritime Strike of 1934 cost Seattle much of its maritime traffic, which was rerouted to the Port of Los Angeles.
What violent act happened in Seattle's Chinatown in 1983?
5719d8214faf5e1900b8a81c
Wah Mee massacre
72
False
What type of establishment was Wan Mee?
5719d8214faf5e1900b8a81d
gambling club
139
False
Which huge tech corporation moved its headquarters the Seattle area?
5719d8214faf5e1900b8a81e
Microsoft
220
False
What item for sale in 2000 Seattle was some of the most costly in the US?
5719d8214faf5e1900b8a81f
real estate
942
False
About what time did the big tech boom in Seattle fizzle?
5719d8214faf5e1900b8a820
early 2001
1204
False
As prosperity began to return in the 1980s, the city was stunned by the Wah Mee massacre in 1983, when 13 people were killed in an illegal gambling club in the International District, Seattle's Chinatown. Beginning with Microsoft's 1979 move from Albuquerque, New Mexico to nearby Bellevue, Washington, Seattle and its suburbs became home to a number of technology companies including Amazon.com, RealNetworks, Nintendo of America, McCaw Cellular (now part of AT&T Mobility), VoiceStream (now T-Mobile), and biomedical corporations such as HeartStream (later purchased by Philips), Heart Technologies (later purchased by Boston Scientific), Physio-Control (later purchased by Medtronic), ZymoGenetics, ICOS (later purchased by Eli Lilly and Company) and Immunex (later purchased by Amgen). This success brought an influx of new residents with a population increase within city limits of almost 50,000 between 1990 and 2000, and saw Seattle's real estate become some of the most expensive in the country. In 1993, the movie Sleepless in Seattle brought the city further national attention. Many of the Seattle area's tech companies remained relatively strong, but the frenzied dot-com boom years ended in early 2001.
What sporting event did Seattle sponsor in 1990?
5719da2d4faf5e1900b8a826
Goodwill Games
116
False
What is Seattle's musical genre developed in the 1990s?
5719da2d4faf5e1900b8a827
grunge
219
False
When did Seattle offer the World Trade Organization Ministerial Conference?
5719da2d4faf5e1900b8a828
1999
391
False
What caused bad press during the conference protests in Seattle?
5719da2d4faf5e1900b8a829
police reactions
490
False
What was the geologic event that followed the Mardi Gras Riots in2001?
5719da2d4faf5e1900b8a82a
Nisqually earthquake
673
False
Seattle in this period attracted widespread attention as home to these many companies, but also by hosting the 1990 Goodwill Games and the APEC leaders conference in 1993, as well as through the worldwide popularity of grunge, a sound that had developed in Seattle's independent music scene. Another bid for worldwide attention—hosting the World Trade Organization Ministerial Conference of 1999—garnered visibility, but not in the way its sponsors desired, as related protest activity and police reactions to those protests overshadowed the conference itself. The city was further shaken by the Mardi Gras Riots in 2001, and then literally shaken the following day by the Nisqually earthquake.
What water mass is located west of Seattle?
5719dfda4faf5e1900b8a830
Puget Sound
41
False
What lake is to the east of Seattle?
5719dfda4faf5e1900b8a831
Lake Washington
99
False
Where is Seattle's prime harbor?
5719dfda4faf5e1900b8a832
Elliott Bay
153
False
Because Elliott Bay is salt water, what kind of port is Seattle?
5719dfda4faf5e1900b8a833
oceanic port
214
False
What land area is west of Puget Sound?
5719dfda4faf5e1900b8a834
Olympic Peninsula
315
False
Seattle is located between the saltwater Puget Sound (an arm of the Pacific Ocean) to the west and Lake Washington to the east. The city's chief harbor, Elliott Bay, is part of Puget Sound, which makes the city an oceanic port. To the west, beyond Puget Sound, are the Kitsap Peninsula and Olympic Mountains on the Olympic Peninsula; to the east, beyond Lake Washington and the eastside suburbs, are Lake Sammamish and the Cascade Range. Lake Washington's waters flow to Puget Sound through the Lake Washington Ship Canal (consisting of two man-made canals, Lake Union, and the Hiram M. Chittenden Locks at Salmon Bay, ending in Shilshole Bay on Puget Sound).
What large company moved its headquarters to South Lake Union in Seattle?
5719e19110f8ca1400304e83
Amazon.com
69
False
When did Amazon begin its latest expansion?
5719e19110f8ca1400304e84
2010
207
False
How many new people move to Seattle each year?
5719e19110f8ca1400304e85
14,511
242
False
How much of their income do half of Seattle's population have to spend on housing?
5719e19110f8ca1400304e86
more than half
483
False
Where does Seattle rank in rush hour traffic?
5719e19110f8ca1400304e87
sixth-worst
581
False
Yet another boom began as the city emerged from the Great Recession. Amazon.com moved its headquarters from North Beacon Hill to South Lake Union and began a rapid expansion. For the five years beginning in 2010, Seattle gained an average of 14,511 residents per year, with the growth strongly skewed toward the center of the city, as unemployment dropped from roughly 9 percent to 3.6 percent. The city has found itself "bursting at the seams," with over 45,000 households spending more than half their income on housing and at least 2,800 people homeless, and with the country's sixth-worst rush hour traffic.
What hazardous geologic area does Seattle inhabit?
5719e3544faf5e1900b8a83a
Pacific Ring of Fire
27
False
What was the magnitude of the Nisqually quake?
5719e3544faf5e1900b8a83b
6.8
124
False
On what date did the Nisqually earthquake occur that damaged the Pioneer Square area?
5719e3544faf5e1900b8a83c
February 28, 2001
91
False
What is the amount of magnitude possible on the Cascadia subduction zone?
5719e3544faf5e1900b8a83d
9.0 or greater
823
False
What type of land area is at most risk of earthquake damage?
5719e3544faf5e1900b8a83e
reclaimed land
235
False
Due to its location in the Pacific Ring of Fire, Seattle is in a major earthquake zone. On February 28, 2001, the magnitude 6.8 Nisqually earthquake did significant architectural damage, especially in the Pioneer Square area (built on reclaimed land, as are the Industrial District and part of the city center), but caused only one fatality. Other strong quakes occurred on January 26, 1700 (estimated at 9 magnitude), December 14, 1872 (7.3 or 7.4), April 13, 1949 (7.1), and April 29, 1965 (6.5). The 1965 quake caused three deaths in Seattle directly, and one more by heart failure. Although the Seattle Fault passes just south of the city center, neither it nor the Cascadia subduction zone has caused an earthquake since the city's founding. The Cascadia subduction zone poses the threat of an earthquake of magnitude 9.0 or greater, capable of seriously damaging the city and collapsing many buildings, especially in zones built on fill.
What other famous city, besides Seattle, lies on seven hills?
5719e54410f8ca1400304e8d
Rome
56
False
What type of land area does Capital hill, First Hill, and Beacon Hill constitute?
5719e54410f8ca1400304e8e
ridge
484
False
What artificial geological feature was added to Seattle in 1909?
5719e54410f8ca1400304e8f
Harbor Island
820
False
Where is the highest place in Seattle?
5719e54410f8ca1400304e90
High Point
984
False
Where was Harbor Island built?
5719e54410f8ca1400304e91
Duwamish Waterway
889
False
The city itself is hilly, though not uniformly so. Like Rome, the city is said to lie on seven hills; the lists vary, but typically include Capitol Hill, First Hill, West Seattle, Beacon Hill, Queen Anne, Magnolia, and the former Denny Hill. The Wallingford, Mount Baker, and Crown Hill neighborhoods are technically located on hills as well. Many of the hilliest areas are near the city center, with Capitol Hill, First Hill, and Beacon Hill collectively constituting something of a ridge along an isthmus between Elliott Bay and Lake Washington. The break in the ridge between First Hill and Beacon Hill is man-made, the result of two of the many regrading projects that reshaped the topography of the city center. The topography of the city center was also changed by the construction of a seawall and the artificial Harbor Island (completed 1909) at the mouth of the city's industrial Duwamish Waterway, the terminus of the Green River. The highest point within city limits is at High Point in West Seattle, which is roughly located near 35th Ave SW and SW Myrtle St. Other notable hills include Crown Hill, View Ridge/Wedgwood/Bryant, Maple Leaf, Phinney Ridge, Mt. Baker Ridge and Highlands/Carkeek/Bitterlake.
What is the average rainfall in Seattle?
5719e7464faf5e1900b8a844
37.49 inches
105
False
Where on the Olympic Peninsula does the rainfall average 142 inches a year?
5719e7464faf5e1900b8a845
Hoh Rain Forest
541
False
What weather factor produces a great variance in local climates in the Seattle area?
5719e7464faf5e1900b8a846
variations in microclimate
370
False
What is the capital of the state of Washington?
5719e7464faf5e1900b8a847
Olympia
744
False
What mountain range is the cause of the variance in rainfall?
5719e7464faf5e1900b8a848
Olympic Mountains
610
False
From 1981 to 2010, the average annual precipitation measured at Seattle–Tacoma International Airport was 37.49 inches (952 mm). Annual precipitation has ranged from 23.78 in (604 mm) in 1952 to 55.14 in (1,401 mm) in 1950; for water year (October 1 – September 30) precipitation, the range is 23.16 in (588 mm) in 1976–77 to 51.82 in (1,316 mm) in 1996–97. Due to local variations in microclimate, Seattle also receives significantly lower precipitation than some other locations west of the Cascades. Around 80 mi (129 km) to the west, the Hoh Rain Forest in Olympic National Park on the western flank of the Olympic Mountains receives an annual average precipitation of 142 in (3.61 m). Sixty miles to the south of Seattle, the state capital Olympia, which is out of the Olympic Mountains' rain shadow, receives an annual average precipitation of 50 in (1,270 mm). The city of Bremerton, about 15 mi (24 km) west of downtown Seattle, receives 56.4 in (1,430 mm) of precipitation annually.
During which month does Seattle get more precipitation than other US cities?
5719e93110f8ca1400304e97
November
3
False
When does Seattle get it lowest levels of precipitation?
5719e93110f8ca1400304e98
June to September
238
False
In the lower 48 states, which city receives some of the least sunny days that any other?
5719e93110f8ca1400304e99
Seattle
257
False
What weather feature is highly unusual in Seattle?
5719e93110f8ca1400304e9a
Thunderstorms
530
False
About how many days a year is thunder a reported weather event in Seattle?
5719e93110f8ca1400304e9b
seven
590
False
In November, Seattle averages more rainfall than any other U.S. city of more than 250,000 people; it also ranks highly in winter precipitation. Conversely, the city receives some of the lowest precipitation amounts of any large city from June to September. Seattle is one of the five rainiest major U.S. cities as measured by the number of days with precipitation, and it receives some of the lowest amounts of annual sunshine among major cities in the lower 48 states, along with some cities in the Northeast, Ohio and Michigan. Thunderstorms are rare, as the city reports thunder on just seven days per year. By comparison, Fort Myers, Florida reports thunder on 93 days per year, Kansas City on 52, and New York City on 25.
What does the local water ways regulate in the Seattle area?
5719eb7c10f8ca1400304ea1
Temperature extremes
0
False
What land mass protects Seattle from Pacific caused weather?
5719eb7c10f8ca1400304ea2
Olympic Mountains
166
False
What geologic feature protects Seattle from the Arctic cold winds?
5719eb7c10f8ca1400304ea3
Cascade Range
211
False
What type of rain fall does Seattle most often experience?
5719eb7c10f8ca1400304ea4
light precipitation
388
False
At what location is most weather data collected for the Seattle area?
5719eb7c10f8ca1400304ea5
Seattle–Tacoma International Airport
706
False
Temperature extremes are moderated by the adjacent Puget Sound, greater Pacific Ocean, and Lake Washington. The region is largely shielded from Pacific storms by the Olympic Mountains and from Arctic air by the Cascade Range. Despite being on the margin of the rain shadow of the Olympic Mountains, the city has a reputation for frequent rain. This reputation stems from the frequency of light precipitation in the fall, winter, and spring. In an average year, at least 0.01 inches (0.25 mm) of precipitation falls on 150 days, more than nearly all U.S. cities east of the Rocky Mountains. It is cloudy 201 days out of the year and partly cloudy 93 days. Official weather and climatic data is collected at Seattle–Tacoma International Airport, located about 19 km (12 mi) south of downtown in the city of SeaTac, which is at a higher elevation, and records more cloudy days and fewer partly cloudy days per year.
What is a very significant part of Seattle's weather system?
5719ed4210f8ca1400304eab
Puget Sound Convergence Zone
4
False
Of what is the Convergence Zone comprised?
5719ed4210f8ca1400304eac
streams of air
174
False
From where do the two streams of air come?
5719ed4210f8ca1400304ead
Pacific Ocean
208
False
What mountain Range splits the wind stream in the west of Seattle?
5719ed4210f8ca1400304eae
Olympic Mountains
247
False
What bad wind and rain event was not caused by the Convergence Zone?
5719ed4210f8ca1400304eaf
Hanukkah Eve Wind Storm
574
False
The Puget Sound Convergence Zone is an important feature of Seattle's weather. In the convergence zone, air arriving from the north meets air flowing in from the south. Both streams of air originate over the Pacific Ocean; airflow is split by the Olympic Mountains to Seattle's west, then reunited to the east. When the air currents meet, they are forced upward, resulting in convection. Thunderstorms caused by this activity are usually weak and can occur north and south of town, but Seattle itself rarely receives more than occasional thunder and small hail showers. The Hanukkah Eve Wind Storm in December 2006 is an exception that brought heavy rain and winds gusting up to 69 mph (111 km/h), an event that was not caused by the Puget Sound Convergence Zone and was widespread across the Pacific Northwest.
What type of snowfall is not often seen in Seattle?
5719f37810f8ca1400304eb5
heavy snow
64
False
What is the usual average snowfall in Seattle?
5719f37810f8ca1400304eb6
6.8 inches
144
False
How many times has snowfall been reported at more than 6 inches since 1990?
5719f37810f8ca1400304eb7
once
270
False
When was there a moderate snowfall  of over one foot that lasted on the ground two weeks?
5719f37810f8ca1400304eb8
December 12–25, 2008
755
False
On what dates did Seattle experience a snow event of 6 feet?
5719f37810f8ca1400304eb9
January 5–9, 1880
1038
False
Seattle typically receives some snowfall on an annual basis but heavy snow is rare. Average annual snowfall, as measured at Sea-Tac Airport, is 6.8 inches (17.3 cm). Single calendar-day snowfall of six inches or greater has occurred on only 15 days since 1948, and only once since February 17, 1990, when 6.8 in (17.3 cm) of snow officially fell at Sea-Tac airport on January 18, 2012. This moderate snow event was officially the 12th snowiest calendar day at the airport since 1948 and snowiest since November 1985. Much of the city of Seattle proper received somewhat lesser snowfall accumulations. Locations to the south of Seattle received more, with Olympia and Chehalis receiving 14 to 18 in (36 to 46 cm). Another moderate snow event occurred from December 12–25, 2008, when over one foot (30 cm) of snow fell and stuck on much of the roads over those two weeks, when temperatures remained below 32 °F (0 °C), causing widespread difficulties in a city not equipped for clearing snow. The largest documented snowstorm occurred from January 5–9, 1880, with snow drifting to 6 feet (1.8 m) in places at the end of the snow event. From January 31 to February 2, 1916, another heavy snow event occurred with 29 in (74 cm) of snow on the ground by the time the event was over. With official records dating to 1948, the largest single-day snowfall is 20.0 in (51 cm) on January 13, 1950. Seasonal snowfall has ranged from zero in 1991–92 to 67.5 in (171 cm) in 1968–69, with trace amounts having occurred as recently as 2009–10. The month of January 1950 was particularly severe, bringing 57.2 in (145 cm) of snow, the most of any month along with the aforementioned record cold.
What is Seattle's average December temperature?
5719f5824faf5e1900b8a84e
40.6 °F
140
False
How many winter days reach freezing in Seattle?
5719f5824faf5e1900b8a84f
28 annual days
163
False
What month is the warmest in Seattle?
5719f5824faf5e1900b8a850
August
375
False
What is August's usual temperature?
5719f5824faf5e1900b8a851
66.1 °F
412
False
How long is the growing season in the Seattle area?
5719f5824faf5e1900b8a852
250 days
989
False
Autumn, winter, and early spring are frequently characterized by rain. Winters are cool and wet with December, the coolest month, averaging 40.6 °F (4.8 °C), with 28 annual days with lows that reach the freezing mark, and 2.0 days where the temperature stays at or below freezing all day; the temperature rarely lowers to 20 °F (−7 °C). Summers are sunny, dry and warm, with August, the warmest month, averaging 66.1 °F (18.9 °C), and with temperatures reaching 90 °F (32 °C) on 3.1 days per year, although 2011 is the most recent year to not reach 90 °F. The hottest officially recorded temperature was 103 °F (39 °C) on July 29, 2009; the coldest recorded temperature was 0 °F (−18 °C) on January 31, 1950; the record cold daily maximum is 16 °F (−9 °C) on January 14, 1950, while, conversely, the record warm daily minimum is 71 °F (22 °C) the day the official record high was set. The average window for freezing temperatures is November 16 thru March 10, allowing a growing season of 250 days.
What type of weather does Seattle have in the winter months?
5719f73f10f8ca1400304ebf
heaviest rainfall
24
False
What quantity of yearly rainfall does Seattle have during the winter?
5719f73f10f8ca1400304ec0
half
113
False
What are atmospheric rivers called  in the Seattle area?
5719f73f10f8ca1400304ec1
Pineapple Express
239
False
When did Seattle have hurricane type winds and heavy rains?
5719f73f10f8ca1400304ec2
December 2–4, 2007
649
False
How many deaths occurred during the 2007  heavy rains?
5719f73f10f8ca1400304ec3
five deaths
1188
False
Seattle experiences its heaviest rainfall during the months of November, December and January, receiving roughly half of its annual rainfall (by volume) during this period. In late fall and early winter, atmospheric rivers (also known as "Pineapple Express" systems), strong frontal systems, and Pacific low pressure systems are common. Light rain & drizzle are the predominant forms of precipitation during the remainder of the year; for instance, on average, less than 1.6 in (41 mm) of rain falls in July and August combined when rain is rare. On occasion, Seattle experiences somewhat more significant weather events. One such event occurred on December 2–4, 2007, when sustained hurricane-force winds and widespread heavy rainfall associated with a strong Pineapple Express event occurred in the greater Puget Sound area and the western parts of Washington and Oregon. Precipitation totals exceeded 13.8 in (350 mm) in some areas with winds topping out at 209 km/h (130 mph) along coastal Oregon. It became the second wettest event in Seattle history when a little over 130 mm (5.1 in) of rain fell on Seattle in a 24-hour period. Lack of adaptation to the heavy rain contributed to five deaths and widespread flooding and damage.
How many more people does Seattle expect to have by 2040?
5719f8ef4faf5e1900b8a858
200,000
276
False
Who wanted to grow Seattle by 60% by 2040?
5719f8ef4faf5e1900b8a859
Greg Nickels
322
False
How much increase in population has the inner Seattle city had since 1990?
5719f8ef4faf5e1900b8a85a
77%
806
False
What was the downtown Seattle population in 2009?
5719f8ef4faf5e1900b8a85b
60,000
787
False
What change in building heights did Seattle make to increase population density in its downtown ?
5719f8ef4faf5e1900b8a85c
height limits
572
False
In recent years, the city has experienced steady population growth, and has been faced with the issue of accommodating more residents. In 2006, after growing by 4,000 citizens per year for the previous 16 years, regional planners expected the population of Seattle to grow by 200,000 people by 2040. However, former mayor Greg Nickels supported plans that would increase the population by 60%, or 350,000 people, by 2040 and worked on ways to accommodate this growth while keeping Seattle's single-family housing zoning laws. The Seattle City Council later voted to relax height limits on buildings in the greater part of Downtown, partly with the aim to increase residential density in the city centre. As a sign of increasing inner-city growth, the downtown population crested to over 60,000 in 2009, up 77% since 1990.
How much did Seattle's foreign born population expand between 1990-2000?
5719fa954faf5e1900b8a862
40%
39
False
From where in China did most of the first immigrants come?
5719fa954faf5e1900b8a863
Guangdong province
301
False
How many Vietnamese residents are there in Seattle?
5719fa954faf5e1900b8a864
55,000
397
False
What is the population of Cambodian immigrants in Seattle?
5719fa954faf5e1900b8a865
19,000
576
False
What other group of people does Seattle have the largest percentage of in the US?
5719fa954faf5e1900b8a866
self-identified mixed-race
777
False
Seattle's foreign-born population grew 40% between the 1990 and 2000 censuses. The Chinese population in the Seattle area has origins in mainland China, Hong Kong, Southeast Asia, and Taiwan. The earliest Chinese-Americans that came in the late 19th and early 20th centuries were almost entirely from Guangdong province. The Seattle area is also home to a large Vietnamese population of more than 55,000 residents, as well as over 30,000 Somali immigrants. The Seattle-Tacoma area is also home to one of the largest Cambodian communities in the United States, numbering about 19,000 Cambodian Americans, and one of the largest Samoan communities in the mainland U.S., with over 15,000 people having Samoan ancestry. Additionally, the Seattle area had the highest percentage of self-identified mixed-race people of any large metropolitan area in the United States, according to the 2000 United States Census Bureau. According to a 2012 HistoryLink study, Seattle's 98118 ZIP code (in the Columbia City neighborhood) was one of the most diverse ZIP Code Tabulation Areas in the United States.
In 1960, what was the percentage of whites in the Seattle area?
5719fc7710f8ca1400304ec9
91.6%
249
False
According to the 2010 census, what was the white population in Seattle?
5719fc7710f8ca1400304eca
69.5%
310
False
In 2006-2008, how many people in Seattle spoke English at home?
5719fc7710f8ca1400304ecb
78.9%
385
False
What is the percentage of Asian speakers in Seattle?
5719fc7710f8ca1400304ecc
10.2%
528
False
What is the basic race of most people in Seattle?
5719fc7710f8ca1400304ecd
white
57
False
Seattle's population historically has been predominantly white. The 2010 census showed that Seattle was one of the whitest big cities in the country, although its proportion of white residents has been gradually declining. In 1960, whites comprised 91.6% of the city's population, while in 2010 they comprised 69.5%. According to the 2006–2008 American Community Survey, approximately 78.9% of residents over the age of five spoke only English at home. Those who spoke Asian languages other than Indo-European languages made up 10.2% of the population, Spanish was spoken by 4.5% of the population, speakers of other Indo-European languages made up 3.9%, and speakers of other languages made up 2.5%.
How many of the Fortune 500 companies are based in Seattle?
571a03df10f8ca1400304ed3
Four
61
False
What famous coffee chain is home in Seattle?
571a03df10f8ca1400304ed4
Starbucks
249
False
Which huge internet seller is headquartered in Seattle?
571a03df10f8ca1400304ed5
Amazon.com
218
False
In what city near Seattle is Microsoft based?
571a03df10f8ca1400304ed6
Redmond
602
False
What drink do the people of Seattle excel in drinking?
571a03df10f8ca1400304ed7
coffee
1023
False
Still, very large companies dominate the business landscape. Four companies on the 2013 Fortune 500 list of the United States' largest companies, based on total revenue, are headquartered in Seattle: Internet retailer Amazon.com (#49), coffee chain Starbucks (#208), department store Nordstrom (#227), and freight forwarder Expeditors International of Washington (#428). Other Fortune 500 companies popularly associated with Seattle are based in nearby Puget Sound cities. Warehouse club chain Costco (#22), the largest retail company in Washington, is based in Issaquah. Microsoft (#35) is located in Redmond. Weyerhaeuser, the forest products company (#363), is based in Federal Way. Finally, Bellevue is home to truck manufacturer Paccar (#168). Other major companies in the area include Nintendo of America in Redmond, T-Mobile US in Bellevue, Expedia Inc. in Bellevue and Providence Health & Services — the state's largest health care system and fifth largest employer — in Renton. The city has a reputation for heavy coffee consumption; coffee companies founded or based in Seattle include Starbucks, Seattle's Best Coffee, and Tully's. There are also many successful independent artisanal espresso roasters and cafés.
Before they moved to Chicago, what was the biggest company headquartered in Seattle?
571a05b84faf5e1900b8a86c
Boeing
68
False
Where in the Seattle area does Boeing have manufacturing plants?
571a05b84faf5e1900b8a86d
Everett and Renton
244
False
Which past mayor of Seattle has been criticized for favoring the rich of industry at the expense of the people?
571a05b84faf5e1900b8a86e
Mayor Greg Nickels
356
False
What type of businesses did Nickles want to attract to Seattle?
571a05b84faf5e1900b8a86f
biotech companies
583
False
For what did Forbes rank Seattle the most expensive?
571a05b84faf5e1900b8a870
buying a house
1241
False
Prior to moving its headquarters to Chicago, aerospace manufacturer Boeing (#30) was the largest company based in Seattle. Its largest division is still headquartered in nearby Renton, and the company has large aircraft manufacturing plants in Everett and Renton, so it remains the largest private employer in the Seattle metropolitan area. Former Seattle Mayor Greg Nickels announced a desire to spark a new economic boom driven by the biotechnology industry in 2006. Major redevelopment of the South Lake Union neighborhood is underway, in an effort to attract new and established biotech companies to the city, joining biotech companies Corixa (acquired by GlaxoSmithKline), Immunex (now part of Amgen), Trubion, and ZymoGenetics. Vulcan Inc., the holding company of billionaire Paul Allen, is behind most of the development projects in the region. While some see the new development as an economic boon, others have criticized Nickels and the Seattle City Council for pandering to Allen's interests at taxpayers' expense. Also in 2006, Expansion Magazine ranked Seattle among the top 10 metropolitan areas in the nation for climates favorable to business expansion. In 2005, Forbes ranked Seattle as the most expensive American city for buying a house based on the local income levels. In 2013, however, the magazine ranked Seattle No. 9 on its list of the Best Places for Business and Careers.
What was Seattle's gross product in 2010?
571a076110f8ca1400304edd
$231 billion
211
False
Where does Seattle rank in size of economy in 2010?
571a076110f8ca1400304ede
11th largest
247
False
How does the Port of Seattle container capability rank as compared to others in the US?
571a076110f8ca1400304edf
8th largest port
455
False
When does Seattle want to be rated as a climate neutral city?
571a076110f8ca1400304ee0
2030
1010
False
What type of industry thrives in Settle?
571a076110f8ca1400304ee1
start-up businesses
650
False
Seattle's economy is driven by a mix of older industrial companies, and "new economy" Internet and technology companies, service, design and clean technology companies. The city's gross metropolitan product was $231 billion in 2010, making it the 11th largest metropolitan economy in the United States. The Port of Seattle, which also operates Seattle–Tacoma International Airport, is a major gateway for trade with Asia and cruises to Alaska, and is the 8th largest port in the United States in terms of container capacity. Though it was affected by the Great Recession, Seattle has retained a comparatively strong economy, and remains a hotbed for start-up businesses, especially in green building and clean technologies: it was ranked as America's No. 1 "smarter city" based on its government policies and green economy. In February 2010, the city government committed Seattle to becoming North America's first "climate neutral" city, with a goal of reaching zero net per capita greenhouse gas emissions by 2030.
By a UCLA study,how many Seattle residents identify as gay, lesbian or bisexual?
571a095c4faf5e1900b8a876
12.9%
111
False
How does the numbers in the gay community rank compared to other US cities?
571a095c4faf5e1900b8a877
second-highest
196
False
What city ranked higher in population in the gay community?
571a095c4faf5e1900b8a878
San Francisco
253
False
What is Seattle's percentage of same sex households?
571a095c4faf5e1900b8a879
2.6
558
False
What is Seattle's ranking for same sex households as compared with the rest of the US?
571a095c4faf5e1900b8a87a
highest percentage
491
False
Seattle also has large lesbian, gay, bisexual, and transgender populations. According to a 2006 study by UCLA, 12.9% of city residents polled identified as gay, lesbian, or bisexual. This was the second-highest proportion of any major U.S. city, behind San Francisco Greater Seattle also ranked second among major U.S. metropolitan areas, with 6.5% of the population identifying as gay, lesbian, or bisexual. According to 2012 estimates from the United States Census Bureau, Seattle has the highest percentage of same-sex households in the United States, at 2.6 per cent, surpassing San Francisco.
How many theater companies does Seattle have in residence?
571a10584faf5e1900b8a880
around 100
141
False
What Seattle theater was built in 1926?
571a10584faf5e1900b8a881
5th Avenue Theatre
4
False
To what type of theater are the two dozen live venues in Seattle associated?
571a10584faf5e1900b8a882
fringe theatre
254
False
To what type of theater is Seattle second to New York?
571a10584faf5e1900b8a883
equity theaters
328
False
How many equity theaters does Seattle have?
571a10584faf5e1900b8a884
28
345
False
The 5th Avenue Theatre, built in 1926, stages Broadway-style musical shows featuring both local talent and international stars. Seattle has "around 100" theatrical production companies and over two dozen live theatre venues, many of them associated with fringe theatre; Seattle is probably second only to New York for number of equity theaters (28 Seattle theater companies have some sort of Actors' Equity contract). In addition, the 900-seat Romanesque Revival Town Hall on First Hill hosts numerous cultural events, especially lectures and recitals.
How old is Seattle's Symphony Orchestra?
571a11c84faf5e1900b8a88a
century
79
False
In what venue does the Seattle symphony perform?
571a11c84faf5e1900b8a88b
Benaroya Hall
179
False
Where do the Seattle Opera and Pacific Northwest Ballet perform?
571a11c84faf5e1900b8a88c
McCaw Hall
259
False
What structure was originally at site of the McCaw Hall?
571a11c84faf5e1900b8a88d
Seattle Opera House
309
False
What Seattle organization is one of the top ballet schools in the US?
571a11c84faf5e1900b8a88e
PNB School
479
False
Seattle has been a regional center for the performing arts for many years. The century-old Seattle Symphony Orchestra is among the world's most recorded and performs primarily at Benaroya Hall. The Seattle Opera and Pacific Northwest Ballet, which perform at McCaw Hall (opened 2003 on the site of the former Seattle Opera House at Seattle Center), are comparably distinguished, with the Opera being particularly known for its performances of the works of Richard Wagner and the PNB School (founded in 1974) ranking as one of the top three ballet training institutions in the United States. The Seattle Youth Symphony Orchestras (SYSO) is the largest symphonic youth organization in the United States. The city also boasts lauded summer and winter chamber music festivals organized by the Seattle Chamber Music Society.
What is Seattle's present nickname?
571a137d10f8ca1400304ee7
Emerald City
105
False
To what distinct feature of the area does Emerald City refer?
571a137d10f8ca1400304ee8
evergreen forests
187
False
Since Seattle is near Alaska, what is the city called?
571a137d10f8ca1400304ee9
Gateway to Alaska
265
False
From what company does Seattle get its nickname Jet City?
571a137d10f8ca1400304eea
Boeing
447
False
What did Seattle call itself at the time of the Goodwill Games?
571a137d10f8ca1400304eeb
The City of Goodwill
593
False
From 1869 until 1982, Seattle was known as the "Queen City". Seattle's current official nickname is the "Emerald City", the result of a contest held in 1981; the reference is to the lush evergreen forests of the area. Seattle is also referred to informally as the "Gateway to Alaska" for being the nearest major city in the contiguous US to Alaska, "Rain City" for its frequent cloudy and rainy weather, and "Jet City" from the local influence of Boeing. The city has two official slogans or mottos: "The City of Flowers", meant to encourage the planting of flowers to beautify the city, and "The City of Goodwill", adopted prior to the 1990 Goodwill Games. Seattle residents are known as Seattleites.
What Seattle fair lasts 24 days?
571a150a10f8ca1400304ef1
Seattle International Film Festival
68
False
What is Seattle's gay pride parade called?
571a150a10f8ca1400304ef2
Bite of Seattle
286
False
How many Independence Day celebrations does Seattle have yearly?
571a150a10f8ca1400304ef3
two
583
False
When are Seafair events held in Seattle?
571a150a10f8ca1400304ef4
July and August
190
False
What is the focus of the Bumbershoot festival?
571a150a10f8ca1400304ef5
art and music
372
False
Among Seattle's prominent annual fairs and festivals are the 24-day Seattle International Film Festival, Northwest Folklife over the Memorial Day weekend, numerous Seafair events throughout July and August (ranging from a Bon Odori celebration to the Seafair Cup hydroplane races), the Bite of Seattle, one of the largest Gay Pride festivals in the United States, and the art and music festival Bumbershoot, which programs music as well as other art and entertainment over the Labor Day weekend. All are typically attended by 100,000 people annually, as are the Seattle Hempfest and two separate Independence Day celebrations.
When did Seattle host the national Poetry Slam Tournament?
571a16d64faf5e1900b8a894
2001
371
False
How often is the Seattle Poetry festival held?
571a16d64faf5e1900b8a895
biennial
442
False
How often does Seattle send to the National Poetry Slam?
571a16d64faf5e1900b8a896
annually
8
False
To what style of poet does Seattle consider itself home?
571a16d64faf5e1900b8a897
performance poets
116
False
What poetry festival was first held in 1997?
571a16d64faf5e1900b8a898
Poetry Circus
495
False
Seattle annually sends a team of spoken word slammers to the National Poetry Slam and considers itself home to such performance poets as Buddy Wakefield, two-time Individual World Poetry Slam Champ; Anis Mojgani, two-time National Poetry Slam Champ; and Danny Sherrard, 2007 National Poetry Slam Champ and 2008 Individual World Poetry Slam Champ. Seattle also hosted the 2001 national Poetry Slam Tournament. The Seattle Poetry Festival is a biennial poetry festival that (launched first as the Poetry Circus in 1997) has featured local, regional, national, and international names in poetry.
What genre of music are Nirvana and Soundgarden?
571a18824faf5e1900b8a89e
grunge
34
False
What type of musician is Bill Frisell?
571a18824faf5e1900b8a89f
avant-garde jazz
256
False
What style of music does Sir Mix-a-Lot and Macklemore represent in Seattle?
571a18824faf5e1900b8a8a0
hip hop
348
False
What type of music do Foo Fighters and Harvey Danger perform?
571a18824faf5e1900b8a8a1
alternative rock
508
False
Where did artists such as Hendrix and Sixx spend their early years?
571a18824faf5e1900b8a8a2
Seattle
793
False
Seattle is considered the home of grunge music, having produced artists such as Nirvana, Soundgarden, Alice in Chains, Pearl Jam, and Mudhoney, all of whom reached international audiences in the early 1990s. The city is also home to such varied artists as avant-garde jazz musicians Bill Frisell and Wayne Horvitz, hot jazz musician Glenn Crytzer, hip hop artists Sir Mix-a-Lot, Macklemore, Blue Scholars, and Shabazz Palaces, smooth jazz saxophonist Kenny G, classic rock staples Heart and Queensrÿche, and alternative rock bands such as Foo Fighters, Harvey Danger, The Presidents of the United States of America, The Posies, Modest Mouse, Band of Horses, Death Cab for Cutie, and Fleet Foxes. Rock musicians such as Jimi Hendrix, Duff McKagan, and Nikki Sixx spent their formative years in Seattle.
When did the first art gallery open in Washington state?
571a1d794faf5e1900b8a8a8
1927
32
False
What was the name of the first art museum in Washington?
571a1d794faf5e1900b8a8a9
Henry Art Gallery
4
False
When did The Seattle Art Museum open its doors?
571a1d794faf5e1900b8a8aa
1933
120
False
Besides the museums, what other art offering does SAM operate?
571a1d794faf5e1900b8a8ab
Olympic Sculpture Park
293
False
Aside from publically operated museums, what other type of person galleries does Seattle offer?
571a1d794faf5e1900b8a8ac
artist-run
931
False
The Henry Art Gallery opened in 1927, the first public art museum in Washington. The Seattle Art Museum (SAM) opened in 1933; SAM opened a museum downtown in 1991 (expanded and reopened 2007); since 1991, the 1933 building has been SAM's Seattle Asian Art Museum (SAAM). SAM also operates the Olympic Sculpture Park (opened 2007) on the waterfront north of the downtown piers. The Frye Art Museum is a free museum on First Hill. Regional history collections are at the Loghouse Museum in Alki, Klondike Gold Rush National Historical Park, the Museum of History and Industry and the Burke Museum of Natural History and Culture. Industry collections are at the Center for Wooden Boats and the adjacent Northwest Seaport, the Seattle Metropolitan Police Museum, and the Museum of Flight. Regional ethnic collections include the Nordic Heritage Museum, the Wing Luke Asian Museum and the Northwest African American Museum. Seattle has artist-run galleries, including 10-year veteran Soil Art Gallery, and the newer Crawl Space Gallery.
What anime convention is held in Seattle?
571a1ecc10f8ca1400304efb
Sakura-Con
117
False
What is focus of the Penny Arcade Expo?
571a1ecc10f8ca1400304efc
gaming
150
False
How many bicyclists attend the Seattle to Portland Bicycle Classic?
571a1ecc10f8ca1400304efd
9,000
180
False
What festival does Seattle have for the transgender community?
571a1ecc10f8ca1400304efe
Seattle Transgender Film Festival
478
False
What is Seattle's festival for the Polish community?
571a1ecc10f8ca1400304eff
Seattle Polish Film Festival
564
False
There are other annual events, ranging from the Seattle Antiquarian Book Fair & Book Arts Show; an anime convention, Sakura-Con; Penny Arcade Expo, a gaming convention; a two-day, 9,000-rider Seattle to Portland Bicycle Classic, and specialized film festivals, such as the Maelstrom International Fantastic Film Festival, the Seattle Asian American Film Festival (formerly known as the Northwest Asian American Film Festival), Children's Film Festival Seattle, Translation: the Seattle Transgender Film Festival, the Seattle Gay and Lesbian Film Festival, and the Seattle Polish Film Festival.
What was the first American hockey team to win a Stanley Cup?
571a20744faf5e1900b8a8b2
PCHA's Seattle Metropolitans
86
False
In what year did the Seattle Metropolitans win the Stanley Cup?
571a20744faf5e1900b8a8b3
1917
125
False
To where did Seattle's Baseball team relocate in 1969?
571a20744faf5e1900b8a8b4
Milwaukee, Wisconsin
313
False
What was the new name of the Seattle team?
571a20744faf5e1900b8a8b5
Milwaukee Brewers
349
False
When did the Seattle Super Sonics win an NBA championship?
571a20744faf5e1900b8a8b6
1978–79
521
False
Seattle's professional sports history began at the start of the 20th century with the PCHA's Seattle Metropolitans, which in 1917 became the first American hockey team to win the Stanley Cup. Seattle was also home to a previous Major League Baseball franchise in 1969: the Seattle Pilots. The Pilots relocated to Milwaukee, Wisconsin and became the Milwaukee Brewers for the 1970 season. From 1967 to 2008 Seattle was also home to an National Basketball Association (NBA) franchise: the Seattle SuperSonics, who were the 1978–79 NBA champions. The SuperSonics relocated to Oklahoma City, Oklahoma and became the Oklahoma City Thunder for the 2008–09 season.
How many times have the Seattle Seahawks played in the World Series?
571a22104faf5e1900b8a8bc
three
142
False
Who did the Seahawks beat to win the Super Bowl?
571a22104faf5e1900b8a8bd
Denver Broncos
194
False
What team defeated the Seattle Seahawks to win Super Bowl XLIX?
571a22104faf5e1900b8a8be
New England Patriots
306
False
What is the Seattle soccer club named?
571a22104faf5e1900b8a8bf
Seattle Sounders FC
347
False
With what team do the Sounders share Century Link Field?
571a22104faf5e1900b8a8c0
Seahawks
448
False
The Seahawks' CenturyLink Field has hosted NFL playoff games in 2006, 2008, 2011, 2014 and 2015. The Seahawks have advanced to the Super Bowl three times: 2005, 2013 and 2014. They defeated the Denver Broncos 43-8 to win their first Super Bowl championship in Super Bowl XLVIII, but lost 24-28 against the New England Patriots in Super Bowl XLIX. Seattle Sounders FC has played in Major League Soccer since 2009, sharing CenturyLink Field with the Seahawks, as a continuation of earlier teams in the lower divisions of American soccer. The Sounders have not won the MLS Cup but have, however, won the MLS Supporters' Shield in 2014 and the Lamar Hunt U.S. Open Cup on four occasions: 2009, 2010, 2011, and 2014.
What is Seattle thought to be politically?
571a23874faf5e1900b8a8c6
liberal
45
False
What did the people of Seattle vote to legalize in 2012?
571a23874faf5e1900b8a8c7
gay marriage
367
False
What other political hot issue did voters in Seattle vote to legalize in 2012?
571a23874faf5e1900b8a8c8
use of cannabis
522
False
What do residents of Seattle believe in matters of religion?
571a23874faf5e1900b8a8c9
atheism
707
False
How does Seattle compare in church attendance to the rest oF the US?
571a23874faf5e1900b8a8ca
much lower
803
False
Seattle is widely considered one of the most liberal cities in the United States, even surpassing its neighbor, Portland, Oregon. Support for issues such as same-sex marriage and reproductive rights are largely taken for granted in local politics. In the 2012 U.S. general election, an overwhelming majority of Seattleites voted to approve Referendum 74 and legalize gay marriage in Washington state. In the same election, an overwhelming majority of Seattleites also voted to approve the legalization of the recreational use of cannabis in the state. Like much of the Pacific Northwest (which has the lowest rate of church attendance in the United States and consistently reports the highest percentage of atheism), church attendance, religious belief, and political influence of religious leaders are much lower than in other parts of America.
How many people in Seattle vote Democratic?
571a29364faf5e1900b8a8d8
over 80%
88
False
For whom did the residents of Seattle vote in the 2012 presidential election?
571a29364faf5e1900b8a8d9
Barack Obama
210
False
What party members win most state and national legislative elections?
571a29364faf5e1900b8a8da
Democrats
377
False
Who was Seattle's , and the nation's, first female mayor?
571a29364faf5e1900b8a8db
Bertha Knight Landes
465
False
What is the sex of the majority of Seattle's city council?
571a29364faf5e1900b8a8dc
female
795
False
Seattle's political culture is very liberal and progressive for the United States, with over 80% of the population voting for the Democratic Party. All precincts in Seattle voted for Democratic Party candidate Barack Obama in the 2012 presidential election. In partisan elections for the Washington State Legislature and United States Congress, nearly all elections are won by Democrats. Seattle is considered the first major American city to elect a female mayor, Bertha Knight Landes. It has also elected an openly gay mayor, Ed Murray, and a socialist councillor, Kshama Sawant. For the first time in United States history, an openly gay black woman was elected to public office when Sherry Harris was elected as a Seattle city councillor in 1991. The majority of the current city council is female, while white men comprise a minority.
Of what Congressional district is Seattle a part?
571a2b2410f8ca1400304f29
7th congressional district
386
False
Who is the representative for Seattle's district?
571a2b2410f8ca1400304f2a
Jim McDermott
438
False
When was McDermott elected to office?
571a2b2410f8ca1400304f2b
1988
464
False
Who is the present mayor of Seattle?
571a2b2410f8ca1400304f2c
Ed Murray
508
False
To which states' election laws are Seattle's law and ballots similar?
571a2b2410f8ca1400304f2d
Like most
0
False
Like most parts of the United States, government and laws are also run by a series of ballot initiatives (allowing citizens to pass or reject laws), referenda (allowing citizens to approve or reject legislation already passed), and propositions (allowing specific government agencies to propose new laws/tax increases directly to the people). Federally, Seattle is part of Washington's 7th congressional district, represented by Democrat Jim McDermott, elected in 1988 and one of Congress's liberal members. Ed Murray is currently serving as mayor.
What percentage of the Seattle population has a bachelor's degree?
571a2c414faf5e1900b8a8ec
53.8%
45
False
What is the national average of obtaining a bachelor's degree?
571a2c414faf5e1900b8a8ed
27.4%
78
False
How much of the Seattle population have high school diplomas?
571a2c414faf5e1900b8a8ee
91.9%
125
False
What is the national average of high school diploma holding citizens?
571a2c414faf5e1900b8a8ef
84.5%
136
False
How was Seattle ranked on literacy in 2005-2006?
571a2c414faf5e1900b8a8f0
most literate
372
False
Of the city's population over the age of 25, 53.8% (vs. a national average of 27.4%) hold a bachelor's degree or higher, and 91.9% (vs. 84.5% nationally) have a high school diploma or equivalent. A 2008 United States Census Bureau survey showed that Seattle had the highest percentage of college and university graduates of any major U.S. city. The city was listed as the most literate of the country's 69 largest cities in 2005 and 2006, the second most literate in 2007 and the most literate in 2008 in studies conducted by Central Connecticut State University.
What type of radio stations abound in Seattle?
571a2dfb4faf5e1900b8a8fe
Non-commercial
0
False
What are KUOW and KPLU radio stations?
571a2dfb4faf5e1900b8a8ff
NPR affiliates
38
False
With what educational facility is KEXP-FM aligned?
571a2dfb4faf5e1900b8a900
UW
199
False
What radio station is operated by the public school system?
571a2dfb4faf5e1900b8a901
KNHC-FM 89.5
291
False
Where has KEXP pioneered in Radio?
571a2dfb4faf5e1900b8a902
Internet radio
569
False
Non-commercial radio stations include NPR affiliates KUOW-FM 94.9 and KPLU-FM 88.5 (Tacoma), as well as classical music station KING-FM 98.1. Other stations include KEXP-FM 90.3 (affiliated with the UW), community radio KBCS-FM 91.3 (affiliated with Bellevue College), and high school radio KNHC-FM 89.5, which broadcasts an electronic dance music radio format and is owned by the public school system and operated by students of Nathan Hale High School. Many Seattle radio stations are also available through Internet radio, with KEXP in particular being a pioneer of Internet radio. Seattle also has numerous commercial radio stations. In a March 2012 report by the consumer research firm Arbitron, the top FM stations were KRWM (adult contemporary format), KIRO-FM (news/talk), and KISW (active rock) while the top AM stations were KOMO (AM) (all news), KJR (AM) (all sports), KIRO (AM) (all sports).
What is the Seattle newspaper as of 2010?
571a2f4b10f8ca1400304f45
The Seattle Times
59
False
In what venue does the Seattle Post-Intelligencer publish?
571a2f4b10f8ca1400304f46
on-line
216
False
In what year did the Seattle Post-Intelligencer  first publish?
571a2f4b10f8ca1400304f47
1863
161
False
What is the LGBT newspaper called?
571a2f4b10f8ca1400304f48
Seattle Gay News
547
False
Who sells the newspaper Real Change on the street?
571a2f4b10f8ca1400304f49
homeless persons
629
False
As of 2010[update], Seattle has one major daily newspaper, The Seattle Times. The Seattle Post-Intelligencer, known as the P-I, published a daily newspaper from 1863 to March 17, 2009, before switching to a strictly on-line publication. There is also the Seattle Daily Journal of Commerce, and the University of Washington publishes The Daily, a student-run publication, when school is in session. The most prominent weeklies are the Seattle Weekly and The Stranger; both consider themselves "alternative" papers. The weekly LGBT newspaper is the Seattle Gay News. Real Change is a weekly street newspaper that is sold mainly by homeless persons as an alternative to panhandling. There are also several ethnic newspapers, including the The Facts, Northwest Asian Weekly and the International Examiner, and numerous neighborhood newspapers.
What is Seattle's bus line called?
571a30bb10f8ca1400304f4f
King County Metro
0
False
What service runs between South Lake Union and Westlake Center?
571a30bb10f8ca1400304f50
South Lake Union Streetcar
106
False
What organization runs the largest line of ferries in the US?
571a30bb10f8ca1400304f51
Washington State Ferries
652
False
How does the Seattle ferry line compare to the rest of the world?
571a30bb10f8ca1400304f52
third largest
748
False
To what two islands does the ferry service connect?
571a30bb10f8ca1400304f53
Bainbridge and Vashon
796
False
King County Metro provides frequent stop bus service within the city and surrounding county, as well as a South Lake Union Streetcar line between the South Lake Union neighborhood and Westlake Center in downtown. Seattle is one of the few cities in North America whose bus fleet includes electric trolleybuses. Sound Transit currently provides an express bus service within the metropolitan area; two Sounder commuter rail lines between the suburbs and downtown; its Central Link light rail line, which opened in 2009, between downtown and Sea-Tac Airport gives the city its first rapid transit line that has intermediate stops within the city limits. Washington State Ferries, which manages the largest network of ferries in the United States and third largest in the world, connects Seattle to Bainbridge and Vashon Islands in Puget Sound and to Bremerton and Southworth on the Kitsap Peninsula.
What kind of hospital is Seattle Children's?
571a32924faf5e1900b8a912
pediatric referral center
126
False
Besides serving Washington, Idaho, and Montana, what northern state uses Seattle Children's?
571a32924faf5e1900b8a913
Alaska
168
False
In what neighborhood is the Fred Hutchington Cancer Research Center located?
571a32924faf5e1900b8a914
Eastlake
259
False
Where is the Veterans Affairs Hospital located?
571a32924faf5e1900b8a915
Beacon Hill
493
False
What entity operates Harborview?
571a32924faf5e1900b8a916
University of Washington
321
False
Located in the Laurelhurst neighborhood, Seattle Children's, formerly Children's Hospital and Regional Medical Center, is the pediatric referral center for Washington, Alaska, Montana, and Idaho. The Fred Hutchinson Cancer Research Center has a campus in the Eastlake neighborhood. The University District is home to the University of Washington Medical Center which, along with Harborview, is operated by the University of Washington. Seattle is also served by a Veterans Affairs hospital on Beacon Hill, a third campus of Swedish in Ballard, and Northwest Hospital and Medical Center near Northgate Mall.
In what year were the first streetcars used in Seattle?
571a33e510f8ca1400304f63
1889
33
False
What machine caused the end of city rail lines in Seattle?
571a33e510f8ca1400304f64
automobile
184
False
When did the Tacoma-Seattle rail service end?
571a33e510f8ca1400304f65
1929
280
False
In what year did the Everett-Seattle rail lines cease?
571a33e510f8ca1400304f66
1939
335
False
The use of what caused the end of the use of streetcars in 1941?
571a33e510f8ca1400304f67
trolleybus
508
False
The first streetcars appeared in 1889 and were instrumental in the creation of a relatively well-defined downtown and strong neighborhoods at the end of their lines. The advent of the automobile sounded the death knell for rail in Seattle. Tacoma–Seattle railway service ended in 1929 and the Everett–Seattle service came to an end in 1939, replaced by inexpensive automobiles running on the recently developed highway system. Rails on city streets were paved over or removed, and the opening of the Seattle trolleybus system brought the end of streetcars in Seattle in 1941. This left an extensive network of privately owned buses (later public) as the only mass transit within the city and throughout the region.
What is mainly used for transportation in Seattle?
571a35774faf5e1900b8a924
streets
62
False
What road was built in 1953 and later damaged by an earthquake?
571a35774faf5e1900b8a925
Alaskan Way Viaduct
499
False
What is planned to replace the Alaska Way Viaduct?
571a35774faf5e1900b8a926
tunnel
649
False
What was the original projected cost of the viaduct replacement tunnel?
571a35774faf5e1900b8a927
$4.25 billion
789
False
When is the tunnel now expected to be finished?
571a35774faf5e1900b8a928
2017
1006
False
The main mode of transportation, however, relies on Seattle's streets, which are laid out in a cardinal directions grid pattern, except in the central business district where early city leaders Arthur Denny and Carson Boren insisted on orienting their plats relative to the shoreline rather than to true North. Only two roads, Interstate 5 and State Route 99 (both limited-access highways), run uninterrupted through the city from north to south. State Route 99 runs through downtown Seattle on the Alaskan Way Viaduct, which was built in 1953. However, due to damage sustained during the 2001 Nisqually earthquake the viaduct will be replaced by a tunnel. The 2-mile (3.2 km) Alaskan Way Viaduct replacement tunnel was originally scheduled to be completed in December 2015 at a cost of US$4.25 billion. Unfortunately, due to issues with the worlds largest tunnel boring machine (TBM), which is nicknamed "Bertha" and is 57 feet (17 m) in diameter, the projected date of completion has been pushed back to 2017. Seattle has the 8th worst traffic congestion of all American cities, and is 10th among all North American cities.
What educational institution is at home in Seattle?
571a375c10f8ca1400304f6d
University of Washington
23
False
What is the purpose of the University of Washington Outreach?
571a375c10f8ca1400304f6e
continuing education
95
False
In what year did Time magazine choose Seattle Central Community College as community college of the year?
571a375c10f8ca1400304f6f
2001
835
False
Beside the public universities, what other type of institutions provide education in Seattle?
571a375c10f8ca1400304f70
private universities
338
False
Where can a student find to study art in Seattle?
571a375c10f8ca1400304f71
arts colleges
722
False
Seattle is home to the University of Washington, as well as the institution's professional and continuing education unit, the University of Washington Educational Outreach. A study by Newsweek International in 2006 cited the University of Washington as the twenty-second best university in the world. Seattle also has a number of smaller private universities including Seattle University and Seattle Pacific University, the former a Jesuit Catholic institution, the latter Free Methodist; universities aimed at the working adult, like City University and Antioch University; colleges within the Seattle Colleges District system, comprising North, Central, and South; seminaries, including Western Seminary and a number of arts colleges, such as Cornish College of the Arts, Pratt Fine Arts Center, and The Art Institute of Seattle. In 2001, Time magazine selected Seattle Central Community College as community college of the year, stating the school "pushes diverse students to work together in small teams".
On what type of transportation system has Seattle begun to focus?
571a395610f8ca1400304f81
mass transit
65
False
From what kind of transportation has Seattle been moving away?
571a395610f8ca1400304f82
automobile
42
False
What measure was passed by Seattle voters in 2006?
571a395610f8ca1400304f83
RapidRide
362
False
By what year do plans call for the completion of a rail line to Bellevue?
571a395610f8ca1400304f84
2023
1019
False
Which former mayor backed the expansion of rail lines from downtown to Ballard?
571a395610f8ca1400304f85
Michael McGinn
1038
False
The city has started moving away from the automobile and towards mass transit. From 2004 to 2009, the annual number of unlinked public transportation trips increased by approximately 21%. In 2006, voters in King County passed proposition 2 (Transit Now) which increased bus service hours on high ridership routes and paid for five bus rapid transit lines called RapidRide. After rejecting a roads and transit measure in 2007, Seattle-area voters passed a transit only measure in 2008 to increase ST Express bus service, extend the Link Light Rail system, and expand and improve Sounder commuter rail service. A light rail line from downtown heading south to Sea-Tac Airport began service on December 19, 2009, giving the city its first rapid transit line with intermediate stations within the city limits. An extension north to the University of Washington is scheduled to open in 2016; and further extensions are planned to reach Lynnwood to the north, Des Moines to the south, and Bellevue and Redmond to the east by 2023. Former mayor Michael McGinn has supported building light rail from downtown to Ballard and West Seattle.
Memory
Which three processes does phychology recognize as memory?
571a275210f8ca1400304f05
process in which information is encoded, stored, and retrieved.
29
False
What happens to information during the encoding process?
571a275210f8ca1400304f06
g allows information from the outside world to be sensed in the form of chemical and physical stimuli.
100
False
What is the second memory stage?
571a275210f8ca1400304f07
Storage
303
False
What is the third process that happens during the memory process?
571a275210f8ca1400304f08
retrieval of information that has been stored
455
False
Why may some memory retrieval processes fail?
571a275210f8ca1400304f09
the type of information, and other attempts to remember stored information may be more demanding for various reasons.
619
False
process in which information is encoded, stored, and retrieved.
29
Which four processes does phychology recognize as memory?
5a8ca1cafd22b3001a8d8c44
True
Encoding allows information from the outside world to be sensed in the form of chemical and physical stimuli
93
What happens to information during the decoding process?
5a8ca1cafd22b3001a8d8c45
True
retrieval of information that has been stored
455
What is the fourth memory stage?
5a8ca1cafd22b3001a8d8c46
True
retrieval of information that has been stored.
455
What is the third process that happens during the psychology process?
5a8ca1cafd22b3001a8d8c47
True
the type of information, and other attempts to remember stored information may be more demanding for various reasons
619
Why may some memory retrieval processes succeed?
5a8ca1cafd22b3001a8d8c48
True
In psychology, memory is the process in which information is encoded, stored, and retrieved. Encoding allows information from the outside world to be sensed in the form of chemical and physical stimuli. In the first stage the information must be changed so that it may be put into the encoding process. Storage is the second memory stage or process. This entails that information is maintained over short periods of time. Finally the third process is the retrieval of information that has been stored. Such information must be located and returned to the consciousness. Some retrieval attempts may be effortless due to the type of information, and other attempts to remember stored information may be more demanding for various reasons.
What does short-term memory depend on?
571a280c4faf5e1900b8a8d0
an acoustic code for storing information, and to a lesser extent a visual code.
48
False
What did conrad find about test subjects?
571a280c4faf5e1900b8a8d1
subjects had more difficulty recalling collections of letters that were acoustically similar
158
False
What does Conrads finding seem to mean?
571a280c4faf5e1900b8a8d2
. Confusion with recalling acoustically similar letters rather than visually similar letters implies that the letters were encoded acoustically.
265
False
What was Conrads deal with?
571a280c4faf5e1900b8a8d3
encoding of written text;
457
False
an acoustic code for storing information, and to a lesser extent a visual code
48
What does long-term memory depend on?
5a8ccf41fd22b3001a8d8eca
True
had more difficulty recalling collections of letters that were acoustically similar
167
What didn't Conrad find out about test subjects?
5a8ccf41fd22b3001a8d8ecb
True
that the letters were encoded acoustically
366
What did confusion recalling acoustically different letters imply?
5a8ccf41fd22b3001a8d8ecc
True
Conrad
410
Whose study deals with decoding written texts?
5a8ccf41fd22b3001a8d8ecd
True
that test subjects had more difficulty recalling collections of letters that were acoustically similar
148
What did Conrad's 1963 sudy find?
5a8ccf41fd22b3001a8d8ece
True
Short-term memory is believed to rely mostly on an acoustic code for storing information, and to a lesser extent a visual code. Conrad (1964) found that test subjects had more difficulty recalling collections of letters that were acoustically similar (e.g. E, P, D). Confusion with recalling acoustically similar letters rather than visually similar letters implies that the letters were encoded acoustically. Conrad's (1964) study, however, deals with the encoding of written text; thus, while memory of written language may rely on acoustic components, generalisations to all forms of memory cannot be made.
What is another name for short-term memory?
571a28fc10f8ca1400304f0f
working memory.
35
False
What exactly does short-term memory allow a person to do?
571a28fc10f8ca1400304f10
recall for a period of several seconds to a minute without rehearsal
76
False
How much information can one store and recall in short-term memory?
571a28fc10f8ca1400304f11
capacity is also very limited
150
False
How can one higher their memory capacity?
571a28fc10f8ca1400304f12
chunking.
549
False
Why do some countries display numbers in chunks of two to four numbers?
571a28fc10f8ca1400304f13
because we are able to chunk the information into meaningful groups of numbers
897
False
working memory
35
What is another name for extended memory?
5a8cce69fd22b3001a8d8ec0
True
recall for a period of several seconds to a minute without rehearsal
76
What exactly does chunking memory allow a person to do?
5a8cce69fd22b3001a8d8ec1
True
George A. Miller
181
How much information can one store and recall in long-term memory?
5a8cce69fd22b3001a8d8ec2
True
1956
199
What year did George A. Miller work at AT&T?
5a8cce69fd22b3001a8d8ec3
True
three groups
652
How many groups could a person chunk a 7 digit telephone number?
5a8cce69fd22b3001a8d8ec4
True
Short-term memory is also known as working memory. Short-term memory allows recall for a period of several seconds to a minute without rehearsal. Its capacity is also very limited: George A. Miller (1956), when working at Bell Laboratories, conducted experiments showing that the store of short-term memory was 7±2 items (the title of his famous paper, "The magical number 7±2"). Modern estimates of the capacity of short-term memory are lower, typically of the order of 4–5 items; however, memory capacity can be increased through a process called chunking. For example, in recalling a ten-digit telephone number, a person could chunk the digits into three groups: first, the area code (such as 123), then a three-digit chunk (456) and lastly a four-digit chunk (7890). This method of remembering telephone numbers is far more effective than attempting to remember a string of 10 digits; this is because we are able to chunk the information into meaningful groups of numbers. This may be reflected in some countries in the tendency to display telephone numbers as several chunks of two to four numbers.
Why can't some memories be held onto forever?
571a2a2510f8ca1400304f19
The storage in sensory memory and short-term memory generally has a strictly limited capacity and duration
0
False
If a memory that is stored in with long term-memories, how long can you possibly rememeber it?
571a2a2510f8ca1400304f1a
sometimes a whole life span)
281
False
What is the capacity of long term memory?
571a2a2510f8ca1400304f1b
capacity is immeasurable
315
False
If you knew a telephone number one week ago, but have forgotten it now, where was this memory stored?
571a2a2510f8ca1400304f1c
in our short-term memory
474
False
unlimited
261
By storing smaller quantities of info, long-term memory has this length of duration?
5a8cd06bfd22b3001a8d8ed4
True
repetition
576
Short term memory can remember telephone numbers for many years though what?
5a8cd06bfd22b3001a8d8ed5
True
telephone numbers
535
Repetition allows short-term memory to remember what?
5a8cd06bfd22b3001a8d8ed6
True
many years
557
How many years can short-term memory be stored?
5a8cd06bfd22b3001a8d8ed7
True
capacity
315
Short-term memory has immeasurable what?
5a8cd06bfd22b3001a8d8ed8
True
The storage in sensory memory and short-term memory generally has a strictly limited capacity and duration, which means that information is not retained indefinitely. By contrast, long-term memory can store much larger quantities of information for potentially unlimited duration (sometimes a whole life span). Its capacity is immeasurable. For example, given a random seven-digit number we may remember it for only a few seconds before forgetting, suggesting it was stored in our short-term memory. On the other hand, we can remember telephone numbers for many years through repetition; this information is said to be stored in long-term memory.
What are some examples of units that short-term memory can be categorized in to?
571a2b6310f8ca1400304f33
visual information and acoustic information
189
False
Who performed a study in 1986 invovling a participant known as KF?
571a2b6310f8ca1400304f34
Zlonoga and Gerber
248
False
What did KF disprove during this study?
571a2b6310f8ca1400304f35
Atkinson–Shiffrin model.
329
False
What did KF have trouble doing?
571a2b6310f8ca1400304f36
difficulties regarding short-term memory.
395
False
What did this study seem to conclude?
571a2b6310f8ca1400304f37
a dichotomy between visual and audial memory.
652
False
patient 'KF' demonstrated certain deviations from the Atkinson–Shiffrin model
275
What happened in a 1985 study from Zlonoga and Gerber?
5a8cd41afd22b3001a8d8f06
True
patient 'KF'
275
Which patient demonstration certain deviations from the Zlonoga-Gerber model?
5a8cd41afd22b3001a8d8f07
True
1986
268
What year did Atkinson and Shiffrin release their study?
5a8cd41afd22b3001a8d8f08
True
a dichotomy between visual and audial memory
652
What was suggested when visual long-term memory was unaffected?
5a8cd41afd22b3001a8d8f09
True
brain damaged
369
What was damaged in KF causing difficulties to long-term memory?
5a8cd41afd22b3001a8d8f0a
True
The model also shows all the memory stores as being a single unit whereas research into this shows differently. For example, short-term memory can be broken up into different units such as visual information and acoustic information. In a study by Zlonoga and Gerber (1986), patient 'KF' demonstrated certain deviations from the Atkinson–Shiffrin model. Patient KF was brain damaged, displaying difficulties regarding short-term memory. Recognition of sounds such as spoken numbers, letters, words and easily identifiable noises (such as doorbells and cats meowing) were all impacted. Interestingly, visual short-term memory was unaffected, suggesting a dichotomy between visual and audial memory.
Which part of the brain does short-term memory seem to rely on?
571a2c554faf5e1900b8a8f6
frontal lobe (especially dorsolateral prefrontal cortex) and the parietal lobe
108
False
Which part of the brain does long-term memory rely on?
571a2c554faf5e1900b8a8f7
hippocampus
338
False
How much information can the hippocampus store?
571a2c554faf5e1900b8a8f8
does not
479
False
If the hippocampus doesn't store information what does it do?
571a2c554faf5e1900b8a8f9
may be involved in changing neural connections for a period of three months or more after the initial learning.
747
False
transient
34
What type of patterns is long-term memory supported by?
5a8cd294fd22b3001a8d8ef2
True
frontal lobe (especially dorsolateral prefrontal cortex) and the parietal lobe
108
What two brain lobe regions does long-term memory depend on?
5a8cd294fd22b3001a8d8ef3
True
Henry Molaison
631
Who had the removal of both of his lobes?
5a8cd294fd22b3001a8d8ef4
True
both his hippocampi
663
What was removed from Molaison to  improve his attention span?
5a8cd294fd22b3001a8d8ef5
True
hippocampus
338
What part of the brain is not essential for learning new information?
5a8cd294fd22b3001a8d8ef6
True
Short-term memory is supported by transient patterns of neuronal communication, dependent on regions of the frontal lobe (especially dorsolateral prefrontal cortex) and the parietal lobe. Long-term memory, on the other hand, is maintained by more stable and permanent changes in neural connections widely spread throughout the brain. The hippocampus is essential (for learning new information) to the consolidation of information from short-term to long-term memory, although it does not seem to store information itself. Without the hippocampus, new memories are unable to be stored into long-term memory, as learned from patient Henry Molaison after removal of both his hippocampi, and there will be a very short attention span. Furthermore, it may be involved in changing neural connections for a period of three months or more after the initial learning.
How long does sensory  memory to to store information?
571a354b4faf5e1900b8a91c
less than one second
41
False
Can we control what is stored in our sensory memory?
571a354b4faf5e1900b8a91d
It is out of cognitive control
246
False
Who did the first studies on exploring a new idea of sensory memory?
571a354b4faf5e1900b8a91e
George Sperling
502
False
What did Spellings' findings reveal?
571a354b4faf5e1900b8a91f
this form of memory degrades so quickly, participants would see the display but be unable to report all of the items
987
False
less than one second
41
How long does sensory memory store presentations?
5a8ccd15fd22b3001a8d8eac
True
It is out of cognitive control
246
Can we control what is stored in our experimental memory?
5a8ccd15fd22b3001a8d8ead
True
George Sperling
502
Who did the first studies on exploring a new idea of sensory registers?
5a8ccd15fd22b3001a8d8eae
True
sensory memory
469
What experiments did George Serling conduct in 1953?
5a8ccd15fd22b3001a8d8eaf
True
this form of memory degrades so quickly, participants would see the display but be unable to report all of the items
987
What did Spellings' findings prove to be false?
5a8ccd15fd22b3001a8d8eb0
True
Sensory memory holds sensory information less than one second after an item is perceived. The ability to look at an item and remember what it looked like with just a split second of observation, or memorization, is the example of sensory memory. It is out of cognitive control and is an automatic response. With very short presentations, participants often report that they seem to "see" more than they can actually report. The first experiments exploring this form of sensory memory were conducted by George Sperling (1963) using the "partial report paradigm". Subjects were presented with a grid of 12 letters, arranged into three rows of four. After a brief presentation, subjects were then played either a high, medium or low tone, cuing them which of the rows to report. Based on these partial report experiments,Sperling was able to show that the capacity of sensory memory was approximately 12 items, but that it degraded very quickly (within a few hundred milliseconds). Because this form of memory degrades so quickly, participants would see the display but be unable to report all of the items (12 in the "whole report" procedure) before they decayed. This type of memory cannot be prolonged via rehearsal.
How does short term memory encode information?
571a38ca10f8ca1400304f77
acoustically
44
False
How does long term memory encode information?
571a38ca10f8ca1400304f78
semantically
86
False
What is episodic memory?
571a38ca10f8ca1400304f79
"which attempts to capture information such as 'what', 'when' and 'where'
342
False
If someone where to recall a wedding they had went to a year before, which type of memory would be used?
571a38ca10f8ca1400304f7a
episodic memory,
325
False
What did Baddeleys test subjects have touble doing?
571a38ca10f8ca1400304f7b
recalling a collection of words that had similar meanings
189
False
1966
110
What year did Baddeley discover episodic memory?
5a8cd168fd22b3001a8d8ede
True
a collection of words that had similar meanings
199
What did Baddeley have difficulty recalling?
5a8cd168fd22b3001a8d8edf
True
which attempts to capture information such as 'what', 'when' and 'where
343
What is the defiition of the part of short-term memory known as episodic?
5a8cd168fd22b3001a8d8ee0
True
memory
334
The short-term memory which attempts to capture information such as 'what', 'when' and 'where' is episodic what?
5a8cd168fd22b3001a8d8ee1
True
episodic memory
423
What type of short-term memory allows people to recall specific events?
5a8cd168fd22b3001a8d8ee2
True
While short-term memory encodes information acoustically, long-term memory encodes it semantically: Baddeley (1966) discovered that, after 20 minutes, test subjects had the most difficulty recalling a collection of words that had similar meanings (e.g. big, large, great, huge) long-term. Another part of long-term memory is episodic memory, "which attempts to capture information such as 'what', 'when' and 'where'". With episodic memory, individuals are able to recall specific events such as birthday parties and weddings.
Why do infants and young childrens memories need to be assesed differently?
571a39aa4faf5e1900b8a92e
do not have the language ability to report on their memories
8
False
Can researchers study an infants or young childs memories?
571a39aa4faf5e1900b8a92f
, researchers have adapted and developed a number of measures for assessing both infants’ recognition memory and their recall memory.
175
False
How can a researcher study a childs memory?
571a39aa4faf5e1900b8a930
elicited imitation techniques
431
False
Infants do not have the language ability to report on their memories
0
Why can verbal report be used to assess very young children's memory?
5a8cdd6afd22b3001a8d8f60
True
Habituation and operant conditioning
309
What techniques have not been used to assess infants’ recognition memory?
5a8cdd6afd22b3001a8d8f61
True
number of measures for assessing both infants’ recognition memory and their recall memory
218
What did researchers adapt and develop immediately?
5a8cdd6afd22b3001a8d8f62
True
elicited imitation techniques
431
How can a child study a researcher's memory?
5a8cdd6afd22b3001a8d8f63
True
researchers have adapted and developed a number of measures for assessing both infants’ recognition memory and their recall memory
177
Can researchers study an infants or young childs motor skills?
5a8cdd6afd22b3001a8d8f64
True
Infants do not have the language ability to report on their memories and so verbal reports cannot be used to assess very young children’s memory. Throughout the years, however, researchers have adapted and developed a number of measures for assessing both infants’ recognition memory and their recall memory. Habituation and operant conditioning techniques have been used to assess infants’ recognition memory and the deferred and elicited imitation techniques have been used to assess infants’ recall memory.
What are some catgories of retrospective memory?
571a438c10f8ca1400304f8b
semantic, episodic and autobiographical memory
226
False
If a memory is triggered by a time, which kind of memory is this?
571a438c10f8ca1400304f8c
Time-based prospective memories
482
False
What is something somebody can use to remember something?
571a438c10f8ca1400304f8d
Cues
737
False
If Bob realized he needed to mail his mother a letter after seeing the postal office, which kind of memory did he trigger?
571a438c10f8ca1400304f8e
Event-based prospective memories
594
False
semantic, episodic and autobiographical memory
226
What are some catgories of respective memory?
5a8cdbcafd22b3001a8d8f56
True
Time-based prospective memories
482
If a memory is triggered by a time, which kind of memory is this not?
5a8cdbcafd22b3001a8d8f57
True
Cues
737
What is something somebody can use to forget something?
5a8cdbcafd22b3001a8d8f58
True
In contrast, prospective memory is memory for future intentions, or remembering to remember
274
What did Winograd conclude in 1989?
5a8cdbcafd22b3001a8d8f59
True
whether the content to be remembered is in the past, retrospective memory, or in the future, prospective memory
63
What is a inor way to distinguish different memory functions?
5a8cdbcafd22b3001a8d8f5a
True
Another major way to distinguish different memory functions is whether the content to be remembered is in the past, retrospective memory, or in the future, prospective memory. Thus, retrospective memory as a category includes semantic, episodic and autobiographical memory. In contrast, prospective memory is memory for future intentions, or remembering to remember (Winograd, 1988). Prospective memory can be further broken down into event- and time-based prospective remembering. Time-based prospective memories are triggered by a time-cue, such as going to the doctor (action) at 4pm (cue). Event-based prospective memories are intentions triggered by cues, such as remembering to post a letter (action) after seeing a mailbox (cue). Cues do not need to be related to the action (as the mailbox/letter example), and lists, sticky-notes, knotted handkerchiefs, or string around the finger all exemplify cues that people use as strategies to enhance prospective memory.
Was Hebb's thought of the relationship between short and long term memory true?
571a44a910f8ca1400304f9d
research showed this to be false
200
False
Which drugs seemed to help someone remember earlier events?
571a44a910f8ca1400304f9e
cortisol or epinephrine
279
False
What relationship does excitement and memory share?
571a44a910f8ca1400304f9f
excitement enhances memory
411
False
Bob was in a car accident and couldn't remember his wifes name, what part of his brain could have been damaged?
571a44a910f8ca1400304fa0
hippocampus
812
False
research showed this to be false
200
Was Hebb's thought of the relationship between long and longer term memory true?
5a8cdf5bfd22b3001a8d8f88
True
cortisol or epinephrine
279
Which drugs seemed to help someone forget earlier events?
5a8cdf5bfd22b3001a8d8f89
True
excitement enhances memory
411
What relationship does unexcitement and memory share?
5a8cdf5bfd22b3001a8d8f8a
True
emotionally charged words than nonemotionally charged ones
638
What are patients with amygdalar damage more likely to remember?
5a8cdf5bfd22b3001a8d8f8b
True
Hippocampal
1046
What typ of damage may also cause memory gain and helps with memory storage.
5a8cdf5bfd22b3001a8d8f8c
True
Hebb distinguished between short-term and long-term memory. He postulated that any memory that stayed in short-term storage for a long enough time would be consolidated into a long-term memory. Later research showed this to be false. Research has shown that direct injections of cortisol or epinephrine help the storage of recent experiences. This is also true for stimulation of the amygdala. This proves that excitement enhances memory by the stimulation of hormones that affect the amygdala. Excessive or prolonged stress (with prolonged cortisol) may hurt memory storage. Patients with amygdalar damage are no more likely to remember emotionally charged words than nonemotionally charged ones. The hippocampus is important for explicit memory. The hippocampus is also important for memory consolidation. The hippocampus receives input from different parts of the cortex and sends its output out to different parts of the brain also. The input comes from secondary and tertiary sensory areas that have processed the information a lot already. Hippocampal damage may also cause memory loss and problems with memory storage. This memory loss includes, retrograde amnesia which is the loss of memory for events that occurred shortly before the time of brain damage.
Is it important to know how information is coded in the brain?
571a458e4faf5e1900b8a934
that is crucial
13
False
Have researchers learned anything studying plasticity?
571a458e4faf5e1900b8a935
have gained much knowledge
148
False
What are the roles of Covergence-divergence zones?
571a458e4faf5e1900b8a936
might be the neural networks where memories are stored and retrieved.
546
False
What has most of the research on memories revolved around?
571a458e4faf5e1900b8a937
simple learning in simple neuronal circuits;
278
False
have gained much knowledge
148
Have researchers learned anything studying elasticity?
5a8ce0a4fd22b3001a8d8f9c
True
that is crucial
13
Is it not important to know how information is coded in the brain?
5a8ce0a4fd22b3001a8d8f9d
True
might be the neural networks where memories are stored and retrieved
546
What are the roles of Covergence-divergence voids?
5a8ce0a4fd22b3001a8d8f9e
True
simple learning in simple neuronal circuits
278
What has none of the research on memories revolved around?
5a8ce0a4fd22b3001a8d8f9f
True
neuronal changes
363
what changes are involved in more simple examples of memory
5a8ce0a4fd22b3001a8d8fa0
True
One question that is crucial in cognitive neuroscience is how information and mental experiences are coded and represented in the brain. Scientists have gained much knowledge about the neuronal codes from the studies of plasticity, but most of such research has been focused on simple learning in simple neuronal circuits; it is considerably less clear about the neuronal changes involved in more complex examples of memory, particularly declarative memory that requires the storage of facts and events (Byrne 2007). Convergence-divergence zones might be the neural networks where memories are stored and retrieved.
What do cognitive neuroscientists believe memory is?
571a46b64faf5e1900b8a93c
the retention, reactivation, and reconstruction of the experience-independent internal representation
45
False
What suggests that memory has two different components?
571a46b64faf5e1900b8a93d
term of internal representation
152
False
What showed that memory exists even before that memory is known to the person?
571a46b64faf5e1900b8a93e
Moscovitch 2007
714
False
What is an engram trace?
571a46b64faf5e1900b8a93f
the underpinning physical neural changes
315
False
the retention, reactivation, and reconstruction of the experience-independent internal representation
45
What do regular scientists believe memory is?
5a8ce008fd22b3001a8d8f92
True
term of internal representation
152
What suggests that memory has three different components?
5a8ce008fd22b3001a8d8f93
True
the expression of memory at the behavioral or conscious level, and the underpinning physical neural changes
248
What did Dudai learn in 1904?
5a8ce008fd22b3001a8d8f94
True
The latter component is also called engram or memory traces
370
What did Semon learn in 2007?
5a8ce008fd22b3001a8d8f95
True
others argue against this notion that memory does not exist until it is revealed in behavior or thought
609
What did Moscovitch learn in 2006?
5a8ce008fd22b3001a8d8f96
True
Cognitive neuroscientists consider memory as the retention, reactivation, and reconstruction of the experience-independent internal representation. The term of internal representation implies that such definition of memory contains two components: the expression of memory at the behavioral or conscious level, and the underpinning physical neural changes (Dudai 2007). The latter component is also called engram or memory traces (Semon 1904). Some neuroscientists and psychologists mistakenly equate the concept of engram and memory, broadly conceiving all persisting after-effects of experiences as memory; others argue against this notion that memory does not exist until it is revealed in behavior or thought (Moscovitch 2007).
What is another term for procedural memory?
571a479b10f8ca1400304fad
implicit memory
35
False
If bob remembered how to bake a cake after seeing this on television what memory is he using?
571a479b10f8ca1400304fae
procedural memory
13
False
What set of skills is reliant on procedural memory?
571a479b10f8ca1400304faf
motor skills
242
False
If Bob does throws 15 more free throws than he did last week, how many more explicit memories has he gained?
571a479b10f8ca1400304fb0
no new explicit memories have been formed,
386
False
implicit memory
35
What is another term for procedural senses?
5a8cdae5fd22b3001a8d8f4c
True
procedural memory
13
If bob remembered how to bake a cake after seeing this on television what sense is he using?
5a8cdae5fd22b3001a8d8f4d
True
motor skills
242
What set of skills is not reliant on procedural memory?
5a8cdae5fd22b3001a8d8f4e
True
Procedural memory
503
What type of memory does not depend on the cerebellum and basal ganglia?
5a8cdae5fd22b3001a8d8f4f
True
Procedural memory
190
What type of memory is secondarily employed in learning motor skills and should be considered a subset of implicit memory
5a8cdae5fd22b3001a8d8f50
True
In contrast, procedural memory (or implicit memory) is not based on the conscious recall of information, but on implicit learning. It can best be summarized as remember how to do something. Procedural memory is primarily employed in learning motor skills and should be considered a subset of implicit memory. It is revealed when one does better in a given task due only to repetition - no new explicit memories have been formed, but one is unconsciously accessing aspects of those previous experiences. Procedural memory involved in motor learning depends on the cerebellum and basal ganglia.
Which model explains why bob has an easier time reading a book, and then discussing it rather than reading two books?
571a48c110f8ca1400304fc7
working memory model
4
False
Which concept is criticised for being unworthy and too broad?
571a48c110f8ca1400304fc8
concept of a central executive
241
False
Which part of memory allows us to go about our daily lives?
571a48c110f8ca1400304fc9
Working memory
348
False
many practical observations
34
What does the non-working memory model explain?
5a8cd552fd22b3001a8d8f24
True
central executive
254
What has been praised as adequate and non-vague?
5a8cd552fd22b3001a8d8f25
True
what allows us to do everyday activities involving thought
387
What is non-working memory also the premise for?
5a8cd552fd22b3001a8d8f26
True
Working memory
348
Which part of memory allows us to go about our long-term lives?
5a8cd552fd22b3001a8d8f27
True
working memory model
4
Which model explains why bob has an easier time writing a book, and then discussing it rather than writing two books?
5a8cd552fd22b3001a8d8f28
True
The working memory model explains many practical observations, such as why it is easier to do two different tasks (one verbal and one visual) than two similar tasks (e.g., two visual), and the aforementioned word-length effect. However, the concept of a central executive as noted here has been criticised as inadequate and vague.[citation needed] Working memory is also the premise for what allows us to do everyday activities involving thought. It is the section of memory where we carry out thought processes and use them to learn and reason about topics.
What do most elderly people worry about?
571a4a4e4faf5e1900b8a950
memory loss,
61
False
Is an eldery person with alzheimers having the same problem as a similar aged person experiencing memory loss?
571a4a4e4faf5e1900b8a951
memory loss is qualitatively different
156
False
Which part of the brain is associated with the memory loss an elderly person suffers?
571a4a4e4faf5e1900b8a952
frontal regions
388
False
Which memory is an elderly person helping by using appointment books?
571a4a4e4faf5e1900b8a953
prospective memory
802
False
the experience of memory loss
43
What is one of key concerns of younger adults?
5a8ce526fd22b3001a8d8fce
True
memory loss
61
What is not one of the hallmark symptoms of Alzheimer's disease?
5a8ce526fd22b3001a8d8fcf
True
However, memory loss is qualitatively different in normal aging from the kind of memory loss associated with a diagnosis of Alzheimer's
147
What did Alzheimer & Price state in 2005?
5a8ce526fd22b3001a8d8fd0
True
deficits on tasks that involve knowing the temporal order in which they learned information
452
Younger adults tend to exhibit?
5a8ce526fd22b3001a8d8fd1
True
appointment books
830
Older adults can manage their problems with prospective memory by not using what?
5a8ce526fd22b3001a8d8fd2
True
One of the key concerns of older adults is the experience of memory loss, especially as it is one of the hallmark symptoms of Alzheimer's disease. However, memory loss is qualitatively different in normal aging from the kind of memory loss associated with a diagnosis of Alzheimer's (Budson & Price, 2005). Research has revealed that individuals’ performance on memory tasks that rely on frontal regions declines with age. Older adults tend to exhibit deficits on tasks that involve knowing the temporal order in which they learned information; source memory tasks that require them to remember the specific circumstances or context in which they learned information; and prospective memory tasks that involve remembering to perform an act at a future time. Older adults can manage their problems with prospective memory by using appointment books, for example.
Does a 6 month old have short term memory?
571a6bf110f8ca1400305013
can recall information over the short-term
46
False
What age can an infabt recall steps in an order?
571a6bf110f8ca1400305014
9 months of age
170
False
What part of a two step sequence can a 6 month old remember?
571a6bf210f8ca1400305015
one step of a two-step sequence
642
False
What part of the brain is not fully developed in infants which can cause the memory differences in ages?
571a6bf210f8ca1400305016
the dentate gyrus of the hippocampus and the frontal components of the neural network are not fully developed
763
False
the short-term
74
It should be noted that although 6-month-olds cannot recall information over what?
5a8ce455fd22b3001a8d8fc4
True
information
143
they have no difficulty recalling the temporal order of what?
5a8ce455fd22b3001a8d8fc5
True
one step of a two-step sequence
642
What part of a two step sequence can a 16 month old remember?
5a8ce455fd22b3001a8d8fc6
True
the dentate gyrus of the hippocampus and the frontal components of the neural network are not fully developed
763
What part of the brain is fully developed in infants which can cause the memory differences in ages?
5a8ce455fd22b3001a8d8fc7
True
the fact that the dentate gyrus of the hippocampus and the frontal components of the neural network are not fully developed at the age of 6-months
749
Researchers have suggested that these age similarities are probably due to what?
5a8ce455fd22b3001a8d8fc8
True
It should be noted that although 6-month-olds can recall information over the short-term, they have difficulty recalling the temporal order of information. It is only by 9 months of age that infants can recall the actions of a two-step sequence in the correct temporal order - that is, recalling step 1 and then step 2. In other words, when asked to imitate a two-step action sequence (such as putting a toy car in the base and pushing in the plunger to make the toy roll to the other end), 9-month-olds tend to imitate the actions of the sequence in the correct order (step 1 and then step 2). Younger infants (6-month-olds) can only recall one step of a two-step sequence. Researchers have suggested that these age differences are probably due to the fact that the dentate gyrus of the hippocampus and the frontal components of the neural network are not fully developed at the age of 6-months.
When remembering your first day of school or first dance, which memory are you using?
571a704810f8ca140030502f
Episodic memories
514
False
When fondly remembering your memory, which type of memory are you using?
571a704810f8ca1400305030
Autobiographical memory
714
False
Which type of memory enables us to remember knowledge of the world?
571a704810f8ca1400305031
Semantic memory
234
False
Which type of memory is used when remembering something that we've seen?
571a704810f8ca1400305032
Visual memory
871
False
Episodic memories
514
When remembering your first day of school or first dance, which sense are you using?
5a8cd9d6fd22b3001a8d8f42
True
Semantic memory
234
Which type of memory disables us to remember knowledge of the world?
5a8cd9d6fd22b3001a8d8f43
True
priming
1130
What can result from visual stimulus?
5a8cd9d6fd22b3001a8d8f44
True
memory for particular events within one's own life
740
What does biographical memory encompass?
5a8cd9d6fd22b3001a8d8f45
True
Semantic memory
234
What type of memory allows knowledge like remembering that Paris is the capital of Germany?
5a8cd9d6fd22b3001a8d8f46
True
Declarative memory can be further sub-divided into semantic memory, concerning principles and facts taken independent of context; and episodic memory, concerning information specific to a particular context, such as a time and place. Semantic memory allows the encoding of abstract knowledge about the world, such as "Paris is the capital of France". Episodic memory, on the other hand, is used for more personal memories, such as the sensations, emotions, and personal associations of a particular place or time. Episodic memories often reflect the "firsts" in life such as a first kiss, first day of school or first time winning a championship. These are key events in one's life that can be remembered clearly. Autobiographical memory - memory for particular events within one's own life - is generally viewed as either equivalent to, or a subset of, episodic memory. Visual memory is part of memory preserving some characteristics of our senses pertaining to visual experience. One is able to place in memory information that resembles objects, places, animals or people in sort of a mental image. Visual memory can result in priming and it is assumed some kind of perceptual representational system underlies this phenomenon.[citation needed]
What can cause your memory to deterioriate or not work as well?
571a711910f8ca1400305037
Stress
0
False
Which hormones are produces when a animal is stressed out?
571a711910f8ca1400305038
adrenal hormones
320
False
Who performed a study that involved having peoples hands in cold water while also memorizing words?
571a711910f8ca1400305039
L. Schwabe and O. Wolf
455
False
What did L. Schwabes and O. Wolfs study seem to conlcude?
571a711910f8ca140030503a
stress experienced during learning distracts people by diverting their attention during the memory encoding process.
1341
False
Stress
0
What can cause your memory to deterioriate and work better?
5a8ce923fd22b3001a8d900a
True
adrenal hormones
320
Which hormones are produces when a animal is happy?
5a8ce923fd22b3001a8d900b
True
L. Schwabe and O. Wolf
455
Which Austrian cognitive psychologists released an experimental study?
5a8ce923fd22b3001a8d900c
True
Socially Evaluated Cold Pressor Test
788
What does SECPT not stand for?
5a8ce923fd22b3001a8d900d
True
Stress has a significant effect on memory formation and learning. In response to stressful situations, the brain releases hormones and neurotransmitters (ex. glucocorticoids and catecholamines) which affect memory encoding processes in the hippocampus. Behavioural research on animals shows that chronic stress produces adrenal hormones which impact the hippocampal structure in the brains of rats. An experimental study by German cognitive psychologists L. Schwabe and O. Wolf demonstrates how learning under stress also decreases memory recall in humans. In this study, 48 healthy female and male university students participated in either a stress test or a control group. Those randomly assigned to the stress test group had a hand immersed in ice cold water (the reputable SECPT or ‘Socially Evaluated Cold Pressor Test’) for up to three minutes, while being monitored and videotaped. Both the stress and control groups were then presented with 32 words to memorize. Twenty-four hours later, both groups were tested to see how many words they could remember (free recall) as well as how many they could recognize from a larger list of words (recognition performance). The results showed a clear impairment of memory performance in the stress test group, who recalled 30% fewer words than the control group. The researchers suggest that stress experienced during learning distracts people by diverting their attention during the memory encoding process.
What trouble can interference cause?
571a719210f8ca140030503f
can hamper memorization and retrieval
13
False
What is retroactive interference?
571a719310f8ca1400305040
when learning new information makes it harder to recall old information
87
False
What is proactive interference?
571a719310f8ca1400305041
where prior learning disrupts recall of new information
187
False
What is a term used to describe being able to learn something quicker due to an older ability?
571a719310f8ca1400305042
positive transfer.
535
False
can hamper memorization and retrieval
13
What benefits does interference have?
5a8ce832fd22b3001a8d8ff6
True
when learning new information makes it harder to recall old information
87
What is active interference?
5a8ce832fd22b3001a8d8ff7
True
where prior learning disrupts recall of new information
187
What is proactive disruption?
5a8ce832fd22b3001a8d8ff8
True
positive transfer
535
What is the phenomenon when learning Latin makes it harder to learn French?
5a8ce832fd22b3001a8d8ff9
True
prior learning
193
What disrupts recall of old information?
5a8ce832fd22b3001a8d8ffa
True
Interference can hamper memorization and retrieval. There is retroactive interference, when learning new information makes it harder to recall old information and proactive interference, where prior learning disrupts recall of new information. Although interference can lead to forgetting, it is important to keep in mind that there are situations when old information can facilitate learning of new information. Knowing Latin, for instance, can help an individual learn a related language such as French – this phenomenon is known as positive transfer.
In 1960 did people believe an infant was able to remember things?
571a722f10f8ca1400305047
Up until the middle of the 1980s it was assumed that infants could not encode, retain, and retrieve information.
0
False
What is the minimum age researchers think a child begins to have memory?
571a722f10f8ca1400305048
. A growing body of research now indicates that infants as young as 6-months can recall information
111
False
Does a persons memory capacity increase with age?
571a722f10f8ca1400305049
Furthermore, research has revealed that as infants grow older they can store information for longer periods of time
234
False
Who has a better memory retention a 6 month old or a 9 month old?
571a722f10f8ca140030504a
9-month-olds
411
False
that infants could not encode, retain, and retrieve information
48
What was assumed until the middle of the 1960s?
5a8ce175fd22b3001a8d8fa6
True
information
199
Research indicates that 6 month olds can recall what after a 48 hour delay?
5a8ce175fd22b3001a8d8fa7
True
remember it
739
6-month-olds need approximately five exposures in order to be able to do what?
5a8ce175fd22b3001a8d8fa8
True
studies
511
What has shown that with age, infants can store information slower
5a8ce175fd22b3001a8d8fa9
True
information
311
as infants grow older they can store what for shorter periods of time?
5a8ce175fd22b3001a8d8faa
True
Up until the middle of the 1980s it was assumed that infants could not encode, retain, and retrieve information. A growing body of research now indicates that infants as young as 6-months can recall information after a 24-hour delay. Furthermore, research has revealed that as infants grow older they can store information for longer periods of time; 6-month-olds can recall information after a 24-hour period, 9-month-olds after up to five weeks, and 20-month-olds after as long as twelve months. In addition, studies have shown that with age, infants can store information faster. Whereas 14-month-olds can recall a three-step sequence after being exposed to it once, 6-month-olds need approximately six exposures in order to be able to remember it.
What role does the amygdala play in memory?
571a72d84faf5e1900b8a9b2
thought to be involved in emotional memory
309
False
Can you pin point certain areas of the brain to certain memories.
571a72d84faf5e1900b8a9b3
it is not sufficient to describe memory, and its counterpart, learning, as solely dependent on specific brain regions
669
False
What changes can be linked to learning and memory?
571a72d84faf5e1900b8a9b4
neuronal synapses,
837
False
What is the hippocampus's relationship to memory?
571a72d84faf5e1900b8a9b5
believed to be involved in spatial learning and declarative learning
217
False
thought to be involved in emotional memory
309
What role does the amygdala play in speech?
5a8cde4cfd22b3001a8d8f74
True
it is not sufficient to describe memory, and its counterpart, learning, as solely dependent on specific brain regions
669
Can you pin point certain areas of the heart to certain memories
5a8cde4cfd22b3001a8d8f75
True
neuronal synapses
837
What similarities can be linked to learning and memory?
5a8cde4cfd22b3001a8d8f76
True
amygdala
297
What is thought to be involved in nonemotional memory?
5a8cde4cfd22b3001a8d8f77
True
believed to be involved in spatial learning and declarative learning
217
What is the hippocampus's relationship to speech?
5a8cde4cfd22b3001a8d8f78
True
Brain areas involved in the neuroanatomy of memory such as the hippocampus, the amygdala, the striatum, or the mammillary bodies are thought to be involved in specific types of memory. For example, the hippocampus is believed to be involved in spatial learning and declarative learning, while the amygdala is thought to be involved in emotional memory. Damage to certain areas in patients and animal models and subsequent memory deficits is a primary source of information. However, rather than implicating a specific area, it could be that damage to adjacent areas, or to a pathway traveling through the area is actually responsible for the observed deficit. Further, it is not sufficient to describe memory, and its counterpart, learning, as solely dependent on specific brain regions. Learning and memory are attributed to changes in neuronal synapses, thought to be mediated by long-term potentiation and long-term depression.
Does it matter how long someone is exposed to stress to have an impact on their memory?
571a746210f8ca140030504f
the more impact it may have. However, short term exposure to stress also causes impairment in memory by interfering with the function of the hippocampus
46
False
Whar does research show happens to blood glucorticoid levels during stressful events?
571a746210f8ca1400305050
levels that have increased drastically
320
False
Can a unborn child face issues with stress than can affect their future abilities?
571a746210f8ca1400305051
prenatally, the offspring show increased levels of glucocorticoids when they are subjected to stress later on in life.
757
False
Do the people studied in different research perform as well after stress as they did before becoming in contact with stressful situations?
571a746210f8ca1400305052
When subjects are asked to complete a learning task after short term exposure they have often difficulties
406
False
levels that have increased drastically
320
Whar does research show happens to blood glucose levels during stressful events?
5a8cec6ffd22b3001a8d9026
True
prenatally, the offspring show increased levels of glucocorticoids when they are subjected to stress later on in life.
757
Can a unborn child face issues with stress than can affect their past abilities?
5a8cec6ffd22b3001a8d9027
True
interfering with the function of the hippocampus
150
How does long term exposure to stress also cause impairment in memory?
5a8cec6ffd22b3001a8d9028
True
difficulties
500
When subjects are asked to complete a remembering task after short term exposure they have what?
5a8cec6ffd22b3001a8d9029
True
The more long term the exposure to stress is, the more impact it may have
0
Why does long term exposure to stress have less impact?
5a8cec6ffd22b3001a8d902a
True
The more long term the exposure to stress is, the more impact it may have. However, short term exposure to stress also causes impairment in memory by interfering with the function of the hippocampus. Research shows that subjects placed in a stressful situation for a short amount of time still have blood glucocorticoid levels that have increased drastically when measured after the exposure is completed. When subjects are asked to complete a learning task after short term exposure they have often difficulties. Prenatal stress also hinders the ability to learn and memorize by disrupting the development of the hippocampus and can lead to unestablished long term potentiation in the offspring of severely stressed parents. Although the stress is applied prenatally, the offspring show increased levels of glucocorticoids when they are subjected to stress later on in life.
What neurons are damaged during stressful events?
571a776810f8ca140030505f
The CA1 neurons found in the hippocampus
316
False
What can make someone more prone to memory loss as they age?
571a776810f8ca1400305060
the more stressful situations that someone encounters,
206
False
What will a person often do with extremely stressful memories?
571a776810f8ca1400305061
repression of memories where a person moves an unbearable memory to the unconscious mind
613
False
What is the cause of neuron loss due to stress?
571a776810f8ca1400305062
high level of extracellular glutamate allow calcium to enter NMDA receptors
464
False
The CA1 neurons found in the hippocampus
316
What protons are damaged during stressful events?
5a8ceb93fd22b3001a8d901c
True
Stressful life experiences
0
What can make someone more prone to memory gain as they age?
5a8ceb93fd22b3001a8d901d
True
repression of memories where a person moves an unbearable memory to the unconscious mind
613
What will a person often do with extremely stressful thoughts?
5a8ceb93fd22b3001a8d901e
True
The CA1 neurons found
316
What is the cause of neuron gain due to stress?
5a8ceb93fd22b3001a8d901f
True
hippocampus
345
Where are the AC1 neurons found?
5a8ceb93fd22b3001a8d9020
True
Stressful life experiences may be a cause of memory loss as a person ages. Glucocorticoids that are released during stress damage neurons that are located in the hippocampal region of the brain. Therefore, the more stressful situations that someone encounters, the more susceptible they are to memory loss later on. The CA1 neurons found in the hippocampus are destroyed due to glucocorticoids decreasing the release of glucose and the reuptake of glutamate. This high level of extracellular glutamate allow calcium to enter NMDA receptors which in return kills neurons. Stressful life experiences can also cause repression of memories where a person moves an unbearable memory to the unconscious mind. This directly relates to traumatic events in one's past such as kidnappings, being prisoners of war or sexual abuse as a child.
Does sleep hurt a persons memory?
571a782d10f8ca1400305067
There have been several studies which show that sleep improves the retention of memory,
268
False
What does SWS stand for?
571a782d10f8ca1400305068
slow-wave sleep
451
False
What take place during SWS?
571a782d10f8ca1400305069
System consolidation
411
False
What is the role of the neocortex whe it relates to memory?
571a782d10f8ca140030506a
reviews and processes memories, which moves them into long-term memory
828
False
In studies what is a relationship between sleeping and learning?
571a782d10f8ca140030506b
activation patterns in the sleeping brain that mirror those recorded during the learning of tasks from the previous day
1693
False
Sleep does not affect acquisition or recall while one is awake
0
Why does sleep affect recall?
5a8ced20fd22b3001a8d9030
True
During sleep
130
When are the neural connections in the brain weakened?
5a8ced20fd22b3001a8d9031
True
slow-wave sleep
451
What does WSW stand for?
5a8ced20fd22b3001a8d9032
True
System consolidation
411
What take place during WSW?
5a8ced20fd22b3001a8d9033
True
reviews and processes memories, which moves them into long-term memory
828
What is the role of the neocortex whe it relates to muscles?
5a8ced20fd22b3001a8d9034
True
Sleep does not affect acquisition or recall while one is awake. Therefore, sleep has the greatest effect on memory consolidation. During sleep, the neural connections in the brain are strengthened. This enhances the brain’s abilities to stabilize and retain memories. There have been several studies which show that sleep improves the retention of memory, as memories are enhanced through active consolidation. System consolidation takes place during slow-wave sleep (SWS). This process implicates that memories are reactivated during sleep, but that the process doesn’t enhance every memory. It also implicates that qualitative changes are made to the memories when they are transferred to long-term store during sleep. When you are sleeping, the hippocampus replays the events of the day for the neocortex. The neocortex then reviews and processes memories, which moves them into long-term memory. When you do not get enough sleep it makes it more difficult to learn as these neural connections are not as strong, resulting in a lower retention rate of memories. Sleep deprivation makes it harder to focus, resulting in inefficient learning. Furthermore, some studies have shown that sleep deprivation can lead to false memories as the memories are not properly transferred to long-term memory. Therefore, it is important to get the proper amount of sleep so that memory can function at the highest level. One of the primary functions of sleep is thought to be the improvement of the consolidation of information, as several studies have demonstrated that memory depends on getting sufficient sleep between training and test. Additionally, data obtained from neuroimaging studies have shown activation patterns in the sleeping brain that mirror those recorded during the learning of tasks from the previous day, suggesting that new memories may be solidified through such rehearsal.
Can one increase their brain efficency?
571a78d310f8ca140030507b
people can improve cognitive function and brain efficiency
114
False
What can a person do to increase their brain efficiency?
571a78d310f8ca140030507c
simple lifestyle changes such as incorporating memory exercises, healthy eating, physical fitness and stress reduction
181
False
In a study performed with 17 subjects, what relationship did healthy changes and brain efficiency have?
571a78d310f8ca140030507d
After 14 days, they showed greater word fluency (not memory) compared to their baseline performance.
563
False
Do lifestyle changes definitely have an affect on long term memory?
571a78d310f8ca140030507e
it is therefore unclear if this intervention has lasting effects on memory.
702
False
American Journal of Geriatric Psychiatry
62
Who published a study in a June 2006 issue of UCLA?
5a8cef33fd22b3001a8d9058
True
people can improve cognitive function and brain efficiency
114
Can one increase their brain unefficency?
5a8cef33fd22b3001a8d9059
True
cognitive function and brain efficiency
133
What can people improve through complex lifestyle changes?
5a8cef33fd22b3001a8d905a
True
word fluency
598
After 17 says, they showed greater what?
5a8cef33fd22b3001a8d905b
True
17 subjects
344
How many subjects had the average age of 17?
5a8cef33fd22b3001a8d905c
True
A UCLA research study published in the June 2006 issue of the American Journal of Geriatric Psychiatry found that people can improve cognitive function and brain efficiency through simple lifestyle changes such as incorporating memory exercises, healthy eating, physical fitness and stress reduction into their daily lives. This study examined 17 subjects, (average age 53) with normal memory performance. Eight subjects were asked to follow a "brain healthy" diet, relaxation, physical, and mental exercise (brain teasers and verbal memory training techniques). After 14 days, they showed greater word fluency (not memory) compared to their baseline performance. No long term follow up was conducted, it is therefore unclear if this intervention has lasting effects on memory.
What is a term to describe memory loss?
571a7a2810f8ca140030508d
amnesia.
130
False
What diseases can have a major imact on memory?
571a7a2810f8ca140030508e
Alzheimer's disease and Parkinson's disease
771
False
What is Korsakoff's syndrome?
571a7a2810f8ca140030508f
an organic brain disease that adversely affects memory by widespread loss or shrinkage of neurons within the prefrontal cortex.
1151
False
Is amnesia only seen in one form?
571a7a2810f8ca1400305090
There are many sorts of amnesia,
487
False
What happens to a person whose autobiographic memory is damaged?
571a7a2810f8ca1400305091
that they cannot forget small details that otherwise would not be stored
983
False
amnesia
130
What is a term to describe memory gain?
5a8ce73afd22b3001a8d8fec
True
Alzheimer's disease and Parkinson's disease
771
What diseases does not have a major impact on memory?
5a8ce73afd22b3001a8d8fed
True
an organic brain disease that adversely affects memory by widespread loss or shrinkage of neurons within the prefrontal cortex
1151
What is Alzheimer's syndrome?
5a8ce73afd22b3001a8d8fee
True
There are many sorts of amnesia
487
Why is amnesia only seen in one form?
5a8ce73afd22b3001a8d8fef
True
they cannot forget small details that otherwise would not be stored
988
What happens to a person whose biographic memory is damaged?
5a8ce73afd22b3001a8d8ff0
True
Much of the current knowledge of memory has come from studying memory disorders, particularly amnesia. Loss of memory is known as amnesia. Amnesia can result from extensive damage to: (a) the regions of the medial temporal lobe, such as the hippocampus, dentate gyrus, subiculum, amygdala, the parahippocampal, entorhinal, and perirhinal cortices or the (b) midline diencephalic region, specifically the dorsomedial nucleus of the thalamus and the mammillary bodies of the hypothalamus. There are many sorts of amnesia, and by studying their different forms, it has become possible to observe apparent defects in individual sub-systems of the brain's memory systems, and thus hypothesize their function in the normally working brain. Other neurological disorders such as Alzheimer's disease and Parkinson's disease can also affect memory and cognition. Hyperthymesia, or hyperthymesic syndrome, is a disorder that affects an individual's autobiographical memory, essentially meaning that they cannot forget small details that otherwise would not be stored. Korsakoff's syndrome, also known as Korsakoff's psychosis, amnesic-confabulatory syndrome, is an organic brain disease that adversely affects memory by widespread loss or shrinkage of neurons within the prefrontal cortex.
Does excersice have any role on cognitive brain function?
571a7cfa4faf5e1900b8a9d8
has many cognitive benefits and effects on the brain.
100
False
What positive things can happen to your brain when you excersise?
571a7cfa4faf5e1900b8a9d9
increases in neurotransmitter levels, improved oxygen and nutrient delivery, and increased neurogenesis in the hippocampus
186
False
Is a child who excercies likely to perform better in school?
571a7cfa4faf5e1900b8a9da
The effects of exercise on memory have important implications for improving children's academic performance
310
False
What type of excercise has shown the best benefit for the brain?
571a7cfa4faf5e1900b8a9db
aerobic exercises
43
False
Physical exercise
0
What has many cognitive drawbacks and effects on the brain?
5a8ce670fd22b3001a8d8fd8
True
running, cycling and swimming
69
What type of nonaerobic exercises have benefits on the brain?
5a8ce670fd22b3001a8d8fd9
True
increases in neurotransmitter levels, improved oxygen and nutrient delivery, and increased neurogenesis in the hippocampus
186
What negative things can happen to your brain when you excersise?
5a8ce670fd22b3001a8d8fda
True
improving children's academic performance, maintaining mental abilities in old age, and the prevention and potential cure of neurological diseases
376
The effects of exercise on memory do not have important implications for what?
5a8ce670fd22b3001a8d8fdb
True
Physical exercise
0
What causes decreased oxygen and nutrient delivery?
5a8ce670fd22b3001a8d8fdc
True
Physical exercise, particularly continuous aerobic exercises such as running, cycling and swimming, has many cognitive benefits and effects on the brain. Influences on the brain include increases in neurotransmitter levels, improved oxygen and nutrient delivery, and increased neurogenesis in the hippocampus. The effects of exercise on memory have important implications for improving children's academic performance, maintaining mental abilities in old age, and the prevention and potential cure of neurological diseases.
What can impact memory performance in a positive way?
571a88324faf5e1900b8aa28
when material is linked to the learning context,
44
False
What can the scent of vanilla be used for?
571a88324faf5e1900b8aa29
strong cue for memory.
775
False
What did a study performed by Schwabe and wolf show?
571a88324faf5e1900b8aa2a
memory impairment and the detrimental effects of stress on learning can be attenuated.
331
False
In Schwabe and wolfs study what where particpants asked to memorize?
571a88324faf5e1900b8aa2b
were asked to remember the locations of 15 pairs of picture cards –
541
False
In their study what was the relationship that both groups shared?
571a88324faf5e1900b8aa2c
both stressed and unstressed, performed faster when the learning and retrieval contexts were similar.
1363
False
when material is linked to the learning context
44
What can impact memory performance in a negative way?
5a8cead8fd22b3001a8d9012
True
cue for memory
782
What can the scent of lavender be used for?
5a8cead8fd22b3001a8d9013
True
that when retention testing is done in a context similar to or congruent with the original learning task
200
What did a study performed by Schwartz and wolf show?
5a8cead8fd22b3001a8d9014
True
Seventy-two healthy female and male university students, randomly assigned to
418
In Schwabe and wolfs study what where participants asked to forget?
5a8cead8fd22b3001a8d9015
True
SECPT stress test
500
What were seventy healthy female and male university students, randomly assigned to?
5a8cead8fd22b3001a8d9016
True
However, memory performance can be enhanced when material is linked to the learning context, even when learning occurs under stress. A separate study by cognitive psychologists Schwabe and Wolf shows that when retention testing is done in a context similar to or congruent with the original learning task (i.e., in the same room), memory impairment and the detrimental effects of stress on learning can be attenuated. Seventy-two healthy female and male university students, randomly assigned to the SECPT stress test or to a control group, were asked to remember the locations of 15 pairs of picture cards – a computerized version of the card game "Concentration" or "Memory". The room in which the experiment took place was infused with the scent of vanilla, as odour is a strong cue for memory. Retention testing took place the following day, either in the same room with the vanilla scent again present, or in a different room without the fragrance. The memory performance of subjects who experienced stress during the object-location task decreased significantly when they were tested in an unfamiliar room without the vanilla scent (an incongruent context); however, the memory performance of stressed subjects showed no impairment when they were tested in the original room with the vanilla scent (a congruent context). All participants in the experiment, both stressed and unstressed, performed faster when the learning and retrieval contexts were similar.
What can cause a person to have fake memories?
571a8a9010f8ca14003050fd
repeatedly imagine actions that they have never performed or events that they have never experienced
64
False
Who performed a study that showed the similarirty of imaginging doing something and then later remembering actually doing that task?
571a8a9010f8ca14003050fe
Goff and Roediger
211
False
What did a similar study done by Garry find?
571a8a9010f8ca14003050ff
researchers found that one-fourth of the students asked to imagine the four events reported that they had actually experienced such events as children
845
False
asked participants to imagine that they performed an act (e.g., break a toothpick) and then later asked them whether they had done such a thing
236
What did Goff and Roediger ask people to do in 1996?
5a8cee9dfd22b3001a8d9044
True
repeatedly imagine actions that they have never performed or events that they have never experienced could result in false memories
64
What can cause a person to have fake senses?
5a8cee9dfd22b3001a8d9045
True
researchers found that one-fourth of the students asked to imagine the four events reported that they had actually experienced such events as children
845
What did a similar study done by Gary Goff find?
5a8cee9dfd22b3001a8d9046
True
they were more confident that they experienced the events
1039
What happens when people are not asked to imagine events?
5a8cee9dfd22b3001a8d9047
True
Garry and her colleagues
593
Who asked students how uncertain they were that they experienced events?
5a8cee9dfd22b3001a8d9048
True
Interestingly, research has revealed that asking individuals to repeatedly imagine actions that they have never performed or events that they have never experienced could result in false memories. For instance, Goff and Roediger (1998) asked participants to imagine that they performed an act (e.g., break a toothpick) and then later asked them whether they had done such a thing. Findings revealed that those participants who repeatedly imagined performing such an act were more likely to think that they had actually performed that act during the first session of the experiment. Similarly, Garry and her colleagues (1996) asked college students to report how certain they were that they experienced a number of events as children (e.g., broke a window with their hand) and then two weeks later asked them to imagine four of those events. The researchers found that one-fourth of the students asked to imagine the four events reported that they had actually experienced such events as children. That is, when asked to imagine the events they were more confident that they experienced the events.
What has research shown about our memories?
571a8f234faf5e1900b8aa72
our memories are constructed
309
False
How does a person build their memories?
571a8f234faf5e1900b8aa73
when they encode them and/or when they recall them.
375
False
What did a study done by Elizabeth Loftus and John palmer show?
571a8f234faf5e1900b8aa74
that when people were provided with misleading information they tended to misremember, a phenomenon known as the misinformation effect.
1553
False
In their study what did people say they say when they really hadn't due to having the word "smashed" inserted into the question?
571a8f234faf5e1900b8aa75
broken glass
1121
False
that our memories are constructed
304
What has research not shown about our memories?
5a8cedddfd22b3001a8d903a
True
when they encode them and/or when they recall them
375
How does a person build their confidence?
5a8cedddfd22b3001a8d903b
True
that when people were provided with misleading information they tended to misremember
1553
What did a study done by John Loftus and Elizabeth Palmer show?
5a8cedddfd22b3001a8d903c
True
Elizabeth Loftus and John Palmer
480
Who conducted a study in 1794?
5a8cedddfd22b3001a8d903d
True
when people were provided with misleading information they tended to misremember
1558
What is known as the information effect?
5a8cedddfd22b3001a8d903e
True
Although people often think that memory operates like recording equipment, it is not the case. The molecular mechanisms underlying the induction and maintenance of memory are very dynamic and comprise distinct phases covering a time window from seconds to even a lifetime. In fact, research has revealed that our memories are constructed. People can construct their memories when they encode them and/or when they recall them. To illustrate, consider a classic study conducted by Elizabeth Loftus and John Palmer (1974) in which people were instructed to watch a film of a traffic accident and then asked about what they saw. The researchers found that the people who were asked, "How fast were the cars going when they smashed into each other?" gave higher estimates than those who were asked, "How fast were the cars going when they hit each other?" Furthermore, when asked a week later whether they have seen broken glass in the film, those who had been asked the question with smashed were twice more likely to report that they have seen broken glass than those who had been asked the question with hit. There was no broken glass depicted in the film. Thus, the wording of the questions distorted viewers’ memories of the event. Importantly, the wording of the question led people to construct different memories of the event – those who were asked the question with smashed recalled a more serious car accident than they had actually seen. The findings of this experiment were replicated around the world, and researchers consistently demonstrated that when people were provided with misleading information they tended to misremember, a phenomenon known as the misinformation effect.
What is the most widely used way in learing?
571a90034faf5e1900b8aa82
Rote learning
95
False
What does memorization mean?
571a90034faf5e1900b8aa83
a method of learning that allows an individual to recall information verbatim
16
False
What learning tool did Cosmos rosselliius write about?
571a90034faf5e1900b8aa84
using visual alphabets.
270
False
What is the spacing effect?
571a90034faf5e1900b8aa85
shows that an individual is more likely to remember a list of items when rehearsal is spaced over an extended period of time
313
False
What is the Zeigarnik effect?
571a90034faf5e1900b8aa86
states that people remember uncompleted or interrupted tasks better than completed ones.
569
False
Rote learning
95
What is the least widely used way in learning?
5a8cefc4fd22b3001a8d906c
True
a method of learning that allows an individual to recall information verbatim
16
What does memorization not mean?
5a8cefc4fd22b3001a8d906d
True
using visual alphabets
270
What learning tool did Cosmo Kramer write about?
5a8cefc4fd22b3001a8d906e
True
states that people remember uncompleted or interrupted tasks better than completed ones
569
What is the Cosmos effect?
5a8cefc4fd22b3001a8d906f
True
The so-called Method of loci
658
What uses non-spatial memory to memorize spatial information?
5a8cefc4fd22b3001a8d9070
True
Memorization is a method of learning that allows an individual to recall information verbatim. Rote learning is the method most often used. Methods of memorizing things have been the subject of much discussion over the years with some writers, such as Cosmos Rossellius using visual alphabets. The spacing effect shows that an individual is more likely to remember a list of items when rehearsal is spaced over an extended period of time. In contrast to this is cramming: an intensive memorization in a short period of time. Also relevant is the Zeigarnik effect which states that people remember uncompleted or interrupted tasks better than completed ones. The so-called Method of loci uses spatial memory to memorize non-spatial information.
Multiracial_American
When was the first federal population census taken in the US?
571a2ab710f8ca1400304f21
1790
3
False
What were the two categories for race in the census?
571a2ab710f8ca1400304f22
white or "other."
135
False
Who all was identified by name in the house holds?
571a2ab710f8ca1400304f23
Only the heads of households
153
False
What were Indians categorized as after they were included as others?
571a2ab710f8ca1400304f24
"Free people of color"
327
False
When was the first US federal population census taken?
571a94b810f8ca1400305179
In 1790, the first federal population census was taken in the United States
0
False
How were enumerators instructed to classify residents?
571a94b810f8ca140030517a
. Enumerators were instructed to classify free residents as white or "other."
75
False
Was every resident listed by name?
571a94b810f8ca140030517b
Only the heads of households were identified by name in the federal census until 1850.
153
False
Were all residents counted together or separately?
571a94b810f8ca140030517c
Slaves were counted separately from free persons
398
False
when did any changes to counting procedures  happen?
571a94b810f8ca140030517d
until the Civil War and end of slavery.
467
False
When did the US begin to take census?
571dd9b9b64a571400c71d9a
1790
3
False
At what point were all members of the household named on a census?
571dd9b9b64a571400c71d9b
1850
234
False
Who were considered "free people of color"?
571dd9b9b64a571400c71d9c
Native Americans
240
False
What does mulatto mean?
571dd9b9b64a571400c71d9d
visible European ancestry in addition to African
611
False
Where would a Native American live to not be counted in the census?
571dd9b9b64a571400c71d9e
Indian reservations
377
False
1790
3
What year was the last federal population census taken in the United States?
5ad29af4d7d075001a429bae
True
federal population census
19
What was first taken in England in 1790?
5ad29af4d7d075001a429baf
True
Free people of color
328
What were native Americans classified as if they were living on an Indian reservation?
5ad29af4d7d075001a429bb0
True
heads of households
162
Who was identified by name in the federal census after 1850?
5ad29af4d7d075001a429bb1
True
appearance
571
How were people of Asian descent classified by in later censuses?
5ad29af4d7d075001a429bb2
True
In 1790, the first federal population census was taken in the United States. Enumerators were instructed to classify free residents as white or "other." Only the heads of households were identified by name in the federal census until 1850. Native Americans were included among "Other;" in later censuses, they were included as "Free people of color" if they were not living on Indian reservations. Slaves were counted separately from free persons in all the censuses until the Civil War and end of slavery. In later censuses, people of African descent were classified by appearance as mulatto (which recognized visible European ancestry in addition to African) or black.
The Census Bureau had gone from two categories to how many by the 1990s?
571a2b9e4faf5e1900b8a8e2
more than a dozen
36
False
Why were there more immigrants in the US?
571a2b9e4faf5e1900b8a8e3
due to changing historical forces and new immigration laws in the 1960s
232
False
How had the Census Bureau changed its collection of data?
571a2b9e4faf5e1900b8a8e4
allowing people to self-identify as more than one ethnicity
453
False
What is one of the many outcomes of the Census data?
571a2b9e4faf5e1900b8a8e5
federal assistance
602
False
By 2002, what percent of African Americans had multiracial ancestries?
571a2b9e4faf5e1900b8a8e6
over 75%
729
False
How many different ethnic categories were listed on the modern census?
571a94a24faf5e1900b8aaba
By 1990, the Census Bureau included more than a dozen ethnic/racial categories on the census,
0
False
Can people self identify as more than one ethnicity on the US census currently?
571a94a24faf5e1900b8aabb
The Census Bureau changed its data collection by allowing people to self-identify as more than one ethnicity
404
False
About how many African American have multiracial ancestries
571a94a24faf5e1900b8aabc
According to the Census Bureau, as of 2002, over 75% of all African Americans had multiracial ancestries.
685
False
Do some ethnic groups have concerns about census changes?
571a94a24faf5e1900b8aabd
Some ethnic groups are concerned about the potential political and economic effects, as
514
False
How is some federal assistance allocated to certain groups?
571a94a24faf5e1900b8aabe
federal assistance to historically underserved groups has depended on Census data
602
False
Twelve or more categories for race and ethnicity were in the Census by when?
571dda9db64a571400c71da4
1990
3
False
When did laws allow for more immigrants?
571dda9db64a571400c71da5
in the 1960s
291
False
How many African Americans identify as multiracial on the Census of 2002?
571dda9db64a571400c71da6
over 75%
729
False
What type of federal assistance depends on Census data?
571dda9db64a571400c71da7
assistance to historically underserved groups
610
False
more than a dozen
36
How many ethnic/racial categories were on the census in 1980?
5ad2a241d7d075001a429cf6
True
immigrants
177
Who had come to reside in the United States due to new immigration laws in the 1940s?
5ad2a241d7d075001a429cf7
True
1960s
298
When did the United States end the new immigration laws?
5ad2a241d7d075001a429cf8
True
75
734
What percentage of white americans had multiracial ancestries?
5ad2a241d7d075001a429cf9
True
assistance to historically underserved groups
610
What kind of federal assistance does not depend on census data?
5ad2a241d7d075001a429cfa
True
By 1990, the Census Bureau included more than a dozen ethnic/racial categories on the census, reflecting not only changing social ideas about ethnicity, but the wide variety of immigrants who had come to reside in the United States due to changing historical forces and new immigration laws in the 1960s. With a changing society, more citizens have begun to press for acknowledging multiracial ancestry. The Census Bureau changed its data collection by allowing people to self-identify as more than one ethnicity. Some ethnic groups are concerned about the potential political and economic effects, as federal assistance to historically underserved groups has depended on Census data. According to the Census Bureau, as of 2002, over 75% of all African Americans had multiracial ancestries.
Americans with African ancestry have always been classified as what race?
571a2ee410f8ca1400304f3d
black (historically) or African American
200
False
What were slaves and others of African ancestry classified by what term?
571a2ee410f8ca1400304f3e
hypodescent
447
False
Melungeons are generally classified as white but what are they genetically what other races?
571a2ee410f8ca1400304f3f
European and sub-Saharan African ancestry
775
False
What did many with European ancetry "marry white" and want to be part of the white society?
571a2ee410f8ca1400304f40
for its social and economic advantages
605
False
Which Americans have been historically classified as African American or black?
571a98164faf5e1900b8aafa
Americans with Sub-Saharan African ancestry
0
False
What caused lower classification status for African Americans?
571a98164faf5e1900b8aafb
slavery became a racial caste
322
False
How did many multiracial Americans attain social and economic advantages?
571a98164faf5e1900b8aafc
Many of majority European ancestry and appearance "married white" and assimilated into white society
504
False
What is the group called who are genetically sub Saharan and European but are classified as white?
571a98164faf5e1900b8aafd
Melungeons,
691
False
What are some historical reasons multiracial Americans have been classified as black?
571a98164faf5e1900b8aafe
slavery, partus sequitur ventrem, one-eighth law, the one-drop rule of 20th-century legislation
68
False
What is Melungeon?
571ddbf65569731900639074
genetically to be of European and sub-Saharan African ancestry.
754
False
What does it mean to have "marred white"?
571ddbf65569731900639075
assimilated into white society
574
False
What were slaves and Africans classified by?
571ddbf65569731900639076
hypodescent
447
False
What were those with Sub-Saharan African ancestory classified as?
571ddbf65569731900639077
black (historically) or African American
200
False
Americans with Sub-Saharan African ancestry
0
Who has frequently been classified as Hispanic?
5ad2b2c0d7d075001a429f86
True
hypodescent
447
What were people of European ancestry classified by?
5ad2b2c0d7d075001a429f87
True
majority European ancestry
512
What kind of people assimilated into black society?
5ad2b2c0d7d075001a429f88
True
social and economic advantages
613
Why did people choose not to assimilate into white society?
5ad2b2c0d7d075001a429f89
True
Melungeons
691
What families have been demonstrated genetically to be of Asian and African ancestry?
5ad2b2c0d7d075001a429f8a
True
Americans with Sub-Saharan African ancestry for historical reasons: slavery, partus sequitur ventrem, one-eighth law, the one-drop rule of 20th-century legislation, have frequently been classified as black (historically) or African American, even if they have significant European American or Native American ancestry. As slavery became a racial caste, those who were enslaved and others of any African ancestry were classified by what is termed "hypodescent" according to the lower status ethnic group. Many of majority European ancestry and appearance "married white" and assimilated into white society for its social and economic advantages, such as generations of families identified as Melungeons, now generally classified as white but demonstrated genetically to be of European and sub-Saharan African ancestry.
When was there a period of formal racial segregation?
571a328b4faf5e1900b8a908
in the former Confederacy following the Reconstruction Era
52
False
What is the effect of there no longer being a stigma on interracial marriage?
571a328b4faf5e1900b8a909
more people are openly forming interracial unions
178
False
What has caused more people of mixed races to the US?
571a328b4faf5e1900b8a90a
Diverse immigration
371
False
Why were Americans allowed to start checking more than one box to identify their race in the Census in 200?
571a328b4faf5e1900b8a90b
Because more Americans have insisted on being allowed to acknowledge their mixed racial origins
618
False
Who was elected and was the first multiracial president of the United States?
571a328b4faf5e1900b8a90c
Barack Obama
858
False
Who was the first multiracial president elected in the US
571a9a134faf5e1900b8ab1a
In 2008 Barack Obama was elected as the first multiracial President of the United States
850
False
When did the US begin to experience a growing multiracial identity movement?
571a9a134faf5e1900b8ab1b
Since the 1980s, the United States has had a growing multiracial identity movement
517
False
When did the US census start to allow residents to mark more than one ethno-racial identity on the census form?
571a9a134faf5e1900b8ab1c
the 2000 census for the first time allowed residents to check more than one ethno-racial identity and thereby identify as multiracial
715
False
What has brought more mixed race people to the US?
571a9a134faf5e1900b8ab1d
. Diverse immigration has brought more mixed-race people into the United States
369
False
Who are "mestizos"?
571a9a134faf5e1900b8ab1e
large population of Hispanics identifying as mestizos
462
False
What was it once considered socially advantageous to do?
571ddd93b64a571400c71dac
try to "pass" as white
347
False
What is an example of the multiracial identity movement at work?
571ddd93b64a571400c71dad
Loving Day
605
False
What does the first multiracial president identify as?
571ddd93b64a571400c71dae
African American
999
False
When did the census begin allowing multiple boxes to be checked?
571ddd93b64a571400c71daf
2000
719
False
When was an African American president elected?
571ddd93b64a571400c71db0
2008
853
False
forming interracial unions
201
What are less people openly doing than in the past?
5ad293c4d7d075001a429ae6
True
Diverse immigration
371
What has brought more single-race people into the United States?
5ad293c4d7d075001a429ae7
True
multiracial identity movement
570
What movement did the United States have before the 1980s?
5ad293c4d7d075001a429ae8
True
2000
719
What year was the last census that allowed residents to check more than one ethno-racial identity?
5ad293c4d7d075001a429ae9
True
Barack Obama
858
Who was the last multiracial President of the United States?
5ad293c4d7d075001a429aea
True
After a lengthy period of formal racial segregation in the former Confederacy following the Reconstruction Era, and bans on interracial marriage in various parts of the country, more people are openly forming interracial unions. In addition, social conditions have changed and many multiracial people do not believe it is socially advantageous to try to "pass" as white. Diverse immigration has brought more mixed-race people into the United States, such as the large population of Hispanics identifying as mestizos. Since the 1980s, the United States has had a growing multiracial identity movement (cf. Loving Day). Because more Americans have insisted on being allowed to acknowledge their mixed racial origins, the 2000 census for the first time allowed residents to check more than one ethno-racial identity and thereby identify as multiracial. In 2008 Barack Obama was elected as the first multiracial President of the United States; he acknowledges both sides of his family and identifies as African American.
What were put in place to prevent the mix of races?
571a441a10f8ca1400304f93
Anti-miscegenation laws
0
False
Why did the anti-miscegenation not insure that there was no interracial mixing?
571a441a10f8ca1400304f94
white men from taking slave women as concubines and having multiracial children with them
174
False
Where was there greater numbers of Latinos and Asian residents?
571a441a10f8ca1400304f95
In California and the western US
265
False
What races were prohibited from official relationships with whites?
571a441a10f8ca1400304f96
Latino and Asian residents
329
False
When were the laws against marriage between Asians and Europeans lifted?
571a441a10f8ca1400304f97
1950s
518
False
When were anti-miscegenation laws passed?
571a9c0e10f8ca14003051a9
Anti-miscegenation laws were passed in most states during the 18th, 19th and early 20th centuries
0
False
Did these laws change behavior of white slaveholders and other powerful white men?
571a9c0e10f8ca14003051aa
this did not prevent white slaveholders, their sons, or other powerful white men from taking slave women as concubines
103
False
Which region has greater numbers of Latino and Asian residents?
571a9c0e10f8ca14003051ab
In California and the western US,
265
False
Were there any laws against marriage between whites and Asians in the US?
571a9c0e10f8ca14003051ac
White legislators passed laws prohibiting marriage between European and Asian Americans until the 1950s.
420
False
Were Latino residents also prohibited from marrying whites?
571a9c0e10f8ca14003051ad
were prohibited from official relationships with whites.
363
False
In the western US, who were not allowed to have relationships with whites?
571dde31b64a571400c71db6
Latino and Asian residents
329
False
When did laws stop banning marriage between whites and asians?
571dde31b64a571400c71db7
the 1950s
514
False
Who were taking slaves as concubines?
571dde31b64a571400c71db8
white slaveholders, their sons, or other powerful white men
124
False
Anti-miscegenation laws
0
What laws were passed in the 21st century?
5ad297a8d7d075001a429b20
True
white men
174
Who refused to take slave women as concubines?
5ad297a8d7d075001a429b21
True
California
268
Where in the US were there smaller numbers of Asian and Latino residents?
5ad297a8d7d075001a429b22
True
Latino and Asian residents
329
Who was permitted to have official relationships with whites?
5ad297a8d7d075001a429b23
True
marriage between European and Asian Americans
462
What was prohibited after the 1950s?
5ad297a8d7d075001a429b24
True
Anti-miscegenation laws were passed in most states during the 18th, 19th and early 20th centuries, but this did not prevent white slaveholders, their sons, or other powerful white men from taking slave women as concubines and having multiracial children with them. In California and the western US, there were greater numbers of Latino and Asian residents. These were prohibited from official relationships with whites. White legislators passed laws prohibiting marriage between European and Asian Americans until the 1950s.
When did the numbers of free people of color increase dramatically?
571a481910f8ca1400304fb5
After the American Revolutionary War
0
False
How were the laws in New York abolished?
571a481910f8ca1400304fb6
in programs of gradual emancipation
222
False
How long did it take for states like New York to abolish all slave laws?
571a481910f8ca1400304fb7
more than two decades to be completed
268
False
Who in the south were urging their churches to free their slaves in the south?
571a481910f8ca1400304fb8
Quaker and Methodist preachers
409
False
When were the last slaves freed in New York state?
571a9d964faf5e1900b8ab32
The last slaves in New York were not freed until 1827.
307
False
Who implored slaveholders to free their slaves?
571a9d964faf5e1900b8ab33
Quaker and Methodist preachers in the South urged slaveholders to free their slaves
409
False
What caused many slaveholder to free their slaves?
571a9d964faf5e1900b8ab34
Revolutionary ideals led many men to free their slaves
494
False
How much did the percentage of free people in the South change from 1782 to 1810?
571a9d964faf5e1900b8ab35
the percentage of free people of color rose from less than one percent to nearly 10 percent of blacks in the South.
610
False
When did the number of free people of color begin to increase in the North and South?
571a9d964faf5e1900b8ab36
After the American Revolutionary War
0
False
What is it called when it takes several years for slaves to be freed in a program?
571ddf15556973190063907c
gradual emancipation
237
False
The last slave in New York was freed when?
571ddf15556973190063907d
1827
356
False
What caused Quaker and Methodist preachers to want to free slaves?
571ddf15556973190063907e
Second Great Awakening
385
False
In 1810, how many black people were considered free?
571ddf15556973190063907f
nearly 10 percent
684
False
What caused many men to free slaves from 1782 to 1810?
571ddf155569731900639080
Revolutionary ideals
494
False
increased markedly
88
What happened to the number of free people of color before the Revolutionary War?
5ad29c2ed7d075001a429bec
True
abolished slavery
177
What did only a few northern states do?
5ad29c2ed7d075001a429bed
True
1827
356
When were the first slaves in New York freed?
5ad29c2ed7d075001a429bee
True
Quaker and Methodist preachers
409
Who urged slaveholders in the South not to free their slaves?
5ad29c2ed7d075001a429bef
True
10
691
What percentage of blacks in the south were free people of color after 1810?
5ad29c2ed7d075001a429bf0
True
After the American Revolutionary War, the number and proportion of free people of color increased markedly in the North and the South as slaves were freed. Most northern states abolished slavery, sometimes, like New York, in programs of gradual emancipation that took more than two decades to be completed. The last slaves in New York were not freed until 1827. In connection with the Second Great Awakening, Quaker and Methodist preachers in the South urged slaveholders to free their slaves. Revolutionary ideals led many men to free their slaves, some by deed and others by will, so that from 1782 to 1810, the percentage of free people of color rose from less than one percent to nearly 10 percent of blacks in the South.
What is the one-drop rule?
571a48dd10f8ca1400304fcd
defining as black, persons with any known African ancestry
160
False
What did some courts call the one-drop rule?
571a48dd10f8ca1400304fce
"the traceable amount rule."
469
False
What is a hypodesecnt rule?
571a48dd10f8ca1400304fcf
meaning that racially mixed persons were assigned the status of the socially subordinate group
558
False
When was the one-drop rule in effect?
571a48dd10f8ca1400304fd0
in the early 20th century
71
False
What is the one-drop rule?
571aa01210f8ca14003051d3
black, persons with any known African ancestry.
172
False
What is the hypodescent rule?
571aa01210f8ca14003051d4
racially mixed persons were assigned the status of the socially subordinate group.
571
False
Why were laws like the one drop rule enacted?
571aa01210f8ca14003051d5
In their attempt to ensure white supremacy decades after emancipation
0
False
What made the one drop rule stricter than rules in the 19th century?
571aa01210f8ca14003051d6
it ignored the many mixed families in the state and went against commonly accepted social rules of judging a person by appearance and association.
300
False
In the early 1900s, what was did black mean in southern states?
571ddffdb64a571400c71dbc
persons with any known African ancestry
179
False
Prior to the 1900s, what was the socially accepted rule for racial interpretation?
571ddffdb64a571400c71dbd
judging a person by appearance and association.
399
False
What rule means multiracial people are given status of the socially subordinate group?
571ddffdb64a571400c71dbe
a hypodescent rule
538
False
What was the rule used in law in the 1900s called?
571ddffdb64a571400c71dbf
the one-drop rule
141
False
What was the rule in the 1800s called?
571ddffdb64a571400c71dc0
the traceable amount rule
470
False
created laws based on the one-drop rule
119
What did southern states do to stop white supremacy?
5ad2bec5d7d075001a42a0ca
True
laws based on the one-drop rule
127
What laws did the northern states create in the early 20th century?
5ad2bec5d7d075001a42a0cb
True
persons with any known African ancestry
179
What did the one-drop rule define as white?
5ad2bec5d7d075001a42a0cc
True
the traceable amount rule
470
What was not a name that was used for the one-drop rule?
5ad2bec5d7d075001a42a0cd
True
hypodescent
540
What kind of rule did lawyers say the one-drop rule was an example of?
5ad2bec5d7d075001a42a0ce
True
In their attempt to ensure white supremacy decades after emancipation, in the early 20th century, most southern states created laws based on the one-drop rule, defining as black, persons with any known African ancestry. This was a stricter interpretation than what had prevailed in the 19th century; it ignored the many mixed families in the state and went against commonly accepted social rules of judging a person by appearance and association. Some courts called it "the traceable amount rule." Anthropologists called it an example of a hypodescent rule, meaning that racially mixed persons were assigned the status of the socially subordinate group.
Before the mid-20th century were people open about their muticultural heritage and why or why not?
571a8c4810f8ca140030510e
Prior to the mid-20th century, many people hid their multiracial heritage because of racial discrimination against minorities.
754
False
Are all muticultural Americans aware of their cultural heritage?
571a8c4810f8ca140030510f
While many Americans may be biologically multiracial, they often do not know it
881
False
Approximentally how many Americans identified themselves as multiracial in the 2010 US census?
571a94b04faf5e1900b8aac4
In the 2010 US census, approximately 9 million individuals, or 2.9% of the population, self-identified as multiracial.
230
False
What is the accepted definition of "multicultural" ancestry?
571a94b04faf5e1900b8aac5
Multiracial Americans are Americans who have mixed ancestry of "two or more races".
0
False
Why did muticultural Americans hid their heritage?
571a94b04faf5e1900b8aac6
Prior to the mid-20th century, many people hid their multiracial heritage because of racial discrimination against minorities
754
False
Are all multicultural Americans aware of their heritage?
571a94b04faf5e1900b8aac7
While many Americans may be biologically multiracial, they often do not know it
881
False
Which cultural do multicultural people usually identify with?
571a94b04faf5e1900b8aac8
, generally that of the culture in which they were raised.
695
False
What are people most likely to identify themselves as?
571da1b05569731900639059
the culture in which they were raised
715
False
Would DNA show a higher number or lower number of mutliracial people than those reported in the census?
571da1b0556973190063905a
higher number
422
False
What does it mean to be a mutliracial?
571dd9035569731900639060
two or more races
64
False
How many multiracial people in the US were there in 2010?
571dd9035569731900639061
approximately 9 million individuals
253
False
When did people stop hiding mutliracial heritage?
571dd9035569731900639063
the mid-20th century
763
False
9 million
267
How many individuals identified as multiracial in the 2000 US census?
5ad292abd7d075001a429ac2
True
2.9
293
What percentage of the population did not identify as multiracial?
5ad292abd7d075001a429ac3
True
accounting by genetic ancestry
375
What would most likely produce a lower number of multiracial people?
5ad292abd7d075001a429ac4
True
slavery
537
What often led to people identifying or being classified by multiple ethnicities?
5ad292abd7d075001a429ac5
True
hid
797
What did many people do with their multiracial identities after the mid-20th century?
5ad292abd7d075001a429ac6
True
Multiracial Americans are Americans who have mixed ancestry of "two or more races". The term may also include Americans of mixed-race ancestry who self-identify with just one group culturally and socially (cf. the one-drop rule). In the 2010 US census, approximately 9 million individuals, or 2.9% of the population, self-identified as multiracial. There is evidence that an accounting by genetic ancestry would produce a higher number, but people live according to social and cultural identities, not DNA. Historical reasons, including slavery creating a racial caste and the European-American suppression of Native Americans, often led people to identify or be classified by only one ethnicity, generally that of the culture in which they were raised. Prior to the mid-20th century, many people hid their multiracial heritage because of racial discrimination against minorities. While many Americans may be biologically multiracial, they often do not know it or do not identify so culturally, any more than they maintain all the differing traditions of a variety of national ancestries.
What occured from 1955 to 1968?
571de14eb64a571400c71dc6
The African-American Civil Rights Movement
308
False
How much of the population identified as mixed race in the 2000s?
571de14eb64a571400c71dc7
less than 5%
551
False
What is race sometimes seen as?
571de14eb64a571400c71dc8
a social construct
213
False
Who are descendents of various culturally distinct groups?
571de14eb64a571400c71dc9
The American people
0
False
What does affect recent identification in many cases?
571de14eb64a571400c71dca
mixed racial ancestry
628
False
culturally distinct immigrant groups
67
What are the English people mostly descendants of?
5ad29605d7d075001a429b04
True
1955–1968
352
When did the Hispanic Civil Rights Movement occur?
5ad29605d7d075001a429b05
True
less than 5%
551
How much of the population identified as multiracial before the 2000s?
5ad29605d7d075001a429b06
True
a social construct
213
What is race not acknowledged as?
5ad29605d7d075001a429b07
True
social justice
440
What did social movements from before the mid-twentieth century work to achieve?
5ad29605d7d075001a429b08
True
The American people are mostly multi-ethnic descendants of various culturally distinct immigrant groups, many of which have now developed nations. Some consider themselves multiracial, while acknowledging race as a social construct. Creolization, assimilation and integration have been continuing processes. The African-American Civil Rights Movement (1955–1968) and other social movements since the mid-twentieth century worked to achieve social justice and equal enforcement of civil rights under the constitution for all ethnicities. In the 2000s, less than 5% of the population identified as multiracial. In many instances, mixed racial ancestry is so far back in an individual's family history (for instance, before the Civil War or earlier), that it does not affect more recent ethnic and cultural identification.
Who were considered "white Indians"?
571de2575569731900639086
Europeans living among Indigenous Americans
5
False
Who had Indigenous "Country wives"?
571de2575569731900639087
Some traders
384
False
Who lived in native communities, speaking the language and participating in the affairs of tribes?
571de2575569731900639088
"white Indians"
61
False
Why were some multiracial children sent to Europe?
571de2575569731900639089
for their education
680
False
Where were legal wives usually kept?
571de257556973190063908a
in the city
549
False
white Indians
62
What were Indigenous Americans living among Europeans called?
5ad2c640d7d075001a42a1b2
True
traders and trappers
268
Who was less numerous than "white indians"?
5ad2c640d7d075001a42a1b3
True
traders and trappers
268
Who married Indigenous American men?
5ad2c640d7d075001a42a1b4
True
cities
420
Where did Indigenous Americans keep bases?
5ad2c640d7d075001a42a1b5
True
sons
635
Who was sent to Indigenous American schools for their education?
5ad2c640d7d075001a42a1b6
True
Some Europeans living among Indigenous Americans were called "white Indians". They "lived in native communities for years, learned native languages fluently, attended native councils, and often fought alongside their native companions." More numerous and typical were traders and trappers, who married Indigenous American women from tribes on the frontier and had families with them. Some traders, who kept bases in the cities, had what ware called "country wives" among Indigenous Americans, with legal European-American wives and children at home in the city. Not all abandoned their "natural" mixed-race children. Some arranged for sons to be sent to European-American schools for their education.
When could white women and black men be in a union?
571de30db64a571400c71dd0
In the colonial years
0
False
Where did 80% of free people of color in NC come from?
571de30db64a571400c71dd1
Virginia in colonial years
502
False
What is Paul Heinegg?
571de30db64a571400c71dd2
scholar
346
False
What censuses did he study?
571de30db64a571400c71dd3
from 1790–1810
451
False
African men
102
Who made unions with African women during the colonial years?
5ad299e9d7d075001a429b8a
True
born free
212
What happened to mixed-race children from mothers who were enslaved?
5ad299e9d7d075001a429b8b
True
Virginia in colonial years
502
What can eighty percent of enslaved people of color in North Carolina be traced to?
5ad299e9d7d075001a429b8c
True
eighty
378
What percentage of free people of color in Virginia can be traced to families in North Carolina?
5ad299e9d7d075001a429b8d
True
white women
57
Who made unions with African men after the colonial years?
5ad299e9d7d075001a429b8e
True
In the colonial years, while conditions were more fluid, white women, indentured servant or free, and African men, servant, slave or free, made unions. Because the women were free, their mixed-race children were born free; they and their descendants formed most of the families of free people of color during the colonial period in Virginia. The scholar Paul Heinegg found that eighty percent of the free people of color in North Carolina in censuses from 1790–1810 could be traced to families free in Virginia in colonial years.
Who were not identified by name on the census before the civil war?
571de3ebb64a571400c71dd8
slaves
263
False
Who was Thomas Jefferson in a relationship with?
571de3ebb64a571400c71dd9
Sally Hemings
516
False
Not recognizing white fatherhood for multiracial slave children cause what to be lost?
571de3ebb64a571400c71dda
paternity
598
False
Who will not reveal full ancestral data to mixed race people?
571de3ebb64a571400c71ddb
elder family members
89
False
people of mixed African-American and Native American descent
10
What people report having elder family members who were open with genealogical information?
5ad2b36bd7d075001a429f90
True
Tracing the genealogy of African Americans
158
What is usually a very easy process?
5ad2b36bd7d075001a429f91
True
censuses
237
What identified slaves by name before the American Civil War?
5ad2b36bd7d075001a429f92
True
white fathers
404
Who acknowledged their mixed-race slave children in records?
5ad2b36bd7d075001a429f93
True
Sally Hemings
516
Who was John Adams in a relationship with?
5ad2b36bd7d075001a429f94
True
Sometimes people of mixed African-American and Native American descent report having had elder family members withholding pertinent genealogical information. Tracing the genealogy of African Americans can be a very difficult process, as censuses did not identify slaves by name before the American Civil War, meaning that most African Americans did not appear by name in those records. In addition, many white fathers who used slave women sexually, even those in long-term relationships like Thomas Jefferson's with Sally Hemings, did not acknowledge their mixed-race slave children in records, so paternity was lost.
Who brought Christian missionaries to Hawaii?
571de4b45569731900639090
traders
90
False
What cause royal Hawaiian females to find themselves ugly?
571de4b45569731900639091
the Anglo-Saxon presence
136
False
What are some examples of how a noble person should look before Christians came?
571de4b45569731900639092
dark skin and ample bodies
348
False
What did westerners call the women of Hawaii?
571de4b45569731900639093
Hawaiian squaws
579
False
When would white men marry the paler and thinner Hawaiian ladies?
571de4b45569731900639094
By the last half of the 19th century
597
False
the Hawaiian islands
101
Where did Christian missionaries follow traders before the 1800s?
5ad2d11ed7d075001a42a34c
True
traders
90
Who followed Christian missionaries to the Hawaiian Islands?
5ad2d11ed7d075001a42a34d
True
Anglo-Saxon presence
140
What positively impacted the level of regard Hawaiian royal women held for their own indigenous looks?
5ad2d11ed7d075001a42a34e
True
centuries prior
263
What was dark skin no longer considered a sign of nobility?
5ad2d11ed7d075001a42a34f
True
last half of the 19th century
604
When did European women start marrying Hawaiian men?
5ad2d11ed7d075001a42a350
True
During the 1800s Christian missionaries from Great Britain and the United States followed traders to the Hawaiian islands. Long-termly, the Anglo-Saxon presence negatively impacted the level of regard Hawaiian royal women held for their own indigenous looks. For centuries prior the arrival of Christians, first nation Hawaiian aesthetics, such as dark skin and ample bodies, had been considered signs of nobility. No matter how much they adapted their mannerisms to Western standard, some of the Anglo-Saxon missionaries were relentless in referring to the indigenous women as "Hawaiian squaws." By the last half of the 19th century, some Hawaiian women began marrying European men who found them exotic. The men, however, selected Hawaiian women who were thinner and paler in complexion.
Who are blamed in this paragraph for Jim Crow laws?
571de5e2556973190063909a
white Democrats
576
False
When did Virginia add the one drop rule to their laws?
571de5e2556973190063909b
1924
136
False
What fact was ignored by enacting one-drop rule laws?
571de5e2556973190063909c
that many whites had multiracial ancestry.
299
False
Why were laws limiting people of color passed?
571de5e2556973190063909d
to restore white supremacy
646
False
What had popularity in the early 20th century that caused rising racial discrimination?
571de5e2556973190063909e
eugenics and ideas of racial purity
232
False
Racial discrimination
0
What continued to be enacted in new laws in the 21st century?
5ad29f56d7d075001a429c68
True
Virginia
125
What state enacted the two-drop rule?
5ad29f56d7d075001a429c69
True
Similar
374
What kind of laws had been proposed and passed in the late 19th century in South Carolina?
5ad29f56d7d075001a429c6a
True
white Democrats
576
Who gained political power in the south by enfranchising blacks?
5ad29f56d7d075001a429c6b
True
1960s
726
In what years did democrats pass laws to impose Jim Crow?
5ad29f56d7d075001a429c6c
True
Racial discrimination continued to be enacted in new laws in the 20th century, for instance the one-drop rule was enacted in Virginia's 1924 Racial Integrity Law and in other southern states, in part influenced by the popularity of eugenics and ideas of racial purity. People buried fading memories that many whites had multiracial ancestry. Many families were multiracial. Similar laws had been proposed but not passed in the late nineteenth century in South Carolina and Virginia, for instance. After regaining political power in Southern states by disenfranchising blacks, white Democrats passed laws to impose Jim Crow and racial segregation to restore white supremacy. They maintained these until forced to change in the 1960s and after by enforcement of federal legislation authorizing oversight of practices to protect the constitutional rights of African Americans and other minority citizens.
A person is not a member of a racial minority if ancetry does not what?
571de6c155697319006390a4
exceed one-fourth
926
False
Who are consdered to have the most physical differences?
571de6c155697319006390a5
African blacks and whites
785
False
What are groups other than blacks considered to be?
571de6c155697319006390a6
less threatening to whites
830
False
passing as white
25
What is easy to explain to people in other countries?
5ad2d491d7d075001a42a3d4
True
physical differences
756
What is considered more threatening to African blacks?
5ad2d491d7d075001a42a3d5
True
[W]hen ancestry in one of these racial minority groups does not exceed one-fourth
862
When is a person defined solely as a member of a racial minority?
5ad2d491d7d075001a42a3d6
True
foreign students
92
Who is it easy to explain "passing as white" to?
5ad2d491d7d075001a42a3d7
True
The phenomenon known as "passing as white" is difficult to explain in other countries or to foreign students. Typical questions are: "Shouldn't Americans say that a person who is passing as white is white, or nearly all white, and has previously been passing as black?" or "To be consistent, shouldn't you say that someone who is one-eighth white is passing as black?" ... A person who is one-fourth or less American Indian or Korean or Filipino is not regarded as passing if he or she intermarries with and joins fully the life of the dominant community, so the minority ancestry need not be hidden. ... It is often suggested that the key reason for this is that the physical differences between these other groups and whites are less pronounced than the physical differences between African blacks and whites, and therefore are less threatening to whites. ... [W]hen ancestry in one of these racial minority groups does not exceed one-fourth, a person is not defined solely as a member of that group.
Who says genetic tests can't tell the difference between different Native American nations?
571de760b64a571400c71de0
Geneticists
154
False
What are geneticists looking for?
571de760b64a571400c71de1
the pattern of markers
111
False
What is there genetic evidence of?
571de760b64a571400c71de2
three major migrations into North America
309
False
members of differing cultural Native American nations
224
What can DNA testing distinguish between?
5ad2bb34d7d075001a42a076
True
genetic
288
What kind of evidence is there for recent historic differentiation?
5ad2bb34d7d075001a42a077
True
not all Native Americans have been tested
415
How do scientists know that Native Americans have only the genetic markers they have identified?
5ad2bb34d7d075001a42a078
True
Geneticists
154
Who does not acknowledge that DNA testing cannot yet distinguish among members of differing cultural Native American nations?
5ad2bb34d7d075001a42a079
True
three
309
How many minor migrations into North America is there evidence for?
5ad2bb34d7d075001a42a07a
True
Population testing is still being done. Some Native American groups that have been sampled may not have shared the pattern of markers being searched for. Geneticists acknowledge that DNA testing cannot yet distinguish among members of differing cultural Native American nations. There is genetic evidence for three major migrations into North America, but not for more recent historic differentiation. In addition, not all Native Americans have been tested, so scientists do not know for sure that Native Americans have only the genetic markers they have identified.
How do some mixed raced people feel?
571de7edb64a571400c71de6
marginalized by U.S. society
34
False
How many racial choices are there on standardized tests?
571de7edb64a571400c71de7
Typically, about five race choices
232
False
How many race choices may someone check?
571de7edb64a571400c71de8
only one
309
False
What does the "other" box do?
571de7edb64a571400c71de9
groups together individuals of many different multiracial types
373
False
When do mixed race individuals feel marginalized?
571de7edb64a571400c71dea
when applying to schools or for a job
77
False
multiracial individuals
5
Who feels marginalized by Canadian society?
5ad2afd7d7d075001a429f10
True
standardized tests
131
What usually has about 10 race choices?
5ad2afd7d7d075001a429f11
True
groups together individuals of many different multiracial types
373
What does the "other" box avoid?
5ad2afd7d7d075001a429f12
True
applying to schools or for a job
82
When do single race people feel marginalized?
5ad2afd7d7d075001a429f13
True
applying to schools
82
When do multiracial individuals feel important in U.S. society?
5ad2afd7d7d075001a429f14
True
Some multiracial individuals feel marginalized by U.S. society. For example, when applying to schools or for a job, or when taking standardized tests, Americans are sometimes asked to check boxes corresponding to race or ethnicity. Typically, about five race choices are given, with the instruction to "check only one." While some surveys offer an "other" box, this choice groups together individuals of many different multiracial types (ex: European Americans/African-Americans are grouped with Asian/Native American Indians).
What usually played a larger role than laws regarding a person's race?
571de890b64a571400c71df0
social acceptance
99
False
Where did people not ask about racial background?
571de890b64a571400c71df1
frontier areas
222
False
What were the hallmarks of free citizens?
571de890b64a571400c71df2
they served in the militia and voted
334
False
Whos acceptance decided inheritance issues?
571de890b64a571400c71df3
neighbors
588
False
different states
28
What had different laws regarding color after the one-drop rule?
5ad2bf7ed7d075001a42a0d4
True
social acceptance
99
What played the smallest role in how a person was perceived?
5ad2bf7ed7d075001a42a0d5
True
frontier
222
In what areas were there the most questions about origins?
5ad2bf7ed7d075001a42a0d6
True
how people performed
304
What was not a factor in how communities looked at people?
5ad2bf7ed7d075001a42a0d7
True
litigation outcomes
520
What was never based on how people were accepted by their neighbors?
5ad2bf7ed7d075001a42a0d8
True
Prior to the one-drop rule, different states had different laws regarding color. More importantly, social acceptance often played a bigger role in how a person was perceived and how identity was construed than any law. In frontier areas, there were fewer questions about origins. The community looked at how people performed, whether they served in the militia and voted, which were the responsibilities and signs of free citizens. When questions about racial identity arose because of inheritance issues, for instance, litigation outcomes often were based on how people were accepted by neighbors.
The President's father is from what country?
571de95b55697319006390aa
Kenya
225
False
What community still has some effects of slavery?
571de95b55697319006390ab
American slave descendant community
653
False
What must Africans who recently immigrated do?
571de95b55697319006390ac
recognize their own unique ancestral backgrounds
740
False
Who argue for a term other than African American to describe recent immigrants?
571de95b55697319006390ad
some black writers
232
False
increased
101
What happened to the number of African and Caribbean ethnic African immigrants before the 20th century?
5ad2c356d7d075001a42a128
True
African and Caribbean ethnic African immigrants
48
Who has immigrated more to Canada since the late 20th century?
5ad2c356d7d075001a42a129
True
black writers
237
Who has argued that new terms for recent immigrants should not be used?
5ad2c356d7d075001a42a12a
True
new terms
268
What have white writers argued are needed for recent immigrants?
5ad2c356d7d075001a42a12b
True
recent ethnic African immigrants
699
Who do black writers say should not recognize their own unique ancestral backgrounds?
5ad2c356d7d075001a42a12c
True
Since the late twentieth century, the number of African and Caribbean ethnic African immigrants have increased in the United States. Together with publicity about the ancestry of President Barack Obama, whose father was from Kenya, some black writers have argued that new terms are needed for recent immigrants. They suggest that the term "African-American" should refer strictly to the descendants of African slaves and free people of color who survived the slavery era in the United States. They argue that grouping together all ethnic Africans regardless of their unique ancestral circumstances would deny the lingering effects of slavery within the American slave descendant community. They say recent ethnic African immigrants need to recognize their own unique ancestral backgrounds.
When did multiracial people start to organize for more inclusive racial identifiers?
571dea26b64a571400c71df8
In the 1980s
0
False
What was the response to the idea of identifying people as biracial or multiracial?
571dea26b64a571400c71df9
mostly negative
325
False
What could have cause loss of power via the use of the term biracial and multiracial?
571dea26b64a571400c71dfa
if African Americans reduced their numbers by self-identification
604
False
Who are some of the opponents of biracial and multiracial as identifiers?
571dea26b64a571400c71dfb
Congresswoman Diane Watson and Congressman Augustus Hawkins
427
False
a more inclusive term
93
What did parents of mixed race children lobby for before the 1980s?
5ad2b8f4d7d075001a42a04a
True
mostly negative
325
What was the response from the public like when the U.S. government proposed dropping the category of "bi-racial"?
5ad2b8f4d7d075001a42a04b
True
Diane Watson
441
What political leader was vocally in favor of the multiracial category?
5ad2b8f4d7d075001a42a04c
True
loss of political and economic power
567
Why was Diane Watson in favor of the multiracial category?
5ad2b8f4d7d075001a42a04d
True
self-identification
650
What is a way African Americans could increase their numbers?
5ad2b8f4d7d075001a42a04e
True
In the 1980s, parents of mixed-race children began to organize and lobby for the addition of a more inclusive term of racial designation that would reflect the heritage of their children. When the U.S. government proposed the addition of the category of "bi-racial" or "multiracial" in 1988, the response from the public was mostly negative. Some African-American organizations, and African-American political leaders, such as Congresswoman Diane Watson and Congressman Augustus Hawkins, were particularly vocal in their rejection of the category, as they feared the loss of political and economic power if African Americans reduced their numbers by self-identification.
What determined a child's social identity?
571deae4b64a571400c71e00
the tribe's kinship system
63
False
What heritage system do Southeast tribes use?
571deae4b64a571400c71e01
matrilineal
101
False
What were multiracial children with a tribal mother considered to be in tribes of the Southeast?
571deae4b64a571400c71e02
Indian
207
False
What race did the Omaha view a multiracial child with a white father to be?
571deae4b64a571400c71e03
white
463
False
tribe's kinship system
67
What did not determine the social identity of the children?
5ad2c70ed7d075001a42a1d0
True
accepted as and identified as Indian
177
What was the status of mixed race children in the tribes of the Northwest?
5ad2c70ed7d075001a42a1d1
True
white
463
What was the child of a white woman and a Omaha man considered?
5ad2c70ed7d075001a42a1d2
True
Omaha
386
Who would not protect mixed-race children and their mothers?
5ad2c70ed7d075001a42a1d3
True
children
542
Who could formally belong to the tribe if they were adopted by a woman?
5ad2c70ed7d075001a42a1d4
True
The social identity of the children was strongly determined by the tribe's kinship system. Among the matrilineal tribes of the Southeast, the mixed-race children generally were accepted as and identified as Indian, as they gained their social status from their mother's clans and tribes, and often grew up with their mothers and their male relatives. By contrast, among the patrilineal Omaha, for example, the child of a white man and Omaha woman was considered "white"; such mixed-race children and their mothers would be protected, but the children could formally belong to the tribe as members only if adopted by a man.
Who was a doctor?
571debb355697319006390b2
Charles Eastman
226
False
Who was the doctor related to?
571debb355697319006390b3
Seth Eastman
556
False
Who did the relative of the doctor marry?
571debb355697319006390b4
Sioux woman
633
False
Who met their husbands at the Hampton institute?
571debb355697319006390b5
three European-American middle-class female teachers
26
False
What tribe was Eastman related to?
571debb355697319006390b6
Sioux
271
False
three
26
How many African-American teachers married Indigenous American men they had met at Hampton Institute?
5ad2cb64d7d075001a42a284
True
Elaine Goodale
328
What was the name of the woman Seth Eastman married?
5ad2cb64d7d075001a42a285
True
Charles Eastman
226
Who was a lawyer of European and Sioux ancestry?
5ad2cb64d7d075001a42a286
True
Sioux woman
633
Who did Seth Eastman have a son with?
5ad2cb64d7d075001a42a287
True
Fort Snelling
692
Where was Seth Eastman stationed in South Dakota?
5ad2cb64d7d075001a42a288
True
In the late 19th century, three European-American middle-class female teachers married Indigenous American men they had met at Hampton Institute during the years when it ran its Indian program. In the late nineteenth century, Charles Eastman, a physician of European and Sioux ancestry who trained at Boston University, married Elaine Goodale, a European-American woman from New England. They met and worked together in Dakota Territory when she was Superintendent of Indian Education and he was a doctor for the reservations. His maternal grandfather was Seth Eastman, an artist and Army officer from New England, who had married a Sioux woman and had a daughter with her while stationed at Fort Snelling in Minnesota.
Who said many African Americans have NAtive American heritage?
571df107b64a571400c71e14
Sherrel W. Stewart
11
False
Who disproved Sherrel's hypothesis?
571df107b64a571400c71e15
genetic researchers who have done extensive population mapping studies
135
False
Who hosts a TV series on the genetic history of African Americans?
571df107b64a571400c71e16
Henry Louis Gates
273
False
Sherrel W. Stewart
11
What writer asserted that very few African Americans have significant Native American heritage?
5ad2ba2ad7d075001a42a06c
True
African Americans
54
Who do genetic researchers claim have significant Native American heritage?
5ad2ba2ad7d075001a42a06d
True
Henry Louis Gates, Jr.
273
Who hosted a TV series on Asian American ancestry?
5ad2ba2ad7d075001a42a06e
True
high rate of Native American admixture
434
What popular belief is supported by the data that has been collected?
5ad2ba2ad7d075001a42a06f
True
significant Native American heritage
77
What do genetic researches believe most African Americans have?
5ad2ba2ad7d075001a42a070
True
The writer Sherrel W. Stewart's assertion that "most" African Americans have significant Native American heritage, is not supported by genetic researchers who have done extensive population mapping studies. The TV series on African-American ancestry, hosted by the scholar Henry Louis Gates, Jr., had genetics scholars who discussed in detail the variety of ancestries among African Americans. They noted there is popular belief in a high rate of Native American admixture that is not supported by the data that has been collected. (Reference is coming)
What jobs did the earliest Europeans who mingled with natives hold?
571df27ab64a571400c71e1a
explorers and soldiers
133
False
Who started marrying or having unions with native women after settlment increased?
571df27ab64a571400c71e1b
traders and fur trappers
231
False
Why did Chesapeake Bay colonists begin to buy slaves?
571df27ab64a571400c71e1c
a continuing, critical labor shortage
345
False
Who first imported slaves to New York?
571df27ab64a571400c71e1d
the Dutch
604
False
Who freed some of the early slaves?
571df27ab64a571400c71e1e
their masters
667
False
Interracial relationships
0
What has a long history in Europe?
5ad298a2d7d075001a429b4c
True
European explorers
124
Who did native men take as companions?
5ad298a2d7d075001a429b4d
True
married or had unions with women of native tribes
262
What did traders and fur trappers do before European settlement increased?
5ad298a2d7d075001a429b4e
True
Africans
443
What did colonists import in the 16th century?
5ad298a2d7d075001a429b4f
True
African slaves
638
Who was sometimes freed by their masters during the later years?
5ad298a2d7d075001a429b50
True
Interracial relationships have had a long history in North America and the United States, beginning with the intermixing of European explorers and soldiers, who took native women as companions. After European settlement increased, traders and fur trappers often married or had unions with women of native tribes. In the 17th century, faced with a continuing, critical labor shortage, colonists primarily in the Chesapeake Bay Colony, imported Africans as laborers, sometimes as indentured servants and, increasingly, as slaves. African slaves were also imported into New York and other northern ports by the Dutch and later English. Some African slaves were freed by their masters during these early years.
President Thomas Jefferson had a relationship with who?
571df34b55697319006390bc
Sally Hemings
176
False
What was the name of the Smithsonian-Monticello exhibit that discussed their relationship?
571df34b55697319006390bd
Slavery at Monticello: The Paradox of Liberty
258
False
How long were Jefferson and Hemmings in a relationship?
571df34b55697319006390be
nearly 40 years
366
False
Which child of Jefferson identified as black?
571df34b55697319006390bf
Madison Hemings
856
False
How much of the children of Jefferson and Hemmings were white?
571df34b55697319006390c0
Seven-eighths
638
False
Sally Hemings
176
What slave did George Washington have a relationship with?
5ad29db7d7d075001a429c2e
True
40 years
373
How long were Washington and Hemings in a relationship for?
5ad29db7d7d075001a429c2f
True
four
675
How many of the Hemings children moved to the south?
5ad29db7d7d075001a429c30
True
identify as white
1099
What was it socially disadvantageous for the Hemings children to do?
5ad29db7d7d075001a429c31
True
Hemings children
1230
Who was legally black under Virginia law at the time?
5ad29db7d7d075001a429c32
True
Of numerous relationships between male slaveholders, overseers, or master's sons and women slaves, the most notable is likely that of President Thomas Jefferson with his slave Sally Hemings. As noted in the 2012 collaborative Smithsonian-Monticello exhibit, Slavery at Monticello: The Paradox of Liberty, Jefferson, then a widower, took Hemings as his concubine for nearly 40 years. They had six children of record; four Hemings children survived into adulthood, and he freed them all, among the very few slaves he freed. Two were allowed to "escape" to the North in 1822, and two were granted freedom by his will upon his death in 1826. Seven-eighths white by ancestry, all four of his Hemings children moved to northern states as adults; three of the four entered the white community, and all their descendants identified as white. Of the descendants of Madison Hemings, who continued to identify as black, some in future generations eventually identified as white and "married out", while others continued to identify as African American. It was socially advantageous for the Hemings children to identify as white, in keeping with their appearance and the majority proportion of their ancestry. Although born into slavery, the Hemings children were legally white under Virginia law of the time.
As an example, whose status was downgraded after the civil war?
571df3d555697319006390c6
traditionally free people of color in Louisiana
246
False
Who were increasingly included as African Americans in the 20th century?
571df3d555697319006390c7
people of any portion of African descent
715
False
a common lot in society
82
What were African Americans forced to share before the Civil War?
5ad2c0f8d7d075001a42a0fa
True
binary division
195
What kept the separate status of the traditionally free people of color in Louisiana the same?
5ad2c0f8d7d075001a42a0fb
True
free people of color in Louisiana
260
Who maintained a strong culture related to Italian culture?
5ad2c0f8d7d075001a42a0fc
True
Louisiana Créole
343
What culture was known for practicing Protestantism?
5ad2c0f8d7d075001a42a0fd
True
the rise of the Civil Rights and Black Power movements
597
What decreased the pressure for people of African descent to be claimed by the black community?
5ad2c0f8d7d075001a42a0fe
True
After the Civil War, racial segregation forced African Americans to share more of a common lot in society than they might have given widely varying ancestry, educational and economic levels. The binary division altered the separate status of the traditionally free people of color in Louisiana, for instance, although they maintained a strong Louisiana Créole culture related to French culture and language, and practice of Catholicism. African Americans began to create common cause—regardless of their multiracial admixture or social and economic stratification. In 20th-century changes, during the rise of the Civil Rights and Black Power movements, the African-American community increased its own pressure for people of any portion of African descent to be claimed by the black community to add to its power.
Where did most Chinese men enter the US?
571df47eb64a571400c71e24
primarily on the West Coast and in western territories
51
False
Who imported Chinese laborers?
571df47eb64a571400c71e25
white planters
177
False
What cause wives to be unable to move to the US with their Chinese husbands after 1882?
571df47eb64a571400c71e26
the Chinese Exclusion Act
260
False
What did racial bias generally mean for Chinese people?
571df47eb64a571400c71e27
they did not take white spouses
500
False
What did Chinese laborers do after they left that line of work?
571df47eb64a571400c71e28
set up groceries in small towns throughout the South
576
False
Chinese men
0
Who entered the United States as intellectuals?
5ad2d2c4d7d075001a42a390
True
Chinese laborers
201
Who did white planters import before the Reconstruction era?
5ad2d2c4d7d075001a42a391
True
Chinese Exclusion Act
264
What act allowed Chinese workers in the U.S. to have their wives join them?
5ad2d2c4d7d075001a42a392
True
the South
394
Where did Chinese men take white spouses?
5ad2d2c4d7d075001a42a393
True
groceries
583
What did Chinese men set up in cities throughout the North?
5ad2d2c4d7d075001a42a394
True
Chinese men entered the United States as laborers, primarily on the West Coast and in western territories. Following the Reconstruction era, as blacks set up independent farms, white planters imported Chinese laborers to satisfy their need for labor. In 1882, the Chinese Exclusion Act was passed, and Chinese workers who chose to stay in the U.S. were unable to have their wives join them. In the South, some Chinese married into the black and mulatto communities, as generally discrimination meant they did not take white spouses. They rapidly left working as laborers, and set up groceries in small towns throughout the South. They worked to get their children educated and socially mobile.
What office is responsible for the census form changes?
571df51db64a571400c71e2e
the Office of Management and Budget (OMB)
102
False
When did the OMB change racial guidelines for the census form?
571df51db64a571400c71e2f
1997
91
False
When were the OMB racial directive made mandatory for every government form?
571df51db64a571400c71e30
2003
661
False
What did the OMB vote to allow on the 2000 census?
571df51db64a571400c71e31
participants to select more than one of the six available categories
300
False
1997
91
When did the OMB change federal regulations of racial categories to bar multiple responses?
5ad2aeffd7d075001a429efe
True
2000
259
In what year were participants no longer allowed to choose more than one of the six available categories?
5ad2aeffd7d075001a429eff
True
White
393
What was not one of the categories participants could choose on the 2000 United States Census?
5ad2aeffd7d075001a429f00
True
2003
661
When did the OMB directive stop being mandatory on government forms?
5ad2aeffd7d075001a429f01
True
Office of Management and Budget
106
What office is barred from making changes to the census form?
5ad2aeffd7d075001a429f02
True
Multiracial people who wanted to acknowledge their full heritage won a victory of sorts in 1997, when the Office of Management and Budget (OMB) changed the federal regulation of racial categories to permit multiple responses. This resulted in a change to the 2000 United States Census, which allowed participants to select more than one of the six available categories, which were, in brief: "White," "Black or African American," "Asian," "American Indian or Alaskan Native," "Native Hawaiian or other Pacific Islander," and "Other." Further details are given in the article: Race (U.S. census). The OMB made its directive mandatory for all government forms by 2003.
What was the result of a child having an African mother?
571df5db55697319006390ca
born into slavery
132
False
What is the rule that allows children with white fathers to be slaves?
571df5db55697319006390cb
partus sequitur ventrem
204
False
Who was the first African American to gradute from Vassar College?
571df5db55697319006390cc
Anita Florence Hemmings
902
False
What makes a person mulatto?
571df5db55697319006390cd
parents were black and white
1033
False
What does a person have to have to be an octoroon?
571df5db55697319006390ce
one black great-grandparent and the remainder white
1154
False
taking the status of their mothers
92
What did laws from the 16th century define children of African slave mothers as?
5ad2d54dd7d075001a42a3e6
True
children of African slave mothers
55
Who was not born into slavery?
5ad2d54dd7d075001a42a3e7
True
white women and African men
436
Who were free people of color in New York descended from?
5ad2d54dd7d075001a42a3e8
True
white men
610
Who took advantage of slave men?
5ad2d54dd7d075001a42a3e9
True
gain educational opportunities
810
What did African Americans not use passing to do?
5ad2d54dd7d075001a42a3ea
True
Laws dating from 17th-century colonial America defined children of African slave mothers as taking the status of their mothers, and born into slavery regardless of the race or status of the father, under partus sequitur ventrem. The association of slavery with a "race" led to slavery as a racial caste. But, most families of free people of color formed in Virginia before the American Revolution were the descendants of unions between white women and African men, who frequently worked and lived together in the looser conditions of the early colonial period. While interracial marriage was later prohibited, white men frequently took sexual advantage of slave women, and numerous generations of multiracial children were born. By the late 1800s it had become common among African Americans to use passing to gain educational opportunities as did the first African-American graduate of Vassar College Anita Florence Hemmings. Some 19th-century categorization schemes defined people by proportion of African ancestry: a person whose parents were black and white was classified as mulatto, with one black grandparent and three white as quadroon, and with one black great-grandparent and the remainder white as octoroon. The latter categories remained within an overall black or colored category, but before the Civil War, in Virginia and some other states, a person of one-eighth or less black ancestry was legally white. Some members of these categories passed temporarily or permanently as white.
Why did Steele think people were not attacking Barrack Obama?
571df6a455697319006390d4
Because he has no slave blood in him
266
False
What does Condoleeza Rice prefer to term people as?
571df6a455697319006390d5
"black" or "white"
770
False
What did President Sarkozy think Secretary of State Rice was?
571df6a455697319006390d6
recent American immigrant
483
False
Who is Charles Kenzie Steele Jr?
571df6a455697319006390d7
CEO of the Southern Christian Leadership Conference
113
False
Why did Steele say what he did?
571df6a455697319006390d8
to be "provocative"
347
False
Charles Kenzie Steele, Jr.
85
Who accused people of attacking Barack Obama more than Michelle Obama?
5ad2c590d7d075001a42a194
True
2008
57
What year did Charles Kenzie Steele, Jr. accuse the media of attacking Barack Obama?
5ad2c590d7d075001a42a195
True
Condoleezza Rice
432
Who was mistaken for a "recent American immigrant" by the German Prime Minister?
5ad2c590d7d075001a42a196
True
immigrant
697
What designation for African Americans does Condoleezza Rice prefer over "black" and "white"?
5ad2c590d7d075001a42a197
True
Condoleezza Rice
432
Who claimed that descendants of slaves had a good head start?
5ad2c590d7d075001a42a198
True
Reacting to media criticism of Michelle Obama during the 2008 presidential election, Charles Kenzie Steele, Jr., CEO of the Southern Christian Leadership Conference said, "Why are they attacking Michelle Obama, and not really attacking, to that degree, her husband? Because he has no slave blood in him." He later claimed his comment was intended to be "provocative" but declined to expand on the subject. Former Secretary of State Condoleezza Rice (who was famously mistaken for a "recent American immigrant" by French President Nicolas Sarkozy), said "descendants of slaves did not get much of a head start, and I think you continue to see some of the effects of that." She has also rejected an immigrant designation for African Americans and instead prefers the term "black" or "white" .
When was the wedding of Rolfe and Pocahontas?
571df84ab64a571400c71e36
April 5, 1614
358
False
What did English laws not exclude people with some native blood from being?
571df84ab64a571400c71e37
considered English or white
664
False
Who married Indigenous women early on?
571df84ab64a571400c71e38
male settlers
11
False
Where did Rolfe marry Pocahontas?
571df84ab64a571400c71e39
present-day Virginia
405
False
Who was an ancestor of the First Families of Virginia?
571df84ab64a571400c71e3a
Thomas Rolfe
485
False
Indigenous American women
33
Who did some early female settlers marry?
5ad2c7e1d7d075001a42a1e4
True
charged with tension
161
What was later contact between Indigenous Americans and Europeans like?
5ad2c7e1d7d075001a42a1e5
True
English and Latin colonies
275
Where did no marriages take place between European men and Native women?
5ad2c7e1d7d075001a42a1e6
True
April 5, 1614
358
When was John Rolfe divorced from Pocahontas?
5ad2c7e1d7d075001a42a1e7
True
Thomas Rolfe
485
Who was an ancestor to many First Families of North Carolina?
5ad2c7e1d7d075001a42a1e8
True
Some early male settlers married Indigenous American women and had informal unions with them. Early contact between Indigenous Americans and Europeans was often charged with tension, but also had moments of friendship, cooperation, and intimacy. Marriages took place in both English and Latin colonies between European men and Native women. For instance, on April 5, 1614, Pocahontas, a Powhatan woman in present-day Virginia, married the Englishman John Rolfe of Jamestown. Their son Thomas Rolfe was an ancestor to many descendants in First Families of Virginia. As a result, English laws did not exclude people with some Indigenous American ancestry from being considered English or white.
What has helped geneologists researching slaves?
571dfb4e55697319006390de
Colonial records of French and Spanish slave ships and sales, and plantation records in all the former colonies
0
False
What were slaves usually not allowed to do?
571dfb4e55697319006390df
learn to read and write
424
False
What replaced written records for black families?
571dfb4e55697319006390e0
oral histories
477
False
Who caused the Census Burea to drop the terms free people of color and mulatto?
571dfb4e55697319006390e1
Southern Congressional bloc
839
False
When were the terms mulatto and free people of color taken off the census?
571dfb4e55697319006390e2
1930
657
False
much more information about slaves
124
What do colonial records of German slave ships often have?
5ad2b797d7d075001a42a036
True
court records
278
What do genealogists use to trace African American families after 1870?
5ad2b797d7d075001a42a037
True
English
597
What did Asians generally not learn to read and write?
5ad2b797d7d075001a42a039
True
1930
657
When did the Census Bureau drop the binary classifications of black and white?
5ad2b797d7d075001a42a03a
True
Colonial records of French and Spanish slave ships and sales, and plantation records in all the former colonies, often have much more information about slaves, from which researchers are reconstructing slave family histories. Genealogists have begun to find plantation records, court records, land deeds and other sources to trace African-American families and individuals before 1870. As slaves were generally forbidden to learn to read and write, black families passed along oral histories, which have had great persistence. Similarly, Native Americans did not generally learn to read and write English, although some did in the nineteenth century. Until 1930, census enumerators used the terms free people of color and mulatto to classify people of apparent mixed race. When those terms were dropped, as a result of the lobbying by the Southern Congressional bloc, the Census Bureau used only the binary classifications of black or white, as was typical in segregated southern states.
Who did colonists ask for help in returning runaway slaves?
571dfc31b64a571400c71e40
Indigenous American tribes
41
False
When was a treaty with the Iroquis made to return slaves?
571dfc31b64a571400c71e41
1726
129
False
What asked for the return of slaves who married indigenous americans or spoke their language?
571dfc31b64a571400c71e42
Numerous advertisements
412
False
How did natives and Africans come to know each other?
571dfc31b64a571400c71e43
through the institution of slavery
644
False
Why did natives consider Africans to have a 'Great Medicine'?
571dfc31b64a571400c71e44
because Africans were virtually immune to the Old-World diseases
797
False
European colonists
0
Who never created a treaty with the Indigenous American tribes?
5ad2cd3ed7d075001a42a2ba
True
1726
129
When did the governor of South Carolina make the Iroquois promise to return runaway slaves?
5ad2cd3ed7d075001a42a2bb
True
Old-World diseases
843
What were Indigenous Americans immune to?
5ad2cd3ed7d075001a42a2bc
True
to create stronger, healthier children
981
Why did the tribes encourage marriage between Indigenous Americans and whites?
5ad2cd3ed7d075001a42a2bd
True
Delaware Nation
330
What Indigenous American tribe returned slaves to the European colonists?
5ad2cd3ed7d075001a42a2be
True
European colonists created treaties with Indigenous American tribes requesting the return of any runaway slaves. For example, in 1726, the British governor of New York exacted a promise from the Iroquois to return all runaway slaves who had joined them. This same promise was extracted from the Huron Nation in 1764, and from the Delaware Nation in 1765, though there is no record of slaves ever being returned. Numerous advertisements requested the return of African Americans who had married Indigenous Americans or who spoke an Indigenous American language. The primary exposure that Africans and Indigenous Americans had to each other came through the institution of slavery. Indigenous Americans learned that Africans had what Indigenous Americans considered 'Great Medicine' in their bodies because Africans were virtually immune to the Old-World diseases that were decimating most native populations. Because of this, many tribes encouraged marriage between the two groups, to create stronger, healthier children from the unions.
What did the laws passed in the 17th century do?
571dfcde55697319006390e8
gave children the social status of their mother
300
False
What is the rule called that causes a father's race to not matter?
571dfcde55697319006390e9
partus sequitur ventrem
379
False
What did white fathers do after the American Revolution to provide for mixed children?
571dfcde55697319006390ea
paying or arranging for education or apprenticeships and freeing them
993
False
English common law generally said what?
571dfcde55697319006390eb
a man gave his status to his children
513
False
Interracial relationships
0
What did not occur during the earliest colonial years?
5ad29708d7d075001a429b16
True
slavery
125
What was a racial caste associated with people of British descent in African colonies?
5ad29708d7d075001a429b17
True
Virginia
227
What English colony passed laws that gave children the social status of the father?
5ad29708d7d075001a429b18
True
mixed-race children
1356
Who did many white mothers abandon?
5ad29708d7d075001a429b19
True
French and Spanish colonies
1198
Where was the practice of providing for the children less common?
5ad29708d7d075001a429b1a
True
Interracial relationships, common-law marriages, and marriages occurred since the earliest colonial years, especially before slavery hardened as a racial caste associated with people of African descent in the British colonies. Virginia and other English colonies passed laws in the 17th century that gave children the social status of their mother, according to the principle of partus sequitur ventrem, regardless of the father's race or citizenship. This overturned the principle in English common law by which a man gave his status to his children – this had enabled communities to demand that fathers support their children, whether legitimate or not. The change increased white men's ability to use slave women sexually, as they had no responsibility for the children. As master as well as father of mixed-race children born into slavery, the men could use these people as servants or laborers or sell them as slaves. In some cases, white fathers provided for their multiracial children, paying or arranging for education or apprenticeships and freeing them, particularly during the two decades following the American Revolution. (The practice of providing for the children was more common in French and Spanish colonies, where a class of free people of color developed who became educated and property owners.) Many other white fathers abandoned the mixed-race children and their mothers to slavery.
What are many Latin American migrants?
571dfdc5b64a571400c71e4a
mestizo, Amerindian, or other mixed race
39
False
What do latinos consider a light skinned mulatto to be?
571dfdc5b64a571400c71e4b
white
622
False
Who is overlooking darker skinned latino multiracial people?
571dfdc5b64a571400c71e4c
the U.S. Hispanic media
153
False
What does the typical latino in media look like?
571dfdc5b64a571400c71e4d
blond and blue/green-eyed white
303
False
mestizo
39
What are many European American migrants?
5ad2d3dbd7d075001a42a3b8
True
Multiracial Latinos
81
Who has a large amount of media representation?
5ad2d3dbd7d075001a42a3b9
True
white
449
What do white Americans consider a light skinned mulatto to be?
5ad2d3dbd7d075001a42a3ba
True
U.S. Hispanic media
157
Who is not overlooking darker skinned Latinos?
5ad2d3dbd7d075001a42a3bb
True
critics
132
Who has accused the media of ignoring blonde Hispanic Americans?
5ad2d3dbd7d075001a42a3bc
True
Many Latin American migrants have been mestizo, Amerindian, or other mixed race. Multiracial Latinos have limited media appearance; critics have accused the U.S. Hispanic media of overlooking the brown-skinned indigenous and multiracial Hispanic and black Hispanic populations by over-representation of blond and blue/green-eyed white Hispanic and Latino Americans (who resemble Scandinavians and other Northern Europeans rather than they look like white Hispanic and Latino Americans mostly of typical Southern European features), and also light-skinned mulatto and mestizo Hispanic and Latino Americans (often deemed as white persons in U.S. Hispanic and Latino populations if achieving the middle class or higher social status), especially some of the actors on the telenovelas.
Before 1920, how would a person be white by law?
571dfe3fb64a571400c71e52
if having seven-eights or more white ancestry
67
False
What year was mulatto left off the US Census?
571dfe3fb64a571400c71e53
1920
455
False
Who is responsible for the Census Bureau discarding the mulatto category?
571dfe3fb64a571400c71e54
Southern-dominated Congress
578
False
seven-eights or more white ancestry
77
When was a person legally white in South Carolina before 1920?
5ad2c01fd7d075001a42a0de
True
late 19th century
181
When was the one-drop rule ended?
5ad2c01fd7d075001a42a0df
True
The one-drop rule
114
What was an attempt to increase black political power?
5ad2c01fd7d075001a42a0e0
True
1920
455
What was the first year the U.S. Census used the mulatto category?
5ad2c01fd7d075001a42a0e1
True
enumerators were instructed to classify people in a binary way
471
What was the result of a Northern-dominated Congress convincing the Census Bureau to change its rules?
5ad2c01fd7d075001a42a0e2
True
In Virginia prior to 1920, for example, a person was legally white if having seven-eights or more white ancestry. The one-drop rule originated in some Southern United States in the late 19th century, likely in response to whites' attempt to maintain white supremacy and limit black political power following the Democrats' regaining control of state legislatures in the late 1870s. The first year in which the U.S. Census dropped the mulatto category was 1920; that year enumerators were instructed to classify people in a binary way as white or black. This was a result of the Southern-dominated Congress convincing the Census Bureau to change its rules.
Who wrote an article in the New York Dail News about Obama?
571dfedcb64a571400c71e58
Stanley Crouch
0
False
What did David Ehrenstein call Obama in 2008?
571dfedcb64a571400c71e59
"Magic Negro",
330
False
What did Ehrenstein say Obama does for white people?
571dfedcb64a571400c71e5a
assuage white 'guilt'
529
False
What was the title of Crouch's article?
571dfedcb64a571400c71e5b
"What Obama Isn't: Black Like Me."
144
False
Stanley Crouch
0
Who wrote about Obama in a Time Magazine piece?
5ad2c44ed7d075001a42a15c
True
David Ehrenstein
236
What LA Times columnist accused liberals of avoiding Obama?
5ad2c44ed7d075001a42a15d
True
Magic Negro
331
What is a term for a black person who does not help the mainstream white agenda?
5ad2c44ed7d075001a42a15e
True
2008
190
What year did David Ehrenstein write a piece accusing liberals of avoiding Obama?
5ad2c44ed7d075001a42a15f
True
Stanley Crouch
0
Who said Obama's father was of white U.S. stock?
5ad2c44ed7d075001a42a160
True
Stanley Crouch wrote in a New York Daily News piece "Obama's mother is of white U.S. stock. His father is a black Kenyan," in a column entitled "What Obama Isn't: Black Like Me." During the 2008 campaign, the African-American columnist David Ehrenstein of the LA Times accused white liberals of flocking to Obama because he was a "Magic Negro", a term that refers to a black person with no past who simply appears to assist the mainstream white (as cultural protagonists/drivers) agenda. Ehrenstein went on to say "He's there to assuage white 'guilt' they feel over the role of slavery and racial segregation in American history."
What does the "mixture" heading mean?
571e005cb64a571400c71e60
cannot be racially categorized
397
False
What year did the US Census write in response category have a code-listing?
571e005cb64a571400c71e61
2000
4
False
Bi-racial would be coded as what?
571e005cb64a571400c71e62
Mixture
374
False
How many race options were there?
571e005cb64a571400c71e63
five enumerated races
292
False
a code listing
59
What did the 1990 census have in the write-in response category?
5ad2b0d3d7d075001a429f46
True
the placement of various write-in responses
93
What did the code listing destandardize?
5ad2b0d3d7d075001a429f47
True
Mixture
374
What heading can be racially categorized?
5ad2b0d3d7d075001a429f48
True
2000
4
In what year did the census have eight enumerated races?
5ad2b0d3d7d075001a429f49
True
five
292
How many race options did the Canadian census have?
5ad2b0d3d7d075001a429f4a
True
The 2000 U.S. Census in the write-in response category had a code listing which standardizes the placement of various write-in responses for automatic placement within the framework of the U.S. Census's enumerated races. Whereas most responses can be distinguished as falling into one of the five enumerated races, there remains some write-in responses which fall into the "Mixture" heading which cannot be racially categorized. These include "Bi Racial, Combination, Everything, Many, Mixed, Multi National, Multiple, Several and Various".
What is considered to be neglected in American history?
571e014555697319006390f0
Interracial relations between Indigenous Americans and African Americans
0
False
When is it recorded that Africans and natives interacted earliest?
571e014555697319006390f1
April 1502
221
False
Where did Africans escape and mate with naitves?
571e014555697319006390f2
Santo Domingo
352
False
Where did Ayllon lay down a Spanish colony?
571e014555697319006390f3
near the mouth of the Pee Dee River
626
False
How many slaves were at San Miguel de Gualdape at its inception?
571e014555697319006390f4
100 enslaved Africans
786
False
Interracial relations between Indigenous Americans and African Americans
0
What is a part of American history that has been paid a lot of attention?
5ad2cc20d7d075001a42a298
True
April 1502
221
What is the latest record of African and Indigenous American relations in the Americas?
5ad2cc20d7d075001a42a299
True
Santo Domingo
352
Where were the last Black Indians born?
5ad2cc20d7d075001a42a29a
True
1526
545
When was the latest year that African slaves were absorbed into Indigenous Americans?
5ad2cc20d7d075001a42a29b
True
100
786
How many free Africans lived in San Miguel de Gualdape?
5ad2cc20d7d075001a42a29c
True
Interracial relations between Indigenous Americans and African Americans is a part of American history that has been neglected. The earliest record of African and Indigenous American relations in the Americas occurred in April 1502, when the first Africans kidnapped were brought to Hispaniola to serve as slaves. Some escaped, and somewhere inland on Santo Domingo, the first Black Indians were born. In addition, an example of African slaves' escaping from European colonists and being absorbed by Indigenous Americans occurred as far back as 1526. In June of that year, Lucas Vasquez de Ayllon established a Spanish colony near the mouth of the Pee Dee River in what is now eastern South Carolina. The Spanish settlement was named San Miguel de Gualdape. Amongst the settlement were 100 enslaved Africans. In 1526, the first African slaves fled the colony and took refuge with local Indigenous Americans.
What documentary features a white man in North Carolina?
571e029e55697319006390fa
Colored White Boy
307
False
Who is related to Bliss Broyard?
571e029e55697319006390fb
Anatole Broyard
274
False
Gregory Howard Williams wrote what type of book?
571e029e55697319006390fc
autobiography
39
False
One Drop: My Father's Hidden Life—A Story of Race and Family Secrets
163
What book was written by Anatole Broyard?
5ad2b1c2d7d075001a429f5e
True
Colored White Boy
307
What documentary features a black man in North Carolina?
5ad2b1c2d7d075001a429f5f
True
Colored White Boy
307
What documentary is about a white man in Georgia?
5ad2b1c2d7d075001a429f60
True
One Drop: My Father's Hidden Life—A Story of Race and Family Secrets
163
What book was written about Bliss Broyard?
5ad2b1c2d7d075001a429f61
True
Gregory Howard Williams
138
Who filmed the documentary on The Sanders Women of Shreveport, Louisiana?
5ad2b1c2d7d075001a429f62
True
Some biographical accounts include the autobiography Life on the Color Line: The True Story of a White Boy Who Discovered He Was Black by Gregory Howard Williams; One Drop: My Father's Hidden Life—A Story of Race and Family Secrets written by Bliss Broyard about her father Anatole Broyard; the documentary Colored White Boy about a white man in North Carolina who discovers that he is the descendant of a white plantation owner and a raped African slave; and the documentary on The Sanders Women of Shreveport, Louisiana.
When did people lobby for allowing more than one category to be selected on legal forms?
571e032d5569731900639100
the 1980s
3
False
How did the public react to the categories of "bi-racial" and "multiracial"?
571e032d5569731900639101
mostly negative
388
False
Which political leaders spoke out against the proposed designations?
571e032d5569731900639102
Senator Diane Watson and Representative Augustus Hawkins
472
False
What did they fear would happen?
571e032d5569731900639103
a loss in political and economic power
602
False
parents of mixed-race children
14
Who lobbied for the ability to show more than one ethnic category on legal forms before the 1980s?
5ad2c256d7d075001a42a118
True
the addition of the category of "bi-racial" or "multiracial"
277
What did the U.S. government propose that people were happy about?
5ad2c256d7d075001a42a119
True
1988
341
What year did the U.S. government propose getting rid of a multiracial category?
5ad2c256d7d075001a42a11a
True
Diane Watson
480
What politician was in favor of the multiracial category?
5ad2c256d7d075001a42a11b
True
African Americans
644
Who would gain power from abandoning their one category?
5ad2c256d7d075001a42a11c
True
By the 1980s, parents of mixed-race children (and adults of mixed-race ancestry) began to organize and lobby for the ability to show more than one ethnic category on Census and other legal forms. They refused to be put into just one category. When the U.S. government proposed the addition of the category of "bi-racial" or "multiracial" in 1988, the response from the general public was mostly negative. Some African-American organizations and political leaders, such as Senator Diane Watson and Representative Augustus Hawkins, were particularly vocal in their rejection of the category. They feared a loss in political and economic power if African Americans abandoned their one category.
Who married Sacagewea?
571e03b55569731900639108
French trapper Toussaint Charbonneau
163
False
Who made up most unions between Europeans and natives?
571e03b55569731900639109
European men and Indigenous American women
272
False
What factor affected the ability of a child to be in a tribe?
571e03b5556973190063910a
the kinship system of the woman's tribe
329
False
What nations are considered matrilineal?
571e03b5556973190063910b
Creek and Cherokee
492
False
How could a white child be considered a member of the Omaha tribe?
571e03b5556973190063910c
adopted into the tribe by an adult male
739
False
Sacagawea
57
Who married Clark?
5ad2c958d7d075001a42a230
True
kinship system
333
What did not dictate how easily a woman's children would be assimilated into a tribe?
5ad2c958d7d075001a42a231
True
matrilineal
459
What kind of systems did tribes in the Northwest have?
5ad2c958d7d075001a42a232
True
mixed-race children
538
Who did the Creek not give status in their mother's tribes?
5ad2c958d7d075001a42a233
True
children of white fathers
660
Who was not considered white to the Omaha?
5ad2c958d7d075001a42a234
True
In the early 19th century, the Indigenous American woman Sacagawea, who would help translate for and guide the Lewis and Clark Expedition in the West, married the French trapper Toussaint Charbonneau. Most marriages between Europeans and Indigenous Americans were between European men and Indigenous American women. Depending on the kinship system of the woman's tribe, their children would be more or less easily assimilated into the tribe. Nations that had matrilineal systems, such as the Creek and Cherokee in the Southeast, gave the mixed-race children status in their mother's clans and tribes. If the tribe had a patrilineal system, like the Omaha, the children of white fathers were considered white. Unless they were specifically adopted into the tribe by an adult male, they could have no social status in it.
What brought African Americans together?
571e05005569731900639112
the one-drop rule
23
False
Who made it next to impossible to learn about their heritage for African Americans?
571e05005569731900639113
family elders
344
False
Slaves were not allowed to do what?
571e05005569731900639114
to learn to read and write
588
False
What did Indigenous Americans not do that makes it difficult to trace their heritage?
571e05005569731900639115
spoke English, nor read or wrote it
663
False
What factors did not affect racial solidarity amoung African Americans?
571e05005569731900639116
their multiracial admixture, or social/economic stratification
163
False
the one-drop rule
23
What was a factor in ethnic solidarity for whites?
5ad2cdefd7d075001a42a2ce
True
African Americans
4
Who was the one-drop rule not a significant factor for?
5ad2cdefd7d075001a42a2cf
True
African Americans
241
Who found it easy to learn about their Indigenous American heritage?
5ad2cdefd7d075001a42a2d0
True
family elders
344
Who was forthcoming with genealogical information?
5ad2cdefd7d075001a42a2d1
True
African Americans
539
Who was encouraged to read and write?
5ad2cdefd7d075001a42a2d2
True
For African Americans, the one-drop rule was a significant factor in ethnic solidarity. African Americans generally shared a common cause in society regardless of their multiracial admixture, or social/economic stratification. Additionally, African Americans found it, near, impossible to learn about their Indigenous American heritage as many family elders withheld pertinent genealogical information. Tracing the genealogy of African Americans can be a very difficult process, especially for descendants of Indigenous Americans, because African Americans who were slaves were forbidden to learn to read and write, and a majority of Indigenous Americans neither spoke English, nor read or wrote it.
What stock character lived with her white father until he left the picture?
571e05c9b64a571400c71e68
"tragic octoroon"
18
False
Who was the first to use the tragic octoroon?
571e05c9b64a571400c71e69
Lydia Maria Child
361
False
What story was written by Child in 1842?
571e05c9b64a571400c71e6a
"The Quadroons"
381
False
What does the tragic octoroon point out?
571e05c9b64a571400c71e6b
sexual exploitation in slavery
482
False
Who used the figure of the tragic octoroon?
571e05c9b64a571400c71e6c
abolitionists
443
False
Lydia Maria Child
361
Who wrote about the last "tragic octoroon" character?
5ad2d64ad7d075001a42a40e
True
The Quadroons
382
What story was the last "tragic octoroon" character in?
5ad2d64ad7d075001a42a40f
True
tragic octoroon
19
What character allowed abolitionists to draw attention away from sexual exploitation?
5ad2d64ad7d075001a42a410
True
Northern mill owner
673
Who would sell his own children into slavery?
5ad2d64ad7d075001a42a411
True
tragic octoroon
19
What was a mixed-race woman raised as a black woman in her black father's household called?
5ad2d64ad7d075001a42a412
True
The figure of the "tragic octoroon" was a stock character of abolitionist literature: a mixed-race woman raised as if a white woman in her white father's household, until his bankruptcy or death has her reduced to a menial position She may even be unaware of her status before being reduced to victimization. The first character of this type was the heroine of Lydia Maria Child's "The Quadroons" (1842), a short story. This character allowed abolitionists to draw attention to the sexual exploitation in slavery and, unlike portrayals of the suffering of the field hands, did not allow slaveholders to retort that the sufferings of Northern mill hands were no easier. The Northern mill owner would not sell his own children into slavery.
Ashkenazi_Jews
By 1931, what percentage of the world’s Jews were Ashkenazi Jews?
571a5a3d10f8ca1400304feb
92 percent
165
False
From the 11th century until 1931, the population of Ashkenazi Jews grew by what percent?
571a5a3d10f8ca1400304fec
three percent of the world's Jewish population, while at their peak in 1931 they accounted for 92 percent
70
False
Who made rough calculations and implied that Ashkenazi Jews make up less than 74% of the Jewish population worldwide?
571a5a3d10f8ca1400304fed
Sergio DellaPergola
427
False
The present-day population of Ashkenazi Jews is thought to be between which two numbers?
571a5a3d10f8ca1400304fee
10 million and 11.2 million
398
False
How many Jews were there in the world just prior to the Holocaust?
571a5a3d10f8ca1400304fef
16.7 million
288
False
It is estimated that in the 11th century Ashkenazi Jews composed only three percent of the world's Jewish population, while at their peak in 1931 they accounted for 92 percent of the world's Jews. Immediately prior to the Holocaust, the number of Jews in the world stood at approximately 16.7 million. Statistical figures vary for the contemporary demography of Ashkenazi Jews, oscillating between 10 million and 11.2 million. Sergio DellaPergola in a rough calculation of Sephardic and Mizrahi Jews, implies that Ashkenazi make up less than 74% of Jews worldwide. Other estimates place Ashkenazi Jews as making up about 75% of Jews worldwide.
In which tractate of the Babylonian Talmud is the name Gomer given as Germania?
571a5b3110f8ca1400304ff5
Yoma
7
False
Saadia Gaon identified Ashkenaz with the Saquliba or what territories?
571a5b3110f8ca1400304ff6
Slavic
694
False
Who identified Ashkenaz with the Saquliba or Slavic territories?
571a5b3110f8ca1400304ff7
Saadia Gaon
641
False
Even though Gomer is rendered as Germania in the Yoma tractate of the Babylonian Talmud, in other rabbinical literature it was identified with what?
571a5b3110f8ca1400304ff8
Germanikia in northwestern Syria
147
False
Ashkenaz is linked to Scandza/Scanzia, which is viewed as what?
571a5b3110f8ca1400304ff9
cradle of Germanic tribes
277
False
In the Yoma tractate of the Babylonian Talmud the name Gomer is rendered as Germania, which elsewhere in rabbinical literature was identified with Germanikia in northwestern Syria, but later became associated with Germania. Ashkenaz is linked to Scandza/Scanzia, viewed as the cradle of Germanic tribes, as early as a 6th-century gloss to the Historia Ecclesiastica of Eusebius. In the 10th-century History of Armenia of Yovhannes Drasxanakertc'i (1.15) Ashkenaz was associated with Armenia, as it was occasionally in Jewish usage, where its denotation extended at times to Adiabene, Khazaria, Crimea and areas to the east. His contemporary Saadia Gaon identified Ashkenaz with the Saquliba or Slavic territories, and such usage covered also the lands of tribes neighboring the Slavs, and Eastern and Central Europe. In modern times, Samuel Krauss identified the Biblical "Ashkenaz" with Khazaria.
Who expelled the Jews from his Merovingian kingdom in 629?
571a5c1e4faf5e1900b8a970
King Dagobert I of the Franks
690
False
Does the archeological record suggest that there was a rather large or small population of Jews in Gaul and Germany?
571a5c1e4faf5e1900b8a971
very few Jews
269
False
In antiquity, most Jews in Gaul or Germany probably occupied what two roles?
571a5c1e4faf5e1900b8a972
traders or artisans
304
False
In what year did Jewish communities exist in Brittany?
571a5c1e4faf5e1900b8a973
465 CE
436
False
During the Middle Ages, some Jews assimilated into the dominant Greek and Latin cultures by doing what?
571a5c1e4faf5e1900b8a974
conversion to Christianity
640
False
No evidence has yet been found of a Jewish presence in antiquity in Germany beyond its Roman border, nor in Eastern Europe. In Gaul and Germany itself, with the possible exception of Trier and Cologne, the archeological evidence suggests at most a fleeting presence of very few Jews, primarily itinerant traders or artisans. A substantial Jewish population emerged in northern Gaul by the Middle Ages, but Jewish communities existed in 465 CE in Brittany, in 524 CE in Valence, and in 533 CE in Orleans. Throughout this period and into the early Middle Ages, some Jews assimilated into the dominant Greek and Latin cultures, mostly through conversion to Christianity.[better source needed] King Dagobert I of the Franks expelled the Jews from his Merovingian kingdom in 629. Jews in former Roman territories faced new challenges as harsher anti-Jewish Church rulings were enforced.
What percentage of Israeli Jews are people of Ashkenazi descent?
571a5fc410f8ca1400304fff
47.5%
46
False
When Israel was in its infancy as a state, there were cultural conflicts between which two groups?
571a5fc410f8ca1400305000
Sephardic and Ashkenazi Jews
293
False
What was the conflict between Sephardic and Ashkenazi Jews attributed to?
571a5fc410f8ca1400305001
the concept of the "melting pot"
487
False
What percentage of all Israelis are thought to be of Ashkenazi descent?
571a5fc410f8ca1400305002
35–36%
83
False
When Israel was in its infancy as a state, the Ashkenazi Jews involved in conflicts with Sephardic Jews were mainly what type of Jews?
571a5fc410f8ca1400305003
east European Ashkenazim
330
False
People of Ashkenazi descent constitute around 47.5% of Israeli Jews (and therefore 35–36% of Israelis). They have played a prominent role in the economy, media, and politics of Israel since its founding. During the first decades of Israel as a state, strong cultural conflict occurred between Sephardic and Ashkenazi Jews (mainly east European Ashkenazim). The roots of this conflict, which still exists to a much smaller extent in present-day Israeli society, are chiefly attributed to the concept of the "melting pot". That is to say, all Jewish immigrants who arrived in Israel were strongly encouraged to "melt down" their own particular exilic identities within the general social "pot" in order to become Israeli.
Culturally, an Ashkenazi Jew can be identified by what concept?
571a616610f8ca1400305009
Yiddishkeit
65
False
What does Yiddishkeit mean in the Yiddish language?
571a616610f8ca140030500a
"Jewishness"
90
False
In the past most Jews prayed in what language?
571a616610f8ca140030500b
liturgical Ashkenazi Hebrew
450
False
In the past, while most Jews prayed in one language, they used which other language in their secular lives?
571a616610f8ca140030500c
Yiddish
489
False
Is there a larger or smaller number of Jews that speak Yiddish today than in the past?
571a616610f8ca140030500d
a far smaller number of Jews still speak Yiddish
771
False
Culturally, an Ashkenazi Jew can be identified by the concept of Yiddishkeit, which means "Jewishness" in the Yiddish language. Yiddishkeit is specifically the Jewishness of Ashkenazi Jews. Before the Haskalah and the emancipation of Jews in Europe, this meant the study of Torah and Talmud for men, and a family and communal life governed by the observance of Jewish Law for men and women. From the Rhineland to Riga to Romania, most Jews prayed in liturgical Ashkenazi Hebrew, and spoke Yiddish in their secular lives. But with modernization, Yiddishkeit now encompasses not just Orthodoxy and Hasidism, but a broad range of movements, ideologies, practices, and traditions in which Ashkenazi Jews have participated and somehow retained a sense of Jewishness. Although a far smaller number of Jews still speak Yiddish, Yiddishkeit can be identified in manners of speech, in styles of humor, in patterns of association. Broadly speaking, a Jew is one who associates culturally with Jews, supports Jewish institutions, reads Jewish books and periodicals, attends Jewish movies and theater, travels to Israel, visits historical synagogues, and so forth. It is a definition that applies to Jewish culture in general, and to Ashkenazi Yiddishkeit in particular.
For what period of time were the Ashkenazim a reproductively isolated population in Europe?
571a64754faf5e1900b8a97a
For roughly a thousand years
116
False
In an ethnic sense, Ashkenazi Jews can trace their ancestry to Jews who settled where?
571a64754faf5e1900b8a97b
Central Europe
100
False
In the last 50-60 years, have more or less Ashkenazi Jews intermarried with people outside of their community?
571a64754faf5e1900b8a97c
many Ashkenazi Jews have intermarried, both with members of other Jewish communities and with people of other nations and faiths
942
False
Human geneticists argue that genetic variations have been identified that show high or low frequencies among Ashkenazi Jews?
571a64754faf5e1900b8a97d
high frequencies
449
False
A 2013 study of Ashkenazi mitochondrial DNA was conducted by what university?
571a64754faf5e1900b8a97e
University of Huddersfield in England
694
False
In an ethnic sense, an Ashkenazi Jew is one whose ancestry can be traced to the Jews who settled in Central Europe. For roughly a thousand years, the Ashkenazim were a reproductively isolated population in Europe, despite living in many countries, with little inflow or outflow from migration, conversion, or intermarriage with other groups, including other Jews. Human geneticists have argued that genetic variations have been identified that show high frequencies among Ashkenazi Jews, but not in the general European population, be they for patrilineal markers (Y-chromosome haplotypes) and for matrilineal markers (mitotypes). However, a 2013 study of Ashkenazi mitochondrial DNA, from the University of Huddersfield in England, suggests that at least 80 percent of the Ashkenazi maternal lineages derive from the assimilation of mtDNAs indigenous to Europe, probably as a consequence of conversion. Since the middle of the 20th century, many Ashkenazi Jews have intermarried, both with members of other Jewish communities and with people of other nations and faiths.
In the past have relations between Ashkenazim and Sephardim tended to be warm or cold?
571a663e4faf5e1900b8a984
have not always been warm
43
False
How did the Ashkenazim view north African Sepharadim and Berber Jews?
571a663e4faf5e1900b8a985
as second-class citizens
148
False
Who led the Israeli Black Panthers?
571a663e4faf5e1900b8a986
Saadia Marciano
303
False
Where was Saadia Marciano from?
571a663e4faf5e1900b8a987
Moroccan Jew
321
False
What did Saadia Marciano do with the Israeli Black Panthers?
571a663e4faf5e1900b8a988
led to protest movements
236
False
Relations between Ashkenazim and Sephardim have not always been warm. North African Sepharadim and Berber Jews were often looked upon by Ashkenazim as second-class citizens during the first decade after the creation of Israel. This has led to protest movements such as the Israeli Black Panthers led by Saadia Marciano a Moroccan Jew. Nowadays, relations are getting better. In some instances, Ashkenazi communities have accepted significant numbers of Sephardi newcomers, sometimes resulting in intermarriage.
What percentage of the modern Ashkenazi genome could possibly be of European origin?
571a69014faf5e1900b8a98e
35 to 55 percent
213
False
Is the percentage of admixture in the modern Ashkenazi genome higher or lower than previously thought?
571a69014faf5e1900b8a98f
admixture is considerably higher
316
False
Were Ashkenazi Jews found to be a more or less genetically divergent population than Russians, Orcadians, French, and Basques?
571a69014faf5e1900b8a990
a genetically more divergent population
704
False
In one study it was found that the Ashkenazim were more or less diverse than their Middle Eastern relatives?
571a69014faf5e1900b8a991
more diverse
865
False
Were the Ashkenazim thought to be a subset or superset of their assumed geographical source population?
571a69014faf5e1900b8a992
Ashkenazim are supposed to be a subset, not a superset
950
False
A 2010 study by Bray et al., using SNP microarray techniques and linkage analysis found that when assuming Druze and Palestinian Arab populations to represent the reference to world Jewry ancestor genome, between 35 to 55 percent of the modern Ashkenazi genome can possibly be of European origin, and that European "admixture is considerably higher than previous estimates by studies that used the Y chromosome" with this reference point. Assuming this reference point the linkage disequilibrium in the Ashkenazi Jewish population was interpreted as "matches signs of interbreeding or 'admixture' between Middle Eastern and European populations". On the Bray et al. tree, Ashkenazi Jews were found to be a genetically more divergent population than Russians, Orcadians, French, Basques, Italians, Sardinians and Tuscans. The study also observed that Ashkenazim are more diverse than their Middle Eastern relatives, which was counterintuitive because Ashkenazim are supposed to be a subset, not a superset, of their assumed geographical source population. Bray et al. therefore postulate that these results reflect not the population antiquity but a history of mixing between genetically distinct populations in Europe. However, it's possible that the relaxation of marriage prescription in the ancestors of Ashkenazim that drove their heterozygosity up, while the maintenance of the FBD rule in native Middle Easterners have been keeping their heterozygosity values in check. Ashkenazim distinctiveness as found in the Bray et al. study, therefore, may come from their ethnic endogamy (ethnic inbreeding), which allowed them to "mine" their ancestral gene pool in the context of relative reproductive isolation from European neighbors, and not from clan endogamy (clan inbreeding). Consequently, their higher diversity compared to Middle Easterners stems from the latter's marriage practices, not necessarily from the former's admixture with Europeans.
Genetic studies on Ashkenazim have found a significant prevalence of what type of origins?
571a6c094faf5e1900b8a998
ancient Levantine origins
266
False
Have studies on the genetics of the Ashkenazim come to similar or divergent conclusions regarding the degree and sources of their European ancestry?
571a6c094faf5e1900b8a999
they have arrived at diverging conclusions
297
False
Have these studies on Ashkenazim genetics researched their paternal lineages, maternal lineages, or both?
571a6c094faf5e1900b8a99a
researching both their paternal and maternal lineages
175
False
Genetic studies on the Ashkenazim have tried to determine how much of their ancestry is derived from European populations and from where?
571a6c094faf5e1900b8a99b
the Levant
101
False
Genetic studies on Ashkenazim have been conducted to determine how much of their ancestry comes from the Levant, and how much derives from European populations. These studies—researching both their paternal and maternal lineages—point to a significant prevalence of ancient Levantine origins. But they have arrived at diverging conclusions regarding both the degree and the sources of their European ancestry. These diverging conclusions focus particularly on the extent of the European genetic origin observed in Ashkenazi maternal lineages.
The custom of designating areas of Jewish settlement with biblical names meant that Spain was referred to as what?
571a6db910f8ca140030501b
Sefarad
225
False
The custom of designating areas of Jewish settlement with biblical names meant that France was called?
571a6db910f8ca140030501c
Tsarefat
265
False
The reference to France as Tsarefat was taken from which biblical passage?
571a6db910f8ca140030501d
1 Kings 17:9
275
False
How did Byzantium and Syrian Jewish letters refer to the Crusaders?
571a6db910f8ca140030501e
as Ashkenazim
739
False
Following the Carolingian unification, the term Ashkenazi came to refer to the Jews of what two places?
571a6db910f8ca140030501f
medieval Germany and France
921
False
Sometime in the early medieval period, the Jews of central and eastern Europe came to be called by this term. In conformity with the custom of designating areas of Jewish settlement with biblical names, Spain was denominated Sefarad (Obadiah 20), France was called Tsarefat (1 Kings 17:9), and Bohemia was called the Land of Canaan. By the high medieval period, Talmudic commentators like Rashi began to use Ashkenaz/Eretz Ashkenaz to designate Germany, earlier known as Loter, where, especially in the Rhineland communities of Speyer, Worms and Mainz, the most important Jewish communities arose. Rashi uses leshon Ashkenaz (Ashkenazi language) to describe German speech, and Byzantium and Syrian Jewish letters referred to the Crusaders as Ashkenazim. Given the close links between the Jewish communities of France and Germany following the Carolingian unification, the term Ashkenazi came to refer to both the Jews of medieval Germany and France.
Did Charlemagne's expansion of the Frankish empire bring about a brief period of upheaval or stability in Francia?
571a6faf10f8ca1400305025
a brief period of stability
105
False
Charlemagne's expansion of the Frankish empire created opportunities for Jewish merchants to settle where?
571a6faf10f8ca1400305026
north of the Alps
219
False
Charlemagne granted the Jews freedoms similar to those enjoyed under which previous empire?
571a6faf10f8ca1400305027
Roman Empire
316
False
When Jews began to return to Frankish lands many took up occupations in which two fields?
571a6faf10f8ca1400305028
finance and commerce
526
False
Which language emerged as a result of language contact with various High German vernaculars during the medieval period?
571a6faf10f8ca1400305029
Yiddish
1127
False
Charlemagne's expansion of the Frankish empire around 800, including northern Italy and Rome, brought on a brief period of stability and unity in Francia. This created opportunities for Jewish merchants to settle again north of the Alps. Charlemagne granted the Jews freedoms similar to those once enjoyed under the Roman Empire. In addition, Jews from southern Italy, fleeing religious persecution, began to move into central Europe.[citation needed] Returning to Frankish lands, many Jewish merchants took up occupations in finance and commerce, including money lending, or usury. (Church legislation banned Christians from lending money in exchange for interest.) From Charlemagne's time to the present, Jewish life in northern Europe is well documented. By the 11th century, when Rashi of Troyes wrote his commentaries, Jews in what came to be known as "Ashkenaz" were known for their halakhic learning, and Talmudic studies. They were criticized by Sephardim and other Jewish scholars in Islamic lands for their lack of expertise in Jewish jurisprudence (dinim) and general ignorance of Hebrew linguistics and literature. Yiddish emerged as a result of language contact with various High German vernaculars in the medieval period. It was written with Hebrew letters, and heavily influenced by Hebrew and Aramaic.
The lack of assimilation of Jews in central and eastern Europe lies in part to the fact that they lived almost exclusively in what?
571a72404faf5e1900b8a9aa
shtetls
321
False
A lack of assimilation of Jews in central and eastern Europe is also attributed to males taking part in what type of system?
571a72404faf5e1900b8a9ab
a strong system of education
341
False
In central and eastern Europe it is thought that Jewish scorn for the life-style of their neighbors increased due to what?
571a72404faf5e1900b8a9ac
increased with every outbreak of antisemitism
484
False
Besides living in shtetls, maintaining a strong system of education for males, and scorning the life-style of their neighbors, Jews in central and eastern Europe also did what?
571a72404faf5e1900b8a9ad
heeded rabbinic leadership
381
False
The answer to why there was so little assimilation of Jews in central and eastern Europe for so long would seem to lie in part in the probability that the alien surroundings in central and eastern Europe were not conducive, though contempt did not prevent some assimilation. Furthermore, Jews lived almost exclusively in shtetls, maintained a strong system of education for males, heeded rabbinic leadership, and scorned the life-style of their neighbors; and all of these tendencies increased with every outbreak of antisemitism.
Who noted that Ashkenazi Jews lived in Jerusalem during the 11th century?
571a76a610f8ca1400305057
Rabbi Elijah of Chelm
33
False
Another piece of evidence of German communities in the holy city in the second half of the 11th century is due to what items being sent from Germany to Jerusalem?
571a76a610f8ca1400305058
halakhic questions
502
False
Mystic Rabbi Elijah of Chelm is from what century?
571a76a610f8ca1400305059
16th-century
13
False
In the story told by mystic Rabbi Elijah of Chelm, one of the German's family members rescued Jews in Palestine and carried them back to where in order to repay a previous favor?
571a76a610f8ca140030505a
Worms
399
False
According to 16th-century mystic Rabbi Elijah of Chelm, Ashkenazi Jews lived in Jerusalem during the 11th century. The story is told that a German-speaking Palestinian Jew saved the life of a young German man surnamed Dolberger. So when the knights of the First Crusade came to siege Jerusalem, one of Dolberger's family members who was among them rescued Jews in Palestine and carried them back to Worms to repay the favor. Further evidence of German communities in the holy city comes in the form of halakhic questions sent from Germany to Jerusalem during the second half of the 11th century.
At the beginning of World War II, about how many Jews lived in Europe?
571a786110f8ca1400305071
8.8 million
17
False
Of the large number of Jews living in Europe at the beginning of World War II, about how many were Ashkenazi?
571a786110f8ca1400305072
about 6 million
122
False
What percentage of Polish Jews were killed during the Holocaust?
571a786110f8ca1400305073
91%
263
False
The percentage of Ashkenazi Jews went from being close to 92% of all Jews in the world in 1931 prior to WWII to what percentage today?
571a786110f8ca1400305074
nearly 80%
690
False
The vast majority of the Jewish victims of the Holocaust spoke which language?
571a786110f8ca1400305075
Yiddish
925
False
Of the estimated 8.8 million Jews living in Europe at the beginning of World War II, the majority of whom were Ashkenazi, about 6 million – more than two-thirds – were systematically murdered in the Holocaust. These included 3 million of 3.3 million Polish Jews (91%); 900,000 of 1.5 million in Ukraine (60%); and 50–90% of the Jews of other Slavic nations, Germany, Hungary, and the Baltic states, and over 25% of the Jews in France. Sephardi communities suffered similar depletions in a few countries, including Greece, the Netherlands and the former Yugoslavia. As the large majority of the victims were Ashkenazi Jews, their percentage dropped from nearly 92% of world Jewry in 1931 to nearly 80% of world Jewry today. The Holocaust also effectively put an end to the dynamic development of the Yiddish language in the previous decades, as the vast majority of the Jewish victims of the Holocaust, around 5 million, were Yiddish speakers. Many of the surviving Ashkenazi Jews emigrated to countries such as Israel, Canada, Argentina, Australia, and the United States after the war.
For religious Jews, what does Minhagim mean?
571a79a64faf5e1900b8a9ba
customs
30
False
For religious Jews, what does Halakha mean?
571a79a64faf5e1900b8a9bb
religious law
66
False
For religious Jews, "Ashkenazic" refers to what two things?
571a79a64faf5e1900b8a9bc
a family ancestry and to a body of customs binding on Jews of that ancestry
952
False
Reform Judaism originated among what type of Jew?
571a79a64faf5e1900b8a9bd
Ashkenazi Jews
1127
False
What type of Jew is required to follow the customs of their ancestors without the option of picking and choosing?
571a79a64faf5e1900b8a9be
Orthodox Jews
263
False
Religious Jews have Minhagim, customs, in addition to Halakha, or religious law, and different interpretations of law. Different groups of religious Jews in different geographic areas historically adopted different customs and interpretations. On certain issues, Orthodox Jews are required to follow the customs of their ancestors, and do not believe they have the option of picking and choosing. For this reason, observant Jews at times find it important for religious reasons to ascertain who their household's religious ancestors are in order to know what customs their household should follow. These times include, for example, when two Jews of different ethnic background marry, when a non-Jew converts to Judaism and determines what customs to follow for the first time, or when a lapsed or less observant Jew returns to traditional Judaism and must determine what was done in his or her family's past. In this sense, "Ashkenazic" refers both to a family ancestry and to a body of customs binding on Jews of that ancestry. Reform Judaism, which does not necessarily follow those minhagim, did nonetheless originate among Ashkenazi Jews.
Most of the Ashkenazi Jews moved away from Europe either immigrating to North America, or other English speaking areas but most to which place?
571a7b2b10f8ca1400305097
Israel
74
False
For most Ashkenazi Jews, Yiddish was replaced with what language?
571a7b2b10f8ca1400305098
Hebrew
399
False
What two groups continue to use Yiddish in daily life?
571a7b2b10f8ca1400305099
many Hasidic and Hareidi groups
492
False
As Ashkenazi Jews moved away from Europe, mostly in the form of aliyah to Israel, or immigration to North America, and other English-speaking areas; and Europe (particularly France) and Latin America, the geographic isolation that gave rise to Ashkenazim has given way to mixing with other cultures, and with non-Ashkenazi Jews who, similarly, are no longer isolated in distinct geographic locales. Hebrew has replaced Yiddish as the primary Jewish language for many Ashkenazi Jews, although many Hasidic and Hareidi groups continue to use Yiddish in daily life. (There are numerous Ashkenazi Jewish anglophones and Russian-speakers as well, although English and Russian are not originally Jewish languages.)
A 2006 study found Ashkenazi Jews to be a what?
571a7c6710f8ca140030509d
a clear, homogeneous genetic subgroup
40
False
Ashkenazi Jews, regardless of their place of origin, belong to the same what?
571a7c6710f8ca140030509e
ethnic group
371
False
Members of which two Haredi Jewish sects continue to marry exclusively within the Ashkenazi Jewish population?
571a7c6710f8ca140030509f
Hasidic or Hareidi sects
673
False
Do Haredi Jews tend to have large or small families?
571a7c6710f8ca14003050a0
Haredi Jews often have extremely large families
912
False
A 2006 study found Ashkenazi Jews to be a clear, homogeneous genetic subgroup. Strikingly, regardless of the place of origin, Ashkenazi Jews can be grouped in the same genetic cohort – that is, regardless of whether an Ashkenazi Jew's ancestors came from Poland, Russia, Hungary, Lithuania, or any other place with a historical Jewish population, they belong to the same ethnic group. The research demonstrates the endogamy of the Jewish population in Europe and lends further credence to the idea of Ashkenazi Jews as an ethnic group. Moreover, though intermarriage among Jews of Ashkenazi descent has become increasingly common, many Haredi Jews, particularly members of Hasidic or Hareidi sects, continue to marry exclusively fellow Ashkenazi Jews. This trend keeps Ashkenazi genes prevalent and also helps researchers further study the genes of Ashkenazi Jews with relative ease. It is noteworthy that these Haredi Jews often have extremely large families.
What percentage of the US population is comprised of Ashkenazi Jews?
571a7ebb10f8ca14003050a5
2%
454
False
What percentage of Nobel award winners from the United States in the 20th century have been Ashkenazi Jews?
571a7ebb10f8ca14003050a6
27%
481
False
About how many Fields Medal winners have been Ashkenazi Jews?
571a7ebb10f8ca14003050a7
a quarter
543
False
About how many of the world's chess champions come from the Ashkenazi Jewish community?
571a7ebb10f8ca14003050a8
half the world's chess champions
611
False
What percentage of the top 100 world chess players come from the Ashkenazi Jewish community?
571a7ebb10f8ca14003050a9
8%
655
False
Ashkenazi Jews have a noted history of achievement in Western societies in the fields of exact and social sciences, literature, finance, politics, media, and others. In those societies where they have been free to enter any profession, they have a record of high occupational achievement, entering professions and fields of commerce where higher education is required. Ashkenazi Jews have won a large number of the Nobel awards. While they make up about 2% of the U.S. population, 27% of United States Nobel prize winners in the 20th century, a quarter of Fields Medal winners, 25% of ACM Turing Award winners, half the world's chess champions, including 8% of the top 100 world chess players, and a quarter of Westinghouse Science Talent Search winners have Ashkenazi Jewish ancestry.
Researcher Gil Atzmon suggests that Ashkenazim branched off from other Jews around the time of what?
571a7fbe4faf5e1900b8a9ea
the destruction of the First Temple
277
False
The destruction of the First Temple was how many years ago?
571a7fbe4faf5e1900b8a9eb
2,500 years ago
314
False
It is estimated that 400 families left Northern Italy around what year?
571a7fbe4faf5e1900b8a9ec
1000
534
False
Ashkenazi families that left Northern Italy went where?
571a7fbe4faf5e1900b8a9ed
Central and eventually Eastern Europe
543
False
Although the Jewish people in general were present across a wide geographical area as described, genetic research done by Gil Atzmon of the Longevity Genes Project at Albert Einstein College of Medicine suggests "that Ashkenazim branched off from other Jews around the time of the destruction of the First Temple, 2,500 years ago ... flourished during the Roman Empire but then went through a 'severe bottleneck' as they dispersed, reducing a population of several million to just 400 families who left Northern Italy around the year 1000 for Central and eventually Eastern Europe."
A 2001 study by Nebel et al. showed that which two populations share the same overall paternal Near Eastern ancestries?
571a81c14faf5e1900b8a9f2
Ashkenazi and Sephardic Jewish populations
46
False
Levels of the Eu 19 (R1a) chromosome are typically seen between what two percentages in Central and Eastern Europeans?
571a81c14faf5e1900b8a9f3
54%–60%
428
False
Levels of the Eu 19 (R1a) chromosome were seen in what percentage of the Ashkenazi Jewish population?
571a81c14faf5e1900b8a9f4
12.7%
460
False
The difference in percentages of the levels of Eu 19 (R1a) chromosomes between Central and Eastern Europeans and the Ashkenazi population would indicate what?
571a81c14faf5e1900b8a9f5
low-level gene flow from surrounding European populations and/or genetic drift during isolation
561
False
A 2001 study by Nebel et al. showed that both Ashkenazi and Sephardic Jewish populations share the same overall paternal Near Eastern ancestries. In comparison with data available from other relevant populations in the region, Jews were found to be more closely related to groups in the north of the Fertile Crescent. The authors also report on Eu 19 (R1a) chromosomes, which are very frequent in Central and Eastern Europeans (54%–60%) at elevated frequency (12.7%) in Ashkenazi Jews. They hypothesized that the differences among Ashkenazim Jews could reflect low-level gene flow from surrounding European populations and/or genetic drift during isolation. A later 2005 study by Nebel et al., found a similar level of 11.5% of male Ashkenazim belonging to R1a1a (M17+), the dominant Y-chromosome haplogroup in Central and Eastern Europeans.
In the late Middle Ages, the Ashkenazi population shifted in which direction?
571a830810f8ca14003050c3
shifted steadily eastward
338
False
In the late Middle Ages, as the Ashkenazi population shifted it moved from what location?
571a830810f8ca14003050c4
German lands
376
False
In the late Middle Ages, as the Ashkenazi population shifted it moved into which location?
571a830810f8ca14003050c5
Poland and Lithuania (including present-day Belarus and Ukraine)
394
False
In the late 18th and 19th centuries, Jews who returned to German lands experienced what?
571a830810f8ca14003050c6
a cultural reorientation
582
False
They established communities throughout Central and Eastern Europe, which had been their primary region of concentration and residence until recent times, evolving their own distinctive characteristics and diasporic identities. In the late Middle Ages the center of gravity of the Ashkenazi population, and its traditional cultural life, shifted steadily eastward, out of the German lands into Poland and Lithuania (including present-day Belarus and Ukraine). In the course of the late 18th and 19th centuries, those Jews who remained in or returned to the German lands experienced a cultural reorientation; under the influence of the Haskalah and the struggle for emancipation, as well the intellectual and cultural ferment in urban centers, they gradually abandoned the use of Yiddish, while developing new forms of Jewish religious life and cultural identity.
The name of Ashkenazi derives from which biblical figure?
571a85094faf5e1900b8a9fa
Ashkenaz
55
False
Ashkenaz was the first son of whom?
571a85094faf5e1900b8a9fb
Gomer
82
False
The name of Gomer has often been linked to what ethnonym?
571a85094faf5e1900b8a9fc
Cimmerians
237
False
Assyrian Aškūza expelled which group from the Armenian area of the Upper Euphrates?
571a85094faf5e1900b8a9fd
Cimmerians
362
False
The name Ashkenazi derives from the biblical figure of Ashkenaz, the first son of Gomer, son of Khaphet, son of Noah, and a Japhetic patriarch in the Table of Nations (Genesis 10). The name of Gomer has often been linked to the ethnonym Cimmerians. Biblical Ashkenaz is usually derived from Assyrian Aškūza (cuneiform Aškuzai/Iškuzai), a people who expelled the Cimmerians from the Armenian area of the Upper Euphrates, whose name is usually associated with the name of the Scythians. The intrusive n in the Biblical name is likely due to a scribal error confusing a waw ו with a nun נ.
Recent studies have found that contemporary Jews (excluding Indian and Ethiopian Jews) have a close genetic relationship to the people of what area?
571a868410f8ca14003050df
the Levant
381
False
The genome-wide genetic study carried out in 2010 by Behar et al. examined the genetic relationships among which Jewish groups?
571a868410f8ca14003050e0
all major Jewish groups
107
False
The genome-wide genetic study carried out in 2010 by Behar et al. examined the genetic relationship between Jewish groups and what other population?
571a868410f8ca14003050e1
non-Jewish ethnic populations
222
False
The genome-wide genetic study carried out in 2010 by Behar et al. examined the genetic relationships among all major Jewish groups, including Ashkenazim, as well as the genetic relationship between these Jewish groups and non-Jewish ethnic populations. The study found that contemporary Jews (excluding Indian and Ethiopian Jews) have a close genetic relationship with people from the Levant. The authors explained that "the most parsimonious explanation for these observations is a common genetic origin, which is consistent with an historical formulation of the Jewish people as descending from ancient Hebrew and Israelite residents of the Levant".
The history of Jews in Greece goes back to which era?
571a87714faf5e1900b8aa14
Archaic Era of Greece
56
False
Which Greek historian knew of the Jews?
571a87714faf5e1900b8aa15
Herodotus
204
False
What did the Greek historian Herodotus refer to the Jews as?
571a87714faf5e1900b8aa16
"Palestinian Syrians"
247
False
The Greek historian Herodotus listed the Jews as the levied naval forces in service to whom?
571a87714faf5e1900b8aa17
the invading Persians
330
False
The Synagogue in the Agora of Athens is dated to the period between which two dates?
571a87714faf5e1900b8aa18
267 and 396 CE
554
False
The history of Jews in Greece goes back to at least the Archaic Era of Greece, when the classical culture of Greece was undergoing a process of formalization after the Greek Dark Age. The Greek historian Herodotus knew of the Jews, whom he called "Palestinian Syrians", and listed them among the levied naval forces in service of the invading Persians. While Jewish monotheism was not deeply affected by Greek Polytheism, the Greek way of living was attractive for many wealthier Jews. The Synagogue in the Agora of Athens is dated to the period between 267 and 396 CE. The Stobi Synagogue in Macedonia, was built on the ruins of a more ancient synagogue in the 4th century, while later in the 5th century, the synagogue was transformed into Christian basilica.
According to Daniel Elazar at the Jerusalem Center for Public Affairs, at the end of the 11th century, what percentage of the world's Jewry was Sephardic?
571a898c4faf5e1900b8aa3c
97%
213
False
According to Daniel Elazar at the Jerusalem Center for Public Affairs, at the end of the 11th century, what percentage of the world's Jewry was Ashkenazi?
571a898c4faf5e1900b8aa3d
3%
250
False
By 1931, Ashkenazi Jews were what percentage of the world Jewry?
571a898c4faf5e1900b8aa3e
92%
831
False
In an essay on Sephardi Jewry, Daniel Elazar at the Jerusalem Center for Public Affairs summarized the demographic history of Ashkenazi Jews in the last thousand years, noting that at the end of the 11th century, 97% of world Jewry was Sephardic and 3% Ashkenazi; by the end of XVI century, the: 'Treaty on the redemption of captives', by Gracian of the God's Mother, Mercy Priest, who was imprisoned by Turks, cites a Tunisian Hebrew, made captive when arriving to Gaeta, who aided others with money, named: 'Simon Escanasi', in the mid-17th century, "Sephardim still outnumbered Ashkenazim three to two", but by the end of the 18th century, "Ashkenazim outnumbered Sephardim three to two, the result of improved living conditions in Christian Europe versus the Ottoman Muslim world." By 1931, Ashkenazi Jews accounted for nearly 92% of world Jewry. These factors are sheer demography showing the migration patterns of Jews from Southern and Western Europe to Central and Eastern Europe.
In Israel, the term Ashkenazi is now used in what manner?
571a8a4e10f8ca14003050f7
in a manner unrelated to its original meaning
42
False
In Israel, the term Ashkenazi is now used to refer to whom?
571a8a4e10f8ca14003050f8
all Jews who settled in Europe and sometimes including those whose ethnic background is actually Sephardic
106
False
Are Jews of mixed backgrounds more or less common today?
571a8a4e10f8ca14003050f9
Jews of mixed background are increasingly common
407
False
In Israel, the term Ashkenazi is now used in a manner unrelated to its original meaning, often applied to all Jews who settled in Europe and sometimes including those whose ethnic background is actually Sephardic. Jews of any non-Ashkenazi background, including Mizrahi, Yemenite, Kurdish and others who have no connection with the Iberian Peninsula, have similarly come to be lumped together as Sephardic. Jews of mixed background are increasingly common, partly because of intermarriage between Ashkenazi and non-Ashkenazi, and partly because many do not see such historic markers as relevant to their life experiences as Jews.
By tradition, when a Sephardic or Mizrahi woman marries into an Orthodox or Haredi Ashkenazi Jewish family she raises her children to be which type of Jew?
571a8b5e4faf5e1900b8aa54
Ashkenazi Jews
318
False
When an Ashkenazi woman marries a Sephardi or Mizrahi man it is expected that her children will take on which kind of identity?
571a8b5e4faf5e1900b8aa55
children inherit a Sephardic identity
452
False
A convert generally follows which practice?
571a8b5e4faf5e1900b8aa56
the practice of the beth din that converted him or her
564
False
In this respect, the counterpart of Ashkenazi is Sephardic, since most non-Ashkenazi Orthodox Jews follow Sephardic rabbinical authorities, whether or not they are ethnically Sephardic. By tradition, a Sephardic or Mizrahi woman who marries into an Orthodox or Haredi Ashkenazi Jewish family raises her children to be Ashkenazi Jews; conversely an Ashkenazi woman who marries a Sephardi or Mizrahi man is expected to take on Sephardic practice and the children inherit a Sephardic identity, though in practice many families compromise. A convert generally follows the practice of the beth din that converted him or her. With the integration of Jews from around the world in Israel, North America, and other places, the religious definition of an Ashkenazi Jew is blurring, especially outside Orthodox Judaism.
When did the Dreyfus affair occur?
571a8c524faf5e1900b8aa62
1890s
131
False
In what years did large numbers of Jews arrive in France?
571a8c524faf5e1900b8aa63
the 1920s and 1930s
141
False
What three factors led to large numbers of Jews moving to France?
571a8c524faf5e1900b8aa64
antisemitism, the Russian revolution, and the economic turmoil of the Great Depression
231
False
By the 1930s, Paris was noted for which two things related to Jews?
571a8c524faf5e1900b8aa65
a vibrant Yiddish culture, and many Jews were involved in diverse political movements
343
False
But after emancipation, a sense of a unified French Jewry emerged, especially when France was wracked by the Dreyfus affair in the 1890s. In the 1920s and 1930s, Ashkenazi Jews from Europe arrived in large numbers as refugees from antisemitism, the Russian revolution, and the economic turmoil of the Great Depression. By the 1930s, Paris had a vibrant Yiddish culture, and many Jews were involved in diverse political movements. After the Vichy years and the Holocaust, the French Jewish population was augmented once again, first by Ashkenazi refugees from Central Europe, and later by Sephardi immigrants and refugees from North Africa, many of them francophone.
What is the Siddur?
571a8d3710f8ca1400305117
prayer book
136
False
The term Ashkenazi also refers to what?
571a8d3710f8ca1400305118
the nusach Ashkenaz
34
False
The nusach Ashkenaz refers to what in Hebrew?
571a8d3710f8ca1400305119
"liturgical tradition", or rite
63
False
Two other major forms of nusach among Ashkenazic Jews are what?
571a8d3710f8ca140030511a
Nusach Sefard (not to be confused with the Sephardic ritual), which is the general Polish Hasidic nusach, and Nusach Ari
354
False
Nusach Ari is used by whom?
571a8d3710f8ca140030511b
Lubavitch Hasidim
487
False
The term Ashkenazi also refers to the nusach Ashkenaz (Hebrew, "liturgical tradition", or rite) used by Ashkenazi Jews in their Siddur (prayer book). A nusach is defined by a liturgical tradition's choice of prayers, order of prayers, text of prayers and melodies used in the singing of prayers. Two other major forms of nusach among Ashkenazic Jews are Nusach Sefard (not to be confused with the Sephardic ritual), which is the general Polish Hasidic nusach, and Nusach Ari, as used by Lubavitch Hasidim.
When did efforts begin to try and identify the origins of Ashkenazi Jews through DNA analysis?
571a8e1c10f8ca1400305121
the 1990s
80
False
How many types of genetic origin testing currently exist?
571a8e1c10f8ca1400305122
three types of genetic origin testing
112
False
What are the three types of origin testing?
571a8e1c10f8ca1400305123
autosomal DNA (atDNA), mitochondrial DNA (mtDNA), and Y-chromosomal DNA (Y-DNA)
151
False
Autosomal DNA is what?
571a8e1c10f8ca1400305124
a mixture from an individual's entire ancestry
249
False
What does Y-DNA show?
571a8e1c10f8ca1400305125
a male's lineage only along his strict-paternal line
309
False
Efforts to identify the origins of Ashkenazi Jews through DNA analysis began in the 1990s. Currently, there are three types of genetic origin testing, autosomal DNA (atDNA), mitochondrial DNA (mtDNA), and Y-chromosomal DNA (Y-DNA). Autosomal DNA is a mixture from an individual's entire ancestry, Y-DNA shows a male's lineage only along his strict-paternal line, mtDNA shows any person's lineage only along the strict-maternal line. Genome-wide association studies have also been employed to yield findings relevant to genetic origins.
A 2006 study by Behar et al, suggested that what percentage of the current Ashkenazi population was descended from "founder lineages"?
571a8f6a4faf5e1900b8aa7a
40%
136
False
A 2006 study by Behar et al, suggested that a large percentage of the current Ashkenazi population is descended matrilineally from how many women?
571a8f6a4faf5e1900b8aa7b
from just four women
203
False
The women that a large percentage of the current Ashkenazi population is descended from are also known as what?
571a8f6a4faf5e1900b8aa7c
founder lineages
229
False
The founder lineages were likely from what type of mtDNA pool?
571a8f6a4faf5e1900b8aa7d
Hebrew/Levantine
273
False
In 2006, a study by Behar et al., based on what was at that time high-resolution analysis of haplogroup K (mtDNA), suggested that about 40% of the current Ashkenazi population is descended matrilineally from just four women, or "founder lineages", that were "likely from a Hebrew/Levantine mtDNA pool" originating in the Middle East in the 1st and 2nd centuries CE. Additionally, Behar et al. suggested that the rest of Ashkenazi mtDNA is originated from ~150 women, and that most of those were also likely of Middle Eastern origin. In reference specifically to Haplogroup K, they suggested that although it is common throughout western Eurasia, "the observed global pattern of distribution renders very unlikely the possibility that the four aforementioned founder lineages entered the Ashkenazi mtDNA pool via gene flow from a European host population".
When did the idea that the Ashkenazi may have come from Khazar stock come about?
571a908010f8ca1400305151
in the later 19th century
64
False
Did Eran Elhaik, from Johns Hopkins University School of Public Health argue for or against Khazar descent?
571a908010f8ca1400305152
argued for Khazar descent
273
False
What did a 2013 study of Ashkenazi mitochondrial DNA find in regards to the Khazar descent idea?
571a908010f8ca1400305153
no significant evidence of Khazar contribution to the Ashkenazi Jewish DNA
464
False
Speculation that the Ashkenazi arose from Khazar stock surfaced in the later 19th century and has met with mixed fortunes in the scholarly literature. In late 2012 Eran Elhaik, a research associate studying genetics at the Johns Hopkins University School of Public Health, argued for Khazar descent in his paper The Missing Link of Jewish European Ancestry: Contrasting the Rhineland and the Khazarian Hypotheses. A 2013 study of Ashkenazi mitochondrial DNA found no significant evidence of Khazar contribution to the Ashkenazi Jewish DNA, as would be predicted by the Khazar hypothesis.
Grave site excavations near where Roman garrisons were established attest to the presence of Jews after what centuries?
571a919310f8ca1400305157
the 2nd and 3rd centuries
253
False
The large number of Jews in Pannonia formed communities and built what?
571a919310f8ca1400305158
a synagogue
399
False
In what year were the Roman garrison populations withdrawn to Italy?
571a919310f8ca1400305159
433
1137
False
Sporadic epigraphic evidence in grave site excavations, particularly in Brigetio (Szőny), Aquincum (Óbuda), Intercisa (Dunaújváros), Triccinae (Sárvár), Savaria (Szombathely), Sopianae (Pécs), and Osijek in Croatia, attest to the presence of Jews after the 2nd and 3rd centuries where Roman garrisons were established, There was a sufficient number of Jews in Pannonia to form communities and build a synagogue. Jewish troops were among the Syrian soldiers transferred there, and replenished from the Middle East, after 175 C.E. Jews and especially Syrians came from Antioch, Tarsus and Cappadocia. Others came from Italy and the Hellenized parts of the Roman empire. The excavations suggest they first lived in isolated enclaves attached to Roman legion camps, and intermarried among other similar oriental families within the military orders of the region.Raphael Patai states that later Roman writers remarked that they differed little in either customs, manner of writing, or names from the people among whom they dwelt; and it was especially difficult to differentiate Jews from the Syrians. After Pannonia was ceded to the Huns in 433, the garrison populations were withdrawn to Italy, and only a few, enigmatic traces remain of a possible Jewish presence in the area some centuries later.
What year marked the onset of the Crusades?
571a927010f8ca1400305167
1095
34
False
What year were the expulsions from England?
571a927010f8ca1400305168
1290
73
False
What year were the expulsions from France?
571a927010f8ca1400305169
1394
88
False
After expulsions from England and France, Jewish migration headed in which direction?
571a927010f8ca140030516a
Jewish migration pushed eastward
132
False
As Jews were expelled from England, France, and parts of Germany they head into which three countries?
571a927010f8ca140030516b
Poland (10th century), Lithuania (10th century), and Russia (12th century)
170
False
With the onset of the Crusades in 1095, and the expulsions from England (1290), France (1394), and parts of Germany (15th century), Jewish migration pushed eastward into Poland (10th century), Lithuania (10th century), and Russia (12th century). Over this period of several hundred years, some have suggested, Jewish economic activity was focused on trade, business management, and financial services, due to several presumed factors: Christian European prohibitions restricting certain activities by Jews, preventing certain financial activities (such as "usurious" loans) between Christians, high rates of literacy, near universal male education, and ability of merchants to rely upon and trust family members living in different regions and countries.
What is the name of the Midrash compilation?
571a93be4faf5e1900b8aaa8
Genesis Rabbah
28
False
What is the name of the Rabbi mentioned in relation to the Genesis Rabbah?
571a93be4faf5e1900b8aaa9
Rabbi Berechiah
44
False
What are the three German tribes or German lands talked about by Rabbi Berechiah?
571a93be4faf5e1900b8aaaa
Ashkenaz, Riphath, and Togarmah
69
False
Rabbi Berechiah's view is based on what?
571a93be4faf5e1900b8aaab
the Talmud
318
False
In the Midrash compilation, Genesis Rabbah, Rabbi Berechiah mentions Ashkenaz, Riphath, and Togarmah as German tribes or as German lands. It may correspond to a Greek word that may have existed in the Greek dialect of the Palestinian Jews, or the text is corrupted from "Germanica." This view of Berechiah is based on the Talmud (Yoma 10a; Jerusalem Talmud Megillah 71b), where Gomer, the father of Ashkenaz, is translated by Germamia, which evidently stands for Germany, and which was suggested by the similarity of the sound.
After emigration from the west, did Jewish communities in places like Poland have a stable or unstable sociopolitical environment?
571a94a810f8ca1400305171
a comparatively stable socio-political environment
121
False
What precipitated the development of the Hasidic movement?
571a94a810f8ca1400305172
A thriving publishing industry and the printing of hundreds of biblical commentaries
173
False
Massive western emigration occurred around what time?
571a94a810f8ca1400305173
in the 19th and 20th centuries
455
False
Ashkenazi Jews have made up the majority of the American Jewish community since when?
571a94a810f8ca1400305174
1750
669
False
In the generations after emigration from the west, Jewish communities in places like Poland, Russia, and Belarus enjoyed a comparatively stable socio-political environment. A thriving publishing industry and the printing of hundreds of biblical commentaries precipitated the development of the Hasidic movement as well as major Jewish academic centers. After two centuries of comparative tolerance in the new nations, massive westward emigration occurred in the 19th and 20th centuries in response to pogroms in the east and the economic opportunities offered in other parts of the world. Ashkenazi Jews have made up the majority of the American Jewish community since 1750.
Religious Ashkenazi Jews living in Israel follow the authority of whom in certain matters?
571a95814faf5e1900b8aace
the chief Ashkenazi rabbi
81
False
What is the Knesset?
571a95814faf5e1900b8aacf
a unicameral legislature with 120 seats
853
False
Religious Ashkenazi Jews look to the authority of the chief Ashkenazi rabbi in which matters?
571a95814faf5e1900b8aad0
halakhic matters
110
False
Religious Ashkenazi Jews living in Israel are obliged to follow the authority of the chief Ashkenazi rabbi in halakhic matters. In this respect, a religiously Ashkenazi Jew is an Israeli who is more likely to support certain religious interests in Israel, including certain political parties. These political parties result from the fact that a portion of the Israeli electorate votes for Jewish religious parties; although the electoral map changes from one election to another, there are generally several small parties associated with the interests of religious Ashkenazi Jews. The role of religious parties, including small religious parties that play important roles as coalition members, results in turn from Israel's composition as a complex society in which competing social, economic, and religious interests stand for election to the Knesset, a unicameral legislature with 120 seats.
What two things were mentioned as contributing to bringing younger Jews together in North American cities?
571a96444faf5e1900b8aade
social trends such as the chavurah movement, and the emergence of "post-denominational Judaism"
142
False
What do many Ashkenazi Jews study outside of the Yeshiva framework?
571a96444faf5e1900b8aadf
Kabbalah
357
False
Which new trend has been associated with the Jewish Renewal movement?
571a96444faf5e1900b8aae0
ecstatic worship
472
False
New developments in Judaism often transcend differences in religious practice between Ashkenazi and Sephardic Jews. In North American cities, social trends such as the chavurah movement, and the emergence of "post-denominational Judaism" often bring together younger Jews of diverse ethnic backgrounds. In recent years, there has been increased interest in Kabbalah, which many Ashkenazi Jews study outside of the Yeshiva framework. Another trend is the new popularity of ecstatic worship in the Jewish Renewal movement and the Carlebach style minyan, both of which are nominally of Ashkenazi origin.
Most people with the surname Ashkenazi, hail from which particular community?
571a96bf4faf5e1900b8aae4
Syrian Jewish community
180
False
Some people with the surname shorten it to what?
571a96bf4faf5e1900b8aae5
Ash
585
False
What famous person is mentioned as having the surname Ashkenazi?
571a96bf4faf5e1900b8aae6
Vladimir Ashkenazy
59
False
Several famous people have Ashkenazi as a surname, such as Vladimir Ashkenazy. However, most people with this surname hail from within Sephardic communities, particularly from the Syrian Jewish community. The Sephardic carriers of the surname would have some Ashkenazi ancestors since the surname was adopted by families who were initially of Ashkenazic origins who moved to Sephardi countries and joined those communities. Ashkenazi would be formally adopted as the family surname having started off as a nickname imposed by their adopted communities. Some have shortened the name to Ash.
It was found that the Y-chromosome of Ashkenazi and Sephardic Jews contained mutations that are also common with what other people?
571a97734faf5e1900b8aaf4
Middle Eastern peoples
233
False
It was found that the Y-chromosome of Ashkenazi and Sephardic Jews contained mutations that are uncommon with what other people?
571a97734faf5e1900b8aaf5
uncommon in the general European population
261
False
The findings related to the Y-chromosomes suggest that males ancestors of Ashkenazi Jews could be traced mostly to where?
571a97734faf5e1900b8aaf6
the Middle East
393
False
A study of haplotypes of the Y-chromosome, published in 2000, addressed the paternal origins of Ashkenazi Jews. Hammer et al. found that the Y-chromosome of Ashkenazi and Sephardic Jews contained mutations that are also common among Middle Eastern peoples, but uncommon in the general European population. This suggested that the male ancestors of the Ashkenazi Jews could be traced mostly to the Middle East. The proportion of male genetic admixture in Ashkenazi Jews amounts to less than 0.5% per generation over an estimated 80 generations, with "relatively minor contribution of European Y chromosomes to the Ashkenazim," and a total admixture estimate "very similar to Motulsky's average estimate of 12.5%." This supported the finding that "Diaspora Jews from Europe, Northwest Africa, and the Near East resemble each other more closely than they resemble their non-Jewish neighbors." "Past research found that 50–80 percent of DNA from the Ashkenazi Y chromosome, which is used to trace the male lineage, originated in the Near East," Richards said.
A 2013 study estimates that what percentage of Ashkenazi maternal ancestry comes from women indigenous to Europe?
571a98514faf5e1900b8ab04
80 percent
1471
False
A 2013 study estimates that what percentage of Ashkenazi maternal ancestry comes from women from the Near East?
571a98514faf5e1900b8ab05
8 percent
1561
False
A 2013 study estimates that what percentage of Ashkenazi maternal ancestry comes from women of undetermined origins?
571a98514faf5e1900b8ab06
while the origin of the remainder is undetermined
1591
False
In 2013, however, a study of Ashkenazi mitochondrial DNA by a team led by Martin B. Richards of the University of Huddersfield in England reached different conclusions, again corroborating the pre-2006 origin hypothesis. Testing was performed on the full 16,600 DNA units composing mitochondrial DNA (the 2006 Behar study had only tested 1,000 units) in all their subjects, and the study found that the four main female Ashkenazi founders had descent lines that were established in Europe 10,000 to 20,000 years in the past while most of the remaining minor founders also have a deep European ancestry. The study states that the great majority of Ashkenazi maternal lineages were not brought from the Near East (i.e., they were non-Israelite), nor were they recruited in the Caucasus (i.e., they were non-Khazar), but instead they were assimilated within Europe, primarily of Italian and Old French origins. Richards summarized the findings on the female line as such: "[N]one [of the mtDNA] came from the North Caucasus, located along the border between Europe and Asia between the Black and Caspian seas. All of our presently available studies including my own, should thoroughly debunk one of the most questionable, but still tenacious, hypotheses: that most Ashkenazi Jews can trace their roots to the mysterious Khazar Kingdom that flourished during the ninth century in the region between the Byzantine Empire and the Persian Empire." The 2013 study estimated that 80 percent of Ashkenazi maternal ancestry comes from women indigenous to Europe, and only 8 percent from the Near East, while the origin of the remainder is undetermined. According to the study these findings "point to a significant role for the conversion of women in the formation of Ashkenazi communities."
In a 2010 study, which two groups were identified by principal component, phylogenetic, and identity by descent analysis?
571a993510f8ca140030518d
Middle Eastern Jews and European/Syrian Jews
175
False
The 2010 study found that what modern population is most closely related to Ashkenazi Jews?
571a993510f8ca140030518e
modern-day Italians
1452
False
Ashkenazi Jews and Italians may be genetically similar due to what two factors?
571a993510f8ca140030518f
inter-marriage and conversions in the time of the Roman Empire
1572
False
A 2010 study on Jewish ancestry by Atzmon-Ostrer et al. stated "Two major groups were identified by principal component, phylogenetic, and identity by descent (IBD) analysis: Middle Eastern Jews and European/Syrian Jews. The IBD segment sharing and the proximity of European Jews to each other and to southern European populations suggested similar origins for European Jewry and refuted large-scale genetic contributions of Central and Eastern European and Slavic populations to the formation of Ashkenazi Jewry", as both groups – the Middle Eastern Jews and European/Syrian Jews – shared common ancestors in the Middle East about 2500 years ago. The study examines genetic markers spread across the entire genome and shows that the Jewish groups (Ashkenazi and non Ashkenazi) share large swaths of DNA, indicating close relationships and that each of the Jewish groups in the study (Iranian, Iraqi, Syrian, Italian, Turkish, Greek and Ashkenazi) has its own genetic signature but is more closely related to the other Jewish groups than to their fellow non-Jewish countrymen. Atzmon's team found that the SNP markers in genetic segments of 3 million DNA letters or longer were 10 times more likely to be identical among Jews than non-Jews. Results of the analysis also tally with biblical accounts of the fate of the Jews. The study also found that with respect to non-Jewish European groups, the population most closely related to Ashkenazi Jews are modern-day Italians. The study speculated that the genetic-similarity between Ashkenazi Jews and Italians may be due to inter-marriage and conversions in the time of the Roman Empire. It was also found that any two Ashkenazi Jewish participants in the study shared about as much DNA as fourth or fifth cousins.
How many geneticists carried out the 2013 trans-genome study?
571a99af4faf5e1900b8ab14
30 geneticists
41
False
How many universities and academies participated in the 2013 trans-genome study?
571a99af4faf5e1900b8ab15
13 universities and academies
62
False
What did the 2013 trans-genome study find in regards to Ashkenazi Jews and Khazar origins?
571a99af4faf5e1900b8ab16
found no evidence of Khazar origin among Ashkenazi Jews
213
False
A 2013 trans-genome study carried out by 30 geneticists, from 13 universities and academies, from 9 countries, assembling the largest data set available to date, for assessment of Ashkenazi Jewish genetic origins found no evidence of Khazar origin among Ashkenazi Jews. "Thus, analysis of Ashkenazi Jews together with a large sample from the region of the Khazar Khaganate corroborates the earlier results that Ashkenazi Jews derive their ancestry primarily from populations of the Middle East and Europe, that they possess considerable shared ancestry with other Jewish populations, and that there is no indication of a significant genetic contribution either from within or from north of the Caucasus region", the authors concluded.
The most well supported theory on the origins of the Ashkenazim is one that details a Jewish migration through which modern day country?
571a9a4110f8ca1400305193
through what is now Italy
192
False
The historical record attests to Jewish communities in southern Europe since what time?
571a9a4110f8ca1400305194
pre-Christian times
331
False
Many Jews were denied full Roman citizenship until what year?
571a9a4110f8ca1400305195
212 CE
403
False
Who gave Jews the right to full Roman citizenship?
571a9a4110f8ca1400305196
Emperor Caracalla
416
False
The origins of the Ashkenazim are obscure, and many theories have arisen speculating about their ultimate provenance. The most well supported theory is the one that details a Jewish migration through what is now Italy and other parts of southern Europe. The historical record attests to Jewish communities in southern Europe since pre-Christian times. Many Jews were denied full Roman citizenship until 212 CE, when Emperor Caracalla granted all free peoples this privilege. Jews were required to pay a poll tax until the reign of Emperor Julian in 363. In the late Roman Empire, Jews were free to form networks of cultural and religious ties and enter into various local occupations. But, after Christianity became the official religion of Rome and Constantinople in 380, Jews were increasingly marginalized.
Jewish communities were seen north of the Alps and Pyrenees as early as which centuries?
571a9ace10f8ca14003051a3
8th and 9th century
102
False
Jewish settlers appear along the Rhine by what century?
571a9ace10f8ca14003051a4
11th century
130
False
What two factors contributed the increase in Jewish settlers along the Rhine and other similar areas?
571a9ace10f8ca14003051a5
often in response to new economic opportunities and at the invitation of local Christian rulers
291
False
Historical records show evidence of Jewish communities north of the Alps and Pyrenees as early as the 8th and 9th century. By the 11th century Jewish settlers, moving from southern European and Middle Eastern centers, appear to have begun to settle in the north, especially along the Rhine, often in response to new economic opportunities and at the invitation of local Christian rulers. Thus Baldwin V, Count of Flanders, invited Jacob ben Yekutiel and his fellow Jews to settle in his lands; and soon after the Norman Conquest of England, William the Conqueror likewise extended a welcome to continental Jews to take up residence there. Bishop Rüdiger Huzmann called on the Jews of Mainz to relocate to Speyer. In all of these decisions, the idea that Jews had the know-how and capacity to jump-start the economy, improve revenues, and enlarge trade seems to have played a prominent role. Typically Jews relocated close to the markets and churches in town centres, where, though they came under the authority of both royal and ecclesiastical powers, they were accorded administrative autonomy.
When did Hai Gaon refer to questions that had been addressed to him from Ashkenaz?
571a9b474faf5e1900b8ab24
the first half of the 11th century
3
False
Who is Hai Gaon thought to be referring to when he says Ashkenaz?
571a9b474faf5e1900b8ab25
Germany
144
False
In the latter half of the 11th century, Rashi refers to what two things?
571a9b474faf5e1900b8ab26
both the language of Ashkenaz and the country of Ashkenaz
208
False
In the first half of the 11th century, Hai Gaon refers to questions that had been addressed to him from Ashkenaz, by which he undoubtedly means Germany. Rashi in the latter half of the 11th century refers to both the language of Ashkenaz and the country of Ashkenaz. During the 12th century, the word appears quite frequently. In the Mahzor Vitry, the kingdom of Ashkenaz is referred to chiefly in regard to the ritual of the synagogue there, but occasionally also with regard to certain other observances.
When did France expel its original Jewish population?
571a9ba84faf5e1900b8ab2a
the Middle Ages
184
False
By the time of the French Revolution there were how many distinct Jewish populations?
571a9ba84faf5e1900b8ab2b
two distinct Jewish populations
250
False
France's blended Jewish community is typical of the cultural recombination that is going on among Jews throughout the world. Although France expelled its original Jewish population in the Middle Ages, by the time of the French Revolution, there were two distinct Jewish populations. One consisted of Sephardic Jews, originally refugees from the Inquisition and concentrated in the southwest, while the other community was Ashkenazi, concentrated in formerly German Alsace, and speaking mainly Yiddish. The two communities were so separate and different that the National Assembly emancipated them separately in 1790 and 1791.
All studies agree that genetic overlap with what location exists in both lineages?
571a9be84faf5e1900b8ab2e
Fertile Crescent
424
False
Various studies have arrived at diverging conclusions regarding both the degree and the sources of the non-Levantine admixture in Ashkenazim, particularly in respect to the extent of the non-Levantine genetic origin observed in Ashkenazi maternal lineages, which is in contrast to the predominant Levantine genetic origin observed in Ashkenazi paternal lineages. All studies nevertheless agree that genetic overlap with the Fertile Crescent exists in both lineages, albeit at differing rates. Collectively, Ashkenazi Jews are less genetically diverse than other Jewish ethnic divisions.
What year did David Goldstein report that unlike male Ashkenazi lineages, the female lineages in Ashkenazi Jewish communities did not seem to be Middle Eastern?
571a9c8f4faf5e1900b8ab30
2002
291
False
Before 2006, geneticists had largely attributed the ethnogenesis of most of the world's Jewish populations, including Ashkenazi Jews, to Israelite Jewish male migrants from the Middle East and "the women from each local population whom they took as wives and converted to Judaism." Thus, in 2002, in line with this model of origin, David Goldstein, now of Duke University, reported that unlike male Ashkenazi lineages, the female lineages in Ashkenazi Jewish communities "did not seem to be Middle Eastern", and that each community had its own genetic pattern and even that "in some cases the mitochondrial DNA was closely related to that of the host community." In his view this suggested "that Jewish men had arrived from the Middle East, taken wives from the host population and converted them to Judaism, after which there was no further intermarriage with non-Jews."
In a 2006 study, how many autosomal SNPs were used?
571a9c9210f8ca14003051bd
five thousand
40
False
A 2006 study by Seldin et al. used over five thousand autosomal SNPs to demonstrate European genetic substructure. The results showed "a consistent and reproducible distinction between 'northern' and 'southern' European population groups". Most northern, central, and eastern Europeans (Finns, Swedes, English, Irish, Germans, and Ukrainians) showed >90% in the "northern" population group, while most individual participants with southern European ancestry (Italians, Greeks, Portuguese, Spaniards) showed >85% in the "southern" group. Both Ashkenazi Jews as well as Sephardic Jews showed >85% membership in the "southern" group. Referring to the Jews clustering with southern Europeans, the authors state the results were "consistent with a later Mediterranean origin of these ethnic groups".
Pharmaceutical_industry
Who identified the active substance?
571a6dbe4faf5e1900b8a9a0
John Abel
545
False
Who marketed epinephrine?
571a6dbe4faf5e1900b8a9a1
Parke Davis
837
False
As an inhaler, what was epinephrine used to treat?
571a6dbe4faf5e1900b8a9a3
nasal congestion
1168
False
Who developed the method to obtain epinephrine in a pure state?
571a6dbe4faf5e1900b8a9a4
Jokichi Takamine
708
False
What could epinephrine treat?
571a79d910f8ca1400305084
nasal congestion
1168
False
When did epinephrine stop being available in the United States?
571a79d910f8ca1400305085
2011
1061
False
What trade name was epinephrine marketed under?
571a79d910f8ca1400305086
Adrenalin
891
False
Who developed the method to get epinephrine in it's pure form?
571a79d910f8ca1400305087
Jokichi Takamine
708
False
In what year was epinephrine discovered?
571ced8fdd7acb1400e4c1aa
1897
540
False
What was the trade name of epinephrine?
571ced8fdd7acb1400e4c1ab
Adrenalin
891
False
Who first discovered epinephrine?
571ced8fdd7acb1400e4c1ac
John Abel
545
False
What is epinephrine used to treat?
571ced8fdd7acb1400e4c1ad
asthma attacks
986
False
In what year was Primatene Mist no longer sold in the United States?
571ced8fdd7acb1400e4c1ae
2011
1061
False
John Abel
545
Who identified the inactive substance?
5ad35451604f3c001a3fdd75
True
Parke Davis
824
Who marketed Primatene?
5ad35451604f3c001a3fdd76
True
Adrenalin
891
What trade name was Primatene marketed under?
5ad35451604f3c001a3fdd77
True
nasal congestion
1168
As an inhaler, what was Primatene used to treat?
5ad35451604f3c001a3fdd78
True
Jokichi Takamine
708
Who developed the method to obtain Primatene in a pure state?
5ad35451604f3c001a3fdd79
True
By the 1890s the profound effect of adrenal extracts on many different tissue types had been discovered, setting off a search both for the mechanism of chemical signalling and efforts to exploit these observations for the development of new drugs. The blood pressure raising and vasoconstrictive effects of adrenal extracts were of particular interest to surgeons as hemostatic agents and as treatment for shock, and a number of companies developed products based on adrenal extracts containing varying purities of the active substance. In 1897 John Abel of Johns Hopkins University identified the active principle as epinephrine, which he isolated in an impure state as the sulfate salt. Industrial chemist Jokichi Takamine later developed a method for obtaining epinephrine in a pure state, and licensed the technology to Parke Davis. Parke Davis marketed epinephrine under the trade name Adrenalin. Injected epinephrine proved to be especially efficacious for the acute treatment of asthma attacks, and an inhaled version was sold in the United States until 2011 (Primatene Mist). By 1929 epinephrine had been formulated into an inhaler for use in the treatment of nasal congestion.
Who developed Amphetamine?
571a7b594faf5e1900b8a9ce
Smith, Kline and French
628
False
What are common side effects of Amphetamine?
571a7b594faf5e1900b8a9cf
sensations of exhilaration and palpitations
554
False
When were tricyclic antidepressants developed?
571a7b594faf5e1900b8a9d0
1960s
1101
False
What were some uses for Amphetamine?
571a7b594faf5e1900b8a9d1
narcolepsy, post-encepheletic parkinsonism, and mood elevation in depression and other psychiatric indications
775
False
Who synthesized Amphetamine for asthma?
571a7b594faf5e1900b8a9d2
Gordon Alles
405
False
Ephedrine was used as an oral medicine for what illness?
571cef645efbb31900334e52
asthma
306
False
In what year was amphetamine first tested on asthma patients?
571cef645efbb31900334e53
1929
478
False
What was the trade name of amphetamine as a nasal decongestant?
571cef645efbb31900334e54
Benzedrine Inhaler
697
False
In what year did the American Medical Association approve amphetamine for medical use?
571cef645efbb31900334e55
1937
996
False
In what decade were tricyclic antidepressants created?
571cef645efbb31900334e56
1960s
1101
False
Smith, Kline and French
628
Who developed tricyclics?
5ad355cd604f3c001a3fddad
True
sensations of exhilaration and palpitations
554
What are common side effects of tricyclics?
5ad355cd604f3c001a3fddae
True
1960s
1101
When was the American Medical Association developed?
5ad355cd604f3c001a3fddaf
True
narcolepsy, post-encepheletic parkinsonism, and mood elevation in depression and other psychiatric indications
775
What were some uses for the American Medical Association?
5ad355cd604f3c001a3fddb0
True
Gordon Alles
405
Who synthesized the American Medical Association for asthma?
5ad355cd604f3c001a3fddb1
True
While highly effective, the requirement for injection limited the use of norepinephrine[clarification needed] and orally active derivatives were sought. A structurally similar compound, ephedrine, was identified by Japanese chemists in the Ma Huang plant and marketed by Eli Lilly as an oral treatment for asthma. Following the work of Henry Dale and George Barger at Burroughs-Wellcome, academic chemist Gordon Alles synthesized amphetamine and tested it in asthma patients in 1929. The drug proved to have only modest anti-asthma effects, but produced sensations of exhilaration and palpitations. Amphetamine was developed by Smith, Kline and French as a nasal decongestant under the trade name Benzedrine Inhaler. Amphetamine was eventually developed for the treatment of narcolepsy, post-encepheletic parkinsonism, and mood elevation in depression and other psychiatric indications. It received approval as a New and Nonofficial Remedy from the American Medical Association for these uses in 1937 and remained in common use for depression until the development of tricyclic antidepressants in the 1960s.
What is diabetes caused from?
571a7d3f4faf5e1900b8a9e0
absence of a substance normally produced by the pancreas
113
False
Before insulin, what was the life expectancy of diabetics?
571a7d3f4faf5e1900b8a9e1
only a few months
1411
False
How can diabetes be induced in dogs?
571a7d3f4faf5e1900b8a9e2
surgical removal of the pancreas
266
False
Who discovered that pancreatic extract reversed symptoms of pancreas removal?
571a7d3f4faf5e1900b8a9e3
Frederick Banting and his student Charles Best
328
False
Why was insulin therapy delayed?
571a7d3f4faf5e1900b8a9e4
difficulties in producing the material in sufficient quantity and with reproducible purity
631
False
Diabetes is caused by the removal of what organ?
571cf17ddd7acb1400e4c1b4
pancreas
161
False
Left untreated, how long were diabetic patients were expected to live?
571cf17ddd7acb1400e4c1b5
a few months
1416
False
What could be adjusted in a sample of pancreatic extract to produce purer insulin?
571cf17ddd7acb1400e4c1b6
pH
981
False
To purify insulin, Banting and Best sought the assistance of what company?
571cf17ddd7acb1400e4c1b7
Eli Lilly and Co.
790
False
Minkowski and von Mering did surgical tests on what animal?
571cf17ddd7acb1400e4c1b8
dogs
258
False
absence of a substance normally produced by the pancreas
113
What is purification caused from?
5ad359eb604f3c001a3fde4b
True
only a few months
1411
Before insulin, what was the life expectancy of purification?
5ad359eb604f3c001a3fde4c
True
surgical removal of the pancreas
266
How can purification be induced in dogs?
5ad359eb604f3c001a3fde4d
True
Frederick Banting and his student Charles Best
328
Who discovered that pancreatic extract reversed symptoms of purification removal?
5ad359eb604f3c001a3fde4e
True
difficulties in producing the material in sufficient quantity and with reproducible purity
631
Why was purification therapy delayed?
5ad359eb604f3c001a3fde4f
True
A series of experiments performed from the late 1800s to the early 1900s revealed that diabetes is caused by the absence of a substance normally produced by the pancreas. In 1869, Oskar Minkowski and Joseph von Mering found that diabetes could be induced in dogs by surgical removal of the pancreas. In 1921, Canadian professor Frederick Banting and his student Charles Best repeated this study, and found that injections of pancreatic extract reversed the symptoms produced by pancreas removal. Soon, the extract was demonstrated to work in people, but development of insulin therapy as a routine medical procedure was delayed by difficulties in producing the material in sufficient quantity and with reproducible purity. The researchers sought assistance from industrial collaborators at Eli Lilly and Co. based on the company's experience with large scale purification of biological materials. Chemist George Walden of Eli Lilly and Company found that careful adjustment of the pH of the extract allowed a relatively pure grade of insulin to be produced. Under pressure from Toronto University and a potential patent challenge by academic scientists who had independently developed a similar purification method, an agreement was reached for non-exclusive production of insulin by multiple companies. Prior to the discovery and widespread availability of insulin therapy the life expectancy of diabetics was only a few months.
What is phenobarbital used for?
571a7fd610f8ca14003050af
epilepsy
1128
False
What sleep aid was marketed in 1904?
571a7fd610f8ca14003050b0
Veronal
326
False
What is amphetamine used for today?
571a7fd610f8ca14003050b1
attention deficit disorder
1063
False
Why was barbiturates and amphetamines restricted?
571a7fd610f8ca14003050b2
addictive properties and abuse potential
824
False
Who discovered a reaction that induced sleep in dogs?
571a7fd610f8ca14003050b3
Hermann Emil Fischer and Joseph von Mering
8
False
What compound was discovered to induce sleep?
571cf2c5dd7acb1400e4c1be
diethylbarbituric acid
82
False
What was the first trade name of diethylbarbituric acid?
571cf2c5dd7acb1400e4c1bf
Veronal
326
False
What is phenobarbital mainly used to treat today?
571cf2c5dd7acb1400e4c1c0
epilepsy
1128
False
In what year was phenobarbital discovered?
571cf2c5dd7acb1400e4c1c1
1911
514
False
What was Veronal used for when Bayer put it on the market?
571cf2c5dd7acb1400e4c1c2
sleep aid
339
False
epilepsy
656
What is increased awareness used for?
5ad35897604f3c001a3fde2f
True
Veronal
326
What acid was marketed in 1904?
5ad35897604f3c001a3fde30
True
attention deficit disorder
1063
What is acid used for today?
5ad35897604f3c001a3fde31
True
addictive properties and abuse potential
824
Why were acids restricted?
5ad35897604f3c001a3fde32
True
Hermann Emil Fischer and Joseph von Mering
8
Who discovered an acid reaction?
5ad35897604f3c001a3fde33
True
In 1903 Hermann Emil Fischer and Joseph von Mering disclosed their discovery that diethylbarbituric acid, formed from the reaction of diethylmalonic acid, phosphorus oxychloride and urea, induces sleep in dogs. The discovery was patented and licensed to Bayer pharmaceuticals, which marketed the compound under the trade name Veronal as a sleep aid beginning in 1904. Systematic investigations of the effect of structural changes on potency and duration of action led to the discovery of phenobarbital at Bayer in 1911 and the discovery of its potent anti-epileptic activity in 1912. Phenobarbital was among the most widely used drugs for the treatment of epilepsy through the 1970s, and as of 2014, remains on the World Health Organizations list of essential medications. The 1950s and 1960s saw increased awareness of the addictive properties and abuse potential of barbiturates and amphetamines and led to increasing restrictions on their use and growing government oversight of prescribers. Today, amphetamine is largely restricted to use in the treatment of attention deficit disorder and phenobarbital in the treatment of epilepsy.
Who developed Arsphenamine?
571aa3cb4faf5e1900b8ab8e
Paul Ehrlich and chemist Alfred Bertheim
80
False
What was the first effective treatment for Syphilis?
571aa3cb4faf5e1900b8ab8f
Arsphenamine
609
False
What complications are associated with Syphilis?
571aa3cb4faf5e1900b8ab90
severe skin ulceration, neurological damage, and death
750
False
What is Amphetamine's market name?
571aa3cb4faf5e1900b8ab91
Institute of Experimental Therapy
128
False
Where is the Institute of Experimental Therapy located?
571aa3cb4faf5e1900b8ab92
Berlin
165
False
What was the name of the first synthetic bacterial drug?
571cf51edd7acb1400e4c1c8
arsphenamine
8
False
Bacterial infections could be treated with medicines containing what kind of dye?
571cf51edd7acb1400e4c1c9
arsenic
355
False
Arsphenamine became the first treatment for what previously incurable disease?
571cf51edd7acb1400e4c1ca
syphilis
669
False
In what year was arsphenamine discovered?
571cf51edd7acb1400e4c1cb
1911
3
False
What was the commercial name of arsphenamine?
571cf51edd7acb1400e4c1cc
Salvarsan
212
False
Paul Ehrlich and chemist Alfred Bertheim
80
Who developed commercial ulceration?
5ad35bb2604f3c001a3fde7b
True
Arsphenamine
468
What was the first effective treatment for Bertheim?
5ad35bb2604f3c001a3fde7c
True
severe skin ulceration, neurological damage
750
What complications are associated with Bertheim?
5ad35bb2604f3c001a3fde7d
True
Institute of Experimental Therapy
128
What is Bertheim's market name?
5ad35bb2604f3c001a3fde7e
True
Berlin
165
Where is the Institute of Bertheim located?
5ad35bb2604f3c001a3fde7f
True
In 1911 arsphenamine, the first synthetic anti-infective drug, was developed by Paul Ehrlich and chemist Alfred Bertheim of the Institute of Experimental Therapy in Berlin. The drug was given the commercial name Salvarsan. Ehrlich, noting both the general toxicity of arsenic and the selective absorption of certain dyes by bacteria, hypothesized that an arsenic-containing dye with similar selective absorption properties could be used to treat bacterial infections. Arsphenamine was prepared as part of a campaign to synthesize a series of such compounds, and found to exhibit partially selective toxicity. Arsphenamine proved to be the first effective treatment for syphilis, a disease which prior to that time was incurable and led inexorably to severe skin ulceration, neurological damage, and death.[citation needed]
When was Morphine and Quinine first available?
571aa8204faf5e1900b8abca
mid 1800s
243
False
Who was the compound named after?
571aa8204faf5e1900b8abcb
Morpheus
500
False
Where were was Morphine extracted from?
571aa8204faf5e1900b8abcc
opium
383
False
Who is responsible for purification of compounds found in mineral sources?
571aa8204faf5e1900b8abcd
German dye manufacturers
756
False
Who came up with the name Morphine?
571aa8204faf5e1900b8abce
Friedrich Sertürner
425
False
Morphine was named after what Greek god?
571cf63f5efbb31900334e5c
Morpheus
500
False
Burroughs-Wellcome is now part of what medical company?
571cf63f5efbb31900334e5d
Glaxo Smith Kline
604
False
Who discovered morphine?
571cf63f5efbb31900334e5e
Friedrich Sertürner
425
False
What is the name of the plant that produces morphine?
571cf63f5efbb31900334e5f
opium
383
False
mid-1800s
726
When was Glaxo first available?
5ad34ebc604f3c001a3fdcc5
True
Morpheus
500
Who was Glaxo named after?
5ad34ebc604f3c001a3fdcc6
True
opium
383
Where was Glaxo extracted from?
5ad34ebc604f3c001a3fdcc7
True
German dye manufacturers
756
Who is responsible for purification of Glaxo found in mineral sources?
5ad34ebc604f3c001a3fdcc8
True
Friedrich Sertürner
425
Who came up with the name Glaxo?
5ad34ebc604f3c001a3fdcc9
True
The modern pharmaceutical industry traces its roots to two sources. The first of these were local apothecaries that expanded from their traditional role distributing botanical drugs such as morphine and quinine to wholesale manufacture in the mid 1800s. Rational drug discovery from plants started particularly with the isolation of morphine, analgesic and sleep-inducing agent from opium, by the German apothecary assistant Friedrich Sertürner, who named the compound after the Greek god of dreams, Morpheus. Multinational corporations including Merck, Hoffman-La Roche, Burroughs-Wellcome (now part of Glaxo Smith Kline), Abbott Laboratories, Eli Lilly and Upjohn (now part of Pfizer) began as local apothecary shops in the mid-1800s. By the late 1880s, German dye manufacturers had perfected the purification of individual organic compounds from coal tar and other mineral sources and had also established rudimentary methods in organic chemical synthesis. The development of synthetic chemical methods allowed scientists to systematically vary the structure of chemical substances, and growth in the emerging science of pharmacology expanded their ability to evaluate the biological effects of these structural changes.
Who received the Nobel Prize in Medicine in 1939?
571aaa3310f8ca14003052ad
Gerhard Domagk
264
False
Who is responsible for creating Prontosil?
571aaa3310f8ca14003052ae
Josef Klarer, Fritz Mietzsch, and Gerhard Domagk
230
False
What causes Streptococci?
571aaa3310f8ca14003052af
pathogens
623
False
Many deaths occurred before World War II due to what?
571aaa3310f8ca14003052b0
infectious diseases
778
False
Prontosil is in what drug class?
571aaa3310f8ca14003052b1
antibiotics
460
False
What was the name of the first sulfonamine antibiotic?
571cf74cdd7acb1400e4c1d2
Prontosil
396
False
What award did Domagk receive in 1939?
571cf74cdd7acb1400e4c1d3
Nobel Prize in Medicine
684
False
Anti-infective drugs became more prominent after what war?
571cf74cdd7acb1400e4c1d4
World War II
1021
False
Were sulfonamides more or less toxic than arsphenamine?
571cf74cdd7acb1400e4c1d5
less
564
False
Streptococci and other pathogens could be treated by what type of antibiotics?
571cf74cdd7acb1400e4c1d6
sulfonamides
503
False
Gerhard Domagk
264
Who received the Nobel Prize in Medicine in 1938?
5ad36c34604f3c001a3fe199
True
Josef Klarer, Fritz Mietzsch, and Gerhard Domagk
230
Who is responsible for creating German dye?
5ad36c34604f3c001a3fe19a
True
pathogens
623
What causes Gerhard?
5ad36c34604f3c001a3fe19b
True
infectious diseases
778
Many deaths occurred after World War II due to what?
5ad36c34604f3c001a3fe19c
True
antibiotics
460
Gerhard is in what drug class?
5ad36c34604f3c001a3fe19d
True
Ehrlich’s approach of systematically varying the chemical structure of synthetic compounds and measuring the effects of these changes on biological activity was pursued broadly by industrial scientists, including Bayer scientists Josef Klarer, Fritz Mietzsch, and Gerhard Domagk. This work, also based in the testing of compounds available from the German dye industry, led to the development of Prontosil, the first representative of the sulfonamide class of antibiotics. Compared to arsphenamine, the sulfonamides had a broader spectrum of activity and were far less toxic, rendering them useful for infections caused by pathogens such as streptococci. In 1939, Domagk received the Nobel Prize in Medicine for this discovery. Nonetheless, the dramatic decrease in deaths from infectious diseases that occurred prior to World War II was primarily the result of improved public health measures such as clean water and less crowded housing, and the impact of anti-infective drugs and vaccines was significant mainly after World War II.
Who created the first rabies vaccine?
571aab804faf5e1900b8abf2
Louis Pasteur and Pierre Paul Émile Roux
260
False
How many cases of Diphtheria were there in 1921?
571aab804faf5e1900b8abf3
206,000
589
False
In 1923, what was discovered to be safer to treat Diphtheria Toxin?
571aab804faf5e1900b8abf4
formaldehyde
904
False
Who created a vaccine to treat Japanese Encephalitis?
571aab804faf5e1900b8abf5
Maurice Hilleman
927
False
How many deaths occurred due to Diphtheria?
571aab804faf5e1900b8abf6
15,520
638
False
The rabies vaccine was created in what year?
571cf8175efbb31900334e64
1885
255
False
In what year was the diphtheria vaccine made?
571cf8175efbb31900334e65
1914
382
False
What compound made the diphtheria vaccine safer to use?
571cf8175efbb31900334e66
formaldehyde
904
False
Who developed the first encephalitis vaccine?
571cf8175efbb31900334e67
Maurice Hilleman
927
False
What company did Hilleman later work for?
571cf8175efbb31900334e68
Merck
1058
False
Louis Pasteur and Pierre Paul Émile Roux
260
Who created the first encephelitis vaccine?
5ad36d50604f3c001a3fe1f3
True
206,000
589
How many cases of encephelitis where there in 1921?
5ad36d50604f3c001a3fe1f4
True
formaldehyde
904
In 1923, what was discovered to be safer to treat encephelitis?
5ad36d50604f3c001a3fe1f5
True
Maurice Hilleman
927
Who created a vaccine to treat United States Encephalitis?
5ad36d50604f3c001a3fe1f6
True
15,520
638
How many deaths occurred due to encephelitis?
5ad36d50604f3c001a3fe1f7
True
Early progress toward the development of vaccines occurred throughout this period, primarily in the form of academic and government-funded basic research directed toward the identification of the pathogens responsible for common communicable diseases. In 1885 Louis Pasteur and Pierre Paul Émile Roux created the first rabies vaccine. The first diphtheria vaccines were produced in 1914 from a mixture of diphtheria toxin and antitoxin (produced from the serum of an inoculated animal), but the safety of the inoculation was marginal and it was not widely used. The United States recorded 206,000 cases of diphtheria in 1921 resulting in 15,520 deaths. In 1923 parallel efforts by Gaston Ramon at the Pasteur Institute and Alexander Glenny at the Wellcome Research Laboratories (later part of GlaxoSmithKline) led to the discovery that a safer vaccine could be produced by treating diphtheria toxin with formaldehyde. In 1944, Maurice Hilleman of Squibb Pharmaceuticals developed the first vaccine against Japanese encephelitis. Hilleman would later move to Merck where he would play a key role in the development of vaccines against measles, mumps, chickenpox, rubella, hepatitis A, hepatitis B, and meningitis.
What drug killed 100 people in 1937?
571aaeda10f8ca14003052d5
Elixir Sulfanilamide
46
False
Who manufactured "Elixir Sulfanilamide"?
571aaeda10f8ca14003052d6
S.E. Massengill Company
84
False
What year did Congress pass the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act?
571aaeda10f8ca14003052d7
1938
533
False
What is Diethylene Glycol commonly used for now?
571aaeda10f8ca14003052d8
antifreeze
221
False
What was one of the things the Federal Food, Drug and Cosmetic Act do?
571aaeda10f8ca14003052d9
explicitly prohibited false therapeutic claims
641
False
What drug killed over 100 people in 1937?
571cf9ba5efbb31900334e6e
Elixir Sulfanilamide
46
False
What company manufactured Elixir Sulfanilamide?
571cf9ba5efbb31900334e6f
S.E. Massengill Company of Tennessee
84
False
Diethylene glycol is mainly used today as what liquid?
571cf9ba5efbb31900334e70
antifreeze
221
False
What law did Congress pass following the Elixir Sulfanilamide incident?
571cf9ba5efbb31900334e71
Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act of 1938
493
False
The name "elixir" implied a solution in what liquid?
571cf9ba5efbb31900334e72
ethanol
426
False
Elixir Sulfanilamide
46
What drug killed 1900 people in 1937?
5ad36fee604f3c001a3fe235
True
S.E. Massengill Company
84
Who manufactured "Cosmetic Elixir"?
5ad36fee604f3c001a3fe236
True
1938
533
What year did Elixir pass the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act?
5ad36fee604f3c001a3fe237
True
antifreeze
221
What is Elixir Glycol commonly used for now?
5ad36fee604f3c001a3fe238
True
explicitly prohibited false therapeutic claims
641
What was one of the things the Federal Food, Drug and Elixir Act did?
5ad36fee604f3c001a3fe239
True
In 1937 over 100 people died after ingesting "Elixir Sulfanilamide" manufactured by S.E. Massengill Company of Tennessee. The product was formulated in diethylene glycol, a highly toxic solvent that is now widely used as antifreeze. Under the laws extant at that time, prosecution of the manufacturer was possible only under the technicality that the product had been called an "elixir", which literally implied a solution in ethanol. In response to this episode, the U.S. Congress passed the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act of 1938, which for the first time required pre-market demonstration of safety before a drug could be sold, and explicitly prohibited false therapeutic claims.
When was the first effective treatment for Tuberculosis discovered?
571ab39a10f8ca14003052f3
1943
626
False
What drug effectively treated Tuberculosis?
571ab39a10f8ca14003052f4
Streptomycin
517
False
Who was Eli Lilly's work based off of?
571ab39a10f8ca14003052f5
Giuseppe Brotzu and Edward Abraham
184
False
Where was Tetracyclines discovered?
571ab39a10f8ca14003052f6
Lederle Laboratories
351
False
50% of tuberculosis-infected people died within 5 years where?
571ab39a10f8ca14003052f7
cities in developed countries
809
False
What was the first treatment for tuberculosis?
571cfac85efbb31900334e78
Streptomycin
517
False
What percentage of patients infected with tuberculosis died within 5 years?
571cfac85efbb31900334e79
50%
845
False
In what year was streptomycin discovered?
571cfac85efbb31900334e7a
1943
626
False
Many more antibiotics were made following the end of what war?
571cfac85efbb31900334e7b
World War II
17
False
What company funded the research that led to the discovery of streptomycin?
571cfac85efbb31900334e7c
Merck
255
False
1943
626
When was the first effective treatment for Streptomycin discovered?
5ad370ac604f3c001a3fe253
True
Streptomycin
517
What drug effectively treated drugs?
5ad370ac604f3c001a3fe254
True
Giuseppe Brotzu and Edward Abraham
184
Who was Eli Smith's work based off of?
5ad370ac604f3c001a3fe255
True
cities in developed countries
809
50% of tuberculosis-infected people died within 3 years where?
5ad370ac604f3c001a3fe256
True
Streptomycin
517
What was the first treatment of drugs?
5ad370ac604f3c001a3fe257
True
The aftermath of World War II saw an explosion in the discovery of new classes of antibacterial drugs including the cephalosporins (developed by Eli Lilly based on the seminal work of Giuseppe Brotzu and Edward Abraham), streptomycin (discovered during a Merck-funded research program in Selman Waksman's laboratory), the tetracyclines (discovered at Lederle Laboratories, now a part of Pfizer), erythromycin (discovered at Eli Lilly and Co.) and their extension to an increasingly wide range of bacterial pathogens. Streptomycin, discovered during a Merck-funded research program in Selman Waksman's laboratory at Rutgers in 1943, became the first effective treatment for tuberculosis. At the time of its discovery, sanitoriums for the isolation of tuberculosis-infected people were an ubiquitous feature of cities in developed countries, with 50% dying within 5 years of admission.
When was the Polio vaccine created?
571ab7b210f8ca140030530f
1954
467
False
Who identified the SV40 virus?
571ab7b210f8ca1400305310
Maurice Hilleman
722
False
What was a complication of the SV40 virus?
571ab7b210f8ca1400305311
cause tumors
814
False
Who funded the Polio vaccine?
571ab7b210f8ca1400305312
National Foundation for Infantile Paralysis
541
False
Who announced that SV40 was not associated with cancer?
571ab7b210f8ca1400305313
United States Cancer Institute
1142
False
In what year was the polio vaccine created?
571cfbd6dd7acb1400e4c1dc
1954
467
False
Who created the polio vaccine?
571cfbd6dd7acb1400e4c1dd
Jonas Salk
454
False
What virus caused tumors in most mammals?
571cfbd6dd7acb1400e4c1de
SV40
777
False
Who identified the SV40 virus?
571cfbd6dd7acb1400e4c1df
Maurice Hilleman
722
False
SV40 was present in what vaccine?
571cfbd6dd7acb1400e4c1e0
polio
920
False
1954
467
When was the Paralysis vaccine created?
5ad373bf604f3c001a3fe2bb
True
Maurice Hilleman
722
Who identified the SV50 virus?
5ad373bf604f3c001a3fe2bc
True
cause tumors
814
What was a complication of the SV50 virus?
5ad373bf604f3c001a3fe2bd
True
National Foundation for Infantile Paralysis
541
Who funded the Paralysis vaccine?
5ad373bf604f3c001a3fe2be
True
United States Cancer Institute
1142
Who announced that SV50 was not associated with cancer?
5ad373bf604f3c001a3fe2bf
True
During the years 1940-1955, the rate of decline in the U.S. death rate accelerated from 2% per year to 8% per year, then returned to the historical rate of 2% per year. The dramatic decline in the immediate post-war years has been attributed to the rapid development of new treatments and vaccines for infectious disease that occurred during these years. Vaccine development continued to accelerate, with the most notable achievement of the period being Jonas Salk's 1954 development of the polio vaccine under the funding of the non-profit National Foundation for Infantile Paralysis. The vaccine process was never patented, but was instead given to pharmaceutical companies to manufacture as a low-cost generic. In 1960 Maurice Hilleman of Merck Sharp & Dohme identified the SV40 virus, which was later shown to cause tumors in many mammalian species. It was later determined that SV40 was present as a contaminant in polio vaccine lots that had been administered to 90% of the children in the United States. The contamination appears to have originated both in the original cell stock and in monkey tissue used for production. In 2004 the United States Cancer Institute announced that it had concluded that SV40 is not associated with cancer in people.
How much was the settlement GlaxoSmithKline agree to?
571ab82810f8ca1400305319
$3 billion
83
False
What was one of the causes of the health-care fraud case?
571ab82810f8ca140030531a
illegal promotion of prescription drugs
241
False
When did GlaxoSmithKline plead guilty?
571ab82810f8ca140030531b
2 July 2012
3
False
What drugs were related to a kickback scheme?
571ab82810f8ca140030531c
Imitrex, Lotronex, Flovent, and Valtrex
526
False
What drugs were used for off-label uses?
571ab82810f8ca140030531d
Paxil, Wellbutrin, Advair, Lamictal, and Zofran
425
False
In what year did GlaxoSmithKline pay a $3 billion dollar settlement?
571d40f1dd7acb1400e4c262
2012
10
False
How much was the largest healthcare fraud case in the US settled for?
571d40f1dd7acb1400e4c263
$3 billion
83
False
What company was sued for promoting medicines for unlicensed uses and bribing doctors?
571d40f1dd7acb1400e4c264
GlaxoSmithKline
16
False
$3 billion
83
How much was the settlement Wellbutrin agreed to?
5ad3b134604f3c001a3fecc3
True
illegal promotion of prescription drugs
241
What was one of the causes of the Wellbutrin case?
5ad3b134604f3c001a3fecc4
True
2 July 2012
3
When did Wellbutrin plead guilty?
5ad3b134604f3c001a3fecc5
True
Imitrex, Lotronex, Flovent, and Valtrex
526
What drugs were related to Advair's scheme?
5ad3b134604f3c001a3fecc6
True
Paxil, Wellbutrin, Advair, Lamictal, and Zofran
425
What drugs were used for label uses?
5ad3b134604f3c001a3fecc7
True
On 2 July 2012, GlaxoSmithKline pleaded guilty to criminal charges and agreed to a $3 billion settlement of the largest health-care fraud case in the U.S. and the largest payment by a drug company. The settlement is related to the company's illegal promotion of prescription drugs, its failure to report safety data, bribing doctors, and promoting medicines for uses for which they were not licensed. The drugs involved were Paxil, Wellbutrin, Advair, Lamictal, and Zofran for off-label, non-covered uses. Those and the drugs Imitrex, Lotronex, Flovent, and Valtrex were involved in the kickback scheme.
What is the speculation of the relationship between doctors and the drug industry?
571ab9fd4faf5e1900b8ac20
become fully transparent.
507
False
What is the Physician Financial Transparency Report part of?
571ab9fd4faf5e1900b8ac21
Sunshine Act
93
False
Where can you obtain information about the Sunshine Act?
571ab9fd4faf5e1900b8ac22
Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services website
371
False
What information is collected by Centers for Medicine & Medicaid Services?
571ab9fd4faf5e1900b8ac23
financial relationships with physicians and hospitals.
288
False
When did Centers for Medicine & Medicaid Services have to start collecting information?
571ab9fd4faf5e1900b8ac24
starting in 2013
11
False
The Physician Financial Transparency Reports was part of what other act?
571d40405efbb31900334ef6
Sunshine Act
93
False
In what year were Medicaid and Medicare required to disclose information about their relationships with doctors and hospitals?
571d40405efbb31900334ef7
2013
23
False
Where can financial relationships between Medicaid, Medicare and pharmaceutical companies be found?
571d40405efbb31900334ef8
Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services website
371
False
What is expected when the relationships are made public?
571d40405efbb31900334ef9
relationship between doctors and Pharmaceutical industry will become fully transparent
445
False
become fully transparent
507
What is the speculation of the relationship between organizations and the drug industry?
5ad3ab63604f3c001a3feb7f
True
Sunshine Act
93
What are doctors part of?
5ad3ab63604f3c001a3feb80
True
Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services website
371
Where can you obtain information about organizations?
5ad3ab63604f3c001a3feb81
True
financial relationships with physicians and hospitals
288
What information is collected by doctors?
5ad3ab63604f3c001a3feb82
True
starting in 2013
11
When did doctors have to start collecting information?
5ad3ab63604f3c001a3feb83
True
In the US, starting in 2013, under the Physician Financial Transparency Reports (part of the Sunshine Act), the Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services has to collect information from applicable manufacturers and group purchasing organizations in order to report information about their financial relationships with physicians and hospitals. Data are made public in the Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services website. The expectation is that relationship between doctors and Pharmaceutical industry will become fully transparent.
What disease had the biggest decline of deaths?
571abee110f8ca1400305337
tuberculosis
864
False
What period was the report issued in 1958 cover?
571abee110f8ca1400305338
1946-1955
173
False
Who issued the report in 1958?
571abee110f8ca1400305339
Federal Trade Commission
2
False
What were eight diseases examined for?
571abee110f8ca140030533a
mortality rates
564
False
What was responsible for the decline in spreading diseases?
571abee110f8ca140030533b
use of antibiotics, early diagnosis, and other factors
389
False
How much did the mortality rate of common bacterial infections decline between 1946-1955?
571cfd66dd7acb1400e4c1e6
56%
775
False
How much did the mortality rate of tuberculosis drop between 1946-1955?
571cfd66dd7acb1400e4c1e7
75%
835
False
Who issued a report describing the effects of antibiotic developments?
571cfd66dd7acb1400e4c1e8
Federal Trade Commission
2
False
In what year was the FTC's report issued?
571cfd66dd7acb1400e4c1e9
1958
44
False
tuberculosis
864
What disease had the biggest decline of diagnosis?
5ad3726a604f3c001a3fe2a9
True
1946-1955
173
What period did the report issued in 1964 cover?
5ad3726a604f3c001a3fe2aa
True
Federal Trade Commission
2
Who issued the report in 1964?
5ad3726a604f3c001a3fe2ab
True
mortality rates
564
What were nine diseases examined for?
5ad3726a604f3c001a3fe2ac
True
use of antibiotics, early diagnosis, and other factors
389
What was responsible for the decline in spreading commissions?
5ad3726a604f3c001a3fe2ad
True
A Federal Trade Commission report issued in 1958 attempted to quantify the effect of antibiotic development on American public health. The report found that over the period 1946-1955, there was a 42% drop in the incidence of diseases for which antibiotics were effective and only a 20% drop in those for which antibiotics were not effective. The report concluded that "it appears that the use of antibiotics, early diagnosis, and other factors have limited the epidemic spread and thus the number of these diseases which have occurred". The study further examined mortality rates for eight common diseases for which antibiotics offered effective therapy (syphilis, tuberculosis, dysentery, scarlet fever, whooping cough, meningococcal infections, and pneumonia), and found a 56% decline over the same period. Notable among these was a 75% decline in deaths due to tuberculosis.
How much did treatment for each patient in Africa cost?
571ac0904faf5e1900b8ac48
10,000 and 15,000 USD per patient per year
335
False
Who brought litigation to South Africa?
571ac0904faf5e1900b8ac49
40 multi-national pharmaceutical companies
15
False
How many signatures were collected by MSF?
571ac0904faf5e1900b8ac4a
250,000 signatures
790
False
When was litigation brought to South Africa?
571ac0904faf5e1900b8ac4b
March 2001
3
False
Who backed the South African government which caused the case to be dropped?
571ac0904faf5e1900b8ac4c
The Netherlands, Germany, France, and later the US
876
False
How many companies sued South Africa for its Medicines Act?
571d3f925efbb31900334eee
40
15
False
South Africa's Medicines Act allowed for the generic production of what kind of drugs?
571d3f925efbb31900334eef
antiretroviral
161
False
How much did ARV drugs cost patients yearly?
571d3f925efbb31900334ef0
between 10,000 and 15,000 USD
327
False
How many signatures were collected supporting public health rights?
571d3f925efbb31900334ef1
250,000
790
False
10,000 and 15,000 USD per patient per year
335
How much did treatment for each patient in ARV cost?
5ad3b2fa604f3c001a3fed37
True
40 multi-national pharmaceutical companies
15
Who brought litigation to the ARV?
5ad3b2fa604f3c001a3fed38
True
250,000 signatures
790
How many signatures were collected by ARV?
5ad3b2fa604f3c001a3fed39
True
March 2001
3
When was litigation brought to ARV?
5ad3b2fa604f3c001a3fed3a
True
The Netherlands, Germany, France, and later the US
876
Who backed the ARV government which caused the case to be dropped?
5ad3b2fa604f3c001a3fed3b
True
In March 2001, 40 multi-national pharmaceutical companies brought litigation against South Africa for its Medicines Act, which allowed the generic production of antiretroviral drugs (ARVs) for treating HIV, despite the fact that these drugs were on-patent. HIV was and is an epidemic in South Africa, and ARVs at the time cost between 10,000 and 15,000 USD per patient per year. This was unaffordable for most South African citizens, and so the South African government committed to providing ARVs at prices closer to what people could afford. To do so, they would need to ignore the patents on drugs and produce generics within the country (using a compulsory license), or import them from abroad. After international protest in favour of public health rights (including the collection of 250,000 signatures by MSF), the governments of several developed countries (including The Netherlands, Germany, France, and later the US) backed the South African government, and the case was dropped in April of that year.
What Act forbade misbranded drugs?
571ac3f89499d21900609afb
Pure Food and Drugs Act
648
False
What caused a Tetanus outbreak?
571ac3f89499d21900609afc
contaminated smallpox vaccine and diphtheria antitoxin
386
False
What act allowed premarket approval for drugs?
571ac3f89499d21900609afd
The Biologics Control Act of 1902
442
False
When did the Pure Food and Drugs Act get implemented?
571ac3f89499d21900609afe
1906
636
False
Who restricted the federal government's enforcement powers?
571ac3f89499d21900609aff
Supreme Court
1118
False
What was the name of the law that required premarket approval for producing drugs?
571cfecadd7acb1400e4c1ee
Biologics Control Act of 1902
446
False
What law banned the interstate distribution of mislabeled food and drugs?
571cfecadd7acb1400e4c1ef
Pure Food and Drugs Act
648
False
In what year was the Pure Food and Drugs Act passed?
571cfecadd7acb1400e4c1f0
1906
636
False
Pure Food and Drugs Act
648
What Act forbade misbranded laws?
5ad36e63604f3c001a3fe207
True
contaminated smallpox vaccine and diphtheria antitoxin
386
What caused a law outbreak?
5ad36e63604f3c001a3fe208
True
The Biologics Control Act of 1902
442
What act allowed premarket approval for laws?
5ad36e63604f3c001a3fe209
True
1906
636
When did the Pure Food And Laws Act get implemented?
5ad36e63604f3c001a3fe20a
True
Supreme Court
1118
Who restricted the federal drug powers?
5ad36e63604f3c001a3fe20b
True
Prior to the 20th century drugs were generally produced by small scale manufacturers with little regulatory control over manufacturing or claims of safety and efficacy. To the extent that such laws did exist, enforcement was lax. In the United States, increased regulation of vaccines and other biological drugs was spurred by tetanus outbreaks and deaths caused by the distribution of contaminated smallpox vaccine and diphtheria antitoxin. The Biologics Control Act of 1902 required that federal government grant premarket approval for every biological drug and for the process and facility producing such drugs. This was followed in 1906 by the Pure Food and Drugs Act, which forbade the interstate distribution of adulterated or misbranded foods and drugs. A drug was considered misbranded if it contained alcohol, morphine, opium, cocaine, or any of several other potentially dangerous or addictive drugs, and if its label failed to indicate the quantity or proportion of such drugs. The government's attempts to use the law to prosecute manufacturers for making unsupported claims of efficacy were undercut by a Supreme Court ruling restricting the federal government's enforcement powers to cases of incorrect specification of the drug's ingredients.
Who adopted the Doha Declaration?
571ac6bc9499d21900609b0d
World Trade Organization
283
False
What did the TRIPS agreement accomplish?
571ac6bc9499d21900609b0e
countries must allow pharmaceutical products to be patented
309
False
Why are patents criticized?
571ac6bc9499d21900609b0f
thought to reduce access to existing medicines
66
False
What did the Doha Declaration do?
571ac6bc9499d21900609b10
indicates that the TRIPS agreement should be read with the goals of public health in mind, and allows some methods for circumventing pharmaceutical monopolies
423
False
When was the Doha Declaration adopted?
571ac6bc9499d21900609b11
2001
373
False
What has been accused of reducing access to medicines in developing countries?
571d3ef05efbb31900334ee8
Patents
0
False
When did the World Trade Organization adopt the Doha Declaration?
571d3ef05efbb31900334ee9
2001
373
False
The Doha Declaration allows for what ways for monopolies to be bypassed?
571d3ef05efbb31900334eea
compulsory licensing or parallel imports
587
False
World Trade Organization
283
Who adopted the TRIPS Declaration?
5ad3b24c604f3c001a3fecfb
True
countries must allow pharmaceutical products to be patented
309
What did the WTO agreement accomplish?
5ad3b24c604f3c001a3fecfc
True
thought to reduce access to existing medicines
66
Why is the WTO criticized?
5ad3b24c604f3c001a3fecfd
True
indicates that the TRIPS agreement should be read with the goals of public health in mind, and allows some methods for circumventing pharmaceutical monopolies
423
What did the WTO Declaration do?
5ad3b24c604f3c001a3fecfe
True
2001
373
When was the TRIPS Declaration adopted?
5ad3b24c604f3c001a3fecff
True
Patents have been criticized in the developing world, as they are thought to reduce access to existing medicines. Reconciling patents and universal access to medicine would require an efficient international policy of price discrimination. Moreover, under the TRIPS agreement of the World Trade Organization, countries must allow pharmaceutical products to be patented. In 2001, the WTO adopted the Doha Declaration, which indicates that the TRIPS agreement should be read with the goals of public health in mind, and allows some methods for circumventing pharmaceutical monopolies: via compulsory licensing or parallel imports, even before patent expiration.
How much money was recovered through the False Claims?
571ac8cc32177014007e9f00
$2.5 billion
466
False
What are some of the schemes used to defraud the health care system?
571ac8cc32177014007e9f01
Good Manufacturing Practice (GMP) Violations, Off Label Marketing, Best Price Fraud, CME Fraud, Medicaid Price Reporting, and Manufactured Compound Drugs.
296
False
What is pharmaceutical fraud?
571ac8cc32177014007e9f02
deceptions which bring financial gain to a pharmaceutical company
30
False
Who had the biggest fraud case settlement?
571ac8cc32177014007e9f03
GlaxoSmithKline
572
False
What provision rewards "whistle-blowers"?
571ac8cc32177014007e9f04
qui tam
775
False
What kind of fraud financially benefits a drug company?
571d3dd45efbb31900334ee0
Pharmaceutical fraud
0
False
Who is affected by pharmaceutical fraud?
571d3dd45efbb31900334ee1
individuals and public and private insurers
108
False
How much money lost to pharmaceutical fraud was recovered in 2010?
571d3dd45efbb31900334ee2
$2.5 billion
466
False
Which act allows whistleblowers to recover money lost from pharmaceutical fraud?
571d3dd45efbb31900334ee3
False Claims Act
733
False
$2.5 billion
466
How much money was recovered through CME Fraud?
5ad3aefb604f3c001a3fec5b
True
Good Manufacturing Practice (GMP) Violations, Off Label Marketing, Best Price Fraud, CME Fraud, Medicaid Price Reporting, and Manufactured Compound Drugs
296
What are some of the schemes used to defraud companies?
5ad3aefb604f3c001a3fec5c
True
deceptions which bring financial gain to a pharmaceutical company
30
What is relator fraud?
5ad3aefb604f3c001a3fec5d
True
GlaxoSmithKline
572
Who had the biggest relator case settlement?
5ad3aefb604f3c001a3fec5e
True
Pharmaceutical fraud involves deceptions which bring financial gain to a pharmaceutical company. It affects individuals and public and private insurers. There are several different schemes used to defraud the health care system which are particular to the pharmaceutical industry. These include: Good Manufacturing Practice (GMP) Violations, Off Label Marketing, Best Price Fraud, CME Fraud, Medicaid Price Reporting, and Manufactured Compound Drugs. Of this amount $2.5 billion was recovered through False Claims Act cases in FY 2010. Examples of fraud cases include the GlaxoSmithKline $3 billion settlement, Pfizer $2.3 billion settlement and Merck & Co. $650 million settlement. Damages from fraud can be recovered by use of the False Claims Act, most commonly under the qui tam provisions which rewards an individual for being a "whistleblower", or relator (law).
What do ACE inhibitors do?
571aca5732177014007e9f0a
reduce the risk of new onset kidney disease [RR 0.71] and death [RR 0.84] in diabetic patients
540
False
What drugs reduce the risk of death and other events in people with high blood pressure?
571aca5732177014007e9f0b
thiazide antihypertensive drugs
38
False
Who conducted the review on Thiazide Antihypertensive drugs?
571aca5732177014007e9f0c
Cochrane
7
False
What were Thiazide Antihypertensive drugs used with?
571aca5732177014007e9f0d
combination therapy
335
False
In what year did Cochrane release the report?
571aca5732177014007e9f0e
2009
2
False
What reduces the risk of new onset kidney diseases and death?
571d0b195efbb31900334e82
ACE inhibitors
525
False
What type of drugs reduced the risk of strokes and heart disease for people with high blood pressure?
571d0b195efbb31900334e83
thiazide antihypertensive drugs
38
False
In what year was thiazide antihypertensive drugs shown to help those with heart problems?
571d0b195efbb31900334e84
2009
2
False
reduce the risk of new onset kidney disease [RR 0.71] and death [RR 0.84] in diabetic patients
540
What do RRE inhibitors do?
5ad3765b604f3c001a3fe33f
True
thiazide antihypertensive drugs
38
What drugs reduce the risk of death and other events in people with ACE?
5ad3765b604f3c001a3fe340
True
Cochrane
7
Who conducted the review on RRE drugs?
5ad3765b604f3c001a3fe341
True
combination therapy
335
What were RRE drugs used with?
5ad3765b604f3c001a3fe342
True
2009
2
In what year did ACE release the report?
5ad3765b604f3c001a3fe343
True
A 2009 Cochrane review concluded that thiazide antihypertensive drugs reduce the risk of death (RR 0.89), stroke (RR 0.63), coronary heart disease (RR 0.84), and cardiovascular events (RR 0.70) in people with high blood pressure. In the ensuring years other classes of antihypertensive drug were developed and found wide acceptance in combination therapy, including loop diuretics (Lasix/furosemide, Hoechst Pharmaceuticals, 1963), beta blockers (ICI Pharmaceuticals, 1964) ACE inhibitors, and angiotensin receptor blockers. ACE inhibitors reduce the risk of new onset kidney disease [RR 0.71] and death [RR 0.84] in diabetic patients, irrespective of whether they have hypertension.
Who put out a report in 2012?
571acf6232177014007e9f1c
President's Council of Advisors on Science and Technology
272
False
What has been argued restricted innovation?
571acf6232177014007e9f1d
excessive regulation
24
False
What was a recommendations brought about from the report?
571acf6232177014007e9f1e
expanding the FDA's use of accelerated approval processes
430
False
What is one thing excessive regulations causes?
571acf6232177014007e9f1f
therapeutic innovation
56
False
What can be used to evaluate new approval processes?
571acf6232177014007e9f20
pilot projects
610
False
What is excessive drug regulation said to suppress?
571d3d015efbb31900334eda
therapeutic innovation
56
False
In what year was a report made to reduce the burdens of drug development?
571d3d015efbb31900334edb
2012
253
False
What was argued to be holding back new knowledge for treating diseases?
571d3d015efbb31900334edc
current cost of regulator-required clinical trials
93
False
President's Council of Advisors on Science and Technology
272
Who put out a report in 2011?
5ad3adf5604f3c001a3fec29
True
excessive regulation
24
What has been argued restricted population?
5ad3adf5604f3c001a3fec2a
True
expanding the FDA's use of accelerated approval processes
430
What was a recommendation brought about from human disease?
5ad3adf5604f3c001a3fec2b
True
therapeutic innovation
56
What is one thing excessive development causes?
5ad3adf5604f3c001a3fec2c
True
pilot projects
610
What can be used to evaluate new human diseases?
5ad3adf5604f3c001a3fec2d
True
Others have argued that excessive regulation suppresses therapeutic innovation, and that the current cost of regulator-required clinical trials prevents the full exploitation of new genetic and biological knowledge for the treatment of human disease. A 2012 report by the President's Council of Advisors on Science and Technology made several key recommendations to reduce regulatory burdens to new drug development, including 1) expanding the FDA's use of accelerated approval processes, 2) creating an expedited approval pathway for drugs intended for use in narrowly defined populations, and 3) undertaking pilot projects designed to evaluate the feasibility of a new, adaptive drug approval process.
Who discovered Hydralazine?
571ad0d09499d21900609b3d
researchers at Ciba
8
False
Why were the researchers recognized in 1975?
571ad0d09499d21900609b3e
the saving of untold thousands of lives and the alleviation of the suffering of millions of victims of hypertension
600
False
Who developed Chlorothiazide?
571ad0d09499d21900609b3f
Karl H. Beyer, James M. Sprague, John E. Baer, and Frederick C. Novello of Merck and Co
218
False
What is  Chlorothiazide used to treat?
571ad0d09499d21900609b40
hypertension
511
False
What was the main shortcoming in the drug Hydralazine?
571ad0d09499d21900609b41
lost its effectiveness over time
151
False
What was the name of the first oral vasodilator?
571d0d42dd7acb1400e4c1f4
hydralazine
79
False
What is the most used antihypertensive drug today?
571d0d42dd7acb1400e4c1f5
chlorothiazide
332
False
Beyer, Sprague, Baer, and Novello received what award in 1975?
571d0d42dd7acb1400e4c1f6
Public Health Lasker Award
560
False
In what year was hydralazine discovered?
571d0d42dd7acb1400e4c1f7
1952
3
False
Chlorothiazide helped reduce the mortality rate among those with what disease?
571d0d42dd7acb1400e4c1f8
hypertension
511
False
researchers at Ciba
8
Who discovered Lasker?
5ad37580604f3c001a3fe301
True
the saving of untold thousands of lives and the alleviation of the suffering of millions of victims of hypertension
600
Why were the researchers recognized in 1952?
5ad37580604f3c001a3fe302
True
Karl H. Beyer, James M. Sprague, John E. Baer, and Frederick C. Novello of Merck and Co
218
who developed Ciba?
5ad37580604f3c001a3fe303
True
hypertension
703
What is Ciba used to treat?
5ad37580604f3c001a3fe304
True
lost its effectiveness over time
151
What was the main shortcoming in the drug Ciba?
5ad37580604f3c001a3fe305
True
In 1952 researchers at Ciba discovered the first orally available vasodilator, hydralazine. A major shortcoming of hydralazine monotherapy was that it lost its effectiveness over time (tachyphylaxis). In the mid-1950s Karl H. Beyer, James M. Sprague, John E. Baer, and Frederick C. Novello of Merck and Co. discovered and developed chlorothiazide, which remains the most widely used antihypertensive drug today. This development was associated with a substantial decline in the mortality rate among people with hypertension. The inventors were recognized by a Public Health Lasker Award in 1975 for "the saving of untold thousands of lives and the alleviation of the suffering of millions of victims of hypertension".
Who led the congressional hearings?
571adbce32177014007e9f4c
Senator Estes Kefauver
93
False
What act needed provisions?
571adbce32177014007e9f4d
FD&C
41
False
What were the major issues that needed to be addressed?
571adbce32177014007e9f4e
advertising abuses, questionable efficacy of drugs, and the need for greater regulation of the industry
200
False
What caused a need for more regulation?
571adbce32177014007e9f4f
a new tragedy emerged
383
False
When did this push occur?
571adbce32177014007e9f50
1959
132
False
Congressional hearings emerged addressing revisions to what act?
571d0ddb5efbb31900334e88
FD&C
41
False
Who led the Congressional hearings in 1959?
571d0ddb5efbb31900334e89
Senator Estes Kefauver
93
False
Did the US Congress call for more or less regulation of pharmaceuticals?
571d0ddb5efbb31900334e8a
greater
269
False
Senator Estes Kefauver
93
Who led the congressional passages?
5ad379e5604f3c001a3fe3bb
True
FD&C
41
What congress needed provisions?
5ad379e5604f3c001a3fe3bc
True
advertising abuses, questionable efficacy of drugs, and the need for greater regulation of the industry
200
What were the major issues that needed to be revised?
5ad379e5604f3c001a3fe3bd
True
a new tragedy emerged
383
What caused a need for more industry?
5ad379e5604f3c001a3fe3be
True
1959
132
When did questionable efficacy occur?
5ad379e5604f3c001a3fe3bf
True
In the U.S., a push for revisions of the FD&C Act emerged from Congressional hearings led by Senator Estes Kefauver of Tennessee in 1959. The hearings covered a wide range of policy issues, including advertising abuses, questionable efficacy of drugs, and the need for greater regulation of the industry. While momentum for new legislation temporarily flagged under extended debate, a new tragedy emerged that underscored the need for more comprehensive regulation and provided the driving force for the passage of new laws.
What did the first measles prevent in it's first 20 years?
571adceb9499d21900609b5b
an estimated 52 million cases of the disease, 17,400 cases of mental retardation, and 5,200 deaths
476
False
Who originally created the measles vaccine?
571adceb9499d21900609b5c
John Franklin Enders
74
False
How much did the occurrence of serious diseases shortly after the release of the measles vaccine?
571adceb9499d21900609b5d
>95%
344
False
When did the Rubella vaccine come out?
571adceb9499d21900609b5e
1969
186
False
Who recreated the measles vaccine?
571adceb9499d21900609b5f
Maurice Hilleman
149
False
In what year was the measles vaccine made?
571d0e925efbb31900334e8e
1962
68
False
Who helped refine the measles vaccine?
571d0e925efbb31900334e8f
Maurice Hilleman
149
False
In what year was the mumps vaccine made?
571d0e925efbb31900334e90
1967
220
False
How much did rubella, measles, and mumps infections drop after vaccination?
571d0e925efbb31900334e91
>95%
344
False
Measles vaccinations helped prevent how many estimated cases of the illness?
571d0e925efbb31900334e92
52 million
489
False
an estimated 52 million cases of the disease, 17,400 cases of mental retardation, and 5,200 deaths
476
What did the first measles prevent in its first 10 years?
5ad374ab604f3c001a3fe2cf
True
John Franklin Enders
74
Who originally created rubella?
5ad374ab604f3c001a3fe2d0
True
>95%
344
How much did the occurrence of serious diseases shortly after the release of rubella?
5ad374ab604f3c001a3fe2d1
True
1969
186
When did measles come out?
5ad374ab604f3c001a3fe2d2
True
Maurice Hilleman
149
Who recreated measles?
5ad374ab604f3c001a3fe2d3
True
Other notable new vaccines of the period include those for measles (1962, John Franklin Enders of Children's Medical Center Boston, later refined by Maurice Hilleman at Merck), Rubella (1969, Hilleman, Merck) and mumps (1967, Hilleman, Merck) The United States incidences of rubella, congenital rubella syndrome, measles, and mumps all fell by >95% in the immediate aftermath of widespread vaccination. The first 20 years of licensed measles vaccination in the U.S. prevented an estimated 52 million cases of the disease, 17,400 cases of mental retardation, and 5,200 deaths.
When did the Kefauver-Harris Amendment become a law?
571addd39499d21900609b65
10 October 1962
157
False
What did this new law require?
571addd39499d21900609b66
all drugs introduced between 1938 and 1962 had to be effective
448
False
What did the National Academy of Science's study discover?
571addd39499d21900609b67
nearly 40 percent of these products were not effective
582
False
How long after the National Academy of Science's study did a study on over the counter drugs occur?
571addd39499d21900609b68
ten years later
705
False
What brought up enhancement of drug regulations?
571addd39499d21900609b69
The thalidomide tragedy
0
False
When did the Kefauver-Harris Amendment became law?
571d10085efbb31900334e98
10 October 1962
157
False
What federal agency regulated the advertising of prescription drugs?
571d10085efbb31900334e99
FDA
310
False
Drugs made between which years had to be tested before going to market?
571d10085efbb31900334e9a
1938 and 1962
477
False
What percentage of drugs were shown to be ineffective after an FDA study?
571d10085efbb31900334e9b
40 percent
589
False
10 October 1962
157
When did the FDA Amendment become a law?
5ad37ba5604f3c001a3fe3fd
True
all drugs introduced between 1938 and 1962
448
What did this new law prohibit?
5ad37ba5604f3c001a3fe3fe
True
nearly 40 percent of these products were not effective
582
What did the FDA study discover?
5ad37ba5604f3c001a3fe3ff
True
ten years later
705
How long after the FDA's study did a study on over the counter drugs occur?
5ad37ba5604f3c001a3fe400
True
The thalidomide tragedy
0
What brought up enhancement of Congress regulations?
5ad37ba5604f3c001a3fe401
True
The thalidomide tragedy resurrected Kefauver's bill to enhance drug regulation that had stalled in Congress, and the Kefauver-Harris Amendment became law on 10 October 1962. Manufacturers henceforth had to prove to FDA that their drugs were effective as well as safe before they could go on the US market. The FDA received authority to regulate advertising of prescription drugs and to establish good manufacturing practices. The law required that all drugs introduced between 1938 and 1962 had to be effective. An FDA - National Academy of Sciences collaborative study showed that nearly 40 percent of these products were not effective. A similarly comprehensive study of over-the-counter products began ten years later.
How many Americans were given the drug Kevadon?
571ade8e32177014007e9f64
Over 20,000
458
False
When was the drug taken off shelves in Germany?
571ade8e32177014007e9f65
November 1961
86
False
How many newborns were born with issues due to Kevadon?
571ade8e32177014007e9f66
about 17
555
False
How was Kevadon distributed to doctors?
571ade8e32177014007e9f67
under the guise of investigational use
418
False
Why was this drug pulled off shelves?
571ade8e32177014007e9f68
association with grave congenital abnormalities
163
False
In what year was thalidomide banned in Germany?
571d11b4dd7acb1400e4c1fe
1961
95
False
What adverse effect was thalidomide associated with?
571d11b4dd7acb1400e4c1ff
congenital abnormalities
186
False
Thalidomide was distributed in the USA by what name?
571d11b4dd7acb1400e4c200
Kevadon
379
False
About how many Americans received thalidomide in a supposed study?
571d11b4dd7acb1400e4c201
Over 20,000
458
False
How many newborn American babies were affected by thalidomide?
571d11b4dd7acb1400e4c202
17
561
False
Over 20,000
458
How many Americans were given the drug thalidomide?
5ad37aff604f3c001a3fe3e5
True
November 1961
86
When was the drug taken off shelves in the USA?
5ad37aff604f3c001a3fe3e6
True
about 17
555
How many newborns were born with issues due to Germany?
5ad37aff604f3c001a3fe3e7
True
under the guise of investigational use
418
How was Kevadon distributed to the USA?
5ad37aff604f3c001a3fe3e8
True
under the guise of investigational use
418
Why was this drug put on shelves?
5ad37aff604f3c001a3fe3e9
True
The firm continued to pressure Kelsey and the agency to approve the application—until November 1961, when the drug was pulled off the German market because of its association with grave congenital abnormalities. Several thousand newborns in Europe and elsewhere suffered the teratogenic effects of thalidomide. Though the drug was never approved in the USA, the firm distributed Kevadon to over 1,000 physicians there under the guise of investigational use. Over 20,000 Americans received thalidomide in this "study," including 624 pregnant patients, and about 17 known newborns suffered the effects of the drug.[citation needed]
What law prohibited birth control?
571ae0179499d21900609b79
Comstock laws
184
False
When was Enovid first approved?
571ae0179499d21900609b7a
1960
660
False
What increased due to the availability of birth control?
571ae0179499d21900609b7b
pre-marital co-habitation
1184
False
In 1965, how many women were on the birth control pill?
571ae0179499d21900609b7c
6.5 million
879
False
Who created the first oral birth control?
571ae0179499d21900609b7d
E.D. Searle and Co
613
False
Discussing contraception sometimes led to prosecution under what laws?
571d128ddd7acb1400e4c208
Comstock laws
184
False
What was the name of the first oral contraceptive?
571d128ddd7acb1400e4c209
Enovid
588
False
When did the FDA approve Enovid?
571d128ddd7acb1400e4c20a
1960
660
False
By 1965, about how many American women were taking Enovid?
571d128ddd7acb1400e4c20b
6.5 million
879
False
Birth control was prohibited in most countries before what war?
571d128ddd7acb1400e4c20c
second world war
13
False
Comstock laws
184
What law prohibited severe pills?
5ad377e5604f3c001a3fe383
True
1960
660
When was Colton first approved?
5ad377e5604f3c001a3fe384
True
pre-marital co-habitation
1184
What increased due to the availability of severe pills?
5ad377e5604f3c001a3fe385
True
6.5 million
879
In 1965, how many women were on the severe pill?
5ad377e5604f3c001a3fe386
True
E.D. Searle and Co.
613
Who created the first marriage control?
5ad377e5604f3c001a3fe387
True
Prior to the second world war, birth control was prohibited in many countries, and in the United States even the discussion of contraceptive methods sometimes led to prosecution under Comstock laws. The history of the development of oral contraceptives is thus closely tied to the birth control movement and the efforts of activists Margaret Sanger, Mary Dennett, and Emma Goldman. Based on fundamental research performed by Gregory Pincus and synthetic methods for progesterone developed by Carl Djerassi at Syntex and by Frank Colton at G.D. Searle & Co., the first oral contraceptive, Enovid, was developed by E.D. Searle and Co. and approved by the FDA in 1960. The original formulation incorporated vastly excessive doses of hormones, and caused severe side effects. Nonetheless, by 1962, 1.2 million American women were on the pill, and by 1965 the number had increased to 6.5 million. The availability of a convenient form of temporary contraceptive led to dramatic changes in social mores including expanding the range of lifestyle options available to women, reducing the reliance of women on men for contraceptive practice, encouraging the delay of marriage, and increasing pre-marital co-habitation.
Who received the Laser-Debakey Clinical Medical Research Aware?
571ae17b32177014007e9f80
Endo
458
False
How much money did Merk make in 1995?
571ae17b32177014007e9f81
over US$1 billion
439
False
How many patients received Zocor?
571ae17b32177014007e9f82
4,444
181
False
What study did Merk sponsor in 1994?
571ae17b32177014007e9f83
Scandinavian Simvastatin Survival Study
59
False
What did the study reveal after 5 years?
571ae17b32177014007e9f84
a 35% reduction in their cholesterol, and their chances of dying of a heart attack were reduced by 42%
292
False
What was the brand name of simvastatin?
571d13cbdd7acb1400e4c212
Zocor
171
False
Patients treated with Zocor had their cholesterol reduced by how much?
571d13cbdd7acb1400e4c213
35%
294
False
How much did Zocor reduce the chance of dying from a heart attack?
571d13cbdd7acb1400e4c214
42%
391
False
How much money did Merck make from sales of Zocor and Mevacor?
571d13cbdd7acb1400e4c215
over US$1 billion
439
False
Endo received what award in 2008?
571d13cbdd7acb1400e4c216
Lasker-DeBakey Clinical Medical Research Award
505
False
Endo
458
Who received the Zocor Research Reward?
5ad38c22604f3c001a3fe5bd
True
over US$1 billion
439
How much money did Simvastatin make in 1995?
5ad38c22604f3c001a3fe5be
True
4,444
181
How many patients received Simvastatin?
5ad38c22604f3c001a3fe5bf
True
Scandinavian Simvastatin Survival Study
59
What study did Merk sponsor in 2008?
5ad38c22604f3c001a3fe5c0
True
a 35% reduction in their cholesterol, and their chances of dying of a heart attack were reduced by 42%
292
What did the study reveal after 2 years?
5ad38c22604f3c001a3fe5c1
True
In April 1994, the results of a Merck-sponsored study, the Scandinavian Simvastatin Survival Study, were announced. Researchers tested simvastatin, later sold by Merck as Zocor, on 4,444 patients with high cholesterol and heart disease. After five years, the study concluded the patients saw a 35% reduction in their cholesterol, and their chances of dying of a heart attack were reduced by 42%. In 1995, Zocor and Mevacor both made Merck over US$1 billion. Endo was awarded the 2006 Japan Prize, and the Lasker-DeBakey Clinical Medical Research Award in 2008. For his "pioneering research into a new class of molecules" for "lowering cholesterol,"[sentence fragment]
What is a drug discovery?
571ae2c632177014007e9f94
the process by which potential drugs are discovered or designed
18
False
Who is usually responsible for early stages of drug discovery?
571ae2c632177014007e9f95
universities and research institutions
495
False
What is used to manipulate pathways?
571ae2c632177014007e9f96
molecular biology or biochemistry
379
False
What is involved in drug discovery?
571ae2c632177014007e9f97
isolating the active ingredient from traditional remedies or by serendipitous discovery
137
False
What focuses on metabolic pathways?
571ae2c632177014007e9f98
biotechnology
233
False
What is the name of the process in which possible drugs are discovered?
571d14aa5efbb31900334ea0
Drug discovery
0
False
What groups carry out most early drug discoveries?
571d14aa5efbb31900334ea1
research institutions
512
False
What kind of technology studies the understanding and manipulation of disease states and pathogens?
571d14aa5efbb31900334ea2
biotechnology
233
False
Most drugs have been found by isolating what from traditional remedies?
571d14aa5efbb31900334ea3
active ingredient
151
False
the process by which potential drugs are discovered or designed
18
What is a remedy discovery?
5ad38d67604f3c001a3fe5e5
True
universities and research institutions
495
Who is usually responsible for early stages of remedy discovery?
5ad38d67604f3c001a3fe5e6
True
molecular biology or biochemistry
379
What is used to manipulate institutions?
5ad38d67604f3c001a3fe5e7
True
isolating the active ingredient from traditional remedies or by serendipitous discovery
137
What is involved in remedy discovery?
5ad38d67604f3c001a3fe5e8
True
biotechnology
233
What focuses on early-stage pathways?
5ad38d67604f3c001a3fe5e9
True
Drug discovery is the process by which potential drugs are discovered or designed. In the past most drugs have been discovered either by isolating the active ingredient from traditional remedies or by serendipitous discovery. Modern biotechnology often focuses on understanding the metabolic pathways related to a disease state or pathogen, and manipulating these pathways using molecular biology or biochemistry. A great deal of early-stage drug discovery has traditionally been carried out by universities and research institutions.
How much does it cost to develop a new drug?
571ae4719499d21900609b8d
about 1.3 billion
1038
False
How many approvals of new drugs happen every year?
571ae4719499d21900609b8e
averaged 22.9 approvals
589
False
Who is responsible for approval or rejection of new drugs?
571ae4719499d21900609b8f
Center for Drug Evaluation and Research
545
False
How many drugs were approved in 2007?
571ae4719499d21900609b90
18 approvals
478
False
Who reported the stable average rate in 2012?
571ae4719499d21900609b91
Professors Light and Lexchin
1095
False
What does NMEs stand for?
571d1c3fdd7acb1400e4c21c
New Molecular Entities
311
False
How many pharmaceutical drugs were approved on average since 2001?
571d1c3fdd7acb1400e4c21d
22.9
598
False
What is the approximate cost of developing a new drug, including the costs of failure?
571d1c3fdd7acb1400e4c21e
1.3 billion USD
1044
False
What has been the stable approval rate of new drugs?
571d1c3fdd7acb1400e4c21f
15 to 25
1236
False
about 1.3 billion
1038
How much does it cost to develop approvals?
5ad39294604f3c001a3fe6ab
True
averaged 22.9 approvals
589
How many approvals of new centers happen every year?
5ad39294604f3c001a3fe6ac
True
Center for Drug Evaluation and Research
545
Who is responsible for approval or rejection of centers?
5ad39294604f3c001a3fe6ad
True
18
478
How many drugs were approved in 2012?
5ad39294604f3c001a3fe6ae
True
Professors Light and Lexchin
1095
Who reported the stable average rate in 2007?
5ad39294604f3c001a3fe6af
True
Drug discovery and development is very expensive; of all compounds investigated for use in humans only a small fraction are eventually approved in most nations by government appointed medical institutions or boards, who have to approve new drugs before they can be marketed in those countries. In 2010 18 NMEs (New Molecular Entities) were approved and three biologics by the FDA, or 21 in total, which is down from 26 in 2009 and 24 in 2008. On the other hand, there were only 18 approvals in total in 2007 and 22 back in 2006. Since 2001, the Center for Drug Evaluation and Research has averaged 22.9 approvals a year. This approval comes only after heavy investment in pre-clinical development and clinical trials, as well as a commitment to ongoing safety monitoring. Drugs which fail part-way through this process often incur large costs, while generating no revenue in return. If the cost of these failed drugs is taken into account, the cost of developing a successful new drug (new chemical entity, or NCE), has been estimated at about 1.3 billion USD(not including marketing expenses). Professors Light and Lexchin reported in 2012, however, that the rate of approval for new drugs has been a relatively stable average rate of 15 to 25 for decades.
What drugs are the least expensive to develop?
571ae71a32177014007e9fc6
those based on re-formulation of an existing active ingredient
694
False
What accounts for nearly half of the costs to develop drugs?
571ae71a32177014007e9fc7
opportunity cost of investing capital
51
False
What is the consequence in the value chain?
571ae71a32177014007e9fc8
increasingly outsource risks related to fundamental research
435
False
What happens when companies outsource?
571ae71a32177014007e9fc9
somewhat reshapes the industry ecosystem with biotechnology companies
503
False
What is re-formulations of active ingredients referred to?
571ae71a32177014007e9fca
Line-extensions
778
False
Investing capital can increase drug development costs by how much?
571d1d495efbb31900334ea8
nearly half the total expense
284
False
What kind of companies have had a more important role in drug development?
571d1d495efbb31900334ea9
biotechnology
549
False
What firms tend to outsource drug development?
571d1d495efbb31900334eaa
major pharmaceutical multinationals
391
False
those based on re-formulation of an existing active ingredient
694
What drugs are the least fundamental to develop?
5ad399f2604f3c001a3fe843
True
opportunity cost of investing capital
51
What accounts for nearly half of the costs to develop companies?
5ad399f2604f3c001a3fe844
True
increasingly outsource risks related to fundamental research
435
What is the consequence in the research chain?
5ad399f2604f3c001a3fe845
True
somewhat reshapes the industry ecosystem with biotechnology companies
503
What happens when companies approve drugs?
5ad399f2604f3c001a3fe846
True
Line-extensions
778
What is re-formulations of approved drugs referred to?
5ad399f2604f3c001a3fe847
True
Some of these estimates also take into account the opportunity cost of investing capital many years before revenues are realized (see Time-value of money). Because of the very long time needed for discovery, development, and approval of pharmaceuticals, these costs can accumulate to nearly half the total expense. A direct consequence within the pharmaceutical industry value chain is that major pharmaceutical multinationals tend to increasingly outsource risks related to fundamental research, which somewhat reshapes the industry ecosystem with biotechnology companies playing an increasingly important role, and overall strategies being redefined accordingly. Some approved drugs, such as those based on re-formulation of an existing active ingredient (also referred to as Line-extensions) are much less expensive to develop.
Why was Mevastatin never marketed?
571ae94232177014007e9fda
adverse effects of tumors, muscle deterioration, and sometimes death
535
False
Who discovered Mevastatin?
571ae94232177014007e9fdb
Akira Endo
9
False
What is HMG-CoA responsible for producing?
571ae94232177014007e9fdc
cholesterol
263
False
Where did Endo discover ML-236B?
571ae94232177014007e9fdd
Penicillium citrinum
157
False
What was discovered in long term studies?
571ae94232177014007e9fde
too toxic for human use
464
False
In what year was mevastatin discovered?
571d1e58dd7acb1400e4c224
1971
3
False
Who discovered mevastatin?
571d1e58dd7acb1400e4c225
Akira Endo
9
False
What organism produces mevastatin?
571d1e58dd7acb1400e4c226
Penicillium citrinum
157
False
What enzyme helps produce cholesterol?
571d1e58dd7acb1400e4c227
HMG-CoA reductase
198
False
adverse effects of tumors, muscle deterioration, and sometimes death
535
Why was Penicillium never marketed?
5ad389c2604f3c001a3fe595
True
Akira Endo
9
Who discovered Penicillium?
5ad389c2604f3c001a3fe596
True
Penicillium citrinum
157
What is Penicillium responsible for producing?
5ad389c2604f3c001a3fe597
True
too toxic for human use
464
What was discovered in short term studies?
5ad389c2604f3c001a3fe598
True
1971
3
In what year was Penicillium discovered?
5ad389c2604f3c001a3fe599
True
In 1971, Akira Endo, a Japanese biochemist working for the pharmaceutical company Sankyo, identified mevastatin (ML-236B), a molecule produced by the fungus Penicillium citrinum, as an inhibitor of HMG-CoA reductase, a critical enzyme used by the body to produce cholesterol. Animal trials showed very good inhibitory effect as in clinical trials, however a long term study in dogs found toxic effects at higher doses and as a result mevastatin was believed to be too toxic for human use. Mevastatin was never marketed, because of its adverse effects of tumors, muscle deterioration, and sometimes death in laboratory dogs.
How much did Pfizer settle the illegal marketing suit for?
571aeca132177014007e9fee
$301 million
680
False
What drugs were involved in cases of the largest criminal fines?
571aeca132177014007e9fef
Zyprexa, and the other involved Bextra
487
False
What was Pfizer accused of illegally marketing?
571aeca132177014007e9ff0
Geodon
630
False
What companies have been involved with health care fraud cases?
571aeca132177014007e9ff1
Bristol-Myers Squibb, Eli Lilly, Pfizer, AstraZeneca and Johnson & Johnson
49
False
What do illegal marketing cases fall under?
571aeca132177014007e9ff2
False Claims Act
180
False
Firms such as Eli Lilly, Pfizer, and AstraZeneca have settled claims under what act?
571d3bc95efbb31900334ed2
False Claims Act
180
False
Zyprexa was owned by what company?
571d3bc95efbb31900334ed3
Eli Lilly
461
False
Pfizer was charged with illegally marketing what antipsychotic drug?
571d3bc95efbb31900334ed4
Geodon
630
False
Pfizer settled the Geodon lawsuit for how much money?
571d3bc95efbb31900334ed5
$301 million
680
False
$301 million
680
How much did Eli Lilly settle the illegal marketing suit for?
5ad3b079604f3c001a3feca7
True
Zyprexa, and the other involved Bextra
487
What drugs were involved in cases of the largest Johnson & Johnson fines?
5ad3b079604f3c001a3feca8
True
Geodon
630
What was Johnson & Johnson accused of illegally marketing?
5ad3b079604f3c001a3feca9
True
Bristol-Myers Squibb, Eli Lilly, Pfizer, AstraZeneca and Johnson & Johnson
49
What companies have been involved with wrongdoing?
5ad3b079604f3c001a3fecaa
True
False Claims Act
180
What do Johnson & Johnson marketing cases fall under?
5ad3b079604f3c001a3fecab
True
Every major company selling the antipsychotics — Bristol-Myers Squibb, Eli Lilly, Pfizer, AstraZeneca and Johnson & Johnson — has either settled recent government cases, under the False Claims Act, for hundreds of millions of dollars or is currently under investigation for possible health care fraud. Following charges of illegal marketing, two of the settlements set records last year for the largest criminal fines ever imposed on corporations. One involved Eli Lilly's antipsychotic Zyprexa, and the other involved Bextra. In the Bextra case, the government also charged Pfizer with illegally marketing another antipsychotic, Geodon; Pfizer settled that part of the claim for $301 million, without admitting any wrongdoing.
Who were some of the companies that encouraged the interactions between doctors and the pharmaceutical industry?
571af11632177014007e9ff8
World Economic Forum, the Gates Foundation, the Wellcome Trust, and the Food and Drug Administration
612
False
When did the article come out about the importance of interactions?
571af11632177014007e9ff9
May 2015
109
False
What was the reason behind these interactions?
571af11632177014007e9ffa
bring greater benefits to patients
793
False
What was believed to have created a financial conflict of interest?
571af11632177014007e9ffb
moral outrage over industry malfeasance
251
False
Who printed the article about the importance of interactions?
571af11632177014007e9ffc
New England Journal of Medicine
74
False
What publication had an article about the importance of pharmaceutical industry-physician interactions in 2015?
571d26ce5efbb31900334eae
New England Journal of Medicine
74
False
When was the editorial published?
571d26ce5efbb31900334eaf
May 2015
109
False
Did major healthcare organizations support or discourage interactions between doctors and industries?
571d26ce5efbb31900334eb0
encouraged greater interactions
717
False
World Economic Forum, the Gates Foundation, the Wellcome Trust, and the Food and Drug Administration
612
Who were some of the companies that encouraged the interactions between doctors and the National Center for Advancing Translational Sciences of the National Institutes of Health?
5ad39d84604f3c001a3fe8e1
True
May 2015
109
When did the article come out about the importance of doctors?
5ad39d84604f3c001a3fe8e2
True
bring greater benefits to patients
793
What was the reason behind these conflicts?
5ad39d84604f3c001a3fe8e3
True
moral outrage over industry malfeasance
251
What was believed to have created physician interactions?
5ad39d84604f3c001a3fe8e4
True
New England Journal of Medicine
74
Who printed the article about the importance of malfeasance?
5ad39d84604f3c001a3fe8e5
True
In contrast to this viewpoint, an article and associated editorial in the New England Journal of Medicine in May 2015 emphasized the importance of pharmaceutical industry-physician interactions for the development of novel treatments, and argued that moral outrage over industry malfeasance had unjustifiably led many to overemphasize the problems created by financial conflicts of interest. The article noted that major healthcare organizations such as National Center for Advancing Translational Sciences of the National Institutes of Health, the President’s Council of Advisors on Science and Technology, the World Economic Forum, the Gates Foundation, the Wellcome Trust, and the Food and Drug Administration had encouraged greater interactions between physicians and industry in order to bring greater benefits to patients.
Who conduced an investigation on doctors?
571af2219499d21900609bb3
ProPublica
20
False
Billions of dollars have been paid by which companies?
571af2219499d21900609bb4
AstraZeneca, Johnson & Johnson and Eli Lilly
276
False
How much was discovered to have been paid to doctors by drug companies?
571af2219499d21900609bb5
more than $500,000
77
False
What was the reason these companies have to pay fines?
571af2219499d21900609bb6
allegations that they paid doctors to promote drugs for unapproved uses
379
False
How many doctors have been paid by varies companies?
571af2219499d21900609bb7
at least 21
42
False
A ProPublica study found that some doctors were being paid how much money for speeches?
571d29295efbb31900334eb4
more than $500,000
77
False
Half of the top earners were mostly in what field?
571d29295efbb31900334eb5
psychiatry
199
False
Drug manufacturers paid off doctors a total of how much money?
571d29295efbb31900334eb6
$2 billion
221
False
ProPublica
20
Who conducted an investigation on drugs?
5ad39ae3604f3c001a3fe885
True
AstraZeneca, Johnson & Johnson and Eli Lilly
276
Billions of drugs have been paid why which companies?
5ad39ae3604f3c001a3fe886
True
$500,000
87
How much was discovered to have been paid to drug companies by doctors?
5ad39ae3604f3c001a3fe887
True
allegations that they paid doctors to promote drugs for unapproved uses
379
What was the reason these doctors have to pay fines?
5ad39ae3604f3c001a3fe888
True
at least 21 doctors
42
How many companies have been paid by various doctors?
5ad39ae3604f3c001a3fe889
True
An investigation by ProPublica found that at least 21 doctors have been paid more than $500,000 for speeches and consulting by drugs manufacturers since 2009, with half of the top earners working in psychiatry, and about $2 billion in total paid to doctors for such services. AstraZeneca, Johnson & Johnson and Eli Lilly have paid billions of dollars in federal settlements over allegations that they paid doctors to promote drugs for unapproved uses. Some prominent medical schools have since tightened rules on faculty acceptance of such payments by drug companies.
Why are collaborative agreements important?
571af72f9499d21900609bbd
to explore the potential of new drug substances
455
False
How do large corporations show vertical integration?
571af72f9499d21900609bbe
participating in a broad range of drug discovery and development, manufacturing and quality control, marketing, sales, and distribution
70
False
What are large companies relying on outside organizations for?
571af72f9499d21900609bbf
to manage drug development
595
False
What are smaller organizations responsible for?
571af72f9499d21900609bc0
focus on a specific aspect such as discovering drug candidates or developing formulations
255
False
What type of integration do large corporations often do?
571d29cf5efbb31900334eba
vertical
48
False
What type of integration do smaller organizations do?
571d29cf5efbb31900334ebb
a specific aspect
264
False
What type of agreements are made to research potential new drugs?
571d29cf5efbb31900334ebc
collaborative agreements
353
False
What type of organizations are multinational corporations increasingly rely on?
571d29cf5efbb31900334ebd
contract research
563
False
to explore the potential of new drug substances
455
Why is collaborative distribution important?
5ad39125604f3c001a3fe665
True
participating in a broad range of drug discovery and development, manufacturing and quality control, marketing, sales, and distribution
70
How do large corporations show multi-nationals integration?
5ad39125604f3c001a3fe666
True
to manage drug development
595
What are large companies relying on outside marketing for?
5ad39125604f3c001a3fe667
True
to manage drug development
595
What are smaller drugs responsible for?
5ad39125604f3c001a3fe668
True
vertical
48
What type of integration do large drugs often do?
5ad39125604f3c001a3fe669
True
Often, large multinational corporations exhibit vertical integration, participating in a broad range of drug discovery and development, manufacturing and quality control, marketing, sales, and distribution. Smaller organizations, on the other hand, often focus on a specific aspect such as discovering drug candidates or developing formulations. Often, collaborative agreements between research organizations and large pharmaceutical companies are formed to explore the potential of new drug substances. More recently, multi-nationals are increasingly relying on contract research organizations to manage drug development.
Who is the core guide?
571af86f32177014007ea002
The British National Formulary
501
False
Who is responsible for approving drugs in the United Kingdom?
571af86f32177014007ea003
Medicines and Healthcare Products Regulatory Agency
15
False
After an approval in the United States, when does an approval occur in the United Kingdom and other countries?
571af86f32177014007ea004
comes later
264
False
Who decides how NHS will allow drugs?
571af86f32177014007ea005
National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE)
312
False
Who does the evaluations for drugs in the United Kingdom?
571af86f32177014007ea006
European Medicines Agency
128
False
What UK firm approves pharmaceutical drugs?
571d2a97dd7acb1400e4c22c
Medicines and Healthcare Products Regulatory Agency
15
False
What UK organization evaluates drugs?
571d2a97dd7acb1400e4c22d
European Medicines Agency
128
False
What firm in England and Wales decides if the NHS allows drugs?
571d2a97dd7acb1400e4c22e
National Institute for Health and Care Excellence
312
False
What is the name of the core guide for pharmacists and clinicians?
571d2a97dd7acb1400e4c22f
British National Formulary
505
False
The British National Formulary
501
Who is the core clinician?
5ad3a053604f3c001a3fe995
True
Medicines and Healthcare Products Regulatory Agency
15
Who is responsible for approving drugs in the NHS?
5ad3a053604f3c001a3fe996
True
comes later
264
After an approval in the UK, when does an approval occur in the NHS and other countries?
5ad3a053604f3c001a3fe997
True
National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE)
312
Who decides how the USA will allow drugs?
5ad3a053604f3c001a3fe998
True
European Medicines Agency
128
Who does the evaluations for drugs in the United States?
5ad3a053604f3c001a3fe999
True
In the UK, the Medicines and Healthcare Products Regulatory Agency approves drugs for use, though the evaluation is done by the European Medicines Agency, an agency of the European Union based in London. Normally an approval in the UK and other European countries comes later than one in the USA. Then it is the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE), for England and Wales, who decides if and how the National Health Service (NHS) will allow (in the sense of paying for) their use. The British National Formulary is the core guide for pharmacists and clinicians.
What is subject to the Orphan Drug Act?
571af9329499d21900609bc5
diseases involving fewer than 200,000 patients in the United States, or larger populations in certain circumstances
129
False
What is given to companies who develop drugs for "orphan diseases"?
571af9329499d21900609bc6
tax reductions, fee waivers, and market exclusivity on that drug for a limited time (seven years), regardless of whether the drug is protected by patents
426
False
Why are these companies rewarded?
571af9329499d21900609bc7
Because medical research and development of drugs to treat such diseases is financially disadvantageous
282
False
What is a term for rare diseases in some territories?
571d2b4ddd7acb1400e4c234
orphan diseases
52
False
What size of disease populations are subject to the Orphan Drug Act?
571d2b4ddd7acb1400e4c235
fewer than 200,000 patients
148
False
What is one financial benefit to researching orphan drugs?
571d2b4ddd7acb1400e4c236
tax reductions
426
False
What is the length of time of market exclusivity of an orphan drug?
571d2b4ddd7acb1400e4c237
seven years
511
False
diseases involving fewer than 200,000 patients in the United States, or larger populations in certain circumstances
129
What is subject to patients in the United States?
5ad3a4c6604f3c001a3fea95
True
tax reductions, fee waivers, and market exclusivity on that drug for a limited time (seven years), regardless of whether the drug is protected by patents
426
What is given to companies who develop rules for "orphan diseases"?
5ad3a4c6604f3c001a3fea96
True
Because medical research and development of drugs to treat such diseases is financially disadvantageous
282
Why are these rules rewarded?
5ad3a4c6604f3c001a3fea97
True
orphan diseases
52
What is a term for rare rules in some territories?
5ad3a4c6604f3c001a3fea98
True
fewer than 200,000 patients
148
What size of disease populations are subject to patents?
5ad3a4c6604f3c001a3fea99
True
There are special rules for certain rare diseases ("orphan diseases") in several major drug regulatory territories. For example, diseases involving fewer than 200,000 patients in the United States, or larger populations in certain circumstances are subject to the Orphan Drug Act.  Because medical research and development of drugs to treat such diseases is financially disadvantageous, companies that do so are rewarded with tax reductions, fee waivers, and market exclusivity on that drug for a limited time (seven years), regardless of whether the drug is protected by patents.
Who argued against regulators?
571af9889499d21900609bcb
Ben Goldacre
0
False
Who argued that drug regulators were greater serving the interests of the drug companies than the patients?
571d3ae3dd7acb1400e4c25c
Ben Goldacre
0
False
The business friendships between which parties have been criticized?
571d3ae3dd7acb1400e4c25d
regulator and company employees
389
False
Goldacre argued that which party didn't require that new drugs be improved at all?
571d3ae3dd7acb1400e4c25e
regulators
437
False
Ben Goldacre
0
Who argued against the public?
5ad3ad2f604f3c001a3febe5
True
Ben Goldacre
0
Who argued that drug regulators were greater serving the interests of patients than the drug companies?
5ad3ad2f604f3c001a3febe6
True
regulator and company employees
389
The business friendships between which parties have been praised?
5ad3ad2f604f3c001a3febe7
True
regulators
29
The FDA argued that which party didn't require that new drugs be improved at all?
5ad3ad2f604f3c001a3febe8
True
Ben Goldacre
0
Who argues that regulators do not require that new regulators offer an improvement?
5ad3ad2f604f3c001a3febe9
True
Ben Goldacre has argued that regulators – such as the Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency (MHRA) in the UK, or the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) in the United States – advance the interests of the drug companies rather than the interests of the public due to revolving door exchange of employees between the regulator and the companies and friendships develop between regulator and company employees. He argues that regulators do not require that new drugs offer an improvement over what is already available, or even that they be particularly effective.
NICE decides the availability of drugs in which two countries?
571d2c3b5efbb31900334ec2
England and Wales
263
False
What is the name of the organization in Scotland that decides the availability of drugs?
571d2c3b5efbb31900334ec3
Scottish Medicines Consortium
429
False
What threshold must a drug pass before it is approved?
571d2c3b5efbb31900334ec4
cost-effectiveness
575
False
England and Wales
263
QALY decides the availability of drugs in which two countries?
5ad3a314604f3c001a3fea45
True
Scottish Medicines Consortium
429
What is the name of the organization in Wales that decides the availability of drugs?
5ad3a314604f3c001a3fea46
True
cost-effectiveness
575
What threshold must a Wales pass before it is approved?
5ad3a314604f3c001a3fea47
True
England and Wales
263
Where does QALY decide whether decide in what circumstances drugs and technologies will be made available?
5ad3a314604f3c001a3fea48
True
pass the threshold for cost-effectiveness
552
What must the NHS do in order to be approved?
5ad3a314604f3c001a3fea49
True
In many non-US western countries a 'fourth hurdle' of cost effectiveness analysis has developed before new technologies can be provided. This focuses on the efficiency (in terms of the cost per QALY) of the technologies in question rather than their efficacy. In England and Wales NICE decides whether and in what circumstances drugs and technologies will be made available by the NHS, whilst similar arrangements exist with the Scottish Medicines Consortium in Scotland, and the Pharmaceutical Benefits Advisory Committee in Australia. A product must pass the threshold for cost-effectiveness if it is to be approved. Treatments must represent 'value for money' and a net benefit to society.
How much money did the top ten bestselling drugs make in 2013?
571d2ccfdd7acb1400e4c23c
$75.6 billion
47
False
What was the name of the top-selling anti-inflammatory drug in 2013?
571d2ccfdd7acb1400e4c23d
Humira
103
False
What was the bestselling drug in history?
571d2ccfdd7acb1400e4c23e
Lipitor
415
False
How much money did Lipitor make before the patent expired?
571d2ccfdd7acb1400e4c23f
$141 billion
465
False
In what year did Pfizer's patent over Lipitor expire?
571d2ccfdd7acb1400e4c240
2011
545
False
$75.6 billion
47
How much money did the top ten bestselling drugs make in 2011?
5ad3a5d0604f3c001a3feaa9
True
Humira
103
What was the name of the top-selling anti-inflammatory drug in 2011?
5ad3a5d0604f3c001a3feaaa
True
Lipitor
415
What was the bestselling drug in 2011?
5ad3a5d0604f3c001a3feaab
True
$141 billion
465
How much money did Lipitor make after the patent expired?
5ad3a5d0604f3c001a3feaac
True
2011
545
In what year did Humira's patent over Lipitor expire?
5ad3a5d0604f3c001a3feaad
True
The top ten best-selling drugs of 2013 totaled $75.6 billion in sales, with the anti-inflammatory drug Humira being the best-selling drug worldwide at $10.7 billion in sales. The second and third best selling were Enbrel and Remicade, respectively. The top three best-selling drugs in the United States in 2013 were Abilify ($6.3 billion,) Nexium ($6 billion) and Humira ($5.4 billion). The best-selling drug ever, Lipitor, averaged $13 billion annually and netted $141 billion total over its lifetime before Pfizer's patent expired in November 2011.
How long do drug exclusivity rights usually last?
571d2dbf5efbb31900334ec8
20 years
189
False
Governments grant permission to market drugs after how many years?
571d2dbf5efbb31900334ec9
10 to 15 years on average
259
False
What enables a drug's owner to recover R&D costs?
571d2dbf5efbb31900334eca
Patent protection
378
False
What kind of drug is produced by competitors once a patent expires?
571d2dbf5efbb31900334ecb
generic
578
False
What decade was the pharmaceutical industry's "golden era"?
571d2dbf5efbb31900334ecc
1990s
1034
False
20 years
189
How long do company exclusivity rights usually last?
5ad3a6d2604f3c001a3feabf
True
10 to 15 years on average
259
Governments grant permission to market companies after how many years?
5ad3a6d2604f3c001a3feac0
True
Patent protection
378
What enables a drug's owner to recover patent costs?
5ad3a6d2604f3c001a3feac1
True
generic
801
What kind of drug is produced by competitors once an industry expires?
5ad3a6d2604f3c001a3feac2
True
1990s
1034
What decade was the pharmaceutical industry's "drug era"?
5ad3a6d2604f3c001a3feac3
True
Depending on a number of considerations, a company may apply for and be granted a patent for the drug, or the process of producing the drug, granting exclusivity rights typically for about 20 years. However, only after rigorous study and testing, which takes 10 to 15 years on average, will governmental authorities grant permission for the company to market and sell the drug. Patent protection enables the owner of the patent to recover the costs of research and development through high profit margins for the branded drug. When the patent protection for the drug expires, a generic drug is usually developed and sold by a competing company. The development and approval of generics is less expensive, allowing them to be sold at a lower price. Often the owner of the branded drug will introduce a generic version before the patent expires in order to get a head start in the generic market. Restructuring has therefore become routine, driven by the patent expiration of products launched during the industry's "golden era" in the 1990s and companies' failure to develop sufficient new blockbuster products to replace lost revenues.
The safety and efficacy of new drugs must be approved by what organization in the US?
571d2eafdd7acb1400e4c246
Food and Drug Administration
74
False
What type of filing is used before beginning human trials?
571d2eafdd7acb1400e4c247
Investigational New Drug
192
False
How many phases of human trials may be done after IND approval?
571d2eafdd7acb1400e4c248
three
323
False
What type of application is filed after completing three phases of human trials?
571d2eafdd7acb1400e4c249
New Drug Application
667
False
What type of risk assessment results in approving the drug to go on the market?
571d2eafdd7acb1400e4c24a
positive benefit-risk
776
False
Food and Drug Administration
74
What organization in the US must approve the safety and efficacy of testing?
5ad39f27604f3c001a3fe941
True
Investigational New Drug
192
What type of filing is used before beginning risk assessment?
5ad39f27604f3c001a3fe942
True
three
323
How many phases of human trials may be done after review?
5ad39f27604f3c001a3fe943
True
New Drug Application
667
What type of application is filed after completing three phases of products?
5ad39f27604f3c001a3fe944
True
positive benefit-risk
776
What type of risk assessment results in approving the drug to go on to studies?
5ad39f27604f3c001a3fe945
True
In the United States, new pharmaceutical products must be approved by the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) as being both safe and effective. This process generally involves submission of an Investigational New Drug filing with sufficient pre-clinical data to support proceeding with human trials. Following IND approval, three phases of progressively larger human clinical trials may be conducted. Phase I generally studies toxicity using healthy volunteers. Phase II can include pharmacokinetics and dosing in patients, and Phase III is a very large study of efficacy in the intended patient population. Following the successful completion of phase III testing, a New Drug Application is submitted to the FDA. The FDA review the data and if the product is seen as having a positive benefit-risk assessment, approval to market the product in the US is granted.
"Drug reps" are usually hired by what type of firms?
571d2f3bdd7acb1400e4c250
Pharmaceutical companies
191
False
What law regulates drug marketing in the US?
571d2f3bdd7acb1400e4c251
Prescription Drug Marketing Act of 1987
563
False
Who do drug reps market to?
571d2f3bdd7acb1400e4c252
directly and personally to physicians
315
False
Pharmaceutical companies
191
"US reps" are usually hired by what type of firms?
5ad3a829604f3c001a3feae7
True
Prescription Drug Marketing Act of 1987
563
What law regulates drug marketing in some countries?
5ad3a829604f3c001a3feae8
True
directly and personally to physicians
315
Who do US reps market to?
5ad3a829604f3c001a3feae9
True
sales people
233
Who do US companies generally employ?
5ad3a829604f3c001a3feaea
True
the federal Prescription Drug Marketing Act of 1987
551
What is marketing of media in the US regulated by?
5ad3a829604f3c001a3feaeb
True
Advertising is common in healthcare journals as well as through more mainstream media routes. In some countries, notably the US, they are allowed to advertise directly to the general public. Pharmaceutical companies generally employ sales people (often called 'drug reps' or, an older term, 'detail men') to market directly and personally to physicians and other healthcare providers. In some countries, notably the US, pharmaceutical companies also employ lobbyists to influence politicians. Marketing of prescription drugs in the US is regulated by the federal Prescription Drug Marketing Act of 1987.
Drug reps have been accused of giving what to health professionals?
571d34cadd7acb1400e4c256
'gifts' and biased information
251
False
Drug marketers have hired who as paid consultants?
571d34cadd7acb1400e4c257
physicians
661
False
What publications can drug ads be commonly found?
571d34cadd7acb1400e4c258
journals and conferences
339
False
'gifts' and biased information
251
What have drug reps been accused of giving to conferences?
5ad3aa82604f3c001a3feb45
True
physicians
661
Conferences have hired who as paid consultants?
5ad3aa82604f3c001a3feb46
True
journals and conferences
339
What publications can advisory boards be commonly found in?
5ad3aa82604f3c001a3feb47
True
drug reps
194
Who has been accused of influencing consultants?
5ad3aa82604f3c001a3feb48
True
pharmaceutical marketing and influence
50
What has stopped controversy?
5ad3aa82604f3c001a3feb49
True
There has been increasing controversy surrounding pharmaceutical marketing and influence. There have been accusations and findings of influence on doctors and other health professionals through drug reps, including the constant provision of marketing 'gifts' and biased information to health professionals; highly prevalent advertising in journals and conferences; funding independent healthcare organizations and health promotion campaigns; lobbying physicians and politicians (more than any other industry in the US); sponsorship of medical schools or nurse training; sponsorship of continuing educational events, with influence on the curriculum; and hiring physicians as paid consultants on medical advisory boards.
Umayyad_Caliphate
In what year CE did the Second Muslim Civil War end?
571a9f0e4faf5e1900b8ab3c
692
139
False
During what period did the Berber Revolt occur?
571a9f0e4faf5e1900b8ab3d
740–743 CE
171
False
What branch took over Umayyad leadership during the Second Civil War?
571a9f0e4faf5e1900b8ab3e
Marwanid
297
False
rivalries between the Arab tribes
4
What caused unrest in the provinces inside Syria?
5acf705877cf76001a684e2a
True
680–692 CE
135
In what years did the First Muslim Civil War occur?
5acf705877cf76001a684e2b
True
During the Second Civil War
183
When did leadership shift from the Marwanid branch to the Sufyanid branch?
5acf705877cf76001a684e2c
True
1031
657
What year was the Caliphate of Cordoba started?
5acf705877cf76001a684e2d
True
Third Muslim Civil War
423
What war strengthened the Umayyads?
5acf705877cf76001a684e2e
True
The rivalries between the Arab tribes had caused unrest in the provinces outside Syria, most notably in the Second Muslim Civil War of 680–692 CE and the Berber Revolt of 740–743 CE. During the Second Civil War, leadership of the Umayyad clan shifted from the Sufyanid branch of the family to the Marwanid branch. As the constant campaigning exhausted the resources and manpower of the state, the Umayyads, weakened by the Third Muslim Civil War of 744–747 CE, were finally toppled by the Abbasid Revolution in 750 CE/132 AH. A branch of the family fled across North Africa to Al-Andalus, where they established the Caliphate of Córdoba, which lasted until 1031 before falling due to the Fitna of al-Ándalus.
In what year was Ali killed?
571a9f4010f8ca14003051c1
661
24
False
Who killed Ali?
571a9f4110f8ca14003051c2
Kharijite partisan
33
False
Who made peace with Muawiyah I?
571a9f4110f8ca14003051c3
Hasan ibn Ali
114
False
Where was the capital of the Umayyad dynasty?
571a9f4110f8ca14003051c4
Damascus
744
False
661
24
When was a Kharijite partisan killed?
5acf9c8b77cf76001a6854be
True
Hasan ibn Ali
114
Who was the First Imam for the Shias?
5acf9c8b77cf76001a6854bf
True
Mu'awiyah
645
Who followed the conditions of the agreement?
5acf9c8b77cf76001a6854c0
True
Hasan ibn Ali
312
Who refused to hand over power to Muawiyah?
5acf9c8b77cf76001a6854c1
True
Hasan ibn Ali
114
Who was regarded as a fool?
5acf9c8b77cf76001a6854c2
True
Ali was assassinated in 661 by a Kharijite partisan. Six months later in the same year, in the interest of peace, Hasan ibn Ali, highly regarded for his wisdom and as a peacemaker, and the Second Imam for the Shias, and the grandson of Muhammad, made a peace treaty with Muawiyah I. In the Hasan-Muawiya treaty, Hasan ibn Ali handed over power to Muawiya on the condition that he be just to the people and keep them safe and secure, and after his death he not establish a dynasty. This brought to an end the era of the Rightly Guided Caliphs for the Sunnis, and Hasan ibn Ali was also the last Imam for the Shias to be a Caliph. Following this, Mu'awiyah broke the conditions of the agreement and began the Umayyad dynasty, with its capital in Damascus.
What form of tax were Christians required to pay?
571a9f6a4faf5e1900b8ab42
jizya
570
False
Who was the mother of Yazid?
571a9f6a4faf5e1900b8ab43
Maysum
713
False
What was Maysum's religion?
571a9f6a4faf5e1900b8ab44
Christian
748
False
Christian and Jewish
108
What populations did not have autonomy?
5acf6e1877cf76001a684e16
True
Umar ibn al Khattab
658
Who ended the Muslim welfare state?
5acf6e1877cf76001a684e17
True
Christians
1096
What religion never held prominent positions in the Caliphate?
5acf6e1877cf76001a684e18
True
This policy
1378
What caused Muawiya to become less popular?
5acf6e1877cf76001a684e19
True
Syria
982
What part of the empire remained largely Jewish?
5acf6e1877cf76001a684e1a
True
At the time, the Umayyad taxation and administrative practice were perceived as unjust by some Muslims. The Christian and Jewish population had still autonomy; their judicial matters were dealt with in accordance with their own laws and by their own religious heads or their appointees, although they did pay a poll tax for policing to the central state. Muhammad had stated explicitly during his lifetime that abrahamic religious groups (still a majority in times of the Umayyad Caliphate), should be allowed to practice their own religion, provided that they paid the jizya taxation. The welfare state of both the Muslim and the non-Muslim poor started by Umar ibn al Khattab had also continued. Muawiya's wife Maysum (Yazid's mother) was also a Christian. The relations between the Muslims and the Christians in the state were stable in this time. The Umayyads were involved in frequent battles with the Christian Byzantines without being concerned with protecting themselves in Syria, which had remained largely Christian like many other parts of the empire. Prominent positions were held by Christians, some of whom belonged to families that had served in Byzantine governments. The employment of Christians was part of a broader policy of religious assimilation that was necessitated by the presence of large Christian populations in the conquered provinces, as in Syria. This policy also boosted Muawiya's popularity and solidified Syria as his power base.
How many major Islamic caliphates existed after Muhammad's death?
571a9fa84faf5e1900b8ab48
four
104
False
Who was the third caliph?
571a9fa84faf5e1900b8ab49
Uthman ibn Affan
394
False
Who founded the Umayyad regime?
571a9fa84faf5e1900b8ab4a
Muawiya ibn Abi Sufyan
463
False
How many million square miles was the Umayyad caliphate at its largest size?
571a9fa84faf5e1900b8ab4b
5.79
903
False
four
104
How many Islamic caliphates existed before the death of Muhammad?
5acf6cae77cf76001a684de4
True
Uthman ibn Affan
394
Who was the first caliph?
5acf6cae77cf76001a684de5
True
661 CE/41 AH
563
When did the First Muslim Civil War begin?
5acf6cae77cf76001a684de6
True
The Umayyad Caliphate
0
What was the first major Islamic caliphate?
5acf6cae77cf76001a684de7
True
5.79 million
903
How many square miles big was the Umayyad Caliphate at it's smallest?
5acf6cae77cf76001a684de8
True
The Umayyad Caliphate (Arabic: الخلافة الأموية‎, trans. Al-Khilāfat al-ʾumawiyya) was the second of the four major Islamic caliphates established after the death of Muhammad. This caliphate was centered on the Umayyad dynasty (Arabic: الأمويون‎, al-ʾUmawiyyūn, or بنو أمية, Banū ʾUmayya, "Sons of Umayya"), hailing from Mecca. The Umayyad family had first come to power under the third caliph, Uthman ibn Affan (r. 644–656), but the Umayyad regime was founded by Muawiya ibn Abi Sufyan, long-time governor of Syria, after the end of the First Muslim Civil War in 661 CE/41 AH. Syria remained the Umayyads' main power base thereafter, and Damascus was their capital. The Umayyads continued the Muslim conquests, incorporating the Caucasus, Transoxiana, Sindh, the Maghreb and the Iberian Peninsula (Al-Andalus) into the Muslim world. At its greatest extent, the Umayyad Caliphate covered 15 million km2 (5.79 million square miles), making it the largest empire (in terms of area - not in terms of population) the world had yet seen, and the fifth largest ever to exist.
When did Muawiyah become caliph?
571a9fd84faf5e1900b8ab50
661
48
False
When did the caliphate of Uthman Ibn Affan end?
571a9fd84faf5e1900b8ab51
656
255
False
Who was the son of Al-Hakam ibn Abi al-'As?
571a9fd84faf5e1900b8ab52
Marwan ibn al-Hakam
539
False
Caliph Muawiyah
31
Who was the second ruler to asset the Umayyads' right to rule on dynastic principal?
5acf8e3877cf76001a685244
True
Caliph Muawiyah
31
Who do most historians think was the first rules of the Umayyad dynasty?
5acf8e3877cf76001a685245
True
Marwan ibn al-Hakam
539
Which caliphate witnessed the downfall of the Umayyad clan?
5acf8e3877cf76001a685246
True
Uthman
393
Who was Marwan ibn al-Hakam'a top advisor?
5acf8e3877cf76001a685247
True
never named an heir
1158
Why can Uthman be considered the founder of a dynasty?
5acf8e3877cf76001a685248
True
Most historians[who?] consider Caliph Muawiyah (661–80) to have been the second ruler of the Umayyad dynasty, even though he was the first to assert the Umayyads' right to rule on a dynastic principle. It was really the caliphate of Uthman Ibn Affan (644–656), a member of Umayyad clan himself, that witnessed the revival and then the ascendancy of the Umayyad clan to the corridors of power. Uthman placed some of the trusted members of his clan at prominent and strong positions throughout the state. Most notable was the appointment of Marwan ibn al-Hakam, Uthman's first cousin, as his top advisor, which created a stir among the Hashimite companions of Muhammad, as Marwan along with his father Al-Hakam ibn Abi al-'As had been permanently exiled from Medina by Muhammad during his lifetime. Uthman also appointed as governor of Kufa his half-brother, Walid ibn Uqba, who was accused by Hashmites of leading prayer while under the influence of alcohol. Uthman also consolidated Muawiyah's governorship of Syria by granting him control over a larger area and appointed his foster brother Abdullah ibn Saad as the Governor of Egypt. However, since Uthman never named an heir, he cannot be considered the founder of a dynasty.
What opposition movement was based in Arabia and Basra?
571aa02b10f8ca14003051db
Kharijites
165
False
Who sent an army in 683 to stop the opposition movements?
571aa02b10f8ca14003051dc
Yazid
369
False
In what battle was the Medinese opposition movement defeated?
571aa02b10f8ca14003051dd
Battle of al-Harrah
471
False
Where is the Kaaba located?
571aa02b10f8ca14003051de
Mecca
637
False
two
95
How many opposition movements was Husayn associated with?
5acfa37777cf76001a68569e
True
The Grand Mosque
492
What mosque in Medina was repaired?
5acfa37777cf76001a68569f
True
Yazid's army
593
What army laid siege to Arabia?
5acfa37777cf76001a6856a0
True
The destruction of the Kaaba and Grand Mosque
715
What became a cause for the celebration of the Umayyads in later histories?
5acfa37777cf76001a6856a1
True
Yazid
369
Who dispatched an army to help the opposition movements?
5acfa37777cf76001a6856a2
True
Following the death of Husayn, Ibn al-Zubayr, although remaining in Mecca, was associated with two opposition movements, one centered in Medina and the other around Kharijites in Basra and Arabia. Because Medina had been home to Muhammad and his family, including Husayn, word of his death and the imprisonment of his family led to a large opposition movement. In 683, Yazid dispatched an army to subdue both movements. The army suppressed the Medinese opposition at the Battle of al-Harrah. The Grand Mosque in Medina was severely damaged and widespread pillaging caused deep-seated dissent. Yazid's army continued on and laid siege to Mecca. At some point during the siege, the Kaaba was badly damaged in a fire. The destruction of the Kaaba and Grand Mosque became a major cause for censure of the Umayyads in later histories of the period.
What is another term for the Umayyads?
571aa06610f8ca14003051e3
Banu Abd-Shams
62
False
Traditionally, who did the Umayyads and Muhammad both descend from?
571aa06610f8ca14003051e4
Abd Manaf ibn Qusai
130
False
From what city did the Umayyads originate?
571aa06610f8ca14003051e5
Mecca
193
False
What son of Abd-Shams was the ancestor of the Umayyads?
571aa06610f8ca14003051e6
Umayya
344
False
Muhammad
82
Who did Abd Manaf ibn Qusai descend from?
5acf7f9177cf76001a684fca
True
Muslim Shia historians
511
Who suspects that Muhammad was an adopted son?
5acf7f9177cf76001a684fcb
True
Sunni
691
Which historians agree with the Muslim Shia historians?
5acf7f9177cf76001a684fcc
True
Fatima
995
Who was married to the grandson of Abdullah bin Amr bin Uthman?
5acf7f9177cf76001a684fcd
True
Abdullah bin Amr bin Uthman
936
Who was the grandson of Zaid bin amr bin uthman bin affan?
5acf7f9177cf76001a684fce
True
According to tradition, the Umayyad family (also known as the Banu Abd-Shams) and Muhammad both descended from a common ancestor, Abd Manaf ibn Qusai, and they originally came from the city of Mecca. Muhammad descended from Abd Manāf via his son Hashim, while the Umayyads descended from Abd Manaf via a different son, Abd-Shams, whose son was Umayya. The two families are therefore considered to be different clans (those of Hashim and of Umayya, respectively) of the same tribe (that of the Quraish). However Muslim Shia historians suspect that Umayya was an adopted son of Abd Shams so he was not a blood relative of Abd Manaf ibn Qusai. Umayya was later discarded from the noble family. Sunni historians disagree with this and view Shia claims as nothing more than outright polemics due to their hostility to the Umayyad family in general. They point to the fact that the grand sons of Uthman, Zaid bin amr bin uthman bin affan and Abdullah bin Amr bin Uthman got married to the Sukaina and Fatima the daughters of Hussein son of Ali to show closeness of Banu hashem and Bani Ummayah.
Where did Muawiyah fight Ali?
571aa0a810f8ca14003051eb
Battle of Siffin
74
False
Who was appointed arbitrator by Ali?
571aa0a810f8ca14003051ec
Abu Musa Ashaari
304
False
In what battle did Ali fight the Kharjites?
571aa0a810f8ca14003051ed
Battle of Nahrawan
1232
False
What did the term Kharjites mean?
571aa0a810f8ca14003051ee
those who leave
1163
False
Muawiyah
51
Who did Ali fight against before this battle?
5acf9b6977cf76001a685470
True
Amr ibn al-As
228
Who was appointed as an arbitrator before the battle?
5acf9b6977cf76001a685471
True
Amr ibn al-As
439
Who convinced the others that a new Caliph should not be elected?
5acf9b6977cf76001a685472
True
Kharijites
1150
What group's name means "those who stay"?
5acf9b6977cf76001a685473
True
arbitration belongs to God alone.
1080
What was the slogan of those who stayed with Ali's force?
5acf9b6977cf76001a685474
True
Following this battle, Ali fought a battle against Muawiyah, known as the Battle of Siffin. The battle was stopped before either side had achieved victory, and the two parties agreed to arbitrate their dispute. After the battle Amr ibn al-As was appointed by Muawiyah as an arbitrator, and Ali appointed Abu Musa Ashaari. Seven months later, in February 658, the two arbitrators met at Adhruh, about 10 miles north west of Maan in Jordon. Amr ibn al-As convinced Abu Musa Ashaari that both Ali and Muawiyah should step down and a new Caliph be elected. Ali and his supporters were stunned by the decision which had lowered the Caliph to the status of the rebellious Muawiyah I. Ali was therefore outwitted by Muawiyah and Amr. Ali refused to accept the verdict and found himself technically in breach of his pledge to abide by the arbitration. This put Ali in a weak position even amongst his own supporters. The most vociferous opponents in Ali's camp were the very same people who had forced Ali into the ceasefire. They broke away from Ali's force, rallying under the slogan, "arbitration belongs to God alone." This group came to be known as the Kharijites ("those who leave"). In 659 Ali's forces and the Kharijites met in the Battle of Nahrawan. Although Ali won the battle, the constant conflict had begun to affect his standing, and in the following years some Syrians seem to have acclaimed Muawiyah as a rival caliph.
Who controlled Iraq before the Arabs?
571aa0ea4faf5e1900b8ab56
Persian Sassanid Empire
366
False
Who ruled Syria before it was conquered by the followers of Muhammad?
571aa0ea4faf5e1900b8ab57
Byzantine Empire
421
False
Who was the second caliph?
571aa0ea4faf5e1900b8ab58
Umar
567
False
The Quran
0
What book never mentioned racial equality?
5acf95ab77cf76001a68538a
True
Tribal and nationalistic differences
91
What was encouraged in the Quran?
5acf95ab77cf76001a68538b
True
old tribal differences
180
What started to resurface before Muhammad's passing?
5acf95ab77cf76001a68538c
True
Umar
567
Who was soft on the governors?
5acf95ab77cf76001a68538d
True
Syria
395
What area wanted the capital of the Islamic State to be outside their area?
5acf95ab77cf76001a68538e
True
The Quran and Muhammad talked about racial equality and justice as in The Farewell Sermon. Tribal and nationalistic differences were discouraged. But after Muhammad's passing, the old tribal differences between the Arabs started to resurface. Following the Roman–Persian Wars and the Byzantine–Sassanid Wars, deep rooted differences between Iraq, formally under the Persian Sassanid Empire, and Syria, formally under the Byzantine Empire, also existed. Each wanted the capital of the newly established Islamic State to be in their area. Previously, the second caliph Umar was very firm on the governors and his spies kept an eye on them. If he felt that a governor or a commander was becoming attracted to wealth, he had him removed from his position.
How many top leaders of the Umayyads were killed in the Battle of Badr?
571aa1474faf5e1900b8ab5c
three
200
False
Who did the Umayyads fight in the Battle of Badr?
571aa1474faf5e1900b8ab5d
Hashimites
27
False
What do historians see as the first military defeat of Islam?
571aa1474faf5e1900b8ab5e
Battle of Uhud
700
False
Who was the spouse of Abu Sufyan?
571aa1474faf5e1900b8ab5f
Hind
879
False
Who was the son of Abu Sufyan?
571aa1474faf5e1900b8ab60
Muawiyah I
1292
False
three
200
How many top leaders of the Umayyads survived the Battle of Badr?
5acf818077cf76001a685032
True
Umayya
461
Who was the grandson of Abu Sufyan ibn Harb?
5acf818077cf76001a685033
True
Abu Sufyan
495
Who fought a battle only a year before the Battle of Badr?
5acf818077cf76001a685034
True
The Battle of Uhud
696
What battle was the last defeat for the Muslims?
5acf818077cf76001a685035
True
Utba ibn Rabi'ah
914
Who was the daughter of Hind?
5acf818077cf76001a685036
True
While the Umayyads and the Hashimites may have had bitterness between the two clans before Muhammad, the rivalry turned into a severe case of tribal animosity after the Battle of Badr. The battle saw three top leaders of the Umayyad clan (Utba ibn Rabi'ah, Walid ibn Utbah and Shaybah) killed by Hashimites (Ali, Hamza ibn ‘Abd al-Muttalib and Ubaydah ibn al-Harith) in a three-on-three melee. This fueled the opposition of Abu Sufyan ibn Harb, the grandson of Umayya, to Muhammad and to Islam. Abu Sufyan sought to exterminate the adherents of the new religion by waging another battle with Muslims based in Medina only a year after the Battle of Badr. He did this to avenge the defeat at Badr. The Battle of Uhud is generally believed by scholars to be the first defeat for the Muslims, as they had incurred greater losses than the Meccans. After the battle, Abu Sufyan's wife Hind, who was also the daughter of Utba ibn Rabi'ah, is reported to have cut open the corpse of Hamza, taking out his liver which she then attempted to eat. Within five years after his defeat in the Battle of Uhud, however, Muhammad took control of Mecca and announced a general amnesty for all. Abu Sufyan and his wife Hind embraced Islam on the eve of the conquest of Mecca, as did their son (the future caliph Muawiyah I).
What tax did non-Muslims pay in the Umayyad period?
571aa18a4faf5e1900b8ab66
jizyah
356
False
What was another term for Muslims who were not Arab?
571aa18a4faf5e1900b8ab67
mawali
758
False
Along with Christians and Jews, what was a major non-Muslim religious group under the Umayyads?
571aa18a4faf5e1900b8ab68
Zoroastrian
217
False
jizyah
356
What tax did Muslims pay in the Umayyad period?
5acfafc277cf76001a685860
True
mawali
758
What was a term for Arabs who were not Muslim?
5acfafc277cf76001a685861
True
provincial governors
549
Who encouraged conversions in order to make more revenue?
5acfafc277cf76001a685862
True
Umar
629
Who insisted on different treatment of Arab and non-Arab Muslims?
5acfafc277cf76001a685863
True
Umar
629
Who added more obstacles to conversion to Islam for non-Arabs?
5acfafc277cf76001a685864
True
Umar is honored for his attempt to resolve the fiscal problems attendant upon conversion to Islam. During the Umayyad period, the majority of people living within the caliphate were not Muslim, but Christian, Jewish, Zoroastrian, or members of other small groups. These religious communities were not forced to convert to Islam, but were subject to a tax (jizyah) which was not imposed upon Muslims. This situation may actually have made widespread conversion to Islam undesirable from the point of view of state revenue, and there are reports that provincial governors actively discouraged such conversions. It is not clear how Umar attempted to resolve this situation, but the sources portray him as having insisted on like treatment of Arab and non-Arab (mawali) Muslims, and on the removal of obstacles to the conversion of non-Arabs to Islam.
When did Uthman die?
571aa1c110f8ca14003051f3
656
37
False
What tribe did Ali belong to?
571aa1c110f8ca14003051f4
Quraysh
63
False
Along with being his cousin, what relationship did Ali have to Muhammad?
571aa1c110f8ca14003051f5
son-in-law
96
False
Where was the capital before Ali changed it?
571aa1c110f8ca14003051f6
Medina
271
False
What does Fitna mean?
571aa1c110f8ca14003051f7
civil war
374
False
656
37
When was Uthman born?
5acf9a7577cf76001a685426
True
political inexperience
220
Why did Ali meet with little resistance?
5acf9a7577cf76001a685427
True
656 until 661
329
When did the Second Fitna occur?
5acf9a7577cf76001a685428
True
Aisha
552
Who was the wife of Marwan I?
5acf9a7577cf76001a685429
True
Marwan I
712
Who did not want conflict?
5acf9a7577cf76001a68542a
True
After the assassination of Uthman in 656, Ali, a member of the Quraysh tribe and the cousin and son-in-law of Muhammad, was elected as the caliph. He soon met with resistance from several factions, owing to his relative political inexperience. Ali moved his capital from Medina to Kufa. The resulting conflict, which lasted from 656 until 661, is known as the First Fitna ("civil war"). Muawiyah I, the governor of Syria, a relative of Uthman ibn al-Affan and Marwan I, wanted the culprits arrested. Marwan I manipulated everyone and created conflict. Aisha, the wife of Muhammad, and Talhah and Al-Zubayr, two of the companions of Muhammad, went to Basra to tell Ali to arrest the culprits who murdered Uthman. Marwan I and other people who wanted conflict manipulated everyone to fight. The two sides clashed at the Battle of the Camel in 656, where Ali won a decisive victory.
What group murdered Uthman ibn al-Affan?
571aa20e10f8ca14003051fd
Egyptians
717
False
Who was Marwan I related to?
571aa20e10f8ca14003051fe
Muawiyah I
316
False
Who adopted Muhammad ibn Abi Bakr?
571aa20e10f8ca14003051ff
Ali ibn Abi Talib
586
False
Who was the great grandson of Muhammad ibn Ali Bakr?
571aa20e10f8ca1400305200
Ja'far al-Sadiq
634
False
Umar
67
Who feared that Muslim armies would turn away from wealth?
5acf974077cf76001a68539e
True
feared that they might get attracted to wealth and luxury
72
Why did early Muslim armies stay inside of cities?
5acf974077cf76001a68539f
True
Uthman ibn al-Affan
744
Who murdered the Egyptians?
5acf974077cf76001a6853a0
True
Muhammad ibn Abi Bakr
523
Who assumed power when Marwan I became very old?
5acf974077cf76001a6853a1
True
Ja'far al-Sadiq
634
Who was the son of Muhammad ibn Abi Bakr?
5acf974077cf76001a6853a2
True
Early Muslim armies stayed in encampments away from cities because Umar feared that they might get attracted to wealth and luxury. In the process, they might turn away from the worship of God and start accumulating wealth and establishing dynasties. When Uthman ibn al-Affan became very old, Marwan I, a relative of Muawiyah I, slipped into the vacuum, became his secretary, slowly assumed more control and relaxed some of these restrictions. Marwan I had previously been excluded from positions of responsibility. In 656, Muhammad ibn Abi Bakr, the son of Abu Bakr, the adopted son of Ali ibn Abi Talib, and the great grandfather of Ja'far al-Sadiq, showed some Egyptians the house of Uthman ibn al-Affan. Later the Egyptians ended up killing Uthman ibn al-Affan.
Where did Ibn al-Zubayr flee to in 680?
571aa25310f8ca1400305205
Mecca
37
False
Who did Al-Husayn send to Kufa?
571aa25310f8ca1400305206
Muslim bin Agail
194
False
What did Ubayd-Allah bin Ziyad rule?
571aa25310f8ca1400305207
Basrah
324
False
Who did Ubayd-Allah bin Ziyad murder?
571aa25310f8ca1400305208
Muslim bin Agail
773
False
680
3
When did Ibn al-Zubayr flee Mecca for Medina?
5acfa0ca77cf76001a6855de
True
Ali ibn Husayn
1617
Who was the sole female survivor of the caravan?
5acfa0ca77cf76001a6855df
True
Ubayd-Allah bin Ziyad
410
Who was not able to disperse the crowd that had gathered?
5acfa0ca77cf76001a6855e0
True
Muslim bin Agail
623
Who requested a message be sent to Ubayd-Allah bin Ziyad to prevent his immigration to Kufa?
5acfa0ca77cf76001a6855e1
True
Amru bin Saad
1005
Who led Husayn's forces?
5acfa0ca77cf76001a6855e2
True
In 680 Ibn al-Zubayr fled Medina for Mecca. Hearing about Husayn's opposition to Yazid I, the people of Kufa sent to Husayn asking him to take over with their support. Al-Husayn sent his cousin Muslim bin Agail to verify if they would rally behind him. When the news reached Yazid I, he sent Ubayd-Allah bin Ziyad, ruler of Basrah, with the instruction to prevent the people of Kufa rallying behind Al-Husayn. Ubayd-Allah bin Ziyad managed to disperse the crowd that gathered around Muslim bin Agail and captured him. Realizing Ubayd-Allah bin Ziyad had been instructed to prevent Husayn from establishing support in Kufa, Muslim bin Agail requested a message to be sent to Husayn to prevent his immigration to Kufa. The request was denied and Ubayd-Allah bin Ziyad killed Muslim bin Agail. While Ibn al-Zubayr would stay in Mecca until his death, Husayn decided to travel on to Kufa with his family, unaware of the lack of support there. Husayn and his family were intercepted by Yazid I's forces led by Amru bin Saad, Shamar bin Thi Al-Joshan, and Hussain bin Tamim, who fought Al-Husayn and his male family members until they were killed. There were 200 people in Husayn's caravan, many of whom were women, including his sisters, wives, daughters and their children. The women and children from Husayn's camp were taken as prisoners of war and led back to Damascus to be presented to Yazid I. They remained imprisoned until public opinion turned against him as word of Husayn's death and his family's capture spread. They were then granted passage back to Medina. The sole adult male survivor from the caravan was Ali ibn Husayn who was with fever too ill to fight when the caravan was attacked.
When did Muhammad bin Wasim sail to Pakistan?
571aa29f10f8ca140030520d
712
12
False
Along with the Punjab, what did Muhammad bin Wasim conquer?
571aa29f10f8ca140030520e
Sindh
132
False
At what battle did the Hindus of India defeat the Umayyads?
571aa29f10f8ca140030520f
Rajasthan
382
False
To what dynasty did Vikramaditya II belong?
571aa29f10f8ca1400305210
Pratihara
490
False
Who was a notable king in this period from the Pratihara dynasty?
571aa29f10f8ca1400305211
Nagabhata
473
False
Muhammad bin Qasim
17
Who sailed away from Pakistan in 712?
5acf9de577cf76001a685538
True
712
12
What year did Muhammad bin Qasim leave Pakistan?
5acf9de577cf76001a685539
True
Sindh and Punjab
200
What conquests were easy for Umayyad Caliphate?
5acf9de577cf76001a68553a
True
king Nagabhata
468
Who stopped India from invading the Arabs?
5acf9de577cf76001a68553b
True
early 8th century
587
When did the south Indian Emperor give up conquering the Arabs?
5acf9de577cf76001a68553c
True
In the year 712, Muhammad bin Qasim, an Umayyad general, sailed from the Persian Gulf into Sindh in Pakistan and conquered both the Sindh and the Punjab regions along the Indus river. The conquest of Sindh and Punjab, in modern-day Pakistan, although costly, were major gains for the Umayyad Caliphate. However, further gains were halted by Hindu kingdoms in India in the battle of Rajasthan. The Arabs tried to invade India but they were defeated by the north Indian king Nagabhata of the Pratihara Dynasty and by the south Indian Emperor Vikramaditya II of the Chalukya dynasty in the early 8th century. After this the Arab chroniclers admit that the Caliph Mahdi "gave up the project of conquering any part of India."
Where was the Dome of the Rock built?
571aa2cb4faf5e1900b8ab76
Jerusalem
106
False
In what year was the Dome of the Rock finished?
571aa2cb4faf5e1900b8ab77
692
214
False
During whose reign was the Dome of the Rock constructed?
571aa2cb4faf5e1900b8ab78
Abd al-Malik
45
False
the construction of the Dome of the Rock
62
What was the first major event of the early reign of Abd al-Mali?
5acfa7de77cf76001a685744
True
692
214
What year did construction of the Dome of the Rock begin?
5acfa7de77cf76001a685745
True
destination for pilgrimage
410
Why was the Kaaba built?
5acfa7de77cf76001a685746
True
during the conflict with Ibn al-Zubayr
262
When was the Kaaba under construction?
5acfa7de77cf76001a685747
True
692
214
What year was the Kaaba completed?
5acfa7de77cf76001a685748
True
The second major event of the early reign of Abd al-Malik was the construction of the Dome of the Rock in Jerusalem. Although the chronology remains somewhat uncertain, the building seems to have been completed in 692, which means that it was under construction during the conflict with Ibn al-Zubayr. This had led some historians, both medieval and modern, to suggest that the Dome of the Rock was built as a destination for pilgrimage to rival the Kaaba, which was under the control of Ibn al-Zubayr.
Who was the son of Sarjun?
571aa3074faf5e1900b8ab7c
John of Damascus
224
False
Along with Rhodes, what Byzantine possession did Muawiyah occupy?
571aa3074faf5e1900b8ab7d
Crete
348
False
Who group of Christians rose up against Muawiyah?
571aa3074faf5e1900b8ab7e
Mardaites
516
False
What did Muawiyah found in North Africa?
571aa3074faf5e1900b8ab7f
Kairouan
646
False
Muawiyah
0
Who discouraged peaceful coexistence with the Christians in Syria?
5acf9ef077cf76001a68559c
True
Sarjun
202
Who was Muawiyah's least close adviser?
5acf9ef077cf76001a68559d
True
During his reign
319
When were Rhodes and Crete freed from occupation?
5acf9ef077cf76001a68559e
True
Muawiyah
570
Who oversaw a military withdrawal in North Africa?
5acf9ef077cf76001a68559f
True
Central Asia
663
Where did Muawiya shrink military expansion in?
5acf9ef077cf76001a6855a0
True
Muawiyah also encouraged peaceful coexistence with the Christian communities of Syria, granting his reign with "peace and prosperity for Christians and Arabs alike", and one of his closest advisers was Sarjun, the father of John of Damascus. At the same time, he waged unceasing war against the Byzantine Roman Empire. During his reign, Rhodes and Crete were occupied, and several assaults were launched against Constantinople. After their failure, and faced with a large-scale Christian uprising in the form of the Mardaites, Muawiyah concluded a peace with Byzantium. Muawiyah also oversaw military expansion in North Africa (the foundation of Kairouan) and in Central Asia (the conquest of Kabul, Bukhara, and Samarkand).
Who was the son of Yazid?
571aa35110f8ca1400305217
Muawiya II
148
False
When did Muawiya II's reign begin?
571aa35110f8ca1400305218
683
160
False
Who had the support of the Confederation of Qays?
571aa35110f8ca1400305219
Ibn al-Zubayr
338
False
From whom was Marwan descended?
571aa35110f8ca140030521a
Umayya via Wa'il ibn Umayyah
407
False
In what year did the battle of Marj Rahit occur?
571aa35110f8ca140030521b
684
516
False
Umayyad army
58
What army left Damascus?
5acfa43477cf76001a6856c0
True
Muawiya II
148
Who was recognized as caliph outside of Syria?
5acfa43477cf76001a6856c1
True
Umayya via Wa'il ibn Umayyah
407
Who was a descendant of Marwan?
5acfa43477cf76001a6856c2
True
684
516
What year did the partisans of Marwan lose a battle?
5acfa43477cf76001a6856c3
True
Damascus
503
What city did the partisans of Marwan lose a battle near?
5acfa43477cf76001a6856c4
True
Yazid died while the siege was still in progress, and the Umayyad army returned to Damascus, leaving Ibn al-Zubayr in control of Mecca. Yazid's son Muawiya II (683–84) initially succeeded him but seems to have never been recognized as caliph outside of Syria. Two factions developed within Syria: the Confederation of Qays, who supported Ibn al-Zubayr, and the Quda'a, who supported Marwan, a descendant of Umayya via Wa'il ibn Umayyah. The partisans of Marwan triumphed at a battle at Marj Rahit, near Damascus, in 684, and Marwan became caliph shortly thereafter.
Who was the father of Abd al-Malik?
571aa39d10f8ca1400305221
Marwan
0
False
When did Abd al-Malik's rule begin?
571aa39d10f8ca1400305222
685
47
False
Where was Al-Mukhtar based?
571aa39d10f8ca1400305223
Kufa
201
False
Who was the father of Muhammad ibn al-Hanafiyyah?
571aa39d10f8ca1400305224
Ali
278
False
In what year did Ibn al-Zubayr die?
571aa39d10f8ca1400305225
692
631
False
Marwan
0
Who succeeded Abd al-Malik?
5acfa72877cf76001a685734
True
685–705
47
What span of years did Marwan rule?
5acfa72877cf76001a685735
True
The troops of al-Mukhtar
378
Who was another son of Muhammad ibn al-Hanafiyyah?
5acfa72877cf76001a685736
True
687
526
When did the Umayyads defeat the troops of al-Mukhtar near Mosul?
5acfa72877cf76001a685737
True
Marwan was succeeded by his son, Abd al-Malik (685–705), who reconsolidated Umayyad control of the caliphate. The early reign of Abd al-Malik was marked by the revolt of Al-Mukhtar, which was based in Kufa. Al-Mukhtar hoped to elevate Muhammad ibn al-Hanafiyyah, another son of Ali, to the caliphate, although Ibn al-Hanafiyyah himself may have had no connection to the revolt. The troops of al-Mukhtar engaged in battles both with the Umayyads in 686, defeating them at the river Khazir near Mosul, and with Ibn al-Zubayr in 687, at which time the revolt of al-Mukhtar was crushed. In 691, Umayyad troops reconquered Iraq, and in 692 the same army captured Mecca. Ibn al-Zubayr was killed in the attack.
Who appointed the governors in the Umayyad empire?
571aa3cf10f8ca140030522b
khalifah
179
False
Where was the government of the Umayyads based?
571aa3cf10f8ca140030522c
Damascus
442
False
Along with army leaders, police and civil administration, what did the governor control in his province?
571aa3cf10f8ca140030522d
religious officials
223
False
empire
20
What was not divided into several pieces?
5acfb5d677cf76001a6859d6
True
changed numerous times
84
What did the borders of the empire do before the Umayyad reign?
5acfb5d677cf76001a6859d7
True
governor
153
Who appointed the khalifah?
5acfb5d677cf76001a6859d8
True
neglected to send the extra tax revenue
551
What did governors do with the extra tax revenue in the early years of the dynasty?
5acfb5d677cf76001a6859d9
True
the later years of the dynasty
504
When did the central power of the Umayyad rulers increase?
5acfb5d677cf76001a6859da
True
Geographically, the empire was divided into several provinces, the borders of which changed numerous times during the Umayyad reign. Each province had a governor appointed by the khalifah. The governor was in charge of the religious officials, army leaders, police, and civil administrators in his province. Local expenses were paid for by taxes coming from that province, with the remainder each year being sent to the central government in Damascus. As the central power of the Umayyad rulers waned in the later years of the dynasty, some governors neglected to send the extra tax revenue to Damascus and created great personal fortunes.
What was the main city of Tokharistan?
571aa41910f8ca1400305231
Balkh
123
False
What was the central part of Transoxiana called?
571aa41910f8ca1400305232
Samarkand
166
False
In what year did the Day of Thirst occur?
571aa41910f8ca1400305233
724
446
False
What notable battle occurred in 731?
571aa41910f8ca1400305234
Battle of the Defile
744
False
Who was the leader of the revolt of 734?
571aa41910f8ca1400305235
al-Harith ibn Surayj
785
False
Hisham
0
Who suffered worse defeats in the west?
5acfb26677cf76001a68592c
True
Tokharistan
91
What area was easy to govern?
5acfb26677cf76001a68592d
True
Day of Thirst
428
What was the Umayyad victory in 724 called?
5acfb26677cf76001a68592e
True
Ashras ibn 'Abd Allah al-Sulami
451
What governor stuck to his promise of tax relief to the Sogdians?
5acfb26677cf76001a68592f
True
al-Harith ibn Surayj
785
Who was able to capture Merv?
5acfb26677cf76001a685930
True
Hisham suffered still worse defeats in the east, where his armies attempted to subdue both Tokharistan, with its center at Balkh, and Transoxiana, with its center at Samarkand. Both areas had already been partially conquered, but remained difficult to govern. Once again, a particular difficulty concerned the question of the conversion of non-Arabs, especially the Sogdians of Transoxiana. Following the Umayyad defeat in the "Day of Thirst" in 724, Ashras ibn 'Abd Allah al-Sulami, governor of Khurasan, promised tax relief to those Sogdians who converted to Islam, but went back on his offer when it proved too popular and threatened to reduce tax revenues. Discontent among the Khurasani Arabs rose sharply after the losses suffered in the Battle of the Defile in 731, and in 734, al-Harith ibn Surayj led a revolt that received broad backing from Arabs and natives alike, capturing Balkh but failing to take Merv. After this defeat, al-Harith's movement seems to have been dissolved, but the problem of the rights of non-Arab Muslims would continue to plague the Umayyads.
What group were the Hashimiyya a sect of?
571aa46c10f8ca140030523b
Kaysanites Shia
43
False
Who led the Hashimiyya movement?
571aa46c10f8ca140030523c
Abbasid family
72
False
Of what clan were the Abbasids members of?
571aa46c10f8ca140030523d
Hashim
154
False
What year saw the death of Abu Hashim?
571aa46c10f8ca140030523e
717
368
False
Who was named successor by Abu Hashim?
571aa46c10f8ca140030523f
Muhammad ibn Ali
472
False
Kaysanites Shia
43
What was a sub-sect of the Hashimiyya movement?
5acfb3c477cf76001a685980
True
the Abbasid family
68
Who led the Kaysanites Shia?
5acfb3c477cf76001a685981
True
Muhammad ibn Ali
472
Who named Muhammad ibn al-Hanafiyya as his successor?
5acfb3c477cf76001a685982
True
This tradition
507
What failed to rally the supporters of the failed revolt?
5acfb3c477cf76001a685983
True
the supporters of the failed revolt of Mukhtar
552
Who represented themselves as the supporters of Ali?
5acfb3c477cf76001a685984
True
The Hashimiyya movement (a sub-sect of the Kaysanites Shia), led by the Abbasid family, overthrew the Umayyad caliphate. The Abbasids were members of the Hashim clan, rivals of the Umayyads, but the word "Hashimiyya" seems to refer specifically to Abu Hashim, a grandson of Ali and son of Muhammad ibn al-Hanafiyya. According to certain traditions, Abu Hashim died in 717 in Humeima in the house of Muhammad ibn Ali, the head of the Abbasid family, and before dying named Muhammad ibn Ali as his successor. This tradition allowed the Abbasids to rally the supporters of the failed revolt of Mukhtar, who had represented themselves as the supporters of Muhammad ibn al-Hanafiyya.
When did the Umayyads begin to occupy Iberia?
571aa4be4faf5e1900b8ab98
711
200
False
What was the final year that the Umayyads held Narbonne?
571aa4be4faf5e1900b8ab99
759
269
False
Who defeated the Arabs at the Battle of Tours?
571aa4be4faf5e1900b8ab9a
Franks
379
False
In what year did the Berber Revolt begin?
571aa4be4faf5e1900b8ab9b
739
420
False
What was Marwan II's name before he became caliph?
571aa4be4faf5e1900b8ab9c
Marwan ibn Muhammad
1112
False
a series of raids
50
What paved the way towards an occupation of the Umayyads by the Iberians?
5acfb19477cf76001a6858e2
True
711
200
When did the occupation of Iberia end?
5acfb19477cf76001a6858e3
True
732
412
What year did the caliphate's expansion in the west start?
5acfb19477cf76001a6858e4
True
Battle of Tours
393
At what battle did the Arabs defeat the Franks?
5acfb19477cf76001a6858e5
True
730
1107
When did the Arab army win a major victory at the Battle of Marj Ardabil?
5acfb19477cf76001a6858e6
True
From the caliphate's north-western African bases, a series of raids on coastal areas of the Visigothic Kingdom paved the way to the permanent occupation of most of Iberia by the Umayyads (starting in 711), and on into south-eastern Gaul (last stronghold at Narbonne in 759). Hisham's reign witnessed the end of expansion in the west, following the defeat of the Arab army by the Franks at the Battle of Tours in 732. In 739 a major Berber Revolt broke out in North Africa, which was subdued only with difficulty, but it was followed by the collapse of Umayyad authority in al-Andalus. In India the Arab armies were defeated by the south Indian Chalukya dynasty and by the north Indian Pratiharas Dynasty in the 8th century and the Arabs were driven out of India. In the Caucasus, the confrontation with the Khazars peaked under Hisham: the Arabs established Derbent as a major military base and launched several invasions of the northern Caucasus, but failed to subdue the nomadic Khazars. The conflict was arduous and bloody, and the Arab army even suffered a major defeat at the Battle of Marj Ardabil in 730. Marwan ibn Muhammad, the future Marwan II, finally ended the war in 737 with a massive invasion that is reported to have reached as far as the Volga, but the Khazars remained unsubdued.
Who was the father of Hisham?
571aa4fa4faf5e1900b8aba2
Abd al-Malik
17
False
When did Hisham's reign start?
571aa4fa4faf5e1900b8aba3
724
59
False
Where did Hisham base his court?
571aa4fa4faf5e1900b8aba4
Resafa
193
False
What notable defeat was suffered by the Arabs under Hisham?
571aa4fa4faf5e1900b8aba5
Battle of Akroinon
505
False
In what part of Syria was Resafa located?
571aa4fa4faf5e1900b8aba6
northern
203
False
Hisham
51
Who was the first son of Abd al-Malik to become caliph?
5acfb08277cf76001a68589a
True
724–43
59
What years did the first son of Abd al-Malik rule?
5acfb08277cf76001a68589b
True
Hisham
51
Whose reign was marked by the acceleration of military expansion?
5acfb08277cf76001a68589c
True
Hisham
51
Who stopped hostilities against the Byzantines?
5acfb08277cf76001a68589d
True
Abd al-Malik
17
Who was the final son of Hirsham?
5acfb08277cf76001a68589e
True
The final son of Abd al-Malik to become caliph was Hisham (724–43), whose long and eventful reign was above all marked by the curtailment of military expansion. Hisham established his court at Resafa in northern Syria, which was closer to the Byzantine border than Damascus, and resumed hostilities against the Byzantines, which had lapsed following the failure of the last siege of Constantinople. The new campaigns resulted in a number of successful raids into Anatolia, but also in a major defeat (the Battle of Akroinon), and did not lead to any significant territorial expansion.
What was the name of Muawiyah's wife?
571aa54410f8ca1400305245
Maysum
77
False
What tribe did Muawiyah's wife belong to?
571aa54410f8ca1400305246
Kalb
117
False
What was the religion of Muawiyah's wife's tribe?
571aa54410f8ca1400305247
Christian
155
False
What was the ethnicity of the Kalb tribe?
571aa54410f8ca1400305248
Arab
165
False
Where was the Kalb tribe based?
571aa54410f8ca1400305249
Syria
179
False
Muawiyah
60
Who was the chief of the Kalb tribe?
5acfba2d77cf76001a685ac2
True
Maysum
77
Who did the chief of the Kalb tribe marry?
5acfba2d77cf76001a685ac3
True
Muawiyah
23
Whose marriage was motivated by love?
5acfba2d77cf76001a685ac4
True
Muawiyah
403
Who used the Jacobite Christians against the Muslims?
5acfba2d77cf76001a685ac5
True
649
750
When did Muawiyah dissolve the navy?
5acfba2d77cf76001a685ac6
True
With limited resources Muawiyah went about creating allies. Muawiyah married Maysum the daughter of the chief of the Kalb tribe, that was a large Jacobite Christian Arab tribe in Syria. His marriage to Maysum was politically motivated. The Kalb tribe had remained largely neutral when the Muslims first went into Syria. After the plague that killed much of the Muslim Army in Syria, by marrying Maysum, Muawiyah started to use the Jacobite Christians, against the Romans. Muawiya's wife Maysum (Yazid's mother) was also a Jacobite Christian. With limited resources and the Byzantine just over the border, Muawiyah worked in cooperation with the local Christian population. To stop Byzantine harassment from the sea during the Arab-Byzantine Wars, in 649 Muawiyah set up a navy; manned by Monophysitise Christians, Copts and Jacobite Syrian Christians sailors and Muslim troops.
What Umayyad ruler is regarded as especially just and pious by Sunni scholars?
571aa5ad10f8ca140030524f
Umar ibn Abd al-Aziz
42
False
For whom did Umar end the jizya?
571aa5ad10f8ca1400305250
converts to Islam
241
False
In what year did Umar ibn Ad Al-Aziz die?
571aa5ad10f8ca1400305251
720
555
False
What was Umar ibn Ad al-Aziz's cause of death?
571aa5ad10f8ca1400305252
poisoned
534
False
What group did Umar ibn Ad Al-Aziz grant liberties to?
571aa5ad10f8ca1400305253
Mawali
202
False
Umar ibn Abd al-Aziz
42
What Umayyad ruler is hated by Sunni sources?
5acfc09f77cf76001a685ca6
True
720
555
When was Umar ibn Abd al-Aziz born?
5acfc09f77cf76001a685ca7
True
it created rebellion
641
What happened when later governments tried to continue Umar ibn Abd al-Aziz's tax policies?
5acfc09f77cf76001a685ca8
True
Sunni sources
90
What unanimously praised most of the Umayyad rulers?
5acfc09f77cf76001a685ca9
True
Umar ibn Abd al-Aziz
42
Who established the jizya tax?
5acfc09f77cf76001a685caa
True
Only Umayyad ruler (Caliphs of Damascus), Umar ibn Abd al-Aziz, is unanimously praised by Sunni sources for his devout piety and justice. In his efforts to spread Islam he established liberties for the Mawali by abolishing the jizya tax for converts to Islam. Imam Abu Muhammad Adbullah ibn Abdul Hakam stated that Umar ibn Abd al-Aziz also stopped the personal allowance offered to his relatives stating that he could only give them an allowance if he gave an allowance to everyone else in the empire. Umar ibn Abd al-Aziz was later poisoned in the year 720. When successive governments tried to reverse Umar ibn Abd al-Aziz's tax policies it created rebellion.
Who became leader of the Khurasan Hashimiyya in approximately 746?
571aa61910f8ca1400305263
Abu Muslim
12
False
What symbol did Abu Muslim use in his revolt against the Umayyads?
571aa61910f8ca1400305264
black flag
188
False
Who was the Umayyad governor of Khurasan who was defeated by Abu Muslim?
571aa61910f8ca1400305265
Nasr ibn Sayyar
273
False
When did the Hashimiyya conquer Kufa?
571aa61910f8ca1400305266
749
355
False
Where did Marwan die?
571aa61910f8ca1400305267
Egypt
795
False
Abu Muslim
12
Who carried out a revolt under the sign of the white flag?
5acfb4c977cf76001a6859a8
True
747
76
What year was control of Khurasan established?
5acfb4c977cf76001a6859a9
True
Wasit
397
What was the first Umayyad stronghold in Iraq?
5acfb4c977cf76001a6859aa
True
749
355
When was Marwan recognized as the new caliph in the mosque at Kufa?
5acfb4c977cf76001a6859ab
True
August
766
What month was Abu Muslim killed in Egypt?
5acfb4c977cf76001a6859ac
True
Around 746, Abu Muslim assumed leadership of the Hashimiyya in Khurasan. In 747, he successfully initiated an open revolt against Umayyad rule, which was carried out under the sign of the black flag. He soon established control of Khurasan, expelling its Umayyad governor, Nasr ibn Sayyar, and dispatched an army westwards. Kufa fell to the Hashimiyya in 749, the last Umayyad stronghold in Iraq, Wasit, was placed under siege, and in November of the same year Abu al-Abbas was recognized as the new caliph in the mosque at Kufa.[citation needed] At this point Marwan mobilized his troops from Harran and advanced toward Iraq. In January 750 the two forces met in the Battle of the Zab, and the Umayyads were defeated. Damascus fell to the Abbasids in April, and in August, Marwan was killed in Egypt.
In the later Abbasid era, what branch of Islam did Iran adhere to?
571aa66210f8ca140030526d
Sunni
86
False
What notable work of Islamic history was written in Iran during the later Abbasid period?
571aa66210f8ca140030526e
Al-Tabri
307
False
What group was notably disliked in Iran after the Persian Empire fell?
571aa66210f8ca140030526f
Arab
125
False
anti Umayyad
63
What are the books written early in the Abbasid period like?
5acfc16877cf76001a685ce0
True
after the fall of the Persian empire
146
When was there not much anti Arab feeling in Iran?
5acfc16877cf76001a685ce1
True
books on Islamic history
227
What did this anti Arab feeling fail to influence?
5acfc16877cf76001a685ce2
True
Al-Tabri
307
What was a small collection of texts?
5acfc16877cf76001a685ce3
True
Al-Tabri
307
What was a collection meant only for current generations?
5acfc16877cf76001a685ce4
True
The books written later in the Abbasid period in Iran are more anti Umayyad. Iran was Sunni at the time. There was much anti Arab feeling in Iran after the fall of the Persian empire. This anti Arab feeling also influenced the books on Islamic history. Al-Tabri was also written in Iran during that period. Al-Tabri was a huge collection including all the text that he could find, from all the sources. It was a collection preserving everything for future generations to codify and for future generations to judge if it was true or false.
What is the meaning of the term Kurdus in English?
571aa6ba10f8ca1400305273
cohort
669
False
What caliph reigned from 740 to 750?
571aa6ba10f8ca1400305274
Marwan II
600
False
What style of dress did Arab troops wear under Marwan II?
571aa6ba10f8ca1400305275
Greek
825
False
Along with artillery and infantry, what was the third division of Umayyad troops under Marwan II?
571aa6ba10f8ca1400305276
cavalry
764
False
What did the Umayyads call the mangonel?
571aa6ba10f8ca1400305277
manjaniq
929
False
the Umayyads
130
Who didn't change the Diwan of Umar?
5acfb7a577cf76001a685a2a
True
the Umayyads
396
What did the Byzantines pattern their army organization on?
5acfb7a577cf76001a685a2b
True
five
473
How many corps did the Byzantines have?
5acfb7a577cf76001a685a2c
True
Marwan II
600
Who reintroduced the old division?
5acfb7a577cf76001a685a2d
True
Arab
787
In what fashion were Greek troops armed?
5acfb7a577cf76001a685a2e
True
The Diwan of Umar, assigning annuities to all Arabs and to the Muslim soldiers of other races, underwent a change in the hands of the Umayyads. The Umayyads meddled with the register and the recipients regarded pensions as the subsistence allowance even without being in active service. Hisham reformed it and paid only to those who participated in battle. On the pattern of the Byzantine system the Umayyads reformed their army organization in general and divided it into five corps: the centre, two wings, vanguards and rearguards, following the same formation while on march or on a battle field. Marwan II (740–50) abandoned the old division and introduced Kurdus (cohort), a small compact body. The Umayyad troops were divided into three divisions: infantry, cavalry and artillery. Arab troops were dressed and armed in Greek fashion. The Umayyad cavalry used plain and round saddles. The artillery used arradah (ballista), manjaniq (the mangonel) and dabbabah or kabsh (the battering ram). The heavy engines, siege machines and baggage were carried on camels behind the army.
Who first brought a postal service into Umayyad lands?
571aa72d10f8ca140030527d
Mu'awiyah
0
False
Along what highway did Umar bin Abdul-Aziz build caravanserais?
571aa72d10f8ca140030527e
Khurasan
271
False
Along with horses and camels, what animals were used by the postal service?
571aa72d10f8ca140030527f
donkeys
517
False
In dirhams, what was the yearly cost of the Iraqi postal service when Yusuf bin Umar was governor?
571aa72d10f8ca1400305280
4,000,000
898
False
In kilometers, how far apart was each stage of the Umayyad highways?
571aa72d10f8ca1400305281
19
478
False
Mu'awiyah
0
Who ended the postal service?
5acfb6c277cf76001a685a04
True
Abd al-Malik
37
Who shrunk the reach of the postal service throughout his empire?
5acfb6c277cf76001a685a05
True
Umar bin Abdul-Aziz
184
Who stopped the use of horses in the postal service?
5acfb6c277cf76001a685a06
True
postal service
21
What service primarily met the needs of private citizens?
5acfb6c277cf76001a685a07
True
4,000,000 dirhams
898
What did the postal department of Iraq cost per year under Abd al-Malik?
5acfb6c277cf76001a685a08
True
Mu'awiyah introduced postal service, Abd al-Malik extended it throughout his empire, and Walid made full use of it. The Umayyad Caliph Abd al-Malik developed a regular postal service. Umar bin Abdul-Aziz developed it further by building caravanserais at stages along the Khurasan highway. Relays of horses were used for the conveyance of dispatches between the caliph and his agents and officials posted in the provinces. The main highways were divided into stages of 12 miles (19 km) each and each stage had horses, donkeys or camels ready to carry the post. Primarily the service met the needs of Government officials, but travellers and their important dispatches were also benefitted by the system. The postal carriages were also used for the swift transport of troops. They were able to carry fifty to a hundred men at a time. Under Governor Yusuf bin Umar, the postal department of Iraq cost 4,000,000 dirhams a year.
What nation lost the Battle of Yarmouk?
571aa7d54faf5e1900b8abc0
Byzantine
403
False
Who was the Byzantine leader at the Battle of Yarmouk?
571aa7d54faf5e1900b8abc1
Heraclius
421
False
Along with Syria, where did the Muslims extend their control after the Battle of Yarmouk?
571aa7d54faf5e1900b8abc2
Jerusalem
501
False
Who was the father of Yazid ibn Abi Sufyan?
571aa7d54faf5e1900b8abc3
Abu Sufyan ibn Harb
159
False
Along with Muawiyah, Abu Sufyan ibn Harb and Yazid ibn Abi Sufyan, what notable Muslim participated in the Battle of Yarmouk?
571aa7d54faf5e1900b8abc4
Hind bint Utbah
336
False
the Islamic Conquest of Syria Fatuhusham by al-Imam al-Waqidi
38
What is an example of a late history book?
5acfb96c77cf76001a685a94
True
commanders in the Muslim armies
235
What were Muawiyah's father and brothers appointed as before they converted to Islam?
5acfb96c77cf76001a685a95
True
Abu Sufyan ibn Harb
159
Who appointed Muhammad as a commander?
5acfb96c77cf76001a685a96
True
Yazid ibn Abi Sufyan
311
Who never fought at the battle of Yarmouk?
5acfb96c77cf76001a685a97
True
Battle of Yarmouk
438
What battle did the Byzantines win?
5acfb96c77cf76001a685a98
True
However many early history books like the Islamic Conquest of Syria Fatuhusham by al-Imam al-Waqidi state that after the conversion to Islam Muawiyah's father Abu Sufyan ibn Harb and his brothers Yazid ibn Abi Sufyan were appointed as commanders in the Muslim armies by Muhammad. Muawiyah, Abu Sufyan ibn Harb, Yazid ibn Abi Sufyan and Hind bint Utbah fought in the Battle of Yarmouk. The defeat of the Byzantine Emperor Heraclius at the Battle of Yarmouk opened the way for the Muslim expansion into Jerusalem and Syria.
What were non-Muslim groups under the Umayyads called?
571aa83110f8ca1400305291
dhimmis
122
False
Along with Berbers, Zoroastrians and Christians, what notable non-Muslim group existed in the Umayyad Caliphate?
571aa83110f8ca1400305292
Jews
71
False
Along with Jews, what non-Muslim religion produced notable theological works under the Umayyads?
571aa83110f8ca1400305293
Christians
540
False
dhimmis
122
What were Muslim groups in the Umayyad Caliphate called?
5acfb87077cf76001a685a5a
True
dhimmis
122
Who was given a legally protected status as first class citizens?
5acfb87077cf76001a685a5b
True
the highest public offices
438
What were Muslims banned from holding in the empire?
5acfb87077cf76001a685a5c
True
intellectuals converted
673
What led to a lack of great thinkers in Muslim communities?
5acfb87077cf76001a685a5d
True
the political supremacy of the ruling Muslims
241
What were non-Muslims not required to acknowledge?
5acfb87077cf76001a685a5e
True
Non-Muslim groups in the Umayyad Caliphate, which included Christians, Jews, Zoroastrians, and pagan Berbers, were called dhimmis. They were given a legally protected status as second-class citizens as long as they accepted and acknowledged the political supremacy of the ruling Muslims. They were allowed to have their own courts, and were given freedom of their religion within the empire.[citation needed] Although they could not hold the highest public offices in the empire, they had many bureaucratic positions within the government. Christians and Jews still continued to produce great theological thinkers within their communities, but as time wore on, many of the intellectuals converted to Islam, leading to a lack of great thinkers in the non-Muslim communities.
What is another name for people who recently converted to Islam?
571aa87e10f8ca1400305297
mawali
307
False
Who argued that the Umayyads regarded Islam as a particularly aristocratic faith?
571aa87e10f8ca1400305298
G.R. Hawting
414
False
What sorts of families did the Umayyads show favor to?
571aa87e10f8ca1400305299
old Arab
220
False
Umayyad
4
Which caliphate was not marked by territorial expansion?
5acfbb1177cf76001a685ae6
True
Umayyads
177
Who favored the rights of newly converted Muslims?
5acfbb1177cf76001a685ae7
True
old Arab families
220
Who did the mawali show favor to?
5acfbb1177cf76001a685ae8
True
Umayyads
177
Who had a more universalist conception of Islam than their rivals?
5acfbb1177cf76001a685ae9
True
The Umayyad caliphate was marked both by territorial expansion and by the administrative and cultural problems that such expansion created. Despite some notable exceptions, the Umayyads tended to favor the rights of the old Arab families, and in particular their own, over those of newly converted Muslims (mawali). Therefore, they held to a less universalist conception of Islam than did many of their rivals. As G.R. Hawting has written, "Islam was in fact regarded as the property of the conquering aristocracy."
What Christian saint was also an Umayyad administrator?
571aa92010f8ca140030529d
John of Damascus
121
False
What tax collectors did the Umayyads often leave in place after they conquered regions?
571aa92010f8ca140030529e
Roman
288
False
In addition to criticism received for employing non-Muslims, for what notable reason did some Muslims criticize the Umayyads?
571aa92010f8ca140030529f
not reducing the taxes of the people who converted to Islam
737
False
non-Muslim, former Roman administrators in their government
57
What did many Muslims praise the Umayyads for?
5acfbdb277cf76001a685bce
True
the Muslims
202
Who removed the people's political representatives as they took over?
5acfbdb277cf76001a685bcf
True
services it provided
482
What was the Central government not paid for?
5acfbdb277cf76001a685bd0
True
maintain their churches
625
What did many Muslim cities use some of their taxes for?
5acfbdb277cf76001a685bd1
True
Umayyads
692
Who reduced the taxes of the people who converted to Islam?
5acfbdb277cf76001a685bd2
True
Many Muslims criticized the Umayyads for having too many non-Muslim, former Roman administrators in their government. St John of Damascus was also a high administrator in the Umayyad administration. As the Muslims took over cities, they left the peoples political representatives and the Roman tax collectors and the administrators. The taxes to the central government were calculated and negotiated by the peoples political representatives. The Central government got paid for the services it provided and the local government got the money for the services it provided. Many Christian cities also used some of the taxes on maintain their churches and run their own organizations. Later the Umayyads were criticized by some Muslims for not reducing the taxes of the people who converted to Islam. These new converts continues to pay the same taxes that were previously negotiated.
What Arabic term did the Umayyad caliphs use to refer to themselves?
571aa99d4faf5e1900b8abd4
khalifat Allah
413
False
Where was the Abbasid court based?
571aa99d4faf5e1900b8abd5
Baghdad
1079
False
What is the Arabic term for kingship?
571aa99d4faf5e1900b8abd6
mulk
134
False
What was the tradition Arabic title used by caliphs?
571aa99d4faf5e1900b8abd7
khalifat rasul Allah
301
False
What does khalifat Allah translate to in English?
571aa99d4faf5e1900b8abd8
deputy of God
430
False
Umayyads
4
Who has a positive reception from later Islamic historians?
5acfbce377cf76001a685b84
True
mulk
134
What is a term for kingship that has connotations of freedom?
5acfbce377cf76001a685b85
True
later Islamic historians
61
Who calls the Umayyads a true caliphate?
5acfbce377cf76001a685b86
True
Umayyads
490
Who saw a need to share religious power with the religious scholars?
5acfbce377cf76001a685b87
True
Tabari and Baladhuri
1015
What histories were written outside the Abbasid court?
5acfbce377cf76001a685b88
True
The Umayyads have met with a largely negative reception from later Islamic historians, who have accused them of promoting a kingship (mulk, a term with connotations of tyranny) instead of a true caliphate (khilafa). In this respect it is notable that the Umayyad caliphs referred to themselves not as khalifat rasul Allah ("successor of the messenger of God", the title preferred by the tradition), but rather as khalifat Allah ("deputy of God"). The distinction seems to indicate that the Umayyads "regarded themselves as God's representatives at the head of the community and saw no need to share their religious power with, or delegate it to, the emergent class of religious scholars." In fact, it was precisely this class of scholars, based largely in Iraq, that was responsible for collecting and recording the traditions that form the primary source material for the history of the Umayyad period. In reconstructing this history, therefore, it is necessary to rely mainly on sources, such as the histories of Tabari and Baladhuri, that were written in the Abbasid court at Baghdad.
Asphalt
What is another term for asphalt?
571b012e32177014007ea00c
bitumen
8
False
Besides occurrences in Canada, where in the US is asphalt found?
571b012e32177014007ea00d
Utah
129
False
How much of the planet's asphalt is located in Canada?
571b012e32177014007ea00e
most
176
False
What is the area amount of the Canadian asphalt deposits?
571b012e32177014007ea00f
142,000 square kilometres
257
False
Where does most of Canada's asphalt end up these days?
571b012e32177014007ea010
oil refineries
742
False
Alberta, Canada
81
Along with the state of Iowa, where else does asphalt occur in unconsolidated sandstones?
5ace3b1932bba1001ae49f9d
True
Alberta
164
Comprised of four large deposits, in which province are most of the world's natural bitumen reserves located?
5ace3b1932bba1001ae49f9e
True
oil refineries
742
Where does most of the Canadian oil supply end up?
5ace3b1932bba1001ae49f9f
True
142,000 square kilometres
257
What is the total area of the Cambodian asphalt deposits?
5ace3b1932bba1001ae49fa0
True
Asphalt/bitumen also occurs in unconsolidated sandstones known as "oil sands" in Alberta, Canada, and the similar "tar sands" in Utah, US. The Canadian province of Alberta has most of the world's reserves of natural bitumen, in three huge deposits covering 142,000 square kilometres (55,000 sq mi), an area larger than England or New York state. These bituminous sands contain 166 billion barrels (26.4×10^9 m3) of commercially established oil reserves, giving Canada the third largest oil reserves in the world. and produce over 2.3 million barrels per day (370×10^3 m3/d) of heavy crude oil and synthetic crude oil. Although historically it was used without refining to pave roads, nearly all of the bitumen is now used as raw material for oil refineries in Canada and the United States.
What group initially made use of asphalt?
571b037d9499d21900609bcd
indigenous peoples
57
False
For what purpose did American Indians use asphalt?
571b037d9499d21900609bce
adhesive
315
False
What sort of deposits does asphalt overlay?
571b037d9499d21900609bcf
petroleum
260
False
What would early users of asphalt want to achieve by putting it on baskets?
571b037d9499d21900609bd0
watertight
643
False
On what type of boat was asphalt used to seal planks?
571b037d9499d21900609bd1
canoes
732
False
asphalt/bitumen
17
The foreign people were the first to use what in the New World?
5ace5e3b32bba1001ae4a42b
True
indigenous peoples
57
What group was the first to use shell beads?
5ace5e3b32bba1001ae4a42c
True
asphalt/bitumen
200
What was used on shell beads to adhere gourds?
5ace5e3b32bba1001ae4a42d
True
Small round shell beads
518
What was used on turtle shells to provide decorations?
5ace5e3b32bba1001ae4a42e
True
asphalt/bitumen
200
What was used on turtle shells as a sealant?
5ace5e3b32bba1001ae4a42f
True
The first use of asphalt/bitumen in the New World was by indigenous peoples. On the west coast, as early as the 13th century, the Tongva, Luiseño and Chumash peoples collected the naturally occurring asphalt/bitumen that seeped to the surface above underlying petroleum deposits. All three used the substance as an adhesive. It is found on many different artifacts of tools and ceremonial items. For example, it was used on rattles to adhere gourds or turtle shells to rattle handles. It was also used in decorations. Small round shell beads were often set in asphaltum to provide decorations. It was used as a sealant on baskets to make them watertight for carrying water. Asphaltum was used also to seal the planks on ocean-going canoes.
What is used asphalt turned back into?
571b058d9499d21900609bd7
new pavement mixtures
176
False
How much of yearly acquired asphalt is reclaimed?
571b058d9499d21900609bd8
99%
599
False
What percentage of new roadways are surfaced with asphalt?
571b058d9499d21900609bd9
95%
315
False
During what action is asphalt often reclaimed?
571b058d9499d21900609bda
maintenance
5
False
For what reason is asphalt removed from a road?
571b058d9499d21900609bdb
worn or damaged
80
False
a facility
145
Where can the removed surveys be returned for processing into new mixtures?
5ace62f532bba1001ae4a517
True
new pavement mixes
285
Where is the deactivated asphalt put back to use?
5ace62f532bba1001ae4a518
True
paved roads
322
99% percent of what are constructed by using asphalt?
5ace62f532bba1001ae4a519
True
annually
495
How often does the Federal Asphalt Administration conduct surveys?
5ace62f532bba1001ae4a51a
True
widening and resurfacing
662
99% of asphalt that is removed from road surfaces during what type of projects is reused for conducting industry surveys?
5ace62f532bba1001ae4a51b
True
When maintenance is performed on asphalt pavements, such as milling to remove a worn or damaged surface, the removed material can be returned to a facility for processing into new pavement mixtures. The asphalt/bitumen in the removed material can be reactivated and put back to use in new pavement mixes. With some 95% of paved roads being constructed of or surfaced with asphalt, a substantial amount of asphalt pavement material is reclaimed each year. According to industry surveys conducted annually by the Federal Highway Administration and the National Asphalt Pavement Association, more than 99% of the asphalt removed each year from road surfaces during widening and resurfacing projects is reused as part of new pavements, roadbeds, shoulders and embankments.
How many asphalt upgraders operate in Alberta?
571b074c9499d21900609be1
five
12
False
What synthetic product is produced by upgraders?
571b074c9499d21900609be2
crude oil
53
False
Besides crude oil, what does the Suncor Energy plant produce?
571b074c9499d21900609be3
diesel fuel
185
False
Where is a sixth upgrader being built in Alberta?
571b074c9499d21900609be4
Redwater, Alberta
506
False
How much of the production of the Redwater plant will into diesel fuel?
571b074c9499d21900609be5
half
538
False
five
12
How many bitumen upgraders produce synthetic crude oil in Edmonton?
5ace6ecd32bba1001ae4a699
True
2015
496
When is the seventh upgrader scheduled to be under construction?
5ace6ecd32bba1001ae4a69a
True
crude bitumen directly to diesel fuel
550
The sixth upgrader will upgrade two thirds of what?
5ace6ecd32bba1001ae4a69b
True
feedstock
636
The remainder of the output will be sold to Suncor Energy as what?
5ace6ecd32bba1001ae4a69c
True
near Fort McMurray
123
Where is the Shell Oil upgrader located?
5ace6ecd32bba1001ae4a69d
True
In Alberta, five bitumen upgraders produce synthetic crude oil and a variety of other products: The Suncor Energy upgrader near Fort McMurray, Alberta produces synthetic crude oil plus diesel fuel; the Syncrude Canada, Canadian Natural Resources, and Nexen upgraders near Fort McMurray produce synthetic crude oil; and the Shell Scotford Upgrader near Edmonton produces synthetic crude oil plus an intermediate feedstock for the nearby Shell Oil Refinery. A sixth upgrader, under construction in 2015 near Redwater, Alberta, will upgrade half of its crude bitumen directly to diesel fuel, with the remainder of the output being sold as feedstock to nearby oil refineries and petrochemical plants.
About what temperature is asphalt shipped?
571b08d99499d21900609beb
150 °C
75
False
To promote what characteristic is diesel oil added to asphalt for shipping?
571b08d99499d21900609bec
liquidity
164
False
What is the liquefied mixture called?
571b08d99499d21900609bed
bitumen feedstock
278
False
What truck feature is occasionally used to keep asphalt warm?
571b08d99499d21900609bee
engine exhaust
337
False
Due to what concerns is diesel fuel no longer used as a release agent for transporting asphalt?
571b08d99499d21900609bef
environmental
628
False
diesel oil or kerosene
102
To retain liquidity, what is sometimes mixed in with engine exhaust?
5ace78f932bba1001ae4a773
True
Asphalt/bitumen
0
Diesel oil or kerosene is often mixed into what to retain warmth?
5ace78f932bba1001ae4a774
True
environmental
628
Due to what kind of concerns is diesel oil now used as a release agent?
5ace78f932bba1001ae4a775
True
release agent
607
Environmental concerns are the reason engine exhaust is no longer used as what?
5ace78f932bba1001ae4a776
True
Asphalt/bitumen is typically stored and transported at temperatures around 150 °C (302 °F). Sometimes diesel oil or kerosene are mixed in before shipping to retain liquidity; upon delivery, these lighter materials are separated out of the mixture. This mixture is often called "bitumen feedstock", or BFS. Some dump trucks route the hot engine exhaust through pipes in the dump body to keep the material warm. The backs of tippers carrying asphalt/bitumen, as well as some handling equipment, are also commonly sprayed with a releasing agent before filling to aid release. Diesel oil is no longer used as a release agent due to environmental concerns.
What ancient group used bitumen extraction?
571b0a5532177014007ea016
Romans
96
False
When were the first published reports of bitumen extraction in Albania?
571b0a5532177014007ea017
1868
188
False
What government had exploitation rights for bitumen extraction?
571b0a5532177014007ea018
Ottoman
354
False
When were the Ottoman rights given to the Simsa company?
571b0a5532177014007ea019
1912
380
False
When was management of Albanian bitumen acquired by the French?
571b0a5532177014007ea01a
2001
509
False
1868
188
The last known mentions of Albanian bitumen appeared in what year?
5ace7b5932bba1001ae4a7b5
True
deposits of Albanian bitumen
271
The Albanian Coquand published the first description of what?
5ace7b5932bba1001ae4a7b6
True
1875
304
When were the exploitation rights given to the Roman Empire?
5ace7b5932bba1001ae4a7b7
True
1912
380
When did Simsa receive the industrial scale?
5ace7b5932bba1001ae4a7b8
True
exploitation rights
314
What was transferred to Simsa in 1917?
5ace7b5932bba1001ae4a7b9
True
The Albanian bitumen extraction has a long history and was practiced in an organized way by the Romans. After centuries of silence, the first mentions of Albanian bitumen appeared only in 1868, when the Frenchman Coquand published the first geological description of the deposits of Albanian bitumen. In 1875, the exploitation rights were granted to the Ottoman government and in 1912, they were transferred to the Italian company Simsa. Since 1945, the mine was exploited by the Albanian government and from 2001 to date, the management passed to a French company, which organized the mining process for the manufacture of the natural bitumen on an industrial scale.
What is the last origination of the word asphalt?
571b0c1032177014007ea020
late Middle English
37
False
From what language does asphalt initially come?
571b0c1032177014007ea021
Greek
163
False
What are the meanings of the Greek word for asphalt?
571b0c1032177014007ea022
asphalt/bitumen/pitch
218
False
What is the French term for natural asphalt?
571b0c1032177014007ea023
asphalte
347
False
To construct what feature was asphalt brought to Babylon?
571b0c1032177014007ea024
wall
897
False
late Middle English
37
From where is the word limestone derived?
5ace820332bba1001ae4a8c3
True
naturally occurring bitumen-soaked limestone deposits
368
In Greek, what is the term asphalte used for?
5ace820332bba1001ae4a8c4
True
Herodotus
805
According to who was bitumen brought to Greece to build a giant wall?
5ace820332bba1001ae4a8c5
True
French
330
In what language is asphalte used for synthetically occurring bitumen soaked limestones?
5ace820332bba1001ae4a8c6
True
The word asphalt is derived from the late Middle English, in turn from French asphalte, based on Late Latin asphalton, asphaltum, which is the latinisation of the Greek ἄσφαλτος (ásphaltos, ásphalton), a word meaning "asphalt/bitumen/pitch", which perhaps derives from ἀ-, "without" and σφάλλω (sfallō), "make fall". Note that in French, the term asphalte is used for naturally occurring bitumen-soaked limestone deposits, and for specialised manufactured products with fewer voids or greater bitumen content than the "asphaltic concrete" used to pave roads. It is a significant fact that the first use of asphalt by the ancients was in the nature of a cement for securing or joining together various objects, and it thus seems likely that the name itself was expressive of this application. Specifically Herodotus mentioned that bitumen was brought to Babylon to build its gigantic fortification wall. From the Greek, the word passed into late Latin, and thence into French (asphalte) and English ("asphaltum" and "asphalt").
How are the words bitumen and asphalt frequently used?
571b16ff32177014007ea02a
interchangeably
45
False
Where is bitumen the usual term for refined residue from crude oils?
571b16ff32177014007ea02b
United States
271
False
What is asphalt called outside of the US?
571b16ff32177014007ea02c
bitumen
314
False
What group likes the term bitumen instead of asphalt?
571b16ff32177014007ea02d
Geologists
323
False
What is a naming term for asphalt?
571b16ff32177014007ea02e
tar
431
False
Geologists
323
The term asphalt is often preferred by who?
5ace2eff32bba1001ae49d11
True
asphalt/bitumen
495
Tar is an archaic term for what?
5ace2eff32bba1001ae49d12
True
bitumen
22
Pitch and what other term are often used interchangeably?
5ace2eff32bba1001ae49d13
True
asphalt
144
Another way to say asphalt tar is to simply say what ?
5ace2eff32bba1001ae49d14
True
bitumen
314
What is the substance usually called outside of the La Brea Tar Pits?
5ace2eff32bba1001ae49d15
True
The terms asphalt and bitumen are often used interchangeably to mean both natural and manufactured forms of the substance. In American English, asphalt (or asphalt cement) is the carefully refined residue from the distillation process of selected crude oils. Outside the United States, the product is often called bitumen. Geologists often prefer the term bitumen. Common usage often refers to various forms of asphalt/bitumen as "tar", such as at the La Brea Tar Pits. Another archaic term for asphalt/bitumen is "pitch".
From where does most asphalt come?
571b188b9499d21900609bf5
petroleum
65
False
What are the sources of natural deposits of asphalt?
571b188b9499d21900609bf6
once-living things
278
False
How much heat is required for the natural production of asphalt?
571b188b9499d21900609bf7
above 50 °C
416
False
Besides heat, what other requirement is needed to form asphalt?
571b188b9499d21900609bf8
pressure
433
False
What other product of heat and pressure does the formation of asphalt and petroleum  produce?
571b188b9499d21900609bf9
kerogen
540
False
asphalt
22
Most of the petroleum used for commercial purposes is obtained from what?
5ace3a4132bba1001ae49f5b
True
Naturally occurring deposits
152
Current living things are the source of what?
5ace3a4132bba1001ae49f5c
True
kerogen
540
What product of heat and pressure does the formation of asphalt and microscopic algae produce?
5ace3a4132bba1001ae49f5d
True
heat
410
Besides pressure, what is required to form mud?
5ace3a4132bba1001ae49f5e
True
pressure
433
Besides heat, what is required to form Besides pressure, what is required to form mud??
5ace3a4132bba1001ae49f5f
True
The great majority of asphalt used commercially is obtained from petroleum. Nonetheless, large amounts of asphalt occur in concentrated form in nature. Naturally occurring deposits of asphalt/bitumen are formed from the remains of ancient, microscopic algae (diatoms) and other once-living things. These remains were deposited in the mud on the bottom of the ocean or lake where the organisms lived. Under the heat (above 50 °C) and pressure of burial deep in the earth, the remains were transformed into materials such as asphalt/bitumen, kerogen, or petroleum.
What is the name of the world's greatest deposit of bitumen?
571b19ad9499d21900609bff
Athabasca oil sands
61
False
Where are the Athabasca oil sands located?
571b19ad9499d21900609c00
Northern Alberta
121
False
What formative period  produced bitumen?
571b19ad9499d21900609c01
early Cretaceous
166
False
How old are the Athabasca deposits?
571b19ad9499d21900609c02
110 million years
315
False
What percentage of recovery of bitumen is by oil wells?
571b19ad9499d21900609c03
80%
649
False
Athabasca oil sands
61
Located in the McMurray Formation, what is the smallest deposit of natural bitumen known as?
5ace540432bba1001ae4a2c3
True
Athabasca oil sands
61
Located in the Peace River, what is the largest deposit of natural bitumen known as?
5ace540432bba1001ae4a2c4
True
Peace River
395
The two largest formations occur in the oil sands of which river?
5ace540432bba1001ae4a2c5
True
Cold Lake
425
The two largest formations occur in the oil sands of which lake?
5ace540432bba1001ae4a2c6
True
oil wells
675
What is the other 70% produced by?
5ace540432bba1001ae4a2c7
True
The world's largest deposit of natural bitumen, known as the Athabasca oil sands is located in the McMurray Formation of Northern Alberta. This formation is from the early Cretaceous, and is composed of numerous lenses of oil-bearing sand with up to 20% oil. Isotopic studies attribute the oil deposits to be about 110 million years old. Two smaller but still very large formations occur in the Peace River oil sands and the Cold Lake oil sands, to the west and southeast of the Athabasca oil sands, respectively. Of the Alberta bitumen deposits, only parts of the Athabasca oil sands are shallow enough to be suitable for surface mining. The other 80% has to be produced by oil wells using enhanced oil recovery techniques like steam-assisted gravity drainage.
In what early technology was bitumen used?
571b1b449499d21900609c09
photographic
26
False
What photographer used bitumen to make the earliest extant nature picture?
571b1b449499d21900609c0a
Joseph Nicéphore Niépce
100
False
What feature of bitumen use in photography made it impractical?
571b1b449499d21900609c0b
hours of exposure
436
False
During what period was bitumen used in printing processes?
571b1b449499d21900609c0c
1850s to the 1920s
549
False
Exposure to what natural element was necessary for early photographic plates?
571b1b449499d21900609c0d
light
275
False
Bitumen
0
What was used in early photomechanical technology?
5ace586232bba1001ae4a349
True
Bitumen
0
What did spanish scientist Joseph Nicéphore Niépce use to make the oldest surviving photograph?
5ace586232bba1001ae4a34a
True
hardened
281
Exposure to darkness did what to the bitumen and also made it insoluble?
5ace586232bba1001ae4a34b
True
bitumen
294
What did exposure to light harden and make soluble?
5ace586232bba1001ae4a34c
True
1826 or 1827
54
When did the Spanish scientist use bitumen to make a photograph from nature?
5ace586232bba1001ae4a34d
True
Bitumen was used in early photographic technology. In 1826 or 1827, it was used by French scientist Joseph Nicéphore Niépce to make the oldest surviving photograph from nature. The bitumen was thinly coated onto a pewter plate which was then exposed in a camera. Exposure to light hardened the bitumen and made it insoluble, so that when it was subsequently rinsed with a solvent only the sufficiently light-struck areas remained. Many hours of exposure in the camera were required, making bitumen impractical for ordinary photography, but from the 1850s to the 1920s it was in common use as a photoresist in the production of printing plates for various photomechanical printing processes.[not in citation given]
When was the first British patent for the use of bitumen?
571b1d449499d21900609c13
1834
102
False
When did Richard Tappin Claridge patent asphalt for use in pavement?
571b1d449499d21900609c14
25 November 1837
116
False
Where had Claridge previously seen asphalt used as pavement?
571b1d449499d21900609c15
France and Belgium
267
False
What type of pavement techniques had already been tried by a competitor of Claridge?
571b1d449499d21900609c16
mastic
560
False
What friend of Claridge's was helpful in introducing asphalt for use in pavements?
571b1d449499d21900609c17
Samuel Ryland Phipson
435
False
1834
102
In what year was Cassell's patent France or Belgium issued?
5ace5ac532bba1001ae4a397
True
1834
102
The second patent, Cassell's patent, was issued in which year?
5ace5ac532bba1001ae4a398
True
25 November 1837
116
On what day did Claridge's patent #5309 patent the use of Seyssel asphalt?
5ace5ac532bba1001ae4a399
True
Seyssel asphalt
178
In 1845 Richard Tappin Claridge patented the use of what?
5ace5ac532bba1001ae4a39a
True
1834
102
When was the second British patent for using bitumen issued?
5ace5ac532bba1001ae4a39b
True
The first British patent for the use of asphalt/bitumen was 'Cassell's patent asphalte or bitumen' in 1834. Then on 25 November 1837, Richard Tappin Claridge patented the use of Seyssel asphalt (patent #7849), for use in asphalte pavement, having seen it employed in France and Belgium when visiting with Frederick Walter Simms, who worked with him on the introduction of asphalt to Britain. Dr T. Lamb Phipson writes that his father, Samuel Ryland Phipson, a friend of Claridge, was also "instrumental in introducing the asphalte pavement (in 1836)". Indeed, mastic pavements had been previously employed at Vauxhall by a competitor of Claridge, but without success.
Since what date has asphalt been used for road paving in the US?
571b1eef9499d21900609c1d
1870
91
False
In front of what NJ building was the street paved with asphalt in 1870?
571b1eef9499d21900609c1e
City Hall
138
False
What natural substance was used in early road pavings?
571b1eef9499d21900609c1f
bituminous rock
230
False
From what Virginia  mines was asphalt obtained for early street pavings?
571b1eef9499d21900609c20
Ritchie Mines
259
False
For what purpose was asphalt used in swimming pools and baths?
571b1eef9499d21900609c21
waterproofing
535
False
materials that include asphalt/bitumen
37
Ever since 1773, roads in the United States have been paved with what?
5ace5f6532bba1001ae4a449
True
Roads in the US
0
What have been paved with asphalt since at least 1920?
5ace5f6532bba1001ae4a44a
True
baths and swimming pools
552
What was Ritchie Mines used to waterproof during the 20th century?
5ace5f6532bba1001ae4a44b
True
1876
341
When was New York's, Pennsylvania Avenue paved?
5ace5f6532bba1001ae4a44c
True
flooring, paving and waterproofing
514
What was NJ City Hall used for during the early 20th century?
5ace5f6532bba1001ae4a44d
True
Roads in the US have been paved with materials that include asphalt/bitumen since at least 1870, when a street in front of the Newark, NJ City Hall was paved. In many cases, these early pavings were made from naturally occurring "bituminous rock", such as at Ritchie Mines in Macfarlan in Ritchie County, West Virginia from 1852 to 1873. In 1876, asphalt-based paving was used to pave Pennsylvania Avenue in Washington, DC, in time for the celebration of the national centennial. Asphalt/bitumen was also used for flooring, paving and waterproofing of baths and swimming pools during the early 20th century, following similar trends in Europe.
In what year was asphalt used for uses aside from road paving?
571b212d9499d21900609c27
1838
3
False
In what places were asphalt used as waterproofing?
571b212d9499d21900609c28
pools and baths
234
False
For what reason was asphalt used in the flooring of buildings?
571b212d9499d21900609c29
damp proofing
164
False
When was Claridge's asphalt the most often used?
571b212d9499d21900609c2a
1840s and 50s
649
False
Many of what were granted in France, but denied in Britain?
571b212d9499d21900609c2b
patents
456
False
1838
3
In what year was asphalt used for things other than bathing?
5ace5c1f32bba1001ae4a3db
True
pools and baths
234
In what places were asphalt used as soundproofing?
5ace5c1f32bba1001ae4a3dc
True
damp proofing
164
Why was asphalt used in the flooring of patents?
5ace5c1f32bba1001ae4a3dd
True
patents
456
What were often granted in Britain, but denied in France?
5ace5c1f32bba1001ae4a3de
True
patent applications
512
What were often denied throughout France, Germany and England?
5ace5c1f32bba1001ae4a3df
True
In 1838, there was a flurry of entrepreneurial activity involving asphalt/bitumen, which had uses beyond paving. For example, asphalt could also used for flooring, damp proofing in buildings, and for waterproofing of various types of pools and baths, with these latter themselves proliferating in the 19th century. On the London stockmarket, there were various claims as to the exclusivity of asphalt quality from France, Germany and England. And numerous patents were granted in France, with similar numbers of patent applications being denied in England due to their similarity to each other. In England, "Claridge's was the type most used in the 1840s and 50s"
Who experimented with bitumen extraction techniques to make shipping easier?
571b3a0d32177014007ea034
Sidney Ells
295
False
When did Ells begin using bitumen as a paving in Alberta?
571b3a0d32177014007ea035
1915
289
False
What researcher patented a hot water oil process to separate bitumen?
571b3a0d32177014007ea036
Dr. Karl A. Clark
545
False
Who constructed the Bitumont oil separation plant?
571b3a0d32177014007ea037
Robert C. Fitzsimmons
656
False
For what was most of the the Bitumont plant's output was used for waterproofing?
571b3a0d32177014007ea038
roofs
875
False
the start
42
From when was the value of Dr. Clark's method obvious?
5ace60db32bba1001ae4a49b
True
bitumen
85
The means of implanting what were not obvious?
5ace60db32bba1001ae4a49c
True
Fort McMurray, Alberta
121
The largest fur trading post was in what town?
5ace60db32bba1001ae4a49d
True
1915
289
In what year did Karl Clark use bitumen to pave 600 feet of road in Edmonton?
5ace60db32bba1001ae4a49e
True
1915
289
In what year did Sidney Ells use bitumen to pave 900 feet of road in Edmonton?
5ace60db32bba1001ae4a49f
True
The value of the deposit was obvious from the start, but the means of extracting the bitumen were not. The nearest town, Fort McMurray, Alberta was a small fur trading post, other markets were far away, and transportation costs were too high to ship the raw bituminous sand for paving. In 1915, Sidney Ells of the Federal Mines Branch experimented with separation techniques and used the bitumen to pave 600 feet of road in Edmonton, Alberta. Other roads in Alberta were paved with oil sands, but it was generally not economic. During the 1920s Dr. Karl A. Clark of the Alberta Research Council patented a hot water oil separation process and entrepreneur Robert C. Fitzsimmons built the Bitumount oil separation plant, which between 1925 and 1958 produced up to 300 barrels (50 m3) per day of bitumen using Dr. Clark's method. Most of the bitumen was used for waterproofing roofs, but other uses included fuels, lubrication oils, printers ink, medicines, rust and acid-proof paints, fireproof roofing, street paving, patent leather, and fence post preservatives. Eventually Fitzsimmons ran out of money and the plant was taken over by the Alberta government. Today the Bitumount plant is a Provincial Historic Site.
What property of bitumen makes it difficult to move through pipelines?
571b3b8132177014007ea03e
extremely viscous
173
False
What industry is capable of refining bitumen directly into gasoline without preprocessing?
571b3b8132177014007ea03f
modern oil refineries
243
False
Why do refineries like to buy bitumen instead of synthetic oil?
571b3b8132177014007ea040
cost is lower
807
False
How much Canadian bitumen was exported to the US by 2015?
571b3b8132177014007ea041
65%
1074
False
Venezuelan extra-heavy and Mexican heavy oil
65
What type of oils does Canadian bitumen differ substantially from?
5ace71e632bba1001ae4a6e9
True
Venezuelan extra-heavy
65
Other than Mexican extra-heavy oil, what type of oil does Canadian bitumen not differ greatly from?
5ace71e632bba1001ae4a6ea
True
Mexican heavy
92
Other than Venezuelan-light oil, what type of oil does Canadian bitumen not differ greatly from?
5ace71e632bba1001ae4a6eb
True
Venezuelan extra-heavy and Mexican heavy
65
What type of oils does American bitumen not differ substantially from?
5ace71e632bba1001ae4a6ec
True
US Gulf coast
480
In what areas is this uncommon?
5ace71e632bba1001ae4a6ed
True
Canadian bitumen does not differ substantially from oils such as Venezuelan extra-heavy and Mexican heavy oil in chemical composition, and the real difficulty is moving the extremely viscous bitumen through oil pipelines to the refinery. Many modern oil refineries are extremely sophisticated and can process non-upgraded bitumen directly into products such as gasoline, diesel fuel, and refined asphalt without any preprocessing. This is particularly common in areas such as the US Gulf coast, where refineries were designed to process Venezuelan and Mexican oil, and in areas such as the US Midwest where refineries were rebuilt to process heavy oil as domestic light oil production declined. Given the choice, such heavy oil refineries usually prefer to buy bitumen rather than synthetic oil because the cost is lower, and in some cases because they prefer to produce more diesel fuel and less gasoline. By 2015 Canadian production and exports of non-upgraded bitumen exceeded that of synthetic crude oil at over 1.3 million barrels (210×10^3 m3) per day, of which about 65% was exported to the United States.
What does mixing bitumen with water create?
571b3d469499d21900609c31
emulsion
238
False
What percentage of bitumen is found in bitumen/water emulsions?
571b3d469499d21900609c32
70%
280
False
What are the two types of bitumen emulsions?
571b3d469499d21900609c33
cationic and anionic
427
False
What are some bitumen emulsions blended with to make a low-cost product?
571b3d469499d21900609c34
recycled
949
False
What kind of asphalt pavements an cold-mix asphalt resemble?
571b3d469499d21900609c35
hot-mixed
862
False
A number of technologies
0
What allows asphalt to be mixed at higher temperatures?
5ace6ccf32bba1001ae4a669
True
asphalt/bitumen
284
Up to 80% of asphalt emulsions is what?
5ace6ccf32bba1001ae4a66a
True
chemical additives
329
Less than 5% of asphalt emulsions is comprised of what?
5ace6ccf32bba1001ae4a66b
True
two
359
How many types of chipseals with different affinities are there?
5ace6ccf32bba1001ae4a66c
True
A number of technologies allow asphalt/bitumen to be mixed at much lower temperatures. These involve mixing with petroleum solvents to form "cutbacks" with reduced melting point, or mixtures with water to turn the asphalt/bitumen into an emulsion. Asphalt emulsions contain up to 70% asphalt/bitumen and typically less than 1.5% chemical additives. There are two main types of emulsions with different affinity for aggregates, cationic and anionic. Asphalt emulsions are used in a wide variety of applications. Chipseal involves spraying the road surface with asphalt emulsion followed by a layer of crushed rock, gravel or crushed slag. Slurry seal involves the creation of a mixture of asphalt emulsion and fine crushed aggregate that is spread on the surface of a road. Cold-mixed asphalt can also be made from asphalt emulsion to create pavements similar to hot-mixed asphalt, several inches in depth and asphalt emulsions are also blended into recycled hot-mix asphalt to create low-cost pavements.
Where is naturally occurring bitumen in rock being developed as a feed stock for petroleum production?
571b3f7632177014007ea046
Alberta, Canada
172
False
How much area does Canada's natural bitumen cover?
571b3f7632177014007ea047
140,000 square kilometres
264
False
Where does Canada rank in world's oil supplies?
571b3f7632177014007ea048
second-largest
335
False
What is Canada's only surface bitumen mine?
571b3f7632177014007ea049
Athabasca oil sands
388
False
What is the amount of bitumen that can be extracted in Alberta?
571b3f7632177014007ea04a
310 billion barrels
1087
False
140,000 square kilometres
264
How much area does the smallest supply of natural bitumen, in Canada, cover?
5ace7a3732bba1001ae4a785
True
Canada
189
Which country has the third-largest known oil preserves in the world?
5ace7a3732bba1001ae4a786
True
2003
658
Oil prices decreased after which year?
5ace7a3732bba1001ae4a787
True
2014
801
By what year did Canadian oil sands production average 2.3 million barrels per day?
5ace7a3732bba1001ae4a788
True
2014
801
By what year did Athabascan crude asphalt/bitumen production average 2.3 million barrels per day?
5ace7a3732bba1001ae4a789
True
Naturally occurring crude asphalt/bitumen impregnated in sedimentary rock is the prime feed stock for petroleum production from "Oil sands", currently under development in Alberta, Canada. Canada has most of the world's supply of natural asphalt/bitumen, covering 140,000 square kilometres (an area larger than England), giving it the second-largest proven oil reserves in the world. The Athabasca oil sands is the largest asphalt/bitumen deposit in Canada and the only one accessible to surface mining, although recent technological breakthroughs have resulted in deeper deposits becoming producible by in situ methods. Because of oil price increases after 2003, producing bitumen became highly profitable, but as a result of the decline after 2014 it became uneconomic to build new plants again. By 2014, Canadian crude asphalt/bitumen production averaged about 2.3 million barrels (370,000 m3) per day and was projected to rise to 4.4 million barrels (700,000 m3) per day by 2020. The total amount of crude asphalt/bitumen in Alberta which could be extracted is estimated to be about 310 billion barrels (50×10^9 m3), which at a rate of 4,400,000 barrels per day (700,000 m3/d) would last about 200 years.
Besides fuels and paving, what accounts for most of the other use of bitumen?
571b40f532177014007ea050
Roofing shingles
0
False
What lacquer is bitumen used to make for iron and steel production?
571b40f532177014007ea051
Japan black
200
False
Why is Japan black used for outdoor paint?
571b40f532177014007ea052
weather resistance
366
False
Besides weather resistance, why else is Japan black used in paints?
571b40f532177014007ea053
permanence
389
False
What product is bitumen used in manufacturing as a sealant?
571b40f532177014007ea054
alkaline batteries
515
False
Roofing shingles
0
What accounts for nearly all the remaining graffiti consumption?
5ace73cf32bba1001ae4a71b
True
waterproofing for fabrics
141
Other uses of paint or ink include cattle sprays, fence- post treatments and what else?
5ace73cf32bba1001ae4a71c
True
alkaline
515
Cattle sprays can be used to seal what type of batteries?
5ace73cf32bba1001ae4a71d
True
Japan black
200
What lacquer is known for its use on paint and ink?
5ace73cf32bba1001ae4a71e
True
Japan black
200
What lacquer is used to make the color lighter?
5ace73cf32bba1001ae4a71f
True
Roofing shingles account for most of the remaining asphalt/bitumen consumption. Other uses include cattle sprays, fence-post treatments, and waterproofing for fabrics. Asphalt/bitumen is used to make Japan black, a lacquer known especially for its use on iron and steel, and it is also used in paint and marker inks by some graffiti supply companies to increase the weather resistance and permanence of the paint or ink, and to make the color much darker.[citation needed] Asphalt/bitumen is also used to seal some alkaline batteries during the manufacturing process.
What language originated the word bitumen?
571b42be9499d21900609c3b
Sanskrit
43
False
What does the Sanskrit word translate as?
571b42be9499d21900609c3c
pitch creating
124
False
To what English word does the Latin translate?
571b42be9499d21900609c3d
pitch
286
False
Through what language did bitumen pass to reach English?
571b42be9499d21900609c3e
French
412
False
To what word does the Anglo Saxon translate?
571b42be9499d21900609c3f
mastix
491
False
Sanskrit
43
Where did the expression "French" originate?
5ace831032bba1001ae4a8ef
True
Sanskrit
43
Where did the French expression "bitumen" originate?
5ace831032bba1001ae4a8f0
True
cement or mastic
522
What does the Anglo Saxon word Kitt mean?
5ace831032bba1001ae4a8f1
True
mastix
491
What does the German word cwidu mean?
5ace831032bba1001ae4a8f2
True
cement or mastic
522
What does the Norse word kitt mean?
5ace831032bba1001ae4a8f3
True
The expression "bitumen" originated in the Sanskrit, where we find the words jatu, meaning "pitch," and jatu-krit, meaning "pitch creating", "pitch producing" (referring to coniferous or resinous trees). The Latin equivalent is claimed by some to be originally gwitu-men (pertaining to pitch), and by others, pixtumens (exuding or bubbling pitch), which was subsequently shortened to bitumen, thence passing via French into English. From the same root is derived the Anglo Saxon word cwidu (mastix), the German word Kitt (cement or mastic) and the old Norse word kvada.
To what similar substance can asphalt be confused?
571b44c232177014007ea05a
coal tar
48
False
For what was coal tar used in road paving?
571b44c232177014007ea05b
binder
304
False
What is the common word is used to describe the combination of tar and macadam?
571b44c232177014007ea05c
tarmac
385
False
What use has pushed out the need to produce roads with coal tar?
571b44c232177014007ea05d
natural gas
496
False
Instead of tar, what does the La Brea Tars Pits contain?
571b44c232177014007ea05e
bitumen
741
False
Asphalt/bitumen
0
What is a blood orange color and sometimes confused with "coal tar"?
5ace32ce32bba1001ae49dbf
True
coal tar
48
Which similar endothermic material is sometimes confused with asphalt?
5ace32ce32bba1001ae49dc0
True
coal tar
48
Which similar oil can asphalt be confused with?
5ace32ce32bba1001ae49dc1
True
1970s
484
Coal tar has totally overtaken the use of asphalt since which decade?
5ace32ce32bba1001ae49dc2
True
coal tar
233
What was used as pitch for road aggregates?
5ace32ce32bba1001ae49dc3
True
Asphalt/bitumen can sometimes be confused with "coal tar", which is a visually similar black, thermoplastic material produced by the destructive distillation of coal. During the early and mid-20th century when town gas was produced, coal tar was a readily available byproduct and extensively used as the binder for road aggregates. The addition of tar to macadam roads led to the word tarmac, which is now used in common parlance to refer to road-making materials. However, since the 1970s, when natural gas succeeded town gas, asphalt/bitumen has completely overtaken the use of coal tar in these applications. Other examples of this confusion include the La Brea Tar Pits and the Canadian oil sands, both of which actually contain natural bitumen rather than tar. Pitch is another term sometimes used at times to refer to asphalt/bitumen, as in Pitch Lake.
Who described the use of bitumen and pitch to tar ships?
571b46e632177014007ea064
Pierre Belon
60
False
When did Belon make his shipbuilding observations?
571b46e632177014007ea065
1553
111
False
In what year did a French magazine describe the use of asphalt?
571b46e632177014007ea066
1838
304
False
After what event in France did  asphalt begin to be used for pavements and assorted other uses?
571b46e632177014007ea067
revolution of 1830
1103
False
Where in France in 1835 was asphalt used to lay pavement?
571b46e632177014007ea068
Place de la Concorde
1653
False
1453
54
In what year was the rise of Constantinople?
5ace57a932bba1001ae4a32f
True
1453
54
In what year was the fall of Observations?
5ace57a932bba1001ae4a330
True
pissasphalto, a mixture of pitch and bitumen, was used in Dubrovnik for tarring of ships
121
In Observations, Monsieur d'Eyrinys described what?
5ace57a932bba1001ae4a331
True
1838
304
In which year did an edition of Parisian Magazine cite an early use of asphalt in France?
5ace57a932bba1001ae4a332
True
1838
304
In which year did an edition of Mechanics Magazine cite an early use of asphalt in Spain?
5ace57a932bba1001ae4a333
True
One hundred years after the fall of Constantinople in 1453, Pierre Belon described in his work Observations in 1553 that pissasphalto, a mixture of pitch and bitumen, was used in Dubrovnik for tarring of ships from where it was exported to a market place in Venice where it could be bought by anyone. An 1838 edition of Mechanics Magazine cites an early use of asphalt in France. A pamphlet dated 1621, by "a certain Monsieur d'Eyrinys, states that he had discovered the existence (of asphaltum) in large quantities in the vicinity of Neufchatel", and that he proposed to use it in a variety of ways – "principally in the construction of air-proof granaries, and in protecting, by means of the arches, the water-courses in the city of Paris from the intrusion of dirt and filth", which at that time made the water unusable. "He expatiates also on the excellence of this material for forming level and durable terraces" in palaces, "the notion of forming such terraces in the streets not one likely to cross the brain of a Parisian of that generation". But it was generally neglected in France until the revolution of 1830. Then, in the 1830s, there was a surge of interest, and asphalt became widely used "for pavements, flat roofs, and the lining of cisterns, and in England, some use of it had been made of it for similar purposes". Its rise in Europe was "a sudden phenomenon", after natural deposits were found "in France at Osbann (BasRhin), the Parc (l'Ain) and the Puy-de-la-Poix (Puy-de-Dome)", although it could also be made artificially. One of the earliest uses in France was the laying of about 24,000 square yards of Seyssel asphalt at the Place de la Concorde in 1835.
In what year did Claridge acquire patents for the use of asphalt?
571b49039499d21900609c45
1838
3
False
From what French mine did Claridge offer asphalt?
571b49039499d21900609c46
Pyrimont Seysell
353
False
What did Claridge's formation of a company with distinguished backers help inspire?
571b49039499d21900609c47
British asphalt industry
901
False
In what famous place did Claridge first begin to lay and test the use of asphalt pavement?
571b49039499d21900609c48
Whitehall
430
False
By 1838 how many companies beside Claridge's were offering asphalt?
571b49039499d21900609c49
two
958
False
three
128
For how many patents did Claridge seek extensions in 1822?
5ace5b7132bba1001ae4a3b5
True
1838
258
The Canterbury Patent Asphalte Company was established in what year?
5ace5b7132bba1001ae4a3b6
True
Claridge's
212
Who's Patent Asphalte Company was established in 1988?
5ace5b7132bba1001ae4a3b7
True
Trials
442
What were made of the pavement in 1838 on the footway of Canterbury?
5ace5b7132bba1001ae4a3b8
True
In 1838, Claridge obtained patents in Scotland on 27 March, and Ireland on 23 April, and in 1851 extensions were sought for all three patents, by the trustees of a company previously formed by Claridge. This was Claridge's Patent Asphalte Company, formed in 1838 for the purpose of introducing to Britain "Asphalte in its natural state from the mine at Pyrimont Seysell in France", and "laid one of the first asphalt pavements in Whitehall". Trials were made of the pavement in 1838 on the footway in Whitehall, the stable at Knightsbridge Barracks, "and subsequently on the space at the bottom of the steps leading from Waterloo Place to St. James Park". "The formation in 1838 of Claridge's Patent Asphalte Company (with a distinguished list of aristocratic patrons, and Marc and Isambard Brunel as, respectively, a trustee and consulting engineer), gave an enormous impetus to the development of a British asphalt industry". "By the end of 1838, at least two other companies, Robinson's and the Bastenne company, were in production", with asphalt being laid as paving at Brighton, Herne Bay, Canterbury, Kensington, the Strand, and a large floor area in Bunhill-row, while meantime Claridge's Whitehall paving "continue(d) in good order".
What country has the largest deposits of bitumen?
571b4aa79499d21900609c4f
Canada
0
False
For what  did Canadian natives use asphalt as a waterproofing material?
571b4aa79499d21900609c50
canoes
175
False
Who was the first European trader to see asphalt?
571b4aa79499d21900609c51
Henry Kelsey
251
False
For what trading company did Kelsey work?
571b4aa79499d21900609c52
Hudson’s Bay Company
271
False
Who was the first European to see the Athabascan oil sands?
571b4aa79499d21900609c53
Alexander MacKenzie
399
False
Canada
0
Which country has North America's largest deposit of naturally occurring bitumen?
5ace5fe232bba1001ae4a46f
True
natural bitumen
42
Canada is home to the world's smallest deposit of what?
5ace5fe232bba1001ae4a470
True
Canada
0
Where is the world's smallest natural bitumen deposit located?
5ace5fe232bba1001ae4a471
True
1787
365
In what year did Athabasca see the oil sands?
5ace5fe232bba1001ae4a472
True
1787
365
Alexander MacKenzie was a oil trader and saw the oil sands in what year?
5ace5fe232bba1001ae4a473
True
Canada has the world's largest deposit of natural bitumen in the Athabasca oil sands and Canadian First Nations along the Athabasca River had long used it to waterproof their canoes. In 1719, a Cree Indian named Wa-Pa-Su brought a sample for trade to Henry Kelsey of the Hudson’s Bay Company, who was the first recorded European to see it. However, it wasn't until 1787 that fur trader and explorer Alexander MacKenzie saw the Athabasca oil sands and said, "At about 24 miles from the fork (of the Athabasca and Clearwater Rivers) are some bituminous fountains into which a pole of 20 feet long may be inserted without the least resistance."
What is the percentage of binder in mastic asphalt?
571b4bfe9499d21900609c59
7–10%
168
False
How much additional binder does rolled asphalt concrete have?
571b4bfe9499d21900609c5a
5%
263
False
How is asphalt used in the construction industry?
571b4bfe9499d21900609c5b
waterproofing
362
False
Prior to spreading, how hot is mastic asphalt heated?
571b4bfe9499d21900609c5c
210 °C
457
False
What is the usual thickness of the mastic spread on roofs?
571b4bfe9499d21900609c5d
20 millimeters
533
False
7–10%
168
What percentage of concrete is in mastic asphalt?
5ace638232bba1001ae4a535
True
Mastic asphalt
0
What is a type of impervious barrier that differs from dense graded asphalt?
5ace638232bba1001ae4a536
True
it has a higher asphalt/bitumen (binder) content
103
Mastic asphalt is the same as dense graded asphalt because why?
5ace638232bba1001ae4a537
True
added asphalt/bitumen
266
Rolled asphalt concrete has contains around 7% what?
5ace638232bba1001ae4a538
True
thermoplastic substance
294
What is widely used in buildings for making asphalt waterproof?
5ace638232bba1001ae4a539
True
Mastic asphalt is a type of asphalt which differs from dense graded asphalt (asphalt concrete) in that it has a higher asphalt/bitumen (binder) content, usually around 7–10% of the whole aggregate mix, as opposed to rolled asphalt concrete, which has only around 5% added asphalt/bitumen. This thermoplastic substance is widely used in the building industry for waterproofing flat roofs and tanking underground. Mastic asphalt is heated to a temperature of 210 °C (410 °F) and is spread in layers to form an impervious barrier about 20 millimeters (0.79 inches) thick.
What is done to crude bitumen to promote its movement through pipelines?
571b51299499d21900609c63
diluted
101
False
What is the natural gas condensate used to dilute bitumen?
571b51299499d21900609c64
dilbit
154
False
What is the synthetic crude additive to bitumen called?
571b51299499d21900609c65
synbit
197
False
What is the usually sold standard blend of bitumen and oils named?
571b51299499d21900609c66
Western Canadian Select
433
False
In what uniform use was Western Canadian Select meant to excel?
571b51299499d21900609c67
refining
519
False
crude bitumen
36
Because it's easy to move what through pipelines is non upgraded bitumen is usually diluted?
5ace72c132bba1001ae4a6fd
True
a blend of multiple grades of bitumen, conventional crude oil, synthetic crude oil, and condensate in a standardized benchmark product
290
What is upgraded bitumen now sold as to meet international competition?
5ace72c132bba1001ae4a6fe
True
a blend of multiple grades of bitumen, conventional crude oil, synthetic crude oil, and condensate in a standardized benchmark product
290
What is non-upgraded bitumen now sold as to meet national competition?
5ace72c132bba1001ae4a6ff
True
internationally marketed heavy oils
560
The bitter and light crude oil mix is designed to competed with what types of oils?
5ace72c132bba1001ae4a700
True
internationally marketed heavy oils
560
The sour and heavy crude oil mix is designed to competed with what types of benchmarks?
5ace72c132bba1001ae4a701
True
Because of the difficulty of moving crude bitumen through pipelines, non-upgraded bitumen is usually diluted with natural-gas condensate in a form called dilbit or with synthetic crude oil, called synbit. However, to meet international competition, much non-upgraded bitumen is now sold as a blend of multiple grades of bitumen, conventional crude oil, synthetic crude oil, and condensate in a standardized benchmark product such as Western Canadian Select. This sour, heavy crude oil blend is designed to have uniform refining characteristics to compete with internationally marketed heavy oils such as Mexican Mayan or Arabian Dubai Crude.
To what is the organic matter in asphalt similar?
571b532132177014007ea06e
meteorites
65
False
What did the Alberta bitumen mines begin as?
571b532132177014007ea06f
living material
217
False
What kind of living materials formed the basis of bitumen?
571b532132177014007ea070
plants and animals
245
False
What feature originally covered Alberta?
571b532132177014007ea071
ocean
327
False
What temperatures did the organic deposits need to form bitumen over the eons?
571b532132177014007ea072
50 to 150 °C
471
False
carbonaceous
52
Bitumen is similar to inorganic matter in what type of meteorites?
5ace561832bba1001ae4a2f5
True
carbonaceous
52
Bitumen varies greatly from organic matter found in what type of meteorites?
5ace561832bba1001ae4a2f6
True
Alberta
341
Thousands of years ago an ancient ocean covered which area?
5ace561832bba1001ae4a2f7
True
millions
289
How many years ago were the Rocky Mountains covered in an ancient ocean?
5ace561832bba1001ae4a2f8
True
80 to 55 million
581
How many years ago did the Rocky Mountains arise in northeastern Alberta?
5ace561832bba1001ae4a2f9
True
Asphalt/bitumen is similar to the organic matter in carbonaceous meteorites. However, detailed studies have shown these materials to be distinct. The vast Alberta bitumen resources are believed to have started out as living material from marine plants and animals, mainly algae, that died millions of years ago when an ancient ocean covered Alberta. They were covered by mud, buried deeply over the eons, and gently cooked into oil by geothermal heat at a temperature of 50 to 150 °C (120 to 300 °F). Due to pressure from the rising of the Rocky Mountains in southwestern Alberta, 80 to 55 million years ago, the oil was driven northeast hundreds of kilometres into underground sand deposits left behind by ancient river beds and ocean beaches, thus forming the oil sands.
What component is added to bitumen to improve it?
571b55a832177014007ea078
Selenizza
0
False
To what other paving material is Selenizza added?
571b55a832177014007ea079
mastic asphalts
392
False
What purpose does Selenizza have in the drilling industry?
571b55a832177014007ea07a
fluid additives
478
False
In what form is Selenizza offered?
571b55a832177014007ea07b
granular
241
False
How is Selenizza shipped?
571b55a832177014007ea07c
bags
630
False
Selenizza
0
What is mostly used as an additive in constructing recycling rings?
5ace7c0d32bba1001ae4a7c7
True
Selenizza
524
What is available in powder or fluid form and offered in various particle sizes?
5ace7c0d32bba1001ae4a7c8
True
bitumen
102
What is Selenizza mixed with to improve resistance to bridges?
5ace7c0d32bba1001ae4a7c9
True
bitumen
102
What is Selenizza mixed with to worsen viscoelastic properties?
5ace7c0d32bba1001ae4a7ca
True
Selenizza
0
What may be mixed with cold bitumen in tanks?
5ace7c0d32bba1001ae4a7cb
True
Selenizza is mainly used as an additive in the road construction sector. It is mixed with traditional bitumen to improve both the viscoelastic properties and the resistance to ageing. It may be blended with the hot bitumen in tanks, but its granular form allows it to be fed in the mixer or in the recycling ring of normal asphalt plants. Other typical applications include the production of mastic asphalts for sidewalks, bridges, car-parks and urban roads as well as drilling fluid additives for the oil and gas industry. Selenizza is available in powder or in granular material of various particle sizes and is packaged in big bags or in thermal fusible polyethylene bags.
To what type of aggregate did asphalt used to refer?
571b5e2e9499d21900609c6d
mixture
61
False
What is the mixture of bitumen and minerals called?
571b5e2e9499d21900609c6e
tarmac
123
False
When mixed wit clay, what is bitumen called?
571b5e2e9499d21900609c6f
asphaltum
204
False
With what word in America, is bitumen used interchangeably?
571b5e2e9499d21900609c70
'asphalt
320
False
What is the geological term for asphalt?
571b5e2e9499d21900609c71
Bitumen
1086
False
asphalt
380
What is the shortened form of asphalt tarmac?
5ace83b532bba1001ae4a90b
True
Australian English
517
Bitumen is often used as a generic word for roof shingles in which language?
5ace83b532bba1001ae4a90c
True
Canadian petroleum industry
943
in which industry is concentrated bitumen known as dilbit?
5ace83b532bba1001ae4a90d
True
Bitumen
1086
Which is the preferred geographical term for natural deposits?
5ace83b532bba1001ae4a90e
True
Bituminous rock
1212
What type of rock forms from limestone mixed with bitumen?
5ace83b532bba1001ae4a90f
True
In British English, the word 'asphalt' is used to refer to a mixture of mineral aggregate and asphalt/bitumen (also called tarmac in common parlance). When bitumen is mixed with clay it is usually called asphaltum. The earlier word 'asphaltum' is now archaic and not commonly used.[citation needed] In American English, 'asphalt' is equivalent to the British 'bitumen'. However, 'asphalt' is also commonly used as a shortened form of 'asphalt concrete' (therefore equivalent to the British 'asphalt' or 'tarmac'). In Australian English, bitumen is often used as the generic term for road surfaces. In Canadian English, the word bitumen is used to refer to the vast Canadian deposits of extremely heavy crude oil, while asphalt is used for the oil refinery product used to pave roads and manufacture roof shingles and various waterproofing products. Diluted bitumen (diluted with naphtha to make it flow in pipelines) is known as dilbit in the Canadian petroleum industry, while bitumen "upgraded" to synthetic crude oil is known as syncrude and syncrude blended with bitumen as synbit. Bitumen is still the preferred geological term for naturally occurring deposits of the solid or semi-solid form of petroleum. Bituminous rock is a form of sandstone impregnated with bitumen. The tar sands of Alberta, Canada are a similar material.
What pigment did 19th century artists use that was deemed unfavorably?
571b5ffb32177014007ea082
Bitumen
0
False
What did bitumen when used as a paint not do correctly?
571b5ffb32177014007ea083
solidifies
298
False
What did even limited use of bitumen do to damage paintings?
571b5ffb32177014007ea084
deterioration
510
False
What artist's work i considered to be an example of the damaging effects of bitumen?
571b5ffb32177014007ea085
Théodore Géricault's
645
False
What major problem did bitumen as a pigment show itself to be?
571b5ffb32177014007ea086
unstable
119
False
Bitumen
0
What was the nemesis of many singers during the 19th century?
5ace595232bba1001ae4a367
True
Bitumen
0
What was the nemesis of many artists during the 21th century?
5ace595232bba1001ae4a368
True
oil
139
Bitumen proved stable for use in what type of painting?
5ace595232bba1001ae4a369
True
thoroughly diluted
258
Bitumen will always fully solidify when what?
5ace595232bba1001ae4a36a
True
Théodore Géricault's Raft of the Medusa (1818–1819),
645
What is an example of the destructiveness of linseed oil?
5ace595232bba1001ae4a36b
True
Bitumen was the nemesis of many artists during the 19th century. Although widely used for a time, it ultimately proved unstable for use in oil painting, especially when mixed with the most common diluents, such as linseed oil, varnish and turpentine. Unless thoroughly diluted, bitumen never fully solidifies and will in time corrupt the other pigments with which it comes into contact. The use of bitumen as a glaze to set in shadow or mixed with other colors to render a darker tone resulted in the eventual deterioration of many paintings, for instance those of Delacroix. Perhaps the most famous example of the destructiveness of bitumen is Théodore Géricault's Raft of the Medusa (1818–1819), where his use of bitumen caused the brilliant colors to degenerate into dark greens and blacks and the paint and canvas to buckle.
Which of Claridge's two tar macadams was the more successful?
571b61ff9499d21900609c77
Clarmac
200
False
When did Claridge's company liquidate?
571b61ff9499d21900609c78
1915
482
False
What world event caused the end of Claridge's company?
571b61ff9499d21900609c79
First World War
387
False
What was the subsidiary company that lead Claridge into ruin?
571b61ff9499d21900609c7a
Clarmac Roads Ltd
151
False
What kind of money did Claridge  invest in attempting  to save his companies?
571b61ff9499d21900609c7b
substantial amount
651
False
1915
482
In what year was the liquidation of the Patent Clarmac Company?
5ace5ccb32bba1001ae4a403
True
Clarmac Roads Ltd
503
Which company's failure had a flow-over effect on the First World War?
5ace5ccb32bba1001ae4a404
True
impacted financially on the Clarmac Company
403
What did the Second World War do?
5ace5ccb32bba1001ae4a405
True
liquidation
467
What happened to the Clarmac Company in 1917?
5ace5ccb32bba1001ae4a406
True
ceasing operations
605
What happened to Claridge's Company in 1915?
5ace5ccb32bba1001ae4a407
True
In 1914, Claridge's Company entered into a joint venture to produce tar-bound macadam, with materials manufactured through a subsidiary company called Clarmac Roads Ltd. Two products resulted, namely Clarmac, and Clarphalte, with the former being manufactured by Clarmac Roads and the latter by Claridge's Patent Asphalte Co., although Clarmac was more widely used.[note 1] However, the First World War impacted financially on the Clarmac Company, which entered into liquidation in 1915. The failure of Clarmac Roads Ltd had a flow-on effect to Claridge's Company, which was itself compulsorily wound up, ceasing operations in 1917, having invested a substantial amount of funds into the new venture, both at the outset, and in a subsequent attempt to save the Clarmac Company.
What is the biggest use of asphalt?
571b63799499d21900609c81
road surfaces
70
False
How much is the percentage of use of bitumen for roads is there in the US?
571b63799499d21900609c82
85%
115
False
How much bitumen is in usual concrete mixtures?
571b63799499d21900609c83
5%
223
False
What percentage of concrete mixes is aggregates?
571b63799499d21900609c84
95%
253
False
How many concrete plants are in the US?
571b63799499d21900609c85
4,000
646
False
making asphalt concrete for road surfaces
42
Accounting for nearly 75% of asphalt consumption, what is the largest use of asphalt for?
5ace61a732bba1001ae4a4d7
True
85%
115
What percentage of bitumen consumption in Europe makes up that used for concrete road surfaces?
5ace61a732bba1001ae4a4d8
True
heated
360
What must happen to plants so they can be mixed with aggregates?
5ace61a732bba1001ae4a4d9
True
asphalt/bitumen
329
What must be cooled so it can mix with aggregates?
5ace61a732bba1001ae4a4da
True
about 4,000
640
Europe has 0 asphalt concrete mixing plants and the United States has how many?
5ace61a732bba1001ae4a4db
True
The largest use of asphalt/bitumen is for making asphalt concrete for road surfaces and accounts for approximately 85% of the asphalt consumed in the United States. Asphalt concrete pavement mixes are typically composed of 5% asphalt/bitumen cement and 95% aggregates (stone, sand, and gravel). Due to its highly viscous nature, asphalt/bitumen cement must be heated so it can be mixed with the aggregates at the asphalt mixing facility. The temperature required varies depending upon characteristics of the asphalt/bitumen and the aggregates, but warm-mix asphalt technologies allow producers to reduce the temperature required. There are about 4,000 asphalt concrete mixing plants in the U.S., and a similar number in Europe.
What is synthetic crude oil usually called?
571b64d79499d21900609c8b
syncrude
35
False
Where is the mined bitumen taken for refining?
571b64d79499d21900609c8c
upgrading facility
300
False
Who invented the process for removing bitumen from sands?
571b64d79499d21900609c8d
Dr. Karl Clark
421
False
Un what decade did Clark develop the hot water removal process?
571b64d79499d21900609c8e
1920s
476
False
How many barrels of crude were upgraders making per day by 2015?
571b64d79499d21900609c8f
1 million barrels
839
False
Synthetic crude oil
0
What is also known as synClark oil?
5ace6e1832bba1001ae4a685
True
Synthetic crude oil
0
What type of oil is also known as suncryde?
5ace6e1832bba1001ae4a686
True
bitumen
352
A cold water process is used to extract what from sand?
5ace6e1832bba1001ae4a687
True
sand
369
A cold water process is used when extracting bitumen from what?
5ace6e1832bba1001ae4a688
True
process used to extract the bitumen from the sand
324
What process did Dr. Karl Clark develop at the University of Canada in 1935?
5ace6e1832bba1001ae4a689
True
Synthetic crude oil, also known as syncrude, is the output from a bitumen upgrader facility used in connection with oil sand production in Canada. Bituminous sands are mined using enormous (100 ton capacity) power shovels and loaded into even larger (400 ton capacity) dump trucks for movement to an upgrading facility. The process used to extract the bitumen from the sand is a hot water process originally developed by Dr. Karl Clark of the University of Alberta during the 1920s. After extraction from the sand, the bitumen is fed into a bitumen upgrader which converts it into a light crude oil equivalent. This synthetic substance is fluid enough to be transferred through conventional oil pipelines and can be fed into conventional oil refineries without any further treatment. By 2015 Canadian bitumen upgraders were producing over 1 million barrels (160×10^3 m3) per day of synthetic crude oil, of which 75% was exported to oil refineries in the United States.
How many tons of bitumen ere produced in 1984?
571b66819499d21900609c95
40,000,000
6
False
What boiling point is considered to be the for asphalt?
571b66819499d21900609c96
500 °C
178
False
What method is used to divide asphalt from other materials?
571b66819499d21900609c97
Vacuum distillation
208
False
What is the process used to harden the asphalt?
571b66819499d21900609c98
blowing
695
False
In processing asphalt, what is the unit used to separate it?
571b66819499d21900609c99
de-asphalting
496
False
About 40,000,000
0
How many tons were produced in 1927?
5ace76bb32bba1001ae4a755
True
1984
39
About 30,000,000 tons were produced in what year?
5ace76bb32bba1001ae4a756
True
asphalt
199
What is material with a boiling point over 200 degrees Celsius considered?
5ace76bb32bba1001ae4a757
True
500 °C
178
Asphalt is considered material with a freezing point below how many degrees?
5ace76bb32bba1001ae4a758
True
reacting it with oxygen
724
Which step makes the product less viscous and softer?
5ace76bb32bba1001ae4a759
True
About 40,000,000 tons were produced in 1984[needs update]. It is obtained as the "heavy" (i.e., difficult to distill) fraction. Material with a boiling point greater than around 500 °C is considered asphalt. Vacuum distillation separates it from the other components in crude oil (such as naphtha, gasoline and diesel). The resulting material is typically further treated to extract small but valuable amounts of lubricants and to adjust the properties of the material to suit applications. In a de-asphalting unit, the crude asphalt is treated with either propane or butane in a supercritical phase to extract the lighter molecules, which are then separated. Further processing is possible by "blowing" the product: namely reacting it with oxygen. This step makes the product harder and more viscous.
To what location is Selenizza bitumen native?
571b684832177014007ea08c
Selenice, in Albania
100
False
What is it about the mine that is unusual?
571b684832177014007ea08d
still in use
153
False
In what way is Selenizza bitumen geologically different than bitumen found in sands?
571b684832177014007ea08e
rock asphalt
171
False
What is the variance in bitumen content rock asphalt?
571b684832177014007ea08f
83% to 92%
302
False
How is the rock asphalt mainly found?
571b684832177014007ea090
veins
208
False
8% to 17%
501
The soluble matter consists mainly of silica ore and ranges from what percentage?
5ace7ab232bba1001ae4a7a3
True
insoluble matter
438
What type of matter ranges from 7% to 20%?
5ace7ab232bba1001ae4a7a4
True
rock asphalt
171
The veins are found in the form of what?
5ace7ab232bba1001ae4a7a5
True
bitumen
274
What content varies from 80% to 93%?
5ace7ab232bba1001ae4a7a6
True
Selenizza is a naturally occurring solid hydrocarbon bitumen found in the native asphalt deposit of Selenice, in Albania, the only European asphalt mine still in use. The rock asphalt is found in the form of veins, filling cracks in a more or less horizontal direction. The bitumen content varies from 83% to 92% (soluble in carbon disulphide), with a penetration value near to zero and a softening point (ring & ball) around 120 °C. The insoluble matter, consisting mainly of silica ore, ranges from 8% to 17%.
By what means can humans be exposed to bitumen?
571b6a2f9499d21900609c9f
fumes or skin
66
False
What is the nationally set limit for exposure of asphalt in a 15 minute period?
571b6a2f9499d21900609ca0
5 mg/m3
204
False
How must asphalt be treated to be workable?
571b6a2f9499d21900609ca1
heated or diluted
289
False
At what temperatures is heated asphalt seen to be a greater health risk?
571b6a2f9499d21900609ca2
greater than 199 °C
764
False
What feature in the treatment of asphalt in the workplace causes the most potential danger?
571b6a2f9499d21900609ca3
temperature
607
False
breathing in fumes or skin absorption
53
How can people be exposed to low temperatures while at work?
5ace7f2132bba1001ae4a83d
True
produce a greater exposure risk
808
Temperatures higher than 300 degrees Celsius where shown to do what?
5ace7f2132bba1001ae4a83e
True
5 mg/m3 over a 15-minute period
204
What is the REL set by the National Institute for Research on Cancer?
5ace7f2132bba1001ae4a83f
True
IARC
537
What is the acronym for the International Agency for Research on Carcinogenic hazards?
5ace7f2132bba1001ae4a840
True
People can be exposed to asphalt in the workplace by breathing in fumes or skin absorption. The National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH) has set a Recommended exposure limit (REL) of 5 mg/m3 over a 15-minute period. Asphalt is basically an inert material that must be heated or diluted to a point where it becomes workable for the production of materials for paving, roofing, and other applications. In examining the potential health hazards associated with asphalt, the International Agency for Research on Cancer (IARC) determined that it is the application parameters, predominantly temperature, that effect occupational exposure and the potential bioavailable carcinogenic hazard/risk of the asphalt emissions. In particular, temperatures greater than 199 °C (390 °F), were shown to produce a greater exposure risk than when asphalt was heated to lower temperatures, such as those typically used in asphalt pavement mix production and placement.
Queen_Victoria
Who did Victoria marry?
5722c9db0dadf01500fa1ee9
Prince Albert
35
False
What is her nickname that she was given because her children married into royal families across the continent?
5722c9db0dadf01500fa1eea
the grandmother of Europe
215
False
What year did Prince Albert die?
5722c9db0dadf01500fa1eeb
1861
267
False
How many children did she have?
5722c9db0dadf01500fa1eec
nine
90
False
In the later half of her reign, what happened to her popularity?
5722c9db0dadf01500fa1eed
her popularity recovered
450
False
How many children did Queen Victoria and Prince Albert have?
5723aae60dadf01500fa1f27
nine
90
False
What was the year of Alberts death?
5723aae60dadf01500fa1f28
1861
267
False
Queen Victorias Golden and Diamond jubilees were a time of public what?
5723aae60dadf01500fa1f29
celebration
529
False
What was the name the first cousing that Victoria married?
5723aae60dadf01500fa1f2a
Prince Albert of Saxe-Coburg and Gotha
35
False
What was the nickname given to Queen Victoria because all of her children married into noble families?
5723aae60dadf01500fa1f2b
first cousin
21
False
What was the name of the first cousin that Queen Victoria was married to?
572413c70ba9f01400d97b69
Prince Albert of Saxe-Coburg and Gotha
35
False
Whatyear did Victoria marry Prince Albert?
572413c70ba9f01400d97b6a
1840
78
False
How many children did Victoria and Albert have?
572413c70ba9f01400d97b6b
nine
90
False
What year did Prince Albert die?
572413c70ba9f01400d97b6c
1861
267
False
Due to Victorias mourning over Alberts death, what political party gained strength?
572413c70ba9f01400d97b6d
republicanism
371
False
When did Queen Victoria get married?
572431470ba9f01400d97b73
1840
78
False
What was the name of Victoria's husband?
572431470ba9f01400d97b74
Prince Albert
35
False
What was Queen Victoria's nickname?
572431470ba9f01400d97b75
the grandmother of Europe
215
False
When did republicanism gain strength during Queen Victoria's reign?
572431470ba9f01400d97b76
After Albert's death in 1861
243
False
How many children did Queen Victoria and Prince Albert have?
572431470ba9f01400d97b77
nine
90
False
Who did Victoria marry?
57257a9769ff041400e58df4
Prince Albert of Saxe-Coburg and Gotha
35
False
When were Victoria and Prince Albert married?
57257a9769ff041400e58df5
1840
78
False
How many children did Victoria and Prince Albert have?
57257a9769ff041400e58df6
nine
90
False
What was Victoria's unofficial title?
57257a9769ff041400e58df7
the grandmother of Europe
215
False
When did Prince Albert die?
57257a9769ff041400e58df8
1861
267
False
Prince Albert
35
Who did Victoria divorce?
5ad1696b645df0001a2d1a36
True
the grandmother of Europe
215
What is her nickname that she was given because her siblings married into royal families across the continent?
5ad1696b645df0001a2d1a37
True
1861
267
What year didn't Prince Albert die?
5ad1696b645df0001a2d1a38
True
nine
90
How many children didn't she have?
5ad1696b645df0001a2d1a39
True
her popularity recovered
450
In the earlier half of her reign, what happened to her popularity?
5ad1696b645df0001a2d1a3a
True
Victoria married her first cousin, Prince Albert of Saxe-Coburg and Gotha, in 1840. Their nine children married into royal and noble families across the continent, tying them together and earning her the sobriquet "the grandmother of Europe". After Albert's death in 1861, Victoria plunged into deep mourning and avoided public appearances. As a result of her seclusion, republicanism temporarily gained strength, but in the latter half of her reign her popularity recovered. Her Golden and Diamond Jubilees were times of public celebration.
Who was extremely protective over Victoria?
5722caddf6b826140030fc30
mother
67
False
What system of rules kept her isolated from other children?
5722caddf6b826140030fc31
Kensington System
182
False
Who was the Dutchess' rumored lover?
5722caddf6b826140030fc32
Sir John Conroy
312
False
What was Victoria's dog's name?
5722caddf6b826140030fc33
Dash
994
False
During her free time, what did she play with?
5722caddf6b826140030fc34
dolls
958
False
Who did Victoria share a bedroom with when she was a child?
5723b1ae0dadf01500fa1f31
her mother
848
False
What languages did Victoria take lessons in?
5723b1ae0dadf01500fa1f32
French, German, Italian, and Latin
1021
False
What was the only language Victoria spoke at home?
5723b1ae0dadf01500fa1f33
English
1076
False
Who was Victoria's mothers lover?
5723b1ae0dadf01500fa1f34
Sir John Conroy
312
False
What is the formal name given to the system of rules Victoria was raised under?
5723b1ae0dadf01500fa1f35
Kensington System
182
False
What system did Victorias mother raise her under?
5724149a0a492a1900435612
Kensington System
182
False
Who was Victorias mothers comptroller?
5724149a0a492a1900435613
Sir John Conroy
312
False
Who was rumored to be Victorias mothers lover?
5724149a0a492a1900435614
Sir John Conroy
312
False
Who was the Duchess's suspected lover?
5724d2c40a492a190043562c
Sir John Conroy
312
False
What was the name of Victoria's childhood dog?
5724d2c40a492a190043562d
Dash
994
False
What was the Kensington System?
5724d2c40a492a190043562e
an elaborate set of rules and protocols devised by the Duchess
202
False
How did Victoria describe her childhood?
5724d2c40a492a190043562f
rather melancholy
43
False
What languages did Victoria study?
5724d2c40a492a1900435630
French, German, Italian, and Latin
1021
False
What was the name of Victoria's King Charles Spaniel?
57257bd469ff041400e58dfe
Dash
994
False
What are some of the languages that Victoria studied?
57257bd469ff041400e58dff
French, German, Italian, and Latin
1021
False
What system was in place to raise and educate Victoria; while also rendering her weak and dependent?
57257bd469ff041400e58e00
Kensington System
182
False
Who was the Duchess' comptroller and cohort?
57257bd469ff041400e58e01
Sir John Conroy
312
False
Who was included in the list of people that the Duchess and Sir John Conroy didn't want the Princess Victoria associating with?
57257bd469ff041400e58e02
most of her father's family
484
False
mother
67
Who was extremely unprotective over Victoria?
5ad16b84645df0001a2d1a8c
True
Kensington System
182
What system of rules kept her in contact with other children?
5ad16b84645df0001a2d1a8d
True
Sir John Conroy
312
Who was the Dutchess' rumored friend?
5ad16b84645df0001a2d1a8e
True
Dash
994
What was Victoria's cat's name?
5ad16b84645df0001a2d1a8f
True
dolls
958
During her free time, what didn't she play with?
5ad16b84645df0001a2d1a90
True
Victoria later described her childhood as "rather melancholy". Her mother was extremely protective, and Victoria was raised largely isolated from other children under the so-called "Kensington System", an elaborate set of rules and protocols devised by the Duchess and her ambitious and domineering comptroller, Sir John Conroy, who was rumoured to be the Duchess's lover. The system prevented the princess from meeting people whom her mother and Conroy deemed undesirable (including most of her father's family), and was designed to render her weak and dependent upon them. The Duchess avoided the court because she was scandalised by the presence of King William's bastard children, and perhaps prompted the emergence of Victorian morality by insisting that her daughter avoid any appearance of sexual impropriety. Victoria shared a bedroom with her mother every night, studied with private tutors to a regular timetable, and spent her play-hours with her dolls and her King Charles spaniel, Dash. Her lessons included French, German, Italian, and Latin, but she spoke only English at home.
Who was Victoria's eighth child?
5722cbc2f6b826140030fc3a
Leopold
50
False
What anaesthetic helped her give birth to her eighth child?
5722cbc2f6b826140030fc3b
chloroform
96
False
What did Victoria suffer from after he pregnancies?
5722cbc2f6b826140030fc3c
post-natal depression
457
False
Why did medical professionals advise against using an anaesthetic during childbirth?
5722cbc2f6b826140030fc3d
thought it dangerous
403
False
What did Albert complain about Victoria?
5722cbc2f6b826140030fc3e
her "continuance of hysterics" over a "miserable trifle"
692
False
What was the name of Victoria's eighth child?
5723b340f6b826140030fc80
Leopold
50
False
What was the name of the new anesthetic given to Victoria for the birth of Leopold?
5723b340f6b826140030fc81
chloroform
96
False
What year did Victoria give birth to her final child?
5723b340f6b826140030fc82
1857
210
False
What was the name of Victoria's final child?
5723b340f6b826140030fc83
Beatrice
258
False
Hysteria and loss of control after the birts of many of her children were likely caused by what?
5723b340f6b826140030fc84
post-natal depression
457
False
When did Victoria give birth to her eigth child?
5724125f0ba9f01400d97b5f
1853
3
False
What was the name of Victorias eighth child?
5724125f0ba9f01400d97b60
Leopold
50
False
What was the name of the new anesthetic used during leopolds birth?
5724125f0ba9f01400d97b61
chloroform.
96
False
What year was victorias final child born?
5724125f0ba9f01400d97b62
1857
210
False
What was the name of Victorias final child?
5724125f0ba9f01400d97b63
Beatrice
258
False
Who was Victoria's eighth child?
5724d4c80ba9f01400d97b87
Leopold
50
False
What was the new anastethetic Victoria used in her last two childbirths?
5724d4c80ba9f01400d97b88
chloroform
96
False
When was Victoria's final child, Beatrice, born?
5724d4c80ba9f01400d97b89
1857
210
False
Why did members of the clergy oppose the use of chloroform?
5724d4c80ba9f01400d97b8a
considered it against biblical teaching
319
False
What did Albert complain about in letters to Victoria after the birth of her children?
5724d4c80ba9f01400d97b8b
loss of self-control
573
False
What was the name of Victoria's eigth child?
57257d8e69ff041400e58e08
Leopold
50
False
What was a new anaesthetic being used for childbirth in Victoria's time?
57257d8e69ff041400e58e09
chloroform
96
False
What was the name of Victoria's ninth child?
57257d8e69ff041400e58e0a
Beatrice
258
False
Why did members of the clergy oppose the use of chloroform for childbirth?
57257d8e69ff041400e58e0b
considered it against biblical teaching
319
False
After nine pregnancies, what could Victoria have been suffering from that would make her sad and depressed?
57257d8e69ff041400e58e0c
post-natal depression
457
False
Leopold
50
Who was Victoria's 18th child?
5ad1746b645df0001a2d1c7a
True
chloroform
96
What anaesthetic helped her give birth to her 18th child?
5ad1746b645df0001a2d1c7b
True
post-natal depression
457
What did Victoria not suffer from after he pregnancies?
5ad1746b645df0001a2d1c7c
True
thought it dangerous
403
Why did medical professionals advise using an anaesthetic during childbirth?
5ad1746b645df0001a2d1c7d
True
her "continuance of hysterics" over a "miserable trifle".
692
What did Albert not complain about Victoria?
5ad1746b645df0001a2d1c7e
True
In 1853, Victoria gave birth to her eighth child, Leopold, with the aid of the new anaesthetic, chloroform. Victoria was so impressed by the relief it gave from the pain of childbirth that she used it again in 1857 at the birth of her ninth and final child, Beatrice, despite opposition from members of the clergy, who considered it against biblical teaching, and members of the medical profession, who thought it dangerous. Victoria may have suffered from post-natal depression after many of her pregnancies. Letters from Albert to Victoria intermittently complain of her loss of self-control. For example, about a month after Leopold's birth Albert complained in a letter to Victoria about her "continuance of hysterics" over a "miserable trifle".
During which year did Victoria's mother die?
5722ccb20dadf01500fa1ef3
1861
9
False
How did Victoria realize that her mother deeply loved her?
5722ccb20dadf01500fa1ef4
Through reading her mother's papers
66
False
What was Albert ill with?
5722ccb20dadf01500fa1ef5
chronic stomach trouble
380
False
What was Prince of Wales attending to in Dublin?
5722ccb20dadf01500fa1ef6
army manoeuvres
494
False
What did Victoria blame Albert's death on?
5722ccb20dadf01500fa1ef7
Prince of Wales's philandering
964
False
What year did Victoria's mother die?
5723d010f6b826140030fc8a
1861
9
False
Who did Victoria blame for her poor relationship with her mother?
5723d010f6b826140030fc8b
Conroy and Lehzen
194
False
Who took on most of Victoria's duties while she grieved her mothers death?
5723d010f6b826140030fc8c
Albert
314
False
What illness was Albert suffering from while he helped Victoria through her grief?
5723d010f6b826140030fc8d
chronic stomach trouble
380
False
What year did Albert die?
5723d010f6b826140030fc8e
1861
884
False
When did Victoria's mother die?
5724d5ba0a492a1900435636
March 1861
3
False
What disease was Albert diagnosed with?
5724d5ba0a492a1900435637
typhoid fever
827
False
When did Albert die of his illness?
5724d5ba0a492a1900435638
14 December 1861
872
False
What was Victoria's nickname following Alberts death?
5724d5ba0a492a1900435639
widow of Windsor
1257
False
Who was the Prince of Wales suspected to be having an affair with?
5724d5ba0a492a190043563a
an actress in Ireland
642
False
When did the Duchess die?
57257e8fcc50291900b28535
1861
9
False
Who did Victoria blame for the problems between herself and the Duchess?
57257e8fcc50291900b28536
Conroy and Lehzen
194
False
What caused Prince Albert's death?
57257e8fcc50291900b28537
typhoid fever
827
False
Who did Victoria blame for Prince Albert's death?
57257e8fcc50291900b28538
their son, the Prince of Wales
444
False
What gossip did Prince Albert hear about their son?
57257e8fcc50291900b28539
had slept with an actress in Ireland
627
False
1861
9
During which year did Victoria's mother live?
5ad176e7645df0001a2d1d20
True
Through reading her mother's papers
66
How did Victoria realize that her mother slightly loved her?
5ad176e7645df0001a2d1d21
True
chronic stomach trouble
380
What wasn't Albert ill with?
5ad176e7645df0001a2d1d22
True
Prince of Wales's philandering
964
What wasn't Princess of Wales attending to in Dublin?
5ad176e7645df0001a2d1d23
True
Prince of Wales's philandering
964
What didn't Victoria blame Albert's death on?
5ad176e7645df0001a2d1d24
True
In March 1861, Victoria's mother died, with Victoria at her side. Through reading her mother's papers, Victoria discovered that her mother had loved her deeply; she was heart-broken, and blamed Conroy and Lehzen for "wickedly" estranging her from her mother. To relieve his wife during her intense and deep grief, Albert took on most of her duties, despite being ill himself with chronic stomach trouble. In August, Victoria and Albert visited their son, the Prince of Wales, who was attending army manoeuvres near Dublin, and spent a few days holidaying in Killarney. In November, Albert was made aware of gossip that his son had slept with an actress in Ireland. Appalled, Albert travelled to Cambridge, where his son was studying, to confront him. By the beginning of December, Albert was very unwell. He was diagnosed with typhoid fever by William Jenner, and died on 14 December 1861. Victoria was devastated. She blamed her husband's death on worry over the Prince of Wales's philandering. He had been "killed by that dreadful business", she said. She entered a state of mourning and wore black for the remainder of her life. She avoided public appearances, and rarely set foot in London in the following years. Her seclusion earned her the nickname "widow of Windsor".
Who shot at the queen?
5722cd5df6b826140030fc44
Roderick Maclean
17
False
When was the shooting?
5722cd5df6b826140030fc45
2 March 1882
3
False
What was Maclean's occupation?
5722cd5df6b826140030fc46
poet
49
False
Which college were to two boys attending?
5722cd5df6b826140030fc47
Eton College
208
False
With what did the college boy's hit the shooter with?
5722cd5df6b826140030fc48
umbrellas
243
False
Who shot Queen Victoria?
5723d1300dadf01500fa1f3b
Roderick Maclean
17
False
What year was the Queen shot?
5723d1300dadf01500fa1f3c
1882
11
False
Who stopped Maclean after he shot the Queen?
5723d1300dadf01500fa1f3d
Two schoolboys from Eton College
188
False
How did the schoolboys stop Maclean?
5723d1300dadf01500fa1f3e
struck him with their umbrellas
221
False
What did the court determine was the fate for Maclean after shooting the Queen?
5723d1300dadf01500fa1f3f
not guilty by reason of insanity
336
False
What disgruntled poet shot at Victoria's carriage on March 2, 1882?
5724d6a60ba9f01400d97b91
Roderick Maclean
17
False
What school did the boys who defended the Queen with umbrellas attend?
5724d6a60ba9f01400d97b92
Eton College
208
False
What was the verdict in Roderick Maclean's trial?
5724d6a60ba9f01400d97b93
he was found not guilty by reason of insanity
323
False
What provoked the attack on Queen Victoria as she left Windsor?
5724d6a60ba9f01400d97b94
offended by Victoria's refusal to accept one of his poems
65
False
What was Victoria's reaction to the verdict?
57256b48cc50291900b283c0
outraged
309
False
Who attempted to assassinate the Queen?
57257f9969ff041400e58e12
Roderick Maclean
17
False
What was the verdict in Maclean's trial?
57257f9969ff041400e58e13
not guilty by reason of insanity
336
False
What position did Victoria take on being shot at?
57257f9969ff041400e58e14
"worth being shot at—to see how much one is loved"
462
False
When did Maclean attempt to shoot Victoria?
57257f9969ff041400e58e15
2 March 1882
3
False
Why did Maclean shoot at Victoria?
57257f9969ff041400e58e16
refusal to accept one of his poems
88
False
Roderick Maclean
17
Who never shot at the queen?
5ad17b65645df0001a2d1dee
True
2 March 1882
3
When wasn't the shooting?
5ad17b65645df0001a2d1def
True
poet
49
What wasn't Maclean's occupation?
5ad17b65645df0001a2d1df0
True
Eton College
208
Which college were to two girls attending?
5ad17b65645df0001a2d1df1
True
umbrellas
243
With what didn't the college boy's hit the shooter with?
5ad17b65645df0001a2d1df2
True
On 2 March 1882, Roderick Maclean, a disgruntled poet apparently offended by Victoria's refusal to accept one of his poems, shot at the Queen as her carriage left Windsor railway station. Two schoolboys from Eton College struck him with their umbrellas, until he was hustled away by a policeman. Victoria was outraged when he was found not guilty by reason of insanity, but was so pleased by the many expressions of loyalty after the attack that she said it was "worth being shot at—to see how much one is loved".
What year did Gladstone return to power?
5722cddcf6b826140030fc4e
1892
38
False
How old was Gladstone in 1892?
5722cddcf6b826140030fc4f
82
68
False
What year did Gladstone retire?
5722cddcf6b826140030fc50
1894
226
False
What position did Victoria appoint Lord Rosebery?
5722cddcf6b826140030fc51
prime minister
339
False
What year did Gadstone return to power?
5723d221f6b826140030fc94
1892
38
False
How old was Gladstone when he returned to power?
5723d221f6b826140030fc95
82 years old
68
False
What year did Gladstone retire?
5723d221f6b826140030fc96
1894
226
False
Who did Victoria appoint to replace Gladstone?
5723d221f6b826140030fc97
Lord Rosebery
322
False
Who replaced Lord Rosebery the year following his appointment?
5723d221f6b826140030fc98
Lord Salisbury
403
False
How old was Gladstone after the general election in 1892?
5724d7b50a492a1900435640
82 years old
68
False
What radical MP did Victoria object to being appointed to the cabinet by Gladstone?
5724d7b50a492a1900435641
Henry Labouchere
150
False
Who did Victoria appoint to Prime Minister after Gladstone retired in 1894?
5724d7b50a492a1900435642
Lord Rosebery
322
False
Who replaced Lord Rosenbery after only a year of government?
5724d7b50a492a1900435643
Lord Salisbury
403
False
How long did Lord Salisbury remain as Prime Minister?
5724d7b50a492a1900435644
for the remainder of Victoria's reign
466
False
Who was returned to power in 1892?
57258041cc50291900b2853f
Gladstone
0
False
Who did Victoria appoint as Gladstone's succesor?
57258041cc50291900b28540
Lord Rosebery
322
False
How did Lord Roseberry fare as Prime Minister?
57258041cc50291900b28541
His government was weak
355
False
Who replaced Lord Roseberry as Prime Minister?
57258041cc50291900b28542
Lord Salisbury
403
False
How long was Lord Sailsbury Prime Minister?
57258041cc50291900b28543
the remainder of Victoria's reign
470
False
1892
38
What year did Gladstone first get to power?
5ad17d5e645df0001a2d1e1c
True
82
68
How old was Gladstone in 1829?
5ad17d5e645df0001a2d1e1d
True
1894
226
What year didn't Gladstone retire?
5ad17d5e645df0001a2d1e1e
True
prime minister
339
What position didn't Victoria appoint Lord Rosebery?
5ad17d5e645df0001a2d1e1f
True
Gladstone returned to power after the 1892 general election; he was 82 years old. Victoria objected when Gladstone proposed appointing the Radical MP Henry Labouchere to the Cabinet, so Gladstone agreed not to appoint him. In 1894, Gladstone retired and, without consulting the outgoing prime minister, Victoria appointed Lord Rosebery as prime minister. His government was weak, and the following year Lord Salisbury replaced him. Salisbury remained prime minister for the remainder of Victoria's reign.
Which two people helped lift Victoria's body into the coffin?
5722cec2f6b826140030fc56
Edward VII, the Kaiser and Prince Arthur, Duke of Connaught
188
False
What item from her wedding was Victoria dressed in inside her coffin?
5722cec2f6b826140030fc57
wedding veil
328
False
What color was her dress?
5722cec2f6b826140030fc58
white
308
False
Who's dressing gown was placed by her side?
5722cec2f6b826140030fc59
Albert's
504
False
What year did Queen Victoria die?
5723d384f6b826140030fc9e
1897
3
False
What clothing was Queen Victoria laid to rest in?
5723d384f6b826140030fc9f
a white dress and her wedding veil
306
False
A plaster cast of what part of Alberts body was placed in the coffin with the Queen?
5723d384f6b826140030fca0
his hand
575
False
What was placed in the Queens left hand when she was placed in her coffin?
5723d384f6b826140030fca1
a lock of John Brown's hair
591
False
Where was the funeral of Queen Victoria held?
5723d384f6b826140030fca2
St George's Chapel, Windsor Castle
927
False
What did Victoria wear upon her death in her coffin?
5724e0140a492a190043564a
She was dressed in a white dress and her wedding veil
287
False
Whose lock of hair was concealed in her left hand by flowers?
5724e0140a492a190043564b
John Brown
601
False
When did John Brown give Victoria his mother's wedding ring?
5724e0140a492a190043564c
1883
872
False
When was Queen Victoria's funeral held?
5724e0140a492a190043564d
Saturday, 2 February
902
False
Where was Queen Victoria laid to rest after her death?
5724e0140a492a190043564e
Frogmore Mausoleum at Windsor Great Park
1042
False
Where was Victoria laid to rest?
5725817a69ff041400e58e1c
Frogmore Mausoleum at Windsor Great Park
1042
False
When was Queen Victoria's funeral held?
5725817a69ff041400e58e1d
2 February
912
False
What was hidden in Queen Victoria's hand by her father's family?
5725817a69ff041400e58e1e
a lock of John Brown's hair, along with a picture of him
591
False
How was Victoria dressed for burial?
5725817a69ff041400e58e1f
a white dress and her wedding veil
306
False
Who placed Victoria into her coffin?
5725817a69ff041400e58e20
Edward VII, the Kaiser and Prince Arthur, Duke of Connaught
188
False
Edward VII, the Kaiser and Prince Arthur, Duke of Connaught
188
Which three people helped lift Victoria's body into the coffin?
5ad17ec0645df0001a2d1e40
True
wedding veil
328
What item from her wedding was Victoria not dressed in inside her coffin?
5ad17ec0645df0001a2d1e41
True
white
308
What color wasn't her dress?
5ad17ec0645df0001a2d1e42
True
Albert's
504
Who's dressing gown was placed outside?
5ad17ec0645df0001a2d1e43
True
1897
3
What year didn't Queen Victoria die?
5ad17ec0645df0001a2d1e44
True
In 1897, Victoria had written instructions for her funeral, which was to be military as befitting a soldier's daughter and the head of the army, and white instead of black. On 25 January, Edward VII, the Kaiser and Prince Arthur, Duke of Connaught, helped lift her body into the coffin. She was dressed in a white dress and her wedding veil. An array of mementos commemorating her extended family, friends and servants were laid in the coffin with her, at her request, by her doctor and dressers. One of Albert's dressing gowns was placed by her side, with a plaster cast of his hand, while a lock of John Brown's hair, along with a picture of him, was placed in her left hand concealed from the view of the family by a carefully positioned bunch of flowers. Items of jewellery placed on Victoria included the wedding ring of John Brown's mother, given to her by Brown in 1883. Her funeral was held on Saturday, 2 February, in St George's Chapel, Windsor Castle, and after two days of lying-in-state, she was interred beside Prince Albert in Frogmore Mausoleum at Windsor Great Park. As she was laid to rest at the mausoleum, it began to snow.
Who was considered Victoria's best and kindest advisor?
5722cf8e0dadf01500fa1efd
uncle Leopold
22
False
Who did Victoria describe as sensible, kind, and amiable?
5722cf8e0dadf01500fa1efe
Albert
199
False
Who introduced Albert to Victoria?
5722cf8e0dadf01500fa1eff
uncle Leopold
22
False
What Uncle was Victoria's favorite adviser?
5723d4e2f6b826140030fca8
Leopold
28
False
How old was Victoria when she met Albert?
5723d4e2f6b826140030fca9
17
456
False
Who introduced Victoria and Albert?
5723d4e2f6b826140030fcaa
her uncle Leopold
18
False
What qualities did Victoria believe Albert posessed when she met him?
5723d4e2f6b826140030fcab
every quality that could be desired to render me perfectly happy
223
False
Whom did Queen Victoria consider her "best and kindest adviser"?
5724e1520ba9f01400d97b99
uncle Leopold
22
False
Who was Victoria not ready to marry at age 17?
5724e1520ba9f01400d97b9a
Albert
491
False
What was Victoria's opinion of Albert's appearance?
5724e1520ba9f01400d97b9b
the most pleasing and delightful exterior
365
False
Who did Victoria credit for her relationship to Albert?
57258350cc50291900b28549
her uncle Leopold
18
False
What did Victoria think of Albert at 17 years of age?
57258350cc50291900b2854a
He possesses every quality that could be desired to render me perfectly happy
210
False
What were Albert's best qualities?
57258350cc50291900b2854b
sensible, so kind, and so good, and so amiable
298
False
How did Victoria find Albert's looks?
57258350cc50291900b2854c
most pleasing and delightful exterior and appearance
369
False
How old was Victoria when she was introduced to Albert?
57258350cc50291900b2854d
17
456
False
uncle Leopold
22
Who was considered Victoria's worst and kindest advisor?
5ad16dd6645df0001a2d1af2
True
Albert
199
Who did Victoria describe as unsensible, mean, and amiable?
5ad16dd6645df0001a2d1af3
True
uncle Leopold
22
Who never introduced Albert to Victoria?
5ad16dd6645df0001a2d1af4
True
Leopold
28
What Aunt was Victoria's favorite adviser?
5ad16dd6645df0001a2d1af5
True
17
456
How old was Victoria when she last met Albert?
5ad16dd6645df0001a2d1af6
True
Victoria wrote to her uncle Leopold, whom Victoria considered her "best and kindest adviser", to thank him "for the prospect of great happiness you have contributed to give me, in the person of dear Albert ... He possesses every quality that could be desired to render me perfectly happy. He is so sensible, so kind, and so good, and so amiable too. He has besides the most pleasing and delightful exterior and appearance you can possibly see." However at 17, Victoria, though interested in Albert, was not yet ready to marry. The parties did not undertake a formal engagement, but assumed that the match would take place in due time.
What did the Queen commission Sir Robert Peel to do?
5722d0bdf6b826140030fc5e
to form a new ministry
322
False
In what year did Melbourne resign?
5722d0bdf6b826140030fc5f
1839
3
False
Which party was Sir Robert Peel a part of?
5722d0bdf6b826140030fc60
Tory
299
False
What is the name of crisis where the wives of the Tories were replacing the wives of the Whigs?
5722d0bdf6b826140030fc61
bedchamber crisis
649
False
What year did Melbourne resign?
5723d6630dadf01500fa1f45
1839
3
False
Who voted against the bill to end the constitution of Jamaica?
5723d6630dadf01500fa1f46
Radicals and Tories
34
False
Who did the Queen commission to form a new ministry?
5723d6630dadf01500fa1f47
Sir Robert Peel
305
False
Who returned to office after Peel resigned?
5723d6630dadf01500fa1f48
Melbourne
846
False
The removal of the Queens bedchamber ladies became known as what?
5723d6630dadf01500fa1f49
the bedchamber crisis
645
False
Who resigned their position in 1839?
5724e3020a492a1900435654
Melbourne
9
False
Why did the Radicals and Tories oppose the bill about the constitution of Jamaica?
5724e3020a492a1900435655
The bill removed political power from plantation owners who were resisting measures associated with the abolition of slavery.
148
False
What Tory did Victoria commision after Melbourne resigned his postion?
5724e3020a492a1900435656
Sir Robert Peel
305
False
After Queen Victoria refuse to replace her ladies with wives of Tories, what did Sir Robert Peel do?
5724e3020a492a1900435657
resigned his commission
812
False
Who did Victoria reappoint to the position after the Bedchamber Crisis?
5724e3020a492a1900435658
Melbourne
846
False
What did the Radicals and Tories do that made Melbourne resign?
57262ed2271a42140099d717
voted against a bill to suspend the constitution of Jamaica
87
False
Which group was resisting the abolisment of slavery and were subsequently removed from power when the bill was voted down?
57262ed2271a42140099d718
plantation owners
186
False
Who did Robert Peel want to replace the ladies of the bedchamber with, instead of wives of Whigs?
57262ed2271a42140099d719
wives of Tories
604
False
Why did Peel resign his comission?
57262ed2271a42140099d71a
Peel refused to govern under the restrictions imposed by the Queen
727
False
Who returned to office after Peel resigned?
57262ed2271a42140099d71b
Melbourne
846
False
to form a new ministry
322
What did the King commission Sir Robert Peel to do?
5ad17030645df0001a2d1b66
True
1839
3
In what year did Melbourne get hired?
5ad17030645df0001a2d1b67
True
Tory
299
Which party wasn't Sir Robert Peel a part of?
5ad17030645df0001a2d1b68
True
bedchamber crisis
649
What is the name of crisis where the husbands of the Tories were replacing the wives of the Whigs?
5ad17030645df0001a2d1b69
True
Radicals and Tories
34
Who voted for the bill to end the constitution of Jamaica?
5ad17030645df0001a2d1b6a
True
In 1839, Melbourne resigned after Radicals and Tories (both of whom Victoria detested) voted against a bill to suspend the constitution of Jamaica. The bill removed political power from plantation owners who were resisting measures associated with the abolition of slavery. The Queen commissioned a Tory, Sir Robert Peel, to form a new ministry. At the time, it was customary for the prime minister to appoint members of the Royal Household, who were usually his political allies and their spouses. Many of the Queen's ladies of the bedchamber were wives of Whigs, and Peel expected to replace them with wives of Tories. In what became known as the bedchamber crisis, Victoria, advised by Melbourne, objected to their removal. Peel refused to govern under the restrictions imposed by the Queen, and consequently resigned his commission, allowing Melbourne to return to office.
Which two countries was Victoria trying to improve relations between?
5722d1770dadf01500fa1f03
France and Britain
87
False
How was the House of Orleans and the British Royal family related?
5722d1770dadf01500fa1f04
by marriage through the Coburgs
218
False
Who did Victoria stay with in Normandy?
5722d1770dadf01500fa1f05
King Louis Philippe I
296
False
What year did Louis Philippe visit England?
5722d1770dadf01500fa1f06
1844
570
False
What year did Victoria first visit Ireland?
5722d1770dadf01500fa1f07
1849
1145
False
What two countries did Victoria take a large interest in improving relations between?
5723dd7f0dadf01500fa1f4f
France and Britain
87
False
Queen Victoria set up meetings between The Britian royal family and what house to help improve relations between Britain and France?
5723dd7f0dadf01500fa1f50
House of Orleans
183
False
What was the name of the King of Normandy that Victoria and Albert stayed with in 1843 and 1845?
5723dd7f0dadf01500fa1f51
King Louis Philippe I
296
False
Who was the first French King to visit Queen Victoria?
5723dd7f0dadf01500fa1f52
Louis Philippe
529
False
What year was Victorias first visit to Ireland?
5723dd7f0dadf01500fa1f53
1849
1145
False
Who was the first French king to visit Queen Victoria?
5724e4370ba9f01400d97b9f
Louis Philippe
529
False
What happened to Louis Philippe after the revolution in France?
5724e4370ba9f01400d97ba0
fled to exile in England
697
False
Where did Victoria and her family retreat to safety during a conflict in 1848?
5724e4370ba9f01400d97ba1
Osborne House
861
False
What nation was visited for the first time by Victoria in 1849?
5724e4370ba9f01400d97ba2
Ireland
1134
False
What French family did Victoria try to foster relations with?
5724e4370ba9f01400d97ba3
House of Orleans
183
False
What was one of Victoria's major concerns?
572632a1ec44d21400f3dc25
improvement of relations between France and Britain
54
False
When was Louis Phillipe deposed?
572632a1ec44d21400f3dc26
1848
687
False
Where did Victoria and her family go to for safety during the revolutionary scare of April 1848?
572632a1ec44d21400f3dc27
Osborne House, a private estate on the Isle of Wight
861
False
When was Osborne house purchased?
572632a1ec44d21400f3dc28
1845
941
False
Which groups were demonstrating and trying to bring about a revolution before, ultimately, failing?
572632a1ec44d21400f3dc29
Chartists and Irish nationalists
981
False
France and Britain
87
Which three countries was Victoria trying to improve relations between?
5ad1736a645df0001a2d1c38
True
by marriage through the Coburgs
218
How was the House of Orleans and the British Royal family unrelated?
5ad1736a645df0001a2d1c39
True
King Louis Philippe I
296
Who didn't Victoria stay with in Normandy?
5ad1736a645df0001a2d1c3a
True
1844
570
What year did Louis Philippe leave England?
5ad1736a645df0001a2d1c3b
True
1849
1145
What year did Victoria first shun Ireland?
5ad1736a645df0001a2d1c3c
True
Internationally, Victoria took a keen interest in the improvement of relations between France and Britain. She made and hosted several visits between the British royal family and the House of Orleans, who were related by marriage through the Coburgs. In 1843 and 1845, she and Albert stayed with King Louis Philippe I at château d'Eu in Normandy; she was the first British or English monarch to visit a French one since the meeting of Henry VIII of England and Francis I of France on the Field of the Cloth of Gold in 1520. When Louis Philippe made a reciprocal trip in 1844, he became the first French king to visit a British sovereign. Louis Philippe was deposed in the revolutions of 1848, and fled to exile in England. At the height of a revolutionary scare in the United Kingdom in April 1848, Victoria and her family left London for the greater safety of Osborne House, a private estate on the Isle of Wight that they had purchased in 1845 and redeveloped. Demonstrations by Chartists and Irish nationalists failed to attract widespread support, and the scare died down without any major disturbances. Victoria's first visit to Ireland in 1849 was a public relations success, but it had no lasting impact or effect on the growth of Irish nationalism.
Where was Orsini from?
5722d2050dadf01500fa1f0d
Britain
44
False
Who did Orsini try to assassinate?
5722d2050dadf01500fa1f0e
Napoleon III
91
False
What position did Derby hold?
5722d2050dadf01500fa1f0f
prime minister
241
False
What happened in June 1859?
5722d2050dadf01500fa1f10
Victoria recalled Palmerston to office
656
False
What was the date of an attempted assasination on Napoleon?
5723df250dadf01500fa1f59
14 January 1858
3
False
What was the name of the person that attempted to assasinate Napoleon?
5723df250dadf01500fa1f5a
Orsini
59
False
Where was the bomb that Orsini used to attempt to assasinate Napoleon made?
5723df250dadf01500fa1f5b
England
124
False
Who resigned due to the attempt on Napoleons life?
5723df250dadf01500fa1f5c
Palmerston
196
False
What was the name of the French military port that opened on 5 August 1858?
5723df250dadf01500fa1f5d
port of Cherbourg
336
False
Who survived an assasination attempt by the Italian refugee Orsini in 1858?
5724e5bd0ba9f01400d97ba9
Napoleon III
91
False
Who resigned their position following the scandal due to Orsini's bomb being made in England?
5724e5bd0ba9f01400d97baa
Palmerston
196
False
What new military port in France did Victoria and Albert visit after the crisis in 1858?
5724e5bd0ba9f01400d97bab
Cherbourg
344
False
Why did Victoria repremend Derby following her visit with Napolean III?
5724e5bd0ba9f01400d97bac
the poor state of the Royal Navy in comparison to the French one
537
False
Who did Victoria recall to office following her disappointment with Derby in June of 1859?
5724e5bd0ba9f01400d97bad
Palmerston
674
False
Who attempted to assassinate Napoleon?
57263383271a42140099d745
an Italian refugee from Britain called Orsini
20
False
When did Orsinin attempt to assassinate Napoleon?
57263383271a42140099d746
14 January 1858
3
False
How did Orsini try to assassinate Napoleon?
57263383271a42140099d747
a bomb
109
False
When did Victoria ask Palmerston to resume his office?
57263383271a42140099d748
June 1859
646
False
Where did Victoria visit that led her to reprimand Derby for the state of the Royal Navy?
57263383271a42140099d749
French military port of Cherbourg
320
False
Britain
44
Where wasn't Orsini from?
5ad1757b645df0001a2d1cc0
True
Napoleon III
91
Who did Orsini try not to assassinate?
5ad1757b645df0001a2d1cc1
True
prime minister
241
What position didn't Derby hold?
5ad1757b645df0001a2d1cc2
True
Victoria recalled Palmerston to office
656
What happened in June 1895?
5ad1757b645df0001a2d1cc3
True
14 January 1858
3
What was the date of an assasination on Napoleon?
5ad1757b645df0001a2d1cc4
True
On 14 January 1858, an Italian refugee from Britain called Orsini attempted to assassinate Napoleon III with a bomb made in England. The ensuing diplomatic crisis destabilised the government, and Palmerston resigned. Derby was reinstated as prime minister. Victoria and Albert attended the opening of a new basin at the French military port of Cherbourg on 5 August 1858, in an attempt by Napoleon III to reassure Britain that his military preparations were directed elsewhere. On her return Victoria wrote to Derby reprimanding him for the poor state of the Royal Navy in comparison to the French one. Derby's ministry did not last long, and in June 1859 Victoria recalled Palmerston to office.
Who died in 1865?
5722d2bb0dadf01500fa1f15
Palmerston
0
False
Who resigned in 1868?
5722d2bb0dadf01500fa1f16
Derby
393
False
How long was Disraeli in office?
5722d2bb0dadf01500fa1f17
matter of months
671
False
Who was Disraeli's rival?
5722d2bb0dadf01500fa1f18
William Ewart Gladstone
735
False
What political view did Gladstone hold?
5722d2bb0dadf01500fa1f19
Liberal
720
False
What year did Palmerston die?
5723e05c0dadf01500fa1f63
1865
19
False
Who let the ministry for a very short time after the death of Palmerston?
5723e05c0dadf01500fa1f64
Russell
59
False
Who returned to power after Russels brief rule of the ministry?
5723e05c0dadf01500fa1f65
Derby
68
False
Following Alberts death, what was the first year that Victoria attended the State opening of Parliment?
5723e05c0dadf01500fa1f66
1866
96
False
Who replaced Derby after his resignation?
5723e05c0dadf01500fa1f67
Benjamin Disraeli
435
False
What year did Pamerston die?
5724e70a0ba9f01400d97bb3
1865
19
False
What event did Victoria attend in 1866 for the first time following Albert's death?
5724e70a0ba9f01400d97bb4
State Opening of Parliament
124
False
What Act by Victoria granted the ability to vote to working men, but not women?
5724e70a0ba9f01400d97bb5
Reform Act 1867
245
False
Who replaced Derby when he resigned in 1868?
5724e70a0ba9f01400d97bb6
Benjamin Disraeli
435
False
What Liberal replaced Disraeli after only a few short months in office?
5724e70a0ba9f01400d97bb7
William Ewart Gladstone
735
False
When did Palmerston die?
5726341a271a42140099d74f
1865
19
False
Who was ultimately returned to office after Palmerston's death?
5726341a271a42140099d750
Derby
393
False
When did Derby resign?
5726341a271a42140099d751
1868
411
False
Who was Derby's replacement?
5726341a271a42140099d752
Benjamin Disraeli
435
False
How long did Disralei last in office?
5726341a271a42140099d753
only lasted a matter of months
657
False
Palmerston
0
Who died in 1856?
5ad178d7645df0001a2d1d84
True
Derby
68
Who resigned in 1886?
5ad178d7645df0001a2d1d85
True
matter of months
671
How long was Disraeli not in office?
5ad178d7645df0001a2d1d86
True
William Ewart Gladstone,
735
Who wasn't Disraeli's rival?
5ad178d7645df0001a2d1d87
True
Liberal
720
What political view didn't Gladstone hold?
5ad178d7645df0001a2d1d88
True
Palmerston died in 1865, and after a brief ministry led by Russell, Derby returned to power. In 1866, Victoria attended the State Opening of Parliament for the first time since Albert's death. The following year she supported the passing of the Reform Act 1867 which doubled the electorate by extending the franchise to many urban working men, though she was not in favour of votes for women. Derby resigned in 1868, to be replaced by Benjamin Disraeli, who charmed Victoria. "Everyone likes flattery," he said, "and when you come to royalty you should lay it on with a trowel." With the phrase "we authors, Ma'am", he complimented her. Disraeli's ministry only lasted a matter of months, and at the end of the year his Liberal rival, William Ewart Gladstone, was appointed prime minister. Victoria found Gladstone's demeanour far less appealing; he spoke to her, she is thought to have complained, as though she were "a public meeting rather than a woman".
How many kings and princes were invited to the Golden Jubilee?
5722d357f6b826140030fc66
50
159
False
What year anniversary does the Golden Jubilee celebrate?
5722d357f6b826140030fc67
fiftieth anniversary
86
False
Who accused Karim of spying?
5722d357f6b826140030fc68
Her family and retainers
542
False
What was Munshi lying about?
5722d357f6b826140030fc69
his parentage
783
False
What year was Victoria's Golden Jubilee held?
5723e1e80dadf01500fa1f6d
1887
3
False
What was the name of the waited that was promoted to Munshi?
5723e1e80dadf01500fa1f6e
Abdul Karim
447
False
Whio was Equerry Frederick Ponsonby's father?
5723e1e80dadf01500fa1f6f
Sir Henry
730
False
Who discovered that Victoria's new Munshi lied about his parentage?
5723e1e80dadf01500fa1f70
Equerry Frederick Ponsonby
691
False
Who did Ponsonby report the Munshis lies about his parentage to?
5723e1e80dadf01500fa1f71
Lord Elgin, Viceroy of India
814
False
When was Queen Victoria's Golden Jubilee?
5724e8960ba9f01400d97bbd
1887
3
False
What was Abdul Karim teaching Queen Victoria after his promotion?
5724e8960ba9f01400d97bbe
Hindustani
507
False
Who was Karim accused of spying for by Victoria's family?
5724e8960ba9f01400d97bbf
Muslim Patriotic League
624
False
Who discovered that Karim had lied about his parentage to Victoria?
5724e8960ba9f01400d97bc0
Equerry Frederick Ponsonby
691
False
What day did Queen Victoria celebrate her Golden Jubilee at a dinner with kings and queens from other nations?
5724e8960ba9f01400d97bc1
20 June
127
False
When was Victoria's Golden Jubilee?
572635ccec44d21400f3dc3f
1887
3
False
What is the point of the Golden Jubilee?
572635ccec44d21400f3dc40
the fiftieth anniversary of her accession
82
False
Who was promoted from waiter to Munshi?
572635ccec44d21400f3dc41
Abdul Karim
594
False
Why did Victoria's family disapprove of Abdul Karim?
572635ccec44d21400f3dc42
spying for the Muslim Patriotic League, and biasing the Queen against the Hindus
609
False
How long was Karim in the Queen's employment?
572635ccec44d21400f3dc43
until he returned to India with a pension on her death
1013
False
50
159
How many kings and princes weren't invited to the Golden Jubilee?
5ad17cf2645df0001a2d1e12
True
fiftieth anniversary
86
What year anniversary does the Silver Jubilee celebrate?
5ad17cf2645df0001a2d1e13
True
Her family and retainers
542
Who accused Karim of not spying?
5ad17cf2645df0001a2d1e14
True
his parentage
783
What wasn't Munshi lying about?
5ad17cf2645df0001a2d1e15
True
1887
3
What year was Victoria's Silver Jubilee held?
5ad17cf2645df0001a2d1e16
True
In 1887, the British Empire celebrated Victoria's Golden Jubilee. Victoria marked the fiftieth anniversary of her accession on 20 June with a banquet to which 50 kings and princes were invited. The following day, she participated in a procession and attended a thanksgiving service in Westminster Abbey. By this time, Victoria was once again extremely popular. Two days later on 23 June, she engaged two Indian Muslims as waiters, one of whom was Abdul Karim. He was soon promoted to "Munshi": teaching her Hindustani, and acting as a clerk. Her family and retainers were appalled, and accused Abdul Karim of spying for the Muslim Patriotic League, and biasing the Queen against the Hindus. Equerry Frederick Ponsonby (the son of Sir Henry) discovered that the Munshi had lied about his parentage, and reported to Lord Elgin, Viceroy of India, "the Munshi occupies very much the same position as John Brown used to do." Victoria dismissed their complaints as racial prejudice. Abdul Karim remained in her service until he returned to India with a pension on her death.
Who was the first reigning monarch from Britain to set foot in Spain?
5723e3290dadf01500fa1f77
Victoria
0
False
What year did Queen Victoria first set foot in Spain?
5723e3290dadf01500fa1f78
1889
60
False
What year did Victoria stop her annual visits to Spain due to the Boer war?
5723e3290dadf01500fa1f79
1900
221
False
Where did Victoria visit instead of Spain during the Boer war?
5723e3290dadf01500fa1f7a
Ireland
354
False
What year did Victoria's second son Alfred die?
5723e3290dadf01500fa1f7b
1900
221
False
Where did Victoria stay in Spain in 1889?
5724e9730a492a190043565e
Biarritz
83
False
What war prevented Queen Victoria from taking her annual trip to France in 1900?
5724e9730a492a190043565f
Boer War
231
False
What country did Victoria visit instead of France during the Boer War?
5724e9730a492a1900435660
Ireland
354
False
Which of Queen Victoria's children died in July of that year?
5724e9730a492a1900435661
her second son Alfred
487
False
Where did Victoria often go for holiday?
5726376e89a1e219009ac57e
mainland Europe
17
False
In 1889, what was Victoria the first reining monarch from Britian to do?
5726376e89a1e219009ac57f
set foot in Spain
147
False
Why did Victoria visit Ireland in 1861?
5726376e89a1e219009ac580
acknowledge the contribution of Irish regiments to the South African war
404
False
Why was Victoria advised not to visit France in April of 1900?
5726376e89a1e219009ac581
the Boer War
227
False
What tragedy did Victoria face in July of 1900?
5726376e89a1e219009ac582
her second son Alfred ("Affie") died
487
False
Victoria
0
Who was the last reigning monarch from Britain to set foot in Spain?
5ad17de4645df0001a2d1e24
True
1889
60
What year did Queen Victoria last set foot in Spain?
5ad17de4645df0001a2d1e25
True
1900
221
What year did Victoria start her annual visits to Spain due to the Boer war?
5ad17de4645df0001a2d1e26
True
Ireland
354
Where did Victoria visit instead of France during the Boer war?
5ad17de4645df0001a2d1e27
True
1900
221
What year did Victoria's second daughter Alfred die?
5ad17de4645df0001a2d1e28
True
Victoria visited mainland Europe regularly for holidays. In 1889, during a stay in Biarritz, she became the first reigning monarch from Britain to set foot in Spain when she crossed the border for a brief visit. By April 1900, the Boer War was so unpopular in mainland Europe that her annual trip to France seemed inadvisable. Instead, the Queen went to Ireland for the first time since 1861, in part to acknowledge the contribution of Irish regiments to the South African war. In July, her second son Alfred ("Affie") died; "Oh, God! My poor darling Affie gone too", she wrote in her journal. "It is a horrible year, nothing but sadness & horrors of one kind & another."
How tall was Queen Victoria?
5723e4a30dadf01500fa1f81
no more than five feet tall
65
False
The extent of Victorias political influence became well known after the publishing of what?
5723e4a30dadf01500fa1f82
her diary and letters
348
False
What year did Elizabeth Longford write a biography of Victoria?
5723e4a30dadf01500fa1f83
1964
688
False
What year did Cecil Woodham Smith writ Victorias biography?
5723e4a30dadf01500fa1f84
1972
697
False
How tall was Queen Victoria?
5724ea4d0a492a1900435666
five feet
78
False
Who wrote the biography about Queen Victoria that is now considered to be out of date?
5724ea4d0a492a1900435667
Lytton Strachey
540
False
What woman wrote a biography of Queen Victoria in 1964?
5724ea4d0a492a1900435668
Elizabeth Longford
641
False
When did Celcil Woodham-Smith also write a well recieved biography about Victoria?
5724ea4d0a492a1900435669
1972
697
False
What was Victoria like, physically?
57263a9f89a1e219009ac598
stout, dowdy and no more than five feet tall
48
False
When did people really start to understand the political mind of Queen Victoria?
57263a9f89a1e219009ac599
after the release of her diary and letters
327
False
Who were two good biographers of Queen Victoria?
57263a9f89a1e219009ac59a
Elizabeth Longford and Cecil Woodham-Smith
641
False
When were the best biographies of Queen Victoria written?
57263a9f89a1e219009ac59b
1964 and 1972
688
False
What kind of person was Victoria?
57263a9f89a1e219009ac59c
emotional, obstinate, honest, and straight-talking
799
False
no more than five feet tall
65
How tall was Queen Victor?
5ad17f87645df0001a2d1e54
True
her diary and letters
348
The extent of Victorias political influence became unknown after the publishing of what?
5ad17f87645df0001a2d1e55
True
1964
688
What year did Elizabeth Longford read a biography of Victoria?
5ad17f87645df0001a2d1e56
True
1972
697
What year did Cecil Woodham Smith read Victorias biography
5ad17f87645df0001a2d1e57
True
Lytton Strachey
540
Who read the biography about Queen Victoria that is now considered to be out of date?
5ad17f87645df0001a2d1e58
True
Victoria was physically unprepossessing—she was stout, dowdy and no more than five feet tall—but she succeeded in projecting a grand image. She experienced unpopularity during the first years of her widowhood, but was well liked during the 1880s and 1890s, when she embodied the empire as a benevolent matriarchal figure. Only after the release of her diary and letters did the extent of her political influence become known to the wider public. Biographies of Victoria written before much of the primary material became available, such as Lytton Strachey's Queen Victoria of 1921, are now considered out of date. The biographies written by Elizabeth Longford and Cecil Woodham-Smith, in 1964 and 1972 respectively, are still widely admired. They, and others, conclude that as a person Victoria was emotional, obstinate, honest, and straight-talking.
In 1830, what part of England did Victoria travel to with Dutchess of Kent and Conroy?
5723e6740dadf01500fa1f89
the centre of England
61
False
What town did Victoria visit in the center of England on her trip with the Dutchess of kent and Conroy?
5723e6740dadf01500fa1f8a
Malvern Hills
96
False
What years were journeys similar to the Queen trip to Melvern Hills made?
5723e6740dadf01500fa1f8b
1832, 1833, 1834 and 1835
236
False
Who was annoyed that Victoria was welcomed at each of her visits to central England?
5723e6740dadf01500fa1f8c
William
349
False
Willam was concerned that Victoria would was being portrayed as what because of her trips to central England?
5723e6740dadf01500fa1f8d
his rival
449
False
Who took Victoria on a trip to Malvern Hills in 1830?
5724eddd0a492a190043566e
the Duchess of Kent and Conroy
9
False
Who was annoyed at how well recieved Victoria was on her tours of the countryside of England and Wales?
5724eddd0a492a190043566f
William
349
False
Where did Victoria become seriously ill during one of her trips?
5724eddd0a492a1900435670
Ramsgate
800
False
Who did Victoria dislike so much she banned him from her presence once she became Queen?
5724eddd0a492a1900435671
Conroy
1002
False
What position did Conroy try and fail to get Victoria to appoint him to during her illness and later?
5724eddd0a492a1900435672
private secretary
1013
False
Who was Victoria convinced to make her secretery when she was very ill?
5726418889a1e219009ac612
Conroy
1103
False
How did Victoria feel about all of the trips?
5726418889a1e219009ac613
disliked
505
False
What annoyed the King about the way Victoria was received at her stops?
5726418889a1e219009ac614
enthusiastically welcomed in each
301
False
Why did the King dislike Victoria taking the trips?
5726418889a1e219009ac615
concerned that they portrayed Victoria as his rival
407
False
When she was made Queen, what did Victoria do about Conroy?
5726418889a1e219009ac616
banned him from her presence
1155
False
the centre of England
61
In 1803, what part of England did Victoria travel to with Dutchess of Kent and Conroy?
5ad16c46645df0001a2d1a9e
True
Malvern Hills
96
What town did Victoria visit in the center of England on her trip without the Dutchess of kent and Conroy?
5ad16c46645df0001a2d1a9f
True
in 1832, 1833, 1834 and 1835
233
What years were journeys similar to the King trip to Melvern Hills made?
5ad16c46645df0001a2d1aa0
True
the King
266
Who was annoyed that Victoria wasn't welcomed at each of her visits to central England?
5ad16c46645df0001a2d1aa1
True
his rival
449
Willam was concerned that Victoria would was being portrayed as what because of her trips to outer England?
5ad16c46645df0001a2d1aa2
True
In 1830, the Duchess of Kent and Conroy took Victoria across the centre of England to visit the Malvern Hills, stopping at towns and great country houses along the way. Similar journeys to other parts of England and Wales were taken in 1832, 1833, 1834 and 1835. To the King's annoyance, Victoria was enthusiastically welcomed in each of the stops. William compared the journeys to royal progresses and was concerned that they portrayed Victoria as his rival rather than his heiress presumptive. Victoria disliked the trips; the constant round of public appearances made her tired and ill, and there was little time for her to rest. She objected on the grounds of the King's disapproval, but her mother dismissed his complaints as motivated by jealousy, and forced Victoria to continue the tours. At Ramsgate in October 1835, Victoria contracted a severe fever, which Conroy initially dismissed as a childish pretence. While Victoria was ill, Conroy and the Duchess unsuccessfully badgered her to make Conroy her private secretary. As a teenager, Victoria resisted persistent attempts by her mother and Conroy to appoint him to her staff. Once queen, she banned him from her presence, but he remained in her mother's household.
Who was in charge of the Governemnt at the time of Victorias ascession?
5723e7b30dadf01500fa1f93
Lord Melbourne
80
False
What was the name of the Whig Prime minister at the time of Victorias ascession?
5723e7b30dadf01500fa1f94
Lord Melbourne
80
False
When was Queen Victorias coronation held?
5723e7b30dadf01500fa1f95
28 June 1838
429
False
Where was Victorias coronation held?
5723e7b30dadf01500fa1f96
Westminster Abbey
445
False
How many visitors came to London for Victorias coronation?
5723e7b30dadf01500fa1f97
Over 400,000
464
False
What Whig was prime minister during Victoria's accession?
5724eebf0ba9f01400d97bc7
Lord Melbourne
80
False
Who thought that Melbourne saw Victoria as if she was his daughter?
5724eebf0ba9f01400d97bc8
Charles Greville
206
False
When did Victoria's coronation take place at Westminster Abbey?
5724eebf0ba9f01400d97bc9
28 June 1838
429
False
How many people visited London for the Coronation of Queen Victoria?
5724eebf0ba9f01400d97bca
400,000
469
False
What was Victoria's allowance upon becoming Queen?
5724eebf0ba9f01400d97bcb
£385,000 per year
715
False
Who was leading the government at the time of Victoria's accension?
5726434238643c19005ad3cd
Whig prime minister Lord Melbourne
60
False
What kind of influence was Melbourne to Victoria?
5726434238643c19005ad3ce
powerful
117
False
When was Victoria's coronation?
5726434238643c19005ad3cf
28 June 1838
429
False
What major accomplishment did Victoria achieve with her civil list allowance?
5726434238643c19005ad3d0
she paid off her father's debts
755
False
Where did Queen Victoria reside?
5726434238643c19005ad3d1
Buckingham Palace
578
False
Lord Melbourne
80
Who was in charge of the Government at the time of Victorias fall?
5ad16eea645df0001a2d1b0e
True
Lord Melbourne
80
What was the name of the Whig Prime minister at the time of Victorias fall?
5ad16eea645df0001a2d1b0f
True
28 June 1838
429
When wasn't Queen Victorias coronation held?
5ad16eea645df0001a2d1b10
True
Westminster Abbey
445
Where wasn't Victorias coronation held?
5ad16eea645df0001a2d1b11
True
Over 400,000
464
How many visitors left London for Victorias coronation?
5ad16eea645df0001a2d1b12
True
At the time of her accession, the government was led by the Whig prime minister Lord Melbourne, who at once became a powerful influence on the politically inexperienced Queen, who relied on him for advice. Charles Greville supposed that the widowed and childless Melbourne was "passionately fond of her as he might be of his daughter if he had one", and Victoria probably saw him as a father figure. Her coronation took place on 28 June 1838 at Westminster Abbey. Over 400,000 visitors came to London for the celebrations. She became the first sovereign to take up residence at Buckingham Palace and inherited the revenues of the duchies of Lancaster and Cornwall as well as being granted a civil list allowance of £385,000 per year. Financially prudent, she paid off her father's debts.
What year was the potato blight in Ireland?
5723e989f6b826140030fcd8
1845
3
False
How long did the Great Famine last?
5723e989f6b826140030fcd9
four years
57
False
How many Irish people died during the Great Famine?
5723e989f6b826140030fcda
over a million
68
False
What was the label given to Queen Victoria during the Great Famine?
5723e989f6b826140030fcdb
The Famine Queen
208
False
How much money did Victoria donate to famine relief?
5723e989f6b826140030fcdc
£2,000
250
False
What crisis struck Ireland during 1845?
5724efd30ba9f01400d97bd1
potato blight
30
False
How many people died during the Great Famine in Ireland?
5724efd30ba9f01400d97bd2
over a million
68
False
What was Queen Victoria called in Ireland during the Great Famine?
5724efd30ba9f01400d97bd3
The Famine Queen
208
False
What story was later proven false about Victoria during the Great Famine?
5724efd30ba9f01400d97bd4
that she donated only £5 in aid to the Irish, and on the same day gave the same amount to Battersea Dogs Home
433
False
How much did Queen Victoria actually donate to support relief in Ireland, making her the top individual donor?
5724efd30ba9f01400d97bd5
£2,000
250
False
What happened that decimated a large portion of Ireland?
5726440789cfff1900a84043
potato blight
30
False
When did the potato blight begin?
5726440789cfff1900a84044
1845
3
False
How many people did Ireland lose to the potato blight?
5726440789cfff1900a84045
a million
73
False
What did the potato blight cause Victoria to be called?
5726440789cfff1900a84046
The Famine Queen
208
False
How much did Victoria donate to Ireland to help with famine relief?
5726440789cfff1900a84047
£2,000
250
False
1845
3
What year was the potato blight in Scotland?
5ad172b0645df0001a2d1c0a
True
four years
57
How long didn't the Great Famine last?
5ad172b0645df0001a2d1c0b
True
over a million
68
How many Irish people lived during the Great Famine?
5ad172b0645df0001a2d1c0c
True
The Famine Queen
208
What was the label given to Queen Victoria during the Great Feast?
5ad172b0645df0001a2d1c0d
True
£2,000
250
How much money did Victoria donate to war relief?
5ad172b0645df0001a2d1c0e
True
In 1845, Ireland was hit by a potato blight. In the next four years over a million Irish people died and another million emigrated in what became known as the Great Famine. In Ireland, Victoria was labelled "The Famine Queen". She personally donated £2,000 to famine relief, more than any other individual donor, and also supported the Maynooth Grant to a Roman Catholic seminary in Ireland, despite Protestant opposition. The story that she donated only £5 in aid to the Irish, and on the same day gave the same amount to Battersea Dogs Home, was a myth generated towards the end of the 19th century.
When Victoria isolated herself from the public, what movement began to grow?
5723eae00dadf01500fa1f9d
the republican movement
122
False
Where did Victoria isolate herself?
5723eae00dadf01500fa1f9e
in her royal residences
226
False
What was the name of the private Estate in Scotland that Albert and Victoria purchased?
5723eae00dadf01500fa1f9f
Balmoral Castle
358
False
What year did the Queen and Albert purchase Balmoral Castle?
5723eae00dadf01500fa1fa0
1847
352
False
What year did a protester attach a note to the door at Buckingham Palace saying it was to be sold?
5723eae00dadf01500fa1fa1
1864
384
False
What private estate did Victoria aquire with Albert in 1847?
5724f0d20a492a1900435682
Balmoral Castle
358
False
Where did a protector put a notice because of Queen Victoria's lack of public appearances in March of 1864?
5724f0d20a492a1900435683
Buckingham Palace
436
False
Where did Victoria visit after Leopold advised her to make more public appearances?
5724f0d20a492a1900435684
the gardens of the Royal Horticultural Society at Kensington
658
False
What movement gained popularity due to the lack of Victoria appearing in public?
5724f0d20a492a1900435685
republican movement
126
False
What was a major reason Victoria's monarchy was not as popular as some others?
572646e3708984140094c137
self-imposed isolation from the public
11
False
What did Victoria's isolation give way to?
572646e3708984140094c138
the growth of the republican movement
108
False
Who advised Vicotria to begin appaering in public?
572646e3708984140094c139
Her uncle Leopold
573
False
Where did Victoria visit to become more in the public view?
572646e3708984140094c13a
Royal Horticultural Society at Kensington
677
False
What else did Victoria do to try to return her former public image?
572646e3708984140094c13b
take a drive through London in an open carriage
723
False
the republican movement
122
When Victoria isolated himself from the public, what movement began to grow?
5ad17761645df0001a2d1d3e
True
in her royal residences
226
Where did Victoria not isolate herself?
5ad17761645df0001a2d1d3f
True
Balmoral Castle
358
What was the name of the public Estate in Scotland that Albert and Victoria purchased?
5ad17761645df0001a2d1d40
True
1864
384
What year did the King and Albert purchase Balmoral Castle?
5ad17761645df0001a2d1d41
True
1864
384
What year did the Queen and Albert sell Balmoral Castle?
5ad17761645df0001a2d1d42
True
Victoria's self-imposed isolation from the public diminished the popularity of the monarchy, and encouraged the growth of the republican movement. She did undertake her official government duties, yet chose to remain secluded in her royal residences—Windsor Castle, Osborne House, and the private estate in Scotland that she and Albert had acquired in 1847, Balmoral Castle. In March 1864, a protester stuck a notice on the railings of Buckingham Palace that announced "these commanding premises to be let or sold in consequence of the late occupant's declining business". Her uncle Leopold wrote to her advising her to appear in public. She agreed to visit the gardens of the Royal Horticultural Society at Kensington and take a drive through London in an open carriage.
What year was the Indian Rebellion?
5723ec9f0dadf01500fa1fa7
1857
30
False
What company was dissolved after the Indian Rebellion?
5723ec9f0dadf01500fa1fa8
British East India Company
40
False
What company ruled much of India before the end of the Indian Rebellion?
5723ec9f0dadf01500fa1fa9
British East India Company
40
False
Who did the Queen condemn in the Indian Rebellion?
5723ec9f0dadf01500fa1faa
both sides
323
False
What ruler was dissolved after the Indian Rebellion in 1857?
5724f1d20ba9f01400d97bdb
British East India Company
40
False
Who encouraged Victoria to issue an official statement on the conflict of the civil war in India?
5724f1d20ba9f01400d97bdc
Albert
450
False
What happened to the British possesions after the Rebellion of 1857?
5724f1d20ba9f01400d97bdd
were formally incorporated into the British Empire
185
False
What statement was replaced in her proclamation about the civil war?
5724f1d20ba9f01400d97bde
a reference threatening the "undermining of native religions and customs"
645
False
Before 1857, who controlled most of India?
57264f47f1498d1400e8dbb8
British East India Company
40
False
What caused the British East India Company to lose control of India?
57264f47f1498d1400e8dbb9
the Indian Rebellion of 1857
6
False
What happened to the assets of the British East India Company after it was removed from power?
57264f47f1498d1400e8dbba
formally incorporated into the British Empire
190
False
How did the Queen view the Indian Rebellion?
57264f47f1498d1400e8dbbb
relatively balanced view of the conflict, and condemned atrocities on both sides
253
False
What did Victoria believe that an official proclamation transferring control from the company to the monarchy would do?
57264f47f1498d1400e8dbbc
"should breathe feelings of generosity, benevolence and religious toleration"
551
False
1857
30
What year was the Indian Rebellion?
5ad179eb645df0001a2d1dc6
True
British East India Company
40
What company was dissolved before the Indian Rebellion?
5ad179eb645df0001a2d1dc7
True
British East India Company
40
Who didn't the Queen condemn in the Indian Rebellion?
5ad179eb645df0001a2d1dc8
True
British East India Company
40
What company ruled none of India before the end of the Indian Rebellion?
5ad179eb645df0001a2d1dc9
True
Albert,
450
Who encouraged Victoria to issue an unofficial statement on the conflict of the civil war in India?
5ad179eb645df0001a2d1dca
True
After the Indian Rebellion of 1857, the British East India Company, which had ruled much of India, was dissolved, and Britain's possessions and protectorates on the Indian subcontinent were formally incorporated into the British Empire. The Queen had a relatively balanced view of the conflict, and condemned atrocities on both sides. She wrote of "her feelings of horror and regret at the result of this bloody civil war", and insisted, urged on by Albert, that an official proclamation announcing the transfer of power from the company to the state "should breathe feelings of generosity, benevolence and religious toleration". At her behest, a reference threatening the "undermining of native religions and customs" was replaced by a passage guaranteeing religious freedom.
What year did Victoria fall down the stairs at Windsor?
5723ee85f6b826140030fcec
1883
12
False
After her fall down the stairs, what health issue was Victoria plaged with thereafter?
5723ee85f6b826140030fced
rheumatism thereafter
135
False
Who died 10 days after Victorias fall down the stairs?
5723ee85f6b826140030fcee
Brown
158
False
Who was Victorias private secretary during the years following her accident at Windsor?
5723ee85f6b826140030fcef
Sir Henry Ponsonby
248
False
How was Victoria notified of her youngest son leopolds death?
5723ee85f6b826140030fcf0
by telegram
825
False
When was Queen Victoria get injured after taking a fall down some stairs?
5724f58b0ba9f01400d97be3
17 March 1883
3
False
Who did Queen Victoria write a biography about that was never published?
5724f58b0ba9f01400d97be4
John Brown
733
False
Where did Victoria's youngest son, Leopold die?
5724f58b0ba9f01400d97be5
Cannes
881
False
Victoria initially opposed Beatrice's marriage to what man?
5724f58b0ba9f01400d97be6
Prince Henry of Battenberg
1025
False
Where did Beatrice meet and fall in love with Prince Henry?
5724f58b0ba9f01400d97be7
at the wedding of Victoria's granddaughter Princess Victoria of Hesse
1052
False
What caused Victoria's rheumatism?
5726559d5951b619008f6ff9
she fell down some stairs at Windsor
18
False
Who died 10 days after Victoria's accident?
5726559d5951b619008f6ffa
Brown
317
False
What did Victoria begin working on after Brown's death?
5726559d5951b619008f6ffb
a eulogistic biography
291
False
Who was opposed to Victoria writing a biography of Brown?
5726559d5951b619008f6ffc
Sir Henry Ponsonby
248
False
What happened in Victoria's life on the day after the one year anniversary of Brown's death?
5726559d5951b619008f6ffd
her youngest son, Leopold, had died in Cannes
842
False
1883
12
What year didn't Victoria fall down the stairs at Windsor?
5ad17be2645df0001a2d1df8
True
rheumatism thereafter
135
After her fall up the stairs, what health issue was Victoria plaged with thereafter?
5ad17be2645df0001a2d1df9
True
Brown
738
Who lived 10 days after Victorias fall down the stairs?
5ad17be2645df0001a2d1dfa
True
On 17 March 1883, she fell down some stairs at Windsor, which left her lame until July; she never fully recovered and was plagued with rheumatism thereafter. Brown died 10 days after her accident, and to the consternation of her private secretary, Sir Henry Ponsonby, Victoria began work on a eulogistic biography of Brown. Ponsonby and Randall Davidson, Dean of Windsor, who had both seen early drafts, advised Victoria against publication, on the grounds that it would stoke the rumours of a love affair. The manuscript was destroyed. In early 1884, Victoria did publish More Leaves from a Journal of a Life in the Highlands, a sequel to her earlier book, which she dedicated to her "devoted personal attendant and faithful friend John Brown". On the day after the first anniversary of Brown's death, Victoria was informed by telegram that her youngest son, Leopold, had died in Cannes. He was "the dearest of my dear sons", she lamented. The following month, Victoria's youngest child, Beatrice, met and fell in love with Prince Henry of Battenberg at the wedding of Victoria's granddaughter Princess Victoria of Hesse and by Rhine to Henry's brother Prince Louis of Battenberg. Beatrice and Henry planned to marry, but Victoria opposed the match at first, wishing to keep Beatrice at home to act as her companion. After a year, she was won around to the marriage by Henry and Beatrice's promise to remain living with and attending her.
What blood clotting disease did Victorias youngest son have?
5723f31e0dadf01500fa1faf
haemophilia B
77
False
How many of Victorias daughters were carriers of the blood clotting disease that Leopold had?
5723f31e0dadf01500fa1fb0
two
95
False
It was believed that Victorias true father was a hemophiliac and not who?
5723f31e0dadf01500fa1fb1
the Duke of Kent
454
False
What is the sex of carriers that always suffer the blood clotting disease haemophi;ia B?
5723f31e0dadf01500fa1fb2
male
587
False
How old was Victorias father at the time of her conception?
5723f31e0dadf01500fa1fb3
over 50
779
False
What disease did Victoria's youngest son have?
5724f6be0a492a190043568a
the blood-clotting disease haemophilia B
50
False
Which two of Victoria's daughters also were carriers for the blood clotting disorder?
5724f6be0a492a190043568b
Alice and Beatrice
122
False
Who was Queen Victoria's father rumored to be instead of the Duke of Kent?
5724f6be0a492a190043568c
a haemophiliac
475
False
What disease affected Leopold and was carried by two of Victoria's daughters?
57265c18dd62a815002e82a8
haemophilia B
77
False
Which Royal haemophiliacs are said to have descended from Victoria?
57265c18dd62a815002e82a9
Tsarevich Alexei of Russia, Alfonso, Prince of Asturias, and Infante Gonzalo of Spain
231
False
Which of Victoria's daughters were carriers of haemophilia?
57265c18dd62a815002e82aa
Alice and Beatrice
122
False
What is a big factor on whether or not an offspring will spontaneously develop haemophilia?
57265c18dd62a815002e82ab
older fathers
875
False
In how many births do spontaneous cases of haemophilia arise?
57265c18dd62a815002e82ac
about a third of cases
924
False
haemophilia B
77
What blood clotting disease did Victorias oldest son have?
5ad18069645df0001a2d1e68
True
two
95
How many of Victorias sons were carriers of the blood clotting disease that Leopold had?
5ad18069645df0001a2d1e69
True
Duke of Kent
458
It was believed that Victorias true mother was a hemophiliac and not who?
5ad18069645df0001a2d1e6a
True
male
587
What is the age of carriers that always suffer the blood clotting disease haemophi;ia B?
5ad18069645df0001a2d1e6b
True
over 50
779
How old was Victorias father at the time of her death?
5ad18069645df0001a2d1e6c
True
Victoria's youngest son, Leopold, was affected by the blood-clotting disease haemophilia B and two of her five daughters, Alice and Beatrice, were carriers. Royal haemophiliacs descended from Victoria included her great-grandsons, Tsarevich Alexei of Russia, Alfonso, Prince of Asturias, and Infante Gonzalo of Spain. The presence of the disease in Victoria's descendants, but not in her ancestors, led to modern speculation that her true father was not the Duke of Kent but a haemophiliac. There is no documentary evidence of a haemophiliac in connection with Victoria's mother, and as male carriers always suffer the disease, even if such a man had existed he would have been seriously ill. It is more likely that the mutation arose spontaneously because Victoria's father was over 50 at the time of her conception and haemophilia arises more frequently in the children of older fathers. Spontaneous mutations account for about a third of cases.
What year did Victorias Father die?
5723f4900dadf01500fa1fba
1820
158
False
What year did King George III die?
5723f4900dadf01500fa1fbb
1820
158
False
What nationality was Queen Victorias mother?
5723f4900dadf01500fa1fbc
German
219
False
How old was Victoria when she inherited the throne?
5723f4900dadf01500fa1fbd
18
311
False
What was the name of Victoria's father?
5724f76c0ba9f01400d97bed
Prince Edward, Duke of Kent and Strathearn
29
False
When did the Duke of Kent die?
5724f76c0ba9f01400d97bee
1820
158
False
What was Victoria's mother's name?
5724f76c0ba9f01400d97bef
Princess Victoria of Saxe-Coburg-Saalfeld
238
False
At what age did Victoria inherit the throne, upon the death of her father's three eldest brothers?
5724f76c0ba9f01400d97bf0
18
311
False
Who was Victoria's father?
57265f505951b619008f70d1
Prince Edward, Duke of Kent and Strathearn, the fourth son of King George III
29
False
Who raised Victoria?
57265f505951b619008f70d2
mother Princess Victoria of Saxe-Coburg-Saalfeld
231
False
When did Victoria inherit the throne of England?
57265f505951b619008f70d3
aged 18
306
False
Why did Victoria inherit the throne?
57265f505951b619008f70d4
her father's three elder brothers had all died, leaving no surviving legitimate children
321
False
What kind of government did England have at the time?
57265f505951b619008f70d5
constitutional monarchy
457
False
1820
158
What year didn't Victorias Father die?
5ad168dc645df0001a2d1a1b
True
German
219
What nationality wasn't Queen Victorias mother?
5ad168dc645df0001a2d1a1c
True
18
311
How old was Victoria when she rejected the throne?
5ad168dc645df0001a2d1a1d
True
Princess Victoria of Saxe-Coburg-Saalfeld
238
What wasn't Victoria's mother's name?
5ad168dc645df0001a2d1a1e
True
Victoria was the daughter of Prince Edward, Duke of Kent and Strathearn, the fourth son of King George III. Both the Duke of Kent and King George III died in 1820, and Victoria was raised under close supervision by her German-born mother Princess Victoria of Saxe-Coburg-Saalfeld. She inherited the throne aged 18, after her father's three elder brothers had all died, leaving no surviving legitimate children. The United Kingdom was already an established constitutional monarchy, in which the sovereign held relatively little direct political power. Privately, Victoria attempted to influence government policy and ministerial appointments; publicly, she became a national icon who was identified with strict standards of personal morality.
What was Victorias place in line of succession to the throne when she was born?
5723f5dc0dadf01500fa1fc3
fifth
23
False
What year did Victoria's father and grandfather die?
5723f5dc0dadf01500fa1fc4
1820
584
False
What was th elength of time between the deaths of Victoria's father and grandfather?
5723f5dc0dadf01500fa1fc5
within a week of each other
590
False
What year did the Duke of York die?
5723f5dc0dadf01500fa1fc6
1827
648
False
What year did Victorias Uncle George IV die?
5723f5dc0dadf01500fa1fc7
1830
693
False
What place was Victoria in the line of succession after her birth?
5724f8890a492a1900435690
fifth
23
False
Whose infant daugheters both died, leaving him without an heir to the throne of England?
5724f8890a492a1900435691
Duke of Clarence
147
False
When did George IV die?
5724f8890a492a1900435692
1830
693
False
What was the Regency Act of 1830?
5724f8890a492a1900435693
made special provision for the Duchess of Kent to act as regent in case William died while Victoria was still a minor.
797
False
Who distrusted the Duchesses capability to reign in Victoria's place until she became of age?
5724f8890a492a1900435694
King William
916
False
Where did Victoria fall in the line of succession?
57267e59f1498d1400e8e1a6
fifth
23
False
Who came in line for the throne before Victoria?
57267e59f1498d1400e8e1a7
her father and his three older brothers
61
False
What happened when Victoria's Uncle George IV died?
57267e59f1498d1400e8e1a8
became heiress presumptive to her next surviving uncle
708
False
Who was Victoria's last surviving uncle?
57267e59f1498d1400e8e1a9
William IV
764
False
Who was to act as regent if George died while Victoria was still a minor?
57267e59f1498d1400e8e1aa
Duchess of Kent
828
False
fifth
23
What was Victorias place in line of succession to the throne when she died?
5ad16aef645df0001a2d1a7c
True
1820
584
What year did Victoria's father and grandfather survive?
5ad16aef645df0001a2d1a7d
True
within a week of each other
590
What was the length of time between the deaths of Victoria's father and brother?
5ad16aef645df0001a2d1a7e
True
1827
648
What year did the Duke of York survive?
5ad16aef645df0001a2d1a7f
True
1830
693
What year did Victorias Uncle George V die?
5ad16aef645df0001a2d1a80
True
At birth, Victoria was fifth in the line of succession after her father and his three older brothers: the Prince Regent, the Duke of York, and the Duke of Clarence (later William IV). The Prince Regent and the Duke of York were estranged from their wives, who were both past child-bearing age, so the two eldest brothers were unlikely to have any further children. The Dukes of Kent and Clarence married on the same day 12 months before Victoria's birth, but both of Clarence's daughters (born in 1819 and 1820 respectively) died as infants. Victoria's grandfather and father died in 1820, within a week of each other, and the Duke of York died in 1827. On the death of her uncle George IV in 1830, Victoria became heiress presumptive to her next surviving uncle, William IV. The Regency Act 1830 made special provision for the Duchess of Kent to act as regent in case William died while Victoria was still a minor. King William distrusted the Duchess's capacity to be regent, and in 1836 declared in her presence that he wanted to live until Victoria's 18th birthday, so that a regency could be avoided.
On what date did Victoria turn 18?
5723f6f7f6b826140030fd0a
24 May 1837
22
False
On what date did William IV die?
5723f6f7f6b826140030fd0b
20 June 1837
65
False
How old was William IV when he died?
5723f6f7f6b826140030fd0c
71
109
False
What is the name given to Victoria on official documents?
5723f6f7f6b826140030fd0d
Alexandrina Victoria
651
False
What was the exact time that Victorias Uncle, the King, died?
5723f6f7f6b826140030fd0e
12 minutes past 2
509
False
When did Victoria turn 18?
5724fb430ba9f01400d97bfd
24 May 1837
22
False
When did Victoria become Queen upon William IV's death?
5724fb430ba9f01400d97bfe
20 June 1837
65
False
What name was Victoria referred to as on only the first day of her reign?
5724fb430ba9f01400d97bff
Alexandrina Victoria
651
False
How old was Victoria's Uncle, King Willaim on his death?
5724fb430ba9f01400d97c00
71
109
False
Who informed Victoria of her Uncle's passing and that she was now to become Queen of England?
5724fb430ba9f01400d97c01
the Archbishop of Canterbury and Lord Conyngham
234
False
What caused Victoria to become the Queen of the United Kingdom?
572663fbf1498d1400e8ddfc
20 June 1837, William IV died
65
False
Who came to tell Victoria that she was to be Queen of the United Kingdom?
572663fbf1498d1400e8ddfd
Archbishop of Canterbury and Lord Conyngham
238
False
What name did the first official documents of Victoria's monarchy have her listed as?
572663fbf1498d1400e8ddfe
Alexandrina Victoria
651
False
How old was William IV when he died?
572663fbf1498d1400e8ddff
71
109
False
Where did she receive the news that she was to be queen?
572663fbf1498d1400e8de00
sitting-room
348
False
24 May 1837
22
On what date did Victoria turn 81?
5ad16e7f645df0001a2d1b04
True
20 June 1837
65
On what date did William V die?
5ad16e7f645df0001a2d1b05
True
71
109
How old was William IV when he survived?
5ad16e7f645df0001a2d1b06
True
Alexandrina Victoria
651
What is the name given to Victoria on unofficial documents?
5ad16e7f645df0001a2d1b07
True
12 minutes past 2
509
What was the exact time that Victorias Uncle, the Prince, died?
5ad16e7f645df0001a2d1b08
True
Victoria turned 18 on 24 May 1837, and a regency was avoided. On 20 June 1837, William IV died at the age of 71, and Victoria became Queen of the United Kingdom. In her diary she wrote, "I was awoke at 6 o'clock by Mamma, who told me the Archbishop of Canterbury and Lord Conyngham were here and wished to see me. I got out of bed and went into my sitting-room (only in my dressing gown) and alone, and saw them. Lord Conyngham then acquainted me that my poor Uncle, the King, was no more, and had expired at 12 minutes past 2 this morning, and consequently that I am Queen." Official documents prepared on the first day of her reign described her as Alexandrina Victoria, but the first name was withdrawn at her own wish and not used again.
What was the marital status of Victoria when she became the queen?
5723f8090dadf01500fa1fcd
unmarried
20
False
Whi did Victoria have to live with because she was unmarried?
5723f8090dadf01500fa1fce
her mother
98
False
Victoria and her mother had differences over what system?
5723f8090dadf01500fa1fcf
Kensington System
145
False
Victoria and her mother had differences over her mothers reliances on who?
5723f8090dadf01500fa1fd0
Conroy
202
False
Where was Victorias mother assigned to live?
5723f8090dadf01500fa1fd1
a remote apartment in Buckingham Palace
238
False
What did Victoria and her mother disagree on?
5724fc250a492a19004356a4
the Kensington System
141
False
Whom did Victoria's mother continue to rely on, despite Victoria's displeasure?
5724fc250a492a19004356a5
Conroy
202
False
To whom did Queen Victoria lament that marriage was a shocking alternative to her mother's prescence?
5724fc250a492a19004356a6
Melbourne
425
False
Where did both Queen Victoria and her mother reside after she became Queen?
5724fc250a492a19004356a7
Buckingham Palace
260
False
Where did Victoria live at the beginning of her reign?
572664dd708984140094c4a1
with her mother
93
False
Why did Victoria live with her mother at the beginning of her reign?
572664dd708984140094c4a2
was required by social convention
51
False
What could have allowed Victoria freedom from living with her mother?
572664dd708984140094c4a3
marriage
479
False
How did Victoria feel about having to be married in order to escape living with her mother?
572664dd708984140094c4a4
a "schocking  [sic] alternative"
511
False
How did Victoria feel about the prospect of having to live with her mother, no matter how far away in the palace they put her?
572664dd708984140094c4a5
close proximity promised "torment for many years"
374
False
unmarried
20
What was the marital status of Victoria when she became the princess?
5ad17097645df0001a2d1b8e
True
her mother
98
Whi did Victoria have to live with because she was married?
5ad17097645df0001a2d1b8f
True
Kensington System
145
Victoria and her father had differences over what system?
5ad17097645df0001a2d1b90
True
Conroy
202
Victoria and her mother had differences over her fathers reliances on who?
5ad17097645df0001a2d1b91
True
a remote apartment in Buckingham Palace
238
Where was Victorias mother assigned to die?
5ad17097645df0001a2d1b92
True
Though queen, as an unmarried young woman Victoria was required by social convention to live with her mother, despite their differences over the Kensington System and her mother's continued reliance on Conroy. Her mother was consigned to a remote apartment in Buckingham Palace, and Victoria often refused to see her. When Victoria complained to Melbourne that her mother's close proximity promised "torment for many years", Melbourne sympathised but said it could be avoided by marriage, which Victoria called a "schocking  [sic] alternative". She showed interest in Albert's education for the future role he would have to play as her husband, but she resisted attempts to rush her into wedlock.
What was the name of the man that tried to shoot Queen Victoria?
5723f90ff6b826140030fd14
John Francis
79
False
On what date did John Francis try to shoot Queen Victoria?
5723f90ff6b826140030fd15
29 May 1842
3
False
Where was Queen Victoria when Francis tried to shoot her?
5723f90ff6b826140030fd16
riding in a carriage along The Mall, London
29
False
What happened to Francis after his attempt to shoot Victoria?
5723f90ff6b826140030fd17
he escaped
140
False
Why did Francis fail to kill Queen Victoria?
5723f90ff6b826140030fd18
the gun did not fire
118
False
Who made two unsuccessful attempts on Queen Victoria's life in 1842?
5724fd9a0ba9f01400d97c1b
John Francis
79
False
What was John Francis's eventual sentence for the attempt on the Queens life?
5724fd9a0ba9f01400d97c1c
transportation for life
511
False
Who shot at Queen Victoria on July 3, days after John Francis's sentence was commuted?
5724fd9a0ba9f01400d97c1d
John William Bean
536
False
Who fired a shot at Queen Victoria's carriage in 1849?
5724fd9a0ba9f01400d97c1e
William Hamilton
838
False
What person recieved a seven year transportation sentence for striking Victoria on the head with his cane?
5724fd9a0ba9f01400d97c1f
Robert Pate
1052
False
Who escaped Victoria's guards after attempting to fire a shot at her?
572667c7dd62a815002e83d8
John Francis
79
False
What happened to John Francis after his second attempt to fire on the Queen?
572667c7dd62a815002e83d9
death sentence was commuted to transportation for life
480
False
What did John William Bean try to fire at Queen Victoria?
572667c7dd62a815002e83da
paper and tobacco
624
False
What were the consequences of John William Bean's attempt to fire at the Queen?
572667c7dd62a815002e83db
18 months in jail
770
False
When did William Hamilton fire a powder charge at Victoria's carriage?
572667c7dd62a815002e83dc
1849
812
False
John Francis
79
What was the name of the man that tried to save Queen Victoria?
5ad1721f645df0001a2d1be2
True
29 May 1842
3
On what date did John Francis try to help Queen Victoria?
5ad1721f645df0001a2d1be3
True
riding in a carriage along The Mall, London
29
Where wasn't Queen Victoria when Francis tried to shoot her?
5ad1721f645df0001a2d1be4
True
he escaped
140
What happened to Francis after his attempt not to shoot Victoria?
5ad1721f645df0001a2d1be5
True
the gun did not fire
118
Why did Francis fail to help Queen Victoria?
5ad1721f645df0001a2d1be6
True
On 29 May 1842, Victoria was riding in a carriage along The Mall, London, when John Francis aimed a pistol at her but the gun did not fire; he escaped. The following day, Victoria drove the same route, though faster and with a greater escort, in a deliberate attempt to provoke Francis to take a second aim and catch him in the act. As expected, Francis shot at her, but he was seized by plain-clothes policemen, and convicted of high treason. On 3 July, two days after Francis's death sentence was commuted to transportation for life, John William Bean also tried to fire a pistol at the Queen, but it was loaded only with paper and tobacco and had too little charge. Edward Oxford felt that the attempts were encouraged by his acquittal in 1840. Bean was sentenced to 18 months in jail. In a similar attack in 1849, unemployed Irishman William Hamilton fired a powder-filled pistol at Victoria's carriage as it passed along Constitution Hill, London. In 1850, the Queen did sustain injury when she was assaulted by a possibly insane ex-army officer, Robert Pate. As Victoria was riding in a carriage, Pate struck her with his cane, crushing her bonnet and bruising her forehead. Both Hamilton and Pate were sentenced to seven years' transportation.
What political party was Russells ministry?
5723fa94f6b826140030fd1e
Whig
27
False
What was the name of the foreign secretary that Victoria found offensive?
5723fa94f6b826140030fd1f
Lord Palmerston
120
False
To whom did Victoria complain about Palmerston?
5723fa94f6b826140030fd20
Russell
242
False
What year was Palmerston removed from office?
5723fa94f6b826140030fd21
1851
466
False
What was president Bonapartes name changed to?
5723fa94f6b826140030fd22
Emperor Napoleon III
699
False
What position did Lord Palmerston hold?
572500580a492a19004356ac
Foreign Secretary
101
False
What scandal prompted Palmerstons removal in 1851?
572500580a492a19004356ad
he announced the British government's approval of President Louis-Napoleon Bonaparte's coup in France without consulting the Prime Minister
505
False
President Bonaparte was declared what in France?
572500580a492a19004356ae
Emperor Napoleon III
699
False
Who briefly replaced Russell as Prime Minister?
572500580a492a19004356af
Lord Derby
822
False
What did Victoria express her displeasure at to Russell about Palmerton?
572500580a492a19004356b0
Palmerston sent official dispatches to foreign leaders without her knowledge
255
False
Who was the Foreign Secretary of Russell's ministry?
57266a1ef1498d1400e8df00
Lord Palmerston
120
False
To what party did Russell and Palmerston belong?
57266a1ef1498d1400e8df01
Whig
27
False
What replaced Russell's administration?
57266a1ef1498d1400e8df02
a short-lived minority government led by Lord Derby
781
False
What happened to President Bonaparte in 1852?
57266a1ef1498d1400e8df03
declared Emperor Napoleon III
690
False
Whom did Palmerston fail to gain approval from befoe announcing the support of the British government of Napoleon's coup?
57266a1ef1498d1400e8df04
Prime Minister
630
False
Whig
27
What political party wasn't Russells ministry?
5ad173d5645df0001a2d1c56
True
Lord Palmerston
120
What was the name of the foreign secretary that Victoria found ok?
5ad173d5645df0001a2d1c57
True
Russell
242
To whom didn't Victoria complain about Palmerston?
5ad173d5645df0001a2d1c58
True
1851
466
What year was Palmerston upheld in office?
5ad173d5645df0001a2d1c59
True
Foreign Secretary
101
What position didn't Lord Palmerston hold?
5ad173d5645df0001a2d1c5a
True
Russell's ministry, though Whig, was not favoured by the Queen. She found particularly offensive the Foreign Secretary, Lord Palmerston, who often acted without consulting the Cabinet, the Prime Minister, or the Queen. Victoria complained to Russell that Palmerston sent official dispatches to foreign leaders without her knowledge, but Palmerston was retained in office and continued to act on his own initiative, despite her repeated remonstrances. It was only in 1851 that Palmerston was removed after he announced the British government's approval of President Louis-Napoleon Bonaparte's coup in France without consulting the Prime Minister. The following year, President Bonaparte was declared Emperor Napoleon III, by which time Russell's administration had been replaced by a short-lived minority government led by Lord Derby.
Who did Victorias eldest daughter marry?
5723fc250dadf01500fa1fe1
Prince Frederick William of Prussia
95
False
Where did Victoria's oldest daughter get married?
5723fc250dadf01500fa1fe2
London
134
False
How old was Princess Victoria when she agreed to marry the Prince?
5723fc250dadf01500fa1fe3
14
215
False
How old was Princess Victoria when she was married?
5723fc250dadf01500fa1fe4
17
305
False
Where did princess Victoria move to after she was married?
5723fc250dadf01500fa1fe5
Germany
506
False
Who did Princess Victoria marry at the age of 17?
572501720ba9f01400d97c25
Prince Frederick William of Prussia
95
False
How old was Princess Victoria when she became engaged to Prince Frederick?
572501720ba9f01400d97c26
14
215
False
Where did Princess Victoria and her husband leave for after their marriage?
572501720ba9f01400d97c27
Germany
506
False
What was the name of Queen Victoria's first grandchild?
572501720ba9f01400d97c28
Wilhelm
814
False
What position did Wilhelm later hold in Germany?
572501720ba9f01400d97c29
last German Kaiser
844
False
When was Victoria's oldest daughter married?
57266b70708984140094c567
Eleven days after Orsini's assassination attempt
0
False
How old was Victoria's oldest daughter when she was amrried?
57266b70708984140094c568
17
305
False
What did Queen Victoria hope for the marriage between her daughter and Prince Frederick William?
57266b70708984140094c569
liberalising influence in the enlarging Prussian state
382
False
Who was the Queen's first grandchild?
57266b70708984140094c56a
Wilhelm
814
False
What future awaited the first grandson of Queen Victoria?
57266b70708984140094c56b
the last German Kaiser
840
False
Prince Frederick William of Prussia
95
Who did Victorias youngest daughter marry?
5ad17607645df0001a2d1cee
True
London
134
Where did Victoria's youngest daughter get married?
5ad17607645df0001a2d1cef
True
14
215
How old was Princess Victoria when she agreed to divorce the Prince?
5ad17607645df0001a2d1cf0
True
17
305
How old was Princess Victoria when she wasn't married?
5ad17607645df0001a2d1cf1
True
Germany;
506
Who didn't Princess Victoria marry at the age of 17?
5ad17607645df0001a2d1cf2
True
Eleven days after Orsini's assassination attempt in France, Victoria's eldest daughter married Prince Frederick William of Prussia in London. They had been betrothed since September 1855, when Princess Victoria was 14 years old; the marriage was delayed by the Queen and Prince Albert until the bride was 17. The Queen and Albert hoped that their daughter and son-in-law would be a liberalising influence in the enlarging Prussian state. Victoria felt "sick at heart" to see her daughter leave England for Germany; "It really makes me shudder", she wrote to Princess Victoria in one of her frequent letters, "when I look round to all your sweet, happy, unconscious sisters, and think I must give them up too – one by one." Almost exactly a year later, Princess Victoria gave birth to the Queen's first grandchild, Wilhelm, who would become the last German Kaiser.
Who was the reigning King of the United Kingdom until 1817?
5723fd980ba9f01400d97b06
George III
125
False
Who was the only grandchild of George iii until 1817?
5723fd980ba9f01400d97b07
Princess Charlotte of Wales
165
False
What year did Princess Charlotte of Wales die?
5723fd980ba9f01400d97b08
1817
257
False
Who did the Duke of kent marry in 1818?
5723fd980ba9f01400d97b09
Princess Victoria of Saxe-Coburg-Saalfeld
411
False
Who was Queen Victorias father?
5723fd9a0a492a19004355ce
Prince Edward, Duke of Kent and Strathearn
22
False
Who was the only legitimate grandchild of George III?
572521040ba9f01400d97c71
Princess Charlotte of Wales
165
False
Who did Prince Edward marry in 1818 in the hopes of producing a child?
572521040ba9f01400d97c72
Princess Victoria of Saxe-Coburg-Saalfeld
411
False
Who was Princess Victoria widowed from?
572521040ba9f01400d97c73
Prince of Leiningen
568
False
What time was Queen Victoria born on May 24, 1819?
572521040ba9f01400d97c74
4.15 a.m
708
False
Who was Princess Charlotte married to until her death?
572521040ba9f01400d97c75
Leopold
601
False
Who are Queen Victoria's mother and father?
57266c49708984140094c581
The Duke and Duchess of Kent
643
False
When was Queen Victoria born?
57266c49708984140094c582
4.15 a.m. on 24 May 1819
708
False
What was Queen Victoria's father's official title?
57266c49708984140094c583
Prince Edward, Duke of Kent and Strathearn, the fourth son of the reigning King of the United Kingdom, George III
22
False
What was Queen Victoria's mother's official title?
57266c49708984140094c584
Princess Victoria of Saxe-Coburg-Saalfeld
411
False
Who were Princess Victoria's children from her previous marriage?
57266c49708984140094c585
Carl (1804–1856) and Feodora (1807–1872)
498
False
Prince Edward, Duke of Kent and Strathearn
22
Who wasn't Queen Victorias father?
5ad16a59645df0001a2d1a62
True
George III
125
Who was the reigning King of the United Kingdom until 1871?
5ad16a59645df0001a2d1a63
True
Princess Charlotte of Wales
165
Who was the only grandchild of George iii until 1871?
5ad16a59645df0001a2d1a64
True
1817
257
What year did Princess Charlotte of Wales get sick?
5ad16a59645df0001a2d1a65
True
Princess Victoria of Saxe-Coburg-Saalfeld
411
Who did the Duke of kent marry in 1881?
5ad16a59645df0001a2d1a66
True
Victoria's father was Prince Edward, Duke of Kent and Strathearn, the fourth son of the reigning King of the United Kingdom, George III. Until 1817, Edward's niece, Princess Charlotte of Wales, was the only legitimate grandchild of George III. Her death in 1817 precipitated a succession crisis that brought pressure on the Duke of Kent and his unmarried brothers to marry and have children. In 1818 he married Princess Victoria of Saxe-Coburg-Saalfeld, a widowed German princess with two children—Carl (1804–1856) and Feodora (1807–1872)—by her first marriage to the Prince of Leiningen. Her brother Leopold was Princess Charlotte's widower. The Duke and Duchess of Kent's only child, Victoria, was born at 4.15 a.m. on 24 May 1819 at Kensington Palace in London.
The Dutchesses brother Leopold was the King of what country?
5723febc0a492a19004355d8
the Belgians
62
False
What year did Leopold become King of the Belgians?
5723febc0a492a19004355d9
1831
81
False
Who was the nephew of leopold?
5723febc0a492a19004355da
Prince Albert of Saxe-Coburg and Gotha
127
False
Who was Alberts father?
5723febc0a492a19004355db
Ernest I, Duke of Saxe-Coburg and Gotha
216
False
How did Victoria describe the physical appearance of Alexander?
5723febc0a492a19004355dc
very plain
1084
False
Who disapproved of the proposed marriage between Victoria and Albert?
5725231f0a492a190043570a
William IV
420
False
Who was the man William IV wanted Victoria to wed instead?
5725231f0a492a190043570b
Prince Alexander of the Netherlands
517
False
Prince Alexander was the second son of whom?
5725231f0a492a190043570c
Prince of Orange
572
False
What did Victoria think of her suiter, the Prince Alexander of Orange?
5725231f0a492a190043570d
very plain
1084
False
How did Victoria feel about Albert?
57266dcf5951b619008f7279
enjoyed Albert's company from the beginning
725
False
Who wanted to see Victoria and Albert marry?
57266dcf5951b619008f727a
the Duchess's brother, Leopold
9
False
Who opposed Victoria marrying Albert, or any Coburg?
57266dcf5951b619008f727b
William IV
420
False
Who did William IV feel was a suitable husband for Victoria?
57266dcf5951b619008f727c
Prince Alexander of the Netherlands
517
False
the Belgians
62
The Dutchesses brother Leopold was the Queen of what country?
5ad16d54645df0001a2d1ad6
True
1831
81
What year did Leopold become King of the Belgiums?
5ad16d54645df0001a2d1ad7
True
Prince Albert of Saxe-Coburg and Gotha
127
Who was the neice of leopold?
5ad16d54645df0001a2d1ad8
True
Ernest I, Duke of Saxe-Coburg and Gotha
216
Who wasn't Alberts father?
5ad16d54645df0001a2d1ad9
True
very plain
1084
How did Victoria describe the mental appearance of Alexander?
5ad16d54645df0001a2d1ada
True
By 1836, the Duchess's brother, Leopold, who had been King of the Belgians since 1831, hoped to marry his niece to his nephew, Prince Albert of Saxe-Coburg and Gotha. Leopold, Victoria's mother, and Albert's father (Ernest I, Duke of Saxe-Coburg and Gotha) were siblings. Leopold arranged for Victoria's mother to invite her Coburg relatives to visit her in May 1836, with the purpose of introducing Victoria to Albert. William IV, however, disapproved of any match with the Coburgs, and instead favoured the suit of Prince Alexander of the Netherlands, second son of the Prince of Orange. Victoria was aware of the various matrimonial plans and critically appraised a parade of eligible princes. According to her diary, she enjoyed Albert's company from the beginning. After the visit she wrote, "[Albert] is extremely handsome; his hair is about the same colour as mine; his eyes are large and blue, and he has a beautiful nose and a very sweet mouth with fine teeth; but the charm of his countenance is his expression, which is most delightful." Alexander, on the other hand, was "very plain".
What year did Victorias reputation begin to suffer?
572403030a492a19004355e2
1839
82
False
What was the job of lady Flora Hastings in Victorias household?
572403030a492a19004355e3
one of her mother's ladies-in-waiting
107
False
What health issue did Flora hastings develope that began to ruin Victorias reputation?
572403030a492a19004355e4
an abdominal growth
177
False
What was Flora hastings abdominal growth rumored to be?
572403030a492a19004355e5
an out-of-wedlock pregnancy
228
False
Who was rumored to be the father of Flora Hastings "pregnancy"?
572403030a492a19004355e6
Sir John Conroy
259
False
What lady in waiting was at the heart of a 1839 court scandal?
572531fd0a492a1900435712
Lady Flora Hastings
146
False
What was the cause of Lady Flora's death in July?
572531fd0a492a1900435713
large tumour on her liver
810
False
With whom did Lady Flora consipire against Queen Victoria?
572531fd0a492a1900435714
Conroy and the Duchess of Kent
395
False
What was Queen Victoria called after Lady Flora's death due?
572531fd0a492a1900435715
Mrs. Melbourne
926
False
Who, in Victoria's court, was accused of having a pregnancy outside of mariage?
5726706bdd62a815002e84dc
one of her mother's ladies-in-waiting, Lady Flora Hastings
107
False
Who was believed to be the father of Lady Flor's "baby"?
5726706bdd62a815002e84dd
Sir John Conroy
259
False
What did Victoria think of Lady Flora?
5726706bdd62a815002e84de
despised
329
False
Why did Victoria hate Sir Conroy and Lady Flora?
5726706bdd62a815002e84df
the Kensington System
429
False
What was actually the cause of Lady Flora's "pregnancy"?
5726706bdd62a815002e84e0
large tumour on her liver that had distended her abdomen
810
False
1839
82
What year did Victorias reputation begin to recover?
5ad16f9d645df0001a2d1b48
True
one of her mother's ladies-in-waiting
107
What was the job of sir Flora Hastings in Victorias household?
5ad16f9d645df0001a2d1b49
True
an abdominal growth
177
What health issue did Flora hastings develop that began to help Victorias reputation?
5ad16f9d645df0001a2d1b4a
True
an out-of-wedlock pregnancy
228
What wasn't Flora hastings abdominal growth rumored to be?
5ad16f9d645df0001a2d1b4b
True
Sir John Conroy
259
Who was rumored to be the mother of Flora Hastings "pregnancy"?
5ad16f9d645df0001a2d1b4c
True
At the start of her reign Victoria was popular, but her reputation suffered in an 1839 court intrigue when one of her mother's ladies-in-waiting, Lady Flora Hastings, developed an abdominal growth that was widely rumoured to be an out-of-wedlock pregnancy by Sir John Conroy. Victoria believed the rumours. She hated Conroy, and despised "that odious Lady Flora", because she had conspired with Conroy and the Duchess of Kent in the Kensington System. At first, Lady Flora refused to submit to a naked medical examination, until in mid-February she eventually agreed, and was found to be a virgin. Conroy, the Hastings family and the opposition Tories organised a press campaign implicating the Queen in the spreading of false rumours about Lady Flora. When Lady Flora died in July, the post-mortem revealed a large tumour on her liver that had distended her abdomen. At public appearances, Victoria was hissed and jeered as "Mrs. Melbourne".
What year was the Third French Republic established?
5724041d0ba9f01400d97b19
1870
3
False
Where was the republica rally held that called for Vuictorias removal?
5724041d0ba9f01400d97b1a
Trafalgar Square
160
False
Who spoke against Victoria at the rally in Trafalgar Square?
5724041d0ba9f01400d97b1b
Radical MPs
210
False
In 1871, Victoria became seriously ill with an abscess on what part of her body?
5724041d0ba9f01400d97b1c
arm
316
False
Who lanced and treated the abscess on Queen Victorias arm?
5724041d0ba9f01400d97b1d
Joseph Lister
327
False
How was the republican sentiment in Britain changed?
57255c8a69ff041400e58c38
boosted after the establishment of the Third French Republic
76
False
Where was a rally calling for Queen Victoria's removal held?
57255c8a69ff041400e58c39
Trafalgar Square
160
False
What cutting edge treatment did Joseph Lister use to treat Queen Victoria's illness?
57255c8a69ff041400e58c3a
new antiseptic carbolic acid spray
382
False
What disease nearly took the Prince of Wales life?
57255c8a69ff041400e58c3b
typhoid fever
514
False
What helped to boost the rebublicians in 1870?
57267189708984140094c640
establishment of the Third French Republic
94
False
When did the Third French Republic come onto the scene?
57267189708984140094c641
1870
3
False
WHat was a new antiseptic being used to treat abcesses in the 1870's?
57267f57f1498d1400e8e1cb
carbolic acid spray
397
False
What disease was contracted by the Prince of Wales that nearly ended his life?
57267f57f1498d1400e8e1cc
typhoid fever
514
False
Who spoke against Victoria at Trafalgar Square?
57267f57f1498d1400e8e1cd
Radical MPs
210
False
After what event did the Prince of Wales' health begin to improve?
57267f57f1498d1400e8e1ce
the tenth anniversary of her husband's death
633
False
1870
3
What year was the Third French Republic demolished?
5ad17959645df0001a2d1db4
True
Trafalgar Square
160
Where was the republica rally held that called for Vuictorias promotion?
5ad17959645df0001a2d1db5
True
Radical MPs
210
Who spoke in support of Victoria at the rally in Trafalgar Square?
5ad17959645df0001a2d1db6
True
arm,
316
In 1817, Victoria became seriously ill with an abscess on what part of her body?
5ad17959645df0001a2d1db7
True
Joseph Lister
327
Who lanced and never treated the abscess on Queen Victorias arm?
5ad17959645df0001a2d1db8
True
In 1870, republican sentiment in Britain, fed by the Queen's seclusion, was boosted after the establishment of the Third French Republic. A republican rally in Trafalgar Square demanded Victoria's removal, and Radical MPs spoke against her. In August and September 1871, she was seriously ill with an abscess in her arm, which Joseph Lister successfully lanced and treated with his new antiseptic carbolic acid spray. In late November 1871, at the height of the republican movement, the Prince of Wales contracted typhoid fever, the disease that was believed to have killed his father, and Victoria was fearful her son would die. As the tenth anniversary of her husband's death approached, her son's condition grew no better, and Victoria's distress continued. To general rejoicing, he pulled through. Mother and son attended a public parade through London and a grand service of thanksgiving in St Paul's Cathedral on 27 February 1872, and republican feeling subsided.
What year was Queen Victorias first pregnancy?
5724052a0ba9f01400d97b23
1840
37
False
Who attempted to assasinate Victoria while she was riding in a carriage?
5724052a0ba9f01400d97b24
Edward Oxford
96
False
How old was Edward Oxford?
5724052a0ba9f01400d97b25
18
84
False
Who was riding in the carriage with Victoria when Oxford attempted to assasinate her?
5724052a0ba9f01400d97b26
Prince Albert
179
False
How many times did Oxford fire the gun at Victoria and miss?
5724052a0ba9f01400d97b27
twice
238
False
Who tried to assassinate Queen Victoria while she was pregnant with her first child?
57255dc469ff041400e58c40
Edward Oxford
96
False
When was Queen Victoria's first daughter born?
57255dc469ff041400e58c41
21 November 1840
619
False
Queen Victoria and Prince Albert had how many more children after Victoria's birth?
57255dc469ff041400e58c42
eight
822
False
What year was Albert Edward, Queen Victoria's first born son born?
57255dc469ff041400e58c43
1841
873
False
What major life event was Victoria facing when she also had to contend with her first assassination attempt?
57267420dd62a815002e8570
first pregnancy
18
False
When was Victoria's first assassination attempt?
57267420dd62a815002e8571
1840
37
False
What did the first assassination attempt do for Victoria's reign?
57267420dd62a815002e8572
popularity soared
470
False
What was Edward Oxford charged with after his assassination attempt?
57267420dd62a815002e8573
high treason
340
False
What happened to Edward Oxford to after he was found guilty of high treason?
57267420dd62a815002e8574
acquitted on the grounds of insanity
379
False
1840
37
What year was Queen Victorias last pregnancy?
5ad17166645df0001a2d1bbe
True
Edward Oxford
96
Who attempted to assasinate Victoria while she was riding in a car?
5ad17166645df0001a2d1bbf
True
18
84
How old wasn't Edward Oxford?
5ad17166645df0001a2d1bc0
True
Prince Albert
179
Who was riding in the carriage with Victoria when Oxford attempted to aid her?
5ad17166645df0001a2d1bc1
True
twice
238
How many times did Oxford fire the gun at Victoria and hit?
5ad17166645df0001a2d1bc2
True
During Victoria's first pregnancy in 1840, in the first few months of the marriage, 18-year-old Edward Oxford attempted to assassinate her while she was riding in a carriage with Prince Albert on her way to visit her mother. Oxford fired twice, but either both bullets missed or, as he later claimed, the guns had no shot. He was tried for high treason and found guilty, but was acquitted on the grounds of insanity. In the immediate aftermath of the attack, Victoria's popularity soared, mitigating residual discontent over the Hastings affair and the bedchamber crisis. Her daughter, also named Victoria, was born on 21 November 1840. The Queen hated being pregnant, viewed breast-feeding with disgust, and thought newborn babies were ugly. Nevertheless, over the following seventeen years, she and Albert had a further eight children: Albert Edward, Prince of Wales (b. 1841), Alice (b. 1843), Alfred (b. 1844), Helena (b. 1846), Louise (b. 1848), Arthur (b. 1850), Leopold (b. 1853) and Beatrice (b. 1857).
Who did Victoria try to convince Disraeli  to act against during the Russo-Turkish war?
572406670a492a19004355ec
Russia
117
False
What impact did Victorias threats have on the impact of the Russo=Turkish war?
572406670a492a19004355ed
no impact
174
False
What Disraeli policy did Victoria endorse?
572406670a492a19004355ee
expansionist foreign policy
258
False
Who lost the Disraeli general election in 1880?
572406670a492a19004355ef
Disraeli
809
False
Who returned as prime minister when Disraeli lost the general election in 1880?
572406670a492a19004355f0
Gladstone
854
False
What caused Queen Victoria to threaten to abdicate five times?
57255f04cc50291900b2838b
Russo-Turkish War
135
False
What ended the Russo-Turkish War?
57255f04cc50291900b2838c
Congress of Berlin
227
False
Why did Queen Victoria want to take over other countries?
57255f04cc50291900b2838d
protecting native peoples from more aggressive powers or cruel rulers
616
False
Who was elected Prime Minister after Disareli lost the election in 1880?
57255f04cc50291900b2838e
Gladstone
854
False
To whom did Queen Victoria dedicate a memorial after his death for grateful service?
57255f04cc50291900b2838f
Disraeli
897
False
What position did Victoria take on how to be a successful and top notch power?
572675735951b619008f7337
be Prepared for attacks and wars, somewhere or other, CONTINUALLY
473
False
Who won the 1880 general election?
572675735951b619008f7338
Gladstone
854
False
What conflicts can be attributed to Disraeli's stance on foreign policy?
572675735951b619008f7339
Anglo-Zulu War and the Second Anglo-Afghan War
341
False
What did Victoria place to memorialize Disraeli?
572675735951b619008f733a
a memorial tablet
984
False
Russia
117
Who did Victoria try to convince Disraeli to act against during the Russo-Turkish war?
5ad17ae9645df0001a2d1de4
True
no impact
174
What impact did Victorias threats have on the impact of the Russo=Turkish war?
5ad17ae9645df0001a2d1de5
True
expansionist foreign policy,
258
What Disraeli policy did Victoria don't endorse?
5ad17ae9645df0001a2d1de6
True
Disraeli
93
Who lost the Disraeli general election in 1808?
5ad17ae9645df0001a2d1de7
True
Gladstone
854
Who returned as prime minister when Disraeli lost the general election in 1808?
5ad17ae9645df0001a2d1de8
True
Between April 1877 and February 1878, she threatened five times to abdicate while pressuring Disraeli to act against Russia during the Russo-Turkish War, but her threats had no impact on the events or their conclusion with the Congress of Berlin. Disraeli's expansionist foreign policy, which Victoria endorsed, led to conflicts such as the Anglo-Zulu War and the Second Anglo-Afghan War. "If we are to maintain our position as a first-rate Power", she wrote, "we must ... be Prepared for attacks and wars, somewhere or other, CONTINUALLY." Victoria saw the expansion of the British Empire as civilising and benign, protecting native peoples from more aggressive powers or cruel rulers: "It is not in our custom to annexe countries", she said, "unless we are obliged & forced to do so." To Victoria's dismay, Disraeli lost the 1880 general election, and Gladstone returned as prime minister. When Disraeli died the following year, she was blinded by "fast falling tears", and erected a memorial tablet "placed by his grateful Sovereign and Friend, Victoria R.I."
who was britains closest ally since the Crimean war?
572407900ba9f01400d97b2d
Napoleon III
0
False
When did Napoleon iii visit London?
572407900ba9f01400d97b2e
April 1855
78
False
Where did Napoleon Meet Victoria and Albert?
572407900ba9f01400d97b2f
Dunkirk
200
False
Napoleon accompanied Victoria and Alber to what city diring the visit?
572407900ba9f01400d97b30
Paris
232
False
Victoria and Albert were the guests of honor at a large ball that took place where?
572407900ba9f01400d97b31
the Palace of Versailles
487
False
Who was Britains's closest ally following the Crimean War?
5725600a69ff041400e58c48
Napoleon III
0
False
What did Napoleon III and the royal couple visit?
5725600a69ff041400e58c49
Exposition Universelle
256
False
When were Napoleon I remains returned to their resting place at Les Invalides?
5725600a69ff041400e58c4a
1840
429
False
How many guests attented a ball at the Palace of Versaille with Napoleon III and the royal couple in attendence?
5725600a69ff041400e58c4b
1,200
467
False
Where did Napoleon III meet Victoria and Albert, before accompanying them to Paris?
5726768af1498d1400e8e07e
Dunkirk
200
False
When were Napoleon I's remains interred in his mausoleum?
5726768af1498d1400e8e07f
1840
429
False
Who was Britian's closest ally after the Crimean War?
5726768af1498d1400e8e080
Napoleon III
0
False
Where were Victoria and Albert honored guests at ball thrown by Napoleon III?
5726768af1498d1400e8e081
Palace of Versailles
491
False
When did Napoleon III visit London?
5726768af1498d1400e8e082
April 1855
78
False
Napoleon III
0
who was britains closest enemy since the Crimean war?
5ad174e3645df0001a2d1c98
True
April 1855
78
When did Napoleon ii visit London?
5ad174e3645df0001a2d1c99
True
Dunkirk
200
Where didn't Napoleon Meet Victoria and Albert?
5ad174e3645df0001a2d1c9a
True
Paris
232
Napoleon unaccompanied Victoria and Alber to what city diring the visit?
5ad174e3645df0001a2d1c9b
True
Palace of Versailles
491
Victoria and Albert were the guests of honor at a small ball that took place where?
5ad174e3645df0001a2d1c9c
True
Napoleon III, since the Crimean War Britain's closest ally, visited London in April 1855, and from 17 to 28 August the same year Victoria and Albert returned the visit. Napoleon III met the couple at Dunkirk and accompanied them to Paris. They visited the Exposition Universelle (a successor to Albert's 1851 brainchild the Great Exhibition) and Napoleon I's tomb at Les Invalides (to which his remains had only been returned in 1840), and were guests of honour at a 1,200-guest ball at the Palace of Versailles.
What was the name of the manservent that Victoria had in the 1860's?
572408e80a492a19004355f6
John Brown
79
False
Where was John brown, Victorias manservant, from?
572408e80a492a19004355f7
Scotland
69
False
What kind of a connection was rumored to exist between Victoria and John Brown?
572408e80a492a19004355f8
a romantic connection
113
False
What was the nickname given to Queen Victoria when rumors of a relationship with John Brown arose?
572408e80a492a19004355f9
Mrs. Brown
215
False
What was the name of the 1997 movie depicting the relationship between Victoria and John brown?
572408e80a492a19004355fa
Mrs. Brown
294
False
What country was Queen Victoria's manservant with whom she was rumored to have a romantic interest?
5725616c69ff041400e58c50
Scotland
69
False
What was the name of the movie that told the story of Queen Victoria's romance with John Brown?
5725616c69ff041400e58c51
Mrs. Brown
294
False
What artist painted the Queen and Brown which hung in the Royal Academy?
5725616c69ff041400e58c52
Sir Edwin Henry Landseer
320
False
In what memior written by Queen Victoria was John Brown praised?
5725616c69ff041400e58c53
Leaves from the Journal of Our Life in the Highlands
443
False
Which manservent was Victoria's most trusted ally?
572678a5708984140094c73b
John Brown
79
False
Which movie was made about the scandalous affair that Victoria was believed to have had with John Brown?
572678a5708984140094c73c
Mrs. Brown
294
False
Which book did Victoria publish that did nothing to take away from the rumors about her and John Brown?
572678a5708984140094c73d
Leaves from the Journal of Our Life in the Highlands
443
False
Who did the Queen feature in her book that drew so much criticism?
572678a5708984140094c73e
John Brown
79
False
John Brown
79
What was the name of the manservent that Victoria had in the 1870's?
5ad177f2645df0001a2d1d5c
True
a romantic connection
113
What kind of a connection was rumored to not  exist between Victoria and John Brown?
5ad177f2645df0001a2d1d5d
True
Scotland
69
Where was John brown, Victorias lover, from?
5ad177f2645df0001a2d1d5e
True
Mrs. Brown
215
What was the name of the 1979 movie depicting the relationship between Victoria and John brown?
5ad177f2645df0001a2d1d5f
True
Mrs. Brown
215
What was the nickname given to Queen Victoria when rumors of a relationship with John Brown died?
5ad177f2645df0001a2d1d60
True
Through the 1860s, Victoria relied increasingly on a manservant from Scotland, John Brown. Slanderous rumours of a romantic connection and even a secret marriage appeared in print, and the Queen was referred to as "Mrs. Brown". The story of their relationship was the subject of the 1997 movie Mrs. Brown. A painting by Sir Edwin Henry Landseer depicting the Queen with Brown was exhibited at the Royal Academy, and Victoria published a book, Leaves from the Journal of Our Life in the Highlands, which featured Brown prominently and in which the Queen praised him highly.
Where did Victoria spend the Christmas of 1900?
572409ef0ba9f01400d97b41
Osborne House
100
False
Where was osborne House that Victoria spent christmas at located?
572409ef0ba9f01400d97b42
on the Isle of Wight
114
False
What had caused Victoria to be lame?
572409ef0ba9f01400d97b43
Rheumatism in her legs
136
False
Why was Victorias eyesight clouded?
572409ef0ba9f01400d97b44
cataracts
214
False
What was the date of Queen Victorias death?
572409ef0ba9f01400d97b45
22 January 1901
360
False
Where was Osborne House located?
572562c9cc50291900b28395
Isle of Wight
121
False
When did Queen Victoria die?
572562c9cc50291900b28396
Tuesday, 22 January 1901
351
False
How old was Queen Victoria upon her death?
572562c9cc50291900b28397
81
424
False
Who was Queen Victoria's successor after her death?
572562c9cc50291900b28398
King Edward VII
450
False
Who did she wish to see on her deathbed, making it her last request?
572562c9cc50291900b28399
pet Pomeranian, Turri
559
False
Where did Victoria usually spend Christmases?
57267966708984140094c749
Osborne House on the Isle of Wight
100
False
What caused Victoria limited mobility later in life?
57267966708984140094c74a
Rheumatism
136
False
Whaen did Queen Victoria die?
57267966708984140094c74b
Tuesday, 22 January 1901
351
False
How old was Victoria when she died?
57267966708984140094c74c
81
424
False
Who was Queen Victoria's successor?
57267966708984140094c74d
King Edward VII
450
False
Osborne House
100
Where did Victoria spend the Christmas of 1901?
5ad17e54645df0001a2d1e2e
True
Isle of Wight
121
Where was osborne House that Victoria spent christmas at not located?
5ad17e54645df0001a2d1e2f
True
Rheumatism in her legs
136
What hadn't caused Victoria to be lame?
5ad17e54645df0001a2d1e30
True
cataracts
214
Why was Victorias eyesight unclouded?
5ad17e54645df0001a2d1e31
True
22 January 1901
360
What was the date of Queen Victorias birth?
5ad17e54645df0001a2d1e32
True
Following a custom she maintained throughout her widowhood, Victoria spent the Christmas of 1900 at Osborne House on the Isle of Wight. Rheumatism in her legs had rendered her lame, and her eyesight was clouded by cataracts. Through early January, she felt "weak and unwell", and by mid-January she was "drowsy ... dazed, [and] confused". She died on Tuesday, 22 January 1901, at half past six in the evening, at the age of 81. Her son and successor King Edward VII, and her eldest grandson, Emperor Wilhelm II of Germany, were at her deathbed. Her favourite pet Pomeranian, Turri, was laid upon her deathbed as a last request.
In a general election of what year was Disraeli returned to power?
57240b550ba9f01400d97b4b
1874
7
False
What year was the Public Worship Regulation Act passed?
57240b550ba9f01400d97b4c
1874
106
False
What Church did Victoria consider herself aligned with?
57240b550ba9f01400d97b4d
presbyterian Church of Scotland
302
False
What Act did Disraeli push through Parliment in 1876?
57240b550ba9f01400d97b4e
Royal Titles Act 1876
391
False
In 1876 Victoria held what title?
57240b550ba9f01400d97b4f
Empress of India
466
False
What removed Catholic Rituals from Anglican services?
572563c469ff041400e58c58
Public Worship Regulation Act 1874
76
False
Which church did Queen Victoria consider her favorite?
572563c469ff041400e58c59
presbyterian Church of Scotland
302
False
Who published the Royal Titles Act of 1876?
572563c469ff041400e58c5a
Disraeli
30
False
When was Queen Victoria named the Empress of India?
572563c469ff041400e58c5b
1 May 1876
489
False
Where was the new title of Empress of India proclaimed?
572563c469ff041400e58c5c
Delhi Durbar
537
False
When was Disraeli returned to office?
57267a58f1498d1400e8e118
1874
7
False
What change, supported by Victoria, did Disraeli make to the Anglician liturgy?
57267a58f1498d1400e8e119
removed Catholic rituals
118
False
Where did Victoria really align herself when it came to religion?
57267a58f1498d1400e8e11a
presbyterian Church of Scotland
302
False
What allowed Victoria to become the Empress of India?
57267a58f1498d1400e8e11b
Royal Titles Act 1876
391
False
Whic act, passed by Disraeli, allowed him to alter the Anglician liturgy?
57267a58f1498d1400e8e11c
Public Worship Regulation Act 1874
76
False
1874
7
In a general election of what year was Disraeli kicked from power?
5ad17a6a645df0001a2d1dd0
True
1874
7
What year was the Public Worship Regulation Act passed?
5ad17a6a645df0001a2d1dd1
True
presbyterian Church of Scotland
302
What Church did Victoria consider herself unaligned with?
5ad17a6a645df0001a2d1dd2
True
Royal Titles Act 1876
391
What Act did Disraeli push through Parliment in 1867?
5ad17a6a645df0001a2d1dd3
True
Empress of India
466
In 1867 Victoria held what title?
5ad17a6a645df0001a2d1dd4
True
In the 1874 general election, Disraeli was returned to power. He passed the Public Worship Regulation Act 1874, which removed Catholic rituals from the Anglican liturgy and which Victoria strongly supported. She preferred short, simple services, and personally considered herself more aligned with the presbyterian Church of Scotland than the episcopal Church of England. He also pushed the Royal Titles Act 1876 through Parliament, so that Victoria took the title "Empress of India" from 1 May 1876. The new title was proclaimed at the Delhi Durbar of 1 January 1877.
What kind of monarchy was formed under Queen Victoria?
57240c3b0a492a1900435600
modern constitutional monarchy
57
False
Reforms to what system increased the power of the house fo commons?
57240c3b0a492a1900435601
the voting system
121
False
As Victorias rule became less polital, what values were emphasized?
57240c3b0a492a1900435602
morality and family values
465
False
What type of monarchy was established as time went on in Victorias rule?
57240c3b0a492a1900435603
family monarchy
683
False
How did the reforms of Britains voting system affect the House of Commons?
572564fc69ff041400e58c62
increased the power
139
False
What was most important as the monarchy under Queen Victoria shifted from political to symbolic?
572564fc69ff041400e58c63
emphasis on morality and family values
453
False
What idea was solidified to which the increasing middle classes in Britain could identify with?
572564fc69ff041400e58c64
family monarchy
683
False
What was Queen Victoria's reign considered?
572564fc69ff041400e58c65
modern constitutional monarchy
57
False
What kind of government was Victoria's reign leaning towards?
57267c3ddd62a815002e86cc
modern constitutional monarchy
57
False
What increased the power in the House of Commons?
57267c3ddd62a815002e86cd
Reforms of the voting system
110
False
Who paid the price for the reforms of the voting system?
57267c3ddd62a815002e86ce
House of Lords and the monarch
205
False
Rather than political, what was Victoria's monarchy seen as?
57267c3ddd62a815002e86cf
symbolic
409
False
What was a monarchy that the more middle clas could get behind and support?
57267c3ddd62a815002e86d0
family
683
False
modern constitutional monarchy
57
What kind of monarchy was formed after Queen Victoria?
5ad1800a645df0001a2d1e5e
True
the voting system
121
Reforms to what system increased the power of the house of uncommons?
5ad1800a645df0001a2d1e5f
True
morality and family values
465
As Victorias rule became more polical, what values were emphasized?
5ad1800a645df0001a2d1e60
True
family monarchy
683
What type of monarchy was cancelled as time went on in Victorias rule?
5ad1800a645df0001a2d1e61
True
increased the power
139
How did the reforms of Britains voting system not affect the House of Commons?
5ad1800a645df0001a2d1e62
True
Through Victoria's reign, the gradual establishment of a modern constitutional monarchy in Britain continued. Reforms of the voting system increased the power of the House of Commons at the expense of the House of Lords and the monarch. In 1867, Walter Bagehot wrote that the monarch only retained "the right to be consulted, the right to encourage, and the right to warn". As Victoria's monarchy became more symbolic than political, it placed a strong emphasis on morality and family values, in contrast to the sexual, financial and personal scandals that had been associated with previous members of the House of Hanover and which had discredited the monarchy. The concept of the "family monarchy", with which the burgeoning middle classes could identify, was solidified.
What year did Gladstone resign?
57240d2b0ba9f01400d97b55
1885
48
False
Gladstone resigned after what was defeted?
57240d2b0ba9f01400d97b56
his budget
59
False
Victoria blamed Gladstone for the death of who?
57240d2b0ba9f01400d97b57
General Gordon at Khartoum.
176
False
Who replaced Gladstone after he resigned?
57240d2b0ba9f01400d97b58
Lord Salisbury
230
False
How long did Lord Salisburys government last?
57240d2b0ba9f01400d97b59
a few months
281
False
What man was Gladstone blamed for after his death at Khartoum?
5725662acc50291900b2839f
General Gordon
176
False
Who replaced Gladstone for only a few short months?
5725662acc50291900b283a0
Lord Salisbury
230
False
What did the bill Gladstone failed to pass state, much to Queen Victoria's pleasure?
5725662acc50291900b283a1
granting Ireland home rule
465
False
Who defeated Gladstone yet again in the general elction?
5725662acc50291900b283a2
Salisbury
584
False
Why did Gladstone resign in 1885?
5725662acc50291900b283a3
his budget was defeated
59
False
When did Gladstone resign?
57267cb7dd62a815002e86ea
1885
48
False
Why did Gladstone resign?
57267cb7dd62a815002e86eb
his budget was defeated
59
False
How did Victoria feel about the resignation of Gladstone?
57267cb7dd62a815002e86ec
pleased
13
False
Who's death did Victoria blame on Gladstone?
57267cb7dd62a815002e86ed
General Gordon
176
False
Who replaced Gladstone?
57267cb7dd62a815002e86ee
Lord Salisbury
230
False
1885
48
What year didn't Gladstone resign?
5ad17c60645df0001a2d1dfe
True
his budget
59
Gladstone resigned after what wasn't defeted?
5ad17c60645df0001a2d1dff
True
General Gordon at Khartoum
176
Victoria blamed Gladstone for the life of who?
5ad17c60645df0001a2d1e00
True
Lord Salisbury
230
Who replaced Gladstone after he was fired?
5ad17c60645df0001a2d1e01
True
a few months
281
How long did Lord Salisburys government not last?
5ad17c60645df0001a2d1e02
True
Victoria was pleased when Gladstone resigned in 1885 after his budget was defeated. She thought his government was "the worst I have ever had", and blamed him for the death of General Gordon at Khartoum. Gladstone was replaced by Lord Salisbury. Salisbury's government only lasted a few months, however, and Victoria was forced to recall Gladstone, whom she referred to as a "half crazy & really in many ways ridiculous old man". Gladstone attempted to pass a bill granting Ireland home rule, but to Victoria's glee it was defeated. In the ensuing election, Gladstone's party lost to Salisbury's and the government switched hands again.
How many words a day did Victoria write?
57240e580a492a1900435608
average of 2,500
71
False
What year did Victoria begin keeping a journal?
57240e580a492a1900435609
1832
133
False
How many volumes was Queen Victorias journal?
57240e580a492a190043560a
122
225
False
Who was Victorias youngest daughter?
57240e580a492a190043560b
Princess Beatrice
285
False
What did Beatrice do to her mothers diaries after her death?
57240e580a492a190043560c
transcribed and edited
350
False
How many journals did Queen Victoria write in her lifetime?
5725677c69ff041400e58c6a
122
225
False
Who was appointed as Queen Victoria's literary executor upon her death?
5725677c69ff041400e58c6b
Princess Beatrice
285
False
What did Beatrice do with the journals after she transcribed and edited them?
5725677c69ff041400e58c6c
burned the originals
428
False
Who transcribed Queen Victoria's journals from 1832 to 1861?
5725677c69ff041400e58c6d
Lord Esher
563
False
What biographer said Queen Victoria wrote an average of 2500 words a day in her journals?
5725677c69ff041400e58c6e
Giles St Aubyn
37
False
How avid of a writer was the Queen?
57267d5c5951b619008f7483
Victoria wrote an average of 2,500 words a day
53
False
How many volumes did her journal span?
57267d5c5951b619008f7484
122 volumes
225
False
Who was Victoria's literary executer?
57267d5c5951b619008f7485
her youngest daughter, Princess Beatrice
262
False
What did Beatrice do with her mother's journals?
57267d5c5951b619008f7486
transcribed and edited
350
False
What did Beatrice do with the origional volumes of her mother's diaries?
57267d5c5951b619008f7487
burned
428
False
average of 2,500
71
How many words a day did Victoria read?
5ad17f1f645df0001a2d1e4a
True
1832
133
What year did Victoria stop keeping a journal?
5ad17f1f645df0001a2d1e4b
True
122
225
How many volumes was not in Queen Victorias journal?
5ad17f1f645df0001a2d1e4c
True
Princess Beatrice
285
Who was Victorias oldest daughter?
5ad17f1f645df0001a2d1e4d
True
transcribed and edited
350
What did Beatrice do to her mothers diaries before her death?
5ad17f1f645df0001a2d1e4e
True
According to one of her biographers, Giles St Aubyn, Victoria wrote an average of 2,500 words a day during her adult life. From July 1832 until just before her death, she kept a detailed journal, which eventually encompassed 122 volumes. After Victoria's death, her youngest daughter, Princess Beatrice, was appointed her literary executor. Beatrice transcribed and edited the diaries covering Victoria's accession onwards, and burned the originals in the process. Despite this destruction, much of the diaries still exist. In addition to Beatrice's edited copy, Lord Esher transcribed the volumes from 1832 to 1861 before Beatrice destroyed them. Part of Victoria's extensive correspondence has been published in volumes edited by A. C. Benson, Hector Bolitho, George Earle Buckle, Lord Esher, Roger Fulford, and Richard Hough among others.
Freemasonry
What concept determines relationships between Grand Lodges?
5723df4df6b826140030fcce
Recognition
64
False
What must two lodges be in, in order to inter-visit?
5723df4df6b826140030fccf
amity
379
False
What, besides Recognition, must happen between two Grand Lodges in order for them to be considered in amity?
5723df4df6b826140030fcd0
Masonic communication
196
False
What can be causes of one Grand Lodge withdrawing Recognition from another?
5723df4df6b826140030fcd1
Exclusive Jurisdiction and Regularity
542
False
What are the members of a Grand Lodge called?
5723df4df6b826140030fcd2
brethren
273
False
Gran Lodges are in what when they are in Masonic Communication with each other?
5726225d271a42140099d4c3
amity
258
False
What concept is used to determine relations between Grand Lodges?
5726225d271a42140099d4c4
Recognition
64
False
What does each Grand Lodge maintain?
5726225d271a42140099d4c5
a list
104
False
What is not allowed when Grand Lodges are not in amity?
5726225d271a42140099d4c6
inter-visitation
386
False
What are the two most common reasons one Grand Lodge will withhold recognition from another?
5726225d271a42140099d4c7
Exclusive Jurisdiction and Regularity
542
False
Recognition
64
What concept determines conflicts between Grand Lodges?
5acf801b77cf76001a684fe6
True
amity
258
What must only one lodge be in, in order to inter-visit?
5acf801b77cf76001a684fe7
True
Masonic communication
196
What, besides Recognition, must never happen between two Grand Lodges in order for them to be considered in amity?
5acf801b77cf76001a684fe8
True
brethren
273
What are the enemies of a Grand Lodge called?
5acf801b77cf76001a684fe9
True
inter-visitation
386
What is not allowed when Grand Lodges are empty?
5acf801b77cf76001a684fea
True
Relations between Grand Lodges are determined by the concept of Recognition. Each Grand Lodge maintains a list of other Grand Lodges that it recognises. When two Grand Lodges recognise and are in Masonic communication with each other, they are said to be in amity, and the brethren of each may visit each other's Lodges and interact Masonically. When two Grand Lodges are not in amity, inter-visitation is not allowed. There are many reasons why one Grand Lodge will withhold or withdraw recognition from another, but the two most common are Exclusive Jurisdiction and Regularity.
When did ceremonial regalia first appear in the Masonic culture?
57241ed90a492a1900435618
The fifteenth century
440
False
How long have historians been seeking information about the Masonic movement?
57241ed90a492a1900435619
middle of the 19th century
10
False
What kind of an oath do Masons take when they join?
57241ed90a492a190043561a
fidelity
403
False
What is the oldest written document about Freemasonary?
57241ed90a492a190043561b
Regius Poem
172
False
When was the Regius Poem written?
57241ed90a492a190043561c
1425
193
False
When did Masonic historians star seeking the origins of the Masonic Movement?
57262457ec44d21400f3d96f
middle of the 19th century
10
False
What are the old Masonic document referred as?
57262457ec44d21400f3d970
Old Charges
143
False
The Old Charges are dated from when to when?
57262457ec44d21400f3d971
about 1425 to the beginning of the 18th century
187
False
The fifteenth century also shows evidence of what in Masonic history?
57262457ec44d21400f3d972
ceremonial regalia.
494
False
The duties of its grades is an example of what historic documents?
57262457ec44d21400f3d973
Old Charges
143
False
The fifteenth century
440
When did ceremonial regalia last appear in the Masonic culture?
5acf846477cf76001a685082
True
middle of the 19th century
10
How long have historians been hiding information about the Masonic movement?
5acf846477cf76001a685083
True
fidelity
403
What kind of an oath do Masons refuse to take when they join?
5acf846477cf76001a685084
True
1425
193
When was the Regius Poem stolen?
5acf846477cf76001a685085
True
Old Charges
143
What are the new Masonic documents referred as?
5acf846477cf76001a685086
True
Since the middle of the 19th century, Masonic historians have sought the origins of the movement in a series of similar documents known as the Old Charges, dating from the Regius Poem in about 1425 to the beginning of the 18th century. Alluding to the membership of a lodge of operative masons, they relate a mythologised history of the craft, the duties of its grades, and the manner in which oaths of fidelity are to be taken on joining. The fifteenth century also sees the first evidence of ceremonial regalia.
Why did the Grand Orient de France conclude that Freemasonry shouldn't require religious belief?
5724b5d10a492a1900435622
Freemasonry was not a religion
174
False
What was removed from the Freemasonry constitution?
5724b5d10a492a1900435623
existence of God and the immortality of the soul
354
False
Who withdrew recognition from the Grand Orient de France?
5724b5d10a492a1900435624
United Grand Lodge of England
681
False
What was a possible condition that made the United Grand Lodge of England withdraw it's recognition of the Grand Orient de France?
5724b5d10a492a1900435625
political tension between France and Britain
541
False
How was the belief of the existance of God and the immortal soul replaced in the constitution?
5724b5d10a492a1900435626
Its principles are absolute liberty of conscience and human solidarity
277
False
What year was it ruled that Freemasonry was not a religion?
572631d1ec44d21400f3dbff
1875
62
False
What Grand Lodge had a withdrawal of recognition by the United Grand Lodge of England?
572631d1ec44d21400f3dc00
Grand Orient of France
651
False
What was a motivation of the Grand Lodge of England's objection?
572631d1ec44d21400f3dc01
political tension between France and Britain
541
False
Who disputed the Lausanne Congress of Supreme Councils?
572631d1ec44d21400f3dc02
Grand Orient de France
80
False
Freemasonry was not a religion
174
Why did the Grand Orient de France conclude that Freemasonry should require religious belief?
5acf8bb377cf76001a6851a8
True
the existence of God and the immortality of the soul
350
What was added to the Freemasonry constitution?
5acf8bb377cf76001a6851a9
True
the United Grand Lodge of England
469
Who maintained permanent recognition with the Grand Orient de France?
5acf8bb377cf76001a6851aa
True
Its principles are absolute liberty of conscience and human solidarity
277
How was the belief of the existence of God and the immortal soul explained in the constitution?
5acf8bb377cf76001a6851ab
True
1875
62
What year was it ruled that Freemasonry was a religion?
5acf8bb377cf76001a6851ac
True
A dispute during the Lausanne Congress of Supreme Councils of 1875 prompted the Grand Orient de France to commission a report by a Protestant pastor which concluded that, as Freemasonry was not a religion, it should not require a religious belief. The new constitutions read, "Its principles are absolute liberty of conscience and human solidarity", the existence of God and the immortality of the soul being struck out. It is possible that the immediate objections of the United Grand Lodge of England were at least partly motivated by the political tension between France and Britain at the time. The result was the withdrawal of recognition of the Grand Orient of France by the United Grand Lodge of England, a situation that continues today.
When were the first constitutions for Freemasonry printed?
5724b70a0ba9f01400d97b7d
during the 1720s
36
False
Who composed the first printed constitutions for Freemasonry?
5724b70a0ba9f01400d97b7e
James Anderson
54
False
Which group was specifically excluded from Freemasonry in the printed constitutions?
5724b70a0ba9f01400d97b7f
women
199
False
What was created for women as Freemasonry began to spread?
5724b70a0ba9f01400d97b80
Lodges of Adoption
298
False
When was the idea of the Lodges for Adoption abandoned?
5724b70a0ba9f01400d97b81
early 19th century
455
False
When was the dawn of the Grand Lodge era?
57263323271a42140099d73b
during the 1720s
36
False
Who composed the first printed constitutions for Freemasons?
57263323271a42140099d73c
James Anderson
54
False
Who is excluded from Freemasonry?
57263323271a42140099d73d
women
199
False
What were lodges called that included women?
57263323271a42140099d73e
Lodges of Adoption
298
False
Who abandoned the including of women in Freemasonry experiment in the early 19'th century?
57263323271a42140099d73f
The French
401
False
during the 1720s
36
When were the only constitutions for Freemasonry printed?
5acf8cd577cf76001a6851e2
True
James Anderson
54
Who decomposed the first printed constitutions for Freemasonry?
5acf8cd577cf76001a6851e3
True
women
199
Which group was specifically unknown in Freemasonry in the printed constitutions?
5acf8cd577cf76001a6851e4
True
Lodges of Adoption
298
What was banned for women as Freemasonry began to spread?
5acf8cd577cf76001a6851e5
True
Lodges of Adoption
298
What were lodges called that included cats?
5acf8cd577cf76001a6851e6
True
At the dawn of the Grand Lodge era, during the 1720s, James Anderson composed the first printed constitutions for Freemasons, the basis for most subsequent constitutions, which specifically excluded women from Freemasonry. As Freemasonry spread, continental masons began to include their ladies in Lodges of Adoption, which worked three degrees with the same names as the men's but different content. The French officially abandoned the experiment in the early 19th century. Later organisations with a similar aim emerged in the United States, but distinguished the names of the degrees from those of male masonry.
What are some Protestant objections to Freemasonry?
5724eebf0a492a1900435678
mysticism, occultism, and even Satanism
135
False
What are Catholic objections to Freemasonry?
5724eebf0a492a1900435679
rationalism and naturalism
39
False
Who is generally accepted as the voice of Freemasonry?
5724eebf0a492a190043567a
No one voice
736
False
Who do the Protestant anti-Masons believe is the absolute authority on the use of mysticism, Satanism and occultism in Freemasonry?
5724eebf0a492a190043567b
Albert Pike
192
False
What was Albert Pike actually more of an expert in?
5724eebf0a492a190043567c
late 19th century Southern Freemasonry of the USA
597
False
What religion alleged Freemasons as Satanic?
572634c8271a42140099d763
Protestant
67
False
What religion alleged Freemasons as unnatural and irrational?
572634c8271a42140099d764
Catholic
15
False
Who was controversial among Freemasons?
572634c8271a42140099d765
Albert Pike
192
False
Who has spoke for all Freemasons?
572634c8271a42140099d766
No one
736
False
Albert Pike's opinions were grounded in what?
572634c8271a42140099d767
late 19th century Southern Freemasonry of the USA
597
False
mysticism, occultism, and even Satanism
135
What are some Protestant rewards to Freemasonry?
5acf91bf77cf76001a6852b8
True
one voice
739
Who is always accepted as the voice of Freemasonry?
5acf91bf77cf76001a6852b9
True
Albert Pike
192
Who do the Protestant anti-Masons believe is the worst authority on the use of mysticism, Satanism and occultism in Freemasonry?
5acf91bf77cf76001a6852ba
True
late 19th century Southern Freemasonry
597
What was Albert Pike actually more of an amateur in?
5acf91bf77cf76001a6852bb
True
Catholic
15
What religion alleged Freemasons as omniscient?
5acf91bf77cf76001a6852bc
True
In contrast to Catholic allegations of rationalism and naturalism, Protestant objections are more likely to be based on allegations of mysticism, occultism, and even Satanism. Masonic scholar Albert Pike is often quoted (in some cases misquoted) by Protestant anti-Masons as an authority for the position of Masonry on these issues. However, Pike, although undoubtedly learned, was not a spokesman for Freemasonry and was also controversial among Freemasons in general. His writings represented his personal opinion only, and furthermore an opinion grounded in the attitudes and understandings of late 19th century Southern Freemasonry of the USA. Notably, his book carries in the preface a form of disclaimer from his own Grand Lodge. No one voice has ever spoken for the whole of Freemasonry.
What put English Freemasonry at risk?
5724f8f90a492a190043569a
Parliamentary proclamation
58
False
What did the Unlawful Socities Act ban?
5724f8f90a492a190043569b
meetings of groups that required their members to take an oath or obligation
167
False
When was the Unlawful Socities Act implemented?
5724f8f90a492a190043569c
1799
151
False
What was each private lodge required to provide to the Clerk of Peace every year?
5724f8f90a492a190043569d
a list of the members of his lodge
685
False
Who did the Grand Masters call upon to explain that Freemasonry was not an unlawful society?
5724f8f90a492a190043569e
Prime Minister William Pitt
323
False
English Freemasonry almost came to a halt in what year?
5726367789a1e219009ac574
1799
3
False
Why did English Freemasonry almost come to a halt in 1799?
5726367789a1e219009ac575
Parliamentary proclamation
58
False
What act was made in 1799 banning any meeting of groups that had to take an oath or obligation?
5726367789a1e219009ac576
the Unlawful Societies Act 1799
124
False
Who gave the Freemasons an exemption of the Act of 1799?
5726367789a1e219009ac577
Prime Minister William Pitt
323
False
What year did parliament rescind the exemption of 1799 given to the Freemasons?
5726367789a1e219009ac578
1967
754
False
Parliamentary proclamation
58
What put Canadian Freemasonry at risk?
5acfa5af77cf76001a6856fc
True
meetings of groups that required their members to take an oath or obligation
167
What did the Unlawful Societies Act encourage?
5acfa5af77cf76001a6856fd
True
1799
151
When was the Unlawful Societies Act forgotten?
5acfa5af77cf76001a6856fe
True
a list of the members of his lodge
685
What was each private lodge required to provide to the Clerk of Peace every week?
5acfa5af77cf76001a6856ff
True
Parliamentary proclamation
58
Why did English Freemasonry almost come to a halt in 1699?
5acfa5af77cf76001a685700
True
In 1799, English Freemasonry almost came to a halt due to Parliamentary proclamation. In the wake of the French Revolution, the Unlawful Societies Act 1799 banned any meetings of groups that required their members to take an oath or obligation. The Grand Masters of both the Moderns and the Antients Grand Lodges called on Prime Minister William Pitt (who was not a Freemason) and explained to him that Freemasonry was a supporter of the law and lawfully constituted authority and was much involved in charitable work. As a result, Freemasonry was specifically exempted from the terms of the Act, provided that each private lodge's Secretary placed with the local "Clerk of the Peace" a list of the members of his lodge once a year. This continued until 1967 when the obligation of the provision was rescinded by Parliament.
What are two things that anit-masonry usually associated with?
5724fb2b0ba9f01400d97bf5
antisemitism and anti-Zionism
51
False
What year did the Ba'ath Party make Freemasonry a felony?
5724fb2b0ba9f01400d97bf6
1980
98
False
Who wrote that it was not suprising that the blame for 9/11 was trying to be blamed on a masonic world order?
5724fb2b0ba9f01400d97bf7
Professor Andrew Prescott
332
False
According to  Professor Andrew Prescott, how long has antisemitism gone together with anti-masonry?
5724fb2b0ba9f01400d97bf8
Since at least the time of the Protocols of the Elders of Zion
398
False
In some countries, anti-Masonry is related to what?
572639beec44d21400f3dc61
antisemitism and anti-Zionism
51
False
Who change the Iraqi legal and penal code in 1980?
572639beec44d21400f3dc62
Saddam Hussein's ruling Ba'ath Party
150
False
Who suggested the September 11 attacks on the United States were inspired by a masonic world order?
572639beec44d21400f3dc63
Professor Andrew Prescott
332
False
antisemitism and anti-Zionism
51
What are two things that anti-masonry is always associated with?
5acfa86377cf76001a685762
True
1980
98
What year did the Ba'ath Party make Freemasonry a holiday?
5acfa86377cf76001a685763
True
Professor Andrew Prescott
332
Who wrote that it was shocking that the blame for 9/11 was trying to be blamed on a masonic world order?
5acfa86377cf76001a685764
True
Saddam Hussein's ruling Ba'ath Party
150
Who changed the Iraqi legal and penal code in 1780?
5acfa86377cf76001a685765
True
Since at least the time of the Protocols of the Elders of Zion
398
How long has antisemitism been against anti-masonry according to Professor Andrew Prescott?
5acfa86377cf76001a685766
True
In some countries anti-Masonry is often related to antisemitism and anti-Zionism. For example, In 1980, the Iraqi legal and penal code was changed by Saddam Hussein's ruling Ba'ath Party, making it a felony to "promote or acclaim Zionist principles, including Freemasonry, or who associate [themselves] with Zionist organisations". Professor Andrew Prescott of the University of Sheffield writes: "Since at least the time of the Protocols of the Elders of Zion, antisemitism has gone hand in hand with anti-masonry, so it is not surprising that allegations that 11 September was a Zionist plot have been accompanied by suggestions that the attacks were inspired by a masonic world order".
What do most masonic rituals consist of?
5724fc080ba9f01400d97c07
degree ceremonies
39
False
What is the first degree of Masonry?
5724fc080ba9f01400d97c08
Entered Apprentice
154
False
What is the second degree of Masonry?
5724fc080ba9f01400d97c09
Fellowcraft
252
False
What is the final degree of Masonry?
5724fc080ba9f01400d97c0a
Master Mason
314
False
What things come with each new degree in Freemasonry?
5724fc080ba9f01400d97c0b
passwords, signs and grips
388
False
The bulk of Masonic rituals consist of what?
5726413f89a1e219009ac608
degree ceremonies
39
False
What is the first of degree ceremonies?
5726413f89a1e219009ac609
the degree of Entered Apprentice
140
False
What comes after the degree of Entered Apprentice?
5726413f89a1e219009ac60a
the degree of Fellowcraft
238
False
What is the final degree in the Freemasons?
5726413f89a1e219009ac60b
the degree of Master Mason
300
False
What annual ceremony do Freemasons have?
5726413f89a1e219009ac60c
the annual installation of the Master and officers of the Lodge
461
False
degree ceremonies
39
What do no masonic rituals consist of?
5acf77f077cf76001a684ea8
True
Entered Apprentice
154
What is the ninth degree of Masonry?
5acf77f077cf76001a684ea9
True
Fellowcraft
252
What is the eighth degree of Masonry?
5acf77f077cf76001a684eaa
True
Master Mason
314
What is no longer the final degree of Masonry?
5acf77f077cf76001a684eab
True
installation of the Master and officers of the Lodge
472
What quarterly ceremony do Freemasons have?
5acf77f077cf76001a684eac
True
The bulk of Masonic ritual consists of degree ceremonies. Candidates for Freemasonry are progressively initiated into Freemasonry, first in the degree of Entered Apprentice. Some time later, in a separate ceremony, they will be passed to the degree of Fellowcraft, and finally they will be raised to the degree of Master Mason. In all of these ceremonies, the candidate is entrusted with passwords, signs and grips peculiar to his new rank. Another ceremony is the annual installation of the Master and officers of the Lodge. In some jurisdictions Installed Master is valued as a separate rank, with its own secrets to distinguish its members. In other jurisdictions, the grade is not recognised, and no inner ceremony conveys new secrets during the installation of a new Master of the Lodge.
When did English Freemasonry arrive in France?
5724fcfe0ba9f01400d97c11
the 1720s
40
False
Who were the first English Freemasons in France?
5724fcfe0ba9f01400d97c12
lodges of expatriates and exiled Jacobites
60
False
When did Freemasonry begin to spread to continental Europe?
5724fcfe0ba9f01400d97c13
18th century
289
False
Who formed the Grand Loge de France?
5724fcfe0ba9f01400d97c14
Duke of Clermont
370
False
Who was the successor to the Duke of Clermont?
5724fcfe0ba9f01400d97c15
Duke of Orléans
445
False
When did English Freemasonry spread to France?
572642db38643c19005ad3b9
the 1720s
40
False
When did Freemasonry spread to most of the Continental Europe?
572642db38643c19005ad3ba
the 18th century
285
False
The Grand Loge de France formed under who?
572642db38643c19005ad3bb
the Grand Mastership of the Duke of Clermont
342
False
Who was the successor to the Grand Mastership of The Duke of Clermont?
572642db38643c19005ad3bc
the Duke of Orléans
441
False
When was the central body of the Grand Orient de France reconstituted?
572642db38643c19005ad3bd
1773
526
False
the 1720s
40
When did English Freemasonry end in France?
5acf87fa77cf76001a685130
True
lodges of expatriates and exiled Jacobites
60
Who were the only English Freemasons in France?
5acf87fa77cf76001a685131
True
18th century
289
When did Freemasonry begin to spread to continental Antarctica?
5acf87fa77cf76001a685132
True
Duke of Clermont
370
Who destroyed the Grand Loge de France?
5acf87fa77cf76001a685133
True
1773
526
When was the central body of the Grand Orient de France lost?
5acf87fa77cf76001a685134
True
English Freemasonry spread to France in the 1720s, first as lodges of expatriates and exiled Jacobites, and then as distinctively French lodges which still follow the ritual of the Moderns. From France and England, Freemasonry spread to most of Continental Europe during the course of the 18th century. The Grande Loge de France formed under the Grand Mastership of the Duke of Clermont, who exercised only nominal authority. His successor, the Duke of Orléans, reconstituted the central body as the Grand Orient de France in 1773. Briefly eclipsed during the French Revolution, French Freemasonry continued to grow in the next century.
Why was the Centre de Liasion et d'information des Puissances maconniques signataires de l'Appel de Strasbourg set up?
572503ad0ba9f01400d97c2f
provides a forum for most of these Grand Lodges and Grand Orients worldwide
411
False
When was CLIPSAS set up?
572503ad0ba9f01400d97c30
1961
246
False
What are two major sections of Freemasonry?
572503ad0ba9f01400d97c31
Anglo-American and Continental
816
False
What is the Continental Strand consideres to be by most of Freemasonry?
572503ad0ba9f01400d97c32
Irregular
77
False
What strand is considered to be irregular by the majority of Freemasons?
572644d81125e71900ae193a
the Liberal (Continental) strand
38
False
The CLIPSAS Organization was formed in what year?
572644d81125e71900ae193b
1961
246
False
How many Grand Lodges and Grand Orients are listed in the CLIPSAS list?
572644d81125e71900ae193c
70
517
False
Does the United Grand Lodge of England communicate with any of the 70 lodges on the CLIPSAS list?
572644d81125e71900ae193d
does not communicate
686
False
provides a forum for most of these Grand Lodges and Grand Orients worldwide
411
Why was the Centre de Liasion et d'information des Puissances maconniques signataires de l'Appel de Strasbourg removed?
5acf8c5177cf76001a6851c6
True
1961
246
When was CLIPSAS forbidden?
5acf8c5177cf76001a6851c7
True
Anglo-American
816
What is the only major section of Freemasonry?
5acf8c5177cf76001a6851c8
True
Irregular
77
What is the Continental Strand considered to be by all of Freemasonry?
5acf8c5177cf76001a6851c9
True
70
517
How many Grand Lodges and Grand Orients are unlisted in the CLIPSAS list?
5acf8c5177cf76001a6851ca
True
The majority of Freemasonry considers the Liberal (Continental) strand to be Irregular, and thus withhold recognition. For the Continental lodges, however, having a different approach to Freemasonry was not a reason for severing masonic ties. In 1961, an umbrella organisation, Centre de Liaison et d'Information des Puissances maçonniques Signataires de l'Appel de Strasbourg (CLIPSAS) was set up, which today provides a forum for most of these Grand Lodges and Grand Orients worldwide. Included in the list of over 70 Grand Lodges and Grand Orients are representatives of all three of the above categories, including mixed and women's organisations. The United Grand Lodge of England does not communicate with any of these jurisdictions, and expects its allies to follow suit. This creates the distinction between Anglo-American and Continental Freemasonry.
Whao has always opposed Freemasonry?
572504be0a492a19004356b6
the Roman Catholic Church
73
False
Why does the Catholic Church oppose the Freemasons so strongly?
572504be0a492a19004356b7
teaches a naturalistic deistic religion
192
False
Who issued the first Papal prounouncement against Freemasonry?
572504be0a492a19004356b8
Pope Clement XII
360
False
When was the first Papal prounouncement against Freemasonry made?
572504be0a492a19004356b9
28 April 1738
404
False
What was the most recent Papal prounouncement agasnst Freemasonry?
572504be0a492a19004356ba
Pope Leo XIII's Ab apostolici, 15 October 1890
439
False
Who has the longest history of objection to Freemasonry?
57264651dd62a815002e802e
the Roman Catholic Church
73
False
What law banned books favoring Freemasonry?
57264651dd62a815002e802f
The 1917 Code of Canon Law
487
False
The Roman Catholic Church objection to Freemasons are based on what?
57264651dd62a815002e8030
Masonry teaches a naturalistic deistic religion
184
False
What pope first issued Papal pronouncements against Freemasons?
57264651dd62a815002e8031
Pope Clement XII
360
False
What pope most recently issued Papal pronouncements against Freemasons?
57264651dd62a815002e8032
Pope Leo XIII
439
False
the Roman Catholic Church
73
Who can never oppose Freemasonry?
5acf8f4577cf76001a68526c
True
teaches a naturalistic deistic religion
192
Why does the Catholic Church approve of the Freemasons so strongly?
5acf8f4577cf76001a68526d
True
Pope Clement XII
360
Who issued the only Papal pronouncement against Freemasonry?
5acf8f4577cf76001a68526e
True
the Roman Catholic Church
125
Who has the shortest history of objection to Freemasonry?
5acf8f4577cf76001a68526f
True
The 1917 Code of Canon Law
487
What law required books favoring Freemasonry?
5acf8f4577cf76001a685270
True
The denomination with the longest history of objection to Freemasonry is the Roman Catholic Church. The objections raised by the Roman Catholic Church are based on the allegation that Masonry teaches a naturalistic deistic religion which is in conflict with Church doctrine. A number of Papal pronouncements have been issued against Freemasonry. The first was Pope Clement XII's In eminenti apostolatus, 28 April 1738; the most recent was Pope Leo XIII's Ab apostolici, 15 October 1890. The 1917 Code of Canon Law explicitly declared that joining Freemasonry entailed automatic excommunication, and banned books favouring Freemasonry.
What action is forbid by the Orthodox Greek Church to Freemasons?
572506730a492a19004356c0
cannot partake of the Eucharist
178
False
What is the official stance on Freemasonry by the Greek Orthodox Church?
572506730a492a19004356c1
cannot be at all compatible with Christianity
401
False
What would happen if someone in the Greek Orthodox Church became a Freemason?
572506730a492a19004356c2
constitutes an act of apostasy
82
False
When did the Orthodox Church of Greece proclaim being a Freemason was an act of apostacy?
572506730a492a19004356c3
1933
3
False
Which other major religions hold the same beliefs, on Freemasonry, as the Orthodox Church of Greece?
572506730a492a19004356c4
Roman Catholic and Protestant
348
False
In what year did the Orthodox Church of Greece declare that being a Freemason constituted an act of apostasy?
572647a0f1498d1400e8dafe
1933
3
False
Freemasonry cannot be compatible with what according to the Orthodox Church?
572647a0f1498d1400e8daff
Christianity
434
False
Freemason cannot partake in what until they repent according to the Orthodox Church of Greece?
572647a0f1498d1400e8db00
the Eucharist
196
False
partake of the Eucharist
185
What action is mandatory by the Orthodox Greek Church to Freemasons?
5acf93b877cf76001a685310
True
compatible with Christianity
418
What is the unofficial stance on Freemasonry by the Greek Orthodox Church?
5acf93b877cf76001a685311
True
constitutes an act of apostasy
82
What would happen if someone in the Greek Orthodox Church saw a Freemason?
5acf93b877cf76001a685312
True
Roman Catholic
348
What is the only religion that holds the same beliefs, on Freemasonry, as the Orthodox Church of Greece?
5acf93b877cf76001a685313
True
1933
3
What year did the Orthodox Church of Greece declare that not being a Freemason constituted an act of apostasy?
5acf93b877cf76001a685314
True
In 1933, the Orthodox Church of Greece officially declared that being a Freemason constitutes an act of apostasy and thus, until he repents, the person involved with Freemasonry cannot partake of the Eucharist. This has been generally affirmed throughout the whole Eastern Orthodox Church. The Orthodox critique of Freemasonry agrees with both the Roman Catholic and Protestant versions: "Freemasonry cannot be at all compatible with Christianity as far as it is a secret organisation, acting and teaching in mystery and secret and deifying rationalism."
What belief is required of a candidate by the Grand Lodge?
5725077c0ba9f01400d97c37
belief in a Supreme Being
66
False
Are candadites required to express belief in a specific religion?
5725077c0ba9f01400d97c38
few cases
98
False
Which branch of Freemasonry does not require a belief in a supreme being?
5725077c0ba9f01400d97c39
Continental Freemasonry
334
False
Which branch of Freemasonry accepts atheists?
5725077c0ba9f01400d97c3a
"Liberal" or Continental
321
False
Which branch of Freemasonry only accepts Christians?
5725077c0ba9f01400d97c3b
Swedish Rite
234
False
Most Grand Lodges require a candidate to declare a belief in what?
57264908708984140094c167
a Supreme Being
76
False
Freemasons most common in Scandinavia only accept who as members?
57264908708984140094c168
Christians
275
False
What Freemason group accept atheists?
57264908708984140094c169
the Grand Orient de France
374
False
The Grand Orient de France is considered what type of Freemasonry?
57264908708984140094c16a
Liberal" or Continental Freemasonry
322
False
belief in a Supreme Being
66
What belief is optional of a candidate by the Grand Lodge?
5acf798f77cf76001a684ee2
True
Continental Freemasonry
334
Which branch of Freemasonry does not allow a belief in a supreme being?
5acf798f77cf76001a684ee3
True
"Liberal" or Continental
321
Which branch of Freemasonry executes atheists?
5acf798f77cf76001a684ee4
True
Swedish Rite
234
Which branch of Freemasonry only accepts children?
5acf798f77cf76001a684ee5
True
In addition, most Grand Lodges require the candidate to declare a belief in a Supreme Being. In a few cases, the candidate may be required to be of a specific religion. The form of Freemasonry most common in Scandinavia (known as the Swedish Rite), for example, accepts only Christians. At the other end of the spectrum, "Liberal" or Continental Freemasonry, exemplified by the Grand Orient de France, does not require a declaration of belief in any deity, and accepts atheists (a cause of discord with the rest of Freemasonry).
What is Exclusive Jurisdiction?
57250cbd0ba9f01400d97c41
only one Grand Lodge will be recognised in any geographical area
44
False
What happens if two Grand Lodges try to establish themselves in the same area?
57250cbd0ba9f01400d97c42
the other Grand Lodges will have to choose between them
169
False
What can happen if two over-lapping Grand Lodges are in Amity and decide to share jurisdiction?
57250cbd0ba9f01400d97c43
Exclusive Jurisdiction can be waived
487
False
If two over-lapping Grand Lodges are in Amity and decide to waive Exclusive Jurisdiction, who must the other Grand Lodges recognize?
57250cbd0ba9f01400d97c44
recognise both
814
False
What must other Grand Lodges do if two over-lapping Grand Lodges cannot agree to share the territory?
57250cbd0ba9f01400d97c45
choose between them
437
False
What concept only recognizes one Grand Lodge in a given geographical area?
57264a12dd62a815002e8086
Exclusive Jurisdiction
0
False
In what year did the Grand Lodge of New York Split into two separate rival factions?
57264a12dd62a815002e8087
1849
285
False
When can Exclusive Jurisdiction be waived?
57264a12dd62a815002e8088
when the two over-lapping Grand Lodges are themselves in Amity and agree to share jurisdiction
524
False
only one Grand Lodge will be recognised in any geographical area
44
What is Excluded Jurisdiction?
5acf80aa77cf76001a685018
True
the other Grand Lodges will have to choose between them
169
What happens if no Grand Lodges try to establish themselves in the same area?
5acf80aa77cf76001a685019
True
Exclusive Jurisdiction can be waived
487
What can happen if two over-lapping Grand Lodges are in Amity and decide to not share jurisdiction?
5acf80aa77cf76001a68501a
True
Exclusive Jurisdiction
748
What concept only recognizes several Grand Lodges in a given geographical area?
5acf80aa77cf76001a68501b
True
1849
285
What year did the Grand Lodge of New York Split into three separate rival factions?
5acf80aa77cf76001a68501c
True
Exclusive Jurisdiction is a concept whereby only one Grand Lodge will be recognised in any geographical area. If two Grand Lodges claim jurisdiction over the same area, the other Grand Lodges will have to choose between them, and they may not all decide to recognise the same one. (In 1849, for example, the Grand Lodge of New York split into two rival factions, each claiming to be the legitimate Grand Lodge. Other Grand Lodges had to choose between them until the schism was healed.) Exclusive Jurisdiction can be waived when the two over-lapping Grand Lodges are themselves in Amity and agree to share jurisdiction (for example, since the Grand Lodge of Connecticut is in Amity with the Prince Hall Grand Lodge of Connecticut, the principle of Exclusive Jurisdiction does not apply, and other Grand Lodges may recognise both).
From what centuries are the earliest passwords and rituals of Freemasonry known?
57250fc70a492a19004356ca
17th–18th
191
False
What is the oldest Masonic lodge in the world?
57250fc70a492a19004356cb
Lodge of Edinburgh (Mary's Chapel) No. 1 in Scotland
410
False
What were members who did not practice the physical craft known as?
57250fc70a492a19004356cc
accepted or speculative Masons
284
False
When compared, how similar are the rituals and passwords from the turn of the 17 - 18 centuries to the ones from the later 18th century?
57250fc70a492a19004356cd
show continuity
212
False
What is the oldest Masonic Lodge in the world?
57264b0f5951b619008f6f31
the Lodge of Edinburgh (Mary's Chapel) No. 1
406
False
When was the Lodge of Edinburgh started?
57264b0f5951b619008f6f32
1598
508
False
When did rituals become similar between different Masonic Lodges?
57264b0f5951b619008f6f33
in the later 18th century
255
False
17th
191
What century is the only one with passwords and rituals of Freemasonry known?
5acf850e77cf76001a68509e
True
Lodge of Edinburgh (Mary's Chapel) No. 1 in Scotland
410
What is the only Masonic lodge in the world?
5acf850e77cf76001a68509f
True
accepted or speculative Masons
284
What were members who practiced the magical craft known as?
5acf850e77cf76001a6850a0
True
1598
508
When was the Lodge of Edinburgh abandoned?
5acf850e77cf76001a6850a1
True
in the later 18th century
255
When did rituals become identical between different Masonic Lodges?
5acf850e77cf76001a6850a2
True
There is no clear mechanism by which these local trade organisations became today's Masonic Lodges, but the earliest rituals and passwords known, from operative lodges around the turn of the 17th–18th centuries, show continuity with the rituals developed in the later 18th century by accepted or speculative Masons, as those members who did not practice the physical craft came to be known. The minutes of the Lodge of Edinburgh (Mary's Chapel) No. 1 in Scotland show a continuity from an operative lodge in 1598 to a modern speculative Lodge. It is reputed to be the oldest Masonic Lodge in the world.
Why was Prince Hall Freemasonry formed?
572511840a492a19004356d2
refusal of early American lodges to admit African-Americans
46
False
When was Prince Hall Freemasonry formed?
572511840a492a19004356d3
1775
110
False
What happened when the UGLE was formed in 1813?
572511840a492a19004356d4
U.S.-based Lodges were stricken from their rolls
662
False
What did Africian Lodge, Number 459 become after they were removed from the UGLE?
572511840a492a19004356d5
African Lodge, Number 1
864
False
What was Africian Lodge, Number 1 considered after they changed from Africian Lodge, Number 459?
572511840a492a19004356d6
became a de facto "Grand Lodge"
894
False
What exists today because of the refusal of early American lodges to admit African Americans?
57264caef1498d1400e8db70
Prince Hall Freemasonry
0
False
In what year was Prince Hall admitted into the British military lodge?
57264caef1498d1400e8db71
1775
110
False
When was the African Lodge, number 459, formed?
57264caef1498d1400e8db72
1784
497
False
When was the UGLE formed?
57264caef1498d1400e8db73
1813
652
False
The African Lodge re-titled itself what?
57264caef1498d1400e8db74
the African Lodge, Number 1
860
False
refusal of early American lodges to admit African-Americans
46
Why was Prince Hall Freemasonry outlawed?
5acf86b477cf76001a6850da
True
1775
110
When was Prince Hall Freemasonry forgotten?
5acf86b477cf76001a6850db
True
U.S.-based Lodges were stricken from their rolls
662
What happened when the UGLE was formed in 1913?
5acf86b477cf76001a6850dc
True
became a de facto "Grand Lodge"
894
What was African Lodge, Number 3 considered after they changed from African Lodge, Number 456?
5acf86b477cf76001a6850dd
True
Prince Hall Freemasonry
0
What no longer exists today because of the refusal of early American lodges to admit African Americans?
5acf86b477cf76001a6850de
True
Prince Hall Freemasonry exists because of the refusal of early American lodges to admit African-Americans. In 1775, an African-American named Prince Hall, along with fourteen other African-Americans, was initiated into a British military lodge with a warrant from the Grand Lodge of Ireland, having failed to obtain admission from the other lodges in Boston. When the military Lodge left North America, those fifteen men were given the authority to meet as a Lodge, but not to initiate Masons. In 1784, these individuals obtained a Warrant from the Premier Grand Lodge of England (GLE) and formed African Lodge, Number 459. When the UGLE was formed in 1813, all U.S.-based Lodges were stricken from their rolls – due largely to the War of 1812. Thus, separated from both UGLE and any concordantly recognised U.S. Grand Lodge, African Lodge re-titled itself as the African Lodge, Number 1 – and became a de facto "Grand Lodge" (this Lodge is not to be confused with the various Grand Lodges on the Continent of Africa). As with the rest of U.S. Freemasonry, Prince Hall Freemasonry soon grew and organised on a Grand Lodge system for each state.
When was Maria Deraismes initiated into Freemasonry?
572512df0a492a19004356dc
1882
50
False
Why did Deraismes resign from Freemasonry?
572512df0a492a19004356dd
allow her lodge to rejoin their Grand Lodge
73
False
What led to exclusively female bodies of Freemasons in England?
572512df0a492a19004356de
Disagreements over ritual
343
False
Who, along with Maria Dersaismes, started a mixed gender masonic lodge?
572512df0a492a19004356df
Georges Martin
195
False
Who brought the message of mixed gender, practicing masonic lodges to the English speaking?
572512df0a492a19004356e0
Annie Besant
277
False
Who resigned from the Freemasons for their lodge to rejoin their Grand Lodge?
57264e55f1498d1400e8db9e
Maria Deraismes
0
False
What year was Maria Deraismes initiated into the Freemasons?
57264e55f1498d1400e8db9f
1882
50
False
Maria Deraismes and who else started a mixed masonic lodge?
57264e55f1498d1400e8dba0
Georges Martin
195
False
What year was an all-female masonic lodge created?
57264e55f1498d1400e8dba1
1901
551
False
What year was the all-female masonic lodge cast aside?
57264e55f1498d1400e8dba2
1935
588
False
1882
50
When was Maria Deraismes assassinated in Freemasonry?
5acf8d9777cf76001a68521e
True
their Grand Lodge
99
Why did Deraismes dislike Freemasonry?
5acf8d9777cf76001a68521f
True
Disagreements over ritual
343
What led to exclusively transgender bodies of Freemasons in England?
5acf8d9777cf76001a685220
True
Georges Martin
195
Who, along with Maria Dersaismes, stopped a mixed gender masonic lodge?
5acf8d9777cf76001a685221
True
1901
551
What year was an all-animal masonic lodge created?
5acf8d9777cf76001a685222
True
Maria Deraismes was initiated into Freemasonry in 1882, then resigned to allow her lodge to rejoin their Grand Lodge. Having failed to achieve acceptance from any masonic governing body, she and Georges Martin started a mixed masonic lodge that actually worked masonic ritual. Annie Besant spread the phenomenon to the English speaking world. Disagreements over ritual led to the formation of exclusively female bodies of Freemasons in England, which spread to other countries. Meanwhile, the French had re-invented Adoption as an all-female lodge in 1901, only to cast it aside again in 1935. The lodges, however, continued to meet, which gave rise, in 1959, to a body of women practising continental Freemasonry.
What do Islamic anti-masonics link Freemasonry to?
5725140d0a492a19004356e6
al-Masih ad-Dajjal (the false Messiah
156
False
Why do muslim anti-masonics believe that the Freemasons want to destroy the Al-Aqsa Mosque?
5725140d0a492a19004356e7
rebuild the Temple of Solomon in Jerusalem
365
False
What is another group that anti-masonic muslims link to zionism?
5725140d0a492a19004356e8
Rotary
471
False
What are most of the arguements by anti-masonic muslims centered on?
5725140d0a492a19004356e9
antisemitism and Anti-Zionism
61
False
Who's interests are the muslin anti-masonics afraid that the Freemasons are protecting?
5725140d0a492a19004356ea
Jews
273
False
What do many Islamic and anti-Masonic argue about Freemasonry?
572651f5dd62a815002e816e
linking Freemasonry to al-Masih ad-Dajjal (the false Messiah)
133
False
Some Muslims argue that Freemasonry promotes what?
572651f5dd62a815002e816f
the interests of the Jews
252
False
What article states that Freemasonry work in the interest of Zionism?
572651f5dd62a815002e8170
article 28
412
False
al-Masih ad-Dajjal (the false Messiah)
156
What do Islamic Masonics link Freemasonry to?
5acf949077cf76001a685340
True
in order to rebuild the Temple of Solomon in Jerusalem
353
Why do Muslim Masonics believe that the Freemasons want to destroy the Al-Aqsa Mosque?
5acf949077cf76001a685341
True
Rotary
471
What is another group that Masonic Muslims link to Islam?
5acf949077cf76001a685342
True
Jews
273
Who's interests are the muslin anti-masonics afraid that the Freemasons are hurting?
5acf949077cf76001a685343
True
article 28
412
What article states that Freemasonry work in the interest of humanity?
5acf949077cf76001a685344
True
Many Islamic anti-Masonic arguments are closely tied to both antisemitism and Anti-Zionism, though other criticisms are made such as linking Freemasonry to al-Masih ad-Dajjal (the false Messiah). Some Muslim anti-Masons argue that Freemasonry promotes the interests of the Jews around the world and that one of its aims is to destroy the Al-Aqsa Mosque in order to rebuild the Temple of Solomon in Jerusalem. In article 28 of its Covenant, Hamas states that Freemasonry, Rotary, and other similar groups "work in the interest of Zionism and according to its instructions ..."
How many Freemasons are believed to have been killed under Hitler's Nazi Regime?
572517240ba9f01400d97c4b
between 80,000 and 200,000
396
False
What kind of prisioner was a Freemason considered to be?
572517240ba9f01400d97c4c
political prisoners
519
False
What identifier did the Nazis make the Freemason prisioners wear?
572517240ba9f01400d97c4d
inverted red triangle
551
False
Who was responsible for creating antisemetic and anti-masonic propaganda?
572517240ba9f01400d97c4e
Professor Franz Six
192
False
Where is most of the informaton about Freemasons persecuted in the Holocaust located?
572517240ba9f01400d97c4f
The preserved records of the Reichssicherheitshauptamt (the Reich Security Main Office)
0
False
What is the Relch Security Main Office also called?
572652fd708984140094c265
Reichssicherheitshauptamt
29
False
Who was responsible for ideological tasks of the written records?
572652fd708984140094c266
Professor Franz Six
192
False
How many Freemasons were killed under the Nazi regime?
572652fd708984140094c267
between 80,000 and 200,000
396
False
What did Masonic concentration camp inmates have to wear?
572652fd708984140094c268
an inverted red triangle.
548
False
between 80,000 and 200,000
396
How many Freemasons are believed to have been resurrected under Hitler's Nazi Regime?
5acfa93b77cf76001a68578a
True
political prisoners
519
What kind of deity was a Freemason considered to be?
5acfa93b77cf76001a68578b
True
inverted red triangle
551
What identifier did the Nazis make the Freemason prisoners conceal?
5acfa93b77cf76001a68578c
True
Reichssicherheitshauptamt
29
What is the Reich Security Main Office required to be called?
5acfa93b77cf76001a68578d
True
Professor Franz Six
192
Who was responsible for geography tasks of the verbal records?
5acfa93b77cf76001a68578e
True
The preserved records of the Reichssicherheitshauptamt (the Reich Security Main Office) show the persecution of Freemasons during the Holocaust. RSHA Amt VII (Written Records) was overseen by Professor Franz Six and was responsible for "ideological" tasks, by which was meant the creation of antisemitic and anti-Masonic propaganda. While the number is not accurately known, it is estimated that between 80,000 and 200,000 Freemasons were killed under the Nazi regime. Masonic concentration camp inmates were graded as political prisoners and wore an inverted red triangle.
Where are the origins of Freemasonry?
5725187a0ba9f01400d97c55
local fraternities of stonemasons
80
False
What were the fraternaties of stonemasons origionally responsible for?
5725187a0ba9f01400d97c56
regulated the qualifications of stonemasons and their interaction with authorities and clients
160
False
Where did the degrees of Freemasonry derived from?
5725187a0ba9f01400d97c57
the three grades of medieval craft guilds
290
False
What are the degrees of Freemasonry?
5725187a0ba9f01400d97c58
Apprentice, Journeyman or fellow (now called Fellowcraft), and Master Mason
342
False
Freemasons trace their origins to what?
57265415dd62a815002e81ac
the local fraternities of stonemasons
76
False
How many grades are there in medieval craft guilds?
57265415dd62a815002e81ad
three grades
294
False
Craft Freemasonry is also known as what?
57265415dd62a815002e81ae
Blue Lodge
462
False
Members of Craft Masonry are called what?
57265415dd62a815002e81af
Freemasons or Masons
531
False
local fraternities of stonemasons
80
Where did Freemasonry end?
5acf766777cf76001a684e6e
True
regulated the qualifications of stonemasons and their interaction with authorities and clients
160
What were the fraternities of stonemasons avoiding responsibility for?
5acf766777cf76001a684e6f
True
Apprentice, Journeyman or fellow (now called Fellowcraft), and Master Mason
342
What are no longer the degrees of Freemasonry?
5acf766777cf76001a684e70
True
three
294
How many kings are there in medieval craft guilds?
5acf766777cf76001a684e71
True
Blue Lodge
462
What is Craft Freemasonry forbidden as being known as?
5acf766777cf76001a684e72
True
Freemasonry consists of fraternal organisations that trace their origins to the local fraternities of stonemasons, which from the end of the fourteenth century regulated the qualifications of stonemasons and their interaction with authorities and clients. The degrees of freemasonry retain the three grades of medieval craft guilds, those of Apprentice, Journeyman or fellow (now called Fellowcraft), and Master Mason. These are the degrees offered by Craft (or Blue Lodge) Freemasonry. Members of these organisations are known as Freemasons or Masons. There are additional degrees, which vary with locality and jurisdiction, and are usually administered by different bodies than the craft degrees.
How are Freemasons invited to join a lodge?
572519280a492a19004356f0
they are never invited
473
False
How does one become a Freemason?
572519280a492a19004356f1
The onus is on candidates to ask to join
388
False
Can women ask to be a member of the Masonic Lodge?
572519280a492a19004356f2
depending on the Masonic Jurisdiction
705
False
How can you find a lodge to ask to be a member of?
572519280a492a19004356f3
track down a local Lodge through the Internet
341
False
Candidates for Freemasonry must do what before being initiated?
572655ecdd62a815002e81d8
will have met most active members of the Lodge they are joining
27
False
Candidates are normally introduced to the lodge by whom?
572655ecdd62a815002e81d9
a friend
217
False
Now days, many interested people find a Masonic Lodge using what?
572655ecdd62a815002e81da
the Internet
374
False
Candidates are never what to a Masonic lodge?
572655ecdd62a815002e81db
never invited
482
False
What usually follows an initial inquiry of a candidate?
572655ecdd62a815002e81dc
an interview
531
False
they are never invited
473
How are Freemasons asked to leave a lodge?
5acf78c877cf76001a684ec6
True
The onus is on candidates to ask to join
388
Why can't anyone become a Freemason?
5acf78c877cf76001a684ec7
True
depending on the Masonic Jurisdiction
705
Can pets ask to be a member of the Masonic Lodge?
5acf78c877cf76001a684ec8
True
an interview
531
What always follows an initial inquiry of a candidate?
5acf78c877cf76001a684ec9
True
Candidates for Freemasonry will have met most active members of the Lodge they are joining before they are initiated. The process varies between jurisdictions, but the candidate will typically have been introduced by a friend at a Lodge social function, or at some form of open evening in the Lodge. In modern times, interested people often track down a local Lodge through the Internet. The onus is on candidates to ask to join; while candidates may be encouraged to ask, they are never invited. Once the initial inquiry is made, an interview usually follows to determine the candidate's suitability. If the candidate decides to proceed from here, the Lodge ballots on the application before he (or she, depending on the Masonic Jurisdiction) can be accepted.
How large is the membership of Freemasonry?
572519c80a492a19004356f8
around six million worldwide
130
False
What is the largest single jurisdiction of Freemasonry?
572519c80a492a19004356f9
United Grand Lodge of England
436
False
How many members does the UGLE have?
572519c80a492a19004356fa
around a quarter million
498
False
What are the membership numbers of the United States?
572519c80a492a19004356fb
just under two million
674
False
How many members does the Grand Lodge of Scotland and the Grand Lodge of Ireland have, together?
572519c80a492a19004356fc
150,000
616
False
How many members are in Freemasonry?
572656fbdd62a815002e8204
around six million worldwide
130
False
What lodge has the single largest single jurisdiction of Freemasonry?
572656fbdd62a815002e8205
the United Grand Lodge of England
432
False
How many members are in the Grand Lodge of England?
572656fbdd62a815002e8206
around a quarter million
498
False
The Grand Lodges of Scotland and Ireland have how many member?
572656fbdd62a815002e8207
approximately 150,000 members
602
False
The United States has how many Freemason members?
572656fbdd62a815002e8208
just under two million
674
False
around six million worldwide
130
How many people lost membership of Freemasonry?
5acf7ae777cf76001a684f26
True
United Grand Lodge of England
97
What is the only single jurisdiction of Freemasonry?
5acf7ae777cf76001a684f27
True
around a quarter million
498
How many members does the UGLE lose every year?
5acf7ae777cf76001a684f28
True
just under two million
674
How many members left the United States?
5acf7ae777cf76001a684f29
True
150,000
616
How many dogs are in the Grand Lodge of England?
5acf7ae777cf76001a684f2a
True
Freemasonry, as it exists in various forms all over the world, has a membership estimated by the United Grand Lodge of England at around six million worldwide. The fraternity is administratively organised into independent Grand Lodges (or sometimes Grand Orients), each of which governs its own Masonic jurisdiction, which consists of subordinate (or constituent) Lodges. The largest single jurisdiction, in terms of membership, is the United Grand Lodge of England (with a membership estimated at around a quarter million). The Grand Lodge of Scotland and Grand Lodge of Ireland (taken together) have approximately 150,000 members. In the United States total membership is just under two million.
Are masons allowed to divulge the secrets of each degree?
57251b2c0a492a1900435702
Masons swear at each degree to keep the contents of that degree secret
172
False
How are oaths taken?
57251b2c0a492a1900435703
on a Volume of Sacred Law
366
False
In what branch can books, other than scripture, be used for the purpose of oath taking?
57251b2c0a492a1900435704
Progressive continental Freemasonry
551
False
What can be considered a Volume of Sacred Law?
57251b2c0a492a1900435705
whichever book of divine revelation is appropriate to the religious beliefs of the individual brother
393
False
Masons swear to protect their brethren unless they what?
572657f1708984140094c327
have broken the law
298
False
Most lodges have the oath taken on what?
572657f1708984140094c328
Volume of Sacred Law
371
False
Mason swear at each degree to do what?
572657f1708984140094c329
keep the contents of that degree secret
203
False
Masons swear at each degree to keep the contents of that degree secret
172
Why are masons allowed to divulge the secrets of each degree?
5acf836377cf76001a68506e
True
on a Volume of Sacred Law
366
How are oaths taken as fake?
5acf836377cf76001a68506f
True
whichever book of divine revelation is appropriate to the religious beliefs of the individual brother
393
What can be considered a Volume of Sacred Math?
5acf836377cf76001a685070
True
have broken the law
298
What are Masons required to have done in order to be protected?
5acf836377cf76001a685071
True
Progressive continental Freemasonry
551
What branch of Freemasonry requires books other than scripture?
5acf836377cf76001a685072
True
The idea of Masonic brotherhood probably descends from a 16th-century legal definition of a brother as one who has taken an oath of mutual support to another. Accordingly, Masons swear at each degree to keep the contents of that degree secret, and to support and protect their brethren unless they have broken the law. In most Lodges the oath or obligation is taken on a Volume of Sacred Law, whichever book of divine revelation is appropriate to the religious beliefs of the individual brother (usually the Bible in the Anglo-American tradition). In Progressive continental Freemasonry, books other than scripture are permissible, a cause of rupture between Grand Lodges.
Where were the earliest known American Logdes located?
57251c250ba9f01400d97c5d
Pennsylvania
43
False
What is the earliest that lodges appeared in America?
57251c250ba9f01400d97c5e
1715
148
False
When was a Provincial Grand Master for North America appointed?
57251c250ba9f01400d97c5f
1731
313
False
Where did other American Lodges obtain their authoriisations from?
57251c250ba9f01400d97c60
Antient Grand Lodge of England, the Grand Lodge of Scotland, and the Grand Lodge of Ireland
408
False
When did the lodges without prior authorisations apply to be recognized?
57251c250ba9f01400d97c61
after they were confident of their own survival
706
False
Where were the earliest lodges in America?
5726596df1498d1400e8dcd2
Pennsylvania
43
False
Who was the Collector for the port of Pennsylvania in 1715?
5726596df1498d1400e8dcd3
John Moore
101
False
A Provincial Grand Master for North America was first appointed when?
5726596df1498d1400e8dcd4
1731
313
False
The Provincial Grand Master for North America was base where?
5726596df1498d1400e8dcd5
Pennsylvania
328
False
Pennsylvania
43
Where were the only known American Lodges located?
5acf862b77cf76001a6850c6
True
1715
148
What is the earliest that lodges exploded in America?
5acf862b77cf76001a6850c7
True
1731
313
When was a Provincial Grand Master for The World appointed?
5acf862b77cf76001a6850c8
True
after they were confident of their own survival
706
When did the lodges without prior authorizations apply to be forgotten?
5acf862b77cf76001a6850c9
True
John Moore
101
Who was the Collector for the port of Pennsylvania in 1615?
5acf862b77cf76001a6850ca
True
The earliest known American lodges were in Pennsylvania. The Collector for the port of Pennsylvania, John Moore, wrote of attending lodges there in 1715, two years before the formation of the first Grand Lodge in London. The Premier Grand Lodge of England appointed a Provincial Grand Master for North America in 1731, based in Pennsylvania. Other lodges in the colony obtained authorisations from the later Antient Grand Lodge of England, the Grand Lodge of Scotland, and the Grand Lodge of Ireland, which was particularly well represented in the travelling lodges of the British Army. Many lodges came into existence with no warrant from any Grand Lodge, applying and paying for their authorisation only after they were confident of their own survival.
How long have Masonic Lodges been in Iraq?
57251e0e0ba9f01400d97c67
as early as 1917
31
False
How many lodges existed in Iraq in the 1950s?
57251e0e0ba9f01400d97c68
Nine
129
False
What is the greatest penalty that a Freemason in Iraq could face now?
57251e0e0ba9f01400d97c69
the death penalty
373
False
When were all the lodges in Iraq forced to close?
57251e0e0ba9f01400d97c6a
1965
310
False
When was a Scottish Lodge formed in Iraq?
57251e0e0ba9f01400d97c6b
1923
209
False
When did Masonic lodges start in Iraq?
57265d965951b619008f70a9
1917
43
False
Who opened the first Lodge in Iraq?
57265d965951b619008f70aa
the United Grand Lodge of England
76
False
When was the first Scottish Masonic lodge opened in Iraq?
57265d965951b619008f70ab
1923
209
False
All Masonic lodges were forced to close in Iraq in what year?
57265d965951b619008f70ac
1965
310
False
Who introduced the death penalty to Freemasons living in Iraq?
57265d965951b619008f70ad
Saddam Hussein
357
False
as early as 1917
31
How long have Masonic Lodges been banned in Iraq?
5acfa4d477cf76001a6856d0
True
Nine
129
How many lodges existed in Iraq in the 1350s?
5acfa4d477cf76001a6856d1
True
the death penalty
373
What is the greatest reward that a Freemason in Iraq could face now?
5acfa4d477cf76001a6856d2
True
1923
209
When was a Russian Lodge formed in Iraq?
5acfa4d477cf76001a6856d3
True
the United Grand Lodge of England
76
Who opened the only Lodge in Iraq?
5acfa4d477cf76001a6856d4
True
Masonic lodges existed in Iraq as early as 1917, when the first lodge under the United Grand Lodge of England (UGLE) was opened. Nine lodges under UGLE existed by the 1950s, and a Scottish lodge was formed in 1923. However, the position changed following the revolution, and all lodges were forced to close in 1965. This position was later reinforced under Saddam Hussein; the death penalty was "prescribed" for those who "promote or acclaim Zionist principles, including freemasonry, or who associate [themselves] with Zionist organisations."
When was the United Grand Lodge of England Formed?
57265b4e708984140094c377
1813
166
False
The Grand Orient de France and the United Grand Lodge of England continued in amity until when?
57265b4e708984140094c378
the 1860s and 1870s
258
False
What year did the Supreme Council of the Ancient and Accepted Scottish Rite of Louisiana appear in the jurisdiction of the Grand Lodge of Louisiana?
57265b4e708984140094c379
1868
329
False
1813
166
When was the United Grand Lodge of England demolished?
5acf889e77cf76001a685142
True
1868
329
What year did the Supreme Council of the Ancient and Accepted Scottish Rite of Louisiana disappear in the jurisdiction of the Grand Lodge of Louisiana?
5acf889e77cf76001a685143
True
United Grand Lodge of England
133
What lodge was never in amity with another?
5acf889e77cf76001a685144
True
blacks
631
Who did the new Scottish rite body refuse to admit?
5acf889e77cf76001a685145
True
The ritual form on which the Grand Orient of France was based was abolished in England in the events leading to the formation of the United Grand Lodge of England in 1813. However the two jurisdictions continued in amity (mutual recognition) until events of the 1860s and 1870s drove a seemingly permanent wedge between them. In 1868 the Supreme Council of the Ancient and Accepted Scottish Rite of the State of Louisiana appeared in the jurisdiction of the Grand Lodge of Louisiana, recognised by the Grand Orient de France, but regarded by the older body as an invasion of their jurisdiction. The new Scottish rite body admitted blacks, and the resolution of the Grand Orient the following year that neither colour, race, nor religion could disqualify a man from Masonry prompted the Grand Lodge to withdraw recognition, and it persuaded other American Grand Lodges to do the same.
In what year was a new code to the Canon Law issued by the church?
57265c69dd62a815002e82b2
1983
3
False
Who clarified the new code of Canon law of 1983?
57265c69dd62a815002e82b3
Cardinal Joseph Ratzinger
646
False
Do Freemasons allow Catholics into their fraternity?
57265c69dd62a815002e82b4
Freemasonry has never objected to Catholics joining their fraternity
1189
False
1983
3
What year was an old code to the Canon Law issued by the church?
5acf90d077cf76001a68529c
True
Cardinal Joseph Ratzinger
646
Who clarified the new code of Canon law of 1973?
5acf90d077cf76001a68529d
True
the Church's negative judgment in regard to Masonic association remains unchanged
830
Why are Catholics not allowed into Freemasonry?
5acf90d077cf76001a68529e
True
Grand Lodges
1265
Which lodges are never in amity with UGLE?
5acf90d077cf76001a68529f
True
In 1983, the Church issued a new code of canon law. Unlike its predecessor, the 1983 Code of Canon Law did not explicitly name Masonic orders among the secret societies it condemns. It states: "A person who joins an association which plots against the Church is to be punished with a just penalty; one who promotes or takes office in such an association is to be punished with an interdict." This named omission of Masonic orders caused both Catholics and Freemasons to believe that the ban on Catholics becoming Freemasons may have been lifted, especially after the perceived liberalisation of Vatican II. However, the matter was clarified when Cardinal Joseph Ratzinger (later Pope Benedict XVI), as the Prefect of the Congregation for the Doctrine of the Faith, issued a Declaration on Masonic Associations, which states: "... the Church's negative judgment in regard to Masonic association remains unchanged since their principles have always been considered irreconcilable with the doctrine of the Church and therefore membership in them remains forbidden. The faithful who enroll in Masonic associations are in a state of grave sin and may not receive Holy Communion." For its part, Freemasonry has never objected to Catholics joining their fraternity. Those Grand Lodges in amity with UGLE deny the Church's claims. The UGLE now states that "Freemasonry does not seek to replace a Mason's religion or provide a substitute for it."
Judges and police officers had to disclose their Freemason membership in what years in England?
57265ec2708984140094c3d3
from 1999 to 2009
165
False
Who ended the English Masonic disclosure policy in 2009?
57265ec2708984140094c3d4
Justice Secretary Jack Straw
588
False
Justice Secretary Jack Straw ended the Masonic disclosure law on what grounds?
57265ec2708984140094c3d5
the rule was considered disproportionate
685
False
Justice Secretary Jack Straw
588
Who ended the English Masonic disclosure policy in 2004?
5acfa7be77cf76001a68573c
True
the rule was considered disproportionate
685
Why did Justice Secretary Jack Straw begin the Masonic closure law?
5acfa7be77cf76001a68573d
True
modern democracies
8
What democracies always view Freemasonry with trust?
5acfa7be77cf76001a68573e
True
Masons
346
Who was required to not be transparent to the public?
5acfa7be77cf76001a68573f
True
Even in modern democracies, Freemasonry is sometimes viewed with distrust. In the UK, Masons working in the justice system, such as judges and police officers, were from 1999 to 2009 required to disclose their membership. While a parliamentary inquiry found that there has been no evidence of wrongdoing, it was felt that any potential loyalties Masons might have, based on their vows to support fellow Masons, should be transparent to the public. The policy of requiring a declaration of masonic membership of applicants for judicial office (judges and magistrates) was ended in 2009 by Justice Secretary Jack Straw (who had initiated the requirement in the 1990s). Straw stated that the rule was considered disproportionate, since no impropriety or malpractice had been shown as a result of judges being Freemasons.
What is the basic organizational unit of Freemasonry?
57265fe1708984140094c3fb
The Masonic Lodge
0
False
Name examples of usual formal business that Freemasons have at their lodge.
57265fe1708984140094c3fc
pay bills, organise social and charitable events, elect new members
157
False
What usually happens at the conclusion of a lodge meeting?
57265fe1708984140094c3fd
a formal dinner
466
False
The Masonic Lodge
0
What is the complex organizational unit of Freemasonry?
5acf777777cf76001a684ea0
True
a formal dinner
466
What always happens at the conclusion of a lodge meeting?
5acf777777cf76001a684ea1
True
The Lodge
67
Where do Freemasons meet only on special occasion?
5acf777777cf76001a684ea2
True
Freemasonry
54
What organization was not allowed to have ceremonies?
5acf777777cf76001a684ea3
True
The Masonic Lodge is the basic organisational unit of Freemasonry. The Lodge meets regularly to conduct the usual formal business of any small organisation (pay bills, organise social and charitable events, elect new members, etc.). In addition to business, the meeting may perform a ceremony to confer a Masonic degree or receive a lecture, which is usually on some aspect of Masonic history or ritual. At the conclusion of the meeting, the Lodge might adjourn for a formal dinner, or festive board, sometimes involving toasting and song.
When does a candidate swear to fullfil his obligations as a Mason?
5726613a708984140094c421
During the ceremony of initiation
0
False
What does a candidate swear on?
5726613a708984140094c422
usually on a volume of sacred text
71
False
How many degrees must a Mason swear to keep the secrets from outsiders?
5726613a708984140094c423
three degrees
210
False
Are Freemasons free to explore the craft?
5726613a708984140094c424
Freemasons are left to explore the craft in the manner they find most satisfying
478
False
During the ceremony of initiation
0
When does a candidate lose ability to fulfill his obligations as a Mason?
5acf7a3977cf76001a684f02
True
usually on a volume of sacred text
71
What does a candidate sweat on?
5acf7a3977cf76001a684f03
True
three degrees
210
How many degrees must a Mason swear to tell outsiders?
5acf7a3977cf76001a684f04
True
explore the ritual and symbolism of the craft
578
What are Freemasons required to do for their craft?
5acf7a3977cf76001a684f05
True
During the ceremony of initiation, the candidate is expected to swear (usually on a volume of sacred text appropriate to his personal religious faith) to fulfil certain obligations as a Mason. In the course of three degrees, new masons will promise to keep the secrets of their degree from lower degrees and outsiders, and to support a fellow Mason in distress (as far as practicality and the law permit). There is instruction as to the duties of a Freemason, but on the whole, Freemasons are left to explore the craft in the manner they find most satisfying. Some will further explore the ritual and symbolism of the craft, others will focus their involvement on the social side of the Lodge, while still others will concentrate on the charitable functions of the lodge.
What concept is based on adherence to Masonic Landmarks, basic membership requirements, and tenets and rituals of the craft?
572662b9708984140094c46f
Regularity
0
False
Is each definition of regularity the same throughout all Masonic Lodges?
572662b9708984140094c470
Each Grand Lodge sets its own definition
133
False
When can a Grand Lodge declare another lodge as irregular?
572662b9708984140094c471
If the differences are significant
476
False
Regularity
0
What concept is not based on adherence to Masonic Landmarks, basic membership requirements, and tenets and rituals of the craft?
5acf816477cf76001a68502a
True
If the differences are significant
476
When can a Grand Lodge declare another lodge as regular?
5acf816477cf76001a68502b
True
every Grand Lodge
332
What are never considered "Irregular"?
5acf816477cf76001a68502c
True
adherence to Masonic Landmarks
33
Why are landmarks for every Grand Lodge the same?
5acf816477cf76001a68502d
True
Regularity is a concept based on adherence to Masonic Landmarks, the basic membership requirements, tenets and rituals of the craft. Each Grand Lodge sets its own definition of what these landmarks are, and thus what is Regular and what is Irregular (and the definitions do not necessarily agree between Grand Lodges). Essentially, every Grand Lodge will hold that its landmarks (its requirements, tenets and rituals) are Regular, and judge other Grand Lodges based on those. If the differences are significant, one Grand Lodge may declare the other "Irregular" and withdraw or withhold recognition.
All Freemasons are progressively initiated, passed, and raised in three degrees of what?
57266454f1498d1400e8de0e
Craft, or Blue Lodge Masonry
128
False
The initiations are part allegory and part what?
57266454f1498d1400e8de0f
lecture
402
False
What is the final of the three steps of Freemasonry?
57266454f1498d1400e8de10
Master Mason
598
False
Who was the chief architect of the Temple of Solomon?
57266454f1498d1400e8de11
Hiram Abiff
524
False
How many versions of the Hiram myth are there?
57266454f1498d1400e8de12
at least two
671
False
Craft, or Blue Lodge Masonry
128
What are all Freemasons progressively initiated, passed, and raised in six degrees of?
5acf825f77cf76001a685050
True
Master Mason
598
What is the final of the seven steps of Freemasonry?
5acf825f77cf76001a685051
True
Hiram Abiff
524
Who was the worst architect of the Temple of Solomon?
5acf825f77cf76001a685052
True
at least two
671
How many versions of the Hiram flag are there?
5acf825f77cf76001a685053
True
being progressively initiated
53
What is the first step for only some Freemasons?
5acf825f77cf76001a685054
True
All Freemasons begin their journey in the "craft" by being progressively initiated, passed and raised into the three degrees of Craft, or Blue Lodge Masonry. During these three rituals, the candidate is progressively taught the meanings of the Lodge symbols, and entrusted with grips, signs and words to signify to other Masons that he has been so initiated. The initiations are part allegory and part lecture, and revolve around the construction of the Temple of Solomon, and the artistry and death of his chief architect, Hiram Abiff. The degrees are those of Entered apprentice, Fellowcraft and Master Mason. While many different versions of these rituals exist, with at least two different lodge layouts and versions of the Hiram myth, each version is recognisable to any Freemason from any jurisdiction.
The Grand Lodge of England is also know as what?
572665ad5951b619008f719d
GLE
107
False
When was the Grand Lodge of England founded?
572665ad5951b619008f719e
24 June 1717
129
False
The Ancient Grand Lodge of England was formed on what date?
572665ad5951b619008f719f
17 July 1751
499
False
The United Grand Lodge of England was formed on what date?
572665ad5951b619008f71a0
27 December 1813
686
False
Lodges that could not endorse the GLE were later called what?
572665ad5951b619008f71a1
the Moderns
436
False
GLE
107
What can The Grand Lodge of England never be known as?
5acf85a677cf76001a6850a8
True
24 June 1717
129
When did the Grand Lodge of England vanish?
5acf85a677cf76001a6850a9
True
the Moderns
436
What were lodges that disappeared called?
5acf85a677cf76001a6850aa
True
Many English Lodges
200
Which lodges refused to join the new regulatory body?
5acf85a677cf76001a6850ab
True
Grand Lodges
579
Which lodges were always in perfect harmony with one another?
5acf85a677cf76001a6850ac
True
The first Grand Lodge, the Grand Lodge of London and Westminster (later called the Grand Lodge of England (GLE)), was founded on 24 June 1717, when four existing London Lodges met for a joint dinner. Many English Lodges joined the new regulatory body, which itself entered a period of self-publicity and expansion. However, many Lodges could not endorse changes which some Lodges of the GLE made to the ritual (they came to be known as the Moderns), and a few of these formed a rival Grand Lodge on 17 July 1751, which they called the "Antient Grand Lodge of England." These two Grand Lodges vied for supremacy until the Moderns promised to return to the ancient ritual. They united on 27 December 1813 to form the United Grand Lodge of England (UGLE).
When did North American Masonic lodges recognize members of the Prince Hall Lodge?
57266692dd62a815002e83ae
By the 1980s
260
False
Who is the Prince Hall Lodge open to?
57266692dd62a815002e83af
Prince Hall is open to all men
626
False
Does the United Grand Lodge of England recognize Prince Hall Lodges?
57266692dd62a815002e83b0
The United Grand Lodge of England has no problem with recognising Prince Hall Grand Lodges
471
False
By the 1980s
260
When did North American Masonic lodges fire members of the Prince Hall Lodge?
5acf879277cf76001a685114
True
Prince Hall is open to all men
626
Who is the Prince Hall Lodge hiding?
5acf879277cf76001a685115
True
Prince Hall Grand Lodges
537
What lodges are no longer recognized?
5acf879277cf76001a685116
True
Prince Hall Grand Lodges
537
What Grand Lodges require members to be black Americans?
5acf879277cf76001a685117
True
Widespread segregation in 19th- and early 20th-century North America made it difficult for African-Americans to join Lodges outside of Prince Hall jurisdictions – and impossible for inter-jurisdiction recognition between the parallel U.S. Masonic authorities. By the 1980s, such discrimination was a thing of the past, and today most U.S. Grand Lodges recognise their Prince Hall counterparts, and the authorities of both traditions are working towards full recognition. The United Grand Lodge of England has no problem with recognising Prince Hall Grand Lodges. While celebrating their heritage as lodges of black Americans, Prince Hall is open to all men regardless of race or religion.
When did the French try to create co-masonic lodges?
57266813708984140094c4fd
the 1890s
93
False
When did the United Grand Lodge of England recognize the two female Masonic lodges?
57266813708984140094c4fe
1999
440
False
What did the french lodges promote to try to get women accepted into the Freemasons?
57266813708984140094c4ff
the 33rd degree of the Ancient and Accepted Scottish Rite
204
False
Do Anglo-American grand lodges accept women as members today?
57266813708984140094c500
most regular Anglo-American grand lodges remains that women Freemasons are not legitimate Masons
650
False
the 1890s
93
When did Russia try to create co-masonic lodges?
5acf8e1677cf76001a68523c
True
1999
440
When did the United Grand Lodge of England forget the two female Masonic lodges?
5acf8e1677cf76001a68523d
True
the 33rd degree of the Ancient and Accepted Scottish Rite
204
What did the french lodges promote to try to get men accepted into the Freemasons?
5acf8e1677cf76001a68523e
True
most regular Anglo-American grand lodges
650
Where are women recognized as the ideal Masons?
5acf8e1677cf76001a68523f
True
In general, Continental Freemasonry is sympathetic to Freemasonry amongst women, dating from the 1890s when French lodges assisted the emergent co-masonic movement by promoting enough of their members to the 33rd degree of the Ancient and Accepted Scottish Rite to allow them, in 1899, to form their own grand council, recognised by the other Continental Grand Councils of that Rite. The United Grand Lodge of England issued a statement in 1999 recognising the two women's grand lodges there to be regular in all but the participants. While they were not, therefore, recognised as regular, they were part of Freemasonry "in general". The attitude of most regular Anglo-American grand lodges remains that women Freemasons are not legitimate Masons.
What English Archbishop was a member of the Freemasons?
572669465951b619008f71e3
Geoffrey Fisher
114
False
What former Archbishop of Canterbury has reservations about the Freemasons?
572669465951b619008f71e4
Dr Rowan Williams
502
False
What year did Dr. Rowan Williams apologize to the Freemasons?
572669465951b619008f71e5
2003
686
False
Dr. Rowan Williams was also Bishop of what?
572669465951b619008f71e6
Bishop of Monmouth
912
False
Geoffrey Fisher
114
What Austrian Archbishop was a member of the Freemasons?
5acf923377cf76001a6852cc
True
Dr Rowan Williams
502
What former Archbishop of Canterbury has accolades from the Freemasons?
5acf923377cf76001a6852cd
True
2003
686
What year did Dr. Rowan Williams destroy the Freemasons?
5acf923377cf76001a6852ce
True
of Monmouth
919
What was Dr. Rowan Williams a Cardinal of?
5acf923377cf76001a6852cf
True
Since the founding of Freemasonry, many Bishops of the Church of England have been Freemasons, such as Archbishop Geoffrey Fisher. In the past, few members of the Church of England would have seen any incongruity in concurrently adhering to Anglican Christianity and practicing Freemasonry. In recent decades, however, reservations about Freemasonry have increased within Anglicanism, perhaps due to the increasing prominence of the evangelical wing of the church. The former Archbishop of Canterbury, Dr Rowan Williams, appeared to harbour some reservations about Masonic ritual, whilst being anxious to avoid causing offence to Freemasons inside and outside the Church of England. In 2003 he felt it necessary to apologise to British Freemasons after he said that their beliefs were incompatible with Christianity and that he had barred the appointment of Freemasons to senior posts in his diocese when he was Bishop of Monmouth.
Freemasonry was linked to scandal in Italy due to what?
57266b29708984140094c557
Propaganda Due lodge
68
False
The Propaganda Due Lodge was chartered by who?
57266b29708984140094c558
Grande Oriente d'Italia
134
False
When did the Grande Oriente d'italia charter the Propaganda Due Lodge?
57266b29708984140094c559
1877
161
False
The Propaganda Due Lodge was also know as what?
57266b29708984140094c55a
P2
97
False
When did the Grand Orient d'italia expel Licio Gelli and revoked the charter of P2?
57266b29708984140094c55b
1976
513
False
Propaganda Due lodge
68
What was Freemasonry linked to scandal in France due to?
5acfa63b77cf76001a685706
True
Grande Oriente d'Italia
134
Who destroyed the Propaganda Due Lodge?
5acfa63b77cf76001a685707
True
1877
161
When did the Grande Oriente d'italia remove the Propaganda Due Lodge?
5acfa63b77cf76001a685708
True
1976
513
When did the Grand Orient d'italia reward Licio Gelli and promote the charter of P2?
5acfa63b77cf76001a685709
True
In Italy, Freemasonry has become linked to a scandal concerning the Propaganda Due lodge (a.k.a. P2). This lodge was chartered by the Grande Oriente d'Italia in 1877, as a lodge for visiting Masons unable to attend their own lodges. Under Licio Gelli's leadership, in the late 1970s, P2 became involved in the financial scandals that nearly bankrupted the Vatican Bank. However, by this time the lodge was operating independently and irregularly, as the Grand Orient had revoked its charter and expelled Gelli in 1976.
Israel
When did the UN recommend the Partition Plan?
5725b267b80e561500fa6f28
29 November 1947
3
False
When was the end of the British Mandate set?
5725b267b80e561500fa6f29
midnight on 14 May 1948
394
False
Who was the executive head of the Zionist Organization?
5725b267b80e561500fa6f2a
David Ben-Gurion
429
False
On 29 November 1947, the United Nations General Assembly recommended the adoption and implementation of the Partition Plan for Mandatory Palestine. This UN plan specified borders for new Arab and Jewish states and also specified an area of Jerusalem and its environs which was to be administered by the UN under an international regime. The end of the British Mandate for Palestine was set for midnight on 14 May 1948. That day, David Ben-Gurion, the executive head of the Zionist Organization and president of the Jewish Agency for Palestine, declared "the establishment of a Jewish state in Eretz Israel, to be known as the State of Israel," which would start to function from the termination of the mandate. The borders of the new state were not specified in the declaration. Neighboring Arab armies invaded the former Palestinian mandate on the next day and fought the Israeli forces. Israel has since fought several wars with neighboring Arab states, in the course of which it has occupied the West Bank, Sinai Peninsula (1956–57, 1967–82), part of Southern Lebanon (1982–2000), Gaza Strip (1967–2005; still considered occupied after 2005 disengagement) and the Golan Heights. It extended its laws to the Golan Heights and East Jerusalem, but not the West Bank. Efforts to resolve the Israeli–Palestinian conflict have not resulted in peace. However, peace treaties between Israel and both Egypt and Jordan have successfully been signed. Israel's occupation of Gaza, the West Bank and East Jerusalem is the world's longest military occupation in modern times.[note 2]
What is the official State of Israel?
5725b26b69ff041400e58e26
Israel
0
False
Where is Israel located?
5725b26b69ff041400e58e27
Middle East
338
False
What's Israel's financial and technology center?
5725b26b69ff041400e58e28
Tel Aviv
894
False
Israel (/ˈɪzreɪəl/ or /ˈɪzriːəl/; Hebrew: יִשְׂרָאֵל‎ Yisrā'el; Arabic: إِسْرَائِيل‎ Isrāʼīl), officially the State of Israel (Hebrew: מְדִינַת יִשְׂרָאֵל‎ Medīnat Yisrā'el [mediˈnat jisʁaˈʔel] ( listen); Arabic: دولة إِسْرَائِيل‎ Dawlat Isrāʼīl [dawlat ʔisraːˈʔiːl]), is a sovereign state in Western Asia. The country is situated in the Middle East at the southeastern shore of the Mediterranean Sea and the northern shore of the Gulf of Aqaba in the Red Sea. It shares land borders with Lebanon to the north, Syria in the northeast, Jordan on the east, the Palestinian territories (which are claimed by the State of Palestine and are partially controlled by Israel) comprising the West Bank and Gaza Strip to the east and west, respectively, and Egypt to the southwest. It contains geographically diverse features within its relatively small area. Israel's financial and technology center is Tel Aviv while Jerusalem is both the self-designated capital and most populous individual city under the country's governmental administration. Israeli sovereignty over Jerusalem is internationally unrecognized.[note 1]
What was the population of Israel in 2016?
5725b2b0b80e561500fa6f2e
8,476,600
109
False
How many citizens in Israel are Jewish?
5725b2b0b80e561500fa6f2f
6,345,400
178
False
How many citizens in Israel are Arab?
5725b2b0b80e561500fa6f30
1,760,400
315
False
The population of Israel, as defined by the Israel Central Bureau of Statistics, was estimated in 2016 to be 8,476,600 people. It is the world's only Jewish-majority state, with 6,345,400 citizens, or 74.9%, being designated as Jewish. The country's second largest group of citizens are denoted as Arabs, numbering 1,760,400 people (including the Druze and most East Jerusalem Arabs). The great majority of Israeli Arabs are Sunni Muslims, with smaller but significant numbers of semi-settled Negev Bedouins; the rest are Christians and Druze. Other far smaller minorities include Maronites, Samaritans, Dom people and Roma, Black Hebrew Israelites, other Sub-Saharan Africans, Armenians, Circassians, Vietnamese boat people, and others. Israel also hosts a significant population of non-citizen foreign workers and asylum seekers from Africa and Asia.
Israel defines itself as what?
5725b2fa69ff041400e58e2c
Jewish and democratic state
46
False
Where is Israel's economy ranked?
5725b2fa69ff041400e58e2d
35th
343
False
Where is Israel's standard of living ranked in Asia?
5725b2fa69ff041400e58e2e
fourth
704
False
In its Basic Laws, Israel defines itself as a Jewish and democratic state. Israel is a representative democracy with a parliamentary system, proportional representation and universal suffrage. The prime minister serves as head of government and the Knesset serves as the legislature. Israel is a developed country and an OECD member, with the 35th-largest economy in the world by nominal gross domestic product as of 2015[update]. The country benefits from a highly skilled workforce and is among the most educated countries in the world with the one of the highest percentage of its citizens holding a tertiary education degree. The country has the highest standard of living in the Middle East and the fourth highest in Asia, and has one of the highest life expectancies in the world.
Who was Moses?
5725b349b80e561500fa6f3e
a great-great grandson of Jacob
756
False
Who led the Israelites back into Canaan during the "Exodus?"
5725b349b80e561500fa6f3f
Moses
749
False
What does the word "Israel" refer to?
5725b349b80e561500fa6f40
Jacob
375
False
The names Land of Israel and Children of Israel have historically been used to refer to the biblical Kingdom of Israel and the entire Jewish people respectively. The name "Israel" (Standard Yisraʾel, Isrāʾīl; Septuagint Greek: Ἰσραήλ Israēl; 'El(God) persists/rules' though, after Hosea 12:4 often interpreted as "struggle with God") in these phrases refers to the patriarch Jacob who, according to the Hebrew Bible, was given the name after he successfully wrestled with the angel of the Lord. Jacob's twelve sons became the ancestors of the Israelites, also known as the Twelve Tribes of Israel or Children of Israel. Jacob and his sons had lived in Canaan but were forced by famine to go into Egypt for four generations, lasting 430 years, until Moses, a great-great grandson of Jacob, led the Israelites back into Canaan during the "Exodus". The earliest known archaeological artifact to mention the word "Israel" is the Merneptah Stele of ancient Egypt (dated to the late 13th century BCE).
What is the "Land of Israel" known as in Hebrew?
5725b39bb80e561500fa6f44
Eretz Yisrael
55
False
According to the Torah, God promised the land to how many people?
5725b39bb80e561500fa6f45
three
196
False
When was the first Kingdom of Israel established?
5725b39bb80e561500fa6f46
early 2nd millennium BCE
330
False
The notion of the "Land of Israel", known in Hebrew as Eretz Yisrael, has been important and sacred to the Jewish people since Biblical times. According to the Torah, God promised the land to the three Patriarchs of the Jewish people. On the basis of scripture, the period of the three Patriarchs has been placed somewhere in the early 2nd millennium BCE, and the first Kingdom of Israel was established around the 11th century BCE. Subsequent Israelite kingdoms and states ruled intermittently over the next four hundred years, and are known from various extra-biblical sources.
When does the first record of the name Israel occurs?
5725b404271a42140099d057
Merneptah stele
62
False
Who did the ancestors of Israelites include?
5725b404271a42140099d058
Semites
458
False
What did Canaanites prohibit?
5725b404271a42140099d059
intermarriage
719
False
The first record of the name Israel (as ysrỉꜣr) occurs in the Merneptah stele, erected for Egyptian Pharaoh Merneptah c. 1209 BCE, "Israel is laid waste and his seed is not." This "Israel" was a cultural and probably political entity of the central highlands, well enough established to be perceived by the Egyptians as a possible challenge to their hegemony, but an ethnic group rather than an organised state; Ancestors of the Israelites may have included Semites native to Canaan and the Sea Peoples. McNutt says, "It is probably safe to assume that sometime during Iron Age a population began to identify itself as 'Israelite'", differentiating itself from the Canaanites through such markers as the prohibition of intermarriage, an emphasis on family history and genealogy, and religion.
When did the kingdom split?
5725b43c89a1e219009abd14
930 BCE
7
False
What was the name of the destroyed capital?
5725b43c89a1e219009abd15
Samaria
336
False
Who captured Samaria?
5725b43c89a1e219009abd16
Assyrian king Sargon II
447
False
Around 930 BCE, the kingdom split into a southern Kingdom of Judah and a northern Kingdom of Israel. From the middle of the 8th century BCE Israel came into increasing conflict with the expanding neo-Assyrian empire. Under Tiglath-Pileser III it first split Israel's territory into several smaller units and then destroyed its capital, Samaria (722 BCE). An Israelite revolt (724–722 BCE) was crushed after the siege and capture of Samaria by the Assyrian king Sargon II. Sargon's son, Sennacherib, tried and failed to conquer Judah. Assyrian records say he leveled 46 walled cities and besieged Jerusalem, leaving after receiving extensive tribute.
Who conquered Judah?
5725b47eec44d21400f3d415
King Nebuchadnezzar II
11
False
How many Judeans did Zerubabel return to Judah?
5725b47eec44d21400f3d416
50,000
571
False
How many Judeans did Ezra lead?
5725b47eec44d21400f3d417
5,000
665
False
In 586 BCE King Nebuchadnezzar II of Babylon conquered Judah. According to the Hebrew Bible, he destroyed Solomon's Temple and exiled the Jews to Babylon. The defeat was also recorded by the Babylonians (see the Babylonian Chronicles). In 538 BCE, Cyrus the Great of Persia conquered Babylon and took over its empire. Cyrus issued a proclamation granting subjugated nations (including the people of Judah) religious freedom (for the original text, which corroborates the biblical narrative only in very broad terms, see the Cyrus Cylinder). According to the Hebrew Bible 50,000 Judeans, led by Zerubabel, returned to Judah and rebuilt the temple. A second group of 5,000, led by Ezra and Nehemiah, returned to Judah in 456 BCE although non-Jews wrote to Cyrus to try to prevent their return.
When did the conflict between Judeans and Greeks erupt?
5725b4ef38643c19005acb93
167 BCE
459
False
What was established in the Maccabean Revolt?
5725b4ef38643c19005acb94
Hasmonean Kingdom
541
False
Who dominated the society?
5725b4ef38643c19005acb95
Judeans
191
False
With successive Persian rule, the region, divided between Syria-Coele province and later the autonomous Yehud Medinata, was gradually developing back into urban society, largely dominated by Judeans. The Greek conquests largely skipped the region without any resistance or interest. Incorporated into Ptolemaic and finally Seleucid Empires, the southern Levant was heavily hellenized, building the tensions between Judeans and Greeks. The conflict erupted in 167 BCE with the Maccabean Revolt, which succeeded in establishing an independent Hasmonean Kingdom in Judah, which later expanded over much of modern Israel, as the Seleucids gradually lost control in the region.
When did the Jewish presence dwindle in the region?
5725b54789a1e219009abd1a
132 CE
363
False
Who conquered the country in 628?
5725b54789a1e219009abd1b
Byzantine Empire
1139
False
What was evolving over Roman paganism?
5725b54789a1e219009abd1c
Christianity
716
False
With the decline of Herodians, Judea, transformed into a Roman province, became the site of a violent struggle of Jews against Greco-Romans, culminating in the Jewish-Roman Wars, ending in wide-scale destruction, expulsions, and genocide. Jewish presence in the region significantly dwindled after the failure of the Bar Kokhba revolt against the Roman Empire in 132 CE. Nevertheless, there was a continuous small Jewish presence and Galilee became its religious center. The Mishnah and part of the Talmud, central Jewish texts, were composed during the 2nd to 4th centuries CE in Tiberias and Jerusalem. The region came to be populated predominantly by Greco-Romans on the coast and Samaritans in the hill-country. Christianity was gradually evolving over Roman paganism, when the area stood under Byzantine rule. Through the 5th and 6th centuries, the dramatic events of the repeated Samaritan revolts reshaped the land, with massive destruction to Byzantine Christian and Samaritan societies and a resulting decrease of the population. After the Persian conquest and the installation of a short-lived Jewish Commonwealth in 614 CE, the Byzantine Empire reconquered the country in 628.
Who did the Jewish inhabitants fight side by side with?
5725b58fec44d21400f3d41b
Fatimid garrison
124
False
How many people were massacred when the city fell?
5725b58fec44d21400f3d41c
60,000
253
False
How many Jews were seeking refuge?
5725b58fec44d21400f3d41d
6,000
293
False
During the siege of Jerusalem by the First Crusade in 1099, the Jewish inhabitants of the city fought side by side with the Fatimid garrison and the Muslim population who tried in vain to defend the city against the Crusaders. When the city fell, about 60,000 people were massacred, including 6,000 Jews seeking refuge in a synagogue. At this time, a full thousand years after the fall of the Jewish state, there were Jewish communities all over the country. Fifty of them are known and include Jerusalem, Tiberias, Ramleh, Ashkelon, Caesarea, and Gaza. According to Albert of Aachen, the Jewish residents of Haifa were the main fighting force of the city, and "mixed with Saracen [Fatimid] troops", they fought bravely for close to a month until forced into retreat by the Crusader fleet and land army. However, Joshua Prawer expressed doubt over the story, noting that Albert did not attend the Crusades and that such a prominent role for the Jews is not mentioned by any other source.[undue weight? – discuss]
When did Maimonides visit Jerusalem?
5725b5ca38643c19005acbaf
1165
3
False
Who issued a call to the Jews to emigrate to the Land of Israel?
5725b5ca38643c19005acbb0
Yehuda Halevi
126
False
Who was the founder of the Ayyubid dynasty?
5725b5ca38643c19005acbb1
Sultan Saladin
242
False
In 1165 Maimonides visited Jerusalem and prayed on the Temple Mount, in the "great, holy house". In 1141 Spanish-Jewish poet, Yehuda Halevi, issued a call to the Jews to emigrate to the Land of Israel, a journey he undertook himself. In 1187 Sultan Saladin, founder of the Ayyubid dynasty, defeated the Crusaders in the Battle of Hattin and subsequently captured Jerusalem and almost all of Palestine. In time, Saladin issued a proclamation inviting Jews to return and settle in Jerusalem, and according to Judah al-Harizi, they did: "From the day the Arabs took Jerusalem, the Israelites inhabited it." Al-Harizi compared Saladin's decree allowing Jews to re-establish themselves in Jerusalem to the one issued by the Persian king Cyrus the Great over 1,600 years earlier.
When was the Jewish community strengthened by rabbis?
5725b62aec44d21400f3d421
1211
3
False
Who was the 13th-century Spanish rabbi and recognised leader of Jewry?
5725b62aec44d21400f3d422
Nachmanides
184
False
What did Nachmanides write?
5725b62aec44d21400f3d423
"If the gentiles wish to make peace, we shall make peace and leave them on clear terms
378
False
In 1211, the Jewish community in the country was strengthened by the arrival of a group headed by over 300 rabbis from France and England, among them Rabbi Samson ben Abraham of Sens. Nachmanides, the 13th-century Spanish rabbi and recognised leader of Jewry greatly praised the land of Israel and viewed its settlement as a positive commandment incumbent on all Jews. He wrote "If the gentiles wish to make peace, we shall make peace and leave them on clear terms; but as for the land, we shall not leave it in their hands, nor in the hands of any nation, not in any generation."
When was control passed to the Mamluk sultans of Egypt?
5725b679ec44d21400f3d431
1260
3
False
What two centres of Mamluk power was the country located?
5725b679ec44d21400f3d432
Cairo and Damascus
121
False
When did the Mamluk Sultan Baybars convert to the Cave of Patriarchs?
5725b679ec44d21400f3d433
1266
411
False
In 1260, control passed to the Mamluk sultans of Egypt. The country was located between the two centres of Mamluk power, Cairo and Damascus, and only saw some development along the postal road connecting the two cities. Jerusalem, although left without the protection of any city walls since 1219, also saw a flurry of new construction projects centred around the Al-Aqsa Mosque compound (the Temple Mount). In 1266 the Mamluk Sultan Baybars converted the Cave of the Patriarchs in Hebron into an exclusive Islamic sanctuary and banned Christians and Jews from entering, which previously would be able to enter it for a fee. The ban remained in place until Israel took control of the building in 1967.
Many Jews have aspired to return to where?
5725b6c4271a42140099d07b
Zion
90
False
Where did some Jewish communities settle after they were expelled from Spain?
5725b6c4271a42140099d07c
Palestine
393
False
Rabbi Yehuda Hachasid led a group of how many Jews into Jerusalem?
5725b6c4271a42140099d07d
1,500
574
False
Since the existence of the earliest Jewish diaspora, many Jews have aspired to return to "Zion" and the "Land of Israel", though the amount of effort that should be spent towards such an aim was a matter of dispute. The hopes and yearnings of Jews living in exile are an important theme of the Jewish belief system. After the Jews were expelled from Spain in 1492, some communities settled in Palestine. During the 16th century, Jewish communities struck roots in the Four Holy Cities—Jerusalem, Tiberias, Hebron, and Safed—and in 1697, Rabbi Yehuda Hachasid led a group of 1,500 Jews to Jerusalem. In the second half of the 18th century, Eastern European opponents of Hasidism, known as the Perushim, settled in Palestine.
What was the first wave of modern Jewish migration to Ottoman-ruled Palestine known as?
5725b701ec44d21400f3d437
First Aliyah
83
False
When did the First Aliyah begin?
5725b701ec44d21400f3d438
1881
106
False
Who is credited as founding political Zionism?
5725b701ec44d21400f3d439
Theodor Herzl
239
False
The first wave of modern Jewish migration to Ottoman-ruled Palestine, known as the First Aliyah, began in 1881, as Jews fled pogroms in Eastern Europe. Although the Zionist movement already existed in practice, Austro-Hungarian journalist Theodor Herzl is credited with founding political Zionism, a movement which sought to establish a Jewish state in the Land of Israel, thus offering a solution to the so-called Jewish Question of the European states, in conformity with the goals and achievements of other national projects of the time. In 1896, Herzl published Der Judenstaat (The State of the Jews), offering his vision of a future Jewish state; the following year he presided over the first Zionist Congress.
When did the Second Aliyah begin?
5725b74038643c19005acbbf
after the Kishinev pogrom
35
False
How many Jews settled into Palestine?
5725b74038643c19005acbc0
40,000
67
False
The first and second wave of migrants were mainly who?
5725b74038643c19005acbc1
Orthodox Jews
203
False
The Second Aliyah (1904–14), began after the Kishinev pogrom; some 40,000 Jews settled in Palestine, although nearly half of them left eventually. Both the first and second waves of migrants were mainly Orthodox Jews, although the Second Aliyah included socialist groups who established the kibbutz movement. During World War I, British Foreign Secretary Arthur Balfour sent the Balfour Declaration of 1917 to Baron Rothschild (Walter Rothschild, 2nd Baron Rothschild), a leader of the British Jewish community, that stated that Britain intended for the creation of a Jewish "national home" within the Palestinian Mandate.
What is the Jewish Legion?
5725b77c271a42140099d091
a group primarily of Zionist volunteers
19
False
When did the League of Nations grant Britain a mandate over Palestine?
5725b77c271a42140099d092
1922
384
False
What does Haganah mean in Hebrew?
5725b77c271a42140099d093
The Defense
273
False
The Jewish Legion, a group primarily of Zionist volunteers, assisted, in 1918, in the British conquest of Palestine. Arab opposition to British rule and Jewish immigration led to the 1920 Palestine riots and the formation of a Jewish militia known as the Haganah (meaning "The Defense" in Hebrew), from which the Irgun and Lehi, or Stern Gang, paramilitary groups later split off. In 1922, the League of Nations granted Britain a mandate over Palestine under terms which included the Balfour Declaration with its promise to the Jews, and with similar provisions regarding the Arab Palestinians. The population of the area at this time was predominantly Arab and Muslim, with Jews accounting for about 11%, and Arab Christians at about 9.5% of the population.
How many Jews did the Third and Fourth Aliyahs bring to Palestine?
5725b7e9ec44d21400f3d44d
100,000
71
False
When did Irgun attack the British administrative headquarters?
5725b7e9ec44d21400f3d44e
July 22, 1946
939
False
What was the Jewish population in Palestine by the end of World War II?
5725b7e9ec44d21400f3d44f
33%
907
False
The Third (1919–23) and Fourth Aliyahs (1924–29) brought an additional 100,000 Jews to Palestine. Finally, the rise of Nazism and the increasing persecution of Jews in 1930s Europe led to the Fifth Aliyah, with an influx of a quarter of a million Jews. This was a major cause of the Arab revolt of 1936–39 during which the British Mandate authorities alongside the Zionist militias of Haganah and Irgun killed 5,032 Arabs and wounded 14,760, resulting in over ten percent of the adult male Palestinian Arab population killed, wounded, imprisoned or exiled. The British introduced restrictions on Jewish immigration to Palestine with the White Paper of 1939. With countries around the world turning away Jewish refugees fleeing the Holocaust, a clandestine movement known as Aliyah Bet was organized to bring Jews to Palestine. By the end of World War II, the Jewish population of Palestine had increased to 33% of the total population. On July 22, 1946, Irgun attacked the British administrative headquarters for Palestine, which was housed in the southern wing of the King David Hotel in Jerusalem. 91 people of various nationalities were killed and 46 were injured. The hotel was the site of the central offices of the British Mandatory authorities of Palestine, principally the Secretariat of the Government of Palestine and the Headquarters of the British Armed Forces in Palestine and Transjordan. The attack initially had the approval of the Haganah (the principal Jewish paramilitary group in Palestine). It was conceived as a response to Operation Agatha (a series of widespread raids, including one on the Jewish Agency, conducted by the British authorities) and was the deadliest directed at the British during the Mandate era (1920–1948).
What country experienced conflict with the Jewish community after World War II?
5725b83b271a42140099d0a9
Britain
20
False
When was the King David Hotel bombing?
5725b83b271a42140099d0aa
1946
622
False
When did the British government announce it would withdraw from Mandatory Palestine?
5725b83b271a42140099d0ab
1947
763
False
After World War II, Britain found itself in intense conflict with the Jewish community over Jewish immigration limits, as well as continued conflict with the Arab community over limit levels. The Haganah joined Irgun and Lehi in an armed struggle against British rule. At the same time, hundreds of thousands of Jewish Holocaust survivors and refugees sought a new life far from their destroyed communities in Europe. The Yishuv attempted to bring these refugees to Palestine but many were turned away or rounded up and placed in detention camps in Atlit and Cyprus by the British. Escalating violence culminated with the 1946 King David Hotel bombing which Bruce Hoffman characterized as one of the "most lethal terrorist incidents of the twentieth century". In 1947, the British government announced it would withdraw from Mandatory Palestine, stating it was unable to arrive at a solution acceptable to both Arabs and Jews.
What is the UNSCOP?
5725b89c89a1e219009abd70
United Nations Special Committee on Palestine
99
False
When was the UNSCOP formed?
5725b89c89a1e219009abd71
15 May 1947
3
False
What was the last to be under an International Trusteeship System?
5725b89c89a1e219009abd72
City of Jerusalem
523
False
On 15 May 1947, the General Assembly of the newly formed United Nations resolved that a committee, United Nations Special Committee on Palestine (UNSCOP), be created "to prepare for consideration at the next regular session of the Assembly a report on the question of Palestine". In the Report of the Committee dated 3 September 1947 to the UN General Assembly, the majority of the Committee in Chapter VI proposed a plan to replace the British Mandate with "an independent Arab State, an independent Jewish State, and the City of Jerusalem ... the last to be under an International Trusteeship System". On 29 November 1947, the General Assembly adopted a resolution recommending the adoption and implementation of the Plan of Partition with Economic Union as Resolution 181 (II). The Plan attached to the resolution was essentially that proposed by the majority of the Committee in the Report of 3 September 1947.
What four Arab countries entered British Mandatory Palestine?
5725b8e6271a42140099d0af
Egypt, Syria, Transjordan and Iraq
53
False
When was the Arab-Israeli War launched?
5725b8e6271a42140099d0b0
1948
153
False
What were the invading Arab armies aim?
5725b8e6271a42140099d0b1
slaughter the Jews
494
False
The following day, the armies of four Arab countries—Egypt, Syria, Transjordan and Iraq—entered what had been British Mandatory Palestine, launching the 1948 Arab–Israeli War; Contingents from Yemen, Morocco, Saudi Arabia and Sudan joined the war. The apparent purpose of the invasion was to prevent the establishment of the Jewish state at inception, and some Arab leaders talked about driving the Jews into the sea. According to Benny Morris, Jews felt that the invading Arab armies aimed to slaughter the Jews. The Arab league stated that the invasion was to restore law and order and to prevent further bloodshed.
Who aided the immigration to Israel?
5725b95a38643c19005acbdb
Israeli Immigration Department
77
False
The immigration was in accordance to what?
5725b95a38643c19005acbdc
One Million Plan
877
False
When did the Mossad LeAliyah Bet disband?
5725b95a38643c19005acbdd
1953
593
False
Immigration to Israel during the late 1940s and early 1950s was aided by the Israeli Immigration Department and the non-government sponsored Mossad LeAliyah Bet ("Institution for Illegal Immigration"). Both groups facilitated regular immigration logistics like arranging transportation, but the latter also engaged in clandestine operations in countries, particularly in the Middle East and Eastern Europe, where the lives of Jews were believed to be in danger and exit from those places was difficult. Mossad LeAliyah Bet continued to take part in immigration efforts until its disbanding in 1953. An influx of Holocaust survivors and Jews from Arab and Muslim lands immigrated to Israel during the first 3 years and the number of Jews increased from 700,000 to 1,400,000, many of whom faced persecution in their original countries. The immigration was in accordance with the One Million Plan.
The population of Israel rose from 800,000 to what between 1948 and 1958?
5725b9c5ec44d21400f3d463
two million
60
False
What ideology did some immigrants believe in?
5725b9c5ec44d21400f3d464
Zionist
251
False
Between 1948 and 1970, how many Jewish refugees relocated to Israel?
5725b9c5ec44d21400f3d465
1,150,000
132
False
Consequently, the population of Israel rose from 800,000 to two million between 1948 and 1958. Between 1948 and 1970, approximately 1,150,000 Jewish refugees relocated to Israel. The immigrants came to Israel for differing reasons. Some believed in a Zionist ideology, while others moved to escape persecution. There were others that did it for the promise of a better life in Israel and a small number that were expelled from their homelands, such as British and French Jews in Egypt after the Suez Crisis.
What were temporary camps known as?
5725ba0bec44d21400f3d469
ma'abarot
104
False
How many immigrants lived in these tent cities?
5725ba0bec44d21400f3d46a
over 200,000
124
False
Who signed a reparations agreement with West Germany?
5725ba0bec44d21400f3d46b
Ben-Gurion
328
False
Some new immigrants arrived as refugees with no possessions and were housed in temporary camps known as ma'abarot; by 1952, over 200,000 immigrants were living in these tent cities. During this period, food, clothes and furniture had to be rationed in what became known as the Austerity Period. The need to solve the crisis led Ben-Gurion to sign a reparations agreement with West Germany that triggered mass protests by Jews angered at the idea that Israel could accept monetary compensation for the Holocaust.
When did Egypt close the Suez Canal to Israel?
5725ba3dec44d21400f3d46f
1950
3
False
Who was Israel frequently attacked by?
5725ba3dec44d21400f3d470
Palestinian fedayeen
181
False
What did the war result in?
5725ba3dec44d21400f3d471
significant reduction of Israeli border infiltration
1011
False
In 1950 Egypt closed the Suez Canal to Israeli shipping and tensions mounted as armed clashes took place along Israel's borders. During the 1950s, Israel was frequently attacked by Palestinian fedayeen, nearly always against civilians, mainly from the Egyptian-occupied Gaza Strip, leading to several Israeli counter-raids. In 1956, Great Britain and France aimed at regaining control of the Suez Canal, which the Egyptians had nationalized (see the Suez Crisis). The continued blockade of the Suez Canal and Straits of Tiran to Israeli shipping, together with the growing amount of Fedayeen attacks against Israel's southern population, and recent Arab grave and threatening statements, prompted Israel to attack Egypt. Israel joined a secret alliance with Great Britain and France and overran the Sinai Peninsula but was pressured to withdraw by the United Nations in return for guarantees of Israeli shipping rights in the Red Sea via the Straits of Tiran and the Canal[citation needed]. The war resulted in significant reduction of Israeli border infiltration.
Who refused toe recognize Israel?
5725ba9d38643c19005acbef
Egyptian President Gamal Abdel Nasser
25
False
When did Egypt mass it's army near the border with Israel?
5725ba9d38643c19005acbf0
1967
257
False
What became the administrative boundary between Israel and occupied territories?
5725ba9d38643c19005acbf1
Green Line
932
False
Arab nationalists led by Egyptian President Gamal Abdel Nasser refused to recognize Israel, and called for its destruction. By 1966, Israeli-Arab relations had deteriorated to the point of actual battles taking place between Israeli and Arab forces. In May 1967, Egypt massed its army near the border with Israel, expelled UN peacekeepers, stationed in the Sinai Peninsula since 1957, and blocked Israel's access to the Red Sea[citation needed]. Other Arab states mobilized their forces. Israel reiterated that these actions were a casus belli. On 5 June 1967, Israel launched a pre-emptive strike against Egypt. Jordan, Syria and Iraq responded and attacked Israel. In a Six-Day War, Israel defeated Jordan and captured the West Bank, defeated Egypt and captured the Gaza Strip and Sinai Peninsula, and defeated Syria and captured the Golan Heights. Jerusalem's boundaries were enlarged, incorporating East Jerusalem, and the 1949 Green Line became the administrative boundary between Israel and the occupied territories.
Where was the massacre of the Israeli athletes?
5725baec38643c19005acbf5
1972 Summer Olympics in Munich
692
False
What was the resolution of the Arab league?
5725baec38643c19005acbf6
three nos
32
False
What did the ELO commit itself on?
5725baec38643c19005acbf7
armed struggle as the only way to liberate the homeland
452
False
Following the 1967 war and the "three nos" resolution of the Arab League, during the 1967–1970 War of Attrition Israel faced attacks from the Egyptians in the Sinai, and from Palestinian groups targeting Israelis in the occupied territories, in Israel proper, and around the world. Most important among the various Palestinian and Arab groups was the Palestinian Liberation Organization (PLO), established in 1964, which initially committed itself to "armed struggle as the only way to liberate the homeland". In the late 1960s and early 1970s, Palestinian groups launched a wave of attacks against Israeli and Jewish targets around the world, including a massacre of Israeli athletes at the 1972 Summer Olympics in Munich. The Israeli government responded with an assassination campaign against the organizers of the massacre, a bombing and a raid on the PLO headquarters in Lebanon.
When did the Egyptian and Syrian armies launch a surprise attack against Israeli forces?
5725bb2838643c19005acbfb
6 October 1973
3
False
How many lives were lost?
5725bb2838643c19005acbfc
10–35,000
379
False
Who was forced to resign?
5725bb2838643c19005acbfd
Prime Minister Golda Meir
540
False
On 6 October 1973, as Jews were observing Yom Kippur, the Egyptian and Syrian armies launched a surprise attack against Israeli forces in the Sinai Peninsula and Golan Heights, that opened the Yom Kippur War. The war ended on 26 October with Israel successfully repelling Egyptian and Syrian forces but having suffered over 2,500 soldiers killed in a war which collectively took 10–35,000 lives in just 20 days. An internal inquiry exonerated the government of responsibility for failures before and during the war, but public anger forced Prime Minister Golda Meir to resign.
Where did Anwar El Sadat make a trip to?
5725bb6d89a1e219009abda0
Israel
218
False
What did Sadat and Begin sign?
5725bb6d89a1e219009abda1
Camp David Accords
383
False
Israel withdrew from where?
5725bb6d89a1e219009abda2
Sinai Peninsula
487
False
The 1977 Knesset elections marked a major turning point in Israeli political history as Menachem Begin's Likud party took control from the Labor Party. Later that year, Egyptian President Anwar El Sadat made a trip to Israel and spoke before the Knesset in what was the first recognition of Israel by an Arab head of state. In the two years that followed, Sadat and Begin signed the Camp David Accords (1978) and the Israel–Egypt Peace Treaty (1979). In return, Israel withdrew from the Sinai Peninsula, which Israel had captured during the Six-Day War in 1967, and agreed to enter negotiations over an autonomy for Palestinians in the West Bank and the Gaza Strip.
When did the Coastal Road Massacre occur?
5725bbb338643c19005acc0b
11 March 1978
3
False
Who secured southern Lebanon?
5725bbb338643c19005acc0c
Israel
231
False
Where were the PLO bases located?
5725bbb338643c19005acc0d
south of the Litani River
172
False
On 11 March 1978, a PLO guerilla raid from Lebanon led to the Coastal Road Massacre. Israel responded by launching an invasion of southern Lebanon to destroy the PLO bases south of the Litani River. Most PLO fighters withdrew, but Israel was able to secure southern Lebanon until a UN force and the Lebanese army could take over. The PLO soon resumed its policy of attacks against Israel. In the next few years, the PLO infiltrated the south and kept up a sporadic shelling across the border. Israel carried out numerous retaliatory attacks by air and on the ground.
When did Israel annex the Golan Heights?
5725bc2838643c19005acc17
1981
760
False
What is the Capital of Israel?
5725bc2838643c19005acc18
Jerusalem
171
False
Who provided incentives for Israelis to settle in the occupied West Bank?
5725bc2838643c19005acc19
Begin's government
11
False
Meanwhile, Begin's government provided incentives for Israelis to settle in the occupied West Bank, increasing friction with the Palestinians in that area. The Basic Law: Jerusalem, the Capital of Israel, passed in 1980, was believed by some to reaffirm Israel's 1967 annexation of Jerusalem by government decree, and reignited international controversy over the status of the city. No Israeli legislation has defined the territory of Israel and no act specifically included East Jerusalem therein. The position of the majority of UN member states is reflected in numerous resolutions declaring that actions taken by Israel to settle its citizens in the West Bank, and impose its laws and administration on East Jerusalem, are illegal and have no validity. In 1981 Israel annexed the Golan Heights, although annexation was not recognized internationally.
When did the Israeli air force destroy Iraq's sole nuclear reactor?
5725bc7d271a42140099d0e5
7 June 1981
3
False
Why did they destroy the nuclear reactor?
5725bc7d271a42140099d0e6
impede Iraq's nuclear weapons program
89
False
What government inquiry held Begin?
5725bc7d271a42140099d0e7
Kahan Commission
526
False
On 7 June 1981, the Israeli air force destroyed Iraq's sole nuclear reactor, in order to impede Iraq's nuclear weapons program. The reactor was under construction just outside Baghdad. Following a series of PLO attacks in 1982, Israel invaded Lebanon that year to destroy the bases from which the PLO launched attacks and missiles into northern Israel. In the first six days of fighting, the Israelis destroyed the military forces of the PLO in Lebanon and decisively defeated the Syrians. An Israeli government inquiry – the Kahan Commission – would later hold Begin, Sharon and several Israeli generals as indirectly responsible for the Sabra and Shatila massacre. In 1985, Israel responded to a Palestinian terrorist attack in Cyprus by bombing the PLO headquarters in Tunis. Israel withdrew from most of Lebanon in 1986, but maintained a borderland buffer zone in southern Lebanon until 2000, from where Israeli forces engaged in conflict with Hezbollah.
When did the First Intifada break out?
5725bcba38643c19005acc25
1987
78
False
How many people were killed in the violence?
5725bcba38643c19005acc26
More than a thousand people
339
False
PLO supported who during the Gulf War?
5725bcba38643c19005acc27
Saddam Hussein
440
False
The First Intifada, a Palestinian uprising against Israeli rule, broke out in 1987, with waves of uncoordinated demonstrations and violence occurring in the occupied West Bank and Gaza. Over the following six years, the Intifada became more organised and included economic and cultural measures aimed at disrupting the Israeli occupation. More than a thousand people were killed in the violence. During the 1991 Gulf War, the PLO supported Saddam Hussein and Iraqi Scud missile attacks against Israel. Despite public outrage, Israel heeded US calls to refrain from hitting back and did not participate in that war.
Who became the Prime Minister in 1992?
5725bcfc38643c19005acc2b
Yitzhak Rabin
9
False
When was the Israel-Jordan Treaty of Peace signed?
5725bcfc38643c19005acc2c
1994
436
False
When was Yitzhak Rabin assassinated?
5725bcfc38643c19005acc2d
November 1995
854
False
In 1992, Yitzhak Rabin became Prime Minister following an election in which his party called for compromise with Israel's neighbors. The following year, Shimon Peres on behalf of Israel, and Mahmoud Abbas for the PLO, signed the Oslo Accords, which gave the Palestinian National Authority the right to govern parts of the West Bank and the Gaza Strip. The PLO also recognized Israel's right to exist and pledged an end to terrorism. In 1994, the Israel–Jordan Treaty of Peace was signed, making Jordan the second Arab country to normalize relations with Israel. Arab public support for the Accords was damaged by the continuation of Israeli settlements and checkpoints, and the deterioration of economic conditions. Israeli public support for the Accords waned as Israel was struck by Palestinian suicide attacks. Finally, while leaving a peace rally in November 1995, Yitzhak Rabin was assassinated by a far-right-wing Jew who opposed the Accords.
Who led Israel in the 1990s?
5725bd3189a1e219009abdc0
Benjamin Netanyahu
57
False
What did Benjamin Netanyahu sign?
5725bd3189a1e219009abdc1
Wye River Memorandum
114
False
Who was elected Prime Minister in 1999?
5725bd3189a1e219009abdc2
Ehud Barak
198
False
At the end of the 1990s, Israel, under the leadership of Benjamin Netanyahu, withdrew from Hebron, and signed the Wye River Memorandum, giving greater control to the Palestinian National Authority. Ehud Barak, elected Prime Minister in 1999, began the new millennium by withdrawing forces from Southern Lebanon and conducting negotiations with Palestinian Authority Chairman Yasser Arafat and U.S. President Bill Clinton at the 2000 Camp David Summit. During the summit, Barak offered a plan for the establishment of a Palestinian state. The proposed state included the entirety of the Gaza Strip and over 90% of the West Bank with Jerusalem as a shared capital, although some argue that the plan was to annex areas which would lead to a cantonization of the West Bank into three blocs, which the Palestinian delegation likened to South African "bantustans", a loaded word that was disputed by the Israeli and American negotiators. Each side blamed the other for the failure of the talks.
Who visited the Temple Mount?
5725bd7fec44d21400f3d49f
Ariel Sharon
74
False
When did Ariel Sharon become prime minister?
5725bd7fec44d21400f3d4a0
2001
282
False
How many Palestinian fatalities were they by 30 April 2008?
5725bd7fec44d21400f3d4a1
4,745
617
False
After the collapse of the talks and a controversial visit by Likud leader Ariel Sharon to the Temple Mount, the Second Intifada began. Some commentators contend that the uprising was pre-planned by Yasser Arafat due to the collapse of peace talks. Sharon became prime minister in a 2001 special election. During his tenure, Sharon carried out his plan to unilaterally withdraw from the Gaza Strip and also spearheaded the construction of the Israeli West Bank barrier, ending the Intifada. By this time 1,100 Israelis had been killed, mostly in suicide bombings. The Palestinian fatalities, by 30 April 2008, reached 4,745 killed by Israeli security forces, 44 killed by Israeli civilians, and 577 killed by Palestinians.
When did the Israeli Air Force destroy a nuclear reactor in Syria?
5725bdd9271a42140099d109
6 September 2007
188
False
Who announced its own ceasefire?
5725bdd9271a42140099d10a
Hamas
591
False
How long did the operation in Gaza in November last?
5725bdd9271a42140099d10b
eight days
1024
False
In July 2006, a Hezbollah artillery assault on Israel's northern border communities and a cross-border abduction of two Israeli soldiers precipitated the month-long Second Lebanon War. On 6 September 2007, the Israeli Air Force destroyed a nuclear reactor in Syria. In May 2008, Israel confirmed it had been discussing a peace treaty with Syria for a year, with Turkey as a go-between. However, at the end of the year, Israel entered another conflict as a ceasefire between Hamas and Israel collapsed. The Gaza War lasted three weeks and ended after Israel announced a unilateral ceasefire. Hamas announced its own ceasefire, with its own conditions of complete withdrawal and opening of border crossings. Despite neither the rocket launchings nor Israeli retaliatory strikes having completely stopped, the fragile ceasefire remained in order. In what Israel described as a response to more than a hundred Palestinian rocket attacks on southern Israeli cities, Israel began an operation in Gaza on 14 November 2012, lasting eight days. Israel started another operation in Gaza following an escalation of rocket attacks by Hamas in July 2014.
Where does the Jordan Rift Valley lie?
5725c1ba89a1e219009abdfc
East of the central highlands
1041
False
What's home to 57% of the nation's population?
5725c1ba89a1e219009abdfd
Israeli Coastal Plain
934
False
How big is the sovereign territory of Israel?
5725c1ba89a1e219009abdfe
20,770 square kilometers
198
False
The sovereign territory of Israel (according to the demarcation lines of the 1949 Armistice Agreements and excluding all territories captured by Israel during the 1967 Six-Day War) is approximately 20,770 square kilometers (8,019 sq mi) in area, of which two percent is water. However Israel is so narrow that the exclusive economic zone in the Mediterranean is double the land area of the country. The total area under Israeli law, including East Jerusalem and the Golan Heights, is 22,072 square kilometers (8,522 sq mi), and the total area under Israeli control, including the military-controlled and partially Palestinian-governed territory of the West Bank, is 27,799 square kilometers (10,733 sq mi). Despite its small size, Israel is home to a variety of geographic features, from the Negev desert in the south to the inland fertile Jezreel Valley, mountain ranges of the Galilee, Carmel and toward the Golan in the north. The Israeli Coastal Plain on the shores of the Mediterranean is home to 57 percent of the nation's population. East of the central highlands lies the Jordan Rift Valley, which forms a small part of the 6,500-kilometer (4,039 mi) Great Rift Valley.
What river runs along the Jordan Rift Valley?
5725c22dec44d21400f3d4e7
Jordan River
4
False
What is the largest makhtesh in the world?
5725c22dec44d21400f3d4e8
Ramon Crater
376
False
Israel has the largest number of what per square meter in the basin?
5725c22dec44d21400f3d4e9
plant species
560
False
The Jordan River runs along the Jordan Rift Valley, from Mount Hermon through the Hulah Valley and the Sea of Galilee to the Dead Sea, the lowest point on the surface of the Earth. Further south is the Arabah, ending with the Gulf of Eilat, part of the Red Sea. Unique to Israel and the Sinai Peninsula are makhteshim, or erosion cirques. The largest makhtesh in the world is Ramon Crater in the Negev, which measures 40 by 8 kilometers (25 by 5 mi). A report on the environmental status of the Mediterranean basin states that Israel has the largest number of plant species per square meter of all the countries in the basin.
What is the result of tectonic movements within the Dead Sea Transform?
5725c27f38643c19005acc65
Jordan Rift Valley
4
False
What does the tectonic disposition lead to?
5725c27f38643c19005acc66
high seismic activity in the region
446
False
The deficit can cause an earthquake of what magnitude to occur?
5725c27f38643c19005acc67
Mw~7.4.
744
False
The Jordan Rift Valley is the result of tectonic movements within the Dead Sea Transform (DSF) fault system. The DSF forms the transform boundary between the African Plate to the west and the Arabian Plate to the east. The Golan Heights and all of Jordan are part of the Arabian Plate, while the Galilee, West Bank, Coastal Plain, and Negev along with the Sinai Peninsula are on the African Plate. This tectonic disposition leads to a relatively high seismic activity in the region. The entire Jordan Valley segment is thought to have ruptured repeatedly, for instance during the last two major earthquakes along this structure in 749 and 1033. The deficit in slip that has built up since the 1033 event is sufficient to cause an earthquake of Mw~7.4.
When did the most catastrophic earthquakes occur?
5725c2d6271a42140099d15d
31 BCE, 363, 749, and 1033 CE
57
False
How many residential buildings did not meet construction standards?
5725c2d6271a42140099d15e
50,000
458
False
How often do earthquakes that lead to serious loss of life occur?
5725c2d6271a42140099d15f
every 80 years
197
False
The most catastrophic earthquakes we know of occurred in 31 BCE, 363, 749, and 1033 CE, that is every ca. 400 years on average. Destructive earthquakes leading to serious loss of life strike about every 80 years. While stringent construction regulations are currently in place and recently built structures are earthquake-safe, as of 2007[update] the majority of the buildings in Israel were older than these regulations and many public buildings as well as 50,000 residential buildings did not meet the new standards and were "expected to collapse" if exposed to a strong quake. Given the fragile political situation of the Middle East region and the presence there of major holy sites, a quake reaching magnitude 7 on the Richter scale could have dire consequences for world peace.
What kind of climate does Tel Aviv have?
5725c30f38643c19005acc75
Mediterranean
133
False
What kind of climate does Arava have?
5725c30f38643c19005acc76
desert
400
False
What was the highest recorded temperature in Tirat Zvi?
5725c30f38643c19005acc77
54.0 °C
536
False
Temperatures in Israel vary widely, especially during the winter. Coastal areas, such as those of Tel Aviv and Haifa, have a typical Mediterranean climate with cool, rainy winters and long, hot summers. The area of Beersheba and the Northern Negev has a semi-arid climate with hot summers, cool winters and fewer rainy days than the Mediterranean climate. The Southern Negev and the Arava areas have desert climate with very hot and dry summers, and mild winters with few days of rain. The highest temperature in the continent of Asia (54.0 °C or 129.2 °F) was recorded in 1942 at Tirat Zvi kibbutz in the northern Jordan river valley.
Israel developed what?
5725c34889a1e219009abe0c
various water-saving technologies
287
False
What does Israelis take advantage of?
5725c34889a1e219009abe0d
sunlight
398
False
Who leads the nation in solar energy use?
5725c34889a1e219009abe0e
Israel
442
False
At the other extreme mountainous regions can be windy, cold, and areas at elevation of 750 meters or more (same elevation as Jerusalem) will usually receive at least one snowfall each year. From May to September, rain in Israel is rare. With scarce water resources, Israel has developed various water-saving technologies, including drip irrigation. Israelis also take advantage of the considerable sunlight available for solar energy, making Israel the leading nation in solar energy use per capita (practically every house uses solar panels for water heating).
What was Israel's population in 2016?
5725c38d271a42140099d16d
8,476,600
46
False
How many African migrants entered Israel by June 2012?
5725c38d271a42140099d16e
60,000
585
False
How many Israelis live in urban areas?
5725c38d271a42140099d16f
92%
635
False
In 2016, Israel's population was an estimated 8,476,600 million people, of whom 6,345,400 (74.9%) were recorded by the civil government as Jews. 1,760,400 Arabs comprised 20.7% of the population, while non-Arab Christians and people who have no religion listed in the civil registry made up 4.4%. Over the last decade, large numbers of migrant workers from Romania, Thailand, China, Africa, and South America have settled in Israel. Exact figures are unknown, as many of them are living in the country illegally, but estimates run in the region of 203,000. By June 2012, approximately 60,000 African migrants had entered Israel. About 92% of Israelis live in urban areas.
How many Israeli citizens lived in West Bank settlements?
5725c3d389a1e219009abe1c
over 300,000
17
False
How many Israelis lived in Golan Heights settlements?
5725c3d389a1e219009abe1d
20,000
342
False
When were Israelis evacuated from Gaza Strip?
5725c3d389a1e219009abe1e
2005
608
False
In 2009[update], over 300,000 Israeli citizens lived in West Bank settlements such as Ma'ale Adumim and Ariel, including settlements that predated the establishment of the State of Israel and which were re-established after the Six-Day War, in cities such as Hebron and Gush Etzion. In 2011, there were 250,000 Jews living in East Jerusalem. 20,000 Israelis live in Golan Heights settlements. The total number of Israeli settlers is over 500,000 (6.5% of the Israeli population). Approximately 7,800 Israelis lived in settlements in the Gaza Strip, until they were evacuated by the government as part of its 2005 disengagement plan.
What's the homeland for Jewish people?
5725c41889a1e219009abe2c
Israel
0
False
Approximately how many Israeli Jews are born in Israel?
5725c41889a1e219009abe2d
75%
553
False
What percent are Jewish intermarriage rates at?
5725c41889a1e219009abe2e
35%
1071
False
Israel was established as a homeland for the Jewish people and is often referred to as a Jewish state. The country's Law of Return grants all Jews and those of Jewish ancestry the right to Israeli citizenship. Over three quarters, or 75.5%, of the population are Jews from a diversity of Jewish backgrounds. Around 4% of Israelis (300,000), ethnically defined as "others", are Russian descendants of Jewish origin or family who are not Jewish according to rabbinical law, but were eligible for Israeli citizenship under the Law of Return. Approximately 75% of Israeli Jews are born in Israel, 17% are immigrants from Europe and the Americas, and 8% are immigrants from Asia and Africa (including the Arab World). Jews from Europe and the former Soviet Union and their descendants born in Israel, including Ashkenazi Jews, constitute approximately 50% of Jewish Israelis. Jews who left or fled Arab and Muslim countries and their descendants, including both Mizrahi and Sephardi Jews, form most of the rest of the Jewish population. Jewish intermarriage rates run at over 35% and recent studies suggest that the percentage of Israelis descended from both Sephardi and Ashkenazi Jews increases by 0.5 percent every year, with over 25% of school children now originating from both communities.
What are the two official languages of Israel?
5725c455ec44d21400f3d515
Hebrew and Arabic
35
False
How many Israelis speak French?
5725c455ec44d21400f3d516
700,000
1125
False
How many Russian immigrants arrived in Israel?
5725c455ec44d21400f3d517
one million
981
False
Israel has two official languages, Hebrew and Arabic. Hebrew is the primary language of the state and is spoken everyday by the majority of the population, and Arabic is spoken by the Arab minority and Hebrew is taught in Arab schools. English was an official language during the Mandate period; it lost this status after the creation of Israel, but retains a role comparable to that of an official language, as may be seen in road signs and official documents. Many Israelis communicate reasonably well in English, as many television programs are broadcast in English with subtitles and the language is taught from the early grades in elementary school. In addition, Israeli universities offer courses in the English language on various subjects. As a country of immigrants, many languages can be heard on the streets. Due to mass immigration from the former Soviet Union and Ethiopia (some 130,000 Ethiopian Jews live in Israel), Russian and Amharic are widely spoken. More than one million Russian-speaking immigrants arrived in Israel from the former Soviet Union states between 1990 and 2004. French is spoken by around 700,000 Israelis, mostly originating from France and North Africa (see Maghrebi Jews).
Muslims make up how much of the Israel's population?
5725c491ec44d21400f3d51b
16%
10
False
2% of the population in Israel are what?
5725c491ec44d21400f3d51c
Christian
119
False
Druze makes up what percent?
5725c491ec44d21400f3d51d
1.5%
133
False
Making up 16% of the population, Muslims constitute Israel's largest religious minority. About 2% of the population is Christian and 1.5% is Druze. The Christian population primarily comprises Arab Christians, but also includes post-Soviet immigrants, the foreign laborers of multinational origins, and followers of Messianic Judaism, considered by most Christians and Jews to be a form of Christianity. Members of many other religious groups, including Buddhists and Hindus, maintain a presence in Israel, albeit in small numbers. Out of more than one million immigrants from the former Soviet Union in Israel, about 300,000 are considered not Jewish by the Orthodox rabbinate.
What incorporates the Western Wall and the Temple Mount?
5725c509ec44d21400f3d52b
Old City
163
False
Where is Rachel's Tomb?
5725c509ec44d21400f3d52c
Bethlehem
813
False
Who do not teach their faith to Israelis?
5725c509ec44d21400f3d52d
Bahá'í staff
1146
False
The city of Jerusalem is of special importance to Jews, Muslims and Christians as it is the home of sites that are pivotal to their religious beliefs, such as the Old City that incorporates the Western Wall and the Temple Mount, the Al-Aqsa Mosque and the Church of the Holy Sepulchre. Other locations of religious importance in Israel are Nazareth (holy in Christianity as the site of the Annunciation of Mary), Tiberias and Safed (two of the Four Holy Cities in Judaism), the White Mosque in Ramla (holy in Islam as the shrine of the prophet Saleh), and the Church of Saint George in Lod (holy in Christianity and Islam as the tomb of Saint George or Al Khidr). A number of other religious landmarks are located in the West Bank, among them Joseph's Tomb in Nablus, the birthplace of Jesus and Rachel's Tomb in Bethlehem, and the Cave of the Patriarchs in Hebron. The administrative center of the Bahá'í Faith and the Shrine of the Báb are located at the Bahá'í World Centre in Haifa; the leader of the faith is buried in Acre. Apart from maintenance staff, there is no Bahá'í community in Israel, although it is a destination for pilgrimages. Bahá'í staff in Israel do not teach their faith to Israelis following strict policy. A few miles south of the Bahá'í World Centre is the Middle East centre of the reformist Ahmadiyya movement. Its mixed neighbourhood of Jews and Ahmadi Arabs is the only one of its kind in the country.
What was Israel ranked among OECD countries?
5725c576271a42140099d179
second
1395
False
What did it rank in the number of academic degrees per capita?
5725c576271a42140099d17a
third
1829
False
Who praised Israel for its high quality education?
5725c576271a42140099d17b
Bill Gates
1255
False
Education in Israel is highly valued in the national culture with its historical values dating back to Ancient Israel and was viewed as one fundamental blocks of ancient Israelite life. Israeli culture views higher education as the key to higher mobility and socioeconomic status in Israeli society. The emphasis of education within Israeli society goes to the gulf within the Jewish diaspora from the Renaissance and Enlightenment Movement all the way to the roots of Zionism in the 1880s. Jewish communities in the Levant were the first to introduce compulsory education for which the organized community, not less than the parents, was responsible for the education of the next generation of Jews. With contemporary Jewish culture's strong emphasis, promotion of scholarship and learning and the strong propensity to promote cultivation of intellectual pursuits as well as the nations high university educational attainment rate exemplifies how highly Israeli society values higher education. The Israeli education system has been praised for various reasons, including its high quality and its major role in spurring Israel's economic development and technological boom. Many international business leaders and organizations such as Microsoft founder Bill Gates have praised Israel for its high quality of education in helping spur Israel's economic development. In 2012, the country ranked second among OECD countries (tied with Japan and after Canada) for the percentage of 25- to 64-year-olds that have attained tertiary education with 46 percent compared with the OECD average of 32 percent. In addition, nearly twice as many Israelis aged 55–64 held a higher education degree compared to other OECD countries, with 47 percent holding an academic degree compared with the OECD average of 25%. In 2012, the country ranked third in the world in the number of academic degrees per capita (20 percent of the population).
What is the school expectancy in Israel?
5725c5b138643c19005acc95
15.5 years
39
False
What is the literacy rate in Israel?
5725c5b138643c19005acc96
97.1%
73
False
What is necessary to receive a Bagrut certificate?
5725c5b138643c19005acc97
Biblical scripture and civics
886
False
Israel has a school life expectancy of 15.5 years and a literacy rate of 97.1% according to the United Nations. The State Education Law, passed in 1953, established five types of schools: state secular, state religious, ultra orthodox, communal settlement schools, and Arab schools. The public secular is the largest school group, and is attended by the majority of Jewish and non-Arab pupils in Israel. Most Arabs send their children to schools where Arabic is the language of instruction. Education is compulsory in Israel for children between the ages of three and eighteen. Schooling is divided into three tiers – primary school (grades 1–6), middle school (grades 7–9), and high school (grades 10–12) – culminating with Bagrut matriculation exams. Proficiency in core subjects such as mathematics, the Hebrew language, Hebrew and general literature, the English language, history, Biblical scripture and civics is necessary to receive a Bagrut certificate. In Arab, Christian and Druze schools, the exam on Biblical studies is replaced by an exam on Muslim, Christian or Druze heritage. Christian Arabs are one of the most educated groups in Israel. Maariv have describe the Christian Arabs sectors as "the most successful in education system", since Christian Arabs fared the best in terms of education in comparison to any other group receiving an education in Israel. Israeli children from Russian-speaking families have a higher bagrut pass rate at high-school level. Although amongst immigrant children born in the FSU, the bagrut pass rate is highest amongst those families from Western FSU states of Russia, Ukraine, Belarus and Moldova (at 62.6%), and lower amongst those from Central Asian and Caucasian FSU states. In 2003, over half of all Israeli twelfth graders earned a matriculation certificate.
How many public universities does Israel have?
5725c5e0271a42140099d17f
Israel
0
False
How many private colleges does Israel have?
5725c5e0271a42140099d180
49
73
False
What is the oldest university in Israel?
5725c5e0271a42140099d181
Technion
174
False
Israel has nine public universities that are subsidized by the state and 49 private colleges. The Hebrew University of Jerusalem, Israel's second-oldest university after the Technion, houses the National Library of Israel, the world's largest repository of Judaica and Hebraica. The Technion, the Hebrew University, and the Weizmann Institute consistently ranked among world's 100 top universities by the prestigious ARWU academic ranking. The Hebrew University of Jerusalem and Tel Aviv University are ranked among the world's top 100 universities by Times Higher Education magazine. Other major universities in the country include Bar-Ilan University, the University of Haifa, The Open University, and Ben-Gurion University of the Negev. Ariel University, in the West Bank, is the newest university institution, upgraded from college status, and the first in over thirty years. Israel's seven research universities (excluding the Open University) are consistently ranked among top 500 in the world.
Israel operates under what kind of system?
5725c61489a1e219009abe72
parliamentary
24
False
How many members are in the Knesset?
5725c61489a1e219009abe73
120
325
False
Knesset member is based on what?
5725c61489a1e219009abe74
proportional representation of political parties
408
False
Israel operates under a parliamentary system as a democratic republic with universal suffrage. A member of parliament supported by a parliamentary majority becomes the prime minister—usually this is the chair of the largest party. The prime minister is the head of government and head of the cabinet. Israel is governed by a 120-member parliament, known as the Knesset. Membership of the Knesset is based on proportional representation of political parties, with a 3.25% electoral threshold, which in practice has resulted in coalition governments.
What kind of court system does Israel have?
5725c65038643c19005acca9
three-tier
13
False
Where is the Supreme Court located?
5725c65038643c19005accaa
Jerusalem
333
False
What is the highest tier?
5725c65038643c19005accab
Supreme Court
307
False
Israel has a three-tier court system. At the lowest level are magistrate courts, situated in most cities across the country. Above them are district courts, serving as both appellate courts and courts of first instance; they are situated in five of Israel's six districts. The third and highest tier is the Supreme Court, located in Jerusalem; it serves a dual role as the highest court of appeals and the High Court of Justice. In the latter role, the Supreme Court rules as a court of first instance, allowing individuals, both citizens and non-citizens, to petition against the decisions of state authorities. Although Israel supports the goals of the International Criminal Court, it has not ratified the Rome Statute, citing concerns about the ability of the court to remain free from political impartiality.
What legal traditions does Israel combine?
5725c691271a42140099d195
English common law, civil law, and Jewish law
55
False
What principle is it based on?
5725c691271a42140099d196
stare decisis
134
False
What is Israel's Basic Law?
5725c691271a42140099d197
Human Dignity
855
False
Israel's legal system combines three legal traditions: English common law, civil law, and Jewish law. It is based on the principle of stare decisis (precedent) and is an adversarial system, where the parties in the suit bring evidence before the court. Court cases are decided by professional judges rather than juries. Marriage and divorce are under the jurisdiction of the religious courts: Jewish, Muslim, Druze, and Christian. A committee of Knesset members, Supreme Court justices, and Israeli Bar members carries out the election of judges. Administration of Israel's courts (both the "General" courts and the Labor Courts) is carried by the Administration of Courts, situated in Jerusalem. Both General and Labor courts are paperless courts: the storage of court files, as well as court decisions, are conducted electronically. Israel's Basic Law: Human Dignity and Liberty seeks to defend human rights and liberties in Israel.
The State of Israel is divided into how many administrative districts?
5725c6cd271a42140099d19b
six
36
False
What are these districts known as?
5725c6cd271a42140099d19c
mehozot
80
False
How many sub-districts are there?
5725c6cd271a42140099d19d
fifteen
409
False
The State of Israel is divided into six main administrative districts, known as mehozot (מחוזות; singular: mahoz) – Center, Haifa, Jerusalem, North, Southern, and Tel Aviv Districts, as well as the Judea and Samaria Area in the West Bank. All of the Judea and Samaria Area and parts of the Jerusalem and North districts are not recognized internationally as part of Israel. Districts are further divided into fifteen sub-districts known as nafot (נפות; singular: nafa), which are themselves partitioned into fifty natural regions.
How many metropolitan areas are there?
5725c706ec44d21400f3d539
three
54
False
What metropolitan area has the largest population?
5725c706ec44d21400f3d53a
Tel Aviv
80
False
What is the population of Beer Sheva?
5725c706ec44d21400f3d53b
559,700
224
False
For statistical purposes, the country is divided into three metropolitan areas: Tel Aviv metropolitan area (population 3,206,400), Haifa metropolitan area (population 1,021,000), and Beer Sheva metropolitan area (population 559,700). Israel's largest municipality, in population and area, is Jerusalem with 773,800 residents in an area of 126 square kilometres (49 sq mi) (in 2009). Israeli government statistics on Jerusalem include the population and area of East Jerusalem, which is widely recognized as part of the Palestinian territories under Israeli occupation. Tel Aviv, Haifa, and Rishon LeZion rank as Israel's next most populous cities, with populations of 393,900, 265,600, and 227,600 respectively.
Who declared the annexation of the Golan Heights and East Jerusalem?
5725c76638643c19005accd5
UN Security Council
679
False
What was captured by Israel in the Six-Day War?
5725c76638643c19005accd6
Israeli West Bank
1006
False
Where did Israel withdraw and disband its military forces?
5725c76638643c19005accd7
Gaza Strip
557
False
Since Israel's capture of these territories, Israeli settlements and military installations have been built within each of them. Israel has applied civilian law to the Golan Heights and East Jerusalem and granted their inhabitants permanent residency status and the ability to apply for citizenship. The West Bank, outside of the Israeli settlements within the territory, has remained under direct military rule, and Palestinians in this area cannot become Israeli citizens. Israel withdrew its military forces and dismantled the Israeli settlements in the Gaza Strip as part of its disengagement from Gaza though it continues to maintain control of its airspace and waters. The UN Security Council has declared the annexation of the Golan Heights and East Jerusalem to be "null and void" and continues to view the territories as occupied. The International Court of Justice, principal judicial organ of the United Nations, asserted, in its 2004 advisory opinion on the legality of the construction of the Israeli West Bank barrier, that the lands captured by Israel in the Six-Day War, including East Jerusalem, are occupied territory.
Israel views East Jerusalem as what?
5725c7df89a1e219009abe94
sovereign territory
207
False
What emphasises the inadmissability of the acquisition of territory by war?
5725c7df89a1e219009abe95
United Nations Security Council Resolution 242
332
False
What is the principle of normalization of relations with Arab states?
5725c7df89a1e219009abe96
Land for peace
598
False
The status of East Jerusalem in any future peace settlement has at times been a difficult issue in negotiations between Israeli governments and representatives of the Palestinians, as Israel views it as its sovereign territory, as well as part of its capital. Most negotiations relating to the territories have been on the basis of United Nations Security Council Resolution 242, which emphasises "the inadmissibility of the acquisition of territory by war", and calls on Israel to withdraw from occupied territories in return for normalization of relations with Arab states, a principle known as "Land for peace".
When was the West Bank annexed by Jordan?
5725c843ec44d21400f3d55d
1950
39
False
What was the majority of the population in the West Bank?
5725c843ec44d21400f3d55e
Palestinians
329
False
What percentage of the barrier will be constructed on the Green Line?
5725c843ec44d21400f3d55f
13%
1033
False
The West Bank was annexed by Jordan in 1950, following the Arab rejection of the UN decision to create two states in Palestine. Only Britain recognized this annexation and Jordan has since ceded its claim to the territory to the PLO. The West Bank was occupied by Israel in 1967 during the Six-Day War. The population are mainly Palestinians, including refugees of the 1948 Arab-Israeli War. From their occupation in 1967 until 1993, the Palestinians living in these territories were under Israeli military administration. Since the Israel–PLO letters of recognition, most of the Palestinian population and cities have been under the internal jurisdiction of the Palestinian Authority, and only partial Israeli military control, although Israel has on several occasions redeployed its troops and reinstated full military administration during periods of unrest. In response to increasing attacks as part of the Second Intifada, the Israeli government started to construct the Israeli West Bank barrier. When completed, approximately 13% of the Barrier will be constructed on the Green Line or in Israel with 87% inside the West Bank.
The Gaza Strip was occupied by who from 1948 to 1967?
5725c99938643c19005accfd
Egypt
31
False
Who occupied the Gaza Strip after 1967?
5725c99938643c19005accfe
Israel
67
False
When did Hamas assume it's power in the Gaza Strip?
5725c99938643c19005accff
June 2007
449
False
The Gaza Strip was occupied by Egypt from 1948 to 1967 and then by Israel after 1967. In 2005, as part of Israel's unilateral disengagement plan, Israel removed all of its settlers and forces from the territory. Israel does not consider the Gaza Strip to be occupied territory and declared it a "foreign territory". That view has been disputed by numerous international humanitarian organizations and various bodies of the United Nations. Following June 2007, when Hamas assumed power in the Gaza Strip, Israel tightened its control of the Gaza crossings along its border, as well as by sea and air, and prevented persons from entering and exiting the area except for isolated cases it deemed humanitarian. Gaza has a border with Egypt and an agreement between Israel, the European Union and the PA governed how border crossing would take place (it was monitored by European observers). Egypt adhered to this agreement under Mubarak and prevented access to Gaza until April 2011 when it announced it was opening its border with Gaza.
How many countries does Israel maintain diplomatic relations?
5725c9de271a42140099d1bb
158
43
False
How many diplomatic missions do they have?
5725c9de271a42140099d1bc
107
65
False
How many Arab League members have relations with Israel?
5725c9de271a42140099d1bd
three
197
False
Israel maintains diplomatic relations with 158 countries and has 107 diplomatic missions around the world; countries with whom they have no diplomatic relations include most Muslim countries. Only three members of the Arab League have normalized relations with Israel: Egypt and Jordan signed peace treaties in 1979 and 1994, respectively, and Mauritania opted for full diplomatic relations with Israel in 1999. Despite the peace treaty between Israel and Egypt, Israel is still widely considered an enemy country among Egyptians. Under Israeli law, Lebanon, Syria, Saudi Arabia, Iraq, Iran, Sudan, and Yemen are enemy countries, and Israeli citizens may not visit them without permission from the Ministry of the Interior. Iran had diplomatic relations with Israel under the Pahlavi dynasty but withdrew its recognition of Israel during the Islamic Revolution. As a result of the 2008–09 Gaza War, Mauritania, Qatar, Bolivia, and Venezuela suspended political and economic ties with Israel.
Who were the first two countries to recognize the State of Israel?
5725ca26ec44d21400f3d591
United States and the Soviet Union
4
False
Who regards Israel as it's most reliable partner in the Middle East?
5725ca26ec44d21400f3d592
The United States
154
False
How much did the United States provide in military assistance?
5725ca26ec44d21400f3d593
$68 billion
597
False
The United States and the Soviet Union were the first two countries to recognize the State of Israel, having declared recognition roughly simultaneously. The United States regards Israel as its "most reliable partner in the Middle East," based on "common democratic values, religious affinities, and security interests". Their bilateral relations are multidimensional and the United States is the principal proponent of the Arab-Israeli peace process. The United States and Israeli views differ on some issues, such as the Golan Heights, Jerusalem, and settlements. The United States has provided $68 billion in military assistance and $32 billion in grants to Israel since 1967, under the Foreign Assistance Act (period beginning 1962), more than any other country for that period until 2003.
How much did Germany pay in reparations to the Israeli state?
5725ca76ec44d21400f3d597
25 billion euros
225
False
What prime minister helped relations?
5725ca76ec44d21400f3d598
Tony Blair
643
False
What aims at bringing EU and its neighbours closer?
5725ca76ec44d21400f3d599
European Neighbourhood Policy
735
False
Germany's strong ties with Israel include cooperation on scientific and educational endeavors and the two states remain strong economic and military partners. Under the reparations agreement, by 2007[update] Germany had paid 25 billion euros in reparations to the Israeli state and individual Israeli Holocaust survivors. The UK has kept full diplomatic relations with Israel since its formation having had two visits from heads of state in 2007. The UK is seen as having a "natural" relationship with Israel on account of the British Mandate for Palestine. Relations between the two countries were also made stronger by former prime minister Tony Blair's efforts for a two state resolution. Israel is included in the European Union's European Neighbourhood Policy (ENP), which aims at bringing the EU and its neighbours closer.
When did Turkey and Israel establish full diplomatic relations?
5725cadc38643c19005acd0d
1991
77
False
Who organized the flotilla?
5725cadc38643c19005acd0e
IHH
448
False
When did Israel and Turkey's relations take a downturn?
5725cadc38643c19005acd0f
after the 2008–09 Gaza War
381
False
Although Turkey and Israel did not establish full diplomatic relations until 1991, Turkey has cooperated with the State since its recognition of Israel in 1949. Turkey's ties to the other Muslim-majority nations in the region have at times resulted in pressure from Arab and Muslim states to temper its relationship with Israel. Relations between Turkey and Israel took a downturn after the 2008–09 Gaza War and Israel's raid of the Gaza flotilla. IHH, which organized the flotilla, is a Turkish charity that has been challenged on ties to Hamas and Al-Qaeda. Relations between Israel and Greece have improved since 1995 due to the decline of Israeli-Turkish relations. The two countries have a defense cooperation agreement and in 2010, the Israeli Air Force hosted Greece’s Hellenic Air Force in a joint exercise at the Uvda base. Israel is the second largest importer of Greek products in the Middle East. The joint Cyprus-Israel oil and gas explorations centered on the Leviathan gas field are an important factor for Greece, given its strong links with Cyprus. Cooperation in the world's longest sub-sea electric power cable, the EuroAsia Interconnector, has strengthened relations between Cyprus and Israel.
When did India establish full diplomatic ties with Israel?
5725cb32ec44d21400f3d5a5
1992
54
False
Who's the most pro-Israel country in the world?
5725cb32ec44d21400f3d5a6
India
269
False
Israel is the second-largest military trading partner of India after who?
5725cb32ec44d21400f3d5a7
Russian Federation
449
False
India established full diplomatic ties with Israel in 1992 and has fostered a strong military, technological and cultural partnership with the country since then. According to an international opinion survey conducted in 2009 on behalf of the Israeli Foreign Ministry, India is the most pro-Israel country in the world. India is the largest customer of Israeli military equipment and Israel is the second-largest military partner of India after the Russian Federation. India is also the third-largest Asian economic partner of Israel and the two countries have military as well as extensive space technology ties. India became the top source market for Israel from Asia in 2010 with 41,000 tourist arrivals in that year. Azerbaijan is one of the few majority Muslim countries to develop bilateral strategic and economic relations with Israel. Azerbaijan supplies Israel with a substantial amount of its oil needs, and Israel has helped modernize the Armed Forces of Azerbaijan. In Africa, Ethiopia is Israel's main and closest ally in the continent due to common political, religious and security interests. Israel provides expertise to Ethiopia on irrigation projects and thousands of Ethiopian Jews (Beta Israel) live in Israel.
How much does Israel spend on foreign aid?
5725cb6c271a42140099d1e5
less than 0.1%
64
False
When was MASHAV established?
5725cb6c271a42140099d1e6
1958
446
False
Israel has a history of providing what?
5725cb6c271a42140099d1e7
emergency aid
319
False
Israeli foreign aid ranks very low among OECD nations, spending less than 0.1% of its GNI on foreign aid, as opposed to the recommended 0.7%. Individual international charitable donations are also very low, with only 0.1% of charitable donations being sent to foreign causes. However, Israel has a history of providing emergency aid and humanitarian response teams to disasters across the world. Israel's humanitarian efforts officially began in 1958, with the establishment of MASHAV, the Israeli Ministry of Foreign Affairs Agency for International Development Cooperation.
How many delegations of IDF search and rescue units between 1985 and 2015?
5725cbbc89a1e219009abedc
24
35
False
How many doctors did Israel send to Haiti?
5725cbbc89a1e219009abedd
over 200
261
False
How many patients did Israeli doctors treat in Japan?
5725cbbc89a1e219009abede
200
1067
False
Between 1985 and 2015, Israel sent 24 delegations of IDF search and rescue unit to 22 countries. In Haiti, immediately following the 2010 earthquake, Israel was the first country to set up a field hospital capable of performing surgical operations. Israel sent over 200 medical doctors and personnel to start treating injured Haitians at the scene. At the conclusion of its humanitarian mission 11 days later, the Israeli delegation had treated more than 1,110 patients, conducted 319 successful surgeries, delivered 16 births and rescued or assisted in the rescue of four individuals. Despite radiation concerns, Israel was one of the first countries to send a medical delegation to Japan following the earthquake and tsunami disaster. Israel dispatched a medical team to the tsunami-stricken city of Kurihara in 2011. A medical clinic run by an IDF team of some 50 members featured pediatric, surgical, maternity and gynecological, and otolaryngology wards, together with an optometry department, a laboratory, a pharmacy and an intensive care unit. After treating 200 patients in two weeks, the departing emergency team donated its equipment to the Japanese.
What is the sole military wing of the Israeli security forces?
5725cbf3271a42140099d1f1
Israel Defense Forces
4
False
Who is the head of the IDF?
5725cbf3271a42140099d1f2
Ramatkal
133
False
When was the IDF founded?
5725cbf3271a42140099d1f3
1948
246
False
The Israel Defense Forces is the sole military wing of the Israeli security forces, and is headed by its Chief of General Staff, the Ramatkal, subordinate to the Cabinet. The IDF consist of the army, air force and navy. It was founded during the 1948 Arab–Israeli War by consolidating paramilitary organizations—chiefly the Haganah—that preceded the establishment of the state. The IDF also draws upon the resources of the Military Intelligence Directorate (Aman), which works with Mossad and Shabak. The Israel Defense Forces have been involved in several major wars and border conflicts in its short history, making it one of the most battle-trained armed forces in the world.
What age are most Israelis drafted into the military?
5725cc4e271a42140099d1f7
18
58
False
How long do women serve in the military?
5725cc4e271a42140099d1f8
two years
109
False
What citizens are exempt from military service?
5725cc4e271a42140099d1f9
Arab citizens
309
False
Most Israelis are drafted into the military at the age of 18. Men serve two years and eight months and women two years. Following mandatory service, Israeli men join the reserve forces and usually do up to several weeks of reserve duty every year until their forties. Most women are exempt from reserve duty. Arab citizens of Israel (except the Druze) and those engaged in full-time religious studies are exempt from military service, although the exemption of yeshiva students has been a source of contention in Israeli society for many years. An alternative for those who receive exemptions on various grounds is Sherut Leumi, or national service, which involves a program of service in hospitals, schools and other social welfare frameworks. As a result of its conscription program, the IDF maintains approximately 176,500 active troops and an additional 445,000 reservists.
The military relies on what?
5725cc8b38643c19005acd2f
high-tech weapons systems
40
False
What is one of the most crucial weapons in Israel's military history?
5725cc8b38643c19005acd30
Python air-to-air missile series
227
False
The success of what program has made Israel one of seven countries capable of launching satellites?
5725cc8b38643c19005acd31
Ofeq
728
False
The nation's military relies heavily on high-tech weapons systems designed and manufactured in Israel as well as some foreign imports. The Arrow missile is one of the world's few operational anti-ballistic missile systems. The Python air-to-air missile series is often considered one of the most crucial weapons in its military history. Israel's Spike missile is one of the most widely exported ATGMs in the world. Israel's Iron Dome anti-missile air defense system gained worldwide acclaim after intercepting hundreds of Qassam, 122 mm Grad and Fajr-5 artillery rockets fire by Palestinian militants from the Gaza Strip. Since the Yom Kippur War, Israel has developed a network of reconnaissance satellites. The success of the Ofeq program has made Israel one of seven countries capable of launching such satellites.
Israel is widely believed to possess what?
5725ccd5271a42140099d1fd
nuclear weapons
37
False
What is armed with nuclear Popeye Turbo missiles?
5725ccd5271a42140099d1fe
Israeli Navy's Dolphin submarines
278
False
All homes in Israel are required to have a room called what?
5725ccd5271a42140099d1ff
Merkhav Mugan
562
False
Israel is widely believed to possess nuclear weapons as well as chemical and biological weapons of mass destruction. Israel has not signed the Treaty on the Non-Proliferation of Nuclear Weapons and maintains a policy of deliberate ambiguity toward its nuclear capabilities. The Israeli Navy's Dolphin submarines are believed to be armed with nuclear Popeye Turbo missiles, offering nuclear second strike capability. Since the Gulf War in 1991, when Israel was attacked by Iraqi Scud missiles, all homes in Israel are required to have a reinforced security room, Merkhav Mugan, impermeable to chemical and biological substances.
What two countries have a higher defense spending to GDP ratio than Israel?
5725cd18ec44d21400f3d5cf
Oman and Saudi Arabia
107
False
What percentage of it's GDP was spent on defense in 1984?
5725cd18ec44d21400f3d5d0
24%
170
False
What was Israel's Global Peace Index rank in 2015?
5725cd18ec44d21400f3d5d1
148th
697
False
Israel has one of the highest ratios of defense spending to GDP of all developed countries, only topped by Oman and Saudi Arabia. In 1984, for example, the country spent 24% of its GDP on defense. By 2006, that figure had dropped to 7.3%. Israel is one of the world's largest arms exporters, and was ranked fourth in the world for weapons exports in 2007. The majority of Israel's arms exports are unreported for security reasons. Since 1967, the United States has been a particularly notable foreign contributor of military aid to Israel: the US is expected to provide the country with $3.15 billion per year from 2013 to 2018. Israel is consistently rated low in the Global Peace Index, ranking 148th out of 162 nations for peacefulness in 2015.
Who is considered the most advanced country in Southwest Asia?
5725cd6a89a1e219009abef6
Israel
0
False
When did Israel join the OECD?
5725cd6a89a1e219009abef7
2010
335
False
Where does Israel rank in number of startup companies in the world?
5725cd6a89a1e219009abef8
second
552
False
Israel is considered the most advanced country in Southwest Asia and the Middle East in economic and industrial development. Israel's quality university education and the establishment of a highly motivated and educated populace is largely responsible for spurring the country's high technology boom and rapid economic development. In 2010, it joined the OECD. The country is ranked 3rd in the region and 38th worldwide on the World Bank's Ease of Doing Business Index as well as in the World Economic Forum's Global Competitiveness Report. It has the second-largest number of startup companies in the world (after the United States) and the largest number of NASDAQ-listed companies outside North America.
Imports to Israel totaled what in 2012?
5725cdb989a1e219009abefc
$77.59 billion
238
False
Israeli exports reached what in 2012?
5725cdb989a1e219009abefd
$64.74 billion
592
False
What are the leading exports in Israel?
5725cdb989a1e219009abefe
electronics, software, computerized systems
393
False
Despite limited natural resources, intensive development of the agricultural and industrial sectors over the past decades has made Israel largely self-sufficient in food production, apart from grains and beef. Imports to Israel, totaling $77.59 billion in 2012, include raw materials, military equipment, investment goods, rough diamonds, fuels, grain, consumer goods. Leading exports include electronics, software, computerized systems, communications technology, medical equipment, pharmaceuticals, fruits, chemicals, military technology, and cut diamonds; in 2012, Israeli exports reached $64.74 billion.
Israel is a leading country of what development?
5725ce0a38643c19005acd47
solar energy
50
False
Israel is ranked 1st in the world in what?
5725ce0a38643c19005acd48
expenditure on Research and Development
344
False
What companies built their first overseas research and development centers in Israel?
5725ce0a38643c19005acd49
Intel and Microsoft
414
False
Israel is a leading country in the development of solar energy. Israel is a global leader in water conservation and geothermal energy, and its development of cutting-edge technologies in software, communications and the life sciences have evoked comparisons with Silicon Valley. According to the OECD, Israel is also ranked 1st in the world in expenditure on Research and Development (R&D) as a percentage of GDP. Intel and Microsoft built their first overseas research and development centers in Israel, and other high-tech multi-national corporations, such as IBM, Google, Apple, HP, Cisco Systems, and Motorola, have opened R&D facilities in the country.
What investor bought Iscar?
5725ce66ec44d21400f3d5df
Warren Buffett
53
False
When did United States begin to provide foreign aid to Israel?
5725ce66ec44d21400f3d5e0
1970s
197
False
What was Israel's debt surplus in December 2015?
5725ce66ec44d21400f3d5e1
US$118 billion
634
False
In July 2007, American business magnate and investor Warren Buffett's holding company Berkshire Hathaway bought an Israeli company, Iscar, its first non-U.S. acquisition, for $4 billion. Since the 1970s, Israel has received military aid from the United States, as well as economic assistance in the form of loan guarantees, which now account for roughly half of Israel's external debt. Israel has one of the lowest external debts in the developed world, and is a net lender in terms of net external debt (the total value of assets vs. liabilities in debt instruments owed abroad), which in December 2015[update] stood at a surplus of US$118 billion.
What are the days of working in Israel?
5725ced6271a42140099d213
Sunday through Thursday
35
False
Friday is considered what?
5725ced6271a42140099d214
short day
240
False
Several proposals have been raised to do what?
5725ced6271a42140099d215
make Sunday a non-working day
413
False
Days of working time in Israel are Sunday through Thursday (for a five-day workweek), or Friday (for a six-day workweek). In observance of Shabbat, in places where Friday is a work day and the majority of population is Jewish, Friday is a "short day", usually lasting till 14:00 in the winter, or 16:00 in the summer. Several proposals have been raised to adjust the work week with the majority of the world, and make Sunday a non-working day, while extending working time of other days or replacing Friday with Sunday as a work day.
Israeli universities rank where in mathematics?
5725cf22271a42140099d219
100
31
False
How many Nobel Prize-winning scientists has Israel produced?
5725cf22271a42140099d21a
six
390
False
Israel leads the world in what research papers per capita?
5725cf22271a42140099d21b
stem-cell research
589
False
Israeli universities are among 100 top world universities in mathematics (Hebrew University, TAU and Technion), physics (TAU, Hebrew University and Weizmann Institute of Science), chemistry (Technion and Weizmann Institute of Science), computer science (Weizmann Institute of Science, Technion, Hebrew University, TAU and BIU) and economics (Hebrew University and TAU). Israel has produced six Nobel Prize-winning scientists since 2002 and has been frequently ranked as one of the countries with the highest ratios of scientific papers per capita in the world. Israel has led the world in stem-cell research papers per capita since 2000.
How much is Israel's water technology industry worth?
5725cf7938643c19005acd6b
$2 billion a year
128
False
What's the largest desalination plant in the world?
5725cf7938643c19005acd6c
The Ashkelon seawater reverse osmosis
499
False
How much drinking water is produced by Israel's desalination programs?
5725cf7938643c19005acd6d
35%
844
False
Israel is one of the world's technological leaders in water technology. In 2011, its water technology industry was worth around $2 billion a year with annual exports of products and services in the tens of millions of dollars. The ongoing shortage of water in the country has spurred innovation in water conservation techniques, and a substantial agricultural modernization, drip irrigation, was invented in Israel. Israel is also at the technological forefront of desalination and water recycling. The Ashkelon seawater reverse osmosis (SWRO) plant, the largest in the world, was voted 'Desalination Plant of the Year' in the Global Water Awards in 2006. Israel hosts an annual Water Technology Exhibition and Conference (WaTec) that attracts thousands of people from across the world. By 2014, Israel's desalination programs provided roughly 35% of Israel's drinking water and it is expected to supply 40% by 2015 and 70% by 2050. As of May 29, 2015 more than 50 percent of the water for Israeli households, agriculture and industry is artificially produced. As a result of innovations in reverse osmosis technology, Israel is set to become a net exporter of water in the coming years.
How many homes in Israel use solar energy for hot water?
5725cfb4271a42140099d21f
Over 90%
158
False
How much electricity does the country save per year?
5725cfb4271a42140099d220
8%
304
False
When did Better Place shut down?
5725cfb4271a42140099d221
2013
1109
False
Israel has embraced solar energy; its engineers are on the cutting edge of solar energy technology and its solar companies work on projects around the world. Over 90% of Israeli homes use solar energy for hot water, the highest per capita in the world. According to government figures, the country saves 8% of its electricity consumption per year because of its solar energy use in heating. The high annual incident solar irradiance at its geographic latitude creates ideal conditions for what is an internationally renowned solar research and development industry in the Negev Desert. Israel had a modern electric car infrastructure involving a countrywide network of recharging stations to facilitate the charging and exchange of car batteries. It was thought that this would have lowered Israel's oil dependency and lowered the fuel costs of hundreds of Israel's motorists that use cars powered only by electric batteries. The Israeli model was being studied by several countries and being implemented in Denmark and Australia. However, Israel's trailblazing electric car company Better Place shut down in 2013.
What coordinates with all Israeli space research programs?
5725d003271a42140099d22f
Israeli Space Agency
4
False
Futron's Space Competitiveness Index ranked Israel what in 2012?
5725d003271a42140099d230
ninth in the world
137
False
When did Israel launch it's first satellite?
5725d003271a42140099d231
1988
438
False
The Israeli Space Agency coordinates all Israeli space research programs with scientific and commercial goals. In 2012 Israel was ranked ninth in the world by the Futron's Space Competitiveness Index. Israel is one of only seven countries that both build their own satellites and launch their own launchers. The Shavit is a space launch vehicle produced by Israel to launch small satellites into low earth orbit. It was first launched in 1988, making Israel the eighth nation to have a space launch capability. Shavit rockets are launched from the spaceport at the Palmachim Airbase by the Israeli Space Agency. Since 1988 Israel Aerospace Industries have indigenously designed and built at least 13 commercial, research and spy satellites. Some of Israel's satellites are ranked among the world's most advanced space systems. In 2003, Ilan Ramon became Israel's first astronaut, serving as payload specialist of STS-107, the fatal mission of the Space Shuttle Columbia.
How many kilometers of paved roads does Israel have?
5725d058ec44d21400f3d605
18,096
11
False
How many buses have scheduled routes in Israel?
5725d058ec44d21400f3d606
5,715
208
False
How much cargo do railways transport per year?
5725d058ec44d21400f3d607
6.8 million tons
667
False
Israel has 18,096 kilometers (11,244 mi) of paved roads, and 2.4 million motor vehicles. The number of motor vehicles per 1,000 persons was 324, relatively low with respect to developed countries. Israel has 5,715 buses on scheduled routes, operated by several carriers, the largest of which is Egged, serving most of the country. Railways stretch across 949 kilometers (590 mi) and are operated solely by government-owned Israel Railways (All figures are for 2008). Following major investments beginning in the early to mid-1990s, the number of train passengers per year has grown from 2.5 million in 1990, to 35 million in 2008; railways are also used to transport 6.8 million tons of cargo, per year.
What is the country's main hub for international air travel?
5725d09038643c19005acd85
Ben Gurion International Airport
48
False
What is the country's oldest and largest port?
5725d09038643c19005acd86
Haifa Port
337
False
How many international airports are in Israel?
5725d09038643c19005acd87
two
20
False
Israel is served by two international airports, Ben Gurion International Airport, the country's main hub for international air travel near Tel Aviv-Yafo, Ovda Airport in the south, as well as several small domestic airports. Ben Gurion, Israel's largest airport, handled over 12.1 million passengers in 2010. On the Mediterranean coast, Haifa Port is the country's oldest and largest port, while Ashdod Port is one of the few deep water ports in the world built on the open sea. In addition to these, the smaller Port of Eilat is situated on the Red Sea, and is used mainly for trading with Far East countries.
What is an important industry in Israel?
5725d0d338643c19005acd8b
Tourism
0
False
How many tourists visited Israel in 2013?
5725d0d338643c19005acd8c
3.54 million
361
False
What is the most popular tourist attraction in Israel?
5725d0d338643c19005acd8d
Western Wall
449
False
Tourism, especially religious tourism, is an important industry in Israel, with the country's temperate climate, beaches, archaeological, other historical and biblical sites, and unique geography also drawing tourists. Israel's security problems have taken their toll on the industry, but the number of incoming tourists is on the rebound. In 2013, a record of 3.54 million tourists visited Israel with the most popular site of attraction being the Western Wall with 68% of tourists visiting there. Israel has the highest number of museums per capita in the world.
Where does Israel's diverse culture stem from?
5725d10a89a1e219009abf40
diversity of its population
40
False
Life revolves around what in Israel?
5725d10a89a1e219009abf41
Hebrew calendar
311
False
Work and school holidays are determined by what?
5725d10a89a1e219009abf42
Jewish holidays
375
False
Israel's diverse culture stems from the diversity of its population: Jews from diaspora communities around the world have brought their cultural and religious traditions back with them, creating a melting pot of Jewish customs and beliefs. Israel is the only country in the world where life revolves around the Hebrew calendar. Work and school holidays are determined by the Jewish holidays, and the official day of rest is Saturday, the Jewish Sabbath. Israel's substantial Arab minority has also left its imprint on Israeli culture in such spheres as architecture, music, and cuisine.
Israeli literature is primarily written in what?
5725d14aec44d21400f3d615
Hebrew
60
False
When is the Hebrew Book Week held?
5725d14aec44d21400f3d616
June
603
False
What is Israel's top literary reward?
5725d14aec44d21400f3d617
the Sapir Prize
751
False
Israeli literature is primarily poetry and prose written in Hebrew, as part of the renaissance of Hebrew as a spoken language since the mid-19th century, although a small body of literature is published in other languages, such as English. By law, two copies of all printed matter published in Israel must be deposited in the National Library of Israel at the Hebrew University of Jerusalem. In 2001, the law was amended to include audio and video recordings, and other non-print media. In 2013, 91 percent of the 7,863 books transferred to the library were in Hebrew. The Hebrew Book Week is held each June and features book fairs, public readings, and appearances by Israeli authors around the country. During the week, Israel's top literary award, the Sapir Prize, is presented.[citation needed]
Shmuel Yosef Agnon shared the Nobel Prize with who in 1966?
5725d19938643c19005acd91
Nelly Sachs
91
False
What Israel-Arab satirist is internationally known?
5725d19938643c19005acd92
Sayed Kashua
319
False
Who wrote the novel The Secret Life of Saeed the Pessoptimist?
5725d19938643c19005acd93
Emile Habibi
479
False
In 1966, Shmuel Yosef Agnon shared the Nobel Prize in Literature with German Jewish author Nelly Sachs. Leading Israeli poets have been Yehuda Amichai, Nathan Alterman and Rachel Bluwstein. Internationally famous contemporary Israeli novelists include Amos Oz, Etgar Keret and David Grossman. The Israeli-Arab satirist Sayed Kashua (who writes in Hebrew) is also internationally known.[citation needed] Israel has also been the home of two leading Palestinian poets and writers: Emile Habibi, whose novel The Secret Life of Saeed the Pessoptimist, and other writings, won him the Israel prize for Arabic literature; and Mahmoud Darwish, considered by many to be "the Palestinian national poet." Darwish was born and raised in northern Israel, but lived his adult life abroad after joining the Palestine Liberation Organization.[citation needed]
What Israeli orchestra has been in operation for more than seventy years?
5725d1ecec44d21400f3d62d
Israel Philharmonic Orchestra
236
False
What three internationally acclaimed musicians were born in Israel?
5725d1ecec44d21400f3d62e
Itzhak Perlman, Pinchas Zukerman and Ofra Haza
466
False
Who hosts its own international music festival every summer?
5725d1ecec44d21400f3d62f
Eilat
739
False
Israeli music contains musical influences from all over the world; Sephardic music, Hasidic melodies, Belly dancing music, Greek music, jazz, and pop rock are all part of the music scene. Among Israel's world-renowned orchestras is the Israel Philharmonic Orchestra, which has been in operation for over seventy years and today performs more than two hundred concerts each year. Israel has also produced many musicians of note, some achieving international stardom. Itzhak Perlman, Pinchas Zukerman and Ofra Haza are among the internationally acclaimed musicians born in Israel.[citation needed] Israel has participated in the Eurovision Song Contest nearly every year since 1973, winning the competition three times and hosting it twice. Eilat has hosted its own international music festival, the Red Sea Jazz Festival, every summer since 1987.
What the nation's canonical folk songs known as?
5725d27dec44d21400f3d633
Songs of the Land of Israel
45
False
What became a symbol of the Zionist reconstruction?
5725d27dec44d21400f3d634
Hora circle dance
154
False
What's a flourishing field in Israel?
5725d27dec44d21400f3d635
Modern dance
560
False
The nation's canonical folk songs, known as "Songs of the Land of Israel," deal with the experiences of the pioneers in building the Jewish homeland. The Hora circle dance introduced by early Jewish settlers was originally popular in the Kibbutzim and outlying communities. It became a symbol of the Zionist reconstruction and of the ability to experience joy amidst austerity. It now plays a significant role in modern Israeli folk dancing and is regularly performed at weddings and other celebrations, and in group dances throughout Israel.[citation needed] Modern dance in Israel is a flourishing field, and several Israeli choreographers such as Ohad Naharin, Rami Beer, Barak Marshall and many others, are considered[by whom?] to be among the most versatile and original international creators working today. Famous Israeli companies include the Batsheva Dance Company and the Kibbutz Contemporary Dance Company.[citation needed]
What internationally acclaimed violin virtuoso is from Israel?
5725d2cc271a42140099d24f
Taiseer Elias
106
False
Who was awarded first prize in the all-Arab oud contest in Egypt in 2003?
5725d2cc271a42140099d250
Darwish Darwish
331
False
Who is the head of the advanced degree program in Arabic music?
5725d2cc271a42140099d251
Taiseer Elias
524
False
Israel is home to many Palestinian musicians, including internationally acclaimed oud and violin virtuoso Taiseer Elias, singer Amal Murkus, and brothers Samir and Wissam Joubran. Israeli Arab musicians have achieved fame beyond Israel's borders: Elias and Murkus frequently play to audiences in Europe and America, and oud player Darwish Darwish (Prof. Elias's student) was awarded first prize in the all-Arab oud contest in Egypt in 2003. The Jerusalem Academy of Music and Dance has an advanced degree program, headed by Taiseer Elias, in Arabic music.[citation needed]
What is one of Israel's most important culturural institutions?
5725d31238643c19005acdab
The Israel Museum in Jerusalem
0
False
What is an interactive museum on the campus of Tel Aviv University?
5725d31238643c19005acdac
Beth Hatefutsoth
295
False
What is the largest art museum in the north of the country?
5725d31238643c19005acdad
Mishkan Le'Omanut on Kibbutz Ein Harod Meuhad
569
False
The Israel Museum in Jerusalem is one of Israel's most important cultural institutions and houses the Dead Sea scrolls, along with an extensive collection of Judaica and European art. Israel's national Holocaust museum, Yad Vashem, is the world central archive of Holocaust-related information. Beth Hatefutsoth (the Diaspora Museum), on the campus of Tel Aviv University, is an interactive museum devoted to the history of Jewish communities around the world. Apart from the major museums in large cities, there are high-quality artspaces in many towns and kibbutzim. Mishkan Le'Omanut on Kibbutz Ein Harod Meuhad is the largest art museum in the north of the country.
When was Israeli fusion cuisine first developed?
5725d36038643c19005acdb1
1948
159
False
Kosher restaurants make up what percent of total restaurants?
5725d36038643c19005acdb2
25%
387
False
What is pork often called in Israel?
5725d36038643c19005acdb3
white meat
800
False
Israeli cuisine includes local dishes as well as dishes brought to the country by Jewish immigrants from the diaspora. Since the establishment of the State in 1948, and particularly since the late 1970s, an Israeli fusion cuisine has developed. Roughly half of the Israeli-Jewish population attests to keeping kosher at home. Kosher restaurants, though rare in the 1960s, make up around 25% of the total as of 2015[update], perhaps reflecting the largely secular values of those who dine out. Hotel restaurants are much more likely to serve kosher food. The non-kosher retail market was traditionally sparse, but grew rapidly and considerably following the influx of immigrants from Eastern Europe and Russia during the 1990s. Together with non-kosher fish, rabbits and ostriches, pork—often called "white meat" in Israel—is produced and consumed, though it is forbidden by both Judaism and Islam.
What styles of cooking has Israeli cuisine adopted?
5725d3b0ec44d21400f3d64b
Mizrahi, Sephardic, and Ashkenazi
116
False
What common ingredients are in Israeli cuisine?
5725d3b0ec44d21400f3d64c
falafel, hummus, shakshouka, couscous, and za'atar
400
False
Schnitzel, pizza, hamburgers, French fries, rice and salad are also very common where?
5725d3b0ec44d21400f3d64d
Israel
592
False
Israeli cuisine has adopted, and continues to adapt, elements of various styles of Jewish cuisine, particularly the Mizrahi, Sephardic, and Ashkenazi styles of cooking, along with Moroccan Jewish, Iraqi Jewish, Ethiopian Jewish, Indian Jewish, Iranian Jewish and Yemeni Jewish influences. It incorporates many foods traditionally eaten in the Arab, Middle Eastern and Mediterranean cuisines, such as falafel, hummus, shakshouka, couscous, and za'atar, which have become common ingredients in Israeli cuisine. Schnitzel, pizza, hamburgers, French fries, rice and salad are also very common in Israel.[citation needed]
What are the most popular spectator sports in Israel?
5725d3e4271a42140099d271
association football and basketball
48
False
What is the country's premier football league?
5725d3e4271a42140099d272
Israeli Premier League
89
False
What is the premier basketball league?
5725d3e4271a42140099d273
Israeli Basketball Super League
162
False
The most popular spectator sports in Israel are association football and basketball. The Israeli Premier League is the country's premier football league, and the Israeli Basketball Super League is the premier basketball league. Maccabi Haifa, Maccabi Tel Aviv, Hapoel Tel Aviv and Beitar Jerusalem are the largest sports clubs. Maccabi Tel Aviv, Maccabi Haifa and Hapoel Tel Aviv have competed in the UEFA Champions League and Hapoel Tel Aviv reached the UEFA Cup quarter-finals. Maccabi Tel Aviv B.C. has won the European championship in basketball six times.
When did Israel host and win the Asian Nations Cup?
5725d426271a42140099d277
1964
3
False
When did the Israel national football team qualify to the FIFA World Cup?
5725d426271a42140099d278
1970
56
False
What were the last Asian Games that Israel participated in?
5725d426271a42140099d279
1974 Asian Games
239
False
In 1964 Israel hosted and won the Asian Nations Cup; in 1970 the Israel national football team managed to qualify to the FIFA World Cup, which is still considered[by whom?] the biggest achievement of Israeli football.[citation needed] The 1974 Asian Games held in Tehran, were the last Asian Games in which Israel participated, and was plagued by the Arab countries which refused to compete with Israel, and Israel since ceased competing in Asian competitions. Israel was excluded from the 1978 Asian Games due to security and expense involved if they were to participate. In 1994, UEFA agreed to admit Israel and all Israeli sporting organizations now compete in Europe.[citation needed]
What's a leading sport in Israel?
5725d45b89a1e219009abf62
Chess
0
False
What city has become a national chess center?
5725d45b89a1e219009abf63
Beersheba
485
False
Who won the Chess Cup in 2009?
5725d45b89a1e219009abf64
Boris Gelfand
866
False
Chess is a leading sport in Israel and is enjoyed by people of all ages. There are many Israeli grandmasters and Israeli chess players have won a number of youth world championships. Israel stages an annual international championship and hosted the World Team Chess Championship in 2005. The Ministry of Education and the World Chess Federation agreed upon a project of teaching chess within Israeli schools, and it has been introduced into the curriculum of some schools. The city of Beersheba has become a national chess center, with the game being taught in the city's kindergartens. Owing partly to Soviet immigration, it is home to the largest number of chess grandmasters of any city in the world. The Israeli chess team won the silver medal at the 2008 Chess Olympiad and the bronze, coming in third among 148 teams, at the 2010 Olympiad. Israeli grandmaster Boris Gelfand won the Chess World Cup in 2009 and the 2011 Candidates Tournament for the right to challenge the world champion. He only lost the World Chess Championship 2012 to reigning world champion Anand after a speed-chess tie breaker.[citation needed]
Hellenistic_period
What mathematician advance Greek Science?
5725b2e6b80e561500fa6f34
Greek Science
935
False
What period saw the rise of New Comedy?
5725b2e6b80e561500fa6f35
Hellenistic
802
False
When was the Battle of Actium?
5725b2e6b80e561500fa6f36
31 BC
232
False
When did Alexander the Great die?
5725b2e6b80e561500fa6f37
323 BC
147
False
What period saw the rise of the Septuagint?
5725b2e6b80e561500fa6f38
Hellenistic
802
False
dd
57262473271a42140099d4ec
Buddhism
1185
False
d
57262473271a42140099d4ed
the Gre
1090
False
The Hellenistic period covers the period of ancient Greek (Hellenic) history and Mediterranean history between the death of Alexander the Great in 323 BC and the emergence of the Roman Empire as signified by the Battle of Actium in 31 BC and the subsequent conquest of Ptolemaic Egypt the following year. At this time, Greek cultural influence and power was at its peak in Europe, Africa and Asia, experiencing prosperity and progress in the arts, exploration, literature, theatre, architecture, music, mathematics, philosophy, and science. For example, competitive public games took place, ideas in biology, and popular entertainment in theaters. It is often considered a period of transition, sometimes even of decadence or degeneration, compared to the enlightenment of the Greek Classical era. The Hellenistic period saw the rise of New Comedy, Alexandrian poetry, the Septuagint and the philosophies of Stoicism and Epicureanism. Greek Science was advanced by the works of the mathematician Euclid and the polymath Archimedes. The religious sphere expanded to include new gods such as the Greco-Egyptian Serapis, eastern deities such as Attis and Cybele and the Greek adoption of Buddhism.
What is a common Attic-based dialect?
5725b56a38643c19005acba5
Koine Greek
1376
False
Where is the Ptolemaic Kingdom?
5725b56a38643c19005acba6
north-east Africa
165
False
Where is the Greco-Bactrian Kingdom?
5725b56a38643c19005acba7
South Asia
207
False
Where is the Indo-Greek Kingdom?
5725b56a38643c19005acba8
South Asia
207
False
Where is the Kingdom of Pergamon?
5725b56a38643c19005acba9
south-west Asia
109
False
After Alexander the Great's ventures in the Persian Empire, Hellenistic kingdoms were established throughout south-west Asia (Seleucid Empire, Kingdom of Pergamon), north-east Africa (Ptolemaic Kingdom) and South Asia (Greco-Bactrian Kingdom, Indo-Greek Kingdom). This resulted in the export of Greek culture and language to these new realms through Greco-Macedonian colonization, spanning as far as modern-day Pakistan. Equally, however, these new kingdoms were influenced by the indigenous cultures, adopting local practices where beneficial, necessary, or convenient. Hellenistic culture thus represents a fusion of the Ancient Greek world with that of the Near East, Middle East, and Southwest Asia, and a departure from earlier Greek attitudes towards "barbarian" cultures. The Hellenistic period was characterized by a new wave of Greek colonization (as distinguished from that occurring in the 8th–6th centuries BC) which established Greek cities and kingdoms in Asia and Africa. Those new cities were composed of Greek colonists who came from different parts of the Greek world, and not, as before, from a specific "mother city". The main cultural centers expanded from mainland Greece to Pergamon, Rhodes, and new Greek colonies such as Seleucia, Antioch, Alexandria and Ai-Khanoum. This mixture of Greek-speakers gave birth to a common Attic-based dialect, known as Koine Greek, which became the lingua franca through the Hellenistic world.
When was the final defeat of the Ptolemaic Kingdom?
5725b63f271a42140099d067
31 BC
308
False
Who was the Roman emporer?
5725b63f271a42140099d068
Constantine the Great
349
False
When did the capital of the Roman Empire move to Constantinople?
5725b63f271a42140099d069
330 AD
427
False
What term defines the influence of Greek culture?
5725b63f271a42140099d06a
Hellenistic
436
False
Where did the Roman Empire move to in 330 AD?
5725b63f271a42140099d06b
Constantinople
409
False
Scholars and historians are divided as to what event signals the end of the Hellenistic era. The Hellenistic period may be seen to end either with the final conquest of the Greek heartlands by Rome in 146 BC following the Achean War, with the final defeat of the Ptolemaic Kingdom at the Battle of Actium in 31 BC, or even the move by Roman emperor Constantine the Great of the capital of the Roman Empire to Constantinople in 330 AD. "Hellenistic" is distinguished from "Hellenic" in that the first encompasses the entire sphere of direct ancient Greek influence, while the latter refers to Greece itself.
Who wrote Geschichte des Hellenismus?
5725b74c271a42140099d087
J. G. Droysen
272
False
What does Geschichte des Hellenismus mean?
5725b74c271a42140099d088
History of Hellenism
368
False
Who wrote Culture and Anarchy?
5725b74c271a42140099d089
Matthew Arnold
686
False
What century did Hellenistic become a concept?
5725b74c271a42140099d08a
19th
37
False
In Culture and Anarchy, Hebraism is contrasted with what?
5725b74c271a42140099d08b
Hellenism
708
False
"Hellenistic" is a modern word and a 19th-century concept; the idea of a Hellenistic period did not exist in Ancient Greece. Although words related in form or meaning, e.g. Hellenist (Ancient Greek: Ἑλληνιστής, Hellēnistēs), have been attested since ancient times, it was J. G. Droysen in the mid-19th century, who in his classic work Geschichte des Hellenismus, i.e. History of Hellenism, coined the term Hellenistic to refer to and define the period when Greek culture spread in the non-Greek world after Alexander’s conquest. Following Droysen, Hellenistic and related terms, e.g. Hellenism, have been widely used in various contexts; a notable such use is in Culture and Anarchy by Matthew Arnold, where Hellenism is used in contrast with Hebraism.
How much of the conquered world was affected by Greek influences?
5725b899ec44d21400f3d45d
Some
156
False
How often did Greek population and natives mix?
5725b899ec44d21400f3d45e
not always
504
False
What term implies that Greek populations were a majority in the regions they settled?
5725b899ec44d21400f3d45f
Hellenistic
251
False
The major issue with the term Hellenistic lies in its convenience, as the spread of Greek culture was not the generalized phenomenon that the term implies. Some areas of the conquered world were more affected by Greek influences than others. The term Hellenistic also implies that the Greek populations were of majority in the areas in which they settled, while in many cases, the Greek settlers were actually the minority among the native populations. The Greek population and the native population did not always mix; the Greeks moved and brought their own culture, but interaction did not always occur.
What is the earliest, most credible source of the Hellenistic period?
5725b96289a1e219009abd76
Polybius
419
False
Where was Polybius from?
5725b96289a1e219009abd77
Megalopolis
431
False
Where was Polybius forced to go as hostage?
5725b96289a1e219009abd78
Rome
533
False
What years do Polybius books cover?
5725b96289a1e219009abd79
220 to 167 BCE
629
False
What League was Polybius a statesman?
5725b96289a1e219009abd7a
Achaean
476
False
While a few fragments exist, there is no surviving historical work which dates to the hundred years following Alexander's death. The works of the major Hellenistic historians Hieronymus of Cardia (who worked under Alexander, Antigonus I and other successors), Duris of Samos and Phylarchus which were used by surviving sources are all lost. The earliest and most credible surviving source for the Hellenistic period is Polybius of Megalopolis (c. 200-118), a statesman of the Achaean League until 168 BCE when he was forced to go to Rome as a hostage. His Histories eventually grew to a length of forty books, covering the years 220 to 167 BCE.
When did Diodorus Siculus write Bibliotheca historica?
5725ba4d89a1e219009abd86
60 and 30 BCE
105
False
What battle marks the end of Diodorus Siculus' work?
5725ba4d89a1e219009abd87
battle of Ipsus
248
False
Who wrote Parallel Lives?
5725ba4d89a1e219009abd88
Plutarch
297
False
Where was Apprian from?
5725ba4d89a1e219009abd89
Alexandria
473
False
Which writer outlined the history of important Hellenistic figures?
5725ba4d89a1e219009abd8a
Plutarch
297
False
The most important source after Polybius is Diodorus Siculus who wrote his Bibliotheca historica between 60 and 30 BCE and reproduced some important earlier sources such as Hieronymus, but his account of the Hellenistic period breaks off after the battle of Ipsus (301). Another important source, Plutarch's (c.50—c.120) Parallel Lives though more preoccupied with issues of personal character and morality, outlines the history of important Hellenistic figures. Appian of Alexandria (late first century CE-before 165 CE) wrote a history of the Roman empire that includes information of some Hellenistic kingdoms.
When was the Peloponnesian War?
5725bb0989a1e219009abd96
431–404 BC
127
False
What hegemoney replaced Sparta after the Battle of Leuctra?
5725bb0989a1e219009abd97
Theban
274
False
When was the Battle of Leuctra?
5725bb0989a1e219009abd98
371 BC
314
False
When was the Battle of Mantinea?
5725bb0989a1e219009abd99
362 BC
357
False
Which king lend the rise of Macedon?
5725bb0989a1e219009abd9a
Philip II
519
False
Ancient Greece had traditionally been a fractious collection of fiercely independent city-states. After the Peloponnesian War (431–404 BC), Greece had fallen under a Spartan hegemony, in which Sparta was pre-eminent but not all-powerful. Spartan hegemony was succeeded by a Theban one after the Battle of Leuctra (371 BC), but after the Battle of Mantinea (362 BC), all of Greece was so weakened that no one state could claim pre-eminence. It was against this backdrop, that the ascendancy of Macedon began, under king Philip II. Macedon was located at the periphery of the Greek world, and although its royal family claimed Greek descent, the Macedonians themselves were looked down upon as semi-barbaric by the rest of the Greeks. However, Macedon had a relatively strong and centralised government, and compared to most Greek states, directly controlled a large area.
When did King Philip the II annex Thessaly and Magnesia?
5725bbb1ec44d21400f3d48f
352 BC
110
False
Who annexed Thessaly and Magnesia?
5725bbb1ec44d21400f3d490
Philip II
0
False
When was the Battle of Chaeronea?
5725bbb1ec44d21400f3d491
338 BC
154
False
Who formed the League of Corinth?
5725bbb1ec44d21400f3d492
Philip
297
False
Who was Philip II planning a campaign against when he was assasinated?
5725bbb1ec44d21400f3d493
Achaemenid Empire of Persia
466
False
Philip II was a strong and expansionist king and he took every opportunity to expand Macedonian territory. In 352 BC he annexed Thessaly and Magnesia. In 338 BC, Philip defeated a combined Theban and Athenian army at the Battle of Chaeronea after a decade of desultory conflict. In the aftermath, Philip formed the League of Corinth, effectively bringing the majority of Greece under his direct sway. He was elected Hegemon of the league, and a campaign against the Achaemenid Empire of Persia was planned. However, while this campaign was in its early stages, he was assassinated.
Who was Philip Arrhidaues' half brother?
5725bcdc89a1e219009abdb6
Alexander
53
False
Who was the leading calvary commander?
5725bcdc89a1e219009abdb7
Perdiccas
104
False
Who order the death of Meleager?
5725bcdc89a1e219009abdb8
Perdiccas
562
False
What city was partitioned to the generals who supported Perdiccas?
5725bcdc89a1e219009abdb9
Babylon
727
False
Who documented that Perdiccas' was under suspicion?
5725bcdc89a1e219009abdba
Arrian
838
False
Meleager and the infantry supported the candidacy of Alexander's half-brother, Philip Arrhidaeus, while Perdiccas, the leading cavalry commander, supported waiting until the birth of Alexander's unborn child by Roxana. After the infantry stormed the palace of Babylon, a compromise was arranged – Arrhidaeus (as Philip III) should become king, and should rule jointly with Roxana's child, assuming that it was a boy (as it was, becoming Alexander IV). Perdiccas himself would become regent (epimeletes) of the empire, and Meleager his lieutenant. Soon, however, Perdiccas had Meleager and the other infantry leaders murdered, and assumed full control. The generals who had supported Perdiccas were rewarded in the partition of Babylon by becoming satraps of the various parts of the empire, but Perdiccas' position was shaky, because, as Arrian writes, "everyone was suspicious of him, and he of them".
Who did Diadochi plan to marry?
5725bd9f271a42140099d0ff
Cleopatra
92
False
Who was Alexander's sister?
5725bd9f271a42140099d100
Cleopatra
92
False
Who was the leader in Asia Minor?
5725bd9f271a42140099d101
Antigonus I Monophthalmus
124
False
Along with Antipater and Craterus, Antigonus I Monophthalmus invaded which region?
5725bd9f271a42140099d102
Anatolia
330
False
Peithon, Seleucus, and Antigenes murdered whom?
5725bd9f271a42140099d103
Perdiccas
511
False
The first of the Diadochi wars broke out when Perdiccas planned to marry Alexander's sister Cleopatra and began to question Antigonus I Monophthalmus' leadership in Asia Minor. Antigonus fled for Greece, and then, together with Antipater and Craterus (the satrap of Cilicia who had been in Greece fighting the Lamian war) invaded Anatolia. The rebels were supported by Lysimachus, the satrap of Thrace and Ptolemy, the satrap of Egypt. Although Eumenes, satrap of Cappadocia, defeated the rebels in Asia Minor, Perdiccas himself was murdered by his own generals Peithon, Seleucus, and Antigenes (possibly with Ptolemy's aid) during his invasion of Egypt (c. 21 May to 19 June, 320). Ptolemy came to terms with Perdiccas's murderers, making Peithon and Arrhidaeus regents in his place, but soon these came to a new agreement with Antipater at the Treaty of Triparadisus. Antipater was made regent of the Empire, and the two kings were moved to Macedon. Antigonus remained in charge of Asia minor, Ptolemy retained Egypt, Lysimachus retained Thrace and Seleucus I controlled Babylon.
When did Antipater die?
5725c00938643c19005acc55
319 BC
66
False
Who did Antipater declar as his successor?
5725c00938643c19005acc56
Polyperchon
134
False
When did Cassander invade Macedonia?
5725c00938643c19005acc57
317
303
False
Who ordered Eumenes' execution?
5725c00938643c19005acc58
Antigonus
542
False
Who sentenced Olympias to death?
5725c00938643c19005acc59
Cassander
308
False
The second Diadochi war began following the death of Antipater in 319 BC. Passing over his own son, Cassander, Antipater had declared Polyperchon his successor as Regent. Cassander rose in revolt against Polyperchon (who was joined by Eumenes) and was supported by Antigonus, Lysimachus and Ptolemy. In 317, Cassander invaded Macedonia, attaining control of Macedon, sentencing Olympias to death and capturing the boy king Alexander IV, and his mother. In Asia, Eumenes was betrayed by his own men after years of campaign and was given up to Antigonus who had him executed.
How many talents did Diadochi steal from Ectabana, Persepolis and Susa?
5725c0cfec44d21400f3d4cd
25,000
243
False
Who defeated Demetrius Poliorcetes?
5725c0cfec44d21400f3d4ce
Ptolemy
455
False
When was the Battle of Gaza?
5725c0cfec44d21400f3d4cf
312 BC
554
False
Who ordered the death of King Alexander IV?
5725c0cfec44d21400f3d4d0
Cassander
651
False
What year did the Argead Dynasty end?
5725c0cfec44d21400f3d4d1
310
646
False
The third war of the Diadochi broke out because of the growing power and ambition of Antigonus. He began removing and appointing satraps as if he were king and also raided the royal treasuries in Ectabana, Persepolis and Susa, making off with 25,000 talents. Seleucus was forced to flee to Egypt and Antigonus was soon at war with Ptolemy, Lysimachus, and Cassander. He then invaded Phoenicia, laid siege to Tyre, stormed Gaza and began building a fleet. Ptolemy invaded Syria and defeated Antigonus' son, Demetrius Poliorcetes, in the Battle of Gaza of 312 BC which allowed Seleucus to secure control of Babylonia, and the eastern satrapies. In 310, Cassander had young King Alexander IV and his mother Roxane murdered, ending the Argead Dynasty which had ruled Macedon for several centuries.
Which son did Antigonus send to regain control of Greece?
5725c1b9ec44d21400f3d4dd
Demetrius
28
False
When did Demetrius take control of Athens?
5725c1b9ec44d21400f3d4de
307
70
False
Who bestowed the title of king to Demetrius Poliorcetes?
5725c1b9ec44d21400f3d4df
Antigonus
338
False
What battle did Demetrius Poliorcetes defeat the fleet of Ptolemy?
5725c1b9ec44d21400f3d4e0
Battle of Salamis
256
False
What region was fought over in the Battle of Salamis?
5725c1b9ec44d21400f3d4e1
Cyprus
296
False
Antigonus then sent his son Demetrius to regain control of Greece. In 307 he took Athens, expelling Demetrius of Phaleron, Cassander's governor, and proclaiming the city free again. Demetrius now turned his attention to Ptolemy, defeating his fleet at the Battle of Salamis and taking control of Cyprus. In the aftermath of this victory, Antigonus took the title of king (basileus) and bestowed it on his son Demetrius Poliorcetes, the rest of the Diadochi soon followed suit. Demetrius continued his campaigns by laying siege to Rhodes and conquering most of Greece in 302, creating a league against Cassander's Macedon.
Who saved Lysimachus in Phrygia?
5725c25489a1e219009abe02
Seleucus
174
False
Who lost in the Battle of Ipsus?
5725c25489a1e219009abe03
Antigonus
238
False
When was the Battle of Ipsus?
5725c25489a1e219009abe04
301 BCE
274
False
After Antigonus was killed, what region did Seleucus take over?
5725c25489a1e219009abe05
Cilicia
523
False
After Antigonus was killed, what region did Ptolemy take over?
5725c25489a1e219009abe06
Cyprus
553
False
The decisive engagement of the war came when Lysimachus invaded and overran much of western Anatolia, but was soon isolated by Antigonus and Demetrius near Ipsus in Phrygia. Seleucus arrived in time to save Lysimachus and utterly crushed Antigonus at the Battle of Ipsus in 301 BCE. Seleucus' war elephants proved decisive, Antigonus was killed, and Demetrius fled back to Greece to attempt to preserve the remnants of his rule there by recapturing a rebellious Athens. Meanwhile, Lysimachus took over Ionia, Seleucus took Cilicia, and Ptolemy captured Cyprus.
When did Cassander die?
5725c33f38643c19005acc7b
298 BCE
27
False
When did Demetrius seize the Macedonian throne?
5725c33f38643c19005acc7c
294
156
False
Who captured Demetrius?
5725c33f38643c19005acc7d
Seleucus
808
False
What year was Seleucus killed?
5725c33f38643c19005acc7e
281 BCE
1017
False
At what battle was Seleucus killed ?
5725c33f38643c19005acc7f
Battle of Corupedium
1032
False
After Cassander's death in 298 BCE, however, Demetrius, who still maintained a sizable loyal army and fleet, invaded Macedon, seized the Macedonian throne (294) and conquered Thessaly and most of central Greece (293-291). He was defeated in 288 BC when Lysimachus of Thrace and Pyrrhus of Epirus invaded Macedon on two fronts, and quickly carved up the kingdom for themselves. Demetrius fled to central Greece with his mercenaries and began to build support there and in the northern Peloponnese. He once again laid siege to Athens after they turned on him, but then struck a treaty with the Athenians and Ptolemy, which allowed him to cross over to Asia minor and wage war on Lysimachus' holdings in Ionia, leaving his son Antigonus Gonatas in Greece. After initial successes, he was forced to surrender to Seleucus in 285 and later died in captivity. Lysimachus, who had seized Macedon and Thessaly for himself, was forced into war when Seleucus invaded his territories in Asia minor and was defeated and killed in 281 BCE at the Battle of Corupedium, near Sardis. Seleucus then attempted to conquer Lysimachus' European territories in Thrace and Macedon, but he was assassinated by Ptolemy Ceraunus ("the thunderbolt"), who had taken refuge at the Seleucid court and then had himself acclaimed as king of Macedon. Ptolemy was killed when Macedon was invaded by Gauls in 279, his head stuck on a spear and the country fell into anarchy. Antigonus II Gonatas invaded Thrace in the summer of 277 and defeated a large force of 18,000 Gauls. He was quickly hailed as king of Macedon and went on to rule for 35 years.
What was the capital of the Ptolemaic Egypt?
5725c50489a1e219009abe4a
Alexandria
158
False
What was the capital of Seleucid Syria?
5725c50489a1e219009abe4b
Antioch
173
False
Alexander and Antioch were centers of what culture?
5725c50489a1e219009abe4c
Hellenistic
133
False
What leaders conquests widened the horizons of the Greek world?
5725c50489a1e219009abe4d
Alexander
260
False
What particular demographic emigrated to the new Greek empires?
5725c50489a1e219009abe4e
young and ambitious
492
False
During the Hellenistic period the importance of Greece proper within the Greek-speaking world declined sharply. The great centers of Hellenistic culture were Alexandria and Antioch, capitals of Ptolemaic Egypt and Seleucid Syria respectively. The conquests of Alexander greatly widened the horizons of the Greek world, making the endless conflicts between the cities which had marked the 5th and 4th centuries BC seem petty and unimportant. It led to a steady emigration, particularly of the young and ambitious, to the new Greek empires in the east. Many Greeks migrated to Alexandria, Antioch and the many other new Hellenistic cities founded in Alexander's wake, as far away as modern Afghanistan and Pakistan.
When was the Lamian war?
5725c5dd89a1e219009abe68
323-322
296
False
When did Demetrius Poliorcetes capture Athens?
5725c5dd89a1e219009abe69
307
456
False
Who was Demetrius Poliorcetes' father?
5725c5dd89a1e219009abe6a
Antigonus
529
False
Athens allied with what region to eliminate Macedonian rule?
5725c5dd89a1e219009abe6b
Ptolemaic Egypt
651
False
When was the Chremonidean War?
5725c5dd89a1e219009abe6c
267-61
989
False
Independent city states were unable to compete with Hellenistic kingdoms and were usually forced to ally themselves to one of them for defense, giving honors to Hellenistic rulers in return for protection. One example is Athens, which had been decisively defeated by Antipater in the Lamian war (323-322) and had its port in the Piraeus garrisoned by Macedonian troops who supported a conservative oligarchy. After Demetrius Poliorcetes captured Athens in 307 and restored the democracy, the Athenians honored him and his father Antigonus by placing gold statues of them on the agora and granting them the title of king. Athens later allied itself to Ptolemaic Egypt to throw off Macedonian rule, eventually setting up a religious cult for the Ptolemaic kings and naming one of the city phyles in honor of Ptolemy for his aid against Macedon. In spite of the Ptolemaic monies and fleets backing their endeavors, Athens and Sparta were defeated by Antigonus II during the Chremonidean War (267-61). Athens was then occupied by Macedonian troops, and run by Macedonian officials.
What years did Cleomenes III rule?
5725c6e189a1e219009abe80
235–222 BCE
129
False
In 222 BCE, Sparta lost what Battle?
5725c6e189a1e219009abe81
Battle of Sellasia
419
False
Who was defeated at the Battle of Sellasia?
5725c6e189a1e219009abe82
Sparta
373
False
What was Sparta's afilliation in the Peloponnese?
5725c6e189a1e219009abe83
independent
16
False
Sparta remained independent, but it was no longer the leading military power in the Peloponnese. The Spartan king Cleomenes III (235–222 BCE) staged a military coup against the conservative ephors and pushed through radical social and land reforms in order to increase the size of the shrinking Spartan citizenry able to provide military service and restore Spartan power. Sparta's bid for supremacy was crushed at the Battle of Sellasia (222) by the Achaean league and Macedon, who restored the power of the ephors.
When was the Aetolian League formed?
5725c85738643c19005acce1
370 BCE
93
False
When was the Achaean League formed?
5725c85738643c19005acce2
280 BCE
128
False
Byzantium, Chalcedon, Heraclea Pontica and Tium formed what league?
5725c85738643c19005acce3
Northern League
164
False
What system delegates military and foreign affairs to the central government and local affairs to the city states?
5725c85738643c19005acce4
sympoliteia
454
False
What league freed Corinth?
5725c85738643c19005acce5
Achean
632
False
Other city states formed federated states in self-defense, such as the Aetolian League (est. 370 BCE), the Achaean League (est. 280 BCE), the Boeotian league, the "Northern League" (Byzantium, Chalcedon, Heraclea Pontica and Tium) and the "Nesiotic League" of the Cyclades. These federations involved a central government which controlled foreign policy and military affairs, while leaving most of the local governing to the city states, a system termed sympoliteia. In states such as the Achaean league, this also involved the admission of other ethnic groups into the federation with equal rights, in this case, non-Achaeans. The Achean league was able to drive out the Macedonians from the Peloponnese and free Corinth, which duly joined the league.
What did Rhodians build to commemorate their victory over Demetrius Poliorcetes?
5725c97d89a1e219009abea4
Colossus of Rhodes
575
False
What period did Rhodes prosper?
5725c97d89a1e219009abea5
Hellenistic
297
False
What military force helped Rhodes maintain their independence?
5725c97d89a1e219009abea6
navy
690
False
What years were Rhodes under attack by Demetrius Poliorcetes?
5725c97d89a1e219009abea7
304-305 BCE
538
False
One of the few city states who managed to maintain full independence from the control of any Hellenistic kingdom was Rhodes. With a skilled navy to protect its trade fleets from pirates and an ideal strategic position covering the routes from the east into the Aegean, Rhodes prospered during the Hellenistic period. It became a center of culture and commerce, its coins were widely circulated and its philosophical schools became one of the best in the mediterranean. After holding out for one year under siege by Demetrius Poliorcetes (304-305 BCE), the Rhodians built the Colossus of Rhodes to commemorate their victory. They retained their independence by the maintenance of a powerful navy, by maintaining a carefully neutral posture and acting to preserve the balance of power between the major Hellenistic kingdoms.
What war did Antigonus II fight Athenians?
5725cad4271a42140099d1d1
Chremonidean War
176
False
What mines decreased in production under the Antigonids?
5725cad4271a42140099d1d2
Pangaeum
313
False
How large was the Macedonian army under the Antigonids?
5725cad4271a42140099d1d3
25,000 men
732
False
Who taught Antigonus II?
5725cad4271a42140099d1d4
Zeno of Citium
27
False
Who did Antigonus II defend against?
5725cad4271a42140099d1d5
Epirus
92
False
Antigonus II, a student of Zeno of Citium, spent most of his rule defending Macedon against Epirus and cementing Macedonian power in Greece, first against the Athenians in the Chremonidean War, and then against the Achaean League of Aratus of Sicyon. Under the Antigonids, Macedonia was often short on funds, the Pangaeum mines were no longer as productive as under Philip II, the wealth from Alexander's campaigns had been used up and the countryside pillaged by the Gallic invasion. A large number of the Macedonian population had also been resettled abroad by Alexander or had chosen to emigrate to the new eastern Greek cities. Up to two thirds of the population emigrated, and the Macedonian army could only count on a levy of 25,000 men, a significantly smaller force than under Philip II.
When did Doson die?
5725cb5eec44d21400f3d5ab
221 BC
47
False
Who took control when Doson died?
5725cb5eec44d21400f3d5ac
Philip V
0
False
Which ruler had the last, best chance of uniting Greece?
5725cb5eec44d21400f3d5ad
Philip V
0
False
What was Philip V known as?
5725cb5eec44d21400f3d5ae
the darling of Hellas
264
False
When was the Peace of Naupactus?
5725cb5eec44d21400f3d5af
217 BC
331
False
Philip V, who came to power when Doson died in 221 BC, was the last Macedonian ruler with both the talent and the opportunity to unite Greece and preserve its independence against the "cloud rising in the west": the ever-increasing power of Rome. He was known as "the darling of Hellas". Under his auspices the Peace of Naupactus (217 BC) brought the latest war between Macedon and the Greek leagues (the social war 220-217) to an end, and at this time he controlled all of Greece except Athens, Rhodes and Pergamum.
When did Philip form and alliance with Hannibal of Carthage?
5725cc0e89a1e219009abee2
215 BC
3
False
When did the First Macedonian War begin?
5725cc0e89a1e219009abee3
212 BC
215
False
When did the First Macedonian War end?
5725cc0e89a1e219009abee4
205 BC
251
False
How did the First Macedonian War end?
5725cc0e89a1e219009abee5
inconclusively
233
False
Who defeated Philip?
5725cc0e89a1e219009abee6
Titus Quinctius Flamininus
548
False
In 215 BC Philip, with his eye on Illyria, formed an alliance with Rome's enemy Hannibal of Carthage, which led to Roman alliances with the Achaean League, Rhodes and Pergamum. The First Macedonian War broke out in 212 BC, and ended inconclusively in 205 BC. Philip continued to wage war against Pergamon and Rhodes for control of the Aegean (204-200 BCE) and ignored Roman demands for non-intervention in Greece by invading Attica. In 198 BC, during the Second Macedonian War Philip was decisively defeated at Cynoscephalae by the Roman proconsul Titus Quinctius Flamininus and Macedon lost all its territories in Greece proper. Greece was now thoroughly brought into the Roman sphere of influence, though it retained nominal autonomy. The end of Antigonid Macedon came when Philip V's son, Perseus, was defeated and captured by the Romans in the Third Macedonian War (171–168 BCE).
What years did Queen Teutra reign?
5725cd5838643c19005acd35
231 BC to 227 BCE
187
False
From where did Illyrians import there weapons and armor?
5725cd5838643c19005acd36
Ancient Greeks
587
False
What type or ornamentation was featured on the Illyrians shilds and war belts?
5725cd5838643c19005acd37
Ancient Macedon
700
False
What tribes inhabited the Balkan Coast?
5725cd5838643c19005acd38
Illyrian
47
False
What tribe covered most of the republic of Macedonia?
5725cd5838643c19005acd39
Agrianes
277
False
The west Balkan coast was inhabited by various Illyrian tribes and kingdoms such as the kingdom of the Dalmatae and of the Ardiaei, who often engaged in piracy under Queen Teuta (reigned 231 BC to 227 BCE). Further inland was the Illyrian Paeonian Kingdom and the tribe of the Agrianes which covers most of the modern republic of Macedonia. Illyrians on the coast of the Adriatic were under the effects and influence of Hellenisation and some tribes adopted Greek, becoming bilingual due to their proximity to the Greek colonies in Illyria. Illyrians imported weapons and armor from the Ancient Greeks (such as the Illyrian type helmet, originally a Greek type) and also adopted the ornamentation of Ancient Macedon on their shields and their war belts (a single one has been found, dated 3rd century BC at modern Selce e Poshtme part of Macedon at the time under Philip V of Macedon).
What region was the center of the Odrysian Kingdom?
5725ce2e271a42140099d209
Thrace
129
False
Who used Thracians and Agrianes as light cavalry?
5725ce2e271a42140099d20a
Alexander
367
False
What fraction of Alexander's army was made up of Thracians and Agrianes?
5725ce2e271a42140099d20b
one fifth
422
False
What language was spoken by the Odrysians?
5725ce2e271a42140099d20c
Greek
562
False
Which kings wre among the first to be Hellenized?
5725ce2e271a42140099d20d
Thracian
741
False
The Odrysian Kingdom was a union of Thracian tribes under the kings of the powerful Odrysian tribe centered around the region of Thrace. Various parts of Thrace were under Macedonian rule under Philip II of Macedon, Alexander the Great, Lysimachus, Ptolemy II, and Philip V but were also often ruled by their own kings. The Thracians and Agrianes were widely used by Alexander as peltasts and light cavalry, forming about one fifth of his army. The Diadochi also used Thracian mercenaries in their armies and they were also used as colonists. The Odrysians used Greek as the language of administration and of the nobility. The nobility also adopted Greek fashions in dress, ornament and military equipment, spreading it to the other tribes. Thracian kings were among the first to be Hellenized.
What was Southern Italy refered to as?
5725cf9089a1e219009abf14
Magna Graecia
16
False
Southern Italy and south-eastern Sicily were colonized by the Greeks in what century?
5725cf9089a1e219009abf15
8th
100
False
Who was the leading figure in Sicily during the Hellenistic period?
5725cf9089a1e219009abf16
Agathocles of Syracuse
247
False
In 310 Agathocles invaded Tunisia and defeated what army?
5725cf9089a1e219009abf17
Carthaginian
518
False
In defense of Tarentum, when did Agathocles attack Italy?
5725cf9089a1e219009abf18
300 BCE
784
False
Southern Italy (Magna Graecia) and south-eastern Sicily had been colonized by the Greeks during the 8th century. In 4th century Sicily the leading Greek city and hegemon was Syracuse. During the Hellenistic period the leading figure in Sicily was Agathocles of Syracuse (361 – 289 BCE) who seized the city with an army of mercenaries in 317 BCE. Agathocles extended his power throughout most of the Greek cities in Sicily, fought a long war with the Carthaginians, at one point invading Tunisia in 310 and defeating a Carthaginian army there. This was the first time a European force had invaded the region. After this war he controlled most of south-east Sicily and had himself proclaimed king, in imitation of the Hellenistic monarchs of the east. Agathocles then invaded Italy (c. 300 BCE) in defense of Tarentum against the Bruttians and Romans, but was unsuccessful.
What was the first Greek colony in the Mediterranean?
5725d04f89a1e219009abf30
Massalia
126
False
How many inhabitants were in Massalia?
5725d04f89a1e219009abf31
6,000
227
False
Who controlled Nice and Agde?
5725d04f89a1e219009abf32
Massalia
246
False
Massalia was the center of education according to whom?
5725d04f89a1e219009abf33
Strabo
874
False
When did Massalia side with Pompey?
5725d04f89a1e219009abf34
49 BCE
1045
False
Greeks in pre-Roman Gaul were mostly limited to the Mediterranean coast of Provence. The first Greek colony in the region was Massalia, which became one of the largest trading ports of Mediterranean by the 4th century BCE with 6,000 inhabitants. Massalia was also the local hegemon, controlling various coastal Greek cities like Nice and Agde. The coins minted in Massalia have been found in all parts of Ligurian-Celtic Gaul. Celtic coinage was influenced by Greek designs, and Greek letters can be found on various Celtic coins, especially those of Southern France. Traders from Massalia ventured inland deep into France on the Rivers Durance and Rhône, and established overland trade routes deep into Gaul, and to Switzerland and Burgundy. The Hellenistic period saw the Greek alphabet spread into southern Gaul from Massalia (3rd and 2nd centuries BCE) and according to Strabo, Massalia was also a center of education, where Celts went to learn Greek. A staunch ally of Rome, Massalia retained its independence until it sided with Pompey in 49 BCE and was then taken by Caesar's forces.
Who ran the Hellenistic states of Asia and Egypt?
5725d315271a42140099d25d
Greco-Macedonian administrators and governors
84
False
Where did Hellenistic monarchs put most of the tax revenues?
5725d315271a42140099d25e
military and paramilitary forces
416
False
Who handed out gifts in the promotion of Greek culture and religion?
5725d315271a42140099d25f
the monarch
779
False
What type of estates did Hellenistic monarchs run their kingdoms?
5725d315271a42140099d260
royal estates
353
False
Who were the small core in the Hellenistic states of Asia and Egypt?
5725d315271a42140099d261
Greco-Macedonian settlers
195
False
The Hellenistic states of Asia and Egypt were run by an occupying imperial elite of Greco-Macedonian administrators and governors propped up by a standing army of mercenaries and a small core of Greco-Macedonian settlers. Promotion of immigration from Greece was important in the establishment of this system. Hellenistic monarchs ran their kingdoms as royal estates and most of the heavy tax revenues went into the military and paramilitary forces which preserved their rule from any kind of revolution. Macedonian and Hellenistic monarchs were expected to lead their armies on the field, along with a group of privileged aristocratic companions or friends (hetairoi, philoi) which dined and drank with the king and acted as his advisory council. Another role that was expected the monarch fill was that of charitable patron of his people, this public philanthropy could mean building projects and handing out gifts but also promotion of Greek culture and religion.
Who was appointed satrap of Egypt after Alexander's death?
5725d3b8ec44d21400f3d651
Ptolemy
0
False
When did Alexander die and Ptolemy assume his position?
5725d3b8ec44d21400f3d652
323 BC
169
False
When did Ptolemy declare himself King Ptolemy I?
5725d3b8ec44d21400f3d653
305 BC
180
False
What nickname did Rhodians give Ptolemy?
5725d3b8ec44d21400f3d654
Soter
240
False
Where did Ptolemy settle his most of his veterans?
5725d3b8ec44d21400f3d655
Faiyum
469
False
Ptolemy, a somatophylax, one of the seven bodyguards who served as Alexander the Great's generals and deputies, was appointed satrap of Egypt after Alexander's death in 323 BC. In 305 BC, he declared himself King Ptolemy I, later known as "Soter" (saviour) for his role in helping the Rhodians during the siege of Rhodes. Ptolemy built new cities such as Ptolemais Hermiou in upper Egypt and settled his veterans throughout the country, especially in the region of the Faiyum. Alexandria, a major center of Greek culture and trade, became his capital city. As Egypt's first port city, it was the main grain exporter in the Mediterranean.
Whose tradition did Ptolemy take on as leader of Egypt?
5725d515ec44d21400f3d67d
Egyptian Pharaohs
206
False
What god did Ptolemy I create?
5725d515ec44d21400f3d67e
Serapis
587
False
Cyprus and Cyrene were run by whom?
5725d515ec44d21400f3d67f
strategoi
1132
False
By using a central government that taxes heavily, Ptolemy ran his country akin to which bureaucracy?
5725d515ec44d21400f3d680
Ancient Egyptian
725
False
Apis and Osiris combined to make which god?
5725d515ec44d21400f3d681
Serapis
587
False
The Egyptians begrudgingly accepted the Ptolemies as the successors to the pharaohs of independent Egypt, though the kingdom went through several native revolts. The Ptolemies took on the traditions of the Egyptian Pharaohs, such as marrying their siblings (Ptolemy II was the first to adopt this custom), having themselves portrayed on public monuments in Egyptian style and dress, and participating in Egyptian religious life. The Ptolemaic ruler cult portrayed the Ptolemies as gods, and temples to the Ptolemies were erected throughout the kingdom. Ptolemy I even created a new god, Serapis, who was combination of two Egyptian gods: Apis and Osiris, with attributes of Greek gods. Ptolemaic administration was, like the Ancient Egyptian bureaucracy, highly centralized and focused on squeezing as much revenue out of the population as possible though tariffs, excise duties, fines, taxes and so forth. A whole class of petty officials, tax farmers, clerks and overseers made this possible. The Egyptian countryside was directly administered by this royal bureaucracy. External possessions such as Cyprus and Cyrene were run by strategoi, military commanders appointed by the crown.
The Syrian was were fought between Ptolemy II and whom?
5725d5a938643c19005acdc9
the Seleucids
333
False
What region was fought for during the Syrian wars?
5725d5a938643c19005acdca
Coele-Syria
393
False
Who won the great battle of Raphia?
5725d5a938643c19005acdcb
Ptolemy IV
406
False
When was the great battle of Raphia?
5725d5a938643c19005acdcc
217 BCE
449
False
Who did Ptolemy IV defeat in the great battle of Raphia?
5725d5a938643c19005acdcd
Seleucids
470
False
Under Ptolemy II, Callimachus, Apollonius of Rhodes, Theocritus and a host of other poets made the city a center of Hellenistic literature. Ptolemy himself was eager to patronise the library, scientific research and individual scholars who lived on the grounds of the library. He and his successors also fought a series of wars with the Seleucids, known as the Syrian wars, over the region of Coele-Syria. Ptolemy IV won the great battle of Raphia (217 BCE) against the Seleucids, using native Egyptians trained as phalangites. However these Egyptian soldiers revolted, eventually setting up a native breakaway Egyptian state in the Thebaid between 205-186/5 BCE, severely weakening the Ptolemaic state.
Till what year did Ptolemy's family rule Egypt?
5725d643271a42140099d285
30 BC
57
False
All the male rulers of Egypt took what name during the Ptolemy dynasty?
5725d643271a42140099d286
Ptolemy
113
False
Cleopatra, Arsinoe or Berenice were common names for whom?
5725d643271a42140099d287
Ptolemaic queens
122
False
Who was the last and most famous queen of the Ptolemy dynasty?
5725d643271a42140099d288
Cleopatra VII
296
False
How did Cleoptra die?
5725d643271a42140099d289
suicide
443
False
Ptolemy's family ruled Egypt until the Roman conquest of 30 BC. All the male rulers of the dynasty took the name Ptolemy. Ptolemaic queens, some of whom were the sisters of their husbands, were usually called Cleopatra, Arsinoe or Berenice. The most famous member of the line was the last queen, Cleopatra VII, known for her role in the Roman political battles between Julius Caesar and Pompey, and later between Octavian and Mark Antony. Her suicide at the conquest by Rome marked the end of Ptolemaic rule in Egypt though Hellenistic culture continued to thrive in Egypt throughout the Roman and Byzantine periods until the Muslim conquest.
After Alexander's empire was split, what region did Seleucus I Nicator receive?
5725d76e38643c19005acdef
Babylonia
70
False
Pergamum was led by whom when they defeated a Seleucid army?
5725d76e38643c19005acdf0
Eumenes I
546
False
Who defied his father Seleucus I, and set up a religous cult?
5725d76e38643c19005acdf1
Antiochus I
726
False
What was the name of Seleucus II brother, whom he fought in civil war?
5725d76e38643c19005acdf2
Antiochus Hierax
1029
False
Who ultimately defeated Seleucid Anatolia?
5725d76e38643c19005acdf3
Attalus I
1229
False
Following division of Alexander's empire, Seleucus I Nicator received Babylonia. From there, he created a new empire which expanded to include much of Alexander's near eastern territories. At the height of its power, it included central Anatolia, the Levant, Mesopotamia, Persia, today's Turkmenistan, Pamir, and parts of Pakistan. It included a diverse population estimated at fifty to sixty million people. Under Antiochus I (c. 324/3 – 261 BC), however, the unwieldy empire was already beginning to shed territories. Pergamum broke away under Eumenes I who defeated a Seleucid army sent against him. The kingdoms of Cappadocia, Bithynia and Pontus were all practically independent by this time as well. Like the Ptolemies, Antiochus I established a dynastic religious cult, deifying his father Seleucus I. Seleucus, officially said to be descended from Apollo, had his own priests and monthly sacrifices. The erosion of the empire continued under Seleucus II, who was forced to fight a civil war (239-236) against his brother Antiochus Hierax and was unable to keep Bactria, Sogdiana and Parthia from breaking away. Hierax carved off most of Seleucid Anatolia for himself, but was defeated, along with his Galatian allies, by Attalus I of Pergamon who now also claimed kingship.
The Seleucid Empire was mostly dominated by whom?
5725d86eec44d21400f3d691
Greco-Macedonian political elite
64
False
What are Seleucid garrisons called?
5725d86eec44d21400f3d692
choria
658
False
What are Seleucid military colonies called?
5725d86eec44d21400f3d693
katoikiai
686
False
Who defeated Antiochus III at Raphia?
5725d86eec44d21400f3d694
Ptolemy IV
1230
False
What year did Ptolemy IV die?
5725d86eec44d21400f3d695
204
1600
False
The vast Seleucid Empire was, like Egypt, mostly dominated by a Greco-Macedonian political elite. The Greek population of the cities who formed the dominant elite were reinforced by emigration from Greece. These cities included newly founded colonies such as Antioch, the other cities of the Syrian tetrapolis, Seleucia (north of Babylon) and Dura-Europos on the Euphrates. These cities retained traditional Greek city state institutions such as assemblies, councils and elected magistrates, but this was a facade for they were always controlled by the royal Seleucid officials. Apart from these cities, there were also a large number of Seleucid garrisons (choria), military colonies (katoikiai) and Greek villages (komai) which the Seleucids planted throughout the empire to cement their rule. This 'Greco-Macedonian' population (which also included the sons of settlers who had married local women) could make up a phalanx of 35,000 men (out of a total Seleucid army of 80,000) during the reign of Antiochos III. The rest of the army was made up of native troops. Antiochus III the great conducted several vigorous campaigns to retake all the lost provinces of the empire since the death of Seleucus I. After being defeated by Ptolemy IV's forces at Raphia (217), Antiochus III led a long campaign to the east to subdue the far eastern breakaway provinces (212-205) including Bactria, Parthia, Ariana, Sogdiana, Gedrosia and Drangiana. He was successful, bringing back most of these provinces into at least nominal vassalage and receiving tribute from their rulers. After the death of Ptolemy IV (204), Antiochus took advantage of the weakness of Egypt to conquer Coele-Syria in the fifth Syrian war (202-195). He then began expanding his influence into Pergamene territory in Asia and crossed into Europe, fortifying Lysimachia on the hellespont, but his expansion into Anatolia and Greece was abruptly halted after a decisive defeat at the Battle of Magnesia (190 BCE). In the Treaty of Apamea which ended the war, Antiochus lost all of his territories in Anatolia west of the Taurus and was forced to pay a large indemnity of 15,000 talents.
Which officer took control of Pergamum in 282 BC?
5725d957271a42140099d299
Philetaerus
52
False
Who did Philetaerus declare himself loyal to?
5725d957271a42140099d29a
Seleucus I
192
False
Attalus I was a strong ally of Rome and which ruler?
5725d957271a42140099d29b
Philip V of Macedon
402
False
Where was the library of Pergamum located?
5725d957271a42140099d29c
Pergamon
611
False
What depicts the Gigantomachy on the acropolis of the city?
5725d957271a42140099d29d
Pergamum Altar
893
False
After the death of Lysimachus, one of his officers, Philetaerus, took control of the city of Pergamum in 282 BC along with Lysimachus' war chest of 9,000 talents and declared himself loyal to Seleucus I while remaining de facto independent. His descendant, Attalus I, defeated the invading Galatians and proclaimed himself an independent king. Attalus I (241–197BC), was a staunch ally of Rome against Philip V of Macedon during the first and second Macedonian Wars. For his support against the Seleucids in 190 BCE, Eumenes II was rewarded with all the former Seleucid domains in Asia Minor. Eumenes II turned Pergamon into a centre of culture and science by establishing the library of Pergamum which was said to be second only to the library of Alexandria with 200,000 volumes according to Plutarch. It included a reading room and a collection of paintings. Eumenes II also constructed the Pergamum Altar with friezes depicting the Gigantomachy on the acropolis of the city. Pergamum was also a center of parchment (charta pergamena) production. The Attalids ruled Pergamon until Attalus III bequeathed the kingdom to the Roman Republic in 133 BC to avoid a likely succession crisis.
Where did the Celts who settled in Galatia pass through?
5725da9f89a1e219009abfbe
Thrace
46
False
What battle did the Celts lose to Seleucus I?
5725da9f89a1e219009abfbf
battle of the Elephants
157
False
What famous statue signified the victory of the Greeks over a worthy enemy?
5725da9f89a1e219009abfc0
Dying Gaul
742
False
What century did the Galatians become allies of Antiochus the Great?
5725da9f89a1e219009abfc1
2nd century BC
919
False
Who sent Gnaeus Manlius Vulso on an expedition against the Galatians?
5725da9f89a1e219009abfc2
Rome
1066
False
The Celts who settled in Galatia came through Thrace under the leadership of Leotarios and Leonnorios circa 270 BC. They were defeated by Seleucus I in the 'battle of the Elephants', but were still able to establish a Celtic territory in central Anatolia. The Galatians were well respected as warriors and were widely used as mercenaries in the armies of the successor states. They continued to attack neighboring kingdoms such as Bithynia and Pergamon, plundering and extracting tribute. This came to an end when they sided with the renegade Seleucid prince Antiochus Hierax who tried to defeat Attalus, the ruler of Pergamon (241–197 BC). Attalus severely defeated the Gauls, forcing them to confine themselves to Galatia. The theme of the Dying Gaul (a famous statue displayed in Pergamon) remained a favorite in Hellenistic art for a generation signifying the victory of the Greeks over a noble enemy. In the early 2nd century BC, the Galatians became allies of Antiochus the Great, the last Seleucid king trying to regain suzerainty over Asia Minor. In 189 BC, Rome sent Gnaeus Manlius Vulso on an expedition against the Galatians. Galatia was henceforth dominated by Rome through regional rulers from 189 BC onward.
Who were a Thracian people living in northwest Anatolia?
5725dbd4ec44d21400f3d6cf
The Bithynians
0
False
King Bas defeated which general of Alexander?
5725dbd4ec44d21400f3d6d0
Calas
176
False
Who assumed the title of king from Bas?
5725dbd4ec44d21400f3d6d1
Zipoetes I
271
False
When did Zipoetes I assume the role of king?
5725dbd4ec44d21400f3d6d2
297 BCE
398
False
Who founded Nicomedia?
5725dbd4ec44d21400f3d6d3
Nicomedes I
430
False
The Bithynians were a Thracian people living in northwest Anatolia. After Alexander's conquests the region of Bithynia came under the rule of the native king Bas, who defeated Calas, a general of Alexander the Great, and maintained the independence of Bithynia. His son, Zipoetes I of Bithynia maintained this autonomy against Lysimachus and Seleucus I, and assumed the title of king (basileus) in 297 BCE. His son and successor, Nicomedes I, founded Nicomedia, which soon rose to great prosperity, and during his long reign (c. 278 – c. 255 BCE), as well as those of his successors, the kingdom of Bithynia held a considerable place among the minor monarchies of Anatolia. Nicomedes also invited the Celtic Galatians into Anatolia as mercenaries, and they later turned on his son Prusias I, who defeated them in battle. Their last king, Nicomedes IV, was unable to maintain himself against Mithridates VI of Pontus, and, after being restored to his throne by the Roman Senate, he bequeathed his kingdom by will to the Roman republic (74 BCE).
Who married Stratonice?
5725dc6aec44d21400f3d6d9
Ariarathes III
13
False
When did Stratonice marry Ariarathes III?
5725dc6aec44d21400f3d6da
255 B.C.
3
False
Who was Stratonice's father?
5725dc6aec44d21400f3d6db
Antiochus II
89
False
Cappadocia began it's realtionship with Rome under whom?
5725dc6aec44d21400f3d6dc
Ariarathes IV
152
False
What year was Ariarathes V defeated?
5725dc6aec44d21400f3d6dd
130 BCE
489
False
In 255 B.C., Ariarathes III took the title of king and married Stratonice, a daughter of Antiochus II, remaining an ally of the Seleucid kingdom. Under Ariarathes IV, Cappadocia came into relations with Rome, first as a foe espousing the cause of Antiochus the Great, then as an ally against Perseus of Macedon and finally in a war against the Seleucids. Ariarathes V also waged war with Rome against Aristonicus, a claimant to the throne of Pergamon, and their forces were annihilated in 130 BCE. This defeat allowed Pontus to invade and conquer the kingdom.
What kingdom was Hellenistic and on the southern coast of the Black Sea?
5725dd34271a42140099d2bb
Pontus
15
False
Who founded the Kingdom of Pontus?
5725dd34271a42140099d2bc
Mithridates I
106
False
When was the Kingdom of Pontus founded?
5725dd34271a42140099d2bd
291 BC
123
False
When was the Kingdom of Pontus taken over by the Roman Republic?
5725dd34271a42140099d2be
63 BC
185
False
What was the official language of the Kingdom of Pontus during the reign of Mithridates VI Eupator?
5725dd34271a42140099d2bf
Greek
824
False
The Kingdom of Pontus was a Hellenistic kingdom on the southern coast of the Black Sea. It was founded by Mithridates I in 291 BC and lasted until its conquest by the Roman Republic in 63 BC. Despite being ruled by a dynasty which was a descendant of the Persian Achaemenid Empire it became hellenized due to the influence of the Greek cities on the Black Sea and its neighboring kingdoms. Pontic culture was a mix of Greek and Iranian elements, the most hellenized parts of the kingdom were on the coast, populated by Greek colonies such as Trapezus and Sinope, which became the capital of the kingdom. Epigraphic evidence also shows extensive Hellenistic influence in the interior. During the reign of Mithridates II, Pontus was allied with the Seleucids through dynastic marriages. By the time of Mithridates VI Eupator, Greek was the official language of the kingdom though Anatolian languages continued to be spoken.
Who ruled when the Kingdom of Pontus' was at it's biggest?
5725de2a38643c19005ace0b
Mithridates VI
45
False
Who called themselves King Mithridates Eupator Dionysus?
5725de2a38643c19005ace0c
Mithridates VI
251
False
What hairstyle did Mithridates IV copy from Alexander?
5725de2a38643c19005ace0d
anastole
523
False
Who did the Macedoniankings claim Mithridates IV descended from?
5725de2a38643c19005ace0e
Herakles
581
False
Pontus was defeated in what wars?
5725de2a38643c19005ace0f
Mithridatic
677
False
The kingdom grew to its largest extent under Mithridates VI, who conquered Colchis, Cappadocia, Paphlagonia, Bithynia, Lesser Armenia, the Bosporan Kingdom, the Greek colonies of the Tauric Chersonesos and for a brief time the Roman province of Asia. Mithridates VI, himself of mixed Persian and Greek ancestry, presented himself as the protector of the Greeks against the 'barbarians' of Rome styling himself as "King Mithridates Eupator Dionysus." and as the "great liberator". Mithridates also depicted himself with the anastole hairstyle of Alexander and used the symbolism of Herakles whom the Macedonian kings claimed descend from. After a long struggle with Rome in the Mithridatic wars, Pontus was defeated, part of it was incorporated into the Roman Republic as the province Bithynia and Pontus and the eastern half survived as a client kingdom.
Orontid Armenia was given to Alexander the Great after he took control of what area?
5725df1cec44d21400f3d701
Persia
91
False
Who did Alexander apoint to govern Armenia?
5725df1cec44d21400f3d702
Mithranes
136
False
Armenia became a vassal state of what Empire?
5725df1cec44d21400f3d703
Seleucid
208
False
What year did Armenia split into Greater Armenia and Armenia Sophene?
5725df1cec44d21400f3d704
212 BC
323
False
Who attacked Armenia when they became too distant from Seleucid rule?
5725df1cec44d21400f3d705
Antiochus III the Great
509
False
Orontid Armenia formally passed to empire of Alexander the Great following his conquest of Persia. Alexander appointed an Orontid named Mithranes to govern Armenia. Armenia later became a vassal state of the Seleucid Empire, but it maintained a considerable degree of autonomy, retaining its native rulers. Towards the end 212 BC the country was divided into two kingdoms, Greater Armenia and Armenia Sophene including Commagene or Armenia Minor. The kingdoms became so independent from Seleucid control that Antiochus III the Great waged war on them during his reign and replaced their rulers.
When did the Seleucid defeat the Battle of Magnesia?
5725e29c271a42140099d2e1
190 BC
55
False
Who was the first king of Artaxiad dynasty of Armenia?
5725e29c271a42140099d2e2
Artaxias
151
False
Artaxian coins called some Armenian kings what?
5725e29c271a42140099d2e3
Philhellenes
436
False
What years did Tigranes the Great reign?
5725e29c271a42140099d2e4
95–55 BC
491
False
Which Tigranes successor composed Greek tragedies?
5725e29c271a42140099d2e5
Artavasdes II
980
False
After the Seleucid defeat at the Battle of Magnesia in 190 BC, the kings of Sophene and Greater Armenia revolted and declared their independence, with Artaxias becoming the first king of the Artaxiad dynasty of Armenia in 188. During the reign of the Artaxiads, Armenia went through a period of hellenization. Numismatic evidence shows Greek artistic styles and the use of the Greek language. Some coins describe the Armenian kings as "Philhellenes". During the reign of Tigranes the Great (95–55 BC), the kingdom of Armenia reached its greatest extent, containing many Greek cities including the entire Syrian tetrapolis. Cleopatra, the wife of Tigranes the Great, invited Greeks such as the rhetor Amphicrates and the historian Metrodorus of Scepsis to the Armenian court, and - according to Plutarch - when the Roman general Lucullus seized the Armenian capital Tigranocerta, he found a troupe of Greek actors who had arrived to perform plays for Tigranes. Tigranes' successor Artavasdes II even composed Greek tragedies himself.
When did Andragoras proclaim his independence?
5725e38bec44d21400f3d70b
247 BC
221
False
When did Andragoras' reign end?
5725e38bec44d21400f3d70c
238 BCE
447
False
Who killed Andragoras?
5725e38bec44d21400f3d70d
Arsaces
460
False
What tribe was Arsaces the leader of?
5725e38bec44d21400f3d70e
Parni
487
False
When did Antiochus III regain territory from Arsaces II?
5725e38bec44d21400f3d70f
209 BC
632
False
Parthia was a north-eastern Iranian satrapy of the Achaemenid empire which later passed on to Alexander's empire. Under the Seleucids, Parthia was governed by various Greek satraps such as Nicanor and Philip (satrap). In 247 BC, following the death of Antiochus II Theos, Andragoras, the Seleucid governor of Parthia, proclaimed his independence and began minting coins showing himself wearing a royal diadem and claiming kingship. He ruled until 238 BCE when Arsaces, the leader of the Parni tribe conquered Parthia, killing Andragoras and inaugurating the Arsacid Dynasty. Antiochus III recaptured Arsacid controlled territory in 209 BC from Arsaces II. Arsaces II sued for peace became a vassal of the Seleucids and it was not until the reign of Phraates I (168–165 BCE), that the Arsacids would again begin to assert their independence.
The Seleucids invaded Mesopotamia under whose guidance?
5725e48589a1e219009ac05a
Antiochus VII Sidetes
286
False
Who was Antiochus VII Sidetes killed by which army?
5725e48589a1e219009ac05b
Parthian
359
False
What years were the Roman–Parthian Wars?
5725e48589a1e219009ac05c
66 BC – 217 AD
509
False
What was the currency in the Parthian Empire?
5725e48589a1e219009ac05d
Greek drachmas
728
False
The Parthian Empire worshipped Greek Gods and what other cultures deities?
5725e48589a1e219009ac05e
Iranian
893
False
During the reign of Mithridates I of Parthia, Arsacid control expanded to include Herat (in 167 BC), Babylonia (in 144 BC), Media (in 141 BC), Persia (in 139 BC), and large parts of Syria (in the 110s BC). The Seleucid–Parthian wars continued as the Seleucids invaded Mesopotamia under Antiochus VII Sidetes (r. 138–129 BC), but he was eventually killed by a Parthian counterattack. After the fall of the Seleucid dynasty, the Parthians fought frequently against neighbouring Rome in the Roman–Parthian Wars (66 BC – 217 AD). Abundant traces of Hellenism continued under the Parthian empire. The Parthians used Greek as well as their own Parthian language (though lesser than Greek) as languages of administration and also used Greek drachmas as coinage. They enjoyed Greek theater and Greek art influenced Parthian art. The Parthians continued worhipping Greek gods syncretized together with Iranian deities. Their rulers established ruler cults in the manner of Hellenistic kings and often used Hellenistic royal epithets.
What Arab State lied between the Sinai Peninsula and the Arabian Peninsula?
5725e54e271a42140099d2eb
Nabatean Kingdom
4
False
What was the capital of the Nabatean Kingdom?
5725e54e271a42140099d2ec
Petra
130
False
Who allied with the Nabatean Kingdom to fight against the Seleucids?
5725e54e271a42140099d2ed
Hasmoneans
257
False
Under whose reign did Nabatean culture begin to show Greek influence?
5725e54e271a42140099d2ee
Aretas III Philhellene
531
False
What century did Aretas III Philhellene reign?
5725e54e271a42140099d2ef
1st
561
False
The Nabatean Kingdom was an Arab state located between the Sinai Peninsula and the Arabian Peninsula. Its capital was the city of Petra, an important trading city on the incense route. The Nabateans resisted the attacks of Antigonous and were allies of the Hasmoneans in their struggle against the Seleucids, but later fought against Herod the great. The hellenization of the Nabateans accured relatively late in comparison to the surrounding regions. Nabatean material culture does not show any Greek influence until the reign of Aretas III Philhellene in the 1st century BCE. Aretas captured Damascus and built the Petra pool complex and gardens in the Hellenistic style. Though the Nabateans originally worshipped their traditional gods in symbolic form such as stone blocks or pillars, during the Hellenistic period they began to identify their gods with Greek gods and depict them in figurative forms influenced by Greek sculpture. Nabatean art shows Greek influences and paintings have been found depicting Dionysian scenes. They also slowly adopted Greek as a language of commerce along with Aramaic and Arabic.
What are was in between the Seleucid Empire and Ptolemaic Egypt during Hellenistic times?
5725e72a271a42140099d2f5
Judea
31
False
Judea was ruled by whom during the Hellenistic period?
5725e72a271a42140099d2f6
High Priest of Israel
301
False
What religion rose in Judea durring the Hellenistic period?
5725e72a271a42140099d2f7
Judaism
395
False
Hellenistic Judaism was developed in Alexandria and what other region?
5725e72a271a42140099d2f8
Antioch
467
False
During the Hellenistic period, Judea became a frontier region between the Seleucid Empire and Ptolemaic Egypt and therefore was often the frontline of the Syrian wars, changing hands several times during these conflicts. Under the Hellenistic kingdoms, Judea was ruled by the hereditary office of the High Priest of Israel as a Hellenistic vassal. This period also saw the rise of a Hellenistic Judaism, which first developed in the Jewish diaspora of Alexandria and Antioch, and then spread to Judea. The major literary product of this cultural syncretism is the Septuagint translation of the Hebrew Bible from Biblical Hebrew and Biblical Aramaic to Koiné Greek. The reason for the production of this translation seems to be that many of the Alexandrian Jews had lost the ability to speak Hebrew and Aramaic.
What was the Jewish elite class called?
5725e86d89a1e219009ac07c
the Tobiads
214
False
Judea was brought into the Seleucid empire by which leader?
5725e86d89a1e219009ac07d
Antiochus III
240
False
When did Jerusalem fall to Antiochus III?
5725e86d89a1e219009ac07e
198
332
False
What victorious uprising is celebrated in the Jewish festival Hanukkah?
5725e86d89a1e219009ac07f
Maccabean Revolt of Judas Maccabeus
864
False
What years were the Maccabean Revolt of Judas Maccabeus?
5725e86d89a1e219009ac080
174–135 BCE
852
False
Between 301 and 219 BCE the Ptolemies ruled Judea in relative peace, and Jews often found themselves working in the Ptolemaic administration and army, which led to the rise of a Hellenized Jewish elite class (e.g. the Tobiads). The wars of Antiochus III brought the region into the Seleucid empire; Jerusalem fell to his control in 198 and the Temple was repaired and provided with money and tribute. Antiochus IV Epiphanes sacked Jerusalem and looted the Temple in 169 BCE after disturbances in Judea during his abortive invasion of Egypt. Antiochus then banned key Jewish religious rites and traditions in Judea. He may have been attempting to Hellenize the region and unify his empire and the Jewish resistance to this eventually led to an escalation of violence. Whatever the case, tensions between pro and anti-Seleucid Jewish factions led to the 174–135 BCE Maccabean Revolt of Judas Maccabeus (whose victory is celebrated in the Jewish festival of Hanukkah).
What independent kingdom was formed out of the Maccabean Revolt of Judas Maccabeus?
5725e93b38643c19005ace6b
Hasmonaean Dynasty
177
False
What years did the Hasmonaean Dynasty exist?
5725e93b38643c19005ace6c
165 BCE to 63 BCE
215
False
Who was the last Hasmonean ruler?
5725e93b38643c19005ace6d
Antigonus II Mattathias
364
False
Who was Antigonus II Mattathias captured by?
5725e93b38643c19005ace6e
Herod
405
False
When was Antigonus II Mattathias executed?
5725e93b38643c19005ace6f
37 BCE
427
False
Modern interpretations see this period as a civil war between Hellenized and orthodox forms of Judaism. Out of this revolt was formed an independent Jewish kingdom known as the Hasmonaean Dynasty, which lasted from 165 BCE to 63 BCE. The Hasmonean Dynasty eventually disintegrated in a civil war, which coincided with civil wars in Rome. The last Hasmonean ruler, Antigonus II Mattathias, was captured by Herod and executed in 37 BCE. In spite of originally being a revolt against Greek overlordship, the Hasmonean kingdom and also the Herodian kingdom which followed gradually became more and more hellenized. From 37 BCE to 6 CE, the Herodian dynasty, Jewish-Roman client kings, ruled Judea. Herod the Great considerably enlarged the Temple (see Herod's Temple), making it one of the largest religious structures in the world. The style of the enlarged temple and other Herodian architecture shows significant Hellenistic architectural influence.
Bactria was led by what king from 255-246 BCE?
5725ea4038643c19005ace75
Diodotus
277
False
When was Diodotus II overthrown?
5725ea4038643c19005ace76
230 BC
409
False
What leader overthrew Diodotus II?
5725ea4038643c19005ace77
Euthydemus
419
False
The Greco-Bactrian kingdom was invaded by what Seleucid leader?
5725ea4038643c19005ace78
Antiochus III
588
False
Antiochus III married his daughter off to whose son?
5725ea4038643c19005ace79
Euthydemus
815
False
The Greek kingdom of Bactria began as a breakaway satrapy of the Seleucid empire, which, because of the size of the empire, had significant freedom from central control. Between 255-246 BCE, the governor of Bactria, Sogdiana and Margiana (most of present-day Afghanistan), one Diodotus, took this process to its logical extreme and declared himself king. Diodotus II, son of Diodotus, was overthrown in about 230 BC by Euthydemus, possibly the satrap of Sogdiana, who then started his own dynasty. In c. 210 BC, the Greco-Bactrian kingdom was invaded by a resurgent Seleucid empire under Antiochus III. While victorious in the field, it seems Antiochus came to realise that there were advantages in the status quo (perhaps sensing that Bactria could not be governed from Syria), and married one of his daughters to Euthydemus's son, thus legitimising the Greco-Bactria dynasty. Soon afterwards the Greco-Bactrian kingdom seems to have expanded, possibly taking advantage of the defeat of the Parthian king Arsaces II by Antiochus.
Who stated that the Greco-Bactrians had connections through the silk road?
5725ebb089a1e219009ac0a6
Strabo
13
False
When did Demetrius, son of Euthydemus invade north-western India?
5725ebb089a1e219009ac0a7
180 BC
343
False
Whose death signifies the beginning of confusing documentation of Greco-Bactrian history?
5725ebb089a1e219009ac0a8
Demetrius
684
False
Who was the last Greek to clearly rule Bactria?
5725ebb089a1e219009ac0a9
Heliocles
967
False
According to Strabo, the Greco-Bactrians seem to have had contacts with China through the silk road trade routes (Strabo, XI.XI.I). Indian sources also maintain religious contact between Buddhist monks and the Greeks, and some Greco-Bactrians did convert to Buddhism. Demetrius, son and successor of Euthydemus, invaded north-western India in 180 BC, after the destruction of the Mauryan empire there; the Mauryans were probably allies of the Bactrians (and Seleucids). The exact justification for the invasion remains unclear, but by about 175 BC, the Greeks ruled over parts of north-western India. This period also marks the beginning of the obfuscation of Greco-Bactrian history. Demetrius possibly died about 180 BC; numismatic evidence suggest the existence of several other kings shortly thereafter. It is probable that at this point that the Greco-Bactrian kingdom split into several semi-independent regions for some years, often warring amongst themselves. Heliocles was the last Greek to clearly rule Bactria, his power collapsing in the face of central Asian tribal invasions (Scythian and Yuezhi), by about 130 BCE. However, Greek urban civilisation seems to have continued in Bactria after the fall of the kingdom, having a hellenising effect on the tribes which had displaced Greek-rule. The Kushan empire which followed continued to use Greek on their coinage and Greeks continued being influential in the empire.
Who was the first Indo-Greek king who did not rule from Bactria?
5725ecc8ec44d21400f3d75b
Apollodotus I
75
False
Who succeeded or ruled alongside Apollodotus I?
5725ecc8ec44d21400f3d75c
Antimachus II
379
False
Who succeeded Antimachus II?
5725ecc8ec44d21400f3d75d
Menander I
549
False
What religion did Menander I convert to?
5725ecc8ec44d21400f3d75e
Buddhism
583
False
What was Menander I refered to by in Buddhist texts?
5725ecc8ec44d21400f3d75f
Milinda
692
False
After Demetrius' death, civil wars between Bactrian kings in India allowed Apollodotus I (from c. 180/175 BCE) to make himself independent as the first proper Indo-Greek king (who did not rule from Bactria). Large numbers of his coins have been found in India, and he seems to have reigned in Gandhara as well as western Punjab. Apollodotus I was succeeded by or ruled alongside Antimachus II, likely the son of the Bactrian king Antimachus I. In about 155 (or 165) BC he seems to have been succeeded by the most successful of the Indo-Greek kings, Menander I. Menander converted to Buddhism, and seems to have been a great patron of the religion; he is remembered in some Buddhist texts as 'Milinda'. He also expanded the kingdom further east into Punjab, though these conquests were rather ephemeral.
When did Menander die?
5725ed9a89a1e219009ac0b8
130 BC
32
False
What kingdom forced the Indo-Greek kingdom to the east?
5725ed9a89a1e219009ac0b9
Indo-Scythian
435
False
Around 70 BC, Arachosia and what other region where taken over by tribal invasion?
5725ed9a89a1e219009ac0ba
Paropamisadae
300
False
I couldn't could up with another question. But i need to fill this space because I can't submit the hit.
5726298fec44d21400f3db09
in
334
False
After the death of Menander (c. 130 BC), the Kingdom appears to have fragmented, with several 'kings' attested contemporaneously in different regions. This inevitably weakened the Greek position, and territory seems to have been lost progressively. Around 70 BC, the western regions of Arachosia and Paropamisadae were lost to tribal invasions, presumably by those tribes responsible for the end of the Bactrian kingdom. The resulting Indo-Scythian kingdom seems to have gradually pushed the remaining Indo-Greek kingdom towards the east. The Indo-Greek kingdom appears to have lingered on in western Punjab until about 10 AD when finally ended by the Indo-Scythians.
What does "sarvajnaa yavanaa" mean?
5725f02bec44d21400f3d765
the all-knowing Yavanas
128
False
Who said "The Yavanas, O king, are all-knowing; the Suras are particularly so."?
5725f02bec44d21400f3d766
The Mahabharata
91
False
Who wrote the Brihat-Samhita?
5725f02bec44d21400f3d767
Varahamihira
423
False
Who said "The mlecchas are wedded to the creations of their own fancy."
5725f02bec44d21400f3d768
The Mahabharata
91
False
Who said "The Greeks, though impure, must be honored since they were trained in sciences and therein, excelled others...."
5725f02bec44d21400f3d769
Varahamihira
423
False
Several references in Indian literature praise the knowledge of the Yavanas or the Greeks. The Mahabharata compliments them as "the all-knowing Yavanas" (sarvajnaa yavanaa) i.e. "The Yavanas, O king, are all-knowing; the Suras are particularly so. The mlecchas are wedded to the creations of their own fancy." and the creators of flying machines that are generally called vimanas. The "Brihat-Samhita" of the mathematician Varahamihira says: "The Greeks, though impure, must be honored since they were trained in sciences and therein, excelled others....." .
What period was Hellenistic culture at it's height?
5725f11838643c19005acee1
Hellenistic
64
False
Even though some regions were not ruled by Greeks, they still were influenced by which culture?
5725f11838643c19005acee2
Hellenistic
0
False
Hellenism or Philhellenism reached the frontiers of what kingdom?
5725f11838643c19005acee3
Hellenistic
165
False
Hellenistic culture was at its height of world influence in the Hellenistic period. Hellenism or at least Philhellenism reached most regions on the frontiers of the Hellenistic kingdoms. Though some of these regions were not ruled by Greeks or even Greek speaking elites, certain Hellenistic influences can be seen in the historical record and material culture of these regions. Other regions had established contact with Greek colonies before this period, and simply saw a continued process of Hellenization and intermixing.
Before Hellenestic influence, Greek colonies were on the shores of the Taman and what other peninsula?
5725f28989a1e219009ac0de
Crimean
87
False
What kingdom under the Spartocid dynasty consisted of Maeotians, Thracians, Crimean Scythians and Cimmerians?
5725f28989a1e219009ac0df
Bosporan
121
False
Which Scythian people with the Bosporans have strong trade contacts with?
5725f28989a1e219009ac0e0
Pontic-Caspian steppe
468
False
From whom did the Scythians of Central Asia discover Hellenistic culture?
5725f28989a1e219009ac0e1
Greeks of Bactria
905
False
Hellenized Scythians were known as?
5725f28989a1e219009ac0e2
young Scythians
1223
False
Before the Hellenistic period, Greek colonies had been established on the coast of the Crimean and Taman peninsulas. The Bosporan Kingdom was a multi-ethnic kingdom of Greek city states and local tribal peoples such as the Maeotians, Thracians, Crimean Scythians and Cimmerians under the Spartocid dynasty (438–110 BCE). The Spartocids were a hellenized Thracian family from Panticapaeum. The Bosporans had long lasting trade contacts with the Scythian peoples of the Pontic-Caspian steppe, and Hellenistic influence can be seen in the Scythian settlements of the Crimea, such as in the Scythian Neapolis. Scythian pressure on the Bosporan kingdom under Paerisades V led to its eventual vassalage under the Pontic king Mithradates VI for protection, circa 107 BCE. It later became a Roman client state. Other Scythians on the steppes of Central Asia came into contact with Hellenistic culture through the Greeks of Bactria. Many Scythian elites purchased Greek products and some Scythian art shows Greek influences. At least some Scythians seem to have become Hellenized, because we know of conflicts between the elites of the Scythian kingdom over the adoption of Greek ways. These Hellenized Scythians were known as the "young Scythians". The peoples around Pontic Olbia, known as the Callipidae, were intermixed and Hellenized Greco-Scythians.
What did the Greeks call Bahrain?
5725f37fec44d21400f3d781
Tylos
59
False
Where was the central point of pearl trading?
5725f37fec44d21400f3d782
Bahrain
11
False
Which of Alexanders commanders were the first to visit Bahrain?
5725f37fec44d21400f3d783
Nearchus
182
False
Alexander planned to colonized the eastern bank of the Persian Gulf with what ethnicity of colonist?
5725f37fec44d21400f3d784
Greek
528
False
Tylos worshipped Zeus in the form of what Arabian sun-god?
5725f37fec44d21400f3d785
Shams
815
False
In Arabia, Bahrain, which was referred to by the Greeks as Tylos, the centre of pearl trading, when Nearchus came to discover it serving under Alexander the Great. The Greek admiral Nearchus is believed to have been the first of Alexander's commanders to visit these islands. It is not known whether Bahrain was part of the Seleucid Empire, although the archaeological site at Qalat Al Bahrain has been proposed as a Seleucid base in the Persian Gulf. Alexander had planned to settle the eastern shores of the Persian Gulf with Greek colonists, and although it is not clear that this happened on the scale he envisaged, Tylos was very much part of the Hellenised world: the language of the upper classes was Greek (although Aramaic was in everyday use), while Zeus was worshipped in the form of the Arabian sun-god Shams. Tylos even became the site of Greek athletic contests.
Carthage was on the coast of what country?
5725f4d2271a42140099d367
Tunisia
49
False
What Hellenistic practices heavily influenced Carthaginian culture?
5725f4d2271a42140099d368
military
354
False
Who reformed the military in Carthage in 550 BCE?
5725f4d2271a42140099d369
Mago I of Carthage
386
False
What Greek style was the core of Carthage's military?
5725f4d2271a42140099d36a
phalanx
557
False
What Spartan mercenary helped reform Carthage's military?
5725f4d2271a42140099d36b
Xanthippus of Carthage
790
False
Carthage was a Phoenician colony on the coast of Tunisia. Carthaginian culture came into contact with the Greeks through Punic colonies in Sicily and through their widespread Mediterranean trade network. While the Carthaginians retained their Punic culture and language, they did adopt some Hellenistic ways, one of the most prominent of which was their military practices. In 550 BCE, Mago I of Carthage began a series of military reforms which included copying the army of Timoleon, Tyrant of Syracuse. The core of Carthage's military was the Greek-style phalanx formed by citizen hoplite spearmen who had been conscripted into service, though their armies also included large numbers of mercenaries. After their defeat in the first Punic war, Carthage hired a Spartan mercenary captain, Xanthippus of Carthage to reform their military forces. Xanthippus reformed the Carthaginian military along Macedonian army lines.
Rome dominated what peninsula?
5725f57eec44d21400f3d78b
Italian
289
False
Greek cities were absorbed by what republic?
5725f57eec44d21400f3d78c
Roman
570
False
Rome fought against the Carthaginians in what war?
5725f57eec44d21400f3d78d
First Punic War
680
False
Sicily was won by whom in the First Punic war?
5725f57eec44d21400f3d78e
Romans
804
False
Widespread Roman interference in the Greek world was probably inevitable given the general manner of the ascendency of the Roman Republic. This Roman-Greek interaction began as a consequence of the Greek city-states located along the coast of southern Italy. Rome had come to dominate the Italian peninsula, and desired the submission of the Greek cities to its rule. Although they initially resisted, allying themselves with Pyrrhus of Epirus, and defeating the Romans at several battles, the Greek cities were unable to maintain this position and were absorbed by the Roman republic. Shortly afterwards, Rome became involved in Sicily, fighting against the Carthaginians in the First Punic War. The end result was the complete conquest of Sicily, including its previously powerful Greek cities, by the Romans.
Illyrian pirates caused two wars in the Balkans with what Empire?
5725f659ec44d21400f3d793
Roman
0
False
What king of Macedon aided the pirate Demetrius of Pharos?
5725f659ec44d21400f3d794
Philip V
231
False
Hannibal defeated whom at the Battle of Cannae?
5725f659ec44d21400f3d795
the Romans
452
False
When was the Battle of Cannae?
5725f659ec44d21400f3d796
216 BC
505
False
In what war was the Battle of Cannae?
5725f659ec44d21400f3d797
Second Punic War
524
False
Roman entanglement in the Balkans began when Illyrian piratical raids on Roman merchants led to invasions of Illyria (the First and, Second Illyrian Wars). Tension between Macedon and Rome increased when the young king of Macedon, Philip V harbored one of the chief pirates, Demetrius of Pharos (a former client of Rome). As a result, in an attempt to reduce Roman influence in the Balkans, Philip allied himself with Carthage after Hannibal had dealt the Romans a massive defeat at the Battle of Cannae (216 BC) during the Second Punic War. Forcing the Romans to fight on another front when they were at a nadir of manpower gained Philip the lasting enmity of the Romans; the only real result from the somewhat insubstantial First Macedonian War (215–202 BC).
In what region did the Romans aim to re-bolster the influence after the Second Punic war?
5725f776ec44d21400f3d79d
the Balkans
142
False
Whose refusal to end wars with Attalid Pergamum and Rhodes led to the Second Macedonian War?
5725f776ec44d21400f3d79e
Philip
184
False
What year did the Second Macedonian War begin?
5725f776ec44d21400f3d79f
200 BC
447
False
What battle signaled the end to the Second Macedonian War?
5725f776ec44d21400f3d7a0
Battle of Cynoscephalae
539
False
What empire won the Second Macedonian War?
5725f776ec44d21400f3d7a1
Roman
518
False
Once the Second Punic War had been resolved, and the Romans had begun to regather their strength, they looked to re-assert their influence in the Balkans, and to curb the expansion of Philip. A pretext for war was provided by Philip's refusal to end his war with Attalid Pergamum, and Rhodes, both Roman allies. The Romans, also allied with the Aetolian League of Greek city-states (which resented Philip's power), thus declared war on Macedon in 200 BC, starting the Second Macedonian War. This ended with a decisive Roman victory at the Battle of Cynoscephalae (197 BC). Like most Roman peace treaties of the period, the resultant 'Peace of Flaminius' was designed utterly to crush the power of the defeated party; a massive indemnity was levied, Philip's fleet was surrendered to Rome, and Macedon was effectively returned to its ancient boundaries, losing influence over the city-states of southern Greece, and land in Thrace and Asia Minor. The result was the end of Macedon as a major power in the Mediterranean.
Antiochus III allied with what king in 203 BC?
5725fa9c38643c19005acf35
Philip V
182
False
Who defeated Ptolemy?
5725fa9c38643c19005acf36
Antiochus
351
False
In what war was Ptolemy defeated?
5725fa9c38643c19005acf37
Fifth Syrian War
333
False
What war bgean when Antiochus III invaded Greece?
5725fa9c38643c19005acf38
Roman-Syrian War
905
False
What years did the Roman-Syrian war take place?
5725fa9c38643c19005acf39
192–188 BC
923
False
As a result of the confusion in Greece at the end of the Second Macedonian War, the Seleucid Empire also became entangled with the Romans. The Seleucid Antiochus III had allied with Philip V of Macedon in 203 BC, agreeing that they should jointly conquer the lands of the boy-king of Egypt, Ptolemy V. After defeating Ptolemy in the Fifth Syrian War, Antiochus concentrated on occupying the Ptolemaic possessions in Asia Minor. However, this brought Antiochus into conflict with Rhodes and Pergamum, two important Roman allies, and began a 'cold war' between Rome and Antiochus (not helped by the presence of Hannibal at the Seleucid court). Meanwhile, in mainland Greece, the Aetolian League, which had sided with Rome against Macedon, now grew to resent the Roman presence in Greece. This presented Antiochus III with a pretext to invade Greece and 'liberate' it from Roman influence, thus starting the Roman-Syrian War (192–188 BC). In 191 BC, the Romans under Manius Acilius Glabrio routed him at Thermopylae and obliged him to withdraw to Asia. During the course of this war Roman troops moved into Asia for the first time, where they defeated Antiochus again at the Battle of Magnesia (190 BC). A crippling treaty was imposed on Antiochus, with Seleucid possessions in Asia Minor removed and given to Rhodes and Pergamum, the size of the Seleucid navy reduced, and a massive war indemnity invoked.
What was the name of Philip V's son who wanted to bring back Greek independence?
5725fbcbec44d21400f3d7c3
Perseus
463
False
Perseus fought the Romans in what war?
5725fbcbec44d21400f3d7c4
Third Macedonian War
522
False
When was Macedonia annexed by the Romans?
5725fbcbec44d21400f3d7c5
146 BC
748
False
Which Roman consul defeated the Greeks at Corinth?
5725fbcbec44d21400f3d7c6
Lucius Mummius
1077
False
When did the Greek peninsula become a Roman protectorate?
5725fbcbec44d21400f3d7c7
146 BC
1186
False
Thus, in less than twenty years, Rome had destroyed the power of one of the successor states, crippled another, and firmly entrenched its influence over Greece. This was primarily a result of the over-ambition of the Macedonian kings, and their unintended provocation of Rome; though Rome was quick to exploit the situation. In another twenty years, the Macedonian kingdom was no more. Seeking to re-assert Macedonian power and Greek independence, Philip V's son Perseus incurred the wrath of the Romans, resulting in the Third Macedonian War (171–168 BC). Victorious, the Romans abolished the Macedonian kingdom, replacing it with four puppet republics; these lasted a further twenty years before Macedon was formally annexed as a Roman province (146 BC) after yet another rebellion under Andriscus. Rome now demanded that the Achaean League, the last stronghold of Greek independence, be dissolved. The Achaeans refused and declared war on Rome. Most of the Greek cities rallied to the Achaeans' side, even slaves were freed to fight for Greek independence. The Roman consul Lucius Mummius advanced from Macedonia and defeated the Greeks at Corinth, which was razed to the ground. In 146 BC, the Greek peninsula, though not the islands, became a Roman protectorate. Roman taxes were imposed, except in Athens and Sparta, and all the cities had to accept rule by Rome's local allies.
Who was the final king of the Attalid dynasty?
5725fc62271a42140099d3a3
Attalus III
97
False
When did Attalus III die?
5725fc62271a42140099d3a4
133 BC
117
False
Who willed Pergamum to the Roman Republic?
5725fc62271a42140099d3a5
Attalus III
97
False
In what year was the final Greek resistance?
5725fc62271a42140099d3a6
88 BC
266
False
Who led the final Greek resistance?
5725fc62271a42140099d3a7
Mithridates of Pontus
283
False
The Attalid dynasty of Pergamum lasted little longer; a Roman ally until the end, its final king Attalus III died in 133 BC without an heir, and taking the alliance to its natural conclusion, willed Pergamum to the Roman Republic. The final Greek resistance came in 88 BC, when King Mithridates of Pontus rebelled against Rome, captured Roman held Anatolia, and massacred up to 100,000 Romans and Roman allies across Asia Minor. Many Greek cities, including Athens, overthrew their Roman puppet rulers and joined him in the Mithridatic wars. When he was driven out of Greece by the Roman general Lucius Cornelius Sulla, who laid siege to Athens and razed the city. Mithridates was finally defeated by Gnaeus Pompeius Magnus (Pompey the Great) in 65 BC. Further ruin was brought to Greece by the Roman civil wars, which were partly fought in Greece. Finally, in 27 BC, Augustus directly annexed Greece to the new Roman Empire as the province of Achaea. The struggles with Rome had left Greece depopulated and demoralised. Nevertheless, Roman rule at least brought an end to warfare, and cities such as Athens, Corinth, Thessaloniki and Patras soon recovered their prosperity.
Who tried to invade Egypt in the famous line-in-the-sand incident?
5725fd47ec44d21400f3d7cd
Antiochus IV Epiphanes
394
False
Which Roman proconsul ablished the Seleucid rump state?
5725fd47ec44d21400f3d7ce
Pompey the Great
585
False
Who was the last Ptolemaic monarch?
5725fd47ec44d21400f3d7cf
Cleopatra VII
907
False
At what battle was Mark Anthony defeated?
5725fd47ec44d21400f3d7d0
Battle of Actium
928
False
What region did Augustus take on as his personal fiefdom?
5725fd47ec44d21400f3d7d1
Egypt
963
False
Contrarily, having so firmly entrenched themselves into Greek affairs, the Romans now completely ignored the rapidly disintegrating Seleucid empire (perhaps because it posed no threat); and left the Ptolemaic kingdom to decline quietly, while acting as a protector of sorts, in as much as to stop other powers taking Egypt over (including the famous line-in-the-sand incident when the Seleucid Antiochus IV Epiphanes tried to invade Egypt). Eventually, instability in the near east resulting from the power vacuum left by the collapse of the Seleucid empire caused the Roman proconsul Pompey the Great to abolish the Seleucid rump state, absorbing much of Syria into the Roman republic. Famously, the end of Ptolemaic Egypt came as the final act in the republican civil war between the Roman triumvirs Mark Anthony and Augustus Caesar. After the defeat of Anthony and his lover, the last Ptolemaic monarch, Cleopatra VII at the Battle of Actium, Augustus invaded Egypt and took it as his own personal fiefdom. He thereby completed both the destruction of the Hellenistic kingdoms and the Roman republic, and ended (in hindsight) the Hellenistic era.
Who is most responsible for the preservation of Hellenistic culture?
5725fe4f89a1e219009ac13c
Hellenistic Greeks
397
False
What museum and ilbrary was the center of Hellenistic culture conservation?
5725fe4f89a1e219009ac13d
Alexandria
443
False
Where did most of the great literary figures of the Hellenistic period study?
5725fe4f89a1e219009ac13e
Alexandria
716
False
In some fields Hellenistic culture thrived, particularly in its preservation of the past. The states of the Hellenistic period were deeply fixated with the past and its seemingly lost glories. The preservation of many classical and archaic works of art and literature (including the works of the three great classical tragedians, Aeschylus, Sophocles, and Euripides) are due to the efforts of the Hellenistic Greeks. The museum and library of Alexandria was the center of this conservationist activity. With the support of royal stipends, Alexandrian scholars collected, translated, copied, classified and critiqued every book they could find. Most of the great literary figures of the Hellenistic period studied at Alexandria and conducted research there. They were scholar poets, writing not only poetry but treatises on Homer and other archaic and classical Greek literature.
Which city held the most prestigious seat of higher education?
572600a9ec44d21400f3d7f7
Athens
0
False
What library was estimated to have 700,000 volumes?
572600a9ec44d21400f3d7f8
Library of Alexandria
252
False
Which city became a major center of book production?
572600a9ec44d21400f3d7f9
Pergamon
335
False
What island has a famous finishing school for diplomacy and politics?
572600a9ec44d21400f3d7fa
Rhodes
429
False
What replaced Babylon as the metropolis of the lower Tigris?
572600a9ec44d21400f3d7fb
Seleucia
755
False
Athens retained its position as the most prestigious seat of higher education, especially in the domains of philosophy and rhetoric, with considerable libraries and philosophical schools. Alexandria had the monumental Museum (i.e. research center) and Library of Alexandria which was estimated to have had 700,000 volumes. The city of Pergamon also had a large library and became a major center of book production. The island of Rhodes had a library and also boasted a famous finishing school for politics and diplomacy. Libraries were also present in Antioch, Pella, and Kos. Cicero was educated in Athens and Mark Antony in Rhodes. Antioch was founded as a metropolis and center of Greek learning which retained its status into the era of Christianity. Seleucia replaced Babylon as the metropolis of the lower Tigris.
Philip II and Alexander's court army spoke a version of what language?
5726015e89a1e219009ac142
Attic Greek
500
False
Attic Greek developed into what lingua franca?
5726015e89a1e219009ac143
Koine
556
False
Ai-Khanoum was situated on what kind of routes?
5726015e89a1e219009ac144
trade
301
False
The spread of Greek culture and language throughout the Near East and Asia owed much to the development of newly founded cities and deliberate colonization policies by the successor states, which in turn was necessary for maintaining their military forces. Settlements such as Ai-Khanoum, situated on trade routes, allowed Greek culture to mix and spread. The language of Philip II's and Alexander's court and army (which was made up of various Greek and non-Greek speaking peoples) was a version of Attic Greek, and over time this language developed into Koine, the lingua franca of the successor states.
The practice of identifying local gods with Greek deities is called what?
572603a289a1e219009ac152
Interpretatio graeca
80
False
Who wrote the story of Crassus?
572603a289a1e219009ac153
Plutarch
661
False
Crassus' head is used a prop in what performance?
572603a289a1e219009ac154
The Bacchae
792
False
A 35 row theater at the edge of Bactria was found in what region?
572603a289a1e219009ac155
Ai-Khanoum
852
False
The identification of local gods with similar Greek deities, a practice termed 'Interpretatio graeca', facilitated the building of Greek-style temples, and the Greek culture in the cities also meant that buildings such as gymnasia and theaters became common. Many cities maintained nominal autonomy while under the rule of the local king or satrap, and often had Greek-style institutions. Greek dedications, statues, architecture and inscriptions have all been found. However, local cultures were not replaced, and mostly went on as before, but now with a new Greco-Macedonian or otherwise Hellenized elite. An example that shows the spread of Greek theater is Plutarch's story of the death of Crassus, in which his head was taken to the Parthian court and used as a prop in a performance of The Bacchae. Theaters have also been found: for example, in Ai-Khanoum on the edge of Bactria, the theater has 35 rows – larger than the theater in Babylon.
Who led Hellenization practices by founding new Greek cities and colonies?
5726050338643c19005acf59
Alexander
21
False
Susa weddings were an example of how Alexander mixed Greek culture with what other culture?
5726050338643c19005acf5a
Persian
624
False
Who bitterly resented Alexander's pragmatic approach of selecting his military?
5726050338643c19005acf5b
the Macedonians
1020
False
Alexander suffered from what mental disorder?
5726050338643c19005acf5c
megalomania
1176
False
It seems likely that Alexander himself pursued policies which led Hellenization, such as the foundations of new cities and Greek colonies. While it may have been a deliberate attempt to spread Greek culture (or as Arrian says, "to civilise the natives"), it is more likely that it was a series of pragmatic measures designed to aid in the rule of his enormous empire. Cities and colonies were centers of administrative control and Macedonian power in a newly conquered region. Alexander also seems to have attempted to create a mixed Greco-Persian elite class as shown by the Susa weddings and his adoption of some forms of Persian dress and court culture. He also brought in Persian and other non-Greek peoples into his military and even the elite cavalry units of the companion cavalry. Again, it is probably better to see these policies as a pragmatic response to the demands of ruling a large empire than to any idealized attempt to bringing Greek culture to the 'barbarians'. This approach was bitterly resented by the Macedonians and discarded by most of the Diadochi after Alexander's death. These policies can also be interpreted as the result of Alexander's possible megalomania during his later years.
Native populations in the Hellenistic world were discriminated by what peoples?
5726069c38643c19005acf61
Greek
294
False
Hellinistic Gymnasiums could only be used by whom?
5726069c38643c19005acf62
Greeks
446
False
What are the areas of concentration from where Greek culture eminates?
5726069c38643c19005acf63
highly localized
730
False
What percent of the Seleucid empire were comprised of native elites?
5726069c38643c19005acf64
2.5
1177
False
Throughout the Hellenistic world, these Greco-Macedonian colonists considered themselves by and large superior to the native "barbarians" and excluded most non-Greeks from the upper echelons of courtly and government life. Most of the native population was not Hellenized, had little access to Greek culture and often found themselves discriminated against by their Hellenic overlords. Gymnasiums and their Greek education, for example, were for Greeks only. Greek cities and colonies may have exported Greek art and architecture as far as the Indus, but these were mostly enclaves of Greek culture for the transplanted Greek elite. The degree of influence that Greek culture had throughout the Hellenistic kingdoms was therefore highly localized and based mostly on a few great cities like Alexandria and Antioch. Some natives did learn Greek and adopt Greek ways, but this was mostly limited to a few local elites who were allowed to retain their posts by the Diadochi and also to a small number of mid-level administrators who acted as intermediaries between the Greek speaking upper class and their subjects. In the Seleucid empire for example, this group amounted to only 2.5 percent of the official class.
Menander converted to what religion?
5726097838643c19005acf69
Buddhism
342
False
Egyptianized Greeks in the Ptolemaic kingdom started to exist by which century?
5726097838643c19005acf6a
2nd
262
False
Greeks adopted what from local cultures?
5726097838643c19005acf6b
customs
449
False
Despite their initial reluctance, the Successors seem to have later deliberately naturalized themselves to their different regions, presumably in order to help maintain control of the population. In the Ptolemaic kingdom, we find some Egyptianized Greeks by the 2nd century onwards. The Indo-Greek kingdom, we find kings who were converts to Buddhism (e.g. Menander). The Greeks in the regions therefore gradually become 'localized', adopting local customs as appropriate. In this way, hybrid 'Hellenistic' cultures naturally emerged, at least among the upper echelons of society.
A colonist far from the Mediterranean and low in social rank would be more likely to do what?
57260a8e38643c19005acf6f
adopt local ways
265
False
Greco-Macedonian elites remained commited to what culture?
57260a8e38643c19005acf70
Greek
365
False
Who did Greeks look down upon?
57260a8e38643c19005acf71
non-Greeks
387
False
Who was the first Ptolemaic ruler to learn the Egyptian language?
57260a8e38643c19005acf72
Cleopatra VII
429
False
The trends of Hellenization were therefore accompanied by Greeks adopting native ways over time, but this was widely varied by place and by social class. The farther away from the Mediterranean and the lower in social status, the more likely that a colonist was to adopt local ways, while the Greco-Macedonian elites and Royal families, usually remained thoroughly Greek and viewed most non-Greeks with disdain. It is only until Cleopatra VII, that a Ptolemaic ruler bothered to learn the Egyptian language of their subjects.
What Egyptian god was worshipped in Athens?
57260c2e38643c19005acf81
Isis
492
False
Zeus was paired with which local god?
57260c2e38643c19005acf82
Ammon
1163
False
Aphrodite was paired with which local god?
57260c2e38643c19005acf83
Hagne
1180
False
Isis was paired with what local god?
57260c2e38643c19005acf84
Demeter
1220
False
In the Hellenistic period, there was much continuity in Greek religion: the Greek gods continued to be worshiped, and the same rites were practiced as before. However the socio-political changes brought on by the conquest of the Persian empire and Greek emigration abroad meant that change also came to religious practices. This varied greatly on location, Athens, Sparta and most cities in the Greek mainland did not see much religious change or new gods (with the exception of the Egyptian Isis in Athens), while the multi-ethnic Alexandria had a very varied group of gods and religious practices, including Egyptian, Jewish and Greek. Greek emigres brought their Greek religion everywhere they went, even as far as India and Afghanistan. Non-Greeks also had more freedom to travel and trade throughout the Mediterranean and in this period we can see Egyptian gods such as Serapis, and the Syrian gods Atargatis and Hadad, as well as a Jewish synagogue, all coexisting on the island of Delos alongside classical Greek deities. A common practice was to identify Greek gods with native gods that had similar characteristics and this created new fusions like Zeus-Ammon, Aphrodite Hagne (a Hellenized Atargatis) and Isis-Demeter. Greek emigres faced individual religious choices they had not faced on their home cities, where the gods they worshiped were dictated by tradition.
What practice did the Ptolemies adopt in which they dubbed themselves god-kings?
57260d4aec44d21400f3d84f
Pharaonic
130
False
What theism is practice of putting your self on the level of gods?
57260d4aec44d21400f3d850
isotheism
546
False
A long lived cult in Erythrae worshiped which dead leader?
57260d4aec44d21400f3d851
Alexander
747
False
Where was Alexander's tomb located?
57260d4aec44d21400f3d852
Alexandria
831
False
The worship of dynastic ruler cults was also a feature of this period, most notably in Egypt, where the Ptolemies adopted earlier Pharaonic practice, and established themselves as god-kings. These cults were usually associated with a specific temple in honor of the ruler such as the Ptolemaieia at Alexandria and had their own festivals and theatrical performances. The setting up of ruler cults was more based on the systematized honors offered to the kings (sacrifice, proskynesis, statues, altars, hymns) which put them on par with the gods (isotheism) than on actual belief of their divine nature. According to Peter Green, these cults did not produce genuine belief of the divinity of rulers among the Greeks and Macedonians. The worship of Alexander was also popular, as in the long lived cult at Erythrae and of course, at Alexandria, where his tomb was located.
The Hellinistic age marked the rise in what type of religion?
57260e5b271a42140099d405
traditional
64
False
Who declared the centrality of humanity and agnosticism?
57260e5b271a42140099d406
Sophists
271
False
What is the view "that the gods were simply ancient kings and heroes" called?
57260e5b271a42140099d407
Euhemerism
349
False
Who thought that gods were distant and uninterested?
57260e5b271a42140099d408
Epicurus
463
False
Rulers brought the concept of divinity to where?
57260e5b271a42140099d409
down to earth
621
False
The Hellenistic age also saw a rise in the disillusionment with traditional religion. The rise of philosophy and the sciences had removed the gods from many of their traditional domains such as their role in the movement of the heavenly bodies and natural disasters. The Sophists proclaimed the centrality of humanity and agnosticism; the belief in Euhemerism (the view that the gods were simply ancient kings and heroes), became popular. The popular philosopher Epicurus promoted a view of disinterested gods living far away from the human realm in metakosmia. The apotheosis of rulers also brought the idea of divinity down to earth. While there does seem to have been a substantial decline in religiosity, this was mostly reserved for the educated classes.
How would people ward off misfortune in Hellenistic times?
57260f65ec44d21400f3d875
charms
155
False
What is the complex system based on the sun, moon, and planets movements that determine your personality?
57260f65ec44d21400f3d876
astrology
268
False
Astrology was associated with which cult?
57260f65ec44d21400f3d877
Tyche
434
False
What does Tyche mean?
57260f65ec44d21400f3d878
luck
441
False
What was the trajectory of Astrology during Hellenistic times?
57260f65ec44d21400f3d879
grew
463
False
Magic was practiced widely, and these too, were a continuation from earlier times. Throughout the Hellenistic world, people would consult oracles, and use charms and figurines to deter misfortune or to cast spells. Also developed in this era was the complex system of astrology, which sought to determine a person's character and future in the movements of the sun, moon, and planets. Astrology was widely associated with the cult of Tyche (luck, fortune), which grew in popularity during this period.
Menander is one of the few remaining pieces of what time of liteary work?
572610b989a1e219009ac1c2
New Comedy
39
False
What is the only play that remains in it's entirety from the New Comedy era?
572610b989a1e219009ac1c3
Dyskolos
152
False
What is the name of the collection that holds fragments of works from 150 authors?
572610b989a1e219009ac1c4
The Supplementum Hellenisticum
641
False
What two years are debated as the date in which Menander was born?
572610b989a1e219009ac1c5
342/1 BCE
125
False
The Hellenistic period saw the rise of New Comedy, the only few surviving representative texts being those of Menander (born 342/1 BCE). Only one play, Dyskolos, survives in its entirety. The plots of this new Hellenistic comedy of manners were more domestic and formulaic, stereotypical low born characters such as slaves became more important, the language was colloquial and major motifs included escapism, marriage, romance and luck (Tyche). Though no Hellenistic tragedy remains intact, they were still widely produced during the period, yet it seems that there was no major breakthrough in style, remaining within the classical model. The Supplementum Hellenisticum, a modern collection of extant fragments, contains the fragments of 150 authors.
Who did Hellenistic poets wish to court?
572611c4ec44d21400f3d87f
kings
44
False
Who wrote hymns equating Ptolemy II to Zeus and Apollo?
572611c4ec44d21400f3d880
Callimachus
271
False
Who said "Big book, big evil"?
572611c4ec44d21400f3d881
Callimachus
271
False
What was the name of Callimachus' catalog at the library of Alexandria?
572611c4ec44d21400f3d882
Pinakes
598
False
Who wrote Argonautica?
572611c4ec44d21400f3d883
Apollonius of Rhodes
720
False
Hellenistic poets now sought patronage from kings, and wrote works in their honor. The scholars at the libraries in Alexandria and Pergamon focused on the collection, cataloging, and literary criticism of classical Athenian works and ancient Greek myths. The poet-critic Callimachus, a staunch elitist, wrote hymns equating Ptolemy II to Zeus and Apollo. He promoted short poetic forms such as the epigram, epyllion and the iambic and attacked epic as base and common ("big book, big evil" was his doctrine). He also wrote a massive catalog of the holdings of the library of Alexandria, the famous Pinakes. Callimachus was extremely influential in his time and also for the development of Augustan poetry. Another poet, Apollonius of Rhodes, attempted to revive the epic for the Hellenistic world with his Argonautica. He had been a student of Callimachus and later became chief librarian (prostates) of the library of Alexandria, Apollonius and Callimachus spent much of their careers feuding with each other. Pastoral poetry also thrived during the Hellenistic era, Theocritus was a major poet who popularized the genre.
What city remained the center of philosophical thought?
5726128fec44d21400f3d889
Athens
76
False
What does ataraxia mean?
5726128fec44d21400f3d88a
un-disturbedness
399
False
What does autarky mean?
5726128fec44d21400f3d88b
self-sufficiency
427
False
What does apatheia mean?
5726128fec44d21400f3d88c
freedom from suffering
459
False
During the Hellenistic period, many different schools of thought developed. Athens, with its multiple philosophical schools, continued to remain the center of philosophical thought. However Athens had now lost her political freedom and Hellenistic philosophy is a reflection of this new difficult period. In this political climate, Hellenistic philosophers went in search of goals such as ataraxia (un-disturbedness), autarky (self-sufficiency) and apatheia (freedom from suffering), which would allow them to wrest well-being or eudaimonia out of the most difficult turns of fortune. This occupation with the inner life, with personal inner liberty and with the pursuit of eudaimonia is what all Hellenistic philosophical schools have in common.
Who promoted freedom from pain as the ultimate goal?
57261589ec44d21400f3d89b
Epicurus
169
False
Who said social norms and material possesions were unnatural and useless?
57261589ec44d21400f3d89c
Diogenes of Sinope
277
False
Which group embraced hedonism?
57261589ec44d21400f3d89d
Cyrenaics
391
False
Who founded Stoicism?
57261589ec44d21400f3d89e
Zeno of Citium
498
False
Who rejected Academic Skepticism in favor of Neoplatonism?
57261589ec44d21400f3d89f
Antiochus of Ascalon
999
False
The Epicureans and the Cynics rejected public offices and civic service, which amounted to a rejection of the polis itself, the defining institution of the Greek world. Epicurus promoted atomism and an asceticism based on freedom from pain as its ultimate goal. Cynics such as Diogenes of Sinope rejected all material possessions and social conventions (nomos) as unnatural and useless. The Cyrenaics meanwhile, embraced hedonism, arguing that pleasure was the only true good. Stoicism, founded by Zeno of Citium, taught that virtue was sufficient for eudaimonia as it would allow one to live in accordance with Nature or Logos. Zeno became extremely popular, the Athenians set up a gold statue of him and Antigonus II Gonatas invited him to the Macedonian court. The philosophical schools of Aristotle (the Peripatetics of the Lyceum) and Plato (Platonism at the Academy) also remained influential. The academy would eventually turn to Academic Skepticism under Arcesilaus until it was rejected by Antiochus of Ascalon (c. 90 BCE) in favor of Neoplatonism. Hellenistic philosophy, had a significant influence on the Greek ruling elite. Examples include Athenian statesman Demetrius of Phaleron, who had studied in the lyceum; the Spartan king Cleomenes III who was a student of the Stoic Sphairos of Borysthenes and Antigonus II who was also a well known Stoic. This can also be said of the Roman upper classes, were Stoicism was dominant, as seen in the Meditations of the Roman emperor Marcus Aurelius and the works of Cicero.
The Royal patrons of Alexander's successors supported what type of science?
5726166d89a1e219009ac22c
Hellenistic
77
False
What city was especially important to Hellinistic science?
5726166d89a1e219009ac22d
Alexandria
445
False
What century did Alexandria become scientific research hub?
5726166d89a1e219009ac22e
3rd
524
False
Hellenistic culture produced seats of learning throughout the Mediterranean. Hellenistic science differed from Greek science in at least two ways: first, it benefited from the cross-fertilization of Greek ideas with those that had developed in the larger Hellenistic world; secondly, to some extent, it was supported by royal patrons in the kingdoms founded by Alexander's successors. Especially important to Hellenistic science was the city of Alexandria in Egypt, which became a major center of scientific research in the 3rd century BC. Hellenistic scholars frequently employed the principles developed in earlier Greek thought: the application of mathematics and deliberate empirical research, in their scientific investigations.
When did Archimedes die?
5726172c89a1e219009ac23c
212 BC
51
False
When was Euclid born?
5726172c89a1e219009ac23d
325
117
False
Who worked on the five Platonic solids?
5726172c89a1e219009ac23e
Euclid
275
False
Who measured the circumference of the Earth?
5726172c89a1e219009ac23f
Eratosthenes
397
False
Who was the Father of Geomtery?
5726172c89a1e219009ac240
Eratosthenes
774
False
Hellenistic Geometers such as Archimedes (c. 287 – 212 BC), Apollonius of Perga (c. 262 – c. 190 BC), and Euclid (c. 325 – 265 BC), whose Elements became the most important textbook in mathematics until the 19th century, built upon the work of the Hellenic era Pythagoreans. Euclid developed proofs for the Pythagorean Theorem, for the infinitude of primes, and worked on the ﬁve Platonic solids. Eratosthenes used his knowledge of geometry to measure the circumference of the Earth. His calculation was remarkably accurate. He was also the first to calculate the tilt of the Earth's axis (again with remarkable accuracy). Additionally, he may have accurately calculated the distance from the Earth to the Sun and invented the leap day. Known as the "Father of Geography ", Eratosthenes also created the first map of the world incorporating parallels and meridians, based on the available geographical knowledge of the era.
When was Hipparchus born?
572617dfec44d21400f3d8b9
190
32
False
Hipparchus measured the precession of what?
572617dfec44d21400f3d8ba
Earth
152
False
Who stated that Hipparchus created the first systematic star map?
572617dfec44d21400f3d8bb
Pliny
159
False
Hipparchus' star may be depicted in a statue called what?
572617dfec44d21400f3d8bc
Farnese Atlas
582
False
Whch astronomer developed a heliocentric system?
572617dfec44d21400f3d8bd
Aristarchos of Samos
617
False
Astronomers like Hipparchus (c. 190 – c. 120 BC) built upon the measurements of the Babylonian astronomers before him, to measure the precession of the Earth. Pliny reports that Hipparchus produced the first systematic star catalog after he observed a new star (it is uncertain whether this was a nova or a comet) and wished to preserve astronomical record of the stars, so that other new stars could be discovered. It has recently been claimed that a celestial globe based on Hipparchus's star catalog sits atop the broad shoulders of a large 2nd-century Roman statue known as the Farnese Atlas. Another astronomer, Aristarchos of Samos developed a heliocentric system.
What is the name of the 37 gear computer which noted the motions of the Sun and Moon?
572618d0ec44d21400f3d8c3
Antikythera mechanism
95
False
Until what century were similar devices like the Antikythera mechanism found?
572618d0ec44d21400f3d8c4
10th
400
False
What Persian scholar noted the 10th century calculator similar to the Antikythera mechanism?
572618d0ec44d21400f3d8c5
Al-Biruni
533
False
What range of years is the Antikythera mechanism thought to have been created?
572618d0ec44d21400f3d8c6
150–100 BC
118
False
The level of Hellenistic achievement in astronomy and engineering is impressively shown by the Antikythera mechanism (150–100 BC). It is a 37-gear mechanical computer which computed the motions of the Sun and Moon, including lunar and solar eclipses predicted on the basis of astronomical periods believed to have been learned from the Babylonians. Devices of this sort are not found again until the 10th century, when a simpler eight-geared luni-solar calculator incorporated into an astrolabe was described by the Persian scholar, Al-Biruni.[not in citation given] Similarly complex devices were also developed by other Muslim engineers and astronomers during the Middle Ages.[not in citation given]
Who theorized that blood traveled through the veins?
57261a8e38643c19005acff3
Praxagoras of Kos
83
False
Who was the first to finalize his conclusions with dissections of cadevers?
57261a8e38643c19005acff4
Herophilos
155
False
Which school of medicine was based on strict observation?
57261a8e38643c19005acff5
Empiric
453
False
Who was the first to provide accurate descriptions of the nervous system?
57261a8e38643c19005acff6
Herophilos
155
False
Medicine, which was dominated by the Hippocratic tradition, saw new advances under Praxagoras of Kos, who theorized that blood traveled through the veins. Herophilos (335–280 BC) was the first to base his conclusions on dissection of the human body, animal vivisection and to provide accurate descriptions of the nervous system, liver and other key organs. Inﬂuenced by Philinus of Cos (ﬂ. 250), a student of Herophilos, a new medical sect emerged, the Empiric school, which was based on strict observation and rejected unseen causes of the Dogmatic school.
Philip II used a dense military formation called what?
57261be989a1e219009ac278
Macedonian Phalanx
136
False
Were Hellenistic armies smaller or larger than traditional Greek armies?
57261be989a1e219009ac279
larger
481
False
The Thorakitai used what type of oval shield?
57261be989a1e219009ac27a
Thureos
997
False
From whom did Seleucus receive war elephants?
57261be989a1e219009ac27b
Mauryan empire
1285
False
What kind of elephant did the Ptolemies use?
57261be989a1e219009ac27c
African elephant
1427
False
Hellenistic warfare was a continuation of the military developments of Iphicrates and Philip II of Macedon, particularly his use of the Macedonian Phalanx, a dense formation of pikemen, in conjunction with heavy companion cavalry. Armies of the Hellenistic period differed from those of the classical period in being largely made up of professional soldiers and also in their greater specialization and technical proficiency in siege warfare. Hellenistic armies were significantly larger than those of classical Greece relying increasingly on Greek mercenaries (misthophoroi; men-for-pay) and also on non-Greek soldiery such as Thracians, Galatians, Egyptians and Iranians. Some ethnic groups were known for their martial skill in a particular mode of combat and were highly sought after, including Tarantine cavalry, Cretan archers, Rhodian slingers and Thracian peltasts. This period also saw the adoption of new weapons and troop types such as Thureophoroi and the Thorakitai who used the oval Thureos shield and fought with javelins and the machaira sword. The use of heavily armored cataphracts and also horse archers was adopted by the Seleucids, Greco-Bactrians, Armenians and Pontus. The use of war elephants also became common. Seleucus received Indian war elephants from the Mauryan empire, and used them to good effect at the battle of Ipsus. He kept a core of 500 of them at Apameia. The Ptolemies used the smaller African elephant.
What was the largest ship constructed in Antiquity?
57261cc4271a42140099d48d
Ptolemaic Tessarakonteres
244
False
Who invented the Polybolos?
57261cc4271a42140099d48e
Dionysios of Alexandria
442
False
What type of weapon is the Polybolos?
57261cc4271a42140099d48f
ballista
487
False
Who heavy was the Helepolis siege tower?
57261cc4271a42140099d490
160 ton
783
False
How long was Demetrius Poliorcetes siege of Rhodes?
57261cc4271a42140099d491
12-month
710
False
Hellenistic military equipment was generally characterized by an increase in size. Hellenistic-era warships grew from the trireme to include more banks of oars and larger numbers of rowers and soldiers as in the Quadrireme and Quinquereme. The Ptolemaic Tessarakonteres was the largest ship constructed in Antiquity. New siege engines were developed during this period. An unknown engineer developed the torsion-spring catapult (ca. 360) and Dionysios of Alexandria designed a repeating ballista, the Polybolos. Preserved examples of ball projectiles range from 4.4 kg to 78 kg (or over 170 lbs). Demetrius Poliorcetes was notorious for the large siege engines employed in his campaigns, especially during the 12-month siege of Rhodes when he had Epimachos of Athens build a massive 160 ton siege tower named Helepolis, filled with artillery.
Emotion is called what in Hellenistic art?
57261d85ec44d21400f3d8fb
pathos
170
False
Character is called what in Hellenistic art?
57261d85ec44d21400f3d8fc
ethos
193
False
Who is the artist that drew grapes so lifelike, birds flew up and pecked at them?
57261d85ec44d21400f3d8fd
Zeuxis
317
False
The ideals of Hellenistic art are sensuality and what?
57261d85ec44d21400f3d8fe
passion
664
False
What painting epitomized the female nude?
57261d85ec44d21400f3d8ff
Aphrodite of Cnidos of Praxiteles
479
False
Hellenistic art saw a turn from the idealistic, perfected, calm and composed figures of classical Greek art to a style dominated by realism and the depiction of emotion (pathos) and character (ethos). The motif of deceptively realistic naturalism in art (aletheia) is reflected in stories such as that of the painter Zeuxis, who was said to have painted grapes that seemed so real that birds came and pecked at them. The female nude also became more popular as epitomized by the Aphrodite of Cnidos of Praxiteles and art in general became more erotic (e.g. Leda and the Swan and Scopa's Pothos). The dominant ideals of Hellenistic art were those of sensuality and passion.
Which artist chose mundane and low class subjects?
57261e59ec44d21400f3d919
Peiraikos
104
False
Which barbarians were depicted in heroic form?
57261e59ec44d21400f3d91a
Galatians
545
False
All of the diadochi painted themselves to look like what leader?
57261e59ec44d21400f3d91b
Alexander the Great
651
False
Venus de Milo belongs to which period?
57261e59ec44d21400f3d91c
Hellenistic
860
False
People of all ages and social statuses were depicted in the art of the Hellenistic age. Artists such as Peiraikos chose mundane and lower class subjects for his paintings. According to Pliny, "He painted barbers' shops, cobblers' stalls, asses, eatables and similar subjects, earning for himself the name of rhyparographos [painter of dirt/low things]. In these subjects he could give consummate pleasure, selling them for more than other artists received for their large pictures" (Natural History, Book XXXV.112). Even barbarians, such as the Galatians, were depicted in heroic form, prefiguring the artistic theme of the noble savage. The image of Alexander the Great was also an important artistic theme, and all of the diadochi had themselves depicted imitating Alexander's youthful look. A number of the best-known works of Greek sculpture belong to the Hellenistic period, including Laocoön and his Sons, Venus de Milo, and the Winged Victory of Samothrace.
Which Greek painter experimented in chiaroscuro?
57261f2fec44d21400f3d92b
Zeuxis
64
False
Were Greek temples built in the Hellenistic period larger or smaller than classical temples?
57261f2fec44d21400f3d92c
larger
203
False
Who rebuilt the Apollo at Didyma in 300 BCE?
57261f2fec44d21400f3d92d
Seleucus
353
False
What is a Greek royal palace called?
57261f2fec44d21400f3d92e
basileion
393
False
What is the first example of Hellenistic period royal palace?
57261f2fec44d21400f3d92f
villa of Cassander at Vergina
516
False
Developments in painting included experiments in chiaroscuro by Zeuxis and the development of landscape painting and still life painting. Greek temples built during the Hellenistic period were generally larger than classical ones, such as the temple of Artemis at Ephesus, the temple of Artemis at Sardis, and the temple of Apollo at Didyma (rebuilt by Seleucus in 300 BCE). The royal palace (basileion) also came into its own during the Hellenistic period, the first extant example being the massive fourth-century villa of Cassander at Vergina.
Who said "then art dissapeared"?
5726207e271a42140099d4b1
Pliny the Elder
157
False
The discovery of what tombs raised the profile of Hellenistic art?
5726207e271a42140099d4b2
Vergina
511
False
Hellenistic art is describe as decadent mainly due to it following which style  period?
5726207e271a42140099d4b3
Golden Age of Classical Athens
125
False
What century do the terms Baroque and Rococo come from?
5726207e271a42140099d4b4
18th
291
False
There has been a trend in writing the history of this period to depict Hellenistic art as a decadent style, following of the Golden Age of Classical Athens. Pliny the Elder, after having described the sculpture of the classical period says: Cessavit deinde ars ("then art disappeared"). The 18th century terms Baroque and Rococo have sometimes been applied, to the art of this complex and individual period. The renewal of the historiographical approach as well as some recent discoveries, such as the tombs of Vergina, allow a better appreciation of this period's artistic richness.
What century of scholars considered the Hellenistic period a decline in culture from classic Greece?
5726215989a1e219009ac2c8
19th
254
False
How did 19th century scholars view the Hellenistic period?
5726215989a1e219009ac2c9
a mirror
200
False
The viewpoint that the Hellenistic period represented a decline in culture was proven to be meaningless and what?
5726215989a1e219009ac2ca
unfair
424
False
The focus on the Hellenistic period over the course of the 19th century by scholars and historians has led to an issue common to the study of historical periods; historians see the period of focus as a mirror of the period in which they are living. Many 19th century scholars contended that the Hellenistic period represented a cultural decline from the brilliance of classical Greece. Though this comparison is now seen as unfair and meaningless, it has been noted that even commentators of the time saw the end of a cultural era which could not be matched again. This may be inextricably linked with the nature of government. It has been noted by Herodotus that after the establishment of the Athenian democracy:
Who focused on the issue of racial and cultural confrontation?
572622b5271a42140099d4cd
William Woodthorpe Tarn
9
False
Which organization did Michael Rostovtzeff flee from?
572622b5271a42140099d4ce
Russian Revolution
238
False
Who studied the problem mutual understanding between races in conquered areas?
572622b5271a42140099d4cf
Arnaldo Momigliano
351
False
Frank William Walbank mainly focused on which relations in his depictions of Hellinistic culture?
572622b5271a42140099d4d0
class
746
False
Whish Hellinistic historian focused primarely on the economic system?
572622b5271a42140099d4d1
C. Préaux
795
False
However, William Woodthorpe Tarn, between World War I and World War II and the heyday of the League of Nations, focused on the issues of racial and cultural confrontation and the nature of colonial rule. Michael Rostovtzeff, who fled the Russian Revolution, concentrated predominantly on the rise of the capitalist bourgeoisie in areas of Greek rule. Arnaldo Momigliano, an Italian Jew who wrote before and after the Second World War, studied the problem of mutual understanding between races in the conquered areas. Moses Hadas portrayed an optimistic picture of synthesis of culture from the perspective of the 1950s, while Frank William Walbank in the 1960s and 1970s had a materialistic approach to the Hellenistic period, focusing mainly on class relations. Recently, however, papyrologist C. Préaux has concentrated predominantly on the economic system, interactions between kings and cities and provides a generally pessimistic view on the period. Peter Green, on the other hand, writes from the point of view of late 20th century liberalism, his focus being on individualism, the breakdown of convention, experiments and a postmodern disillusionment with all institutions and political processes.
Bill_%26_Melinda_Gates_Foundation
What is the largest private foundation in the world?
5725b3556a3fe71400b89537
Bill & Melinda Gates Foundation (or the Gates Foundation, abbreviated as BMGF) is the largest private foundation in the world
0
False
Where is the Bill and Melinda gates foundation based?
5725b3556a3fe71400b89538
The foundation, based in Seattle, Washington
462
False
Bill & Melinda Gates Foundation
0
What is the largest private foundation in America?
5a0ca861f5590b0018dab4c2
True
The foundation, based in Seattle, Washington
462
Where is the Susan-Desmond Hellmann foundation based?
5a0ca861f5590b0018dab4c3
True
Bill Gates, Melinda Gates and Warren Buffett
545
What are the names of the trustees for the foundation based in America?
5a0ca861f5590b0018dab4c4
True
to expand educational opportunities and access to information technology
388
What are the primary goals of the foundation in Seattle?
5a0ca861f5590b0018dab4c5
True
The foundation
462
What does the principal officer Melinda Gates control?
5a0ca861f5590b0018dab4c6
True
Bill & Melinda Gates Foundation (or the Gates Foundation, abbreviated as BMGF) is the largest private foundation in the world, founded by Bill and Melinda Gates. It was launched in 2000 and is said to be the largest transparently operated private foundation in the world. The primary aims of the foundation are, globally, to enhance healthcare and reduce extreme poverty, and in America, to expand educational opportunities and access to information technology. The foundation, based in Seattle, Washington, is controlled by its three trustees: Bill Gates, Melinda Gates and Warren Buffett. Other principal officers include Co-Chair William H. Gates, Sr. and Chief Executive Officer Susan Desmond-Hellmann.
What was warren Buffett's estimated net worth in 2008
5725b55d38643c19005acb9f
Warren Buffett (then the world's richest person, estimated worth of US$62 billion as of April 16, 2008)
18
False
How many shares of berkshire hathway was pledged as a donation
5725b55d38643c19005acba0
pledged to give the foundation approximately 10 million Berkshire Hathaway Class B shares
122
False
In 2013 Buffett announced another donation to the foundation for how much
5725b55d38643c19005acba1
In July 2013, Buffet announced another donation of his company's Class B, this time in the amount worth $2 billion
1149
False
estimated worth of US$62 billion
67
What was Warren Buffet's net worth in 2013?
5a0caa87f5590b0018dab4d6
True
10 million Berkshire Hathaway Class B shares
167
How many shares did Bill Gates pledge to donate?
5a0caa87f5590b0018dab4d7
True
conditions
372
What did Melinda Gates set so the contributions work as a matching contribution?
5a0caa87f5590b0018dab4d8
True
Buffett's gift
553
What must Bill and Melinda earmark shares to qualify for?
5a0caa87f5590b0018dab4d9
True
amount worth $2 billion
1240
In 2013 Buffet donated what amount to Class B?
5a0caa87f5590b0018dab4da
True
On June 25, 2006, Warren Buffett (then the world's richest person, estimated worth of US$62 billion as of April 16, 2008) pledged to give the foundation approximately 10 million Berkshire Hathaway Class B shares spread over multiple years through annual contributions, with the first year's donation of 500,000 shares being worth approximately US$1.5 billion. Buffett set conditions so that these contributions do not simply increase the foundation's endowment, but effectively work as a matching contribution, doubling the Foundation's annual giving: "Buffett's gift came with three conditions for the Gates foundation: Bill or Melinda Gates must be alive and active in its administration; it must continue to qualify as a charity; and each year it must give away an amount equal to the previous year's Berkshire gift, plus an additional amount equal to 5 percent of net assets. Buffett gave the foundation two years to abide by the third requirement." The Gates Foundation received 5% (500,000) of the shares in July 2006 and will receive 5% of the remaining earmarked shares in the July of each following year (475,000 in 2007, 451,250 in 2008). In July 2013, Buffet announced another donation of his company's Class B, this time in the amount worth $2 billion, is going to the Bill and Melinda Gates Foundation.
What did the foundation announce in November 2014
5725b72fec44d21400f3d43d
In November 2014, the Bill and Melinda Gates Foundation announced that they are adopting an open access (OA) policy for publications and data
0
False
What does the OA policy for publications and data do ?
5725b72fec44d21400f3d43e
open access (OA) policy for publications and data, "to enable the unrestricted access and reuse of all peer-reviewed published research funded by the foundation
92
False
What does the OA policy cover ?
5725b72fec44d21400f3d43f
As of January 1, 2015 their Open Access policy is effective for all new agreements.
498
False
November 2014
3
In what year did Bill and Melinda Gates adopt open access policy for capacity building and knowledge sharing?
5a0cac31f5590b0018dab4ea
True
As of January 1, 2015 their Open Access policy is effective for all new agreements.
498
What does the new agreement policy cover?
5a0cac31f5590b0018dab4eb
True
to enable the unrestricted access and reuse of all peer-reviewed published research funded by the foundation, including any underlying data sets
144
What does the OA policy for data sets do?
5a0cac31f5590b0018dab4ec
True
open access (OA) policy
92
What is the most applauded among similar policies?
5a0cac31f5590b0018dab4ed
True
As of January 1, 2015
498
When is the publication and data policy effective for new agreements?
5a0cac31f5590b0018dab4ee
True
In November 2014, the Bill and Melinda Gates Foundation announced that they are adopting an open access (OA) policy for publications and data, "to enable the unrestricted access and reuse of all peer-reviewed published research funded by the foundation, including any underlying data sets". This move has been widely applauded by those who are working in the area of capacity building and knowledge sharing.[citation needed] Its terms have been called the most stringent among similar OA policies. As of January 1, 2015 their Open Access policy is effective for all new agreements.
What two entities was the foundation divided into
5725b834271a42140099d0a1
trustees divided the organization into two entities: the Bill & Melinda Gates Foundation (foundation) and the Bill & Melinda Gates Foundation Trust
48
False
What does the foundation entity focus on
5725b834271a42140099d0a2
The foundation section, based in Seattle, US, "focuses on improving health and alleviating extreme poverty
205
False
What does the Trust entity focus on
5725b834271a42140099d0a3
The trust section manages "the investment assets and transfer proceeds to the foundation as necessary to achieve the foundation's charitable goals
378
False
What is held in the trust entity
5725b834271a42140099d0a4
it holds the assets of Bill and Melinda Gates, who are the sole trustees, and receives contributions from Buffett
526
False
the Bill & Melinda Gates Foundation (foundation) and the Bill & Melinda Gates Foundation Trust (trust).
101
What two sections was the trust divided into?
5a0cae34f5590b0018dab4f4
True
manages "the investment assets and transfer proceeds to the foundation as necessary to achieve the foundation's charitable goals
396
What is the trust based in Seattle have as its focus?
5a0cae34f5590b0018dab4f5
True
it holds the assets
526
What does the trust do with Warren Buffett's assets?
5a0cae34f5590b0018dab4f6
True
two entities
87
What did Warren Buffett divide the foundation into?
5a0cae34f5590b0018dab4f7
True
The foundation section, based in Seattle, US, "focuses on improving health and alleviating extreme poverty,
205
How does the foundation manage investment assets and achieve charitable goals?
5a0cae34f5590b0018dab4f8
True
The foundation explains on its website that its trustees divided the organization into two entities: the Bill & Melinda Gates Foundation (foundation) and the Bill & Melinda Gates Foundation Trust (trust). The foundation section, based in Seattle, US, "focuses on improving health and alleviating extreme poverty," and its trustees are Bill and Melinda Gates and Warren Buffett. The trust section manages "the investment assets and transfer proceeds to the foundation as necessary to achieve the foundation's charitable goals"—it holds the assets of Bill and Melinda Gates, who are the sole trustees, and receives contributions from Buffett.
What does the Trust invest
5725bb4038643c19005acc01
The foundation trust invests undistributed assets
0
False
What is the goal of the Trust investments
5725bb4038643c19005acc02
exclusive goal of maximizing the return on investment
60
False
What are some of the negatives of the investments
5725bb4038643c19005acc03
its investments include companies that have been criticized for worsening poverty in the same developing countries
128
False
What type of company's are  critiscized
5725bb4038643c19005acc04
These include companies that pollute heavily and pharmaceutical companies that do not sell into the developing world
298
False
As a result of the critics what did the company announce
5725bb4038643c19005acc05
the foundation announced in 2007 a review of its investments to assess social responsibility. It subsequently cancelled the review
448
False
maximizing the return on investment
78
What is the exclusive goal of the developing world trust?
5a0cb00ef5590b0018dab4fe
True
undistributed assets
29
What does the company invest?
5a0cb00ef5590b0018dab4ff
True
2007
476
When did the company decide to review its lack of sales in the developing world?
5a0cb00ef5590b0018dab500
True
investing for maximum return
606
What policy did the company cancel after 2007?
5a0cb00ef5590b0018dab501
True
The foundation trust invests undistributed assets, with the exclusive goal of maximizing the return on investment. As a result, its investments include companies that have been criticized for worsening poverty in the same developing countries where the foundation is attempting to relieve poverty. These include companies that pollute heavily and pharmaceutical companies that do not sell into the developing world. In response to press criticism, the foundation announced in 2007 a review of its investments to assess social responsibility. It subsequently cancelled the review and stood by its policy of investing for maximum return, while using voting rights to influence company practices.
What did the foundation announce in March 2006
5725bc3989a1e219009abda6
n March 2006, the foundation announced a US$5 million grant for the International Justice Mission (IJM)
1
False
What is the International Justice Mission
5725bc3989a1e219009abda7
a human rights organization based in Washington, D.C., US to work in the area of sex trafficking.
106
False
What would the grant allow the IJM to do
5725bc3989a1e219009abda8
the grant would allow the IJM to "create a replicable model for combating sex trafficking and slavery
245
False
What did the office that ijm opened do specifically
5725bc3989a1e219009abda9
conducting undercover investigations, training law enforcement, rescuing victims, ensuring appropriate aftercare, and seeking perpetrator accountability".
527
False
US$5 million grant
42
How much was the grant for the IJM for working in the area of training law enforcement?
5a0cb2c6f5590b0018dab506
True
International Justice Mission (IJM)
69
What is the name of the undercover investigation organization based in Washington DC?
5a0cb2c6f5590b0018dab507
True
create a replicable model for combating sex trafficking and slavery
279
What will the foundation office use the grant for?
5a0cb2c6f5590b0018dab508
True
sex trafficking
423
What does the area of the foundation organization have high rates of?
5a0cb2c6f5590b0018dab509
True
Washington, D.C.
143
Where is the IJM as a law enforcement organization based?
5a0cb2c6f5590b0018dab50a
True
In March 2006, the foundation announced a US$5 million grant for the International Justice Mission (IJM), a human rights organization based in Washington, D.C., US to work in the area of sex trafficking. The official announcement explained that the grant would allow the IJM to "create a replicable model for combating sex trafficking and slavery" that would involve the opening of an office in a region with high rates of sex trafficking, following research. The office was opened for three years for the following purposes: "conducting undercover investigations, training law enforcement, rescuing victims, ensuring appropriate aftercare, and seeking perpetrator accountability".
What was the name of the project founded by the IJM
5725bd6f271a42140099d0f5
The IJM used the grant money to found "Project Lantern
0
False
Where did project lantern open an office
5725bd6f271a42140099d0f6
"Project Lantern" and established an office in the Philippines city of Cebu.
38
False
What did project lantern announce in 2010
5725bd6f271a42140099d0f7
IJM stated that Project Lantern had led to "an increase in law enforcement activity in sex trafficking cases
179
False
What services were also increased by project lantern
5725bd6f271a42140099d0f8
increase in services – like shelter, counseling and career training – provided to trafficking survivors"
417
False
What was project Lantern exploring
5725bd6f271a42140099d0f9
the IJM was exploring opportunities to replicate the model in other regions.
567
False
Project Lantern
39
What was the name of the project founded in the Philippines?
5a0cb534f5590b0018dab510
True
shelter, counseling and career training
445
What kinds of service increases has the project IJM led to?
5a0cb534f5590b0018dab511
True
the model in other regions.
616
What did Project Lantern want to replicate?
5a0cb534f5590b0018dab512
True
increase in commitment to resolving sex trafficking cases
292
What was the IJM committed to resolving as a result of Project Lantern?
5a0cb534f5590b0018dab513
True
Cebu
109
What city was chosen by trafficking survivors to found Project Lantern?
5a0cb534f5590b0018dab514
True
The IJM used the grant money to found "Project Lantern" and established an office in the Philippines city of Cebu. In 2010 the results of the project were published, in which the IJM stated that Project Lantern had led to "an increase in law enforcement activity in sex trafficking cases, an increase in commitment to resolving sex trafficking cases among law enforcement officers trained through the project, and an increase in services – like shelter, counseling and career training – provided to trafficking survivors". At the time that the results were released, the IJM was exploring opportunities to replicate the model in other regions.
What was the WSH program launched in 2005
5725c1c3271a42140099d139
The Water, Sanitation and Hygiene (WSH) program of the Gates Foundation was launched in mid-2005
0
False
When did the WSH become a full fledeged program
5725c1c3271a42140099d13a
and became a full-fledged program under the Global Development Division in early 2010
125
False
What efforts have the WSH taken
5725c1c3271a42140099d13b
since 2005 undertaken a wide range of efforts in the WASH sector involving research, experimentation, reflection, advocacy, and field implementation
231
False
What did the foundation decide in 2009
5725c1c3271a42140099d13c
In 2009, the Foundation decided to refocus its WASH effort mainly on sustainable sanitation services for the poor, using non-piped sanitation services
381
False
WHy did the foundation make the switch
5725c1c3271a42140099d13d
This was because the sanitation sector was generally receiving less attention from other donors and from governments
592
False
mid-2005
88
What year was the Global Development Division program launched?
5a0cb6f8f5590b0018dab51a
True
research, experimentation, reflection, advocacy, and field implementation
306
What efforts has the Global Development Division taken in the WASH sector?
5a0cb6f8f5590b0018dab51b
True
strategic investments
801
How did the WASH believe it could make a difference in sanitation?
5a0cb6f8f5590b0018dab51c
True
the sanitation sector was generally receiving less attention from other donors and from governments
609
Why is the Global Development Division focused on sanitation for the poor?
5a0cb6f8f5590b0018dab51d
True
sustainable sanitation services for the poor
450
In 2005 what did the foundation focus its WASH effort on?
5a0cb6f8f5590b0018dab51e
True
The Water, Sanitation and Hygiene (WSH) program of the Gates Foundation was launched in mid-2005 as a "Learning Initiative," and became a full-fledged program under the Global Development Division in early 2010. The Foundation has since 2005 undertaken a wide range of efforts in the WASH sector involving research, experimentation, reflection, advocacy, and field implementation. In 2009, the Foundation decided to refocus its WASH effort mainly on sustainable sanitation services for the poor, using non-piped sanitation services (i.e. without the use of sewers), and less on water supply. This was because the sanitation sector was generally receiving less attention from other donors and from governments, and because the Foundation believed it had the potential to make a real difference through strategic investments.
What did the foundation announce in 2011
5725c2d6ec44d21400f3d4fb
In mid 2011, the Foundation announced in its new "Water, Sanitation, Hygiene Strategy Overview"
0
False
What is the purpose of the new overview
5725c2d6ec44d21400f3d4fc
funding now focuses primarily on sanitation, particularly in sub-Saharan Africa and South Asia, because access to improved sanitation is lowest in those regions
105
False
What has been the focus since 2011
5725c2d6ec44d21400f3d4fd
Their grant-making focus has been since 2011 on sanitation science and technology ("transformative technologies")
267
False
What models have been delivered
5725c2d6ec44d21400f3d4fe
delivery models at scale, urban sanitation markets, building demand for sanitation, measurement and evaluation as well as policy, advocacy and communications
382
False
its new "Water, Sanitation, Hygiene Strategy Overview
41
What did the transformative technologies announce in 2011?
5a0cb8cdf5590b0018dab524
True
funding now focuses primarily on sanitation, particularly in sub-Saharan Africa and South Asia, because access to improved sanitation is lowest in those regions
105
What is the purpose of funding the new technology?
5a0cb8cdf5590b0018dab525
True
delivery models at scale, urban sanitation markets, building demand for sanitation, measurement and evaluation as well as policy, advocacy and communications.
382
What advocacy policies have been delivered?
5a0cb8cdf5590b0018dab526
True
sub-Saharan Africa and South Asia
166
Where is communication lowest in the region?
5a0cb8cdf5590b0018dab527
True
2011
307
What year has the grant making focus been on funding?
5a0cb8cdf5590b0018dab528
True
In mid 2011, the Foundation announced in its new "Water, Sanitation, Hygiene Strategy Overview" that its funding now focuses primarily on sanitation, particularly in sub-Saharan Africa and South Asia, because access to improved sanitation is lowest in those regions. Their grant-making focus has been since 2011 on sanitation science and technology ("transformative technologies"), delivery models at scale, urban sanitation markets, building demand for sanitation, measurement and evaluation as well as policy, advocacy and communications.
What is need in the developing world
5725c4b6ec44d21400f3d521
Improved sanitation in the developing world is a global need
0
False
What does data collected by unicef and Who show
5725c4b6ec44d21400f3d522
Improved sanitation in the developing world is a global need, but a neglected priority as shown by the data collected
0
False
How many people have no sanatation facilities
5725c4b6ec44d21400f3d523
About one billion people have no sanitation facility whatsoever and continue to defecate in gutters, behind bushes or in open water bodies
341
False
What country is the worst violator
5725c4b6ec44d21400f3d524
India is the country with the highest number of people practicing open defecation: around 600 million people
584
False
India is host to what activity
5725c4b6ec44d21400f3d525
"Reinvent the Toilet Fair" in Delhi, India in March 2014.
810
False
Improved sanitation in the developing world is a global need
0
What is needed for the WHO?
5a0cbb29f5590b0018dab52e
True
India
847
What country has been the focus of the foundation's monitoring activities?
5a0cbb29f5590b0018dab52f
True
Joint Monitoring Programme for Water Supply and Sanitation (JMP)
125
What program monitors progress toward improved sanitation?
5a0cbb29f5590b0018dab530
True
About one billion people
341
How many people are monitored under the JMP?
5a0cbb29f5590b0018dab531
True
Reinvent the Toilet Fair
811
What fair took place that was hosted by the WHO?
5a0cbb29f5590b0018dab532
True
Improved sanitation in the developing world is a global need, but a neglected priority as shown by the data collected by the Joint Monitoring Programme for Water Supply and Sanitation (JMP) of UNICEF and WHO. This program is tasked to monitor progress towards the Millennium Development Goal (MDG) relating to drinking water and sanitation. About one billion people have no sanitation facility whatsoever and continue to defecate in gutters, behind bushes or in open water bodies, with no dignity or privacy - which is called open defecation and which poses significant health risks. India is the country with the highest number of people practicing open defecation: around 600 million people. India has also become a focus country for the foundation's sanitation activities which has become evident since the "Reinvent the Toilet Fair" in Delhi, India in March 2014.
When was reinvent the toilet launched
5725c59138643c19005acc8d
In 2011, the foundation launched a program called "Reinvent the Toilet Challenge
0
False
What is the aim of reinvent the toilet
5725c59138643c19005acc8e
to promote the development of innovations in toilet design to benefit the 2.5 billion people that do not have access to safe and effective sanitation
95
False
WHat program compliment reinvent the toilet
5725c59138643c19005acc8f
It was complemented by a program called "Grand Challenges Explorations" (2011 to 2013 with some follow-up grants reaching until 2015)
319
False
What was excluded by the funding schemes
5725c59138643c19005acc90
Both funding schemes explicitly excluded project ideas that relied on centralized sewerage systems or are not compatible with development country contexts
514
False
Reinvent the Toilet Challenge
51
In 2011 what program was launched by Grand Challenges Exploration?
5a0cbf1df5590b0018dab538
True
Reinvent the Toilet Challenge
51
What program generated interest by Grand Challenges Explorations?
5a0cbf1df5590b0018dab539
True
project ideas that relied on centralized sewerage systems or are not compatible with development country contexts.
555
What did both innovations exclude?
5a0cbf1df5590b0018dab53a
True
Grand Challenges Explorations"
360
What program complimented innovations in toilet design?
5a0cbf1df5590b0018dab53b
True
to promote the development of innovations in toilet design to benefit the 2.5 billion people that do not have access to safe and effective sanitation
95
What was the aim of Grand Challenges Explorations?
5a0cbf1df5590b0018dab53c
True
In 2011, the foundation launched a program called "Reinvent the Toilet Challenge" with the aim to promote the development of innovations in toilet design to benefit the 2.5 billion people that do not have access to safe and effective sanitation. This program has generated significant interest of the mainstream media. It was complemented by a program called "Grand Challenges Explorations" (2011 to 2013 with some follow-up grants reaching until 2015) which involved grants of US$100,000 each in the first round. Both funding schemes explicitly excluded project ideas that relied on centralized sewerage systems or are not compatible with development country contexts.
What countries have received grants
5725c64b271a42140099d18f
universities in the U.S., Europe, India, China and South Africa, have received grants to develop innovative on-site and off-site waste treatment solutions
101
False
How much were the grants for
5725c64b271a42140099d190
The grants were in the order of 400,000 USD for their first phase, followed by typically 1-3 million USD for their second phase
276
False
What did many investigate
5725c64b271a42140099d191
many of them investigated resource recovery or processing technologies for excreta or fecal sludge.
405
False
investigated resource recovery or processing technologies for excreta or fecal sludge.
418
What did the Reinvent the Toilet Challenge investigate?
5a0cc174f5590b0018dab542
True
the U.S., Europe, India, China and South Africa
117
What off-site treatment solutions received grants?
5a0cc174f5590b0018dab543
True
400,000 USD
308
After receiving 1-3 million for the first phase how much were the grants for the second phase?
5a0cc174f5590b0018dab544
True
more than a dozen research teams
57
How many teams received grants to help universities?
5a0cc174f5590b0018dab545
True
innovative on-site and off-site waste treatment solutions for the urban poor
198
Since the launch of investigating resource recovery what did the grants develop?
5a0cc174f5590b0018dab546
True
Since the launch of the "Reinvent the Toilet Challenge", more than a dozen research teams, mainly at universities in the U.S., Europe, India, China and South Africa, have received grants to develop innovative on-site and off-site waste treatment solutions for the urban poor. The grants were in the order of 400,000 USD for their first phase, followed by typically 1-3 million USD for their second phase; many of them investigated resource recovery or processing technologies for excreta or fecal sludge.
What is reinvent the toilet trying to develop
5725c71189a1e219009abe88
The Reinvent the Toilet Challenge is a long-term research and development effort to develop a hygienic, stand-alone toilet
0
False
What compliments the challenge
5725c71189a1e219009abe89
This challenge is being complemented by another investment program to develop new technologies for improved pit latrine emptying
124
False
What does the Omni processor do
5725c71189a1e219009abe8a
The aim of the "Omni Processor" is to convert excreta (for example fecal sludge) into beneficial products such as energy and soil nutrients
355
False
convert excreta (for example fecal sludge) into beneficial products such as energy and soil nutrients with the potential to develop local business and revenue.
393
What does Reinvent the Toilet Challenge convert into beneficial products?
5a0cc44cf5590b0018dab54c
True
convert excreta (for example fecal sludge) into beneficial products such as energy and soil nutrients with the potential to develop local business and revenue.
393
What does the stand alone toilet do to develop local business and revenue?
5a0cc44cf5590b0018dab54d
True
another investment program to develop new technologies for improved pit latrine emptying
164
What compliments the research and development effort to develop a hygenic toilet?
5a0cc44cf5590b0018dab54e
True
Omni Processor
371
What does another investment program use to convert sludge?
5a0cc44cf5590b0018dab54f
True
a hygienic, stand-alone toilet
92
What is another investment program trying to develop?
5a0cc44cf5590b0018dab550
True
The Reinvent the Toilet Challenge is a long-term research and development effort to develop a hygienic, stand-alone toilet. This challenge is being complemented by another investment program to develop new technologies for improved pit latrine emptying (called by the foundation the "Omni-Ingestor") and fecal sludge processing (called "Omni-Processor"). The aim of the "Omni Processor" is to convert excreta (for example fecal sludge) into beneficial products such as energy and soil nutrients with the potential to develop local business and revenue.
The foundation has donated billions to sufferers of
5725c87b89a1e219009abe9a
The foundation has donated billions of dollars to help sufferers of AIDS, tuberculosis and malaria
0
False
How many children were protected from death
5725c87b89a1e219009abe9b
protecting millions of children from death at the hands of preventable diseases
100
False
What are some consequences of the investments
5725c87b89a1e219009abe9c
Gates grantees have increased the demand for specially trained, higher-paid clinicians, diverting staff from basic care" in sub-Saharan Africa
546
False
What has the focus on a few diseases caused
5725c87b89a1e219009abe9d
"the focus on a few diseases has shortchanged basic needs such as nutrition and transportation
855
False
Vaccinations programs encouraged what
5725c87b89a1e219009abe9e
discourage patients from discussing – ailments that the vaccinations cannot prevent".
1038
False
to help sufferers of AIDS, tuberculosis and malaria
47
What has the Los Angeles Times donated billions for?
5a0cdba6f5590b0018dab5d2
True
basic needs such as nutrition and transportation
901
What has the focus on allocation of aid shortchanged in Africa?
5a0cdba6f5590b0018dab5d3
True
ailments that the vaccinations cannot prevent
1076
What have higher-paid clinicians instructed caregivers to ignore?
5a0cdba6f5590b0018dab5d4
True
Gates grantees have increased the demand for specially trained, higher-paid clinicians, diverting staff from basic care
546
How did discussing ailments add to the doctor shortage?
5a0cdba6f5590b0018dab5d5
True
ailments that the vaccinations cannot prevent
1076
What did the Gates-funded AIDS program want to ignore?
5a0cdba6f5590b0018dab5d6
True
The foundation has donated billions of dollars to help sufferers of AIDS, tuberculosis and malaria, protecting millions of children from death at the hands of preventable diseases. However, a 2007 investigation by The Los Angeles Times claimed there are three major unintended consequences with the foundation's allocation of aid. First, sub-Saharan Africa already suffered from a shortage of primary doctors before the arrival of the Gates Foundation, but "by pouring most contributions into the fight against such high-profile killers as AIDS, Gates grantees have increased the demand for specially trained, higher-paid clinicians, diverting staff from basic care" in sub-Saharan Africa. This "brain drain" adds to the existing doctor shortage and pulls away additional trained staff from children and those suffering from other common killers. Second, "the focus on a few diseases has shortchanged basic needs such as nutrition and transportation". Third, "Gates-funded vaccination programs have instructed caregivers to ignore – even discourage patients from discussing – ailments that the vaccinations cannot prevent".
What did the foundation decide not to fund
5725c918271a42140099d1af
has decided not to fund abortion"
46
False
WHy did they decide not to fund abortion
5725c918271a42140099d1b0
the emotional and personal debate about abortion is threatening to get in the way of the lifesaving consensus regarding basic family planning
213
False
Before 2013 the foundation gave how how much to planned parenthood
5725c918271a42140099d1b1
Up to 2013, the Bill & Melinda Gates Foundation provided $71 million to Planned Parenthood
357
False
Melinda Gates
0
Who decided not to fund basic family planning?
5a0cdd8ff5590b0018dab5e6
True
the emotional and personal debate about abortion
213
In 2013 what debate did Bill Gates say is in the way of family planning?
5a0cdd8ff5590b0018dab5e7
True
$71 million
414
How much did Bill & Melinda Gates donate for family planning up to 2013?
5a0cdd8ff5590b0018dab5e8
True
Planned Parenthood
429
What affiliated organization is the primary US abortion provider?
5a0cdd8ff5590b0018dab5e9
True
abortion
70
What issue did Bill Gates say he struggled with in 2014?
5a0cdd8ff5590b0018dab5ea
True
Melinda Gates has stated that the foundation "has decided not to fund abortion". In response to questions about this decision, Gates stated in a June 2014 blog post that she "struggle[s] with the issue" and that "the emotional and personal debate about abortion is threatening to get in the way of the lifesaving consensus regarding basic family planning". Up to 2013, the Bill & Melinda Gates Foundation provided $71 million to Planned Parenthood, the primary U.S. abortion provider, and affiliated organizations.
what is the US libraries initiative
5725ca1589a1e219009abeac
U.S. Libraries initiative with a goal of "ensuring that if you can get to a public library, you can reach the internet
34
False
How much of the worlds population can reach the internet
5725ca1589a1e219009abead
Only 35% of the world's population has access to the Internet
155
False
what have the grants provided public libraries
5725ca1589a1e219009abeae
The foundation has given grants, installed computers and software, and provided training and technical support in partnership with public libraries nationwide
218
False
What has the grant enabled
5725ca1589a1e219009abeaf
this foundation helps move public libraries into the digital age.
481
False
35%
160
How much of the world's population has access to libraries?
5a0cdf07f5590b0018dab5fa
True
given grants, installed computers and software, and provided training and technical support
237
What has the library given to increase access and knowledge?
5a0cdf07f5590b0018dab5fb
True
a goal of "ensuring that if you can get to a public library, you can reach the internet
65
What is the digital age initiative?
5a0cdf07f5590b0018dab5fc
True
this foundation helps move public libraries into the digital age
481
What has reaching the internet enabled?
5a0cdf07f5590b0018dab5fd
True
installed computers and software
251
What has the world's population installed?
5a0cdf07f5590b0018dab5fe
True
In 1997, the charity introduced a U.S. Libraries initiative with a goal of "ensuring that if you can get to a public library, you can reach the internet". Only 35% of the world's population has access to the Internet. The foundation has given grants, installed computers and software, and provided training and technical support in partnership with public libraries nationwide in an effort to increase access and knowledge. Helping provide access and training for these resources, this foundation helps move public libraries into the digital age.
what is a key aspect of the gates foundation in the US
5725cad2ec44d21400f3d59d
A key aspect of the Gates Foundation's U.S. efforts involves an overhaul of the country's education policies at both the K-12 and college levels
0
False
What do these efforts include
5725cad2ec44d21400f3d59e
including support for teacher evaluations and charter schools and opposition to seniority-based layoffs
146
False
how much did it spend in 2009
5725cad2ec44d21400f3d59f
It spent $373 million on education in 2009.
339
False
It was an early backer of what
5725cad2ec44d21400f3d5a0
The foundation was the biggest early backer of the Common Core State Standards Initiative.
449
False
$373 million
348
How much did teachers' unions spend on education in 2009?
5a0ce7f5f5590b0018dab648
True
an overhaul of the country's education policies at both the K-12 and college levels
61
What is a key aspect of the Common Core State Standards U.S. efforts?
5a0ce7f5f5590b0018dab649
True
the Gates Foundation
16
What group has donated to the two largest national charter schools?
5a0ce7f5f5590b0018dab64a
True
$373 million
348
What did the Gates foundation spend on support for teacher evaluations in 2009?
5a0ce7f5f5590b0018dab64b
True
Common Core State Standards Initiative
500
What were teachers' unions the biggest early backer of?
5a0ce7f5f5590b0018dab64c
True
A key aspect of the Gates Foundation's U.S. efforts involves an overhaul of the country's education policies at both the K-12 and college levels, including support for teacher evaluations and charter schools and opposition to seniority-based layoffs and other aspects of the education system that are typically backed by teachers' unions. It spent $373 million on education in 2009. It has also donated to the two largest national teachers' unions. The foundation was the biggest early backer of the Common Core State Standards Initiative.
What is 1 foundation goal
5725cb95271a42140099d1eb
One of the foundation's goals is to lower poverty by increasing the number of college graduates in the United States
0
False
One way to increase college graduation by the foundation is
5725cb95271a42140099d1ec
One of the ways the foundation has sought to increase the number of college graduates is to get them through college faster
393
False
how did they work on college financing
5725cb95271a42140099d1ed
Reimagining Aid Design and Delivery" grants to think tanks and advocacy organizations
151
False
get them through college faster
485
What has the United States tried to do to increase the number of college graduates?
5a0cea77f5590b0018dab652
True
increasing the number of college graduates
53
What is the goal of think tanks to lower poverty in the United States?
5a0cea77f5590b0018dab653
True
think tanks and advocacy organizations
198
What groups will produce grants for changing the financial aid system?
5a0cea77f5590b0018dab654
True
Reimagining Aid Design and Delivery" grants
151
What did the foundation fund to change the poverty rate?
5a0cea77f5590b0018dab655
True
poverty
42
What does the foundation want to lower by changing financial aid?
5a0cea77f5590b0018dab656
True
One of the foundation's goals is to lower poverty by increasing the number of college graduates in the United States, and the organization has funded "Reimagining Aid Design and Delivery" grants to think tanks and advocacy organizations to produce white papers on ideas for changing the current system of federal financial aid for college students, with a goal of increasing graduation rates. One of the ways the foundation has sought to increase the number of college graduates is to get them through college faster, but that idea has received some pushback from organizations of universities and colleges.
What has been funded as part of the education initiatives
5725cd0a89a1e219009abeec
As part of its education-related initiatives, the foundation has funded journalists, think tanks, lobbying organizations and governments
0
False
what do the millions in grants given to news agencies do
5725cd0a89a1e219009abeed
Millions of dollars of grants to news organizations have funded reporting on education and higher education
138
False
Critics don't like the foundations use of media why
5725cd0a89a1e219009abeee
critics have feared the foundation for directing the conversation on education or pushing its point of view through news coverage
382
False
Where does the foundation list grants
5725cd0a89a1e219009abeef
the foundation has said it lists all its grants publicly
513
False
who founded teach plus
5725cd0a89a1e219009abef0
Teach Plus, which was founded by new teachers and advocates against seniority-based layoffs
731
False
astroturfing
828
What have journalists accused Teach Plus of?
5a0cf1a5f5590b0018dab68c
True
for directing the conversation on education or pushing its point of view through news coverage
417
Why have governments feared the foundation?
5a0cf1a5f5590b0018dab68d
True
journalists, think tanks, lobbying organizations and governments
72
What has been funded as part of the news-related initiatives?
5a0cf1a5f5590b0018dab68e
True
the foundation has said it lists all its grants publicly
513
Where does the foundation list grantees?
5a0cf1a5f5590b0018dab68f
True
new teachers and advocates against seniority-based layoffs
764
Who founded the Education Writers Association?
5a0cf1a5f5590b0018dab690
True
As part of its education-related initiatives, the foundation has funded journalists, think tanks, lobbying organizations and governments. Millions of dollars of grants to news organizations have funded reporting on education and higher education, including more than $1.4 million to the Education Writers Association to fund training for journalists who cover education. While some critics have feared the foundation for directing the conversation on education or pushing its point of view through news coverage, the foundation has said it lists all its grants publicly and does not enforce any rules for content among its grantees, who have editorial independence. Union activists in Chicago have accused Gates Foundation grantee Teach Plus, which was founded by new teachers and advocates against seniority-based layoffs, of "astroturfing".
Why were the gates foundation educational reforms critcized
5725ced8ec44d21400f3d5ef
they may marginalize researchers who do not support Gates' predetermined policy preferences
234
False
What are several of the gates backed policies
5725ced8ec44d21400f3d5f0
Several Gates-backed policies such as small schools, charter schools, and increasing class sizes
327
False
Have the policies been criticized
5725ced8ec44d21400f3d5f1
but some studies indicate they have not improved educational outcomes and may have caused harm
460
False
What does 1 specific study of charter schools show
5725ced8ec44d21400f3d5f2
Peer reviewed scientific studies at Stanford find that Charter Schools do not systematically improve student performance
556
False
student performance
657
What do Stanford studies find that policies don't improve?
5a0cf4e1f5590b0018dab6aa
True
some education professionals, parents, and researchers
94
Who has criticized charter school reform programs?
5a0cf4e1f5590b0018dab6ab
True
they may marginalize researchers who do not support Gates' predetermined policy preferences
234
Why were the scientific educational reforms criticized?
5a0cf4e1f5590b0018dab6ac
True
small schools, charter schools, and increasing class sizes
365
Which scientific studies have been expensive and disruptive?
5a0cf4e1f5590b0018dab6ad
True
Charter Schools do not systematically improve student performance
611
What have predetermined policy preferences shown about charter schools?
5a0cf4e1f5590b0018dab6ae
True
The K-12 and higher education reform programs of the Gates Foundation have been criticized by some education professionals, parents, and researchers because they have driven the conversation on education reform to such an extent that they may marginalize researchers who do not support Gates' predetermined policy preferences. Several Gates-backed policies such as small schools, charter schools, and increasing class sizes have been expensive and disruptive, but some studies indicate they have not improved educational outcomes and may have caused harm. Peer reviewed scientific studies at Stanford find that Charter Schools do not systematically improve student performance
What two entities was the foundation split into in october 2016
5725cfda38643c19005acd71
the Bill & Melinda Gates Foundation Trust, which manages the endowment assets and the Bill & Melinda Gates Foundation
82
False
When must the trust resources be spent
5725cfda38643c19005acd72
spend all of [the Trust's] resources within 20 years after Bill's and Melinda's deaths
352
False
What does warren Buffet stipulate his berkshire hathaway  shares be used for in the 10 year period after his death
5725cfda38643c19005acd73
the proceeds from the Berkshire Hathaway shares he still owns at death are to be used for philanthropic purposes within 10 years
645
False
within 20 years after Bill's and Melinda's deaths
389
When must shares be spent for the foundation?
5a0cfad6f5590b0018dab6ce
True
Berkshire Hathaway shares he still owns at death are to be used for philanthropic purposes within 10 years after his estate has been settled".
667
When do Bill and Melinda Gates say Berkshire Hathaway shares are to be spent?
5a0cfad6f5590b0018dab6cf
True
into two entities: the Bill & Melinda Gates Foundation Trust, which manages the endowment assets and the Bill & Melinda Gates Foundation
63
In 2006 how was Berkshire Hathaway split?
5a0cfad6f5590b0018dab6d0
True
within 10 years after his estate has been settled
758
How long after the estate has been settled Will the Bill and Melinda gates foundation shares be used for philanthropy?
5a0cfad6f5590b0018dab6d1
True
the endowment assets and the Bill & Melinda Gates Foundation
139
What does Berkshire Hathaway manage as part of the Foundation Trust?
5a0cfad6f5590b0018dab6d2
True
In October 2006, the Bill & Melinda Gates Foundation was split into two entities: the Bill & Melinda Gates Foundation Trust, which manages the endowment assets and the Bill & Melinda Gates Foundation, which "... conducts all operations and grantmaking work, and it is the entity from which all grants are made". Also announced was the decision to "... spend all of [the Trust's] resources within 20 years after Bill's and Melinda's deaths". This would close the Bill & Melinda Gates Foundation Trust and effectively end the Bill & Melinda Gates Foundation. In the same announcement it was reiterated that Warren Buffett "... has stipulated that the proceeds from the Berkshire Hathaway shares he still owns at death are to be used for philanthropic purposes within 10 years after his estate has been settled".
Montevideo
What is Montevideo classified as?
5725b5d138643c19005acbb5
a Beta World City
20
False
What rank did Montevideo hold in Latin America during 2013?
5725b5d138643c19005acbb6
8th
238
False
Montevideo is the hub of commerce and higher education in what area?
5725b5d138643c19005acbb7
Uruguay
471
False
Montevideo is the chief port of what area?
5725b5d138643c19005acbb8
Uruguay
471
False
What is the population of Montevideo?
5725b5d138643c19005acbb9
around 2 million
606
False
It is classified as a Beta World City, ranking seventh in Latin America and 73rd in the world. Described as a "vibrant, eclectic place with a rich cultural life", and "a thriving tech center and entrepreneurial culture", Montevideo ranks 8th in Latin America on the 2013 MasterCard Global Destination Cities Index. By 2014, is also regarded as the fifth most gay-friendly major city in the world, first in Latin America. It is the hub of commerce and higher education in Uruguay as well as its chief port. The city is also the financial and cultural hub of a larger metropolitan area, with a population of around 2 million.
Who organized the Spanish expedition?
5725b711271a42140099d081
Bruno Mauricio de Zabala
97
False
What date did the Spanish force the Portuguese to abandon the location?
5725b711271a42140099d082
22 January 1724
126
False
Who was one significant early italian resident?
5725b711271a42140099d083
Jorge Burgues
492
False
A Spanish expedition was sent from Buenos Aires, organized by the Spanish governor of that city, Bruno Mauricio de Zabala. On 22 January 1724, the Spanish forced the Portuguese to abandon the location and started populating the city, initially with six families moving in from Buenos Aires and soon thereafter by families arriving from the Canary Islands who were called by the locals "guanches", "guanchos" or "canarios". There was also one significant early Italian resident by the name of Jorge Burgues.
What became the main city of the region north of the Rio de la Plata?
5725b82838643c19005acbc5
Montevideo
34
False
What were Buenos Aires and Montevideo fighting for dominance over?
5725b82838643c19005acbc6
maritime commerce
185
False
The importance of Montevideo as the main port of the Viceroyalty of the Rio de la Plata brought confrontations with what city?
5725b82838643c19005acbc7
Buenos Aires
338
False
A few years after its foundation, Montevideo became the main city of the region north of the Río de la Plata and east of the Uruguay River, competing with Buenos Aires for dominance in maritime commerce. The importance of Montevideo as the main port of the Viceroyalty of the Río de la Plata brought it in confrontations with the city of Buenos Aires in various occasions, including several times when it was taken over to be used as a base to defend the eastern province of the Viceroyalty from Portuguese incursions.
When did British troops occupy the city of Montevideo?
5725b8f638643c19005acbcb
3 February 1807
3
False
When did the Spanish recapture the city of Montevideo?
5725b8f638643c19005acbcc
2 September
224
False
Who was forced to surrender to troops formed by forces of the Banda Oriental?
5725b8f638643c19005acbcd
John Whitelocke
241
False
Who replaced Liniers?
5725b8f638643c19005acbce
Baltasar Hidalgo de Cisneros
665
False
On 3 February 1807, British troops under the command of General Samuel Auchmuty and Admiral Charles Stirling occupied the city during the Battle of Montevideo (1807), but it was recaptured by the Spanish in the same year on 2 September when John Whitelocke was forced to surrender to troops formed by forces of the Banda Oriental—roughly the same area as modern Uruguay—and of Buenos Aires. After this conflict, the governor of Montevideo Francisco Javier de Elío opposed the new viceroy Santiago de Liniers, and created a government Junta when the Peninsular War started in Spain, in defiance of Liniers. Elío disestablished the Junta when Liniers was replaced by Baltasar Hidalgo de Cisneros.
After the Revolution of 1810 there was a subsequent uprising of what provinces?
5725b9b589a1e219009abd80
Rio de la Plata
82
False
Where did the spanish colonial government move to after the uprising of the provinces of Rio de la Plata?
5725b9b589a1e219009abd81
Montevideo
140
False
Who was the Uruguayan revolutionary that united with others from Buenos Aires?
5725b9b589a1e219009abd82
José Gervasio Artigas
207
False
During the May Revolution of 1810 and the subsequent uprising of the provinces of Rio de la Plata, the Spanish colonial government moved to Montevideo. During that year and the next, Uruguayan revolutionary José Gervasio Artigas united with others from Buenos Aires against Spain. In 1811, the forces deployed by the Junta Grande of Buenos Aires and the gaucho forces led by Artigas started a siege of Montevideo, which had refused to obey the directives of the new authorities of the May Revolution. The siege was lifted at the end of that year, when the military situation started deteriorating in the Upper Peru region.
What year was the Spanish governor expelled?
5725ba5aec44d21400f3d475
1814
37
False
What year did Portugal invade the recently liberated territory?
5725ba5aec44d21400f3d476
1816
46
False
What was Juan Antonio Lavalleja's band caled?
5725ba5aec44d21400f3d477
Treinta y Tres Orientales
210
False
What year was Uruguay consolidated as an independent state?
5725ba5aec44d21400f3d478
1828
370
False
The Spanish governor was expelled in 1814. In 1816, Portugal invaded the recently liberated territory and in 1821, it was annexed to the Banda Oriental of Brazil. Juan Antonio Lavalleja and his band called the Treinta y Tres Orientales ("Thirty-Three Orientals") re-established the independence of the region in 1825. Uruguay was consolidated as an independent state in 1828, with Montevideo as the nation's capital. In 1829, the demolition of the city's fortifications began and plans were made for an extension beyond the Ciudad Vieja, referred to as the "Ciudad Nueva" ("new city"). Urban expansion, however, moved very slowly because of the events that followed.
Manuel Oribe and Fructuoso Rivera fought against what empire?
5725bae9ec44d21400f3d487
Empire of Brazil
152
False
Manuel Oribe and Fructuoso Rivera fought under whose command?
5725bae9ec44d21400f3d488
Lavalleja
190
False
Who represented Oribe's Blancos?
5725bae9ec44d21400f3d489
National Party
344
False
Who represented Rivera's Colorados?
5725bae9ec44d21400f3d48a
Colorado Party
412
False
Uruguay's 1830s were dominated by the confrontation between Manuel Oribe and Fructuoso Rivera, the two revolutionary leaders who had fought against the Empire of Brazil under the command of Lavalleja, each of whom had become the caudillo of their respective faction. Politics were divided between Oribe's Blancos ("whites"), represented by the National Party, and Rivera's Colorados ("reds"), represented by the Colorado Party, with each party's name taken from the colour of its emblems. In 1838, Oribe was forced to resign the presidency; he established a rebel army and began a long civil war, the Guerra Grande, which lasted until 1851.
What did Montevideo suffer between 1843 and 1851?
5725bbfcec44d21400f3d499
a siege
32
False
How did the British and French supply the city of Montevideo??
5725bbfcec44d21400f3d49a
by sea
107
False
What year did the Colorados defeat Oribe?
5725bbfcec44d21400f3d49b
1851
422
False
The city of Montevideo suffered a siege of eight years between 1843 and 1851, during which it was supplied by sea with British and French support. Oribe, with the support of the then conservative Governor of Buenos Aires Province Juan Manuel de Rosas, besieged the Colorados in Montevideo, where the latter were supported by the French Legion, the Italian Legion, the Basque Legion and battalions from Brazil. Finally, in 1851, with the additional support of Argentine rebels who opposed Rosas, the Colorados defeated Oribe. The fighting, however, resumed in 1855, when the Blancos came to power, which they maintained until 1865. Thereafter, the Colorado Party regained power, which they retained until past the middle of the 20th century.
What year was a stagecoach bus line established in Montevideo?
5725bcb089a1e219009abdae
1853
88
False
Between what years were the first natural gas street lights constructed?
5725bcb089a1e219009abdaf
1854 to 1861
272
False
What year was the Teatro Solis inaugurated?
5725bcb089a1e219009abdb0
1856
345
False
What year was an underwater telegraph line made that connected Montevideo with Buenos Aires?
5725bcb089a1e219009abdb1
1866
554
False
After the end of hostilities, a period of growth and expansion started for the city. In 1853 a stagecoach bus line was established joining Montevideo with the newly formed settlement of Unión and the first natural gas street lights were inaugurated.[citation needed] From 1854 to 1861 the first public sanitation facilities were constructed. In 1856 the Teatro Solís was inaugurated, 15 years after the beginning of its construction. By Decree, on December 1861 the areas of Aguada and Cordón were incorporated to the growing Ciudad Nueva (New City). In 1866, an underwater telegraph line connected the city with Buenos Aires. The statue of Peace, La Paz, was erected on a column in Plaza Cagancha and the building of the Postal Service as well as the bridge of Paso Molino were inaugurated in 1867.
What year did Compania de Tranvias al Paso del Molino y Cerro creat the first lines connecting Montevideo with Union?
5725bd7989a1e219009abdc6
1868
3
False
What year was Mercado del Puerto inaugurated?
5725bd7989a1e219009abdc7
1868
3
False
What year was the first railway line of the company Ferrocarril Central del Uruguay inaugurated?
5725bd7989a1e219009abdc8
1869
333
False
What year was Bulevar Circunvalcion constructed?
5725bd7989a1e219009abdc9
1878
728
False
In 1868, the horse-drawn tram company Compañía de Tranvías al Paso del Molino y Cerro created the first lines connecting Montevideo with Unión, the beach resort of Capurro and the industrialized and economically independent Villa del Cerro, at the time called Cosmopolis. In the same year, the Mercado del Puerto was inaugurated. In 1869, the first railway line of the company Ferrocarril Central del Uruguay was inaugurated connecting Bella Vista with the town of Las Piedras. During the same year and the next, the neighbourhoods Colón, Nuevo París and La Comercial were founded. The famous to our days Sunday market of Tristán Narvaja Street was established in Cordón in 1870. Public water supply was established in 1871. In 1878, Bulevar Circunvalación was constructed, a boulevard starting from Punta Carretas, going up to the north end of the city and then turning west to end at the beach of Capurro. It was renamed to Artigas Boulevard (its current name) in 1885. By Decree, on 8 January 1881, the area Los Pocitos was incorporated to the Novísima Ciudad (Most New City).
When were the first telephone lines installed?
5725bdfa271a42140099d10f
1882
44
False
When did electric street lights replace the gas operated lights?
5725bdfa271a42140099d110
1886
119
False
When did the Hipodromo de Maronas start operating?
5725bdfa271a42140099d111
1888
171
False
When was the Central Railway Station of Montevideo inaugurated?
5725bdfa271a42140099d112
1897
654
False
The first telephone lines were installed in 1882 and electric street lights took the place of the gas operated ones in 1886. The Hipódromo de Maroñas started operating in 1888, and the neighbourhoods of Reus del Sur, Reus del Norte and Conciliación were inaugurated in 1889. The new building of the School of Arts and Trades, as well as Zabala Square in Ciudad Vieja were inaugurated in 1890, followed by the Italian Hospital in 1891. In the same year, the village of Peñarol was founded. Other neighbourhoods that were founded were Belgrano and Belvedere in 1892, Jacinto Vera in 1895 and Trouville in 1897. In 1894 the new port was constructed, and in 1897, the Central Railway Station of Montevideo was inaugurated.
What century did many Europeans immigrate to the city of Montevideo?
5725bf3138643c19005acc49
early 20th century
7
False
In 1908 what percent of the city's population was foreign-born?
5725bf3138643c19005acc4a
30%
152
False
The Rodo Park and the Estadio Gran Parque Central serves as poles of what?
5725bf3138643c19005acc4b
urban development
512
False
In the early 20th century, many Europeans (particularly Spaniards and Italians but also thousands from Central Europe) immigrated to the city. In 1908, 30% of the city's population of 300,000 was foreign-born. In that decade the city expanded quickly: new neighbourhoods were created and many separate settlements were annexed to the city, among which were the Villa del Cerro, Pocitos, the Prado and Villa Colón. The Rodó Park and the Estadio Gran Parque Central were also established, which served as poles of urban development.
Who was the Admiral of the German pocket ship?
5725bfc338643c19005acc4f
Admiral Graf Spee
78
False
Where did the famous incident involving the German pocket battleship take place in?
5725bfc338643c19005acc50
Punta del Este
110
False
When year did the Battle of the River Plate take place?
5725bfc338643c19005acc51
13 December 1939
253
False
During World War II, a famous incident involving the German pocket battleship Admiral Graf Spee took place in Punta del Este, 200 kilometers (120 mi) from Montevideo. After the Battle of the River Plate with the Royal Navy and Royal New Zealand Navy on 13 December 1939, the Graf Spee retreated to Montevideo's port, which was considered neutral at the time. To avoid risking the crew in what he thought would be a losing battle, Captain Hans Langsdorff scuttled the ship on 17 December. Langsdorff committed suicide two days later.[citation needed] The eagle figurehead of the Graf Spee was salvaged on 10 February 2006; to protect the feelings of those still sensitive to Nazi Germany, the swastika on the figurehead was covered as it was pulled from the water.
Montevideo is situated on the north shore of what?
5725c051271a42140099d121
the Río de la Plata
45
False
What river forms a natural border between Montevideo and San Jose Department?
5725c051271a42140099d122
Santa Lucía River
247
False
What does the Bay of Montevideo form?
5725c051271a42140099d123
a natural harbour
597
False
Montevideo is situated on the north shore of the Río de la Plata, the arm of the Atlantic Ocean that separates the south coast of Uruguay from the north coast of Argentina; Buenos Aires lies 230 kilometres (140 mi) west on the Argentine side. The Santa Lucía River forms a natural border between Montevideo and San José Department to its west. To the city's north and east is Canelones Department, with the stream of Carrasco forming the eastern natural border. The coastline forming the city's southern border is interspersed with rocky protrusions and sandy beaches. The Bay of Montevideo forms a natural harbour, the nation's largest and one of the largest in the Southern Cone, and the finest natural port in the region, functioning as a crucial component of the Uruguayan economy and foreign trade. Various streams criss-cross the town and empty into the Bay of Montevideo. The coastline and rivers are heavily polluted and of high salinity.
The city of Montevideo has an average elevation of what?
5725c12c38643c19005acc5f
43 metres
37
False
How far is to the neighboring capitol of San Jose de Mayo?
5725c12c38643c19005acc60
90 kilometres
577
False
How far is to the neighboring capitol of Canelones?
5725c12c38643c19005acc61
46 kilometres
645
False
The city has an average elevation of 43 metres (141 ft). Its highest elevations are two hills: the Cerro de Montevideo and the Cerro de la Victoria, with the highest point, the peak of Cerro de Montevideo, crowned by a fortress, the Fortaleza del Cerro at a height of 134 metres (440 ft). Closest cities by road are Las Piedras to the north and the so-called Ciudad de la Costa (a conglomeration of coastal towns) to the east, both in the range of 20 to 25 kilometres (16 mi) from the city center. The approximate distances to the neighbouring department capitals by road are, 90 kilometres (56 mi) to San Jose de Mayo (San Jose Department) and 46 kilometres (29 mi) to Canelones (Canelones Department).
The Municipality of Montevideo was first created by a legal act of what?
5725c198ec44d21400f3d4d7
18 December 1908
67
False
Who was the municipality's first mayor?
5725c198ec44d21400f3d4d8
Daniel Muñoz
132
False
Municipalities were abolished by what?
5725c198ec44d21400f3d4d9
Uruguayan Constitution of 1918
183
False
The Municipality of Montevideo was first created by a legal act of 18 December 1908. The municipality's first mayor (1909–1911) was Daniel Muñoz. Municipalities were abolished by the Uruguayan Constitution of 1918, effectively restored during the 1933 military coup of Gabriel Terra, and formally restored by the 1934 Constitution. The 1952 Constitution again decided to abolish the municipalities; it came into effect in February 1955. Municipalities were replaced by departmental councils, which consisted of a collegiate executive board with 7 members from Montevideo and 5 from the interior region. However, municipalities were revived under the 1967 Constitution and have operated continuously since that time.
How many political municipalities has the city of Montevideo been divided into as of 2010?
5725c242ec44d21400f3d4ed
8
65
False
What is the head of each Municipio called?
5725c242ec44d21400f3d4ee
an alcalde
524
False
Who elects the mayor of the political municipalities?
5725c242ec44d21400f3d4ef
the citizens registered in the constituency
203
False
As of 2010[update], the city of Montevideo has been divided into 8 political municipalities (Municipios), referred to with the letters from A to G, including CH, each presided over by a mayor elected by the citizens registered in the constituency. This division, according to the Municipality of Montevideo, "aims to advance political and administrative decentralization in the department of Montevideo, with the aim of deepening the democratic participation of citizens in governance." The head of each Municipio is called an alcalde or (if female) alcaldesa.
What had many of the city's barrios previously been?
5725c2c1271a42140099d157
geographically separate settlements
178
False
What is a neighborhood of great significance?
5725c2c1271a42140099d158
Ciudad Vieja
516
False
What surrounded the neighborhood of Ciudad Vieja?
5725c2c1271a42140099d159
a protective wall
553
False
Of much greater importance is the division of the city into 62 barrios: neighbourhoods or wards. Many of the city's barrios—such as Sayago, Ituzaingó and Pocitos—were previously geographically separate settlements, later absorbed by the growth of the city. Others grew up around certain industrial sites, including the salt-curing works of Villa del Cerro and the tanneries in Nuevo París. Each barrio has its own identity, geographic location and socio-cultural activities. A neighbourhood of great significance is Ciudad Vieja, that was surrounded by a protective wall until 1829. This area contains most important buildings of the colonial era and early decades of independence.
How many inhabitants did Montevideo have in 1860?
5725c35f38643c19005acc85
57,913
24
False
What happened to the population by the year 1880?
5725c35f38643c19005acc86
had quadrupled
208
False
The population quadrupled by 1880 due mainly to what?
5725c35f38643c19005acc87
the great European immigration
242
False
What had the population grown to in 1908?
5725c35f38643c19005acc88
309,331 inhabitants
321
False
In 1860, Montevideo had 57,913 inhabitants including a number of people of African origin who had been brought as slaves and had gained their freedom around the middle of the century. By 1880, the population had quadrupled, mainly because of the great European immigration. In 1908, its population had grown massively to 309,331 inhabitants. In the course of the 20th century the city continued to receive large numbers of European immigrants, especially Spanish and Italian, followed by French, Germans or Dutch, English or Irish, Polish, Greek, Hungarians, Russians, Croats, Lebanese, Armenians, and Jews of various origins. The last wave of immigrants occurred between 1945 and 1955.
According to the census survey carried out between 15 June and 31 July 2004, what was Montevideo's population?
5725c44089a1e219009abe32
1,325,968 persons
108
False
According to the census survey carried out between 15 June and 31 July 2004, what was Uruguay's population?
5725c44089a1e219009abe33
3,241,003
169
False
According to the census survey carried out between 15 June and 31 July 2004, what was Montevideo's female population?
5725c44089a1e219009abe34
707,697
206
False
According to the census survey carried out between 15 June and 31 July 2004, what was Montevideo's male population?
5725c44089a1e219009abe35
618,271
262
False
According to the census survey carried out between 15 June and 31 July 2004, Montevideo had a population of 1,325,968 persons, compared to Uruguay's total population of 3,241,003. The female population was 707,697 (53.4%) while the male population accounted for 618,271 (46.6%). The population had declined since the previous census carried out in 1996, with an average annual growth rate of −1.5 per thousand. Continual decline has been documented since the census period of 1975–1985, which showed a rate of −5.6 per thousand. The decrease is due in large part to lowered fertility, partly offset by mortality, and to a smaller degree in migration. The birth rate declined by 19% from 1996 (17 per thousand) to 2004 (13.8 per thousand). Similarly, the total fertility rate (TFR) declined from 2.24 in 1996 to 1.79 in 2004. However, mortality continued to fall with life expectancy at birth for both sexes increasing by 1.73 years.
What is the economic and political centre of the country?
5725c4d8271a42140099d173
Montevideo
27
False
What year was the World Trade Center Montevideo constructed?
5725c4d8271a42140099d174
1998
357
False
What year was the Telecommunications Tower constructed?
5725c4d8271a42140099d175
(2000
393
False
As the capital of Uruguay, Montevideo is the economic and political centre of the country. Most of the largest and wealthiest businesses in Uruguay have their headquarters in the city. Since the 1990s the city has undergone rapid economic development and modernization, including two of Uruguay's most important buildings—the World Trade Center Montevideo (1998), and Telecommunications Tower (2000), the headquarters of Uruguay's government-owned telecommunications company ANTEL, increasing the city's integration into the global marketplace.
What kind of company does ANCAP run?
5725c61c38643c19005acc9b
Energy
97
False
What kind of company does ANTEL run?
5725c61c38643c19005acc9c
telecommunications
157
False
The most important state-owned companies headquartered in Montevideo are: AFE (railways), ANCAP (Energy), Administracion Nacional de Puertos (Ports), ANTEL (telecommunications), BHU (savings and loan), BROU (bank), BSE (insurance), OSE (water & sewage), UTE (electricity). These companies operate under public law, using a legal entity defined in the Uruguayan Constitution called Ente Autonomo ("autonomous entity"). The government also owns part of other companies operating under private law, such as those owned wholly or partially by the CND (National Development Corporation).
What has traditionally been the strongest service export sectors in Uruguay?
5725c6a489a1e219009abe78
Banking
0
False
Uruguay was once dubbed as what?
5725c6a489a1e219009abe79
the Switzerland of America
116
False
What is the largest bank in Uruguay?
5725c6a489a1e219009abe7a
Banco Republica
324
False
Where is Banco Republica based in?
5725c6a489a1e219009abe7b
Montevideo
357
False
Banking has traditionally been one of the strongest service export sectors in Uruguay: the country was once dubbed "the Switzerland of America", mainly for its banking sector and stability, although that stability has been threatened in the 21st century by the recent global economic climate. The largest bank in Uruguay is Banco Republica (BROU), based in Montevideo. Almost 20 private banks, most of them branches of international banks, operate in the country (Banco Santander, ABN AMRO, Citibank, Lloyds TSB, among others). There are also a myriad of brokers and financial-services bureaus, among them Ficus Capital, Galfin Sociedad de Bolsa, Europa Sociedad de Bolsa, Darío Cukier, GBU, Hordeñana & Asociados Sociedad de Bolsa, etc.
What accounts for much of Uruguay's economy?
5725c74589a1e219009abe8e
Tourism
0
False
Where is tourism in Montevideo centered in?
5725c74589a1e219009abe8f
Ciudad Vieja area
89
False
Plaza Independencia constitutes one end of what?
5725c74589a1e219009abe90
18 de Julio Avenue
465
False
Tourism accounts for much of Uruguay's economy. Tourism in Montevideo is centered in the Ciudad Vieja area, which includes the city's oldest buildings, several museums, art galleries, and nightclubs, with Sarandí Street and the Mercado del Puerto being the most frequented venues of the old city. On the edge of Ciudad Vieja, Plaza Independencia is surrounded by many sights, including the Solís Theatre and the Palacio Salvo; the plaza also constitutes one end of 18 de Julio Avenue, the city's most important tourist destination outside of Ciudad Vieja. Apart from being a shopping street, the avenue is noted for its Art Deco buildings, three important public squares, the Gaucho Museum, the Palacio Municipal and many other sights. The avenue leads to the Obelisk of Montevideo; beyond that is Parque Batlle, which along with the Parque Prado is another important tourist destination. Along the coast, the Fortaleza del Cerro, the Rambla (the coastal avenue), 13 kilometres (8.1 mi) of sandy beaches, and Punta Gorda attract many tourists, as do the Barrio Sur and Palermo barrios.
How many guest rooms does the Sheraton have?
5725c79b38643c19005accdb
207
362
False
How many suites does the Sheraton have?
5725c79b38643c19005accdc
10
382
False
How many rooms does The Radisson Montevideo have?
5725c79b38643c19005accdd
232
474
False
Montevideo has over 50 hotels, mostly located within the downtown area or along the beachfront of the Rambla de Montevideo. Many of the hotels are in the modern, western style, such as the Sheraton Montevideo, the Radisson Montevideo Victoria Plaza Hotel located on the central Plaza Independencia, and the Plaza Fuerte Hotel on the waterfront. The Sheraton has 207 guest rooms and 10 suites and is luxuriously furnished with imported furniture. The Radisson Montevideo has 232 rooms and contains a casino and is served by the Restaurante Arcadia.
What is the heartland of retailing in Uruguay?
5725c819271a42140099d1a9
Montevideo
0
False
What city has become the centre of business and real estate?
5725c819271a42140099d1aa
Montevideo
0
False
What year was Montevideo Shopping  built?
5725c819271a42140099d1ab
1985
245
False
Montevideo is the heartland of retailing in Uruguay. The city has become the principal centre of business and real estate, including many expensive buildings and modern towers for residences and offices, surrounded by extensive green spaces. In 1985, the first shopping centre in Rio de la Plata, Montevideo Shopping was built. In 1994, with building of three more shopping complexes such as the Shopping Tres Cruces, Portones Shopping, and Punta Carretas Shopping, the business map of the city changed dramatically. The creation of shopping complexes brought a major change in the habits of the people of Montevideo. Global firms such as McDonald's and Burger King etc. are firmly established in Montevideo.
What style of building is the Montevideo Metropolitan Cathedral?
5725c950271a42140099d1b5
Neoclassical
43
False
What style of building is the World Trade Center Montevideo?
5725c950271a42140099d1b6
Postmodern
119
False
What is the tallest skyscraper in the country?
5725c950271a42140099d1b7
ANTEL Telecommunication Tower
199
False
The architecture of Montevideo ranges from Neoclassical buildings such as the Montevideo Metropolitan Cathedral to the Postmodern style of the World Trade Center Montevideo or the 158-metre (518 ft) ANTEL Telecommunication Tower, the tallest skyscraper in the country. The Along with the Telecommunications Tower, the Palacio Salvo dominates the skyline of the Bay of Montevideo. The building façades in the Old Town reflect the city's extensive European immigration, displaying the influence of old European architecture. Notable government buildings include the Legislative Palace, the City Hall, Estévez Palace and the Executive Tower. The most notable sports stadium is the Estadio Centenario within Parque Batlle. Parque Batlle, Parque Rodó and Parque Prado are Montevideo's three great parks.
What district has many homes built by Bello and reboratti?
5725ca05ec44d21400f3d589
Pocitos
4
False
Between what years did Bello and Reboratti built most of the homes in the Pocitos district?
5725ca05ec44d21400f3d58a
1920 and 1940
107
False
Who designed the Edificio Panamericano?
5725ca05ec44d21400f3d58b
Raul Sichero
219
False
What types of apartment buildings were constructed during the boom of the 1970's and 1980's?
5725ca05ec44d21400f3d58c
modern apartment buildings
461
False
The Pocitos district, near the beach of the same name, has many homes built by Bello and Reboratti between 1920 and 1940, with a mixture of styles. Other landmarks in Pocitos are the "Edificio Panamericano" designed by Raul Sichero, and the "Positano" and "El Pilar" designed by Adolfo Sommer Smith and Luis García Pardo in the 1950s and 1960s. However, the construction boom of the 1970s and 1980s transformed the face of this neighbourhood, with a cluster of modern apartment buildings for upper and upper middle class residents.[citation needed]
When did World Trade Center Montevideo officially open?
5725caf538643c19005acd13
1998
51
False
What was the first building to be inaugurated?
5725caf538643c19005acd14
World Trade Center 1
286
False
When was World Trade Center 2 inaugurated?
5725caf538643c19005acd15
2002
525
False
When was World Trade Center 3 inaugurated?
5725caf538643c19005acd16
2009
581
False
World Trade Center Montevideo officially opened in 1998, although work is still ongoing as of 2010[update]. The complex is composed of three towers, two three-story buildings called World Trade Center Plaza and World Trade Center Avenue and a large central square called Towers Square. World Trade Center 1 was the first building to be inaugurated, in 1998.[citation needed] It has 22 floors and 17,100 square metres of space. That same year the avenue and the auditorium were raised. World Trade Center 2 was inaugurated in 2002, a twin tower of World Trade Center 1. Finally, in 2009, World Trade Center 3 and the World Trade Center Plaza and the Towers Square were inaugurated. It is located between the avenues Luis Alberto de Herrera and 26 de Marzo and has 19 floors and 27,000 square metres (290,000 sq ft) of space. The 6,300-square-metre (68,000 sq ft)[citation needed] World Trade Center Plaza is designed to be a centre of gastronomy opposite Towers Square and Bonavita St. Among the establishments on the plaza are Burger King, Walrus, Bamboo, Asia de Cuba, Gardenia Mvd, and La Claraboya Cafe.
What was intended to be a platform for the development of business activities?
5725cbb3ec44d21400f3d5b5
The Towers Square
0
False
The square contains a sculpture by what renowned Uruguayan sculptor?
5725cbb3ec44d21400f3d5b6
Pablo Atchugarry
418
False
How much space is World Trade Center 4 projected to have?
5725cbb3ec44d21400f3d5b7
53,500 square metres
477
False
The Towers Square, is an area of remarkable aesthetic design, intended to be a platform for the development of business activities, art exhibitions, dance and music performances and social place. This square connects the different buildings and towers which comprise the WTC Complex and it is the main access to the complex. The square contains various works of art, notably a sculpture by renowned Uruguayan sculptor Pablo Atchugarry. World Trade Center 4, with 40 floors and 53,500 square metres (576,000 sq ft) of space is under construction as of 2010[update].[citation needed]
What is Uruguay's oldest theater?
5725cc5938643c19005acd25
The Solís Theatre
0
False
When was The Solis Theater built?
5725cc5938643c19005acd26
1856
63
False
Who owns The Solis Theater?
5725cc5938643c19005acd27
the government of Montevideo
94
False
What year did the government of Montevideo start a major reconstruction of the Solis  Theater?
5725cc5938643c19005acd28
1998
127
False
What year was the reconstruction of the solis theater completed?
5725cc5938643c19005acd29
2004
312
False
The Solís Theatre is Uruguay's oldest theatre. It was built in 1856 and is currently owned by the government of Montevideo. In 1998, the government of Montevideo started a major reconstruction of the theatre, which included two US$110,000 columns designed by Philippe Starck. The reconstruction was completed in 2004, and the theatre reopened in August of that year. The plaza is also the site of the offices of the President of Uruguay (both the Estévez Palace and the Executive Tower). The Artigas Mausoleum is located at the centre of the plaza. Statues include that of José Gervasio Artigas, hero of Uruguay's independence movement; an honour guard keeps vigil at the Mausoleum.
Who designed the Palacio Salvo?
5725ccf7271a42140099d203
Mario Palanti
112
False
What year was the Palacio Salvo completed?
5725ccf7271a42140099d204
1925
143
False
How high does the Palacio Salvo stand?
5725ccf7271a42140099d205
100 metres (330 ft) high
297
False
Palacio Salvo, at the intersection of 18 de Julio Avenue and Plaza Independencia, was designed by the architect Mario Palanti and completed in 1925. Palanti, an Italian immigrant living in Buenos Aires, used a similar design for his Palacio Barolo in Buenos Aires, Argentina. Palacio Salvo stands 100 metres (330 ft) high, including its antenna. It is built on the former site of the Confitería La Giralda, renowned for being where Gerardo Matos Rodríguez wrote his tango "La Cumparsita" (1917.) Palacio Salvo was originally intended to function as a hotel but is now a mixture of offices and private residences.
What is also a major note in Ciudad Vieja?
5725ce3c89a1e219009abf02
Plaza de la Constitución
42
False
What is the Cabildo?
5725ce3c89a1e219009abf03
the seat of colonial government
210
False
What is the burial place of Fructuoso Rivera?
5725ce3c89a1e219009abf04
Montevideo Metropolitan Cathedral
250
False
Where is the equestrian statue of Bruno Mauricio de Zabala located?
5725ce3c89a1e219009abf05
Plaza Zabala
410
False
Also of major note in Ciudad Vieja is the Plaza de la Constitución (or Plaza Matriz). During the first decades of Uruguayan independence this square was the main hub of city life. On the square are the Cabildo—the seat of colonial government—and the Montevideo Metropolitan Cathedral. The cathedral is the burial place of Fructuoso Rivera, Juan Antonio Lavalleja and Venancio Flores. Another notable square is Plaza Zabala with the equestrian statue of Bruno Mauricio de Zabala. On its south side, Palacio Taranco, once residence of the Ortiz Taranco brothers, is now the Museum of Decorative Arts. A few blocks northwest of Plaza Zabala is the Mercado del Puerto, another major tourist destination.
What major public central park is located south of Avenida Italia?
5725cf21ec44d21400f3d5f7
Parque Batlle
0
False
How many former districts does the current barrio of Parque Battle include?
5725cf21ec44d21400f3d5f8
four
555
False
What sub district of Parque Batlle took its name from the original villa of Don Alejo Rossell Y Rius?
5725cf21ec44d21400f3d5f9
Villa Dolores
812
False
Parque Batlle (formerly: Parque de los Aliados, translation: "Park of the Allies") is a major public central park, located south of Avenida Italia and north of Avenue Rivera. Along with Parque Prado and Parque Rodó it is one of three large parks that dominate Montevideo. The park and surrounding area constitute one of the 62 neighbourhoods (barrios) of the city. The barrio of Parque Batlle is one of seven coastal barrios, the others being Buceo, Carrasco, Malvin, Pocitos, Punta Carretas, and Punta Gorda. The current barrio of Parque Battle includes four former districts: Belgrano, Italiano, Villa Dolores and Batlle Park itself and borders the neighbourhoods of La Blanqueada, Tres Cruces, Pocitos and Buceo. It has a high population density and most of its households are of medium-high- or high-income. Villa Dolores, a subdistrict of Parque Batlle, took its name from the original villa of Don Alejo Rossell y Rius and of Doña Dolores Pereira de Rossel. On their grounds, they started a private collection of animals that became a zoological garden and was passed to the city in 1919; in 1955 the Planetarium of Montevideo was built within its premises.
Parque Batlle is named in honor of who?
5725cf91ec44d21400f3d5fd
José Batlle y Ordóñez
36
False
Jose Batile y Ordonez was president of where?
5725cf91ec44d21400f3d5fe
Uruguay
72
False
Between what years was Jose batlle y Ordonez president of Uruguay?
5725cf91ec44d21400f3d5ff
1911 to 1915
85
False
Parque Batlle was originally proposed by what?
5725cf91ec44d21400f3d600
an Act of March 1907
135
False
Parque Batlle is named in honour of José Batlle y Ordóñez, President of Uruguay from 1911 to 1915. The park was originally proposed by an Act of March 1907, which also projected wide boulevards and avenues. French landscape architect, Carlos Thays, began the plantings in 1911. In 1918, the park was named Parque de los Aliados, following the victory of the Allies of World War I. On 5 May 1930, after significant expansion, it was again renamed as Parque Batlle y Ordóñez, in memory of the prominent politician and president, who had died in 1929. The park was designated a National Historic Monument Park in 1975. As of 2010[update], the park covers an area of 60 hectares (150 acres) and is considered the "lung" of the Montevideo city due to the large variety of trees planted here.
Parque Rodo belongs to who?
5725d03438643c19005acd7d
Punta Carretas
150
False
What does the name "Rodo" commemorate?
5725d03438643c19005acd7e
José Enrique Rodó
195
False
Who was an important Uruguayan writer that is commemorated by Parque Rodo?
5725d03438643c19005acd7f
José Enrique Rodó
195
False
Parque Rodo was originally conceived as what?
5725d03438643c19005acd80
a French-style city park
327
False
Parque Rodó is both a barrio (neighbourhood) of Montevideo and a park which lies mostly outside the limits of the neighbourhood itself and belongs to Punta Carretas. The name "Rodó" commemorates José Enrique Rodó, an important Uruguayan writer whose monument is in the southern side of the main park. The park was conceived as a French-style city park. Apart from the main park area which is delimited by Sarmiento Avenue to the south, Parque Rodó includes an amusement park; the Estadio Luis Franzini, belonging to Defensor Sporting; the front lawn of the Faculty of Engineering and a strip west of the Club de Golf de Punta Carretas that includes the Canteras ("quarry") del Parque Rodó, the Teatro de Verano ("summer theatre") and the Lago ("lake") del Parque Rodó.
What is on the east side of the park?
5725d1a6ec44d21400f3d625
the National Museum of Visual Arts
42
False
What takes part on the east side of the main park every Sunday?
5725d1a6ec44d21400f3d626
a very popular street market
92
False
What side has an artificial lake with a little castle?
5725d1a6ec44d21400f3d627
north side
154
False
What does the little castle on the north side of the park house?
5725d1a6ec44d21400f3d628
a municipal library
216
False
On the east side of the main park area is the National Museum of Visual Arts. On this side, a very popular street market takes place every Sunday. On the north side is an artificial lake with a little castle housing a municipal library for children. An area to its west is used as an open-air exhibition of photography. West of the park, across the coastal avenue Rambla Presidente Wilson, stretches Ramirez Beach. Directly west of the main park are, and belonging to Parque Rodó barrio, is the former Parque Hotel, now called Edifício Mercosur, seat of the parliament of the members countries of the Mercosur. During the guerilla war the Tupamaros frequently attacked buildings in this area, including the old hotel.
Who planned the first set of subsidiary forts?
5725d297271a42140099d247
Portuguese
54
False
When were the first set of subsidiary forts planned?
5725d297271a42140099d248
1701
82
False
the subsidiary forts were established to stop what?
5725d297271a42140099d249
frequent insurrections by the Spaniards
126
False
Where were the Spaniards emanating from?
5725d297271a42140099d24a
Buenos Aires
181
False
The first set of subsidiary forts were planned by the Portuguese at Montevideo in 1701 to establish a front line base to stop frequent insurrections by the Spaniards emanating from Buenos Aires. These fortifications were planned within the River Plate estuary at Colonia del Sacramento. However, this plan came to fruition only in November 1723, when Captain Manuel Henriques de Noronha reached the shores of Montevideo with soldiers, guns and colonists on his warship Nossa Senhora de Oliveara. They built a small square fortification. However, under siege from forces from Buenos Aires, the Portuguese withdrew from Montevideo Bay in January 1724, after signing an agreement with the Spaniards.
What overlooks the bay of Montevideo?
5725d375ec44d21400f3d643
Fortaleza del Cerro
0
False
What replaced the observation post in 1802?
5725d375ec44d21400f3d644
a beacon
156
False
When did construction of the fortress begin?
5725d375ec44d21400f3d645
1809
234
False
When did construction of the fortress finish?
5725d375ec44d21400f3d646
1839
260
False
Fortaleza del Cerro overlooks the bay of Montevideo. An observation post at this location was first built by the Spanish in the late 18th century. In 1802, a beacon replaced the observation post; construction of the fortress began in 1809 and was completed in 1839. It has been involved in many historical developments and has been repeatedly taken over by various sides. In 1907, the old beacon was replaced with a stronger electric one. It has been a National Monument since 1931 and has housed a military museum since 1916. Today it is one of the tourist attractions of Montevideo.
What avenue goes along the entire coastline of Montevideo?
5725d449ec44d21400f3d663
The Rambla
0
False
Avenue or Watercourse is the literal meaning of what Spanish word?
5725d449ec44d21400f3d664
rambla
116
False
In the Americas rambla is mostly used to refer to what?
5725d449ec44d21400f3d665
"coastal avenue"
194
False
The Rambla is an avenue that goes along the entire coastline of Montevideo. The literal meaning of the Spanish word rambla is "avenue" or "watercourse", but in the Americas it is mostly used as "coastal avenue", and since all the southern departments of Uruguay border either the Río de la Plata or the Atlantic Ocean, they all have ramblas as well. As an integral part of Montevidean identity, the Rambla has been included by Uruguay in the Indicative List of World Heritage sites, though it has not received this status. Previously, the entire Rambla was called Rambla Naciones Unidas ("United Nations"), but in recent times different names have been given to specific parts of it.
What is the largest cemetery?
5725d4e989a1e219009abf68
Cementerio del Norte
28
False
Where is the Central Cemetery located?
5725d4e989a1e219009abf69
Barrio Sur
163
False
What year was the Central Cemetery founded?
5725d4e989a1e219009abf6a
1835
342
False
The largest cemetery is the Cementerio del Norte, located in the northern-central part of the city. The Central Cemetery (Spanish: Cementerio central), located in Barrio Sur in the southern area of the city, is one of Uruguay's main cemeteries. It was one of the first cemeteries (in contrast to church graveyards) in the country, founded in 1835 in a time where burials were still carried out by the Catholic Church. It is the burial place of many of the most famous Uruguayans, such as Eduardo Acevedo, Delmira Agustini, Luis Batlle Berres, José Batlle y Ordóñez, Juan Manuel Blanes, François Ducasse, father of Comte de Lautréamont (Isidore Ducasse), Luis Alberto de Herrera, Benito Nardone, José Enrique Rodó, and Juan Zorrilla de San Martín.
Where is the British Cemetery Montevideo located?
5725d5a3271a42140099d27d
Buceo neighborhood
225
False
Who purchased a plot of land in the name of the English residents?
5725d5a3271a42140099d27e
Mr. Thomas Samuel Hood
341
False
When did Mr. Thomas Samuel Hood purchase a plot of land at the British Cemetery Montevideo?
5725d5a3271a42140099d27f
1828
429
False
When did the government compensate the British by moving the cemetery to Buceo?
5725d5a3271a42140099d280
1884
447
False
The other large cemeteries are the Cementerio del Buceo, Cementerio del Cerro, and Cementerio Paso Molino. The British Cemetery Montevideo (Cementerio Británico) is another of the oldest cemeteries in Uruguay, located in the Buceo neighborhood. Many noblemen and eminent persons are buried there. The cemetery originated when the Englishman Mr. Thomas Samuel Hood purchased a plot of land in the name of the English residents in 1828. However, in 1884 the government compensated the British by moving the cemetery to Buceo to accommodate city growth. A section of the cemetery, known as British Cemetery Montevideo Soldiers and Sailors, contains the graves of quite a number of sailors of different nationalities, although the majority are of British descent. One United States Marine, Henry de Costa, is buried here.
What unique form of dance originated in the neighbourhods of Montevideo?
5725d6c689a1e219009abf7e
Uruguayan tango
111
False
Tango, candombe and murga are three main styles of what?
5725d6c689a1e219009abf7f
music
290
False
How many movie theater companies are there in Montevideo?
5725d6c689a1e219009abf80
two
437
False
What is the most prominent theater in Uruguay?
5725d6c689a1e219009abf81
The Solís Theatre
627
False
Montevideo has a very rich architectural heritage and an impressive number of writers, artists, and musicians. Uruguayan tango is a unique form of dance that originated in the neighbourhoods of Montevideo towards the end of the 1800s. Tango, candombe and murga are the three main styles of music in this city. The city is also the centre of the cinema of Uruguay, which includes commercial, documentary and experimental films. There are two movie theatre companies running seven cinemas, around ten independent ones and four art film cinemas in the city. The theatre of Uruguay is admired inside and outside Uruguayan borders. The Solís Theatre is the most prominent theatre in Uruguay and the oldest in South America. There are several notable theatrical companies and thousands of professional actors and amateurs. Montevideo playwrights produce dozens of works each year; of major note are Mauricio Rosencof, Ana Magnabosco and Ricardo Prieto.
Who gave the initial donation of the private library?
5725d7d789a1e219009abf9a
Father José Manuel Pérez Castellano
100
False
When did Father Jose Manuel Perez Castellano die?
5725d7d789a1e219009abf9b
1815
149
False
Who was the promoter, director and organizer of the first public library in Montevideo?
5725d7d789a1e219009abf9c
Father Dámaso Antonio Larrañaga
196
False
The first public library in Montevideo was formed by the initial donation of the private library of Father José Manuel Pérez Castellano, who died in 1815. Its promoter, director and organizer was Father Dámaso Antonio Larrañaga, who also made a considerable donation along with donations from José Raimundo Guerra, as well as others from the Convent of San Francisco in Salta. In 1816 its stock was 5,000 volumes.[citation needed] The current building of the National Library of Uruguay (Biblioteca Pública de Uruguay) was designed by Luis Crespi in the Neoclassical style and occupies an area of 4,000 square metres (43,000 sq ft). Construction began in 1926 and it was finally inaugurated in 1964. Its current collection amounts to roughly 900,000 volumes.
Tango, milonga and vals criollo are the most popular forms of music in what region?
5725d86e89a1e219009abfa0
Rio de Plata region
33
False
When was Fun Fun Bar established?
5725d86e89a1e219009abfa1
1935
526
False
Where is El Farolito located?
5725d86e89a1e219009abfa2
the old part of the city
619
False
In Montevideo, as throughout the Rio de Plata region, the most popular forms of music are tango, milonga and vals criollo. Many notable songs originated in Montevideo including "El Tango supremo", La Cumparsita", La Milonga", "La Puñalada" and "Desde el Alma", composed by notable Montevideo musicians such as Gerardo Matos Rodríguez, Pintín Castellanos and Rosita Melo. Tango is deeply ingrained in the cultural life of the city and is the theme for many of the bars and restaurants in the city. Fun Fun' Bar, established in 1935, is one of the most important places for tango in Uruguay as is El Farolito, located in the old part of the city and Joventango, Café Las Musas, Garufa and Vieja Viola. The city is also home to the Montevideo Jazz Festival and has the Bancaria Jazz Club bar catering for jazz enthusiasts.
What suffered when the military junta took over power in Uruguay?
5725d9a889a1e219009abfb0
art
96
False
Rimer Cardillo was one of the country's leading what?
5725d9a889a1e219009abfb1
artists
214
False
Who made the National Institute of Fine Arts?
5725d9a889a1e219009abfb2
Rimer Cardillo
169
False
In the early 1970s (1973, to be particular) when the military junta took over power in Uruguay, art suffered in Montevideo. The art studios went into protest mode, with Rimer Cardillo, one of the country's leading artists, making the National Institute of Fine Arts, Montevideo a "hotbed of resistance". This resulted in the military junta coming down heavily on artists by closing the Fine Art Institute and carting away all the presses and other studio equipment. Consequently, the learning of fine arts was only in private studios run by people who had been let out of jail, in works of printing and on paper and also painting and sculpture. It resumed much later.
What was the seat of government during the colonial times of the Viceroyalty of the Rio de la Plata?
5725da80271a42140099d2a3
The Montevideo Cabildo
0
False
Where is the Montevideo Cabildo located?
5725da80271a42140099d2a4
front of Constitution Square
136
False
Between what years was the Montevideo Cabildo built?
5725da80271a42140099d2a5
between 1804 and 1869
189
False
What style was the Montevideo Cabildo?
5725da80271a42140099d2a6
Neoclassical style
214
False
When did the Montevideo Cabildo become a National Heritage Site?
5725da80271a42140099d2a7
1975.
314
False
The Montevideo Cabildo was the seat of government during the colonial times of the Viceroyalty of the Río de la Plata. It is located in front of Constitution Square, in Ciudad Vieja. Built between 1804 and 1869 in Neoclassical style, with a series of Doric and Ionic columns, it became a National Heritage Site in 1975. In 1958, the Municipal Historic Museum and Archive was inaugurated here. It features three permanent city museum exhibitions, as well as temporary art exhibitions, cultural events, seminars, symposiums and forums.
Where is the Palacio Taranco located?
5725db2289a1e219009abfd2
the heart of Ciudad Vieja
64
False
When was the Palacio Taranco erected?
5725db2289a1e219009abfd3
early 20th century
113
False
The Palacio Taranco was erected to be the residence for whom?
5725db2289a1e219009abfd4
Ortiz Taranco brothers
156
False
Who designed the Palacio Taranco?
5725db2289a1e219009abfd5
French architects Charles Louis Girault and Jules Chifflot León
348
False
The Palacio Taranco is located in front of the Plaza Zabala, in the heart of Ciudad Vieja. It was erected in the early 20th century as the residence of the Ortiz Taranco brothers on the ruins of Montevideo's first theatre (of 1793), during a period in which the architectural style was influenced by French architecture. The palace was designed by French architects Charles Louis Girault and Jules Chifflot León who also designed the Petit Palais and the Arc de Triomphe in Paris. It passed to the city from the heirs of the Tarancos in 1943, along with its precious collection of Uruguayan furniture and draperies and was deemed by the city as an ideal place for a museum; in 1972 it became the Museum of Decorative Arts of Montevideo and in 1975 it became a National Heritage Site. The Decorative Arts Museum has an important collection of European paintings and decorative arts, ancient Greek and Roman art and Islamic ceramics of the 10th–18th century from the area of present-day Iran. The palace is often used as a meeting place by the Uruguayan government.
The National History Museum of Montevideo is located where?
5725dbef271a42140099d2ad
the historical residence of General Fructuoso Rivera
56
False
What houses the Museo Romantico?
5725dbef271a42140099d2ae
Antonio Montero
634
False
How many houses has the Historical Museum annexed?
5725dbef271a42140099d2af
eight
466
False
The National History Museum of Montevideo is located in the historical residence of General Fructuoso Rivera. It exhibits artifacts related to the history of Uruguay. In a process begun in 1998, the National Museum of Natural History (1837) and the National Museum of Anthropology (1981), merged in 2001, becoming the National Museum of Natural History and Anthropology. In July 2009, the two institutions again became independent. The Historical Museum has annexed eight historical houses in the city, five of which are located in the Ciudad Vieja. One of them, on the same block with the main building, is the historic residence of Antonio Montero, which houses the Museo Romantico.
The Museo Torres Garcia is located where?
5725dcfb271a42140099d2b3
the Old Town
38
False
The Museo Torres Garcia exhibits whose unusual portraits?
5725dcfb271a42140099d2b4
Joaquín Torres García
65
False
Who established The Museo Torres Garcia?
5725dcfb271a42140099d2b5
Manolita Piña Torres
215
False
Manolita Pina Torres was the widow of who?
5725dcfb271a42140099d2b6
Torres Garcia
250
False
The Museo Torres García is located in the Old Town, and exhibits Joaquín Torres García's unusual portraits of historical icons and cubist paintings akin to those of Picasso and Braque. The museum was established by Manolita Piña Torres, the widow of Torres Garcia, after his death in 1949. She also set up the García Torres Foundation, a private non-profit organization that organizes the paintings, drawings, original writings, archives, objects and furniture designed by the painter as well as the photographs, magazines and publications related to him.
Where is the National Museum of Visual Arts located?
5725de7eec44d21400f3d6f7
Parque Rodó
99
False
What does the National Museum of Visual Arts have the largest collection of in Uruguay?
5725de7eec44d21400f3d6f8
paintings
147
False
When was the Juan Manuel Blanes Museum founded?
5725de7eec44d21400f3d6f9
1930
203
False
Who painted Uruguayan patriotic themes?
5725de7eec44d21400f3d6fa
Juan Manuel Blanes
310
False
Where is the Museo de Historia del Arte located?
5725de7eec44d21400f3d6fb
the Palacio Municipal
510
False
There are several other important art museums in Montevideo. The National Museum of Visual Arts in Parque Rodó has Uruguay's largest collection of paintings. The Juan Manuel Blanes Museum was founded in 1930, the 100th anniversary of the first Constitution of Uruguay, significant with regard to the fact that Juan Manuel Blanes painted Uruguayan patriotic themes. In back of the museum is a beautiful Japanese Garden with a pond where there are over a hundred carp. The Museo de Historia del Arte, located in the Palacio Municipal, features replicas of ancient monuments and exhibits a varied collection of artifacts from Egypt, Mesopotamia, Persia, Greece, Rome and Native American cultures including local finds of the pre-Columbian period. The Museo Municipal Precolombino y Colonial, in the Ciudad Vieja, has preserved collections of the archaeological finds from excavations carried out by Uruguayan archaeologist Antonio Taddei. These antiquaries are exhibits of pre-Columbian art of Latin America, painting and sculpture from the 17th and 18th century mostly from Mexico, Peru and Brazil. The Museo de Arte Contempo has small but impressive exhibits of modern Uruguayan painting and sculpture.
Where is the Museo de Guacho y de la Moneda located?
5725deea271a42140099d2c5
the Centro
99
False
What are bombillas?
5725deea271a42140099d2c6
(drinking straws
252
False
Where is the Museo Naval located?
5725deea271a42140099d2c7
the eastern waterfront in Buceo
317
False
Where is the Museo y Parque Fernando Garcia located?
5725deea271a42140099d2c8
Carrasco
591
False
There are also other types of museums in the city. The Museo del Gaucho y de la Moneda, located in the Centro, has distinctive displays of the historical culture of Uruguay's gauchos, their horse gear, silver work and mate (tea), gourds, and bombillas (drinking straws) in odd designs. The Museo Naval, is located on the eastern waterfront in Buceo and offers exhibits depicting the maritime history of Uruguay. The Museo del Automóvil, belonging to the Automobile Club of Uruguay, has a rich collection of vintage cars which includes a 1910 Hupmobile. The Museo y Parque Fernando García in Carrasco, a transport and automobile museum, includes old horse carriages and some early automobiles. The Castillo Pittamiglio, with an unusual façade, highlights the eccentric legacy of Humberto Pittamiglio, local alchemist and architect.
What is the center of traditional Uruguayan food and beverage in Montevideo?
5725df9238643c19005ace1b
the Mercado del Puerto
71
False
What is a torta frita?
5725df9238643c19005ace1c
a pan-fried cake
128
False
Where is Arcadia located?
5725df9238643c19005ace1d
atop the Plaza Victoria
567
False
Where is Shannon Irish pub located?
5725df9238643c19005ace1e
the eastern part of the Old District
1245
False
The center of traditional Uruguayan food and beverage in Montevideo is the Mercado del Puerto ("Port Market"). A torta frita is a pan-fried cake consumed in Montevideo and throughout Uruguay. It is generally circular, with a small cut in the centre for cooking, and is made from wheat flour, yeast, water and sugar or salt. Beef is very important in Uruguayan cuisine and an essential part of many dishes. Montevideo has a variety of restaurants, from traditional Uruguayan cuisine to Japanese cuisine such as sushi. Notable restaurants in Montevideo include Arcadia atop the Plaza Victoria, widely regarded to be the finest restaurant in the city. Arcadia is set in a classic Italian-inspired dining room and serves lavish dishes such as terrine of pheasant marinated in cognac, grilled lamb glazed with mint and garlic, and duck confit on thin strudel pastry with red cabbage. El Fogon is more popular with the late-night diners of the city. Its interior is brightly lit and the walls covered with big mirrors. Officially a barbecue and seafood restaurant, it serves grilled meat dishes, as well as salmon, shrimp and calamari. Also of note is the Cru. Numerous restaurants are located along the Rambla of Montevideo. There is an Irish pub in the eastern part of the Old District named Shannon Irish pub, another testament to the European heritage of the city.
What is the major annual festival in Montevideo?
5725e02d89a1e219009ac008
the annual Montevideo Carnaval
220
False
What is the annual Montevideo Carnaval part of?
5725e02d89a1e219009ac009
the national festival of Carnival Week
268
False
What does Tablados mean?
5725e02d89a1e219009ac00a
popular scenes
742
False
What does Desfile de las Llamadas mean?
5725e02d89a1e219009ac00b
Parade of the Calls
866
False
As the capital of Uruguay, Montevideo is home to a number of festivals and carnivals including a Gaucho festival when people ride through the streets on horseback in traditional gaucho gear. The major annual festival is the annual Montevideo Carnaval which is part of the national festival of Carnival Week, celebrated throughout Uruguay, with central activities in the capital, Montevideo. Officially, the public holiday lasts for two days on Carnival Monday and Shrove Tuesday preceding Ash Wednesday, but due to the prominence of the festival, most shops and businesses close for the entire week. During carnival there are many open-air stage performances and competitions and the streets and houses are vibrantly decorated. "Tablados" or popular scenes, both fixed and movable, are erected in the whole city. Notable displays include "Desfile de las Llamadas" ("Parade of the Calls"), which is a grand united parade held on the south part of downtown, where it used to be a common ritual back in the early 20th century. Due to the scale of the festival, preparation begins as early as December with an election of the "zonal beauty queens" to appear in the carnival.
Church and state have been officially separated in Uruguay since what year?
5725e0fb89a1e219009ac01a
1916
48
False
What religion has the most followers in Montevideo?
5725e0fb89a1e219009ac01b
Roman Catholicism
115
False
When was the Roman Catholic Archdiocese of Montevideo created?
5725e0fb89a1e219009ac01c
1830
284
False
Church and state are officially separated since 1916 in Uruguay. The religion with most followers in Montevideo is Roman Catholicism and has been so since the foundation of the city. The Roman Catholic Archdiocese of Montevideo was created as the Apostolic Vicariate of Montevideo in 1830. The vicariate was promoted to the Diocese of Montevideo on 13 July 1878. Pope Leo XIII elevated it to the rank of a metropolitan archdiocese on 14 April 1897. The new archdiocese became the Metropolitan of the suffragan sees of Canelones, Florida, Maldonado–Punta del Este, Melo, Mercedes, Minas, Salto, San José de Mayo, Tacuarembó.
What does Nuestra Senora del Sagrado Corazon mean?
5725e17789a1e219009ac020
Our Lady of the Sacred Heart
37
False
What does Iglesia Punta Carretas mean?
5725e17789a1e219009ac021
Punta Carretas Church
108
False
Between what years was the Iglesia Punta Carretas built?
5725e17789a1e219009ac022
between 1917 and 1927
143
False
What stle was the Iglesia Punta Carretas built in?
5725e17789a1e219009ac023
Romanesque Revival style
172
False
Nuestra Señora del Sagrado Corazón ("Our Lady of the Sacred Heart"), also known as Iglesia Punta Carretas ("Punta Carretas Church"), was built between 1917 and 1927 in the Romanesque Revival style. The church was originally part of the Order of Friars Minor Capuchin, but is presently in the parish of the Ecclesiastic Curia. Its location is at the corner of Solano García and José Ellauri. It has a nave and aisles. The roof has many vaults. During the construction of the Punta Carretas Shopping complex, major cracks developed in the structure of the church as a result of differential foundation settlement.
What is the country's largest university?
5725e1ec89a1e219009ac028
The University of the Republic
0
False
In 2007 the University of the Republic had a student body of how many people?
5725e1ec89a1e219009ac029
81,774
110
False
When was the University of the Republic founded?
5725e1ec89a1e219009ac02a
18 July 1849
169
False
Who is the current rector of The University of the Republic?
5725e1ec89a1e219009ac02b
Dr. Rodrigo Arocena
281
False
The University of the Republic is the country's largest and most important university, with a student body of 81,774, according to the census of 2007. It was founded on 18 July 1849 in Montevideo, where most of its buildings and facilities are still located. Its current Rector is Dr. Rodrigo Arocena. The university houses 14 faculties (departments) and various institutes and schools. Many eminent Uruguayans have graduated from this university, including Carlos Vaz Ferreira, José Luis Massera, Gabriel Paternain, Mario Wschebor, Roman Fresnedo Siri, Carlos Ott and Eladio Dieste
When did the process of funding the country's public university begin?
5725e2ad38643c19005ace2d
11 June 1833
65
False
Who proposed the law that began the process of funding the country's public university?
5725e2ad38643c19005ace2e
Senator Dámaso Antonio Larrañaga
116
False
When was the House of General Studies formed?
5725e2ad38643c19005ace2f
1836
339
False
When did Manuel Oribe pass a decree establishing the Greater University of the Republic?
5725e2ad38643c19005ace30
27 May 1838
476
False
The process of founding the country's public university began on 11 June 1833 with the passage of a law proposed by Senator Dámaso Antonio Larrañaga. It called for the creation of nine academic departments; the President of the Republic would pass a decree formally creating the departments once the majority of them were in operation. In 1836, the House of General Studies was formed, housing the departments of Latin, philosophy, mathematics, theology and jurisprudence. On 27 May 1838, Manuel Oribe passed a decree establishing the Greater University of the Republic. That decree had few practical effects, given the institutional instability of the Oriental Republic of the Uruguay at that time.
What is the largest private university in Uruguay?
5725e35889a1e219009ac030
ORT Uruguay
74
False
When was ORT Uruguay established?
5725e35889a1e219009ac031
1942
140
False
When was ORT Uruguay officially certified as a private university?
5725e35889a1e219009ac032
September 1996
202
False
How many students does the ORT Uruguay university have?
5725e35889a1e219009ac033
about 8,000
480
False
The largest private university in Uruguay, is also located in Montevideo. ORT Uruguay was first established as a non-profit organization in 1942, and was officially certified as a private university in September 1996, becoming the second private educational institution in the country to achieve that status.[citation needed] It is a member of World ORT, an international educational network founded in 1880 by the Jewish community in Saint Petersburg, Russia. The university has about 8,000 students, distributed among 5 faculties and institutes, mainly geared towards the sciences and technology/engineering. Its current rector as of 2010[update] is Dr. Jorge A. Grünberg.
What is the main methodist educational institution in Uruguay?
5725e3de89a1e219009ac042
The Montevideo Crandon Institute
0
False
When was the Montevideo Crandon Institute founded?
5725e3de89a1e219009ac043
1879
146
False
What is the first academic institution in South America where a home economics course was taught?
5725e3de89a1e219009ac044
The Montevideo Crandon Institute
466
False
The Montevideo Crandon Institute is an American School of missionary origin and the main Methodist educational institution in Uruguay. Founded in 1879 and supported by the Women's Society of the Methodist Church of the United States, it is one of the most traditional and emblematic institutions in the city inculcating John Wesley's values. Its alumni include presidents, senators, ambassadors and Nobel Prize winners, along with musicians, scientists, and others. The Montevideo Crandon Institute boasts of being the first academic institution in South America where a home economics course was taught.
Where is the Christian Brothers of Ireland Stella Maris College located?
5725e47289a1e219009ac052
Carrasco
181
False
When was the Christian Brothers of Ireland Stella Maris College established?
5725e47289a1e219009ac053
1955
206
False
What is regarded as one of the best high schools in the country?
5725e47289a1e219009ac054
The Christian Brothers of Ireland Stella Maris College
0
False
Who is the headmaster of the Christian Brothers of Ireland Stella Maris College?
5725e47289a1e219009ac055
professor Juan Pedro Toni
379
False
The Christian Brothers of Ireland Stella Maris College is a private, co-educational, not-for-profit Catholic school located in the wealthy residential southeastern neighbourhood of Carrasco. Established in 1955, it is regarded as one of the best high schools in the country, blending a rigorous curriculum with strong extracurricular activities. The school's headmaster, history professor Juan Pedro Toni, is a member of the Stella Maris Board of Governors and the school is a member of the International Baccalaureate Organization (IBO). Its long list of distinguished former pupils includes economists, engineers, architects, lawyers, politicians and even F1 champions. The school has also played an important part in the development of rugby union in Uruguay, with the creation of Old Christians Club, the school's alumni club.
Where is the British Schools of Montevideo located?
5725e50889a1e219009ac064
Carrasco
8
False
When was the British Schools of Montevideo established?
5725e50889a1e219009ac065
1908
129
False
What was the British Schools of Montevideo original purpose?
5725e50889a1e219009ac066
to give Uruguayan children a complete education
177
False
Also in Carrasco is The British Schools of Montevideo, one of the oldest educational institutions in the country, established in 1908.[citation needed] Its original purpose was to give Uruguayan children a complete education, on par with the best schools of the United Kingdom and to establish strong bonds between the British and Uruguayan children living in the country. The School is governed by the Board of Governors, elected by the British Schools Society in Uruguay, whose honorary president is the British Ambassador to Uruguay. Prominent alumni include former government ministers Pedro Bordaberry Herrán and Gabriel Gurméndez Armand-Ugon.
Where is St. Brendan's school located?
5725e62789a1e219009ac06a
Cordon
11
False
What was St. Brendan's school previously named?
5725e62789a1e219009ac06b
St.Catherine´s
53
False
What is the only school in the country implementing three international Baccalaureate Programmes?
5725e62789a1e219009ac06c
St.Brendan´s school
19
False
Located in Cordon, St.Brendan´s school, before named St.Catherine´s is a non-profit civil association, which has a solid institutional culture with a clear vision of the future. It is knowned for being one of the best schools in the country, joining students from the wealthiest parts of Montevideo, such us, Punta Carretas, Pocitos, Malvin and Carrasco. St. Brendan’s School is a bilingual, non-denominational school that promotes a pedagogical constructivist approach focused on the child as a whole. In this approach, understanding is built from the connections children make between their own prior knowledge and the learning experiences, thus developing critical thinking skills. It is also the only school in the country implementing the three International Baccalaureate Programmes. These are:
What is the national football stadium in Parque Batlle?
5725e6a389a1e219009ac070
Estadio Centenario
0
False
When was Estadio Centenario opened?
5725e6a389a1e219009ac071
1930
82
False
How many seats does the Estadio Centenario have?
5725e6a389a1e219009ac072
70,000
283
False
Estadio Centenario, the national football stadium in Parque Batlle, was opened in 1930 for the first World Cup, as well as to commemorate the centennial of Uruguay's first constitution. In this World Cup, Uruguay won the title game against Argentina by 4 goals to 2. The stadium has 70,000 seats. It is listed by FIFA as one of the football world's classic stadiums, along with Maracanã, Wembley Stadium, San Siro, Estadio Azteca, and Santiago Bernabéu Stadium. A museum located within the football stadium has exhibits of memorabilia from Uruguay's 1930 and 1950 World Cup championships. Museum tickets give access to the stadium, stands, locker rooms and playing field.
Where is the Uruguayan Basketball League headquartered?
5725e80089a1e219009ac076
Montevideo
52
False
When was the Golf Club of Punta Carretas founded?
5725e80089a1e219009ac077
1894
483
False
Equestrianism regained importance in Montevideo after what?
5725e80089a1e219009ac078
the Maroñas Racecourse reopened
292
False
The Uruguayan Basketball League is headquartered in Montevideo and most of its teams are from the city, including Defensor Sporting, Biguá, Aguada, Goes, Malvín, Unión Atlética, and Trouville. Montevideo is also a centre of rugby; equestrianism, which regained importance in Montevideo after the Maroñas Racecourse reopened; golf, with the Club de Punta Carretas; and yachting, with the Puerto del Buceo, an ideal place to moor yachts. The Golf Club of Punta Carretas was founded in 1894 covers all the area encircled by the west side of Bulevar Artigas, the Rambla (Montevideo's promenade) and the Parque Rodó (Fun Fair).
What does DNT stand for?
5725e87aec44d21400f3d73d
Dirección Nacional de Transporte
4
False
Who is responsible for the organization and development of Montevideo's transport infrastructure?
5725e87aec44d21400f3d73e
Dirección Nacional de Transporte
4
False
Where is the Tres Cruces Bus Terminal located?
5725e87aec44d21400f3d73f
the lower level of the Tres Cruces Shopping Center
319
False
The Dirección Nacional de Transporte (DNT), part of the national Ministry of Transport and Public Works, is responsible for the organization and development of Montevideo's transport infrastructure. A bus service network covers the entire city. An international bus station, the Tres Cruces Bus Terminal, is located on the lower level of the Tres Cruces Shopping Center, on the side of Artigas Boulevard. This terminal, along with the Baltazar Brum Bus Terminal (or Rio Branco Terminal) by the Port of Montevideo, handles the long distance and intercity bus routes connecting to destinations within Uruguay.
What does the AFE stand for?
5725e90738643c19005ace65
The State Railways Administration of Uruguay
0
False
What neighborhood is the General Artigas Central Station located?
5725e90738643c19005ace66
Aguada
496
False
When was the General Artigas Central Station abandoned?
5725e90738643c19005ace67
1 March 2003
565
False
The State Railways Administration of Uruguay (AFE) operates three commuter rail lines, namely the Empalme Olmos, San Jose and Florida. These lines operate to major suburban areas of Canelones, San José and Florida. Within the Montevideo city limits, local trains stop at Lorenzo Carnelli, Yatai (Step Mill), Sayago, Columbus (line to San Jose and Florida), Peñarol and Manga (line Empalme Olmos) stations. The historic 19th century General Artigas Central Station located in the neighbourhood of Aguada, six blocks from the central business district, was abandoned 1 March 2003 and remains closed. A new station, 500 metres (1,600 ft) north of the old one and part of the Tower of Communications modern complex, has taken over the rail traffic.
What gives natural protection to ships in Montevideo?
5725ea3089a1e219009ac098
The port on Montevideo Bay
0
False
Between what years did the main engineering work on the port of Montevideo Bay take place?
5725ea3089a1e219009ac099
1870 and 1930
341
False
What happened in 1923 that required repairs to many of the city's engineering works?
5725ea3089a1e219009ac09a
A major storm
565
False
The port on Montevideo Bay is one of the reasons the city was founded. It gives natural protection to ships, although two jetties now further protect the harbour entrance from waves. This natural port is competitive with the other great port of Río de la Plata, Buenos Aires. The main engineering work on the port occurred between the years 1870 and 1930. These six decades saw the construction of the port's first wooden pier, several warehouses in La Aguada, the north and south Rambla, a river port, a new pier, the dredged river basin and the La Teja refinery. A major storm in 1923 necessitated repairs to many of the city's engineering works. Since the second half of the 20th century, physical changes have ceased, and since that time the area has degraded due to national economic stagnation.
What is one of the oldest hospitals in Uruguay?
5725eaa6ec44d21400f3d74d
Hospital Maciel
0
False
Who originally donated the land for Hospital Macie?
5725eaa6ec44d21400f3d74e
Francisco Antonio Maciel
268
False
When was the first building of the Hospital Maciel established?
5725eaa6ec44d21400f3d74f
between 1781 and 1788
397
False
Hospital Maciel is one of the oldest hospitals in Uruguay and stands on the block bounded by the streets Maciel, 25 de Mayo, Guaraní and Washington, with the main entrance at 25 de Mayo, 172. The land was originally donated in Spanish colonial times by philanthropist Francisco Antonio Maciel, who teamed up with Mateo Vidal to establish a hospital and charity. The first building was constructed between 1781 and 1788 and later expanded upon. The present building stems from the 1825 plans of José Toribio (son of Tomás Toribio) and later Bernardo Poncini (wing on the Guaraní street, 1859), Eduardo Canstatt (corner of Guaraní and 25 de Mayo) and Julián Masquelez (1889). The hospital has a chapel built in Greek style by Miguel Estévez in 1798.
What is the only psychiatric hospital in Montevideo?
5725ebb3ec44d21400f3d753
Hospital Vilardebó
0
False
Who is Hospital Vilardebo named after?
5725ebb3ec44d21400f3d754
Teodoro Vilardebó Matuliche
108
False
When did the Hospital Vilardebo open?
5725ebb3ec44d21400f3d755
21 May 1880
147
False
How many inpatients did the the Hospital Vilardebo have in 1915?
5725ebb3ec44d21400f3d756
1,500 inpatients
241
False
Hospital Vilardebó is the only psychiatric hospital in Montevideo. Named after the physician and naturalist Teodoro Vilardebó Matuliche, it opened 21 May 1880. The hospital was originally one of the best of Latin America and in 1915 grew to 1,500 inpatients. Today the hospital is very deteriorated, with broken walls and floors, lack of medicines, beds, and rooms for the personnel. It has an emergency service, outpatient, clinic and inpatient rooms and employs approximately 610 staff, psychologists, psychiatrists, social workers, administrators, guards, among others. The average patient age is 30 years; more than half of the patients arrive by court order; 42% suffer from schizophrenia, 18% from depression and mania, and there are also a high percentage of drug addicted patients.
Poultry
What is the significance of poultry in the lives of humans?
5725b87189a1e219009abd66
kept by humans for the eggs they produce, their meat, their feathers, or sometimes as pets.
45
False
Are all domesticated and wild birds classified as poultry  ?
5725b87189a1e219009abd67
but does not include similar wild birds hunted for sport or food and known as game.
534
False
What types of  birds are most commonly considered poultry?
5725b87189a1e219009abd68
chickens, quails and turkeys
264
False
Was the Latin word for poultry also used to decribe other small animals as opposed to any poulty?
5725b87189a1e219009abd69
from the Latin word pullus, which means small animal.
693
False
Are any other birds considered common in the world of poultry?
5725b87189a1e219009abd6a
domestic ducks and domestic geese.
386
False
Poultry
0
What are domesticated birds kept by humans for the meat they produce?
5a84cda07cf838001a46aa98
True
small animal
733
What is the definition of the French word "pullus?"
5a84cda07cf838001a46aa99
True
Galloanserae
194
What is the French term for "fowl?"
5a84cda07cf838001a46aa9a
True
Anseriformes
328
What is the Norman term for "waterfowl?"
5a84cda07cf838001a46aa9b
True
squabs
526
What is the Latin word for pigeons?
5a84cda07cf838001a46aa9c
True
for the eggs they produce, their meat, their feathers, or sometimes as pets
60
What is the significance of poultry in the lives of aliens?
5a85bfd2b4e223001a8e71eb
True
chickens, quails and turkeys
264
What types of birds are rarely considered poultry?
5a85bfd2b4e223001a8e71ec
True
pullus
713
What word means to eat small animals in Latin?
5a85bfd2b4e223001a8e71ed
True
domestic ducks and domestic geese
386
What birds are no longer considered as poultry?
5a85bfd2b4e223001a8e71ee
True
French/Norman
652
What language was the word "poultry" banned from?
5a85bfd2b4e223001a8e71ef
True
Poultry (/ˌpoʊltriː/) are domesticated birds kept by humans for the eggs they produce, their meat, their feathers, or sometimes as pets. These birds are most typically members of the superorder Galloanserae (fowl), especially the order Galliformes (which includes chickens, quails and turkeys) and the family Anatidae, in order Anseriformes, commonly known as "waterfowl" and including domestic ducks and domestic geese. Poultry also includes other birds that are killed for their meat, such as the young of pigeons (known as squabs) but does not include similar wild birds hunted for sport or food and known as game. The word "poultry" comes from the French/Norman word poule, itself derived from the Latin word pullus, which means small animal.
How long have humans used domsticated poultry ?
5725c085ec44d21400f3d4c3
domestication of poultry took place several thousand years ago
4
False
What have people use domesticated poultry for besides food ?
5725c085ec44d21400f3d4c4
cockfighting at first and quail kept for their songs
296
False
Why did humans feel that addtional breeding tatics were necessary in poulty?
5725c085ec44d21400f3d4c5
Selective breeding for fast growth, egg-laying ability, conformation, plumage and docility took place
431
False
Has breeding changed the original characterictics of the animals ?
5725c085ec44d21400f3d4c6
modern breeds often look very different from their wild ancestors.
557
False
How popular is poultry as a consumable among humans ?
5725c085ec44d21400f3d4c7
Poultry is the second most widely eaten type of meat globally
786
False
Poultry
786
What is the second most widely eaten type of food domestically?
5a84cf967cf838001a46aaa2
True
several thousand years
40
How long did it take to domesticate poultry?
5a84cf967cf838001a46aaa3
True
cockfighting
296
What were wild chickens used for at first?
5a84cf967cf838001a46aaa4
True
their songs
337
What were wild quail kept for at first?
5a84cf967cf838001a46aaa5
True
several thousand years
40
How long have humans avoided domesticated poultry?
5a85c17db4e223001a8e71f5
True
cockfighting at first and quail kept for their songs
296
What have people use domesticated poultry for aside from medicine?
5a85c17db4e223001a8e71f6
True
breeding for fast growth, egg-laying ability, conformation, plumage and docility
441
Why did humans feel that additional breeding tactics were unnecessary in poultry?
5a85c17db4e223001a8e71f7
True
second most widely eaten type of meat globally
801
How popular is pottery consumption among humans?
5a85c17db4e223001a8e71f8
True
took place over the centuries
522
Why do modern breeds look the same as their wild ancestors?
5a85c17db4e223001a8e71f9
True
The domestication of poultry took place several thousand years ago. This may have originally been as a result of people hatching and rearing young birds from eggs collected from the wild, but later involved keeping the birds permanently in captivity. Domesticated chickens may have been used for cockfighting at first and quail kept for their songs, but soon it was realised how useful it was having a captive-bred source of food. Selective breeding for fast growth, egg-laying ability, conformation, plumage and docility took place over the centuries, and modern breeds often look very different from their wild ancestors. Although some birds are still kept in small flocks in extensive systems, most birds available in the market today are reared in intensive commercial enterprises. Poultry is the second most widely eaten type of meat globally and, along with eggs, provides nutritionally beneficial food containing high-quality protein accompanied by a low proportion of fat. All poultry meat should be properly handled and sufficiently cooked in order to reduce the risk of food poisoning.
What two addtional types of birds are listed in teh Encyclopedia Britanica as poultry?
5725c40889a1e219009abe22
guinea fowl and squabs (young pigeons)
472
False
Who is the authoor of the book Poultry Breeding and Genetics?
5725c40889a1e219009abe23
R. D. Crawford
515
False
What is the most likely outout for the common variety of pheasant ?
5725c40889a1e219009abe24
frequently being bred in captivity and released into the wild.
655
False
Edmund Dixon is most famous for what inclusions in his 1854 book on poultry ?
5725c40889a1e219009abe25
peafowl, guinea fowl, mute swan, turkey, various types of geese, the muscovy duck, other ducks and all types of chickens including bantams
857
False
Do all language make the distinction between poultry and fowls?
5725c40889a1e219009abe26
many languages do not distinguish between "poultry" and "fowl
1155
False
squabs
488
What is the Japanese term for young pigeons?
5a84d0da7cf838001a46aaaa
True
Poultry breeding and genetics
532
What book did D. R. Crawford write?
5a84d0da7cf838001a46aaab
True
Ornamental and Domestic Poultry: Their History, and Management
755
What book was written in 1884?
5a84d0da7cf838001a46aaac
True
Gallus gallus
1096
What is the Japanese term for "domesticated chicken?"
5a84d0da7cf838001a46aaad
True
guinea fowl
472
What is the only type of bird listed in the Encyclopedia Britannica as poultry?
5a85c369b4e223001a8e71ff
True
R. D. Crawford
515
Who is the jailed author of the book Poultry Breeding and Genetics?
5a85c369b4e223001a8e7200
True
Japan
586
What country has no birds that are considered poultry?
5a85c369b4e223001a8e7201
True
fowl
1212
What word means the opposite of poultry?
5a85c369b4e223001a8e7202
True
Edmund Dixon
819
Who wrote the 1842 classic book on poultry, Ornamental and Domestic Poultry: Their History, and Management?
5a85c369b4e223001a8e7203
True
"Poultry" is a term used for any kind of domesticated bird, captive-raised for its utility, and traditionally the word has been used to refer to wildfowl (Galliformes) and waterfowl (Anseriformes). "Poultry" can be defined as domestic fowls, including chickens, turkeys, geese and ducks, raised for the production of meat or eggs and the word is also used for the flesh of these birds used as food. The Encyclopædia Britannica lists the same bird groups but also includes guinea fowl and squabs (young pigeons). In R. D. Crawford's Poultry breeding and genetics, squabs are omitted but Japanese quail and common pheasant are added to the list, the latter frequently being bred in captivity and released into the wild. In his 1848 classic book on poultry, Ornamental and Domestic Poultry: Their History, and Management, Edmund Dixon included chapters on the peafowl, guinea fowl, mute swan, turkey, various types of geese, the muscovy duck, other ducks and all types of chickens including bantams. In colloquial speech, the term "fowl" is often used near-synonymously with "domesticated chicken" (Gallus gallus), or with "poultry" or even just "bird", and many languages do not distinguish between "poultry" and "fowl". Both words are also used for the flesh of these birds. Poultry can be distinguished from "game", defined as wild birds or mammals hunted for food or sport, a word also used to describe the flesh of these when eaten.
What are male chickens called ?
5725c6b038643c19005accc1
cocks
145
False
How are male chickens able to be identified ?
5725c6b038643c19005accc2
cocks, are usually larger, more boldly coloured, and have more exaggerated plumage than females (hens).
145
False
What do chickens normally consume when in the natural wild environment?
5725c6b038643c19005accc3
in their natural surroundings search among the leaf litter for seeds, invertebrates, and other small animals.
313
False
Do chickens fly like other birds?
5725c6b038643c19005accc4
They seldom fly except as a result of perceived danger, preferring to run into the undergrowth if approached.
423
False
From what birds are chickens decended from ?
5725c6b038643c19005accc5
Today's domestic chicken (Gallus gallus domesticus) is mainly descended from the wild red junglefowl of Asia
533
False
Chickens
0
What are characterized by red wattles on their heads?
5a84d2627cf838001a46aac4
True
cocks
145
What do hens have more exaggerated plumage than?
5a84d2627cf838001a46aac5
True
Domestication
692
What is thought to have taken place 1,000 to 17,000 years ago?
5a84d2627cf838001a46aac6
True
fossilized chicken bones
801
What has been found in China dating back to 4500 BC?
5a84d2627cf838001a46aac7
True
Indus Valley
1068
Where did chickens reach by 4250 years ago?
5a84d2627cf838001a46aac8
True
cocks
145
What are male chickens never allowed to be called?
5a85c4b0b4e223001a8e7209
True
seeds, invertebrates, and other small animals
376
What do chickens always consume when in artificial environments?
5a85c4b0b4e223001a8e720a
True
as a result of perceived danger, preferring to run into the undergrowth if approached
446
Why are chickens unable to fly?
5a85c4b0b4e223001a8e720b
True
wild red junglefowl of Asia
614
What birds are chickens superior to?
5a85c4b0b4e223001a8e720c
True
between 7,000 and 10,000 years ago
738
When did the domestication of chickens fail?
5a85c4b0b4e223001a8e720d
True
Chickens are medium-sized, chunky birds with an upright stance and characterised by fleshy red combs and wattles on their heads. Males, known as cocks, are usually larger, more boldly coloured, and have more exaggerated plumage than females (hens). Chickens are gregarious, omnivorous, ground-dwelling birds that in their natural surroundings search among the leaf litter for seeds, invertebrates, and other small animals. They seldom fly except as a result of perceived danger, preferring to run into the undergrowth if approached. Today's domestic chicken (Gallus gallus domesticus) is mainly descended from the wild red junglefowl of Asia, with some additional input from grey junglefowl. Domestication is believed to have taken place between 7,000 and 10,000 years ago, and what are thought to be fossilized chicken bones have been found in northeastern China dated to around 5,400 BC. Archaeologists believe domestication was originally for the purpose of cockfighting, the male bird being a doughty fighter. By 4,000 years ago, chickens seem to have reached the Indus Valley and 250 years later, they arrived in Egypt. They were still used for fighting and were regarded as symbols of fertility. The Romans used them in divination, and the Egyptians made a breakthrough when they learned the difficult technique of artificial incubation. Since then, the keeping of chickens has spread around the world for the production of food with the domestic fowl being a valuable source of both eggs and meat.
Are there any purebreed lines for poultry today?
57263eda271a42140099d7cb
with the exception of the white Leghorn, most commercial birds are of hybrid origin.
91
False
When did the poultry business boom in the United States ?
57263eda271a42140099d7cc
By the mid-20th century, the poultry meat-producing industry was of greater importance than the egg-laying industry
402
False
How has breeding helped in the pultry industry?
57263eda271a42140099d7cd
light-framed, egg-laying birds that can produce 300 eggs a year; fast-growing, fleshy birds destined for consumption
595
False
How can you normally identify a cock when recently hatched?
57263eda271a42140099d7ce
can often be identified as soon as they are hatch for subsequent culling
877
False
chickens began to be kept on a larger scale
191
What began in 1820?
5a84d43f7cf838001a46aace
True
modern high-output poultry farms
240
What became present in the United Kingdom in 1900?
5a84d43f7cf838001a46aacf
True
the egg-laying industry
494
What was of greater importance than the poultry meat-producing industry in the mid-20th century?
5a84d43f7cf838001a46aad0
True
300
643
How many eggs can male birds produce in a year?
5a84d43f7cf838001a46aad1
True
1920
320
What year did modern high-output poultry farms become established in the United States?
5a84d43f7cf838001a46aad2
True
with the exception of the white Leghorn, most commercial birds are of hybrid origin
91
Why does no breeding for poultry exist today?
5a85c600b4e223001a8e7213
True
the mid-20th century
405
When did the poultry business end permanently in the United States?
5a85c600b4e223001a8e7214
True
light-framed, egg-laying birds that can produce 300 eggs a year; fast-growing, fleshy birds destined for consumption
595
How has breeding destroyed the poultry industry?
5a85c600b4e223001a8e7215
True
has more tender and flavorful meat
1081
How can you normally identify a cock when it doesn't hatch?
5a85c600b4e223001a8e7216
True
Male birds
822
What birds are castrated to increase aggression?
5a85c600b4e223001a8e7217
True
Since their domestication, a large number of breeds of chickens have been established, but with the exception of the white Leghorn, most commercial birds are of hybrid origin. In about 1800, chickens began to be kept on a larger scale, and modern high-output poultry farms were present in the United Kingdom from around 1920 and became established in the United States soon after the Second World War. By the mid-20th century, the poultry meat-producing industry was of greater importance than the egg-laying industry. Poultry breeding has produced breeds and strains to fulfil different needs; light-framed, egg-laying birds that can produce 300 eggs a year; fast-growing, fleshy birds destined for consumption at a young age, and utility birds which produce both an acceptable number of eggs and a well-fleshed carcase. Male birds are unwanted in the egg-laying industry and can often be identified as soon as they are hatch for subsequent culling. In meat breeds, these birds are sometimes castrated (often chemically) to prevent aggression. The resulting bird, called a capon, has more tender and flavorful meat, as well.
What breed of chicken is named after a town in Java ?
57263fe1ec44d21400f3dcc9
A bantam
0
False
How are bantams different from other chickens?
57263fe1ec44d21400f3dcca
A bantam is a small variety of domestic chicken, either a miniature version of a member of a standard breed, or a "true bantam" with no larger counterpart
0
False
Do bantams lay regular sized eggs ?
57263fe1ec44d21400f3dccb
Bantams may be a quarter to a third of the size of standard birds and lay similarly small eggs
290
False
Where are bantams kept?
57263fe1ec44d21400f3dccc
kept by small-holders and hobbyists for egg production, use as broody hens, ornamental purposes, and showing.
395
False
bantam
2
What is the name for a small variety of European chicken?
5a84d5577cf838001a46aae2
True
Bantam
190
What country is the town of Java located in?
5a84d5577cf838001a46aae3
True
shipboard supplies
270
Domestic sailors bought small chickens for what?
5a84d5577cf838001a46aae4
True
A bantam
0
What breed of worm is named after a town in Java?
5a85ce89b4e223001a8e721d
True
A bantam is a small variety of domestic chicken
0
Why are bantams not considered an animal?
5a85ce89b4e223001a8e721e
True
Bantams
290
What bird is unable to lay eggs due to the small size?
5a85ce89b4e223001a8e721f
True
kept by small-holders and hobbyists for egg production, use as broody hens, ornamental purposes, and showing
395
Where are bantams usually hidden?
5a85ce89b4e223001a8e7220
True
European sailors
211
What sailors disliked small chickens?
5a85ce89b4e223001a8e7221
True
A bantam is a small variety of domestic chicken, either a miniature version of a member of a standard breed, or a "true bantam" with no larger counterpart. The name derives from the town of Bantam in Java where European sailors bought the local small chickens for their shipboard supplies. Bantams may be a quarter to a third of the size of standard birds and lay similarly small eggs. They are kept by small-holders and hobbyists for egg production, use as broody hens, ornamental purposes, and showing.
How long ago was the sport of fighting chickens been around?
572640f689a1e219009ac5fe
Cockfighting is said to be the world's oldest spectator sport and may have originated in Persia 6,000 years ago.
0
False
What is the termed used to define the game of fighting chickens called?
572640f689a1e219009ac5ff
Cockfighting
0
False
Do chickens die in the sport of cockfighting?
572640f689a1e219009ac600
fight each other, and will do so with great vigour until one is critically injured or killed.
161
False
Have theere been any types of chickens who were really good at cockfighting?
572640f689a1e219009ac601
Breeds such as the Aseel were developed in the Indian subcontinent for their aggressive behaviour
255
False
Do people bet on the cockfighting or is it just for entertainment?
572640f689a1e219009ac602
large sums were won or lost depending on the outcome of an encounter.
448
False
Aseel
274
What breed of rooster was developed in the Chinese subcontinent?
5a84d8787cf838001a46ab04
True
Cockfighting
0
What is said to be Persia's oldest spectator sport?
5a84d8787cf838001a46ab05
True
on the grounds of cruelty to animals.
589
Why has cockfighting has been banned in many cultures during the last century?
5a84d8787cf838001a46ab06
True
6,000 years ago
96
When was the sport of fighting chickens stopped?
5a85cff6b4e223001a8e7227
True
Cockfighting
0
What is the term used to define the game of breeding chickens called?
5a85cff6b4e223001a8e7228
True
fight each other, and will do so with great vigour until one is critically injured or killed
161
What are chickens not going to do during a cockfight?
5a85cff6b4e223001a8e7229
True
Breeds such as the Aseel were developed in the Indian subcontinent for their aggressive behaviour
255
Have there been any types of kittens who were really good at cockfighting?
5a85cff6b4e223001a8e722a
True
large sums were won or lost depending on the outcome of an encounter
448
Why is cockfighting no longer something people want to be involved with?
5a85cff6b4e223001a8e722b
True
Cockfighting is said to be the world's oldest spectator sport and may have originated in Persia 6,000 years ago. Two mature males (cocks or roosters) are set to fight each other, and will do so with great vigour until one is critically injured or killed. Breeds such as the Aseel were developed in the Indian subcontinent for their aggressive behaviour. The sport formed part of the culture of the ancient Indians, Chinese, Greeks, and Romans, and large sums were won or lost depending on the outcome of an encounter. Cockfighting has been banned in many countries during the last century on the grounds of cruelty to animals.
How can you identify a duck from other poultry?
57264268271a42140099d7eb
medium-sized aquatic birds with broad bills, eyes on the side of the head, fairly long necks, short legs set far back on the body, and webbed feet.
10
False
What do you call a male duck?
57264268271a42140099d7ec
drakes
174
False
How can you identify a drake from a the female of the species?
57264268271a42140099d7ed
larger than females (simply known as ducks) and are differently coloured in some breeds
192
False
What does the diet of cultivated ducks consistof ?
57264268271a42140099d7ee
aquatic insects, molluscs, worms, small amphibians, waterweeds, and grasses.
366
False
Do all ducks fly south for the winter?
57264268271a42140099d7ef
Most domestic ducks are too heavy to fly
536
False
Ducks are medium-sized aquatic birds
0
Why can't you identify a duck from other poultry?
5a85ddf3b4e223001a8e723b
True
drakes
174
What can you never call a male duck?
5a85ddf3b4e223001a8e723c
True
aquatic insects, molluscs, worms, small amphibians, waterweeds, and grasses
366
What does the diet of cultivated ducks not include?
5a85ddf3b4e223001a8e723d
True
Most domestic ducks
536
How many ducks hibernate during the winter?
5a85ddf3b4e223001a8e723e
True
fairly long necks
85
What makes it impossible for ducks to eat animals?
5a85ddf3b4e223001a8e723f
True
Ducks are medium-sized aquatic birds with broad bills, eyes on the side of the head, fairly long necks, short legs set far back on the body, and webbed feet. Males, known as drakes, are often larger than females (simply known as ducks) and are differently coloured in some breeds. Domestic ducks are omnivores, eating a variety of animal and plant materials such as aquatic insects, molluscs, worms, small amphibians, waterweeds, and grasses. They feed in shallow water by dabbling, with their heads underwater and their tails upended. Most domestic ducks are too heavy to fly, and they are social birds, preferring to live and move around together in groups. They keep their plumage waterproof by preening, a process that spreads the secretions of the preen gland over their feathers.
How long have ducks possibly been in domesticated domicile with humans?
572644e91125e71900ae1942
Clay models of ducks found in China dating back to 4000 BC may indicate the domestication of ducks took place there during the Yangshao culture
0
False
How far behind the east society was the western culture in domesticating ducks?
572644e91125e71900ae1943
domestication of the duck took place in the Far East at least 1500 years earlier than in the West
175
False
How did Lucius Columella recommend that one go abbout the business of domesticating ducks.?
572644e91125e71900ae1944
collect wildfowl eggs and put them under a broody hen,
367
False
When did ducks begin to appear in the books of Western Europeon Society ?
572644e91125e71900ae1945
ducks did not appear in agricultural texts in Western Europe until about 810 AD
568
False
Where ducks ever used as a type of commerence in the world?
572644e91125e71900ae1946
mentioned alongside geese, chickens, and peafowl as being used for rental payments made by tenants to landowners.
671
False
dating back to 4000 BC
36
How long have ducks continued to avoid humans?
5a85dfeeb4e223001a8e7245
True
took place in the Far East at least 1500 years earlier than in the West
201
How far behind the east society was the western culture in banning ducks?
5a85dfeeb4e223001a8e7246
True
collect wildfowl eggs and put them under a broody hen
367
How did Lucius Columella recommend that one go about the business of domesticating felines?
5a85dfeeb4e223001a8e7247
True
about 810 AD
635
When did ducks begin to disappear from the books of Western European Society?
5a85dfeeb4e223001a8e7248
True
Clay models of ducks found in China dating back to 4000 BC may indicate the domestication of ducks took place there during the Yangshao culture. Even if this is not the case, domestication of the duck took place in the Far East at least 1500 years earlier than in the West. Lucius Columella, writing in the first century BC, advised those who sought to rear ducks to collect wildfowl eggs and put them under a broody hen, because when raised in this way, the ducks "lay aside their wild nature and without hesitation breed when shut up in the bird pen". Despite this, ducks did not appear in agricultural texts in Western Europe until about 810 AD, when they began to be mentioned alongside geese, chickens, and peafowl as being used for rental payments made by tenants to landowners.
What breed of duck is considered the first?
572646a7708984140094c12d
mallard (Anas platyrhynchos) is the ancestor of all breeds of domestic duck (with the exception of the Muscovy duck
29
False
What are the outcomes of the breeding of ducks for humans?
572646a7708984140094c12e
various breeds have been developed, selected for egg-laying ability, fast growth, and a well-covered carcase.
297
False
What variety is the most common the the United States and the U.K.
572646a7708984140094c12f
Pekin duck
491
False
Why is the Pekin duck the favored of the western world?
572646a7708984140094c130
can lay 200 eggs a year and can reach a weight of 3.5 kg (7.7 lb) in 44 days
509
False
Why is duck more common than other poultry in the east society ??
572646a7708984140094c131
Ducks are more popular there than chickens and are mostly still herded in the traditional way and selected for their ability to find sufficient food in
949
False
mallard (Anas platyrhynchos)
29
What breed of duck is considered the worst?
5a85e192b4e223001a8e7257
True
various breeds have been developed, selected for egg-laying ability, fast growth, and a well-covered carcase
297
What are the outcomes of breeding ducks with humans?
5a85e192b4e223001a8e7258
True
Pekin duck
491
What variety of duck is no longer found in the US and the UK?
5a85e192b4e223001a8e7259
True
can lay 200 eggs a year and can reach a weight of 3.5 kg (7.7 lb) in 44 days
509
Why is the Pekin duck unfavorable in the western world?
5a85e192b4e223001a8e725a
True
Ducks
949
What common variety of poultry in the west is not found in the east?
5a85e192b4e223001a8e725b
True
It is widely agreed that the mallard (Anas platyrhynchos) is the ancestor of all breeds of domestic duck (with the exception of the Muscovy duck (Cairina moschata), which is not closely related to other ducks). Ducks are farmed mainly for their meat, eggs, and down. As is the case with chickens, various breeds have been developed, selected for egg-laying ability, fast growth, and a well-covered carcase. The most common commercial breed in the United Kingdom and the United States is the Pekin duck, which can lay 200 eggs a year and can reach a weight of 3.5 kg (7.7 lb) in 44 days. In the Western world, ducks are not as popular as chickens, because the latter produce larger quantities of white, lean meat and are easier to keep intensively, making the price of chicken meat lower than that of duck meat. While popular in haute cuisine, duck appears less frequently in the mass-market food industry. However, things are different in the East. Ducks are more popular there than chickens and are mostly still herded in the traditional way and selected for their ability to find sufficient food in harvested rice fields and other wet environments.
When was the greylag goose first domesticated by humans?
57264781f1498d1400e8daf6
The greylag goose (Anser anser) was domesticated by the Egyptians at least 3000 years ago
0
False
What other name is the swan goose know by ?
57264781f1498d1400e8daf7
Chinese goose
223
False
Where is it believed that the greylag goose was first domesticated in theworld?
57264781f1498d1400e8daf8
Siberia
171
False
Are geese an important part of the poultry industry?
57264781f1498d1400e8daf9
Despite their early domestication, geese have never gained the commercial importance of chickens and ducks.
483
False
at least 3000 years ago
66
When was the greylag goose domesticated by the Romans?
5a85e576b4e223001a8e7289
True
Chinese goose
223
What other name is the swan goose no longer known by?
5a85e576b4e223001a8e728a
True
Siberia
171
Where is it believed that the greylag goose was never domesticated?
5a85e576b4e223001a8e728b
True
geese
518
What is no longer an important part of the poultry industry?
5a85e576b4e223001a8e728c
True
The greylag goose (Anser anser) was domesticated by the Egyptians at least 3000 years ago, and a different wild species, the swan goose (Anser cygnoides), domesticated in Siberia about a thousand years later, is known as a Chinese goose. The two hybridise with each other and the large knob at the base of the beak, a noticeable feature of the Chinese goose, is present to a varying extent in these hybrids. The hybrids are fertile and have resulted in several of the modern breeds. Despite their early domestication, geese have never gained the commercial importance of chickens and ducks.
do domestic and wild geese have the same apperearance ?
5726488ddd62a815002e806c
Domestic geese are much larger than their wild counterparts and tend to have thick necks, an upright posture, and large bodies with broad rear ends
0
False
What types of geese are used for human consumption?
5726488ddd62a815002e806d
The greylag-derived birds
149
False
What types of geese are used most efficiently for their egg production?
5726488ddd62a815002e806e
Chinese geese
225
False
What is the down feathers of geese most commonly used for ?
5726488ddd62a815002e806f
use in pillows and padded garments
335
False
Why is the meat of geese considered fatty ?
5726488ddd62a815002e8070
they deposit fat subcutaneously, although this fat contains mostly monounsaturated fatty acids
874
False
Chinese goose
692
What goose is unable to make any sound?
5a85e6b9b4e223001a8e72a5
True
use in pillows and padded garments
335
What is the down feathers of geese never used for?
5a85e6b9b4e223001a8e72a6
True
they deposit fat subcutaneously, although this fat contains mostly monounsaturated fatty acids
874
Why is the meat of geese considered lean?
5a85e6b9b4e223001a8e72a7
True
greylag-derived birds
153
What is the only type of goose not used for human consumption?
5a85e6b9b4e223001a8e72a8
True
Domestic geese are much larger than their wild counterparts and tend to have thick necks, an upright posture, and large bodies with broad rear ends. The greylag-derived birds are large and fleshy and used for meat, while the Chinese geese have smaller frames and are mainly used for egg production. The fine down of both is valued for use in pillows and padded garments. They forage on grass and weeds, supplementing this with small invertebrates, and one of the attractions of rearing geese is their ability to grow and thrive on a grass-based system. They are very gregarious and have good memories and can be allowed to roam widely in the knowledge that they will return home by dusk. The Chinese goose is more aggressive and noisy than other geese and can be used as a guard animal to warn of intruders. The flesh of meat geese is dark-coloured and high in protein, but they deposit fat subcutaneously, although this fat contains mostly monounsaturated fatty acids. The birds are killed either around 10 or about 24 weeks. Between these ages, problems with dressing the carcase occur because of the presence of developing pin feathers.
How many species is the recent day turkey suspected to have embarked from?
572649e3dd62a815002e807e
descended from one of six subspecies of wild turkey
34
False
When were turkeys first used in a domestication setting?
572649e3dd62a815002e807f
Pre-Aztec tribes in south-central Mexico first domesticated the bird around 800 BC
179
False
What other purposes have the domesticated turkey been used for aside from food?
572649e3dd62a815002e8080
feathers for robes, blankets, and ceremonial purposes
377
False
When and with what culture did domesticated turkey start to appear in the United States ?
572649e3dd62a815002e8081
Pueblo Indians inhabiting the Colorado Plateau in the United States did likewise around 200 BC.
267
False
descended from one of six subspecies
34
How many species is the recent day Bigfoot suspected to have embarked from?
5a8604c3b4e223001a8e73af
True
Pre-Aztec tribes in south-central Mexico first domesticated the bird around 800 BC
179
When were turkeys first used in a hostile setting?
5a8604c3b4e223001a8e73b0
True
feathers for robes, blankets, and ceremonial purposes
377
What other purposes have the endangered turkeys been used for aside from food?
5a8604c3b4e223001a8e73b1
True
Pueblo Indians inhabiting the Colorado Plateau in the United States did likewise around 200 BC
267
When and with what culture did domesticated turkey start to appear in the ocean?
5a8604c3b4e223001a8e73b2
True
The modern domesticated turkey is descended from one of six subspecies of wild turkey (Meleagris gallopavo) found in the present Mexican states of Jalisco, Guerrero and Veracruz. Pre-Aztec tribes in south-central Mexico first domesticated the bird around 800 BC, and Pueblo Indians inhabiting the Colorado Plateau in the United States did likewise around 200 BC. They used the feathers for robes, blankets, and ceremonial purposes. More than 1,000 years later, they became an important food source. The first Europeans to encounter the bird misidentified it as a guineafowl, a bird known as a "turkey fowl" at that time because it had been introduced into Europe via Turkey.
What type of accomidations are domesticated turkey normally grown in?
57264be9dd62a815002e80bc
Commercial turkeys are usually reared indoors under controlled conditions
0
False
What type of conditions are used to increase the weight and profitability of commercial turkeys?
57264be9dd62a815002e80bd
The lights can be switched on for 24-hrs/day, or a range of step-wise light regimens to encourage the birds to feed often and therefore grow rapidly
253
False
At what age is the average turkey considered ready for the initial step of the commercial food process?
57264be9dd62a815002e80be
Females achieve slaughter weight at about 15 weeks of age and males at about 19
403
False
How much more does a average commercial  turkey weigh in comparison to its wild turkey cousins ?
57264be9dd62a815002e80bf
Mature commercial birds may be twice as heavy as their wild counterparts
484
False
What the average for the amount of  turkeys are consumed in the U.S on Thanksgiving Day?
57264be9dd62a815002e80c0
60 million birds in the United States
880
False
indoors under controlled conditions
38
What are domesticated turkeys no longer grown in?
5a860699b4e223001a8e73c1
True
Females achieve slaughter weight at about 15 weeks of age and males at about 19
403
What age is the moose considered ready for the initial step of the commercial food process?
5a860699b4e223001a8e73c2
True
60 million birds
880
What is the average for the amount of parrots that are consumed in the U.S on Thanksgiving Day?
5a860699b4e223001a8e73c3
True
The lights can be switched on for 24-hrs/day, or a range of step-wise light regimens to encourage the birds to feed often and therefore grow rapidly
253
What type of conditions are used to decrease the weight and profitability of commercial turkeys?
5a860699b4e223001a8e73c4
True
may be twice as heavy as their wild counterparts
508
How much more does a average commercial feather weigh in comparison to its wild turkey cousins ?
5a860699b4e223001a8e73c5
True
Commercial turkeys are usually reared indoors under controlled conditions. These are often large buildings, purpose-built to provide ventilation and low light intensities (this reduces the birds' activity and thereby increases the rate of weight gain). The lights can be switched on for 24-hrs/day, or a range of step-wise light regimens to encourage the birds to feed often and therefore grow rapidly. Females achieve slaughter weight at about 15 weeks of age and males at about 19. Mature commercial birds may be twice as heavy as their wild counterparts. Many different breeds have been developed, but the majority of commercial birds are white, as this improves the appearance of the dressed carcass, the pin feathers being less visible. Turkeys were at one time mainly consumed on special occasions such as Christmas (10 million birds in the United Kingdom) or Thanksgiving (60 million birds in the United States). However, they are increasingly becoming part of the everyday diet in many parts of the world.
Have quails ever been used for entertainment purposes ?
57265269708984140094c253
They were originally kept as songbirds, and they are thought to have been regularly used in song contests.
846
False
Where can quails typically be found in the wild?
57265269708984140094c254
it is found in bushy places, in rough grassland, among agricultural crops, and in other places with dense cover.
93
False
What is the typical diet consist of for qails ?
57265269708984140094c255
seeds, insects, and other small invertebrates.
218
False
From what country do most domesticated  quails today descend from ?
57265269708984140094c256
modern domesticated flocks are mostly of Japanese quail (Coturnix japonica)
696
False
They were originally kept as songbirds, and they are thought to have been regularly used in song contests
846
Why are quails always silent?
5a86079eb4e223001a8e73cb
True
in bushy places, in rough grassland, among agricultural crops, and in other places with dense cover
105
Where are quails typically invisible in the wild?
5a86079eb4e223001a8e73cc
True
seeds, insects, and other small invertebrates
218
What does a rare diet always consist of for quails?
5a86079eb4e223001a8e73cd
True
Japan
839
What country do all domesticated quails descend from?
5a86079eb4e223001a8e73ce
True
The quail is a small to medium-sized, cryptically coloured bird. In its natural environment, it is found in bushy places, in rough grassland, among agricultural crops, and in other places with dense cover. It feeds on seeds, insects, and other small invertebrates. Being a largely ground-dwelling, gregarious bird, domestication of the quail was not difficult, although many of its wild instincts are retained in captivity. It was known to the Egyptians long before the arrival of chickens and was depicted in hieroglyphs from 2575 BC. It migrated across Egypt in vast flocks and the birds could sometimes be picked up off the ground by hand. These were the common quail (Coturnix coturnix), but modern domesticated flocks are mostly of Japanese quail (Coturnix japonica) which was probably domesticated as early as the 11th century AD in Japan. They were originally kept as songbirds, and they are thought to have been regularly used in song contests.
Why did the Japanses begin to breed quails in teh 20th century?
572653db5951b619008f6fc9
Japanese breeders began to selectively breed for increased egg production.
27
False
When did the quail egg business begin to really become an economic driven industry?
572653db5951b619008f6fca
By 1940, the quail egg industry was flourishing,
102
False
What caused a marked sownturn in the production of quail eggs following the industry boom?
572653db5951b619008f6fcb
the events of World War II led to the complete loss of quail lines bred for their song type, as well as almost all of those bred for egg production
155
False
How many eggs can be laid by the present day decendants of the Japanese quail?
572653db5951b619008f6fcc
Modern birds can lay upward of 300 eggs a year
495
False
Are quails used for any purpose other than human consumption ?
572653db5951b619008f6fcd
Japanese quail are also used in biomedical research in fields such as genetics, embryology, nutrition, physiology, pathology, and toxicity studies
685
False
Japanese breeders began to selectively breed for increased egg production
27
Why did the Japanese begin to breed quails in the 16th century?
5a86089fb4e223001a8e73d3
True
1940
105
When did the quail egg business fail to become an economic driven industry?
5a86089fb4e223001a8e73d4
True
the events of World War II led to the complete loss of quail lines bred for their song type, as well as almost all of those bred for egg production
155
What caused a marked euphoria in the production of quail eggs following the industry boom?
5a86089fb4e223001a8e73d5
True
genetics, embryology, nutrition, physiology, pathology, and toxicity studies
755
What fields are Japanese quail forbidden to be used?
5a86089fb4e223001a8e73d6
True
Japan
564
What is the only country with a Japanese quail farming industry?
5a86089fb4e223001a8e73d7
True
In the early 20th century, Japanese breeders began to selectively breed for increased egg production. By 1940, the quail egg industry was flourishing, but the events of World War II led to the complete loss of quail lines bred for their song type, as well as almost all of those bred for egg production. After the war, the few surviving domesticated quail were used to rebuild the industry, and all current commercial and laboratory lines are considered to have originated from this population. Modern birds can lay upward of 300 eggs a year and countries such as Japan, India, China, Italy, Russia, and the United States have established commercial Japanese quail farming industries. Japanese quail are also used in biomedical research in fields such as genetics, embryology, nutrition, physiology, pathology, and toxicity studies. These quail are closely related to the common quail, and many young hybrid birds are released into the wild each year to replenish dwindling wild populations.
What continent is the evolution of guinea fowl credited to?
5726551cf1498d1400e8dc46
Africa
35
False
Who first domesticated the guinea fowl ?
5726551cf1498d1400e8dc47
ancient Greeks and Romans.
282
False
Aside from consumption how are Guinea fowl  useful to humans.
5726551cf1498d1400e8dc48
They will keep a vegetable garden clear of pests and will eat the ticks that carry Lyme disease.
415
False
What are Guinea fowl  also praised for accomplishing for humans?
5726551cf1498d1400e8dc49
roost in trees and give a loud vocal warning of the approach of predators.
525
False
southern Africa
26
What part of the moon did Guinea fowl originate from?
5a860962b4e223001a8e73dd
True
ancient Greeks and Romans
282
Who were the only groups to domesticate a guinea fowl?
5a860962b4e223001a8e73de
True
They will keep a vegetable garden clear of pests and will eat the ticks that carry Lyme disease
415
Why are Guinea fowl useless to humans?
5a860962b4e223001a8e73df
True
roost in trees and give a loud vocal warning of the approach of predators
525
What are Guinea fowl also praised for accomplishing for Martians?
5a860962b4e223001a8e73e0
True
Guinea fowl originated in southern Africa, and the species most often kept as poultry is the helmeted guineafowl (Numida meleagris). It is a medium-sized grey or speckled bird with a small naked head with colourful wattles and a knob on top, and was domesticated by the time of the ancient Greeks and Romans. Guinea fowl are hardy, sociable birds that subsist mainly on insects, but also consume grasses and seeds. They will keep a vegetable garden clear of pests and will eat the ticks that carry Lyme disease. They happily roost in trees and give a loud vocal warning of the approach of predators. Their flesh and eggs can be eaten in the same way as chickens, young birds being ready for the table at the age of about four months.
What is the gourmet title given to pigeons ?
572656375951b619008f7003
A squab
0
False
From what variety of pigeon does the squab decen?
572656375951b619008f7004
rock pigeon (Columba livia)
176
False
Are squabs treated differently from other piegons by humans aside from consumption?
572656375951b619008f7005
When they hatch, the squabs are fed by both parents on "pigeon's milk", a thick secretion high in protein produced by the crop
320
False
How often are pigeons able to breed for the consumption process ?
572656375951b619008f7006
a prolific pair should produce two squabs every four weeks during a breeding season lasting several months
661
False
squab
2
What is the gourmet title that was taken away from pigeons?
5a860a6cb4e223001a8e73e5
True
rock pigeon (Columba livia)
176
What variety of pigeon does the squab avoid?
5a860a6cb4e223001a8e73e6
True
By this time, the adult pigeons will have laid and be incubating another pair of eggs
571
Why does the breeding season only last a few days?
5a860a6cb4e223001a8e73e7
True
two
692
How many squabs do most pigeon pairs make in their lifetime?
5a860a6cb4e223001a8e73e8
True
A squab is the name given to the young of domestic pigeons that are destined for the table. Like other domesticated pigeons, birds used for this purpose are descended from the rock pigeon (Columba livia). Special utility breeds with desirable characteristics are used. Two eggs are laid and incubated for about 17 days. When they hatch, the squabs are fed by both parents on "pigeon's milk", a thick secretion high in protein produced by the crop. Squabs grow rapidly, but are slow to fledge and are ready to leave the nest at 26 to 30 days weighing about 500 g (18 oz). By this time, the adult pigeons will have laid and be incubating another pair of eggs and a prolific pair should produce two squabs every four weeks during a breeding season lasting several months.
What is the most popular type of poulty that is farmed?
572657b3708984140094c313
Worldwide, more chickens are kept than any other type of poultry
0
False
How many birds are routinely raised in the world for the consumption process?
572657b3708984140094c314
50 billion birds being raised each year as a source of meat and eggs.
76
False
How is the cost of the price for animal feed related to the poulty cost for consumers?
572657b3708984140094c315
High feed costs could limit further development of poultry production
810
False
Before industrialization how were chickens normally cared for?
572657b3708984140094c316
birds would have been kept extensively in small flocks, foraging during the day and housed at night.
166
False
What is the major significance of chickens to women in underdeveloped countries?
572657b3708984140094c317
the women often make important contributions to family livelihoods through keeping poultry
321
False
chickens
16
What is the worst type of poultry that is farmed?
5a860b8fb4e223001a8e73f7
True
50 billion birds being raised each year as a source of meat and eggs
76
How many birds are ritualistically sacrificed in the world for the consumption process?
5a860b8fb4e223001a8e73f8
True
High feed costs could limit further development of poultry production
810
How is the cost of the price for animal feed unrelated to the poultry cost for consumers?
5a860b8fb4e223001a8e73f9
True
the women often make important contributions to family livelihoods through keeping poultry
321
What is the major danger of chickens to women in underdeveloped countries?
5a860b8fb4e223001a8e73fa
True
Worldwide, more chickens are kept than any other type of poultry, with over 50 billion birds being raised each year as a source of meat and eggs. Traditionally, such birds would have been kept extensively in small flocks, foraging during the day and housed at night. This is still the case in developing countries, where the women often make important contributions to family livelihoods through keeping poultry. However, rising world populations and urbanization have led to the bulk of production being in larger, more intensive specialist units. These are often situated close to where the feed is grown or near to where the meat is needed, and result in cheap, safe food being made available for urban communities. Profitability of production depends very much on the price of feed, which has been rising. High feed costs could limit further development of poultry production.
What is the benefit to chickens of being in a free-range farming location?
572658abdd62a815002e824a
the birds have access to natural conditions and can exhibit their normal behaviours
130
False
What is yarding in relation to the pultry industry?
572658abdd62a815002e824b
birds have access to a fenced yard and poultry house at a higher stocking rate
264
False
What is the most intensive type of enclosure system used in the poultry business?
572658abdd62a815002e824c
battery cages, often set in multiple tiers
536
False
How are eggs collected in teh battery cage system?
572658abdd62a815002e824d
The eggs are laid on the floor of the cage and roll into troughs outside for ease of collection
699
False
the birds have access to natural conditions and can exhibit their normal behaviours
130
What is the benefit to chickens of being in a caged location?
5a860c4bb4e223001a8e73ff
True
the birds have access to a fenced yard and poultry house at a higher stocking rate
260
What is yarding in relation to the pottery industry?
5a860c4bb4e223001a8e7400
True
battery cages, often set in multiple tiers
536
What is the only type of enclosure system used in the poultry business?
5a860c4bb4e223001a8e7401
True
The eggs are laid on the floor of the cage and roll into troughs outside for ease of collection
699
How are eggs destroyed in the battery cage system?
5a860c4bb4e223001a8e7402
True
January 1, 2012
853
When did battery cages become the only way to house hens?
5a860c4bb4e223001a8e7403
True
In free-range husbandry, the birds can roam freely outdoors for at least part of the day. Often, this is in large enclosures, but the birds have access to natural conditions and can exhibit their normal behaviours. A more intensive system is yarding, in which the birds have access to a fenced yard and poultry house at a higher stocking rate. Poultry can also be kept in a barn system, with no access to the open air, but with the ability to move around freely inside the building. The most intensive system for egg-laying chickens is battery cages, often set in multiple tiers. In these, several birds share a small cage which restricts their ability to move around and behave in a normal manner. The eggs are laid on the floor of the cage and roll into troughs outside for ease of collection. Battery cages for hens have been illegal in the EU since January 1, 2012.
What is the average size of chickens used extensively for it's meat production raised in an intensive environment?
57265aa2f1498d1400e8dcec
carcass size (2 kg (4.4 lb))
126
False
How long does it take for an broiler raisedin an intensive environment very to reach optimum size?
57265aa2f1498d1400e8dced
six weeks or less
158
False
What is the death rate among chickens who are intensivley breed to be broilers?
57265aa2f1498d1400e8dcee
Mortality rates at 1%
356
False
Do chicken raised in the intensive broiler method suffer from health condions?
57265aa2f1498d1400e8dcef
their legs cannot always support their weight and their hearts and respiratory systems may not be able to supply enough oxygen to their developing muscles.
200
False
How long does it take for a chicken raised in a less intensive envionment to reach optimal broiler size?
57265aa2f1498d1400e8dcf0
18 weeks to reach similar weights
451
False
broilers
57
What are chickens raised only for their fashion sense known as?
5a860e2eb4e223001a8e7413
True
18 weeks
451
How long does it take a broiler to reach gargantuan size?
5a860e2eb4e223001a8e7414
True
Mortality rates at 1%
356
What is the death rate among chickens who are intensively bred to be fried chicken?
5a860e2eb4e223001a8e7415
True
their legs cannot always support their weight and their hearts and respiratory systems may not be able to supply enough oxygen to their developing muscles
200
Why are broilers considered to be very healthy chickens?
5a860e2eb4e223001a8e7416
True
hung by their feet, stunned, killed, bled, scalded, plucked, have their heads and feet removed, eviscerated, washed, chilled, drained, weighed, and packed
569
How do chickens like to spend their vacations?
5a860e2eb4e223001a8e7417
True
Chickens raised intensively for their meat are known as "broilers". Breeds have been developed that can grow to an acceptable carcass size (2 kg (4.4 lb)) in six weeks or less. Broilers grow so fast, their legs cannot always support their weight and their hearts and respiratory systems may not be able to supply enough oxygen to their developing muscles. Mortality rates at 1% are much higher than for less-intensively reared laying birds which take 18 weeks to reach similar weights. Processing the birds is done automatically with conveyor-belt efficiency. They are hung by their feet, stunned, killed, bled, scalded, plucked, have their heads and feet removed, eviscerated, washed, chilled, drained, weighed, and packed, all within the course of little over two hours.
What are some of the major concerns with intensive breeding programs?
57265c265951b619008f708d
cannibalism, feather pecking and vent pecking can be common
90
False
What harsh measures do farmers use to prevent the chickens from harming themselves or others?
57265c265951b619008f708e
some farmers using beak trimming as a preventative measure
156
False
What are some of the major concerns with extensive breeding programs such as free range ?
57265c265951b619008f708f
the birds are exposed to adverse weather conditions and are vulnerable to predators and disease-carrying wild birds.
304
False
How is the spread of the avian flu related to the conditions in which chickens are kept?
57265c265951b619008f7090
In Southeast Asia, a lack of disease control in free-range farming has been associated with outbreaks of avian influenza.
482
False
What is considered the most alarming setting for chickens to be raised in?
57265c265951b619008f7091
Barn systems have been found to have the worst bird welfare.
421
False
cannibalism, feather pecking and vent pecking can be common
90
What are some of the minor concerns with intensive breeding programs?
5a860ec8b4e223001a8e741d
True
some farmers using beak trimming
156
What harsh measures do farmers use to encourage chickens to harm themselves or others?
5a860ec8b4e223001a8e741e
True
Diseases
216
What are typically slow to spread through the flock?
5a860ec8b4e223001a8e741f
True
free-range farming
19
What is the only type of farming that has animal welfare concerns?
5a860ec8b4e223001a8e7420
True
Both intensive and free-range farming have animal welfare concerns. In intensive systems, cannibalism, feather pecking and vent pecking can be common, with some farmers using beak trimming as a preventative measure. Diseases can also be common and spread rapidly through the flock. In extensive systems, the birds are exposed to adverse weather conditions and are vulnerable to predators and disease-carrying wild birds. Barn systems have been found to have the worst bird welfare. In Southeast Asia, a lack of disease control in free-range farming has been associated with outbreaks of avian influenza.
Is there a pplace where lovers of the chicken are able to see some of its best attributes ?
57265dc9dd62a815002e82d2
In many countries, national and regional poultry shows are held where enthusiasts exhibit their birds
0
False
In such competitions what are the chickens juged on? What attibutes are considered viable?
57265dc9dd62a815002e82d3
birds which are judged on certain phenotypical breed traits as specified by their respective breed standards
96
False
Are there breed standards used for the competitions?
57265dc9dd62a815002e82d4
Breed standards were drawn up for egg-laying, meat-type, and purely ornamental birds, aiming for uniformity
362
False
What are some of the most widely known poultry tournaments?
57265dc9dd62a815002e82d5
the annual "National Championship Show" in the United Kingdom organised by the Poultry Club of Great Britain.
580
False
From where does the idea of a poultry tournament orginate?
57265dc9dd62a815002e82d6
The idea of poultry exhibition may have originated after cockfighting was made illegal, as a way of maintaining a competitive element in poultry husbandry
206
False
In many countries
0
Where are national and regional poultry shows banned?
5a860fd3b4e223001a8e742f
True
cockfighting
263
What was never made illegal that involves birds fighting?
5a860fd3b4e223001a8e7430
True
poultry shows
482
What are never part of general livestock shows?
5a860fd3b4e223001a8e7431
True
the annual "National Championship Show" in the United Kingdom organised by the Poultry Club of Great Britain
580
What are the unknown poultry tournaments?
5a860fd3b4e223001a8e7432
True
enthusiasts exhibit their birds
70
Why are poultry shows not allowed in most countries?
5a860fd3b4e223001a8e7433
True
In many countries, national and regional poultry shows are held where enthusiasts exhibit their birds which are judged on certain phenotypical breed traits as specified by their respective breed standards. The idea of poultry exhibition may have originated after cockfighting was made illegal, as a way of maintaining a competitive element in poultry husbandry. Breed standards were drawn up for egg-laying, meat-type, and purely ornamental birds, aiming for uniformity. Sometimes, poultry shows are part of general livestock shows, and sometimes they are separate events such as the annual "National Championship Show" in the United Kingdom organised by the Poultry Club of Great Britain.
Jo w common is the consumtion of poultry in the world?
57265f0f708984140094c3eb
Poultry is the second most widely eaten type of meat in the world, accounting for about 30% of total meat production worldwide
0
False
How many animals of the poultry variety are raised for consumtion each year?
57265f0f708984140094c3ec
Sixteen billion birds are raised annually
152
False
What type of enviornment is poultry most commonly raised in?
57265f0f708984140094c3ed
more than half of these in industrialised, factory-like production units
211
False
How many industry models are followed for the production process of poultry?
57265f0f708984140094c3ee
There are two distinct models of production;
467
False
What is the Europeon model of the poultry business ?
57265f0f708984140094c3ef
the European Union supply chain model seeks to supply products which can be traced back to the farm of origin
512
False
Poultry
0
What is the only type of meat that is eaten in the world?
5a8610bfb4e223001a8e7439
True
industrialised, factory-like production units
238
What type of environment is poultry always raised in?
5a8610bfb4e223001a8e743a
True
two
477
How many industry models are not followed for the production process of poultry?
5a8610bfb4e223001a8e743b
True
United States
777
What country has never had poultry before?
5a8610bfb4e223001a8e743c
True
Poultry is the second most widely eaten type of meat in the world, accounting for about 30% of total meat production worldwide compared to pork at 38%. Sixteen billion birds are raised annually for consumption, more than half of these in industrialised, factory-like production units. Global broiler meat production rose to 84.6 million tonnes in 2013. The largest producers were the United States (20%), China (16.6%), Brazil (15.1%) and the European Union (11.3%). There are two distinct models of production; the European Union supply chain model seeks to supply products which can be traced back to the farm of origin. This model faces the increasing costs of implementing additional food safety requirements, welfare issues and environmental regulations. In contrast, the United States model turns the product into a commodity.
How many ducks did China produce for consumption in 2011?
57266066f1498d1400e8dda4
China producing two thirds of the total, some 1.7 billion birds
72
False
What other countries are important to the duck husbandry business?
57266066f1498d1400e8dda5
Vietnam, Thailand, Malaysia, Myanmar, Indonesia and South Korea (12% in total)
200
False
Who is the largest producer of duck meat among the western nations?
57266066f1498d1400e8dda6
France (3.5%) is the largest producer in the West,
280
False
What is the market percentage held by the country that controls the biggest share of the global market for goose and guinea fowl meat
57266066f1498d1400e8dda7
94% share
472
False
some 1.7 billion birds
113
How many ducks did China produce for cartoons in 2011?
5a86115eb4e223001a8e7441
True
China
391
What country only eats goose and guinea fowl meat?
5a86115eb4e223001a8e7442
True
Thailand
209
Where is eating duck forbidden?
5a86115eb4e223001a8e7443
True
France
280
Who is the only producer of duck meat among the western nations?
5a86115eb4e223001a8e7444
True
World production of duck meat was about 4.2 million tonnes in 2011 with China producing two thirds of the total, some 1.7 billion birds. Other notable duck-producing countries in the Far East include Vietnam, Thailand, Malaysia, Myanmar, Indonesia and South Korea (12% in total). France (3.5%) is the largest producer in the West, followed by other EU nations (3%) and North America (1.7%). China was also by far the largest producer of goose and guinea fowl meat, with a 94% share of the 2.6 million tonne global market.
Is poultry available in various forms?
5726618d5951b619008f70ff
fresh or frozen, as whole birds or as joints (cuts), bone-in or deboned, seasoned in various ways, raw or ready cooked.
21
False
What is the most substantial part of a birds antomy as it apples to consupmtion og the meat?
5726618d5951b619008f7100
The meatiest parts of a bird are the flight muscles on its chest, called "breast" meat, and the walking muscles on the legs, called the "thigh" and "drumstick"
141
False
Are certain parts of the bird used for particular reasons in relation to receipes?
5726618d5951b619008f7101
wings are also eaten (Buffalo wings are a popular example in the United States) and may be split into three segments,
306
False
fresh or frozen
21
What liquid form is poultry normally kept in?
5a861206b4e223001a8e7449
True
Poultry
0
What kind of food can never be deboned?
5a861206b4e223001a8e744a
True
the flight muscles on its chest, called "breast" meat
174
What part of the bird is considered poison?
5a861206b4e223001a8e744b
True
Buffalo wings
328
What kind of wings are no longer eaten in the US?
5a861206b4e223001a8e744c
True
Poultry is available fresh or frozen, as whole birds or as joints (cuts), bone-in or deboned, seasoned in various ways, raw or ready cooked. The meatiest parts of a bird are the flight muscles on its chest, called "breast" meat, and the walking muscles on the legs, called the "thigh" and "drumstick". The wings are also eaten (Buffalo wings are a popular example in the United States) and may be split into three segments, the meatier "drumette", the "wingette" (also called the "flat"), and the wing tip (also called the "flapper"). In Japan, the wing is frequently separated, and these parts are referred to as 手羽元 (teba-moto "wing base") and 手羽先 (teba-saki "wing tip").
Are there reasons for the dark meat  that poultry has?
572663915951b619008f7135
The dark colour comes from the protein myoglobin, which plays a key role in oxygen uptake and storage within cells
134
False
What is the white meat of chicken actually used for by the animal ?
572663915951b619008f7136
White muscle, in contrast, is suitable only for short bursts of activity such as, for chickens, flying
250
False
What causes the meat of some poultry to show rainbow like colr striations?
572663915951b619008f7137
the microscopic regular structure of intracellular muscle fibrils which can diffract light and produce iridescent colours
668
False
Do some varities of  poultry have more dark meat than others?
572663915951b619008f7138
birds with breast muscle more suitable for sustained flight, such as ducks and geese, have red muscle (and therefore dark meat) throughout
485
False
Dark meat
0
What is the only kind of meat available in birds?
5a8612f3b4e223001a8e7451
True
is suitable only for short bursts of activity
277
Why is white meat of chicken never actually used by the animal?
5a8612f3b4e223001a8e7452
True
ducks and geese
554
What birds have no breast muscle?
5a8612f3b4e223001a8e7453
True
dark meat
602
What kind of meat is considered dangerous to eat?
5a8612f3b4e223001a8e7454
True
Dark meat, which avian myologists refer to as "red muscle", is used for sustained activity—chiefly walking, in the case of a chicken. The dark colour comes from the protein myoglobin, which plays a key role in oxygen uptake and storage within cells. White muscle, in contrast, is suitable only for short bursts of activity such as, for chickens, flying. Thus, the chicken's leg and thigh meat are dark, while its breast meat (which makes up the primary flight muscles) is white. Other birds with breast muscle more suitable for sustained flight, such as ducks and geese, have red muscle (and therefore dark meat) throughout. Some cuts of meat including poultry expose the microscopic regular structure of intracellular muscle fibrils which can diffract light and produce iridescent colours, an optical phenomenon sometimes called structural colouration.
When is it possible for baccteria is enter into poultry before you get it home?
5726652c708984140094c4ab
Translational Genomics Research
20
False
What percentage of poultry is tainted with Staphylococcus bacteria?
5726652c708984140094c4ac
47%
74
False
Are the bacteria that is found on poultry easy to get rid of?
5726652c708984140094c4ad
Thorough cooking of the product would kill these bacteria,
277
False
What considerations do consumers need when using safe handling procedures with poultry regardless of cooking method used??
5726652c708984140094c4ae
a risk of cross-contamination from improper handling of the raw product is still present
340
False
A 2011 study by the Translational Genomics Research Institute
0
Why can't bacteria enter poultry?
5a8614aeb4e223001a8e7463
True
47%
74
What percentage of medicine is tainted with Staphylococcus bacteria?
5a8614aeb4e223001a8e7464
True
Salmonella and Campylobacter
528
What bacterial infections are not possible as of today?
5a8614aeb4e223001a8e7465
True
Thorough cooking of the product would kill these bacteria
277
What is a common myth about poultry and bacteria?
5a8614aeb4e223001a8e7466
True
A 2011 study by the Translational Genomics Research Institute showed that 47% of the meat and poultry sold in United States grocery stores was contaminated with Staphylococcus aureus, and 52% of the bacteria concerned showed resistance to at least three groups of antibiotics. Thorough cooking of the product would kill these bacteria, but a risk of cross-contamination from improper handling of the raw product is still present. Also, some risk is present for consumers of poultry meat and eggs to bacterial infections such as Salmonella and Campylobacter. Poultry products may become contaminated by these bacteria during handling, processing, marketing, or storage, resulting in food-borne illness if the product is improperly cooked or handled.
Is the Avian flu a risk only to animals?
5726660bdd62a815002e83a0
people in contact with live poultry are at the greatest risk of becoming infected with the virus
145
False
What portion of the world is considered to be most at risk for the rapid spread of the avian flu?
5726660bdd62a815002e83a1
areas such as Southeast Asia, where the disease is endemic in the wild bird population and domestic poultry can become infected
279
False
What is the danger to humans in regards to the spread of avian flu to humans ?
5726660bdd62a815002e83a2
The virus possibly could mutate to become highly virulent and infectious in humans and cause an influenza pandemic.
408
False
Can the avian flu be sread from wild birds to birds kept in husbandry?
5726660bdd62a815002e83a3
the disease is endemic in the wild bird population and domestic poultry can become infected.
315
False
live poultry are at the greatest risk of becoming infected with the virus
168
Why is the Avian flu only a risk to animals?
5a8615a4b4e223001a8e746b
True
areas such as Southeast Asia
279
What portion of the world is immune to the flu?
5a8615a4b4e223001a8e746c
True
The virus possibly could mutate to become highly virulent and infectious in humans and cause an influenza pandemic
408
Why is the avian influenza considered to be completely safe?
5a8615a4b4e223001a8e746d
True
domestic poultry
370
What kind of poultry are immune to avian influenza?
5a8615a4b4e223001a8e746e
True
avian influenza
12
What is most commonly found in people compared to birds?
5a8615a4b4e223001a8e746f
True
In general, avian influenza is a disease of birds caused by bird-specific influenza A virus that is not normally transferred to people; however, people in contact with live poultry are at the greatest risk of becoming infected with the virus and this is of particular concern in areas such as Southeast Asia, where the disease is endemic in the wild bird population and domestic poultry can become infected. The virus possibly could mutate to become highly virulent and infectious in humans and cause an influenza pandemic.
What are poultry eggs used for aside from consumption?
572668125951b619008f71c9
Many vaccines to infectious diseases can be grown in fertilised chicken eggs.
120
False
What is the major difficulty faced in using poultry to cultivate vaccines?
572668125951b619008f71ca
egg allergies are unable to be immunised
478
False
How long does it take for the flu vaccine to be fully ready for deployment into the population ?
572668125951b619008f71cb
process that takes about six months
293
False
In order to make a vaccine , what do viruses require that bacteria does not?
572668125951b619008f71cc
viruses need living cells in which to replicate
71
False
What new technology is being used in teh vaccine making process that will make vaccines safer and eaier for most consumers?
572668125951b619008f71cd
. Cell-based culture
637
False
Many vaccines to infectious diseases can be grown in fertilised chicken eggs
120
Why are poultry eggs useless aside from consumption?
5a8616e4b4e223001a8e7475
True
Millions of eggs are used each year to generate the annual flu vaccine requirements
198
Why is there no difficulty faced in using poultry to cultivate vaccines?
5a8616e4b4e223001a8e7476
True
nutrient culture media
43
What do viruses need in order to replicate in the laboratory?
5a8616e4b4e223001a8e7477
True
annual flu vaccine requirements
250
What is a simple process that takes about one month to prepare?
5a8616e4b4e223001a8e7478
True
egg
478
What food is least commonly associated with allergy?
5a8616e4b4e223001a8e7479
True
Bacteria can be grown in the laboratory on nutrient culture media, but viruses need living cells in which to replicate. Many vaccines to infectious diseases can be grown in fertilised chicken eggs. Millions of eggs are used each year to generate the annual flu vaccine requirements, a complex process that takes about six months after the decision is made as to what strains of virus to include in the new vaccine. A problem with using eggs for this purpose is that people with egg allergies are unable to be immunised, but this disadvantage may be overcome as new techniques for cell-based rather than egg-based culture become available. Cell-based culture will also be useful in a pandemic when it may be difficult to acquire a sufficiently large quantity of suitable sterile, fertile eggs.
What is the nutitional value to humans of poultry and poultry products?
5726696b708984140094c51f
protein of high quality
71
False
What is the fat and protien content of a 100g ram serving of baked chicken breast contain ?
5726696b708984140094c520
4 g of fat and 31 g of protein
430
False
How much healthy fat in in the average serving of poultry?
5726696b708984140094c521
two to three times as much polyunsaturated fat as most types of red meat
209
False
Does chicken contain fat?
5726696b708984140094c522
low levels of fat which have a favourable mix of fatty acids
119
False
Poultry meat
0
What meat has no nutritional value to humans?
5a8613dab4e223001a8e7459
True
chicken
339
What meat's protein is the lowest quality?
5a8613dab4e223001a8e745a
True
4
430
How many full pounds of fat are found in an average chicken breast?
5a8613dab4e223001a8e745b
True
eggs
17
What food is considered toxic when mixed with poultry?
5a8613dab4e223001a8e745c
True
Chicken meat contains about two to three times as much polyunsaturated fat as most types of red meat
181
Why does chicken have the lowest fat content of any meat?
5a8613dab4e223001a8e745d
True
Poultry meat and eggs provide nutritionally beneficial food containing protein of high quality. This is accompanied by low levels of fat which have a favourable mix of fatty acids. Chicken meat contains about two to three times as much polyunsaturated fat as most types of red meat when measured by weight. However, for boneless, skinless chicken breast, the amount is much lower. A 100-g serving of baked chicken breast contains 4 g of fat and 31 g of protein, compared to 10 g of fat and 27 g of protein for the same portion of broiled, lean skirt steak.
Dutch_language
In what place with the word "name" in it do most people speak Dutch?
5725ba9aec44d21400f3d47d
Suriname
93
False
Islands in the Caribbean that include Dutch as an official language include Curaçao, Sint Maarten, and what other place?
5725ba9aec44d21400f3d47e
Aruba
169
False
It's been estimated that up to what number of native Dutch speakers live in Australia, the U.S., and Canada?
5725ba9aec44d21400f3d47f
half a million
325
False
In Southern Africa, Dutch has developed over many years into what daughter language?
5725ba9aec44d21400f3d480
Afrikaans
486
False
What the low estimate for the number of people who speak Afrikaans?
5725ba9aec44d21400f3d481
16 million
587
False
Outside of the Low Countries, it is the native language of the majority of the population of Suriname, and also holds official status in the Caribbean island nations of Aruba, Curaçao and Sint Maarten. Historical minorities on the verge of extinction remain in parts of France and Germany, and in Indonesia,[n 1] while up to half a million native speakers may reside in the United States, Canada and Australia combined.[n 2] The Cape Dutch dialects of Southern Africa have evolved into Afrikaans, a mutually intelligible daughter language[n 3] which is spoken to some degree by at least 16 million people, mainly in South Africa and Namibia.[n 4]
Which two languages does Dutch most closely resemble?
5725bc3d271a42140099d0db
German and English
46
False
Which Germanic accent mark do both the English and the Dutch language not use?
5725bc3d271a42140099d0dc
umlaut
212
False
Unlike English, both German and Dutch use how many genders in their grammar?
5725bc3d271a42140099d0dd
three
419
False
Which verb tense have both English and Dutch mostly gotten rid of?
5725bc3d271a42140099d0de
subjunctive
281
False
Does Dutch borrow more or less from Romance languages for its vocabulary than German?
5725bc3d271a42140099d0df
more
641
False
Dutch is one of the closest relatives of both German and English[n 5] and is said to be roughly in between them.[n 6] Dutch, like English, has not undergone the High German consonant shift, does not use Germanic umlaut as a grammatical marker, has largely abandoned the use of the subjunctive, and has levelled much of its morphology, including the case system.[n 7] Features shared with German include the survival of three grammatical genders—albeit with few grammatical consequences[n 8]—as well as the use of modal particles, final-obstruent devoicing, and a similar word order.[n 9] Dutch vocabulary is mostly Germanic and incorporates more Romance loans than German but fewer than English.[n 10]
What are variations on Dutch used in Belgium sometimes called?
5725be0738643c19005acc3f
Flemish
117
False
What is the Dutch language officially called in the Netherlands?
5725be0738643c19005acc40
Nederlands
201
False
What would someone in Belgium call the variation of Dutch spoken in Flanders?
5725be0738643c19005acc41
Vlaams
354
False
What is the Dutch name for the "Hollandish" dialect of the language?
5725be0738643c19005acc42
Hollands
257
False
If "Vlaams" is "Flemish," what would English speakers call "West-Vlaams"?
5725be0738643c19005acc43
Western Flemish
293
False
While Dutch generally refers to the language as a whole, Belgian varieties are sometimes collectively referred to as Flemish. In both Belgium and the Netherlands, the native official name for Dutch is Nederlands, and its dialects have their own names, e.g. Hollands "Hollandish", West-Vlaams "Western Flemish", Brabants "Brabantian". The use of the word Vlaams ("Flemish") to describe Standard Dutch for the variations prevalent in Flanders and used there, however, is common in the Netherlands and Belgium.
What Old Germanic term was used to describe the non-Romance languages that developed in Europe?
5725c08389a1e219009abdde
theudisk
254
False
What language was used for writing and by the Catholic Church instead of the language "of the people"?
5725c08389a1e219009abddf
Latin
469
False
The word "theudisk" was first found in a text from what year?
5725c08389a1e219009abde0
784
588
False
What year were the Oaths of Strasbourg written?
5725c08389a1e219009abde1
842
668
False
What word was used in the Oaths of Strasbourg for the oath's Germanic section?
5725c08389a1e219009abde2
teudisca
688
False
The Dutch language has been known under a variety of names. In Middle Dutch, which was a collection of dialects, dietsc was used in Flanders and Brabant, while diets or duutsc was in use in the Northern Netherlands. It derived from the Old Germanic word theudisk, one of the first names ever used for the non-Romance languages of Western Europe, meaning (pertaining to the language) of the people, that is, the native Germanic language. The term was used as opposed to Latin, the non-native language of writing and the Catholic Church. In the first text in which it is found, dating from 784, it refers to the Germanic dialects of Britain. In the Oaths of Strasbourg (842) it appeared as teudisca to refer to the Germanic (Rhenish Franconian) portion of the oath.
In what century was a differentiation made to clear up confusion about West Germanic languages?
5725c26aec44d21400f3d4f3
16th
349
False
What West Central German dialect of Dutch contains the name of a U.S. state?
5725c26aec44d21400f3d4f4
Pennsylvania Dutch
552
False
What's the native Pennsylvania Dutch word for the language?
5725c26aec44d21400f3d4f5
Deitsch
618
False
In what decade did people in New Jersey stop speaking Jersey Dutch?
5725c26aec44d21400f3d4f6
1950s
696
False
Until roughly the 16th century, speakers of all the varieties of the West Germanic languages from the mouth of the Rhine to the Alps had been accustomed to refer to their native speech as Dietsch, (Neder)duyts or some other cognate of theudisk. This let inevitably to confusion since similar terms referred to different languages. Therefore, in the 16th century, a differentiation took place. Owing to Dutch commercial and colonial rivalry in the 16th and 17th centuries, the English term came to refer exclusively to the Dutch. A notable exception is Pennsylvania Dutch, which is a West Central German variety called Deitsch by its speakers. Jersey Dutch, on the other hand, as spoken until the 1950s in New Jersey, is a Dutch-based creole.
Dutch people didn't have an officially established word for the "Dutch" language until what century?
5725c49a89a1e219009abe3a
19th
255
False
What word meaning "Low Dutch" was sometimes used to distinguish Dutch from Germany's language?
5725c49a89a1e219009abe3b
Nederduits
405
False
Instead of "German," what word used to refer to the language of the country of Germany?
5725c49a89a1e219009abe3c
Hoogduits
499
False
What does "Hoogduits" translate to in English?
5725c49a89a1e219009abe3d
High Dutch
511
False
Now that "Nederlands" is used for Dutch in Dutch, what do Dutch speakers call German?
5725c49a89a1e219009abe3e
Duits
602
False
In Dutch itself, Diets went out of common use - although Platdiets is still used for the transitional Limburgish-Ripuarian dialects in the north-east of Belgium. Nederlands, the official Dutch word for "Dutch", did not become firmly established until the 19th century. This designation had been in use as far back as the end of the 15th century, but received competition from the more popular terminology Nederduits, "Low Dutch", for several reasons. One of them was it reflected a distinction with Hoogduits, "High Dutch", meaning the language spoken in Germany. The Hoog was later dropped, and thus, Duits narrowed down in meaning to refer to the German language.
What was the new word for Dutch that still caused some confusion with the language spoken in Germany?
5725c68938643c19005accaf
Nederduits
9
False
What does the word "Neder" translate to in English?
5725c68938643c19005accb0
low
319
False
The Netherlands are "low" because of their placement near what delta by the North Sea?
5725c68938643c19005accb1
Rhine–Meuse–Scheldt delta
417
False
What language started the trend of referring to the Netherlands as "Germania Inferior"?
5725c68938643c19005accb2
Latin
479
False
"Nederduits" often caused people to mix up the language of the Netherlands with that spoken in what directional area of Germany?
5725c68938643c19005accb3
north
105
False
The term Nederduits, however introduced new confusion, since the non standardised dialects spoken in the north of Germany came to be known as Niederdeutsch as well, and thus the Duits reference in the name was dropped, leading to Nederlands as designation to refer to the Dutch language. The repeated use of Neder (or "low") to refer to the Dutch language is a reference to the Netherlands' downriver location at the Rhine–Meuse–Scheldt delta near the North Sea, harking back to Latin nomenclature, e.g. Germania Inferior. See also: Netherlands (toponymy).
How many different versions of a Germanic language were spoken in the Low Countries?
57263e1638643c19005ad35f
Three
0
False
Which Germanic dialect was spoken in the eastern region?
57263e1638643c19005ad360
Saxon
119
False
Which dialects are referred to as "Old Dutch"?
57263e1638643c19005ad361
Franconian
226
False
Was the transition from Old Dutch to Modern Dutch gradual, or did it happen quickly?
57263e1638643c19005ad362
gradual
450
False
Which Germanic dialect was spoken in the north and west of the Low Countries?
57263e1638643c19005ad363
Frisian
69
False
Three Germanic dialects were originally spoken in the Low Countries: Frisian in the north and along the western coast; Saxon in the east (contiguous with the Low German area); and Franconian in the centre and south. It is the Franconian dialects that is designated as Old Dutch, and that would develop in Middle Dutch and later Modern Dutch. The division in these development phases is mostly conventional, since the transition between them was very gradual. One of the few moments linguists can detect somewhat of a revolution is when the Dutch standard language emerged and quickly established itself. The development of the Dutch language is illustrated by the following sentence in Old, Middle and Modern Dutch:
Which language tree groups Dutch with English?
572642daec44d21400f3dd09
Indo-European
11
False
What group of languages have to comply with Grimm's law?
572642daec44d21400f3dd0a
Germanic
200
False
In what age did the sound patterns that distinguish Germanic languages develop?
572642daec44d21400f3dd0b
Iron Age
507
False
Along with Grimm's law, what's the other rule for Germanic-sounding speech called?
572642daec44d21400f3dd0c
Verner's law
283
False
What does a language need to share with the group in order to be classified as Germanic?
572642daec44d21400f3dd0d
common ancestor
112
False
Within the Indo-European language tree, Dutch is grouped within the Germanic languages, which means it shares a common ancestor with languages such as English, German, and Scandinavian languages. All Germanic languages are united by subjection to the sound shifts of Grimm's law and Verner's law which originated in the Proto-Germanic language and define the basic differentiating features from other Indo-European languages. This assumed to have originated in approximately the mid-first millennium BCE in Iron Age northern Europe.
Into how many groups are Germanic languages usually split?
572644b91125e71900ae1930
three
54
False
In what historical period did the different types of Germanic languages stop being collectively understood?
572644b91125e71900ae1931
the Migration Period
146
False
What group of Germanic languages includes Dutch, English, and German?
572644b91125e71900ae1932
West Germanic
222
False
What's the West Germanic dialect spoken in the North Sea region called?
572644b91125e71900ae1933
Ingvaeonic
448
False
Which dialect group included most Frankish tribes?
572644b91125e71900ae1934
Istvaeonic
605
False
The Germanic languages are traditionally divided into three groups: West, East and North Germanic. They remained mutually intelligible throughout the Migration Period. Dutch is together with English and German part of the West Germanic group, that is characterized by a number of phonological and morphological innovations not found in North and East Germanic. The West Germanic varieties of the time are generally split into three dialect groups: Ingvaeonic (North Sea Germanic), Istvaeonic (Weser-Rhine Germanic) and Irminonic (Elbe Germanic). It appears that the Frankish tribes fit primarily into the Istvaeonic dialect group with certain Ingvaeonic influences towards the northwest, still seen in modern Dutch.
What's another term for "Frankish"?
572646f6f1498d1400e8daec
Franconian
57
False
What city is closest to the Bergakker inscription?
572646f6f1498d1400e8daed
Tiel
197
False
To which century do some researchers attribute the Bergakker inscription?
572646f6f1498d1400e8daee
5th
243
False
What word found in Roman writings became "wad" in modern Dutch?
572646f6f1498d1400e8daef
vadam
384
False
What does the Dutch word "wad" mean in English?
572646f6f1498d1400e8daf0
mudflat
420
False
A Frankish identity emerged and so did their Frankish or Franconian language. The language itself is poorly attested. A notable exception is the Bergakker inscription, found near the Dutch city of Tiel, which may represent a primary record of 5th-century Frankish. Although some placenames recorded in Roman texts could arguably be considered as the oldest "Dutch" single words, like vadam (modern Dutch: wad, English: "mudflat"), the Bergakker inscription yields the oldest evidence of Dutch morphology, but there is no consensus on the interpretation of the rest of the text.
What's another name for Old Frisian?
57264a2e708984140094c181
Anglo-Frisian
506
False
What's another name for Old English?
57264a2e708984140094c182
Anglo-Saxon
538
False
What language stayed very similar to the language spoken by Franks?
57264a2e708984140094c183
Old Dutch
593
False
What period is the Bergakker inscription from that shows characteristics of the Old Dutch language?
57264a2e708984140094c184
Old Frankish
955
False
What's another name for Old Dutch that demonstrates its difference from German Franconian?
57264a2e708984140094c185
Old Low Franconian
127
False
Old Low Franconian or Old Dutch is regarded as the primary stage in the development of a separate Dutch language. The "Low" in Old Low Franconian refers to the Frankish spoken in the Low Countries where it was not influenced by the High German consonant shift, as opposed to Central and high Franconian in Germany. The latter would as a consequence evolve with Allemanic into Old High German. At more or less the same time the Ingvaeonic nasal spirant law led to the development of Old Saxon, Old Frisian (Anglo-Frisian) and Old English (Anglo-Saxon). Hardly influenced by either development, Old Dutch remained close to the original language of the Franks, the people that would rule Europe for centuries. The language however, did experienced developments on its own, like final-obstruent devoicing in a very early stage. In fact, by judging from the find at Bergakker, it would seem that the language already experienced this characteristic during the Old Frankish period.
Are written records of Old Dutch rare or common?
57264c62dd62a815002e80d0
rare
50
False
What Frankish document contains the oldest recorded instance of Dutch?
57264c62dd62a815002e80d1
the Salic law
104
False
What creature is swimming in the Dutch phrase "Visc flot aftar themo uuatare"?
57264c62dd62a815002e80d2
fish
358
False
Where did the monk who wrote the most famous Old Dutch sentence live?
57264c62dd62a815002e80d3
Rochester, England
850
False
What historically significant Dutch document begins with the phrase "Forsachistu diobolae"?
57264c62dd62a815002e80d4
the Utrecht baptismal vow
433
False
Attestations of Old Dutch sentences are extremely rare. The oldest one first recorded has been found in the Salic law. From this Frankish document written around 510 the oldest sentence has been identified as Dutch: Maltho thi afrio lito (I say to you, I free you, serf) used to free a serf. Another old fragment of Dutch is Visc flot aftar themo uuatare (A fish was swimming in the water). The oldest conserved larger Dutch text is the Utrecht baptismal vow (776-800) starting with Forsachistu diobolae [...] ec forsacho diabolae (Do you forsake the devil? [...] I forsake the devil). Probably the most famous sentence Hebban olla vogala nestas hagunnan, hinase hic enda tu, wat unbidan we nu (All birds have started making nests, except me and you, what are we waiting for), is dated around the year 1100, written by a Flemish monk in a convent in Rochester, England.
What language did Middle Dutch come from?
57264e6f708984140094c1eb
Old Dutch
0
False
What year do some researchers say marked the point when Old Dutch morphed?
57264e6f708984140094c1ec
1150
56
False
Rather than a single language, what group sharing origins in Old Dutch does the term "Middle Dutch" refer to?
57264e6f708984140094c1ed
closely related dialects
345
False
Would a text written in Middle Dutch be readable or unintelligible for a Dutch speaker today?
57264e6f708984140094c1ee
readable
558
False
Old Dutch naturally evolved into Middle Dutch. The year 1150 is often cited as the time of the discontinuity, but it actually marks a time of profuse Dutch writing and during this period a rich Medieval Dutch literature developed. There was at that time no overarching standard language; Middle Dutch is rather a collective name for a number of closely related dialects whose ancestor was Old Dutch. But they were all mutually intelligible. In fact, since Dutch is a rather conservative language, the various literary works of that time today are often very readable for modern-day speakers.
What court in Dijon prior to 1477 had a hand in standardizing Dutch?
5726525ff1498d1400e8dbf8
Burgundian Ducal Court
95
False
Which two Dutch dialects had the greatest influence in the Middle Ages?
5726525ff1498d1400e8dbf9
Flanders and Brabant
166
False
Which century marked great progress in Dutch standardization brought on by Antwerp?
5726525ff1498d1400e8dbfa
16th
303
False
What year did the Spanish conquer Antwerp?
5726525ff1498d1400e8dbfb
1585
366
False
What was the first Dutch Bible translation called?
5726525ff1498d1400e8dbfc
Statenvertaling
663
False
A process of standardisation started in the Middle Ages, especially under the influence of the Burgundian Ducal Court in Dijon (Brussels after 1477). The dialects of Flanders and Brabant were the most influential around this time. The process of standardisation became much stronger at the start of the 16th century, mainly based on the urban dialect of Antwerp. In 1585 Antwerp fell to the Spanish army: many fled to the Northern Netherlands, where the Dutch Republic declared its independence from Spain. They particularly influenced the urban dialects of the province of Holland. In 1637, a further important step was made towards a unified language, when the Statenvertaling, the first major Bible translation into Dutch, was created that people from all over the new republic could understand. It used elements from various, even Dutch Low Saxon, dialects but was predominantly based on the urban dialects of Holland of post 16th century.
What was the old name for the geographical region that's now Belgium and Luxembourg?
57265446708984140094c29b
Southern Netherlands
7
False
What people ruled the Southern Netherlands after the Austrians?
57265446708984140094c29c
French
125
False
What year did the Netherlands and Belgium agree on a treaty to accommodate each other's language?
57265446708984140094c29d
1980
973
False
What was the name of the treaty that brought the dialects of Belgium and the Netherlands together?
57265446708984140094c29e
Language Union Treaty
1020
False
The commonality between Dutch spoken by people in the Netherlands and Dutch-speaking Belgium can be compared to the relationship between British English and what language?
57265446708984140094c29f
American English
952
False
In the Southern Netherlands (now Belgium and Luxembourg) developments were different. Under Spanish, then Austrian, and then French rule standardisation of Dutch language came to a standstill. The state, law, and increasingly education used French, yet more than half the Belgian population were speaking a Dutch dialect. In the course of the nineteenth century the Flemish movement stood up for the rights of Dutch, mostly called Flemish. But in competing with the French language the variation in dialects was a serious disadvantage. Since standardisation is a lengthy process, Dutch-speaking Belgium associated itself with the standard language that had already developed in the Netherlands over the centuries. Therefore, the situation in Belgium is essentially no different from that in the Netherlands, although there are recognisable differences in pronunciation, comparable to the pronunciation differences between standard British and standard American English. In 1980 the Netherlands and Belgium concluded the Language Union Treaty. This treaty lays down the principle that the two countries must gear their language policy to each other, among other things, for a common system of spelling.
What's the "cheesy" name for East Low Franconian?
572655bf708984140094c2c7
Limburgish
103
False
What language has the most in common with the East Low Franconian dialect of Dutch?
572655bf708984140094c2c8
Afrikaans
201
False
Along with German and English, what standardized West Germanic language is similar to Dutch?
572655bf708984140094c2c9
Frisian
287
False
Non-standardized languages similar to Dutch include Yiddish and what other West Germanic language?
572655bf708984140094c2ca
Low German
341
False
As opposed to Dutch, what language was influenced by the High German sound shift?
572655bf708984140094c2cb
German
676
False
Dutch belongs to its own West Germanic sub-group, West Low Franconian, paired with its sister language Limburgish, or East Low Franconian. Closest relative is the mutual intelligible daughter language Afrikaans. Other West Germanic languages related to Dutch are German, English and the Frisian languages, and the non standardised languages Low German and Yiddish. Dutch stands out in combining a small degree of Ingvaeonic characteristics (occurring consistently in English and Frisian and reduced in intensity from 'west to east' over the continental West Germanic plane) with mostly Istvaeonic characteristics, of which some of them are also incorporated in German. Unlike German, Dutch (apart from Limburgish) has not been influenced at all by the 'south to north' movement of the High German sound shift, and had some changes of its own. The cumulation of these changes resulted over time in separate, but related standard languages with various degrees of similarities and differences between them. For a comparison between the West Germanic languages, see the sections Morphology, Grammar and Vocabulary.
What dialect of Dutch is spoken in Drenthe?
572657f0f1498d1400e8dc9a
Dutch Low Saxon
23
False
What's the name of the river that marks a dialect divide in the Netherlands?
572657f0f1498d1400e8dc9b
IJssel
169
False
Although Dutch Low Saxon is similar to Low German, it's synchronically included with which language?
572657f0f1498d1400e8dc9c
Dutch
712
False
Which Dutch province is only partially comprised of speakers of Dutch low Saxon?
572657f0f1498d1400e8dc9d
Gelderland
145
False
When did cities like Diventer and Zutphen start becoming more linguistically diverse?
572657f0f1498d1400e8dc9e
14th to 15th century
382
False
In the east there is a Dutch Low Saxon dialect area, comprising the provinces of Groningen, Drenthe and Overijssel, and parts of the province of Gelderland as well. The IJssel river roughly forms the linguistic watershed here. This group, though not being Low Franconian and being close to the neighbouring Low German, is regarded as Dutch, because of a number of reasons. From the 14th to 15th century onward, its urban centers (Deventer, Zwolle and Kampen as well as Zutphen and Doesburg) have been increasingly influenced by the western written Dutch and became a linguistically mixed area. From the 17th century onward, it was gradually integrated into the Dutch language area. In other words, this group is Dutch synchronically but not diachronically.[citation needed]
What organization researched the use of regional Dutch dialects and found their usage declining?
572658ebf1498d1400e8dcb6
Geert Driessen
101
False
What percentage of adults in the Netherlands spoke a dialect or regional language in 1995?
572658ebf1498d1400e8dcb7
27
234
False
How many primary school aged children were found to speak a dialect or regional language by 2011?
572658ebf1498d1400e8dcb8
4 percent
509
False
What's the most commonly spoken regional language in the Netherlands?
572658ebf1498d1400e8dcb9
Limburgish
574
False
In 2011, what percentage of Dutch adults spoke Frisian?
572658ebf1498d1400e8dcba
44%
743
False
Dutch dialects and regional languages are not spoken as often as they used to be. Recent research by Geert Driessen shows that the use of dialects and regional languages among both Dutch adults and youth is in heavy decline. In 1995, 27 percent of the Dutch adult population spoke a dialect or regional language on a regular basis, while in 2011 this was no more than 11 percent. In 1995, 12 percent of the primary school aged children spoke a dialect or regional language, while in 2011 this had declined to 4 percent. Of the three officially recognized regional languages Limburgish is spoken most (in 2011 among adults 54%, among children 31%) and Dutch Low Saxon least (adults 15%, children 1%); Frisian occupies a middle position (adults 44%, children 22%).
What's the Dutch word for "money"?
57265aba5951b619008f7075
geld
658
False
West Flemings pronounce the Dutch "g" as a voiced glottal frivative, which would be represented by what letter in standard Dutch?
57265aba5951b619008f7076
"h"
365
False
What other European language has a mute "h" like the West Flemings do?
57265aba5951b619008f7077
French
444
False
What word that means "hero" would a West Fleming speaker probably pronounce the same as "geld"?
57265aba5951b619008f7078
held
640
False
If a West Fleming speaker were being extra careful to avoid the silent "h," they might over-correct into what sound?
57265aba5951b619008f7079
g-sound
781
False
The different dialects show many sound shifts in different vowels (even shifting between diphthongs and monophthongs), and in some cases consonants also shift pronunciation. For example, an oddity of West Flemings (and to a lesser extent, East Flemings) is that, the voiced velar fricative (written as "g" in Dutch) shifts to a voiced glottal fricative (written as "h" in Dutch), while the letter "h" in West Flemish becomes mute (just like in French). As a result, when West Flemish try to talk Standard Dutch, they're often unable to pronounce the g-sound, and pronounce it similar to the h-sound. This leaves f.e. no difference between "held" (hero) and "geld" (money). Or in some cases, they are aware of the problem, and hyper-correct the "h" into a voiced velar fricative or g-sound, again leaving no difference.
What's the West Flemish word for "no"?
57265bf4f1498d1400e8dd22
nee
324
False
How would you tell a West Flemish speaker "yes"?
57265bf4f1498d1400e8dd23
ja
309
False
What piece of a sentence does West Flemish match the case of a "yes" or "no" to?
57265bf4f1498d1400e8dd24
subject
378
False
Would linguistic differences make it difficult or easy to point out someone who moved from a different region of the Netherlands?
57265bf4f1498d1400e8dd25
easy
514
False
Which is easier for a non-native speaker to imitate: grammar rules or sound shifts?
57265bf4f1498d1400e8dd26
sound shifts
490
False
Next to sound shifts, there are ample examples of suffix differences. Often simple suffix shifts (like switching between -the, -ske, -ke, -je, ...), sometimes the suffixes even depend on quite specific grammar rules for a certain dialect. Again taking West Flemish as an example. In that language, the words "ja" (yes) and "nee" (no) are also conjugated to the (often implicit) subject of the sentence. These separate grammar rules are a lot more difficult to imitate correctly than simple sound shifts, making it easy to recognise people who didn't grow up in a certain region, even decades after they moved.
What Dutch dialect is so distinct that it's often considered a language variant?
57265f3bf1498d1400e8dd88
West Flemish
224
False
What kind of governmental boundary does dialect distribution transcend, reflecting medieval divisions?
57265f3bf1498d1400e8dd89
political boundaries
364
False
What province is Zeelandic Flanders in?
57265f3bf1498d1400e8dd8a
Zeeland
628
False
What area that abuts Belgium still has some older people who speak West Flemish?
57265f3bf1498d1400e8dd8b
French Flanders
661
False
Along with Limburgish, what other Dutch dialect is spoken down into a lot of the southern Netherlands?
57265f3bf1498d1400e8dd8c
Brabantian
429
False
Some Flemish dialects are so distinct that they might be considered as separate language variants, although the strong significance of language in Belgian politics would prevent the government from classifying them as such. West Flemish in particular has sometimes been considered a distinct variety. Dialect borders of these dialects do not correspond to present political boundaries, but reflect older, medieval divisions. The Brabantian dialect group, for instance, also extends to much of the south of the Netherlands, and so does Limburgish. West Flemish is also spoken in Zeelandic Flanders (part of the Dutch province of Zeeland), and by older people in French Flanders (a small area that borders Belgium).
What dialect is considered a sister language to Dutch?
57266080708984140094c409
West Frisian
94
False
Which Dutch dialect is so distinct that it's often called a daughter language?
57266080708984140094c40a
Afrikaans
80
False
Afrikaans is mostly derived from the Dutch spoken in what century?
57266080708984140094c40b
17th
269
False
The Dutch influence on Afrikaans was seasoned with languages from what country?
57266080708984140094c40c
South Africa
349
False
What two-word phrase describes the relationship whereby Dutch and Afrikaans speakers can understand each other?
57266080708984140094c40d
mutually intelligible
392
False
Many native speakers of Dutch, both in Belgium and the Netherlands, assume that Afrikaans and West Frisian are dialects of Dutch but are considered separate and distinct from Dutch: a daughter language and a sister language, respectively. Afrikaans evolved mainly from 17th century Dutch dialects, but had influences from various other languages in South Africa. However, it is still largely mutually intelligible with Dutch. (West) Frisian evolved from the same West Germanic branch as Old English and is less akin to Dutch.
What percentage of people in Belgium speak Dutch?
572661f5708984140094c441
59%
80
False
What country in Europe has the highest percentage of Dutch speakers?
572661f5708984140094c442
the Netherlands
45
False
What region in France is experiencing Dutch language death?
572661f5708984140094c443
French Flanders
149
False
What's the name of the institution that ensures Dutch is monocentric?
572661f5708984140094c444
Dutch Language Union
637
False
How many different major dialects of Dutch are there?
572661f5708984140094c445
28
857
False
In Europe, Dutch is the majority language in the Netherlands (96%) and Belgium (59%) as well as a minority language in Germany and northern France's French Flanders, where it is in the ultimate stage of language death. Though Belgium as a whole is multilingual, the two regions into which the country is divided (Flanders, francophone Wallonia, bilingual Brussels and small 'facility' zones) are largely monolingual. The Netherlands and Belgium produce the vast majority of music, films, books and other media written or spoken in Dutch. Dutch is a monocentric language, with all speakers using the same standard form (authorized by the Dutch Language Union) based on a Dutch orthography employing the Latin alphabet when writing. In stark contrast to its written uniformity, Dutch lacks a prestige dialect and has a large dialectal continuum consisting of 28 main dialects, which can themselves be further divided into at least 600 distinguishable varieties.
What town in Germany has always had mostly Dutch speakers?
572665cc5951b619008f71a7
Kleve
78
False
About how many people around Calais, France speak Dutch every day?
572665cc5951b619008f71a8
20,000
284
False
It took until the end of what century for people in French cities like Gravelines to finally switch over to French from Dutch?
572665cc5951b619008f71a9
19th
415
False
Which church often preached in Flemish prior to World War I?
572665cc5951b619008f71aa
the Catholic Church
525
False
In what area of France is Calais located?
572665cc5951b619008f71ab
Northeastern France
171
False
Outside of the Netherlands and Belgium, the dialect around the German town of Kleve (South Guelderish) both historically and genetically belongs to the Dutch language. In Northeastern France, the area around Calais was historically Dutch-speaking (West Flemish) of which an estimated 20,000 daily speakers. The cities of Dunkirk, Gravelines and Bourbourg only became predominantly French-speaking by the end of the 19th century. In the countryside, until World War I, many elementary schools continued to teach in Dutch, and the Catholic Church continued to preach and teach the catechism in Flemish in many parishes.
In what country other than France did Dutch lose most of it usage in the 19th century?
572668875951b619008f71d3
Prussia
97
False
In France and Germany, what languages will often be substituted by native speakers of Dutch dialects?
572668875951b619008f71d4
German or French
290
False
In what segment of the population is the decline in usage of Dutch most prominent?
572668875951b619008f71d5
younger generations
486
False
Other than France, what country does not give Dutch legal status as a language?
572668875951b619008f71d6
Germany
375
False
What language did France and Prussia ban from use in education in the late 19th century?
572668875951b619008f71d7
Dutch
43
False
During the second half of the 19th century Dutch was banned from all levels of education by both Prussia and France and lost most of its functions as a cultural language. In both Germany and France the Dutch standard language is largely absent and speakers of these Dutch dialects will use German or French in everyday speech. Dutch is not afforded legal status in France or Germany, either by the central or regional public authorities and knowledge of the language is declining among younger generations.
About how many students in Belgium are studying Dutch?
572669c3f1498d1400e8dee4
300,000
163
False
How many primary school students are learning Dutch in Nord-Pas-de-Calais?
572669c3f1498d1400e8dee5
4,550
367
False
What country has the most universities offering courses in neerlandistiek?
572669c3f1498d1400e8dee6
Germany
485
False
How many universities in France offer neerlandistiek courses?
572669c3f1498d1400e8dee7
20
532
False
Besides North Rhine-Westphalia, which German state has the most pupils of Dutch?
572669c3f1498d1400e8dee8
Lower Saxony
257
False
As a foreign language, Dutch is mainly taught in primary and secondary schools in areas adjacent to the Netherlands and Flanders. In French-speaking Belgium, over 300,000 pupils are enrolled in Dutch courses, followed by over 23,000 in the German states of Lower Saxony and North Rhine-Westphalia, and about 7,000 in the French region of Nord-Pas-de-Calais (of which 4,550 are in primary school). At an academic level, the largest number of faculties of neerlandistiek can be found in Germany (30 universities), followed by France (20 universities) and the United Kingdom (5 universities).
For how long have there been Dutch speakers in Indonesia?
57266b04f1498d1400e8df28
almost 350 years
44
False
In what profession is Dutch often required in the Dutch East Indies?
57266b04f1498d1400e8df29
the legal profession
283
False
What institution in Jakarta still teaches Dutch?
57266b04f1498d1400e8df2a
Erasmus Language Centre
456
False
About how many pupils in all of Indonesia study Dutch as part of their coursework?
57266b04f1498d1400e8df2b
35,000
860
False
In addition to students pursuing law degrees, what other course of study often includes Dutch?
57266b04f1498d1400e8df2c
history
809
False
Despite the Dutch presence in Indonesia for almost 350 years, as the Asian bulk of the Dutch East Indies, the Dutch language has no official status there and the small minority that can speak the language fluently are either educated members of the oldest generation, or employed in the legal profession, as some legal codes are still only available in Dutch. Dutch is taught in various educational centres in Indonesia, the most important of which is the Erasmus Language Centre (ETC) in Jakarta. Each year, some 1,500 to 2,000 students take Dutch courses there. In total, several thousand Indonesians study Dutch as a foreign language. Owing to centuries of Dutch rule in Indonesia, many old documents are written in Dutch. Many universities therefore include Dutch as a source language, mainly for law and history students. In Indonesia this involves about 35,000 students.
Towards the end of what century did it become important for more people in Dutch colonies to speak Dutch?
57266c455951b619008f7249
19th
169
False
What VIP segment of the population in Dutch colonies learned Dutch to participate in business and government?
57266c455951b619008f724a
local elite
194
False
What was the Dutch government afraid of doing if they taught their colonies Dutch?
57266c455951b619008f724b
destabilising the colony
395
False
Leaders wanted to hang onto knowledge of the Dutch language because it's the language of what?
57266c455951b619008f724c
power
444
False
Unlike other European nations, the Dutch chose not to follow a policy of language expansion amongst the indigenous peoples of their colonies. In the last quarter of the 19th century, however, a local elite gained proficiency in Dutch so as to meet the needs of expanding bureaucracy and business. Nevertheless, the Dutch government remained reluctant to teach Dutch on a large scale for fear of destabilising the colony. Dutch, the language of power, was supposed to remain in the hands of the leading elite.
What became the official language of Indonesia after they declared their independence?
57266e09f1498d1400e8df82
Malay
78
False
What's the Indonesian word for "office"?
57266e09f1498d1400e8df83
kantor
418
False
What term describes the literally translated Indonesian versions of Dutch terms that have become standard?
57266e09f1498d1400e8df84
calques
496
False
What Dutch word for a hospital was calqued into the Indonesian "rumah sakit"?
57266e09f1498d1400e8df85
ziekenhuis
591
False
What is the Indonesian calque for the Dutch word that literally translates as "animal garden"?
57266e09f1498d1400e8df86
kebun binatang
635
False
After independence, Dutch was dropped as an official language and replaced by Malay. Yet the Indonesian language inherited many words from Dutch: words for everyday life as well as scientific and technological terms. One scholar argues that 20% of Indonesian words can be traced back to Dutch words, many of which are transliterated to reflect phonetic pronunciation e.g. kantoor (Dutch for "office") in Indonesian is kantor, while bus ("bus") becomes bis. In addition, many Indonesian words are calques on Dutch, for example, rumah sakit (Indonesian for "hospital") is calqued on the Dutch ziekenhuis (literally "house of the sick"), kebun binatang ("zoo") on dierentuin (literally "animal garden"), undang-undang dasar ("constitution") from grondwet (literally "ground law"). These account for some of the differences in vocabulary between Indonesian and Malay.
About what percentage of residents of Suriname speak Dutch?
57266f10f1498d1400e8df94
60
65
False
What language would you hear teachers speak if you attended school in Suriname?
57266f10f1498d1400e8df95
Dutch
124
False
When did Suriname officially become independent from the Netherlands?
57266f10f1498d1400e8df96
1975
364
False
What year did Suriname join the Dutch Language Union?
57266f10f1498d1400e8df97
2004
436
False
What's the common language that around 20% of Suriname's people speak?
57266f10f1498d1400e8df98
Sranan Tongo
485
False
In Suriname today, Dutch is the sole official language, and over 60 percent of the population speaks it as a mother tongue. Dutch is the obligatory medium of instruction in schools in Suriname, even for non-native speakers. A further twenty-four percent of the population speaks Dutch as a second language. Suriname gained its independence from the Netherlands in 1975 and has been an associate member of the Dutch Language Union since 2004. The lingua franca of Suriname, however, is Sranan Tongo, spoken natively by about a fifth of the population.
What's the year that Jersey Dutch was last spoken, according to records?
572670205951b619008f72a7
1921
185
False
What Dutch-based language popped up in the area of Albany, New York?
572670205951b619008f72a8
Mohawk Dutch
262
False
What's a more accurate name for Pennsylvania Dutch since it's not a Dutch dialect?
572670205951b619008f72a9
Pennsylvania German
501
False
Which Dutch dialect was once spoken in the U.S. Virgin Islands?
572670205951b619008f72aa
Negerhollands
352
False
In what country were the Berbice and Skepi dialects spoken?
572670205951b619008f72ab
Guyana
310
False
In the United States, an almost extinct dialect of Dutch, Jersey Dutch, spoken by descendants of 17th-century Dutch settlers in Bergen and Passaic counties, was still spoken as late as 1921. Other Dutch-based creole languages once spoken in the Americas include Mohawk Dutch (in Albany, New York), Berbice (in Guyana), Skepi (in Essequibo, Guyana) and Negerhollands (in the United States Virgin Islands). Pennsylvania Dutch is not a member of the set of Dutch dialects and is less misleadingly called Pennsylvania German.
In what decade did European Dutch yield to the local dialect in South Africa?
5726718ef1498d1400e8dfda
1920s
69
False
At the high end, what percentage of Afrikaans words come from Dutch?
5726718ef1498d1400e8dfdb
95%
514
False
What South African document from 1983 doesn't list Dutch as an official language?
5726718ef1498d1400e8dfdc
constitution
400
False
What section of the constitution was changed by Act 8 of 1925 to include Afrikaans with Dutch?
5726718ef1498d1400e8dfdd
137
221
False
What pressure influenced the shift in South Africa from the use of European Dutch in the 1920s?
5726718ef1498d1400e8dfde
Afrikaner nationalism
99
False
European Dutch remained the literary language until the start of the 1920s, when under pressure of Afrikaner nationalism the local "African" Dutch was preferred over the written, European-based standard. In 1925, section 137 of the 1909 constitution of the Union of South Africa was amended by Act 8 of 1925, stating "the word Dutch in article 137 [...] is hereby declared to include Afrikaans". The constitution of 1983 only listed English and Afrikaans as official languages. It is estimated that between 90% to 95% of Afrikaans vocabulary is ultimately of Dutch origin.
Who has a more difficult time understanding the other's language: Dutch speakers or Afrikaans speakers?
572672e8708984140094c677
Afrikaans speakers
235
False
Is Afrikaans more or less complex compared to Dutch?
572672e8708984140094c678
less complex
314
False
What's the Dutch word for "bird"?
572672e8708984140094c679
vogel
418
False
What is the Afrikaans word for "rain"?
572672e8708984140094c67a
reën
464
False
Is it difficult or easy to estimate the number of students in South Africa who study Dutch?
572672e8708984140094c67b
difficult
553
False
Both languages are still largely mutually intelligible, although this relation can in some fields (such as lexicon, spelling and grammar) be asymmetric, as it is easier for Dutch speakers to understand written Afrikaans than it is for Afrikaans speakers to understand written Dutch. Afrikaans is grammatically far less complex than Dutch, and vocabulary items are generally altered in a clearly patterned manner, e.g. vogel becomes voël ("bird") and regen becomes reën ("rain"). In South Africa, the number of students following Dutch at university, is difficult to estimate, since the academic study of Afrikaans inevitably includes the study of Dutch. Elsewhere in the world, the number of people learning Dutch is relatively small.
Approximately what percentage of South Africans are native Afrikaans speakers?
57267430dd62a815002e857a
13.5%
71
False
Which country has 11% of households who speak Afrikaans?
57267430dd62a815002e857b
Namibia
278
False
How many of the South Africans surveyed in 1996 said they speak at least a little Afrikaans?
57267430dd62a815002e857c
40 percent
146
False
About how many South Africans speak Afrikaans as their primary language?
57267430dd62a815002e857d
6.8 million
417
False
Approximately how many people in the world speak Dutch as a second language?
57267430dd62a815002e857e
5 million
551
False
It is the third language of South Africa in terms of native speakers (~13.5%), of whom 53 percent are Coloureds and 42.4 percent Whites. In 1996, 40 percent of South Africans reported to know Afrikaans at least at a very basic level of communication. It is the lingua franca in Namibia, where it is spoken natively in 11 percent of households. In total, Afrikaans is the first language in South Africa alone of about 6.8 million people and is estimated to be a second language for at least 10 million people worldwide, compared to over 23 million and 5 million respectively, for Dutch.
What sound does Dutch still use from Proto-Germanic that was phased out in other Germanic languages?
57267681708984140094c707
velar fricatives
378
False
Along with English, what pronunciation shift did Dutch not undergo?
57267681708984140094c708
the second consonant shift
134
False
How are obstruents pronounced at the end of Dutch words?
57267681708984140094c709
voiceless
615
False
How would you say "good" in Dutch?
57267681708984140094c70a
goede
639
False
What language other than Dutch also employs final-obstruent devoicing?
57267681708984140094c70b
German
719
False
Unlike other Germanic languages, Dutch doesn't have phonological aspiration of consonants. Like English, Dutch did not participate in the second consonant shift. Like most Germanic languages, the Dutch consonant system did not undergo the High German consonant shift and has a syllable structure that allows fairly complex consonant clusters. Dutch also retains full use of the velar fricatives that were present in Proto-Germanic, but lost or modified in many other Germanic languages. Dutch has final-obstruent devoicing: at the end of a word, voicing distinction is neutralised and all obstruents are pronounced voiceless. For example, goede ("good") is /ˈɣudə/ but the related form goed is /ɣut/. Dutch shares with German Final-obstruent devoicing (Du brood [broːt] and German Brot vs Eng bread).
Is the voicing of pre-vocalic initial voiceless alveolar fricatives more common in Dutch or German?
5726783af1498d1400e8e0c8
German
100
False
Does the development of /ft/ to /xt/ occur more in Low German or Dutch?
5726783af1498d1400e8e0c9
Dutch
421
False
What number word is spelled the same in English and Low German?
5726783af1498d1400e8e0ca
seven
142
False
What's the German word for "seven"?
5726783af1498d1400e8e0cb
sieben
123
False
Although spelled differently, the first consonant of what Dutch word for "seven" is pronounced the same as its German counterpart?
5726783af1498d1400e8e0cc
zeven
111
False
Voicing of pre-vocalic initial voiceless alveolar fricatives occurs, although less in Dutch than in German (Du zeven, Germ sieben [z] vs. Eng seven and LG seven [s]), and also the shift in /θ/ > /d/. Dutch shares only with Low German the development of /xs/ > /ss/ (Du vossen, ossen and LG Vösse, Ossen vs. Germ Füchse, Ochsen and Eng foxes, oxen), and also the development of /ft/ → /xt/ though it is far more common in Dutch (Du zacht and LG sacht vs. Germ sanft and Eng soft, but Du kracht vs. LG/Germ kraft and Eng cognate craft).
What quality of Dutch vowels isn't usually recognized as distinctive?
57267b49f1498d1400e8e146
length
6
False
Is it true or false that older Dutch words combine changes in vowel length and vowel quality?
57267b49f1498d1400e8e147
true
632
False
How would you say "sons" in Dutch?
57267b49f1498d1400e8e148
zonen
846
False
Since vowel quality changes might be very slight between dialects, what's the main vowel feature used to differentiate them?
57267b49f1498d1400e8e149
length
563
False
What does the Dutch word "kroes" mean in English?
57267b49f1498d1400e8e14a
mug
892
False
Vowel length is not always considered a distinctive feature in Dutch phonology, because it normally co-occurs with changes in vowel quality. One feature or the other may be considered redundant, and some phonemic analyses prefer to treat it as an opposition of tenseness. However, even if not considered part of the phonemic opposition, the long/tense vowels are still realised as phonetically longer than their short counterparts. The changes in vowel quality are also not always the same in all dialects, and in some there may be little difference at all, with length remaining the primary distinguishing feature. And while it is true that older words always pair vowel length with a change in vowel quality, new loanwords have reintroduced phonemic oppositions of length. Compare zonne(n) [ˈzɔnə] ("suns") versus zone [ˈzɔːnə] ("zone") versus zonen [ˈzoːnə(n)] ("sons"), or kroes [krus] ("mug") versus cruise [kruːs] ("cruise").
What letter represents the sound native English speakers often use for Dutch names with "ij" or "ei" in them?
57267d7fdd62a815002e8706
y
590
False
How many unique phenomes are usually attributed to Dutch?
57267d7fdd62a815002e8707
three
386
False
What's the term we use for the type of sound made for two vowels in words like the Dutch "goud" or "zout"?
57267d7fdd62a815002e8708
diphthong
181
False
What pronunciation did the older Dutch ol/ul/al + dental evolve into?
57267d7fdd62a815002e8709
ol + dental
82
False
Unique to the development of Dutch is the collaps of older ol/ul/al + dental into ol + dental, followed by vocalisation of pre-consonantal /l/ and after a short vowel, creating the diphthong /ɑu/ e.g., Dutch goud, zout and bout corresponds with Low German Gold, Solt, Bolt; German Gold, Salz, Balt and English gold, salt, bold. This is the most common diphthong along with /ɛi œy/. All three are commonly the only ones considered unique phonemes in Dutch. The tendency for native English speakers is to pronounce Dutch names with /ɛi/ (written as ij or ei) as /aɪ/, (like the English vowel y) which does not normally lead to confusion among native listeners, since in a number of dialects (e.g. in Amsterdam) the same pronunciation is heard.
What linguistic event in English could we parallel with the Dutch lowering of diphthongs?
5726801e708984140094c80f
English Great Vowel Shift
314
False
In what decade did the Dutch diphthong lowering occur?
5726801e708984140094c810
1970s
127
False
The lowering of diphthongs is intriguing partly because it's associated with what single gender?
5726801e708984140094c811
women
175
False
What researcher posited that the lowering of diphthongs is "natural"?
5726801e708984140094c812
Stroop
478
False
Which language, in addition to German, did Stroop use to compare Dutch with when stating that the diphthongs "should" have lowered?
5726801e708984140094c813
English
679
False
This change is interesting from a sociolinguistic point of view because it has apparently happened relatively recently, in the 1970s, and was pioneered by older well-educated women from the upper middle classes. The lowering of the diphthongs has long been current in many Dutch dialects, and is comparable to the English Great Vowel Shift, and the diphthongisation of long high vowels in Modern High German, which centuries earlier reached the state now found in Polder Dutch. Stroop theorizes that the lowering of open-mid to open diphthongs is a phonetically "natural" and inevitable development and that Dutch, after having diphthongised the long high vowels like German and English, "should" have lowered the diphthongs like German and English as well.
What word did Stroop use to describe the static stage of diphthong pronunciation?
5726822d5951b619008f7509
"intermediate"
72
False
What classes in the 16th century sneered at the pronunciation of Dutch by rural people?
5726822d5951b619008f750a
educated classes
239
False
What distinct kind of British English does Stroop say has a similar function to Polder Dutch?
5726822d5951b619008f750b
Estuary English
540
False
What phenomenon of Dutch pronunciation was brought about by the attitudes of the elite in the 16th century?
5726822d5951b619008f750c
standardisation
100
False
What specific type of diphthongs were the less educated Dutch speakers in the countryside using in the 16th century?
5726822d5951b619008f750d
lowered diphthongs
166
False
Instead, he argues, this development has been artificially frozen in an "intermediate" state by the standardisation of Dutch pronunciation in the 16th century, where lowered diphthongs found in rural dialects were perceived as ugly by the educated classes and accordingly declared substandard. Now, however, in his opinion, the newly affluent and independent women can afford to let that natural development take place in their speech. Stroop compares the role of Polder Dutch with the urban variety of British English pronunciation called Estuary English.
How many genders does standard Dutch use for both natural and grammatical gender?
5726853df1498d1400e8e27a
three
20
False
What gender does the majority of non-Belgian Dutch speakers use instead of the masculine and feminine?
5726853df1498d1400e8e27b
the common gender
210
False
Apart from the common gender in non-Belgian Dutch, what other gender do speakers use?
5726853df1498d1400e8e27c
neuter
244
False
The common/neuter system used in Dutch is a lot like the system used in what other language category?
5726853df1498d1400e8e27d
Continental Scandinavian languages
332
False
In its simplified inflectional grammar, what language is Dutch similar to?
5726853df1498d1400e8e27e
English
374
False
Standard Dutch uses three genders to differentiate between natural gender and three when discerning grammatical gender. But for most non-Belgian speakers, the masculine and feminine genders have merged to form the common gender (de), while the neuter (het) remains distinct as before. This gender system is similar to those of most Continental Scandinavian languages. As in English, but to a lesser degree, the inflectional grammar of the language (e.g., adjective and noun endings) has simplified over time.
What's the Dutch word for "my"?
5726866b5951b619008f758f
mijn
140
False
Over what span of time have the rules for written Dutch become less complicated?
5726866b5951b619008f7590
100 years
55
False
What part of speech does Dutch mostly use cases for?
5726866b5951b619008f7591
pronouns
100
False
Which parts of speech aren't normally case-specific in Dutch?
5726866b5951b619008f7592
Nouns and adjectives
278
False
In what century long before Dutch did most West Germanic dialects probably lose case inflection?
5726866b5951b619008f7593
15th
514
False
The Dutch written grammar has simplified over the past 100 years: cases are now mainly used for the pronouns, such as ik (I), mij, me (me), mijn (my), wie (who), wiens (whose: masculine or neuter singular), wier (whose: feminine singular; masculine, feminine or neuter plural). Nouns and adjectives are not case inflected (except for the genitive of proper nouns (names): -s, -'s or -'). In the spoken language cases and case inflections had already gradually disappeared from a much earlier date on (probably the 15th century) as in many continental West Germanic dialects.
What case no longer used in Dutch is still present in German phrases like "Der Herr des Hauses"?
572688eadd62a815002e8874
genitive
197
False
How would you say "the man of the house" in Dutch?
572688eadd62a815002e8875
de heer des huizes
79
False
What word described standalone expressions that retain some outdated convention as an exception?
572688eadd62a815002e8876
lexicalized
50
False
Which word in the phrase "het jaar des Heren" is a weak noun with a genitive ending added?
572688eadd62a815002e8877
Heren
426
False
More complex inflection is still found in certain lexicalized expressions like de heer des huizes (literally, the man of the house), etc. These are usually remnants of cases (in this instance, the genitive case which is still used in German, cf. Der Herr des Hauses) and other inflections no longer in general use today. In such lexicalized expressions remnants of strong and weak nouns can be found too, e.g. in het jaar des Heren (Anno Domini), where "-en" is actually the genitive ending of the weak noun. Also in this case, German retains this feature. Though the genitive is widely avoided in speech.
In what type of Dutch clause does the subject usually follow the conjugated verb?
57268a8d708984140094c973
interrogative main clause
6
False
What's the English type equivalent for the Dutch word order that is an interrogative pronoun/expression, then a verb followed by a subject?
57268a8d708984140094c974
a wh-question
250
False
What type of clause has the same word order in Dutch as a tag question?
57268a8d708984140094c975
declarative clause
538
False
What never changes in a subordinate clause in Dutch?
57268a8d708984140094c976
word order
689
False
What is the literal translation of the Dutch phrase, "Kun jij je pen niet vinden?"
57268a8d708984140094c977
"Can you your pen not find?"
166
False
In an interrogative main clause the usual word order is: conjugated verb followed by subject; other verbs in final position: "Kun jij je pen niet vinden?" (literally "Can you your pen not find?") "Can't you find your pen?" In the Dutch equivalent of a wh-question the word order is: interrogative pronoun (or expression) + conjugated verb + subject; other verbs in final position: "Waarom kun jij je pen niet vinden?" ("Why can you your pen not find?") "Why can't you find your pen?"" In a tag question the word order is the same as in a declarative clause: "Jij kunt je pen niet vinden?" ("You can your pen not find?") "You can't find your pen?"" A subordinate clause does not change its word order: "Kun jij je pen niet vinden omdat het veel te donker is?" ("Can you your pen not find because it far too dark is?") "Can you not find your pen because it's too dark?""
What word do Dutch speakers use for what we call a "shotgun marriage"?
57268c1b708984140094c9b1
moetje
174
False
In Dutch, what part of speech does an adjective with a diminutive ending become?
57268c1b708984140094c9b2
noun
381
False
When the diminutive ending "-tjes" is added to the adverb "even," as what part of speech does it function?
57268c1b708984140094c9b3
adverb
551
False
What's the Dutch word for "green"?
57268c1b708984140094c9b4
groen
482
False
With the diminutive ending "-tje" added to the Dutch word for "green," what does the new formation translate to in English?
57268c1b708984140094c9b5
rookie
517
False
In Dutch, the diminutive is not merely restricted to nouns and exist in numerals (met z'n tweetjes, "the two of us"), pronouns (onderonsje, "tête-à-tête"), verbal particles (moetje, "shotgun marriage"), and even prepositions (toetje, "dessert"). Most notable however, are the diminutive forms of adjectives and adverbs. The former take an diminutive ending and thus functions as a noun, the latter remain adverbs and have always the diminutive with the -s appended, e.g. adjective: groen ("green") → noun: groentje ("rookie"); adverb: even ("just") → adverb: eventjes ("just a minute").
Which diminutive of "bloem" means a "bouquet"?
57268e0ff1498d1400e8e3a6
bloemetje
127
False
What's the Dutch word for "seahorse" that has no non-diminutive form?
57268e0ff1498d1400e8e3a7
zeepaardje
234
False
What Dutch word did their word for "girl" come from that has a totally different meaning?
57268e0ff1498d1400e8e3a8
meid
316
False
What's the Dutch word for the items like shirts and pants that you wear that only exists in a plural form?
57268e0ff1498d1400e8e3a9
kleertjes
624
False
Sometimes uncountable nouns in Dutch get a diminutive ending to make them refer to what, like an ice cream cone?
57268e0ff1498d1400e8e3aa
a single portion
467
False
Some nouns have two different diminutives, each with a different meaning: bloem (flower) → bloempje (lit. "small flower"), but bloemetje (lit. also "small flower", meaning bouquet). A few nouns exist solely in a diminutive form, e.g. zeepaardje (seahorse), while many, e.g. meisje (girl), originally a diminutive of meid (maid), have acquired a meaning independent of their non-diminutive forms. A diminutive can sometimes be added to an uncountable noun to refer to a single portion: ijs (ice, ice cream) → ijsje (ice cream treat, cone of ice cream), bier (beer) → biertje. Some diminutive forms only exist in plural, e.g. kleertjes (clothing).
What language besides Dutch uses the dative case instead of the accusative for pronouns?
57268f9cf1498d1400e8e3d2
English
8
False
In the lone exception to the dative case, which pronoun is prescribed for the third person plural direct object?
57268f9cf1498d1400e8e3d3
hen
240
False
When did the grammarians first draw the line between third person plural pronouns for Dutch?
57268f9cf1498d1400e8e3d4
17th century
366
False
Since most Dutch speakers don't bother with the hen/hun rule, which of the two most often gets used?
57268f9cf1498d1400e8e3d5
hun
578
False
When speakers get confused about whether to use hen or hun, what interchangeable unstressed form would they probably use?
57268f9cf1498d1400e8e3d6
ze
628
False
Like in English, Dutch has generalised the dative over the accusative case for all pronouns, e.g. Du me, je, Eng me, you, vs. Germ mich/mir dich/dir. There is one exception: the standard language prescribes that in the third person plural, hen is to be used for the direct object, and hun for the indirect object. This distinction was artificially introduced in the 17th century by grammarians, and is largely ignored in spoken language and not well understood by Dutch speakers. Consequently, the third person plural forms hun and hen are interchangeable in normal usage, with hun being more common. The shared unstressed form ze is also often used as both direct and indirect objects and is a useful avoidance strategy when people are unsure which form to use.
How would a Dutch speaker say "doghouse"?
5726910cdd62a815002e89d2
hondenhok
122
False
Is Dutch like or unlike English in its treatment of compound nouns?
5726910cdd62a815002e89d3
Unlike
145
False
"Tree house," which is two words in English, would be what single word in Dutch?
5726910cdd62a815002e89d4
boomhuis
356
False
What language is like Dutch in allowing compounds to be any length?
5726910cdd62a815002e89d5
German
470
False
In English, what usually separates newer compound nouns written in open form?
5726910cdd62a815002e89d6
spaces
262
False
Like most Germanic languages, Dutch forms noun compounds, where the first noun modifies the category given by the second (hondenhok = doghouse). Unlike English, where newer compounds or combinations of longer nouns are often written in open form with separating spaces, Dutch (like the other Germanic languages) either uses the closed form without spaces (boomhuis = tree house) or inserts a hyphen (VVD-coryfee = outstanding member of the VVD, a political party). Like German, Dutch allows arbitrarily long compounds, but the longer they get, the less frequent they tend to be.
What percentage of loanwords are present in Dutch vocabulary?
5726925ef1498d1400e8e422
20%
95
False
What language has exerted the most influence on Dutch vocabulary since the 12th century?
5726925ef1498d1400e8e423
French
216
False
What language does Dutch get its second highest percentage of loanwords from?
5726925ef1498d1400e8e424
Latin
319
False
Together, what percentage of Dutch loanwords comes from High and Low German?
5726925ef1498d1400e8e425
2.7%
595
False
In the loanword sharing between Dutch and English, which language got the higher percentage of loanwords?
5726925ef1498d1400e8e426
Dutch
986
False
Dutch vocabulary is predominantly Germanic in origin, with an additional share of loanwords of 20%. The main foreign influence on Dutch vocabulary since the 12th century and culminating in the French period has been French and (northern) French, accounting for an estimated 6.8%, or more than a third of all loanwords. Latin, that has been spoken for centuries in the south of the Low Countries, and has since then for centuries plaid a major role as the language of science and religion, follows with 6.1%. High German and Low German, influential until the mid of the 19th century, account for 2.7%, but are mostly unrecognizable since many German loanwords have been "Dutchified", e.g. German "Fremdling" become Dutch "vreemdeling". From English, Dutch has taken over words since the middle of the 19th century, as a consequence of the gaining power of Britain and the United States. The share of English loanwords is about 1.5%, but this number is still on the increase. Conversely, Dutch contributed many loanwords to English, accounting for 1.3%.
How many extra characters does Dutch have in addition to the standard alphabet?
572693fddd62a815002e8a14
one
52
False
What's the name for the additional character Dutch uses?
572693fddd62a815002e8a15
digraph
111
False
Because Dutch has many vowel sounds and compound words, what occurs frequently in Dutch spelling?
572693fddd62a815002e8a16
doubled letters
162
False
What is an example of a Dutch word that has double vowels or consonants five times in a row?
572693fddd62a815002e8a17
voorraaddoos
402
False
What's the name for the type of accent that Dutch used to mark the difference between the word for "a" or "an" and the word for "one"?
572693fddd62a815002e8a18
acute accent
761
False
Dutch is written using the Latin script. Dutch uses one additional character beyond the standard alphabet, the digraph IJ. It has a relatively high proportion of doubled letters, both vowels and consonants, due to the formation of compound words and also to the spelling devices for distinguishing the many vowel sounds in the Dutch language. An example of five consecutive doubled letters is the word voorraaddoos (food storage container). The diaeresis (Dutch: trema) is used to mark vowels that are pronounced separately when involving a pre- or suffix. Whereas a hyphen is used when this problem occurs in compound words. For example; "beïnvloed" (influenced), but zee-eend (sea duck). Generally, other diacritical marks only occur in loanwords, though the acute accent can also be used for emphasis or to differentiate between two forms. Its most common use is to differentiate between the indefinite article 'een' (a, an) and the numeral 'één' (one).
Buckingham_Palace
What was Buckingham Palace orginally known as?
5725bed7ec44d21400f3d4af
Buckingham House
20
False
Who was Buckingham Palace was originally built for?
5725bed7ec44d21400f3d4b0
Duke of Buckingham
117
False
Which king acquired the Buckingham House in 1761?
5725bed7ec44d21400f3d4b1
King George III
232
False
What was Buckingham House known as when Queen Charlotte resided there?
5725bed7ec44d21400f3d4b2
"The Queen's House"
319
False
Which two architects were commissioned to enlarge Buckingham in the 19th century?
5725bed7ec44d21400f3d4b3
John Nash and Edward Blore
407
False
For whom was Buckingham house originally built?
572604d7ec44d21400f3d802
Duke of Buckingham
117
False
Who enlarged the house in the 19th century?
572604d7ec44d21400f3d804
John Nash and Edward Blore
407
False
When did the palace become the London residence for the monarchs?
572604d7ec44d21400f3d805
1837
598
False
Buckingham House
20
What is Buckingham Palace currently known as?
5a7a0f7717ab25001a8a028a
True
Duke of Buckingham
117
Who was Buckingham Palace originally built to oppose?
5a7a0f7717ab25001a8a028b
True
King George III
232
Which king acquired the Buckingham House in 1751?
5a7a0f7717ab25001a8a028c
True
"The Queen's House"
319
What was Buckingham House known as when Queen Charlotte died there?
5a7a0f7717ab25001a8a028d
True
John Nash and Edward Blore
407
Which two architects were commissioned to enlarge Buckingham in the 17th century?
5a7a0f7717ab25001a8a028e
True
Originally known as Buckingham House, the building at the core of today's palace was a large townhouse built for the Duke of Buckingham in 1703 on a site that had been in private ownership for at least 150 years. It was acquired by King George III in 1761 as a private residence for Queen Charlotte and became known as "The Queen's House". During the 19th century it was enlarged, principally by architects John Nash and Edward Blore, who constructed three wings around a central courtyard. Buckingham Palace became the London residence of the British monarch on the accession of Queen Victoria in 1837.
What colors were added in the partial redecoration overseen by King Edward VII?
5725c0c789a1e219009abde8
Belle Époque cream and gold
239
False
What original colors from the 19th century were used on the advice of Sir Charles Long?
5725c0c789a1e219009abde9
brightly coloured scagliola and blue and pink lapis
99
False
How many rooms does the palace have?
5725c0c789a1e219009abdea
775 rooms
465
False
In which style are many of the smaller reception rooms furnished in?
5725c0c789a1e219009abdeb
Chinese regency style
332
False
What house were many of the furniture and fittings brought from?
5725c0c789a1e219009abdec
Carlton House
435
False
Who suggested the use of brightly coloured scagliola and blue and pink lapis?
57260cd1ec44d21400f3d845
Sir Charles Long
169
False
Who oversaw the redecoration that used a Belle Époque cream and gold colour scheme?
57260cd1ec44d21400f3d846
King Edward VII
187
False
Smaller reception rooms are decorated in which style?
57260cd1ec44d21400f3d847
Chinese regency style
332
False
Furniture and fittings were brought over from which house?
57260cd1ec44d21400f3d848
Carlton House
435
False
Belle Époque cream and gold
239
What colors were removed in the partial redecoration overseen by King Edward VII?
5a7a0ffa17ab25001a8a029e
True
brightly coloured scagliola and blue and pink lapis
99
What original colors from the 18th century were used on the advice of Sir Charles Long?
5a7a0ffa17ab25001a8a029f
True
775
465
How many rooms does the palace have closed off?
5a7a0ffa17ab25001a8a02a0
True
Chinese regency style
332
Which style are none of the reception rooms furnished in?
5a7a0ffa17ab25001a8a02a1
True
Carlton House
435
What house were many of the furniture and fittings lost from?
5a7a0ffa17ab25001a8a02a2
True
The original early 19th-century interior designs, many of which survive, include widespread use of brightly coloured scagliola and blue and pink lapis, on the advice of Sir Charles Long. King Edward VII oversaw a partial redecoration in a Belle Époque cream and gold colour scheme. Many smaller reception rooms are furnished in the Chinese regency style with furniture and fittings brought from the Royal Pavilion at Brighton and from Carlton House. The palace has 775 rooms, and the garden is the largest private garden in London. The state rooms, used for official and state entertaining, are open to the public each year for most of August and September, and on selected days in winter and spring.
Which river runs underneath the palace?
5725c1f2271a42140099d143
river Tyburn
140
False
The site of the palace was once owned by which queen consort in the late Saxon times?
5725c1f2271a42140099d144
Edith of Wessex
404
False
Who did William the Conqueror give the site of the palace to?
5725c1f2271a42140099d145
Geoffrey de Mandeville
521
False
The site was passed to monks from which abbey?
5725c1f2271a42140099d146
Westminster Abbey
579
False
The site of the palace formed part of which Manor in the Middles ages?
5725c1f2271a42140099d147
Manor of Ebury
69
False
What was the name of the village that grew at Cow Ford?
57260e0d89a1e219009ac1a1
Eye Cross
281
False
Who gave the site to the monks of Westminster?
57260e0d89a1e219009ac1a2
Geoffrey de Mandeville
521
False
What was the name of the manor that previously existed on the site?
57260e0d89a1e219009ac1a3
Manor of Ebury
69
False
river Tyburn
140
Which river runs above the palace?
5a7a10b517ab25001a8a02b2
True
Edith of Wessex
404
Which queen consort in the late Saxon times once rented the site of the palace?
5a7a10b517ab25001a8a02b3
True
Geoffrey de Mandeville
521
Who did William the Conqueror buy the site of the palace from?
5a7a10b517ab25001a8a02b4
True
Westminster Abbey
579
Which abbey refused to have the site passed to the monks?
5a7a10b517ab25001a8a02b5
True
Eye Cross
281
What was the name of the village that burned at Cow Ford?
5a7a10b517ab25001a8a02b6
True
In the Middle Ages, the site of the future palace formed part of the Manor of Ebury (also called Eia). The marshy ground was watered by the river Tyburn, which still flows below the courtyard and south wing of the palace. Where the river was fordable (at Cow Ford), the village of Eye Cross grew. Ownership of the site changed hands many times; owners included Edward the Confessor and his queen consort Edith of Wessex in late Saxon times, and, after the Norman Conquest, William the Conqueror. William gave the site to Geoffrey de Mandeville, who bequeathed it to the monks of Westminster Abbey.
Which property tycoon inherited the property in the late 17th century?
5725c35889a1e219009abe12
Sir Hugh Audley
737
False
Which village had fallen into decay?
5725c35889a1e219009abe13
Eye Cross
156
False
Who established a mulberry garden on the property?
5725c35889a1e219009abe14
James I
250
False
What product did the mulberry garden produce?
5725c35889a1e219009abe15
silk
407
False
Who suggests that the mulberry garden is likely a place for debauchery?
5725c35889a1e219009abe16
Clement Walker
466
False
What about the palace was subject to speculation in the 17th century?
57260f15ec44d21400f3d86b
the freehold
50
False
Which village had fallen into decay but the 17th century?
57260f15ec44d21400f3d86c
Eye Cross
156
False
Who sold off part of the Crown Freehold?
57260f15ec44d21400f3d86d
James I
250
False
What type of garden did James I create?
57260f15ec44d21400f3d86e
mulberry
369
False
What did the mulberry garden produce?
57260f15ec44d21400f3d86f
silk.
407
False
Sir Hugh Audley
737
Which property tycoon inherited the property in the late 19th century?
5a7a114017ab25001a8a02bc
True
Eye Cross
156
Which village had become overpopulated?
5a7a114017ab25001a8a02bd
True
James I
250
Who destroyed a mulberry garden on the property?
5a7a114017ab25001a8a02be
True
silk
407
What product did the mulberry garden avoid?
5a7a114017ab25001a8a02bf
True
the freehold
685
What about the palace was subject to speculation in the 15th century?
5a7a114017ab25001a8a02c0
True
Various owners leased it from royal landlords and the freehold was the subject of frenzied speculation during the 17th century. By then, the old village of Eye Cross had long since fallen into decay, and the area was mostly wasteland. Needing money, James I sold off part of the Crown freehold but retained part of the site on which he established a 4-acre (16,000 m2) mulberry garden for the production of silk. (This is at the northwest corner of today's palace.) Clement Walker in Anarchia Anglicana (1649) refers to "new-erected sodoms and spintries at the Mulberry Garden at S. James's"; this suggests it may have been a place of debauchery. Eventually, in the late 17th century, the freehold was inherited from the property tycoon Sir Hugh Audley by the great heiress Mary Davies.
Who built the first house on the site?
5725c53d89a1e219009abe54
Sir William Blake
63
False
Which owner developed much of the garden still seen today?
5725c53d89a1e219009abe55
Lord Goring
114
False
What was Lord Goring's garden known as?
5725c53d89a1e219009abe56
Goring Great Garden
216
False
Under which king did the Royal Family regain the freehold title of the property?
5725c53d89a1e219009abe57
King George III
556
False
Which king failed to execute Goring's freehold document before fleeing to London?
5725c53d89a1e219009abe58
King Charles I
391
False
Who owned the first house built on the site?
57260fd4271a42140099d40f
Sir William Blake
63
False
Who developed what is much of today's garden at Buckingham?
57260fd4271a42140099d410
Lord Goring
114
False
What was the name of Lord Goring Garden?
57260fd4271a42140099d411
Goring Great Garden
216
False
Which king fled to London leaving allowing the Royal family to keep it's freehold on the property?
57260fd4271a42140099d412
King Charles I
391
False
Sir William Blake
63
Who demolished the first house on the site?
5a7a11e517ab25001a8a02d0
True
Lord Goring
114
Which owner developed none of the garden still seen today?
5a7a11e517ab25001a8a02d1
True
Goring Great Garden
216
What was Lord Goring's garden mistakenly known as?
5a7a11e517ab25001a8a02d2
True
King Charles I
391
Which king executed Goring's freehold document before staying in London?
5a7a11e517ab25001a8a02d3
True
Sir William Blake
63
Who removed the last house built on the site?
5a7a11e517ab25001a8a02d4
True
Possibly the first house erected within the site was that of a Sir William Blake, around 1624. The next owner was Lord Goring, who from 1633 extended Blake's house and developed much of today's garden, then known as Goring Great Garden. He did not, however, obtain the freehold interest in the mulberry garden. Unbeknown to Goring, in 1640 the document "failed to pass the Great Seal before King Charles I fled London, which it needed to do for legal execution". It was this critical omission that helped the British royal family regain the freehold under King George III.
In what year did William Winde design the house which forms the core of the palace?
5725c6fd38643c19005acccb
1703
118
False
Who sold Buckingham house in 1761?
5725c6fd38643c19005acccc
Sir Charles Sheffield
322
False
How much did George III pay for the house?
5725c6fd38643c19005acccd
£21,000
371
False
In what year was the leasehold of the Mulberry site due to expire?
5725c6fd38643c19005accce
1774
511
False
How many flanking service wings did the original Buckingham House have?
5725c6fd38643c19005acccf
two
221
False
The house which is the core of Buckingham was first built for who?
572610b9271a42140099d417
Duke of Buckingham and Normanby
83
False
Who designed the house for the Duke of Buckingham?
572610b9271a42140099d418
William Winde
140
False
How many flanking service wings did Buckingham House have?
572610b9271a42140099d419
two
221
False
Who bought Buckingham House in 1761?
572610b9271a42140099d41a
George III
356
False
How much did George III pay for Buckingham House?
572610b9271a42140099d41b
£21,000
371
False
1703
118
What year did William Winde burn the house which forms the core of the palace?
5a7a127317ab25001a8a02da
True
Sir Charles Sheffield
322
Who sold Buckingham house in 1741?
5a7a127317ab25001a8a02db
True
£21,000
371
How much did George II pay for the house?
5a7a127317ab25001a8a02dc
True
two
221
How many flanking service wings did the original Buckingham House remove?
5a7a127317ab25001a8a02dd
True
George III
356
Who bought Buckingham House in 1781?
5a7a127317ab25001a8a02de
True
The house which forms the architectural core of the palace was built for the first Duke of Buckingham and Normanby in 1703 to the design of William Winde. The style chosen was of a large, three-floored central block with two smaller flanking service wings. Buckingham House was eventually sold by Buckingham's descendant, Sir Charles Sheffield, in 1761 to George III for £21,000. Sheffield's leasehold on the mulberry garden site, the freehold of which was still owned by the royal family, was due to expire in 1774.
What did King George IV originally want the structure to be?
5725c87eec44d21400f3d563
a small, comfortable home
152
False
King William thought about converting the palace into what after a fire destroyed the Palace of Westminster in 1834?
5725c87eec44d21400f3d564
new Houses of Parliament
847
False
Which architect helped modify the house into a palace?
5725c87eec44d21400f3d565
John Nash
302
False
In what year was Nash removed as architect?
5725c87eec44d21400f3d566
1829
595
False
Who was hired in 1830 to finish the work on the palace?
5725c87eec44d21400f3d567
Edward Blore
750
False
What year did remodeling of Buckingham House begin?
572611a9271a42140099d42b
1762
38
False
What was George IV's original plan for the house?
572611a9271a42140099d42c
a small, comfortable home
152
False
What year did the king decide to make it into a palace?
572611a9271a42140099d42d
1826
214
False
Who was the main architect that transformed the house into the palace?
572611a9271a42140099d42e
John Nash
302
False
Who did King William IV hired to finish the work after Nash was fired?
572611a9271a42140099d42f
Edward Blore
750
False
a small, comfortable home
152
What did King George IV originally make the structure to be?
5a7a143b17ab25001a8a02f8
True
John Nash
302
Which architect helped modify the palace into a house?
5a7a143b17ab25001a8a02f9
True
1829
595
What year was Nash promoted as architect?
5a7a143b17ab25001a8a02fa
True
Edward Blore
750
Who was fired in 1830 to finish the work on the palace?
5a7a143b17ab25001a8a02fb
True
1762
38
What year did remodeling of Buckingham House become banned?
5a7a143b17ab25001a8a02fc
True
Remodelling of the structure began in 1762. After his accession to the throne in 1820, King George IV continued the renovation with the idea in mind of a small, comfortable home. While the work was in progress, in 1826, the King decided to modify the house into a palace with the help of his architect John Nash. Some furnishings were transferred from Carlton House, and others had been bought in France after the French Revolution. The external façade was designed keeping in mind the French neo-classical influence preferred by George IV. The cost of the renovations grew dramatically, and by 1829 the extravagance of Nash's designs resulted in his removal as architect. On the death of George IV in 1830, his younger brother King William IV hired Edward Blore to finish the work. At one stage, William considered converting the palace into the new Houses of Parliament, after the destruction of the Palace of Westminster by fire in 1834.
Who was the first monarch to reside at Buckingham Palace?
5725c996ec44d21400f3d57f
Queen Victoria
92
False
Who died before the palace was completed?
5725c996ec44d21400f3d580
William IV
167
False
Buckingham became a principle residence for the Royal Family in which year?
5725c996ec44d21400f3d581
1837
66
False
What was the problem with chimneys in the palace?
5725c996ec44d21400f3d582
the chimneys smoked
359
False
At the end of which year were most of the design problems of the palace rectified under Prince Albert?
5725c996ec44d21400f3d583
1840
971
False
When did Buckingham officially become the principle royal residence?
5726129e38643c19005acfb1
1837
66
False
Who was the first monarch to reside there?
5726129e38643c19005acfb2
Queen Victoria
92
False
Who died before seeing Buckingham Palace's completion?
5726129e38643c19005acfb3
William IV
167
False
What was the problem with the palace's chimneys?
5726129e38643c19005acfb4
the chimneys smoked
359
False
Who dealt with the design faults of the palace?
5726129e38643c19005acfb5
Prince Albert
790
False
Queen Victoria
92
Who was the only monarch to reside at Buckingham Palace?
5a7a385917ab25001a8a03ac
True
William IV
167
Who died right as the palace was completed?
5a7a385917ab25001a8a03ad
True
the chimneys smoked
359
What was the best thing about chimneys in the palace?
5a7a385917ab25001a8a03ae
True
1837
66
When did Buckingham officially become the only royal residence?
5a7a385917ab25001a8a03af
True
Queen Victoria
92
Who was the worst monarch to reside there?
5a7a385917ab25001a8a03b0
True
Buckingham Palace finally became the principal royal residence in 1837, on the accession of Queen Victoria, who was the first monarch to reside there; her predecessor William IV had died before its completion. While the state rooms were a riot of gilt and colour, the necessities of the new palace were somewhat less luxurious. For one thing, it was reported the chimneys smoked so much that the fires had to be allowed to die down, and consequently the court shivered in icy magnificence. Ventilation was so bad that the interior smelled, and when a decision was taken to install gas lamps, there was a serious worry about the build-up of gas on the lower floors. It was also said that staff were lax and lazy and the palace was dirty. Following the queen's marriage in 1840, her husband, Prince Albert, concerned himself with a reorganisation of the household offices and staff, and with the design faults of the palace. The problems were all rectified by the close of 1840. However, the builders were to return within the decade.
Who designed the new wing for the palace in 1847?
5725ca9e271a42140099d1c7
Edward Blore
135
False
The new wing was built by whom?
5725ca9e271a42140099d1c8
Thomas Cubitt
162
False
What is the East front of the palace known as?
5725ca9e271a42140099d1c9
"public face" of Buckingham Palace
263
False
The East Front contains what famous feature?
5725ca9e271a42140099d1ca
the balcony
312
False
Who was the student of Nash that designed the ballroom wing?
5725ca9e271a42140099d1cb
Sir James Pennethorne.
552
False
Who designed a new wing for Queen Victoria and Prince Albert when they felt they needed more space?
57261391271a42140099d435
Edward Blore
135
False
Who built the new wing?
57261391271a42140099d436
Thomas Cubitt
162
False
What is considered the public face of the palace?
57261391271a42140099d437
The large East Front
211
False
What other wing was built during this time?
57261391271a42140099d438
The ballroom wing
440
False
Which of Nash's students designed The Ballroom?
57261391271a42140099d439
Sir James Pennethorne
552
False
Edward Blore
135
Who designed the blue wing for the palace in 1837?
5a7a390f17ab25001a8a03c0
True
"public face" of Buckingham Palace
263
What is the West front of the palace described as?
5a7a390f17ab25001a8a03c1
True
Sir James Pennethorne
552
Who was the teacher of Nash that destroyed the ballroom wing?
5a7a390f17ab25001a8a03c2
True
The large East Front
211
What is considered the private nose of the palace?
5a7a390f17ab25001a8a03c3
True
The ballroom wing
440
What other wing was removed during this time?
5a7a390f17ab25001a8a03c4
True
By 1847, the couple had found the palace too small for court life and their growing family, and consequently the new wing, designed by Edward Blore, was built by Thomas Cubitt, enclosing the central quadrangle. The large East Front, facing The Mall, is today the "public face" of Buckingham Palace, and contains the balcony from which the royal family acknowledge the crowds on momentous occasions and after the annual Trooping the Colour. The ballroom wing and a further suite of state rooms were also built in this period, designed by Nash's student Sir James Pennethorne.
The palace frequently hosted which type of events prior to the death of Prince Albert?
5725d9feec44d21400f3d6a3
musical entertainments
69
False
Which composer played at Buckingham on three occasions?
5725d9feec44d21400f3d6a4
Felix Mendelssohn
180
False
Which piece of music by Johann Strauss was first performed at Buckingham in honor of Princess Alice?
5725d9feec44d21400f3d6a5
Alice Polka
325
False
Queen Victoria hosted which type of balls?
5725d9feec44d21400f3d6a6
lavish costume balls
493
False
Before Prince Albert died what sort of entertainment was held at Buckingham?
5726145189a1e219009ac210
musical entertainments
69
False
Which composer played there on three occasions?
5726145189a1e219009ac211
Felix Mendelssohn
180
False
Who performed Alice Polka in honor of Princess Alice?
5726145189a1e219009ac212
Johann Strauss II
248
False
What type of balls did Queen Victoria hold?
5726145189a1e219009ac213
lavish costume balls
493
False
musical entertainments
69
Which type of events prior to the death of Prince Albert were never hosted by the palace?
5a7a3a1117ab25001a8a03ca
True
Felix Mendelssohn
180
Which composer played at Buckingham on eight occasions?
5a7a3a1117ab25001a8a03cb
True
Johann Strauss II
248
Who performed Alice Polka in opposition of Princess Alice?
5a7a3a1117ab25001a8a03cc
True
lavish costume balls
493
What type of balls did Queen Victoria avoid?
5a7a3a1117ab25001a8a03cd
True
musical entertainments
69
What sort of entertainment was banned at Buckingham before Prince Albert died?
5a7a3a1117ab25001a8a03ce
True
Before Prince Albert's death, the palace was frequently the scene of musical entertainments, and the greatest contemporary musicians entertained at Buckingham Palace. The composer Felix Mendelssohn is known to have played there on three occasions. Johann Strauss II and his orchestra played there when in England. Strauss's "Alice Polka" was first performed at the palace in 1849 in honour of the queen's daughter, Princess Alice. Under Victoria, Buckingham Palace was frequently the scene of lavish costume balls, in addition to the usual royal ceremonies, investitures and presentations.
When year did Prince Albert die?
5725dba389a1e219009abfda
1861
11
False
What forced the Queen to return to London?
5725dba389a1e219009abfdb
public opinion
409
False
What was the fate of Buckingham after the left?
5725dba389a1e219009abfdc
the palace was seldom used, even neglected.
172
False
Where were court functions held upon the Queens return to London?
5725dba389a1e219009abfdd
Windsor Castle
565
False
When did Prince Albert die?
5726151f38643c19005acfc5
1861
11
False
What did Queen Victoria do in response to his death?
5726151f38643c19005acfc6
left Buckingham Palace
72
False
Which house did Queen Victoria stay at after she left Buckingham?
5726151f38643c19005acfc7
Osborne House
142
False
What happened to Buckingham after Queen Victoria left?
5726151f38643c19005acfc8
palace was seldom used, even neglected
176
False
Where did Queen Victoria hold court functions during this time?
5726151f38643c19005acfc9
Windsor Castle
565
False
1861
11
When year did Prince Albert resurrect?
5a7a3b1017ab25001a8a03d4
True
public opinion
409
What forced the Queen to leave London forever?
5a7a3b1017ab25001a8a03d5
True
Windsor Castle
565
Where were court functions held upon the Queens exile from London?
5a7a3b1017ab25001a8a03d6
True
left Buckingham Palace
72
What did Queen Victoria do in response to Prince Albert's birth?
5a7a3b1017ab25001a8a03d7
True
Widowed in 1861, the grief-stricken Queen withdrew from public life and left Buckingham Palace to live at Windsor Castle, Balmoral Castle and Osborne House. For many years the palace was seldom used, even neglected. In 1864, a note was found pinned to the fence of Buckingham Palace, saying: "These commanding premises to be let or sold, in consequence of the late occupant's declining business." Eventually, public opinion forced the Queen to return to London, though even then she preferred to live elsewhere whenever possible. Court functions were still held at Windsor Castle, presided over by the sombre Queen habitually dressed in mourning black, while Buckingham Palace remained shuttered for most of the year.
How many principle bedrooms does the palace have?
5725e46dec44d21400f3d715
52
355
False
How many bathrooms are there?
5725e46dec44d21400f3d716
78
414
False
A large bow is a large feature of the facade in which stateroom?
5725e46dec44d21400f3d717
the Music Room
596
False
How long is the Picture Gallery in yards?
5725e46dec44d21400f3d718
55 yards
848
False
Which rooms has large white marble statues of Prince Albert and Queen Victoria?
5725e46dec44d21400f3d719
The Guard Room
1236
False
What is the floor space of the palace?
572615c9271a42140099d455
77,000 m2 (830,000 sq ft)
108
False
How many staterooms does the palace have?
572615c9271a42140099d457
19 state rooms
339
False
How many bathrooms does the palace have?
572615c9271a42140099d458
78 bathrooms
414
False
How many offices does the palace have?
572615c9271a42140099d459
92 offices
398
False
52
355
How many principle bedrooms does the palace spy on?
5a7a3bd517ab25001a8a03dc
True
78
414
How many bathrooms are made from gold there?
5a7a3bd517ab25001a8a03dd
True
the Music Room
596
Which stateroom has a small bow as a feature of the facade?
5a7a3bd517ab25001a8a03de
True
55
848
How long is the Picture Gallery in miles?
5a7a3bd517ab25001a8a03df
True
92 offices
398
How many offices in the palace have closed indefinitely?
5a7a3bd517ab25001a8a03e0
True
The palace measures 108 metres (354 ft) by 120 metres (390 ft), is 24 metres (79 ft) high and contains over 77,000 m2 (830,000 sq ft) of floorspace. The floor area is smaller than the Royal Palace of Madrid, the Papal Palace in Rome, the Louvre in Paris, the Hofburg Palace in Vienna, or the Forbidden City. There are 775 rooms, including 19 state rooms, 52 principal bedrooms, 188 staff bedrooms, 92 offices, and 78 bathrooms. The principal rooms are contained on the piano nobile behind the west-facing garden façade at the rear of the palace. The centre of this ornate suite of state rooms is the Music Room, its large bow the dominant feature of the façade. Flanking the Music Room are the Blue and the White Drawing Rooms. At the centre of the suite, serving as a corridor to link the state rooms, is the Picture Gallery, which is top-lit and 55 yards (50 m) long. The Gallery is hung with numerous works including some by Rembrandt, van Dyck, Rubens and Vermeer; other rooms leading from the Picture Gallery are the Throne Room and the Green Drawing Room. The Green Drawing Room serves as a huge anteroom to the Throne Room, and is part of the ceremonial route to the throne from the Guard Room at the top of the Grand Staircase. The Guard Room contains white marble statues of Queen Victoria and Prince Albert, in Roman costume, set in a tribune lined with tapestries. These very formal rooms are used only for ceremonial and official entertaining, but are open to the public every summer.
Which rooms are used for less formal entertaining such as luncheons or private audiences?
5725e5ce38643c19005ace51
the semi-state apartments
90
False
Which room is named for visit of Tsar Nicolas I of Russia?
5725e5ce38643c19005ace52
1844 Room
325
False
The 1855 Room is name for which European emperor?
5725e5ce38643c19005ace53
Emperor Napoleon III of France
490
False
Guests attending the Queen's Garden Parties will mostly likely see which room?
5725e5ce38643c19005ace54
Bow Room
557
False
Where are the suites located that the Queen and Prince Phillip use?
5725e5ce38643c19005ace55
the north wing
721
False
What is the name of the slightly less luxurious staterooms located underneath the State Apartments?
572616bfec44d21400f3d8a5
semi-state apartments
94
False
What type of entertaining are the semi-state apartments used for?
572616bfec44d21400f3d8a6
less formal entertaining
172
False
Who is the 1844 Room named after?
572616bfec44d21400f3d8a7
Tsar Nicholas I of Russia
382
False
Who is the 1855 Room named after?
572616bfec44d21400f3d8a8
Emperor Napoleon III of France
490
False
Where are the Queen and Prince Phillip's apartments located?
572616bfec44d21400f3d8a9
the north wing
721
False
the semi-state apartments
90
Which rooms are used for more formal entertaining such as luncheons or public audiences?
5a7a3c9517ab25001a8a03f0
True
1844 Room
325
Which room does not allow visits by Tsar Nicolas I of Russia?
5a7a3c9517ab25001a8a03f1
True
Emperor Napoleon III of France
490
Which European chef is The 1845 Room named after?
5a7a3c9517ab25001a8a03f2
True
the north wing
721
Where are the suites located that the King and Prince Phillip use?
5a7a3c9517ab25001a8a03f3
True
Tsar Nicholas I of Russia
382
Who is the 1744 Room named after?
5a7a3c9517ab25001a8a03f4
True
Directly underneath the State Apartments is a suite of slightly less grand rooms known as the semi-state apartments. Opening from the Marble Hall, these rooms are used for less formal entertaining, such as luncheon parties and private audiences. Some of the rooms are named and decorated for particular visitors, such as the 1844 Room, decorated in that year for the State visit of Tsar Nicholas I of Russia, and, on the other side of the Bow Room, the 1855 Room, in honour of the visit of Emperor Napoleon III of France. At the centre of this suite is the Bow Room, through which thousands of guests pass annually to the Queen's Garden Parties in the Gardens. The Queen and Prince Philip use a smaller suite of rooms in the north wing.
Where did many of the fittings for the new east wing come from?
5725e762271a42140099d2fd
Brighton Pavilion
70
False
When was the new east wing built?
5725e762271a42140099d2fe
Between 1847 and 1850
0
False
What is the theme for the new east wing?
5725e762271a42140099d2ff
oriental
195
False
The red and blue Chinese Luncheon Room has what as a main feature?
5725e762271a42140099d300
large oriental chimney piece
327
False
Who designed the chimney piece in The Yellow Drawing Room?
5725e762271a42140099d301
Robert Jones
636
False
What was Blore building between 1847 and 1850?
572617b838643c19005acfd9
the new east wing
47
False
Many rooms in the new east wing are in what style?
572617b838643c19005acfda
oriental
195
False
Parts of the Brighton Banqueting and Music Rooms from Brighton Pavilion make up which Buckingham Room?
572617b838643c19005acfdc
The red and blue Chinese Luncheon Room
216
False
Brighton Pavilion
70
Where did none of the fittings for the new west wing come from?
5a7a3dcb17ab25001a8a03fa
True
Between 1847 and 1850
0
When was the new east wing destroyed?
5a7a3dcb17ab25001a8a03fb
True
oriental
195
What theme is forbidden in the new east wing?
5a7a3dcb17ab25001a8a03fc
True
Robert Jones
636
Who removed the chimney piece in The Yellow Drawing Room?
5a7a3dcb17ab25001a8a03fd
True
oriental
195
What style are in none of the rooms in the new east wing?
5a7a3dcb17ab25001a8a03fe
True
Between 1847 and 1850, when Blore was building the new east wing, the Brighton Pavilion was once again plundered of its fittings. As a result, many of the rooms in the new wing have a distinctly oriental atmosphere. The red and blue Chinese Luncheon Room is made up from parts of the Brighton Banqueting and Music Rooms with a large oriental chimney piece sculpted by Richard Westmacott. The Yellow Drawing Room has wallpaper supplied in 1817 for the Brighton Saloon, and a chimney piece which is a European vision of how the Chinese chimney piece may appear. It has nodding mandarins in niches and fearsome winged dragons, designed by Robert Jones.
Which room has the famous balcony used by the royals?
5725e87538643c19005ace5b
Centre Room
58
False
What is the main theme of the Centre Room?
5725e87538643c19005ace5c
Chinese
224
False
Which Queen enhanced the Chinese theme of the Centre Room in the 1920s?
5725e87538643c19005ace5d
Queen Mary
137
False
The lacquer doors in the Centre Room were brought from Brighton in which year?
5725e87538643c19005ace5e
1873
314
False
The Principle Corridor features which type of doors?
5725e87538643c19005ace5f
mirrored doors
508
False
Which room feature the famous balcony?
57261935ec44d21400f3d8cb
Centre Room
58
False
Which designer did Queen Mary work with to enhance the Centre Room?
57261935ec44d21400f3d8cc
Sir Charles Allom
180
False
The Principle Corridor has which type of doors?
57261935ec44d21400f3d8cd
mirrored doors
508
False
What year were the lacquer doors brought from Brighton?
57261935ec44d21400f3d8ce
1873
314
False
Centre Room
58
Which room has the infamous balcony forbidden by the royals?
5a7a3edd17ab25001a8a0404
True
Chinese
104
What is the secondary theme of the Centre Room?
5a7a3edd17ab25001a8a0405
True
Queen Mary
137
Which Queen ruined the Chinese theme of the Centre Room in the 1930s?
5a7a3edd17ab25001a8a0406
True
Centre Room
58
Which room avoids the famous balcony?
5a7a3edd17ab25001a8a0407
True
Sir Charles Allom
180
Which designer did Queen Mary fire to enhance the Centre Room?
5a7a3edd17ab25001a8a0408
True
At the centre of this wing is the famous balcony with the Centre Room behind its glass doors. This is a Chinese-style saloon enhanced by Queen Mary, who, working with the designer Sir Charles Allom, created a more "binding" Chinese theme in the late 1920s, although the lacquer doors were brought from Brighton in 1873. Running the length of the piano nobile of the east wing is the great gallery, modestly known as the Principal Corridor, which runs the length of the eastern side of the quadrangle. It has mirrored doors, and mirrored cross walls reflecting porcelain pagodas and other oriental furniture from Brighton. The Chinese Luncheon Room and Yellow Drawing Room are situated at each end of this gallery, with the Centre Room obviously placed in the centre.
Where do foreign heads of stay usually stay in Buckingham Palace?
5725e980ec44d21400f3d743
the Belgian Suite
171
False
What floor are the Belgian Suites located?
5725e980ec44d21400f3d744
ground floor
247
False
The Belgian Suite is located at the foot of which staircase?
5725e980ec44d21400f3d745
the Minister's Staircase
214
False
How are the rooms of the Belgian Suites linked?
5725e980ec44d21400f3d746
by narrow corridors
327
False
What is the style of the saucer domes in the Belgian Suite?
5725e980ec44d21400f3d747
the style of Soane
434
False
Where do foreign heads of stay at Buckingham Palace?
57261a80ec44d21400f3d8e7
the Belgian Suite
171
False
The Belgian Suite is located at the bottom of which staircase?
57261a80ec44d21400f3d8e8
Minister's Staircase
218
False
On which floor is the Belgian Suite located?
57261a80ec44d21400f3d8e9
the ground floor
243
False
How are the rooms in the Belgian Suite connected?
57261a80ec44d21400f3d8ea
by narrow corridors
327
False
The saucer domes are in whose style?
57261a80ec44d21400f3d8eb
the style of Soane
434
False
the Belgian Suite
171
Where do foreign heads of stay usually avoid in Buckingham Palace?
5a7a3fbb17ab25001a8a0418
True
ground floor
247
What floor are the Belgian Suites burned?
5a7a3fbb17ab25001a8a0419
True
by narrow corridors
327
How are the rooms of the Belgian Suites separated?
5a7a3fbb17ab25001a8a041a
True
the Belgian Suite
171
Where do foreign heads paint at Buckingham Palace?
5a7a3fbb17ab25001a8a041b
True
ground floor
247
Which floor is the Belgian Suite restricted?
5a7a3fbb17ab25001a8a041c
True
When paying a state visit to Britain, foreign heads of state are usually entertained by the Queen at Buckingham Palace. They are allocated a large suite of rooms known as the Belgian Suite, situated at the foot of the Minister's Staircase, on the ground floor of the north-facing Garden Wing. The rooms of the suite are linked by narrow corridors, one of them is given extra height and perspective by saucer domes designed by Nash in the style of Soane. A second corridor in the suite has Gothic influenced cross over vaulting. The Belgian Rooms themselves were decorated in their present style and named after Prince Albert's uncle Léopold I, first King of the Belgians. In 1936, the suite briefly became the private apartments of the palace when they were occupied by King Edward VIII.
Aside from being the home of the monarchy and a tourist attraction, what else is Buckingham Palace known for?
5725ea96271a42140099d311
art gallery
73
False
Who made the palaces gilded railings and gates?
5725ea96271a42140099d312
Bromsgrove Guild
176
False
Buckingham Palace is also the London Residence for which Duke?
5725ea96271a42140099d314
Duke of York
439
False
Who is Buckingham palace home to?
572625bf89a1e219009ac3a6
the British monarchy
48
False
Who completed the palaces gilded railing and gates?
572625bf89a1e219009ac3a7
Bromsgrove Guild
176
False
In what year were the railings and gates completed?
572625bf89a1e219009ac3a8
1911
196
False
How many people work at Buckingham Palace?
572625bf89a1e219009ac3a9
800 people
670
False
Bromsgrove Guild
176
Who stole the palaces gilded railings and gates?
5a7a523f17ab25001a8a0508
True
more than 800
660
How many people were fired from Buckingham Palace?
5a7a523f17ab25001a8a0509
True
the British monarchy
48
Who is Buckingham palace restricted from?
5a7a523f17ab25001a8a050a
True
1911
196
What year were the railings and gates stolen?
5a7a523f17ab25001a8a050b
True
Duke of York
553
Which Duke is not allowed at Buckingham Palace?
5a7a523f17ab25001a8a050c
True
Thus, Buckingham Palace is a symbol and home of the British monarchy, an art gallery and a tourist attraction. Behind the gilded railings and gates which were completed by the Bromsgrove Guild in 1911 and Webb's famous façade, which has been described in a book published by the Royal Collection as looking "like everybody's idea of a palace", is not only a weekday home of the Queen and Prince Philip but also the London residence of the Duke of York and the Earl and Countess of Wessex. The palace also houses the offices of the Queen, Prince Philip, Duke of York, Earl and Countess of Wessex, Princess Royal, and Princess Alexandra, and is the workplace of more than 800 people.
Buckingham Palace is actually owned by whom?
5725ebc2271a42140099d32d
Crown Estate
49
False
Where can the public view items from the Royal Collection?
5725ebc2271a42140099d32e
Queen's Gallery
374
False
What was located on the site that is now the Queen's Gallery?
5725ebc2271a42140099d32f
chapel
584
False
What part of the palace has been open to the public every August and September and other select dates since 1993?
5725ebc2271a42140099d330
The palace's state rooms
633
False
Who owns Buckingham Palace and Windsor Castle?
5726252189a1e219009ac35c
Crown Estate
49
False
Where can the public view the Royal Collection?
5726252189a1e219009ac35d
at the Queen's Gallery
367
False
Since when have the palaces rooms been opened to the public?
5726252189a1e219009ac35e
since 1993
757
False
How many people visited the palace in the 2014.2015 fiscal year?
5726252189a1e219009ac35f
476,000 people
916
False
Crown Estate
49
Who has never owned Buckingham Palace?
5a7a51c317ab25001a8a04fe
True
Queen's Gallery
374
Where is the public not allowed to view items from the Royal Collection?
5a7a51c317ab25001a8a04ff
True
chapel
584
What was located on the site that is now the King's Gallery?
5a7a51c317ab25001a8a0500
True
The palace's state rooms
633
What part of the palace has been open to the public every August and July and other select dates since 1991?
5a7a51c317ab25001a8a0501
True
476,000 people
916
How many people were missing from the palace in the 2014-2015 fiscal year?
5a7a51c317ab25001a8a0502
True
The palace, like Windsor Castle, is owned by the Crown Estate. It is not the monarch's personal property, unlike Sandringham House and Balmoral Castle. Many of the contents from Buckingham Palace, Windsor Castle, Kensington Palace, and St James's Palace are part of the Royal Collection, held in trust by the Sovereign; they can, on occasion, be viewed by the public at the Queen's Gallery, near the Royal Mews. Unlike the palace and the castle, the purpose-built gallery is open continually and displays a changing selection of items from the collection. It occupies the site of the chapel destroyed by an air raid in World War II. The palace's state rooms have been open to the public during August and September and on selected dates throughout the year since 1993. The money raised in entry fees was originally put towards the rebuilding of Windsor Castle after the 1992 fire devastated many of its state rooms. 476,000 people visited the palace in the 2014–15 financial year.
What is the official dress code today at Buckingham Palace?
5725ed7838643c19005ace95
there is no official dress code
690
False
Which Queen tried and failed to raise the hemline of her dress after WWI?
5725ed7838643c19005ace96
Queen Mary
293
False
Which King was horrified to see the Queen's hemline raised a few inches?
5725ed7838643c19005ace97
King George V
474
False
The hemline of daytime skirts were allowed to rise after which year?
5725ed7838643c19005ace98
1936
581
False
The knee breeches men formerly wore to the palace were of what era's design?
5725ed7838643c19005ace99
18th-century design
68
False
From what century were men's knee breeches worn at Buckingham designed in?
57261b6689a1e219009ac26e
18th-century design
68
False
What were women obliged to wear in their hair?
57261b6689a1e219009ac26f
tiaras or feathers
142
False
Which queen wanted to shorten her skirt's hemline?
57261b6689a1e219009ac270
Queen Mary
293
False
Which King was horrified to see the raised hemline on the Queen?
57261b6689a1e219009ac271
George V
479
False
What is the dress code today at Buckingham?
57261b6689a1e219009ac272
there is no official dress code
690
False
tiaras or feathers
142
What were women required to wear in their socks?
5a7a467017ab25001a8a044a
True
Queen Mary
293
Which Queen raised the hemline of her dress after WWI?
5a7a467017ab25001a8a044b
True
King George V
474
Which King was amused to see the Queen's hemline raised a few inches?
5a7a467017ab25001a8a044c
True
18th-century
68
What century were men's knee breeches forbidden at Buckingham?
5a7a467017ab25001a8a044d
True
Queen Mary
293
Which queen wanted to extend her skirt's hemline?
5a7a467017ab25001a8a044e
True
Formerly, men not wearing military uniform wore knee breeches of an 18th-century design. Women's evening dress included obligatory trains and tiaras or feathers in their hair (or both). The dress code governing formal court uniform and dress has progressively relaxed. After World War I, when Queen Mary wished to follow fashion by raising her skirts a few inches from the ground, she requested a lady-in-waiting to shorten her own skirt first to gauge the king's reaction. King George V was horrified, so the queen kept her hemline unfashionably low. Following their accession in 1936, King George VI and his consort, Queen Elizabeth, allowed the hemline of daytime skirts to rise. Today, there is no official dress code. Most men invited to Buckingham Palace in the daytime choose to wear service uniform or lounge suits; a minority wear morning coats, and in the evening, depending on the formality of the occasion, black tie or white tie.
Under whose reign did court presentations of young aristocratic ladies take place?
5725ee8a38643c19005acebb
Edward VII
107
False
What was the name for the ceremony where debutantes had their first introduction into society?
5725ee8a38643c19005acebc
coming out
194
False
Debutantes wore the feather of which bird in their hair?
5725ee8a38643c19005acebd
ostrich feathers
301
False
After WWII "coming out" ceremonies were replaces with what event?
5725ee8a38643c19005acebe
less formal afternoon receptions
633
False
Under whose reign were young debutantes presented to society at Court?
57261c35271a42140099d485
Edward VII
107
False
What types of feathers did debutantes wear in their hair?
57261c35271a42140099d486
ostrich feathers
301
False
What was the occasion where debutantes were presented to society called?
57261c35271a42140099d487
"coming out"
193
False
After WWII what was the coming out ceremony replaced with?
57261c35271a42140099d488
less formal afternoon receptions
633
False
Edward VII
107
Whose reign did not include court presentations of young aristocratic ladies?
5a7a486617ab25001a8a045e
True
coming out
194
What was the name for the sacrifice where debutantes had their last introduction into society?
5a7a486617ab25001a8a045f
True
ostrich feathers
301
What bird's feathers did debutantes wear in their shirt?
5a7a486617ab25001a8a0460
True
coming out
194
What was the occasion where debutantes were exiled from society called?
5a7a486617ab25001a8a0461
True
less formal afternoon receptions
633
What was the coming out ceremony replaced with during WWII?
5a7a486617ab25001a8a0462
True
Court presentations of aristocratic young ladies to the monarch took place at the palace from the reign of Edward VII. These young women were known as débutantes, and the occasion—termed their "coming out"—represented their first entrée into society. Débutantes wore full court dress, with three tall ostrich feathers in their hair. They entered, curtsied, and performed a choreographed backwards walk and a further curtsy, while manoeuvring a dress train of prescribed length. (The ceremony, known as an evening court, corresponded to the "court drawing rooms" of Victoria's reign.) After World War II, the ceremony was replaced by less formal afternoon receptions, usually without choreographed curtsies and court dress.
Where do Investitures take place?
5725ef6e271a42140099d33f
in the palace's Ballroom
111
False
What year was The Ballroom built?
5725ef6e271a42140099d340
1854
146
False
Which room has The Ballroom replaced in terms of both use and importance?
5725ef6e271a42140099d341
the throne room
274
False
What does the Queen stand on during Investitures?
5725ef6e271a42140099d343
the throne dais
354
False
Knighthood is given by being dubbed with what object?
57261d0d38643c19005ad02e
a sword
74
False
What is the largest room in the palace?
57261d0d38643c19005ad02f
Ballroom
127
False
The Ballroom replaced which other room in terms of importance and use?
57261d0d38643c19005ad031
the throne room
274
False
in the palace's Ballroom
111
Where do Investitures never take place?
5a7a48f817ab25001a8a0468
True
1854
146
What year was The Ballroom blown up?
5a7a48f817ab25001a8a0469
True
the throne room
274
Which room has The Ballroom never changed in terms of both use and importance?
5a7a48f817ab25001a8a046a
True
the palace's Ballroom
114
What is the smallest room in the palace?
5a7a48f817ab25001a8a046b
True
the throne dais
354
What does the Queen sit on during Investitures?
5a7a48f817ab25001a8a046c
True
Investitures, which include the conferring of knighthoods by dubbing with a sword, and other awards take place in the palace's Ballroom, built in 1854. At 36.6 m (120 ft) long, 18 m (59 ft) wide and 13.5 m (44 ft) high, it is the largest room in the palace. It has replaced the throne room in importance and use. During investitures, the Queen stands on the throne dais beneath a giant, domed velvet canopy, known as a shamiana or a baldachin, that was used at the Delhi Durbar in 1911. A military band plays in the musicians' gallery as award recipients approach the Queen and receive their honours, watched by their families and friends.
Where do State Banquets take place?
5725f0ec271a42140099d349
the Ballroom
34
False
In what month does the Queen entertain the diplomatic corps?
5725f0ec271a42140099d34a
November
457
False
What is used to set the dining table for formal dinners?
5725f0ec271a42140099d34b
the Grand Service
272
False
When was the Grand Service made?
5725f0ec271a42140099d34c
1811
333
False
For whom was the Grand Service made?
5725f0ec271a42140099d34d
the Prince of Wales
342
False
Where do state banquets take place?
57261df0ec44d21400f3d905
in the Ballroom
31
False
When are state banquets held?
57261df0ec44d21400f3d906
the first evening of a state visit by a foreign head of state
81
False
What is the dining table laid with for state banquets?
57261df0ec44d21400f3d907
the Grand Service
272
False
Who was the Grand Service originally made for?
57261df0ec44d21400f3d909
Prince of Wales
346
False
the Ballroom
34
Where are State Banquets forbidden?
5a7a497317ab25001a8a0472
True
November
457
What month does the Queen promote the diplomatic corps?
5a7a497317ab25001a8a0473
True
the Grand Service
272
What is used to set the dining table for casual dinners?
5a7a497317ab25001a8a0474
True
1811
333
When was the Grand Service removed?
5a7a497317ab25001a8a0475
True
the first evening of a state visit by a foreign head of state
81
When are state banquets avoided?
5a7a497317ab25001a8a0476
True
State banquets also take place in the Ballroom; these formal dinners are held on the first evening of a state visit by a foreign head of state. On these occasions, for up to 170 guests in formal "white tie and decorations", including tiaras, the dining table is laid with the Grand Service, a collection of silver-gilt plate made in 1811 for the Prince of Wales, later George IV. The largest and most formal reception at Buckingham Palace takes place every November when the Queen entertains members of the diplomatic corps. On this grand occasion, all the state rooms are in use, as the royal family proceed through them, beginning at the great north doors of the Picture Gallery. As Nash had envisaged, all the large, double-mirrored doors stand open, reflecting the numerous crystal chandeliers and sconces, creating a deliberate optical illusion of space and light.
Where is the Gold State Coach housed?
5725f1dc271a42140099d354
the Royal Mews
26
False
When was the Gold State Coach first used?
5725f1dc271a42140099d356
1762
311
False
The Royal Mews houses which type of animal?
5725f1dc271a42140099d357
horses
482
False
Who designed the Royal Mews?
57261ed8ec44d21400f3d921
Nash
59
False
Where is the Gold State Coach kept?
57261ed8ec44d21400f3d922
the Royal Mews
26
False
Who designed the Gold State Coach?
57261ed8ec44d21400f3d923
Sir William Chambers
172
False
In what year was the Gold State Coach first used?
57261ed8ec44d21400f3d924
1762
311
False
What animals are kept in the mews?
57261ed8ec44d21400f3d925
horses
482
False
Nash
59
Who destroyed the Royal Mews?
5a7a4c3d17ab25001a8a0490
True
the Royal Mews
26
Where is the Silver State Coach housed?
5a7a4c3d17ab25001a8a0491
True
Sir William Chambers
172
Who knows nothing about the Gold State Coach?
5a7a4c3d17ab25001a8a0492
True
1762
311
When was the Gold State Coach last used?
5a7a4c3d17ab25001a8a0493
True
horses
482
What animals are forbidden in the mews?
5a7a4c3d17ab25001a8a0494
True
Adjacent to the palace is the Royal Mews, also designed by Nash, where the royal carriages, including the Gold State Coach, are housed. This rococo gilt coach, designed by Sir William Chambers in 1760, has painted panels by G. B. Cipriani. It was first used for the State Opening of Parliament by George III in 1762 and has been used by the monarch for every coronation since George IV. It was last used for the Golden Jubilee of Elizabeth II. Also housed in the mews are the coach horses used at royal ceremonial processions.
In what year did Edward VII ascend to the throne?
5725f343ec44d21400f3d779
1901
3
False
Kind Edward VII and Queen Alexandra's friends were know as what?
5725f343ec44d21400f3d77a
"the Marlborough House Set"
202
False
Some thought that King Edward VII's redecoration choices were at odds with whose prior work?
5725f343ec44d21400f3d77b
Nash's
622
False
Which king commissioned massive redecoration in the Belle Epoque cream and gold color scheme?
5725f343ec44d21400f3d77c
King Edward
570
False
What were the group of friends of King Edward VII and Queen Alexandra called?
57261fd438643c19005ad04b
the Marlborough House Set
203
False
What was at odds with Nash's original work in the palace?
57261fd438643c19005ad04c
King Edward's heavy redecorations
570
False
When did King Edward VII take the throne?
57261fd438643c19005ad04d
1901
3
False
What colors were used in the redecorations overseen by King Edward VII?
57261fd438643c19005ad04e
Belle époque cream and gold
420
False
1901
3
What year did Edward VII decline to ascend to the throne?
5a7a4d7117ab25001a8a04ae
True
King Edward
570
Which king commissioned minor redecoration in the Belle Epoque cream and silver color scheme?
5a7a4d7117ab25001a8a04af
True
the Marlborough House Set
203
What were the group of people that King Edward VII and Queen Alexandra avoided called?
5a7a4d7117ab25001a8a04b0
True
King Edward's heavy redecorations
570
What supported Nash's original work in the palace?
5a7a4d7117ab25001a8a04b1
True
Belle époque cream and gold
420
What colors were avoided in the redecorations overseen by King Edward VI?
5a7a4d7117ab25001a8a04b2
True
In 1901 the accession of Edward VII saw new life breathed into the palace. The new King and his wife Queen Alexandra had always been at the forefront of London high society, and their friends, known as "the Marlborough House Set", were considered to be the most eminent and fashionable of the age. Buckingham Palace—the Ballroom, Grand Entrance, Marble Hall, Grand Staircase, vestibules and galleries redecorated in the Belle époque cream and gold colour scheme they retain today—once again became a setting for entertaining on a majestic scale but leaving some to feel King Edward's heavy redecorations were at odds with Nash's original work.
Under whose reign did the last major building works take place?
5725f47f38643c19005acf01
King George V
60
False
The principle facade of the East Front is made from what type of stone?
5725f47f38643c19005acf02
Portland stone
237
False
Which king preferred official entertaining and royal duties to lavish parties?
5725f47f38643c19005acf03
George V
385
False
Who added and restored furniture to The Royal Collection?
5725f47f38643c19005acf04
Queen Mary
998
False
Who was responsible for decorating The Blue Drawing Room?
5725f47f38643c19005acf05
Queen Mary
1414
False
Who redesigned Blore's 1850 East Front?
5726213938643c19005ad065
Sir Aston Webb
89
False
The refaced facade was made from what type of stone?
5726213938643c19005ad066
Portland stone
237
False
Which king placed more emphasis on official entertaining and royal duties instead of lavish parties?
5726213938643c19005ad067
George V
385
False
What collection did Queen Mary take an interest in by adding and restoring pieces?
5726213938643c19005ad068
Royal Collection of furniture and art
1072
False
Who decorated the Blue Drawing Room?
5726213938643c19005ad069
Queen Mary
1414
False
King George V
60
Whose reign never had a major building works take place?
5a7a4e3d17ab25001a8a04b8
True
George V
385
Which king avoided official entertaining and royal duties in favor of lavish parties?
5a7a4e3d17ab25001a8a04b9
True
Queen Mary
1144
Who removed and ruined furniture in The Royal Collection?
5a7a4e3d17ab25001a8a04ba
True
Sir Aston Webb
89
Who redesigned Blore's 1820 West Front?
5a7a4e3d17ab25001a8a04bb
True
Queen Mary
1144
Who burned the Green Drawing Room?
5a7a4e3d17ab25001a8a04bc
True
The last major building work took place during the reign of King George V when, in 1913, Sir Aston Webb redesigned Blore's 1850 East Front to resemble in part Giacomo Leoni's Lyme Park in Cheshire. This new, refaced principal façade (of Portland stone) was designed to be the backdrop to the Victoria Memorial, a large memorial statue of Queen Victoria, placed outside the main gates. George V, who had succeeded Edward VII in 1910, had a more serious personality than his father; greater emphasis was now placed on official entertaining and royal duties than on lavish parties. He arranged a series of command performances featuring jazz musicians such as the Original Dixieland Jazz Band (1919) – the first jazz performance for a head of state, Sidney Bechet, and Louis Armstrong (1932), which earned the palace a nomination in 2009 for a (Kind of) Blue Plaque by the Brecon Jazz Festival as one of the venues making the greatest contribution to jazz music in the United Kingdom. George V's wife Queen Mary was a connoisseur of the arts, and took a keen interest in the Royal Collection of furniture and art, both restoring and adding to it. Queen Mary also had many new fixtures and fittings installed, such as the pair of marble Empire-style chimneypieces by Benjamin Vulliamy, dating from 1810, which the Queen had installed in the ground floor Bow Room, the huge low room at the centre of the garden façade. Queen Mary was also responsible for the decoration of the Blue Drawing Room. This room, 69 feet (21 metres) long, previously known as the South Drawing Room, has a ceiling designed specially by Nash, coffered with huge gilt console brackets.
Who lived at Buckingham Palace during WWI?
5725f5ca271a42140099d37b
King George V and Queen Mary
49
False
Where were valuable items from Buckingham Palace taken during WWI?
5725f5ca271a42140099d37c
Windsor
143
False
The king refrained from doing what during the war?
5725f5ca271a42140099d37d
alcohol
418
False
In what year was the north-west pavilion turned into a swimming pool?
5725f5ca271a42140099d37e
1938
586
False
Who persuaded the king to lock the wine cellars during WWI?
5725f5ca271a42140099d37f
David Lloyd George
308
False
Buckingham Palace was untouched during which war?
572621ec271a42140099d4b9
World War I
7
False
Where were valuables evacuated to during the war?
572621ec271a42140099d4ba
Windsor
143
False
What did the King give up during the war?
572621ec271a42140099d4bb
alcohol
418
False
Who convinced the king to lock the wine cellars?
572621ec271a42140099d4bc
David Lloyd George
308
False
What was the north-west pavilion converted into in 1938?
572621ec271a42140099d4bd
swimming pool
674
False
King George V and Queen Mary
49
Who died at Buckingham Palace during WWI?
5a7a500217ab25001a8a04cc
True
Windsor
143
Where were worthless items from Buckingham Palace taken after WWI?
5a7a500217ab25001a8a04cd
True
alcohol
418
What did the king increase consumption of during the war?
5a7a500217ab25001a8a04ce
True
1938
586
What year was the south-west pavilion turned into a swimming pool?
5a7a500217ab25001a8a04cf
True
David Lloyd George
308
Who persuaded the queen to unlock the wine cellars during WWI?
5a7a500217ab25001a8a04d0
True
During World War I, the palace, then the home of King George V and Queen Mary, escaped unscathed. Its more valuable contents were evacuated to Windsor but the royal family remained in situ. The King imposed rationing at the palace, much to the dismay of his guests and household. To the King's later regret, David Lloyd George persuaded him to go further by ostentatiously locking the wine cellars and refraining from alcohol, to set a good example to the supposedly inebriated working class. The workers continued to imbibe and the King was left unhappy at his enforced abstinence. In 1938, the north-west pavilion, designed by Nash as a conservatory, was converted into a swimming pool.
How many times was the palace bombed in WWII?
5725f69138643c19005acf11
nine times
43
False
What was destroyed in 1940?
5725f69138643c19005acf12
the palace chapel
127
False
Which monarchs were in residence at Buckingham Palace during WWII?
5725f69138643c19005acf13
King George VI and Queen Elizabeth
307
False
The bombing of Buckingham Palace showed what to the public?
5725f69138643c19005acf14
the common suffering of rich and poor
223
False
What was destroyed in one of the bombing that hit the palace in WWII?
57262370271a42140099d4e2
the chapel
396
False
The King and Queen were filmed doing what after a bombing?
57262370271a42140099d4e3
inspecting their bombed home
519
False
The royal family was seen as sharing what with their subjects after the bombings?
57262370271a42140099d4e4
their subjects' hardship
834
False
nine times
43
How many times was the palace remodeled in WWII?
5a7a50c717ab25001a8a04e0
True
the palace chapel
127
What was upgraded in 1940?
5a7a50c717ab25001a8a04e1
True
King George VI and Queen Elizabeth
307
Which monarchs were missing from Buckingham Palace during WWII?
5a7a50c717ab25001a8a04e2
True
their subjects' hardship
834
What did the royal family never share with their subjects after the bombings?
5a7a50c717ab25001a8a04e3
True
the common suffering of rich and poor
223
What was hidden from the public as a result of the bombing of Buckingham Palace?
5a7a50c717ab25001a8a04e4
True
During World War II, the palace was bombed nine times, the most serious and publicised of which resulted in the destruction of the palace chapel in 1940. Coverage of this event was played in cinemas all over the UK to show the common suffering of rich and poor. One bomb fell in the palace quadrangle while King George VI and Queen Elizabeth were in residence, and many windows were blown in and the chapel destroyed. War-time coverage of such incidents was severely restricted, however. The King and Queen were filmed inspecting their bombed home, the smiling Queen, as always, immaculately dressed in a hat and matching coat seemingly unbothered by the damage around her. It was at this time the Queen famously declared: "I'm glad we have been bombed. Now I can look the East End in the face". The royal family were seen as sharing their subjects' hardship, as The Sunday Graphic reported:
What is the date of the Battle of Britain Day?
5725f7a389a1e219009ac114
15 September 1940
3
False
What did Ray Holmes think the German pilot was going to bomb?
5725f7a389a1e219009ac115
the Palace
160
False
What type of airplane was the German craft Holmes rammed into?
5725f7a389a1e219009ac116
Dornier Do 17 bomber
298
False
After the war what did Holmes become?
5725f7a389a1e219009ac117
King's Messenger
778
False
What year did Ray Holmes die?
5725f7a389a1e219009ac118
2005
839
False
What is September 15, 1940 known as?
5726245b89a1e219009ac2ee
the Battle of Britain Day
31
False
What did Ray Holmes believe the German pilot was targeting?
5726245b89a1e219009ac2ef
the Palace
160
False
What did Holmes do to stop the German Plane?
5726245b89a1e219009ac2f0
ram it
236
False
What type of aircraft was the German Plane?
5726245b89a1e219009ac2f1
Dornier Do 17 bomber
298
False
When did Holmes die?
5726245b89a1e219009ac2f2
2005
839
False
15 September 1940
3
What is the date of the celebration of Britain Day?
5a7a513117ab25001a8a04ea
True
the Palace
160
What did Ray Holmes think the German pilot was going to restore?
5a7a513117ab25001a8a04eb
True
Dornier Do 17 bomber
298
What type of airplane was the German craft Holmes avoiding?
5a7a513117ab25001a8a04ec
True
King's Messenger
778
What did Holmes become during the war?
5a7a513117ab25001a8a04ed
True
2005
839
What year did Ray Holmes give birth?
5a7a513117ab25001a8a04ee
True
On 15 September 1940, known as the Battle of Britain Day, an RAF pilot, Ray Holmes of No. 504 Squadron RAF rammed a German bomber he believed was going to bomb the Palace. Holmes had run out of ammunition and made the quick decision to ram it. Holmes bailed out. Both aircraft crashed. In fact the Dornier Do 17 bomber was empty. It had already been damaged, two of its crew had been killed and the remainder bailed out. Its pilot, Feldwebel Robert Zehbe, landed, only to die later of wounds suffered during the attack. During the Dornier's descent, it somehow unloaded its bombs, one of which hit the Palace. It then crashed into the forecourt of London Victoria station. The bomber's engine was later exhibited at the Imperial War Museum in London. The British pilot became a King's Messenger after the war, and died at the age of 90 in 2005.
Incandescent_light_bulb
What type of energy makes an incandescent light bulb glow?
5725c70dec44d21400f3d53f
electric current
160
False
Which part of the incandescent light bulb is heated?
5725c70dec44d21400f3d540
wire filament
102
False
What part of a halogen light bulb supplies electric current?
5725c70dec44d21400f3d541
feed-through terminals or wires embedded in the glass
551
False
What provides the electricity to most light bulbs?
5725c70dec44d21400f3d542
a socket
629
False
Which type of light bulb uses inert gas?
5725c70dec44d21400f3d543
incandescent light bulb
3
False
incandescent light bulb
3
What type of light has a wire filament heated to a low temperature?
5ad1854a645df0001a2d1e84
True
incandescent light bulb
3
What does not have electric current running through a wire filament?
5ad1854a645df0001a2d1e85
True
feed-through terminals or wires embedded in the glass
551
What part of a halogen light bulb does not supply electric current?
5ad1854a645df0001a2d1e86
True
a socket
629
What does not provide electricity to most light bulbs?
5ad1854a645df0001a2d1e87
True
An incandescent light bulb, incandescent lamp or incandescent light globe is an electric light with a wire filament heated to a high temperature, by passing an electric current through it, until it glows with visible light (incandescence). The hot filament is protected from oxidation with a glass or quartz bulb that is filled with inert gas or evacuated. In a halogen lamp, filament evaporation is prevented by a chemical process that redeposits metal vapor onto the filament, extending its life. The light bulb is supplied with electric current by feed-through terminals or wires embedded in the glass. Most bulbs are used in a socket which provides mechanical support and electrical connections.
Are incandescent bulbs more or less efficient than most electric lighting?
5725c812ec44d21400f3d553
less efficient
28
False
What percentage of energy does a standard light bulb actually convert to visible light?
5725c812ec44d21400f3d554
2.2%
212
False
Which is more efficient: compact fluorescent or LED lights?
5725c812ec44d21400f3d555
LED
419
False
How long does a typical incandescent light bulb last?
5725c812ec44d21400f3d556
1,000 hours
821
False
What happens to the energy that an incandescent bulb does not convert into light?
5725c812ec44d21400f3d557
The remaining energy is converted into heat.
218
False
Incandescent bulbs
0
What are more efficient than most other types of electric lighting?
5ad1864c645df0001a2d1e8c
True
2.2
212
What percentage of energy is not actually converted to visible light in a standard light bulb?
5ad1864c645df0001a2d1e8d
True
5%
124
What percentage of energy is not actually converted to visible light in an incadescent light bulb?
5ad1864c645df0001a2d1e8e
True
Incandescent
725
What type of bulb typically has a long life span?
5ad1864c645df0001a2d1e8f
True
The remaining energy is converted into heat.
218
What does not happen to the energy that an incandescent bulb does not covert into light?
5ad1864c645df0001a2d1e90
True
Incandescent bulbs are much less efficient than most other types of electric lighting; incandescent bulbs convert less than 5% of the energy they use into visible light, with standard light bulbs averaging about 2.2%. The remaining energy is converted into heat. The luminous efficacy of a typical incandescent bulb is 16 lumens per watt, compared with 60 lm/W for a compact fluorescent bulb or 150 lm/W for some white LED lamps. Some applications of the incandescent bulb deliberately use the heat generated by the filament. Such applications include incubators, brooding boxes for poultry, heat lights for reptile tanks, infrared heating for industrial heating and drying processes, lava lamps, and the Easy-Bake Oven toy. Incandescent bulbs typically have short lifetimes compared with other types of lighting; around 1,000 hours for home light bulbs versus typically 10,000 hours for compact fluorescents and 30,000 hours for lighting LEDs.
What law did Australia make about incandescent light bulbs?
5725cafc89a1e219009abebe
prohibited them already
499
False
How is the United States treating incandescent light bulbs?
5725cafc89a1e219009abebf
phasing out the use of incandescent light bulbs
365
False
What does the acronym CCFL refer to?
5725cafc89a1e219009abec0
cold cathode fluorescent lamps
153
False
What does the acronym CFL refer to?
5725cafc89a1e219009abec1
compact fluorescent lamps
120
False
What does the acronym LED refer to?
5725cafc89a1e219009abec2
light-emitting diode
228
False
Incandescent bulbs
0
What type of bulb has not been replaced in many application by other types of electric light?
5ad186e4645df0001a2d1e9e
True
phasing out the use of incandescent light bulbs
365
How is India treating incandescent light bulbs?
5ad186e4645df0001a2d1e9f
True
cold cathode fluorescent lamps
153
What does the acronym CCFL not refer to?
5ad186e4645df0001a2d1ea0
True
light-emitting diode lamps
228
What does the acronym LED not refer to?
5ad186e4645df0001a2d1ea1
True
compact fluorescent lamps
120
What does the acronym CFL not refer to?
5ad186e4645df0001a2d1ea2
True
Incandescent bulbs have been replaced in many applications by other types of electric light, such as fluorescent lamps, compact fluorescent lamps (CFL), cold cathode fluorescent lamps (CCFL), high-intensity discharge lamps, and light-emitting diode lamps (LED). Some jurisdictions, such as the European Union, China, Canada and United States, are in the process of phasing out the use of incandescent light bulbs while others, including Colombia, Mexico, Cuba, Argentina, Brazil and Australia, have prohibited them already.
Who patented an incandescent light bulb in Russia in 1874?
5725d0b0ec44d21400f3d60b
Alexander Lodygin
17
False
What did Lodygin use as a burner in his lamp?
5725d0b0ec44d21400f3d60c
two carbon rods
130
False
In what year did Lodygin demonstrate a lamp at the World's Fair?
5725d0b0ec44d21400f3d60d
1900
641
False
What did Lodygin change his name to after moving to the USA?
5725d0b0ec44d21400f3d60e
Alexander de Lodyguine
396
False
When did Lodygin invent his first lamp?
5725d0b0ec44d21400f3d60f
1872
3
False
Alexander Lodygin
17
Who did not patent an incandescent light bulb in 1872?
5ad188d0645df0001a2d1eba
True
Alexander de Lodyguine
396
Who did not demonstrate at the world fair in 1900 in Paris?
5ad188d0645df0001a2d1ebb
True
1900
641
When did Anxander Lodygin change his name?
5ad188d0645df0001a2d1ebc
True
Alexander Lodygin
17
Who invented his first lamp in the 1700's?
5ad188d0645df0001a2d1ebd
True
two carbon rods
130
What did Lodygin not use as a burner in his lamp?
5ad188d0645df0001a2d1ebe
True
In 1872, Russian Alexander Lodygin invented an incandescent light bulb and obtained a Russian patent in 1874. He used as a burner two carbon rods of diminished section in a glass receiver, hermetically sealed, and filled with nitrogen, electrically arranged so that the current could be passed to the second carbon when the first had been consumed. Later he lived in the USA, changed his name to Alexander de Lodyguine and applied and obtained patents for incandescent lamps having chromium, iridium, rhodium, ruthenium, osmium, molybdenum and tungsten filaments, and a bulb using a molybdenum filament was demonstrated at the world fair of 1900 in Paris.
Where did Joseph Swan demonstrate his lamp in January 1879?
5725d2ee38643c19005acda1
at a meeting of the Newcastle Chemical Society
271
False
Which vacuum pump expert helped Swan invent his lamp?
5725d2ee38643c19005acda2
Charles Stearn
17
False
Why was Swan's first lamp not commercially viable?
5725d2ee38643c19005acda3
'parchmentised thread'
1182
False
When did Swan receive a patent for parchmentised thread?
5725d2ee38643c19005acda4
1880
1241
False
What was the first public building to install electric lighting?
5725d2ee38643c19005acda5
the Savoy Theatre in the City of Westminster, London
1624
False
Charles Stearn
17
Who did not help Swan in 1878?
5ad189d8645df0001a2d1ec4
True
processing that avoided the early bulb blackening
96
What method did Swan not develop in 1878?
5ad189d8645df0001a2d1ec5
True
a lamp using a slender carbon rod
227
What was not shown at a meeting of the Newcastle Chemistry Society?
5ad189d8645df0001a2d1ec6
True
a lamp using a slender carbon rod
227
What was shown to an audience of 800 who attended a meeting of the Literary and Philosophical Society of Newcastle?
5ad189d8645df0001a2d1ec7
True
'parchmentised thread'
1182
Why was Swan's first lamp commercially viable?
5ad189d8645df0001a2d1ec8
True
With the help of Charles Stearn, an expert on vacuum pumps, in 1878, Swan developed a method of processing that avoided the early bulb blackening. This received a British Patent in 1880.[dubious – discuss] On 18 December 1878, a lamp using a slender carbon rod was shown at a meeting of the Newcastle Chemical Society, and Swan gave a working demonstration at their meeting on 17 January 1879. It was also shown to 700 who attended a meeting of the Literary and Philosophical Society of Newcastle upon Tyne on 3 February 1879. These lamps used a carbon rod from an arc lamp rather than a slender filament. Thus they had low resistance and required very large conductors to supply the necessary current, so they were not commercially practical, although they did furnish a demonstration of the possibilities of incandescent lighting with relatively high vacuum, a carbon conductor, and platinum lead-in wires. Besides requiring too much current for a central station electric system to be practical, they had a very short lifetime. Swan turned his attention to producing a better carbon filament and the means of attaching its ends. He devised a method of treating cotton to produce 'parchmentised thread' and obtained British Patent 4933 in 1880. From this year he began installing light bulbs in homes and landmarks in England. His house was the first in the world to be lit by a lightbulb and also the first house in the world to be lit by hydroelectric power. In 1878 the home of Lord Armstrong at Cragside was also among the first houses to be lit by electricity. In the early 1880s he had started his company. In 1881, the Savoy Theatre in the City of Westminster, London was lit by Swan incandescent lightbulbs, which was the first theatre, and the first public building in the world, to be lit entirely by electricity.
When did Edison begin research into incandescent lighting?
5725d45bec44d21400f3d669
1878
86
False
With what material did Edison make his first filament?
5725d45bec44d21400f3d66a
carbon
325
False
How long did Edison's light burn during his first successful test in 1879?
5725d45bec44d21400f3d66b
13.5 hours
403
False
What type of wood did Edison use in his improved filament?
5725d45bec44d21400f3d66c
bamboo
826
False
What was the name of the first ship to use Edison's lamp?
5725d45bec44d21400f3d66d
Columbia
936
False
Thomas Edison
0
Who began research into developing a practical incandescent lamp?
5ad18abc645df0001a2d1ece
True
Thomas Edison
0
Who filed his first patent application in 1890?
5ad18abc645df0001a2d1ecf
True
carbon
325
What did Edison turn refuse to use after his experiment with platinum and other metals?
5ad18abc645df0001a2d1ed0
True
carbon
531
What type of material was not used in the US patent for an electric lamp in November 1879?
5ad18abc645df0001a2d1ed1
True
bamboo
826
What type of material did Edison use that could not last more than 1200 hours?
5ad18abc645df0001a2d1ed2
True
Thomas Edison began serious research into developing a practical incandescent lamp in 1878. Edison filed his first patent application for "Improvement In Electric Lights" on 14 October 1878. After many experiments, first with carbon in the early 1880s and then with platinum and other metals, in the end Edison returned to a carbon filament. The first successful test was on 22 October 1879, and lasted 13.5 hours. Edison continued to improve this design and by 4 November 1879, filed for a US patent for an electric lamp using "a carbon filament or strip coiled and connected ... to platina contact wires." Although the patent described several ways of creating the carbon filament including using "cotton and linen thread, wood splints, papers coiled in various ways," Edison and his team later discovered that a carbonized bamboo filament could last more than 1200 hours. In 1880, the Oregon Railroad and Navigation Company steamer, Columbia, became the first application for Edison's incandescent electric lamps (it was also the first ship to execute use of a dynamo).
Who founded Electro-Dynamic Light Company?
5725d74389a1e219009abf86
Albon Man
0
False
Who was the chief engineer at the United States Electric Lighting Company?
5725d74389a1e219009abf87
Hiram S. Maxim
451
False
Where did Electro-Dynamic Light Company install its first lights?
5725d74389a1e219009abf88
Mercantile Safe Deposit Company
312
False
When did Electro-Dynamic Light Company install its first lights?
5725d74389a1e219009abf89
fall of 1880
292
False
Which company was organized first, Electro-Dynamic Light Company or United States Electric Lighting Company?
5725d74389a1e219009abf8a
Electro-Dynamic Light Company
38
False
Albon Man
0
Who began the Electro-Dynamic Light Company in 1890?
5ad18b83645df0001a2d1ee2
True
William Sawyer
112
Whose other patents did Albon Man not exploit?
5ad18b83645df0001a2d1ee3
True
Mercantile Safe Deposit Company
312
Where was the first installation of incandescent lamps in 1890?
5ad18b83645df0001a2d1ee4
True
Hiram S. Maxim
451
Who was the chief architect at the United States Electric Lighting Company?
5ad18b83645df0001a2d1ee5
True
United States Electric Lighting Company
144
Who did not make their first installation until the spring of 1880?
5ad18b83645df0001a2d1ee6
True
Albon Man, a New York lawyer, started Electro-Dynamic Light Company in 1878 to exploit his patents and those of William Sawyer. Weeks later the United States Electric Lighting Company was organized. This company didn't made their first commercial installation of incandescent lamps until the fall of 1880 at the Mercantile Safe Deposit Company in New York City, about six months after the Edison incandescent lamps had been installed on the Columbia. Hiram S. Maxim was the chief engineer at the United States Electric Lighting Company.
Who developed a heat-treating method that allowed carbon filaments to be molded into shapes?
5725d9dd89a1e219009abfb6
Lewis Latimer
0
False
When did Latimer patent his "Process of Manufacturing Carbons"?
5725d9dd89a1e219009abfb7
17 January 1882
242
False
Which company purchased Latimer's patent?
5725d9dd89a1e219009abfb8
United States Electric Light Company
419
False
Who employed Latimer when he developed his first patent?
5725d9dd89a1e219009abfb9
Edison
39
False
Lewis Latimer
0
Who developed an improved method of carbon filaments in 1882?
5ad18c22645df0001a2d1eec
True
17 January 1882
242
When did Edison patent his "Process of Manufacturing Carbons"?
5ad18c22645df0001a2d1eed
True
Process of Manufacturing Carbons
294
What was not an improved method for production of a light bulb?
5ad18c22645df0001a2d1eee
True
Process of Manufacturing Carbons
294
What was not purchased by the United States Electric Light Company?
5ad18c22645df0001a2d1eef
True
Edison
39
Who did not employ Latimer when he developed his first patent?
5ad18c22645df0001a2d1ef0
True
Lewis Latimer, employed at the time by Edison, developed an improved method of heat-treating carbon filaments which reduced breakage and allowed them to be molded into novel shapes, such as the characteristic "M" shape of Maxim filaments. On 17 January 1882, Latimer received a patent for the "Process of Manufacturing Carbons", an improved method for the production of light bulb filaments, which was purchased by the United States Electric Light Company. Latimer patented other improvements such as a better way of attaching filaments to their wire supports.
Which inventors patented the tungsten filament lamp?
5725de3489a1e219009abff4
Hungarian Sándor Just and Croatian Franjo Hanaman
21
False
When did Just and Hanaman receive their patent for the tungsten filament lamp?
5725de3489a1e219009abff5
13 December 1904
3
False
Which company first marketed the tungsten filament lamp?
5725de3489a1e219009abff6
Tungsram
282
False
What type of gas fills a tungsten filament bulb?
5725de3489a1e219009abff7
argon or nitrogen
410
False
What is a common alternate name for the tungsten filament bulb in Europe?
5725de3489a1e219009abff8
Tungsram-bulbs
326
False
Sándor Just and Croatian Franjo Hanaman
31
Who was not granted a patent fr the tungsten filament lamp?
5ad18cbd645df0001a2d1ef6
True
Sándor Just and Croatian Franjo Hanaman
31
Who was granted patent No. 34540?
5ad18cbd645df0001a2d1ef7
True
Sándor Just and Croatian Franjo Hanaman
31
Who receive their patent in 1905?
5ad18cbd645df0001a2d1ef8
True
argon or nitrogen
410
What type of gas does not fill a tungsten filament bulb?
5ad18cbd645df0001a2d1ef9
True
Tungsram-bulbs
326
What is not a common alternate name for the tungsten filament bulb in Europe.
5ad18cbd645df0001a2d1efa
True
On 13 December 1904, Hungarian Sándor Just and Croatian Franjo Hanaman were granted a Hungarian patent (No. 34541) for a tungsten filament lamp that lasted longer and gave brighter light than the carbon filament. Tungsten filament lamps were first marketed by the Hungarian company Tungsram in 1904. This type is often called Tungsram-bulbs in many European countries. Filling a bulb with an inert gas such as argon or nitrogen retards the evaporation of the tungsten filament compared to operating it in a vacuum. This allows for greater temperatures and therefore greater efficacy with less reduction in filament life.
What does the acronym LER refer to?
5725eaf7271a42140099d319
radiant luminous efficacy
68
False
What is the maximum LER possible?
5725eaf7271a42140099d31a
683 lm/W
852
False
In how many ways can one define luminous efficacy of a light source?
5725eaf7271a42140099d31b
two ways
54
False
What is the definition of radiant luminous efficacy?
5725eaf7271a42140099d31c
the ratio of the visible light flux emitted (the luminous flux) to the total power radiated over all wavelengths
103
False
What does the acronym LES refer to?
5725eaf7271a42140099d31d
source luminous efficacy
221
False
Luminous efficacy
0
What may be defined in three ways?
5ad18d4e645df0001a2d1f08
True
radiant luminous efficacy
68
What does the acronym LER not stand for?
5ad18d4e645df0001a2d1f09
True
source luminous efficacy
221
What does the acronym LES not stand for?
5ad18d4e645df0001a2d1f0a
True
source luminous efficacy (LES)
221
What is not the ratio of the visible light flux emitted to the total power input to the source?
5ad18d4e645df0001a2d1f0b
True
683 lm/W
852
What is the minimum LER possible?
5ad18d4e645df0001a2d1f0c
True
Luminous efficacy of a light source may be defined in two ways. The radiant luminous efficacy (LER) is the ratio of the visible light flux emitted (the luminous flux) to the total power radiated over all wavelengths. The source luminous efficacy (LES) is the ratio of the visible light flux emitted (the luminous flux) to the total power input to the source, such as a lamp. Visible light is measured in lumens, a unit which is defined in part by the differing sensitivity of the human eye to different wavelengths of light. Not all wavelengths of visible electromagnetic energy are equally effective at stimulating the human eye; the luminous efficacy of radiant energy (LER) is a measure of how well the distribution of energy matches the perception of the eye. The units of luminous efficacy are "lumens per watt" (lpw). The maximum LER possible is 683 lm/W for monochromatic green light at 555 nanometers wavelength, the peak sensitivity of the human eye.
At what temperature does a thermal radiator most efficiently produce light?
5725ee0a38643c19005acea9
6,300 °C
532
False
What is the upper limit for LER of an incandescent lamp?
5725ee0a38643c19005aceaa
52 lumens per watt
902
False
What type of radiation makes up the majority of tungsten filament emissions?
5725ee0a38643c19005aceab
infrared radiation
303
False
What is the flaw in the color of light produced by an incandescent bulb?
5725ee0a38643c19005aceac
the light emitted does not appear white,
148
False
What is the theoretical LER value of tungsten at its melting point?
5725ee0a38643c19005acead
52 lumens per watt
902
False
The spectrum emitted by a blackbody radiator at temperatures of incandescent bulbs
0
What appears white to the human eye when it is emitted?
5ad18e11645df0001a2d1f12
True
6,300 °C
532
What is the lower limit for LER of an incandescent lamp?
5ad18e11645df0001a2d1f13
True
Tungsten filaments
269
What does not radiate mostly infrared radiation at temperatures where they remain solid?
5ad18e11645df0001a2d1f14
True
radiation
607
What is not infrared or ultraviolet?
5ad18e11645df0001a2d1f15
True
No known material
720
What known material can be used as a filament at 95 lumens per watt?
5ad18e11645df0001a2d1f16
True
The spectrum emitted by a blackbody radiator at temperatures of incandescent bulbs does not match the sensitivity characteristics of the human eye; the light emitted does not appear white, and most is not in the range of wavelengths at which the eye is most sensitive. Tungsten filaments radiate mostly infrared radiation at temperatures where they remain solid – below 3,695 K (3,422 °C; 6,191 °F). Donald L. Klipstein explains it this way: "An ideal thermal radiator produces visible light most efficiently at temperatures around 6,300 °C (6,600 K; 11,400 °F). Even at this high temperature, a lot of the radiation is either infrared or ultraviolet, and the theoretical luminous efficacy (LER) is 95 lumens per watt." No known material can be used as a filament at this ideal temperature, which is hotter than the sun's surface. An upper limit for incandescent lamp luminous efficacy (LER) is around 52 lumens per watt, the theoretical value emitted by tungsten at its melting point.
What is the purpose of white-balancing?
572607cd89a1e219009ac15a
to avoid too "warm" or "cool" colors
346
False
Of incandescent lights, fluorescent lights and LEDs, which has the best color-rendering performance?
572607cd89a1e219009ac15b
incandescent lights
624
False
What is the color rendering index of an incandescent light?
572607cd89a1e219009ac15c
100
287
False
Why do incandescent lights have superior color rendering?
572607cd89a1e219009ac15d
the continuous blackbody spectrum emitted from an incandescent light-bulb filament
135
False
What is the highest possible color rendering index score?
572607cd89a1e219009ac15e
100
287
False
incandescent light bulbs
22
What does not have an advantage in applications where color reproduction is important?
5ad18ef3645df0001a2d1f3a
True
to avoid too "warm" or "cool" colors
346
What is not the purpose of white-balancing?
5ad18ef3645df0001a2d1f3b
True
The color-rendering performance of incandescent lights
589
What can be matched by LEDs or flourescent lights?
5ad18ef3645df0001a2d1f3c
True
incandescent light
185
Whose coloring rendering index is 109?
5ad18ef3645df0001a2d1f3d
True
incandescent lights
624
What does not require additional adjustments to reduce green-magenta color casts?
5ad18ef3645df0001a2d1f3e
True
Although inefficient, incandescent light bulbs have an advantage in applications where accurate color reproduction is important, since the continuous blackbody spectrum emitted from an incandescent light-bulb filament yields near-perfect color rendition, with a color rendering index of 100 (the best possible). White-balancing is still required to avoid too "warm" or "cool" colors, but this is a simple process that requires only the color temperature in Kelvin as input for modern, digital visual reproduction equipment such as video or still cameras unless it is completely automated. The color-rendering performance of incandescent lights cannot be matched by LEDs or fluorescent lights, although they can offer satisfactory performance for non-critical applications such as home lighting. White-balancing such lights is therefore more complicated, requiring additional adjustments to reduce for example green-magenta color casts, and even when properly white-balanced, the color reproduction will not be perfect.
Do fluorescent lights have a higher or lower luminous efficiency than incandescents?
5726086889a1e219009ac16e
higher
134
False
How can luminescent light sources be modified to resemble the appearance of incandescents?
5726086889a1e219009ac16f
By careful selection of which electron energy level transitions are used, and fluorescent coatings which modify the spectral distribution
400
False
Why are luminescent light sources not ideal for photography?
5726086889a1e219009ac170
Due to the discrete spectral lines rather than a continuous spectrum
676
False
fluorescent lamp
59
Which lights have lower luminous efficiency?
5ad18fb3645df0001a2d1f6c
True
fluorescent
59
Which devices do not produce light by luminescence?
5ad18fb3645df0001a2d1f6d
True
fluorescent
59
What lamps produce prominent spectral lines and have a broad "tail" of visible infrared emissions?
5ad18fb3645df0001a2d1f6e
True
Due to the discrete spectral lines rather than a continuous spectrum
676
Why are luminescent light sources ideal for photography?
5ad18fb3645df0001a2d1f6f
True
There are many non-incandescent light sources, such as the fluorescent lamp, high-intensity discharge lamps and LED lamps, which have higher luminous efficiency, and some have been designed to be retrofitted in fixtures for incandescent lights. These devices produce light by luminescence. These lamps produce discrete spectral lines and do not have the broad "tail" of invisible infrared emissions. By careful selection of which electron energy level transitions are used, and fluorescent coatings which modify the spectral distribution, the spectrum emitted can be tuned to mimic the appearance of incandescent sources, or other different color temperatures of white light. Due to the discrete spectral lines rather than a continuous spectrum, the light is not ideal for applications such as photography and cinematography.
Do incandescent lights emit more, less, or the same amount of light as they age?
57260ae238643c19005acf77
less
307
False
What appliance requires more energy due to the use of incandescent lighting?
57260ae238643c19005acf78
a building's air conditioning system
875
False
Do incandescent lights have a longer or shorter life than other lighting sources?
57260ae238643c19005acf79
shorter
138
False
What are some factors to consider in calculating operating costs of lighting?
57260ae238643c19005acf7a
illumination requirements, cost of the lamp and labor cost to replace lamps (taking into account effective lamp lifetime), cost of electricity used
527
False
What is more cost-effective, heat from incandescent bulbs or heat from a building's heating system?
57260ae238643c19005acf7b
heat from the heating system
1040
False
incandescent bulb
23
Whose initial cost is large compared to the cost of the energy it uses over its lifetime?
5ad190bb645df0001a2d1f96
True
incandescent
23
Whose light emits more light as they age?
5ad190bb645df0001a2d1f97
True
Incandescent
112
What type of light has a longer life span than other sources?
5ad190bb645df0001a2d1f98
True
incandescent
456
What type of lighting system is less efficient over the course of a year?
5ad190bb645df0001a2d1f99
True
The initial cost of an incandescent bulb is small compared to the cost of the energy it uses over its lifetime. Incandescent bulbs have a shorter life than most other lighting, an important factor if replacement is inconvenient or expensive. Some types of lamp, including incandescent and fluorescent, emit less light as they age; this may be an inconvenience, or may reduce effective lifetime due to lamp replacement before total failure. A comparison of incandescent lamp operating cost with other light sources must include illumination requirements, cost of the lamp and labor cost to replace lamps (taking into account effective lamp lifetime), cost of electricity used, effect of lamp operation on heating and air conditioning systems. When used for lighting in houses and commercial buildings, the energy lost to heat can significantly increase the energy required by a building's air conditioning system. During the heating season heat produced by the bulbs is not wasted, although in most cases it is more cost effective to obtain heat from the heating system. Regardless, over the course of a year a more efficient lighting system saves energy in nearly all climates.
Do incandescent light bulbs use more or less energy as compared to CFLs and LED lamps?
57260f0538643c19005acf93
more
35
False
How much does the incandescent light ban in Europe contribute to the economy each year?
57260f0538643c19005acf94
5 to 10 billion euros
458
False
How much energy does the incandescent light ban in Europe save each year?
57260f0538643c19005acf95
40 TWh of electricity
505
False
How much CO2 emissions does the incandescent light ban in Europe save each year?
57260f0538643c19005acf96
15 million tonnes
581
False
How are laws written that bring about a ban of incandescent light bulbs?
57260f0538643c19005acf97
by setting minimum efficacy standards higher than can be achieved by incandescent lamps
153
False
incandescent
6
What type of light bulbs use less energy than alternatives?
5ad191b3645df0001a2d1fd4
True
incandescent light bulbs
6
What type of light source has  had measures introduced for the continued use of?
5ad191b3645df0001a2d1fd5
True
5 to 10 billion euros
458
How much does the incandescent light ban in Asia contribute to the economy each year?
5ad191b3645df0001a2d1fd6
True
15 million tonnes
581
How much CO2 emissions does the incandescent light ban in Asia save each year?
5ad191b3645df0001a2d1fd7
True
by setting minimum efficacy standards higher than can be achieved by incandescent lamps
153
How are laws written that bring about the continued use of incandescent light bulbs?
5ad191b3645df0001a2d1fd8
True
Since incandescent light bulbs use more energy than alternatives such as CFLs and LED lamps, many governments have introduced measures to ban their use, by setting minimum efficacy standards higher than can be achieved by incandescent lamps. Measures to ban light bulbs have been implemented in the European Union, the United States, Russia, Brazil, Argentina, Canada and Australia, among others. In the Europe the EC has calculated that the ban contributes 5 to 10 billion euros to the economy and saves 40 TWh of electricity every year, translating in CO2 emission reductions of 15 million tonnes.
Is the environmental performance of CFLs better or worse than that of incandescents?
5726134f89a1e219009ac1fc
better
317
False
Which type of light bulbs is considered most cost effective and robust?
5726134f89a1e219009ac1fd
LED lamps
471
False
What are some objections to banning incandescent bulbs?
5726134f89a1e219009ac1fe
higher initial cost of alternatives and lower quality of light of fluorescent lamps
70
False
What substance in CFL bulbs raises health concerns?
5726134f89a1e219009ac1ff
mercury
262
False
Do CFLs consume more, less, or the same amount of energy as incandescent bulbs?
5726134f89a1e219009ac200
much less
378
False
CFLs
304
What does not contain mercury?
5ad192db645df0001a2d2008
True
CFLs
304
What type of light consumes much more energy and therefore strongly reduce the environmental impact of power production?
5ad192db645df0001a2d2009
True
mercury
262
What does CFLS's have that cause people health concerns?
5ad192db645df0001a2d200a
True
LED lamps
471
What is regarded as the worst solution in terms of cost effectiveness and robustness?
5ad192db645df0001a2d200b
True
Objections to banning the use of incandescent light bulbs include the higher initial cost of alternatives and lower quality of light of fluorescent lamps. Some people have concerns about the health effects of fluorescent lamps. However, even though they contain mercury, the environmental performance of CFLs is much better than that of light bulbs, mostly because they consume much less energy and therefore strongly reduce the environmental impact of power production. LED lamps are even more efficient, and are free of mercury. They are regarded as the best solution in terms of cost effectiveness and robustness.
Which company introduced hybrid incandescent bulbs?
57261826271a42140099d473
Philips
138
False
How much more efficient are Halogena Energy Saver bulbs compared to incandescents?
57261826271a42140099d474
30 percent
222
False
What company first marketed light bulbs using the reflective capsule technique to increase energy efficiency?
57261826271a42140099d475
Duro-Test
457
False
What is the theoretical maximum efficiency of reflective capsule bulbs?
57261826271a42140099d476
270 lm/W
672
False
What is the maximum efficiency of reflective capsule bulbs as tested in labs?
57261826271a42140099d477
45 lm/W
786
False
Philips
138
Which company did not introduce hybrid incandescent bulbs?
5ad19690645df0001a2d20a4
True
by legislation in various countries mandating increased bulb efficiency
9
What did not prompt Philips to introduce the hybrid incandescent bulbs?
5ad19690645df0001a2d20a5
True
"Halogena Energy Saver" incandescents
151
What can produce about 25 Im/W?
5ad19690645df0001a2d20a6
True
"Halogena Energy Saver" incandescents
151
What is 40% less efficient than traditional incandescent?
5ad19690645df0001a2d20a7
True
reflective capsule
291
Which concept was not pioneered by Duro-Test in 1980?
5ad19690645df0001a2d20a8
True
Prompted by legislation in various countries mandating increased bulb efficiency, new "hybrid" incandescent bulbs have been introduced by Philips. The "Halogena Energy Saver" incandescents can produce about 23 lm/W; about 30 percent more efficient than traditional incandescents, by using a reflective capsule to reflect formerly wasted infrared radiation back to the filament from which it can be re-emitted as visible light. This concept was pioneered by Duro-Test in 1980 with a commercial product that produced 29.8 lm/W. More advanced reflectors based on interference filters or photonic crystals can theoretically result in higher efficiency, up to a limit of about 270 lm/W (40% of the maximum efficacy possible). Laboratory proof-of-concept experiments have produced as much as 45 lm/W, approaching the efficacy of compact fluorescent bulbs.
What is the name of the air-tight glass enclosure in an incandescent bulb?
57261afa38643c19005acffb
the envelope
66
False
What is the filament made of?
57261afa38643c19005acffc
tungsten wire
108
False
How many conductors are present in the bulb's base?
57261afa38643c19005acffd
two (or more)
214
False
What prevents air or gas leaks from a light bulb?
57261afa38643c19005acffe
a stem or glass mount anchored to the bulb's base
328
False
What function do small wires in a light bulb's stem perform?
57261afa38643c19005acfff
Small wires embedded in the stem in turn support the filament and its lead wires
468
False
Incandescent light bulbs
0
What consists of a non-air-tight glass enclosure?
5ad19767645df0001a2d20c6
True
tungsten wire
108
What is the filament not made of?
5ad19767645df0001a2d20c7
True
a stem or glass mount anchored to the bulb's base
328
What allows air or gas leaks in the bulb's base?
5ad19767645df0001a2d20c8
True
Small wires embedded in the stem
468
What does not support the filament and its lead wires?
5ad19767645df0001a2d20c9
True
Contact wires and a base
184
What has four conductors that provide electrical connections to the filament?
5ad19767645df0001a2d20ca
True
Incandescent light bulbs consist of an air-tight glass enclosure (the envelope, or bulb) with a filament of tungsten wire inside the bulb, through which an electric current is passed. Contact wires and a base with two (or more) conductors provide electrical connections to the filament. Incandescent light bulbs usually contain a stem or glass mount anchored to the bulb's base that allows the electrical contacts to run through the envelope without air or gas leaks. Small wires embedded in the stem in turn support the filament and its lead wires.
What is the powdery substance in coated glass light bulbs?
57261c3438643c19005ad019
kaolin
127
False
How is kaolin placed inside a light bulb?
57261c3438643c19005ad01a
blown in and electrostatically deposited
217
False
What is the effect of a kaolin coating on the light cast?
57261c3438643c19005ad01b
a more gentle and evenly distributed light
346
False
How are Christmas colored light bulbs created?
57261c3438643c19005ad01c
by coloring the glass with a dopant
784
False
How does kaolin create a more gentle light?
57261c3438643c19005ad01d
It diffuses the light emitted from the filament
287
False
either clear or coated glass
22
What type of glass does a light bulb not have?
5ad1983e645df0001a2d20e6
True
a white powdery substance on the inside called kaolin
80
What does not coat the glass bulb?
5ad1983e645df0001a2d20e7
True
Kaolin, or kaolinite
135
What is a black, chalky clay on the inside of a glass bulb?
5ad1983e645df0001a2d20e8
True
Kaolin
507
What does not produce a gentle ans evenly distributed light?
5ad1983e645df0001a2d20e9
True
Neodymium-containing glass
884
What is sometimes used to provide a more artificial appearing light?
5ad1983e645df0001a2d20ea
True
Most light bulbs have either clear or coated glass. The coated glass bulbs have a white powdery substance on the inside called kaolin. Kaolin, or kaolinite, is a white, chalky clay in a very fine powder form, that is blown in and electrostatically deposited on the interior of the bulb. It diffuses the light emitted from the filament, producing a more gentle and evenly distributed light. Manufacturers may add pigments to the kaolin to adjust the characteristics of the final light emitted from the bulb. Kaolin diffused bulbs are used extensively in interior lighting because of their comparatively gentle light. Other kinds of colored bulbs are also made, including the various colors used for "party bulbs", Christmas tree lights and other decorative lighting. These are created by coloring the glass with a dopant; which is often a metal like cobalt (blue) or chromium (green). Neodymium-containing glass is sometimes used to provide a more natural-appearing light.
What is the name for a base with one or more contacts at the tip and one at the shell?
57261e1d89a1e219009ac296
screw base
74
False
What is the name for a lamp base with one or more contacts on the base and a shell used as a contact or used only as a mechanical support?
57261e1d89a1e219009ac297
bayonet base
142
False
What is the purpose of contacts in the lamp socket?
57261e1d89a1e219009ac298
allow the electric current to pass through the base to the filament
491
False
What is the range of power ratings for incandescent bulbs?
57261e1d89a1e219009ac299
0.1 watt to about 10,000 watts
620
False
Which types of lamps use screw terminals for connection to wires?
57261e1d89a1e219009ac29a
automotive and special purpose lamps
380
False
screw base (one or more contacts at the tip, one at the shell) or a bayonet base
74
What type of base do large lamps not have?
5ad198f2645df0001a2d20f8
True
bayonet
142
What base is not used for mechanical support?
5ad198f2645df0001a2d20f9
True
wedge base and wire contacts
341
What type of base does a miniature lamp may not have?
5ad198f2645df0001a2d20fa
True
Contacts in the lamp socket
463
What does not allow the electric current to pass through the base to the filament?
5ad198f2645df0001a2d20fb
True
incandescent light bulbs
578
Whose power ratings range from about .0001 to .01?
5ad198f2645df0001a2d20fc
True
Many arrangements of electrical contacts are used. Large lamps may have a screw base (one or more contacts at the tip, one at the shell) or a bayonet base (one or more contacts on the base, shell used as a contact or used only as a mechanical support). Some tubular lamps have an electrical contact at either end. Miniature lamps may have a wedge base and wire contacts, and some automotive and special purpose lamps have screw terminals for connection to wires. Contacts in the lamp socket allow the electric current to pass through the base to the filament. Power ratings for incandescent light bulbs range from about 0.1 watt to about 10,000 watts.
What is a potential problem with the use of gas in a light bulb?
57262605271a42140099d5e5
introduces heat losses (and therefore efficiency loss)
475
False
What are the ideal chemical properties for the gas in a light bulb?
57262605271a42140099d5e6
chemical inertness and high atomic or molecular weight
130
False
What is the purpose of the gas in a light bulb?
57262605271a42140099d5e7
to prevent evaporation of the filament, without introducing significant heat losses
23
False
How do gases prevent evaporation of the filament?
57262605271a42140099d5e8
The presence of gas molecules knocks the liberated tungsten atoms back to the filament
199
False
the gas
12
Whose role is to allow evaporation of the filament?
5ad199b4645df0001a2d2102
True
chemical inertness and high atomic or molecular weight
130
What type of properties are not ideal for gas in a light bulb?
5ad199b4645df0001a2d2103
True
The presence of gas molecules
199
What does not knock the liberated tungsten atoms back to the filament?
5ad199b4645df0001a2d2104
True
The presence of gas molecules
199
What introduces heat gain from the filament?
5ad199b4645df0001a2d2105
True
The role of the gas is to prevent evaporation of the filament, without introducing significant heat losses. For these properties, chemical inertness and high atomic or molecular weight is desirable. The presence of gas molecules knocks the liberated tungsten atoms back to the filament, reducing its evaporation and allowing it to be operated at higher temperature without reducing its life (or, for operating at the same temperature, prolongs the filament life). It however introduces heat losses (and therefore efficiency loss) from the filament, by heat conduction and heat convection.
What type of machine manufactures glass light bulbs.
57262c83ec44d21400f3db91
ribbon machine
44
False
How many bulbs does the average ribbon machine produce per hour?
57262c83ec44d21400f3db92
50,000
397
False
How is the filament attached to the bulb?
57262c83ec44d21400f3db93
assembled on a glass stem, which is fused to the bulb
454
False
How is the evacuation tube sealed?
57262c83ec44d21400f3db94
by a flame
596
False
What blows the glass bulbs into their characteristic shape?
57262c83ec44d21400f3db95
precisely aligned air nozzles
170
False
"ribbon machine
43
What type of machine is not used in manufacturing light bulbs?
5ad19a94645df0001a2d210a
True
A continuous ribbon of glass
69
What is not passed along a conveyor belt when making bulbs?
5ad19a94645df0001a2d210b
True
A continuous ribbon of glass
69
What is cooled in a furnace and blown by aligned air nozzles though holes in the conveyor belt?
5ad19a94645df0001a2d210c
True
the evacuation tube in the stem press
548
What is not sealed by a flame?
5ad19a94645df0001a2d210d
True
In manufacturing the glass bulb, a type of "ribbon machine" is used. A continuous ribbon of glass is passed along a conveyor belt, heated in a furnace, and then blown by precisely aligned air nozzles through holes in the conveyor belt into molds. Thus the glass bulbs are created. After the bulbs are blown, and cooled, they are cut off the ribbon machine; a typical machine of this sort produces 50,000 bulbs per hour. The filament and its supports are assembled on a glass stem, which is fused to the bulb. The air is pumped out of the bulb, and the evacuation tube in the stem press is sealed by a flame. The bulb is then inserted into the lamp base, and the whole assembly tested.
What material were the first light bulb filaments made from?
57262d20271a42140099d703
carbon
55
False
What was the primary problem with early carbon filaments?
57262d20271a42140099d704
as they got hotter, their electrical resistance decreased
175
False
What were the positive effects of the flashing process?
57262d20271a42140099d705
improved the uniformity and strength of filaments as well as their efficiency
678
False
What properties of graphite improved the filament?
57262d20271a42140099d706
further strengthened and smoothed the filament
923
False
What are the effects of giving the filament a positive temperature coefficient?
57262d20271a42140099d707
helped stabilize the lamp's power consumption, temperature and light output against minor variations in supply voltage
1077
False
carbon
55
What were the first failed light bulb filaments made from?
5ad19bb3645df0001a2d2112
True
Early carbon filaments
97
What had a positive temperature coefficient of resistence?
5ad19bb3645df0001a2d2113
True
as they got hotter, their electrical resistance decreased
175
What was not a problem for early carbon filaments?
5ad19bb3645df0001a2d2114
True
improved the uniformity and strength of filaments as well as their efficiency
678
What were negative effects of the flashing process?
5ad19bb3645df0001a2d2115
True
metallized or "graphitized" filament was first heated in a high-temperature oven before flashing and lamp assembly
759
What did not further strengthen and did not smooth the filament?
5ad19bb3645df0001a2d2116
True
The first successful light bulb filaments were made of carbon (from carbonized paper or bamboo). Early carbon filaments had a negative temperature coefficient of resistance — as they got hotter, their electrical resistance decreased. This made the lamp sensitive to fluctuations in the power supply, since a small increase of voltage would cause the filament to heat up, reducing its resistance and causing it to draw even more power and heat even further. In the "flashing" process, carbon filaments were heated by current passing through them while in an evacuated vessel containing hydrocarbon vapor (usually gasoline). The carbon deposited on the filament by this treatment improved the uniformity and strength of filaments as well as their efficiency. A metallized or "graphitized" filament was first heated in a high-temperature oven before flashing and lamp assembly. This transformed the carbon into graphite which further strengthened and smoothed the filament. This also changed the filament to have a positive temperature coefficient, like a metallic conductor, and helped stabilize the lamp's power consumption, temperature and light output against minor variations in supply voltage.
What company invented the tantalum light filament?
57262d97ec44d21400f3dbad
Siemens
13
False
In what year was the tantalum light filament invented?
57262d97ec44d21400f3dbae
1902
3
False
What were the major advantages of the tantalum light filament?
57262d97ec44d21400f3dbaf
These lamps were more efficient than even graphitized carbon filaments and could operate at higher temperatures.
65
False
Who purchased the rights to the tantalum light filament from Siemens?
57262d97ec44d21400f3dbb0
General Electric
665
False
When did GE cease production of the tantalum light filament?
57262d97ec44d21400f3dbb1
1913
760
False
Siemens
13
Who developed the tantalum light filament in 1905?
5ad19c8d645df0001a2d211c
True
tantalum lamp filament
41
What lamps were less efficient than even graphitized carbon filaments?
5ad19c8d645df0001a2d211d
True
tantalum metal
184
What had a higher resistivity than carbon?
5ad19c8d645df0001a2d211e
True
General Electric
665
Who bought the rights to use tantalum filaments and produce then in Canada in 1913?
5ad19c8d645df0001a2d211f
True
These lamps were more efficient than even graphitized carbon filaments and could operate at higher temperatures.
65
What were the minor advantages of the tantalum light filament from Siemens?
5ad19c8d645df0001a2d2120
True
In 1902, the Siemens company developed a tantalum lamp filament. These lamps were more efficient than even graphitized carbon filaments and could operate at higher temperatures. Since tantalum metal has a lower resistivity than carbon, the tantalum lamp filament was quite long and required multiple internal supports. The metal filament had the property of gradually shortening in use; the filaments were installed with large loops that tightened in use. This made lamps in use for several hundred hours quite fragile. Metal filaments had the property of breaking and re-welding, though this would usually decrease resistance and shorten the life of the filament. General Electric bought the rights to use tantalum filaments and produced them in the US until 1913.
When was the tungsten filament introduced?
57263203ec44d21400f3dc11
1906
3
False
What was the problem with manufacturing the tungsten filament?
57263203ec44d21400f3dc12
Tungsten metal was initially not available in a form that allowed it to be drawn into fine wires.
47
False
Who developed the ductile form of tungsten?
57263203ec44d21400f3dc13
William D. Coolidge
246
False
When was the ductile form of tungsten invented?
57263203ec44d21400f3dc14
1910
213
False
What other materials were combined with tungsten?
57263203ec44d21400f3dc15
potassium, silicon, and aluminium oxides
574
False
tungsten filament
13
What was introduced in 1900?
5ad19d3c645df0001a2d2126
True
Tungsten metal
47
What was initially available in a form that allowed it to drawn into fine wires?
5ad19d3c645df0001a2d2127
True
sintered tungsten powder
165
What made filaments quite strong?
5ad19d3c645df0001a2d2128
True
William D. Coolidge
246
Who did not develop the ductile form of tungsten?
5ad19d3c645df0001a2d2129
True
General Electric
269
Where was William D. Coolidge employed in 1902?
5ad19d3c645df0001a2d212a
True
In 1906, the tungsten filament was introduced. Tungsten metal was initially not available in a form that allowed it to be drawn into fine wires. Filaments made from sintered tungsten powder were quite fragile. By 1910, a process was developed by William D. Coolidge at General Electric for production of a ductile form of tungsten. The process required pressing tungsten powder into bars, then several steps of sintering, swaging, and then wire drawing. It was found that very pure tungsten formed filaments that sagged in use, and that a very small "doping" treatment with potassium, silicon, and aluminium oxides at the level of a few hundred parts per million greatly improved the life and durability of the tungsten filaments.
How long is a typical uncoiled tungsten filament for a 60-watt bulb?
57263583271a42140099d77f
22.8 inches
224
False
What is the advantage of a coiled-coil filament over a straight filament?
57263583271a42140099d780
The coiled-coil filament evaporates more slowly
469
False
What positive effects does a slower-evaporating filament enable?
57263583271a42140099d781
more efficient light source
659
False
What is the typical diameter of the filament on a 60-watt bulb?
57263583271a42140099d782
0.0018 inches
275
False
the filament usually consists of multiple coils of coiled fine wire
39
What did not improve efficiency of the lamp?
5ad19e59645df0001a2d2130
True
22.8 inches
224
How long is a typical uncoiled tungsten filament for a 40-watt bulb?
5ad19e59645df0001a2d2131
True
The coiled-coil filament evaporates more slowly
469
What are the disadvantage of the coiled coil vs a straight filament?
5ad19e59645df0001a2d2132
True
more efficient light source
659
What negative effects does a slower evaporating filament cause?
5ad19e59645df0001a2d2133
True
To improve the efficiency of the lamp, the filament usually consists of multiple coils of coiled fine wire, also known as a 'coiled coil'. For a 60-watt 120-volt lamp, the uncoiled length of the tungsten filament is usually 22.8 inches (580 mm), and the filament diameter is 0.0018 inches (0.046 mm). The advantage of the coiled coil is that evaporation of the tungsten filament is at the rate of a tungsten cylinder having a diameter equal to that of the coiled coil. The coiled-coil filament evaporates more slowly than a straight filament of the same surface area and light-emitting power. As a result, the filament can then run hotter, which results in a more efficient light source, while reducing the evaporation so that the filament will last longer than a straight filament at the same temperature.
What is the negative effect of "hot spots" forming on the filament?
5726398eec44d21400f3dc59
a variation of diameter of only 1% will cause a 25% reduction in service life
223
False
Who discovered that inert gas could slow evaporation?
5726398eec44d21400f3dc5a
Irving Langmuir
521
False
Which gases are typically used in a light bulb?
5726398eec44d21400f3dc5b
argon and some nitrogen, or sometimes krypton
718
False
Which type of alloys can decrease "stairstep" irregularities in light bulb filaments?
5726398eec44d21400f3dc5c
alloys of tungsten and rhenium
929
False
filament notching due to evaporation of the filament
59
What is an advantage of the standard electric light bulb?
5ad19f40645df0001a2d2138
True
"hot spots" to form at points of higher resistivity
170
What do large variations in resistivity along the filament cause?
5ad19f40645df0001a2d2139
True
hot spots
308
What evaporates slower than the rest of the filament?
5ad19f40645df0001a2d213a
True
inert gas
551
What did Irving Langmuir find that would increase evaporation?
5ad19f40645df0001a2d213b
True
argon and some nitrogen, or sometimes krypton
718
Which gases are not typically used in a light bulb?
5ad19f40645df0001a2d213c
True
One of the problems of the standard electric light bulb is filament notching due to evaporation of the filament. Small variations in resistivity along the filament cause "hot spots" to form at points of higher resistivity; a variation of diameter of only 1% will cause a 25% reduction in service life. These hot spots evaporate faster than the rest of the filament, which increases the resistance at that point—this creates a positive feedback that ends in the familiar tiny gap in an otherwise healthy-looking filament. Irving Langmuir found that an inert gas, instead of vacuum, would retard evaporation. General service incandescent light bulbs over about 25 watts in rating are now filled with a mixture of mostly argon and some nitrogen, or sometimes krypton. Lamps operated on direct current develop random stairstep irregularities on the filament surface which may cut lifespan in half compared to AC operation; different alloys of tungsten and rhenium can be used to counteract the effect.
Why does inert gas reduce efficiency?
57263c94271a42140099d7a7
conducts heat from the filament, thereby cooling the filament
54
False
What affects the thermal conductivity of a gas?
57263c94271a42140099d7a8
molecular weight of the gas and the cross sectional area of the gas molecules
230
False
How does the molecular weight of a gas relate to thermal conductivity?
57263c94271a42140099d7a9
Higher molecular weight gasses have lower thermal conductivity
309
False
Why is xenon gas not more widely used?
57263c94271a42140099d7aa
more expensive, so its use is limited to smaller lamps
542
False
What is the advantage of using inert gas in a light bulb?
57263c94271a42140099d7ab
reduces filament evaporation
16
False
inert gas
6
What does not reduce filament evaporation?
5ad1a04b645df0001a2d2142
True
inert gas
6
What conducts heat and heats the filament?
5ad1a04b645df0001a2d2143
True
molecular weight of the gas and the cross sectional area of the gas molecules
230
What does not affect the thermal conductivity of a gas?
5ad1a04b645df0001a2d2144
True
more expensive
542
Why is xenon gas widely used?
5ad1a04b645df0001a2d2145
True
reduces filament evaporation
16
What is a disadvantage of using inert gas in a light bulb?
5ad1a04b645df0001a2d2146
True
While inert gas reduces filament evaporation, it also conducts heat from the filament, thereby cooling the filament and reducing efficiency. At constant pressure and temperature, the thermal conductivity of a gas depends upon the molecular weight of the gas and the cross sectional area of the gas molecules. Higher molecular weight gasses have lower thermal conductivity, because both the molecular weight is higher and also the cross sectional area is higher. Xenon gas improves efficiency because of its high molecular weight, but is also more expensive, so its use is limited to smaller lamps.
What determines how fast a tungsten filament evaporates?
57263e44ec44d21400f3dca9
hotter, more-efficient filaments evaporate faster
68
False
What is the typical goal for the life of a tungsten filament bulb?
57263e44ec44d21400f3dcaa
several hundred to 2,000 hours
273
False
Which types of lamps may have particularly short lives?
57263e44ec44d21400f3dcab
Theatrical, photographic, and projection lamps
345
False
What is the typical tradeoff in light bulb design?
57263e44ec44d21400f3dcac
efficiency and longevity
191
False
hotter, more-efficient filaments
68
What does not determine how fast a tungsten filament evaporates?
5ad1a1cc645df0001a2d214c
True
the lifetime of a filament lamp
136
What is not a trade-off between efficiency and longevity?
5ad1a1cc645df0001a2d214d
True
tungsten
31
What type of bulb typically has a life of 3000 hours?
5ad1a1cc645df0001a2d214e
True
Long-life general service lamps
495
What type of lamp has higher efficiency but are used where the cost is high compared to the value of energy used?
5ad1a1cc645df0001a2d214f
True
Theatrical, photographic, and projection lamps
345
What type of lamp has a useful life of a few days?
5ad1a1cc645df0001a2d2150
True
During ordinary operation, the tungsten of the filament evaporates; hotter, more-efficient filaments evaporate faster. Because of this, the lifetime of a filament lamp is a trade-off between efficiency and longevity. The trade-off is typically set to provide a lifetime of several hundred to 2,000 hours for lamps used for general illumination. Theatrical, photographic, and projection lamps may have a useful life of only a few hours, trading life expectancy for high output in a compact form. Long-life general service lamps have lower efficiency but are used where the cost of changing the lamp is high compared to the value of energy used.
What darkens a conventional bulb over its lifetime?
57263f2889a1e219009ac5be
the evaporated tungsten eventually condenses on the inner surface of the glass envelope
24
False
What is the IEC guideline for an unacceptable level of light loss?
57263f2889a1e219009ac5bf
An incandescent lamp that gives 93% or less of its initial light output at 75% of its rated life is regarded as unsatisfactory
461
False
What are the primary causes of light loss?
57263f2889a1e219009ac5c0
Light loss is due to filament evaporation and bulb blackening
637
False
Where in the bulb is evaporated tungsten deposited when inert gas is used?
57263f2889a1e219009ac5c1
on the uppermost part of the envelope
373
False
Where in the bulb is evaporated tungsten deposited when a vacuum is used?
57263f2889a1e219009ac5c2
across the entire surface of the envelope
185
False
the evaporated tungsten eventually condenses on the inner surface of the glass envelope
24
What lightens a conventional bulb?
5ad1a28b645df0001a2d2156
True
the darkening is uniform across the entire surface of the envelope
160
What happens when bulbs do not contain a vacuum?
5ad1a28b645df0001a2d2157
True
An incandescent lamp that gives 93% or less of its initial light output at 75% of its rated life is regarded as unsatisfactory
461
What is the IEC guidelines for acceptable level of light loss?
5ad1a28b645df0001a2d2158
True
filament evaporation
658
What does not cause light loss or bulb blackening?
5ad1a28b645df0001a2d2159
True
In a conventional lamp, the evaporated tungsten eventually condenses on the inner surface of the glass envelope, darkening it. For bulbs that contain a vacuum, the darkening is uniform across the entire surface of the envelope. When a filling of inert gas is used, the evaporated tungsten is carried in the thermal convection currents of the gas, depositing preferentially on the uppermost part of the envelope and blackening just that portion of the envelope. An incandescent lamp that gives 93% or less of its initial light output at 75% of its rated life is regarded as unsatisfactory, when tested according to IEC Publication 60064. Light loss is due to filament evaporation and bulb blackening. Study of the problem of bulb blackening led to the discovery of the Edison effect, thermionic emission and invention of the vacuum tube.
How does water vapor inside a light bulb affect lamp darkening?
57263fde89a1e219009ac5dc
significantly increase darkening
454
False
Why does water increase lamp darkening?
57263fde89a1e219009ac5dd
The oxygen attacks the tungsten metal, and the resulting tungsten oxide particles travel to cooler parts of the lamp.
166
False
What is an example of a substance that is added to light bulbs to reduce this effect?
57263fde89a1e219009ac5de
zirconium
524
False
How much water is necessary to result in this darkening affect?
57263fde89a1e219009ac5df
The equivalent of a drop of water distributed over 500,000 lamps
384
False
A very small amount of water vapor inside a light bulb
0
What can insignificantly affect lamp darkening?
5ad1a38a645df0001a2d215e
True
Water vapor
96
What is broken into hydrogen and oxygen at the cool filament?
5ad1a38a645df0001a2d215f
True
The oxygen attacks the tungsten metal, and the resulting tungsten oxide particles travel to cooler parts of the lamp
166
Why does water decrease lamp darkening?
5ad1a38a645df0001a2d2160
True
zirconium
524
What is added to light bulbs to increase darkening?
5ad1a38a645df0001a2d2161
True
The equivalent of a drop of water distributed over 500,000 lamps
384
How much water will significantly decrease darkening?
5ad1a38a645df0001a2d2162
True
A very small amount of water vapor inside a light bulb can significantly affect lamp darkening. Water vapor dissociates into hydrogen and oxygen at the hot filament. The oxygen attacks the tungsten metal, and the resulting tungsten oxide particles travel to cooler parts of the lamp. Hydrogen from water vapor reduces the oxide, reforming water vapor and continuing this water cycle. The equivalent of a drop of water distributed over 500,000 lamps will significantly increase darkening. Small amounts of substances such as zirconium are placed within the lamp as a getter to react with any oxygen that may bake out of the lamp components during operation.
Does the halogen bulp increase, reduce, or have no effect on filament evaporation?
572640d4271a42140099d7d3
reduces
17
False
How does the halogen bulb decrease darkening over time?
572640d4271a42140099d7d4
by redepositing tungsten from the inside of the bulb back onto the filament
263
False
Does a halogen bulb operate at a higher or lower temperature than an incandescent?
572640d4271a42140099d7d5
higher
387
False
How does the size of a halogen bulb compare to an incandescent?
572640d4271a42140099d7d6
bulbs are much smaller than normal incandescent bulbs
492
False
What is the most common situation when a halogen bulb is used?
572640d4271a42140099d7d7
where intense illumination is needed in a limited space
567
False
halogen lamp
4
What type of bulb increases uneven evaporation?
5ad1a496645df0001a2d2168
True
by redepositing tungsten from the inside of the bulb back onto the filament
263
How does the halogen bulb increase darkening over time?
5ad1a496645df0001a2d2169
True
halogen
344
What type of light can operate at a lower temperature than a standard gas filled lamp?
5ad1a496645df0001a2d216a
True
halogen
344
What type of bulbs are much larger than normal incandescent bulbs?
5ad1a496645df0001a2d216b
True
where intense illumination is needed in a limited space
567
Where are halogen bulbs not widely used?
5ad1a496645df0001a2d216c
True
The halogen lamp reduces uneven evaporation of the filament and eliminates darkening of the envelope by filling the lamp with a halogen gas at low pressure, rather than an inert gas. The halogen cycle increases the lifetime of the bulb and prevents its darkening by redepositing tungsten from the inside of the bulb back onto the filament. The halogen lamp can operate its filament at a higher temperature than a standard gas filled lamp of similar power without loss of operating life. Such bulbs are much smaller than normal incandescent bulbs, and are widely used where intense illumination is needed in a limited space. Fiber-optic lamps for optical microscopy is one typical application.
What did an alternate version of the incandescent lamp substitute for a wire filament?
5726419e38643c19005ad397
an arc struck on a spherical bead electrode
87
False
What was a common application for this type of bulb?
5726419e38643c19005ad398
scientific instruments such as microscopes
300
False
When was this style of lamp developed?
5726419e38643c19005ad399
1915
573
False
What displaced this style of lamp?
5726419e38643c19005ad39a
mercury and xenon arc lamps
609
False
A variation of the incandescent
0
What type of lamp used a hot wire filament?
5ad1a59e645df0001a2d2172
True
A variation of the incandescent lamp
0
What type of lamp did not use an arc struck on a spherical bead electrode?
5ad1a59e645df0001a2d2173
True
scientific instruments such as microscopes
300
What was not a common use for this type of bulb?
5ad1a59e645df0001a2d2174
True
arc
350
What type of lamp typically ran on relatively high voltages?
5ad1a59e645df0001a2d2175
True
arc
519
What type of lamp provided a low concentrated light that was harder to operate?
5ad1a59e645df0001a2d2176
True
A variation of the incandescent lamp did not use a hot wire filament, but instead used an arc struck on a spherical bead electrode to produce heat. The electrode then became incandescent, with the arc contributing little to the light produced. Such lamps were used for projection or illumination for scientific instruments such as microscopes. These arc lamps ran on relatively low voltages and incorporated tungsten filaments to start ionization within the envelope. They provided the intense concentrated light of an arc lamp but were easier to operate. Developed around 1915, these lamps were displaced by mercury and xenon arc lamps.
What does a power factor of 1 mean?
5726438f994a9e14006f017f
the actual power consumed (in watts) and the apparent power (in volt-amperes) are equal
88
False
What principally determines the wattage of an incandescent bulb?
5726438f994a9e14006f0180
the resistance of the filament
315
False
What determines the resistance of the filament?
5726438f994a9e14006f0181
the filament's length, thickness, and material
379
False
How close do incandescent lamps come to pure resistive loads?
5726438f994a9e14006f0182
Incandescent lamps are nearly pure resistive loads
0
False
All other things being equal, how does wattage affect light emitted?
5726438f994a9e14006f0183
the higher-powered bulb gives more light
488
False
Incandescent lamps
0
What type of lamp has a power factor of 2?
5ad1a692645df0001a2d217c
True
the actual power consumed (in watts) and the apparent power (in volt-amperes) are equal
88
What does the power factor of 2 mean?
5ad1a692645df0001a2d217d
True
according to the electrical power consumed
223
How are incandescent light typically not marketed?
5ad1a692645df0001a2d217e
True
the filament's length, thickness, and material
379
What does not principally determine the wattage of an incandescent bulb?
5ad1a692645df0001a2d217f
True
the higher-powered bulb gives more light
488
How does wattage not affect light emitted?
5ad1a692645df0001a2d2180
True
Incandescent lamps are nearly pure resistive loads with a power factor of 1. This means the actual power consumed (in watts) and the apparent power (in volt-amperes) are equal. Incandescent light bulbs are usually marketed according to the electrical power consumed. This is measured in watts and depends mainly on the resistance of the filament, which in turn depends mainly on the filament's length, thickness, and material. For two bulbs of the same voltage, type, color, and clarity, the higher-powered bulb gives more light.
What determines the resistance of a filament?
572644fa1125e71900ae194c
temperature
41
False
What does a "T" rating symbol on an electrical contact mean?
572644fa1125e71900ae194d
they are designed to control circuits with the high inrush current characteristic of tungsten lamps
497
False
How long does it take a typical 100-watt bulb to achieve 90% of its brightness?
572644fa1125e71900ae194e
0.13 seconds
751
False
How does the cold resistance of tungsten filament lamps compare to the hot resistance?
572644fa1125e71900ae194f
The cold resistance of tungsten-filament lamps is about 1/15 the hot-filament resistance
64
False
What is the resistance of a typical lit 100-watt incandescent bulb?
572644fa1125e71900ae1950
144 ohms
240
False
temperature dependent
41
What does not determine the actual resistance of a filament?
5ad1a7d3645df0001a2d2186
True
they are designed to control circuits with the high inrush current characteristic of tungsten lamps
497
What does a "T' rating symbol on an electrical contact not mean?
5ad1a7d3645df0001a2d2187
True
0.13 seconds
751
How long does it take a typical 60-watt bulb to achieve 90% of its brightness?
5ad1a7d3645df0001a2d2188
True
144 ohms
240
What is the resistance of a typical lit 60 watt bulb?
5ad1a7d3645df0001a2d2189
True
The actual resistance of the filament is temperature dependent. The cold resistance of tungsten-filament lamps is about 1/15 the hot-filament resistance when the lamp is operating. For example, a 100-watt, 120-volt lamp has a resistance of 144 ohms when lit, but the cold resistance is much lower (about 9.5 ohms). Since incandescent lamps are resistive loads, simple phase-control TRIAC dimmers can be used to control brightness. Electrical contacts may carry a "T" rating symbol indicating that they are designed to control circuits with the high inrush current characteristic of tungsten lamps. For a 100-watt, 120-volt general-service lamp, the current stabilizes in about 0.10 seconds, and the lamp reaches 90% of its full brightness after about 0.13 seconds.
What do the letters identify in a bulb shape designation?
572647a6dd62a815002e8054
the shape of the bulb
277
False
What do the numbers identify in a bulb shape designation?
572647a6dd62a815002e8055
the maximum diameter
322
False
Can the name of a certain bulb shape vary?
572647a6dd62a815002e8056
The names of the shapes may be slightly different in some regions
62
False
What units are the bulb sizes measured in?
572647a6dd62a815002e8057
1⁄8 of an inch, or in millimeters
354
False
Incandescent light bulbs
0
What does not come in a range of shapes and sizes?
5ad1a85e645df0001a2d218e
True
The names of the shapes
62
What is not different in some regions?
5ad1a85e645df0001a2d218f
True
consisting of one or more letters followed by one or more numbers, e.g. A55 or PAR38
169
How are incandescent light bulbs not designated?
5ad1a85e645df0001a2d2190
True
shape
281
What must the letters not represent on a bulb?
5ad1a85e645df0001a2d2191
True
the maximum diameter, either in 1⁄8 of an inch, or in millimeters, depending on the shape and the region
322
What does the number not represent on a bulb?
5ad1a85e645df0001a2d2192
True
Incandescent light bulbs come in a range of shapes and sizes. The names of the shapes may be slightly different in some regions. Many of these shapes have a designation consisting of one or more letters followed by one or more numbers, e.g. A55 or PAR38. The letters represent the shape of the bulb. The numbers represent the maximum diameter, either in 1⁄8 of an inch, or in millimeters, depending on the shape and the region. For example, 63 mm reflectors are designated R63, but in the US, they are known as R20 (2.5 in). However, in both regions, a PAR38 reflector is known as PAR38.
Which company introduced standard base sizes for incandescent lamps?
57264a04708984140094c177
General Electric
443
False
In what year were standard base sizes introduced for incandescent lamps?
57264a04708984140094c178
1909
552
False
What are some common technical standards for lamp bases?
57264a04708984140094c179
ANSI standard C81.67 and IEC standard 60061-1
893
False
What is the typical base type for automotive lamps?
57264a04708984140094c17a
Bayonet base lamps
1046
False
What is the typical base type for halogen lamps?
57264a04708984140094c17b
bipin base
1145
False
filament support wires
30
What cannot be directly soldered to a printed circuit board in many very small lamps?
5ad1a9b2645df0001a2d2198
True
screw terminals
199
What do some reflector-type lamps not include for connection of wires?
5ad1a9b2645df0001a2d2199
True
a multitude of incompatible lamp bases
403
What was introduces in the late 18th century by manufacturers?
5ad1a9b2645df0001a2d219a
True
General Electric
443
Who was not the first to introduce standard sizes for incandescent lamps?
5ad1a9b2645df0001a2d219b
True
1909
552
What year was the Mazda trademark rejected?
5ad1a9b2645df0001a2d219c
True
Very small lamps may have the filament support wires extended through the base of the lamp, and can be directly soldered to a printed circuit board for connections. Some reflector-type lamps include screw terminals for connection of wires. Most lamps have metal bases that fit in a socket to support the lamp and conduct current to the filament wires. In the late 19th century, manufacturers introduced a multitude of incompatible lamp bases. General Electric introduced standard base sizes for tungsten incandescent lamps under the Mazda trademark in 1909. This standard was soon adopted across the US, and the Mazda name was used by many manufacturers under license through 1945. Today most incandescent lamps for general lighting service use an Edison screw in candelabra, intermediate, or standard or mogul sizes, or double contact bayonet base. Technical standards for lamp bases include ANSI standard C81.67 and IEC standard 60061-1 for common commercial lamp sizes, to ensure interchangeablitity between different manufacturer's products. Bayonet base lamps are frequently used in automotive lamps to resist loosening due to vibration. A bipin base is often used for halogen or reflector lamps.
What level of voltage reduction is required to double the life of an incandescent bulb?
57264b7c5951b619008f6f37
a 5% reduction in operating voltage
16
False
When did light bulb manufacturers establish a cartel to limit bulb life?
57264b7c5951b619008f6f38
1924
653
False
When did authorities break up the light bulb cartel?
57264b7c5951b619008f6f39
1953
728
False
What was the artificially low limit on bulb life placed by the cartel?
57264b7c5951b619008f6f3a
1000 hours
691
False
What is an example of a good application for a long-life bulb?
57264b7c5951b619008f6f3b
difficult-to-access location (for example, traffic lights or fixtures hung from high ceilings)
224
False
a 5% reduction in operating voltage
16
What level f voltage reduction is required to triple the life of an incandescent bulb?
5ad1ab1b645df0001a2d21a2
True
the expense of reducing its light output by about 16%
99
What is an unacceptable trade off foe a light bulb in a difficult to access location?
5ad1ab1b645df0001a2d21a3
True
efficiency
494
What do general service lamps not emphasize over long operating life?
5ad1ab1b645df0001a2d21a4
True
General Electric and other leading American manufacturers were banned from limiting the life
734
What happened to light companies and American manufactures in 1964?
5ad1ab1b645df0001a2d21a5
True
This means that a 5% reduction in operating voltage will more than double the life of the bulb, at the expense of reducing its light output by about 16%. This may be a very acceptable trade off for a light bulb that is in a difficult-to-access location (for example, traffic lights or fixtures hung from high ceilings). Long-life bulbs take advantage of this trade-off. Since the value of the electric power they consume is much more than the value of the lamp, general service lamps emphasize efficiency over long operating life. The objective is to minimize the cost of light, not the cost of lamps. Early bulbs had a life of up to 2500 hours, but in 1924 a cartel agreed to limit life to 1000 hours. When this was exposed in 1953, General Electric and other leading American manufacturers were banned from limiting the life.
When did the "Centennial Light" begin burning?
57264d1a5951b619008f6f5d
1901
470
False
How much light does the bulb emit?
57264d1a5951b619008f6f5e
the equivalent light of a four watt bulb
500
False
When did the long-lasting bulb in Texas begin continuing illumination?
57264d1a5951b619008f6f5f
21 September 1908
629
False
Where did the Texas bulb begin its life?
57264d1a5951b619008f6f60
an opera house
667
False
Centennial Light
288
What was not accepted by the Guinness Book of World Records?
5ad1ac19645df0001a2d21aa
True
Centennial Light
288
What started burning in 1801?
5ad1ac19645df0001a2d21ab
True
Centennial Light
288
What was burning almost continuously at a fire station in Claremont, California?
5ad1ac19645df0001a2d21ac
True
21 September 1908
629
What year did the long-lasting bulb in New York begin continuing illumination?
5ad1ac19645df0001a2d21ad
True
40-watt bulb in Texas that has been illuminated since 21 September 1908
575
What was moved to an area art gallery in 1977?
5ad1ac19645df0001a2d21ae
True
The relationships above are valid for only a few percent change of voltage around rated conditions, but they do indicate that a lamp operated at much lower than rated voltage could last for hundreds of times longer than at rated conditions, albeit with greatly reduced light output. The "Centennial Light" is a light bulb that is accepted by the Guinness Book of World Records as having been burning almost continuously at a fire station in Livermore, California, since 1901. However, the bulb emits the equivalent light of a four watt bulb. A similar story can be told of a 40-watt bulb in Texas that has been illuminated since 21 September 1908. It once resided in an opera house where notable celebrities stopped to take in its glow, and was moved to an area museum in 1977.
At what temperature does a typical 50-hour-life projection bulb operate?
57264e34f1498d1400e8db96
50 °C (122 °F)
567
False
Which metal has the highest melting point?
57264e34f1498d1400e8db97
Tungsten
419
False
What is the typical life of a P1 lamp?
57264e34f1498d1400e8db98
as short as two hours
296
False
How does the color temperature differ for photographic lighting?
57264e34f1498d1400e8db99
higher color temperature
217
False
50 °C (122 °F)
567
What temperature does a typical 60-hour-life projection bulb operate?
5ad1acf3645df0001a2d21b4
True
50-hour-life projection bulb
495
What lamp can achieve up to 23 lumens per watt?
5ad1acf3645df0001a2d21b5
True
Tungsten
419
What metal is used with the lowest melting point?
5ad1acf3645df0001a2d21b6
True
as short as two hours
296
What is the atypical life of a P1 lamp?
5ad1acf3645df0001a2d21b7
True
In flood lamps used for photographic lighting, the tradeoff is made in the other direction. Compared to general-service bulbs, for the same power, these bulbs produce far more light, and (more importantly) light at a higher color temperature, at the expense of greatly reduced life (which may be as short as two hours for a type P1 lamp). The upper temperature limit for the filament is the melting point of the metal. Tungsten is the metal with the highest melting point, 3,695 K (6,191 °F). A 50-hour-life projection bulb, for instance, is designed to operate only 50 °C (122 °F) below that melting point. Such a lamp may achieve up to 22 lumens per watt, compared with 17.5 for a 750-hour general service lamp.
How many lumens per watt does a typical 100-watt, 120-volt lamp produce?
57264eefdd62a815002e812c
17.1 lumens per watt
130
False
How does filament size relate to voltage level?
57264eefdd62a815002e812d
Lower voltage lamps have a thicker filament
364
False
What is the effect of a thicker filament on bulb temperature?
57264eefdd62a815002e812e
They can run hotter for the same lifetime before the filament evaporates.
436
False
How many lumens per watt does a typical train light produce?
57264eefdd62a815002e812f
as much as 19.8 lumens per watt
331
False
a 100-watt
85
What watt lamp can produce 17.3 lumens per watt?
5ad1addc645df0001a2d21bc
True
Lower voltage lamps have a thicker filament
364
How does a filament size not relate to voltage level?
5ad1addc645df0001a2d21bd
True
They can run hotter for the same lifetime before the filament evaporates.
436
What is not effect of a thicker filament on bulb temperature?
5ad1addc645df0001a2d21be
True
as much as 19.8 lumens per watt
331
How many lumens per watt does an atypical train light produce?
5ad1addc645df0001a2d21bf
True
Lamps designed for different voltages have different luminous efficacy. For example, a 100-watt, 120-volt lamp will produce about 17.1 lumens per watt. A lamp with the same rated lifetime but designed for 230 V would produce only around 12.8 lumens per watt, and a similar lamp designed for 30 volts (train lighting) would produce as much as 19.8 lumens per watt. Lower voltage lamps have a thicker filament, for the same power rating. They can run hotter for the same lifetime before the filament evaporates.
What made power distribution economically viable in Edison's lamp?
57264f1c5951b619008f6f81
high resistance
420
False
How many inventors came up with electric lamps before Thomas Edison?
57264f1c5951b619008f6f82
22
113
False
How did Edison achieve a higher vacuum than other inventors?
57264f1c5951b619008f6f83
by use of the Sprengel pump
385
False
Which historians wrote about the advantages of Edison's lamp over other early versions?
57264f1c5951b619008f6f84
Robert Friedel and Paul Israel
77
False
22
113
How many inventors do historians list that did not invent the incandescent lamp?
5ad1881b645df0001a2d1ea8
True
by use of the Sprengel pump
385
What made power distribution economically non-viable in Edison's lamp?
5ad1881b645df0001a2d1ea9
True
effective incandescent material, a higher vacuum than others were able to achieve (by use of the Sprengel pump) and a high resistance
302
What four factors made Edison's version economically viable?
5ad1881b645df0001a2d1eaa
True
Robert Friedel and Paul Israel
77
Which three historians wrote the conclusion that Edison's version was more viable than other early versions?
5ad1881b645df0001a2d1eab
True
In addressing the question of who invented the incandescent lamp, historians Robert Friedel and Paul Israel list 22 inventors of incandescent lamps prior to Joseph Swan and Thomas Edison. They conclude that Edison's version was able to outstrip the others because of a combination of three factors: an effective incandescent material, a higher vacuum than others were able to achieve (by use of the Sprengel pump) and a high resistance that made power distribution from a centralized source economically viable.
Arsenal_F.C.
What was the first football club from southern England to join The Football League?
5725c8caec44d21400f3d56d
Arsenal
0
False
When did Arsenal join the Football League?
5725c8caec44d21400f3d56e
1893
85
False
In what year did Arsenal qualify to be in the First Division?
5725c8caec44d21400f3d56f
1904
126
False
How many league championships did Arsenal win in the 1930s?
5725c8caec44d21400f3d570
five
293
False
What was Arsenal's league position ranking at the end of the last century?
5725c8caec44d21400f3d571
highest average
589
False
Arsenal
0
Who was the second club from the south of England to join The Football League?
5accfdb907355d001abf312c
True
Arsenal
0
Who has accumulated the most points?
5accfdb907355d001abf312d
True
First Division
108
In what division was Arsenal in 1893?
5accfdb907355d001abf312e
True
five
293
How many League Championships has Arsenal won in all?
5accfdb907355d001abf312f
True
two
359
How many FA Cup Doubles has Arsenal won since 2005?
5accfdb907355d001abf3130
True
Arsenal was the first club from the south of England to join The Football League, in 1893. They entered the First Division in 1904, and have since accumulated the second most points. Relegated only once, in 1913, they continue the longest streak in the top division. In the 1930s, Arsenal won five League Championships and two FA Cups, and another FA Cup and two Championships after the war. In 1970–71, they won their first League and FA Cup Double. Between 1988 and 2005, they won five League titles and five FA Cups, including two more Doubles. They completed the 20th century with the highest average league position.
What was the original name of the Arsenal team?
5725caa738643c19005acd03
Dial Square
56
False
When was Arsenal originally formed?
5725caa738643c19005acd04
1886
3
False
When did Arsenal become based in Highbury?
5725caa738643c19005acd05
1913
72
False
In what year did Arsenal move to Holloway?
5725caa738643c19005acd06
2006
220
False
How does Forbe's believe the Arsenal club was worth in 2015?
5725caa738643c19005acd07
$1.3 billion
526
False
Highbury
126
Where did Arsenal play in 1886?
5accfef107355d001abf313e
True
Arsenal
281
What team has the biggest fanbase in the world?
5accfef107355d001abf313f
True
$1.3 billion
526
How much are the Tottenham Hotspurs worth as of 2015?
5accfef107355d001abf3140
True
Emirates Stadium
325
In what stadium do the Tottenham Hotspur play?
5accfef107355d001abf3141
True
Woolwich munitions workers
9
Who founded the Tottenham Hotspur?
5accfef107355d001abf3142
True
In 1886, Woolwich munitions workers founded the club as Dial Square. In 1913, the club crossed the city to Arsenal Stadium in Highbury. They became Tottenham Hotspur's nearest club, commencing the North London derby. In 2006, they moved to the Emirates Stadium in nearby Holloway. Arsenal earned €435.5m in 2014–15, with the Emirates Stadium generating the highest revenue in world football. Based on social media activity from 2014–15, Arsenal's fanbase is the fifth largest in the world. Forbes estimates the club was worth $1.3 billion in 2015.
What group from the munitions plant in Woolwich formed the Arsenal club?
5725cd01ec44d21400f3d5c5
workers
59
False
By what year had Arsenal become a limited company?
5725cd01ec44d21400f3d5c6
1893
254
False
When did Arsenal move to Arsenal Stadium in Highbury?
5725cd01ec44d21400f3d5c7
1913
732
False
In which division was Arsenal ranked by the start of WWI?
5725cd01ec44d21400f3d5c8
second division
961
False
By 1920 where was Arsenal ranked in division?
5725cd01ec44d21400f3d5c9
First Division
1076
False
1910
605
What was the average attendance of an Arsenal's game in 1913?
5accffbe07355d001abf3150
True
1886
51
In what year was Henry Norris born?
5accffbe07355d001abf3151
True
1886
51
In what year were the Tottenham Hotspur formed?
5accffbe07355d001abf3152
True
Henry Norris and William Hall
652
Who owned the Tottenham Hotspur in 1913?
5accffbe07355d001abf3153
True
Arsenal Football Club was formed as Dial Square in 1886 by workers at the Royal Arsenal in Woolwich, south-east London, and were renamed Royal Arsenal shortly afterwards. The club was renamed again to Woolwich Arsenal after becoming a limited company in 1893. The club became the first southern member of the Football League in 1893, starting out in the Second Division, and won promotion to the First Division in 1904. The club's relative geographic isolation resulted in lower attendances than those of other clubs, which led to the club becoming mired in financial problems and effectively bankrupt by 1910, when they were taken over by businessmen Henry Norris and William Hall. Norris sought to move the club elsewhere, and in 1913, soon after relegation back to the Second Division, Arsenal moved to the new Arsenal Stadium in Highbury, north London; they dropped "Woolwich" from their name the following year. Arsenal only finished in fifth place in the second division during the last pre-war competitive season of 1914–15, but were nevertheless elected to rejoin the First Division when competitive football resumed in 1919–20, at the expense of local rivals Tottenham Hotspur. Some books have reported that this election to division 1 was achieved by dubious means.
What manager was appointed to lead Arsenal in 1925?
5725cedc38643c19005acd57
Herbert Chapman
18
False
What was Chapman's style of tactics that provided the basis for the Arsenal club's success?
5725cedc38643c19005acd58
revolutionary
236
False
In what decade did Arsenal dominate in English football?
5725cedc38643c19005acd59
1930s
422
False
What football club manager got an underground station renamed for Arsenal?
5725cedc38643c19005acd5a
Chapman
594
False
What was one of Arsenal's first major wins?
5725cedc38643c19005acd5b
1930 FA Cup Final
504
False
Herbert Chapman
18
What was the name of one of Arsenal's coaches prior to 1925?
5acd005507355d001abf3158
True
1925
48
In what year was Huddersfield Town formed?
5acd005507355d001abf3159
True
1932
572
What was Herbert Chapman's last year as Arsenal's coach?
5acd005507355d001abf315a
True
Herbert Chapman
18
Who named the team Arsenal?
5acd005507355d001abf315b
True
Arsenal appointed Herbert Chapman as manager in 1925. Having already won the league twice with Huddersfield Town in 1923–24 and 1924–25 (see Seasons in English football), Chapman brought Arsenal their first period of major success. His revolutionary tactics and training, along with the signings of star players such as Alex James and Cliff Bastin, laid the foundations of the club's domination of English football in the 1930s. Under his guidance Arsenal won their first major trophies – victory in the 1930 FA Cup Final preceded two League Championships, in 1930–31 and 1932–33. In addition, Chapman was behind the 1932 renaming of the local London Underground station from "Gillespie Road" to "Arsenal", making it the only Tube station to be named specifically after a football club.
When was Bertie Mee become manager of Arsenal?
5725d32f271a42140099d267
1966
118
False
What position did Mee hold in the Arsenal club prior to becoming manager?
5725d32f271a42140099d268
physiotherapist
77
False
In which season did Arsenal win its first European trophy?
5725d32f271a42140099d269
1969–70
202
False
For how long after Arsenal's first trophy win the team do poorly competitions?
5725d32f271a42140099d26a
decade
371
False
In what season did Arsenal win their first League and FA Cup double?
5725d32f271a42140099d26b
1970–71
320
False
Bertie Mee
93
Who was Arsenal's manager in 1965?
5acd011f07355d001abf3174
True
Arsenal
0
Who won the first European trophy?
5acd011f07355d001abf3175
True
Arsenal
507
Who won the FA Cup in 1972?
5acd011f07355d001abf3176
True
Bertie Mee
93
Who owned the Arsenal's in 1966?
5acd011f07355d001abf3177
True
decade
440
How long was Arsenal's losing streak prior to 1966?
5acd011f07355d001abf3178
True
Arsenal began winning silverware again with the surprise appointment of club physiotherapist Bertie Mee as manager in 1966. After losing two League Cup finals, they won their first European trophy, the 1969–70 Inter-Cities Fairs Cup. This was followed by an even greater triumph: their first League and FA Cup double in 1970–71. This marked a premature high point of the decade; the Double-winning side was soon broken up and the following decade was characterised by a series of near misses, starting with Arsenal finishing as FA Cup runners up in 1972, and First Division runners-up in 1972–73.
On what date was Bertie Mee replaced by Arsenal?
5725d46038643c19005acdb7
9 July 1976
72
False
What Arsenal manager replaced Mee?
5725d46038643c19005acdb8
Terry Neill
0
False
What action brought prosperity to Arsenal?
5725d46038643c19005acdb9
new signings
158
False
What number of cup finals did Arsenal reach in
5725d46038643c19005acdba
trio
352
False
In what years did Arsenal get into the FA Cup finals?
5725d46038643c19005acdbb
1978, 1979 and 1980
375
False
34
102
How old was Bertie Mee in 1976?
5acd01d607355d001abf317e
True
Bertie Mee
58
Who has been the oldest manager of Arsenal?
5acd01d607355d001abf317f
True
Bertie Mee
58
Who was the manager of Manchester United in 1979?
5acd01d607355d001abf3180
True
Manchester United
539
Who did Arsenal lose to at the 1980 European Cup?
5acd01d607355d001abf3181
True
1976
79
In what year was Manchester United formed?
5acd01d607355d001abf3182
True
Terry Neill was recruited by the Arsenal board to replace Bertie Mee on 9 July 1976 and at the age of 34 he became the youngest Arsenal manager to date. With new signings like Malcolm Macdonald and Pat Jennings, and a crop of talent in the side such as Liam Brady and Frank Stapleton, the club enjoyed their best form since the 1971 double, reaching a trio of FA Cup finals (1978, 1979 and 1980), and losing the 1980 European Cup Winners' Cup Final on penalties. The club's only success during this time was a last-minute 3–2 victory over Manchester United in the 1979 FA Cup Final, widely regarded as a classic.
What former Arsenal player became manager in 1986?
5725d87089a1e219009abfa6
George Graham
28
False
Under the direction of Graham, what trophy did Arsenal win in 1987?
5725d87089a1e219009abfa7
League Cup
110
False
What competitor did Arsenal defeat to win a league title in the 1988-89 season?
5725d87089a1e219009abfa8
Liverpool
308
False
In what year did Arsenal win their second European cup?
5725d87089a1e219009abfa9
1994
499
False
What action did Graham get caught doing to get fired by Arsenal?
5725d87089a1e219009abfaa
kickbacks
571
False
1986
56
In what year did George Graham first play for Arsenal?
5acd028907355d001abf319a
True
Liverpool
308
Where was the League Cup played in 1987?
5acd028907355d001abf319b
True
Bruce Rioch
679
What was one of the player Rune Hauge gave money to George Graham to sign?
5acd028907355d001abf319c
True
Liverpool
308
Who did Arsenal beat for their 1990-91 title?
5acd028907355d001abf319d
True
Liverpool
308
Who did Arsenal beat for their 1994 European Cup match?
5acd028907355d001abf319e
True
The return of former player George Graham as manager in 1986 brought a third period of glory. Arsenal won the League Cup in 1987, Graham's first season in charge. This was followed by a League title win in 1988–89, won with a last-minute goal in the final game of the season against fellow title challengers Liverpool. Graham's Arsenal won another title in 1990–91, losing only one match, won the FA Cup and League Cup double in 1993, and a second European trophy, the European Cup Winners' Cup, in 1994. Graham's reputation was tarnished when he was found to have taken kickbacks from agent Rune Hauge for signing certain players, and he was dismissed in 1995. His replacement, Bruce Rioch, lasted for only one season, leaving the club after a dispute with the board of directors.
What manager in the late 1990s brought success to Arsenal?
5725dab089a1e219009abfc8
Arsène Wenger
119
False
Besides improved tactics and training, what did Wenger add to the Arsenal team?
5725dab089a1e219009abfc9
foreign players
207
False
In what season did Arsenal win their second League and Cup double?
5725dab089a1e219009abfca
1997–98
315
False
What caused Arsenal's loss to Galatasarey in the 1999-2000 season?
5725dab089a1e219009abfcb
penalties
424
False
What trophy did Arsenal win in the 2003-2004 season without losing a match?
5725dab089a1e219009abfcc
Premier League
509
False
Arsène Wenger
119
Who was the manager of Arsenal in 1995?
5acd03d907355d001abf31aa
True
1997–98
315
When was Arsenal's first League and Cup double?
5acd03d907355d001abf31ab
True
Galatasaray
437
Who did Arsenal win its FA Cup over in 2003?
5acd03d907355d001abf31ac
True
Galatasaray
437
Who did Arsenal win its FA Cup over in 2005?
5acd03d907355d001abf31ad
True
1996
99
In what year did Galatasaray reach its first UEFA Cup?
5acd03d907355d001abf31ae
True
The club's success in the late 1990s and first decade of the 21st century owed a great deal to the 1996 appointment of Arsène Wenger as manager. Wenger brought new tactics, a new training regime and several foreign players who complemented the existing English talent. Arsenal won a second League and Cup double in 1997–98 and a third in 2001–02. In addition, the club reached the final of the 1999–2000 UEFA Cup (losing on penalties to Galatasaray), were victorious in the 2003 and 2005 FA Cups, and won the Premier League in 2003–04 without losing a single match, an achievement which earned the side the nickname "The Invincibles". The feat came within a run of 49 league matches unbeaten from 7 May 2003 to 24 October 2004, a national record.
Including Arsenal, how many  teams  had won the Premier League up to 2013?
5725dd19ec44d21400f3d6e3
five
217
False
In what year was the Premier League created?
5725dd19ec44d21400f3d6e4
1992
367
False
What team defeated Arsenal in the finals of the Champions League in 2005-2006 season?
5725dd19ec44d21400f3d6e5
Barcelona
614
False
To what stadium did Arsenal FC move in 2006?
5725dd19ec44d21400f3d6e6
Emirates Stadium
659
False
For how many years did Arsenal play at Highbury?
5725dd19ec44d21400f3d6e7
93
683
False
Chelsea
283
Who did Arsenal compete against in the 2005-06 Championship League?
5acd052e07355d001abf31bc
True
Blackburn Rovers
265
Who won the 2012-2013 Championship League?
5acd052e07355d001abf31bd
True
Emirates Stadium
659
In what stadium does Manchester City play?
5acd052e07355d001abf31be
True
Highbury
695
Manchester United plays in what stadium?
5acd052e07355d001abf31bf
True
Manchester United
246
What was the first United Kingdom team to reach the Champion League final?
5acd052e07355d001abf31c0
True
Arsenal finished in either first or second place in the league in eight of Wenger's first eleven seasons at the club, although on no occasion were they able to retain the title. As of July 2013, they were one of only five teams, the others being Manchester United, Blackburn Rovers, Chelsea, and Manchester City, to have won the Premier League since its formation in 1992. Arsenal had never progressed beyond the quarter-finals of the Champions League until 2005–06; in that season they became the first club from London in the competition's fifty-year history to reach the final, in which they were beaten 2–1 by Barcelona. In July 2006, they moved into the Emirates Stadium, after 93 years at Highbury.
What famous team defeated Arsenal for the League Cup in 2007?
5725df1689a1e219009abffe
Chelsea
74
False
Who beat Arsenal for the 2011 League Cup>
5725df1689a1e219009abfff
Birmingham City
86
False
How many wins did Arsenal have to make the team the most successful in FA Cup history?
5725df1689a1e219009ac000
12
740
False
What team did Arsenal defeat at Wembley in 2015?
5725df1689a1e219009ac001
Chelsea
782
False
How Community Shield titles does Arsenal have?
5725df1689a1e219009ac002
14
859
False
Chelsea
74
Who did Arsenal win the 2005 FA Cup over?
5acd063507355d001abf31ce
True
Hull City
214
Who did Arsenal beat to win their first trophy in three months?
5acd063507355d001abf31cf
True
Wembley Stadium
797
In what stadium does Hull City play?
5acd063507355d001abf31d0
True
Wembley Stadium
797
In what stadium was the 2014 FA Cup Final played?
5acd063507355d001abf31d1
True
12
740
How many tournament titles does Aston Villa have?
5acd063507355d001abf31d2
True
Arsenal reached the final of the 2007 and 2011 League Cups, losing 2–1 to Chelsea and Birmingham City respectively. The club had not gained a major trophy since the 2005 FA Cup until 17 May 2014, when Arsenal beat Hull City in the 2014 FA Cup Final, coming back from a 2–0 deficit to win the match 3–2. This qualified them for the 2014 FA Community Shield where they would play Premier League champions Manchester City. They recorded a resounding 3–0 win in the game, winning their second trophy in three months. Nine months after their Community Shield triumph, Arsenal appeared in the FA Cup final for the second year in a row, thrashing Aston Villa 4–0 in the final and becoming the most successful club in the tournament's history with 12 titles. On 2 August 2015, Arsenal beat Chelsea 1–0 at Wembley Stadium to retain the Community Shield and earn their 14th Community Shield title.
In what year did Arsenal first create a crest for the team?
5725e99c89a1e219009ac08e
1888
12
False
What part of the Arsenal crest is sometimes mistaken for chimneys?
5725e99c89a1e219009ac08f
three cannon
55
False
After the team moved to what city were the cannon left off the crest?
5725e99c89a1e219009ac090
Highbury
442
False
What nickname prompted a return to the canon on the club crest?
5725e99c89a1e219009ac091
The Gunners
594
False
In what year was the canon image further refined on the Arsenal crest?
5725e99c89a1e219009ac092
1925
660
False
1888
12
In what year did the Metropolitan Borough of Woolwich develop its coat of arms?
5acd070807355d001abf31d8
True
1922
485
In what year did the Metropolitan Borough of Woolwich transfer to the coat of arms of the Royal Borough of Greenwhich?
5acd070807355d001abf31d9
True
three cannon viewed from above, pointing northwards
55
What was the Arsenal crest from 1913 to 1921?
5acd070807355d001abf31da
True
single cannon, pointing eastwards
533
What has been the Arsenal crest since 1925?
5acd070807355d001abf31db
True
Highbury
442
Where did Arsenal play prior to 1913?
5acd070807355d001abf31dc
True
Unveiled in 1888, Royal Arsenal's first crest featured three cannon viewed from above, pointing northwards, similar to the coat of arms of the Metropolitan Borough of Woolwich (nowadays transferred to the coat of arms of the Royal Borough of Greenwich). These can sometimes be mistaken for chimneys, but the presence of a carved lion's head and a cascabel on each are clear indicators that they are cannon. This was dropped after the move to Highbury in 1913, only to be reinstated in 1922, when the club adopted a crest featuring a single cannon, pointing eastwards, with the club's nickname, The Gunners, inscribed alongside it; this crest only lasted until 1925, when the cannon was reversed to point westward and its barrel slimmed down.
What Latin motto was added to the crest in 1949?
5725ebb338643c19005ace85
Victoria Concordia Crescit
258
False
In 1949 what new addition was done to enhance the Arsenal club crest?
5725ebb338643c19005ace86
rendered in colour
400
False
What legal stance did Arsenal use to win a law suit against a merchant?
5725ebb338643c19005ace87
trademark
649
False
In what year did Arsenal produce a remodeled crest that could be copyrighted?
5725ebb338643c19005ace88
2002
865
False
Who did Arsenal supporters think should have been consulted before announcing the new crest?
5725ebb338643c19005ace89
fans
1337
False
Victoria Concordia Crescit
258
What was Arsenal's motto prior to 1949?
5acd094507355d001abf31f0
True
1949
3
In what year did programme editor Harry Homer join Arsenal?
5acd094507355d001abf31f1
True
red, gold and green
486
What was the crest's initial colors in 1949?
5acd094507355d001abf31f2
True
2002
865
In what year did Arsenal finally win its trademark lawsuit against a street vendor?
5acd094507355d001abf31f3
True
1949
3
In what year was the Arsenal Independent Supporters' Association formed?
5acd094507355d001abf31f4
True
In 1949, the club unveiled a modernised crest featuring the same style of cannon below the club's name, set in blackletter, and above the coat of arms of the Metropolitan Borough of Islington and a scroll inscribed with the club's newly adopted Latin motto, Victoria Concordia Crescit "victory comes from harmony", coined by the club's programme editor Harry Homer. For the first time, the crest was rendered in colour, which varied slightly over the crest's lifespan, finally becoming red, gold and green. Because of the numerous revisions of the crest, Arsenal were unable to copyright it. Although the club had managed to register the crest as a trademark, and had fought (and eventually won) a long legal battle with a local street trader who sold "unofficial" Arsenal merchandise, Arsenal eventually sought a more comprehensive legal protection. Therefore, in 2002 they introduced a new crest featuring more modern curved lines and a simplified style, which was copyrightable. The cannon once again faces east and the club's name is written in a sans-serif typeface above the cannon. Green was replaced by dark blue. The new crest was criticised by some supporters; the Arsenal Independent Supporters' Association claimed that the club had ignored much of Arsenal's history and tradition with such a radical modern design, and that fans had not been properly consulted on the issue.
What style of logo did Chapman introduce in the 1930s?
5725ed5b271a42140099d335
Art Deco
41
False
Of what is the early logo of Arsenal an example?
5725ed5b271a42140099d336
corporate logo
200
False
Where is the Art Deco style badge design used prominently?
5725ed5b271a42140099d337
Highbury Stadium
366
False
What Arsenal club nickname sometimes appeared on club shirts?
5725ed5b271a42140099d338
The Gunners
583
False
When was the white canon logo replaced with the club crest?
5725ed5b271a42140099d339
1990s
604
False
1930s
286
In what decade did Herbert Chapman join Arsenal?
5acd0a8f07355d001abf3212
True
1930s
286
In what decade was Arsenal nicknamed as "The Gunners"?
5acd0a8f07355d001abf3213
True
a white cannon
455
What was worn on Arsenal shirts prior to 1967?
5acd0a8f07355d001abf3214
True
Art Deco
41
In what art style is the white cannon drawn?
5acd0a8f07355d001abf3215
True
The monogram theme was developed into an Art Deco-style badge on which the letters A and C framed a football rather than the letter F, the whole set within a hexagonal border. This early example of a corporate logo, introduced as part of Herbert Chapman's rebranding of the club in the 1930s, was used not only on Cup Final shirts but as a design feature throughout Highbury Stadium, including above the main entrance and inlaid in the floors. From 1967, a white cannon was regularly worn on the shirts, until replaced by the club crest, sometimes with the addition of the nickname "The Gunners", in the 1990s.
What celebration did Arsenal have in the 2011-12 season?
5725eedb38643c19005acec3
125th year anniversary
48
False
What do the 15 oak leaves on the anniversary crest indicate?
5725eedb38643c19005acec4
founding members
308
False
What dates are depicted on the Arsenal anniversary crest?
5725eedb38643c19005acec5
1886 and 2011
558
False
What motto is shown on the Arsenal club anniversary crest?
5725eedb38643c19005acec6
Forward
612
False
Where did the Arsenal team wear the anniversary crest?
5725eedb38643c19005acec7
on their jerseys
143
False
15
371
How many founding fathers were there of Arsenal?
5acd0b3f07355d001abf322c
True
the motto "Forward"
601
What is on top of the crest?
5acd0b3f07355d001abf322d
True
white
194
What color are the letters of "Forward"?
5acd0b3f07355d001abf322e
True
white
194
What color are the laurel leaves on the crest?
5acd0b3f07355d001abf322f
True
white
194
What color are the oak leaves?
5acd0b3f07355d001abf3230
True
In the 2011–12 season, Arsenal celebrated their 125th year anniversary. The celebrations included a modified version of the current crest worn on their jerseys for the season. The crest was all white, surrounded by 15 oak leaves to the right and 15 laurel leaves to the left. The oak leaves represent the 15 founding members of the club who met at the Royal Oak pub. The 15 laurel leaves represent the design detail on the six pence pieces paid by the founding fathers to establish the club. The laurel leaves also represent strength. To complete the crest, 1886 and 2011 are shown on either sides of the motto "Forward" at the bottom of the crest.
What has the color of the Arsenal  home shirts been?
5725f1a489a1e219009ac0d4
bright red
60
False
In recognition of what event was the color red adopted for Arsenal shirts?
5725f1a489a1e219009ac0d5
charitable donation
198
False
Which founding members were responsible for the red shirts?
5725f1a489a1e219009ac0d6
Fred Beardsley and Morris Bates
322
False
What was the early name for the Arsenal FC?
5725f1a489a1e219009ac0d7
Dial Square
290
False
What was the color  of the early uniforms' shorts and socks?
5725f1a489a1e219009ac0d8
white
636
False
bright red
60
What color are Arsenal players shoes?
5acd0bfd07355d001abf3244
True
white
83
What color were Forest players shirts?
5acd0bfd07355d001abf3245
True
1886
277
In what year was Nottingham Forest's football team founded?
5acd0bfd07355d001abf3246
True
1886
277
In what year did Fred Beardsley first play for Forest?
5acd0bfd07355d001abf3247
True
1886
277
In what year did Morris Bates stop playing for Forest?
5acd0bfd07355d001abf3248
True
For much of Arsenal's history, their home colours have been bright red shirts with white sleeves and white shorts, though this has not always been the case. The choice of red is in recognition of a charitable donation from Nottingham Forest, soon after Arsenal's foundation in 1886. Two of Dial Square's founding members, Fred Beardsley and Morris Bates, were former Forest players who had moved to Woolwich for work. As they put together the first team in the area, no kit could be found, so Beardsley and Bates wrote home for help and received a set of kit and a ball. The shirt was redcurrant, a dark shade of red, and was worn with white shorts and socks with blue and white hoops.
What manager updated the players uniforms in 1933?
5725f36689a1e219009ac0f0
Herbert Chapman
9
False
What brighter shade of red did Chapman adopt?
5725f36689a1e219009ac0f1
pillar box red
152
False
What distinctive change did Chapman make to the Arsenal shirts?
5725f36689a1e219009ac0f2
white sleeves
228
False
For what style of shirts Arsenal known ?
5725f36689a1e219009ac0f3
red and white
520
False
What did Arsenal want to commemorate by wearing dark red shirts in their last season at Highbury?
5725f36689a1e219009ac0f4
first season
937
False
white
101
What color was Arsenal's sleeves before 1933?
5acd0cc307355d001abf3256
True
Highbury
839
In what stadium did Arsenal play after the 2005-06 season?
5acd0cc307355d001abf3257
True
1933
3
In what year did Herbert Chapman become manager of Arsenal?
5acd0cc307355d001abf3258
True
1933
3
In what year was Arsenal founded?
5acd0cc307355d001abf3259
True
Herbert Chapman
9
Who founded Arsenal?
5acd0cc307355d001abf325a
True
In 1933, Herbert Chapman, wanting his players to be more distinctly dressed, updated the kit, adding white sleeves and changing the shade to a brighter pillar box red. Two possibilities have been suggested for the origin of the white sleeves. One story reports that Chapman noticed a supporter in the stands wearing a red sleeveless sweater over a white shirt; another was that he was inspired by a similar outfit worn by the cartoonist Tom Webster, with whom Chapman played golf. Regardless of which story is true, the red and white shirts have come to define Arsenal and the team have worn the combination ever since, aside from two seasons. The first was 1966–67, when Arsenal wore all-red shirts; this proved unpopular and the white sleeves returned the following season. The second was 2005–06, the last season that Arsenal played at Highbury, when the team wore commemorative redcurrant shirts similar to those worn in 1913, their first season in the stadium; the club reverted to their normal colours at the start of the next season. In the 2008–09 season, Arsenal replaced the traditional all-white sleeves with red sleeves with a broad white stripe.
What early team copied the Arsenal's red current color in 1909?
5725f56a89a1e219009ac104
Sparta Prague
90
False
What team in 1938 used the same style of kit, but in green?
5725f56a89a1e219009ac105
Hibernian
175
False
By coping the Arsenal team kit exactly, what nickname was given to Sporting Clube de Braga?
5725f56a89a1e219009ac106
Os Arsenalistas
479
False
For how long have the Arsenal inspired copy-cat clubs worn their uniforms?
5725f56a89a1e219009ac107
to this day
533
False
What was Sporting Clube de Braga's original color?
5725f56a89a1e219009ac108
green
368
False
Highbury
336
In what stadium does Sparta Prague play?
5acd0d8207355d001abf3272
True
Os Arsenalistas
479
What's the nickname of Sparta Prague?
5acd0d8207355d001abf3273
True
green
368
What color kit did Sparta Prague wear in 1908?
5acd0d8207355d001abf3274
True
dark red
114
What color are Sparta Prague's sleeves?
5acd0d8207355d001abf3275
True
Arsenal
0
Who won the 1920 game between Arsenal and Sporting Clube de Braga that took place at Highbury?
5acd0d8207355d001abf3276
True
Arsenal's home colours have been the inspiration for at least three other clubs. In 1909, Sparta Prague adopted a dark red kit like the one Arsenal wore at the time; in 1938, Hibernian adopted the design of the Arsenal shirt sleeves in their own green and white strip. In 1920, Sporting Clube de Braga's manager returned from a game at Highbury and changed his team's green kit to a duplicate of Arsenal's red with white sleeves and shorts, giving rise to the team's nickname of Os Arsenalistas. These teams still wear those designs to this day.
During what season were Arsenal's away colors white shirts and white or black shorts?
5725f7af271a42140099d38f
1969–70 season
97
False
When did Arsenal adolpt the away colors or yellow shirts and blue shorts?
5725f7af271a42140099d390
1969–70 season
97
False
For what competition did Arsenal use the yellow and blue away kit?
5725f7af271a42140099d391
1971 FA Cup Final
204
False
What did Arsenal consider the yellow and blue colors to be after losing a FA Cup final wearing red and white?
5725f7af271a42140099d392
lucky
528
False
What is the difference in the Arsenal color of blue in the away kit after 1983?
5725f7af271a42140099d393
darker shade
738
False
black
67
What away color socks did Arsenal wear for many years?
5acd0e8c07355d001abf32a4
True
blue
166
What color socks did Arsenal players wear during the 1969-70 season?
5acd0e8c07355d001abf32a5
True
yellow
147
What color sleeves did Arsenal have in the 1969-70 season?
5acd0e8c07355d001abf32a6
True
blue
166
What was Arsenal's home shirt colours during the 1969-70 season?
5acd0e8c07355d001abf32a7
True
yellow
535
What color shirts were worn by Liverpool players in 1971?
5acd0e8c07355d001abf32a8
True
For many years Arsenal's away colours were white shirts and either black or white shorts. In the 1969–70 season, Arsenal introduced an away kit of yellow shirts with blue shorts. This kit was worn in the 1971 FA Cup Final as Arsenal beat Liverpool to secure the double for the first time in their history. Arsenal reached the FA Cup final again the following year wearing the red and white home strip and were beaten by Leeds United. Arsenal then competed in three consecutive FA Cup finals between 1978 and 1980 wearing their "lucky" yellow and blue strip, which remained the club's away strip until the release of a green and navy away kit in 1982–83. The following season, Arsenal returned to the yellow and blue scheme, albeit with a darker shade of blue than before.
What manufacturer became Arsenal's uniform provider in 1994?
5725f93b89a1e219009ac11e
Nike
5
False
Which brand was the kit provider prior to 1994?
5725f93b89a1e219009ac11f
Adidas
25
False
To appeal to what are the kits changed regularly?
5725f93b89a1e219009ac120
replica kit market
179
False
What traditional Arsenal colors have frequently been employed for away kits?
5725f93b89a1e219009ac121
yellow and blue
405
False
Since what year has the away kit been changed every year?
5725f93b89a1e219009ac122
2009
589
False
2009
589
In what year was Arsenal's home colours kits last changed?
5acd0f9107355d001abf32c2
True
metallic gold and navy strip
434
What color was Arsenal's away colours when Adidas was the kit provider?
5acd0f9107355d001abf32c3
True
all blue
354
What color away kit did Arsenal wear during the 2002-03 season?
5acd0f9107355d001abf32c4
True
yellow and blue
405
What color away kit did Arsenal wear during the 2004-05 season?
5acd0f9107355d001abf32c5
True
2010
569
In what year did the replica kit market start to become lucrative?
5acd0f9107355d001abf32c6
True
When Nike took over from Adidas as Arsenal's kit provider in 1994, Arsenal's away colours were again changed to two-tone blue shirts and shorts. Since the advent of the lucrative replica kit market, the away kits have been changed regularly, with Arsenal usually releasing both away and third choice kits. During this period the designs have been either all blue designs, or variations on the traditional yellow and blue, such as the metallic gold and navy strip used in the 2001–02 season, the yellow and dark grey used from 2005 to 2007, and the yellow and maroon of 2010 to 2013. As of 2009, the away kit is changed every season, and the outgoing away kit becomes the third-choice kit if a new home kit is being introduced in the same year.
When did Arsenal FC leave Highbury stadium?
5725fabf271a42140099d399
May 2006
94
False
When did Arsenal Stadium at Highbury first become the club's home?
5725fabf271a42140099d39a
September 1913
73
False
What architect designed the original stadium at Highbury?
5725fabf271a42140099d39b
Archibald Leitch
173
False
In what decade was Arsenal Stadium overhauled?
5725fabf271a42140099d39c
1930s
385
False
When was the Arsenal stadium bombed?
5725fabf271a42140099d39d
Second World War
559
False
Highbury
22
In which stadium has Arsenal played since 2006?
5acd106a07355d001abf32ea
True
Archibald Leitch
173
Who designed Arsenal's new stadium, built in 2006?
5acd106a07355d001abf32eb
True
1936
464
In what year was Highbury bombed?
5acd106a07355d001abf32ec
True
September
73
In what month in 1913 did Highbury open?
5acd106a07355d001abf32ed
True
September
73
In what month in 1936 did the Art Deco East stands finish being constructed?
5acd106a07355d001abf32ee
True
Widely referred to as Highbury, Arsenal Stadium was the club's home from September 1913 until May 2006. The original stadium was designed by the renowned football architect Archibald Leitch, and had a design common to many football grounds in the UK at the time, with a single covered stand and three open-air banks of terracing. The entire stadium was given a massive overhaul in the 1930s: new Art Deco West and East stands were constructed, opening in 1932 and 1936 respectively, and a roof was added to the North Bank terrace, which was bombed during the Second World War and not restored until 1954.
What was the most people that Highbury stadium could host?
5725fc3b89a1e219009ac132
60,000
30
False
When did League regulations make Arsenal reduce the seating in Highbury?
5725fc3b89a1e219009ac133
1993–94 season
239
False
Where did Arsenal play matches because of increased seating capacity?
5725fc3b89a1e219009ac134
Wembley
529
False
During what time did Arsenal play at Wembley?
5725fc3b89a1e219009ac135
1998 to 2000
467
False
What seating capacity did Wembley offer that have to lure Arsenal to play there?
5725fc3b89a1e219009ac136
70,000
566
False
60,000 spectators
30
What was the maximum occupancy of Highbury at its peak?
5acd117907355d001abf331c
True
1998
467
In what year was Wembley built?
5acd117907355d001abf331d
True
70,000 spectators
566
What's the maximum occupancy of Wembley?
5acd117907355d001abf331e
True
two
449
How many advertising board does Wembley have?
5acd117907355d001abf331f
True
Wembley
529
What was built first, Highbury or Wembley?
5acd117907355d001abf3320
True
Highbury could hold more than 60,000 spectators at its peak, and had a capacity of 57,000 until the early 1990s. The Taylor Report and Premier League regulations obliged Arsenal to convert Highbury to an all-seater stadium in time for the 1993–94 season, thus reducing the capacity to 38,419 seated spectators. This capacity had to be reduced further during Champions League matches to accommodate additional advertising boards, so much so that for two seasons, from 1998 to 2000, Arsenal played Champions League home matches at Wembley, which could house more than 70,000 spectators.
When did Arsenal offer a plan to build a new stadium at Ashburton Grove?
5725ff4cec44d21400f3d7e7
2000
417
False
By what name was the new Arsenal stadium finally known?
5725ff4cec44d21400f3d7e8
Emirates Stadium
514
False
What was the amount of the Emirates airline company deal?
5725ff4cec44d21400f3d7e9
£100 million
896
False
Of what facet of stadium naming do some fans disapprove?
5725ff4cec44d21400f3d7ea
corporate sponsorship
1004
False
What type of agreement is the deal with Emirates ?
5725ff4cec44d21400f3d7eb
sponsorship deal
837
False
residential properties
151
What was the East Stand of Highbury close to?
5acd132b07355d001abf337c
True
60,361
454
How many people could fit into Highbury?
5acd132b07355d001abf337d
True
£100 million
896
How much is the largest sponsorship deal in global football history worth?
5acd132b07355d001abf337e
True
residential properties
151
What is Clock End close to?
5acd132b07355d001abf337f
True
residential properties
151
What is Northbank close to?
5acd132b07355d001abf3380
True
Expansion of Highbury was restricted because the East Stand had been designated as a Grade II listed building and the other three stands were close to residential properties. These limitations prevented the club from maximising matchday revenue during the 1990s and first decade of the 21st century, putting them in danger of being left behind in the football boom of that time. After considering various options, in 2000 Arsenal proposed building a new 60,361-capacity stadium at Ashburton Grove, since named the Emirates Stadium, about 500 metres south-west of Highbury. The project was initially delayed by red tape and rising costs, and construction was completed in July 2006, in time for the start of the 2006–07 season. The stadium was named after its sponsors, the airline company Emirates, with whom the club signed the largest sponsorship deal in English football history, worth around £100 million; some fans referred to the ground as Ashburton Grove, or the Grove, as they did not agree with corporate sponsorship of stadium names. The stadium will be officially known as Emirates Stadium until at least 2028, and the airline will be the club's shirt sponsor until the end of the 2018–19 season. From the start of the 2010–11 season on, the stands of the stadium have been officially known as North Bank, East Stand, West Stand and Clock end.
What is the common nickname of Arsenal supporters?
5726016b89a1e219009ac148
Gooners
43
False
From what name does Gooners come?
5726016b89a1e219009ac149
The Gunners
97
False
From what groups do the supporters of Arsenal come?
5726016b89a1e219009ac14a
variety of social classes
879
False
Where did the attendance at Arsenal games rank in relation to other English clubs?
5726016b89a1e219009ac14b
second-highest average
221
False
What aspect of the fan base is one of the  reasons for large game attendance?
5726016b89a1e219009ac14c
location
590
False
2007
197
In what year did Arsenal fans start calling themselves, "Gooners"?
5acd144007355d001abf33a4
True
Borussia Dortmund
486
Which English club had the highest average league attendance for 2007-08?
5acd144007355d001abf33a5
True
FC Barcelona
505
Which team had the highest attendance in 2015?
5acd144007355d001abf33a6
True
"Gooners"
42
What do fans of Real Madrid call themselves?
5acd144007355d001abf33a7
True
60,070
283
How many people on average attend a Schalke home game?
5acd144007355d001abf33a8
True
Arsenal fans often refer to themselves as "Gooners", the name derived from the team's nickname, "The Gunners". The fanbase is large and generally loyal, and virtually all home matches sell out; in 2007–08 Arsenal had the second-highest average League attendance for an English club (60,070, which was 99.5% of available capacity), and, as of 2015, the third-highest all-time average attendance. Arsenal have the seventh highest average attendance of European football clubs only behind Borussia Dortmund, FC Barcelona, Manchester United, Real Madrid, Bayern Munich, and Schalke. The club's location, adjoining wealthy areas such as Canonbury and Barnsbury, mixed areas such as Islington, Holloway, Highbury, and the adjacent London Borough of Camden, and largely working-class areas such as Finsbury Park and Stoke Newington, has meant that Arsenal's supporters have come from a variety of social classes.
What type of clubs does Arsenal have?
5726030e271a42140099d3c5
domestic supporters' clubs
64
False
Which fan club is closely allied to the Arsenal club?
5726030e271a42140099d3c6
Arsenal Football Supporters' Club
106
False
What supporters club is more loosely tied to Arsenal?
5726030e271a42140099d3c7
Arsenal Independent Supporters' Association
184
False
What fan group wants more ownership rights in the Arsenal club?
5726030e271a42140099d3c8
Arsenal Supporters' Trust
274
False
What is a common chant of Arsenal supporters?
5726030e271a42140099d3c9
One-Nil to the Arsenal
537
False
Arsenal Football Supporters' Club
106
Which Arsenal domestic supporters' club was the first to be created?
5acd15e907355d001abf33fc
True
Gunflash
429
Which Arsenal fanzine was the first to be published?
5acd15e907355d001abf33fd
True
Arsenal Football Supporters' Club
106
Which was the last Arsenal domestic supporter club to be established?
5acd15e907355d001abf33fe
True
Up The Arse!
456
What was the latest Arsenal Fanzine to start publishing?
5acd15e907355d001abf33ff
True
Like all major English football clubs, Arsenal have a number of domestic supporters' clubs, including the Arsenal Football Supporters' Club, which works closely with the club, and the Arsenal Independent Supporters' Association, which maintains a more independent line. The Arsenal Supporters' Trust promotes greater participation in ownership of the club by fans. The club's supporters also publish fanzines such as The Gooner, Gunflash and the satirical Up The Arse!. In addition to the usual English football chants, supporters sing "One-Nil to the Arsenal" (to the tune of "Go West").
What medium has added to the fan base of Arsenal?
57260512271a42140099d3cf
satellite television
82
False
How many supporter clubs outside Britain  were there in 2007 affiliated with Arsenal?
57260512271a42140099d3d0
49
316
False
In 2011 what was Arsenal's estimated fan base?
57260512271a42140099d3d1
113 million
449
False
What was the world ranking of Arsenal's social media in 2015-15 season?
57260512271a42140099d3d2
fifth highest
503
False
In this era of satelites and social media,on what are fans now less dependent ?
57260512271a42140099d3d3
geography
177
False
Arsenal
23
What club had the highest social media activity during the 2014-15 season?
5acd16c507355d001abf3422
True
Arsenal
23
Who won the 2014-15 season?
5acd16c507355d001abf3423
True
24
296
How many American Arsenal supporter clubs are there?
5acd16c507355d001abf3424
True
113 million
449
How many people follow Arsenal's social media accounts?
5acd16c507355d001abf3425
True
2011
384
In what year did SPORT+MARKT start printing?
5acd16c507355d001abf3426
True
There have always been Arsenal supporters outside London, and since the advent of satellite television, a supporter's attachment to a football club has become less dependent on geography. Consequently, Arsenal have a significant number of fans from beyond London and all over the world; in 2007, 24 UK, 37 Irish and 49 other overseas supporters clubs were affiliated with the club. A 2011 report by SPORT+MARKT estimated Arsenal's global fanbase at 113 million. The club's social media activity was the fifth highest in world football during the 2014–15 season.
What football club is Arsenal's greatest rival?
5726083a89a1e219009ac164
Tottenham Hotspur
86
False
Since the Arsenal and Tottenham Hotspurs are geographically so close , what is the contest between them called?
5726083a89a1e219009ac165
North London derbies
148
False
What club has Arsenal have an increased rivalry since the 1980s?
5726083a89a1e219009ac166
Manchester United
281
False
What competition sparked the rivalry with Manchester?
5726083a89a1e219009ac167
Premier League title
427
False
What year's poll of supporters said that the Tottenham rivalry was greatest?
5726083a89a1e219009ac168
2008
604
False
West Ham United
239
Who is Chelsea's biggest rivalry with?
5acd176407355d001abf3440
True
Chelsea
219
A 2008 poll showed which team is West Ham United's biggest rival?
5acd176407355d001abf3441
True
Tottenham Hotspur
86
According to a 2003 online poll who is Fulham's biggest rival club?
5acd176407355d001abf3442
True
2003
468
In what year was West Ham United founded?
5acd176407355d001abf3443
True
North London derbies
148
What are matches between Chelsea and Manchester United called?
5acd176407355d001abf3444
True
Arsenal's longest-running and deepest rivalry is with their nearest major neighbours, Tottenham Hotspur; matches between the two are referred to as North London derbies. Other rivalries within London include those with Chelsea, Fulham and West Ham United. In addition, Arsenal and Manchester United developed a strong on-pitch rivalry in the late 1980s, which intensified in recent years when both clubs were competing for the Premier League title – so much so that a 2003 online poll by the Football Fans Census listed Manchester United as Arsenal's biggest rivals, followed by Tottenham and Chelsea. A 2008 poll listed the Tottenham rivalry as more important.
What individual is the biggest shareholder on the Arsenal board?
572609bf271a42140099d3d9
Stan Kroenke
71
False
What percentage of shares in Arsenal did Kroenke own by 2011?
572609bf271a42140099d3da
62.89%
715
False
Who is Arsenal's Chief Executive?
572609bf271a42140099d3db
Ivan Gazidis
831
False
Who is Kroenke's chief competitor for Arsenal stock?
572609bf271a42140099d3dc
Red & White Securities
780
False
In what year did Kreonke achieve take over of Arsenal stock?
572609bf271a42140099d3dd
April 2011
568
False
2009
886
Who was Arsenal's chief executive prior to 2009?
5acd186607355d001abf347e
True
18,695
807
How many shares did Red and White Securities own of Arsenal in 2007?
5acd186607355d001abf347f
True
April 2007
130
In what month and year did David Dein acquire his shares in Arsenal?
5acd186607355d001abf3480
True
Russian
308
In what country was Ivan Gazidis born?
5acd186607355d001abf3481
True
2007
263
In what year did Nina Bracewell-Smith and Danny Fiszman acquire their shares of Arsenal?
5acd186607355d001abf3482
True
The largest shareholder on the Arsenal board is American sports tycoon Stan Kroenke. Kroenke first launched a bid for the club in April 2007, and faced competition for shares from Red and White Securities, which acquired its first shares off David Dein in August 2007. Red & White Securities was co-owned by Russian billionaire Alisher Usmanov and Iranian London-based financier Farhad Moshiri, though Usmanov bought Moshiri's stake in 2016. Kroenke came close to the 30% takeover threshold in November 2009, when he increased his holding to 18,594 shares (29.9%). In April 2011, Kroenke achieved a full takeover by purchasing the shareholdings of Nina Bracewell-Smith and Danny Fiszman, taking his shareholding to 62.89%. As of June 2015, Kroenke owns 41,698 shares (67.02%) and Red & White Securities own 18,695 shares (30.04%). Ivan Gazidis has been the club's Chief Executive since 2009.
By what means does Arsenal operate as a company?
57260b6a271a42140099d3e3
non-quoted public limited
62
False
How many shares of Arsenal stock are there?
57260b6a271a42140099d3e4
62,217
179
False
On March 10,2016 what was the value of a share of Arsenal stock?
57260b6a271a42140099d3e5
£15,670
474
False
What value did Forbes place on Arsenal in 2015?
57260b6a271a42140099d3e6
$1.3 billion
719
False
At what rank in value in the Premier League is Arsenal?
57260b6a271a42140099d3e7
second highest
969
False
FTSE
279
On what exchange are some UK clubs shares traded?
5acd191807355d001abf34ae
True
$1.3 billion
719
How much does Forbes estimate Arsenal's value to be as of 2017?
5acd191807355d001abf34af
True
£15,670
474
How much does a single share of Arsenal cost as of 1-1-2018?
5acd191807355d001abf34b0
True
Arsenal
0
What club has the highest value as of 2015 according to Henley Business School?
5acd191807355d001abf34b1
True
Arsenal's parent company, Arsenal Holdings plc, operates as a non-quoted public limited company, whose ownership is considerably different from that of other football clubs. Only 62,217 shares in Arsenal have been issued, and they are not traded on a public exchange such as the FTSE or AIM; instead, they are traded relatively infrequently on the ICAP Securities and Derivatives Exchange, a specialist market. On 10 March 2016, a single share in Arsenal had a mid price of £15,670, which sets the club's market capitalisation value at approximately £975m. Most football clubs aren't listed on an exchange, which makes direct comparisons of their values difficult. Business magazine Forbes valued Arsenal as a whole at $1.3 billion in 2015. Consultants Brand Finance valued the club's brand and intangible assets at $703m in 2015, and consider Arsenal an AAA global brand. Research by the Henley Business School modelled the club's value at £1.118 billion in 2015, the second highest in the Premier League.
Where does Deloitte Football Money League rank Arsenal in the world football clubs?
57260d97ec44d21400f3d857
seventh
366
False
What value does Deloitte place on Arsenal?
57260d97ec44d21400f3d858
£331.3m
331
False
What is the match day earning of Emirates Stadium?
57260d97ec44d21400f3d859
£100.4m
492
False
How does Arsenal match day revenue compare with other stadium in the world?
57260d97ec44d21400f3d85a
more
501
False
What does Arsenal report a before tax profit for 2014-15?
57260d97ec44d21400f3d85b
£24.7m
110
False
Arsenal
0
Who ranks first in revenue for world football clubs?
5acd1a9207355d001abf351a
True
£329.3m
175
How much is Emirates Stadium worth?
5acd1a9207355d001abf351b
True
£24.7m
110
How much of Arsenal's profits come from their footballing core?
5acd1a9207355d001abf351c
True
£344.5m
73
How much revenue did Arsenal have during the 2015-16 season?
5acd1a9207355d001abf351d
True
£24.7m
110
How much profit did Arsenal have for the 2013-14 season?
5acd1a9207355d001abf351e
True
Arsenal's financial results for the 2014–15 season show group revenue of £344.5m, with a profit before tax of £24.7m. The footballing core of the business showed a revenue of £329.3m. The Deloitte Football Money League is a publication that homogenizes and compares clubs' annual revenue. They put Arsenal's footballing revenue at £331.3m (€435.5m), ranking Arsenal seventh among world football clubs. Arsenal and Deloitte both list the match day revenue generated by the Emirates Stadium as £100.4m, more than any other football stadium in the world.
Why was Arsenal's match on 22 Jan. 1927 at Highbury a first?
57260ff138643c19005acf9d
broadcast live on radio
163
False
What team did Arsenal play at the time of the radio broadcast in 1927?
57260ff138643c19005acf9e
Sheffield United
105
False
When was Arsenal's match the first to be televised live?
57260ff138643c19005acf9f
16 September 1937
207
False
To what first broadcast did Arsenal provide match highlights?
57260ff138643c19005acfa0
BBC's Match of the Day
406
False
In what form was Arsenal's broadcast of a 2010 match against Manchester United?
57260ff138643c19005acfa1
3D television
651
False
Highbury
88
In what stadium was Arsenal playing in for the first televised game?
5acd1b6207355d001abf3556
True
BBC
406
On what tv channel was the 16 September 1937 Arsenal exhibition game shown?
5acd1b6207355d001abf3557
True
Liverpool
479
Who won the match between Arsenal and Liverpool on 22 August 1964?
5acd1b6207355d001abf3558
True
Sheffield United
105
Who won the match between Arsenal and Sheffield United on 22 January 1927?
5acd1b6207355d001abf3559
True
1964
513
In what year did BskyB televise their first Arsenal game?
5acd1b6207355d001abf355a
True
Arsenal have appeared in a number of media "firsts". On 22 January 1927, their match at Highbury against Sheffield United was the first English League match to be broadcast live on radio. A decade later, on 16 September 1937, an exhibition match between Arsenal's first team and the reserves was the first football match in the world to be televised live. Arsenal also featured in the first edition of the BBC's Match of the Day, which screened highlights of their match against Liverpool at Anfield on 22 August 1964. BSkyB's coverage of Arsenal's January 2010 match against Manchester United was the first live public broadcast of a sports event on 3D television.
In what film was Arsenal FC shown?
5726118689a1e219009ac1d6
The Arsenal Stadium Mystery
202
False
What Arsenal manager had a speaking part in the 1939 film?
5726118689a1e219009ac1d7
George Allison
416
False
What book by Nick Hornby has twice been adapted for film?
5726118689a1e219009ac1d8
Fever Pitch
482
False
When was Hornby's book published?
5726118689a1e219009ac1d9
1992
629
False
In what decade did film and literature help revive football in Britain?
5726118689a1e219009ac1da
1990s
726
False
Fever Pitch
482
What was the name of the 1997 movie about Arsenal?
5acd1c4c07355d001abf356a
True
Fever Pitch
482
What was the name of the 2005 movie about the Boston Red Sox?
5acd1c4c07355d001abf356b
True
Nick Hornby
497
Who was the lead actor in Arsenal Stadium Mystery?
5acd1c4c07355d001abf356c
True
Nick Hornby
497
What player is poisoned during the Arsenal Stadium Mystery movie?
5acd1c4c07355d001abf356d
True
Arsenal Stadium
206
What stadium do the Boston Red Sox play in?
5acd1c4c07355d001abf356e
True
As one of the most successful teams in the country, Arsenal have often featured when football is depicted in the arts in Britain. They formed the backdrop to one of the earliest football-related films, The Arsenal Stadium Mystery (1939). The film centres on a friendly match between Arsenal and an amateur side, one of whose players is poisoned while playing. Many Arsenal players appeared as themselves and manager George Allison was given a speaking part. More recently, the book Fever Pitch by Nick Hornby was an autobiographical account of Hornby's life and relationship with football and Arsenal in particular. Published in 1992, it formed part of the revival and rehabilitation of football in British society during the 1990s. The book was twice adapted for the cinema – the 1997 British film focuses on Arsenal's 1988–89 title win, and a 2005 American version features a fan of baseball's Boston Red Sox.
How have Arsenal players portrayed in media?
57261351ec44d21400f3d891
defensive and "boring"
41
False
In what decades were Arsenal players stereotyped in a negative way?
57261351ec44d21400f3d892
1970s and 1980s
92
False
What film featured a Arsenal play in  derogatory way?
57261351ec44d21400f3d893
The Full Monty
234
False
Which comic made numerous jokes about Arsenal players?
57261351ec44d21400f3d894
Eric Morecambe
133
False
What film uses characters named after Arsenal full backs?
57261351ec44d21400f3d895
Plunkett & Macleane
498
False
1997
224
In what year did the movie Plunkett & Macleane release?
5acd1da407355d001abf359c
True
Dixon and Winterburn
553
Who are two of the characters in The Full Monty?
5acd1da407355d001abf359d
True
1997
224
In what year did Lee Dixon join Arsenal?
5acd1da407355d001abf359e
True
1997
224
In what year was Nigel Winterburn's last game with Arsenal?
5acd1da407355d001abf359f
True
Eric Morecambe
133
Who was Arsenal's right-sided in 1997?
5acd1da407355d001abf35a0
True
Arsenal have often been stereotyped as a defensive and "boring" side, especially during the 1970s and 1980s; many comedians, such as Eric Morecambe, made jokes about this at the team's expense. The theme was repeated in the 1997 film The Full Monty, in a scene where the lead actors move in a line and raise their hands, deliberately mimicking the Arsenal defence's offside trap, in an attempt to co-ordinate their striptease routine. Another film reference to the club's defence comes in the film Plunkett & Macleane, in which two characters are named Dixon and Winterburn after Arsenal's long-serving full backs – the right-sided Lee Dixon and the left-sided Nigel Winterburn.
How many League Championships has Arsenal won?
5726152c89a1e219009ac218
13
19
False
Where does Arsenal's total League Championships place it as compared to other English teams?
5726152c89a1e219009ac219
third highest
50
False
Of what type of trophies does Arsenal have the most?
5726152c89a1e219009ac21a
FA Cup trophies
228
False
In what competition was Arsenal the first to enter the finals?
5726152c89a1e219009ac21b
UEFA Champions League
691
False
What team beat Arsenal to win the 2006 UEFA Champions League?
5726152c89a1e219009ac21c
Barcelona
747
False
Liverpool
118
What is one of the other teams that has won the FA Cup twice in succession?
5acd1e9107355d001abf35ba
True
twice
306
How many times has Barcelona won the UEFA Champions League?
5acd1e9107355d001abf35bb
True
2003
339
In what year was Liverpool's last League Championship?
5acd1e9107355d001abf35bc
True
1971
424
In what year did Manchester United when its first League Championship?
5acd1e9107355d001abf35bd
True
Manchester United
91
Which team has the second most FA Cup trophies?
5acd1e9107355d001abf35be
True
Arsenal's tally of 13 League Championships is the third highest in English football, after Manchester United (20) and Liverpool (18), and they were the first club to reach 8 League Championships. They hold the highest number of FA Cup trophies, 12. The club is one of only six clubs to have won the FA Cup twice in succession, in 2002 and 2003, and 2014 and 2015. Arsenal have achieved three League and FA Cup "Doubles" (in 1971, 1998 and 2002), a feat only previously achieved by Manchester United (in 1994, 1996 and 1999). They were the first side in English football to complete the FA Cup and League Cup double, in 1993. Arsenal were also the first London club to reach the final of the UEFA Champions League, in 2006, losing the final 2–1 to Barcelona.
What is the name of the football club affiliated with Arsenal?
572616c289a1e219009ac232
Arsenal Ladies
0
False
When did the Arsenal Ladies team become semi-professional?
572616c289a1e219009ac233
2002
118
False
How does Arsenal Ladies rank as compared with other English women's football teams?
572616c289a1e219009ac234
most successful
181
False
By 2009 what competition has Arsenal Ladies been the only ladies team to have won?
572616c289a1e219009ac235
UEFA Women's Cup
439
False
At what stadium do Arsenal Ladies usually play?
572616c289a1e219009ac236
Boreham Wood.
733
False
1987
79
In what year did Clare Wheatley start managing Arsenal Ladies?
5acd1fbd07355d001abf35ce
True
2009
390
In what year was Boreham Wood built?
5acd1fbd07355d001abf35cf
True
Arsenal Ladies
0
Which team is the second most successful in English women's football?
5acd1fbd07355d001abf35d0
True
once
647
How many times a year does Arsenal Ladies play at Boreham Wood?
5acd1fbd07355d001abf35d1
True
Arsenal Ladies are the women's football club affiliated to Arsenal. Founded in 1987, they turned semi-professional in 2002 and are managed by Clare Wheatley. Arsenal Ladies are the most successful team in English women's football. In the 2008–09 season, they won all three major English trophies – the FA Women's Premier League, FA Women's Cup and FA Women's Premier League Cup, and, as of 2009, were the only English side to have won the UEFA Women's Cup, having done so in the 2006–07 season as part of a unique quadruple. The men's and women's clubs are formally separate entities but have quite close ties; Arsenal Ladies are entitled to play once a season at the Emirates Stadium, though they usually play their home matches at Boreham Wood.
Clothing
What can clothing provide during hazardous activities?
5725e47538643c19005ace3d
safety
105
False
What type of surfaces can clothing protect from?
5725e47538643c19005ace3e
rough
196
False
What does clothing keep toxic materials away from?
5725e47538643c19005ace3f
body
491
False
What can insulate against cold or hot conditions?
5725e47538643c19005ace40
Clothes
339
False
What type of radiation can clothing provide some protection from?
5725e47538643c19005ace41
UV
544
False
hazardous
119
Clothing cannot protect you from what kind of activities
5a0ce2a9f5590b0018dab62a
True
clothing
12
Psychologically what serves many purposes?
5a0ce2a9f5590b0018dab62b
True
Clothes
339
What can protect you from smooth surfaces
5a0ce2a9f5590b0018dab62c
True
Clothing
497
What offers protection for many kinds of radiation?
5a0ce2a9f5590b0018dab62d
True
Clothes
339
What helps keep you warm in hot conditions?
5a0ce2a9f5590b0018dab62e
True
Physically, clothing serves many purposes: it can serve as protection from the elements, and can enhance safety during hazardous activities such as hiking and cooking. It protects the wearer from rough surfaces, rash-causing plants, insect bites, splinters, thorns and prickles by providing a barrier between the skin and the environment. Clothes can insulate against cold or hot conditions. Further, they can provide a hygienic barrier, keeping infectious and toxic materials away from the body. Clothing also provides protection from harmful UV radiation.
What isn't it easy to determine about clothing?
5725ea37271a42140099d307
when clothing was first developed
34
False
What organism has provided some information about the timeline of clothing?
5725ea37271a42140099d308
lice
195
False
What habitat is the body louse specific to?
5725ea37271a42140099d309
clothing
163
False
What may modern humans be the only survivor of several species of?
5725ea37271a42140099d30a
primates
354
False
How many thousands of years ago may have clothing been worn?
5725ea37271a42140099d30b
650
441
False
when clothing was first developed
34
What is easy to determine about clothing?
5a0cece5f5590b0018dab65c
True
when clothing was first developed
34
Please have provided some information about what?
5a0cece5f5590b0018dab65d
True
clothing
398
What habitat is the head louse is specific to?
5a0cece5f5590b0018dab65e
True
107,000 years
206
Headlights diverge from body lice how long ago?
5a0cece5f5590b0018dab65f
True
worn clothes
376
Humans are the only primates who may have what?
5a0cece5f5590b0018dab660
True
There is no easy way to determine when clothing was first developed, but some information has been inferred by studying lice. The body louse specifically lives in clothing, and diverge from head lice about 107,000 years ago, suggesting that clothing existed at that time. Another theory is that modern humans are the only survivors of several species of primates who may have worn clothes and that clothing may have been used as long ago as 650 thousand years ago. Other louse-based estimates put the introduction of clothing at around 42,000–72,000 BP.
What obvious improvement does clothing bestow upon the wearer?
5725eb6c271a42140099d323
comfort
56
False
In what type of climate does clothing protect against sunburn and wind damage?
5725eb6c271a42140099d324
hot
126
False
What property of clothing is important in cold climates?
5725eb6c271a42140099d325
thermal insulation
225
False
What has seasonal and regional aspects?
5725eb6c271a42140099d326
clothing
516
False
What type of material tends to be worn in warmer seasons?
5725eb6c271a42140099d327
thinner
568
False
comfort of the wearer
56
The least obvious improvement bestowed by clothing is what?
5a0cee05f5590b0018dab666
True
wind damage,
185
In cold climate clothing protects against sunburn and what?
5a0cee05f5590b0018dab667
True
Shelter
285
What usually increases the functional need for clothing?
5a0cee05f5590b0018dab668
True
thermal insulation properties
225
What property of clothing is important in hot climates?
5a0cee05f5590b0018dab669
True
in warmer seasons
634
More layers of clothing are generally worn when?
5a0cee05f5590b0018dab66a
True
The most obvious function of clothing is to improve the comfort of the wearer, by protecting the wearer from the elements. In hot climates, clothing provides protection from sunburn or wind damage, while in cold climates its thermal insulation properties are generally more important. Shelter usually reduces the functional need for clothing. For example, coats, hats, gloves, and other superficial layers are normally removed when entering a warm home, particularly if one is residing or sleeping there. Similarly, clothing has seasonal and regional aspects, so that thinner materials and fewer layers of clothing are generally worn in warmer seasons and regions than in colder ones.
What variety has there been in the materials of clothing throughout history?
57260b4389a1e219009ac184
very wide
49
False
What is an article that is carried rather than worn that isn't regarded as clothing?
57260b4389a1e219009ac185
purses
293
False
Jewelry isn't considered clothing because it's usually worn purely for what reason?
57260b4389a1e219009ac186
adornment
382
False
What are footwear and hats both considered?
57260b4389a1e219009ac187
accessories
494
False
What is an example of something that serves a function other than protection?
57260b4389a1e219009ac188
eyeglasses
457
False
Clothing
0
There has been little variety in materials used for what?
5a0cef2cf5590b0018dab670
True
body coverings
209
All what is regarded as clothing?
5a0cef2cf5590b0018dab671
True
purses
293
What article of clothing is carried rather than worn?
5a0cef2cf5590b0018dab672
True
adornment
382
Jewelry is usually consider clothing because his worn for what reason?
5a0cef2cf5590b0018dab673
True
accessories
494
Footwear and hats are consider clothing rather than what?
5a0cef2cf5590b0018dab674
True
Clothing can and has in history been made from a very wide variety of materials. Materials have ranged from leather and furs, to woven materials, to elaborate and exotic natural and synthetic fabrics. Not all body coverings are regarded as clothing. Articles carried rather than worn (such as purses), worn on a single part of the body and easily removed (scarves), worn purely for adornment (jewelry), or those that serve a function other than protection (eyeglasses), are normally considered accessories rather than clothing, as are footwear and hats.
What does clothing protect from things which may injure it?
57260cd689a1e219009ac196
the uncovered human body
56
False
Rain, snow, and wind are what class of things clothing protects the wearer from?
57260cd689a1e219009ac197
elements
114
False
Clothing that is too sheer will offer less what?
57260cd689a1e219009ac198
protection
271
False
What type of hazard is noxious chemicals?
57260cd689a1e219009ac199
environmental
386
False
What type of clothing do doctors wear to protect their surroundings?
57260cd689a1e219009ac19a
medical scrubs
600
False
rain, snow, wind, and other weather
134
Clothing does not protect the wearer from what elements?
5a0cf06ef5590b0018dab67a
True
protection
271
Clothing that is sheer will offer more what?
5a0cf06ef5590b0018dab67b
True
environmental
386
Noxious chemicals are not what kind of hazard?
5a0cf06ef5590b0018dab67c
True
medical scrubs.
600
What do doctors were to protect themselves from their surroundings?
5a0cf06ef5590b0018dab67d
True
Clothing protects against many things that might injure the uncovered human body. Clothes protect people from the elements, including rain, snow, wind, and other weather, as well as from the sun. However, clothing that is too sheer, thin, small, tight, etc., offers less protection. Clothes also reduce risk during activities such as work or sport. Some clothing protects from specific environmental hazards, such as insects, noxious chemicals, weather, weapons, and contact with abrasive substances. Conversely, clothing may protect the environment from the clothing wearer, as with doctors wearing medical scrubs.
What animal has shown extreme inventiveness in the clothing it has devised?
57260df5ec44d21400f3d861
Humans
0
False
What are space suits an example of a solution to?
57260df5ec44d21400f3d862
environmental hazards
74
False
What type of implication might a certain type of clothing have?
57260df5ec44d21400f3d863
social
552
False
What value may clothing designed to be fashionable also have?
57260df5ec44d21400f3d864
protective
436
False
Why are some parts of the body covered?
57260df5ec44d21400f3d865
social norms
607
False
clothing solutions to environmental hazards
52
Humans have shown little inventiveness in what?
5a0cf15cf5590b0018dab682
True
Wearing clothes
527
What does not have social implications
5a0cf15cf5590b0018dab683
True
They cover parts of the body
573
What do social norms not require of clothes?
5a0cf15cf5590b0018dab684
True
protective equipment
339
The distinction between clothing and what is always clear?
5a0cf15cf5590b0018dab685
True
protective
436
Clothing that is designed to be fashionable is not also what
5a0cf15cf5590b0018dab686
True
Humans have shown extreme inventiveness in devising clothing solutions to environmental hazards. Examples include: space suits, air conditioned clothing, armor, diving suits, swimsuits, bee-keeper gear, motorcycle leathers, high-visibility clothing, and other pieces of protective clothing. Meanwhile, the distinction between clothing and protective equipment is not always clear-cut—since clothes designed to be fashionable often have protective value and clothes designed for function often consider fashion in their design. Wearing clothes also has social implications. They cover parts of the body that social norms require to be covered, act as a form of adornment, and serve other social purposes.
What century do dissertation on clothing first appear from?
57260f4389a1e219009ac1a8
19th
68
False
What year was J. C. Flügel's Psychology of Clothes published?
57260f4389a1e219009ac1a9
1930
371
False
Whose book entitled Physiology of Heat Regulation and The Science of Clothing was published in 1949?
57260f4389a1e219009ac1aa
Newburgh's
381
False
How much had the science of clothing in relation to environmental factors changed by 1968?
57260f4389a1e219009ac1ab
little
635
False
What have remained unchanged while the knowledge has grown?
57260f4389a1e219009ac1ac
the main concepts
738
False
colonising countries dealt with new environments,
84
What led to the first dissertation on clothing in the eighteenth century
5a0cf397f5590b0018dab696
True
J. C. Flügel's
331
Who published psychology of close in 1920?
5a0cf397f5590b0018dab697
True
the field of environmental physiology
476
What field is not spending significantly since 1968?
5a0cf397f5590b0018dab698
True
environmental physiology
598
The science of clothing in relation to what changed a lot by 1968?
5a0cf397f5590b0018dab699
True
the main concepts
738
Considerable research has been done changing what?
5a0cf397f5590b0018dab69a
True
Although dissertations on clothing and its function appear from the 19th century as colonising countries dealt with new environments, concerted scientific research into psycho-social, physiological and other functions of clothing (e.g. protective, cartage) occurred in the first half of the 20th century, with publications such as J. C. Flügel's Psychology of Clothes in 1930, and Newburgh's seminal Physiology of Heat Regulation and The Science of Clothing in 1949. By 1968, the field of environmental physiology had advanced and expanded significantly, but the science of clothing in relation to environmental physiology had changed little. While considerable research has since occurred and the knowledge-base has grown significantly, the main concepts remain unchanged, and indeed Newburgh's book is still cited by contemporary authors, including those attempting to develop thermoregulatory models of clothing development.
What is an example of clothing that was once seen as exclusively for males?
57261162271a42140099d421
Trousers
149
False
What gender's clothing is often more practical?
57261162271a42140099d422
Male
242
False
What can males typically bare in more places?
57261162271a42140099d423
their chests
450
False
What would be unlikely to raise eyebrows if a woman were to wear it?
57261162271a42140099d424
male clothing
563
False
What is a common opinion about men wearing women's clothing?
57261162271a42140099d425
unusual
600
False
Trousers
149
What clothing is exclusively for males?
5a0cf49bf5590b0018dab6a0
True
practical
270
Female clothing is often more what?
5a0cf49bf5590b0018dab6a1
True
their chests
450
Males are typically not allowed to show what in public places
5a0cf49bf5590b0018dab6a2
True
traditionally male clothing
549
It is generally not acceptable for women to wear what?
5a0cf49bf5590b0018dab6a3
True
women's clothing
80
In Western society skirts dresses and neckties are typically seen as what?
5a0cf49bf5590b0018dab6a4
True
In Western societies, skirts, dresses and high-heeled shoes are usually seen as women's clothing, while neckties are usually seen as men's clothing. Trousers were once seen as exclusively male clothing, but are nowadays worn by both genders. Male clothes are often more practical (that is, they can function well under a wide variety of situations), but a wider range of clothing styles are available for females. Males are typically allowed to bare their chests in a greater variety of public places. It is generally acceptable for a woman to wear traditionally male clothing, while the converse is unusual.
Who was allowed to wear gamrents dyed with Tyrian purple in ancient Rome?
5726128a89a1e219009ac1ea
senators
103
False
Who was allowed to wear feather cloaks and palaoa in old school Hawaiian society?
5726128a89a1e219009ac1eb
high-ranking chiefs
195
False
What right were lower caste women required to pay a tax to acquire?
5726128a89a1e219009ac1ec
the right to cover their upper body
364
False
What country once only allowed their emperor to wear yellow?
5726128a89a1e219009ac1ed
China
404
False
What can peer pressure influence?
5726128a89a1e219009ac1ee
clothing choice
822
False
senators
103
Who is not allowed to wear garments dyed purple in ancient Rome
5a0cf7c8f5590b0018dab6b4
True
clothing
19
What is not used to indicate rancor status?
5a0cf7c8f5590b0018dab6b5
True
China,
404
In one country could the Emperor not wear yellow?
5a0cf7c8f5590b0018dab6b6
True
elaborate sumptuary laws
519
what kind of laws do not regulate what people could wear
5a0cf7c8f5590b0018dab6b7
True
In some societies, clothing may be used to indicate rank or status. In ancient Rome, for example, only senators could wear garments dyed with Tyrian purple. In traditional Hawaiian society, only high-ranking chiefs could wear feather cloaks and palaoa, or carved whale teeth. Under the Travancore Kingdom of Kerala, (India), lower caste women had to pay a tax for the right to cover their upper body. In China, before establishment of the republic, only the emperor could wear yellow. History provides many examples of elaborate sumptuary laws that regulated what people could wear. In societies without such laws, which includes most modern societies, social status is instead signaled by the purchase of rare or luxury items that are limited by cost to those with wealth or status. In addition, peer pressure influences clothing choice.
How was the earliest clothing kept on the body?
5726144d271a42140099d441
tied around
152
False
What does clothing materials do more quickly compared to stone and bone?
5726144d271a42140099d442
deteriorate
247
False
Who has identified needles from about 30,000 B.C.?
5726144d271a42140099d443
Archeologists
319
False
Where have flax fibers which may have been used in clothing found?
5726144d271a42140099d444
a prehistoric cave
526
False
What dates back to 36,000 BP?
5726144d271a42140099d445
Dyed flax fibers
452
False
body.
168
The earliest clothing was pinned to what?
5a0cf8bef5590b0018dab6bc
True
stone, bone, shell and metal artifacts
279
Clothing material deteriorates slowly compared to what?
5a0cf8bef5590b0018dab6bd
True
prehistoric cave
528
Where have we not yet found flax fibers
5a0cf8bef5590b0018dab6be
True
30,000 BC,
404
Archaeologists have found early metal needles from when?
5a0cf8bef5590b0018dab6bf
True
According to archaeologists and anthropologists, the earliest clothing likely consisted of fur, leather, leaves, or grass that were draped, wrapped, or tied around the body. Knowledge of such clothing remains inferential, since clothing materials deteriorate quickly compared to stone, bone, shell and metal artifacts. Archeologists have identified very early sewing needles of bone and ivory from about 30,000 BC, found near Kostenki, Russia in 1988. Dyed flax fibers that could have been used in clothing have been found in a prehistoric cave in the Republic of Georgia that date back to 36,000 BP.
What group of people debate when humans stated wearing clothes?
57261520271a42140099d44b
Scientists
0
False
What type of analysis has been conducted on human body lice?
57261520271a42140099d44c
genetic
208
False
What do lice require human clothing to do?
57261520271a42140099d44d
survive
447
False
What may have the invention of clothing happened with?
57261520271a42140099d44e
northward migration
534
False
What about the origin of clothing remains unanswered?
57261520271a42140099d44f
the date
858
False
wearing clothes
50
Scientists are in agreement about when people begin to do what?
5a0cf9e5f5590b0018dab6c4
True
genetic
208
What type of analysis has been done on headlights?
5a0cf9e5f5590b0018dab6c5
True
survive
447
Body lice require hair to what?
5a0cf9e5f5590b0018dab6c6
True
the invention of clothing
480
Southward migration coincided with what?
5a0cf9e5f5590b0018dab6c7
True
Body lice
320
Most humans have lots of hair hair which leads to what?
5a0cf9e5f5590b0018dab6c8
True
Scientists are still debating when people started wearing clothes. Ralf Kittler, Manfred Kayser and Mark Stoneking, anthropologists at the Max Planck Institute for Evolutionary Anthropology, have conducted a genetic analysis of human body lice that suggests clothing originated quite recently, around 170,000 years ago. Body lice is an indicator of clothes-wearing, since most humans have sparse body hair, and lice thus require human clothing to survive. Their research suggests the invention of clothing may have coincided with the northward migration of modern Homo sapiens away from the warm climate of Africa, thought to have begun between 50,000 and 100,000 years ago. However, a second group of researchers using similar genetic methods estimate that clothing originated around 540,000 years ago (Reed et al. 2004. PLoS Biology 2(11): e340). For now, the date of the origin of clothing remains unresolved.[citation needed]
Various cultures have come up with ways of making clothes from what?
57261636271a42140099d45f
cloth
72
False
Many people still wear clothes that are what shape?
57261636271a42140099d460
rectangles
184
False
What nationality wears kilts?
57261636271a42140099d461
Scottish
307
False
Pins or belts hold what in place?
57261636271a42140099d462
garments
448
False
What precious material may remain uncut?
57261636271a42140099d463
cloth
514
False
clothes
57
Different cultures have evolved various ways of making whatever for?
5a0cfb0ff5590b0018dab6d8
True
rectangles of cloth wrapped to fit
184
Few people still wear garments made of what?
5a0cfb0ff5590b0018dab6d9
True
the dhoti for men and the sari for women
234
Pins are used to hold up what Indian governments
5a0cfb0ff5590b0018dab6da
True
Scottish kilt
307
With Scottish garment is tied?
5a0cfb0ff5590b0018dab6db
True
people of various sizes or the same person at different sizes can wear the garment.
539
What are the disadvantage of making clothes from a single rectangular cloth?
5a0cfb0ff5590b0018dab6dc
True
Different cultures have evolved various ways of creating clothes out of cloth. One approach simply involves draping the cloth. Many people wore, and still wear, garments consisting of rectangles of cloth wrapped to fit – for example, the dhoti for men and the sari for women in the Indian subcontinent, the Scottish kilt or the Javanese sarong. The clothes may simply be tied up, as is the case of the first two garments; or pins or belts hold the garments in place, as in the case of the latter two. The precious cloth remains uncut, and people of various sizes or the same person at different sizes can wear the garment.
What had somewhat became an international style by the early 21st century?
5726182438643c19005acfe1
western clothing styles
40
False
Cultural dissemination has continued over the what?
5726182438643c19005acfe2
centuries
267
False
What have Western corporations penetrated?
5726182438643c19005acfe3
markets throughout the world
323
False
Who has been spreading Western culture and styles?
5726182438643c19005acfe4
Western media corporations
280
False
Who donates discard Western clothing to people in poor places?
5726182438643c19005acfe5
charity organizations
612
False
21st
26
Eastern clothing styles have become international styles by what century?
5a0cfbf2f5590b0018dab6e2
True
European colonialism.
182
This process ended with what?
5a0cfbf2f5590b0018dab6e3
True
Western culture and styles
363
Easter media corporations have spread what?
5a0cfbf2f5590b0018dab6e4
True
charity organizations
612
Eastern close are also delivered to poor people by who?
5a0cfbf2f5590b0018dab6e5
True
Fast fashion clothing
391
What type of garment is more expensive and mass-produced?
5a0cfbf2f5590b0018dab6e6
True
By the early years of the 21st century, western clothing styles had, to some extent, become international styles. This process began hundreds of years earlier, during the periods of European colonialism. The process of cultural dissemination has perpetuated over the centuries as Western media corporations have penetrated markets throughout the world, spreading Western culture and styles. Fast fashion clothing has also become a global phenomenon. These garments are less expensive, mass-produced Western clothing. Donated used clothing from Western countries are also delivered to people in poor countries by charity organizations.
Safety reasons may be why someone wears this type of clothing.
5726193589a1e219009ac250
special
58
False
Leotards are an example of what type of garment?
5726193589a1e219009ac251
sportswear
125
False
What does spandex soak up?
5726193589a1e219009ac252
sweat
416
False
What's an example of a form fitting garment?
5726193589a1e219009ac253
Spandex
423
False
What type of sport is wrestling considered?
5726193589a1e219009ac254
active
454
False
Most sports
0
What physical activities do not require special clothing?
5a0cfc9df5590b0018dab6ec
True
sweat
416
What the spandex not soak up?
5a0cfc9df5590b0018dab6ed
True
shorts, T-shirts, tennis shirts, leotards, tracksuits, and trainers
153
What are not common sports governments
5a0cfc9df5590b0018dab6ee
True
Most sports and physical activities are practiced wearing special clothing, for practical, comfort or safety reasons. Common sportswear garments include shorts, T-shirts, tennis shirts, leotards, tracksuits, and trainers. Specialized garments include wet suits (for swimming, diving or surfing), salopettes (for skiing) and leotards (for gymnastics). Also, spandex materials are often used as base layers to soak up sweat. Spandex is also preferable for active sports that require form fitting garments, such as volleyball, wrestling, track & field, dance, gymnastics and swimming.
Changes keep happening because new cultural stuff meets these type of innovations.
57261a5189a1e219009ac264
technological
74
False
What have researchers in science labs been making?
57261a5189a1e219009ac265
prototypes
153
False
What elementary force can some specialized fabrics generate?
57261a5189a1e219009ac266
electricity
362
False
What can garments made with kevlar resist?
57261a5189a1e219009ac267
bullets
324
False
Stain-resistant fabrics are coated with chemicals to reduce what?
57261a5189a1e219009ac268
absorption of liquids
560
False
new cultural influences meet technological innovations.
45
Why is clothing slow to change?
5a0cfd4df5590b0018dab6f2
True
prototypes for fabrics
153
Scientists are developing what they can serve either a functional purpose for a traditional
5a0cfd4df5590b0018dab6f3
True
bullet-resistant garments made with kevlar and stain-resistant fabrics
434
Some less practical
5a0cfd4df5590b0018dab6f4
True
liquids.
574
Stain resistant fabrics absorb what?
5a0cfd4df5590b0018dab6f5
True
The world of clothing is always changing, as new cultural influences meet technological innovations. Researchers in scientific labs have been developing prototypes for fabrics that can serve functional purposes well beyond their traditional roles, for example, clothes that can automatically adjust their temperature, repel bullets, project images, and generate electricity. Some practical advances already available to consumers are bullet-resistant garments made with kevlar and stain-resistant fabrics that are coated with chemical mixtures that reduce the absorption of liquids.
What type of conditions do many garment works endure?
57261b6dec44d21400f3d8f1
challenging
135
False
What type of clothing is frequently the product of sweatshops?
57261b6dec44d21400f3d8f2
Mass-produced
195
False
What is a feature of sweatshops beyond lack of benefits and representation?
57261b6dec44d21400f3d8f3
long work hours
293
False
Poor conditions found in developing countries may also be found in what type of nations?
57261b6dec44d21400f3d8f4
industrialized
453
False
What type of immigrant often staff sweatshops?
57261b6dec44d21400f3d8f5
undocumented
529
False
garment workers
89
What workers enjoy good conditions?
5a0cfe3af5590b0018dab6fa
True
Mass-produced clothing
195
What requires varied manual labor?
5a0cfe3af5590b0018dab6fb
True
sweatshops,
269
Here my clothing is often produced in what?
5a0cfe3af5590b0018dab6fc
True
sweatshops
269
Most examples of what are found in industrial countries?
5a0cfe3af5590b0018dab6fd
True
mechanization
7
What transformed most industry by the 1800s?
5a0cfe3af5590b0018dab6fe
True
Though mechanization transformed most aspects of human industry by the mid-20th century, garment workers have continued to labor under challenging conditions that demand repetitive manual labor. Mass-produced clothing is often made in what are considered by some to be sweatshops, typified by long work hours, lack of benefits, and lack of worker representation. While most examples of such conditions are found in developing countries, clothes made in industrialized nations may also be manufactured similarly, often staffed by undocumented immigrants.[citation needed]
The abolishing of the MFA made what possible?
57261c1f38643c19005ad00f
Outsourcing production to low wage countries
0
False
What did the MFA put quotas on?
57261c1f38643c19005ad010
textiles imports
189
False
What is often identified as the reason for less than ideal working conditions for garment workers?
57261c1f38643c19005ad011
Globalization
260
False
What treaty tries to set standards for worker safety and rights?
57261c1f38643c19005ad012
the International Labor Organization
428
False
What country has failed to ratify sections 87 and 92 of the ILO?
57261c1f38643c19005ad013
India
634
False
the Multi Fibre Agreement (MFA)
110
Abolishing what stopped outsourcing to low-wage countries?
5a0cff13f5590b0018dab704
True
textiles imports
189
The MFA stop quotas on what?
5a0cff13f5590b0018dab705
True
Globalization
260
Wh what is often quoted is contributing to improved working conditions?
5a0cff13f5590b0018dab706
True
the International Labor Organization
428
What treaty lowered standards for worker safety rights?
5a0cff13f5590b0018dab707
True
International Labor Organization,
432
India has ratified all sections of what treaty?
5a0cff13f5590b0018dab708
True
Outsourcing production to low wage countries like Bangladesh, China, India and Sri Lanka became possible when the Multi Fibre Agreement (MFA) was abolished. The MFA, which placed quotas on textiles imports, was deemed a protectionist measure.[citation needed] Globalization is often quoted as the single most contributing factor to the poor working conditions of garment workers. Although many countries recognize treaties like the International Labor Organization, which attempt to set standards for worker safety and rights, many countries have made exceptions to certain parts of the treaties or failed to thoroughly enforce them. India for example has not ratified sections 87 and 92 of the treaty.[citation needed]
What have humans used for clothing since prehistoric times?
57261d7789a1e219009ac28c
animal fur
11
False
Indigenous people in what zones use fur for warmth and protection?
57261d7789a1e219009ac28d
arctic
198
False
Using animal fur as clothing was once considered what?
57261d7789a1e219009ac28e
uncontroversial
269
False
Who considers animal fur to be cruel and unnecessary?
57261d7789a1e219009ac28f
campaigners
350
False
What's the four letter name of an animal liberation group?
57261d7789a1e219009ac290
PETA
397
False
animal fur
11
What has not been used for clothing since prehistoric times?
5a0d010cf5590b0018dab70e
True
warmth and protection
241
Indigenous people in the tropics use for for what?
5a0d010cf5590b0018dab70f
True
animal fur
11
Using what for clothing has always been controversial?
5a0d010cf5590b0018dab710
True
PETA,
397
Who consider animal first to be necessary
5a0d010cf5590b0018dab711
True
The use of animal fur in clothing dates to prehistoric times. It is currently associated in developed countries with expensive, designer clothing, although fur is still used by indigenous people in arctic zones and higher elevations for its warmth and protection. Once uncontroversial, it has recently been the focus of campaigns on the grounds that campaigners consider it cruel and unnecessary. PETA, along with other animal rights and animal liberation groups have called attention to fur farming and other practices they consider cruel.
What's the point of ironing clothing?
57261e08271a42140099d497
to remove wrinkles
70
False
What type of clothing is believed to look neat, fresh and clean?
57261e08271a42140099d498
Ironed
193
False
What material doesn't easily wrinkle?
57261e08271a42140099d499
knit
298
False
Permanent press materials have been treated with what?
57261e08271a42140099d49a
a coating
429
False
What does polytetrafluoroethylene suppress?
57261e08271a42140099d49b
wrinkles
489
False
clothing
14
Many what are designed to be ironed?
5a0d08a3f5590b0018dab716
True
knit
298
What material wrinkles easily?
5a0d08a3f5590b0018dab717
True
permanent press,
387
What type of closing encourages wrinkles?
5a0d08a3f5590b0018dab718
True
polytetrafluoroethylene
448
It does not suppress wrinkles?
5a0d08a3f5590b0018dab719
True
treated with a coating (such as polytetrafluoroethylene)
416
Doing what creates a rough appearance without ironing?
5a0d08a3f5590b0018dab71a
True
Many kinds of clothing are designed to be ironed before they are worn to remove wrinkles. Most modern formal and semi-formal clothing is in this category (for example, dress shirts and suits). Ironed clothes are believed to look clean, fresh, and neat. Much contemporary casual clothing is made of knit materials that do not readily wrinkle, and do not require ironing. Some clothing is permanent press, having been treated with a coating (such as polytetrafluoroethylene) that suppresses wrinkles and creates a smooth appearance without ironing.
What releases formaldehyde?
57261ee889a1e219009ac2a0
A resin
0
False
What can cause contact dermatitis for some people?
57261ee889a1e219009ac2a1
formaldehyde
52
False
What government office found high levels of formaldehyde in non-wrinkle clothing in 2008?
57261ee889a1e219009ac2a2
Accountability
186
False
How many months of washing did a 1999 study look at?
57261ee889a1e219009ac2a3
6
408
False
How many ppm is a safe limit for direct skin exposure to formaldehyde?
57261ee889a1e219009ac2a4
75
471
False
A resin
0
Non-wrinkle shirts do not contain what?
5a0d09a2f5590b0018dab720
True
formaldehyde
52
What does not cause contact dermatitis?
5a0d09a2f5590b0018dab721
True
formaldehyde
52
Disclosure agreements exist for what?
5a0d09a2f5590b0018dab722
True
non-wrinkle shirts and pants.
292
It was found that the lowest levels of formaldehyde were found in what?
5a0d09a2f5590b0018dab723
True
direct skin exposure.
505
Seventy-five ppm of formaldehyde is not a safe limit for what?
5a0d09a2f5590b0018dab724
True
A resin used for making non-wrinkle shirts releases formaldehyde, which could cause contact dermatitis for some people; no disclosure requirements exist, and in 2008 the U.S. Government Accountability Office tested formaldehyde in clothing and found that generally the highest levels were in non-wrinkle shirts and pants. In 1999, a study of the effect of washing on the formaldehyde levels found that after 6 months after washing, 7 of 27 shirts had levels in excess of 75 ppm, which is a safe limit for direct skin exposure.
What used to be considered an art, back in the day?
57261ffe89a1e219009ac2b4
mending
15
False
What could an accomplished tailor or seamstress skillfully render almost invisible?
57261ffe89a1e219009ac2b5
tear
153
False
Why did it make sense to spend time fixing cloth?
57261ffe89a1e219009ac2b6
worth more than labor
221
False
What is clothing considered today?
57261ffe89a1e219009ac2b7
a consumable item
317
False
What type of person is likely to replace zippers and buttons?
57261ffe89a1e219009ac2b8
thrifty
495
False
mending
15
What is still considered an art today?
5a0d0a3ff5590b0018dab72a
True
the tear was practically invisible
149
A mediocre tail or seamstress could make it so what?
5a0d0a3ff5590b0018dab72b
True
expend labor in saving it
261
When cloth was worth less than the labor it made sense to do what?
5a0d0a3ff5590b0018dab72c
True
cloth
209
What is not considered a consumable item today?
5a0d0a40f5590b0018dab72d
True
Mass-manufactured clothing
336
What is more expensive than the labor required to repair it?
5a0d0a40f5590b0018dab72e
True
In past times, mending was an art. A meticulous tailor or seamstress could mend rips with thread raveled from hems and seam edges so skillfully that the tear was practically invisible. When the raw material – cloth – was worth more than labor, it made sense to expend labor in saving it. Today clothing is considered a consumable item. Mass-manufactured clothing is less expensive than the labor required to repair it. Many people buy a new piece of clothing rather than spend time mending. The thrifty still replace zippers and buttons and sew up ripped hems.
Chicago_Cubs
What American professional baseball team is located on the North side of Chicago, IL?
5725f0d789a1e219009ac0c4
The Chicago Cubs
0
False
What league are the Chicago Cubs in?
5725f0d789a1e219009ac0c5
the National League
172
False
Where do the Chicago Cubs play their home games?
5725f0d789a1e219009ac0c6
Wrigley Field
257
False
Who currently owns the  Chicago Cubs?
5725f0d789a1e219009ac0c7
Joe Ricketts
524
False
The Chicago Cubs are an American professional baseball team located on the North Side of Chicago, Illinois. The Cubs compete in Major League Baseball (MLB) as a members of the National League (NL) Central division; the team plays its home baseball games at Wrigley Field. The Cubs are also one of two active major league teams based in Chicago; the other is the Chicago White Sox, who are a member of the American League (AL) Central division. The team is currently owned by Thomas S. Ricketts, son of TD Ameritrade founder Joe Ricketts.
When did the Chicago Cubs play their first game?
5725f1c838643c19005acee7
1876
35
False
What year did the Chicago Cubs' name become official?
5725f1c838643c19005acee8
1903 season
155
False
What other team besides the Chicago Cubs is tied for being the oldest currently active U.S. professional sports club?
5725f1c838643c19005acee9
Atlanta Braves
301
False
The team played its first games in 1876 as a founding member of the National League (NL), eventually becoming known officially as the Chicago Cubs for the 1903 season. Officially, the Cubs are tied for the distinction of being the oldest currently active U.S. professional sports club, along with the Atlanta Braves, which also began play in the NL in 1876 as the Boston Red Stockings (Major League Baseball does not officially recognize the National Association of Professional Base Ball Players as a major league.)
What year did the cubs record a Major League record of 116 wins?
5725f32589a1e219009ac0e8
1906
3
False
What is the winning percentage the Cubs posted that still stands today?
5725f32589a1e219009ac0e9
.763
152
False
Who was the first team to play in three consecutive Fall Classics?
5725f32589a1e219009ac0ea
The Cubs
318
False
How many world series have the Cubs appeared in?
5725f32589a1e219009ac0eb
seven
526
False
In 1906, the franchise recorded a Major League record 116 wins (tied by the 2001 Seattle Mariners) and posted a modern-era record winning percentage of .763, which still stands today. They appeared in their first World Series the same year, falling to their crosstown rivals, the Chicago White Sox, four games to two. The Cubs won back-to-back World Series championships in 1907 and 1908, becoming the first Major League team to play in three consecutive Fall Classics, and the first to win it twice. The team has appeared in seven World Series following their 1908 title, most recently in 1945. The Cubs have not won the World Series in 107 years, the longest championship drought of any major North American professional sports team, and are often referred to as the "Lovable Losers" because of this distinction. They are also known as "The North Siders" because Wrigley Field, their home park since 1916, is located in Chicago's North Side Lake View community at 1060 West Addison Street. The Cubs have a major rivalry with the St. Louis Cardinals.
Who did the Cubs began play as?
5725f4c338643c19005acf0b
the Chicago White Stockings
23
False
When the Cubs started playing, who was their owner?
5725f4c338643c19005acf0c
William Hulbert
112
False
Where did the White Stockings play their home games?
5725f4c338643c19005acf0d
West Side Grounds
354
False
The Cubs began play as the Chicago White Stockings, joining the National League (NL) as a charter member. Owner William Hulbert signed multiple star players, such as pitcher Albert Spalding and infielders Ross Barnes, Deacon White, and Adrian "Cap" Anson, to join the team prior to the N.L.'s first season. The White Stockings played their home games at West Side Grounds,against the bloods and quickly established themselves as one of the new league's top teams. Spalding won forty-seven games and Barnes led the league in hitting at .429 as Chicago won the first ever National League pennant, which at the time was the game's top prize.
Who assumed ownership of the Cubs after Hulbert died?
5725f633271a42140099d385
Spalding
64
False
What year did the White Stockings capture their third consecutive pennant?
5725f633271a42140099d386
1882
257
False
While Anson led the Chicago cubs how many National League pennants did they win?
5725f633271a42140099d387
six
765
False
What did the Chicago Cubs become know as by 1890?
5725f633271a42140099d388
Chicago Colts
909
False
Who was the first player in history credited with collecting 3,000 career hits?
5725f633271a42140099d389
Anson
1000
False
After back-to-back pennants in 1880 and 1881, Hulbert died, and Spalding, who had retired to start Spalding sporting goods, assumed ownership of the club. The White Stockings, with Anson acting as player/manager, captured their third consecutive pennant in 1882, and Anson established himself as the game's first true superstar. In 1885 and '86, after winning N.L. pennants, the White Stockings met the short-lived American Association champion in that era's version of a World Series. Both seasons resulted in match ups with the St. Louis Brown Stockings, with the clubs tying in 1885 and with St. Louis winning in 1886. This was the genesis of what would eventually become one of the greatest rivalries in sports. In all, the Anson-led Chicago Base Ball Club won six National League pennants between 1876 and 1886. As a result, Chicago's club nickname transitioned, and by 1890 they had become known as the Chicago Colts, or sometimes "Anson's Colts", referring to Cap's influence within the club. Anson was the first player in history credited with collecting 3,000 career hits. After a disappointing record of 59-73 and a 9th-place finish in 1897, Anson was released by the Cubs as both a player and manager. Due to Anson's absence from the club after 22 years, local newspaper reporters started to refer to the Cubs as the "Orphans".
Who did Spalding sell the Cubs to in 1902?
5725f81c38643c19005acf2d
Jim Hart
149
False
Who nicknamed the franchise the Cubs in 1902?
5725f81c38643c19005acf2e
Chicago Daily News
203
False
Who wrote the poem Baseball's Sad Lexicon?
5725f81c38643c19005acf2f
Franklin P. Adams
483
False
Who holds the longest championship drought in North American professional sports?
5725f81c38643c19005acf30
the Cubs
1303
False
In 1902, Spalding, who by this time had revamped the roster to boast what would soon be one of the best teams of the early century, sold the club to Jim Hart. The franchise was nicknamed the Cubs by the Chicago Daily News in 1902, although not officially becoming the Chicago Cubs until the 1907 season. During this period, which has become known as baseball's dead-ball era, Cub infielders Joe Tinker, Johnny Evers, and Frank Chance were made famous as a double-play combination by Franklin P. Adams' poem Baseball's Sad Lexicon. The poem first appeared in the July 18, 1910 edition of the New York Evening Mail. Mordecai "Three-Finger" Brown, Jack Taylor, Ed Reulbach, Jack Pfiester, and Orval Overall were several key pitchers for the Cubs during this time period. With Chance acting as player-manager from 1905 to 1912, the Cubs won four pennants and two World Series titles over a five-year span. Although they fell to the "Hitless Wonders" White Sox in the 1906 World Series, the Cubs recorded a record 116 victories and the best winning percentage (.763) in Major League history. With mostly the same roster, Chicago won back-to-back World Series championships in 1907 and 1908, becoming the first Major League club to play three times in the Fall Classic and the first to win it twice. However, the Cubs have not won a World Series since; this remains the longest championship drought in North American professional sports.
Who obtained a large block of the Cub's shares in 1914?
5725f926ec44d21400f3d7bb
Albert Lasker
31
False
Who assumed majority ownership of the Cubs franchise by the 1916 season?
5725f926ec44d21400f3d7bc
Albert Lasker
31
False
Who did Albert Lasker bring in to be his partner of the Chicago Cubs?
5725f926ec44d21400f3d7bd
Charles Weeghman
198
False
Where did the Cubs move to after leaving the West Side Grounds?
5725f926ec44d21400f3d7be
Weeghman Park
437
False
In 1914, advertising executive Albert Lasker obtained a large block of the club's shares and before the 1916 season assumed majority ownership of the franchise. Lasker brought in a wealthy partner, Charles Weeghman, the proprietor of a popular chain of lunch counters who had previously owned the Chicago Whales of the short-lived Federal League. As principal owners, the pair moved the club from the West Side Grounds to the much newer Weeghman Park, which had been constructed for the Whales only two years earlier, where they remain to this day. The Cubs responded by winning a pennant in the war-shortened season of 1918, where they played a part in another team's curse: the Boston Red Sox defeated Grover Cleveland Alexander's Cubs four games to two in the 1918 World Series, Boston's last Series championship until 2004.
What year did Hack Wilson have one of the most impressive seasons in MLB history?
57266235708984140094c45f
1930
510
False
How many games in a row did the Cubs win in a row during 1935?
57266235708984140094c460
21
1012
False
What year did the Cubs win the NL pennant?
57266235708984140094c461
1929
95
False
Near the end of the first decade of the double-Bills' guidance, the Cubs won the NL pennant in 1929 and then achieved the unusual feat of winning a pennant every three years, following up the 1929 flag with league titles in 1932, 1935, and 1938. Unfortunately, their success did not extend to the Fall Classic, as they fell to their AL rivals each time. The '32 series against the Yankees featured Babe Ruth's "called shot" at Wrigley Field in Game 3. There were some historic moments for the Cubs as well; In 1930, Hack Wilson, one of the top home run hitters in the game, had one of the most impressive seasons in MLB history, hitting 56 home runs and establishing the current runs-batted-in record of 191. That 1930 club, which boasted six eventual Hall of Famers (Wilson, Gabby Hartnett, Rogers Hornsby, George "High Pockets" Kelly, Kiki Cuyler and manager Joe McCarthy) established the current team batting average record of .309. In 1935 the Cubs claimed the pennant in thrilling fashion, winning a record 21 games in a row in September. The '38 club saw Dizzy Dean lead the team's pitching staff and provided a historic moment when they won a crucial late-season game at Wrigley Field over the Pittsburgh Pirates with a walk-off home run by Gabby Hartnett, which became known in baseball lore as "The Homer in the Gloamin'".
Why were the first three games of the 1945 World Series played in Detroit?
57266409708984140094c499
wartime travel restrictions
92
False
Where were the final four games of the 1945 World Series played?
57266409708984140094c49a
Wrigley
298
False
In what game was the Curse of the Billy Goat allegedly laid upon the Cubs?
57266409708984140094c49b
Game 4 of the Series
310
False
What was ejected from Wrigley park because of it's bad odor?
57266409708984140094c49c
goat
581
False
The Cubs enjoyed one more pennant at the close of World War II, finishing 98–56. Due to the wartime travel restrictions, the first three games of the 1945 World Series were played in Detroit, where the Cubs won two games, including a one-hitter by Claude Passeau, and the final four were played at Wrigley. In Game 4 of the Series, the Curse of the Billy Goat was allegedly laid upon the Cubs when P.K. Wrigley ejected Billy Sianis, who had come to Game 4 with two box seat tickets, one for him and one for his goat. They paraded around for a few innings, but Wrigley demanded the goat leave the park due to its unpleasant odor. Upon his ejection, Mr. Sianis uttered, "The Cubs, they ain't gonna win no more." The Cubs lost Game 4, lost the Series, and have not been back since. It has also been said by many that Sianis put a "curse" on the Cubs, apparently preventing the team from playing in the World Series. After losing the 1945 World Series to the Detroit Tigers, the Cubs finished with winning seasons the next two years, but those teams did not enter post-season play.
Who had been a key player in the 1945 season?
5726649df1498d1400e8de18
Phil Cavarretta
207
False
What season was Phil Cavarretta a key player for the Cubs?
5726649df1498d1400e8de19
the '45 season
257
False
Who was fired during spring training in 1954 after admitting the Cubs were unlikely to finish above fifth place?
5726649df1498d1400e8de1a
Phil Cavarretta
207
False
In the following two decades after Sianis' ill will, the Cubs played mostly forgettable baseball, finishing among the worst teams in the National League on an almost annual basis. Longtime infielder/manager Phil Cavarretta, who had been a key player during the '45 season, was fired during spring training in 1954 after admitting the team was unlikely to finish above fifth place. Although shortstop Ernie Banks would become one of the star players in the league during the next decade, finding help for him proved a difficult task, as quality players such as Hank Sauer were few and far between. This, combined with poor ownership decisions such as the College of Coaches, and the ill-fated trade of future Hall of Famer Lou Brock to the Cardinals for pitcher Ernie Broglio (who won only 7 games over the next three seasons), hampered on-field performance.
Who managed the Cubs in 1969?
572665a8708984140094c4b3
Leo Durocher
29
False
The Cubs built a substantial lead in what league under management of Leo Durocher?
572665a8708984140094c4b4
National League Eastern Division
89
False
When did Ken Hoitzman pitch a no-hitter?
572665a8708984140094c4b5
August 19
173
False
Who threw a surprise pickoff attempt to third baseman Ron Santo?
572665a8708984140094c4b6
Dick Selma
1446
False
In 1969 the Cubs, managed by Leo Durocher, built a substantial lead in the newly created National League Eastern Division by mid-August. Ken Holtzman pitched a no-hitter on August 19, and the division lead grew to 8 1⁄2 games over the St. Louis Cardinals and by 9 1⁄2 games over the New York Mets. After the game of September 2, the Cubs record was 84-52 with the Mets in second place at 77-55. But then a losing streak began just as a Mets winning streak was beginning. The Cubs lost the final game of a series at Cincinnati, then came home to play the resurgent Pittsburgh Pirates (who would finish in third place). After losing the first two games by scores of 9-2 and 13-4, the Cubs led going into the ninth inning. A win would be a positive springboard since the Cubs were to play a crucial series with the Mets the very next day. But Willie Stargell drilled a 2-out, 2-strike pitch from the Cubs' ace reliever, Phil Regan, onto Sheffield Avenue to tie the score in the top of the ninth. The Cubs would lose 7-5 in extra innings. Burdened by a four-game losing streak, the Cubs traveled to Shea Stadium for a short two-game set. The Mets won both games, and the Cubs left New York with a record of 84-58 just 1⁄2 game in front. Disaster followed in Philadelphia, as a 99 loss Phillies team nonetheless defeated the Cubs twice, to extend Chicago's losing streak to eight games. In a key play in the second game, on September 11, Cubs starter Dick Selma threw a surprise pickoff attempt to third baseman Ron Santo, who was nowhere near the bag or the ball. Selma's throwing error opened the gates to a Phillies rally. After that second Philly loss, the Cubs were 84-60 and the Mets had pulled ahead at 85-57. The Mets would not look back. The Cubs' eight-game losing streak finally ended the next day in St. Louis, but the Mets were in the midst of a ten-game winning streak, and the Cubs, wilting from team fatigue, generally deteriorated in all phases of the game. The Mets (who had lost a record 120 games 7 years earlier), would go on to win the World Series. The Cubs, despite a respectable 92-70 record, would be remembered for having lost a remarkable 17½ games in the standings to the Mets in the last quarter of the season.
During what decade did the Cubs become known as "The Loveable Losers"?
57266664dd62a815002e83a8
the 70s
165
False
What is often pointed to as the one reason for the Cubs' inconsistent late season play?
57266664dd62a815002e83a9
unusually high number of day games
1070
False
What year did the Cubs experience one of their biggest collapses?
57266664dd62a815002e83aa
1977
248
False
Following the '69 season, the club posted winning records for the next few seasons, but no playoff action. After the core players of those teams started to move on, the 70s got worse for the team, and they became known as "The Loveable Losers." In 1977, the team found some life, but ultimately experienced one of its biggest collapses. The Cubs hit a high-water mark on June 28 at 47–22, boasting an 8 1⁄2 game NL East lead, as they were led by Bobby Murcer (27 Hr/89 RBI), and Rick Reuschel (20–10). However, the Philadelphia Phillies cut the lead to two by the All-star break, as the Cubs sat 19 games over .500, but they swooned late in the season, going 20–40 after July 31. The Cubs finished in 4th place at 81–81, while Philadelphia surged, finishing with 101 wins. The following two seasons also saw the Cubs get off to a fast start, as the team rallied to over 10 games above .500 well into both seasons, only to again wear down and play poorly later on, and ultimately settling back to mediocrity. This trait became known as the "June Swoon." Again, the Cubs' unusually high number of day games is often pointed to as one reason for the team's inconsistent late season play.
What year did the Cubs hire GM Dallas Green?
572667e6708984140094c4f7
1981
43
False
Where was GM Dallas Green from?
572667e6708984140094c4f8
Philadelphia
84
False
What team had Dallas Green managed in 1980?
572667e6708984140094c4f9
Phillies
154
False
After over a dozen more subpar seasons, in 1981 the Cubs hired GM Dallas Green from Philadelphia to turn around the franchise. Green had managed the 1980 Phillies to the World Series title. One of his early GM moves brought in a young Phillies minor-league 3rd baseman named Ryne Sandberg, along with Larry Bowa for Iván DeJesús. The 1983 Cubs had finished 71–91 under Lee Elia, who was fired before the season ended by Green. Green continued the culture of change and overhauled the Cubs roster, front-office and coaching staff prior to 1984. Jim Frey was hired to manage the 1984 Cubs, with Don Zimmer coaching 3rd base and Billy Connors serving as pitching coach.
Who shored up the 1984 roster with a series of transactions?
57266857dd62a815002e83fe
Green
0
False
When was Scott Sanderson acquired from Montreal?
57266857dd62a815002e83ff
December, 1983
66
False
When did LF Gary Matthews and CF Bobby Dernier come from Philadelphia to the Cubs?
57266857dd62a815002e8400
March 26
356
False
Green shored up the 1984 roster with a series of transactions. In December, 1983 Scott Sanderson was acquired from Montreal in a three-team deal with San Diego for Carmelo Martínez. Pinch hitter Richie Hebner (.333 BA in 1984) was signed as a free-agent. In spring training, moves continued: LF Gary Matthews and CF Bobby Dernier came from Philadelphia on March 26, for Bill Campbell and a minor leaguer. Reliever Tim Stoddard (10–6 3.82, 7 saves) was acquired the same day for a minor leaguer; veteran pitcher Ferguson Jenkins was released.
When did Green make a deal to shore up the starting rotation?
572669f2f1498d1400e8deee
June 15
82
False
Why did Green make a deal to shore up the starting rotation?
572669f2f1498d1400e8deef
due to injuries to Rick Reuschel (5–5) and Sanderson
124
False
Who was the 1979 NL Rookie of the Year pitcher?
572669f2f1498d1400e8def0
Rick Sutcliffe
230
False
Where had Rick Sutcliffe been before moving to the Cubs?
572669f2f1498d1400e8def1
the Cleveland Indians
250
False
The team's commitment to contend was complete when Green made a midseason deal on June 15 to shore up the starting rotation due to injuries to Rick Reuschel (5–5) and Sanderson. The deal brought 1979 NL Rookie of the Year pitcher Rick Sutcliffe from the Cleveland Indians. Joe Carter (who was with the Triple-A Iowa Cubs at the time) and center fielder Mel Hall were sent to Cleveland for Sutcliffe and back-up catcher Ron Hassey (.333 with Cubs in 1984). Sutcliffe (5–5 with the Indians) immediately joined Sanderson (8–5 3.14), Eckersley (10–8 3.03), Steve Trout (13–7 3.41) and Dick Ruthven (6–10 5.04) in the starting rotation. Sutcliffe proceeded to go 16–1 for Cubs and capture the Cy Young Award.
What contest shift the Cubs' Fortunes?
57266b63708984140094c561
NBC Saturday Game of the Week
66
False
What had the contest between the Cubs and the St. Louis Cardinals been dubbed as?
57266b63708984140094c562
The Sandberg Game
171
False
How many game-tying home runs did Sandberg get against the Cardinals at the Sandber Game?
57266b63708984140094c563
two
292
False
The shift in the Cubs' fortunes was characterized June 23 on the "NBC Saturday Game of the Week" contest against the St. Louis Cardinals. it has since been dubbed simply "The Sandberg Game." With the nation watching and Wrigley Field packed, Sandberg emerged as a superstar with not one, but two game-tying home runs against Cardinals closer Bruce Sutter. With his shots in the 9th and 10th innings Wrigley Field erupted and Sandberg set the stage for a comeback win that cemented the Cubs as the team to beat in the East. No one would catch them, except the Padres in the playoffs.
In what year did the league have two divisions?
57266d49708984140094c59b
1984
3
False
The division winners met in what kind of series to advance to the World Series?
57266d49708984140094c59c
best-of-5 series
87
False
Where were the first two games of the 1984 division winners held?
57266d49708984140094c59d
Wrigley Field
376
False
In 1984, each league had two divisions, East and West. The divisional winners met in a best-of-5 series to advance to the World Series, in a "2–3" format, first two games were played at the home of the team who did not have home field advantage. Then the last three games were played at the home of the team, with home field advantage. Thus the first two games were played at Wrigley Field and the next three at the home of their opponents, San Diego. A common and unfounded myth is that since Wrigley Field did not have lights at that time the National League decided to give the home field advantage to the winner of the NL West. In fact, home field advantage had rotated between the winners of the East and West since 1969 when the league expanded. In even numbered years, the NL West had home field advantage. In odd numbered years, the NL East had home field advantage. Since the NL East winners had had home field advantage in 1983, the NL West winners were entitled to it.
Why did the cubs need to host their home games at an alternative site?
57266e865951b619008f728b
Wrigley Field did not yet have lights
269
False
Where was it rumored that the Cubs could home their home games?
57266e865951b619008f728c
Comiskey Park
364
False
Comiskey Park was the home to what team?
57266e865951b619008f728d
Chicago White Sox
409
False
Who had the home field advantage in 1983?
57266e865951b619008f728e
Baltimore Orioles
1079
False
The confusion may stem from the fact that Major League Baseball did decide that, should the Cubs make it to the World Series, the American League winner would have home field advantage unless the Cubs hosted home games at an alternate site since the Cubs home field of Wrigley Field did not yet have lights. Rumor was the Cubs could hold home games across town at Comiskey Park, home of the American League's Chicago White Sox. Rather than hold any games in the cross town rival Sox Park, the Cubs made arrangements with the August A. Busch, owner of the St. Louis Cardinals, to use Busch Stadium in St. Louis as the Cubs "home field" for the World Series. This was approved by Major League Baseball and would have enabled the Cubs to host games 1 and 2, along with games 6 and 7 if necessary. At the time home field advantage was rotated between each league. Odd numbered years the AL had home field advantage. Even numbered years the NL had home field advantage. In the 1982 World Series the St. Louis Cardinals of the NL had home field advantage. In the 1983 World Series the Baltimore Orioles of the AL had home field advantage.
Who easily won the first two games in the NLCS?
57266ef3dd62a815002e84aa
, the Cubs
11
False
Where did the Cubs easily win the first two games of the NLCS?
57266ef3dd62a815002e84ab
Wrigley Field
56
False
Who did the cubs play against in the first two games of the NLCS?
57266ef3dd62a815002e84ac
San Diego Padres
82
False
In the NLCS, the Cubs easily won the first two games at Wrigley Field against the San Diego Padres. The Padres were the winners of the Western Division with Steve Garvey, Tony Gwynn, Eric Show, Goose Gossage and Alan Wiggins. With wins of 13–0 and 4–2, the Cubs needed to win only one game of the next three in San Diego to make it to the World Series. After being beaten in Game 3 7–1, the Cubs lost Game 4 when Smith, with the game tied 5–5, allowed a game-winning home run to Garvey in the bottom of the ninth inning. In Game 5 the Cubs took a 3–0 lead into the 6th inning, and a 3–2 lead into the seventh with Sutcliffe (who won the Cy Young Award that year) still on the mound. Then, Leon Durham had a sharp grounder go under his glove. This critical error helped the Padres win the game 6–3, with a 4-run 7th inning and keep Chicago out of the 1984 World Series against the Detroit Tigers. The loss ended a spectacular season for the Cubs, one that brought alive a slumbering franchise and made the Cubs relevant for a whole new generation of Cubs fans.
What year was the first full season with night baseball at Wrigley Field?
57266f71dd62a815002e84b8
1989
3
False
Who was rookie of the year in 1989?
57266f71dd62a815002e84b9
Jerome Walton
284
False
Who was rookie of the year Runner-Up in 1989?
57266f71dd62a815002e84ba
Dwight Smith
332
False
Who did the Cubs meet in the NLCS during 1989?
57266f71dd62a815002e84bb
San Francisco Giants
439
False
In 1989, the first full season with night baseball at Wrigley Field, Don Zimmer's Cubs were led by a core group of veterans in Ryne Sandberg, Rick Sutcliffe and Andre Dawson, who were boosted by a crop of youngsters such as Mark Grace, Shawon Dunston, Greg Maddux, Rookie of the Year Jerome Walton, and Rookie of the Year Runner-Up Dwight Smith. The Cubs won the NL East once again that season winning 93 games. This time the Cubs met the San Francisco Giants in the NLCS. After splitting the first two games at home, the Cubs headed to the Bay Area, where despite holding a lead at some point in each of the next three games, bullpen meltdowns and managerial blunders ultimately led to three straight losses. The Cubs couldn't overcome the efforts of Will Clark, whose home run off Maddux, just after a managerial visit to the mound, led Maddux to think Clark knew what pitch was coming. Afterward, Maddux would speak into his glove during any mound conversation, beginning what is a norm today. Mark Grace was 11–17 in the series with 8 RBI. Eventually, the Giants lost to the "Bash Brothers" and the Oakland A's in the famous "Earthquake Series."
What legendary broadcaster died in the '98 season?
5726704cf1498d1400e8dfae
Harry Caray
84
False
Who was affectionately known as "H-Rod"?
5726704cf1498d1400e8dfaf
Henry Rodríguez
202
False
How many round-trippers did Rodriguez slug in his first season in Chicago?
5726704cf1498d1400e8dfb0
31
337
False
The '98 season would begin on a somber note with the death of legendary broadcaster Harry Caray. After the retirement of Sandberg and the trade of Dunston, the Cubs had holes to fill and the signing of Henry Rodríguez, known affectionately as "H-Rod" to bat cleanup provided protection for Sammy Sosa in the lineup, as Rodriguez slugged 31 round-trippers in his first season in Chicago. Kevin Tapani led the club with a career high 19 wins, Rod Beck anchored a strong bullpen and Mark Grace turned in one of his best seasons. The Cubs were swamped by media attention in 1998, and the team's two biggest headliners were Sosa and rookie flamethrower Kerry Wood. Wood's signature performance was one-hitting the Houston Astros, a game in which he tied the major league record of 20 strikeouts in nine innings. His torrid strikeout numbers earned Wood the nickname "Kid K," and ultimately earned him the 1998 NL Rookie of the Year award. Sosa caught fire in June, hitting a major league record 20 home runs in the month, and his home run race with Cardinals slugger Mark McGwire transformed the pair into international superstars in a matter of weeks. McGwire finished the season with a new major league record of 70 home runs, but Sosa's .308 average and 66 homers earned him the National League MVP Award. After a down-to-the-wire Wild Card chase with the San Francisco Giants, Chicago and San Francisco ended the regular season tied, and thus squared off in a one-game playoff at Wrigley Field in which third baseman Gary Gaetti hit the eventual game winning homer. The win propelled the Cubs into the postseason once again with a 90–73 regular season tally. Unfortunately, the bats went cold in October, as manager Jim Riggleman's club batted .183 and scored only four runs en route to being swept by Atlanta. On a positive note, the home run chase between Sosa, McGwire and Ken Griffey, Jr. helped professional baseball to bring in a new crop of fans as well as bringing back some fans who had been disillusioned by the 1994 strike. The Cubs retained many players who experienced career years in '98, and after a fast start in 1999, they collapsed again (starting with being swept at the hands of the cross-town White Sox in mid-June) and finished in the bottom of the division for the next two seasons.
Who put together a good season for the Cubs in 2001?
572670f9dd62a815002e84fa
Don Baylor
113
False
Who was brought in to preach "positive thinking"?
572670f9dd62a815002e84fb
Mack Newton
191
False
Who hit a three run walk off homer off of closer Tom "Flash" Gordon?
572670f9dd62a815002e84fc
Preston Wilson
529
False
Despite losing fan favorite Grace to free agency, and the lack of production from newcomer Todd Hundley, skipper Don Baylor's Cubs put together a good season in 2001. The season started with Mack Newton being brought in to preach "positive thinking." One of the biggest stories of the season transpired as the club made a midseason deal for Fred McGriff, which was drawn out for nearly a month as McGriff debated waiving his no-trade clause, as the Cubs led the wild card race by 2.5 games in early September. That run died when Preston Wilson hit a three run walk off homer off of closer Tom "Flash" Gordon, which halted the team's momentum. The team was unable to make another serious charge, and finished at 88–74, five games behind both Houston and St. Louis, who tied for first. Sosa had perhaps his finest season and Jon Lieber led the staff with a 20 win season.
When did the Cubs promote assistant general manager and player personnel director Jim Hendry?
5726716c5951b619008f72d1
July 5, 2002
72
False
What was Jim Hendry promoted to?
5726716c5951b619008f72d2
the General Manager position
173
False
Who did the Cubs hire in response to Jim Hendry's promotion?
5726716c5951b619008f72d3
Dusty Baker
232
False
The Cubs had high expectations in 2002, but the squad played poorly. On July 5, 2002 the Cubs promoted assistant general manager and player personnel director Jim Hendry to the General Manager position. The club responded by hiring Dusty Baker and by making some major moves in '03. Most notably, they traded with the Pittsburgh Pirates for outfielder Kenny Lofton and third baseman Aramis Ramírez, and rode dominant pitching, led by Kerry Wood and Mark Prior, as the Cubs led the division down the stretch.
In what game did Florida shut the Cubs out?
572672e5dd62a815002e8532
Game 5
168
False
What pitcher led the Cubs in Game 6?
572672e5dd62a815002e8533
Mark Prior
194
False
Who hit the foul ball that several spectators attempted to catch?
572672e5dd62a815002e8534
Luis Castillo
403
False
After losing an extra-inning game in Game 1, the Cubs rallied and took a 3 games to 1 lead over the Wild Card Florida Marlins in the NLCS. Florida shut the Cubs out in Game 5, but young pitcher Mark Prior led the Cubs in Game 6 as they took a 3–0 lead into the 8th inning and it was at this point when a now-infamous incident took place. Several spectators attempted to catch a foul ball off the bat of Luis Castillo. A Chicago Cubs fan by the name of Steve Bartman, of Northbrook, Illinois, reached for the ball and deflected it away from the glove of Moisés Alou for the second out of the 8th inning. Alou reacted angrily toward the stands, and after the game stated that he would have caught the ball. Alou at one point recanted, saying he would not have been able to make the play, but later said this was just an attempt to make Bartman feel better and believing the whole incident should be forgotten. Interference was not called on the play, as the ball was ruled to be on the spectator side of the wall. Castillo was eventually walked by Prior. Two batters later, and to the chagrin of the packed stadium, Cubs shortstop Alex Gonzalez misplayed an inning ending double play, loading the bases and leading to eight Florida runs and a Marlin victory. Despite sending Kerry Wood to the mound and holding a lead twice, the Cubs ultimately dropped Game 7, and failed to reach the World Series.
What year did most media outlets pick the Cubs to win the World Series?
572673895951b619008f72f9
2004
3
False
Who was acquired in a trade with Florida for Hee-seop Choi?
572673895951b619008f72fa
Derek Lee
116
False
Who was the mid-season deal for?
572673895951b619008f72fb
Nomar Garciaparra
281
False
In 2004, the Cubs were a consensus pick by most media outlets to win the World Series. The offseason acquisition of Derek Lee (who was acquired in a trade with Florida for Hee-seop Choi) and the return of Greg Maddux only bolstered these expectation. Despite a mid-season deal for Nomar Garciaparra, misfortune struck the Cubs again. They led the Wild Card by 1.5 games over San Francisco and Houston on September 25, and both of those teams lost that day, giving the Cubs a chance at increasing the lead to a commanding 2.5 games with only eight games remaining in the season, but reliever LaTroy Hawkins blew a save to the Mets, and the Cubs lost the game in extra innings, a defeat that seemingly deflated the team, as they proceeded to drop 6 of their last 8 games as the Astros won the Wild Card.
Who did the Cubs trade after leaving the final game early and lieing about it?
5726742e708984140094c6a5
Sammy Sosa
116
False
Who was a controversial figure due to a corked-bat incident?
5726742e708984140094c6a6
Sammy Sosa
116
False
What popular commentator left during the '04 season?
5726742e708984140094c6a7
Steve Stone
760
False
Who verbally attacked Steve Stone?
5726742e708984140094c6a8
Kent Mercker
880
False
Despite the fact that the Cubs had won 89 games, this fallout was decidedly unlovable, as the Cubs traded superstar Sammy Sosa after he had left the season's final game early and then lied about it publicly. Already a controversial figure in the clubhouse after his corked-bat incident, Sammy's actions alienated much of his once strong fan base as well as the few teammates still on good terms with him, (many teammates grew tired of Sosa playing loud salsa music in the locker room) and possibly tarnished his place in Cubs' lore for years to come. The disappointing season also saw fans start to become frustrated with the constant injuries to ace pitchers Mark Prior and Kerry Wood. Additionally, the '04 season led to the departure of popular commentator Steve Stone, who had become increasingly critical of management during broadcasts and was verbally attacked by reliever Kent Mercker. Things were no better in 2005, despite a career year from first baseman Derrek Lee and the emergence of closer Ryan Dempster. The club struggled and suffered more key injuries, only managing to win 79 games after being picked by many to be a serious contender for the N.L. pennant. In 2006, bottom fell out as the Cubs finished 66–96, last in the NL Central.
How many wins did the Cubs finish the NL Central with in 2006?
572675ae5951b619008f733f
66
44
False
Who was signed to a contract at 8 years for $136 million?
572675ae5951b619008f7340
Alfonso Soriano
149
False
Who replaced Dusty Baker as the Cubs manager?
572675ae5951b619008f7341
Lou Piniella
268
False
After finishing last in the NL Central with 66 wins in 2006, the Cubs re-tooled and went from "worst to first" in 2007. In the offseason they signed Alfonso Soriano to a contract at 8 years for $136 million, and replaced manager Dusty Baker with fiery veteran manager Lou Piniella. After a rough start, which included a brawl between Michael Barrett and Carlos Zambrano, the Cubs overcame the Milwaukee Brewers, who had led the division for most of the season, with winning streaks in June and July, coupled with a pair of dramatic, late-inning wins against the Reds, and ultimately clinched the NL Central with a record of 85–77. The Cubs traded Barrett to the Padres, and later acquired Jason Kendall from Oakland. Kendall was highly successful with his management of the pitching rotation and helped at the plate as well. By September, Geovany Soto became the full-time starter behind the plate, replacing the veteran Kendall. They met Arizona in the NLDS, but controversy followed as Piniella, in a move that has since come under scrutiny, pulled Carlos Zambrano after the sixth inning of a pitcher's duel with D-Backs ace Brandon Webb, to "....save Zambrano for (a potential) Game 4." The Cubs, however, were unable to come through, losing the first game and eventually stranding over 30 baserunners in a 3-game Arizona sweep.
What  Chunichi Dragons  start was signed to the Cubs in 2008?
572676f0dd62a815002e85e0
Kosuke Fukudome
320
False
Who was acquired from the Oakland Athletics in early July?
572676f0dd62a815002e85e1
Rich Harden
480
False
Who was named Rookie of the Year in 2008?
572676f0dd62a815002e85e2
Geovany Soto
710
False
Who pitched a no-hitter against the Astros on Spetember 14th?
572676f0dd62a815002e85e3
Zambrano
911
False
The Cubs successfully defended their National League Central title in 2008, going to the postseason in consecutive years for the first time since 1906–08. The offseason was dominated by three months of unsuccessful trade talks with the Orioles involving 2B Brian Roberts, as well as the signing of Chunichi Dragons star Kosuke Fukudome. The team recorded their 10,000th win in April, while establishing an early division lead. Reed Johnson and Jim Edmonds were added early on and Rich Harden was acquired from the Oakland Athletics in early July. The Cubs headed into the All-Star break with the N.L.'s best record, and tied the league record with eight representatives to the All-Star game, including catcher Geovany Soto, who was named Rookie of the Year. The Cubs took control of the division by sweeping a four-game series in Milwaukee. On September 14, in a game moved to Miller Park due to Hurricane Ike, Zambrano pitched a no-hitter against the Astros, and six days later the team clinched by beating St. Louis at Wrigley. The club ended the season with a 97–64 record and met Los Angeles in the NLDS. The heavily favored Cubs took an early lead in Game 1, but James Loney's grand slam off Ryan Dempster changed the series' momentum. Chicago committed numerous critical errors and were outscored 20–6 in a Dodger sweep, which provided yet another sudden ending.
When did the Ricketts family acquire a majority interest in the Cubs?
57267806708984140094c72b
2009
64
False
Who did Chicago engage in a see-saw battle for first place into August 2009?
57267806708984140094c72c
St. Louis
344
False
What plagued the Cubs in 2009?
57267806708984140094c72d
injuries
610
False
The Ricketts family acquired a majority interest in the Cubs in 2009, ending the Tribune years. Apparently handcuffed by the Tribune's bankruptcy and the sale of the club to the Ricketts family, the Cubs' quest for a NL Central 3-peat started with notice that there would be less invested into contracts than in previous years. Chicago engaged St. Louis in a see-saw battle for first place into August 2009, but the Cardinals played to a torrid 20–6 pace that month, designating their rivals to battle in the Wild Card race, from which they were eliminated in the season's final week. The Cubs were plagued by injuries in 2009, and were only able to field their Opening Day starting lineup three times the entire season. Third baseman Aramis Ramírez injured his throwing shoulder in an early May game against the Milwaukee Brewers, sidelining him until early July and forcing journeyman players like Mike Fontenot and Aaron Miles into more prominent roles. Additionally, key players like Derrek Lee (who still managed to hit .306 with 35 HR and 111 RBI that season), Alfonso Soriano and Geovany Soto also nursed nagging injuries. The Cubs posted a winning record (83–78) for the third consecutive season, the first time the club had done so since 1972, and a new era of ownership under the Ricketts' family was approved by MLB owners in early October.
Who debuted as the starting shortstop in early May 2010?
572678f5f1498d1400e8e0e4
Starlin Castro
7
False
When did Starlin Castro debut as the starting shortstop?
572678f5f1498d1400e8e0e5
early May (2010)
33
False
Who announced on August 22nd they were leaving the Cubs prematurely?
572678f5f1498d1400e8e0e6
Lou Piniella
437
False
Why did Lou Piniella leave the cubs prematurely?
572678f5f1498d1400e8e0e7
take care of his sick mother
572
False
Rookie Starlin Castro debuted in early May (2010) as the starting shortstop. However, the club played poorly in the early season, finding themselves 10 games under .500 at the end of June. In addition, long-time ace Carlos Zambrano was pulled from a game against the White Sox on June 25 after a tirade and shoving match with Derrek Lee, and was suspended indefinitely by Jim Hendry, who called the conduct "unacceptable." On August 22, Lou Piniella, who had already announced his retirement at the end of the season, announced that he would leave the Cubs prematurely to take care of his sick mother. Mike Quade took over as the interim manager for the final 37 games of the year. Despite being well out of playoff contention the Cubs went 24–13 under Quade, the best record in baseball during that 37 game stretch, earning Quade to have the interim tag removed on October 19.
How many games under .500 did the Cubs finish the 2011 season with?
57267aad708984140094c77d
20
117
False
Who was the new owner of the Cubs?
57267aad708984140094c77e
Tom Ricketts
271
False
Who did the new owner of the Cubs sign from the Boston Red Sox?
57267aad708984140094c77f
Theo Epstein
291
False
How much was the contract given to Theo Epstein worth?
57267aad708984140094c780
$18 million
407
False
Despite trading for pitcher Matt Garza and signing free-agent slugger Carlos Peña, the Cubs finished the 2011 season 20 games under .500 with a record of 71-91. Weeks after the season came to an end, the club was rejuvenated in the form of a new philosophy, as new owner Tom Ricketts signed Theo Epstein away from the Boston Red Sox, naming him club President and giving him a five-year contract worth over $18 million, and subsequently discharged manager Mike Quade. Epstein, a proponent of sabremetrics and one of the architects of two world series titles in Boston brought along Jed Hoyer to fill the role of GM and hired Dale Sveum as manager. Although the team had a dismal 2012 season, losing 101 games (the worst record since 1966) it was largely expected. The youth movement ushered in by Epstein and Hoyer began as longtime fan favorite Kerry Wood retired in May, followed by Ryan Dempster and Geovany Soto being traded to Texas at the All-Star break for a group of minor league prospects headlined by Christian Villanueva. The development of Castro, Anthony Rizzo, Darwin Barney, Brett Jackson and pitcher Jeff Samardzija as well as the replenishing of the minor-league system with prospects such as Javier Baez, Albert Almora, and Jorge Soler became the primary focus of the season, a philosophy which the new management said would carry over at least through the 2013 season.
Who did the Cubs trade to the Texas Rangers for Mike Olt, C.J. Edwards, Neil Ramirez, and Justin Grimm?
57267b7edd62a815002e86b0
Matt Garza
113
False
Who did the Cubs send to the New York Yankees for minor leaguer Corey Black?
57267b7edd62a815002e86b1
Alfonso Soriano
238
False
When did Theo Epstein made the decision to fire Dale Sveum?
57267b7edd62a815002e86b2
September 30, 2013
587
False
How many seasons did Dale Sveum spend with the Cubs before getting fired?
57267b7edd62a815002e86b3
two seasons
676
False
The 2013 season resulted in much as the same the year before. Shortly before the trade deadline, the Cubs traded Matt Garza to the Texas Rangers for Mike Olt, C. J. Edwards, Neil Ramirez, and Justin Grimm. Three days later, the Cubs sent Alfonso Soriano to the New York Yankees for minor leaguer Corey Black. The mid season fire sale led to another last place finish in the NL Central, finishing with a record of 66-96. Although there was a five-game improvement in the record from the year before, Anthony Rizzo and Starlin Castro seemed to take steps backward in their development. On September 30, 2013, Theo Epstein made the decision to fire manager Dale Sveum after just two seasons at the helm of the Cubs. The regression of several young players was thought to be the main focus point, as the front office said Dale would not be judged based on wins and losses. In two seasons as skipper, Sveum finished with a record of 127-197.
When did the Cubs announce that Joe Maddon had signed a five-year contract to be the 54th manager?
57267c335951b619008f7457
November 2, 2014
3
False
Who did the team sign on December 10, 2014 as a free agent?
57267c335951b619008f7458
Jon Lester
203
False
How much was Jon Lester's contract worth?
57267c335951b619008f7459
$155 million
227
False
What was the record the Cubs finished with during the 2015 season?
57267c335951b619008f745a
97–65
606
False
On November 2, 2014, the Cubs announced that Joe Maddon had signed a five-year contract to be the 54th manager in team history. On December 10, 2014, Maddon announced that the team had signed free agent Jon Lester to a 6-year, $155 million contract. Many other trades and acquisitions occurred during the off season. The opening day lineup for the Cubs contained five new players including rookie right fielder Jorge Soler. Rookies Kris Bryant and Addison Russell were in the starting lineup by mid-April, and rookie Kyle Schwarber was added in mid-June. The Cubs finished the 2015 season with a record of 97–65, third best in the majors. On October 7, in the 2015 National League Wild Card Game, Jake Arrieta pitched a complete game shutout and the Cubs defeated the Pittsburgh Pirates 4–0.
When were the Cubs and New York Giants involved in a tight pennant race?
57267d415951b619008f7473
September 23, 1908
3
False
Who were the Cubs involved with for a tight pennant race on September 23, 1908?
57267d415951b619008f7474
New York Giants
36
False
Who was the runner on first base?
57267d415951b619008f7475
Fred Merkle
360
False
On September 23, 1908, the Cubs and New York Giants were involved in a tight pennant race. The two clubs were tied in the bottom of the ninth inning at the Polo Grounds, and N.Y. had runners on first and third and two outs when Al Bridwell singled, scoring Moose McCormick from third with the Giants' apparent winning run, but the runner on first base, rookie Fred Merkle, left the field without touching second base. As fans swarmed the field, Cub infielder Johnny Evers retrieved the ball and touched second. Since there were two outs, a forceout was called at second base, ending the inning and the game. Because of the tie the Giants and Cubs ended up tied for first place. The Giants lost the ensuing one-game playoff and the Cubs went on to the World Series.
When was game three of the World Series between the Cubs and the New York Yankees?
57267da65951b619008f748d
October 1, 1932
3
False
Who allegedly hit a home run to the Center?
57267da65951b619008f748e
Babe Ruth
97
False
When did Babe Ruth retire?
57267da65951b619008f748f
1935
498
False
On October 1, 1932, in game three of the World Series between the Cubs and the New York Yankees, Babe Ruth allegedly stepped to the plate, pointed his finger to Wrigley Field's center field bleachers and hit a long home run to center. There is speculation as to whether the "facts" surrounding the story are true or not, but nevertheless Ruth did help the Yankees secure a World Series win that year and the home run accounted for his 15th and last home run in the post season before he retired in 1935.
When did Hack Wilson set a record of 56 home-runs and 190 runs-batted-in?
57267fc85951b619008f74cf
1930
67
False
Who Broke Lou Gehrig's MLB record of 176 RBI?
57267fc85951b619008f74d0
Hack Wilson
0
False
When did Manny Ramirez get his 165 RBI?
57267fc85951b619008f74d1
1999
544
False
What was Wilson named by the Baseball Writer's Association of America?
57267fc85951b619008f74d2
"Most Useful" player
728
False
Hack Wilson set a record of 56 home-runs and 190 runs-batted-in in 1930, breaking Lou Gehrig's MLB record of 176 RBI. (In 1999, a long-lost extra RBI mistakenly credited to Charlie Grimm had been found by Cooperstown researcher Cliff Kachline and verified by historian Jerome Holtzman, increasing the record number to 191.) As of 2014 the record still stands, with no serious threats coming since Gehrig (184) and Hank Greenberg (183) in the same era. The closest anyone has come to the mark in the last 75 years was Manny Ramirez's 165 RBI in 1999. In addition to the RBI record, Wilson 56 home-runs stood as the National League record until 1998, when Sammy Sosa and Mark McGwire hit 66 and 70, respectively. Wilson was named "Most Useful" player that year by the Baseball Writers' Association of America, as the official N.L. Most Valuable Player Award was not awarded until the next season.
When did protesters run into the outfield and try to set fire to the U.S. flag?
572680405951b619008f74d7
April 25, 1976
3
False
What stadium did protesters try to burn the U.S.  flag?
572680405951b619008f74d8
Dodger Stadium
22
False
Who grabbed the flag before protesters could light it on fire?
572680405951b619008f74d9
Rick Monday
145
False
On April 25, 1976, at Dodger Stadium, father-and-son protestors ran into the outfield and tried to set fire to a U.S. flag. When Cubs outfielder Rick Monday noticed the flag on the ground and the man and boy fumbling with matches and lighter fluid, he dashed over and snatched the flag to thunderous applause. When he came up to bat in the next half-inning, he got a standing ovation from the crowd and the stadium titantron flashed the message, "RICK MONDAY... YOU MADE A GREAT PLAY..." Monday later said, "If you're going to burn the flag, don't do it around me. I've been to too many veterans' hospitals and seen too many broken bodies of guys who tried to protect it."
When did Sammy Sosa explode into pursuit of Roger Maris' home run record?
572680bb5951b619008f74f1
1998
9
False
Who was in pursuit of Roger Maris' home run record?
572680bc5951b619008f74f2
Sammy Sosa
14
False
Sammy Sosa was in pursuit of beating whose home run record?
572680bc5951b619008f74f3
Roger Maris
54
False
What award did Sammy Sosa win?
572680bc5951b619008f74f4
the NL MVP Award
518
False
In June, 1998 Sammy Sosa exploded into the pursuit of Roger Maris' home run record. Sosa had 13 home runs entering the month, representing less than half of Mark McGwire's total. Sosa had his first of four multi-home run games that month on June 1, and went on to break Rudy York's record with 20 home runs in the month, a record that still stands. By the end of his historic month, the outfielder's 33 home runs tied him with Ken Griffey, Jr. and left him only four behind McGwire's 37. Sosa finished with 66 and won the NL MVP Award.
When did the Cubs record their 10,000 regular-season win?
57268114708984140094c847
April 23, 2008
3
False
Who did the Cubs record their 10,000 regular-season against?
57268114708984140094c848
Colorado Rockies
31
False
When was the beginning of the National League?
57268114708984140094c849
1876
183
False
On April 23, 2008, against the Colorado Rockies, the Cubs recorded the 10,000th regular-season win in their franchise's history dating back to the beginning of the National League in 1876. The Cubs reached the milestone with an overall National League record of 10,000-9,465. Chicago was only the second club in Major League Baseball history to attain this milestone, the first having been the San Francisco Giants in mid-season 2005. The Cubs, however, hold the mark for victories for a team in a single city. The Chicago club's 77–77 record in the National Association (1871, 1874–1875) is not included in MLB record keeping. Post-season series are also not included in the totals. To honor the milestone, the Cubs flew an extra white flag displaying "10,000" in blue, along with the customary "W" flag.
How many batters did Kerry Wood strike out against Houston?
57268162dd62a815002e878a
20
54
False
When did Kerry Wood strike out 20 batters against Houston?
57268162dd62a815002e878b
May 6, 1998
84
False
Kerry Wood struck out 20 batters against what team?
57268162dd62a815002e878c
Houston
73
False
In only his third career start, Kerry Wood struck out 20 batters against Houston on May 6, 1998. This is the franchise record and tied for the Major League record for the most strikeouts in one game by one pitcher (the only other pitcher to strike out 20 batters in a nine-inning game was Roger Clemens, who achieved it twice). The game is often considered the most dominant pitching performance of all time. Interestingly, Wood's first pitch struck home plate umpire Jerry Meals in the facemask. Wood then struck out the first five batters he faced. Wood hit one batter, Craig Biggio, and allowed one hit, a scratch single by Ricky Gutiérrez off third baseman Kevin Orie's glove. The play was nearly scored an error, which would have given Wood a no-hitter.
When was the last time the Chicago Cubs win a World Series championship?
5726821edd62a815002e87a4
1908
64
False
When was the last time the Chicago Cubs appeared in the Fall Classic?
5726821edd62a815002e87a5
1945
118
False
What is the longest championship drought in all four of the major North American professional sports leagues?
5726821edd62a815002e87a6
107 seasons
251
False
The championship drought has led to the Chicago Cubs being know as what?
5726821edd62a815002e87a7
The Lovable Losers
935
False
The Chicago Cubs have not won a World Series championship since 1908, and have not appeared in the Fall Classic since 1945, although between their postseason appearance in 1984 and their most recent in 2015, they have made the postseason seven times. 107 seasons is the longest championship drought in all four of the major North American professional sports leagues, which also includes the National Football League (NFL), the National Basketball Association (NBA), and the National Hockey League (NHL). In fact, the Cubs' last World Series title occurred before those other three leagues even existed, and even the Cubs' last World Series appearance predates the founding of the NBA. The much publicized drought was concurrent to championship droughts by the Boston Red Sox and the Chicago White Sox, who both had over 80 years between championships. It is this unfortunate distinction that has led to the club often being known as "The Lovable Losers." The team was one win away from breaking what is often called the "Curse of the Billy Goat" in 1984 and 2003 (Steve Bartman incident), but was unable get the victory that would send it to the World Series.
Who was the first and only player to hit a pitched ball onto the roof of a five-story building across Waveland Ave?
572684db5951b619008f7551
Glenallen Hill
17
False
When did the first and only player to hit a pitched ball onto the roof of a five-story building across Waveland Ave?
572684db5951b619008f7552
May 11, 2000
3
False
Who barely missed the scoreboard when he launched a home run ball onto Sheffield Avenue?
572684db5951b619008f7553
Bill Nicholson
519
False
On May 11, 2000, Glenallen Hill, facing Brewers starter Steve Woodard, became the first, and thus far only player, to hit a pitched ball onto the roof of a five-story residential building across Waveland Ave, beyond Wrigley Field's left field wall. The shot was estimated at well over 500 feet (150 m), but the Cubs fell to Milwaukee 12–8. No batted ball has ever hit the center field scoreboard, although the original "Slammin' Sammy", golfer Sam Snead, hit it with a golf ball in an exhibition in the 1950s. In 1948, Bill Nicholson barely missed the scoreboard when he launched a home run ball onto Sheffield Avenue and in 1959, Roberto Clemente came even closer with a home run ball hit onto Waveland Avenue. In 2001, a Sammy Sosa shot landed across Waveland and bounced a block down Kenmore Avenue. Dave Kingman hit a shot in 1979 that hit the third porch roof on the east side of Kenmore, estimated at 555 feet (169 m), and is regarded as the longest home run in Wrigley Field history. On May 26, 2015, the Cubs rookie third baseman, Kris Bryant, hit a homerun that traveled an estimated 477 feet (145 m) off the park's new videoboard in left field. Later the same year, he hit a homer that traveled 495 feet (151 m) that also ricocheted off of the videoboard On October 13, 2015, Kyle Schwarber's 438-foot home run landed on the equally new right field videoboard.
When did the Cubs sign a developmental agreement with the Kane County Cougars?
5726856d708984140094c8cf
2012
73
False
The Cubs had a Class A minor league affiliation on two occasions with who?
5726856d708984140094c8d0
Peoria Chiefs
153
False
When did the Cubs announce a move of their top class A affiliate from Daytona to Myrtle Beach?
5726856d708984140094c8d1
September 16, 2014
622
False
Before signing a developmental agreement with the Kane County Cougars in 2012, the Cubs had a Class A minor league affiliation on two occasions with the Peoria Chiefs (1985–1995 and 2004–2012). Ryne Sandberg managed the Chiefs from 2006 to 2010. In the period between those associations with the Chiefs the club had affiliations with the Dayton Dragons and Lansing Lugnuts. The Lugnuts were often affectionately referred to by Chip Caray as "Steve Stone's favorite team." The 2007 developmental contract with the Tennessee Smokies was preceded by Double A affiliations with the Orlando Cubs and West Tenn Diamond Jaxx. On September 16, 2014 the Cubs announced a move of their top Class A affiliate from Daytona in the Florida State League to Myrtle Beach in the Carolina League for the 2015 season. Two days later, on the 18th, the Cubs signed a 4-year player development contract with the South Bend Silver Hawks of the Midwest League, ending their brief relationship with the Kane County Cougars and shortly thereafter renaming the Silver Hawks the South Bend Cubs.
Who began spring training in Hot Springs, Arkansas in 1886?
57268614dd62a815002e8818
Chicago White Stockings
4
False
Who is the founder of Spalding Sporting Goods?
57268614dd62a815002e8819
Albert Spalding
119
False
Whittington Park, Majestic Park, and Fogel Field were all built where?
57268614dd62a815002e881a
Hot Springs, Arkansas
78
False
The Chicago White Stockings, (today's Chicago Cubs), began spring training in Hot Springs, Arkansas in 1886. President Albert Spalding (founder of Spalding Sporting Goods) and player/manager Cap Anson brought their players to Hot Springs and played at the Hot Springs Baseball Grounds. The concept was for the players to have training and fitness before the start of the regular season. After the White Stockings had a successful season in 1886, winning the National League Pennant, other teams began bringing their players to "spring training".  The Chicago Cubs, St. Louis Browns, New York Yankees, St. Louis Cardinals, Cleveland Spiders, Detroit Tigers, Pittsburgh Pirates, Cincinnati Reds, New York Highlanders, Brooklyn Dodgers and Boston Red Sox were among the early squads to arrive. Whittington Park (1894) and later Majestic Park (1909) and Fogel Field (1912) were all built in Hot Springs specifically to host Major League teams.
Where is the Cubs' current spring  training facility located?
572686975951b619008f75a3
Sloan Park
57
False
How many seats are in the Cubs' Sloan Park training facility?
572686975951b619008f75a4
15,000
140
False
When did Sloan Park open?
572686975951b619008f75a5
2014
333
False
The Cubs' current spring training facility is located in Sloan Park in |Mesa, Arizona, where they play in the Cactus League. The park seats 15,000, making it Major League baseball's largest spring training facility by capacity. The Cubs annually sell out most of their games both at home and on the road. Before Sloan Park opened in 2014, the team played games at HoHoKam Park - Dwight Patterson Field from 1979. "HoHoKam" is literally translated from Native American as "those who vanished." The North Siders have called Mesa their spring home for most seasons since 1952.
Where is Rendezvous Park?
572686f05951b619008f75bd
Mesa
442
False
Where is Blair Field?
572686f05951b619008f75be
Long Beach, California
475
False
Between what years did the club hold spring training in Scottsdale, Arizona?
572686f05951b619008f75bf
(1967–1978)
530
False
In addition to Mesa, the club has held spring training in Hot Springs, Arkansas (1886, 1896–1900), (1909–1910) New Orleans (1870, 1907, 1911–1912); Champaign, Illinois (1901–02, 1906); Los Angeles (1903–04, 1948–1949), Santa Monica, California (1905); French Lick, Indiana (1908, 1943–1945); Tampa, Florida (1913–1916); Pasadena, California (1917–1921); Santa Catalina Island, California (1922–1942, 1946–1947, 1950–1951); Rendezvous Park in Mesa (1952–1965); Blair Field in Long Beach, California (1966); and Scottsdale, Arizona (1967–1978).
Who had a majority interest in Cataline island  in 1919?
572687a75951b619008f75eb
William Wrigley Jr
64
False
What did Wrigley construct on the island to house the Cubs in Spring training?
572687a75951b619008f75ec
a ballpark
152
False
When did the Cubs choose to leave Catalina Island?
572687a75951b619008f75ed
1951
397
False
The curious location on Catalina Island stemmed from Cubs owner William Wrigley Jr.'s then-majority interest in the island in 1919. Wrigley constructed a ballpark on the island to house the Cubs in spring training: it was built to the same dimensions as Wrigley Field. (The ballpark is long gone, but a clubhouse built by Wrigley to house the Cubs exists as the Catalina County Club.) However, by 1951 the team chose to leave Catalina Island and spring training was shifted to Mesa, Arizona. The Cubs' 30-year association with Catalina is chronicled in the book, The Cubs on Catalina, by Jim Vitti . . . which was named International 'Book of the Year' by The Sporting News.
Where was the former location in Mesa?
57268816dd62a815002e885c
the second HoHoKam Park
40
False
How many square feet does Fitch Park provide?
57268816dd62a815002e885d
25,000 square feet
303
False
When was the spring training home of the Oakland Athletics built?
57268816dd62a815002e885e
1976
88
False
The former location in Mesa is actually the second HoHoKam Park; the first was built in 1976 as the spring-training home of the Oakland Athletics who left the park in 1979. Apart from HoHoKam Park and Sloan Park the Cubs also have another Mesa training facility called Fitch Park, this complex provides 25,000 square feet (2,300 m2) of team facilities, including major league clubhouse, four practice fields, one practice infield, enclosed batting tunnels, batting cages, a maintenance facility, and administrative offices for the Cubs.
Who manned the Cubs radio and TV booth for parts of five decades?
572688895951b619008f7601
Jack Brickhouse
0
False
What was Jack Brickhouse's trademark call?
572688895951b619008f7602
Hey Hey!
298
False
What did Jack Brickhouse do when he approached his retirement age?
572688895951b619008f7603
he personally recommended his successor
557
False
Jack Brickhouse manned the Cubs radio and especially the TV booth for parts of five decades, the 34-season span from 1948 to 1981. He covered the games with a level of enthusiasm that often seemed unjustified by the team's poor performance on the field for many of those years. His trademark call "Hey Hey!" always followed a home run. That expression is spelled out in large letters vertically on both foul pole screens at Wrigley Field. "Whoo-boy!" and "Wheeee!" and "Oh, brother!" were among his other pet expressions. When he approached retirement age, he personally recommended his successor.
How long was Harry Caray's tenure  with the Cubs?
572688fd708984140094c92b
17-year
93
False
How did Caray become a well-known Chicago figure?
572688fd708984140094c92c
by broadcasting White Sox games for a decade
206
False
How long had Caray been a St Louis Cardinals icon?
572688fd708984140094c92d
25 years
300
False
Harry Caray's stamp on the team is perhaps even deeper than that of Brickhouse, although his 17-year tenure, from 1982 to 1997, was half as long. First, Caray had already become a well-known Chicago figure by broadcasting White Sox games for a decade, after having been a St Louis Cardinals icon for 25 years. Caray also had the benefit of being in the booth during the NL East title run in 1984, which was widely seen due to WGN's status as a cable-TV superstation. His trademark call of "Holy Cow!" and his enthusiastic singing of "Take me out to the ballgame" during the 7th inning stretch (as he had done with the White Sox) made Caray a fan favorite both locally and nationally.
Who did Harry hand-pick himself?
57268a4a708984140094c94f
Steve Stone
46
False
Who did Caray often playfully quarrel with?
57268a4a708984140094c950
Stone
160
False
Why did Caray often playfully quarrel with Stone?
57268a4a708984140094c951
over Stone's cigar
166
False
What does the crowd sing during the 7th inning to honor Caray's memory?
57268a4a708984140094c952
Take me out to the ballgame
542
False
Caray had lively discussions with commentator Steve Stone, who was hand-picked by Harry himself, and producer Arne Harris. Caray often playfully quarreled with Stone over Stone's cigar and why Stone was single, while Stone would counter with poking fun at Harry being "under the influence." Stone disclosed in his book "Where's Harry" that most of this "arguing" was staged, and usually a ploy developed by Harry himself to add flavor to the broadcast. The Cubs still have a "guest conductor", usually a celebrity, lead the crowd in singing "Take me out to the ballgame" during the 7th inning stretch to honor Caray's memory.
What company purchased the  Cubs in 1981?
57268adcdd62a815002e88e2
Tribune Company
78
False
How much did Tribune Company purchase the Cubs for?
57268adcdd62a815002e88e3
$20,500,000
98
False
How long were the Cubs ran under the Wrigley family?
57268adcdd62a815002e88e4
6 decades
15
False
In 1981, after 6 decades under the Wrigley family, the Cubs were purchased by Tribune Company for $20,500,000. Tribune, owners of the Chicago Tribune, Los Angeles Times, WGN Television, WGN Radio and many other media outlets, controlled the club until December 2007, when Sam Zell completed his purchase of the entire Tribune organization and announced his intention to sell the baseball team. After a nearly two-year process which involved potential buyers such as Mark Cuban and a group led by Hank Aaron, a family trust of TD Ameritrade founder Joe Ricketts won the bidding process as the 2009 season came to a close. Ultimately, the sale was unanimously approved by MLB owners and the Ricketts family took control on October 27, 2009.
What was "Baseball's Sad Lexicon" also known as?
57268b24708984140094c997
"Tinker to Evers to Chance"
40
False
Who wrote "Baseball's Sad Lexicon"?
57268b24708984140094c998
Franklin Pierce Adams
114
False
What poem did Franklin Pierce Adams write?
57268b24708984140094c999
"Baseball's Sad Lexicon,
0
False
"Baseball's Sad Lexicon," also known as "Tinker to Evers to Chance" after its refrain, is a 1910 baseball poem by Franklin Pierce Adams. The poem is presented as a single, rueful stanza from the point of view of a New York Giants fan seeing the talented Chicago Cubs infield of shortstop Joe Tinker, second baseman Johnny Evers, and first baseman Frank Chance complete a double play. The trio began playing together with the Cubs in 1902, and formed a double play combination that lasted through April 1912. The Cubs won the pennant four times between 1906 and 1910, often defeating the Giants en route to the World Series.
What is the official Cubs team mascot?
57268becf1498d1400e8e360
a young bear cub
33
False
What is the official Cubs team mascot's name?
57268becf1498d1400e8e361
Clark
57
False
When did Clark make his debut?
57268becf1498d1400e8e362
January 13, 2014
179
False
The official Cubs team mascot is a young bear cub, named Clark, described by the team's press release as a young and friendly Cub. Clark made his debut at Advocate Health Care on January 13, 2014, the same day as the press release announcing his installation as the club's first ever official physical mascot. The bear cub itself was used in the clubs since the early 1900s and was the inspiration of the Chicago Staleys changing their team's name to the Chicago Bears, due to the Cubs allowing the football team to play at Wrigley Field in the 1930s.
What did "The Bear-man" wear as an outfit?
57268c675951b619008f7657
'polar bear' looking outfit
75
False
During what season were "cubbie-bear" mascots outside of Wrigley on game day?
57268c675951b619008f7658
2013 season
331
False
Who played Billy Cub?
57268c675951b619008f7659
John Paul Weier
668
False
The Cubs had no official physical mascot prior to Clark, though a man in a 'polar bear' looking outfit, called "The Bear-man" (or Beeman), which was mildly popular with the fans, paraded the stands briefly in the early 1990s. There is no record of whether or not he was just a fan in a costume or employed by the club. Through the 2013 season, there were "Cubbie-bear" mascots outside of Wrigley on game day, but none are employed by the team. They pose for pictures with fans for tips. The most notable of these was "Billy Cub" who worked outside of the stadium until for over 6 years until July 2013, when the club asked him to stop. Billy Cub, who is played by fan John Paul Weier, had unsuccessfully petitioned the team to become the official mascot.
What is another unofficial well-known mascot?
57268d025951b619008f765d
Ronnie "Woo Woo" Wickers
54
False
What is Ronnie known for to Wrigley Field visitors?
57268d025951b619008f765e
idiosyncratic cheers at baseball games
188
False
What did Harry Caray dub Wickers?
57268d025951b619008f765f
"Leather Lungs
397
False
Another unofficial but much more well-known mascot is Ronnie "Woo Woo" Wickers who is a longtime fan and local celebrity in the Chicago area. He is known to Wrigley Field visitors for his idiosyncratic cheers at baseball games, generally punctuated with an exclamatory "Woo!" (e.g., "Cubs, woo! Cubs, woo! Big-Z, woo! Zambrano, woo! Cubs, woo!") Longtime Cubs announcer Harry Caray dubbed Wickers "Leather Lungs" for his ability to shout for hours at a time. He is not employed by the team, although the club has on two separate occasions allowed him into the broadcast booth and allow him some degree of freedom once he purchases or is given a ticket by fans to get into the games. He is largely allowed to roam the park and interact with fans by Wrigley Field security.
Where is Wrigley Field located?
57268e7edd62a815002e8970
Chicago's Lake View neighborhood
11
False
What is the area surrounding the ballpark typically referred to?
57268e7edd62a815002e8971
Wrigleyville
221
False
What have many apartment buildings  surrounding Wrigley Field built on their rooftops?
57268e7edd62a815002e8972
bleachers
505
False
Located in Chicago's Lake View neighborhood, Wrigley Field sits on an irregular block bounded by Clark and Addison Streets and Waveland and Sheffield Avenues. The area surrounding the ballpark is typically referred to as Wrigleyville. There is a dense collection of sports bars and restaurants in the area, most with baseball inspired themes, including Sluggers, Murphy's Bleachers and The Cubby Bear. Many of the apartment buildings surrounding Wrigley Field on Waveland and Sheffield Avenues have built bleachers on their rooftops for fans to view games and other sell space for advertisement. One building on Sheffield Avenue has a sign atop its roof which says "Eamus Catuli!" which is Latin for "Let's Go Cubs!" and another chronicles the time since the last Division title, pennant, and World Series championship. The 02 denotes two years since the 2008 NL Central title, 65 years since the 1945 pennant and 102 years since the 1908 World Series championship. On game days, many residents rent out their yards and driveways to people looking for parking spots. The uniqueness of the neighborhood itself has ingrained itself into the culture of the Chicago Cubs as well as the Wrigleyville neighborhood, and has led to being used for concerts and other sporting events, such as the 2010 NHL Winter Classic between the Chicago Blackhawks and Detroit Red Wings, as well as a 2010 NCAA men's football game between the Northwestern Wildcats and Illinois Fighting Illini.
When did Tom Ricketts and Crane Kenney unveil plans for a five-year funded renovation of Wrigley Field?
5726928c708984140094ca97
2013
3
False
How much money has been funded to the renovation of Wrigley Field?
5726928c708984140094ca98
$575 million
86
False
How big is the jumbotron going to be?
5726928c708984140094ca99
6,000-square foot
338
False
In 2013, Tom Ricketts and team president Crane Kenney unveiled plans for a five-year, $575 million privately funded renovation of Wrigley Field. Called the 1060 Project, the proposed plans included vast improvements to the stadium's facade, infrastructure, restrooms, concourses, suites, press box, bullpens, and clubhouses, as well as a 6,000-square foot jumbotron to be added in the left field bleachers, batting tunnels, a 3,000-square-foot video board in right field, and, eventually, an adjacent hotel, plaza, and office-retail complex. In previously years mostly all efforts to conduct any large-scale renovations to the field had been opposed by the city, former mayor Richard M. Daley (a staunch White Sox fan), and especially the rooftop owners.
What nickname has been given to the fans who sit in the bleacher section at Wrigley Field?
57269335dd62a815002e8a06
Bleacher Bums
5
False
Who heads the current group?
57269335dd62a815002e8a07
Derek Schaul
968
False
What did Bud Light dub the bleacher section?
57269335dd62a815002e8a08
the Bud Light Bleachers
1191
False
The "Bleacher Bums" is a name given to fans, many of whom spend much of the day heckling, who sit in the bleacher section at Wrigley Field. Initially, the group was called "bums" because it referred to a group of fans who were at most games, and since those games were all day games, it was assumed they did not work. Many of those fans were, and are still, students at Chicago area colleges, such as DePaul University, Loyola, Northwestern University, and Illinois-Chicago. A Broadway play, starring Joe Mantegna, Dennis Farina, Dennis Franz, and James Belushi ran for years and was based on a group of Cub fans who frequented the club's games. The group was started in 1967 by dedicated fans Ron Grousl, Tom Nall and "mad bugler" Mike Murphy, who was a sports radio host during mid days on Chicago-based WSCR AM 670 "The Score". Murphy alleges that Grousl started the Wrigley tradition of throwing back opposing teams' home run balls. The current group is headed by Derek Schaul (Derek the Five Dollar Kid). Prior to the 2006 season, they were updated, with new shops and private bar (The Batter's Eye) being added, and Bud Light bought naming rights to the bleacher section, dubbing them the Bud Light Bleachers. Bleachers at Wrigley are general admission, except during the playoffs. The bleachers have been referred to as the "World's Largest Beer Garden." A popular T-shirt (sold inside the park and licensed by the club) which says "Wrigley Bleachers" on the front and the phrase "Shut Up and Drink Your Beer" on the reverse fuels this stereotype.
What year did a group of Chicago Cubs fans form the Emil Verban Society?
5726940af1498d1400e8e460
1975
3
False
Where were the Emil Verban Society founders based in?
5726940af1498d1400e8e461
Washington, D.C
47
False
Who currently heads the Emil Verban Society?
5726940af1498d1400e8e462
Illinois Senator Dick Durbin
171
False
In 1975, a group of Chicago Cubs fans based in Washington, D.C. formed the Emil Verban Society. The society is a select club of high profile Cub fans, currently headed by Illinois Senator Dick Durbin which is named for Emil Verban, who in three seasons with the Cubs in the 1940s batted .280 with 39 runs batted in and one home run. Verban was picked as the epitome of a Cub player, explains columnist George Will, because "He exemplified mediocrity under pressure, he was competent but obscure and typifying of the work ethics." Verban initially believed he was being ridiculed, but his ill feeling disappeared several years later when he was flown to Washington to meet President Ronald Reagan, also a society member, at the White House. Hillary Clinton, Jim Belushi, Joe Mantegna, Rahm Emanuel, Dick Cheney and many others have been included among its membership.
What year was the single "Hey Hey! Holy Mackerel! (The Cubs Song)" produced?
57269483708984140094cad7
1969
21
False
What was the name of the album several members of the cubs recorded?
57269483708984140094cad8
Cub Power
320
False
What did The Cubs Song incorporate?
57269483708984140094cad9
the catch-phrases of the respective TV and radio announcers
160
False
During the summer of 1969, a Chicago studio group produced a single record called "Hey Hey! Holy Mackerel! (The Cubs Song)" whose title and lyrics incorporated the catch-phrases of the respective TV and radio announcers for the Cubs, Jack Brickhouse and Vince Lloyd. Several members of the Cubs recorded an album called Cub Power which contained a cover of the song. The song received a good deal of local airplay that summer, associating it very strongly with that bittersweet season. It was played much less frequently thereafter, although it remained an unofficial Cubs theme song for some years after.
When was Take Me Out to a Cubs game released?
572694f3dd62a815002e8a48
2008
61
False
How many songs are on the Take Me Out to a Cubs Game album?
572694f3dd62a815002e8a49
17 songs
89
False
When was Harry Caray's final performance of "Take Me Out to the Ball Game"?
572694f3dd62a815002e8a4a
September 21, 1997
219
False
An album entitled Take Me Out to a Cubs Game was released in 2008. It is a collection of 17 songs and other recordings related to the team, including Harry Caray's final performance of "Take Me Out to the Ball Game" on September 21, 1997, the Steve Goodman song mentioned above, and a newly recorded rendition of "Talkin' Baseball" (subtitled "Baseball and the Cubs") by Terry Cashman. The album was produced in celebration of the 100th anniversary of the Cubs' 1908 World Series victory and contains sounds and songs of the Cubs and Wrigley Field.
What film depicts the Chicago Cubs defeating a baseball team from Miami in the 2015 World Series?
5726956c708984140094cae5
Back to the Future Part II
14
False
What team failed to make it to the playoffs in 2015?
5726956c708984140094cae6
Miami Marlins
251
False
What day were the Cubs swept by the New York Mets in the NLCS?
5726956c708984140094cae7
October 21
537
False
The 1989 film Back to the Future Part II depicts the Chicago Cubs defeating a baseball team from Miami in the 2015 World Series, ending the longest championship drought in all four of the major North American professional sports leagues. In 2015, the Miami Marlins failed to make the playoffs and were able to make it to the 2015 National League Wild Card round and move on to the 2015 National League Championship Series by October 21, 2015, the date where protagonist Marty McFly traveled to the future in the film. However, it was on October 21 that the Cubs were swept by the New York Mets in the NLCS.
Korean_War
In what year did the Korean War begin?
57260903ec44d21400f3d813
1950
188
False
What caused the start of the Korean War?
57260903ec44d21400f3d814
North Korea invaded South Korea
229
False
What country was divided at the end of World War II?
57260903ec44d21400f3d815
Korea
235
False
Which country aided South Korea during the war?
57260903ec44d21400f3d816
United States
287
False
When did the Korean War end?
57260903ec44d21400f3d817
27 July 1953
195
False
The Korean War (in South Korean Hangul: 한국전쟁, Hanja: 韓國戰爭, Hanguk Jeonjaeng, "Korean War"; in North Korean Chosungul: 조국해방전쟁, Joguk Haebang Jeonjaeng, "Fatherland Liberation War"; 25 June 1950 – 27 July 1953)[a] was started when North Korea invaded South Korea. The United Nations, with United States as the principal force, came to aid of South Korea. China, along with assistance from Soviet Union, came to aid of North Korea. The war arose from the division of Korea at the end of World War II and from the global tensions of the Cold War that developed immediately afterwards.
What nation ruled Korea in 1910?
57260a8fec44d21400f3d82b
Japan
261
False
What part of Korea did the Soviet Union occupy?
57260a8fec44d21400f3d82c
north of the 38th parallel
185
False
Who occupied Korea south of the 38th parallel?
57260a8fec44d21400f3d82d
U.S. forces
213
False
What United Nation's committee considered the invasion of Korea to be an act of aggression?
57260a8fec44d21400f3d82e
United Nations Security Council
609
False
How many countries assisted in the defense of South Korea?
57260a8fec44d21400f3d82f
Twenty-one
893
False
Korea was ruled by Japan from 1910 until the closing days of World War II. In August 1945, the Soviet Union declared war on Japan and—by agreement with the United States—occupied Korea north of the 38th parallel. U.S. forces subsequently occupied the south and Japan surrendered. By 1948, two separate governments had been set up. Both governments claimed to be the legitimate government of Korea, and neither side accepted the border as permanent. The conflict escalated into open warfare when North Korean forces—supported by the Soviet Union and China—invaded South Korea on 25 June 1950. On that day, the United Nations Security Council recognized this North Korean act as invasion and called for an immediate ceasefire. On 27 June, the Security Council adopted S/RES/83: Complaint of aggression upon the Republic of Korea and decided the formation and dispatch of the UN Forces in Korea. Twenty-one countries of the United Nations eventually contributed to the defense of South Korea, with the United States providing 88% of the UN's military personnel.
At the beginning of the conflict, where were South Korean forces pushed back to?
57260be6271a42140099d3ed
Pusan Perimeter
112
False
In 1950, what country got involved in the war?
57260be6271a42140099d3ee
China
360
False
How many times did the control of Seoul change?
57260be6271a42140099d3ef
four
662
False
On land, where was the last two years of the war fought?
57260be6271a42140099d3f0
close to the 38th parallel
752
False
What type of combat was seen for the first time in the history of war?
57260be6271a42140099d3f1
air-to-air combat
925
False
After the first two months of the conflict, South Korean forces were on the point of defeat, forced back to the Pusan Perimeter. In September 1950, an amphibious UN counter-offensive was launched at Inchon, and cut off many of the North Korean attackers. Those that escaped envelopment and capture were rapidly forced back north all the way to the border with China at the Yalu River, or into the mountainous interior. At this point, in October 1950, Chinese forces crossed the Yalu and entered the war. Chinese intervention triggered a retreat of UN forces which continued until mid-1951. After these dramatic reversals of fortune, which saw Seoul change hands four times, the last two years of conflict became a war of attrition, with the front line close to the 38th parallel. The war in the air, however, was never a stalemate. North Korea was subject to a massive bombing campaign. Jet fighters confronted each other in air-to-air combat for the first time in history, and Soviet pilots covertly flew in defense of their Communist allies.
In, China what is the war officially called?
57260d63271a42140099d3f7
War to Resist U.S. Aggression and Aid Korea
44
False
What did Macau and Hong Kong call the Korean War?
57260d63271a42140099d3f8
Korean Conflict
365
False
When is the term 'Chaoxian War' used as a name for the Korean War?
57260d63271a42140099d3f9
unofficial contexts
323
False
In China, the war is officially called the "War to Resist U.S. Aggression and Aid Korea" (simplified Chinese: 抗美援朝战争; traditional Chinese: 抗美援朝戰爭; pinyin: Kàngměiyuáncháo zhànzhēng), although the term "Chaoxian (Korean) War" (simplified Chinese: 朝鲜战争; traditional Chinese: 朝鮮戰爭; pinyin: Cháoxiǎn zhànzhēng) is also used in unofficial contexts, along with the term "Korean Conflict" (simplified Chinese: 韩战; traditional Chinese: 韓戰; pinyin: Hán Zhàn) more commonly used in regions such as Hong Kong and Macau.
Along with Taiwan, what empire was Korea considered to be apart of?
57260ea838643c19005acf89
Empire of Japan
39
False
Who was the colonial Governor-General that mandated cultural assimilation of Korea's people?
57260ea838643c19005acf8a
General Jirō Minami
208
False
What language were the Korean people forced to learn?
57260ea838643c19005acf8b
Japanese
441
False
What policy forced Koreans to change their names to Japanese names?
57260ea838643c19005acf8c
Sōshi-kaimei policy
540
False
In 1939, what caused nearly 2 million Koreans to be forced into the labor force or the army?
57260ea838643c19005acf8d
Conscription
561
False
Korea was considered to be part of the Empire of Japan as an industrialized colony along with Taiwan, and both were part of the Greater East Asia Co-Prosperity Sphere. In 1937, the colonial Governor-General, General Jirō Minami, commanded the attempted cultural assimilation of Korea's 23.5 million people by banning the use and study of Korean language, literature, and culture, to be replaced with that of mandatory use and study of their Japanese counterparts. Starting in 1939, the populace was required to use Japanese names under the Sōshi-kaimei policy. Conscription of Koreans for labor in war industries began in 1939, with as many as 2 million Koreans conscripted into either the Japanese Army or into the Japanese labor force.
How many Japanese forces were in Korea in 1945?
572623d0ec44d21400f3d95b
300,000
157
False
Where were 723,000 Koreans sent to work?
572623d0ec44d21400f3d95c
overseas empire and in metropolitan Japan
330
False
Who did Japan collaborate with to help control the citizens of Korea?
572623d0ec44d21400f3d95d
Korean police force
264
False
By 1945, what percentage of Koreans made up the Japanese labor force?
572623d0ec44d21400f3d95e
32%
482
False
What army were Korean men conscripted into?
572623d0ec44d21400f3d95f
Imperial Japanese Army
425
False
During World War II, Japan used Korea's food, livestock, and metals for their war effort. Japanese forces in Korea increased from 46,000 soldiers in 1941 to 300,000 in 1945. Japanese Korea conscripted 2.6 million forced laborers controlled with a collaborationist Korean police force; some 723,000 people were sent to work in the overseas empire and in metropolitan Japan. By 1942, Korean men were being conscripted into the Imperial Japanese Army. By January 1945, Koreans made up 32% of Japan's labor force. At the end of the war, other world powers did not recognize Japanese rule in Korea and Taiwan.
What job were Colonels Dean Rusk and Charles H. Bonesteel III given?
5726255e271a42140099d583
dividing the Korean Peninsula
115
False
What two areas was Korea divided into?
5726255e271a42140099d584
Soviet and U.S. occupation zones
150
False
What order was the division of Korea included in?
5726255e271a42140099d585
General Order No. 1
252
False
Who had to agree to the US's decision to divide Korea at the 38th parallel?
5726255e271a42140099d586
Stalin
926
False
What was a factor in deciding where to divide the occupation zones?
5726255e271a42140099d587
the capital of Korea
543
False
On the night of 10 August in Washington, American Colonels Dean Rusk and Charles H. Bonesteel III were tasked with dividing the Korean Peninsula into Soviet and U.S. occupation zones and proposed the 38th parallel. This was incorporated into America's General Order No. 1 which responded to the Japanese surrender on 15 August. Explaining the choice of the 38th parallel, Rusk observed, "even though it was further north than could be realistically reached by U.S. forces, in the event of Soviet disagreement...we felt it important to include the capital of Korea in the area of responsibility of American troops". He noted that he was "faced with the scarcity of US forces immediately available, and time and space factors, which would make it difficult to reach very far north, before Soviet troops could enter the area". As Rusk's comments indicate, the Americans doubted whether the Soviet government would agree to this. Stalin, however, maintained his wartime policy of co-operation, and on 16 August the Red Army halted at the 38th parallel for three weeks to await the arrival of U.S. forces in the south.
Who accepted Japan's surrender?
572627b689a1e219009ac3f2
Gen. John R. Hodge
30
False
What was General Hodge appointed the head of?
572627b689a1e219009ac3f3
United States Army Military Government in Korea
222
False
What government was not recognized by the U.S. Army Military Government in Korea?
572627b689a1e219009ac3f4
People's Republic of Korea
525
False
Why was the People's Republic of Korea not recognized?
572627b689a1e219009ac3f5
it was communist
579
False
Who did General Hodge restore power to, resulting in protests?
572627b689a1e219009ac3f6
Japanese colonial administrators
342
False
On 8 September 1945, U.S. Lt. Gen. John R. Hodge arrived in Incheon to accept the Japanese surrender south of the 38th parallel. Appointed as military governor, General Hodge directly controlled South Korea as head of the United States Army Military Government in Korea (USAMGIK 1945–48). He established control by restoring to power the key Japanese colonial administrators, but in the face of Korean protests he quickly reversed this decision. The USAMGIK refused to recognize the provisional government of the short-lived People's Republic of Korea (PRK) because it suspected it was communist.
What is the civil disobedience caused by the railroad worker's strike called?
5726298838643c19005ad215
the Autumn uprising
146
False
When was the Daegu Uprising?
5726298838643c19005ad216
1946
180
False
How many people attacked the Yeongcheon police station?
5726298838643c19005ad217
10,000
315
False
When did the Pusasn railroad strike begin?
5726298838643c19005ad218
23 September 1946
3
False
How did the USAMGIK respond to the uprisings?
5726298838643c19005ad219
declared martial law
514
False
On 23 September 1946, an 8,000-strong railroad worker strike began in Pusan. Civil disorder spread throughout the country in what became known as the Autumn uprising. On 1 October 1946, Korean police killed three students in the Daegu Uprising; protesters counter-attacked, killing 38 policemen. On 3 October, some 10,000 people attacked the Yeongcheon police station, killing three policemen and injuring some 40 more; elsewhere, some 20 landlords and pro-Japanese South Korean officials were killed. The USAMGIK declared martial law.
What did the Joint Commission's lack of progress cause the US government to do?
57262af9ec44d21400f3db81
hold an election
94
False
Why did the Korean Communists and the Soviets refuse to cooperate in the elections and creation of independent Korea?
57262af9ec44d21400f3db82
it would not be fair
274
False
When was the South Korean general election held?
57262af9ec44d21400f3db83
10 May 1948
393
False
What problems did the elections face?
57262af9ec44d21400f3db84
terrorism and sabotage
423
False
Who held parliamentary elections on August 25, 1948?
57262af9ec44d21400f3db85
North Korea
471
False
Citing the inability of the Joint Commission to make progress, the U.S. government decided to hold an election under United Nations auspices with the aim of creating an independent Korea. The Soviet authorities and the Korean Communists refused to co-operate on the grounds it would not be fair, and many South Korean politicians also boycotted it. A general election was held in the South on 10 May 1948. It was marred by terrorism and sabotage resulting in 600 deaths. North Korea held parliamentary elections three months later on 25 August.
When was South Korea's constitution created?
57262c8738643c19005ad29d
1948
95
False
Who was elected president of South Korea on July 20, 1948?
57262c8738643c19005ad29e
Syngman Rhee
113
False
What year was the Republic of Korea established?
57262c8738643c19005ad29f
1948
221
False
Who led the Russian Koran Zone of Occupation?
57262c8738643c19005ad2a0
Kim Il-sung
341
False
What two groups were excluded from the South Korean political process?
57262c8738643c19005ad2a1
communists and leftists
387
False
The resultant South Korean government promulgated a national political constitution on 17 July 1948, and elected Syngman Rhee as President on 20 July 1948. The Republic of Korea (South Korea) was established on 15 August 1948. In the Russian Korean Zone of Occupation, the Soviet Union established a Communist North Korean government led by Kim Il-sung. President Rhee's régime excluded communists and leftists from southern politics. Disenfranchised, they headed for the hills, to prepare for guerrilla war against the US-sponsored ROK Government.
Who supported the Chinese Communists during the civil war in Manchuria?
57262d6838643c19005ad2a7
North Korean government
219
False
What two groups were fighting in the Chinese Civil War?
57262d6838643c19005ad2a8
Chinese Communists and the Chinese Nationalists
78
False
What did the Chinese Communists want?
57262d6838643c19005ad2a9
supremacy in Manchuria
168
False
What army did North Koreans serve in during the civil war?
57262d6838643c19005ad2aa
Chinese People's Liberation Army
405
False
How much material did the North Koreans give to the Chinese communists?
57262d6838643c19005ad2ab
2,000 railway cars worth
327
False
With the end of the war with Japan, the Chinese Civil War resumed between the Chinese Communists and the Chinese Nationalists. While the Communists were struggling for supremacy in Manchuria, they were supported by the North Korean government with matériel and manpower. According to Chinese sources, the North Koreans donated 2,000 railway cars worth of matériel while thousands of Koreans served in the Chinese People's Liberation Army (PLA) during the war. North Korea also provided the Chinese Communists in Manchuria with a safe refuge for non-combatants and communications with the rest of China.
What country helped North Korea invade South Korea?
57262f14ec44d21400f3dbd1
China
357
False
When was the People's Republic of China created?
57262f14ec44d21400f3dbd2
1949
139
False
What caused a problem within the Korean Communist Party?
57262f14ec44d21400f3dbd3
Chinese support
448
False
Who led the faction that challenged Kim-Il-sung?
57262f14ec44d21400f3dbd4
Pak Il-yu
619
False
Who did China pledge to support if a conflict should occur between North and South Korea?
57262f14ec44d21400f3dbd5
the North Koreans
383
False
The North Korean contributions to the Chinese Communist victory were not forgotten after the creation of the People's Republic of China in 1949. As a token of gratitude, between 50,000 and 70,000 Korean veterans that served in the PLA were sent back along with their weapons, and they later played a significant role in the initial invasion of South Korea. China promised to support the North Koreans in the event of a war against South Korea. The Chinese support created a deep division between the Korean Communists, and Kim Il-sung's authority within the Communist party was challenged by the Chinese faction led by Pak Il-yu, who was later purged by Kim.
What country did China see as a threat to the People's Republic of China?
57263127ec44d21400f3dbf7
Western nations
96
False
Where was it believed that that fight against Communism would take place?
57263127ec44d21400f3dbf8
China
457
False
To show their strength in the international Communist movement, what did China do?
57263127ec44d21400f3dbf9
promoted Communist revolutions
704
False
Who did America support during the Chinese Civil War?
57263127ec44d21400f3dbfa
the Nationalists
300
False
After the formation of the People's Republic of China in 1949, the Chinese government named the Western nations, led by the United States, as the biggest threat to its national security. Basing this judgment on China's century of humiliation beginning in the early 19th century, American support for the Nationalists during the Chinese Civil War, and the ideological struggles between revolutionaries and reactionaries, the Chinese leadership believed that China would become a critical battleground in the United States' crusade against Communism. As a countermeasure and to elevate China's standing among the worldwide Communist movements, the Chinese leadership adopted a foreign policy that actively promoted Communist revolutions throughout territories on China's periphery.
When did the Soviets first detonate a nuclear bomb?
5726323e89a1e219009ac54a
1949
133
False
What treaty did Stalin and China enter into?
5726323e89a1e219009ac54b
Sino–Soviet Friendship, Alliance, and Mutual Assistance Treaty
785
False
What country did not prevent a Communist victory in China?
5726323e89a1e219009ac54c
US
480
False
Who was convinced that the US did was no longer interested in Korea?
5726323e89a1e219009ac54d
Stalin
266
False
Where did Stalin engage in an aggressive political strategy?
5726323e89a1e219009ac54e
Asia
684
False
By spring 1950, Stalin believed the strategic situation had changed. The Soviets had detonated their first nuclear bomb in September 1949; American soldiers had fully withdrawn from Korea; the Americans had not intervened to stop the communist victory in China, and Stalin calculated that the Americans would be even less willing to fight in Korea—which had seemingly much less strategic significance. The Soviets had also cracked the codes used by the US to communicate with the US embassy in Moscow, and reading these dispatches convinced Stalin that Korea did not have the importance to the US that would warrant a nuclear confrontation. Stalin began a more aggressive strategy in Asia based on these developments, including promising economic and military aid to China through the Sino–Soviet Friendship, Alliance, and Mutual Assistance Treaty.
Who had to agree to send reinforcements for Stalin to give permission for the invasion of Korea?
5726833add62a815002e87d0
Mao
296
False
Who did the Soviets not want to engage in conflict?
5726833add62a815002e87d1
the Americans
251
False
What concern did Mao have about the South Korean invasion?
5726833add62a815002e87d2
the Americans would intervene
319
False
Who needed Soviet financial and military aid?
5726833add62a815002e87d3
China
398
False
What did Mao's assistance allow North Korea to accelerate?
5726833add62a815002e87d4
preparations for war
732
False
In April 1950, Stalin gave Kim permission to invade the South under the condition that Mao would agree to send reinforcements if they became needed. Stalin made it clear that Soviet forces would not openly engage in combat, to avoid a direct war with the Americans. Kim met with Mao in May 1950. Mao was concerned that the Americans would intervene but agreed to support the North Korean invasion. China desperately needed the economic and military aid promised by the Soviets. At that time, the Chinese were in the process of demobilizing half of the PLA's 5.6 million soldiers. However, Mao sent more ethnic Korean PLA veterans to Korea and promised to move an army closer to the Korean border. Once Mao's commitment was secured, preparations for war accelerated.
Who did the Soviets send to North Korea?
57268408708984140094c89d
Soviet generals
0
False
Where did the conflict in South Korea begin?
57268408708984140094c89e
Ongjin Peninsula
252
False
What were the generals sent to North Korea collectively called?
57268408708984140094c89f
the Soviet Advisory Group
103
False
When did the generals finalize their attack strategy?
57268408708984140094c8a0
May
183
False
Soviet generals with extensive combat experience from the Second World War were sent to North Korea as the Soviet Advisory Group. These generals completed the plans for the attack by May. The original plans called for a skirmish to be initiated in the Ongjin Peninsula on the west coast of Korea. The North Koreans would then launch a "counterattack" that would capture Seoul and encircle and destroy the South Korean army. The final stage would involve destroying South Korean government remnants, capturing the rest of South Korea, including the ports.
Who called for Korean elections in 1950?
572686005951b619008f7585
Kim Il-sung
16
False
Who rejected the peace gesture?
572686005951b619008f7586
Rhee
221
False
What did Kim Il-Sung do after the peace overture was rejected?
572686005951b619008f7587
revised his war plan
260
False
Why did Kim's war plan need revising?
572686005951b619008f7588
South Korean agents had learned about the plans
413
False
When did Kim Il-Sung call for the Haeju conference?
572686005951b619008f7589
1950
133
False
On 7 June 1950, Kim Il-sung called for a Korea-wide election on 5–8 August 1950 and a consultative conference in Haeju on 15–17 June 1950. On 11 June, the North sent three diplomats to the South, as a peace overture that Rhee rejected. On 21 June, Kim Il-Sung revised his war plan to involve general attack across the 38th parallel, rather than a limited operation in the Ongjin peninsula. Kim was concerned that South Korean agents had learned about the plans and South Korean forces were strengthening their defenses. Stalin agreed to this change of plan.
Who primarily initiated the clashes along the 38th parallel?
572686d25951b619008f75b3
the South
158
False
What group trained the Republic of Korea army?
572686d25951b619008f75b4
U.S. Korean Military Advisory Group
232
False
What general had a lot of confidence in the Republic of Korea's army?
572686d25951b619008f75b5
General William Lynn Roberts
312
False
Who wanted to take over North Korea?
572686d25951b619008f75b6
Syngman Rhee
479
False
Who was the diplomat that visited Korea?
572686d25951b619008f75b7
John Foster Dulles
579
False
While these preparations were underway in the North, there were frequent clashes along the 38th parallel, especially at Kaesong and Ongjin, many initiated by the South. The Republic of Korea Army (ROK Army) was being trained by the U.S. Korean Military Advisory Group (KMAG). On the eve of war, KMAG's commander General William Lynn Roberts voiced utmost confidence in the ROK Army and boasted that any North Korean invasion would merely provide "target practice". For his part, Syngman Rhee repeatedly expressed his desire to conquer the North, including when American diplomat John Foster Dulles visited Korea on 18 June.
Who provoked a conflict by crossing the 38th parallel?
5726884cf1498d1400e8e2f2
Korean People's Army
37
False
Where did the fighting begin?
5726884cf1498d1400e8e2f3
Ongjin peninsula
303
False
Who claimed to have taken control of Haeju?
5726884cf1498d1400e8e2f4
the South Koreans
478
False
Who questioned the claim that South Korean did not provoke the KPA?
5726884cf1498d1400e8e2f5
scholars
455
False
Who was the Korean People's Army trying to execute?
5726884cf1498d1400e8e2f6
Syngman Rhee
256
False
At dawn on Sunday, 25 June 1950, the Korean People's Army crossed the 38th parallel behind artillery fire. The KPA justified its assault with the claim that ROK troops had attacked first, and that they were aiming to arrest and execute the "bandit traitor Syngman Rhee". Fighting began on the strategic Ongjin peninsula in the west. There were initial South Korean claims that they had captured the city of Haeju, and this sequence of events has led some scholars to argue that the South Koreans actually fired first.
Who, along with members of the South Korean government, fled South Korea?
57268a0ff1498d1400e8e332
Rhee
12
False
What bridge were refugees attempting to cross when it was blown up by the South Korean Army?
57268a0ff1498d1400e8e333
Han River
148
False
How many South Korean National Assemblyman pledged their allegiance to Seoul?
57268a0ff1498d1400e8e334
forty-eight
538
False
What did South Korea do to cause members of the South Korean military unit to become trapped near the Han River?
57268a0ff1498d1400e8e335
blew up the highway bridge
110
False
What day was the city of Seoul captured?
57268a0ff1498d1400e8e336
28 June
70
False
On 27 June, Rhee evacuated from Seoul with some of the government. On 28 June, at 2 am, the South Korean Army blew up the highway bridge across the Han River in an attempt to stop the North Korean army. The bridge was detonated while 4,000 refugees were crossing the bridge, and hundreds were killed. Destroying the bridge also trapped many South Korean military units north of the Han River. In spite of such desperate measures, Seoul fell that same day. A number of South Korean National Assemblymen remained in Seoul when it fell, and forty-eight subsequently pledged allegiance to the North.
What country was believed to provide a counterbalance to China's and the Soviet Union's involvement in Korea?
57268bee5951b619008f764f
Japan
368
False
Which President decided to intervene after realizing that Japan's security would be affected by the hostility in Korea?
57268bee5951b619008f7650
President Truman
514
False
Why was South Korea important to the US?
57268bee5951b619008f7651
US policy toward Japan
669
False
What affected America's response to the situation in South Korea?
57268bee5951b619008f7652
US policy toward Japan
669
False
One facet of the changing attitude toward Korea and whether to get involved was Japan. Especially after the fall of China to the Communists, U.S. East Asian experts saw Japan as the critical counterweight to the Soviet Union and China in the region. While there was no United States policy that dealt with South Korea directly as a national interest, its proximity to Japan increased the importance of South Korea. Said Kim: "The recognition that the security of Japan required a non-hostile Korea led directly to President Truman's decision to intervene... The essential point... is that the American response to the North Korean attack stemmed from considerations of US policy toward Japan."
What was the Truman administration concerned about that was preventing them from getting involved in the Korean conflict?
57268e98708984140094c9ff
Soviet reaction
39
False
What agency approved the use of force in South Korea?
57268e98708984140094ca00
The UN Security Council
820
False
Why did the US not send in ground troops after the United Nations approved the use of force?
57268e98708984140094ca01
advisers believed the North Koreans could be stopped by air and naval power
1070
False
Who believed that if the issues in Korea were not dealt with the communist aggression would spread?
57268e98708984140094ca02
Truman
651
False
What resources did the US devote to South Korea after the Security Council approved engaging in an armed conflict?
57268e98708984140094ca03
air and naval forces
936
False
A major consideration was the possible Soviet reaction in the event that the US intervened. The Truman administration was fretful that a war in Korea was a diversionary assault that would escalate to a general war in Europe once the United States committed in Korea. At the same time, "[t]here was no suggestion from anyone that the United Nations or the United States could back away from [the conflict]". Yugoslavia–a possible Soviet target because of the Tito-Stalin Split—was vital to the defense of Italy and Greece, and the country was first on the list of the National Security Council's post-North Korea invasion list of "chief danger spots". Truman believed if aggression went unchecked a chain reaction would be initiated that would marginalize the United Nations and encourage Communist aggression elsewhere. The UN Security Council approved the use of force to help the South Koreans and the US immediately began using what air and naval forces that were in the area to that end. The Administration still refrained from committing on the ground because some advisers believed the North Koreans could be stopped by air and naval power alone.
Who condemned the actions of North Korea?
57269034708984140094ca45
United Nations Security Council
21
False
Which permanent member of the UN Security Council boycotted council meetings in protest of Taiwan's seat in the United Nations?
57269034708984140094ca46
Soviet Union
171
False
What resolution encouraged Security Council Members to send military assistance to the Republic of Korea?
57269034708984140094ca47
Resolution 83
473
False
Who accused the United States of beginning an armed intervention in South Korea?
57269034708984140094ca48
the Soviet Deputy Foreign Minister
671
False
What did UN Security Council Resolution 82 accomplish?
57269034708984140094ca49
condemned the North Korean invasion of the Republic of Korea
65
False
On 25 June 1950, the United Nations Security Council unanimously condemned the North Korean invasion of the Republic of Korea, with UN Security Council Resolution 82. The Soviet Union, a veto-wielding power, had boycotted the Council meetings since January 1950, protesting that the Republic of China (Taiwan), not the People's Republic of China, held a permanent seat in the UN Security Council. After debating the matter, the Security Council, on 27 June 1950, published Resolution 83 recommending member states provide military assistance to the Republic of Korea. On 27 June President Truman ordered U.S. air and sea forces to help the South Korean regime. On 4 July the Soviet Deputy Foreign Minister accused the United States of starting armed intervention on behalf of South Korea.
What country challenged the legitimacy of the Korean War?
572692c45951b619008f7713
Soviet Union
4
False
Where did the intelligence information that led to the passage of Resolution 83 come from?
572692c45951b619008f7714
U.S. Intelligence
146
False
What type of vote is required for the Security Council to commit to military action in Korea.
572692c45951b619008f7715
unanimous vote
559
False
How many permanent members did the UN Security Council have?
572692c45951b619008f7716
five
581
False
What charter did the US believe was violated by intervening in the Korean conflict?
572692c45951b619008f7717
UN Charter Article 32
249
False
The Soviet Union challenged the legitimacy of the war for several reasons. The ROK Army intelligence upon which Resolution 83 was based came from U.S. Intelligence; North Korea was not invited as a sitting temporary member of the UN, which violated UN Charter Article 32; and the Korean conflict was beyond the UN Charter's scope, because the initial north–south border fighting was classed as a civil war. Because the Soviet Union was boycotting the Security Council at the time, legal scholars posited that deciding upon an action of this type required the unanimous vote of the five permanent members.
How many infantry divisions did N. Korea have engaged in the war?
572693ee5951b619008f7739
10
93
False
What was the maximum number of North Korean troops engaged in the war?
572693ee5951b619008f773a
200,000
62
False
How many reserve soldiers did North Korea have?
572693ee5951b619008f773b
30,000
573
False
What type of naval ships did the South and North Koreans have?
572693ee5951b619008f773c
small warships
671
False
By mid-1950, North Korean forces numbered between 150,000 and 200,000 troops, organized into 10 infantry divisions, one tank division, and one air force division, with 210 fighter planes and 280 tanks, who captured scheduled objectives and territory, among them Kaesong, Chuncheon, Uijeongbu, and Ongjin. Their forces included 274 T-34-85 tanks, 200 artillery pieces, 110 attack bombers, some 150 Yak fighter planes, 78 Yak trainers, and 35 reconnaissance aircraft. In addition to the invasion force, the North KPA had 114 fighters, 78 bombers, 105 T-34-85 tanks, and some 30,000 soldiers stationed in reserve in North Korea. Although each navy consisted of only several small warships, the North and South Korean navies fought in the war as sea-borne artillery for their in-country armies.
What was the problem with the ROK Army?
572695b3708984140094caf5
Army defenders were relatively unprepared and ill-equipped
21
False
Who declined the ROK's request for tanks?
572695b3708984140094caf6
U.S. military
320
False
In what country did the US maintain air forces and garrisons?
572695b3708984140094caf7
Japan
592
False
Who reported that South Korea's military was not ready for combat?
572695b3708984140094caf8
R.E. Appleman
132
False
In contrast, the ROK Army defenders were relatively unprepared and ill-equipped. In South to the Naktong, North to the Yalu (1961), R.E. Appleman reports the ROK forces' low combat readiness as of 25 June 1950. The ROK Army had 98,000 soldiers (65,000 combat, 33,000 support), no tanks (they had been requested from the U.S. military, but requests were denied), and a 22-piece air force comprising 12 liaison-type and 10 AT6 advanced-trainer airplanes. There were no large foreign military garrisons in Korea at the time of the invasion, but there were large U.S. garrisons and air forces in Japan.
Which Secretary of State did President Truman hold discussions about how the US would respond to the invasion of South Korea?
57269781708984140094cb25
Dean Acheson
51
False
The North Korean invasion of South Korea was compared to what event?
57269781708984140094cb26
Adolf Hitler's aggressions
291
False
What did the US not want to see repeated?
57269781708984140094cb27
the mistake of appeasement
363
False
The US involvement in the Korean War was important to achieving what goal?
57269781708984140094cb28
the global containment of communism
716
False
What report discussed the United States's goals for containing communism?
57269781708984140094cb29
National Security Council Report 68
771
False
On Saturday, 24 June 1950, U.S. Secretary of State Dean Acheson informed President Truman that the North Koreans had invaded South Korea. Truman and Acheson discussed a U.S. invasion response and agreed that the United States was obligated to act, paralleling the North Korean invasion with Adolf Hitler's aggressions in the 1930s, with the conclusion being that the mistake of appeasement must not be repeated. Several U.S. industries were mobilized to supply materials, labor, capital, production facilities, and other services necessary to support the military objectives of the Korean War. However, President Truman later acknowledged that he believed fighting the invasion was essential to the American goal of the global containment of communism as outlined in the National Security Council Report 68 (NSC-68) (declassified in 1975):
Why was the US naval blockade not feasible?
5726993bdd62a815002e8aa8
U.S. Navy no longer had the warships
165
False
Why was the US not able to provide an adequate response to the Korean invasion?
5726993bdd62a815002e8aa9
defense budget cutbacks
673
False
Who was tasked with reorganization and deploying of the US military?
5726993bdd62a815002e8aaa
General Omar Bradley
449
False
Who was forced to retreat back to the Pusan Peninsula due to unpreparedness?
5726993bdd62a815002e8aab
American troops
722
False
Who stated that winning the war does not excuse putting US troops into a bad situation?
5726993bdd62a815002e8aac
Major General Floyd L. Parks
1022
False
As an initial response, Truman called for a naval blockade of North Korea, and was shocked to learn that such a blockade could be imposed only 'on paper', since the U.S. Navy no longer had the warships with which to carry out his request. In fact, because of the extensive defense cuts and the emphasis placed on building a nuclear bomber force, none of the services were in a position to make a robust response with conventional military strength. General Omar Bradley, Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff, was faced with re-organizing and deploying an American military force that was a shadow of its World War II counterpart. The impact of the Truman administration's defense budget cutbacks were now keenly felt, as American troops fought a series of costly rearguard actions. Lacking sufficient anti-tank weapons, artillery or armor, they were driven back down the Korean peninsula to Pusan. In a postwar analysis of the unpreparedness of U.S. Army forces deployed to Korea during the summer and fall of 1950, Army Major General Floyd L. Parks stated that "Many who never lived to tell the tale had to fight the full range of ground warfare from offensive to delaying action, unit by unit, man by man ... [T]hat we were able to snatch victory from the jaws of defeat ... does not relieve us from the blame of having placed our own flesh and blood in such a predicament."
What general provided material to the Republic of Korea and evacuated US nationals?
57269adedd62a815002e8ad6
General MacArthur
77
False
Who disagreed with the idea of unilaterally bombing the North Korean military?
57269adedd62a815002e8ad7
President Truman
52
False
What fleet was sent to the Taiwan Strait?
57269adedd62a815002e8ad8
US Seventh Fleet
335
False
Fearing the provocation of Communist China, what country's request for combat troops did the US deny?
57269adedd62a815002e8ad9
Republic of China
367
False
Who is the Chinese premier that called the actions of the US and the United Nations an act of aggression?
57269adedd62a815002e8ada
Zhou Enlai
641
False
Acting on State Secretary Acheson's recommendation, President Truman ordered General MacArthur to transfer matériel to the Army of the Republic of Korea while giving air cover to the evacuation of U.S. nationals. The President disagreed with advisers who recommended unilateral U.S. bombing of the North Korean forces, and ordered the US Seventh Fleet to protect the Republic of China (Taiwan), whose government asked to fight in Korea. The United States denied ROC's request for combat, lest it provoke a communist Chinese retaliation. Because the United States had sent the Seventh Fleet to "neutralize" the Taiwan Strait, Chinese premier Zhou Enlai criticized both the UN and U.S. initiatives as "armed aggression on Chinese territory."
What battle is considered the US's first significant fight in the Korean War?
57269c875951b619008f77c7
Battle of Osan
4
False
Which infantry division was involved in the Battle of Osan?
57269c875951b619008f77c8
24th Infantry Division
165
False
Where was the 24th Division forced to retreat to what location?
57269c875951b619008f77c9
Taejeon
570
False
At what Battle did the 24th Infantry Division suffer major losses?
57269c875951b619008f77ca
Battle of Taejon
609
False
In what country is the US's Task Force Smith located?
57269c875951b619008f77cb
Japan
217
False
The Battle of Osan, the first significant American engagement of the Korean War, involved the 540-soldier Task Force Smith, which was a small forward element of the 24th Infantry Division which had been flown in from Japan. On 5 July 1950, Task Force Smith attacked the North Koreans at Osan but without weapons capable of destroying the North Koreans' tanks. They were unsuccessful; the result was 180 dead, wounded, or taken prisoner. The KPA progressed southwards, pushing back the US force at Pyongtaek, Chonan, and Chochiwon, forcing the 24th Division's retreat to Taejeon, which the KPA captured in the Battle of Taejon; the 24th Division suffered 3,602 dead and wounded and 2,962 captured, including the Division's Commander, Major General William F. Dean.
How did the KPA hurt the Republic of Korea's intellectual core?
57269eab708984140094cbeb
by killing civil servants and intellectuals
209
False
Who was held responsible for the actions of the KPA?
57269eab708984140094cbec
Kim Il-sung
313
False
Where did the Eighth United States and ROK get pushed back to?
57269eab708984140094cbed
southeast Korea
110
False
What body of water provided a natural border to the UN command-controlled Pusan perimeter?
57269eab708984140094cbee
Nakdong River
501
False
How much of Korea was under the control of the United Nations?
57269eab708984140094cbef
10%
452
False
By August, the KPA had pushed back the ROK Army and the Eighth United States Army to the vicinity of Pusan in southeast Korea. In their southward advance, the KPA purged the Republic of Korea's intelligentsia by killing civil servants and intellectuals. On 20 August, General MacArthur warned North Korean leader Kim Il-sung that he was responsible for the KPA's atrocities. By September, the UN Command controlled the Pusan perimeter, enclosing about 10% of Korea, in a line partially defined by the Nakdong River.
Why did Zhou Enlai want a commitment the Soviet Union to commit to supporting the Chinese troops?
5726b8a5f1498d1400e8e8de
To counter a possible U.S. deployment
141
False
Where did North Korea predict that MacArthur would enter Korea?
5726b8a5f1498d1400e8e8df
Incheon
613
False
Who helped North Korea prepare for war by surveying the country?
5726b8a5f1498d1400e8e8e0
Chai Chengwen
384
False
Where did the Chinese military deploy troops in preparation for the arrival of US troops?
5726b8a5f1498d1400e8e8e1
the Korean border
823
False
Even though it was predicted that the Korean War would end in August, who was less than optimistic about the prediction?
5726b8a5f1498d1400e8e8e2
Chinese leaders
102
False
Although Kim's early successes had led him to predict that he would end the war by the end of August, Chinese leaders were more pessimistic. To counter a possible U.S. deployment, Zhou Enlai secured a Soviet commitment to have the Soviet Union support Chinese forces with air cover, and deployed 260,000 soldiers along the Korean border, under the command of Gao Gang. Zhou commanded Chai Chengwen to conduct a topographical survey of Korea, and directed Lei Yingfu, Zhou's military advisor in Korea, to analyze the military situation in Korea. Lei concluded that MacArthur would most likely attempt a landing at Incheon. After conferring with Mao that this would be MacArthur's most likely strategy, Zhou briefed Soviet and North Korean advisers of Lei's findings, and issued orders to Chinese army commanders deployed on the Korean border to prepare for American naval activity in the Korea Strait.
Which army was trying to capture Teague and the Naktong Bulge?
5726bbb5f1498d1400e8e958
KPA
443
False
What did the US Air Force's daytime attacks cause the KPA to do?
5726bbb5f1498d1400e8e959
to hide in tunnels by day and move only at night
369
False
Why did the Soviet Union complain about the action of the US to the UN Security Council?
5726bbb5f1498d1400e8e95a
aircraft mistakenly attacked facilities in Chinese territory
692
False
Along with India, what other nation was to determine the how much the US would have to compensate China?
5726bbb5f1498d1400e8e95b
Sweden
905
False
Why did India and Sweden never determine how much the US would compensate China?
5726bbb5f1498d1400e8e95c
the Soviets vetoed the US proposal
965
False
In the resulting Battle of Pusan Perimeter (August–September 1950), the U.S. Army withstood KPA attacks meant to capture the city at the Naktong Bulge, P'ohang-dong, and Taegu. The United States Air Force (USAF) interrupted KPA logistics with 40 daily ground support sorties that destroyed 32 bridges, halting most daytime road and rail traffic. KPA forces were forced to hide in tunnels by day and move only at night. To deny matériel to the KPA, the USAF destroyed logistics depots, petroleum refineries, and harbors, while the U.S. Navy air forces attacked transport hubs. Consequently, the over-extended KPA could not be supplied throughout the south. On 27 August, 67th Fighter Squadron aircraft mistakenly attacked facilities in Chinese territory and the Soviet Union called the UN Security Council's attention to China's complaint about the incident. The US proposed that a commission of India and Sweden determine what the US should pay in compensation but the Soviets vetoed the US proposal.
Where in the United States was the tank battalion located?
5726bcb2708984140094cfb5
San Francisco
210
False
What is Korea's largest port?
5726bcb2708984140094cfb6
the port of Pusan
227
False
Besides the United States, what other country sent military personnel to Korea?
5726bcb2708984140094cfb7
Japan
29
False
Who had the fewest number of troops in Korea?
5726bcb2708984140094cfb8
KPA
419
False
Who was able to counterattack and move the KPA away from the Pusan Perimeter?
5726bcb2708984140094cfb9
UN forces
456
False
Meanwhile, U.S. garrisons in Japan continually dispatched soldiers and matériel to reinforce defenders in the Pusan Perimeter. Tank battalions deployed to Korea directly from the U.S. mainland from the port of San Francisco to the port of Pusan, the largest Korean port. By late August, the Pusan Perimeter had some 500 medium tanks battle-ready. In early September 1950, ROK Army and UN Command forces outnumbered the KPA 180,000 to 100,000 soldiers. The UN forces, once prepared, counterattacked and broke out of the Pusan Perimeter.
Why did General MacArthur suggest an amphibious landing at Inchon?
5726be03f1498d1400e8e9d4
To relieve the Pusan Perimeter
188
False
Who did General MacArthur ask to plan the amphibious attack?
5726be03f1498d1400e8e9d5
Major General Hobart R. Gay
394
False
Where did the 1st Infantry deploy from?
5726be04f1498d1400e8e9d6
Yokohama, Japan
564
False
Why were KPA forces unable to adequately defend themselves against UN forces?
5726be04f1498d1400e8e9d7
the KPA were undermanned and poorly supplied
84
False
Against the rested and re-armed Pusan Perimeter defenders and their reinforcements, the KPA were undermanned and poorly supplied; unlike the UN Command, they lacked naval and air support. To relieve the Pusan Perimeter, General MacArthur recommended an amphibious landing at Inchon (now known as Incheon), near Seoul and well over 100 miles (160 km) behind the KPA lines. On 6 July, he ordered Major General Hobart R. Gay, Commander, 1st Cavalry Division, to plan the division's amphibious landing at Incheon; on 12–14 July, the 1st Cavalry Division embarked from Yokohama, Japan to reinforce the 24th Infantry Division inside the Pusan Perimeter.
Who initially opposed General MacArthur's landing plan?
5726bee85951b619008f7ce3
the Pentagon
89
False
What Corps included 40,000 men from the 1st Marine Division?
5726bee85951b619008f7ce4
The X Corps
204
False
Who coordinated the efforts of the ROK Army, Marine Corps and the US Army to stage a successful battle?
5726bee85951b619008f7ce5
General Edward Almond
224
False
Soon after the war began, General MacArthur had begun planning a landing at Incheon, but the Pentagon opposed him. When authorized, he activated a combined U.S. Army and Marine Corps, and ROK Army force. The X Corps, led by General Edward Almond, Commander, consisted of 40,000 men of the 1st Marine Division, the 7th Infantry Division and around 8,600 ROK Army soldiers. By 15 September, the amphibious assault force faced few KPA defenders at Incheon: military intelligence, psychological warfare, guerrilla reconnaissance, and protracted bombardment facilitated a relatively light battle. However, the bombardment destroyed most of the city of Incheon.
Whose nickname was 'Task Force Lynch'?
5726bf89f1498d1400e8ea22
Lieutenant Colonel James H. Lynch
132
False
What was the 106 mile push through enemy territory called?
5726bf89f1498d1400e8ea23
the "Pusan Perimeter Breakout"
310
False
Who was defeated near Seoul, Korea?
5726bf89f1498d1400e8ea24
the KPA
463
False
After the Incheon landing, the 1st Cavalry Division began its northward advance from the Pusan Perimeter. "Task Force Lynch" (after Lieutenant Colonel James H. Lynch), 3rd Battalion, 7th Cavalry Regiment, and two 70th Tank Battalion units (Charlie Company and the Intelligence–Reconnaissance Platoon) effected the "Pusan Perimeter Breakout" through 106.4 miles (171.2 km) of enemy territory to join the 7th Infantry Division at Osan. The X Corps rapidly defeated the KPA defenders around Seoul, thus threatening to trap the main KPA force in Southern Korea.
Who was sent to Korea to act as an advisor to Kim Il-Sung?
5726c1e5f1498d1400e8ea60
General H. M. Zakharov
35
False
Why did Kim Il-Sung redeploy his military troops?
5726c1e5f1498d1400e8ea61
to defend Seoul
165
False
Who was not being briefed on the operational plans or the number of troops in combat?
5726c1e5f1498d1400e8ea62
Chinese commanders
182
False
When was it advised for North Koreans to attempt to defeat the opposing forces at Inchon?
5726c1e5f1498d1400e8ea63
if they had reserves of at least 100,000 men
418
False
On 18 September, Stalin dispatched General H. M. Zakharov to Korea to advise Kim Il-sung to halt his offensive around the Pusan perimeter and to redeploy his forces to defend Seoul. Chinese commanders were not briefed on North Korean troop numbers or operational plans. As the overall commander of Chinese forces, Zhou Enlai suggested that the North Koreans should attempt to eliminate the enemy forces at Inchon only if they had reserves of at least 100,000 men; otherwise, he advised the North Koreans to withdraw their forces north.
What emergency session was called by Stalin?
5726c303f1498d1400e8ea86
Politburo
459
False
How many troops made it back to the KPA lines after retreating?
5726c303f1498d1400e8ea87
25,000 to 30,000
330
False
Who was held responsible for the defeat of North Korean troops?
5726c303f1498d1400e8ea88
Soviet military advisers
537
False
Who reclaimed the Seoul?
5726c303f1498d1400e8ea89
South Korean forces.
41
False
What city was left vulnerable by North Korea's quick retreat?
5726c303f1498d1400e8ea8a
Pyongyang
276
False
On 25 September, Seoul was recaptured by South Korean forces. American air raids caused heavy damage to the KPA, destroying most of its tanks and much of its artillery. North Korean troops in the south, instead of effectively withdrawing north, rapidly disintegrated, leaving Pyongyang vulnerable. During the general retreat only 25,000 to 30,000 soldiers managed to rejoin the Northern KPA lines. On 27 September, Stalin convened an emergency session of the Politburo, in which he condemned the incompetence of the KPA command and held Soviet military advisers responsible for the defeat.
What memorandum stated the circumstances for engaging in conflict above the 38th parallel?
5726c47d708984140094d0e1
National Security Council Memorandum 81/1
51
False
Who controlled the newly restored government of the Republic of Korea?
5726c47d708984140094d0e2
Syngman Rhee
469
False
Who sent a message to MacArthur giving him the authority to proceed past the 38th parallel?
5726c47d708984140094d0e3
Defense Secretary George Marshall
500
False
Who executed people who were believed to be loyal to North Korea?
5726c47d708984140094d0e4
ROK police
695
False
What year did the executions stop?
5726c47d708984140094d0e5
1951
826
False
On 27 September, MacArthur received the top secret National Security Council Memorandum 81/1 from Truman reminding him that operations north of the 38th parallel were authorized only if "at the time of such operation there was no entry into North Korea by major Soviet or Chinese Communist forces, no announcements of intended entry, nor a threat to counter our operations militarily..." On 29 September MacArthur restored the government of the Republic of Korea under Syngman Rhee. On 30 September, Defense Secretary George Marshall sent an eyes-only message to MacArthur: "We want you to feel unhampered tactically and strategically to proceed north of the 38th parallel." During October, the ROK police executed people who were suspected to be sympathetic to North Korea, and similar massacres were carried out until early 1951.
Who vowed to intervene if the US was to engage in conflict North of the 38th parallel?
5726c5e45951b619008f7daf
China
58
False
The tactics Zhou Enlai advised the North Koreans to use during their withdrawal was the same the Chinese used to escape event?
5726c5e45951b619008f7db0
Chiang Kai-shek's Encirclement Campaigns
327
False
Who believes that the North Koreans only appeared to fail to effective execute their withdrawal plan?
5726c5e45951b619008f7db1
Bruce Cumings
480
False
What may have been North Korea's goal in the way they rapidly withdrew from South Korea?
5726c5e45951b619008f7db2
launch guerrilla raids
614
False
Who's control did the Chinese Communists escape in the 1930's?
5726c5e45951b619008f7db3
Chiang Kai-shek
327
False
On 30 September, Zhou Enlai warned the United States that China was prepared to intervene in Korea if the United States crossed the 38th parallel. Zhou attempted to advise North Korean commanders on how to conduct a general withdrawal by using the same tactics which had allowed Chinese communist forces to successfully escape Chiang Kai-shek's Encirclement Campaigns in the 1930s, but by some accounts North Korean commanders did not utilize these tactics effectively. Historian Bruce Cumings argues, however, the KPA's rapid withdrawal was strategic, with troops melting into the mountains from where they could launch guerrilla raids on the UN forces spread out on the coasts.
Who issued a statement calling for North Korea's unconditional surrender?
5726c83fdd62a815002e9010
MacArthur
137
False
Who authorized giving troops the ability to follow the North Korean forces north?
5726c83fdd62a815002e9011
the UN
262
False
How did the 187 Airborne Regimental Combat Team prevent North Korean leaders from fleeing?
5726c83fdd62a815002e9012
cut the road north going to China
780
False
How many North Korean prisoners of war were held by UN forces?
5726c83fdd62a815002e9013
135,000
949
False
By 1 October 1950, the UN Command repelled the KPA northwards past the 38th parallel; the ROK Army crossed after them, into North Korea. MacArthur made a statement demanding the KPA's unconditional surrender. Six days later, on 7 October, with UN authorization, the UN Command forces followed the ROK forces northwards. The X Corps landed at Wonsan (in southeastern North Korea) and Riwon (in northeastern North Korea), already captured by ROK forces. The Eighth U.S. Army and the ROK Army drove up western Korea and captured Pyongyang city, the North Korean capital, on 19 October 1950. The 187th Airborne Regimental Combat Team ("Rakkasans") made their first of two combat jumps during the Korean War on 20 October 1950 at Sunchon and Sukchon. The missions of the 187th were to cut the road north going to China, preventing North Korean leaders from escaping from Pyongyang; and to rescue American prisoners of war. At month's end, UN forces held 135,000 KPA prisoners of war. As they neared the Sino-Korean border, the UN forces in the west were divided from those in the east by 50–100 miles of mountainous terrain.
What did President Truman do to prevent hostilities between the People's Republic of China and Taiwan?
5726c9c25951b619008f7e1f
dispatched the United States Seventh Fleet to the Taiwan Strait
118
False
What year did China decide to enter the war?
5726c9c25951b619008f7e20
1950
311
False
What provoked China to join the war?
5726c9c25951b619008f7e21
American aggression in the guise of the UN
605
False
Where did Mao Zedong declare that he would intervene in the Korean conflict?
5726c9c25951b619008f7e22
the Politburo
381
False
On 27 June 1950, two days after the KPA invaded and three months before the Chinese entered the war, President Truman dispatched the United States Seventh Fleet to the Taiwan Strait, to prevent hostilities between the Nationalist Republic of China (Taiwan) and the People's Republic of China (PRC). On 4 August 1950, with the PRC invasion of Taiwan aborted, Mao Zedong reported to the Politburo that he would intervene in Korea when the People's Liberation Army's (PLA) Taiwan invasion force was reorganized into the PLA North East Frontier Force. China justified its entry into the war as a response to "American aggression in the guise of the UN".
What was discussed at the emergency talks held by Chinese leaders?
5726cc17708984140094d19b
whether to send Chinese troops into Korea
88
False
Who was a proponent for intervening in Korea?
5726cc17708984140094d19c
Mao
254
False
Who was Lin Biao replaced with when he declined to lead the Chinese troops in Korea?
5726cc17708984140094d19d
Peng Dehuai
498
False
Who convinced the Chinese leaders who were against entering the war that it was a good idea?
5726cc17708984140094d19e
Peng
624
False
What did Mao Zedong's reinvented PLA North East Frontier Force become?
5726cc17708984140094d19f
People's Volunteer Army
1114
False
In a series of emergency meetings that lasted from 2–5 October, Chinese leaders debated whether to send Chinese troops into Korea. There was considerable resistance among many leaders, including senior military leaders, to confronting the U.S. in Korea. Mao strongly supported intervention, and Zhou was one of the few Chinese leaders who firmly supported him. After Lin Biao politely refused Mao's offer to command Chinese forces in Korea (citing his upcoming medical treatment), Mao decided that Peng Dehuai would be the commander of the Chinese forces in Korea after Peng agreed to support Mao's position. Mao then asked Peng to speak in favor of intervention to the rest of the Chinese leaders. After Peng made the case that if U.S. troops conquered Korea and reached the Yalu they might cross it and invade China the Politburo agreed to intervene in Korea. Later, the Chinese claimed that US bombers had violated PRC national airspace on three separate occasions and attacked Chinese targets before China intervened. On 8 October 1950, Mao Zedong redesignated the PLA North East Frontier Force as the Chinese People's Volunteer Army (PVA).
Where did Zhou travel with a Chinese delegation to convince Stalin to support China?
5726cdc6708984140094d1cb
the Black Sea
171
False
How long did the Soviet air force need to prepare to assist
5726cdc6708984140094d1cc
two or three months
463
False
Where did Stalin say he would allow the Soviet air force to operate for a limited amount of time?
5726cdc6708984140094d1cd
Chinese airspace
673
False
When did Stalin agree to send China any type of support?
5726cdc6708984140094d1ce
March 1951
813
False
Where did the fighting take place that rendered Soviet air support useless to the Chinese?
5726cdc6708984140094d1cf
the south side of the Yalu
923
False
In order to enlist Stalin's support, Zhou and a Chinese delegation left for Moscow on 8 October, arriving there on 10 October at which point they flew to Stalin's home at the Black Sea. There they conferred with the top Soviet leadership which included Joseph Stalin as well as Vyacheslav Molotov, Lavrentiy Beria and Georgi Malenkov. Stalin initially agreed to send military equipment and ammunition, but warned Zhou that the Soviet Union's air force would need two or three months to prepare any operations. In a subsequent meeting, Stalin told Zhou that he would only provide China with equipment on a credit basis, and that the Soviet air force would only operate over Chinese airspace, and only after an undisclosed period of time. Stalin did not agree to send either military equipment or air support until March 1951. Mao did not find Soviet air support especially useful, as the fighting was going to take place on the south side of the Yalu. Soviet shipments of matériel, when they did arrive, were limited to small quantities of trucks, grenades, machine guns, and the like.
What made seeing the PVA units difficult during the day?
5726d01c5951b619008f7eb7
their march and bivouac discipline
79
False
What were PVA troops told to do when planes flew by?
5726d01c5951b619008f7eb8
remain motionless
410
False
How many days did it take PVA forces to march 286 miles?
5726d01c5951b619008f7eb9
19
674
False
What were PVA officers supposed to do if troops disobeyed the security protocol?
5726d01c5951b619008f7eba
shoot security violators
506
False
When would PVA forces march to minimize the chances of being seen?
5726d01c5951b619008f7ebb
19:00–03:00
174
False
UN aerial reconnaissance had difficulty sighting PVA units in daytime, because their march and bivouac discipline minimized aerial detection. The PVA marched "dark-to-dark" (19:00–03:00), and aerial camouflage (concealing soldiers, pack animals, and equipment) was deployed by 05:30. Meanwhile, daylight advance parties scouted for the next bivouac site. During daylight activity or marching, soldiers were to remain motionless if an aircraft appeared, until it flew away; PVA officers were under order to shoot security violators. Such battlefield discipline allowed a three-division army to march the 286 miles (460 km) from An-tung, Manchuria, to the combat zone in some 19 days. Another division night-marched a circuitous mountain route, averaging 18 miles (29 km) daily for 18 days.
Who did not capture the city of Namchonjam?
5726d182dd62a815002e913a
KPA
186
False
What was the capital city in the North?
5726d182dd62a815002e913b
Pyongyang
367
False
Where did Kim Il-Sung temporarily move the capital?
5726d182dd62a815002e913c
Sinuiju
570
False
What caused the North Koreans to move their capital for the second time?
5726d182dd62a815002e913d
UNC forces approached
592
False
When was Pyongyang captured?
5726d182dd62a815002e913e
October 1950
492
False
Meanwhile, on 10 October 1950, the 89th Tank Battalion was attached to the 1st Cavalry Division, increasing the armor available for the Northern Offensive. On 15 October, after moderate KPA resistance, the 7th Cavalry Regiment and Charlie Company, 70th Tank Battalion captured Namchonjam city. On 17 October, they flanked rightwards, away from the principal road (to Pyongyang), to capture Hwangju. Two days later, the 1st Cavalry Division captured Pyongyang, the North's capital city, on 19 October 1950. Kim Il Sung and his government temporarily moved its capital to Sinuiju – although as UNC forces approached, the government again moved – this time to Kanggye.
Where did President Truman and General MacArthur meet on October 15, 1950?
5726d3475951b619008f7f25
Wake Island
66
False
Who refused to meet on continental United States?
5726d3475951b619008f7f26
General MacArthur
41
False
What was President Truman told at this meeting?
5726d3475951b619008f7f27
little risk of Chinese intervention in Korea
291
False
Who was not concerned about the idea of Chinese troops moving south into Korea?
5726d3475951b619008f7f28
General MacArthur
41
False
What was believed would happen if the Chinese entered the conflict?
5726d3475951b619008f7f29
the greatest slaughter
651
False
On 15 October 1950, President Truman and General MacArthur met at Wake Island in the mid-Pacific Ocean. This meeting was much publicized because of the General's discourteous refusal to meet the President on the continental United States. To President Truman, MacArthur speculated there was little risk of Chinese intervention in Korea, and that the PRC's opportunity for aiding the KPA had lapsed. He believed the PRC had some 300,000 soldiers in Manchuria, and some 100,000–125,000 soldiers at the Yalu River. He further concluded that, although half of those forces might cross south, "if the Chinese tried to get down to Pyongyang, there would be the greatest slaughter" without air force protection.
Who initiated the First Phase offensive?
5726d55edd62a815002e91ac
PVA 13th Army Group
58
False
Who did the First Phase offensive motivated to send more troops and resources to Korea?
5726d55edd62a815002e91ad
Soviet Union
263
False
When did the Chinese and US military have their first confrontation in Korea?
5726d55edd62a815002e91ae
1 November 1950
547
False
Where did UN forces retreat to when the PVA executed their sneak attack?
5726d55edd62a815002e91af
Ch'ongch'on River
881
False
What is unusual about the PVA's successful, surprise attack?
5726d55edd62a815002e91b0
Chinese unexpectedly disappeared into mountain hideouts
910
False
After secretly crossing the Yalu River on 19 October, the PVA 13th Army Group launched the First Phase Offensive on 25 October, attacking the advancing UN forces near the Sino-Korean border. This military decision made solely by China changed the attitude of the Soviet Union. Twelve days after Chinese troops entered the war, Stalin allowed the Soviet Air Force to provide air cover, and supported more aid to China. After decimating the ROK II Corps at the Battle of Onjong, the first confrontation between Chinese and U.S. military occurred on 1 November 1950; deep in North Korea, thousands of soldiers from the PVA 39th Army encircled and attacked the U.S. 8th Cavalry Regiment with three-prong assaults—from the north, northwest, and west—and overran the defensive position flanks in the Battle of Unsan. The surprise assault resulted in the UN forces retreating back to the Ch'ongch'on River, while the Chinese unexpectedly disappeared into mountain hideouts following victory. It is unclear why the Chinese did not press the attack and follow up their victory.
Whose retreat during the Korean war was the longest in the history of the US Army?
5726d76a708984140094d319
U.S. Eighth Army's
255
False
Whose actions helped the Eighth Army be able to retreat?
5726d76a708984140094d31a
Turkish Brigade
348
False
How many casualties did the 1st Marines face at the Battle of Chosin Reservoir?
5726d76a708984140094d31b
12,000–15,000
639
False
What tactics of the PVA were US and ROK troops not prepared to handle?
5726d76a708984140094d31c
PVA 9th Army Group's three-pronged encirclement tactics
686
False
On 25 November at the Korean western front, the PVA 13th Army Group attacked and overran the ROK II Corps at the Battle of the Ch'ongch'on River, and then decimated the US 2nd Infantry Division on the UN forces' right flank. The UN Command retreated; the U.S. Eighth Army's retreat (the longest in US Army history) was made possible because of the Turkish Brigade's successful, but very costly, rear-guard delaying action near Kunuri that slowed the PVA attack for two days (27–29 November). On 27 November at the Korean eastern front, a U.S. 7th Infantry Division Regimental Combat Team (3,000 soldiers) and the U.S. 1st Marine Division (12,000–15,000 marines) were unprepared for the PVA 9th Army Group's three-pronged encirclement tactics at the Battle of Chosin Reservoir, but they managed to escape under Air Force and X Corps support fire—albeit with some 15,000 collective casualties.
Who did the PVA 13th Army Group force out of northwest Korea?
5726d8cfdd62a815002e926c
the U.S. Eighth Army
57
False
Whose death was not a direct casualty of the war?
5726d8cfdd62a815002e926d
General Walton Walker
272
False
Why did the X Corps leave Hungnam?
5726d8cfdd62a815002e926e
to reinforce the badly depleted U.S. Eighth Army
600
False
What effect did the death of General Walton Walker have on the troops?
5726d8cfdd62a815002e926f
UN morale hit rock bottom
230
False
By 30 November, the PVA 13th Army Group managed to expel the U.S. Eighth Army from northwest Korea. Retreating from the north faster than they had counter-invaded, the Eighth Army crossed the 38th parallel border in mid December. UN morale hit rock bottom when commanding General Walton Walker of the U.S. Eighth Army was killed on 23 December 1950 in an automobile accident. In northeast Korea by 11 December, the U.S. X Corps managed to cripple the PVA 9th Army Group while establishing a defensive perimeter at the port city of Hungnam. The X Corps were forced to evacuate by 24 December in order to reinforce the badly depleted U.S. Eighth Army to the south.
What was the name of the ship responsible for undertaking the largest rescue operation by a single ship?
5726da6a708984140094d391
SS Meredith Victory
212
False
What did the Presidential Proclamation No. 2914, 3 1950 do?
5726da6a708984140094d392
declared a national emergency
513
False
What year was the Presidential Proclamation lifted?
5726da6a708984140094d393
1978
647
False
Who was stripped of their commanding rights by China?
5726da6a708984140094d394
Kim Il-sung
688
False
What country was condemned for their participation in the conflict in Korea?
5726da6a708984140094d395
China
925
False
During the Hungnam evacuation, about 193 shiploads of UN Command forces and matériel (approximately 105,000 soldiers, 98,000 civilians, 17,500 vehicles, and 350,000 tons of supplies) were evacuated to Pusan. The SS Meredith Victory was noted for evacuating 14,000 refugees, the largest rescue operation by a single ship, even though it was designed to hold 12 passengers. Before escaping, the UN Command forces razed most of Hungnam city, especially the port facilities; and on 16 December 1950, President Truman declared a national emergency with Presidential Proclamation No. 2914, 3 C.F.R. 99 (1953), which remained in force until 14 September 1978.[b] The next day (17 December 1950) Kim Il-sung was deprived of the right of command of KPA by China. After that, the leading part of the war became the Chinese army. Following that, on 1 February 1951, United Nations General Assembly adopted a draft resolution condemning China as an aggressor in the Korean War.
What is the Third Phase Offensive also known as?
5726dc19dd62a815002e92fe
Chinese New Year's Offensive
178
False
Why goals were accomplished the the KPA and PVA's use gongs during these attacks?
5726dc19dd62a815002e92ff
facilitating tactical communication and mentally disorienting the enemy
492
False
How did some UN troops react to the use of noise?
5726dc19dd62a815002e9300
some soldiers panicked, abandoning their weapons and retreating to the south
638
False
What did the PVA and KPA gain by using the tactics during the Third Phase Offensive
5726dc19dd62a815002e9301
Seoul
808
False
Who was commanding the U.S. Eight Army at the time of the Third Phase Offensive?
5726dc19dd62a815002e9302
Lieutenant-General Matthew Ridgway
5
False
With Lieutenant-General Matthew Ridgway assuming the command of the U.S. Eighth Army on 26 December, the PVA and the KPA launched their Third Phase Offensive (also known as the "Chinese New Year's Offensive") on New Year's Eve of 1950. Utilizing night attacks in which UN Command fighting positions were encircled and then assaulted by numerically superior troops who had the element of surprise, the attacks were accompanied by loud trumpets and gongs, which fulfilled the double purpose of facilitating tactical communication and mentally disorienting the enemy. UN forces initially had no familiarity with this tactic, and as a result some soldiers panicked, abandoning their weapons and retreating to the south. The Chinese New Year's Offensive overwhelmed UN forces, allowing the PVA and KPA to conquer Seoul for the second time on 4 January 1951.
Why was the PVA unable to advance beyond Seoul?
5726dd6d5951b619008f8079
The PVA had outrun its logistics capability
155
False
What caused General Ridgway to initiate Operation Roundup?
5726dd6d5951b619008f807a
PVA had abandoned their battle lines
422
False
What facilitated the success of Operation Roundup?
5726dd6d5951b619008f807b
UN Command's air superiority
627
False
What city was recaptured as a result of the Ridgway's operation?
5726dd6d5951b619008f807c
Wonju
719
False
How was the PVA transporting supplies at one point?
5726dd6d5951b619008f807d
on foot and bicycle
301
False
UN forces retreated to Suwon in the west, Wonju in the center, and the territory north of Samcheok in the east, where the battlefront stabilized and held. The PVA had outrun its logistics capability and thus were unable to press on beyond Seoul as food, ammunition, and matériel were carried nightly, on foot and bicycle, from the border at the Yalu River to the three battle lines. In late January, upon finding that the PVA had abandoned their battle lines, General Ridgway ordered a reconnaissance-in-force, which became Operation Roundup (5 February 1951). A full-scale X Corps advance proceeded, which fully exploited the UN Command's air superiority, concluding with the UN reaching the Han River and recapturing Wonju.
What to be achieved by the Sancheong-Hamyang and Geochang massacres in South Korea?
5726e07a5951b619008f8105
destroy the guerrillas and their sympathizer citizens in Southern Korea
71
False
Who's attack resulted in victory at Hoengseong?
5726e07a5951b619008f8106
the PVA
271
False
What is considered to be the the Korean War's equivalent to Gettysburg?
5726e07a5951b619008f8107
the Fourth Phase Offensive
300
False
What did the French Battalion's efforts do to the PVA forces?
5726e07a5951b619008f8108
broke the attack's momentum
568
False
How many PVA soldiers fought in this battle and lost?
5726e07a5951b619008f8109
more than 25,000
919
False
In early February, the South Korean 11th Division ran the operation to destroy the guerrillas and their sympathizer citizens in Southern Korea. During the operation, the division and police conducted the Geochang massacre and Sancheong-Hamyang massacre. In mid-February, the PVA counterattacked with the Fourth Phase Offensive and achieved initial victory at Hoengseong. But the offensive was soon blunted by the IX Corps positions at Chipyong-ni in the center. Units of the U.S. 2nd Infantry Division and the French Battalion fought a short but desperate battle that broke the attack's momentum. The battle is sometimes known as the Gettysburg of the Korean War. The battle saw 5,600 Korean, American and French troops defeat a numerically superior Chinese force. Surrounded on all sides, the U.S. 2nd Infantry Division Warrior Division's 23rd Regimental Combat Team with an attached French Battalion was hemmed in by more than 25,000 Chinese Communist forces. United Nations forces had previously retreated in the face of large Communist forces instead of getting cut off, but this time they stood and fought at odds of roughly 15 to 1.
What Operation was initiated after the successful Operation Roundup?
5726e1be5951b619008f8147
Operation Killer
74
False
What the the goal of the operation that followed Operation Roundup?
5726e1be5951b619008f8148
to kill as many KPA and PVA troops as possible
228
False
What signified the end of Operation Killer?
5726e1be5951b619008f8149
capturing Hoengseong
380
False
How many times was Seoul captured in a year?
5726e1be5951b619008f814a
This was the city's fourth conquest
526
False
Other than the drastic decrease in population, what other issue did the people in Seoul face?
5726e1be5951b619008f814b
severe food shortages
686
False
In the last two weeks of February 1951, Operation Roundup was followed by Operation Killer, carried out by the revitalized Eighth Army. It was a full-scale, battlefront-length attack staged for maximum exploitation of firepower to kill as many KPA and PVA troops as possible. Operation Killer concluded with I Corps re-occupying the territory south of the Han River, and IX Corps capturing Hoengseong. On 7 March 1951, the Eighth Army attacked with Operation Ripper, expelling the PVA and the KPA from Seoul on 14 March 1951. This was the city's fourth conquest in a years' time, leaving it a ruin; the 1.5 million pre-war population was down to 200,000, and people were suffering from severe food shortages.
Why did Stalin send two air forces divisions and other assistance to the Chinese?
5726e345708984140094d4dd
the Chinese war effort
197
False
What issues plagued the PVA throughout the war?
5726e345708984140094d4de
logistical problems
381
False
What was a great concern of many Chinese troops?
5726e345708984140094d4df
they had nothing to eat
578
False
What was Zhou's ineffective response to the issue plaguing the PVA?
5726e345708984140094d4e0
increasing Chinese production and improving methods of supply
754
False
What did China introduce to the war in 1951?
5726e345708984140094d4e1
the Chinese Air Force
951
False
On 1 March 1951 Mao sent a cable to Stalin, in which he emphasized the difficulties faced by Chinese forces and the urgent need for air cover, especially over supply lines. Apparently impressed by the Chinese war effort, Stalin finally agreed to supply two air force divisions, three anti-aircraft divisions, and six thousand trucks. PVA troops in Korea continued to suffer severe logistical problems throughout the war. In late April Peng Dehuai sent his deputy, Hong Xuezhi, to brief Zhou Enlai in Beijing. What Chinese soldiers feared, Hong said, was not the enemy, but that they had nothing to eat, no bullets to shoot, and no trucks to transport them to the rear when they were wounded. Zhou attempted to respond to the PVA's logistical concerns by increasing Chinese production and improving methods of supply, but these efforts were never completely sufficient. At the same time, large-scale air defense training programs were carried out, and the Chinese Air Force began to participate in the war from September 1951 onward.
Who was relieved from his duties as Commander in Korea?
5726e4e2dd62a815002e942e
General MacArthur
71
False
Who did not have faith in MacArthur's claim that victory was the only respectable outcome?
5726e4e2dd62a815002e942f
Truman
37
False
What mistake did MacArthur make regarding the 38th parallel?
5726e4e2dd62a815002e9430
the Chinese would not enter the war
236
False
What did Truman want to see happen in Korea?
5726e4e2dd62a815002e9431
a truce and orderly withdrawal
629
False
Whose involvement in the war was found to be in violation of the Constitution?
5726e4e2dd62a815002e9432
. MacArthur
696
False
On 11 April 1951, Commander-in-Chief Truman relieved the controversial General MacArthur, the Supreme Commander in Korea. There were several reasons for the dismissal. MacArthur had crossed the 38th parallel in the mistaken belief that the Chinese would not enter the war, leading to major allied losses. He believed that whether or not to use nuclear weapons should be his own decision, not the President's. MacArthur threatened to destroy China unless it surrendered. While MacArthur felt total victory was the only honorable outcome, Truman was more pessimistic about his chances once involved in a land war in Asia, and felt a truce and orderly withdrawal from Korea could be a valid solution. MacArthur was the subject of congressional hearings in May and June 1951, which determined that he had defied the orders of the President and thus had violated the U.S. Constitution. A popular criticism of MacArthur was that he never spent a night in Korea, and directed the war from the safety of Tokyo.
Who was appointed Supreme Commander in Korea after the removal of General MacArthur?
5726e644f1498d1400e8ef4e
General Ridgway
0
False
What was the goal of Operation Tomahawk?
5726e644f1498d1400e8ef4f
get behind Chinese forces and block their movement north
668
False
Who was responsible for supply humanitarian aid to civilians?
5726e644f1498d1400e8ef50
The 60th Indian Parachute Field Ambulance
726
False
Under the guidance of Generals Van Fleet and Ridgway, joint forces were able to achieve what goal?
5726e644f1498d1400e8ef51
depleted the PVA and KPA forces
208
False
General Ridgway was appointed Supreme Commander, Korea; he regrouped the UN forces for successful counterattacks, while General James Van Fleet assumed command of the U.S. Eighth Army. Further attacks slowly depleted the PVA and KPA forces; Operations Courageous (23–28 March 1951) and Tomahawk (23 March 1951) were a joint ground and airborne infilltration meant to trap Chinese forces between Kaesong and Seoul. UN forces advanced to "Line Kansas", north of the 38th parallel. The 187th Airborne Regimental Combat Team's ("Rakkasans") second of two combat jumps was on Easter Sunday, 1951, at Munsan-ni, South Korea, codenamed Operation Tomahawk. The mission was to get behind Chinese forces and block their movement north. The 60th Indian Parachute Field Ambulance provided the medical cover for the operations, dropping an ADS and a surgical team and treating over 400 battle casualties apart from the civilian casualties that formed the core of their objective as the unit was on a humanitarian mission.
What was the Fifth Phase of the Chinese counter initiative called?
5726e7ab708984140094d55f
Chinese Spring Offensive
93
False
What may have began as an effective series of attacks by the Chinese regained what area?
5726e7ab708984140094d560
Line Kansas
772
False
What ended with the armistice of 1953?
5726e7ab708984140094d561
the stalemate
839
False
How many armies did the Chinese use in the Fifth Phase Offensive?
5726e7ab708984140094d562
three field armies
124
False
Where was Line Kansas located?
5726e7ab708984140094d563
just north of the 38th parallel
729
False
The Chinese counterattacked in April 1951, with the Fifth Phase Offensive, also known as the Chinese Spring Offensive, with three field armies (approximately 700,000 men). The offensive's first thrust fell upon I Corps, which fiercely resisted in the Battle of the Imjin River (22–25 April 1951) and the Battle of Kapyong (22–25 April 1951), blunting the impetus of the offensive, which was halted at the "No-name Line" north of Seoul. On 15 May 1951, the Chinese commenced the second impulse of the Spring Offensive and attacked the ROK Army and the U.S. X Corps in the east at the Soyang River. After initial success, they were halted by 20 May. At month's end, the U.S. Eighth Army counterattacked and regained "Line Kansas", just north of the 38th parallel. The UN's "Line Kansas" halt and subsequent offensive action stand-down began the stalemate that lasted until the armistice of 1953.
Where did armistice negotiations occur?
5726e9fadd62a815002e9500
Kaesong
229
False
What did the UN Command want to achieve with the armistice talks?
5726e9fadd62a815002e9501
recapture all of South Korea and to avoid losing territory
440
False
What tactics were used by the PVA to coax the UN Command to continuing the war?
5726e9fadd62a815002e9502
military and psychological operations
569
False
Was there a cease fire during the talks?
5726e9fadd62a815002e9503
Large-scale bombing of North Korea continued
123
False
Who directed the armistice negotiation for the Chinese?
5726e9fadd62a815002e9504
Zhou Enlai
259
False
For the remainder of the Korean War the UN Command and the PVA fought, but exchanged little territory; the stalemate held. Large-scale bombing of North Korea continued, and protracted armistice negotiations began 10 July 1951 at Kaesong. On the Chinese side, Zhou Enlai directed peace talks, and Li Kenong and Qiao Guanghua headed the negotiation team. Combat continued while the belligerents negotiated; the UN Command forces' goal was to recapture all of South Korea and to avoid losing territory. The PVA and the KPA attempted similar operations, and later effected military and psychological operations in order to test the UN Command's resolve to continue the war.
When was the Battle of White Horse?
5726eadbf1498d1400e8efd4
6–15 October 1952
303
False
What year was the Battle of Bloody Ridge?
5726eadbf1498d1400e8efd5
1951
98
False
What was the shortest of the major battles fought during the stalemate?
5726eadbf1498d1400e8efd6
the Battle of the Hook
479
False
The principal battles of the stalemate include the Battle of Bloody Ridge (18 August–15 September 1951), the Battle of the Punchbowl (31 August-21 September 1951), the Battle of Heartbreak Ridge (13 September–15 October 1951), the Battle of Old Baldy (26 June–4 August 1952), the Battle of White Horse (6–15 October 1952), the Battle of Triangle Hill (14 October–25 November 1952), the Battle of Hill Eerie (21 March–21 June 1952), the sieges of Outpost Harry (10–18 June 1953), the Battle of the Hook (28–29 May 1953), the Battle of Pork Chop Hill (23 March–16 July 1953), and the Battle of Kumsong (13–27 July 1953).
Did the UN troops or Chinese troops experience more war casualties?
5726ec2bdd62a815002e955a
Chinese troops
0
False
What did Zhou Enlai do as a result of the significant amount of Chinese casualties?
5726ec2bdd62a815002e955b
called a conference in Shenyang
370
False
What was the purpose of the Shengyang meeting?
5726ec2bdd62a815002e955c
discuss the PVA's logistical problems
405
False
Did the actions of the Chinese fix their problems?
5726ec2bdd62a815002e955d
These commitments did little to directly address the problems
650
False
Chinese troops suffered from deficient military equipment, serious logistical problems, overextended communication and supply lines, and the constant threat of UN bombers. All of these factors generally led to a rate of Chinese casualties that was far greater than the casualties suffered by UN troops. The situation became so serious that, on November 1951, Zhou Enlai called a conference in Shenyang to discuss the PVA's logistical problems. At the meeting it was decided to accelerate the construction of railways and airfields in the area, to increase the number of trucks available to the army, and to improve air defense by any means possible. These commitments did little to directly address the problems confronting PVA troops.
Who believed that neither side would see a victory at the end of the Korean War?
5726ee3cf1498d1400e8f032
Peng Dehuai
44
False
What meeting was conducted to discuss the PVA's problems?
5726ee3cf1498d1400e8f033
the Military Commission,
401
False
What actions were taken to help the PVA?
5726ee3cf1498d1400e8f034
PVA would be divided into three groups
1221
False
Who ended up in charge of logistics as a result of the restructuring of the PVA?
5726ee3cf1498d1400e8f035
the central government
1574
False
In the months after the Shenyang conference Peng Dehuai went to Beijing several times to brief Mao and Zhou about the heavy casualties suffered by Chinese troops and the increasing difficulty of keeping the front lines supplied with basic necessities. Peng was convinced that the war would be protracted, and that neither side would be able to achieve victory in the near future. On 24 February 1952, the Military Commission, presided over by Zhou, discussed the PVA's logistical problems with members of various government agencies involved in the war effort. After the government representatives emphasized their inability to meet the demands of the war, Peng, in an angry outburst, shouted: "You have this and that problem... You should go to the front and see with your own eyes what food and clothing the soldiers have! Not to speak of the casualties! For what are they giving their lives? We have no aircraft. We have only a few guns. Transports are not protected. More and more soldiers are dying of starvation. Can't you overcome some of your difficulties?" The atmosphere became so tense that Zhou was forced to adjourn the conference. Zhou subsequently called a series of meetings, where it was agreed that the PVA would be divided into three groups, to be dispatched to Korea in shifts; to accelerate the training of Chinese pilots; to provide more anti-aircraft guns to the front lines; to purchase more military equipment and ammunition from the Soviet Union; to provide the army with more food and clothing; and, to transfer the responsibility of logistics to the central government.
How long did the armistice talks last?
5726ef49dd62a815002e95a8
two years
61
False
What issues stalled the armistice talks?
5726ef49dd62a815002e95a9
prisoner of war (POW) repatriation
229
False
What was deemed unacceptable to North Koreans and the Chinese during POW negotiations?
5726ef49dd62a815002e95aa
many PVA and KPA soldiers refused to be repatriated back to the north
346
False
When was the armistice agreement finally signed?
5726ef49dd62a815002e95ab
27 July 1953
518
False
What was established to deal with the issues surrounding prisoners of war?
5726ef49dd62a815002e95ac
Neutral Nations Repatriation Commission,
534
False
The on-again, off-again armistice negotiations continued for two years, first at Kaesong, on the border between North and South Korea, and then at the neighbouring village of Panmunjom. A major, problematic negotiation point was prisoner of war (POW) repatriation. The PVA, KPA, and UN Command could not agree on a system of repatriation because many PVA and KPA soldiers refused to be repatriated back to the north, which was unacceptable to the Chinese and North Koreans. In the final armistice agreement, signed on 27 July 1953, a Neutral Nations Repatriation Commission, under the chairman Indian General K. S. Thimayya, was set up to handle the matter.
Who did the US elect as president during the Korean War?
5726f0a6dd62a815002e95d8
Dwight D. Eisenhower
98
False
Who approved the Korean War armistice that officially declared a ceasefire?
5726f0a6dd62a815002e95d9
the United Nations
179
False
What area was created by the parties involved in the Korean conflict?
5726f0a6dd62a815002e95da
Korean Demilitarized Zone (DMZ)
423
False
Along with the Joint UN Commands, ROKA and KPA, what country also still patrols the demilitarized zone?
5726f0a6dd62a815002e95db
United States
508
False
What was one of the first things that the newly-elected Dwight Eisenhower did after the election?
5726f0a6dd62a815002e95dc
went to Korea to learn what might end the Korean War
120
False
In 1952, the United States elected a new president, and on 29 November 1952, the president-elect, Dwight D. Eisenhower, went to Korea to learn what might end the Korean War. With the United Nations' acceptance of India's proposed Korean War armistice, the KPA, the PVA, and the UN Command ceased fire with the battle line approximately at the 38th parallel. Upon agreeing to the armistice, the belligerents established the Korean Demilitarized Zone (DMZ), which has since been patrolled by the KPA and ROKA, United States, and Joint UN Commands.
Where is the capital city of Kaesong now located?
5726f173708984140094d695
North Korea
225
False
What area is directly north and south of the 38th parallel?
5726f173708984140094d696
The Demilitarized Zone
0
False
When was the Armistice Agreement signed?
5726f173708984140094d697
27 July 1953
401
False
Was there ever an official peace treaty after the war?
5726f173708984140094d698
there was no peace treaty
643
False
Who believes that they were victorious in the war?
5726f173708984140094d699
North Korea
670
False
The Demilitarized Zone runs northeast of the 38th parallel; to the south, it travels west. The old Korean capital city of Kaesong, site of the armistice negotiations, originally was in pre-war South Korea, but now is part of North Korea. The United Nations Command, supported by the United States, the North Korean People's Army, and the Chinese People's Volunteers, signed the Armistice Agreement on 27 July 1953 to end the fighting. The Armistice also called upon the governments of South Korea, North Korea, China and the United States to participate in continued peace talks. The war is considered to have ended at this point, even though there was no peace treaty. North Korea nevertheless claims that it won the Korean War.
What was the point of Operation Glory?
5726f288708984140094d6bd
to allow combatant countries to exchange their dead
73
False
How many US service members were exchanged during this operation?
5726f288708984140094d6be
4,167
141
False
Where are the remains of the 416 unidentified soldiers who died in the Korean War?
5726f288708984140094d6bf
National Memorial Cemetery of the Pacific
400
False
How many remains were recovered from the Sino-Korean border between 1996 and 2006?
5726f288708984140094d6c0
220
859
False
After the war, Operation Glory was conducted from July to November 1954, to allow combatant countries to exchange their dead. The remains of 4,167 U.S. Army and U.S. Marine Corps dead were exchanged for 13,528 KPA and PVA dead, and 546 civilians dead in UN prisoner-of-war camps were delivered to the South Korean government. After Operation Glory, 416 Korean War unknown soldiers were buried in the National Memorial Cemetery of the Pacific (The Punchbowl), on the island of Oahu, Hawaii. Defense Prisoner of War/Missing Personnel Office (DPMO) records indicate that the PRC and the DPRK transmitted 1,394 names, of which 858 were correct. From 4,167 containers of returned remains, forensic examination identified 4,219 individuals. Of these, 2,944 were identified as American, and all but 416 were identified by name. From 1996 to 2006, the DPRK recovered 220 remains near the Sino-Korean border.
Why is North Korea insisting that the 1953 armistice was violated?
5726f3cf708984140094d6cd
new wave of UN sanctions
8
False
When did North Korea call an end to the armistice?
5726f3cf708984140094d6ce
13 March 2013
119
False
In 2013, who what country did North Korea declare war on?
5726f3cf708984140094d6cf
South Korea
705
False
What weapon does North Korea claim it now has the ability to use?
5726f3cf708984140094d6d0
a nuclear weapon
680
False
How does the United States view North Korea's threats?
5726f3cf708984140094d6d1
credible and realistic nuclear threat
931
False
After a new wave of UN sanctions, on 11 March 2013, North Korea claimed that it had invalidated the 1953 armistice. On 13 March 2013, North Korea confirmed it ended the 1953 Armistice and declared North Korea "is not restrained by the North-South declaration on non-aggression". On 30 March 2013, North Korea stated that it had entered a "state of war" with South Korea and declared that "The long-standing situation of the Korean peninsula being neither at peace nor at war is finally over". Speaking on 4 April 2013, the U.S. Secretary of Defense, Chuck Hagel, informed the press that Pyongyang had "formally informed" the Pentagon that it had "ratified" the potential usage of a nuclear weapon against South Korea, Japan and the United States of America, including Guam and Hawaii. Hagel also stated that the United States would deploy the Terminal High Altitude Area Defense anti-ballistic missile system to Guam, because of a credible and realistic nuclear threat from North Korea.
What form of attack was an effective measure of slowing Korean armor?
5726f540f1498d1400e8f0f6
ground attack aircraft
559
False
What weapon did the the KPA use that was successful early in the Korean conflict?
5726f540f1498d1400e8f0f7
Soviet T-34-85 tanks
72
False
What helped the UN forces and shifted the war in their favor?
5726f540f1498d1400e8f0f8
the North Koreans suffered major tank losses
715
False
What actions of the UN also helped them improve their results during the war?
5726f540f1498d1400e8f0f9
the UN forces brought heavier equipment
796
False
How many tanks were in the North Korean tank corps?
5726f540f1498d1400e8f0fa
120
140
False
The initial assault by North Korean KPA forces were aided by the use of Soviet T-34-85 tanks. A North Korean tank corps equipped with about 120 T-34s spearheaded the invasion. These drove against a ROK Army with few anti-tank weapons adequate to deal with the Soviet T-34s. Additional Soviet armor was added as the offensive progressed. The North Korean tanks had a good deal of early successes against South Korean infantry, elements of the 24th Infantry Division, and those United States built M24 Chaffee light tanks that they encountered. Interdiction by ground attack aircraft was the only means of slowing the advancing Korean armor. The tide turned in favour of the United Nations forces in August 1950 when the North Koreans suffered major tank losses during a series of battles in which the UN forces brought heavier equipment to bear, including M4A3 Sherman medium tanks backed by U.S. M26 heavy tanks, along with the British Centurion, Churchill, and Cromwell tanks.
Why were naval skirmishes not really seen in the Korean War?
5726f69df1498d1400e8f11a
neither Korea had a significant navy
8
False
Who pretty much gained and maintained control of the sea?
5726f69df1498d1400e8f11b
the UN nations
706
False
Who dominated any battles that may have taken place at sea?
5726f69df1498d1400e8f11c
the UN Command
124
False
Where was the last sea battle of the Korean War?
5726f69df1498d1400e8f11d
Inchon
464
False
Because neither Korea had a significant navy, the Korean War featured few naval battles. A skirmish between North Korea and the UN Command occurred on 2 July 1950; the U.S. Navy cruiser USS Juneau, the Royal Navy cruiser HMS Jamaica, and the frigate HMS Black Swan fought four North Korean torpedo boats and two mortar gunboats, and sank them. USS Juneau later sank several ammunition ships that had been present. The last sea battle of the Korean War occurred at Inchon, days before the Battle of Incheon; the ROK ship PC-703 sank a North Korean mine layer in the Battle of Haeju Island, near Inchon. Three other supply ships were sunk by PC-703 two days later in the Yellow Sea. Thereafter, vessels from the UN nations held undisputed control of the sea about Korea. The gun ships were used in shore bombardment, while the aircraft carriers provided air support to the ground forces.
What type of ships did the US spend most of its time sinking?
5726f7aedd62a815002e967c
supply and ammunition ships
97
False
What weapon posed a significant threat to US navy ships?
5726f7aedd62a815002e967d
magnetic mines
323
False
How many US warships were damaged by gun fire and mines?
5726f7aedd62a815002e967e
87
528
False
Where were the majority of US naval patrols of Korea?
5726f7aedd62a815002e967f
the west and east coasts of North Korea
48
False
During most of the war, the UN navies patrolled the west and east coasts of North Korea, sinking supply and ammunition ships and denying the North Koreans the ability to resupply from the sea. Aside from very occasional gunfire from North Korean shore batteries, the main threat to United States and UN navy ships was from magnetic mines. During the war, five U.S. Navy ships were lost to mines: two minesweepers, two minesweeper escorts, and one ocean tug. Mines and gunfire from North Korean coastal artillery damaged another 87 U.S. warships, resulting in slight to moderate damage.
Who denied having anything more than an advisory role in the Korean War?
5726f9d3f1498d1400e8f192
the Soviet Union
455
False
Who ignored the direct participation of the Soviet Union to prevent expanding the Korean War to the Soviet Union?
5726f9d3f1498d1400e8f193
UN Command
737
False
What may have occurred if the war was expanded to the Soviet Union?
5726f9d3f1498d1400e8f194
atomic warfare
877
False
What did the Soviet pilots start doing when accused of playing an integral role in the Korean War?
5726f9d3f1498d1400e8f195
dropping their code signals and speaking over the wireless in Russian
600
False
Who feared engaging in direct conflict with the United States?
5726f9d3f1498d1400e8f196
Soviet Union
833
False
The Chinese intervention in late October 1950 bolstered the Korean People's Air Force (KPAF) of North Korea with the MiG-15, one of the world's most advanced jet fighters. The fast, heavily armed MiG outflew first-generation UN jets such as the F-80 (United States Air Force) and Gloster Meteors (Royal Australian Air Force), posing a real threat to B-29 Superfortress bombers even under fighter escort. Fearful of confronting the United States directly, the Soviet Union denied involvement of their personnel in anything other than an advisory role, but air combat quickly resulted in Soviet pilots dropping their code signals and speaking over the wireless in Russian. This known direct Soviet participation was a casus belli that the UN Command deliberately overlooked, lest the war for the Korean peninsula expand to include the Soviet Union, and potentially escalate into atomic warfare.
What plane did the US send to Korea to counter the power of the MiG-15?
5726fabb708984140094d78b
F-86 Sabre
95
False
To mitigate the loses of the B-29, what did the US Air Force do?
5726fabb708984140094d78c
switch from a daylight bombing campaign to the necessarily less accurate nighttime bombing
528
False
What was the MiG designed to be?
5726fabb708984140094d78d
bomber interceptor
165
False
The USAF countered the MiG-15 by sending over three squadrons of its most capable fighter, the F-86 Sabre. These arrived in December 1950. The MiG was designed as a bomber interceptor. It had a very high service ceiling—50,000 feet (15,000 m) and carried very heavy weaponry: one 37 mm cannon and two 23 mm cannons. They were fast enough to dive past the fighter escort of P-80 Shooting Stars and F9F Panthers and could reach and destroy the U.S. heavy bombers. B-29 losses could not be avoided, and the Air Force was forced to switch from a daylight bombing campaign to the necessarily less accurate nighttime bombing of targets. The MiGs were countered by the F-86 Sabres. They had a ceiling of 42,000 feet (13,000 m) and were armed with six .50 caliber (12.7 mm) machine guns, which were range adjusted by radar gunsights. If coming in at higher altitude the advantage of engaging or not went to the MiG. Once in a level flight dogfight, both swept-wing designs attained comparable maximum speeds of around 660 mph (1,100 km/h). The MiG climbed faster, but the Sabre turned and dived better.
Copyright_infringement
What are the rights of a content creator that has their work protected?
5726113689a1e219009ac1cd
right to reproduce, distribute, display or perform the protected work, or to make derivative works
171
False
How do creators of content protect their work from infringement?
5726ce13dd62a815002e90d0
copyright law
56
False
Who is protected by copyright laws?
5726ce13dd62a815002e90d2
work's creator
309
False
What is it called when someone uploads a video to YouTube without the creators permission?
5726ce13dd62a815002e90d3
copyright infringement
487
False
You wrote a song that was based on an original work, what is this called?
5726ce13dd62a815002e90d4
derivative works
253
False
routinely invoke legal and technological measures
413
How do creators of content not protect their work from infringement?
5acfc8f777cf76001a685f7c
True
right to reproduce, distribute, display or perform the protected work, or to make derivative works
171
What are the rights of a content creator that has their work unprotected?
5acfc8f777cf76001a685f7d
True
The copyright holder is typically the work's creator, or a publisher or other business to whom copyright has been assigned
271
Who is unprotected by copyright laws?
5acfc8f777cf76001a685f7e
True
to make derivative works
245
You wrote a song that was based on an unoriginal work, what is this called?
5acfc8f777cf76001a685f7f
True
Copyright infringement
0
What is it called when someone uploads a video to YouTube with the creators permission?
5acfc8f777cf76001a685f80
True
Copyright infringement is the use of works protected by copyright law without permission, infringing certain exclusive rights granted to the copyright holder, such as the right to reproduce, distribute, display or perform the protected work, or to make derivative works. The copyright holder is typically the work's creator, or a publisher or other business to whom copyright has been assigned. Copyright holders routinely invoke legal and technological measures to prevent and penalize copyright infringement.
How are disputes resolved for small scale infringement?
5726199989a1e219009ac25a
direct negotiation, a notice and take down process, or litigation in civil court
61
False
Why has copyright infringement increased recently?
5726199989a1e219009ac25b
Shifting public expectations, advances in digital technology, and the increasing reach of the Internet
294
False
What are two examples of groups that allow you to make copies of protected works?
5726199989a1e219009ac25e
service providers and software distributors
674
False
What are content creation industries focusing on doing to prevent infringement?
5726cfd6dd62a815002e9104
expanding copyright law
591
False
What can happen to people who commit copyright infringement on a mass-scale?
5726cfd6dd62a815002e9105
prosecuted via the criminal justice system
250
False
What are two examples of groups that allow you to obtain copies of protected works?
5726cfd6dd62a815002e9106
service providers and software distributors
674
False
direct negotiation, a notice and take down process, or litigation in civil court
61
How are disputes unresolved for small scale infringement?
5acfc97977cf76001a685f9a
True
Shifting public expectations, advances in digital technology, and the increasing reach of the Internet
294
Why has copyright infringement decreased recently?
5acfc97977cf76001a685f9b
True
expanding copyright law to recognize and penalize – as "indirect" infringers – the service providers and software distributors
591
What are content creation industries focusing on doing to aid infringement?
5acfc97977cf76001a685f9c
True
sometimes prosecuted via the criminal justice system
240
What can't happen to people who commit copyright infringement on a mass-scale?
5acfc97977cf76001a685f9d
True
service providers and software distributors
674
What are two examples of groups that disallow you to make copies of protected works?
5acfc97977cf76001a685f9e
True
Copyright infringement disputes are usually resolved through direct negotiation, a notice and take down process, or litigation in civil court. Egregious or large-scale commercial infringement, especially when it involves counterfeiting, is sometimes prosecuted via the criminal justice system. Shifting public expectations, advances in digital technology, and the increasing reach of the Internet have led to such widespread, anonymous infringement that copyright-dependent industries now focus less on pursuing individuals who seek and share copyright-protected content online, and more on expanding copyright law to recognize and penalize – as "indirect" infringers – the service providers and software distributors which are said to facilitate and encourage individual acts of infringement by others.
What terms are often linked to people who illegally use or distribute content that is not their own?
5726d0385951b619008f7ec1
piracy and theft
10
False
What means the same as robbery or illegal violence at sea?
5726d0385951b619008f7ec2
piracy
101
False
What kind of property is copyright used for?
5726d0385951b619008f7ec3
intellectual property
370
False
What is the difference between robbery and piracy?
5726d0385951b619008f7ec4
related only to tangible property
467
False
In the 1980's, the Supreme Court ruled that infringement does not equal what?
5726d0385951b619008f7ec5
theft
648
False
piracy and theft
10
What terms are often linked to people who legally use or distribute content that is not their own?
5acfca0c77cf76001a685fcc
True
piracy
101
What doesn't mean the same as robbery or illegal violence at sea?
5acfca0c77cf76001a685fcd
True
intellectual property
370
What kind of property is copyright not used for?
5acfca0c77cf76001a685fce
True
theft, offenses related only to tangible property
451
What is the same about robbery and piracy?
5acfca0c77cf76001a685fcf
True
theft
648
In the 1980's, the Supreme Court ruled that infringement equals what?
5acfca0c77cf76001a685fd0
True
The terms piracy and theft are often associated with copyright infringement. The original meaning of piracy is "robbery or illegal violence at sea", but the term has been in use for centuries as a synonym for acts of copyright infringement. Theft, meanwhile, emphasizes the potential commercial harm of infringement to copyright holders. However, copyright is a type of intellectual property, an area of law distinct from that which covers robbery or theft, offenses related only to tangible property. Not all copyright infringement results in commercial loss, and the U.S. Supreme Court ruled in 1985 that infringement does not easily equate with theft.
What did the Royal Charter give to the Stationers' Company of London?
5726d0935951b619008f7edb
monopoly on publication and tasking it with enforcing the charter
254
False
How does Article 12 of the 1886 Berne Convention for the Protection of Literary and Artistic Works use the term piracy?
5726d0935951b619008f7edc
in relation to copyright infringement
623
False
What would happen if you imported a copyrighted work into a country where the original is protected by copyright law?
5726d0935951b619008f7edd
seized on importation
692
False
When was the Agreement on Trade-Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights enacted?
5726d0935951b619008f7ede
1994
816
False
Piracy has been more recently described online in relation to what?
5726d0935951b619008f7edf
peer-to-peer file sharing networks
1249
False
a monopoly on publication and tasking it with enforcing the charter
252
What did the Royal Charter not give to the Stationers' Company of London?
5acfca7977cf76001a686004
True
in relation to copyright infringement
623
How does Article 21 of the 1886 Berne Convention for the Protection of Literary and Artistic Works use the term piracy?
5acfca7977cf76001a686005
True
seized on importation
692
What would happen if you imported a copyrighted work into a country where the original isn't protected by copyright law?
5acfca7977cf76001a686006
True
1994
816
When was the Agreement on Trade-Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights repealed?
5acfca7977cf76001a686007
True
peer-to-peer file sharing networks
1249
Piracy has been less recently described online in relation to what?
5acfca7977cf76001a686008
True
The practice of labelling the infringement of exclusive rights in creative works as "piracy" predates statutory copyright law. Prior to the Statute of Anne in 1710, the Stationers' Company of London in 1557, received a Royal Charter giving the company a monopoly on publication and tasking it with enforcing the charter. Those who violated the charter were labelled pirates as early as 1603. The term "piracy" has been used to refer to the unauthorized copying, distribution and selling of works in copyright. Article 12 of the 1886 Berne Convention for the Protection of Literary and Artistic Works uses the term "piracy" in relation to copyright infringement, stating "Pirated works may be seized on importation into those countries of the Union where the original work enjoys legal protection." Article 61 of the 1994 Agreement on Trade-Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights (TRIPs) requires criminal procedures and penalties in cases of "willful trademark counterfeiting or copyright piracy on a commercial scale." Piracy traditionally refers to acts of copyright infringement intentionally committed for financial gain, though more recently, copyright holders have described online copyright infringement, particularly in relation to peer-to-peer file sharing networks, as "piracy."
When you are accused theft as it relates to copyright law, you are exercising exclusive rights without what?
5726d0f55951b619008f7ee5
authorization
286
False
What have courts said there is a difference between?
5726d0f55951b619008f7ee6
copyright infringement and theft
335
False
In Dowling v. United States, what did bootleg records NOT constitute?
5726d0f55951b619008f7ee7
theft, conversion, or fraud
583
False
What is the separate term of art to define misappropriation of copyright?
5726d0f55951b619008f7ee8
The Copyright Act
612
False
What did the court say was invaded?
5726d0f55951b619008f7ee9
certain exclusive rights
879
False
authorization
286
When you are accused theft as it relates to copyright law, you are exercising exclusive rights with what?
5acfcaec77cf76001a686016
True
copyright infringement and theft
335
What haven't courts said there is a difference between?
5acfcaec77cf76001a686017
True
theft, conversion, or fraud
583
In Dowling v. United States, what did bootleg records constitute?
5acfcaec77cf76001a686018
True
The Copyright Act
612
What is the separate term of art to define appropriation of copyright?
5acfcaec77cf76001a686019
True
certain exclusive rights
879
What did the court say was evaded?
5acfcaec77cf76001a68601a
True
Copyright holders frequently refer to copyright infringement as theft. In copyright law, infringement does not refer to theft of physical objects that take away the owner's possession, but an instance where a person exercises one of the exclusive rights of the copyright holder without authorization. Courts have distinguished between copyright infringement and theft. For instance, the United States Supreme Court held in Dowling v. United States (1985) that bootleg phonorecords did not constitute stolen property. Instead, "interference with copyright does not easily equate with theft, conversion, or fraud. The Copyright Act even employs a separate term of art to define one who misappropriates a copyright: '[...] an infringer of the copyright.'" The court said that in the case of copyright infringement, the province guaranteed to the copyright holder by copyright law – certain exclusive rights – is invaded, but no control, physical or otherwise, is taken over the copyright, nor is the copyright holder wholly deprived of using the copyrighted work or exercising the exclusive rights held.
What is a possible cause of copyright infringement?
5726d11ef1498d1400e8ec2a
partial compliance
15
False
Who did Texas software company Apptricity write software for?
5726d11ef1498d1400e8ec2b
US Army
254
False
How many users were paid for in 2004?
5726d11ef1498d1400e8ec2c
500 users
299
False
How much was the lawsuit settled for?
5726d11ef1498d1400e8ec2d
US$50 million
401
False
Who is an example of a major anti-piracy organization?
5726d11ef1498d1400e8ec2e
the BSA
454
False
partial compliance
15
What is an impossible cause of copyright infringement?
5acfcb7477cf76001a686042
True
US Army
98
Who did Texas software company Apptricity write hardware for?
5acfcb7477cf76001a686043
True
500
299
How many users weren't paid for in 2004?
5acfcb7477cf76001a686044
True
US$50 million
401
How much was the lawsuit rejected for?
5acfcb7477cf76001a686045
True
the BSA
454
Who is an example of a minor anti-piracy organization?
5acfcb7477cf76001a686046
True
Sometimes only partial compliance with license agreements is the cause. For example, in 2013, the US Army settled a lawsuit with Texas-based company Apptricity, which makes software that allows the army to track their soldiers in real time. In 2004, the US Army paid US$4.5 million for a license of 500 users, while allegedly installing the software for more than 9000 users; the case was settled for US$50 million. Major anti-piracy organizations, like the BSA, conduct software licensing audits regularly to ensure full compliance.
What did Cara Cusumano say about piracy in 2014 that people want?
5726d15cdd62a815002e9132
immediacy
156
False
What had the festival done for the past three years when the statement by Cara Cusumano was made?
5726d15cdd62a815002e9133
used the Internet to present its content
305
False
It was the first year of Tribeca featuring a showcase of producers who do what?
5726d15cdd62a815002e9134
work exclusively online
428
False
What behavior is not just done by people who want content for free?
5726d15cdd62a815002e9135
downloading
485
False
immediacy
156
What did Cara Cusumano say about piracy in 2013 that people want?
5acfcd4f77cf76001a6860aa
True
immediacy
156
What did Cara Cusumano say about piracy in 2014 that people don't want?
5acfcd4f77cf76001a6860ab
True
used the Internet to present its content
305
What had the festival not done for the past three years when the statement by Cara Cusumano was made?
5acfcd4f77cf76001a6860ac
True
work exclusively online
428
It was the last year of Tribeca featuring a showcase of producers who do what?
5acfcd4f77cf76001a6860ad
True
downloading
485
What behavior is just done by people who want content for free?
5acfcd4f77cf76001a6860ae
True
Cara Cusumano, director of the Tribeca Film Festival, stated in April 2014: "Piracy is less about people not wanting to pay and more about just wanting the immediacy – people saying, 'I want to watch Spiderman right now' and downloading it". The statement occurred during the third year that the festival used the Internet to present its content, while it was the first year that it featured a showcase of content producers who work exclusively online. Cusumano further explained that downloading behavior is not merely conducted by people who merely want to obtain content for free:
Who made clear the motivations of the filmmakers?
5726d1985951b619008f7eff
Matt Deaner
85
False
Who encourages watching movies at a theater as making money from the film?
5726d1985951b619008f7f00
Distributors
145
False
What is restricted to ensure the largest number of people see a movie at the theater?
5726d1985951b619008f7f01
immediate access to online
274
False
What is restricted unless the film has a traditional theater release?
5726d1985951b619008f7f02
tax support that a film can receive
509
False
Matt Deaner
85
Who made unclear the motivations of the filmmakers?
5acfce2f77cf76001a6860dc
True
Distributors
145
Who discourages watching movies at a theater as making money from the film?
5acfce2f77cf76001a6860dd
True
immediate access to online
274
What is restricted to ensure the smallest number of people see a movie at the theater?
5acfce2f77cf76001a6860de
True
the immediate access to online
270
What is restricted to ensure the largest number of people see a movie at home?
5acfce2f77cf76001a6860df
True
tax support that a film can receive
509
What is unrestricted unless the film has a traditional theater release?
5acfce2f77cf76001a6860e0
True
In response to Cusumano's perspective, Screen Producers Australia executive director Matt Deaner clarified the motivation of the film industry: "Distributors are usually wanting to encourage cinema-going as part of this process [monetizing through returns] and restrict the immediate access to online so as to encourage the maximum number of people to go to the cinema." Deaner further explained the matter in terms of the Australian film industry, stating: "there are currently restrictions on quantities of tax support that a film can receive unless the film has a traditional cinema release."
What researchers conducted a study in the early part of May 2014?
5726d1bdf1498d1400e8ec3e
University of Portsmouth
135
False
How many people were part of the study?
5726d1bdf1498d1400e8ec3f
6,000
240
False
What was the age range of people studied?
5726d1bdf1498d1400e8ec40
seven to 84
267
False
Who did downloaders want to help by avoiding studios and record companies?
5726d1bdf1498d1400e8ec41
artists
466
False
University of Portsmouth
135
What researchers conducted a study in the later part of May 2014?
5acfcea677cf76001a6860f8
True
6,000
240
How many people weren't part of the study?
5acfcea677cf76001a6860f9
True
seven to 84
267
What was the age range of dogs studied?
5acfcea677cf76001a6860fa
True
artists
466
Who did uploaders want to help by avoiding studios and record companies?
5acfcea677cf76001a6860fb
True
artists
466
Who did downloaders want to hurt by avoiding studios and record companies?
5acfcea677cf76001a6860fc
True
In a study published in the Journal of Behavioural and Experimental Economics, and reported on in early May 2014, researchers from the University of Portsmouth in the UK discussed findings from examining the illegal downloading behavior of 6,000 Finnish people, aged seven to 84. The list of reasons for downloading given by the study respondents included money saving; the ability to access material not on general release, or before it was released; and assisting artists to avoid involvement with record companies and movie studios.
Even though piracy adds costs to production, what else is offered to developing countries?
5726d229708984140094d253
main access to media goods
134
False
What do the tradeoffs of digital piracy support?
5726d229708984140094d254
current neglected law enforcements
275
False
In what country is the issue of digital infringement social?
5726d229708984140094d255
China
336
False
What is in high demand in this country?
5726d229708984140094d256
cheap and affordable goods
448
False
What does the government of this country provide to businesses that produce content?
5726d229708984140094d257
connections
503
False
main access to media goods
134
Even though piracy adds costs to production, what else is offered to established countries?
5acfcf2777cf76001a68611c
True
current neglected law enforcements
275
What don't the tradeoffs of digital piracy support?
5acfcf2777cf76001a68611d
True
China
336
In what country is the issue of digital infringement anti-social?
5acfcf2777cf76001a68611e
True
cheap and affordable goods
448
What is in low demand in this country?
5acfcf2777cf76001a68611f
True
connections
503
What does the government of this country provide to non-businesses that produce content?
5acfcf2777cf76001a686120
True
According to the same study, even though digital piracy inflicts additional costs on the production side of media, it also offers the main access to media goods in developing countries. The strong tradeoffs that favor using digital piracy in developing economies dictate the current neglected law enforcements toward digital piracy. In China, the issue of digital infringement is not merely legal, but social – originating from the high demand for cheap and affordable goods as well as the governmental connections of the businesses which produce such goods.
What happens when a country bans a movie?
5726d370dd62a815002e918a
the spread of copied videos and DVDs
82
False
Who did documentary maker Ilinca Calugareanu write an article for?
5726d370dd62a815002e918b
New York Times
179
False
What was Irina Margareta Nistor's job in Romania?
5726d370dd62a815002e918c
a narrator for state TV
247
False
What did a visitor give to Nistor?
5726d370dd62a815002e918d
bootlegged copies of American movies
338
False
How many movies did Nistor dub for secret viewings in Romania?
5726d370dd62a815002e918e
3,000
477
False
the spread of copied videos and DVDs
82
What happens when a country accepts a movie?
5acfcfaa77cf76001a686138
True
New York Times
179
Who did documentary maker Ilinca Calugareanu draw a picture for?
5acfcfaa77cf76001a686139
True
a narrator for state TV
247
What was Irina Margareta Nistor's job in Bulgaria?
5acfcfaa77cf76001a68613a
True
3,000
477
How many movies did Nistor dub for public viewings in Romania?
5acfcfaa77cf76001a68613b
True
bootlegged copies of American movies
338
What did a visitor take from Nistor?
5acfcfaa77cf76001a68613c
True
There have been instances where a country's government bans a movie, resulting in the spread of copied videos and DVDs. Romanian-born documentary maker Ilinca Calugareanu wrote a New York Times article telling the story of Irina Margareta Nistor, a narrator for state TV under Nicolae Ceauşescu's regime. A visitor from the west gave her bootlegged copies of American movies, which she dubbed for secret viewings through Romania. According to the article, she dubbed more than 3,000 movies and became the country's second-most famous voice after Ceauşescu, even though no one knew her name until many years later.
In the U.S., where is copyright infringement contested?
5726d3d3f1498d1400e8ec78
civil court
76
False
Who did MGM studios file a lawsuit against?
5726d3d3f1498d1400e8ec79
Grokster and Streamcast
310
False
In 2005, who did the Supreme Court rule in favor of?
5726d3d3f1498d1400e8ec7a
MGM
434
False
What did P2P file sharing services market themselves as?
5726d3d3f1498d1400e8ec7b
venues for acquiring copyrighted movies
582
False
What studio's case decision was NOT overturned?
5726d3d3f1498d1400e8ec7c
Sony
677
False
civil court
76
In the U.S., where is copyright infringement uncontested?
5acfd13e77cf76001a68618e
True
Grokster and Streamcast
310
Who did MGM studios not file a lawsuit against?
5acfd13e77cf76001a68618f
True
MGM
434
In 2015, who did the Supreme Court rule in favor of?
5acfd13e77cf76001a686190
True
venues for acquiring copyrighted movies
582
What did P2P file sharing services not market themselves as?
5acfd13e77cf76001a686191
True
Sony
677
What studio's case decision was overturned?
5acfd13e77cf76001a686192
True
In the U.S., copyright infringement is sometimes confronted via lawsuits in civil court, against alleged infringers directly, or against providers of services and software that support unauthorized copying. For example, major motion-picture corporation MGM Studios filed suit against P2P file-sharing services Grokster and Streamcast for their contributory role in copyright infringement. In 2005, the Supreme Court ruled in favor of MGM, holding that such services could be held liable for copyright infringement since they functioned and, indeed, willfully marketed themselves as venues for acquiring copyrighted movies. The MGM v. Grokster case did not overturn the earlier Sony decision, but rather clouded the legal waters; future designers of software capable of being used for copyright infringement were warned.
Who can be assigned a contract to enforce a copyright in some jurisdictions?
5726d425f1498d1400e8ec82
third party
95
False
What do outside lawyers take infringers to court for?
5726d425f1498d1400e8ec83
to identify and exact settlements
337
False
What do critics usually call these lawyers?
5726d425f1498d1400e8ec84
copyright troll
440
False
What do these lawsuits have in the U.S.?
5726d425f1498d1400e8ec85
mixed results
482
False
third party
95
Who can't be assigned a contract to enforce a copyright in some jurisdictions?
5acfd1b877cf76001a6861b4
True
third party
95
Who can be assigned a contract to enforce a copyright in all jurisdictions?
5acfd1b877cf76001a6861b5
True
to identify and exact settlements
337
What do inside lawyers take infringers to court for?
5acfd1b877cf76001a6861b6
True
copyright troll
440
What do critics never call these lawyers?
5acfd1b877cf76001a6861b7
True
mixed results
482
What don't these lawsuits have in the U.S.?
5acfd1b877cf76001a6861b8
True
In some jurisdictions, copyright or the right to enforce it can be contractually assigned to a third party which did not have a role in producing the work. When this outsourced litigator appears to have no intention of taking any copyright infringement cases to trial, but rather only takes them just far enough through the legal system to identify and exact settlements from suspected infringers, critics commonly refer to the party as a "copyright troll." Such practices have had mixed results in the U.S.
When was the first criminal part of copyright law in the U.S. added?
5726d4d1708984140094d2ab
1897
64
False
What type of penalty was made for unlawful performances that are willful and for profit?
5726d4d1708984140094d2ac
misdemeanor
90
False
What did a criminal infringer do to be prosecuted?
5726d4d1708984140094d2ad
for the purpose of commercial advantage or private financial gain
326
False
What must a prosecuter show after the basic elements of infringement?
5726d4d1708984140094d2ae
that defendant willfully infringed
665
False
What is the threshold of the number of copies and the value of the works?
5726d4d1708984140094d2af
very low threshold
785
False
1897
64
When was the last criminal part of copyright law in the U.S. added?
5acfd2e577cf76001a6861ee
True
misdemeanor
90
What type of penalty was made for lawful performances that are willful and for profit?
5acfd2e577cf76001a6861ef
True
for the purpose of commercial advantage or private financial gain.
326
What did a criminal infringer not do to be prosecuted?
5acfd2e577cf76001a6861f0
True
that defendant willfully infringed
665
What mustn't a prosecuter show after the basic elements of infringement?
5acfd2e577cf76001a6861f1
True
very low threshold
785
What isn't the threshold of the number of copies and the value of the works?
5acfd2e577cf76001a6861f2
True
The first criminal provision in U.S. copyright law was added in 1897, which established a misdemeanor penalty for "unlawful performances and representations of copyrighted dramatic and musical compositions" if the violation had been "willful and for profit." Criminal copyright infringement requires that the infringer acted "for the purpose of commercial advantage or private financial gain." 17 U.S.C. § 506. To establish criminal liability, the prosecutor must first show the basic elements of copyright infringement: ownership of a valid copyright, and the violation of one or more of the copyright holder's exclusive rights. The government must then establish that defendant willfully infringed or, in other words, possessed the necessary mens rea. Misdemeanor infringement has a very low threshold in terms of number of copies and the value of the infringed works.
When was United States v. LaMacchia contested?
5726d529dd62a815002e91a4
1994
44
False
At the time, what infringement could not be prosecuted under criminal copyright law?
5726d529dd62a815002e91a5
non-commercial motives
258
False
What loophole did the ruling give rise to?
5726d529dd62a815002e91a6
LaMacchia Loophole
385
False
If there is no profit involved, what would happen to criminal charges of fraud?
5726d529dd62a815002e91a7
dismissed
475
False
1994
44
When was United States v. LaMacchia not contested?
5acfdc7e77cf76001a686326
True
non-commercial motives
258
At the time, what infringement could be prosecuted under criminal copyright law?
5acfdc7e77cf76001a686327
True
LaMacchia Loophole
385
What loophole didn't the ruling give rise to?
5acfdc7e77cf76001a686328
True
LaMacchia Loophole,
385
What loophole did the ruling kill?
5acfdc7e77cf76001a686329
True
dismissed
475
If there is profit involved, what would happen to criminal charges of fraud?
5acfdc7e77cf76001a68632a
True
United States v. LaMacchia 871 F.Supp. 535 (1994) was a case decided by the United States District Court for the District of Massachusetts which ruled that, under the copyright and cybercrime laws effective at the time, committing copyright infringement for non-commercial motives could not be prosecuted under criminal copyright law. The ruling gave rise to what became known as the "LaMacchia Loophole," wherein criminal charges of fraud or copyright infringement would be dismissed under current legal standards, so long as there was no profit motive involved.
What federal law did the United States pass in 1997, in response to the LaMacchia Loophole?
5726d598708984140094d2c9
No Electronic Theft Act
18
False
What is the maximum prison time for infringement under the new law?
5726d598708984140094d2ca
five years in prison
332
False
What is the maximum monetary fine under the new law?
5726d598708984140094d2cb
$250,000
363
False
How much were statutory damages raised by?
5726d598708984140094d2cc
50%
427
False
What was the law called that let people be immune to prosecution?
5726d598708984140094d2cd
Copyright Act
618
False
No Electronic Theft Act
18
What federal law did the United States pass in 1999, in response to the LaMacchia Loophole?
5acfdcfa77cf76001a686330
True
five years in prison
332
What is the minimum prison time for infringement under the new law?
5acfdcfa77cf76001a686331
True
$250,000
363
What is the minimum monetary fine under the new law?
5acfdcfa77cf76001a686332
True
50%
427
How much were statutory damages lowered by?
5acfdcfa77cf76001a686333
True
Copyright Act
618
What was the law called that let people be immune to persecution?
5acfdcfa77cf76001a686334
True
The United States No Electronic Theft Act (NET Act), a federal law passed in 1997, in response to LaMacchia, provides for criminal prosecution of individuals who engage in copyright infringement under certain circumstances, even when there is no monetary profit or commercial benefit from the infringement. Maximum penalties can be five years in prison and up to $250,000 in fines. The NET Act also raised statutory damages by 50%. The court's ruling explicitly drew attention to the shortcomings of current law that allowed people to facilitate mass copyright infringement while being immune to prosecution under the Copyright Act.
What directive in 2001 let European Union countries to enact laws that allowed making copies for personal use?
5726d602dd62a815002e91d2
EU Copyright Directive of 2001
87
False
What was the directive NOT intended for?
5726d602dd62a815002e91d3
legitimize file-sharing
326
False
Compensation to the rights-holder is generally a levy or what else?
5726d602dd62a815002e91d4
a tax on the content itself
741
False
What is an example of a country that has no levies collected?
5726d602dd62a815002e91d5
Canada
797
False
What are examples of general purpose storage devices?
5726d602dd62a815002e91d6
computer hard drives, portable media players, and phones
889
False
EU Copyright Directive of 2001
87
What directive in 2010 let European Union countries to enact laws that allowed making copies for personal use?
5ad00e0477cf76001a686816
True
legitimize file-sharing
326
What was the directive intended for?
5ad00e0477cf76001a686817
True
tax on the content itself
743
Compensation to the rights-holder is never a levy or what else?
5ad00e0477cf76001a686818
True
Canada
797
What is an example of a country that has all levies collected?
5ad00e0477cf76001a686819
True
computer hard drives, portable media players, and phones
889
What are examples of specific purpose storage devices?
5ad00e0477cf76001a68681a
True
The personal copying exemption in the copyright law of EU member states stems from the EU Copyright Directive of 2001, which is generally devised to allow EU members to enact laws sanctioning making copies without authorization, as long as they are for personal, noncommerical use. The Copyright Directive was not intended to legitimize file-sharing, but rather the common practice of space shifting copyright-protected content from a legally purchased CD (for example) to certain kinds of devices and media, provided rights holders are compensated and no copy protection measures are circumvented. Rights-holder compensation takes various forms, depending on the country, but is generally either a levy on "recording" devices and media, or a tax on the content itself. In some countries, such as Canada, the applicability of such laws to copying onto general-purpose storage devices like computer hard drives, portable media players, and phones, for which no levies are collected, has been the subject of debate and further efforts to reform copyright law.
What does the personal copying exemption explicitly need?
5726d65cdd62a815002e91e6
was obtained legitimately
100
False
What is an example of a country that the exemption was assumed?
5726d65cdd62a815002e91e7
Netherlands
215
False
When did the Court of Justice of the EU make a ruling about distinction?
5726d65cdd62a815002e91e8
April 2014
391
False
In which country is downloading from a file-sharing network no longer legal?
5726d65cdd62a815002e91e9
Netherlands
642
False
was obtained legitimately
100
What does the personal copying exemption explicitly not need?
5ad00efa77cf76001a68682a
True
Netherlands
215
What is an example of a country that the exemption wasn't assumed?
5ad00efa77cf76001a68682b
True
April 2014
391
When didn't the Court of Justice of the EU make a ruling about distinction?
5ad00efa77cf76001a68682c
True
Netherlands
642
In which country is uploading from a file-sharing network no longer legal?
5ad00efa77cf76001a68682d
True
Netherlands
642
In which country is downloading from a file-sharing network always legal?
5ad00efa77cf76001a68682e
True
In some countries, the personal copying exemption explicitly requires that the content being copied was obtained legitimately – i.e., from authorized sources, not file-sharing networks. Other countries, such as the Netherlands, make no such distinction; the exemption there had been assumed, even by the government, to apply to any such copying, even from file-sharing networks. However, in April 2014, the Court of Justice of the European Union ruled that "national legislation which makes no distinction between private copies made from lawful sources and those made from counterfeited or pirated sources cannot be tolerated." Thus, in the Netherlands, for example, downloading from file-sharing networks is no longer legal.
What is the U.S. law that uses the WIPO Copyright as it's Title I?
5726d6bcdd62a815002e91f6
DMCA
20
False
What is it called when someone intentionally breaks encryption on a movie or game?
5726d6bcdd62a815002e91f7
"circumvent[ing] a technological measure
146
False
Anticircumvention exemptions are generally seen to be be what?
5726d6bcdd62a815002e91f8
inefficient
691
False
What are child safety and public library software used to filter?
5726d6bcdd62a815002e91f9
website
736
False
DMCA
20
What is the U.S. law that doesn't use the WIPO Copyright as it's Title I?
5ad00f5877cf76001a68683c
True
DMCA
20
What is the U.N. law that uses the WIPO Copyright as it's Title I?
5ad00f5877cf76001a68683d
True
circumvent[ing] a technological measure
147
What is it called when someone unintentionally breaks encryption on a movie or game?
5ad00f5877cf76001a68683e
True
inefficient
691
Anticircumvention exemptions are generally not seen to be what?
5ad00f5877cf76001a68683f
True
website
736
What are adult safety and public library software used to filter?
5ad00f5877cf76001a686840
True
Title I of the U.S. DMCA, the WIPO Copyright and Performances and Phonograms Treaties Implementation Act has provisions that prevent persons from "circumvent[ing] a technological measure that effectively controls access to a work". Thus if a distributor of copyrighted works has some kind of software, dongle or password access device installed in instances of the work, any attempt to bypass such a copy protection scheme may be actionable – though the US Copyright Office is currently reviewing anticircumvention rulemaking under DMCA – anticircumvention exemptions that have been in place under the DMCA include those in software designed to filter websites that are generally seen to be inefficient (child safety and public library website filtering software) and the circumvention of copy protection mechanisms that have malfunctioned, have caused the instance of the work to become inoperable or which are no longer supported by their manufacturers.
What includes Internet portals, software and games?
5726d735dd62a815002e9206
intermediaries
13
False
What examples provide virtual information?
5726d735dd62a815002e9207
interactive forums and comment facilities
165
False
News, universities and libraries and archives are examples of what?
5726d735dd62a815002e9208
aggregators
244
False
What is an important element of the World Wide Web?
5726d735dd62a815002e9209
hyperlinks
479
False
intermediaries
13
What excludes Internet portals, software and games?
5ad00fba77cf76001a686850
True
intermediaries
13
What includes Internet portals, hardware and games?
5ad00fba77cf76001a686851
True
interactive forums and comment facilities
165
What examples provide actual information?
5ad00fba77cf76001a686852
True
aggregators
244
News, universities and libraries and archives aren't examples of what?
5ad00fba77cf76001a686853
True
hyperlinks
479
What is an unimportant element of the World Wide Web?
5ad00fba77cf76001a686854
True
In addition, intermediaries are now also generally understood to include Internet portals, software and games providers, those providing virtual information such as interactive forums and comment facilities with or without a moderation system, aggregators of various kinds, such as news aggregators, universities, libraries and archives, web search engines, chat rooms, web blogs, mailing lists, and any website which provides access to third party content through, for example, hyperlinks, a crucial element of the World Wide Web.
Who did early court cases focus on?
5726d791f1498d1400e8ecc2
Internet service providers
46
False
What could be sued for under civil or criminal law?
5726d791f1498d1400e8ecc3
libel, defamation, or pornography
202
False
What was the result of early law on online liability?
5726d791f1498d1400e8ecc4
varied widely from country to country
442
False
When were the first laws of liability passed?
5726d791f1498d1400e8ecc5
mid-1990s
553
False
Internet service providers
46
Who didn't early court cases focus on?
5ad0100877cf76001a686864
True
Internet service providers
46
Who did late court cases focus on?
5ad0100877cf76001a686865
True
libel, defamation, or pornography
202
What couldn't be sued for under civil or criminal law?
5ad0100877cf76001a686866
True
varied widely from country to country
442
What was the result of early law on offline liability?
5ad0100877cf76001a686867
True
mid-1990s
553
When were the last laws of liability passed?
5ad0100877cf76001a686868
True
Early court cases focused on the liability of Internet service providers (ISPs) for hosting, transmitting or publishing user-supplied content that could be actioned under civil or criminal law, such as libel, defamation, or pornography. As different content was considered in different legal systems, and in the absence of common definitions for "ISPs," "bulletin boards" or "online publishers," early law on online intermediaries' liability varied widely from country to country. The first laws on online intermediaries' liability were passed from the mid-1990s onwards.[citation needed]
What law enacted in the U.S. in 1998 gave online intermediaries limited statutory immunity?
5726d7f05951b619008f7fb1
Digital Millennium Copyright Act
9
False
How is this law characterized in the U.S.?
5726d7f05951b619008f7fb2
safe harbor
429
False
In the E.U., what are the governing principles for ISP's?
5726d7f05951b619008f7fb3
mere conduit
535
False
What is it called when intermediaries cannot be given an order by governments to monitor what happens on their services?
5726d7f05951b619008f7fb4
no obligation to monitor
638
False
What was attempted to be amended in 2009 to support new ways to prevent copyright infringement?
5726d7f05951b619008f7fb5
European Telecoms Package
892
False
Digital Millennium Copyright Act
9
What law rejected in the U.S. in 1998 gave online intermediaries limited statutory immunity?
5ad010c777cf76001a686882
True
safe harbor
429
How is this law characterized in the U.N.?
5ad010c777cf76001a686883
True
mere conduit
535
In the E.U., what aren't the governing principles for ISP's?
5ad010c777cf76001a686884
True
no obligation to monitor
638
What is it called when intermediaries cannot be given an order by governments to ignore what happens on their services?
5ad010c777cf76001a686885
True
European Telecoms Package
892
What was attempted to be amended in 2007 to support new ways to prevent copyright infringement?
5ad010c777cf76001a686886
True
The U.S. Digital Millennium Copyright Act (1998) and the European E-Commerce Directive (2000) provide online intermediaries with limited statutory immunity from liability for copyright infringement. Online intermediaries hosting content that infringes copyright are not liable, so long as they do not know about it and take actions once the infringing content is brought to their attention. In U.S. law this is characterized as "safe harbor" provisions. Under European law, the governing principles for Internet Service Providers are "mere conduit", meaning that they are neutral 'pipes' with no knowledge of what they are carrying; and 'no obligation to monitor' meaning that they cannot be given a general mandate by governments to monitor content. These two principles are a barrier for certain forms of online copyright enforcement and they were the reason behind an attempt to amend the European Telecoms Package in 2009 to support new measures against copyright infringement.
What do certain type of intermediaries NOT do?
5726d852708984140094d33b
host or transmit infringing content
37
False
What protocol do intermediaries use that include a torrent tracker?
5726d852708984140094d33c
BitTorrent
372
False
What do Torrent files NOT contain?
5726d852708984140094d33d
copyrighted content
545
False
What is a torrent site that uses magnet links to share peer-to-peer?
5726d852708984140094d33e
The Pirate Bay
736
False
host or transmit infringing content
37
What do certain type of intermediaries do?
5ad0126977cf76001a6868b8
True
BitTorrent
372
What protocol do intermediaries not use that include a torrent tracker?
5ad0126977cf76001a6868b9
True
BitTorrent
372
What protocol do intermediaries use that exclude a torrent tracker?
5ad0126977cf76001a6868ba
True
copyrighted content
545
What do Torrent files contain?
5ad0126977cf76001a6868bb
True
The Pirate Bay
736
What is a torrent site that uses magnet links to block peer-to-peer?
5ad0126977cf76001a6868bc
True
These types of intermediaries do not host or transmit infringing content, themselves, but may be regarded in some courts as encouraging, enabling or facilitating infringement by users. These intermediaries may include the author, publishers and marketers of peer-to-peer networking software, and the websites that allow users to download such software. In the case of the BitTorrent protocol, intermediaries may include the torrent tracker and any websites or search engines which facilitate access to torrent files. Torrent files don't contain copyrighted content, but they may make reference to files that do, and they may point to trackers which coordinate the sharing of those files. Some torrent indexing and search sites, such as The Pirate Bay, now encourage the use of magnet links, instead of direct links to torrent files, creating another layer of indirection; using such links, torrent files are obtained from other peers, rather than from a particular website.
What is the legal status of secondary liability?
5726d8a5708984140094d353
subject of ongoing litigation
110
False
What makes peer-to-peer networks different than other online providers?
5726d8a5708984140094d354
decentralised structure
145
False
What was the initial purpose of the BitTorrent protocol?
5726d8a5708984140094d355
distribute large files effectively
381
False
What are the reasons for more complex network configurations in peer-to-peer software development?
5726d8a5708984140094d356
to avoid liability as intermediaries
549
False
subject of ongoing litigation
110
What is the legal status of primary liability?
5ad012bf77cf76001a6868c8
True
decentralised structure
145
What makes peer-to-peer networks the same as other online providers?
5ad012bf77cf76001a6868c9
True
distribute large files effectively
381
What was the final purpose of the BitTorrent protocol?
5ad012bf77cf76001a6868ca
True
distribute large files effectively
381
What wasn't the initial purpose of the BitTorrent protocol?
5ad012bf77cf76001a6868cb
True
to avoid liability as intermediaries
549
What are the reasons for more simple network configurations in peer-to-peer software development?
5ad012bf77cf76001a6868cc
True
Nevertheless, whether and to what degree any of these types of intermediaries have secondary liability is the subject of ongoing litigation. The decentralised structure of peer-to-peer networks, in particular, does not sit easily with existing laws on online intermediaries' liability. The BitTorrent protocol established an entirely decentralised network architecture in order to distribute large files effectively. Recent developments in peer-to-peer technology towards more complex network configurations are said to have been driven by a desire to avoid liability as intermediaries under existing laws.
What does Article 10 of the Berne Convention call certain uses that limit copyright?
5726d9005951b619008f7fd9
fair practice
210
False
Where are minimal quotations commonly used?
5726d9005951b619008f7fda
journalism and education
282
False
What categories do works that would normally be considered infringing fall into?
5726d9005951b619008f7fdb
fair use or fair dealing
450
False
What do these statutes represent?
5726d9005951b619008f7fdc
principles underlying many earlier judicial precedents
547
False
What are these statutes essential to?
5726d9005951b619008f7fdd
freedom of speech
635
False
fair practice
210
What does Article 11 of the Berne Convention call certain uses that limit copyright?
5ad0137b77cf76001a6868dc
True
fair practice
210
What does Article 10 of the Berne Convention not call certain uses that limit copyright?
5ad0137b77cf76001a6868dd
True
journalism and education
282
Where are maximum quotations commonly used?
5ad0137b77cf76001a6868de
True
fair use or fair dealing
450
What categories do work that wouldn't normally be considered infringing fall into?
5ad0137b77cf76001a6868df
True
principles underlying many earlier judicial precedents
547
What don't these statutes represent?
5ad0137b77cf76001a6868e0
True
Article 10 of the Berne Convention mandates that national laws provide for limitations to copyright, so that copyright protection does not extend to certain kinds of uses that fall under what the treaty calls "fair practice," including but not limited to minimal quotations used in journalism and education. The laws implementing these limitations and exceptions for uses that would otherwise be infringing broadly fall into the categories of either fair use or fair dealing. In common law systems, these fair practice statutes typically enshrine principles underlying many earlier judicial precedents, and are considered essential to freedom of speech.
What is it called when a law disallows copyright owners from denying a license for certain uses?
5726d944dd62a815002e927e
compulsory licensing
35
False
What are two examples of this licensing?
5726d944dd62a815002e927f
compilations and live performances of music
180
False
What happens if a royalty is paid to the copyright owner or representative?
5726d944dd62a815002e9280
no infringement occurs
305
False
What country has fair dealing laws?
5726d944dd62a815002e9281
Canada
514
False
compulsory licensing
35
What is it called when a law allows copyright owners from denying a license for certain uses?
5ad013e577cf76001a6868f8
True
compulsory licensing
35
What is it called when a law disallows copyright owners from accepting a license for certain uses?
5ad013e577cf76001a6868f9
True
compilations and live performances of music
180
What aren't two examples of this licensing?
5ad013e577cf76001a6868fa
True
no infringement occurs
305
What happens if a royalty isn't paid to the copyright owner or representative?
5ad013e577cf76001a6868fb
True
Canada
514
What country has no fair dealing laws?
5ad013e577cf76001a6868fc
True
Another example is the practice of compulsory licensing, which is where the law forbids copyright owners from denying a license for certain uses of certain kinds of works, such as compilations and live performances of music. Compulsory licensing laws generally say that for certain uses of certain works, no infringement occurs as long as a royalty, at a rate determined by law rather than private negotiation, is paid to the copyright owner or representative copyright collective. Some fair dealing laws, such as Canada's, include similar royalty requirements.
Where was the Public Relations Consultants Association Ltd v Newspaper Licensing Agency Ltd case contested?
5726d98cdd62a815002e9286
Europe
3
False
Whose copyright were news aggregators infringing on?
5726d98cdd62a815002e9287
news generators
216
False
When was the second part of the case decided?
5726d98cdd62a815002e9288
June 2014
472
False
What did the courts rule was NOT infringement?
5726d98cdd62a815002e9289
temporary web cache of consumers
586
False
Europe
3
Where was the Private Relations Consultants Association Ltd v Newspaper Licensing Agency Ltd case contested?
5ad0148477cf76001a68690c
True
Europe
3
Where was the Public Relations Consultants Association Ltd v Newspaper Licensing Agency Ltd case not contested?
5ad0148477cf76001a68690d
True
news generators
216
Whose copyright weren't news aggregators infringing on?
5ad0148477cf76001a68690e
True
June 2014
472
When was the second part of the case undecided?
5ad0148477cf76001a68690f
True
temporary web cache of consumers
586
What did the courts rule was infringement?
5ad0148477cf76001a686910
True
In Europe, the copyright infringement case Public Relations Consultants Association Ltd v Newspaper Licensing Agency Ltd had two prongs; one concerned whether a news aggregator service infringed the copyright of the news generators; the other concerned whether the temporary web cache created by the web browser of a consumer of the aggregator's service, also infringed the copyright of the news generators. The first prong was decided in favor of the news generators; in June 2014 the second prong was decided by the Court of Justice of the European Union (CJEU), which ruled that the temporary web cache of consumers of the aggregator did not infringe the copyright of the news generators.
If a work must include a degree of originality, what else must it contain to be protected?
5726da0f5951b619008f7ff7
in a fixed medium
110
False
What is NOT protected?
5726da0f5951b619008f7ff8
The idea itself
182
False
What makes a copy of an original idea infringing?
5726da0f5951b619008f7ff9
it copies that person's unique, tangible expression of the idea
289
False
What limitation is only embodied in case law, rather than statues?
5726da0f5951b619008f7ffa
what qualifies as original
402
False
in a fixed medium
110
If a work must exclude a degree of originality, what else must it contain to be protected?
5ad0152b77cf76001a686928
True
in a fixed medium
110
If a work must include a degree of originality, what else mustn't it contain to be protected?
5ad0152b77cf76001a686929
True
The idea itself
182
What is protected?
5ad0152b77cf76001a68692a
True
it copies that person's unique, tangible expression of the idea
289
What makes a copy of an unoriginal idea infringing?
5ad0152b77cf76001a68692b
True
what qualifies as original
402
What limitation is only embodied in case law, and also in statues?
5ad0152b77cf76001a68692c
True
In order to qualify for protection, a work must be an expression with a degree of originality, and it must be in a fixed medium, such as written down on paper or recorded digitally. The idea itself is not protected. That is, a copy of someone else's original idea is not infringing unless it copies that person's unique, tangible expression of the idea. Some of these limitations, especially regarding what qualifies as original, are embodied only in case law (judicial precedent), rather than in statutes.
Which country needs a similarity requirement to determine if the work was copied?
5726da59dd62a815002e92a2
U.S.
7
False
What test might courts require software to pass to determine if it is protected or infringing?
5726da59dd62a815002e92a3
Abstraction-Filtration-Comparison test
191
False
What has software case law determined about R&D, effort and expense put into creation?
5726da59dd62a815002e92a4
doesn't affect copyright protection
485
False
U.S.
7
Which country needs a similarity requirement to determine if the work wasn't copied?
5ad015bf77cf76001a686944
True
U.S.
7
Which country doesn't need a similarity requirement to determine if the work was copied?
5ad015bf77cf76001a686945
True
Abstraction-Filtration-Comparison test
191
What test might courts require hardware to pass to determine if it is protected or infringing?
5ad015bf77cf76001a686946
True
Abstraction-Filtration-Comparison test
191
What test might courts require software to pass to determine if it isn't protected or infringing?
5ad015bf77cf76001a686947
True
doesn't affect copyright protection
485
What has hardware case law determined about R&D, effort and expense put into creation?
5ad015bf77cf76001a686948
True
In the U.S., for example, copyright case law contains a substantial similarity requirement to determine whether the work was copied. Likewise, courts may require computer software to pass an Abstraction-Filtration-Comparison test (AFC Test) to determine if it is too abstract to qualify for protection, or too dissimilar to an original work to be considered infringing. Software-related case law has also clarified that the amount of R&D, effort and expense put into a work's creation doesn't affect copyright protection.
Who takes different steps to prevent infringement?
5726daa5dd62a815002e92bc
Corporations and legislatures
0
False
What is the major focus of these steps?
5726daa5dd62a815002e92bd
preventing or reducing digital methods of infringement
163
False
What kinds of legislation are a strategy for preventing infringement?
5726daa5dd62a815002e92be
civil & criminal
249
False
What does DRM and anti-circumvention laws do?
5726daa5dd62a815002e92bf
limit the amount of control consumers have
490
False
Corporations and legislatures
0
Who takes different steps to allow infringement?
5ad0163077cf76001a686958
True
Corporations and legislatures
0
Who never takes different steps to prevent infringement?
5ad0163077cf76001a686959
True
preventing or reducing digital methods of infringement
163
What is the minor focus of these steps?
5ad0163077cf76001a68695a
True
civil & criminal
249
What kinds of legislation aren't a strategy for preventing infringement?
5ad0163077cf76001a68695b
True
limit the amount of control consumers have
490
What doesn't DRM and anti-circumvention laws do?
5ad0163077cf76001a68695c
True
Corporations and legislatures take different types of preventative measures to deter copyright infringement, with much of the focus since the early 1990s being on preventing or reducing digital methods of infringement. Strategies include education, civil & criminal legislation, and international agreements, as well as publicizing anti-piracy litigation successes and imposing forms of digital media copy protection, such as controversial DRM technology and anti-circumvention laws, which limit the amount of control consumers have over the use of products and content they have purchased.
How have governments lowered infringement rates?
5726db29708984140094d3b3
narrowing the scope of what is considered infringing
42
False
Besides upholding international treaty, what else have countries done specifically to digital works and uses?
5726db29708984140094d3b4
enacted compulsory licensing laws
220
False
What law in the US considers digital transmission of audio to be licensed if certain conditions are met?
5726db29708984140094d3b5
DMCA
333
False
What else does this law provide to service providers?
5726db29708984140094d3b6
safe harbor
573
False
Who does this law target?
5726db29708984140094d3b7
providers whose users are suspected of copyright infringement
605
False
narrowing the scope of what is considered infringing
42
How have governments increased infringement rates?
5ad016b077cf76001a68696c
True
enacted compulsory licensing laws
220
Besides upholding international treaty, what else haven't countries done specifically to digital works and uses?
5ad016b077cf76001a68696d
True
DMCA
333
What law in the UN considers digital transmission of audio to be licensed if certain conditions are met?
5ad016b077cf76001a68696e
True
safe harbor
573
What else doesn't this law provide to service providers?
5ad016b077cf76001a68696f
True
providers whose users are suspected of copyright infringement
605
Who doesn't this law target?
5ad016b077cf76001a686970
True
Legislatures have reduced infringement by narrowing the scope of what is considered infringing. Aside from upholding international copyright treaty obligations to provide general limitations and exceptions, nations have enacted compulsory licensing laws applying specifically to digital works and uses. For example, in the U.S., the DMCA, an implementation of the 1996 WIPO Copyright Treaty, considers digital transmissions of audio recordings to be licensed as long as a designated copyright collective's royalty and reporting requirements are met. The DMCA also provides safe harbor for digital service providers whose users are suspected of copyright infringement, thus reducing the likelihood that the providers themselves will be considered directly infringing.
What do some copyright owners do by reducing the scope of infringement?
5726db83708984140094d3c5
employing relatively permissive, "open" licensing
89
False
What must a user do under a prepared license?
5726db83708984140094d3c6
adhere to certain conditions
405
False
Besides lessening the burden on the courts, what is the effect of this license?
5726db83708984140094d3c7
reducing infringement
458
False
What is an example of a free software license?
5726db83708984140094d3c8
GNU General Public License
661
False
What works do Creative Commons licenses generally apply to?
5726db83708984140094d3c9
visual and literary works
765
False
employing relatively permissive, "open" licensing strategies
89
What do some copyright owners do by increasing the scope of infringement?
5ad0172677cf76001a686980
True
adhere to certain conditions
405
What mustn't a user do under a prepared license?
5ad0172677cf76001a686981
True
reducing infringement
458
Besides heightening the burden on the courts, what is the effect of this license?
5ad0172677cf76001a686982
True
GNU General Public License
661
What is an example of a paid software license?
5ad0172677cf76001a686983
True
visual and literary works.
765
What works do Creative Commons licenses generally not apply to?
5ad0172677cf76001a686984
True
Some copyright owners voluntarily reduce the scope of what is considered infringement by employing relatively permissive, "open" licensing strategies: rather than privately negotiating license terms with individual users who must first seek out the copyright owner and ask for permission, the copyright owner publishes and distributes the work with a prepared license that anyone can use, as long as they adhere to certain conditions. This has the effect of reducing infringement – and the burden on courts – by simply permitting certain types of uses under terms that the copyright owner considers reasonable. Examples include free software licenses, like the GNU General Public License (GPL), and the Creative Commons licenses, which are predominantly applied to visual and literary works.
How long is a movie typically released in theaters for?
5726dc14708984140094d3db
approximately 16 and a half weeks
157
False
During this time, how are digital versions of the movie transported in data storage devices?
5726dc14708984140094d3dc
by couriers
368
False
What can be done to a movie to only allow it to show at certain times?
5726dc14708984140094d3dd
encrypted
430
False
What can be coded to films to find the source of illegal copies?
5726dc14708984140094d3de
Anti-Piracy marks can be added
547
False
What inferior versions of movies are available for piracy during the theatrical run of a movie called?
5726dc14708984140094d3df
"cams" made by video recordings of the movie screens
768
False
16 and a half weeks
171
How long is a movie atypically released in theaters for?
5ad017ab77cf76001a68699a
True
by couriers
368
During this time, how aren't digital versions of the movie transported in data storage devices?
5ad017ab77cf76001a68699b
True
encrypted
430
What can't be done to a movie to only allow it to show at certain times?
5ad017ab77cf76001a68699c
True
Anti-Piracy marks can be added
547
What can be coded to films to find the source of legal copies?
5ad017ab77cf76001a68699d
True
"cams" made by video recordings of the movie screens
768
What superior versions of movies are available for piracy during the theatrical run of a movie called?
5ad017ab77cf76001a68699e
True
To prevent piracy of films, the standard drill of film distribution is to have a movie first released through movie theaters (theatrical window), on average approximately 16 and a half weeks, before having it released to Blu-Ray and DVD (entering its video window). During the theatrical window, digital versions of films are often transported in data storage devices by couriers rather than by data transmission. The data can be encrypted, with the key being made to work only at specific times in order to prevent leakage between screens. Coded Anti-Piracy marks can be added to films to identify the source of illegal copies and shut them down. As a result of these measures, the only versions of films available for piracy during the theatrical window are usually "cams" made by video recordings of the movie screens, which are of inferior quality compared to the original film version.
What 2010 body found how difficult it is to accurately report the financial impact of infringement?
5726dc5add62a815002e9312
U.S. GAO
4
False
How many commanly cited estimates did the body report on?
5726dc5add62a815002e9313
three
194
False
What did the FBI use as a source?
5726dc5add62a815002e9314
estimate
361
False
What report said the data could not be substantiated or traced to a reliable data source?
5726dc5add62a815002e9315
GAO report
281
False
U.S. GAO
4
What 2010 body found how easy it is to accurately report the financial impact of infringement?
5ad0182477cf76001a6869a4
True
U.S. GAO
4
What 2010 body found how difficult it is to inaccurately report the financial impact of infringement?
5ad0182477cf76001a6869a5
True
three
194
How many uncommonly cited estimates did the body report on?
5ad0182477cf76001a6869a6
True
estimate
361
What didn't the FBI use as a source?
5ad0182477cf76001a6869a7
True
GAO report
281
What report said the data could be substantiated or traced to a reliable data source?
5ad0182477cf76001a6869a8
True
The U.S. GAO's 2010 findings regarding the great difficulty of accurately gauging the economic impact of copyright infringement was reinforced within the same report by the body's research into three commonly cited estimates that had previously been provided to U.S. agencies. The GAO report explained that the sources – a Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI) estimate, a Customs and Border Protection (CBP) press release and a Motor and Equipment Manufacturers Association estimate – "cannot be substantiated or traced back to an underlying data source or methodology."
Who did a study in 2007 regarding the five countries with the highest rates of software piracy?
5726dcc0f1498d1400e8eda8
BSA and International Data Corporation
20
False
Which country had the lowest rate of software piracy?
5726dcc0f1498d1400e8eda9
U.S.
331
False
Which region had the highest loss?
5726dcc0f1498d1400e8edaa
Asia-Pacific
456
False
How much did the EU lose?
5726dcc0f1498d1400e8edab
$12,383,000
615
False
Where was the lowest amount of U.S. dollars lost?
5726dcc0f1498d1400e8edac
Middle East/Africa region
678
False
BSA and International Data Corporation
20
Who did a study in 2000 regarding the five countries with the highest rates of software piracy?
5ad0187f77cf76001a6869be
True
BSA and International Data Corporation
20
Who did a study in 2007 regarding the five cities with the highest rates of software piracy?
5ad0187f77cf76001a6869bf
True
U.S.
331
Which country had the highest rate of hardware piracy?
5ad0187f77cf76001a6869c0
True
Asia-Pacific
456
Which region had the highest gain?
5ad0187f77cf76001a6869c1
True
$12,383,000
615
How much did the EU gain?
5ad0187f77cf76001a6869c2
True
According to a 2007 BSA and International Data Corporation (IDC) study, the five countries with the highest rates of software piracy were: 1. Armenia (93%); 2. Bangladesh (92%); 3. Azerbaijan (92%); 4. Moldova (92%); and 5. Zimbabwe (91%). According to the study's results, the five countries with the lowest piracy rates were: 1. U.S. (20%); 2. Luxembourg (21%); 3. New Zealand (22%); 4. Japan (23%); and 5. Austria (25%). The 2007 report showed that the Asia-Pacific region was associated with the highest amount of loss, in terms of U.S. dollars, with $14,090,000, followed by the European Union, with a loss of $12,383,000; the lowest amount of U.S. dollars was lost in the Middle East/Africa region, where $2,446,000 was documented.
Who else did the BSA issues a report in 2011 with?
5726dd035951b619008f804d
IDC and Ipsos Public Affairs
50
False
What percentage of people admit to pirating software?
5726dd035951b619008f804e
57 percent
148
False
What was the commercial value of pirated software in 2011?
5726dd035951b619008f804f
US$63.4 billion
329
False
What nation had the higest piracy rate?
5726dd035951b619008f8050
Zimbabwe
501
False
What was the U.S.'s piracy rate?
5726dd035951b619008f8051
19%
620
False
IDC and Ipsos Public Affairs
50
Who else did the BSA issues a report in 2001 with?
5ad018ce77cf76001a6869c8
True
57 percent
148
What percentage of people admit to pirating hardware?
5ad018ce77cf76001a6869c9
True
US$63.4 billion
329
What was the commercial value of pirated hardware in 2011?
5ad018ce77cf76001a6869ca
True
Zimbabwe
501
What nation had the lowest nonpiracy rate?
5ad018ce77cf76001a6869cb
True
19%
620
What was the U.N.'s piracy rate?
5ad018ce77cf76001a6869cc
True
In its 2011 report, conducted in partnership with IDC and Ipsos Public Affairs, the BSA stated: "Over half of the world's personal computer users – 57 percent – admit to pirating software." The ninth annual "BSA Global Software Piracy Study" claims that the "commercial value of this shadow market of pirated software" was worth US$63.4 billion in 2011, with the highest commercial value of pirated PC software existent in the U.S. during that time period (US$9,773,000). According to the 2011 study, Zimbabwe was the nation with the highest piracy rate, at 92%, while the lowest piracy rate was present in the U.S., at 19%.
Who reported that piracy took $12.5 billion from the U.S. economy?
5726dd455951b619008f8069
Institute for Policy Innovation
13
False
How much money have retailers lost?
5726dd455951b619008f806a
over a billion dollars
291
False
How many production-level jobs were lost?
5726dd455951b619008f806b
46,000
344
False
Which government lost $422 million in potential tax money?
5726dd455951b619008f806c
U.S. government
414
False
Institute for Policy Innovation
13
Who reported that piracy gained $12.5 billion for the U.S. economy?
5ad0193b77cf76001a6869da
True
over a billion dollars
291
How much money have retailers made?
5ad0193b77cf76001a6869db
True
46,000
344
How many production-level jobs were gained?
5ad0193b77cf76001a6869dc
True
46,000
344
How many production-level jobs weren't lost?
5ad0193b77cf76001a6869dd
True
U.S. government
414
Which government made $422 million in potential tax money?
5ad0193b77cf76001a6869de
True
In 2007, the Institute for Policy Innovation (IPI) reported that music piracy took $12.5 billion from the U.S. economy. According to the study, musicians and those involved in the recording industry are not the only ones who experience losses attributed to music piracy. Retailers have lost over a billion dollars, while piracy has resulted in 46,000 fewer production-level jobs and almost 25,000 retail jobs. The U.S. government was also reported to suffer from music piracy, losing $422 million in tax revenue.
What book did Professor Aram Sinnreich write?
5726dd7af1498d1400e8ede2
The Piracy Crusade
38
False
What did Sinnreich call the link between lower music sales and peer-to-peer sharing site?
5726dd7af1498d1400e8ede3
tenuous
186
False
What was the industry going through?
5726dd7af1498d1400e8ede4
artificial expansion
294
False
What does he call the merging of economic, political and technological forces that drove the music industry?
5726dd7af1498d1400e8ede5
perfect bubble
341
False
The Piracy Crusade
38
What book did Professor Aram Sinnreich read?
5ad019e277cf76001a6869e4
True
The Piracy Crusade
38
What book didn't Professor Aram Sinnreich write?
5ad019e277cf76001a6869e5
True
tenuous
186
What didn't Sinnreich call the link between lower music sales and peer-to-peer sharing site?
5ad019e277cf76001a6869e6
True
artificial expansion
294
What wasn't the industry going through?
5ad019e277cf76001a6869e7
True
perfect bubble
341
What doesn't he call the merging of economic, political and technological forces that drove the music industry?
5ad019e277cf76001a6869e8
True
Professor Aram Sinnreich, in his book The Piracy Crusade, states that the connection between declining music sails and the creation of peer to peer file sharing sites such as Napster is tenuous, based on correlation rather than causation. He argues that the industry at the time was undergoing artificial expansion, what he describes as a "'perfect bubble'—a confluence of economic, political, and technological forces that drove the aggregate value of music sales to unprecedented heights at the end of the twentieth century".
What was the estimated total value of pirated software in 2010?
5726ddd7f1498d1400e8edea
$59 billion
134
False
Who accounted for over half the total?
5726ddd7f1498d1400e8edeb
emerging markets
160
False
What did the established markets receive for the first time?
5726ddd7f1498d1400e8edec
less PC shipments than emerging economies
287
False
What country has the highest retail value of software?
5726ddd7f1498d1400e8eded
China
649
False
What percentage of software in Africa is illegal?
5726ddd7f1498d1400e8edee
83 percent
880
False
$59 billion
134
What was the estimated total value of pirated software in 2000?
5ad01a3277cf76001a6869f8
True
$59 billion
134
What was the known total value of pirated software in 2010?
5ad01a3277cf76001a6869f9
True
emerging markets
345
Who accounted for less than half the total?
5ad01a3277cf76001a6869fa
True
less PC shipments than emerging economies
287
What did the established markets receive for the last time?
5ad01a3277cf76001a6869fb
True
83 percent
880
What country has the lowest retail value of software?
5ad01a3277cf76001a6869fc
True
The 2011 Business Software Alliance Piracy Study Standard, estimates the total commercial value of illegally copied software to be at $59 billion in 2010, with emerging markets accounting for $31.9 billion, over half of the total. Furthermore, mature markets for the first time received less PC shipments than emerging economies in 2010, making emerging markets now responsible for more than half of all computers in use worldwide. In addition with software infringement rates of 68 percent comparing to 24 percent of mature markets, emerging markets thus possess the majority of the global increase in the commercial value of counterfeit software. China continues to have the highest commercial value of such software at $8.9 billion among developing countries and second in the world behind the US at $9.7 billion in 2011. In 2011, the Business Software Alliance announced that 83 percent of software deployed on PCs in Africa has been pirated (excluding South Africa).
Greece
On what peninsula is Greece located?
572611d489a1e219009ac1e0
Balkan peninsula
115
False
How many geographic regions make up Greece?
572611d489a1e219009ac1e1
nine
287
False
How long is the coastline of Greece?
572611d489a1e219009ac1e2
8,498 mi
708
False
How many of Greece's islands are inhabited?
572611d489a1e219009ac1e3
227
774
False
What is the tallest mountain in Greece?
572611d489a1e219009ac1e4
Mount Olympus
839
False
Greece is strategically located at the crossroads of Europe, Asia, and Africa. Situated on the southern tip of the Balkan peninsula, it shares land borders with Albania to the northwest, the Republic of Macedonia and Bulgaria to the north and Turkey to the northeast. Greece consists of nine geographic regions: Macedonia, Central Greece, the Peloponnese, Thessaly, Epirus, the Aegean Islands (including the Dodecanese and Cyclades), Thrace, Crete, and the Ionian Islands. The Aegean Sea lies to the east of the mainland, the Ionian Sea to the west, and the Mediterranean Sea to the south. Greece has the longest coastline on the Mediterranean Basin and the 11th longest coastline in the world at 13,676 km (8,498 mi) in length, featuring a vast number of islands, of which 227 are inhabited. Eighty percent of Greece is mountainous, with Mount Olympus being the highest peak at 2,918 metres (9,573 ft).
Who was the first person to bring all of Greece together?
5726162238643c19005acfcf
Philip of Macedon
380
False
Who was the son of Philip of Macedon?
5726162238643c19005acfd0
Alexander the Great
432
False
Greece came part of what empire in the 2nd century BC?
5726162238643c19005acfd1
Rome
595
False
When was the Greek Orthodox Church started?
5726162238643c19005acfd2
first century AD
722
False
What year is considered the beginning of modern Greece?
5726162238643c19005acfd3
1830
993
False
Greece has one of the longest histories of any country, and is considered the cradle of Western civilization, and as such, is the birthplace of democracy, Western philosophy, the Olympic Games, Western literature, historiography, political science, major scientific and mathematical principles, and Western drama, including both tragedy and comedy. Greece was first unified under Philip of Macedon in the fourth century BC. His son Alexander the Great rapidly conquered much of the ancient world, spreading Greek culture and science from the eastern Mediterranean to the Indus River. Annexed by Rome in the second century BC, Greece became an integral part of the Roman Empire and its successor, the Byzantine Empire. The first century AD saw the establishment of the Greek Orthodox Church, which shaped the modern Greek identity and transmitted Greek traditions to the wider Orthodox World. Falling under Ottoman dominion in the mid-15th century, the modern nation state of Greece emerged in 1830 following the war of independence. Greece's rich historical legacy is reflected in large part by its 17 UNESCO World Heritage Sites, among the most in Europe and the world.
Greece is one of the members who founded what organization?
572618f238643c19005acfeb
United Nations
167
False
Which political philosophy does Greece follow?
572618f238643c19005acfec
democratic
12
False
When did Greece join the Eurozone?
572618f238643c19005acfed
2001
318
False
Greece has the biggest economic power where?
572618f238643c19005acfee
Balkans
597
False
Greece is a democratic and developed country with an advanced high-income economy, a high quality of life and a very high standard of living. A founding member of the United Nations, Greece was the tenth member to join the European Communities (precursor to the European Union) and has been part of the Eurozone since 2001. It is also a member of numerous other international institutions, including the Council of Europe, NATO,[a] OECD, OIF, OSCE and the WTO. Greece, which is one of the world's largest shipping powers, middle powers and top tourist destinations, has the largest economy in the Balkans, where it is an important regional investor.
What is one of the names the Greeks call their country?
57261a26ec44d21400f3d8dd
Hellas
164
False
What is the official name of Greece?
57261a26ec44d21400f3d8de
Hellenic Republic
235
False
From what word is Greece derived?
57261a26ec44d21400f3d8df
Graecia
326
False
What does the work Graecia mean?
57261a26ec44d21400f3d8e0
the land of the Greeks
380
False
Who called Greece Graecia?
57261a26ec44d21400f3d8e1
Romans
349
False
The names for the nation of Greece and the Greek people differ from the names used in other languages, locations and cultures. Although the Greeks call the country Hellas or Ellada (Greek: Ἑλλάς or Ελλάδα) and its official name is the Hellenic Republic, in English it is referred to as Greece, which comes from the Latin term Graecia as used by the Romans, which literally means 'the land of the Greeks', and derives from the Greek name Γραικός. However, the name Hellas is sometimes used in English as well.
Humans in the Balkans have been dated to what year?
57261d2089a1e219009ac282
270,000 BC
91
False
Evidence of the earliest humans were found in what subterranean formation?
57261d2089a1e219009ac283
Petralona cave
125
False
The Franchthi cave has evidence of what 3 ancient eras?
57261d2089a1e219009ac284
Paleolithic, Mesolithic, and Neolithic
212
False
Greece has evidence of Stone Age people during what time period?
57261d2089a1e219009ac285
7th millennium BC
363
False
What activity led to Greece having some of the earliest Stone Age settlements?
57261d2089a1e219009ac286
farming
467
False
The earliest evidence of the presence of human ancestors in the southern Balkans, dated to 270,000 BC, is to be found in the Petralona cave, in the Greek province of Macedonia. All three stages of the stone age (Paleolithic, Mesolithic, and Neolithic) are represented in Greece, for example in the Franchthi Cave. Neolithic settlements in Greece, dating from the 7th millennium BC, are the oldest in Europe by several centuries, as Greece lies on the route via which farming spread from the Near East to Europe.
Ancient Greece is considered to be where what was born?
57261f2f38643c19005ad041
Western civilization
97
False
What was the last civilization to rule Greece?
57261f2f38643c19005ad042
Mycenaean
292
False
The Mycenaean civilization deteriorated in what time period?
57261f2f38643c19005ad043
1200 BC
585
False
Around 1200 BC, what was the fall of the regional civilizations called?
57261f2f38643c19005ad044
Bronze Age collapse
642
False
What is the time period called from which no writing can be found.
57261f2f38643c19005ad045
Greek Dark Ages
701
False
Greece is home to the first advanced civilizations in Europe and is considered the birthplace of Western civilization,[citation clutter] beginning with the Cycladic civilization on the islands of the Aegean Sea at around 3200 BC, the Minoan civilization in Crete (2700–1500 BC), and then the Mycenaean civilization on the mainland (1900–1100 BC). These civilizations possessed writing, the Minoans writing in an undeciphered script known as Linear A, and the Mycenaeans in Linear B, an early form of Greek. The Mycenaeans gradually absorbed the Minoans, but collapsed violently around 1200 BC, during a time of regional upheaval known as the Bronze Age collapse. This ushered in a period known as the Greek Dark Ages, from which written records are absent.
When did the Olympic Game begin?
5726208f89a1e219009ac2be
776 BC
51
False
The literary work "The Odyssey:, was written by whom?
5726208f89a1e219009ac2bf
Homer
207
False
What year is considered the be the last of the Dark Ages?
5726208f89a1e219009ac2c0
776 BC
51
False
Magna Graecia is Latin for what term?
5726208f89a1e219009ac2c1
Greater Greece
436
False
In what year is Democracy considered to have begun?
5726208f89a1e219009ac2c2
508 BC
684
False
The end of the Dark Ages is traditionally dated to 776 BC, the year of the first Olympic Games. The Iliad and the Odyssey, the foundational texts of Western literature, are believed to have been composed by Homer in the 8th or 7th centuries BC With the end of the Dark Ages, there emerged various kingdoms and city-states across the Greek peninsula, which spread to the shores of the Black Sea, Southern Italy (Latin: Magna Graecia, or Greater Greece) and Asia Minor. These states and their colonies reached great levels of prosperity that resulted in an unprecedented cultural boom, that of classical Greece, expressed in architecture, drama, science, mathematics and philosophy. In 508 BC, Cleisthenes instituted the world's first democratic system of government in Athens.
In 500 BC, Greece was ruled over by who?
572621eeec44d21400f3d951
Persian Empire
15
False
What battle did Persia lose in 490 BC?
572621eeec44d21400f3d952
Battle of Marathon
357
False
The Spartans made their last stand at what battle location?
572621eeec44d21400f3d953
Thermopylae
472
False
The battles between the Greeks and Persians are known as what?
572621eeec44d21400f3d954
Greco-Persian Wars
981
False
After the Persians left Europe, the time period that followed was called what?
572621eeec44d21400f3d955
Golden Age of Athens
1102
False
By 500 BC, the Persian Empire controlled the Greek city states in Asia Minor and had made territorial gains in the Balkans and Eastern Europe proper as well. Attempts by some of the Greek city-states of Asia Minor to overthrow Persian rule failed, and Persia invaded the states of mainland Greece in 492 BC, but was forced to withdraw after a defeat at the Battle of Marathon in 490 BC. A second invasion by the Persians followed in 480 BC. Despite a heroic resistance at Thermopylae by Spartans and other Greeks led by King Leonidas, and a simultaneous naval engagement at Artemisium,[page needed] Persian forces occupied Athens, which had been evacuated in time, as well as briefly overrunning half of Greece. Following decisive Greek victories in 480 and 479 BC at Salamis, Plataea, and Mycale, the Persians were forced to withdraw for a second time, marking their eventual withdrawal from all of their European territories. Led by Athens and Sparta, the Greek victories in the Greco-Persian Wars are considered a pivotal moment in world history, as the 50 years of peace that followed are known as Golden Age of Athens, the seminal period of ancient Greece that laid many of the foundations of Western civilization.
The war from 431-404 BC is known as what?
5726244bec44d21400f3d965
Peloponnesian War
135
False
What often caused strife between Greek states?
5726244bec44d21400f3d966
Lack of political unity
0
False
Who won the Peloponnesian war?
5726244bec44d21400f3d967
Sparta
174
False
Who eventually brought the Greeks together?
5726244bec44d21400f3d968
Macedon
339
False
Who was the first leader of a unified Greece?
5726244bec44d21400f3d969
Phillip II
487
False
Lack of political unity within Greece resulted in frequent conflict between Greek states. The most devastating intra-Greek war was the Peloponnesian War (431–404 BC), won by Sparta and marking the demise of the Athenian Empire as the leading power in ancient Greece. Both Athens and Sparta were later overshadowed by Thebes and eventually Macedon, with the latter uniting the Greek world in the League of Corinth (also known as the Hellenic League or Greek League) under the guidance of Phillip II, who was elected leader of the first unified Greek state in history.
Who controlled Macedon after Alexander died?
5726266b38643c19005ad16f
the Antigonid dynasty
57
False
The Roman Empire became more controlling of Greece starting in what year?
5726266b38643c19005ad170
200 BC
217
False
Macedon lost what war in 168 BC?
5726266b38643c19005ad171
Battle of Pydna
359
False
In what year did Greece become a part of Rome?
5726266b38643c19005ad172
146 BC
436
False
The end of Antigonid rule began in what year?
5726266b38643c19005ad173
168 BC
378
False
After a period of confusion following Alexander's death, the Antigonid dynasty, descended from one of Alexander's generals, established its control over Macedon and most of the Greek city-states by 276 BC. From about 200 BC the Roman Republic became increasingly involved in Greek affairs and engaged in a series of wars with Macedon. Macedon's defeat at the Battle of Pydna in 168 BC signalled the end of Antigonid power in Greece. In 146 BC Macedonia was annexed as a province by Rome, and the rest of Greece became a Roman protectorate.
What Roman Emperor became the ruler of all of Greece?
5726281438643c19005ad179
Augustus
58
False
What saying by Horace became famous?
5726281438643c19005ad17a
"Greece, although captured, took its wild conqueror captive"
343
False
What famous Roman figure visited Greece in 66 AD?
5726281438643c19005ad17b
Nero
758
False
What famous Grecian author inspired later authors and their works?
5726281438643c19005ad17c
Homer
419
False
What hero of Rome studied Greek philosophy and science?
5726281438643c19005ad17d
Scipio Africanus
542
False
The process was completed in 27 BC when the Roman Emperor Augustus annexed the rest of Greece and constituted it as the senatorial province of Achaea. Despite their military superiority, the Romans admired and became heavily influenced by the achievements of Greek culture, hence Horace's famous statement: Graecia capta ferum victorem cepit ("Greece, although captured, took its wild conqueror captive"). The epics of Homer inspired the Aeneid of Virgil, and authors such as Seneca the younger wrote using Greek styles. Roman heroes such as Scipio Africanus, tended to study philosophy and regarded Greek culture and science as an example to be followed. Similarly, most Roman emperors maintained an admiration for things Greek in nature. The Roman Emperor Nero visited Greece in AD 66, and performed at the Ancient Olympic Games, despite the rules against non-Greek participation. Hadrian was also particularly fond of the Greeks; before he became emperor he served as an eponymous archon of Athens.
In what language was the first book of the Bible conceived?
572629b789a1e219009ac480
Greek
299
False
What religion did early Greece practice?
572629b789a1e219009ac481
paganism
527
False
The Olympics were last held in ancient Greece in what year?
572629b789a1e219009ac482
393
738
False
Paganism was forbidden by what Roman Emperor?
572629b789a1e219009ac483
Theodosius I
668
False
Which Emperor closed the school in Athens?
572629b789a1e219009ac484
Justinian
975
False
Greek-speaking communities of the Hellenized East were instrumental in the spread of early Christianity in the 2nd and 3rd centuries, and Christianity's early leaders and writers (notably St Paul) were mostly Greek-speaking, though generally not from Greece itself. The New Testament was written in Greek, and some of its sections (Corinthians, Thessalonians, Philippians, Revelation of St. John of Patmos) attest to the importance of churches in Greece in early Christianity. Nevertheless, much of Greece clung tenaciously to paganism, and ancient Greek religious practices were still in vogue in the late 4th century AD, when they were outlawed by the Roman emperor Theodosius I in 391-392. The last recorded Olympic games were held in 393, and many temples were destroyed or damaged in the century that followed. In Athens and rural areas, paganism is attested well into the sixth century AD and even later. The closure of the Neoplatonic Academy of Athens by the emperor Justinian in 529 is considered by many to mark the end of antiquity, although there is evidence that the Academy continued its activities for some time after that. Some remote areas such as the southeastern Peloponnese remained pagan until well into the 10th century AD.
When did the Slavs invade Greece?
57262aa938643c19005ad28d
7th century
249
False
What invading marauders caused havoc in the Balkans during the 4th century.
57262aa938643c19005ad28e
Barbarian
110
False
After the Slav's invaded, the government only controlled what areas?
57262aa938643c19005ad28f
islands and coastal areas
430
False
From the 4th century, the Empire's Balkan territories, including Greece, suffered from the dislocation of the Barbarian Invasions. The raids and devastation of the Goths and Huns in the 4th and 5th centuries and the Slavic invasion of Greece in the 7th century resulted in a dramatic collapse in imperial authority in the Greek peninsula. Following the Slavic invasion, the imperial government retained formal control of only the islands and coastal areas, particularly the densely populated walled cities such as Athens, Corinth and Thessalonica, while some mountainous areas in the interior held out on their own and continued to recognize imperial authority. Outside of these areas, a limited amount of Slavic settlement is generally thought to have occurred, although on a much smaller scale than previously thought.
The Byzantine began taking back territories during the last of what century?
57262cc0ec44d21400f3db9b
8th
69
False
The Byzantine had control over most of Greece in what century?
57262cc0ec44d21400f3db9c
9th
170
False
Slavs that were caught were moved to what area?
57262cc0ec44d21400f3db9d
Asia Minor
256
False
A stable Greece allowed it to have what?
57262cc0ec44d21400f3db9e
strong economic growth
517
False
The Byzantine recovery of lost provinces began toward the end of the 8th century and most of the Greek peninsula came under imperial control again, in stages, during the 9th century. This process was facilitated by a large influx of Greeks from Sicily and Asia Minor to the Greek peninsula, while at the same time many Slavs were captured and re-settled in Asia Minor and those that remained were assimilated. During the 11th and 12th centuries the return of stability resulted in the Greek peninsula benefiting from strong economic growth – much stronger than that of the Anatolian territories of the Empire.
Greece was split into sections of different rulers in what year?
57262de2ec44d21400f3dbb7
1204
79
False
Constantinople once again became a capital  in what year?
57262de2ec44d21400f3dbb8
1261
346
False
The Grecian islands in the 14th century were under the control of who?
57262de2ec44d21400f3dbb9
Genoese and Venetian
645
False
In 1261 Constantinople was the capital for which empire?
57262de2ec44d21400f3dbba
Byzantine
298
False
Following the Fourth Crusade and the fall of Constantinople to the "Latins" in 1204 mainland Greece was split between the Greek Despotate of Epirus (a Byzantine successor state) and Frankish rule (known as the Frankokratia), while some islands came under Venetian rule. The re-establishment of the Byzantine imperial capital in Constantinople in 1261 was accompanied by the empire's recovery of much of the Greek peninsula, although the Frankish Principality of Achaea in the Peloponnese and the rival Greek Despotate of Epirus in the north both remained important regional powers into the 14th century, while the islands remained largely under Genoese and Venetian control.
A lot of Greece was lost by whom in the 14th century?
57262f3689a1e219009ac51c
Byzantine Empire
65
False
At the start of 15th century, the biggest Byzantine city was what?
57262f3689a1e219009ac51d
Thessaloniki
274
False
Constantinople was overcome by who in 1453?
57262f3689a1e219009ac51e
the Ottomans
467
False
The Ottomans controlled mainland Greece in what year?
57262f3689a1e219009ac51f
1460
525
False
Who had a large impact on the Renaissance?
57262f3689a1e219009ac520
Byzantine Greek scholars
615
False
In the 14th century, much of the Greek peninsula was lost by the Byzantine Empire at first to the Serbs and then to the Ottomans. By the beginning of the 15th century, the Ottoman advance meant that Byzantine territory in Greece was limited mainly to its then-largest city, Thessaloniki, and the Peloponnese (Despotate of the Morea). After the fall of Constantinople to the Ottomans in 1453, the Morea was the last remnant of the Byzantine Empire to hold out against the Ottomans. However, this, too, fell to the Ottomans in 1460, completing the Ottoman conquest of mainland Greece. With the Turkish conquest, many Byzantine Greek scholars, who up until then were largely responsible for preserving Classical Greek knowledge, fled to the West, taking with them a large body of literature and thereby significantly contributing to the Renaissance.
The Ottomans controlled what islands b y the end of the 15th century?
572630b389a1e219009ac526
Aegean islands
38
False
The Venetians had control of which two islands in the 15th century?
572630b389a1e219009ac527
Cyprus and Crete
111
False
The Ottomans took which islands from the Venetians?
572630b389a1e219009ac528
Cyprus and Crete
111
False
In what year were the Ionian Islands captured by the French?
572630b389a1e219009ac529
1797
401
False
Who gained control of the Ionian Islands in 1809?
572630b389a1e219009ac52a
United Kingdom
426
False
While most of mainland Greece and the Aegean islands was under Ottoman control by the end of the 15th century, Cyprus and Crete remained Venetian territory and did not fall to the Ottomans until 1571 and 1670 respectively. The only part of the Greek-speaking world that escaped long-term Ottoman rule was the Ionian Islands, which remained Venetian until their capture by the First French Republic in 1797, then passed to the United Kingdom in 1809 until their unification with Greece in 1864.[page needed]
Due to discrimination, some Christians converted to what religion?
572632a838643c19005ad2cf
Islam
570
False
What is the name of one of the churches that ruled over the Christian population?
572632a838643c19005ad2d0
Greek Orthodox Church
4
False
Which empire thought that Christians were inferior?
572632a838643c19005ad2d1
Ottoman Empire
196
False
The Greek Orthodox Church and the Ecumenical Patriarchate of Constantinople were considered by the Ottoman governments as the ruling authorities of the entire Orthodox Christian population of the Ottoman Empire, whether ethnically Greek or not. Although the Ottoman state did not force non-Muslims to convert to Islam, Christians faced several types of discrimination intended to highlight their inferior status in the Ottoman Empire. Discrimination against Christians, particularly when combined with harsh treatment by local Ottoman authorities, led to conversions to Islam, if only superficially. In the 19th century, many "crypto-Christians" returned to their old religious allegiance.[page needed]
The Battle of of Lepanto took place in what year?
572634a1271a42140099d759
1571
313
False
The Morean War took place during which years?
572634a1271a42140099d75a
1684–1699
380
False
The Orlov Revolt took place in what year?
572634a1271a42140099d75b
1770
434
False
The Orlov Revolt was for which nation's supposed benefit?
572634a1271a42140099d75c
Russian
498
False
During battles of the 1600 and 1700's, the Greeks usually fought against who?
572634a1271a42140099d75d
Ottoman Empire
46
False
When military conflicts broke out between the Ottoman Empire and other states, Greeks usually took arms against the Empire, with few exceptions. Prior to the Greek revolution, there had been a number of wars which saw Greeks fight against the Ottomans, such as the Greek participation in the Battle of Lepanto in 1571, the Epirus peasants' revolts of 1600–1601, the Morean War of 1684–1699, and the Russian-instigated Orlov Revolt in 1770, which aimed at breaking up the Ottoman Empire in favor of Russian interests.[page needed] These uprisings were put down by the Ottomans with great bloodshed.
Greece's Dark Ages is thought of as what time periods?
572636e6271a42140099d78f
16th and 17th centuries
4
False
Greek merchants ruled the trade industry in which century?
572636e6271a42140099d790
18th
349
False
Who published Greek documents that espoused Greek independence?
572636e6271a42140099d791
Rigas Feraios
925
False
Rigas Feraios was killed by Ottoman assassins in what year?
572636e6271a42140099d792
1798
1202
False
The 16th and 17th centuries are regarded as something of a "dark age" in Greek history, with the prospect of overthrowing Ottoman rule appearing remote with only the Ionian islands remaining free of Turkish domination. Corfu withstood three major sieges in 1537, 1571 and 1716 all of which resulted in the repulsion of the Ottomans. However, in the 18th century, there arose through shipping a wealthy and dispersed Greek merchant class. These merchants came to dominate trade within the Ottoman Empire, establishing communities throughout the Mediterranean, the Balkans, and Western Europe. Though the Ottoman conquest had cut Greece off from significant European intellectual movements such as the Reformation and the Enlightenment, these ideas together with the ideals of the French Revolution and romantic nationalism began to penetrate the Greek world via the mercantile diaspora.[page needed] In the late 18th century, Rigas Feraios, the first revolutionary to envision an independent Greek state, published a series of documents relating to Greek independence, including but not limited to a national anthem and the first detailed map of Greece, in Vienna, and was murdered by Ottoman agents in 1798.[page needed]
In which year did the Society of Friends begin?
572639f638643c19005ad329
1814
3
False
The Society of Friends goal was what?
572639f638643c19005ad32a
liberating Greece
105
False
The Society of Friends was also known by what name?
572639f638643c19005ad32b
Filiki Eteria
42
False
The first of several revolutions began when?
572639f638643c19005ad32c
6 March 1821
275
False
War was started with the Ottomans when?
572639f638643c19005ad32d
17 March 1821
489
False
In 1814, a secret organization called the Filiki Eteria (Society of Friends) was founded with the aim of liberating Greece. The Filiki Eteria planned to launch revolution in the Peloponnese, the Danubian Principalities and Constantinople. The first of these revolts began on 6 March 1821 in the Danubian Principalities under the leadership of Alexandros Ypsilantis, but it was soon put down by the Ottomans. The events in the north spurred the Greeks of the Peloponnese into action and on 17 March 1821 the Maniots declared war on the Ottomans.
In what year did the Greeks take Tripolitsa?
57263bacec44d21400f3dc73
1821
96
False
Who was the leader of the Greek revolt in 1821?
57263bacec44d21400f3dc74
Theodoros Kolokotronis
118
False
The Greek and Ottoman Navy fought in which waters?
57263bacec44d21400f3dc75
Aegean Sea
385
False
Turks and Egyptians attacked Greek island in what years?
57263bacec44d21400f3dc76
1822 and 1824
458
False
By the end of the month, the Peloponnese was in open revolt against the Ottomans and by October 1821 the Greeks under Theodoros Kolokotronis had captured Tripolitsa. The Peloponnesian revolt was quickly followed by revolts in Crete, Macedonia and Central Greece, which would soon be suppressed. Meanwhile, the makeshift Greek navy was achieving success against the Ottoman navy in the Aegean Sea and prevented Ottoman reinforcements from arriving by sea. In 1822 and 1824 the Turks and Egyptians ravaged the islands, including Chios and Psara, committing wholesale massacres of the population. This had the effect of galvanizing public opinion in western Europe in favor of the Greek rebels.[page needed]
How many successive civil wars occurred between Greek clans?
57263cafec44d21400f3dc83
two
67
False
Who did Egypt send to Greece with an Army?
57263cafec44d21400f3dc84
Ibrahim Pasha
189
False
Ibrahim Pasha landed with his army when?
57263cafec44d21400f3dc85
February 1825
318
False
In what year did Missolonghi fall to the Egyptians?
57263cafec44d21400f3dc86
1826
519
False
Ibrahim Pasha finally faced defeat where?
57263cafec44d21400f3dc87
Mani
558
False
Tensions soon developed among different Greek factions, leading to two consecutive civil wars. Meanwhile, the Ottoman Sultan negotiated with Mehmet Ali of Egypt, who agreed to send his son Ibrahim Pasha to Greece with an army to suppress the revolt in return for territorial gain. Ibrahim landed in the Peloponnese in February 1825 and had immediate success: by the end of 1825, most of the Peloponnese was under Egyptian control, and the city of Missolonghi—put under siege by the Turks since April 1825—fell in April 1826. Although Ibrahim was defeated in Mani, he had succeeded in suppressing most of the revolt in the Peloponnese and Athens had been retaken.
What three countries sent their Navy to Greece?
57263f6189a1e219009ac5d2
Russia, the United Kingdom and France
48
False
Which navy's ships intended to attack Hydra?
57263f6189a1e219009ac5d3
Ottoman–Egyptian
297
False
Which navy won the battle of Hydra?
57263f6189a1e219009ac5d4
the allied fleet
264
False
The recognition of a Greek state happened in what year?
57263f6189a1e219009ac5d5
1830
744
False
What was the agreement that recognized Greece as a state called?
57263f6189a1e219009ac5d6
London Protocol
725
False
After years of negotiation, three Great Powers, Russia, the United Kingdom and France, decided to intervene in the conflict and each nation sent a navy to Greece. Following news that combined Ottoman–Egyptian fleets were going to attack the Greek island of Hydra, the allied fleet intercepted the Ottoman–Egyptian fleet at Navarino. After a week-long standoff, a battle began which resulted in the destruction of the Ottoman–Egyptian fleet. A French expeditionary force was dispatched to supervise the evacuation of the Egyptian army from the Peloponnese, while the Greeks proceeded to the captured part of Central Greece by 1828. As a result of years of negotiation, the nascent Greek state was finally recognized under the London Protocol in 1830.
In 1893 Greece announced what?
57264129271a42140099d7dd
public insolvency
164
False
To pay off the people they owed, Greece had to accept what?
57264129271a42140099d7de
International Financial Control authority
225
False
The people of Greece that had higher education saw what dialect as beneath them?
57264129271a42140099d7df
Demotic
437
False
A hot topic in Greece in the 19th century was what?
57264129271a42140099d7e0
language
372
False
Corruption and Trikoupis' increased spending to create necessary infrastructure like the Corinth Canal overtaxed the weak Greek economy, forcing the declaration of public insolvency in 1893 and to accept the imposition of an International Financial Control authority to pay off the country's debtors. Another political issue in 19th-century Greece was uniquely Greek: the language question. The Greek people spoke a form of Greek called Demotic. Many of the educated elite saw this as a peasant dialect and were determined to restore the glories of Ancient Greek.
War between Russia and the Ottomans began in what year?
572641f389a1e219009ac61c
1877
297
False
A revolt lasted for 3 years on which Greek island?
572641f389a1e219009ac61d
Crete
172
False
In what year did the Treaty of Berlin occur?
572641f389a1e219009ac61e
1881
467
False
All Greeks were united, however, in their determination to liberate the Greek-speaking provinces of the Ottoman Empire, regardless of the dialect they spoke. Especially in Crete, a prolonged revolt in 1866–1869 had raised nationalist fervour. When war broke out between Russia and the Ottomans in 1877, Greek popular sentiment rallied to Russia's side, but Greece was too poor, and too concerned of British intervention, to officially enter the war. Nevertheless, in 1881, Thessaly and small parts of Epirus were ceded to Greece as part of the Treaty of Berlin, while frustrating Greek hopes of receiving Crete.
What divided Greece into two political groups?
5726434b271a42140099d7ff
the country's foreign policy
216
False
How many governments did Greece have in World War 1?
5726434b271a42140099d800
two
410
False
When Greece entered World War I, on whose side did they fight?
5726434b271a42140099d801
the Triple Entente
615
False
Greece's multiple governments came together in what year?
5726434b271a42140099d802
1917
555
False
At the end of the Balkan Wars, the extent of Greece's territory and population had increased. In the following years, the struggle between King Constantine I and charismatic Prime Minister Eleftherios Venizelos over the country's foreign policy on the eve of World War I dominated the country's political scene, and divided the country into two opposing groups. During parts of the First World War, Greece had two governments; a royalist pro-German government in Athens and a Venizelist pro-Britain one in Thessaloniki. The two governments were united in 1917, when Greece officially entered the war on the side of the Triple Entente.
What years did the Greco-Turkish war take place?
572644675951261400b5196a
1919–1922
197
False
After World War I, Greece wanted to expand into what area?
572644675951261400b5196b
Asia Minor
81
False
An exchange of people between Greece and Turkey took place under what agreement?
572644675951261400b5196c
Treaty of Lausanne
683
False
In what time period did the genocide of Greeks take place?
572644675951261400b5196d
1914-1922
335
False
Who caused the deaths of thousands of Greeks?
572644675951261400b5196e
Ottoman and Turkish officials
400
False
In the aftermath of the First World War, Greece attempted further expansion into Asia Minor, a region with a large native Greek population at the time, but was defeated in the Greco-Turkish War of 1919–1922, contributing to a massive flight of Asia Minor Greeks. These events overlapped, with both happening during the Greek genocide (1914-1922), a period during which, according to various sources, Ottoman and Turkish officials contributed to the death of several hundred thousand Asia Minor Greeks. The resultant Greek exodus from Asia Minor was made permanent, and expanded, in an official Population exchange between Greece and Turkey. The exchange was part of the terms of the Treaty of Lausanne which ended the war.
How many Greek refugees came from Turkey?
57264659708984140094c11d
1.5 million
53
False
Pontian and Cappadocian refugees were relocated to where?
57264659708984140094c11e
Macedonian mountains
689
False
Demotic speaking Greek refugees were placed where?
57264659708984140094c11f
Greek Isles and cities
798
False
The following era was marked by instability, as over 1.5 million propertyless Greek refugees from Turkey had to be integrated into Greek society. Because the term "Greeks" in the exchange was based on religion Cappadocian Greeks, Pontian Greeks, and non Greek followers of Greek Orthodoxy were all subject to the exchange as well. Many of these refugees couldn't even speak the language, and were from alien environments, such as the case of the non Greeks and Cappadocians. The refugees also made a dramatic post war population boost, as the amount of refugees was more than a quarter of Greece's prior population. The task was undertaken by settling the Pontians and Cappadocians in the Macedonian mountains, where they would adapt better, and settling the Demotic speakers and non Greeks in the Greek Isles and cities, where they were already adapted to.
The Greek Monarchy was abolished when?
57264784708984140094c141
1924
96
False
In 1924, what was established?
57264784708984140094c142
Second Hellenic Republic
109
False
Who became the Greek leader in 1935?
57264784708984140094c143
Premier Georgios Kondylis
148
False
The Greek monarchy was reestablished by who?
57264784708984140094c144
Premier Georgios Kondylis
148
False
In what year did a coup take place and new dictatorship form?
57264784708984140094c145
1936
314
False
Following the catastrophic events in Asia Minor, the monarchy was abolished via a referendum in 1924 and the Second Hellenic Republic was declared. Premier Georgios Kondylis took power in 1935 and effectively abolished the republic by bringing back the monarchy via a referendum in 1935. A coup d'état followed in 1936 and installed Ioannis Metaxas as the head of a dictatorial regime known as the 4th of August Regime. Although a dictatorship, Greece remained on good terms with Britain and was not allied with the Axis.
How many Greeks starved due to Nazi occupation?
57264890f1498d1400e8db14
Over 100,000
282
False
In what years did thousands of Greeks starve?
57264890f1498d1400e8db15
1941–1942
345
False
What civilian group in Greece fought against Nazi occupation?
57264890f1498d1400e8db16
The Greek Resistance
559
False
How many Greek citizens were displace due to Nazi retaliations?
57264890f1498d1400e8db17
almost 1,000,000
966
False
Greece was eventually occupied by the Nazis who proceeded to administer Athens and Thessaloniki, while other regions of the country were given to Nazi Germany's partners, Fascist Italy and Bulgaria. The occupation brought about terrible hardships for the Greek civilian population. Over 100,000 civilians died of starvation during the winter of 1941–1942, tens of thousands more died because of reprisals by Nazis and collaborators, the country's economy was ruined and the great majority of Greek Jews were deported and murdered in Nazi concentration camps. The Greek Resistance, one of the most effective resistance movements in Europe fought vehemently against the Nazis and their collaborators. The German occupiers committed numerous atrocities, mass executions, and wholesale slaughter of civilians and destruction of towns and villages in reprisals. In the course of the concerted anti-guerrilla campaign, hundreds of villages were systematically torched and almost 1,000,000 Greeks left homeless. In total, the Germans executed some 21,000 Greeks, the Bulgarians 40,000 and the Italians 9,000.
Who founded the PASOK?
572649865951b619008f6f1d
Andreas Papandreou
11
False
What does PASOK stand for?
572649865951b619008f6f1e
Panhellenic Socialist Movement
42
False
In what year did Greece rejoin NATO?
572649865951b619008f6f1f
1980
239
False
Greece joined what later became the European Union when?
572649865951b619008f6f20
1 January 1981
353
False
Earthquakes hit both Greece and Turkey in which year?
572649865951b619008f6f21
1999
785
False
Meanwhile, Andreas Papandreou founded the Panhellenic Socialist Movement (PASOK) in response to Karamanlis's conservative New Democracy party, with the two political formations alternating in government ever since. Greece rejoined NATO in 1980. Greece became the tenth member of the European Communities (subsequently subsumed by the European Union) on 1 January 1981, ushering in a period of sustained growth. Widespread investments in industrial enterprises and heavy infrastructure, as well as funds from the European Union and growing revenues from tourism, shipping and a fast-growing service sector raised the country's standard of living to unprecedented levels. Traditionally strained relations with neighbouring Turkey improved when successive earthquakes hit both nations in 1999, leading to the lifting of the Greek veto against Turkey's bid for EU membership.
Greece is where geographically?
57264a86f1498d1400e8db50
Southern Europe
11
False
Where does Greece's coastline place in world rankings?
57264a86f1498d1400e8db51
11th longest
395
False
How long is Greece's coastline?
57264a86f1498d1400e8db52
8,498 mi
447
False
Located in Southern Europe, Greece consists of a mountainous, peninsular mainland jutting out into the sea at the southern end of the Balkans, ending at the Peloponnese peninsula (separated from the mainland by the canal of the Isthmus of Corinth) and strategically located at the crossroads of Europe, Asia, and Africa. Due to its highly indented coastline and numerous islands, Greece has the 11th longest coastline in the world with 13,676 km (8,498 mi); its land boundary is 1,160 km (721 mi). The country lies approximately between latitudes 34° and 42° N, and longitudes 19° and 30° E, with the extreme points being:
How tall is Mount Olympus?
57264b66f1498d1400e8db61
9,573 ft
209
False
The tallest mountain in the Pindus range is what?
57264b66f1498d1400e8db62
Mt. Smolikas
451
False
How tall is Mt. Smolikas?
57264b66f1498d1400e8db63
8,652 ft
438
False
Eighty percent of Greece consists of mountains or hills, making the country one of the most mountainous in Europe. Mount Olympus, the mythical abode of the Greek Gods, culminates at Mytikas peak 2,918 metres (9,573 ft), the highest in the country. Western Greece contains a number of lakes and wetlands and is dominated by the Pindus mountain range. The Pindus, a continuation of the Dinaric Alps, reaches a maximum elevation of 2,637 m (8,652 ft) at Mt. Smolikas (the second-highest in Greece) and historically has been a significant barrier to east-west travel.
Where does the Pindus mountain range end?
57264cde708984140094c1bd
the island of Crete
154
False
Islands in the Aegean Sea are formed by what?
57264cde708984140094c1be
underwater mountains
239
False
What is the deepest gorge in the world?
57264cde708984140094c1bf
Vikos Gorge
457
False
The Pindus range continues through the central Peloponnese, crosses the islands of Kythera and Antikythera and finds its way into southwestern Aegean, in the island of Crete where it eventually ends. The islands of the Aegean are peaks of underwater mountains that once constituted an extension of the mainland. Pindus is characterized by its high, steep peaks, often dissected by numerous canyons and a variety of other karstic landscapes. The spectacular Vikos Gorge, part of the Vikos-Aoos National Park in the Pindus range, is listed by the Guinness book of World Records as the deepest gorge in the world. Another notable formation are the Meteora rock pillars, atop which have been built medieval Greek Orthodox monasteries.
The Saronic gulf is near what city?
57264dcd708984140094c1d7
Athens
123
False
The Cyclade islands are located where?
57264dcd708984140094c1d8
central part of the Aegean Sea
188
False
The North Aegean islands are located where?
57264dcd708984140094c1d9
west coast of Turkey
271
False
The Dodecanese islands are located where?
57264dcd708984140094c1da
between Crete and Turkey
351
False
The Sporades islands are located where?
57264dcd708984140094c1db
off the coast of northeast Euboea
411
False
The Greek islands are traditionally grouped into the following clusters: The Argo-Saronic Islands in the Saronic gulf near Athens, the Cyclades, a large but dense collection occupying the central part of the Aegean Sea, the North Aegean islands, a loose grouping off the west coast of Turkey, the Dodecanese, another loose collection in the southeast between Crete and Turkey, the Sporades, a small tight group off the coast of northeast Euboea, and the Ionian Islands, located to the west of the mainland in the Ionian Sea.
Greece's climate is mainly of what type?
57264e94f1498d1400e8dba8
Mediterranean
35
False
Greece's climate is affected by what range?
57264e94f1498d1400e8dba9
Pindus mountain range
293
False
East of the Pindus mountains, the climate is drier due to what?
57264e94f1498d1400e8dbaa
a rain shadow effect
556
False
The climate of Greece is primarily Mediterranean, featuring mild, wet winters and hot, dry summers. This climate occurs at all coastal locations, including Athens, the Cyclades, the Dodecanese, Crete, the Peloponnese, the Ionian Islands and parts of the Central Continental Greece region. The Pindus mountain range strongly affects the climate of the country, as areas to the west of the range are considerably wetter on average (due to greater exposure to south-westerly systems bringing in moisture) than the areas lying to the east of the range (due to a rain shadow effect).
The climate of Greece in the Northwest is known as what?
57264f965951b619008f6f89
Alpine climate
251
False
The Alpine climate of Greece gets what kind of weather?
57264f965951b619008f6f8a
heavy snowfalls
271
False
Northern Greece inland features what type of climate?
57264f965951b619008f6f8b
temperate
386
False
It has been known to snow even in what Southern city?
57264f965951b619008f6f8c
Athens
620
False
The mountainous areas of Northwestern Greece (parts of Epirus, Central Greece, Thessaly, Western Macedonia) as well as in the mountainous central parts of Peloponnese – including parts of the regional units of Achaea, Arcadia and Laconia – feature an Alpine climate with heavy snowfalls. The inland parts of northern Greece, in Central Macedonia and East Macedonia and Thrace feature a temperate climate with cold, damp winters and hot, dry summers with frequent thunderstorms. Snowfalls occur every year in the mountains and northern areas, and brief snowfalls are not unknown even in low-lying southern areas, such as Athens.
Greece's plant distribution belongs to what?
57265106f1498d1400e8dbe4
the Boreal Kingdom
39
False
How many ecoregions occupies Greece?
57265106f1498d1400e8dbe5
six
322
False
The Pindus and Balkan ecoregions are known as what?
57265106f1498d1400e8dbe6
mixed forests
409
False
The Crete ecoregion is known as what?
57265106f1498d1400e8dbe7
Mediterranean forests
524
False
The Illyrian ecoregion is known as what?
57265106f1498d1400e8dbe8
deciduous forests
351
False
Phytogeographically, Greece belongs to the Boreal Kingdom and is shared between the East Mediterranean province of the Mediterranean Region and the Illyrian province of the Circumboreal Region. According to the World Wide Fund for Nature and the European Environment Agency, the territory of Greece can be subdivided into six ecoregions: the Illyrian deciduous forests, Pindus Mountains mixed forests, Balkan mixed forests, Rhodope montane mixed forests, Aegean and Western Turkey sclerophyllous and mixed forests and Crete Mediterranean forests.
What type of republic is Greece?
572651b3dd62a815002e8164
unitary parliamentary
12
False
What is the title of the leader of Greece?
572651b3dd62a815002e8165
President of the Republic
77
False
Who elects the president of Greece?
572651b3dd62a815002e8166
the Parliament
122
False
How long does the President of Greece serve?
572651b3dd62a815002e8167
five-year term
143
False
Greece's constitution has how many articles?
572651b3dd62a815002e8168
120
442
False
Greece is a unitary parliamentary republic. The nominal head of state is the President of the Republic, who is elected by the Parliament for a five-year term. The current Constitution was drawn up and adopted by the Fifth Revisionary Parliament of the Hellenes and entered into force in 1975 after the fall of the military junta of 1967–1974. It has been revised three times since, in 1986, 2001 and 2008. The Constitution, which consists of 120 articles, provides for a separation of powers into executive, legislative, and judicial branches, and grants extensive specific guarantees (further reinforced in 2001) of civil liberties and social rights. Women's suffrage was guaranteed with an amendment to the 1952 Constitution.
The constitution was amended to reduce the President's power in what year?
572653eedd62a815002e81a4
1986
150
False
Who has the most political power in Greece?
572653eedd62a815002e81a5
Prime Minister
306
False
The Prime Minister is elected by who?
572653eedd62a815002e81a6
the Parliament
476
False
Who formally names the Prime Minister?
572653eedd62a815002e81a7
President of the Republic
496
False
According to the Constitution, executive power is exercised by the President of the Republic and the Government. From the Constitutional amendment of 1986 the President's duties were curtailed to a significant extent, and they are now largely ceremonial; most political power thus lies in the hands of the Prime Minister. The position of Prime Minister, Greece's head of government, belongs to the current leader of the political party that can obtain a vote of confidence by the Parliament. The President of the Republic formally appoints the Prime Minister and, on his recommendation, appoints and dismisses the other members of the Cabinet.
How many members are in Greece's parliament?
57265504dd62a815002e81c2
300
38
False
How often are elections help for parliament?
57265504dd62a815002e81c3
every four years
198
False
Parliamentary statutes are put into effect by who?
57265504dd62a815002e81c4
President of the Republic
138
False
Legislative powers are exercised by a 300-member elective unicameral Parliament. Statutes passed by the Parliament are promulgated by the President of the Republic. Parliamentary elections are held every four years, but the President of the Republic is obliged to dissolve the Parliament earlier on the proposal of the Cabinet, in view of dealing with a national issue of exceptional importance. The President is also obliged to dissolve the Parliament earlier, if the opposition manages to pass a motion of no confidence.
In May 2012, who started the parliamentary elections?
572657145951b619008f7015
The coalition government
0
False
What led to the loss of power of traditional Greek parties?
572657145951b619008f7016
their support on the politics of Mnimonio and the austerity measures
231
False
Who became the second major party after the elections?
572657145951b619008f7017
The leftist party of SYRIZA
301
False
What caused the second election of 2012?
572657145951b619008f7018
No party could form a sustainable government
393
False
What was the demographic result of the second election?
572657145951b619008f7019
coalition government composed of New Democracy (29%), PASOK (12%) and Democratic Left (6%) parties.
552
False
The coalition government led the country to the parliamentary elections of May 2012. The power of the traditional Greek political parties, PASOK and New Democracy, declined from 43% to 13% and from 33% to 18%, respectively, due to their support on the politics of Mnimonio and the austerity measures. The leftist party of SYRIZA became the second major party, with an increase from 4% to 16%. No party could form a sustainable government, which led to the parliamentary elections of June 2012. The result of the second elections was the formation of a coalition government composed of New Democracy (29%), PASOK (12%) and Democratic Left (6%) parties.
Who is the head for Greece's foreign policy?
57265844708984140094c337
Minister for Foreign Affairs
96
False
Who is the present Minister of Foreign Affairs?
57265844708984140094c338
Nikos Kotzias
150
False
The goal of the Ministry of Foreign Affairs is what?
57265844708984140094c339
represent Greece before other states and international organizations
257
False
Greece is though of as what kind of power?
57265844708984140094c33a
a middle power
730
False
Greece has how much strategic importance?
57265844708984140094c33b
significant
670
False
Greece's foreign policy is conducted through the Ministry for Foreign Affairs and its head, the Minister for Foreign Affairs. The current minister is Nikos Kotzias. According to the official website, the main aims of the Ministry for Foreign Affairs are to represent Greece before other states and international organizations; safeguarding the interests of the Greek state and of its citizens abroad; the promotion of Greek culture; the fostering of closer relations with the Greek diaspora; and the promotion of international cooperation. Additionally, due to its political and geographical proximity to Europe, Asia, the Middle East and Africa, Greece is a country of significant geostrategic importance and is considered to be a middle power and has developed a regional policy to help promote peace and stability in the Balkans, the Mediterranean, and the Middle East.
What type of military service does Greece require?
5726593a5951b619008f7037
universal compulsory
11
False
Can females be drafted into the military?
5726593a5951b619008f7038
females are exempted from conscription
66
False
What is the length of military service required of men?
5726593a5951b619008f7039
nine months
196
False
At what age might men required to serve in the National Guard?
5726593a5951b619008f703a
18 and 60
302
False
Greece has universal compulsory military service for males, while females are exempted from conscription but may otherwise serve in the military. As of 2009[update], mandatory military service is nine months for male citizens between the ages of 19 and 45. Additionally, Greek males between the age of 18 and 60 who live in strategically sensitive areas may be required to serve part-time in the National Guard. However, as the military has sought to become a completely professional force, the government has promised to reduce mandatory military service or abolish it completely.
How many regions exist in Greece since 2011?
57265a1ef1498d1400e8dce2
thirteen
102
False
How many municipalities exist in Greece?
57265a1ef1498d1400e8dce3
325
146
False
What went into effect on January 1, 2011?
57265a1ef1498d1400e8dce4
Kallikratis programme reform
10
False
What is the one autonomous area in Greece?
57265a1ef1498d1400e8dce5
Mount Athos
429
False
Where is Mount Athos located?
57265a1ef1498d1400e8dce6
borders the region of Central Macedonia
484
False
Since the Kallikratis programme reform entered into effect on 1 January 2011, Greece has consisted of thirteen regions subdivided into a total of 325 municipalities. The 54 old prefectures and prefecture-level administrations have been largely retained as sub-units of the regions. Seven decentralized administrations group one to three regions for administrative purposes on a regional basis. There is also one autonomous area, Mount Athos (Greek: Agio Oros, "Holy Mountain"), which borders the region of Central Macedonia.
The largest sector of Greece's economy is what?
57265b42dd62a815002e828a
the service sector
140
False
What percentage of the economy is Greece's service sector?
57265b42dd62a815002e828b
85.0%
160
False
What percentage of the economy does agriculture comprise?
57265b42dd62a815002e828c
3.0%
216
False
How many tourist visited Greece in 2009?
57265b42dd62a815002e828d
14.9 million
303
False
Greece holds what rank among most visited countries in the world?
57265b42dd62a815002e828e
16th
419
False
Greece is a developed country with high standards of living[citation needed] and high Human Development Index. Its economy mainly comprises the service sector (85.0%) and industry (12.0%), while agriculture makes up 3.0% of the national economic output. Important Greek industries include tourism (with 14.9 million international tourists in 2009, it is ranked as the 7th most visited country in the European Union and 16th in the world by the United Nations World Tourism Organization) and merchant shipping (at 16.2% of the world's total capacity, the Greek merchant marine is the largest in the world), while the country is also a considerable agricultural producer (including fisheries) within the union.
Greece's economy is what size?
57265c22708984140094c383
larger than all the Balkan economies combined
16
False
What rank does Greece hold as an Albania investor?
57265c22708984140094c384
number-two
159
False
What rank does Greece hold as an Bulgaria investor?
57265c22708984140094c385
number-three
214
False
Greece is the largest foreign investor of what area?
57265c22708984140094c386
Republic of Macedonia
392
False
OTE is known as what?
57265c22708984140094c387
Greek telecommunications company
501
False
With an economy larger than all the Balkan economies combined, Greece is the largest economy in the Balkans, and an important regional investor. Greece is the number-two foreign investor of capital in Albania, the number-three foreign investor in Bulgaria, at the top-three of foreign investors in Romania and Serbia and the most important trading partner and largest foreign investor of the Republic of Macedonia. Greek banks open a new branch somewhere in the Balkans on an almost weekly basis. The Greek telecommunications company OTE has become a strong investor in Yugoslavia and other Balkan countries.
What classification does the Greek economy hold?
57265cec708984140094c38d
advanced and high-income
35
False
Greece help found what economic organizations?
57265cec708984140094c38e
Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD) and the Organization of the Black Sea Economic Cooperation (BSEC)
114
False
When was Greece accepted into the European Union?
57265cec708984140094c38f
19 June 2000
446
False
When did Greece start using the Euro as its currency?
57265cec708984140094c390
January 2001
467
False
What was Greece's former currency?
57265cec708984140094c391
the Greek drachma
524
False
The Greek economy is classified as advanced and high-income. Greece was a founding member of the Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD) and the Organization of the Black Sea Economic Cooperation (BSEC). In 1979 the accession of the country in the European Communities and the single market was signed, and the process was completed in 1982. Greece was accepted into the Economic and Monetary Union of the European Union on 19 June 2000, and in January 2001 adopted the Euro as its currency, replacing the Greek drachma at an exchange rate of 340.75 drachma to the Euro. Greece is also a member of the International Monetary Fund and the World Trade Organization, and is ranked 24th on the KOF Globalization Index for 2013.
What was used to hide debts?
57265dddf1498d1400e8dd5a
swaps
82
False
Swaps allow Greece to do what?
57265dddf1498d1400e8dd5b
spend beyond their means
541
False
What other country hid its debt through swaps?
57265dddf1498d1400e8dd5c
Italy
372
False
What can legally be overcome with swaps?
57265dddf1498d1400e8dd5d
The Maastricht rules
277
False
According to Der Spiegel credits given to European governments were disguised as "swaps" and consequently did not get registered as debt. As Eurostat at the time ignored statistics involving financial derivatives, a German derivatives dealer had commented to Der Spiegel that "The Maastricht rules can be circumvented quite legally through swaps," and "In previous years, Italy used a similar trick to mask its true debt with the help of a different US bank." These conditions had enabled Greek as well as many other European governments to spend beyond their means, while meeting the deficit targets of the European Union.
Where is the Greek Merchant Navy ranked?
57265fcf708984140094c3f5
4th worldwide
69
False
How many ships does the Greek Merchant Navy have?
57265fcf708984140094c3f6
3,150
89
False
Where does Greece rank in number of tankers?
57265fcf708984140094c3f7
first
222
False
In terms of total number of ships, the Greek Merchant Navy stands at 4th worldwide, with 3,150 ships (741 of which are registered in Greece whereas the rest 2,409 in other ports). In terms of ship categories, Greece ranks first in both tankers and dry bulk carriers, fourth in the number of containers, and fifth in other ships. However, today's fleet roster is smaller than an all-time high of 5,000 ships in the late 1970s. Additionally, the total number of ships flying a Greek flag (includes non-Greek fleets) is 1,517, or 5.3% of the world's dwt (ranked 5th).
Where does most of Greece's visitors come from?
57266080f1498d1400e8ddac
the European continent
58
False
How many of Greece's visitors are from Europe?
57266080f1498d1400e8ddad
12.7 million
92
False
What is the single nation with the most visitors?
57266080f1498d1400e8ddae
United Kingdom
176
False
Which part of Greece is the most visited?
57266080f1498d1400e8ddaf
Central Macedonia
316
False
Northern Greece gets how many visitors?
57266080f1498d1400e8ddb0
6.5 million
563
False
The vast majority of visitors in Greece in 2007 came from the European continent, numbering 12.7 million, while the most visitors from a single nationality were those from the United Kingdom, (2.6 million), followed closely by those from Germany (2.3 million). In 2010, the most visited region of Greece was that of Central Macedonia, with 18% of the country's total tourist flow (amounting to 3.6 million tourists), followed by Attica with 2.6 million and the Peloponnese with 1.8 million. Northern Greece is the country's most-visited geographical region, with 6.5 million tourists, while Central Greece is second with 6.3 million.
How long is the Greek railway system?
5726612add62a815002e831a
1,600 mi
500
False
A current railway upgrade plans to do what?
5726612add62a815002e831b
double lines
456
False
A new modern rail connection has been made between which two cities?
5726612add62a815002e831c
Athens and Thessaloniki
385
False
Railway connections play a somewhat lesser role in Greece than in many other European countries, but they too have also been expanded, with new suburban/commuter rail connections, serviced by Proastiakos around Athens, towards its airport, Kiato and Chalkida; around Thessaloniki, towards the cities of Larissa and Edessa; and around Patras. A modern intercity rail connection between Athens and Thessaloniki has also been established, while an upgrade to double lines in many parts of the 2,500 km (1,600 mi) network is underway. International railway lines connect Greek cities with the rest of Europe, the Balkans and Turkey.
In recent years, what usage has risen dramatically?
5726625cf1498d1400e8ddca
3G/4G mobile internet
236
False
How much did internet usage increase in one year?
5726625cf1498d1400e8ddcb
340%
317
False
Where does Greece rank in the work with communications?
5726625cf1498d1400e8ddcc
among the top 30 countries
438
False
Internet cafés that provide net access, office applications and multiplayer gaming are also a common sight in the country, while mobile internet on 3G and 4G- LTE cellphone networks and Wi-Fi connections can be found almost everywhere. 3G/4G mobile internet usage has been on a sharp increase in recent years, with a 340% increase between August 2011 and August 2012. The United Nations International Telecommunication Union ranks Greece among the top 30 countries with a highly developed information and communications infrastructure.
Greece has been a member of what agency since 2005?
572663205951b619008f712b
European Space Agency (ESA)
290
False
Greece and ESA signed their first agreement in what year?
572663205951b619008f712c
1994
425
False
When did /Greece apply for ESA membership?
572663205951b619008f712d
2003
534
False
Greece is ranked as what member of ESA?
572663205951b619008f712e
sixteenth
564
False
Greece became a full ESA member when?
572663205951b619008f712f
16 March 2005
584
False
Greece's technology parks with incubator facilities include the Science and Technology Park of Crete (Heraklion), the Thessaloniki Technology Park, the Lavrio Technology Park and the Patras Science Park, the Science and Technology Park of Epirus (Ioannina). Greece has been a member of the European Space Agency (ESA) since 2005. Cooperation between ESA and the Hellenic National Space Committee began in the early 1990s. In 1994 Greece and ESA signed their first cooperation agreement. Having formally applied for full membership in 2003, Greece became the ESA's sixteenth member on 16 March 2005. As member of the ESA, Greece participates in the agency's telecommunication and technology activities, and the Global Monitoring for Environment and Security Initiative.
What Greek scientist invented the Pap test?
57266556f1498d1400e8de3a
Georgios Papanikolaou
68
False
Who found the tomb of Philip II of Macedon?
57266556f1498d1400e8de3b
Manolis Andronikos
230
False
What Greek won the 2007 Turing award?
57266556f1498d1400e8de3c
Joseph Sifakis
553
False
What Greek won the 2002 Knuth prize?
57266556f1498d1400e8de3d
Christos Papadimitriou
628
False
What Greek won the 2005 Knuth prize?
57266556f1498d1400e8de3e
Mihalis Yannakakis
689
False
Notable Greek scientists of modern times include Dimitrios Galanos, Georgios Papanikolaou (inventor of the Pap test), Nicholas Negroponte, Constantin Carathéodory (known for the Carathéodory theorems and Carathéodory conjecture), Manolis Andronikos (discovered the tomb of Philip II of Macedon in Vergina), Michael Dertouzos, John Argyris, Panagiotis Kondylis, John Iliopoulos (2007 Dirac Prize for his contributions on the physics of the charm quark, a major contribution to the birth of the Standard Model, the modern theory of Elementary Particles), Joseph Sifakis (2007 Turing Award, the "Nobel Prize" of Computer Science), Christos Papadimitriou (2002 Knuth Prize, 2012 Gödel Prize), Mihalis Yannakakis (2005 Knuth Prize), Dimitri Nanopoulos and Helene Ahrweiler.
What is the religious minority in Greece?
57266792dd62a815002e83d0
Muslim
34
False
The Muslim minority is mostly located in what city?
57266792dd62a815002e83d1
Thrace
78
False
Immigrants from Albania are usually what religion?
57266792dd62a815002e83d2
Muslim
263
False
Greek Muslims were in a population exchange with what country?
57266792dd62a815002e83d3
Turkey
683
False
Estimates of the recognized Greek Muslim minority, which is mostly located in Thrace, range from 98,000 to 140,000, (about 1%) while the immigrant Muslim community numbers between 200,000 and 300,000. Albanian immigrants to Greece are usually associated with the Muslim religion, although most are secular in orientation. Following the 1919–1922 Greco-Turkish War and the 1923 Treaty of Lausanne, Greece and Turkey agreed to a population transfer based on cultural and religious identity. About 500,000 Muslims from Greece, predominantly those defined as Turks, but also Greek Muslims like the Vallahades of western Macedonia, were exchanged with approximately 1,500,000 Greeks from Turkey. However, many refugees who settled in former Ottoman Muslim villages in Central Macedonia and were defined as Christian Orthodox Caucasus Greeks arrived from the former Russian Transcaucasus province of Kars Oblast after it had been retroceded to Turkey but in the few years before the official population exchange.
How many Greek natural citizens are Catholic?
57266881f1498d1400e8deae
50,000
68
False
How many Roman Catholic immigrants are in Greece?
57266881f1498d1400e8deaf
200,000
148
False
How many Protestants live in Greece?
57266881f1498d1400e8deb0
30,000
299
False
How many churches does the biggest Protestant denomination have?
57266881f1498d1400e8deb1
120
564
False
How many Jehovah's Witnesses are in Greece?
57266881f1498d1400e8deb2
28,874
751
False
Greek citizens who are Roman Catholic are estimated to be at around 50,000 with the Roman Catholic immigrant community in the country approximately 200,000. Old Calendarists account for 500,000 followers. Protestants, including Greek Evangelical Church and Free Evangelical Churches, stand at about 30,000. Assemblies of God, International Church of the Foursquare Gospel and other Pentecostal churches of the Greek Synod of Apostolic Church have 12,000 members. Independent Free Apostolic Church of Pentecost is the biggest Protestant denomination in Greece with 120 churches. There are not official statistics about Free Apostolic Church of Pentecost, but the Orthodox Church estimates the followers as 20,000. The Jehovah's Witnesses report having 28,874 active members. In recent years there has been a small-scale revival of the ancient Greek religion, with estimates of 2,000 people active practitioners, and 100,000 "sympathisers".
When did the Greek Language dispute take place?
57266a195951b619008f71f9
During the 19th and 20th centuries
0
False
When was the Greek language Katharevousa created?
57266a195951b619008f71fa
the 19th century
189
False
Which language was considered the language of the people?
57266a195951b619008f71fb
Dimotiki
259
False
What language was made the only official variation in 1976?
57266a195951b619008f71fc
Dimotiki
428
False
From which language did Dimotiki evolve?
57266a195951b619008f71fd
Byzantine Greek
329
False
During the 19th and 20th centuries there was a major dispute known as the Greek language question, on whether the official language of Greece should be the archaic Katharevousa, created in the 19th century and used as the state and scholarly language, or the Dimotiki, the form of the Greek language which evolved naturally from Byzantine Greek and was the language of the people. The dispute was finally resolved in 1976, when Dimotiki was made the only official variation of the Greek language, and Katharevousa fell to disuse.
What is the language spoken by most Greeks?
57266b20dd62a815002e8446
Greek
113
False
Greeks who speak the Pontic dialect came from where?
57266b20dd62a815002e8447
Asia Minor
252
False
Which Greek dialect is barely spoken currently?
57266b20dd62a815002e8448
Cappadocian
324
False
From which language did the Tsakonian language derive?
57266b20dd62a815002e8449
Doric Greek
675
False
Greece is today relatively homogeneous in linguistic terms, with a large majority of the native population using Greek as their first or only language. Among the Greek-speaking population, speakers of the distinctive Pontic dialect came to Greece from Asia Minor after the Greek genocide and constitute a sizable group. The Cappadocian dialect came to Greece due to the genocide as well, but is endangered and is barely spoken now. Indigenous Greek dialects include the archaic Greek spoken by the Sarakatsani, traditionally transhument mountain shepherds of Greek Macedonia and other parts of Northern Greece. The Tsakonian language, a distinct Greek language deriving from Doric Greek instead of Ionic Greek, is still spoken in some villages in the southeastern Peloponnese.
Muslims make up how much of the Greek population?
57266c21f1498d1400e8df4a
0.95%
62
False
Minority languages have been reduce due to what?
57266c21f1498d1400e8df4b
assimilation with the Greek-speaking majority
425
False
In parts of the country, Romani is spoken by who?
57266c21f1498d1400e8df4c
Christian Roma
182
False
What groups are called Vlachs?
57266c21f1498d1400e8df4d
Aromanians and Moglenites
693
False
The Muslim minority in Thrace, which amounts to approximately 0.95% of the total population, consists of speakers of Turkish, Bulgarian (Pomaks) and Romani. Romani is also spoken by Christian Roma in other parts of the country. Further minority languages have traditionally been spoken by regional population groups in various parts of the country. Their use has decreased radically in the course of the 20th century through assimilation with the Greek-speaking majority. Today they are only maintained by the older generations and are on the verge of extinction. This goes for the Arvanites, an Albanian-speaking group mostly located in the rural areas around the capital Athens, and for the Aromanians and Moglenites, also known as Vlachs, whose language is closely related to Romanian and who used to live scattered across several areas of mountainous central Greece. Members of these groups ethnically identify as Greeks and are today all at least bilingual in Greek.
Where are Slavic speaking groups generally found?
57266d3edd62a815002e8480
northern Greek borders
9
False
Macedonia has how many Slavic speakers?
57266d3edd62a815002e8481
200,000 to 400,000
346
False
Greece's Jewish community spoke what language traditionally?
57266d3edd62a815002e8482
Ladino
433
False
The Urums are known to speak what dialect?
57266d3edd62a815002e8483
Greco-Turkic
576
False
Near the northern Greek borders there are also some Slavic–speaking groups, locally known as Slavomacedonian-speaking, most of whose members identify ethnically as Greeks. Their dialects can be linguistically classified as forms of either Macedonian Slavic or Bulgarian. It is estimated that after the population exchanges of 1923, Macedonia had 200,000 to 400,000 Slavic speakers. The Jewish community in Greece traditionally spoke Ladino (Judeo-Spanish), today maintained only by a few thousand speakers. Other notable minority languages include Armenian, Georgian, and the Greco-Turkic dialect spoken by the Urums, a community of Caucasus Greeks from the Tsalka region of central Georgia and ethnic Greeks from southeastern Ukraine who arrived in mainly Northern Greece as economic migrants in the 1990s.
In 2001, how many Greek residents were not citizens?
57266e29dd62a815002e8492
762,191
93
False
In 2001, what was the population percentage of resident non-citizens?
57266e29dd62a815002e8493
7%
175
False
From where did most non-citizen residents come?
57266e29dd62a815002e8494
Eastern European countries
361
False
What is the total Albanian population in Greece?
57266e29dd62a815002e8495
600,000
786
False
A study from the Mediterranean Migration Observatory maintains that the 2001 census recorded 762,191 persons residing in Greece without Greek citizenship, constituting around 7% of total population. Of the non-citizen residents, 48,560 were EU or European Free Trade Association nationals and 17,426 were Cypriots with privileged status. The majority come from Eastern European countries: Albania (56%), Bulgaria (5%) and Romania (3%), while migrants from the former Soviet Union (Georgia, Russia, Ukraine, Moldova, etc.) comprise 10% of the total. Some of the immigrants from Albania are from the Greek minority in Albania centred on the region of Northern Epirus. In addition the total Albanian national population which includes temporary migrants and undocumented persons is around 600,000.
Greece is a major destination for what to enter?
57266f905951b619008f729d
illegal immigrants
66
False
In 2012, most illegal immigrants entered Greece from where?
57266f905951b619008f729e
Afghanistan
371
False
Immigrants arriving by sea are coming mainly for what reason?
57266f905951b619008f729f
Syrian civil war
516
False
How many immigrants arrived by sea in 2015?
57266f905951b619008f72a0
856,723
545
False
What percentage of sea immigrants asked for asylum in Greece?
57266f905951b619008f72a1
8%
692
False
Greece, together with Italy and Spain, is a major entry point for illegal immigrants trying to enter the EU. Illegal immigrants entering Greece mostly do so from the border with Turkey at the Evros River and the islands of the eastern Aegean across from Turkey (mainly Lesbos, Chios, Kos, and Samos). In 2012, the majority of illegal immigrants entering Greece came from Afghanistan, followed by Pakistanis and Bangladeshis. In 2015, arrivals of refugees by sea have increased dramatically mainly due to the ongoing Syrian civil war. There were 856,723 arrivals by sea in Greece, an almost fivefold increase to the same period of 2014, of which the Syrians represent almost 45%. An estimated 8% of the arrivals applied for asylum in Greece.
Paideia is also known as what?
57267131dd62a815002e8500
education
66
False
The first European university was created in what city?
57267131dd62a815002e8501
Constantinople
250
False
When was Constantinople taken over by the Ottoman?
57267131dd62a815002e8502
1453
343
False
Greeks have a long tradition of valuing and investing in paideia (education). Paideia was one of the highest societal values in the Greek and Hellenistic world while the first European institution described as a university was founded in 5th century Constantinople and operated in various incarnations until the city's fall to the Ottomans in 1453. The University of Constantinople was Christian Europe's first secular institution of higher learning since no theological subjects were taught, and considering the original meaning of the world university as a corporation of students, the world’s first university as well.
Greece's secondary education has how many school types?
57267226708984140094c655
two
57
False
What is one type of Greece's secondary education?
57267226708984140094c656
unified upper secondary schools
75
False
What type of institute does secondary education also include?
57267226708984140094c657
vocational training
283
False
What type of education do vocational institutes provide?
57267226708984140094c658
formal but unclassified
376
False
Greece's post-compulsory secondary education consists of two school types: unified upper secondary schools (Γενικό Λύκειο, Genikό Lykeiό) and technical–vocational educational schools (Τεχνικά και Επαγγελματικά Εκπαιδευτήρια, "TEE"). Post-compulsory secondary education also includes vocational training institutes (Ινστιτούτα Επαγγελματικής Κατάρτισης, "IEK") which provide a formal but unclassified level of education. As they can accept both Gymnasio (lower secondary school) and Lykeio (upper secondary school) graduates, these institutes are not classified as offering a particular level of education.
What is one of the education sectors according to the Framework Law?
5726738af1498d1400e8e008
University sector
210
False
How long do the Tertiary institute courses last?
5726738af1498d1400e8e009
2 to 3 years
544
False
Examinations for Tertiary institutes are given at what grade level?
5726738af1498d1400e8e00a
third grade
754
False
At what age may students be admitted to Hellenic university through lottery?
5726738af1498d1400e8e00b
over twenty-two years old
800
False
What is the oldest university in the eastern Mediterranean?
5726738af1498d1400e8e00c
The Capodistrian University of Athens
901
False
According to the Framework Law (3549/2007), Public higher education "Highest Educational Institutions" (Ανώτατα Εκπαιδευτικά Ιδρύματα, Anótata Ekpaideytiká Idrýmata, "ΑΕΙ") consists of two parallel sectors:the University sector (Universities, Polytechnics, Fine Arts Schools, the Open University) and the Technological sector (Technological Education Institutions (TEI) and the School of Pedagogic and Technological Education). There are also State Non-University Tertiary Institutes offering vocationally oriented courses of shorter duration (2 to 3 years) which operate under the authority of other Ministries. Students are admitted to these Institutes according to their performance at national level examinations taking place after completion of the third grade of Lykeio. Additionally, students over twenty-two years old may be admitted to the Hellenic Open University through a form of lottery. The Capodistrian University of Athens is the oldest university in the eastern Mediterranean.
What kind of health care exists in Greece?
5726747e708984140094c6bf
universal health care
11
False
Where does Greece's health care system rank out of 191 countries surveyed?
5726747e708984140094c6c0
14th
108
False
What rank does Greece hold for the condition of mothers and new born babies?
5726747e708984140094c6c1
19th
221
False
In 2010, how many hospitals were there in Greece?
5726747e708984140094c6c2
138
336
False
In 2011, plans were made to decrease hospitals to how many?
5726747e708984140094c6c3
77
495
False
Greece has universal health care. In a 2000 World Health Organization report, its health care system ranked 14th in overall performance of 191 countries surveyed. In a 2013 Save the Children report, Greece was ranked the 19th best country (out of 176 countries surveyed) for the state of mothers and newborn babies. In 2010, there were 138 hospitals with 31,000 beds in the country, but on 1 July 2011, the Ministry for Health and Social Solidarity announced its plans to decrease the number to 77 hospitals with 36,035 beds, as a necessary reform to reduce expenses and further enhance healthcare standards.[disputed – discuss] Greece's healthcare expenditures as a percentage of GDP were 9.6% in 2007 according to a 2011 OECD report, just above the OECD average of 9.5%. The country has the largest number of doctors-to-population ratio of any OECD country.
Where did Greece culture begin?
57267541708984140094c6c9
Mycenaean Greece
72
False
What do historians credit with revitalizing Greek culture?
57267541708984140094c6ca
Greek War of Independence
499
False
The evolution of Grecian culture has evolved over what time period?
57267541708984140094c6cb
thousands of years
39
False
The culture of Greece has evolved over thousands of years, beginning in Mycenaean Greece and continuing most notably into Classical Greece, through the influence of the Roman Empire and its Greek Eastern continuation, the Eastern Roman or Byzantine Empire. Other cultures and nations, such as the Latin and Frankish states, the Ottoman Empire, the Venetian Republic, the Genoese Republic, and the British Empire have also left their influence on modern Greek culture, although historians credit the Greek War of Independence with revitalising Greece and giving birth to a single, cohesive entity of its multi-faceted culture.
Ancient Greece was the birthplace of what?
5726760c708984140094c6df
Western culture
47
False
What did Greece's political philosophy affect?
5726760c708984140094c6e0
Modern democracies
64
False
Greeks were pioneers in many scientific fields that require what?
5726760c708984140094c6e1
systematic thought
240
False
In ancient times, Greece was the birthplace of Western culture. Modern democracies owe a debt to Greek beliefs in government by the people, trial by jury, and equality under the law. The ancient Greeks pioneered in many fields that rely on systematic thought, including biology, geometry, history, philosophy, physics and mathematics. They introduced such important literary forms as epic and lyric poetry, history, tragedy, and comedy. In their pursuit of order and proportion, the Greeks created an ideal of beauty that strongly influenced Western art.
Modern Greek theater began when?
57267a75dd62a815002e8680
early 19th century
71
False
Modern Greek theater was influenced by what?
57267a75dd62a815002e8681
Heptanesean theatre and melodrama
127
False
What was the first theater of modern Greece?
57267a75dd62a815002e8682
Nobile Teatro di San Giacomo di Corfù
193
False
What was the first Greek opera?
57267a75dd62a815002e8683
The Parliamentary Candidate
346
False
Who created the first opera, The Parliamentary Candidate?
57267a75dd62a815002e8684
Spyridon Xyndas
329
False
The modern Greek theatre was born after the Greek independence, in the early 19th century, and initially was influenced by the Heptanesean theatre and melodrama, such as the Italian opera. The Nobile Teatro di San Giacomo di Corfù was the first theatre and opera house of modern Greece and the place where the first Greek opera, Spyridon Xyndas' The Parliamentary Candidate (based on an exclusively Greek libretto) was performed. During the late 19th and early 20th century, the Athenian theatre scene was dominated by revues, musical comedies, operettas and nocturnes and notable playwrights included Spyridon Samaras, Dionysios Lavrangas, Theophrastos Sakellaridis and others.
Which disciple of Plato was considered the most important?
57267c23f1498d1400e8e162
Aristotle of Stagira
0
False
Plato's philosophy attempted to explain life from what standpoint?
57267c23f1498d1400e8e163
the supra-sensual
200
False
Aristotle's philosophy was based from what standpoint?
57267c23f1498d1400e8e164
experience
299
False
What is the name of two schools of philosophy?
57267c23f1498d1400e8e165
Skepticism and Neoplatonism
481
False
Aristotle of Stagira, the most important disciple of Plato, shared with his teacher the title of the greatest philosopher of antiquity. But while Plato had sought to elucidate and explain things from the supra-sensual standpoint of the forms, his pupil preferred to start from the facts given us by experience. Except from these three most significant Greek philosophers other known schools of Greek philosophy from other founders during ancient times were Stoicism, Epicureanism, Skepticism and Neoplatonism.
What are two works by Homer?
57267d1fdd62a815002e86f4
Iliad and the Odyssey
82
False
During what time period did Homer write the Iliad and the Odyssey?
57267d1fdd62a815002e86f5
800 BC
169
False
Who were two major lyrical poets?
57267d1fdd62a815002e86f6
Sappho and Pindar
523
False
When did drama first begin in history?
57267d1fdd62a815002e86f7
Classical era
546
False
At the beginning of Greek literature stand the two monumental works of Homer: the Iliad and the Odyssey. Though dates of composition vary, these works were fixed around 800 BC or after. In the classical period many of the genres of western literature became more prominent. Lyrical poetry, odes, pastorals, elegies, epigrams; dramatic presentations of comedy and tragedy; historiography, rhetorical treatises, philosophical dialectics, and philosophical treatises all arose in this period. The two major lyrical poets were Sappho and Pindar. The Classical era also saw the dawn of drama.
What year did cinema first appear in Greece?
57267de2dd62a815002e870e
1896
35
False
In what year did the first cinema theater open in Greece?
57267de2dd62a815002e870f
1907
88
False
In 1914 what was the name of the film company that was founded?
57267de2dd62a815002e8710
Asty Films
106
False
What was the first Greek feature film?
57267de2dd62a815002e8711
Golfo
177
False
Who directed the first nude scene in Greek film history?
57267de2dd62a815002e8712
Orestis Laskos
359
False
Cinema first appeared in Greece in 1896 but the first actual cine-theatre was opened in 1907. In 1914 the Asty Films Company was founded and the production of long films began. Golfo (Γκόλφω), a well known traditional love story, is considered the first Greek feature film, although there were several minor productions such as newscasts before this. In 1931 Orestis Laskos directed Daphnis and Chloe (Δάφνις και Χλόη), containing the first nude scene in the history of European cinema; it was also the first Greek movie which was played abroad. In 1944 Katina Paxinou was honoured with the Best Supporting Actress Academy Award for For Whom the Bell Tolls.
Which time period is considered the golden age of Greek cinema?
57267eecdd62a815002e8736
1950s and early 1960s
4
False
During the Greek cinema golden age, how many films were made each year?
57267eecdd62a815002e8737
More than sixty
383
False
Who directed the movie O Drakos in 1956?
57267eecdd62a815002e8738
Nikos Koundouros
620
False
Who directed the movie Stella in 1955?
57267eecdd62a815002e8739
Cacoyannis
664
False
Who wrote the movie Stella in 1955?
57267eecdd62a815002e873a
Kampanellis
690
False
The 1950s and early 1960s are considered by many to be a golden age of Greek cinema. Directors and actors of this era were recognized as important historical figures in Greece and some gained international acclaim: Irene Papas, Melina Mercouri, Mihalis Kakogiannis, Alekos Sakellarios, Nikos Tsiforos, Iakovos Kambanelis, Katina Paxinou, Nikos Koundouros, Ellie Lambeti, and others. More than sixty films per year were made, with the majority having film noir elements. Notable films were Η κάλπικη λίρα (1955 directed by Giorgos Tzavellas), Πικρό Ψωμί (1951, directed by Grigoris Grigoriou), O Drakos (1956 directed by Nikos Koundouros), Stella (1955 directed by Cacoyannis and written by Kampanellis).
What other famous movie did Cacoyannis direct?
57267fa95951b619008f74c7
Zorba the Greek
25
False
Who starred in the movie Zorba the Greek?
57267fa95951b619008f74c8
Anthony Quinn
46
False
What film won the Palme d'Or at Cannes in 1998?
57267fa95951b619008f74c9
Eternity and a Day
421
False
Who directed the film Eternity and a Day?
57267fa95951b619008f74ca
Theo Angelopoulos
341
False
Cacoyannis also directed Zorba the Greek with Anthony Quinn which received Best Director, Best Adapted Screenplay and Best Film nominations. Finos Film also contributed to this period with movies such as Λατέρνα, Φτώχεια και Φιλότιμο, Madalena, Η Θεία από το Σικάγο, Το ξύλο βγήκε από τον Παράδεισο and many more. During the 1970s and 1980s Theo Angelopoulos directed a series of notable and appreciated movies. His film Eternity and a Day won the Palme d'Or and the Prize of the Ecumenical Jury at the 1998 Cannes Film Festival.
What is a characteristic of the Mediterranean diet?
57268071dd62a815002e876e
Greek cuisine
0
False
The epitome of the Mediterranean diet are dishes from where?
57268071dd62a815002e876f
Crete
100
False
What food can be traced back to ancient Greece?
57268071dd62a815002e8770
skordalia
313
False
What is added to almost every dish in Greece?
57268071dd62a815002e8771
Olive oil
773
False
Greek cuisine is characteristic of the healthy Mediterranean diet, which is epitomized by dishes of Crete. Greek cuisine incorporates fresh ingredients into a variety of local dishes such as moussaka, stifado, Greek salad, fasolada, spanakopita and souvlaki. Some dishes can be traced back to ancient Greece like skordalia (a thick purée of walnuts, almonds, crushed garlic and olive oil), lentil soup, retsina (white or rosé wine sealed with pine resin) and pasteli (candy bar with sesame seeds baked with honey). Throughout Greece people often enjoy eating from small dishes such as meze with various dips such as tzatziki, grilled octopus and small fish, feta cheese, dolmades (rice, currants and pine kernels wrapped in vine leaves), various pulses, olives and cheese. Olive oil is added to almost every dish.
What is the name of one sweet dessert in Greece?
5726817edd62a815002e8790
galaktoboureko
23
False
What is one of the flavorings commonly used in Greek Mediterranean food?
5726817edd62a815002e8791
oregano
276
False
What is one of the sweet spices Greeks like to use with meat?
5726817edd62a815002e8792
cinnamon
528
False
Sweet desserts such as galaktoboureko, and drinks such as ouzo, metaxa and a variety of wines including retsina. Greek cuisine differs widely from different parts of the mainland and from island to island. It uses some flavorings more often than other Mediterranean cuisines: oregano, mint, garlic, onion, dill and bay laurel leaves. Other common herbs and spices include basil, thyme and fennel seed. Many Greek recipes, especially in the northern parts of the country, use "sweet" spices in combination with meat, for example cinnamon and cloves in stews.
Greek vocal music goes back how far in history?
57268218708984140094c871
ancient times
40
False
What is one of the musical instruments used in ancient Greece?
57268218708984140094c872
lyre
247
False
During ancient Greece, at what age were boys taught music?
57268218708984140094c873
six
415
False
Greek vocal music extends far back into ancient times where mixed-gender choruses performed for entertainment, celebration and spiritual reasons. Instruments during that period included the double-reed aulos and the plucked string instrument, the lyre, especially the special kind called a kithara. Music played an important role in the education system during ancient times. Boys were taught music from the age of six. Later influences from the Roman Empire, Middle East, and the Byzantine Empire also had effect on Greek music.
The Eastern Orthodox Church resisted what change in music?
5726834af1498d1400e8e246
polyphony
27
False
Music without any form of instrumental accompaniment is known as what?
5726834af1498d1400e8e247
monophonic
158
False
One type of music derived from Byzantine is called what?
5726834af1498d1400e8e248
Byzantine chant
695
False
While the new technique of polyphony was developing in the West, the Eastern Orthodox Church resisted any type of change. Therefore, Byzantine music remained monophonic and without any form of instrumental accompaniment. As a result, and despite certain attempts by certain Greek chanters (such as Manouel Gazis, Ioannis Plousiadinos or the Cypriot Ieronimos o Tragoudistis), Byzantine music was deprived of elements of which in the West encouraged an unimpeded development of art. However, this method which kept music away from polyphony, along with centuries of continuous culture, enabled monophonic music to develop to the greatest heights of perfection. Byzantium presented the monophonic Byzantine chant; a melodic treasury of inestimable value for its rhythmical variety and expressive power.
What are the two cycles of the Greek folk song?
5726843b708984140094c8a5
akritic and klephtic
142
False
Between what centuries was the akritic cycle of Greek song created?
5726843b708984140094c8a6
9th and 10th
200
False
Which Greek song cycle expresses the life of the Greeks?
5726843b708984140094c8a7
klephtic
510
False
Along with the Byzantine (Church) chant and music, the Greek people also cultivated the Greek folk song which is divided into two cycles, the akritic and klephtic. The akritic was created between the 9th and 10th centuries and expressed the life and struggles of the akrites (frontier guards) of the Byzantine empire, the most well known being the stories associated with Digenes Akritas. The klephtic cycle came into being between the late Byzantine period and the start of the Greek War of Independence. The klephtic cycle, together with historical songs, paraloghes (narrative song or ballad), love songs, mantinades, wedding songs, songs of exile and dirges express the life of the Greeks. There is a unity between the Greek people's struggles for freedom, their joys and sorrow and attitudes towards love and death.
What was the forerunner of Greek modern song?
572684faf1498d1400e8e26a
Heptanesean kantádhes
4
False
Athenian serenades were most successful during what time period?
572684faf1498d1400e8e26b
1870–1930
333
False
What influenced Greek modern song considerably?
572684faf1498d1400e8e26c
Heptanesean kantádhes
4
False
The Heptanesean kantádhes (καντάδες 'serenades'; sing.: καντάδα) became the forerunners of the Greek modern song, influencing its development to a considerable degree. For the first part of the next century, several Greek composers continued to borrow elements from the Heptanesean style. The most successful songs during the period 1870–1930 were the so-called Athenian serenades, and the songs performed on stage (επιθεωρησιακά τραγούδια 'theatrical revue songs') in revue, operettas and nocturnes that were dominating Athens' theater scene.
What music began associated with the lower classes?
5726859bf1498d1400e8e28e
Rebetiko
0
False
Rebetiko was the base of what?
5726859bf1498d1400e8e28f
laïkó
333
False
One of the leading performers of the laiko genre is who?
5726859bf1498d1400e8e290
Apostolos Kaldaras
405
False
Rebetiko, initially a music associated with the lower classes, later (and especially after the population exchange between Greece and Turkey) reached greater general acceptance as the rough edges of its overt subcultural character were softened and polished, sometimes to the point of unrecognizability. It was the base of the later laïkó (song of the people). The leading performers of the genre include Apostolos Kaldaras, Grigoris Bithikotsis, Stelios Kazantzidis, George Dalaras, Haris Alexiou and Glykeria.
Through which islands was European classical music introduced to the Greeks?
5726872cf1498d1400e8e2dc
Ionian
50
False
When was the first school of modern Greek classical music formed?
5726872cf1498d1400e8e2dd
1815
376
False
Who is considered the Greek National School of Music founder?
5726872cf1498d1400e8e2de
Manolis Kalomiris
503
False
Regarding the classical music, it was through the Ionian islands (which were under western rule and influence) that all the major advances of the western European classical music were introduced to mainland Greeks. The region is notable for the birth of the first School of modern Greek classical music (Heptanesean or Ionian School, Greek: Επτανησιακή Σχολή), established in 1815. Prominent representatives of this genre include Nikolaos Mantzaros, Spyridon Xyndas, Spyridon Samaras and Pavlos Carrer. Manolis Kalomiris is considered the founder of the Greek National School of Music.
Who is one 20th century Greek composers that has had an impact on modern classical music?
5726881edd62a815002e8862
Iannis Xenakis
150
False
What is one of the famous movies Greek composers has scored?
5726881edd62a815002e8863
Zorba the Greek
470
False
Who is one of the Greek composers known for their film scores?
5726881edd62a815002e8864
Yanni
657
False
Who is one of the notable Greek opera singers in the 20th century?
5726881edd62a815002e8865
Maria Callas
774
False
In the 20th century, Greek composers have had a significant impact on the development of avant garde and modern classical music, with figures such as Iannis Xenakis, Nikos Skalkottas, and Dimitri Mitropoulos achieving international prominence. At the same time, composers and musicians such as Mikis Theodorakis, Manos Hatzidakis, Eleni Karaindrou, Vangelis and Demis Roussos garnered an international following for their music, which include famous film scores such as Zorba the Greek, Serpico, Never on Sunday, America America, Eternity and a Day, Chariots of Fire, Blade Runner, among others. Greek American composers known for their film scores include Yanni and Basil Poledouris. Notable Greek opera singers and classical musicians of the 20th and 21st century include Maria Callas, Nana Mouskouri, Mario Frangoulis, Leonidas Kavakos, Dimitris Sgouros and others.
How many time has Greece participated in the Eurovision Song Contest?
57268900f1498d1400e8e31e
35
51
False
In what year did Greece win the Eurovision Song Contest?
57268900f1498d1400e8e31f
2005
100
False
What Greek song won the Eurovision Song Contest in 2005?
57268900f1498d1400e8e320
My Number One
132
False
Who performed the song, My Number One, in the 2005 Eurovision Song Contest?
57268900f1498d1400e8e321
Elena Paparizou
182
False
Where was the 51st Eurovision Song Contest held?
57268900f1498d1400e8e322
Athens
494
False
Greece participated in the Eurovision Song Contest 35 times after its debut at the 1974 Contest. In 2005, Greece won with the song "My Number One", performed by Greek-Swedish singer Elena Paparizou. The song received 230 points with 10 sets of 12 points from Belgium, Bulgaria, Hungary, the United Kingdom, Turkey, Albania, Cyprus, Serbia & Montenegro, Sweden and Germany and also became a smash hit in different countries and especially in Greece. The 51st Eurovision Song Contest was held in Athens at the Olympic Indoor Hall of the Athens Olympic Sports Complex in Maroussi, with hosted by Maria Menounos and Sakis Rouvas.
Greece is the birthplace of what sporting event?
57268a1a708984140094c945
Olympic Games
40
False
The first Olympic games was recorded in what year?
57268a1a708984140094c946
776 BC
73
False
Where were the first Olympic games in 775 BC held?
57268a1a708984140094c947
Olympia
83
False
During the Olympic parade of nations, who is always called first?
57268a1a708984140094c948
Greece
229
False
What ranking does Greece hold in all-time summer Olympics gold medal count?
57268a1a708984140094c949
32nd
513
False
Greece is the birthplace of the ancient Olympic Games, first recorded in 776 BC in Olympia, and hosted the modern Olympic Games twice, the inaugural 1896 Summer Olympics and the 2004 Summer Olympics. During the parade of nations Greece is always called first, as the founding nation of the ancient precursor of modern Olympics. The nation has competed at every Summer Olympic Games, one of only four countries to have done so. Having won a total of 110 medals (30 gold, 42 silver and 38 bronze), Greece is ranked 32nd by gold medals in the all-time Summer Olympic medal count. Their best ever performance was in the 1896 Summer Olympics, when Greece finished second in the medal table with 10 gold medals.
What ranking did the Greek national football team hold in 2014.
57268b01708984140094c98d
12th
42
False
Greek was crowned the European champions in what event?
57268b01708984140094c98e
Euro 2004
169
False
How many national teams have won the UEFA European Championship?
57268b01708984140094c98f
nine
329
False
How many teams are in the Greek Super League?
57268b01708984140094c990
eighteen
486
False
Who is one of the most successful teams in the Greek Super League?
57268b01708984140094c991
Olympiacos
526
False
The Greek national football team, ranking 12th in the world in 2014 (and having reached a high of 8th in the world in 2008 and 2011), were crowned European Champions in Euro 2004 in one of the biggest upsets in the history of the sport and became one of the most successful national teams in European football, being one of only nine national teams to have won the UEFA European Championship. The Greek Super League is the highest professional football league in the country comprising eighteen teams. The most successful are Olympiacos, Panathinaikos, AEK Athens and PAOK.
The Greek national basketball team held what world ranking in 2012?
57268c25dd62a815002e8926
4th
172
False
The Greek national basketball in 2012 held what ranking in Europe?
57268c25dd62a815002e8927
2nd
193
False
How many times has the Greek national basketball team won the European championship?
57268c25dd62a815002e8928
twice
248
False
Who did the Greek basketball team beat in the 2006 FIBA World Championship?
57268c25dd62a815002e8929
Team USA
463
False
What is the name of Greece's top domestic basketball league?
57268c25dd62a815002e892a
A1 Ethniki
539
False
The Greek national basketball team has a decades-long tradition of excellence in the sport, being considered among the world's top basketball powers. As of 2012, it ranked 4th in the world and 2nd in Europe. They have won the European Championship twice in 1987 and 2005, and have reached the final four in two of the last four FIBA World Championships, taking the second place in the world in 2006 FIBA World Championship, after a spectacular 101–95 win against Team USA in the tournament's semifinal. The domestic top basketball league, A1 Ethniki, is composed of fourteen teams. The most successful Greek teams are Olympiacos, Panathinaikos, Aris Thessaloniki, AEK Athens and P.A.O.K. Greek basketball teams are the most successful in European basketball the last 25 years, having won as many as 9 Euroleagues since the establishment of the modern era Euroleague Final Four format in 1988, while no other nation has won more than 4 Euroleague championships in this period. Besides the 9 Euroleagues, Greek basketball teams (Panathinaikos, Olympiacos, Aris Thessaloniki, AEK Athens, P.A.O.K, Maroussi) have won 3 Triple Crowns, 5 Saporta Cups, 2 Korać Cups and 1 FIBA Europe Champions Cup. After the 2005 European Championship triumph of the Greek national basketball team, Greece became the reigning European Champion in both football and basketball.
In what year did Greece's women's water polo team win the World Championship?
57268d7a708984140094c9e1
2011
183
False
Which medal did Greece's women's water polo team win at the 2004 Summer Olympics?
57268d7a708984140094c9e2
silver
231
False
Which medal did Greece's women's water polo team win at the 2005 World League?
57268d7a708984140094c9e3
gold
277
False
The Greece Men's water polo team held which world ranking in 2005?
57268d7a708984140094c9e4
third
433
False
Who did Greece Men's water polo team beat in the 2005 World Aquatics Championships?
57268d7a708984140094c9e5
Croatia
506
False
The Greece women's national water polo team have emerged as one of the leading powers in the world, becoming World Champions after their gold medal win against the hosts China at the 2011 World Championship. They have also won the silver medal at the 2004 Summer Olympics, the gold medal at the 2005 World League and the silver medals at the 2010 and 2012 European Championships. The Greece men's national water polo team became the third best water polo team in the world in 2005, after their win against Croatia in the bronze medal game at the 2005 World Aquatics Championships in Canada. The domestic top water polo leagues, Greek Men's Water Polo League and Greek Women's Water Polo League are considered amongst the top national leagues in European water polo, as its clubs have made significant success in European competitions. In men's European competitions, Olympiacos has won the Champions League, the European Super Cup and the Triple Crown in 2002 becoming the first club in Water polo history to win every title in which it has competed within a single year (National championship, National cup, Champions League and European Super Cup), while NC Vouliagmeni has won the LEN Cup Winners' Cup in 1997. In women's European competitions, Greek water polo teams (NC Vouliagmeni, Glyfada NSC, Olympiacos, Ethnikos Piraeus) are amongst the most successful in European water polο, having won as many as 4 LEN Champions Cups, 3 LEN Trophies and 2 European Supercups.
The Greek Men's national volleyball team has won how many bronze medals?
57268eea708984140094ca13
two
49
False
The Greek Men's national volleyball team came in what place in the Olympic games?
57268eea708984140094ca14
5th
165
False
What Greek volleyball club is the most successful in the country?
57268eea708984140094ca15
Olympiacos
429
False
Who is the only Greek volleyball club to win European titles?
57268eea708984140094ca16
Olympiacos
429
False
The Greek men's national volleyball team has won two bronze medals, one in the European Volleyball Championship and another one in the European Volleyball League, a 5th place in the Olympic Games and a 6th place in the FIVB Volleyball Men's World Championship. The Greek league, the A1 Ethniki, is considered one of the top volleyball leagues in Europe and the Greek clubs have made significant success in European competitions. Olympiacos is the most successful volleyball club in the country having won the most domestic titles and being the only Greek club to have won European titles; they have won two CEV Cups, they have been CEV Champions League runners-up twice and they have played in as many as 12 Final Fours in the European competitions, making them one of the most traditional volleyball clubs in Europe. Iraklis have also seen significant success in European competitions, having been three times runners-up of the CEV Champions League.
Where did the mythical Greek gods live?
57268f98dd62a815002e89a0
Mount Olympus
115
False
The main gods of ancient Greece known as the what?
57268f98dd62a815002e89a1
Dodekatheon
58
False
The most important of the ancient gods was who?
57268f98dd62a815002e89a2
Zeus
179
False
Zeus was married to which goddess?
57268f98dd62a815002e89a3
Hera
226
False
Who was Zeus's sister?
57268f98dd62a815002e89a4
Hera
226
False
The principal gods of the ancient Greek religion were the Dodekatheon, or the Twelve Gods, who lived on the top of Mount Olympus. The most important of all ancient Greek gods was Zeus, the king of the gods, who was married to Hera, who was also Zeus's sister. The other Greek gods that made up the Twelve Olympians were Demeter, Ares, Poseidon, Athena, Dionysus, Apollo, Artemis, Aphrodite, Hephaestus and Hermes. Apart from these twelve gods, Greeks also had a variety of other mystical beliefs, such as nymphs and other magical creatures.
Greek law says that every Sunday of the year is a what?
57269063f1498d1400e8e3f0
holiday
61
False
How many official Greek mandatory public holidays are there?
57269063f1498d1400e8e3f1
four
93
False
How many Greek national holidays are there each year?
57269063f1498d1400e8e3f2
eleven
680
False
What is one of the holidays regulated by law as optional?
57269063f1498d1400e8e3f3
Labour Day
276
False
According to Greek law, every Sunday of the year is a public holiday. In addition, there are four mandatory official public holidays: 25 March (Greek Independence Day), Easter Monday, 15 August (Assumption or Dormition of the Holy Virgin), and 25 December (Christmas). 1 May (Labour Day) and 28 October (Ohi Day) are regulated by law as being optional but it is customary for employees to be given the day off. There are, however, more public holidays celebrated in Greece than are announced by the Ministry of Labour each year as either obligatory or optional. The list of these non-fixed national holidays rarely changes and has not changed in recent decades, giving a total of eleven national holidays each year.
in 2012, what was the amount of the bailout?
5726909f5951b619008f76c3
$173 billion
117
False
How much debt to creditors was Greece suppose to reduce?
5726909f5951b619008f76c4
53%
280
False
In what year did Greece realize a budget surplus?
5726909f5951b619008f76c5
2013
512
False
How much did Greece make from a bond sale in 2014?
5726909f5951b619008f76c6
€3 billion
599
False
After how many years did it take for Greece to gain back growth in the economy?
5726909f5951b619008f76c7
six years
699
False
In 2011, it became apparent that the bail-out would be insufficient and a second bail-out amounting to €130 billion ($173 billion) was agreed in 2012, subject to strict conditions, including financial reforms and further austerity measures. As part of the deal, there was to be a 53% reduction in the Greek debt burden to private creditors and any profits made by Eurozone central banks on their holdings of Greek debt are to be repatriated back to Greece. Greece achieved a primary government budget surplus in 2013. In April 2014, Greece returned to the global bond market as it successfully sold €3 billion worth of five-year government bonds at a yield of 4.95%. Greece returned to growth after six years of economic decline in the second quarter of 2014, and was the Eurozone's fastest-growing economy in the third quarter.
Alexander III was the son of whom?
5726918f5951b619008f76eb
Phillip II
31
False
Alexander III invaded what empire after his father was killed?
5726918f5951b619008f76ec
Persian
159
False
What year did Alexander III Invade Persia?
5726918f5951b619008f76ed
334 BC
222
False
The Persian Empire was conquered by Alexander by what year?
5726918f5951b619008f76ee
330 BC
314
False
In which year did Alexander III die?
5726918f5951b619008f76ef
323 BC
350
False
Following the assassination of Phillip II, his son Alexander III ("The Great") assumed the leadership of the League of Corinth and launched an invasion of the Persian Empire with the combined forces of all Greek states in 334 BC. Undefeated in battle, Alexander had conquered the Persian Empire in its entirety by 330 BC. By the time of his death in 323 BC, he had created one of the largest empires in history, stretching from Greece to India. His empire split into several kingdoms upon his death, the most famous of which were the Seleucid Empire, Ptolemaic Egypt, the Greco-Bactrian Kingdom and the Indo-Greek Kingdom. Many Greeks migrated to Alexandria, Antioch, Seleucia and the many other new Hellenistic cities in Asia and Africa. Although the political unity of Alexander's empire could not be maintained, it resulted in the Hellenistic civilization and spread the Greek language and Greek culture in the territories conquered by Alexander. Greek science, technology and mathematics are generally considered to have reached their peak during the Hellenistic period.
Royal_Dutch_Shell
In how many countries does Shell have operations?
572617bcec44d21400f3d8af
over 90
307
False
How many barrels of oil equivalent does Shell produce per day?
572617bcec44d21400f3d8b0
3.1 million
342
False
Shell has how many service stations worldwide?
572617bcec44d21400f3d8b1
44,000
396
False
What is the name of Shell's subsidiary in the United States?
572617bcec44d21400f3d8b2
Shell Oil Company
431
False
Shell has minor renewable energy activities in which two areas?
572617bcec44d21400f3d8b3
biofuels and wind
267
False
3.1 million
342
How many barrels of gas does Shell produce per day?
5a6227aaf8d794001af1be96
True
44,000
396
How many service stations does Shell have in the US?
5a6227aaf8d794001af1be97
True
oil
365
What does Shell sell 3.1 million barrels of per day?
5a6227aaf8d794001af1be98
True
over 90 countries
307
How many countries does Shell have renewable energy activities in?
5a6227aaf8d794001af1be99
True
exploration and production
99
Which aspect of the oil and gas industry is Shell not active in?
5a6227aaf8d794001af1be9a
True
Shell was vertically integrated and is active in every area of the oil and gas industry, including exploration and production, refining, distribution and marketing, petrochemicals, power generation and trading. It has minor renewable energy activities in the form of biofuels and wind. It has operations in over 90 countries, produces around 3.1 million barrels of oil equivalent per day and has 44,000 service stations worldwide. Shell Oil Company, its subsidiary in the United States, is one of its largest businesses.
The Royal Dutch Shell Group was created through the merger of which two rival companies?
572619b8ec44d21400f3d8d3
the Royal Dutch Petroleum Company of the Netherlands and the "Shell" Transport and Trading Company Ltd of the United Kingdom
107
False
What was the main reason for the creation of the Royal Dutch Shell Group?
572619b8ec44d21400f3d8d4
the need to compete globally with Standard Oil
265
False
In what year was the Royal Dutch Shell Group created?
572619b8ec44d21400f3d8d5
1907
12
False
In what year was the Royal Dutch Petroleum Company founded?
572619b8ec44d21400f3d8d6
1890
378
False
Why was the Royal Dutch Petroleum Company created?
572619b8ec44d21400f3d8d7
to develop an oilfield in Sumatra
383
False
1890
378
What was August Kessler born?
5a622e60f8d794001af1beaa
True
Samuel Samuel
677
What was Hugo Loudon's brother?
5a622e60f8d794001af1beac
True
1833
776
When was the Samuel brothers' father's antique company created?
5a622e60f8d794001af1bead
True
"Shell" Transport and Trading Company
493
What was the name of Marcus Samuel's father's antique company?
5a622e60f8d794001af1beae
True
In February 1907, the Royal Dutch Shell Group was created through the amalgamation of two rival companies: the Royal Dutch Petroleum Company of the Netherlands and the "Shell" Transport and Trading Company Ltd of the United Kingdom. It was a move largely driven by the need to compete globally with Standard Oil. The Royal Dutch Petroleum Company was a Dutch company founded in 1890 to develop an oilfield in Sumatra, and initially led by August Kessler, Hugo Loudon, and Henri Deterding. The "Shell" Transport and Trading Company (the quotation marks were part of the legal name) was a British company, founded in 1897 by Marcus Samuel, 1st Viscount Bearsted, and his brother Samuel Samuel. Their father had owned an antique company in Houndsditch, London, which expanded in 1833 to import and sell sea-shells, after which the company "Shell" took its name.
What percent of ownership did the merger award the Dutch branch?
57261b3b38643c19005ad005
60
227
False
What prevented a full-scale merger of the two companies?
57261b3b38643c19005ad006
National patriotic sensibilities
313
False
What was the primary function of the Anglo-Saxon Petroleum Company?
57261b3b38643c19005ad007
to direct the transport and storage of the products
643
False
The new firm operated as what type of company?
57261b3b38643c19005ad008
a dual-listed company
46
False
What percent of ownership of the new company was awarded to the British?
57261b3b38643c19005ad009
40
286
False
National patriotic sensibilities
313
What encouraged a full-scale merger of the two companies?
5a62307ef8d794001af1beb4
True
Anglo-Saxon Petroleum Company
595
What british company was in charge at The Hague?
5a62307ef8d794001af1beb5
True
London
635
What city were both branches of the new firm located in?
5a62307ef8d794001af1beb6
True
Koninklijke Nederlandsche Petroleum Maatschappij
446
What was the name of the Dutch company in charge of transportation and storage?
5a62307ef8d794001af1beb7
True
National patriotic sensibilities would not permit a full-scale merger
313
Why did the two companies function as a dual-unit partnership for business purposes?
5a62307ef8d794001af1beb8
True
For various reasons, the new firm operated as a dual-listed company, whereby the merging companies maintained their legal existence, but operated as a single-unit partnership for business purposes. The terms of the merger gave 60 percent ownership of the new group to the Dutch arm and 40 percent to the British. National patriotic sensibilities would not permit a full-scale merger or takeover of either of the two companies. The Dutch company, Koninklijke Nederlandsche Petroleum Maatschappij, was in charge at The Hague of production and manufacture. A British company was formed, called the Anglo-Saxon Petroleum Company, based in London, to direct the transport and storage of the products.
In what year was it announced that the Shell Group would move to a single capital structure?
57261cd638643c19005ad023
2004
12
False
What was the name of the Shell Group's new parent company?
57261cd638643c19005ad024
Royal Dutch Shell plc
245
False
On what exchange was the Shell Group's new parent company primarily listed?
57261cd638643c19005ad025
the London Stock Exchange
296
False
Where was the Royal Dutch Shell plc headquartered?
57261cd638643c19005ad026
The Hague, Netherlands
414
False
What was the cause of the period of turmoil prior to the announcement that the Shell Group would move to a single capital structure?
57261cd638643c19005ad027
the revelation that Shell had been overstating its oil reserves
58
False
November 2004
3
When was it discovered Shell had been overstating its oil reserves?
5a6231bef8d794001af1bec6
True
20 July 2005
603
When was Shell listed on the LSE?
5a6231bef8d794001af1bec7
True
18 November 2005
739
When was Royal Dutch Petroleum added to the NYSE?
5a6231bef8d794001af1bec8
True
60/40
800
Contrary to the original ownership, shareholders were given what disadvantage of the Shell group?
5a6231bef8d794001af1bec9
True
London
466
What Netherlands city housed the registered office?
5a6231bef8d794001af1beca
True
In November 2004, following a period of turmoil caused by the revelation that Shell had been overstating its oil reserves, it was announced that the Shell Group would move to a single capital structure, creating a new parent company to be named Royal Dutch Shell plc, with its primary listing on the London Stock Exchange, a secondary listing on the Amsterdam Stock Exchange, its headquarters and tax residency in The Hague, Netherlands and its registered office in London. The unification was completed on 20 July 2005 and the original owners delisted their companies from the respective exchanges. On 20 July 2005, the Shell Transport & Trading Company plc was delisted from the LSE, where as, Royal Dutch Petroleum Company from NYSE on 18 November 2005. The shares of the company were issued at a 60/40 advantage for the shareholders of Royal Dutch in line with the original ownership of the Shell Group.
In what year did Shell and Cosan form a 50:50 joint venture?
57261e2bec44d21400f3d90f
2010
12
False
What was the name of the 50:50 joint venture formed by Shell and Cosan?
57261e2bec44d21400f3d910
Raízen
63
False
Why did Shell sell some of its assets in March 2010?
57261e2bec44d21400f3d911
to meet the cost of a planned $28bn capital spending programme
368
False
How much did Shell plan to raise from the sale of its assets?
57261e2bec44d21400f3d912
$2–3bn
518
False
Royal Dutch Shell agreed to acquire all the business of what entity in June 2010?
57261e2bec44d21400f3d913
East Resources
610
False
Cosan
27
Who did Shell split with in 2010?
5a623299f8d794001af1bed0
True
2010
12
When did Shell form a joint venture with Raizen?
5a623299f8d794001af1bed1
True
$4.7 billion
653
How much were the East Resources' gas fields worth?
5a623299f8d794001af1bed2
True
$28bn
398
How much was Shell's liquid petroleum gas business worth?
5a623299f8d794001af1bed3
True
all the business of East Resources
590
What did Shell buy from Cosan for $4.7 million?
5a623299f8d794001af1bed4
True
In February 2010 Shell and Cosan formed a 50:50 joint-venture, Raízen, comprising all of Cosan's Brazilian ethanol, energy generation, fuel distribution and sugar activities, and all of Shell's Brazilian retail fuel and aviation distribution businesses. In March 2010, Shell announced the sale of some of its assets, including its liquid petroleum gas (LPG) business, to meet the cost of a planned $28bn capital spending programme. Shell invited buyers to submit indicative bids, due by 22 March, with a plan to raise $2–3bn from the sale. In June 2010, Royal Dutch Shell agreed to acquire all the business of East Resources for a cash consideration of $4.7 billion. The transaction included East Resources' tight gas fields.
Which assets did the corporation begin to sell in 2013?
5726200038643c19005ad053
US shale gas
63
False
What was the value of the cancelled gas project that was to be contstructed in Louisiana?
5726200038643c19005ad054
US$20 billion
99
False
The appointment of a new CEO in 2014 came prior to what announcement?
5726200038643c19005ad055
the corporation's overall performance in 2013 was 38 per cent lower than 2012
270
False
In what year did the corporation sell the majority of its Australian assets?
5726200038643c19005ad056
2014
480
False
What was the value of assets the corporation planned to sell leading up to 2015?
5726200038643c19005ad057
US$15 billion
526
False
Ben van Beurden
192
Who was the CEO in 2013?
5a6242a5f8d794001af1beda
True
US$20 billion
99
How much was the 2013 sale of US shale gas assets worth?
5a6242a5f8d794001af1bedb
True
the US state of Louisiana
155
Where did Shell begin selling US shale gas assets?
5a6242a5f8d794001af1bedc
True
38 per cent
320
How much higher was the company's performance in 2013?
5a6242a5f8d794001af1bedd
True
US$15 billion
526
What is the worth of the Australian assets Shell sold in US dollars?
5a6242a5f8d794001af1bede
True
Over the course of 2013, the corporation began the sale of its US shale gas assets and cancelled a US$20 billion gas project that was to be constructed in the US state of Louisiana. A new CEO Ben van Beurden was appointed in January 2014, prior to the announcement that the corporation's overall performance in 2013 was 38 per cent lower than 2012—the value of Shell's shares fell by 3 per cent as a result. Following the sale of the majority of its Australian assets in February 2014, the corporation plans to sell a further US$15 billion worth of assets in the period leading up to 2015, with deals announced in Australia, Brazil and Italy.
What is a cause of severe environmental issues in the Niger Delta?
572621b6ec44d21400f3d947
The presence of companies like Shell
0
False
Many pipelines owned by Shell in the Niger Delta are described as what?
572621b6ec44d21400f3d948
old and corroded
169
False
Shell has accepted responsibility for keeping its pipelines in what condition?
572621b6ec44d21400f3d949
new
255
False
In contrast to its acceptance of responsibility for keeping the pipelines new, Shell has denied what?
572621b6ec44d21400f3d94a
responsibility for environmental causes
279
False
Environmental and human rights groups have created action plans to do what?
572621b6ec44d21400f3d94b
boycott Shell
496
False
Niger-Delta
44
Where has Shell tried to keep its pipelines in pristine conditions?
5a624339f8d794001af1bee4
True
January 2013
563
When did Friends of the Earth begin protesting Shell?
5a624339f8d794001af1bee5
True
four out of five
600
How many allegations did the Dutch court approve?
5a624339f8d794001af1bee6
True
a Nigerian farmer
784
Who did Amnesty International have to pay for one count of pollution?
5a624339f8d794001af1bee7
True
2013
571
When did Shell acknowledge responsibility for the environmental issues?
5a624339f8d794001af1bee8
True
The presence of companies like Shell in the Niger-Delta has led to extreme environmental issues in the Niger Delta. Many pipelines in the Niger-Delta owned by Shell are old and corroded. Shell has acknowledged its responsibility for keeping the pipelines new but has also denied responsibility for environmental causes. This has led to mass protests from the Niger-Delta inhabitants and Amnesty International against Shell and Friends of the Earth Netherlands. It has also led to action plans to boycott Shell by environmental groups, and human rights groups. In January 2013, a Dutch court rejected four out of five allegations brought against the firm over oil pollution in the Niger Delta but found a subsidiary guilty of one case of pollution, ordering compensation to be paid to a Nigerian farmer.
The name Shell is connected to what company?
5726235c271a42140099d4d7
The "Shell" Transport and Trading Company
28
False
What was the purpose of the created of The "Shell" Transport and Trading Company?
5726235c271a42140099d4d8
to sell seashells to London collectors
144
False
What did the younger founder of The "Shell" Transport and Trading company discover while collecting seashell specimens in the Caspian Sea area?
5726235c271a42140099d4d9
there was potential in exporting lamp oil from the region
280
False
By what year did the company have a fleet of oil tankers operating in the Caspian Sea region?
5726235c271a42140099d4da
1907
469
False
The company operated a refinery on what river for several decades?
5726235c271a42140099d4db
Thames
577
False
London
165
Where was the Murex built?
5a624428f8d794001af1bf02
True
1907
469
When was the refinery at Shell Haven built?
5a624428f8d794001af1bf03
True
Thames
577
What river did Marcus collect shells from in 1907?
5a624428f8d794001af1bf04
True
1833
74
When was Marcus Samuel born?
5a624428f8d794001af1bf05
True
several decades
512
How long did the younger Samuel collect specimens from the Caspian Sea?
5a624428f8d794001af1bf06
True
The name Shell is linked to The "Shell" Transport and Trading Company. In 1833, the founder's father, Marcus Samuel, founded an import business to sell seashells to London collectors. When collecting seashell specimens in the Caspian Sea area in 1892, the younger Samuel realised there was potential in exporting lamp oil from the region and commissioned the world's first purpose-built oil tanker, the Murex (Latin for a type of snail shell), to enter this market; by 1907 the company had a fleet. Although for several decades the company had a refinery at Shell Haven on the Thames, there is no evidence of this having provided the name.
What is Shell's primary business?
572624ed38643c19005ad0b5
the management of a vertically integrated oil company
28
False
The development of what two types of exptertise established the core competencies on which the company was founded?
572624ed38643c19005ad0b6
technical and commercial
102
False
One of the most important business in which Shell is involved is what?
572624ed38643c19005ad0b7
natural gas
430
False
Each business now seeks to become what type of unit?
572624ed38643c19005ad0b8
self-supporting
740
False
The business model that provided significant economies of scale and barriers to entry is called what?
572624ed38643c19005ad0b9
vertically integrated
608
False
natural gas
430
What is the least important business for Shell?
5a62458bf8d794001af1bf0c
True
significant economies of scale and barriers to entry
654
What did self-supporting units provide for the company?
5a62458bf8d794001af1bf0d
True
technical and commercial
102
What types of expertise have been removed from the business?
5a62458bf8d794001af1bf0e
True
all stages
140
Which stage does not require technical and commercial expertise?
5a62458bf8d794001af1bf0f
True
Shell
0
What company is moving away from having self-supported units?
5a62458bf8d794001af1bf10
True
Shell's primary business is the management of a vertically integrated oil company. The development of technical and commercial expertise in all stages of this vertical integration, from the initial search for oil (exploration) through its harvesting (production), transportation, refining and finally trading and marketing established the core competencies on which the company was founded. Similar competencies were required for natural gas, which has become one of the most important businesses in which Shell is involved, and which contributes a significant proportion of the company's profits. While the vertically integrated business model provided significant economies of scale and barriers to entry, each business now seeks to be a self-supporting unit without subsidies from other parts of the company.
Shell was traditionally considered what type of business worldwide?
5726262f89a1e219009ac3da
heavily decentralised
27
False
Shell operated companies in how many countries?
5726262f89a1e219009ac3db
over 100
117
False
A good deal of technical and financial direction for the upstream came from what entity?
5726262f89a1e219009ac3dc
the central offices in The Hague
306
False
What types of companies existed in a few major oil and gas production centers?
5726262f89a1e219009ac3dd
"exploration and production"
376
False
over 100
117
How many centralised businesses does Shell have?
5a62468ff8d794001af1bf20
True
central offices in The Hague
310
Where did much of the direction come for the downstream come from?
5a62468ff8d794001af1bf21
True
Shell Expro
489
What production centre was located in Nigeria?
5a62468ff8d794001af1bf22
True
over 100
117
How many countries were large exploration and production companies in?
5a62468ff8d794001af1bf23
True
Exxon
523
What company did Shell partner with in Brunei for the joint venture Shell Expro?
5a62468ff8d794001af1bf24
True
Traditionally, Shell was a heavily decentralised business worldwide (especially in the downstream) with companies in over 100 countries, each of which operated with a high degree of independence. The upstream tended to be far more centralised with much of the technical and financial direction coming from the central offices in The Hague. Nevertheless, there were very large "exploration and production" companies in a few major oil and gas production centres such as the United Kingdom (Shell Expro, a Joint Venture with Exxon), Nigeria, Brunei, and Oman.
Downstream operations currently includes what type of business?
572627a5ec44d21400f3da67
chemicals
51
False
Downstream operations produces what percent of Shell's profits worldwide?
572627a5ec44d21400f3da68
a third
81
False
How many petrol stationsare included in Shell's downstream operations global network?
572627a5ec44d21400f3da69
more than 40,000
157
False
Prior to the 1990s, Shell's downstream businesses were essentially considered what kind of businesses?
572627a5ec44d21400f3da6a
local
554
False
In what way did the business paradigm of Shell's downstream operations begin to change?
572627a5ec44d21400f3da6b
the independence of operating companies around the world was gradually reduced
741
False
a third
81
How much of Shell's profits did Downstream account for in 1990?
5a62793df8d794001af1c000
True
the 1990s
695
When did Shell switch to treating businesses as local, independent companies?
5a62793df8d794001af1c001
True
47
198
How many oil refineries does Shell have?
5a62793df8d794001af1c002
True
40,000
167
How many total petrol stations does Shell have?
5a62793df8d794001af1c003
True
virtually all
828
How many of Shell's operations are controlled in London instead of Hague?
5a62793df8d794001af1c004
True
Downstream operations, which now also includes the chemicals business, generates a third of Shell's profits worldwide and is known for its global network of more than 40,000 petrol stations and its 47 oil refineries. The downstream business, which in some countries also included oil refining, generally included a retail petrol station network, lubricants manufacture and marketing, industrial fuel and lubricants sales and a host of other product/market sectors such as LPG and bitumen. The practice in Shell was that these businesses were essentially local and that they were best managed by local "operating companies" – often with middle and senior management reinforced by expatriates. In the 1990s, this paradigm began to change, and the independence of operating companies around the world was gradually reduced. Today, virtually all of Shell's operations in various businesses are much more directly managed from London and The Hague. The autonomy of "operating companies" has been largely removed, as more "global businesses" have been created.
What did Shell announce in April 2010?
572628da38643c19005ad1b3
its intention to divest from downstream business of all African countries except South Africa and Egypt to Vitol and "Helios"
31
False
What happened in several countries in response to Shell's April 2010 announcement?
572628da38643c19005ad1b4
protests and strikes broke out
196
False
In June 2013, Shell announced a review of its operations in which country?
572628da38643c19005ad1b5
Nigeria
495
False
In August 2014, Shell announced it was in the process of doing what?
572628da38643c19005ad1b6
finalizing the sale of its interests in four Nigerian oil fields.
606
False
What did Shell indicate was a reason for the strategic review of operations in Nigeria?
572628da38643c19005ad1b7
assets could be divested
517
False
Vitol and "Helios"
138
What did Shell switch from South Africa and Egypt to?
5a6279caf8d794001af1c010
True
April 2010
3
When did protests break out in South Africa?
5a6279caf8d794001af1c011
True
four
646
How many Egyptian fields did Shell sell in 2014?
5a6279caf8d794001af1c012
True
Niger Delta
346
Where did Shell divest its upstream activities from?
5a6279caf8d794001af1c013
True
June 2013
422
When did the company announce a review of South Africa?
5a6279caf8d794001af1c014
True
In April 2010, Shell announced its intention to divest from downstream business of all African countries except South Africa and Egypt to Vitol and "Helios". In several countries such as Tunisia, protests and strikes broke out. Shell denied rumours of the sellout. Shell continues however upstream activities/extracting crude oil in the oil-rich Niger Delta as well as downstream/commercial activities in South Africa. In June 2013, the company announced a strategic review of its operations in Nigeria, hinting that assets could be divested. In August 2014, the company disclosed it was in the process of finalizing the sale of its interests in four Nigerian oil fields.
What company was the owner of the 7-Eleven brand in Scandinavia?
57262a0bec44d21400f3db3d
Reitan Group
41
False
In what year did Royal Dutch Shell and Reitan Group announce an agreement?
57262a0bec44d21400f3db3e
2007
13
False
How many service stations did Royal Dutch Shell and Reitan Group agree to re-brand?
57262a0bec44d21400f3db3f
some 269
138
False
Shell announced it was in the process of doing what in April 2010?
57262a0bec44d21400f3db40
trying to find a potential buyer for all of its operations in Finland
372
False
In October 2010, Shell sold what to St1?
57262a0bec44d21400f3db41
gas stations and the heavy vehicle fuel supply networks in Finland and Sweden, along with a refinery located in Gothenburg, Sweden
534
False
269
143
How many service stations did Royal Dutch Shell and Reitan Group re-brand in Norway alone?
5a627b3df8d794001af1c01e
True
within maximum of five years
820
How long will it take to rebrand the service stations in Norway, Sweden, Finland, and Denmark?
5a627b3df8d794001af1c01f
True
St1
678
Who did Shell by gas stations and heavy vehicle supply networks from?
5a627b3df8d794001af1c020
True
October 2010
513
When did St1 and Reitan Group announce an agreement?
5a627b3df8d794001af1c021
True
Keele Oy
765
What parent company did Shell sell to in April 2010?
5a627b3df8d794001af1c022
True
On 27 August 2007, Royal Dutch Shell and Reitan Group, the owner of the 7-Eleven brand in Scandinavia, announced an agreement to re-brand some 269 service stations across Norway, Sweden, Finland and Denmark, subject to obtaining regulatory approvals under the different competition laws in each country. On April 2010 Shell announced that the corporation is in process of trying to find a potential buyer for all of its operations in Finland and is doing similar market research concerning Swedish operations. On October 2010 Shell's gas stations and the heavy vehicle fuel supply networks in Finland and Sweden, along with a refinery located in Gothenburg, Sweden were sold to St1, a Finnish energy company, more precisely to its major shareholding parent company Keele Oy. Shell branded gas stations will be rebranded within maximum of five years from the acquisition and the number of gas stations is likely to be reduced. Until then the stations will operate under Shell brand licence.
Shell Oil Company's United States business throughout its early history is described as what?
57262bce89a1e219009ac4f2
substantially independent
95
False
On which exchange was Shell Oil Company's U.S. stock historically traded?
57262bce89a1e219009ac4f3
the NYSE
152
False
Shell Oil Company historically had little direct involvement from what entity in the running of its American businesses?
57262bce89a1e219009ac4f4
the group's central offices
201
False
In what year did Royal Dutch Shell make a bid to purchase approximately 30% of Shell Oil Company's shares?
57262bce89a1e219009ac4f5
1984
282
False
What did Royal Dutch Shell's bid to purchase Shell Oil Company's shares lead to?
57262bce89a1e219009ac4f6
a court case
460
False
the group's central offices
201
Shell's early history involved a lot of involvement from what?
5a627c79f8d794001af1c028
True
30%
386
What percentage of the Shell Oil Company did Royal Dutch Shell own in 1984?
5a627c79f8d794001af1c029
True
$5.7 billion
514
How much did the court case cost?
5a627c79f8d794001af1c02a
True
1984
282
When did Royal Dutch Shell try to sell its shares?
5a627c79f8d794001af1c02b
True
minority shareholders
424
Who approved of the Royal Dutch shell buyout?
5a627c79f8d794001af1c02c
True
Through most of Shell's early history, the Shell Oil Company business in the United States was substantially independent with its stock being traded on the NYSE and with little direct involvement from the group's central offices in the running of the American business. However, in 1984, Royal Dutch Shell made a bid to purchase those shares of Shell Oil Company it did not own (around 30%) and despite opposition from some minority shareholders, which led to a court case, Shell completed the buyout for a sum of $5.7 billion.
The final investment decision for what was finalized by Royal Dutch Shell in May 2011?
57262d01ec44d21400f3dba3
the world's first floating liquefied natural gas (FLNG) facility
66
False
The remote offshore Prelude field was discovered where?
57262d01ec44d21400f3dba4
off Australia's northwestern coast
214
False
The Prelude field was estimated to contain how many cubic feet of natural gas reserves?
57262d01ec44d21400f3dba5
3 trillion
280
False
On what developments was FLNG technology based?
57262d01ec44d21400f3dba6
liquefied natural gas (LNG)
374
False
FLNG technology faciliates what?
57262d01ec44d21400f3dba7
the exploitation of untapped natural gas reserves located in remote areas
475
False
20 May 2011
3
When did Royal Dutch Shell make its first investment into FLNG?
5a627da5f8d794001af1c040
True
mid-20th century
442
When was FLNG technology created?
5a627da5f8d794001af1c041
True
the remote offshore Prelude field
172
What is located off Australia's southwestern coast?
5a627da5f8d794001af1c042
True
Australia
218
Where were FLNG technologies pioneered?
5a627da5f8d794001af1c043
True
2007
340
When was the FLNG facility built?
5a627da5f8d794001af1c044
True
On 20 May 2011, Royal Dutch Shell's final investment decision for the world's first floating liquefied natural gas (FLNG) facility was finalized following the discovery of the remote offshore Prelude field—located off Australia's northwestern coast and estimated to contain about 3 trillion cubic feet of natural gas equivalent reserves—in 2007. FLNG technology is based on liquefied natural gas (LNG) developments that were pioneered in the mid-20th century and facilitates the exploitation of untapped natural gas reserves located in remote areas, often too small to extract any other way.
What percent of its stake in Woodside Petroleum did Shell sell in June 2014?
57262e99271a42140099d70d
9.5%
11
False
Shell became a major shareholder in Woodside after a takeover attempt was blocked in what year?
57262e99271a42140099d70e
2001
230
False
Who blocked the takeover attempt?
57262e99271a42140099d70f
then federal Treasurer Peter Costello
267
False
What percentage of shareholders voted to approve the 2014 buy-back?
57262e99271a42140099d710
72
477
False
What percentage of shareholder votes was need to approve the 2014 buy-back?
57262e99271a42140099d711
75
548
False
9.5%
11
How much Woodside stock in Shell sell in 2001?
5a627e97f8d794001af1c050
True
Peter Costello
290
What Shell treasurer try to takeover Woodside in 2001?
5a627e97f8d794001af1c051
True
72
477
What percentage of shareholders approved the takeover attempt?
5a627e97f8d794001af1c052
True
75
548
What percentage of shareholders was required to block the Woodside takeover?
5a627e97f8d794001af1c053
True
1 August 2014
462
When was the meeting to decide whether or not to sell 9.5% of its Woodside Petroleum stock?
5a627e97f8d794001af1c054
True
Shell sold 9.5% of its 23.1% stake in Woodside Petroleum in June 2014 and advised that it had reached an agreement for Woodside to buy back 9.5% of its shares at a later stage. Shell became a major shareholder in Woodside after a 2001 takeover attempt was blocked by then federal Treasurer Peter Costello and the corporation has been open about its intention to sell its stake in Woodside as part of its target to shed assets. At a general body meeting, held on 1 August 2014, 72 percent of shareholders voted to approve the buy-back, short of the 75 percent vote that was required for approval. A statement from Shell read: "Royal Dutch Shell acknowledges the outcome of Woodside Petroleum Limited's shareholders' negative vote on the selective buy-back proposal. Shell is reviewing its options in relation to its remaining 13.6 percent holding."
Shell purchased what in 2005?
57262fab271a42140099d721
an offshore lease
26
False
What did Shell initate after its 2005 purchase?
57262fab271a42140099d722
its US$4.5 billion Arctic drilling program
69
False
What executive initially led the Artic drilling project?
57262fab271a42140099d723
Pete Slaiby
254
False
What caused the delay in drilling after Shell's 2008 purchase?
57262fab271a42140099d724
the refurbishment of rigs, permit delays from the relevant authorities and lawsuits
444
False
Shell's plans to drill in the Artic led to protests from which particular environmental group?
57262fab271a42140099d725
Greenpeace
618
False
US$4.5 billion
73
How much did the purchase of an offshore lease cost?
5a627fdff8d794001af1c05e
True
Pete Slaiby
254
What Greenpeace executive protested the Arctic drilling?
5a627fdff8d794001af1c05f
True
the "Kulluk"
153
What oil rig cost Shell $4.5bil?
5a627fdff8d794001af1c060
True
2012
431
When was Pete Slaiby taken off of the Arctic drilling program?
5a627fdff8d794001af1c061
True
2006
115
When was Pete Slaiby working in the North Sea?
5a627fdff8d794001af1c062
True
Following the purchase of an offshore lease in 2005, Shell initiated its US$4.5 billion Arctic drilling program in 2006, after the corporation purchased the "Kulluk" oil rig and leased the Noble Discoverer drillship. At inception, the project was led by Pete Slaiby, a Shell executive who had previously worked in the North Sea. However, after the purchase of a second offshore lease in 2008, Shell only commenced drilling work in 2012, due to the refurbishment of rigs, permit delays from the relevant authorities and lawsuits. The plans to drill in the Arctic led to protests from environmental groups, particularly Greenpeace; furthermore, analysts in the energy field, as well as related industries, also expressed skepticism due to perceptions that drilling in the region is "too dangerous because of harsh conditions and remote locations".
What conditions caused the delay of drilling in mid-2012?
572630c589a1e219009ac530
difficult weather
266
False
What worsened the situation at the end of 2012?
572630c589a1e219009ac531
the "Kulluk" incident
395
False
What amount had Royal Dutch Shell invested in the project by the end of 2012?
572630c589a1e219009ac532
nearly US$5 billion
472
False
In what year did drilling in the Arctic region begin?
572630c589a1e219009ac533
2012
83
False
2012
83
When did the Arctic project end?
5a62874bf8d794001af1c0a8
True
Coast Guard
155
Who damaged essential oil-spill equipment?
5a62874bf8d794001af1c0a9
True
US$5 billion
479
How much was invested in the Kulluk incident?
5a62874bf8d794001af1c0aa
True
difficult weather conditions
266
What caused the Kulluk incident?
5a62874bf8d794001af1c0ab
True
Coast Guard certification
155
What certification was the Kulluk missing?
5a62874bf8d794001af1c0ac
True
Further problems hampered the Arctic project after the commencement of drilling in 2012, as Shell dealt with a series of issues that involved air permits, Coast Guard certification of a marine vessel and severe damage to essential oil-spill equipment. Additionally, difficult weather conditions resulted in the delay of drilling during mid-2012 and the already dire situation was exacerbated by the "Kulluk" incident at the end of the year. Royal Dutch Shell had invested nearly US$5 billion by this stage of the project.
Why was the Kulluk oil rig being towed to Washington?
572631f7ec44d21400f3dc07
to be serviced in preparation for the 2013 drilling season
74
False
What caused towing crews and rescue service to lose control while the Kulluk rig was in transport to Washington?
572631f7ec44d21400f3dc08
a winter storm
134
False
On January 1, 2013, the Kulluk was grounded off the coast of which island?
572631f7ec44d21400f3dc09
Sitkalidak
319
False
Following the incident, which magazine contacted Larry McKinney?
572631f7ec44d21400f3dc0a
Fortune
403
False
Larry McKinney explained that a two-month delay in drilling could do what?
572631f7ec44d21400f3dc0b
wipe out the entire drilling season
650
False
the American state of Washington
41
Where was the Kulluk oil rig being towed from?
5a628873f8d794001af1c0bc
True
Sitkalidak Island
319
Where was the Kullug grounded in December?
5a628873f8d794001af1c0bd
True
Larry McKinney
430
Who was the executive director of the Fortune magazine?
5a628873f8d794001af1c0be
True
Fortune
403
What magazine did Larry McKinney contact?
5a628873f8d794001af1c0bf
True
two-month
567
How long did it take to tow the Kulluk to Washington state?
5a628873f8d794001af1c0c0
True
As the Kulluk oil rig was being towed to the American state of Washington to be serviced in preparation for the 2013 drilling season, a winter storm on 27 December 2012 caused the towing crews, as well as the rescue service, to lose control of the situation. As of 1 January 2013, the Kulluk was grounded off the coast Sitkalidak Island, near the eastern end of Kodiak Island. Following the accident, a Fortune magazine contacted Larry McKinney, the executive director at the Harte Research Institute for Gulf of Mexico Studies at Texas A&M, and he explained that "A two-month delay in the Arctic is not a two-month delay ... A two-month delay could wipe out the entire drilling season."
Following what event was it uncertain if Shell would recommence drilling?
5726384b38643c19005ad319
the "Kulluk" incident
73
False
In February 2013, Shell Corporation announced that it would pause what?
5726384b38643c19005ad31a
its closely watched drilling project off the Alaskan coast
163
False
Shell Corporation announced what in January 2014?
5726384b38643c19005ad31b
the extension of the suspension of its drilling program in the Arctic
323
False
Which Shell Corporation executive explained the reason for the January 2014 announcement?
5726384b38643c19005ad31c
van Beurden
415
False
What reason did the executive give for Shell's January 2014 announcement?
5726384b38643c19005ad31d
the project is "under review" due to both market and internal issues.
443
False
the "Kulluk"
73
What project was based in Alaska?
5a62926df8d794001af1c0ee
True
January 2014
283
When did van Beurden become the chief executive?
5a62926df8d794001af1c0ef
True
mid-2013
53
When was the original suspension of the drilling program?
5a62926df8d794001af1c0f0
True
2013
225
When did shell announce it was resuming it Alaskan project?
5a62926df8d794001af1c0f1
True
due to both market and internal issues
473
Why was van Beurden under review?
5a62926df8d794001af1c0f2
True
It was unclear if Shell would recommence drilling in mid-2013, following the "Kulluk" incident and, in February 2013, the corporation stated that it would "pause" its closely watched drilling project off the Alaskan coast in 2013, and will instead prepare for future exploration. In January 2014, the corporation announced the extension of the suspension of its drilling program in the Arctic, with chief executive van Beurden explaining that the project is "under review" due to both market and internal issues.
For what particular reason did protesters criticize the company's environmental record in the 1990s?
5726390c38643c19005ad323
the possible pollution caused by the proposed disposal of the Brent Spar platform into the North Sea
85
False
What entity supported Shell during the 1990s protests?
5726390c38643c19005ad324
the UK government
208
False
Following the reversal of its decision, Shell published what?
5726390c38643c19005ad325
an unequivocal commitment to sustainable development
387
False
1990s
7
When was the Brent Spar platform disposed into the North Sea?
5a629334f8d794001af1c102
True
UK
212
What government opposed the Brent Spar platform?
5a629334f8d794001af1c103
True
sinking the platform
297
What did Shell admit was a poor environmental decision?
5a629334f8d794001af1c104
True
sustainable development
416
What commitment did executives condemn?
5a629334f8d794001af1c105
True
the company's environmental record,
36
What did protesters in the 1990s praise?
5a629334f8d794001af1c106
True
In the 1990s, protesters criticised the company's environmental record, particularly the possible pollution caused by the proposed disposal of the Brent Spar platform into the North Sea. Despite support from the UK government, Shell reversed the decision under public pressure but maintained that sinking the platform would have been environmentally better. Shell subsequently published an unequivocal commitment to sustainable development, supported by executive speeches reinforcing this commitment.
In 1996, multiple groups filed lawsuits to hold Shell accountable for what?
57263b9538643c19005ad345
alleged human rights violations in Nigeria
98
False
Shell was accused of participating in the execution of which southern Nigerian tribal leader?
57263b9538643c19005ad346
Ken Saro-Wiwa
332
False
In what year did Shell agree to settle the lawsuits filed in 1996?
57263b9538643c19005ad347
2009
580
False
For what amount did Shell agree to settle the 1996 lawsuits?
57263b9538643c19005ad348
$15.5m
606
False
In contrast to its agreement to settle the 1996 lawsuits, Shell refused to do what?
57263b9538643c19005ad349
accepted any liability over the allegations against it
650
False
1995
429
When was Brian Anderson hanged?
5a6293e0f8d794001af1c10c
True
Ogoni
377
Brian Anderson was the leader of what tribe?
5a6293e0f8d794001af1c10d
True
human rights violations
106
What was Ken Saro-Wiwa accused of?
5a6293e0f8d794001af1c10e
True
$15.5m
606
How much did Shell pay to the Ogoni tribe?
5a6293e0f8d794001af1c10f
True
1996
20
When did Shell sue Nigeria?
5a6293e0f8d794001af1c110
True
In the beginning of 1996, several human rights groups brought cases to hold Shell accountable for alleged human rights violations in Nigeria, including summary execution, crimes against humanity, torture, inhumane treatment and arbitrary arrest and detention. In particular, Shell stood accused of collaborating in the execution of Ken Saro-Wiwa and eight other leaders of the Ogoni tribe of southern Nigeria, who were hanged in 1995 by Nigeria's then military rulers. The lawsuits were brought against Royal Dutch Shell and Brian Anderson, the head of its Nigerian operation. In 2009, Shell agreed to pay $15.5m in a legal settlement. Shell has not accepted any liability over the allegations against it.
A 2010 leaked communication revealed that Shell claimed to have inserted what into which entities?
57263cb938643c19005ad355
staff into all the main ministries of the Nigerian government
68
False
The same leaked communication revealed Shell claimed to know what?
57263cb938643c19005ad356
"everything that was being done in those ministries"
139
False
About what did the Shell executive boast in relation to the leaked communication?
57263cb938643c19005ad357
the Nigerian government had forgotten about the extent of Shell's infiltration
277
False
Documents released in 2009 showed that Shell made regular payments to which entity?
57263cb938643c19005ad358
the Nigerian military
462
False
For what purpose did Shell make regular payments to the entity cited in the documents released in 2009?
57263cb938643c19005ad359
to prevent protests
493
False
2010
3
When did Shell place informants in the Nigerian government?
5a629472f8d794001af1c116
True
the Nigerian government
277
Who boasted that Shell had forgotten about the invasion?
5a629472f8d794001af1c117
True
2009
379
What year did the documents used in the court case come from?
5a629472f8d794001af1c118
True
a leaked cable
9
What source of information from 2010 was not used in the court case?
5a629472f8d794001af1c119
True
to prevent protests
493
Why did the Nigerian military regularly make payments to Shell?
5a629472f8d794001af1c11a
True
In 2010, a leaked cable revealed that Shell claims to have inserted staff into all the main ministries of the Nigerian government and know "everything that was being done in those ministries", according to Shell's top executive in Nigeria. The same executive also boasted that the Nigerian government had forgotten about the extent of Shell's infiltration. Documents released in 2009 (but not used in the court case) reveal that Shell regularly made payments to the Nigerian military in order to prevent protests.
How many Greenpeace activists boarded Fennica and Nordica in March 2012?
57263dd1ec44d21400f3dc95
52
18
False
How many countries did the group of Greenpeace activists represent?
57263dd1ec44d21400f3dc96
five
47
False
What types of vehicles were the Fennica and Nordica?
57263dd1ec44d21400f3dc97
multipurpose icebreakers
101
False
Why were the Fennica and Nordica chartered?
57263dd1ec44d21400f3dc98
to support Shell's drilling rigs near Alaska
136
False
What was the main concern of Edward Itta?
57263dd1ec44d21400f3dc99
an oil spill could destroy the Inupiat Eskimo's hunting-and-fishing culture
443
False
five
47
How many countries did the icebreakers support?
5a62972ef8d794001af1c12a
True
Edward Itta
254
What was the name of the Fortune magazine reporter?
5a62972ef8d794001af1c12b
True
52
18
How many activists were on the Fennica alone?
5a62972ef8d794001af1c12c
True
Edward Itta
254
Who was the mayor of North Slope Borough in March 2012?
5a62972ef8d794001af1c12d
True
the North Slope Borough
316
What borough were the Greenpeace activists from?
5a62972ef8d794001af1c12e
True
On 16 March 2012, 52 Greenpeace activists from five different countries boarded Fennica and Nordica, multipurpose icebreakers chartered to support Shell's drilling rigs near Alaska. Around the same time period, a reporter for Fortune magazine spoke with Edward Itta, an Inupiat Eskimo leader and the former mayor of the North Slope Borough, who expressed that he was conflicted about Shell's plans in the Arctic, as he was very concerned that an oil spill could destroy the Inupiat Eskimo's hunting-and-fishing culture, but his borough also received major tax revenue from oil and gas production; additionally, further revenue from energy activity was considered crucial to the future of the living standard in Itta's community.
Why did Shell file lawsuits?
57263f3489a1e219009ac5c8
to seek injunctions from possible protests
34
False
Jealous and Radford asserted that the legal action taken by Shell was what?
57263f3489a1e219009ac5c9
"trampling American's rights."
157
False
Greenpeace claimed that Shell requested Google to ban what?
57263f3489a1e219009ac5ca
video footage of a Greenpeace protest action that occurred at the Shell-sponsored Formula One (F1) Belgian Grand Prix
255
False
What banners appeared on the winners' podium at the August 2013 ceremony?
57263f3489a1e219009ac5cb
"SaveTheArctic.org"
401
False
At the 2013 ceremony, activitsts controlled their appearance with what?
57263f3489a1e219009ac5cc
the use of four radio car antennas
560
False
25 August 2013
376
When did Shell ask google to ban video footage of the Greenpeace protests?
5a62986bf8d794001af1c13e
True
half of a polar bear's head and half of the Shell logo
658
What is the Greenpeace logo?
5a62986bf8d794001af1c13f
True
Benjamin Jealous
82
Who filed the lawsuits against Shell?
5a62986bf8d794001af1c140
True
Formula One (F1)
337
Who did SaveTheArctic partner with for the Belgian Grand Prix?
5a62986bf8d794001af1c141
True
four radio car antennas
571
How were the winners' podiums controlled?
5a62986bf8d794001af1c142
True
In response, Shell filed lawsuits to seek injunctions from possible protests, and Benjamin Jealous of the NAACP and Radford argued that the legal action was "trampling American's rights." According to Greenpeace, Shell lodged a request with Google to ban video footage of a Greenpeace protest action that occurred at the Shell-sponsored Formula One (F1) Belgian Grand Prix on 25 August 2013, in which "SaveTheArctic.org" banners appear at the winners' podium ceremony. In the video, the banners rise up automatically—activists controlled their appearance with the use of four radio car antennas—revealing the website URL, alongside an image that consists of half of a polar bear's head and half of the Shell logo.
Mammal
Which specific mammal is the largest today?
57261e7c271a42140099d4a1
blue whale
536
False
Which mammal is the smallest?
57261e7c271a42140099d4a2
bumblebee bat
497
False
Which four legged mammal is considered to be the smartest?
57261e7c271a42140099d4a3
elephants
137
False
About how small is the average bumble bee bat?
57261e7c271a42140099d4a4
30–40 mm (1.2–1.6 in)
475
False
a placenta
382
What do the largest group of mammals, elephants, have that helps the fetus during gestation?
5a39d5592f14dd001ac72607
True
30–40 mm (1.2–1.6 in)
475
How small is the average fetus?
5a39d5592f14dd001ac72608
True
life at sea, in the air, in trees, or on two legs
280
What are some fetuses adapted for?
5a39d5592f14dd001ac72609
True
rorquals
55
What is another name for a large elephant?
5a39d5592f14dd001ac7260a
True
enables feeding the fetus during gestation
400
What does a placenta help bumblebee bats do?
5a39d5592f14dd001ac7260b
True
Mammals include the largest animals on the planet, the rorquals and other large whales, as well as some of the most intelligent, such as elephants, primates, including humans, and cetaceans. The basic body type is a four-legged land-borne animal, but some mammals are adapted for life at sea, in the air, in trees, or on two legs. The largest group of mammals, the placentals, have a placenta, which enables feeding the fetus during gestation. Mammals range in size from the 30–40 mm (1.2–1.6 in) bumblebee bat to the 33-meter (108 ft) blue whale.
Who coined the name "mammal" from the scientific name Mammalia?
57261ff0ec44d21400f3d93f
Carl Linnaeus
73
False
What do all female mammals have in common when they have children?
57261ff0ec44d21400f3d940
nurse their young with milk
159
False
How many mammals were known to exist up to 2006?
57261ff0ec44d21400f3d941
5,416
289
False
How many families did mammals consist of as of 2006?
57261ff0ec44d21400f3d942
153 families
359
False
"mammal"
9
What term  did IUCN coin in 1758?
5a39da0e2f14dd001ac72611
True
5,416
289
In 1758 how many mammal species were known?
5a39da0e2f14dd001ac72612
True
a five-year, 1,700-scientist Global Mammal Assessment
414
What was completed by Carl Linnaeus in 2006?
5a39da0e2f14dd001ac72613
True
1,229 genera, 153 families and 29 orders
345
How was the IUCN Red List grouped?
5a39da0e2f14dd001ac72614
True
5,488
505
How many accepted species are there according to Carl Linnaeus?
5a39da0e2f14dd001ac72615
True
The word "mammal" is modern, from the scientific name Mammalia coined by Carl Linnaeus in 1758, derived from the Latin mamma ("teat, pap"). All female mammals nurse their young with milk, which is secreted from special glands, the mammary glands. According to Mammal Species of the World, 5,416 species were known in 2006. These were grouped in 1,229 genera, 153 families and 29 orders. In 2008 the IUCN completed a five-year, 1,700-scientist Global Mammal Assessment for its IUCN Red List, which counted 5,488 accepted species.
How many species of mammals do not have a live birth?
572620dc38643c19005ad05d
five species
15
False
Which group consist of the most mammals?
572620dc38643c19005ad05e
Rodentia
245
False
Which group do humans belong too?
572620dc38643c19005ad05f
Primates
489
False
Which group do cats and dogs belong too?
572620dc38643c19005ad060
Carnivora
603
False
live young
97
What do all modern monotremes give birth to?
5a39dd7e2f14dd001ac7261b
True
the placental group
177
What group do the six species of monotremes belong to?
5a39dd7e2f14dd001ac7261c
True
Rodentia
245
Which monotreme consists of the most mammals?
5a39dd7e2f14dd001ac7261d
True
Chiroptera
331
What is the monotreme that is second after Rodentia?
5a39dd7e2f14dd001ac7261e
True
mice, rats, porcupines, beavers, capybaras, and other gnawing mammals
255
What are some examples of monotremes that are part of the group Rodentia?
5a39dd7e2f14dd001ac7261f
True
Except for the five species of monotremes (egg-laying mammals), all modern mammals give birth to live young. Most mammals, including the six most species-rich orders, belong to the placental group. The three largest orders in numbers, are first Rodentia: mice, rats, porcupines, beavers, capybaras, and other gnawing mammals; then Chiroptera: bats; and then Soricomorpha: shrews, moles and solenodons. The next three orders, depending on the biological classification scheme used, are the Primates including the humans; the Cetartiodactyla including the whales and the even-toed hoofed mammals; and the Carnivora, that is, cats, dogs, weasels, bears, seals, and their relatives.
From which time period did birds and reptiles began to appear from?
5726224738643c19005ad06f
Carboniferous period
140
False
When did non-avian dinosaurs become extinct?
5726224738643c19005ad070
66 million years ago
621
False
Which early mammalian ancestor produced non-mammalian Dimetroden?
5726224738643c19005ad071
sphenacodont pelycosaurs
44
False
66 million years ago
621
When did sphenacodont pelycosaurs become extinct?
5a39e1dc2f14dd001ac72625
True
sphenacodont pelycosaurs
44
What were the modern mammalian orders ancestors called?
5a39e1dc2f14dd001ac72626
True
Dimetrodon
110
At the end of the synapsid period what non-mammal was produced?
5a39e1dc2f14dd001ac72627
True
Cenozoic
559
The Sphenacodontia arose in the Paleogene and Neogene periods of what era?
5a39e1dc2f14dd001ac72628
True
the sauropsid line
187
At the end of the Carboniferous period what did the Neogene diverge from that led to today's reptiles and birds?
5a39e1dc2f14dd001ac72629
True
The early synapsid mammalian ancestors were sphenacodont pelycosaurs, a group that produced the non-mammalian Dimetrodon. At the end of the Carboniferous period, this group diverged from the sauropsid line that led to today's reptiles and birds. The line following the stem group Sphenacodontia split-off several diverse groups of non-mammalian synapsids—sometimes referred to as mammal-like reptiles—before giving rise to the proto-mammals (Therapsida) in the early Mesozoic era. The modern mammalian orders arose in the Paleogene and Neogene periods of the Cenozoic era, after the extinction of the non-avian dinosaurs 66 million years ago.
Who defined mammalian as the crown group mammals?
5726243c89a1e219009ac2e8
Timothy Rowe
30
False
By Rowe's definition, when did he start to exclude animals?
5726243c89a1e219009ac2e9
Triassic
400
False
Which group do marsupials and placentals belong to?
5726243c89a1e219009ac2ea
therian mammals
212
False
the crown group mammals
80
How did Timothy Rowe define Mammalia in the mid 19th century?
5a39e3502f14dd001ac7262f
True
(echidnas and platypuses)
182
What are two examples of the most recent ancestor of the Jurassic period?
5a39e3502f14dd001ac72630
True
the Jurassic period
323
In what period did mammals live?
5a39e3502f14dd001ac72631
True
since the mid-19th century
502
For how long have Juassic fossils been referred to the Mammalia?
5a39e3502f14dd001ac72632
True
the most recent common ancestor of living monotremes (echidnas and platypuses)
129
What is one thing Triassic fossils are shown to consist of according to a 19th century paper?
5a39e3502f14dd001ac72633
True
In an influential 1988 paper, Timothy Rowe defined Mammalia phylogenetically as the crown group mammals, the clade consisting of the most recent common ancestor of living monotremes (echidnas and platypuses) and therian mammals (marsupials and placentals) and all descendants of that ancestor. Since this ancestor lived in the Jurassic period, Rowe's definition excludes all animals from the earlier Triassic, despite the fact that Triassic fossils in the Haramiyida have been referred to the Mammalia since the mid-19th century.
Which group are Ambondro's closely related to?
57262598271a42140099d59f
monotremes
215
False
Which two groups are closely related to therian mammals?
57262598271a42140099d5a0
Amphilestes and Amphitherium
256
False
How many years do momotremes and therian mammals go back?
57262598271a42140099d5a1
167 million years
374
False
About what year do synapsid date back to?
57262598271a42140099d5a2
225 Ma
569
False
Tikitherium
550
What is the earliest Ambondro that satisfies Kemp's definitions?
5a39e9b52f14dd001ac72639
True
monotremes
215
What is Tikitherium more closely related to more than therian mammals?
5a39e9b52f14dd001ac7263a
True
about 167 million years ago
368
What time period are fossils of the ambondro dated to in the Middle Jurassic?
5a39e9b52f14dd001ac7263b
True
225 Ma
569
About what year are ambondro dated to?
5a39e9b52f14dd001ac7263c
True
this Late Triassic date
641
What can the appearance of genera be broadly given?
5a39e9b52f14dd001ac7263d
True
If Mammalia is considered as the crown group, its origin can be roughly dated as the first known appearance of animals more closely related to some extant mammals than to others. Ambondro is more closely related to monotremes than to therian mammals while Amphilestes and Amphitherium are more closely related to the therians; as fossils of all three genera are dated about 167 million years ago in the Middle Jurassic, this is a reasonable estimate for the appearance of the crown group. The earliest known synapsid satisfying Kemp's definitions is Tikitherium, dated 225 Ma, so the appearance of mammals in this broader sense can be given this Late Triassic date. In any case, the temporal range of the group extends to the present day.
Who wrote the "Principles of Classification and a Classification of Mammals?
5726275589a1e219009ac3ec
George Gaylord Simpson
0
False
Simpson laid the systematics of mammal origins and was taught universally up until the end of what century?
5726275589a1e219009ac3ed
20th
286
False
Which new concept has greatly taken over Simpsons much debated theoretical systematization?
5726275589a1e219009ac3ee
cladistics
545
False
a systematics of mammal origins and relationships
187
What did Simpson lay out that was universally taught until 1945?
5a39eb432f14dd001ac72643
True
"Principles of Classification and a Classification of Mammals"
25
What was the original source for the paleontoligical record?
5a39eb432f14dd001ac72644
True
the paleontological record has been recalibrated
332
What happened since the classification by the AMNH?
5a39eb432f14dd001ac72645
True
cladistics
545
What taxonomy took over AMNH's debated systematization?
5a39eb432f14dd001ac72646
True
end of the 20th century
275
Up until what century were cladistics universally taught?
5a39eb432f14dd001ac72647
True
George Gaylord Simpson's "Principles of Classification and a Classification of Mammals" (AMNH Bulletin v. 85, 1945) was the original source for the taxonomy listed here. Simpson laid out a systematics of mammal origins and relationships that was universally taught until the end of the 20th century. Since Simpson's classification, the paleontological record has been recalibrated, and the intervening years have seen much debate and progress concerning the theoretical underpinnings of systematization itself, partly through the new concept of cladistics. Though field work gradually made Simpson's classification outdated, it remained the closest thing to an official classification of mammals.
In 1997 who revised the classification of mammals?
5726292d89a1e219009ac44c
Malcolm C. McKenna and Susan K. Bell
53
False
Where did the two authors work together as paleontologist?
5726292d89a1e219009ac44d
American Museum of Natural History
516
False
From whom did McKenna inherit the project from?
5726292d89a1e219009ac44e
Simpson
597
False
McKenna
562
Who did Simpson inherit the project from?
5a39ecb72f14dd001ac7264d
True
comprehensively revised
26
What happened to molecular genetic data in 1997?
5a39ecb72f14dd001ac7264e
True
Classification of Mammals above the Species Level
163
What was the book written by Simpson?
5a39ecb72f14dd001ac7264f
True
the systematics, relationships, and occurrences of all mammal taxa, living and extinct
256
What information about mammals does Simpson's book cover?
5a39ecb72f14dd001ac72650
True
a completely updated hierarchical system
633
What did Simpson help construct with Bell?
5a39ecb72f14dd001ac72651
True
In 1997, the mammals were comprehensively revised by Malcolm C. McKenna and Susan K. Bell, which has resulted in the McKenna/Bell classification. Their 1997 book, Classification of Mammals above the Species Level, is the most comprehensive work to date on the systematics, relationships, and occurrences of all mammal taxa, living and extinct, down through the rank of genus, though recent molecular genetic data challenge several of the higher level groupings. The authors worked together as paleontologists at the American Museum of Natural History, New York. McKenna inherited the project from Simpson and, with Bell, constructed a completely updated hierarchical system, covering living and extinct taxa that reflects the historical genealogy of Mammalia.
Through Molecular studies, what was used to suggest new relationships among mammal families?
57262b48ec44d21400f3db8b
DNA analysis
27
False
During these Molecular studies, which three major groups of mammals shared a common ancestors from the Cretaceous period?
57262b48ec44d21400f3db8c
Afrotheria, Xenarthra, and Boreoeutheria
329
False
Afrotheria,Xenartha, and Boreoeutheria deprives from which two lineages?
57262b48ec44d21400f3db8d
Euarchontoglires and Laurasiatheria
810
False
new relationships among mammal families
55
What have studies based on Boreoeutheria suggested?
5a39ee9e2f14dd001ac72657
True
retrotransposon presence/absence data
180
What have findings based on common ancestors in the Cretaceous been validated by?
5a39ee9e2f14dd001ac72658
True
Afrotheria, Xenarthra, and Boreoeutheria
329
What are three major groups of Laurasiatheria?
5a39ee9e2f14dd001ac72659
True
early common ancestors in the Cretaceous
391
Where did Euarchontoglires and Laurasiatheria come from?
5a39ee9e2f14dd001ac7265a
True
Euarchontoglires and Laurasiatheria
810
What two major common ancestors does Alantogenata contain?
5a39ee9e2f14dd001ac7265b
True
Molecular studies based on DNA analysis have suggested new relationships among mammal families over the last few years. Most of these findings have been independently validated by retrotransposon presence/absence data. Classification systems based on molecular studies reveal three major groups or lineages of placental mammals- Afrotheria, Xenarthra, and Boreoeutheria- which diverged from early common ancestors in the Cretaceous. The relationships between these three lineages is contentious, and all three possible different hypotheses have been proposed with respect to which group is basal with respect to other placentals. These hypotheses are Atlantogenata (basal Boreoeutheria), Epitheria (basal Xenarthra), and Exafroplacentalia (basal Afrotheria). Boreoeutheria in turn contains two major lineages- Euarchontoglires and Laurasiatheria.
From which period did the first known amniotes arise from?
57262dba89a1e219009ac504
Carboniferous
48
False
From which group did amniotes descendents of?
57262dba89a1e219009ac505
reptiliomorph amphibious tetrapods
91
False
Two important Amniotes  lineages became distinct, what was the name of that distinction?
57262dba89a1e219009ac506
the synapsids
331
False
Sauropsids would later include which other animals into its group?
57262dba89a1e219009ac507
turtles, lizards, snakes, crocodilians, dinosaurs and birds
467
False
What is a distinct trait of Synapsids?
57262dba89a1e219009ac508
single hole (temporal fenestra) low on each side of the skull
545
False
Late Carboniferous
43
From what period did the first insects come from?
5a39f00e2f14dd001ac72661
True
insects and other invertebrates as well as by ferns, mosses and other plants
177
What already inhabited the synapsids?
5a39f00e2f14dd001ac72662
True
Within a few million years
255
When did amphibious tetrapods become prominent?
5a39f00e2f14dd001ac72663
True
a single hole (temporal fenestra)
543
What do amniotes have on each side of the skull?
5a39f00e2f14dd001ac72664
True
turtles, lizards, snakes, crocodilians, dinosaurs and birds
467
What animals were later included in the carboniferous group?
5a39f00e2f14dd001ac72665
True
The first amniotes apparently arose in the Late Carboniferous. They descended from earlier reptiliomorph amphibious tetrapods, which lived on land that was already inhabited by insects and other invertebrates as well as by ferns, mosses and other plants. Within a few million years, two important amniote lineages became distinct: the synapsids, which would later include the common ancestor of the mammals; and the sauropsids, which would eventually come to include turtles, lizards, snakes, crocodilians, dinosaurs and birds. Synapsids have a single hole (temporal fenestra) low on each side of the skull.
From which dinosaur group did Therapsids descend from?
57262eb438643c19005ad2b1
pelycosaurs
26
False
Around what time did Therapsids become the dominant land animal?
57262eb438643c19005ad2b2
265 million years ago
67
False
At which group did Therapsids end with?
57262eb438643c19005ad2b3
probainognathian cynodonts
447
False
in the Middle Permian, about 265 million years ago
38
When did basal eupelycosaurs descend from pelycosaurs?
5a39f2ae2f14dd001ac7266b
True
became the dominant land vertebrates
94
What did the therapsid lineage do in the Middle Permian, 265 million years ago?
5a39f2ae2f14dd001ac7266c
True
in several features of the skull and jaws
169
How do Probainognathian cynodonts differ from the therapsid lineage?
5a39f2ae2f14dd001ac7266d
True
larger temporal fenestrae and incisors which are equal in size
223
What are some characteristics that show how mammals differ from pelycosaurs?
5a39f2ae2f14dd001ac7266e
True
probainognathian cynodonts
447
What animal was at the end stage of the Middle Permian?
5a39f2ae2f14dd001ac7266f
True
Therapsids descended from pelycosaurs in the Middle Permian, about 265 million years ago, and became the dominant land vertebrates. They differ from basal eupelycosaurs in several features of the skull and jaws, including: larger temporal fenestrae and incisors which are equal in size. The therapsid lineage leading to mammals went through a series of stages, beginning with animals that were very like their pelycosaur ancestors and ending with probainognathian cynodonts, some of which could easily be mistaken for mammals. Those stages were characterized by:
What was the name of extinction level event that ended the dominance of the carnivores among therapsids?
57263014271a42140099d72b
Permian–Triassic
4
False
During which time period did archosaurs begin to take over as the dominant carnivore?
57263014271a42140099d72c
Triassic
194
False
Which three groups did the early Triassic period consist of?
57263014271a42140099d72d
crocodylomorphs, the pterosaurs, and the dinosaurs
359
False
During the Jurassic period which group came out as the most dominate for both carnivores and herbivores?
57263014271a42140099d72e
dinosaurs
432
False
due to the accumulation of several extinction pulses
67
Why was the Jurassic a prolonged event?
5a39f42a2f14dd001ac72675
True
the dominance of the carnivores among the therapsids
127
What did the Jurassic period end?
5a39f42a2f14dd001ac72676
True
all the medium to large land carnivore niches
204
What was taken over by carnivores in the Permian-Triassic?
5a39f42a2f14dd001ac72677
True
crocodylomorphs, the pterosaurs, and the dinosaurs
359
What types of animals were included in the Permian-Triassic over 35 million years?
5a39f42a2f14dd001ac72678
True
the large terrestrial herbivore niches
463
What had archosaurs come to dominate by the Jurassic?
5a39f42a2f14dd001ac72679
True
The Permian–Triassic extinction event, which was a prolonged event due to the accumulation of several extinction pulses, ended the dominance of the carnivores among the therapsids. In the early Triassic, all the medium to large land carnivore niches were taken over by archosaurs which, over an extended period of time (35 million years), came to include the crocodylomorphs, the pterosaurs, and the dinosaurs. By the Jurassic, the dinosaurs had come to dominate the large terrestrial herbivore niches as well.
What is the oldest know fossil among the Eutheria group?
5726319938643c19005ad2c7
shrewlike Juramaia sinensis
72
False
How long ago does oldest know fossil date back to?
5726319938643c19005ad2c8
160 million years ago
143
False
In what time period did early animals share some features with marsupials?
5726319938643c19005ad2c9
125 million years ago
223
False
Which lineage were some of these early marsupial features were lost?
5726319938643c19005ad2ca
placental
468
False
small shrewlike Juramaia sinensis
66
What is the oldest known feature among the marsupials?
5a39f6a32f14dd001ac7267f
True
125 million years ago
223
What time period is a marsupial dated to in the Early Cretaceous?
5a39f6a32f14dd001ac72680
True
some features
280
What do Juramaia have in common with placentals?
5a39f6a32f14dd001ac72681
True
placentals
341
What lineage shows some early eutherian features were lost?
5a39f6a32f14dd001ac72682
True
160 million years ago
143
When was the marsupial mother from the Cretaceous dated to?
5a39f6a32f14dd001ac72683
True
The oldest known fossil among the Eutheria ("true beasts") is the small shrewlike Juramaia sinensis, or "Jurassic mother from China", dated to 160 million years ago in the Late Jurassic. A later eutherian, Eomaia, dated to 125 million years ago in the Early Cretaceous, possessed some features in common with the marsupials but not with the placentals, evidence that these features were present in the last common ancestor of the two groups but were later lost in the placental lineage. In particular:
How long ago did most placental orders diverge from?
5726331638643c19005ad2df
100 to 85 million years ago
88
False
Which two major time periods did placentals appear?
5726331638643c19005ad2e0
Eocene through the Miocene
178
False
Which time period did early highly undisputed fossils of placental mammals appear?
5726331638643c19005ad2e1
Paleocene
380
False
When is the earliest know primate thought to had exist?
5726331638643c19005ad2e2
55 million years ago
648
False
How much did the first primate weigh?
5726331638643c19005ad2e3
20–30 grams (0.7–1.1 ounce)
696
False
the early Paleocene
370
Where do the earliest fossils of the Miocene come from?
5a39f9b72f14dd001ac72689
True
one of the first placental mammals
537
What have scientists identified Eocene as?
5a39f9b72f14dd001ac7268a
True
Archicebus achilles
616
What is the earliest ancestor of humans from about 55 million years ago?
5a39f9b72f14dd001ac7268b
True
20–30 grams (0.7–1.1 ounce)
696
How much did the Protungulatum donnae weigh?
5a39f9b72f14dd001ac7268c
True
that no placental fossils have been found
233
What do scientists object about primates before the end of the Paleocene?
5a39f9b72f14dd001ac7268d
True
Recent molecular phylogenetic studies suggest that most placental orders diverged about 100 to 85 million years ago and that modern families appeared in the period from the late Eocene through the Miocene. But paleontologists object that no placental fossils have been found from before the end of the Cretaceous. The earliest undisputed fossils of placentals come from the early Paleocene, after the extinction of the dinosaurs. In particular, scientists have recently identified an early Paleocene animal named Protungulatum donnae as one of the first placental mammals. The earliest known ancestor of primates is Archicebus achilles from around 55 million years ago. This tiny primate weighed 20–30 grams (0.7–1.1 ounce) and could fit within a human palm.
When is it believed that the earliest know hair was said to exist?
5726344989a1e219009ac566
164 million years ago
79
False
When was it suggested that foramina premaxillae could contain the first know hairs?
5726344989a1e219009ac567
1950s
132
False
Which major time period were these suggested hairs from?
5726344989a1e219009ac568
Jurassic
115
False
Castorocauda
60
What type of fossils showed the earliest evidence of cynodonts?
5a39fcfb2f14dd001ac72693
True
were channels which supplied blood vessels and nerves to vibrissae (whiskers) and so were evidence of hair or fur
268
What was suggested about the Tupinambis in the Thrinaxodon in the 1950's?
5a39fcfb2f14dd001ac72694
True
Thrinaxodon
678
What do popular sources attribute foramina to?
5a39fcfb2f14dd001ac72695
True
164 million years ago
79
At what time is it believed the earliest known foramina existed?
5a39fcfb2f14dd001ac72696
True
foramina
521
What does the modern lizard Castorocauda have?
5a39fcfb2f14dd001ac72697
True
The earliest clear evidence of hair or fur is in fossils of Castorocauda, from 164 million years ago in the Middle Jurassic. In the 1950s, it was suggested that the foramina (passages) in the maxillae and premaxillae (bones in the front of the upper jaw) of cynodonts were channels which supplied blood vessels and nerves to vibrissae (whiskers) and so were evidence of hair or fur; it was soon pointed out, however, that foramina do not necessarily show that an animal had vibrissae, as the modern lizard Tupinambis has foramina that are almost identical to those found in the nonmammalian cynodont Thrinaxodon. Popular sources, nevertheless, continue to attribute whiskers to Thrinaxodon.
Which group of animal has a lower body temperature that marsupials and placentals?
5726365038643c19005ad305
monotremes
80
False
Which time period is suggested that cynodonts had a high metabolic rate?
5726365038643c19005ad306
Triassic
393
False
Why is it necessary for smaller animals to have an insulative covering?
5726365038643c19005ad307
maintenance of a high and stable body temperature
543
False
had fairly high metabolic rates
412
What does evidence found suggest about monotremes?
5a39fedc2f14dd001ac7269d
True
an insulative covering like fur
490
What do therians need to maintain a stable body temperature?
5a39fedc2f14dd001ac7269e
True
lower body temperatures and more variable metabolic rates
96
What do small animals have compared to therians?
5a39fedc2f14dd001ac7269f
True
Some of the evidence found so far
345
What suggests that monotremes have high metabolic rates?
5a39fedc2f14dd001ac726a0
True
the maintenance of a high and stable body temperature
539
What do placentals use their fur covering for?
5a39fedc2f14dd001ac726a1
True
When endothermy first appeared in the evolution of mammals is uncertain. Modern monotremes have lower body temperatures and more variable metabolic rates than marsupials and placentals, but there is evidence that some of their ancestors, perhaps including ancestors of the therians, may have had body temperatures like those of modern therians. Some of the evidence found so far suggests that Triassic cynodonts had fairly high metabolic rates, but it is not conclusive. For small animals, an insulative covering like fur is necessary for the maintenance of a high and stable body temperature.
When air enters both the oral and nasal cavities, where does it flow through?
572639c7271a42140099d79f
larynx, trachea and bronchi
345
False
Increasing pressure on the diaphragm thus increasing air output more frequently is usually caused by?
572639c7271a42140099d7a0
exercise
503
False
A result of air being sucked into or blown out of the lung thats moving its pressure gradient is referred to?
572639c7271a42140099d7a1
bellows lung
947
False
Where did the term Bellows Lung come from?
572639c7271a42140099d7a2
blacksmith's bellows
978
False
discard carbon dioxide
1042
When mammals take oxygen into their relaxed diaphragm, what happens to the abdominal wall?
5a3a013c2f14dd001ac726a7
True
resembles a blacksmith's bellows
966
What is alveoli inspired by?
5a3a013c2f14dd001ac726a8
True
the thoracic cavity
700
What is the ribcage able to passively recoil?
5a3a013c2f14dd001ac726a9
True
flattens the dome
190
What does contraction of the thorax do while increasing the volume of the lung cavity?
5a3a013c2f14dd001ac726aa
True
the alveoli
385
When air enters the nasal cavity, what does the rib cage expand?
5a3a013c2f14dd001ac726ab
True
Breathing is largely driven by the muscular diaphragm, which divides the thorax from the abdominal cavity, forming a dome with its convexity towards the thorax. Contraction of the diaphragm flattens the dome, increasing the volume of the cavity in which the lung is enclosed. Air enters through the oral and nasal cavities; it flows through the larynx, trachea and bronchi and expands the alveoli. Relaxation of the diaphragm has the opposite effect, passively recoiling during normal breathing. During exercise, the abdominal wall contracts, increasing visceral pressure on the diaphragm, thus forcing the air out more quickly and forcefully. The rib cage itself also is able to expand and contract the thoracic cavity to some degree, through the action of other respiratory and accessory respiratory muscles. As a result, air is sucked into or expelled out of the lungs, always moving down its pressure gradient. This type of lung is known as a bellows lung as it resembles a blacksmith's bellows. Mammals take oxygen into their lungs, and discard carbon dioxide.
What is the typical thickness of the epidermis?
57263afcec44d21400f3dc69
10 to 30 cells thick
27
False
What is the main function of the epidermis?
57263afcec44d21400f3dc6a
to provide a waterproof layer
70
False
How much more thicker is the dermis to the epidermis?
57263afcec44d21400f3dc6b
15 to 40 times thicker
240
False
What is the dermis mainly consist of?
57263afcec44d21400f3dc6c
bony structures and blood vessels
333
False
What does the Hyperdermis consist of?
57263afcec44d21400f3dc6d
adipose tissue
397
False
to provide a waterproof layer
70
When the hypodermis is 10 to 30 cells thick, what is its main function?
5a3a021c2f14dd001ac726b1
True
constantly lost
125
What happens to the outermost cells of the hypodermis?
5a3a021c2f14dd001ac726b2
True
constantly dividing and pushing upward
167
How do the bottommost cells of the hypodermis act?
5a3a021c2f14dd001ac726b3
True
15 to 40 times thicker
240
How much thicker is the hypodermis from the dermis?
5a3a021c2f14dd001ac726b4
True
bony structures and blood vessels
333
What are two components that make up the epidermis?
5a3a021c2f14dd001ac726b5
True
The epidermis is typically 10 to 30 cells thick; its main function is to provide a waterproof layer. Its outermost cells are constantly lost; its bottommost cells are constantly dividing and pushing upward. The middle layer, the dermis, is 15 to 40 times thicker than the epidermis. The dermis is made up of many components, such as bony structures and blood vessels. The hypodermis is made up of adipose tissue. Its job is to store lipids, and to provide cushioning and insulation. The thickness of this layer varies widely from species to species.
What is another name used for mammalian hair?
57263c9938643c19005ad34f
pelage
30
False
Which color of hair is most common among mammalian taxa?
57263c9938643c19005ad350
Light-dark color
145
False
Besides Camouflage being a reason for having certain hair colors, what other reasons have been discovered?
57263c9938643c19005ad351
sexual selection, communication, and physiological processes
688
False
pelage
30
What is another name for camouflage?
5a3a04a52f14dd001ac726bb
True
between populations, organisms within a population, and even on the individual organism
56
How does intraspecies communication vary?
5a3a04a52f14dd001ac726bc
True
the mammalian taxa
185
What is distribution of loci common in?
5a3a04a52f14dd001ac726bd
True
in order to increase survival
534
Why do selective pressures favor arctic environments?
5a3a04a52f14dd001ac726be
True
sexual selection, communication, and physiological processes
688
What three examples show how hormone levels are important in the mate selection process?
5a3a04a52f14dd001ac726bf
True
Mammalian hair, also known as pelage, can vary in color between populations, organisms within a population, and even on the individual organism. Light-dark color variation is common in the mammalian taxa. Sometimes, this color variation is determined by age variation, however, in other cases, it is determined by other factors. Selective pressures, such as ecological interactions with other populations or environmental conditions, often lead to the variation in mammalian coloration. These selective pressures favor certain colors in order to increase survival. Camouflage is thought to be a major selection pressure shaping coloration in mammals, although there is also evidence that sexual selection, communication, and physiological processes may influence the evolution of coloration as well. Camouflage is the most predominant mechanism for color variation, as it aids in the concealment of the organisms from predators or from their prey. Coat color can also be for intraspecies communication such as warning members of their species about predators, indicating health for reproductive purposes, communicating between mother and young, and intimidating predators. Studies have shown that in some cases, differences in female and male coat color could indicate information nutrition and hormone levels, which are important in the mate selection process. One final mechanism for coat color variation is physiological response purposes, such as temperature regulation in tropical or arctic environments. Although much has been observed about color variation, much of the genetic that link coat color to genes is still unknown. The genetic sites where pigmentation genes are found are known to affect phenotype by: 1) altering the spatial distribution of pigmentation of the hairs, and 2) altering the density and distribution of the hairs. Quantitative trait mapping is being used to better understand the distribution of loci responsible for pigmentation variation. However, although the genetic sites are known, there is still much to learn about how these genes are expressed.
What is the common mammal group that gives birth to live young?
57263e4c38643c19005ad369
viviparous
17
False
How many species of mammals lay eggs?
57263e4c38643c19005ad36a
five species
70
False
Which mammal that has the bill of a duck lays eggs?
57263e4c38643c19005ad36b
platypus
101
False
The platypus has sex chromosomes more related to which other non-mammal?
57263e4c38643c19005ad36c
chicken
304
False
giving birth to live young
29
What makes most monotreme viviparous?
5a3a087c2f14dd001ac726c5
True
a sex determination system
160
What do marsupials have that is different from most mammals?
5a3a087c2f14dd001ac726c6
True
five
70
How many species of mammals give birth to live young?
5a3a087c2f14dd001ac726c7
True
larval and fetus-like
404
What are some characteristics of young chickens?
5a3a087c2f14dd001ac726c8
True
sex chromosomes
249
What do marsupials have that make them less like a therian?
5a3a087c2f14dd001ac726c9
True
Most mammals are viviparous, giving birth to live young. However, the five species of monotreme, the platypuses and the echidnas, lay eggs. The monotremes have a sex determination system different from that of most other mammals. In particular, the sex chromosomes of a platypus are more like those of a chicken than those of a therian mammal. Like marsupials and most other mammals, monotreme young are larval and fetus-like, as the presence of epipubic bones prevents the expansion of the torso, forcing them to produce small young.
Which sub class are most viviparous mammals in?
57263f68ec44d21400f3dcc3
Theria
39
False
Viviparous mammals today are in which two main infraclasses?
57263f68ec44d21400f3dcc4
marsupial and placental
77
False
What is present in all non-placental mammals?
57263f68ec44d21400f3dcc5
epipubic bones
480
False
Theria
39
What sub class are most placental eutherians in?
5a3a0ac32f14dd001ac726cf
True
marsupial and placental
77
What class are placental eutherians in today?
5a3a0ac32f14dd001ac726d0
True
in the front of the mother's abdomen
364
Where on the mother are the epipubic bones located?
5a3a0ac32f14dd001ac726d1
True
the presence of epipubic bones
464
What prevents a short gestation period in full pregnancy?
5a3a0ac32f14dd001ac726d2
True
its estrous cycle
180
In marsupials what is a plesyomorphic condition shorter than?
5a3a0ac32f14dd001ac726d3
True
Viviparous mammals are in the subclass Theria; those living today are in the marsupial and placental infraclasses. A marsupial has a short gestation period, typically shorter than its estrous cycle, and gives birth to an undeveloped newborn that then undergoes further development; in many species, this takes place within a pouch-like sac, the marsupium, located in the front of the mother's abdomen. This is the plesyomorphic condition among viviparous mammals; the presence of epipubic bones in all non-placental mammals prevents the expansion of the torso needed for full pregnancy. Even non-placental eutherians probably reproduced this way.
Which part is larger relative to the brain in primates?
572640ac89a1e219009ac5f8
cerebrum
46
False
Which non-primate has the ability to learn and perform new task?
572640ac89a1e219009ac5f9
Rats
242
False
Mammals with smaller brains tend to be in what class in the food chain?
572640ac89a1e219009ac5fa
prey
577
False
the cerebrum
42
What part of the brain is larger in rats compared to the rest of the brain?
5a3a0cbe2f14dd001ac726d9
True
food gathering
435
With primates, what is related to intelligence?
5a3a0cbe2f14dd001ac726da
True
the ability to learn, matched with behavioral flexibility
183
What are two indications of a larger cerebrum?
5a3a0cbe2f14dd001ac726db
True
learn and perform new tasks
314
What are cats able to do when they find a new home?
5a3a0cbe2f14dd001ac726dc
True
must think to outwit its prey
552
What is one thing that shows a cat has a large cerebrum?
5a3a0cbe2f14dd001ac726dd
True
In intelligent mammals, such as primates, the cerebrum is larger relative to the rest of the brain. Intelligence itself is not easy to define, but indications of intelligence include the ability to learn, matched with behavioral flexibility. Rats, for example, are considered to be highly intelligent, as they can learn and perform new tasks, an ability that may be important when they first colonize a fresh habitat. In some mammals, food gathering appears to be related to intelligence: a deer feeding on plants has a brain smaller than a cat, which must think to outwit its prey.
To be able to maintain a constant body temperature, what do mammals need to maintain?
5726420638643c19005ad39f
nutritious and plentiful diet
92
False
What does a omnivore imply?
5726420638643c19005ad3a0
eats both prey and plants
491
False
What do the majority of mammals under 18 oz eat?
5726420638643c19005ad3a1
insects
1674
False
What determines a mammals diet type?
5726420638643c19005ad3a2
The size
973
False
a nutritious and plentiful diet
90
What do herbivores use to maintain a high level of bacteria for digestion?
5a3a13d62f14dd001ac726e3
True
a simple digestive tract
543
What do herbivores have because they don't need specialized digestion?
5a3a13d62f14dd001ac726e4
True
The size of an animal
973
What is a factor that determines body temperature?
5a3a13d62f14dd001ac726e5
True
bacteria
812
What lives in an omnivores digestive tract?
5a3a13d62f14dd001ac726e6
True
in the multichambered stomach or in a large cecum
922
Where are bacteria for digestion housed in an omnivore?
5a3a13d62f14dd001ac726e7
True
To maintain a high constant body temperature is energy expensive – mammals therefore need a nutritious and plentiful diet. While the earliest mammals were probably predators, different species have since adapted to meet their dietary requirements in a variety of ways. Some eat other animals – this is a carnivorous diet (and includes insectivorous diets). Other mammals, called herbivores, eat plants. A herbivorous diet includes subtypes such as fruit-eating and grass-eating. An omnivore eats both prey and plants. Carnivorous mammals have a simple digestive tract, because the proteins, lipids, and minerals found in meat require little in the way of specialized digestion. Plants, on the other hand, contain complex carbohydrates, such as cellulose. The digestive tract of an herbivore is therefore host to bacteria that ferment these substances, and make them available for digestion. The bacteria are either housed in the multichambered stomach or in a large cecum. The size of an animal is also a factor in determining diet type. Since small mammals have a high ratio of heat-losing surface area to heat-generating volume, they tend to have high energy requirements and a high metabolic rate. Mammals that weigh less than about 18 oz (500 g) are mostly insectivorous because they cannot tolerate the slow, complex digestive process of a herbivore. Larger animals, on the other hand, generate more heat and less of this heat is lost. They can therefore tolerate either a slower collection process (those that prey on larger vertebrates) or a slower digestive process (herbivores). Furthermore, mammals that weigh more than 18 oz (500 g) usually cannot collect enough insects during their waking hours to sustain themselves. The only large insectivorous mammals are those that feed on huge colonies of insects (ants or termites).
What is the name given when zones of gradation exits?
572643c7994a9e14006f0189
clines
525
False
What is the given name of a lion and tiger hybrid?
572643c7994a9e14006f018a
liger
1019
False
What is the marketed name given in the meat industry when you involve a european or indian domestic cattle mixed with an American bison?
572643c7994a9e14006f018b
Beefalo
1264
False
What is the given name of a offspring from two different animals?
572643c7994a9e14006f018c
hybrid
2523
False
clines
525
What is a zone of resilience referred to as?
5a3a17452f14dd001ac726ed
True
hybrid vigor
793
What does it mean when closely related species exhibit greater strength and resilience than their parents?
5a3a17452f14dd001ac726ee
True
behavior traits, natural hostility, natural ranges and breeding cycle differences
1853
What are some examples that show how strength and resilience is maintained in related species?
5a3a17452f14dd001ac726ef
True
because their parents usually have slightly different numbers of chromosomes
1458
Why are ligers more fertile than donkeys?
5a3a17452f14dd001ac726f0
True
in circuses
1081
Where is an American bison sometimes used to entertain people?
5a3a17452f14dd001ac726f1
True
The deliberate or accidental hybridising of two or more species of closely related animals through captive breeding is a human activity which has been in existence for millennia and has grown in recent times for economic purposes. The number of successful interspecific mammalian hybrids is relatively small, although it has come to be known that there is a significant number of naturally occurring hybrids between forms or regional varieties of a single species.[citation needed] These may form zones of gradation known as clines. Indeed, the distinction between some hitherto distinct species can become clouded once it can be shown that they may not only breed but produce fertile offspring. Some hybrid animals exhibit greater strength and resilience than either parent. This is known as hybrid vigor. The existence of the mule (donkey sire; horse dam) being used widely as a hardy draught animal throughout ancient and modern history is testament to this. Other well known examples are the lion/tiger hybrid, the liger, which is by far the largest big cat and sometimes used in circuses; and cattle hybrids such as between European and Indian domestic cattle or between domestic cattle and American bison, which are used in the meat industry and marketed as Beefalo. There is some speculation that the donkey itself may be the result of an ancient hybridisation between two wild ass species or sub-species. Hybrid animals are normally infertile partly because their parents usually have slightly different numbers of chromosomes, resulting in unpaired chromosomes in their cells, which prevents division of sex cells and the gonads from operating correctly, particularly in males. There are exceptions to this rule, especially if the speciation process was relatively recent or incomplete as is the case with many cattle and dog species. Normally behavior traits, natural hostility, natural ranges and breeding cycle differences maintain the separateness of closely related species and prevent natural hybridisation. However, the widespread disturbances to natural animal behaviours and range caused by human activity, cities, dumping grounds with food, agriculture, fencing, roads and so on do force animals together which would not normally breed. Clear examples exist between the various sub-species of grey wolf, coyote and domestic dog in North America. As many birds and mammals imprint on their mother and immediate family from infancy, a practice used by animal hybridizers is to foster a planned parent in a hybridization program with the same species as the one with which they are planned to mate.
East_India_Company
The Spanish Armada suffered a defeat in what year?
57261fdfec44d21400f3d935
1588
47
False
Who did the London merchants petition to get permission to sail the Indian Ocean?
57261fdfec44d21400f3d936
Queen Elizabeth I
94
False
What was the first year the London merchants were granted permission to sail the Indina Ocean?
57261fdfec44d21400f3d937
1589
232
False
how many ships sailed Torbay?
57261fdfec44d21400f3d938
three
255
False
who returned to england after sailing around Cape Comorin?
57261fdfec44d21400f3d939
Edward Bonventure
407
False
in this paragraph the Spanish Armada suffered a defeat in what year?
57264fa95951b619008f6f92
1588
47
False
how many ships sailed  from Torbay?
57264fa95951b619008f6f93
three
255
False
three
255
How many ships levitated over Torbay?
5a8452777cf838001a46a724
True
Queen Elizabeth I
94
Who did the French merchants petition to get permission to sail the Indian Ocean?
5a8452777cf838001a46a725
True
1589
232
What was the first year the London merchants were granted permission to sail the Arctic Ocean?
5a8452777cf838001a46a726
True
Edward Bonventure
407
Who returned to Mexico after sailing around Cape Comorin?
5a8452777cf838001a46a727
True
1588
47
The Rebel Armada suffered a defeat in what year?
5a8452777cf838001a46a728
True
Soon after the defeat of the Spanish Armada in 1588, London merchants presented a petition to Queen Elizabeth I for permission to sail to the Indian Ocean. The permission was granted, and despite the defeat of the English Armada in 1589, on 10 April 1591 three ships sailed from Torbay around the Cape of Good Hope to the Arabian Sea on one of the earliest English overseas Indian expeditions. One of them, Edward Bonventure, then sailed around Cape Comorin and on to the Malay Peninsula and subsequently returned to England in 1594.
What did the Queen give them for suceeding?
5726240738643c19005ad075
a Royal Charter
69
False
What was the name of the Royal Charter?
5726240738643c19005ad076
Governor and Company of Merchants of London trading with the East Indies
175
False
What did this charter give them?
5726240738643c19005ad077
a monopoly on trade with all countries east of the Cape of Good Hope and west of the Straits of Magellan
324
False
Who led the third voyage?
5726240738643c19005ad079
General William Keeling
593
False
Who commanded the the voyage between 1601 and 1603?
572651775951b619008f6fbf
Sir James Lancaster
430
False
Who commanded the second  voyage in 1604?
572651775951b619008f6fc0
Sir Henry Middleton
544
False
What was the rank of the person who commanded the third voyage?
572651775951b619008f6fc1
General
593
False
what was the name of the company that traded with East Indies?
572651775951b619008f6fc2
Merchants of London
199
False
how many years did the Merchants of London has a monoploy on trade?
572651775951b619008f6fc3
fifteen
265
False
a Royal Charter
69
What did the Queen steal from them for succeeding?
5a8453217cf838001a46a72e
True
Governor and Company of Merchants of London trading with the East Indies
175
What was the name of the Novice Charter?
5a8453217cf838001a46a72f
True
a monopoly on trade with all countries east of the Cape of Good Hope and west of the Straits of Magellan
324
What did this charter take away from them?
5a8453217cf838001a46a730
True
Sir James Lancaster
430
Who commanded the the voyage between 1601 and 1609?
5a8453217cf838001a46a731
True
Sir Henry Middleton
544
Who commanded the eighth voyage in 1604?
5a8453217cf838001a46a732
True
This time they succeeded, and on 31 December 1600, the Queen granted a Royal Charter to "George, Earl of Cumberland, and 215 Knights, Aldermen, and Burgesses" under the name, Governor and Company of Merchants of London trading with the East Indies. For a period of fifteen years the charter awarded the newly formed company a monopoly on trade with all countries east of the Cape of Good Hope and west of the Straits of Magellan. Sir James Lancaster commanded the first East India Company voyage in 1601 and returned in 1603. and in March 1604 Sir Henry Middleton commanded the second voyage. General William Keeling, a captain during the second voyage, led the third voyage from 1607 to 1610.
In 1609 the charter was renewed for what period of time?
57262557ec44d21400f3da06
indefinite
382
False
what would happen if the trade did not return a profit for at least 3 years?
57262557ec44d21400f3da07
charter would cease to be in force
444
False
why did King James I licence other trading companies from england?
57262557ec44d21400f3da08
high profits
159
False
Where was the first factory in south India?
5726535d708984140094c277
Machilipatnam
95
False
What initially moved King James 1 to grant subsidiary licences to other trading companies in England?
5726535d708984140094c278
high profits
159
False
While the company was  giving an indefinite period when renewing thier charter what clause did King james use to make sure the company stayed profitable
5726535d708984140094c279
the charter would cease to be in force if the trade turned unprofitable for three consecutive years.
440
False
how many years did the Merchants of London have to become profitabl when their charter was renewed by king james?
5726535d708984140094c27a
three consecutive years
516
False
town of Machilipatnam on the Coromandel Coast of the Bay of Bengal
87
Where was the worst factory in south India?
5a8453fb7cf838001a46a742
True
indefinite
382
What period of time was the charter banned for in 1609?
5a8453fb7cf838001a46a743
True
charter would cease to be in force
444
What would happen if the trade did not return a profit for at least eight consecutive years?
5a8453fb7cf838001a46a744
True
high profits
159
Why did King James IX licence other trading companies from England?
5a8453fb7cf838001a46a745
True
In the next two years, the company established its first factory in south India in the town of Machilipatnam on the Coromandel Coast of the Bay of Bengal. The high profits reported by the company after landing in India initially prompted King James I to grant subsidiary licences to other trading companies in England. But in 1609 he renewed the charter given to the company for an indefinite period, including a clause that specified that the charter would cease to be in force if the trade turned unprofitable for three consecutive years.
when was the bombay trading post established?
57262779271a42140099d5ed
1668
563
False
who commanded the factories owned by the East India company?
57262779271a42140099d5ee
factor or master merchant and governor
658
False
how many employees were in the factories in India?
57262779271a42140099d5f0
90
715
False
what were the walled forts of Fort William in Bengal, Fort St George in Madras and Bombay castle before they were forts?
57262779271a42140099d5f1
major factories
742
False
who helped join the East India company in a joint attack on Portuguese and Spanish ships?
572655495951b619008f6fef
Dutch
355
False
by 1647 how many factories did the company have?
572655495951b619008f6ff0
23
616
False
the east india company changed how it did business by moving from  focusing on royal patronage to what type of business?
572655495951b619008f6ff1
commercial trading operations
76
False
when the east india company move to commercial  trading what  company did they surpass?
572655495951b619008f6ff2
Portuguese Estado da Índia
121
False
The top or most important factories had what  physical feature in  common?
572655495951b619008f6ff3
walled forts
769
False
1668
563
When was the Bombay trading post destroyed?
5a8455017cf838001a46a754
True
23
616
How many factories did the company lose by 1647?
5a8455017cf838001a46a755
True
factor or master merchant and governor
658
Who commanded the factories owned by the North India company?
5a8455017cf838001a46a756
True
90
715
How many fish were in the factories in India?
5a8455017cf838001a46a757
True
Dutch
355
Who helped join the North India company in a joint attack on Portuguese and German ships?
5a8455017cf838001a46a758
True
The company, which benefited from the imperial patronage, soon expanded its commercial trading operations, eclipsing the Portuguese Estado da Índia, which had established bases in Goa, Chittagong, and Bombay, which Portugal later ceded to England as part of the dowry of Catherine de Braganza. The East India Company also launched a joint attack with the Dutch United East India Company on Portuguese and Spanish ships off the coast of China, which helped secure their ports in China. The company established trading posts in Surat (1619), Madras (1639), Bombay (1668), and Calcutta (1690). By 1647, the company had 23 factories, each under the command of a factor or master merchant and governor if so chosen, and 90 employees in India. The major factories became the walled forts of Fort William in Bengal, Fort St George in Madras, and Bombay Castle.
How important were cotton, silk, indigo dye,saltpetre and tea to the company?
572629d9ec44d21400f3db29
The company's mainstay business
161
False
Name the wars that was caused by the intense competition between the EIC and Dutch East India Company
572629d9ec44d21400f3db2a
Anglo-Dutch Wars of the 17th and 18th centuries
577
False
what caused the Dutch to expand thier spice trade in the malaccan straits?
572629d9ec44d21400f3db2b
ousting the Portuguese in 1640–41
380
False
what year did the Mughal emperor completely wave customs duities?
572629d9ec44d21400f3db2c
1717
108
False
who did the Mughal emperor extend hospitality to?
572629d9ec44d21400f3db2d
English traders
60
False
what region was made available to english traders by  the Mughal emperor?
5726572af1498d1400e8dc7c
Bengal
93
False
in 1717 what made the region of Bengal  so appealing to English traders?
5726572af1498d1400e8dc7d
waived customs duties
124
False
why type of  dye was one of the East  India company's main  products?
5726572af1498d1400e8dc7e
indigo dye
222
False
Who were the main competitors that  had a monopoly of the spice trade in Malaccan?
5726572af1498d1400e8dc7f
The Dutch
254
False
what wars was a result of the competitive nature of the mulitple trading companies in the 17th and 18th centuries?
5726572af1498d1400e8dc80
Anglo-Dutch Wars
577
False
ousting the Portuguese in 1640–41
380
What caused the Greeks to expand their spice trade in the Malaccan straits?
5a8456db7cf838001a46a75e
True
1717
108
What year did the Mughal emperor strictly require customs duties?
5a8456db7cf838001a46a75f
True
Bengal
93
What region was made available to black market traders by the Mughal emperor?
5a8456db7cf838001a46a760
True
English traders
60
Who did the Mughal emperor forbid hospitality to?
5a8456db7cf838001a46a761
True
indigo dye
222
What type of dye was one of the North India company's main products?
5a8456db7cf838001a46a762
True
In 1634, the Mughal emperor extended his hospitality to the English traders to the region of Bengal, and in 1717 completely waived customs duties for the trade. The company's mainstay businesses were by then cotton, silk, indigo dye, saltpetre, and tea. The Dutch were aggressive competitors and had meanwhile expanded their monopoly of the spice trade in the Malaccan straits by ousting the Portuguese in 1640–41. With reduced Portuguese and Spanish influence in the region, the EIC and Dutch East India Company (VOC) entered a period of intense competition, resulting in the Anglo-Dutch Wars of the 17th and 18th centuries.
How much treasure was taken by pirates?
57262b91271a42140099d6dd
£50,000 to £60,000
610
False
waht was the name of largest ship operating in the Indian ocean?
57262b91271a42140099d6de
Ganj-i-Sawai,
286
False
how often did the Indian fleet voyage to Mocha?
57262b91271a42140099d6df
annual
216
False
What type of Captain was Henry Every?
57262b91271a42140099d6e0
English pirate
43
False
What was the name of the Pirate on board the Fancy who later teamed up with five other pirate captiains to attack the Indian Fleet?
57265924708984140094c353
Captain Henry Every
19
False
When did  Captain Henry Every attack the Indian Fleet
57265924708984140094c354
1695
13
False
Where was the indian Fleet headed when they were attacked by Captain Every
57265924708984140094c355
Mocha
233
False
What was reportly the largest ship in the Mughal Convoy in the Indian Fleet?
57265924708984140094c356
Ganj-i-Sawai
286
False
£50,000 to £60,000
610
How much treasure was given away by pirates?
5a8459a47cf838001a46a768
True
Ganj-i-Sawai
286
What was the name of the only ship operating in the Indian Ocean?
5a8459a47cf838001a46a769
True
annual
216
How often did the Indian fleet voyage to Mars?
5a8459a47cf838001a46a76a
True
English pirate
43
What type of Prince was Henry Every?
5a8459a57cf838001a46a76b
True
1695
13
When did Captain Henry Every attack the Russian Fleet?
5a8459a57cf838001a46a76c
True
In September 1695, Captain Henry Every, an English pirate on board the Fancy, reached the Straits of Bab-el-Mandeb, where he teamed up with five other pirate captains to make an attack on the Indian fleet making the annual voyage to Mocha. The Mughal convoy included the treasure-laden Ganj-i-Sawai, reported to be the greatest in the Mughal fleet and the largest ship operational in the Indian Ocean, and its escort, the Fateh Muhammed. They were spotted passing the straits en route to Surat. The pirates gave chase and caught up with Fateh Muhammed some days later, and meeting little resistance, took some £50,000 to £60,000 worth of treasure.
What was the total value of cargo on the Ganj-i-Sawai?
57262e0289a1e219009ac515
£325,000 and £600,000
396
False
who was on the Ganji-i-Sawai according to the EIC?
57262e0289a1e219009ac516
a relative of the Grand Mughal
226
False
what is the Ganj-i-Sawai know for?
57262e0289a1e219009ac517
richest ship ever taken by pirates
489
False
What was reportedly the high value of of loot that the Ganj-i-Sawai had?
57265ab2f1498d1400e8dcf6
£600,000
409
False
as times has past what has become know as the richest ship ever taken by Pirates?
57265ab2f1498d1400e8dcf7
Ganj-i-Sawai
357
False
how many gold and silver pieces were on the Ganj-i-Sawai?
57265ab2f1498d1400e8dcf8
500,000 gold and silver pieces
429
False
500,000
429
How many extraterrestrial pieces were on the Ganj-i-Sawai?
5a845a727cf838001a46a772
True
£325,000 and £600,000
396
What was the total value of cargo not taken from the Ganj-i-Sawai?
5a845a727cf838001a46a773
True
a relative of the Grand Mughal
226
Who avoided the Ganji-i-Sawai according to the EIC?
5a845a727cf838001a46a774
True
richest ship ever taken by pirates
489
What is the Ganj-i-Sawai unknown for?
5a845a727cf838001a46a775
True
Every continued in pursuit and managed to overhaul Ganj-i-Sawai, which resisted strongly before eventually striking. Ganj-i-Sawai carried enormous wealth and, according to contemporary East India Company sources, was carrying a relative of the Grand Mughal, though there is no evidence to suggest that it was his daughter and her retinue. The loot from the Ganj-i-Sawai had a total value between £325,000 and £600,000, including 500,000 gold and silver pieces, and has become known as the richest ship ever taken by pirates.
Who caused the first worldwide manhunt?
5726314d271a42140099d739
Every
111
False
What was the total bounty offered for Captian Every after England heard that the Ganj-i-Sawai was  taken
57265d15dd62a815002e82be
£1,000
88
False
Captian Every was the focus of the first recorded worldwide.... what in history?
57265d15dd62a815002e82bf
manhunt
203
False
What was the name of the  council that offered part of the bounty for Captain Every
57265d15dd62a815002e82c0
Privy Council
134
False
Who took 4 East India ship and arrested their officers as a reaction to the attack on Ganj-i-Sawai
57265d15dd62a815002e82c1
Mughal Emperor Aurangzeb
346
False
Due to the danger the Captian Every put the trading abiliy of East India Company what  Act would he never qualify for that other pirate were later offered?
57265d15dd62a815002e82c2
Acts of Grace
779
False
Every
111
Who caused the first worldwide witch-hunt?
5a845b527cf838001a46a77a
True
£1,000
88
What was the total bounty offered for Captain Every after Germany heard that the Ganj-i-Sawai was taken?
5a845b527cf838001a46a77b
True
Privy Council
134
What was the name of the council that offered all of the bounty for Captain Every?
5a845b527cf838001a46a77c
True
Mughal Emperor Aurangzeb
346
Who took 12 East India ship and arrested their officers as a reaction to the attack on Ganj-i-Sawai?
5a845b527cf838001a46a77d
True
When the news arrived in England it caused an outcry. In response, a combined bounty of £1,000 was offered for Every's capture by the Privy Council and East India Company, leading to the first worldwide manhunt in recorded history. The plunder of Aurangzeb's treasure ship had serious consequences for the English East India Company. The furious Mughal Emperor Aurangzeb ordered Sidi Yaqub and Nawab Daud Khan to attack and close four of the company's factories in India and imprison their officers, who were almost lynched by a mob of angry Mughals, blaming them for their countryman's depredations, and threatened to put an end to all English trading in India. To appease Emperor Aurangzeb and particularly his Grand Vizier Asad Khan, Parliament exempted Every from all of the Acts of Grace (pardons) and amnesties it would subsequently issue to other pirates.
enlish firms were allow to trade with  India unless?
572661a95951b619008f7105
prohibited by act of parliament
71
False
what was the name of the  second East india company that ended up runnig parallel to the first?
572661a95951b619008f7106
English Company Trading to the East Indies
273
False
The two parallel East India company  had a power stuggle in both  England and?
572661a95951b619008f7107
India
586
False
In what  year was the Act passed the made a parallel East India company?
572661a95951b619008f7108
1698
208
False
The stock holder of the Original East India  company rasied how much money  to  try and deal with the parallel East India Company?
572661a95951b619008f7109
£315,000
448
False
prohibited by act of parliament
71
What caused English firms to be forbidden to trade with India unless?
5a845c747cf838001a46a782
True
1698
208
What year was the Act passed the made a parallel North Indiana company?
5a845c747cf838001a46a783
True
India
236
What place aside from England did East India have no support from?
5a845c747cf838001a46a784
True
English Company Trading to the East Indies
273
What was the name of the second South Indie company that ended up running parallel to the first?
5a845c747cf838001a46a785
True
This allowed any English firm to trade with India, unless specifically prohibited by act of parliament, thereby annulling the charter that had been in force for almost 100 years. By an act that was passed in 1698, a new "parallel" East India Company (officially titled the English Company Trading to the East Indies) was floated under a state-backed indemnity of £2 million. The powerful stockholders of the old company quickly subscribed a sum of £315,000 in the new concern, and dominated the new body. The two companies wrestled with each other for some time, both in England and in India, for a dominant share of the trade.
in 1720 what % of  import goods were from India?
5726635ddd62a815002e8362
15%
375
False
Who passed the acts that effected the profits of East india company
5726635ddd62a815002e8363
Parliament
155
False
Who argued against parliament on the trade issue that involded the East India Company
5726635ddd62a815002e8364
company lobby
65
False
15%
375
What percentage of import goods were abandoned in India in 1720?
5a845d127cf838001a46a78a
True
Parliament
87
Who passed the acts that effected the profits of West India company?
5a845d127cf838001a46a78b
True
company lobby
493
Who argued against parliament on the trade issue that involved the East Indian Company?
5a845d127cf838001a46a78c
True
the company lobby and the Parliament
61
Who never had any disagreements?
5a845d137cf838001a46a78d
True
British
382
What imports were forbidden in India in 1720?
5a845d137cf838001a46a78e
True
In the following decades there was a constant battle between the company lobby and the Parliament. The company sought a permanent establishment, while the Parliament would not willingly allow it greater autonomy and so relinquish the opportunity to exploit the company's profits. In 1712, another act renewed the status of the company, though the debts were repaid. By 1720, 15% of British imports were from India, almost all passing through the company, which reasserted the influence of the company lobby. The licence was prolonged until 1766 by yet another act in 1730.
The British Government agrree to extend the licensed for the company in India until 1793 for how much money
57266614f1498d1400e8de5e
£1 million
343
False
What was the big fear that brought the British government to extend the deadline for the trade license for the company?
57266614f1498d1400e8de5f
monetary consequences of a war
157
False
What was the name of the  war that lasted from 1756 to 1763?
57266614f1498d1400e8de60
Seven Years' War
382
False
The seven years' war  changed the British state focus from trade to protecting  europe and defending  which colonies?
57266614f1498d1400e8de61
colonies in North America
513
False
in what year did the Seven years' war
57266614f1498d1400e8de62
1763
372
False
Seven Years' War
382
What was the name of the war that lasted from 1656 to 1763?
5a8461627cf838001a46a7bc
True
1742
139
What year was the Seven Years' War prevented?
5a8461627cf838001a46a7bd
True
monetary consequences of a war
157
What was irrelevant that brought the British government to extend the deadline for the trade license for the company?
5a8461627cf838001a46a7be
True
colonies in North America
513
Which colonies were abandoned when the British state focus went from trade to protecting Europe?
5a8461627cf838001a46a7bf
True
Britain and France
14
Who worked together the most leading up to the Seven Years' War?
5a8461627cf838001a46a7c0
True
At this time, Britain and France became bitter rivals. Frequent skirmishes between them took place for control of colonial possessions. In 1742, fearing the monetary consequences of a war, the British government agreed to extend the deadline for the licensed exclusive trade by the company in India until 1783, in return for a further loan of £1 million. Between 1756 and 1763, the Seven Years' War diverted the state's attention towards consolidation and defence of its territorial possessions in Europe and its colonies in North America.
what was the type of  Revolution that allowed Britian to move ahead of its European rivals?
572667f7dd62a815002e83e2
Industrial Revolution
23
False
What was the name of William Henry Pyne book from 1808?
572667f7dd62a815002e83e3
The Microcosm of London
576
False
What became the largest player in the British global market according to William Henry Pyne?
572667f7dd62a815002e83e4
The company
464
False
What country was the home to the Industrial Revolution?
572667f7dd62a815002e83e5
Britain
46
False
The industrial revoluntion gave raise to the access to what type of material?
572667f7dd62a815002e83e6
raw
236
False
Industrial Revolution
23
What was the type of Revolution that allowed Britain to move ahead of its Asian rivals?
5a8463787cf838001a46a7d0
True
The Microcosm of London
576
What was the name of William Henry Pyne book from 1908?
5a8463787cf838001a46a7d1
True
The company
464
What became the only player in the British global market according to William Henry Pyne?
5a8463787cf838001a46a7d2
True
Britain
46
What country was devastated by the Industrial Revolution?
5a8463787cf838001a46a7d3
True
raw
236
What type of material became unavailable as a result of the Industrial Revolution?
5a8463787cf838001a46a7d4
True
With the advent of the Industrial Revolution, Britain surged ahead of its European rivals. Demand for Indian commodities was boosted by the need to sustain the troops and the economy during the war, and by the increased availability of raw materials and efficient methods of production. As home to the revolution, Britain experienced higher standards of living. Its spiralling cycle of prosperity, demand and production had a profound influence on overseas trade. The company became the single largest player in the British global market. William Henry Pyne notes in his book The Microcosm of London (1808) that:
Due to agreed debt what 250 tons  product was first permitted to be exported by the company after the seven years' war?
57266a2c5951b619008f7203
saltpetre
83
False
in what year did Banks  negotiate between the king and the East india company for 700 tons of saltpetre?
57266a2c5951b619008f7204
1673
103
False
Saltpetre was used for what people, specifically the need for this product had people overlooking untaxed sales?
57266a2c5951b619008f7205
armed forces
264
False
One of the governor of the company said that he would rather have saltpetre then____ in its raw form?
57266a2c5951b619008f7206
salt
519
False
how much did 700 tons of saltpetre go for in the contract negotiated by Banks in 1673
57266a2c5951b619008f7207
£37,000
185
False
1673
103
What year did Banks negotiate between the princess and the North India company for 600 tons of salt?
5a8464dd7cf838001a46a7da
True
saltpetre
83
What 800 tons product was first permitted to be exported by the company after the seven years' war?
5a8464dd7cf838001a46a7db
True
armed forces
264
What people were forbidden from using saltpetre?
5a8464dd7cf838001a46a7dc
True
£37,000
185
How much did 700 tons of saltpetre go for in the contract negotiated by Banks in 1573?
5a8464dd7cf838001a46a7dd
True
Outstanding debts were also agreed and the company permitted to export 250 tons of saltpetre. Again in 1673, Banks successfully negotiated another contract for 700 tons of saltpetre at £37,000 between the king and the company. So urgent was the need to supply the armed forces in the United Kingdom, America and elsewhere that the authorities sometimes turned a blind eye on the untaxed sales. One governor of the company was even reported as saying in 1864 that he would rather have the saltpetre made than the tax on salt.
what year was the Treaty of Paris agreed on?
57266bc1dd62a815002e845e
1763
24
False
The treaty of Paris return how many esablishment captured by the British?
57266bc1dd62a815002e845f
five
51
False
The Treaty of Paris prevented France from keeping troops in what location?
57266bc1dd62a815002e8460
Bengal
231
False
in 1793 what war was the french involded in even without a big  military presences?
57266bc1dd62a815002e8461
French Revolutionary Wars
433
False
1763
24
What year was the Treaty of Paris disagreed on?
5a8466b67cf838001a46a7e2
True
five
51
How many establishments captured by the British were destroyed after the treaty of Paris?
5a8466b67cf838001a46a7e3
True
Bengal
231
What location was France allowed to send troops due to the Treaty of Paris?
5a8466b67cf838001a46a7e4
True
French Revolutionary Wars
433
What war was the French involved in with a big military presence in 1793?
5a8466b67cf838001a46a7e5
True
By the Treaty of Paris (1763), France regained the five establishments captured by the British during the war (Pondichéry, Mahe, Karikal, Yanam and Chandernagar) but was prevented from erecting fortifications and keeping troops in Bengal (art. XI). Elsewhere in India, the French were to remain a military threat, particularly during the War of American Independence, and up to the capture of Pondichéry in 1793 at the outset of the French Revolutionary Wars without any military presence. Although these small outposts remained French possessions for the next two hundred years, French ambitions on Indian territories were effectively laid to rest, thus eliminating a major source of economic competition for the company.
what is the acronym for the East india company?
57266d4d5951b619008f7261
EIC
35
False
In 1750 how many regular troops did the  EIC  have?
57266d4d5951b619008f7262
3000
127
False
in 1778 most of the troops that the EIC had were from where?
57266d4d5951b619008f7263
Indian
217
False
what year did the EIC have 26,000 troops in their employ
57266d4d5951b619008f7264
1763
151
False
EIC
35
What is no longer the acronym for the East India company?
5a84678e7cf838001a46a7ea
True
3000
127
How many special troops did the EIC exile in 1750?
5a84678e7cf838001a46a7eb
True
Indian
217
Who were most of the troops that the EIC hid in 1778?
5a84678e7cf838001a46a7ec
True
1763
151
What year did the EIC lose 26,000 troops in one day?
5a84678e7cf838001a46a7ed
True
In its first century and half, the EIC used a few hundred soldiers as guards. The great expansion came after 1750, when it had 3000 regular troops. By 1763, it had 26,000; by 1778, it had 67,000. It recruited largely Indian troops, and trained them along European lines. The company, fresh from a colossal victory, and with the backing of its own private well-disciplined and experienced army, was able to assert its interests in the Carnatic region from its base at Madras and in Bengal from Calcutta, without facing any further obstacles from other colonial powers.
how many Anglo Maratha wars were there?
57266f21708984140094c5cf
three
67
False
What empire ended after the three Anglo- Maratha wars?
57266f21708984140094c5d0
Maratha empire
494
False
With the formal end of Maratha Empire the EIC created a  firm hold on what country?
57266f21708984140094c5d1
India
569
False
Was the Maratha Empire ended quick or gradual?
57266f21708984140094c5d2
gradual
9
False
what country  took over the fort of Ahmmadnagar that then became part of the cause for the Maratha Emprie to end?
57266f21708984140094c5d3
British
97
False
three
67
How many Anglo Maratha parties were there?
5a8469077cf838001a46a7f2
True
Maratha empire
494
What empire ended after the seven Anglo-Maratha wars?
5a8469077cf838001a46a7f3
True
gradual
9
How long did it take for Maratha empire to dominate the world?
5a8469077cf838001a46a7f4
True
British
539
What museum took over the fort of Ahmmadnagar that then became part of the cause for the Maratha Emprie to end?
5a8469077cf838001a46a7f5
True
India
552
What country had a weak hold by the EIC after the formal end of the Maratha empire?
5a8469077cf838001a46a7f6
True
With the gradual weakening of the Marathas in the aftermath of the three Anglo-Maratha wars, the British also secured the Ganges-Jumna Doab, the Delhi-Agra region, parts of Bundelkhand, Broach, some districts of Gujarat, the fort of Ahmmadnagar, province of Cuttack (which included Mughalbandi/the coastal part of Odisha, Garjat/the princely states of Odisha, Balasore Port, parts of Midnapore district of West Bengal), Bombay (Mumbai) and the surrounding areas, leading to a formal end of the Maratha empire and firm establishment of the British East India Company in India.
What was the name of EIC military company?
572670a2dd62a815002e84ee
Addiscombe Military Seminary
92
False
what was the  highest rank an Indian could be in the EIC army
572670a2dd62a815002e84ef
Subadar-Major
243
False
While in EIC army  the British officer outrank the indian officer they  both promoted based on?
572670a2dd62a815002e84f0
seniority
402
False
Addiscombe Military Seminary
92
What was the name of the EIC wizardry company?
5a846e377cf838001a46a7fc
True
Subadar-Major
243
What was the highest rank a robot could be in the EIC army?
5a846e377cf838001a46a7fd
True
British
17
Which officers could never outrank Indians?
5a846e377cf838001a46a7fe
True
British and Indian soldiers
358
Who received no training for the military?
5a846e377cf838001a46a7ff
True
Within the Army, British officers who initially trained at the company's own academy at the Addiscombe Military Seminary, always outranked Indians, no matter how long their service. The highest rank to which an Indian soldier could aspire was Subadar-Major (or Rissaldar-Major in cavalry units), effectively a senior subaltern equivalent. Promotion for both British and Indian soldiers was strictly by seniority, so Indian soldiers rarely reached the commissioned ranks of Jamadar or Subadar before they were middle aged at best. They received no training in administration or leadership to make them independent of their British officers.
in 1838 what was the sentence for smuggling opium in to China?
57267215dd62a815002e851e
death penalty
110
False
in 1838 about how many tone of  Opium was smuggled in to China per year?
57267215dd62a815002e851f
1,400 tons
69
False
what was the title of the person people were sent to if they were  caught smuggling Opium in to China?
57267215dd62a815002e8520
Special Imperial Commissioner
155
False
when did the first Opium war start?
57267215dd62a815002e8521
1839
253
False
Britian faught side by side with what country  in the second Opium war?
57267215dd62a815002e8522
France
562
False
death penalty
110
What was the sentence for smuggling opium into Egypt in 1838?
5a846f547cf838001a46a804
True
1,400 tons
69
How many tons of opium were stolen from China per year in 1838?
5a846f547cf838001a46a805
True
Special Imperial Commissioner
155
What was the title of the person people were sent to if they were caught smuggling Opium into space?
5a846f547cf838001a46a806
True
France
562
What country stood paralyzed next to Britain in the second opium war?
5a846f547cf838001a46a807
True
1839
253
When did the only Opium war end?
5a846f547cf838001a46a808
True
In 1838 with the amount of smuggled opium entering China approaching 1,400 tons a year, the Chinese imposed a death penalty for opium smuggling and sent a Special Imperial Commissioner, Lin Zexu, to curb smuggling. This resulted in the First Opium War (1839–42). After the war Hong Kong island was ceded to Britain under the Treaty of Nanking and the Chinese market opened to the opium traders of Britain and other nations. The Jardines and Apcar and Company dominated the trade, although P&O also tried to take a share. A Second Opium War fought by Britain and France against China lasted from 1856 until 1860 and led to the Treaty of Tientsin, which legalised the importation of opium. Legalisation stimulated domestic Chinese opium production and increased the importation of opium from Turkey and Persia. This increased competition for the Chinese market led to India reducing its opium output and diversifying its exports.
EIC was leased back the land they held in British India by what part of the British goverment?
57267423f1498d1400e8e01c
Parliament
438
False
How much did the parliament lease British india for to EIC (the lease was for two years)?
57267423f1498d1400e8e01d
£40,000
272
False
The British Government  created a how many man council in Calcutta?
57267423f1498d1400e8e01e
five
369
False
How many council member weres allow to be from the EIC?
57267423f1498d1400e8e01f
two
533
False
By having 3 members on the council in Calcutta from the British Government they were always able to ____ the two EIC members?
57267423f1498d1400e8e020
outvote
521
False
£40,000
272
How much did the parliament lease Australia for to EIC (the lease was for two years)?
5a8475107cf838001a46a80e
True
five
369
How many were on the council in Calcutta created by the German Government?
5a8475107cf838001a46a80f
True
two
533
How many council members were killed on the EIC?
5a8475107cf838001a46a810
True
Warren Hastings
580
What incumbent Governor was dismissed from the Council?
5a8475107cf838001a46a811
True
Despite stiff resistance from the East India lobby in parliament and from the Company's shareholders, the Act passed. It introduced substantial governmental control and allowed British India to be formally under the control of the Crown, but leased back to the Company at £40,000 for two years. Under the Act's most important provision, a governing Council composed of five members was created in Calcutta. The three members nominated by Parliament and representing the Government's interest could, and invariably would, outvote the two Company members. The Council was headed by Warren Hastings, the incumbent Governor, who became the first Governor-General of Bengal, with an ill-defined authority over the Bombay and Madras Presidencies. His nomination, made by the Court of Directors, would in future be subject to the approval of a Council of Four appointed by the Crown. Initially, the Council consisted of Lt. General Sir John Clavering, The Honourable Sir George Monson, Sir Richard Barwell, and Sir Philip Francis.
The highest ranking persons title in British india is?
572675245951b619008f7333
The Governor General
147
False
in British indian a jugde had to come from where to oversee the  legal system?
572675245951b619008f7334
British
56
False
The highest ranking person's title in British india is?
57267837f1498d1400e8e0c0
Governor General
151
False
Did EIC have a monopoly over the governement or trade in british india
57267837f1498d1400e8e0c2
trade
286
False
Other then money what did it cost the EIC to have the control in trade the had in British India
57267837f1498d1400e8e0c3
export a minimum quantity of goods yearly to Britain
346
False
The Governor General
147
Who is the lowest ranking person in British India?
5a8475a07cf838001a46a816
True
Hastings
0
Who couldn't be trusted with the power of peace and war?
5a8475a07cf838001a46a817
True
British judges and magistrates
56
Who were removed from India to administer the legal system?
5a8475a07cf838001a46a818
True
The Governor General and the council
147
Who had only limited legislative powers?
5a8475a07cf838001a46a819
True
The company
224
Who was eventually bankrupt due to their virtual monopoly?
5a8475a07cf838001a46a81a
True
Hastings was entrusted with the power of peace and war. British judges and magistrates would also be sent to India to administer the legal system. The Governor General and the council would have complete legislative powers. The company was allowed to maintain its virtual monopoly over trade in exchange for the biennial sum and was obligated to export a minimum quantity of goods yearly to Britain. The costs of administration were to be met by the company. The Company initially welcomed these provisions, but the annual burden of the payment contributed to the steady decline of its finances.
The name of the Act that was a failure in creating bourdaries for the Crown and the EIC for being subjective?
572679f45951b619008f73e5
Pitt's Act
0
False
after the Pitt act the Crown began to focus more on _______ efforts of its people in it territories?
572679f45951b619008f73e6
humanitarian
218
False
what was the  name of the person who was once a large  shareholder in EIC and talk to the issues with with the new Regulating bill in 1793?
572679f45951b619008f73e7
Edmund Burke
308
False
Was the new Regulating Bill of 1793 passed or defeated?
572679f45951b619008f73e8
defeated
470
False
Pitt's Act
0
What is the name of the Act that was a success in creating boundaries for the Crown and the EIC for being subjective?
5a84765d7cf838001a46a820
True
defeated
470
Was the new Regulating Bill of 1791 passed or defeated?
5a84765d7cf838001a46a821
True
Edmund Burke
308
Who was the only East India Company shareholder?
5a84765d7cf838001a46a822
True
humanitarian calls for better treatment of local peoples in British-occupied territories
218
What kind of calls did the government ignore?
5a84765d7cf838001a46a823
True
Pitt's Act was deemed a failure because it quickly became apparent that the boundaries between government control and the company's powers were nebulous and highly subjective. The government felt obliged to respond to humanitarian calls for better treatment of local peoples in British-occupied territories. Edmund Burke, a former East India Company shareholder and diplomat, was moved to address the situation and introduced a new Regulating Bill in 1783. The bill was defeated amid lobbying by company loyalists and accusations of nepotism in the bill's recommendations for the appointment of councillors.
by the middle of the 19th century how much of the worlds population was effected by EIC and it trade?
57267ba4f1498d1400e8e150
fifth
564
False
To EIC in Malaya what state  was the forth most improtant settlement?
57267ba4f1498d1400e8e151
Penang
642
False
during this time the relationship change between Britian and the EIC. the EIC became more of a what to the crown??
57267ba4f1498d1400e8e152
regularised subsidiary
117
False
when EIC become more like a regularised subsidiary  did they have greater or less accountability to the Crown
57267ba4f1498d1400e8e153
greater accountability
159
False
fifth
564
How much of the moon's population was effected by EIC and it trade by the middle of the 19th century?
5a84778c7cf838001a46a828
True
Penang
642
What state in Malaya had no important settlements?
5a84778c7cf838001a46a829
True
regularised subsidiary
117
What did the EIC become less of to the crown?
5a84778c7cf838001a46a82a
True
greater accountability
159
When EIC became more like a regularised subsidiary did they have greater or less accountability to Japan?
5a84778c7cf838001a46a82b
True
This Act clearly demarcated borders between the Crown and the Company. After this point, the Company functioned as a regularised subsidiary of the Crown, with greater accountability for its actions and reached a stable stage of expansion and consolidation. Having temporarily achieved a state of truce with the Crown, the Company continued to expand its influence to nearby territories through threats and coercive actions. By the middle of the 19th century, the Company's rule extended across most of India, Burma, Malaya, Singapore, and British Hong Kong, and a fifth of the world's population was under its trading influence. In addition, Penang, one of the states in Malaya, became the fourth most important settlement, a presidency, of the Company's Indian territories.
What Lord helped the EIC through his politics, take control over all of india?
57267e115951b619008f749b
Lord Wellesley
27
False
While the EIc took over all of India there were, two exception the first being Punjab, what was the Second?
57267e115951b619008f749c
Sindh
145
False
in the past the deals under the crown strained the finances of EIC  now as they expained throughout India what was the biggest strain on their finances
57267e115951b619008f749d
the expense of wars
280
False
what treaty  allowed the Eic in to the then kingdom of nepal?
57267e115951b619008f749e
Sugauli Treaty
206
False
EIC reached out to parliament for help with finances. this lead to which Act?
57267e115951b619008f749f
Charter Act of 1813
464
False
Lord Wellesley
27
What Lord helped the EIC through his politics take control over all of America?
5a8478217cf838001a46a830
True
1813
479
What year was the Charter Act rejected?
5a8478217cf838001a46a831
True
Lord Wellesley and the Marquis of Hastings
27
Who had very relaxed policies?
5a8478217cf838001a46a832
True
the Company
77
Who lost all control over India?
5a8478217cf838001a46a833
True
wars
295
What events had the least amount of expenses?
5a8478217cf838001a46a834
True
The aggressive policies of Lord Wellesley and the Marquis of Hastings led to the Company gaining control of all India (except for the Punjab and Sindh), and some part of the then kingdom of Nepal under the Sugauli Treaty. The Indian Princes had become vassals of the Company. But the expense of wars leading to the total control of India strained the Company's finances. The Company was forced to petition Parliament for assistance. This was the background to the Charter Act of 1813 which, among other things:
Where were the EIC  headquarters located?
57267f375951b619008f74b3
London
30
False
What was the name of EIC headquartes?
57267f375951b619008f74b4
East India House
81
False
between 1638 and 1648 what street was EIC headquarters on?
57267f375951b619008f74b5
Leadenhall Street
236
False
Where was the EIC headquarters moved to after  1648?
57267f375951b619008f74b6
Craven House
296
False
What building now sits where the EIC headquarters last sat?
57267f375951b619008f74b7
the Lloyd's building
614
False
London
30
Where were the EIC headquarters hidden?
5a8478cf7cf838001a46a83a
True
East India House
81
What was the former name of EIC headquarters?
5a8478cf7cf838001a46a83b
True
Leadenhall Street
236
What street was EIC headquarters on when it was vacated between 1628 and 1643?
5a8478cf7cf838001a46a83c
True
Craven House
296
Where was the EIC headquarters abandoned after 1648?
5a8478cf7cf838001a46a83d
True
the Lloyd's building
614
What hospital now sits where the EIC headquarters last sat?
5a8478cf7cf838001a46a83e
True
The Company's headquarters in London, from which much of India was governed, was East India House in Leadenhall Street. After occupying premises in Philpot Lane from 1600 to 1621; in Crosby House, Bishopsgate, from 1621 to 1638; and in Leadenhall Street from 1638 to 1648, the Company moved into Craven House, an Elizabethan mansion in Leadenhall Street. The building had become known as East India House by 1661. It was completely rebuilt and enlarged in 1726–9; and further significantly remodelled and expanded in 1796–1800. It was finally vacated in 1860 and demolished in 1861–62. The site is now occupied by the Lloyd's building.
in 1803 was act of parliament supported by  EIC?
5726806a5951b619008f74dd
promoted by the East India Company
31
False
the 1803 act created what dock program?
5726806a5951b619008f74de
East India Dock Company
83
False
The goal of the East in dock company was  first what?
5726806a5951b619008f74df
aim of establishing a new set of docks (the East India Docks) primarily for the use of ships trading with India
117
False
What was the name of the export dock of the EIC after the 1803 act?
5726806a5951b619008f74e0
Brunswick Dock
243
False
in 1838 what company did the  East india dock company merge with?
5726806a5951b619008f74e1
West India Dock Company
416
False
promoted by the East India Company
31
What act of parliament was opposed by EIC in 1803?
5a84799b7cf838001a46a844
True
East India Dock Company
83
What dock company was destroyed by the 1803 Act?
5a84799b7cf838001a46a845
True
Brunswick Dock
243
What was the name of the export dock of the EIC after the 1903 act?
5a84799b7cf838001a46a846
True
West India Dock Company
416
What company did the East India Dock Company split off from in 1838?
5a84799b7cf838001a46a847
True
West India Dock Company
416
Which dock company was never taken over by the Port of London Authority in 1909?
5a84799b7cf838001a46a848
True
In 1803, an Act of Parliament, promoted by the East India Company, established the East India Dock Company, with the aim of establishing a new set of docks (the East India Docks) primarily for the use of ships trading with India. The existing Brunswick Dock, part of the Blackwall Yard site, became the Export Dock; while a new Import Dock was built to the north. In 1838 the East India Dock Company merged with the West India Dock Company. The docks were taken over by the Port of London Authority in 1909, and closed in 1967.
in the period of  1600 what Canton cross repesented England
572681d6708984140094c867
St George's Cross
51
False
after the act of  1707  what was the second  cross added to the Canton for great britian
572681d6708984140094c868
St Andrew's cross
251
False
IN what year did the canton become a flag with crosses on it and not just a cross?
572681d6708984140094c869
1707
129
False
in wat year did  ireland join with great britian offically?
572681d6708984140094c86a
1800
336
False
What is the name of the union that Ireland and Great Britian created when they came together?
572681d6708984140094c86b
United Kingdom
392
False
St George's Cross
51
What Canton cross represented Egypt in the period of 1600?
5a847a707cf838001a46a84e
True
St Andrew's cross
251
What was the second cross removed from the Canton after the Acts of Union 1707?
5a847a707cf838001a46a84f
True
1707
129
What year did the Canton become a flag with stars on it and not just a stripe?
5a847a707cf838001a46a850
True
1800
336
What year did Ireland join with Japan officially?
5a847a717cf838001a46a851
True
United Kingdom
563
What is the name of the union that Ireland and Great Britain sabotaged when they came together?
5a847a717cf838001a46a852
True
From the period of 1600, the canton consisted of a St George's Cross representing the Kingdom of England. With the Acts of Union 1707, the canton was updated to be the new Union Flag—consisting of an English St George's Cross combined with a Scottish St Andrew's cross—representing the Kingdom of Great Britain. After the Acts of Union 1800 that joined Ireland with Great Britain to form the United Kingdom, the canton of the East India Company flag was altered accordingly to include a Saint Patrick's Saltire replicating the updated Union Flag representing the United Kingdom of Great Britain and Ireland.
What does DEUS INDICAT mean?
57268361708984140094c893
God Indicates
526
False
what type of flowers did Gules use?
57268361708984140094c894
roses
281
False
after the DEUS INDICAT what type of sea animals were pictured?
57268361708984140094c895
sea lions
566
False
in the above quote how many ship and masts were indicated?
57268361708984140094c896
three
25
False
What animal was listed as part of the four fleur-de-lis in the above quote
57268361708984140094c897
leopard
257
False
God Indicates
526
What does DEUS INDICAT no longer mean in Latin?
5a847dab7cf838001a46a86c
True
roses
281
What type of flowers did Gules avoid?
5a847dab7cf838001a46a86d
True
sea lions
566
What type of land animals were pictured on the shield crest under the DEUS INDICAT?
5a847dab7cf838001a46a86e
True
Where God Leads, Nothing Hurts
651
What does DEO DUCENTE NIL NOCET mean in Russian?
5a847dab7cf838001a46a86f
True
"Azure, three ships with three masts, rigged and under full sail, the sails, pennants and ensigns Argent, each charged with a cross Gules; on a chief of the second a pale quarterly Azure and Gules, on the 1st and 4th a fleur-de-lis or, on the 2nd and 3rd a leopard or, between two roses Gules seeded Or barbed Vert." The shield had as a crest: "A sphere without a frame, bounded with the Zodiac in bend Or, between two pennants flottant Argent, each charged with a cross Gules, over the sphere the words DEUS INDICAT" (Latin: God Indicates). The supporters were two sea lions (lions with fishes' tails) and the motto was DEO DUCENTE NIL NOCET (Latin: Where God Leads, Nothing Hurts).
The EIC Arms feature what king of the jungle animal on it?
57268432f1498d1400e8e25c
lion
231
False
in the arms of EIC what was the lion holding in his forepaws
57268432f1498d1400e8e25d
crown
293
False
how many lions were on the EIC arms
57268432f1498d1400e8e25e
Two
330
False
what year did the EIC arms include both france and england?
57268432f1498d1400e8e25f
1698
42
False
lion
231
What jungle animal is in danger on the EIC Arms?
5a847e367cf838001a46a874
True
a regal crown
285
What does the lion have on its head in the arms of EIC?
5a847e367cf838001a46a875
True
Two
330
How many dolphins were on the EIC arms?
5a847e367cf838001a46a876
True
1698
42
What year did the EIC arms include both Norway and Denmark?
5a847e367cf838001a46a877
True
The East India Company's arms
0
What arms were granted in 1798?
5a847e367cf838001a46a878
True
The East India Company's arms, granted in 1698, were: "Argent a cross Gules; in the dexter chief quarter an escutcheon of the arms of France and England quarterly, the shield ornamentally and regally crowned Or." The crest was: "A lion rampant guardant Or holding between the forepaws a regal crown proper." The supporters were: "Two lions rampant guardant Or, each supporting a banner erect Argent, charged with a cross Gules." The motto was AUSPICIO REGIS ET SENATUS ANGLIÆ (Latin: By right of the King and the Senate of England).
During what war Did the EIC get letter of marque for its vessels
57268541708984140094c8c7
Napoleonic Wars
25
False
Why did EIC want tthe letters of marque most?
57268541708984140094c8c8
should they have the opportunity to take a prize, they could do so without being guilty of piracy
316
False
With out the letters of marque what wepon did  they have to protect themself that was a part of their ship?
57268541708984140094c8c9
cannon
175
False
The Earl of Mornington would have how many ___ guns on the EIc ships?
57268541708984140094c8ca
six
492
False
Napoleonic Wars
25
What celebration did the EIC get a letter of marque for its vessels?
5a847ff97cf838001a46a892
True
should they have the opportunity to take a prize, they could do so without being guilty of piracy
316
Why did the EIC not want the letters of marque?
5a847ff97cf838001a46a893
True
cannon
175
What weapon did they have for protection that was a part of their body?
5a847ff97cf838001a46a894
True
six
492
How many guns were taken from the Earl of Mornington?
5a847ff97cf838001a46a895
True
the Earl of Mornington
426
What was not allowed to sail under a letter of marque?
5a847ff97cf838001a46a896
True
During the period of the Napoleonic Wars, the East India Company arranged for letters of marque for its vessels such as the Lord Nelson. This was not so that they could carry cannon to fend off warships, privateers and pirates on their voyages to India and China (that they could do without permission) but so that, should they have the opportunity to take a prize, they could do so without being guilty of piracy. Similarly, the Earl of Mornington, an East India Company packet ship of only six guns, also sailed under a letter of marque.
What was the most notable naval victory EIC  had?
572686e8dd62a815002e8830
Battle of Pulo Aura
7
False
what general played the biggest role in the capture of the seven Dutch East Indiamen?
572686e8dd62a815002e8831
General Goddard
711
False
Where were the 7 Dutch Easteast indiamen capture?
572686e8dd62a815002e8832
off St Helena
791
False
In 1797 how did the  Woodford  get to safety without firing one bullet?
572686e8dd62a815002e8833
bluffing
612
False
in 1797 who was the captian of the Woodford that is first listed of the 5 captians?
572686e8dd62a815002e8834
Captain Charles Lennox
327
False
Battle of Pulo Aura
7
What was the only naval defeat EIC had?
5a8480d67cf838001a46a8a6
True
General Goddard
711
What policeman played the largest role in the capture of the seven Dutch East Indiamen?
5a8480d67cf838001a46a8a7
True
off St Helena
791
Where were the 6 Dutch East Indiamen captured?
5a8480d67cf838001a46a8a8
True
bluffing
612
How did the Indiamen get to safety by firing just one bullet in 1797?
5a8480d67cf838001a46a8a9
True
At the Battle of Pulo Aura, which was probably the company's most notable naval victory, Nathaniel Dance, Commodore of a convoy of Indiamen and sailing aboard the Warley, led several Indiamen in a skirmish with a French squadron, driving them off. Some six years earlier, on 28 January 1797, five Indiamen, the Woodford, under Captain Charles Lennox, the Taunton-Castle, Captain Edward Studd, Canton, Captain Abel Vyvyan, and Boddam, Captain George Palmer, and Ocean, Captain John Christian Lochner, had encountered Admiral de Sercey and his squadron of frigates. On this occasion the Indiamen also succeeded in bluffing their way to safety, and without any shots even being fired. Lastly, on 15 June 1795, the General Goddard played a large role in the capture of seven Dutch East Indiamen off St Helena.
Where are the records of the EIC housed today?
572687e3708984140094c8fd
British Library in London
191
False
Where are the British government's records houseed today?
572687e3708984140094c8fe
The National Archives at Kew
133
False
Are you able to search most of the records online today?
572687e3708984140094c8ff
The catalogue is searchable online in the Access to Archives catalogues
270
False
British Library in London
191
Where were the records of the EIC lost in a fire?
5a8481ba7cf838001a46a8ae
True
The National Archives at Kew, London
133
Where are the British government's records destroyed today?
5a8481ba7cf838001a46a8af
True
British Government
17
Which government no longer keeps records?
5a8481ba7cf838001a46a8b0
True
Many of the East India Company records
343
What records are expensive to access online?
5a8481ba7cf838001a46a8b1
True
East India Company
532
What company lost all records between 1600–1834?
5a8481ba7cf838001a46a8b2
True
Unlike all other British Government records, the records from the East India Company (and its successor the India Office) are not in The National Archives at Kew, London, but are held by the British Library in London as part of the Asia, Pacific and Africa Collections. The catalogue is searchable online in the Access to Archives catalogues. Many of the East India Company records are freely available online under an agreement that the Families in British India Society has with the British Library. Published catalogues exist of East India Company ships' journals and logs, 1600–1834; and of some of the Company's daughter institutions, including the East India Company College, Haileybury, and Addiscombe Military Seminary.
Hokkien
Where is Hokkien spoken?
5726266789a1e219009ac3e2
Southeast Asia
270
False
Where did Hokkien originate?
5726266789a1e219009ac3e3
southern Fujian
367
False
What language is Hokkien closely related to?
5726266789a1e219009ac3e4
Teochew
413
False
What language is Hokkien distantly related to?
5726266789a1e219009ac3e5
Hainanese
506
False
Min and Hakka dialects are found where?
5726266789a1e219009ac3e6
Fujian province
581
False
Hokkien
0
What language is only spoken in Southeast Asia and Taiwan?
5a12dbf56614be00188f254f
True
Hokkien
0
What language developed in southern Fuji?
5a12dbf66614be00188f2550
True
Teochew
413
What language is Hokkien unrelatated to?
5a12dbf66614be00188f2551
True
Hokkien
0
What language is Hainanese closely related to?
5a12dbf66614be00188f2552
True
Min and Hakka dialects
555
What type of dialects are found in Fuji
5a12dbf66614be00188f2553
True
southern Fujian
367
Where did Hainese originate?
5a1dcfee4ea40d0018b06fa5
True
Teochew
413
What dialect is Min closely related to?
5a1dcfee4ea40d0018b06fa6
True
Southeast Asia, Taiwan, and by many other overseas Chinese
270
Where is the Fujian dialect spoken?
5a1dcfee4ea40d0018b06fa7
True
mutual comprehension is difficult
429
What happens if you speak Hokkien and its close relative Hakka?
5a1dcfee4ea40d0018b06fa8
True
Hainanese
506
What language is Min Nan distantly related to?
5a1dcfee4ea40d0018b06fa9
True
Hokkien /hɒˈkiɛn/ (traditional Chinese: 福建話; simplified Chinese: 福建话; pinyin: Fújiànhuà; Pe̍h-ōe-jī: Hok-kiàn oē) or Quanzhang (Quanzhou–Zhangzhou / Chinchew–Changchew; BP: Zuánziū–Ziāngziū) is a group of mutually intelligible Min Nan Chinese dialects spoken throughout Southeast Asia, Taiwan, and by many other overseas Chinese. Hokkien originated from a dialect in southern Fujian. It is closely related to the Teochew, though mutual comprehension is difficult, and is somewhat more distantly related to Hainanese. Besides Hokkien, there are also other Min and Hakka dialects in Fujian province, most of which are not mutually intelligible with Hokkien.
What does Hokkien mean?
57262801ec44d21400f3da71
Fujian province
116
False
What division of dialects does Hokkien belong to?
57262801ec44d21400f3da72
Quanzhang Division (Chinese: 泉漳片; pinyin: Quánzhāng piàn) of Min Nan
216
False
In South East Asia, what term is commonly used to refer to Min-nan dialects?
57262801ec44d21400f3da73
Hokkien
718
False
Where are quanzhou and Zhangzhou located?
57262801ec44d21400f3da74
Hokkien
340
False
Hokkien
9
What term does not mean Fujian province?
5a13199f6614be00188f2559
True
Quanzhang Division
216
What classification system does the term Hokkien come from?
5a13199f6614be00188f255a
True
Min Nan
277
What term comes from the first two syllables of the two main Hokkien regions?
5a13199f6614be00188f255b
True
Hokkien
718
What term is used in central assia to fefer to Min-nan dialects?
5a13199f6614be00188f255c
True
Fujian province
116
What does the term Quanzhang mean in Chinese?
5a1dd1c84ea40d0018b06faf
True
Min-nan dialects
853
What dialect does Zhangzhou refer to?
5a1dd1c84ea40d0018b06fb0
True
South East Asia
825
Where is the term Fulaohua primarily used?
5a1dd1c84ea40d0018b06fb1
True
Hokkien
718
In urban centers, what term is used to refer to Min-nan dialects?
5a1dd1c84ea40d0018b06fb2
True
Hokkien
340
Where are Min Nan and Southern Min located?
5a1dd1c84ea40d0018b06fb3
True
The term Hokkien (福建; hɔk˥˥kɪɛn˨˩) is itself a term not used in Chinese to refer to the dialect, as it simply means Fujian province. In Chinese linguistics, these dialects are known by their classification under the Quanzhang Division (Chinese: 泉漳片; pinyin: Quánzhāng piàn) of Min Nan, which comes from the first characters of the two main Hokkien urban centers Quanzhou and Zhangzhou. The variety is also known by other terms such as the more general Min Nan (traditional Chinese: 閩南語, 閩南話; simplified Chinese: 闽南语, 闽南话; pinyin: Mǐnnányǔ, Mǐnnánhuà; Pe̍h-ōe-jī: Bân-lâm-gí,Bân-lâm-oē) or Southern Min, and Fulaohua (traditional Chinese: 福佬話; simplified Chinese: 福佬话; pinyin: Fúlǎohuà; Pe̍h-ōe-jī: Hō-ló-oē). The term Hokkien (Chinese: 福建話; Pe̍h-ōe-jī: hok-kiàn oē;Tâi-lô:Hok-kiàn-uē), on the other hand, is used commonly in South East Asia to refer to Min-nan dialects.
Who brought the language Hokkien to Myanmar?
57262a0b271a42140099d6ab
Han Chinese emigrants
118
False
What is the current name for Myanmar?
57262a0b271a42140099d6ac
Burma
227
False
What is the former name for Indonesia?
57262a0b271a42140099d6ad
Dutch East Indies
266
False
What percent of Chinese Filipinos in the Philippines spoeak Hokkien?
57262a0b271a42140099d6ae
98.5%
516
False
What is the local name for Hokkien in the Philippines?
57262a0b271a42140099d6af
Lan-nang or Lán-lâng-oē
598
False
Indonesia
244
What is the former name of the Dutch East Indies?
5a1324e66614be00188f2561
True
Myanmar
234
What is the current name of Burma?
5a1324e66614be00188f2562
True
Hokkien
649
What is the local name for Lan-nang in the Philippines?
5a1324e66614be00188f2563
True
Hokkien speakers
649
Who form the largest group of non Chinese in Malaysia?
5a1324e66614be00188f2564
True
Our people’s language
624
What does Lan-nang mean in Singapore?
5a1324e66614be00188f2565
True
Hokkien speakers
649
Who forms the largest group of Lan-nang in Singapore?
5a1dd5d34ea40d0018b06fb9
True
Hoklo from southern Fujian
159
Where were many Dutch East Indies emigrants originally from?
5a1dd5d34ea40d0018b06fba
True
up to 98.5%
510
How many Chinese in Singapore speak Lan-nang?
5a1dd5d34ea40d0018b06fbb
True
Many of the Hokkien dialects of this region
379
What dialects are highly similar to Hoko and Lan-nang?
5a1dd5d34ea40d0018b06fbc
True
ethnic Han Chinese emigrants
111
What group brought the Amoy language to Burma, Malaysia and Singapore?
5a1dd5d34ea40d0018b06fbd
True
There are many Hokkien speakers among overseas Chinese in Southeast Asia as well as in the United States. Many ethnic Han Chinese emigrants to the region were Hoklo from southern Fujian, and brought the language to what is now Burma (Myanmar), Indonesia (the former Dutch East Indies) and present day Malaysia and Singapore (formerly Malaya and the British Straits Settlements). Many of the Hokkien dialects of this region are highly similar to Taiwanese and Amoy. Hokkien is reportedly the native language of up to 98.5% of the Chinese Filipino in the Philippines, among which is known locally as Lan-nang or Lán-lâng-oē ("Our people’s language"). Hokkien speakers form the largest group of Chinese in Singapore, Malaysia and Indonesia.[citation needed]
The Three Kings Period was a period of time in what country?
57263081ec44d21400f3dbe5
China
44
False
Where was war concentrated during the Three Kings Period?
57263081ec44d21400f3dbe6
the Central Plain of China
91
False
What disaster caused a massive migration in the Fujiian region?
57263081ec44d21400f3dbe7
the Disaster of Yongjia
332
False
What language was spoken in the central plain of China up until the 3rd century?
57263081ec44d21400f3dbe8
old Chinese
496
False
What direction did the jin court flee during the Three Kings period?
57263081ec44d21400f3dbe9
north to the south
385
False
Three Kingdoms period of ancient China
11
What was the name of the period of costant warfare across Asia?
5a132a07c8eab200188dc929
True
Disaster of Yongjia.
336
What disiaster caused a massive migration out of the Fujiian region?
5a132a07c8eab200188dc92a
True
old Chinese
496
What languagewas spoken in the central plain of China after the 3rd century?
5a132a07c8eab200188dc92b
True
Northerners
119
Who entered Fujiian mostly during the Three Kings period?
5a132a07c8eab200188dc92c
True
The Jìn court
357
What court fled from the south to the north during the three Kings period?
5a132a07c8eab200188dc92d
True
there was constant warfare occurring in the Central Plain of China
51
What happened during the Fujian period in China?
5a1dd7ee4ea40d0018b06fc3
True
causing the region to incorporate parts of northern Chinese dialects
166
What happened when the Jin court began to enter the Fujian region?
5a1dd7ee4ea40d0018b06fc4
True
Han Chinese
279
After the disaster of Quangzhou, what group migrated from the north?
5a1dd7ee4ea40d0018b06fc5
True
causing large numbers of northern Han Chinese to move into Fujian region
405
What happened after the Three Kingdoms fled from north to south?
5a1dd7ee4ea40d0018b06fc6
True
spoken in Central Plain of China from prehistoric era to 3rd century
510
Where were Yongjia dialects brought by the Han Chinese, spoken?
5a1dd7ee4ea40d0018b06fc7
True
During the Three Kingdoms period of ancient China, there was constant warfare occurring in the Central Plain of China. Northerners began to enter into Fujian region, causing the region to incorporate parts of northern Chinese dialects. However, the massive migration of northern Han Chinese into Fujian region mainly occurred after the Disaster of Yongjia. The Jìn court fled from the north to the south, causing large numbers of northern Han Chinese to move into Fujian region. They brought the old Chinese — spoken in Central Plain of China from prehistoric era to 3rd century — into Fujian. This then gradually evolved into the Quanzhou dialect.
Who was the ruler of China in 677?
57264e0bdd62a815002e8110
Emperor Gaozong
28
False
Who led the military expedition in Fujian?
57264e0bdd62a815002e8111
Chen Zheng
46
False
What is the name of the son of Chen Zheng?
57264e0bdd62a815002e8112
Chen Yuanguang
85
False
Who was the ruler of China in 885?
57264e0bdd62a815002e8113
Emperor Xizong of Tang
321
False
What was responsible for bringing the language of North middle China to the Fujian region?
57264e0bdd62a815002e8114
two waves of migrations from the north
568
False
China
247
What country did Chen Yuanguang rule in 677?
5a13352ac8eab200188dc933
True
to pacify the rebellion in Fujian
133
What did Chen Yuanguang and his son lead a military exedition for?
5a13352ac8eab200188dc934
True
885
295
When did Wang Chao and his son lead an expedition to pacify the Huanf Chao rebellion?
5a13352ac8eab200188dc935
True
Wang Shenzhi
382
Who was Wang Chao's son?
5a13352ac8eab200188dc936
True
Zhangzhou dialect
726
What dialect did the migrations from the south help to develop?
5a13352ac8eab200188dc937
True
Chen Zheng
46
Who led waves of migrations during the reign of Emperor Gaozong?
5a1dda5b4ea40d0018b06fcd
True
the Middle Chinese phonology of northern China
206
What did Wang Chao bring during the 7th century into Zhangzhou?
5a1dda5b4ea40d0018b06fce
True
led a military expedition force to pacify the Huang Chao rebellion
402
What did Wang Shenzhi do in China in 677?
5a1dda5b4ea40d0018b06fcf
True
Chen Yuanguang
85
What is Wang Chao's sons name?
5a1dda5b4ea40d0018b06fd0
True
Emperor Gaozong
28
Who was the ruler of Xizong in 677?
5a1dda5b4ea40d0018b06fd1
True
In 677 (during the reign of Emperor Gaozong), Chen Zheng (陳政), together with his son Chen Yuanguang (陳元光), led a military expedition to pacify the rebellion in Fujian. They settled in Zhangzhou and brought the Middle Chinese phonology of northern China during the 7th century into Zhangzhou; In 885, (during the reign of Emperor Xizong of Tang), the two brothers Wang Chao (王潮) and Wang Shenzhi (王審知), led a military expedition force to pacify the Huang Chao rebellion. They brought the Middle Chinese phonology commonly spoken in Northern China into Zhangzhou. These two waves of migrations from the north generally brought the language of northern Middle Chinese into the Fujian region. This then gradually evolved into the Zhangzhou dialect.
What is another name for Xiamen dialect?
5726524fdd62a815002e817e
Amoy
35
False
What is the main dialect spoken in Xiamen?
5726524fdd62a815002e817f
Xiamen dialect
0
False
During what dynasty did the Xiamen dialect develope?
5726524fdd62a815002e8180
late Ming dynasty
240
False
What city took over Quanzhou's position as the main port of trade in SE China?
5726524fdd62a815002e8181
Xiamen
263
False
Why did peasants from Zhangzhou travel north to Xiamen?
5726524fdd62a815002e8182
in search of job opportunities
514
False
Ming dynasty
245
During what dynasty did the Xiemen dialect disapear?
5a133a91c8eab200188dc93d
True
Xiamen dialect
0
What is the main dialect spoken in Xiang'an and the surrouncing areas of Tong'an and Xiamen?
5a133a91c8eab200188dc93e
True
the Greater Xiamen area
185
What area now includes Tong'an and Xiang'an?
5a133a91c8eab200188dc93f
True
in the late Ming dynasty
233
When was Quanzhou taking over Xiamen's position as the main port of trade?
5a133a91c8eab200188dc940
True
Zhangzhou peasants
458
Who was traveling south in search of jobs?
5a133a91c8eab200188dc941
True
Amoy
35
What is another name for the Tong'an dialect?
5a1de2ea4ea40d0018b06fd7
True
Xiamen dialect
0
What dialect developed in the Quanzhou dynasty?
5a1de2ea4ea40d0018b06fd8
True
their speech
846
What did Henan Luoyang  consider the better accent to be?
5a1de2ea4ea40d0018b06fd9
True
dialect leveling occurred
957
What happened over time to produce the Henan dialect?
5a1de2ea4ea40d0018b06fda
True
to carry on their businesses
423
Why did Zhangzhou peasants travel southwards?
5a1de2ea4ea40d0018b06fdb
True
Xiamen dialect, sometimes known as Amoy, is the main dialect spoken in the Chinese city of Xiamen and its surrounding regions of Tong'an and Xiang'an, both of which are now included in the Greater Xiamen area. This dialect developed in the late Ming dynasty when Xiamen was increasingly taking over Quanzhou's position as the main port of trade in southeastern China. Quanzhou traders began travelling southwards to Xiamen to carry on their businesses while Zhangzhou peasants began traveling northwards to Xiamen in search of job opportunities. It is at this time when a need for a common language arose. The Quanzhou and Zhangzhou varieties are similar in many ways (as can be seen from the common place of Henan Luoyang where they originated), but due to differences in accents, communication can be a problem. Quanzhou businessmen considered their speech to be the prestige accent and considered Zhangzhou's to be a village dialect. Over the centuries, dialect leveling occurred and the two speeches mixed to produce the Amoy dialect.
What Chinese dialect has more consonants than standard Mandarin or Cantonese?
5726b8385951b619008f7bb7
Hokkien
0
False
How do Hokkien vowels compare to Standard Mandarin vowels?
5726b8385951b619008f7bb8
similar
163
False
What do Hokkein varieties retain that are no longer found in other Chinese varieties?
5726b8385951b619008f7bb9
many pronunciations
226
False
Hokkien has one of the most diverse what, among Chinese varieties?
5726b8385951b619008f7bba
phoneme inventories
36
False
consonants
91
What do Mandarin and Cantonese have more of than Hokkien?
5a13416ac8eab200188dc947
True
Hokkien
0
What other vowels are similar to Cantonese vowels?
5a13416ac8eab200188dc948
True
many pronunciations
226
What do Hokkien varieties nolonger have that are still found in other Chinese varieties?
5a13416ac8eab200188dc949
True
Hokkien
0
What is one of the least diverse phoneme among Chinese varieties?
5a13416ac8eab200188dc94a
True
one of the most diverse phoneme inventories
12
What does Cantonese have more of among Chinese varieties?
5a1de6524ea40d0018b06fe1
True
more-or-less similar
150
In Hokkien how do the type of diverse phoneme compare to Standard Mandarin?
5a1de6524ea40d0018b06fe2
True
many pronunciations
226
What does Mandarin have that isn't found in other Chinese varieties?
5a1de6524ea40d0018b06fe3
True
/tʂ/ (Pinyin 'zh')
360
What has the retention of Cantonese become now in Mandarin?
5a1de6524ea40d0018b06fe4
True
more consonants
86
What do Chinese varieties have more of than Standard Mandarin?
5a1de6524ea40d0018b06fe5
True
Hokkien has one of the most diverse phoneme inventories among Chinese varieties, with more consonants than Standard Mandarin or Cantonese. Vowels are more-or-less similar to that of Standard Mandarin. Hokkien varieties retain many pronunciations that are no longer found in other Chinese varieties. These include the retention of the /t/ initial, which is now /tʂ/ (Pinyin 'zh') in Mandarin (e.g. 'bamboo' 竹 is tik, but zhú in Mandarin), having disappeared before the 6th century in other Chinese varieties.
How many phonemic tones do Hokkien dialects have?
5726bc4d5951b619008f7c6f
5 to 7
34
False
What is another name for phonemic tones?
5726bc4d5951b619008f7c70
tone classes
176
False
What type of variations are there between the Quanznou and Zhangzhou tone system?
5726bc4d5951b619008f7c71
minor
315
False
What patterns do Taiwanese tones follow?
5726bc4d5951b619008f7c72
Amoy or Quanzhou
420
False
What is the pattern used un Taiwanese tones determined by?
5726bc4d5951b619008f7c73
the area of Taiwan
451
False
Hokkien dialects
12
What dialects has less than 5 phonemic tones?
5a1342dac8eab200188dc94f
True
7 to 9
121
How many tones are there in modern Chimese?
5a1342dac8eab200188dc950
True
Zhangzhou tone systems
357
What system has major variations from Quanznou tone system?
5a1342dac8eab200188dc951
True
in special or foreign loan words.
579
When is the extra tone 8 used?
5a1342dac8eab200188dc952
True
sandhi
284
What tone is not extensive?
5a1342dac8eab200188dc953
True
5 to 7
34
How many phonemic tones do sandhi dialects have?
5a1e08313de3f40018b2645c
True
Quanzhou and Zhangzhou tone systems
344
What two tone systems have an additional phonemic tone?
5a1e08313de3f40018b2645d
True
Hokkien
12
Name the foreign loan words that have 5 to 7 phonemic tones?
5a1e08313de3f40018b2645e
True
the patterns of Amoy or Quanzhou
404
What do Hokkien tones follow depending on where you are in Taiwan?
5a1e08313de3f40018b2645f
True
only in special or foreign loan words.
574
When do dialects use entering tones according to traditional reckoning?
5a1e08313de3f40018b26460
True
In general, Hokkien dialects have 5 to 7 phonemic tones. According to the traditional Chinese system, however, there are 7 to 9 "tones",[citation needed] more correctly termed tone classes since two of them are non-phonemic "entering tones" (see the discussion on Chinese tone). Tone sandhi is extensive. There are minor variations between the Quanzhou and Zhangzhou tone systems. Taiwanese tones follow the patterns of Amoy or Quanzhou, depending on the area of Taiwan. Many dialects have an additional phonemic tone ("tone 9" according to the traditional reckoning), used only in special or foreign loan words.
The Amoy dialect is a hybrid of what two dialects?
5726bdacf1498d1400e8e9b6
Quanzhou and Zhangzhou
45
False
Besides Amoy, what is another hybrid of Quanzhou and Zhangzhou?
5726bdacf1498d1400e8e9b7
Taiwanese
78
False
What is Taiwanese in Northern Taiwan based on?
5726bdacf1498d1400e8e9b8
Quanzhou
182
False
What is Taiwanese in Southern Taiwan based on?
5726bdacf1498d1400e8e9b9
Zhangzhou speech
269
False
In Singapore, the varient of Hokkien has a significant amount of loanwords from where?
5726bdacf1498d1400e8e9ba
Malay
652
False
the Quanzhou and Zhangzhou dialects
41
What is the Malay dialect a hybrid of?
5a1e0aaf3de3f40018b26470
True
minor variations in pronunciation and vocabulary
297
What are the differences between Taiwanese and Chinese dialects?
5a1e0aaf3de3f40018b26471
True
Singapore and Malaysia
585
What area is Teochew spoken, that also has loanwords from Malay?
5a1e0aaf3de3f40018b26472
True
Taiwanese Hokkien
524
Contact with China has lead to loanwords in what dialect?
5a1e0aaf3de3f40018b26473
True
the Quanzhou variety
178
What is Hokkien in northern Taiwan based on?
5a1e0aaf3de3f40018b26474
True
The Amoy dialect (Xiamen) is a hybrid of the Quanzhou and Zhangzhou dialects. Taiwanese is also a hybrid of these two dialects. Taiwanese in northern Taiwan tends to be based on the Quanzhou variety, whereas the Taiwanese spoken in southern Taiwan tends to be based on Zhangzhou speech. There are minor variations in pronunciation and vocabulary between Quanzhou and Zhangzhou dialects. The grammar is generally the same. Additionally, extensive contact with the Japanese language has left a legacy of Japanese loanwords in Taiwanese Hokkien. On the other hand, the variants spoken in Singapore and Malaysia have a substantial number of loanwords from Malay and to a lesser extent, from English and other Chinese varieties, such as the closely related Teochew and some Cantonese.
In Hokkien dialects, the arrangent of words is important to what?
5726bf4d708984140094d039
meaning
91
False
What pattern does a basic Hokkien sentence follow?
5726bf4d708984140094d03a
subject–verb–object
129
False
Being topic prominant, what basic sentence pattern is often not used?
5726bf4d708984140094d03b
subject–verb–object
129
False
Unlike synthetic languages, what do Hokkien sentences not indicate?
5726bf4d708984140094d03c
time, gender and plural
350
False
What is added to sentences to specify status or tone?
5726bf4d708984140094d03d
Different particles
520
False
in a sentence, the arrangement of words is important to its meaning.
31
How are synthetic languages analytic?
5a1e0d603de3f40018b2647a
True
subject–verb–object
129
What pattern do basic concept languages follow?
5a1e0d603de3f40018b2647b
True
Hokkien dialects are topic-prominent
259
How do grammatical particles violate the usual pattern?
5a1e0d603de3f40018b2647c
True
Different particles
520
What is added to a sentence to specify plural by inflection?
5a1e0d603de3f40018b2647d
True
meaning
91
With aspect markers, what is word arrangement important to?
5a1e0d603de3f40018b2647e
True
Hokkien dialects are analytic; in a sentence, the arrangement of words is important to its meaning. A basic sentence follows the subject–verb–object pattern (i.e. a subject is followed by a verb then by an object), though this order is often violated because Hokkien dialects are topic-prominent. Unlike synthetic languages, seldom do words indicate time, gender and plural by inflection. Instead, these concepts are expressed through adverbs, aspect markers, and grammatical particles, or are deduced from the context. Different particles are added to a sentence to further specify its status or intonation.
What are literary and colloquial readings called?
5726c099708984140094d085
tha̍k-im
65
False
What is another name for colloquial?
5726c099708984140094d086
vernacular)
436
False
Literary readings are usually used where?
5726c099708984140094d087
formal phrases and written language
312
False
colloquial reading are usually used where?
5726c099708984140094d088
spoken language and vulgar phrases
492
False
tha̍k-im
65
What is another term for philosophical concepts that are prominent in Hokkien dialects as well as Sinitic varieties?
5a1e125f3de3f40018b26496
True
tha̍k-im
65
What are Sinitic and philosophical concepts called?
5a1e125f3de3f40018b26497
True
Tang standard of Middle Chinese
592
To what standard are Hokken dialects similar to?
5a1e125f3de3f40018b26498
True
The existence of literary and colloquial readings
0
What is a prominent feature of the Tang standard and also in Sinitic varieties?
5a1e125f3de3f40018b26499
True
pronunciations of the vernacular during the Tang Dynasty
235
What are the bulk of surnames based on?
5a1e125f3de3f40018b2649a
True
The existence of literary and colloquial readings (文白異讀), called tha̍k-im (讀音), is a prominent feature of some Hokkien dialects and indeed in many Sinitic varieties in the south. The bulk of literary readings (文讀, bûn-tha̍k), based on pronunciations of the vernacular during the Tang Dynasty, are mainly used in formal phrases and written language (e.g. philosophical concepts, surnames, and some place names), while the colloquial (or vernacular) ones (白讀, pe̍h-tha̍k) are basically used in spoken language and vulgar phrases. Literary readings are more similar to the pronunciations of the Tang standard of Middle Chinese than their colloquial equivalents.
Colloquial stratum can be traced to several strata in what lexicon?
5726c1a65951b619008f7d61
Min
154
False
The earliest colloquial stratum can be traced to what?
5726c1a65951b619008f7d62
Han dynasty
217
False
When was the Han Dynasty?
5726c1a65951b619008f7d63
206 BCE - 220 CE
230
False
When were the Southern and Northern Dynasties?
5726c1a65951b619008f7d64
420 - 589 CE
337
False
When was the Tang Dynasty?
5726c1a65951b619008f7d65
618–907 CE
443
False
the Han dynasty (206 BCE - 220 CE
213
In what era did the earliest divergence between literary pronunciations begin?
5a1e14bf3de3f40018b264a0
True
the period of the Southern and Northern Dynasties (420 - 589 CE)
286
When did the second prestige dialect appear?
5a1e14bf3de3f40018b264a1
True
618–907 CE
443
During the Tang Dynasty, in what year did the earliest stratum appear?
5a1e14bf3de3f40018b264a2
True
Min lexicon
154
What lexicon can the prestige dialect be traced to?
5a1e14bf3de3f40018b264a3
True
the Han dynasty (206 BCE - 220 CE)
213
What period does the earliest Min Lexicon come from?
5a1e14bf3de3f40018b264a4
True
The pronounced divergence between literary and colloquial pronunciations found in Hokkien dialects is attributed to the presence of several strata in the Min lexicon. The earliest, colloquial stratum is traced to the Han dynasty (206 BCE - 220 CE); the second colloquial one comes from the period of the Southern and Northern Dynasties (420 - 589 CE); the third stratum of pronunciations (typically literary ones) comes from the Tang Dynasty (618–907 CE) and is based on the prestige dialect of Chang'an (modern day Xi'an), its capital.
Where did the language of Min and Wu dialects originate?
5726c2cc5951b619008f7d85
in the state of Wu
57
False
Chinese spoken in Wu was influenced by Chinese spoken where?
5726c2cc5951b619008f7d86
the state of Chu
205
False
Many middle chinese words have retained their meanings in Hokkein but not in what?
5726c2cc5951b619008f7d87
Mandarin Chinese
419
False
the state of Wu
60
What location did the language of Mandarin Chinese originate?
5a1e16ec3de3f40018b264aa
True
the state of Chu
205
What state was not founded by Hokkien?
5a1e16ec3de3f40018b264ab
True
have been substituted with other words
473
What is one thing that has happened to the Old Chinese counterparts?
5a1e16ec3de3f40018b264ac
True
some lexical meaning evolved in step with Mandarin while others are wholly innovative developments.
678
What changes have happened to Wu compared to Mandarin?
5a1e16ec3de3f40018b264ad
True
Mandarin Chinese
419
Many lexical meaning words have stayed the same in Hokkien but not in what language?
5a1e16ec3de3f40018b264ae
True
Quite a few words from the variety of Old Chinese spoken in the state of Wu (where the ancestral language of Min and Wu dialect families originated and which was likely influenced by the Chinese spoken in the state of Chu which itself was not founded by Chinese speakers),[citation needed] and later words from Middle Chinese as well, have retained the original meanings in Hokkien, while many of their counterparts in Mandarin Chinese have either fallen out of daily use, have been substituted with other words (some of which are borrowed from other languages while others are new developments), or have developed newer meanings. The same may be said of Hokkien as well, since some lexical meaning evolved in step with Mandarin while others are wholly innovative developments.
Where did Hokkein originate?
5726c3e95951b619008f7d8b
Quanzhou
24
False
What year was the Opium war?
5726c3e95951b619008f7d8c
1842
57
False
What is another name for Xiamen?
5726c3e95951b619008f7d8d
Amoy
71
False
What port became one of the major treaty ports after the Opium War?
5726c3e95951b619008f7d8e
Xiamen
63
False
What dialect did western diplomats learn to communicate with the Hokkien speaking people in China?
5726c3e95951b619008f7d8f
Amoy Hokkien
498
False
Xiamen (Amoy)
63
After the 1940's and 1950's Opium War, what became a major treaty port?
5a1e183b3de3f40018b264be
True
the political and economical center of the Hokkien-speaking region in China.
226
What did Zhangzhou slowly develop into?
5a1e183b3de3f40018b264bf
True
Amoy Hokkien
669
In the 1940's and 1950's what did Quanzhou use as its standard dialect?
5a1e183b3de3f40018b264c0
True
1842
57
In what year was South-East Asia war?
5a1e183b3de3f40018b264c1
True
Quanzhou
24
Where did Taiwan originate from?
5a1e183b3de3f40018b264c2
True
Hokkien originated from Quanzhou. After the Opium War in 1842, Xiamen (Amoy) became one of the major treaty ports to be opened for trade with the outside world. From mid-19th century onwards, Xiamen slowly developed to become the political and economical center of the Hokkien-speaking region in China. This caused Amoy dialect to gradually replace the position of dialect variants from Quanzhou and Zhangzhou. From mid-19th century until the end of World War II, western diplomats usually learned Amoy Hokkien as the preferred dialect if they were to communicate with the Hokkien-speaking populace in China or South-East Asia. In the 1940s and 1950s, Taiwan also held Amoy Hokkien as its standard and tended to incline itself towards Amoy dialect.
When did Taiwanese Hokkien have a fast change in development?
5726c709f1498d1400e8eb02
In the 1990s
0
False
What year did Taiwan begin teaching Hokkien in schools?
5726c709f1498d1400e8eb03
1993
172
False
What year did it become mandatory to teach Hokkien in Taiwan schools?
5726c709f1498d1400e8eb04
2001
294
False
What is the name of the standard Hokkien pronunciation and romanization guide?
5726c709f1498d1400e8eb05
Tai-lo
801
False
What year did the Ministry of Education develope tai-lo?
5726c709f1498d1400e8eb06
2007
663
False
In the 1990s
0
When did Tai-lo develop at a fast pace?
5a1e1aa53de3f40018b264c8
True
1993
172
In what year did Taiwan begin teaching poetry in Taiwanese schools?
5a1e1aa53de3f40018b264c9
True
In 2001
291
When did Xiamen become compulsory in schools?
5a1e1aa53de3f40018b264ca
True
A number of universities in Taiwan
870
Who offers poetry or literature courses for training Hokkien-fluent talents?
5a1e1aa53de3f40018b264cb
True
all schools in Taiwan
361
Where was Tai-lo extended to in 2001?
5a1e1aa53de3f40018b264cc
True
In the 1990s, marked by the liberalization of language development and mother tongue movement in Taiwan, Taiwanese Hokkien had undergone a fast pace in its development. In 1993, Taiwan became the first region in the world to implement the teaching of Taiwanese Hokkien in Taiwanese schools. In 2001, the local Taiwanese language program was further extended to all schools in Taiwan, and Taiwanese Hokkien became one of the compulsory local Taiwanese languages to be learned in schools. The mother tongue movement in Taiwan even influenced Xiamen (Amoy) to the point that in 2010, Xiamen also began to implement the teaching of Hokkien dialect in its schools. In 2007, the Ministry of Education in Taiwan also completed the standardization of Chinese characters used for writing Hokkien and developed Tai-lo as the standard Hokkien pronunciation and romanization guide. A number of universities in Taiwan also offer Hokkien degree courses for training Hokkien-fluent talents to work for the Hokkien media industry and education. Taiwan also has its own Hokkien literary and cultural circles whereby Hokkien poets and writers compose poetry or literature in Hokkien on a regular basis.
Hokkien is usually written using what characters?
5726c81ef1498d1400e8eb16
Chinese
45
False
Written Hokkein is based on what?
5726c81ef1498d1400e8eb17
classical Chinese
170
False
What is another name for standard written chinese?
5726c81ef1498d1400e8eb18
Mandarin
271
False
Approximately what percentage of Chinese morphemes lack a standard chinese character?
5726c81ef1498d1400e8eb19
20 to 25%
527
False
about 20 to 25%
521
What percentage of written Chinese lacks a standard Chinese character?
5a1e1c4b3de3f40018b264d2
True
using Chinese characters
39
How is Cantonese usually written?
5a1e1c4b3de3f40018b264d3
True
the character inventory
238
What is used for Mandarin but doesn't correspond to Taiwanese words?
5a1e1c4b3de3f40018b264d4
True
classical Chinese
170
What is written Cantonese based on?
5a1e1c4b3de3f40018b264d5
True
the written script
87
What is adapted to the spoken form of Chinese?
5a1e1c4b3de3f40018b264d6
True
Hokkien dialects are typically written using Chinese characters (漢字, Hàn-jī). However, the written script was and remains adapted to the literary form, which is based on classical Chinese, not the vernacular and spoken form. Furthermore, the character inventory used for Mandarin (standard written Chinese) does not correspond to Hokkien words, and there are a large number of informal characters (替字, thè-jī or thòe-jī; 'substitute characters') which are unique to Hokkien (as is the case with Cantonese). For instance, about 20 to 25% of Taiwanese morphemes lack an appropriate or standard Chinese character.
Most Hokkein morphemes have what type of characters?
5726c95cf1498d1400e8eb30
standard designated
34
False
In some cases, charcters are invented to represent what?
5726c95cf1498d1400e8eb31
a particular morpheme
730
False
Hokkien morphemes are not always what?
5726c95cf1498d1400e8eb32
etymological or phono-semantic
86
False
What are often borrowed to represent a particular morpheme?
5726c95cf1498d1400e8eb33
Similar-sounding, similar-meaning or rare characters
118
False
Similar-sounding, similar-meaning or rare characters
118
What are borrowed in Taiwanese to represent a certain morpheme?
5a1e20f93de3f40018b264dc
True
multiple and unrelated pronunciations
874
What do some literary readings have to represent Hokkien words?
5a1e20f93de3f40018b264dd
True
standard designated
34
What type of characters do most colloquial mophemes have?
5a1e20f93de3f40018b264de
True
they are not always etymological or phono-semantic.
66
What characteristic do personal pronouns not always have?
5a1e20f93de3f40018b264df
True
characters
693
What are invented to represent a multiple and unrelated pronunciation?
5a1e20f93de3f40018b264e0
True
While most Hokkien morphemes have standard designated characters, they are not always etymological or phono-semantic. Similar-sounding, similar-meaning or rare characters are commonly borrowed or substituted to represent a particular morpheme. Examples include "beautiful" (美 bí is the literary form), whose vernacular morpheme suí is represented by characters like 媠 (an obsolete character), 婎 (a vernacular reading of this character) and even 水 (transliteration of the sound suí), or "tall" (高 ko is the literary form), whose morpheme kôan is 懸. Common grammatical particles are not exempt; the negation particle m̄ (not) is variously represented by 毋, 呣 or 唔, among others. In other cases, characters are invented to represent a particular morpheme (a common example is the character 𪜶 in, which represents the personal pronoun "they"). In addition, some characters have multiple and unrelated pronunciations, adapted to represent Hokkien words. For example, the Hokkien word bah ("meat") has been reduced to the character 肉, which has etymologically unrelated colloquial and literary readings (he̍k and jio̍k, respectively). Another case is the word 'to eat,' chia̍h, which is often transcribed in Taiwanese newspapers and media as 呷 (a Mandarin transliteration, xiā, to approximate the Hokkien term), even though its recommended character in dictionaries is 食.
Hokkien is sometimes written in what script?
5726ca3ddd62a815002e905e
Latin
59
False
What is the name of the traditional Chinese alphabet?
5726ca3ddd62a815002e905f
Pe̍h-ōe-jī
133
False
What is another name for POJ?
5726ca3ddd62a815002e9060
Pe̍h-ōe-jī
133
False
Who developed POJ?
5726ca3ddd62a815002e9061
Presbyterian missionaries in China
242
False
POJ alphabet has been used since late in what century?
5726ca3ddd62a815002e9062
19th
399
False
Pe̍h-ōe-jī
133
What is the traditional Latin alphabet called?
5a1e22e53de3f40018b264e6
True
Presbyterian missionaries in China
242
Who first developed a mixed script of Han characters?
5a1e22e53de3f40018b264e7
True
POJ
215
What is another name for Latin script?
5a1e22e53de3f40018b264e8
True
since the late 19th century
384
How long has the mixed script been actively used?
5a1e22e53de3f40018b264e9
True
Hokkien
0
What is written in the simplified Chinese script using one of several alphabets?
5a1e22e53de3f40018b264ea
True
Hokkien, especially Taiwanese, is sometimes written in the Latin script using one of several alphabets. Of these the most popular is Pe̍h-ōe-jī (traditional Chinese: 白話字; simplified Chinese: 白话字; pinyin: Báihuàzì). POJ was developed first by Presbyterian missionaries in China and later by the indigenous Presbyterian Church in Taiwan; use of this alphabet has been actively promoted since the late 19th century. The use of a mixed script of Han characters and Latin letters is also seen, though remains uncommon. Other Latin-based alphabets also exist.
When can Min Nan texts be dated back to?
5726cb65dd62a815002e9072
the 16th century
49
False
What is an example of the Min Nan Texts?
5726cb65dd62a815002e9073
Doctrina Christiana en letra y lengua china
86
False
What year was Doctrina Christiana en letra y lengua china written?
5726cb65dd62a815002e9074
after 1587
150
False
Who wrote Doctrina Christiana en letra y lengua china?
5726cb65dd62a815002e9075
Spanish Dominicans in the Philippines
168
False
What is the name of the earliest Southern Min colloquial text?
5726cb65dd62a815002e9076
Romance of the Lychee Mirror
257
False
Xiamen University
348
Who has developed an alphabet based on Pumindian?
5a1e246f3de3f40018b264f0
True
a dictionary called the Minnan Fangyan-Putonghua Cidian (閩南方言普通話詞典)
442
Where has the alphabet based on the Ming Dynasty script been published?
5a1e246f3de3f40018b264f1
True
the Doctrina Christiana en letra y lengua china
82
What is an example of the Pumindian texts?
5a1e246f3de3f40018b264f2
True
the Spanish Dominicans in the Philippines
164
After 1587 who wrote the Pumindian?
5a1e246f3de3f40018b264f3
True
1566
287
When was the play Minnan Fangyan-Putonghua Cidian written?
5a1e246f3de3f40018b264f4
True
Min Nan texts, all Hokkien, can be dated back to the 16th century. One example is the Doctrina Christiana en letra y lengua china, presumably written after 1587 by the Spanish Dominicans in the Philippines. Another is a Ming Dynasty script of a play called Romance of the Lychee Mirror (1566), supposedly the earliest Southern Min colloquial text. Xiamen University has also developed an alphabet based on Pinyin, which has been published in a dictionary called the Minnan Fangyan-Putonghua Cidian (閩南方言普通話詞典) and a language teaching book, which is used to teach the language to foreigners and Chinese non-speakers. It is known as Pumindian.
What is another name for unicode?
5726cc7d5951b619008f7e6d
the corresponding ISO/IEC 10646: Universal Character Set
81
False
Using precomposed or combining characters is called what?
5726cc7d5951b619008f7e6e
diacritics
172
False
All LAtin characters required by POJ can be represented by what?
5726cc7d5951b619008f7e6f
Unicode
69
False
the corresponding ISO/IEC 10646: Universal Character Set)
81
What is another term for interpunct?
5a1e277e3de3f40018b264fa
True
the vowel akin to but more open than o, written with a dot above right
216
What was not encoded before 1997?
5a1e277e3de3f40018b264fb
True
to encode a new combining character dot above right
613
Before June 2004, what proposal has been made to the ISO/IEC?
5a1e277e3de3f40018b264fc
True
Unicode
69
What can all vowels required by POJ be represented by?
5a1e277e3de3f40018b264fd
True
Font support
763
What is expected to follow using diacritics?
5a1e277e3de3f40018b264fe
True
All Latin characters required by Pe̍h-ōe-jī can be represented using Unicode (or the corresponding ISO/IEC 10646: Universal Character Set), using precomposed or combining (diacritics) characters. Prior to June 2004, the vowel akin to but more open than o, written with a dot above right, was not encoded. The usual workaround was to use the (stand-alone; spacing) character Interpunct (U+00B7, ·) or less commonly the combining character dot above (U+0307). As these are far from ideal, since 1997 proposals have been submitted to the ISO/IEC working group in charge of ISO/IEC 10646—namely, ISO/IEC JTC1/SC2/WG2—to encode a new combining character dot above right. This is now officially assigned to U+0358 (see documents N1593, N2507, N2628, N2699, and N2713). Font support is expected to follow.
What party wanted to make Taiwanese a second official language?
5726cdfc5951b619008f7e89
Taiwan Solidarity Union
13
False
What year was it proposed to make Taiwanese the second official language?
5726cdfc5951b619008f7e8a
2002
3
False
How was the proposal taken from mainland and aboriginal groups?
5726cdfc5951b619008f7e8b
This proposal encountered strong opposition
159
False
Hoklo objected to the proposal because it would increase what tensions?
5726cdfc5951b619008f7e8c
ethnic
466
False
What was the fate of the proposal to make Taiwanese the second official language?
5726cdfc5951b619008f7e8d
the proposal did not pass
601
False
making Taiwanese a second official language
114
What did Mainlander groups suggest in 2002?
5a1e29a63de3f40018b26504
True
about 10%
51
How many seats in the legislature did Taiwanese aboriginal groups have in 2002?
5a1e29a63de3f40018b26505
True
Mainlander groups but also from Hakka and Taiwanese aboriginal groups
217
What groups suggested making Taiwanese a second official language?
5a1e29a63de3f40018b26506
True
increase ethnic tensions
457
What would increase according to Taiwan independence supporters who strongly opposed the proposal?
5a1e29a63de3f40018b26507
True
the proposal did not pass
601
What happened to the proposal about the Legislative Yuan seats?
5a1e29a63de3f40018b26508
True
In 2002, the Taiwan Solidarity Union, a party with about 10% of the Legislative Yuan seats at the time, suggested making Taiwanese a second official language. This proposal encountered strong opposition not only from Mainlander groups but also from Hakka and Taiwanese aboriginal groups who felt that it would slight their home languages, as well as others including Hoklo who objected to the proposal on logistical grounds and on the grounds that it would increase ethnic tensions. Because of these objections, support for this measure was lukewarm among moderate Taiwan independence supporters, and the proposal did not pass.
Professional_wrestling
What is professional wrestling abbreviated as?
57262c2c271a42140099d6ef
pro wrestling
52
False
What are a couple of styles of combat based on?
57262c2c271a42140099d6f0
classical wrestling, catch wrestling
309
False
Who are live events held by?
57262c2c271a42140099d6f1
touring promotions
196
False
What is professional wrestling?
57262c2c271a42140099d6f2
an athletic form of entertainment based on a portrayal of a combat sport
83
False
What kind of style does wrestling show?
57262c2c271a42140099d6f3
it portrays a unique style of combat based on a combination of adopted styles, which include classical wrestling
216
False
Professional wrestling (colloquially abbreviated to pro wrestling or wrestling) is an athletic form of entertainment based on a portrayal of a combat sport. Taking the form of live events held by touring promotions, it portrays a unique style of combat based on a combination of adopted styles, which include classical wrestling, catch wrestling and various forms of martial arts, as well as an innovative style based on grappling (holds/throws), striking, and aerialism. Various forms of weaponry are sometimes used.
How are the actions conducted?
57262d8f89a1e219009ac4fc
the combative actions and reactions are executed in special manners designed to both protect from, yet simulate, pain
58
False
What are the fan encouraged to do?
57262d8f89a1e219009ac4fd
willing suspension of disbelief for the audience
404
False
How is the end result of the match planned out?
57262d8f89a1e219009ac4fe
match outcomes is choreographed
22
False
What do wrestlers have to say about the realness or fakeness of the matches?
57262d8f89a1e219009ac4ff
will often directly acknowledge the fictional nature of the spectacle.
594
False
The content including match outcomes is choreographed and the combative actions and reactions are executed in special manners designed to both protect from, yet simulate, pain. These facts were once kept highly secret, but they are now openly declared as the truth. By and large, the true nature of the content is ignored by the performing promotion in official media in order to sustain and promote the willing suspension of disbelief for the audience by maintaining an aura of verisimilitude. Fan communications by individual wrestlers and promotions through outside media (i.e., interviews) will often directly acknowledge the fictional nature of the spectacle.
What part of the world has wrestling become less popular in?
57262e6bec44d21400f3dbc7
it has greatly declined in Europe
367
False
Where did wrestling originally come from?
57262e6bec44d21400f3dbc8
Originating as a popular form of entertainment in 19th-century Europe
0
False
Where was wrestling later showcased in North America?
57262e6bec44d21400f3dbc9
later as a sideshow exhibition in North American traveling carnivals and vaudeville halls
74
False
What is wrestling now thought to be?
57262e6bec44d21400f3dbca
is now considered a multimillion-dollar entertainment industry
297
False
What did television do for wrestling?
57262e6bec44d21400f3dbcb
The advent of television gave professional wrestling a new outlet
541
False
Originating as a popular form of entertainment in 19th-century Europe and later as a sideshow exhibition in North American traveling carnivals and vaudeville halls, professional wrestling grew into a standalone genre of entertainment with many diverse variations in cultures around the globe, and is now considered a multimillion-dollar entertainment industry. While it has greatly declined in Europe, in North America it has experienced several different periods of prominent cultural popularity during its century and a half of existence. The advent of television gave professional wrestling a new outlet, and wrestling (along with boxing) was instrumental in making pay-per-view a viable method of content delivery.
Where does the money made from wrestling come from?
5726316889a1e219009ac538
live event ticket sales, network television broadcasts, pay-per-view broadcasts, personal appearances by performers, branded merchandise and home video
167
False
Where large places are some of the major wrestling shows held at?
5726316889a1e219009ac539
Madison Square Garden, as well as football stadiums
450
False
What has the internet been utilized for in wrestling?
5726316889a1e219009ac53a
to air web shows, internet pay-per-views (iPPVs) or on-demand content
940
False
what wrestling shows occur yearly?
5726316889a1e219009ac53b
WrestleMania, SummerSlam, Royal Rumble, and formerly Bash at the Beach, Halloween Havoc and Starrcade
693
False
In which decade did wrestling start becoming very popular?
5726316889a1e219009ac53c
Particularly since the 1950s, pro wrestling events have frequently been responsible for sellout crowds at large arenas
320
False
Although professional wrestling started out as petty acts in sideshows, traveling circuses and carnivals, today it is a billion-dollar industry. Revenue is drawn from live event ticket sales, network television broadcasts, pay-per-view broadcasts, personal appearances by performers, branded merchandise and home video. Particularly since the 1950s, pro wrestling events have frequently been responsible for sellout crowds at large arenas, including Madison Square Garden, as well as football stadiums, by promotions including the WWE, the NWA territory system, WCW, and AWA. Pro wrestling was also instrumental in making pay-per-view a viable method of content delivery. Annual shows such as WrestleMania, SummerSlam, Royal Rumble, and formerly Bash at the Beach, Halloween Havoc and Starrcade are among the highest-selling pay-per-view programming each year. In modern day, internet programming has been utilized by a number of companies to air web shows, internet pay-per-views (iPPVs) or on-demand content, helping to generate internet-related revenue earnings from the evolving World Wide Web.
What is one popular wrestling film?
5726320889a1e219009ac542
2008 film The Wrestler
443
False
What award was The Wrestler nominated for?
5726320889a1e219009ac543
several Oscar nominations
475
False
What are the names of a couple wrestling documentaries?
5726320889a1e219009ac544
Beyond the Mat directed by Barry W. Blaustein, and Wrestling with Shadows
249
False
Where does wrestling keep coming up as a subject?
5726320889a1e219009ac545
in both academia and the media
127
False
Due to its persistent cultural presence and to its novelty within the performing arts, wrestling constitutes a recurring topic in both academia and the media. Several documentaries have been produced looking at professional wrestling, most notably, Beyond the Mat directed by Barry W. Blaustein, and Wrestling with Shadows featuring wrestler Bret Hart and directed by Paul Jay. There have also been many fictional depictions of wrestling; the 2008 film The Wrestler received several Oscar nominations and began a career revival for star Mickey Rourke.
What is the biggest wrestling company?
572632cf89a1e219009ac55e
the United States-based WWE
67
False
Which companies are some of WWE's competition?
572632cf89a1e219009ac55f
WCW and Extreme Championship Wrestling (ECW)
209
False
What are some other major wrestling companies?
572632cf89a1e219009ac560
Total Nonstop Action Wrestling (TNA) and Ring of Honor (ROH), Consejo Mundial de Lucha Libre (CMLL) and Asistencia Asesoría y Administración (AAA)
349
False
What is the name of a Japanese wrestling company?
572632cf89a1e219009ac561
Japanese New Japan Pro Wrestling (NJPW)
515
False
Currently, the largest professional wrestling company worldwide is the United States-based WWE, which bought out many smaller regional companies in the late 20th century, as well as its primary US competitors WCW and Extreme Championship Wrestling (ECW) in early 2001. Other prominent professional wrestling companies worldwide include the US-based Total Nonstop Action Wrestling (TNA) and Ring of Honor (ROH), Consejo Mundial de Lucha Libre (CMLL) and Asistencia Asesoría y Administración (AAA) in Mexico, and the Japanese New Japan Pro Wrestling (NJPW), All Japan Pro Wrestling (AJPW), and Pro Wrestling Noah (NOAH) leagues.
Who confessed that wrestling was not competition?
5726338138643c19005ad2e9
prominent figures in the wrestling business (including WWE owner Vince McMahon)
88
False
How have people reacted to the revelation that wrestling is purely entertainment?
5726338138643c19005ad2ea
This public reveal has garnered mixed reactions from the wrestling community
243
False
How do many U.S. states handle wrestling?
5726338138643c19005ad2eb
many U.S. states still regulate professional wrestling as they do other professional competitive sports
501
False
Gradually, the predetermined nature of professional wrestling became an open secret, as prominent figures in the wrestling business (including WWE owner Vince McMahon) began to publicly admit that wrestling was entertainment, not competition. This public reveal has garnered mixed reactions from the wrestling community, as some feel that exposure ruins the experience to the spectators as does exposure in illusionism. Despite the public admission of the theatrical nature of professional wrestling, many U.S. states still regulate professional wrestling as they do other professional competitive sports. For example, New York State still regulates "professional wrestling" through the New York State Athletic Commission (SAC).
How do the wrestlers treat the audience?
57263451ec44d21400f3dc35
The audience is recognized and acknowledged by the performers as spectators
248
False
How does the audience being acknowledged by the wrestlers impact the show?
57263451ec44d21400f3dc36
This leads to a high level of audience participation
403
False
What can the audience do during a show?
57263451ec44d21400f3dc37
their reactions can dictate how the performance unfolds.
466
False
What kind of conflict can arise during a show?
57263451ec44d21400f3dc38
Often, individual matches will be part of a longer storyline conflict between "babyfaces" (often shortened to just "faces") and "heels".
523
False
Which of the wrestlers are the bad guys?
57263451ec44d21400f3dc39
"heels" (the "bad guys")
765
False
Professional wrestling shows can be considered a form of theatre in the round, with the ring, ringside area, and entryway comprising a thrust stage. However, there is a much more limited concept of a fourth wall than in most theatric performances. The audience is recognized and acknowledged by the performers as spectators to the sporting event being portrayed, and are encouraged to interact as such. This leads to a high level of audience participation; in fact, their reactions can dictate how the performance unfolds. Often, individual matches will be part of a longer storyline conflict between "babyfaces" (often shortened to just "faces") and "heels". "Faces" (the "good guys") are those whose actions are intended to encourage the audience to cheer, while "heels" (the "bad guys") act to draw the spectators' ire.
Who wins in a wrestling match?
572634fc271a42140099d76d
the first side to achieve the majority number of pinfalls, submissions, or countouts being the winner.
60
False
How could a wrestler win in the past?
572634fc271a42140099d76e
Historically, matches were wrestled to 3 falls ("best 2 out of 3") or 5 falls ("best 3 out of 5").
163
False
How can a wrestler win in modern times?
572634fc271a42140099d76f
The standard for modern matches is one fall.
262
False
In what instance will a match be declared a draw?
572634fc271a42140099d770
if not enough falls are scored by the end of the time limit, the match is declared a draw.
509
False
How long can a title match be?
572634fc271a42140099d771
title matches can go for up to one hour
687
False
Most wrestling matches last for a set number of falls, with the first side to achieve the majority number of pinfalls, submissions, or countouts being the winner. Historically, matches were wrestled to 3 falls ("best 2 out of 3") or 5 falls ("best 3 out of 5"). The standard for modern matches is one fall. However, even though it is now standard, many announcers will explicitly state this (e.g. "The following contest is set for one fall with a 20-minute time limit"). These matches are given a time limit; if not enough falls are scored by the end of the time limit, the match is declared a draw. Modern matches are generally given a 10- to 30-minute time limit for standard matches; title matches can go for up to one hour. British wrestling matches held under Admiral-Lord Mountevans rules are 2 out of 3 falls.
What happens when a wrestler has a fall against them?
572635e3271a42140099d787
is forced out of the match
121
False
What kind of rules does a poly-sided match usually have?
572635e3271a42140099d788
no holds barred rules
854
False
What usually happens when two or more wrestlers are involved?
572635e3271a42140099d789
to simply go one fall, with the one scoring the fall, regardless of who they scored it against, being the winner.
271
False
How can a champion lose a championship?
572635e3271a42140099d78a
does not have to be pinned or involved in the decision to lose the championship.
601
False
In matches with multiple competitors, an elimination system may be used. Any wrestler who has a fall scored against them is forced out of the match, and the match continues until only one remains. However, it is much more common when more than two wrestlers are involved to simply go one fall, with the one scoring the fall, regardless of who they scored it against, being the winner. In championship matches, this means that, unlike one-on-one matches (where the champion can simply disqualify themselves or get themselves counted out to retain the title via the "champion's advantag"), the champion does not have to be pinned or involved in the decision to lose the championship. However, heel champions often find advantages, not in champion's advantage, but in the use of weapons and outside interference, as these poly-sided matches tend to involve no holds barred rules.
What is the most common of the special matches?
57265208dd62a815002e8174
The most common of these is the ladder match
81
False
What must the wrestlers do in a ladder match?
57265208dd62a815002e8175
In the basic ladder match, the wrestlers or teams of wrestlers must climb a ladder to obtain a prize that is hoisted above the ring.
127
False
How does one win a ladder match?
57265208dd62a815002e8176
the wrestler or team of wrestlers must try to incapacitate each other long enough for one wrestler to climb the ladder and secure that prize for their team.
298
False
What is a common prize in a ladder match?
57265208dd62a815002e8177
championship belt
558
False
How many wrestlers are in a standard battle royal match?
57265208dd62a815002e8178
20-30 wrestlers
923
False
Many modern specialty matches have been devised, with unique winning conditions. The most common of these is the ladder match. In the basic ladder match, the wrestlers or teams of wrestlers must climb a ladder to obtain a prize that is hoisted above the ring. The key to winning this match is that the wrestler or team of wrestlers must try to incapacitate each other long enough for one wrestler to climb the ladder and secure that prize for their team. As a result, the ladder can be used as a weapon. The prizes include – but are not limited to any given championship belt (the traditional prize), a document granting the winner the right to a future title shot, or any document that matters to the wrestlers involved in the match (such as one granting the winner a cash prize). Another common specialty match is known as the battle royal. In a battle royal, all the wrestlers enter the ring to the point that there are 20-30 wrestlers in the ring at one time. When the match begins, the simple objective is to throw the opponent over the top rope and out of the ring with both feet on the floor in order to eliminate that opponent. The last wrestler standing is declared the winner. A variant on this type of match is the WWE's Royal Rumble where two wrestlers enter the ring to start the match and other wrestlers follow in 90 second intervals (previously 2 minutes) until 30-40 wrestlers have entered the ring. All other rules stay the same. For more match types, see Professional wrestling match types.
What determines how the referee acts?
572655bedd62a815002e81d0
their actions are also frequently scripted for dramatic effect
428
False
What is a common rule about referees?
572655bedd62a815002e81d1
The most basic rule is that an action must be seen by a referee to be declared for a fall or disqualification.
625
False
What are referees called?
572655bedd62a815002e81d2
Most referees are unnamed and essentially anonymous, though the WWE has let their officials reveal their names.
909
False
How can a wrestler gain an advantage by using a referee?
572655bedd62a815002e81d3
distracting or disabling the referee in order to perform some ostensibly illegal maneuver on their opponent.
800
False
Due to the legitimate role that referees play in wrestling of serving as liaison between the bookers backstage and the wrestlers in the ring (the role of being a final arbitrator is merely kayfabe), the referee is present, even in matches that do not at first glance appear to require a referee (such as a ladder match, as it is no holds barred, and the criteria for victory could theoretically be assessed from afar). Although their actions are also frequently scripted for dramatic effect, referees are subject to certain general rules and requirements in order to maintain the theatrical appearance of unbiased authority. The most basic rule is that an action must be seen by a referee to be declared for a fall or disqualification. This allows for heel characters to gain a scripted advantage by distracting or disabling the referee in order to perform some ostensibly illegal maneuver on their opponent. Most referees are unnamed and essentially anonymous, though the WWE has let their officials reveal their names.
What kind of referees are occasionally used?
57265693dd62a815002e81ec
Special guest referees may be used from time to time;
0
False
What are famous referees directed to do?
57265693dd62a815002e81ed
often scripted to dispense with the appearance of neutrality and use their influence to unfairly influence the outcome of the match for added dramatic impact. F
100
False
What do special referees have the ability to do?
57265693dd62a815002e81ee
They also have the power to eject from ringside any of the heel wrestler's entourage/stable, who may otherwise interfere with the match.
501
False
Special guest referees may be used from time to time; by virtue of their celebrity status, they are often scripted to dispense with the appearance of neutrality and use their influence to unfairly influence the outcome of the match for added dramatic impact. Face special referees will often fight back against hostile heel wrestlers, particularly if the special referee is either a wrestler themselves or a famous martial artist (such as Tito Ortiz in the main event at TNA's THard Justice in 2005). They also have the power to eject from ringside any of the heel wrestler's entourage/stable, who may otherwise interfere with the match.
What material is within a wrestling ring?
572657a75951b619008f701f
an elevated square canvas mat with posts on each corner.
42
False
What is used for protection in the ring?
572657a75951b619008f7020
For safety, the ropes are padded at the turnbuckles and cushioned mats surround the floor outside the ring.
260
False
What is around the ring?
572657a75951b619008f7021
Three horizontal ropes or cables surround the ring,
147
False
Matches are held within a wrestling ring, an elevated square canvas mat with posts on each corner. A cloth apron hangs over the edges of the ring. Three horizontal ropes or cables surround the ring, suspended with turnbuckles which are connected to the posts. For safety, the ropes are padded at the turnbuckles and cushioned mats surround the floor outside the ring. Guardrails or a similar barrier enclose this area from the audience. Wrestlers are generally expected to stay within the confines of the ring, though matches sometimes end up outside the ring, and even in the audience, to add excitement.
What does a "tag" entail?
572659c5708984140094c35d
Two wrestlers must make physical contact (typically palm-to-palm) in order to transfer this legal status.
129
False
What are two things that can be done with tagging?
572659c5708984140094c35e
"tagging out" and "tagging in".
283
False
How long does a wrestler have to leave the ring once they are tagged out?
572659c5708984140094c35f
has a 5-second count to leave the ring
357
False
How much time does a wrestler have once they tag in?
572659c5708984140094c360
the one tagging in can enter the ring at any time, resulting in heels legally double-teaming a face.
405
False
In some team matches, only one entrant from each team may be designated as the "legal" or "active" wrestler at any given moment. Two wrestlers must make physical contact (typically palm-to-palm) in order to transfer this legal status. This is known as a "tag", with the participants "tagging out" and "tagging in". Typically the wrestler who is tagging out has a 5-second count to leave the ring, whereas the one tagging in can enter the ring at any time, resulting in heels legally double-teaming a face.
Why are tagging rules made?
57265a655951b619008f7059
this is done to give wrestlers a break from the action
116
False
What happens in a fatal four-way?
57265a655951b619008f705a
four wrestlers, each for themselves, fight in a match, but only two wrestlers can be in the match at any given time.
458
False
In a fatal four-way, who can make tags?
57265a655951b619008f705b
tags can be made between any two wrestlers.
623
False
What was the most common type of match before the fatal four-way?
57265a655951b619008f705c
four-corner match
339
False
Sometimes, poly-sided matches that pit every one for themselves will incorporate tagging rules. Outside of kayfabe, this is done to give wrestlers a break from the action (as these matches tend to go on for long periods of time), and to make the action in the ring easier to choreograph. One of the most mainstream examples of this is the four-corner match, the most common type of match in the WWE before it was replaced with its equivalent fatal four-way; four wrestlers, each for themselves, fight in a match, but only two wrestlers can be in the match at any given time. The other two are positioned in the corner, and tags can be made between any two wrestlers.
At what point can a count be started?
57265ae4f1498d1400e8dcfc
any time that a wrestler's shoulders are down (both shoulders touching the mat), back-first and any part of the opponent's body is lying over the wrestler.
26
False
What can happen to an arrogant wrestler?
57265ae4f1498d1400e8dcfd
a cocky wrestler may place their foot gently on the opponent's body, prompting a three-count from the referee.
399
False
What might a partially conscious wrestler do?
57265ae4f1498d1400e8dcfe
wrestler who is half-conscious may simply drape an arm over an opponent
323
False
A count may be started at any time that a wrestler's shoulders are down (both shoulders touching the mat), back-first and any part of the opponent's body is lying over the wrestler. This often results in pins that can easily be kicked out of, if the defensive wrestler is even slightly conscious. For example, an attacking wrestler who is half-conscious may simply drape an arm over an opponent, or a cocky wrestler may place their foot gently on the opponent's body, prompting a three-count from the referee.
What happens during a pin attempt?
57265e8c5951b619008f70c1
one wrestler is covering another prone, back-first wrestler can be considered a pin attempt
44
False
What is a common offensive move to break a pin attack?
57265e8c5951b619008f70c2
a stomp to the back and an elbow to the back of the head
588
False
What can the referee consider a pin attempt to be, even if the attacker is still on top of the pinned wrester?
57265e8c5951b619008f70c3
broken
948
False
However, although almost any scenario where one wrestler is covering another prone, back-first wrestler can be considered a pin attempt, there is one important exception to that rule: Pin attempts broken up by other wrestlers. In matches involving multiple wrestlers (such as triple threat matches or tag team matches), wrestlers who see a pin attempt that, if successful, would result in them losing the match are expected to run in and break the pin attempt by performing some sort of offensive maneuver on the wrestler attempting the pin. The most common attacks for breaking pins are a stomp to the back and an elbow to the back of the head, as they are simple to pull off in the spur of the moment. However, these moves, simple as they are, still leave the pinning wrestler on top of the pinned wrestler. Despite the pinning wrestler still technically being on top of the pinned wrestler, the referee will still consider the pin attempt to be broken.
What is a pinning method that isn't allowed?
57265f5df1498d1400e8dd92
using the ropes for leverage and hooking the opponent's clothing,
32
False
How often are illegal pinning methods seen by the referee?
57265f5df1498d1400e8dd93
Such pins as these are rarely seen by the referee
212
False
What are the illegal pinning methods called?
57265f5df1498d1400e8dd94
cheating
372
False
Can illegal pinning methods result in being disqualified?
57265f5df1498d1400e8dd95
it is rare for such an attempt to result in a disqualification
426
False
What happens with an illegal pinning move when it is seen by a referee?
57265f5df1498d1400e8dd96
results in nullification of the pin attempt,
524
False
Illegal pinning methods include using the ropes for leverage and hooking the opponent's clothing, which are therefore popular cheating methods for heels, unless certain stipulations make such an advantage legal. Such pins as these are rarely seen by the referee (as they have to see if their shoulders are down) and are subsequently often used by heels and on occasion by cheating faces to win matches. Even if it is noticed, it is rare for such an attempt to result in a disqualification (see below), and instead it simply results in nullification of the pin attempt, so the heel wrestler rarely has anything to lose for trying it, anyway.
How can a wrestler willingly submit?
57265ff85951b619008f70f9
verbally informing the referee
37
False
What is the move called where all limbs are incapicitated?
57265ff85951b619008f70fa
Mexican Surfboard
103
False
What can a wrestler do to show a willing submission?
57265ff85951b619008f70fb
tapping out
338
False
A wrestler may voluntarily submit by verbally informing the referee (usually used in moves such as the Mexican Surfboard, where all four limbs are incapacitated, making tapping impossible). Also, since Ken Shamrock (a legitimate UFC competitor in its early days) popularized it in 1997, a wrestler can indicate a voluntary submission by "tapping out", that is, tapping a free hand against the mat or against an opponent. Occasionally, a wrestler will reach for a rope (see rope breaks below), only to put their hand back on the mat so they can crawl towards the rope some more; this is not a submission, and the referee decides what their intent is.
Several well-known wrestlers were famous for winning with a move called what?
572660bfdd62a815002e8314
submission
469
False
What move did Tazz make popular?
572660bfdd62a815002e8315
Tazzmission
787
False
What legitimate sport related to wrestling began to become popular?
572660bfdd62a815002e8316
mixed martial arts
256
False
Submission was initially a large factor in professional wrestling, but following the decline of the submission-oriented catch-as-catch-can style from mainstream professional wrestling, the submission largely faded until the rise of the legitimate sport of mixed martial arts. Despite this, some wrestlers, such as Chris Jericho, The Undertaker, Ric Flair, Bret Hart, Kurt Angle, Ken Shamrock, Dean Malenko, Chris Benoit, and Tazz, became famous for winning matches via submission. A wrestler with a signature submission technique is portrayed as better at applying the hold, making it more painful or more difficult to get out of than others who use it, or can be falsely credited as inventing the hold (such as when Tazz popularized the kata ha jime judo choke in pro wrestling as the "Tazzmission").
Many holds will leave what body parts free?
57266174708984140094c429
an arm or leg
325
False
When must contact stop between wrestlers?
57266174708984140094c42a
if any part of the body is touching, or underneath, the ropes,
51
False
How might a wrestler attempt to break a submission hold?
57266174708984140094c42b
by deliberately grabbing the bottom ropes
168
False
How long does a wrestler have to get themselves free of the hold?
57266174708984140094c42c
the count of five
899
False
What happens if the wrestler doesn't break a hold?
57266174708984140094c42d
they are disqualified
966
False
Since all contact between the wrestlers must cease if any part of the body is touching, or underneath, the ropes, many wrestlers will attempt to break submission holds by deliberately grabbing the bottom ropes. This is called a "rope break", and it is one of the most common ways to break a submission hold. Most holds leave an arm or leg free, so that the person can tap out if they want. Instead, they use these free limbs to either grab one of the ring ropes (the bottom one is the most common, as it is nearest the wrestlers, though other ropes sometimes are used for standing holds such as Chris Masters' Master Lock) or drape their foot across, or underneath one. Once this has been accomplished, and the accomplishment is witnessed by the referee, the referee will demand that the offending wrestler break the hold, and start counting to five if the wrestler does not. If the referee reaches the count of five, and the wrestler still does not break the hold, they are disqualified.
How does a referee check for a knockout?
57266248708984140094c465
a referee will wave their hand in front of the wrestler's face
283
False
What happens if all wrestlers are down?
57266248708984140094c466
If nobody rises to their feet by the end of the count, the match is ruled a draw.
601
False
If all wrestlers are down, how long do they have to rise?
57266248708984140094c467
usually ten seconds, twenty in Japan
562
False
What kind of match has to end in a knockout?
57266248708984140094c468
Last Man Standing
764
False
What is another name for a knockout?
57266248708984140094c469
referee stoppage
59
False
A wrestler can win by knockout (sometimes referred to as a referee stoppage) if they do not resort to submission holds, but stills pummels their opponent to the point that they are unconscious or are unable to intelligently defend themselves. To check for a knockout in this manner, a referee will wave their hand in front of the wrestler's face; if the wrestler does not react in any way, the referee will award the victory to the other wrestler. If all the active wrestlers in a match are down inside the ring at the same time, the referee will begin a count (usually ten seconds, twenty in Japan). If nobody rises to their feet by the end of the count, the match is ruled a draw. Any participant who stands up in time will end the count for everyone else. In a Last Man Standing match, this form of a knockout is the only way that the match can end, so the referee will count when one or more wrestlers are down, and one wrestler standing up before the 10-count doesn't stop the count for another wrestler who is still down.
In what case can a referee choose to end the match?
572662d9708984140094c475
when they or official ring physician decides that a wrestler cannot safely continue the match
29
False
What is one reason that a wrestler may not be able to continue?
572662d9708984140094c476
an injury
193
False
Why couldn't Shawn Michaels defend himself?
572662d9708984140094c477
due to excessive blood loss and impaired vision
351
False
Where did Chris Jericho win in 2008?
572662d9708984140094c478
Great American Bash
211
False
A referee may stop the match when they or official ring physician decides that a wrestler cannot safely continue the match. This may be decided if the wrestler cannot continue the match due to an injury. At the Great American Bash in 2008, Chris Jericho was declared the winner of a match against Shawn Michaels when Michaels could not defend himself due to excessive blood loss and impaired vision. At NXT TakeOver: Rival in 2015, the referee stopped the match when Sami Zayn could not defend himself due to an injury sustained against Kevin Owens for the NXT Championship.
What are a couple other ways to write countout?
57266386708984140094c487
"count-out" or "count out"
26
False
What happens during a countout?
57266386708984140094c488
when a wrestler is out of the ring long enough for the referee to count to ten
62
False
What will some wrestlers do to take advantage of the countout?
57266386708984140094c489
sliding in the ring, and immediately sliding back out
329
False
What is the trick of sliding in and then back out of the ring called?
57266386708984140094c48a
breaking the count.
551
False
A countout (alternatively "count-out" or "count out") happens when a wrestler is out of the ring long enough for the referee to count to ten (twenty in some promotions) and thus disqualified. The count is broken and restarted when a wrestler in the ring exits the ring. Playing into this, some wrestlers will "milk" the count by sliding in the ring, and immediately sliding back out. As they were technically inside the ring for a split second before exiting again, it is sufficient to restart the count. This is often referred to by commentators as "breaking the count." Heels often use this tactic in order to buy themselves more time to catch their breath, or to attempt to frustrate their babyface opponents.
What else is disqualification called?
572663f95951b619008f7151
DQ
44
False
How can a wrestler be disqualified?
572663f95951b619008f7152
wrestler violates the match's rules, thus losing automatically
63
False
In what case can a countout and disqualification be done away with entirely?
572663f95951b619008f7153
must be declared a "no holds barred" match, a "street fight" or some other term
452
False
Disqualification (sometimes abbreviated as "DQ") occurs when a wrestler violates the match's rules, thus losing automatically. Although a countout can technically be considered a disqualification (as it is, for all intents and purposes, an automatic loss suffered as a result of violating a match rule), the two concepts are often distinct in wrestling. A no disqualification match can still end by countout (although this is rare); typically, a match must be declared a "no holds barred" match, a "street fight" or some other term, in order for both disqualifications and countouts to be waived.[citation needed]
What are the usual reasons for an automatic disqualification?
5726652e5951b619008f7189
low blows, weapon usage, interference, or assaulting the referee
292
False
What must the referee do to rule the match at an end via disqualification?
5726652e5951b619008f718a
must see the violation with their own eyes
376
False
In what case can a referee's decision be overturned?
5726652e5951b619008f718b
Dusty finishes
581
False
What is it called when a ref is knocked out?
5726652e5951b619008f718c
ref bump
831
False
What can wrestlers do when a ref is out?
5726652e5951b619008f718d
free to violate rules
897
False
In practice, not all rule violations will result in a disqualification as the referee may use their own judgement and is not obligated to stop the match. Usually, the only offenses that the referee will see and immediately disqualify the match on (as opposed to having multiple offenses) are low blows, weapon usage, interference, or assaulting the referee. In WWE, a referee must see the violation with their own eyes to rule that the match end in a disqualification (simply watching the video tape is not usually enough) and the referee's ruling is almost always final, although Dusty finishes (named after, and made famous by, Dusty Rhodes) will often result in the referee's decision being overturned. It is not uncommon for the referees themselves to get knocked out during a match, which is commonly referred to by the term "ref bump". While the referee remains "unconscious", wrestlers are free to violate rules until the referee is revived or replaced. In some cases, a referee might disqualify a person under the presumption that it was that wrestler who knocked them out; most referee knockouts are arranged to allow a wrestler, usually a heel, to gain an advantage. For example, a wrestler may get whipped into a referee at a slower speed, knocking the ref down for short amount of time; during that interim period, one wrestler may pin their opponent for a three-count and would have won the match but for the referee being down (sometimes, another referee will sprint to the ring from backstage to attempt to make the count, but by then, the other wrestler has had enough time to kick-out on their own accord).
What is one way a match can end?
572665d8708984140094c4bb
in a draw
39
False
What is one reason a draw can result?
572665d8708984140094c4bc
if both opponents are simultaneously disqualified
64
False
What usually happens regarding a championship during a draw?
572665d8708984140094c4bd
may not change hands in the event of a draw
787
False
What is another name for a one hour draw?
572665d8708984140094c4be
"Broadway"
1162
False
A professional wrestling match can end in a draw. A draw occurs if both opponents are simultaneously disqualified (as via countout or if the referee loses complete control of the match and both opponents attack each other with no regard to being in a match, like Brock Lesnar vs. Undertaker at Unforgiven in 2002), neither opponent is able to answer a ten-count, or both opponents simultaneously win the match. The latter can occur if, for example, one opponent's shoulders touch the mat while maintaining a submission hold against another opponent. If the opponent in the hold begins to tap out at the same time a referee counts to three for pinning the opponent delivering the hold, both opponents have legally achieved scoring conditions simultaneously. Traditionally, a championship may not change hands in the event of a draw (though it may become vacant), though some promotions such as TNA have endorsed rules where the champion may lose a title by disqualification. A variant of the draw is the time-limit draw, where the match does not have a winner by a specified time period (a one-hour draw, which was once common, is known in wrestling circles as a "Broadway").
What kind of injury can cause a no contest ruling?
572666475951b619008f71bb
debilitating
215
False
How is no contest related to a draw, if at all?
572666475951b619008f71bc
state separate and distinct from a draw
334
False
How can a referee's action result in a no contest?
572666475951b619008f71bd
loss of referee's control over the match
137
False
A wrestling match may be declared a no contest if the winning conditions are unable to occur. This can be due to excessive interference, loss of referee's control over the match, one or more participants sustaining debilitating injury not caused by the opponent, or the inability of a scheduled match to even begin. A no contest is a state separate and distinct from a draw — a draw indicates winning conditions were met. Although the terms are sometimes used interchangeably in practice, this usage is technically incorrect.
What is the point of a match?
572666c9708984140094c4df
to excite and entertain the audience
135
False
Higher attendance and more ticket sales can be the result of what?
572666c9708984140094c4e0
Heightened interest
300
False
Though the contest is staged, what can garner more interest from the crowd?
572666c9708984140094c4e1
dramatic emphasis
209
False
While each wrestling match is ostensibly a competition of athletics and strategy, the goal of each match from a business standpoint is to excite and entertain the audience. Although the competition is staged, dramatic emphasis can be utilized to draw out the most intense reaction from the audience. Heightened interest results in higher attendance rates, increased ticket sales, higher ratings on television broadcasts (which result in greater ad revenue), higher pay-per-view buyrates, and sales of branded merchandise and recorded video footage. All of these contribute to the profit of the promotion company.
What do most wrestlers do, as far as how they act?
57266781dd62a815002e83c8
portray character roles
96
False
What is the name of one wrestler who acts like a cartoonish character?
57266781dd62a815002e83c9
Doink the Clown
347
False
The Rock's persona is seen as what?
57266781dd62a815002e83ca
exaggerated versions of the performer's real life personality
423
False
What is common apparel in lucha libre?
57266781dd62a815002e83cb
masks
606
False
In Latin America and English-speaking countries, most wrestlers (and other on-stage performers) portray character roles, sometimes with personalities wildly different from their own. These personalities are a gimmick intended to heighten interest in a wrestler without regard to athletic ability. Some can be unrealistic and cartoon-like (such as Doink the Clown), while others carry more verisimilitude and can be seen as exaggerated versions of the performer's real life personality (such as Chris Jericho, The Rock, John Cena, Stone Cold Steve Austin, and CM Punk). In lucha libre, many characters wear masks, adopting a secret identity akin to a superhero, a near-sacred tradition.
What is the popular way for wrestlers to refer to one another?
5726687f708984140094c50f
by their stage names/characters
1066
False
Other than a company, who else can own a character?
5726687f708984140094c510
the wrestler
667
False
How can a wrestler get around changing their ring name entirely?
5726687f708984140094c511
typeset change
550
False
What else might a wrestler do to obtain their ring name?
5726687f708984140094c512
change their legal name
707
False
An individual wrestler may sometimes use their real name, or a minor variation of it, for much of their career, such as Angelo Poffo, Ernie Ladd, Verne Gagne, Bret Hart, and Randy Orton. Others can keep one ring name for their entire career (cases in point include Chris Jericho, Shawn Michaels, CM Punk and Ricky Steamboat), or may change from time to time to better suit the demands of the audience or company. Sometimes a character is owned and trademarked by the company, forcing the wrestler to find a new one when they leave (although a simple typeset change, such as changing Rhyno to Rhino, can usually get around this), and sometimes a character is owned by the wrestler. Sometimes, a wrestler may change their legal name in order to obtain ownership of their ring name (examples include Andrew Martin and Warrior). Many wrestlers (such as The Rock and The Undertaker) are strongly identified with their character, even responding to the name in public or between friends. It's actually considered proper decorum for fellow wrestlers to refer to each other by their stage names/characters rather than their birth/legal names, unless otherwise introduced. A professional wrestling character's popularity can grow to the point that it makes appearances in other media (see Hulk Hogan and El Santo) or even give the performer enough visibility to enter politics (Antonio Inoki and Jesse Ventura, among others).
What are other names for a protagonist?
57266905f1498d1400e8decc
babyface, or "the good guy"
99
False
What will an antagonist usually do?
57266905f1498d1400e8decd
break rules
200
False
What is a wrestler whose persona is somewhere between the two norms called?
57266905f1498d1400e8dece
tweener
389
False
Who is generally the audience favorite?
57266905f1498d1400e8decf
protagonist
40
False
Typically, matches are staged between a protagonist (historically an audience favorite, known as a babyface, or "the good guy") and an antagonist (historically a villain with arrogance, a tendency to break rules, or other unlikable qualities, called a heel). In recent years, however, antiheroes have also become prominent in professional wrestling. There is also a less common role of a "tweener", who is neither fully face nor fully heel yet able to play either role effectively (case in point, Samoa Joe during his first run in TNA from June 2005 to November 2006).
What might a character do with their persona?
57266970f1498d1400e8dede
turn
26
False
What did Hulk Hogan become?
57266970f1498d1400e8dedf
heel
342
False
Who has the most turns in the WWE?
57266970f1498d1400e8dee0
Vince McMahon
602
False
At times a character may "turn", altering their face/heel alignment. This may be an abrupt, surprising event, or it may slowly build up over time. It almost always is accomplished with a markable change in behavior on the part of the character. Some turns become defining points in a wrestler's career, as was the case when Hulk Hogan turned heel after being a top face for over a decade. Others may have no noticeable effect on the character's status. If a character repeatedly switches between being a face and heel, this lessens the effect of such turns, and may result in apathy from the audience. Vince McMahon is a good example of having more heel and face turns than anyone in WWE history.
Who is a wrestler who never turned?
57266a045951b619008f71f1
Ricky Steamboat
167
False
What did Stone Cold Steve Austin start as?
57266a045951b619008f71f2
heel
781
False
What was The Rock's original character?
57266a045951b619008f71f3
Rocky Maivia
664
False
What did Steve Austin become?
57266a045951b619008f71f4
one of the greatest antiheroes
1012
False
As with personae in general, a character's face or heel alignment may change with time, or remain constant over its lifetime (the most famous example of the latter is Ricky Steamboat, a WWE Hall of Famer who remained a babyface throughout his entire career). Sometimes a character's heel turn will become so popular that eventually the audience response will alter the character's heel-face cycle to the point where the heel persona will, in practice, become a face persona, and what was previously the face persona, will turn into the heel persona, such as when Dwayne Johnson first began using "The Rock" persona as a heel character, as opposed to his original "Rocky Maivia" babyface persona. Another legendary example is Stone Cold Steve Austin, who was originally booked as a heel, with such mannerisms as drinking on the job, using profanity, breaking company property, and even breaking into people's private homes. However, much to WWF's surprise, the fans enjoyed Austin's antics so much that he became one of the greatest antiheroes in the history of the business. He, along with the stable of D-Generation X, is generally credited with ushering in the Attitude Era of WWF programming.
Who helps out a wrestler with poor speaking abilities?
57266b67dd62a815002e8456
manager
265
False
What sometimes happens with managers?
57266b67dd62a815002e8457
become major personalities
354
False
Who else can perform the manager role?
57266b67dd62a815002e8458
"valet
487
False
Who might participate in a love triangle story?
57266b67dd62a815002e8459
an appealing female
506
False
In some cases a wrestler may possess admirable physical traits but perceived mediocre public speaking abilities (such as Brock Lesnar), or their gimmick may be that of a "wild savage" needing a handler (such as Kamala). Such performers have historically employed a manager, who speaks on their behalf and adds to the performance. Managers have sometimes become major personalities, including Bobby Heenan, Paul Heyman, Ernie Roth, and Paul Bearer. A manager role may also be filled by a "valet", typically an appealing female who may participate in love triangle storylines, "damsel in distress" situations, and scripted fights with female wrestlers. Some of these have also gone on to become recognized stars, such as Tammy Lynn Sytch, Stacy Keibler, and Miss Elizabeth.
What do most matches have?
57266c04f1498d1400e8df42
a story analogous to a scene in a play or film, or an episode of a serial drama:
66
False
What is it called when the protagonist loses?
57266c04f1498d1400e8df43
tragedy
204
False
What do they call it when a protagonist wins?
57266c04f1498d1400e8df44
triumph
176
False
What can be wagered in a match?
57266c04f1498d1400e8df45
from a character's own hair to their job with the promotion
420
False
While true exhibition matches are not uncommon, most matches tell a story analogous to a scene in a play or film, or an episode of a serial drama: The face will sometimes win (triumph) or sometimes lose (tragedy). Longer story arcs can result from multiple matches over the course of time. Since most promotions have a championship title, competition for the championship is a common impetus for stories. Also, anything from a character's own hair to their job with the promotion can be wagered in a match. The same type of good vs. evil storylines were also once popular in roller derby.
What are rivalries often called?
57266c7f708984140094c58b
feuds
125
False
How long might a feud last?
57266c7f708984140094c58c
a few days up to multiple decades
201
False
How long did the feud between Ric Flair and Ricky Steamboat last?
57266c7f708984140094c58d
late 1970s into the early 1990s
299
False
What is an example of a popular feud?
57266c7f708984140094c58e
Stone Cold Steve Austin vs. Mr. McMahon
575
False
Other stories result from a natural rivalry between two or more characters. Outside of performance, these are referred to as feuds. A feud can exist between any number of participants and can last for a few days up to multiple decades. The feud between Ric Flair and Ricky Steamboat lasted from the late 1970s into the early 1990s and allegedly spanned over two thousand matches (although most of those matches were mere dark matches). The career-spanning history between characters Mike Awesome and Masato Tanaka is another example of a long-running feud, as is the case of Stone Cold Steve Austin vs. Mr. McMahon, one of the most lucrative feuds in the World Wrestling Federation (WWF) during 1998 and 1999.
What supernatural things have been portrayed in matches?
57266cf9dd62a815002e847a
magic, curses, the undead and Satanic imagery
588
False
What can be used in a wrestling story?
57266cf9dd62a815002e847b
anything that can be used as an element of drama
6
False
What romantic drama might be used in a story?
57266cf9dd62a815002e847c
love triangles and marriage
134
False
Also, anything that can be used as an element of drama can exist in professional wrestling stories: romantic relationships (including love triangles and marriage), racism, classism, nepotism, favoritism, corporate corruption, family bonds, personal histories, grudges, theft, cheating, assault, betrayal, bribery, seduction, stalking, confidence tricks, extortion, blackmail, substance abuse, self-doubt, self-sacrifice; even kidnapping, sexual fetishism, necrophilia, misogyny, rape and death have been portrayed in wrestling. Some promotions have included supernatural elements such as magic, curses, the undead and Satanic imagery (most notably The Undertaker and his Ministry of Darkness, a stable that regularly performed evil rituals and human sacrifice in Satanic-like worship of a hidden power figure). Celebrities would also be involved in storylines.
What happens behind the scenes of a match?
57266d835951b619008f7273
bookers in a company will place the title on the most accomplished performer,
23
False
Who else do bookers focus on?
57266d835951b619008f7274
those the bookers believe will generate fan interest
104
False
Who might they use a lower ranked title on?
57266d835951b619008f7275
performers who show potential
257
False
Behind the scenes, the bookers in a company will place the title on the most accomplished performer, or those the bookers believe will generate fan interest in terms of event attendance and television viewership. Lower ranked titles may also be used on the performers who show potential, thus allowing them greater exposure to the audience. However other circumstances may also determine the use of a championship. A combination of a championship's lineage, the caliber of performers as champion, and the frequency and manner of title changes, dictates the audience's perception of the title's quality, significance and reputation.
What does it show when a wrestler has many titles?
57266e09dd62a815002e8488
ability to maintain audience interest and/or a wrestler's ability to perform in the ring
248
False
What can be important in a wrestler's career?
57266e09dd62a815002e8489
championship accomplishments
13
False
What do those accomplishments indicate?
57266e09dd62a815002e848a
performance ability and drawing power
102
False
What has Ric Flair accomplished?
57266e09dd62a815002e848b
multiple world heavyweight championship reigns spanning over three decades
508
False
Who held 10 records at once?
57266e09dd62a815002e848c
Último Dragón
602
False
A wrestler's championship accomplishments can be central to their career, becoming a measure of their performance ability and drawing power. In general, a wrestler with multiple title reigns or an extended title reign is indicative of a wrestler's ability to maintain audience interest and/or a wrestler's ability to perform in the ring. As such, the most accomplished or decorated wrestlers tend to be revered as legends despite the predetermined nature of title reigns. American wrestler Ric Flair has had multiple world heavyweight championship reigns spanning over three decades. Japanese wrestler Último Dragón once held and defended a record 10 titles simultaneously.
What occurs when a wrestler enters the ring?
57267077dd62a815002e84e6
accompanied by music
41
False
What does the music playing indicate?
57267077dd62a815002e84e7
the wrestler's personality
177
False
What typically happens when a match is won?
57267077dd62a815002e84e8
victor's theme music is usually also played
564
False
What happens with many wrestlers?
57267077dd62a815002e84e9
have music and lyrics specially written for their ring entrance
246
False
All notable wrestlers now enter the ring accompanied by music, and regularly add other elements to their entrance. The music played during the ring entrance will usually mirror the wrestler's personality. Many wrestlers, particularly in America, have music and lyrics specially written for their ring entrance. While invented long before, the practice of including music with the entrance gained rapid popularity during the 1980s, largely as a result of the huge success of Hulk Hogan and the WWF, and their Rock 'n' Wrestling Connection. When a match is won, the victor's theme music is usually also played in celebration.
Who won the women's title in 1937?
572670f2708984140094c615
Mildred Burke
107
False
What did Mildred Burke form?
572670f2708984140094c616
Women's Wrestling Association
185
False
What year did June Byers retire?
572670f2708984140094c617
1964
601
False
What year did Mildred Burke retire?
572670f2708984140094c618
1956
346
False
The women's division of professional wrestling has maintained a recognized world champion since 1937, when Mildred Burke won the original World Women's title. She then formed the World Women's Wrestling Association in the early 1950s and recognized herself as the first champion, although the championship would be vacated upon her retirement in 1956. The NWA, however, ceased to acknowledge Burke as their Women's World champion in 1954, and instead acknowledged June Byers as champion after a controversial finish to a high-profile match between Burke and Byers that year. Upon Byers' retirement in 1964, The Fabulous Moolah, who won a junior heavyweight version of the NWA World Women's Championship (the predecessor to the WWE's Women's Championship) in a tournament back in 1958, was recognized by most NWA promoters as champion by default.
What is professional female wrestling called in Japan?
5726715cdd62a815002e8506
joshi puroresu
68
False
What is the short form for joshi puroresu?
5726715cdd62a815002e8507
joshi puro
95
False
What was the major joshi organization for two decades?
5726715cdd62a815002e8508
Japan Women's Pro-Wrestling
474
False
In Japan, professional wrestling done by female wrestlers is called joshi puroresu (女子プロレス) or joshi puro for short. Female wrestling is usually handled by promotions that specialize in joshi puroresu rather than divisions of otherwise male-dominated promotions, as is the case in the United States. However, joshi puroresu promotions usually have agreements with male puroresu promotions such that they recognize each other's titles as legitimate, and may share cards. All Japan Women's Pro-Wrestling was the dominant joshi organization from the 1970s to the 1990s.
What does a mixed tag team consist of?
572671c4708984140094c645
a male and female on each team
63
False
When did mixed tag teams start?
572671c4708984140094c646
1980s
7
False
What happened when a tag was made?
572671c4708984140094c647
the other team had to automatically switch their legal wrestler as well
202
False
What isn't uncommon in lucha libre?
572671c4708984140094c648
cheap-shots and male-female attacks
543
False
In the 1980s, mixed tag team matches began to take place, with a male and female on each team and a rule stating that each wrestler could only attack the opponent of the same gender. If a tag was made, the other team had to automatically switch their legal wrestler as well. Despite these restrictions, many mixed tag matches do feature some physical interaction between participants of different genders. For example, a heel may take a cheap shot at the female wrestler of the opposing team to draw a negative crowd reaction. In lucha libre, cheap-shots and male-female attacks are not uncommon.
When were intergender singles bouts fought on a national scale?
57267254f1498d1400e8dff6
1990s
71
False
Who was the first woman to hold a belt that wasn't exclusive to women?
57267254f1498d1400e8dff7
Chyna
144
False
What was the record before it was stripped?
57267254f1498d1400e8dff8
478 days
472
False
Who stripped the previous record?
57267254f1498d1400e8dff9
Brooke Hogan
507
False
Intergender singles bouts were first fought on a national level in the 1990s. This began with Luna Vachon, who faced men in ECW and WWF. Later, Chyna became the first female to hold a belt that was not exclusive to women when she won the Intercontinental Championship. While it is a rare feat in WWE, in TNA, ODB participates in singles intergender matches. Also, ODB's kayfabe husband and tag team partner Eric Young held the Knockouts Tag Team Championship for a record 478 days before it was stripped by Brooke Hogan because Young was a male.
A wrestler may have a small person called what?
5726733b5951b619008f72ef
mini me
44
False
What else can a little person do in the match?
5726733b5951b619008f72f0
become valets
145
False
Who was Dave Finlay often helped by?
5726733b5951b619008f72f1
Hornswoggle
443
False
What else did Finlay do with his little person?
5726733b5951b619008f72f2
occasionally threw him at his opponent(s
560
False
What happened to Hornswoggle?
5726733b5951b619008f72f3
given a run with the Cruiserweight Championship
629
False
Some wrestlers may have their own specific "mini me", like Mascarita Sagrada, Alebrije has Quije, etc. There are also cases in which midgets can become valets for a wrestler, and even get physically involved in matches, like Alushe, who often accompanies Tinieblas, or KeMonito, who is portrayed as Consejo Mundial de Lucha Libre's mascot and is also a valet for Mistico. Dave Finlay was often aided in his matches by a midget known mainly as Hornswoggle while in WWE, who hid under the ring and gave a shillelagh to Finlay to use on his opponent. Finlay also occasionally threw him at his opponent(s). Hornswoggle has also been given a run with the Cruiserweight Championship and feuded with D-Generation X in 2009.
Who are the most well-known wrestling bears?
572673df5951b619008f7307
Ginger, Victor, Hercules and Terrible Ted
799
False
What animal has been a part of wrestling for a long time?
572673df5951b619008f7308
bears
67
False
What condition are bears usually brought in in?
572673df5951b619008f7309
declawed and muzzled
130
False
Who do the bears fight?
572673df5951b619008f730a
audience members
194
False
How many states have banned bear wrestling as of 2006?
572673df5951b619008f730b
20
739
False
Though they have not had the level of exposure as other wrestlers, bears have long been a part of professional wrestling. Usually declawed and muzzled, they often wrestled shoot matches against audience members, offered a cash reward if they could pin the bear. They also wrestled professionals in worked, often battle royal or handicap, matches (usually booked so the bear won). Though they have wrestled around the world and continue to do so, wrestling bears enjoyed their greatest popularity in the Southern United States, during the 1960s and 1970s. The practice of bear wrestling has met strong opposition from animal rights activists in recent decades, contributing to its lack of mainstream acceptance. As of 2006, it is banned in 20 U.S. states. Perhaps the most famous wrestling bears are Ginger, Victor, Hercules and Terrible Ted.
What does every match have?
5726744ddd62a815002e8584
a story
153
False
Who is usually included in stories?
5726744ddd62a815002e8585
characters like faces and heels
253
False
What are the possibly outcomes of a story?
5726744ddd62a815002e8586
It is a "triumph" if the face wins, while it is a "tragedy" if the heel wins.
326
False
What is Doink the Clown's persona like?
5726744ddd62a815002e8587
melodramatic, slapstick and fantastical
521
False
What might happen during interviews?
5726744ddd62a815002e8588
heels may even attack the faces
639
False
Professional wrestling in the U.S. tends to have a heavy focus on story building and the establishment of characters (and their personalities). There is a story for each match, and even a longer story for successive matches. The stories usually contain characters like faces and heels, and less often antiheroes and tweeners. It is a "triumph" if the face wins, while it is a "tragedy" if the heel wins. The characters usually have strong and sharp personalities, with examples like Doink the Clown, whose personality is melodramatic, slapstick and fantastical. The opposition between faces and heels is very intense in the story, and the heels may even attack the faces during TV interviews. The relationship between different characters can also be very complex.
How do characters differ in Mexican wrestling?
572674d5dd62a815002e8596
they are less emphasized
89
False
How are Mexican wrestlers different?
572674d5dd62a815002e8597
more agile and perform more aerial maneuvers
153
False
What do American wrestlers depend on?
572674d5dd62a815002e8598
rely on power moves and strikes to subdue their opponents
255
False
What else is lucha libre known for?
572674d5dd62a815002e8599
tag team wrestling matches
848
False
How does lucha libre's tag team matches differ?
572674d5dd62a815002e859a
often made up of three members, instead of two as is common in the U.S
899
False
Although professional wrestling in Mexico (lucha libre) also has stories and characters, they are less emphasized. Wrestlers in Mexico are traditionally more agile and perform more aerial maneuvers than professional wrestlers in the U.S. who, more often, rely on power moves and strikes to subdue their opponents. The difference in styles is due to the independent evolution of the sport in Mexico beginning in the 1930s and the fact that wrestlers in the cruiserweight division (peso semicompleto) are often the most popular wrestlers in Mexican lucha libre. Wrestlers often execute high flying moves characteristic of lucha libre by utilizing the wrestling ring's ropes to catapult themselves towards their opponents, using intricate combinations in rapid-fire succession, and applying complex submission holds. Lucha libre is also known for its tag team wrestling matches, in which the teams are often made up of three members, instead of two as is common in the U.S.
How is Japanese wrestling similar to American?
5726758cf1498d1400e8e058
outcome of the matches remains predetermined
272
False
How does Japanese wrestling differ?
5726758cf1498d1400e8e059
the form of the psychology and presentation of the sport
349
False
What does Japanese wrestling combine?
5726758cf1498d1400e8e05a
hard hitting martial arts strikes with shoot style submission holds
464
False
What is the emphasis placed on in Japanese wrestling?
5726758cf1498d1400e8e05b
Fighting Spirit
865
False
What is a common background for a Japanese wrestler?
5726758cf1498d1400e8e05c
legitimate martial arts
1093
False
The style of Japanese professional wrestling (puroresu) is again different. With its origins in traditional American style of wrestling and still being under the same genre, it has become an entity in itself. Despite the similarity to its American counterpart in that the outcome of the matches remains predetermined, the phenomena are different in the form of the psychology and presentation of the sport; it is treated as a full contact combat sport as it mixes hard hitting martial arts strikes with shoot style submission holds, while in the U.S. it is rather more regarded as an entertainment show. Wrestlers incorporate kicks and strikes from martial arts disciplines, and a strong emphasis is placed on submission wrestling, and unlike the use of involved storylines in the U.S., they are not as intricate in Japan, more emphasis is placed on the concept of Fighting Spirit, meaning the Wrestlers display of physical and mental stamina are valued a lot more than theatrics. Many of Japan's wrestlers including top stars such as Shinya Hashimoto, Riki Choshu and Keiji Mutoh came from a legitimate martial arts background and many Japanese wrestlers in the 1990s began to pursue careers in mixed martial arts organizations such as Pancrase and Shooto which at the time retained the original look of puroresu, but were actual competitions.
What is expected of newcomers?
5726761edd62a815002e85bc
to "pay their dues" for a few years by working in lower-profile promotions
188
False
What were wrestlers expected to do for decades?
5726761edd62a815002e85bd
keep the illusions of wrestling's legitimacy alive
547
False
How did wrestlers have to act in public?
5726761edd62a815002e85be
acting in character
637
False
What effects can wrestling have on the wrestlers?
5726761edd62a815002e85bf
devastating effects the job can have on one's life and health
824
False
Those involved in producing professional wrestling have developed a kind of global fraternity, with familial bonds, shared language and passed-down traditions. New performers are expected to "pay their dues" for a few years by working in lower-profile promotions and working as ring crew before working their way upward. The permanent rosters of most promotions develop a backstage pecking order, with veterans mediating conflicts and mentoring younger wrestlers. For many decades (and still to a lesser extent today), performers were expected to keep the illusions of wrestling's legitimacy alive even while not performing, essentially acting in character any time they were in public. Some veterans speak of a "sickness" among wrestling performers, an inexplicable pull to remain active in the wrestling world despite the devastating effects the job can have on one's life and health.
What do the fans have?
57267676708984140094c701
their own subculture
36
False
What sometimes happens with fandoms?
57267676708984140094c702
overlap
156
False
Where have some wrestlers appeared?
57267676708984140094c703
comic book conventions
327
False
Fans of professional wrestling have their own subculture, comparable to those of science fiction, video games, or comic books (in some cases, the "fandoms" overlap; in recent years, some professional wrestlers, particularly those who nurture an anti-establishment rebel persona, such as CM Punk, have made guest appearances at comic book conventions). Those who are interested in the backstage occurrences, future storylines, and reasonings behind company decisions read newsletters written by journalists with inside ties to the wrestling industry. These "rags" or "dirt sheets" have expanded into the Internet, where their information can be dispensed on an up-to-the-minute basis. Some have expanded into radio shows.
What do some fans like to do?
572676e75951b619008f7375
collecting tapes of wrestling shows
29
False
What has the internet done for wrestling fans?
572676e75951b619008f7376
exposure to worldwide variations of wrestling
163
False
Many companies who handle wrestling footage have been founded since what decade?
572676e75951b619008f7377
1990s
258
False
What companies did WWF purchase in 2001?
572676e75951b619008f7378
WCW and ECW
369
False
Some fans enjoy a pastime of collecting tapes of wrestling shows from specific companies, of certain wrestlers, or of specific genres. The Internet has given fans exposure to worldwide variations of wrestling they would be unable to see otherwise. Since the 1990s, many companies have been founded which deal primarily in wrestling footage. When the WWF purchased both WCW and ECW in 2001, they also obtained the entire past video libraries of both productions and have released many past matches online and on home video.
What kind of notoriety have wrestlers achieved?
5726776e5951b619008f7387
fame within mainstream society
92
False
What did the Rock 'n' Wrestling Connection do?
5726776e5951b619008f7388
combined wrestling with MTV
571
False
What are some other career paths wrestlers embarked on?
5726776e5951b619008f7389
music, acting, writing, business, politics or public speaking
230
False
From the first established world championship, the top professional wrestlers have garnered fame within mainstream society. Each successive generation has produced a number of wrestlers who extend their careers into the realms of music, acting, writing, business, politics or public speaking, and are known to those who are unfamiliar with wrestling in general. Conversely, celebrities from other sports or general pop culture also become involved with wrestling for brief periods of time. A prime example of this is The Rock 'n' Wrestling Connection of the 1980s, which combined wrestling with MTV.
Name a popular series of boxing films?
5726783a5951b619008f73a3
Rocky series
220
False
Who is the movie The Baron about?
5726783a5951b619008f73a4
Baron von Raschke
630
False
What episode of South Park dealt with wrestling?
5726783a5951b619008f73a5
"W.T.F."
785
False
What critically acclaimed wrestling film came out in 2008?
5726783a5951b619008f73a6
The Wrestler
1106
False
Many of what forms of entertainment have portrayed wrestlers?
5726783a5951b619008f73a7
television shows and films
5
False
Many television shows and films have been produced which portray in-character professional wrestlers as protagonists, such as Ready to Rumble, ¡Mucha Lucha!, Nacho Libre, and the Santo film series. In the wildly popular Rocky series of films about the fictional boxer Rocky Balboa, Rocky III saw its hero fighting a "boxer vs. wrestler" exhibition match against the enormous and villainous wrestler "Thunderlips", portrayed by real-life soon-to-be wrestling icon Hulk Hogan. At least two stage plays set in the world of pro wrestling have been produced: The Baron is a comedy that retells the life of an actual performer known as Baron von Raschke. From Parts Unknown... is an award-nominated Canadian drama about the rise and fall of a fictional wrestler. The 2009 South Park episode "W.T.F." played on the soap operatic elements of professional wrestling. One of the lead characters on the Disney Channel series Kim Possible was a huge fan of pro wrestling and actually featured it on an episode (with two former WWE wrestlers voicing the two fictitious wrestlers featured in the episode). The 2008 film The Wrestler, about a washed-up professional wrestler, garnered several Oscar nominations.
What other areas has wrestling garnered interest from?
572678caf1498d1400e8e0dc
academic study and journalistic criticism
100
False
What areas of study is wrestling talked about in?
572678caf1498d1400e8e0dd
theatre, sociology, performance, and media
314
False
What did Heather Levi write?
572678caf1498d1400e8e0de
an ethnography about the culture of lucha libre
528
False
What college has a course about the cultural impact of wrestling?
572678caf1498d1400e8e0df
Massachusetts Institute of Technology
362
False
With its growing popularity, professional wrestling has attracted attention as a subject of serious academic study and journalistic criticism. Many courses, theses, essays, and dissertations have analyzed wrestling's conventions, content, and its role in modern society. It is often included as part of studies on theatre, sociology, performance, and media. The Massachusetts Institute of Technology developed a course of study on the cultural significance of professional wrestling, and anthropologist Heather Levi has written an ethnography about the culture of lucha libre in Mexico.
What impact did the revelation of wrestling being "fixed" have?
5726798af1498d1400e8e0f6
looked down on as a cheap entertainment for the uneducated working class
137
False
When was Roland Barthes book published?
5726798af1498d1400e8e0f7
1957
464
False
What did Barthes believe a wrestler give the audience?
5726798af1498d1400e8e0f8
a theatrical spectacle
1012
False
What was the name of Roland Barthes' essay?
5726798af1498d1400e8e0f9
"The World of Wrestling"
393
False
However, this was not always the case; in the early 20th century, once it became apparent that the "sport" was worked, pro wrestling was looked down on as a cheap entertainment for the uneducated working class — an attitude that still exists to varying degrees today. The French theorist Roland Barthes was among the first to propose that wrestling was worthy of deeper analysis, in his essay "The World of Wrestling" from his book Mythologies, first published in 1957. Barthes argued that it should be looked at not as a scamming of the ignorant, but as spectacle; a mode of theatric performance for a willing, if bloodthirsty, audience. Wrestling is described as performed art which demands an immediate reading of the juxtaposed meanings. The logical conclusion is given least importance over the theatrical performers of the wrestlers and the referee. According to Barthes, the function of a wrestler is not to win: it is to go exactly through the motions which are expected of them and to give the audience a theatrical spectacle. This work is considered a foundation of all later study.
What is wrestling sometimes called?
572679f3708984140094c75d
"soap opera for males"
59
False
What is wrestling to people during a peaceful time?
572679f3708984140094c75e
vicarious outlet for aggression
538
False
What role does wrestling fill?
572679f3708984140094c75f
past forms of literature and theatre;
129
False
While pro wrestling is often described simplistically as a "soap opera for males", it has also been cited as filling the role of past forms of literature and theatre; a synthesis of classical heroics, commedia dell'arte, revenge tragedies, morality plays, and burlesque. The characters and storylines portrayed by a successful promotion are seen to reflect the current mood, attitudes, and concerns of that promotion's society (and can, in turn, influence those same things). Wrestling's high levels of violence and masculinity make it a vicarious outlet for aggression during peacetime.
Who has studied the lives of wrestlers?
57267a6d708984140094c775
Documentary filmmakers
0
False
When did Beyond the Mat come out?
57267a6d708984140094c776
1999
126
False
Who hosts Real Sports?
57267a6d708984140094c777
Bryant Gumbel
617
False
Who are a few wrestlers who have had memoirs written about them?
57267a6d708984140094c778
Chris Jericho, Rob Van Dam and Roddy Piper
1003
False
Documentary filmmakers have studied the lives of wrestlers and the effects the profession has on them and their families. The 1999 theatrical documentary Beyond the Mat focused on Terry Funk, a wrestler nearing retirement; Mick Foley, a wrestler within his prime; Jake Roberts, a former star fallen from grace; and a school of wrestling student trying to break into the business. The 2005 release Lipstick and Dynamite, Piss and Vinegar: The First Ladies of Wrestling chronicled the development of women's wrestling throughout the 20th century. Pro wrestling has been featured several times on HBO's Real Sports with Bryant Gumbel. MTV's documentary series True Life featured two episodes titled "I'm a Professional Wrestler" and "I Want to Be a Professional Wrestler". Other documentaries have been produced by The Learning Channel (The Secret World of Professional Wrestling) and A&E (Hitman Hart: Wrestling with Shadows). Bloodstained Memoirs explored the careers of several pro wrestlers, including Chris Jericho, Rob Van Dam and Roddy Piper.
What are the risks of wrestling?
57267ae05951b619008f740f
high chance of injury, and even death
54
False
What is the ring commonly made of?
57267ae05951b619008f7410
2 by 8 timber planks
269
False
What are common injuries in wrestling?
57267ae05951b619008f7411
shoulders, knee, back, neck, and rib injuries
344
False
What other injuries have been connected with wrestling?
57267ae05951b619008f7412
Chronic traumatic encephalopathy and traumatic brain injuries
391
False
Chris Benoit was involved in what tragic event?
57267ae05951b619008f7413
double-murder suicide case
510
False
Although professional wrestling is worked, there is a high chance of injury, and even death. Strikes are often stiff, especially in Japan and in independent wrestling promotions such as Combat Zone Wrestling (CZW) and Ring of Honor (ROH). The ring is often made out of 2 by 8 timber planks. Many of the injuries that occur in pro wrestling are shoulders, knee, back, neck, and rib injuries. Chronic traumatic encephalopathy and traumatic brain injuries have also been linked to pro wrestling, including in the double-murder suicide case involving Chris Benoit. Professional wrestler Davey Richards said in 2015, "We train to take damage, we know we are going to take damage and we accept that".
Film_speed
What does the film's quantum efficiency limit?
57263b5b38643c19005ad33b
sensitivity
560
False
What speed of film is produced by insensitive film?
57263b5b38643c19005ad33c
slow film
193
False
What leads to lower quality images?
57263b5b38643c19005ad33d
reduction of exposure
308
False
What types of film are considered fast films?
57263b5b38643c19005ad33e
Highly sensitive films
204
False
What effect does highly sensitive film have on images?
57263b5b38643c19005ad33f
reduced image quality
394
False
more exposure to light
80
What does insensitive film with a faster speed index need?
5a677239f038b7001ab0c23a
True
light
97
What does a sensitive film more of?
5a677239f038b7001ab0c23b
True
reduction of exposure corresponding to use of higher sensitivities generally leads to reduced image quality
308
How is digital photography different from film?
5a677239f038b7001ab0c23c
True
image quality
402
Higher sensitivity leads to greater what?
5a677239f038b7001ab0c23d
True
the quantum efficiency
586
What does a grainier image limit?
5a677239f038b7001ab0c23e
True
Relatively insensitive film, with a correspondingly lower speed index, requires more exposure to light to produce the same image density as a more sensitive film, and is thus commonly termed a slow film. Highly sensitive films are correspondingly termed fast films. In both digital and film photography, the reduction of exposure corresponding to use of higher sensitivities generally leads to reduced image quality (via coarser film grain or higher image noise of other types). In short, the higher the sensitivity, the grainier the image will be. Ultimately sensitivity is limited by the quantum efficiency of the film or sensor.
What consists of 25 pigmented squares touching a plate below a phosphorescent tablet under the light of a burning Magnesium ribbon?
57263d16271a42140099d7b1
The Warnerke Standard Sensitometer
0
False
What do degrees Warnerke measure?
57263d16271a42140099d7b2
The speed of the emulsion
316
False
How much speed is associated with each degree Warnerke?
57263d16271a42140099d7b3
an increase of 1/3 in speed
536
False
What were usual ranges of Warnerke speeds?
57263d16271a42140099d7b4
between 10° and 25° Warnerke
591
False
What does the last exposed number on the plate represent?
57263d16271a42140099d7b5
'degrees' Warnerke
364
False
screen
74
The Warnerke Standard Sensitometer has 25 opaque what?
5a67758df038b7001ab0c24a
True
'degrees' Warnerke
364
What measures the number of pigmented squares on the photographic plate?
5a67758df038b7001ab0c24b
True
number visible on the exposed plate
444
Degrees Warneke represented the first what?
5a67758df038b7001ab0c24c
True
between 10° and 25° Warnerke
591
What was the range of the number of squares in a Sensitometer?
5a67758df038b7001ab0c24d
True
1/3 in speed
551
Each number represented a decrease of what?
5a67758df038b7001ab0c24e
True
The Warnerke Standard Sensitometer consisted of a frame holding an opaque screen with an array of typically 25 numbered, gradually pigmented squares brought into contact with the photographic plate during a timed test exposure under a phosphorescent tablet excited before by the light of a burning Magnesium ribbon. The speed of the emulsion was then expressed in 'degrees' Warnerke (sometimes seen as Warn. or °W.) corresponding with the last number visible on the exposed plate after development and fixation. Each number represented an increase of 1/3 in speed, typical plate speeds were between 10° and 25° Warnerke at the time.
Who created the Scheinergrade system?
57263eaf89a1e219009ac5b4
the German astronomer Julius Scheiner
47
False
What is the Scheinergrade system used for?
57263eaf89a1e219009ac5b5
comparing the speeds of plates used for astronomical photography
131
False
What do degrees Scheiner indicate?
57263eaf89a1e219009ac5b6
the speed of a plate
221
False
What is the range of Scheiner speeds?
57263eaf89a1e219009ac5b7
from 1° Sch. to 20° Sch
373
False
Approximately how many degrees indicate double the sensitivity?
57263eaf89a1e219009ac5b8
an increment of 3° Sch
502
False
astronomical photography
171
What was the second use of the Scheinergrade system?
5a678045f038b7001ab0c25c
True
a doubling of sensitivity
540
What did an increment of 1 degree Sch. correspond to?
5a678045f038b7001ab0c25d
True
a hundredfold increase in sensitivity
446
What was 20 degrees Sch. indicative of?
5a678045f038b7001ab0c25e
True
The Scheinergrade (Sch.) system
0
What measured the visible darkening of a developing photograph?
5a678045f038b7001ab0c25f
True
1894
100
When did the Scheinergrade system become outdated?
5a678045f038b7001ab0c260
True
The Scheinergrade (Sch.) system was devised by the German astronomer Julius Scheiner (1858–1913) in 1894 originally as a method of comparing the speeds of plates used for astronomical photography. Scheiner's system rated the speed of a plate by the least exposure to produce a visible darkening upon development. Speed was expressed in degrees Scheiner, originally ranging from 1° Sch. to 20° Sch., where an increment of 19° Sch. corresponded to a hundredfold increase in sensitivity, which meant that an increment of 3° Sch. came close to a doubling of sensitivity.
Who developed a device that improved on the shortcomings of Scheiner's invention?
572640b938643c19005ad383
Austrian scientist Josef Maria Eder (1855–1944) and Flemish-born botanist Walter Hecht (de)
114
False
What did the Eder-Hecht device measure?
572640b938643c19005ad384
emulsion speeds
311
False
What method did manufacturers use much of the time to compare film speeds?
572640b938643c19005ad385
comparing with competing products
445
False
What type of measurement methods began to proliferate?
572640b938643c19005ad386
modified semi-Scheiner-based systems
512
False
What eliminated comparability?
572640b938643c19005ad387
modified semi-Scheiner-based systems
512
False
Josef Maria Eder (1855–1944) and Flemish-born botanist Walter Hecht (de)
133
Who caused the shortcomings in the Scheiner invention?
5a67848df038b7001ab0c266
True
Eder–Hecht neutral wedge sensitometer
263
What device allowed manufacturers to reliably determine speed?
5a67848df038b7001ab0c267
True
The system
0
What was revised to a measure a tighter range?
5a67848df038b7001ab0c268
True
modified semi-Scheiner-based systems
512
What made comparability a more common option?
5a67848df038b7001ab0c269
True
Josef Maria Eder
133
What scientist suggested comparing the systems?
5a67848df038b7001ab0c26a
True
The system was later extended to cover larger ranges and some of its practical shortcomings were addressed by the Austrian scientist Josef Maria Eder (1855–1944) and Flemish-born botanist Walter Hecht (de) (1896–1960), (who, in 1919/1920, jointly developed their Eder–Hecht neutral wedge sensitometer measuring emulsion speeds in Eder–Hecht grades). Still, it remained difficult for manufactures to reliably determine film speeds, often only by comparing with competing products, so that an increasing number of modified semi-Scheiner-based systems started to spread, which no longer followed Scheiner's original procedures and thereby defeated the idea of comparability.
When was the DIN system established?
5726428438643c19005ad3af
January 1934
159
False
Who created the DIN system?
5726428438643c19005ad3b0
Deutsches Institut für Normung
48
False
What was proposed at the VIII International Congress of Photography?
5726428438643c19005ad3b1
a standardized method of sensitometry
199
False
Who presented the idea that grew into the DIN?
5726428438643c19005ad3b2
Robert Luther (de) (1868–1945) and Emanuel Goldberg (1881–1970)
427
False
Where was the VIII International Congress of Photography held?
5726428438643c19005ad3b3
Dresden
646
False
January 1934
159
When were the drafts by Deutscher Normenausschuß für Phototechnik made?
5a6786f4f038b7001ab0c270
True
DIN standard 4512
27
What was the abbreviation for the Deutscher Normenausschuß für Phototechnik drafts?
5a6786f4f038b7001ab0c271
True
1930
405
When was Deutsche Gesellschaft für photographische Forschung founded?
5a6786f4f038b7001ab0c272
True
Dresden
646
Where was Emanuel Goldberg from?
5a6786f4f038b7001ab0c273
True
Robert Luther (de)
427
Who founded the VIII. International Congress of Photography?
5a6786f4f038b7001ab0c274
True
The DIN system, officially DIN standard 4512 by Deutsches Institut für Normung (but still named Deutscher Normenausschuß (DNA) at this time), was published in January 1934. It grew out of drafts for a standardized method of sensitometry put forward by Deutscher Normenausschuß für Phototechnik as proposed by the committee for sensitometry of the Deutsche Gesellschaft für photographische Forschung since 1930 and presented by Robert Luther (de) (1868–1945) and Emanuel Goldberg (1881–1970) at the influential VIII. International Congress of Photography (German: Internationaler Kongreß für wissenschaftliche und angewandte Photographie) held in Dresden from August 3 to 8, 1931.
What unit was used in the DIN to express speeds?
572644315951261400b51960
degrees
53
False
How was sensitivity expressed at first in the DIN system?
572644315951261400b51961
as a fraction with 'tenths' (for example "18/10° DIN")
102
False
When did the degree symbol fall out of use in the DIN system?
572644315951261400b51962
with DIN 4512:1961-10
389
False
Why did the definition of film speeds change considerably?
572644315951261400b51963
to accommodate then-recent changes in the American ASA PH2.5-1960 standard
497
False
What happened to film speeds of black-and-white negative film?
572644315951261400b51964
would become doubled
638
False
DIN 4512:1961-10
394
What replaced the American ASA PH2.5-1960 standard?
5a67883df038b7001ab0c28c
True
ASA PH2.5-1960
548
What system reintroduced the degree symbol?
5a67883df038b7001ab0c28d
True
DIN 4512:1957-11
280
What American standard abandoned the tenths method?
5a67883df038b7001ab0c28e
True
21 DIN
732
With emulsion changes, what did 18° DIN become?
5a67883df038b7001ab0c28f
True
would become doubled
638
What happened to film speeds after the introduction of the DIN 4512:1957-11?
5a67883df038b7001ab0c290
True
As in the Scheiner system, speeds were expressed in 'degrees'. Originally the sensitivity was written as a fraction with 'tenths' (for example "18/10° DIN"), where the resultant value 1.8 represented the relative base 10 logarithm of the speed. 'Tenths' were later abandoned with DIN 4512:1957-11, and the example above would be written as "18° DIN". The degree symbol was finally dropped with DIN 4512:1961-10. This revision also saw significant changes in the definition of film speeds in order to accommodate then-recent changes in the American ASA PH2.5-1960 standard, so that film speeds of black-and-white negative film effectively would become doubled, that is, a film previously marked as "18° DIN" would now be labeled as "21 DIN" without emulsion changes.
What took the place of the German DIN 4512 system?
57264597f1498d1400e8dace
ISO 6:1974, ISO 2240:1982, and ISO 5800:1979
101
False
How is sensitivity shown in the ISO systems?
57264597f1498d1400e8dacf
in linear and logarithmic form as "ISO 100/21°"
184
False
What standards did the DIN begin to use?
57264597f1498d1400e8dad0
ISO standards
270
False
When were the ISO standards first adopted?
57264597f1498d1400e8dad1
in the 1980s
85
False
When were the last ISO standards adopted?
57264597f1498d1400e8dad2
July 2002
568
False
ISO 6:1974, ISO 2240:1982, and ISO 5800:1979
101
What did the German DIN 4512 supersede?
5a679283f038b7001ab0c2e0
True
DIN 4512
37
What German system wrote in a linear and logarithmic form?
5a679283f038b7001ab0c2e1
True
ISO
270
What standards did DIN abandon?
5a679283f038b7001ab0c2e2
True
1980s
92
When did the ISO adopt the DIN standards?
5a679283f038b7001ab0c2e3
True
July 2002
568
When did DIN 4512-5:1990-11 replace DIN ISO 5800:1998-06?
5a679283f038b7001ab0c2e4
True
On an international level the German DIN 4512 system has been effectively superseded in the 1980s by ISO 6:1974, ISO 2240:1982, and ISO 5800:1979 where the same sensitivity is written in linear and logarithmic form as "ISO 100/21°" (now again with degree symbol). These ISO standards were subsequently adopted by DIN as well. Finally, the latest DIN 4512 revisions were replaced by corresponding ISO standards, DIN 4512-1:1993-05 by DIN ISO 6:1996-02 in September 2000, DIN 4512-4:1985-08 by DIN ISO 2240:1998-06 and DIN 4512-5:1990-11 by DIN ISO 5800:1998-06 both in July 2002.
What system was used previous to the ASA system?
57264675dd62a815002e8038
the system of Weston film speed ratings
37
False
Who devised the Weston film speed ratings?
57264675dd62a815002e8039
Edward Faraday Weston (1878–1971) and his father Dr. Edward Weston (1850–1936)
95
False
What company did Dr. Edward Weston start?
57264675dd62a815002e803a
the US-based Weston Electrical Instrument Corporation
240
False
When was the Weston model 617 created?
57264675dd62a815002e803b
August 1932
377
False
Who is credited with creating the film and meter system?
57264675dd62a815002e803c
William Nelson Goodwin, Jr.
440
False
Edward Faraday Weston
95
Who introduced the ASA system?
5a679303f038b7001ab0c2f4
True
August 1932
377
When was the ASA system introduced?
5a679303f038b7001ab0c2f5
True
1878
118
When was William Nelson Goodwin Jr. born?
5a679303f038b7001ab0c2f6
True
Howard N. Potts Medal
510
What medal did Edward Faraday Weston win?
5a679303f038b7001ab0c2f7
True
the system of Weston film speed ratings
37
What did Howard N. Potts invent in 1932?
5a679303f038b7001ab0c2f8
True
Before the advent of the ASA system, the system of Weston film speed ratings was introduced by Edward Faraday Weston (1878–1971) and his father Dr. Edward Weston (1850–1936), a British-born electrical engineer, industrialist and founder of the US-based Weston Electrical Instrument Corporation, with the Weston model 617, one of the earliest photo-electric exposure meters, in August 1932. The meter and film rating system were invented by William Nelson Goodwin, Jr., who worked for them and later received a Howard N. Potts Medal for his contributions to engineering.
Which cameras were first of their type to adopt the ASA scale?
57264e6f5951b619008f6f6f
The Weston Cadet (model 852 introduced in 1949), Direct Reading (model 853 introduced 1954) and Master III (models 737 and S141.3 introduced in 1956)
0
False
What were updated Weston values based on?
57264e6f5951b619008f6f70
the ASA system
538
False
How were Weston values changed to ASA values?
57264e6f5951b619008f6f71
by subtracting 1/3 exposure stop
610
False
Beginning with which year was the Weston to ASA conversion not necessary?
57264e6f5951b619008f6f72
1956
1018
False
Until what year did other models use the original Weston scale?
57264e6f5951b619008f6f73
1955
322
False
737 and S141.3
115
Which two models were introduced in 1949?
5a67a089f038b7001ab0c36e
True
1955
322
When did models move back to the Weston scale?
5a67a089f038b7001ab0c36f
True
1/3 exposure stop
625
What was added to convert Weston values to the older meters?
5a67a089f038b7001ab0c370
True
conversion
919
What was necessary on meters manufactured after 1956?
5a67a089f038b7001ab0c371
True
ca. 1955
318
When was the ASA scale established?
5a67a089f038b7001ab0c372
True
The Weston Cadet (model 852 introduced in 1949), Direct Reading (model 853 introduced 1954) and Master III (models 737 and S141.3 introduced in 1956) were the first in their line of exposure meters to switch and utilize the meanwhile established ASA scale instead. Other models used the original Weston scale up until ca. 1955. The company continued to publish Weston film ratings after 1955, but while their recommended values often differed slightly from the ASA film speeds found on film boxes, these newer Weston values were based on the ASA system and had to be converted for use with older Weston meters by subtracting 1/3 exposure stop as per Weston's recommendation. Vice versa, "old" Weston film speed ratings could be converted into "new" Westons and the ASA scale by adding the same amount, that is, a film rating of 100 Weston (up to 1955) corresponded with 125 ASA (as per ASA PH2.5-1954 and before). This conversion was not necessary on Weston meters manufactured and Weston film ratings published since 1956 due to their inherent use of the ASA system; however the changes of the ASA PH2.5-1960 revision may be taken into account when comparing with newer ASA or ISO values.
Which company adopted the ASA scale in 1946?
57264fdcf1498d1400e8dbda
General Electric
0
False
Beginning what year were cameras built with the ASA meter?
57264fdcf1498d1400e8dbdb
1946
91
False
How did older models convert to ASA scale?
57264fdcf1498d1400e8dbdc
replaceable hoods with ASA scales
308
False
How was the ASA scale shown on models built after 1946?
57264fdcf1498d1400e8dbdd
labeled "Exposure Index"
130
False
What were recommended film values lined up with after 1946?
57264fdcf1498d1400e8dbde
they were now aligned to the ASA scale
463
False
General Electric
0
What company stopped using ASA in 1946?
5a67a1b9f038b7001ab0c37e
True
1946
91
When were the DW-48 and DW-49 models made?
5a67a1b9f038b7001ab0c37f
True
Exposure Index
139
What were models pre-1946 labeled with?
5a67a1b9f038b7001ab0c380
True
the manufacturer
362
Who refused to create replaceable hoods with ASA scales?
5a67a1b9f038b7001ab0c381
True
the ASA scale
488
What did the recommended film values no longer follow after 1946?
5a67a1b9f038b7001ab0c382
True
General Electric switched to use the ASA scale in 1946. Meters manufactured since February 1946 were equipped with the ASA scale (labeled "Exposure Index") already. For some of the older meters with scales in "Film Speed" or "Film Value" (e.g. models DW-48, DW-49 as well as early DW-58 and GW-68 variants), replaceable hoods with ASA scales were available from the manufacturer. The company continued to publish recommended film values after that date, however, they were now aligned to the ASA scale.
Who pioneered research that led to the new ANSI values?
572650e6708984140094c219
Loyd Ancile Jones
34
False
What standards were the ANSI developed from?
572650e6708984140094c21a
Weston film speed ratings and General Electric film values
104
False
What types of film did the ANSI measure?
572650e6708984140094c21b
black-and-white negative films
277
False
When did the ANSI define its new measure?
572650e6708984140094c21c
1943
311
False
What were ANSI values often called in the beginning?
572650e6708984140094c21d
American standard speed numbers or ASA exposure-index numbers
463
False
Loyd Ancile Jones
34
Who did research for General Electric?
5a67a29af038b7001ab0c398
True
ANSI
210
What was Kodak renamed as?
5a67a29af038b7001ab0c399
True
earlier research work by Loyd Ancile Jones
9
What were the Weston Film speed ratings inspired by?
5a67a29af038b7001ab0c39a
True
1943
311
When did Jones publish his research?
5a67a29af038b7001ab0c39b
True
1947
358
When was ASA PH2.5-1954 released?
5a67a29af038b7001ab0c39c
True
Based on earlier research work by Loyd Ancile Jones (1884–1954) of Kodak and inspired by the systems of Weston film speed ratings and General Electric film values, the American Standards Association (now named ANSI) defined a new method to determine and specify film speeds of black-and-white negative films in 1943. ASA Z38.2.1-1943 was revised in 1946 and 1947 before the standard grew into ASA PH2.5-1954. Originally, ASA values were frequently referred to as American standard speed numbers or ASA exposure-index numbers. (See also: Exposure Index (EI).)
In what year were big changes made to the ANSI?
57265236708984140094c249
1960
47
False
What did the 1960 changes to film speed measures lead to?
57265236708984140094c24a
effectively doubling the nominal speed of many black-and-white negative films
202
False
Which other system were these changes applied to?
57265236708984140094c24b
the DIN system
450
False
In what year was the BS system modified?
57265236708984140094c24c
1963
518
False
What safety factors were done away with beginning with the modifications to the standards?
57265236708984140094c24d
safety factors against under-exposure
148
False
1960
47
When were new safety factors put in place?
5a67a409f038b7001ab0c3b6
True
black-and-white negative
249
The nominal speed of what films were halved by abandoning safety factors?
5a67a409f038b7001ab0c3b7
True
200 ASA
331
A 400 ASA became what after 1960?
5a67a409f038b7001ab0c3b8
True
before 1960
339
When were changes applied to the DIN system?
5a67a409f038b7001ab0c3b9
True
the DIN system
450
The Ilford HP3 changes were applied to what in the following years?
5a67a409f038b7001ab0c3ba
True
The ASA standard underwent a major revision in 1960 with ASA PH2.5-1960, when the method to determine film speed was refined and previously applied safety factors against under-exposure were abandoned, effectively doubling the nominal speed of many black-and-white negative films. For example, an Ilford HP3 that had been rated at 200 ASA before 1960 was labeled 400 ASA afterwards without any change to the emulsion. Similar changes were applied to the DIN system with DIN 4512:1961-10 and the BS system with BS 1380:1963 in the following years.
What is the plot from which film speed is derived called?
57265352dd62a815002e8190
the D–log H curve or Hurter–Driffield curve
94
False
How many regions does the Hurter-Driffield curve have?
57265352dd62a815002e8191
five
159
False
What is plotted in the Hurter-Driffield curve?
57265352dd62a815002e8192
a plot of optical density vs. log of exposure for the film
25
False
What is denoted when the specified contrast condition is met?
57265352dd62a815002e8193
The exposure Hm, in lux-s
585
False
What are the five regions of the Hurter-Driffield curve?
57265352dd62a815002e8194
the base + fog, the toe, the linear region, the shoulder, and the overexposed region
186
False
log of exposure
55
What is film speed combined with to produce optical density?
5a67abeaf038b7001ab0c408
True
the D–log H curve
94
What is a plot of film speed vs. log of exposure called?
5a67abeaf038b7001ab0c409
True
five
159
How many speed points are there in a black and white film?
5a67abeaf038b7001ab0c40a
True
the “speed point”
307
What is the point at which density is 0.1 less than the base + fog?
5a67abeaf038b7001ab0c40b
True
The exposure Hm, in lux-s
585
What is the ISO arithmetic speed?
5a67abeaf038b7001ab0c40c
True
Film speed is found from a plot of optical density vs. log of exposure for the film, known as the D–log H curve or Hurter–Driffield curve. There typically are five regions in the curve: the base + fog, the toe, the linear region, the shoulder, and the overexposed region. For black-and-white negative film, the “speed point” m is the point on the curve where density exceeds the base + fog density by 0.1 when the negative is developed so that a point n where the log of exposure is 1.3 units greater than the exposure at point m has a density 0.8 greater than the density at point m. The exposure Hm, in lux-s, is that for point m when the specified contrast condition is satisfied. The ISO arithmetic speed is determined from:
What is the effective f-number proportional to?
572655085951b619008f6fdb
the ratio between the lens focal length and aperture diameter
526
False
What is used to discover the right exposure parameters?
572655085951b619008f6fdc
Film speed
0
False
What variables help the photographer produce the desired effect?
572655085951b619008f6fdd
lighting, film speed, f-number (aperture size), and shutter speed (exposure time)
169
False
A lens with a setting of f/1.4 lets how much to hit the focal plane compared with a setting of f/2?
572655085951b619008f6fde
twice as much
702
False
In the APEX system, the increment that doubles the exposure is called what?
572655085951b619008f6fdf
"stop"
476
False
Film speed
0
What are appropriate exposure parameters used to find?
5a67aceaf038b7001ab0c412
True
stop
477
What is another name for film speed?
5a67aceaf038b7001ab0c413
True
APEX
368
What system uses ratios?
5a67aceaf038b7001ab0c414
True
effective f-number
488
The ratio between the diameter and square root of the aperture is called what?
5a67aceaf038b7001ab0c415
True
twice as much
702
How much does light does an f/2 let in as compared to an f/4?
5a67aceaf038b7001ab0c416
True
Film speed is used in the exposure equations to find the appropriate exposure parameters. Four variables are available to the photographer to obtain the desired effect: lighting, film speed, f-number (aperture size), and shutter speed (exposure time). The equation may be expressed as ratios, or, by taking the logarithm (base 2) of both sides, by addition, using the APEX system, in which every increment of 1 is a doubling of exposure; this increment is commonly known as a "stop". The effective f-number is proportional to the ratio between the lens focal length and aperture diameter, the diameter itself being proportional to the square root of the aperture area. Thus, a lens set to f/1.4 allows twice as much light to strike the focal plane as a lens set to f/2. Therefore, each f-number factor of the square root of two (approximately 1.4) is also a stop, so lenses are typically marked in that progression: f/1.4, 2, 2.8, 4, 5.6, 8, 11, 16, 22, 32, etc.
What determines the effect on the emulsion after exposure?
5726565df1498d1400e8dc72
the amount of light energy that reaches the film
15
False
In what range of exposures does reciprocity usually work?
5726565df1498d1400e8dc73
between 1/1000 second to 1/2 second
598
False
How is the exposure of film changed?
5726565df1498d1400e8dc74
by varying the camera's shutter speed and aperture
220
False
How are ways of finding an emulsion's sensitivity possible?
5726565df1498d1400e8dc75
because reciprocity holds
467
False
What happens outside the 1/1000 second to 1/second exposure range?
5726565df1498d1400e8dc76
reciprocity failure
718
False
the emulsion
91
What determines the amount of light energy that reaches the film?
5a67adf2f038b7001ab0c41c
True
density
352
Multiplying the brightness of a light by a factor and decreasing the exposure by the same factor causes what to change?
5a67adf2f038b7001ab0c41d
True
varying the camera's shutter speed and aperture
223
How is the brightness of a light changed?
5a67adf2f038b7001ab0c41e
True
1/1000 second to 1/2 second
606
Reciprocity only works outside of what ranges?
5a67adf2f038b7001ab0c41f
True
The systems for determining the sensitivity for an emulsion
394
Reciprocity holds because of what system?
5a67adf2f038b7001ab0c420
True
Upon exposure, the amount of light energy that reaches the film determines the effect upon the emulsion. If the brightness of the light is multiplied by a factor and the exposure of the film decreased by the same factor by varying the camera's shutter speed and aperture, so that the energy received is the same, the film will be developed to the same density. This rule is called reciprocity. The systems for determining the sensitivity for an emulsion are possible because reciprocity holds. In practice, reciprocity works reasonably well for normal photographic films for the range of exposures between 1/1000 second to 1/2 second. However, this relationship breaks down outside these limits, a phenomenon known as reciprocity failure.
What are two examples of films that are marketed with speeds above their true ISO speed?
572657b8708984140094c31d
Ilford Delta 3200 and Kodak T-MAX P3200
47
False
What speed of film is the Ilford Delta 3200?
572657b8708984140094c31e
ISO 1000
243
False
Which two companies produced E6 films meant for "pushing"?
572657b8708984140094c31f
Kodak and Fuji
379
False
What is the base speed of Ektachrome P800/1600 and Fujichrome P1600?
572657b8708984140094c320
ISO 400
539
False
What type of films are Ilford Delta 3200 and Kodak T-MAX P3200?
572657b8708984140094c321
high-speed black-and-white films
5
False
Ilford Delta 3200 and Kodak T-MAX P3200
47
What cameras have speeds above what they are marketed as?
5a67af54f038b7001ab0c426
True
the Ilford
209
3200 is the true ISO of what film?
5a67af54f038b7001ab0c427
True
3200
330
What is the true speed of the Kodak T-MAX P3200 according to the data sheet?
5a67af54f038b7001ab0c428
True
pushing
430
What is the Delta 3200 designed for?
5a67af54f038b7001ab0c429
True
E6
408
Ilford Delta and Fuji marketed what kind of film?
5a67af54f038b7001ab0c42a
True
Some high-speed black-and-white films, such as Ilford Delta 3200 and Kodak T-MAX P3200, are marketed with film speeds in excess of their true ISO speed as determined using the ISO testing method. For example, the Ilford product is actually an ISO 1000 film, according to its data sheet. The manufacturers do not indicate that the 3200 number is an ISO rating on their packaging. Kodak and Fuji also marketed E6 films designed for pushing (hence the "P" prefix), such as Ektachrome P800/1600 and Fujichrome P1600, both with a base speed of ISO 400.
What is another name for an exposure index rating?
57265bf25951b619008f7085
ISO setting
99
False
How do some camera designs give some EI choices?
57265bf25951b619008f7086
by adjusting the sensor's signal gain in the digital realm
621
False
Who provides the exposure index rating?
57265bf25951b619008f7087
the manufacturer
127
False
What are digital photo cameras also called?
57265bf25951b619008f7088
digital still cameras
28
False
exposure index (EI) rating
56
What is an sRGB image file commonly called?
5a67b268f038b7001ab0c430
True
film of the same EI rating at the same exposure
259
The lightness of an sRGB file is designed to be different from what?
5a67b268f038b7001ab0c431
True
the sensor's signal gain
490
What is adjusted prior to conversion to analog?
5a67b268f038b7001ab0c432
True
EI adjustment
715
What do choices do camera designs not offer?
5a67b268f038b7001ab0c433
True
tradeoffs between the range of highlights that can be captured and the amount of noise introduced
858
What does the choice of lightness parameters prevent?
5a67b268f038b7001ab0c434
True
For digital photo cameras ("digital still cameras"), an exposure index (EI) rating—commonly called ISO setting—is specified by the manufacturer such that the sRGB image files produced by the camera will have a lightness similar to what would be obtained with film of the same EI rating at the same exposure. The usual design is that the camera's parameters for interpreting the sensor data values into sRGB values are fixed, and a number of different EI choices are accommodated by varying the sensor's signal gain in the analog realm, prior to conversion to digital. Some camera designs provide at least some EI choices by adjusting the sensor's signal gain in the digital realm. A few camera designs also provide EI adjustment through a choice of lightness parameters for the interpretation of sensor data values into sRGB; this variation allows different tradeoffs between the range of highlights that can be captured and the amount of noise introduced into the shadow areas of the photo.
What types of cameras have proven to be much more sensitive to light than film?
57265d27708984140094c3a1
Digital cameras
0
False
What ISO equivalent speeds can digital cameras obtain?
57265d27708984140094c3a2
409,600
110
False
What is responsible for these vast increases in speed?
57265d27708984140094c3a3
Faster processors, as well as advances in software noise reduction techniques
196
False
What is one thing that limited speeds of older digital hardware?
57265d27708984140094c3a4
prohibitively time consuming to process
451
False
What does the higher speed do for the images produced?
57265d27708984140094c3a5
a higher level of refinement
402
False
sensitivity to light
52
How has film surpassed digital cameras?
5a67c170f038b7001ab0c44e
True
409,600
110
What is the highest ISO speed a film camera can reach?
5a67c170f038b7001ab0c44f
True
advances in software noise reduction techniques
226
What, besides a faster processor, prevents processing from happening when a photo is taken?
5a67c170f038b7001ab0c450
True
images that have a higher level of refinement
385
What could earlier generations of digital cameras store?
5a67c170f038b7001ab0c451
True
earlier
496
Which generation of cameras are capable of storing higher refined images?
5a67c170f038b7001ab0c452
True
Digital cameras have far surpassed film in terms of sensitivity to light, with ISO equivalent speeds of up to 409,600, a number that is unfathomable in the realm of conventional film photography. Faster processors, as well as advances in software noise reduction techniques allow this type of processing to be executed the moment the photo is captured, allowing photographers to store images that have a higher level of refinement and would have been prohibitively time consuming to process with earlier generations of digital camera hardware.
How many techniques are available because of ISO 12232:2006?
5726625c5951b619008f710f
five
85
False
What techniques did CIPA DC-004 provide?
5726625c5951b619008f7110
two new techniques allowing for measurement of JPEG output files
324
False
What factors affect the exposure index rating?
5726625c5951b619008f7111
the sensor sensitivity, the sensor noise, and the appearance of the resulting image
499
False
What does the standard of ISO 12232:2006 specify?
5726625c5951b619008f7112
the measurement of light sensitivity of the entire digital camera system and not of individual components
607
False
In what year did Kodak start using a different way of characterizing two sensors?
5726625c5951b619008f7113
2001
843
False
1998
288
When was ISO 12232:2006 made public?
5a67c3e1f038b7001ab0c458
True
Three
220
How many JPEG techniques were introduced in 1998?
5a67c3e1f038b7001ab0c459
True
sensor sensitivity, the sensor noise, and the appearance of the resulting image
503
What are the three techniques that affect ISO?
5a67c3e1f038b7001ab0c45a
True
five
85
How many techniques depend on sensor sensitivity?
5a67c3e1f038b7001ab0c45b
True
2001
843
When did Kodak stop using variations of sensitivity?
5a67c3e1f038b7001ab0c45c
True
The ISO standard ISO 12232:2006 gives digital still camera manufacturers a choice of five different techniques for determining the exposure index rating at each sensitivity setting provided by a particular camera model. Three of the techniques in ISO 12232:2006 are carried over from the 1998 version of the standard, while two new techniques allowing for measurement of JPEG output files are introduced from CIPA DC-004. Depending on the technique selected, the exposure index rating can depend on the sensor sensitivity, the sensor noise, and the appearance of the resulting image. The standard specifies the measurement of light sensitivity of the entire digital camera system and not of individual components such as digital sensors, although Kodak has reported using a variation to characterize the sensitivity of two of their sensors in 2001.
What option does the Recommended Exposure Index give manufacturers?
572663cd5951b619008f7147
to specify a camera model’s EI choices arbitrarily
113
False
What is another name for multi-zone metering?
572663cd5951b619008f7148
pattern metering
531
False
What distinction does the Recommended Exposure Index have?
572663cd5951b619008f7149
the only technique available under the standard for output formats that are not in the sRGB color space
327
False
When was the Recommended Exposure Index introduced?
572663cd5951b619008f714a
2006
59
False
What is the only technique that can be used when multi-zone metering is used?
572663cd5951b619008f714b
Recommended Exposure Index (REI) technique
4
False
the 2006 version of the standard
55
What standardized EI choices?
5a67c59cf038b7001ab0c462
True
2006
59
When was multi-zone metering introduced?
5a67c59cf038b7001ab0c463
True
multi-zone metering
498
REI and what are the only techniques available under standard outputs?
5a67c59cf038b7001ab0c464
True
The Recommended Exposure Index (REI) technique
0
What was retracted in the 2006 standards?
5a67c59cf038b7001ab0c465
True
the manufacturer
197
Who created the 2006 standard?
5a67c59cf038b7001ab0c466
True
The Recommended Exposure Index (REI) technique, new in the 2006 version of the standard, allows the manufacturer to specify a camera model’s EI choices arbitrarily. The choices are based solely on the manufacturer’s opinion of what EI values produce well-exposed sRGB images at the various sensor sensitivity settings. This is the only technique available under the standard for output formats that are not in the sRGB color space. This is also the only technique available under the standard when multi-zone metering (also called pattern metering) is used.
What year was the Standard Output Sensitivity technique introduced?
572665495951b619008f7193
2006
65
False
What does the Standard Output Sensitivity technique apply to?
572665495951b619008f7194
sRGB images—typically JPEG
441
False
What is the output level measured in?
572665495951b619008f7195
the sRGB output from the camera
383
False
With what type of metering can the Standard Output Sensitivity not be used?
572665495951b619008f7196
multi-zone metering
539
False
With what standard is the automatic exposure control system calibrated?
572665495951b619008f7197
ISO 2721
285
False
The Standard Output Sensitivity (SOS)
0
What technique was removed in the 2006 standards?
5a67d295f038b7001ab0c46c
True
18%
166
When exposure is not automatically controlled, what is the gray set at?
5a67d295f038b7001ab0c46d
True
18% gray plus or minus 1/3 stop
166
How are files in raw measured?
5a67d295f038b7001ab0c46e
True
2721
289
Multi-zone metering uses what ISO calibration?
5a67d295f038b7001ab0c46f
True
2006
65
When was the SOS technique applied to raw images?
5a67d295f038b7001ab0c470
True
The Standard Output Sensitivity (SOS) technique, also new in the 2006 version of the standard, effectively specifies that the average level in the sRGB image must be 18% gray plus or minus 1/3 stop when the exposure is controlled by an automatic exposure control system calibrated per ISO 2721 and set to the EI with no exposure compensation. Because the output level is measured in the sRGB output from the camera, it is only applicable to sRGB images—typically JPEG—and not to output files in raw image format. It is not applicable when multi-zone metering is used.
Which methods are required by CIPA DC-004?
5726668a708984140094c4cb
REI or SOS techniques
102
False
In what year did the three EI techniques from ISO 12232:1998 largely stop being used?
5726668a708984140094c4cc
approximately 2007 and later
322
False
With what cameras can earlier techniques not be used?
5726668a708984140094c4cd
cameras that produce images only in JPEG format
486
False
What nation's cameras does the CIPA DC-004 apply to?
5726668a708984140094c4ce
Japanese
39
False
What does the DC-008 change?
5726668a708984140094c4cf
the Exif specification
144
False
three
224
How many techniques are widely used in new camera models?
5a67d407f038b7001ab0c476
True
2007
336
When was the CIPA DC-004 standard released?
5a67d407f038b7001ab0c477
True
Japanese
39
Which manufacturers are exempt from CIPA DC-004?
5a67d407f038b7001ab0c478
True
the three EI techniques carried over from ISO 12232:1998
220
After 2007, newer camera models started using what techniques again?
5a67d407f038b7001ab0c479
True
JPEG
522
The three EI techniques have to be used on cameras that only capture in what format?
5a67d407f038b7001ab0c47a
True
The CIPA DC-004 standard requires that Japanese manufacturers of digital still cameras use either the REI or SOS techniques, and DC-008 updates the Exif specification to differentiate between these values. Consequently, the three EI techniques carried over from ISO 12232:1998 are not widely used in recent camera models (approximately 2007 and later). As those earlier techniques did not allow for measurement from images produced with lossy compression, they cannot be used at all on cameras that produce images only in JPEG format.
What does the sensor usually determine?
5726722df1498d1400e8dfee
lower limit of the saturation speed
113
False
How can the saturation speed be increased?
5726722df1498d1400e8dfef
with the gain of the amplifier between the sensor and the analog-to-digital converter
189
False
What is indicated by the factor √2?
5726722df1498d1400e8dff0
there is half a stop of headroom to deal with specular reflections that would appear brighter than a 100% reflecting white surface
540
False
What can too much exposure lead to?
5726722df1498d1400e8dff1
clipped or bloomed camera output
64
False
a clipped or bloomed camera output
62
The lower limit of saturation speed leads to what?
5a67d77bf038b7001ab0c480
True
the saturation speed
276
What does the amplifier prevent from increasing?
5a67d77bf038b7001ab0c481
True
an 18-percent reflective surface will result in an image with a grey level of 18%/√2 = 12.7% of saturation
403
Why is the factor of 78 avoided?
5a67d77bf038b7001ab0c482
True
18%
481
A grey level of 12.7 results in what saturation?
5a67d77bf038b7001ab0c483
True
the sensor itself
166
What is the upper limit of saturation determined by?
5a67d77bf038b7001ab0c484
True
where  is the maximum possible exposure that does not lead to a clipped or bloomed camera output. Typically, the lower limit of the saturation speed is determined by the sensor itself, but with the gain of the amplifier between the sensor and the analog-to-digital converter, the saturation speed can be increased. The factor 78 is chosen such that exposure settings based on a standard light meter and an 18-percent reflective surface will result in an image with a grey level of 18%/√2 = 12.7% of saturation. The factor √2 indicates that there is half a stop of headroom to deal with specular reflections that would appear brighter than a 100% reflecting white surface.
Which ratios are employed to calculate noise-based speed?
57267360f1498d1400e8dffe
the 40:1 ("excellent image quality") and the 10:1 ("acceptable image quality") ratio
140
False
What is the noise-based speed?
57267360f1498d1400e8dfff
the exposure that will lead to a given signal-to-noise ratio on individual pixels
36
False
How are the two ratios found?
57267360f1498d1400e8e000
subjectively determined based on a resolution of 70 pixels per cm (178 DPI) when viewed at 25 cm (9.8 inch) distance
249
False
What is a definition of signal-to-noise ratio?
57267360f1498d1400e8e001
the standard deviation of a weighted average of the luminance and color of individual pixels
407
False
What factors influence the noise-based speed?
57267360f1498d1400e8e002
the properties of the sensor and somewhat affected by the noise in the electronic gain and AD converter
547
False
40:1
144
Which ratio was subjectively determined?
5a67d93ff038b7001ab0c494
True
The noise-based speed
0
What are the individual pixels defined by?
5a67d93ff038b7001ab0c495
True
70 pixels per cm (178 DPI) when viewed at 25 cm (9.8 inch) distance
298
What is the signal-to-noise ration?
5a67d93ff038b7001ab0c496
True
70
298
How many pixels are in a 40:1 ratio image?
5a67d93ff038b7001ab0c497
True
The signal-to-noise ratio
367
The weighted average of the luminance and the noise in the electronic gain is defined as what?
5a67d93ff038b7001ab0c498
True
The noise-based speed is defined as the exposure that will lead to a given signal-to-noise ratio on individual pixels. Two ratios are used, the 40:1 ("excellent image quality") and the 10:1 ("acceptable image quality") ratio. These ratios have been subjectively determined based on a resolution of 70 pixels per cm (178 DPI) when viewed at 25 cm (9.8 inch) distance. The signal-to-noise ratio is defined as the standard deviation of a weighted average of the luminance and color of individual pixels. The noise-based speed is mostly determined by the properties of the sensor and somewhat affected by the noise in the electronic gain and AD converter.
When should the noise-based speed be used?
572674a05951b619008f7317
the noise-based speed (40:1) is higher than the saturation-based speed
78
False
What is the range for exposure latitude?
572674a05951b619008f7318
from the saturation-based speed to the 10:1 noise-based speed
441
False
What is another speed that can also be reported by the camera?
572674a05951b619008f7319
SOS-based speed
793
False
Why should noise-based speed be rounded down to a lower standard?
572674a05951b619008f731a
exposure according to the lower saturation-based speed would not result in a visibly better image
282
False
What does the standard specify?
572674a05951b619008f731b
how speed ratings should be reported by the camera
23
False
image
374
A lower saturation-based speed would create a better what?
5a67da4df038b7001ab0c49e
True
10:1
480
What is the ratio for the saturation-based speed?
5a67da4df038b7001ab0c49f
True
upwards
663
Is the SOS rounded up or down?
5a67da4df038b7001ab0c4a0
True
using the noise-based speed
700
How are underexposed images created?
5a67da4df038b7001ab0c4a1
True
using the noise-based speed would lead to overexposed images
700
Why are saturation-based speeds rounded down?
5a67da4df038b7001ab0c4a2
True
The standard specifies how speed ratings should be reported by the camera. If the noise-based speed (40:1) is higher than the saturation-based speed, the noise-based speed should be reported, rounded downwards to a standard value (e.g. 200, 250, 320, or 400). The rationale is that exposure according to the lower saturation-based speed would not result in a visibly better image. In addition, an exposure latitude can be specified, ranging from the saturation-based speed to the 10:1 noise-based speed. If the noise-based speed (40:1) is lower than the saturation-based speed, or undefined because of high noise, the saturation-based speed is specified, rounded upwards to a standard value, because using the noise-based speed would lead to overexposed images. The camera may also report the SOS-based speed (explicitly as being an SOS speed), rounded to the nearest standard speed rating.
What measures might the user "ISO" setting correspond to?
572676395951b619008f734f
the noise-based speed, saturation-based speed, or the specified output sensitivity, or even some made-up number for marketing purposes
128
False
What did the 1998 version of ISO 12232 not permit?
572676395951b619008f7350
measurement of camera output that had lossy compression
317
False
What types of sensitivity ratings can be specified by a camera?
572676395951b619008f7351
REI or SOS
676
False
What standards changed what Japanese camera makers have to specify?
572676395951b619008f7352
CIPA DC-004
551
False
In what year was CIPA DC-004 introduced?
572676395951b619008f7353
2006
566
False
the noise-based speed
128
Cameras must indicate when the ISO setting refers to what?
5a67db3d8476ee001a58a742
True
lossy
355
The 1998 ISO 12232 allowed for what type of compression?
5a67db3d8476ee001a58a743
True
CIPA DC-004
551
What publication affected Japanese digital still cameras in 1998?
5a67db3d8476ee001a58a744
True
1998
276
When was the TIFF file created?
5a67db3d8476ee001a58a745
True
whether a sensitivity rating is REI or SOS
644
The ISO 12232 requires manufacturures to specify what about a sensitivity rating?
5a67db3d8476ee001a58a746
True
Despite these detailed standard definitions, cameras typically do not clearly indicate whether the user "ISO" setting refers to the noise-based speed, saturation-based speed, or the specified output sensitivity, or even some made-up number for marketing purposes. Because the 1998 version of ISO 12232 did not permit measurement of camera output that had lossy compression, it was not possible to correctly apply any of those measurements to cameras that did not produce sRGB files in an uncompressed format such as TIFF. Following the publication of CIPA DC-004 in 2006, Japanese manufacturers of digital still cameras are required to specify whether a sensitivity rating is REI or SOS.[citation needed]
Mexico_City
How man feet above sea level is Mexico City
57263e5189a1e219009ac5aa
7,350
426
False
How many municipalities are in Mexico City?
57263e5189a1e219009ac5ab
sixteen
458
False
What did they used to call the municipalities within Mexico City?
57263e5189a1e219009ac5ac
boroughs
500
False
What is the Spanish word for Mexico City?
57263e5189a1e219009ac5ad
Ciudad de México
45
False
How many meters above sea is Mexico City?
57263e5189a1e219009ac5ae
2,240
412
False
Mexico City, or the City of Mexico (Spanish: Ciudad de México  audio (help·info) American Spanish: [sjuˈða(ð) ðe ˈméxiko]; abbreviated as "CDMX"), is the capital of Mexico. As an "alpha" global city, Mexico City is one of the most important financial centers in the Americas. It is located in the Valley of Mexico (Valle de México), a large valley in the high plateaus at the center of Mexico, at an altitude of 2,240 metres (7,350 ft). The city consists of sixteen municipalities (previously called boroughs).
How big is Mexico City's GDP?
572641e4ec44d21400f3dced
US$411 billion
62
False
How much bigger is Mexico City's GDP's than Costa Rica's?
572641e4ec44d21400f3dcee
five times
443
False
What percent of the Mexican GDP is the metropolitan area of Mexico City responsible for?
572641e4ec44d21400f3dcef
22%
317
False
Which country has about the same size GDP as Mexico city?
572641e4ec44d21400f3dcf0
Peru
506
False
The Greater Mexico City has a gross domestic product (GDP) of US$411 billion in 2011, making Mexico City urban agglomeration one of the economically largest metropolitan areas in the world. The city was responsible for generating 15.8% of Mexico's Gross Domestic Product and the metropolitan area accounted for about 22% of total national GDP. As a stand-alone country, in 2013, Mexico City would be the fifth-largest economy in Latin America—five times as large as Costa Rica's and about the same size as Peru's.
What was the original name of Mexico City?
5726427cec44d21400f3dcff
Tenochtitlan
230
False
Who originally built Mexico City?
5726427cec44d21400f3dd00
the Aztecs
208
False
When was the Federal District formed?
5726427cec44d21400f3dd01
1824
768
False
Where was the city first built?
5726427cec44d21400f3dd02
on an island of Lake Texcoco
176
False
When was Mexico City officially founded by the Spanish?
5726427cec44d21400f3dd03
1585
503
False
Mexico’s capital is both the oldest capital city in the Americas and one of two founded by Amerindians (Native Americans), the other being Quito. The city was originally built on an island of Lake Texcoco by the Aztecs in 1325 as Tenochtitlan, which was almost completely destroyed in the 1521 siege of Tenochtitlan, and subsequently redesigned and rebuilt in accordance with the Spanish urban standards. In 1524, the municipality of Mexico City was established, known as México Tenochtitlán, and as of 1585 it was officially known as Ciudad de México (Mexico City). Mexico City served as the political, administrative and financial center of a major part of the Spanish colonial empire. After independence from Spain was achieved, the Federal District was created in 1824.
Why can't Mexico City become a state?
57265a65708984140094c36d
Because of a clause in the Mexican Constitution
716
False
When did people become able to vote for representation?
57265a65708984140094c36e
1997
205
False
What political party controls the Mexico City legislature?
57265a65708984140094c36f
Party of the Democratic Revolution (PRD)
237
False
What was Mexico City's old affiliation with the nation of Mexico?
57265a65708984140094c370
Federal District
532
False
How are officials elected to the legislature?
57265a65708984140094c371
popular vote
189
False
After years of demanding greater political autonomy, residents were given the right to directly elect a Head of Government and the representatives of the unicameral Legislative Assembly by popular vote in 1997. Ever since, the left-wing Party of the Democratic Revolution (PRD) has controlled both of them. In recent years, the local government has passed a wave of liberal policies, such as abortion on request, a limited form of euthanasia, no-fault divorce, and same-sex marriage. On January 29, 2016, it ceased to be called the Federal District (Spanish: Distrito Federal or D.F.) and is now in transition to become the country's 32nd federal entity, giving it a level of autonomy comparable to that of a state. Because of a clause in the Mexican Constitution, however, as the seat of the powers of the Union, it can never become a state, lest the capital of the country be relocated elsewhere.
What was the labor draft called?
57265b12f1498d1400e8dd02
the desagüe
184
False
Who helped build infrastructure around the lake?
57265b12f1498d1400e8dd03
Indians
220
False
What was the main problem with being so close to the lake?
57265b12f1498d1400e8dd04
flooding
153
False
What was a negative of regulating the lake's water height?
57265b12f1498d1400e8dd05
changed the habitat for fish and birds
572
False
How many Indians helped build the infrastructure?
57265b12f1498d1400e8dd06
thousands
207
False
The city grew as the population did, coming up against the lake's waters. As the depth of the lake water fluctuated, Mexico City was subject to periodic flooding. A major labor draft, the desagüe, compelled thousands of Indians over the colonial period to work on infrastructure to prevent flooding. Floods were not only an inconvenience but also a health hazard, since during flood periods human waste polluted the city's streets. By draining the area, the mosquito population dropped as did the frequency of the diseases they spread. However, draining the wetlands also changed the habitat for fish and birds and the areas accessible for Indian cultivation close to the capital.
What is a common nickname for Mexico City?
57265bd2708984140094c37d
The city of palaces
1020
False
How did mexican nobles spend money in Mexico City?
57265bd2708984140094c37e
building churches, supporting charities and building extravagant palatial homes
742
False
When did the construction of exuberant houses slow down?
57265bd2708984140094c37f
the last half of the 18th century
900
False
The concept of nobility flourished in New Spain in a way not seen in other parts of the Americas. Spaniards encountered a society in which the concept of nobility mirrored that of their own. Spaniards respected the indigenous order of nobility and added to it. In the ensuing centuries, possession of a noble title in Mexico did not mean one exercised great political power, for one's power was limited even if the accumulation of wealth was not. The concept of nobility in Mexico was not political but rather a very conservative Spanish social one, based on proving the worthiness of the family. Most of these families proved their worth by making fortunes in New Spain outside of the city itself, then spending the revenues in the capital, building churches, supporting charities and building extravagant palatial homes. The craze to build the most opulent residence possible reached its height in the last half of the 18th century. Many of these palaces can still be seen today, leading to Mexico City's nickname of "The city of palaces" given by Alexander Von Humboldt.
When did Mexico gain independence?
57265c63f1498d1400e8dd3e
September 27, 1821
1288
False
How long was the war?
57265c63f1498d1400e8dd3f
a decade
1314
False
What was the first battle of the Mexican Independence war called?
57265c63f1498d1400e8dd40
The Battle of Guanajuato
1072
False
What was the battle cry of the war?
57265c63f1498d1400e8dd41
Grito
327
False
When did the war begin?
57265c63f1498d1400e8dd42
September 16, 1810
166
False
The Grito de Dolores ("Cry of Dolores") also known as El Grito de la Independencia ("Cry of Independence"), uttered from the small town of Dolores near Guanajuato on September 16, 1810, is the event that marks the beginning of the Mexican War of Independence and is the most important national holiday observed in Mexico. The "Grito" was the battle cry of the Mexican War of Independence by Miguel Hidalgo y Costilla, a Roman Catholic priest. Hidalgo and several criollos were involved in a planned revolt against the Spanish colonial government, and the plotters were betrayed. Fearing his arrest, Hidalgo commanded his brother Mauricio as well as Ignacio Allende and Mariano Abasolo to go with a number of other armed men to make the sheriff release the pro-independence inmates there on the night of September 15. They managed to set eighty free. Around 6:00 am September 16, 1810, Hidalgo ordered the church bells to be rung and gathered his congregation. Flanked by Allende and Juan Aldama, he addressed the people in front of his church, encouraging them to revolt. The Battle of Guanajuato, the first major engagement of the insurgency, occurred four days later. Mexico's independence from Spain was effectively declared in the Declaration of Independence of the Mexican Empire on September 27, 1821, after a decade of war. Unrest followed for the next several decades, as different factions fought for control of Mexico.
Who commanded the U.S. Army in the battle against Mexico City?
57265d135951b619008f70a1
Winfield Scott
308
False
What war did America and Mexico fight in?
57265d135951b619008f70a2
Mexican–American War
147
False
When did the battle for Mexico City take place
57265d135951b619008f70a3
September 8 to September 15, 1847
62
False
What American divisions got into Mexico City?
57265d135951b619008f70a4
U.S. Army's 1st, 2nd, 3rd and 4th
955
False
The Battle for Mexico City was the series of engagements from September 8 to September 15, 1847, in the general vicinity of Mexico City during the Mexican–American War. Included are major actions at the battles of Molino del Rey and Chapultepec, culminating with the fall of Mexico City. The U.S. Army under Winfield Scott scored a major success that ended the war. The American invasion into the Federal District was first resisted during the Battle of Churubusco on August 8 where the Saint Patrick's Battalion, which was composed primarily of Catholic Irish and German immigrants, but also Canadians, English, French, Italians, Poles, Scots, Spaniards, Swiss, and Mexican people, fought for the Mexican cause repelling the American attacks. After defeating the Saint Patrick's Battalion, the Mexican–American War came to a close after the United States deployed combat units deep into Mexico resulting in the capture of Mexico City and Veracruz by the U.S. Army's 1st, 2nd, 3rd and 4th Divisions. The invasion culminated with the storming of Chapultepec Castle in the city itself.
Who led the 4th division?
57265d79708984140094c3ab
John A. Quitman
61
False
What treaty was signed?
57265d79708984140094c3ac
Guadalupe Hidalgo
495
False
Who were the future confederate generals?
57265d79708984140094c3ad
George E. Pickett and James Longstreet
173
False
Who carried the castle?
57265d79708984140094c3ae
the 4th Division
37
False
When did the castle fall?
57265d79708984140094c3af
on September 13
20
False
During this battle, on September 13, the 4th Division, under John A. Quitman, spearheaded the attack against Chapultepec and carried the castle. Future Confederate generals George E. Pickett and James Longstreet participated in the attack. Serving in the Mexican defense were the cadets later immortalized as Los Niños Héroes (the "Boy Heroes"). The Mexican forces fell back from Chapultepec and retreated within the city. Attacks on the Belén and San Cosme Gates came afterwards. The treaty of Guadalupe Hidalgo was signed in what is now the far north of the city.
When was most of the urbanization completed?
57265e0bf1498d1400e8dd62
by 1908
327
False
The extensive modernization started with what?
57265e0bf1498d1400e8dd63
Many Spanish Colonial style buildings were destroyed
82
False
What was built during the modernization?
57265e0bf1498d1400e8dd64
hospitals, schools, factories and massive public works
385
False
What famous street was built during this period of modernization?
57265e0bf1498d1400e8dd65
Reforma Avenue
572
False
During this era of Porfirian rule, the city underwent an extensive modernization. Many Spanish Colonial style buildings were destroyed, replaced by new much larger Porfirian institutions and many outlying rural zones were transformed into urban or industrialized districts with most having electrical, gas and sewage utilities by 1908. While the initial focus was on developing modern hospitals, schools, factories and massive public works, perhaps the most long-lasting effects of the Porfirian modernization were creation of the Colonia Roma area and the development of Reforma Avenue. Many of Mexico City's major attractions and landmarks were built during this era in this style.
What was turned into a monument after the war?
57265ece708984140094c3d9
the main dome of Diaz's new senate hall
372
False
Who was the man behind the modernization of Mexico City?
57265ece708984140094c3da
Diaz
0
False
Why wasn't Diaz's plan completed?
57265ece708984140094c3db
the Mexican Revolution
314
False
What was the overall design plan of Mexico City?
57265ece708984140094c3dc
Porfirian/French style
86
False
What was the main construction project in the Profirian/French style?
57265ece708984140094c3dd
Colonia Roma
116
False
Diaz's plans called for the entire city to eventually be modernized or rebuilt in the Porfirian/French style of the Colonia Roma; but the Mexican Revolution began soon afterward and the plans never came to fruition, with many projects being left half-completed. One of the best examples of this is the Monument to the Mexican Revolution. Originally the monument was to be the main dome of Diaz's new senate hall, but when the revolution erupted only the dome of the senate hall and its supporting pillars were completed, this was subsequently seen as a symbol by many Mexicans that the Porfirian era was over once and for all and as such, it was turned into a monument to victory over Diaz.
Who was the leader at the end of the Mexican Revolution?
57267186708984140094c635
Plutarco Elias Calles
506
False
Where was Alvaro Obregon killed?
57267186708984140094c636
in a restaurant near La Bombilla Park in San Ángel
446
False
When was Alvaro Obregon killed?
57267186708984140094c637
1928
500
False
Where were the Zapatist forces from?
57267186708984140094c638
Morelos
49
False
Who was the third to last leader before the end of the Mexican Revolution?
57267186708984140094c639
Adolfo de la Huerta
310
False
Zapatist forces, which were based in neighboring Morelos had strengths in the southern edge of the Federal District, which included Xochimilco, Tlalpan, Tláhuac and Milpa Alta to fight against the regimes of Victoriano Huerta and Venustiano Carranza. After the assassination of Carranza and a short mandate by Adolfo de la Huerta, Álvaro Obregón took power. After willing to be re-elected, he was killed by José de León Toral, a devout Catholic, in a restaurant near La Bombilla Park in San Ángel in 1928. Plutarco Elias Calles replaced Obregón and culminated the Mexican Revolution.
How many of the industrial jobs in the county were based in Mexico City in the late 20th century?
5726723f5951b619008f72e1
half
8
False
What did the countryside workers make to live in?
5726723f5951b619008f72e2
shantytowns
373
False
What did the shantytowns create?
5726723f5951b619008f72e3
serious air pollution
427
False
In 1980 half of all the industrial jobs in Mexico were located in Mexico City. Under relentless growth, the Mexico City government could barely keep up with services. Villagers from the countryside who continued to pour into the city to escape poverty only compounded the city's problems. With no housing available, they took over lands surrounding the city, creating huge shantytowns that extended for many miles. This caused serious air pollution in Mexico City and water pollution problems, as well as subsidence due to overextraction of groundwater. Air and water pollution has been contained and improved in several areas due to government programs, the renovation of vehicles and the modernization of public transportation.
What day of the week did the major earthquake strike Mexico City?
572672d9708984140094c66d
Thursday
3
False
How strong was the powerful earthquake that hit Mexico City in 1985?
572672d9708984140094c66e
8.1 on the Richter scale
109
False
What month did the 8.1 earthquake hit Mexico City in 1985?
572672d9708984140094c66f
September
13
False
Why did the one-party government struggle after the major earthquake in 1985?
572672d9708984140094c670
paralyzed by its own bureaucracy and corruption
346
False
Who led the rescue effort after the earthquake of 1985?
572672d9708984140094c671
ordinary citizens
403
False
On Thursday, September 19, 1985, at 7:19 am local time, Mexico City was struck by an earthquake of magnitude 8.1 on the Richter scale. Although this earthquake was not as deadly or destructive as many similar events in Asia and other parts of Latin America, it proved to be a disaster politically for the one-party government. The government was paralyzed by its own bureaucracy and corruption, forcing ordinary citizens to create and direct their own rescue efforts and to reconstruct much of the housing that was lost as well.
What is the minimum height in meters of the region Mexico City is located in?
572673f0dd62a815002e8566
2,200
219
False
Where is Mexico City located?
572673f0dd62a815002e8567
Valley of Mexico
30
False
How high do the mountains get in Mexico City's region?
572673f0dd62a815002e8568
5,000 metres (16,000 feet)
336
False
Why is Mexico City vulnerable to flooding?
572673f0dd62a815002e8569
no natural drainage outlet for the waters that flow from the mountainsides
380
False
How does the city prevent flooding?
572673f0dd62a815002e856a
canals and tunnels
539
False
Mexico City is located in the Valley of Mexico, sometimes called the Basin of Mexico. This valley is located in the Trans-Mexican Volcanic Belt in the high plateaus of south-central Mexico. It has a minimum altitude of 2,200 meters (7,200 feet) above sea level and is surrounded by mountains and volcanoes that reach elevations of over 5,000 metres (16,000 feet). This valley has no natural drainage outlet for the waters that flow from the mountainsides, making the city vulnerable to flooding. Drainage was engineered through the use of canals and tunnels starting in the 17th century.
When did draining of Lake Texcoco begin?
57267507f1498d1400e8e044
17th century
132
False
How much water is there, approximately, in the lake Mexico City is on?
57267507f1498d1400e8e045
none
155
False
How much has the city fallen?
57267507f1498d1400e8e046
as much as nine metres (30 feet)
413
False
What does Mexico City rest on?
57267507f1498d1400e8e047
Lake Texcoco
40
False
Where are most of the trees located in Mexico City?
57267507f1498d1400e8e048
southern boroughs
696
False
Mexico city primarily rests on what was Lake Texcoco. Seismic activity is frequent here. Lake Texcoco was drained starting from the 17th century. Although none of the lake waters remain, the city rests on the lake bed's heavily saturated clay. This soft base is collapsing due to the over-extraction of groundwater, called groundwater-related subsidence. Since the beginning of the 20th century the city has sunk as much as nine metres (30 feet) in some areas. This sinking is causing problems with runoff and wastewater management, leading to flooding problems, especially during the rainy season. The entire lake bed is now paved over and most of the city's remaining forested areas lie in the southern boroughs of Milpa Alta, Tlalpan and Xochimilco.
How much rain falls on Mexico City?
57267593dd62a815002e85a8
820 millimetres (32.3 in)
24
False
When is it warm, yet does not rain?
57267593dd62a815002e85a9
March to May
607
False
When does the majority of the rain fall in Mexico City?
57267593dd62a815002e85aa
June to October
245
False
When is it coldest in Mexico City?
57267593dd62a815002e85ab
November to February
481
False
What mostly controls the rain in Mexico City?
57267593dd62a815002e85ac
tropical winds
625
False
The area receives about 820 millimetres (32.3 in) of annual rainfall, which is concentrated from June through September/October with little or no precipitation the remainder of the year. The area has two main seasons. The rainy season runs from June to October when winds bring in tropical moisture from the sea. The dry season runs from November to May, when the air is relatively drier. This dry season subdivides into a cold period and a warm period. The cold period spans from November to February when polar air masses push down from the north and keep the air fairly dry. The warm period extends from March to May when tropical winds again dominate but do not yet carry enough moisture for rain.
What happened to the dikes the Aztecs built?
57267657708984140094c6f7
destroyed during the siege of Tenochtitlan
259
False
Where does the lake still remain?
57267657708984140094c6f8
municipality of Atenco, State of Mexico
483
False
Who first built the dikes in Lake Texcoco?
57267657708984140094c6f9
The Aztecs
125
False
What made up Lake Texcoco?
57267657708984140094c6fa
a system of interconnected salt and freshwater lakes
71
False
Where is the lake located in Atenco?
57267657708984140094c6fb
Federal District
458
False
Originally much of the valley laid beneath the waters of Lake Texcoco, a system of interconnected salt and freshwater lakes. The Aztecs built dikes to separate the fresh water used to raise crops in chinampas and to prevent recurrent floods. These dikes were destroyed during the siege of Tenochtitlan, and during colonial times the Spanish regularly drained the lake to prevent floods. Only a small section of the original lake remains, located outside the Federal District, in the municipality of Atenco, State of Mexico.
How bad is the ozone in Mexico City?
572676f15951b619008f737d
2.5 times beyond WHO-defined safe limits
544
False
Carbon Monoxide levels are about 3 times lower now than in what year?
572676f15951b619008f737e
1992
319
False
What city is similar to Mexico City in terms of pollution?
572676f15951b619008f737f
Los Angeles
399
False
When Mexico one of the worst cities in terms of pollution?
572676f15951b619008f7380
1990s
7
False
Who decides safe levels of o-zone in cities?
572676f15951b619008f7381
WHO
561
False
By the 1990s Mexico City had become infamous as one of the world's most polluted cities; however the city has become a model for dramatically lowering pollution levels. By 2014 carbon monoxide pollution had dropped dramatically, while levels of sulfur dioxide and nitrogen dioxide were nearly three times lower than in 1992. The levels of signature pollutants in Mexico City are similar to those of Los Angeles.[citation needed] Despite the cleanup, the metropolitan area is still the most ozone-polluted part of the country, with ozone levels 2.5 times beyond WHO-defined safe limits.
What is the bus system called in Mexico City?
57267786dd62a815002e85f2
Metrobús
611
False
What is the bike-sharing program called in Mexico City?
57267786dd62a815002e85f3
Ecobici
646
False
How many days a week does the city encourage people to go without a car?
57267786dd62a815002e85f4
two days
404
False
What pollutants does the city closely monitor?
57267786dd62a815002e85f5
ozone and nitrogen oxides
169
False
How often do citizens need to get their cars examined?
57267786dd62a815002e85f6
biannual
502
False
To clean up pollution, the federal and local governments implemented numerous plans including the constant monitoring and reporting of environmental conditions, such as ozone and nitrogen oxides. When the levels of these two pollutants reached critical levels, contingency actions were implemented which included closing factories, changing school hours, and extending the A day without a car program to two days of the week. The government also instituted industrial technology improvements, a strict biannual vehicle emission inspection and the reformulation of gasoline and diesel fuels. The introduction of Metrobús bus rapid transit and the Ecobici bike-sharing were among efforts to encourage alternate, greener forms of transportation.
What was the other city in the running to become capital of Mexico?
57267841708984140094c731
Querétaro
544
False
What part of the constitution established the right to create a capital city?
57267841708984140094c732
Section XXVIII of Article 50
242
False
When was the federal constitution signed?
57267841708984140094c733
October 4, 1824
92
False
What type of land is Mexico City?
57267841708984140094c734
federal
404
False
Who is in charge of the land of Mexico City according to the original constitution?
57267841708984140094c735
federal government
427
False
The Acta Constitutiva de la Federación of January 31, 1824, and the Federal Constitution of October 4, 1824, fixed the political and administrative organization of the United Mexican States after the Mexican War of Independence. In addition, Section XXVIII of Article 50 gave the new Congress the right to choose where the federal government would be located. This location would then be appropriated as federal land, with the federal government acting as the local authority. The two main candidates to become the capital were Mexico City and Querétaro.
When was Mexico City declared the capital?
572678f75951b619008f73bf
November 18, 1824
259
False
How large was the area the federal government would proclaim to be the capital?
572678f75951b619008f73c0
two leagues square (8,800 acres)
320
False
Where was the state government located when Mexico City was declared the capital?
572678f75951b619008f73c1
Palace of the Inquisition
481
False
What is the Palace of the Inquisition known as now?
572678f75951b619008f73c2
Museum of Mexican Medicine
512
False
Where was the government of Mexico City moved to at the time it was declared capital of Mexico?
572678f75951b619008f73c3
Texcoco
555
False
Due in large part to the persuasion of representative Servando Teresa de Mier, Mexico City was chosen because it was the center of the country's population and history, even though Querétaro was closer to the center geographically. The choice was official on November 18, 1824, and Congress delineated a surface area of two leagues square (8,800 acres) centered on the Zocalo. This area was then separated from the State of Mexico, forcing that state's government to move from the Palace of the Inquisition (now Museum of Mexican Medicine) in the city to Texcoco. This area did not include the population centers of the towns of Coyoacán, Xochimilco, Mexicaltzingo and Tlalpan, all of which remained as part of the State of Mexico.
How many smaller cities did Mexico City make up at its height?
572679945951b619008f73c9
twenty-two
652
False
What is the current area of Mexico City?
572679945951b619008f73ca
1,479 km2 (571 sq mi)
489
False
How large was Mexico City at its largest?
572679945951b619008f73cb
1,700 km2
130
False
When was the boundaries of the city last adjusted?
572679945951b619008f73cc
1902
450
False
Who increased the size of Mexico City to it's largest?
572679945951b619008f73cd
Antonio López de Santa Anna
18
False
In 1854 president Antonio López de Santa Anna enlarged the area of the Federal District almost eightfold from the original 220 to 1,700 km2 (80 to 660 sq mi), annexing the rural and mountainous areas to secure the strategic mountain passes to the south and southwest to protect the city in event of a foreign invasion. (The Mexican–American War had just been fought.) The last changes to the limits of the Federal District were made between 1898 and 1902, reducing the area to the current 1,479 km2 (571 sq mi) by adjusting the southern border with the state of Morelos. By that time, the total number of municipalities within the Federal District was twenty-two.
When were the powers of the municipalities of Mexico City first reduced?
57267a3f708984140094c76b
1903
265
False
When was the autonomy of the municipalities eliminated?
57267a3f708984140094c76c
1928
387
False
How many boroughs did the city consist of when they were first established?
57267a3f708984140094c76d
13
582
False
Who first reduced the power of the municipalities of Mexico City?
57267a3f708984140094c76e
Porfirio Díaz
271
False
Who led Mexico City?
57267a3f708984140094c76f
an appointed governor
71
False
While the Federal District was ruled by the federal government through an appointed governor, the municipalities within it were autonomous, and this duality of powers created tension between the municipalities and the federal government for more than a century. In 1903, Porfirio Díaz largely reduced the powers of the municipalities within the Federal District. Eventually, in December 1928, the federal government decided to abolish all the municipalities of the Federal District. In place of the municipalities, the Federal District was divided into one "Central Department" and 13 delegaciones (boroughs) administered directly by the government of the Federal District. The Central Department was integrated by the former municipalities of Mexico City, Tacuba, Tacubaya and Mixcoac.
When was the General Anaya borough officially merged into Mexico City?
57267b3c708984140094c78b
1941
3
False
How man boroughs was the borough of Mexico City split into in 1970?
57267b3c708984140094c78c
four
295
False
How many districts does the federal government control in 1970?
57267b3c708984140094c78d
sixteen
432
False
Which boroughs was the Mexico City borough split into?
57267b3c708984140094c78e
Cuauhtémoc, Miguel Hidalgo, Venustiano Carranza and Benito Juárez
324
False
In 1941, the General Anaya borough was merged to the Central Department, which was then renamed "Mexico City" (thus reviving the name, but not the autonomous municipality). From 1941 to 1970, the Federal District comprised twelve delegaciones and Mexico City. In 1970 Mexico City was split into four different delegaciones: Cuauhtémoc, Miguel Hidalgo, Venustiano Carranza and Benito Juárez, increasing the number of delegaciones to sixteen. Since then, in a de facto manner, the whole Federal District, whose delegaciones had by then almost formed a single urban area, began to be considered a synonym of Mexico City.
If Mexico City was declared a state, how many states would be in the federation?
57267bf95951b619008f7447
32
787
False
What event caused the citizens to reconsider how the government of Mexico City was set up?
57267bf95951b619008f7448
the 1985 earthquake
569
False
What do people call the leader of Mexico City?
57267bf95951b619008f7449
Mayor
302
False
Who declared the "Mayor" of Mexico City?
57267bf95951b619008f744a
the president
125
False
What state does Mexico City belong to?
57267bf95951b619008f744b
all
102
False
Mexico City, being the seat of the powers of the Union, did not belong to any particular state but to all. Therefore, it was the president, representing the federation, who used to designate the head of government of the Federal District, a position which is sometimes presented outside Mexico as the "Mayor" of Mexico City.[citation needed] In the 1980s, given the dramatic increase in population of the previous decades, the inherent political inconsistencies of the system, as well as the dissatisfaction with the inadequate response of the federal government after the 1985 earthquake, residents began to request political and administrative autonomy to manage their local affairs.[citation needed] Some political groups even proposed that the Federal District be converted into the 32nd state of the federation.
When did the Federal District receive more power?
57267cbe708984140094c7c1
1987
31
False
When did citizens receive the right to elect the head of the Federal District?
57267cbe708984140094c7c2
1997
310
False
How is the leader of Mexico City now established?
57267cbe708984140094c7c3
popular vote
496
False
What gave the Federal District more autonomy?
57267cbe708984140094c7c4
first Statute of Government
121
False
In response to the demands, in 1987 the Federal District received a greater degree of autonomy, with the elaboration the first Statute of Government (Estatuto de Gobierno), and the creation of an Assembly of Representatives.[citation needed] In the 1990s, this autonomy was further expanded and, starting from 1997, residents can directly elect the head of government of the Federal District and the representatives of a unicameral Legislative Assembly (which succeeded the previous Assembly) by popular vote.
Who was elected to be the head of government in 2006?
57267d72dd62a815002e86fc
Marcelo Ebrard
454
False
Why did the first elected head of government of Mexico City resign?
57267d72dd62a815002e86fd
to run in the 2000 presidential elections
88
False
Who was the second head of government elected?
57267d72dd62a815002e86fe
Andrés Manuel López Obrador
257
False
Who was head of government after the first elected head of government?
57267d72dd62a815002e86ff
Rosario Robles
145
False
Who was the first woman to run Mexico City?
57267d72dd62a815002e8700
Rosario Robles
145
False
The first elected head of government was Cuauhtémoc Cárdenas. Cárdenas resigned in 1999 to run in the 2000 presidential elections and designated Rosario Robles to succeed him, who became the first woman (elected or otherwise) to govern Mexico City. In 2000 Andrés Manuel López Obrador was elected, and resigned in 2005 to run in the 2006 presidential elections, Alejandro Encinas being designated by the Legislative Assembly to finish the term. In 2006, Marcelo Ebrard was elected for the 2006–2012 period.
What is the local government of Mexico City called?
57267e13f1498d1400e8e19e
The Legislative Assembly of the Federal District
0
False
How is the local government of Mexico City formed?
57267e13f1498d1400e8e19f
parallel voting
175
False
What is the proportionality voting referred to in Mexico City?
57267e13f1498d1400e8e1a0
plurinominal deputies
565
False
How many representatives make up the Federal District?
57267e13f1498d1400e8e1a1
26
483
False
The Legislative Assembly of the Federal District is formed, as it is the case in all legislatures in Mexico, by both single-seat and proportional seats, making it a system of parallel voting. The Federal District is divided into 40 electoral constituencies of similar population which elect one representative by first-past-the-post plurality (FPP), locally called "uninominal deputies". The Federal District as a whole constitutes a single constituency for the parallel election of 26 representatives by proportionality (PR) with open-party lists, locally called "plurinominal deputies".
What is the maximum percentage of seats a single party can control?
57267e8df1498d1400e8e1b0
63
213
False
How many seats of the uninominal elections did the PRD get in the 2006 elections?
57267e8df1498d1400e8e1b1
34
370
False
Why does the government prevent more than 63% of a party to control the legislature?
57267e8df1498d1400e8e1b2
over-representation
487
False
Even though proportionality is confined to the proportional seats to prevent a part from being overrepresented, several restrictions apply in the assignation of the seats; namely, that no party can have more than 63% of all seats, both uninominal and plurinominal. In the 2006 elections leftist PRD got the absolute majority in the direct uninominal elections, securing 34 of the 40 FPP seats. As such, the PRD was not assigned any plurinominal seat to comply with the law that prevents over-representation. The overall composition of the Legislative Assembly is:
When was gay marriage legalized in Mexico City?
57268081f1498d1400e8e1e8
December 2009
699
False
What political leaning does Mexico City take?
57268081f1498d1400e8e1e9
more liberal than those of the rest of the country
142
False
When were the economic laws passed in Mexico City?
57268081f1498d1400e8e1ea
1980s
330
False
Compared to other cities in Latin America, how early did Mexico City legalize same sex marriage?
57268081f1498d1400e8e1eb
first
746
False
The politics pursued by the administrations of heads of government in Mexico City since the second half of the 20th century have usually been more liberal than those of the rest of the country, whether with the support of the federal government—as was the case with the approval of several comprehensive environmental laws in the 1980s—or through laws recently approved by the Legislative Assembly. In April of the same year, the Legislative Assembly expanded provisions on abortions, becoming the first federal entity to expand abortion in Mexico beyond cases of rape and economic reasons, to permit it regardless of the reason should the mother request it before the twelfth week of pregnancy. In December 2009, the Federal District became the first city in Latin America, and one of very few in the world, to legalize same-sex marriage.
How many boroughs make up Mexico City?
572680f85951b619008f74f9
16
147
False
How are the heads of the boroughs elected?
572680f85951b619008f74fa
plurality
258
False
How were the heads of the boroughs originally established?
572680f85951b619008f74fb
appointed by the head of government of the Federal District
290
False
Who provides the city services?
572680f85951b619008f74fc
Government of the Federal District
479
False
When did election of borough heads begin?
572680f85951b619008f74fd
2000
203
False
For administrative purposes, the Federal District is divided into 16 "delegaciones" or boroughs. While not fully equivalent to a municipality, the 16 boroughs have gained significant autonomy, and since 2000 their heads of government are elected directly by plurality (they were previously appointed by the head of government of the Federal District). Given that Mexico City is organized entirely as a Federal District, most of the city services are provided or organized by the Government of the Federal District and not by the boroughs themselves, while in the constituent states these services would be provided by the municipalities. The 16 boroughs of the Federal District with their 2010 populations are:
What is the oldest part of the city?
57268500f1498d1400e8e270
The Historic Center
125
False
How old are the oldest buildings in Mexico City?
57268500f1498d1400e8e271
16th century
307
False
What used to be the main party district of Mexico City?
57268500f1498d1400e8e272
Zona Rosa
519
False
What is the center of the LGBT community in Mexico City?
57268500f1498d1400e8e273
Art Deco architecture
391
False
What district is known for its Art Deco Architecture?
57268500f1498d1400e8e274
Condesa
368
False
The boroughs are composed by hundreds of colonias or neighborhoods, which have no jurisdictional autonomy or representation. The Historic Center is the oldest part of the city (along with some other, formerly separate colonial towns such as Coyoacán and San Ángel), some of the buildings dating back to the 16th century. Other well-known central neighborhoods include Condesa, known for its Art Deco architecture and its restaurant scene; Colonia Roma, a beaux arts neighborhood and artistic and culinary hot-spot, the Zona Rosa, formerly the center of nightlife and restaurants, now reborn as the center of the LGBT and Korean-Mexican communities; and Tepito and La Lagunilla, known for their local working-class foklore and large flea markets. Santa María la Ribera and San Rafael are the latest neighborhoods of magnificent Porfiriato architecture seeing the first signs of gentrification.
Where are many of the wealthy neighborhoods located?
572685955951b619008f756b
West of the Historic Center
0
False
What is the Mexican name for the historic center?
572685955951b619008f756c
Centro Histórico
29
False
Which rich neighborhood has a strong problem of impoverished lands around it?
572685955951b619008f756d
Santa Fe
493
False
Where are many of the corporate headquarters and other tall buildings located?
572685955951b619008f756e
along Paseo de la Reforma
47
False
West of the Historic Center (Centro Histórico) along Paseo de la Reforma are many of the city's wealthiest neighborhoods such as Polanco, Lomas de Chapultepec, Bosques de las Lomas, Santa Fe, and (in the State of Mexico) Interlomas, which are also the city's most important areas of class A office space, corporate headquarters, skyscrapers and shopping malls. Nevertheless, areas of lower income colonias exist in some cases cheek-by-jowl with rich neighborhoods, particularly in the case of Santa Fe.
What type of population lives in Tiahuac?
57268645dd62a815002e881e
rural
491
False
How is Milpa Alta constructed?
57268645dd62a815002e881f
entirely rural
530
False
Where is the World Trade Center?
57268645dd62a815002e8820
Along Avenida Insurgentes
206
False
What is the name of one of the rich neighborhoods south of the city?
57268645dd62a815002e8821
Colonia del Valle
78
False
The south of the city is home to some other high-income neighborhoods such as Colonia del Valle and Jardines del Pedregal, and the formerly separate colonial towns of Coyoacán, San Ángel, and San Jerónimo. Along Avenida Insurgentes from Paseo de la Reforma, near the center, south past the World Trade Center and UNAM university towards the Periférico ring road, is another important corridor of corporate office space. The far southern boroughs of Xochimilco and Tláhuac have a significant rural population with Milpa Alta being entirely rural.
Where is much of the industry now located?
572687585951b619008f75dd
nearby municipalities in the State of Mexico
375
False
What is Ciudad Satelite?
572687585951b619008f75de
a vast middle to upper-middle-class residential and business area.
473
False
Where is Gustavo A. Madero?
572687585951b619008f75df
North of the Historic Center
0
False
North of the Historic Center, Azcapotzalco and Gustavo A. Madero have important industrial centers and neighborhoods that range from established middle-class colonias such as Claveria and Lindavista to huge low-income housing areas that share hillsides with adjacent municipalities in the State of Mexico. In recent years much of northern Mexico City's industry has moved to nearby municipalities in the State of Mexico. Northwest of Mexico City itself is Ciudad Satélite, a vast middle to upper-middle-class residential and business area.
How many boroughs had very high HDI scores in 2005?
572687e35951b619008f75f1
three
66
False
How many boroughs had high (not very high) HDI scores?
572687e35951b619008f75f2
12
123
False
Which borough had the highest HDI score?
572687e35951b619008f75f3
Benito Juárez
209
False
What borough was the second highest HDI score?
572687e35951b619008f75f4
Miguel Hidalgo
286
False
What year was the report that said 3 boroughs had very high HDI scores?
572687e35951b619008f75f5
2005
38
False
The Human Development Index report of 2005  shows that there were three boroughs with a very high Human Development Index, 12 with a high HDI value (9 above .85) and one with a medium HDI value (almost high). Benito Juárez borough had the highest HDI of the country (.9510) followed by Miguel Hidalgo which came up 4th nationally with a HDI of (.9189) and Coyoacán (5th nationally) with a HDI value of (.9169). Cuajimalpa, Cuauhtémoc and Azcapotzalco had very high values; respectively .8994 (15th nationally),.8922 (23rd) and .8915 (25th).
What borough had the lowest HDI score in the federal district?
5726888d5951b619008f7607
Iztapalapa
69
False
Which borough had the lowest HDI score?
5726888d5951b619008f7608
Milpa Alta
305
False
What rank was Milpa Alta nationally in terms of HDI score?
5726888d5951b619008f7609
627th
387
False
All boroughs except for Milpa Alta were in what ranking of HDI score?
5726888d5951b619008f760a
top 200
432
False
What score did Milpa Alta get on the HDI test?
5726888d5951b619008f760b
.7984
350
False
In contrast, the boroughs of Xochimilco (172th), Tláhuac (177th) and Iztapalapa (183th) presented the lowest HDI values of the Federal District with values of .8481, .8473 and .8464 respectively—values still in the global high-HDI range. The only borough that did not present a high HDI was that of rural Milpa Alta which presented a "medium" HDI of .7984, far below all other boroughs (627th nationally while the rest stood in the top 200). Mexico City's HDI for the 2005 report was of .9012 (very high), and its 2010 value of .9225 (very high) or (by newer methodology) .8307, and Mexico's highest.
How large is the budget of the IMSS?
57268945dd62a815002e8882
over 6 billion pesos
353
False
What is the name of one of the great hospitals in Mexico City?
57268945dd62a815002e8883
Hospital Ángeles
74
False
What is an organization that has a large presence in the city?
57268945dd62a815002e8884
National Health Ministry (SSA)
504
False
What is the name of a large facility run by the IMSS in Mexico City?
57268945dd62a815002e8885
National Medical Center
270
False
Mexico City is home to some of the best private hospitals in the country; Hospital Ángeles, Hospital ABC and Médica Sur to name a few. The national public healthcare institution for private-sector employees, IMSS, has its largest facilities in Mexico City—including the National Medical Center and the La Raza Medical Center—and has an annual budget of over 6 billion pesos. The IMSS and other public health institutions, including the ISSSTE (Public Sector Employees' Social Security Institute) and the National Health Ministry (SSA) maintain large specialty facilities in the city. These include the National Institutes of Cardiology, Nutrition, Psychiatry, Oncology, Pediatrics, Rehabilitation, among others.
What do new cars in Mexico need to have?
572689fef1498d1400e8e328
catalytic converter
301
False
When did the underground rail system begin construction?
572689fef1498d1400e8e329
1968
473
False
How many people ride the Mexico city subway system each day?
572689fef1498d1400e8e32a
5 million people
617
False
How many days of the year in 1991 was the air pollution a serious health risk?
572689fef1498d1400e8e32b
355
1010
False
What is one way the government helps with the "Crush" of the rush hour riding of the subway system?
572689fef1498d1400e8e32c
reserved a special carriage specifically for women
761
False
The World Bank has sponsored a project to curb air pollution through public transport improvements and the Mexican government has started shutting down polluting factories. They have phased out diesel buses and mandated new emission controls on new cars; since 1993 all new cars must be fitted with a catalytic converter, which reduces the emissions released. Trucks must use only liquefied petroleum gas (LPG). Also construction of an underground rail system was begun in 1968 in order to help curb air pollution problems and alleviate traffic congestion. Today it has over 201 km (125 mi) of track and carries over 5 million people every day. Fees are kept low to encourage use of the system and during rush hours the crush is so great, that authorities have reserved a special carriage specifically for women. Due to these initiatives and others, the air quality in Mexico City has begun to improve, with the air becoming cleaner since 1991, when the air quality was declared to be a public health risk for 355 days of the year.[citation needed]
What percentage of the National GDP does the Federal District produce?
57268ac8dd62a815002e88d8
15.8
117
False
What is the GDP of Mexico City?
57268ac8dd62a815002e88d9
$390 billion
228
False
What ranking in terms of GDP is Mexico City globally?
57268ac8dd62a815002e88da
eighth
260
False
What percentage of service sector national GDP does Mexico City account for?
57268ac8dd62a815002e88db
25.3
727
False
By what year will the Mexico City GDP double by, according to research?
57268ac8dd62a815002e88dc
2020
1046
False
Mexico City is one of the most important economic hubs in Latin America. The city proper (Federal District) produces 15.8% of the country's gross domestic product. According to a study conducted by PwC, Mexico City had a GDP of $390 billion, ranking it as the eighth richest city in the world after the greater metropolitan areas of Tokyo, New York City, Los Angeles, Chicago, Paris, London and Osaka/Kobe (and the richest in the whole of Latin America). Excluding the rest of the Mexican economy, Mexico City alone would rank as the 30th largest economy in the world. Mexico City is the greatest contributor to the country's industrial GDP (15.8%) and also the greatest contributor to the country's GDP in the service sector (25.3%). Due to the limited non-urbanized space at the south—most of which is protected through environmental laws—the contribution of the Federal District in agriculture is the smallest of all federal entities in the country. Mexico City has one of the world's fastest-growing economies and its GDP is set to double by 2020.
Who privatized the airlines of Mexico?
57268c7fdd62a815002e8938
President Carlos Salinas de Gortari
24
False
Who signed NAFTA for Mexico?
57268c7fdd62a815002e8939
President Carlos Salinas de Gortari
24
False
What did NAFTA do to the businesses in Mexico City?
57268c7fdd62a815002e893a
led to decentralization and a shift in Mexico City's economic base, from manufacturing to services
240
False
Where did the factories of Mexico City move to most commonly?
57268c7fdd62a815002e893b
northern border
424
False
The economic reforms of President Carlos Salinas de Gortari had a tremendous effect on the city, as a number of businesses, including banks and airlines, were privatized. He also signed the North American Free Trade Agreement (NAFTA). This led to decentralization and a shift in Mexico City's economic base, from manufacturing to services, as most factories moved away to either the State of Mexico, or more commonly to the northern border. By contrast, corporate office buildings set their base in the city.
in 1921, what percent of Mexico City's population Mestizo?
57268d0b708984140094c9c6
54.78
482
False
How many people lived in Mexico City in 1921?
57268d0b708984140094c9c7
less than one million
1063
False
What percentage of Mexico City's population was indigenous in 1921?
57268d0b708984140094c9c8
18.74
603
False
Historically, and since pre-Hispanic times, the Valley of Anahuac has been one of the most densely populated areas in Mexico. When the Federal District was created in 1824, the urban area of Mexico City extended approximately to the area of today's Cuauhtémoc borough. At the beginning of the 20th century, the elites began migrating to the south and west and soon the small towns of Mixcoac and San Ángel were incorporated by the growing conurbation. According to the 1921 census, 54.78% of the city's population was considered Mestizo (Indigenous mixed with European), 22.79% considered European, and 18.74% considered Indigenous. This was the last Mexican Census which asked people to self-identify themselves with an heritage other than Amerindian. However, the census had the particularity that, unlike racial/ethnic census in other countries, it was focused in the perception of cultural heritage rather than in a racial perception, leading to a good number of white people to identify with "Mixed heritage" due cultural influence. In 1921, Mexico City had less than one million inhabitants.
How many people live in the Federal District?
57268d79dd62a815002e8956
8.7 million
146
False
What is the overall population of Mexico City in 2008?
57268d79dd62a815002e8957
19.8 million
347
False
What was the migration rate of Mexico City from 95-2000?
57268d79dd62a815002e8958
negative
744
False
Compared to other cities in Mexico, Mexico City's growth is?
57268d79dd62a815002e8959
much lower
520
False
Up to the 1990s, the Federal District was the most populous federal entity in Mexico, but since then its population has remained stable at around 8.7 million. The growth of the city has extended beyond the limits of the Federal District to 59 municipalities of the state of Mexico and 1 in the state of Hidalgo. With a population of approximately 19.8 million inhabitants (2008), it is one of the most populous conurbations in the world. Nonetheless, the annual rate of growth of the Metropolitan Area of Mexico City is much lower than that of other large urban agglomerations in Mexico, a phenomenon most likely attributable to the environmental policy of decentralization. The net migration rate of the Federal District from 1995 to 2000 was negative.
What countries do most of the South American immigrants come from?
57268f75f1498d1400e8e3cc
Argentina and Colombia
191
False
Where do most of the Asian immigrants come from?
57268f75f1498d1400e8e3cd
China and South Korea
634
False
When did Filipinos start migrating to Mexico City?
57268f75f1498d1400e8e3ce
since the era of New Spain
671
False
On the other hand, Mexico City is also home to large communities of expatriates and immigrants, most notably from the rest of North America (U.S. and Canada), from South America (mainly from Argentina and Colombia, but also from Brazil, Chile, Uruguay and Venezuela), from Central America and the Caribbean (mainly from Cuba, Guatemala, El Salvador, Haiti and Honduras); from Europe (mainly from Spain, Germany and Switzerland, but also from Czech Republic, Hungary, France, Italy, Ireland, the Netherlands, Poland and Romania), from the Middle East (mainly from Egypt, Lebanon and Syria); and recently from Asia-Pacific (mainly from China and South Korea). Historically since the era of New Spain, many Filipinos settled in the city and have become integrated in Mexican society. While no official figures have been reported, population estimates of each of these communities are quite significant.
Who designated the floating gardens as a World Heritage site?
57269001708984140094ca39
UNESCO
162
False
The Historic Center and the floating gardens are both examples of what?
57269001708984140094ca3a
World Heritage Sites
138
False
When was the Templo Mayor found?
57269001708984140094ca3b
1978
519
False
How was Templo Mayor discovered?
57269001708984140094ca3c
workers were digging to place underground electric cables
530
False
The Historic center of Mexico City (Centro Histórico) and the "floating gardens" of Xochimilco in the southern borough have been declared World Heritage Sites by UNESCO. Famous landmarks in the Historic Center include the Plaza de la Constitución (Zócalo), the main central square with its epoch-contrasting Spanish-era Metropolitan Cathedral and National Palace, ancient Aztec temple ruins Templo Mayor ("Major Temple") and modern structures, all within a few steps of one another. (The Templo Mayor was discovered in 1978 while workers were digging to place underground electric cables).
What is the most popular icon of Mexico City?
572690d45951b619008f76cd
golden Angel of Independence
49
False
Who made the Angel of Independence?
572690d45951b619008f76ce
the order of the Emperor Maximilian
138
False
The angel of independence is over the roadway that connects what?
572690d45951b619008f76cf
National Palace (seat of government) with the Castle of Chapultepec
325
False
How long is the longest avenue in Mexico City?
572690d45951b619008f76d0
28.8 km (17.9 mi)
630
False
What is the name of the longest avenue in Mexico City?
572690d45951b619008f76d1
Avenida de los Insurgentes
588
False
The most recognizable icon of Mexico City is the golden Angel of Independence on the wide, elegant avenue Paseo de la Reforma, modeled by the order of the Emperor Maximilian of Mexico after the Champs-Élysées in Paris. This avenue was designed over the Americas' oldest known major roadway in the 19th century to connect the National Palace (seat of government) with the Castle of Chapultepec, the imperial residence. Today, this avenue is an important financial district in which the Mexican Stock Exchange and several corporate headquarters are located. Another important avenue is the Avenida de los Insurgentes, which extends 28.8 km (17.9 mi) and is one of the longest single avenues in the world.
Chapultepec Castle is located where?
572691a7708984140094ca63
Chapultepec Park
0
False
Where is the National Museum of Anthropology located?
572691a7708984140094ca64
Chapultepec Park
0
False
When did construction of the Fine Arts Palace end?
572691a7708984140094ca65
1934
477
False
What is the name of the tour bus that shows off the monuments of Mexico City?
572691a7708984140094ca66
Turibus
736
False
Why did the construction of the Fine Arts Palace take so long?
572691a7708984140094ca67
interrupted by the Mexican Revolution
495
False
Chapultepec Park houses the Chapultepec Castle, now a museum on a hill that overlooks the park and its numerous museums, monuments and the national zoo and the National Museum of Anthropology (which houses the Aztec Calendar Stone). Another piece of architecture is the Fine Arts Palace, a white marble theatre/museum whose weight is such that it has gradually been sinking into the soft ground below. Its construction began during the presidency of Porfirio Díaz and ended in 1934, after being interrupted by the Mexican Revolution in the 1920s. The Plaza of the Three Cultures in the Tlatelolco neighbourhood, and the shrine and Basilicas of Our Lady of Guadalupe are also important sites. There is a double-decker bus, known as the "Turibus", that circles most of these sites, and has timed audio describing the sites in multiple languages as they are passed.
How many museums are in Mexico City?
572692035951b619008f76f5
about 160
26
False
How many art galleries are in Mexico City?
572692035951b619008f76f6
over 100
100
False
How many concert halls are in Mexico City?
572692035951b619008f76f7
30
133
False
Who has painted murals all over the city?
572692035951b619008f76f8
Diego Rivera
442
False
Where is the house that Leon Trotsky was murdered?
572692035951b619008f76f9
Coyoacán
684
False
In addition, the city has about 160 museums—the world's greatest single metropolitan concentration —over 100 art galleries, and some 30 concert halls, all of which maintain a constant cultural activity during the whole year. It has either the third or fourth-highest number of theatres in the world after New York, London and perhaps Toronto. Many areas (e.g. Palacio Nacional and the National Institute of Cardiology) have murals painted by Diego Rivera. He and his wife Frida Kahlo lived in Coyoacán, where several of their homes, studios, and art collections are open to the public. The house where Leon Trotsky was initially granted asylum and finally murdered in 1940 is also in Coyoacán.
How large is the metro system of Mexico City?
572693ac5951b619008f772f
225.9 km (140 mi)
64
False
When was the Mexico City metro system first opened?
572693ac5951b619008f7730
1969
169
False
How many lines are in the metro system?
572693ac5951b619008f7731
12
197
False
How many people ride the metro system each day?
572693ac5951b619008f7732
4.5 million
297
False
How many stations are in the Mexico City metro system?
572693ac5951b619008f7733
195
211
False
Mexico City is served by the Sistema de Transporte Colectivo, a 225.9 km (140 mi) metro system, which is the largest in Latin America. The first portions were opened in 1969 and it has expanded to 12 lines with 195 stations. The metro is one of the busiest in the world transporting approximately 4.5 million people every day, surpassed only by subway lines in Moscow (7.5 million), Tokyo (5.9 million), and New York City (5.1 million). It is heavily subsidized, and has some of the lowest fares in the world, each trip costing 5.00 pesos from 05:00 am to midnight. Several stations display pre-Columbian artifacts and architecture that were discovered during the metro's construction.[citation needed] However, the metro covers less than half of the total urban area. The Metro stations are also differentiated by the use of icons and glyphs which were proposed for people who could not read. The specific icons were developed based on historical (characters, sites, pre-Hispanic motifs), linguistic, symbolic (glyphs) or location references and has being emulated in further transportations alternatives in the City and in other Mexican cities. Mexico City is the only city in the world to use the icon reference and has become a popular culture trademark for the city.
What is the name of the city's fast bus line?
572694255951b619008f7741
Metrobús
45
False
When did Metrobus begin services?
572694255951b619008f7742
June 2005
74
False
When did the second line of Metrobus open?
572694255951b619008f7743
December 2008
129
False
How many people ride the Metrobus every day?
572694255951b619008f7744
850,000
649
False
April 2012 was the year which Metrobus line opened?
572694255951b619008f7745
line 4
223
False
The city's first bus rapid transit line, the Metrobús, began operation in June 2005, along Avenida Insurgentes. Line 2 opened in December 2008, serving Eje 4 Sur, line 3 opened in February 2011, serving Eje 1 Poniente, and line 4 opened in April 2012 connecting the airport with San Lázaro and Buenavista Station at Insurgentes. As the microbuses were removed from its route, it was hoped that the Metrobús could reduce pollution and decrease transit time for passengers. In June 2013, Mexico City's mayor announced two more lines to come: Line 5 serving Eje 3 Oriente and Line 6 serving Eje 5 Norte. As of June 2013, 367 Metrobús buses transported 850,000 passengers daily.
What are the one-way roads in Mexico city called?
572694bef1498d1400e8e466
ejes viales
57
False
What is different about the second level roads?
572694bef1498d1400e8e467
tolls are charged
848
False
When were these second level roads opened?
572694bef1498d1400e8e468
2012
966
False
What main road leads to the airport?
572694bef1498d1400e8e469
The Viaducto Miguel Alemán
1009
False
What connects Santa Fe and the southwestern part of the city?
572694bef1498d1400e8e46a
the Supervía Poniente
1105
False
In the late 1970s many arterial roads were redesigned as ejes viales; high-volume one-way roads that cross, in theory, Mexico City proper from side to side. The eje vial network is based on a quasi-Cartesian grid, with the ejes themselves being called Eje 1 Poniente, Eje Central, and Eje 1 Oriente, for example, for the north-south roads, and Eje 2 Sur and Eje 3 Norte, for example, for east-west roads. Ring roads are the Circuito Interior (inner ring), Anillo Periférico; the Circuito Exterior Mexiquense ("State of Mexico outer loop") toll road skirting the northeastern and eastern edges of the metropolitan area, the Chamapa-La Venta toll road skirting the northwestern edge, and the Arco Norte completely bypassing the metropolitan area in an arc from northwest (Atlacomulco) to north (Tula, Hidalgo) to east (Puebla). A second level (where tolls are charged) of the Periférico, colloquially called the segundo piso ("second floor"), was officially opened in 2012, with sections still being completed. The Viaducto Miguel Alemán crosses the city east-west from Observatorio to the airport. In 2013 the Supervía Poniente opened, a toll road linking the new Santa Fe business district with southwestern Mexico City.
How do people know which days to not drive their car?
5726a1abf1498d1400e8e562
ending digit of their license plates
230
False
How many cars were still restricted in 2003?
5726a1abf1498d1400e8e563
40%
380
False
When were new emisson standards enacted?
5726a1abf1498d1400e8e564
2006
484
False
How can cars get exempt from the restrictions?
5726a1abf1498d1400e8e565
pass regular emissions tests
589
False
There is an environmental program, called Hoy No Circula ("Today Does Not Run", or "One Day without a Car"), whereby vehicles that have not passed emissions testing are restricted from circulating on certain days according to the ending digit of their license plates; this in an attempt to cut down on pollution and traffic congestion. While in 2003, the program still restricted 40% of vehicles in the metropolitan area, with the adoption of stricter emissions standards in 2001 and 2006, in practice, these days most vehicles are exempt from the circulation restrictions as long as they pass regular emissions tests.
What is the name of the parking meter system in Mexico City?
5726a2b75951b619008f7875
ecoParq
888
False
Who operates the parking meters?
5726a2b75951b619008f7876
Operadora de Estacionamientos Bicentenario
1061
False
How much money a month do the parking meters bring in?
5726a2b75951b619008f7877
16 million-peso
806
False
What are the hours of Mexico City Parking meters?
5726a2b75951b619008f7878
8 AM to 8 PM
644
False
How many parking meters were installed as of October 2013?
5726a2b75951b619008f7879
721
473
False
Street parking in urban neighborhoods is mostly controlled by the franeleros a.k.a. "viene vienes" (lit. "come on, come on"), who ask drivers for a fee to park, in theory to guard the car, but with the implicit threat that the franelero will damage the car if the fee is not paid. Double parking is common (with franeleros moving the cars as required), impeding on the available lanes for traffic to pass. In order to mitigate that and other problems and to raise revenue, 721 parking meters (as of October 2013), have been installed in the west-central neighborhoods Lomas de Chapultepec, Condesa, Roma, Polanco and Anzures, in operation from 8 AM to 8 PM on weekdays and charging a rate of 2 pesos per 15 minutes, with offenders' cars booted, costing about 500 pesos to remove. 30 percent of the monthly 16 million-peso (as of October 2013) income from the parking-meter system (named "ecoParq") is earmarked for neighborhood improvements. The granting of the license for all zones exclusively to a new company without experience in operating parking meters, Operadora de Estacionamientos Bicentenario, has generated controversy.
What is the name of the city's bike sharing system?
5726a33e708984140094cc9d
EcoBici
223
False
When did the bike sharing system of the city begin?
5726a33e708984140094cc9e
2010
244
False
How many bikes are involved in the bike share system?
5726a33e708984140094cc9f
4,000
413
False
What do they call the bike paths in Mexico City?
5726a33e708984140094cca0
Ciclovías
646
False
What country is the inspiration for Mexico City's new programs?
5726a33e708984140094cca1
Denmark
1001
False
The local government continuously strives for a reduction of massive traffic congestion, and has increased incentives for making a bicycle-friendly city. This includes North America's second-largest bicycle sharing system, EcoBici, launched in 2010, in which registered residents can get bicycles for 45 minutes with a pre-paid subscription of 300 pesos a year. There are, as of September 2013, 276 stations with 4,000 bicycles across an area stretching from the Historic center to Polanco. within 300 metres (980 feet) of one another and are fully automatic using a transponder based card. Bicycle-service users have access to several permanent Ciclovías (dedicated bike paths/lanes/streets), including ones along Paseo de la Reforma and Avenida Chapultepec as well as one running 59 kilometres (37 miles) from Polanco to Fierro del Toro, which is located south of Cumbres del Ajusco National Park, near the Morelos state line. The city's initiative is inspired by forward thinking examples, such as Denmark's Copenhagenization.
What is the name of the major airport in Mexico City?
5726a3d5708984140094ccad
Mexico City International Airport
25
False
What is the short hand code for Mexico City's largest airport?
5726a3d5708984140094ccae
MEX
79
False
About how many passengers come through the Mexico City International Airport each year?
5726a3d5708984140094ccaf
34 million
473
False
What is the name of the smaller airport near Mexico City?
5726a3d5708984140094ccb0
Adolfo López Mateos International Airport
708
False
How many passengers come through Adolfo Lopez Mateos International Airport?
5726a3d5708984140094ccb1
700,000
934
False
Mexico City is served by Mexico City International Airport (IATA Airport Code: MEX). This airport is Latin America's second busiest and one of the largests in traffic, with daily flights to United States and Canada, mainland Mexico, Central America and the Caribbean, South America, Europe and Asia. Aeroméxico (Skyteam) is based at this airport, and provide codeshare agreements with non-Mexican airlines that span the entire globe. In 2014, the airport handled well over 34 million passengers, just over 2 million more than the year before. This traffic exceeds the current capacity of the airport, which has historically centralized the majority of air traffic in the country. An alternate option is Lic. Adolfo López Mateos International Airport (IATA Airport Code: TLC) in nearby Toluca, State of Mexico, although due to several airlines' decisions to terminate service to TLC, the airport has seen a passenger drop to just over 700,000 passengers in 2014 from over 2.1 million passengers just four years prior.
When did the second terminal open at the Mexico City Airport?
5726a4465951b619008f78bf
2007
168
False
How many national airlines are there in Mexico?
5726a4465951b619008f78c0
21
579
False
How many of the main Mexican airlines are based in Mexico City?
5726a4465951b619008f78c1
11
569
False
What is the new city that will be added to the group of Mexican Airports around Mexico City?
5726a4465951b619008f78c2
Pachuca
443
False
In the Mexico City airport, the government engaged in an extensive restructuring program that includes the addition of a new second terminal, which began operations in 2007, and the enlargement of four other airports (at the nearby cities of Toluca, Querétaro, Puebla and Cuernavaca) that, along with Mexico City's airport, comprise the Grupo Aeroportuario del Valle de México, distributing traffic to different regions in Mexico. The city of Pachuca will also provide additional expansion to central Mexico's airport network. Mexico City's airport is the main hub for 11 of the 21 national airline companies.
When were the new plans of the airport revealed?
5726a4cdf1498d1400e8e5dc
September 2, 2014
49
False
When are the new plans supposed to come to fruition for the airport?
5726a4cdf1498d1400e8e5dd
2018
232
False
How many runways will be in the new airport?
5726a4cdf1498d1400e8e5de
six
280
False
How many passengers will the new airport be able to handle?
5726a4cdf1498d1400e8e5df
120 million
433
False
How much does the new airport cost?
5726a4cdf1498d1400e8e5e0
$9.15 billion
303
False
During his annual state-of-the-nation address on September 2, 2014, President of Mexico Enrique Peña Nieto unveiled plans for a new international airport to ease the city's notorious air traffic congestion, tentatively slated for a 2018 opening. The new airport, which would have six runways, will cost $9.15 billion and would be built on vacant federal land east of Mexico City International Airport. Goals are to eventually handle 120 million passengers a year, which would make it the busiest airport in the world.
When did Mexico City lost most of its artifacts?
5726a5b2708984140094ccd1
Conquest of Mexico
712
False
When did the complex art of Mexico City begin?
5726a5b2708984140094ccd2
pre-Classical period
327
False
What holds most of the old art of the Mexico city region?
5726a5b2708984140094ccd3
National Museum of Anthropology and the Templo Mayor museum
513
False
What are the main artifacts that have survived?
5726a5b2708984140094ccd4
pottery and stone-engraving
595
False
Having been capital of a vast pre-Hispanic empire, and also the capital of richest viceroyalty within the Spanish Empire (ruling over a vast territory in the Americas and Spanish West Indies), and, finally, the capital of the United Mexican States, Mexico City has a rich history of artistic expression. Since the mesoamerican pre-Classical period the inhabitants of the settlements around Lake Texcoco produced many works of art and complex craftsmanship, some of which are today displayed at the world-renowned National Museum of Anthropology and the Templo Mayor museum. While many pieces of pottery and stone-engraving have survived, the great majority of the Amerindian iconography was destroyed during the Conquest of Mexico.
What comprised most of the early art of Mexico City?
5726a632708984140094ccd9
codices
48
False
Most of the art since the Aztecs took what style?
5726a632708984140094ccda
religious
225
False
Whose art is displayed at the large cathedral in Mexico City?
5726a632708984140094ccdb
Juan de Rojas
296
False
"The Little Horse" is also known as what?
5726a632708984140094ccdc
equestrian sculpture of Charles IV of Spain
440
False
Who created "The Little Horse?"
5726a632708984140094ccdd
Manuel Tolsá
576
False
Much of the early colonial art stemmed from the codices (Aztec illustrated books), aiming to recover and preserve some Aztec and other Amerindian iconography and history. From then, artistic expressions in Mexico were mostly religious in theme. The Metropolitan Cathedral still displays works by Juan de Rojas, Juan Correa and an oil painting whose authorship has been attributed to Murillo. Secular works of art of this period include the equestrian sculpture of Charles IV of Spain, locally known as El Caballito ("The little horse"). This piece, in bronze, was the work of Manuel Tolsá and it has been placed at the Plaza Tolsá, in front of the Palacio de Minería (Mining Palace). Directly in front of this building is the beautiful Museo Nacional de Arte (Munal) (the National Museum of Art).
What is the large art school in Mexico City?
5726a6c9708984140094ccf7
Academia de San Carlos
62
False
Where does most of the artwork produced as the Academia de San Carlos get featured?
5726a6c9708984140094ccf8
Museo Nacional de San Carlos
405
False
Who is one of the most famous people to graduate from the large art school of Mexico City?
5726a6c9708984140094ccf9
José María Velasco
488
False
The San Carlos Museum has art from who, among others?
5726a6c9708984140094ccfa
Rembrandt, Velázquez, Murillo, and Rubens
904
False
During the 19th century, an important producer of art was the Academia de San Carlos (San Carlos Art Academy), founded during colonial times, and which later became the Escuela Nacional de Artes Plásticas (the National School of Arts) including painting, sculpture and graphic design, one of UNAM's art schools. Many of the works produced by the students and faculty of that time are now displayed in the Museo Nacional de San Carlos (National Museum of San Carlos). One of the students, José María Velasco, is considered one of the greatest Mexican landscape painters of the 19th century. Porfirio Díaz's regime sponsored arts, especially those that followed the French school. Popular arts in the form of cartoons and illustrations flourished, e.g. those of José Guadalupe Posada and Manuel Manilla. The permanent collection of the San Carlos Museum also includes paintings by European masters such as Rembrandt, Velázquez, Murillo, and Rubens.
Who was a big proponent of modernism in art?
5726b9e3f1498d1400e8e904
José Luis Cuevas
556
False
When did artists start to immigrate to Mexico City?
5726b9e3f1498d1400e8e905
20th century
11
False
Who was a famous engraver that migrated to Mexico City?
5726b9e3f1498d1400e8e906
Leopoldo Méndez
106
False
What was the Popular Graphics Workshop mission?
5726b9e3f1498d1400e8e907
help blue-collar workers find a venue to express their art
264
False
What nationality was Remedios Varas?
5726b9e3f1498d1400e8e908
Catalan
365
False
During the 20th century, many artists immigrated to Mexico City from different regions of Mexico, such as Leopoldo Méndez, an engraver from Veracruz, who supported the creation of the socialist Taller de la Gráfica Popular (Popular Graphics Workshop), designed to help blue-collar workers find a venue to express their art. Other painters came from abroad, such as Catalan painter Remedios Varo and other Spanish and Jewish exiles. It was in the second half of the 20th century that the artistic movement began to drift apart from the Revolutionary theme. José Luis Cuevas opted for a modernist style in contrast to the muralist movement associated with social politics.
When was the Museo Tamayo opened?
5726ba7c5951b619008f7c0d
mid-1980s
166
False
Who's art collection was the reason the Museo Tamayo opened?
5726ba7c5951b619008f7c0e
Rufino Tamayo
297
False
Where was Rufino Tamayo born?
5726ba7c5951b619008f7c0f
Oaxaca
281
False
What type of art is shown in The Museo Carrillo Gil?
5726ba7c5951b619008f7c10
avant-garde
817
False
What famous art building was opened in late 2008?
5726ba7c5951b619008f7c11
University Museum/Contemporary Art
850
False
Mexico City has numerous museums dedicated to art, including Mexican colonial, modern and contemporary art, and international art. The Museo Tamayo was opened in the mid-1980s to house the collection of international contemporary art donated by famed Mexican (born in the state of Oaxaca) painter Rufino Tamayo. The collection includes pieces by Picasso, Klee, Kandinsky, Warhol and many others, though most of the collection is stored while visiting exhibits are shown. The Museo de Arte Moderno (Museum of Modern Art) is a repository of Mexican artists from the 20th century, including Rivera, Orozco, Siqueiros, Kahlo, Gerzso, Carrington, Tamayo, among others, and also regularly hosts temporary exhibits of international modern art. In southern Mexico City, the Museo Carrillo Gil (Carrillo Gil Museum) showcases avant-garde artists, as does the University Museum/Contemporary Art (Museo Universitario Arte Contemporáneo – or MUAC), designed by famed Mexican architect Teodoro González de León, inaugurated in late 2008.
Who is the Museo Soumaya named after?
5726bc21f1498d1400e8e962
the wife of Mexican magnate Carlos Slim
31
False
What city houses the only collection of Rodin sculptures that is larger than the one in Mexico City?
5726bc21f1498d1400e8e963
Paris
144
False
What other famous sculpture has had his art displayed at the Museo Soumaya?
5726bc21f1498d1400e8e964
Dalí
185
False
When did the new design of the museum open?
5726bc21f1498d1400e8e965
2011
375
False
How many years worth of art does the Museum in the historic center hold?
5726bc21f1498d1400e8e966
400
1436
False
The Museo Soumaya, named after the wife of Mexican magnate Carlos Slim, has the largest private collection of original Rodin sculptures outside Paris. It also has a large collection of Dalí sculptures, and recently began showing pieces in its masters collection including El Greco, Velázquez, Picasso and Canaletto. The museum inaugurated a new futuristic-design facility in 2011 just north of Polanco, while maintaining a smaller facility in Plaza Loreto in southern Mexico City. The Colección Júmex is a contemporary art museum located on the sprawling grounds of the Jumex juice company in the northern industrial suburb of Ecatepec. It is said to have the largest private contemporary art collection in Latin America and hosts pieces from its permanent collection as well as traveling exhibits by leading contemporary artists. The new Museo Júmex in Nuevo Polanco was slated to open in November 2013. The Museo de San Ildefonso, housed in the Antiguo Colegio de San Ildefonso in Mexico City's historic downtown district is a 17th-century colonnaded palace housing an art museum that regularly hosts world-class exhibits of Mexican and international art. Recent exhibits have included those on David LaChapelle, Antony Gormley and Ron Mueck. The National Museum of Art (Museo Nacional de Arte) is also located in a former palace in the historic center. It houses a large collection of pieces by all major Mexican artists of the last 400 years and also hosts visiting exhibits.
When did the Museum of Remembrance and Tolerance open?
5726bc865951b619008f7c83
2011
150
False
What main event inspired the Museum of Remembrance and Tolerance?
5726bc865951b619008f7c84
Holocaust
203
False
The exhibit inaugurated by the Dalai Lama opened when?
5726bc865951b619008f7c85
September 2011
512
False
What is the main subject of the Museum of Remembrance and Tolerance?
5726bc865951b619008f7c86
discrimination and genocide
314
False
Another major addition to the city's museum scene is the Museum of Remembrance and Tolerance (Museo de la Memoria y Tolerancia), inaugurated in early 2011. The brainchild of two young Mexican women as a Holocaust museum, the idea morphed into a unique museum dedicated to showcasing all major historical events of discrimination and genocide. Permanent exhibits include those on the Holocaust and other large-scale atrocities. It also houses temporary exhibits; one on Tibet was inaugurated by the Dalai Lama in September 2011.
Where does the Mexico City Philharmonic perform?
5726bd04708984140094cfc7
Sala Ollin Yoliztli
138
False
When was the first wrap-around concert hall in the Western Hemisphere opened?
5726bd04708984140094cfc8
1976
578
False
What is the name of one of the main orchestras of Mexico City?
5726bd04708984140094cfc9
National Symphony Orchestra
163
False
The Palace of Fine Arts hosts what main symphony?
5726bd04708984140094cfca
National Symphony Orchestra
163
False
What does OFUNAM stand for?
5726bd04708984140094cfcb
Philharmonic Orchestra of the National Autonomous University of Mexico
320
False
Mexico City is home to a number of orchestras offering season programs. These include the Mexico City Philharmonic, which performs at the Sala Ollin Yoliztli; the National Symphony Orchestra, whose home base is the Palacio de Bellas Artes (Palace of the Fine Arts), a masterpiece of art nouveau and art decó styles; the Philharmonic Orchestra of the National Autonomous University of Mexico (OFUNAM), and the Minería Symphony Orchestra, both of which perform at the Sala Nezahualcóyotl, which was the first wrap-around concert hall in the Western Hemisphere when inaugurated in 1976. There are also many smaller ensembles that enrich the city's musical scene, including the Carlos Chávez Youth Symphony, the New World Orchestra (Orquesta del Nuevo Mundo), the National Polytechnical Symphony and the Bellas Artes Chamber Orchestra (Orquesta de Cámara de Bellas Artes).
How many people does the National Auditorium hold?
5726bd78dd62a815002e8ef4
10,000
163
False
What main languages are supported by shows at the National Auditorium?
5726bd78dd62a815002e8ef5
Spanish and English
224
False
What year was the National Auditorium voted best in the world?
5726bd78dd62a815002e8ef6
2007
470
False
How can you see the Grand Opera of New York in Mexico City?
5726bd78dd62a815002e8ef7
giant, high definition screens
435
False
The city is also a leading center of popular culture and music. There are a multitude of venues hosting Spanish and foreign-language performers. These include the 10,000-seat National Auditorium that regularly schedules the Spanish and English-language pop and rock artists, as well as many of the world's leading performing arts ensembles, the auditorium also broadcasts Grand Opera performances from New York's Metropolitan Opera on giant, high definition screens. In 2007 National Auditorium was selected world's best venue by multiple genre media.
How many sets are in the Teatro Metropolitan?
5726bdde708984140094cff9
3,000
60
False
The Foro Sol Stadium hols how many people?
5726bdde708984140094cffa
50,000
148
False
Where does Cirque du Soleil go in Mexico City?
5726bdde708984140094cffb
Carpa Santa Fe
295
False
The Pepsi Center World Trade Center holds how many people?
5726bdde708984140094cffc
3,000
621
False
Other popular sites for pop-artist performances include the 3,000-seat Teatro Metropolitan, the 15,000-seat Palacio de los Deportes, and the larger 50,000-seat Foro Sol Stadium, where popular international artists perform on a regular basis. The Cirque du Soleil has held several seasons at the Carpa Santa Fe, in the Santa Fe district in the western part of the city. There are numerous venues for smaller musical ensembles and solo performers. These include the Hard Rock Live, Bataclán, Foro Scotiabank, Lunario, Circo Volador and Voilá Acoustique. Recent additions include the 20,000-seat Arena Ciudad de México, the 3,000-seat Pepsi Center World Trade Center, and the 2,500-seat Auditorio Blackberry.
Where is the Centro Cultural Universitario?
5726bea0708984140094d01b
UNAM's main campus
109
False
The CCU holds, in addition to a music theater, what?
5726bea0708984140094d01c
National Library
276
False
The former Ministry of Foreign Affairs had a cultural center opened in what year?
5726bea0708984140094d01d
2007
547
False
What is the name of the CCU center opened in 2007?
5726bea0708984140094d01e
Tlatelolco
622
False
Where is Tlatelolco located?
5726bea0708984140094d01f
north-central Mexico City
637
False
The Centro Nacional de las Artes (National Center for the Arts has several venues for music, theatre, dance. UNAM's main campus, also in the southern part of the city, is home to the Centro Cultural Universitario (the University Culture Center) (CCU). The CCU also houses the National Library, the interactive Universum, Museo de las Ciencias, the Sala Nezahualcóyotl concert hall, several theatres and cinemas, and the new University Museum of Contemporary Art (MUAC). A branch of the National University's CCU cultural center was inaugurated in 2007 in the facilities of the former Ministry of Foreign Affairs, known as Tlatelolco, in north-central Mexico City.
What makes the Papalote children's museum so famous?
5726bf0a708984140094d025
world's largest dome screen
49
False
Where is the Papalote Children's Museum located?
5726bf0a708984140094d026
wooded park of Chapultepec
96
False
What is the largest amusement park in Latin America?
5726bf0a708984140094d027
Six Flags México
196
False
What borough is Six Flags Mexico located?
5726bf0a708984140094d028
Tlalpan
301
False
What city has the largest outdoor ice skating rink in the world?
5726bf0a708984140094d029
Moscow
498
False
The Papalote children's museum, which houses the world's largest dome screen, is located in the wooded park of Chapultepec, near the Museo Tecnológico, and La Feria amusement park. The theme park Six Flags México (the largest amusement park in Latin America) is located in the Ajusco neighborhood, in Tlalpan borough, southern Mexico City. During the winter, the main square of the Zócalo is transformed into a gigantic ice skating rink, which is said to be the largest in the world behind that of Moscow's Red Square.
Where is the Mexican Film Library located?
5726bf625951b619008f7d07
near the Coyoacán suburb
50
False
What large movie festival is hosted at the Mexican Film Library?
5726bf625951b619008f7d08
International Showcase
155
False
What are the two large movie companies in Mexico?
5726bf625951b619008f7d09
Cinépolis and Cinemex
282
False
What type of theaters does Mexico City have the most of compared to other cities?
5726bf625951b619008f7d0a
IMAX
482
False
The Cineteca Nacional (the Mexican Film Library), near the Coyoacán suburb, shows a variety of films, and stages many film festivals, including the annual International Showcase, and many smaller ones ranging from Scandinavian and Uruguayan cinema, to Jewish and LGBT-themed films. Cinépolis and Cinemex, the two biggest film business chains, also have several film festivals throughout the year, with both national and international movies. Mexico City tops the world in number of IMAX theatres,[citation needed] providing residents and visitors access to films ranging from documentaries to popular blockbusters on these especially large, dramatic screens.
How many states does Mexico have?
5726c9405951b619008f7e05
31
104
False
What are some international cuisines offered in Mexico City?
5726c9405951b619008f7e06
Canadian, French, Italian,
206
False
What other specific types of food does the city offer?
5726c9405951b619008f7e07
kosher, vegetarian and vegan
497
False
Mexico City offers a variety of cuisines. Restaurants specializing in the regional cuisines of Mexico's 31 states are available in the city. Also available are an array of international cuisines, including Canadian, French, Italian, Croatian, Spanish (including many regional variations), Jewish, Lebanese, Chinese (again with regional variations), Indian, Japanese, Korean, Thai, Vietnamese; and of course fellow Latin American cuisines such as Argentine, Brazilian, and Peruvian. Haute, fusion, kosher, vegetarian and vegan cuisines are also available, as are restaurants solely based on the concepts of local food and slow Food.
What opera legend also has a famous restaurant in Mexico City?
5726c9cddd62a815002e9050
Plácido Domingo
234
False
What famous Italian Restaurant also has a branch in Mexico City?
5726c9cddd62a815002e9051
Alfredo
329
False
What is one of the famous Lima-based restaurants in Mexico City?
5726c9cddd62a815002e9052
La Mar
484
False
What Japanese restaurant also has a branch in Mexico City?
5726c9cddd62a815002e9053
Suntory
307
False
The city also has several branches of renowned international restaurants and chefs. These include Paris' Au Pied de Cochon and Brasserie Lipp, Philippe (by Philippe Chow); Nobu, Morimoto; Pámpano, owned by Mexican-raised opera legend Plácido Domingo. There are branches of the exclusive Japanese restaurant Suntory, Rome's famed Alfredo, as well as New York steakhouses Morton's and The Palm, and Monte Carlo's BeefBar. Three of the most famous Lima-based Haute Peruvian restaurants, La Mar, Segundo Muelle and Astrid y Gastón have locations in Mexico City.
What famous soccer stadium is in Mexico City?
5726ca58f1498d1400e8eb4a
Azteca Stadium
136
False
How many fans does Azteca Stadium hold?
5726ca58f1498d1400e8eb4b
91,653
229
False
What is the largest stadium in Latin America?
5726ca58f1498d1400e8eb4c
Azteca Stadium
136
False
What year did Mexico most recently host the World Cup?
5726ca58f1498d1400e8eb4d
1986
915
False
What division are the Mexico City soccer teams in?
5726ca58f1498d1400e8eb4e
First
644
False
Association football is the country's most popular and most televised franchised sport. Its important venues in Mexico City include the Azteca Stadium, home to the Mexico national football team and giants América, which can seat 91,653 fans, making it the biggest stadium in Latin America. The Olympic Stadium in Ciudad Universitaria is home to the football club giants Universidad Nacional, with a seating capacity of over 52,000. The Estadio Azul, which seats 33,042 fans, is near the World Trade Center Mexico City in the Nochebuena neighborhood, and is home to the giants Cruz Azul. The three teams are based in Mexico City and play in the First Division; they are also part, with Guadalajara-based giants Club Deportivo Guadalajara, of Mexico's traditional "Big Four" (though recent years have tended to erode the teams' leading status at least in standings). The country hosted the FIFA World Cup in 1970 and 1986, and Azteca Stadium is the first stadium in World Cup history to host the final twice.
What year did Mexico City host the olympics?
5726cac4f1498d1400e8eb66
1968
111
False
Which American city did Mexico City defeat to host the 1968 olympics?
5726cac4f1498d1400e8eb67
Detroit
161
False
What year did Mexico City first host the Pan America games?
5726cac4f1498d1400e8eb68
1955
252
False
What famous form of wrestling is native to Mexico?
5726cac4f1498d1400e8eb69
Lucha libre
414
False
What are the main arenas for Lucha Libre?
5726cac4f1498d1400e8eb6a
Arena México and Arena Coliseo
553
False
Mexico City remains the only Latin American city to host the Olympic Games, having held the Summer Olympics in 1968, winning bids against Buenos Aires, Lyon and Detroit. (This too will change thanks to Rio, 2016 Summer Games host). The city hosted the 1955 and 1975 Pan American Games, the last after Santiago and São Paulo withdrew. The ICF Flatwater Racing World Championships were hosted here in 1974 and 1994. Lucha libre is a Mexican style of wrestling, and is one of the more popular sports throughout the country. The main venues in the city are Arena México and Arena Coliseo.
What university is the largest of the continent?
5726cb515951b619008f7e4b
The National Autonomous University of Mexico
0
False
How many students attend UNAM?
5726cb515951b619008f7e4c
300,000
136
False
What percent of scientific research is done at UNAM?
5726cb515951b619008f7e4d
50
316
False
What worldwide ranking does UNAM hold?
5726cb515951b619008f7e4e
74th
465
False
What is the main campus of UNAM called?
5726cb515951b619008f7e4f
Ciudad Universitaria
728
False
The National Autonomous University of Mexico (UNAM), located in Mexico City, is the largest university on the continent, with more than 300,000 students from all backgrounds. Three Nobel laureates, several Mexican entrepreneurs and most of Mexico's modern-day presidents are among its former students. UNAM conducts 50% of Mexico's scientific research and has presence all across the country with satellite campuses, observatories and research centres. UNAM ranked 74th in the Top 200 World University Ranking published by Times Higher Education (then called Times Higher Education Supplement) in 2006, making it the highest ranked Spanish-speaking university in the world. The sprawling main campus of the university, known as Ciudad Universitaria, was named a World Heritage Site by UNESCO in 2007.
What is the second biggest education center in Mexico City?
5726cbf65951b619008f7e65
National Polytechnic Institute
55
False
What American University has a big campus in Mexico City?
5726cbf65951b619008f7e66
University of California
946
False
What does the University of California call its campus in Mexico City?
5726cbf65951b619008f7e67
Casa de California
1000
False
Where is the Universidad Tecnologica located?
5726cbf65951b619008f7e68
Mexico City
1082
False
The second largest higher-education institution is the National Polytechnic Institute (IPN), which includes among many other relevant centers the Centro de Investigación y de Estudios Avanzados (Cinvestav), where varied high-level scientific and technological research is done. Other major higher-education institutions in the city include the Metropolitan Autonomous University (UAM), the National School of Anthropology and History (ENAH), the Instituto Tecnológico Autónomo de México (ITAM), the Monterrey Institute of Technology and Higher Education (3 campuses), the Universidad Panamericana (UP), the Universidad La Salle, the Universidad del Valle de Mexico (UVM), the Universidad Anáhuac, Simon Bolivar University (USB), the Alliant International University, the Universidad Iberoamericana, El Colegio de México (Colmex), Escuela Libre de Derecho and the Centro de Investigación y Docencia Económica, (CIDE). In addition, the prestigious University of California maintains a campus known as "Casa de California" in the city. The Universidad Tecnológica de México is also in Mexico City.
Who is in charge of the education in Mexico City?
5726ccd2f1498d1400e8eb8e
Secretary of Public Education
109
False
What is the public high school system called in Mexico City?
5726ccd2f1498d1400e8eb8f
Instituto de Educación Media Superior del Distrito Federal
433
False
Who allocates the funding of the school systems?
5726ccd2f1498d1400e8eb90
government of Mexico City
178
False
Unlike those of Mexican states' schools, curricula of Mexico City's public schools is managed by the federal Secretary of Public Education. The whole funding is allocated by the government of Mexico City (in some specific cases, such as El Colegio de México, funding comes from both the city's government and other public and private national and international entities).[citation needed] The city's public high school system is the Instituto de Educación Media Superior del Distrito Federal (IEMS-DF).
Who created El Colegio Nacional?
5726cd44dd62a815002e90ac
Miguel Alemán Valdés
100
False
Where do the superior artists and scientists of Mexico City have the option to attend?
5726cd44dd62a815002e90ad
El Colegio Nacional
26
False
What must members of El Colegio Nacional do?
5726cd44dd62a815002e90ae
publicly disclose their works through conferences and public events
463
False
What is El Colegio Nacional modeled after?
5726cd44dd62a815002e90af
College of France
171
False
A special case is that of El Colegio Nacional, created during the district's governmental period of Miguel Alemán Valdés to have, in Mexico, an institution similar to the College of France. The select and privileged group of Mexican scientists and artists belonging to this institution—membership is for life—include, among many, Mario Lavista, Ruy Pérez Tamayo, José Emilio Pacheco, Marcos Moshinsky (d.2009), Guillermo Soberón Acevedo. Members are obligated to publicly disclose their works through conferences and public events such as concerts and recitals.
How many newspaper call Mexico City home?
5726cd9edd62a815002e90b4
Dozens
182
False
What is one of the main papers of Mexico City?
5726cd9edd62a815002e90b5
El Universal
234
False
What American magazines have a footprint in Mexico City?
5726cd9edd62a815002e90b6
Vogue, GQ, and Architectural Digest
530
False
How many entertainment magazines are published in Mexico City?
5726cd9edd62a815002e90b7
dozens
425
False
Mexico City is Latin America's leading center for the television, music and film industries. It is also Mexico's most important for the printed media and book publishing industries. Dozens of daily newspapers are published, including El Universal, Excélsior, Reforma and La Jornada. Other major papers include Milenio, Crónica, El Economista and El Financiero. Leading magazines include Expansión, Proceso, Poder, as well as dozens of entertainment publications such as Vanidades, Quién, Chilango, TV Notas, and local editions of Vogue, GQ, and Architectural Digest.
What are mobile markets in Mexico City called?
572740e1f1498d1400e8f52c
tianguis
181
False
How is the retail market of Mexico City?
572740e1f1498d1400e8f52d
immense and varied
22
False
What is a common way stores are distributed in Mexico City?
572740e1f1498d1400e8f52e
in a street dedicated to a certain type of good
233
False
What is the spectrum of gods you can get in Mexico City?
572740e1f1498d1400e8f52f
basic foods to ultra high-end luxury goods
78
False
Mexico City offers an immense and varied consumer retail market, ranging from basic foods to ultra high-end luxury goods. Consumers may buy in fixed indoor markets, mobile markets (tianguis), from street vendors, from downtown shops in a street dedicated to a certain type of good, in convenience stores and traditional neighborhood stores, in modern supermarkets, in warehouse and membership stores and the shopping centers that they anchor, in department stores, big-box stores and in modern shopping malls.
What are the markets called that are located and run by the boroughs?
57274177dd62a815002e9a2e
mercado
55
False
What are some of the traditional drinks of Mexico City?
57274177dd62a815002e9a2f
aguas frescas and atole
495
False
What is the centerpiece of Mexico City's markets
57274177dd62a815002e9a30
mercado
55
False
The author uses which adjective to describe the mercados?
57274177dd62a815002e9a31
omnipresent
42
False
A staple for consumers in the city is the omnipresent "mercado". Every major neighborhood in the city has its own borough-regulated market, often more than one. These are large well-established facilities offering most basic products, such as fresh produce and meat/poultry, dry goods, tortillerías, and many other services such as locksmiths, herbal medicine, hardware goods, sewing implements; and a multitude of stands offering freshly made, home-style cooking and drinks in the tradition of aguas frescas and atole.
Similar tianguis might set up shop where?
5727420d5951b619008f877f
plazas comerciales
155
False
What is the most basic way a street vendor might sell their goods?
5727420d5951b619008f8780
tarp or cloth laid on the ground
521
False
Street vendors might sell their goods in official places as well as where?
5727420d5951b619008f8781
non-officially controlled concentrations around metro stations and hospitals
74
False
Street vendors play their trade from stalls in the tianguis as well as at non-officially controlled concentrations around metro stations and hospitals; at plazas comerciales, where vendors of a certain "theme" (e.g. stationery) are housed; originally these were organized to accommodate vendors formerly selling on the street; or simply from improvised stalls on a city sidewalk. In addition, food and goods are sold from people walking with baskets, pushing carts, from bicycles or the backs of trucks, or simply from a tarp or cloth laid on the ground.
Where is the Chapultepec Zoo located?
572742e2708984140094db89
Chapultepec Park in the Miguel Hidalgo
144
False
When was the Chapultepec Zoo opened?
572742e2708984140094db8a
1924
201
False
What sets the Zoo San Juan de Aragon apart from the others?
572742e2708984140094db8b
species that are in danger of extinction
501
False
How big is the Zoo Los Coyotes?
572742e2708984140094db8c
27.68-acre (11.2 ha)
729
False
How many animals inhabit Zoo Los Coyotes?
572742e2708984140094db8d
more than 301 specimens
847
False
Mexico City has three zoos. Chapultepec Zoo, the San Juan de Aragon Zoo and Los Coyotes Zoo. Chapultepec Zoo is located in the first section of Chapultepec Park in the Miguel Hidalgo. It was opened in 1924. Visitors can see about 243 specimens of different species including kangaroos, giant panda, gorillas, caracal, hyena, hippos, jaguar, giraffe, lemur, lion, among others. Zoo San Juan de Aragon is near the San Juan de Aragon Park in the Gustavo A. Madero. In this zoo, opened in 1964, there are species that are in danger of extinction such as the jaguar and the Mexican wolf. Other guests are the golden eagle, pronghorn, bighorn sheep, caracara, zebras, African elephant, macaw, hippo, among others. Zoo Los Coyotes is a 27.68-acre (11.2 ha) zoo located south of Mexico City in the Coyoacan. It was inaugurated on February 2, 1999. It has more than 301 specimens of 51 species of wild native or endemic fauna from the Mexico City. You can admire eagles, ajolotes, coyotes, macaws, bobcats, Mexican wolves, raccoons, mountain lions, teporingos, foxes, white-tailed deer.
Who termed the slogan "la Ciudad de la Esperanza?"
5727435f5951b619008f878d
Andrés López Obrador
7
False
What is the nickname of the city that the government is trying to push now?
5727435f5951b619008f878e
Capital en Movimiento
213
False
How is the city commonly abbreviated?
5727435f5951b619008f878f
CDMX
485
False
When did the abbreviation CDMX begin to take hold?
5727435f5951b619008f8790
2013
391
False
Who more recently tried to change the nickname of Mexico city?
5727435f5951b619008f8791
Marcelo Ebrard
303
False
During Andrés López Obrador's administration a political slogan was introduced: la Ciudad de la Esperanza ("The City of Hope"). This motto was quickly adopted as a city nickname, but has faded since the new motto Capital en Movimiento ("Capital in Movement") was adopted by the administration headed by Marcelo Ebrard, though the latter is not treated as often as a nickname in media. Since 2013, to refer to the City particularly in relation to government campaigns, the abbreviation CDMX has been used (from Ciudad de México).
What are locals of Mexico City called?
572743e2f1498d1400e8f56a
chilangos
76
False
What do Mexicans call Mexico City?
572743e2f1498d1400e8f56b
Chilangolandia
34
False
How do Mexicans take being called "chilangos?"
572743e2f1498d1400e8f56c
proudly
373
False
What nickname are residents of Mexico given that more reflects the Spanish influence of the city?
572743e2f1498d1400e8f56d
defeños
458
False
What is the "official" term to denote a citizen of Mexico City?
572743e2f1498d1400e8f56e
capitalinos
597
False
The city is colloquially known as Chilangolandia after the locals' nickname chilangos. Chilango is used pejoratively by people living outside Mexico City to "connote a loud, arrogant, ill-mannered, loutish person". For their part those living in Mexico City designate insultingly those who live elsewhere as living in la provincia ("the provinces", the periphery) and many proudly embrace the term chilango. Residents of Mexico City are more recently called defeños (deriving from the postal abbreviation of the Federal District in Spanish: D.F., which is read "De-Efe"). They are formally called capitalinos (in reference to the city being the capital of the country), but "[p]erhaps because capitalino is the more polite, specific, and correct word, it is almost never utilized".
How many crimes occurred around the turn of the latest century?
5727446af1498d1400e8f57e
average of 478 crimes were reported each day
25
False
Why might more than 500 crimes have occurred each day at the turn of the century instead of the officially reported number?
5727446af1498d1400e8f57f
most people are reluctant to report crime
153
False
What Mexican mayor tried to crack down on crime immensely?
5727446af1498d1400e8f580
Marcelo Ebrard
229
False
What is one way the city tried to combat crime?
5727446af1498d1400e8f581
installation of 11,000 security cameras
483
False
What is the ratio of cops to citizens in Mexico City?
5727446af1498d1400e8f582
one uniformed officer per 100 citizens
670
False
Between 2000 and 2004 an average of 478 crimes were reported each day in Mexico City; however, the actual crime rate is thought to be much higher "since most people are reluctant to report crime". Under policies enacted by Mayor Marcelo Ebrard between 2009 and 2011, Mexico City underwent a major security upgrade with violent and petty crime rates both falling significantly despite the rise in violent crime in other parts of the country. Some of the policies enacted included the installation of 11,000 security cameras around the city and a very large expansion of the police force. Mexico City has one of the world's highest police officer-to-resident ratios, with one uniformed officer per 100 citizens.
Napoleon
When was Napoleon Bonaparte born?
57263f11ec44d21400f3dcb9
15 August 1769
104
False
What was Napoleon Bonaparte's nationality?
57263f11ec44d21400f3dcbb
French
139
False
When did Napoleon Bonaparte's empire finally collapse?
57263f11ec44d21400f3dcbd
1815
679
False
When did Napoleon Bonaparte die?
572649185951b619008f6f0e
5 May 1821
121
False
During what historical event did Napoleon rise to prominence?
572649185951b619008f6f10
the French Revolution
206
False
Napoléon Bonaparte (/nəˈpoʊliən, -ˈpoʊljən/; French: [napɔleɔ̃ bɔnapaʁt], born Napoleone di Buonaparte; 15 August 1769 – 5 May 1821) was a French military and political leader who rose to prominence during the French Revolution and led several successful campaigns during the Revolutionary Wars. As Napoleon I, he was Emperor of the French from 1804 until 1814, and again in 1815. Napoleon dominated European and global affairs for more than a decade while leading France against a series of coalitions in the Napoleonic Wars. He won most of these wars and the vast majority of his battles, building a large empire that ruled over continental Europe before its final collapse in 1815. Often considered one of the greatest commanders in history, his wars and campaigns are studied at military schools worldwide. He also remains one of the most celebrated and controversial political figures in Western history. In civil affairs, Napoleon had a major long-term impact by bringing liberal reforms to the territories that he conquered, especially the Low Countries, Switzerland, and large parts of modern Italy and Germany. He implemented fundamental liberal policies in France and throughout Western Europe.[note 1] His lasting legal achievement, the Napoleonic Code, has been adopted in various forms by a quarter of the world's legal systems, from Japan to Quebec.
Where was Napoleon born?
572644761125e71900ae191e
Corsica
21
False
When was Napoleon banished from Corsica?
572644761125e71900ae191f
1793
265
False
At what age did Napoleon receive command of the Army of Italy?
572644761125e71900ae1920
26
460
False
Who did Napoleon fight his first military campaign against?
572644761125e71900ae1921
the Austrians and their Italian allies
514
False
When did Napoleon command his military expedition to Egypt?
572644761125e71900ae1922
1798
728
False
Napoleon was born in Corsica to a relatively modest family of noble Tuscan ancestry. Napoleon supported the French Revolution from the outset in 1789 while serving in the French army, and he tried to spread its ideals to Corsica but was banished from the island in 1793. Two years later, he saved the French government from collapse by firing on the Parisian mobs with cannons. The Directory rewarded Napoleon by giving him command of the Army of Italy at age 26, when he began his first military campaign against the Austrians and their Italian allies, scoring a series of decisive victories that made him famous all across Europe. He followed the defeat of the Allies in Europe by commanding a military expedition to Egypt in 1798, invading and occupying the Ottoman province after defeating the Mamelukes and launching modern Egyptology through the discoveries made by his army.
Napoleon's political power was secured by his victory at which 1800 battle?
5726486f708984140094c153
the Battle of Marengo
151
False
At the Concordat of 1801, Napoleon restored the religious privileges of what entity?
5726486f708984140094c154
the Catholic Church
284
False
When did the French Senate declare Napoleon Emperor?
5726486f708984140094c155
1804
531
False
Napoleon's victory at which battle led to the end of the Holy Roman Empire?
5726486f708984140094c156
the Battle of Austerlitz
772
False
The results of which battle allowed the British to blockade French coasts?
5726486f708984140094c157
the Battle of Trafalgar
919
False
After returning from Egypt, Napoleon engineered a coup in November 1799 and became First Consul of the Republic. Another victory over the Austrians at the Battle of Marengo in 1800 secured his political power. With the Concordat of 1801, Napoleon restored the religious privileges of the Catholic Church while keeping the lands seized by the Revolution. The state continued to nominate the bishops and to control church finances. He extended his political control over France until the Senate declared him Emperor of the French in 1804, launching the French Empire. Intractable differences with the British meant that the French were facing a Third Coalition by 1805. Napoleon shattered this coalition with decisive victories in the Ulm Campaign and a historic triumph at the Battle of Austerlitz, which led to the elimination of the Holy Roman Empire. In October 1805, however, a Franco-Spanish fleet was destroyed at the Battle of Trafalgar, allowing Britain to impose a naval blockade of the French coasts. In retaliation, Napoleon established the Continental System in 1806 to cut off continental trade with Britain. The Fourth Coalition took up arms against him the same year because Prussia became worried about growing French influence on the continent. Napoleon knocked out Prussia at the battles of Jena and Auerstedt, then turned his attention towards the Russians and annihilated them in June 1807 at Friedland, which forced the Russians to accept the Treaties of Tilsit.
What region did Napoleon invade in an effort to extend the Continental System?
57264acb708984140094c1a9
Iberia
58
False
Who did Napoleon declare King of Spain in 1808?
57264acb708984140094c1aa
his brother Joseph
78
False
How long did the Peninsular War last?
57264acb708984140094c1ab
six years
212
False
Napoleon's victory at which battle resulted in the destruction of the Fifth Coalition?
57264acb708984140094c1ac
the Battle of Wagram
436
False
By 1811, what was the population of Napoleon's Empire?
57264acb708984140094c1ad
over 70 million people
536
False
Hoping to extend the Continental System, Napoleon invaded Iberia and declared his brother Joseph the King of Spain in 1808. The Spanish and the Portuguese revolted with British support. The Peninsular War lasted six years, noted for its brutal guerrilla warfare, and culminated in an Allied victory. Fighting also erupted in Central Europe, as the Austrians launched another attack against the French in 1809. Napoleon defeated them at the Battle of Wagram, dissolving the Fifth Coalition formed against France. By 1811, Napoleon ruled over 70 million people across an empire that had domination in Europe, which had not witnessed this level of political consolidation since the days of the Roman Empire. He maintained his strategic status through a series of alliances and family appointments. He created a new aristocracy in France while allowing the return of nobles who had been forced into exile by the Revolution.
What nation did Napoleon invade in 1812 to enforce his blockade?
57264d3a708984140094c1cd
Russia
191
False
The 1812 invasion of Russia resulted in the collapse of which military unit?
57264d3a708984140094c1ce
the Grand Army
283
False
In what year was the Sixth Coalition formed?
57264d3a708984140094c1cf
1813
411
False
In addition to Russia, the Sixth Coalition consisted of forces from which two nations?
57264d3a708984140094c1d0
Prussia and Austria
417
False
In what year did the Allies capture Paris and force Napoleon's abdication?
57264d3a708984140094c1d1
1814
742
False
Tensions over rising Polish nationalism and the economic effects of the Continental System led to renewed confrontation with Russia. To enforce his blockade, Napoleon launched an invasion of Russia in the summer of 1812. The resulting campaign witnessed the catastrophic collapse of the Grand Army, forcing the French to retreat, as well as leading to the widespread destruction of Russian lands and cities. In 1813, Prussia and Austria joined Russian forces in a Sixth Coalition against France. A chaotic military campaign in Central Europe eventually culminated in a large Allied army defeating Napoleon at the Battle of Leipzig in October. The next year, the Allies invaded France and captured Paris, forcing Napoleon to abdicate in April 1814. He was exiled to the island of Elba. The Bourbons were restored to power and the French lost most of the territories that they had conquered since the Revolution. However, Napoleon escaped from Elba in February 1815 and took control of the government once again. The Allies responded by forming a Seventh Coalition, which ultimately defeated Napoleon at the Battle of Waterloo in June. The Royal Navy then thwarted his planned escape to the United States in July, so he surrendered to the British after running out of other options. The British exiled him to the remote island of Saint Helena in the South Atlantic. His death in 1821 at the age of 51 was received with shock and grief throughout Europe. In 1840, a million people witnessed his remains returning to Paris, where they still reside at Les Invalides.
Who was Napoleon's father?
57264eee708984140094c1f3
Carlo Maria di Buonaparte
40
False
Who was Napoleon's mother?
57264eee708984140094c1f4
Maria Letizia Ramolino
70
False
On what island was the Bonaparte ancestral home located?
57264eee708984140094c1f5
Corsica
182
False
What was the name of Napoleon's family home?
57264eee708984140094c1f6
Casa Buonaparte
125
False
Napoleon was most likely named after what family relation?
57264eee708984140094c1f7
an uncle
381
False
Napoleon was born on 15 August 1769, to Carlo Maria di Buonaparte and Maria Letizia Ramolino, in his family's ancestral home Casa Buonaparte in Ajaccio, the capital of the island of Corsica. He was their fourth child and third son. This was a year after the island was transferred to France by the Republic of Genoa. He was christened Napoleone di Buonaparte, probably named after an uncle (an older brother who did not survive infancy was the first of the sons to be called Napoleone). In his 20s, he adopted the more French-sounding Napoléon Bonaparte.[note 2]
When did Napoleon begin religious schooling in Autun?
57265007dd62a815002e8146
January 1779
151
False
Where was the first military academy Napoleon attended located?
57265007dd62a815002e8147
Brienne-le-Château
262
False
What was Napoleon's first language?
57265007dd62a815002e8148
Corsican
305
False
Why did other students often tease Napoleon?
57265007dd62a815002e8149
his accent
452
False
According to a school examiner, Napoleon was best at which academic subject?
57265007dd62a815002e814a
mathematics
584
False
Napoleon's noble, moderately affluent background afforded him greater opportunities to study than were available to a typical Corsican of the time. In January 1779, he was enrolled at a religious school in Autun. In May, he was admitted to a military academy at Brienne-le-Château. His first language was Corsican, and he always spoke French with a marked Corsican accent and never learned to spell French properly. He was teased by other students for his accent and applied himself to reading. An examiner observed that Napoleon "has always been distinguished for his application in mathematics. He is fairly well acquainted with history and geography... This boy would make an excellent sailor."[note 3]
When did Napoleon graduate?
5726544edd62a815002e81b4
September 1785
19
False
What commission did Napoleon receive upon his graduation?
5726544edd62a815002e81b5
second lieutenant
64
False
What military unit did Napoleon first serve in after his graduation?
5726544edd62a815002e81b6
La Fère artillery regiment
85
False
What Corsican leader did Napoleon write in 1789 expressing his nationalist sentiments?
5726544edd62a815002e81b7
Pasquale Paoli
362
False
When did the Revolution begin?
5726544edd62a815002e81b8
1789
200
False
Upon graduating in September 1785, Bonaparte was commissioned a second lieutenant in La Fère artillery regiment.[note 4] He served in Valence and Auxonne until after the outbreak of the Revolution in 1789, and took nearly two years' leave in Corsica and Paris during this period. At this time, he was a fervent Corsican nationalist, and wrote to Corsican leader Pasquale Paoli in May 1789, "As the nation was perishing I was born. Thirty thousand Frenchmen were vomited on to our shores, drowning the throne of liberty in waves of blood. Such was the odious sight which was the first to strike me."
Where was Napoleon put under house arrest?
572658de708984140094c341
Nice
73
False
What historical event brought about the fall of the Robespierres?
572658de708984140094c342
the Thermidorian Reaction
144
False
When did the Thermidorian Reaction take place?
572658de708984140094c343
July 1794
173
False
At the time of his house arrest, Napoleon was serving with what military entity?
572658de708984140094c344
the Army of Italy
344
False
After his house arrest, who was the commissar that Napoleon sent a letter to protesting innocence?
572658de708984140094c345
Salicetti
482
False
Some contemporaries alleged that Bonaparte was put under house arrest at Nice for his association with the Robespierres following their fall in the Thermidorian Reaction in July 1794, but Napoleon's secretary Bourrienne disputed the allegation in his memoirs. According to Bourrienne, jealousy was responsible, between the Army of the Alps and the Army of Italy (with whom Napoleon was seconded at the time). Bonaparte dispatched an impassioned defense in a letter to the commissar Salicetti, and he was subsequently acquitted of any wrongdoing.
Who did Napoleon become engaged to in 1795?
57265bfff1498d1400e8dd2c
Désirée Clary
41
False
In April 1795, what military organization was Napoleon assigned to?
57265bfff1498d1400e8dd2d
the Army of the West
193
False
At the time of Napoleon's assignment, what military struggle was the Army of the West engaged in?
57265bfff1498d1400e8dd2e
the War in the Vendée
236
False
Which older brother of Napoleon's did Désirée Clary's sister Julie marry?
57265bfff1498d1400e8dd2f
Joseph
151
False
What excuse did Napoleon use to avoid being assigned to an infantry command?
57265bfff1498d1400e8dd30
poor health
492
False
By 1795, Bonaparte had become engaged to Désirée Clary, daughter of François Clary. Désirée's sister Julie Clary had married Bonaparte's elder brother Joseph. In April 1795, he was assigned to the Army of the West, which was engaged in the War in the Vendée—a civil war and royalist counter-revolution in Vendée, a region in west central France on the Atlantic Ocean. As an infantry command, it was a demotion from artillery general—for which the army already had a full quota—and he pleaded poor health to avoid the posting.
After his move to the Committee of Public Safety, where did Napoleon unsuccessfully attempt to be transferred to?
57265f7e5951b619008f70e5
Constantinople
122
False
Inspired by his own relationship, what romantic tale did Napoleon author?
57265f7e5951b619008f70e6
Clisson et Eugénie
233
False
On what date was Napoleon taken off the list of generals in service due to his refusal to serve in Vendée?
57265f7e5951b619008f70e7
15 September
353
False
In which department of the Committee of Public Safety did Napoleon serve?
57265f7e5951b619008f70e8
the Bureau of Topography
16
False
Napoleon's novella "Clisson et Eugénie" was based on his relationship with whom?
57265f7e5951b619008f70e9
Désirée
341
False
He was moved to the Bureau of Topography of the Committee of Public Safety and sought unsuccessfully to be transferred to Constantinople in order to offer his services to the Sultan. During this period, he wrote the romantic novella Clisson et Eugénie, about a soldier and his lover, in a clear parallel to Bonaparte's own relationship with Désirée. On 15 September, Bonaparte was removed from the list of generals in regular service for his refusal to serve in the Vendée campaign. He faced a difficult financial situation and reduced career prospects.
After his marriage, Napoleon left Paris to lead what army?
5726625e5951b619008f7119
the Army of Italy
69
False
In which series of battles did Napoleon eliminate the forces of Piedmont from the war?
5726625e5951b619008f711a
the Montenotte Campaign
250
False
When did the French victory at Rivoli occur?
5726625e5951b619008f711b
January 1797
716
False
Up to how many Austrian soldiers died at Rivoli?
5726625e5951b619008f711c
14,000
820
False
Around how many casualties did the French suffer at Rivoli?
5726625e5951b619008f711d
5,000
859
False
Two days after the marriage, Bonaparte left Paris to take command of the Army of Italy. He immediately went on the offensive, hoping to defeat the forces of Piedmont before their Austrian allies could intervene. In a series of rapid victories during the Montenotte Campaign, he knocked Piedmont out of the war in two weeks. The French then focused on the Austrians for the remainder of the war, the highlight of which became the protracted struggle for Mantua. The Austrians launched a series of offensives against the French to break the siege, but Napoleon defeated every relief effort, scoring notable victories at the battles of Castiglione, Bassano, Arcole, and Rivoli. The decisive French triumph at Rivoli in January 1797 led to the collapse of the Austrian position in Italy. At Rivoli, the Austrians lost up to 14,000 men while the French lost about 5,000.
In what year were the French defeated in Southern Germany by the Archduke Charles?
5726672df1498d1400e8de72
1796
167
False
After Napoleon's attack, the Archduke pulled back his forces to defend which city?
5726672df1498d1400e8de73
Vienna
221
False
What was the first noteworthy confrontation between Napoleon and the Archduke Charles?
5726672df1498d1400e8de74
the Battle of Tarvis
421
False
When did the Battle of Tarvis take place?
5726672df1498d1400e8de75
March 1797
445
False
Approximately how close did the French incursion into Leoben come to reaching Vienna?
5726672df1498d1400e8de76
100 km
547
False
The next phase of the campaign featured the French invasion of the Habsburg heartlands. French forces in Southern Germany had been defeated by the Archduke Charles in 1796, but the Archduke withdrew his forces to protect Vienna after learning about Napoleon's assault. In the first notable encounter between the two commanders, Napoleon pushed back his opponent and advanced deep into Austrian territory after winning at the Battle of Tarvis in March 1797. The Austrians were alarmed by the French thrust that reached all the way to Leoben, about 100 km from Vienna, and finally decided to sue for peace. The Treaty of Leoben, followed by the more comprehensive Treaty of Campo Formio, gave France control of most of northern Italy and the Low Countries, and a secret clause promised the Republic of Venice to Austria. Bonaparte marched on Venice and forced its surrender, ending 1,100 years of independence. He also authorized the French to loot treasures such as the Horses of Saint Mark.
What was Napoleon's favorite strategy?
5726684d708984140094c505
envelopment
175
False
How many prisoners did Napoleon's army capture in the Italian campaign?
5726684d708984140094c506
150,000
407
False
How many cannons did Napoleon's army capture in the Italian campaign?
5726684d708984140094c507
540
426
False
In what area did the French army display superior technology to its opponents?
5726684d708984140094c508
artillery
536
False
How many standards did Napoleon's army capture in the Italian campaign?
5726684d708984140094c509
170
443
False
Bonaparte could win battles by concealment of troop deployments and concentration of his forces on the 'hinge' of an enemy's weakened front. If he could not use his favourite envelopment strategy, he would take up the central position and attack two co-operating forces at their hinge, swing round to fight one until it fled, then turn to face the other. In this Italian campaign, Bonaparte's army captured 150,000 prisoners, 540 cannons, and 170 standards. The French army fought 67 actions and won 18 pitched battles through superior artillery technology and Bonaparte's tactics.
For what action during the Italian campaign did the royalists condemn Bonaparte?
57266bb4f1498d1400e8df32
looting
217
False
About how much money did Napoleon's army take from Italy during the conflict there?
57266bb4f1498d1400e8df33
$45 million
326
False
Approximately how many valuable paintings and sculpture's did Napoleon's forces loot from Italy during the campaign there?
57266bb4f1498d1400e8df34
three-hundred
482
False
What was the name of the general sent to Paris by Napoleon to organize a coup against the royalists there?
57266bb4f1498d1400e8df35
Pierre Augereau
555
False
Napoleon's peace negotiations with Austria brought about what treaty?
57266bb4f1498d1400e8df36
the Treaty of Campo Formio
832
False
During the campaign, Bonaparte became increasingly influential in French politics. He founded two newspapers: one for the troops in his army and another for circulation in France. The royalists attacked Bonaparte for looting Italy and warned that he might become a dictator. All told, Napoleon's forces extracted an estimated $45 million in funds from Italy during their campaign there, another $12 million in precious metals and jewels; atop that, his forces confiscated more than three-hundred priceless paintings and sculptures. Bonaparte sent General Pierre Augereau to Paris to lead a coup d'état and purge the royalists on 4 September—Coup of 18 Fructidor. This left Barras and his Republican allies in control again but dependent on Bonaparte, who proceeded to peace negotiations with Austria. These negotiations resulted in the Treaty of Campo Formio, and Bonaparte returned to Paris in December as a hero. He met Talleyrand, France's new Foreign Minister—who later served in the same capacity for Emperor Napoleon—and they began to prepare for an invasion of Britain.
Before landing at Alexandria, Napoleon succeeded in evading what military entity?
57266e0b708984140094c5ab
the Royal Navy
55
False
On what date did Napoleon land at Alexandria?
57266e0b708984140094c5ac
1 July
98
False
What battle did Napoleon fight against the Mamluks?
57266e0b708984140094c5ad
the Battle of Shubra Khit
116
False
What was the name of Egypt's dominant military class?
57266e0b708984140094c5ae
the Mamluks
150
False
Roughly how many Egyptians lost their lives in the Battle of the Pyramids?
57266e0b708984140094c5af
2,000
470
False
General Bonaparte and his expedition eluded pursuit by the Royal Navy and landed at Alexandria on 1 July. He fought the Battle of Shubra Khit against the Mamluks, Egypt's ruling military caste. This helped the French practice their defensive tactic for the Battle of the Pyramids, fought on 21 July, about 24 km (15 mi) from the pyramids. General Bonaparte's forces of 25,000 roughly equalled those of the Mamluks' Egyptian cavalry. Twenty-nine French and approximately 2,000 Egyptians were killed. The victory boosted the morale of the French army.
In what battle did the British fleet seize or destroy most of the French vessels in Egypt?
57266f58708984140094c5e3
the Battle of the Nile
104
False
Who led the British during the Battle of the Nile?
57266f58708984140094c5e4
Horatio Nelson
37
False
In what year did Napoleon lead his army into Damascus?
57266f58708984140094c5e5
1799
329
False
Approximately how many troops were in the army Napoleon led into Damascus?
57266f58708984140094c5e6
13,000
431
False
During the battles in Damascus, the attack on which city was know for its brutality?
57266f58708984140094c5e7
Jaffa
539
False
On 1 August, the British fleet under Horatio Nelson captured or destroyed all but two French vessels in the Battle of the Nile, defeating Bonaparte's goal to strengthen the French position in the Mediterranean. His army had succeeded in a temporary increase of French power in Egypt, though it faced repeated uprisings. In early 1799, he moved an army into the Ottoman province of Damascus (Syria and Galilee). Bonaparte led these 13,000 French soldiers in the conquest of the coastal towns of Arish, Gaza, Jaffa, and Haifa. The attack on Jaffa was particularly brutal. Bonaparte discovered that many of the defenders were former prisoners of war, ostensibly on parole, so he ordered the garrison and 1,400 prisoners to be executed by bayonet or drowning to save bullets. Men, women, and children were robbed and murdered for three days.
How many men were in Napoleon's army when the battle began?
5726715df1498d1400e8dfd0
13,000
32
False
How many soldiers in Napoleon's army died in combat?
5726715df1498d1400e8dfd1
1,200
73
False
How many soldiers from Napoleon's army were reported missing?
5726715df1498d1400e8dfd2
1,500
44
False
What disease took the heaviest toll on Napoleon's army?
5726715df1498d1400e8dfd3
bubonic plague
138
False
To speed his retreat to Egypt, Napoleon ordered the poisoning of sick men with what substance?
5726715df1498d1400e8dfd4
opium
324
False
Bonaparte began with an army of 13,000 men; 1,500 were reported missing, 1,200 died in combat, and thousands perished from disease—mostly bubonic plague. He failed to reduce the fortress of Acre, so he marched his army back to Egypt in May. To speed up the retreat, Bonaparte ordered plague-stricken men to be poisoned with opium; the number who died remains disputed, ranging from a low of 30 to a high of 580. He also brought out 1,000 wounded men. Back in Egypt on 25 July, Bonaparte defeated an Ottoman amphibious invasion at Abukir.
Napoleon's ally Roger Ducos was the speaker for what organization?
57267326dd62a815002e853e
the Council of Five Hundred
168
False
On what date did Napoleon's alliance overthrow the Directory?
57267326dd62a815002e853f
9 November 1799
302
False
Napoleon's successful coup against the directory resulted in the closure of what organization?
57267326dd62a815002e8540
the council of five hundred
394
False
After his successful coup against the Directory, what political office did Napoleon assume?
57267326dd62a815002e8541
"first consul"
439
False
What was the count of the popular vote in favor of the "Constitution of the Year VIII"?
57267326dd62a815002e8542
3,000,000
729
False
Despite the failures in Egypt, Napoleon returned to a hero's welcome. He drew together an alliance with director Emmanuel Joseph Sieyès, his brother Lucien, speaker of the Council of Five Hundred Roger Ducos, director Joseph Fouché, and Talleyrand, and they overthrew the Directory by a coup d'état on 9 November 1799 ("the 18th Brumaire" according to the revolutionary calendar), closing down the council of five hundred. Napoleon became "first consul" for ten years, with two consuls appointed by him who had consultative voices only. His power was confirmed by the new "Constitution of the Year VIII", originally devised by Sieyès to give Napoleon a minor role, but rewritten by Napoleon, and accepted by direct popular vote (3,000,000 in favor, 1,567 opposed). The constitution preserved the appearance of a republic but in reality established a dictatorship.
What was historian Martin Lyons' term for the political system created by Napoleon?
57267838dd62a815002e8622
"dictatorship by plebiscite."
75
False
What was the name of the constitution drafted by Napoleon?
57267838dd62a815002e8623
the Constitution of the Year VIII
324
False
After his election to First Consul, where did Napoleon take up residence?
57267838dd62a815002e8624
the Tuileries.
427
False
What percentage of the vote was recorded as approving Napoleon's constitution?
57267838dd62a815002e8625
99.94
528
False
What was the real number of people that took part in the plebiscite that passed Napoleon's constitution?
57267838dd62a815002e8626
1.5 million
717
False
Napoleon established a political system that historian Martyn Lyons called "dictatorship by plebiscite." Worried by the democratic forces unleashed by the Revolution, but unwilling to ignore them entirely, Napoleon resorted to regular electoral consultations with the French people on his road to imperial power. He drafted the Constitution of the Year VIII and secured his own election as First Consul, taking up residence at the Tuileries. The constitution was approved in a rigged plebiscite held the following January, with 99.94 percent officially listed as voting "yes." Napoleon's brother, Lucien, had falsified the returns to show that 3 million people had participated in the plebiscite; the real number was 1.5 million. Political observers at the time assumed the eligible French voting public numbered about 5 million people, so the regime artificially doubled the participation rate to indicate popular enthusiasm for the Consulate. In the first few months of the Consulate, with war in Europe still raging and internal instability still plaguing the country, Napoleon's grip on power remained very tenuous.
In what year did Napoleon and his troops cross the Swiss Alps and enter Italy?
572679afdd62a815002e8666
1800
17
False
Who led the French army defending Genoa against the Austrian siege?
572679afdd62a815002e8667
André Masséna
511
False
What was the date of the Battle of Marengo?
572679afdd62a815002e8668
June 14
741
False
Who led the Austrian forces at the Battle of Marengo?
572679afdd62a815002e8669
General Melas
750
False
How many troops did Napoleon field at the Battle of Marengo?
572679afdd62a815002e866a
24,000
856
False
In the spring of 1800, Napoleon and his troops crossed the Swiss Alps into Italy, aiming to surprise the Austrian armies that had reoccupied the peninsula when Napoleon was still in Egypt.[note 5] After a difficult crossing over the Alps, the French army entered the plains of Northern Italy virtually unopposed. While one French army approached from the north, the Austrians were busy with another stationed in Genoa, which was besieged by a substantial force. The fierce resistance of this French army, under André Masséna, gave the northern striking force precious time to carry out their operations with little interference. After spending several days looking for each other, the two armies finally collided at the Battle of Marengo on June 14. General Melas had a numerical advantage, fielding about 30,000 Austrian soldiers while Napoleon commanded 24,000 French troops. The battle began favorably for the Austrians as their initial attack surprised the French and gradually drove them back. Melas concluded that he'd won the battle and retired to his headquarters around 3 pm, leaving his subordinates in charge of pursuing the French. However, the French lines never broke during their tactical retreat; Napoleon constantly rode out among the troops urging them to stand and fight. Late in the afternoon, a full division under Desaix arrived on the field and dramatically reversed the tide of the battle. A series of artillery barrages and fortunate cavalry charges managed to decimate the Austrian army, which fled chaotically over the Bormida River back to Alessandria, leaving behind 14,000 casualties. The following day, the Austrian army agreed to abandon Northern Italy once more with the Convention of Alessandria, which granted them safe passage to friendly soil in exchange for their fortresses throughout the region.
From what direction did Napoleon elect to invade Italy?
57267bd6dd62a815002e86b8
the north
213
False
What direction did French invasions of Italy normally come from?
57267bd6dd62a815002e86b9
the west
276
False
Around how long did it take Napoleon to push Austria out of Italy in his first experiences there?
57267bd6dd62a815002e86ba
a year
361
False
How long did it take Napoleon to drive Austria from Italy in 1800?
57267bd6dd62a815002e86bb
a month
452
False
According to Alfred von Shlieffen, what was the object of Napoleon's 1800 Italian campaign?
57267bd6dd62a815002e86bc
the conquest of North Italy
692
False
Although critics have blamed Napoleon for several tactical mistakes preceding the battle, they have also praised his audacity for selecting a risky campaign strategy, choosing to invade the Italian peninsula from the north when the vast majority of French invasions came from the west, near or along the coastline. As Chandler points out, Napoleon spent almost a year getting the Austrians out of Italy in his first campaign; in 1800, it took him only a month to achieve the same goal. German strategist and field marshal Alfred von Schlieffen concluded that "Bonaparte did not annihilate his enemy but eliminated him and rendered him harmless" while "[attaining] the object of the campaign: the conquest of North Italy."
Where did the victory for Napoleon that secured his political power and increased his popularity in France occur?
57267da5708984140094c7e9
Marengo
22
False
Where did the negotiations with Austria led by Napoleon's brother take place?
57267da5708984140094c7ea
Lunéville
204
False
What was the name of the general ordered by Napoleon to launch another attack against Austria?
57267da5708984140094c7eb
Moreau
422
False
What was the name of the treaty signed by the Austrians as a result of their defeat at Hohenlinden?
57267da5708984140094c7ec
the Treaty of Lunéville
620
False
Where did Moreau achieve his major victory against Austria in December 1800?
57267da5708984140094c7ed
Hohenlinden
540
False
Napoleon's triumph at Marengo secured his political authority and boosted his popularity back home, but it did not lead to an immediate peace. Bonaparte's brother, Joseph, led the complex negotiations in Lunéville and reported that Austria, emboldened by British support, would not acknowledge the new territory that France had acquired. As negotiations became increasingly fractious, Bonaparte gave orders to his general Moreau to strike Austria once more. Moreau and the French swept through Bavaria and scored an overwhelming victory at Hohenlinden in December 1800. As a result, the Austrians capitulated and signed the Treaty of Lunéville in February 1801. The treaty reaffirmed and expanded earlier French gains at Campo Formio. Britain now remained the only nation that was still at war with France.
What 1802 treaty between Britain and France ended the Revolutionary Wars?
57267f2af1498d1400e8e1b6
the Treaty of Amiens
62
False
What year was the Treaty of Amiens signed?
57267f2af1498d1400e8e1b7
1802
92
False
In what year did French voters approve a constitution making the Consulate permanent?
57267f2af1498d1400e8e1b8
1802
513
False
What percentage of the French vote approved Napoleon's new constitution?
57267f2af1498d1400e8e1b9
over 99%
972
False
What position was Napoleon granted in Article 1 of the new French constitution?
57267f2af1498d1400e8e1ba
First Consul for Life
1132
False
After a decade of constant warfare, France and Britain signed the Treaty of Amiens in March 1802, bringing the Revolutionary Wars to an end. Amiens called for the withdrawal of British troops from recently conquered colonial territories as well as for assurances to curtail the expansionary goals of the French Republic. With Europe at peace and the economy recovering, Napoleon's popularity soared to its highest levels under the Consulate, both domestically and abroad. In a new plebiscite during the spring of 1802, the French public came out in huge numbers to approve a constitution that made the Consulate permanent, essentially elevating Napoleon to dictator for life. Whereas the plebiscite two years earlier had brought out 1.5 million people to the polls, the new referendum enticed 3.6 million to go and vote (72% of all eligible voters). There was no secret ballot in 1802 and few people wanted to openly defy the regime; the constitution gained approval with over 99% of the vote. His broad powers were spelled out in the new constitution: Article 1. The French people name, and the Senate proclaims Napoleon-Bonaparte First Consul for Life. After 1802, he was generally referred to as Napoleon rather than Bonaparte.
During the short peace in Europe, where did Napoleon turn his focus?
57268141f1498d1400e8e20c
the French colonies abroad
55
False
During the Revolutionary War, which French colony had moved towards political independence?
57268141f1498d1400e8e20d
Saint-Domingue
83
False
Who was the de facto ruler of Saint-Domingue in 1801?
57268141f1498d1400e8e20e
Toussaint Louverture
192
False
In February of what year did the national Convention vote to get rid of slavery?
57268141f1498d1400e8e20f
1794
449
False
What was the name of the French general who led the forces that attempted to regain control of Sainte-Domingue?
57268141f1498d1400e8e210
Leclerc
987
False
The brief peace in Europe allowed Napoleon to focus on the French colonies abroad. Saint-Domingue had managed to acquire a high level of political autonomy during the Revolutionary Wars, with Toussaint Louverture installing himself as de facto dictator by 1801. Napoleon saw his chance to recuperate the formerly wealthy colony when he signed the Treaty of Amiens. During the Revolution, the National Convention voted to abolish slavery in February 1794. Under the terms of Amiens, however, Napoleon agreed to appease British demands by not abolishing slavery in any colonies where the 1794 decree had never been implemented. The resulting Law of 20 May never applied to colonies like Guadeloupe or Guyane, even though rogue generals and other officials used the pretext of peace as an opportunity to reinstate slavery in some of these places. The Law of 20 May officially restored the slave trade to the Caribbean colonies, not slavery itself. Napoleon sent an expedition under General Leclerc designed to reassert control over Sainte-Domingue. Although the French managed to capture Toussaint Louverture, the expedition failed when high rates of disease crippled the French army. In May 1803, the last 8000 French troops left the island and the slaves proclaimed an independent republic that they called Haïti in 1804. Seeing the failure of his colonial efforts, Napoleon decided in 1803 to sell the Louisiana Territory to the United States, instantly doubling the size of the U.S. The selling price in the Louisiana Purchase was less than three cents per acre, a total of $15 million.
What was the name of the assassination plot against Napoleon also known as the Infernal Machine?
5726831edd62a815002e87c6
the Plot of the Rue Saint-Nicaise
162
False
When did the Conspiration des poignards take place?
5726831edd62a815002e87c7
October 1800
145
False
What  family was supposed to have supported the January 1804 assassination plot targeting Napoleon?
5726831edd62a815002e87c8
the Bourbon family
382
False
What was another name for the Conspiration des poignards?
5726831edd62a815002e87c9
Dagger plot
129
False
The kidnapping of the Duke of Enghien violated the sovereignty of what locale?
5726831edd62a815002e87ca
Baden
545
False
During the Consulate, Napoleon faced several royalist and Jacobin assassination plots, including the Conspiration des poignards (Dagger plot) in October 1800 and the Plot of the Rue Saint-Nicaise (also known as the Infernal Machine) two months later. In January 1804, his police uncovered an assassination plot against him that involved Moreau and which was ostensibly sponsored by the Bourbon family, the former rulers of France. On the advice of Talleyrand, Napoleon ordered the kidnapping of the Duke of Enghien, violating the sovereignty of Baden. The Duke was quickly executed after a secret military trial, even though he had not been involved in the plot. Enghien's execution infuriated royal courts throughout Europe, become one of the contributing political factors for the outbreak of the Napoleonic Wars.
The imperial system Napoleon created was based on what model?
57268554f1498d1400e8e284
the Roman
116
False
What did Napoleon use to justify his creation of an imperial system?
57268554f1498d1400e8e285
assassination plots
41
False
Napoleon wrote his family's succession into the constitution in an attempt to prevent the restoration of what former ruling family?
57268554f1498d1400e8e286
Bourbon
152
False
Napoleon was elected Emperor of the French by more than what percentage of voters?
57268554f1498d1400e8e287
99%
360
False
About how many voters participated in the election that made Napoleon Emperor of the French?
57268554f1498d1400e8e288
3.6 million
477
False
To expand his power, Napoleon used these assassination plots to justify the creation of an imperial system based on the Roman model. He believed that a Bourbon restoration would be more difficult if his family's succession was entrenched in the constitution. Launching yet another referendum, Napoleon was elected as Emperor of the French by a tally exceeding 99%. As with the Life Consulate two years earlier, this referendum produced heavy participation, bringing out almost 3.6 million voters to the polls.
On what date did Napoleon's coronation occur?
572686845951b619008f7599
December 2, 1804
36
False
How many crowns were used in Napoleon's coronation ceremony?
572686845951b619008f759a
Two
54
False
Other than France, what country was Napoleon crowned king of?
572686845951b619008f759b
Italy
648
False
When was Napoleon crowned King of Italy?
572686845951b619008f759c
May 26, 1805
717
False
Where was Napoleon crowned King of Italy?
572686845951b619008f759d
at the Cathedral of Milan
688
False
Napoleon's coronation took place on December 2, 1804. Two separate crowns were brought for the ceremony: a golden laurel wreath recalling the Roman Empire and a replica of Charlemagne's crown. Napoleon entered the ceremony wearing the laurel wreath and kept it on his head throughout the proceedings. For the official coronation, he raised the Charlemagne crown over his own head in a symbolic gesture, but never placed it on top because he was already wearing the golden wreath. Instead he placed the crown on Josephine's head, the event commemorated in the officially sanctioned painting by Jacques-Louis David. Napoleon was also crowned King of Italy, with the Iron Crown of Lombardy, at the Cathedral of Milan on May 26, 1805. He created eighteen Marshals of the Empire from amongst his top generals to secure the allegiance of the army.
What was the name of the invasion force Napoleon assembled before the creation of the Third Coalition?
57268d2df1498d1400e8e388
the Armée d'Angleterre
87
False
Where in Northern France were the camps of the Armée d'Angleterre located?
57268d2df1498d1400e8e389
Boulogne
131
False
What country was the Armée d'Angleterre intended to strike at?
57268d2df1498d1400e8e38a
England
212
False
What was the name of the later military organization that the Armée d'Angleterre formed the foundation of?
57268d2df1498d1400e8e38b
La Grande Armée.
403
False
How many men were in the Grande Armée by 1805?
57268d2df1498d1400e8e38c
350,000
1137
False
Before the formation of the Third Coalition, Napoleon had assembled an invasion force, the Armée d'Angleterre, around six camps at Boulogne in Northern France. He intended to use this invasion force to strike at England. They never invaded, but Napoleon's troops received careful and invaluable training for future military operations. The men at Boulogne formed the core for what Napoleon later called La Grande Armée. At the start, this French army had about 200,000 men organized into seven corps, which were large field units that contained 36 to 40 cannons each and were capable of independent action until other corps could come to the rescue. A single corps properly situated in a strong defensive position could survive at least a day without support, giving the Grande Armée countless strategic and tactical options on every campaign. On top of these forces, Napoleon created a cavalry reserve of 22,000 organized into two cuirassier divisions, four mounted dragoon divisions, one division of dismounted dragoons, and one of light cavalry, all supported by 24 artillery pieces. By 1805, the Grande Armée had grown to a force of 350,000 men, who were well equipped, well trained, and led by competent officers.
Napoleon acknowledged that the fleet of France was no match for what rival fleet in direct combat?
57268f1b708984140094ca1b
the Royal Navy
53
False
Napoleon's plan to divert the British involved a French Navy attack on what islands?
57268f1b708984140094ca1c
the West Indies.
310
False
Napoleon hoped an attack on the West Indies would cause the British to lessen their defenses where?
57268f1b708984140094ca1d
the Western Approaches
411
False
Napoleon's naval plan came apart after British triumph at which Battle?
57268f1b708984140094ca1e
the Battle of Cape Finisterre
649
False
When did the Battle of Cape Finisterre occur?
57268f1b708984140094ca1f
July 1805
682
False
Napoleon knew that the French fleet could not defeat the Royal Navy in a head-to-head battle, so he planned to lure it away from the English Channel through diversionary tactics. The main strategic idea involved the French Navy escaping from the British blockades of Toulon and Brest and threatening to attack the West Indies. In the face of this attack, it was hoped, the British would weaken their defense of the Western Approaches by sending ships to the Caribbean, allowing a combined Franco-Spanish fleet to take control of the channel long enough for French armies to cross and invade. However, the plan unraveled after the British victory at the Battle of Cape Finisterre in July 1805. French Admiral Villeneuve then retreated to Cádiz instead of linking up with French naval forces at Brest for an attack on the English Channel.
By August 1805, Napoleon changed the primary target of his army's efforts from the English Channel to what area?
5726903d5951b619008f76af
the Rhine
236
False
On what date did French troops begin to cross the Rhine?
5726903d5951b619008f76b0
25 September
376
False
How many French troops were involved in the crossing of the Rhine?
5726903d5951b619008f76b1
200,000
433
False
Who was the Austrian commander who led the army at the fortress of Ulm?
5726903d5951b619008f76b2
Karl Mack
530
False
How many casualties did the French suffer at the Battle of Ulm?
5726903d5951b619008f76b3
2000
1059
False
By August 1805, Napoleon had realized that the strategic situation had changed fundamentally. Facing a potential invasion from his continental enemies, he decided to strike first and turned his army's sights from the English Channel to the Rhine. His basic objective was to destroy the isolated Austrian armies in Southern Germany before their Russian allies could arrive. On 25 September, after great secrecy and feverish marching, 200,000 French troops began to cross the Rhine on a front of 260 km (160 mi). Austrian commander Karl Mack had gathered the greater part of the Austrian army at the fortress of Ulm in Swabia. Napoleon swung his forces to the southeast and the Grande Armée performed an elaborate wheeling movement that outflanked the Austrian positions. The Ulm Maneuver completely surprised General Mack, who belatedly understood that his army had been cut off. After some minor engagements that culminated in the Battle of Ulm, Mack finally surrendered after realizing that there was no way to break out of the French encirclement. For just 2000 French casualties, Napoleon had managed to capture a total of 60,000 Austrian soldiers through his army's rapid marching. The Ulm Campaign is generally regarded as a strategic masterpiece and was influential in the development of the Schlieffen Plan in the late 19th century. For the French, this spectacular victory on land was soured by the decisive victory that the Royal Navy attained at the Battle of Trafalgar on 21 October. After Trafalgar, Britain had total domination of the seas for the duration of the Napoleonic Wars.
In November, after the Ulm Campaign, what city was captured by French forces?
572692aef1498d1400e8e42c
Vienna
61
False
How many muskets did the French capture in the fall of Vienna?
572692aef1498d1400e8e42d
100,000
151
False
How many cannons did the French capture when Vienna fell?
572692aef1498d1400e8e42e
500
168
False
When was the Battle of Austerlitz fought?
572692aef1498d1400e8e42f
2 December
808
False
In what country was the Battle of Austerlitz fought?
572692aef1498d1400e8e430
Moravia
797
False
Following the Ulm Campaign, French forces managed to capture Vienna in November. The fall of Vienna provided the French a huge bounty as they captured 100,000 muskets, 500 cannons, and the intact bridges across the Danube. At this critical juncture, both Tsar Alexander I and Holy Roman Emperor Francis II decided to engage Napoleon in battle, despite reservations from some of their subordinates. Napoleon sent his army north in pursuit of the Allies, but then ordered his forces to retreat so that he could feign a grave weakness. Desperate to lure the Allies into battle, Napoleon gave every indication in the days preceding the engagement that the French army was in a pitiful state, even abandoning the dominant Pratzen Heights near the village of Austerlitz. At the Battle of Austerlitz, in Moravia on 2 December, he deployed the French army below the Pratzen Heights and deliberately weakened his right flank, enticing the Allies to launch a major assault there in the hopes of rolling up the whole French line. A forced march from Vienna by Marshal Davout and his III Corps plugged the gap left by Napoleon just in time. Meanwhile, the heavy Allied deployment against the French right weakened their center on the Pratzen Heights, which was viciously attacked by the IV Corps of Marshal Soult. With the Allied center demolished, the French swept through both enemy flanks and sent the Allies fleeing chaotically, capturing thousands of prisoners in the process. The battle is often seen as a tactical masterpiece because of the near-perfect execution of a calibrated but dangerous plan — of the same stature as Cannae, the celebrated triumph by Hannibal some 2000 years before.
The Allied defeat at what location caused Emperor Francis to doubt the chances of the war effort?
572695e8dd62a815002e8a62
Austerlitz
23
False
What was the name of the treaty signed by France and Austria on 26 December?
572695e8dd62a815002e8a63
the Treaty of Pressburg
172
False
On what date was the Treaty of Pressburg signed?
572695e8dd62a815002e8a64
26 December
222
False
The Treaty of Pressburg resulted in which country leaving the war?
572695e8dd62a815002e8a65
Austria
250
False
How much did the Habsburgs have to pay as a result of the Treaty of Pressburg?
572695e8dd62a815002e8a66
40 million francs
554
False
The Allied disaster at Austerlitz significantly shook the faith of Emperor Francis in the British-led war effort. France and Austria agreed to an armistice immediately and the Treaty of Pressburg followed shortly after on 26 December. Pressburg took Austria out of both the war and the Coalition while reinforcing the earlier treaties of Campo Formio and of Lunéville between the two powers. The treaty confirmed the Austrian loss of lands to France in Italy and Bavaria, and lands in Germany to Napoleon's German allies. It also imposed an indemnity of 40 million francs on the defeated Habsburgs and allowed the fleeing Russian troops free passage through hostile territories and back to their home soil. Napoleon went on to say, "The battle of Austerlitz is the finest of all I have fought." Frank McLynn suggests that Napoleon was so successful at Austerlitz that he lost touch with reality, and what used to be French foreign policy became a "personal Napoleonic one". Vincent Cronin disagrees, stating that Napoleon was not overly ambitious for himself, "he embodied the ambitions of thirty million Frenchmen".
Napoleon's master plan was to establish a French presence in what part of the world?
572697b35951b619008f7775
the Middle East
81
False
In 1806, what Ottoman ruler recognized Napoleon as Emperor?
572697b35951b619008f7776
Selim III
233
False
In what year did Ottoman Emperor Selim III recognize Napoleon as Emperor?
572697b35951b619008f7777
1806
211
False
Napoleon formed an alliance with the empire of which Persian ruler?
572697b35951b619008f7778
Fat′h-Ali Shah Qajar
545
False
In what year did Napoleon's Franco-Persian alliance end?
572697b35951b619008f7779
1807
583
False
Napoleon continued to entertain a grand scheme to establish a French presence in the Middle East in order to put pressure on Britain and Russia, and perhaps form an alliance with the Ottoman Empire. In February 1806, Ottoman Emperor Selim III finally recognized Napoleon as Emperor. He also opted for an alliance with France, calling France "our sincere and natural ally." That decision brought the Ottoman Empire into a losing war against Russia and Britain. A Franco-Persian alliance was also formed between Napoleon and the Persian Empire of Fat′h-Ali Shah Qajar. It collapsed in 1807, when France and Russia themselves formed an unexpected alliance. In the end, Napoleon had made no effective alliances in the Middle East.
What is the name of the political body composed of German states established by Napoleon in 1806?
57269a18dd62a815002e8ac6
the Confederation of the Rhine
39
False
When was the Confederation of the Rhine formed?
57269a18dd62a815002e8ac7
1806
73
False
The existence of the Confederation of the Rhine brought about the end of which imperial power?
57269a18dd62a815002e8ac8
the Holy Roman Empire
232
False
Which Prussian ruler chose to go to war with France for control of Central Europe?
57269a18dd62a815002e8ac9
Frederick William III
571
False
What other royal figure strongly influenced Frederick William III's decision to go to war with France?
57269a18dd62a815002e8aca
Queen Louise
557
False
After Austerlitz, Napoleon established the Confederation of the Rhine in 1806. A collection of German states intended to serve as a buffer zone between France and Central Europe, the creation of the Confederation spelled the end of the Holy Roman Empire and significantly alarmed the Prussians. The brazen reorganization of German territory by the French risked threatening Prussian influence in the region, if not eliminating it outright. War fever in Berlin rose steadily throughout the summer of 1806. At the insistence of his court, especially his wife Queen Louise, Frederick William III decided to challenge the French domination of Central Europe by going to war.
How many troops did Napoleon use for the invasion of Prussia?
57269bdadd62a815002e8afe
180,000
519
False
What river did the French cross to engage the Prussian army?
57269bdadd62a815002e8aff
the Saale
830
False
To whom did Napoleon send a letter detailing his plans for the campaign with Prussia?
57269bdadd62a815002e8b00
Marshal Soult
79
False
On what date were the battles of Jena and Auerstedt fought?
57269bdadd62a815002e8b01
14 October
918
False
How many Prussian soldiers were captured at the battles of Jena and Auerstedt?
57269bdadd62a815002e8b02
140,000
1310
False
The initial military maneuvers began in September 1806. In a notable letter to Marshal Soult detailing the plan for the campaign, Napoleon described the essential features of Napoleonic warfare and introduced the phrase le bataillon-carré ('square battalion'). In the bataillon-carré system, the various corps of the Grande Armée would march uniformly together in close supporting distance. If any single corps was attacked, the others could quickly spring into action and arrive to help. Napoleon invaded Prussia with 180,000 troops, rapidly marching on the right bank of the River Saale. As in previous campaigns, his fundamental objective was to destroy one opponent before reinforcements from another could tip the balance of the war. Upon learning the whereabouts of the Prussian army, the French swung westwards and crossed the Saale with overwhelming force. At the twin battles of Jena and Auerstedt, fought on 14 October, the French convincingly defeated the Prussians and inflicted heavy casualties. With several major commanders dead or incapacitated, the Prussian king proved incapable of effectively commanding the army, which began to quickly disintegrate. In a vaunted pursuit that epitomized the "peak of Napoleonic warfare," according to historian Richard Brooks, the French managed to capture 140,000 soldiers, over 2,000 cannons and hundreds of ammunition wagons, all in a single month. Historian David Chandler wrote of the Prussian forces: "Never has the morale of any army been more completely shattered." Despite their overwhelming defeat, the Prussians refused to negotiate with the French until the Russians had an opportunity to enter the fight.
In what 1806 proclamation did Napoleon begin to impose the Continental System?
57269cdaf1498d1400e8e4de
the Berlin Decree
93
False
What was the system Napoleon imposed though the Berlin Decree?
57269cdaf1498d1400e8e4df
The Continental System
136
False
When was the Berlin Decree issued?
57269cdaf1498d1400e8e4e0
November 1806
121
False
In what year was the Battle of Eylau?
57269cdaf1498d1400e8e4e1
1807
432
False
In what 14 June conflict did Napoleon win a decisive victory over the Russians?
57269cdaf1498d1400e8e4e2
the Battle of Friedland
674
False
Following his triumph, Napoleon imposed the first elements of the Continental System through the Berlin Decree issued in November 1806. The Continental System, which prohibited European nations from trading with Britain, was widely violated throughout his reign. In the next few months, Napoleon marched against the advancing Russian armies through Poland and was involved in the bloody stalemate at the Battle of Eylau in February 1807. After a period of rest and consolidation on both sides, the war restarted in June with an initial struggle at Heilsberg that proved indecisive. On 14 June, however, Napoleon finally obtained an overwhelming victory over the Russians at the Battle of Friedland, wiping out the majority of the Russian army in a very bloody struggle. The scale of their defeat convinced the Russians to make peace with the French. On 19 June, Czar Alexander sent an envoy to seek an armistice with Napoleon. The latter assured the envoy that the Vistula River represented the natural borders between French and Russian influence in Europe. On that basis, the two emperors began peace negotiations at the town of Tilsit after meeting on an iconic raft on the River Niemen. The very first thing Alexander said to Napoleon was probably well-calibrated: "I hate the English as much as you do."
What is the name of the Duke who pressured Alexander to make peace with Napoleon?
57269e6b708984140094cbe1
Constantine
48
False
Which ocean territories did Napoleon demand Russia cede to France as part of the terms for peace?
57269e6b708984140094cbe2
the Ionian Islands
309
False
What was the name of the new kingdom Napoleon created from Prussian territories?
57269e6b708984140094cbe3
Westphalia
572
False
What was the name of the younger brother who Napoleon appointed as the ruler of Westphalia?
57269e6b708984140094cbe4
Jérôme
620
False
What was the name of the series of agreements that ended war for a time and allowed Napoleon to return to France?
57269e6b708984140094cbe5
the Treaties of Tilsit
1036
False
Alexander faced pressure from his brother, Duke Constantine, to make peace with Napoleon. Given the victory he had just achieved, the French emperor offered the Russians relatively lenient terms–demanding that Russia join the Continental System, withdraw its forces from Wallachia and Moldavia, and hand over the Ionian Islands to France. By contrast, Napoleon dictated very harsh peace terms for Prussia, despite the ceaseless exhortations of Queen Louise. Wiping out half of Prussian territories from the map, Napoleon created a new kingdom of 1,100 square miles called Westphalia. He then appointed his young brother Jérôme as the new monarch of this kingdom. Prussia's humiliating treatment at Tilsit caused a deep and bitter antagonism which festered as the Napoleonic era progressed. Moreover, Alexander's pretensions at friendship with Napoleon led the latter to seriously misjudge the true intentions of his Russian counterpart, who would violate numerous provisions of the treaty in the next few years. Despite these problems, the Treaties of Tilsit at last gave Napoleon a respite from war and allowed him to return to France, which he had not seen in over 300 days.
Where did the agreements that gave Napoleon time to structure his empire take place?
57269fa7708984140094cc09
Tilsit
19
False
One of Napoleon's primary goals was to enforce the Continental System against whom?
57269fa7708984140094cc0a
the British
145
False
Napoleon chose to focus his attention on which country that flouted his trade restrictions?
57269fa7708984140094cc0b
the Kingdom of Portugal
195
False
In what year did Portugal experience defeat in the War of the Oranges?
57269fa7708984140094cc0c
1801
314
False
After the Franco-Spanish loss at Trafalgar, John VI resumed relations with what nation?
57269fa7708984140094cc0d
Britain
579
False
The settlements at Tilsit gave Napoleon time to organize his empire. One of his major objectives became enforcing the Continental System against the British. He decided to focus his attention on the Kingdom of Portugal, which consistently violated his trade prohibitions. After defeat in the War of the Oranges in 1801, Portugal adopted a double-sided policy. At first, John VI agreed to close his ports to British trade. The situation changed dramatically after the Franco-Spanish defeat at Trafalgar; John grew bolder and officially resumed diplomatic and trade relations with Britain.
When did Napoleon's invasion of Portugal begin?
5726a0d85951b619008f782f
17 October 1807
110
False
How many troops did Napoleon send to begin the invasion of Portugal?
5726a0d85951b619008f7830
24,000
127
False
Who did Napoleon select to lead the troops sent to invade Portugal?
5726a0d85951b619008f7831
General Junot
154
False
The invasion of Portugal was the beginning of what six-year conflict?
5726a0d85951b619008f7832
the Peninsular War
335
False
How many troops did Marshal Murat lead into Spain?
5726a0d85951b619008f7833
120,000
794
False
Unhappy with this change of policy by the Portuguese government, Napoleon sent an army to invade Portugal. On 17 October 1807, 24,000 French troops under General Junot crossed the Pyrenees with Spanish cooperation and headed towards Portugal to enforce Napoleon's orders. This attack was the first step in what would eventually become the Peninsular War, a six-year struggle that significantly sapped French strength. Throughout the winter of 1808, French agents became increasingly involved in Spanish internal affairs, attempting to incite discord between members of the Spanish royal family. On 16 February 1808, secret French machinations finally materialized when Napoleon announced that he would intervene to mediate between the rival political factions in the country. Marshal Murat led 120,000 troops into Spain and the French arrived in Madrid on 24 March, where wild riots against the occupation erupted just a few weeks later. Napoleon appointed his brother, Joseph Bonaparte, as the new King of Spain in the summer of 1808. The appointment enraged a heavily religious and conservative Spanish population. Resistance to French aggression soon spread throughout the country. The shocking French defeat at the Battle of Bailén in July gave hope to Napoleon's enemies and partly persuaded the French emperor to intervene in person.
At which 1808 meeting did Napoleon attempt to keep the Russians on his side for future conflicts?
5726a23c708984140094cc6f
the Congress of Erfurt
99
False
In what year was the Congress of Erfurt held?
5726a23c708984140094cc70
1808
133
False
The Erfurt Convention insisted that Britain stop war against which nation?
5726a23c708984140094cc71
France
379
False
The Erfurt Convention recognized the Russian takeover of which formerly Swedish possession?
5726a23c708984140094cc72
Finland
427
False
When was the Battle of Corunna fought?
5726a23c708984140094cc73
January 1809
1119
False
Before going to Iberia, Napoleon decided to address several lingering issues with the Russians. At the Congress of Erfurt in October 1808, Napoleon hoped to keep Russia on his side during the upcoming struggle in Spain and during any potential conflict against Austria. The two sides reached an agreement, the Erfurt Convention, that called upon Britain to cease its war against France, that recognized the Russian conquest of Finland from Sweden, and that affirmed Russian support for France in a possible war against Austria "to the best of its ability." Napoleon then returned to France and prepared for war. The Grande Armée, under the Emperor's personal command, rapidly crossed the Ebro River in November 1808 and inflicted a series of crushing defeats against the Spanish forces. After clearing the last Spanish force guarding the capital at Somosierra, Napoleon entered Madrid on 4 December with 80,000 troops. He then unleashed his soldiers against Moore and the British forces. The British were swiftly driven to the coast, and they withdrew from Spain entirely after a last stand at the Battle of Corunna in January 1809.
Napoleon left Iberia for Central Europe to deal with whom?
5726a39d5951b619008f7899
the Austrians
59
False
Approximately how many French troops were kept in Iberia during the Peninsular War?
5726a39d5951b619008f789a
300,000
852
False
During the Peninsular War, in what country did guerrilla warfare frequently occur?
5726a39d5951b619008f789b
Spain
685
False
By what year did the Allies force the French out of the Iberian peninsula?
5726a39d5951b619008f789c
1814
1335
False
In what year did the invasion of Russia take place?
5726a39d5951b619008f789d
1812
1193
False
Napoleon would end up leaving Iberia in order to deal with the Austrians in Central Europe, but the Peninsular War continued on long after his absence. He never returned to Spain after the 1808 campaign. Several months after Corunna, the British sent another army to the peninsula under the future Duke of Wellington. The war then settled into a complex and asymmetric strategic deadlock where all sides struggled to gain the upper hand. The highlight of the conflict became the brutal guerrilla warfare that engulfed much of the Spanish countryside. Both sides committed the worst atrocities of the Napoleonic Wars during this phase of the conflict. The vicious guerrilla fighting in Spain, largely absent from the French campaigns in Central Europe, severely disrupted the French lines of supply and communication. Although France maintained roughly 300,000 troops in Iberia during the Peninsular War, the vast majority were tied down to garrison duty and to intelligence operations. The French were never able to concentrate all of their forces effectively, prolonging the war until events elsewhere in Europe finally turned the tide in favor of the Allies. After the invasion of Russia in 1812, the number of French troops in Spain vastly declined as Napoleon needed reinforcements to conserve his strategic position in Europe. By 1814, after scores of battles and sieges throughout Iberia, the Allies had managed to push the French out of the peninsula.
Who was the Prussian ruler who at first  claimed he would help Austria in its battle with France, but later refused to?
5726a5335951b619008f78d5
Frederick William
231
False
The finance minister of Austria predicted that if the country kept its large army mobilized, the national treasury would be bankrupt by the middle of what year?
5726a5335951b619008f78d6
1809
449
False
Which Archduke warned that Austria wasn't prepared for an additional conflict with Napoleon?
5726a5335951b619008f78d7
Charles
566
False
On what date did the Austrian government secretly decide on going to war with France?
5726a5335951b619008f78d8
8 February 1809
763
False
After four years on the sidelines, Austria sought another war with France to avenge its recent defeats. Austria could not count on Russian support because the latter was at war with Britain, Sweden, and the Ottoman Empire in 1809. Frederick William of Prussia initially promised to help the Austrians, but reneged before conflict began. A report from the Austrian finance minister suggested that the treasury would run out of money by the middle of 1809 if the large army that the Austrians had formed since the Third Coalition remained mobilized. Although Archduke Charles warned that the Austrians were not ready for another showdown with Napoleon, a stance that landed him in the so-called "peace party," he did not want to see the army demobilized either. On 8 February 1809, the advocates for war finally succeeded when the Imperial Government secretly decided on another confrontation against the French.
On what date did the Austrian army first cross the Inn River?
5726a6bedd62a815002e8c00
10 April
24
False
Where was Napoleon when he received news of an Austrian invasion?
5726a6bedd62a815002e8c01
Paris
193
False
When Napoleon reached Donauwörth, how much distance were the wings of the Grande Armée separated by?
5726a6bedd62a815002e8c02
75 miles (121 km)
352
False
What was the name of the plan Napoleon devised to cut off the Austrians during battle?
5726a6bedd62a815002e8c03
Landshut Maneuver
621
False
What was the name of the conflict where the French defeated Austrian forces and forced them to withdraw to Bohemia?
5726a6bedd62a815002e8c04
Battle of Eckmühl
780
False
In the early morning of 10 April, leading elements of the Austrian army crossed the Inn River and invaded Bavaria. The early Austrian attack surprised the French; Napoleon himself was still in Paris when he heard about the invasion. He arrived at Donauwörth on the 17th to find the Grande Armée in a dangerous position, with its two wings separated by 75 miles (121 km) and joined together by a thin cordon of Bavarian troops. Charles pressed the left wing of the French army and hurled his men towards the III Corps of Marshal Davout. In response, Napoleon came up with a plan to cut off the Austrians in the celebrated Landshut Maneuver. He realigned the axis of his army and marched his soldiers towards the town of Eckmühl. The French scored a convincing win in the resulting Battle of Eckmühl, forcing Charles to withdraw his forces over the Danube and into Bohemia. On 13 May, Vienna fell for the second time in four years, although the war continued since most of the Austrian army had survived the initial engagements in Southern Germany.
On what date did the main Austrian army arrive at the Marchfield?
5726a94b708984140094cd2b
17 May
3
False
Who led the main Austrian army?
5726a94b708984140094cd2c
Charles
40
False
On what date did French forces make their first significant attempt to cross the Danube?
5726a94b708984140094cd2d
21 May
233
False
How many soldiers did Charles initially lead against the French at the Battle of Aspern-Essling?
5726a94b708984140094cd2e
110,000
482
False
Around how many casualties did the French experience at the Battle of Aspern-Essling?
5726a94b708984140094cd2f
23,000
1002
False
By 17 May, the main Austrian army under Charles had arrived on the Marchfeld. Charles kept the bulk of his troops several miles away from the river bank in hopes of concentrating them at the point where Napoleon decided to cross. On 21 May, the French made their first major effort to cross the Danube, precipitating the Battle of Aspern-Essling. The Austrians enjoyed a comfortable numerical superiority over the French throughout the battle; on the first day, Charles disposed of 110,000 soldiers against only 31,000 commanded by Napoleon. By the second day, reinforcements had boosted French numbers up to 70,000. The battle was characterized by a vicious back-and-forth struggle for the two villages of Aspern and Essling, the focal points of the French bridgehead. By the end of the fighting, the French had lost Aspern but still controlled Essling. A sustained Austrian artillery bombardment eventually convinced Napoleon to withdraw his forces back onto Lobau Island. Both sides inflicted about 23,000 casualties on each other. It was the first defeat Napoleon suffered in a major set-piece battle, and it caused excitement throughout many parts of Europe because it proved that he could be beaten on the battlefield.
Approximately how long did Napoleon take to prepare another Danube crossing after his defeat at Aspern-Essling?
5726ab93dd62a815002e8c70
six weeks
61
False
On what date did the French begin the re-crossing of the Danube?
5726ab93dd62a815002e8c71
30 June
175
False
Approximately how many French troops met Charles at the Battle of Wagram?
5726ab93dd62a815002e8c72
180,000
270
False
How many Austrian troops did Charles lead at the Battle of Wagram?
5726ab93dd62a815002e8c73
150,000
371
False
How long did the Battle of Wagram last?
5726ab93dd62a815002e8c74
two days
446
False
After the setback at Aspern-Essling, Napoleon took more than six weeks in planning and preparing for contingencies before he made another attempt at crossing the Danube. From 30 June to the early days of July, the French recrossed the Danube in strength, with more than 180,000 troops marching across the Marchfeld towards the Austrians. Charles received the French with 150,000 of his own men. In the ensuing Battle of Wagram, which also lasted two days, Napoleon commanded his forces in what was the largest battle of his career up until then. Neither side made much progress on 5 July, but the 6th produced a definitive outcome. Both sides launched major assaults on their flanks. Austrian attacks against the French left wing looked dangerous initially, but they were all beaten back. Meanwhile, a steady French attack against the Austrian left wing eventually compromised the entire position for Charles. Napoleon finished off the battle with a concentrated central thrust that punctured a hole in the Austrian army and forced Charles to retreat. Austrian losses were very heavy, reaching well over 40,000 casualties. The French were too exhausted to pursue the Austrians immediately, but Napoleon eventually caught up with Charles at Znaim and the latter signed an armistice on 12 July.
What was the name of the campaign by the British in Holland that created a second front in the war?
5726acfa5951b619008f79c7
the Walcheren Campaign
48
False
The Walcheren Campaign was intended to relieve the military pressure on whom?
5726acfa5951b619008f79c8
the Austrians
139
False
On what date did the British army arrive on Walcheren?
5726acfa5951b619008f79c9
30 July
199
False
What was the popular name of the disease that caused many casualties during the Walcheren Campaign?
5726acfa5951b619008f79ca
"Walcheren Fever."
376
False
When did the British withdraw from Walcheren?
5726acfa5951b619008f79cb
December 1809
478
False
In the Kingdom of Holland, the British launched the Walcheren Campaign to open up a second front in the war and to relieve the pressure on the Austrians. The British army only landed at Walcheren on 30 July, by which point the Austrians had already been defeated. The Walcheren Campaign was characterized by little fighting but heavy casualties thanks to the popularly dubbed "Walcheren Fever." Over 4000 British troops were lost in a bungled campaign, and the rest withdrew in December 1809. The main strategic result from the campaign became the delayed political settlement between the French and the Austrians. Emperor Francis wanted to wait and see how the British performed in their theater before entering into negotiations with Napoleon. Once it became apparent that the British were going nowhere, the Austrians agreed to peace talks.
When was the Treaty of Schönbrunn signed?
5726ae81708984140094cdbd
October 1809
38
False
The goal of Metternich and Archduke Charles regarding the Treaty of Schönbrunn was to attempt the preservation of what?
5726ae81708984140094cdbe
the Habsburg Empire
177
False
In the Treaty of Schönbrunn, what territory was given to the Poles?
5726ae81708984140094cdbf
Galicia
513
False
In the Treaty of Schönbrunn, who received the Salzburg area of the Tyrol?
5726ae81708984140094cdc0
the Bavarians
587
False
Approximately how many subjects did Austria lose as the result of the changes brought about by the Treaty of Schönbrunn?
5726ae81708984140094cdc1
three million
620
False
The resulting Treaty of Schönbrunn in October 1809 was the harshest that France had imposed on Austria in recent memory. Metternich and Archduke Charles had the preservation of the Habsburg Empire as their fundamental goal, and to this end they succeeded by making Napoleon seek more modest goals in return for promises of friendship between the two powers. Nevertheless, while most of the hereditary lands remained a part of the Habsburg realm, France received Carinthia, Carniola, and the Adriatic ports, while Galicia was given to the Poles and the Salzburg area of the Tyrol went to the Bavarians. Austria lost over three million subjects, about one-fifth of her total population, as a result of these territorial changes. Although fighting in Iberia continued, the War of the Fifth Coalition would be the last major conflict on the European continent for the next three years.
After the war, what did Napoleon focus on?
5726b0ca708984140094cdf3
domestic affairs
29
False
When did Napoleon divorce Josephine?
5726b0ca708984140094cdf4
January 1810
266
False
After his divorce from Josephine, who did Napoleon marry?
5726b0ca708984140094cdf5
Archduchess Marie Louise
415
False
How old was Archduchess Marie Louise when she married Napoleon?
5726b0ca708984140094cdf6
18
449
False
When did Marie Louise give birth?
5726b0ca708984140094cdf7
20 March 1811
478
False
Napoleon turned his focus to domestic affairs after the war. Empress Joséphine had still not given birth to a child from Napoleon, who became worried about the future of his empire following his death. Desperate for a legitimate heir, Napoleon divorced Joséphine in January 1810 and started looking for a new wife. Hoping to cement the recent alliance with Austria through a family connection, Napoleon married the Archduchess Marie Louise, who was 18 years old at the time. On 20 March 1811, Marie Louise gave birth to a baby boy, whom Napoleon made heir apparent and bestowed the title of King of Rome. His son never actually ruled the empire, but historians still refer to him as Napoleon II.
What meeting did Napoleon and Czar Alexander participate in in 1808?
5726b2c1f1498d1400e8e7da
the Congress of Erfurt
44
False
In what year did the Congress of Erfurt take place?
5726b2c1f1498d1400e8e7db
1808
3
False
Where did Napoleon and Czar Alexander first meet?
5726b2c1f1498d1400e8e7dc
Tilsit
184
False
In what year did Napoleon and Czar Alexander first meet?
5726b2c1f1498d1400e8e7dd
1807
194
False
Violations of what Napoleonic policy by Russia led to tensions between Russia and France?
5726b2c1f1498d1400e8e7de
the Continental System
419
False
In 1808, Napoleon and Czar Alexander met at the Congress of Erfurt to preserve the Russo-French alliance. The leaders had a friendly personal relationship after their first meeting at Tilsit in 1807. By 1811, however, tensions had increased and Alexander was under pressure from the Russian nobility to break off the alliance. A major strain on the relationship between the two nations became the regular violations of the Continental System by the Russians, which led Napoleon to threaten Alexander with serious consequences if he formed an alliance with Britain.
What did Napoleon name the war with Russia in an effort to garner support from Poland?
5726b4e0f1498d1400e8e832
the Second Polish War
103
False
What was the name of the 1768 war that involved the Bar Confederation uprising against Russia?
5726b4e0f1498d1400e8e833
the First Polish War
125
False
Polish nationalists wanted Russian territories in Poland to be joined with which national entity?
5726b4e0f1498d1400e8e834
the Duchy of Warsaw
295
False
Napoleon rejected Polish demands for an independent state because of prior promises to which ally?
5726b4e0f1498d1400e8e835
Austria
417
False
During France's retreat, atrocities were committed against French soldiers by which Russian subjects?
5726b4e0f1498d1400e8e836
serfs
568
False
In an attempt to gain increased support from Polish nationalists and patriots, Napoleon termed the war the Second Polish War—the First Polish War had been the Bar Confederation uprising by Polish nobles against Russia in 1768. Polish patriots wanted the Russian part of Poland to be joined with the Duchy of Warsaw and an independent Poland created. This was rejected by Napoleon, who stated he had promised his ally Austria this would not happen. Napoleon refused to manumit the Russian serfs because of concerns this might provoke a reaction in his army's rear. The serfs later committed atrocities against French soldiers during France's retreat.
To avoid direct fighting with Napoleon, the Russians retreated into which country?
5726b6b4f1498d1400e8e884
Russia
101
False
Where did the Russians try to resist Napoleon and get defeated?
5726b6b4f1498d1400e8e885
Smolensk
151
False
In what month were the Russians defeated at Smolensk?
5726b6b4f1498d1400e8e886
August
163
False
What methods used by the Russian army made it hard for the French to find food?
5726b6b4f1498d1400e8e887
scorched earth tactics
452
False
The Russians avoided Napoleon's objective of a decisive engagement and instead retreated deeper into Russia. A brief attempt at resistance was made at Smolensk in August; the Russians were defeated in a series of battles, and Napoleon resumed his advance. The Russians again avoided battle, although in a few cases this was only achieved because Napoleon uncharacteristically hesitated to attack when the opportunity arose. Owing to the Russian army's scorched earth tactics, the French found it increasingly difficult to forage food for themselves and their horses.
Outside what city did the Battle of Borodino occur?
5726b7c9dd62a815002e8df2
Moscow
47
False
On what date did the Battle of Borodino take place?
5726b7c9dd62a815002e8df3
7 September
57
False
Approximately how many Russians were hurt, killed, or captured in the Battle of Borodino?
5726b7c9dd62a815002e8df4
44,000
119
False
Around how many French were killed, injured, or taken prisoner in the Battle of Borodino?
5726b7c9dd62a815002e8df5
35,000
138
False
Who won the Battle of Borodino?
5726b7c9dd62a815002e8df6
the French
271
False
The Russians eventually offered battle outside Moscow on 7 September: the Battle of Borodino resulted in approximately 44,000 Russian and 35,000 French dead, wounded or captured, and may have been the bloodiest day of battle in history up to that point in time. Although the French had won, the Russian army had accepted, and withstood, the major battle Napoleon had hoped would be decisive. Napoleon's own account was: "The most terrible of all my battles was the one before Moscow. The French showed themselves to be worthy of victory, but the Russians showed themselves worthy of being invincible."
When Napoleon entered Moscow, he expected an offer of peace from whom?
5726b9575951b619008f7bd3
Alexander
120
False
What was the name of the governor who ordered the burning of Moscow?
5726b9575951b619008f7bd4
Feodor Rostopchin
195
False
How long did Napoleon stay in Moscow before leaving?
5726b9575951b619008f7bd5
five weeks
265
False
What 1812 event turned Napoleon's attention back to France?
5726b9575951b619008f7bd6
the Malet coup
389
False
Approximately how many French men and horses froze to death on the night of 8/9 November?
5726b9575951b619008f7bd7
10,000
471
False
The Russian army withdrew and retreated past Moscow. Napoleon entered the city, assuming its fall would end the war and Alexander would negotiate peace. However, on orders of the city's governor Feodor Rostopchin, rather than capitulation, Moscow was burned. After five weeks, Napoleon and his army left. In early November Napoleon got concerned about loss of control back in France after the Malet coup of 1812. His army walked through snow up to their knees and nearly 10,000 men and horses froze to death on the night of 8/9 November alone. After Battle of Berezina Napoleon succeeded to escape but had to abandon much of the remaining artillery and baggage train. On 5 December, shortly before arriving in Vilnius, Napoleon left the army in a sledge.
The Allies suggested peace terms in which set of proposals?
5726bb775951b619008f7c45
the Frankfurt proposals
34
False
When were the Frankfurt proposals made?
5726bb775951b619008f7c46
November 1813
61
False
The Frankfurt proposals allowed Napoleon to retain what position in France?
5726bb775951b619008f7c47
Emperor
101
False
The Frankfurt proposals sought to reduce France to what?
5726bb775951b619008f7c48
its "natural frontiers."
147
False
Who told Napoleon that the Frankfurt proposals were probably the best terms the Allies would offer?
5726bb775951b619008f7c49
Metternich
404
False
The Allies offered peace terms in the Frankfurt proposals in November 1813. Napoleon would remain as Emperor of France, but it would be reduced to its "natural frontiers." That meant that France could retain control of Belgium, Savoy and the Rhineland (the west bank of the Rhine River), while giving up control of all the rest, including all of Spain and the Netherlands, and most of Italy and Germany. Metternich told Napoleon these were the best terms the Allies were likely to offer; after further victories, the terms would be harsher and harsher. Metternich's motivation was to maintain France as a balance against Russian threats, while ending the highly destabilizing series of wars.
The Allies took back their offer to Napoleon in what month?
5726bcacf1498d1400e8e992
December
83
False
In what year did Napoleon attempt to resume peace talks?
5726bcacf1498d1400e8e993
1814
161
False
Which peace initiative did Napoleon refer to when he attempted to make peace in 1814?
5726bcacf1498d1400e8e994
the Frankfurt proposals
230
False
The new Allied demands for peace insisted France return to its boundaries of what year?
5726bcacf1498d1400e8e995
1791
336
False
In the new Allied peace proposal, what territory would France have been forced to surrender?
5726bcacf1498d1400e8e996
Belgium
377
False
Napoleon, expecting to win the war, delayed too long and lost this opportunity; by December the Allies had withdrawn the offer. When his back was to the wall in 1814 he tried to reopen peace negotiations on the basis of accepting the Frankfurt proposals. The Allies now had new, harsher terms that included the retreat of France to its 1791 boundaries, which meant the loss of Belgium. Napoleon would remain Emperor, however he rejected the term. The British wanted Napoleon permanently removed; they prevailed. Napoleon adamantly refused.
On what date did Alexander speak to the Sénat conservateur?
5726be2b708984140094d007
1 April
3
False
The Sénat conservateur became hostile to Napoleon due to whose efforts?
5726be2b708984140094d008
Talleyrand's
87
False
What was the act passed by the Sénat conservateur that deposed Napoleon?
5726be2b708984140094d009
the Acte de déchéance de l'Empereur
343
False
Where had Napoleon advanced to when he received word that Paris was lost?
5726be2b708984140094d00a
Fontainebleau
470
False
What did Napoleon's senior officers and marshals do when he suggested they march on Paris?
5726be2b708984140094d00b
mutinied
608
False
On 1 April, Alexander addressed the Sénat conservateur. Long docile to Napoleon, under Talleyrand's prodding it had turned against him. Alexander told the Sénat that the Allies were fighting against Napoleon, not France, and they were prepared to offer honorable peace terms if Napoleon were removed from power. The next day, the Sénat passed the Acte de déchéance de l'Empereur ("Emperor's Demise Act"), which declared Napoleon deposed. Napoleon had advanced as far as Fontainebleau when he learned that Paris was lost. When Napoleon proposed the army march on the capital, his senior officers and marshals mutinied. On 4 April, led by Ney, they confronted Napoleon. Napoleon asserted the army would follow him, and Ney replied the army would follow its generals. While the ordinary soldiers and regimental officers wanted to fight on, without any senior officers or marshals any prospective invasion of Paris would have been impossible. Bowing to the inevitable, on 4 April Napoleon abdicated in favour of his son, with Marie-Louise as regent. However, the Allies refused to accept this under prodding from Alexander, who feared that Napoleon might find an excuse to retake the throne. Napoleon was then forced to announce his unconditional abdication only two days later.
In which treaty was Napoleon exiled?
5726bf80f1498d1400e8ea18
the Treaty of Fontainebleau
3
False
What is the name of the island Napoleon was exiled to?
5726bf80f1498d1400e8ea19
Elba
57
False
In what sea is Elba located?
5726bf80f1498d1400e8ea1a
the Mediterranean
98
False
The allies permitted Napoleon to keep what title?
5726bf80f1498d1400e8ea1b
Emperor
234
False
When Napoleon was exiled, where did his wife and son go for shelter?
5726bf80f1498d1400e8ea1c
Austria
484
False
In the Treaty of Fontainebleau, the Allies exiled him to Elba, an island of 12,000 inhabitants in the Mediterranean, 20 km (12 mi) off the Tuscan coast. They gave him sovereignty over the island and allowed him to retain the title of Emperor. Napoleon attempted suicide with a pill he had carried after nearly being captured by the Russians during the retreat from Moscow. Its potency had weakened with age, however, and he survived to be exiled while his wife and son took refuge in Austria. In the first few months on Elba he created a small navy and army, developed the iron mines, and issued decrees on modern agricultural methods.
What military unit was charged with intercepting Napoleon?
5726c0d2f1498d1400e8ea3a
The 5th Regiment
0
False
On what date was Napoleon contacted by the 5th Regiment?
5726c0d2f1498d1400e8ea3b
March 7, 1815
86
False
When Napoleon suggested to the 5th Regiment that they kill him, how did they respond?
5726c0d2f1498d1400e8ea3c
"Vive L'Empereur!"
308
False
Ney had told Louis XVIII that he would carry Napoleon to Paris in what kind of container?
5726c0d2f1498d1400e8ea3d
an iron cage
432
False
After fleeing France, where did Louis XVIII go?
5726c0d2f1498d1400e8ea3e
Belgium
644
False
The 5th Regiment was sent to intercept him and made contact just south of Grenoble on March 7, 1815. Napoleon approached the regiment alone, dismounted his horse and, when he was within gunshot range, shouted to the soldiers, "Here I am. Kill your Emperor, if you wish." The soldiers quickly responded with, "Vive L'Empereur!" Ney, who had boasted to the restored Bourbon king, Louis XVIII, that he would bring Napoleon to Paris in an iron cage, affectionately kissed his former emperor and forgot his oath of allegiance to the Bourbon monarch. The two then marched together towards Paris with a growing army. The unpopular Louis XVIII fled to Belgium after realizing he had little political support. On March 13, the powers at the Congress of Vienna declared Napoleon an outlaw. Four days later, Great Britain, Russia, Austria, and Prussia each pledged to put 150,000 men into the field to end his rule.
Where did Napoleon return and find that the populace and government had turned against him?
5726c242708984140094d0b5
Paris
21
False
On what date did Napoleon abdicate?
5726c242708984140094d0b6
22 June
156
False
How many days after his abdication did Napoleon leave Paris?
5726c242708984140094d0b7
three days
200
False
On what date did the Coalition forces arrive near Paris?
5726c242708984140094d0b8
29 June
487
False
When Napoleon left Paris, he went to the palace formerly belonging to whom?
5726c242708984140094d0b9
Josephine
232
False
Napoleon returned to Paris and found that both the legislature and the people had turned against him. Realizing his position was untenable, he abdicated on 22 June in favour of his son. He left Paris three days later and settled at Josephine's former palace in Malmaison (on the western bank of the Seine about 17 kilometres (11 mi) west of Paris). Even as Napoleon travelled to Paris, the Coalition forces crossed the frontier swept through France (arriving in the vicinity of Paris on 29 June), with the stated intent on restoring Louis XVIII to the French throne.
In what year did Louis Philippe I get permission to return Napoleon's remains to France?
5726c6b4f1498d1400e8eaf8
1840
3
False
On what date was a state funeral held for Napoleon?
5726c6b4f1498d1400e8eaf9
15 December 1840
106
False
At what location did the hearse carrying Napoleon's remains begin its procession?
5726c6b4f1498d1400e8eafa
the Arc de Triomphe
176
False
In what building was the cupola where Napoleon's remains were first placed located?
5726c6b4f1498d1400e8eafb
St Jérôme's Chapel
310
False
In what year was Napoleon's final tomb completed?
5726c6b4f1498d1400e8eafc
1861
408
False
In 1840, Louis Philippe I obtained permission from the British to return Napoleon's remains to France. On 15 December 1840, a state funeral was held. The hearse proceeded from the Arc de Triomphe down the Champs-Élysées, across the Place de la Concorde to the Esplanade des Invalides and then to the cupola in St Jérôme's Chapel, where it remained until the tomb designed by Louis Visconti was completed. In 1861, Napoleon's remains were entombed in a porphyry sarcophagus in the crypt under the dome at Les Invalides.
When were the diaries of Napoleon's valet published?
5726c96f708984140094d165
1955
3
False
What was the name of Napoleon's valet?
5726c96f708984140094d166
Louis Marchand
42
False
What was the possible cause for Napoleon's death suggested in a 1961 Nature paper?
5726c96f708984140094d167
arsenic poisoning
243
False
In 1961, who suggested the possibility that Napoleon died from ingestion of arsenic?
5726c96f708984140094d168
Sten Forshufvud
137
False
What condition was Napoleon's body in when it was moved in 1840?
5726c96f708984140094d169
well preserved
470
False
In 1955, the diaries of Napoleon's valet, Louis Marchand, were published. His description of Napoleon in the months before his death led Sten Forshufvud in a 1961 paper in Nature to put forward other causes for his death, including deliberate arsenic poisoning. Arsenic was used as a poison during the era because it was undetectable when administered over a long period. Forshufvud, in a 1978 book with Ben Weider, noted that Napoleon's body was found to be remarkably well preserved when moved in 1840. Arsenic is a strong preservative, and therefore this supported the poisoning hypothesis. Forshufvud and Weider observed that Napoleon had attempted to quench abnormal thirst by drinking large amounts of orgeat syrup that contained cyanide compounds in the almonds used for flavouring.
What substance used in Napoleon's treatment is it suggested prevented his stomach from expelling arsenic compounds?
5726d110708984140094d21d
potassium tartrate
25
False
What do those who think Napoleon was poisoned cite as a symptom that would suggest this?
5726d110708984140094d21e
his thirst
128
False
According to Patrick Knize, what conclusion does the type of arsenic found in Napoleon's hair shafts suggest?
5726d110708984140094d21f
that he was murdered
487
False
In what year was the article describing the type of arsenic found in Napoleon's hair published?
5726d110708984140094d220
2007
317
False
They maintained that the potassium tartrate used in his treatment prevented his stomach from expelling these compounds and that his thirst was a symptom of the poison. Their hypothesis was that the calomel given to Napoleon became an overdose, which killed him and left extensive tissue damage behind. According to a 2007 article, the type of arsenic found in Napoleon's hair shafts was mineral, the most toxic, and according to toxicologist Patrick Kintz, this supported the conclusion that he was murdered.
Studies published in 2007 and 2008 dismiss what possible cause of Napoleon's death?
5726d752dd62a815002e920e
arsenic poisoning
673
False
Studies published in 2007 and 2008 support what possible causes of Napoleon's death?
5726d752dd62a815002e920f
peptic ulcer and gastric cancer
718
False
A 2008 study supporting the original autopsy findings related to Napoleon's death analyzed samples of what substance taken from Napoleon and his family?
5726d752dd62a815002e9210
hair
141
False
The 2008 study related to Napoleon's death found that hair collected from Napoleon's hair as well as that of his family and contemporaries, had arsenic levels approximately how many times higher than current averages?
5726d752dd62a815002e9211
100 times
287
False
There have been modern studies that have supported the original autopsy finding. In a 2008 study, researchers analysed samples of Napoleon's hair from throughout his life, as well as samples from his family and other contemporaries. All samples had high levels of arsenic, approximately 100 times higher than the current average. According to these researchers, Napoleon's body was already heavily contaminated with arsenic as a boy, and the high arsenic concentration in his hair was not caused by intentional poisoning; people were constantly exposed to arsenic from glues and dyes throughout their lives.[note 7] Studies published in 2007 and 2008 dismissed evidence of arsenic poisoning, and confirmed evidence of peptic ulcer and gastric cancer as the cause of death.
What type of marriage did Napoleon have with Joséphine de Beauharnais?
5726d8f6708984140094d36f
civil
15
False
What did Napoleon display tolerance related to during his time in Egypt?
5726d8f6708984140094d370
religion
158
False
General Dupuy revealed the motives for Napoleon's religious tolerance after the death of which religious figure?
5726d8f6708984140094d371
Pope Pius VI
343
False
Who argued that Bonaparte's admiration for Muhammad was sincere?
5726d8f6708984140094d372
Juan Cole
1057
False
Napoleon's marriage to Joséphine de Beauharnais lacked what kind of ceremony?
5726d8f6708984140094d373
religious
69
False
Napoleon had a civil marriage with Joséphine de Beauharnais, without religious ceremony. During the campaign in Egypt, Napoleon showed much tolerance towards religion for a revolutionary general, holding discussions with Muslim scholars and ordering religious celebrations, but General Dupuy, who accompanied Napoleon, revealed, shortly after Pope Pius VI's death, the political reasons for such behaviour: "We are fooling Egyptians with our pretended interest for their religion; neither Bonaparte nor we believe in this religion more than we did in Pius the Defunct's one".[note 8] In his memoirs, Bonaparte's secretary Bourienne wrote about Napoleon's religious interests in the same vein. His religious opportunism is epitomized in his famous quote: "It is by making myself Catholic that I brought peace to Brittany and Vendée. It is by making myself Italian that I won minds in Italy. It is by making myself a Moslem that I established myself in Egypt. If I governed a nation of Jews, I should reestablish the Temple of Solomon." However, according to Juan Cole, "Bonaparte's admiration for the Prophet Muhammad, in contrast, was genuine" and during his captivity on St Helena he defended him against Voltaire's critical play Mahomet.
When was Napoleon crowned Emperor?
5726d9d5708984140094d37f
2 December 1804
43
False
Where was Napoleon crowned Emperor?
5726d9d5708984140094d380
Notre Dame de Paris
62
False
Who crowned Napoleon Emperor?
5726d9d5708984140094d381
Pope Pius VII
85
False
When did Napoleon marry Marie Louise?
5726d9d5708984140094d382
1 April 1810
103
False
What did Napoleon abolish in Spain in 1813, during his brother's rule there?
5726d9d5708984140094d383
the Spanish Inquisition
231
False
Napoleon was crowned Emperor Napoleon I on 2 December 1804 at Notre Dame de Paris by Pope Pius VII. On 1 April 1810, Napoleon religiously married the Austrian princess Marie Louise. During his brother's rule in Spain, he abolished the Spanish Inquisition in 1813. In a private discussion with general Gourgaud during his exile on Saint Helena, Napoleon expressed materialistic views on the origin of man,[note 9]and doubted the divinity of Jesus, stating that it is absurd to believe that Socrates, Plato, Muslims, and the Anglicans should be damned for not being Roman Catholics.[note 10] He also said to Gourgaud in 1817 "I like the Mohammedan religion best. It has fewer incredible things in it than ours." and that "the Mohammedan religion is the finest of all." However, Napoleon was anointed by a priest before his death.
What is the name of the 1801 document that aimed for reconcilliation between revolutionaries and Catholics?
5726db0d5951b619008f8011
the Concordat of 1801
71
False
Along with Napoleon, who signed the Concordat of 1801?
5726db0d5951b619008f8012
Pope Pius VII
141
False
The Concordat of 1801 strengthened the position of which church as the majority church of France?
5726db0d5951b619008f8013
the Roman Catholic Church
170
False
What is the exact date on which the Concordat of 1801 was signed?
5726db0d5951b619008f8014
15 July 1801
107
False
What were the Organic Articles a part of?
5726db0d5951b619008f8015
the Concordat
481
False
Seeking national reconciliation between revolutionaries and Catholics, the Concordat of 1801 was signed on 15 July 1801 between Napoleon and Pope Pius VII. It solidified the Roman Catholic Church as the majority church of France and brought back most of its civil status. The hostility of devout Catholics against the state had now largely been resolved. It did not restore the vast church lands and endowments that had been seized during the revolution and sold off. As a part of the Concordat, he presented another set of laws called the Organic Articles.
The Concodat restored significant power to what position?
5726dccf708984140094d405
the papacy
43
False
Despite the Concordat, the balance of the relationship between the church and state had swung in whose favor?
5726dccf708984140094d406
Napoleon's
114
False
Other than Napoleon, who else found the Concordat to be of use?
5726dccf708984140094d407
the pope
202
False
The children of France were given a catechism that taught them to love and respect whom?
5726dccf708984140094d408
Napoleon
665
False
In what year did Napoleon say that skilled rulers were able to both control and use priests?
5726dccf708984140094d409
1801
482
False
While the Concordat restored much power to the papacy, the balance of church-state relations had tilted firmly in Napoleon's favour. He selected the bishops and supervised church finances. Napoleon and the pope both found the Concordat useful. Similar arrangements were made with the Church in territories controlled by Napoleon, especially Italy and Germany. Now, Napoleon could win favor with the Catholics while also controlling Rome in a political sense. Napoleon said in April 1801, "Skillful conquerors have not got entangled with priests. They can both contain them and use them." French children were issued a catechism that taught them to love and respect Napoleon.
How tall was Napoleon, in feet and inches?
5726dea3f1498d1400e8ee16
5 ft 6 in
291
False
How tall was Napoleon in centimeters?
5726dea3f1498d1400e8ee17
168 cm
302
False
How do historians describe Napoleon in his use of France's financial, bureaucratic, and diplomatic systems?
5726dea3f1498d1400e8ee18
an innovator
553
False
What is the name of the historian who stresses Napoleon's "rare combination of will, intellect, and physical vigour?"
5726dea3f1498d1400e8ee19
George F. E. Rudé
198
False
How do historians describe Napoleon's impact on people in one-on-one encounters?
5726dea3f1498d1400e8ee1a
hypnotic
390
False
Historians agree that Napoleon's remarkable personality was one key to his influence. They emphasize the strength of his ambition that took him from an obscure village to command of most of Europe. George F. E. Rudé stresses his "rare combination of will, intellect and physical vigour." At 5 ft 6 in (168 cm), he was not physically imposing but in one-on-one situations he typically had a hypnotic impact on people and seemingly bent the strongest leaders to his will. He understood military technology, but was not an innovator in that regard. He was an innovator in using the financial, bureaucratic, and diplomatic resources of France. He could rapidly dictate a series of complex commands to his subordinates, keeping in mind where major units were expected to be at each future point, and like a chess master, "seeing" the best plays moves ahead.
According to critics, what was the reason Napoleon won many battles?
5726e0f7708984140094d487
luck
406
False
When did Napoleon win victories at Austerlitz and Jena?
5726e0f7708984140094d488
1805-06
599
False
In what year did the Russian campaign take place?
5726e0f7708984140094d489
1812
740
False
Who argues that Napoleon's triumphs at Austerlitz and Jena increased his self-grandiosity?
5726e0f7708984140094d48a
Dwyer
534
False
What did Napoleon do at cards, though he repaid losses?
5726e0f7708984140094d48b
cheated
91
False
Napoleon maintained strict, efficient work habits, prioritizing what needed to be done. He cheated at cards, but repaid the losses; he had to win at everything he attempted. He kept relays of staff and secretaries at work. Unlike many generals, Napoleon did not examine history to ask what Hannibal or Alexander or anyone else did in a similar situation. Critics said he won many battles simply because of luck; Napoleon responded, "Give me lucky generals," aware that "luck" comes to leaders who recognize opportunity, and seize it. Dwyer argues that Napoleon's victories at Austerlitz and Jena in 1805-06 heightened his sense of self-grandiosity, leaving him even more certain of his destiny and invincibility. By the Russian campaign in 1812, however, Napoleon seems to have lost his verve. With crisis after crisis at hand, he rarely rose to the occasion. Some historians have suggested a physical deterioration, but others note that an impaired Napoleon was still a brilliant general.
What did Napoleon reorganize to supply the personnel and money required to fight great wars?
5726e200708984140094d4a9
France
103
False
How many soldiers did Wellington believe Napoleon's presence on the field was worth?
5726e200708984140094d4aa
40,000
256
False
Who said that Napoleon's presence on the battlefield was worth 40,000 soldiers?
5726e200708984140094d4ab
Wellington
198
False
In what year did the Battle of Auerstadt take place?
5726e200708984140094d4ac
1806
391
False
Who led the Prussian forces that outnumbered Napoleon at the Battle of Auerstadt?
5726e200708984140094d4ad
King Frederick William III
397
False
In terms of impact on events, it was more than Napoleon's personality that took effect. He reorganized France itself to supply the men and money needed for great wars. Above all he inspired his men—Wellington said his presence on the battlefield was worth 40,000 soldiers, for he inspired confidence from privates to field marshals. He also unnerved the enemy. At the Battle of Auerstadt in 1806, King Frederick William III of Prussia outnumbered the French by 63,000 to 27,000; however, when he mistakenly was told that Napoleon was in command, he ordered a hasty retreat that turned into a rout. The force of his personality neutralized material difficulties as his soldiers fought with the confidence that with Napoleon in charge they would surely win.
Which foreign news service viewed Napoleon as a dangerous tyrant?
5726e3795951b619008f818b
the British press
53
False
What abbreviated term did the British often use to refer to Napoleon?
5726e3795951b619008f818c
Boney
155
False
Which segment of the British press often showed Napoleon as being much shorter than average?
5726e3795951b619008f818d
Tory
268
False
What height was Napoleon incorrectly listed as at his time of death?
5726e3795951b619008f818e
5 feet 2 inches
675
False
What was Napoleon's actual height, in feet and inches?
5726e3795951b619008f818f
5 ft 6 in
764
False
During the Napoleonic Wars he was taken seriously by the British press as a dangerous tyrant, poised to invade. He was often referred to by the British as Boney. A nursery rhyme warned children that Bonaparte ravenously ate naughty people; the "bogeyman". The British Tory press sometimes depicted Napoleon as much smaller than average height, and this image persists. Confusion about his height also results from the difference between the French pouce and British inch—2.71 cm and 2.54 cm, respectively. The myth of the "Napoleon Complex” — named after him to describe men who have an inferiority complex — stems primarily from the fact that he was listed, incorrectly, as 5 feet 2 inches (in French units) at the time of his death. In fact, he was 1.68 metres (5 ft 6 in) tall, an average height for a man in that period.[note 11]
After becoming First Consul, Napoleon typically wore the uniform of which rank, rather than general?
5726e4c8f1498d1400e8ef0a
colonel
124
False
What is the name of the regiment that frequently served as Napoleon's escort?
5726e4c8f1498d1400e8ef0b
the Chasseur à Cheval of the Imperial Guard
169
False
What color was the uniform that Napoleon usually wore on Sundays?
5726e4c8f1498d1400e8ef0c
blue
340
False
What color stockings did Napoleon usually wear?
5726e4c8f1498d1400e8ef0d
white
580
False
What color culottes did Napoleon typically wear?
5726e4c8f1498d1400e8ef0e
white
548
False
When he became First Consul and later Emperor, Napoleon eschewed his general's uniform and habitually wore the simple green colonel uniform (non-Hussar) of a colonel of the Chasseur à Cheval of the Imperial Guard, the regiment that often served as his personal escort, with a large bicorne. He also habitually wore (usually on Sundays) the blue uniform of a colonel of the Imperial Guard Foot Grenadiers (blue with white facings and red cuffs). He also wore his Légion d'honneur star, medal and ribbon, and the Order of the Iron Crown decorations, white French-style culottes and white stockings. This was in contrast to the gorgeous and complex uniforms with many decorations of his marshals and those around him.
What was the name of the first central bank in France, that Napoleon established?
5726e5cff1498d1400e8ef44
the Banque de France
117
False
What was the name of the agreement that Napoleon arrived at with the Catholic Church?
5726e5cff1498d1400e8ef45
the Concordat of 1801
195
False
What other document was presented along with the Concordat of 1801?
5726e5cff1498d1400e8ef46
the Organic Articles
342
False
What did the Organic Articles regulate in France?
5726e5cff1498d1400e8ef47
public worship
380
False
What is the name of the empire Napoleon dissolved that later led to unification in Germany?
5726e5cff1498d1400e8ef48
the Holy Roman Empire
425
False
Napoleon instituted lasting reforms, including higher education, a tax code, road and sewer systems, and established the Banque de France, the first central bank in French history. He negotiated the Concordat of 1801 with the Catholic Church, which sought to reconcile the mostly Catholic population to his regime. It was presented alongside the Organic Articles, which regulated public worship in France. His dissolution of the Holy Roman Empire paved the way to German Unification later in the 19th century. The sale of the Louisiana Territory to the United States doubled the size of the country and was a major event in American history.
What was the contemporary term for the set of civil laws created by Napoleon?
5726e7bff1498d1400e8ef7c
the Code Civil
30
False
What is the Code Civil frequently referred to as now?
5726e7bff1498d1400e8ef7d
the Napoleonic Code
64
False
What is the name of the person who supervised the preparation of the Code Civil?
5726e7bff1498d1400e8ef7e
Jean Jacques Régis de Cambacérès
153
False
What was a code published under Napoleon that enacted rules related to due process?
5726e7bff1498d1400e8ef7f
Code of Criminal Instruction
554
False
Napoleon's set of civil laws, the Code Civil—now often known as the Napoleonic Code—was prepared by committees of legal experts under the supervision of Jean Jacques Régis de Cambacérès, the Second Consul. Napoleon participated actively in the sessions of the Council of State that revised the drafts. The development of the code was a fundamental change in the nature of the civil law legal system with its stress on clearly written and accessible law. Other codes ("Les cinq codes") were commissioned by Napoleon to codify criminal and commerce law; a Code of Criminal Instruction was published, which enacted rules of due process.
Who learned from Napoleon's innovations?
5726e8e5dd62a815002e94be
His opponents
0
False
Napoleon's use of artillery led to its increased importance after what year?
5726e8e5dd62a815002e94bf
1807
95
False
What did Napoleon use as the initial means of breaking down enemy defenses, rather than the traditional reliance on infantry?
5726e8e5dd62a815002e94c0
artillery
359
False
Who rejects the theory that the increased use of artillery by the French was due to declining quality of infantry and numbers of cavalry?
5726e8e5dd62a815002e94c1
McConachy
481
False
His opponents learned from Napoleon's innovations. The increased importance of artillery after 1807 stemmed from his creation of a highly mobile artillery force, the growth in artillery numbers, and changes in artillery practices. As a result of these factors, Napoleon, rather than relying on infantry to wear away the enemy's defenses, now could use massed artillery as a spearhead to pound a break in the enemy's line that was then exploited by supporting infantry and cavalry. McConachy rejects the alternative theory that growing reliance on artillery by the French army beginning in 1807 was an outgrowth of the declining quality of the French infantry and, later, France's inferiority in cavalry numbers. Weapons and other kinds of military technology remained largely static through the Revolutionary and Napoleonic eras, but 18th-century operational mobility underwent significant change.
When was the metric system officially introduced?
5726ea11f1498d1400e8efba
September 1799
50
False
What system, introduced in September 1799, was unpopular among much of French society?
5726ea11f1498d1400e8efbb
the metric system
29
False
What year did Napoleon pass legislation that introduced traditional units of measurement for retail trade?
5726ea11f1498d1400e8efbc
1812
292
False
How many grams were in the livre metrique?
5726ea11f1498d1400e8efbd
500
569
False
How many grams were in the livre du roi?
5726ea11f1498d1400e8efbe
489.5
586
False
The official introduction of the metric system in September 1799 was unpopular in large sections of French society. Napoleon's rule greatly aided adoption of the new standard not only across France but also across the French sphere of influence. Napoleon ultimately took a retrograde step in 1812 when he passed legislation to introduce the mesures usuelles (traditional units of measurement) for retail trade—a system of measure that resembled the pre-revolutionary units but were based on the kilogram and the metre; for example the livre metrique (metric pound) was 500 g instead of 489.5 g—the value of the livre du roi (the king's pound). Other units of measure were rounded in a similar manner. This however laid the foundations for the definitive introduction of the metric system across Europe in the middle of the 19th century.
What acts by Napoleon laid the groundwork for modernized Education in France and much of Europe?
5726ebd5708984140094d605
Napoleon's educational reforms
0
False
What language did Napoleon make the only official one?
5726ebd5708984140094d606
French
320
False
What did Napoleon offer to secondary education?
5726ebd5708984140094d607
public support
435
False
What is the name for the state secondary schools begun by Napoleon that were intended to standardize education across France?
5726ebd5708984140094d608
lycées
528
False
Along with modern and classical languages, what were all students in the lycées taught?
5726ebd5708984140094d609
the sciences
638
False
Napoleon's educational reforms laid the foundation of a modern system of education in France and throughout much of Europe. Napoleon synthesized the best academic elements from the Ancien Régime, The Enlightenment, and the Revolution, with the aim of establishing a stable, well-educated and prosperous society. He made French the only official language. He left some primary education in the hands of religious orders, but he offered public support to secondary education. Napoleon founded a number of state secondary schools (lycées) designed to produce a standardized education that was uniform across France. All students were taught the sciences along with modern and classical languages. Unlike the system during the Ancien Régime, religious topics did not dominate the curriculum, although they were present in addition to teachers from the clergy. Napoleon simply hoped to use religion to produce social stability. He gave special attention to the advanced centers, notably the École Polytechnique, that provided both military expertise and state-of-the-art research in science. Napoleon made some of the first major efforts at establishing a system of secular and public education. The system featured scholarships and strict discipline, with the result being a French educational system that outperformed its European counterparts, many of which borrowed from the French system.
How have many historians described Napoleon's foreign policy ambitions?
5726ed89708984140094d64d
grandiose
269
False
As late as what year were the Continental powers willing to give Napoleon most of the gains and titles he had acquired?
5726ed89708984140094d64e
1808
339
False
Who continue to debate whether Napoleon was an enlightened despot, or a megalomaniac?
5726ed89708984140094d64f
historians
24
False
Some scholars maintain Napoleon's excessive aggression and pushing caused what to collapse?
5726ed89708984140094d650
his empire
499
False
In the political realm, historians debate whether Napoleon was "an enlightened despot who laid the foundations of modern Europe or, instead, a megalomaniac who wrought greater misery than any man before the coming of Hitler." Many historians have concluded that he had grandiose foreign policy ambitions. The Continental powers as late as 1808 were willing to give him nearly all of his remarkable gains and titles, but some scholars maintain he was overly aggressive and pushed for too much, until his empire collapsed.
Who put a stop to the lack of law and presence of disorder in post-Revolutionary France?
5726eeeddd62a815002e9594
Napoleon
0
False
Napoleon's decision to reinstate what practice in France's overseas colonies has caused controversy regarding his reputation?
5726eeeddd62a815002e9595
slavery
444
False
Who considered Napoleon to be a tyrant and a usurper?
5726eeeddd62a815002e9596
his opponents
122
False
Napoleon's role in which revolution has caused controversy regarding his reputation?
5726eeeddd62a815002e9597
the Haitian Revolution
395
False
Who charge that Napoleon was untroubled by the prospect of war and death for thousands?
5726eeeddd62a815002e9598
His critics
137
False
Napoleon ended lawlessness and disorder in post-Revolutionary France. He was, however, considered a tyrant and usurper by his opponents. His critics charge that he was not significantly troubled when faced with the prospect of war and death for thousands, turned his search for undisputed rule into a series of conflicts throughout Europe and ignored treaties and conventions alike. His role in the Haitian Revolution and decision to reinstate slavery in France's oversea colonies are controversial and have an impact on his reputation.
What practice in defeated territories became institutionalized under Napoleon?
5726f0a95951b619008f82ed
plunder
27
False
Where in France were plundered artifacts brought in an effort to create a great central museum?
5726f0a95951b619008f82ee
the Musée du Louvre
162
False
Who compared Napoleon to Hitler in 1947?
5726f0a95951b619008f82ef
Pieter Geyl
348
False
Who compared Napoleon to Hitler in 2005?
5726f0a95951b619008f82f0
Claude Ribbe
372
False
In 1973, which historian objected to comparisons between Napoleon and Hitler?
5726f0a95951b619008f82f1
David G. Chandler
394
False
Napoleon institutionalised plunder of conquered territories: French museums contain art stolen by Napoleon's forces from across Europe. Artefacts were brought to the Musée du Louvre for a grand central museum; his example would later serve as inspiration for more notorious imitators. He was compared to Adolf Hitler most famously by the historian Pieter Geyl in 1947 and Claude Ribbe in 2005. David G. Chandler, a foremost historian of Napoleonic warfare, wrote in 1973 that, "Nothing could be more degrading to the former [Napoleon] and more flattering to the latter [Hitler]. The comparison is odious. On the whole Napoleon was inspired by a noble dream, wholly dissimilar from Hitler's... Napoleon left great and lasting testimonies to his genius—in codes of law and national identities which survive to the present day. Adolf Hitler left nothing but destruction."
Which historian describes Napoleon's legacy in terms of years spent at war, numbers of European dead, and France's bankruptcy and loss of colonies?
5726f25ff1498d1400e8f0b2
Victor Davis Hanson
131
False
Which historian views Napoleon's legacy as one of having set back the European economy for a generation through war?
5726f25ff1498d1400e8f0b3
McLynn
307
False
Which historian counters criticism of Napoleon by suggesting that the wars he fought were the responsibility of enemies of the Revolution, rather than that of Napoleon?
5726f25ff1498d1400e8f0b4
Vincent Cronin
457
False
How many years of wars does Victor Davis Hanson claim are part of Napoleon's military record?
5726f25ff1498d1400e8f0b5
17
207
False
Approximately how many Europeans dead does Victor Davis Hanson assert are part of Napoleon's military record?
5726f25ff1498d1400e8f0b6
six million
233
False
Critics argue Napoleon's true legacy must reflect the loss of status for France and needless deaths brought by his rule: historian Victor Davis Hanson writes, "After all, the military record is unquestioned—17 years of wars, perhaps six million Europeans dead, France bankrupt, her overseas colonies lost." McLynn notes that, "He can be viewed as the man who set back European economic life for a generation by the dislocating impact of his wars." However, Vincent Cronin replies that such criticism relies on the flawed premise that Napoleon was responsible for the wars which bear his name, when in fact France was the victim of a series of coalitions which aimed to destroy the ideals of the Revolution.
Napoleon's skillful employment of what technique aided his rise to power, legitimized his rule, and improved his posthumous reputation?
5726f4ddf1498d1400e8f0ee
propaganda
18
False
Napoleon employed what practice in controlling aspects of the media, books, and the arts?
5726f4ddf1498d1400e8f0ef
censorship
135
False
Napoleon's propaganda plan was aimed at showing him as attempting to bring peace and stability to what country?
5726f4ddf1498d1400e8f0f0
France
319
False
Napoleon created a relationship with the art community to commission work specifically targeting what segment of his audience?
5726f4ddf1498d1400e8f0f1
civilian
594
False
Napoleon's use of propaganda contributed to his rise to power, legitimated his régime, and established his image for posterity. Strict censorship, controlling aspects of the press, books, theater, and art, was part of his propaganda scheme, aimed at portraying him as bringing desperately wanted peace and stability to France. The propagandistic rhetoric changed in relation to events and to the atmosphere of Napoleon's reign, focusing first on his role as a general in the army and identification as a soldier, and moving to his role as emperor and a civil leader. Specifically targeting his civilian audience, Napoleon fostered an important, though uneasy, relationship with the contemporary art community, taking an active role in commissioning and controlling different forms of art production to suit his propaganda goals.
Rumors of Napoleon's return from what location were often used as an inspiration for his followers?
5726f6845951b619008f837d
St. Helena
44
False
Anniversaries of Napoleon's life and reign were sometimes celebrated in an effort to disrupt what?
5726f6845951b619008f837e
royal celebrations
358
False
Destabilization of what regime was the main goal of Napoleon's followers?
5726f6845951b619008f837f
the Bourbon regime
493
False
Seditious material distributed by Napoleon's followers often displayed the tricolor, and what other design?
5726f6845951b619008f8380
rosettes
240
False
Widespread rumors of Napoleon's return from St. Helena and Napoleon as an inspiration for patriotism, individual and collective liberties, and political mobilization manifested themselves in seditious materials, displaying the tricolor and rosettes. There were also subversive activities celebrating anniversaries of Napoleon's life and reign and disrupting royal celebrations—they demonstrated the prevailing and successful goal of the varied supporters of Napoleon to constantly destabilize the Bourbon regime.
When did militaristic Boulangism collapse?
5726f90b5951b619008f83c7
the late 1880s
78
False
What year was Victorien Sardou's Madame Sans-Gêne written?
5726f90b5951b619008f83c8
1893
276
False
What year was Maurice Barrès's Les Déracinés written?
5726f90b5951b619008f83c9
1897
315
False
In what year was Edmond Rostand's L'Aiglon written?
5726f90b5951b619008f83ca
1900
349
False
In what year was André de Lorde and Gyp's Napoléonette written?
5726f90b5951b619008f83cb
1913
399
False
Datta (2005) shows that, following the collapse of militaristic Boulangism in the late 1880s, the Napoleonic legend was divorced from party politics and revived in popular culture. Concentrating on two plays and two novels from the period—Victorien Sardou's Madame Sans-Gêne (1893), Maurice Barrès's Les Déracinés (1897), Edmond Rostand's L'Aiglon (1900), and André de Lorde and Gyp's Napoléonette (1913) Datta examines how writers and critics of the Belle Époque exploited the Napoleonic legend for diverse political and cultural ends.
After the fall of Napoleon, many countries retained what system of law?
5726fa4bdd62a815002e96ac
Napoleonic Code
41
False
Outside Europe, Napoleonic Code has been used as the basis for certain parts of what?
5726fa4bdd62a815002e96ad
law
204
False
How can the memory of Napoleon in Poland be characterized as?
5726fa4bdd62a815002e96ae
favorable
356
False
Poland views Napoleon in a positive light partially based on his opposition to what country?
5726fa4bdd62a815002e96af
Russia
418
False
One reason Poland views Napoleon favorably is due to his abolition of what form of indentured servitude?
5726fa4bdd62a815002e96b0
serfdom
459
False
After the fall of Napoleon, not only was Napoleonic Code retained by conquered countries including the Netherlands, Belgium, parts of Italy and Germany, but has been used as the basis of certain parts of law outside Europe including the Dominican Republic, the US state of Louisiana and the Canadian province of Quebec. The memory of Napoleon in Poland is favorable, for his support for independence and opposition to Russia, his legal code, the abolition of serfdom, and the introduction of modern middle class bureaucracies.
Napoleon is viewed by some as a founder of what modern nation?
5726fb7b708984140094d7a1
Germany
59
False
What is the name of the empire Napoleon dissolved?
5726fb7b708984140094d7a2
the Holy Roman Empire
85
False
How many German states were there before Napoleon began to reduce their numbers?
5726fb7b708984140094d7a3
300
152
False
How many German states remained after Napoleon reduced their numbers?
5726fb7b708984140094d7a4
less than 50
159
False
How much did Napoleon sell the Louisiana Territory to the United States for?
5726fb7b708984140094d7a5
15 million dollars
402
False
Napoleon could be considered one of the founders of modern Germany. After dissolving the Holy Roman Empire, he reduced the number of German states from 300 to less than 50, paving the way to German Unification. A byproduct of the French occupation was a strong development in German nationalism. Napoleon also significantly aided the United States when he agreed to sell the territory of Louisiana for 15 million dollars during the presidency of Thomas Jefferson. That territory almost doubled the size of the United States, adding the equivalent of 13 states to the Union.
Who did Napoleon marry in 1796?
5726fc5d5951b619008f840f
Joséphine de Beauharnais
17
False
In what year did Napoleon marry Joséphine de Beauharnais?
5726fc5d5951b619008f8410
1796
45
False
How old was Napoleon when he married Joséphine de Beauharnais?
5726fc5d5951b619008f8411
26
63
False
How old was Joséphine de Beauharnais when she was married to Napoleon?
5726fc5d5951b619008f8412
32
77
False
What was the disliked name Joséphine de Beauharnais was known as before she met Napoleon?
5726fc5d5951b619008f8413
Rose
204
False
Napoleon married Joséphine de Beauharnais in 1796, when he was 26; she was a 32-year-old widow whose first husband had been executed during the Revolution. Until she met Bonaparte, she had been known as "Rose", a name which he disliked. He called her "Joséphine" instead, and she went by this name henceforth. Bonaparte often sent her love letters while on his campaigns. He formally adopted her son Eugène and cousin Stéphanie and arranged dynastic marriages for them. Joséphine had her daughter Hortense marry Napoleon's brother Louis.
What was the name of the illegitimate son acknowledged by Napoleon?
5726fe60708984140094d7ed
Charles Léon
44
False
Who was the mother of Charles Léon?
5726fe60708984140094d7ee
Eléonore Denuelle de La Plaigne
72
False
Who was Napoleon's illegitimate son by his mistress, Maria Walewska?
5726fe60708984140094d7ef
Alexandre Colonna-Walewski
105
False
DNA from Alexandre Colonna-Walewski's descendants has been used to confirm what attribute of Napoleon's?
5726fe60708984140094d7f0
Napoleon's Y-chromosome haplotype
341
False
Who was the child of Emilie Victoria Kraus who might have been another of Napoleon's illegitimate children?
5726fe60708984140094d7f1
Eugen Megerle von Mühlfeld
455
False
Napoleon acknowledged one illegitimate son: Charles Léon (1806–1881) by Eléonore Denuelle de La Plaigne. Alexandre Colonna-Walewski (1810–1868), the son of his mistress Maria Walewska, although acknowledged by Walewska's husband, was also widely known to be his child, and the DNA of his direct male descendant has been used to help confirm Napoleon's Y-chromosome haplotype. He may have had further unacknowledged illegitimate offspring as well, such as Eugen Megerle von Mühlfeld by Emilie Victoria Kraus and Hélène Napoleone Bonaparte (1816–1907) by Albine de Montholon.
Germans
Approximately how many of the world population speak German as a native language?
57263ffa89a1e219009ac5e4
100 million
17
False
Of the population that speaks German as a native language how many of them consider themselves to be German?
57263ffa89a1e219009ac5e5
80 million
77
False
How many of the worlds population claim German ancestors?
57263ffa89a1e219009ac5e6
80 million
158
False
what is the total number of Germans both native speaking and heredity in the world?
57263ffa89a1e219009ac5e7
between 100 and more than 150 million
476
False
Where in Brazil is most of the German descendants located?
57263ffa89a1e219009ac5e8
mainly in the South Region of the country
232
False
How many native German speakers in the world are there?
57292ace3f37b319004780a9
100 million
17
False
How many native German speakers consider themselves German?
57292ace3f37b319004780aa
80 million
77
False
How many people in the world claim to be from German ancestry?
57292ace3f37b319004780ab
100 and more than 150 million
484
False
mainly in the United States, Brazil (mainly in the South Region of the country), Argentina, Canada, South Africa, the post-Soviet
195
Where do an additional 80 million German natives live?
5a638a9e68151a001a922355
True
150 million
502
How many people single ethnic Germans are there in the world?
5a638a9e68151a001a922356
True
Of approximately 100 million native speakers of German in the world, roughly 80 million consider themselves Germans.[citation needed] There are an additional 80 million people of German ancestry mainly in the United States, Brazil (mainly in the South Region of the country), Argentina, Canada, South Africa, the post-Soviet states (mainly in Russia and Kazakhstan), and France, each accounting for at least 1 million.[note 2] Thus, the total number of Germans lies somewhere between 100 and more than 150 million, depending on the criteria applied (native speakers, single-ancestry ethnic Germans, partial German ancestry, etc.).
What emperor forced the Germanic tribes to the east side of the Rhine?
5726431a38643c19005ad3c3
Julius Caesar
66
False
In what did Emperor Augustus order the conquest of the Germans?
5726431a38643c19005ad3c4
12 BC
177
False
The Romans suffered a horrible defeat in there conquest of the Germans in what battle?
5726431a38643c19005ad3c5
Battle of the Teutoburg Forest
261
False
Roman's adoption of what religion would greatly influence the German society?
5726431a38643c19005ad3c6
Christianity
586
False
Through what act would Roman and German customs become intertwine?
5726431a38643c19005ad3c7
Germanic and Roman peoples intermarried
704
False
Which Roman emperor ordered the conquest of the Germans?
57292b563f37b319004780af
Augustus
165
False
What religion did Germans adopt?
57292b563f37b319004780b0
Christianity
821
False
What battle did Germans defeat the Romans?
57292b563f37b319004780b1
Battle of the Teutoburg Forest r
261
False
Roman emperor Augustus
151
Who ordered the conquest of the Germans in the 1200's BC
5a63983668151a001a9223be
True
Germans
211
Who did the Romans defeat ate the Battle of the Teutoburg Forest?
5a63983668151a001a9223bf
True
Christianity
586
What did the Romans get from the Germans?
5a63983668151a001a9223c0
True
a common German identity
893
What identity did Roman culture form?
5a63983668151a001a9223c1
True
Conflict between the Germanic tribes and the forces of Rome under Julius Caesar forced major Germanic tribes to retreat to the east bank of the Rhine. Roman emperor Augustus in 12 BC ordered the conquest of the Germans, but the catastrophic Roman defeat at the Battle of the Teutoburg Forest resulted in the Roman Empire abandoning its plans to completely conquer Germany. Germanic peoples in Roman territory were culturally Romanized, and although much of Germany remained free of direct Roman rule, Rome deeply influenced the development of German society, especially the adoption of Christianity by the Germans who obtained it from the Romans. In Roman-held territories with Germanic populations, the Germanic and Roman peoples intermarried, and Roman, Germanic, and Christian traditions intermingled. The adoption of Christianity would later become a major influence in the development of a common German identity.
During the Migrations period Germans would encounter what groups in the east?
57264622f1498d1400e8dad8
Balts and Slavs
205
False
During the Migrations period Germans would encounter what group in the south?
57264622f1498d1400e8dad9
Celts
181
False
The Limes Germanicus was breached in what year?
57264622f1498d1400e8dada
AD 260
276
False
Who allied with the Germans after previous fighting them along side the Romans?
57264622f1498d1400e8dadb
the Huns
488
False
What leader had both prominent German and Hun families in his entourage throughout Europe?
57264622f1498d1400e8dadc
Attila
732
False
When was the Limes Germanicus breached?
572935dd3f37b3190047810b
AD 260
276
False
Who did the Germans come in contact with to the south?
572935dd3f37b3190047810c
Celts
181
False
Which Germanic tribe did the Huns cooperate with?
572935dd3f37b3190047810d
Ostrogoths
636
False
What language did the Huns adopt?
572935dd3f37b3190047810e
East Germanic
915
False
What happened to the Huns after Attila's death?
572935dd3f37b3190047810f
either escaped into Asia, or otherwise blended in amongst Europeans
1173
False
Migrations Period
32
During what period did the Germanic people have little contact with other people?
5a63a4b47f3c80001a150af9
True
Limes Germanicus
243
What was breached in the 2nd century AD?
5a63a4b47f3c80001a150afa
True
Huns disappearing as a people in Europe
1127
What happened to the Huns after the Roman Empire collapsed?
5a63a4b47f3c80001a150afb
True
Eastern Europe
889
what part of Europe did the Huns conquer for Rome?
5a63a4b47f3c80001a150afc
True
The Germanic peoples during the Migrations Period came into contact with other peoples; in the case of the populations settling in the territory of modern Germany, they encountered Celts to the south, and Balts and Slavs towards the east. The Limes Germanicus was breached in AD 260. Migrating Germanic tribes commingled with the local Gallo-Roman populations in what is now Swabia and Bavaria. The arrival of the Huns in Europe resulted in Hun conquest of large parts of Eastern Europe, the Huns initially were allies of the Roman Empire who fought against Germanic tribes, but later the Huns cooperated with the Germanic tribe of the Ostrogoths, and large numbers of Germans lived within the lands of the Hunnic Empire of Attila. Attila had both Hunnic and Germanic families and prominent Germanic chiefs amongst his close entourage in Europe. The Huns living in Germanic territories in Eastern Europe adopted an East Germanic language as their lingua franca. A major part of Attila's army were Germans, during the Huns' campaign against the Roman Empire. After Attila's unexpected death the Hunnic Empire collapsed with the Huns disappearing as a people in Europe – who either escaped into Asia, or otherwise blended in amongst Europeans.
how many tribes are credited with the creation of the modern day germans?
57264984f1498d1400e8db24
five tribes
162
False
In modern day what is still influenced by the  five tribes?
57264984f1498d1400e8db25
German language
319
False
What king united the tribes in the 9th century?
57264984f1498d1400e8db26
Charlemagne
619
False
What part of Germany became mostly Slavonic-speaking due to migration?
57264984f1498d1400e8db27
Eastern Germany
687
False
The tribes that moved out of east Germany took to inhabit what fallen empires lands?
57264984f1498d1400e8db28
Roman Empire
904
False
What five tribes are attributed with coalescing into a German ethnicity?
5729371d1d0469140077917f
Saxons, Franci, Thuringii, Alamanni and Bavarii
107
False
What 6th tribe is sometimes included with the original 5 German tribes?
5729371d1d04691400779180
Frisians
207
False
Who united the 5 tribes?
5729371d1d04691400779181
king Charlemagne
614
False
What century did King Charlemagne reign?
5729371d1d04691400779182
9th
490
False
"German"
56
What modern ethnic group was formed by 6 migrating tribes?
5a63abd47f3c80001a150b01
True
the large tribes which lived on the territory of modern Germany
503
Who was united in the 900's?
5a63abd47f3c80001a150b02
True
king Charlemagne,
614
Who ruled the territory of modern Germany in the 900's?
5a63abd47f3c80001a150b03
True
former areas of the Roman Empire
884
Where did Slavonic tries migrate to from Eastern Germany?
5a63abd47f3c80001a150b04
True
The migration-period peoples who later coalesced into a "German" ethnicity were the Germanic tribes of the Saxons, Franci, Thuringii, Alamanni and Bavarii. These five tribes, sometimes with inclusion of the Frisians, are considered as the major groups to take part in the formation of the Germans. The varieties of the German language are still divided up into these groups. Linguists distinguish low Saxon, Franconian, Bavarian, Thuringian and Alemannic varieties in modern German. By the 9th century, the large tribes which lived on the territory of modern Germany had been united under the rule of the Frankish king Charlemagne, known in German as Karl der Große. Much of what is now Eastern Germany became Slavonic-speaking (Sorbs and Veleti), after these areas were vacated by Germanic tribes (Vandals, Lombards, Burgundians and Suebi amongst others) which had migrated into the former areas of the Roman Empire.
What period in history do we see the emergence of German culture?
57264a9f708984140094c195
High Middle Ages
341
False
The kingdom of Germany formed within what outer established empires?
57264a9f708984140094c196
East Francia
134
False
When was the Title King of the Germans first used?
57264a9f708984140094c197
late 11th century
430
False
Who coined the phrase "king of the Germans"
57264a9f708984140094c198
chancery of Pope Gregory VII,
456
False
Who was given the prilavage of being called the first King of the Germans?
57264a9f708984140094c199
Henry IV
549
False
When did a German ethnicity emerge?
572937f96aef051400154b80
the Middle Ages
44
False
When is the title of rex teutonicum first used?
572937f96aef051400154b81
the late 11th century
426
False
Who first used rex teutonicum?
572937f96aef051400154b82
Pope Gregory VII
468
False
When is ein diutscher first used?
572937f96aef051400154b83
12th century
648
False
What does ein diutscher mean?
572937f96aef051400154b84
a German
594
False
A German ethnicity
0
What ethnicity emerged following the Middle Ages?
5a63b1657f3c80001a150b09
True
kingdom of Germany
108
What kingdom was formed in the 900's?
5a63b1657f3c80001a150b0a
True
East Francia and later the Holy Roman Empire
134
What two empires formed the kingdom of Germany?
5a63b1657f3c80001a150b0b
True
rex teutonicum "King of the Germans" is
372
What title is first used in the 1100's?
5a63b1657f3c80001a150b0c
True
a German"
594
What term has been used to refer to the people of the region since the 1200's?
5a63b1657f3c80001a150b0d
True
A German ethnicity emerged in the course of the Middle Ages, ultimately as a result of the formation of the kingdom of Germany within East Francia and later the Holy Roman Empire, beginning in the 9th century. The process was gradual and lacked any clear definition, and the use of exonyms designating "the Germans" develops only during the High Middle Ages. The title of rex teutonicum "King of the Germans" is first used in the late 11th century, by the chancery of Pope Gregory VII, to describe the future Holy Roman Emperor of the German Nation Henry IV. Natively, the term ein diutscher ("a German") is used for the people of Germany from the 12th century.
The Expansion of Germany  by the Catholic Church into the areas of the Slavs and balts is know as what?
57264c97dd62a815002e80da
Ostsiedlung
151
False
What was the name of the group that waged war in the Baltic?
57264c97dd62a815002e80db
Catholic German Teutonic Knights
207
False
Who was the Old Prussians ethnic group related to?
57264c97dd62a815002e80dc
Latvian and Lithuanian Baltic peoples
463
False
Although conquered the Persian language lived on till when?
57264c97dd62a815002e80dd
17th or early 18th century
693
False
Who is a famous German that  name has Slavic origins?
57264c97dd62a815002e80de
Karl von Clausewitz
982
False
When was the Prussian language extinct?
57293a886aef051400154b9e
17th or early 18th century
693
False
What happened to the Slavic people of the Baltic?
57293a886aef051400154b9f
were assimilated into German culture
773
False
Who led the German expansion?
57293a886aef051400154ba0
the Roman Catholic Church and local rulers
24
False
What famous German military strategist has a name with Slavic origin?
57293a886aef051400154ba1
Karl von Clausewitz
982
False
What let to the assimilation of Baltic and Slavic populations?
57293a886aef051400154ba2
Massive German settlement
1056
False
Prussian
656
What language was extinct by the 1700 or early 1800's
5a63b39e7f3c80001a150b13
True
Prussians
365
Who conquered the Catholic German Teutonic Knights?
5a63b39e7f3c80001a150b14
True
Catholic Church and local rulers
34
Who held back the German expansion?
5a63b39e7f3c80001a150b15
True
Junkers
944
What was the German aristocracy known as?
5a63b39e7f3c80001a150b16
True
After Christianization, the Roman Catholic Church and local rulers led German expansion and settlement in areas inhabited by Slavs and Balts, known as Ostsiedlung. During the wars waged in the Baltic by the Catholic German Teutonic Knights; the lands inhabited by the ethnic group of the Old Prussians (the current reference to the people known then simply as the "Prussians"), were conquered by the Germans. The Old Prussians were an ethnic group related to the Latvian and Lithuanian Baltic peoples. The former German state of Prussia took its name from the Baltic Prussians, although it was led by Germans who had assimilated the Old Prussians; the old Prussian language was extinct by the 17th or early 18th century. The Slavic people of the Teutonic-controlled Baltic were assimilated into German culture and eventually there were many intermarriages of Slavic and German families, including amongst the Prussia's aristocracy known as the Junkers. Prussian military strategist Karl von Clausewitz is a famous German whose surname is of Slavic origin. Massive German settlement led to the assimilation of Baltic (Old Prussians) and Slavic (Wends) populations, who were exhausted by previous warfare.
German's domination of trade in the Eastern Europe was credited to what?
57266232dd62a815002e8342
naval innovations
18
False
Because of the increased trade what places became the hubs of German culture?
57266232dd62a815002e8343
Hanseatic trade stations
172
False
What was promoted due to wealth and power of the German families?
57266232dd62a815002e8344
Stadtrecht
252
False
the holy roman empire due to its many different conquests was seen as what type of society?
57266232dd62a815002e8345
multi-ethnic and multi-lingual
923
False
What helped the Germans dominate trade?
57293b841d04691400779193
naval innovations
18
False
What is the German work for German town law?
57293b841d04691400779194
Stadtrecht
252
False
Was the Hanseatic league exclusively German?
57293b841d04691400779195
The Hanseatic League was not exclusively German
661
False
What other ethnicities, besides German were part of The Empire?
57293b841d04691400779196
Dutch, Italian, French, Czech and Polish
1040
False
naval innovations
18
What lead to the defeat of the Hanseatic League?
5a63b9e87f3c80001a150b1b
True
German town law
235
What type of law was opposed by wealthy Germans?
5a63b9e87f3c80001a150b1c
True
the Holy Roman Empire
776
What empire did members of the Hanseatic League come from?
5a63b9e87f3c80001a150b1d
True
the Holy Roman Empire
776
What Empire was ethnically German?
5a63b9e87f3c80001a150b1e
True
At the same time, naval innovations led to a German domination of trade in the Baltic Sea and parts of Eastern Europe through the Hanseatic League. Along the trade routes, Hanseatic trade stations became centers of the German culture. German town law (Stadtrecht) was promoted by the presence of large, relatively wealthy German populations, their influence and political power. Thus people who would be considered "Germans", with a common culture, language, and worldview different from that of the surrounding rural peoples, colonized trading towns as far north of present-day Germany as Bergen (in Norway), Stockholm (in Sweden), and Vyborg (now in Russia). The Hanseatic League was not exclusively German in any ethnic sense: many towns who joined the league were outside the Holy Roman Empire and a number of them may only loosely be characterized as German. The Empire itself was not entirely German either. It had a multi-ethnic and multi-lingual structure, some of the smaller ethnicities and languages used at different times were Dutch, Italian, French, Czech and Polish.
By what time period had many of the Jewish  population joined the Holy Roman Empire?
57268312dd62a815002e87be
Middle Ages
7
False
The Jewish populations upon migrating into the German society mingled languages to form what new language?
57268312dd62a815002e87bf
Yiddish
416
False
What cause the tolerance and mixing  into German Society to end for the Jews?
57268312dd62a815002e87c0
Crusades
512
False
What language did many of the Jews speak after the crusades?
57268312dd62a815002e87c1
German
697
False
What language did the Jews speak prior to assimilating into German culture?
57293c921d046914007791af
Judeo-French
208
False
After assimilating to German culture, what language did the Jews adopt?
57293c921d046914007791b0
Yiddish.
416
False
When did Jewish assimilation end?
57293c921d046914007791b1
during the Crusades
501
False
What happened to the Jews during the crusades?
57293c921d046914007791b2
forcefully expelled from Germany
542
False
Jews
37
What group assimilated into German culture following the Middle Ages?
5a63bb9c7f3c80001a150b23
True
Crusades
512
What sped up Jewish assimilation into German society?
5a63bb9c7f3c80001a150b24
True
Jews
531
Who migrated to Germany during the Crusades?
5a63bb9c7f3c80001a150b25
True
Germany
624
Where was Yiddish spoken after the Crusades?
5a63bb9c7f3c80001a150b26
True
By the Middle Ages, large numbers of Jews lived in the Holy Roman Empire and had assimilated into German culture, including many Jews who had previously assimilated into French culture and had spoken a mixed Judeo-French language. Upon assimilating into German culture, the Jewish German peoples incorporated major parts of the German language and elements of other European languages into a mixed language known as Yiddish. However tolerance and assimilation of Jews in German society suddenly ended during the Crusades with many Jews being forcefully expelled from Germany and Western Yiddish disappeared as a language in Germany over the centuries, with German Jewish people fully adopting the German language.
What was one of the main factors that caused the dissolve of the Holy Roman Empire?
57268623f1498d1400e8e2a8
Napoleonic Wars
4
False
What assured  Europe would remain the same preventing Germany from becoming one country?
57268623f1498d1400e8e2a9
Congress of Vienna
197
False
When was the Crimean War?
57268623f1498d1400e8e2aa
1856
606
False
When was Germany's unification?
57268623f1498d1400e8e2ab
1860s
657
False
What prominent Jewish German  sought German unification in the mid 19th century?
57268623f1498d1400e8e2ac
Eduard Lasker
807
False
What was the cause of the final dissolution of the Holy Roman Empire?
5729483faf94a219006aa251
The Napoleonic Wars
0
False
What two countries emerged as competitors after the Congress of Vienna?
5729483faf94a219006aa252
Austria and Prussia
217
False
Who led the way for the Congress of Vienna?
5729483faf94a219006aa253
Austria
265
False
In what decade was German unification?
5729483faf94a219006aa254
1860s
657
False
Who was Eduard Lasker?
5729483faf94a219006aa255
a prominent German nationalist figure who promoted the unification of Germany in the mid-19th century
825
False
The Napoleonic Wars
0
what wars lead to the expansion of the Holy Roman Empire?
5a63c03f7f3c80001a150b2b
True
German nationalism
167
What declined after the fall of the Holy Roman Empire?
5a63c03f7f3c80001a150b2c
True
the quest for a German nation state
115
What quest began in the 1900's?
5a63c03f7f3c80001a150b2d
True
Central Europe
313
Where was Prussia trying to remain the dominate power?
5a63c03f7f3c80001a150b2e
True
Eduard Lasker
807
who promoted the unification of Germany in the mid 1900's?
5a63c03f7f3c80001a150b2f
True
The Napoleonic Wars were the cause of the final dissolution of the Holy Roman Empire, and ultimately the cause for the quest for a German nation state in 19th-century German nationalism. After the Congress of Vienna, Austria and Prussia emerged as two competitors. Austria, trying to remain the dominant power in Central Europe, led the way in the terms of the Congress of Vienna. The Congress of Vienna was essentially conservative, assuring that little would change in Europe and preventing Germany from uniting. These terms came to a sudden halt following the Revolutions of 1848 and the Crimean War in 1856, paving the way for German unification in the 1860s. By the 1820s, large numbers of Jewish German women had intermarried with Christian German men and had converted to Christianity. Jewish German Eduard Lasker was a prominent German nationalist figure who promoted the unification of Germany in the mid-19th century.
When did the strife between Austria and Prussia erupt?
5726876a5951b619008f75e3
1866
3
False
in What conflict of the German war did the Prussians successfully create the North German Confederation?
5726876a5951b619008f75e4
(Battle of Königgrätz
619
False
What was Germany going to be called if Prussian won?
5726876a5951b619008f75e5
Little Germany
503
False
What was Austria not willing to give up to settle the conflict?
5726876a5951b619008f75e6
non-German-speaking land inside of the Austrian Empire
365
False
When did Austria and Prussia go to war?
57294d87af94a219006aa277
1866
3
False
Who won the battle of Koniggratz?
57294d87af94a219006aa278
Prussia
646
False
What did the Prussians want Germany to unify under?
57294d87af94a219006aa279
Little Germany
503
False
What was created when the Prussians defeated Austria??
57294d87af94a219006aa27a
North German Confederation
722
False
Prussia
38
Who did Austria go to war with in the late 18th century?
5a63cbff7f3c80001a150b35
True
Prussians
646
Who did the Austrians defeat at the Battle of Koniggratz?
5a63cbff7f3c80001a150b36
True
non-German-speaking
365
What land was Prussia unwilling to give up?
5a63cbff7f3c80001a150b37
True
Germany
492
Who did Austria want ti unify as little Germany?
5a63cbff7f3c80001a150b38
True
In 1866, the feud between Austria and Prussia finally came to a head. There were several reasons behind this war. As German nationalism grew strongly inside the German Confederation and neither could decide on how Germany was going to be unified into a nation-state. The Austrians favoured the Greater Germany unification but were not willing to give up any of the non-German-speaking land inside of the Austrian Empire and take second place to Prussia. The Prussians however wanted to unify Germany as Little Germany primarily by the Kingdom of Prussia, whilst excluding Austria. In the final battle of the German war (Battle of Königgrätz) the Prussians successfully defeated the Austrians and succeeded in creating the North German Confederation.
When did France attack Prussia?
572691045951b619008f76d7
1870
3
False
Who won the Franco-Prussian War?
572691045951b619008f76d8
Prussia and its new allies in Southern Germany
40
False
When was the German Empire founded?
572691045951b619008f76d9
1871
184
False
What regions was excluded from the German Empire?
572691045951b619008f76da
effectively excluding the multi-ethnic Austrian Habsburg monarchy
215
False
What was the primary religion of Germany?
572691045951b619008f76db
Protestant
510
False
When was the German empire created?
57294fd03f37b31900478225
1871
184
False
Who was excluded from the German Nation State?
57294fd03f37b31900478226
Austrian Habsburg monarchy and Liechtenstein
254
False
What religion was a majority in Germany?
57294fd03f37b31900478227
Protestant
510
False
What did many people in Germany still want to do?
57294fd03f37b31900478228
Integrating the Austrians
300
False
1870,
3
When did Prussia attack France?
5a63ccca7f3c80001a150b3d
True
Franco-Prussian War.
131
What war started in the late 18th century?
5a63ccca7f3c80001a150b3e
True
German Empire
167
What empire was formed in the late 18th century?
5a63ccca7f3c80001a150b3f
True
Austria
395
Who did the Catholics want to exclude from the German Empire?
5a63ccca7f3c80001a150b40
True
In 1870, after France attacked Prussia, Prussia and its new allies in Southern Germany (among them Bavaria) were victorious in the Franco-Prussian War. It created the German Empire in 1871 as a German nation-state, effectively excluding the multi-ethnic Austrian Habsburg monarchy and Liechtenstein. Integrating the Austrians nevertheless remained a strong desire for many people of Germany and Austria, especially among the liberals, the social democrats and also the Catholics who were a minority within the Protestant Germany.
What leader tried to unite all people considered themselves "German"
572693eaf1498d1400e8e458
Adolf Hitler
18
False
Who resisted the uniting of people under Hitler?
572693eaf1498d1400e8e459
The Swiss
457
False
The Swiss has viewed themselves as their own country since what year?
572693eaf1498d1400e8e45a
1648
578
False
Who welcomed the idea in area such as Sudetenland and Poland?
572693eaf1498d1400e8e45b
ethnic Germans
331
False
Who headed the Nazis?
5729508d3f37b31900478233
Adolf Hitler
18
False
Who resisted the Nazi idea of uniting all Germans from the get go?
5729508d3f37b31900478234
The Swiss
457
False
Since when had the Swiss viewed themselves as a different nation?
5729508d3f37b31900478235
1648
578
False
When was the Peace of Westphalia?
5729508d3f37b31900478236
1648
578
False
Who wanted to unite all of the Germans all over the area?
5729508d3f37b31900478237
The Nazis
0
False
eastern Europe
154
Where did ethnic Germans emigrate to under Adolf Hitler?
5a63cfb27f3c80001a150b45
True
The Swiss
457
Who considered themselves a separate nation since the 16th century
5a63cfb27f3c80001a150b46
True
unite all the people they claimed were "Germans"
45
What did Germans in Sudetenland resist?
5a63cfb27f3c80001a150b47
True
The Nazis, led by Adolf Hitler, attempted to unite all the people they claimed were "Germans" (Volksdeutsche) into one realm, including ethnic Germans in eastern Europe, many of whom had emigrated more than one hundred fifty years before and developed separate cultures in their new lands. This idea was initially welcomed by many ethnic Germans in Sudetenland, Austria, Poland, Danzig and western Lithuania, particularly the Germans from Klaipeda (Memel). The Swiss resisted the idea. They had viewed themselves as a distinctly separate nation since the Peace of Westphalia of 1648.
With the conclusion of World War 2 what did most Eastern Europe countries do with their German citizens?
572696a1708984140094cb07
expelled the Germans
129
False
How long did many of the Germans live in the eastern Europe countries before being expelled?
572696a1708984140094cb08
for centuries
214
False
Approximately how many Germans were expelled from their home after world war II?
572696a1708984140094cb09
12 and 16,5 million ethnic Germans and German citizens
503
False
After World War II where were Germans forced to relocate to?
572696a1708984140094cb0a
westwards to allied-occupied Germany
572
False
How many Germans were expelled after WWII?
572951466aef051400154cc2
Between 12 and 16,5 million
495
False
After what war were Germans expelled from their territories?
572951466aef051400154cc3
World War II
6
False
Where were Germans that were inhabiting other lands expelled to?
572951466aef051400154cc4
allied-occupied Germany
585
False
Soviet Union, Poland, Czechoslovakia, Hungary, Romania and Yugoslavia
59
Where in eastern Europe did Germans settle after World War II?
5a63d0c27f3c80001a150b4b
True
Between 12 and 16,5 million
495
How many ethnic Germans left allied Germany following World War II?
5a63d0c27f3c80001a150b4c
True
Germans
142
Who was expelled from eastern Europe after World War II?
5a63d0c27f3c80001a150b4d
True
After World War II, eastern European countries such as the Soviet Union, Poland, Czechoslovakia, Hungary, Romania and Yugoslavia expelled the Germans from their territories. Many of those had inhabited these lands for centuries, developing a unique culture. Germans were also forced to leave the former eastern territories of Germany, which were annexed by Poland (Silesia, Pomerania, parts of Brandenburg and southern part of East Prussia) and the Soviet Union (northern part of East Prussia). Between 12 and 16,5 million ethnic Germans and German citizens were expelled westwards to allied-occupied Germany.
What is credited with the origins of the German identity?
5726ac89708984140094cd87
Protestant Reformation
17
False
How was early German culture developed?
5726ac89708984140094cd88
literary and religious figures
251
False
What man is credited with the emergence of the German nation?
5726ac89708984140094cd89
Johann Gottfried Herder
425
False
When did the popularity of the German nation increase?
5726ac89708984140094cd8a
aftermath of the French Revolution
497
False
What is credited with creating the Origins of a German identity?
572951c03f37b3190047823d
Protestant Reformation
17
False
Who developed the concept of a German Nation?
572951c03f37b3190047823e
Johann Gottfried Herder
425
False
When did the popularity of a German identity arise?
572951c03f37b3190047823f
in the aftermath of the French Revolution
490
False
Who was Johann Herder?
572951c03f37b31900478240
German philosopher
406
False
Protestant Reformation
17
What movement slowed the spread of a German identity?
5a63d1c47f3c80001a150b51
True
concept of a German nation
362
What concept was developed by Martin Luther?
5a63d1c47f3c80001a150b52
True
Martin Luther, Johann Wolfgang von Goethe and Friedrich Schiller
292
What literay and religious figures helped spread German culture in europe?
5a63d1c47f3c80001a150b53
True
The event of the Protestant Reformation and the politics that ensued has been cited as the origins of German identity that arose in response to the spread of a common German language and literature. Early German national culture was developed through literary and religious figures including Martin Luther, Johann Wolfgang von Goethe and Friedrich Schiller. The concept of a German nation was developed by German philosopher Johann Gottfried Herder. The popularity of German identity arose in the aftermath of the French Revolution.
Residence that speak German as their mother tongue and  families have been in place for generations are often consider?
5726adaff1498d1400e8e6ee
most German
135
False
What is the name given to Germans who family left but came back to the lands?
5726adaff1498d1400e8e6ef
Aussiedler
206
False
What is the name of  gven to the population that lives outside of current Germany boundary but still within historic Germany?
5726adaff1498d1400e8e6f0
Restdeutsche
323
False
What are refugees from Germany that still speak German referred to?
5726adaff1498d1400e8e6f1
Auswanderer
447
False
People who have generations of family in Germany, and look and speak German are classified as what?
5729525c3f37b31900478245
most German
135
False
Who are people of German ancestry but have lived in other parts of Europe, then returned to Germany?
5729525c3f37b31900478246
Aussiedler
206
False
What are people who have ancestral roots in Germany, but now live outside of Germany called?
5729525c3f37b31900478247
Restdeutsche
323
False
What are people called who have left Germany but still speak German?
5729525c3f37b31900478248
Auswanderer
447
False
Aussiedler
206
Who are people of German ancestry living in western Europe?
5a63d64f7f3c80001a150b57
True
Auswanderer
447
What is the term for people who's families emigrated from Germany and may or may not still speak German?
5a63d64f7f3c80001a150b58
True
Germany
395
Restdeutsche live in lands that where never part of what?
5a63d64f7f3c80001a150b59
True
"most German"
134
What are all people who's first language is German called?
5a63d64f7f3c80001a150b5a
True
Persons who speak German as their first language, look German and whose families have lived in Germany for generations are considered "most German", followed by categories of diminishing Germanness such as Aussiedler (people of German ancestry whose families have lived in Eastern Europe but who have returned to Germany), Restdeutsche (people living in lands that have historically belonged to Germany but which is currently outside of Germany), Auswanderer (people whose families have emigrated from Germany and who still speak German), German speakers in German-speaking nations such as Austrians, and finally people of German emigrant background who no longer speak German.
What is the native language of Germans?
572952cb6aef051400154ce2
German
34
False
What languages is German related to?
572952cb6aef051400154ce3
English and Dutch
104
False
How many natives speak German?
572952cb6aef051400154ce4
100 million
229
False
What is the most commonly spoken language in the European Union?
572952cb6aef051400154ce5
German
258
False
What is the dominant language of science?
572952cb6aef051400154ce6
English
396
False
100 million
229
How many people speak German around the world?
5a63d9c07f3c80001a150b5f
True
German
258
What is the most widely spoken language around the world?
5a63d9c07f3c80001a150b60
True
as the dominant language of science-related Nobel Prize laureates
404
Where has German replaced English as the dominant language?
5a63d9c07f3c80001a150b61
True
science-related Nobel Prize laureates
432
What was English the dominant language of before the 20th century?
5a63d9c07f3c80001a150b62
True
The native language of Germans is German, a West Germanic language, related to and classified alongside English and Dutch, and sharing many similarities with the North Germanic and Scandinavian languages. Spoken by approximately 100 million native speakers, German is one of the world's major languages and the most widely spoken first language in the European Union. German has been replaced by English as the dominant language of science-related Nobel Prize laureates during the second half of the 20th century. It was a lingua franca in the Holy Roman Empire.
How many German Americans are there?
5729533caf94a219006aa2a3
50 million
109
False
How many Germans live in Brazil?
5729533caf94a219006aa2a4
5 million
281
False
How many people in the world have German heritage?
5729533caf94a219006aa2a5
100 million
580
False
America is home to what percentage of German decedent people?
5729533caf94a219006aa2a6
one third
140
False
50 million
109
How many people of German  decent live in the Americas?
5a63db877f3c80001a150b67
True
5 million
281
How many German speaking people live in Brazil?
5a63db877f3c80001a150b68
True
100 million
580
How many German speaking people live around the world?
5a63db877f3c80001a150b69
True
Canada, Argentina, South Africa and France
354
What countries claim 1 million people of German descent between them?
5a63db877f3c80001a150b6a
True
People of German origin are found in various places around the globe. United States is home to approximately 50 million German Americans or one third of the German diaspora, making it the largest centre of German-descended people outside Germany. Brazil is the second largest with 5 million people claiming German ancestry. Other significant centres are Canada, Argentina, South Africa and France each accounting for at least 1 million. While the exact number of German-descended people is difficult to calculate, the available data makes it safe to claim the number is exceeding 100 million people.
Who is a German philosopher from the middle ages?
572953ee1d046914007792a9
Albertus Magnus
91
False
When was Leibniz an active philosopher?
572953ee1d046914007792aa
17th century
125
False
What German philosopher inspired Schopenhauer and Nietzsche?
572953ee1d046914007792ab
Kant
160
False
In the late 19th century, which German philosopher helped develop the idea of communism?
572953ee1d046914007792ac
Engels
332
False
When was the University of Berlin founded?
572953ee1d046914007792ad
1810
687
False
Leibniz
116
What German philosopher is from the 1700's?
5a63e2947f3c80001a150b6f
True
western philosophy
38
What did the German philosopher Kant shape in the Middle Ages?
5a63e2947f3c80001a150b70
True
communist theory
354
What did Engels develop in the 1900's?
5a63e2947f3c80001a150b71
True
pursued the tradition of German philosophy
438
What did Heideggar do in the 2000's?
5a63e2947f3c80001a150b72
True
The University of Berlin
651
What university was founded in the 18th century?
5a63e2947f3c80001a150b73
True
German philosophers have helped shape western philosophy from as early as the Middle Ages (Albertus Magnus). Later, Leibniz (17th century) and most importantly Kant played central roles in the history of philosophy. Kantianism inspired the work of Schopenhauer and Nietzsche as well as German idealism defended by Fichte and Hegel. Engels helped develop communist theory in the second half of the 19th century while Heidegger and Gadamer pursued the tradition of German philosophy in the 20th century. A number of German intellectuals were also influential in sociology, most notably Adorno, Habermas, Horkheimer, Luhmann, Simmel, Tönnies, and Weber. The University of Berlin founded in 1810 by linguist and philosopher Wilhelm von Humboldt served as an influential model for a number of modern western universities.
Who discovered X-Rays?
572954806aef051400154cfc
Wilhelm Conrad Röntgen
291
False
Who won the first Nobel Prize in Physics?
572954806aef051400154cfd
Wilhelm Conrad Röntgen
291
False
In what year, was the first Nobel Prize in Physics won?
572954806aef051400154cfe
1901
415
False
Where is the Walhalla temple located?
572954806aef051400154cff
Bavaria
554
False
What two people were important to the creation of modern physics?
572954806aef051400154d00
David Hilbert and Max Planck
12
False
modern physics
74
What did Werner Heisenberg lay the foundation for?
5a63e3c77f3c80001a150b79
True
Erwin Schrödinger
118
Who further developed Heisenberg's work?
5a63e3c77f3c80001a150b7a
True
Nobel Prize in Physics
389
What prize was first given in the 19th century?
5a63e3c77f3c80001a150b7b
True
Wilhelm Conrad Röntgen
291
Who got a Nobel Prize in Physics in the 19th century for discovering the X-ray?
5a63e3c77f3c80001a150b7c
True
The work of David Hilbert and Max Planck was crucial to the foundation of modern physics, which Werner Heisenberg and Erwin Schrödinger developed further. They were preceded by such key physicists as Hermann von Helmholtz, Joseph von Fraunhofer, and Gabriel Daniel Fahrenheit, among others. Wilhelm Conrad Röntgen discovered X-rays, an accomplishment that made him the first winner of the Nobel Prize in Physics in 1901. The Walhalla temple for "laudable and distinguished Germans", features a number of scientists, and is located east of Regensburg, in Bavaria.
From which country is Bach, Mozart and Beethoven from?
57295848af94a219006aa2f1
Germany
23
False
In what tradition of music did Brahms Wagner and Hadyn achieve fame?
57295848af94a219006aa2f2
Austro-German
252
False
Who marked the switch from classical to romantic eras in classical music?
57295848af94a219006aa2f3
Beethoven
124
False
Bach, Mozart and Beethoven
107
What composers marked the transition from the Romantic to the Classical eras?
5a63e4737f3c80001a150b81
True
Brahms, Wagner, Haydn, Schubert, Händel, Schumann
316
Who are some famous Austrian composers
5a63e4737f3c80001a150b82
True
In the field of music, Germany claims some of the most renowned classical composers of the world including Bach, Mozart and Beethoven, who marked the transition between the Classical and Romantic eras in Western classical music. Other composers of the Austro-German tradition who achieved international fame include Brahms, Wagner, Haydn, Schubert, Händel, Schumann, Liszt, Mendelssohn Bartholdy, Johann Strauss II, Bruckner, Mahler, Telemann, Richard Strauss, Schoenberg, Orff, and most recently, Henze, Lachenmann, and Stockhausen.
In 2008,, where was Germany ranked as a world music market?
57295a38af94a219006aa307
fourth largest
35
False
What type of music was pioneered in Germany?
57295a38af94a219006aa308
trance
150
False
What type of music does Kraftwerk make?
57295a38af94a219006aa309
electronic
438
False
What is the largest music festival in Germany?
57295a38af94a219006aa30a
Rock am Ring
516
False
How many people does M'era Luna Festival attract?
57295a38af94a219006aa30b
up to 30,000
886
False
Germany
20
What is the fourth largest music market in Europe?
5a63e5537f3c80001a150b85
True
trance
150
What type of dance was pioneered in Germany?
5a63e5537f3c80001a150b86
True
Rock am Ring festival
516
What is the largest music festival in Europe?
5a63e5537f3c80001a150b87
True
German artists
616
Who pioneered Industrial music acts?
5a63e5537f3c80001a150b88
True
As of 2008[update], Germany is the fourth largest music market in the world and has exerted a strong influence on Dance and Rock music, and pioneered trance music. Artists such as Herbert Grönemeyer, Scorpions, Rammstein, Nena, Dieter Bohlen, Tokio Hotel and Modern Talking have enjoyed international fame. German musicians and, particularly, the pioneering bands Tangerine Dream and Kraftwerk have also contributed to the development of electronic music. Germany hosts many large rock music festivals annually. The Rock am Ring festival is the largest music festival in Germany, and among the largest in the world. German artists also make up a large percentage of Industrial music acts, which is called Neue Deutsche Härte. Germany hosts some of the largest Goth scenes and festivals in the entire world, with events like Wave-Gothic-Treffen and M'era Luna Festival easily attracting up to 30,000 people. Amongst Germany's famous artists there are various Dutch entertainers, such as Johannes Heesters.
Who was the original German cinematic?
57295afd6aef051400154d4e
Max Skladanowsky
80
False
What types of film were produced in the Nazi era?
57295afd6aef051400154d4f
propaganda
277
False
Who controls film production in the GDR?
57295afd6aef051400154d50
Deutsche Film-Aktiengesellschaft
604
False
When did German cinema come back internationally?
57295afd6aef051400154d51
1960s
382
False
German cinema
0
What was Max Skladanowsky active in during the Weimar Republic?
5a63e8297f3c80001a150b8d
True
propaganda films
277
What did Murnau produce during the Nazi era?
5a63e8297f3c80001a150b8e
True
placed West-German cinema back onto the international stage
498
What did Leni Riefenstahl do in the 1960's?
5a63e8297f3c80001a150b8f
True
Deutsche Film-Aktiengesellschaft
604
Who controlled film production in West-Germany?
5a63e8297f3c80001a150b90
True
German cinema dates back to the very early years of the medium with the work of Max Skladanowsky. It was particularly influential during the years of the Weimar Republic with German expressionists such as Robert Wiene and Friedrich Wilhelm Murnau. The Nazi era produced mostly propaganda films although the work of Leni Riefenstahl still introduced new aesthetics in film. From the 1960s, New German Cinema directors such as Volker Schlöndorff, Werner Herzog, Wim Wenders, Rainer Werner Fassbinder placed West-German cinema back onto the international stage with their often provocative films, while the Deutsche Film-Aktiengesellschaft controlled film production in the GDR.
In what year was the never ending story made?
57295c1d6aef051400154d70
1984
70
False
What award did Nowhere in Africa win in 2002?
57295c1d6aef051400154d71
Academy Award for Best Foreign Language Film
260
False
In what year did The Lives of Others win the Academy Award for Best Foreign Language?
57295c1d6aef051400154d72
2007
351
False
How often is the Berlin International Film Festival held?
57295c1d6aef051400154d73
yearly
460
False
What was the first year of the Berlin International Film Festival?
57295c1d6aef051400154d74
1951
473
False
Nowhere in Africa,
329
What did Carolina Link get an Acadamy award for in the 20th century?
5a63e8b87f3c80001a150b95
True
The Berlin International Film Festival,
415
What film festival was held yearly until 1951?
5a63e8b87f3c80001a150b96
True
More recently, films such as Das Boot (1981), The Never Ending Story (1984) Run Lola Run (1998), Das Experiment (2001), Good Bye Lenin! (2003), Gegen die Wand (Head-on) (2004) and Der Untergang (Downfall) (2004) have enjoyed international success. In 2002 the Academy Award for Best Foreign Language Film went to Caroline Link's Nowhere in Africa, in 2007 to Florian Henckel von Donnersmarck's The Lives of Others. The Berlin International Film Festival, held yearly since 1951, is one of the world's foremost film and cinema festivals.
In what year did Martin Luther challenge the Catholic Church?
57295cd51d0469140077931f
1517
128
False
During what years was the thirty year war?
57295cd51d04691400779320
1618–1648
348
False
Until the Reformation, what was the established religion in Germany?
57295cd51d04691400779321
Roman Catholicism
0
False
Where was the thirty year war primarily fought?
57295cd51d04691400779322
Germany
466
False
Who was the thirty year war between?
57295cd51d04691400779323
Protestants and Catholics
598
False
Roman Catholicism
0
What was the sole religion in Europe until the reformation?
5a63e9847f3c80001a150b99
True
Martin Luther
134
Who challenged the Catholic Church in the 15th century?
5a63e9847f3c80001a150b9a
True
Martin Luther
134
Who established Protestantism in the 15th century?
5a63e9847f3c80001a150b9b
True
The Thirty Years' War
325
What religious war was fought in the 16th century?
5a63e9847f3c80001a150b9c
True
Roman Catholicism was the sole established religion in the Holy Roman Empire until the Reformation changed this drastically. In 1517, Martin Luther challenged the Catholic Church as he saw it as a corruption of Christian faith. Through this, he altered the course of European and world history and established Protestantism. The Thirty Years' War (1618–1648) was one of the most destructive conflicts in European history. The war was fought primarily in what is now Germany, and at various points involved most of the countries of Europe. The war was fought largely as a religious conflict between Protestants and Catholics in the Holy Roman Empire.
What percentage of Germans are Roman Catholic?
57295d303f37b319004782b3
30.8
71
False
What percentage of Germans are Evangelical Protestants?
57295d303f37b319004782b4
30.3
156
False
What religion is the North and East part of Germany?
57295d303f37b319004782b5
Protestant
508
False
Where is there a non-religious majority?
57295d303f37b319004782b6
Hamburg and the East German states
602
False
Roman Catholics
43
What religion makes up 30.8% of Europe's population?
5a63f0067f3c80001a150ba1
True
Germany
104
Where is 38.8% of the population atheists?
5a63f0067f3c80001a150ba2
True
Hamburg
602
What German city is predominately Catholic?
5a63f0067f3c80001a150ba3
True
According to the latest nationwide census, Roman Catholics constituted 30.8% of the total population of Germany, followed by the Evangelical Protestants at 30.3%. Other religions, atheists or not specified constituted 38.8% of the population at the time. Among "others" are Protestants not included in Evangelical Church of Germany, and other Christians such as the Restorationist New Apostolic Church. Protestantism was more common among the citizens of Germany. The North and East Germany is predominantly Protestant, the South and West rather Catholic. Nowadays there is a non-religious majority in Hamburg and the East German states.
How many Germans are members of sports clubs?
57295d901d04691400779333
27 million
78
False
What is the most popular sport in Germany?
57295d901d04691400779334
Football
197
False
What is the largest athletic organisation in the country?
57295d901d04691400779335
German Football Federation
248
False
How many members are in the German Football Federation?
57295d901d04691400779336
6.3 million
314
False
sports club
114
What kind of clubs do 12 million Germans belong to?
5a63f0d37f3c80001a150ba7
True
German Football Federation (
248
What Federation has 6.3 thousand members?
5a63f0d37f3c80001a150ba8
True
German Football Federation
248
What has thousands of television spectators?
5a63f0d37f3c80001a150ba9
True
Sport forms an integral part of German life, as demonstrated by the fact that 27 million Germans are members of a sports club and an additional twelve million pursue such an activity individually. Football is by far the most popular sport, and the German Football Federation (Deutscher Fußballbund) with more than 6.3 million members is the largest athletic organisation in the country. It also attracts the greatest audience, with hundreds of thousands of spectators attending Bundesliga matches and millions more watching on television.
What year was the turning point for Germany in the Nation Brands Index?
57295e18af94a219006aa329
2006
10
False
What year did BBC reveal that Germany is the most positive influence in the world?
57295e18af94a219006aa32a
2010
637
False
what percentage have a negative view of Germany?
57295e18af94a219006aa32b
14%
704
False
What percentage of people have a positive view of Germany?
57295e18af94a219006aa32c
59
657
False
l Nation Brands Index global survey,
121
What index ranked Germany high before the 2006 FIFA World Cup?
5a63f2107f3c80001a150bad
True
2010
505
In what year was Germany ranked the most valued nation?
5a63f2107f3c80001a150bae
True
2010
637
In what year ws Germany recognized as the most influential country in the world?
5a63f2107f3c80001a150baf
True
BBC
548
Who's global opinion poll showed 14% of people having a positive opinion of Germany?
5a63f2107f3c80001a150bb0
True
Since the 2006 FIFA World Cup, the internal and external evaluation of Germany's national image has changed. In the annual Nation Brands Index global survey, Germany became significantly and repeatedly more highly ranked after the tournament. People in 20 different states assessed the country's reputation in terms of culture, politics, exports, its people and its attractiveness to tourists, immigrants and investments. Germany has been named the world's second most valued nation among 50 countries in 2010. Another global opinion poll, for the BBC, revealed that Germany is recognised for the most positive influence in the world in 2010. A majority of 59% have a positive view of the country, while 14% have a negative view.
In what century did the Pan-Germanisms origins begin?
57295f556aef051400154da6
19th
43
False
What movement came out of the French Revolution?
57295f556aef051400154da7
Nationalism
181
False
Who was threatened by Nationalism?
57295f556aef051400154da8
aristocratic regimes
236
False
Who ruled central and Eastern Europe during the 19th century?
57295f556aef051400154da9
Romanovs and the Habsburgs
379
False
Where was Johann Tillmann from?
57295f556aef051400154daa
East Prussia
643
False
Napoleonic Wars
70
What wars took place in the 1900's?
5a63f3017f3c80001a150bb5
True
Nationalism
181
What movement began in Germany in the 1900's?
5a63f3017f3c80001a150bb6
True
Germans
407
What people had been united since the Reformation?
5a63f3017f3c80001a150bb7
True
Johann Tillmann
624
What German wanted to unite all the ethnic-German people?
5a63f3017f3c80001a150bb8
True
Pan-Germanism's origins began in the early 19th century following the Napoleonic Wars. The wars launched a new movement that was born in France itself during the French Revolution. Nationalism during the 19th century threatened the old aristocratic regimes. Many ethnic groups of Central and Eastern Europe had been divided for centuries, ruled over by the old Monarchies of the Romanovs and the Habsburgs. Germans, for the most part, had been a loose and disunited people since the Reformation when the Holy Roman Empire was shattered into a patchwork of states. The new German nationalists, mostly young reformers such as Johann Tillmann of East Prussia, sought to unite all the German-speaking and ethnic-German (Volksdeutsche) people.
Who were the two most powerful nations in the 1860's?
5729600e6aef051400154db0
Kingdom of Prussia and the Austrian Empire
17
False
When was the German Empire created?
5729600e6aef051400154db1
1871
636
False
Who was Wilhelm I?
5729600e6aef051400154db2
head of a union of German-speaking states
684
False
What were Prussia and Austria looking to expand?
5729600e6aef051400154db3
influence and territory
160
False
Which empire was a multi ethnic state?
5729600e6aef051400154db4
The Austrian Empire
185
False
the Kingdom of Prussia and the Austrian Empire
13
What powerful nations were dominated by elite Germans in the 18th century?
5a63f3ff7f3c80001a150bbd
True
the Holy Roman Empire
212
What other Empire besides Prussia was a multi-ethnic state?
5a63f3ff7f3c80001a150bbe
True
Austro-Hungarian Empire
360
What Empire was the result of a growing German nationalism?
5a63f3ff7f3c80001a150bbf
True
The German Empire
586
What empire was created in the late 18th century?
5a63f3ff7f3c80001a150bc0
True
By the 1860s the Kingdom of Prussia and the Austrian Empire were the two most powerful nations dominated by German-speaking elites. Both sought to expand their influence and territory. The Austrian Empire – like the Holy Roman Empire – was a multi-ethnic state, but German-speaking people there did not have an absolute numerical majority; the creation of the Austro-Hungarian Empire was one result of the growing nationalism of other ethnicities especially the Hungarians. Prussia under Otto von Bismarck would ride on the coat-tails of nationalism to unite all of modern-day Germany. The German Empire ("Second Reich") was created in 1871 following the proclamation of Wilhelm I as head of a union of German-speaking states, while disregarding millions of its non-German subjects who desired self-determination from German rule.
What greatly reduced the size of Germany after WWI?
572960b43f37b319004782d9
treaty of Versailles
133
False
Who was relocated during the second world war from the Soviet Union?
572960b43f37b319004782da
Volga Germans
574
False
What name did Rump-Austria adopt?
572960b43f37b319004782db
German-Austria
450
False
What is the German translation for German-Austria?
572960b43f37b319004782dc
Deutschösterreich
475
False
German-speaking elites
50
Who's influence increased after World War I?
5a63f4d77f3c80001a150bc5
True
the treaty of Versailles
129
What treaty increased Germanium size?
5a63f4d77f3c80001a150bc6
True
Second World War.
672
During what war did Germans relocate to the Soviet Union?
5a63f4d77f3c80001a150bc7
True
Austria-Hungary
312
What country was split among language groups?
5a63f4d77f3c80001a150bc8
True
Following the defeat in World War I, influence of German-speaking elites over Central and Eastern Europe was greatly limited. At the treaty of Versailles Germany was substantially reduced in size. Austria-Hungary was split up. Rump-Austria, which to a certain extent corresponded to the German-speaking areas of Austria-Hungary (a complete split into language groups was impossible due to multi-lingual areas and language-exclaves) adopted the name "German-Austria" (German: Deutschösterreich). The name German-Austria was forbidden by the victorious powers of World War I. Volga Germans living in the Soviet Union were interned in gulags or forcibly relocated during the Second World War.
What percentage of 14 year olds said they were proud to be German in 2009?
572961806aef051400154dc4
60
259
False
What percentage of 14 year olds in 2009 said they would choose German for their nationality if they got to choose?
572961806aef051400154dc5
78
337
False
Where does Eugen Buss work?
572961806aef051400154dc6
University of Hohenheim
666
False
Second World War,
22
What war was followed by an increase in national symbols?
5a63f5b87f3c80001a150bcd
True
Germans
100
Among who is patriotism declining?
5a63f5b87f3c80001a150bce
True
"I'm proud to be German."
307
What sentiment do 78% of Germans agree with?
5a63f5b87f3c80001a150bcf
True
Eugen Buss,
625
Who says Germans are still afraid to be openly proud of their country?
5a63f5b87f3c80001a150bd0
True
For decades after the Second World War, any national symbol or expression was a taboo. However, the Germans are becoming increasingly patriotic. During a study in 2009, in which some 2,000 German citizens age 14 and upwards filled out a questionnaire, nearly 60% of those surveyed agreed with the sentiment "I'm proud to be German." And 78%, if free to choose their nation, would opt for German nationality with "near or absolute certainty". Another study in 2009, carried out by the Identity Foundation in Düsseldorf, showed that 73% of the Germans were proud of their country, twice more than 8 years earlier. According to Eugen Buss, a sociology professor at the University of Hohenheim, there's an ongoing normalisation and more and more Germans are becoming openly proud of their country.
Who was Poland's foreign minister in 2011?
572962431d04691400779363
Radek Sikorski
52
False
What are Germans trying to forget?
572962431d04691400779364
Nazi past
1026
False
What are Germans trying to focus on?
572962431d04691400779365
Prussian history
1052
False
Who is Europe's strongest economy?
572962431d04691400779366
Germany
1182
False
Radek Sikors
52
What Polish foreign minister said he feared German power?
5a63f6947f3c80001a150bd5
True
Nazism
1133
What is Germany trying to remember?
5a63f6947f3c80001a150bd6
True
World War II
1522
What war do many Germans still remember?
5a63f6947f3c80001a150bd7
True
Heilbrunn
739
Who says What is good for Germany is bad for the EU?
5a63f6947f3c80001a150bd8
True
In the midst of the European sovereign-debt crisis, Radek Sikorski, Poland's Foreign Minister, stated in November 2011, "I will probably be the first Polish foreign minister in history to say so, but here it is: I fear German power less than I am beginning to fear German inactivity. You have become Europe's indispensable nation." According to Jacob Heilbrunn, a senior editor at The National Interest, such a statement is unprecedented when taking into consideration Germany's history. "This was an extraordinary statement from a top official of a nation that was ravaged by Germany during World War II. And it reflects a profound shift taking place throughout Germany and Europe about Berlin's position at the center of the Continent." Heilbrunn believes that the adage, "what was good for Germany was bad for the European Union" has been supplanted by a new mentality—what is in the interest of Germany is also in the interest of its neighbors. The evolution in Germany's national identity stems from focusing less on its Nazi past and more on its Prussian history, which many Germans believe was betrayed—and not represented—by Nazism. The evolution is further precipitated by Germany's conspicuous position as Europe's strongest economy. Indeed, this German sphere of influence has been welcomed by the countries that border it, as demonstrated by Polish foreign minister Radek Sikorski's effusive praise for his country's western neighbor. This shift in thinking is boosted by a newer generation of Germans who see World War II as a distant memory.
Southeast_Asia
Which country has stated that it might join ASEAN?
5726419dec44d21400f3dce5
Papua New Guinea
627
False
What does ASEAN mean?
5726419dec44d21400f3dce6
Association of Southeast Asian Nations
223
False
Which two Islands governed by Australia are considered a part of ASEAN?
5726419dec44d21400f3dce7
Christmas Island and the Cocos (Keeling) Islands
396
False
Which state is not a member of ASEAN?
5726419dec44d21400f3dce8
East Timor
193
False
the Association of Southeast Asian Nations
219
What association is East  Timo a member of?
5a5171ecce860b001aa3fdb3
True
East Indies
339
What was Southeast Asia also known as?
5a5171ecce860b001aa3fdb4
True
Southeast Asia
16
What has been called the Indies since the 20th Century
5a5171ecce860b001aa3fdb5
True
Christmas Island and the Cocos
396
What islands are not considered part of Southeast Asia?
5a5171ecce860b001aa3fdb6
True
Christmas Island and the Cocos
396
What islands are part of Australia?
5a5171ecce860b001aa3fdb7
True
Definitions of "Southeast Asia" vary, but most definitions include the area represented by the countries (sovereign states and dependent territories) listed below. All of the states except for East Timor are members of the Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN). The area, together with part of South Asia, was widely known as the East Indies or simply the Indies until the 20th century. Christmas Island and the Cocos (Keeling) Islands[citation needed] are considered part of Southeast Asia though they are governed by Australia.[citation needed] Sovereignty issues exist over some territories in the South China Sea. Papua New Guinea has stated that it might join ASEAN, and is currently an observer.
Which Island is geographically considered a part of Southeast Asia?
572645e3dd62a815002e8028
The Andaman and Nicobar Islands
0
False
Which countries are culturally a part of Southeast Asia?
572645e3dd62a815002e8029
Eastern Bangladesh and the Seven Sister States of India
95
False
Which islands were a part of the Spanish East Indies?
572645e3dd62a815002e802a
Papua New Guinea, is sometimes included so are Palau, Guam, and the Northern Mariana Islands
427
False
The Andaman and Nicobar Islands of India
0
What islands are not geographically part of Southeast Asia
5a518f14b308da001a5a22fb
True
Eastern Bangladesh and the Seven Sister States of India
95
What islands are not culturally or geographically part of Southeast Asia?
5a518f14b308da001a5a22fc
True
Papua New Guinea
427
What part of New Guinea is not part of Southeast Asia?
5a518f14b308da001a5a22fd
True
The Andaman and Nicobar Islands of India are geographically considered part of Southeast Asia. Eastern Bangladesh and the Seven Sister States of India are culturally part of Southeast Asia and sometimes considered both South Asian and Southeast Asian. The Seven Sister States of India are also geographically part of Southeast Asia.[citation needed] The rest of the island of New Guinea which is not part of Indonesia, namely, Papua New Guinea, is sometimes included so are Palau, Guam, and the Northern Mariana Islands, which were all part of the Spanish East Indies.[citation needed]
When did the Austronesian people arrive in indonesia?
5726476ddd62a815002e804c
2000 BC
422
False
Where did the Austronesian people settle down in Indonesia?
5726476ddd62a815002e804d
coastal areas
499
False
Which people became extinct after the Homosapiens arrived?
5726476ddd62a815002e804e
Homo floresiensis
113
False
How long ago did the Homo floresiensis live before they became extinct?
5726476ddd62a815002e804f
12,000 years ago
163
False
Homo sapiens
0
What reached the region arounf 4500 years ago?
5a5191fcb308da001a5a2301
True
Homo sapiens
0
Who came from easr of the region?
5a5191fcb308da001a5a2302
True
Homo floresiensis
113
Who moved into the area 12,000 years ago?
5a5191fcb308da001a5a2303
True
Indonesia, Malaysia, Brunei, East Timor, and the Philippines
278
Where do "Austrnesian make up a small fraction of the modern population?
5a5191fcb308da001a5a2304
True
Austronesian
207
Who arrived in Indinesia around the 2nd century BC?
5a5191fcb308da001a5a2305
True
Homo sapiens reached the region by around 45,000 years ago, having moved eastwards from the Indian subcontinent. Homo floresiensis also lived in the area up until 12,000 years ago, when they became extinct. Austronesian people, who form the majority of the modern population in Indonesia, Malaysia, Brunei, East Timor, and the Philippines, may have migrated to Southeast Asia from Taiwan. They arrived in Indonesia around 2000 BC,and as they spread through the archipelago, they often settled along coastal areas and confined indigenous peoples such as Negritos of the Philippines or Papuans of New Guinea to inland regions.
Which Hindu kingdom existed around 200 BCE?
572648da5951b619008f6ef9
Jawa Dwipa
4
False
Which traders came to the archipelago for trade?
572648da5951b619008f6efa
Indian traders
206
False
The Java Dwipa kingdom was well-known for what?
572648da5951b619008f6efb
abundant forest and maritime products
258
False
Which religions were well established in the Malay peninsula by the beginning of the 1st century CE?
572648da5951b619008f6efc
Hinduism and Buddhism
395
False
Apart from the Indian traders, who else discovered the Malay peninsula for trade?
572648da5951b619008f6efd
merchants from China
314
False
The Jawa Dwipa Hindu kingdom
0
What kindom existed in the second century BCE?
5a5193acb308da001a5a230b
True
Indian
138
Who started influencing the Maylay-speaking world in the 300's BCE?
5a5193acb308da001a5a230c
True
Indian traders
206
Who did the Chine's come to the archipelago to trade with?
5a5193acb308da001a5a230d
True
Hinduism and Buddhism
395
What was well established by the 1st century BC?
5a5193acb308da001a5a230e
True
The Jawa Dwipa Hindu kingdom in Java and Sumatra existed around 200 BCE. The history of the Malay-speaking world began with the advent of Indian influence, which dates back to at least the 3rd century BCE. Indian traders came to the archipelago both for its abundant forest and maritime products and to trade with merchants from China, who also discovered the Malay world at an early date. Both Hinduism and Buddhism were well established in the Malay Peninsula by the beginning of the 1st century CE, and from there spread across the archipelago.
Which Indianised kingdom was based in eastern java?
57264da3f1498d1400e8db84
The Majapahit Empire
0
False
Which ruler reigned between 1350 to 1389?
57264da3f1498d1400e8db85
Hayam Wuruk
118
False
How long did the Majapahit Empire last?
57264da3f1498d1400e8db86
1293 to around 1500
74
False
How far did the Majapahit Empire's influence stretch?
57264da3f1498d1400e8db87
parts of Sulawesi, Maluku, and some areas of western New Guinea and the Philippines
368
False
The Majapahit Empire
0
What kingdom was established in 1500?
5a5196a9b308da001a5a2313
True
eastern Java
56
Where was the Majapahit Empire based in 1293 BC?
5a5196a9b308da001a5a2314
True
Hayam Wuruk
118
What ruler came to power in 1389?
5a5196a9b308da001a5a2315
True
1350 to 1389
148
When wa the Majapahit Empire dominated by other kingdoms?
5a5196a9b308da001a5a2316
True
he Majapahit Empire
1
What was the largest empire in Asian history?
5a5196a9b308da001a5a2317
True
The Majapahit Empire was an Indianised kingdom based in eastern Java from 1293 to around 1500. Its greatest ruler was Hayam Wuruk, whose reign from 1350 to 1389 marked the empire's peak when it dominated other kingdoms in the southern Malay Peninsula, Borneo, Sumatra, and Bali. Various sources such as the Nagarakertagama also mention that its influence spanned over parts of Sulawesi, Maluku, and some areas of western New Guinea and the Philippines, making it the largest empire to ever exist in Southeast Asian history.
Which kingdom did the Chola navy attack during the 11th century?
57265064dd62a815002e8150
Srivijaya kingdom
149
False
What was the capital of Srivijaya kingdom?
57265064dd62a815002e8151
Sangrama Vijayatungavarman
170
False
Which king of Kedah converted to Islam in the year 1267?
57265064dd62a815002e8152
Phra Ong Mahawangsa
448
False
Name an Indonesian Islamic scholar who lived from 1908-1981?
57265064dd62a815002e8153
Hamka
920
False
Which Chinese admiral was related to the development of Islam in Indonesia & Malaya?
57265064dd62a815002e8154
Admiral Zheng He
1046
False
a turbulent period occurred in the history of Maritime Southeast Asia
21
What happened in the 1100's?
5a519a6bb308da001a5a231d
True
Chola
103
Who did the Srivijaya kingdom attack?
5a519a6bb308da001a5a231e
True
taken captive
290
What happened to the king of Chola?
5a519a6bb308da001a5a231f
True
Phra Ong Mahawangsa
448
What kig converted from Islam in 1267?
5a519a6bb308da001a5a2320
True
Hamka
920
What Islamic scholar died in 1908?
5a519a6bb308da001a5a2321
True
In the 11th century, a turbulent period occurred in the history of Maritime Southeast Asia. The Indian Chola navy crossed the ocean and attacked the Srivijaya kingdom of Sangrama Vijayatungavarman in Kadaram (Kedah), the capital of the powerful maritime kingdom was sacked and the king was taken captive. Along with Kadaram, Pannai in present-day Sumatra and Malaiyur and the Malayan peninsula were attacked too. Soon after that, the king of Kedah Phra Ong Mahawangsa became the first ruler to abandon the traditional Hindu faith, and converted to Islam with the Sultanate of Kedah established in year 1136. Samudera Pasai converted to Islam in the year 1267, the King of Malacca Parameswara married the princess of Pasai, and the son became the first sultan of Malacca. Soon, Malacca became the center of Islamic study and maritime trade, and other rulers followed suit. Indonesian religious leader and Islamic scholar Hamka (1908–1981) wrote in 1961: "The development of Islam in Indonesia and Malaya is intimately related to a Chinese Muslim, Admiral Zheng He."
In the 15th century, the ruler of which port embraced Islam?
572652fddd62a815002e8188
Malacca Sultanate
866
False
Where did the traders from Yemen settle?
572652fddd62a815002e8189
Indonesia, Singapore, and Malaysia
326
False
Which missionary helped to spread Islam?
572652fddd62a815002e818a
The Sufi missionaries
584
False
Which religion proved a positive force among the ruling & trading classes?
572652fddd62a815002e818b
Islam
1000
False
Malacca Sultanate
866
What ruler regected Islam in the 15th century?
5a519ec0b308da001a5a2327
True
Indonesia, Singapore, and Malaysia
326
Where did Yemen traders come from?
5a519ec0b308da001a5a2328
True
the ruling and trading classes
1038
What classes wher negatively affected by Islam?
5a519ec0b308da001a5a2329
True
The Sufi
584
What missionaries he;ped spread Islam beyond Asia?
5a519ec0b308da001a5a232a
True
There are several theories to the Islamisation process in Southeast Asia. Another theory is trade. The expansion of trade among West Asia, India and Southeast Asia helped the spread of the religion as Muslim traders from Southern Yemen (Hadramout) brought Islam to the region with their large volume of trade. Many settled in Indonesia, Singapore, and Malaysia. This is evident in the Arab-Indonesian, Arab-Singaporean, and Arab-Malay populations who were at one time very prominent in each of their countries. The second theory is the role of missionaries or Sufis.[citation needed] The Sufi missionaries played a significant role in spreading the faith by introducing Islamic ideas to the region. Finally, the ruling classes embraced Islam and that further aided the permeation of the religion throughout the region. The ruler of the region's most important port, Malacca Sultanate, embraced Islam in the 15th century, heralding a period of accelerated conversion of Islam throughout the region as Islam provided a positive force among the ruling and trading classes.
The western colonies were invaded by whom during World War II?
5726542d708984140094c293
Imperial Japan
21
False
According to the UN report, what was the count of people who perished due to famine?
5726542d708984140094c294
4 to 10 million
260
False
What violent acts did the Showa regime commit?
5726542d708984140094c295
Manila massacre and the implementation of a system of forced labour
165
False
Who defeated Japan during the World War II?
5726542d708984140094c296
The Allied powers
438
False
western colonies
63
What colonies were attacked during WW I?
5a51a822b308da001a5a232f
True
Imperial Japan
21
Who invaded the western colonies during WW I?
5a51a822b308da001a5a2330
True
UN
306
Who reported that 4  thousand people died do to famine and forced labour?
5a51a822b308da001a5a2331
True
The Allied powers
438
Who did Japan defeat in the South-East Asian theater?
5a51a822b308da001a5a2332
True
During World War II, Imperial Japan invaded most of the former western colonies. The Shōwa occupation regime committed violent actions against civilians such as the Manila massacre and the implementation of a system of forced labour, such as the one involving 4 to 10 million romusha in Indonesia. A later UN report stated that four million people died in Indonesia as a result of famine and forced labour during the Japanese occupation. The Allied powers who defeated Japan in the South-East Asian theatre of World War II then contended with nationalists to whom the occupation authorities had granted independence.
Name the largest country in Southeast Asia.
572654d6dd62a815002e81be
Indonesia
0
False
Geologically what is Indonesia's region most active for?
572654d6dd62a815002e81bf
volcanically active
207
False
Indonesia
0
What is the largest country in Asia?
5a51b1a6b308da001a5a2337
True
Indonesia
0
What is the smallest archipelago in the world?
5a51b1a6b308da001a5a2338
True
Indonesia
0
What country has the least volcanic activity in Southeast Asia?
5a51b1a6b308da001a5a2339
True
Puncak Jaya
343
What is the only mountain without glaciers in Souteast Asia?
5a51b1a6b308da001a5a233a
True
Mount Kinabalu
534
What  is the second largest peak in Asia?
5a51b1a6b308da001a5a233b
True
Indonesia is the largest country in Southeast Asia and it also the largest archipelago in the world by size (according to the CIA World Factbook). Geologically, the Indonesian Archipelago is one of the most volcanically active regions in the world. Geological uplifts in the region have also produced some impressive mountains, culminating in Puncak Jaya in Papua, Indonesia at 5,030 metres (16,500 feet), on the island of New Guinea; it is the only place where ice glaciers can be found in Southeast Asia. The second tallest peak is Mount Kinabalu in Sabah, Malaysia on the island of Borneo with a height of 4,095 metres (13,435 feet). The highest mountain in Southeast Asia is Hkakabo Razi at 5,967 meters and can be found in northern Burma sharing the same range of its parent peak, Mount Everest.
What is the climate like in Southeast Asia?
57265794708984140094c309
tropical–hot and humid
40
False
Which region has the 2nd largest rain-forest in the world?
57265794708984140094c30a
Southeast Asia
272
False
Which regions in Southeast Asia see cold winter with snow?
57265794708984140094c30b
Northern Vietnam and the Myanmar Himalayas
103
False
What causes additional rainfall during monsoon?
57265794708984140094c30c
The tropical rain belt
358
False
What causes the Southeast Asian regions to experience wet & dry seasons?
57265794708984140094c30d
seasonal shift in winds or monsoon
322
False
Southeast
15
What part of Asia is mostly subtropical?
5a51b3e5b308da001a5a2341
True
Myanmar Himalayas
128
North Vietnam and what other region have atropical climate?
5a51b3e5b308da001a5a2342
True
Southeast Asia
15
What region has the largest rain forest in the world?
5a51b3e5b308da001a5a2343
True
milder temperatures and drier landscape
646
What is the climate like in the souther mountain region?
5a51b3e5b308da001a5a2344
True
The climate in Southeast Asia is mainly tropical–hot and humid all year round with plentiful rainfall. Northern Vietnam and the Myanmar Himalayas are the only regions in Southeast Asia that feature a subtropical climate, which has a cold winter with snow. The majority of Southeast Asia has a wet and dry season caused by seasonal shift in winds or monsoon. The tropical rain belt causes additional rainfall during the monsoon season. The rain forest is the second largest on earth (with the Amazon being the largest). An exception to this type of climate and vegetation is the mountain areas in the northern region, where high altitudes lead to milder temperatures and drier landscape. Other parts fall out of this climate because they are desert like.
Name the line that splits the Indonesian Archipelago?
57265eb4dd62a815002e82e6
Wallace Line
43
False
What region comprises of the Wallacea?
57265eb4dd62a815002e82e7
The islands between Java/Borneo and Papua
204
False
Which country has created a system of national parks & preserves?
57265eb4dd62a815002e82e8
Indonesia
799
False
Which species in Java face extinction?
57265eb4dd62a815002e82e9
Javan rhinoceros
934
False
What is the concern in Southeast Asian region due to development & population expansion?
57265eb4dd62a815002e82ea
impact of human activity on the region's environment.
437
False
Wallace Line
43
What seperates Asian andAustralian species?
5a51b646b308da001a5a2349
True
Java/Borneo and Papua
224
What islands don't have either Asian or Ausralasian species?
5a51b646b308da001a5a234a
True
human activity
447
What has impacted large regions of Southeast Asia?
5a51b646b308da001a5a234b
True
forest cover
703
What kind of coverage encourages erosian?
5a51b646b308da001a5a234c
True
The Indonesian Archipelago is split by the Wallace Line. This line runs along what is now known to be a tectonic plate boundary, and separates Asian (Western) species from Australasian (Eastern) species. The islands between Java/Borneo and Papua form a mixed zone, where both types occur, known as Wallacea. As the pace of development accelerates and populations continue to expand in Southeast Asia, concern has increased regarding the impact of human activity on the region's environment. A significant portion of Southeast Asia, however, has not changed greatly and remains an unaltered home to wildlife. The nations of the region, with only few exceptions, have become aware of the need to maintain forest cover not only to prevent soil erosion but to preserve the diversity of flora and fauna. Indonesia, for example, has created an extensive system of national parks and preserves for this purpose. Even so, such species as the Javan rhinoceros face extinction, with only a handful of the animals remaining in western Java.
Where on Earth is the highest marine activity recorded?
5726609b708984140094c413
Raja Ampat
270
False
Which areas are composed as the Coral Triangle?
5726609b708984140094c414
Indonesia, Philippines, and Papua New Guinea.
423
False
Which area is called the heart of the world's Coral reef biodiversity?
5726609b708984140094c415
The Coral Triangle
469
False
Name the largest species of fish in the world.
5726609b708984140094c416
The whale shark
671
False
coral reefs
42
What are found in Southeast Asia's deep waters?
5a51b7a5b308da001a5a2351
True
Southeast Asian coral reefs
26
What ecosystem has the lowest biodiversity in Asia?
5a51b7a5b308da001a5a2352
True
Raja Ampat
270
Where did Conservation International say the lowest biodiversity is?
5a51b7a5b308da001a5a2353
True
South China Sea and the Pacific Ocean territories of the Philippines
778
Where is the world's only species of sea turtle found?
5a51b7a5b308da001a5a2354
True
The shallow waters of the Southeast Asian coral reefs have the highest levels of biodiversity for the world's marine ecosystems, where coral, fish and molluscs abound. According to Conservation International, marine surveys suggest that the marine life diversity in the Raja Ampat (Indonesia) is the highest recorded on Earth. Diversity is considerably greater than any other area sampled in the Coral Triangle composed of Indonesia, Philippines, and Papua New Guinea. The Coral Triangle is the heart of the world's coral reef biodiversity, the Verde Passage is dubbed by Conservation International as the world's "center of the center of marine shorefish biodiversity". The whale shark, the world's largest species of fish and 6 species of sea turtles can also be found in the South China Sea and the Pacific Ocean territories of the Philippines.
What percentage of plant and animal species extinction is predicted in the 21st century?
572669d0708984140094c527
40%
236
False
Where has haze been predominant?
572669d0708984140094c528
Sumatra and Borneo
541
False
How is a haze formed?
572669d0708984140094c529
caused by "slash and burn" activities
500
False
What agreement has the Southeast Asian countries signed to combat haze pollution?
572669d0708984140094c52a
Transboundary Haze Pollution
640
False
When did the 2 worst haze pollution occur in Southeast Asia?
572669d0708984140094c52b
1997 and 2006
421
False
Southeast Asia
6
What area is rich in trees and other Fauna?
5a51b915b308da001a5a2359
True
Sumatran tiger
178
What tiger is prospering despite deforistation?
5a51b915b308da001a5a235a
True
Southeast Asia
6
Where were 40% of the animal and plant species destroyed already?
5a51b915b308da001a5a235b
True
"slash and burn" activities in Sumatra and Borneo
510
What caused the 19th century reginal hazes?
5a51b915b308da001a5a235c
True
several countries in Southeast Asia
574
Who signed the ASEAN in 1997?
5a51b915b308da001a5a235d
True
While Southeast Asia is rich in flora and fauna, Southeast Asia is facing severe deforestation which causes habitat loss for various endangered species such as orangutan and the Sumatran tiger. Predictions have been made that more than 40% of the animal and plant species in Southeast Asia could be wiped out in the 21st century. At the same time, haze has been a regular occurrence. The two worst regional hazes were in 1997 and 2006 in which multiple countries were covered with thick haze, mostly caused by "slash and burn" activities in Sumatra and Borneo. In reaction, several countries in Southeast Asia signed the ASEAN Agreement on Transboundary Haze Pollution to combat haze pollution.
Name some important commodities that originated in Southeast asian region?
57266c13708984140094c57b
pepper, ginger, cloves, and nutmeg
216
False
Who developed the spice trade initially?
57266c13708984140094c57c
Indian and Arab merchants
295
False
Which European traders moved into Indonesia?
57266c13708984140094c57d
Dutch
727
False
Southeast Asia
53
Who became an important part of the world trading system after the penetration of European interests?
5a51ba38b308da001a5a2363
True
pepper, ginger, cloves, and nutmeg.
216
What commodities did Europeans bring the region?
5a51ba38b308da001a5a2364
True
The spice trade
252
What trade was initially developed by Europeans?
5a51ba38b308da001a5a2365
True
annexation of territories
596
What did traders oppose to protect their interests?
5a51ba38b308da001a5a2366
True
Even prior to the penetration of European interests, Southeast Asia was a critical part of the world trading system. A wide range of commodities originated in the region, but especially important were spices such as pepper, ginger, cloves, and nutmeg. The spice trade initially was developed by Indian and Arab merchants, but it also brought Europeans to the region. First Spaniards (Manila galleon) and Portuguese, then the Dutch, and finally the British and French became involved in this enterprise in various countries. The penetration of European commercial interests gradually evolved into annexation of territories, as traders lobbied for an extension of control to protect and expand their activities. As a result, the Dutch moved into Indonesia, the British into Malaya and parts of Borneo, the French into Indochina, and the Spanish and the US into the Philippines.
The origin of which community can be traced to the 16th century?
57266f97dd62a815002e84c0
Chinese
318
False
The rise of Chinese population saw a rapid increase during which revolution?
57266f97dd62a815002e84c1
Communist Revolution
551
False
When did the Chinese revolution start in Southeast Asia?
57266f97dd62a815002e84c2
1949
575
False
What is the name of the network through which the Chinese communities were connected with?
57266f97dd62a815002e84c3
the bamboo network
155
False
the economies in the region
77
What has the Japanese community helped develope?
5a51c016b308da001a5a236b
True
China
407
who's influence started in the 1600's?
5a51c016b308da001a5a236c
True
Chinese populations
482
What population decreased following the Communist Revolution?
5a51c016b308da001a5a236d
True
Southeast Asia
244
Where did migrants from South China migrate to?
5a51c016b308da001a5a236e
True
The overseas Chinese community has played a large role in the development of the economies in the region. These business communities are connected through the bamboo network, a network of overseas Chinese businesses operating in the markets of Southeast Asia that share common family and cultural ties. The origins of Chinese influence can be traced to the 16th century, when Chinese migrants from southern China settled in Indonesia, Thailand, and other Southeast Asian countries. Chinese populations in the region saw a rapid increase following the Communist Revolution in 1949, which forced many refugees to emigrate outside of China.
What reserves are abundant in Southeast Asia?
57267141708984140094c625
Oil reserves
678
False
Which sector is the Southeast Asia heavily dependent on?
57267141708984140094c626
agriculture
437
False
Of the Southeast Asian countries, which country has  the largest economy?
57267141708984140094c627
Indonesia
179
False
Which region manufactures textiles, heavy industrial products & high-tech electronic goods?
57267141708984140094c628
Vietnam
454
False
The region's economy
0
What is largely dependent on manufactoring?
5a51c12fb308da001a5a2373
True
economy
204
As an emerging market Indonesia has the smallest what?
5a51c12fb308da001a5a2374
True
Vietnam
454
What country is developing more agriculture?
5a51c12fb308da001a5a2375
True
Southeast Asia
694
What region has limited oil reserves?
5a51c12fb308da001a5a2376
True
The region's economy greatly depends on agriculture; rice and rubber have long been prominent exports. Manufacturing and services are becoming more important. An emerging market, Indonesia is the largest economy in this region. Newly industrialised countries include Indonesia, Malaysia, Thailand, and the Philippines, while Singapore and Brunei are affluent developed economies. The rest of Southeast Asia is still heavily dependent on agriculture, but Vietnam is notably making steady progress in developing its industrial sectors. The region notably manufactures textiles, electronic high-tech goods such as microprocessors and heavy industrial products such as automobiles. Oil reserves in Southeast Asia are plentiful.
Of the Southeast Asian countries, which one's key economic development is based on Tourism?
572673195951b619008f72e7
Cambodia
101
False
According to which entity can tourism be a tremendous development tool & means to preserving the cultural diversity of the planet?
572673195951b619008f72e8
UNESCO
124
False
Who was the regional leader in tourism in 1995?
572673195951b619008f72e9
Singapore
484
False
From 2000, Cambodia has surpassed other ASEAN countries in generating GDP on which sector?
572673195951b619008f72ea
tourism
785
False
UNESCO
124
Who discourages tourism in ordr to preserve cultural diversity?
5a51c265b308da001a5a237b
True
tourism
403
What industry is strong in Cambodia?
5a51c265b308da001a5a237c
True
1995
478
When was Singapore the world leader in tourism?
5a51c265b308da001a5a237d
True
GDP from tourism
776
What has Cambodia fallen behind othe ASEAN countries for?
5a51c265b308da001a5a237e
True
Tourism has been a key factor in economic development for many Southeast Asian countries, especially Cambodia. According to UNESCO, "tourism, if correctly conceived, can be a tremendous development tool and an effective means of preserving the cultural diversity of our planet." Since the early 1990s, "even the non-ASEAN nations such as Cambodia, Laos, Vietnam and Burma, where the income derived from tourism is low, are attempting to expand their own tourism industries." In 1995, Singapore was the regional leader in tourism receipts relative to GDP at over 8%. By 1998, those receipts had dropped to less than 6% of GDP while Thailand and Lao PDR increased receipts to over 7%. Since 2000, Cambodia has surpassed all other ASEAN countries and generated almost 15% of its GDP from tourism in 2006.
What is the approximate area of Southeast Asia?
572674a4f1498d1400e8e02e
4,000,000 km2
44
False
Among the Southeast Asian countries, which one is densely populated?
572674a4f1498d1400e8e02f
Indonesia
273
False
Which Island in Southeast Asia is densely populated?
572674a4f1498d1400e8e030
Java
213
False
Southeast Asia
0
What region has an area of 4,000,000 square miles?
5a51c418b308da001a5a2383
True
2013
92
When did 143 million people live in Southeast Asia?
5a51c418b308da001a5a2384
True
Java
213
Where in Indonesia is the population 625 million?
5a51c418b308da001a5a2385
True
Indonesia
273
What is the least densly populated country of Southeast Asia?
5a51c418b308da001a5a2386
True
Chinese
523
What nationality are 3 million people living in Southeast Asia come from?
5a51c418b308da001a5a2387
True
Southeast Asia has an area of approximately 4,000,000 km2 (1.6 million square miles). As of 2013, Around 625 million people lived in the region, more than a fifth of them (143 million) on the Indonesian island of Java, the most densely populated large island in the world. Indonesia is the most populous country with 255 million people as of 2015, and also the 4th most populous country in the world. The distribution of the religions and people is diverse in Southeast Asia and varies by country. Some 30 million overseas Chinese also live in Southeast Asia, most prominently in Christmas Island, Indonesia, Malaysia, the Philippines, Singapore, and Thailand, and also, as the Hoa, in Vietnam.
name the largest ethnic group in Southeast Asia.
5726764cdd62a815002e85c4
the Javanese
17
False
Which ethnic groups dominate in Indonesia?
5726764cdd62a815002e85c5
Javanese and Sundanese
397
False
The Tagalog, Cebuano,Ilocano & Hiligaynon groups are significant within which country in Southeast Asia?
5726764cdd62a815002e85c6
Philippines
515
False
The ethnic groups Malays & Chinese are predominant in which country?
5726764cdd62a815002e85c7
Malaysia
441
False
Javanese
21
What is currently the smallest ethnic group in Southeast Asia?
5a51c529b308da001a5a238d
True
Burmese
167
What group makes up two-thirds of the population of Southeast Asia?
5a51c529b308da001a5a238e
True
Thais and Vietnamese
258
What two groups make up four-fifths of the population of Southeast Asia?
5a51c529b308da001a5a238f
True
Malaysia
441
Where are the Malays and Chinese a minority?
5a51c529b308da001a5a2390
True
In modern times, the Javanese are the largest ethnic group in Southeast Asia, with more than 100 million people, mostly concentrated in Java, Indonesia. In Burma, the Burmese account for more than two-thirds of the ethnic stock in this country, while ethnic Thais and Vietnamese account for about four-fifths of the respective populations of those countries. Indonesia is clearly dominated by the Javanese and Sundanese ethnic groups, while Malaysia is split between half Malays and one-quarter Chinese. Within the Philippines, the Tagalog, Cebuano, Ilocano, and Hiligaynon groups are significant.
Which religion is widely practiced in Southeast Asia?
572677b7dd62a815002e85fc
Islam
0
False
What percentage of the population in Southeast Asia practice Islam?
572677b7dd62a815002e85fd
40%
134
False
Among the Southeast Asian countries, which country has the most populous Muslims among them?
572677b7dd62a815002e85fe
Indonesia
244
False
Roman Catholic population is predominant in which Asian country?
572677b7dd62a815002e85ff
Philippines
654
False
East Timor is predominantly catholic due to which European rule's history?
572677b7dd62a815002e8600
Portuguese
785
False
Islam
0
What is the least practiced religion in Southeast Asia?
5a51c727b308da001a5a2395
True
Islam
0
What religion has 2.4 million adherents?
5a51c727b308da001a5a2396
True
Indonesia
244
WWhat Southeast Asian country has the smallest muslim population?
5a51c727b308da001a5a2397
True
Roman Catholic
750
What religion is no longer predominant in East Timor?
5a51c727b308da001a5a2398
True
Islam is the most widely practised religion in Southeast Asia, numbering approximately 240 million adherents which translate to about 40% of the entire population, with majorities in Indonesia, Brunei, Malaysia and in Southern Philippines with Indonesia as the largest and most populated Muslim country around the world. Countries in Southeast Asia practice many different religions. Buddhism is predominant in Thailand, Cambodia, Laos, Burma, Vietnam and Singapore. Ancestor worship and Confucianism are also widely practised in Vietnam and Singapore. Christianity is predominant in the Philippines, eastern Indonesia, East Malaysia and East Timor. The Philippines has the largest Roman Catholic population in Asia. East Timor is also predominantly Roman Catholic due to a history of Portuguese rule.
Which is Asia's largest christian nation?
57267b4c5951b619008f7429
Philippines
894
False
Garuda is the national symbol of which 2 countries?
57267b4c5951b619008f742a
Thailand and Indonesia
488
False
Which religion is dominant on the Island of Bali?
57267b4c5951b619008f742b
Hinduism
143
False
Name the most Muslim populous region in Asia?
57267b4c5951b619008f742c
Indonesia
132
False
What is practiced in Vietnam?
57267b4c5951b619008f742d
Vietnam
1146
False
Bali
183
What is the worlds most populated Hindu nation?
5a51c8ecb308da001a5a239d
True
Vietnam
1146
Where is ancestor whorship predominant?
5a51c8ecb308da001a5a239e
True
East Timor and the Philippines
875
Where are Christians the minority?
5a51c8ecb308da001a5a239f
True
remote areas
1004
Where are tribal religions still occasionally practiced?
5a51c8ecb308da001a5a23a0
True
Religions and peoples are diverse in Southeast Asia and not one country is homogeneous. In the world's most populous Muslim nation, Indonesia, Hinduism is dominant on islands such as Bali. Christianity also predominates in the rest of the part of the Philippines, New Guinea and Timor. Pockets of Hindu population can also be found around Southeast Asia in Singapore, Malaysia etc. Garuda (Sanskrit: Garuḍa), the phoenix who is the mount (vahanam) of Vishnu, is a national symbol in both Thailand and Indonesia; in the Philippines, gold images of Garuda have been found on Palawan; gold images of other Hindu gods and goddesses have also been found on Mindanao. Balinese Hinduism is somewhat different from Hinduism practised elsewhere, as Animism and local culture is incorporated into it. Christians can also be found throughout Southeast Asia; they are in the majority in East Timor and the Philippines, Asia's largest Christian nation. In addition, there are also older tribal religious practices in remote areas of Sarawak in East Malaysia,Highland Philippines and Papua in eastern Indonesia. In Burma, Sakka (Indra) is revered as a nat. In Vietnam, Mahayana Buddhism is practised, which is influenced by native animism but with strong emphasis on Ancestor Worship.
Arabia has a strong influence in which Southeast Asian country?
57267fbcdd62a815002e874a
Brunei
336
False
Singapore & Vietnam shows which influence predominantly?
57267fbcdd62a815002e874b
Chinese
313
False
The Indian influence is evident in which country through the Tamil migrants?
57267fbcdd62a815002e874c
Singapore
634
False
mainland
50
Where in Southeast Asia is the culture not very divers?
5a51ca4ab308da001a5a23a5
True
Singapore and Vietnam
161
Where is the culture predominatly Chinese?
5a51ca4ab308da001a5a23a6
True
Philippines and Malaysia
209
Where is the indigenous culture Australian?
5a51ca4ab308da001a5a23a7
True
India
814
What country has directly influenced the culture of Vietnam?
5a51ca4ab308da001a5a23a8
True
The culture in Southeast Asia is very diverse: on mainland Southeast Asia, the culture is a mix of Indochinese (Burma, Cambodia, Laos and Thailand) and Chinese (Singapore and Vietnam). While in Indonesia, the Philippines and Malaysia the culture is a mix of indigenous Austronesian, Indian, Islamic, Western, and Chinese cultures. Also Brunei shows a strong influence from Arabia. Singapore and Vietnam show more Chinese influence in that Singapore, although being geographically a Southeast Asian nation, is home to a large Chinese majority and Vietnam was in China's sphere of influence for much of its history. Indian influence in Singapore is only evident through the Tamil migrants, which influenced, to some extent, the cuisine of Singapore. Throughout Vietnam's history, it has had no direct influence from India - only through contact with the Thai, Khmer and Cham peoples.
Where did the Southeast Asians introduce their dance?
5726812e708984140094c84d
into their court
301
False
Which dance was famous for strong feet & hand movements?
5726812e708984140094c84e
Apsara Dance
472
False
The Khmer Empire was influenced by what?
5726812e708984140094c84f
Indian Hinduism
455
False
court
312
Where was dance not popular in Southeast Asia?
5a51cb85b308da001a5a23ad
True
Cambodian
334
Who had a royal ballet in the 700's?
5a51cb85b308da001a5a23ae
True
Apsara Dance
472
What dance is known for little hand movement?
5a51cb85b308da001a5a23af
True
Khmer Empire,
410
What empire influenced ndian Hinduism?
5a51cb85b308da001a5a23b0
True
The arts of Southeast Asia have affinity with the arts of other areas. Dance in much of Southeast Asia includes movement of the hands as well as the feet, to express the dance's emotion and meaning of the story that the ballerina is going to tell the audience. Most of Southeast Asia introduced dance into their court; in particular, Cambodian royal ballet represented them in the early 7th century before the Khmer Empire, which was highly influenced by Indian Hinduism. Apsara Dance, famous for strong hand and feet movement, is a great example of Hindu symbolic dance.
What were the favorite forms of entertainment in Southeast Asia?
57268716dd62a815002e883a
Puppetry and shadow plays
0
False
Art & literature in Southeast Asia is influenced by which religion?
57268716dd62a815002e883b
Hinduism
203
False
The UNESCO has recognized which show as a Masterpiece of Oral & Intangible Heritage of Humanity
57268716dd62a815002e883c
The wayang kulit
494
False
Which country despite converting to Islam has retained many forms of Hindu practices, culture, art & literature?
57268716dd62a815002e883d
Indonesia
254
False
Puppetry and shadow plays
0
What is currently a favorite form of entertainment?
5a51cc8fb308da001a5a23b5
True
Wayang
107
What is a famous shadow play from India?
5a51cc8fb308da001a5a23b6
True
The arts and literature
130
Islam has influenced what in Southeast Asia?
5a51cc8fb308da001a5a23b7
True
a Masterpiece of Oral and Intangible Heritage of Humanity
570
What did UNESCO regognize the 2003 play Wayang as?
5a51cc8fb308da001a5a23b8
True
Puppetry and shadow plays were also a favoured form of entertainment in past centuries, a famous one being Wayang from Indonesia. The arts and literature in some of Southeast Asia is quite influenced by Hinduism, which was brought to them centuries ago. Indonesia, despite conversion to Islam which opposes certain forms of art, has retained many forms of Hindu-influenced practices, culture, art and literature. An example is the Wayang Kulit (Shadow Puppet) and literature like the Ramayana. The wayang kulit show has been recognized by UNESCO on November 7, 2003, as a Masterpiece of Oral and Intangible Heritage of Humanity.
What did the Khmer & Indonesian classical arts depict of?
572687f6708984140094c903
the life of the gods
95
False
Which group brought with them the Chinese artistic traditions to the Southeast Asian country?
572687f6708984140094c904
Tai
241
False
According to the Southeast Asian people, the life of the Gods were comparable to what?
572687f6708984140094c905
life of the peoples themselves
178
False
Khmer and Indonesian
29
What classical arts depicted the lives of regular people?
5a51cd71b308da001a5a23bd
True
The Tai,
237
Who brought Chinese dance to Southeast Asia?
5a51cd71b308da001a5a23be
True
Khmer and Mon traditions
372
What did the Tai give up in favor of Chinese traditions?
5a51cd71b308da001a5a23bf
True
The Tai,
237
Who's temples are influenced by Khmer and Mon traditions?
5a51cd71b308da001a5a23c0
True
It has been pointed out that Khmer and Indonesian classical arts were concerned with depicting the life of the gods, but to the Southeast Asian mind the life of the gods was the life of the peoples themselves—joyous, earthy, yet divine. The Tai, coming late into Southeast Asia, brought with them some Chinese artistic traditions, but they soon shed them in favour of the Khmer and Mon traditions, and the only indications of their earlier contact with Chinese arts were in the style of their temples, especially the tapering roof, and in their lacquerware.
Which form of writing extended before the invention of paper?
57268974708984140094c93b
palm leaf
116
False
What were the alphabets of Southeast Asia?
57268974708984140094c93c
abugidas
318
False
What other forms of writing materials were used during this period?
57268974708984140094c93d
copperplate scrolls
505
False
In what direction were the writings on a palm leaf?
57268974708984140094c93e
longitudinally
166
False
The sections of the palm leafs were bound by what material?
57268974708984140094c93f
twine
211
False
Southeast Asia
290
Whose writing dates to the invention of paper?
5a51ced4b308da001a5a23c5
True
paper
70
When was invented in the 1st century?
5a51ced4b308da001a5a23c6
True
abugidas
318
What alphabets where domenent after the arrival of Europeans?
5a51ced4b308da001a5a23c7
True
Europeans
353
Who only used words that ended in consenants?
5a51ced4b308da001a5a23c8
True
longitudinally
166
What direction was the writing on copper scrolls?
5a51ced4b308da001a5a23c9
True
The antiquity of this form of writing extends before the invention of paper around the year 100 in China. Note each palm leaf section was only several lines, written longitudinally across the leaf, and bound by twine to the other sections. The outer portion was decorated. The alphabets of Southeast Asia tended to be abugidas, until the arrival of the Europeans, who used words that also ended in consonants, not just vowels. Other forms of official documents, which did not use paper, included Javanese copperplate scrolls. This material would have been more durable than paper in the tropical climate of Southeast Asia.
Brigham_Young_University
How many students attend BYU on campus?
572643ee1125e71900ae1914
29,672
381
False
How many of the students are also members of the Latter Day Saints Church?
572643ee1125e71900ae1915
99 percent
422
False
What portion of students are native Utah residents?
572643ee1125e71900ae1916
one-third
484
False
Where is Brigham Young University?
572643ee1125e71900ae1917
Provo, Utah
120
False
How many students currently attend BYU on-campus?
572678ca5951b619008f73ad
29,672
381
False
Where is BYU's main campus?
572678ca5951b619008f73ae
Provo, Utah
120
False
What is BYU's ranking among private universities?
572678ca5951b619008f73af
third
321
False
How many of BYU's students are native Utah residents?
572678ca5951b619008f73b0
one-third
484
False
What percentage of BYU students are from Utah?
572823673acd2414000df573
one-third
484
False
What percentage of BYU students are members of the LDS Church?
572823673acd2414000df574
Approximately 99 percent
408
False
How is BYU's size ranked among all private university's in the U.S.?
572823673acd2414000df575
the third largest
317
False
What does LDS stand for?
572823673acd2414000df576
The Church of Jesus Christ of Latter-day Saints
176
False
Who owns and operates Brigham University?
572823673acd2414000df577
The Church of Jesus Christ of Latter-day Saints
176
False
Brigham Young University
0
What university is known as BUY?
5ace925632bba1001ae4aa75
True
The Church of Jesus Christ of Latter-day Saints
176
What church is abbreviated LSD?
5ace925632bba1001ae4aa76
True
on-campus students
388
What does BYU have 29,762 of?
5ace925632bba1001ae4aa77
True
Brigham Young University
0
What is the largest private university in the United States?
5ace925632bba1001ae4aa78
True
Brigham Young University
0
What is the third largest religious university in the United States?
5ace925632bba1001ae4aa79
True
Brigham Young University (often referred to as BYU or, colloquially, The Y) is a private research university located in Provo, Utah, United States. It is owned and operated by The Church of Jesus Christ of Latter-day Saints (LDS Church), and, excluding online students, is the largest of any religious university and the third largest private university in the United States, with 29,672 on-campus students. Approximately 99 percent of the students are members of the LDS Church, and one-third of its US students are from Utah.
For what reason to many student's postpone their enrollment to BYU?
57264abedd62a815002e8096
to serve as Mormon missionaries
380
False
What is the source of much of BYU's funding?
57264abedd62a815002e8097
the church's tithing funds
651
False
How many women at BYU do missionary work?
57264abedd62a815002e8098
33 percent
299
False
What is the average amount of time men serve as missionaries?
57264abedd62a815002e8099
two-years
438
False
What is the basis of the behavioral code at BYU?
57264abedd62a815002e809a
LDS teachings
98
False
What is a significant portion of the BYU's operating costs subsidized by?
5728248dff5b5019007d9df0
the church's tithing funds
651
False
What percentage of men delay their BYU enrollment to serve as a Mormon missionary?
5728248dff5b5019007d9df1
88
280
False
What percentage of women delay their BYU enrollment to serve as a Mormon missionary?
5728248dff5b5019007d9df2
33
299
False
How does the cost of attending BYU compare to the cost of attending similar universities?
5728248dff5b5019007d9df3
less expensive
511
False
What do all students at BYU agree to abstain from consuming?
5728248dff5b5019007d9df4
drugs and alcohol
246
False
either delay enrollment or take a hiatus from their studies to serve as Mormon missionaries.
320
What do 33% of male students do?
5ace938b32bba1001ae4aaa3
True
either delay enrollment or take a hiatus from their studies to serve as Mormon missionaries
320
What do 88% of female students do?
5ace938b32bba1001ae4aaa4
True
serve as Mormon missionaries
383
What do men typically spend 18 months doing?
5ace938b32bba1001ae4aaa5
True
serve as Mormon missionaries
383
What do women typically spend 24 months doing?
5ace938b32bba1001ae4aaa6
True
less expensive than at similar private universities
511
What do subsidized funds do to the cost of an education at BYU?
5ace938b32bba1001ae4aaa7
True
Students attending BYU are required to follow an honor code, which mandates behavior in line with LDS teachings such as academic honesty, adherence to dress and grooming standards, and abstinence from extramarital sex and from the consumption of drugs and alcohol. Many students (88 percent of men, 33 percent of women) either delay enrollment or take a hiatus from their studies to serve as Mormon missionaries. (Men typically serve for two-years, while women serve for 18 months.) An education at BYU is also less expensive than at similar private universities, since "a significant portion" of the cost of operating the university is subsidized by the church's tithing funds.
What is BYU's main focal point?
572654245951b619008f6fd3
undergraduate education
544
False
What foreign city holds a branch campus of BYU?
572654245951b619008f6fd4
Jerusalem
357
False
What institution controls BYU?
572654245951b619008f6fd5
Church Educational System
429
False
Where are BYU's sibling schools located?
572654245951b619008f6fd6
Hawaii and Idaho
489
False
How many master's programs does BYU have?
5728253a2ca10214002d9ef4
68
585
False
How many colleges make up BYU at its main campus?
5728253a2ca10214002d9ef5
11
169
False
How many satellite campuses are run by BYU?
5728253a2ca10214002d9ef6
two
326
False
What is BYU's parent organization?
5728253a2ca10214002d9ef7
the Church Educational System (CES)
425
False
Where does CES sponsor BYU's sister schools?
5728253a2ca10214002d9ef8
Hawaii and Idaho
489
False
satellite campuses
330
What are the Jerusalem and Provo campuses known as?
5ace948332bba1001ae4aad3
True
sister schools
471
What are the schools in Hawaii and Salt Lake City known as?
5ace948332bba1001ae4aad4
True
Church Educational System
429
Who sponsors the schools in Hawaii and Salt Lake City?
5ace948332bba1001ae4aad5
True
Church Educational System
429
What does CSE stand for?
5ace948332bba1001ae4aad6
True
BYU offers programs in liberal arts, engineering, agriculture, management, physical and mathematical sciences, nursing and law. The university is broadly organized into 11 colleges or schools at its main Provo campus, with certain colleges and divisions defining their own admission standards. The university also administers two satellite campuses, one in Jerusalem and one in Salt Lake City, while its parent organization, the Church Educational System (CES), sponsors sister schools in Hawaii and Idaho. The university's primary focus is on undergraduate education, but it also has 68 master's and 25 doctoral degree programs.
When was the first property for what would become BYU acquired?
572656badd62a815002e81f2
October 16, 1875
240
False
Who was responsible for acquiring BYU's first building?
572656badd62a815002e81f3
Brigham Young
258
False
Where was Brigham  Young's school originally believed to be located?
572656badd62a815002e81f4
Draper, Utah
404
False
Who began the school that previously existed at the site where BYU is now located?
572656badd62a815002e81f5
Warren Dusenberry
78
False
What year can BYU's origin be traced to with a building called Cluff Hall?
572826ce2ca10214002d9f40
1862
56
False
Which president of the LDS church purchased the Lewis Building after hinting at the building of a school?
572826ce2ca10214002d9f41
Brigham Young
258
False
What type of influences did Brigham Young hope to avoid with BYU?
572826ce2ca10214002d9f42
atheistic
674
False
What is the commonly held founding year of BYU?
572826ce2ca10214002d9f43
1867
420
False
Who did Brigham Young hope to educate via BYU?
572826ce2ca10214002d9f44
children of the Latter-day Saints
583
False
Brigham Young University's origin
0
What can be traced back to 1826?
5ace95ac32bba1001ae4ab09
True
Cluff Hall
156
What building did Dusenberry Warren start a school in?
5ace95ac32bba1001ae4ab0a
True
Brigham Young
258
Who was the president of the LSD Church?
5ace95ac32bba1001ae4ab0b
True
BYU's founding date
470
What is October 16, 1857 known as?
5ace95ac32bba1001ae4ab0c
True
the Lewis Building
328
What did Brigham Young purchase on October 16, 1857?
5ace95ac32bba1001ae4ab0d
True
Brigham Young University's origin can be traced back to 1862 when a man named Warren Dusenberry started a Provo school in a prominent adobe building called Cluff Hall, which was located in the northeast corner of 200 East and 200 North. On October 16, 1875, Brigham Young, then president of the LDS Church, personally purchased the Lewis Building after previously hinting that a school would be built in Draper, Utah in 1867. Hence, October 16, 1875 is commonly held as BYU's founding date. Said Young about his vision: "I hope to see an Academy established in Provo... at which the children of the Latter-day Saints can receive a good education unmixed with the pernicious atheistic influences that are found in so many of the higher schools of the country."
What college did BYU separate from to become its own entity?
57265810708984140094c32d
University of Deseret
30
False
When did BYU first open its doors to students?
57265810708984140094c32e
January 3, 1876
113
False
Who was the head of the school for its first few months?
57265810708984140094c32f
Warren Dusenberry
130
False
When did the Latter Day Saints Church acknowledge and begin to support BYU?
57265810708984140094c330
July 18, 1896
768
False
Who is responsible for proposing BYU's current name?
57265810708984140094c331
Benjamin Cluff, Jr
552
False
Which school did Brigham Young Acadamy, now BYU,  break off from in 1876?
5728807d3acd2414000dfa5b
University of Deseret
30
False
Who was the first Brigham Young Acadamy, now BYU,  principal chosen by Brigham Young?
5728807d3acd2414000dfa5c
Karl Maeser
301
False
What did Brigham Young Acadamy become at the end of Benjamin Cluff Jr's term at the helm?
5728807d3acd2414000dfa5d
a university
522
False
Who was BYU supported by before being sponsored by the LDS Church?
5728807d3acd2414000dfa5e
members of the community
673
False
What did Board opponent Anthon H. Lund say after Brigham voted to change their name to a University?
5728807d3acd2414000dfa5f
"I hope their head will grow big enough for their hat."
1206
False
classes commencing
91
What happened on January 3, 1867?
5ace973832bba1001ae4ab5b
True
Warren Dusenberry
130
Who served as interim principal until January 1876?
5ace973832bba1001ae4ab5c
True
Brigham Young's choice for principal arrived
231
Who was Maeser Karl?
5ace973832bba1001ae4ab5d
True
July 18, 1896
768
When did the school become officially sponsored by the DLS Church?
5ace973832bba1001ae4ab5e
True
Anthon H. Lund
1178
Who opposed the named "Brigham Young College?"
5ace973832bba1001ae4ab5f
True
The school broke off from the University of Deseret and became Brigham Young Academy, with classes commencing on January 3, 1876. Warren Dusenberry served as interim principal of the school for several months until April 1876 when Brigham Young's choice for principal arrived—a German immigrant named Karl Maeser. Under Maeser's direction the school educated many luminaries including future U.S. Supreme Court Justice George Sutherland and future U.S. Senator Reed Smoot among others. The school, however, did not become a university until the end of Benjamin Cluff, Jr's term at the helm of the institution. At that time, the school was also still privately supported by members of the community and was not absorbed and sponsored officially by the LDS Church until July 18, 1896. A series of odd managerial decisions by Cluff led to his demotion; however, in his last official act, he proposed to the Board that the Academy be named "Brigham Young University". The suggestion received a large amount of opposition, with many members of the Board saying that the school wasn't large enough to be a university, but the decision ultimately passed. One opponent to the decision, Anthon H. Lund, later said, "I hope their head will grow big enough for their hat."
In what year was Brigham Young Academy split into two separate schools?
57266d61f1498d1400e8df66
1903
3
False
What was the name of the land purchased by BYU in 1904?
57266d61f1498d1400e8df67
Temple Hill
583
False
How old was George H. Brimhall when he completed High School?
57266d61f1498d1400e8df68
forty
407
False
What topic was excluded from being taught at BYU?
57266d61f1498d1400e8df69
evolution
1052
False
Who was chosen to head BYU?
57266d61f1498d1400e8df6a
George H. Brimhall
302
False
In 1903, which two institutions was Brigham Young Univesity replaced with?
572882433acd2414000dfa65
Brigham Young High School, and Brigham Young University
84
False
Who we responsible for the giant "Y" that is embedded on a mountain near the campus?
572882433acd2414000dfa66
BY High School class of 1907
146
False
At what age did BYU's elected president in 1904, George H. Brimhall, receive his high school education?
572882433acd2414000dfa67
forty
407
False
What brief crisis rose in the school at the time of Brimhall's presidency that caused the crises' theory to not be taught for a time?
572882433acd2414000dfa68
the theory of evolution
847
False
What property was George Brimhall responsible for purchasing for the campus?
572882433acd2414000dfa69
Temple Hill
583
False
Brigham Young Academy
9
What was dissolved in 1907?
5ace993a32bba1001ae4ac15
True
new President of BYU
328
What was George B. Hrimhall elected as?
5ace993a32bba1001ae4ac16
True
"Temple Hill".
582
What were the 96,000m2 of land purchased by BYU called?
5ace993a32bba1001ae4ac17
True
by asking that evolution not be taught at the school.
1037
How did Joseph F. Maeser solve the theory of evolution crisis?
5ace993a32bba1001ae4ac18
True
George H. Brimhall
302
Who was forty when he completed university?
5ace993a32bba1001ae4ac19
True
In 1903, Brigham Young Academy was dissolved, and was replaced by two institutions: Brigham Young High School, and Brigham Young University. (The BY High School class of 1907 was ultimately responsible for the famous giant "Y" that is to this day embedded on a mountain near campus.) The Board elected George H. Brimhall as the new President of BYU. He had not received a high school education until he was forty. Nevertheless, he was an excellent orator and organizer. Under his tenure in 1904 the new Brigham Young University bought 17 acres (69,000 m2) of land from Provo called "Temple Hill". After some controversy among locals over BYU's purchase of this property, construction began in 1909 on the first building on the current campus, the Karl G. Maeser Memorial. Brimhall also presided over the University during a brief crisis involving the theory of evolution. The religious nature of the school seemed at the time to collide with this scientific theory. Joseph F. Smith, LDS Church president, settled the question for a time by asking that evolution not be taught at the school. A few have described the school at this time as nothing more than a "religious seminary". However, many of its graduates at this time would go on to great success and become well renowned in their fields.
What sort of credentials did Franklin S. Harris have?
57266f33708984140094c5d9
doctoral degree
110
False
Who was responsible for getting BYU acknowledged as an official university?
57266f33708984140094c5da
Franklin S. Harris
0
False
What was purchased to accommodate more students?
57266f33708984140094c5db
an Air Force Base
946
False
Which president was responsible for the most amount of growth to the campus?
57266f33708984140094c5dc
Ernest L. Wilkinson
1045
False
How much did the student body expand under Howard S. McDonald?
57266f33708984140094c5dd
nearly five times
797
False
What type of degree did BYU's appointed president of 1921, Franklin S. Harris have that no former BYU president had?
5728840f4b864d1900164a64
doctoral
110
False
Which BYU president was responsible for BYU becoming fully accredited under all major organizations?
5728840f4b864d1900164a65
Franklin S. Harris
0
False
What event prompted BYU Pres. Howard S. MacDonald to purchase a portion of an Air Force Base to house a sudden influx of students?
5728840f4b864d1900164a66
the Second World War had just ended
665
False
How much did the studen body of BYU increase under the term of Pres. Ernest L. Wilkinson to become the largest private school at the time?
5728840f4b864d1900164a67
six times
1319
False
How many new LDS Church wards were added during Wilkinson's presidency?
5728840f4b864d1900164a68
over 100
1563
False
Franklin S. Harris
0
Who was appointed president in 1912?
5ace9a4432bba1001ae4ac57
True
Howard S. McDonald
546
Who saw enrollment of 4540 students at the end of his stay?
5ace9a4432bba1001ae4ac58
True
Ernest L. Wilkinson
1045
Who followed Howard S. Harris as president?
5ace9a4432bba1001ae4ac59
True
Wilkinson
1489
Who reorganized the LSD Church units on campus?
5ace9a4432bba1001ae4ac5a
True
Franklin S. Harris was appointed the university's president in 1921. He was the first BYU president to have a doctoral degree. Harris made several important changes to the school, reorganizing it into a true university, whereas before, its organization had remnants of the Academy days. At the beginning of his tenure, the school was not officially recognized as a university by any accreditation organization. By the end of his term, the school was accredited under all major accrediting organizations at the time. He was eventually replaced by Howard S. McDonald, who received his doctorate from the University of California. When he first received the position, the Second World War had just ended, and thousands of students were flooding into BYU. By the end of his stay, the school had grown nearly five times to an enrollment of 5,440 students. The university did not have the facilities to handle such a large influx, so he bought part of an Air Force Base in Ogden, Utah and rebuilt it to house some of the students. The next president, Ernest L. Wilkinson, also oversaw a period of intense growth, as the school adopted an accelerated building program. Wilkinson was responsible for the building of over eighty structures on the campus, many of which still stand. During his tenure, the student body increased six times, making BYU the largest private school at the time. The quality of the students also increased, leading to higher educational standards at the school. Finally, Wilkinson reorganized the LDS Church units on campus, with ten stakes and over 100 wards being added during his administration.
Who was responsible for the BYU's first campus outside of the U.S.?
5726712af1498d1400e8dfbe
Jeffrey R. Holland
272
False
Which BYU president suffered from a terminal illness?
5726712af1498d1400e8dfbf
Rex E. Lee
698
False
Who succeeded Rex E. Lee?
5726712af1498d1400e8dfc0
Merrill J. Bateman
953
False
Who is responsible for the university's expansion into law and management schools?
5726712af1498d1400e8dfc1
Dallin H. Oaks
0
False
What did Jeffrey R. Holland believe to be BYU's strongest asset?
5726712af1498d1400e8dfc2
its religious nature
473
False
Which new BYU school was added under Pres. Dallin H. Oaks in 1971?
57288582ff5b5019007da2aa
law
114
False
In which foreign country did Jeffrey R. Holland open a BYU campus during his presidency?
57288582ff5b5019007da2ab
Jerusalem
617
False
What annual event at BYU is carried out in memory of former president Rex E. Lee, who built the Museum of Art on campus?
57288582ff5b5019007da2ac
cancer fundraiser called the Rex Lee Run
857
False
What was believed to be one of the schools greatest strengths by Pres. Jeffrey R. Holland?
57288582ff5b5019007da2ad
its religious nature
473
False
What is the name of the BYU campus in Jerusulem?
57288582ff5b5019007da2ae
BYU Jerusalem Center
643
False
Dallin H. Oaks
0
Who replaced Wilkinson as president in 1980?
5ace9afb32bba1001ae4ac99
True
Jeffrey R. Holland
272
Who followed Dallin H. Oaks as president in 1971?
5ace9afb32bba1001ae4ac9a
True
Jerusalem
617
Where is the BUY Jerusalem Center located?
5ace9afb32bba1001ae4ac9b
True
Rex E. Lee
698
Who replaced Holland in 1995?
5ace9afb32bba1001ae4ac9c
True
Merrill J. Bateman
953
Who replaced Lee in 1989?
5ace9afb32bba1001ae4ac9d
True
Dallin H. Oaks replaced Wilkinson as president in 1971. Oaks continued the expansion of his predecessor, adding a law school and proposing plans for a new School of Management. During his administration, a new library was also added, doubling the library space on campus. Jeffrey R. Holland followed as president in 1980, encouraging a combination of educational excellence and religious faith at the university. He believed that one of the school's greatest strengths was its religious nature and that this should be taken advantage of rather than hidden. During his administration, the university added a campus in Jerusalem, now called the BYU Jerusalem Center. In 1989, Holland was replaced by Rex E. Lee. Lee was responsible for the Benson Science Building and the Museum of Art on campus. A cancer victim, Lee is memorialized annually at BYU during a cancer fundraiser called the Rex Lee Run. Shortly before his death, Lee was replaced in 1995 by Merrill J. Bateman.
What infamous event occurred during Bateman's term as president?
5726763c708984140094c6e5
the September 11th attacks
475
False
What was the name of the event the athletic program was involved with prior to the Mountain West Conference?
5726763c708984140094c6e6
the Western Athletic Conference
339
False
In what year did the school begin a BYU television network?
5726763c708984140094c6e7
2000
414
False
Who replaced Bateman's successor?
5726763c708984140094c6e8
Kevin J Worthen
783
False
What type of BYU TV network opened in 2000 under Pres. Merrill J. Bateman?
572886d43acd2414000dfa9f
satellite
378
False
What did Pres. Bateman replace a scheduled devotial to do following the Sept. 11th, 2001 attacks?
572886d43acd2414000dfaa0
led the student body in a prayer for peace
660
False
What library was Pres. Bateman responsible for expanding?
572886d43acd2414000dfaa1
Harold B. Lee Library
135
False
What did BYU's athletic program join under Pres. Bateman?
572886d43acd2414000dfaa2
the Mountain West Conference
239
False
Which did BYU's athletic program belong to before joining the Mountain West Conference?
572886d43acd2414000dfaa3
the Western Athletic Conference
339
False
Bateman
0
Who was responsible for building 63 new buildings for the university?
5ace9d8732bba1001ae4ad07
True
Bateman
0
Who was one of the leaders who brought about the creation of the West Mountain Conference?
5ace9d8732bba1001ae4ad08
True
BYU's athletics program
275
What program joined the West Mountain Conference?
5ace9d8732bba1001ae4ad09
True
satellite
378
What type of TV network opened in 2001?
5ace9d8732bba1001ae4ad0a
True
Cecil O. Samuelson
728
Who immediately followed Bateman in 2014?
5ace9d8732bba1001ae4ad0b
True
Bateman was responsible for the building of 36 new buildings for the university both on and off campus, including the expansion of the Harold B. Lee Library. He was also one of several key college leaders who brought about the creation of the Mountain West Conference, which BYU's athletics program joined — BYU previously participated in the Western Athletic Conference. A BYU satellite TV network also opened in 2000 under his leadership. Bateman was also president during the September 11th attacks in 2001. The planes crashed on a Tuesday, hours before the weekly devotional normally held at BYU. Previous plans for the devotional were altered, as Bateman led the student body in a prayer for peace. Bateman was followed by Cecil O. Samuelson in 2003. Samuelson was succeeded by Kevin J Worthen in 2014.
What percentage of applicants did BYU accept for it's summer term and fall semester in 2013?
5728887dff5b5019007da2b4
49
13
False
What was the average GPA for the accepted students in 2013?
5728887dff5b5019007da2b5
3.82
165
False
What percentage of accepted BYU students went on to enroll in 2010?
5728887dff5b5019007da2b6
78
542
False
What is BYU's ranking in colleges with the most freshman Merit Scholars?
5728887dff5b5019007da2b7
26th
386
False
How many freshman at BYU were Merit Scholars in 2006?
5728887dff5b5019007da2b8
88
447
False
BYU
0
What school accepted 49% of the 11,324 people who applied in 2013?
5ace9ee632bba1001ae4ad6b
True
The average GPA for these admitted
117
What was 3.28 in 2013?
5ace9ee632bba1001ae4ad6c
True
colleges with the most freshman Merit Scholars
394
What is BYU ranked 88th in?
5ace9ee632bba1001ae4ad6d
True
freshman Merit Scholars
417
What did BYU have 28 of in 2006?
5ace9ee632bba1001ae4ad6e
True
BYU accepted 49 percent of the 11,423 people who applied for admission in the summer term and fall semester of 2013. The average GPA for these admitted students was 3.82. U.S. News and World Report describes BYU's selectivity as being "more selective" and compares it with such universities as the University of Texas at Austin and The Ohio State University. In addition, BYU is ranked 26th in colleges with the most freshman Merit Scholars, with 88 in 2006. BYU has one of the highest percentage of accepted applicants that go on to enroll (78 percent in 2010).
Who ranked BYU as the best college in Utah?
572889ae3acd2414000dfab3
Forbes Magazine
1064
False
Who designated BYU as having high research activity?
572889ae3acd2414000dfab4
Carnegie Foundation for the Advancement of Teaching
1009
False
Who ranked BYU the vest value for college in 2007?
572889ae3acd2414000dfab5
The Princeton Review
265
False
Where was BYU  ranked No. 12 in schools with the lowest student-incurred debt?
572889ae3acd2414000dfab6
U.S. News and World Report's "Great Schools, Great Prices" lineup
468
False
In 2008-2009, how was BYU ranked nationally for the number of students who go on to earn PhDs?
572889ae3acd2414000dfab7
No. 10
685
False
66th
58
Where did BYU rank in 2013 in the U.S. News & World Report rankings?
5ace9fdd32bba1001ae4ada3
True
No. 21
230
Where did BYU rank in 2016 in the Quarterly Journal of Economics study?
5ace9fdd32bba1001ae4ada4
True
the best
301
Where did Princeton Review rank BYU in 2004 for best value for college?
5ace9fdd32bba1001ae4ada5
True
No. 10
685
Where was BYU ranked in 2014 for number of students who go on to earn PhDs?
5ace9fdd32bba1001ae4ada6
True
No. 1 nationally
754
Where was BYU ranked in 2014 for students who go on to dental school?
5ace9fdd32bba1001ae4ada7
True
For 2016, U.S. News & World Report ranked BYU as tied for 66th for national universities in the United States. A 2013 Quarterly Journal of Economics study of where the nation's top high school students choose to enroll ranked BYU No. 21 in its peer-reviewed study. The Princeton Review has ranked BYU the best value for college in 2007, and its library is consistently ranked in the nation's top ten — No. 1 in 2004 and No. 4 in 2007. BYU is also ranked No. 19 in the U.S. News and World Report's "Great Schools, Great Prices" lineup, and No. 12 in lowest student-incurred debt. Due in part to the school's emphasis on undergraduate research, in rankings for 2008-2009, BYU was ranked No. 10 nationally for the number of students who go on to earn PhDs, No. 1 nationally for students who go on to dental school, No. 6 nationally for students who go on to law school, and No. 10 nationally for students who go on to medical school. BYU is designated as a research university with high research activity by the Carnegie Foundation for the Advancement of Teaching.]] Forbes Magazine ranked it as the No. 1 "Top University to Work For in 2014" and as the best college in Utah.
Who ranked BYU's Marriott School of Mangement as No. 5 for it's undergrad programs in 2009?
57288b974b864d1900164a8c
BusinessWeek
84
False
Who ranked BYU's MBA program No. 1 among regional schools in 2007?
57288b974b864d1900164a8d
The Wall Street Journal
329
False
Using 2010 data, how was BYU ranked as a university creating the most startup companies through campus research?
57288b974b864d1900164a8e
No. 3
1037
False
Who ranked BYU as No. 11 of institutions whose grads were top-rated by recruiters in a 2010 article?
57288b974b864d1900164a8f
Wall Street Journal
838
False
How did Financial Times rank BYU among business schools worldwide in 2009?
57288b974b864d1900164a90
No. 92
401
False
No. 5
67
What ranking did the Marriott School of Management receive in 2010 by BusinessWeek?
5acea1d532bba1001ae4ae07
True
No. 3
1037
Where did the Association of University Technology Managers rank BYU in 2010?
5acea1d532bba1001ae4ae08
True
Public Accounting Report and the other by U.S. News & World Report
628
Who ranked the school's MAcc program No. 8 and No. 3 respectively?
5acea1d532bba1001ae4ae09
True
two No. 3 rankings
572
What rankings for 2010 did the School of Accountancy receive?
5acea1d532bba1001ae4ae0a
True
In 2009, the university's Marriott School of Management received a No. 5 ranking by BusinessWeek for its undergraduate programs, and its MBA program was ranked by several sources: No. 22 ranking by BusinessWeek, No. 16 by Forbes, and No. 29 by U.S. News & World Report. Among regional schools the MBA program was ranked No. 1 by The Wall Street Journal's most recent ranking (2007), and it was ranked No. 92 among business schools worldwide in 2009 by Financial Times. For 2009, the university's School of Accountancy, which is housed within the Marriott School, received two No. 3 rankings for its undergraduate program—one by Public Accounting Report and the other by U.S. News & World Report. The same two reporting agencies also ranked the school's MAcc program No. 3 and No. 8 in the nation, respectively. In 2010, an article in the Wall Street Journal listing institutions whose graduates were the top-rated by recruiters ranked BYU No. 11. Using 2010 fiscal year data, the Association of University Technology Managers ranked BYU No. 3 in an evaluation of universities creating the most startup companies through campus research.
Which BYU college was founded by former alumnus Harvey Fletcher?
57288d3b3acd2414000dfae3
College of Engineering
442
False
What did alumnus Philo T. Farnsworth invent before receiving his honorary degree from the college?
57288d3b3acd2414000dfae4
the electronic television
102
False
Which notable former BYU student invented the man-made diamond?
57288d3b3acd2414000dfae5
Tracy Hall
469
False
What did former student Tracy Hall invent as a BYU professor of chemistry and Director of Research?
57288d3b3acd2414000dfae6
a new type of diamond press, the tetrahedral press
644
False
Which BYU student produced algorithm is found in Adobe Photoshop?
57288d3b3acd2414000dfae7
Magnetic Lasso
833
False
electronic television
106
What did Philo T. Fletcher invent?
5acea46832bba1001ae4aead
True
stereophonic sound
305
What did Harvey Farnsworth invent?
5acea46832bba1001ae4aeae
True
Robert Millikan
386
Who did Harvey Farnsworth carry out the oil-drop experiment with?
5acea46832bba1001ae4aeaf
True
the man-made diamond
493
What did Tracy H. Hall invent?
5acea46832bba1001ae4aeb0
True
the tetrahedral press
673
What type of press did Tracy H. Hall invent?
5acea46832bba1001ae4aeb1
True
Scientists associated with BYU have created some notable inventions. Philo T. Farnsworth, inventor of the electronic television, received his education at BYU, and later returned to do fusion research, receiving an honorary degree from the university. Harvey Fletcher, also an alumnus of BYU, inventor of stereophonic sound, went on to carry out the now famous oil-drop experiment with Robert Millikan, and was later Founding Dean of the BYU College of Engineering. H. Tracy Hall, inventor of the man-made diamond, left General Electric in 1955 and became a full professor of chemistry and Director of Research at BYU. While there, he invented a new type of diamond press, the tetrahedral press. In student achievements, BYU Ad Lab teams won both the 2007 and 2008 L'Oréal National Brandstorm Competition, and students developed the Magnetic Lasso algorithm found in Adobe Photoshop. In prestigious scholarships, BYU has produced 10 Rhodes Scholars, four Gates Scholars in the last six years, and in the last decade has claimed 41 Fulbright scholars and 3 Jack Kent Cooke scholars.
What percentage of the student body of BYU has some proficiency in a second language?
57288f642ca10214002da46e
Over three quarters
0
False
What can be attributed to BYU's high percentage of second language proficient students?
57288f642ca10214002da46f
45 percent of the student body at BYU has been missionaries for LDS Church
157
False
How many languages are offered as courses at BYU?
57288f642ca10214002da470
over 60
487
False
What designation does BYU's Russian language program hold?
57288f642ca10214002da471
largest of their kind in the nation
619
False
Who chose BYU as the location of the national Middle East Language Resource Center?
57288f642ca10214002da472
United States Department of Education
730
False
been missionaries
199
What have 60% of the student body done for the LDS Church?
5acea68932bba1001ae4aeef
True
a second language
64
Over one-third of the student body has some proficiency in what?
5acea68932bba1001ae4aef0
True
foreign language classes
392
What are three quarters of students enrolled in during any given semester?
5acea68932bba1001ae4aef1
True
foreign language classes
392
What does BYU offer 45 of?
5acea68932bba1001ae4aef2
True
Over three quarters of the student body has some proficiency in a second language (numbering 107 languages in total). This is partially due to the fact that 45 percent of the student body at BYU has been missionaries for LDS Church, and many of them learned a foreign language as part of their mission assignment. During any given semester, about one-third of the student body is enrolled in foreign language classes, a rate nearly four times the national average. BYU offers courses in over 60 different languages, many with advanced courses that are seldom offered elsewhere. Several of its language programs are the largest of their kind in the nation, the Russian program being one example. The university was selected by the United States Department of Education as the location of the national Middle East Language Resource Center, making the school a hub for experts on that region. It was also selected as a Center for International Business Education Research, a function of which is to train business employees in international languages and relations.
How manys students take advantage of BYU's study abroad programs?
572890ab3acd2414000dfb33
Nearly 2,000
155
False
How did the Institute of International Education rank BYU in 2009 compared with U.S. universities that offer study abroad opportunities?
572890ab3acd2414000dfb34
number one
286
False
Which foreign BYU campus was closed in 2000 due to security concerns?
572890ab3acd2414000dfb35
BYU Jerusalem Center
370
False
When was the BYU Jerusalem Center reopened for students following it's closure in 2000?
572890ab3acd2414000dfb36
Winter 2007 semester
567
False
What was the most recent conflict that affected the closure of BYU Jerusalem Center from 2000-2007?
572890ab3acd2414000dfb37
2006 Israel-Lebanon conflict
505
False
satellite centers
67
What does BUY have in London, Jerusalem, and Paris?
5acea84f32bba1001ae4af29
True
Institute of International Education
231
Who ranked BYU number one in study abroad opportunities in 2000?
5acea84f32bba1001ae4af2a
True
BYU Jerusalem Center,
370
What was closed in 2006 because of the Second Intifada?
5acea84f32bba1001ae4af2b
True
The BYU Jerusalem Center
366
What was closed in 2007 because of the Israel-Lebanon conflict?
5acea84f32bba1001ae4af2c
True
Winter
567
In which 2006 semester did BYU Jerusalem reopen to students?
5acea84f32bba1001ae4af2d
True
Beyond this, BYU also runs a very large study abroad program, with satellite centers in London, Jerusalem, and Paris, as well as more than 20 other sites. Nearly 2,000 students take advantage of these programs yearly. In 2001, the Institute of International Education ranked BYU as the number one university in the U.S. to offer students study abroad opportunities. The BYU Jerusalem Center, which was closed in 2000 due to student security concerns related to the Second Intifada and, more recently, the 2006 Israel-Lebanon conflict, was reopened to students in the Winter 2007 semester.
What is the largest and longest-running university-run foreign film program in the U.S.?
572897fe2ca10214002da4a0
BYU's International Cinema
79
False
What is the name of BYU's foreign language living experience?
572897fe2ca10214002da4a1
Foreign Language Student Residence
319
False
As part of the Foreign Language Student Residence program, what do students commit to speak while in their apartments?
572897fe2ca10214002da4a2
only their chosen foreign language
425
False
How many native speakers are in each apartment building in the Foreign Language Student Residence program?
572897fe2ca10214002da4a3
at least one
506
False
Which BYU building features films in several languages?
572897fe2ca10214002da4a4
International Cinema
85
False
university-run foreign film program
180
What does BUY have that is the longest in the country?
5acea8f832bba1001ae4af47
True
Foreign Language Student Residence
319
What type of residence is offered at BUY?
5acea8f832bba1001ae4af48
True
International Cinema
85
What is the name of BUY's film program facility?
5acea8f832bba1001ae4af49
True
A few special additions enhance the language-learning experience. For example, BYU's International Cinema, featuring films in several languages, is the largest and longest-running university-run foreign film program in the country. As already noted, BYU also offers an intensive foreign language living experience, the Foreign Language Student Residence. This is an on-campus apartment complex where students commit to speak only their chosen foreign language while in their apartments. Each apartment has at least one native speaker to ensure correct language usage.
In what year did BYU draft a new Statement on Academic Freedom?
57289a652ca10214002da4aa
1992
3
False
The new Statement on Academic Freedom allows students to analyze and discuss Church doctrine but does not allow student expressions that do what?
57289a652ca10214002da4ab
contradicts or opposes
165
False
What cannot be violated because the expression is dishonest according to the new Statement on Academic Freedom?
57289a652ca10214002da4ac
Honor Code
354
False
How many professors have been disciplined according to the new Statement on Academic Freedom?
57289a652ca10214002da4ad
several
517
False
Who claimed that infringements on academic freedom are distressingly common and that the climate for academic freedom is distressingly por?
57289a652ca10214002da4ae
The American Association of University Professors
585
False
a new Statement on Academic Freedom,
32
What did the university draft in 1929?
5aceaf7932bba1001ae4b04f
True
"infringements on academic freedom are distressingly common and that the climate for academic freedom is distressingly poor."
652
What did the Association of American University Professors claim?
5aceaf7932bba1001ae4b050
True
BYU's accreditation
810
What did the new rules have an effect on?
5aceaf7932bba1001ae4b051
True
AAUP
1076
What organization was Jim Gordon the president of?
5aceaf7932bba1001ae4b052
True
American Association of University Professors
589
What does AUAP stand for?
5aceaf7932bba1001ae4b053
True
In 1992, the university drafted a new Statement on Academic Freedom, specifying that limitations may be placed upon "expression with students or in public that: (1) contradicts or opposes, rather than analyzes or discusses, fundamental Church doctrine or policy; (2) deliberately attacks or derides the Church or its general leaders; or (3) violates the Honor Code because the expression is dishonest, illegal, unchaste, profane, or unduly disrespectful of others." These restrictions have caused some controversy as several professors have been disciplined according to the new rule. The American Association of University Professors has claimed that "infringements on academic freedom are distressingly common and that the climate for academic freedom is distressingly poor." The new rules have not affected BYU's accreditation, as the university's chosen accrediting body allows "religious colleges and universities to place limitations on academic freedom so long as they publish those limitations candidly", according to associate academic vice president Jim Gordon. The AAUP's concern was not with restrictions on the faculty member's religious expression but with a failure, as alleged by the faculty member and AAUP, that the restrictions had not been adequately specified in advance by BYU: "The AAUP requires that any doctrinal limitations on academic freedom be laid out clearly in writing. We [AAUP] concluded that BYU had failed to do so adequately."
Which system is BYU part of?
57289b73ff5b5019007da326
Church Educational System of LDS Church
42
False
Who acts as chairman of BYU?
57289b73ff5b5019007da327
President of the Church (currently Thomas S. Monson)
135
False
What board do the members of the BYU Board of Trustees also belong to?
57289b73ff5b5019007da328
Church Board of Education
247
False
When did BYU have a separate board of trustees?
57289b73ff5b5019007da329
Prior to 1939
319
False
How does the President of BYU report to the Board?
57289b73ff5b5019007da32a
through the Commissioner of Education
497
False
Brigham Young University
0
What is part of the LSD Church?
5aceb10a32bba1001ae4b077
True
Thomas S. Monson
170
Who is currently the chairman of the church?
5aceb10a32bba1001ae4b078
True
board of trustees
353
What did Brigham Young have a separate one of after 1939?
5aceb10a32bba1001ae4b079
True
President of BYU
430
What position does Keven J Monson hold?
5aceb10a32bba1001ae4b07a
True
Brigham Young University is a part of the Church Educational System of LDS Church. It is organized under a Board of Trustees, with the President of the Church (currently Thomas S. Monson) as chairman. This board consists of the same people as the Church Board of Education, a pattern that has been in place since 1939. Prior to 1939, BYU had a separate board of trustees that was subordinate to the Church Board of Education. The President of BYU, currently Kevin J Worthen, reports to the Board, through the Commissioner of Education.
Why does BYU's Winter semester end earlier than most colleges?
57289c54ff5b5019007da33a
there is no Spring break
520
False
How many semesters is a typical BYU year broken up into?
57289c54ff5b5019007da33b
two
670
False
How many shorter terms does BYU have during the summer?
57289c54ff5b5019007da33c
two
750
False
What type of Doctor Program is offered at BYU?
57289c54ff5b5019007da33d
Juris
163
False
What allows BYU students to pursue summer internships earlier than most college students?
57289c54ff5b5019007da33e
Winter semester ends earlier than most universities
453
False
11 colleges or schools
30
How many schools collectively offer 68 PhD programs?
5aceb25132bba1001ae4b093
True
April
508
When is spring break for Brigham Young University?
5aceb25132bba1001ae4b094
True
Fall (September–December) and Winter (January–April), as well as two shorter terms during the summer months: Spring (May–June) and Summer (July–August)
685
What four semesters is the academic year broken up into?
5aceb25132bba1001ae4b095
True
The university operates under 11 colleges or schools, which collectively offer 194 bachelor's degree programs, 68 master's degree programs, 25 PhD programs, and a Juris Doctor program. BYU also manages some courses and majors through the David M. Kennedy Center for International Studies and "miscellaneous" college departments, including Undergraduate Education, Graduate Studies, Independent Study, Continuing Education, and the Honors Program. BYU's Winter semester ends earlier than most universities in April since there is no Spring break, thus allowing students to pursue internships and other summer activities earlier. A typical academic year is broken up into two semesters: Fall (September–December) and Winter (January–April), as well as two shorter terms during the summer months: Spring (May–June) and Summer (July–August).
How many buildings are on BYU's main campus?
57289cf93acd2414000dfb61
295
146
False
How many acres are included in BYU's main campus?
57289cf93acd2414000dfb62
approximately 560
54
False
Where is BYU's main campus located?
57289cf93acd2414000dfb63
Provo, Utah
19
False
How many miles of shelving are in BYU's Harold B. Lee Library?
57289cf93acd2414000dfb64
98
651
False
Which BYU building is the tallest in Provost, Utah?
57289cf93acd2414000dfb65
Spencer W. Kimball Tower
713
False
The main campus
0
What sits on 295 acres in Provo, Utah?
5aceb36332bba1001ae4b0c5
True
The main campus in Provo, Utah
0
What is nestled at the base of the Timpanogos Mountains?
5aceb36332bba1001ae4b0c6
True
Harold B. Lee Library
461
What is known as the HLLB?
5aceb36332bba1001ae4b0c7
True
Spencer W. Kimball Tower
713
What does SKWT stand for?
5aceb36332bba1001ae4b0c8
True
Spencer W. Kimball Tower
713
What is the tallest building in Utah?
5aceb36332bba1001ae4b0c9
True
The main campus in Provo, Utah, United States sits on approximately 560 acres (2.3 km2) nestled at the base of the Wasatch Mountains and includes 295 buildings. The buildings feature a wide variety of architectural styles, each building being built in the style of its time. The grass, trees, and flower beds on BYU's campus are impeccably maintained. Furthermore, views of the Wasatch Mountains, (including Mount Timpanogos) can be seen from the campus. BYU's Harold B. Lee Library (also known as "HBLL"), which The Princeton Review ranked as the No. 1 "Great College Library" in 2004, has approximately 8½ million items in its collections, contains 98 miles (158 km) of shelving, and can seat 4,600 people. The Spencer W. Kimball Tower, shortened to SWKT and pronounced Swicket by many students, is home to several of the university's departments and programs and is the tallest building in Provo, Utah. Furthermore, BYU's Marriott Center, used as a basketball arena, can seat over 22,000 and is one of the largest on-campus arenas in the nation. Interestingly absent on the campus of this church owned university is a campus chapel. Notwithstanding, each Sunday LDS Church services for students are conducted on campus, but due to the large number of students attending these services, nearly all of the buildings and possible meeting spaces on campus are utilized (in addition, many students attend services off campus in LDS chapels in the surrounding communities).
Which BYU building is one of the most attended art museus in the Mountain West?
57289dff2ca10214002da4c8
Museum of Art
101
False
How many photographs are in BYU's Museum of Peoples and Cultures?
57289dff2ca10214002da4c9
50,000
636
False
Who found many of the fossils displayed in BYU's Museum of Paleontology?
57289dff2ca10214002da4ca
BYU's Dr. James A. Jensen
786
False
From which period does BYU Museum of Paleontology hold many artifacts from?
57289dff2ca10214002da4cb
Jurassic Period (210-140 million years ago)
846
False
How many visitors does BYU Museum of Paleontology receive each year?
57289dff2ca10214002da4cc
about 25,000
1079
False
BYU's Museum of Art
95
What is home to more than 50,000 artifacts?
5aceb65032bba1001ae4b121
True
BYU's Museum of Art
95
What is home to 40,000 photographs?
5aceb65032bba1001ae4b122
True
BYU Museum of Paleontology
704
What was built in 1967?
5aceb65032bba1001ae4b123
True
Monte L. Bean Life Science Museum
1117
What was formed in 1987?
5aceb65032bba1001ae4b124
True
fossils
946
What did Dr. James A. Bean find many of?
5aceb65032bba1001ae4b125
True
The campus is home to several museums containing exhibits from many different fields of study. BYU's Museum of Art, for example, is one of the largest and most attended art museums in the Mountain West. This Museum aids in academic pursuits of students at BYU via research and study of the artworks in its collection. The Museum is also open to the general public and provides educational programming. The Museum of Peoples and Cultures is a museum of archaeology and ethnology. It focuses on native cultures and artifacts of the Great Basin, American Southwest, Mesoamerica, Peru, and Polynesia. Home to more than 40,000 artifacts and 50,000 photographs, it documents BYU's archaeological research. The BYU Museum of Paleontology was built in 1976 to display the many fossils found by BYU's Dr. James A. Jensen. It holds many artifacts from the Jurassic Period (210-140 million years ago), and is one of the top five collections in the world of fossils from that time period. It has been featured in magazines, newspapers, and on television internationally. The museum receives about 25,000 visitors every year. The Monte L. Bean Life Science Museum was formed in 1978. It features several forms of plant and animal life on display and available for research by students and scholars.
How many people does the de Jong Concert Hall seat?
57289efb2ca10214002da4d2
1282
90
False
What building is named after Earl and Kathryn Pardoe?
57289efb2ca10214002da4d3
The Pardoe Theatre
138
False
What building was named after prominent Utah theater figure Philip N. Margetts?
57289efb2ca10214002da4d4
The Margetts Theatre
401
False
Who was the Nelke Theatre named for?
57289efb2ca10214002da4d5
one of BYU's first drama teachers
649
False
What type of theater is Nelke Theatre primarily used for?
57289efb2ca10214002da4d6
experimental
719
False
The Pardoe Theatre
138
What is named after T. Earl and Gerrit de Jong Jr.?
5aceb7d232bba1001ae4b15f
True
The Pardoe Theatre
138
What theater has a proscenium opening of 19m?
5aceb7d232bba1001ae4b160
True
The Margetts Theatre
401
What theater was named for Kathryn N. Margetts?
5aceb7d232bba1001ae4b161
True
The de Jong Concert Hall
59
What is named after Kathryn de Jong Jr.?
5aceb7d232bba1001ae4b162
True
The campus also houses several performing arts facilities. The de Jong Concert Hall seats 1282 people and is named for Gerrit de Jong Jr. The Pardoe Theatre is named for T. Earl and Kathryn Pardoe. Students use its stage in a variety of theatre experiments, as well as for Pardoe Series performances. It seats 500 people, and has quite a large stage with a proscenium opening of 19 by 55 feet (17 m). The Margetts Theatre was named for Philip N. Margetts, a prominent Utah theatre figure. A smaller, black box theater, it allows a variety of seating and staging formats. It seats 125, and measures 30 by 50 feet (15 m). The Nelke Theatre, named for one of BYU's first drama teachers, is used largely for instruction in experimental theater. It seats 280.
What is BYU working to increase by installing various speed drives on all pumps and fans?
5728a01c2ca10214002da4dc
energy efficiency of its buildings
434
False
Who spearheaded BYU's recent campaign to begin recycling plastics?
5728a01c2ca10214002da4dd
BYU Recycles
870
False
How long after student campaigning did BYU begin recycling plastics?
5728a01c2ca10214002da4de
a year
975
False
What type of waste event is a top priority at BYU for becoming environmentally sustainable?
5728a01c2ca10214002da4df
zero
171
False
What is BYU replacing it's incandescent lighting with?
5728a01c2ca10214002da4e0
fluorescent
564
False
"we have a responsibility to be wise stewards of the earth and its resources."
324
What does BUY state about being a sustainable campus?
5aceb8cb32bba1001ae4b19f
True
to increase the energy efficiency of its buildings
418
What is BYU working on by installing speed drives on fluorescent lighting?
5aceb8cb32bba1001ae4b1a0
True
educate students, faculty, staff, and administrators about how the campus can decrease its environmental impact.
757
What do the BUY student groups do?
5aceb8cb32bba1001ae4b1a1
True
BYU has designated energy conservation, products and materials, recycling, site planning and building design, student involvement, transportation, water conservation, and zero waste events as top priority categories in which to further its efforts to be an environmentally sustainable campus. The university has stated that "we have a responsibility to be wise stewards of the earth and its resources." BYU is working to increase the energy efficiency of its buildings by installing various speed drives on all pumps and fans, replacing incandescent lighting with fluorescent lighting, retrofitting campus buildings with low-E reflective glass, and upgraded roof insulation to prevent heat loss. The student groups BYU Recycles, Eco-Response, and BYU Earth educate students, faculty, staff, and administrators about how the campus can decrease its environmental impact. BYU Recycles spearheaded the recent campaign to begin recycling plastics, which the university did after a year of student campaigning.
What BYU group is known as one of the best formation ballroom dance teams in the world?
5728a145ff5b5019007da356
Ballroom Dance Company
8
False
What dance championships have been held at BYU for several years?
5728a145ff5b5019007da357
NDCA National DanceSport
470
False
How is BYU's collegiate ballroom dance program rated worldwide?
5728a145ff5b5019007da358
the largest
631
False
What types of dancing are performed by BYU's The Living Legends?
5728a145ff5b5019007da359
Latin, Native American, and Polynesian
914
False
The BYU Ballroom Dance Company
0
Who has won the U.S. National Formation Dance Championship every year since 1972?
5aceba9432bba1001ae4b1f5
True
The BYU Ballroom Dance Company
0
Who was the first team to win the formation championships in 1982?
5aceba9432bba1001ae4b1f6
True
BYU
962
Who has the largest dance department in the nation?
5aceba9432bba1001ae4b1f7
True
BYU
527
Where has the NCDA National DanceSport championships been held?
5aceba9432bba1001ae4b1f8
True
The BYU Ballroom Dance Company is known as one of the best formation ballroom dance teams in the world, having won the U.S. National Formation Dance Championship every year since 1982. BYU's Ballroom dance team has won first place in Latin or Standard (or both) many times when they have competed at the Blackpool Dance Festival, and they were the first U.S. team to win the formation championships at the famed British Championships in Blackpool, England in 1972 . The NDCA National DanceSport championships have been held at BYU for several years, and BYU holds dozens of ballroom dance classes each semester and is consequently the largest collegiate ballroom dance program in the world. In addition, BYU has a number of other notable dance teams and programs. These teams include the Theatre Ballet, Contemporary Dance Theatre, Living Legends, and International Folk Dance Ensemble. The Living Legends perform Latin, Native American, and Polynesian dancing. BYU boasts one of the largest dance departments in the nation. Many students from all different majors across campus participate in various dance classes each semester.
How many NCAA varsity teams does BYU have?
5728a249ff5b5019007da368
21
8
False
What is the name of BYU's fight song?
5728a249ff5b5019007da369
Cougar Fight Song
377
False
Why are many BYU athletes older than other schools' players?
5728a249ff5b5019007da36a
many of its players serve on full-time missions for two years
404
False
When does BYU refuse to play athletic games that got the attention of the sports networks?
5728a249ff5b5019007da36b
Sunday
973
False
What violation can lead to a player being expelled from a sports team?
5728a249ff5b5019007da36c
honor code
1017
False
NCAA varsity teams
11
What does BYU have 19 of?
5acebb8e32bba1001ae4b22b
True
Mountain West Conference
76
What do 21 teams play in?
5acebb8e32bba1001ae4b22c
True
"Cougars"
273
What has been the mascot of BYU since 1935?
5acebb8e32bba1001ae4b22d
True
serve on full-time missions for two years
424
What do women do at age 18?
5acebb8e32bba1001ae4b22e
True
serve on full-time missions for two years
424
What do men do at age 19?
5acebb8e32bba1001ae4b22f
True
BYU has 21 NCAA varsity teams. Nineteen of these teams played mainly in the Mountain West Conference from its inception in 1999 until the school left that conference in 2011. Prior to that time BYU teams competed in the Western Athletic Conference. All teams are named the "Cougars", and Cosmo the Cougar has been the school's mascot since 1953. The school's fight song is the Cougar Fight Song. Because many of its players serve on full-time missions for two years (men when they're 18, women when 19), BYU athletes are often older on average than other schools' players. The NCAA allows students to serve missions for two years without subtracting that time from their eligibility period. This has caused minor controversy, but is largely recognized as not lending the school any significant advantage, since players receive no athletic and little physical training during their missions. BYU has also received attention from sports networks for refusal to play games on Sunday, as well as expelling players due to honor code violations. Beginning in the 2011 season, BYU football competes in college football as an independent. In addition, most other sports now compete in the West Coast Conference. Teams in swimming and diving and indoor track and field for both men and women joined the men's volleyball program in the Mountain Pacific Sports Federation. For outdoor track and field, the Cougars became an Independent. Softball returned to the Western Athletic Conference, but spent only one season in the WAC; the team moved to the Pacific Coast Softball Conference after the 2012 season. The softball program may move again after the 2013 season; the July 2013 return of Pacific to the WCC will enable that conference to add softball as an official sport.
What is the stated mission of BYU?
5728a3732ca10214002da504
"is to assist individuals in their quest for perfection and eternal life."
21
False
What did Brigham Young instruct Karl G. Maeser to not teach even the alphabet without?
5728a3732ca10214002da505
the Spirit of God
593
False
What type of institution do BYU leaders consider it to be at heart?
5728a3732ca10214002da506
religious
151
False
What two types of education does BYU strive to excel in while combining?
5728a3732ca10214002da507
religious and secular
192
False
"is to assist individuals in their quest for perfection and eternal life."
21
What is BUY's stated mission?
5acebc9e32bba1001ae4b259
True
"I want you to remember that you ought not to teach even the alphabet or the multiplication tables without the Spirit of God."
486
What did Karl G. Maeser tell Brigham Young?
5acebc9e32bba1001ae4b25a
True
a religious institution
149
BUY is considered by its leaders to be what?
5acebc9e32bba1001ae4b25b
True
BYU's stated mission "is to assist individuals in their quest for perfection and eternal life." BYU is thus considered by its leaders to be at heart a religious institution, wherein, ideally, religious and secular education are interwoven in a way that encourages the highest standards in both areas. This weaving of the secular and the religious aspects of a religious university goes back as far as Brigham Young himself, who told Karl G. Maeser when the Church purchased the school: "I want you to remember that you ought not to teach even the alphabet or the multiplication tables without the Spirit of God."
What phrase have some Latter-day Saints used in reference to BYU's mission as ambassador to the world for the LDS Church?
5728a4fdff5b5019007da38c
"The Lord's university"
104
False
Who has expressed dissatisfaction with the nickname "The Lord's University" in the past?
5728a4fdff5b5019007da38d
some students and faculty
278
False
What perception do some feel that the nickname "The Lord's University" gives about university officials?
5728a4fdff5b5019007da38e
always divinely inspired and never to be contradicted
427
False
What do the leaders of BYU say "The Lord's University" represents instead of being in reference to its current state of being?
5728a4fdff5b5019007da38f
more a goal
555
False
"The Lord's university".
104
What is BUY considered to be by some?
5acebe0f32bba1001ae4b287
True
ambassador
193
What is the school to the world for the LSD Church?
5acebe0f32bba1001ae4b288
True
stating that it gives students the idea that university authorities are always divinely inspired and never to be contradicted.
355
Why do some leaders of the school oppose the nickname?
5acebe0f32bba1001ae4b289
True
by following the teachings of their religion, adhering to the school's honor code, and serving others with the knowledge they gain while attending.
699
How do students encourage leaders of the school and faculty to help fulfill the goal?
5acebe0f32bba1001ae4b28a
True
BYU has been considered by some Latter-day Saints, as well as some university and church leaders, to be "The Lord's university". This phrase is used in reference to the school's mission as an "ambassador" to the world for the LDS Church and thus, for Jesus Christ. In the past, some students and faculty have expressed dissatisfaction with this nickname, stating that it gives students the idea that university authorities are always divinely inspired and never to be contradicted. Leaders of the school, however, acknowledge that the nickname represents more a goal that the university strives for and not its current state of being. Leaders encourage students and faculty to help fulfill the goal by following the teachings of their religion, adhering to the school's honor code, and serving others with the knowledge they gain while attending.
What does BYU mandate of it's student members of the LDS Church to be?
5728a5c6ff5b5019007da39e
religiously active
68
False
Who are both LDS and Non-LDS students required to provide an endorsement from upon submitting their application?
5728a5c6ff5b5019007da39f
an ecclesiastic leader
162
False
How many BYU campus rooms are used for the purposes of LDS Church congregations?
5728a5c6ff5b5019007da3a0
Over 900
224
False
How many congregations meet on the BYU campus every Sunday?
5728a5c6ff5b5019007da3a1
More than 150
308
False
Approximately how many people attend church services on BYU's campus?
5728a5c6ff5b5019007da3a2
24,000
465
False
be religiously active
65
What does BYU mandate for members of the LSD Church?
5acebfb832bba1001ae4b2a1
True
the purposes of LDS Church congregations
266
What are 150 rooms on campus used for?
5acebfb832bba1001ae4b2a2
True
Sunday
360
On what day do more than 900 congregations meet?
5acebfb832bba1001ae4b2a3
True
BYU's campus
369
What becomes the largest center of warship in the world?
5acebfb832bba1001ae4b2a4
True
BYU mandates that its students who are members of the LDS Church be religiously active. Both LDS and Non-LDS students are required to provide an endorsement from an ecclesiastic leader with their application for admittance. Over 900 rooms on BYU campus are used for the purposes of LDS Church congregations. More than 150 congregations meet on BYU campus each Sunday. "BYU's campus becomes one of the busiest and largest centers of worship in the world" with about 24,000 persons attending church services on campus.
At what age, since 2012, are men allowed to serve a mission after high school graduation?
5728a6bc4b864d1900164b7e
18
284
False
At what age, since 2012, are women allowed to serve a mission after high school graduation?
5728a6bc4b864d1900164b7f
19
659
False
How long is a full-time mission for males?
5728a6bc4b864d1900164b80
two years
743
False
How long is a full-time mission for females?
5728a6bc4b864d1900164b81
18 months
789
False
What percentage of graduates had taken a hiatus from their BYU studies to serve as an LDS missionary?
5728a6bc4b864d1900164b82
97
5
False
took a hiatus from their undergraduate studies at one point to serve as LDS missionaries
73
What did 97% of female BYU graduates do?
5acec18532bba1001ae4b2d3
True
took a hiatus from their undergraduate studies at one point to serve as LDS missionaries
73
What did 32% of male BYU graduates do?
5acec18532bba1001ae4b2d4
True
young men could serve a mission after they turn 18 and have graduated from high school, rather than after age 19 under the old policy
236
What did the LSD Church announce in October 2012?
5acec18532bba1001ae4b2d5
True
anytime after turning 19
637
When can female students begin their missionary service now instead of 18?
5acec18532bba1001ae4b2d6
True
Some 97 percent of male BYU graduates and 32 percent of female graduates took a hiatus from their undergraduate studies at one point to serve as LDS missionaries. In October 2012, the LDS Church announced at its general conference that young men could serve a mission after they turn 18 and have graduated from high school, rather than after age 19 under the old policy. Many young men would often attend a semester or two of higher education prior to beginning missionary service. This policy change will likely impact what has been the traditional incoming freshman class at BYU. Female students may now begin their missionary service anytime after turning 19, rather than age 21 under the previous policy. For males, a full-time mission is two years in length, and for females it lasts 18 months.
What group did President Maeser create that sent teachers to student's homes to verify they were following the school's moral rules?
5728a7b83acd2414000dfc03
Domestic Organization
282
False
When was the BYU Honor Code actually created?
5728a7b83acd2414000dfc04
about 1940
544
False
What was BYU's Honor Code mainly used for upon its creation?
5728a7b83acd2414000dfc05
cases of cheating and academic dishonesty
580
False
In what year was the Honor Code expanded to include other school standards, such as rules regarding drug use?
5728a7b83acd2414000dfc06
1957
670
False
Who must sign a comitment to live by the honor code as part of the application process?
5728a7b83acd2414000dfc07
all students, faculty, and staff
925
False
Domestic Organization
282
What organization did Brigham Young create?
5acec3f332bba1001ae4b339
True
visit students at their homes to see that they were following the schools moral rules prohibiting obscenity, profanity, smoking, and alcohol consumption
346
What did Young's Domestic Organization do?
5acec3f332bba1001ae4b33a
True
The Honor Code
500
What was first created in 1957?
5acec3f332bba1001ae4b33b
True
Honor Code
656
What was expanded in 1940?
5acec3f332bba1001ae4b33c
True
the 3rd most LGBT-unfriendly school in the United States.
1472
What did the Princeton Review rank BUY for LGBT-friendliness?
5acec3f332bba1001ae4b33d
True
All students and faculty, regardless of religion, are required to agree to adhere to an honor code. Early forms of the Church Educational System Honor Code are found as far back as the days of the Brigham Young Academy and early school President Karl G. Maeser. Maeser created the "Domestic Organization", which was a group of teachers who would visit students at their homes to see that they were following the schools moral rules prohibiting obscenity, profanity, smoking, and alcohol consumption. The Honor Code itself was not created until about 1940, and was used mainly for cases of cheating and academic dishonesty. President Wilkinson expanded the Honor Code in 1957 to include other school standards. This led to what the Honor Code represents today: rules regarding chastity, dress, grooming, drugs, and alcohol. A signed commitment to live the honor code is part of the application process, and must be adhered by all students, faculty, and staff. Students and faculty found in violation of standards are either warned or called to meet with representatives of the Honor Council. In certain cases, students and faculty can be expelled from the school or lose tenure. Both LDS and non-LDS students are required to meet annually with a Church leader to receive an ecclesiastical endorsement for both acceptance and continuance. Various LGBT advocacy groups have protested the honor code and criticized it as being anti-gay, and The Princeton Review ranked BYU as the 3rd most LGBT-unfriendly school in the United States.
How was BYU ranked by The Princeton Review for having the happiest students and highest quality of life in 2008?
5728a88d4b864d1900164ba4
14th in the nation
280
False
What parts of the sometimes "too nice" BYU culture is often caricatured?
5728a88d4b864d1900164ba5
marrying early and being very conservative
465
False
What does BYU's high rate of enrollment by LDS members result in regarding LDS cultural norms?
5728a88d4b864d1900164ba6
amplification of
193
False
more than 98 percent
157
What percentage of students belong to the LSD?
5acec4d332bba1001ae4b353
True
14th in the nation for having the happiest students and highest quality of life
280
What did the Princeton Review rank LDS in 2014?
5acec4d332bba1001ae4b354
True
is often caricatured, for example, in terms of marrying early and being very conservative
418
What did the Princeton Review point out about the "too nice" culture?
5acec4d332bba1001ae4b355
True
BYU's social and cultural atmosphere is unique. The high rate of enrollment at the university by members of The Church of Jesus Christ of Latter-day Saints (more than 98 percent) results in an amplification of LDS cultural norms; BYU was ranked by The Princeton Review in 2008 as 14th in the nation for having the happiest students and highest quality of life. However, the quirkiness and sometimes "too nice" culture is often caricatured, for example, in terms of marrying early and being very conservative.
What is one of BYU's characteristics that is most often pointed out through reputation?
5728a9702ca10214002da556
emphasizing a "marriage culture"
79
False
What percentage of BYU's class of 2005 were married?
5728a9702ca10214002da557
Approximately 51
244
False
What is the national marriage average among college graduates?
5728a9702ca10214002da558
11 percent
398
False
What is the average age that BYU students marry according to a 2005 study?
5728a9702ca10214002da559
22
454
False
What type of marriage is highly valued by LDS members?
5728a9702ca10214002da55a
marriage within the faith
217
False
emphasizing a "marriage culture"
79
What does BUY have a reputation for?
5acec6c732bba1001ae4b39b
True
51 percent
258
What percentage of BYU's class of 2015 are married?
5acec6c732bba1001ae4b39c
True
marry
434
Men do what at the average age of 27?
5acec6c732bba1001ae4b39d
True
marry
434
Women do what at the average age of 25?
5acec6c732bba1001ae4b39e
True
One of the characteristics of BYU most often pointed out is its reputation for emphasizing a "marriage culture". Members of The Church of Jesus Christ of Latter-day Saints highly value marriage and family, especially marriage within the faith. Approximately 51 percent of the graduates in BYU's class of 2005 were married. This is compared to a national marriage average among college graduates of 11 percent. BYU students on average marry at the age of 22, according to a 2005 study, while the national average age is 25 years for men and 27 years for women.
Who rated BYU as the #1 stone cold sober school in the nation for several years?
5728aa533acd2414000dfc61
The Princeton Review
316
False
How does BYU feel about being rated the #1 stone cold sober school?
5728aa533acd2414000dfc62
proud
750
False
How do robberies at BYU's Provo compare to the national average?
5728aa533acd2414000dfc63
about 1/10
910
False
Who rated BYU as the #1 safest college campus in the nation?
5728aa533acd2414000dfc64
Business Insider
943
False
What BYU environment seems to surprise many visitors to BYU as well as to the Utah Valley?
5728aa533acd2414000dfc65
culturally conservative
80
False
the culturally conservative environment
76
What are visitors to Utah surprised by?
5acec8be32bba1001ae4b3e5
True
stone cold sober school
359
What did the Princeton Review rate BUY #1 in?
5acec8be32bba1001ae4b3e6
True
#1 safest college campus in the nation.
977
What did Business Insider rate BUY as?
5acec8be32bba1001ae4b3e7
True
1/10
916
Murders are what fraction of the national average in Provo?
5acec8be32bba1001ae4b3e8
True
Many visitors to BYU, and Utah Valley as a whole, report being surprised by the culturally conservative environment. Brigham Young University's Honor Code, which all BYU students agree to follow as a condition of studying at BYU, prohibits the consumption of alcoholic beverages, tobacco, etc. As mentioned earlier, The Princeton Review has rated BYU the "#1 stone cold sober school" in the nation for several years running, an honor which the late LDS Church president Gordon B. Hinckley had commented on with pride. BYU's 2014 "#1 stone cold" sober rating marked the 17th year in a row that the school had earned that rating. BYU has used this and other honors awarded to the school to advertise itself to prospective students, showing that BYU is proud of the rating. According to the Uniform Crime Reports, incidents of crime in Provo are lower than the national average. Murder is rare, and robberies are about 1/10 the national average. Business Insider rated BYU as the #1 safest college campus in the nation.
How many television production studios is BYU Broadcasting Technical Operations Center home to?
5728ab684b864d1900164bf0
three
535
False
How many television control rooms is BYU Broadcasting Technical Operations Center home to?
5728ab684b864d1900164bf1
two
572
False
How many radio studios is BYU BYU Broadcasting Technical Operations Center home to?
5728ab684b864d1900164bf2
two
572
False
Which BYU station offers content in both Spanish and Portugese?
5728ab684b864d1900164bf3
BYU Television International
262
False
Which BYU station is available via cable throughout some areas of the U.S.?
5728ab684b864d1900164bf4
BYUtv
397
False
an HD production and distribution facility
52
What is the BYU Operations Technical Center?
5acec9b232bba1001ae4b40d
True
via cable
421
How is BUYtv available?
5acec9b232bba1001ae4b40e
True
three
535
How many production studios is the BUY Technical Broadcasting Operations Center home to?
5acec9b232bba1001ae4b40f
True
three television production studios, two television control rooms, radio studios, radio performance space, and master control operations.
535
What is the BUY Technical Broadcasting Operations Center home to?
5acec9b232bba1001ae4b410
True
The BYU Broadcasting Technical Operations Center is an HD production and distribution facility that is home to local PBS affiliate KBYU-TV, local classical music station KBYU-FM Classical 89, BYU Radio, BYU Radio Instrumental, BYU Radio International, BYUtv and BYU Television International with content in Spanish and Portuguese (both available via terrestrial, satellite, and internet signals). BYUtv is also available via cable throughout some areas of the United States. The BYU Broadcasting Technical Operations Center is home to three television production studios, two television control rooms, radio studios, radio performance space, and master control operations.
What is former alumnus Paul D. Boyer known for being?
5728ac94ff5b5019007da440
Nobel Prize winner
515
False
What did former BYU graduate Harvey Fletcher invent?
5728ac94ff5b5019007da441
the hearing aid
650
False
Which famous clothing company was BYU alumnus Matthew K. McCauley CEO of?
5728ac94ff5b5019007da442
Gymboree
966
False
What was BYU graduate Clayton M. Christensen known as?
5728ac94ff5b5019007da443
two time world's most influential business thinker
88
False
Which Nobel Prize winner graduated from BYU?
5728ac94ff5b5019007da444
Paul D. Boyer
534
False
Dean of the Harvard Business School
38
What title did Kim B. Christensen have?
5acecbc932bba1001ae4b455
True
president of the University of Washington
193
What title does Michael K. Clark currently have?
5acecbc932bba1001ae4b456
True
current president of Utah Valley University
256
Who is Matthew S. Young?
5acecbc932bba1001ae4b457
True
current president of Utah State University
319
Who is Stan L. Holland?
5acecbc932bba1001ae4b458
True
Professor at the University of Oxford
376
Who is Teppo Albrecht?
5acecbc932bba1001ae4b459
True
BYU alumni in academia include former Dean of the Harvard Business School Kim B. Clark, two time world's most influential business thinker Clayton M. Christensen, Michael K. Young '73, current president of the University of Washington, Matthew S. Holland, current president of Utah Valley University, Stan L. Albrecht, current president of Utah State University, Teppo Felin, Professor at the University of Oxford, and Stephen D. Nadauld, previous president of Dixie State University. The University also graduated Nobel Prize winner Paul D. Boyer, as well as Philo Farnsworth (inventor of the electronic television) and Harvey Fletcher (inventor of the hearing aid). Four of BYU's thirteen presidents were alumni of the University. Additionally, alumni of BYU who have served as business leaders include Citigroup CFO Gary Crittenden '76, former Dell CEO Kevin Rollins '84, Deseret Book CEO Sheri L. Dew, and Matthew K. McCauley, CEO of children's clothing company Gymboree.
Where did best selling author Stephenie Meyer graduate from in 1995?
5728ad6a3acd2414000dfcbd
BYU
30
False
Which former Miss America graduated from BYU?
5728ad6a3acd2414000dfcbe
Sharlene Wells Hawkes
403
False
Which former co-host of CBS's The Early Show graduated from BYU?
5728ad6a3acd2414000dfcbf
Jane Clayson Johnson
472
False
Which award winning ESPN sports writer graduated form BYU?
5728ad6a3acd2414000dfcc0
Sharlene Wells Hawkes
403
False
Which former CBS News correspondent graduated from BYU?
5728ad6a3acd2414000dfcc1
Art Rascon
335
False
Orson Scott Card
87
What best selling author graduated from BYU in 1957?
5acecc8432bba1001ae4b473
True
Ben English
138
What best selling author graduated from BYU in 1989?
5acecc8432bba1001ae4b474
True
Stephenie Meyer
159
What best selling author graduated from BYU in 1959?
5acecc8432bba1001ae4b475
True
'86
425
When did Miss America Sharlene Johnson graduate?
5acecc8432bba1001ae4b476
True
Father of Mormon Cinema.
800
What is Ken Dutcher considered to be?
5acecc8432bba1001ae4b477
True
In literature and journalism, BYU has produced several best-selling authors, including Orson Scott Card '75, Brandon Sanderson '00 & '05, Ben English '98, and Stephenie Meyer '95. BYU also graduated American activist and contributor for ABC News Elizabeth Smart-Gilmour. Other media personalities include former CBS News correspondent Art Rascon, award-winning ESPN sportscaster and former Miss America Sharlene Wells Hawkes '86 and former co-host of CBS's The Early Show Jane Clayson Johnson '90. In entertainment and television, BYU is represented by Jon Heder '02 (best known for his role as Napoleon Dynamite), writer-director Daryn Tufts '98, Golden Globe-nominated Aaron Eckhart '94, animator and filmmaker Don Bluth '54, Jeopardy! all-time champion Ken Jennings '00, and Richard Dutcher, the "Father of Mormon Cinema." In the music industry BYU is represented by lead singer of the Grammy Award winning band Imagine Dragons Dan Reynolds, multi-platinum selling drummer Elaine Bradley from the band Neon Trees, crossover dubstep violinist Lindsey Stirling, former American Idol contestant Carmen Rasmusen, Mormon Tabernacle Choir director Mack Wilberg and pianist Massimiliano Frani.
Which three-time Olympic medalist and Hall of Famer graduated from BYU?
5728ae4d4b864d1900164c12
Krešimir Ćosić
469
False
Which Heisman Trophy winner graduated from BYU?
5728ae4d4b864d1900164c13
Ty Detmer
806
False
Which two-time Super Bowl winner graduated from BYU?
5728ae4d4b864d1900164c14
Jim McMahon
852
False
Which winner of the 2003 Golf Masters graduated from BYU?
5728ae4d4b864d1900164c15
Mike Weir
993
False
Which BYU graduate has won both the 1976 British Open and the 1973 U.S. Open?
5728ae4d4b864d1900164c16
Johnny Miller
925
False
BYU alumni
12
Who has represented in 5 MLB World Series?
5acecd1d32bba1001ae4b487
True
'90
816
What year did Ty Detmer graduate BUY?
5acecd1d32bba1001ae4b488
True
Johnny Miller
925
Who won the U.S. Open in 1976?
5acecd1d32bba1001ae4b489
True
Mike Weir
993
Who won the 1973 Masters?
5acecd1d32bba1001ae4b48a
True
Ty Detmer
806
What BUY alumni won the Heisman Trophy?
5acecd1d32bba1001ae4b48b
True
A number of BYU alumni have found success in professional sports, representing the University in 7 MLB World Series, 5 NBA Finals, and 25 NFL Super Bowls. In baseball, BYU alumni include All-Stars Rick Aguilera '83, Wally Joyner '84, and Jack Morris '76. Professional basketball players include three-time NBA champion Danny Ainge '81, 1952 NBA Rookie of the Year and 4-time NBA All-Star Mel Hutchins '51,[citation needed] three-time Olympic medalist and Hall of Famer Krešimir Ćosić '73, and consensus 2011 national college player of the year Jimmer Fredette '11, currently with the New York Knicks organization. BYU also claims notable professional football players including two-time NFL MVP and Super Bowl MVP and Pro Football Hall of Fame quarterback Steve Young '84 & J.D. '96, Heisman Trophy winner Ty Detmer '90, and two-time Super Bowl winner Jim McMahon. In golf, BYU alumni include two major championship winners: Johnny Miller ('69) at the 1973 U.S. Open and 1976 British Open and Mike Weir ('92) at the 2003 Masters.
Department_store
What sorts of departments might one see in a major department store?
5726494f708984140094c16f
clothing, furniture, home appliances, toys, cosmetics, gardening, toiletries, sporting goods
63
False
Who started influencing department stores in the 1970's?
5726494f708984140094c170
discounters
608
False
What has begun pressuring department stores in more recent years?
5726494f708984140094c171
online stores such as Amazon.
681
False
Other than at the check-out lanes at the front of a store, where may customers check out?
5726494f708984140094c172
at sales counters within each department.
425
False
clothing, furniture, home appliances, toys, cosmetics, gardening, toiletries, sporting goods
63
What sorts of departments might one see in a minor department store?
5ad09d41645df0001a2cff58
True
discounters
608
Who started influencing department stores in the 1990's?
5ad09d41645df0001a2cff59
True
discounters
608
Who stopped influencing department stores in the 1970's?
5ad09d41645df0001a2cff5a
True
online stores such as Amazon
681
What has stopped pressuring department stores in more recent years?
5ad09d41645df0001a2cff5b
True
at sales counters within each department
425
Other than at the check-out lanes at the front of a store, where can't customers check out?
5ad09d41645df0001a2cff5c
True
Department stores today have sections that sell the following: clothing, furniture, home appliances, toys, cosmetics, gardening, toiletries, sporting goods, do it yourself, paint, and hardware and additionally select other lines of products such as food, books, jewelry, electronics, stationery, photographic equipment, baby products, and products for pets. Customers check out near the front of the store or, alternatively, at sales counters within each department. Some are part of a retail chain of many stores, while others may be independent retailers. In the 1970s, they came under heavy pressure from discounters. Since 2010, they have come under even heavier pressure from online stores such as Amazon.
When did the idea of a "consumer society" begin?
57264ac7f1498d1400e8db56
at the turn of the 19th century.
90
False
What social group grew as a result of the industrial revolution?
57264ac7f1498d1400e8db57
the affluent middle-class
183
False
Who was Josiah Wedgewood?
57264ac7f1498d1400e8db58
entrepreneurs
662
False
What is one explanation for the rise of retail stores in earlier history?
57264ac7f1498d1400e8db59
urbanized social group
239
False
What group of people were suddenly free to go shopping without fears of being judged or reprimanded?
57264ac7f1498d1400e8db5a
women
446
False
at the turn of the 19th century
90
When didn't the idea of a "consumer society" begin?
5ad09dd1645df0001a2cff62
True
the affluent middle-class
183
What social group shrank as a result of the industrial revolution?
5ad09dd1645df0001a2cff63
True
entrepreneurs
662
Who was Josh Wedgewood?
5ad09dd1645df0001a2cff64
True
urbanized social group
239
What is one explanation for the fall of retail stores in earlier history?
5ad09dd1645df0001a2cff65
True
women
446
What group of people were suddenly no longer free to go shopping with fears of being judged or reprimanded?
5ad09dd1645df0001a2cff66
True
The origins of the department store lay in the growth of the conspicuous consumer society at the turn of the 19th century. As the Industrial Revolution accelerated economy expansion, the affluent middle-class grew in size and wealth. This urbanized social group, sharing a culture of consumption and changing fashion, was the catalyst for the retail revolution. As rising prosperity and social mobility increased the number of people, especially women (who found they could shop unaccompanied at department stores without damaging their reputation), with disposable income in the late Georgian period, window shopping was transformed into a leisure activity and entrepreneurs, like the potter Josiah Wedgwood, pioneered the use of marketing techniques to influence the prevailing tastes and preferences of society.
Who became the predominant shoppers for individual households in the nineteenth century?
57264ba3dd62a815002e80b2
women
116
False
What business in Manchester claims to be the first department store?
57264ba3dd62a815002e80b3
Kendals (formerly Kendal Milne & Faulkner)
177
False
What did Kendals change it's name to in 2005?
57264ba3dd62a815002e80b4
House of Fraser
378
False
What year did the Manchester institution begin?
57264ba3dd62a815002e80b5
1836
436
False
Who acquired the Manchester store in 1919?
57264ba3dd62a815002e80b6
Harrods
810
False
women
116
Who became the predominant shoppers for individual households in the 18th century?
5ad09e5a645df0001a2cff6c
True
Kendals (formerly Kendal Milne & Faulkner)
177
What business in Manchester claims to be the last department store?
5ad09e5a645df0001a2cff6d
True
House of Fraser
378
What did Kendals change it's name to in 2015?
5ad09e5a645df0001a2cff6e
True
1836
436
What year did the Manchester institution end?
5ad09e5a645df0001a2cff6f
True
Harrods
810
Who acquired the Manchester store in 1991?
5ad09e5a645df0001a2cff70
True
All the major British cities had flourishing department stores by the mid-or late nineteenth century. Increasingly, women became the major shoppers and middle-class households. Kendals (formerly Kendal Milne & Faulkner) in Manchester lays claim to being one of the first department stores and is still known to many of its customers as Kendal's, despite its 2005 name change to House of Fraser. The Manchester institution dates back to 1836 but had been trading as Watts Bazaar since 1796. At its zenith the store had buildings on both sides of Deansgate linked by a subterranean passage "Kendals Arcade" and an art nouveau tiled food hall. The store was especially known for its emphasis on quality and style over low prices giving it the nickname "the Harrods of the North", although this was due in part to Harrods acquiring the store in 1919. Other large Manchester stores included Paulden's (currently Debenhams) and Lewis's (now a Primark).
Who founded Selfridges in 1909?
57264c445951b619008f6f41
Harry Gordon Selfridge
52
False
What made Selfridges different from many department stores at the time?
57264c445951b619008f6f42
the radical notion of shopping for pleasure rather than necessity
137
False
How was the store most often presented to the public?
57264c445951b619008f6f43
paid advertising
322
False
What sort of customers did Selfridges most often cater to?
57264c445951b619008f6f44
shoppers with educational and scientific exhibits
888
False
Harry Gordon Selfridge
52
Who founded Selfridges in 1990?
5ad09ee7645df0001a2cff76
True
Harry Gordon Selfridge
52
Who closed Selfridges in 1909?
5ad09ee7645df0001a2cff77
True
the radical notion of shopping for pleasure rather than necessity
137
What made Selfridges the same as many department stores at the time?
5ad09ee7645df0001a2cff78
True
paid advertising
322
How wasn't the store most often presented to the public?
5ad09ee7645df0001a2cff79
True
shoppers with educational and scientific exhibits
888
What sort of customers did Selfridges least often cater to?
5ad09ee7645df0001a2cff7a
True
Selfridges was established in 1909 by American-born Harry Gordon Selfridge on Oxford Street. The company's innovative marketing promoted the radical notion of shopping for pleasure rather than necessity and its techniques were adopted by modern department stores the world over. The store was extensively promoted through paid advertising. The shop floors were structured so that goods could be made more accessible to customers. There were elegant restaurants with modest prices, a library, reading and writing rooms, special reception rooms for French, German, American and "Colonial" customers, a First Aid Room, and a Silence Room, with soft lights, deep chairs, and double-glazing, all intended to keep customers in the store as long as possible. Staff members were taught to be on hand to assist customers, but not too aggressively, and to sell the merchandise. Selfridge attracted shoppers with educational and scientific exhibits; – in 1909, Louis Blériot's monoplane was exhibited at Selfridges (Blériot was the first to fly over the English Channel), and the first public demonstration of television by John Logie Baird took place in the department store in 1925.
What were the origins of the Paris department store?
57264cd75951b619008f6f53
magasin de nouveautés
48
False
What year was the first Paris department store founded?
57264cd75951b619008f6f54
1784
132
False
What book described the functionality and operation of a contemporary Paris department/novelty store?
57264cd75951b619008f6f55
César Birotteau
324
False
What factors influenced the increase of department stores in Paris?
57264cd75951b619008f6f56
the arrival of the railroads in Paris and the increased number of shoppers they brought
360
False
Where did department stores begin to advertise after the large influx of new shoppers?
57264cd75951b619008f6f57
newspapers
569
False
magasin de nouveautés
48
What weren't the origins of the Paris department store?
5ad0a670645df0001a2cff94
True
1784
132
What year was the last Paris department store founded?
5ad0a670645df0001a2cff95
True
1784
132
What year was the first Paris department store closed?
5ad0a670645df0001a2cff96
True
the arrival of the railroads in Paris and the increased number of shoppers they brought
360
What factors influenced the decrease of department stores in Paris?
5ad0a670645df0001a2cff97
True
newspapers
569
Where did department stores begin to advertise after the large influx of old shoppers?
5ad0a670645df0001a2cff98
True
The Paris department store had its roots in the magasin de nouveautés, or novelty store; the first, the Tapis Rouge, was created in 1784. They flourished in the early 19th century, with La Belle Jardiniere (1824), Aux Trois Quartiers (1829), and Le Petit Saint Thomas (1830). Balzac described their functioning in his novel César Birotteau. In the 1840s, with the arrival of the railroads in Paris and the increased number of shoppers they brought, they grew in size, and began to have large plate glass display windows, fixed prices and price tags, and advertising in newspapers.
What store was founded in Paris, in 1838, which sold a wide variety of products?
57264da2dd62a815002e8106
Au Bon Marché
22
False
Who became a partner to this store in 1852 and drastically changed operations?
57264da2dd62a815002e8107
Aristide Boucicaut
272
False
What was the change in profit to Au Bon Marche after these changes?
57264da2dd62a815002e8108
increased from 500,000 francs in 1852 to five million in 1860
510
False
What engineering company helped the store expand in 1872
57264da2dd62a815002e8109
Gustave Eiffel
726
False
What was Boucicaut most widely known for?
57264da2dd62a815002e810a
marketing innovations
1080
False
Au Bon Marché
22
What store was founded in Paris, in 1883, which sold a wide variety of products?
5ad0a6d1645df0001a2cff9e
True
Aristide Boucicaut
272
Who became a partner to this store in 1825 and drastically changed operations?
5ad0a6d1645df0001a2cff9f
True
increased from 500,000 francs in 1852 to five million in 1860
510
What was the change in profit to Au Bon Marche before these changes?
5ad0a6d1645df0001a2cffa0
True
Gustave Eiffel
726
What engineering company helped the store expand in 1782
5ad0a6d1645df0001a2cffa1
True
marketing innovations
1080
What was Boucicaut most widely unknown for?
5ad0a6d1645df0001a2cffa2
True
A novelty shop called Au Bon Marché had been founded in Paris in 1838 to sell lace, ribbons, sheets, mattresses, buttons, umbrellas and other assorted goods. It originally had four departments, twelve employees, and a floor space of three hundred meters. The entrepreneur Aristide Boucicaut became a partner in 1852, and changed the marketing plan, instituting fixed prices and guarantees that allowed exchanges and refunds, advertising, and a much wider variety of merchandise. The annual income of the store increased from 500,000 francs in 1852 to five million in 1860. In 1869 he built much larger building at 24 rue de Sèvres on the Left Bank, and enlarged the store again in 1872, with help from the engineering firm of Gustave Eiffel, creator of the Eiffel Tower. The income rose from twenty million francs in 1870 to 72 million at the time of the Boucicaut's death in 1877. The floor space had increased from three hundred square meters in 1838 to fifty thousand, and the number of employees had increased from twelve in 1838 to 1788 in 1879. Boucicaut was famous for his marketing innovations; a reading room for husbands while their wives shopped; extensive newspaper advertising; entertainment for children; and six million catalogs sent out to customers. By 1880 half the employees were women; unmarried women employees lived in dormitories on the upper floors.
Where was The Grands Magasins Dufayel built?
57264e925951b619008f6f79
the northern part of Paris
97
False
What were employees taught that made a shopping experience different?
57264e925951b619008f6f7a
exciting social activity not just a routine exercise in obtaining necessities
337
False
What sort of stores were The Grands Magasins Dufayel compared to?
57264e925951b619008f6f7b
bourgeois stores
506
False
How were these stores different than most during that time?
57264e925951b619008f6f7c
transform consumption from a business transaction into a direct relationship between consumer and sought-after goods
534
False
the northern part of Paris
97
Where weren't The Grands Magasins Dufayel built?
5ad0a760645df0001a2cffb2
True
exciting social activity not just a routine exercise in obtaining necessities
337
What weren't employees taught that made a shopping experience different?
5ad0a760645df0001a2cffb3
True
exciting social activity not just a routine exercise in obtaining necessities
337
What were employees taught that made a shopping experience the same?
5ad0a760645df0001a2cffb4
True
bourgeois stores
506
What sort of stores were The Grands Magasins Dufayel not compared to?
5ad0a760645df0001a2cffb5
True
transform consumption from a business transaction into a direct relationship between consumer and sought-after goods
534
How were these stores the same as most during that time?
5ad0a760645df0001a2cffb6
True
The Grands Magasins Dufayel was a huge department store with inexpensive prices built in 1890 in the northern part of Paris, where it reached a very large new customer base in the working class. In a neighborhood with few public spaces, it provided a consumer version of the public square. It educated workers to approach shopping as an exciting social activity not just a routine exercise in obtaining necessities, just as the bourgeoisie did at the famous department stores in the central city. Like the bourgeois stores, it helped transform consumption from a business transaction into a direct relationship between consumer and sought-after goods. Its advertisements promised the opportunity to participate in the newest, most fashionable consumerism at reasonable cost. The latest technology was featured, such as cinemas and exhibits of inventions like X-ray machines (that could be used to fit shoes) and the gramophone.
What is recognized as the "first" department store in America?
57264f37708984140094c1fd
Arnold, Constable
0
False
Who founded Arnold, Constable?
57264f37708984140094c1fe
Aaron Arnold
85
False
Where was the store moved in 1857?
57264f37708984140094c1ff
a five-story white marble dry goods palace known as the Marble House.
233
False
What made Arnold, Constable stand out from other stores during the civil war?
57264f37708984140094c200
was one of the first stores to issue charge bills of credit to its customers each month instead of on a bi-annual basis
342
False
When was the "Palace of Trade" built?
57264f37708984140094c201
1869
626
False
Arnold, Constable
0
What is recognized as the "last" department store in America?
5ad0a806645df0001a2cffbc
True
Aaron Arnold
85
Who rejected Arnold, Constable?
5ad0a806645df0001a2cffbd
True
a five-story white marble dry goods palace known as the Marble House
233
Where was the store moved in 1875?
5ad0a806645df0001a2cffbe
True
was one of the first stores to issue charge bills of credit to its customers each month instead of on a bi-annual basis
342
What made Arnold, Constable stand out from other stores during the revolutionary war?
5ad0a806645df0001a2cffbf
True
1869
626
When was the "Palace of Trade" destroyed?
5ad0a806645df0001a2cffc0
True
Arnold, Constable was the first American department store. It was founded in 1825 by Aaron Arnold (1794?-1876), an emigrant from Great Britain, as a small dry goods store on Pine Street in New York City. In 1857 the store moved into a five-story white marble dry goods palace known as the Marble House. During the Civil War Arnold, Constable was one of the first stores to issue charge bills of credit to its customers each month instead of on a bi-annual basis. Recognized as an emporium for high-quality fashions, the store soon outgrew the Marble House and erected a cast-iron building on Broadway and Nineteenth Street in 1869; this “Palace of Trade” expanded over the years until it was necessary to move into a larger space in 1914. In 1925, Arnold, Constable merged with Stewart & Company and expanded into the suburbs, first with a 1937 store in New Rochelle, New York and later in Hempstead and Manhasset on Long Island, and in New Jersey. Financial problems led to bankruptcy in 1975.
Where was the "Marble Palace" built in 1846?
57265296f1498d1400e8dc02
on Broadway, between Chambers and Reade streets
83
False
What policy did the Marble Palace introduce?
57265296f1498d1400e8dc03
"free entrance" to all potential customers.
251
False
How many departments did the new store have, built in 1862?
57265296f1498d1400e8dc04
nineteen
603
False
What selling methods did the Marble Palace use?
57265296f1498d1400e8dc05
cash and not credit
1039
False
What customer services did the Marble Palace offer?
57265296f1498d1400e8dc06
waiting rooms and free delivery of purchases
1227
False
on Broadway, between Chambers and Reade streets
83
Where was the "Marble Palace" built in 1864?
5ad0a85e645df0001a2cffc6
True
"free entrance" to all potential customers
251
What policy didn't the Marble Palace introduce?
5ad0a85e645df0001a2cffc7
True
nineteen
603
How many departments did the new store have, built in 1962?
5ad0a85e645df0001a2cffc8
True
cash and not credit
1039
What buying methods did the Marble Palace use?
5ad0a85e645df0001a2cffc9
True
waiting rooms and free delivery of purchases
1227
What customer services didn't the Marble Palace offer?
5ad0a85e645df0001a2cffca
True
In New York City in 1846, Alexander Turney Stewart established the "Marble Palace" on Broadway, between Chambers and Reade streets. He offered European retail merchandise at fixed prices on a variety of dry goods, and advertised a policy of providing "free entrance" to all potential customers. Though it was clad in white marble to look like a Renaissance palazzo, the building's cast iron construction permitted large plate glass windows that permitted major seasonal displays, especially in the Christmas shopping season. In 1862, Stewart built a new store on a full city block with eight floors and nineteen departments of dress goods and furnishing materials, carpets, glass and china, toys and sports equipment, ranged around a central glass-covered court. His innovations included buying from manufacturers for cash and in large quantities, keeping his markup small and prices low, truthful presentation of merchandise, the one-price policy (so there was no haggling), simple merchandise returns and cash refund policy, selling for cash and not credit, buyers who searched worldwide for quality merchandise, departmentalization, vertical and horizontal integration, volume sales, and free services for customers such as waiting rooms and free delivery of purchases. His innovations were quickly copied by other department stores.
Who opened the original "modern" department store in America?
572653fef1498d1400e8dc16
John Wanamaker
9
False
What feature made Wanamakers different from other stores at the time?
572653fef1498d1400e8dc17
fixed prices marked on every article
199
False
How were important documents and money transported throughout the store?
572653fef1498d1400e8dc18
pneumatic tubes
325
False
When was electric lighting first installed and used in the store?
572653fef1498d1400e8dc19
1878
281
False
In what state was Wanamakers established?
572653fef1498d1400e8dc1a
Pennsylvania
92
False
John Wanamaker
9
Who opened the last "modern" department store in America?
5ad0a8c9645df0001a2cffda
True
fixed prices marked on every article
199
What feature made Wanamakers the same as other stores at the time?
5ad0a8c9645df0001a2cffdb
True
pneumatic tubes
325
How were unimportant documents and money transported throughout the store?
5ad0a8c9645df0001a2cffdc
True
1878
281
When was electric lighting last installed and used in the store?
5ad0a8c9645df0001a2cffdd
True
Pennsylvania
92
In what state wasn't Wanamakers established?
5ad0a8c9645df0001a2cffde
True
In 1877, John Wanamaker opened the United State's first modern department store in a former Pennsylvania Railroad freight terminal in Philadelphia. Wanamakers was the first department store to offer fixed prices marked on every article and also introduced electrical illumination (1878), the telephone (1879), and the use of pneumatic tubes to transport cash and documents (1880) to the department store business. Subsequent department stores founded in Philadelphia included Strawbridge and Clothier, Gimbels, Lit Brothers, and Snellenbergs.
In what year was Marshall Field and company established?
572654ddf1498d1400e8dc3c
1852
39
False
When did Marshall's convert to the Macy's name?
572654ddf1498d1400e8dc3d
9 September 2006
313
False
What made Marshall's such a good example for other stores?
572654ddf1498d1400e8dc3e
exceptional customer service
410
False
Where was Marshall's European buying office located?
572654ddf1498d1400e8dc3f
Manchester, England
778
False
What free service did Marshall's provide customers until changing their name to Macy's?
572654ddf1498d1400e8dc40
personal shopper
888
False
1852
39
In what year was Marshall Field and company closed?
5ad0a935645df0001a2cffe4
True
9 September 2006
313
When didn't Marshall's convert to the Macy's name?
5ad0a935645df0001a2cffe5
True
exceptional customer service
410
What made Marshall's such a bad example for other stores?
5ad0a935645df0001a2cffe6
True
Manchester, England
778
Where was Marshall's European selling office located?
5ad0a935645df0001a2cffe7
True
personal shopper
888
What charged service did Marshall's provide customers until changing their name to Macy's?
5ad0a935645df0001a2cffe8
True
Marshall Field & Company originated in 1852. It was the premier department store on the main shopping street in the Midwest, State Street in Chicago. Upscale shoppers came by train from throughout the region, patronizing nearby hotels. It grew to become a major chain before converting to the Macy's nameplate on 9 September 2006. Marshall Field's Served as a model for other departments stores in that it had exceptional customer service. Field's also brought with it the now famous Frango mints brand that became so closely identified with Marshall Field's and Chicago from the now defunct Frederick & Nelson Department store. Marshall Field's also had the firsts, among many innovations by Marshall Field's. Field's had the first European buying office, which was located in Manchester, England, and the first bridal registry. The company was the first to introduce the concept of the personal shopper, and that service was provided without charge in every Field's store, until the chain's last days under the Marshall Field's name. It was the first store to offer revolving credit and the first department store to use escalators. Marshall Field's book department in the State Street store was legendary; it pioneered the concept of the "book signing." Moreover, every year at Christmas, Marshall Field's downtown store windows were filled with animated displays as part of the downtown shopping district display; the "theme" window displays became famous for their ingenuity and beauty, and visiting the Marshall Field's windows at Christmas became a tradition for Chicagoans and visitors alike, as popular a local practice as visiting the Walnut Room with its equally famous Christmas tree or meeting "under the clock" on State Street.
What occupation did David Jones have?
572656cf708984140094c2e3
merchant
48
False
Where did David Jones and Charles Appleton meet?
572656cf708984140094c2e4
in London
101
False
Where did Appleton begin a store in 1825?
572656cf708984140094c2e5
Sydney
144
False
What was the store in Sydney called after Jones moved to Australia?
572656cf708984140094c2e6
Appleton & Jones
288
False
When did the partnership between Jones and Appleton end?
572656cf708984140094c2e7
1838
344
False
merchant
48
What occupation didn't David Jones have?
5ad0a984645df0001a2cffee
True
London
104
Where didn't David Jones and Charles Appleton meet?
5ad0a984645df0001a2cffef
True
Sydney
144
Where did Appleton begin a store in 1852?
5ad0a984645df0001a2cfff0
True
Appleton & Jones
288
What was the store in Sydney called after Jones moved to Austria?
5ad0a984645df0001a2cfff1
True
1838
344
When did the partnership between Jones and Appleton start?
5ad0a984645df0001a2cfff2
True
David Jones was started by David Jones, a Welsh merchant who met Hobart businessman Charles Appleton in London. Appleton established a store in Sydney in 1825 and Jones subsequently established a partnership with Appleton, moved to Australia in 1835, and the Sydney store became known as Appleton & Jones. When the partnership was dissolved in 1838, Jones moved his business to premises on the corner of George Street and Barrack Lane, Sydney. David Jones claims to be the oldest department store in the world still trading under its original name.
What were some of the original Australian department stores?
572657a0f1498d1400e8dc86
Grace Bros. and Waltons
118
False
When did Sydney Myer come to Australia?
572657a0f1498d1400e8dc87
1899
366
False
Where did the Myer Retail Group open it's first store?
572657a0f1498d1400e8dc88
Bendigo, Victoria
490
False
What type of department stores are Myer and David Jones?
572657a0f1498d1400e8dc89
up-market chains
621
False
What department store brand is now out of business in Australia?
572657a0f1498d1400e8dc8a
Venture
807
False
Grace Bros. and Waltons
118
What were some of the unoriginal Australian department stores?
5ad0a9f5645df0001a2d0002
True
1899
366
When did Sydney Myer come to Austria?
5ad0a9f5645df0001a2d0003
True
Bendigo, Victoria
490
Where did the Myer Retail Group open its last store?
5ad0a9f5645df0001a2d0004
True
up-market chains
621
What type of hardware stores are Myer and David Jones?
5ad0a9f5645df0001a2d0005
True
Venture
807
What department store brand is now out of business in Austria?
5ad0a9f5645df0001a2d0006
True
Although there were a number of department stores in Australia for much of the 20th Century, including chains such as Grace Bros. and Waltons, many disappeared during the 1980s and 1990s. Today Myer and David Jones, located nationally, are practically the national department stores duopoly in Australia. When Russian-born migrant, Sidney Myer, came to Australia in 1899 he formed the Myer retail group with his brother, Elcon Myer. In 1900, they opened the first Myer department store, in Bendigo, Victoria. Since then, the Myer retail group has grown to be Australia's largest retailer. Both, Myer and David Jones, are up-market chains, offering a wide variety of products from mid-range names to luxury brands. Other retail chain stores such as Target (unrelated to the American chain of the same name), Venture (now defunct), Kmart and Big W, also located nationally, are considered to be Australia's discount department stores. Harris Scarfe, though only operating in four states and one territory, is a department store using both the large full-line and small discount department store formats. Most department stores in Australia have their own credit card companies, each having their own benefits while the discount department stores do not have their own credit card rights.
What business was the Hudson's Bay Company originally involved in?
57265901708984140094c34b
the fur trade
20
False
What department store chain did Hudson's Bay Company own until it dissolved in 2013?
57265901708984140094c34c
Zellers
240
False
How many stores did Woolco operate before selling their shares to Walmart?
57265901708984140094c34d
160
613
False
Currently, what department store is most popular in Canada?
57265901708984140094c34e
Walmart
710
False
fur trade
24
What business was the Hudson's Bay Company originally not involved in?
5ad0aa81645df0001a2d000c
True
Zellers
240
What department store chain did Hudson's Bay Company own until it dissolved in 2003?
5ad0aa81645df0001a2d000d
True
160
613
How many stores did Woolco operate before buying Walmart?
5ad0aa81645df0001a2d000e
True
Walmart
710
Currently, what department store is least popular in Canada?
5ad0aa81645df0001a2d000f
True
Walmart
710
Currently, what department store is most unpopular in Canada?
5ad0aa81645df0001a2d0010
True
From its origins in the fur trade, the Hudson's Bay Company is the oldest corporation in North America and was the largest department store operator in Canada until the mid-1980s, with locations across the country. It also previously owned Zellers, another major Canadian department store which ceased to exist in March 2013 after selling its lease holdings to Target Canada. Other department stores in Canada are: Canadian Tire, Sears Canada, Ogilvy, Les Ailes de la Mode, Giant Tiger, Co-op, Costco and Holt Renfrew. Grocery giant Superstores carry many non-grocery items akin to a department store. Woolco had 160 stores in Canada when operations ceased (Walmart bought out Woolco in 1994). Today low-price Walmart is by far the most dominant department store retailer in Canada with outlets throughout the country. Historically, department stores were a significant component in Canadian economic life, and chain stores such as Eaton's, Charles Ogilvy Limited, Freiman's, Spencer's, Simpsons, Morgan's, and Woodward's were staples in their respective communities. Department stores in Canada are similar in design and style to department stores in the United States.
What is one type of competition department stores face?
57266257dd62a815002e8352
specialist stores
202
False
What types of stores have created even more competition?
57266257dd62a815002e8353
superstores
299
False
What factor lead to a decrease in department store shoppers?
57266257dd62a815002e8354
residents moved out of the downtown areas to the suburbs
658
False
In what year were department store sales beaten by larger stores?
57266257dd62a815002e8355
2003
833
False
specialist stores
202
What is one type of competition department stores never face?
5ad0aadb645df0001a2d0016
True
superstores
299
What types of stores have created even less competition?
5ad0aadb645df0001a2d0017
True
superstores
299
What types of stores haven't created even more competition?
5ad0aadb645df0001a2d0018
True
residents moved out of the downtown areas to the suburbs
658
What factor lead to a increase in department store shoppers?
5ad0aadb645df0001a2d0019
True
2003
833
In what year weren't department store sales beaten by larger stores?
5ad0aadb645df0001a2d001a
True
Before the 1950s, the department store held an eminent place in both Canada and Australia, during both the Great Depression and World War II. Since then, they have suffered from strong competition from specialist stores. Most recently the competition has intensified with the advent of larger-scale superstores (Jones et al. 1994; Merrilees and Miller 1997). Competition was not the only reason for the department stores' weakening strength; the changing structure of cities also affected them. The compact and centralized 19th century city with its mass transit lines converging on the downtown was a perfect environment for department store growth. But as residents moved out of the downtown areas to the suburbs, the large, downtown department stores became inconvenient and lost business to the newer suburban shopping malls. In 2003, U.S. department store sales were surpassed by big-box store sales for the first time (though some stores may be classified as "big box" by physical layout and "department store" by merchandise).
What began the influx of Chinese department stores?
572662f85951b619008f7123
opening policy in 1979
10
False
What area does INTIME department stores have the most influence in?
572662f85951b619008f7124
Zhejiang province
269
False
What department store has the most success in Jiangsu Province?
572662f85951b619008f7125
Jinying
294
False
How are these foreign department stores expanding so quickly?
572662f85951b619008f7126
by listing in the financial market.
490
False
opening policy in 1979
10
What ended the influx of Chinese department stores?
5ad0ab34645df0001a2d0020
True
opening policy in 1979
10
What began the influx of Japanese department stores?
5ad0ab34645df0001a2d0021
True
Zhejiang province
269
What area does INTIME department stores have the least influence in?
5ad0ab34645df0001a2d0022
True
Jinying
294
What department store has the least success in Jiangsu Province?
5ad0ab34645df0001a2d0023
True
by listing in the financial market
490
How are these domestic department stores expanding so quickly?
5ad0ab34645df0001a2d0024
True
Since the opening policy in 1979, the Chinese department stores also develops swiftly along with the fast-growing economy. There are different department store groups dominating different regions. For example, INTIME department store has the biggest market presence in Zhejiang province, while Jinying department stores dominate Jiangsu Province. Besides, there are many other department store groups, such as Pacific, Parkson, Wangfujing，New World，etc., many of them are expanding quickly by listing in the financial market.
What year did Lane Crawford open?
5726638ef1498d1400e8ddea
1850
56
False
Who established Lane Crawford?
5726638ef1498d1400e8ddeb
Scots Thomas Ash Lane and Ninian Crawford
64
False
What was the store's original target customer base?
5726638ef1498d1400e8ddec
visiting ships' crews as well as British Navy staff and their families
186
False
Who opened the first Chinese-owned department store?
5726638ef1498d1400e8dded
Ma Ying Piu
337
False
1850
56
What year did Lane Crawford close?
5ad0b0be645df0001a2d0052
True
Scots Thomas Ash Lane and Ninian Crawford
64
Who closed Lane Crawford?
5ad0b0be645df0001a2d0053
True
visiting ships' crews as well as British Navy staff and their families
186
What wasn't the store's original target customer base?
5ad0b0be645df0001a2d0054
True
Ma Ying Piu
337
Who closed the first Chinese-owned department store?
5ad0b0be645df0001a2d0055
True
Ma Ying Piu
337
Who opened the first Chinese-owned hardware store?
5ad0b0be645df0001a2d0056
True
The first department stores Lane Crawford was opened in 1850 by Scots Thomas Ash Lane and Ninian Crawford on Des Voeux Road, Hong Kong Island. At the beginning, the store mainly catered visiting ships' crews as well as British Navy staff and their families. In 1900, the first ethnic-Chinese owned Sincere Department Store was opened by Ma Ying Piu, who returned from Australia and inspired by David Jones. In 1907, another former Hong Kong expatriate in Australia, the Kwok's family, returned to Hong Kong and founded Wing On.
What are the 3 main department store companies in Denmark?
57266400f1498d1400e8de06
Magasin (1868), Illum (1891), Salling (1906).
51
False
Currently, what is the largest department store chain in Denmark?
57266400f1498d1400e8de07
Magasin
97
False
Where is Magasin's "flagship" store located?
57266400f1498d1400e8de08
Kongens Nytorv in Copenhagen
212
False
How many stores does Salling have in Jutland?
57266400f1498d1400e8de09
two
478
False
Magasin (1868), Illum (1891), Salling (1906)
51
What are the 4 main department store companies in Denmark?
5ad0b111645df0001a2d0066
True
Magasin
97
Currently, what isn't the largest department store chain in Denmark?
5ad0b111645df0001a2d0067
True
Magasin
97
Currently, what is the smallest department store chain in Denmark?
5ad0b111645df0001a2d0068
True
Kongens Nytorv in Copenhagen
212
Where isn't Magasin's "flagship" store located?
5ad0b111645df0001a2d0069
True
two
478
How many stores does Salling have in Justinland?
5ad0b111645df0001a2d006a
True
In Denmark you find three department store chains: Magasin (1868), Illum (1891), Salling (1906). Magasin is by far the largest with 6 stores all over the country, with the flagship store being Magasin du Nord on Kongens Nytorv in Copenhagen. Illums only store on Amagertorv in Copenhagen has the appearance of a department store with 20% run by Magasin, but has individual shop owners making it a shopping centre. But in people's mind it remains a department store. Salling has two stores in Jutland with one of these being the reason for the closure of a magasin store due to the competition.
What are two main department stores in France?
572664de5951b619008f7175
Galeries Lafayette and Le Printemps
45
False
What year was the first department store open in France?
572664de5951b619008f7176
1852
256
False
Who currently owns Le Bon Marche?
572664de5951b619008f7177
LVMH
311
False
What apartment store in Paris was closed in 2005?
572664de5951b619008f7178
La Samaritaine
317
False
What French department store is part of the same group as Galeries Lafayette?
572664de5951b619008f7179
BHV (Bazar de l'Hotel de Ville)
470
False
Galeries Lafayette and Le Printemps
45
What are three main department stores in France?
5ad0b160645df0001a2d0070
True
1852
256
What year was the first department store closed in France?
5ad0b160645df0001a2d0071
True
1852
256
What year wasn't the first department store open in France?
5ad0b160645df0001a2d0072
True
LVMH
311
Who currently rents Le Bon Marche?
5ad0b160645df0001a2d0073
True
La Samaritaine
317
What apartment store in Paris was closed in 2015?
5ad0b160645df0001a2d0074
True
France's major upscale department stores are Galeries Lafayette and Le Printemps, which both have flagship stores on Boulevard Haussmann in Paris and branches around the country. The first department store in France, Le Bon Marché in Paris, was founded in 1852 and is now owned by the luxury goods conglomerate LVMH. La Samaritaine, another upscale department store also owned by LVMH, closed in 2005. Mid-range department stores chains also exist in France such as the BHV (Bazar de l'Hotel de Ville), part of the same group as Galeries Lafayette.
What cities influenced how department stores in Germany operated?
57266708708984140094c4e5
London, Paris and New York.
77
False
What department store was taken over by Nicolas Berggruen in 2010?
57266708708984140094c4e6
Karstadt
255
False
What major department store operates in Berlin?
57266708708984140094c4e7
KaDeWe
325
False
What store is a part of the Metro AG?
57266708708984140094c4e8
GALERIA Kaufhof
403
False
London, Paris and New York
77
What cities influenced how department stores in Austria operated?
5ad0b1c4645df0001a2d007a
True
Karstadt
255
What department store was taken over by Nicolas Berggruen in 2011?
5ad0b1c4645df0001a2d007b
True
Karstadt
255
What department store wasn't taken over by Nicolas Berggruen in 2010?
5ad0b1c4645df0001a2d007c
True
KaDeWe
325
What major department store no longer operates in Berlin?
5ad0b1c4645df0001a2d007d
True
GALERIA Kaufhof
403
What store isn't a part of the Metro AG?
5ad0b1c4645df0001a2d007e
True
The design and function of department stores in Germany followed the lead of London, Paris and New York. Germany used to have a number of department stores; nowadays only a few of them remain. Next to some smaller, independent department stores these are Karstadt (in 2010 taken over by Nicolas Berggruen, also operating the KaDeWe in Berlin, the Alsterhaus in Hamburg and the Oberpollinger in Munich), GALERIA Kaufhof (part of the Metro AG). Others like Hertie, Wertheim and Horten AG were taken over by others and either fully integrated or later closed.
Where did the Metro Department store originally begin?
57266ad8f1498d1400e8df1e
Singapore and Sogo from Japan
83
False
When did Seibu, located in Jakarta, re-open?
57266ad8f1498d1400e8df1f
2007
114
False
Where did Galeries Lafayette open in 2013, inside Indonesia?
57266ad8f1498d1400e8df20
Pacific Place Mall
460
False
Who operates the wide range of department stores in these areas?
57266ad8f1498d1400e8df21
PT. Mitra Adiperkasa.
726
False
What store led the Indonesian markets until 2010 when it closed?
57266ad8f1498d1400e8df22
Harvey Nichols
243
False
Singapore and Sogo from Japan
83
Where did the Metro Department store originally end?
5ad0b214645df0001a2d008e
True
2007
114
When did Seibu, located in Jakarta, re-close?
5ad0b214645df0001a2d008f
True
Pacific Place Mall
460
Where did Galeries Lafayette open in 2003, inside Indonesia
5ad0b214645df0001a2d0090
True
PT. Mitra Adiperkasa
726
Who operates the wide range of department stores in other areas?
5ad0b214645df0001a2d0091
True
Harvey Nichols
658
What store led the Indonesian markets until 2000 when it closed?
5ad0b214645df0001a2d0092
True
The middle up segment is mainly occupied by Metro Department Store originated from Singapore and Sogo from Japan. 2007 saw the re-opening of Jakarta's Seibu, poised to be the largest and second most upscale department store in Indonesia after Harvey Nichols, which the latter closed in 2010 and yet plans to return. Other international department stores include Debenhams and Marks & Spencer. Galeries Lafayette also joins the Indonesian market in 2013 inside Pacific Place Mall. This department store is targeting middle up market with price range from affordable to luxury, poised to be the largest upscale department store. Galeries Lafayette, Debenhams, Harvey Nichols, Marks & Spencer, Seibu and Sogo are all operated by PT. Mitra Adiperkasa.
What store did Parkson buy in 2011?
57266bdd5951b619008f722d
Centro Department Store
40
False
Where did Centro open it's first store of 2014?
57266bdd5951b619008f722e
Medan
226
False
Who did Lotte partner with?
57266bdd5951b619008f722f
Ciputra Group
337
False
Where is the "Lotte Shopping Avenue" located?
57266bdd5951b619008f7230
Ciputra World Jakarta complex
412
False
What was Makro re-labeled as after it's purchase?
57266bdd5951b619008f7231
Lotte Mart
493
False
Centro Department Store
40
What store did Parkson sell in 2011?
5ad0b298645df0001a2d00a2
True
Medan
226
Where did Centro open it's first store of 2004?
5ad0b298645df0001a2d00a3
True
Ciputra Group
337
Who didn't Lotte partner with?
5ad0b298645df0001a2d00a4
True
Ciputra World Jakarta complex
412
Where isn't the "Lotte Shopping Avenue" located?
5ad0b298645df0001a2d00a5
True
Lotte Mart
493
What was Makro re-labeled as before it's purchase?
5ad0b298645df0001a2d00a6
True
Parkson enters by acquiring local brand Centro Department Store in 2011. Centro still operates for middle market while the 'Parkson' brand itself, positioned for middle-up segment, enters in 2014 by opening its first store in Medan, followed by its second store in Jakarta. Lotte, meanwhile, enters the market by inking partnership with Ciputra Group, creating what its called 'Lotte Shopping Avenue' inside the Ciputra World Jakarta complex, as well as acquiring Makro and rebranding it into Lotte Mart.
When did Ireland begin to see a growth in its middle class?
57266ee0708984140094c5c5
mid-nineteenth century.
80
False
What department store was founded in 1853?
57266ee0708984140094c5c6
Delany's New Mart
151
False
In what city was Delany's New Mart opened?
57266ee0708984140094c5c7
Dublin
191
False
What was Delany's originally called?
57266ee0708984140094c5c8
Monster House
457
False
In what year was the store destroyed?
57266ee0708984140094c5c9
1916
515
False
mid-nineteenth century
80
When did Ireland begin to see a growth in its upper class?
5ad0b2f8645df0001a2d00b6
True
Delany's New Mart
151
What department store was founded in 1835?
5ad0b2f8645df0001a2d00b7
True
Dublin
191
In what city was Delany's New Mart closed?
5ad0b2f8645df0001a2d00b8
True
Monster House
457
What wasn't Delany's originally called?
5ad0b2f8645df0001a2d00b9
True
1916
515
In what year wasn't the store destroyed?
5ad0b2f8645df0001a2d00ba
True
Ireland developed a strong middle class, especially in the major cities, by the mid-nineteenth century. They were active patrons of department stores. Delany's New Mart was opened in 1853 in Dublin, Ireland. Unlike others, Delany's had not evolved gradually from a smaller shop on site. Thus it could claim to be the first purpose-built Department Store in the world. The word department store had not been invented at that time and thus it was called the "Monster House". The store was completely destroyed in the 1916 Easter Rising, but reopened in 1922.
What Mexican department store typically caters to high-end goods?
57266f58dd62a815002e84b0
El Palacio de Hierro
98
False
What company is responsible for over 100 stores in the country?
57266f58dd62a815002e84b1
Sanborns
241
False
What company operates Sears Mexico?
57266f58dd62a815002e84b2
Grupo Carso
315
False
What chains typically cater to bargain shoppers?
57266f58dd62a815002e84b3
Coppel and Elektra
413
False
El Palacio de Hierro
98
What Mexican department store typically caters to low-end goods?
5ad0b344645df0001a2d00c0
True
Sanborns
241
What company is responsible for over 200 stores in the country?
5ad0b344645df0001a2d00c1
True
Sanborns
241
What company isn't responsible for over 100 stores in the country?
5ad0b344645df0001a2d00c2
True
Grupo Carso
315
What company rejects Sears Mexico?
5ad0b344645df0001a2d00c3
True
Coppel and Elektra
413
What chains typically don't cater to bargain shoppers?
5ad0b344645df0001a2d00c4
True
Mexico has a large number of department stores based in Mexico, of which the most traditional are El Palacio de Hierro (High end and luxury goods) and Liverpool (Upper-middle income), with its middle income sister store Fabricas de Francia. Sanborns owns over 100 middle income level stores throughout the country. Grupo Carso operates Sears Mexico and two high-end Saks 5th Avenue stores. Other large chains are Coppel and Elektra, which offer items for the bargain price seeker. Wal-Mart operates Suburbia for lower income shoppers, along with stores under the brand names of Wal-Mart, Bodega Aurrera, and Superama.
What sorts of goods do the most popular department stores in New Zealand offer?
572671565951b619008f72c7
high-end and luxury items
309
False
What city is Arthur Barnett in?
572671565951b619008f72c8
Dunedin
384
False
Where is H & J Smith's flagship store?
572671565951b619008f72c9
Invercargill
484
False
Where are H & J Smith stores typically located?
572671565951b619008f72ca
Southland
443
False
When was Laidlaw Leeds first established?
572671565951b619008f72cb
1909
610
False
high-end and luxury items
309
What sorts of goods do the least popular department stores in New Zealand offer?
5ad0b3fb645df0001a2d00d4
True
Dunedin
384
What city isn't Arthur Barnett in?
5ad0b3fb645df0001a2d00d5
True
Invercargill
484
Where isn't H & J Smith's flagship store?
5ad0b3fb645df0001a2d00d6
True
Southland
443
Where are H & J Smith stores atypically located?
5ad0b3fb645df0001a2d00d7
True
1909
610
When was Laidlaw Leeds last established?
5ad0b3fb645df0001a2d00d8
True
The iconic department stores of New Zealand's three major centres are Smith & Caughey's (founded 1880), in New Zealand's most populous city, Auckland; Kirkcaldie & Stains (founded 1863) in the capital, Wellington; and Ballantynes (founded 1854) in New Zealand's second biggest city, Christchurch. These offer high-end and luxury items. Additionally, Arthur Barnett (1903) operates in Dunedin. H & J Smith is a small chain operating throughout Southland with a large flagship store in Invercargill. Farmers is a mid-range national chain of stores (originally a mail-order firm known as Laidlaw Leeds founded in 1909). Historical department stores include DIC. Discount chains include The Warehouse, Kmart Australia, and the now-defunct DEKA.
How did Panama's department stores originally begin?
5726731d708984140094c681
as textile retailers
96
False
When did Panama's Department stores first start?
5726731d708984140094c682
at the turn of the nineteenth century
117
False
What department store is often called "Felix" by the local population?
5726731d708984140094c683
Felix B. Maduro
401
False
What store has managed to survive despite much it's competition going under?
5726731d708984140094c684
Cocos
538
False
as textile retailers
96
How did Panama's department stores originally end?
5ad0b45d645df0001a2d00f2
True
as textile retailers
96
How didn't Panama's department stores originally begin?
5ad0b45d645df0001a2d00f3
True
at the turn of the nineteenth century
117
When did Panama's Department stores first end?
5ad0b45d645df0001a2d00f4
True
Felix B. Maduro
401
What department store is never called "Felix" by the local population?
5ad0b45d645df0001a2d00f5
True
Cocos
538
What store has managed to close despite much it's competition thriving?
5ad0b45d645df0001a2d00f6
True
Panama's first department stores such as Bazaar Francés, La Dalia and La Villa de Paris started as textile retailers at the turn of the nineteenth century. Later on in the twentieth century these eventually gave way to stores such as Felix B. Maduro, Sarah Panamá, Figali, Danté, Sears, Gran Morrison and smaller ones such as Bon Bini, Cocos, El Lider, Piccolo and Clubman among others. Of these only Felix B. Maduro (usually referred to as Felix by locals) and Danté remain strong. All the others have either folded or declined although Cocos has managed to secure a good position in the market.
When was the first department store in the Philippines opened?
572673e0dd62a815002e855c
1877
110
False
Who opened some of the first department stores in the Philippines?
572673e0dd62a815002e855d
Henry Hoskyn
143
False
Where were some of the original Philippine stores located?
572673e0dd62a815002e855e
Manila
298
False
What historical event led to many department stores in the area being destroyed?
572673e0dd62a815002e855f
Battle of Manila in 1945
797
False
When were the companies Shoemart and Rustan's established?
572673e0dd62a815002e8560
1950s
984
False
1877
110
When was the first department store in the Philippines closed?
5ad0c224645df0001a2d01f6
True
1877
110
When was the last department store in the Philippines opened?
5ad0c224645df0001a2d01f7
True
Henry Hoskyn
143
Who closed some of the first department stores in the Philippines?
5ad0c224645df0001a2d01f8
True
Manila
298
Where were some of the newest Philippines stores located?
5ad0c224645df0001a2d01f9
True
Battle of Manila in 1945
797
What historical event led to many department stores in the area being saved?
5ad0c224645df0001a2d01fa
True
The first department store in the Philippines is the Hoskyn's Department Store of Hoskyn & Co. established in 1877 in Iloilo by the Englishman Henry Hoskyn, nephew of Nicholas Loney, the first British vice-consul in Iloilo. Some of the earliest department stores in the Philippines were located in Manila as early as 1898 with the opening of the American Bazaar, which was later named Beck's. During the course of the American occupation of the Philippines, many department stores were built throughout the city, many of which were located in Escolta. Heacock's, a luxury department store, was considered as the best department store in the Orient. Other department stores included Aguinaldo's, La Puerta del Sol, Estrella del Norte, and the Crystal Arcade, all of which were destroyed during the Battle of Manila in 1945. After the war, department stores were once again alive with the establishment of Shoemart (now SM), and Rustan's. Since the foundation of these companies in the 1950s, there are now more than one hundred department stores to date. At present, due to the huge success of shopping malls, department stores in the Philippines usually are anchor tenants within malls. SM Supermalls and Robinsons Malls are two of the country's most prominent mall chains, all of which has Department Store sections.
What department store in Puerto Rico is named after an American city?
5726746a708984140094c6b7
La New York
186
False
When is the Mall of San Juan expected to open?
5726746a708984140094c6b8
March 2015
531
False
How many tenants are expected to set up shop in the Mall of San Juan?
5726746a708984140094c6b9
100 tenants
491
False
What two major retailers have plans to do business in the mall once it opens?
5726746a708984140094c6ba
Nordstrom and Saks Fifth Avenue
370
False
La New York
186
What department store in Puerto Rico isn't named after an American city?
5ad0c404645df0001a2d024e
True
March 2015
531
When is the Mall of San Juan expected to close?
5ad0c404645df0001a2d024f
True
March 2015
531
When isn't the Mall of San Juan expected to open?
5ad0c404645df0001a2d0250
True
100 tenants.
491
How many tenants aren't expected to set up shop in the Mall of San Juan?
5ad0c404645df0001a2d0251
True
Nordstrom and Saks Fifth Avenue
370
What two minor retailers have plans to do business in the mall once it opens?
5ad0c404645df0001a2d0252
True
In Puerto Rico, various department stores have operated, such as Sears, JC Penney, Macy's, Kmart, Wal-Mart, Marshalls, Burlington Coat Factory, T.J. Maxx, Costco, Sam's Club and others. La New York was a Puerto Rican department store. Topeka, Capri and Pitusa are competitors on the Puerto Rican market that also have hypermarkets operating under their names. Retailers Nordstrom and Saks Fifth Avenue also have plans to come to the Mall of San Juan, a new high-end retail project with over 100 tenants. The mall is set to open in March 2015.
When was Saint Petersburg established?
5726751a5951b619008f732b
early 18th century
113
False
Who founded a shopping mall reserved for the most elites of society?
5726751a5951b619008f732c
Count Essen-Stenbock-Fermor
252
False
What famous author described parts of the mall in his books?
5726751a5951b619008f732d
Dostoyevsky
682
False
What historical site still operates within the mall?
5726751a5951b619008f732e
Komissarzhevskaya Theatre
1003
False
early 18th century
113
When was Saint Petersburg demolished?
5ad0c4c2645df0001a2d0280
True
Count Essen-Stenbock-Fermor
252
Who founded a shopping mall reserved for the poorest of society?
5ad0c4c2645df0001a2d0281
True
Dostoyevsky
682
What unknown author described parts of the mall in his books?
5ad0c4c2645df0001a2d0282
True
Komissarzhevskaya Theatre
1003
What historical site no longer operates within the mall?
5ad0c4c2645df0001a2d0283
True
Komissarzhevskaya Theatre
1003
What historical site still operates outside of the mall?
5ad0c4c2645df0001a2d0284
True
The site where the Saint Petersburg Passage sprawls had been devoted to trade since the city's foundation in the early 18th century. It had been occupied by various shops and warehouses (Maly Gostiny Dvor, Schukin Dvor, Apraksin Dvor) until 1846, when Count Essen-Stenbock-Fermor acquired the grounds to build an elite shopping mall for the Russian nobility and wealthy bourgeoisie. Stenbock-Fermor conceived of the Passage as more than a mere shopping mall, but also as a cultural and social centre for the people of St Petersburg. The edifice contained coffee-houses, confectioneries, panorama installations, an anatomical museum, a wax museum, and even a small zoo, described by Dostoyevsky in his extravaganza "Crocodile, or Passage through the Passage". The concert hall became renowned as a setting for literary readings attended by the likes of Dostoevsky and Turgenev. Parenthetically, the Passage premises have long been associated with the entertainment industry and still remains home to the Komissarzhevskaya Theatre.
What group was established in 1921 in response to the clash between socialism and consumerism?
57267609f1498d1400e8e062
State Department Stores (GUM)
46
False
When did GUM begin to decline and lose power?
57267609f1498d1400e8e063
late 1920s
873
False
Who formed the State Department Stores, AKA GUM?
57267609f1498d1400e8e064
Lenin
87
False
When did they first establish the organization?
57267609f1498d1400e8e065
1921
96
False
State Department Stores (GUM)
46
What group was established in 1912 in response to the clash between socialism and consumerism?
5ad0c52b645df0001a2d02a8
True
State Department Stores (GUM)
46
What group was established in 1921 in response to the clash between communism and consumerism?
5ad0c52b645df0001a2d02a9
True
late 1920s
873
When did GUM stop declining and gained power?
5ad0c52b645df0001a2d02aa
True
Lenin
87
Who never formed the State Department Stores, AKA GUM?
5ad0c52b645df0001a2d02ab
True
1921
96
When did they last establish the organization?
5ad0c52b645df0001a2d02ac
True
Socialism confronted consumerism in the chain State Department Stores (GUM), set up by Lenin in 1921 as a model retail enterprise. It operated stores throughout Russia and targeted consumers across class, gender, and ethnic lines. GUM was designed to advance the Bolsheviks' goals of eliminating private enterprise and rebuilding consumerism along socialist lines, as well as democratizing consumption for workers and peasants nationwide. GUM became a major propaganda purveyor, with advertising and promotional campaigns that taught Russians the goals of the regime and attempted to inculcate new attitudes and behavior. In trying to create a socialist consumer culture from scratch, GUM recast the functions and meanings of buying and selling, turning them into politically charged acts that could either contribute to or delay the march toward utopian communism. By the late 1920s, however, GUM's gandiose goals had proven unrealistic and largely alienated consumers, who instead learned a culture of complaint and entitlement. GUM's main function became one of distributing whatever the factories sent them, regardless of consumer demand or quality.
Where is the most notable Russian department store located?
5726768b5951b619008f7363
Moscow
73
False
In what city is the Passage located?
5726768b5951b619008f7364
St. Petersburg
312
False
What movie demonstrates the operation of department stores in the former Soviet Union?
5726768b5951b619008f7365
Behind Store Window
390
False
When was the movie depicting soviet department stores filmed?
5726768b5951b619008f7366
1956
373
False
Moscow
73
Where is the least notable Russian department store located?
5ad0c5ea645df0001a2d02b2
True
Moscow
73
Where is the most notable Russian department store not located?
5ad0c5ea645df0001a2d02b3
True
St. Petersburg
312
In what city isn't the Passage located?
5ad0c5ea645df0001a2d02b4
True
Behind Store Window
390
What movie demonstrates the operation of department stores in the current Soviet Union?
5ad0c5ea645df0001a2d02b5
True
1956
373
When wasn't the movie depicting soviet department stores filmed?
5ad0c5ea645df0001a2d02b6
True
In the 21st century the most famous department store in Russia is GUM in Moscow, followed by TsUM and the Petrovsky Passage. Other popular stores are Mega (shopping malls), Stockmann, and Marks & Spencer. Media Markt, M-video, Technosila, and White Wind (Beliy Veter) sell large number of electronic devices. In St. Petersburg The Passage has been popular since the 1840s. 1956 Soviet film Behind Store Window (За витриной универмага) on YouTube depicts operation of a Moscow department store in 1950's.
What department store chain operates the most stores?
57267762708984140094c71b
Lotte Department Store
82
False
Where is the "field of distribution" most often associated with?
57267762708984140094c71c
South Korea
540
False
What store was the largest department store in the world in 2010?
57267762708984140094c71d
Shinsegae department store
774
False
Where is the largest department store in the world located?
57267762708984140094c71e
Centum City, Busan
804
False
Lotte Department Store
82
What department store chain operates the least stores?
5ad0c65e645df0001a2d02bc
True
Lotte Department Store
82
What department restaurant chain operates the most stores?
5ad0c65e645df0001a2d02bd
True
South Korea
540
Where is the "field of distribution" least often associated with?
5ad0c65e645df0001a2d02be
True
Centum City, Busan
804
Where is the smallest department store in the world located?
5ad0c65e645df0001a2d02bf
True
Shinsegae department store
774
What store was the smallest department store in the world in 2010?
5ad0c65e645df0001a2d02c0
True
The five most prevalent chains are Lotte, Hyundai, Shinsegae, Galleria, AK plaza. Lotte Department Store is the largest, operating more than 40 stores (include outlet, young plaza, foreign branches). Hyundai Department Store has about 14 stores (13dept, 1outlet), and there are 10 stores in Shinsegae. Shinsegae has 3 outlet store with Simon. Galleria has 5, AK has 5 stores. Galleriaeast and west is well known by luxury goods. These five department stores are known to people as representative corporations in the field of distirution in South Korea. From fashion items to electric appliances, people can buy various kinds of products. Every weekend, people are fond of going around these department stores, because their location is usually easy to visit. As of 2010 the Shinsegae department store in Centum City, Busan, is the largest department store in the world.
What was the name of the first Spanish department store?
572678385951b619008f739b
Almacenes el Siglo
40
False
When was the first Spanish department store opened?
572678385951b619008f739c
October 1881
69
False
What department store brand now owns most of the market in Spain?
572678385951b619008f739d
El Corte Inglés
298
False
When was El Corte Ingles established?
572678385951b619008f739e
1934
326
False
Almacenes el Siglo
40
What wasn't the name of the first Spanish department store?
5ad0c6bb645df0001a2d02ce
True
Almacenes el Siglo
40
What was the name of the last Spanish department store?
5ad0c6bb645df0001a2d02cf
True
October 1881
69
When was the first Spanish department store closed?
5ad0c6bb645df0001a2d02d0
True
1934
326
When was El Corte Ingles demolished?
5ad0c6bb645df0001a2d02d1
True
El Corte Inglés
351
What department store brand now rents most of the market in Spain?
5ad0c6bb645df0001a2d02d2
True
The first department store in Spain was Almacenes el Siglo opened in October 1881 in Barcelona. Following the 2002 closure by the Australian group Partridges of their SEPU (Sociedad Española de Precios Unicos) department store chain, which was one of Spain's oldest, the market is now dominated by El Corte Inglés, founded in 1934 as a drapery store. El Corte Inglés stores tend to be vast buildings, selling a very broad range of products and the group also controls a number of other retail formats including supermarket chain 'Supercor' and hypermarket chain 'Hipercor'. Other competitors such as 'Simago' and 'Galerías Preciados' closed in the 1990s, however El Corte Inglés, faces major competition from French discount operators such as Carrefour and Auchan.
What is the former name of John Lewis Newcastle?
572678ca5951b619008f73b5
Bainbridge
31
False
What is the world's oldest department store?
572678ca5951b619008f73b6
John Lewis Newcastle
0
False
Who partnered with William Alder Dunn to open the first store?
572678ca5951b619008f73b7
Emerson Muschamp Bainbridge
256
False
What was the location of the first store?
572678ca5951b619008f73b8
Market Street, Newcastle
377
False
When did John Lewis purchase and take over the Bainbridge store?
572678ca5951b619008f73b9
1952
726
False
Bainbridge
31
What is the current name of John Lewis Newcastle?
5ad0c710645df0001a2d02e2
True
John Lewis Newcastle
0
What is the world's newest department store?
5ad0c710645df0001a2d02e3
True
Emerson Muschamp Bainbridge
256
Who partnered with William Alder Dunn to open the last store?
5ad0c710645df0001a2d02e4
True
Market Street, Newcastle
377
What was the location of the last store?
5ad0c710645df0001a2d02e5
True
1952
726
When did John Lewis sell and take over the Bainbridge store?
5ad0c710645df0001a2d02e6
True
John Lewis Newcastle (formerly Bainbridge) in Newcastle upon Tyne, is the world's oldest Department Store. It is still known to many of its customers as Bainbridge, despite the name change to 'John Lewis'. The Newcastle institution dates back to 1838 when Emerson Muschamp Bainbridge, aged 21, went into partnership with William Alder Dunn and opened a draper's and fashion in Market Street, Newcastle. In terms of retailing history, one of the most significant facts about the Newcastle Bainbridge shop, is that as early as 1849 weekly takings were recorded by department, making it the earliest of all department stores. This ledger survives and is kept in the John Lewis archives. John Lewis bought the Bainbridge store in 1952.
Who purchased a small shop in 1835, which would eventually become Kendals?
572679ab5951b619008f73d3
Kendal Milne and Faulkner
187
False
Where was the store located?
572679ab5951b619008f73d4
Manchester
370
False
How long did the store operate for?
572679ab5951b619008f73d5
over 200 years
406
False
Who eventually purchased and assumed operation of the store?
572679ab5951b619008f73d6
House of Fraser
443
False
Kendal Milne and Faulkner
187
Who purchased a small shop in 1853, which would eventually become Kendals?
5ad0c764645df0001a2d02ec
True
Kendal Milne and Faulkner
187
Who purchased a large shop in 1835, which would eventually become Kendals?
5ad0c764645df0001a2d02ed
True
Manchester
17
Where wasn't the store located?
5ad0c764645df0001a2d02ee
True
over 200 years
406
How long didn't the store operate for?
5ad0c764645df0001a2d02ef
True
House of Fraser
443
Who eventually sold and ceased operation of the store?
5ad0c764645df0001a2d02f0
True
Also, Kendals in Manchester can lay claim to being one of the oldest department stores in the UK. Beginning as a small shop owned by S. and J. Watts in 1796, its sold a variety of goods. Kendal Milne and Faulkner purchased the business in 1835. Expanding the space, rather than use it as a typical warehouse simply to showcase textiles, it became a vast bazaar. Serving Manchester's upmarket clientele for over 200 years, it was taken over by House of Fraser and recently rebranded as House of Fraser Manchester – although most Mancunians still refer to it as Kendals. The Kendal Milne signage still remains over the main entrance to the art deco building in the city's Deansgate.
When did Garfinckel's begin operating in Washington?
57267a20708984140094c763
1905
244
False
In what year did Garfield's go bankrupt?
57267a20708984140094c764
1990
278
False
How many major department stores did Baltimore have at the time?
57267a20708984140094c765
four
333
False
By what year had most local stores been assimilated into larger chain operations?
57267a20708984140094c766
2015
539
False
1905
244
When did Garfinckel's end operating in Washington?
5ad0c7df645df0001a2d0300
True
1990
278
In what year didn't Garfield's go bankrupt?
5ad0c7df645df0001a2d0301
True
four
333
How many minor department stores did Baltimore have at the time?
5ad0c7df645df0001a2d0302
True
four
333
How many major department stores didn't Baltimore have at the time?
5ad0c7df645df0001a2d0303
True
2015
539
By what year hadn't most local stores been assimilated into larger chain operations?
5ad0c7df645df0001a2d0304
True
All major cities have their distinctive local department stores, which anchored the downtown shopping district until the arrival of the malls in the 1960s. Washington, for example, after 1887 had Woodward & Lothrop and Garfinckel's starting in 1905. Garfield's went bankrupt in 1990, as did Woodward & Lothrop in 1994. Baltimore had four major department stores: Hutzler's was the prestige leader, followed by Hecht's, Hochschild's and Stewart's. They all operated branches in the suburbs, but all closed in the late twentieth century. By 2015, most locally owned department stores around the country had been consolidated into larger chains, or had closed down entirely.
How many stores was J. C. Penny operating in 1930?
57267b57708984140094c793
1452
225
False
What demographic were most stores focusing on?
57267b57708984140094c794
middle-class audience
401
False
What store was one of the first to offer shopping choices for both men and women at the same time?
57267b57708984140094c795
Sears
484
False
How many stores was Sears operating in 1940?
57267b57708984140094c796
595
367
False
1452
225
How many stores was J. C. Penny operating in 1903?
5ad0c831645df0001a2d030a
True
1452
225
How many stores wasn't J. C. Penny operating in 1930?
5ad0c831645df0001a2d030b
True
middle-class audience
401
What demographic weren't most stores focusing on?
5ad0c831645df0001a2d030c
True
Sears
484
What store was one of the last to offer shopping choices for both men and women at the same time?
5ad0c831645df0001a2d030d
True
595
367
How many stores was Sears operating in 1904?
5ad0c831645df0001a2d030e
True
Chain department stores grew rapidly after 1920, and provided competition for the downtown upscale department stores, as well as local department stores in small cities. J. C. Penney had four stores in 1908, 312 in 1920, and 1452 in 1930. Sears, Roebuck & Company, a giant mail-order house, opened its first eight retail stores in 1925, and operated 338 by 1930, and 595 by 1940. The chains reached a middle-class audience, that was more interested in value than in upscale fashions. Sears was a pioneer in creating department stores that catered to men as well as women, especially with lines of hardware and building materials. It deemphasized the latest fashions in favor of practicality and durability, and allowed customers to select goods without the aid of a clerk. Its stores were oriented to motorists – set apart from existing business districts amid residential areas occupied by their target audience; had ample, free, off-street parking; and communicated a clear corporate identity. In the 1930s, the company designed fully air-conditioned, "windowless" stores whose layout was driven wholly by merchandising concerns.
In what year did Hudson's address the issue of parking within cities?
57267be6708984140094c79b
1954
162
False
What was the store called in Southfield?
57267be6708984140094c79c
Northland Center
183
False
In what year did the Hudson's skyscraper close?
57267be6708984140094c79d
1986
509
False
What company purchased the Northland Center in 2006?
57267be6708984140094c79e
Federated Department Stores
596
False
What was the Northfield Center renamed after it's purchase by another company?
57267be6708984140094c79f
Macy's
556
False
1954
162
In what year didn't Hudson's address the issue of parking within cities?
5ad0c883645df0001a2d0314
True
1954
162
In what year did Hudson's address the issue of parking outside of cities?
5ad0c883645df0001a2d0315
True
Northland Center
183
What was the store called in Northfield?
5ad0c883645df0001a2d0316
True
1986
509
In what year did the Hudson's skyscraper open?
5ad0c883645df0001a2d0317
True
Federated Department Stores
596
What company purchased the Northland Center in 2016?
5ad0c883645df0001a2d0318
True
After World War II Hudson's realized that the limited parking space at its downtown skyscraper would increasingly be a problem for its customers. The solution in 1954 was to open the Northland Center in nearby Southfield, just beyond the city limits. It was the largest suburban shopping center in the world, and quickly became the main shopping destination for northern and western Detroit, and for much of the suburbs. By 1961 the downtown skyscraper accounted for only half of Hudson's sales; it closed in 1986. The Northland Center Hudson's, rebranded Macy's in 2006 following acquisition by Federated Department Stores, was closed along with the remaining stores in the center in March 2015 due to the mall's high storefront vacancy, decaying infrastructure, and financial mismanagement.
Who opened Dayton's Dry Goods?
57267d63708984140094c7e1
George Dayton
0
False
In what year was Dayton's Dry Goods established?
57267d63708984140094c7e2
1902
73
False
When was the Southdale Center opened?
57267d63708984140094c7e3
1956
153
False
What store did the Dayton-Hudson Corporation purchase in 1978?
57267d63708984140094c7e4
Mervyn's
522
False
George Dayton
0
Who closed Dayton's Dry Goods?
5ad0c8d3645df0001a2d0328
True
1902
73
In what year wasn't Dayton's Dry Goods established?
5ad0c8d3645df0001a2d0329
True
1902
73
In what year was Dayton's Dry Goods closed?
5ad0c8d3645df0001a2d032a
True
1956
153
When was the Southdale Center closed?
5ad0c8d3645df0001a2d032b
True
Mervyn's
522
What store did the Dayton-Hudson Corporation purchase in 1987?
5ad0c8d3645df0001a2d032c
True
George Dayton had founded his Dayton's Dry Goods store in Minneapolis in 1902 and the AMC cooperative in 1912. His descendants built Southdale Center in 1956, opened the Target discount store chain in 1962 and the B. Dalton Bookseller chain in 1966. Dayton's grew to 19 stores under the Dayton's name plus five other regional names acquired by Dayton-Hudson. The Dayton-Hudson Corporation closed the flagship J. L. Hudson Department Store in downtown Detroit in 1983, but expanded its other retail operations. It acquired Mervyn's in 1978, Marshall Field's in 1990, and renamed itself the Target Corporation in 2000. In 2002, Dayton's and Hudson's were consolidated into the Marshall Field's name. In 2005, May Department Stores acquired all of the Marshall Field's stores and shortly thereafter, Macy's acquired May.
In what year did Horne began doing business?
57267df65951b619008f7493
1849
3
False
In what city did Horne begin their operations?
57267df65951b619008f7494
Pittsburgh
60
False
What company purchased Horne's in 1972?
57267df65951b619008f7495
Associated Dry Goods
201
False
How many Horne's stores did Federated Department Stores buy in 1994?
57267df65951b619008f7496
ten
580
False
1849
3
In what year didn't Horne begin doing business?
5ad0c922645df0001a2d0346
True
1849
3
In what year did Horne stop doing business?
5ad0c922645df0001a2d0347
True
Pittsburgh
60
In what city did Horne cease their operations?
5ad0c922645df0001a2d0348
True
Associated Dry Goods
201
What company purchased Horne's in 1927?
5ad0c922645df0001a2d0349
True
ten
580
How many Horne's stores did Federated Department Stores buy in 1949?
5ad0c922645df0001a2d034a
True
In 1849, Horne's began operations and soon became a leading Pittsburgh department store. In 1879, it opened a seven-story landmark which was the first department store in the city's downtown. In 1972, Associated Dry Goods acquired Horne's, and ADG expanded operations of Horne's to several stores in suburban malls throughout the Pittsburgh region as well as in Erie, Pennsylvania and Northeast Ohio. In December 1986, Horne's was acquired by a local investor group following ADG's acquisition by May Department Stores. By 1994, Federated Department Stores acquired the remaining ten Horne's stores and merged them with its Lazarus division, completely ceasing all operations of any store under the Horne's name.
Intellectual_property
Which constitution gave legislative power to protect intellectual property?
57264dedf1498d1400e8db8c
the North German Confederation
52
False
When was the Paris Convention?
57264dedf1498d1400e8db8d
1883
302
False
When was the Berne Convention?
57264dedf1498d1400e8db8e
1886
334
False
When did the Paris and Berne administrative secretariats merge?
57264dedf1498d1400e8db8f
1893
350
False
What name did the merged secretariats adopt?
57264dedf1498d1400e8db90
United International Bureaux for the Protection of Intellectual Property
460
False
North German Confederation
56
What constitution epressly protected intellectual propert?
5a157229a54d420018529435
True
the administrative secretariats
233
What position was established by the Paris convention in 1886 and the Berne Convention 1883?
5a157229a54d420018529436
True
Berne Convention
316
Secretaties from what convention merged with the secrataries of the Paris Convention  in 1886?
5a157229a54d420018529437
True
administrative secretariats
237
Who located in Paris after merging in 1893?
5a157229a54d420018529438
True
the United International Bureaux for the Protection of Intellectual Property
456
What name was adopted by the administrative secretatioes from the Berne Convention?
5a157229a54d420018529439
True
The German equivalent was used with the founding of the North German Confederation whose constitution granted legislative power over the protection of intellectual property (Schutz des geistigen Eigentums) to the confederation. When the administrative secretariats established by the Paris Convention (1883) and the Berne Convention (1886) merged in 1893, they located in Berne, and also adopted the term intellectual property in their new combined title, the United International Bureaux for the Protection of Intellectual Property.
When was the patent case Davoll et al. v. Brown ruled on?
57264ed5dd62a815002e8122
October 1845
33
False
Which court ruled on the patent case Davoll et al. v. Brown?
57264ed5dd62a815002e8123
Massachusetts Circuit Court
46
False
Who wrote that "only in this way can we protect intellectual property"?
57264ed5dd62a815002e8124
Justice Charles L. Woodbury
134
False
What year did the "discoveries are property" concept appear in French law?
57264ed5dd62a815002e8125
1791
456
False
When did French author A. Nion mention intellectual property?
57264ed5dd62a815002e8126
1846
813
False
A. Nion
699
What French author mentioned intellectual property in 1845?
5a15745fa54d42001852943f
True
Massachusetts Circuit Court
46
Who ruled on the 1846 patent case?
5a15745fa54d420018529440
True
Justice Charles L. Woodbury
134
What justice wrote "All new discoveries are the property of the author"
5a15745fa54d420018529441
True
1791
456
In what year did French law state that " the labors of the mind, productions and interests are as much a man's own...as the wheat he cultivates"?
5a15745fa54d420018529442
True
a patent
632
What is delivered to the nventor for anywhere from 1-15 years?
5a15745fa54d420018529443
True
The term can be found used in an October 1845 Massachusetts Circuit Court ruling in the patent case Davoll et al. v. Brown., in which Justice Charles L. Woodbury wrote that "only in this way can we protect intellectual property, the labors of the mind, productions and interests are as much a man's own...as the wheat he cultivates, or the flocks he rears." The statement that "discoveries are...property" goes back earlier. Section 1 of the French law of 1791 stated, "All new discoveries are the property of the author; to assure the inventor the property and temporary enjoyment of his discovery, there shall be delivered to him a patent for five, ten or fifteen years." In Europe, French author A. Nion mentioned propriété intellectuelle in his Droits civils des auteurs, artistes et inventeurs, published in 1846.
Jewish law includes which principle used to justify copyright?
57264f85f1498d1400e8dbc2
Hasagat Ge'vul (unfair encroachment)
284
False
When did Jewish law recognize copyright?
57264f85f1498d1400e8dbc3
in the 16th century
391
False
When did Sybaris offer patents?
57264f85f1498d1400e8dbc4
500 BCE
415
False
How long was a patent valid in Sybaris?
57264f85f1498d1400e8dbc5
one year
477
False
the principle of Hasagat Ge'vul (unfair encroachment)
267
What Jewish principle justified copyright in 500 BCE?
5a157a3ca54d420018529449
True
one year
477
How long was the patent offered by Jewish law?
5a157a3ca54d42001852944a
True
Sybaris
461
What Greek state offered copyrights?
5a157a3ca54d42001852944b
True
property
225
A Jewish law considered intellectual creations to be what?
5a157a3ca54d42001852944c
True
The concept's origins can potentially be traced back further. Jewish law includes several considerations whose effects are similar to those of modern intellectual property laws, though the notion of intellectual creations as property does not seem to exist – notably the principle of Hasagat Ge'vul (unfair encroachment) was used to justify limited-term publisher (but not author) copyright in the 16th century. In 500 BCE, the government of the Greek state of Sybaris offered one year's patent "to all who should discover any new refinement in luxury".
Who grants a patent?
57264ffb708984140094c20f
the government
39
False
Who is a patent granted to?
57264ffb708984140094c210
an inventor
57
False
How many requirements does an invention need to fulfill for a patent?
57264ffb708984140094c211
three
403
False
An invention is a solution to what type of problem?
57264ffb708984140094c212
technological
316
False
What is a patent offered in exchange for?
57264ffb708984140094c213
public disclosure of the invention
239
False
A patent
0
What excludes the inventor from making using selling or offering to sell an invention?
5a157b6da54d420018529451
True
the invention
260
What is kept from public disclosure in exchange for a patent?
5a157b6da54d420018529452
True
an invention
176
What is a solution to an intellectual problem?
5a157b6da54d420018529453
True
A patent
0
What grandson inventor exclusive use of an invention for a limited amount of time?
5a157b6da54d420018529454
True
an invention
176
What needs to be new obvious and have an industrial application?
5a157b6da54d420018529455
True
A patent is a form of right granted by the government to an inventor, giving the owner the right to exclude others from making, using, selling, offering to sell, and importing an invention for a limited period of time, in exchange for the public disclosure of the invention. An invention is a solution to a specific technological problem, which may be a product or a process and generally has to fulfil three main requirements: it has to be new, not obvious and there needs to be an industrial applicability.:17
What is the stated objective of most intellectual property law?
5726508f5951b619008f6faf
Promote progress.
97
False
What do patents create an incentive for inventors to do?
5726508f5951b619008f6fb0
create and disclose their work
320
False
Which view treats intellectual property as another type of "real" property?
5726508f5951b619008f6fb1
absolute protection or full value
790
False
Which recent law stresses international harmonization?
5726508f5951b619008f6fb2
America Invents Act
1003
False
intellectual property law
29
What has the stated objective of protecting the inventor?
5a157d21a54d42001852945b
True
inventors
295
Who do patents keep from disclosing their work?
5a157d21a54d42001852945c
True
This absolute protection or full value view
785
What new treats intellectual property different than real property?
5a157d21a54d42001852945d
True
America Invents Act
1003
What recent loss stresses national harmonization?
5a157d21a54d42001852945e
True
it encourages innovation
567
Why is less intellectual property more desirable?
5a157d21a54d42001852945f
True
The stated objective of most intellectual property law (with the exception of trademarks) is to "Promote progress." By exchanging limited exclusive rights for disclosure of inventions and creative works, society and the patentee/copyright owner mutually benefit, and an incentive is created for inventors and authors to create and disclose their work. Some commentators have noted that the objective of intellectual property legislators and those who support its implementation appears to be "absolute protection". "If some intellectual property is desirable because it encourages innovation, they reason, more is better. The thinking is that creators will not have sufficient incentive to invent unless they are legally entitled to capture the full social value of their inventions". This absolute protection or full value view treats intellectual property as another type of "real" property, typically adopting its law and rhetoric. Other recent developments in intellectual property law, such as the America Invents Act, stress international harmonization. Recently there has also been much debate over the desirability of using intellectual property rights to protect cultural heritage, including intangible ones, as well as over risks of commodification derived from this possibility. The issue still remains open in legal scholarship.
How much was the worth of intellectual property to the U.S. economy in 2013?
572651155951b619008f6fb7
more than US$5 trillion
128
False
How many Americans did intellectual property create employment for in 2013?
572651155951b619008f6fb8
18 million
192
False
Where has IP become a recognised asset class?
572651155951b619008f6fb9
the UK
352
False
How many intangible assets are not being leveraged in the UK?
572651155951b619008f6fba
millions
540
False
intellectual property
83
What was estimated to be worth $18 million to the US economy?
5a157e32a54d420018529465
True
employment
164
What does intellectual property create for 5 trillion people?
5a157e32a54d420018529466
True
The value of intellectual property
220
What is not valued as highly in other developed countries?
5a157e32a54d420018529467
True
IP
360
What has become a recognized asset class in the European Union?
5a157e32a54d420018529468
True
UK
489
What country has millions of tangible assets not being leveraged?
5a157e32a54d420018529469
True
In 2013 the United States Patent & Trademark Office approximated that the worth of intellectual property to the U.S. economy is more than US$5 trillion and creates employment for an estimated 18 million American people. The value of intellectual property is considered similarly high in other developed nations, such as those in the European Union. In the UK, IP has become a recognised asset class for use in pension-led funding and other types of business finance. However, in 2013, the UK Intellectual Property Office stated: "There are millions of intangible business assets whose value is either not being leveraged at all, or only being leveraged inadvertently".
What is caused by using or selling a patented invention without permission?
57265190708984140094c22d
Patent infringement
0
False
Where does the safe harbor to use a patented invention for research generally not exist?
57265190708984140094c22e
in the US
353
False
What type of law handles patent infringement cases in the US?
57265190708984140094c22f
civil
579
False
What type of law handles patent infringement cases in China?
57265190708984140094c230
criminal
672
False
What type of law handles patent infringement cases in Russia?
57265190708984140094c231
criminal
672
False
Patent infringement
0
What is caused by using or selling a patented invention?
5a157f43a54d42001852946f
True
to use a patented invention for research
279
What does the US have a safe harbor for?
5a157f43a54d420018529470
True
patent infringement
535
What type of cases in the US are handled by criminal law?
5a157f43a54d420018529471
True
patent infringement
535
What types of cases in Russia and China are handled by civil law?
5a157f43a54d420018529472
True
Patent infringement typically is caused by using or selling a patented invention without permission from the patent holder. The scope of the patented invention or the extent of protection is defined in the claims of the granted patent. There is safe harbor in many jurisdictions to use a patented invention for research. This safe harbor does not exist in the US unless the research is done for purely philosophical purposes, or in order to gather data in order to prepare an application for regulatory approval of a drug. In general, patent infringement cases are handled under civil law (e.g., in the United States) but several jurisdictions incorporate infringement in criminal law also (for example, Argentina, China, France, Japan, Russia, South Korea).
When was the ACTA trade agreement signed?
5726520d708984140094c241
May 2011
575
False
Which countries signed ACTA?
5726520d708984140094c242
United States, Japan, Switzerland, and the EU
591
False
Which doctrines allow limited use of copyrighted works?
5726520d708984140094c243
fair use and fair dealing
1033
False
What is the common term for copyright infringement?
5726520d708984140094c244
piracy
278
False
Copyright infringement
0
What is it called when you reproduce distribute display works from copyright with their without permission?
5a15814ca54d420018529477
True
copyright
293
What is not created until the copyright owner registers the copyright?
5a15814ca54d420018529478
True
the fair use and fair dealing doctrine
1029
Which document allows unlimited use of copyrighted works?
5a15814ca54d420018529479
True
the United States, Japan, Switzerland, and the EU
587
What countries refused to accept ACTA
5a15814ca54d42001852947a
True
copyright
472
What is the government responsible for enforcing?
5a15814ca54d42001852947b
True
Copyright infringement is reproducing, distributing, displaying or performing a work, or to make derivative works, without permission from the copyright holder, which is typically a publisher or other business representing or assigned by the work's creator. It is often called "piracy". While copyright is created the instance a work is fixed, generally the copyright holder can only get money damages if the owner registers the copyright.[citation needed] Enforcement of copyright is generally the responsibility of the copyright holder. The ACTA trade agreement, signed in May 2011 by the United States, Japan, Switzerland, and the EU, and which has not entered into force, requires that its parties add criminal penalties, including incarceration and fines, for copyright and trademark infringement, and obligated the parties to active police for infringement. There are limitations and exceptions to copyright, allowing limited use of copyrighted works, which does not constitute infringement. Examples of such doctrines are the fair use and fair dealing doctrine.
What occurs when someone uses a trademark that is identical or confusingly similar to a trademark owned by someone else?
572652f7f1498d1400e8dc0c
Trademark infringement
0
False
What does registering a trademark provide?
572652f7f1498d1400e8dc0d
legal advantages for enforcement
367
False
Where is a trademark protected without registration?
572652f7f1498d1400e8dc0e
In many countries
257
False
How is trademark infringement addressed in most jurisdictions?
572652f7f1498d1400e8dc0f
civil litigation
434
False
How is trademark infringement addressed in a few jurisdictions?
572652f7f1498d1400e8dc10
criminal law
488
False
Trademark infringement
0
What occurs when someone uses an identical trademark but not when the use a similar trademark
5a1582bba54d420018529481
True
registration
316
What this trademark protection require in most jurisdictions?
5a1582bba54d420018529482
True
registration
316
A trademark without what receives the same legal advantages as a registered trademark?
5a1582bba54d420018529483
True
Infringement
401
What is addressed by criminal law in all jurisdictions?
5a1582bba54d420018529484
True
Trademark infringement occurs when one party uses a trademark that is identical or confusingly similar to a trademark owned by another party, in relation to products or services which are identical or similar to the products or services of the other party. In many countries, a trademark receives protection without registration, but registering a trademark provides legal advantages for enforcement. Infringement can be addressed by civil litigation and, in several jurisdictions, under criminal law.
Which type of intellectual property is secret?
57265386708984140094c27f
trade secrets
116
False
What law do most US states use to protect trade secrets?
57265386708984140094c280
Uniform Trade Secrets Act
335
False
What US federal law protects trade secrets?
57265386708984140094c281
Economic Espionage Act
420
False
Commonwealth common law regards trade secrets as what kind of right?
57265386708984140094c282
an equitable right
969
False
US law regards trade secrets as what kind of right?
57265386708984140094c283
a property right
1000
False
Trade secret
0
What secrets this federal law protect?
5a15a927a54d420018529489
True
trade secrets
243
What do most US states use the Economic Espionage Act to protect?
5a15a927a54d42001852948a
True
trade secret
524
What does federal law protect using the Uniform Trade Secrets Act?
5a15a927a54d42001852948b
True
theft or misappropriation of a trade secret
493
What does the Unified Trade Secrets Act make a federal crime?
5a15a927a54d42001852948c
True
theft of trade secrets
673
What is criminalized by the United Trade Secrets Act when for the benefit of a foreign power?
5a15a927a54d42001852948d
True
Trade secret misappropriation is different from violations of other intellectual property laws, since by definition trade secrets are secret, while patents and registered copyrights and trademarks are publicly available. In the United States, trade secrets are protected under state law, and states have nearly universally adopted the Uniform Trade Secrets Act. The United States also has federal law in the form of the Economic Espionage Act of 1996 (18 U.S.C. §§ 1831–1839), which makes the theft or misappropriation of a trade secret a federal crime. This law contains two provisions criminalizing two sorts of activity. The first, 18 U.S.C. § 1831(a), criminalizes the theft of trade secrets to benefit foreign powers. The second, 18 U.S.C. § 1832, criminalizes their theft for commercial or economic purposes. (The statutory penalties are different for the two offenses.) In Commonwealth common law jurisdictions, confidentiality and trade secrets are regarded as an equitable right rather than a property right but penalties for theft are roughly the same as the United States.[citation needed]
Which term is criticized as vague?
57265427f1498d1400e8dc20
intellectual property
22
False
What does the term 'intellectual property' disallow intelligent discussion about?
57265427f1498d1400e8dc21
specific and often unrelated aspects of copyright, patents, trademarks, etc.
450
False
Critics criticize what type of validity of the term 'intellectual property'?
57265427f1498d1400e8dc22
semantic
132
False
Which term is criticized as having abstract overreach?
57265427f1498d1400e8dc23
intellectual property
22
False
intellectual property
22
What term is criticized is too specific?
5a15abdda54d420018529493
True
specific and often unrelated aspects of copyright, patents, trademarks, etc.
450
What does the term intellectual property allow intelligent discussion about?
5a15abdda54d420018529494
True
intellectual property
22
Which term is criticized as being too concrete in narrow?
5a15abdda54d420018529495
True
the doctrinal agenda of parties opposing reform in the public interest
285
What do supporters say the term intelectual propertyspecially serves?
5a15abdda54d420018529496
True
Criticism of the term intellectual property ranges from discussing its vagueness and abstract overreach to direct contention to the semantic validity of using words like property and rights in fashions that contradict practice and law. Many detractors think this term specially serves the doctrinal agenda of parties opposing reform in the public interest or otherwise abusing related legislations; and that it disallows intelligent discussion about specific and often unrelated aspects of copyright, patents, trademarks, etc.
Who founded the Free Software Foundation?
572654c2708984140094c2af
Richard Stallman
33
False
Who said the term 'intellectual property' should be rejected altogether?
572654c2708984140094c2b0
Richard Stallman
33
False
Who said the term 'intellectual property' "operates as a catch-all"?
572654c2708984140094c2b1
Richard Stallman
33
False
How does Stallman advocate referring to copyrights, patents, and trademarks?
572654c2708984140094c2b2
in the singular
718
False
intellectual property
81
What term does Richard Stallman support using?
5a15ae7da54d42001852949b
True
Richard Stallman
33
Who said the term intellectual property simplifies and clarifies these issues?
5a15ae7da54d42001852949c
True
copyrights, patents and trademarks
683
What does Stallman advocate refering to in the plurally?
5a15ae7da54d42001852949d
True
bias
536
What does Stallman say is created by confusing ownership with monopolies?
5a15ae7da54d42001852949e
True
Free Software Foundation founder Richard Stallman argues that, although the term intellectual property is in wide use, it should be rejected altogether, because it "systematically distorts and confuses these issues, and its use was and is promoted by those who gain from this confusion". He claims that the term "operates as a catch-all to lump together disparate laws [which] originated separately, evolved differently, cover different activities, have different rules, and raise different public policy issues" and that it creates a "bias" by confusing these monopolies with ownership of limited physical things, likening them to "property rights". Stallman advocates referring to copyrights, patents and trademarks in the singular and warns against abstracting disparate laws into a collective term.
Stallman thinks what type of IP historically served as a censorship system?
5726559af1498d1400e8dc4e
copyright
185
False
What does Stallman think copyright served as a regulatory model for?
5726559af1498d1400e8dc4f
the printing press
263
False
What does Stallman think was meant to be optional and experimental?
5726559af1498d1400e8dc50
copyright
405
False
What does Stallman think copyright was supposed to trade temporarily for public benefit?
5726559af1498d1400e8dc51
property rights and free speech
593
False
Who pointed out that "if copyright were a natural right nothing could justify terminating this right after a certain period of time"?
5726559af1498d1400e8dc52
Stallman
70
False
intellectual property
23
What does Stallman say that censorship is a form of?
5a15b05aa54d4200185294a3
True
printing press
267
What was censorship a regulatory model for?
5a15b05aa54d4200185294a4
True
copyright
405
What does Stallman say is meant to be mandatory?
5a15b05aa54d4200185294a5
True
copyright
185
What restricts free Speech?
5a15b05aa54d4200185294a6
True
copyright
739
What does Stallman say is a natural right?
5a15b05aa54d4200185294a7
True
On the assumption that intellectual property rights are actual rights Stallman argues that this claim does not live to the historical intentions behind these laws, which in the case of copyright served as a censorship system, and later on, a regulatory model for the printing press that may have benefited authors incidentally, but never interfered with the freedom of average readers. Still referring to copyright, he cites legal literature such as the United States Constitution and case law to demonstrate that it is meant to be an optional and experimental bargain that temporarily trades property rights and free speech for public, not private, benefit in the form of increased artistic production and knowledge. He mentions that "if copyright were a natural right nothing could justify terminating this right after a certain period of time".
Who is one advocate of copyleft?
57265630708984140094c2d1
Lawrence Lessig
45
False
Who has objected to the idea of IP because "property" implies scarcity?
57265630708984140094c2d2
Stephan Kinsella
718
False
Having no natural scarcity makes IP different from what kind of property?
57265630708984140094c2d3
tangible
518
False
How much can IP be duplicated without diminishing the original?
57265630708984140094c2d4
indefinitely
659
False
Lawrence Lessig
45
What Law proffessor suppoert copyright?
5a15b101a54d4200185294ad
True
Stephan Kinsella
718
Who says property does not imply scarcity?
5a15b101a54d4200185294ae
True
tangible property
518
IP is like what other kind of property?
5a15b101a54d4200185294af
True
intellectual property
751
What can not be duplicated without diminishing the original?
5a15b101a54d4200185294b0
True
Law professor, writer and political activist Lawrence Lessig, along with many other copyleft and free software activists, has criticized the implied analogy with physical property (like land or an automobile). They argue such an analogy fails because physical property is generally rivalrous while intellectual works are non-rivalrous (that is, if one makes a copy of a work, the enjoyment of the copy does not prevent enjoyment of the original). Other arguments along these lines claim that unlike the situation with tangible property, there is no natural scarcity of a particular idea or information: once it exists at all, it can be re-used and duplicated indefinitely without such re-use diminishing the original. Stephan Kinsella has objected to intellectual property on the grounds that the word "property" implies scarcity, which may not be applicable to ideas.
What can be harmed by pharmaceutical patents?
572656b65951b619008f700b
health
127
False
IP benefits concentrated interests to whose detriment?
572656b65951b619008f700c
the masses
254
False
Whose interests are harmed by expanding IP?
572656b65951b619008f700d
the public
281
False
Developments in nanotechnology are being undermined by what type of IP?
572656b65951b619008f700e
patent
491
False
What type of monopolies does IP create?
572656b65951b619008f700f
intellectual
92
False
health
127
What is suppoerted by pharmaceutical patents?
5a15b3f4a54d4200185294b5
True
intellectual property
16
what concentrated intersts for tha benefit of the masses?
5a15b3f4a54d4200185294b6
True
intellectual
92
What kind of monopolies does IP break up?
5a15b3f4a54d4200185294b7
True
the public
281
Whose interests are helped by expanding IP
5a15b3f4a54d4200185294b8
True
Some critics of intellectual property, such as those in the free culture movement, point at intellectual monopolies as harming health (in the case of pharmaceutical patents), preventing progress, and benefiting concentrated interests to the detriment of the masses, and argue that the public interest is harmed by ever-expansive monopolies in the form of copyright extensions, software patents, and business method patents. More recently scientists and engineers are expressing concern that patent thickets are undermining technological development even in high-tech fields like nanotechnology.
Who recognizes that conflicts may exist between IP and other human rights?
57265737708984140094c2f7
World Intellectual Property Organization
4
False
When was a document called "Human rights and intellectual property" issued?
57265737708984140094c2f8
2001
199
False
Who issued a document called "Human rights and intellectual property"?
57265737708984140094c2f9
the UN Committee on Economic, Social and Cultural Rights
204
False
Who said IP failures may infringe on human rights to food and health?
57265737708984140094c2fa
the UN Committee on Economic, Social and Cultural Rights
204
False
When did the WIPO adopt 'The Geneva Declaration on the Future of the World Intellectual Property Organization'?
57265737708984140094c2fb
2004
749
False
The World Intellectual Property Organization
0
Who says that IP is in harmony with other human rights?
5a15b6a5a54d4200185294bd
True
2001
199
When did the WIPO issue the "Human rights and intellectual property"
5a15b6a5a54d4200185294be
True
the human right to food and health
655
What did the WIPO say IP failures infringed on?
5a15b6a5a54d4200185294bf
True
2004
749
When did the UN Committee adopt 'The Geneva Declaration on the Future of the World Inellectual Property Organization'?
5a15b6a5a54d4200185294c0
True
intellectual property
344
What tends to be governed by social goals?
5a15b6a5a54d4200185294c1
True
The World Intellectual Property Organization (WIPO) recognizes that conflicts may exist between the respect for and implementation of current intellectual property systems and other human rights. In 2001 the UN Committee on Economic, Social and Cultural Rights issued a document called "Human rights and intellectual property" that argued that intellectual property tends to be governed by economic goals when it should be viewed primarily as a social product; in order to serve human well-being, intellectual property systems must respect and conform to human rights laws. According to the Committee, when systems fail to do so they risk infringing upon the human right to food and health, and to cultural participation and scientific benefits. In 2004 the General Assembly of WIPO adopted The Geneva Declaration on the Future of the World Intellectual Property Organization which argues that WIPO should "focus more on the needs of developing countries, and to view IP as one of many tools for development—not as an end in itself".
For what type of goods are IP's ethical problems most pertinent?
572657b6dd62a815002e8228
socially valuable
102
False
What is an example of socially valuable goods?
572657b6dd62a815002e8229
life-saving medicines
131
False
What cost does IP rights allow companies to charge higher than?
572657b6dd62a815002e822a
the marginal cost of production
255
False
Who might a higher price exclude from the market?
572657b6dd62a815002e822b
anyone who cannot afford the cost of the product
383
False
higher than the marginal cost of production
243
What do IP rights keep companies from charging?
5a15bd36a54d4200185294c7
True
products that are socially valuable
561
What does an IRP driven regime encourage production of four poor populations?
5a15bd36a54d4200185294c8
True
socially valuable goods
102
What type of goods are exempt from the ethical problems brought on by IP rights?
5a15bd36a54d4200185294c9
True
the costs of research and development
306
What do IP rights keep companies from recouping?
5a15bd36a54d4200185294ca
True
Further along these lines, The ethical problems brought up by IP rights are most pertinent when it is socially valuable goods like life-saving medicines are given IP protection. While the application of IP rights can allow companies to charge higher than the marginal cost of production in order to recoup the costs of research and development, the price may exclude from the market anyone who cannot afford the cost of the product, in this case a life-saving drug. "An IPR driven regime is therefore not a regime that is conductive to the investment of R&D of products that are socially valuable to predominately poor populations".:1108–9
What type of creativity is excluded from the US definition of IP?
57265877dd62a815002e8242
community creativity
254
False
What doesn't current US IP law recognize the uniqueness of?
57265877dd62a815002e8243
indigenous cultural "property"
380
False
Requiring written records enforces what kind of bias?
57265877dd62a815002e8244
Western
579
False
The Western bias is that what form is more authoritative?
57265877dd62a815002e8245
written
599
False
U.S.
30
Who includes common creativity in their definition of intellectual property?
5a15c0eea54d4200185294cf
True
indigenous cultural "property"
380
What does current US IP law recognize the uniqueness of?
5a15c0eea54d4200185294d0
True
Western
579
What bias is eliminated by asking native cultures to write down their cultural artifacts?
5a15c0eea54d4200185294d1
True
Intellectual Property
35
What definition includes any works that are result of community creativity?
5a15c0eea54d4200185294d2
True
Another limitation of current U.S. Intellectual Property legislation is its focus on individual and joint works; thus, copyright protection can only be obtained in 'original' works of authorship. This definition excludes any works that are the result of community creativity, for example Native American songs and stories; current legislation does not recognize the uniqueness of indigenous cultural "property" and its ever-changing nature. Simply asking native cultures to 'write down' their cultural artifacts on tangible mediums ignores their necessary orality and enforces a Western bias of the written form as more authoritative.
What is the American film industry's trade organization?
572658f75951b619008f702f
Motion Picture Association of America
154
False
The Motion Picture Association of America is which industry's trade organization?
572658f75951b619008f7030
film
45
False
Which country is the world's largest producer of films?
572658f75951b619008f7031
United States
559
False
The MPAA has advocated strong protection of what kind of rights?
572658f75951b619008f7032
intellectual-property
340
False
intellectual-property rights
340
Congress has advocated a strong protection of what kind of rights?
5a15c4a4a54d4200185294d7
True
the property that is produced by their labor
456
What has Congress argued that people are entitled to?
5a15c4a4a54d4200185294d8
True
doctrinal
694
What type of reforms have weakened the MPAA?
5a15c4a4a54d4200185294d9
True
the position of the United States as the world's largest producer of films
539
What is Congress aware of that makes it difficult to expand the conception of intellectual property?
5a15c4a4a54d4200185294da
True
Also with respect to copyright, the American film industry helped to change the social construct of intellectual property via its trade organization, the Motion Picture Association of America. In amicus briefs in important cases, in lobbying before Congress, and in its statements to the public, the MPAA has advocated strong protection of intellectual-property rights. In framing its presentations, the association has claimed that people are entitled to the property that is produced by their labor. Additionally Congress's awareness of the position of the United States as the world's largest producer of films has made it convenient to expand the conception of intellectual property. These doctrinal reforms have further strengthened the industry, lending the MPAA even more power and authority.
What does the recording industry call piracy?
57265974dd62a815002e8266
copyright infringement
259
False
What type of company was Napster?
57265974dd62a815002e8267
file-sharing
419
False
What law enforces digital rights management systems?
57265974dd62a815002e8268
Digital Millennium Copyright Act
715
False
Which articles of the EU Copyright Directive address circumvention of copyright protection?
57265974dd62a815002e8269
Article 6 and 7
1027
False
When was the Conditional Access Directive passed in the EU?
57265974dd62a815002e826a
1998
1185
False
the Internet
14
The growth of what has strengthened copyright policy?
5a15c5e1a54d4200185294df
True
The Recording Industry Association of America
148
What industry did not have success against the file sharing company Napster?
5a15c5e1a54d4200185294e0
True
The electronic age
531
What has seen a decrease in the use of digital rights management tools?
5a15c5e1a54d4200185294e1
True
the Digital Millennium Copyright Act
711
What is an example of a civil law to prevent circumvention of software used to enforce digital rights
5a15c5e1a54d4200185294e2
True
legal uses,
1219
What can copyleft license hinder?
5a15c5e1a54d4200185294e3
True
The growth of the Internet, and particularly distributed search engines like Kazaa and Gnutella, have represented a challenge for copyright policy. The Recording Industry Association of America, in particular, has been on the front lines of the fight against copyright infringement, which the industry calls "piracy". The industry has had victories against some services, including a highly publicized case against the file-sharing company Napster, and some people have been prosecuted for sharing files in violation of copyright. The electronic age has seen an increase in the attempt to use software-based digital rights management tools to restrict the copying and use of digitally based works. Laws such as the Digital Millennium Copyright Act have been enacted, that use criminal law to prevent any circumvention of software used to enforce digital rights management systems. Equivalent provisions, to prevent circumvention of copyright protection have existed in EU for some time, and are being expanded in, for example, Article 6 and 7 the Copyright Directive. Other examples are Article 7 of the Software Directive of 1991 (91/250/EEC), and the Conditional Access Directive of 1998 (98/84/EEC). This can hinder legal uses, affecting public domain works, limitations and exceptions to copyright, or uses allowed by the copyright holder. Some copyleft licenses, like GNU GPL 3, are designed to counter that. Laws may permit circumvention under specific conditions like when it is necessary to achieve interoperability with the circumventor's program, or for accessibility reasons; however, distribution of circumvention tools or instructions may be illegal.
When was the Agreement on Trade-Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights ratified?
57265a52708984140094c365
1994
231
False
What type of law handled IP rights before 1994 in TRIP signatories?
57265a52708984140094c366
common law
305
False
What type of IP did the TRIP agreement harmonize the definition of?
57265a52708984140094c367
trademark
118
False
What is any sign which is capable of distinguishing one business's product from another business's?
57265a52708984140094c368
a trademark
533
False
common law
305
What type of law handled IP rights after 1994?
5a15c6faa54d4200185294e9
True
trademarks
18
What type of IP did the TRIP agreement muddied the definition of?
5a15c6faa54d4200185294ea
True
trademarks
18
What is a sign that is often shared between one business and another?
5a15c6faa54d4200185294eb
True
any sign which is "capable of distinguishing" the products or services of one business from the products or services of another business
369
Before TRIP how was a trademark defined?
5a15c6faa54d4200185294ec
True
In the context of trademarks, this expansion has been driven by international efforts to harmonise the definition of "trademark", as exemplified by the Agreement on Trade-Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights ratified in 1994, which formalized regulations for IP rights that had been handled by common law, or not at all, in member states. Pursuant to TRIPs, any sign which is "capable of distinguishing" the products or services of one business from the products or services of another business is capable of constituting a trademark.
Florida
What does Florida stand for
572653d0708984140094c289
Florida i/ˈflɒrɪdə/ (Spanish for "flowery land")
0
False
What states border Florida
572653d0708984140094c28a
to the west by the Gulf of Mexico, to the north by Alabama and Georgia, to the east by the Atlantic Ocean, and to the south by the Straits of Florida
139
False
What is the state capital of Florida
572653d0708984140094c28b
Tallahassee is the state capital
641
False
Where does Florida rank in US population
572653d0708984140094c28c
the 3rd most populous
358
False
What city has the most people in Florida
572653d0708984140094c28d
Jacksonville is the most populous city in Florida
438
False
flowery land
34
What does Florida mean in French?
5acd865607355d001abf458e
True
Florida
0
What state is located in the Northeastern region of the US?
5acd865607355d001abf458f
True
Tallahassee
641
What is not the state capital of Florida?
5acd865607355d001abf4590
True
Florida
322
What is the fourth most populous state in the US?
5acd865607355d001abf4591
True
Jacksonville
438
What city in Florida has the least amount of people?
5acd865607355d001abf4592
True
Florida i/ˈflɒrɪdə/ (Spanish for "flowery land") is a state located in the southeastern region of the United States. The state is bordered to the west by the Gulf of Mexico, to the north by Alabama and Georgia, to the east by the Atlantic Ocean, and to the south by the Straits of Florida and the sovereign state of Cuba. Florida is the 22nd most extensive, the 3rd most populous, and the 8th most densely populated of the United States. Jacksonville is the most populous city in Florida, and the largest city by area in the contiguous United States. The Miami metropolitan area is the eighth-largest metropolitan area in the United States. Tallahassee is the state capital.
What is the longest Contiguous Coastline in the US
572655255951b619008f6fe5
it has the longest coastline in the contiguous United States, approximately 1,350 miles
88
False
What level is most of the land in florida
572655255951b619008f6fe6
Much of the state is at or near sea level
271
False
What is the florida climate
572655255951b619008f6fe7
The climate varies from subtropical in the north to tropical in the south
355
False
Some animals and reptiles native to Florida
572655255951b619008f6fe8
American alligator, American crocodile, Florida panther, and manatee
434
False
Name a National Park in Florida
572655255951b619008f6fe9
Everglades National Park
523
False
1,350 miles
164
What is the length of the shortest Contiguous Coastline in the US?
5acd86c207355d001abf45aa
True
Much
271
How much of the state is not near sea level?
5acd86c207355d001abf45ab
True
north
398
What region in Florida is not subtropical?
5acd86c207355d001abf45ac
True
south
423
What region in Florida is not tropical?
5acd86c207355d001abf45ad
True
Everglades National Park
523
What park is outside of Florida?
5acd86c207355d001abf45ae
True
A peninsula between the Gulf of Mexico, the Atlantic Ocean, and the Straits of Florida, it has the longest coastline in the contiguous United States, approximately 1,350 miles (2,170 km), and is the only state that borders both the Gulf of Mexico and the Atlantic Ocean. Much of the state is at or near sea level and is characterized by sedimentary soil. The climate varies from subtropical in the north to tropical in the south. The American alligator, American crocodile, Florida panther, and manatee can be found in the Everglades National Park.
What conquistador landed in Florida in 1539
5726566d708984140094c2d9
Hernando de Soto
27
False
Who established early settlements in Florida
5726566d708984140094c2da
Both the Spanish and French established settlements
602
False
Who established 1 of the first Us settlements in Florida
5726566d708984140094c2db
Don Tristán de Luna y Arellano
708
False
What people were discovered by early settlers of Florida
5726566d708984140094c2dc
Native ancestors of the Seminole
383
False
What did Spanish settlers introduce to Florida
5726566d708984140094c2dd
Christianity, cattle, horses, sheep, the Spanish language, and more
500
False
Hernando de Soto skirted the coast of Florida
27
What happened in 1538?
5acd870f07355d001abf45be
True
Florida
65
What coast did Hernando de Soto not find?
5acd870f07355d001abf45bf
True
deep harbor to land
90
What wasn't Hernando de Soto looking for?
5acd870f07355d001abf45c0
True
wall of red mangroves spread mile after mile
139
What didn't Hernando de Soto see?
5acd870f07355d001abf45c1
True
Pensacola
775
What was founded in 1561?
5acd870f07355d001abf45c2
True
"By May 1539, Conquistador Hernando de Soto skirted the coast of Florida, searching for a deep harbor to land. He described seeing a thick wall of red mangroves spread mile after mile, some reaching as high as 70 feet (21 m), with intertwined and elevated roots making landing difficult. Very soon, 'many smokes' appeared 'along the whole coast', billowing against the sky, when the Native ancestors of the Seminole spotted the newcomers and spread the alarm by signal fires". The Spanish introduced Christianity, cattle, horses, sheep, the Spanish language, and more to Florida.[full citation needed] Both the Spanish and French established settlements in Florida, with varying degrees of success. In 1559, Don Tristán de Luna y Arellano established a colony at present-day Pensacola, one of the first European settlements in the continental United States, but it was abandoned by 1561.
What did Spain trade Florida for
57265854f1498d1400e8dca4
In 1763, Spain traded Florida to the Kingdom of Great Britain for control of Havana, Cuba
0
False
Who did the Spanish take from Florida to Cuba
57265854f1498d1400e8dca5
Almost the entire Spanish population left, taking along most of the remaining indigenous population to Cuba
270
False
What road did the British construct
57265854f1498d1400e8dca6
the King's Road connecting St. Augustine to Georgia
408
False
What river does the Kings road cross
57265854f1498d1400e8dca7
the St. Johns River
478
False
control of Havana, Cuba
66
What did Germany trade Florida for?
5acd875f07355d001abf45d2
True
Kingdom of Great Britain
37
Who owned Cuba after the Eight Years War?
5acd875f07355d001abf45d3
True
King's Road
412
What road did the British destroy?
5acd875f07355d001abf45d4
True
St. Johns River
482
What river does the Kings road not cross?
5acd875f07355d001abf45d5
True
Cow Ford
580
What was the name of the river named after a sheep?
5acd875f07355d001abf45d6
True
In 1763, Spain traded Florida to the Kingdom of Great Britain for control of Havana, Cuba, which had been captured by the British during the Seven Years' War. It was part of a large expansion of British territory following the country's victory in the Seven Years' War. Almost the entire Spanish population left, taking along most of the remaining indigenous population to Cuba. The British soon constructed the King's Road connecting St. Augustine to Georgia. The road crossed the St. Johns River at a narrow point, which the Seminole called Wacca Pilatka and the British named "Cow Ford", both names ostensibly reflecting the fact that cattle were brought across the river there.
What were the names of the 2 British colony's in Florida
572659745951b619008f7047
British East Florida and British West Florida
53
False
Who was given Florida land grants
572659745951b619008f7048
officers and soldiers who had fought in the French and Indian War in order to encourage settlement
143
False
Where did a large number of British Colonist come to florida from
572659745951b619008f7049
coming from South Carolina, Georgia and England though there was also a group of settlers who came from the colony of Bermuda
475
False
The first Permanent Colony in Florida is Now known as
572659745951b619008f704a
what is now Duval County, Baker County, St. Johns County and Nassau County
667
False
What did the Colonist cultivate
572659745951b619008f704b
the cultivation of sugar cane, indigo and fruits as well the export of lumber
794
False
The British
0
Which country divided Florida into North and South Florida?
5acd87e207355d001abf45f0
True
officers and soldiers
143
Who was not given Florida land grants
5acd87e207355d001abf45f1
True
Duval County
679
What is the last permanent colony known as?
5acd87e207355d001abf45f2
True
sugar cane
813
What did the British not introduce?
5acd87e207355d001abf45f3
True
lumber
865
What did the British not export?
5acd87e207355d001abf45f4
True
The British divided Florida into the two colonies of British East Florida and British West Florida. The British government gave land grants to officers and soldiers who had fought in the French and Indian War in order to encourage settlement. In order to induce settlers to move to the two new colonies reports of the natural wealth of Florida were published in England. A large number of British colonists who were "energetic and of good character" moved to Florida, mostly coming from South Carolina, Georgia and England though there was also a group of settlers who came from the colony of Bermuda. This would be the first permanent English-speaking population in what is now Duval County, Baker County, St. Johns County and Nassau County. The British built good public roads and introduced the cultivation of sugar cane, indigo and fruits as well the export of lumber.
What legal system was introduced by the British in Florida
57265ad5dd62a815002e8282
British governors were directed to call general assemblies
136
False
Did Florida send Representatives to Philadelphia for the Declaration of Independence
57265ad5dd62a815002e8283
Neither East Florida nor West Florida would send any representatives to Philadelphia to draft the Declaration of Independence
514
False
Who did Florida side with during the revolution
57265ad5dd62a815002e8284
Florida would remain a Loyalist stronghold for the duration of the American Revolution.
641
False
What legal system is still used by florida
57265ad5dd62a815002e8285
English-derived legal system which Florida still has today including trial by jury, habeas corpus and county-based government
387
False
general assemblies
176
What legal system was not introduced by the British in Florida?
5acd886707355d001abf460e
True
Loyalist
664
Who did Florida oppose during the revolution?
5acd886707355d001abf460f
True
trial by jury, habeas corpus and county-based government
456
What legal system has never been used by Florida?
5acd886707355d001abf4610
True
Philadelphia
586
Where did East and West Florida send representatives?
5acd886707355d001abf4611
True
Declaration of Independence
612
What did representatives draft in Florida?
5acd886707355d001abf4612
True
As a result of these initiatives northeastern Florida prospered economically in a way it never did under Spanish rule. Furthermore, the British governors were directed to call general assemblies as soon as possible in order to make laws for the Floridas and in the meantime they were, with the advice of councils, to establish courts. This would be the first introduction of much of the English-derived legal system which Florida still has today including trial by jury, habeas corpus and county-based government. Neither East Florida nor West Florida would send any representatives to Philadelphia to draft the Declaration of Independence. Florida would remain a Loyalist stronghold for the duration of the American Revolution.
Where did English and Scotch Irish descent move to Florida from
57265bdaf1498d1400e8dd1c
English descent and Americans of Scots-Irish descent began moving into northern Florida from the backwoods of Georgia and South Carolina
13
False
Backwoods settlers of Northern Florida are known as
57265bdaf1498d1400e8dd1d
Florida Crackers
549
False
Were the Spanish able to police the backwoods settlements
57265bdaf1498d1400e8dd1e
Spanish were never able to effectively police the border region and the backwoods settlers
214
False
border region and the backwoods
264
Where did the Spanish patrol well?
5acd893b07355d001abf4636
True
settlers from the United States
296
Who were checked while migrating to Florida?
5acd893b07355d001abf4637
True
British settlers who had remained in Florida since the British period
426
Who were not called the Florida Crackers?
5acd893b07355d001abf4638
True
Georgia and South Carolina
123
What states did people not move from?
5acd893b07355d001abf4639
True
Americans of English descent and Americans of Scots-Irish descent began moving into northern Florida from the backwoods of Georgia and South Carolina. Though technically not allowed by the Spanish authorities, the Spanish were never able to effectively police the border region and the backwoods settlers from the United States would continue to migrate into Florida unchecked. These migrants, mixing with the already present British settlers who had remained in Florida since the British period, would be the progenitors of the population known as Florida Crackers.
What led to the rebellion in 1810
57265d58f1498d1400e8dd48
Spanish rule
152
False
What did the rebellion lead to
57265d58f1498d1400e8dd49
the so-called Free and Independent Republic of West Florida on September 23
238
False
What is known as the Bonnie Blue Flag
57265d58f1498d1400e8dd4a
a single white star on a blue field
464
False
What did the rebels overthrow during the rebellion
57265d58f1498d1400e8dd4b
Spanish garrison at Baton Rouge
369
False
Spanish rule
152
What led to the rebellion in 1811?
5acd898407355d001abf4648
True
rebellion
179
What happened in 1810?
5acd898407355d001abf4649
True
rebellion in 1810 and the establishment for ninety days of the so-called Free and Independent Republic of West Florida
179
What happened on September 22?
5acd898407355d001abf464a
True
June
343
When did meetings end?
5acd898407355d001abf464b
True
Baton Rouge
389
Where were the French overcome at?
5acd898407355d001abf464c
True
These American settlers established a permanent foothold in the area and ignored Spanish officials. The British settlers who had remained also resented Spanish rule, leading to a rebellion in 1810 and the establishment for ninety days of the so-called Free and Independent Republic of West Florida on September 23. After meetings beginning in June, rebels overcame the Spanish garrison at Baton Rouge (now in Louisiana), and unfurled the flag of the new republic: a single white star on a blue field. This flag would later become known as the "Bonnie Blue Flag".
Where did Seminole Indians raid
57265e2b5951b619008f70b3
Seminole Indians based in East Florida began raiding Georgia settlements
0
False
Who did the Indians offer haven to
57265e2b5951b619008f70b4
runaway slaves
98
False
What is the first Incursion led by Jackson known as now
57265e2b5951b619008f70b5
First Seminole War
303
False
Why did the US president say the Incursion of Florida was neccessary
57265e2b5951b619008f70b6
orida had become "a derelict open to the occupancy of every enemy, civilized or savage
464
False
Georgia
53
Where did Seminole Indians not raid?
5acd89ee07355d001abf4662
True
Seminole
0
What Indians lived in North Florida?
5acd89ee07355d001abf4663
True
runaway slaves
98
What people did Indians turn away refuge from?
5acd89ee07355d001abf4664
True
John Quincy Adams
436
Who said "serving every earthly purpose as a post of annoyance to them"
5acd89ee07355d001abf4665
True
had become "a derelict open to the occupancy of every enemy
470
What did John Quincy Adams say about Georgia?
5acd89ee07355d001abf4666
True
Seminole Indians based in East Florida began raiding Georgia settlements, and offering havens for runaway slaves. The United States Army led increasingly frequent incursions into Spanish territory, including the 1817–1818 campaign against the Seminole Indians by Andrew Jackson that became known as the First Seminole War. The United States now effectively controlled East Florida. Control was necessary according to Secretary of State John Quincy Adams because Florida had become "a derelict open to the occupancy of every enemy, civilized or savage, of the United States, and serving no other earthly purpose than as a post of annoyance to them.".
Why did Madrid cede the territory to the US
57265ef4708984140094c3e3
Florida had become a burden to Spain, which could not afford to send settlers or garrisons
0
False
What was the name of the treaty which ceded florida to the US
57265ef4708984140094c3e4
Adams-Onís Treaty, which took effect in 1821
172
False
Which president was given control of Florida
57265ef4708984140094c3e5
James Monroe was authorized on March 3, 1821 to take possession of East Florida and West Florida for the United States and provide for initial governance
228
False
When did East and West Florida Merge
57265ef4708984140094c3e6
On March 30, 1822, the United States merged East Florida and part of West Florida into the Florida Territory
488
False
take possession of East Florida and West Florida for the United States
276
What happened on March 2 1821?
5acd8a4707355d001abf4676
True
James Monroe
228
Which president failed to take possession of Florida?
5acd8a4707355d001abf4677
True
James Monroe
228
What president took possession of North and South Florida?
5acd8a4707355d001abf4678
True
March 30, 1822
491
When did the United States separate East and West Florida?
5acd8a4707355d001abf4679
True
March 30, 1822
491
When did north and south florida join?
5acd8a4707355d001abf467a
True
Florida had become a burden to Spain, which could not afford to send settlers or garrisons. Madrid therefore decided to cede the territory to the United States through the Adams-Onís Treaty, which took effect in 1821. President James Monroe was authorized on March 3, 1821 to take possession of East Florida and West Florida for the United States and provide for initial governance. Andrew Jackson served as military governor of the newly acquired territory, but only for a brief period. On March 30, 1822, the United States merged East Florida and part of West Florida into the Florida Territory.
What was an issue in the early 1800's
57265fb55951b619008f70ef
Indian removal was a significant issue
20
False
What did congress pass in 1830
57265fb55951b619008f70f0
In 1830, the U.S. Congress passed the Indian Removal Act
113
False
Who did Seminoles harbor
57265fb55951b619008f70f1
runaway blacks, known as the Black Seminoles
300
False
What was the name of the treaty of 1832
57265fb55951b619008f70f2
Treaty of Payne's Landing
436
False
What did Paynes Landing promiss
57265fb55951b619008f70f3
the Seminoles lands west of the Mississippi River if they agreed to leave Florida. Many Seminole left at this time.
474
False
Indian
20
What people weren't an issue in 1800s?
5acd8aaf07355d001abf4680
True
southeastern
74
What region of the US were Indians welcomed?
5acd8aaf07355d001abf4681
True
Indian Removal Act
151
What was passed in 1840?
5acd8aaf07355d001abf4682
True
runaway blacks
300
Who were known as the White Seminoles?
5acd8aaf07355d001abf4683
True
1832
426
What year was the Treaty of Payne's landing removed?
5acd8aaf07355d001abf4684
True
By the early 1800s, Indian removal was a significant issue throughout the southeastern U.S. and also in Florida. In 1830, the U.S. Congress passed the Indian Removal Act and as settlement increased, pressure grew on the United States government to remove the Indians from Florida. Seminoles harbored runaway blacks, known as the Black Seminoles, and clashes between whites and Indians grew with the influx of new settlers. In 1832, the Treaty of Payne's Landing promised to the Seminoles lands west of the Mississippi River if they agreed to leave Florida. Many Seminole left at this time.
What tempers the Florida Climate
572660a4f1498d1400e8ddb6
somewhat by the fact that no part of the state is distant from the ocean
35
False
What divides Florida two climates
572660a4f1498d1400e8ddb7
Lake Okeechobee
118
False
What are Florida's Mean temperatures in  late July
572660a4f1498d1400e8ddb8
Mean high temperatures for late July are primarily in the low 90s
295
False
Low temperatures in Florida average
572660a4f1498d1400e8ddb9
mid January range from the low 40s Fahrenheit (4–7 °C) in northern Florida to above 60 °F (16 °C) from Miami on southward
419
False
The average daily temperature in Miami
572660a4f1498d1400e8ddba
With an average daily temperature of 70.7 °F (21.5 °C), it is the warmest state in the country
542
False
Okeechobee
123
What lake is East of the ocean?
5acd8b8907355d001abf469c
True
Florida Keys
238
What areas of Florida are north of the ocaen?
5acd8b8907355d001abf469d
True
Florida
238
What is the lowest temperature state in the US?
5acd8b8907355d001abf469e
True
late July
322
When is the weather in the low 80s?
5acd8b8907355d001abf469f
True
early to mid January
410
When is the weather in the low 30s?
5acd8b8907355d001abf46a0
True
The climate of Florida is tempered somewhat by the fact that no part of the state is distant from the ocean. North of Lake Okeechobee, the prevalent climate is humid subtropical (Köppen: Cfa), while areas south of the lake (including the Florida Keys) have a true tropical climate (Köppen: Aw). Mean high temperatures for late July are primarily in the low 90s Fahrenheit (32–34 °C). Mean low temperatures for early to mid January range from the low 40s Fahrenheit (4–7 °C) in northern Florida to above 60 °F (16 °C) from Miami on southward. With an average daily temperature of 70.7 °F (21.5 °C), it is the warmest state in the country.
What is Florida's nickname
5726612f708984140094c41b
Sunshine State
27
False
What is central Florida known as
5726612f708984140094c41c
lightning capital of the United States
132
False
Hours of annual sunshine in florida
5726612f708984140094c41d
2,400 and 2,800 hours of sunshine annually. The rest of the state, including Miami, receives between 2,800 and 3,200 hours annually
524
False
severe weather
48
What weather is uncommon in Florida?
5acd8c2507355d001abf46b0
True
lightning strikes
195
Central florida has the least amount of which weather occurrence in the country?
5acd8c2507355d001abf46b1
True
Florida
248
What state has the lowest precipitation levels?
5acd8c2507355d001abf46b2
True
late spring until early autumn
405
When is snow common in Florida?
5acd8c2507355d001abf46b3
True
sunshine
549
Miami gets the least amount of what weather occurrence?
5acd8c2507355d001abf46b4
True
Florida's nickname is the "Sunshine State", but severe weather is a common occurrence in the state. Central Florida is known as the lightning capital of the United States, as it experiences more lightning strikes than anywhere else in the country. Florida has one of the highest average precipitation levels of any state, in large part because afternoon thunderstorms are common in much of the state from late spring until early autumn. A narrow eastern part of the state including Orlando and Jacksonville receives between 2,400 and 2,800 hours of sunshine annually. The rest of the state, including Miami, receives between 2,800 and 3,200 hours annually.
What posses a threat each year to Florida
572661d4dd62a815002e8334
Hurricanes pose a severe threat
0
False
What percentage of category 4 storms hit Florida
572661d4dd62a815002e8335
category 4 or higher storms that have struck the United States, 83% have either hit Florida or Texas
239
False
How many storms hit Florida from 1851 to 2006
572661d4dd62a815002e8336
Florida was struck by 114
360
False
Hurricanes
0
What weather threat rarely hits florida?
5acd8c7607355d001abf46ce
True
Hurricanes
0
What season starts on November 30th?
5acd8c7607355d001abf46cf
True
Hurricanes
0
What season ends on June 1st?
5acd8c7607355d001abf46d0
True
hurricane
454
It is common for what weather to pass Florida?
5acd8c7607355d001abf46d1
True
83%
303
How many of the US category 2 storms hit Florida?
5acd8c7607355d001abf46d2
True
Hurricanes pose a severe threat each year during the June 1 to November 30 hurricane season, particularly from August to October. Florida is the most hurricane-prone state, with subtropical or tropical water on a lengthy coastline. Of the category 4 or higher storms that have struck the United States, 83% have either hit Florida or Texas. From 1851 to 2006, Florida was struck by 114 hurricanes, 37 of them major—category 3 and above. It is rare for a hurricane season to pass without any impact in the state by at least a tropical storm.[citation needed]
What is found in Florida
5726629ddd62a815002e835a
Extended systems of underwater caves, sinkholes and springs
0
False
What did the last glacial period provide
5726629ddd62a815002e835b
lower sea levels and a drier climate revealed a much wider peninsula, largely savanna.
300
False
What are the Everglades
5726629ddd62a815002e835c
an enormously wide, slow-flowing river encompasses the southern tip of the peninsula
403
False
How much sink hole damage did Florida suffer recently
5726629ddd62a815002e835d
Sinkhole damage claims on property in the state exceeded a total of $2 billion from 2006 through 2010
489
False
underwater
20
What kind of caves are rare in Florida?
5acd8cdc07355d001abf46e2
True
springs
52
What body of water is uncommon in Florida?
5acd8cdc07355d001abf46e3
True
limestone
143
What type of stone is hard to find in Florida?
5acd8cdc07355d001abf46e4
True
The Everglades
387
What is the river through the Northern area of Florida?
5acd8cdc07355d001abf46e5
True
Sinkhole
489
What damage amounted to $2 billion from 2016-2018?
5acd8cdc07355d001abf46e6
True
Extended systems of underwater caves, sinkholes and springs are found throughout the state and supply most of the water used by residents. The limestone is topped with sandy soils deposited as ancient beaches over millions of years as global sea levels rose and fell. During the last glacial period, lower sea levels and a drier climate revealed a much wider peninsula, largely savanna. The Everglades, an enormously wide, slow-flowing river encompasses the southern tip of the peninsula. Sinkhole damage claims on property in the state exceeded a total of $2 billion from 2006 through 2010.
What is the population of Florida
572664c9f1498d1400e8de1e
The United States Census Bureau estimates that the population of Florida was 20,271,272 on July 1, 2015
0
False
Where did florida rank in population growth
572664c9f1498d1400e8de1f
Florida was the seventh fastest-growing state
220
False
What is the center of the Florida population
572664c9f1498d1400e8de20
Polk County since the 1960 census
579
False
What state did Florida pass in population recently
572664c9f1498d1400e8de21
surpassing the population of the state of New York
669
False
20,271,272
77
What was the population of Florida in 2014?
5acd901707355d001abf4728
True
7.82%
107
How much did the population decrease in 5 years?
5acd901707355d001abf4729
True
18,801,310.
208
What was the population of Florida in 2001?
5acd901707355d001abf472a
True
19.7 million
638
What was the population in 2013?
5acd901707355d001abf472b
True
The United States Census Bureau estimates that the population of Florida was 20,271,272 on July 1, 2015, a 7.82% increase since the 2010 United States Census. The population of Florida in the 2010 census was 18,801,310. Florida was the seventh fastest-growing state in the U.S. in the 12-month period ending July 1, 2012. In 2010, the center of population of Florida was located between Fort Meade and Frostproof. The center of population has moved less than 5 miles (8 km) to the east and approximately 1 mile (1.6 km) to the north between 1980 and 2010 and has been located in Polk County since the 1960 census. The population exceeded 19.7 million by December 2014, surpassing the population of the state of New York for the first time.
How severe are Florida disenfranchisement laws
5726691add62a815002e8404
Florida is among the three states with the most severe felony disenfranchisement laws.
0
False
What doe s the law require for criminals
5726691add62a815002e8405
felons to have completed sentencing, parole and/or probation, and then seven years later, to apply individually for restoration of voting privileges
104
False
Who does this law effect most
5726691add62a815002e8406
this law has disproportionate effects for minorities
306
False
How does it effect elections
5726691add62a815002e8407
one in ten Floridians – and nearly one in four African-American Floridians – are shut out of the polls because of felony convictions
506
False
felons
104
What criminals are forced to have incomplete sentencing?
5acd91c807355d001abf4762
True
voting privileges
235
Felons have to wait eight years to restore which privilege?
5acd91c807355d001abf4763
True
nearly one in four
534
How many Mexicans are shut out of the polls?
5acd91c807355d001abf4764
True
felony
620
What type of conviction still allows people to vote?
5acd91c807355d001abf4765
True
Florida is among the three states with the most severe felony disenfranchisement laws. Florida requires felons to have completed sentencing, parole and/or probation, and then seven years later, to apply individually for restoration of voting privileges. As in other aspects of the criminal justice system, this law has disproportionate effects for minorities. As a result, according to Brent Staples, based on data from The Sentencing Project, the effect of Florida's law is such that in 2014 "[m]ore than one in ten Floridians – and nearly one in four African-American Floridians – are shut out of the polls because of felony convictions."
What percentage of the population considers themselves American
57266a715951b619008f720d
6.9% of the population (1,269,765) considered themselves to be of only American ancestry
9
False
In the 1980 census the largest ancestry group in Florida was
57266a715951b619008f720e
largest ancestry group reported in Florida was English with 2,232,514 Floridians claiming that they were of English or mostly English American ancestry
376
False
How far back did some of the Ancestry go
57266a715951b619008f720f
back to the original thirteen colonies.
557
False
6.9%
9
What percent of the population considered themselves not American?
5acd929a07355d001abf4770
True
1980
346
French was the largest ancestry in Florida in what year?
5acd929a07355d001abf4771
True
2,232,514
436
How many Floridians claimed they're of Spanish descent?
5acd929a07355d001abf4772
True
their families have lived in the state for so long
197
Why do people choose not to identify as American ancestry?
5acd929a07355d001abf4773
True
In 2010, 6.9% of the population (1,269,765) considered themselves to be of only American ancestry (regardless of race or ethnicity). Many of these were of English or Scotch-Irish descent; however, their families have lived in the state for so long, that they choose to identify as having "American" ancestry or do not know their ancestry. In the 1980 United States census the largest ancestry group reported in Florida was English with 2,232,514 Floridians claiming that they were of English or mostly English American ancestry. Some of their ancestry went back to the original thirteen colonies.
As of 2010 what percentage of Florida was white / non Hispanic
57266b61dd62a815002e844e
those of (non-Hispanic white) European ancestry accounted for 57.9% of Florida's population
12
False
What percentage of florida was white Non Hispanic in 1970
57266b61dd62a815002e844f
In 1970, non-Hispanic whites were nearly 80% of Florida's population
383
False
What do many white long term floridian families identify with
57266b61dd62a815002e8450
long-time Florida families, may refer to themselves as "Florida crackers
639
False
Most  white  Florida Immigrants descend from
57266b61dd62a815002e8451
mainly from English and Scots-Irish settlers, as well as some other British American settlers
818
False
Florida crackers
695
What do short term Florida families call themselves?
5acd95f807355d001abf47a4
True
80%
424
How many non hispanic whites were in Florida in 1960?
5acd95f807355d001abf47a5
True
Florida crackers
695
What do non-native Floridians call themselves?
5acd95f807355d001abf47a6
True
Southern
788
French settlers made up most of what region of the US?
5acd95f807355d001abf47a7
True
1,979,058
186
How many people of Irish ancestry were in Florida in 2009?
5acd95f807355d001abf47a8
True
As of 2010, those of (non-Hispanic white) European ancestry accounted for 57.9% of Florida's population. Out of the 57.9%, the largest groups were 12.0% German (2,212,391), 10.7% Irish (1,979,058), 8.8% English (1,629,832), 6.6% Italian (1,215,242), 2.8% Polish (511,229), and 2.7% French (504,641). White Americans of all European backgrounds are present in all areas of the state. In 1970, non-Hispanic whites were nearly 80% of Florida's population. Those of English and Irish ancestry are present in large numbers in all the urban/suburban areas across the state. Some native white Floridians, especially those who have descended from long-time Florida families, may refer to themselves as "Florida crackers"; others see the term as a derogatory one. Like whites in most of the other Southern states, they descend mainly from English and Scots-Irish settlers, as well as some other British American settlers.
What percentage of the Florida population in 2010 was Hispanic
57266c865951b619008f7251
Hispanic or Latino ancestry ancestry accounted for 22.5% (4,223,806) of Florida's population
21
False
What Origin makes up most of the Hispanics in Florida
57266c865951b619008f7252
Out of the 22.5%, the largest groups were 6.5% (1,213,438) Cuban
115
False
What percentage of Cuban Americans live in Florida
57266c865951b619008f7253
Nearly 80% of Cuban Americans live in Florida, especially South Florida
719
False
What is percentage of Puerto Ricans in Florida
57266c865951b619008f7254
the second largest Puerto Rican population after New York, as well as the fastest-growing in the nation
864
False
Cuban
324
What origin makes up the smallest population of hispanics in florida?
5acd969f07355d001abf47ae
True
Florida
757
What area is the third largest Puerto Rican population in the US?
5acd969f07355d001abf47af
True
22.5%
72
What percentage of the Florida population in 2001 was Hispanic?
5acd969f07355d001abf47b0
True
4.5%
181
What percentage of the Florida population in 2001 was Cuban?
5acd969f07355d001abf47b1
True
1.6%
238
What percentage of the Florida population in 2001 was Colombian?
5acd969f07355d001abf47b2
True
As of 2010, those of Hispanic or Latino ancestry ancestry accounted for 22.5% (4,223,806) of Florida's population. Out of the 22.5%, the largest groups were 6.5% (1,213,438) Cuban, 4.5% (847,550) Puerto Rican, 3.3% (629,718) Mexican, and 1.6% (300,414) Colombian. Florida's Hispanic population includes large communities of Cuban Americans in Miami and Tampa, Puerto Ricans in Orlando and Tampa, and Mexican/Central American migrant workers. The Hispanic community continues to grow more affluent and mobile. As of 2011, 57.0% of Florida's children under the age of 1 belonged to minority groups. Florida has a large and diverse Hispanic population, with Cubans and Puerto Ricans being the largest groups in the state. Nearly 80% of Cuban Americans live in Florida, especially South Florida where there is a long-standing and affluent Cuban community. Florida has the second largest Puerto Rican population after New York, as well as the fastest-growing in the nation. Puerto Ricans are more widespread throughout the state, though the heaviest concentrations are in the Orlando area of Central Florida.
What percentage of Florida was African american in 2010
57266d8af1498d1400e8df70
As of 2010, those of African ancestry accounted for 16.0% of Florida's population
0
False
what percentage of florida was black in the early 1900's
57266d8bf1498d1400e8df71
During the early 1900s, black people made up nearly half of the state's population
195
False
What did many black migrate from florida
57266d8bf1498d1400e8df72
response to segregation, disfranchisement and agricultural depression, many African Americans migrated from Florida to northern cities
282
False
Where does the African population in florida have ancestry roots
57266d8bf1498d1400e8df73
African slaves brought to the US south, there are also large numbers of blacks of West Indian, recent African, and Afro-Latino immigrant origins
901
False
16.0%
52
What percentage of Florida was African American in 2001?
5acd976707355d001abf47c2
True
half
247
What percentage of Florida was black in the late 1900s?
5acd976707355d001abf47c3
True
18%
689
In 1960 the population of African Americans increased by what percent?
5acd976707355d001abf47c4
True
1.3%
1220
What percentage of Jamaicans were in Florida in 2001?
5acd976707355d001abf47c5
True
African Americans
642
Southern and Eastern Florida have the highest population of what race?
5acd976707355d001abf47c6
True
As of 2010, those of African ancestry accounted for 16.0% of Florida's population, which includes African Americans. Out of the 16.0%, 4.0% (741,879) were West Indian or Afro-Caribbean American. During the early 1900s, black people made up nearly half of the state's population. In response to segregation, disfranchisement and agricultural depression, many African Americans migrated from Florida to northern cities in the Great Migration, in waves from 1910 to 1940, and again starting in the later 1940s. They moved for jobs, better education for their children and the chance to vote and participate in society. By 1960 the proportion of African Americans in the state had declined to 18%. Conversely large numbers of northern whites moved to the state.[citation needed] Today, large concentrations of black residents can be found in northern and central Florida. Aside from blacks descended from African slaves brought to the US south, there are also large numbers of blacks of West Indian, recent African, and Afro-Latino immigrant origins, especially in the Miami/South Florida area. In 2010, Florida had the highest percentage of West Indians in the United States, with 2.0% (378,926) from Haitian ancestry, and 1.3% (236,950) Jamaican. All other (non-Hispanic) Caribbean nations were well below 0.1% of Florida residents.
Voter demographics of florida in the 1950's
57266e2c708984140094c5bf
1952 to 1964, most voters were registered Democrats, but the state voted for the Republican presidential candidate in every election except for 1964
5
False
what did the voting rights act provide for
57266e2c708984140094c5c0
Voting Rights Act of 1965, providing for oversight of state practices and enforcement of constitutional voting rights for African Americans and other minorities
234
False
what president signed the voting right act
57266e2c708984140094c5c1
President Lyndon B. Johnson signed the Voting Rights Act of 1965
195
False
most voters were registered Democrats
19
What were voter demographics in the 1940s?
5acd99d907355d001abf47e0
True
Lyndon B. Johnson
205
What president rejected the voting rights act of 1965?
5acd99d907355d001abf47e1
True
Voting Rights Act
234
What act was signed in 1967?
5acd99d907355d001abf47e2
True
Voting Rights Act
234
What act made it illegal for minorities to vote?
5acd99d907355d001abf47e3
True
From 1952 to 1964, most voters were registered Democrats, but the state voted for the Republican presidential candidate in every election except for 1964. The following year, Congress passed and President Lyndon B. Johnson signed the Voting Rights Act of 1965, providing for oversight of state practices and enforcement of constitutional voting rights for African Americans and other minorities in order to prevent the discrimination and disenfranchisement that had excluded most of them for decades from the political process.
What party dominated florida politics from 1930 to 1960
57266f755951b619008f7293
1930s through much of the 1960s, Florida was essentially a one-party state dominated by white conservative Democrats
9
False
Does Florida benefit from taxes
57266f755951b619008f7294
Florida residents have received more federal monies than they pay in taxes: the state is a net beneficiary
303
False
What party political party dominates Florida now
57266f755951b619008f7295
Since the 1970s, the conservative white majority of voters in the state has largely shifted from the Democratic to the Republican Party
411
False
How does Florida vote in presidential elections
57266f755951b619008f7296
continued to support Republican presidential candidates through the 20th century, except in 1976 and 1996, when the Democratic nominee was from the South
555
False
What do these candidates that Florida supports pledge
57266f755951b619008f7297
the luxury of voting for presidential candidates who pledge to cut taxes and halt the expansion of government
725
False
conservative Democrats
103
What party dominated Florida before 1930?
5acd9b0007355d001abf47e8
True
conservative Democrats
103
What party dominated Florida after 1960?
5acd9b0007355d001abf47e9
True
1970s
421
The voters shifted from Republican to Democrat in what era?
5acd9b0007355d001abf47ea
True
Republican
576
1976 and 1996 had candidates from the North which were supported by what party?
5acd9b0007355d001abf47eb
True
From the 1930s through much of the 1960s, Florida was essentially a one-party state dominated by white conservative Democrats, who together with other Democrats of the Solid South, exercised considerable control in Congress. They gained federal money from national programs; like other southern states, Florida residents have received more federal monies than they pay in taxes: the state is a net beneficiary. Since the 1970s, the conservative white majority of voters in the state has largely shifted from the Democratic to the Republican Party. It has continued to support Republican presidential candidates through the 20th century, except in 1976 and 1996, when the Democratic nominee was from the South. They have had "the luxury of voting for presidential candidates who pledge to cut taxes and halt the expansion of government while knowing that their congressional delegations will continue to protect federal spending."
The first post- reconstruction era republican elected to florida
572670f2f1498d1400e8dfb4
William C. Cramer in 1954 from Pinellas County
82
False
What is Cramer credited for
572670f2f1498d1400e8dfb5
Cramer built a different Republican Party in Florida, attracting local white conservatives and transplants from northern and midwestern states
375
False
Who was Claude R Kirk
572670f2f1498d1400e8dfb6
966 Claude R. Kirk, Jr. was elected as the first post-Reconstruction Republican governor, in an upset election
523
False
Who was Edward j Gurney
572670f2f1498d1400e8dfb7
968 Edward J. Gurney, also a white conservative, was elected as the state's first post-reconstruction Republican US Senator
639
False
What did the Democrat party do in the 1970
572670f2f1498d1400e8dfb8
1970 Democrats took the governorship and the open US Senate seat, and maintained dominance for years
767
False
William C. Cramer
82
Who was the first pre-reconstruction era republican elected?
5acd9b8e07355d001abf4804
True
William C. Cramer
82
Who was the mid-reconstruction era republican elected?
5acd9b8e07355d001abf4805
True
Claude R. Kirk, Jr
527
Who was elected in 1967?
5acd9b8e07355d001abf4806
True
Democrats
772
Who took the seat in 1972?
5acd9b8e07355d001abf4807
True
The first post-Reconstruction era Republican elected to Congress from Florida was William C. Cramer in 1954 from Pinellas County on the Gulf Coast, where demographic changes were underway. In this period, African Americans were still disenfranchised by the state's constitution and discriminatory practices; in the 19th century they had made up most of the Republican Party. Cramer built a different Republican Party in Florida, attracting local white conservatives and transplants from northern and midwestern states. In 1966 Claude R. Kirk, Jr. was elected as the first post-Reconstruction Republican governor, in an upset election. In 1968 Edward J. Gurney, also a white conservative, was elected as the state's first post-reconstruction Republican US Senator. In 1970 Democrats took the governorship and the open US Senate seat, and maintained dominance for years.
What did democrat voters do in 1998
572671dd708984140094c64d
In 1998, Democratic voters dominated areas of the state with a high percentage of racial minorities and transplanted white liberals
0
False
What are snowbirds
572671dd708984140094c64e
white liberals from the northeastern United States, known colloquially as "snowbirds
117
False
What party dominates South Florida and Miami
572671dd708984140094c64f
racial minorities and white liberals. Because of this, the area has consistently voted as one of the most Democratic areas of the state
272
False
which party dominates most of the rest of florida
572671dd708984140094c650
Republicans, made up mostly of white conservatives, have dominated throughout much of the rest of Florida
551
False
dominated areas of the state with a high percentage of racial minorities
27
What did democrat voters do in 1999?
5acd9c7b07355d001abf480c
True
transplanted white liberals from the northeastern United States
104
What are sunbirds?
5acd9c7b07355d001abf480d
True
racial minorities and white liberals
272
What party dominates Northern Florida?
5acd9c7b07355d001abf480e
True
Hispanic
495
What race in Orlando favored the republicans?
5acd9c7b07355d001abf480f
True
rural and suburban areas
683
White democrats make up what part of florida?
5acd9c7b07355d001abf4810
True
In 1998, Democratic voters dominated areas of the state with a high percentage of racial minorities and transplanted white liberals from the northeastern United States, known colloquially as "snowbirds". South Florida and the Miami metropolitan area are dominated by both racial minorities and white liberals. Because of this, the area has consistently voted as one of the most Democratic areas of the state. The Daytona Beach area is similar demographically and the city of Orlando has a large Hispanic population, which has often favored Democrats. Republicans, made up mostly of white conservatives, have dominated throughout much of the rest of Florida, particularly in the more rural and suburban areas. This is characteristic of its voter base throughout the Deep South.
What is the make up politically of florida's fastest growing area
572672ecdd62a815002e8538
Daytona Beach, Orlando, and Tampa/St. Petersburg, has had a fairly even breakdown of Republican and Democratic voters
98
False
The area is viewed as what politically
572672ecdd62a815002e8539
The area is often seen as a merging point of the conservative northern portion of the state and the liberal southern portion
217
False
The vote in this area since the late 20th century decides what
572672ecdd62a815002e853a
the voting results in this area, containing 40% of Florida voters, has often determined who will win the state of Florida in presidential elections
419
False
I-4 corridor
17
What is the slowest growing corridor?
5acd9cf807355d001abf4820
True
Central Florida and connects the cities of Daytona Beach, Orlando, and Tampa/St. Petersburg
55
What does the I-5 corridor run through?
5acd9cf807355d001abf4821
True
Democratic
198
What party dominates I-4 corridor?
5acd9cf807355d001abf4822
True
Republican and Democratic voters
183
What breakdown is fairly uneven?
5acd9cf807355d001abf4823
True
the voting results in this area, containing 40% of Florida voters, has often determined who will win the state of Florida in presidential elections
419
What has happened since the late 19th century?
5acd9cf807355d001abf4824
True
The fast-growing I-4 corridor area, which runs through Central Florida and connects the cities of Daytona Beach, Orlando, and Tampa/St. Petersburg, has had a fairly even breakdown of Republican and Democratic voters. The area is often seen as a merging point of the conservative northern portion of the state and the liberal southern portion, making it the biggest swing area in the state. Since the late 20th century, the voting results in this area, containing 40% of Florida voters, has often determined who will win the state of Florida in presidential elections.
What has reappointment done to florida
5726738e5951b619008f72ff
Reapportionment following the 2010 United States Census gave the state two more seats in the House of Representatives
0
False
What was challenged in 2012
5726738e5951b619008f7300
The legislature's redistricting, announced in 2012, was quickly challenged in court, on the grounds that it had unfairly benefited Republican interests
119
False
How did the Florida supreme court rule on the challenge
5726738e5951b619008f7301
Florida Supreme Court ruled on appeal that the congressional districts had to be redrawn because of the legislature's violation of the Fair District Amendments
285
False
What hapend to the Florida congressional map in 2015
5726738e5951b619008f7302
it accepted a new map in early December 2015.
487
False
Reapportionment
0
What gave three more seats to the house of representatives in 2010?
5acd9e3107355d001abf483e
True
legislature's redistricting
123
What wasn't challenged in 2012?
5acd9e3107355d001abf483f
True
legislature's redistricting
123
What was challenged in 2013?
5acd9e3107355d001abf4840
True
congressional districts had to be redrawn
332
What happened in 2008?
5acd9e3107355d001abf4841
True
December 2015
518
When was the new map rejected?
5acd9e3107355d001abf4842
True
Reapportionment following the 2010 United States Census gave the state two more seats in the House of Representatives. The legislature's redistricting, announced in 2012, was quickly challenged in court, on the grounds that it had unfairly benefited Republican interests. In 2015, the Florida Supreme Court ruled on appeal that the congressional districts had to be redrawn because of the legislature's violation of the Fair District Amendments to the state constitution passed in 2010; it accepted a new map in early December 2015.
What hapend in the 2000 election
572674b8f1498d1400e8e034
Out of more than 5.8 million votes for the two main contenders Bush and Al Gore, around 500 votes separated the two candidates
73
False
How severe is Florida's Disenfranchisement law
572674b8f1498d1400e8e035
Florida's felony disenfranchisement law is more severe than most European nations or other American states
280
False
What did this mean in the 2000 election
572674b8f1498d1400e8e036
if the state’s 827,000 disenfranchised felons had voted at the same rate as other Floridians, Democratic candidate Al Gore would have won Florida
453
False
the state played a pivotal role
40
What happened in 2004?
5acd9fb007355d001abf4852
True
Bush and Al Gore
136
800 votes separated which candidates?
5acd9fb007355d001abf4853
True
80,000
631
How many votes did Al Gore win by?
5acd9fb007355d001abf4854
True
disenfranchised felons
476
Who didn't vote in 2004?
5acd9fb007355d001abf4855
True
827,000
468
How many felons voted in 2004?
5acd9fb007355d001abf4856
True
In the closely contested 2000 election, the state played a pivotal role. Out of more than 5.8 million votes for the two main contenders Bush and Al Gore, around 500 votes separated the two candidates for the all-decisive Florida electoral votes that landed Bush the election win. Florida's felony disenfranchisement law is more severe than most European nations or other American states. A 2002 study in the American Sociological Review concluded that "if the state’s 827,000 disenfranchised felons had voted at the same rate as other Floridians, Democratic candidate Al Gore would have won Florida—and the presidency—by more than 80,000 votes."
Why did the 2 districts have to be redrawn in 2014
5726769ff1498d1400e8e088
that at least two districts had to be redrawn because of gerrymandering
50
False
How many were ruled to be redrawn in 2015
5726769ff1498d1400e8e089
lawmakers had followed an illegal and unconstitutional process overly influenced by party operatives, and ruled that at least eight districts had to be redrawn
198
False
What was the court vote on the new congressional map in 2015
5726769ff1498d1400e8e08a
a 5-2 majority of the Court accepted a new map of congressional districts
380
False
Are there any more changes coming to the map
5726769ff1498d1400e8e08b
There are likely to be additional challenges to the map and districts.
664
False
gerrymandering
107
Why did the 2 districts have to be redrawn in 2016?
5acda05907355d001abf485c
True
two districts had to be redrawn
64
What wasn't appealed in 2015?
5acda05907355d001abf485d
True
a 5-2 majority of the Court accepted a new map of congressional districts
380
What happened on December 1 2015?
5acda05907355d001abf485e
True
5-2
382
How many votes did the new maps lose by?
5acda05907355d001abf485f
True
December 2, 2015
362
As of what date, the congressional maps are permanent?
5acda05907355d001abf4860
True
The court ruled in 2014, after lengthy testimony, that at least two districts had to be redrawn because of gerrymandering. After this was appealed, in July 2015 the Florida Supreme Court ruled that lawmakers had followed an illegal and unconstitutional process overly influenced by party operatives, and ruled that at least eight districts had to be redrawn. On December 2, 2015, a 5-2 majority of the Court accepted a new map of congressional districts, some of which was drawn by challengers. Their ruling affirmed the map previously approved by Leon County Judge Terry Lewis, who had overseen the original trial. It particularly makes changes in South Florida. There are likely to be additional challenges to the map and districts.
What was Florida's GDP in 2010
57267746f1498d1400e8e09a
Gross Domestic Product (GDP) of Florida in 2010 was $748 billion
4
False
Where does Florida's GDP rank
57267746f1498d1400e8e09b
Its GDP is the fourth largest economy in the United States
70
False
What are some major contributors to states output
57267746f1498d1400e8e09c
were general services, financial services, trade, transportation and public utilities, manufacturing and construction respectively
252
False
What was Florida named in 2011
57267746f1498d1400e8e09d
Chief Executive Magazine name Florida the third "Best State for Business" in 2011
483
False
$748 billion
56
What was Florida's GDP in 2001?
5acda08d07355d001abf4866
True
Florida
36
What is the third largest economy in the US?
5acda08d07355d001abf4867
True
Florida
36
What is the second largest economy in the US?
5acda08d07355d001abf4868
True
financial services
275
What is the largest economy in the US?
5acda08d07355d001abf4869
True
Florida
36
What is the third smallest economy in the US?
5acda08d07355d001abf486a
True
The Gross Domestic Product (GDP) of Florida in 2010 was $748 billion. Its GDP is the fourth largest economy in the United States. In 2010, it became the fourth largest exporter of trade goods. The major contributors to the state's gross output in 2007 were general services, financial services, trade, transportation and public utilities, manufacturing and construction respectively. In 2010–11, the state budget was $70.5 billion, having reached a high of $73.8 billion in 2006–07. Chief Executive Magazine name Florida the third "Best State for Business" in 2011.
What was the mortgage delinquency rate in 2008
572677e5dd62a815002e8606
Florida had the highest mortgage delinquency rate in the country, with 7.8% of mortgages delinquent at least 60 days
41
False
How many vacant homes in Florida in 2009
572677e5dd62a815002e8607
300,000 vacant homes in 2009
345
False
What percentage of  personal income was spent of Housing in florida
572677e5dd62a815002e8608
Floridians spent an average 49.1% of personal income on housing-related costs
448
False
Where did housing spending ranking nationally
572677e5dd62a815002e8609
the third highest percentage in the country
527
False
7.8%
112
What was the mortgage delinquency rate in 2006?
5acda11d07355d001abf487a
True
7.8%
112
What was the rate of delinquency of at least 90 days?
5acda11d07355d001abf487b
True
300,000
345
How many vacant homes were there in 2008?
5acda11d07355d001abf487c
True
49.1%
476
What percentage of personal income was spent on housing costs in 2008?
5acda11d07355d001abf487d
True
Florida
332
What state was the fourth highest percentage of housing related costs in the country?
5acda11d07355d001abf487e
True
At the end of the third quarter in 2008, Florida had the highest mortgage delinquency rate in the country, with 7.8% of mortgages delinquent at least 60 days. A 2009 list of national housing markets that were hard hit in the real estate crash included a disproportionate number in Florida. The early 21st-century building boom left Florida with 300,000 vacant homes in 2009, according to state figures. In 2009, the US Census Bureau estimated that Floridians spent an average 49.1% of personal income on housing-related costs, the third highest percentage in the country.
What did Hurricane Andrew cause Florida to do
572683435951b619008f751d
the state of Florida began investing in economic development through the Office of Trade
56
False
What did Govenor Bush Realize
572683435951b619008f751e
that watershed events such as Andrew negatively impacted Florida's backbone industry of tourism severely
208
False
What industry was targeted
572683435951b619008f751f
Medical/Bio-Sciences
348
False
Who chose to expand their corporation in Florida
572683435951b619008f7520
The Scripps Research Institute (TSRI) announced it had chosen Florida for its newest expansion
402
False
Hurricane Andrew
30
What hurricane hit in 1991?
5acda21407355d001abf488e
True
investing in economic development
83
What did Florida stop doing after Andrew?
5acda21407355d001abf488f
True
watershed events such as Andrew negatively impacted Florida's backbone industry of tourism severely
213
What did Jeb Bush fail to realize?
5acda21407355d001abf4890
True
Scripps Research Institute
406
Who chose against expanding their corporation in Florida?
5acda21407355d001abf4891
True
TSRI
507
Who announced plans to establish a major science center in 2001?
5acda21407355d001abf4892
True
After the watershed events of Hurricane Andrew in 1992, the state of Florida began investing in economic development through the Office of Trade, Tourism, and Economic Development. Governor Jeb Bush realized that watershed events such as Andrew negatively impacted Florida's backbone industry of tourism severely. The office was directed to target Medical/Bio-Sciences among others. Three years later, The Scripps Research Institute (TSRI) announced it had chosen Florida for its newest expansion. In 2003, TSRI announced plans to establish a major science center in Palm Beach, a 364,000 square feet (33,800 m2) facility on 100 acres (40 ha), which TSRI planned to occupy in 2006.
What architectural styles are in Florida
572684325951b619008f7537
architectural styles including Spanish revival, Florida vernacular, and Mediterranean Revival Style
35
False
What does Florida have the largest collection of
572684325951b619008f7538
the largest collection of Art Deco and Streamline Moderne buildings in both the United States and the entire world, most of which are located in the Miami
143
False
When did the art deco area of Miami boom
572684325951b619008f7539
Miami Beach's Art Deco District, constructed as the city was becoming a resort destination
328
False
What other Unique Architecture started in Miami after world war 2
572684325951b619008f753a
Miami Modern, which can be seen in areas such as Miami's MiMo Historic District.
497
False
Spanish revival, Florida vernacular, and Mediterranean Revival
66
What architectural styles are not in Florida?
5acda52007355d001abf48ac
True
Art Deco and Streamline Moderne buildings
169
What does Florida have the smallest collection of?
5acda52007355d001abf48ad
True
as the city was becoming a resort destination
373
When did the art deco area of Miami die?
5acda52007355d001abf48ae
True
Miami Modern
497
What other unique architecture ended in Miami after WWII?
5acda52007355d001abf48af
True
Streamline Moderne buildings
182
What type of buildings are not found in the Miami Metropolitan area?
5acda52007355d001abf48b0
True
Some sections of the state feature architectural styles including Spanish revival, Florida vernacular, and Mediterranean Revival Style. It has the largest collection of Art Deco and Streamline Moderne buildings in both the United States and the entire world, most of which are located in the Miami metropolitan area, especially Miami Beach's Art Deco District, constructed as the city was becoming a resort destination. A unique architectural design found only in Florida is the post-World War II Miami Modern, which can be seen in areas such as Miami's MiMo Historic District.
What train line connects florida to the North
5726853ddd62a815002e8810
Amtrak, operating numerous lines throughout, connecting the state's largest cities to points north in the United States and Canada
21
False
Where does the Auto train originate
5726853ddd62a815002e8811
Auto Train, which originates at Lorton, Virginia, south of Washington, D.C
385
False
Who does sunset limited service
5726853ddd62a815002e8812
Sunset Limited, which travels across the southern United States via New Orleans, Houston, and San Antonio to its western terminus of Los Angeles
519
False
Two othe ramtrak trains that serve Florida
5726853ddd62a815002e8813
Amtrak trains (the Silver Star and the Silver Meteor), which operate between New York City and Miami
701
False
Amtrak
21
What train line connects florida to the south?
5acda5f107355d001abf48c0
True
Lorton, Virginia
417
Where does the Auto train end?
5acda5f107355d001abf48c1
True
Sunset Limited
519
What service started in 2005?
5acda5f107355d001abf48c2
True
Sanford
212
What was the busiest Amtrak train station in 2010?
5acda5f107355d001abf48c3
True
Sanford
212
What was the least busy Amtrak station in 2011?
5acda5f107355d001abf48c4
True
Florida is served by Amtrak, operating numerous lines throughout, connecting the state's largest cities to points north in the United States and Canada. The busiest Amtrak train stations in Florida in 2011 were: Sanford (259,944), Orlando (179,142), Tampa Union Station (140,785), Miami (94,556), and Jacksonville (74,733). Sanford, in Greater Orlando, is the southern terminus of the Auto Train, which originates at Lorton, Virginia, south of Washington, D.C.. Until 2005, Orlando was also the eastern terminus of the Sunset Limited, which travels across the southern United States via New Orleans, Houston, and San Antonio to its western terminus of Los Angeles. Florida is served by two additional Amtrak trains (the Silver Star and the Silver Meteor), which operate between New York City and Miami. Miami Central Station, the city's rapid transit, commuter rail, intercity rail, and bus hub, is under construction.
What is headquartered in Daytona
572685f55951b619008f757d
NASCAR (headquartered in Daytona Beach) begins all three of its major auto racing series in Florida at Daytona International Speedway in February
0
False
Name another race in florida
572685f55951b619008f757e
Daytona also has the Coke Zero 400 NASCAR race weekend around Independence Day in July
241
False
What is the 24 hours of Daytona
572685f55951b619008f757f
The 24 Hours of Daytona is one of the world's most prestigious endurance auto races
329
False
What does St Pete feature for a race
572685f55951b619008f7580
The Grand Prix of St. Petersburg
414
False
NASCAR
0
What car related sport is headquartered outside of Daytona
5acda66407355d001abf48ca
True
Coke Zero 400
262
What other race takes place outside of Daytona?
5acda66407355d001abf48cb
True
endurance auto races
392
What is the 48 hours of Daytona
5acda66407355d001abf48cc
True
Grand Prix of St. Petersburg and Grand Prix of Miami
418
What locations do not hold Indy car races?
5acda66407355d001abf48cd
True
Homestead-Miami Speedway
215
What series ends in March?
5acda66407355d001abf48ce
True
NASCAR (headquartered in Daytona Beach) begins all three of its major auto racing series in Florida at Daytona International Speedway in February, featuring the Daytona 500, and ends all three Series in November at Homestead-Miami Speedway. Daytona also has the Coke Zero 400 NASCAR race weekend around Independence Day in July. The 24 Hours of Daytona is one of the world's most prestigious endurance auto races. The Grand Prix of St. Petersburg and Grand Prix of Miami have held IndyCar races as well.
Queen_(band)
What was the name of Brian May and Roger Taylor's band before Queen?
57265492f1498d1400e8dc32
Smile
85
False
What was the stage name adopted by Farrokh Bulsara?
57265492f1498d1400e8dc33
Freddie Mercury
92
False
What was the name of the album Queen released in 2014?
57265492f1498d1400e8dc34
Queen Forever
1462
False
What was the name of Queen's 1977 album?
57265492f1498d1400e8dc35
News of the World
817
False
In what year did Freddie Mercury die?
57265492f1498d1400e8dc36
1991
1185
False
Before forming Queen, Brian May and Roger Taylor had played together in a band named Smile. Freddie Mercury (then known by his birth name of Farrokh "Freddie" Bulsara) was a fan of Smile and encouraged them to experiment with more elaborate stage and recording techniques. Mercury joined the band in 1970, suggested "Queen" as a new band name, and adopted his familiar stage name. John Deacon was recruited prior to recording their eponymous debut album in 1973. Queen first charted in the UK with their second album, Queen II, in 1974, but it was the release of Sheer Heart Attack later that year and A Night at the Opera in 1975 which brought them international success. The latter featured "Bohemian Rhapsody", which stayed at number one in the UK for nine weeks and popularised the music video. Their 1977 album, News of the World, contained "We Will Rock You" and "We Are the Champions", which have become anthems at sporting events. By the early 1980s, Queen were one of the biggest stadium rock bands in the world. Their performance at 1985's Live Aid is ranked among the greatest in rock history by various music publications, with a 2005 industry poll ranking it the best. In 1991, Mercury died of bronchopneumonia, a complication of AIDS, and Deacon retired in 1997. Since then, May and Taylor have occasionally performed together, including with Paul Rodgers (2004–09) and with Adam Lambert (since 2011). In November 2014, Queen released a new album, Queen Forever, featuring vocals from the late Mercury.
Tim Staffell left the band Smile in what year?
5726563add62a815002e81e2
1970
247
False
What band did Tim Staffell join after leaving Smile?
5726563add62a815002e81e3
Humpy Bong
290
False
What was the name of the college Tim Staffell attended when he met Farrokh Bulsara?
5726563add62a815002e81e4
Ealing Art College
16
False
In what year did Smile change their name to Queen?
5726563add62a815002e81e5
1970
247
False
What was the English first name Farrokh Bulsara adopted?
5726563add62a815002e81e6
Freddie
139
False
While attending Ealing Art College, Tim Staffell became friends with Farrokh Bulsara, a fellow student who had assumed the English name of Freddie. Bulsara felt that he and the band had the same tastes and soon became a keen fan of Smile. In late 1970, after Staffell left to join the band Humpy Bong, the remaining Smile members, encouraged by Bulsara, changed their name to "Queen" and continued working together. When asked about the name, Bulsara explained, "I thought up the name Queen. It's just a name, but it's very regal obviously, and it sounds splendid. It's a strong name, very universal and immediate. It had a lot of visual potential and was open to all sorts of interpretations. I was certainly aware of gay connotations, but that was just one facet of it."
John Deacon played what instrument?
572657e8f1498d1400e8dc90
bass
25
False
In what year did John Deacon join Queen?
572657e8f1498d1400e8dc91
1971
126
False
What did Freddie from Queen change his last name to?
572657e8f1498d1400e8dc92
Mercury
430
False
What song inspired Freddie from Queen's surname?
572657e8f1498d1400e8dc93
My Fairy King
521
False
On what date did Queen play their first show?
572657e8f1498d1400e8dc94
2 July 1971
540
False
The band had a number of bass players during this period who did not fit with the band's chemistry. It was not until February 1971 that they settled on John Deacon and began to rehearse for their first album. They recorded four of their own songs, "Liar", "Keep Yourself Alive", "The Night Comes Down" and "Jesus", for a demo tape; no record companies were interested. It was also around this time Freddie changed his surname to "Mercury", inspired by the line "Mother Mercury, look what they've done to me" in the song "My Fairy King". On 2 July 1971, Queen played their first show in the classic line-up of Mercury, May, Taylor and Deacon at a Surrey college outside London.
Who designed Queen's logo?
57265bcbdd62a815002e8294
Mercury
29
False
What was Freddie Mercury's zodiac sign?
57265bcbdd62a815002e8295
Virgo
283
False
Which zodiac sign did Deacon and Taylor share?
57265bcbdd62a815002e8296
Leo
213
False
What was Brian May's zodiac sign?
57265bcbdd62a815002e8297
Cancer
249
False
The early Queen logo resembled the coat of arms of what country?
57265bcbdd62a815002e8298
United Kingdom
631
False
Having attended art college, Mercury also designed Queen's logo, called the Queen crest, shortly before the release of the band's first album. The logo combines the zodiac signs of all four members: two lions for Leo (Deacon and Taylor), a crab for Cancer (May), and two fairies for Virgo (Mercury). The lions embrace a stylised letter Q, the crab rests atop the letter with flames rising directly above it, and the fairies are each sheltering below a lion. There is also a crown inside the Q and the whole logo is over-shadowed by an enormous phoenix. The whole symbol bears a passing resemblance to the Royal coat of arms of the United Kingdom, particularly with the lion supporters. The original logo, as found on the reverse-side of the first album cover, was a simple line drawing but more intricate colour versions were used on later sleeves.
Who offered Queen a management deal in 1972?
57265e2ff1498d1400e8dd6a
Norman Sheffield
170
False
Which singer used Trident studios in addition to Queen and the Beatles?
57265e2ff1498d1400e8dd6b
Elton John
606
False
What was the name of Trident's subsidiary?
57265e2ff1498d1400e8dd6c
Neptune Productions
193
False
Where was Queen spotted before entering discussions with Trident?
57265e2ff1498d1400e8dd6d
De La Lane Studios
79
False
In what year did Queen enter discussions with Trident studios?
57265e2ff1498d1400e8dd6e
1972
3
False
In 1972, Queen entered discussions with Trident Studios after being spotted at De La Lane Studios by John Anthony and after discussions were offered a management deal by Norman Sheffield under Neptune Productions, a subsidiary of Trident to manage the band and enable them to use the facilities at Trident to record new material whilst the management search for a record label to sign Queen. This suited both parties at the time as Trident were expanding into management and Queen under the deal were able to make use of the hi-tech recording facilities shared by bands at the time such as the Beatles and Elton John to produce new material. However, Trident found it difficult to find a label for a band bearing a name with such connotation during the early 1970s.
In what year was Queen's first album released?
5726764b708984140094c6ed
1973
8
False
What was the name of Queen's first album?
5726764b708984140094c6ee
Queen
14
False
What was the lead single from Queen's first album?
5726764b708984140094c6ef
Keep Yourself Alive
394
False
Which Queen song ranked as the 31st greatest guitar song in a 1998 Rolling Stone article?
5726764b708984140094c6f0
Keep Yourself Alive
472
False
Which critic called Queen's debut superb?
5726764b708984140094c6f1
Gordon Fletcher
204
False
In July 1973, Queen finally under a Trident/EMI deal released their eponymous debut album, an effort influenced by the heavy metal and progressive rock of the day. The album was received well by critics; Gordon Fletcher of Rolling Stone said "their debut album is superb", and Chicago's Daily Herald called it an "above average debut". It drew little mainstream attention, and the lead single "Keep Yourself Alive", a Brian May composition, sold poorly. Retrospectively, "Keep Yourself Alive" is cited as the highlight of the album, and in 2008 Rolling Stone ranked it 31st in the "100 Greatest Guitar Songs of All Time", describing it as "an entire album's worth of riffs crammed into a single song". The album was certified gold in the UK and the US.
What was the name of Queen's second LP?
572677eef1498d1400e8e0b6
Queen II
23
False
What year was Queen's second album released?
572677eef1498d1400e8e0b7
1974
49
False
Who designed the cover of Queen's second album?
572677eef1498d1400e8e0b8
Mick Rock
86
False
Who wrote the song Seven Seas of Rhye?
572677eef1498d1400e8e0b9
Freddie Mercury
346
False
How long is the song The March of the Black Queen?
572677eef1498d1400e8e0ba
six-minute
736
False
The group's second LP, Queen II, was released in 1974, and features rock photographer Mick Rock's iconic image of the band on the cover. This image would be used as the basis for the 1975 "Bohemian Rhapsody" music video production. The album reached number five on the British album chart and became the first Queen album to chart in the UK. The Freddie Mercury-written lead single "Seven Seas of Rhye" reached number ten in the UK, giving the band their first hit. The album is the first real testament to the band's distinctive layered sound, and features long complex instrumental passages, fantasy-themed lyrics, and musical virtuosity. Aside from its only single, the album also included the song "The March of the Black Queen", a six-minute epic which lacks a chorus. The Daily Vault described the number as "menacing". Critical reaction was mixed; the Winnipeg Free Press, while praising the band's debut album, described Queen II as a "over-produced monstrosity". Allmusic has described the album as a favourite among the band's hardcore fans, and it is the first of three Queen albums to feature in the book 1001 Albums You Must Hear Before You Die.
What was Brian May diagnosed with after collapsing in 1974?
57267a69dd62a815002e8676
hepatitis
121
False
What was the name of Queen's third album?
57267a69dd62a815002e8677
Sheer Heart Attack
298
False
What Queen album was released after Sheer Heart Attack?
57267a69dd62a815002e8678
A Night at the Opera
929
False
Queen's Sheer Heart Attack reached what number on the United Kingdom charts?
57267a69dd62a815002e8679
two
332
False
What was the name of the venue where Brian May collapsed?
57267a69dd62a815002e867a
New York's Uris Theatre
36
False
After the band's six-night stand at New York's Uris Theatre in May 1974, Brian May collapsed and was diagnosed as having hepatitis. While recuperating, May was initially absent when the band started work on their third album, but he returned midway through the recording process. Released in 1974, Sheer Heart Attack reached number two in the United Kingdom, sold well throughout Europe, and went gold in the United States. It gave the band their first real experience of international success, and was a hit on both sides of the Atlantic. The album experimented with a variety of musical genres, including British music hall, heavy metal, ballads, ragtime, and Caribbean. At this point, Queen started to move away from the progressive tendencies of their first two releases into a more radio-friendly, song-orientated style. Sheer Heart Attack introduced new sound and melody patterns that would be refined on their next album, A Night at the Opera.
Which song was Queen's first US hit?
57267ca5708984140094c7b7
Killer Queen
12
False
Queen's song Now I'm Here reached what number on the British charts?
57267ca5708984140094c7b8
eleven
349
False
What Queen song is known as an early speed metal song?
57267ca5708984140094c7b9
Stone Cold Crazy
401
False
What music style was found along with camp and vaudeville on the song Killer Queen?
57267ca5708984140094c7ba
British music hall
202
False
Killer Queen reached what number on the Billboard Hot 100?
57267ca5708984140094c7bb
12
139
False
The single "Killer Queen" from Sheer Heart Attack reached number two on the British charts, and became their first US hit, reaching number 12 on the Billboard Hot 100. It combines camp, vaudeville, and British music hall with May's guitar virtuosity. The album's second single, "Now I'm Here", a more traditional hard rock composition, was a number eleven hit in Britain, while the high speed rocker "Stone Cold Crazy" featuring May's uptempo riffs is a precursor to speed metal. In recent years, the album has received acclaim from music publications: In 2006, Classic Rock ranked it number 28 in "The 100 Greatest British Rock Albums Ever", and in 2007, Mojo ranked it No.88 in "The 100 Records That Changed the World". It is also the second of three Queen albums to feature in the book 1001 Albums You Must Hear Before You Die.
Who created the costumes for Queen's 1975 tour?
5726801fdd62a815002e875a
Zandra Rhodes
60
False
What country did Queen play in for the first time in 1975?
5726801fdd62a815002e875b
Canada
189
False
Queen had a bitter split with what management company in 1975?
5726801fdd62a815002e875c
Trident Studios
315
False
What manager of Led Zeppelin tried to sign Queen?
5726801fdd62a815002e875d
Peter Grant
450
False
Whom did Queen eventually sign with after rejecting the Swan Song records contract?
5726801fdd62a815002e875e
John Reid
637
False
In 1975, the band left for a world tour with each member in Zandra Rhodes-created costumes and accompanied with banks of lights and effects. They toured the US as headliners, and played in Canada for the first time. In September, after an acromonious split with Trident, the band negotiated themselves out of their Trident Studios contract and searched for new management. One of the options they considered was an offer from Led Zeppelin's manager, Peter Grant. Grant wanted them to sign with Led Zeppelin's own production company, Swan Song Records. The band found the contract unacceptable and instead contacted Elton John's manager, John Reid, who accepted the position.
Which Queen album was released in 1975?
57268127f1498d1400e8e204
A Night at the Opera
42
False
Queen's 1975 album took it's name from a movie from which comedy act?
57268127f1498d1400e8e205
Marx Brothers
97
False
How long was Queen's The Prophet's Song?
57268127f1498d1400e8e206
eight-minute
309
False
Which Queen ballad featured a harp and overdubbed harmonies?
57268127f1498d1400e8e207
Love of My Life
446
False
In late 1975, Queen recorded and released A Night at the Opera, taking its name from the popular Marx Brothers movie. At the time, it was the most expensive album ever produced. Like its predecessor, the album features diverse musical styles and experimentation with stereo sound. In "The Prophet's Song", an eight-minute epic, the middle section is a canon, with simple phrases layered to create a full-choral sound. The Mercury penned ballad, "Love of My Life", featured a harp and overdubbed vocal harmonies. The album was very successful in Britain, and went triple platinum in the United States. The British public voted it the 13th greatest album of all time in a 2004 Channel 4 poll. It has also ranked highly in international polls; in a worldwide Guinness poll, it was voted the 19th greatest of all time, while an ABC poll saw the Australian public vote it the 28th greatest of all time. A Night at the Opera has frequently appeared in "greatest albums" lists reflecting the opinions of critics. Among other accolades, it was ranked number 16 in Q Magazine's "The 50 Best British Albums Ever" in 2004, and number 11 in Rolling Stone's "The 100 Greatest Albums of All Time" as featured in their Mexican edition in 2004. It was also placed at No. 230 on Rolling Stone magazine's list of "The 500 Greatest Albums of All Time" in 2003. A Night at the Opera is the third and final Queen album to be featured in the book 1001 Albums You Must Hear Before You Die.
Which Queen song was number one on the UK charts for nine weeks?
572685c3f1498d1400e8e294
Bohemian Rhapsody
40
False
What is the third best selling single of all time in the UK?
572685c3f1498d1400e8e295
Bohemian Rhapsody
40
False
What Queen single sold a million copies on two separate occasions?
572685c3f1498d1400e8e296
Bohemian Rhapsody
744
False
In what year did Queen's A Night at the Opera Tour begin?
572685c3f1498d1400e8e297
1975
1943
False
Queen's 1975 tour included Europe and what three countries?
572685c3f1498d1400e8e298
United States, Japan, and Australia
1973
False
The album also featured the hit single "Bohemian Rhapsody", which was number one in the UK for nine weeks. Mercury's close friend and advisor, Capital London radio DJ Kenny Everett, played a pivotal role in giving the single exposure. It is the third-best-selling single of all time in the UK, surpassed only by Band Aid's "Do They Know It's Christmas?" and Elton John's "Candle in the Wind 1997", and is the best-selling commercial single in the UK. It also reached number nine in the United States (a 1992 re-release reached number two on the Billboard Hot 100 for five weeks). It is the only single ever to sell a million copies on two separate occasions, and became the Christmas number one twice in the UK, the only single ever to do so. "Bohemian Rhapsody" has been voted numerous times the greatest song of all time. The band decided to make a video to help go with the single and hired Trilion, a subsidiary of the former management company Trident Studios, using new technology to create the video; the result is generally considered to have been the first "true" music video ever produced, and popularised the medium. The album's first track "Death on Two Legs" is said to be written by Mercury about Norman Sheffield and the former management at Trident who helped make the video so popular. Although other bands, including the Beatles, had made short promotional films or videos of songs prior to this, generally, those were specifically made to be aired on specific television shows. On the impact of "Bohemian Rhapsody", Rolling Stone states: "Its influence cannot be overstated, practically inventing the music video seven years before MTV went on the air." The second single from the album, "You're My Best Friend", the second song composed by John Deacon, and his first single, peaked at number sixteen in the United States and went on to become a worldwide Top Ten hit. The band's A Night at the Opera Tour began in November 1975, and covered Europe, the United States, Japan, and Australia.
What Queen album was released in 1976?
57268918708984140094c931
A Day at the Races
49
False
What was the major hit from Queen's 1976 album?
57268918708984140094c932
Somebody to Love
667
False
Which heavy Queen song is a favorite at live shows?
57268918708984140094c933
Tie Your Mother Down
941
False
Which comedian invited Queen to visit him in 1977?
57268918708984140094c934
Groucho Marx
329
False
Which Queen members layered their voices on Somebody to Love?
57268918708984140094c935
Mercury, May, and Taylor
718
False
By 1976, Queen were back in the studio recording A Day at the Races, which is often regarded as a sequel album to A Night at the Opera. It again borrowed the name of a Marx Brothers movie, and its cover was similar to that of A Night at the Opera, a variation on the same Queen Crest. The most recognisable of the Marx Brothers, Groucho Marx, invited Queen to visit him in his Los Angeles home in March 1977; there the band thanked him in person, and performed "'39" a cappella. Musically, A Day at the Races was by both fans' and critics' standards a strong effort, reaching number one in the UK and Japan, and number five in the US. The major hit on the album was "Somebody to Love", a gospel-inspired song in which Mercury, May, and Taylor multi-tracked their voices to create a 100-voice gospel choir. The song went to number two in the UK, and number thirteen in the US. The album also featured one of the band's heaviest songs, May's "Tie Your Mother Down", which became a staple of their live shows.
Where did Queen host a free concert in 1976?
572689e65951b619008f7635
Hyde Park, London
75
False
Who organized a free concert by Queen in 1976?
572689e65951b619008f7636
Richard Branson
134
False
How many people helped Queen set a 1976 attendance record?
572689e65951b619008f7637
150,000
184
False
Which US venue did Queen sell out in 1977?
572689e65951b619008f7638
Madison Square Garden
545
False
Which British venue did Queen sell out in 1977?
572689e65951b619008f7639
Earls Court
595
False
During 1976, Queen played one of their most famous gigs, a free concert in Hyde Park, London. A concert organised by the entrepreneur Richard Branson, it set an attendance record with 150,000 people confirmed in the audience. On 1 December 1976, Queen were the intended guests on London's early evening Today programme, but they pulled out at the last-minute, which saw their late replacement on the show, EMI labelmate the Sex Pistols, give their seminal interview. During the A Day at the Races Tour in 1977, Queen performed sold-out shows at Madison Square Garden, New York, in February, and Earls Court, London, in June.
Queen's sixth album was released in what year?
57268c15f1498d1400e8e366
1977
64
False
How many times platinum did Queen's News of the World go?
57268c15f1498d1400e8e367
four
85
False
Queen's News of the World contained which two rock anthems?
57268c15f1498d1400e8e368
"We Will Rock You" and the rock ballad "We Are the Champions"
264
False
Queen's News of the World Tour took place in what year?
57268c15f1498d1400e8e369
1977
487
False
The band's sixth studio album News of the World was released in 1977, which has gone four times platinum in the United States, and twice in the UK. The album contained many songs tailor-made for live performance, including two of rock's most recognisable anthems, "We Will Rock You" and the rock ballad "We Are the Champions", both of which became enduring international sports anthems, and the latter reached number four in the US. Queen commenced the News of the World Tour in October 1977, and Robert Hilburn of the Los Angeles Times called this concert tour the band's "most spectacularly staged and finely honed show".
In what year did Queen release the album Jazz?
57268d1d5951b619008f7663
1978
3
False
What number did Queen's Jazz reach on UK charts?
57268d1d5951b619008f7664
two
54
False
What number did Queen's Jazz reach on the Billboard 200?
57268d1d5951b619008f7665
six
79
False
What were the two hit singles off of Queen's album Jazz?
57268d1d5951b619008f7666
"Fat Bottomed Girls" and "Bicycle Race"
150
False
Queen rented what venue for a music video in 1978?
57268d1d5951b619008f7667
Wimbledon Stadium
229
False
In 1978, the band released Jazz, which reached number two in the UK and number six on the Billboard 200 in the US. The album included the hit singles "Fat Bottomed Girls" and "Bicycle Race" on a double-sided record. Queen rented Wimbledon Stadium for a day to shoot the video, with 65 naked female models hired to stage a nude bicycle race. Reviews of the album in recent years have been more favourable. Another notable track from Jazz, "Don't Stop Me Now", provides another example of the band's exuberant vocal harmonies.
Who organized the Concert for the People of Kampuchea?
57268eb1dd62a815002e8976
Paul McCartney
898
False
In what year was Queen's Live Killers released?
57268eb1dd62a815002e8977
1979
148
False
How many times platinum did Queen's Live Killers go in the US?
57268eb1dd62a815002e8978
twice
171
False
Queen's Crazy Little Thing Called Love was an ode to which singer?
57268eb1dd62a815002e8979
Elvis Presley
317
False
In what year did Queen play the Concert for the People of Kampuchea?
57268eb1dd62a815002e897a
1979
756
False
In 1978, Queen toured the US and Canada, and spent much of 1979 touring in Europe and Japan. They released their first live album, Live Killers, in 1979; it went platinum twice in the US. Queen also released the very successful single "Crazy Little Thing Called Love", a rockabilly inspired song done in the style of Elvis Presley. The song made the top 10 in many countries, topped the Australian ARIA Charts for seven consecutive weeks, and was the band's first number one single in the United States where it topped the Billboard Hot 100 for four weeks. Having written the song on guitar and played rhythm on the record, Mercury played rhythm guitar while performing the song live, which was the first time he ever played guitar in concert. In December 1979, Queen played the opening night at the Concert for the People of Kampuchea in London, having accepted a request by the event's organiser Paul McCartney.
Queen performed several sold out shows at what US venue?
57269042dd62a815002e89c8
Madison Square Garden
997
False
Queen recorded the soundtrack to what show?
57269042dd62a815002e89c9
Flash Gordon
1086
False
What Queen song won the award for best Pop/Rock single?
57269042dd62a815002e89ca
Another One Bites the Dust
1147
False
Which musical artist suggested Queen release Another One Bites the Dust as a single?
57269042dd62a815002e89cb
Michael Jackson
229
False
Which Queen album kicked off the 1980s?
57269042dd62a815002e89cc
The Game
36
False
Queen began their 1980s career with The Game. It featured the singles "Crazy Little Thing Called Love" and "Another One Bites the Dust", both of which reached number one in the US. After attending a Queen concert in Los Angeles, Michael Jackson suggested to Mercury backstage that "Another One Bites the Dust" be released as a single, and in October 1980 it spent three weeks at number one. The album topped the Billboard 200 for five weeks, and sold over four million copies in the US. It was also the first appearance of a synthesiser on a Queen album. Heretofore, their albums featured a distinctive "No Synthesisers!" sleeve note. The note is widely assumed to reflect an anti-synth, pro-"hard"-rock stance by the band, but was later revealed by producer Roy Thomas Baker to be an attempt to clarify that those albums' multi-layered solos were created with guitars, not synths, as record company executives kept assuming at the time. In September 1980, Queen performed three sold-out shows at Madison Square Garden. In 1980, Queen also released the soundtrack they had recorded for Flash Gordon. At the 1981 American Music Awards in January, "Another One Bites the Dust" won the award for Favorite Pop/Rock Single, and Queen were nominated for Favorite Pop/Rock Band, Duo, or Group.
What band was the first major band to play in Latin American stadiums?
57269470dd62a815002e8a34
Queen
18
False
The Game Tour of the band Queen included how many shows in Argentina?
57269470dd62a815002e8a35
five
168
False
How large was Queen's record audience in Argentina?
57269470dd62a815002e8a36
300,000
285
False
What was the final track on Queen's The Game?
57269470dd62a815002e8a37
Save Me
916
False
What sold out venue did Queen play in Canada?
57269470dd62a815002e8a38
Montreal Forum
813
False
In February 1981, Queen travelled to South America as part of The Game Tour, and became the first major rock band to play in Latin American stadiums. The tour included five shows in Argentina, one of which drew the largest single concert crowd in Argentine history with an audience of 300,000 in Buenos Aires and two concerts at the Morumbi Stadium in São Paulo, Brazil, where they played to an audience of more than 131,000 people in the first night (then the largest paying audience for a single band anywhere in the world) and more than 120,000 people the following night. In October of the same year, Queen performed for more than 150,000 fans on 9 October at Monterrey (Estadio Universitario) and 17 and 18 at Puebla (Estadio Zaragoza), Mexico. On 24 and 25 November, Queen played two sell out nights at the Montreal Forum, Quebec, Canada. One of Mercury's most notable performances of The Game's final track, "Save Me", took place in Montreal, and the concert is recorded in the live album, Queen Rock Montreal.
What album did Queen release in 1982?
5726959d708984140094caeb
Hot Space
37
False
Where did Queen record their 1982 album?
5726959d708984140094caec
Munich
199
False
What was the name of Freddie Mercury's personal manager?
5726959d708984140094caed
Paul Prenter
379
False
Queen left what label before signing with EMI?
5726959d708984140094caee
Elektra Records
928
False
On which season of Saturday Night Live did Queen perform?
5726959d708984140094caef
the eighth season
866
False
In 1982, the band released the album Hot Space, a departure from their trademark seventies sound, this time being a mixture of rock, pop rock, dance, funk, and R&B. Most of the album was recorded in Munich during the most turbulent period in the band's history, and Taylor and May lamented the new sound, with both being very critical of the influence Mercury's personal manager Paul Prenter had on the singer. May was also scathing of Prenter, who was Mercury's manager from the early 1980s to 1984, for being dismissive of the importance of radio stations, such as the US networks, and their vital connection between the artist and the community, and for denying them access to Mercury. The band stopped touring North America after their Hot Space Tour, as their success there had waned, although they would perform on American television for the only time during the eighth season premiere of Saturday Night Live. Queen left Elektra Records, their label in the United States, Canada, Japan, Australia, and New Zealand, and signed onto EMI/Capitol Records.
Which Queen tour was the first to feature Spike Edney?
5726a117f1498d1400e8e554
Spike Edney
77
False
Queen's Spike Edney plays what instrument?
5726a117f1498d1400e8e555
keyboardist
65
False
Who fined Queen for donating to a school for the deaf and blind?
5726a117f1498d1400e8e556
British Musicians' Union
714
False
Where did Queen play during the height of Apartheid?
5726a117f1498d1400e8e557
South Africa
520
False
That year, Queen began The Works Tour, the first tour to feature keyboardist Spike Edney as an extra live musician. The tour featured nine sold-out dates in October in Bophuthatswana, South Africa, at the arena in Sun City. Upon returning to England, they were the subject of outrage, having played in South Africa during the height of apartheid and in violation of worldwide divestment efforts and a United Nations cultural boycott. The band responded to the critics by stating that they were playing music for fans in South Africa, and they also stressed that the concerts were played before integrated audiences. Queen donated to a school for the deaf and blind as a philanthropic gesture but were fined by the British Musicians' Union and placed on the United Nations' blacklisted artists.
What date was Live Aid?
5726a3bf5951b619008f78a3
13 July 1985
32
False
Where was Live Aid held?
5726a3bf5951b619008f78a4
Wembley
21
False
How big was Live Aid's TV audience?
5726a3bf5951b619008f78a5
1.9 billion
90
False
How long was Live Aid's stadium audience?
5726a3bf5951b619008f78a6
72,000
194
False
Who organized Live Aid?
5726a3bf5951b619008f78a7
Bob Geldof and Midge Ure
268
False
At Live Aid, held at Wembley on 13 July 1985, in front of the biggest-ever TV audience of 1.9 billion, Queen performed some of their greatest hits, during which the sold-out stadium audience of 72,000 people clapped, sang, and swayed in unison. The show's organisers, Bob Geldof and Midge Ure, other musicians such as Elton John, Cliff Richard and Dave Grohl, and music journalists writing for the BBC, CNN, Rolling Stone, MTV, The Telegraph among others, stated that Queen stole the show. An industry poll in 2005 ranked it the greatest rock performance of all time. Mercury's powerful, sustained note during the a cappella section came to be known as "The Note Heard Round the World".
The audience at Live Aid clapped to what Queen Song?
5726a882f1498d1400e8e662
Radio Ga Ga
121
False
Which magazine interviewed Brian May about Live Aid?
5726a882f1498d1400e8e663
Brian May
135
False
What medium helped Queen fans get used to their songs before Live Aid?
5726a882f1498d1400e8e664
(music) video
335
False
When interviewed for Mojo magazine the band said the most amazing sight at Live Aid was to see the audience clapping to "Radio Ga Ga". Brian May stated: "I'd never seen anything like that in my life and it wasn't calculated either. We understood our audience and played to them but that was one of those weird accidents because of the (music) video. I remember thinking 'oh great, they've picked it up' and then I thought 'this is not a Queen audience'. This is a general audience who've bought tickets before they even knew we were on the bill. And they all did it. How did they know? Nobody told them to do it."
What year was Queen's One Vision released?
5726ab3af1498d1400e8e69a
1985
150
False
How many band members wrote Queen's One Vision?
5726ab3af1498d1400e8e69b
four
292
False
What was the mid 1980s Queen boxed set called?
5726ab3af1498d1400e8e69c
The Complete Works
455
False
What was Queen's 1984 Christmas song called?
5726ab3af1498d1400e8e69d
Thank God It's Christmas
593
False
The band, now revitalised by the response to Live Aid – a "shot in the arm" Roger Taylor called it, — and the ensuing increase in record sales, ended 1985 by releasing the single "One Vision", which was the third time after "Stone Cold Crazy" and "Under Pressure (with David Bowie)" that all four bandmembers received a writing credit for the one song. Also, a limited-edition boxed set containing all Queen albums to date was released under the title of The Complete Works. The package included previously unreleased material, most notably Queen's non-album single of Christmas 1984, titled "Thank God It's Christmas".
Queen's final tour with Freddie Mercury was in what year?
5726ad72708984140094cda1
1986
13
False
What was the name of Queen's final tour with Freddie Mercury?
5726ad72708984140094cda2
A Kind of Magic
102
False
How many fans saw Queen in Knebworth park?
5726ad72708984140094cda3
120,000
579
False
How many fans saw Queen at the Nepstadion in Budapest?
5726ad72708984140094cda4
80,000
964
False
How many fans saw Queen at Slane castle?
5726ad72708984140094cda5
95,000
834
False
In summer of 1986, Queen went on their final tour with Freddie Mercury. A sold-out tour in support of A Kind of Magic, once again they hired Spike Edney, leading to him being dubbed the unofficial fifth member. The Magic Tour's highlight was at Wembley Stadium in London and resulted in the live double album, Queen at Wembley, released on CD and as a live concert DVD, which has gone five times platinum in the US and four times platinum in the UK. Queen could not book Wembley for a third night, but they did play at Knebworth Park. The show sold out within two hours and over 120,000 fans packed the park for what was Queen's final live performance with Mercury. Queen began the tour at the Råsunda Stadium in Stockholm, Sweden, and during the tour the band performed a concert at Slane Castle, Ireland, in front of an audience of 95,000, which broke the venue's attendance record. The band also played behind the Iron Curtain when they performed to a crowd of 80,000 at the Népstadion in Budapest, in what was one of the biggest rock concerts ever held in Eastern Europe. More than one million people saw Queen on the tour—400,000 in the United Kingdom alone, a record at the time.
Who did Freddie Mercury collaborate with in 1988?
5726af65f1498d1400e8e736
Montserrat Caballé, Barcelona
91
False
When did Queen release The Miracle?
5726af65f1498d1400e8e737
1989
156
False
Which Queen album had more shared writing credits?
5726af65f1498d1400e8e738
The Miracle
601
False
After working on various solo projects during 1988 (including Mercury's collaboration with Montserrat Caballé, Barcelona), the band released The Miracle in 1989. The album continued the direction of A Kind of Magic, using a pop-rock sound mixed with a few heavy numbers. It spawned the European hits "I Want It All", "Breakthru", "The Invisible Man", "Scandal", and "The Miracle". The Miracle also began a change in direction of Queen's songwriting philosophy. Since the band's beginning, nearly all songs had been written by and credited to a single member, with other members adding minimally. With The Miracle, the band's songwriting became more collaborative, and they vowed to credit the final product only to Queen as a group.
When did Queen end their contract with Capitol?
5726b11bf1498d1400e8e79a
1990
616
False
After leaving Capitol, who did Queen sign with?
5726b11bf1498d1400e8e79b
Disney's Hollywood Records
678
False
What year was Freddie Mercury's final public appearance with Queen?
5726b11bf1498d1400e8e79c
1990
616
False
Which Queen album was released in 1991?
5726b11bf1498d1400e8e79d
Innuendo
328
False
After fans noticed Mercury's increasingly gaunt appearance in 1988, rumours began to spread that Mercury was suffering from AIDS. Mercury flatly denied this, insisting he was merely "exhausted" and too busy to provide interviews. The band decided to continue making albums, starting with The Miracle in 1989 and continuing with Innuendo in 1991. Despite his deteriorating health, the lead singer continued to contribute. For the last two albums made while Mercury was still alive, the band credited all songs to Queen, rather than specific members of the group, freeing them of internal conflict and differences. In 1990, Queen ended their contract with Capitol and signed with Disney's Hollywood Records, which has since remained the group's music catalogue owner in the United States and Canada. That same year, Mercury made his final public appearance when he joined the rest of Queen to collect the Brit Award for Outstanding Contribution to British Music.
What was one single from Queen's Innuendo that charted in the UK?
5726b43c708984140094ce55
The Show Must Go On
109
False
What was the name of Queen's second greatest hits compilation?
5726b43c708984140094ce56
Greatest Hits II
785
False
Which Queen album is the eighth best-selling album in the UK of all time?
5726b43c708984140094ce57
Greatest Hits II
785
False
Which band member of Queen was seriously ill in 1991?
5726b43c708984140094ce58
Mercury
488
False
Queen's Greatest Hits II has sold how many copies worldwide?
5726b43c708984140094ce59
16 million
903
False
Innuendo was released in early 1991 with an eponymous number 1 UK hit and other charting singles including, "The Show Must Go On". Mercury was increasingly ill and could barely walk when the band recorded "The Show Must Go On" in 1990. Because of this, May had concerns about whether he was physically capable of singing it. Recalling Mercury's successful performance May states; "he went in and killed it, completely lacerated that vocal". The rest of the band were ready to record when Mercury felt able to come in to the studio, for an hour or two at a time. May says of Mercury: “He just kept saying. 'Write me more. Write me stuff. I want to just sing this and do it and when I am gone you can finish it off.’ He had no fear, really.” The band's second greatest hits compilation, Greatest Hits II, followed in October 1991, which is the eighth best-selling album of all time in the UK and has sold 16 million copies worldwide.
When was Freddie Mercury's deathbed confession made?
5726b593708984140094ce8f
23 November 1991
3
False
What disease did Freddie Mercury disclose he had?
5726b593708984140094ce90
AIDS
211
False
What did Freddie Mercury die of?
5726b593708984140094ce91
bronchial pneumonia, which was brought on as a complication of AIDS
148
False
Where was Freddie Mercury's funeral service held?
5726b593708984140094ce92
Kensal Green, West London
255
False
Which music video contains the last footage of Freddie Mercury?
5726b593708984140094ce93
These Are the Days of Our Lives
530
False
On 23 November 1991, in a prepared statement made on his deathbed, Mercury confirmed that he had AIDS. Within 24 hours of the statement, he died of bronchial pneumonia, which was brought on as a complication of AIDS. His funeral service on 27 November in Kensal Green, West London was private, and held in accordance with the Zoroastrian religious faith of his family. "Bohemian Rhapsody" was re-released as a single shortly after Mercury's death, with "These Are the Days of Our Lives" as the double A-side. The music video for "These Are the Days of Our Lives" contains Mercury's final scenes in front of the camera. The single went to number one in the UK, remaining there for five weeks – the only recording to top the Christmas chart twice and the only one to be number one in four different years (1975, 1976, 1991, and 1992). Initial proceeds from the single – approximately £1,000,000 – were donated to the Terrence Higgins Trust.
Which movie featured Queen's Bohemian Rhapsody?
5726b6f0708984140094ceb5
Wayne's World
113
False
What year did Queen get a boost in North American sales due to being featured in a movie?
5726b6f0708984140094ceb6
1992
218
False
In what year did Queen win an MTV award?
5726b6f0708984140094ceb7
1992
218
False
How high did the album Classic Queen chart on the Billboard 200?
5726b6f0708984140094ceb8
four
393
False
How many times platinum did Classic Queen go in the US?
5726b6f0708984140094ceb9
three times
437
False
Queen's popularity was stimulated in North America when "Bohemian Rhapsody" was featured in the 1992 comedy film Wayne's World. Its inclusion helped the song reach number two on the Billboard Hot 100 for five weeks in 1992 (it remained in the Hot 100 for over 40 weeks), and won the band an MTV Award at the 1992 MTV Video Music Awards. The compilation album Classic Queen also reached number four on the Billboard 200, and is certified three times platinum in the US. Wayne's World footage was used to make a new music video for "Bohemian Rhapsody", with which the band and management were delighted.
When was the Freddie Mercury Tribute Concert held?
5726b810708984140094cef7
20 April 1992
3
False
Where was the Freddie Mercury Tribute Concert held?
5726b810708984140094cef8
London's Wembley Stadium
66
False
How many people attended the Freddie Mercury Tribute Concert?
5726b810708984140094cef9
72,000
96
False
Which band was he largest benefit concert in history about?
5726b810708984140094cefa
Queen
326
False
How many viewers did the largest rock star benefit concert attract?
5726b810708984140094cefb
1.2 billion viewers worldwide
485
False
On 20 April 1992, The Freddie Mercury Tribute Concert was held at London's Wembley Stadium to a 72,000-strong crowd. Performers, including Def Leppard, Robert Plant, Guns N' Roses, Elton John, David Bowie, George Michael, Annie Lennox, Seal, Extreme, and Metallica performed various Queen songs along with the three remaining Queen members (and Spike Edney.) The concert is listed in the Guinness Book of Records as "The largest rock star benefit concert", as it was televised to over 1.2 billion viewers worldwide, and raised over £20,000,000 for AIDS charities.
What was Queen's final album featuring Mercury vocals compiled from earlier recordings called?
5726bb11708984140094cf7b
Made in Heaven
45
False
How many copies worldwide has Queen's 1995 album sold?
5726bb11708984140094cf7c
20 million
1066
False
In what year was a statue dedicated to Freddie Mercury unveiled in Montreux?
5726bb11708984140094cf7d
1996
1110
False
Where was Queen's studio located in Switzerland?
5726bb11708984140094cf7e
Montreux
954
False
Queen's last album featuring Mercury, titled Made in Heaven, was finally released in 1995, four years after his death. Featuring tracks such as "Too Much Love Will Kill You" and "Heaven for Everyone", it was constructed from Mercury's final recordings in 1991, material left over from their previous studio albums and re-worked material from May, Taylor, and Mercury's solo albums. The album also featured the song "Mother Love", the last vocal recording Mercury made prior to his death, which he completed using a drum machine, over which May, Taylor and Deacon later added the instrumental track. After completing the penultimate verse, Mercury had told the band he "wasn't feeling that great" and stated, "I will finish it when I come back, next time"; however, he never made it back into the studio, so May later recorded the final verse of the song. Both stages of recording, before and after Mercury's death, were completed at the band's studio in Montreux, Switzerland. The album reached No. 1 on the UK charts immediately following its release, and has sold 20 million copies worldwide. On 25 November 1996, a statue of Mercury was unveiled in Montreux overlooking Lake Geneva, almost five years to the day since his death.
In what year did Queen release No-One but You
5726bdbd5951b619008f7cbb
1997
3
False
Who was No-One but You dedicated to?
5726bdbd5951b619008f7cbc
Mercury
112
False
Which compilation did Queen release in 1997?
5726bdbd5951b619008f7cbd
Queen Rocks
193
False
Who performed live with Queen on The Show Must Go On in 1997?
5726bdbd5951b619008f7cbe
Elton John and the Béjart Ballet
305
False
Which Queen member retired in 1997?
5726bdbd5951b619008f7cbf
John Deacon
442
False
In 1997, Queen returned to the studio to record "No-One but You (Only the Good Die Young)", a song dedicated to Mercury and all those that die too soon. It was released as a bonus track on the Queen Rocks compilation album later that year. In January 1997, Queen performed "The Show Must Go On" live with Elton John and the Béjart Ballet in Paris on a night Mercury was remembered, and it marked the last performance and public appearance of John Deacon, who chose to retire. The Paris concert was only the second time Queen had played live since Mercury's death, prompting Elton John to urge them to perform again.
Which two members of Queen performed together at several charity concerts?
5726c029f1498d1400e8ea32
Brian May and Roger Taylor
0
False
Who performed with Brian May in 1998 at a benefit concert?
5726c029f1498d1400e8ea33
Pavarotti
342
False
Where did Queen play in 2003 with a famous opera singer?
5726c029f1498d1400e8ea34
Modena, Italy
512
False
Which artist provided vocals for the Queen song found on the soundtrack to A Knight's Tale?
5726c029f1498d1400e8ea35
Robbie Williams
638
False
Brian May and Roger Taylor performed together at several award ceremonies and charity concerts, sharing vocals with various guest singers. During this time, they were billed as Queen + followed by the guest singer's name. In 1998, the duo appeared at Luciano Pavarotti's benefit concert with May performing "Too Much Love Will Kill You" with Pavarotti, later playing "Radio Ga Ga", "We Will Rock You", and "We Are the Champions" with Zucchero. They again attended and performed at Pavarotti's benefit concert in Modena, Italy in May 2003. Several of the guest singers recorded new versions of Queen's hits under the Queen + name, such as Robbie Williams providing vocals for "We Are the Champions" for the soundtrack of A Knight's Tale (2001).
What year was Queen's third greatest hits album released?
5726c4905951b619008f7d9b
1999
3
False
Who performed a rap version of Another One Bites The Dust?
5726c4905951b619008f7d9c
Wyclef Jean
87
False
Alive version of Somebody to Love featured what artist?
5726c4905951b619008f7d9d
George Michael
190
False
Which artist guested on a live version of Queen's The Show Must Go On?
5726c4905951b619008f7d9e
Elton John
254
False
In 2003 Queen performed for what Nelson Mandela hosted benefit?
5726c4905951b619008f7d9f
the 46664 Concert
599
False
In 1999, a Greatest Hits III album was released. This featured, among others, "Queen + Wyclef Jean" on a rap version of "Another One Bites the Dust". A live version of "Somebody to Love" by George Michael and a live version of "The Show Must Go On" with Elton John were also featured in the album. By this point, Queen's vast amount of record sales made them the second best selling artist in the UK of all time, behind the Beatles. In 2002, Queen were awarded the 2,207th star on the Hollywood Walk of Fame, which is located at 6358 Hollywood Blvd. On 29 November 2003, May and Taylor performed at the 46664 Concert hosted by Nelson Mandela at Green Point Stadium, Cape Town, to raise awareness of the spread of HIV/AIDS in South Africa. May and Taylor spent time at Mandela's home, discussing how Africa's problems might be approached, and two years later the band was made ambassadors for the 46664 cause.
Paul Rodgers joined Queen in what year?
5726c667f1498d1400e8eaf0
2005
94
False
Paul Rodgers used to be the lead singer of what two bands?
5726c667f1498d1400e8eaf1
Free and Bad Company
152
False
Which retired Queen member did not join the reunion?
5726c667f1498d1400e8eaf2
John Deacon
313
False
In what year was Queen inducted in the UK Hall of Fame?
5726c667f1498d1400e8eaf3
2004
365
False
At the end of 2004, May and Taylor announced that they would reunite and return to touring in 2005 with Paul Rodgers (founder and former lead singer of Free and Bad Company). Brian May's website also stated that Rodgers would be "featured with" Queen as "Queen + Paul Rodgers", not replacing Mercury. The retired John Deacon would not be participating. In November 2004, Queen were among the inaugural inductees into the UK Music Hall of Fame, and the award ceremony was the first event at which Rodgers joined May and Taylor as vocalist.
Between what years did Queen and Paul Rodgers first embark on a world tour?
5726c910708984140094d15d
Between 2005 and 2006
0
False
Where was the first leg of Queen's mid 2000s tour with Paul Rodgers?
5726c910708984140094d15e
Europe
400
False
What is the name of Queen's drummer?
5726c910708984140094d15f
Roger Taylor
179
False
Where did Queen receive the inaugural VH1 Rock Honors?
5726c910708984140094d160
Mandalay Bay Events Center in Las Vegas
514
False
Between 2005 and 2006, Queen + Paul Rodgers embarked on a world tour, which was the first time Queen toured since their last tour with Freddie Mercury in 1986. The band's drummer Roger Taylor commented; "We never thought we would tour again, Paul [Rodgers] came along by chance and we seemed to have a chemistry. Paul is just such a great singer. He's not trying to be Freddie." The first leg was in Europe, the second in Japan, and the third in the US in 2006. Queen received the inaugural VH1 Rock Honors at the Mandalay Bay Events Center in Las Vegas, Nevada, on 25 May 2006. The Foo Fighters paid homage to the band in performing "Tie Your Mother Down" to open the ceremony before being joined on stage by May, Taylor, and Paul Rodgers, who played a selection of Queen hits.
Which band performed at Nelson Mandela's 90th birthday?
5726ca635951b619008f7e31
Queen + Paul Rodgers
433
False
When did Queen + Paul Rodgers release their debut album?
5726ca635951b619008f7e32
2008
569
False
What was the name of Queen + Paul Rodgers debut album?
5726ca635951b619008f7e33
The Cosmos Rocks
468
False
How many people were at the Queen + Paul Rodgers concert in 2008 in Kharkiv?
5726ca635951b619008f7e34
350,000
705
False
In 2008 what disease did Queen perform benefit concerts for?
5726ca635951b619008f7e35
HIV/AIDS
404
False
On 15 August 2006, Brian May confirmed through his website and fan club that Queen + Paul Rodgers would begin producing their first studio album beginning in October, to be recorded at a "secret location". Queen + Paul Rodgers performed at the Nelson Mandela 90th Birthday Tribute held in Hyde Park, London on 27 June 2008, to commemorate Mandela's ninetieth birthday, and again promote awareness of the HIV/AIDS pandemic. The first Queen + Paul Rodgers album, titled The Cosmos Rocks, was released in Europe on 12 September 2008 and in the United States on 28 October 2008. Following the release of the album, the band again went on a tour through Europe, opening on Kharkiv's Freedom Square in front of 350,000 Ukrainian fans. The Kharkiv concert was later released on DVD. The tour then moved to Russia, and the band performed two sold-out shows at the Moscow Arena. Having completed the first leg of its extensive European tour, which saw the band play 15 sold-out dates across nine countries, the UK leg of the tour sold out within 90 minutes of going on sale and included three London dates, the first of which was The O2 on 13 October. The last leg of the tour took place in South America, and included a sold-out concert at the Estadio José Amalfitani, Buenos Aires.
On 20 May 2009 which Queen members performed We are the Champions on American Idol?
5726cb6e708984140094d183
May and Taylor
16
False
What was the name of the Greatest Hits compilation Queen released after the split from Paul Rodgers?
5726cb6e708984140094d184
Absolute Greatest
308
False
Which two American idol contestants performed a duet with Queen on American Idol?
5726cb6e708984140094d185
winner Kris Allen and runner-up Adam Lambert
112
False
What day in 2009 was Queen's Absolute Greatest released?
5726cb6e708984140094d186
16 November
353
False
On 20 May 2009, May and Taylor performed "We Are the Champions" live on the season finale of American Idol with winner Kris Allen and runner-up Adam Lambert providing a vocal duet. In mid-2009, after the split of Queen + Paul Rodgers, the Queen online website announced a new greatest hits compilation named Absolute Greatest. The album was released on 16 November and peaked at number 3 in the official UK Chart. The album contains 20 of Queen's biggest hits spanning their entire career and was released in four different formats: single disc, double disc (with commentary), double disc with feature book, and a vinyl record. Prior to its release, a competition was run by Queen online to guess the track listing as a promotion for the album.
Which member of Queen wrote a letter to fans in 2009 regarding touring for 2010?
5726ccbedd62a815002e909a
May
20
False
What date did May and Taylor of Queen perform Bohemian Rhapsody on X-Factor?
5726ccbedd62a815002e909b
15 November 2009
966
False
In 2009, what was the first name of the former Queen member Brian May told fans he had a better understanding with?
5726ccbedd62a815002e909c
Roger
412
False
Which country had made an offer to Queen for a one off performance in 2010?
5726ccbedd62a815002e909d
USA
652
False
On 30 October 2009, May wrote a fanclub letter on his website stating that Queen had no intentions to tour in 2010 but that there was a possibility of a performance. He was quoted as saying, "The greatest debate, though, is always about when we will next play together as Queen. At the moment, in spite of the many rumours that are out there, we do not have plans to tour in 2010. The good news, though, is that Roger and I have a much closer mutual understanding these days—privately and professionally ... and all ideas are carefully considered. Music is never far away from us. As I write, there is an important one-off performance on offer, in the USA, and it remains to be decided whether we will take up this particular challenge. Every day, doors seem to open, and every day, we interact, perhaps more than ever before, with the world outside. It is a time of exciting transition in Rock music and in 'The Business'. It's good that the pulse still beats". On 15 November 2009, May and Taylor performed "Bohemian Rhapsody" live on the British TV show The X Factor alongside the finalists.
What record label did May and Taylor leave in 2010?
5726cda4f1498d1400e8eba8
EMI
84
False
What label did Queen join in August 2010?
5726cda4f1498d1400e8eba9
Universal Music
231
False
What program interviewed Queen on 22 September 2010?
5726cda4f1498d1400e8ebaa
Hardtalk
272
False
Island records is a subsidiary of what group?
5726cda4f1498d1400e8ebab
Universal Music Group
389
False
On 7 May 2010, May and Taylor announced that they were quitting their record label, EMI, after almost 40 years. On 20 August 2010, Queen's manager Jim Beach put out a Newsletter stating that the band had signed a new contract with Universal Music. During an interview for Hardtalk on the BBC on 22 September, May confirmed that the band's new deal was with Island Records, a subsidiary of Universal Music Group. For the first time since the late 1980s, Queen's catalogue will have the same distributor worldwide, as their current North American label—Hollywood Records—is currently distributed by Universal (for a time in the late 1980s, Queen was on EMI-owned Capitol Records in the US).
Which artist presented the Global Icon Award to Queen in 2011?
5726ce80708984140094d1e9
Katy Perry
676
False
Which artist performed with Queen at the 2011 MTV Europe Music Awards?
5726ce80708984140094d1ea
Adam Lambert
750
False
Where were the BMI awards held in 2011?
5726ce80708984140094d1eb
London
474
False
What band was worried Queen would steal their live performance bassist?
5726ce80708984140094d1ec
Jane's Addiction
13
False
In May 2011, Jane's Addiction vocalist Perry Farrell noted that Queen are currently scouting their once former and current live bassist Chris Chaney to join the band. Farrell stated: "I have to keep Chris away from Queen, who want him and they're not gonna get him unless we're not doing anything. Then they can have him." In the same month, Paul Rodgers stated he may tour with Queen again in the near future. At the 2011 Broadcast Music, Incorporated (BMI) Awards held in London on 4 October, Queen received the BMI Icon Award in recognition for their airplay success in the US. At the 2011 MTV Europe Music Awards on 6 November, Queen received the Global Icon Award, which Katy Perry presented to Brian May. Queen closed the awards ceremony, with Adam Lambert on vocals, performing "The Show Must Go On", "We Will Rock You" and "We Are the Champions". The collaboration garnered a positive response from both fans and critics, resulting in speculation about future projects together.
Which Queen members were appearing on American Idol in the late 2000s?
5726cff25951b619008f7ead
May and Taylor
20
False
Where was Queen's final concert with Freddie Mercury held in 1986?
5726cff25951b619008f7eae
Knebworth
449
False
Queen and Adam Lambert played two shows where in July 2012?
5726cff25951b619008f7eaf
Hammersmith Apollo, London
790
False
Elena Pinchuk has what kind of a foundation?
5726cff25951b619008f7eb0
ANTIAIDS Foundation
1067
False
Where did Queen perform with Adam Lambert on 3 July 2012?
5726cff25951b619008f7eb1
Moscow's Olympic Stadium
1140
False
On 25 and 26 April, May and Taylor appeared on the eleventh series of American Idol at the Nokia Theatre, Los Angeles, performing a Queen medley with the six finalists on the first show, and the following day performed "Somebody to Love" with the 'Queen Extravaganza' band. Queen were scheduled to headline Sonisphere at Knebworth on 7 July 2012 with Adam Lambert before the festival was cancelled. Queen's final concert with Freddie Mercury was in Knebworth in 1986. Brian May commented, "It's a worthy challenge for us, and I'm sure Adam would meet with Freddie's approval." Queen expressed disappointment at the cancellation and released a statement to the effect that they were looking to find another venue. It was later announced that Queen + Adam Lambert would play two shows at the Hammersmith Apollo, London on 11 and 12 July 2012. Both shows sold out within 24 hours of tickets going on open sale. A third London date was scheduled for 14 July. On 30 June, Queen + Lambert performed in Kiev, Ukraine at a joint concert with Elton John for the Elena Pinchuk ANTIAIDS Foundation. Queen also performed with Lambert on 3 July 2012 at Moscow's Olympic Stadium, and on 7 July 2012 at the Municipal Stadium in Wroclaw, Poland.
When did Queen + Adam Lambert perform at the iHeartRadio Music Festival?
5726d0f1dd62a815002e9120
20 September 2013
3
False
Where was the iHeartRadio Music Festival held in 2013?
5726d0f1dd62a815002e9121
MGM Grand Hotel & Casino in Las Vegas
94
False
On what show did Queen announce they would be touring with Adam Lambert?
5726d0f1dd62a815002e9122
Good Morning America
172
False
When was the first Queen tour with Adam Lambert scheduled?
5726d0f1dd62a815002e9123
Summer 2014
246
False
Who did Queen members say they were open to making a regular member of the band in 2014?
5726d0f1dd62a815002e9124
Lambert
419
False
On 20 September 2013, Queen + Adam Lambert performed at the iHeartRadio Music Festival at the MGM Grand Hotel & Casino in Las Vegas. On 6 March 2014, the band announced on Good Morning America that Queen + Adam Lambert will tour North America in Summer 2014. The band will also tour Australia and New Zealand in August/September 2014. In an interview with Rolling Stone, May and Taylor said that although the tour with Lambert is a limited thing, they are open to him becoming an official member, and cutting new material with him.
Which guitarist inspired Queen?
5726d28b708984140094d267
Jimi Hendrix
256
False
What gospel singer did Freddie Mercury cite as an inspiration?
5726d28b708984140094d268
Aretha Franklin
318
False
Queen's sound has been described as a mix of Led Zeppelin and what other band?
5726d28b708984140094d269
Yes
587
False
What nationality were the rock groups that influenced Queen?
5726d28b708984140094d26a
British
35
False
What band named after a floating vehicle influenced Queen?
5726d28b708984140094d26b
Led Zeppelin
122
False
Queen drew artistic influence from British rock acts of the 1960s and early 1970s, such as the Beatles, the Kinks, Cream, Led Zeppelin, Pink Floyd, the Who, Black Sabbath, Slade, Deep Purple, David Bowie, Genesis and Yes, in addition to American guitarist Jimi Hendrix, with Mercury also inspired by the gospel singer Aretha Franklin. May referred to the Beatles as being "our bible in the way they used the studio and they painted pictures and this wonderful instinctive use of harmonies." At their outset in the early 1970s, Queen's music has been characterised as "Led Zeppelin meets Yes" due to its combination of "acoustic/electric guitar extremes and fantasy-inspired multi-part song epics".
Which Queen song inspired audience clapping?
5726d368dd62a815002e9182
Radio Ga Ga
611
False
Which two Queen songs were written with audience participation in mind?
5726d368dd62a815002e9183
"We Will Rock You" and "We Are the Champions"
552
False
What kind of metal has Queen been associated with?
5726d368dd62a815002e9184
heavy metal
235
False
What 70s style of pop music was Queen associated with?
5726d368dd62a815002e9185
dance/disco
461
False
Queen composed music that drew inspiration from many different genres of music, often with a tongue-in-cheek attitude. The genres they have been associated with include progressive rock, symphonic rock, art rock, glam rock, hard rock, heavy metal, pop rock, and psychedelic rock. Queen also wrote songs that were inspired by diverse musical styles which are not typically associated with rock groups, such as opera, music hall, folk music, gospel, ragtime, and dance/disco. Several Queen songs were written with audience participation in mind, such as "We Will Rock You" and "We Are the Champions". Similarly, "Radio Ga Ga" became a live favourite because it would have "crowds clapping like they were at a Nuremberg rally".
What was the name of Brian May's signature guitar?
5726d45d708984140094d2a1
Red Special
80
False
What year was Brian May's signature guitar made?
5726d45d708984140094d2a2
1963
3
False
Which producer influenced Queen's feedback heavy sound?
5726d45d708984140094d2a3
Roy Thomas Baker
508
False
What engineer helped with Queen's feedback heavy sound?
5726d45d708984140094d2a4
Mike Stone
545
False
How many vocal overdubs are in Queen's Bohemian Rhapsody?
5726d45d708984140094d2a5
over 180
734
False
In 1963, the teenage Brian May and his father custom-built his signature guitar Red Special, which was purposely designed to feedback. Sonic experimentation figured heavily in Queen's songs. A distinctive characteristic of Queen's music are the vocal harmonies which are usually composed of the voices of May, Mercury, and Taylor best heard on the studio albums A Night at the Opera and A Day at the Races. Some of the ground work for the development of this sound can be attributed to their former producer Roy Thomas Baker, and their engineer Mike Stone. Besides vocal harmonies, Queen were also known for multi-tracking voices to imitate the sound of a large choir through overdubs. For instance, according to Brian May, there are over 180 vocal overdubs in "Bohemian Rhapsody". The band's vocal structures have been compared with the Beach Boys, but May stated they were not "much of an influence".
Which King of Pop was influenced by Queen?
5726d611708984140094d2dd
Michael Jackson
996
False
Several groups from which type of metal were influenced by Queen?
5726d611708984140094d2de
heavy metal
412
False
This band named after an animal was inspired by Queen?
5726d611708984140094d2df
Def Leppard
571
False
This band with a flower in their name was influenced by Queen?
5726d611708984140094d2e0
Guns N' Roses
556
False
Queen have been recognised as having made significant contributions to such genres as hard rock, and heavy metal, among others. Hence, the band have been cited as an influence by many other musicians. Moreover, like their music, the bands and artists that have claimed to be influenced by Queen and have expressed admiration for them are diverse, spanning different generations, countries, and genres, including heavy metal: Judas Priest, Iron Maiden, Metallica, Dream Theater, Trivium, Megadeth, Anthrax, Slipknot and Rage Against the Machine; hard rock: Guns N' Roses, Def Leppard, Van Halen, Mötley Crüe, Steve Vai, the Cult, the Darkness, Manic Street Preachers, Kid Rockand Foo Fighters; alternative rock: Nirvana, Radiohead, Trent Reznor, Muse, Franz Ferdinand, Red Hot Chili Peppers, Jane's Addiction, Faith No More, Melvins, the Flaming Lips, Yeah Yeah Yeahs and The Smashing Pumpkins; pop rock: Meat Loaf, The Killers, My Chemical Romance, Fall Out Boy and Panic! At the Disco; and pop: Michael Jackson, George Michael, Robbie Williams, Adele, Lady Gaga and Katy Perry.
What song was voted the UK's favorite hit of all time in 2002?
5726d732708984140094d307
Bohemian Rhapsody
18
False
What Queen song was inducted into the Grammy Hall of Fame in 2004?
5726d732708984140094d308
Bohemian Rhapsody
18
False
Which Queen video was credited with launching the MTV video age?
5726d732708984140094d309
Bohemian Rhapsody
18
False
A 2005 poll stated that which band's performance at Live Aid was the best ever?
5726d732708984140094d30a
Queen
9
False
In 2002, Queen's "Bohemian Rhapsody" was voted "the UK's favourite hit of all time" in a poll conducted by the Guinness World Records British Hit Singles Book. In 2004 the song was inducted into the Grammy Hall of Fame. Many scholars consider the "Bohemian Rhapsody" music video ground-breaking, and credit it with popularising the medium. Rock historian Paul Fowles states the song is "widely credited as the first global hit single for which an accompanying video was central to the marketing strategy". It has been hailed as launching the MTV age. Acclaimed for their stadium rock, in 2005 an industry poll ranked Queen's performance at Live Aid in 1985 as the best live act in history. In 2007, they were also voted the greatest British band in history by BBC Radio 2 listeners.
How many number one albums has Queen released?
5726d8c15951b619008f7fc9
eighteen
34
False
How many number one singles did Queen release?
5726d8c15951b619008f7fca
eighteen
62
False
How many number one DVD's has Queen released?
5726d8c15951b619008f7fcb
ten
95
False
How many albums has Queen sold worldwide?
5726d8c15951b619008f7fcc
over 150 million
201
False
When was Queen inducted into the Hall of Fame?
5726d8c15951b619008f7fcd
2001
391
False
The band have released a total of eighteen number one albums, eighteen number one singles, and ten number one DVDs worldwide, making them one of the world's best-selling music artists. Queen have sold over 150 million records, with some estimates in excess of 300 million records worldwide, including 34.5 million albums in the US as of 2004. Inducted into the Rock and Roll Hall of Fame in 2001, the band is the only group in which every member has composed more than one chart-topping single, and all four members were inducted into the Songwriters Hall of Fame in 2003. In 2009, "We Will Rock You" and "We Are the Champions" were inducted into the Grammy Hall of Fame, and the latter was voted the world's favourite song in a global music poll.
How many Queen bootleg sites were discovered in 2001?
5726da40f1498d1400e8ed30
12,225
160
False
Where did Queen rank on Rolling Stone's 100 Greatest Artists of All Time in 2001?
5726da40f1498d1400e8ed31
number 52
597
False
In 2010 VH1 ranked Queen at what number on their Greatest Artist of All Time List?
5726da40f1498d1400e8ed32
17th
850
False
What country is a popular site for Queen bootlegs because it is outlawed?
5726da40f1498d1400e8ed33
Iran
361
False
Queen are one of the most bootlegged bands ever, according to Nick Weymouth, who manages the band's official website. A 2001 survey discovered the existence of 12,225 websites dedicated to Queen bootlegs, the highest number for any band. Bootleg recordings have contributed to the band's popularity in certain countries where Western music is censored, such as Iran. In a project called Queen: The Top 100 Bootlegs, many of these have been made officially available to download for a nominal fee from Queen's website, with profits going to the Mercury Phoenix Trust. Rolling Stone ranked Queen at number 52 on its list of the "100 Greatest Artists of All Time", while ranking Mercury the 18th greatest singer, and May the twenty-sixth greatest guitarist. Queen were named 13th on VH1's 100 Greatest Artists of Hard Rock list, and in 2010 were ranked 17th on VH1's 100 Greatest Artists of All Time list. In 2012, Gigwise readers named Queen the best band of past 60 years.
When was Queen's London production scheduled to end in 2006?
5726db6af1498d1400e8ed74
Saturday, 7 October
57
False
Where was Queen's 2006 London production held?
5726db6af1498d1400e8ed75
Dominion Theatre
90
False
When did Queen's 2006 London production actually end?
5726db6af1498d1400e8ed76
May 2014
153
False
What is the longest running show at the Dominion Theatre?
5726db6af1498d1400e8ed77
We Will Rock You
163
False
What is the second longest show at the Dominion Theatre?
5726db6af1498d1400e8ed78
Grease
304
False
The original London production was scheduled to close on Saturday, 7 October 2006, at the Dominion Theatre, but due to public demand, the show ran until May 2014. We Will Rock You has become the longest running musical ever to run at this prime London theatre, overtaking the previous record holder, the Grease musical. Brian May stated in 2008 that they were considering writing a sequel to the musical. The musical toured around the UK in 2009, playing at Manchester Palace Theatre, Sunderland Empire, Birmingham Hippodrome, Bristol Hippodrome, and Edinburgh Playhouse.
Queen's Live at Wembley Stadium DVD covered what year?
5726dd46f1498d1400e8edce
1986
166
False
Queen on Fire included this 1982 concert?
5726dd46f1498d1400e8edcf
Milton Keynes
226
False
When was Queen's A Night at the Opera re-released?
5726dd46f1498d1400e8edd0
2005
675
False
When was the first Queen Bluray released?
5726dd46f1498d1400e8edd1
2007
760
False
Which band members were involved in the restoration of Queen's prior projects?
5726dd46f1498d1400e8edd2
May and Taylor
25
False
Under the supervision of May and Taylor, numerous restoration projects have been under way involving Queen's lengthy audio and video catalogue. DVD releases of their 1986 Wembley concert (titled Live at Wembley Stadium), 1982 Milton Keynes concert (Queen on Fire – Live at the Bowl), and two Greatest Video Hits (Volumes 1 and 2, spanning the 1970s and 1980s) have seen the band's music remixed into 5.1 and DTS surround sound. So far, only two of the band's albums, A Night at the Opera and The Game, have been fully remixed into high-resolution multichannel surround on DVD-Audio. A Night at the Opera was re-released with some revised 5.1 mixes and accompanying videos in 2005 for the 30th anniversary of the album's original release (CD+DVD-Video set). In 2007, a Blu-ray edition of Queen's previously released concerts, Queen Rock Montreal & Live Aid, was released, marking their first project in 1080p HD.
Which music video game featured a plethora of Queen songs?
5726ded9708984140094d429
Guitar Hero
47
False
Who collaborated with Freddie Mercury on the song Under Pressure?
5726ded9708984140094d42a
David Bowie
284
False
Which member of Queen discussed a possible Queen Rock Band video game?
5726ded9708984140094d42b
Brian May
481
False
What Heavy Metal band had a video game in which Queen was featured?
5726ded9708984140094d42c
Metallica
392
False
Queen have been featured multiple times in the Guitar Hero franchise: a cover of "Killer Queen" in the original Guitar Hero, "We Are The Champions", "Fat Bottomed Girls", and the Paul Rodgers collaboration "C-lebrity" in a track pack for Guitar Hero World Tour, "Under Pressure" with David Bowie in Guitar Hero 5, "I Want It All" in Guitar Hero: Van Halen, "Stone Cold Crazy" in Guitar Hero: Metallica, and "Bohemian Rhapsody" in Guitar Hero: Warriors of Rock. On 13 October 2009, Brian May revealed there was "talk" going on "behind the scenes" about a dedicated Queen Rock Band game.
Which 1980 movie contained song contributions from Queen?
5726dff0dd62a815002e938a
Flash Gordon
46
False
Which 1986 movie contained a Queen theme song?
5726dff0dd62a815002e938b
Highlander
103
False
In what year was Bohemian Rhapsody re-released in the US?
5726dff0dd62a815002e938c
1992
419
False
How high did the 1992 Bohemian Rhapsody chart?
5726dff0dd62a815002e938d
two
513
False
Queen contributed music directly to the films Flash Gordon (1980), with "Flash" as the theme song, and Highlander (the original 1986 film), with "A Kind of Magic", "One Year of Love", "Who Wants to Live Forever", "Hammer to Fall", and the theme "Princes of the Universe", which was also used as the theme of the Highlander TV series (1992–1998). In the United States, "Bohemian Rhapsody" was re-released as a single in 1992 after appearing in the comedy film Wayne's World. The single subsequently reached number two on the Billboard Hot 100 (with "The Show Must Go On" as the first track on the single) and helped rekindle the band's popularity in North America.
ho sang a version of Queen's Somebody to Love in 2004's Ella Enchanted?
5726e122f1498d1400e8ee7e
Anne Hathaway
103
False
Which actress recorded a Queen song for 2006's Happy Feet?
5726e122f1498d1400e8ee7f
Brittany Murphy
163
False
Which movie featured a cover of Queen's The Show Must Go On?
5726e122f1498d1400e8ee80
Moulin Rouge!
361
False
Which film had Robbie Williams performing a cover of Queen's We Are the Champions?
5726e122f1498d1400e8ee81
A Knight's Tale
390
False
Several films have featured their songs performed by other artists. A version of "Somebody to Love" by Anne Hathaway was in the 2004 film Ella Enchanted. In 2006, Brittany Murphy also recorded a cover of the same song for the 2006 film Happy Feet. In 2001, a version of "The Show Must Go On" was performed by Jim Broadbent and Nicole Kidman in the film musical Moulin Rouge!. The 2001 film A Knight's Tale has a version of "We Are the Champions" performed by Robbie Williams and Queen; the film also features "We Will Rock You" played by the medieval audience.
On what date in 2006 did May and Taylor of Queen appear on American Idol?
5726e259dd62a815002e93d6
11 April
3
False
What month and year was the season  finale of American Idol?
5726e259dd62a815002e93d7
May 2009
599
False
Who were the season 8 finalists on American Idol?
5726e259dd62a815002e93d8
Adam Lambert and Kris Allen
658
False
On what date did Queen's May and Taylor appear on UK X-factor?
5726e259dd62a815002e93d9
15 November 2009
690
False
On 11 April 2006, Brian May and Roger Taylor appeared on the American singing contest television show American Idol. Each contestant was required to sing a Queen song during that week of the competition. Songs which appeared on the show included "Bohemian Rhapsody", "Fat Bottomed Girls", "The Show Must Go On", "Who Wants to Live Forever", and "Innuendo". Brian May later criticised the show for editing specific scenes, one of which made the group's time with contestant Ace Young look negative, despite it being the opposite. Taylor and May again appeared on the American Idol season 8 finale in May 2009, performing "We Are the Champions" with finalists Adam Lambert and Kris Allen. On 15 November 2009, Brian May and Roger Taylor appeared on the singing contest television show X Factor in the UK.
Which Queen song was featured in the autumn of 2009 on Glee
5726e479708984140094d4f7
Somebody to Love
85
False
What Queen song did the Glee choir perform in June 2010?
5726e479708984140094d4f8
Another One Bites the Dust
276
False
What Queen song was performed on a May 2012 episode of Glee?
5726e479708984140094d4f9
We Are the Champions
529
False
What Queen song is featured on Glee's The Graduation Album?
5726e479708984140094d4fa
We Are the Champions
529
False
In the autumn of 2009, Glee featured the fictional high school's show choir singing "Somebody to Love" as their second act performance in the episode "The Rhodes Not Taken". The performance was included on the show's Volume 1 soundtrack CD. In June 2010, the choir performed "Another One Bites the Dust" in the episode "Funk". The following week's episode, "Journey to Regionals", features a rival choir performing "Bohemian Rhapsody" in its entirety. The song was featured on the episode's EP. In May 2012, the choir performed "We Are the Champions" in the episode "Nationals", and the song features in The Graduation Album.
Who was originally chosen to play Freddie Mercury in the movie bearing his name?
5726e5f3708984140094d525
Sacha Baron Cohen
63
False
Who was the replacement to play Freddie Mercury in the film of the same name?
5726e5f3708984140094d526
Ben Whishaw
388
False
Who is writing the Freddie Mercury film?
5726e5f3708984140094d527
Peter Morgan
554
False
Which actor is producing the Freddie Mercury film?
5726e5f3708984140094d528
Robert De Niro
689
False
In what year did Queen perform at Live Aid?
5726e5f3708984140094d529
1985
828
False
In September 2010, Brian May announced in a BBC interview that Sacha Baron Cohen was to play Mercury in a film of the same name. Time commented with approval on his singing ability and visual similarity to Mercury. However, in July 2013, Baron Cohen dropped out of the role due to "creative differences" between him and the surviving band members. In December 2013, it was announced that Ben Whishaw, best known for playing Q in the James Bond film Skyfall, had been chosen to replace Cohen in the role of Mercury. The motion picture is being written by Peter Morgan, who had been nominated for Oscars for his screenplays The Queen and Frost/Nixon. The film, which is being co-produced by Robert De Niro's TriBeCa Productions, will focus on Queen's formative years and the period leading up to the celebrated performance at the 1985 Live Aid concert.
Presbyterianism
Where can you trace back the origins of Presbyterianism back to?
572655b6f1498d1400e8dc58
British Isles
105
False
What does the Presbyterian church typically emphasize?
572655b6f1498d1400e8dc59
sovereignty of God
601
False
Which act created the kingdom of Great Britain?
572655b6f1498d1400e8dc5a
Great Britain
819
False
Protestantism
59
Presbyterianism is part of the unreformed tradition within what category of religion?
5acfba6d77cf76001a685acc
True
British Isles
105
To which Isles can the Civil War be traced?
5acfba6d77cf76001a685acd
True
Presbyterian theology
554
Which theology emphasizes the sovereignty of God but denies the authority of the scriptures?
5acfba6d77cf76001a685ace
True
Presbyterian
706
In 1807 The Acts of Union ensured which church government?
5acfba6d77cf76001a685acf
True
Scotland
752
In 1807 The Acts of Union ensured the Presbyterian church government in which country?
5acfba6d77cf76001a685ad0
True
Presbyterianism is a part of the Reformed tradition within Protestantism which traces its origins to the British Isles. Presbyterian churches derive their name from the presbyterian form of church government, which is governed by representative assemblies of elders. Many Reformed churches are organized this way, but the word "Presbyterian," when capitalized, is often applied uniquely to the churches that trace their roots to the Scottish and English churches that bore that name and English political groups that formed during the English Civil War. Presbyterian theology typically emphasizes the sovereignty of God, the authority of the Scriptures, and the necessity of grace through faith in Christ. Presbyterian church government was ensured in Scotland by the Acts of Union in 1707 which created the kingdom of Great Britain. In fact, most Presbyterians found in England can trace a Scottish connection, and the Presbyterian denomination was also taken to North America mostly by Scots and Scots-Irish immigrants. The Presbyterian denominations in Scotland hold to the theology of John Calvin and his immediate successors, although there are a range of theological views within contemporary Presbyterianism. Local congregations of churches which use presbyterian polity are governed by sessions made up of representatives of the congregation (elders); a conciliar approach which is found at other levels of decision-making (presbytery, synod and general assembly).
Where do most presbyterian churches trace their history back to?
57265787dd62a815002e8222
Scotland
207
False
When did the reformation during the roots of Presbyterianism take place?
57265787dd62a815002e8223
16th century
68
False
Which group did Presbyterian churches union with?
57265787dd62a815002e8224
Congregationalists, Lutherans, Anglicans, and Methodists
690
False
Presbyterianism
13
Where do the roots of the European Reformation lie?
5acfbb4977cf76001a685af8
True
European Reformation
40
Which Reformation took place during the 17th century?
5acfbb4977cf76001a685af9
True
Scotland
207
Most churches tracing back to which country are either Presbyterian or Methodist in government?
5acfbb4977cf76001a685afa
True
Scotch-Irish immigrants
801
Where do Presbyterians in Scotland mostly come from?
5acfbb4977cf76001a685afb
True
Plan of Union of 1801
962
When did the Yankee communities change to Congregational  communities due to what plan?
5acfbb4977cf76001a685afc
True
The roots of Presbyterianism lie in the European Reformation of the 16th century; the example of John Calvin's Geneva being particularly influential. Most Reformed churches which trace their history back to Scotland are either presbyterian or congregationalist in government. In the twentieth century, some Presbyterians played an important role in the ecumenical movement, including the World Council of Churches. Many Presbyterian denominations have found ways of working together with other Reformed denominations and Christians of other traditions, especially in the World Communion of Reformed Churches. Some Presbyterian churches have entered into unions with other churches, such as Congregationalists, Lutherans, Anglicans, and Methodists. Presbyterians in the United States came largely from Scotch-Irish immigrants communities, and also from New England Yankee communities that had originally been Congregational but changed because of an agreed-upon "Plan of Union of 1801" for frontier areas.
What other religion has history as being part of Presbyterian?
57265956f1498d1400e8dcca
Christianity
47
False
Which frenchman greatly influenced Presbyterianism?
57265956f1498d1400e8dccb
John Calvin
393
False
In what year did the parliament of Scotland adopt the Scots Confession?
57265956f1498d1400e8dccc
1560
688
False
Which book was touted for establishing regulations for church and government?
57265956f1498d1400e8dccd
First Book of Discipline
809
False
Presbyterian
0
Christianity is part of the history of which religion?
5acfbeeb77cf76001a685c22
True
Protestant Reformation
154
During which 17th century reformation did the beginning of Presbyterianism occur?
5acfbeeb77cf76001a685c23
True
England and Scotland
656
Other than Geneva, which countries can the Presbyterian church be traced back to?
5acfbeeb77cf76001a685c24
True
John Calvin
393
Which Englishman had a major influence in Presbyterianism?
5acfbeeb77cf76001a685c25
True
1560
688
In which year did the Parliament of England adopt the Scots Confession?
5acfbeeb77cf76001a685c26
True
Presbyterian history is part of the history of Christianity, but the beginning of Presbyterianism as a distinct movement occurred during the 16th-century Protestant Reformation. As the Catholic Church resisted the reformers, several different theological movements splintered from the Church and bore different denominations. Presbyterianism was especially influenced by the French theologian John Calvin, who is credited with the development of Reformed theology, and the work of John Knox, a Scotsman who studied with Calvin in Geneva, Switzerland and brought his teachings back to Scotland. The Presbyterian church traces its ancestry back primarily to England and Scotland. In August 1560 the Parliament of Scotland adopted the Scots Confession as the creed of the Scottish Kingdom. In December 1560, the First Book of Discipline was published, outlining important doctrinal issues but also establishing regulations for church government, including the creation of ten ecclesiastical districts with appointed superintendents which later became known as presbyteries.
What term described the method used to regulate common practice and or order?
57265bb95951b619008f707f
Book of Order
150
False
Which document is an important confessional document second only to the Bible?
57265bb95951b619008f7080
Westminster Confession of Faith
551
False
What other name is used when referring to the origins of the Presbyterian Church?
57265bb95951b619008f7081
Calvinism
252
False
church order
107
What is another term for institutional doctrine?
5acfbff877cf76001a685c6c
True
Book of Order
150
Which book to Muslims use to regulate common practice and order?
5acfbff877cf76001a685c6d
True
Calvinism
252
Where are the origins of Faith in?
5acfbff877cf76001a685c6e
True
Westminster Confession of Faith
551
Which document is even more important than the Bible, serving as an important confessional document?
5acfbff877cf76001a685c6f
True
doctrinal controversy
384
Some combinations have been due to what type of controversy?
5acfbff877cf76001a685c70
True
Presbyterians distinguish themselves from other denominations by doctrine, institutional organization (or "church order") and worship; often using a "Book of Order" to regulate common practice and order. The origins of the Presbyterian churches are in Calvinism. Many branches of Presbyterianism are remnants of previous splits from larger groups. Some of the splits have been due to doctrinal controversy, while some have been caused by disagreement concerning the degree to which those ordained to church office should be required to agree with the Westminster Confession of Faith, which historically serves as an important confessional document – second only to the Bible, yet directing particularities in the standardization and translation of the Bible – in Presbyterian churches.
What do Presbyterians put importance into?
57265eaf708984140094c3cd
education and lifelong learning
42
False
What do their studies consist of?
57265eaf708984140094c3ce
scriptures, theological writings, and understanding and interpretation of church doctrine
99
False
How do Presbyterians exhibit their faith?
57265eaf708984140094c3cf
by generosity, hospitality, as well as proclaiming the gospel of Christ.
533
False
education and lifelong learning
42
Other than subordinate standards, what else do Presbyterians consider important?
5acfc0ce77cf76001a685cb0
True
scriptures, theological writings, and understanding and interpretation of church doctrine
99
What do Presbyterians refuse to study?
5acfc0ce77cf76001a685cb1
True
learning
396
The point of what is to enable one to put education into practice?
5acfc0ce77cf76001a685cb2
True
generosity, hospitality, as well as proclaiming the gospel of Christ
536
How do Presbyterians show their theological writings?
5acfc0ce77cf76001a685cb3
True
Presbyterians place great importance upon education and lifelong learning. Continuous study of the scriptures, theological writings, and understanding and interpretation of church doctrine are embodied in several statements of faith and catechisms formally adopted by various branches of the church, often referred to as "subordinate standards". It is generally considered that the point of such learning is to enable one to put one's faith into practice; some Presbyterians generally exhibit their faith in action as well as words, by generosity, hospitality, as well as proclaiming the gospel of Christ.
What is the Presbyterian government known as?
5726608fdd62a815002e830e
councils (known as courts) of elders
30
False
What are the responsibilities of the elder pastors?
5726608fdd62a815002e830f
teaching, worship, and performing sacraments
305
False
When the congregation issues a call for service by a pastor, who has to ratify it?
5726608fdd62a815002e8310
local presbytery
492
False
Presbyterian
0
Councils of pastors govern in what religion?
5acfc16d77cf76001a685cea
True
individual congregations
373
Who calls ruling elders?
5acfc16d77cf76001a685ceb
True
Teaching and ruling elders
68
Who is ordained and convened in the highest council?
5acfc16d77cf76001a685cec
True
Pastors
351
Group congregations call who?
5acfc16d77cf76001a685ced
True
local presbytery.
492
The call for the elders service must be ratified by which entity?
5acfc16d77cf76001a685cee
True
Presbyterian government is by councils (known as courts) of elders. Teaching and ruling elders are ordained and convene in the lowest council known as a session or consistory responsible for the discipline, nurture, and mission of the local congregation. Teaching elders (pastors) have responsibility for teaching, worship, and performing sacraments. Pastors are called by individual congregations. A congregation issues a call for the pastor's service, but this call must be ratified by the local presbytery.
Who elects the ruling elders?
57266327f1498d1400e8dde4
the congregation
89
False
In very large congregations, what do the elders delegate?
57266327f1498d1400e8dde5
practicalities of buildings, finance, and temporal ministry
293
False
There's a group of officers in the congregation, what other names are they also known by?
57266327f1498d1400e8dde6
deacons
436
False
Ruling elders
0
The congregation consists of laymen elected by who?
5acfc23177cf76001a685d34
True
serve with the teaching elders
122
Ruling elders are elected by laymen and ordained to do what?
5acfc23177cf76001a685d35
True
practicalities of buildings, finance, and temporal ministry
293
Especially in small congregations, elders are known to delegate what?
5acfc23177cf76001a685d36
True
deacons
436
What is one way a distinct group of laymen is referred to?
5acfc23177cf76001a685d37
True
Ruling elders
0
Teaching elders are ordained to serve with who?
5acfc23177cf76001a685d38
True
Ruling elders are usually laymen (and laywomen in some denominations) who are elected by the congregation and ordained to serve with the teaching elders, assuming responsibility for nurture and leadership of the congregation. Often, especially in larger congregations, the elders delegate the practicalities of buildings, finance, and temporal ministry to the needy in the congregation to a distinct group of officers (sometimes called deacons, which are ordained in some denominations). This group may variously be known as a "Deacon Board", "Board of Deacons" "Diaconate", or "Deacons' Court". These are sometimes known as "presbyters" to the full congregation.
Which group from the Presbyterian church in rank is above sessions?
572664a15951b619008f716b
presbyteries
25
False
What responsibilities so Presbyterians have?
572664a15951b619008f716c
area responsibilities
50
False
What are the area of responsibilities made up of?
572664a15951b619008f716d
teaching elders and ruling elders
95
False
In the American and Ireland Presbyterian church, which step is generally skipped?
572664a15951b619008f716e
Synod
759
False
Which step was recently abolished by Scotland?
572664a15951b619008f716f
Synod
811
False
sessions
10
What exists above the presbyteries?
5acfc39777cf76001a685d96
True
teaching elders and ruling elders
95
The sessions are composed of which types of elders?
5acfc39777cf76001a685d97
True
the Synod
807
What has the Church of America abolished?
5acfc39777cf76001a685d98
True
Presbyterian Church in America and the Presbyterian Church in Ireland
587
Besides the Church of General Assembly, what others skip the Synod?
5acfc39777cf76001a685d99
True
General Assembly
277
Which assembly does the Church of Scotland send the elders to?
5acfc39777cf76001a685d9a
True
Above the sessions exist presbyteries, which have area responsibilities. These are composed of teaching elders and ruling elders from each of the constituent congregations. The presbytery sends representatives to a broader regional or national assembly, generally known as the General Assembly, although an intermediate level of a synod sometimes exists. This congregation / presbytery / synod / general assembly schema is based on the historical structure of the larger Presbyterian churches, such as the Church of Scotland or the Presbyterian Church (U.S.A.); some bodies, such as the Presbyterian Church in America and the Presbyterian Church in Ireland, skip one of the steps between congregation and General Assembly, and usually the step skipped is the Synod. The Church of Scotland has now abolished the Synod.[citation needed]
Presbyterianism is based on this type of tradition, what is it?
5726684cdd62a815002e83f6
confessional tradition
34
False
Confessional churches express this form of confession, what is it named?
5726684cdd62a815002e83f7
confessions of faith
167
False
What is not a sole matter individually in a confessional church?
5726684cdd62a815002e83f8
theology
309
False
How is theology carried out in a confessional church?
5726684cdd62a815002e83f9
by the community as a whole
495
False
confessions of faith
167
In which way do nonconfessional churches express their faith?
5acfc4d477cf76001a685dfa
True
theology
309
Which is solely an individual matter in confessional churches?
5acfc4d477cf76001a685dfb
True
confessional churches
286
In which type of churches is theology carried out by individuals?
5acfc4d477cf76001a685dfc
True
confessions
592
The individual understanding of theology is expressed during what?
5acfc4d477cf76001a685dfd
True
two
67
The fact that Presbyterianism is historically a theology has how many implications?
5acfc4d477cf76001a685dfe
True
Presbyterianism is historically a confessional tradition. This has two implications. The obvious one is that confessional churches express their faith in the form of "confessions of faith," which have some level of authoritative status. However this is based on a more subtle point: In confessional churches, theology is not solely an individual matter. While individuals are encouraged to understand Scripture, and may challenge the current institutional understanding, theology is carried out by the community as a whole. It is this community understanding of theology that is expressed in confessions.
What traditions do some Presbyterian churches only adopt as their doctrinal standard?
572669bc5951b619008f71eb
Westminster Confession of Faith
44
False
Many Presbyterian churches in America have adopted this doctrine as their standard, what is it?
572669bc5951b619008f71ec
Westminster Standards
333
False
The Presbyterian church in Canada has retains which Doctrine in its original form?
572669bc5951b619008f71ed
Westminster Confession of Faith
530
False
Westminster Confession of Faith
530
Which confession does the Presbyterian Church in America retain?
5acfc5a677cf76001a685e3e
True
historical period in which it was written
604
What should be understood when reading the Westminster Standards?
5acfc5a677cf76001a685e3f
True
Westminster Standards
333
South American Presbyterian denominations have adopted what type of standards?
5acfc5a677cf76001a685e40
True
Westminster Standards
333
The Bible is subordinate to which doctrine in Presbyterianism?
5acfc5a677cf76001a685e41
True
Westminster Confession of Faith
44
What are ruling elders required to subscribe?
5acfc5a677cf76001a685e42
True
Some Presbyterian traditions adopt only the Westminster Confession of Faith as the doctrinal standard to which teaching elders are required to subscribe, in contrast to the Larger and Shorter catechisms, which are approved for use in instruction. Many Presbyterian denominations, especially in North America, have adopted all of the Westminster Standards as their standard of doctrine which is subordinate to the Bible. These documents are Calvinistic in their doctrinal orientation. The Presbyterian Church in Canada retains the Westminster Confession of Faith in its original form, while admitting the historical period in which it was written should be understood when it is read.
To the church of Scotland, what is the sub standard doctrine?
57266bc7f1498d1400e8df3c
The Westminster Confession
0
False
Who was one person who did not fully believe the struggle of conscience?
57266bc7f1498d1400e8df3d
William Robertson Smith
408
False
The Free Church in Scotland  has something in place that only a few churches have implemented, what is it called?
57266bc7f1498d1400e8df3e
conscience clause
513
False
The Westminster Confession
0
What is the subordinate standard doctrine to the Word of God?
5acfc68477cf76001a685e98
True
William Robertson Smith
408
Who believed fully in the Word of God?
5acfc68477cf76001a685e99
True
Free Church of Scotland
474
Which is an example of a church that has such a conscience clause?
5acfc68477cf76001a685e9a
True
The Westminster Confession
0
Which is the principal standard of the Church of Faith?
5acfc68477cf76001a685e9b
True
The Westminster Confession is "The principal subordinate standard of the Church of Scotland" but "with due regard to liberty of opinion in points which do not enter into the substance of the Faith" (V). This formulation represents many years of struggle over the extent to which the confession reflects the Word of God and the struggle of conscience of those who came to believe it did not fully do so (e.g. William Robertson Smith). Some Presbyterian Churches, such as the Free Church of Scotland, have no such "conscience clause".
Which book has the Presbyterian church of America adopted?
57266d3b5951b619008f7259
Book of Confessions
49
False
The Book of Confessions reflects the inclusion of another confession, what is it called?
57266d3b5951b619008f725a
Westminster Standards
148
False
Which statements did these other documents include from the Westminster Standards?
57266d3b5951b619008f725b
the Nicene Creed, the Apostles' Creed
229
False
I what year was the The Theological Declaration of Barmen document created?
57266d3b5951b619008f725c
1967
466
False
Book of Confessions
49
Which book has the Theological Declaration of Barmen adopted?
5acfc71377cf76001a685ee0
True
Book of Confessions
49
Which book has the Heidelberg Catechism adopted?
5acfc71377cf76001a685ee1
True
Book of Confessions
49
Which book has the Apostles' Creed adopted?
5acfc71377cf76001a685ee2
True
Book of Confessions
49
Which book has the Nicene Creed adopted?
5acfc71377cf76001a685ee3
True
Book of Confessions
49
Which book has the Second Helvetic Confession adopted?
5acfc71377cf76001a685ee4
True
The Presbyterian Church (U.S.A.) has adopted the Book of Confessions, which reflects the inclusion of other Reformed confessions in addition to the Westminster Standards. These other documents include ancient creedal statements (the Nicene Creed, the Apostles' Creed), 16th-century Reformed confessions (the Scots Confession, the Heidelberg Catechism, the Second Helvetic Confession), and 20th century documents (The Theological Declaration of Barmen, Confession of 1967 and A Brief Statement of Faith).
The Presbyterian denominations from the British Isles were inspired by these principles in what document?
57266f6bf1498d1400e8df9e
Directory of Public Worship
147
False
When was the Directory of Public Worship developed?
57266f6bf1498d1400e8df9f
1640s
221
False
Which government enacted the Directory of Public Worship teachings into law?
57266f6bf1498d1400e8dfa0
Scottish Parliament
440
False
Presbyterian
0
Which denomination's heritage can be traced to Westminster Assembly?
5acfc87577cf76001a685f4a
True
Presbyterian
0
Which denomination's heritage can be traced to John Calvin?
5acfc87577cf76001a685f4b
True
Presbyterian
0
Which denomination's heritage can be traced to John Knox?
5acfc87577cf76001a685f4c
True
Directory of Public Worship
147
Which Directory was enacted into law by John Calvin?
5acfc87577cf76001a685f4d
True
Directory of Public Worship
147
Which Directory was enacted into law by Westminster Assembly?
5acfc87577cf76001a685f4e
True
Presbyterian denominations that trace their heritage to the British Isles usually organise their church services inspired by the principles in the Directory of Public Worship, developed by the Westminster Assembly in the 1640s. This directory documented Reformed worship practices and theology adopted and developed over the preceding century by British Puritans, initially guided by John Calvin and John Knox. It was enacted as law by the Scottish Parliament, and became one of the foundational documents of Presbyterian church legislation elsewhere.
What did many Presbyterian churches introduce as a result of modifying prescriptions?
572670e8dd62a815002e84f4
hymnody, instrumental accompaniment, and ceremonial vestments
98
False
What is favored by most American Presbyterian churches that is semi-formal service for the "lords Day"?
572670e8dd62a815002e84f5
hymns, preaching, and congregational participation
605
False
What do reformed Presbyterians practice?
572670e8dd62a815002e84f6
cappella exclusive psalmody
1198
False
introducing hymnody, instrumental accompaniment, and ceremonial vestments into worship
86
How did Holy Week churches modify the prescriptions?
5acfc98577cf76001a685fac
True
traditional holidays
789
Most Lord's Day churches observe which holidays?
5acfc98577cf76001a685fad
True
ancient liturgical prayers and responses
991
What do many Lutheran churches incorporate into communion services?
5acfc98577cf76001a685fae
True
daily, seasonal, and festival
1073
What type of lectionary do Anglicanism churches follow?
5acfc98577cf76001a685faf
True
Advent, Christmas, Ash Wednesday, Holy Week, Easter, Pentecost, etc.
833
Although Presbyterians do not observe holy seasons they do observe which holidays?
5acfc98577cf76001a685fb0
True
Over subsequent centuries, many Presbyterian churches modified these prescriptions by introducing hymnody, instrumental accompaniment, and ceremonial vestments into worship. However, there is not one fixed "Presbyterian" worship style. Although there are set services for the "Lord's Day", one can find a service to be evangelical and even revivalist in tone (especially in some conservative denominations), or strongly liturgical, approximating the practices of Lutheranism or Anglicanism (especially where Scottish tradition is esteemed),[clarification needed] or semi-formal, allowing for a balance of hymns, preaching, and congregational participation (favored by probably most American Presbyterians). Most Presbyterian churches follow the traditional liturgical year and observe the traditional holidays, holy seasons, such as Advent, Christmas, Ash Wednesday, Holy Week, Easter, Pentecost, etc. They also make use of the appropriate seasonal liturgical colors, etc. Many, incorporate ancient liturgical prayers and responses into the communion services and follow a daily, seasonal, and festival lectionary. Other Presbyterians, however, such as the Reformed Presbyterians, would practice a cappella exclusive psalmody, as well as eschew the celebration of holy days.
Among the emerging Protestant and Evangelical churches what are clergy moving away from?
5726728f708984140094c667
black Geneva gown
181
False
A Cassock and Surplice typically consisted of?
5726728f708984140094c668
full length Old English style surplice
285
False
Which movement was representative of the ecumenical past?
5726728f708984140094c669
Liturgical Renewal Movement
465
False
black Geneva gown
181
Clergy are moving away from the alb and toward what?
5acfca3f77cf76001a685fde
True
the alb and chasuble, but also cassock and surplice
220
Clergy are trending towards the black Geneva gown and away from what?
5acfca3f77cf76001a685fdf
True
surplice
263
What is typically full lengthy and Old Geneva in style?
5acfca3f77cf76001a685fe0
True
Protestant and evangelical churches
58
What were some Celtics involved in?
5acfca3f77cf76001a685fe1
True
Among the paleo-orthodox and emerging church movements in Protestant and evangelical churches, in which some Presbyterians are involved, clergy are moving away from the traditional black Geneva gown to such vestments as the alb and chasuble, but also cassock and surplice (typically a full length Old English style surplice which resembles the Celtic alb, an ungirdled liturgical tunic of the old Gallican Rite), which some, particularly those identifying with the Liturgical Renewal Movement, hold to be more ancient and representative of a more ecumenical past.
Presbyterians had to distinguished between "Church" and "Meeting house" What was "Church" referring too?
572674badd62a815002e858e
the members
85
False
What did "Meeting house" refer to?
572674badd62a815002e858f
building
137
False
What were churches called before the 19th century?
572674badd62a815002e8590
meeting house
107
False
Early churches were extremely plain, what did most churches not have in them?
572674badd62a815002e8591
No stained glass, no elaborate furnishings, and no images
512
False
meeting house
107
What was the building where the images met called?
5acfcb0777cf76001a686028
True
churches
260
What did Presbyterians call their churches during the early 19th century?
5acfcb0777cf76001a686029
True
meeting-houses (now called churches)
299
What did Presbyterians call buildings that were served to worship elaborate furnishings?
5acfcb0777cf76001a68602a
True
The pulpit
609
What was only inaccessible from the staircase?
5acfcb0777cf76001a68602b
True
The pulpit
609
What was the centerpiece of the Presbyterian?
5acfcb0777cf76001a68602c
True
Early Presbyterians were careful to distinguish between the "church," which referred the members, and the "meeting house," which was the building in which the church met. Until the late 19th century, very few Presbyterians ever referred to their buildings as "churches." Presbyterians believed that meeting-houses (now called churches) are buildings to support the worship of God. The decor in some instances was austere so as not to detract from worship. Early Presbyterian meeting-houses were extremely plain. No stained glass, no elaborate furnishings, and no images were to be found in the meeting-house. The pulpit, often raised so as only to be accessible by a staircase, was the centerpiece of the building.
What did Presbyterian churches have in them?
5726760c5951b619008f7345
communion table
151
False
What is the alter called in the Presbyterian church?
5726760c5951b619008f7346
communion table
579
False
What is the alter area refered to as in the Presbyterian church?
5726760c5951b619008f7347
Chancel
474
False
What is a decorated cross called in a Presbyterian church?
5726760c5951b619008f7348
Celtic cross
919
False
What did the Celtic Cross represent?
5726760c5951b619008f7349
the resurrection
665
False
saints
55
What do Presbyterian churches usually have statues of?
5acfcbe077cf76001a686066
True
ornate altar more typical of a Roman Catholic church
71
What type of altar does the Presbyterian church usually have?
5acfcbe077cf76001a686067
True
communion table
151
What is located on a different level than the congregation in a Presbyterian church?
5acfcbe077cf76001a686068
True
Chancel
273
In a Presbyterian church there may be a rail located between the choir and what?
5acfcbe077cf76001a686069
True
Chancel by Presbyterians
474
The altar area is called the communion table and the altar is called what?
5acfcbe077cf76001a68606a
True
Usually a Presbyterian church will not have statues of saints, nor the ornate altar more typical of a Roman Catholic church. Instead, one will find a "communion table," usually on the same level as the congregation. There may be a rail between the communion table and the "Chancel" behind it, which may contain a more decorative altar-type table, choir loft, or choir stalls, lectern and clergy area. The altar is called the communion table and the altar area is called the Chancel by Presbyterians. In a Presbyterian (Reformed Church) there may be an altar cross, either on the communion table or on a table in the chancel. By using the "empty" cross, or cross of the resurrection, Presbyterians emphasize the resurrection and that Christ is not continually dying, but died once and is alive for all eternity. Some Presbyterian church buildings are often decorated with a cross that has a circle around the center, or Celtic cross. This not only emphasized the resurrection, but also acknowledges historical aspects of Presbyterianism. A baptismal font will be located either at the entrance or near the chancel area. Presbyterian architecture generally makes significant use of symbolism. You may also find decorative and ornate stained glass windows depicting scenes from the bible. Some Presbyterian churches will also have ornate statues of Christ or Graven Scenes from the Last Supper located behind the Chancel. St. Giles Cathedral ( Church Of Scotland- The Mother Church of Presbyterians) does have a Crucifix next to one of the Pulpits that hangs alongside. The image of Christ is more of faint image and more modern design.
What year did John Knox past away?
57267878dd62a815002e862c
1572
16
False
What did John Knox do when he returned to Scotland after studying under Calvin?
57267878dd62a815002e862d
to reform the Church in line with Calvinist doctrines
128
False
The church of Scotland was organized by this person, whats his name?
57267878dd62a815002e862e
Andrew Melville
498
False
In what year was the Government of church reinstated?
57267878dd62a815002e862f
1660
1149
False
1572
16
John Knox was born in 1637 and died when?
5acfcce777cf76001a68608c
True
1505
11
John Knox died in 1505 and was born in what year?
5acfcce777cf76001a68608d
True
John Knox
0
Calvin spent time studying under who in Geneva?
5acfcce777cf76001a68608e
True
James
685
Who was the successor of Charles I and William Laud?
5acfcce777cf76001a68608f
True
William Laud
717
Who was the Archbishop of Scotland?
5acfcce777cf76001a686090
True
John Knox (1505–1572), a Scot who had spent time studying under Calvin in Geneva, returned to Scotland and urged his countrymen to reform the Church in line with Calvinist doctrines. After a period of religious convulsion and political conflict culminating in a victory for the Protestant party at the Siege of Leith the authority of the Church of Rome was abolished in favour of Reformation by the legislation of the Scottish Reformation Parliament in 1560. The Church was eventually organised by Andrew Melville along Presbyterian lines to become the national Church of Scotland. King James VI and I moved the Church of Scotland towards an episcopal form of government, and in 1637, James' successor, Charles I and William Laud, the Archbishop of Canterbury, attempted to force the Church of Scotland to use the Book of Common Prayer. What resulted was an armed insurrection, with many Scots signing the Solemn League and Covenant. The Covenanters would serve as the government of Scotland for nearly a decade, and would also send military support to the Parliamentarians during the English Civil War. Following the restoration of the monarchy in 1660, Charles II, despite the initial support that he received from the Covenanters, reinstated an episcopal form of government on the church.
In what year was the Church of Scotland recognized as a Presbyterian institution by the moncarh?
57267b2ef1498d1400e8e13e
1688
41
False
Which group was formed when ministries seceded from The Church of Scotland in 1733?
57267b2ef1498d1400e8e13f
Associate Presbytery
514
False
What year were most Presbyterians in Scotland reunited?
57267b2ef1498d1400e8e140
1929
787
False
Which two groups were involved in the reuniting of Scotland's Presbyterian churches?
57267b2ef1498d1400e8e141
Church of Scotland and the United Free Church of Scotland
817
False
Glorious Revolution
18
Which revolution took place during 1707?
5acfcecd77cf76001a68610a
True
1688
41
During which year was the England Revolution?
5acfcecd77cf76001a68610b
True
Acts of Union
230
Which Acts was signed in 1733?
5acfcecd77cf76001a68610c
True
1707
244
The Acts of Church was signed in which year?
5acfcecd77cf76001a68610d
True
Associate Presbytery
514
Which group formed in 1707 after ministers seceded from the Church of Scotland?
5acfcecd77cf76001a68610e
True
However, with the Glorious Revolution of 1688 the Church of Scotland was finally unequivocally recognised as a Presbyterian institution by the monarch due to Scottish Presbyterian support for the aforementioned revolution and the Acts of Union 1707 between Scotland and England guaranteed the Church of Scotland's form of government. However, legislation by the United Kingdom parliament allowing patronage led to splits in the Church. In 1733, a group of ministers seceded from the Church of Scotland to form the Associate Presbytery, another group seceded in 1761 to form the Relief Church and the Disruption of 1843 led to the formation of the Free Church of Scotland. Further splits took place, especially over theological issues, but most Presbyterians in Scotland were reunited by 1929 union of the established Church of Scotland and the United Free Church of Scotland.
In what year was the Presbyterianism church formed in England?
57267d4ef1498d1400e8e176
1592
57
False
Who was the first known Presbyterian in England?
57267d4ef1498d1400e8e177
Thomas Cartwright
63
False
Between what years were the ordinances enacted Presbyterianism as the polity of the Church of England?
57267d4ef1498d1400e8e178
1645 and 1648
352
False
In what year did Salter's Hall controversy, occur that would lead to a split?
57267d4ef1498d1400e8e179
1719
1031
False
When did the result in English Presbyterian congregations becomingUnitarian in doctrine?
57267d4ef1498d1400e8e17a
18th century
1350
False
1592
57
In which year was the Church of England established in secret?
5acfd0c777cf76001a686168
True
Presbyterianism
12
Which religion was established in secret in 1660?
5acfd0c777cf76001a686169
True
1592
57
In what year did Lancashire secretly establish Presbyterianism?
5acfd0c777cf76001a68616a
True
Cartwright
133
Who gave controversial lectures at Parliament University?
5acfd0c777cf76001a68616b
True
the monarchy
807
What was reestablished in 1719?
5acfd0c777cf76001a68616c
True
In England, Presbyterianism was established in secret in 1592. Thomas Cartwright is thought to be the first Presbyterian in England. Cartwright's controversial lectures at Cambridge University condemning the episcopal hierarchy of the Elizabethan Church led to his deprivation of his post by Archbishop John Whitgift and his emigration abroad. Between 1645 and 1648, a series of ordinances of the Long Parliament established Presbyterianism as the polity of the Church of England. Presbyterian government was established in London and Lancashire and in a few other places in England, although Presbyterian hostility to the execution of Charles I and the establishment of the republican Commonwealth of England meant that Parliament never enforced the Presbyterian system in England. The re-establishment of the monarchy in 1660 brought the return of Episcopal church government in England (and in Scotland for a short time); but the Presbyterian church in England continued in Non-Conformity, outside of the established church. In 1719 a major split, the Salter's Hall controversy, occurred; with the majority siding with nontrinitarian views. Thomas Bradbury published several sermons bearing on the controversy, and in 1719, "An answer to the reproaches cast on the dissenting ministers who subscribed their belief of the Eternal Trinity.". By the 18th century many English Presbyterian congregations had become Unitarian in doctrine.
When was the earliest Presbyterian churches founded by Scotland in England?
57267f185951b619008f74af
19th century
92
False
In what year during the Presbyterian movement in England was referred to as the "Disruption"?
57267f185951b619008f74b0
1843
146
False
Presbyterian Churches
16
What did Scottish Immigrants to Columba found in the 19th century?
5acfd2ec77cf76001a6861f8
True
Presbyterian Churches
16
What did Scottish Immigrants to England found in the 20th century?
5acfd2ec77cf76001a6861f9
True
19th century
92
Beginning in what century did English immigrants from Scotland found Presbyterian churches?
5acfd2ec77cf76001a6861fa
True
London City Presbyterian Church
655
What is the congregation that is located in the heart of Swallow Street called?
5acfd2ec77cf76001a6861fb
True
1876
266
In what year did the Presbyterian Church of England become the Church of Scotland?
5acfd2ec77cf76001a6861fc
True
A number of new Presbyterian Churches were founded by Scottish immigrants to England in the 19th century and later. Following the 'Disruption' in 1843 many of those linked to the Church of Scotland eventually joined what became the Presbyterian Church of England in 1876. Some, that is Crown Court (Covent Garden, London), St Andrew's (Stepney, London) and Swallow Street (London), did not join the English denomination, which is why there are Church of Scotland congregations in England such as those at Crown Court, and St Columba's, Pont Street (Knightsbridge) in London. There is also a congregation in the heart of London's financial district called London City Presbyterian Church that is also affiliated with Free Church of Scotland.
In what year did the Church of England and the Congregational Church in England  and Waled unite?
5726813e5951b619008f7503
1972
3
False
What are the two former Presbyterian congregations in England?
5726813e5951b619008f7504
St Columba's, Cambridge (founded in 1879), and St Columba's, Oxford
577
False
What was the name of the group that was created whenPresbyterian Church of England (PCofE) united with the Congregational Church in England and Wales were united?
5726813e5951b619008f7505
United Reformed Church
123
False
Congregational Church in England and Wales
68
What did the Presbyterian Church of England unite with in 1971?
5acfd3e077cf76001a68622a
True
United Reformed Church
123
The PCofE and the Stepney Meeting House combined to form what in 1972?
5acfd3e077cf76001a68622b
True
1879
613
In what year was Stepney Meeting House founded?
5acfd3e077cf76001a68622c
True
1972
3
The Church of Stepney and the Congergational Church in Lancashire united in what year?
5acfd3e077cf76001a68622d
True
In 1972, the Presbyterian Church of England (PCofE) united with the Congregational Church in England and Wales to form the United Reformed Church (URC). Among the congregations the PCofE brought to the URC were Tunley (Lancashire), Aston Tirrold (Oxfordshire) and John Knox Presbyterian Church, Stepney, London (now part of Stepney Meeting House URC) – these are among the sole survivors today of the English Presbyterian churches of the 17th century. The URC also has a presence in Scotland, mostly of former Congregationalist Churches. Two former Presbyterian congregations, St Columba's, Cambridge (founded in 1879), and St Columba's, Oxford (founded as a chaplaincy by the PCofE and the Church of Scotland in 1908 and as a congregation of the PCofE in 1929), continue as congregations of the URC and university chaplaincies of the Church of Scotland.
What is the largest Protestant denomination in Northern Ireland?
572682b0f1498d1400e8e22e
Presbyterianism
0
False
What is the largest denomination of the entire Ireland Island?
572682b0f1498d1400e8e22f
Anglican Church of Ireland
134
False
How many Scottie Presbyterians moved to the northern counties in Ireland?
572682b0f1498d1400e8e230
100,000
347
False
When was he Presbytery of Ulster formed?
572682b0f1498d1400e8e231
1642
526
False
Presbyterianism
0
Which religion is the second largest denomination in Northern Ireland?
5acfd57077cf76001a68625a
True
Presbyterianism
0
Which religion is the largest denomination on the island of Ireland?
5acfd57077cf76001a68625b
True
Presbyterianism
0
What did Ulster bring t o Scottish plantation settlers?
5acfd57077cf76001a68625c
True
100,000
347
How man Irish Presbyterians moved to northern Scotland?
5acfd57077cf76001a68625d
True
1690
464
In what year was the Battle of the Ulster?
5acfd57077cf76001a68625e
True
Presbyterianism is the largest Protestant denomination in Northern Ireland and the second largest on the island of Ireland (after the Anglican Church of Ireland),[citation needed] and was brought by Scottish plantation settlers to Ulster who had been strongly encouraged to emigrate by James VI of Scotland, later James I of England. An estimated 100,000 Scottish Presbyterians moved to the northern counties of Ireland between 1607 and the Battle of the Boyne in 1690.[citation needed] The Presbytery of Ulster was formed in 1642 separately from the established Anglican Church. Presbyterians, along with Roman Catholics in Ulster and the rest of Ireland, suffered under the discriminatory Penal Laws until they were revoked in the early 19th century. Presbyterianism is represented in Ireland by the Presbyterian Church in Ireland, the Free Presbyterian Church of Ulster, the Non-subscribing Presbyterian Church of Ireland, the Reformed Presbyterian Church of Ireland and the Evangelical Presbyterian Church.
When did Presbyterianism arrive in America?
572684a7dd62a815002e87f4
1703
64
False
In what city was the first Presbytery formed?
572684a7dd62a815002e87f5
Philadelphia
119
False
In what year would the original churches evolve into the Presbyterian Church in the United States of America?
572684a7dd62a815002e87f6
1789
300
False
What is the name of the largest denomination of the Presbyterian Church in America?
572684a7dd62a815002e87f7
the Presbyterian Church (U.S.A.)
354
False
1703
64
In which year did the Bible first arrive in Colonial America?
5acfd5f877cf76001a686276
True
1703
64
When did America arrive in Presbyterianism?
5acfd5f877cf76001a686277
True
1703
64
In what year was Philadelphia brought to Colonial America?
5acfd5f877cf76001a686278
True
1717
202
In what year was the presbytery joined by 3 more to form a synod?
5acfd5f877cf76001a686279
True
1789
300
In what year was the Presbyterian Church in Colonial America established?
5acfd5f877cf76001a68627a
True
Presbyterianism first officially arrived in Colonial America in 1703 with the establishment of the first Presbytery in Philadelphia. In time, the presbytery would be joined by two more to form a synod (1717) and would eventually evolve into the Presbyterian Church in the United States of America in 1789. The nation's largest Presbyterian denomination, the Presbyterian Church (U.S.A.) – PC (USA) – can trace their heritage back to the original PCUSA, as can the Presbyterian Church in America (PCA), the Orthodox Presbyterian Church (OPC), the Bible Presbyterian Church (BPC), the Cumberland Presbyterian Church (CPC), the Cumberland Presbyterian Church in America the Evangelical Presbyterian Church (EPC) and the Evangelical Covenant Order of Presbyterians (ECO).
What is the name of the first three listed reformed Presbyterian Church's in the United States?
57268696f1498d1400e8e2bc
Presbyterian Church of North America (RPCNA), the Associate Reformed Presbyterian Church (ARP), the Reformed Presbyterian Church in the United States (RPCUS)
68
False
What is the name of the Asian Presbyterian Church in the United States?
57268696f1498d1400e8e2bd
Korean American Presbyterian Church
463
False
What is the full name of this American Presbyterian church under this abbreviation (ARP)?
57268696f1498d1400e8e2be
Associate Reformed Presbyterian Church
118
False
United States
33
Where is the Reformed Hanover Church located?
5acfd7ea77cf76001a6862a6
True
Presbyterian
6
Which denomination is the Korean Associate Reformed Church in Hanover?
5acfd7ea77cf76001a6862a7
True
United States
444
Where is the Covenant Westminster Church located?
5acfd7ea77cf76001a6862a8
True
North America
536
Where is the Free Presbyterian Reformed Church located?
5acfd7ea77cf76001a6862a9
True
Other Presbyterian bodies in the United States include the Reformed Presbyterian Church of North America (RPCNA), the Associate Reformed Presbyterian Church (ARP), the Reformed Presbyterian Church in the United States (RPCUS), the Reformed Presbyterian Church General Assembly, the Reformed Presbyterian Church – Hanover Presbytery, the Covenant Presbyterian Church, the Presbyterian Reformed Church, the Westminster Presbyterian Church in the United States, the Korean American Presbyterian Church, and the Free Presbyterian Church of North America.
Around when did Presbyterian missionaries arrived in New Mexico?
57268793dd62a815002e884c
1800s
12
False
The established Presbyterian church in New Mexico provided an alternative to which religion?
57268793dd62a815002e884d
Catholicism
140
False
Who brought Catholicism into New Mexico?
57268793dd62a815002e884e
Spanish Conquistadors
190
False
late 1800s
7
In which century did New Mexican missionaries establish a presence in southern United States?
5acfd8c177cf76001a6862c0
True
modernize and make efforts at winning the converts back
532
When the Catholic church arrived, it caused the United States to do what?
5acfd8c177cf76001a6862c1
True
many
589
How many converts refused to return to the church?
5acfd8c177cf76001a6862c2
True
stalwart Presbyterians and Presbyterian churches
640
Which churches can no longer be found in the area?
5acfd8c177cf76001a6862c3
True
Spanish Conquistadors
190
Who brought Catholicism to the United States?
5acfd8c177cf76001a6862c4
True
In the late 1800s, Presbyterian missionaries established a presence in what is now northern New Mexico. This provided an alternative to the Catholicism, which was brought to the area by the Spanish Conquistadors and had remained unchanged. The area experienced a "mini" reformation, in that many converts were made to Presbyterianism, prompting persecution. In some cases, the converts left towns and villages to establish their own neighboring villages. The arrival of the United States to the area prompted the Catholic church to modernize and make efforts at winning the converts back, many of which did return. However, there are still stalwart Presbyterians and Presbyterian churches in the area.
What is the largest Presbyterian church denomination in Canada?
5726888bf1498d1400e8e310
Presbyterian Church in Canada
108
False
When was the Presbyterian Church in Canada formed?
5726888bf1498d1400e8e311
1875
149
False
In what year was the United Church of Canada formed?
5726888bf1498d1400e8e312
1925
198
False
1875
149
When was the Presbyterian Church in the US formed?
5acfd9a577cf76001a6862d4
True
Presbyterian Church in Canada
108
Which church formed with the merger of seven regional groups?
5acfd9a577cf76001a6862d5
True
Congregational Union of Canada
329
Aside from the Methodist Church, which other church in Canada combined to form the United Church of Protestants?
5acfd9a577cf76001a6862d6
True
Methodist Church
295
Aside from the Congregational Union of Canada, which other church combined to form the United Church of Protestants?
5acfd9a577cf76001a6862d7
True
1939
607
In what year did they discontinue use of the original name?
5acfd9a577cf76001a6862d8
True
In Canada, the largest Presbyterian denomination – and indeed the largest Protestant denomination – was the Presbyterian Church in Canada, formed in 1875 with the merger of four regional groups. In 1925, the United Church of Canada was formed by the majority of Presbyterians combining with the Methodist Church, Canada, and the Congregational Union of Canada. A sizable minority of Canadian Presbyterians, primarily in southern Ontario but also throughout the entire nation, withdrew, and reconstituted themselves as a non-concurring continuing Presbyterian body. They regained use of the original name in 1939.
What is the name of the largest Presbyterian church in Mexico?
572689745951b619008f762f
National Presbyterian Church in Mexico (Iglesia Nacional Presbiteriana de México)
39
False
How many members are in the National Presbyterian Church in Mexico?
572689745951b619008f7630
2,500,000
139
False
When was the Associate Reformed Presbyterian Church in Mexico formed?
572689745951b619008f7631
1875
315
False
National Presbyterian Church
39
Which is the smallest Presbyterian church in Mexico?
5acfda6577cf76001a6862ee
True
2,500,000
139
The National Presbyterian Church had 3000 members and how many congregations?
5acfda6577cf76001a6862ef
True
3000
176
The National Presbyterian Church had 2,500,000 congregations and how many members?
5acfda6577cf76001a6862f0
True
1875
315
In what year was the Associate Reformed National Church formed?
5acfda6577cf76001a6862f1
True
Mexico
71
Where is the smallest Presbyterian church located?
5acfda6577cf76001a6862f2
True
The biggest Presbyterian church is the National Presbyterian Church in Mexico (Iglesia Nacional Presbiteriana de México), which has around 2,500,000 members and associates and 3000 congregations, but there are other small denominations like the Associate Reformed Presbyterian Church in Mexico which was founded in 1875 by the Associate Reformed Church in North America. The Independent Presbyterian Church and the Presbyterian Reformed Church in Mexico, the National Conservative Presbyterian Church in Mexico are existing churches in the Reformed tradition.
How many members are in the Presbyterian Church of Brazil?
57268a7e708984140094c96b
1,011,300
99
False
As of 2011, how many members were in The Renewed Presbyterian Church in Brazil?
57268a7e708984140094c96c
131 000
344
False
When was Conservative Presbyterian Church formed?
57268a7e708984140094c96d
1940
424
False
What is the name of the Presbyterian church in Brazil with Dutch origins?
57268a7e708984140094c96e
The Evangelical Reformed Church in Brazil
867
False
Brazil
3
The Presbyterian Church of Brazil, with 350,000 members is located where?
5acfdb3577cf76001a68630a
True
131 000
344
As of 1940, how many members does the Renewed Presbyterian Church have?
5acfdb3577cf76001a68630b
True
1940
424
Having 350,000 presbyteries, the Conservative Presbyterian Church was founded in which year?
5acfdb3577cf76001a68630c
True
1903
667
In what year did pastor Pereira found the Bible Presbyterian Church USA?
5acfdb3577cf76001a68630d
True
4 000
785
How many members does the United Presbyterian Church in Korea have?
5acfdb3577cf76001a68630e
True
In Brazil, the Presbyterian Church of Brazil (Igreja Presbiteriana do Brasil) totals approximately 1,011,300 members; other Presbyterian churches (Independents, United, Conservatives, Renovated, etc.) in this nation have around 350,000 members. The Renewed Presbyterian Church in Brazil was influenced by the charismatic movement and has about 131 000 members as of 2011. The Conservative Presbyterian Church was founded in 1940 and has eight presbyteries. The Fundamentalist Presbyterian church in Brazil was influenced by Karl McIntosh and the Bible Presbyterian church USA and has around 1 800 members. The Independent Presbyterian Church in Brasil was founded in 1903 by pastor Pereira, has 500 congregations and 75 000 members. The United Presbyterian Church in Brazil has around 4 000 members. There are also ethnic Korean Presbyterian churches in the country. The Evangelical Reformed Church in Brazil has Dutch origin. The Reformed Churches in Brazil were recently founded by the Canadian Reformed Churches with the Reformed Church in the Netherlands (liberated).
Which  services to most African Presbyterian churches offer?
5726923fdd62a815002e89e4
social services, emergency relief, and the operation of mission hospitals
79
False
The Southminster Presbyterian Church in Pittsburg has partnerships with churches in which two countries?
5726923fdd62a815002e89e5
Malawi and Kenya
544
False
Which two missionaries help bring Presbyterian churches in the south eastern states?
5726923fdd62a815002e89e6
Mary Slessor and Hope Waddel
889
False
social services, emergency relief, and the operation of mission hospitals
79
Which services do most African Presbyterian churches refuse to offer?
5acfdbe277cf76001a686314
True
western Africa
598
Where is the unhealthy and weak Presbyterian Church of Nigeria located?
5acfdbe277cf76001a686315
True
social services, emergency relief, and the operation of mission hospitals
79
Which services do most Lackawana churches to offer?
5acfdbe277cf76001a686316
True
Mary Slessor and Hope Waddel
889
In the mid 19th century, which missionaries brought about the beginning of the church in these areas?
5acfdbe277cf76001a686317
True
African Presbyterian churches often incorporate diaconal ministries, including social services, emergency relief, and the operation of mission hospitals. A number of partnerships exist between presbyteries in Africa and the PC(USA), including specific connections with Lesotho, Malawi, South Africa, Ghana and Zambia. For example, the Lackawanna Presbytery, located in Northeastern Pennsylvania, has a partnership with a presbytery in Ghana. Also the Southminster Presbyterian Church, located near Pittsburgh, has partnerships with churches in Malawi and Kenya. The Presbyterian Church of Nigeria, western Africa is also healthy and strong in mostly the southern states of this nation, strong density in the south-eastern states of this country. Beginning from Cross River state, the nearby coastal states, Rivers state, Lagos state to Ebonyi and Abia States. The missionary expedition of Mary Slessor and Hope Waddel and their group in the mid 18th century in this coastal regions of the ten British colony has brought about the beginning and the flourishing of this church in these areas.
The Reformed Presbyterian Church in Malawi has a range of members between what amounts?
57269458dd62a815002e8a2e
17 000–20 000 members
69
False
Which church is affiliated with the Evangelical Presbyterian Church in Malawi?
57269458dd62a815002e8a2f
Church of Central Africa-Presbyterian
342
False
The Church of Central Africa-Presbyterian often offers what services?
57269458dd62a815002e8a30
education, health ministries as well as worship
472
False
150
47
The Reformed Presbyterian Church in Malawi has 17000-20000 congregations and how many members?
5acfdc6777cf76001a68631c
True
17 000–20 000
69
The Reformed Presbyterian Church in Malawi has 150 members and how many congregations?
5acfdc6777cf76001a68631d
True
RPCM
194
Who does the CCAP work with?
5acfdc6777cf76001a68631e
True
Malawi
36
Where is the Reformed Presbyterian Prayer House located?
5acfdc6777cf76001a68631f
True
Evangelical Presbyterian Church
200
Which church is an existing large church?
5acfdc6777cf76001a686320
True
The Reformed Presbyterian Church in Malawi has 150 congregations and 17 000–20 000 members. It was a mission of the Free Presbyterian church of Scotland. The Restored Reformed Church works with RPCM. Evangelical Presbyterian Church in Malawi is an existing small church. Part of the Presbyterian Church in Malawi and Zambia is known as CCAP, Church of Central Africa-Presbyterian. Often the churches there have one main congregation and a number of Prayer Houses develop. education, health ministries as well as worship and spiritual development are important.
Most of the churches in Korea carry the same name, what is it?
572695c9f1498d1400e8e47a
Presbyterian Church of Korea
107
False
What year did the second schism take place?
572695c9f1498d1400e8e47b
1953
519
False
What was the main reason for the latest schism?
572695c9f1498d1400e8e47c
whether the PCK should join the WCC
836
False
What year was the Chosun Seminary founded?
572695c9f1498d1400e8e47d
1947
645
False
In what year did the Korean church celebrate the 100th class?
572695c9f1498d1400e8e47e
2007
1356
False
theological orientation of the Chosun Seminary (later Hanshin University) founded in 1947 could not be tolerated
560
What caused the third schism to happen in 1953?
5acfdd0777cf76001a68633a
True
1947
645
In what year was Hanshin University, formerly known as Presbyterian Church of Korea, founded?
5acfdd0777cf76001a68633b
True
1947
645
In what year was Chosun Seminary, later known as United Presbyterian Assembly, founded?
5acfdd0777cf76001a68633c
True
1959
1050
In was year was the PCK divided into three denominations because of a controversy?
5acfdd0777cf76001a68633d
True
Pyung Yang Theological Seminary
1135
From where do all minor seminaries associated with each denomination claim heritage?
5acfdd0777cf76001a68633e
True
Most of the Korean Presbyterian denominations share the same name in Korean, 대한예수교장로회 (literally means the Presbyterian Church of Korea or PCK), tracing its roots to the United Presbyterian Assembly before its long history of disputes and schisms. The Presbyterian schism began with the controversy in relation to the Japanese shrine worship enforced during the Japanese colonial period and the establishment of a minor division (Koryu-pa, 고려파, later The Koshin Presbyterian Church in Korea, Koshin 고신) in 1952. And in 1953 the second schism happened when the theological orientation of the Chosun Seminary (later Hanshin University) founded in 1947 could not be tolerated in the PCK and another minor group (The Presbyterian Church in the Republic of Korea, Kijang, 기장) was separated. The last major schism had to do with the issue of whether the PCK should join the WCC. The controversy divided the PCK into two denominations, The Presbyterian Church of Korea (Tonghap, 통합) and The General Assembly of Presbyterian Church in Korea (Hapdong, 합동) in 1959. All major seminaries associated with each denomination claim heritage from the Pyung Yang Theological Seminary, therefore, not only Presbyterian University and Theological Seminary and Chongsin University which are related to PCK but also Hanshin University of PROK all celebrated the 100th class in 2007, 100 years from the first graduates of Pyung Yang Theological Seminary.
Korean Presbyterian missionaries being sent over seas are second in numbers to only which other country?
572696d45951b619008f7765
United States
179
False
What is the name of the largest Presbyterian missionary organization in Korea?
572696d45951b619008f7766
General Assembly of Presbyterian Churches of Korea
236
False
Which muslim country does Korea have a Presbyterian church in?
572696d45951b619008f7767
Saudi Arabia
588
False
Korean Presbyterian denominations
0
Who is the biggest missionary sender in the world after the US?
5acfdda177cf76001a68634c
True
United States
179
Korean Presbyterian denominations are the biggest missionary sender in the world after which country?
5acfdda177cf76001a68634d
True
Korea
281
Where is Hapdong General Assembly, the smallest Presbyterian missionary organization, located?
5acfdda177cf76001a68634e
True
"Hapdong" General Assembly of Presbyterian Churches
226
Korea is home to the smallest Presbyterian missionary organization, what is it called?
5acfdda177cf76001a68634f
True
Korean
384
Where are many United States-American Presbyterians located?
5acfdda177cf76001a686350
True
Korean Presbyterian denominations are active in evangelism and many of its missionaries are being sent overseas, being the second biggest missionary sender in the world after the United States. GSM, the missionary body of the "Hapdong" General Assembly of Presbyterian Churches of Korea, is the single largest Presbyterian missionary organization in Korea. In addition there are many Korean-American Presbyterians in the United States, either with their own church sites or sharing space in pre-existing churches as is the case in Australia, New Zealand and even Muslim countries such as Saudi Arabia with Korean immigration.
What is the name of the largest Presbyterian church in Taiwan?
572697f0708984140094cb39
The Presbyterian Church
0
False
How many members make up The Presbyterian Church denomination?
572697f0708984140094cb3a
238,372
107
False
Who was the first person to bring Presbyterianism into Taiwan?
572697f0708984140094cb3b
James Laidlaw Maxwell
217
False
In what era did The Presbyterian Church in Taiwan experience a large growth in members?
572697f0708984140094cb3c
era of Guomindang
753
False
2009
129
The PCT has 1,865 members as of what year?
5acfde3777cf76001a686356
True
Protestant
62
The PCT is the smallest denomination of what religion in Taiwan?
5acfde3777cf76001a686357
True
James Laidlaw Maxwell
217
Who established the first Presbyterian church in Tainan, in 2009?
5acfde3777cf76001a686358
True
1865
294
In what year did Lee Teng-hui establish the first Presbyterian church in Tainan?
5acfde3777cf76001a686359
True
Lee Teng-hui
906
Since 1988, who has served as the current ROC president?
5acfde3777cf76001a68635a
True
The Presbyterian Church in Taiwan (PCT) is by far the largest Protestant denomination in Taiwan, with some 238,372 members as of 2009 (including a majority of the island's aborigines). English Presbyterian missionary James Laidlaw Maxwell established the first Presbyterian church in Tainan in 1865. His colleague George Leslie Mackay, of the Canadian Presbyterian Mission, was active in Danshui and north Taiwan from 1872 to 1901; he founded the island's first university and hospital, and created a written script for Taiwanese Minnan. The English and Canadian missions joined together as the PCT in 1912. One of the few churches permitted to operate in Taiwan through the era of Japanese rule (1895–1945), the PCT experienced rapid growth during the era of Guomindang-imposed martial law (1949–1987), in part due to its support for democracy, human rights, and Taiwan independence. Former ROC president Lee Teng-hui (in office 1988–2000) is a Presbyterian.
What year was the largest Presbyterian denomination brought to Mizoram?
57269957f1498d1400e8e4b0
1894
169
False
Before Mizoram, what was the name of the group of  missionaries that  ventured into east india?
57269957f1498d1400e8e4b1
Welsh Presbyterians
197
False
Where did the Welsh Presbyterians build there first church?
57269957f1498d1400e8e4b2
Sohra
625
False
1894
169
During what year was the smallest the first Presbyterian church in Tainan
5acfded977cf76001a686368
True
1894
169
In what year was Presbyterianism brought to the region from India?
5acfded977cf76001a686369
True
Shillong
502
There is a weak presence of Presbyterians in which capital of Meghalaya?
5acfded977cf76001a68636a
True
Sohra
625
Where did the Welsh missionaries establish their first church in 1894?
5acfded977cf76001a68636b
True
Presbyterians
658
Who participated in mergers which created the Church of South Khasi Hills?
5acfded977cf76001a68636c
True
In the mainly Christian Indian state of Mizoram, the Presbyterian denomination is the largest denomination; it was brought to the region with missionaries from Wales in 1894. Prior to Mizoram, the Welsh Presbyterians (missionaries) started venturing into the north-east of India through the Khasi Hills (presently located within the state of Meghalaya in India) and established Presbyterian churches all over the Khasi Hills from the 1840s onwards. Hence there is a strong presence of Presbyterians in Shillong (the present capital of Meghalaya) and the areas adjoining it. The Welsh missionaries built their first church in Sohra (aka Cherrapunji) in 1846. Presbyterians participated in the mergers that resulted in the Church of North India and the Church of South India.Sohra
How many members make up the Presbyterian church in Australia?
57269a3bdd62a815002e8ad0
600,000
94
False
Which Australian church follows the traditions of Scotland Presbyterians?
57269a3bdd62a815002e8ad1
The Presbyterian Church of Eastern Australia
603
False
Most of the churches in Australia merged in which years?
57269a3bdd62a815002e8ad2
1859 and 1870, and in 1901
471
False
Australia
3
In what country is Presbyterianism the third largest denomination?
5acfdfc477cf76001a686372
True
600,000
94
According to the 1901 census, how many Australians claim to be Presbyterian?
5acfdfc477cf76001a686373
True
Presbyterian
129
In the 1901 census, 600,000 Australians claimed to be what?
5acfdfc477cf76001a686374
True
1859 and 1870, and in 1901
471
In which years did most of the state assemblies merge?
5acfdfc477cf76001a686375
True
600,000
94
According to the 1859 census, how many Australians claim to be Presbyterian?
5acfdfc477cf76001a686376
True
In Australia, Presbyterianism is the fourth largest denomination of Christianity, with nearly 600,000 Australians claiming to be Presbyterian in the 2006 Commonwealth Census. Presbyterian churches were founded in each colony, some with links to the Church of Scotland and others to the Free Church. There were also congregations originating from United Presbyterian Church of Scotland as well as a number founded by John Dunmore Lang. Most of these bodies merged between 1859 and 1870, and in 1901 formed a federal union called the Presbyterian Church of Australia but retaining their state assemblies. The Presbyterian Church of Eastern Australia representing the Free Church of Scotland tradition, and congregations in Victoria of the Reformed Presbyterian Church, originally from Ireland, are the other existing denominations dating from colonial times.
In what year did the Presbyterian Church of Australia , the Congregational Union of Australia , and all the Methodist Church of Australasia merge?
57269b73708984140094cb7d
1977
3
False
In what year was ordination of woman ministries recsinded?
57269b73708984140094cb7e
1991
428
False
The approval of women elders which was given in 1960 has been rescinded in all of the Australian states except one, which state did not?
57269b73708984140094cb7f
New South Wales
582
False
Congregational Union of Australia and all the Methodist Church of Australasia
84
In 1974, what combined with the Presbyterian Church of Australia to form the Uniting Church in Australia?
5acfe05d77cf76001a68637c
True
Congregational Union of Australia and all the Methodist Church of Australasia
84
The Presbyterian Church of Australia and New South Wales combined with what to form the Uniting Church in Australia?
5acfe05d77cf76001a68637d
True
1960s
536
In which decade was the approval of male elders given?
5acfe05d77cf76001a68637e
True
New South Wales
582
Which is the only state to have rescinded the approval of women elders?
5acfe05d77cf76001a68637f
True
New South Wales
582
Which state, the only to not have rescinded approval of women elders, has the smallest membership?
5acfe05d77cf76001a686380
True
In 1977, two thirds of the Presbyterian Church of Australia, along with most of the Congregational Union of Australia and all the Methodist Church of Australasia, combined to form the Uniting Church in Australia. The third who did not unite had various reasons for so acting, often cultural attachment but often conservative theological or social views. The permission for the ordination of women given in 1974 was rescinded in 1991 without affecting the two or three existing woman ministers. The approval of women elders given in the 1960s has been rescinded in all states except New South Wales, which has the largest membership. The theology of the church is now generally conservative and Reformed. A number of small Presbyterian denominations have arisen since the 1950s through migration or schism.
What is the name of the largest denomination of Presbyterian church in Vanuatu?
57269bf2708984140094cb9d
The Presbyterian Church in Vanuatu
0
False
From which country did the Presbyterian Church of Vanuatu originate from?
57269bf2708984140094cb9e
Scotland
210
False
What is the largest denomination church in Vanuatu?
57269d2bf1498d1400e8e4f2
The Presbyterian Church in Vanuatu
0
False
Missionaries from which country started The Presbyterian Church in Vanuatu?
57269d2bf1498d1400e8e4f3
Scotland
210
False
Which two towns have Presbyterian people, but no churches?
57269d2bf1498d1400e8e4f4
Penama and Torba
594
False
The Presbyterian Church
0
With nearly one third of the population of Vanuatu members of the church, which church is the smallest denomination?
5acfe0e577cf76001a686386
True
Presbyterian
423
The Province of Sanma is mainly Roman Catholic with what minority?
5acfe0e577cf76001a686387
True
Penama and Torba
594
There are some organized Presbyterian churches but not Presbyterian people where?
5acfe0e577cf76001a686388
True
Vanuatu
654
Which is the only country in the North Pacific with a large Presbyterian following?
5acfe0e577cf76001a686389
True
The PCV
760
Who is the Vanuatu Christian Council a founding member of?
5acfe0e577cf76001a68638a
True
The Presbyterian Church in Vanuatu is the largest denomination in the country, with approximately one-third of the population of Vanuatu members of the church. The PCV was taken to Vanuatu by missionaries from Scotland. The PCV (Presbyterian Church of Vanuatu) is headed by a moderator with offices in Port Vila. The PCV is particularly strong in the provinces of Tafea, Shefa, and Malampa. The Province of Sanma is mainly Presbyterian with a strong Roman Catholic minority in the Francophone areas of the province. There are some Presbyterian people, but no organised Presbyterian churches in Penama and Torba, both of which are traditionally Anglican. Vanuatu is the only country in the South Pacific with a significant Presbyterian heritage and membership. The PCV is a founding member of the Vanuatu Christian Council (VCC). The PCV runs many primary schools and Onesua secondary school. The church is strong in the rural villages.
Thuringia
What is the most common Christian denomination in Thuringia?
57265912dd62a815002e8252
Lutheranism
98
False
How much of the Thuringia population is non-religious?
57265912dd62a815002e8253
Today over two thirds of the population
229
False
Which church in the state has the largest amount of members?
57265912dd62a815002e8254
The Protestant Evangelical Church in Germany
287
False
How much of the Thuringia population are Catholic?
57265912dd62a815002e8255
7.8% of the population
469
False
How many Jews live in Thuringia?
57265912dd62a815002e8256
750 Jews
1157
False
Lutheranism
98
What is the least common Secular denomination in Thuringia?
5a7ccaf7e8bc7e001a9e202d
True
two thirds of the population
240
How much of the Thuringia population is gone?
5a7ccaf7e8bc7e001a9e202e
True
The Protestant Evangelical Church in Germany
287
Which church in the state has the smallest amount of members?
5a7ccaf7e8bc7e001a9e202f
True
7.8% of the population
469
How much of the Thuringia population reject Catholics?
5a7ccaf7e8bc7e001a9e2030
True
750
1157
How many Jews moved out of Thuringia?
5a7ccaf7e8bc7e001a9e2031
True
Since the Protestant Reformation, the most prominent Christian denomination in Thuringia has been Lutheranism. During the GDR period, church membership was discouraged and has continued shrinking since the reunification in 1990. Today over two thirds of the population is non-religious. The Protestant Evangelical Church in Germany has had the largest number of members in the state, adhered to by 24.0% of the population in 2009. Members of the Catholic Church formed 7.8% of the population, while 68.2% of Thuringians were non-religious or adhere to other faiths. The highest Protestant concentrations are in the small villages of southern and western Thuringia, whereas the bigger cities are even more non-religious (up to 88% in Gera). Catholic regions are the Eichsfeld in the northwest and parts of the Rhön Mountains around Geisa in the southwest. Protestant church membership is shrinking rapidly, whereas the Catholic Church is somewhat more stable because of Catholic migration from Poland, Southern Europe and West Germany. Other religions play no significant role in Thuringia. There are only a few thousand Muslims (largely migrants) and about 750 Jews (mostly migrants from Russia) living in Thuringia. Furthermore, there are some Orthodox communities of Eastern European migrants and some traditional Protestant Free churches in Thuringia without any societal influence.
Where does the name Thuringia come from?
5726599df1498d1400e8dcda
the Germanic tribe Thuringii
45
False
When did Thuringii emerge?
5726599df1498d1400e8dcdb
the Migration Period
94
False
Who are the theoretical allies of the Thuringians?
5726599df1498d1400e8dcdc
the Huns
320
False
When were the thuringii first mentioned?
5726599df1498d1400e8dcdd
around 400
479
False
Thuringia or Thüringen
9
What name is derived from the Russian tribe Thuringii?
5a7cbc02e8bc7e001a9e1f81
True
the Migration Period
94
When did Thuringii disappear?
5a7cbc02e8bc7e001a9e1f82
True
the Huns
320
Who are the theoretical enemies of the Thuringians?
5a7cbc02e8bc7e001a9e1f83
True
around 400
479
When were the Thuringii last mentioned?
5a7cbc02e8bc7e001a9e1f84
True
the Hermunduri
207
What did a new theory claim that they were successors of?
5a7cbc02e8bc7e001a9e1f85
True
The name Thuringia or Thüringen derives from the Germanic tribe Thuringii, who emerged during the Migration Period. Their origin is not completely known. An older theory claimed that they were successors of the Hermunduri, but later research rejected the idea. Other historians argue that the Thuringians were allies of the Huns, came to central Europe together with them, and lived before in what is Galicia today. Publius Flavius Vegetius Renatus first mentioned the Thuringii around 400; during that period, the Thuringii were famous for their excellent horses.
How long did the Thuringian realm exist?
57265a725951b619008f7061
until 531 and later
29
False
Which state was the largest in the region?
57265a725951b619008f7062
the Landgraviate of Thuringia
50
False
Where is Thuringia located?
57265a725951b619008f7063
the region between the Harz mountains in the north, the Weiße Elster river in the east, the Franconian Forest in the south and the Werra river in the west.
239
False
Which dynasty formed after the Treaty of Leipzig?
57265a725951b619008f7064
the Ernestine Wettins
461
False
Which Prussian territories joined Thuringia in 1945?
57265a725951b619008f7065
Prussian territories around Erfurt, Mühlhausen and Nordhausen
608
False
until 531 and later
29
How long did the Thuringian realm decay?
5a7cbcd1e8bc7e001a9e1f8b
True
the Landgraviate of Thuringia
50
Which state was the most dangerous in the region?
5a7cbcd1e8bc7e001a9e1f8c
True
the Ernestine Wettins
461
Which dynasty formed before the Treaty of Leipzig?
5a7cbcd1e8bc7e001a9e1f8d
True
territories around Erfurt, Mühlhausen and Nordhausen
617
Which Prussian territories joined Thuringia in 1942?
5a7cbcd1e8bc7e001a9e1f8e
True
the region between the Harz mountains in the north, the Weiße Elster river in the east, the Franconian Forest in the south and the Werra river in the west
239
Where is Thuringia formerly located?
5a7cbcd1e8bc7e001a9e1f8f
True
The Thuringian Realm existed until 531 and later, the Landgraviate of Thuringia was the largest state in the region, persisting between 1131 and 1247. Afterwards there was no state named Thuringia, nevertheless the term commonly described the region between the Harz mountains in the north, the Weiße Elster river in the east, the Franconian Forest in the south and the Werra river in the west. After the Treaty of Leipzig, Thuringia had its own dynasty again, the Ernestine Wettins. Their various lands formed the Free State of Thuringia, founded in 1920, together with some other small principalities. The Prussian territories around Erfurt, Mühlhausen and Nordhausen joined Thuringia in 1945.
When did Thuringia become a landgraviate?
57265b4bf1498d1400e8dd0c
in 1130 AD
32
False
Which years were the War of the Thuringian Succession fought?
57265b4bf1498d1400e8dd0d
1247–1264
173
False
When did the western half of the state become Hesse?
57265b4bf1498d1400e8dd0e
1247
126
False
Where was the Wettin dynasty from?
57265b4bf1498d1400e8dd0f
Margraviate of Meissen
379
False
Who did the Saxon Duchies consist of?
57265b4bf1498d1400e8dd10
the states of Saxe-Weimar, Saxe-Eisenach, Saxe-Jena, Saxe-Meiningen, Saxe-Altenburg, Saxe-Coburg, and Saxe-Gotha
783
False
1130 AD
35
When did Thuringia lose status as a landgraviate?
5a7cbd54e8bc7e001a9e1f95
True
1247–1264
173
Which years were the War of the Thuringian Succession in peace?
5a7cbd54e8bc7e001a9e1f96
True
1247
126
When did the eastern half of the state become Hesse?
5a7cbd54e8bc7e001a9e1f97
True
Margraviate of Meissen
379
Where was the Wettin dynasty forbidden?
5a7cbd54e8bc7e001a9e1f98
True
the states of Saxe-Weimar, Saxe-Eisenach, Saxe-Jena, Saxe-Meiningen, Saxe-Altenburg, Saxe-Coburg, and Saxe-Gotha
783
Who did the Saxon Duchies imprison?
5a7cbd54e8bc7e001a9e1f99
True
Thuringia became a landgraviate in 1130 AD. After the extinction of the reigning Ludowingian line of counts and landgraves in 1247 and the War of the Thuringian Succession (1247–1264), the western half became independent under the name of "Hesse", never to become a part of Thuringia again. Most of the remaining Thuringia came under the rule of the Wettin dynasty of the nearby Margraviate of Meissen, the nucleus of the later Electorate and Kingdom of Saxony. With the division of the house of Wettin in 1485, Thuringia went to the senior Ernestine branch of the family, which subsequently subdivided the area into a number of smaller states, according to the Saxon tradition of dividing inheritance amongst male heirs. These were the "Saxon duchies", consisting, among others, of the states of Saxe-Weimar, Saxe-Eisenach, Saxe-Jena, Saxe-Meiningen, Saxe-Altenburg, Saxe-Coburg, and Saxe-Gotha; Thuringia became merely a geographical concept.
When did Roman Catholicism become suppressed?
57265c815951b619008f7097
as early as 1520
94
False
What happened to loyal Roman Catholicism priests?
57265c815951b619008f7098
were driven away
162
False
When were most churches and monasteries destroyed?
57265c815951b619008f7099
during the German Peasants' War of 1525
243
False
Who was Thomas Muntzer?
57265c815951b619008f709a
a leader of some non-peaceful groups
367
False
Which Thuringian district did the Roman Catholic faith survive in?
57265c815951b619008f709b
the Eichsfeld district
524
False
as early as 1520
94
When did Roman Catholicism become more popular?
5a7cbdfbe8bc7e001a9e1f9f
True
were driven away
162
What happened to black Roman Catholicism priests?
5a7cbdfbe8bc7e001a9e1fa0
True
during the German Peasants' War of 1525
243
When were most churches and monasteries protected?
5a7cbdfbe8bc7e001a9e1fa1
True
a leader of some non-peaceful groups
367
Who was Thomas Muntzer never able to become?
5a7cbdfbe8bc7e001a9e1fa2
True
the Eichsfeld district
524
Which Thuringian district did the Roman Catholic faith die in?
5a7cbdfbe8bc7e001a9e1fa3
True
Thuringia generally accepted the Protestant Reformation, and Roman Catholicism was suppressed as early as 1520[citation needed]; priests who remained loyal to it were driven away and churches and monasteries were largely destroyed, especially during the German Peasants' War of 1525. In Mühlhausen and elsewhere, the Anabaptists found many adherents. Thomas Müntzer, a leader of some non-peaceful groups of this sect, was active in this city. Within the borders of modern Thuringia the Roman Catholic faith only survived in the Eichsfeld district, which was ruled by the Archbishop of Mainz, and to a small degree in Erfurt and its immediate vicinity.
When was the German Mediatisation?
57265d84dd62a815002e82c8
1795 to 1814
87
False
When were the mediatisation changes confirmed?
57265d84dd62a815002e82c9
The 1815 Congress of Vienna
200
False
Which kingdom acquired some Thuringian territory?
57265d84dd62a815002e82ca
the Kingdom of Prussia
318
False
Who led the unification of Germany in 1871?
57265d84dd62a815002e82cb
Prussian-led
513
False
Which city became the capital of Thuringia after World War 1?
57265d84dd62a815002e82cc
Weimar
884
False
1795 to 1814
87
When was the German Mediatisation unknown?
5a7cbea9e8bc7e001a9e1fa9
True
The 1815 Congress of Vienna
200
When were the Mediatisation changes denied?
5a7cbea9e8bc7e001a9e1faa
True
the Kingdom of Prussia
318
Which kingdom lost some Thuringian territory?
5a7cbea9e8bc7e001a9e1fab
True
Prussian-led
513
Who stopped the unification of Germany in 1871?
5a7cbea9e8bc7e001a9e1fac
True
Weimar
884
Which city became the capital of Thuringia after World War 3?
5a7cbea9e8bc7e001a9e1fad
True
Some reordering of the Thuringian states occurred during the German Mediatisation from 1795 to 1814, and the territory was included within the Napoleonic Confederation of the Rhine organized in 1806. The 1815 Congress of Vienna confirmed these changes and the Thuringian states' inclusion in the German Confederation; the Kingdom of Prussia also acquired some Thuringian territory and administered it within the Province of Saxony. The Thuringian duchies which became part of the German Empire in 1871 during the Prussian-led unification of Germany were Saxe-Weimar-Eisenach, Saxe-Meiningen, Saxe-Altenburg, Saxe-Coburg-Gotha, Schwarzburg-Sondershausen, Schwarzburg-Rudolstadt and the two principalities of Reuss Elder Line and Reuss Younger Line. In 1920, after World War I, these small states merged into one state, called Thuringia; only Saxe-Coburg voted to join Bavaria instead. Weimar became the new capital of Thuringia. The coat of arms of this new state was simpler than they had been previously.
When did nazis gain power in Thuringia?
57265e04dd62a815002e82dc
1930
3
False
Who was the minister of the Interior for Thuringia in 1930?
57265e04dd62a815002e82dd
Wilhelm Frick
90
False
How many delegates did the nazi party win in 1930?
57265e04dd62a815002e82de
six delegates
195
False
Who did Frick remove from the police force?
57265e04dd62a815002e82df
anyone he suspected of being a republican
292
False
Who did Frick replace republican police with?
57265e04dd62a815002e82e0
men who were favourable towards the Nazi Party
357
False
1930
3
When did nazis lose power in Thuringia?
5a7cbf25e8bc7e001a9e1fb3
True
Wilhelm Frick
90
Who was the minister of the Interior for Thuringia in 1730?
5a7cbf25e8bc7e001a9e1fb4
True
six delegates
195
How many delegates did the nazi party lose in 1930?
5a7cbf25e8bc7e001a9e1fb5
True
anyone he suspected of being a republican
292
Who did Frick appoint to the police force?
5a7cbf25e8bc7e001a9e1fb6
True
men who were favourable towards the Nazi Party
357
Who did Frick replace democratic police with?
5a7cbf25e8bc7e001a9e1fb7
True
In 1930 Thuringia was one of the free states where the Nazis gained real political power. Wilhelm Frick was appointed Minister of the Interior for the state of Thuringia after the Nazi Party won six delegates to the Thuringia Diet. In this position he removed from the Thuringia police force anyone he suspected of being a republican and replaced them with men who were favourable towards the Nazi Party. He also ensured that whenever an important position came up within Thuringia, he used his power to ensure that a Nazi was given that post.
Where are the Harz mountains located?
57265eeaf1498d1400e8dd74
The far north
47
False
What is the landscape of Eichsfeld?
57265eeaf1498d1400e8dd75
hilly and sometimes forested
245
False
What is Thuringia's highest mountain?
57265eeaf1498d1400e8dd76
Großer Beerberg
1004
False
Where is Orlasenke located?
57265eeaf1498d1400e8dd77
in the middle
1640
False
How many big rivers flow through Thuringia?
57265eeaf1498d1400e8dd78
The Saale in the west and the Weiße Elster in the east
1390
False
The far north
47
Where are the Harz mountains hidden?
5a7cc056e8bc7e001a9e1fbd
True
hilly and sometimes forested
245
What is the dreamscape of Eichsfeld?
5a7cc056e8bc7e001a9e1fbe
True
Großer Beerberg
1004
What is Thuringia's oldest mountain?
5a7cc056e8bc7e001a9e1fbf
True
in the middle
1640
Where is Orlasenke lost?
5a7cc056e8bc7e001a9e1fc0
True
The Saale in the west and the Weiße Elster in the east
1390
How many small rivers flow through Thuringia?
5a7cc056e8bc7e001a9e1fc1
True
The landscapes of Thuringia are quite diverse. The far north is occupied by the Harz mountains, followed by the Goldene Aue, a fertile floodplain around Nordhausen with the Helme as most important river. The north-west includes the Eichsfeld, a hilly and sometimes forested region, where the Leine river emanates. The central and northern part of Thuringia is defined by the 3000 km² wide Thuringian Basin, a very fertile and flat area around the Unstrut river and completely surrounded by the following hill chains (clockwise from the north-west): Dün, Hainleite, Windleite, Kyffhäuser, Hohe Schrecke, Schmücke, Finne, Ettersberg, Steigerwald, Thuringian Forest, Hörselberge and Hainich. Within the Basin the smaller hill chains Fahner Höhe and Heilinger Höhen. South of the Thuringian Basin is the Land's largest mountain range, marked by the Thuringian Forest in the north-west, the Thuringian Highland in the middle and the Franconian Forest in the south-east. Most of this range is forested and the Großer Beerberg (983 m) is Thuringia's highest mountain. To the south-west, the Forest is followed up by Werra river valley, dividing it from the Rhön Mountains in the west and the Grabfeld plain in the south. Eastern Thuringia, commonly described as the area east of Saale and Loquitz valley, is marked by a hilly landscape, rising slowly from the flat north to the mountainous south. The Saale in the west and the Weiße Elster in the east are the two big rivers running from south to north and forming densely settled valleys in this area. Between them lies the flat and forested Holzland in the north, the flat and fertile Orlasenke in the middle and the Vogtland, a hilly but in most parts non-forested region in the south. The far eastern region (east of Weiße Elster) is the Osterland or Altenburger Land along Pleiße river, a flat, fertile and densely settled agricultural area.
Which river in Thuringia is the most important?
57266017708984140094c401
the Saale
41
False
Are there any large lakes in Thuringia?
57266017708984140094c402
There are no large natural lakes in Thuringia
376
False
What are some of the large dams located in Thuringia?
57266017708984140094c403
the Bleiloch Dam and the Hohenwarte Dam
481
False
Which tributary is located on the southern border?
57266017708984140094c404
the Main (a tributary of the Rhine)
339
False
the Saale
41
Which river in Thuringia is the least important?
5a7cc146e8bc7e001a9e1fc7
True
Bleiloch Dam and the Hohenwarte Dam
485
What are some of the broken dams located in Thuringia?
5a7cc146e8bc7e001a9e1fc8
True
the Main (a tributary of the Rhine)
339
Which tributary is located on the northern border?
5a7cc146e8bc7e001a9e1fc9
True
Thuringia
412
What has some of Spain's biggest dams?
5a7cc146e8bc7e001a9e1fca
True
The most important river in Thuringia is the Saale (a tributary of the Elbe) with its tributaries Unstrut, Ilm and Weiße Elster, draining the most parts of Thuringia and the Werra (the headwater of the Weser), draining the south-west and west of the Land. Furthermore, some small parts on the southern border are drained by tributaries of the Main (a tributary of the Rhine). There are no large natural lakes in Thuringia, but it does have some of Germany's biggest dams including the Bleiloch Dam and the Hohenwarte Dam at Saale river same as the Leibis-Lichte Dam and the Goldisthal Pumped Storage Station within the Highland. Thuringia is Germany's only state without connection to navigable waterways.
Why is Thurnigia's landscape shaped by human influence?
57266200708984140094c44b
Due to many centuries of intensive settlement
0
False
What is the original natural vegetation of Thuringia?
57266200708984140094c44c
forest with beech as its predominant species
142
False
What type of nature is common in the highlands of Thuringia?
57266200708984140094c44d
a mixture of beech and spruce
258
False
What has been the aim for the Thuringian forests since 1990?
57266200708984140094c44e
more natural and tough vegetation
513
False
Where do most landscape problems come from?
57266200708984140094c44f
increasingly prolonged dry periods during the summer months
772
False
Due to many centuries of intensive settlement
0
Why is Thurnigia's landscape not shaped by human influence?
5a7cc2c9e8bc7e001a9e1fcf
True
forest with beech as its predominant species
142
What is the original artificial vegetation of Thuringia?
5a7cc2c9e8bc7e001a9e1fd0
True
a mixture of beech and spruce
258
What type of artificial product is common in the highlands of Thuringia?
5a7cc2c9e8bc7e001a9e1fd1
True
more natural and tough vegetation
513
What has been the aim for the Thuringian forests since 1970?
5a7cc2c9e8bc7e001a9e1fd2
True
increasingly prolonged dry periods during the summer months
772
Where do most dreamscape problems come from?
5a7cc2c9e8bc7e001a9e1fd3
True
Due to many centuries of intensive settlement, most of the area is shaped by human influence. The original natural vegetation of Thuringia is forest with beech as its predominant species, as can still be found in the Hainich mountains today. In the uplands, a mixture of beech and spruce would be natural. However, most of the plains have been cleared and are in intensive agricultural use while most of the forests are planted with spruce and pine. Since 1990, Thuringia's forests have been managed aiming for a more natural and tough vegetation more resilient to climate change as well as diseases and vermin. In comparison to the forest, agriculture is still quite conventional and dominated by large structures and monocultures. Problems here are caused especially by increasingly prolonged dry periods during the summer months.
Since when has environmental damage in Thuringia been reduced?
5726638e708984140094c48f
1990
75
False
What is one thing that helped to improve condition of forests, rivers and air?
5726638e708984140094c490
modernizing factories
138
False
What has been done to former Uranium surface mines around Ronneburg?
5726638e708984140094c491
Uranium surface mines around Ronneburg have been remediated
246
False
What are today's big environmental problems?
5726638e708984140094c492
the salination of the Werra river
342
False
What is causing the salination of the Werra river?
5726638e708984140094c493
discharges of K+S salt mines around Unterbreizbach
387
False
1990
75
When has environmental damage in Thuringia been increased since?
5a7cc42be8bc7e001a9e1fd9
True
modernizing factories
138
What is one thing that helped to ruin condition of forests, rivers and air?
5a7cc42be8bc7e001a9e1fda
True
remediated
295
What has never been done to former Uranium surface mines around Ronneburg?
5a7cc42be8bc7e001a9e1fdb
True
the salination of the Werra river
342
What are today's small environmental problems?
5a7cc42be8bc7e001a9e1fdc
True
discharges of K+S salt mines around Unterbreizbach
387
What is helping improve the salination of the Werra river?
5a7cc42be8bc7e001a9e1fdd
True
Environmental damage in Thuringia has been reduced to a large extent after 1990. The condition of forests, rivers and air was improved by modernizing factories, houses (decline of coal heating) and cars, and contaminated areas such as the former Uranium surface mines around Ronneburg have been remediated. Today's environmental problems are the salination of the Werra river, caused by discharges of K+S salt mines around Unterbreizbach and overfertilisation in agriculture, damaging the soil and small rivers.
Where was Thuringia in the Middle Ages?
5726642fdd62a815002e837c
the border between Germanic and Slavic territories
50
False
What was the result of the Ostsiedlung movement?
5726642fdd62a815002e837d
the assimilation of Slavic people between the 11th and the 13th century under German rule
161
False
When did population growth in Thuringia peak?
5726642fdd62a815002e837e
World War I
330
False
In what year did many cities in Thuringia lose half of their population?
5726642fdd62a815002e837f
1950
616
False
the border between Germanic and Slavic territories
50
Where was Thuringia attacking in the Middle Ages?
5a7cc600e8bc7e001a9e1fe3
True
the assimilation of Slavic people between the 11th and the 13th century under German rule
161
What was the fake result of the Ostsiedlung movement?
5a7cc600e8bc7e001a9e1fe4
True
World War I
330
When did population growth in Thuringia end?
5a7cc600e8bc7e001a9e1fe5
True
1950
616
What year did many cities in Thuringia lose none of their population?
5a7cc600e8bc7e001a9e1fe6
True
During the Middle Ages, Thuringia was situated at the border between Germanic and Slavic territories, marked by the Saale river. The Ostsiedlung movement led to the assimilation of Slavic people between the 11th and the 13th century under German rule. The population growth increased during the 18th century and stayed high until World War I, before it slowed within the 20th century and changed to a decline since 1990. Since the beginning of Urbanisation around 1840, the Thuringian cities have higher growth rates resp. smaller rates of decline than rural areas (many villages lost half of their population since 1950, whereas the biggest cities (Erfurt and Jena) keep growing).
How many non-Germans lived in Thuringia in 2013?
572664f8f1498d1400e8de26
41,000
25
False
What was the increase in non-German population between 2011 and 2013?
572664f8f1498d1400e8de27
24%
233
False
How much of the Thuringian population are migrants?
572664f8f1498d1400e8de28
4%
262
False
What is the largest group of foreigners?
572664f8f1498d1400e8de29
Russians
428
False
Which towns have the highest immigrant population?
572664f8f1498d1400e8de2a
Erfurt, Jena, Weimar and Ilmenau
586
False
41,000
25
How many non-Americans lived in Thuringia in 2013?
5a7cc670e8bc7e001a9e1feb
True
24%
233
What was the decrease in non-German population between 2011 and 2013?
5a7cc670e8bc7e001a9e1fec
True
4%
262
How much of the Thuringian population are against migrants?
5a7cc670e8bc7e001a9e1fed
True
Russians
428
What is the smallest group of foreigners?
5a7cc670e8bc7e001a9e1fee
True
Erfurt, Jena, Weimar and Ilmenau
586
Which towns have the smallest immigrant population?
5a7cc670e8bc7e001a9e1fef
True
In July 2013, there were 41,000 non-Germans by citizenship living in Thuringia (1.9% of the population − among the smallest proportions of any state in Germany). Nevertheless, the number rose from 33,000 in July 2011, an increase of 24% in only two years. About 4% of the population are migrants (including persons that already received the German citizenship). The biggest groups of foreigners by citizenship are (as of 2012): Russians (3,100), Poles (3,000), Vietnamese (2,800), Turks (2,100) and Ukrainians (2,000). The amount of foreigners varies between regions: the college towns Erfurt, Jena, Weimar and Ilmenau have the highest rates, whereas there are almost no migrants living in the most rural smaller municipalities.
What is the sex ratio gap in Thuringia?
57266600f1498d1400e8de56
115 to 120 men per 100 women
146
False
What caused the wide sex ratio gap in Thuringia?
57266600f1498d1400e8de57
emigration of young women
73
False
How many citizens of Thuringia are over the age of 65?
57266600f1498d1400e8de58
more than 30%
367
False
What is the problem facing the job market in Thuringia?
57266600f1498d1400e8de59
there are twice as many people leaving as entering the job market annually.
460
False
115 to 120 men per 100 women in the 25–40 age group
146
What is the sex ratio gap in Thuringia falsely considered?
5a7cc770e8bc7e001a9e1ffd
True
emigration of young women
73
What ended the wide sex ratio gap in Thuringia?
5a7cc770e8bc7e001a9e1ffe
True
more than 30%
367
How many citizens of Thuringia are dead before the age of 65?
5a7cc770e8bc7e001a9e1fff
True
there are twice as many people leaving as entering the job market annually
460
What is the solution facing the job market in Thuringia?
5a7cc770e8bc7e001a9e2000
True
there are 115 to 120 men per 100 women in the 25–40 age group
136
What has positive consequences for the birth ratio?
5a7cc770e8bc7e001a9e2001
True
The Thuringian population has a significant sex ratio gap, caused by the emigration of young women, especially in rural areas. Overall, there are 115 to 120 men per 100 women in the 25–40 age group ("family founders") which has negative consequences for the birth ratio. Furthermore, the population is getting older and older with some rural municipalities recording more than 30% of over-65s (pensioners). This is a problem for the regional labour market, as there are twice as many people leaving as entering the job market annually.
How many people migrated to Thuringia between 2008 and 2012?
572670625951b619008f72b1
+6,700 persons
209
False
How many migrants went to Eisenach?
572670625951b619008f72b2
+1,400
311
False
Is the migration to Thuringia steady or fluctuating?
572670625951b619008f72b3
The international migration is fluctuating heavily
627
False
6,700
210
How many people left Thuringia between 2008 and 2012?
5a7cc7e8e8bc7e001a9e2011
True
1,400
282
How many migrants bombed Eisenach?
5a7cc7e8e8bc7e001a9e2012
True
The international migration
627
What has never fluctuated?
5a7cc7e8e8bc7e001a9e2013
True
2,800
996
How much was the balance positive with Switzerland?
5a7cc7e8e8bc7e001a9e2014
True
Migration plays an important role in Thuringia. The internal migration shows a strong tendency from rural areas towards the big cities. From 2008 to 2012, there was a net migration from Thuringia to Erfurt of +6,700 persons (33 per 1000 inhabitants), +1,800 to Gera (19 per 1000), +1,400 to Jena (14 per 1000), +1,400 to Eisenach (33 per 1000) and +1,300 to Weimar (21 per 1000). Between Thuringia and the other German states, the balance is negative: In 2012, Thuringia lost 6,500 persons to other federal states, the most to Bavaria, Saxony, Hesse and Berlin. Only with Saxony-Anhalt and Brandenburg the balance is positive. The international migration is fluctuating heavily. In 2009, the balance was +700, in 2010 +1,800, in 2011 +2,700 and in 2012 +4,800. The most important countries of origin of the Thuringia migrants from 2008 to 2012 were Poland (+1,700), Romania (+1,200), Afghanistan (+1,100) and Serbia/Montenegro/Kosovo (+1,000), whereas the balance was negative with Switzerland (−2,800) and Austria (−900).
How many municipalities are in Thuringia?
57267187dd62a815002e850c
850
21
False
How many municipalities in Thuringia are classified as towns?
57267187dd62a815002e850d
126
54
False
How many towns have populations greater than 30,000?
57267187dd62a815002e850e
ten
221
False
What was the latest a town was established in Thuringia?
57267187dd62a815002e850f
the 20th century
379
False
Which regions of Thuringia have the most political power?
57267187dd62a815002e8510
Independent cities (i.e. urban districts) have greater powers (the same as any district) than towns within a district.
494
False
850
21
How many municipalities are destroyed in Thuringia?
5a7cca31e8bc7e001a9e2023
True
126
54
How many municipalities in Thuringia are classified as hostile?
5a7cca31e8bc7e001a9e2024
True
ten
221
How many towns have populations greater than 300,000?
5a7cca31e8bc7e001a9e2025
True
the 20th century
379
What was the latest a town was demolished in Thuringia?
5a7cca31e8bc7e001a9e2026
True
Independent cities
494
Which regions of Thuringia have no political power?
5a7cca31e8bc7e001a9e2027
True
Of the approximately 850 municipalities of Thuringia, 126 are classed as towns (within a district) or cities (forming their own urban district). Most of the towns are small with a population of less than 10,000; only the ten biggest ones have a population greater than 30,000. The first towns emerged during the 12th century, whereas the latest ones received town status only in the 20th century. Today, all municipalities within districts are equal in law, whether they are towns or villages. Independent cities (i.e. urban districts) have greater powers (the same as any district) than towns within a district.
What is something more important to Thuringia than most areas of Germany?
5726762af1498d1400e8e06a
Agriculture and forestry
0
False
How much of Thuringia's territory is in agricultural use?
5726762af1498d1400e8e06b
54%
183
False
What is the largest fertile area of Thuringia?
5726762af1498d1400e8e06c
the large Thuringian Basin
263
False
Where do they grow tomatoes in Thuringia?
5726762af1498d1400e8e06d
greenhouses
557
False
Which regions value agriculture most?
5726762af1498d1400e8e06e
rural regions
168
False
Agriculture and forestry
0
What is something no longer important to Thuringia compared to most areas of Germany?
5a7ccb9fe8bc7e001a9e2041
True
54%
183
How much of Thuringia's territory is in agricultural ruin?
5a7ccb9fe8bc7e001a9e2042
True
the large Thuringian Basin
263
What is the worst fertile area of Thuringia?
5a7ccb9fe8bc7e001a9e2043
True
greenhouses
557
Where do they grow meat in Thuringia?
5a7ccb9fe8bc7e001a9e2044
True
rural regions
168
Which regions don't value agriculture?
5a7ccb9fe8bc7e001a9e2045
True
Agriculture and forestry have declined in importance over the decades. Nevertheless, they are more important than in the most other areas of Germany, especially within rural regions. 54% of Thuringia's territory is in agricultural use. The fertile basins such as the large Thuringian Basin or the smaller Goldene Aue, Orlasenke and Osterland are in intensive use for growing cereals, vegetables, fruits and energy crops. Important products are apples, strawberries, cherries and plums in the fruit sector, cabbage, potatoes, cauliflower, tomatoes (grown in greenhouses), onions, cucumbers and asparagus in the vegetable sector, as well as maize, rapeseed, wheat, barley and sugar beets in the crop sector.
How far back does Thuringia's industrial sector go back?
57267810dd62a815002e8618
the mid-19th-century industrialisation
120
False
What was the result of the economic transition after the German reunification in 1990?
57267810dd62a815002e8619
the closure of most large-scale factories and companies
230
False
Where in Thuringia did BMW get it's start in the 1920's?
57267810dd62a815002e861a
Eisenach
497
False
Where in Thuringia are there fewer industrial companies?
57267810dd62a815002e861b
the northern and eastern parts of the Land.
908
False
When did traditional industries like glass and toy making collapse?
57267810dd62a815002e861c
between 1930 and 1990
1057
False
mid-19th-century industrialisation
124
When was Thuringia's industrial sector eliminated?
5a7ccc70e8bc7e001a9e204b
True
the closure of most large-scale factories and companies
230
What was the result of the economic transition after the German reunification in 1982?
5a7ccc70e8bc7e001a9e204c
True
Eisenach
497
Where in Thuringia did BMW get it's start in the 1960's?
5a7ccc70e8bc7e001a9e204d
True
the northern and eastern parts of the Land
908
Where in Thuringia are there no industrial companies?
5a7ccc70e8bc7e001a9e204e
True
between 1930 and 1990
1057
When did modern industries like glass and robot making collapse?
5a7ccc70e8bc7e001a9e204f
True
Like most other regions of central and southern Germany, Thuringia has a significant industrial sector reaching back to the mid-19th-century industrialisation. The economic transition after the German reunification in 1990 led to the closure of most large-scale factories and companies, leaving small and medium-sized ones to dominate the manufacturing sector. Well-known industrial centres are Jena (a world centre for optical instruments with companies like Carl Zeiss, Schott and Jenoptik) and Eisenach, where BMW started its car production in the 1920s and an Opel factory is based today. The most important industrial branches today are engineering and metalworking, vehicle production and food industries. Especially the small and mid-sized towns in central and southwestern Thuringia (e.g. Arnstadt, Schmalkalden and Ohrdruf) are highly industrialised, whereas there are fewer industrial companies in the northern and eastern parts of the Land. Traditional industries like production of glass, porcelain and toys collapsed during the economic crises between 1930 and 1990.
Which towns in Thuringia are known as mining towns?
57267a295951b619008f73ed
Schmalkalden, Suhl and Ilmenau
131
False
Why did the iron, copper and silver mines fail?
57267a295951b619008f73ee
because the competition from imported metal was too strong
247
False
What is one of the two mining districts were established around 1900?
57267a295951b619008f73ef
the Südharzrevier
567
False
What did the Thuringian miners do to help the Soviet Union?
57267a295951b619008f73f0
uranium mining was also important to cover the Soviet Union's need for this metal
1030
False
When did the Südharzrevier close?
57267a295951b619008f73f1
After the reunification
897
False
Schmalkalden, Suhl and Ilmenau
131
Which towns in Thuringia are falsely known as mining towns?
5a7cccf3e8bc7e001a9e2055
True
because the competition from imported metal was too strong
247
Why did the iron, copper and silver mines thrive?
5a7cccf3e8bc7e001a9e2056
True
the Südharzrevier
567
What is one of the two mining districts were established around 1800?
5a7cccf3e8bc7e001a9e2057
True
uranium mining
1030
What did the Thuringian miners do to stop the Soviet Union?
5a7cccf3e8bc7e001a9e2058
True
After the reunification
897
When did the Südharzrevier open indefinitely?
5a7cccf3e8bc7e001a9e2059
True
Mining was important in Thuringia since the later Middle Ages, especially within the mining towns of the Thuringian Forest such as Schmalkalden, Suhl and Ilmenau. Following the industrial revolution, the old iron, copper and silver mines declined because the competition from imported metal was too strong. On the other hand, the late 19th century brought new types of mines to Thuringia: the lignite surface mining around Meuselwitz near Altenburg in the east of the Land started in the 1870s, and two potash mining districts were established around 1900. These are the Südharzrevier in the north of the state, between Bischofferode in the west and Roßleben in the east with Sondershausen at its centre, and the Werrarevier on the Hessian border around Vacha and Bad Salzungen in the west. Together, they accounted for a significant part of the world's potash production in the mid-20th century. After the reunification, the Südharzrevier was abandoned, whereas K+S took over the mines in the Werrarevier. Between 1950 and 1990, uranium mining was also important to cover the Soviet Union's need for this metal. The centre was Ronneburg near Gera in eastern Thuringia and the operating company Wismut was under direct Soviet control.
Where is the GDP of Thuringia?
57267adb5951b619008f7407
below the national average
24
False
For how long was Thuringia one of the weakest regions in the EU?
57267adb5951b619008f7408
Until 2004
101
False
What has helped to improve Thuringia?
57267adb5951b619008f7409
The accession of several new countries, the crisis in southern Europe and the sustained economic growth
181
False
When will government subsidies to Thuringia end?
57267adb5951b619008f740a
around 2020
499
False
below the national average
24
Where is the GDP of Thuringia never at?
5a7cdb52e8bc7e001a9e2067
True
Until 2004
101
How long was Thuringia one of the strongest regions in the EU?
5a7cdb52e8bc7e001a9e2068
True
The accession of several new countries, the crisis in southern Europe and the sustained economic growth
181
What has helped to sabotage Thuringia?
5a7cdb52e8bc7e001a9e2069
True
around 2020
499
When will government subsidies to Thuringia renew?
5a7cdb52e8bc7e001a9e206a
True
The GDP of Thuringia is below the national average, in line with the other former East German Lands. Until 2004, Thuringia was one of the weakest regions within the European Union. The accession of several new countries, the crisis in southern Europe and the sustained economic growth in Germany since 2005 has brought the Thuringian GDP close to the EU average since then. The high economic subsidies granted by the federal government and the EU after 1990 are being reduced gradually and will end around 2020.
When did the unemployment rate of Thuringia peak?
57267c1cf1498d1400e8e158
20% in 2005
42
False
What is the current state of unemployment in Thuringia?
57267c1cf1498d1400e8e159
it has decreased to 7%
67
False
How do wages in Thuringia compare to their neighbors?
57267c1cf1498d1400e8e15a
The wages in Thuringia are low compared to rich bordering Lands like Hesse and Bavaria.
341
False
What do many Thuringian workers do to earn better wages?
57267c1cf1498d1400e8e15b
working in other German Lands and even in Austria and Switzerland as weekly commuters
461
False
What has lead to a lack of workers in some sectors?
57267c1cf1498d1400e8e15c
demographic transition
566
False
20% in 2005
42
When did the unemployment rate of Thuringia crash?
5a7cdcd3e8bc7e001a9e2079
True
7%
87
What is the current state of employment in Thuringia?
5a7cdcd3e8bc7e001a9e207a
True
The wages in Thuringia are low compared to rich bordering Lands like Hesse and Bavaria
341
How do wages in Thuringia sadden their neighbors?
5a7cdcd3e8bc7e001a9e207b
True
working in other German Lands and even in Austria and Switzerland as weekly commuters.
461
What do many Thuringian workers do to earn lower wages?
5a7cdcd3e8bc7e001a9e207c
True
demographic transition
566
What has lead to a surplus of workers in some sectors?
5a7cdcd3e8bc7e001a9e207d
True
The unemployment rate reached its peak of 20% in 2005. Since then, it has decreased to 7% in 2013, which is only slightly above the national average. The decrease is caused on the one hand by the emergence of new jobs and on the other by a marked decrease in the working-age population, caused by emigration and low birth rates for decades. The wages in Thuringia are low compared to rich bordering Lands like Hesse and Bavaria. Therefore, many Thuringians are working in other German Lands and even in Austria and Switzerland as weekly commuters. Nevertheless, the demographic transition in Thuringia leads to a lack of workers in some sectors. External immigration into Thuringia has been encouraged by the government since about 2010 to counter this problem.
When were the first motorways built in Thuringia?
57267ed25951b619008f74a5
During the 1930s
0
False
When were the two motorways expanded?
57267ed25951b619008f74a6
Both highways were widened from four to six lanes (three each way) after 1990
506
False
When were three additional roads built?
57267ed25951b619008f74a7
during the 1990s and 2000s
697
False
Which motorway is Thuringia's most expensive?
57267ed25951b619008f74a8
The crossing of the Thuringian Forest by the A71
921
False
What is the top priority of the federal trunk road programme 2015?
57267ed25951b619008f74a9
The upgrading of federal highways
1482
False
The upgrading of federal highways
1482
What is the bottom priority of the federal trunk road programme 2015?
5a7cdd7ce8bc7e001a9e2083
True
During the 1930s
0
When were the first motorways buried in Thuringia?
5a7cdd7ce8bc7e001a9e2084
True
after 1990
573
When were the two motorways shortened?
5a7cdd7ce8bc7e001a9e2085
True
during the 1990s and 2000s
697
When were eight additional roads built?
5a7cdd7ce8bc7e001a9e2086
True
The crossing of the Thuringian Forest by the A71
921
Which motorway is Thuringia's cheapest?
5a7cdd7ce8bc7e001a9e2087
True
During the 1930s, the first two motorways were built across the Land, the A4 motorway as an important east-west connection in central Germany and the main link between Berlin and south-west Germany, and the A9 motorway as the main north-south route in eastern Germany, connecting Berlin with Munich. The A4 runs from Frankfurt in Hesse via Eisenach, Gotha, Erfurt, Weimar, Jena and Gera to Dresden in Saxony, connecting Thuringia's most important cities. At Hermsdorf junction it is connected with the A9. Both highways were widened from four to six lanes (three each way) after 1990, including some extensive re-routing in the Eisenach and Jena areas. Furthermore, three new motorways were built during the 1990s and 2000s. The A71 crosses the Land in southwest-northeast direction, connecting Würzburg in Bavaria via Meiningen, Suhl, Ilmenau, Arnstadt, Erfurt and Sömmerda with Sangerhausen and Halle in Saxony-Anhalt. The crossing of the Thuringian Forest by the A71 has been one of Germany's most expensive motorway segments with various tunnels (including Germany's longest road tunnel, the Rennsteig Tunnel) and large bridges. The A73 starts at the A71 south of Erfurt in Suhl and runs south towards Nuremberg in Bavaria. The A38 is another west-east connection in the north of Thuringia running from Göttingen in Lower Saxony via Heiligenstadt and Nordhausen to Leipzig in Saxony. Furthermore, there is a dense network of federal highways complementing the motorway network. The upgrading of federal highways is prioritised in the federal trunk road programme 2015 (Bundesverkehrswegeplan 2015). Envisaged projects include upgrades of the B247 from Gotha to Leinefelde to improve Mühlhausen's connection to the national road network, the B19 from Eisenach to Meiningen to improve access to Bad Salzungen and Schmalkalden, and the B88 and B281 for strengthening the Saalfeld/Rudolstadt region.
What is Thuringia's traditional energy supply?
57268bbfdd62a815002e88f8
lignite
46
False
Where does Thuringia get it's lignite?
57268bbfdd62a815002e88f9
mined in the bordering Leipzig region
55
False
How is most of Thuringia's clean gas consumption carried out?
57268bbfdd62a815002e88fa
carried out as Cogeneration in the municipal power stations
295
False
What are Thuringia's most important renewable energy sources?
57268bbfdd62a815002e88fb
Wind power and Biomass
407
False
What is Hohenwarte Dam?
57268bbfdd62a815002e88fc
big pumped storage stations
511
False
lignite
46
What is Thuringia's new energy supply?
5a7cdfbae8bc7e001a9e2095
True
mined in the bordering Leipzig region
55
Where does Thuringia steal it's lignite?
5a7cdfbae8bc7e001a9e2096
True
carried out as Cogeneration in the municipal power stations
295
How is most of Thuringia's clean gas consumption forbidden as being?
5a7cdfbae8bc7e001a9e2097
True
Wind power and Biomass
407
What are Thuringia's least important renewable energy sources?
5a7cdfbae8bc7e001a9e2098
True
big pumped storage stations
511
What is Hohenwarte Dam never able to become?
5a7cdfbae8bc7e001a9e2099
True
The traditional energy supply of Thuringia is lignite, mined in the bordering Leipzig region. Since 2000, the importance of environmentally unfriendly lignite combustion has declined in favour of renewable energies, which reached an amount of 40% (in 2013), and more clean gas combustion, often carried out as Cogeneration in the municipal power stations. The most important forms of renewable energies are Wind power and Biomass, followed by Solar energy and Hydroelectricity. Furthermore, Thuringia hosts two big pumped storage stations: the Goldisthal Pumped Storage Station and the Hohenwarte Dam.
Which hospitals are being expanded?
57268d09f1498d1400e8e382
bigger ones in centres like Jena and Erfurt
141
False
Why are there too many hospital beds?
57268d09f1498d1400e8e383
rationalisation processes in the German health care system
259
False
Where is it the most difficult to find a family doctor?
57268d09f1498d1400e8e384
rural regions with increased need of health care provision because of overageing.
435
False
bigger ones in centres like Jena and Erfurt
141
Which hospitals are being demolished?
5a7ce070e8bc7e001a9e209f
True
rationalisation processes in the German health care system
259
Why are there no hospital beds?
5a7ce070e8bc7e001a9e20a0
True
rural regions with increased need of health care provision because of overageing
435
Where is it the most easy to find a family doctor?
5a7ce070e8bc7e001a9e20a1
True
hospitals
87
What never close?
5a7ce070e8bc7e001a9e20a2
True
Health care in Thuringia is currently undergoing a concentration process. Many smaller hospitals in the rural towns are closing, whereas the bigger ones in centres like Jena and Erfurt get enlarged. Overall, there is an oversupply of hospital beds, caused by rationalisation processes in the German health care system, so that many smaller hospitals generate losses. On the other hand, there is a lack of family doctors, especially in rural regions with increased need of health care provision because of overageing.
How long is Thuringian primary school?
57268e1d5951b619008f766d
four years
342
False
For how long have Thuringian children been using the current education system?
57268e1d5951b619008f766e
Since the 1950s
52
False
When do children graduate from primary school in Thuringia?
57268e1d5951b619008f766f
At the age of ten
461
False
Who invented the early years education in Thuringia?
57268e1d5951b619008f7670
Friedrich Fröbel
199
False
How many years of school do students attend after primary?
57268e1d5951b619008f7671
eight years
631
False
four years
342
How long is Thuringian primary school banned?
5a7ce1b8e8bc7e001a9e20a7
True
Since the 1950s
52
How long have Thuringian children been outside the current education system?
5a7ce1b8e8bc7e001a9e20a8
True
At the age of ten
461
When do children quit primary school in Thuringia?
5a7ce1b8e8bc7e001a9e20a9
True
Friedrich Fröbel
199
Who destroyed the early years education in Thuringia?
5a7ce1b8e8bc7e001a9e20aa
True
eight years
631
How many years of school do students miss after primary?
5a7ce1b8e8bc7e001a9e20ab
True
Early-years education is quite common in Thuringia. Since the 1950s, nearly all children have been using the service, whereas early-years education is less developed in western Germany. Its inventor Friedrich Fröbel lived in Thuringia and founded the world's first Kindergartens there in the 19th century. The Thuringian primary school takes four years and most primary schools are all-day schools offering optional extracurricular activities in the afternoon. At the age of ten, pupils are separated according to aptitude and proceed to either the Gymnasium or the Regelschule. The former leads to the Abitur exam after a further eight years and prepares for higher education, while the latter has a more vocational focus and finishes with exams after five or six years, comparable to the Hauptschule and Realschule found elsewhere in Germany.
What is the biggest school in Thuringia?
57268eb85951b619008f7687
The University of Jena
129
False
How many universities are there in Thuringia?
57268eb85951b619008f7688
four
187
False
How many students attend The University of Erfurt?
57268eb85951b619008f7689
5,000
515
False
What is Germany's leading art school in Thuringia?
57268eb85951b619008f768a
The Bauhaus University Weimar
588
False
When was The Bauhaus University Weimar founded?
57268eb85951b619008f768b
1860
757
False
The University of Jena
129
What is the worst school in Thuringia?
5a7ce270e8bc7e001a9e20b1
True
four
187
How many universities are missing in Thuringia?
5a7ce270e8bc7e001a9e20b2
True
5,000
515
How many students boycott The University of Erfurt?
5a7ce270e8bc7e001a9e20b3
True
The Bauhaus University Weimar
588
What is Germany's unknown art school in Thuringia?
5a7ce270e8bc7e001a9e20b4
True
1860
757
When was The Bauhaus University Weimar remodeled?
5a7ce270e8bc7e001a9e20b5
True
The German higher education system comprises two forms of academic institutions: universities and polytechnics (Fachhochschule). The University of Jena is the biggest amongst Thuringia's four universities and offers nearly every discipline. It was founded in 1558, and today has 21,000 students. The second-largest is the Technische Universität Ilmenau with 7,000 students, founded in 1894, which offers many technical disciplines such as engineering and mathematics. The University of Erfurt, founded in 1392, has 5,000 students today and an emphasis on humanities and teacher training. The Bauhaus University Weimar with 4,000 students is Thuringia's smallest university, specialising in creative subjects such as architecture and arts. It was founded in 1860 and came to prominence as Germany's leading art school during the inter-war period, the Bauhaus.
Where is the civil service college of Thuringia?
57268f21dd62a815002e899a
Gotha
203
False
How many students attend the college of music in Thuringia?
57268f21dd62a815002e899b
800
274
False
How many schools offer polytechnics?
57268f21dd62a815002e899c
Erfurt (4,500 students), Jena (5,000 students), Nordhausen (2,500 students) and Schmalkalden
43
False
Gotha
203
Where is the civil service college of Thuringia restricted?
5a7ce2ffe8bc7e001a9e20bb
True
800
274
How many students dislike the college of music in Thuringia?
5a7ce2ffe8bc7e001a9e20bc
True
Erfurt (4,500 students), Jena (5,000 students), Nordhausen (2,500 students) and Schmalkalden (3,000 students)
43
How many schools forbid polytechnics?
5a7ce2ffe8bc7e001a9e20bd
True
colleges
519
What does not allow studying for technical qualifications?
5a7ce2ffe8bc7e001a9e20be
True
The polytechnics of Thuringia are based in Erfurt (4,500 students), Jena (5,000 students), Nordhausen (2,500 students) and Schmalkalden (3,000 students). In addition, there is a civil service college in Gotha with 500 students, the College of Music "Franz Liszt" in Weimar (800 students) as well as two private colleges, the Adam-Ries-Fachhochschule in Erfurt (500 students) and the SRH College for nursing and allied medical subjects (SRH Fachhochschule für Gesundheit Gera) in Gera (500 students). Finally, there are colleges for those studying for a technical qualification while working in a related field (Berufsakademie) at Eisenach (600 students) and Gera (700 students).
What is the focus of Thuringia's research center, Jena?
5726926edd62a815002e89f4
life sciences and optics
106
False
Which universities are known for their historic and cultural aspects?
5726926edd62a815002e89f5
Weimar and Gotha
242
False
How is most research in Thuringia funded?
5726926edd62a815002e89f6
publicly funded
385
False
What is one company that is able to get investments from large companies?
5726926edd62a815002e89f7
the optics sector at Jena.
537
False
Thuringia's leading research centre is Jena, followed by Ilmenau. Both focus on technology, in particular life sciences and optics at Jena and information technology at Ilmenau. Erfurt is a centre of Germany's horticultural research, whereas Weimar and Gotha with their various archives and libraries are centres of historic and cultural research. Most of the research in Thuringia is publicly funded basic research due to the lack of large companies able to invest significant amounts in applied research, with the notable exception of the optics sector at Jena.
When was Thuringia's first railway built?
5726927a708984140094ca87
the 1840s
50
False
When were most of the branch lines of the railway abandoned?
5726927a708984140094ca88
Between 1950 and 2000
272
False
When will the new high speed train be open?
5726927a708984140094ca89
In 2017, a new high speed line will be opened,
879
False
1840s
54
When was Thuringia's worst railway built?
5a7cde39e8bc7e001a9e208d
True
Between 1950 and 2000
272
When were most of the branch lines of the railway adopted?
5a7cde39e8bc7e001a9e208e
True
2017
882
When will the new high speed train be closed?
5a7cde39e8bc7e001a9e208f
True
the Weimar–Gera railway
1617
What is an imaginary railway?
5a7cde39e8bc7e001a9e2090
True
The first railways in Thuringia had been built in the 1840s and the network of main lines was finished around 1880. By 1920, many branch lines had been built, giving Thuringia one of the densest rail networks in the world before World War II with about 2,500 km of track. Between 1950 and 2000 most of the branch lines were abandoned, reducing Thuringia's network by half compared to 1940. On the other hand, most of the main lines were refurbished after 1990, resulting in improved speed of travel. The most important railway lines at present are the Thuringian Railway, connecting Halle and Leipzig via Weimar, Erfurt, Gotha and Eisenach with Frankfurt and Kassel and the Saal Railway from Halle/Leipzig via Jena and Saalfeld to Nuremberg. The former has an hourly ICE/IC service from Dresden to Frankfurt while the latter is served hourly by ICE trains from Berlin to Munich. In 2017, a new high speed line will be opened, diverting long-distance services from these mid-19th century lines. Both ICE routes will then use the Erfurt–Leipzig/Halle high-speed railway, and the Berlin-Munich route will continue via the Nuremberg–Erfurt high-speed railway. Only the segment west of Erfurt of the Frankfurt-Dresden line will continue to be used by ICE trains after 2017, with an increased line speed of 200 km/h (currently 160 km/h). Erfurt's central station, which was completely rebuilt for this purpose in the 2000s (decade), will be the new connection between both ICE lines. The most important regional railway lines in Thuringia are the Neudietendorf–Ritschenhausen railway from Erfurt to Würzburg and Meiningen, the Weimar–Gera railway from Erfurt to Chemnitz, the Sangerhausen–Erfurt railway from Erfurt to Magdeburg, the Gotha–Leinefelde railway from Erfurt to Göttingen, the Halle–Kassel railway from Halle via Nordhausen to Kassel and the Leipzig–Hof railway from Leipzig via Altenburg to Zwickau and Hof. Most regional and local lines have hourly service, but some run only every other hour.
Predation
What must a species do in order to be classified as a predator?
57265a7cdd62a815002e8278
direct impact on the prey population
1007
False
How would you describe a predator that primarily eats plants?
57265a7cdd62a815002e8279
herbivory
445
False
A predator must do what to the prey after it is killed?
57265a7cdd62a815002e827a
absorption of the prey's tissue through consumption
301
False
A species that uses a host body to survive and reproduce is classified as a what?
57265a7cdd62a815002e827b
parasitic species
764
False
How would you describe a diet of a species that eats primarily dead organic material?
57265a7cdd62a815002e827c
detritivory
520
False
What does an herbivore eat?
5726aeecdd62a815002e8ce2
plants
472
False
Do detritivores have a direct impact on "donor" organisms?
5726aeecdd62a815002e8ce3
no
1162
False
What term is given to an organism that is being hunted?
5726aeecdd62a815002e8ce4
prey
115
False
What term is given to the biological interaction where a predator feeds upon prey?
5726aeecdd62a815002e8ce5
predation
17
False
What do detritivores eat?
5726bd4cdd62a815002e8ee2
dead organic material
1088
False
What is the key characteristic of predation?
5726bd4cdd62a815002e8ee4
predator's direct impact on the prey population
996
False
a biological interaction where a predator (an organism that is hunting) feeds on its prey (the organism that is attacked)
30
What is the definition of a host system?
5a6b958aa9e0c9001a4e9f7e
True
absorption
301
What does prey eventually do to its predator's tissue in defense?
5a6b958aa9e0c9001a4e9f7f
True
carnivory
398
What is the feeding nature of some prey?
5a6b958aa9e0c9001a4e9f80
True
after it has died
926
When does a carnivore know when it has a parasite?
5a6b958aa9e0c9001a4e9f81
True
the prey population
1024
What does a detrivore have a direct impact on while its trying to mature?
5a6b958aa9e0c9001a4e9f82
True
In an ecosystem, predation is a biological interaction where a predator (an organism that is hunting) feeds on its prey (the organism that is attacked). Predators may or may not kill their prey prior to feeding on them, but the act of predation often results in the death of the prey and the eventual absorption of the prey's tissue through consumption. Thus predation is often, though not always, carnivory. Other categories of consumption are herbivory (eating parts of plants), fungivory (eating parts of fungi), and detritivory (the consumption of dead organic material (detritus)). All these consumption categories fall under the rubric of consumer-resource systems. It can often be difficult to separate various types of feeding behaviors. For example, some parasitic species prey on a host organism and then lay their eggs on it for their offspring to feed on it while it continues to live in or on its decaying corpse after it has died. The key characteristic of predation however is the predator's direct impact on the prey population. On the other hand, detritivores simply eat dead organic material arising from the decay of dead individuals and have no direct impact on the "donor" organism(s).
How many synergetic qualities are there in the predator-prey mechanism?
57265dd0708984140094c3b5
Two factors
350
False
Proximity and the ending of life is called?
57265dd0708984140094c3b6
true predation
571
False
If the prey is not killed the predator-prey interaction is called?
57265dd0708984140094c3b7
parasitoidism
590
False
Instead of what predators eat, how else can they be classified?
5726c0da5951b619008f7d37
the way in which they eat
246
False
Certain death is involved with true predation and what other classification?
5726c0da5951b619008f7d38
parasitoidism
590
False
The study in which ecologists examine the way predators interact with their prey is called what?
5726c0da5951b619008f7d39
predation
161
False
the way in which they eat
246
What is one way prey is classified?
5a6b9734a9e0c9001a4e9f88
True
ecologists
104
Who is involved in classifying different types of prey?
5a6b9734a9e0c9001a4e9f89
True
Classification
0
What method is used to keep track of how prey tries to escape their predator?
5a6b9734a9e0c9001a4e9f8a
True
Two
350
How many factors are used when studying how prey avoids their predator?
5a6b9734a9e0c9001a4e9f8b
True
predation
161
What is the study of how prey evades capture by a predator called?
5a6b9734a9e0c9001a4e9f8c
True
Classification of predators by the extent to which they feed on and interact with their prey is one way ecologists may wish to categorize the different types of predation. Instead of focusing on what they eat, this system classifies predators by the way in which they eat, and the general nature of the interaction between predator and prey species. Two factors are considered here: How close the predator and prey are (in the latter two cases the term prey may be replaced with host) and whether or not the prey are directly murdered by the predator is considered, with true predation and parasitoidism involving certain death.
What do household animals prey upon?
57265fdcf1498d1400e8dd9c
large and small prey
602
False
Name an exemplar of an predator that uses digestion to kill and gain nutrients from it's prey.
57265fdcf1498d1400e8dd9d
Baleen whales
1231
False
To be classified as a predator, what action must be performed?
57265fdcf1498d1400e8dd9e
harm their prey in some way
123
False
What requirement must a true predator fulfill?
57265fdcf1498d1400e8dd9f
kills and eats another living thing
50
False
What is different about a true predator?
5726c98cdd62a815002e903e
Whereas other types of predator all harm their prey in some way, this form kills them
87
False
All types of predators do what?
5726c98cdd62a815002e903f
harm their prey in some way
123
False
How do ambush predators hunt?
5726c98cdd62a815002e9040
sit and wait for prey to approach within striking distance
236
False
What do box jellyfish use to hunt their pray?
5726c98cdd62a815002e9041
venom
818
False
sit and wait
236
What is one thing prey can do if they know a predator is approaching?
5a6b99e1a9e0c9001a4e9fae
True
another living thing
65
What do prey sometimes consume as food?
5a6b99e1a9e0c9001a4e9faf
True
chew it
368
What do rabbits like to do with their food when foraging?
5a6b99e1a9e0c9001a4e9fb0
True
hunt actively
188
What do large insects do at night after the sun goes down?
5a6b99e1a9e0c9001a4e9fb1
True
grazing
1653
What have cats sometimes been seen doing in the yard of their home?
5a6b99e1a9e0c9001a4e9fb2
True
A true predator can commonly be known as one that kills and eats another living thing. Whereas other types of predator all harm their prey in some way, this form kills them. Predators may hunt actively for prey in pursuit predation, or sit and wait for prey to approach within striking distance, as in ambush predators. Some predators kill large prey and dismember or chew it prior to eating it, such as a jaguar or a human; others may eat their (usually much smaller) prey whole, as does a bottlenose dolphin swallowing a fish, or a snake, duck or stork swallowing a frog. Some animals that kill both large and small prey for their size (domestic cats and dogs are prime examples) may do either depending upon the circumstances; either would devour a large insect whole but dismember a rabbit. Some predation entails venom that subdues a prey creature before the predator ingests the prey by killing, which the box jellyfish does, or disabling it, found in the behavior of the cone shell. In some cases, the venom, as in rattlesnakes and some spiders, contributes to the digestion of the prey item even before the predator begins eating. In other cases, the prey organism may die in the mouth or digestive system of the predator. Baleen whales, for example, eat millions of microscopic plankton at once, the prey being broken down well after entering the whale. Seed predation and egg predation are other forms of true predation, as seeds and eggs represent potential organisms. Predators of this classification need not eat prey entirely. For example, some predators cannot digest bones, while others can. Some may eat only part of an organism, as in grazing (see below), but still consistently cause its direct death.
Animals that consume parts of their prey are considered to be
572661dedd62a815002e833a
Grazing organisms
0
False
Prey that can regrow leaves or arms have learned to deal with what?
572661dedd62a815002e833b
browsing pressure
517
False
Give an example of an animal that feeds off of other animals for reproduction?
572661dedd62a815002e833c
mosquitos
578
False
Give an example of a predator that specializes in eating autotrophic species
572661dedd62a815002e833d
zooplankton
108
False
What is an organism that grazes upon other animals?
5726cbe05951b619008f7e5d
female mosquitos
571
False
What is an organism that can regrow lost arms?
5726cbe05951b619008f7e5e
Starfish
678
False
Do grazing organisms often kill their prey?
5726cbe05951b619008f7e5f
seldom
64
False
How do grass and kelp deal with being grazed upon?
5726cbe05951b619008f7e60
regrows at the base
458
False
mosquitos
578
What organism can kill their prey by biting?
5a6ba2ac4eec6b001a80a4ac
True
sufficient proteins
618
What does zooplankton gain for its offspring by attaching to a host?
5a6ba2ac4eec6b001a80a4ad
True
their offspring
661
What does zooplankton need to get enough protein to help the development of?
5a6ba2ac4eec6b001a80a4ae
True
a small part
246
How much of a starfish does phytoplnakton eat when it attaches to it?
5a6ba2ac4eec6b001a80a4af
True
browsing pressure
517
What does zooplankton have to cope with when eaten by starfish?
5a6ba2ac4eec6b001a80a4b0
True
Grazing organisms may also kill their prey species, but this is seldom the case. While some herbivores like zooplankton live on unicellular phytoplankton and therefore, by the individualized nature of the organism, kill their prey, many only eat a small part of the plant. Grazing livestock may pull some grass out at the roots, but most is simply grazed upon, allowing the plant to regrow once again. Kelp is frequently grazed in subtidal kelp forests, but regrows at the base of the blade continuously to cope with browsing pressure. Animals may also be 'grazed' upon; female mosquitos land on hosts briefly to gain sufficient proteins for the development of their offspring. Starfish may be grazed on, being capable of regenerating lost arms.
Species that rely on few or a single prey are called?
572665eddd62a815002e8398
Parasites
0
False
Predator and prey relationships that improve fitness for both species are classified as this type of relationship.
572665eddd62a815002e8399
mutualism
533
False
Give an example of an animal that will travel several miles in a single day.
572665eddd62a815002e839a
elephant
224
False
What plant associated with kissing during the holidays is also parasitic?
572665eddd62a815002e839b
mistletoe
653
False
How are parasites distiguished from grazers?
5726cf01708984140094d1f9
close association with their host species
146
False
How many hosts do parasites typically have?
5726cf01708984140094d1fa
one or at most a few in their lifetime
393
False
How should parasite classification be viewed instead of as four isolated forms?
5726cf01708984140094d1fb
a continuum
993
False
What does the term symbiosis mean?
5726cf01708984140094d1fc
living together
504
False
close
146
What kind of relationship do grazers have with their host more so than parasites?
5a6bb17b4eec6b001a80a4ca
True
one or at most a few
393
Cholera is limited to how many spots to feed in its lifetime?
5a6bb17b4eec6b001a80a4cb
True
"living together"
503
What is another word for macroscopic?
5a6bb17b4eec6b001a80a4cc
True
four
1017
How many forms are used to classify a single plant?
5a6bb17b4eec6b001a80a4cd
True
the fitness of the host
581
What is damaged in a mutual relationship?
5a6bb17b4eec6b001a80a4ce
True
Parasites can at times be difficult to distinguish from grazers. Their feeding behavior is similar in many ways, however they are noted for their close association with their host species. While a grazing species such as an elephant may travel many kilometers in a single day, grazing on many plants in the process, parasites form very close associations with their hosts, usually having only one or at most a few in their lifetime. This close living arrangement may be described by the term symbiosis, "living together", but unlike mutualism the association significantly reduces the fitness of the host. Parasitic organisms range from the macroscopic mistletoe, a parasitic plant, to microscopic internal parasites such as cholera. Some species however have more loose associations with their hosts. Lepidoptera (butterfly and moth) larvae may feed parasitically on only a single plant, or they may graze on several nearby plants. It is therefore wise to treat this classification system as a continuum rather than four isolated forms.
This species relies on other species to provide a reproductive host for their offspring.
572668ae5951b619008f71dd
ichneumon wasps
474
False
It is believed that parasitoids account for what percentage of the total insect population?
572668ae5951b619008f71de
10%
999
False
During a parasitoid-host interaction what will happen to the host?
572668ae5951b619008f71df
death
109
False
What is the term given to organisms living and feeding on their host?
5726d1e1dd62a815002e914a
Parasitoids
0
False
How many organisms in the insect species are Diptera or Cleoptera parasitoids?
5726d1e1dd62a815002e914b
10%
999
False
Which type of wasp is a well-known example of a parasitoid?
5726d1e1dd62a815002e914c
ichneumon
474
False
How do the larvae of the parasitoid wasps kill their prey?
5726d1e1dd62a815002e914d
devouring the internal organs until finally destroying the nervous system
685
False
living in or on their host and feeding directly upon it
26
How do caterpillars feed during the day?
5a6bb3484eec6b001a80a4f2
True
eventually leading to its death
83
What does a caterpillar living on an organism do to the organism?
5a6bb3484eec6b001a80a4f3
True
close symbiotic
154
What kind of relationship to caterpillars have with their host?
5a6bb3484eec6b001a80a4f4
True
do not kill their hosts instantly
268
How do caterpillars harm their hosts?
5a6bb3484eec6b001a80a4f5
True
as much as 10%
988
What percent of insect species are catepillars?
5a6bb3484eec6b001a80a4f6
True
Parasitoids are organisms living in or on their host and feeding directly upon it, eventually leading to its death. They are much like parasites in their close symbiotic relationship with their host or hosts. Like the previous two classifications parasitoid predators do not kill their hosts instantly. However, unlike parasites, they are very similar to true predators in that the fate of their prey is quite inevitably death. A well-known example of a parasitoids are the ichneumon wasps, solitary insects living a free life as an adult, then laying eggs on or in another species such as a caterpillar. Its larva(e) feed on the growing host causing it little harm at first, but soon devouring the internal organs until finally destroying the nervous system resulting in prey death. By this stage the young wasp(s) are developed sufficiently to move to the next stage in their life cycle. Though limited mainly to the insect order Hymenoptera, Diptera and Coleoptera parasitoids make up as much as 10% of all insect species.
Species that aren't considered specialized are called what?
57266ac25951b619008f7213
opportunistic
138
False
Predator and prey interactions that involve specialization result in a balance called?
57266ac25951b619008f7214
equilibrium
491
False
When a specialized species resorts to foraging and eating other diets, it's like because it's primary food source is?
57266ac25951b619008f7215
scarce
687
False
What do specialized predators and prey rely on to get the upper hand?
57266ac25951b619008f7216
evolution
415
False
What are some predators that will kill and eat nearly anything?
5726d364708984140094d27b
humans, leopards, dogs and alligators
201
False
What term is used for predators and prey being well suited to hunt and evade each other?
5726d364708984140094d27c
evolutionary arms race
415
False
What is the purpose of an evolutionary arms race?
5726d364708984140094d27d
keep the populations of both species in equilibrium
451
False
If scavengers' food becomes scarce, they may turn to what type of diet?
5726d364708984140094d27e
herbivorous
739
False
specialization
43
What is there a large degree of among herbivores?
5a6bb6444eec6b001a80a51a
True
alligators
228
What is an example of a predator that eat only certain prey classes?
5a6bb6444eec6b001a80a51b
True
capturing their preferred prey
297
What are single prey species always well suited for?
5a6bb6444eec6b001a80a51c
True
evolutionary arms race
415
What term describes how predators occasionally switch to a scavenging or herbivorous diet?
5a6bb6444eec6b001a80a51d
True
equilibrium
491
When alligators turn to an herbivorous diet what does this action maintain in their habitat?
5a6bb6444eec6b001a80a51e
True
Among predators there is a large degree of specialization. Many predators specialize in hunting only one species of prey. Others are more opportunistic and will kill and eat almost anything (examples: humans, leopards, dogs and alligators). The specialists are usually particularly well suited to capturing their preferred prey. The prey in turn, are often equally suited to escape that predator. This is called an evolutionary arms race and tends to keep the populations of both species in equilibrium. Some predators specialize in certain classes of prey, not just single species. Some will switch to other prey (with varying degrees of success) when the preferred target is extremely scarce, and they may also resort to scavenging or a herbivorous diet if possible.[citation needed]
What is the the strata of predator prey interaction called?
57266c0d5951b619008f7241
trophic level
240
False
What is the top predator in an environment called?
57266c0d5951b619008f7242
apex predator
1628
False
When a new apex predator moves into an area this changes.
57266c0d5951b619008f7243
trophic pyramid
311
False
What limits the size of a trophic pyramid?
57266c0d5951b619008f7244
energy
637
False
Which organisms are known as primary consumers?
5726d5b1dd62a815002e91be
Organisms that feed on autotrophs
255
False
What makes an organism a secondary consumer?
5726d5b1dd62a815002e91bf
feed on heterotrophs
385
False
What is an organism at the top of the food chain called?
5726d5b1dd62a815002e91c0
apex predator
1030
False
How many levels does a predatory pyramid or heirarchy typically climb?
5726d5b1dd62a815002e91c1
five or six levels
757
False
In what pyramid position is an organism not preyed upon by any other predators?
5726d5b1dd62a815002e91c2
the top
941
False
trophic
240
By what level is prey classified?
5a6bb86b4eec6b001a80a52e
True
seldom goes higher than five or six levels
733
How many levels does the classifying of prey usually go?
5a6bb86b4eec6b001a80a52f
True
may not retain this position
1259
What happens to their position when prey is introduced into another habitat?
5a6bb86b4eec6b001a80a530
True
apex predator
1030
What is an autotroph called when its on top of the food chain?
5a6bb86b4eec6b001a80a531
True
can become an apex predator by default
1614
What happens when you put autotrophs in an area without prey?
5a6bb86b4eec6b001a80a532
True
Predators are often another organism's prey, and likewise prey are often predators. Though blue jays prey on insects, they may in turn be prey for cats and snakes, and snakes may be the prey of hawks. One way of classifying predators is by trophic level. Organisms that feed on autotrophs, the producers of the trophic pyramid, are known as herbivores or primary consumers; those that feed on heterotrophs such as animals are known as secondary consumers. Secondary consumers are a type of carnivore, but there are also tertiary consumers eating these carnivores, quartary consumers eating them, and so forth. Because only a fraction of energy is passed on to the next level, this hierarchy of predation must end somewhere, and very seldom goes higher than five or six levels, and may go only as high as three trophic levels (for example, a lion that preys upon large herbivores such as wildebeest, which in turn eat grasses). A predator at the top of any food chain (that is, one that is preyed upon by no organism) is called an apex predator; examples include the orca, sperm whale, anaconda, Komodo dragon, tiger, lion, tiger shark, Nile crocodile, and most eagles and owls—and even omnivorous humans and grizzly bears. An apex predator in one environment may not retain this position as a top predator if introduced to another habitat, such as a dog among alligators, a skunk in the presence of the great horned owl immune to skunk spray, or a snapping turtle among jaguars; a predatory species introduced into an area where it faces no predators, such as a domestic cat or a dog in some insular environments, can become an apex predator by default.
Dead animals that died as a result of natural causes or non-fatal injuries are called?
57266ea5dd62a815002e849a
carrion
435
False
Why are species can be difficult to classify because they?
57266ea5dd62a815002e849b
eat from multiple levels of the food chain
52
False
What are plants that eat both living species and consume sunlight for energy called?
57266ea5dd62a815002e849c
Carnivorous plants
523
False
What are organisms called that show carnivory and herbivory?
5726d6dedd62a815002e91fe
omnivores
333
False
What can make classification of predators problematic when using a food pyramid?
5726d6dedd62a815002e91ff
Many organisms (of which humans are prime examples) eat from multiple levels of the food chain
0
False
Why would carnivourous plants be difficult to classify into a food pyramid?
5726d6dedd62a815002e9200
producing their own food but also digesting anything that they may trap
599
False
Would it be easy or difficult to classify organims that eat parasites in a food pyramid?
5726d6dedd62a815002e9201
difficult
731
False
multiple
61
From how many levels of the food chain do parasites usually eat?
5a6bb9d44eec6b001a80a542
True
classification
116
What is difficult because parasites eat from more than one food pyramid level?
5a6bb9d44eec6b001a80a543
True
omnivores
333
What are parasites also known as since they eat from more than one level?
5a6bb9d44eec6b001a80a544
True
fearsome
503
What is the nature of the giant panda when its cornered?
5a6bb9d44eec6b001a80a545
True
detritivores
691
What is one thing that giant pandas usually like to eat daily?
5a6bb9d44eec6b001a80a546
True
Many organisms (of which humans are prime examples) eat from multiple levels of the food chain and, thus, make this classification problematic. A carnivore may eat both secondary and tertiary consumers, and its prey may itself be difficult to classify for similar reasons. Organisms showing both carnivory and herbivory are known as omnivores. Even herbivores such as the giant panda may supplement their diet with meat. Scavenging of carrion provides a significant part of the diet of some of the most fearsome predators. Carnivorous plants would be very difficult to fit into this classification, producing their own food but also digesting anything that they may trap. Organisms that eat detritivores or parasites would also be difficult to classify by such a scheme.
Intraguild species consumer other species within?
572671485951b619008f72bf
the same trophic level
470
False
Who proposes the concept of the "survival machine?"
572671485951b619008f72c0
Richard Dawkins
31
False
The argument of the "survival machines" proposes that what two species are competing for the same genes?
572671485951b619008f72c1
both the predator and prey
102
False
Intraguild species may try to consume each other because they are?
572671485951b619008f72c2
potential competitors
512
False
Who described predation by describing competing genes within the predator?
5726d9a0f1498d1400e8ed20
Richard Dawkins
31
False
To what part of the prey does Richard Dawkins refer to as the "survival machine"?
5726d9a0f1498d1400e8ed21
the body
147
False
What are intraguild predators?
5726d9a0f1498d1400e8ed22
those that kill and eat other predators of different species at the same trophic level
406
False
What term is used to decribe predators that prey on their own competition?
5726d9a0f1498d1400e8ed23
Intraguild
381
False
Which version of evolutionary theory is easiest to use when explaining predation as competition?
5726d9a0f1498d1400e8ed24
gene centered view
248
False
competition
76
What did Richard Dawkins think prey eating each other was a form of?
5a6bbca84eec6b001a80a570
True
are potential competitors
508
Why do prey species try to hunt each other?
5a6bbca84eec6b001a80a571
True
intraguild predation
359
What is a term that means one prey species eating another?
5a6bbca84eec6b001a80a572
True
competing for the body (or 'survival machine')
133
What is one thing that makes prey faster at hunting for another prey species?
5a6bbca84eec6b001a80a573
True
the gene centered view
244
What view helps you understand why prey eat each other?
5a6bbca84eec6b001a80a574
True
An alternative view offered by Richard Dawkins is of predation as a form of competition: the genes of both the predator and prey are competing for the body (or 'survival machine') of the prey organism. This is best understood in the context of the gene centered view of evolution. Another manner in which predation and competition are connected is throughout intraguild predation. Intraguild predators are those that kill and eat other predators of different species at the same trophic level, and thus that are potential competitors.
What is the title of a predator that maintains balance with an ecosystem?
57267d25708984140094c7d3
keystone species
138
False
What is the driving force for maintaining an equilibrium within an ecosystem?
57267d25708984140094c7d4
biodiversity
27
False
When a keystone species is lost another species might become?
57267d25708984140094c7d5
dominant
100
False
What is increased by keeping a single species from being dominant in an ecosystem?
5726dc09708984140094d3d5
biodiversity of communities
27
False
Predators that prevent others from becoming dominant are called what?
5726dc09708984140094d3d6
keystone species
138
False
What changes to a keystone predator can seriously affect an ecosystem's equilibrium?
5726dc09708984140094d3d7
Introduction or removal of this predator, or changes in its population density
244
False
becoming dominant
91
What does one singe species usually prevent a predator from doing?
5a6bbe334eec6b001a80a584
True
keystone species
138
What are single species also known as?
5a6bbe334eec6b001a80a585
True
profound
170
What influence does one single species have on an ecosystem?
5a6bbe334eec6b001a80a586
True
drastic cascading effects
333
What kind of effect happens when a single species population changes?
5a6bbe334eec6b001a80a587
True
biodiversity
27
What does a single species dominating the area help promote in a community?
5a6bbe334eec6b001a80a588
True
Predators may increase the biodiversity of communities by preventing a single species from becoming dominant. Such predators are known as keystone species and may have a profound influence on the balance of organisms in a particular ecosystem. Introduction or removal of this predator, or changes in its population density, can have drastic cascading effects on the equilibrium of many other populations in the ecosystem. For example, grazers of a grassland may prevent a single dominant species from taking over.
What animal's food sources were greatly affected with the loss of wolves in Yellowstone National Park?
572681e4dd62a815002e879e
beavers
306
False
Broader ecological impacts can occur when an apex predator is removed, in the case of Yellowstone, this includes alteration to the?
572681e4dd62a815002e879f
hydrological features
503
False
Loose soil from lack of trees along the river bed resulted in?
572681e4dd62a815002e87a0
channel incision
676
False
The removal of what animal from Yellowstonw National Park affected beaver populations?
5726dd8e708984140094d40f
wolves
19
False
How did the removal of wolves from Yellowstone affect beaver habitats?
5726dd8e708984140094d410
habitat became territory for grazing.
436
False
Why were plant populations affected after wolves were eliminated from Yellowstone?
5726dd8e708984140094d411
Without predation, herbivores began to over-graze many woody browse species
102
False
How did wolves in Yellowstone help beavers eat well?
5726dd8e708984140094d412
wolves often kept animals from grazing in riparian areas, which protected beavers from having their food sources encroached upon
232
False
had profound impacts on the trophic pyramid
57
What changes happened when herbivores were eliminated in Yellowstone?
5a6bbfa34eec6b001a80a58e
True
in riparian areas
271
Where did beavers keep animals from grazing?
5a6bbfa34eec6b001a80a58f
True
beavers
306
What animals were protected when herbivores were in Yellowstone?
5a6bbfa34eec6b001a80a590
True
beaver populations
407
What group was directly affected when herbivores were removed from the park?
5a6bbfa34eec6b001a80a591
True
creeks and streams
533
What natural features work better when herbivores are present?
5a6bbfa34eec6b001a80a592
True
The elimination of wolves from Yellowstone National Park had profound impacts on the trophic pyramid. Without predation, herbivores began to over-graze many woody browse species, affecting the area's plant populations. In addition, wolves often kept animals from grazing in riparian areas, which protected beavers from having their food sources encroached upon. The removal of wolves had a direct effect on beaver populations, as their habitat became territory for grazing. Furthermore, predation keeps hydrological features such as creeks and streams in normal working order. Increased browsing on willows and conifers along Blacktail Creek due to a lack of predation caused channel incision because they helped slow the water down and hold the soil in place.
At most there are how many step of predator-prey interaction?
572682cd708984140094c881
maximum of four stages
47
False
What is the first step of the predator-prey interaction?
572682cd708984140094c882
Detection of prey
71
False
How does the prey improve their evolutionary abilities through predator-prey interaction?
572682cd708984140094c883
array of adaptations
617
False
Who doesn't benefit from the predator-prey interaction?
572682cd708984140094c884
the individuals preyed upon
344
False
How many stages can predation be divided into?
5726de8ff1498d1400e8ee0e
maximum of four stages
47
False
What are the four stages of predation?
5726de8ff1498d1400e8ee0f
Detection of prey, attack, capture and finally consumption
71
False
What dilemma has resulted in many predatory adaptations?
5726de8ff1498d1400e8ee10
obtain food or avoid being eaten
543
False
In predation's four stages, in what stage is consumption?
5726de8ff1498d1400e8ee11
final
110
False
four
58
How many categories can prey be divided into?
5a6bc2004eec6b001a80a598
True
the prey
246
What group seems to have changed the most through evoulution?
5a6bc2004eec6b001a80a599
True
evolutionary arms race
478
What term is used to describe how prey evades a predator?
5a6bc2004eec6b001a80a59a
True
Detection
71
What is the first stage called when prey notices a predator?
5a6bc2004eec6b001a80a59b
True
their respective abilities
513
What charactheristics help divide prey into four groups?
5a6bc2004eec6b001a80a59c
True
The act of predation can be broken down into a maximum of four stages: Detection of prey, attack, capture and finally consumption. The relationship between predator and prey is one that is typically beneficial to the predator, and detrimental to the prey species. Sometimes, however, predation has indirect benefits to the prey species, though the individuals preyed upon themselves do not benefit. This means that, at each applicable stage, predator and prey species are in an evolutionary arms race to maximize their respective abilities to obtain food or avoid being eaten. This interaction has resulted in a vast array of adaptations in both groups.
Which adaptation helps both predators and prey?
5726dfde5951b619008f80ed
camouflage
66
False
What term is used for an adaptation that enables species to blend into the background?
5726dfde5951b619008f80ee
camouflage
66
False
Camoflauge consists of what else, in addition to color?
5726dfde5951b619008f80ef
shape and pattern
219
False
Ogranisms use camoflauge to blend with their habitat and what else?
5726dfde5951b619008f80f0
other organisms
379
False
camouflage
66
What characteristic helps only prey not be seen?
5a6bc8b74eec6b001a80a5a2
True
shape and pattern
219
What else can be used to describe dead leaves besides their color?
5a6bc8b74eec6b001a80a5a3
True
crypsis
88
What is it a form of when lions can see a single zebra?
5a6bc8b74eec6b001a80a5a4
True
dead leaves
363
What does a praying mantis use to build its home?
5a6bc8b74eec6b001a80a5a5
True
focus on a single target
487
What method does a praying mantis use when hunting?
5a6bc8b74eec6b001a80a5a6
True
One adaptation helping both predators and prey avoid detection is camouflage, a form of crypsis where species have an appearance that helps them blend into the background. Camouflage consists of not only color but also shape and pattern. The background upon which the organism is seen can be both its environment (e.g., the praying mantis to the right resembling dead leaves) or other organisms (e.g., zebras' stripes blend in with each other in a herd, making it difficult for lions to focus on a single target). The more convincing camouflage is, the more likely it is that the organism will go unseen.
What is the phenomenon where an organism looks like another species called?
5726e0c55951b619008f8123
Mimicry
0
False
Which organism looks like a bee but cannot sting?
5726e0c55951b619008f8124
drone fly
119
False
A moth that has markings resembling an owl's eyes is an example of what phenomenon?
5726e0c55951b619008f8125
Mimicry
0
False
What is a defensive way that mimicry can be used?
5726e0c55951b619008f8126
startling the predator and giving it time to escape
432
False
How can predators use mimicry?
5726e0c55951b619008f8127
to lure their prey
516
False
a bee
153
What does a female firefly look like, but isn't able to sting?
5a6bcae74eec6b001a80a5ac
True
light signals of other species
607
What do drone flies copy to attract male fireflies?
5a6bcae74eec6b001a80a5ad
True
are then captured and eaten
680
What happens when drone flies attract male fireflies?
5a6bcae74eec6b001a80a5ae
True
an owl's eyes
328
What do the markings on female fireflies resemble?
5a6bcae74eec6b001a80a5af
True
to escape
474
Why does a female firefly use the markings on its wings?
5a6bcae74eec6b001a80a5b0
True
Mimicry is a related phenomenon where an organism has a similar appearance to another species. One such example is the drone fly, which looks a lot like a bee, yet is completely harmless as it cannot sting at all. Another example of batesian mimicry is the io moth, (Automeris io), which has markings on its wings that resemble an owl's eyes. When an insectivorous predator disturbs the moth, it reveals its hind wings, temporarily startling the predator and giving it time to escape. Predators may also use mimicry to lure their prey, however. Female fireflies of the genus Photuris, for example, copy the light signals of other species, thereby attracting male fireflies, which are then captured and eaten (see aggressive mimicry).
What makes predation successful?
5726e1ae708984140094d49b
gain of energy
40
False
Treating the hunt as a cost-benefit scenario is referred to a what?
5726e1ae708984140094d49c
optimal foraging theory
615
False
In optimal foraging theory, how are costs and benefits measured?
5726e1ae708984140094d49d
energy gain per unit time
752
False
energy
48
What benefit do small fish gain when they successfully avoid a predator?
5a6bcd604eec6b001a80a5b6
True
optimal foraging theory,
615
What theory describes how prey fish take advantage of a predator?
5a6bcd604eec6b001a80a5b7
True
energy gain per unit time
752
How is the behavior of prey fish around an uninterested predator measured?
5a6bcd604eec6b001a80a5b8
True
energetic
84
What cost is involved in evading a predator?
5a6bcd604eec6b001a80a5b9
True
well
290
How well do small fish eat when they are in an aquarium?
5a6bcd604eec6b001a80a5ba
True
While successful predation results in a gain of energy, hunting invariably involves energetic costs as well. When hunger is not an issue, in general most predators will not seek to attack prey since the costs outweigh the benefits. For instance, a large predatory fish like a shark that is well fed in an aquarium will typically ignore the smaller fish swimming around it (while the prey fish take advantage of the fact that the apex predator is apparently uninterested). Surplus killing represents a deviation from this type of behaviour. The treatment of consumption in terms of cost-benefit analysis is known as optimal foraging theory, and has been quite successful in the study of animal behavior. In general, costs and benefits are considered in energy gain per unit time, though other factors are also important, such as essential nutrients that have no caloric value but are necessary for survival and health.
What hunting style allows chimpanzees to prey upon colobus monkeys?
5726e3165951b619008f8171
Social predation
0
False
What is an example of co-coperation between predators of different species?
5726e3165951b619008f8172
humans with the aid of falcons or dogs, or fishing with cormorants
658
False
What is a species that does not perform social predation?
5726e3165951b619008f8173
domestic cats)
818
False
What are some species that use social predation to prey on animals much larger than themselves?
5726e3165951b619008f8174
Lions, hyenas, wolves, dholes, African wild dogs, and piranhas
141
False
Extreme specialization
527
What method does a rabbit use to evade a group of predators?
5a6bcfa54eec6b001a80a5c0
True
humans
658
Who aids a rabbit to escape a predator through cooperation?
5a6bcfa54eec6b001a80a5c1
True
instinct alone
883
What do some fish use to kill larger creatures?
5a6bcfa54eec6b001a80a5c2
True
Social predation
0
What method allows herbivores to attack a group of predators?
5a6bcfa54eec6b001a80a5c3
True
Extreme specialization of roles
527
What did Harris realize that happens between humans and chimpanzees so they can work together?
5a6bcfa54eec6b001a80a5c4
True
Social predation offers the possibility of predators to kill creatures larger than those that members of the species could overpower singly. Lions, hyenas, wolves, dholes, African wild dogs, and piranhas can kill large herbivores that single animals of the same species usually don't dispatch. Social predation allows some animals to organize hunts of creatures that would easily escape a single predator; thus chimpanzees can prey upon colobus monkeys, and Harris's hawks can cut off all possible escapes for a doomed rabbit. Extreme specialization of roles is evident in some hunting that requires co-operation between predators of very different species: humans with the aid of falcons or dogs, or fishing with cormorants. Social predation is often very complex behavior, and not all social creatures (for example, domestic cats) perform it. Even without complex intelligence but instinct alone, some ant species can destroy much larger creatures.
Well-fed animals in captivity can become friends with prey animals due to what motivation?
5726e5995951b619008f81b9
mutual advantage or fear of reprisal from human masters
389
False
Why would cats and dogs potentially become companions in captivity?
5726e5995951b619008f81ba
warmth, companionship, and even protection
706
False
Captive animals can distinguish co-inhabitats from what other group?
5726e5995951b619008f81bb
wild ones outside the area
224
False
from peaceful coexistence to close companionship
279
What kind of relationships to people have in rural areas?
5a6bd2294eec6b001a80a5ca
True
fear of reprisal
409
Why is there less crime in rural areas?
5a6bd2294eec6b001a80a5cb
True
will not be tolerated
493
How do residents feel about someone harming a person in a rural area?
5a6bd2294eec6b001a80a5cc
True
companionship, and even protection
714
What are two things neighbors depend on each other for in rural areas?
5a6bd2294eec6b001a80a5cd
True
wild ones outside the area
224
What can people from rural areas differentiate captive animals from?
5a6bd2294eec6b001a80a5ce
True
It has been observed that well-fed predator animals in a lax captivity (for instance, pet or farm animals) will usually differentiate between putative prey animals who are familiar co-inhabitants in the same human area from wild ones outside the area. This interaction can range from peaceful coexistence to close companionship; motivation to ignore the predatory instinct may result from mutual advantage or fear of reprisal from human masters who have made clear that harming co-inhabitants will not be tolerated. Pet cats and pet mice, for example, may live together in the same human residence without incident as companions. Pet cats and pet dogs under human mastership often depend on each other for warmth, companionship, and even protection, particularly in rural areas.
What are some predators of the electric eel?
5726e64b708984140094d535
(anacondas, caimans, egrets, jaguars, mountain lions, giant otters, humans, dogs, and cats
230
False
What defense does a zebra have against predators?
5726e64b708984140094d536
strong kick that can maim or kill
699
False
What defenses does a domestic cat have against predators?
5726e64b708984140094d537
formidable teeth and claws
541
False
The electric eel uses electric shock for defense and what other purpose?
5726e64b708984140094d538
to kill prey
180
False
their usual methods
28
What method is used by giant otters to prevent their prey from attacking them?
5a6bd5164eec6b001a80a5d4
True
anacondas, caimans, egrets, jaguars, mountain lions
231
What are a few predators of giant otters?
5a6bd5164eec6b001a80a5d5
True
apex predator
422
What status does a giant otter keep among other predators?
5a6bd5164eec6b001a80a5d6
True
its formidable teeth and claws
537
What does a caiman use to defend itself agains a predator?
5a6bd5164eec6b001a80a5d7
True
fish
348
What is the favorite food of an electric eel?
5a6bd5164eec6b001a80a5d8
True
Predatory animals often use their usual methods of attacking prey to inflict or to threaten grievous injury to their own predators. The electric eel uses the same electric current to kill prey and to defend itself against animals (anacondas, caimans, egrets, jaguars, mountain lions, giant otters, humans, dogs, and cats) that ordinarily prey upon fish similar to an electric eel in size; the electric eel thus remains an apex predator in a predator-rich environment. A predator small enough to be prey for others, the domestic cat uses its formidable teeth and claws as weapons against animals that might confuse a cat with easier prey. Many non-predatory prey animals, such as a zebra, can give a strong kick that can maim or kill, while others charge with tusks or horns.
Is a species always the antagonist in a mobbing attack, or can it play roles on both sides?
5726e794f1498d1400e8ef74
species can be on both ends of a mobbing attack
239
False
Which bird is an example of being both a predator and defender in mobbing attacks?
5726e794f1498d1400e8ef75
Crows
288
False
Will birds often mob animals that do not pose a threat?
5726e794f1498d1400e8ef76
On occasion
499
False
Crows will cooperate with small birds to drive away what predators?
5726e794f1498d1400e8ef77
hawks or larger mammalian predators
462
False
Mobbing
0
What is an activity usually done by mammalian predators?
5a6bd8644eec6b001a80a5de
True
show up
132
What will larger predators do when they see mobbing taking place?
5a6bd8644eec6b001a80a5df
True
watch
168
What is one thing hawks do when they see mobbing?
5a6bd8644eec6b001a80a5e0
True
smaller songbirds
319
What are hawks often mobbed by when they try to eat their eggs?
5a6bd8644eec6b001a80a5e1
True
cooperate with smaller birds
419
What do hawks do when they want to drive away crows?
5a6bd8644eec6b001a80a5e2
True
Mobbing can be an interspecies activity: it is common for birds to respond to mobbing calls of a different species. Many birds will show up at the sight of mobbing and watch and call, but not participate. It should also be noted that some species can be on both ends of a mobbing attack. Crows are frequently mobbed by smaller songbirds as they prey on eggs and young from these birds' nests, but these same crows will cooperate with smaller birds to drive away hawks or larger mammalian predators. On occasion, birds will mob animals that pose no threat.
What scientific term is used to describe  organisms that are brightly colored as a warning to predators?
5726e8eb708984140094d589
Aposematism
0
False
Does aposematism benefit only the organism ddirectly, or the entire population as a whole?
5726e8eb708984140094d58a
species as a whole
646
False
How does aposematism help a species population?
5726e8eb708984140094d58b
Upon being harmed (e.g., stung) by their prey, the appearance in such an organism will be remembered as something to avoid
440
False
What visual cues are characteristic of aposematism?
5726e8eb708984140094d58c
bright, easily recognizable and unique colors and patterns
255
False
Aposematism
0
What term means how predators avoid a dangerous prey?
5a6bdaf94eec6b001a80a5e8
True
bright, easily recognizable and unique colors and patterns
255
What do predators use to warn their prey?
5a6bdaf94eec6b001a80a5e9
True
decreased predation attempts by avian predators
391
What benefit does camoflage give the Variable Checkerspot butterfly?
5a6bdaf94eec6b001a80a5ea
True
the prey species as a whole
637
What group benefits from using camoflage if an organism is killed using it?
5a6bdaf94eec6b001a80a5eb
True
something to avoid
544
How does a predator see a species using camflage as?
5a6bdaf94eec6b001a80a5ec
True
Aposematism, where organisms are brightly colored as a warning to predators, is the antithesis of camouflage. Some organisms pose a threat to their predators—for example they may be poisonous, or able to harm them physically. Aposematic coloring involves bright, easily recognizable and unique colors and patterns. For example, bright coloration in Variable Checkerspot butterflies leads to decreased predation attempts by avian predators. Upon being harmed (e.g., stung) by their prey, the appearance in such an organism will be remembered as something to avoid. While that particular prey organism may be killed, the coloring benefits the prey species as a whole.
What do predators depend on for survival?
5726ee155951b619008f82ad
prey
157
False
Prey that is eaten is simply replaced by anohter when the population is close to what?
5726ee155951b619008f82ae
carrying capacity
505
False
Predators lower what aspects of their prey?
5726ee155951b619008f82af
survival and fecundity
52
False
make room
441
What does one predator species do for another if its reaching carrying capacity?
5a6be2214eec6b001a80a5f2
True
survival and fecundity
52
What is reduced in a predator species if it reaches carrying capacity?
5a6be2214eec6b001a80a5f3
True
interact
175
What do different species of predators do when they encounter each other?
5a6be2214eec6b001a80a5f4
True
survival
233
What do different predators sometimes need each other for?
5a6be2214eec6b001a80a5f5
True
a higher level of organization
97
What helps more than one group of predators interact?
5a6be2214eec6b001a80a5f6
True
It is fairly clear that predators tend to lower the survival and fecundity of their prey, but on a higher level of organization, populations of predator and prey species also interact. It is obvious that predators depend on prey for survival, and this is reflected in predator populations being affected by changes in prey populations. It is not so obvious, however, that predators affect prey populations. Eating a prey organism may simply make room for another if the prey population is approaching its carrying capacity.
What physical disadvantages do humans have against other apex predators?
5726efce708984140094d677
speed, bone density, weight, and physical strength
101
False
For how long have humans been using stone tools and weapons?
5726efce708984140094d678
well over a million years
555
False
What are humans' primary competitors?
5726efce708984140094d679
other humans
794
False
What is one known istance of cannibalism?
5726efce708984140094d67a
the Donner party
1130
False
With what species do humans hunt in partnership?
5726efce708984140094d67b
domestic dog
920
False
speed, bone density, weight, and physical strength
101
In what areas do bears have an advantage compared to big cats?
5a6be76a4eec6b001a80a5fc
True
cleverness
238
What is one thing bears use to find their prey?
5a6be76a4eec6b001a80a5fd
True
they are social animals with highly developed social behaviors
411
How are bears socially instead of being solitary?
5a6be76a4eec6b001a80a5fe
True
for well over a million years
551
How long have bears existed?
5a6be76a4eec6b001a80a5ff
True
since they first evolved
634
How long have bears been apex predators?
5a6be76a4eec6b001a80a600
True
A lone naked human is at a physical disadvantage to other comparable apex predators in areas such as speed, bone density, weight, and physical strength. Humans also lack innate weaponry such as claws. Without crafted weapons, society, or cleverness, a lone human can easily be defeated by fit predatory animals, such as wild dogs, big cats and bears (see Man-eater). However, humans are not solitary creatures; they are social animals with highly developed social behaviors. Early humans, such as Homo erectus, have been using stone tools and weapons for well over a million years. Anatomically modern humans have been apex predators since they first evolved, and many species of carnivorous megafauna actively avoid interacting with humans; the primary environmental competitor for a human is other humans. The one subspecies of carnivorous megafauna that does interact frequently with humans in predatory roles is the domestic dog, but usually as a partner in predation especially if they hunt together. Cannibalism has occurred in various places, among various cultures, and for various reasons. At least a few people, such as the Donner party, are said to have resorted to it in desperation.
What two apex predators do not have a small population size?
5726f28b5951b619008f8323
humans and dogs
96
False
Do apex predators generally have a large or small population?
5726f28b5951b619008f8324
small
7
False
Which principle states that if two species ecologicl niches/ overlap, both species are likely to be in competition with one another?
5726f28b5951b619008f8325
competitive exclusion principle
337
False
What other factor is relevant to the competitive exclusion principle?
5726f28b5951b619008f8326
prey abundance
650
False
an abundance of prey and no competition or niche overlap
214
What are two situations apex predators always live with in the wild?
5a6beda24eec6b001a80a606
True
small
7
What kind of population do prey populations usually have?
5a6beda24eec6b001a80a607
True
competition
459
When two species have a small population, what is likely to happen between them?
5a6beda24eec6b001a80a608
True
The competitive exclusion principle
333
What principle states that when two prey species have small populations they will compete with each other?
5a6beda24eec6b001a80a609
True
small population size
7
What is one thing that humans and dogs have that applies to other apex predators?
5a6beda24eec6b001a80a60a
True
Having small population size is a characteristic almost universally inherent to apex predators, humans and dogs by far the most blatant exceptions. Low numbers wouldn't be a problem for apex predators if there was an abundance of prey and no competition or niche overlap, a scenario that is rarely, if ever, encountered in the wild. The competitive exclusion principle states that if two species' ecological niches overlap, there is a very high likelihood of competition as both species are in direct competition for the same resources. This factor alone could lead to the extirpation of one or both species, but is compounded by the added factor of prey abundance.
When a predator hunts too much of its prey, causing both populations to dissappear, the phenomenon is called what?
5726f429dd62a815002e9622
coextinction
1017
False
Are predator's effects on prey easiest to see in the short-term or long-term?
5726f429dd62a815002e9623
longer period of time
102
False
The rise and fall of predator and prey populations are similar to what, in the US economy?
5726f429dd62a815002e9624
boom and bust cycle of economics
263
False
in the short-term
55
When are the effects of economics hard to see?
5a6bf3af4eec6b001a80a610
True
the boom and bust cycle of economics
259
What is the cycle of complete extinction similar to?
5a6bf3af4eec6b001a80a611
True
coextinction
1017
What risk to conservationists encounter when they cause the predator population to dip?
5a6bf3af4eec6b001a80a612
True
the prey population will lower to numbers that are too scarce for the predators to find
331
What happens if wildlife conservationists limit prey populations?
5a6bf3af4eec6b001a80a613
True
will be able to recover
1735
What does introducing a new prey species guarantee for the weaker predators?
5a6bf3af4eec6b001a80a614
True
A predator's effect on its prey species is hard to see in the short-term. However, if observed over a longer period of time, it is seen that the population of a predator will correlationally rise and fall with the population of its prey in a cycle similar to the boom and bust cycle of economics. If a predator overhunts its prey, the prey population will lower to numbers that are too scarce for the predators to find. This will cause the predator population to dip, decreasing the predation pressure on the prey population. The decrease in predators will allow the small number of prey left to slowly increase their population to somewhere around their previous abundance, which will allow the predator population to increase in response to the greater availability of resources. If a predator hunts its prey species to numbers too low to sustain the population in the short term, they can cause not only the extinction or extirpation of the prey but also the extinction of their own species, a phenomenon known as coextinction. This is a risk that wildlife conservationists encounter when introducing predators to prey that have not coevolved with the same or similar predators. This possibility depends largely on how well and how fast the prey species is able to adapt to the introduced predator. One way that this risk can be avoided is if the predator finds an alternative prey species or if an alternative prey species is introduced (something that ecologists and environmentalists try to avoid whenever possible). An alternative prey species would help to lift some of the predation pressure from the initial prey species, giving the population a chance to recover, however it does not guarantee that the initial prey species will be able to recover as the initial prey population may have been hunted to below sustainable numbers or to complete extinction.
How can natural predators benefit crops?
5726f545708984140094d6fd
reducing damage to crops, and are one alternative to the use of chemical agents such as pesticides
565
False
How are predators beneficial to agriculture?
5726f545708984140094d6fe
controlling pests
458
False
If removing an introduced species entirely isn't a posibility, what is the next best outcome?
5726f545708984140094d6ff
keeping its abundance down
164
False
Predators are used in conservation to reduce what type of species from the environment?
5726f545708984140094d700
introduced species
135
False
reducing damage
565
What is one way pesticides benefit crops?
5a6bfdbf4eec6b001a80a61a
True
unforeseen problems
361
What is one thing that can happen if you use pesticides?
5a6bfdbf4eec6b001a80a61b
True
keeping its abundance down
164
What is the only thing that is possible when removing pests?
5a6bfdbf4eec6b001a80a61c
True
conservation biology
403
In what area are agricultural pests used for research?
5a6bfdbf4eec6b001a80a61d
True
pesticides
653
What chemical agent is used to control introduced species?
5a6bfdbf4eec6b001a80a61e
True
Predators may be put to use in conservation efforts to control introduced species. Although the aim in this situation is to remove the introduced species entirely, keeping its abundance down is often the only possibility. Predators from its natural range may be introduced to control populations, though in some cases this has little effect, and may even cause unforeseen problems. Besides their use in conservation biology, predators are also important for controlling pests in agriculture. Natural predators are an environmentally friendly and sustainable way of reducing damage to crops, and are one alternative to the use of chemical agents such as pesticides.
Marvel_Comics
Captain America, Thor and Ultron all inhabit what fictional milieu?
57265f07dd62a815002e82f0
Marvel Universe
439
False
Fictional placements within this setting are modeled off what?
57265f07dd62a815002e82f1
real-life cities
483
False
Spiderman's fictional city is based off what real American location?
57265f07dd62a815002e82f2
New York
687
False
What Marvel character's stories are set in an area resembling the American Southwest?
57265f07dd62a815002e82f3
Hulk
700
False
Which two groups of Marvel crimefighters are based in a fictional version of New York City?
57265f07dd62a815002e82f4
the Fantastic Four, the Avengers
532
False
New York City
608
Where is the character of Ant-Man based?
5a5f7d17eae51e001ab14b03
True
Salem Center, New York
673
Where is Marvel located?
5a5f7d17eae51e001ab14b04
True
Hulk's
700
Which super villain lives in the American southwest?
5a5f7d17eae51e001ab14b05
True
the Marvel Universe
435
What were many real-life locations based off of?
5a5f7d17eae51e001ab14b06
True
the Avengers
552
Which group fought the Fantastic Four in New York City?
5a5f7d17eae51e001ab14b07
True
Marvel counts among its characters such well-known superheroes as Spider-Man, Iron Man, Captain America, Wolverine, Thor, Hulk, Ant-Man, such teams as the Avengers, the Guardians of the Galaxy, the Fantastic Four, the Inhumans and the X-Men, and antagonists such as Doctor Doom, The Enchantress, Green Goblin, Ultron, Doctor Octopus, Thanos, Magneto and Loki. Most of Marvel's fictional characters operate in a single reality known as the Marvel Universe, with locations that mirror real-life cities. Characters such as Spider-Man, the Fantastic Four, the Avengers, Daredevil and Doctor Strange are based in New York City, whereas the X-Men have historically been based in Salem Center, New York and Hulk's stories often have been set in the American Southwest.
Who originally founded Marvel Comics?
57266134dd62a815002e8320
Martin Goodman
0
False
What was the original name of Marvel Comics?
57266134dd62a815002e8321
Timely Publications
79
False
When was Marvel founded?
57266134dd62a815002e8322
1939
102
False
In what city was Marvel based when it was founded?
57266134dd62a815002e8323
New York City
373
False
What was Abraham Goodman's official title when Marvel was founded?
57266134dd62a815002e8324
publisher
510
False
1933
189
When was Martin Goodman born?
5a5f7ddfeae51e001ab14b0d
True
Marvel Comics
50
What was Timely Publications originally called?
5a5f7ddfeae51e001ab14b0e
True
Martin Goodman
108
Who created the western pulp genre?
5a5f7ddfeae51e001ab14b0f
True
1939
102
When did Timely Publications become Marvel Comics?
5a5f7ddfeae51e001ab14b10
True
Abraham Goodman
473
Who decided to rename Timely Publications to Marvel Comics?
5a5f7ddfeae51e001ab14b11
True
Martin Goodman founded the company later known as Marvel Comics under the name Timely Publications in 1939. Martin Goodman, a pulp magazine publisher who had started with a Western pulp in 1933, was expanding into the emerging—and by then already highly popular—new medium of comic books. Launching his new line from his existing company's offices at 330 West 42nd Street, New York City, he officially held the titles of editor, managing editor, and business manager, with Abraham Goodman officially listed as publisher.
What was the cover date on Marvel Comics #1?
572663b25951b619008f713d
Oct. 1939
58
False
Who was Marvel/Timely's first true full-time editor?
572663b25951b619008f713e
Joe Simon
542
False
Besides Simon, who co-created Captain America?
572663b25951b619008f713f
Jack Kirby
602
False
What is the name of the character created by Carl Burgos?
572663b25951b619008f7140
the Human Torch
134
False
In what issue was Namor, The Sub-Mariner introduced?
572663b25951b619008f7141
Marvel Comics #1
28
False
900,000
357
How many copies did the first printing of Marvel Comics #1 sell?
5a5f7f65eae51e001ab14b17
True
1941
727
What year did Joe Simon join Timely?
5a5f7f65eae51e001ab14b18
True
1939
63
When was Funnies, Inc. founded?
5a5f7f65eae51e001ab14b19
True
writer-artist
528
What was Bill Everett's job title?
5a5f7f65eae51e001ab14b1a
True
Spring 1941
875
When did Goodman disband Timely Comics, Inc?
5a5f7f65eae51e001ab14b1b
True
Timely's first publication, Marvel Comics #1 (cover dated Oct. 1939), included the first appearance of Carl Burgos' android superhero the Human Torch, and the first appearances of Bill Everett's anti-hero Namor the Sub-Mariner, among other features. The issue was a great success, with it and a second printing the following month selling, combined, nearly 900,000 copies. While its contents came from an outside packager, Funnies, Inc., Timely had its own staff in place by the following year. The company's first true editor, writer-artist Joe Simon, teamed with artist and emerging industry notable Jack Kirby to create one of the first patriotically themed superheroes, Captain America, in Captain America Comics #1 (March 1941). It, too, proved a hit, with sales of nearly one million. Goodman formed Timely Comics, Inc., beginning with comics cover-dated April 1941 or Spring 1941.
What cartoon humorist did some high profile stories for Marvel in the early years?
572668b2f1498d1400e8dec2
Basil Wolverton
313
False
What was the name of the humorous feature penned by Wolverton?
572668b2f1498d1400e8dec3
"Powerhouse Pepper"
352
False
What duo of kid-themed characters were featured in early Marvel issues?
572668b2f1498d1400e8dec4
Ziggy Pig and Silly Seal
484
False
What early Marvel character may have been envisioned as a female counterpoint to Captain America?
572668b2f1498d1400e8dec5
Miss America
202
False
The most popular early Marvel heroes were collectively and colloquially known as what?
572668b2f1498d1400e8dec6
"big three"
67
False
the Whizzer, Miss America, the Destroyer, the original Vision, and the Angel
189
Which characters matched the success of the big three?
5a5f80fdeae51e001ab14b21
True
Basil Wolverton
313
Who created Miss America?
5a5f80fdeae51e001ab14b22
True
Powerhouse Pepper
353
What cartoon was the Destroyer featured in?
5a5f80fdeae51e001ab14b23
True
Super Rabbit and the duo Ziggy Pig and Silly Seal
459
What animal characters were featured in Powerhouse Pepper?
5a5f80fdeae51e001ab14b24
True
modern-day retcon appearances and flashbacks
136
Where do the animal comic characters sometimes continue to appear?
5a5f80fdeae51e001ab14b25
True
While no other Timely character would achieve the success of these "big three", some notable heroes—many of which continue to appear in modern-day retcon appearances and flashbacks—include the Whizzer, Miss America, the Destroyer, the original Vision, and the Angel. Timely also published one of humor cartoonist Basil Wolverton's best-known features, "Powerhouse Pepper", as well as a line of children's funny-animal comics featuring popular characters like Super Rabbit and the duo Ziggy Pig and Silly Seal.
Marvel Comics was part of many entities having what relationship with Timely?
57266b06dd62a815002e843e
shell companies
195
False
When were all of Goodman's comic entities officially put under the moniker of Marvel Comics?
57266b06dd62a815002e843f
1961
499
False
By what other name were some Marvel-related comic books published?
57266b06dd62a815002e8440
"A Marvel Magazine"
420
False
Under what handle were Marvel's detective fiction comics published?
57266b06dd62a815002e8441
Marvel Mystery Comics
289
False
1961
499
When did Goodman begin partnering with shell companies?
5a5f81bdeae51e001ab14b2b
True
shell companies
195
What were the biggest danger to Goodman's business strategy?
5a5f81bdeae51e001ab14b2c
True
1946
397
When were comics first published under the label Marvel Magazine?
5a5f81bdeae51e001ab14b2d
True
May 1944
316
When was the first Marvel Mystery Comic published?
5a5f81bdeae51e001ab14b2e
True
All Surprise Comics
365
What was the first comic to be published after Goodman formally adopted the name Marvel Comics?
5a5f81bdeae51e001ab14b2f
True
Goodman's business strategy involved having his various magazines and comic books published by a number of corporations all operating out of the same office and with the same staff. One of these shell companies through which Timely Comics was published was named Marvel Comics by at least Marvel Mystery Comics #55 (May 1944). As well, some comics' covers, such as All Surprise Comics #12 (Winter 1946–47), were labeled "A Marvel Magazine" many years before Goodman would formally adopt the name in 1961.
Which writer and artist was behind the Sub-Mariner?
57267044dd62a815002e84d2
Bill Everett
635
False
What was Marvel's major offshoot with Westerns, war stories, and monster comics called?
57267044dd62a815002e84d3
Atlas
0
False
What was Dan DeCarlo's spooky but humorous comic aimed at kids called?
57267044dd62a815002e84d4
Homer the Happy Ghost
340
False
DeCarlo also penned a knock-off of what teen comic superstar?
57267044dd62a815002e84d5
Archie Andrews
418
False
What was the name of DeCarlo's main character in his humorous teen series?
57267044dd62a815002e84d6
Homer Hooper
399
False
1953
498
When did Atlas launch?
5a5f910eeae51e001ab14b35
True
Stan Lee
771
Who ran Atlas?
5a5f910eeae51e001ab14b36
True
late 1953 to mid-1954
493
When did the Archie Andrews comics run?
5a5f910eeae51e001ab14b37
True
Atlas
435
What company successfully revived several superheroes?
5a5f910eeae51e001ab14b38
True
Syd Shores
545
What was another name for the Human Torch?
5a5f910eeae51e001ab14b39
True
Atlas, rather than innovate, took a proven route of following popular trends in television and movies—Westerns and war dramas prevailing for a time, drive-in movie monsters another time—and even other comic books, particularly the EC horror line. Atlas also published a plethora of children's and teen humor titles, including Dan DeCarlo's Homer the Happy Ghost (à la Casper the Friendly Ghost) and Homer Hooper (à la Archie Andrews). Atlas unsuccessfully attempted to revive superheroes from late 1953 to mid-1954, with the Human Torch (art by Syd Shores and Dick Ayers, variously), the Sub-Mariner (drawn and most stories written by Bill Everett), and Captain America (writer Stan Lee, artist John Romita Sr.). Atlas did not achieve any breakout hits and, according to Stan Lee, Atlas survived chiefly because it produced work quickly, cheaply, and at a passable quality.
Marvel's first team of superheroes was known by what alliterative name?
57267521f1498d1400e8e04e
The Fantastic Four
248
False
What was the issue date when this superhero team debuted?
57267521f1498d1400e8e04f
Nov. 1961
271
False
What Marvel executive helped change the focus of Marvel's stories and characters?
57267521f1498d1400e8e050
Stan Lee
23
False
What is Marvel's best-selling comic?
57267521f1498d1400e8e051
The Amazing Spider-Man
714
False
In the Marvel Universe, the public treated conferred what response on the Fantastic Four?
57267521f1498d1400e8e052
celebrity status
454
False
Stan Lee
23
Who introduced superheroes marketed primarily towards children?
5a5f9422eae51e001ab14b3f
True
The Fantastic Four
248
What superhero team used secret identities?
5a5f9422eae51e001ab14b40
True
Nov. 1961
271
When was Spider-Man launched?
5a5f9422eae51e001ab14b41
True
characterization and adult issues
539
What did most comic superheros focus on that Marvel did not?
5a5f9422eae51e001ab14b42
True
The Amazing Spider-Man
714
What was Marvel's least successful book?
5a5f9422eae51e001ab14b43
True
In 1961, writer-editor Stan Lee revolutionized superhero comics by introducing superheroes designed to appeal to more all-ages readers than the predominantly child audiences of the medium. Modern Marvel's first superhero team, the titular stars of The Fantastic Four #1 (Nov. 1961), broke convention with other comic book archetypes of the time by squabbling, holding grudges both deep and petty, and eschewing anonymity or secret identities in favor of celebrity status. Subsequently, Marvel comics developed a reputation for focusing on characterization and adult issues to a greater extent than most superhero comics before them, a quality which the new generation of older readers appreciated. This applied to The Amazing Spider-Man title in particular, which turned out to be Marvel's most successful book. Its young hero suffered from self-doubt and mundane problems like any other teenager, something readers could identify with.
Who joined with Stan Lee in creating the Fantastic Four?
57267749dd62a815002e85e8
Jack Kirby
49
False
What historic era did the Fantastic Four initially inhabit?
57267749dd62a815002e85e9
Cold War
93
False
What traditional superhero element did the Fantastic Four initially do without?
57267749dd62a815002e85ea
costumes
307
False
None of the Fantastic Four had what hidden element so common to other superheroes?
57267749dd62a815002e85eb
secret identities
280
False
The emphasis on relatable settings and character motivations in Marvel's 1960s comics is called what?
57267749dd62a815002e85ec
"superheroes in the real world"
438
False
secret identities and even costumes
280
What tradition did Marvel embrace?
5a5fa126eae51e001ab14b49
True
Cold War culture
93
What historic era was Marvel trying to eschew?
5a5fa126eae51e001ab14b4a
True
Jack Kirby
49
Who wrote comics that focused on secret identities and costumes?
5a5fa126eae51e001ab14b4b
True
superheroes in the real world
439
Choosing to follow comic book tradition and tropes was called what?
5a5fa126eae51e001ab14b4c
True
Cold War
93
What war was Jack Kirby in?
5a5fa126eae51e001ab14b4d
True
Lee and freelance artist and eventual co-plotter Jack Kirby's Fantastic Four originated in a Cold War culture that led their creators to revise the superhero conventions of previous eras to better reflect the psychological spirit of their age. Eschewing such comic-book tropes as secret identities and even costumes at first, having a monster as one of the heroes, and having its characters bicker and complain in what was later called a "superheroes in the real world" approach, the series represented a change that proved to be a great success.
What magazine featured two Marvel Characters in a college campus heroes feature?
57267957dd62a815002e8652
Esquire
200
False
What two Marvel characters were part of that campus heroes section?
57267957dd62a815002e8653
Spider-Man and the Hulk
154
False
Which publisher is Marvel's biggest rival?
57267957dd62a815002e8654
DC Comics
353
False
Writer Geoff Boucher compared DC to what dull 1960s crooner?
57267957dd62a815002e8655
Pat Boone
396
False
What two real life persons were also part of the magazine feature alongside fictional Marvel characters?
57267957dd62a815002e8656
John F. Kennedy and Bob Dylan
263
False
1965
148
When did Esquire start?
5a5fa1c5eae51e001ab14b5d
True
2009
297
When did Geoff Boucher join Marvel?
5a5fa1c5eae51e001ab14b5e
True
Geoff Boucher
309
Who compared DC comics to the Beatles?
5a5fa1c5eae51e001ab14b5f
True
John F. Kennedy
263
What real-life president was featured in a Spider-Man comic?
5a5fa1c5eae51e001ab14b60
True
Superman
340
Which DC superhero was listed in Esquire's top 28 college campus heroes?
5a5fa1c5eae51e001ab14b61
True
All of these elements struck a chord with the older readers, such as college-aged adults, and they successfully gained in a way not seen before. In 1965, Spider-Man and the Hulk were both featured in Esquire magazine's list of 28 college campus heroes, alongside John F. Kennedy and Bob Dylan. In 2009 writer Geoff Boucher reflected that, "Superman and DC Comics instantly seemed like boring old Pat Boone; Marvel felt like The Beatles and the British Invasion. It was Kirby's artwork with its tension and psychedelia that made it perfect for the times—or was it Lee's bravado and melodrama, which was somehow insecure and brash at the same time?"
What actual US cities have fictional equivalents in Marvel's comic milieu?
57267ab2dd62a815002e868a
New York, Los Angeles and Chicago
504
False
What Marvel hero is related to a tiny insect?
57267ab2dd62a815002e868b
Ant-Man
155
False
The shared milieu inhabited by all Marvel heroes and villains is known as?
57267ab2dd62a815002e868c
the Marvel Universe
431
False
Which two comic book titles were the precursors to the widening of this overall setting?
57267ab2dd62a815002e868d
Spider-Man and the Fantastic Four
15
False
the Marvel Universe
431
What fictional universe was Los Angeles based on?
5a5fa27aeae51e001ab14b67
True
Loki
345
Who was Daredevil's main antagonist?
5a5fa27aeae51e001ab14b68
True
Chicago
530
What city does Black Panther live in?
5a5fa27aeae51e001ab14b69
True
the Hulk
139
Spider-Man and the Fantastic Four were published after what comic?
5a5fa27aeae51e001ab14b6a
True
the Marvel Universe
431
What are the real-life cities New York, Los Angeles, and Chicago called?
5a5fa27aeae51e001ab14b6b
True
In addition to Spider-Man and the Fantastic Four, Marvel began publishing further superhero titles featuring such heroes and antiheroes as the Hulk, Thor, Ant-Man, Iron Man, the X-Men, Daredevil, the Inhumans, Black Panther, Doctor Strange, Captain Marvel and the Silver Surfer, and such memorable antagonists as Doctor Doom, Magneto, Galactus, Loki, the Green Goblin, and Doctor Octopus, all existing in a shared reality known as the Marvel Universe, with locations that mirror real-life cities such as New York, Los Angeles and Chicago.
How many comics did Marvel sell during 1968?
57267d455951b619008f7479
50 million
23
False
What company was distributing Marvel's titles at that point?
57267d455951b619008f747a
Independent News
133
False
To whom was Marvel sold in 1968?
57267d455951b619008f747b
the Perfect Film and Chemical Corporation
342
False
What wholly-owned affiliate of this company did Marvel operate within?
57267d455951b619008f747c
Magazine Management Company
433
False
What distributor took over Marvel's titles in 1969?
57267d455951b619008f747d
Curtis Circulation Company
585
False
50 million
23
How many comic books had Goodman sold by 1968?
5a5fcdfdeae51e001ab14c63
True
1968
3
In what year did Independent News and Goodman first make their distribution arrangement?
5a5fcdfdeae51e001ab14c64
True
Magazine Management Company
433
What publishing businesses did Goodman sell besides Marvel Comics?
5a5fcdfdeae51e001ab14c65
True
Goodman
70
Who was the founder of the Perfect Film and Chemical Corporation?
5a5fcdfdeae51e001ab14c66
True
Independent News
133
Who did Goodman switch distribution to in 1968?
5a5fcdfdeae51e001ab14c67
True
In 1968, while selling 50 million comic books a year, company founder Goodman revised the constraining distribution arrangement with Independent News he had reached under duress during the Atlas years, allowing him now to release as many titles as demand warranted. Late that year he sold Marvel Comics and his other publishing businesses to the Perfect Film and Chemical Corporation, which continued to group them as the subsidiary Magazine Management Company, with Goodman remaining as publisher. In 1969, Goodman finally ended his distribution deal with Independent by signing with Curtis Circulation Company.
What government agency asked Marvel to do a series of stories to publicize an issue?
57267ecb708984140094c7fd
United States Department of Health, Education, and Welfare
13
False
What issue was Marvel asked to tackle for this agency?
57267ecb708984140094c7fe
drug abuse
153
False
What comic book series did stories related to this issue appear in?
57267ecb708984140094c7ff
Spider-Man
199
False
What industry censorship and standards organization tried to block publication of this series?
57267ecb708984140094c800
Comics Code Authority
317
False
What were the issue dates of the three-episode series on this public health issue?
57267ecb708984140094c801
May–July 1971
547
False
1971
3
When did the Comics Code Authority request Marvel to do a comic on drug abuse?
5a5fced3eae51e001ab14c6d
True
Stan Lee
113
Who is the editor-in-chief of the Comics Code Authority?
5a5fced3eae51e001ab14c6e
True
Comics Code Authority
317
What self-censorship board approved the controversial Spider-Man comic?
5a5fced3eae51e001ab14c6f
True
United States Department of Health, Education, and Welfare
13
What government-led department refused to approve the Spider-Man story?
5a5fced3eae51e001ab14c70
True
May–July 1971
547
During what months did the CCA revise its code?
5a5fced3eae51e001ab14c71
True
In 1971, the United States Department of Health, Education, and Welfare approached Marvel Comics editor-in-chief Stan Lee to do a comic book story about drug abuse. Lee agreed and wrote a three-part Spider-Man story portraying drug use as dangerous and unglamorous. However, the industry's self-censorship board, the Comics Code Authority, refused to approve the story because of the presence of narcotics, deeming the context of the story irrelevant. Lee, with Goodman's approval, published the story regardless in The Amazing Spider-Man #96–98 (May–July 1971), without the Comics Code seal. The market reacted well to the storyline, and the CCA subsequently revised the Code the same year.
What situation allowed Marvel to expand into more adult-themed genre stories?
572680e4dd62a815002e8780
the updating of the Comics Code
148
False
What were two of Marvel's comic heroes in fantasy, swords and magic settings?
572680e4dd62a815002e8781
Conan the Barbarian, Red Sonja
333
False
What waterfowl character had his own satire series of comic books?
572680e4dd62a815002e8782
Howard the Duck
374
False
In what year did Marvel's sales overtake rival DC?
572680e4dd62a815002e8783
1972
883
False
How were some of Marvel's genre titles published in the 1970s?
572680e4dd62a815002e8784
larger-format black and white magazines, under its Curtis Magazines imprint
596
False
the updating of the Comics Code
148
What prevented Marvel from creating more adult-themed comics?
5a5fcfb4eae51e001ab14c77
True
diversify
128
What did Marvel do that failed to be successful after the Comics Code was updated?
5a5fcfb4eae51e001ab14c78
True
1972
883
When did DC Comics usurp Marvel's position as the top comics company?
5a5fcfb4eae51e001ab14c79
True
15 cents
1062
How much did DC lower the price of its comics by?
5a5fcfb4eae51e001ab14c7a
True
The Tomb of Dracula
246
What was DC's horror series called?
5a5fcfb4eae51e001ab14c7b
True
A series of new editors-in-chief oversaw the company during another slow time for the industry. Once again, Marvel attempted to diversify, and with the updating of the Comics Code achieved moderate to strong success with titles themed to horror (The Tomb of Dracula), martial arts, (Shang-Chi: Master of Kung Fu), sword-and-sorcery (Conan the Barbarian, Red Sonja), satire (Howard the Duck) and science fiction (2001: A Space Odyssey, "Killraven" in Amazing Adventures, Battlestar Galactica, Star Trek, and, late in the decade, the long-running Star Wars series). Some of these were published in larger-format black and white magazines, under its Curtis Magazines imprint. Marvel was able to capitalize on its successful superhero comics of the previous decade by acquiring a new newsstand distributor and greatly expanding its comics line. Marvel pulled ahead of rival DC Comics in 1972, during a time when the price and format of the standard newsstand comic were in flux. Goodman increased the price and size of Marvel's November 1971 cover-dated comics from 15 cents for 36 pages total to 25 cents for 52 pages. DC followed suit, but Marvel the following month dropped its comics to 20 cents for 36 pages, offering a lower-priced product with a higher distributor discount.
What new venture did Marvel's founder begin after leaving the company in the 1970s?
5726826af1498d1400e8e21e
Seaboard Periodicals
67
False
What former Marvel title imprint did Goodman attempt to revive?
5726826af1498d1400e8e21f
Atlas Comics
140
False
What new retail outlet came on board at the end of the 1970s to rival newsstands for comic sales?
5726826af1498d1400e8e220
comic book stores
427
False
How long was the 1970s revival of Atlas Comics in business?
5726826af1498d1400e8e221
a year and a half
180
False
During what era did newsstand distribution begin to tail off markedly for Marvel?
5726826af1498d1400e8e222
the mid-1970s
202
False
Seaboard Periodicals
67
What company partnered with Marvel in 1974?
5a5fd1bbeae51e001ab14c8b
True
mid-1970s
206
When was Howard the Duck launched?
5a5fd1bbeae51e001ab14c8c
True
direct market distribution
576
What change in market distribution negatively affected Marvel near the end of the decade?
5a5fd1bbeae51e001ab14c8d
True
a year and a half
180
How much later were specialty comic book stores reselling titles?
5a5fd1bbeae51e001ab14c8e
True
newsstand distribution
233
The mid-1970s brought what favourable change for Marvel?
5a5fd1bbeae51e001ab14c8f
True
Goodman, now disconnected from Marvel, set up a new company called Seaboard Periodicals in 1974, reviving Marvel's old Atlas name for a new Atlas Comics line, but this lasted only a year and a half. In the mid-1970s a decline of the newsstand distribution network affected Marvel. Cult hits such as Howard the Duck fell victim to the distribution problems, with some titles reporting low sales when in fact the first specialty comic book stores resold them at a later date.[citation needed] But by the end of the decade, Marvel's fortunes were reviving, thanks to the rise of direct market distribution—selling through those same comics-specialty stores instead of newsstands.
What was Marvel's self-hosted comic book convention called?
572684dd708984140094c8b5
Marvelcon
43
False
What artist's return to Marvel was announced at this event?
572684dd708984140094c8b6
Jack Kirby
188
False
What Marvel character was specifically created to appeal to the UK market?
572684dd708984140094c8b7
Captain Britain
499
False
When was the first Marvel-sponsored comics convention?
572684dd708984140094c8b8
spring 1975
61
False
When did Marvel's British-themed superhero first appear?
572684dd708984140094c8b9
October 1976
346
False
Stan Lee
123
Who did Jack Kirby announce was returning to Marvel in 1975?
5a5fd25eeae51e001ab14c95
True
Captain Britain
499
What marvel character was announced at the first Marvelcon?
5a5fd25eeae51e001ab14c96
True
Marvelcon
43
What was DC Comic's 1975 convention called?
5a5fd25eeae51e001ab14c97
True
Jack Kirby
188
Who created most of DC's star characters?
5a5fd25eeae51e001ab14c98
True
October 1976
346
When did Marvel become licensed to distribute in the UK?
5a5fd25eeae51e001ab14c99
True
Marvel held its own comic book convention, Marvelcon '75, in spring 1975, and promised a Marvelcon '76. At the 1975 event, Stan Lee used a Fantastic Four panel discussion to announce that Jack Kirby, the artist co-creator of most of Marvel's signature characters, was returning to Marvel after having left in 1970 to work for rival DC Comics. In October 1976, Marvel, which already licensed reprints in different countries, including the UK, created a superhero specifically for the British market. Captain Britain debuted exclusively in the UK, and later appeared in American comics.
Who took over as head of Marvel in 1978?
572687385951b619008f75d3
Jim Shooter
9
False
What is an example of a bad practice eliminated under Shooter's regime at Marvel?
572687385951b619008f75d4
repeatedly missed deadlines
155
False
What noted artist and writer made brought Daredevil to the forefront during the 1980s?
572687385951b619008f75d5
Frank Miller
300
False
What team of artist and writer helped popularize the Uncanny X-Men line of comics in the 1980s?
572687385951b619008f75d6
Chris Claremont and John Byrne
238
False
Secret Wars was an early example of what Marvel comics story trope?
572687385951b619008f75d7
crossover story arcs
573
False
missed deadlines
166
What issue did Shooter cause when he started at Marvel?
5a5fd905eae51e001ab14c9f
True
1978
3
When did Chris Claremont become editor-in-chief?
5a5fd905eae51e001ab14ca0
True
1986
644
When did New Universe become successful?
5a5fd905eae51e001ab14ca1
True
25th
723
What anniversary did Epic Comics celebrate in 1986?
5a5fd905eae51e001ab14ca2
True
John Byrne
258
Who wrote for Star Comics?
5a5fd905eae51e001ab14ca3
True
In 1978, Jim Shooter became Marvel's editor-in-chief. Although a controversial personality, Shooter cured many of the procedural ills at Marvel, including repeatedly missed deadlines. During Shooter's nine-year tenure as editor-in-chief, Chris Claremont and John Byrne's run on the Uncanny X-Men and Frank Miller's run on Daredevil became critical and commercial successes. Shooter brought Marvel into the rapidly evolving direct market, institutionalized creator royalties, starting with the Epic Comics imprint for creator-owned material in 1982; introduced company-wide crossover story arcs with Contest of Champions and Secret Wars; and in 1986 launched the ultimately unsuccessful New Universe line to commemorate the 25th anniversary of the Marvel Comics imprint. Star Comics, a children-oriented line differing from the regular Marvel titles, was briefly successful during this period.
What 1990s comic line featured futuristic, sci-fi stories?
5726888e708984140094c921
2099 line
124
False
What was the name of the specialty comics line created by Clive Barker for Marvel?
5726888e708984140094c922
Razorline
245
False
In what year did Marvel introduce trading cards based on their characters?
5726888e708984140094c923
1990
334
False
What trading card company did Marvel team up with to license these trading cards?
5726888e708984140094c924
SkyBox International
407
False
What was affected by the increasing use at Marvel of crossover stories between comic characters?
5726888e708984140094c925
overall continuity of the fictional Marvel Universe
655
False
2099
124
What series was set in the past?
5a5fd9abeae51e001ab14ca9
True
Razorline
245
What commercially successful comic did Clive Barker create?
5a5fd9abeae51e001ab14caa
True
1990
334
When was SkyBox International launched?
5a5fd9abeae51e001ab14cab
True
Spider-Man
163
What marvel character was featured on the first collectible trading card?
5a5fd9abeae51e001ab14cac
True
the early 1990s
82
When did comic book sales begin to decline?
5a5fd9abeae51e001ab14cad
True
Marvel earned a great deal of money and recognition during the comic book boom of the early 1990s, launching the successful 2099 line of comics set in the future (Spider-Man 2099, etc.) and the creatively daring though commercially unsuccessful Razorline imprint of superhero comics created by novelist and filmmaker Clive Barker. In 1990, Marvel began selling Marvel Universe Cards with trading card maker SkyBox International. These were collectible trading cards that featured the characters and events of the Marvel Universe. The 1990s saw the rise of variant covers, cover enhancements, swimsuit issues, and company-wide crossovers that affected the overall continuity of the fictional Marvel Universe
What studio helped to relaunch and revamp classic marvel teams The Fantastic Four and the Avengers?
57268a73708984140094c961
Image Comics
269
False
What two Marvel veterans founded Image?
57268a73708984140094c962
Jim Lee and Rob Liefeld
292
False
How was the setting for the Image versions of Marvel characters different from the official comics?
57268a73708984140094c963
a parallel universe with a history distinct from the mainstream
380
False
How long did the Image run of Marvel characters last?
57268a73708984140094c964
a one-year run
567
False
What three titles were part of the darker, grimmer Marvel Knights comics?
57268a73708984140094c965
the Inhumans, Black Panther and Daredevil
856
False
Jim Lee and Rob Liefeld
292
Who created the Avengers?
5a5fdabeeae51e001ab14cb3
True
1996
3
When was Image Comics founded?
5a5fdabeeae51e001ab14cb4
True
1998
644
What year did Joe Quesada become editor in chief?
5a5fdabeeae51e001ab14cb5
True
a one-year run
567
How long did Marvel Knights run for?
5a5fdabeeae51e001ab14cb6
True
a generally struggling industry
489
What caused Image Comics to discontinue the Marvel crossover?
5a5fdabeeae51e001ab14cb7
True
In 1996, Marvel had some of its titles participate in "Heroes Reborn", a crossover that allowed Marvel to relaunch some of its flagship characters such as the Avengers and the Fantastic Four, and outsource them to the studios of two of the former Marvel artists turned Image Comics founders, Jim Lee and Rob Liefeld. The relaunched titles, which saw the characters transported to a parallel universe with a history distinct from the mainstream Marvel Universe, were a solid success amidst a generally struggling industry, but Marvel discontinued the experiment after a one-year run and returned the characters to the Marvel Universe proper. In 1998, the company launched the imprint Marvel Knights, taking place within Marvel continuity; helmed by soon-to-become editor-in-chief Joe Quesada, it featured tough, gritty stories showcasing such characters as the Inhumans, Black Panther and Daredevil.
What channel did Marvel buy to self-distribute its own comics in the 1990s?
57268c14708984140094c9a7
Heroes World Distribution
57
False
When did Marvel purchase this distribution network?
57268c14708984140094c9a8
1994
8
False
Exclusive deals for distributing comics during the 1990s left this company as the only unaffiliated one.
57268c14708984140094c9a9
Diamond Comic Distributors Inc
318
False
What year did Diamond Comic Distributors team up with Marvel?
57268c14708984140094c9aa
1997
359
False
The failure of what high profile business initiative caused Marvel to approach Diamond?
57268c14708984140094c9ab
Marvel's Heroes World
370
False
Diamond Comic Distributors Inc
318
What was the only North American distribution company to go under?
5a5fdc90eae51e001ab14cbd
True
1994
8
When did Diamond Comic Distributors part ways with Marvel?
5a5fdc90eae51e001ab14cbe
True
exclusive distribution deals with other companies
170
What caused distributors to thrive in the mid-90s?
5a5fdc90eae51e001ab14cbf
True
1997
359
When was Marvel's Heroes World declared a financial success?
5a5fdc90eae51e001ab14cc0
True
late 1994
3
When was Diamond Comic Distributors Inc. founded?
5a5fdc90eae51e001ab14cc1
True
In late 1994, Marvel acquired the comic book distributor Heroes World Distribution to use as its own exclusive distributor. As the industry's other major publishers made exclusive distribution deals with other companies, the ripple effect resulted in the survival of only one other major distributor in North America, Diamond Comic Distributors Inc. In early 1997, when Marvel's Heroes World endeavor failed, Diamond also forged an exclusive deal with Marvel—giving the company its own section of its comics catalog Previews.
What was the business state of Marvel by 2000?
57268cd2f1498d1400e8e36e
bankruptcy
52
False
When did Marvel withdraw from the Comics Code Authority?
57268cd2f1498d1400e8e36f
2001
110
False
What in-house standards system did Marvel replace the Comics Code with?
57268cd2f1498d1400e8e370
Marvel Rating System
187
False
What was the first book published under this new ratings system?
57268cd2f1498d1400e8e371
X-Force #119
275
False
What was the name of the adult themed comics imprint for Marvel with more explicit content?
57268cd2f1498d1400e8e372
MAX
346
False
the new millennium
5
When did Marvel Comics file for bankruptcy?
5a5fddb6eae51e001ab14cc7
True
2001
110
When did Marvel join the Comics Code Authority?
5a5fddb6eae51e001ab14cc8
True
October 2001
289
When was the first issue of MAX released?
5a5fddb6eae51e001ab14cc9
True
Comics Code Authority
141
What did Marvel Comics replace the Marvel Rating System with?
5a5fddb6eae51e001ab14cca
True
child audiences
414
What age bracket was Marvel Adventures designed for?
5a5fddb6eae51e001ab14ccb
True
With the new millennium, Marvel Comics emerged from bankruptcy and again began diversifying its offerings. In 2001, Marvel withdrew from the Comics Code Authority and established its own Marvel Rating System for comics. The first title from this era to not have the code was X-Force #119 (October 2001). Marvel also created new imprints, such as MAX (an explicit-content line) and Marvel Adventures (developed for child audiences). In addition, the company created an alternate universe imprint, Ultimate Marvel, that allowed the company to reboot its major titles by revising and updating its characters to introduce to a new generation.
What entertainment company purchased Marvel at the end of the 2000s?
57268d7ef1498d1400e8e392
The Walt Disney Company
20
False
When was the sale of Marvel to this entertainment conglomerate announced?
57268d7ef1498d1400e8e393
August 31, 2009
3
False
What was the sale price of Marvel?
57268d7ef1498d1400e8e394
$4 billion or $4.2 billion
133
False
What is the readership market share enjoyed by Marvel and DC comics?
57268d7ef1498d1400e8e395
80%
336
False
In 2010, Marvel switched to what distributor for bookstore comic book sales?
57268d7ef1498d1400e8e396
Hachette Distribution Services
483
False
The Walt Disney Company
20
What did Marvel Entertainment purchase in 2009?
5a5fe0adeae51e001ab14cd1
True
$4 billion or $4.2 billion
133
How much did Disney buy DC for?
5a5fe0adeae51e001ab14cd2
True
80%
336
What percentage of the American comic-book market did Marvel account for?
5a5fe0adeae51e001ab14cd3
True
2010
391
When did Marvel switch to Diamond Book Distributors?
5a5fe0adeae51e001ab14cd4
True
$30 and 0.745 Disney shares
197
How much did DC Comics shareholder receive as a result of the Marvel-Disney deal?
5a5fe0adeae51e001ab14cd5
True
On August 31, 2009, The Walt Disney Company announced a deal to acquire Marvel Comics' parent corporation, Marvel Entertainment, for $4 billion or $4.2 billion, with Marvel shareholders to receive $30 and 0.745 Disney shares for each share of Marvel they own. As of 2008, Marvel and its major, longtime competitor DC Comics shared over 80% of the American comic-book market. As of September 2010, Marvel switched its bookstores distribution company from Diamond Book Distributors to Hachette Distribution Services.
When did the Marvel Adventures line cease publishing?
57268f57708984140094ca2f
March 2012
53
False
Infinite Comics is related to what comics media platform?
57268f57708984140094ca30
digital comics
259
False
What are two new titles under the Marvel NOW! line of comics?
57268f57708984140094ca31
Uncanny Avengers and All-New X-Men
528
False
Marvel NOW!, Infinite Comics, and Marvel AR are under the umbrella of what in house business endeavor?
57268f57708984140094ca32
Marvel ReEvolution
188
False
What does the AR in Marvel AR stand for?
57268f57708984140094ca33
augmented reality
327
False
2012
59
When did Marvel launch Marvel Adventures?
5a5fe26ceae51e001ab14cdb
True
two
98
How many titles run on the Marvel Universe TV block?
5a5fe26ceae51e001ab14cdc
True
Uncanny Avengers and All-New X-Men
528
What titles were released with Marvel AR?
5a5fe26ceae51e001ab14cdd
True
March 2012
53
When was Marvel NOW! canceled?
5a5fe26ceae51e001ab14cde
True
Marvel discontinued its Marvel Adventures imprint in March 2012, and replaced them with a line of two titles connected to the Marvel Universe TV block. Also in March, Marvel announced its Marvel ReEvolution initiative that included Infinite Comics, a line of digital comics, Marvel AR, an application software that provides an augmented reality experience to readers and Marvel NOW!, a relaunch of most of the company's major titles with different creative teams. Marvel NOW! also saw the debut of new flagship titles including Uncanny Avengers and All-New X-Men.
What TV network shares a parent with Marvel?
57269102708984140094ca4f
ABC
101
False
What series on this network was given a Marvel graphic novel?
57269102708984140094ca50
Once Upon a Time
108
False
What is the Marvel and Disney line of comics called?
57269102708984140094ca51
"Disney Kingdoms"
301
False
What was the first title published in that joint line of comics?
57269102708984140094ca52
"Seekers of the Weird"
327
False
What movie sci-fi franchise returned to Marvel in 2015?
57269102708984140094ca53
Star Wars
471
False
2015
465
When did Disney and LLC stop publishing Star Wars comics?
5a5fe372eae51e001ab14ce3
True
five
353
How many issues was the Once Upon a Time novel?
5a5fe372eae51e001ab14ce4
True
Disney Kingdoms
302
What was the joint line of comics owned by LLC and Marvel called?
5a5fe372eae51e001ab14ce5
True
September
172
When was the Once Upon a Time novel released?
5a5fe372eae51e001ab14ce6
True
April 2013
3
When did Disney and Marvel announce they were ending joint projects?
5a5fe372eae51e001ab14ce7
True
In April 2013, Marvel and other Disney conglomerate components began announcing joint projects. With ABC, a Once Upon a Time graphic novel was announced for publication in September. With Disney, Marvel announced in October 2013 that in January 2014 it would release its first title under their joint "Disney Kingdoms" imprint "Seekers of the Weird", a five-issue miniseries. On January 3, 2014, fellow Disney subsidiary Lucasfilm Limited, LLC announced that as of 2015, Star Wars comics would once again be published by Marvel.
What publisher did Marvel first license its characters to for novelization?
5726927e708984140094ca8d
Bantam Books
42
False
What was the first novel published under this deal?
5726927e708984140094ca8e
The Avengers Battle the Earth Wrecker by Otto Binder
68
False
What was the name of the short-lived Marvel novelization book publisher during the 2000s?
5726927e708984140094ca8f
Marvel Press
554
False
In 2005, Marvel dropped it's own publishing rights for novelization and instead partnered with what publisher?
5726927e708984140094ca90
Pocket Books
613
False
Marvel Press was relaunched in what year?
5726927e708984140094ca91
2011
743
False
Ted White
173
Who wrote the movie novelizations?
5a5fe4d1eae51e001ab14ced
True
Otto Binder
109
Who wrote the Young Adult novel Mary Jane?
5a5fe4d1eae51e001ab14cee
True
two
22
How many books did Marvel license with Pocket Books?
5a5fe4d1eae51e001ab14cef
True
Bantam Books
42
What is the name of the company that licensed the majority of marvel comics before 2003?
5a5fe4d1eae51e001ab14cf0
True
2011
743
When did Marvel switch to the Disney Books Group?
5a5fe4d1eae51e001ab14cf1
True
Marvel first licensed two prose novels to Bantam Books, who printed The Avengers Battle the Earth Wrecker by Otto Binder (1967) and Captain America: The Great Gold Steal by Ted White (1968). Various publishers took up the licenses from 1978 to 2002. Also, with the various licensed films being released beginning in 1997, various publishers put out movie novelizations. In 2003, following publication of the prose young adult novel Mary Jane, starring Mary Jane Watson from the Spider-Man mythos, Marvel announced the formation of the publishing imprint Marvel Press. However, Marvel moved back to licensing with Pocket Books from 2005 to 2008. With few books issued under the imprint, Marvel and Disney Books Group relaunched Marvel Press in 2011 with the Marvel Origin Storybooks line.
What Disney theme park will become the first to feature Marvel-specific attractions?
5726943c708984140094cac3
Hong Kong Disneyland
103
False
Because of a prior contract, what two Disney parks are barred from featuring Marvel characters?
5726943c708984140094cac4
Walt Disney World and Tokyo Disney
293
False
The contract with what non-Disney studio prevents some parks from using Marvel characters?
5726943c708984140094cac5
Universal Studios
229
False
What Marvel movie featured Star-Lord and Gamora?
5726943c708984140094cac6
Guardians of the Galaxy
807
False
What movie features the characters Baymax and Hiro?
5726943c708984140094cac7
Big Hero 6
863
False
Walt Disney World and Tokyo Disney
293
What are the only two Disney parks allowed to have Marvel characters?
5a5fe5d0eae51e001ab14cf7
True
Due to the licensing agreement with Universal Studios
193
Why is Walt Disney unable to have characters such as Star-Lord appear?
5a5fe5d0eae51e001ab14cf8
True
creating original Marvel attractions at their theme parks
39
What does Universal Studios plan to do with their Marvel contract?
5a5fe5d0eae51e001ab14cf9
True
the licensing agreement with Universal Studios
200
What was signed after Disney purchased Marvel?
5a5fe5d0eae51e001ab14cfa
True
Baymax and Hiro
842
Because of the Universal Studios agreement, which Big Hero 6 characters are off limits for Disney?
5a5fe5d0eae51e001ab14cfb
True
Walt Disney Parks and Resorts plans on creating original Marvel attractions at their theme parks, with Hong Kong Disneyland becoming the first Disney theme park to feature a Marvel attraction. Due to the licensing agreement with Universal Studios, signed prior to Disney's purchase of Marvel, Walt Disney World and Tokyo Disney are barred from having Marvel characters in their parks. However, this only includes characters Universal is currently using, other characters in their "families" (X-Men, Avengers, Fantastic Four, etc.), and the villains associated with said characters. This clause has allowed Walt Disney World to have meet and greets, merchandise, attractions and more with other Marvel characters not associated with the characters at Islands of Adventures, such as Star-Lord and Gamora from Guardians of the Galaxy as well as Baymax and Hiro from Big Hero 6.
British_Empire
The United Kingdom ruled what empire?
57265f11f1498d1400e8dd7e
British
4
False
Which empire was the largest in history, at its height?
57265f11f1498d1400e8dd7f
British
4
False
When did 458 million people live in the British Empire?
57265f11f1498d1400e8dd80
1922
389
False
How much of the world's population did the British Empire rule in 1922?
57265f11f1498d1400e8dd81
one-fifth
454
False
How many square miles did the British Empire rule in 1922?
57265f11f1498d1400e8dd82
13,000,000
525
False
The British Empire comprised the dominions, colonies, protectorates, mandates and other territories ruled or administered by the United Kingdom. It originated with the overseas possessions and trading posts established by England between the late 16th and early 18th centuries. At its height, it was the largest empire in history and, for over a century, was the foremost global power. By 1922 the British Empire held sway over about 458 million people, one-fifth of the world's population at the time, and covered more than 13,000,000 sq mi (33,670,000 km2), almost a quarter of the Earth's total land area. As a result, its political, legal, linguistic and cultural legacy is widespread. At the peak of its power, the phrase "the empire on which the sun never sets" was often used to describe the British Empire, because its expanse around the globe meant that the sun was always shining on at least one of its territories.
In which centuries was the Age of Discovery?
57265fb5dd62a815002e82fa
15th and 16th centuries
35
False
Which countries pioneered European exploration of the globe?
57265fb5dd62a815002e82fb
Portugal and Spain
60
False
Which countries began colonizing because they envied the empires of Portugal and Spain?
57265fb5dd62a815002e82fc
England, France, and the Netherlands
232
False
When did England become Great Britain?
57265fb5dd62a815002e82fd
1707
507
False
Which country combined with England to form Great Britain?
57265fb5dd62a815002e82fe
Scotland
495
False
During the Age of Discovery in the 15th and 16th centuries, Portugal and Spain pioneered European exploration of the globe, and in the process established large overseas empires. Envious of the great wealth these empires generated, England, France, and the Netherlands began to establish colonies and trade networks of their own in the Americas and Asia. A series of wars in the 17th and 18th centuries with the Netherlands and France left England (and then, following union between England and Scotland in 1707, Great Britain) the dominant colonial power in North America and India.
When did the Thirteen Colonies become independent from Britain?
5726604ddd62a815002e8304
1783
62
False
Which war caused Britain to lose some of its oldest and most populous colonies?
5726604ddd62a815002e8305
American War of Independence
77
False
In which wars was France defeated?
5726604ddd62a815002e8306
the Revolutionary and Napoleonic Wars
275
False
What did Pax Britannica mean?
5726604ddd62a815002e8307
British Peace
544
False
When was Britain called the "workshop of the world"?
5726604ddd62a815002e8308
1851
844
False
The independence of the Thirteen Colonies in North America in 1783 after the American War of Independence caused Britain to lose some of its oldest and most populous colonies. British attention soon turned towards Asia, Africa, and the Pacific. After the defeat of France in the Revolutionary and Napoleonic Wars (1792–1815), Britain emerged as the principal naval and imperial power of the 19th century (with London the largest city in the world from about 1830). Unchallenged at sea, British dominance was later described as Pax Britannica ("British Peace"), a period of relative peace in Europe and the world (1815–1914) during which the British Empire became the global hegemon and adopted the role of global policeman. In the early 19th century, the Industrial Revolution began to transform Britain; by the time of the Great Exhibition in 1851 the country was described as the "workshop of the world". The British Empire expanded to include India, large parts of Africa and many other territories throughout the world. Alongside the formal control it exerted over its own colonies, British dominance of much of world trade meant that it effectively controlled the economies of many regions, such as Asia and Latin America. Domestically, political attitudes favoured free trade and laissez-faire policies and a gradual widening of the voting franchise. During this century, the population increased at a dramatic rate, accompanied by rapid urbanisation, causing significant social and economic stresses. To seek new markets and sources of raw materials, the Conservative Party under Disraeli launched a period of imperialist expansion in Egypt, South Africa, and elsewhere. Canada, Australia, and New Zealand became self-governing dominions.
Which countries challenged Britain's economic lead by the start of the 20th century?
57266208708984140094c455
Germany and the United States
34
False
Which country was Britain's most valuable and populous possession?
57266208708984140094c456
India
766
False
When did Britain transfer Hong Kong to China?
57266208708984140094c457
overseas territories remain under British sovereignty
1060
False
How many overseas territories remain under British sovereignty?
57266208708984140094c458
Fourteen
1051
False
Who is the Commonwealth's monarch?
57266208708984140094c459
Queen Elizabeth II
1379
False
By the start of the 20th century, Germany and the United States challenged Britain's economic lead. Subsequent military and economic tensions between Britain and Germany were major causes of the First World War, during which Britain relied heavily upon its empire. The conflict placed enormous strain on the military, financial and manpower resources of Britain. Although the British Empire achieved its largest territorial extent immediately after World War I, Britain was no longer the world's pre-eminent industrial or military power. In the Second World War, Britain's colonies in South-East Asia were occupied by Imperial Japan. Despite the final victory of Britain and its allies, the damage to British prestige helped to accelerate the decline of the empire. India, Britain's most valuable and populous possession, achieved independence as part of a larger decolonisation movement in which Britain granted independence to most territories of the Empire. The transfer of Hong Kong to China in 1997 marked for many the end of the British Empire. Fourteen overseas territories remain under British sovereignty. After independence, many former British colonies joined the Commonwealth of Nations, a free association of independent states. The United Kingdom is now one of 16 Commonwealth nations, a grouping known informally as the Commonwealth realms, that share one monarch—Queen Elizabeth II.
When was John Cabot's voyage commissioned?
5726627bf1498d1400e8ddd0
1496
101
False
Who commissioned John Cabot's voyage?
5726627bf1498d1400e8ddd1
King Henry VII of England
106
False
Where was Cabot trying to find a route to via the North Atlantic?
5726627bf1498d1400e8ddd2
Asia
268
False
Where did Cabot make landfall?
5726627bf1498d1400e8ddd3
Newfoundland
430
False
Which explorer did Cabot make a mistake similar to?
5726627bf1498d1400e8ddd4
Christopher Columbus
471
False
The foundations of the British Empire were laid when England and Scotland were separate kingdoms. In 1496 King Henry VII of England, following the successes of Spain and Portugal in overseas exploration, commissioned John Cabot to lead a voyage to discover a route to Asia via the North Atlantic. Cabot sailed in 1497, five years after the European discovery of America, and although he successfully made landfall on the coast of Newfoundland (mistakenly believing, like Christopher Columbus, that he had reached Asia), there was no attempt to found a colony. Cabot led another voyage to the Americas the following year but nothing was heard of his ships again.
What had turned England and Catholic Spain into implacable enemies?
57266351708984140094c47d
the Protestant Reformation
185
False
When did John Hawkins and Francis Drake attack Spanish and Portuguese slave ships?
57266351708984140094c47e
1562
279
False
Where did John Hawkins and Francis Drake attack Spanish and Portuguese slave ships?
57266351708984140094c47f
off the coast of West Africa
432
False
Who gave their blessing to further privateering raids against Spanish ports?
57266351708984140094c480
Elizabeth I
593
False
Which author was the first to use the term "British Empire"?
57266351708984140094c481
John Dee
850
False
No further attempts to establish English colonies in the Americas were made until well into the reign of Queen Elizabeth I, during the last decades of the 16th century. In the meantime the Protestant Reformation had turned England and Catholic Spain into implacable enemies . In 1562, the English Crown encouraged the privateers John Hawkins and Francis Drake to engage in slave-raiding attacks against Spanish and Portuguese ships off the coast of West Africa with the aim of breaking into the Atlantic trade system. This effort was rebuffed and later, as the Anglo-Spanish Wars intensified, Elizabeth I gave her blessing to further privateering raids against Spanish ports in the Americas and shipping that was returning across the Atlantic, laden with treasure from the New World. At the same time, influential writers such as Richard Hakluyt and John Dee (who was the first to use the term "British Empire") were beginning to press for the establishment of England's own empire. By this time, Spain had become the dominant power in the Americas and was exploring the Pacific ocean, Portugal had established trading posts and forts from the coasts of Africa and Brazil to China, and France had begun to settle the Saint Lawrence River area, later to become New France.
When did Humphrey Gilbert first set sail for the West Indies?
572663c1dd62a815002e8368
1578
3
False
When was Humphrey Gilbert's second attempt to set sail?
572663c1dd62a815002e8369
1583
299
False
What was Humphrey Gilbert's second destination?
572663c1dd62a815002e836a
Newfoundland
371
False
Who was Humphrey Gilbert's half-brother?
572663c1dd62a815002e836b
Walter Raleigh
564
False
What colony did Walter Raleigh found?
572663c1dd62a815002e836c
Roanoke
680
False
In 1578, Elizabeth I granted a patent to Humphrey Gilbert for discovery and overseas exploration. That year, Gilbert sailed for the West Indies with the intention of engaging in piracy and establishing a colony in North America, but the expedition was aborted before it had crossed the Atlantic. In 1583 he embarked on a second attempt, on this occasion to the island of Newfoundland whose harbour he formally claimed for England, although no settlers were left behind. Gilbert did not survive the return journey to England, and was succeeded by his half-brother, Walter Raleigh, who was granted his own patent by Elizabeth in 1584. Later that year, Raleigh founded the colony of Roanoke on the coast of present-day North Carolina, but lack of supplies caused the colony to fail.
What was James I's name/title before taking the English throne?
572664515951b619008f7161
James VI, King of Scots
9
False
When did James I negotiate the Treaty of London?
572664515951b619008f7162
1604
85
False
Which country did England negotiate the Treaty of London with?
572664515951b619008f7163
Spain
147
False
In what century did the English East India Company form?
572664515951b619008f7164
17th
385
False
What period ended towards the end of the 18th century?
572664515951b619008f7165
the "First British Empire"
803
False
In 1603, James VI, King of Scots, ascended (as James I) to the English throne and in 1604 negotiated the Treaty of London, ending hostilities with Spain. Now at peace with its main rival, English attention shifted from preying on other nations' colonial infrastructures to the business of establishing its own overseas colonies. The British Empire began to take shape during the early 17th century, with the English settlement of North America and the smaller islands of the Caribbean, and the establishment of private companies, most notably the English East India Company, to administer colonies and overseas trade. This period, until the loss of the Thirteen Colonies after the American War of Independence towards the end of the 18th century, has subsequently been referred to by some historians as the "First British Empire".
When did England first establish a colony in Guiana?
57266715dd62a815002e83be
1604
184
False
When did England first establish a colony in St. Lucia?
57266715dd62a815002e83bf
1605
290
False
When did England annex the island of Jamaica from the Spanish?
57266715dd62a815002e83c0
1655
1018
False
When did England colonize the Bahamas?
57266715dd62a815002e83c1
1666
1087
False
What was the goal of England's colony in Guiana?
57266715dd62a815002e83c2
to find gold deposits
245
False
The Caribbean initially provided England's most important and lucrative colonies, but not before several attempts at colonisation failed. An attempt to establish a colony in Guiana in 1604 lasted only two years, and failed in its main objective to find gold deposits. Colonies in St Lucia (1605) and Grenada (1609) also rapidly folded, but settlements were successfully established in St. Kitts (1624), Barbados (1627) and Nevis (1628). The colonies soon adopted the system of sugar plantations successfully used by the Portuguese in Brazil, which depended on slave labour, and—at first—Dutch ships, to sell the slaves and buy the sugar. To ensure that the increasingly healthy profits of this trade remained in English hands, Parliament decreed in 1651 that only English ships would be able to ply their trade in English colonies. This led to hostilities with the United Dutch Provinces—a series of Anglo-Dutch Wars—which would eventually strengthen England's position in the Americas at the expense of the Dutch. In 1655, England annexed the island of Jamaica from the Spanish, and in 1666 succeeded in colonising the Bahamas.
When was England's first permanent settlement in the Americas founded?
57266787708984140094c4ed
1607
68
False
Where was England's first permanent settlement in the Americas?
57266787708984140094c4ee
Jamestown
76
False
Who led England's first permanent settlement in the Americas?
57266787708984140094c4ef
Captain John Smith
94
False
When did the Somer Isles Company take over managing Bermuda?
57266787708984140094c4f0
1615
276
False
What did England rename New Netherland to?
57266787708984140094c4f1
New York
1207
False
England's first permanent settlement in the Americas was founded in 1607 in Jamestown, led by Captain John Smith and managed by the Virginia Company. Bermuda was settled and claimed by England as a result of the 1609 shipwreck there of the Virginia Company's flagship, and in 1615 was turned over to the newly formed Somers Isles Company. The Virginia Company's charter was revoked in 1624 and direct control of Virginia was assumed by the crown, thereby founding the Colony of Virginia. The London and Bristol Company was created in 1610 with the aim of creating a permanent settlement on Newfoundland, but was largely unsuccessful. In 1620, Plymouth was founded as a haven for puritan religious separatists, later known as the Pilgrims. Fleeing from religious persecution would become the motive of many English would-be colonists to risk the arduous trans-Atlantic voyage: Maryland was founded as a haven for Roman Catholics (1634), Rhode Island (1636) as a colony tolerant of all religions and Connecticut (1639) for Congregationalists. The Province of Carolina was founded in 1663. With the surrender of Fort Amsterdam in 1664, England gained control of the Dutch colony of New Netherland, renaming it New York. This was formalised in negotiations following the Second Anglo-Dutch War, in exchange for Suriname. In 1681, the colony of Pennsylvania was founded by William Penn. The American colonies were less financially successful than those of the Caribbean, but had large areas of good agricultural land and attracted far larger numbers of English emigrants who preferred their temperate climates.
Which company had monopoly of the trade to supply slaves to the British colonies of the Caribbean?
5726682ff1498d1400e8de9a
Royal African Company
21
False
When was the British slave trade abolished?
5726682ff1498d1400e8de9b
1807
294
False
How many African slaves did Britain transport to the Americas?
5726682ff1498d1400e8de9c
3.5 million
350
False
The triangular slave trade was between Africa, the Americas, and which British cities?
5726682ff1498d1400e8de9d
Bristol and Liverpool
956
False
What was the death rate during the Middle Passage?
5726682ff1498d1400e8de9e
one in seven
1230
False
Two years later, the Royal African Company was inaugurated, receiving from King Charles a monopoly of the trade to supply slaves to the British colonies of the Caribbean. From the outset, slavery was the basis of the British Empire in the West Indies. Until the abolition of the slave trade in 1807, Britain was responsible for the transportation of 3.5 million African slaves to the Americas, a third of all slaves transported across the Atlantic. To facilitate this trade, forts were established on the coast of West Africa, such as James Island, Accra and Bunce Island. In the British Caribbean, the percentage of the population of African descent rose from 25 percent in 1650 to around 80 percent in 1780, and in the 13 Colonies from 10 percent to 40 percent over the same period (the majority in the southern colonies). For the slave traders, the trade was extremely profitable, and became a major economic mainstay for such western British cities as Bristol and Liverpool, which formed the third corner of the so-called triangular trade with Africa and the Americas. For the transported, harsh and unhygienic conditions on the slaving ships and poor diets meant that the average mortality rate during the Middle Passage was one in seven.
When was the Company of Scotland granted a charter?
572668aef1498d1400e8deb8
1695
3
False
When was Panama colonized by Scotland?
572668aef1498d1400e8deb9
1698
113
False
How long did the Scottish Panama colony survive?
572668aef1498d1400e8deba
two years
254
False
How much Scottish capital was lost in the Panama colony attempt?
572668aef1498d1400e8debb
a quarter
327
False
When was the Treaty of Union?
572668aef1498d1400e8debc
1707
638
False
In 1695, the Scottish Parliament granted a charter to the Company of Scotland, which established a settlement in 1698 on the isthmus of Panama. Besieged by neighbouring Spanish colonists of New Granada, and afflicted by malaria, the colony was abandoned two years later. The Darien scheme was a financial disaster for Scotland—a quarter of Scottish capital was lost in the enterprise—and ended Scottish hopes of establishing its own overseas empire. The episode also had major political consequences, persuading the governments of both England and Scotland of the merits of a union of countries, rather than just crowns. This occurred in 1707 with the Treaty of Union, establishing the Kingdom of Great Britain.
When was the British East India Company chartered?
57266960dd62a815002e840c
1600
274
False
When was the Dutch East India Company chartered?
57266960dd62a815002e840d
1602
283
False
When had the British East India Company overtaken the Dutch East India Company in sales?
57266960dd62a815002e840e
1720
1197
False
How many Anglo-Dutch Wars were there in the 17th century?
57266960dd62a815002e840f
three
724
False
The Dutch East India Company focused on trade in which industry?
57266960dd62a815002e8410
spice
1020
False
At the end of the 16th century, England and the Netherlands began to challenge Portugal's monopoly of trade with Asia, forming private joint-stock companies to finance the voyages—the English, later British, East India Company and the Dutch East India Company, chartered in 1600 and 1602 respectively. The primary aim of these companies was to tap into the lucrative spice trade, an effort focused mainly on two regions; the East Indies archipelago, and an important hub in the trade network, India. There, they competed for trade supremacy with Portugal and with each other. Although England ultimately eclipsed the Netherlands as a colonial power, in the short term the Netherlands' more advanced financial system and the three Anglo-Dutch Wars of the 17th century left it with a stronger position in Asia. Hostilities ceased after the Glorious Revolution of 1688 when the Dutch William of Orange ascended the English throne, bringing peace between the Netherlands and England. A deal between the two nations left the spice trade of the East Indies archipelago to the Netherlands and the textiles industry of India to England, but textiles soon overtook spices in terms of profitability, and by 1720, in terms of sales, the British company had overtaken the Dutch.
Which country became Britain's main rival in the 18th century?
57266a2e708984140094c545
France
482
False
When did England and the Netherlands make peace?
57266a2e708984140094c546
1688
45
False
In which war were England and the Netherlands allies?
57266a2e708984140094c547
Nine Years' War
91
False
In which century did Britain become the world's dominant colonial power?
57266a2e708984140094c548
18th
383
False
Peace between England and the Netherlands in 1688 meant that the two countries entered the Nine Years' War as allies, but the conflict—waged in Europe and overseas between France, Spain and the Anglo-Dutch alliance—left the English a stronger colonial power than the Dutch, who were forced to devote a larger proportion of their military budget on the costly land war in Europe. The 18th century saw England (after 1707, Britain) rise to be the world's dominant colonial power, and France becoming its main rival on the imperial stage.
King Philip renounced his right to the throne after what treaty?
57266a9bf1498d1400e8df14
Treaty of Utrecht
18
False
Which country did Britain acquire Newfoundland and Acadia from?
57266a9bf1498d1400e8df15
France
195
False
Which country did Britain acquire Gibraltar and Minorca from?
57266a9bf1498d1400e8df16
Spain
252
False
Which colony allowed Britain to control the Atlantic entry and exit point to the Mediterranean?
57266a9bf1498d1400e8df17
permission to sell slaves in Spanish America
462
False
What was the Spanish term for permission to sell slaves in Spanish America?
57266a9bf1498d1400e8df18
asiento
453
False
At the concluding Treaty of Utrecht, Philip renounced his and his descendants' right to the French throne and Spain lost its empire in Europe. The British Empire was territorially enlarged: from France, Britain gained Newfoundland and Acadia, and from Spain, Gibraltar and Minorca. Gibraltar became a critical naval base and allowed Britain to control the Atlantic entry and exit point to the Mediterranean. Spain also ceded the rights to the lucrative asiento (permission to sell slaves in Spanish America) to Britain.
What was the French equivalent of the English East India Company?
57266b6c5951b619008f721b
Compagnie française des Indes orientales
224
False
When was the Battle of Plassey?
57266b6c5951b619008f721c
1757
399
False
Who led the British in the Battle of Plassey?
57266b6c5951b619008f721d
Robert Clive
434
False
Where were the Carnatic Wars?
57266b6c5951b619008f721e
British Indian Army
941
False
What was the British Indian Army mostly composed of?
57266b6c5951b619008f721f
Indian sepoys
1005
False
During the middle decades of the 18th century, there were several outbreaks of military conflict on the Indian subcontinent, the Carnatic Wars, as the English East India Company (the Company) and its French counterpart, the Compagnie française des Indes orientales, struggled alongside local rulers to fill the vacuum that had been left by the decline of the Mughal Empire. The Battle of Plassey in 1757, in which the British, led by Robert Clive, defeated the Nawab of Bengal and his French allies, left the Company in control of Bengal and as the major military and political power in India. France was left control of its enclaves but with military restrictions and an obligation to support British client states, ending French hopes of controlling India. In the following decades the Company gradually increased the size of the territories under its control, either ruling directly or via local rulers under the threat of force from the British Indian Army, the vast majority of which was composed of Indian sepoys.
When was the Seven Years' War?
57266bc1708984140094c571
1756–1763
97
False
When was the Treaty of Paris?
57266bc1708984140094c572
1763
207
False
Which country acquired New France from France?
57266bc1708984140094c573
Britain
449
False
Which country acquired Louisiana from France?
57266bc1708984140094c574
Spain
544
False
Which country acquired Florida from Spain?
57266bc1708984140094c575
Britain
574
False
The British and French struggles in India became but one theatre of the global Seven Years' War (1756–1763) involving France, Britain and the other major European powers. The signing of the Treaty of Paris (1763) had important consequences for the future of the British Empire. In North America, France's future as a colonial power there was effectively ended with the recognition of British claims to Rupert's Land, and the ceding of New France to Britain (leaving a sizeable French-speaking population under British control) and Louisiana to Spain. Spain ceded Florida to Britain. Along with its victory over France in India, the Seven Years' War therefore left Britain as the world's most powerful maritime power.
British relations with which area became strained in the 1760s-1770s?
57266c3edd62a815002e8466
the Thirteen Colonies
52
False
What was the American colonists' anti-tax slogan?
57266c3edd62a815002e8467
"No taxation without representation"
291
False
When did the US declare independence?
57266c3edd62a815002e8468
1776
618
False
When did France enter the American Revolution war?
57266c3edd62a815002e8469
1778
699
False
When did Britain recognize American independence?
57266c3edd62a815002e846a
1783
909
False
During the 1760s and early 1770s, relations between the Thirteen Colonies and Britain became increasingly strained, primarily because of resentment of the British Parliament's attempts to govern and tax American colonists without their consent. This was summarised at the time by the slogan "No taxation without representation", a perceived violation of the guaranteed Rights of Englishmen. The American Revolution began with rejection of Parliamentary authority and moves towards self-government. In response Britain sent troops to reimpose direct rule, leading to the outbreak of war in 1775. The following year, in 1776, the United States declared independence. The entry of France to the war in 1778 tipped the military balance in the Americans' favour and after a decisive defeat at Yorktown in 1781, Britain began negotiating peace terms. American independence was acknowledged at the Peace of Paris in 1783.
What book by Adam Smith was published in 1776?
57266d6c5951b619008f7269
Wealth of Nations
330
False
The growth of trade between the US and Britain after 1783 seemed to confirm whose views?
57266d6c5951b619008f726a
Smith
698
False
In the 'second' British Empire period, Britain refocused on which areas?
57266d6c5951b619008f726b
Asia, the Pacific and later Africa
281
False
What had been Britain's most populous overseas possession?
57266d6c5951b619008f726c
British America
36
False
Who argued that colonies were redundant?
57266d6c5951b619008f726d
Adam Smith
317
False
The loss of such a large portion of British America, at the time Britain's most populous overseas possession, is seen by some historians as the event defining the transition between the "first" and "second" empires, in which Britain shifted its attention away from the Americas to Asia, the Pacific and later Africa. Adam Smith's Wealth of Nations, published in 1776, had argued that colonies were redundant, and that free trade should replace the old mercantilist policies that had characterised the first period of colonial expansion, dating back to the protectionism of Spain and Portugal. The growth of trade between the newly independent United States and Britain after 1783 seemed to confirm Smith's view that political control was not necessary for economic success.
How many British loyalists moved from the US to Canada?
57266df7708984140094c5a1
between 40,000 and 100,000
61
False
New Brunswick was split off from which province?
57266df7708984140094c5a2
Nova Scotia
249
False
Which act created the Upper Canada provinces?
57266df7708984140094c5a3
The Constitutional Act of 1791
390
False
What language did most of Upper Canada speak?
57266df7708984140094c5a4
English
467
False
What language did most of Lower Canada speak?
57266df7708984140094c5a5
French
510
False
Events in America influenced British policy in Canada, where between 40,000 and 100,000 defeated Loyalists had migrated from America following independence. The 14,000 Loyalists who went to the Saint John and Saint Croix river valleys, then part of Nova Scotia, felt too far removed from the provincial government in Halifax, so London split off New Brunswick as a separate colony in 1784. The Constitutional Act of 1791 created the provinces of Upper Canada (mainly English-speaking) and Lower Canada (mainly French-speaking) to defuse tensions between the French and British communities, and implemented governmental systems similar to those employed in Britain, with the intention of asserting imperial authority and not allowing the sort of popular control of government that was perceived to have led to the American Revolution.
How many convicts per year had Britain been sending to the American colonies?
57266e705951b619008f7281
one thousand
132
False
Where did Britain switch to sending their convicts after the loss of the American colonies?
57266e705951b619008f7282
Australia
341
False
Who discovered Australia in 1606?
57266e705951b619008f7283
Willem Jansz
439
False
What had the Dutch East India Company initially named Australia?
57266e705951b619008f7284
New Holland
480
False
When did the first shipment of British convicts leave for Australia?
57266e705951b619008f7285
1787
925
False
Since 1718, transportation to the American colonies had been a penalty for various criminal offences in Britain, with approximately one thousand convicts transported per year across the Atlantic. Forced to find an alternative location after the loss of the 13 Colonies in 1783, the British government turned to the newly discovered lands of Australia. The western coast of Australia had been discovered for Europeans by the Dutch explorer Willem Jansz in 1606 and was later named New Holland by the Dutch East India Company, but there was no attempt to colonise it. In 1770 James Cook discovered the eastern coast of Australia while on a scientific voyage to the South Pacific Ocean, claimed the continent for Britain, and named it New South Wales. In 1778, Joseph Banks, Cook's botanist on the voyage, presented evidence to the government on the suitability of Botany Bay for the establishment of a penal settlement, and in 1787 the first shipment of convicts set sail, arriving in 1788. Britain continued to transport convicts to New South Wales until 1840. The Australian colonies became profitable exporters of wool and gold, mainly because of gold rushes in the colony of Victoria, making its capital Melbourne the richest city in the world and the largest city after London in the British Empire.
When was New Zealand discovered by the Dutch?
57266fd6708984140094c5f7
1642
100
False
Who discovered New Zealand for the Dutch?
57266fd6708984140094c5f8
Abel Tasman
85
False
When did Cook visit New Zealand and claim the North Island?
57266fd6708984140094c5f9
1769
171
False
What is New Zealand's native population called?
57266fd6708984140094c5fa
Māori
245
False
Who signed a treaty with the Maori?
57266fd6708984140094c5fb
Captain William Hobson
595
False
During his voyage, Cook also visited New Zealand, first discovered by Dutch explorer Abel Tasman in 1642, and claimed the North and South islands for the British crown in 1769 and 1770 respectively. Initially, interaction between the indigenous Māori population and Europeans was limited to the trading of goods. European settlement increased through the early decades of the 19th century, with numerous trading stations established, especially in the North. In 1839, the New Zealand Company announced plans to buy large tracts of land and establish colonies in New Zealand. On 6 February 1840, Captain William Hobson and around 40 Maori chiefs signed the Treaty of Waitangi. This treaty is considered by many to be New Zealand's founding document, but differing interpretations of the Maori and English versions of the text have meant that it continues to be a source of dispute.
The British Royal Navy blockaded which ports?
57267445708984140094c6ad
French
113
False
Where did the British Royal Navy defeat the French and Spanish in 1805?
57267445708984140094c6ae
Trafalgar
220
False
When were the Netherlands' colonies annexed by Napoleon?
57267445708984140094c6af
1810
354
False
When was Napoleon finally defeated?
57267445708984140094c6b0
1815
425
False
The Napoleonic peace treaty had Ceylon given to which country?
57267445708984140094c6b1
Britain
678
False
The Napoleonic Wars were therefore ones in which Britain invested large amounts of capital and resources to win. French ports were blockaded by the Royal Navy, which won a decisive victory over a Franco-Spanish fleet at Trafalgar in 1805. Overseas colonies were attacked and occupied, including those of the Netherlands, which was annexed by Napoleon in 1810. France was finally defeated by a coalition of European armies in 1815. Britain was again the beneficiary of peace treaties: France ceded the Ionian Islands, Malta (which it had occupied in 1797 and 1798 respectively), Mauritius, St Lucia, and Tobago; Spain ceded Trinidad; the Netherlands Guyana, and the Cape Colony. Britain returned Guadeloupe, Martinique, French Guiana, and Réunion to France, and Java and Suriname to the Netherlands, while gaining control of Ceylon (1795–1815).
When was the Slave Trade Act enacted?
572675045951b619008f7321
1807
95
False
What abolished the British slave trade?
572675045951b619008f7322
the Slave Trade Act
72
False
Which colony was the official British colony for freed slaves?
572675045951b619008f7323
Sierra Leone
157
False
What abolished slavery throughout the British Empire?
572675045951b619008f7324
The Slavery Abolition Act
230
False
How long of an 'apprenticeship' did slaves need to have before being fully freed?
572675045951b619008f7325
4 to 6 years
547
False
With support from the British abolitionist movement, Parliament enacted the Slave Trade Act in 1807, which abolished the slave trade in the empire. In 1808, Sierra Leone was designated an official British colony for freed slaves. The Slavery Abolition Act passed in 1833 abolished slavery in the British Empire on 1 August 1834 (with the exception of St. Helena, Ceylon and the territories administered by the East India Company, though these exclusions were later repealed). Under the Act, slaves were granted full emancipation after a period of 4 to 6 years of "apprenticeship".
How many square miles of territory were added to the British Empire between 1815 and 1914?
572675a3dd62a815002e85b2
10,000,000
103
False
How many people were added to the British Empire between 1815 and 1914?
572675a3dd62a815002e85b3
400 million
169
False
Who was Britain's last serious rival after Napoleon?
572675a3dd62a815002e85b4
Russia
309
False
What was the period of Britain acting as the world's police called?
572675a3dd62a815002e85b5
Britain's dominant position in world trade
563
False
Britain's dominant position in world trade over some countries' economies has been called what?
572675a3dd62a815002e85b6
Informal Empire
763
False
Between 1815 and 1914, a period referred to as Britain's "imperial century" by some historians, around 10,000,000 square miles (26,000,000 km2) of territory and roughly 400 million people were added to the British Empire. Victory over Napoleon left Britain without any serious international rival, other than Russia in central Asia. Unchallenged at sea, Britain adopted the role of global policeman, a state of affairs later known as the Pax Britannica, and a foreign policy of "splendid isolation". Alongside the formal control it exerted over its own colonies, Britain's dominant position in world trade meant that it effectively controlled the economies of many countries, such as China, Argentina and Siam, which has been characterised by some historians as "Informal Empire".
What illegal trade was the British East India Company involved in?
572676425951b619008f7359
opium
88
False
How many chests of opium did China confiscate in 1839?
572676425951b619008f735a
20,000
407
False
The First Opium War led to Britain seizing what island?
572676425951b619008f735b
Hong Kong
524
False
Which dynasty outlawed opium trade?
572676425951b619008f735c
Qing
182
False
When did China outlaw opium trade?
572676425951b619008f735d
1729
198
False
From its base in India, the Company had also been engaged in an increasingly profitable opium export trade to China since the 1730s. This trade, illegal since it was outlawed by the Qing dynasty in 1729, helped reverse the trade imbalances resulting from the British imports of tea, which saw large outflows of silver from Britain to China. In 1839, the confiscation by the Chinese authorities at Canton of 20,000 chests of opium led Britain to attack China in the First Opium War, and resulted in the seizure by Britain of Hong Kong Island, at that time a minor settlement.
When did Britain pass the Regulating Act?
572676c05951b619008f736b
1773
214
False
When did Britain pass Pitt's India Act?
572676c05951b619008f736c
1784
240
False
When did Britain pass the Charter Act?
572676c05951b619008f736d
1813
268
False
The British East India Company was dissolved by which act?
572676c05951b619008f736e
Government of India Act
770
False
Who was crowned the Empress of India?
572676c05951b619008f736f
Queen Victoria
889
False
During the late 18th and early 19th centuries the British Crown began to assume an increasingly large role in the affairs of the Company. A series of Acts of Parliament were passed, including the Regulating Act of 1773, Pitt's India Act of 1784 and the Charter Act of 1813 which regulated the Company's affairs and established the sovereignty of the Crown over the territories that it had acquired. The Company's eventual end was precipitated by the Indian Rebellion, a conflict that had begun with the mutiny of sepoys, Indian troops under British officers and discipline. The rebellion took six months to suppress, with heavy loss of life on both sides. The following year the British government dissolved the Company and assumed direct control over India through the Government of India Act 1858, establishing the British Raj, where an appointed governor-general administered India and Queen Victoria was crowned the Empress of India. India became the empire's most valuable possession, "the Jewel in the Crown", and was the most important source of Britain's strength.
Britain competed with which country to fill the Asian power vacuum in the 19th century?
5726776df1498d1400e8e0a2
Russian
41
False
When did Britain first invade Afghanistan?
5726776df1498d1400e8e0a3
1839
433
False
What was the British-Russian rivalry called?
5726776df1498d1400e8e0a4
the "Great Game"
215
False
Britain feared Russia would invade what country/territory?
5726776df1498d1400e8e0a5
India
423
False
Russian victories against which countries increased British fears?
5726776df1498d1400e8e0a6
Persia and Turkey
297
False
During the 19th century, Britain and the Russian Empire vied to fill the power vacuums that had been left by the declining Ottoman Empire, Qajar dynasty and Qing Dynasty. This rivalry in Eurasia came to be known as the "Great Game". As far as Britain was concerned, defeats inflicted by Russia on Persia and Turkey demonstrated its imperial ambitions and capabilities and stoked fears in Britain of an overland invasion of India. In 1839, Britain moved to pre-empt this by invading Afghanistan, but the First Anglo-Afghan War was a disaster for Britain.
When did Russia invade the Turkish Balkans?
57267801dd62a815002e860e
1853
43
False
What was took place in 1854-1856?
57267801dd62a815002e860f
Crimean War
219
False
Who lost the Crimean War?
57267801dd62a815002e8610
Russia
424
False
When did Britain take over Baluchistan?
57267801dd62a815002e8611
1876
541
False
Which country took over Kazakhstan?
57267801dd62a815002e8612
Russia
550
False
When Russia invaded the Turkish Balkans in 1853, fears of Russian dominance in the Mediterranean and Middle East led Britain and France to invade the Crimean Peninsula to destroy Russian naval capabilities. The ensuing Crimean War (1854–56), which involved new techniques of modern warfare, and was the only global war fought between Britain and another imperial power during the Pax Britannica, was a resounding defeat for Russia. The situation remained unresolved in Central Asia for two more decades, with Britain annexing Baluchistan in 1876 and Russia annexing Kirghizia, Kazakhstan, and Turkmenistan. For a while it appeared that another war would be inevitable, but the two countries reached an agreement on their respective spheres of influence in the region in 1878 and on all outstanding matters in 1907 with the signing of the Anglo-Russian Entente. The destruction of the Russian Navy by the Japanese at the Battle of Port Arthur during the Russo-Japanese War of 1904–05 also limited its threat to the British.
When was the southern tip of Africa colonized?
57267897dd62a815002e8634
1652
90
False
Which entity founded the Cape Colony?
57267897dd62a815002e8635
The Dutch East India Company
0
False
When did Britain formally acquire the Cape Colony?
57267897dd62a815002e8636
1806
268
False
What African people moved northwards to escape British rule?
57267897dd62a815002e8637
Boers
466
False
When did the Second Boer War end?
57267897dd62a815002e8638
1902
1047
False
The Dutch East India Company had founded the Cape Colony on the southern tip of Africa in 1652 as a way station for its ships travelling to and from its colonies in the East Indies. Britain formally acquired the colony, and its large Afrikaner (or Boer) population in 1806, having occupied it in 1795 to prevent its falling into French hands, following the invasion of the Netherlands by France. British immigration began to rise after 1820, and pushed thousands of Boers, resentful of British rule, northwards to found their own—mostly short-lived—independent republics, during the Great Trek of the late 1830s and early 1840s. In the process the Voortrekkers clashed repeatedly with the British, who had their own agenda with regard to colonial expansion in South Africa and with several African polities, including those of the Sotho and the Zulu nations. Eventually the Boers established two republics which had a longer lifespan: the South African Republic or Transvaal Republic (1852–77; 1881–1902) and the Orange Free State (1854–1902). In 1902 Britain occupied both republics, concluding a treaty with the two Boer Republics following the Second Boer War (1899–1902).
When did the Suez Canal open?
57267973dd62a815002e865c
1869
3
False
Which ocean did the Suez Canal connect the Mediterranean to?
57267973dd62a815002e865d
Indian Ocean
85
False
Which French leader ruled when the Suez Canal opened?
57267973dd62a815002e865e
Napoleon III
36
False
How much did Britain spend to buy Egypt's share of the Suez Canal?
57267973dd62a815002e865f
£4 million
407
False
The Suez Canal became neutral territory by what treaty?
57267973dd62a815002e8660
Convention of Constantinople
771
False
In 1869 the Suez Canal opened under Napoleon III, linking the Mediterranean with the Indian Ocean. Initially the Canal was opposed by the British; but once opened, its strategic value was quickly recognised and became the "jugular vein of the Empire". In 1875, the Conservative government of Benjamin Disraeli bought the indebted Egyptian ruler Isma'il Pasha's 44 percent shareholding in the Suez Canal for £4 million (£340 million in 2013). Although this did not grant outright control of the strategic waterway, it did give Britain leverage. Joint Anglo-French financial control over Egypt ended in outright British occupation in 1882. The French were still majority shareholders and attempted to weaken the British position, but a compromise was reached with the 1888 Convention of Constantinople, which made the Canal officially neutral territory.
Where did France try to invade in 1898?
57267a9ff1498d1400e8e12c
Fashoda
616
False
What army did Britain and Egypt defeat together?
57267a9ff1498d1400e8e12d
Mahdist
550
False
When did Britain withdraw from Sudan?
57267a9ff1498d1400e8e12e
1885
463
False
What was the period of European empires competing to control Africa called?
57267a9ff1498d1400e8e12f
the "Scramble for Africa"
244
False
Where was a conference held in 1884 to regulate European competition for Africa?
57267a9ff1498d1400e8e130
Berlin
131
False
With French, Belgian and Portuguese activity in the lower Congo River region undermining orderly incursion of tropical Africa, the Berlin Conference of 1884–85 was held to regulate the competition between the European powers in what was called the "Scramble for Africa" by defining "effective occupation" as the criterion for international recognition of territorial claims. The scramble continued into the 1890s, and caused Britain to reconsider its decision in 1885 to withdraw from Sudan. A joint force of British and Egyptian troops defeated the Mahdist Army in 1896, and rebuffed a French attempted invasion at Fashoda in 1898. Sudan was nominally made an Anglo-Egyptian Condominium, but a British colony in reality.
When was it proposed to unify Upper and Lower Canada?
57267b4add62a815002e869c
1839
85
False
The Act of Union unified Canada into a territory by what name?
57267b4add62a815002e869d
Province of Canada
296
False
When was the British North America Act passed?
57267b4add62a815002e869e
1867
500
False
When did Australia achieve self-government?
57267b4add62a815002e869f
after 1900
789
False
When did New Zealand achieve self-government?
57267b4add62a815002e86a0
after 1900
789
False
The path to independence for the white colonies of the British Empire began with the 1839 Durham Report, which proposed unification and self-government for Upper and Lower Canada, as a solution to political unrest there. This began with the passing of the Act of Union in 1840, which created the Province of Canada. Responsible government was first granted to Nova Scotia in 1848, and was soon extended to the other British North American colonies. With the passage of the British North America Act, 1867 by the British Parliament, Upper and Lower Canada, New Brunswick and Nova Scotia were formed into the Dominion of Canada, a confederation enjoying full self-government with the exception of international relations. Australia and New Zealand achieved similar levels of self-government after 1900, with the Australian colonies federating in 1901. The term "dominion status" was officially introduced at the Colonial Conference of 1907.
Which British Prime Minister first supported home rule of Ireland?
57267c12dd62a815002e86c2
William Gladstone
355
False
The first Home Rule bill would have given Ireland less self-control than what other territory?
57267c12dd62a815002e86c3
Canada
413
False
When was the Easter Rising?
57267c12dd62a815002e86c4
1916
1011
False
When was a Home Rule bill passed?
57267c12dd62a815002e86c5
1914
923
False
The passed Home Rule Bill wasn't implemented because of which war?
57267c12dd62a815002e86c6
the First World War
976
False
The last decades of the 19th century saw concerted political campaigns for Irish home rule. Ireland had been united with Britain into the United Kingdom of Great Britain and Ireland with the Act of Union 1800 after the Irish Rebellion of 1798, and had suffered a severe famine between 1845 and 1852. Home rule was supported by the British Prime minister, William Gladstone, who hoped that Ireland might follow in Canada's footsteps as a Dominion within the empire, but his 1886 Home Rule bill was defeated in Parliament. Although the bill, if passed, would have granted Ireland less autonomy within the UK than the Canadian provinces had within their own federation, many MPs feared that a partially independent Ireland might pose a security threat to Great Britain or mark the beginning of the break-up of the empire. A second Home Rule bill was also defeated for similar reasons. A third bill was passed by Parliament in 1914, but not implemented because of the outbreak of the First World War leading to the 1916 Easter Rising.
Which country seemed like Britain's most likely threat in the early 20th century?
57267c87708984140094c7af
Germany
226
False
Which country did Britain ally with in 1902?
57267c87708984140094c7b0
Japan
489
False
Which country did Britain ally with in 1904?
57267c87708984140094c7b1
France
528
False
Which country did Britain ally with in 1907?
57267c87708984140094c7b2
Russia
539
False
By the turn of the 20th century, fears had begun to grow in Britain that it would no longer be able to defend the metropole and the entirety of the empire while at the same time maintaining the policy of "splendid isolation". Germany was rapidly rising as a military and industrial power and was now seen as the most likely opponent in any future war. Recognising that it was overstretched in the Pacific and threatened at home by the Imperial German Navy, Britain formed an alliance with Japan in 1902 and with its old enemies France and Russia in 1904 and 1907, respectively.
When did the First World War begin?
57267d8ff1498d1400e8e18a
1914
53
False
When WW1 began, Britain took the opportunity to take over most of which country's colonies?
57267d8ff1498d1400e8e18b
Germany
145
False
Who took over German New Guinea?
57267d8ff1498d1400e8e18c
Australia
200
False
Who took over Samoa?
57267d8ff1498d1400e8e18d
Sykes–Picot Agreement
434
False
The Sykes–Picot Agreement was signed in what year?
57267d8ff1498d1400e8e18e
1916
429
False
Britain's fears of war with Germany were realised in 1914 with the outbreak of the First World War. Britain quickly invaded and occupied most of Germany's overseas colonies in Africa. In the Pacific, Australia and New Zealand occupied German New Guinea and Samoa respectively. Plans for a post-war division of the Ottoman Empire, which had joined the war on Germany's side, were secretly drawn up by Britain and France under the 1916 Sykes–Picot Agreement. This agreement was not divulged to the Sharif of Mecca, who the British had been encouraging to launch an Arab revolt against their Ottoman rulers, giving the impression that Britain was supporting the creation of an independent Arab state.
How many people were in the Dominions' armies?
57267ea9dd62a815002e8722
Over 2.5 million
168
False
When was the Gallipoli Campaign?
57267ea9dd62a815002e8723
1915
359
False
Which British Prime Minister recognized the Dominions' contributions in 1917?
57267ea9dd62a815002e8724
David Lloyd George
826
False
The Imperial War Cabinet was created by which British Prime Minister?
57267ea9dd62a815002e8725
Gallipoli Campaign
364
False
The Gallipoli Campaign fought against which country?
57267ea9dd62a815002e8726
the Ottoman Empire
391
False
The British declaration of war on Germany and its allies also committed the colonies and Dominions, which provided invaluable military, financial and material support. Over 2.5 million men served in the armies of the Dominions, as well as many thousands of volunteers from the Crown colonies. The contributions of Australian and New Zealand troops during the 1915 Gallipoli Campaign against the Ottoman Empire had a great impact on the national consciousness at home, and marked a watershed in the transition of Australia and New Zealand from colonies to nations in their own right. The countries continue to commemorate this occasion on Anzac Day. Canadians viewed the Battle of Vimy Ridge in a similar light. The important contribution of the Dominions to the war effort was recognised in 1917 by the British Prime Minister David Lloyd George when he invited each of the Dominion Prime Ministers to join an Imperial War Cabinet to co-ordinate imperial policy.
When was the Treaty of Versailles signed?
57267f35f1498d1400e8e1c0
1919
65
False
How many square miles did the Treaty of Versailles add to the British Empire?
57267f35f1498d1400e8e1c1
1,800,000
131
False
Which countries' colonies were given to the Allied powers in 1919?
57267f35f1498d1400e8e1c2
Germany and the Ottoman Empire
215
False
What modern-day country is South-West Africa?
57267f35f1498d1400e8e1c3
Namibia
540
False
How many people did the Treaty of Versailles add to the British Empire?
57267f35f1498d1400e8e1c4
13 million
174
False
Under the terms of the concluding Treaty of Versailles signed in 1919, the empire reached its greatest extent with the addition of 1,800,000 square miles (4,700,000 km2) and 13 million new subjects. The colonies of Germany and the Ottoman Empire were distributed to the Allied powers as League of Nations mandates. Britain gained control of Palestine, Transjordan, Iraq, parts of Cameroon and Togo, and Tanganyika. The Dominions themselves also acquired mandates of their own: the Union of South Africa gained South-West Africa (modern-day Namibia), Australia gained German New Guinea, and New Zealand Western Samoa. Nauru was made a combined mandate of Britain and the two Pacific Dominions.
When did Britain sign the Washington Naval Treaty?
57268034708984140094c819
1922
387
False
The Great Depression helped which countries' governments become more militaristic?
57268034708984140094c81a
Japan and Germany
590
False
When Britain had to choose between its Japanese alliance or the US, which did it choose?
57268034708984140094c81b
United States
462
False
British imperialism was being reconsidered in light of which territories' independence movements?
57268034708984140094c81c
India and Ireland
172
False
The changing world order that the war had brought about, in particular the growth of the United States and Japan as naval powers, and the rise of independence movements in India and Ireland, caused a major reassessment of British imperial policy. Forced to choose between alignment with the United States or Japan, Britain opted not to renew its Japanese alliance and instead signed the 1922 Washington Naval Treaty, where Britain accepted naval parity with the United States. This decision was the source of much debate in Britain during the 1930s as militaristic governments took hold in Japan and Germany helped in part by the Great Depression, for it was feared that the empire could not survive a simultaneous attack by both nations. Although the issue of the empire's security was a serious concern in Britain, at the same time the empire was vital to the British economy.
When did Ireland establish their own assembly?
572680c4f1498d1400e8e1f0
1919
3
False
What political party established Ireland's assembly?
572680c4f1498d1400e8e1f1
Sinn Féin
77
False
When did the Anglo-Irish War end?
572680c4f1498d1400e8e1f2
1921
421
False
What treaty was signed after the Anglo-Irish War?
572680c4f1498d1400e8e1f3
Anglo-Irish Treaty
466
False
How many counties of Ireland are in Northern Ireland?
572680c4f1498d1400e8e1f4
six
682
False
In 1919, the frustrations caused by delays to Irish home rule led members of Sinn Féin, a pro-independence party that had won a majority of the Irish seats at Westminster in the 1918 British general election, to establish an Irish assembly in Dublin, at which Irish independence was declared. The Irish Republican Army simultaneously began a guerrilla war against the British administration. The Anglo-Irish War ended in 1921 with a stalemate and the signing of the Anglo-Irish Treaty, creating the Irish Free State, a Dominion within the British Empire, with effective internal independence but still constitutionally linked with the British Crown. Northern Ireland, consisting of six of the 32 Irish counties which had been established as a devolved region under the 1920 Government of Ireland Act, immediately exercised its option under the treaty to retain its existing status within the United Kingdom.
When was the Government of India Act passed?
572684975951b619008f7549
1919
67
False
What event stoked fears of communist plots in India?
572684975951b619008f754a
the Ghadar Conspiracy
167
False
In what region was the Amritsar Massacre?
572684975951b619008f754b
Punjab
297
False
The Chauri Chaura incident led to the end of what movement?
572684975951b619008f754c
Non-Co-Operation
561
False
A similar struggle began in India when the Government of India Act 1919 failed to satisfy demand for independence. Concerns over communist and foreign plots following the Ghadar Conspiracy ensured that war-time strictures were renewed by the Rowlatt Acts. This led to tension, particularly in the Punjab region, where repressive measures culminated in the Amritsar Massacre. In Britain public opinion was divided over the morality of the event, between those who saw it as having saved India from anarchy, and those who viewed it with revulsion. The subsequent Non-Co-Operation movement was called off in March 1922 following the Chauri Chaura incident, and discontent continued to simmer for the next 25 years.
When did Egypt regain formal independence from Britain?
572685395951b619008f7561
1922
3
False
When did Egypt stop being a British client state?
572685395951b619008f7562
1954
191
False
What treaty was signed in 1936?
572685395951b619008f7563
Anglo-Egyptian Treaty
265
False
When did Iraq gain independence from Britain?
572685395951b619008f7564
1932
604
False
Britain became more pro-Arab in the 1930s at the expense of which race?
572685395951b619008f7565
Jewish
1353
False
In 1922, Egypt, which had been declared a British protectorate at the outbreak of the First World War, was granted formal independence, though it continued to be a British client state until 1954. British troops remained stationed in Egypt until the signing of the Anglo-Egyptian Treaty in 1936, under which it was agreed that the troops would withdraw but continue to occupy and defend the Suez Canal zone. In return, Egypt was assisted to join the League of Nations. Iraq, a British mandate since 1920, also gained membership of the League in its own right after achieving independence from Britain in 1932. In Palestine, Britain was presented with the problem of mediating between the Arab and Jewish communities. The 1917 Balfour Declaration, which had been incorporated into the terms of the mandate, stated that a national home for the Jewish people would be established in Palestine, and Jewish immigration allowed up to a limit that would be determined by the mandatory power. This led to increasing conflict with the Arab population, who openly revolted in 1936. As the threat of war with Germany increased during the 1930s, Britain judged the support of the Arab population in the Middle East as more important than the establishment of a Jewish homeland, and shifted to a pro-Arab stance, limiting Jewish immigration and in turn triggering a Jewish insurgency.
When was the right of Dominions to determine their own foreign policy recognized?
5726865bf1498d1400e8e2b2
1923
108
False
Which treaty did Canada ignore?
5726865bf1498d1400e8e2b3
Treaty of Lausanne
346
False
When was the Balfour Declaration issued?
5726865bf1498d1400e8e2b4
1926
416
False
When was the status of Dominions as equal autonomous communities given legal force?
5726865bf1498d1400e8e2b5
1931
706
False
When did Ireland issue a new constitution?
5726865bf1498d1400e8e2b6
1937
1216
False
The ability of the Dominions to set their own foreign policy, independent of Britain, was recognised at the 1923 Imperial Conference. Britain's request for military assistance from the Dominions at the outbreak of the Chanak Crisis the previous year had been turned down by Canada and South Africa, and Canada had refused to be bound by the 1923 Treaty of Lausanne. After pressure from Ireland and South Africa, the 1926 Imperial Conference issued the Balfour Declaration, declaring the Dominions to be "autonomous Communities within the British Empire, equal in status, in no way subordinate one to another" within a "British Commonwealth of Nations". This declaration was given legal substance under the 1931 Statute of Westminster. The parliaments of Canada, Australia, New Zealand, the Union of South Africa, the Irish Free State and Newfoundland were now independent of British legislative control, they could nullify British laws and Britain could no longer pass laws for them without their consent. Newfoundland reverted to colonial status in 1933, suffering from financial difficulties during the Great Depression. Ireland distanced itself further from Britain with the introduction of a new constitution in 1937, making it a republic in all but name.
When was France occupied by Germany?
57268766dd62a815002e8842
1940
41
False
When was the Atlantic Charter signed?
57268766dd62a815002e8843
August 1941
371
False
Which British Prime Minister signed the Atlantic Charter?
57268766dd62a815002e8844
Churchill
384
False
Which US President signed the Atlantic Charter?
57268766dd62a815002e8845
Roosevelt
398
False
Which country first entered World War 2 after France's defeat?
57268766dd62a815002e8846
Soviet Union
122
False
After the German occupation of France in 1940, Britain and the empire stood alone against Germany, until the entry of the Soviet Union to the war in 1941. British Prime Minister Winston Churchill successfully lobbied President Franklin D. Roosevelt for military aid from the United States, but Roosevelt was not yet ready to ask Congress to commit the country to war. In August 1941, Churchill and Roosevelt met and signed the Atlantic Charter, which included the statement that "the rights of all peoples to choose the form of government under which they live" should be respected. This wording was ambiguous as to whether it referred to European countries invaded by Germany, or the peoples colonised by European nations, and would later be interpreted differently by the British, Americans, and nationalist movements.
Which country attacked British Malaya in 1941?
57268864f1498d1400e8e2fc
Japan
18
False
Which country attacked Hong Kong in 1941?
57268864f1498d1400e8e2fd
Japan
18
False
When was the ANZUS Pact formed?
57268864f1498d1400e8e2fe
1951
804
False
Which countries were in the ANZUS Pact?
57268864f1498d1400e8e2ff
Australia, New Zealand and the United States
828
False
Which territory had been compared to Gibraltar?
57268864f1498d1400e8e300
Singapore
482
False
In December 1941, Japan launched, in quick succession, attacks on British Malaya, the United States naval base at Pearl Harbor, and Hong Kong. Churchill's reaction to the entry of the United States into the war was that Britain was now assured of victory and the future of the empire was safe, but the manner in which British forces were rapidly defeated in the Far East irreversibly harmed Britain's standing and prestige as an imperial power. Most damaging of all was the fall of Singapore, which had previously been hailed as an impregnable fortress and the eastern equivalent of Gibraltar. The realisation that Britain could not defend its entire empire pushed Australia and New Zealand, which now appeared threatened by Japanese forces, into closer ties with the United States. This resulted in the 1951 ANZUS Pact between Australia, New Zealand and the United States of America.
How much money did the US loan to Britain after WW2?
572688f65951b619008f7611
$US 4.33 billion
449
False
When did Britain finish paying back the US loan?
572688f65951b619008f7612
2006
562
False
When did the US make a large loan to Britain?
572688f65951b619008f7613
1946
417
False
Though the US and the Soviet Union were both against colonialism, what was the US more afraid of?
572688f65951b619008f7614
communism
881
False
How many people outside the UK were under British rule in 1945?
572688f65951b619008f7615
700 million
1549
False
Though Britain and the empire emerged victorious from the Second World War, the effects of the conflict were profound, both at home and abroad. Much of Europe, a continent that had dominated the world for several centuries, was in ruins, and host to the armies of the United States and the Soviet Union, who now held the balance of global power. Britain was left essentially bankrupt, with insolvency only averted in 1946 after the negotiation of a $US 4.33 billion loan (US$56 billion in 2012) from the United States, the last instalment of which was repaid in 2006. At the same time, anti-colonial movements were on the rise in the colonies of European nations. The situation was complicated further by the increasing Cold War rivalry of the United States and the Soviet Union. In principle, both nations were opposed to European colonialism. In practice, however, American anti-communism prevailed over anti-imperialism, and therefore the United States supported the continued existence of the British Empire to keep Communist expansion in check. The "wind of change" ultimately meant that the British Empire's days were numbered, and on the whole, Britain adopted a policy of peaceful disengagement from its colonies once stable, non-Communist governments were available to transfer power to. This was in contrast to other European powers such as France and Portugal, which waged costly and ultimately unsuccessful wars to keep their empires intact. Between 1945 and 1965, the number of people under British rule outside the UK itself fell from 700 million to five million, three million of whom were in Hong Kong.
Who led the British government elected in 1945?
572689dbdd62a815002e889a
Clement Attlee
90
False
What were India's two largest political parties in the 1940s?
572689dbdd62a815002e889b
the Indian National Congress and the Muslim League
238
False
What was India's majority religion in the 1940s?
572689dbdd62a815002e889c
Hindu
486
False
When India was split into Hindu and Muslim areas, what country did the Muslim area become?
572689dbdd62a815002e889d
Pakistan
1112
False
When did Burma get its independence?
572689dbdd62a815002e889e
1948
1347
False
The pro-decolonisation Labour government, elected at the 1945 general election and led by Clement Attlee, moved quickly to tackle the most pressing issue facing the empire: that of Indian independence. India's two major political parties—the Indian National Congress and the Muslim League—had been campaigning for independence for decades, but disagreed as to how it should be implemented. Congress favoured a unified secular Indian state, whereas the League, fearing domination by the Hindu majority, desired a separate Islamic state for Muslim-majority regions. Increasing civil unrest and the mutiny of the Royal Indian Navy during 1946 led Attlee to promise independence no later than 1948. When the urgency of the situation and risk of civil war became apparent, the newly appointed (and last) Viceroy, Lord Mountbatten, hastily brought forward the date to 15 August 1947. The borders drawn by the British to broadly partition India into Hindu and Muslim areas left tens of millions as minorities in the newly independent states of India and Pakistan. Millions of Muslims subsequently crossed from India to Pakistan and Hindus vice versa, and violence between the two communities cost hundreds of thousands of lives. Burma, which had been administered as part of the British Raj, and Sri Lanka gained their independence the following year in 1948. India, Pakistan and Sri Lanka became members of the Commonwealth, while Burma chose not to join.
What race was the majority in Palestine in the 1940s?
57268a62dd62a815002e88b6
Arab
43
False
When did Britain announce plans to withdraw from Palestine?
57268a62dd62a815002e88b7
1947
516
False
Which entity decided to partition Palestine into Jewish and Arab states?
57268a62dd62a815002e88b8
The UN General Assembly
605
False
Where did many Jewish refugees want to move because of the Holocaust?
57268a62dd62a815002e88b9
Palestine
244
False
The British Mandate of Palestine, where an Arab majority lived alongside a Jewish minority, presented the British with a similar problem to that of India. The matter was complicated by large numbers of Jewish refugees seeking to be admitted to Palestine following the Holocaust, while Arabs were opposed to the creation of a Jewish state. Frustrated by the intractability of the problem, attacks by Jewish paramilitary organisations and the increasing cost of maintaining its military presence, Britain announced in 1947 that it would withdraw in 1948 and leave the matter to the United Nations to solve. The UN General Assembly subsequently voted for a plan to partition Palestine into a Jewish and an Arab state.
When did the Malayan Emergency begin?
57268ad3708984140094c97d
1948
554
False
When did Britain give the Federation of Malaya its independence?
57268ad3708984140094c97e
1957
589
False
When did Singapore leave the Federation of Malaya?
57268ad3708984140094c97f
1965
823
False
What race was the majority of Singapore's population?
57268ad3708984140094c980
Chinese
828
False
When did Brunei get its independence?
57268ad3708984140094c981
1984
1078
False
Following the defeat of Japan in the Second World War, anti-Japanese resistance movements in Malaya turned their attention towards the British, who had moved to quickly retake control of the colony, valuing it as a source of rubber and tin. The fact that the guerrillas were primarily Malayan-Chinese Communists meant that the British attempt to quell the uprising was supported by the Muslim Malay majority, on the understanding that once the insurgency had been quelled, independence would be granted. The Malayan Emergency, as it was called, began in 1948 and lasted until 1960, but by 1957, Britain felt confident enough to grant independence to the Federation of Malaya within the Commonwealth. In 1963, the 11 states of the federation together with Singapore, Sarawak and North Borneo joined to form Malaysia, but in 1965 Chinese-majority Singapore was expelled from the union following tensions between the Malay and Chinese populations. Brunei, which had been a British protectorate since 1888, declined to join the union and maintained its status until independence in 1984.
What party regained power in Britain in 1951?
57268be7708984140094c99d
Conservative Party
13
False
Which party was Winston Churchill in?
57268be7708984140094c99e
Conservative Party
13
False
Who ruled Egypt in 1952?
57268be7708984140094c99f
Gamal Abdul Nasser
408
False
When did Sudan receive independence?
57268be7708984140094c9a0
1 January 1956
717
False
Britain wanted to retain control of the Suez Canal to help its importance in what region?
57268be7708984140094c9a1
Middle East
329
False
In 1951, the Conservative Party returned to power in Britain, under the leadership of Winston Churchill. Churchill and the Conservatives believed that Britain's position as a world power relied on the continued existence of the empire, with the base at the Suez Canal allowing Britain to maintain its pre-eminent position in the Middle East in spite of the loss of India. However, Churchill could not ignore Gamal Abdul Nasser's new revolutionary government of Egypt that had taken power in 1952, and the following year it was agreed that British troops would withdraw from the Suez Canal zone and that Sudan would be granted self-determination by 1955, with independence to follow. Sudan was granted independence on 1 January 1956.
When was the Suez Canal nationalized?
57268d53708984140094c9d7
July 1956
3
False
Who became British Prime Minister after Winston Churchill?
57268d53708984140094c9d8
Anthony Eden
79
False
Which country did Eden conspire with to cause an attack on Egypt?
57268d53708984140094c9d9
France
160
False
Who decided to sell US reserves of the British pound to cause the pound to collapse?
57268d53708984140094c9da
Eisenhower
567
False
What country did Britain convince to attack Egypt?
57268d53708984140094c9db
Israeli
182
False
In July 1956, Nasser unilaterally nationalised the Suez Canal. The response of Anthony Eden, who had succeeded Churchill as Prime Minister, was to collude with France to engineer an Israeli attack on Egypt that would give Britain and France an excuse to intervene militarily and retake the canal. Eden infuriated US President Dwight D. Eisenhower, by his lack of consultation, and Eisenhower refused to back the invasion. Another of Eisenhower's concerns was the possibility of a wider war with the Soviet Union after it threatened to intervene on the Egyptian side. Eisenhower applied financial leverage by threatening to sell US reserves of the British pound and thereby precipitate a collapse of the British currency. Though the invasion force was militarily successful in its objectives, UN intervention and US pressure forced Britain into a humiliating withdrawal of its forces, and Eden resigned.
Where did 'Britain's Waterloo' occur?
57268dd3708984140094c9eb
Suez
274
False
Who referred to 'Suez Syndrome'?
57268dd3708984140094c9ec
Margaret Thatcher
441
False
When did Britain retake the Falkland Islands?
57268dd3708984140094c9ed
1982
677
False
From whom did Britain retake the Falkland Islands?
57268dd3708984140094c9ee
Argentina
664
False
A British minister thought which country was becoming an 'American satellite'?
57268dd3708984140094c9ef
Britain
38
False
The Suez Crisis very publicly exposed Britain's limitations to the world and confirmed Britain's decline on the world stage, demonstrating that henceforth it could no longer act without at least the acquiescence, if not the full support, of the United States. The events at Suez wounded British national pride, leading one MP to describe it as "Britain's Waterloo" and another to suggest that the country had become an "American satellite". Margaret Thatcher later described the mindset she believed had befallen the British political establishment as "Suez syndrome", from which Britain did not recover until the successful recapture of the Falkland Islands from Argentina in 1982.
When did Britain withdraw from Aden?
57268e54dd62a815002e8966
1967
794
False
When did Britain withdraw from Bahrain?
57268e54dd62a815002e8967
1971
811
False
When did Britain withdraw from the Maldives?
57268e54dd62a815002e8968
1976
833
False
Who was Harold Wilson's Defense Secretary?
57268e54dd62a815002e8969
Denis Healey
571
False
Where did Britain's army attack in 1961?
57268e54dd62a815002e896a
Kuwait
195
False
While the Suez Crisis caused British power in the Middle East to weaken, it did not collapse. Britain again deployed its armed forces to the region, intervening in Oman (1957), Jordan (1958) and Kuwait (1961), though on these occasions with American approval, as the new Prime Minister Harold Macmillan's foreign policy was to remain firmly aligned with the United States. Britain maintained a military presence in the Middle East for another decade. In January 1968, a few weeks after the devaluation of the pound, Prime Minister Harold Wilson and his Defence Secretary Denis Healey announced that British troops would be withdrawn from major military bases East of Suez, which included the ones in the Middle East, and primarily from Malaysia and Singapore. The British withdrew from Aden in 1967, Bahrain in 1971, and Maldives in 1976.
What was the last British colony remaining in Africa?
57268ecbdd62a815002e8986
Southern Rhodesia
66
False
When was the second-to-last British colony in Africa granted independence?
57268ecbdd62a815002e8987
1968
118
False
When was the Unilateral Declaration of Independence of Rhodesia?
57268ecbdd62a815002e8988
1965
303
False
What new country did the Lancaster House Agreement recognize?
57268ecbdd62a815002e8989
Mau Mau Uprising
268
False
Where was the Mau Mau Uprising?
57268ecbdd62a815002e898a
Kenyan
217
False
Britain's remaining colonies in Africa, except for self-governing Southern Rhodesia, were all granted independence by 1968. British withdrawal from the southern and eastern parts of Africa was not a peaceful process. Kenyan independence was preceded by the eight-year Mau Mau Uprising. In Rhodesia, the 1965 Unilateral Declaration of Independence by the white minority resulted in a civil war that lasted until the Lancaster House Agreement of 1979, which set the terms for recognised independence in 1980, as the new nation of Zimbabwe.
Which British territory received independence in 1961?
57268f475951b619008f7691
Jamaica
101
False
Which British territory received independence in 1962?
57268f475951b619008f7692
Trinidad
113
False
When did Barbados get independence?
57268f475951b619008f7693
1966
352
False
Which islands decided to return to British rule after receiving independence?
57268f475951b619008f7694
Anguilla and the Turks and Caicos
436
False
What was Britain's last American mainland colony?
57268f475951b619008f7695
British Honduras
755
False
Most of the UK's Caribbean territories achieved independence after the departure in 1961 and 1962 of Jamaica and Trinidad from the West Indies Federation, established in 1958 in an attempt to unite the British Caribbean colonies under one government, but which collapsed following the loss of its two largest members. Barbados achieved independence in 1966 and the remainder of the eastern Caribbean islands in the 1970s and 1980s, but Anguilla and the Turks and Caicos Islands opted to revert to British rule after they had already started on the path to independence. The British Virgin Islands, Cayman Islands and Montserrat opted to retain ties with Britain, while Guyana achieved independence in 1966. Britain's last colony on the American mainland, British Honduras, became a self-governing colony in 1964 and was renamed Belize in 1973, achieving full independence in 1981. A dispute with Guatemala over claims to Belize was left unresolved.
When was Canada given full control of its constitution?
57269008dd62a815002e89b4
1982
1077
False
When did Rhodesia become Zimbabwe?
57269008dd62a815002e89b5
1980
3
False
What were the remaining British territories called in 1981?
57269008dd62a815002e89b6
British Dependent Territories
291
False
What were the remaining British territories called in 2002?
57269008dd62a815002e89b7
British Overseas Territories
331
False
Which 1980s war victory helped Britain seem more like a world power again?
57269008dd62a815002e89b8
Falklands War
816
False
In 1980, Rhodesia, Britain's last African colony, became the independent nation of Zimbabwe. The New Hebrides achieved independence (as Vanuatu) in 1980, with Belize following suit in 1981. The passage of the British Nationality Act 1981, which reclassified the remaining Crown colonies as "British Dependent Territories" (renamed British Overseas Territories in 2002) meant that, aside from a scattering of islands and outposts the process of decolonisation that had begun after the Second World War was largely complete. In 1982, Britain's resolve in defending its remaining overseas territories was tested when Argentina invaded the Falkland Islands, acting on a long-standing claim that dated back to the Spanish Empire. Britain's ultimately successful military response to retake the islands during the ensuing Falklands War was viewed by many to have contributed to reversing the downward trend in Britain's status as a world power. The same year, the Canadian government severed its last legal link with Britain by patriating the Canadian constitution from Britain. The 1982 Canada Act passed by the British parliament ended the need for British involvement in changes to the Canadian constitution. Similarly, the Constitution Act 1986 reformed the constitution of New Zealand to sever its constitutional link with Britain, and the Australia Act 1986 severed the constitutional link between Britain and the Australian states. In 1984, Brunei, Britain's last remaining Asian protectorate, gained its independence.
Who was the British Prime Minister in 1982?
57269184f1498d1400e8e406
Margaret Thatcher
34
False
Which treaty had given Hong Kong to Britain?
57269184f1498d1400e8e407
Treaty of Nanking
229
False
When did Britain hand over Hong Kong to China?
57269184f1498d1400e8e408
1997
901
False
When was the Sino-British Joint Declaration?
57269184f1498d1400e8e409
1984
675
False
Which territory did Margaret Thatcher compare Hong Kong to?
57269184f1498d1400e8e40a
Falkland Islands
503
False
In September 1982, Prime minister Margaret Thatcher travelled to Beijing to negotiate with the Chinese government on the future of Britain's last major and most populous overseas territory, Hong Kong. Under the terms of the 1842 Treaty of Nanking, Hong Kong Island itself had been ceded to Britain in perpetuity, but the vast majority of the colony was constituted by the New Territories, which had been acquired under a 99-year lease in 1898, due to expire in 1997. Thatcher, seeing parallels with the Falkland Islands, initially wished to hold Hong Kong and proposed British administration with Chinese sovereignty, though this was rejected by China. A deal was reached in 1984—under the terms of the Sino-British Joint Declaration, Hong Kong would become a special administrative region of the People's Republic of China, maintaining its way of life for at least 50 years. The handover ceremony in 1997 marked for many, including Charles, Prince of Wales, who was in attendance, "the end of Empire".
How many overseas territories does Britain still have?
57269254708984140094ca7d
14
33
False
When did Britain decide to call its territories the British Overseas Territories?
57269254708984140094ca7e
2002
130
False
Which country besides Britain claims Gibraltar?
57269254708984140094ca7f
Spain
602
False
Which country besides Britain claims the Falkland Islands?
57269254708984140094ca80
Argentina
694
False
Which country besides Britain claims the South Sandwich Islands?
57269254708984140094ca81
Argentina
694
False
Britain retains sovereignty over 14 territories outside the British Isles, which were renamed the British Overseas Territories in 2002. Some are uninhabited except for transient military or scientific personnel; the remainder are self-governing to varying degrees and are reliant on the UK for foreign relations and defence. The British government has stated its willingness to assist any Overseas Territory that wishes to proceed to independence, where that is an option. British sovereignty of several of the overseas territories is disputed by their geographical neighbours: Gibraltar is claimed by Spain, the Falkland Islands and South Georgia and the South Sandwich Islands are claimed by Argentina, and the British Indian Ocean Territory is claimed by Mauritius and Seychelles. The British Antarctic Territory is subject to overlapping claims by Argentina and Chile, while many countries do not recognise any territorial claims in Antarctica.
How many Commonwealth nations are there?
572692f4f1498d1400e8e436
53
61
False
What is the population of the Commonwealth?
572692f4f1498d1400e8e437
2.2 billion
201
False
How many Commonwealth nations still consider the British Queen their head of state?
572692f4f1498d1400e8e438
Sixteen
221
False
Who is the British Queen?
572692f4f1498d1400e8e439
Elizabeth II
306
False
Most former British colonies and protectorates are among the 53 member states of the Commonwealth of Nations, a non-political, voluntary association of equal members, comprising a population of around 2.2 billion people. Sixteen Commonwealth realms voluntarily continue to share the British monarch, Queen Elizabeth II, as their head of state. These sixteen nations are distinct and equal legal entities – the United Kingdom, Australia, Canada, New Zealand, Papua New Guinea, Antigua and Barbuda, The Bahamas, Barbados, Belize, Grenada, Jamaica, Saint Kitts and Nevis, Saint Lucia, Saint Vincent and the Grenadines, Solomon Islands and Tuvalu.
In which countries did the British Isles provide most of the founding settlers?
572693935951b619008f7727
the United States, Canada, Australia and New Zealand
305
False
Where did many Indians move to?
572693935951b619008f7728
Malaysia and Fiji
872
False
Many people of which ethnicity moved to Malaysia, Singapore and the Caribbean?
572693935951b619008f7729
Chinese
895
False
When did many former colonies' citizens begin immigrating into Britain?
572693935951b619008f772a
after the Second World War
999
False
Political boundaries drawn by the British did not always reflect homogeneous ethnicities or religions, contributing to conflicts in formerly colonised areas. The British Empire was also responsible for large migrations of peoples. Millions left the British Isles, with the founding settler populations of the United States, Canada, Australia and New Zealand coming mainly from Britain and Ireland. Tensions remain between the white settler populations of these countries and their indigenous minorities, and between white settler minorities and indigenous majorities in South Africa and Zimbabwe. Settlers in Ireland from Great Britain have left their mark in the form of divided nationalist and unionist communities in Northern Ireland. Millions of people moved to and from British colonies, with large numbers of Indians emigrating to other parts of the empire, such as Malaysia and Fiji, and Chinese people to Malaysia, Singapore and the Caribbean. The demographics of Britain itself was changed after the Second World War owing to immigration to Britain from its former colonies.
Botany
What is botany?
572661d4708984140094c433
science of plant life
62
False
What does the word botany mean?
572661d4708984140094c434
"to feed" or "to graze"
344
False
What is  a plant scientist called?
572661d4708984140094c435
A botanist
109
False
Does botany only study plants?
572661d4708984140094c436
included the study of fungi and algae
400
False
Botany, also called plant science(s) or plant biology, is the science of plant life and a branch of biology. A botanist or plant scientist is a scientist who specializes in this field. The term "botany" comes from the Ancient Greek word βοτάνη (botanē) meaning "pasture", "grass", or "fodder"; βοτάνη is in turn derived from βόσκειν (boskein), "to feed" or "to graze". Traditionally, botany has also included the study of fungi and algae by mycologists and phycologists respectively, with the study of these three groups of organisms remaining within the sphere of interest of the International Botanical Congress. Nowadays, botanists study approximately 400,000 species of living organisms of which some 260,000 species are vascular plants and about 248,000 are flowering plants.
What science led to botany?
572663f3dd62a815002e8372
herbalism
35
False
What kind of plants did monasteries cultivate?
572663f3dd62a815002e8373
plants of medical importance
269
False
When did universities start growing gardens?
572663f3dd62a815002e8374
1540s onwards
395
False
Why did universities have these gardens?
572663f3dd62a815002e8375
facilitated the academic study of plants
476
False
Why was plant taxonomy developed?
572663f3dd62a815002e8376
to catalogue and describe their collections
526
False
Botany originated in prehistory as herbalism with the efforts of early humans to identify – and later cultivate – edible, medicinal and poisonous plants, making it one of the oldest branches of science. Medieval physic gardens, often attached to monasteries, contained plants of medical importance. They were forerunners of the first botanical gardens attached to universities, founded from the 1540s onwards. One of the earliest was the Padua botanical garden. These gardens facilitated the academic study of plants. Efforts to catalogue and describe their collections were the beginnings of plant taxonomy, and led in 1753 to the binomial system of Carl Linnaeus that remains in use to this day.
What is are the main themes of present-day botany?
572665e6f1498d1400e8de4e
molecular genetics and epigenetics
399
False
How can botany be applied to combating world hunger?
572665e6f1498d1400e8de4f
providing staple foods
589
False
How can botany be applied to the construction industry?
572665e6f1498d1400e8de50
synthesis of chemicals and raw materials
780
False
Is botany a narrow science?
572665e6f1498d1400e8de51
a broad, multidisciplinary subject
17
False
Modern botany is a broad, multidisciplinary subject with inputs from most other areas of science and technology. Research topics include the study of plant structure, growth and differentiation, reproduction, biochemistry and primary metabolism, chemical products, development, diseases, evolutionary relationships, systematics, and plant taxonomy. Dominant themes in 21st century plant science are molecular genetics and epigenetics, which are the mechanisms and control of gene expression during differentiation of plant cells and tissues. Botanical research has diverse applications in providing staple foods, materials such as timber, oil, rubber, fibre and drugs, in modern horticulture, agriculture and forestry, plant propagation, breeding and genetic modification, in the synthesis of chemicals and raw materials for construction and energy production, in environmental management, and the maintenance of biodiversity.
What is the name of an ancient Greek work impacting botany?
57266767f1498d1400e8de7c
De Materia Medica
72
False
What was the De Materia Medica written about?
57266767f1498d1400e8de7d
herbal medicine
124
False
What was the profession of the man who wrote De Materia Medica?
57266767f1498d1400e8de7e
physician and pharmacologist
192
False
Besides the Greeks, what other culture contributed to the study of botany?
57266767f1498d1400e8de7f
medieval Muslim world
337
False
How long a book is the De Materia Medica?
57266767f1498d1400e8de80
five-volume
93
False
Another work from Ancient Greece that made an early impact on botany is De Materia Medica, a five-volume encyclopedia about herbal medicine written in the middle of the first century by Greek physician and pharmacologist Pedanius Dioscorides. De Materia Medica was widely read for more than 1,500 years. Important contributions from the medieval Muslim world include Ibn Wahshiyya's Nabatean Agriculture, Abū Ḥanīfa Dīnawarī's (828–896) the Book of Plants, and Ibn Bassal's The Classification of Soils. In the early 13th century, Abu al-Abbas al-Nabati, and Ibn al-Baitar (d. 1248) wrote on botany in a systematic and scientific manner.
What was the first botanical garden at an Italian university?
5726682add62a815002e83ec
Padua
100
False
Where is the Padua garden?
5726682add62a815002e83ed
its original location
187
False
Why did monasteries have gardens?
5726682add62a815002e83ee
for medical use
350
False
What science was botany considered to be a part of?
5726682add62a815002e83ef
medicine
712
False
Where was the first European botany garden at a university?
5726682add62a815002e83f0
University of Oxford
605
False
In the mid-16th century, "botanical gardens" were founded in a number of Italian universities – the Padua botanical garden in 1545 is usually considered to be the first which is still in its original location. These gardens continued the practical value of earlier "physic gardens", often associated with monasteries, in which plants were cultivated for medical use. They supported the growth of botany as an academic subject. Lectures were given about the plants grown in the gardens and their medical uses demonstrated. Botanical gardens came much later to northern Europe; the first in England was the University of Oxford Botanic Garden in 1621. Throughout this period, botany remained firmly subordinate to medicine.
Who wrote Historia Plantarum in 1544?
57267c29708984140094c7a5
Physician Valerius Cordus
0
False
What herbalist wrote about medicinal plants in the 16th century?
57267c29708984140094c7a6
John Gerard
253
False
Who is considered the father of natural history?
57267c29708984140094c7a7
Ulisse Aldrovandi
348
False
Who coined the term cells?
57267c29708984140094c7a8
Robert Hooke
505
False
In what plant were cells first discovered by microscope?
57267c29708984140094c7a9
cork
557
False
Physician Valerius Cordus (1515–1544) authored a botanically and pharmacologically important herbal Historia Plantarum in 1544 and a pharmacopoeia of lasting importance, the Dispensatorium in 1546. Naturalist Conrad von Gesner (1516–1565) and herbalist John Gerard (1545–c. 1611) published herbals covering the medicinal uses of plants. Naturalist Ulisse Aldrovandi (1522–1605) was considered the father of natural history, which included the study of plants. In 1665, using an early microscope, Polymath Robert Hooke discovered cells, a term he coined, in cork, and a short time later in living plant tissue.
What is the meaning of dichotomous keys?
57267dfbdd62a815002e8718
choices between pairs
218
False
What is the term for keys used for identification?
57267dfbdd62a815002e8719
diagnostic keys
359
False
Why were new plants arriving in Europe in the 18th century?
57267dfbdd62a815002e871a
newly discovered countries
556
False
What book is still used for nomenclature?
57267dfbdd62a815002e871b
Species Plantarum
673
False
How are the plants classified?
57267dfbdd62a815002e871c
number of their male sexual organs
1086
False
During the 18th century, systems of plant identification were developed comparable to dichotomous keys, where unidentified plants are placed into taxonomic groups (e.g. family, genus and species) by making a series of choices between pairs of characters. The choice and sequence of the characters may be artificial in keys designed purely for identification (diagnostic keys) or more closely related to the natural or phyletic order of the taxa in synoptic keys. By the 18th century, new plants for study were arriving in Europe in increasing numbers from newly discovered countries and the European colonies worldwide. In 1753 Carl von Linné (Carl Linnaeus) published his Species Plantarum, a hierarchical classification of plant species that remains the reference point for modern botanical nomenclature. This established a standardised binomial or two-part naming scheme where the first name represented the genus and the second identified the species within the genus. For the purposes of identification, Linnaeus's Systema Sexuale classified plants into 24 groups according to the number of their male sexual organs. The 24th group, Cryptogamia, included all plants with concealed reproductive parts, mosses, liverworts, ferns, algae and fungi.
What led scientists to believe that plants should be classified according to something other than just sexual system?
57267f20708984140094c807
Increasing knowledge of plant anatomy
0
False
In what year to Candolle introduce the Candollean system?
57267f20708984140094c808
1819
254
False
On what did Candolle base his classification system?
57267f20708984140094c809
morphological complexity
478
False
What did Darwin introduce that changed classification systems?
57267f20708984140094c80a
concept of common descent
706
False
Increasing knowledge of plant anatomy, morphology and life cycles led to the realisation that there were more natural affinities between plants than the artificial sexual system of Linnaeus had indicated. Adanson (1763), de Jussieu (1789), and Candolle (1819) all proposed various alternative natural systems of classification that grouped plants using a wider range of shared characters and were widely followed. The Candollean system reflected his ideas of the progression of morphological complexity and the later classification by Bentham and Hooker, which was influential until the mid-19th century, was influenced by Candolle's approach. Darwin's publication of the Origin of Species in 1859 and his concept of common descent required modifications to the Candollean system to reflect evolutionary relationships as distinct from mere morphological similarity.
What was the first modern text book?
5726881e708984140094c909
Grundzüge der Wissenschaftlichen Botanik
102
False
What was Schleiden's profession?
5726881e708984140094c90a
microscopist
225
False
What theory did Schleiden co-found?
5726881e708984140094c90b
cell theory
286
False
What do Fick's laws do?
5726881e708984140094c90c
calculation of the rates of molecular diffusion
517
False
Botany was greatly stimulated by the appearance of the first "modern" text book, Matthias Schleiden's Grundzüge der Wissenschaftlichen Botanik, published in English in 1849 as Principles of Scientific Botany. Schleiden was a microscopist and an early plant anatomist who co-founded the cell theory with Theodor Schwann and Rudolf Virchow and was among the first to grasp the significance of the cell nucleus that had been described by Robert Brown in 1831. In 1855, Adolf Fick formulated Fick's laws that enabled the calculation of the rates of molecular diffusion in biological systems.
What did Warming believe that plants can do?
57268a5d708984140094c957
form communities
150
False
What is the term for the most complex plant life in a specific environment?
57268a5d708984140094c958
climax vegetation
537
False
Who created the concept of ecosystems?
57268a5d708984140094c959
Arthur Tansley
461
False
Whose earlier work did Nicholas Vavilov build upon?
57268a5d708984140094c95a
Alphonse de Candolle
721
False
What history did Vavilov write about?
57268a5d708984140094c95b
history of economic plants
846
False
The discipline of plant ecology was pioneered in the late 19th century by botanists such as Eugenius Warming, who produced the hypothesis that plants form communities, and his mentor and successor Christen C. Raunkiær whose system for describing plant life forms is still in use today. The concept that the composition of plant communities such as temperate broadleaf forest changes by a process of ecological succession was developed by Henry Chandler Cowles, Arthur Tansley and Frederic Clements. Clements is credited with the idea of climax vegetation as the most complex vegetation that an environment can support and Tansley introduced the concept of ecosystems to biology. Building on the extensive earlier work of Alphonse de Candolle, Nikolai Vavilov (1887–1943) produced accounts of the biogeography, centres of origin, and evolutionary history of economic plants.
What is transpiration?
57268b85f1498d1400e8e350
the transport of water within plant tissues
146
False
What influences water evaporation on leaves?
57268b85f1498d1400e8e351
temperature
196
False
What influences the rate of gas produced by plants?
57268b85f1498d1400e8e352
rate of photosynthesis
461
False
What enables the regulation of plant growth?
57268b85f1498d1400e8e353
auxin plant hormones
815
False
What can auxin plant hormones also be used as?
57268b85f1498d1400e8e354
herbicides
1158
False
Particularly since the mid-1960s there have been advances in understanding of the physics of plant physiological processes such as transpiration (the transport of water within plant tissues), the temperature dependence of rates of water evaporation from the leaf surface and the molecular diffusion of water vapour and carbon dioxide through stomatal apertures. These developments, coupled with new methods for measuring the size of stomatal apertures, and the rate of photosynthesis have enabled precise description of the rates of gas exchange between plants and the atmosphere. Innovations in statistical analysis by Ronald Fisher, Frank Yates and others at Rothamsted Experimental Station facilitated rational experimental design and data analysis in botanical research. The discovery and identification of the auxin plant hormones by Kenneth V. Thimann in 1948 enabled regulation of plant growth by externally applied chemicals. Frederick Campion Steward pioneered techniques of micropropagation and plant tissue culture controlled by plant hormones. The synthetic auxin 2,4-Dichlorophenoxyacetic acid or 2,4-D was one of the first commercial synthetic herbicides.
What enables scientists to better study plants now?
5726ad27f1498d1400e8e6de
modern techniques of organic chemical analysis
68
False
What opened the door to plant genetic engineering?
5726ad27f1498d1400e8e6df
all plant cells are totipotent
547
False
Who introduced the idea that cells could be grown in vitro?
5726ad27f1498d1400e8e6e0
Gottlieb Haberlandt
514
False
20th century developments in plant biochemistry have been driven by modern techniques of organic chemical analysis, such as spectroscopy, chromatography and electrophoresis. With the rise of the related molecular-scale biological approaches of molecular biology, genomics, proteomics and metabolomics, the relationship between the plant genome and most aspects of the biochemistry, physiology, morphology and behaviour of plants can be subjected to detailed experimental analysis. The concept originally stated by Gottlieb Haberlandt in 1902 that all plant cells are totipotent and can be grown in vitro ultimately enabled the use of genetic engineering experimentally to knock out a gene or genes responsible for a specific trait, or to add genes such as GFP that report when a gene of interest is being expressed. These technologies enable the biotechnological use of whole plants or plant cell cultures grown in bioreactors to synthesise pesticides, antibiotics or other pharmaceuticals, as well as the practical application of genetically modified crops designed for traits such as improved yield.
What kind of relationships does systematics aim to discover?
5726af935951b619008f7a63
phylogenetic
235
False
What does phylogenetics use to determine plant categories?
5726af935951b619008f7a64
DNA sequences
362
False
What did the Angiosperm Phylogeny group use determine a phylogeny of flowering plants?
5726af935951b619008f7a65
Molecular analysis of DNA
385
False
Modern Morphology recognizes the structural dynamics of what?
5726af935951b619008f7a66
the major morphological categories
49
False
Modern morphology recognizes a continuum between the major morphological categories of root, stem (caulome), leaf (phyllome) and trichome. Furthermore, it emphasizes structural dynamics. Modern systematics aims to reflect and discover phylogenetic relationships between plants. Modern Molecular phylogenetics largely ignores morphological characters, relying on DNA sequences as data. Molecular analysis of DNA sequences from most families of flowering plants enabled the Angiosperm Phylogeny Group to publish in 1998 a phylogeny of flowering plants, answering many of the questions about relationships among angiosperm families and species. The theoretical possibility of a practical method for identification of plant species and commercial varieties by DNA barcoding is the subject of active current research.
Why are plants important to human life?
5726b0e15951b619008f7aa5
oxygen and food
123
False
What is the process that converts sunlight to energy?
5726b0e15951b619008f7aa6
photosynthesis
330
False
What is used to rebuild cells?
5726b0e15951b619008f7aa7
organic molecules
497
False
What vital element is a byproduct of photosynthesis?
5726b0e15951b619008f7aa8
oxygen
618
False
What do plant roots prevent?
5726b0e15951b619008f7aa9
soil erosion
857
False
The study of plants is vital because they underpin almost all animal life on Earth by generating a large proportion of the oxygen and food that provide humans and other organisms with aerobic respiration with the chemical energy they need to exist. Plants, algae and cyanobacteria are the major groups of organisms that carry out photosynthesis, a process that uses the energy of sunlight to convert water and carbon dioxide into sugars that can be used both as a source of chemical energy and of organic molecules that are used in the structural components of cells. As a by-product of photosynthesis, plants release oxygen into the atmosphere, a gas that is required by nearly all living things to carry out cellular respiration. In addition, they are influential in the global carbon and water cycles and plant roots bind and stabilise soils, preventing soil erosion. Plants are crucial to the future of human society as they provide food, oxygen, medicine, and products for people, as well as creating and preserving soil.
What is the scientific name for seed plants?
5726b283708984140094ce21
gymnosperms
112
False
What is the study of algae called?
5726b283708984140094ce22
phycology
921
False
What two phases are included in the life cycles of embryophytes?
5726b283708984140094ce23
haploid and diploid
429
False
The strictest definition of "plant" includes only the "land plants" or embryophytes, which include seed plants (gymnosperms, including the pines, and flowering plants) and the free-sporing cryptogams including ferns, clubmosses, liverworts, hornworts and mosses. Embryophytes are multicellular eukaryotes descended from an ancestor that obtained its energy from sunlight by photosynthesis. They have life cycles with alternating haploid and diploid phases. The sexual haploid phase of embryophytes, known as the gametophyte, nurtures the developing diploid embryo sporophyte within its tissues for at least part of its life, even in the seed plants, where the gametophyte itself is nurtured by its parent sporophyte. Other groups of organisms that were previously studied by botanists include bacteria (now studied in bacteriology), fungi (mycology) – including lichen-forming fungi (lichenology), non-chlorophyte algae (phycology), and viruses (virology). However, attention is still given to these groups by botanists, and fungi (including lichens) and photosynthetic protists are usually covered in introductory botany courses.
What is the study of ancient, fossilized plants?
5726b3d5708984140094ce43
Paleobotanists
0
False
What organism is credited with starting the oxygen-rich atmosphere on Earth?
5726b3d5708984140094ce44
cyanobacteria
504
False
What can scientists learn from the fossil record?
5726b3d5708984140094ce45
evolutionary history of plants
90
False
What was the first organism to produce oxygen through photosynthesis?
5726b3d5708984140094ce46
Cyanobacteria
122
False
Paleobotanists study ancient plants in the fossil record to provide information about the evolutionary history of plants. Cyanobacteria, the first oxygen-releasing photosynthetic organisms on Earth, are thought to have given rise to the ancestor of plants by entering into an endosymbiotic relationship with an early eukaryote, ultimately becoming the chloroplasts in plant cells. The new photosynthetic plants (along with their algal relatives) accelerated the rise in atmospheric oxygen started by the cyanobacteria, changing the ancient oxygen-free, reducing, atmosphere to one in which free oxygen has been abundant for more than 2 billion years.
Why do food chains start with plants?
5726b9d1f1498d1400e8e8fc
energy from the sun and nutrients from the soil
224
False
What do ecologists call the start of the food chain?
5726b9d1f1498d1400e8e8fd
first trophic level
378
False
How can the yield of food plants be increased?
5726b9d1f1498d1400e8e8fe
plant breeding
805
False
Why would botanists study weeds?
5726b9d1f1498d1400e8e8ff
problem in agriculture
991
False
Virtually all staple foods come either directly from primary production by plants, or indirectly from animals that eat them. Plants and other photosynthetic organisms are at the base of most food chains because they use the energy from the sun and nutrients from the soil and atmosphere, converting them into a form that can be used by animals. This is what ecologists call the first trophic level. The modern forms of the major staple foods, such as maize, rice, wheat and other cereal grasses, pulses, bananas and plantains, as well as flax and cotton grown for their fibres, are the outcome of prehistoric selection over thousands of years from among wild ancestral plants with the most desirable characteristics. Botanists study how plants produce food and how to increase yields, for example through plant breeding, making their work important to mankind's ability to feed the world and provide food security for future generations. Botanists also study weeds, which are a considerable problem in agriculture, and the biology and control of plant pathogens in agriculture and natural ecosystems. Ethnobotany is the study of the relationships between plants and people. When applied to the investigation of historical plant–people relationships ethnobotany may be referred to as archaeobotany or palaeoethnobotany.
what parts of algae are unique to them?
5726bb53f1498d1400e8e93c
chloroplasts
123
False
From what ancient oxygen producing plant are chloroplasts descended?
5726bb53f1498d1400e8e93d
cyanobacteria
183
False
What color is chlorophyll?
5726bb53f1498d1400e8e93e
blue-green
320
False
What organelles are unique to algae?
5726bc5af1498d1400e8e980
chloroplasts
123
False
From what ancient source are chloroplasts descended?
5726bc5af1498d1400e8e981
cyanobacteria
183
False
What color does a plant with chlorophyll appear to be?
5726bc5af1498d1400e8e983
green
548
False
Plants and various other groups of photosynthetic eukaryotes collectively known as "algae" have unique organelles known as chloroplasts. Chloroplasts are thought to be descended from cyanobacteria that formed endosymbiotic relationships with ancient plant and algal ancestors. Chloroplasts and cyanobacteria contain the blue-green pigment chlorophyll a. Chlorophyll a (as well as its plant and green algal-specific cousin chlorophyll b)[a] absorbs light in the blue-violet and orange/red parts of the spectrum while reflecting and transmitting the green light that we see as the characteristic colour of these organisms. The energy in the red and blue light that these pigments absorb is used by chloroplasts to make energy-rich carbon compounds from carbon dioxide and water by oxygenic photosynthesis, a process that generates molecular oxygen (O2) as a by-product.
What is the function of ATP and NADPH molecules?
5726be0b5951b619008f7ccf
store and transport energy
176
False
When is the raw form of glucose formed?
5726be0b5951b619008f7cd0
first product of photosynthesis
413
False
What is stored in the chloroplast?
5726be0b5951b619008f7cd1
starch
598
False
What is used instead of glucose in sunflowers?
5726be0b5951b619008f7cd2
fructose
741
False
Why is table sugar produced?
5726be0b5951b619008f7cd3
for export to the rest of the plant
880
False
The light energy captured by chlorophyll a is initially in the form of electrons (and later a proton gradient) that's used to make molecules of ATP and NADPH which temporarily store and transport energy. Their energy is used in the light-independent reactions of the Calvin cycle by the enzyme rubisco to produce molecules of the 3-carbon sugar glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate (G3P). Glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate is the first product of photosynthesis and the raw material from which glucose and almost all other organic molecules of biological origin are synthesized. Some of the glucose is converted to starch which is stored in the chloroplast. Starch is the characteristic energy store of most land plants and algae, while inulin, a polymer of fructose is used for the same purpose in the sunflower family Asteraceae. Some of the glucose is converted to sucrose (common table sugar) for export to the rest of the plant.
What polymer is used to strengthen cell walls?
5726bf865951b619008f7d0f
lignin
191
False
What weakens cell walls?
5726bf865951b619008f7d10
water stress
357
False
What gas is in lower concentration now due to plants?
5726bf865951b619008f7d11
carbon dioxide
861
False
What polymer is found in spores and pollen?
5726bf865951b619008f7d12
Sporopollenin
516
False
What polymer is a major part of wood?
5726bf865951b619008f7d13
Lignin
371
False
Plants synthesize a number of unique polymers like the polysaccharide molecules cellulose, pectin and xyloglucan from which the land plant cell wall is constructed. Vascular land plants make lignin, a polymer used to strengthen the secondary cell walls of xylem tracheids and vessels to keep them from collapsing when a plant sucks water through them under water stress. Lignin is also used in other cell types like sclerenchyma fibers that provide structural support for a plant and is a major constituent of wood. Sporopollenin is a chemically resistant polymer found in the outer cell walls of spores and pollen of land plants responsible for the survival of early land plant spores and the pollen of seed plants in the fossil record. It is widely regarded as a marker for the start of land plant evolution during the Ordovician period. The concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere today is much lower than it was when plants emerged onto land during the Ordovician and Silurian periods. Many monocots like maize and the pineapple and some dicots like the Asteraceae have since independently evolved pathways like Crassulacean acid metabolism and the C4 carbon fixation pathway for photosynthesis which avoid the losses resulting from photorespiration in the more common C3 carbon fixation pathway. These biochemical strategies are unique to land plants.
What is the study of the chemicals that plants produce?
5726c55ef1498d1400e8eaba
Phytochemistry
0
False
Hemlock is what kind of chemical produced from a plant?
5726c55ef1498d1400e8eabb
toxins
174
False
Where do some medicines and recreational drugs come from?
5726c55ef1498d1400e8eabc
from plants
575
False
Where did aspirin originally come from?
5726c55ef1498d1400e8eabd
bark of willow trees
754
False
Where does morphine come from?
5726c55ef1498d1400e8eabe
the opium poppy
891
False
Phytochemistry is a branch of plant biochemistry primarily concerned with the chemical substances produced by plants during secondary metabolism. Some of these compounds are toxins such as the alkaloid coniine from hemlock. Others, such as the essential oils peppermint oil and lemon oil are useful for their aroma, as flavourings and spices (e.g., capsaicin), and in medicine as pharmaceuticals as in opium from opium poppies. Many medicinal and recreational drugs, such as tetrahydrocannabinol (active ingredient in cannabis), caffeine, morphine and nicotine come directly from plants. Others are simple derivatives of botanical natural products. For example, the pain killer aspirin is the acetyl ester of salicylic acid, originally isolated from the bark of willow trees, and a wide range of opiate painkillers like heroin are obtained by chemical modification of morphine obtained from the opium poppy. Popular stimulants come from plants, such as caffeine from coffee, tea and chocolate, and nicotine from tobacco. Most alcoholic beverages come from fermentation of carbohydrate-rich plant products such as barley (beer), rice (sake) and grapes (wine).
How is charcoal made?
5726c632f1498d1400e8eae8
pyrolysis of wood
283
False
Besides fire, what else is charcoal used for?
5726c632f1498d1400e8eae9
one of the three ingredients of gunpowder
417
False
Plant oil is used for what kind of fuel?
5726c632f1498d1400e8eaea
biodiesel
872
False
Rayon comes from what plant product?
5726c632f1498d1400e8eaeb
cellulose
604
False
Sugar, starch, cotton, linen, hemp, some types of rope, wood and particle boards, papyrus and paper, vegetable oils, wax, and natural rubber are examples of commercially important materials made from plant tissues or their secondary products. Charcoal, a pure form of carbon made by pyrolysis of wood, has a long history as a metal-smelting fuel, as a filter material and adsorbent and as an artist's material and is one of the three ingredients of gunpowder. Cellulose, the world's most abundant organic polymer, can be converted into energy, fuels, materials and chemical feedstock. Products made from cellulose include rayon and cellophane, wallpaper paste, biobutanol and gun cotton. Sugarcane, rapeseed and soy are some of the plants with a highly fermentable sugar or oil content that are used as sources of biofuels, important alternatives to fossil fuels, such as biodiesel.
What are plant habitats?
5726c8bcdd62a815002e9018
environments where they complete their life
99
False
What is the goal of plant ecology?
5726c8bcdd62a815002e9019
to understand
419
False
What is the study of plants and the environment in which they live?
5726c8bcdd62a815002e901a
Plant ecology
0
False
What do plants do in their environment?
5726c8bcdd62a815002e901b
interactions with other species
355
False
Plant ecology is the science of the functional relationships between plants and their habitats—the environments where they complete their life cycles. Plant ecologists study the composition of local and regional floras, their biodiversity, genetic diversity and fitness, the adaptation of plants to their environment, and their competitive or mutualistic interactions with other species. The goals of plant ecology are to understand the causes of their distribution patterns, productivity, environmental impact, evolution, and responses to environmental change.
On what do plants depend in their environment?
5726c9c0f1498d1400e8eb38
edaphic (soil) and climatic factors
25
False
How do plants interact with other species in their environment?
5726c9c0f1498d1400e8eb39
for resources
347
False
What is the collection of plants in the environment called?
5726c9c0f1498d1400e8eb3a
vegetation
497
False
What are groupings of similar plants?
5726c9c0f1498d1400e8eb3b
biomes
652
False
Plants depend on certain edaphic (soil) and climatic factors in their environment but can modify these factors too. For example, they can change their environment's albedo, increase runoff interception, stabilize mineral soils and develop their organic content, and affect local temperature. Plants compete with other organisms in their ecosystem for resources. They interact with their neighbours at a variety of spatial scales in groups, populations and communities that collectively constitute vegetation. Regions with characteristic vegetation types and dominant plants as well as similar abiotic and biotic factors, climate, and geography make up biomes like tundra or tropical rainforest.
How can historical changes in the environment be detected?
5726ccf9f1498d1400e8eb94
plant phenology
166
False
How can climate changes be determined from soil?
5726ccf9f1498d1400e8eb95
fossil pollen deposits in sediments
339
False
What atmospheric gas can be determined from fossilized leaf sizes and shapes?
5726ccf9f1498d1400e8eb96
CO2
484
False
What causes lower growth in plants?
5726ccf9f1498d1400e8eb97
Ozone depletion
621
False
What does ozone depletion allow?
5726ccf9f1498d1400e8eb98
higher levels of ultraviolet radiation-B
658
False
Plant responses to climate and other environmental changes can inform our understanding of how these changes affect ecosystem function and productivity. For example, plant phenology can be a useful proxy for temperature in historical climatology, and the biological impact of climate change and global warming. Palynology, the analysis of fossil pollen deposits in sediments from thousands or millions of years ago allows the reconstruction of past climates. Estimates of atmospheric CO2 concentrations since the Palaeozoic have been obtained from stomatal densities and the leaf shapes and sizes of ancient land plants. Ozone depletion can expose plants to higher levels of ultraviolet radiation-B (UV-B), resulting in lower growth rates. Moreover, information from studies of community ecology, plant systematics, and taxonomy is essential to understanding vegetation change, habitat destruction and species extinction.
Does inheritance work differently in plants?
57274968dd62a815002e9a88
same fundamental principles of genetics
34
False
What plant did Mendel use to demonstrate inheritance?
57274968dd62a815002e9a89
Pisum sativum (peas)
214
False
What other plant was used in the discovery of different genes?
57274968dd62a815002e9a8a
maize
414
False
Are plants and animals genetically the same?
57274968dd62a815002e9a8b
distinctive genetic differences
450
False
Inheritance in plants follows the same fundamental principles of genetics as in other multicellular organisms. Gregor Mendel discovered the genetic laws of inheritance by studying inherited traits such as shape in Pisum sativum (peas). What Mendel learned from studying plants has had far reaching benefits outside of botany. Similarly, "jumping genes" were discovered by Barbara McClintock while she was studying maize. Nevertheless, there are some distinctive genetic differences between plants and other organisms.
Are plants able to mate across species?
57274ab8f1498d1400e8f5c2
hybrids are often possible
78
False
What common grain is the result cultivated wild hybrids?
57274ab8f1498d1400e8f5c3
wheat
264
False
How do some plants avoid cross pollination?
57274ab8f1498d1400e8f5c4
pollen either fails to reach the stigma
505
False
Do all plants have male and female parts?
57274ab8f1498d1400e8f5c5
separate individuals
727
False
Species boundaries in plants may be weaker than in animals, and cross species hybrids are often possible. A familiar example is peppermint, Mentha × piperita, a sterile hybrid between Mentha aquatica and spearmint, Mentha spicata. The many cultivated varieties of wheat are the result of multiple inter- and intra-specific crosses between wild species and their hybrids. Angiosperms with monoecious flowers often have self-incompatibility mechanisms that operate between the pollen and stigma so that the pollen either fails to reach the stigma or fails to germinate and produce male gametes. This is one of several methods used by plants to promote outcrossing. In many land plants the male and female gametes are produced by separate individuals. These species are said to be dioecious when referring to vascular plant sporophytes and dioicous when referring to bryophyte gametophytes.
Why do plants develop bulbs?
57274c04708984140094dbd3
opportunities for fertilisation of flowers by animals are rare
235
False
What do plants do when the environment makes fertilization especially difficult?
57274c04708984140094dbd4
replacing sexual reproduction with asexual reproduction
351
False
How different are the children produced by asexual parents?
57274c04708984140094dbd5
genetically identical to the parent
445
False
What is the term for asexual cloning?
57274c04708984140094dbd6
Apomixis
545
False
Does apomixis only occur in the parent?
57274c04708984140094dbd7
can also happen in a seed
554
False
Unlike in higher animals, where parthenogenesis is rare, asexual reproduction may occur in plants by several different mechanisms. The formation of stem tubers in potato is one example. Particularly in arctic or alpine habitats, where opportunities for fertilisation of flowers by animals are rare, plantlets or bulbs, may develop instead of flowers, replacing sexual reproduction with asexual reproduction and giving rise to clonal populations genetically identical to the parent. This is one of several types of apomixis that occur in plants. Apomixis can also happen in a seed, producing a seed that contains an embryo genetically identical to the parent.
What can cause the doubling of chromosome pairs?
57274d2bdd62a815002e9ab8
errors in cytokinesis
131
False
Are the plants produced by this error, able to reproduce?
57274d2bdd62a815002e9ab9
often reproduce normally
539
False
Can these plants cross breed with the parent population of plants?
57274d2bdd62a815002e9aba
unable to cross-breed successfully
576
False
What happens to these new plants if they are able to reproduce?
57274d2bdd62a815002e9abb
form a new species
837
False
What is a yellow example of a sterile,hybrid plant with no seeds?
57274d2bdd62a815002e9abc
commercial banana
1101
False
Most sexually reproducing organisms are diploid, with paired chromosomes, but doubling of their chromosome number may occur due to errors in cytokinesis. This can occur early in development to produce an autopolyploid or partly autopolyploid organism, or during normal processes of cellular differentiation to produce some cell types that are polyploid (endopolyploidy), or during gamete formation. An allopolyploid plant may result from a hybridisation event between two different species. Both autopolyploid and allopolyploid plants can often reproduce normally, but may be unable to cross-breed successfully with the parent population because there is a mismatch in chromosome numbers. These plants that are reproductively isolated from the parent species but live within the same geographical area, may be sufficiently successful to form a new species. Some otherwise sterile plant polyploids can still reproduce vegetatively or by seed apomixis, forming clonal populations of identical individuals. Durum wheat is a fertile tetraploid allopolyploid, while bread wheat is a fertile hexaploid. The commercial banana is an example of a sterile, seedless triploid hybrid. Common dandelion is a triploid that produces viable seeds by apomictic seed.
What was the first plant to have its genome sequenced?
57274eb3f1498d1400e8f60a
Thale cress, Arabidopsis thaliana
133
False
In what year was this genome sequenced?
57274eb3f1498d1400e8f60b
2000
474
False
Why was this plant chosen for sequencing?
57274eb3f1498d1400e8f60c
one of the smallest genomes
357
False
Why is sequencing done on plants?
57274eb3f1498d1400e8f60d
understanding the genetics
629
False
What results from  sequencing of DNA pairs?
57274eb3f1498d1400e8f60e
new knowledge about plant function
25
False
A considerable amount of new knowledge about plant function comes from studies of the molecular genetics of model plants such as the Thale cress, Arabidopsis thaliana, a weedy species in the mustard family (Brassicaceae). The genome or hereditary information contained in the genes of this species is encoded by about 135 million base pairs of DNA, forming one of the smallest genomes among flowering plants. Arabidopsis was the first plant to have its genome sequenced, in 2000. The sequencing of some other relatively small genomes, of rice (Oryza sativa) and Brachypodium distachyon, has made them important model species for understanding the genetics, cellular and molecular biology of cereals, grasses and monocots generally.
Why is a plant chosen for the study of its cells?
57274fb5dd62a815002e9ad4
small genomes
152
False
What mechanism can be studied through chromosome sequencing?
57274fb5dd62a815002e9ad5
photosynthesis
295
False
What simple plant has been used to study plant cells?
57274fb5dd62a815002e9ad6
red alga
542
False
What common plant has been used for studying the production of sugar?
57274fb5dd62a815002e9ad7
Corn
253
False
Model plants such as Arabidopsis thaliana are used for studying the molecular biology of plant cells and the chloroplast. Ideally, these organisms have small genomes that are well known or completely sequenced, small stature and short generation times. Corn has been used to study mechanisms of photosynthesis and phloem loading of sugar in C4 plants. The single celled green alga Chlamydomonas reinhardtii, while not an embryophyte itself, contains a green-pigmented chloroplast related to that of land plants, making it useful for study. A red alga Cyanidioschyzon merolae has also been used to study some basic chloroplast functions. Spinach, peas, soybeans and a moss Physcomitrella patens are commonly used to study plant cell biology.
How can a bacteria in the soil affect a plant?
5727507f5951b619008f8825
can attach to plant cells
57
False
How can scientists use bacteria in the study of plants?
5727507f5951b619008f8826
introducing the Nif gene
309
False
How are genes transferred to a plant by scientists?
5727507f5951b619008f8827
in the root nodules
368
False
What is this kind of introduction and transfer used for?
5727507f5951b619008f8828
creation of genetically modified crops
549
False
Who developed the procedures used in this transfer?
5727507f5951b619008f8829
Schell and Van Montagu
216
False
Agrobacterium tumefaciens, a soil rhizosphere bacterium, can attach to plant cells and infect them with a callus-inducing Ti plasmid by horizontal gene transfer, causing a callus infection called crown gall disease. Schell and Van Montagu (1977) hypothesised that the Ti plasmid could be a natural vector for introducing the Nif gene responsible for nitrogen fixation in the root nodules of legumes and other plant species. Today, genetic modification of the Ti plasmid is one of the main techniques for introduction of transgenes to plants and the creation of genetically modified crops.
What does epigenetics study?
5727521edd62a815002e9b04
changes in gene function
69
False
How do DNA changes affect plants?
5727521edd62a815002e9b05
express themselves") differently
207
False
When DNA has different markers, how it that presented in plants?
5727521edd62a815002e9b06
prevent that region of the DNA code
485
False
What is a result of changes in DNA markers within a plant species?
5727521edd62a815002e9b07
differences
693
False
Are the changes then presented, permanent?
5727521edd62a815002e9b08
may be temporary
837
False
Epigenetics is the study of mitotically and/or meiotically heritable changes in gene function that cannot be explained by changes in the underlying DNA sequence but cause the organism's genes to behave (or "express themselves") differently. One example of epigenetic change is the marking of the genes by DNA methylation which determines whether they will be expressed or not. Gene expression can also be controlled by repressor proteins that attach to silencer regions of the DNA and prevent that region of the DNA code from being expressed. Epigenetic marks may be added or removed from the DNA during programmed stages of development of the plant, and are responsible, for example, for the differences between anthers, petals and normal leaves, despite the fact that they all have the same underlying genetic code. Epigenetic changes may be temporary or may remain through successive cell divisions for the remainder of the cell's life. Some epigenetic changes have been shown to be heritable, while others are reset in the germ cells.
What process causes changes in plant cells?
5727626b708984140094dcc7
Epigenetic changes
0
False
What is the original cell of the plant?
5727626b708984140094dcc8
the zygote
280
False
How are the different cells formed?
5727626b708984140094dcc9
continues to divide
448
False
How is it determined, which cells will be formed?
5727626b708984140094dcca
activation of some genes and inhibition of others
509
False
Epigenetic changes in eukaryotic biology serve to regulate the process of cellular differentiation. During morphogenesis, totipotent stem cells become the various pluripotent cell lines of the embryo, which in turn become fully differentiated cells. A single fertilized egg cell, the zygote, gives rise to the many different plant cell types including parenchyma, xylem vessel elements, phloem sieve tubes, guard cells of the epidermis, etc. as it continues to divide. The process results from the epigenetic activation of some genes and inhibition of others.
Does cell division end in plants?
5727636af1498d1400e8f740
remaining totipotent
105
False
What happens when a plant remains totipotent?
5727636af1498d1400e8f741
ability to give rise to a new individual plant
135
False
Why do phloem sieve tubes stop forming?
5727636af1498d1400e8f742
lack nuclei
314
False
Why are plants able to stop and start dividing cells?
5727636af1498d1400e8f743
information from the environment
518
False
Are lignified cells able to continue dividing?
5727636af1498d1400e8f744
dead at maturity
263
False
Unlike animals, many plant cells, particularly those of the parenchyma, do not terminally differentiate, remaining totipotent with the ability to give rise to a new individual plant. Exceptions include highly lignified cells, the sclerenchyma and xylem which are dead at maturity, and the phloem sieve tubes which lack nuclei. While plants use many of the same epigenetic mechanisms as animals, such as chromatin remodeling, an alternative hypothesis is that plants set their gene expression patterns using positional information from the environment and surrounding cells to determine their developmental fate.
Are all algae different from land plants?
57276430dd62a815002e9c06
some more closely related
72
False
What algae is the ancestor of true plants?
57276430dd62a815002e9c07
Charophyta
296
False
Are all species of algae similar?
57276430dd62a815002e9c08
many differences
131
False
To what species of algae is Charophyta related?
57276430dd62a815002e9c09
Chlorophyta
343
False
The algae are a polyphyletic group and are placed in various divisions, some more closely related to plants than others. There are many differences between them in features such as cell wall composition, biochemistry, pigmentation, chloroplast structure and nutrient reserves. The algal division Charophyta, sister to the green algal division Chlorophyta, is considered to contain the ancestor of true plants. The Charophyte class Charophyceae and the land plant sub-kingdom Embryophyta together form the monophyletic group or clade Streptophytina.
What makes mosses different from other land plants?
572765c7dd62a815002e9c20
lack the vascular tissues
46
False
What protects the young plant in the seed?
572765c7dd62a815002e9c21
one or two sheathing layers
901
False
How does the plant escape the seed?
572765c7dd62a815002e9c22
splits to release it
1012
False
What is the term for plants whose seeds do not have a protective ovary?
572765c7dd62a815002e9c23
Gymnosperms
1300
False
What event led to the diversification of seed plants?
572765c7dd62a815002e9c24
evolution of the seed habit
1126
False
Nonvascular land plants are embryophytes that lack the vascular tissues xylem and phloem. They include mosses, liverworts and hornworts. Pteridophytic vascular plants with true xylem and phloem that reproduced by spores germinating into free-living gametophytes evolved during the Silurian period and diversified into several lineages during the late Silurian and early Devonian. Representatives of the lycopods have survived to the present day. By the end of the Devonian period, several groups, including the lycopods, sphenophylls and progymnosperms, had independently evolved "megaspory" – their spores were of two distinct sizes, larger megaspores and smaller microspores. Their reduced gametophytes developed from megaspores retained within the spore-producing organs (megasporangia) of the sporophyte, a condition known as endospory. Seeds consist of an endosporic megasporangium surrounded by one or two sheathing layers (integuments). The young sporophyte develops within the seed, which on germination splits to release it. The earliest known seed plants date from the latest Devonian Famennian stage. Following the evolution of the seed habit, seed plants diversified, giving rise to a number of now-extinct groups, including seed ferns, as well as the modern gymnosperms and angiosperms. Gymnosperms produce "naked seeds" not fully enclosed in an ovary; modern representatives include conifers, cycads, Ginkgo, and Gnetales. Angiosperms produce seeds enclosed in a structure such as a carpel or an ovary. Ongoing research on the molecular phylogenetics of living plants appears to show that the angiosperms are a sister clade to the gymnosperms.
What does the plant use for internal processes?
572766fdf1498d1400e8f778
Chemicals obtained from the air, soil and water
111
False
Where do plants get their energy?
572766fdf1498d1400e8f779
sunlight
213
False
How do animals use plants?
572766fdf1498d1400e8f77a
in the construction of cells and tissues
650
False
Is respiration in animals similar to photosynthesis in plants?
572766fdf1498d1400e8f77b
opposite of photosynthesis
839
False
What is the basis of plant physiology?
572766fdf1498d1400e8f77c
internal chemical and physical activities
37
False
Plant physiology encompasses all the internal chemical and physical activities of plants associated with life. Chemicals obtained from the air, soil and water form the basis of all plant metabolism. The energy of sunlight, captured by oxygenic photosynthesis and released by cellular respiration, is the basis of almost all life. Photoautotrophs, including all green plants, algae and cyanobacteria gather energy directly from sunlight by photosynthesis. Heterotrophs including all animals, all fungi, all completely parasitic plants, and non-photosynthetic bacteria take in organic molecules produced by photoautotrophs and respire them or use them in the construction of cells and tissues. Respiration is the oxidation of carbon compounds by breaking them down into simpler structures to release the energy they contain, essentially the opposite of photosynthesis.
How is water transported into plants?
57277ff7f1498d1400e8fa02
from roots
248
False
IN what form are mineral acquired by the roots?
57277ff7f1498d1400e8fa03
as soluble ions
599
False
From where does the plant get the required minerals?
57277ff7f1498d1400e8fa04
chemical breakdown of soil
743
False
Where is sucrose produced in a plant?
57277ff7f1498d1400e8fa05
the leaves
835
False
How are hormones moved around a plant?
57277ff7f1498d1400e8fa06
by a variety of processes
923
False
Molecules are moved within plants by transport processes that operate at a variety of spatial scales. Subcellular transport of ions, electrons and molecules such as water and enzymes occurs across cell membranes. Minerals and water are transported from roots to other parts of the plant in the transpiration stream. Diffusion, osmosis, and active transport and mass flow are all different ways transport can occur. Examples of elements that plants need to transport are nitrogen, phosphorus, potassium, calcium, magnesium, and sulphur. In vascular plants, these elements are extracted from the soil as soluble ions by the roots and transported throughout the plant in the xylem. Most of the elements required for plant nutrition come from the chemical breakdown of soil minerals. Sucrose produced by photosynthesis is transported from the leaves to other parts of the plant in the phloem and plant hormones are transported by a variety of processes.
When was the theory of plant hormones introduced?
57278133dd62a815002e9ee8
late 19th century
130
False
To what did Darwin compare the top of the plant radical?
57278133dd62a815002e9ee9
the brain of one of the lower animals
332
False
Why did Darwin feel plants had something comparable to a brain?
57278133dd62a815002e9eea
movements of plant shoots
176
False
What do auxins do?
57278133dd62a815002e9eeb
promotes cell growth
619
False
What can plant callus be coaxed into doing?
57278133dd62a815002e9eec
form roots and shoots
933
False
The hypothesis that plant growth and development is coordinated by plant hormones or plant growth regulators first emerged in the late 19th century. Darwin experimented on the movements of plant shoots and roots towards light and gravity, and concluded "It is hardly an exaggeration to say that the tip of the radicle . . acts like the brain of one of the lower animals . . directing the several movements". About the same time, the role of auxins (from the Greek auxein, to grow) in control of plant growth was first outlined by the Dutch scientist Frits Went. The first known auxin, indole-3-acetic acid (IAA), which promotes cell growth, was only isolated from plants about 50 years later. This compound mediates the tropic responses of shoots and roots towards light and gravity. The finding in 1939 that plant callus could be maintained in culture containing IAA, followed by the observation in 1947 that it could be induced to form roots and shoots by controlling the concentration of growth hormones were key steps in the development of plant biotechnology and genetic modification.
What are cytokinins responsible for in plants?
572782435951b619008f8b99
control of cell division
57
False
Where are cytokinins produced?
572782435951b619008f8b9a
in roots
223
False
How is bud development determined?
572782435951b619008f8b9b
cytokinesis
85
False
How is the height of a plant determined?
572782435951b619008f8b9c
gibberelins
359
False
What acid slows or stops cell division?
572782435951b619008f8b9d
Abscisic
640
False
Cytokinins are a class of plant hormones named for their control of cell division or cytokinesis. The natural cytokinin zeatin was discovered in corn, Zea mays, and is a derivative of the purine adenine. Zeatin is produced in roots and transported to shoots in the xylem where it promotes cell division, bud development, and the greening of chloroplasts. The gibberelins, such as Gibberelic acid are diterpenes synthesised from acetyl CoA via the mevalonate pathway. They are involved in the promotion of germination and dormancy-breaking in seeds, in regulation of plant height by controlling stem elongation and the control of flowering. Abscisic acid (ABA) occurs in all land plants except liverworts, and is synthesised from carotenoids in the chloroplasts and other plastids. It inhibits cell division, promotes seed maturation, and dormancy, and promotes stomatal closure. It was so named because it was originally thought to control abscission. Ethylene is a gaseous hormone that is produced in all higher plant tissues from methionine. It is now known to be the hormone that stimulates or regulates fruit ripening and abscission, and it, or the synthetic growth regulator ethephon which is rapidly metabolised to produce ethylene, are used on industrial scale to promote ripening of cotton, pineapples and other climacteric crops.
What is the study of the inside of plants?
57278345708984140094dfad
Plant anatomy
0
False
What is the study of the outside of plants?
57278345708984140094dfae
plant morphology
80
False
How are plants different from animals?
57278345708984140094dfaf
primary cell wall composed of the polysaccharides cellulose
310
False
Where do plants store their DNA?
57278345708984140094dfb0
in nuclei
192
False
Are the vacuoles of plant cells larger or smaller than animal cells?
57278345708984140094dfb1
larger
398
False
Plant anatomy is the study of the structure of plant cells and tissues, whereas plant morphology is the study of their external form. All plants are multicellular eukaryotes, their DNA stored in nuclei. The characteristic features of plant cells that distinguish them from those of animals and fungi include a primary cell wall composed of the polysaccharides cellulose, hemicellulose and pectin,  larger vacuoles than in animal cells and the presence of plastids with unique photosynthetic and biosynthetic functions as in the chloroplasts. Other plastids contain storage products such as starch (amyloplasts) or lipids (elaioplasts). Uniquely, streptophyte cells and those of the green algal order Trentepohliales divide by construction of a phragmoplast as a template for building a cell plate late in cell division.
What makes up the bodies of vascular plants?
5727873bf1498d1400e8faf2
stems bearing green photosynthesising leaves
177
False
Do roots contain chlorophyll?
5727873bf1498d1400e8faf3
generally lack chlorophyll
320
False
What makes a plant non-vascular?
5727873bf1498d1400e8faf4
do not produce ground-penetrating vascular roots
406
False
How much of a non-vascular plant is involved in photosynthesis?
5727873bf1498d1400e8faf5
most of the plant
459
False
How are sporophytes generated in liverworts?
5727873bf1498d1400e8faf6
nonphotosynthetic
538
False
The bodies of vascular plants including clubmosses, ferns and seed plants (gymnosperms and angiosperms) generally have aerial and subterranean subsystems. The shoots consist of stems bearing green photosynthesising leaves and reproductive structures. The underground vascularised roots bear root hairs at their tips and generally lack chlorophyll. Non-vascular plants, the liverworts, hornworts and mosses do not produce ground-penetrating vascular roots and most of the plant participates in photosynthesis. The sporophyte generation is nonphotosynthetic in liverworts but may be able to contribute part of its energy needs by photosynthesis in mosses and hornworts.
Do the roots and shoots need each other?
5727881cdd62a815002e9fa0
interdependent
41
False
What do the roots get from the shoots?
5727881cdd62a815002e9fa1
food
132
False
What do the shoots get from the roots?
5727881cdd62a815002e9fa2
water and minerals
193
False
What are roots used for in beets and carrots?
5727881cdd62a815002e9fa3
to store food
969
False
What happens if a plant looses roots or its shoots?
5727881cdd62a815002e9fa4
can often regrow it
577
False
The root system and the shoot system are interdependent – the usually nonphotosynthetic root system depends on the shoot system for food, and the usually photosynthetic shoot system depends on water and minerals from the root system. Cells in each system are capable of creating cells of the other and producing adventitious shoots or roots. Stolons and tubers are examples of shoots that can grow roots. Roots that spread out close to the surface, such as those of willows, can produce shoots and ultimately new plants. In the event that one of the systems is lost, the other can often regrow it. In fact it is possible to grow an entire plant from a single leaf, as is the case with Saintpaulia, or even a single cell – which can dedifferentiate into a callus (a mass of unspecialised cells) that can grow into a new plant. In vascular plants, the xylem and phloem are the conductive tissues that transport resources between shoots and roots. Roots are often adapted to store food such as sugars or starch, as in sugar beets and carrots.
What are the stems used for in cacti?
572788e25951b619008f8cab
store water
80
False
For what are leaves used?
572788e25951b619008f8cac
gather sunlight
256
False
What are angiosperms?
572788e25951b619008f8cad
plants that produce flowers and have enclosed seeds
502
False
What kind of plants are gymnosperms?
572788e25951b619008f8cae
woody plants
776
False
What kind of leaves are large and flat?
572788e25951b619008f8caf
foliage leaves
349
False
Stems mainly provide support to the leaves and reproductive structures, but can store water in succulent plants such as cacti, food as in potato tubers, or reproduce vegetatively as in the stolons of strawberry plants or in the process of layering. Leaves gather sunlight and carry out photosynthesis. Large, flat, flexible, green leaves are called foliage leaves. Gymnosperms, such as conifers, cycads, Ginkgo, and gnetophytes are seed-producing plants with open seeds. Angiosperms are seed-producing plants that produce flowers and have enclosed seeds. Woody plants, such as azaleas and oaks, undergo a secondary growth phase resulting in two additional types of tissues: wood (secondary xylem) and bark (secondary phloem and cork). All gymnosperms and many angiosperms are woody plants. Some plants reproduce sexually, some asexually, and some via both means.
How did Linnaeus group organisms?
572789b15951b619008f8cbf
shared physical characteristics
557
False
How did Darwin change the grouping pioneered by Linnaeus?
572789b15951b619008f8cc0
by ancestry rather than superficial characteristics
714
False
How are grouping determined currently?
572789b15951b619008f8cc1
DNA sequences
870
False
Who maintains a standard of grouping for naming purposes?
572789b15951b619008f8cc2
International Botanical Congress.
1249
False
Systematic botany is part of systematic biology, which is concerned with the range and diversity of organisms and their relationships, particularly as determined by their evolutionary history. It involves, or is related to, biological classification, scientific taxonomy and phylogenetics. Biological classification is the method by which botanists group organisms into categories such as genera or species. Biological classification is a form of scientific taxonomy. Modern taxonomy is rooted in the work of Carl Linnaeus, who grouped species according to shared physical characteristics. These groupings have since been revised to align better with the Darwinian principle of common descent – grouping organisms by ancestry rather than superficial characteristics. While scientists do not always agree on how to classify organisms, molecular phylogenetics, which uses DNA sequences as data, has driven many recent revisions along evolutionary lines and is likely to continue to do so. The dominant classification system is called Linnaean taxonomy. It includes ranks and binomial nomenclature. The nomenclature of botanical organisms is codified in the International Code of Nomenclature for algae, fungi, and plants (ICN) and administered by the International Botanical Congress.
What is the main grouping of a plant know as?
57278a735951b619008f8cd1
Kingdom
132
False
What is the most narrow grouping of a plant?
57278a735951b619008f8cd2
Species
208
False
Do different countries refer to plants by different names?
57278a735951b619008f8cd3
single world-wide name
318
False
What part of the name is always capitalized?
57278a735951b619008f8cd4
the genus
610
False
How is the entire name usually presented in scientific texts?
57278a735951b619008f8cd5
italicised
714
False
Kingdom Plantae belongs to Domain Eukarya and is broken down recursively until each species is separately classified. The order is: Kingdom; Phylum (or Division); Class; Order; Family; Genus (plural genera); Species. The scientific name of a plant represents its genus and its species within the genus, resulting in a single world-wide name for each organism. For example, the tiger lily is Lilium columbianum. Lilium is the genus, and columbianum the specific epithet. The combination is the name of the species. When writing the scientific name of an organism, it is proper to capitalise the first letter in the genus and put all of the specific epithet in lowercase. Additionally, the entire term is ordinarily italicised (or underlined when italics are not available).
What does the phylogeny of a group represent?
57278e565951b619008f8d73
relationships and heredity
17
False
How are the relationships within the group determined?
57278e565951b619008f8d74
shared inheritance
198
False
What would be an indication of a shared inheritance in two cacti?
57278e565951b619008f8d75
spines produced from areoles
450
False
What are areoles?
57278e565951b619008f8d76
pad-like structures
499
False
The evolutionary relationships and heredity of a group of organisms is called its phylogeny. Phylogenetic studies attempt to discover phylogenies. The basic approach is to use similarities based on shared inheritance to determine relationships. As an example, species of Pereskia are trees or bushes with prominent leaves. They do not obviously resemble a typical leafless cactus such as an Echinocactus. However, both Pereskia and Echinocactus have spines produced from areoles (highly specialised pad-like structures) suggesting that the two genera are indeed related.
Why might two plants be similar but not actually be in the same group?
57278f1edd62a815002ea058
convergent evolution
110
False
How can two different plants acquire the same traits?
57278f1edd62a815002ea059
arisen independently
156
False
What traits show a shared ancestry?
57278f1edd62a815002ea05a
derived characters
788
False
How are common ancestries represented for plant families?
57278f1edd62a815002ea05b
tree-like diagrams
970
False
Judging relationships based on shared characters requires care, since plants may resemble one another through convergent evolution in which characters have arisen independently. Some euphorbias have leafless, rounded bodies adapted to water conservation similar to those of globular cacti, but characters such as the structure of their flowers make it clear that the two groups are not closely related. The cladistic method takes a systematic approach to characters, distinguishing between those that carry no information about shared evolutionary history – such as those evolved separately in different groups (homoplasies) or those left over from ancestors (plesiomorphies) – and derived characters, which have been passed down from innovations in a shared ancestor (apomorphies). Only derived characters, such as the spine-producing areoles of cacti, provide evidence for descent from a common ancestor. The results of cladistic analyses are expressed as cladograms: tree-like diagrams showing the pattern of evolutionary branching and descent.
What is used now to group plants?
57278fe5dd62a815002ea07a
DNA sequences
175
False
What was previously used to group plants?
57278fe5dd62a815002ea07b
morphological characters
202
False
How is DNA grouping superior?
57278fe5dd62a815002ea07c
genetic code itself is used
306
False
Are fungi more like plants or animals?
57278fe5dd62a815002ea07d
closely related to animals
825
False
When was DNA sequencing first used for grouping plants?
57278fe5dd62a815002ea07e
1990s
9
False
From the 1990s onwards, the predominant approach to constructing phylogenies for living plants has been molecular phylogenetics, which uses molecular characters, particularly DNA sequences, rather than morphological characters like the presence or absence of spines and areoles. The difference is that the genetic code itself is used to decide evolutionary relationships, instead of being used indirectly via the characters it gives rise to. Clive Stace describes this as having "direct access to the genetic basis of evolution." As a simple example, prior to the use of genetic evidence, fungi were thought either to be plants or to be more closely related to plants than animals. Genetic evidence suggests that the true evolutionary relationship of multicelled organisms is as shown in the cladogram below – fungi are more closely related to animals than to plants.
What was the first plant grouping based on DNA sequencing?
572790badd62a815002ea096
flowering plants
65
False
What can be learned from DNA sequencing of plants?
572790badd62a815002ea097
evolution in plants
408
False
How has technology improved the study of botany?
572790badd62a815002ea098
greatly increased the level of detail
682
False
What have scientists learned about angiosperms from DNA sequencing?
572790badd62a815002ea099
which families represent the earliest branches
210
False
In 1998 the Angiosperm Phylogeny Group published a phylogeny for flowering plants based on an analysis of DNA sequences from most families of flowering plants. As a result of this work, many questions, such as which families represent the earliest branches of angiosperms, have now been answered. Investigating how plant species are related to each other allows botanists to better understand the process of evolution in plants. Despite the study of model plants and increasing use of DNA evidence, there is ongoing work and discussion among taxonomists about how best to classify plants into various taxa. Technological developments such as computers and electron microscopes have greatly increased the level of detail studied and speed at which data can be analysed.
Madonna_(entertainer)
What is Madonna's real name?
572661f6f1498d1400e8ddc0
Madonna Louise Ciccone
0
False
When was Madonna born?
572661f6f1498d1400e8ddc1
August 16, 1958
65
False
Which is the other name that Madonna is always referred as?
572661f6f1498d1400e8ddc2
Queen of Pop
548
False
Madonna became a fixture on which TV channel?
572661f6f1498d1400e8ddc3
MTV
301
False
Who is known for maintaining her autonomy and reinventing her image in the music industry?
572661f6f1498d1400e8ddc4
Madonna
0
False
Madonna Louise Ciccone (/tʃɪˈkoʊni/; Italian: [tʃikˈkoːne]; born August 16, 1958) is an American singer, songwriter, actress, and businesswoman. She achieved popularity by pushing the boundaries of lyrical content in mainstream popular music and imagery in her music videos, which became a fixture on MTV. Madonna is known for reinventing both her music and image, and for maintaining her autonomy within the recording industry. Music critics have acclaimed her musical productions, which have generated some controversy. Often referred to as the "Queen of Pop", she is often cited as an influence by other artists.
Where was Madonna born?
57266312f1498d1400e8ddda
Bay City, Michigan
8
False
In which year did Madonna move to New York City?
57266312f1498d1400e8dddb
1977
62
False
Which record label did Madonna sign with in 1982?
57266312f1498d1400e8dddc
Sire Records
181
False
What was the name of the album she released in 1983?
57266312f1498d1400e8dddd
Madonna
28
False
Name Madonna's Grammy award album in 1998?
57266312f1498d1400e8ddde
Ray of Light
422
False
Born in Bay City, Michigan, Madonna moved to New York City in 1977 to pursue a career in modern dance. After performing in the music groups Breakfast Club and Emmy, she signed with Sire Records (an auxiliary label of Warner Bros. Records) in 1982 and released her self-titled debut album the following year. She followed it with a series of commercially and critcally successful albums, including the Grammy Award winners Ray of Light (1998) and Confessions on a Dance Floor (2005). Throughout her career, Madonna has written and produced most of her songs, with many of them reaching number one on the record charts, including "Like a Virgin", "Into the Groove", "Papa Don't Preach", "Like a Prayer", "Vogue", "Frozen", "Music", "Hung Up", and "4 Minutes".
Name a film role that Madonna acted in.
572664b2dd62a815002e8384
Desperately Seeking Susan
71
False
Which movie earned Madonna a Golden Globe Award?
572664b2dd62a815002e8385
Evita
128
False
Name one of Madonna's other business ventures?
572664b2dd62a815002e8386
fashion design
292
False
What is the name of the entertainment company that Madonna founded?
572664b2dd62a815002e8387
Maverick
446
False
Which year did Madonna sign a $120 million deal with Live Nation?
572664b2dd62a815002e8388
2007
498
False
Madonna's popularity was further enhanced by her film roles, including Desperately Seeking Susan (1985), Dick Tracy (1990), and Evita (1996); the latter earned her a Golden Globe Award for Best Actress. However, most of her other films have been panned by critics. Her other ventures include fashion design, writing children's books, and filmmaking. She has been acclaimed as a businesswoman, particularly after she founded entertainment company Maverick (including the label Maverick Records). In 2007 she signed an unprecedented US $120 million 360 deal with Live Nation.
How many records did Madonna sell worldwide?
572665b6dd62a815002e838e
more than 300 million
12
False
Madonna is recognize as the best selling female music artiste by who?
572665b6dd62a815002e838f
Guinness World Records
134
False
How many certified albums does Madonna have?
572665b6dd62a815002e8390
64.5 million
350
False
Since 1990, how much did Madonna make in her concerts?
572665b6dd62a815002e8391
$1.31 billion
481
False
Who is one of the founding members of the UK Music Hall of Fame?
572665b6dd62a815002e8392
Madonna
712
False
Having sold more than 300 million records worldwide, Madonna is recognized as the best-selling female recording artist of all time by Guinness World Records. The Recording Industry Association of America (RIAA) listed her as the best-selling female rock artist of the 20th century and the second best-selling female artist in the United States, with 64.5 million certified albums. According to Billboard, Madonna is the highest-grossing solo touring artist of all time, earning US $1.31 billion from her concerts since 1990. She was ranked at number two, behind only The Beatles, on the Billboard Hot 100 All-Time Top Artists, making her the most successful solo artist in the history of American singles chart. Madonna became one of the five founding members of the UK Music Hall of Fame and was inducted into the Rock and Roll Hall of Fame in her first year of eligibility.
Madonna was born to which religion?
572666af708984140094c4d5
Catholic
20
False
Where were Madonna's paternal grandparents come from?
572666af708984140094c4d6
Pacentro, Italy
217
False
Madonna's mother was from which ancestry?
572666af708984140094c4d7
French-Canadian
258
False
What was Tony's occupation?
572666af708984140094c4d8
engineer designer
302
False
What was Madonna's nickname when she was younger?
572666af708984140094c4d9
Little Nonni
427
False
Madonna was born to Catholic parents Silvio Anthony "Tony" Ciccone (b. 1931) and Madonna Louise Fortin (c. 1933 – December 1, 1963) in Bay City, Michigan, on August 16, 1958. Her father's parents were immigrants from Pacentro, Italy, while her mother was of French-Canadian ancestry. Tony worked as an engineer designer for Chrysler and General Motors. Since Madonna had the same name as her mother, family members called her "Little Nonni". She has two elder brothers, Anthony (born 1956) and Martin (born 1957), and three younger siblings, Paula (born 1959), Christopher (born 1960), and Melanie (born 1962).
Which name did Madonna adopted as her confirmation name?
5726677f5951b619008f71c1
Veronica
42
False
Which disease did her mother passed away from?
5726677f5951b619008f71c2
breast cancer
198
False
Where was Madonna raised?
5726677f5951b619008f71c3
Detroit suburbs of Pontiac and Avon Township
97
False
What was Madonna's mother's reaction to her questioning about her illness?
5726677f5951b619008f71c4
cry
392
False
Upon being confirmed in 1966, she adopted Veronica as a confirmation name. She was raised in the Detroit suburbs of Pontiac and Avon Township (now Rochester Hills). Months before her mother died of breast cancer, Madonna noticed changes in her behavior and personality, although she did not understand the reason. Her mother was at a loss to explain her medical condition, and often began to cry when Madonna questioned her about it. Madonna later acknowledged that she had not grasped the concept of her mother dying.
Who did Madonna turn to for comfort during her mother's illness?
572668e2708984140094c517
paternal grandmother
22
False
How did the Ciccone siblings behaved towards anyone brought to their home to replace their beloved mother?
572668e2708984140094c518
rebelled
113
False
Who did Madonna tell in an interview that as a young girl, she was lonely and always searching for something?
572668e2708984140094c519
Vanity Fair
234
False
Afraid that Tony would be taken from her, what does she do?
572668e2708984140094c51a
unable to sleep unless she was near him
632
False
Madonna turned to her paternal grandmother for solace. The Ciccone siblings resented housekeepers and invariably rebelled against anyone brought into their home ostensibly to take the place of their beloved mother. Madonna later told Vanity Fair that she saw herself in her youth as a "lonely girl who was searching for something. I wasn't rebellious in a certain way. I cared about being good at something. I didn't shave my underarms and I didn't wear make-up like normal girls do. But I studied and I got good grades.... I wanted to be somebody." Terrified that her father Tony could be taken from her as well, Madonna was often unable to sleep unless she was near him.
In 1966, who did Tony married?
57266a39dd62a815002e842a
Joan Gustafson
47
False
Name one child from the union of Tony and Joan?
57266a39dd62a815002e842b
Mario
111
False
When was Mario born?
57266a39dd62a815002e842c
1968
123
False
What is the name of the middle school that Madonna attended?
57266a39dd62a815002e842d
West Middle School
304
False
Madonna achieved a name for herself in school by her unusual behavior and also for what other reason?
57266a39dd62a815002e842e
high grade point average
350
False
In 1966, Tony married the family's housekeeper Joan Gustafson; they had two children, Jennifer (born 1967) and Mario (born 1968). At this point, Madonna started to resent him for decades, and developed a rebellious attitude. She attended St. Frederick's and St. Andrew's Catholic Elementary Schools, and West Middle School. Madonna was known for her high grade point average, and achieved notoriety for her unconventional behavior. She would perform cartwheels and handstands in the hallways between classes, dangle by her knees from the monkey bars during recess, and pull up her skirt during class—all so that the boys could see her underwear.
When did Madonna drop out of college?
57266b1f708984140094c54d
1978
3
False
Which restaurant did Madonna work in New York City?
57266b1f708984140094c54e
Dunkin' Donuts
117
False
Where did Madonna take dance classes at in New York City?
57266b1f708984140094c54f
Alvin Ailey American Dance Theater
185
False
How much did Madonna have when she first went to NYC?
57266b1f708984140094c550
$35
421
False
What did she also work as for other established artists?
57266b1f708984140094c551
backup dancer
505
False
In 1978, she dropped out of college and relocated to New York City. She had little money and worked as a waitress at Dunkin' Donuts and with modern dance troupes, taking classes at the Alvin Ailey American Dance Theater and eventually performing with Pear Lang Dance Theater. Madonna said of her move to New York, "It was the first time I'd ever taken a plane, the first time I'd ever gotten a taxi cab. I came here with $35 in my pocket. It was the bravest thing I'd ever done." She started to work as a backup dancer for other established artists. Madonna claimed that during a late night she was returning from a rehearsal, when a pair of men held her at knifepoint and forced her to perform fellatio. Madonna later commented that "the episode was a taste of my weakness, it showed me that I still could not save myself in spite of all the strong-girl show. I could never forget it."
Which year was Patrick Hernandez's world tour held?
57266c4add62a815002e8470
1979
100
False
Who did Madonna started seeing when she worked as a back up singer/dancer during Patrick Hernandez's tour?
57266c4add62a815002e8471
Dan Gilroy
168
False
What was the name of the band which Madonna and Dan Gilroy started?
57266c4add62a815002e8472
Breakfast Club
227
False
When did Madonna leave the Breakfast Club?
57266c4add62a815002e8473
1980 or 1981
298
False
After leaving the Breakfast Club, who did she formed the band Emmy with?
57266c4add62a815002e8474
Stephen Bray
366
False
While performing as a backup singer and dancer for the French disco artist Patrick Hernandez on his 1979 world tour, Madonna became romantically involved with musician Dan Gilroy. Together, they formed her first rock band, the Breakfast Club, for which Madonna sang and played drums and guitar. In 1980 or 1981 she left Breakfast Club and, with her former boyfriend Stephen Bray as drummer, formed the band Emmy. The two began writing songs together, and Madonna later decided to market herself as a solo act. Their music impressed DJ and record producer Mark Kamins who arranged a meeting between Madonna and Sire Records founder Seymour Stein.
What was Madonna's debut single called?
57266d3cf1498d1400e8df5c
Everybody
66
False
When was "Everybody" released?
57266d3cf1498d1400e8df5d
October 1982
94
False
What was the name of the second single called?
57266d3cf1498d1400e8df5e
Burning Up
125
False
Who produced Madonna's debut album?
57266d3cf1498d1400e8df5f
Reggie Lucas of Warner Bros
386
False
Madonna's dance singles reached which number in the "Hot Dance Club Songs" by the Billboard Magazine?
57266d3cf1498d1400e8df60
three
217
False
After Madonna signed a singles deal with Sire, her debut single, "Everybody", was released in October 1982, and the second, "Burning Up", in March 1983. Both became big club hits in the United States, reaching number three on Hot Dance Club Songs chart compiled by Billboard magazine. After this success, she started developing her debut album, Madonna, which was primarily produced by Reggie Lucas of Warner Bros. However, she was not happy with the completed tracks and disagreed with Lucas' production techniques, so decided to seek additional help.
Who was the boyfriend that Madonna moved in with?
57266e1e708984140094c5b5
John "Jellybean" Benitez
32
False
Who remixed most of Madonna's album tracks?
57266e1e708984140094c5b6
Benitez
112
False
Which song was Madonna's first global hit?
57266e1e708984140094c5b7
Holiday
161
False
When was Madonna's album released?
57266e1e708984140094c5b8
July 1983
446
False
Which number did Madonna's album peaked at the Billboard 800 six months later?
57266e1e708984140094c5b9
eight
477
False
Madonna moved in with boyfriend John "Jellybean" Benitez, asking his help for finishing the album's production. Benitez remixed most of the tracks and produced "Holiday", which was her third single and her first global hit. The overall sound of Madonna was dissonant and in the form of upbeat synthetic disco, using some of the new technology of the time, like the Linn drum machine, Moog bass and the OB-X synthesizer. The album was released in July 1983 and peaked at number eight on the Billboard 200 six months later, in 1984. It yielded two more hit singles, "Borderline" and "Lucky Star".
Who did Madonna's look and style of dressing influence?
57269c15dd62a815002e8b08
young girls and women
88
False
When did Madonna's style become a fashion trend?
57269c15dd62a815002e8b09
1980s
168
False
Who is the stylist and jewellery designer that created Madonna's look?
57269c15dd62a815002e8b0a
Maripol
215
False
When did Madonna achieve global recognition?
57269c15dd62a815002e8b0b
November 1984
461
False
How long did "Like a Virgin" stayed on the Billboard 100?
57269c15dd62a815002e8b0c
six consecutive weeks
651
False
Madonna's look and style of dressing, her performances, and her music videos influenced young girls and women. Her style became one of the female fashion trends of the 1980s. Created by stylist and jewelry designer Maripol, the look consisted of lace tops, skirts over capri pants, fishnet stockings, jewelry bearing the crucifix, bracelets, and bleached hair. Madonna achieved global recognition after the release of her second studio album, Like a Virgin, in November 1984. It topped the charts in several countries and became her first number one album on the Billboard 200. The title track, "Like a Virgin", topped the Billboard Hot 100 chart for six consecutive weeks. It attracted the attention of organizations who complained that the song and its accompanying video promoted premarital sex and undermined family values, and moralists sought to have the song and video banned.
Madonna was criticized for her performance of which song in the VMA?
57269d8ff1498d1400e8e4f8
"Like a Virgin"
46
False
What was Madonna wearing during the performance of "Like A Virgin" at the VMA?
57269d8ff1498d1400e8e4f9
a wedding dress
167
False
Her video of "Material Girl" was an imitation of which singer's song, "Diamonds are a girl's best friend?"
57269d8ff1498d1400e8e4fa
Marilyn Monroe
415
False
When did Madonna married Sean Penn?
57269d8ff1498d1400e8e4fb
on her birthday in 1985
616
False
When did Madonna audition for a dance role in the show "A Chorus Line?"
57269d8ff1498d1400e8e4fc
February 1984
777
False
Madonna was criticized for her performance of "Like a Virgin" at the first 1984 MTV Video Music Awards (VMA). She appeared on stage atop a giant wedding cake, wearing a wedding dress and white gloves. The performance is noted by MTV as an iconic moment in VMA history. In later years, Madonna commented that she was terrified of the performance. The next hit was "Material Girl" promoted by her video, a mimicry of Marilyn Monroe's performance of the song "Diamonds Are a Girl's Best Friend" from the 1953 film Gentlemen Prefer Blondes. While filming this video, Madonna started dating actor Sean Penn. They married on her birthday in 1985. Like a Virgin was certified diamond by the Recording Industry Association of America and sold more than 25 million copies worldwide. In February 1984, according to the film director Sir Richard Attenborough, Madonna auditioned at the Royale Theatre on Broadway for a dance role in his movie version of A Chorus Line using her birth-name of Ciccone, but he rejected her.
When did Madonna enter mainstream films?
5726a792dd62a815002e8c1a
February 1985
36
False
What is the name of the romantic drama film that Madonna starred in?
5726a792dd62a815002e8c1b
Vision Quest
105
False
When did Madonna appear in the comedy Desperately Seeking Susan?
5726a792dd62a815002e8c1c
March 1985
304
False
What is the name of Madonna's two new singles?
5726a792dd62a815002e8c1d
"Crazy for You" and "Gambler"
212
False
What song did the comedy Desperately Seeking Susan promote?
5726a792dd62a815002e8c1e
"Into the Groove"
349
False
Madonna entered mainstream films in February 1985, beginning with a brief appearance as a club singer in Vision Quest, a romantic drama film. Its soundtrack contained two new singles, her U.S. number-one single, "Crazy for You" and "Gambler". She also appeared in the comedy Desperately Seeking Susan in March 1985, a film which introduced the song "Into the Groove", her first number one single in the United Kingdom. Although Madonna was not the lead actress for the film, her profile was such that the movie widely became considered (and marketed) as a Madonna vehicle. The New York Times film critic Vincent Canby named it one of the ten best films of 1985.
When was Madonna's first concert tour in North America?
5726a8eef1498d1400e8e668
Beginning in April 1985
0
False
Who were the opening act for Madonna's concert The Virgin tour?
5726a8eef1498d1400e8e669
Beastie Boys
112
False
When did Madonna have nude photos taken of her in New York?
5726a8eef1498d1400e8e66a
1978
429
False
How much was Madonna's nude photos were finally sold for?
5726a8eef1498d1400e8e66b
up to $100,000
686
False
When was the Live Aid Charity Concert held?
5726a8eef1498d1400e8e66c
1985
738
False
Beginning in April 1985, Madonna embarked on her first concert tour in North America, The Virgin Tour, with the Beastie Boys as her opening act. She progressed from playing CBGB and the Mudd Club to playing large sporting arenas. At that time she released two more hit singles from the album, "Angel" and "Dress You Up". In July, Penthouse and Playboy magazines published a number of nude photos of Madonna, taken in New York in 1978. She had posed for the photographs as she needed money at the time, and was paid as little as $25 a session. The publication of the photos caused a media uproar, but Madonna remained "unapologetic and defiant". The photographs were ultimately sold for up to $100,000. She referred to these events at the 1985 outdoor Live Aid charity concert, saying that she would not take her jacket off because "[the media] might hold it against me ten years from now."
When was Madonna's third album released?
5726a9e9708984140094cd41
June 1986
3
False
Who was the album True Blue dedicated to?
5726a9e9708984140094cd42
Sean Penn
105
False
Madonna's album topped in how many countries chart worldwide?
5726a9e9708984140094cd43
28 countries
484
False
What award did Madonna receive for her role in the film Shanghai Surprise?
5726a9e9708984140094cd44
Golden Raspberry Award
757
False
Name a soundtrack in the film Who's That Girl?
5726a9e9708984140094cd45
Causing a Commotion
1064
False
In June 1986, Madonna released her third studio album, True Blue, which was inspired by and dedicated to Sean Penn. Rolling Stone magazine was generally impressed with the effort, writing that the album "sound[s] as if it comes from the heart". It resulted in three singles making it to number-one on the Billboard Hot 100: "Live to Tell", "Papa Don't Preach" and "Open Your Heart", and two more top-five singles: "True Blue" and "La Isla Bonita". The album topped the charts in over 28 countries worldwide, an unprecedented achievement at the time, and became her best-selling studio album of her career to this date with sales of 25 million. In the same year, Madonna starred in the critically panned film Shanghai Surprise, for which she was awarded the Golden Raspberry Award for "worst actress". She made her theatrical debut in a production of David Rabe's Goose and Tom-Tom; the film and play both co-starred Penn. The next year, Madonna was featured in the film Who's That Girl. She contributed four songs to its soundtrack, including the title track and "Causing a Commotion".
When did Madonna sign an endorsement deal with Pepsi?
5726abddf1498d1400e8e6c0
January 1989
3
False
With Madonna's new video, Like A Prayer, the blasphemy that she portrayed in the video led to what consequences?
5726abdef1498d1400e8e6c1
canceled her sponsorship contract
445
False
Who co-written and co-produced the song, Like A Prayer?
5726abdef1498d1400e8e6c2
Patrick Leonard and Stephen Bray.
591
False
How many copies did Like A Prayer sell worldwide?
5726abdef1498d1400e8e6c3
15 million copies
816
False
When was Madonna named "Artist of the Decade" by MTV, Billboard and Musician Magazine?
5726abdef1498d1400e8e6c4
end of the 1980s
1059
False
In January 1989, Madonna signed an endorsement deal with soft-drink manufacturer, Pepsi. In one of her Pepsi commercials, she debuted her song "Like a Prayer". The corresponding music video featured many Catholic symbols such as stigmata and cross burning, and a dream of making love to a saint, leading the Vatican to condemn the video. Religious groups sought to ban the commercial and boycott Pepsi products. Pepsi revoked the commercial and canceled her sponsorship contract. The song was included on Madonna's fourth studio album, Like a Prayer, which was co-written and co-produced by Patrick Leonard and Stephen Bray. Madonna received positive feedback for the album, with Rolling Stone writing that it was "as close to art as pop music gets". Like a Prayer peaked at number one on the Billboard 200 and sold 15 million copies worldwide, with 4 million copies sold in the U.S. alone. Six singles were released from the album, including "Like a Prayer", which reached number one, and "Express Yourself" and "Cherish", both peaking at number two. By the end of the 1980s, Madonna was named as the "Artist of the Decade" by MTV, Billboard and Musician magazine.
In the film Dick Tracy, who did Madonna starred as?
5726ad3c5951b619008f79db
Breathless Mahoney
19
False
Madonna's role in Dick Tracy led to which award nomination?
5726ad3c5951b619008f79dc
Saturn Award
137
False
Who earned an Academy Award for the song "Vogue" and "Sooner or Later?"
5726ad3c5951b619008f79dd
Stephen Sondheim
406
False
Who did Madonna have a relationship with while shooting the film?
5726ad3c5951b619008f79de
Beatty
531
False
When did Madonna and Beatty's relationship end?
5726ad3c5951b619008f79df
end of 1990
562
False
Madonna starred as Breathless Mahoney in the film Dick Tracy (1990), with Warren Beatty playing the title role. Her performance led to a Saturn Award nomination for Best Actress. To accompany the film, she released the soundtrack album, I'm Breathless, which included songs inspired by the film's 1930s setting. It also featured the US number-one hit "Vogue" and "Sooner or Later", which earned songwriter Stephen Sondheim an Academy Award for Best Original Song in 1991. While shooting the film, Madonna began a relationship with Beatty, which dissolved by the end of 1990. In April 1990, Madonna began her Blond Ambition World Tour, which was held until August. Rolling Stone called it an "elaborately choreographed, sexually provocative extravaganza" and proclaimed it "the best tour of 1990". The tour generated strong negative reaction from religious groups for her performance of "Like a Virgin", during which two male dancers caressed her body before she simulated masturbation. In response, Madonna said, "The tour in no way hurts anybody's sentiments. It's for open minds and gets them to see sexuality in a different way. Their own and others". The Laserdisc release of the tour won Madonna a Grammy Award in 1992 for Best Long Form Music Video.
What is Madonna's compilation album called?
5726ae265951b619008f7a1f
The Immaculate Collection
0
False
How many albums did it sell worldwide?
5726ae265951b619008f7a20
over 30 million copies
218
False
What is one of the title of the songs that was released in the Immaculate Collection?
5726ae265951b619008f7a21
Justify My Love
135
False
Why did MTV ban the video for Justify My Love?
5726ae265951b619008f7a22
too sexually explicit
513
False
Justify My Love reached which number in the US charts?
5726ae265951b619008f7a23
number one
351
False
The Immaculate Collection, Madonna's first greatest-hits compilation album, was released in November 1990. It included two new songs, "Justify My Love" and "Rescue Me". The album was certified diamond by RIAA and sold over 30 million copies worldwide, becoming the best-selling compilation album by a solo artist in history. "Justify My Love" reached number one in the U.S. and top ten worldwide. Its music video featured scenes of sadomasochism, bondage, same-sex kissing, and brief nudity. The video was deemed too sexually explicit for MTV and was banned from the network. Madonna responded to the banning: "Why is it that people are willing to go and watch a movie about someone getting blown to bits for no reason at all, and nobody wants to see two girls kissing and two men snuggling?"
Who did Madonna play in the role A League Of Their Own?
5726af855951b619008f7a59
Mae Mordabito
56
False
What is the film's theme song?
5726af855951b619008f7a5a
This Used to Be My Playground
150
False
When did Madonna open her own entertainment company, Maverick?
5726af855951b619008f7a5b
1992
3
False
How much was the royalties paid to Madonna for the music proceedings?
5726af855951b619008f7a5c
20%
589
False
What was the name of the erotic thriller that shows scenes of sadomasochism and bondage?
5726af855951b619008f7a5d
Body of Evidence
1418
False
In 1992, Madonna had a role in A League of Their Own as Mae Mordabito, a baseball player on an all-women's team. She recorded the film's theme song, "This Used to Be My Playground", which became a Hot 100 number one hit. The same year, she founded her own entertainment company, Maverick, consisting of a record company (Maverick Records), a film production company (Maverick Films), and associated music publishing, television broadcasting, book publishing and merchandising divisions. The deal was a joint venture with Time Warner and paid Madonna an advance of $60 million. It gave her 20% royalties from the music proceedings, one of the highest rates in the industry, equaled at that time only by Michael Jackson's royalty rate established a year earlier with Sony. The first release from the venture was Madonna's book, titled Sex. It consisted of sexually provocative and explicit images, photographed by Steven Meisel. The book received strong negative reaction from the media and the general public, but sold 1.5 million copies at $50 each in a matter of days. At the same time she released her fifth studio album, Erotica, which debuted at number two on the Billboard 200. Its title track peaked at number three on the Billboard Hot 100. Erotica also produced five singles: "Deeper and Deeper", "Bad Girl", "Fever", "Rain" and "Bye Bye Baby". Madonna had provocative imagery featured in the erotic thriller, Body of Evidence, a film which contained scenes of sadomasochism and bondage. It was poorly received by critics. She also starred in the film Dangerous Game, which was released straight to video in North America. The New York Times described the film as "angry and painful, and the pain feels real."
When was The Girlie Show World Tour?
5726cf30f1498d1400e8ebe2
September 1993
3
False
What was Madonna dressed in for the tour?
5726cf30f1498d1400e8ebe3
whip-cracking dominatrix
93
False
In which country did Madonna rubbed the country's flag between her thighs that anger the public?
5726cf30f1498d1400e8ebe4
Puerto Rico
152
False
What did Madonna give to Letterman to smell in his late night show that created an uproar?
5726cf30f1498d1400e8ebe5
a pair of her panties
417
False
What did the critics call Madonna after the Letterman show?
5726cf30f1498d1400e8ebe6
a sexual renegade
609
False
In September 1993, Madonna embarked on The Girlie Show World Tour, in which she dressed as a whip-cracking dominatrix surrounded by topless dancers. In Puerto Rico she rubbed the island's flag between her legs on stage, resulting in outrage among the audience. In March 1994, she appeared as a guest on the Late Show with David Letterman, using profanity that required censorship on television, and handing Letterman a pair of her panties and asking him to smell it. The releases of her sexually explicit films, albums and book, and the aggressive appearance on Letterman all made critics question Madonna as a sexual renegade. Critics and fans reacted negatively, who commented that "she had gone too far" and that her career was over.
Which biographer described her song "I'll Remember" as trying to clean up Madonna's image?
5726d075dd62a815002e9116
J. Randy Taraborrelli
11
False
The song "I'll Remember" was recorded for which film?
5726d075dd62a815002e9117
With Honors
176
False
What was Madonna's sixth album named?
5726d075dd62a815002e9118
Bedtime Stories
428
False
The single "Take A Bow" was at the Hot 100 for how many weeks?
5726d075dd62a815002e9119
seven weeks
679
False
Who was the fitness trainer that Madonna was involved with?
5726d075dd62a815002e911a
Carlos Leon
806
False
Biographer J. Randy Taraborrelli described her ballad "I'll Remember" (1994) as an attempt to tone down her provocative image. The song was recorded for Alek Keshishian's film With Honors. She made a subdued appearance with Letterman at an awards show and appeared on The Tonight Show with Jay Leno after realizing that she needed to change her musical direction in order to sustain her popularity. With her sixth studio album, Bedtime Stories (1994), Madonna employed a softer image to try to improve the public perception. The album debuted at number three on the Billboard 200 and produced four singles, including "Secret" and "Take a Bow", the latter topping the Hot 100 for seven weeks, the longest period of any Madonna single. At the same time, she became romantically involved with fitness trainer Carlos Leon. Something to Remember, a collection of ballads, was released in November 1995. The album featured three new songs: "You'll See", "One More Chance", and a cover of Marvin Gaye's "I Want You".
In the film Evita, who did Madonna play?
5726d16c708984140094d225
Eva Perón
50
False
Which director did Madonna write to saying that she was perfect for the part of Eva Peron?
5726d16c708984140094d226
Alan Parker
134
False
When was Madonna pregnant?
5726d16c708984140094d227
During shooting
552
False
After securing the role of Evita, what kind of training did Madonna have?
5726d16c708984140094d228
vocal training
483
False
In Evita (1996), Madonna played the title role of Eva Perón. For a long time, Madonna had desired to play Perón and wrote to director Alan Parker to explain why she would be perfect for the part. She said later, "This is the role I was born to play. I put everything of me into this because it was much more than a role in a movie. It was exhilarating and intimidating at the same time..... And I am prouder of Evita than anything else I have done." After securing the role, she had vocal training and learned about the history of Argentina and Perón. During shooting she became ill several times due to the intense emotional effort required. However, as she told Oprah, she was also pregnant during the filming: "I was winded after every take. I had to lie on the couch every ten minutes so I could recover from dizzy spells, I was worried that I was shaking the baby around too much and that would injure it in some way." Madonna wrote in her personal diary at the time: "Ironically, this feeling of vulnerability and weakness is helping me in the movie. I'm sure Evita felt this way every day of her life once she discovered she was ill."
Who from Times magazine gave an excellent critique of the film Evita?
5726d261708984140094d25d
Zach Conner
57
False
What award did Madonna win for the film Evita?
5726d261708984140094d25e
Golden Globe Award
396
False
When was Madonna's daughter born?
5726d261708984140094d25f
October 14, 1996
782
False
What is the name of Madonna's daughter?
5726d261708984140094d260
Lourdes Maria Ciccone Leon
822
False
When did Madonna's relationship with Carlos Leon ended?
5726d261708984140094d261
May 1997
1325
False
After its release, Evita garnered critical appreciation. Zach Conner from Time magazine commented, "It's a relief to say that Evita is pretty damn fine, well cast and handsomely visualized. Madonna once again confounds our expectations. She plays Evita with a poignant weariness and has more than just a bit of star quality. Love or hate Madonna-Eva, she is a magnet for all eyes." Madonna won a Golden Globe Award for Best Actress in Motion Picture Musical or Comedy for the role. She released three singles from the Evita soundtrack album, including "You Must Love Me" (which won an Academy Award for Best Original Song in 1997) and "Don't Cry for Me Argentina". Madonna was later presented with the Artist Achievement Award by Tony Bennett at the 1996 Billboard Music Awards. On October 14, 1996, Madonna gave birth to Lourdes Maria Ciccone Leon, her daughter with Leon. Biographer Mary Cross writes that although Madonna was often ill during the filming and worried that her pregnancy would harm the film, she reached some important personal goals: "Now 38 years old, Madonna had at last triumphed on screen and achieved her dream of having a child, both in the same year. She had reached another turning point in her career, reinventing herself and her image with the public." Her relationship with Carlos Leon ended in May 1997; she declared that they were "better off as best friends." After Lourdes' birth, Madonna became involved in Eastern mysticism and Kabbalah. She was introduced to Jewish mysticism by actress Sandra Bernhard in 1997.
What is the name of Madonna's seventh album?
5726d340dd62a815002e9174
Ray of Light
32
False
What year was "Ray of Light" released?
5726d340dd62a815002e9175
1998
47
False
Which electronica producer did Madonna team up with for Ray of Light?
5726d340dd62a815002e9176
William Orbit
129
False
Which type of music was popular during the 90s?
5726d340dd62a815002e9177
Techno and rave
372
False
Madonna's seventh studio album, Ray of Light, (1998) reflected a change in her image. She collaborated with electronica producer William Orbit and wanted to create a sound that could blend dance music with pop and British rock. American music critic Ann Powers explained that what Madonna searched for with Orbit "was a kind of a lushness that she wanted for this record. Techno and rave was happening in the 90's and had a lot of different forms. There was very experimental, more hard stuff like Aphex Twin. There was party stuff like Fatboy Slim. That's not what Madonna wanted for this. She wanted something more like a singer-songwriter, really. And William Orbit provided her with that."
How many Emmy awards did Ray of Light won?
5726d4445951b619008f7f4b
four
67
False
Who listed Ray of Light as "The 500 Greatest Albums of All Time?"
5726d4445951b619008f7f4c
Rolling Stone
173
False
How many albums did Ray of Light sell worldwide?
5726d4445951b619008f7f4d
16 million copies
328
False
Which single in the album made it to the UK number one?
5726d4445951b619008f7f4e
Frozen
384
False
The single Ray of Light debut at which number of the Billboard Hot 100?
5726d4445951b619008f7f4f
five
647
False
The album garnered critical acclaim. Ray of Light was honored with four Grammy Awards. In 2003, Slant Magazine called it "one of the great pop masterpieces of the '90s" and Rolling Stone listed it among "The 500 Greatest Albums of All Time". Commercially, the album peaked at number one in numerous countries and sold more than 16 million copies worldwide. The album's first single, "Frozen", became Madonna's first single to debut at number one in the UK, while in the U.S. it became her sixth number-two single, setting another record for Madonna as the artist with the most number two hits. The second single, "Ray of Light", debuted at number five on the Billboard Hot 100.
Which edition of the Guinness Book of World Record states that no female artist sold more records than Madonna?
5726d525708984140094d2b5
1998
4
False
Which film project did Madonna leave because of differences with the director?
5726d525708984140094d2b6
Music of the Heart
191
False
Who was the director of Music of the Heart?
5726d525708984140094d2b7
Wes Craven
276
False
Which film did Madonna record the single Beautiful Stranger for?
5726d525708984140094d2b8
Beautiful Stranger
313
False
Which award did Madonna win for the single "Beautiful Stranger?"
5726d525708984140094d2b9
Grammy Award
465
False
The 1998 edition of Guinness Book of World Records stated: "No female artist has sold more records than Madonna around the world". In 1999 Madonna signed to play a violin teacher in the film Music of the Heart but left the project, citing "creative differences" with director Wes Craven. She recorded the single "Beautiful Stranger" for the 1999 film Austin Powers: The Spy Who Shagged Me. It reached number 19 on the Hot 100 solely on radio airplay. Madonna won a Grammy Award for "Best Song Written for a Motion Picture, Television or Other Visual Media".
What was the film that Madonna starred in 2000?
5726d5f8dd62a815002e91c8
The Next Best Thing
37
False
What was the name of the film's soundtrack called?
5726d5f8dd62a815002e91c9
Time Stood Still
111
False
What was Madonna's eighth album called?
5726d5f8dd62a815002e91ca
Music
221
False
When was "Music" released?
5726d5f8dd62a815002e91cb
September 2000
231
False
How many albums did "Music" sell in the first 10 days?
5726d5f8dd62a815002e91cc
four million
926
False
In 2000, Madonna starred in the film The Next Best Thing, and contributed two songs to the film's soundtrack; "Time Stood Still" and a cover of Don McLean's 1971 song "American Pie". She released her eighth studio album, Music, in September 2000. It featured elements from the electronica-inspired Ray of Light era, and like its predecessor, received acclaim from critics. Collaborating with French producer Mirwais Ahmadzaï, Madonna commented: "I love to work with the weirdos that no one knows about—the people who have raw talent and who are making music unlike anyone else out there. Music is the future of sound." Stephen Thomas Erlewine from AllMusic felt that "Music blows by in a kaleidoscopic rush of color, technique, style and substance. It has so many depth and layers that it's easily as self-aware and earnest as Ray of Light." The album took the number-one position in more than 20 countries worldwide and sold four million copies in the first ten days. In the U.S., Music debuted at the top, and became her first number-one album in eleven years since Like a Prayer. It produced three singles: the Hot 100 number one "Music", "Don't Tell Me", and "What It Feels Like for a Girl". The music video of "What It Feels Like for a Girl" depicted Madonna committing acts of crime and vandalism, and was banned by MTV and VH1.
Who is Madonna's second husband?
5726d6ef708984140094d2fd
Guy Ritchie
17
False
When did Madonna marry Guy Ritchie?
5726d6ef708984140094d2fe
December 21, 2000.
328
False
When was Rocco John Ritchie born?
5726d6ef708984140094d2ff
August 11, 2000
134
False
What type of birth complications did Madonna suffer at birth?
5726d6ef708984140094d300
placenta praevia
246
False
When did Madonna's Drowned World Tour start?
5726d6ef708984140094d301
June 2001
475
False
She met director Guy Ritchie, who would become her second husband, in November 1998 and gave birth to their son Rocco John Ritchie on August 11, 2000 in Los Angeles. Rocco and Madonna suffered complications from the birth due to her experiencing placenta praevia. He was christened at Dornoch Cathedral in Dornoch, Scotland, on December 21, 2000. Madonna married Ritchie the following day at nearby Skibo Castle. Her fifth concert tour, titled Drowned World Tour, started in June 2001. The tour visited cities in the U.S. and Europe and was the highest-grossing concert tour of the year by a solo artist, earning $75 million from 47 sold-out shows. She also released her second greatest-hits collection, titled GHV2, to coincide with the home video release of the tour. GHV2 debuted at number seven on the Billboard 200.
Which film did Madonna starred in that was directed by Ritchie?
5726da03708984140094d389
Swept Away
28
False
When did Madonna appear in the play Up For Grabs at the Wyndhams Theatre?
5726da03708984140094d38a
May 2002
148
False
What was Madonna's title song for the James Bond movie?
5726da03708984140094d38b
Die Another Day
448
False
Die Another Day reached which number in the Billboards Hot 100?
5726da03708984140094d38c
eight
584
False
Madonna starred in the film Swept Away, directed by Ritchie. Released direct-to-video in the UK, the film was a commercial and critical failure. In May 2002 she appeared in London in the West End play Up For Grabs at the Wyndhams Theatre (billed as 'Madonna Ritchie'), to universally bad reviews and was described as "the evening's biggest disappointment" by one. That October, she released "Die Another Day", the title song of the James Bond film Die Another Day, in which she had a cameo role, described by The Guardian film reviewer as "incredibly wooden". The song reached number eight on the Billboard Hot 100 and was nominated for both a Golden Globe Award for Best Original Song and a Golden Raspberry for Worst Song.
What is the name of the exhibition installation that Madonna teamed up with fashion photographer Chris Klein called?
5726db2ef1498d1400e8ed60
X-STaTIC Pro=CeSS
132
False
What was Madonna's ninth album called?
5726db2ef1498d1400e8ed61
American Life
410
False
When was American Life released?
5726db2ef1498d1400e8ed62
2003
90
False
American Life reached which number at the Hot 100?
5726db2ef1498d1400e8ed63
37
945
False
How many copies did the album sell worldwide?
5726db2ef1498d1400e8ed64
four million
1147
False
Following Die Another Day, Madonna collaborated with fashion photographer Steven Klein in 2003 for an exhibition installation named X-STaTIC Pro=CeSS. It included photography from a photo shoot in W magazine, and seven video segments. The installation ran from March to May in New York's Deitch Projects gallery. It traveled the world in an edited form. The same year, Madonna released her ninth studio album, American Life, which was based on her observations of American society; it received mixed reviews. She commented, "[American Life] was like a trip down memory lane, looking back at everything I've accomplished and all the things I once valued and all the things that were important to me." Larry Flick from The Advocate felt that "American Life is an album that is among her most adventurous and lyrically intelligent" while condemning it as "a lazy, half-arsed effort to sound and take her seriously." The title song peaked at number 37 on the Hot 100. Its original music video was canceled as Madonna thought that the video, featuring violence and war imagery, would be deemed unpatriotic since America was then at war with Iraq. With four million copies sold worldwide, American Life was the lowest-selling album of her career at that point.
Who did Madonna kiss at the MTV Video Music Awards?
5726dc455951b619008f803d
Spears and Aguilera
223
False
When did Madonna collaborated as guest vocals for Spears single?
5726dc455951b619008f803e
October 2003
283
False
Madonna signed a contract with Callaway Arts and Entertainment to be a writer of what type of books?
5726dc455951b619008f803f
children's books
683
False
What was the title of the first book Madonna penned?
5726dc455951b619008f8040
The English Roses,
734
False
When was the The English Roses published?
5726dc455951b619008f8041
September 2003
770
False
Madonna gave another provocative performance later that year at the 2003 MTV Video Music Awards, while singing "Hollywood" with Britney Spears, Christina Aguilera, and Missy Elliott. Madonna sparked controversy for kissing Spears and Aguilera suggestively during the performance. In October 2003, Madonna provided guest vocals on Spears' single "Me Against the Music". It was followed with the release of Remixed & Revisited. The EP contained remixed versions of songs from American Life and included "Your Honesty", a previously unreleased track from the Bedtime Stories recording sessions. Madonna also signed a contract with Callaway Arts & Entertainment to be the author of five children's books. The first of these books, titled The English Roses, was published in September 2003. The story was about four English schoolgirls and their envy and jealousy of each other. Kate Kellway from The Guardian commented, "[Madonna] is an actress playing at what she can never be—a JK Rowling, an English rose." The book debuted at the top of The New York Times Best Seller list and became the fastest-selling children's picture book of all time.
Madonna and Maverick sued which company for poor bookkeeping and mismanagement of resources?
5726dd5f5951b619008f8071
Warner Music Group
40
False
Warner filed a countersuit stating that who lost 10 of millions of dollars on its own?
5726dd5f5951b619008f8072
Maverick
258
False
Warner resolved the dispute by buying whose shares?
5726dd5f5951b619008f8073
Madonna and Ronnie Dashev
376
False
Maverick became a wholly owned  subsidiary of which company?
5726dd5f5951b619008f8074
Warner Music
494
False
The next year Madonna and Maverick sued Warner Music Group and its former parent company Time Warner, claiming that mismanagement of resources and poor bookkeeping had cost the company millions of dollars. In return, Warner filed a countersuit alleging that Maverick had lost tens of millions of dollars on its own. The dispute was resolved when the Maverick shares, owned by Madonna and Ronnie Dashev, were purchased by Warner. Madonna and Dashev's company became a wholly owned subsidiary of Warner Music, but Madonna was still signed to Warner under a separate recording contract.
When was the Re-Invention World Tour kick off?
5726dfaedd62a815002e9380
mid-2004
3
False
HOw much did the tour earn?
5726dfaedd62a815002e9381
around $120 million
146
False
What was Madonna's documentary called?
5726dfaedd62a815002e9382
I'm Going to Tell You a Secret
208
False
When was Madonna inducted into the UK Hall of Fame?
5726dfaedd62a815002e9383
November 2004
243
False
When did Madonna perform at the Live 8 benefit concert in the UK?
5726dfaedd62a815002e9384
July 2005.
565
False
In mid-2004 Madonna embarked on the Re-Invention World Tour in the U.S., Canada, and Europe. It became the highest-grossing tour of 2004, earning around $120 million and became the subject of her documentary I'm Going to Tell You a Secret. In November 2004, she was inducted into the UK Music Hall of Fame as one of its five founding members, along with The Beatles, Elvis Presley, Bob Marley, and U2. In January 2005, Madonna performed a cover version of the John Lennon song "Imagine" at Tsunami Aid. She also performed at the Live 8 benefit concert in London in July 2005.
What was the name of Madonna's tenth studio album?
5726e0bc5951b619008f8119
Confessions on a Dance Floor
24
False
When was Confessions on a Dance Floor released?
5726e0bc5951b619008f811a
November 2005
70
False
Which award the the album win?
5726e0bc5951b619008f811b
Grammy Award
314
False
Which pop group allowed Madonna to sing a cover of their song Gimme! Gimme! Gimme!
5726e0bc5951b619008f811c
ABBA
560
False
What was the name of the single that was Madonna's twelfth number one hit in the UK?
5726e0bc5951b619008f811d
Sorry
776
False
Her tenth studio album, Confessions on a Dance Floor, was released in November 2005. Musically the album was structured like a club set composed by a DJ. It was acclaimed by critics, with Keith Caulfield from Billboard commenting that the album was a "welcome return to form for the Queen of Pop." The album won a Grammy Award for Best Electronic/Dance Album. Confessions on a Dance Floor and its lead single, "Hung Up", went on to reach number one in 40 and 41 countries respectively, earning a place in Guinness World Records. The song contained a sample of ABBA's "Gimme! Gimme! Gimme! (A Man After Midnight)", only the second time that ABBA has allowed their work to be used. ABBA songwriter Björn Ulvaeus remarked "It is a wonderful track—100 per cent solid pop music." "Sorry", the second single, became Madonna's twelfth number-one single in the UK.
When did the Confessions Tour start?
5726e19ddd62a815002e93b6
May 2006
44
False
How much did the Confessions Tour make?
5726e19ddd62a815002e93b7
over $193.7 million
109
False
Why did the Russian Orthodox Church and Federation of Jewish Communities of Russian asked members to boycott the concert?
5726e19ddd62a815002e93b8
used religious symbols
207
False
It was confirmed by IFPI that Madonna officially sold how many albums worldwide?
5726e19ddd62a815002e93b9
over 200 million
576
False
Madonna embarked on the Confessions Tour in May 2006, which had a global audience of 1.2 million and grossed over $193.7 million, becoming the highest-grossing tour to that date for a female artist. Madonna used religious symbols, such as the crucifix and Crown of Thorns, in the performance of "Live to Tell". It caused the Russian Orthodox Church and the Federation of Jewish Communities of Russia to urge all their members to boycott her concert. At the same time, the International Federation of the Phonographic Industry (IFPI) announced officially that Madonna had sold over 200 million copies for her albums alone worldwide.
What was the charity that Madonna was involved in when in Malawi?
5726e267dd62a815002e93de
Raising Malawi initiative
42
False
When did Madonna adopt David Banda?
5726e267dd62a815002e93df
October 2006
197
False
What was Banda suffering from when Madonna first met him?
5726e267dd62a815002e93e0
pneumonia
563
False
What was the name of Banda's biological father?
5726e267dd62a815002e93e1
Yohane
665
False
When was the adoption finalized?
5726e267dd62a815002e93e2
May 2008
959
False
While on tour Madonna participated in the Raising Malawi initiative by partially funding an orphanage in and traveling to that country. While there, she decided to adopt a boy named David Banda in October 2006. The adoption raised strong public reaction, because Malawian law requires would-be parents to reside in Malawi for one year before adopting, which Madonna did not do. She addressed this on The Oprah Winfrey Show, saying that there were no written adoption laws in Malawi that regulated foreign adoption. She described how Banda had been suffering from pneumonia after surviving malaria and tuberculosis when she first met him. Banda's biological father, Yohane, commented, "These so-called human rights activists are harassing me every day, threatening me that I am not aware of what I am doing..... They want me to support their court case, a thing I cannot do for I know what I agreed with Madonna and her husband." The adoption was finalized in May 2008.
What song did Madonna release for the Live Earth series of concerts?
5726e38cf1498d1400e8eee2
Hey You
27
False
Madonna had a new 10 year, $120 million record deal with which company?
5726e38cf1498d1400e8eee3
Live Nation
313
False
What was the documentary Madonna produced and wrote about the Malawis?
5726e38cf1498d1400e8eee4
I Am Because We Are
349
False
What is the name of the first film Madonna directed?
5726e38cf1498d1400e8eee5
Filth and Wisdom
535
False
Who was one of the five inductees of the Rock and Roll Hall of Fame?
5726e38cf1498d1400e8eee6
Madonna
876
False
Madonna released the song "Hey You" for the Live Earth series of concerts. The song was available as a free download during its first week of release. She also performed it at the London Live Earth concert. Madonna announced her departure from Warner Bros. Records, and a new $120 million, ten-year 360 deal with Live Nation. She produced and wrote I Am Because We Are, a documentary on the problems faced by Malawians. The documentary was directed by Nathan Rissman, who worked as Madonna's gardener. She also directed her first film Filth and Wisdom. The plot of the film revolved around three friends and their aspirations. The Times said she had "done herself proud" while The Daily Telegraph described the film as "not an entirely unpromising first effort [but] Madonna would do well to hang on to her day job." In December 2007, the Rock and Roll Hall of Fame announced Madonna as one of the five inductees of 2008. At the induction ceremony on March 10, 2008, Madonna did not sing but asked fellow Hall of Fame inductees and Michigan natives The Stooges to perform her songs "Burning Up" and "Ray of Light". She thanked Christopher Flynn, her dance teacher from 35 years earlier, for his encouragement to follow her dreams.
What was the name of Madonna's eleventh album?
5726e512708984140094d513
Hard Candy
44
False
When was Hard Candy released?
5726e512708984140094d514
April 2008
59
False
Hard Candy debuted at number one in how many countries?
5726e512708984140094d515
thirty seven
310
False
Madonna worked with Justin Timberlake, Timbaland, Pharrell Williams and Nate Hills for which album?
5726e512708984140094d516
Hard Candy
44
False
Madonna released her eleventh studio album, Hard Candy, in April 2008. Containing R&B and urban pop influences, the songs on Hard Candy were autobiographical in nature and saw Madonna collaborating with Justin Timberlake, Timbaland, Pharrell Williams and Nate "Danja" Hills. The album debuted at number one in thirty seven countries and on the Billboard 200. Don Shewey from Rolling Stone complimented it as an "impressive taste of her upcoming tour." It received generally positive reviews worldwide though some critics panned it as "an attempt to harness the urban market".
Which single was released as the album's lead single?
5726e664dd62a815002e945a
4 Minutes
1
False
Madonna surpassed which artist with the most top-ten hits?
5726e664dd62a815002e945b
Elvis Presley
175
False
4 minutes became Madonna's which number one single in the UK?
5726e664dd62a815002e945c
thirteenth
343
False
What is the name of the first tour with Live Nation?
5726e664dd62a815002e945d
Sticky & Sweet Tour
569
False
How much did Stick and Sweet Tour grossed?
5726e664dd62a815002e945e
$280 million,
648
False
"4 Minutes" was released as the album's lead single and peaked at number three on the Billboard Hot 100. It was Madonna's 37th top-ten hit on the chart—it pushed Madonna past Elvis Presley as the artist with the most top-ten hits. In the UK she retained her record for the most number-one singles for a female artist; "4 Minutes" becoming her thirteenth. At the 23rd Japan Gold Disc Awards, Madonna received her fifth Artist of the Year trophy from Recording Industry Association of Japan, the most for any artist. To further promote the album, Madonna embarked on the Sticky & Sweet Tour; her first major venture with Live Nation. With a gross of $280 million, it became the highest-grossing tour by a solo artist then, surpassing the previous record Madonna set with the Confessions Tour; it was later surpassed by Roger Waters' The Wall Live. It was extended to the next year, adding new European dates, and after it ended, the total gross was $408 million.
What is the title of the book by Madonna's brother?
5726e7d55951b619008f8207
Life with My Sister Madonna
0
False
The book debuted at number two on which best seller's list?
5726e7d55951b619008f8208
The New York Times
95
False
When was the divorce finalized between Madonna and Ritchie?
5726e7d55951b619008f8209
December 2008
461
False
When did the High Court of Malawi gave the right for Madonna to adopt her second son?
5726e7d55951b619008f820a
June 12, 2009
708
False
When did Madonna appear in MTV for the tribute to Michael Jackson?
5726e7d55951b619008f820b
September 13, 2009
1183
False
Life with My Sister Madonna, a book by Madonna's brother Christopher, debuted at number two on The New York Times bestseller list. The book caused some friction between Madonna and her brother, because of the unsolicited publication. Problems also arose between Madonna and Ritchie, with the media reporting that they were on the verge of separation. Ultimately, Madonna filed for divorce from Ritchie, citing irreconcilable differences, which was finalized in December 2008. She decided to adopt from Malawi. The country's High Court initially approved the adoption of Chifundo "Mercy" James; however, the application was rejected because Madonna was not a resident of the country. Madonna appealed, and on June 12, 2009, the Supreme Court of Malawi granted Madonna the right to adopt Mercy James. She also released Celebration, her third greatest-hits album and final release with Warner. It contained the new songs "Celebration" and "Revolver" along with 34 hits spanning her career. Celebration reached number one in the UK, tying her with Elvis Presley as the solo act with most number one albums in the British chart history. She appeared at the 2009 MTV Video Music Awards on September 13, 2009, to speak in tribute to deceased pop star Michael Jackson.
When was Mercy adopted?
5726e8ed5951b619008f8229
June 2009
115
False
Madonna known Mercy since going to adopt which child in Malawi?
5726e8ed5951b619008f822a
David
182
False
Who initially protested the adoption?
5726e8ed5951b619008f822b
Mercy's grandmother
189
False
Who insisted that Mercy should be adopted?
5726e8ed5951b619008f822c
The men
401
False
Who stated that he could not support the adoption since he was alive??
5726e8ed5951b619008f822d
Mercy's father
508
False
Controversy erupted when Madonna decided to adopt from Malawi again. Chifundo "Mercy" James was finally adopted in June 2009. Madonna had known Mercy from the time she went to adopt David. Mercy's grandmother had initially protested the adoption, but later gave in, saying "At first I didn't want her to go but as a family we had to sit down and reach an agreement and we agreed that Mercy should go. The men insisted that Mercy be adopted and I won't resist anymore. I still love Mercy. She is my dearest." Mercy's father was still adamant saying that he could not support the adoption since he was alive.
When did Madonna perform at the Hope for Haiti Now?
5726e9c3dd62a815002e94ee
January 2010
95
False
What album did Madonna released in April 2010?
5726e9c3dd62a815002e94ef
Sticky & Sweet Tour
153
False
Madonna granted which TV show the rights to her entire catalog of music?
5726e9c3dd62a815002e94f0
Glee
287
False
What is the name of the episode of Glee that featured Madonna's songs?
5726e9c3dd62a815002e94f1
Glee: The Music, The Power of Madonna
411
False
Madonna performed at the Hope for Haiti Now: A Global Benefit for Earthquake Relief concert in January 2010. In April she released her third live album, Sticky & Sweet Tour. It was her first release under Live Nation, but was distributed by Warner Bros. Madonna granted American TV show Glee the rights to her entire catalogue of music, and the producers planned an episode featuring Madonna songs exclusively. Glee: The Music, The Power of Madonna, an EP containing eight cover versions of Madonna songs featured in the episode, was released afterward and debuted at number one on the Billboard 200.
What is the name of the clothing line Madonna released with her daughter?
5726ea905951b619008f8257
Material Girl
21
False
Material Girl clothing line is released under which brand?
5726ea905951b619008f8258
Macy's
230
False
What is the name of the fitness gyms that Madonna opened?
5726ea905951b619008f8259
Hard Candy Fitness
315
False
When did Madonna released her second clothing line?
5726ea905951b619008f825a
November 2011
338
False
What is the name of the second film that Madonna directed?
5726ea905951b619008f825b
W.E.
549
False
Madonna released the Material Girl clothing line, which she designed with her daughter, Lourdes. The 1980s inspired clothing line, borrowed from Madonna's punk-girl style when she rose to fame in the 1980s, was released under the Macy's label. Madonna also opened a series of fitness centers around the world named Hard Candy Fitness. In November 2011, Madonna and MG Icon announced the release of a second fashion brand called Truth or Dare by Madonna to include footwear, underclothing, and accessories. She also directed her second feature film, W.E., a biographic about the affair between King Edward VIII and Wallis Simpson; it was co-written with Alek Keshishian. Critical and commercial response to the film was negative. Madonna contributed the ballad "Masterpiece" for the film's soundtrack, which won her a Golden Globe Award for Best Original Song.
Which year did Madonna performed at the Super Bowl?
5726eb73708984140094d5f3
2012
3
False
How many viewers did the half-time show attract?
5726eb73708984140094d5f4
114 million viewers
253
False
Madonna signed a three album deal with which record company?
5726eb73708984140094d5f5
Interscope Records
375
False
What was the name of Madonna's twelfth album?
5726eb73708984140094d5f6
MDNA
505
False
When was MDNA released?
5726eb73708984140094d5f7
March 2012
527
False
In 2012, Madonna performed at Super Bowl XLVI halftime show, visualized by Cirque Du Soleil and Jamie King and featured special guests LMFAO, Nicki Minaj, M.I.A. and Cee Lo Green. It became the then most-watched Super Bowl halftime show in history with 114 million viewers, higher than the game itself. It was also revealed that the singer had signed a three-album deal with Interscope Records, who would act as the distributor in partnership with her 360 deal with Live Nation. Her twelfth studio album, MDNA, was released in March 2012 and saw collaboration with various producers, most notably with William Orbit again and Martin Solveig. The album was well received by music critics, with Priya Elan from NME calling it "a ridiculously enjoyable romp", citing its "psychotic, soul-bearing stuff" as "some of the most visceral stuff she's ever done." MDNA debuted at number one on the Billboard 200 and many other countries worldwide. Madonna surpassed Elvis Presley's record for the most number-one album by a solo artist in the UK. The lead single "Give Me All Your Luvin'", featuring guest vocals from Minaj and M.I.A., became Madonna's record-extending 38th top-ten hit on the Billboard Hot 100.
Where did the MDNA Tour start?
5726ec22708984140094d621
Tel Aviv, Israel
70
False
When did MDNA Tour begin?
5726ec22708984140094d622
May 2012
58
False
How much did the Tour grossed?
5726ec22708984140094d623
$305.2 million
356
False
How many shows were sold out?
5726ec22708984140094d624
88
376
False
Who named Madonna as the top-earning celebrity of the year?
5726ec22708984140094d625
Forbes
673
False
The MDNA Tour, which further promoted the album, began in May 2012 in Tel Aviv, Israel. The tour has received positive critical reception, but featured controversial subjects such as violence, firearms, human rights, nudity and politics. Lawsuits threatened against Madonna have also been engaged from the tour. It was a box office success with a gross of $305.2 million from 88 sold-out shows, and became the highest-grossing tour of 2012 and the tenth highest-grossing tour of all time. At the 2013 Billboard Music Awards, Madonna won three trophies for Top Touring Artist, Top Dance Artist and Top Dance Album. Madonna was named the top-earning celebrity of the year by Forbes, earning an estimated $125 million, due to the success of the tour.
By 2013, how many did Madonna's Raising Malawi organization built?
5726edb4dd62a815002e9578
ten schools
53
False
When did Madonna visit Malawi's school?
5726edb4dd62a815002e9579
April 2013
161
False
Who criticized Madonna's charity efforts, stating that she exaggerated her contributions?
5726edb4dd62a815002e957a
President of Malawi Joyce Banda
173
False
By 2013, Madonna's Raising Malawi organization built ten schools to educate 4,000 children in Malawi at a value of $400,000. When Madonna visited the schools in April 2013, President of Malawi Joyce Banda expressed criticism of the star and her charity, accusing her of exaggerating her charity's contribution. Madonna responded by releasing a statement saying she was saddened that Banda had chosen to act negatively about her endeavors. "I have no intention of being distracted by these ridiculous allegations," she added. Later, it was confirmed that Banda had not approved the statement released written by her press team and was "incandescent with anger" over the mix-up.
What was the name of the 17 minute film called?
5726ee825951b619008f82b3
secretprojectrevolution
82
False
Which company was selected to release the film?
5726ee825951b619008f82b4
The BitTorrent company
107
False
When was secretprojectrevolution released?
5726ee825951b619008f82b5
September 24, 2013
222
False
What initiative did Madonna launched with her film?
5726ee825951b619008f82b6
Art for Freedom
368
False
How many submissions does the initiative have?
5726ee825951b619008f82b7
over 3,000
544
False
Working with photographer Steven Klein, Madonna completed a 17-minute film called secretprojectrevolution. The BitTorrent company was selected by Madonna to release the film as part of a Madonna bundle. It was released on September 24, 2013, and consisted of the 17-minute film, its stills, a Vice interview, and a message from Madonna. With the film she launched the Art for Freedom initiative, which helped to promote "art and free speech as a means to address persecution and injustice across the globe". The website for the project has had over 3,000 art related submissions since its inception, with Madonna regularly monitoring and enlisting the help of other artists like David Blaine and Katy Perry as guest curators.
What award ceremony did Madonna appeared in?
5726ef98dd62a815002e95b2
56th Annual Grammy Awards
98
False
What song did Madonna sing at the ceremony?
5726ef98dd62a815002e95b3
Open Your Heart
153
False
Which singer did she join on MTV Unplugged to sing?
5726ef98dd62a815002e95b4
Miley Cyrus
363
False
When did Madonna premiered her MDNA skincare line?
5726ef98dd62a815002e95b5
February 2014
531
False
Which city did Madonna contribute funds to help poverty?
5726ef98dd62a815002e95b6
Detroit
656
False
From the beginning of 2014, Madonna began to make multiple media appearances. She appeared at the 56th Annual Grammy Awards in January 2014, performing "Open Your Heart" alongside rappers Macklemore & Ryan Lewis and singer Mary Lambert, who sang their single "Same Love", as 33 couples were wed onstage, officiated by Queen Latifah. Days later, she joined singer Miley Cyrus on her MTV Unplugged special, singing a mash-up of "Don't Tell Me" and Cyrus' single "We Can't Stop" (2013). She also extended her business ventures and in February 2014 the singer premiered MDNA Skin, a range of skin care products, in Tokyo, Japan. After visiting her hometown of Detroit during May 2014, Madonna decided to contribute funds to three of the city's organizations, to help eliminate poverty from there. The singer released a statement saying that she was inspired by their work, adding that "it was obvious to me that I had to get involved and be part of the solution to help Detroit recover".
When did Madonna's album demo leaked online?
5726f074708984140094d68b
December 2014
121
False
What is Madonna's thirteenth album called?
5726f074708984140094d68c
Rebel Heart
353
False
When was Rebel Heart released?
5726f074708984140094d68d
March 10, 2015
382
False
When did Madonna embark on the Rebel Heart Tour?
5726f074708984140094d68e
September 2015
403
False
How much did Rebel Heart Tour grossed?
5726f074708984140094d68f
$169.8 million
697
False
Madonna also began work on her thirteenth studio album, with collaborators including Avicii, Diplo and Natalia Kills. In December 2014, thirteen demos recorded for the album leaked onto the Internet. She posted in response that half of the tracks would not be used on the final release, while the other half had "changed and evolved". The album, titled Rebel Heart, was released on March 10, 2015. From September 2015, she embarked on the Rebel Heart Tour to promote the album; the tour ended in March 2016 and traveled throughout North America, Europe and Asia and was the singer's first visit to Australia in 23 years, where she also performed a one-off show for her fans. It grossed a total of $169.8 million from the 82 shows, with over 1.045 million ticket sales. While on tour Madonna became embroiled in a legal battle with Ritchie, over the custody of her son Rocco. The dispute started when Rocco decided to continue living at England with Ritchie when the Rebel Heart Tour had visited there, while Madonna wanted him to return with her. Court hearings took place in both New York and London, and after multiple deliberations, Madonna decided to withdraw her application for custody, and appealed for a mutual discussion between herself and Ritchie about Rocco.
Whose music had been the subject of a lot of scrutiny?
5726f140f1498d1400e8f09a
Madonna's
0
False
Who is the author of Contemporary Strategic Analysis?
5726f140f1498d1400e8f09b
Robert M. Grant
68
False
Who has established herself as a Queen of Popular Music?
5726f140f1498d1400e8f09c
Madonna
511
False
Madonna's music has been the subject of much analysis and scrutiny. Robert M. Grant, author of Contemporary Strategy Analysis (2005), commented that what has brought Madonna success is "certainly not outstanding natural talent. As a vocalist, musician, dancer, songwriter, or actress, Madonna's talents seem modest." He asserts Madonna's success is in relying on the talents of others, and that her personal relationships have served as cornerstones to the numerous reinventions in the longevity of her career. Madonna's approach was far from the music industry wisdom of "Find a winning formula and stick to it." Her musical career has been a continuous experimentation with new musical ideas and new images and a constant quest for new heights of fame and acclaim. Grant concluded that "having established herself as the queen of popular music, Madonna did not stop there, but continued re-inventing." Musicologist Susan McClary wrote that "Madonna's art itself repeatedly deconstructs the traditional notion of the unified subject with finite ego boundaries. Her pieces explore various ways of constituting identities that refuse stability, that remain fluid, that resist definition."
Who writes and creates most of her own music?
5726f21ddd62a815002e95ec
Madonna
22
False
Who was Madonna's first producer?
5726f21ddd62a815002e95ed
Mark Kamins
457
False
Whose music speak about taboo and unconventional subjects?
5726f21ddd62a815002e95ee
Madonna's
1064
False
Madonna was nominated to be inducted twice which year to the Songwriter Hall of Fame?
5726f21ddd62a815002e95ef
2014 and 2016
1569
False
Which magazine stated that Madonna was the greatest songwriter of all time?
5726f21ddd62a815002e95f0
Rolling Stone
1593
False
Throughout her career Madonna has been involved in writing and producing most of her own music. Madonna's early songwriting skill was developed during her time with the Breakfast Club in 1979. According to author Carol Gnojewski, her first attempts at songwriting are perceived as an important self-revelation, as Madonna said: "I don't know where [the songs] came from. It was like magic. I'd write a song every day. I said 'Wow, I was meant to do this'." Mark Kamins, her first producer, believed that Madonna is "a much underrated musician and lyricist." Rolling Stone has named her "an exemplary songwriter with a gift for hooks and indelible lyrics." According to Freya Jarman-Ivens, Madonna's talent for developing "incredible" hooks for her songs allows the lyrics to capture the attention of the audience, even without the influence of the music. As an example, Jarman-Ivens cites the 1985 single "Into the Groove" and its line "Live out your fantasy here with me, just let the music set you free; Touch my body, and move in time, now I know you're mine." Madonna's songwriting are often autobiographical over the years, dealing with various themes from love and relationships to self-respect and female empowerment. Her songs also speak about taboo and unconventional issues of their period, such as sexuality and AIDS on Erotica (1992). Many of her lyrics contain innuendos and double entendre, which lead to multiple interpretations among music critics and scholars. Madonna has been nominated for being inducted into the Songwriters Hall of Fame twice, for 2014 and 2016 ceremony. Rolling Stone listed Madonna at number 56 on the "100 Greatest Songwriters of All Time".
Which genre did Madonna started out in?
5726f2c6dd62a815002e95f6
rock music
68
False
When performing with Emmy, how many songs did Madonna produce?
5726f2c6dd62a815002e95f7
12-14
176
False
Who popularize dance music as mainstream music?
5726f2c6dd62a815002e95f8
Madonna
573
False
What is Madonna's second album?
5726f2c6dd62a815002e95f9
Like a Virgin
863
False
Before emerging as a pop star, Madonna has spent her early years in rock music alongside her bands, Breakfast Club and Emmy. While performing with Emmy, Madonna recorded about 12-14 songs which resemble the punk rock of that period. Her early rock roots also can be found on the demo album Pre-Madonna. Stephen Thomas Erlewine noted that with her self-titled debut album, Madonna began her career as a disco diva, in an era that did not have any such divas to speak of. In the beginning of the '80's, disco was an anathema to the mainstream pop, and according to Erlewine, Madonna had a huge role in popularizing dance music as mainstream music. The album's songs reveal several key trends that have continued to define her success, including a strong dance-based idiom, catchy hooks, highly polished arrangements and Madonna's own vocal style. Her second album, Like a Virgin (1984), foreshadowed several trends in her later works. It contained references to classical works (pizzicato synthesizer line that opens "Angel"); potential negative reaction from social groups ("Dress You Up" was blacklisted by the Parents Music Resource Center); and retro styles ("Shoo-Bee-Doo", Madonna's homage to Motown).
Which 2 album show Madonna's artistic statement?
5726f3825951b619008f833f
True Blue (1986) and Like a Prayer (1989)
45
False
True Blue has what type of music Incorporated in it?
5726f3825951b619008f8340
classical
119
False
Which 2 albums explored the New Lack Swing?
5726f3825951b619008f8341
Erotica (1992) and Bedtime Stories (1994)
564
False
Madonna brought which type of music to mainstream with Ray of Light?
5726f3825951b619008f8342
electronic music
904
False
Her mature artistic statement was visible in True Blue (1986) and Like a Prayer (1989). In True Blue, she incorporated classical music in order to engage an older audience who had been skeptical of her music. Like a Prayer introduced live recorded songs and incorporated different genres of music, including dance, funk, R&B and gospel music. Her versatility was further shown on I'm Breathless, which consists predominantly of the 1940s Broadway showtune-flavoured jazz, swing and big band tracks. Madonna continued to compose ballads and uptempo dance songs for Erotica (1992) and Bedtime Stories (1994). Both albums explored element of new jack swing, with Jim Farber from Entertainment Weekly saying that "she could actually be viewed as new jack swing's godmother." She tried to remain contemporary by incorporating samples, drum loops and hip hop into her music. With Ray of Light, Madonna brought electronic music from its underground status into massive popularity in mainstream music scene.
What type of music did Madonna experimented with in Music?
5726f43ff1498d1400e8f0d0
folk and acoustic
31
False
Most of the songs in Music are what type of songs?
5726f43ff1498d1400e8f0d1
simple love songs,
178
False
What type of songs are in Confessions of a Dance floor?
5726f43ff1498d1400e8f0d2
dance songs
606
False
What type of songs does Hard Candy have?
5726f43ff1498d1400e8f0d3
urban direction
786
False
MDNA focuses on which type of music?
5726f43ff1498d1400e8f0d4
electronic dance music
904
False
Madonna experimented with more folk and acoustic music in Music (2000) and American Life (2003). A change was noted in the content of the songs in Music, with most of them being simple love songs, but with an underlying tone of melancholy. According to Q magazine, American Life was characterized by "a thumping techno rhythm, liquid keyboard lines, an acoustic chorus and a bizarre Madonna rap." The "conventional rock songs" of the album were suffused with dramatic lyrics about patriotism and composition, including the appearance of a gospel choir in the song "Nothing Fails". Madonna returned to pure dance songs with Confessions on a Dance Floor, infusing club beats and retro music with the lyrics about paradoxical metaphors and reference to her earlier works. Madonna moved to urban direction with Hard Candy (2008), mixing R&B and hip hop music with dance tunes. MDNA (2012) largely focused in electronic dance music, which she has embraced since Ray of Light.
Madonna has which vocal range?
5726f4c9dd62a815002e9628
mezzo-soprano
13
False
What was the title of Madonna's Book?
5726f4c9dd62a815002e9629
Blonde Ambition
219
False
Who stated that Madonna's voice are key to her rock roots?
5726f4c9dd62a815002e962a
Tony Sclafani
366
False
When did Madonna take voice lessons?
5726f4c9dd62a815002e962b
filming of Evita
848
False
Possessing a mezzo-soprano vocal range, Madonna has always been self-conscious about her voice, especially in comparison to her vocal idols such as Ella Fitzgerald, Prince, and Chaka Khan. Mark Bego, author of Madonna: Blonde Ambition, called her "the perfect vocalist for lighter-than-air songs", despite not being a "heavyweight talent." According to MSNBC critic Tony Sclafani, "Madonna's vocals are the key to her rock roots. Pop vocalists usually sing songs "straight," but Madonna employs subtext, irony, aggression and all sorts of vocal idiosyncrasies in the ways John Lennon and Bob Dylan did." Madonna used a bright, girlish vocal timbre in her early albums which became passé in her later works. The change was deliberate since she was constantly reminded of how the critics had once labelled her as "Minnie Mouse on helium". During the filming of Evita, Madonna had to take vocal lessons, which increased her range further. Of this experience she commented, "I studied with a vocal coach for Evita and I realized there was a whole piece of my voice I wasn't using. Before, I just believed I had a really limited range and was going to make the most of it."
Which instruments can Madonna play?
5726f573f1498d1400e8f100
drum and guitar
97
False
Who taught Madonna how to play the drum and guitar?
5726f573f1498d1400e8f101
Dan Gilroy
137
False
What instrument does Madonna play on her demo recordings?
5726f573f1498d1400e8f102
guitar
340
False
How long did Madonna spent learning to play the violin?
5726f573f1498d1400e8f103
three months
703
False
Who was the guitarist that Madonna learnt from to improve on her skills?
5726f573f1498d1400e8f104
Monte Pittman
981
False
Besides singing Madonna has the ability to play several musical instruments. She learned to play drum and guitar from her then-boyfriend Dan Gilroy in the late 1970s before joining the Breakfast Club line-up as the drummer. This helped her to form the band Emmy, where she performed as the guitarist and lead vocalist. Madonna later played guitar on her demo recordings. On the liner notes of Pre-Madonna, Stephen Bray wrote: "I've always thought she passed up a brilliant career as a rhythm guitarist." After her career breakthrough, Madonna focused mainly in singing but was also credited for playing cowbell on Madonna (1983) and synthesizer on Like a Prayer (1989). In 1999, Madonna had studied for three months to play the violin for the role as a violin teacher in the film Music of the Heart, before eventually leaving the project. After two decades, Madonna decided to perform with guitar again during the promotion of Music (2000). She took further lessons from guitarist Monte Pittman to improve her guitar skill. Since then Madonna has played guitar on every tour, as well as her studio albums. At the 2002 Orville H. Gibson Guitar Awards, she received nomination for Les Paul Horizon Award, which honors the most promising up-and-coming guitarist.
According to who was the defining moment of Madonna's childhood with her mother's death?
5726f61ef1498d1400e8f10a
Taraborrelli,
13
False
Which psychiatrist said that when a parent dies when the child is young, it leaves a lasting impact?
5726f61ef1498d1400e8f10b
Keith Ablow
140
False
Who believes that the rape Madonna experienced is the driving force in life?
5726f61ef1498d1400e8f10c
Lucy O'Brien
576
False
According to Taraborrelli, the defining moment of Madonna's childhood was the tragic and untimely death of her beloved mother. Psychiatrist Keith Ablow suggests her mother's death would have had an immeasurable impact on the young Madonna at a time when her personality was still forming. According to Ablow, the younger a child is at the time of a serious loss, the more profound the influence and the longer lasting the impact. He concludes that "some people never reconcile themselves to such a loss at an early age, Madonna is not different than them." Conversely, author Lucy O'Brien feels the impact of the rape she suffered is, in fact, the motivating factor behind everything Madonna has done, more important even than the death of her mother: "It's not so much grief at her mother's death that drives her, as the sense of abandonment that left her unprotected. She encountered her own worst possible scenario, becoming a victim of male violence, and thereafter turned that full-tilt into her work, reversing the equation at every opportunity."
Who felt deep sadness as the death of their mother fades away?
5726f6ce708984140094d729
Madonna and her sisters
19
False
Who does Madonna's mum resemble?
5726f6ce708984140094d72a
poet Anne Sexton
207
False
Who is Madonna's favorite poet?
5726f6ce708984140094d72b
Sylvia Plath
307
False
Who felt that her mother death was the driving force behind her success?
5726f6ce708984140094d72c
Madonna
19
False
As they grew older Madonna and her sisters would feel deep sadness as the vivid memory of their mother began drifting farther from them. They would study pictures of her and come to think that she resembled poet Anne Sexton and Hollywood actresses. This would later raise Madonna's interest in poetry, with Sylvia Plath being her favourite. Later, Madonna commented: "We were all wounded in one way or another by [her death], and then we spent the rest of our lives reacting to it or dealing with it or trying to turn into something else. The anguish of losing my mom left me with a certain kind of loneliness and an incredible longing for something. If I hadn't had that emptiness, I wouldn't have been so driven. Her death had a lot to do with me saying—after I got over my heartache—I'm going to be really strong if I can't have my mother. I'm going to take care of myself." Taraborrelli felt that in time, no doubt because of the devastation she felt, Madonna would never again allow herself, or even her daughter, to feel as abandoned as she had felt when her mother died. "Her death had taught [Madonna] a valuable lesson, that she would have to remain strong for herself because, she feared weakness—particularly her own—and wanted to be the queen of her own castle."
Which song made a strong impression on Madonna?
5726f76f708984140094d73f
These Boots Are Made for Walkin
92
False
Who sang the song these boots are made for walking?
5726f76f708984140094d740
Nancy Sinatra;
129
False
Whose favorite style is baroque?
5726f76f708984140094d741
Madonna
460
False
Who grew up listening to David Bowie?
5726f76f708984140094d742
Madonna
9
False
Name one of Madonna's major influence?
5726f76f708984140094d743
Karen Carpenter
495
False
In 1985, Madonna commented that the first song to ever make a strong impression on her was "These Boots Are Made for Walkin'" by Nancy Sinatra; she said it summed up her own "take-charge attitude". As a young woman, she attempted to broaden her taste in literature, art, and music, and during this time became interested in classical music. She noted that her favorite style was baroque, and loved Mozart and Chopin because she liked their "feminine quality". Madonna's major influences include Karen Carpenter, The Supremes and Led Zeppelin, as well as dancers Martha Graham and Rudolf Nureyev. She also grew up listening to David Bowie, whose show was the first rock concert she ever attended.
What is Madonna's religious background?
5726f818f1498d1400e8f152
Italian-Catholic
10
False
Like a Prayer reflects Madonna's relationship with who?
5726f818f1498d1400e8f153
her parents
64
False
In which video did Madonna wear a rosary?
5726f818f1498d1400e8f154
La Isla Bonita"
346
False
In which video does it show Madonna being scolded by her boss in Italian?
5726f818f1498d1400e8f155
Open Your Heart
368
False
She dedicated Papa Don't Preach to whom?
5726f818f1498d1400e8f156
Pope John Paul II.
524
False
Madonna's Italian-Catholic background and her relationship with her parents are reflected in the album Like a Prayer. It was an evocation of the impact religion had on her career. Her video for the title track contains Catholic symbolism, such as the stigmata. During The Virgin Tour, she wore a rosary and prayed with it in the music video for "La Isla Bonita". The "Open Your Heart" video sees her boss scolding her in the Italian language. On the Who's That Girl World Tour, she dedicated the song "Papa Don't Preach" to Pope John Paul II.
Name one actor that Madonna was inspired by?
5726f906f1498d1400e8f174
Marilyn Monroe
114
False
Madonna's Material Girl recreated whose look?
5726f906f1498d1400e8f175
Monroe's
286
False
The video Express Yourself was inspired by which silent film?
5726f906f1498d1400e8f176
Metropolis
602
False
Who stated that Madonna was a bad actress to watch?
5726f906f1498d1400e8f177
Stephanie Zacharek
1038
False
Which one of Madonna's movie is a box office bomb?
5726f906f1498d1400e8f178
Swept Away
1365
False
During her childhood, Madonna was inspired by actors, later saying, "I loved Carole Lombard and Judy Holliday and Marilyn Monroe. They were all incredibly funny ... and I saw myself in them ... my girlishness, my knowingness and my innocence." Her "Material Girl" music video recreated Monroe's look in the song "Diamonds Are a Girl's Best Friend", from the film Gentlemen Prefer Blondes (1953). She studied the screwball comedies of the 1930s, particularly those of Lombard, in preparation for the film Who's That Girl. The video for "Express Yourself" (1989) was inspired by Fritz Lang's silent film Metropolis (1927). The video for "Vogue" recreated the style of Hollywood glamour photographs, in particular those by Horst P. Horst, and imitated the poses of Marlene Dietrich, Carole Lombard, and Rita Hayworth, while the lyrics referred to many of the stars who had inspired her, including Bette Davis, described by Madonna as an idol. However, Madonna's film career has been largely received negatively by the film critic community. Stephanie Zacharek, critic for Time magazine, stated that, "[Madonna] seems wooden and unnatural as an actress, and it's tough to watch, because she's clearly trying her damnedest." According to biographer Andrew Morton, "Madonna puts a brave face on the criticism, but privately she is deeply hurt." After the box office bomb Swept Away (2002), Madonna vowed that she would never again act in a film, hoping her repertoire as a bad actress would never be discussed again.
Whose art influence Madonna?
5726f9a1708984140094d767
Frida Kahlo
97
False
Which video featured art from Kahlo and Remedios Varo?
5726f9a1708984140094d768
Bedtime Story
139
False
Madonna collects whose painting?
5726f9a1708984140094d769
Tamara de Lempicka
255
False
Her video Hollywood was a homage to which photographer?
5726f9a1708984140094d76a
Guy Bourdin
423
False
Influences also came to her from the art world, most notably through the works of Mexican artist Frida Kahlo. The music video of the song "Bedtime Story" featured images inspired by the paintings of Kahlo and Remedios Varo. Madonna is also a collector of Tamara de Lempicka's Art Deco paintings and has included them in her music videos and tours. Her video for "Hollywood" (2003) was an homage to the work of photographer Guy Bourdin; Bourdin's son subsequently filed a lawsuit for unauthorised use of his father's work. Pop artist Andy Warhol's use of sadomasochistic imagery in his underground films were reflected in the music videos for "Erotica" and "Deeper and Deeper".
Which religion was Madonna dedicated to?
5726fa3b5951b619008f83ef
Kabbalah
24
False
Which year did she adopt the name Esther?
5726fa3b5951b619008f83f0
2004
41
False
The influence of Kabbalah is seen in which album?
5726fa3b5951b619008f83f1
Ray of Light
593
False
Where did Madonna attend Catholic services in 2011?
5726fa3b5951b619008f83f2
Opus Dei center
901
False
Madonna is dedicated to Kabbalah, and in 2004 she adopted the name Esther which in Persian means "star". She has donated millions of dollars to New York and London schools teaching the subject. She faced opposition from rabbis who felt Madonna's adoption of the Kabbalah was sacrilegious and a case of celebrity dilettantism. Madonna defended her studies, saying: "It would be less controversial if I joined the Nazi Party", and that her involvement with the Kabbalah is "not hurting anybody". The influence of the Kabbalah was subsequently observed in Madonna's music, especially albums like Ray of Light and Music. During the Re-Invention World Tour, at one point in the show, Madonna and her dancers wore T-shirts that read "Kabbalists Do It Better". Her 2012 MDNA album has also drawn many influences from her Catholic upbringing, and since 2011 she has been attending meetings and services at an Opus Dei center, a Catholic institution that encourages spirituality through every day life.
Who are the Madonna Companion Biographers?
5726fad05951b619008f8409
Allen Metz and Carol Benson
37
False
Madonna used which TV company to help with her career?
5726fad05951b619008f840a
MTV
551
False
The most remarkable creation in MTV is whom?
5726fad05951b619008f840b
Madonna
558
False
In The Madonna Companion biographers Allen Metz and Carol Benson noted that more than any other recent pop artist, Madonna had used MTV and music videos to establish her popularity and enhance her recorded work. According to them, many of her songs have the imagery of the music video in strong context, while referring to the music. Cultural critic Mark C. Taylor in his book Nots (1993) felt that the postmodern art form par excellence is video and the reigning "queen of video" is Madonna. He further asserted that "the most remarkable creation of MTV is Madonna. The responses to Madonna's excessively provocative videos have been predictably contradictory." The media and public reaction towards her most-discussed songs such as "Papa Don't Preach", "Like a Prayer", or "Justify My Love" had to do with the music videos created to promote the songs and their impact, rather than the songs themselves. Morton felt that "artistically, Madonna's songwriting is often overshadowed by her striking pop videos."
What influence did Madonna music video reflects?
5726fb6f708984140094d799
American and Hispanic mixed street style
45
False
She transmit her avant garde style to which audience?
5726fb6f708984140094d79a
American audience
201
False
Which look of Madonna became a fashion trend?
5726fb6f708984140094d79b
Spanish look
550
False
What type of Spanish clothings were worn for the video La Ista Bonita?
5726fb6f708984140094d79c
boleros and layered skirts
631
False
Madonna's initial music videos reflected her American and Hispanic mixed street style combined with a flamboyant glamor. She was able to transmit her avant-garde downtown New York fashion sense to the American audience. The imagery and incorporation of Hispanic culture and Catholic symbolism continued with the music videos from the True Blue era. Author Douglas Kellner noted, "such 'multiculturalism' and her culturally transgressive moves turned out to be highly successful moves that endeared her to large and varied youth audiences." Madonna's Spanish look in the videos became the fashion trend of that time, in the form of boleros and layered skirts, accessorizing with rosary beads and a crucifix as in the video of "La Isla Bonita".
Who noted that Madonna was reversing the gender role?
5726fbec708984140094d7ab
Academics
0
False
In which video was it the most obvious?
5726fbec708984140094d7ac
"Like a Prayer
193
False
Who named Madonna the Greatest Music Video star ever?
5726fbec708984140094d7ad
MTV
483
False
When was Madonna awarded the accolade?
5726fbec708984140094d7ae
2003
477
False
Academics noted that with her videos, Madonna was subtly reversing the usual role of male as the dominant sex. This symbolism and imagery was probably the most prevalent in the music video for "Like a Prayer". The video included scenes of an African-American church choir, Madonna being attracted to a statue of a black saint, and singing in front of burning crosses. This mix of the sacred and the profane upset the Vatican and resulted in the Pepsi commercial withdrawal. In 2003, MTV named her "The Greatest Music Video Star Ever" and said that "Madonna's innovation, creativity and contribution to the music video art form is what won her the award."
Who had new standards of showmanship?
5726fc78f1498d1400e8f1bc
Madonna and Janet Jackson
513
False
Who earned a reputation of lip synching in the Blond Ambition Tour?
5726fc78f1498d1400e8f1bd
Madonna
814
False
What came as an expense of live singing?
5726fc78f1498d1400e8f1be
highly athletic dancing
672
False
Madonna's emergence occurred during the advent of MTV; Chris Nelson from The New York Times spoke of pop artists like Madonna saying, "MTV, with its almost exclusively lip-synched videos, ushered in an era in which average music fans might happily spend hours a day, every day, watching singers just mouth the words." The symbiotic relationship between the music video and lip-syncing led to a desire for the spectacle and imagery of the music video to be transferred to live stage shows. He added, "Artists like Madonna and Janet Jackson set new standards for showmanship, with concerts that included not only elaborate costumes and precision-timed pyrotechnics but also highly athletic dancing. These effects came at the expense of live singing." Thor Christensen of The Dallas Morning News commented that while Madonna earned a reputation for lip-syncing during her 1990 Blond Ambition World Tour, she has subsequently reorganized her performances by "stay[ing] mostly still during her toughest singing parts and [leaves] the dance routines to her backup troupe ... [r]ather than try to croon and dance up a storm at the same time."
What did Madonna use in her concerts?
5726fd08f1498d1400e8f1cc
hands-free radio-frequency headset microphones
101
False
What was the microphone coined as?
5726fd08f1498d1400e8f1cd
"Madonna mic"
360
False
Who is first to have reenactment of her music videos in concerts?
5726fd08f1498d1400e8f1ce
Madonna
581
False
Whose concerts are extravagant live shows?
5726fd08f1498d1400e8f1cf
Madonna's
1031
False
To allow for greater movement while dancing and singing, Madonna was one of the earliest adopters of hands-free radio-frequency headset microphones, with the headset fastened over the ears or the top of the head, and the microphone capsule on a boom arm that extended to the mouth. Because of her prominent usage, the microphone design came to be known as the "Madonna mic". Metz noted that Madonna represents a paradox as she is often perceived as living her whole life as a performance. While her big-screen performances are panned, her live performances are critical successes. Madonna was the first artist to have her concert tours as reenactment of her music videos. Author Elin Diamond explained that reciprocally, the fact that images from Madonna's videos can be recreated in a live setting enhances the realism of the original videos. Thus her live performances have become the means by which mediatized representations are naturalized. Taraborrelli said that encompassing multimedia, latest technology and sound systems, Madonna's concerts and live performances are deemed as "extravagant show piece, a walking art show."
Who is the most influential recording artist of all time?
5726fda6dd62a815002e971a
Madonna
400
False
Who wrote the book, Madonna and Me?
5726fda6dd62a815002e971b
Laura Barcella
649
False
Who said that Madonna changed the world social history?
5726fda6dd62a815002e971c
William Langley from The Daily Telegraph
948
False
Who said that Madonna is like post-moderm art?
5726fda6dd62a815002e971d
Alan McGee from The Guardian
1131
False
Various music journalists, critical theorists, and authors have deemed Madonna the most influential female recording artist of all time. Author Carol Clerk wrote that "during her career, Madonna has transcended the term 'pop star' to become a global cultural icon." Rolling Stone of Spain wrote that "She became the first viral Master of Pop in history, years before the Internet was massively used. Madonna was everywhere; in the almighty music television channels, 'radio formulas', magazine covers and even in bookshops. A pop dialectic, never seen since The Beatles's reign, which allowed her to keep on the edge of tendency and commerciality." Laura Barcella in her book Madonna and Me: Women Writers on the Queen of Pop (2012) wrote that "really, Madonna changed everything the musical landscape, the '80s look du jour, and most significantly, what a mainstream female pop star could (and couldn't) say, do, or accomplish in the public eye." William Langley from The Daily Telegraph felt that "Madonna has changed the world's social history, has done more things as more different people than anyone else is ever likely to." Alan McGee from The Guardian felt that Madonna is a post-modern art, the likes of which we will never see again. He further asserted that Madonna and Michael Jackson invented the terms Queen and King of Pop.
Who changed the dynamics of the singers back to mostly female?
5726fe765951b619008f843b
Madonna
916
False
Who is the director of the curator of Rock and Roll Hall of Fame and Museum?
5726fe765951b619008f843c
Howard Kramer
318
False
A lot of modern pop artist grew up listening to whom?
5726fe765951b619008f843d
Madonna,
916
False
Who included Madonna as the most powerful woman of the century?
5726fe765951b619008f843e
Time magazine
966
False
Who is the other woman who earned the title?
5726fe765951b619008f843f
Aretha Franklin
1125
False
According to Tony Sclafani from MSNBC, "It's worth noting that before Madonna, most music mega-stars were guy rockers; after her, almost all would be female singers ... When The Beatles hit America, they changed the paradigm of performer from solo act to band. Madonna changed it back—with an emphasis on the female." Howard Kramer, curatorial director of the Rock and Roll Hall of Fame and Museum, asserted that "Madonna and the career she carved out for herself made possible virtually every other female pop singer to follow ... She certainly raised the standards of all of them ... She redefined what the parameters were for female performers." According to Fouz-Hernández, subsequent female singers such as Britney Spears, Christina Aguilera, Kylie Minogue, the Spice Girls, Destiny's Child, Jennifer Lopez, and Pink were like her "daughters in the very direct sense that they grew up listening to and admiring Madonna, and decided they wanted to be like her." Time magazine included her in the list of the "25 Most Powerful Women of the Past Century", where she became one of only two singers to be included, alongside Aretha Franklin. She also topped VH1's lists of "100 Greatest Women in Music" and "50 Greatest Women of the Video Era".
Madonna used what to benefit her career?
5726ff29f1498d1400e8f1fa
sexual imagery
17
False
Who started a revolution in music with women?
5726ff29f1498d1400e8f1fb
Madonna
1123
False
Who wrote that Madonna is an almost scared feminist icon?
5726ff29f1498d1400e8f1fc
Professor Sut Jhally
1312
False
Who is regarded as a feminist during her time?
5726ff29f1498d1400e8f1fd
Madonna
1123
False
Madonna's use of sexual imagery has benefited her career and catalyzed public discourse on sexuality and feminism. As Roger Chapman documents in Culture Wars: An Encyclopedia of Issues, Viewpoints, and Voices, Volume 1 (2010), she has drawn frequent condemnation from religious organizations, social conservatives and parental watchdog groups for her use of explicit, sexual imagery and lyrics, religious symbolism, and otherwise "irreverent" behavior in her live performances. The Times wrote that she had "started a revolution amongst women in music ... Her attitudes and opinions on sex, nudity, style and sexuality forced the public to sit up and take notice." Professor John Fiske noted that the sense of empowerment that Madonna offers is inextricably connected with the pleasure of exerting some control over the meanings of self, of sexuality, and of one's social relations. In Doing Gender in Media, Art and Culture (2009), the authors noted that Madonna, as a female celebrity, performer, and pop icon, is able to unsettle standing feminist reflections and debates. According to lesbian feminist Sheila Jeffreys, Madonna represents woman's occupancy of what Monique Wittig calls the category of sex, as powerful, and appears to gleefully embrace the performance of the sexual corvée allotted to women. Professor Sut Jhally has referred to Madonna as "an almost sacred feminist icon."
Who is an acclaim role model business woman?
5726ffd85951b619008f8457
Madonna
0
False
Madonna generated how much in sales in the first 10 years of her career?
5726ffd85951b619008f8458
$1.2 billion in
194
False
Who called Madonna a dynamic entrepreneur?
5726ffd85951b619008f8459
London Business School academics
467
False
Who wrote that Madonna is opportunistic, manipulative and ruthless?
5726ffd85951b619008f845a
Morton
802
False
Madonna has received acclaim as a role model for businesswomen in her industry, "achieving the kind of financial control that women had long fought for within the industry", and generating over $1.2 billion in sales within the first decade of her career. Professor Colin Barrow from Cranfield School of Management described Madonna as "America's smartest businesswoman ... who has moved to the top of her industry and stayed there by constantly reinventing herself." London Business School academics called her a "dynamic entrepreneur" worth copying; they identified her vision of success, her understanding of the music industry, her ability to recognize her own performance limits (and thus bring in help), her willingness to work hard and her ability to adapt as the keys to her commercial success. Morton wrote that "Madonna is opportunistic, manipulative, and ruthless—somebody who won't stop until she gets what she wants—and that's something you can get at the expense of maybe losing your close ones. But that hardly mattered to her." Hazel Blackmore and Rafael Fernández de Castro in the book ¿Qué es Estados Unidos? from the Fondo de Cultura Económica, noted: "Madonna has been undoubtedly the most important woman in the history of popular music and a great businesswoman in herself; creating fashion, breaking taboos and provoking controversies."
Madonna sold how many albums worldwide?
572700addd62a815002e9760
300 million records
27
False
Who is the best selling female rock artist in the 20th century?
572700addd62a815002e9761
Madonna
0
False
Who named Madonna as the top female touring artist of all time?
572700addd62a815002e9762
Billboard
629
False
How much did Madonna make in all her concerts together?
572700addd62a815002e9763
$1.31 billion
763
False
How many MTV video music awards does Madonna have?
572700addd62a815002e9764
20
1085
False
Madonna has sold more than 300 million records worldwide. The Guinness World Records acknowledged her as the best-selling female recording artist and the fourth best-selling act of all time, behind The Beatles, Elvis Presley, and Michael Jackson. According to the Recording Industry Association of America (RIAA), she is the best-selling female rock artist of the 20th century and the second top-selling female albums artist in the United States, with 64.5 million certified albums. Madonna is the most certified artist of all time in United Kingdom, with 45 awards from the British Phonographic Industry (BPI) as of April 2013. Billboard named Madonna as the top touring female artist of all time. She is also the highest grossing solo touring artist, with over $1.31 billion in concert gross, starting from the Blond Ambition World Tour; she first crossed a billion gross with The MDNA Tour. Overall, Madonna ranks third on all-time top-grossing Billboard Boxscore list, with just The Rolling Stones ($1.84 billion) and U2 ($1.67 billion) ahead of her. Madonna has been honored with 20 MTV Video Music Awards—the most for any artist—including the lifetime achievement Video Vanguard Award in 1986.
Who holds the record for the most number 1 hits?
572701af5951b619008f847d
Madonna
0
False
How many songs does Madonna have on the Hot Dance Club Songs Chart?
572701af5951b619008f847e
45
198
False
Who has the most number one songs in an active BiIlboard chart?
572701af5951b619008f847f
Madonna
247
False
How many top 10 singles on the Hot 100 does Madonna have?
572701af5951b619008f8480
38
442
False
Who is the most successful solo artist in the history of American singles chart?
572701af5951b619008f8481
Madonna
247
False
Madonna holds the record for the most number-ones on all combined Billboard charts, including twelve number-one songs on the Billboard Hot 100 and eight number-one albums on the Billboard 200. With 45 songs topping the Hot Dance Club Songs chart, Madonna became the artist with the most number-one songs on an active Billboard chart, pulling ahead of George Strait with 44 number-one songs on the Hot Country Songs chart. She has also scored 38 top-ten singles on the Hot 100, more than any other artist in history. In 2008, Billboard magazine ranked her at number two, behind The Beatles, on the Billboard Hot 100 All-Time Top Artists, making her the most successful solo artist in the history of American singles chart.
Law_of_the_United_States
What is the foundation of the United States federal government?
572665dff1498d1400e8de44
United States Constitution
127
False
In the Unites States what sets out the boundaries of federal law?
572665dff1498d1400e8de45
The Constitution
218
False
What is defined as the official codification of federal statutory law?
572665dff1498d1400e8de46
The United States Code
446
False
What is compromised of many levels of codified and uncodified forms of law?
572665dff1498d1400e8de47
law of the United States
4
False
The constitution set boundaries for case law that originates from where?
572665dff1498d1400e8de48
federal judiciary
427
False
What is the foundation of the U.S. federal government?
5726d6d8708984140094d2f5
the United States Constitution
123
False
What sets out the boundries of federal law?
5726d6d8708984140094d2f6
The Constitution
218
False
What two forms of law make up the laws of the United States?
5726d6d8708984140094d2f7
codified and uncodified
54
False
What is th eofficial compilation of federal statutory law called?
5726d6d8708984140094d2f8
The United States Code
446
False
What different kinds of law make up the laws of the United States?
572c94b0f182dd1900d7c7e2
codified and uncodified
54
False
What is the most important document in the US, setting the boundries for all other laws?
572c94b0f182dd1900d7c7e3
the United States Constitution
123
False
What branch of gevernment is responsible for ratifing treaties?
572c94b0f182dd1900d7c7e4
Senate
336
False
With branch of government deals with new regulations?
572c94b0f182dd1900d7c7e5
the executive branch
371
False
Who's responsibility is case law?
572c94b0f182dd1900d7c7e6
the federal judiciary
423
False
United States Constitution
127
What is the least important form of law in the US?
5a79baab17ab25001a8a000b
True
federal government
177
What is the foundation of the US Constitution?
5a79baab17ab25001a8a000c
True
federal
262
The acts of Congress creates boundaries for what kind of law?
5a79baab17ab25001a8a000d
True
case
397
What type of law does the executive branch create?
5a79baab17ab25001a8a000e
True
The United States Code
446
Laws that are only general are called what?
5a79baab17ab25001a8a000f
True
The law of the United States comprises many levels of codified and uncodified forms of law, of which the most important is the United States Constitution, the foundation of the federal government of the United States. The Constitution sets out the boundaries of federal law, which consists of acts of Congress, treaties ratified by the Senate, regulations promulgated by the executive branch, and case law originating from the federal judiciary. The United States Code is the official compilation and codification of general and permanent federal statutory law.
What comes before state and territorial laws in the 50 U.S states?
57266a17708984140094c531
Federal law and treaties
0
False
Federal sovereign only possess authority if it is stated in what?
57266a17708984140094c532
the Constitution
559
False
States may grant their citizens border rights as long as they do not infringe on what?
57266a17708984140094c533
federal constitutional rights
701
False
Most U.S law, the kind of law we live everyday, consists of what kind of law?
57266a17708984140094c534
state law
927
False
Does every state have the same laws?
57266a17708984140094c535
vary greatly from one state to the next.
957
False
Federal law overrides what laws?
5726d83d708984140094d331
conflicting state and territorial laws
91
False
The scope of federal power is not what?
5726d83d708984140094d332
universal
270
False
What type of system is American Federalism?
5726d83d708984140094d333
dual-sovereign system
288
False
American Federalism can also be considered tripartite because of the presence of what?
5726d83d708984140094d334
Indian reservations
381
False
States can grant their people broader rights than those granted in what document?
5726d83d708984140094d335
the federal Constitution
637
False
Is there anything that trumps state law?
572c9ab3dfb02c14005c6bab
Federal law and treaties
0
False
How many state make up the United States?
572c9ab3dfb02c14005c6bac
50
137
False
Can states grant rights to citizens that are not defined by the constitution?
572c9ab3dfb02c14005c6bad
as long as they do not infringe on any federal constitutional rights
662
False
What is day-to-day, operational law considered?
572c9ab3dfb02c14005c6bae
"living law"
775
False
What is living law mostly made up of?
572c9ab3dfb02c14005c6baf
state law
927
False
Federal
0
State and territorial laws preempt what kind of laws and treaties?
5a79baa717ab25001a8a0001
True
federal power
249
The scope of what is considered universal?
5a79baa717ab25001a8a0002
True
tripartite
343
What type of government system do Indian reservations have?
5a79baa717ab25001a8a0003
True
rights
625
States may grant citizens fewer what?
5a79baa717ab25001a8a0004
True
contract, tort, property, criminal
791
What are examples of family law?
5a79baa717ab25001a8a0005
True
Federal law and treaties, so long as they are in accordance with the Constitution, preempt conflicting state and territorial laws in the 50 U.S. states and in the territories. However, the scope of federal preemption is limited because the scope of federal power is not universal. In the dual-sovereign system of American federalism (actually tripartite because of the presence of Indian reservations), states are the plenary sovereigns, each with their own constitution, while the federal sovereign possesses only the limited supreme authority enumerated in the Constitution. Indeed, states may grant their citizens broader rights than the federal Constitution as long as they do not infringe on any federal constitutional rights. Thus, most U.S. law (especially the actual "living law" of contract, tort, property, criminal, and family law experienced by the majority of citizens on a day-to-day basis) consists primarily of state law, which can and does vary greatly from one state to the next.
In order for a unconstitutional statue to disappear, it has to be deleted by?
57266cb4708984140094c593
a subsequent statute
125
False
What has remained on the books after they were ruled unconstitutional?
57266cb4708984140094c594
federal and state statutes
152
False
What principle  states no lower court will enforce an unconstitutional statue?
57266cb4708984140094c595
stare decisis
296
False
Who can reverse an unconstitutional court ruling?
57266cb4708984140094c596
the Supreme Court
424
False
What must happen to a statute for it to become unconstitutional?
5727c8644b864d1900163d02
it must be deleted
103
False
What can delete a statute and make it unconstitutional?
5727c8644b864d1900163d03
a subsequent statute
125
False
Some federal and state statutes remain on the books for how long after they are ruled unconstitutional?
5727c8644b864d1900163d04
decades
210
False
What decisis states that no lower court will enforce an unconstitutional statute?
5727c8644b864d1900163d05
the principle of stare decisis
279
False
Any court that enforces an unconstitutional statute will be overturned by what court?
5727c8644b864d1900163d06
the Supreme Court
424
False
If a statute is unconstitutional, how is it removed?
572c9e01f182dd1900d7c7fe
deleted by a subsequent statute
114
False
What happens when an unconstitutional statute remains on the books?
572c9e01f182dd1900d7c7ff
no sensible lower court will enforce
311
False
What would happen if a lower court tried to enforce an unconstitutional statute?
572c9e01f182dd1900d7c800
reversed by the Supreme Court
412
False
What would happen if a lower court refused to uphold a constitutional law?
572c9e01f182dd1900d7c801
risk reversal by the Supreme Court
596
False
What must happen before the Supreme Court will reverse a decision by a lower court refusing to uphold a constitutional law?
572c9e01f182dd1900d7c802
constitutionality has been expressly established in prior cases
526
False
unconstitutional
85
A statute is automatically removed when it is found to be what?
5a79baa417ab25001a89fff7
True
decades
210
How long does it take for the principle of stare decisis to come into affect?
5a79baa417ab25001a89fff8
True
stare decisis
296
What is the name of the principle that demands that unconstitutional laws must be removed via subsequent rulings?
5a79baa417ab25001a89fff9
True
lower
323
What kind of court can reverse unconstitutional enforcements by the Supreme Court?
5a79baa417ab25001a89fffa
True
Supreme Court
428
What court created the principle of stare decisis?
5a79baa417ab25001a89fffb
True
Notably, a statute does not disappear automatically merely because it has been found unconstitutional; it must be deleted by a subsequent statute. Many federal and state statutes have remained on the books for decades after they were ruled to be unconstitutional. However, under the principle of stare decisis, no sensible lower court will enforce an unconstitutional statute, and any court that does so will be reversed by the Supreme Court. Conversely, any court that refuses to enforce a constitutional statute (where such constitutionality has been expressly established in prior cases) will risk reversal by the Supreme Court.
The rule of liability for defective products originated from what law?
572671a8dd62a815002e8516
law of warranty
186
False
In what case did the supreme court of California, throw away warranties and strictly impose liability for defective products?
572671a8dd62a815002e8517
Greenman v. Yuba Power Products
415
False
What was most influential American 20th century tort law?
572671a8dd62a815002e8518
rule of strict liability for defective products
91
False
What year was the case Greenman v. Yuba Power products?
572671a8dd62a815002e8519
1963
206
False
What is one of the most influential changes to tort law?
572cbf35dfb02c14005c6c1d
rule of strict liability for defective products
91
False
Who was at the forefront of the fight to change the laws on defective products?
572cbf35dfb02c14005c6c1e
Roger J. Traynor
212
False
What case was fundamental in the fight to change warranty laws?
572cbf35dfb02c14005c6c1f
Greenman v. Yuba Power Products
415
False
When was the Greenman rule in Section 402A of the Restatement (Second) of Torts published?
572cbf35dfb02c14005c6c20
1964
623
False
When was the Restatement (Second) of Torts beginning to be adopted outside of the United States?
572cbf35dfb02c14005c6c21
1985
800
False
Greenman v. Yuba Power Products
415
What case occurred in 1994?
5a7a101917ab25001a8a02a8
True
402A
557
What section of the Product Liability Directive discusses warranties?
5a7a101917ab25001a8a02a9
True
strict liability for defective products
99
What minor rule went on the books on the 20th c?
5a7a101917ab25001a8a02aa
True
Roger J. Traynor
212
Who is the head of the American Law Institute?
5a7a101917ab25001a8a02ab
True
1964
623
When did Traynor publish the Restatement (Second) of Torts?
5a7a101917ab25001a8a02ac
True
Notably, the most broadly influential innovation of 20th-century American tort law was the rule of strict liability for defective products, which originated with judicial glosses on the law of warranty. In 1963, Roger J. Traynor of the Supreme Court of California threw away legal fictions based on warranties and imposed strict liability for defective products as a matter of public policy in the landmark case of Greenman v. Yuba Power Products. The American Law Institute subsequently adopted a slightly different version of the Greenman rule in Section 402A of the Restatement (Second) of Torts, which was published in 1964 and was very influential throughout the United States. Outside the U.S., the rule was adopted by the European Economic Community in the Product Liability Directive of July 1985 by Australia in July 1992 and by Japan in June 1994.
What law covers wrongs which humans can inflict upon each other?
572673ef5951b619008f7311
Tort law
0
False
Why can American tort law not be easily summarized?
572673ef5951b619008f7312
because of its immense size and diversity
428
False
While attempting to standardize tort law, multiple versions of tort law have come about, what are there versions called?
572673ef5951b619008f7313
Restatement of Torts
303
False
What covers crimes of human against human?
572cbe52750c471900ed4d26
Tort law
0
False
What does tort law overlap with?
572cbe52750c471900ed4d27
wrongs also punishable by criminal law
138
False
What is attempting to standardize the tort law system?
572cbe52750c471900ed4d28
Restatement of Torts
303
False
What is the Restatement of Torts not successfull as a whole yet?
572cbe52750c471900ed4d29
many states have chosen to adopt only certain sections
325
False
Why is tort law hard to standardize?
572cbe52750c471900ed4d2a
immense size and diversity
443
False
criminal law
164
What does tort not overlap with?
5a7a0e2917ab25001a8a0276
True
American Law Institute
191
What tried to standardize criminal law?
5a7a0e2917ab25001a8a0277
True
Restatement of Torts
303
What allows American tort law to be summarized easily?
5a7a0e2917ab25001a8a0278
True
tort law
243
The American Law Institute unstandardized what?
5a7a0e2917ab25001a8a0279
True
Restatement of Torts
303
States have adopted all of what?
5a7a0e2917ab25001a8a027a
True
Tort law covers the entire imaginable spectrum of wrongs which humans can inflict upon each other, and of course, partially overlaps with wrongs also punishable by criminal law. Although the American Law Institute has attempted to standardize tort law through the development of several versions of the Restatement of Torts, many states have chosen to adopt only certain sections of the Restatements and to reject others. Thus, because of its immense size and diversity, American tort law cannot be easily summarized.
A lot of American common law diverged from where?
57267592708984140094c6cf
English common law
161
False
When would American courts follow post-revolution commonwealth rulings?
57267592708984140094c6d0
there is no American ruling on point
376
False
Courts in commonwealth nations are often influenced by what?
57267592708984140094c6d1
by each other's rulings
277
False
Most modern American common law came from what kind of law?
5727d5bd4b864d1900163e2c
English common law
161
False
Couts of commonwealth nations are often influenced by who's rulings?
5727d5bd4b864d1900163e2d
each other's
280
False
What rulings do American courts rarely follow?
5727d5bd4b864d1900163e2e
post-Revolution Commonwealth rulings
332
False
What is one reason American courts may follow a post Revolutionary Commonwealth ruling under what circumstances?
5727d5bd4b864d1900163e2f
there is no American ruling on point
376
False
How close is current American law to English law?
572ca233dfb02c14005c6bd1
diverged significantly
133
False
What differs about American and English law?
572ca233dfb02c14005c6bd2
American courts rarely follow post-Revolution Commonwealth rulings
302
False
When would American law be more likely to follow English law?
572ca233dfb02c14005c6bd3
no American ruling on point
385
False
How close do the issues have to be in order for an English law to be used?
572ca233dfb02c14005c6bd4
nearly identical
445
False
English common law
161
Much of American common law is similar to what?
5a79ba9e17ab25001a89ffe3
True
each other's rulings
280
Commonwealth nations tend to not be influenced by what?
5a79ba9e17ab25001a89ffe4
True
strongly persuasive
484
What kind of reasoning is required to follow the American ruling?
5a79ba9e17ab25001a89ffe5
True
there is no American ruling on point
376
When do Americans follow pre-Revolution Commonwealth rulings?
5a79ba9e17ab25001a89ffe6
True
American common law
109
What is English common law very similar to?
5a79ba9e17ab25001a89ffe7
True
However, it is important to understand that despite the presence of reception statutes, much of contemporary American common law has diverged significantly from English common law. The reason is that although the courts of the various Commonwealth nations are often influenced by each other's rulings, American courts rarely follow post-Revolution Commonwealth rulings unless there is no American ruling on point, the facts and law at issue are nearly identical, and the reasoning is strongly persuasive.
Reception statues are generally the same as what law?
57267ac0708984140094c785
the common law of England
201
False
Who sites pre-revolution cases when discussion evolution of judge-made law?
57267ac0708984140094c786
contemporary U.S. courts
515
False
Which US State did not  enact reception statues?
57267ac0708984140094c787
Louisiana
130
False
What is the only state to not enact reception statutes?
5727cc87ff5b5019007d957c
Louisiana
130
False
What do reception statutes state is the law of the state?
5727cc87ff5b5019007d957d
common law of England
205
False
Some reception statutes impose what?
5727cc87ff5b5019007d957e
a specific cutoff date
393
False
Modern courts often cite which period in history cases when discussing changes in law?
5727cc87ff5b5019007d957f
pre-Revolution
551
False
What are reception statutes?
572ca182dfb02c14005c6bbf
the common law of England (particularly judge-made law) is the law of the state
201
False
When are reception statutes invaild?
572ca182dfb02c14005c6bc0
repugnant to domestic law or indigenous conditions
310
False
Where did the bulk of the US's starting laws come from?
572ca182dfb02c14005c6bc1
English law
24
False
Which is the only stste without reception statutes?
572ca182dfb02c14005c6bc2
Louisiana
130
False
What kind of case would a contemporary lawyer discuss when talking about an ancient judge-made common law principle?
572ca182dfb02c14005c6bc3
pre-Revolution
551
False
Louisiana
130
What is the only US state to have a reception statute?
5a79baa117ab25001a89ffed
True
judge-made
241
What form of English law has been considered repugnant to the US?
5a79baa117ab25001a89ffee
True
the date of a colony's founding
439
What specific date did Louisiana chose as a cutoff date?
5a79baa117ab25001a89ffef
True
pre-Revolution
551
What cases have contemporary courts thrown out?
5a79baa117ab25001a89fff0
True
common carriers
733
Lowered duty of care is placed on what?
5a79baa117ab25001a89fff1
True
The actual substance of English law was formally "received" into the United States in several ways. First, all U.S. states except Louisiana have enacted "reception statutes" which generally state that the common law of England (particularly judge-made law) is the law of the state to the extent that it is not repugnant to domestic law or indigenous conditions. Some reception statutes impose a specific cutoff date for reception, such as the date of a colony's founding, while others are deliberately vague. Thus, contemporary U.S. courts often cite pre-Revolution cases when discussing the evolution of an ancient judge-made common law principle into its modern form, such as the heightened duty of care traditionally imposed upon common carriers.
early on American courts cited what cases?
5727d6e7ff5b5019007d9690
contemporary English
69
False
What century were apellate decisions regularly reported?
5727d6e7ff5b5019007d9691
19th century
202
False
When did cotations to English decisions gradually disappear?
5727d6e7ff5b5019007d9692
19th century
373
False
How many published reports of American volumes existed in 1810?
5727d6e7ff5b5019007d9693
eighteen
554
False
How many published reports of American volumes existed in 1910?
5727d6e7ff5b5019007d9694
over 8,000
574
False
When did Americans really begin to establish their own laws independent of the English?
572ca3ebf182dd1900d7c808
mid-19th century
198
False
How many published volumes of American reports were released in 1810?
572ca3ebf182dd1900d7c809
eighteen
554
False
By 1910, how many volumes of American reports were there?
572ca3ebf182dd1900d7c80a
8,000
579
False
What did the lawmakers think of the increase in reports?
572ca3ebf182dd1900d7c80b
By 1879 one of the delegates to the California constitutional convention was already complaining
594
False
What were the lawmakers beginning to drown in?
572ca3ebf182dd1900d7c80c
judicial literature
913
False
American
10
Whose cases did English courts cite early on?
5a79bd6e17ab25001a8a003c
True
mid-19th century
198
When did decisions from English courts begin to be reported?
5a79bd6e17ab25001a8a003d
True
over 8,000
574
How many published volumes of American reports were there in 1879?
5a79bd6e17ab25001a8a003e
True
California
630
Where was the delegate who praised the American judicial literature from?
5a79bd6e17ab25001a8a003f
True
eighteen
554
How many English law volumes were there in 1810?
5a79bd6e17ab25001a8a0040
True
Early on, American courts, even after the Revolution, often did cite contemporary English cases. This was because appellate decisions from many American courts were not regularly reported until the mid-19th century; lawyers and judges, as creatures of habit, used English legal materials to fill the gap. But citations to English decisions gradually disappeared during the 19th century as American courts developed their own principles to resolve the legal problems of the American people. The number of published volumes of American reports soared from eighteen in 1810 to over 8,000 by 1910. By 1879 one of the delegates to the California constitutional convention was already complaining: "Now, when we require them to state the reasons for a decision, we do not mean they shall write a hundred pages of detail. We [do] not mean that they shall include the small cases, and impose on the country all this fine judicial literature, for the Lord knows we have got enough of that already."
What does federal law come from?
5727d894ff5b5019007d96c0
the Constitution
28
False
What gives Congress limited power to enact statutes?
5727d894ff5b5019007d96c1
the Constitution
28
False
What do you call the official compilation and codification of federal statutes?
5727d894ff5b5019007d96c2
The United States Code
161
False
Where are regulations published?
5727d894ff5b5019007d96c3
in the Federal Register
374
False
Where are regulations codified into?
5727d894ff5b5019007d96c4
Code of Federal Regulations
420
False
Where does federal law begin?
572ca4e8dfb02c14005c6bd9
the Constitution
28
False
Who has the power and right to enact statutes for interstate dealings?
572ca4e8dfb02c14005c6bda
Congress
58
False
What is the compilation and codification of all federal statutes?
572ca4e8dfb02c14005c6bdb
The United States Code
161
False
Who do the statutes give the power of creating regulations?
572ca4e8dfb02c14005c6bdc
executive branch agencies
295
False
Where are the regulations from executive branch agencies found?
572ca4e8dfb02c14005c6bdd
the Code of Federal Regulations
416
False
Federal law
0
What does the Constitution stem from?
5a79bd6a17ab25001a8a0032
True
interstate commerce
140
What is an example of something Congress cannot regulate?
5a79bd6a17ab25001a8a0033
True
executive
295
What branch creates the Chevron doctrine?
5a79bd6a17ab25001a8a0034
True
general and permanent federal statutes
236
The Chevron doctrine compiles and codifies what?
5a79bd6a17ab25001a8a0035
True
the Code of Federal Regulations
416
What is the Federal Register published in?
5a79bd6a17ab25001a8a0036
True
Federal law originates with the Constitution, which gives Congress the power to enact statutes for certain limited purposes like regulating interstate commerce. The United States Code is the official compilation and codification of the general and permanent federal statutes. Many statutes give executive branch agencies the power to create regulations, which are published in the Federal Register and codified into the Code of Federal Regulations. Regulations generally also carry the force of law under the Chevron doctrine. Many lawsuits turn on the meaning of a federal statute or regulation, and judicial interpretations of such meaning carry legal force under the principle of stare decisis.
What areas of the Constitution deal with issuses such as aviation, railroads, and trademarks?
5727e3ec3acd2414000def15
Commerce and Spending Clauses
403
False
In areas of law such as insurance, there are laws refusing to regulate them as long as states have laws doing what?
5727e3ec3acd2414000def16
regulating them
1200
False
What type of property are trademarks and copyrights?
5727e3ec3acd2414000def17
intellectual property
266
False
What governs things such as military, money, foreign relations, etc.?
572caad1dfb02c14005c6bed
federal law
36
False
What enabled federal law to begin expanding into other areas such as avaition, telecommunications, railroads, etc.?
572caad1dfb02c14005c6bee
Commerce and Spending Clauses of the Constitution
403
False
When did the Commerce and Spending Clauses of the Constitution allow federal power to begin expanding?
572caad1dfb02c14005c6bef
start of the 20th century
347
False
What is a law enacted by Congress that states that it refuses to regulate some industries as long as the states have regulations in place already?
572caad1dfb02c14005c6bf0
McCarran-Ferguson Act
1232
False
What happens when both the federal and state governments have regulations that overlap?
572caad1dfb02c14005c6bf1
coexist with each other
1043
False
an express grant of power to the federal government
95
What areas of law were generally ignored in the 18th and 19th centuries?
5a79c1ae17ab25001a8a006e
True
the 20th century
356
When did federal law lose jurisdiction over aviation?
5a79c1ae17ab25001a8a006f
True
virtually all state law
707
Federal law on antitrust preempts what?
5a79c1ae17ab25001a8a0070
True
the McCarran-Ferguson Act
1228
What was the name of the act that allowed for broader interpretations in the 20th century?
5a79c1ae17ab25001a8a0071
True
state
1025
Employment laws has only what kind of law instead of federal?
5a79c1ae17ab25001a8a0072
True
During the 18th and 19th centuries, federal law traditionally focused on areas where there was an express grant of power to the federal government in the federal Constitution, like the military, money, foreign relations (especially international treaties), tariffs, intellectual property (specifically patents and copyrights), and mail. Since the start of the 20th century, broad interpretations of the Commerce and Spending Clauses of the Constitution have enabled federal law to expand into areas like aviation, telecommunications, railroads, pharmaceuticals, antitrust, and trademarks. In some areas, like aviation and railroads, the federal government has developed a comprehensive scheme that preempts virtually all state law, while in others, like family law, a relatively small number of federal statutes (generally covering interstate and international situations) interacts with a much larger body of state law. In areas like antitrust, trademark, and employment law, there are powerful laws at both the federal and state levels that coexist with each other. In a handful of areas like insurance, Congress has enacted laws expressly refusing to regulate them as long as the states have laws regulating them (see, e.g., the McCarran-Ferguson Act).
Who signs a bill into a law?
5727e53bff5b5019007d97c6
the President
6
False
Where does a bill go after it is signed?
5727e53bff5b5019007d97c7
Office of the Federal Register (OFR) of the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA)
104
False
What is a new law given at the OFR of the NARA?
5727e53bff5b5019007d97c8
a law number
221
False
After being given a law number, a new law is prepared for publication as what?
5727e53bff5b5019007d97c9
a slip law
267
False
What kind of laws are not given statutory citation by the OFR?
5727e53bff5b5019007d97ca
private laws
300
False
Where does a bill go once the President signs it into effect?
572cabc8f182dd1900d7c81a
delivered to the Office of the Federal Register (OFR) of the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA)
87
False
What happens after a bill is delivered to the OFR?
572cabc8f182dd1900d7c81b
assigned a law number
212
False
After a bill is assigned a number, what is it made ready for?
572cabc8f182dd1900d7c81c
publication as a slip law
252
False
Once the slip laws are placed into the United States Statutes at Large, what are they called?
572cabc8f182dd1900d7c81d
session laws
518
False
What is the United States Statutes at Large?
572cabc8f182dd1900d7c81e
a chronological arrangement of the laws in the exact order that they have been enacted
562
False
a bill
26
What does Congress sign into law?
5a79cedf17ab25001a8a0094
True
OFR
361
What organization gives private laws legal statutory citations?
5a79cedf17ab25001a8a0095
True
United States Statutes at Large
463
Bound volumes of bills are called what?
5a79cedf17ab25001a8a0096
True
Public
279
What type of laws does the NARA grant statutory citations to?
5a79cedf17ab25001a8a0097
True
the President
6
Who signs a bill after it is delivered to the OFR?
5a79cedf17ab25001a8a0098
True
After the President signs a bill into law (or Congress enacts it over his veto), it is delivered to the Office of the Federal Register (OFR) of the National Archives and Records Administration (NARA) where it is assigned a law number, and prepared for publication as a slip law. Public laws, but not private laws, are also given legal statutory citation by the OFR. At the end of each session of Congress, the slip laws are compiled into bound volumes called the United States Statutes at Large, and they are known as session laws. The Statutes at Large present a chronological arrangement of the laws in the exact order that they have been enacted.
What does congress often grant to give rulemaking authority to federal agencies?
5727e6ab4b864d1900163f90
statutes
22
False
Federal agencies are authorized to make what public?
5727e6ab4b864d1900163f91
regulations
414
False
Regulations normally carry the force of what?
5727e6ab4b864d1900163f92
law
509
False
Regualtions carry force of law when based on reasonable interpretation of what?
5727e6ab4b864d1900163f93
relevant statutes
577
False
What power is granted to federal agencies by Congress?
572cad7e750c471900ed4cc6
broad rulemaking authority
42
False
Why does Congress give generalized powers to federal agencies?
572cad7e750c471900ed4cc7
too gridlocked to draft detailed statutes that explain how the agency should react to every possible situation
116
False
What gives regulations imposed by federal agencies the right to enforce their regulations?
572cad7e750c471900ed4cc8
the principle of Chevron
433
False
What does the Principle of Chevron provide for?
572cad7e750c471900ed4cc9
regulations normally carry the force of law as long as they are based on a reasonable interpretation of the relevant statutes
469
False
statutes
22
What do federal agencies enact for rulemaking purposes?
5a79cf9817ab25001a8a00a8
True
detailed statutes
140
Gridlock allows Congress to draft what?
5a79cf9817ab25001a8a00a9
True
technical specialists
262
What does Congress believe hampers an agency's ability to deal with situations?
5a79cf9817ab25001a8a00aa
True
Chevron deference
450
Congress's state of gridlock is referred to as what principle?
5a79cf9817ab25001a8a00ab
True
relevant statutes
577
The Chevron deference prevents regulations from interpreting what?
5a79cf9817ab25001a8a00ac
True
Congress often enacts statutes that grant broad rulemaking authority to federal agencies. Often, Congress is simply too gridlocked to draft detailed statutes that explain how the agency should react to every possible situation, or Congress believes the agency's technical specialists are best equipped to deal with particular fact situations as they arise. Therefore, federal agencies are authorized to promulgate regulations. Under the principle of Chevron deference, regulations normally carry the force of law as long as they are based on a reasonable interpretation of the relevant statutes.
What is used to determine whether federal judicial power extends to formulating binding precedent?
572cb101750c471900ed4cce
stare decisis
138
False
What is stare decisis?
572cb101750c471900ed4ccf
the act of deciding a case becomes a limited form of lawmaking in itself
167
False
Why is stare decisis a limited form of lawmaking?
572cb101750c471900ed4cd0
an appellate court's rulings will thereby bind itself and lower courts in future cases
249
False
Who else does stare decisis affect?
572cb101750c471900ed4cd1
impliedly binds all persons within the court's jurisdiction
356
False
stare decisis
138
Formulating judicial power is done by following what rule?
5a79e2e817ab25001a8a0150
True
one-fifth
480
What fraction of federal appellate cases were published in 2007?
5a79e2e817ab25001a8a0151
True
2007
468
When did federal appellate cases begin to be published?
5a79e2e817ab25001a8a0152
True
an appellate court's rulings
249
What do decisions made by lower courts bind?
5a79e2e817ab25001a8a0153
True
all persons within the court's jurisdiction
372
Who are unaffected by stare decisis?
5a79e2e817ab25001a8a0154
True
The difficult question is whether federal judicial power extends to formulating binding precedent through strict adherence to the rule of stare decisis. This is where the act of deciding a case becomes a limited form of lawmaking in itself, in that an appellate court's rulings will thereby bind itself and lower courts in future cases (and therefore also impliedly binds all persons within the court's jurisdiction). Prior to a major change to federal court rules in 2007, about one-fifth of federal appellate cases were published and thereby became binding precedents, while the rest were unpublished and bound only the parties to each case.
Who has noted that binding precedent did not exist when the Constitution was written?
572cb2d3750c471900ed4cd6
federal judge Alex Kozinski
3
False
Why were decisions not reported or recoded correctly?
572cb2d3750c471900ed4cd7
reporters often simply rewrote or failed to publish decisions which they disliked
257
False
What are the natural theories of law that that the English judges in the eighteenth century used?
572cb2d3750c471900ed4cd8
law was believed to have an existence independent of what individual judges said
555
False
Why could one judge reject another judges opinion?
572cb2d3750c471900ed4cd9
saw themselves as merely declaring the law which had always theoretically existed, and not as making the law
644
False
Why would one judge reject another's opinion?
572cb2d3750c471900ed4cda
incorrect statement of the law
823
False
binding precedent
48
What began at the time the Constitution was framed?
5a79e3ed17ab25001a8a0164
True
Alex Kozinski
17
What was the name of the judge who believed he was declaring a pre-existing law?
5a79e3ed17ab25001a8a0165
True
the eighteenth century
467
When did the natural law theory fall out of fashion?
5a79e3ed17ab25001a8a0166
True
which they disliked
319
Reporters were not allowed to prevent publication based on what?
5a79e3ed17ab25001a8a0167
True
coherent court hierarchy
373
What did the the UK courts in the end of the 19th century?
5a79e3ed17ab25001a8a0168
True
As federal judge Alex Kozinski has pointed out, binding precedent as we know it today simply did not exist at the time the Constitution was framed. Judicial decisions were not consistently, accurately, and faithfully reported on both sides of the Atlantic (reporters often simply rewrote or failed to publish decisions which they disliked), and the United Kingdom lacked a coherent court hierarchy prior to the end of the 19th century. Furthermore, English judges in the eighteenth century subscribed to now-obsolete natural law theories of law, by which law was believed to have an existence independent of what individual judges said. Judges saw themselves as merely declaring the law which had always theoretically existed, and not as making the law. Therefore, a judge could reject another judge's opinion as simply an incorrect statement of the law, in the way that scientists regularly reject each other's conclusions as incorrect statements of the laws of science.
How did the federal agencies differ from their English counter-parts?
572cb395dfb02c14005c6c01
no plenary reception statute at the federal level that continued the common law
47
False
What did the missing plenary reception do?
572cb395dfb02c14005c6c02
granted federal courts the power to formulate legal precedent
139
False
Where do the federal courts fall?
572cb395dfb02c14005c6c03
the federal Judiciary Acts
302
False
Where is judicial power found in the original Constitution?
572cb395dfb02c14005c6c04
Article Three
500
False
What does Article Three give federal agencies?
572cb395dfb02c14005c6c05
implied judicial power of common law courts to formulate persuasive precedent
576
False
Judiciary
314
Federal courts are outside of the jurisdiction of what federal acts?
5a79d0b117ab25001a8a00c6
True
judicial power
426
What power did the Founding Fathers remove in Article Three?
5a79d0b117ab25001a8a00c7
True
the Founding Fathers
371
Who did the Supreme Court grant judicial power to?
5a79d0b117ab25001a8a00c8
True
Article Three
500
Where is the plenary reception statute found in the Constitution?
5a79d0b117ab25001a8a00c9
True
at the time the Constitution was ratified
738
When did scholars begin to argue that judicial power includes precedential effect?
5a79d0b117ab25001a8a00ca
True
Unlike the situation with the states, there is no plenary reception statute at the federal level that continued the common law and thereby granted federal courts the power to formulate legal precedent like their English predecessors. Federal courts are solely creatures of the federal Constitution and the federal Judiciary Acts. However, it is universally accepted that the Founding Fathers of the United States, by vesting "judicial power" into the Supreme Court and the inferior federal courts in Article Three of the United States Constitution, thereby vested in them the implied judicial power of common law courts to formulate persuasive precedent; this power was widely accepted, understood, and recognized by the Founding Fathers at the time the Constitution was ratified. Several legal scholars have argued that the federal judicial power to decide "cases or controversies" necessarily includes the power to decide the precedential effect of those cases and controversies.
When did binding precedent become possible in the United States?
572cb45af182dd1900d7c824
nineteenth century
121
False
What made binding precedent a possibility?
572cb45af182dd1900d7c825
creation of a clear court hierarchy (under the Judiciary Acts), and the beginning of regular verbatim publication of U.S. appellate decisions by West Publishing
155
False
What can invalidate the rule of law?
572cb45af182dd1900d7c826
hopeless inefficiency, instability, and unpredictability
932
False
Why was the rule of precedent allowed?
572cb45af182dd1900d7c827
in the absence of case law, it would be completely unworkable for every minor issue in every legal case to be briefed, argued, and decided
656
False
How is a court hierarchy established?
572cb45af182dd1900d7c828
the Judiciary Acts
198
False
binding precedent
68
What did Kozinski make possible?
5a79e4a517ab25001a8a0178
True
the nineteenth century
117
When was West Publishing created?
5a79e4a517ab25001a8a0179
True
West Publishing
300
What company published the Judiciary Acts?
5a79e4a517ab25001a8a017a
True
precedent
523
What public policy has been ruled as an undermining of the rule of law?
5a79e4a517ab25001a8a017b
True
Kozinski
22
What is the name of the writer of the rule of binding precedent?
5a79e4a517ab25001a8a017c
True
In turn, according to Kozinski's analysis, the contemporary rule of binding precedent became possible in the U.S. in the nineteenth century only after the creation of a clear court hierarchy (under the Judiciary Acts), and the beginning of regular verbatim publication of U.S. appellate decisions by West Publishing. The rule gradually developed, case-by-case, as an extension of the judiciary's public policy of effective judicial administration (that is, in order to efficiently exercise the judicial power). The rule of precedent is generally justified today as a matter of public policy, first, as a matter of fundamental fairness, and second, because in the absence of case law, it would be completely unworkable for every minor issue in every legal case to be briefed, argued, and decided from first principles (such as relevant statutes, constitutional provisions, and underlying public policies), which in turn would create hopeless inefficiency, instability, and unpredictability, and thereby undermine the rule of law.
What states that there is no general federal common law?
572cb5de750c471900ed4ce0
the doctrine of Erie Railroad Co. v. Tompkins
6
False
When was the doctrine of Erie Railroad Co. v. Tompkins put into effect?
572cb5de750c471900ed4ce1
1938
53
False
Why can't federal courts just make up law?
572cb5de750c471900ed4ce2
lack the plenary power possessed by state courts
398
False
When are states allowed to use plenary power?
572cb5de750c471900ed4ce3
absence of constitutional or statutory provisions replacing the common law
509
False
Erie Railroad Co.
22
Who won Erie Railroad Co. v. Tompkins?
5a79e60217ab25001a8a018c
True
1938
53
When was the Erie Railroad Co. v. Tompkins rescinded?
5a79e60217ab25001a8a018d
True
plenary
407
What type of power do Federal courts have that state courts do not?
5a79e60217ab25001a8a018e
True
maritime
626
What is an example of a law that is not an extension of English common law?
5a79e60217ab25001a8a018f
True
stare decisis
858
Maritime law is not subject to what limitation?
5a79e60217ab25001a8a0190
True
Under the doctrine of Erie Railroad Co. v. Tompkins (1938), there is no general federal common law. Although federal courts can create federal common law in the form of case law, such law must be linked one way or another to the interpretation of a particular federal constitutional provision, statute, or regulation (which in turn was enacted as part of the Constitution or after). Federal courts lack the plenary power possessed by state courts to simply make up law, which the latter are able to do in the absence of constitutional or statutory provisions replacing the common law. Only in a few narrow limited areas, like maritime law, has the Constitution expressly authorized the continuation of English common law at the federal level (meaning that in those areas federal courts can continue to make law as they see fit, subject to the limitations of stare decisis).
What is a major implication of the Erie doctrine?
572cb71bdfb02c14005c6c0b
federal courts cannot dictate the content of state law when there is no federal issue
57
False
What are states not bound by?
572cb71bdfb02c14005c6c0c
federal interpretations of state law
563
False
What states that deference is one way only?
572cb71bdfb02c14005c6c0d
Erie doctrine
35
False
What does it mean when Erie states that deference is one way only?
572cb71bdfb02c14005c6c0e
state courts are not bound by federal interpretations of state law
533
False
federal issue
129
The Erie doctrine allows federal courts to intercede even when there is no what?
5a79e82517ab25001a8a01a8
True
Erie
500
What doctrine states that state courts are bound by federal interpretations?
5a79e82517ab25001a8a01a9
True
the relevant state law is irrational or just bad public policy
426
When can federal trial courts ignore state law?
5a79e82517ab25001a8a01aa
True
statutory and decisional law
300
What must federal trial courts apply when the state law is not pursuant?
5a79e82517ab25001a8a01ab
True
dictate the content of state law
79
The Erie doctrine states that federal courts can do what?
5a79e82517ab25001a8a01ac
True
The other major implication of the Erie doctrine is that federal courts cannot dictate the content of state law when there is no federal issue (and thus no federal supremacy issue) in a case. When hearing claims under state law pursuant to diversity jurisdiction, federal trial courts must apply the statutory and decisional law of the state in which they sit, as if they were a court of that state, even if they believe that the relevant state law is irrational or just bad public policy. And under Erie, deference is one-way only: state courts are not bound by federal interpretations of state law.
What does each state posess?
572cb7af750c471900ed4ce8
state constitutions, state governments, and state courts
66
False
What are the 50 states in the Union known as?
572cb7af750c471900ed4ce9
separate sovereigns
30
False
Which branch of government promulgates state regulations?
572cb7af750c471900ed4cea
executive branch
193
False
What branch of government enacts state statutes?
572cb7af750c471900ed4ceb
legislative branch
142
False
Which ranch applies, interprets, and occasionally overturns both state statutes and regulations?
572cb7af750c471900ed4cec
judicial branch
288
False
judicial
288
What branch applies but cannot overturn statutes?
5a79f01017ab25001a8a01f4
True
fifty
4
How many local ordinances are there?
5a79f01017ab25001a8a01f5
True
the federal Constitution
497
What cannot preempt the states' plenary power?
5a79f01017ab25001a8a01f6
True
a petition for writ of certiorari
833
How are decisions appealed to the state supreme courts?
5a79f01017ab25001a8a01f7
True
legal system
1006
The US has only one what?
5a79f01017ab25001a8a01f8
True
The fifty American states are separate sovereigns, with their own state constitutions, state governments, and state courts. All states have a legislative branch which enacts state statutes, an executive branch that promulgates state regulations pursuant to statutory authorization, and a judicial branch that applies, interprets, and occasionally overturns both state statutes and regulations, as well as local ordinances. They retain plenary power to make laws covering anything not preempted by the federal Constitution, federal statutes, or international treaties ratified by the federal Senate. Normally, state supreme courts are the final interpreters of state constitutions and state law, unless their interpretation itself presents a federal issue, in which case a decision may be appealed to the U.S. Supreme Court by way of a petition for writ of certiorari. State laws have dramatically diverged in the centuries since independence, to the extent that the United States cannot be regarded as one legal system as to the majority of types of law traditionally under state control, but must be regarded as 50 separate systems of tort law, family law, property law, contract law, criminal law, and so on.
Where are cases usually argued?
572cb837750c471900ed4cf2
state courts
28
False
What types of cases are argued in the state courts?
572cb837750c471900ed4cf3
involve claims and defenses under state laws
45
False
How many new cases were filed in 2010?
572cb837750c471900ed4cf4
103.5 million
211
False
How many cases did appellate courts receice in 2010?
572cb837750c471900ed4cf5
272,795
465
False
What types of cases did federal district courts receive in 2010?
572cb837750c471900ed4cf6
282,000 new civil cases, 77,000 new criminal cases, and 1.5 million bankruptcy cases
571
False
103.5 million
211
How many new cases were filed in 2012?
5a79f25b17ab25001a8a01fe
True
2010
246
There were 20.4 million traffic cases in what year?
5a79f25b17ab25001a8a01ff
True
5.9 million
354
How many trial courts received domestic relations cases in 2010?
5a79f25b17ab25001a8a0200
True
National Center for State Courts' Court Statistics Project
113
What organization started in 2012?
5a79f25b17ab25001a8a0201
True
282,000
571
How many civil cases did the federal district courts close in 2010?
5a79f25b17ab25001a8a0202
True
Most cases are litigated in state courts and involve claims and defenses under state laws. In a 2012 report, the National Center for State Courts' Court Statistics Project found that state trial courts received 103.5 million newly filed cases in 2010, which consisted of 56.3 million traffic cases, 20.4 million criminal cases, 19.0 million civil cases, 5.9 million domestic relations cases, and 1.9 million juvenile cases. In 2010, state appellate courts received 272,795 new cases. By way of comparison, all federal district courts in 2010 together received only about 282,000 new civil cases, 77,000 new criminal cases, and 1.5 million bankruptcy cases, while federal appellate courts received 56,000 new cases.
What makes up the law of criminal procedure?
572cba08750c471900ed4cfc
federal constitutional case law interwoven with the federal and state statutes
84
False
What did the exclusionary rule provide for?
572cba08750c471900ed4cfd
inability of legislatures in the U.S. to enact statutes that would actually force law enforcement officers to respect the constitutional rights
346
False
What might a suspect use to challenge their detention?
572cba08750c471900ed4cfe
writ of habeas corpus
790
False
What must a police officer recite to a suspect upon arrest/
572cba08750c471900ed4cff
Miranda warning
769
False
What acts cover tort damages from police brutality cases?
572cba08750c471900ed4d00
Civil Rights Act of 1871 and Bivens actions
891
False
statutes that would actually force law enforcement officers to respect the constitutional rights
393
What have US legislatures been able to enact successfully?
5a79f42917ab25001a8a0208
True
the exclusionary rule
567
What rule did the federal judiciary overturn?
5a79f42917ab25001a8a0209
True
1871
911
When was the Miranda warning penned?
5a79f42917ab25001a8a020a
True
to challenge their detention
851
What do convicts use the Miranda warning for?
5a79f42917ab25001a8a020b
True
the Civil Rights Act
887
What was rescinded in 1871?
5a79f42917ab25001a8a020c
True
The law of criminal procedure in the United States consists of a massive overlay of federal constitutional case law interwoven with the federal and state statutes that actually provide the foundation for the creation and operation of law enforcement agencies and prison systems as well as the proceedings in criminal trials. Due to the perennial inability of legislatures in the U.S. to enact statutes that would actually force law enforcement officers to respect the constitutional rights of criminal suspects and convicts, the federal judiciary gradually developed the exclusionary rule as a method to enforce such rights. In turn, the exclusionary rule spawned a family of judge-made remedies for the abuse of law enforcement powers, of which the most famous is the Miranda warning. The writ of habeas corpus is often used by suspects and convicts to challenge their detention, while the Civil Rights Act of 1871 and Bivens actions are used by suspects to recover tort damages for police brutality.
What is over all judicial proceedings involving private party lawsuits?
572cbacef182dd1900d7c82e
The law of civil procedure
0
False
What did New York enact that replaced traditional common law proceeding?
572cbacef182dd1900d7c82f
code pleading
163
False
What was code pleading ultimately replaced by?
572cbacef182dd1900d7c830
modern notice pleading
312
False
When did code pleading get replaced by modern notice pleading?
572cbacef182dd1900d7c831
20th century
346
False
What did the Federal Rules of Civil Procedure abolish?
572cbacef182dd1900d7c832
The old English division between common law and equity courts
360
False
Traditional common law pleading
115
What replaced code pleading in 1850?
5a79f51e17ab25001a8a0212
True
24
180
How many states enacted Field Code?
5a79f51e17ab25001a8a0213
True
New York
196
What state enacted the Federal Rules of Civil Procedure in 1938?
5a79f51e17ab25001a8a0214
True
1938
517
When did The Delaware Court of Chancery become an equity court?
5a79f51e17ab25001a8a0215
True
common law and equity courts
393
What was divided in the Federal Rules of Civil Procedure?
5a79f51e17ab25001a8a0216
True
The law of civil procedure governs process in all judicial proceedings involving lawsuits between private parties. Traditional common law pleading was replaced by code pleading in 24 states after New York enacted the Field Code in 1850 and code pleading in turn was subsequently replaced again in most states by modern notice pleading during the 20th century. The old English division between common law and equity courts was abolished in the federal courts by the adoption of the Federal Rules of Civil Procedure in 1938; it has also been independently abolished by legislative acts in nearly all states. The Delaware Court of Chancery is the most prominent of the small number of remaining equity courts.
Which states have not adopted FRCP?
572cbbbb750c471900ed4d06
New York, Illinois, and California are the most significant
0
False
How do New York, Illinois and California maintain civil procedure laws?
572cbbbb750c471900ed4d07
codified statutes enacted by the state legislature
200
False
What should New York, Illinois and California be using instead of codified statutes?
572cbbbb750c471900ed4d08
court rules promulgated by the state supreme court
266
False
New York, Illinois, and California
0
Which three states adopted the FRCP?
5a79f5ca17ab25001a8a021c
True
three
116
How many states no longer have civil procedure laws from state legislature?
5a79f5ca17ab25001a8a021d
True
undemocratic
352
What did California claim was wrong with state legislature?
5a79f5ca17ab25001a8a021e
True
court rules promulgated by the state supreme court
266
California refuses to use codified statutes instead of what?
5a79f5ca17ab25001a8a021f
True
civil procedure laws
400
Key portions of what were changed to make the legislature more distinct?
5a79f5ca17ab25001a8a0220
True
New York, Illinois, and California are the most significant states that have not adopted the FRCP. Furthermore, all three states continue to maintain most of their civil procedure laws in the form of codified statutes enacted by the state legislature, as opposed to court rules promulgated by the state supreme court, on the ground that the latter are undemocratic. But certain key portions of their civil procedure laws have been modified by their legislatures to bring them closer to federal civil procedure.
What is extensive pretrial discovery a part of?
572cbc43750c471900ed4d0c
American civil procedure
11
False
What is a pretrial deposition?
572cbc43750c471900ed4d0d
summary judgment
299
False
What is an opt-out class action?
572cbc43750c471900ed4d0e
the burden falls on class members to notify the court that they do not wish to be bound by the judgment
406
False
What is an opt-in class action?
572cbc43750c471900ed4d0f
class members must join into the class
553
False
What is the American Rule?
572cbc43750c471900ed4d10
parties generally bear their own attorneys' fees
659
False
American civil procedure
11
What does not place much weight on live testimony?
5a79f83417ab25001a8a0226
True
U.S.
334
What country's courts have opt-in class actions?
5a79f83417ab25001a8a0227
True
American Rule
633
What is the name of the opt-out class action?
5a79f83417ab25001a8a0228
True
pretrial "law and motion"
209
What are pretrial dispositions designed to result in?
5a79f83417ab25001a8a0229
True
American Rule
633
American legislators do not provide exceptions for what rule?
5a79f83417ab25001a8a022a
True
Generally, American civil procedure has several notable features, including extensive pretrial discovery, heavy reliance on live testimony obtained at deposition or elicited in front of a jury, and aggressive pretrial "law and motion" practice designed to result in a pretrial disposition (that is, summary judgment) or a settlement. U.S. courts pioneered the concept of the opt-out class action, by which the burden falls on class members to notify the court that they do not wish to be bound by the judgment, as opposed to opt-in class actions, where class members must join into the class. Another unique feature is the so-called American Rule under which parties generally bear their own attorneys' fees (as opposed to the English Rule of "loser pays"), though American legislators and courts have carved out numerous exceptions.
What is criminal law?
572cbceadfb02c14005c6c13
prosecution by the state of wrongful acts
26
False
What type of wrongful act will the state prosecute?
572cbceadfb02c14005c6c14
acts which are considered to be so serious that they are a breach of the sovereign's peace
63
False
What can result in incarceration?
572cbceadfb02c14005c6c15
crimes
244
False
Where are the majority of the U.S.'s crimes prosecuted?
572cbceadfb02c14005c6c16
state level
403
False
Who focuses on things such as evading payment of federal income tax, mail theft, or physical attacks on federal officials, as well as interstate crimes like drug trafficking and wire fraud?
572cbceadfb02c14005c6c17
Federal criminal law
416
False
Criminal law
0
What is it called when the state is prosecuted?
5a7a086317ab25001a8a0230
True
lawsuits
198
Criminal law can be fixed by private parties bringing what?
5a7a086317ab25001a8a0231
True
incarceration
265
What do torts lead to?
5a7a086317ab25001a8a0232
True
state level
403
Where are the minority of US crimes prosecuted?
5a7a086317ab25001a8a0233
True
evading payment of federal income tax, mail theft, or physical attacks on federal officials
507
What is an example of a tort?
5a7a086317ab25001a8a0234
True
Criminal law involves the prosecution by the state of wrongful acts which are considered to be so serious that they are a breach of the sovereign's peace (and cannot be deterred or remedied by mere lawsuits between private parties). Generally, crimes can result in incarceration, but torts (see below) cannot. The majority of the crimes committed in the United States are prosecuted and punished at the state level. Federal criminal law focuses on areas specifically relevant to the federal government like evading payment of federal income tax, mail theft, or physical attacks on federal officials, as well as interstate crimes like drug trafficking and wire fraud.
What two levels of crime are there?
572cbd62750c471900ed4d16
felonies and misdemeanors
44
False
What is a misdemeanor?
572cbd62750c471900ed4d17
minor crimes
71
False
What results in lengthy prison sentences as well as subsequent probation, large fines, and orders to pay restitution directly to victims?
572cbd62750c471900ed4d18
felony convictions
102
False
What usually happens with misdemeanors?
572cbd62750c471900ed4d19
a year or less in jail and a substantial fine
284
False
What is a third level of crime that some states have adopted?
572cbd62750c471900ed4d1a
infractions
454
False
two
32
How many levels of felonies are there?
5a7a08e417ab25001a8a0244
True
minor crimes
71
What are felonies?
5a7a08e417ab25001a8a0245
True
directly to victims
232
Who do misdemeanors pay fines to?
5a7a08e417ab25001a8a0246
True
one's driver's license
519
Misdemeanors may lead to a loss of what?
5a7a08e417ab25001a8a0247
True
infractions
454
What third level do many states remove?
5a7a08e417ab25001a8a0248
True
Some states distinguish between two levels: felonies and misdemeanors (minor crimes). Generally, most felony convictions result in lengthy prison sentences as well as subsequent probation, large fines, and orders to pay restitution directly to victims; while misdemeanors may lead to a year or less in jail and a substantial fine. To simplify the prosecution of traffic violations and other relatively minor crimes, some states have added a third level, infractions. These may result in fines and sometimes the loss of one's driver's license, but no jail time.
What is contract law?
572cbdd6750c471900ed4d20
obligations established by agreement (express or implied) between private parties
20
False
What standardized contract law?
572cbdd6750c471900ed4d21
Uniform Commercial Code
259
False
What kinds of agreements do contract law cover?
572cbdd6750c471900ed4d22
express or implied
58
False
obligations established by agreement (express or implied) between private parties
20
What does contract law not cover?
5a7a0c7c17ab25001a8a0262
True
Uniform Commercial Code
259
What non-standardized contract law?
5a7a0c7c17ab25001a8a0263
True
transactions involving the sale of goods
130
What did the Restatement (Second) of Contracts standardize?
5a7a0c7c17ab25001a8a0264
True
other kinds of contracts
355
The Uniform Commercial Code limited the diversity of what?
5a7a0c7c17ab25001a8a0265
True
express or implied
58
What types of agreements does the Restatement of Contracts cover?
5a7a0c7c17ab25001a8a0266
True
Contract law covers obligations established by agreement (express or implied) between private parties. Generally, contract law in transactions involving the sale of goods has become highly standardized nationwide as a result of the widespread adoption of the Uniform Commercial Code. However, there is still significant diversity in the interpretation of other kinds of contracts, depending upon the extent to which a given state has codified its common law of contracts or adopted portions of the Restatement (Second) of Contracts.
Myanmar
How much a  Myanmar's boundaries are encompassed by beachfront lands?
5726707e708984140094c60b
(1,200 miles) forms an uninterrupted coastline
395
False
How many people dwell in  Myanmar ?
5726707e708984140094c60c
51 million people recorded
566
False
What is the land mass of  Myanmar ?
5726707e708984140094c60d
Myanmar is 676,578 square kilometres (261,227 sq mi) in size
594
False
Is the capital city the holder of the largest amount of the population in  Myanmar ?
5726707e708984140094c60e
largest city is Yangon (Rangoon)
694
False
What is the name of the capital city of Myanmar?
5726707e708984140094c60f
capital city is Naypyidaw
660
False
Myanmar (myan-MAR i/miɑːnˈmɑːr/ mee-ahn-MAR, /miˈɛnmɑːr/ mee-EN-mar or /maɪˈænmɑːr/ my-AN-mar (also with the stress on first syllable); Burmese pronunciation: [mjəmà]),[nb 1] officially the Republic of the Union of Myanmar and also known as Burma, is a sovereign state in Southeast Asia bordered by Bangladesh, India, China, Laos and Thailand. One-third of Myanmar's total perimeter of 1,930 km (1,200 miles) forms an uninterrupted coastline along the Bay of Bengal and the Andaman Sea. The country's 2014 census revealed a much lower population than expected, with 51 million people recorded. Myanmar is 676,578 square kilometres (261,227 sq mi) in size. Its capital city is Naypyidaw and its largest city is Yangon (Rangoon).
What were the names of some of the early cultures located in Myanmar?
572683c7dd62a815002e87e0
Tibeto-Burman-speaking Pyu city-states in Upper Burma and the Mon kingdoms in Lower Burma
44
False
When did the dominant religion of Myanmar become something outside of the mainstream ?
572683c7dd62a815002e87e1
in the 1050s, the Burmese language, culture and Theravada Buddhism slowly became dominant in the country.
261
False
What caused the downfall of the downfall of the the original kingdom in Myanmar?
572683c7dd62a815002e87e2
The Pagan Kingdom fell due to the Mongol invasions and several warring states emerged
367
False
Whose rule  was Myanmar under when it was one of the most massive kingdoms in Southeast Asia ?
572683c7dd62a815002e87e3
Taungoo Dynasty
492
False
When did was Myanmar ruled by the Taungoo Dynasty ?
572683c7dd62a815002e87e4
In the 16th century
454
False
Early civilisations in Myanmar included the Tibeto-Burman-speaking Pyu city-states in Upper Burma and the Mon kingdoms in Lower Burma. In the 9th century, the Bamar people entered the upper Irrawaddy valley and, following the establishment of the Pagan Kingdom in the 1050s, the Burmese language, culture and Theravada Buddhism slowly became dominant in the country. The Pagan Kingdom fell due to the Mongol invasions and several warring states emerged. In the 16th century, reunified by the Taungoo Dynasty, the country was for a brief period the largest empire in the history of Southeast Asia. The early 19th century Konbaung Dynasty ruled over an area that included modern Myanmar and briefly controlled Manipur and Assam as well. The British conquered Myanmar after three Anglo-Burmese Wars in the 19th century and the country became a British colony. Myanmar became an independent nation in 1948, initially as a democratic nation and then, following a coup d'état in 1962, a military dictatorship.
What major conflict is Myanmar known for?
5726872c5951b619008f75c9
one of the world's longest-running ongoing civil wars.
146
False
What portion of the government was eventually separated from government participation?
5726872c5951b619008f75ca
the military junta
359
False
What type of government is now established in Myanmar?
5726872c5951b619008f75cb
a nominally civilian government
442
False
Are previous leaders a hendrence to the current government?
5726872c5951b619008f75cc
former military leaders still wield enormous power in the country
495
False
Has the country been able to overcome the problems of government with the previous regime?
5726872c5951b619008f75cd
Aung San Suu Kyi's party won a majority in both houses, ending military rule.
1034
False
For most of its independent years, the country has been engrossed in rampant ethnic strife and Burma's myriad ethnic groups have been involved in one of the world's longest-running ongoing civil wars. During this time, the United Nations and several other organisations have reported consistent and systematic human rights violations in the country. In 2011, the military junta was officially dissolved following a 2010 general election, and a nominally civilian government was installed. While former military leaders still wield enormous power in the country, Burmese Military have taken steps toward relinquishing control of the government. This, along with the release of Aung San Suu Kyi and political prisoners, has improved the country's human rights record and foreign relations, and has led to the easing of trade and other economic sanctions. There is, however, continuing criticism of the government's treatment of the Muslim Rohingya minority and its poor response to the religious clashes. In the landmark 2015 election, Aung San Suu Kyi's party won a majority in both houses, ending military rule.
Where did the name Burma originate from ?
57268af3dd62a815002e88e8
names are derived from the name of the majority Burmese Bamar ethnic group
101
False
What is the considered to be the name in slang terms for the people of Myanmar?
57268af3dd62a815002e88e9
Burma is derived from "Bamar", the colloquial form of the group's name
255
False
How is the slang term for the people of Burma articulated correctly ?
57268af3dd62a815002e88ea
Depending on the register used, the pronunciation would be Bama (pronounced: [bəmà])
327
False
When did the term for the people of Burma become a common place word in English?
57268af3dd62a815002e88eb
The name Burma has been in use in English since the 18th century.
445
False
In English, the country is popularly known as either "Burma" or "Myanmar" i/ˈmjɑːnˌmɑːr/. Both these names are derived from the name of the majority Burmese Bamar ethnic group. Myanmar is considered to be the literary form of the name of the group, while Burma is derived from "Bamar", the colloquial form of the group's name. Depending on the register used, the pronunciation would be Bama (pronounced: [bəmà]) or Myamah (pronounced: [mjəmà]). The name Burma has been in use in English since the 18th century.
By which name is the country called by most English speaking countries?
57268be2dd62a815002e8902
Burma continues to be used in English by the governments of many countries, such as Australia, Canada and the United Kingdom
0
False
How is Burma officially identified in the United States
57268be2dd62a815002e8903
Burma (Myanmar)
255
False
What is the country called in sessions of the United Nations?
57268be2dd62a815002e8904
United Nations uses Myanmar
469
False
What does the current president of the United States call the country in official settings?
57268be2dd62a815002e8905
Burma (Myanmar)" and Barack Obama has referred to the country by both names
255
False
Burma continues to be used in English by the governments of many countries, such as Australia, Canada and the United Kingdom. Official United States policy retains Burma as the country's name, although the State Department's website lists the country as "Burma (Myanmar)" and Barack Obama has referred to the country by both names. The Czech Republic uses officially Myanmar, although its Ministry of Foreign Affairs mentions both Myanmar and Burma on its website. The United Nations uses Myanmar, as do the Association of Southeast Asian Nations, Russia, Germany, China, India, Norway, and Japan.
What extinct species of hominid that lived throughout most of the Pleistocene geological period is believed to have dwelled in Myanmar?
57268e59708984140094c9f5
Homo erectus
35
False
When was the extinct species believed to have lived in Myanmar?
57268e59708984140094c9f6
400,000 years ago
101
False
What is the name of the civilization that is believed to be one of the oldest.
57268e59708984140094c9f7
Anyathian
218
False
Did any other ancient cultures also leave behind evidence of existence in Myanmar?
57268e59708984140094c9f8
neolithic age domestication of plants and animals and the use of polished stone tools dating to sometime between 10,000 and 6,000 BC has been discovered
292
False
What form was the evidence of ancient cultures discovered in ?
57268e59708984140094c9f9
discovered in the form of cave paintings
434
False
Archaeological evidence shows that Homo erectus lived in the region now known as Myanmar as early as 400,000 years ago. The first evidence of Homo sapiens is dated to about 11,000 BC, in a Stone Age culture called the Anyathian with discoveries of stone tools in central Myanmar. Evidence of neolithic age domestication of plants and animals and the use of polished stone tools dating to sometime between 10,000 and 6,000 BC has been discovered in the form of cave paintings near the city of Taunggyi.
By what name is the era in the 3rd millennium around 1500 BC known?
572690725951b619008f76b9
The Bronze Age
0
False
What events of significance to human development occurred during the Bronze Age ?
572690725951b619008f76ba
people in the region were turning copper into bronze, growing rice
42
False
What event evolving animals are the Myanmar also accredited with being the first to accomplish?
572690725951b619008f76bb
domesticating poultry and pigs
113
False
When did the Age of Iron begin?
572690725951b619008f76bc
The Iron Age began around 500 BC
303
False
What events punctuate the beginning of the Iron Age?
572690725951b619008f76bd
with the emergence of iron-working settlements in an area south of present-day Mandalay
336
False
The Bronze Age arrived circa 1500 BC when people in the region were turning copper into bronze, growing rice and domesticating poultry and pigs; they were among the first people in the world to do so. Human remains and artifacts from this era were discovered in Monywa District in the Sagaing Division. The Iron Age began around 500 BC with the emergence of iron-working settlements in an area south of present-day Mandalay. Evidence also shows the presence of rice-growing settlements of large villages and small towns that traded with their surroundings as far as China between 500 BC and 200 AD. Iron Age Burmese cultures also had influences from outside sources such as India and Thailand, as seen in their funerary practices concerning child burials. This indicates some form of communication between groups in Myanmar and other places, possibly through trade.
What period was the first known city states established in Myanmar?
572691ff708984140094ca75
Around the second century BC
0
False
From what people have were the first records known to be existent derived from?
572691ff708984140094ca76
from present-day Yunnan
260
False
Were any of the early civilizations influenced by each other and if so by what how did it occur?
572691ff708984140094ca77
The Pyu culture was heavily influenced by trade with India
285
False
What Myanmar import from other countries that has been of major importance?
572691ff708984140094ca78
Buddhism as well as other cultural, architectural and political concepts
355
False
Around the second century BC the first-known city-states emerged in central Myanmar. The city-states were founded as part of the southward migration by the Tibeto-Burman-speaking Pyu city-states, the earliest inhabitants of Myanmar of whom records are extant, from present-day Yunnan. The Pyu culture was heavily influenced by trade with India, importing Buddhism as well as other cultural, architectural and political concepts which would have an enduring influence on later Burmese culture and political organisation.
How long did it take for Myanmar to recover from the collapse of it's first kingdom ?
572693cbdd62a815002e8a0c
250 years
33
False
Did the Mongol invasions of Burma leave any lasting signs?
572693cbdd62a815002e8a0d
Shan migrants who arrived with the Mongol invasions stayed behind
151
False
Who was involved merger of the smaller states into the two largest factions of Myanmar ?
572693cbdd62a815002e8a0e
Ava Kingdom and Hanthawaddy Kingdom
435
False
What is the name of the kingdom that became dominant along the coastline of Myanmar?
572693cbdd62a815002e8a0f
Kingdom of Mrauk U
594
False
Pagan's collapse was followed by 250 years of political fragmentation that lasted well into the 16th century. Like the Burmans four centuries earlier, Shan migrants who arrived with the Mongol invasions stayed behind. Several competing Shan States came to dominate the entire northwestern to eastern arc surrounding the Irrawaddy valley. The valley too was beset with petty states until the late 14th century when two sizeable powers, Ava Kingdom and Hanthawaddy Kingdom, emerged. In the west, a politically fragmented Arakan was under competing influences of its stronger neighbours until the Kingdom of Mrauk U unified the Arakan coastline for the first time in 1437.
Was there more than one racial class in the organized societies of the states of Myanmar?
572695bc5951b619008f7753
states were all multi-ethnic polities
53
False
During what age did the culture of Myanmar grow?
572695bc5951b619008f7754
This period is considered a golden age
146
False
Who increased the spread of religious reforms in Myanmar?
572695bc5951b619008f7755
Hanthawaddy monarchs
385
False
Who is the monarch that has some of the most impressive built in their honor in the Myanmar
572695bc5951b619008f7756
Mrauk U
506
False
Like the Pagan Empire, Ava, Hanthawaddy and the Shan states were all multi-ethnic polities. Despite the wars, cultural synchronisation continued. This period is considered a golden age for Burmese culture. Burmese literature "grew more confident, popular, and stylistically diverse", and the second generation of Burmese law codes as well as the earliest pan-Burma chronicles emerged. Hanthawaddy monarchs introduced religious reforms that later spread to the rest of the country. Many splendid temples of Mrauk U were built during this period.
Before attempting to obtain political unification, what title did Taungoo,hold ?
57269ba4708984140094cb8b
a former vassal state of Ava.
87
False
Who was the ruling monarchy when Taungoo, was vassal?
57269ba4708984140094cb8c
king Tabinshwehti
144
False
Who was the ruler of the largest kingdom in Southeast Asia ?
57269ba4708984140094cb8d
Bayinnaung
517
False
In what year did the dynasty of Bayinnaung fully collapse ?
57269ba4708984140094cb8e
1599
570
False
Have any other countries ever established a foot hole in Burma?
57269ba4708984140094cb8f
Portuguese mercenaries established Portuguese rule at Thanlyin (Syriam)
620
False
Political unification returned in the mid-16th century, due to the efforts of Taungoo, a former vassal state of Ava. Taungoo's young, ambitious king Tabinshwehti defeated the more powerful Hanthawaddy in the Toungoo–Hanthawaddy War (1534–41). His successor Bayinnaung went on to conquer a vast swath of mainland Southeast Asia including the Shan states, Lan Na, Manipur, Mong Mao, the Ayutthaya Kingdom, Lan Xang and southern Arakan. However, the largest empire in the history of Southeast Asia unravelled soon after Bayinnaung's death in 1581, completely collapsing by 1599. Ayutthaya seized Tenasserim and Lan Na, and Portuguese mercenaries established Portuguese rule at Thanlyin (Syriam).
How were the Portuguese expelled from Myanmar?
57269d47708984140094cbcf
The dynasty regrouped and defeated the Portuguese
0
False
Did the country have lasting monarchs?
57269d47708984140094cbd0
Toungoo kings created a legal and political framework whose basic features would continue well into the 19th century
222
False
Did the original chieftains maintain power political power?
57269d47708984140094cbd1
The crown completely replaced the hereditary chieftainships with appointed governorships in the entire Irrawaddy valley
340
False
In what year was one of the original Myanmar kingdoms restored?
57269d47708984140094cbd2
In 1740, the Mon of Lower Myanmar founded the Restored Hanthawaddy Kingdom
742
False
The dynasty regrouped and defeated the Portuguese in 1613 and Siam in 1614. It restored a smaller, more manageable kingdom, encompassing Lower Myanmar, Upper Myanmar, Shan states, Lan Na and upper Tenasserim. The Restored Toungoo kings created a legal and political framework whose basic features would continue well into the 19th century. The crown completely replaced the hereditary chieftainships with appointed governorships in the entire Irrawaddy valley, and greatly reduced the hereditary rights of Shan chiefs. Its trade and secular administrative reforms built a prosperous economy for more than 80 years. From the 1720s onward, the kingdom was beset with repeated Meithei raids into Upper Myanmar and a nagging rebellion in Lan Na. In 1740, the Mon of Lower Myanmar founded the Restored Hanthawaddy Kingdom. Hanthawaddy forces sacked Ava in 1752, ending the 266-year-old Toungoo Dynasty.
What was the event called that caused  Ayutthaya  to reclaim lost territories ?
57269fb6708984140094cc13
the Chinese threat
26
False
In what year did  Ayutthaya capture Lan Na  ?
57269fb6708984140094cc14
1776.
124
False
What country was Burma at war with with until 1855 ?
57269fb6708984140094cc15
Arakan
367
False
Who managed to eventually control the territory of Arakan
57269fb6708984140094cc16
King Bodawpaya
329
False
With Burma preoccupied by the Chinese threat, Ayutthaya recovered its territories by 1770, and went on to capture Lan Na by 1776. Burma and Siam went to war until 1855, but all resulted in a stalemate, exchanging Tenasserim (to Burma) and Lan Na (to Ayutthaya). Faced with a powerful China and a resurgent Ayutthaya in the east, King Bodawpaya turned west, acquiring Arakan (1785), Manipur (1814) and Assam (1817). It was the second-largest empire in Burmese history but also one with a long ill-defined border with British India.
What language eventually came to power in the Irrawaddy valley ?
5726a1135951b619008f7839
Burmese language
180
False
What was the literacy rate for the Burmese people during the big period of artistic growth?
5726a1135951b619008f783a
half of all males and 5% of females
393
False
Did changes move along at a uniform pace for the Burmese people?
5726a1135951b619008f783b
pace of reforms were uneven and ultimately proved insufficient
459
False
What country was Burma a colony of ?
5726a1135951b619008f783c
British
545
False
What are the kings of the Konbaung monarchy famed for in their rule?
5726a1135951b619008f783d
Konbaung kings extended Restored Toungoo's administrative reforms, and achieved unprecedented levels of internal control and external expansion
0
False
Konbaung kings extended Restored Toungoo's administrative reforms, and achieved unprecedented levels of internal control and external expansion. For the first time in history, the Burmese language and culture came to predominate the entire Irrawaddy valley. The evolution and growth of Burmese literature and theatre continued, aided by an extremely high adult male literacy rate for the era (half of all males and 5% of females). Nonetheless, the extent and pace of reforms were uneven and ultimately proved insufficient to stem the advance of British colonialism.
have the Burmese people ever shown any reservations about the ruling government bodies?
5726a242dd62a815002e8b8a
Burmese resentment was strong and was vented in violent riots that paralysed Yangon (Rangoon) on occasion all the way until the 1930s.
0
False
What were some of problems experienced with the colonialism of Burma by the British?
5726a242dd62a815002e8b8b
Some of the discontent was caused by a disrespect for Burmese culture and traditions
135
False
How long was U Wisara on a strike were he refused subsistence ?
5726a242dd62a815002e8b8c
166-day hunger strike
408
False
Was U Wisara able to survive  the protest?
5726a242dd62a815002e8b8d
died in prison after a 166-day hunger strike
385
False
Why was U Wisara involved in a resistance movement of such extremes ?
5726a242dd62a815002e8b8e
to protest against a rule that forbade him from wearing his Buddhist robes while imprisoned.
430
False
Burmese resentment was strong and was vented in violent riots that paralysed Yangon (Rangoon) on occasion all the way until the 1930s. Some of the discontent was caused by a disrespect for Burmese culture and traditions such as the British refusal to remove shoes when they entered pagodas. Buddhist monks became the vanguards of the independence movement. U Wisara, an activist monk, died in prison after a 166-day hunger strike to protest against a rule that forbade him from wearing his Buddhist robes while imprisoned.
Was Burma effected by the world wars?
5726a3d7f1498d1400e8e5b8
Burma was devastated during World War II
22
False
Did the British protect Burma as its colony during WWII?
5726a3d7f1498d1400e8e5b9
the British administration had collapsed
165
False
Where groups from Burma an advantage to the Allies during WWII?
5726a3d7f1498d1400e8e5ba
British Chindits were formed into long-range penetration groups trained to operate deep behind Japanese lines. A similar American unit, Merrill's Marauders
317
False
How many soldiers were lost by the Japanese in Burma during WWII ?
5726a3d7f1498d1400e8e5bb
the Japanese lost some 150,000 men in Burma
731
False
When did the temporary Japanese rule end in Burma?
5726a3d7f1498d1400e8e5bc
the end of Japanese rule in July 1945
611
False
A major battleground, Burma was devastated during World War II. By March 1942, within months after they entered the war, Japanese troops had advanced on Rangoon and the British administration had collapsed. A Burmese Executive Administration headed by Ba Maw was established by the Japanese in August 1942. Wingate's British Chindits were formed into long-range penetration groups trained to operate deep behind Japanese lines. A similar American unit, Merrill's Marauders, followed the Chindits into the Burmese jungle in 1943. Beginning in late 1944, allied troops launched a series of offensives that led to the end of Japanese rule in July 1945. The battles were intense with much of Burma laid waste by the fighting. Overall, the Japanese lost some 150,000 men in Burma. Only 1,700 prisoners were taken.
Who negotiated the agreement that Burma would be free from forgien rule ?
5726a579dd62a815002e8bec
Aung San
24
False
What is the name of the agreement that guarantee Burma's freedom from foreign rule ?
5726a579dd62a815002e8bed
the Panglong Agreement
44
False
What leaders were present during the negotiations made for freedom of the Burmese people?
5726a579dd62a815002e8bee
Aung Zan Wai, Pe Khin, Bo Hmu Aung, Sir Maung Gyi, Dr. Sein Mya Maung, Myoma U Than Kywe
151
False
What position did Aung San hold in the Burmese government?
5726a579dd62a815002e8bef
Deputy Chairman of the Executive Council of Myanmar
410
False
When did and how did Aung San pass away ?
5726a579dd62a815002e8bf0
July 1947, political rivals assassinated Aung San
497
False
Following World War II, Aung San negotiated the Panglong Agreement with ethnic leaders that guaranteed the independence of Myanmar as a unified state. Aung Zan Wai, Pe Khin, Bo Hmu Aung, Sir Maung Gyi, Dr. Sein Mya Maung, Myoma U Than Kywe were among the negotiators of the historical Panglong Conference negotiated with Bamar leader General Aung San and other ethnic leaders in 1947. In 1947, Aung San became Deputy Chairman of the Executive Council of Myanmar, a transitional government. But in July 1947, political rivals assassinated Aung San and several cabinet members.
What are the 1988 demonstrations in Burma called?
5726a6b4f1498d1400e8e622
8888 Uprising
170
False
Who lead the government coup in 1988 ?
5726a6b4f1498d1400e8e623
General Saw Maung
240
False
Why was marshal law declared in Burma in 1989?
5726a6b4f1498d1400e8e624
declared martial law after widespread protests.
358
False
What was the official name of Burma changed to by the State Law and Order Restoration Council (SLORC)
5726a6b4f1498d1400e8e625
Union of Myanmar
604
False
Have elections been held in Burma since the military coup in 1988 ?
5726a6b4f1498d1400e8e626
The military government finalised plans for People's Assembly elections on 31 May 1989
406
False
In 1988, unrest over economic mismanagement and political oppression by the government led to widespread pro-democracy demonstrations throughout the country known as the 8888 Uprising. Security forces killed thousands of demonstrators, and General Saw Maung staged a coup d'état and formed the State Law and Order Restoration Council (SLORC). In 1989, SLORC declared martial law after widespread protests. The military government finalised plans for People's Assembly elections on 31 May 1989. SLORC changed the country's official English name from the "Socialist Republic of the Union of Burma" to the "Union of Myanmar" in 1989.
What was the cause of the insurrection in the summer of 2007 ?
5726de88708984140094d421
an increase in the price of diesel and petrol
16
False
What was the name of the insurgency lead by Buddhist Monks?
5726de88708984140094d422
Saffron Revolution
69
False
Did the insurgency lead to any economic changes in Burma ?
5726de88708984140094d423
an increase in economic sanctions against the Burmese Government.
554
False
How did the world respond to the reported acts of military violence during the Burmese revolution of 2007?
5726de88708984140094d424
The military crackdown against unarmed protesters was widely condemned as part of the International reactions
407
False
In August 2007, an increase in the price of diesel and petrol led to Saffron Revolution led by Buddhist monks that were dealt with harshly by the government. The government cracked down on them on 26 September 2007. The crackdown was harsh, with reports of barricades at the Shwedagon Pagoda and monks killed. There were also rumours of disagreement within the Burmese armed forces, but none was confirmed. The military crackdown against unarmed protesters was widely condemned as part of the International reactions to the Saffron Revolution and led to an increase in economic sanctions against the Burmese Government.
What natural disaster caused detrimental effects to the Irrawaddy section of Burma in May of 2008 ?
5726e0d2f1498d1400e8ee6c
Cyclone Nargis
13
False
What is the main crop of the delta of the Irrawaddy section of Burma?
5726e0d2f1498d1400e8ee6d
rice
78
False
How many people were reported missing or deceased due to the natural disaster of 2007 ?
5726e0d2f1498d1400e8ee6e
estimated 200,000 people dead or missing
196
False
How much was the financial cost of the damages of the 2007 natural disaster in Burma ?
5726e0d2f1498d1400e8ee6f
10 billion US Dollars
261
False
Did the government of Myanmar welcome the international efforts of assistance?
5726e0d2f1498d1400e8ee70
Myanmar's isolationist government was accused of hindering United Nations recovery efforts
370
False
In May 2008, Cyclone Nargis caused extensive damage in the densely populated, rice-farming delta of the Irrawaddy Division. It was the worst natural disaster in Burmese history with reports of an estimated 200,000 people dead or missing, and damage totalled to 10 billion US Dollars, and as many as 1 million left homeless. In the critical days following this disaster, Myanmar's isolationist government was accused of hindering United Nations recovery efforts. Humanitarian aid was requested but concerns about foreign military or intelligence presence in the country delayed the entry of United States military planes delivering medicine, food, and other supplies.
In 2012 what was the the disturbance with the government running smoothly ? Burma?
5726e331f1498d1400e8eec6
the number of ongoing conflicts in Myanmar
16
False
Were any religious groups involved in the scrimmages ?
5726e331f1498d1400e8eec7
Pro-Christian Kachin Independence Army a
101
False
Were any terrorist groups involved in the Burmese conflicts ?
5726e331f1498d1400e8eec8
al-Qaeda
575
False
Does al-Qaeda believe that Muslims in Burma are in danger?
5726e331f1498d1400e8eec9
Ayman al-Zawahiri said al-Qaeda had not forgotten the Muslims of Myanmar and that the group was doing "what they can to rescue you".
552
False
Did Muslims in Burma give a repose to statements made by al-Qaeda?
5726e331f1498d1400e8eeca
the Burmese Muslim Association issued a statement saying Muslims would not tolerate any threat to their motherland.
747
False
In October 2012 the number of ongoing conflicts in Myanmar included the Kachin conflict, between the Pro-Christian Kachin Independence Army and the government; a civil war between the Rohingya Muslims, and the government and non-government groups in Rakhine State; and a conflict between the Shan, Lahu and Karen minority groups, and the government in the eastern half of the country. In addition al-Qaeda signalled an intention to become involved in Myanmar. In a video released 3 September 2014 mainly addressed to India, the militant group's leader Ayman al-Zawahiri said al-Qaeda had not forgotten the Muslims of Myanmar and that the group was doing "what they can to rescue you". In response, the military raised its level of alertness while the Burmese Muslim Association issued a statement saying Muslims would not tolerate any threat to their motherland.
What country was Burma involved with in 2015
5726e54d5951b619008f81af
Armed conflict between ethnic Chinese rebels and the Myanmar Armed Forces
0
False
Were there any refuges that resulted from the Burmese conflict in 2015?
5726e54d5951b619008f81b0
The conflict had forced 40,000 to 50,000 civilians to flee their homes and seek shelter
130
False
What was the government of China accused of during the Kokang offensive ?
5726e54d5951b619008f81b1
China was accused of giving military assistance to the ethnic Chinese rebels.
291
False
Is China an affect on the government in Burma ?
5726e54d5951b619008f81b2
Burmese officials have been historically 'manipulated' and pressured by the communist Chinese
369
False
To what benefit of China has its interest in the Burmese government brought about ?
5726e54d5951b619008f81b3
creating a Chinese satellite state in Southeast Asia
554
False
Armed conflict between ethnic Chinese rebels and the Myanmar Armed Forces have resulted in the Kokang offensive in February 2015. The conflict had forced 40,000 to 50,000 civilians to flee their homes and seek shelter on the Chinese side of the border. During the incident the government of China was accused of giving military assistance to the ethnic Chinese rebels. Burmese officials have been historically 'manipulated' and pressured by the communist Chinese government throughout Burmese modern history to create closer and binding ties with China, creating a Chinese satellite state in Southeast Asia.
Where the elections of 2010 conducted fairly in Burma?
5726e65f5951b619008f81d3
allegations of polling station irregularities were raised
434
False
Were the results of the 2010 elections accepted by the United Nations?
5726e65f5951b619008f81d4
the United Nations (UN) and a number of Western countries condemned the elections as fraudulent.
497
False
What is the name that Burma held before 2010?
5726e65f5951b619008f81d5
Union of Myanmar
218
False
Why was the referendum in 2008 ?
5726e65f5951b619008f81d6
the creation of a "discipline-flourishing democracy"
83
False
The goal of the Burmese constitutional referendum of 2008, held on 10 May 2008, is the creation of a "discipline-flourishing democracy". As part of the referendum process, the name of the country was changed from the "Union of Myanmar" to the "Republic of the Union of Myanmar", and general elections were held under the new constitution in 2010. Observer accounts of the 2010 election describe the event as mostly peaceful; however, allegations of polling station irregularities were raised, and the United Nations (UN) and a number of Western countries condemned the elections as fraudulent.
Is Burma now a democratic nation?
5726e7a1dd62a815002e9496
Opinions differ whether the transition to liberal democracy is underway
0
False
Does the military still have a government presence in Burma ?
5726e7a1dd62a815002e9497
the military's presence continues
100
False
What type of government does Burma operate under ?
5726e7a1dd62a815002e9498
'disciplined democracy
147
False
Does the military presence interfere with the day to day running of the government ?
5726e7a1dd62a815002e9499
reforms only occurred when the military was able to safeguard its own interests
370
False
Opinions differ whether the transition to liberal democracy is underway. According to some reports, the military's presence continues as the label 'disciplined democracy' suggests. This label asserts that the Burmese military is allowing certain civil liberties while clandestinely institutionalising itself further into Burmese politics. Such an assertion assumes that reforms only occurred when the military was able to safeguard its own interests through the transition—here, "transition" does not refer to a transition to a liberal democracy, but transition to a quasi-military rule.
In what direction is the government of Burma ultimately attempting to go?
5726e9475951b619008f823d
reforms to direct the country towards liberal democracy
68
False
What type of economy is Burma attempting to reach?
5726e9475951b619008f823e
a mixed economy
125
False
Where was  Aung San Suu Kyi confined during his imprisonment in Burma ?
5726e9475951b619008f823f
house arrest
321
False
What happened to the political prisoner being held in Burma ?
5726e9475951b619008f8240
granting of general amnesties for more than 200 political prisoners
398
False
Are groups who represent workers allowed to express their opinions in protest in Burma?
5726e9475951b619008f8241
new labour laws that permit labour unions and strikes
467
False
Since the 2010 election, the government has embarked on a series of reforms to direct the country towards liberal democracy, a mixed economy, and reconciliation, although doubts persist about the motives that underpin such reforms. The series of reforms includes the release of pro-democracy leader Aung San Suu Kyi from house arrest, the establishment of the National Human Rights Commission, the granting of general amnesties for more than 200 political prisoners, new labour laws that permit labour unions and strikes, a relaxation of press censorship, and the regulation of currency practices.
Have the changes in Burmese law been of benefit to the country in international views ?
5726eac7708984140094d5db
approval of Myanmar's bid for the position of ASEAN chair in 2014; the visit by United States Secretary of State Hillary Clinton
95
False
Who was the United States Secretary of State who visited Myanmar in 2014?
5726eac7708984140094d5dc
Secretary of State Hillary Clinton
189
False
How long was the interval between the visits from the United States Secretary of State officials ?
5726eac7708984140094d5dd
more than fifty years
333
False
What political party does Aung San Suu Kyi belong to ?
5726eac7708984140094d5de
National League for Democracy (NLD) party
529
False
The impact of the post-election reforms has been observed in numerous areas, including ASEAN's approval of Myanmar's bid for the position of ASEAN chair in 2014; the visit by United States Secretary of State Hillary Clinton in December 2011 for the encouragement of further progress—it was the first visit by a Secretary of State in more than fifty years (Clinton met with the Burmese president and former military commander Thein Sein, as well as opposition leader Aung San Suu Kyi); and the participation of Aung San Suu Kyi's National League for Democracy (NLD) party in the 2012 by-elections, facilitated by the government's abolition of the laws that previously barred the NLD. As of July 2013, about 100 political prisoners remain imprisoned, while conflict between the Burmese Army and local insurgent groups continues.
Does the political party of Aung San Suu Ky hold any positions among the ruling faction ?
5726ecdd5951b619008f827d
43 of the 45 available seats
41
False
Are international monitors used in the elections of Burma ?
5726ecdd5951b619008f827e
The 2012 by-elections were also the first time that international representatives were allowed to monitor the voting process in Myanmar
165
False
Who raised concerns of fraud in the elections held in the Burma 2012 elections ?
5726ecdd5951b619008f827f
the Freedom House organisation raised concerns
346
False
Who was expelled from Myanmar before the elections of 2012 and what position did they hold ?
5726ecdd5951b619008f8280
Somsri Hananuntasuk, executive director of the Asian Network for Free Elections (ANFREL)
499
False
Did all of the political prisoners obtain freedom due to the election in Burma of 2012 ?
5726ecdd5951b619008f8281
some other political prisoners have not been released
699
False
In 1 April 2012 by-elections the NLD won 43 of the 45 available seats; previously an illegal organisation, the NLD had never won a Burmese election until this time. The 2012 by-elections were also the first time that international representatives were allowed to monitor the voting process in Myanmar. Following announcement of the by-elections, the Freedom House organisation raised concerns about "reports of fraud and harassment in the lead up to elections, including the March 23 deportation of Somsri Hananuntasuk, executive director of the Asian Network for Free Elections (ANFREL), a regional network of civil society organisations promoting democratization." However, uncertainties exist as some other political prisoners have not been released and clashes between Burmese troops and local insurgent groups continue.
What countries surround the border that is opposite the southwest border of Burma?
5726ee69f1498d1400e8f03a
Burma is bordered in the northwest by the Chittagong Division of Bangladesh and the Mizoram
0
False
What sea is an integral part of the Burma landscape ?
5726ee69f1498d1400e8f03b
Andaman Sea to the southwest and the south, which forms one quarter of its total perimeter.
427
False
How many miles of uninterrupted coastline does Burma encompass?
5726ee69f1498d1400e8f03c
1,200 mi
365
False
What is the name of the bay along the southwest coast of Burma ?
5726ee69f1498d1400e8f03d
Bay of Bengal
409
False
What region lays along the north border of Burma and is famed for the presence of monks ?
5726ee69f1498d1400e8f03e
the Tibet Autonomous Region
189
False
Burma is bordered in the northwest by the Chittagong Division of Bangladesh and the Mizoram, Manipur, Nagaland and Arunachal Pradesh states of India. Its north and northeast border is with the Tibet Autonomous Region and Yunnan province for a Sino-Burman border total of 2,185 km (1,358 mi). It is bounded by Laos and Thailand to the southeast. Burma has 1,930 km (1,200 mi) of contiguous coastline along the Bay of Bengal and Andaman Sea to the southwest and the south, which forms one quarter of its total perimeter.
Where does the majority of the Burmese country fall on the globe ?
5726f01c5951b619008f82d1
Much of the country lies between the Tropic of Cancer and the Equator
0
False
How much rain is received in the region where Burma is located ?
5726f01c5951b619008f82d2
5,000 mm (196.9 in) of rain annually
150
False
What is the expected rainfall in the zone considered to be dry in Burma ?
5726f01c5951b619008f82d3
1,000 mm (39.4 in
339
False
What is the average temperature of the coldest  part of Burma and where is it located ?
5726f01c5951b619008f82d4
The Northern regions of Myanmar are the coolest, with average temperatures of 21 °C (70 °F).
359
False
How warm does it get at the height of summer along the in the delta and coastal regions of Burma?
5726f01c5951b619008f82d5
Coastal and delta regions have an average maximum temperature of 32 °C (89.6 °F).
452
False
Much of the country lies between the Tropic of Cancer and the Equator. It lies in the monsoon region of Asia, with its coastal regions receiving over 5,000 mm (196.9 in) of rain annually. Annual rainfall in the delta region is approximately 2,500 mm (98.4 in), while average annual rainfall in the Dry Zone in central Myanmar is less than 1,000 mm (39.4 in). The Northern regions of Myanmar are the coolest, with average temperatures of 21 °C (70 °F). Coastal and delta regions have an average maximum temperature of 32 °C (89.6 °F).
What industry is supported by animal labor in Burma ?
5726f19edd62a815002e95e2
the lumber industry
265
False
What animals where domesticated in Burma for industry use ?
5726f19edd62a815002e95e3
elephants, which are also tamed or bred in captivity for use as work animals
171
False
What is note worthy about the bird population of Burma ?
5726f19edd62a815002e95e4
The abundance of birds is notable with over 800 species
382
False
What is an important protein source  in the Burmese diet?
5726f19edd62a815002e95e5
Hundreds of species of freshwater fish
599
False
Are large jungle cats part of the animal population of Burma ?
5726f19edd62a815002e95e6
Typical jungle animals, particularly tigers and leopards, occur sparsely in Myanmar
0
False
Typical jungle animals, particularly tigers and leopards, occur sparsely in Myanmar. In upper Myanmar, there are rhinoceros, wild buffalo, wild boars, deer, antelope, and elephants, which are also tamed or bred in captivity for use as work animals, particularly in the lumber industry. Smaller mammals are also numerous, ranging from gibbons and monkeys to flying foxes and tapirs. The abundance of birds is notable with over 800 species, including parrots, peafowl, pheasants, crows, herons, and paddybirds. Among reptile species there are crocodiles, geckos, cobras, Burmese pythons, and turtles. Hundreds of species of freshwater fish are wide-ranging, plentiful and are very important food sources. For a list of protected areas, see List of protected areas of Myanmar.
What was the name of the winning unit in the 2010 elections in Burma ?
5726f39d5951b619008f8347
The elections of 2010 resulted in a victory for the military-backed Union Solidarity and Development Party
0
False
Were the elections held in an unbiased manner Burma in 2010 ?
5726f39d5951b619008f8348
Various foreign observers questioned the fairness of the elections.
108
False
What were some of the opinions foreign advisers stated about the Burma 2010 elections ?
5726f39d5951b619008f8349
One criticism of the election was that only government sanctioned political parties were allowed to contest in it
176
False
What was the Burmese official decision concerning the legitimacy of National League for Democracy in 2010 ?
5726f39d5951b619008f834a
the popular National League for Democracy was declared illegal
294
False
The elections of 2010 resulted in a victory for the military-backed Union Solidarity and Development Party. Various foreign observers questioned the fairness of the elections. One criticism of the election was that only government sanctioned political parties were allowed to contest in it and the popular National League for Democracy was declared illegal. However, immediately following the elections, the government ended the house arrest of the democracy advocate and leader of the National League for Democracy, Aung San Suu Kyi, and her ability to move freely around the country is considered an important test of the military's movement toward more openness. After unexpected reforms in 2011, NLD senior leaders have decided to register as a political party and to field candidates in future by-elections.
How have international relations developed due to the recent political changes in Burma ?
5726f517dd62a815002e963a
relations have thawed since the reforms following the 2010 elections.
95
False
What did the United States do in response to the reform changes of the 2010 Burma elections ?
5726f517dd62a815002e963b
the United States relaxed curbs on foreign aid to Myanmar in November 2011 and announced the resumption of diplomatic relations
238
False
What type of activity has the European Union engaged in in response to the reforms made in Burma ?
5726f517dd62a815002e963c
sanctions on Myanmar, including an arms embargo, cessation of trade preferences, and suspension of all aid with the exception of humanitarian aid.
415
False
How did the United States treat Myanmar prior to the changes made in Burmese government ?
5726f517dd62a815002e963d
years of diplomatic isolation and economic and military sanctions
171
False
Though the country's foreign relations, particularly with Western nations, have been strained, relations have thawed since the reforms following the 2010 elections. After years of diplomatic isolation and economic and military sanctions, the United States relaxed curbs on foreign aid to Myanmar in November 2011 and announced the resumption of diplomatic relations on 13 January 2012 The European Union has placed sanctions on Myanmar, including an arms embargo, cessation of trade preferences, and suspension of all aid with the exception of humanitarian aid.
How are international businesses discouraged from operating in Burma?
5726f64b708984140094d721
Sanctions imposed by the United States and European countries against the former military government, coupled with boycotts
0
False
What was the result for internationals companies attempting to conduct business in Burma ?
5726f64b708984140094d722
the withdrawal from the country of most US and many European companies
224
False
Who called for the sanctions in Burma to be given reprieve ?
5726f64b708984140094d723
British Prime Minister David Cameron
313
False
What did Aung San Suu Kyi become a part of in Burma ?
5726f64b708984140094d724
the Burmese parliament
574
False
Sanctions imposed by the United States and European countries against the former military government, coupled with boycotts and other direct pressure on corporations by supporters of the democracy movement, have resulted in the withdrawal from the country of most US and many European companies. On 13 April 2012 British Prime Minister David Cameron called for the economic sanctions on Myanmar to be suspended in the wake of the pro-democracy party gaining 43 seats out of a possible 45 in the 2012 by-elections with the party leader, Aung San Suu Kyi becoming a member of the Burmese parliament.
How do Asian countries feel about the European attitude towards Burma ?
5726f798f1498d1400e8f140
Asian corporations have generally remained willing to continue investing in the country and to initiate new investments
27
False
What is a popular business for international Asian countries in Burma ?
5726f798f1498d1400e8f141
natural resource extraction.
164
False
What two countries does Burma have Superior relationships with ?
5726f798f1498d1400e8f142
India and China
243
False
What is the benefit to the two countries involved in the  India Look East policy ?
5726f798f1498d1400e8f143
fields of co-operation between India and Myanmar include remote sensing, oil and gas exploration, information technology, hydro power and construction
359
False
Despite Western isolation, Asian corporations have generally remained willing to continue investing in the country and to initiate new investments, particularly in natural resource extraction. The country has close relations with neighbouring India and China with several Indian and Chinese companies operating in the country. Under India's Look East policy, fields of co-operation between India and Myanmar include remote sensing, oil and gas exploration, information technology, hydro power and construction of ports and buildings.
Why did India stop supporting the military in Myanmar in 2008 ?
5726f8ad5951b619008f83ab
over the issue of human rights abuses by the ruling junta
49
False
Did the military sanctions imposed by India affect the business workings of it's relations in Burma ?
5726f8ad5951b619008f83ac
it has preserved extensive commercial ties
117
False
Who helped to improve the relations between India and Burma?
5726f8ad5951b619008f83ad
Belarusian Prime Minister Mikhail Myasnikovich and his wife Ludmila
266
False
What city in Burma was visited by the envoy from India
5726f8ad5951b619008f83ae
the capital, Naypyidaw
345
False
In 2008, India suspended military aid to Myanmar over the issue of human rights abuses by the ruling junta, although it has preserved extensive commercial ties, which provide the regime with much-needed revenue. The thaw in relations began on 28 November 2011, when Belarusian Prime Minister Mikhail Myasnikovich and his wife Ludmila arrived in the capital, Naypyidaw, the same day as the country received a visit by US Secretary of State Hillary Rodham Clinton, who also met with pro-democracy opposition leader Aung San Suu Kyi. International relations progress indicators continued in September 2012 when Aung San Suu Kyi visited to the US followed by Myanmar's reformist president visit to the United Nations.
Who is the first official Burmese delegate to visit the white house following the 2010 elections in Burma ?
5726fa32f1498d1400e8f1a6
Thein Sein became the first Myanmar president to visit the White House in 47 years
13
False
When was the most prior visit from a Burmese representative to the  United States prior to 2010 ?
5726fa32f1498d1400e8f1a7
the last Burmese leader to visit the White House was Ne Win in September 1966
97
False
Was the visit from the Burmese delegate welcome in the United States in 2010?
5726fa32f1498d1400e8f1a8
Political activists objected to the visit due to concerns over human rights abuses in Myanmar
331
False
Did the visit to the United States result in the release of political prisoners in Burma ?
5726fa32f1498d1400e8f1a9
leaders discussed to release more political prisoners
500
False
What agreements were made in the visit to the United States by the Burmese in the 21 century ?
5726fa32f1498d1400e8f1aa
to sign a bilateral trade and investment framework agreement on 21 May 2013.
682
False
In May 2013, Thein Sein became the first Myanmar president to visit the White House in 47 years; the last Burmese leader to visit the White House was Ne Win in September 1966. President Barack Obama praised the former general for political and economic reforms, and the cessation of tensions between Myanmar and the United States. Political activists objected to the visit due to concerns over human rights abuses in Myanmar but Obama assured Thein Sein that Myanmar will receive US support. The two leaders discussed to release more political prisoners, the institutionalisation of political reform and rule of law, and ending ethnic conflict in Myanmar—the two governments agreed to sign a bilateral trade and investment framework agreement on 21 May 2013.
What country has provided Burma with the most military aid ?
5726fb60708984140094d791
Myanmar has received extensive military aid from China
0
False
How long has Burma participated in the group ASEAN ?
5726fb60708984140094d792
Myanmar has been a member of ASEAN since 1997
67
False
What year was Myanmar the host for the ASEAN conference?
5726fb60708984140094d793
hosted the summit in 2014
225
False
What event caused tension between Burma and Bangladesh in 2008 ?
5726fb60708984140094d794
natural gas in a disputed block of the Bay of Bengal
370
False
Myanmar has received extensive military aid from China in the past Myanmar has been a member of ASEAN since 1997. Though it gave up its turn to hold the ASEAN chair and host the ASEAN Summit in 2006, it chaired the forum and hosted the summit in 2014. In November 2008, Myanmar's political situation with neighbouring Bangladesh became tense as they began searching for natural gas in a disputed block of the Bay of Bengal. Controversy surrounding the Rohingya population also remains an issue between Bangladesh and Myanmar.
What is the name of the military in Burma ?
5726fc4f708984140094d7bd
Tatmadaw
40
False
How large is the military of Burma ?
5726fc4f708984140094d7be
numbers 488,000
56
False
Which traditional branches of the military does Burma have?
5726fc4f708984140094d7bf
Army, the Navy, and the Air Force
100
False
What ranking does Burma hold for the number of troops currently serving on active military duty ?
5726fc4f708984140094d7c0
The country ranked twelfth in the world for its number of active troops in service.
135
False
From where does Burma receive most of its military artillery ?
5726fc4f708984140094d7c1
Myanmar imports most of its weapons from Russia, Ukraine, China and India.
507
False
Myanmar's armed forces are known as the Tatmadaw, which numbers 488,000. The Tatmadaw comprises the Army, the Navy, and the Air Force. The country ranked twelfth in the world for its number of active troops in service. The military is very influential in Myanmar, with all top cabinet and ministry posts usually held by military officials. Official figures for military spending are not available. Estimates vary widely because of uncertain exchange rates, but Myanmar's military forces' expenses are high. Myanmar imports most of its weapons from Russia, Ukraine, China and India.
What did the United adopt in reference to Burma annually until 2005 ?
5726fde1708984140094d7db
Until 2005, the United Nations General Assembly annually adopted a detailed resolution about the situation in Myanmar by consensus.
0
False
What occurred in the United Nations general convening in 2006 ?
5726fde1708984140094d7dc
voted through a resolution that strongly called upon the government of Myanmar to end its systematic violations of human rights.
186
False
What did China and Russia both do in 2008 ?
5726fde1708984140094d7dd
vetoed a draft resolution before the United Nations Security Council calling on the government of Myanmar
349
False
What other countries were in disagreement with the United Nations decision on Burma ?
5726fde1708984140094d7de
South Africa
514
False
Until 2005, the United Nations General Assembly annually adopted a detailed resolution about the situation in Myanmar by consensus. But in 2006 a divided United Nations General Assembly voted through a resolution that strongly called upon the government of Myanmar to end its systematic violations of human rights. In January 2007, Russia and China vetoed a draft resolution before the United Nations Security Council calling on the government of Myanmar to respect human rights and begin a democratic transition. South Africa also voted against the resolution.
What is the general view of Burma ?
5726fe6cdd62a815002e9722
military regime in Myanmar is one of the world's most repressive and abusive regimes
28
False
Who is Samantha Power?
5726fe6cdd62a815002e9723
Barack Obama's Special Assistant to the President on Human Rights
148
False
What did Ms Powers write concerning Burma ?
5726fe6cdd62a815002e9724
"Serious human rights abuses against civilians in several regions continue, including against women and children
286
False
There is consensus that the military regime in Myanmar is one of the world's most repressive and abusive regimes. In November 2012, Samantha Power, Barack Obama's Special Assistant to the President on Human Rights, wrote on the White House blog in advance of the president's visit that "Serious human rights abuses against civilians in several regions continue, including against women and children." Members of the United Nations and major international human rights organisations have issued repeated and consistent reports of widespread and systematic human rights violations in Myanmar. The United Nations General Assembly has repeatedly called on the Burmese Military Junta to respect human rights and in November 2009 the General Assembly adopted a resolution "strongly condemning the ongoing systematic violations of human rights and fundamental freedoms" and calling on the Burmese Military Regime "to take urgent measures to put an end to violations of international human rights and humanitarian law."
What are the names of some of the  human right organizations that have been involved in Burmese relations.
5726ff49708984140094d801
Human Rights Watch, Amnesty International and the American Association for the Advancement of Science
51
False
In 2011 what did the group Freedom House say concerning the Burma military?
5726ff49708984140094d802
The military junta has ... suppressed nearly all basic rights; and committed human rights abuses with impunity
303
False
How many prisoners are still held in Burma on political crimes?
5726ff49708984140094d803
In July 2013, the Assistance Association for Political Prisoners indicated that there were approximately 100 political prisoners being held
416
False
International human rights organisations including Human Rights Watch, Amnesty International and the American Association for the Advancement of Science have repeatedly documented and condemned widespread human rights violations in Myanmar. The Freedom in the World 2011 report by Freedom House notes, "The military junta has ... suppressed nearly all basic rights; and committed human rights abuses with impunity." In July 2013, the Assistance Association for Political Prisoners indicated that there were approximately 100 political prisoners being held in Burmese prisons.
How are children used in the conflicts in Burma?
5726fff9708984140094d815
Child soldiers have and continue to play a major part in the Burmese Army as well as Burmese rebel movements.
0
False
How are children obtained for use as solders in Burma ?
5726fff9708984140094d816
Children are being sold as conscripts into the Burmese military for as little as $40 and a bag of rice or a can of petrol
154
False
How many child solders were released from the Burmese military in 2012 ?
5726fff9708984140094d817
the Myanmar Armed Forces released 42 child soldiers
624
False
Child soldiers have and continue to play a major part in the Burmese Army as well as Burmese rebel movements. The Independent reported in June 2012 that "Children are being sold as conscripts into the Burmese military for as little as $40 and a bag of rice or a can of petrol." The UN's Special Representative of the Secretary-General for Children and Armed Conflict, Radhika Coomaraswamy, who stepped down from her position a week later, met representatives of the Government of Myanmar on 5 July 2012 and stated that she hoped the government's signing of an action plan would "signal a transformation." In September 2012, the Myanmar Armed Forces released 42 child soldiers and the International Labour Organization met with representatives of the government as well as the Kachin Independence Army to secure the release of more child soldiers. According to Samantha Power, a US delegation raised the issue of child soldiers with the government in October 2012. However, she did not comment on the government's progress towards reform in this area.
What section of the Burmese population is routinely discriminated against ?
572701bd708984140094d85d
The Rohingya people
0
False
When was the citizenship laws placed into effect in Burma ?
572701bd708984140094d85e
1982
290
False
How does one become a full citizen in Burma ?
572701bd708984140094d85f
Citizenship is given to those who belong to one of the national races
426
False
What races are considered for full citizenship in Burma?
572701bd708984140094d860
national races such as Kachin, Kayah (Karenni), Karen, Chin, Burman, Mon, Rakhine, Shan, Kaman, or Zerbadee
481
False
What happens if one is not able to prove ancestral claim on full citizenship ?
572701bd708984140094d861
Associate citizenship is given to those who cannot prove their ancestors settled in Myanmar before 1823
590
False
When did the Rohingya lose citizenship rights in Burma?
57287f113acd2414000dfa47
the Rohingya have been denied Burmese citizenship since the enactment of a 1982 citizenship law
215
False
How is the decision made on who gets full citizenship rights in Burma?
57287f113acd2414000dfa48
Citizenship is given to those who belong to one of the national races
426
False
What races are considered to be the of the the national races in Burma ?
57287f113acd2414000dfa49
national races such as Kachin, Kayah (Karenni), Karen, Chin, Burman, Mon, Rakhine, Shan, Kaman, or Zerbadee.
481
False
How can one prove their race in Burma ?
57287f113acd2414000dfa4a
prove their ancestors settled in Myanmar before 1823
641
False
How many of the  Rohingya people have new changes in citizenship caused to become refugees ?
57287f113acd2414000dfa4b
expulsion of approximately half of the 800,000 Rohingya from Burma,
1258
False
The Rohingya people have consistently faced human rights abuses by the Burmese regime that has refused to acknowledge them as Burmese citizens (despite some of them having lived in Burma for over three generations)—the Rohingya have been denied Burmese citizenship since the enactment of a 1982 citizenship law. The law created three categories of citizenship: citizenship, associate citizenship, and naturalised citizenship. Citizenship is given to those who belong to one of the national races such as Kachin, Kayah (Karenni), Karen, Chin, Burman, Mon, Rakhine, Shan, Kaman, or Zerbadee. Associate citizenship is given to those who cannot prove their ancestors settled in Myanmar before 1823, but can prove they have one grandparent, or pre-1823 ancestor, who was a citizen of another country, as well as people who applied for citizenship in 1948 and qualified then by those laws. Naturalized citizenship is only given to those who have at least one parent with one of these types of Burmese citizenship or can provide "conclusive evidence" that their parents entered and resided in Burma prior to independence in 1948. The Burmese regime has attempted to forcibly expel Rohingya and bring in non-Rohingyas to replace them—this policy has resulted in the expulsion of approximately half of the 800,000 Rohingya from Burma, while the Rohingya people have been described as "among the world's least wanted" and "one of the world's most persecuted minorities." But the origin of ‘most persecuted minority’ statement is unclear.
What is believed to be one of the potential religious instigators for the stiff in Burma against a certain race ?
572883b9ff5b5019007da284
suggested that the Rohingya conflict may be driven by an Islamist political agenda to impose religious laws
41
False
Who occupied Burma during the Second World War ?
572883b9ff5b5019007da285
the Japanese
270
False
What system of militaristic management exists in Burma?
572883b9ff5b5019007da286
the Tatmadaw
502
False
What may have caused negative feeling to still linger among the different races of the Burmese people ?
572883b9ff5b5019007da287
lingering resentment over the violence that occurred during the Japanese occupation
210
False
Who did the British choose to back in Burma during WWII ?
572883b9ff5b5019007da288
British allied themselves with the Rohingya
347
False
In 2007 the German professor Bassam Tibi suggested that the Rohingya conflict may be driven by an Islamist political agenda to impose religious laws, while non-religious causes have also been raised, such as a lingering resentment over the violence that occurred during the Japanese occupation of Burma in World War II—during this time period the British allied themselves with the Rohingya and fought against the puppet government of Burma (composed mostly of Bamar Japanese) that helped to establish the Tatmadaw military organisation that remains in power as of March 2013.
Has the violence in Burma decreased over the years as the country has tried made democratic strides ?
572886362ca10214002da43e
Since the democratic transition began in 2011, there has been continuous violence as 280 people have been killed and 140,000 forced to flee
0
False
Are the separate religious factions in Burma able to peacefully coexist ?
572886362ca10214002da43f
unrest had re-emerged between Myanmar's Buddhist and Muslim communities, with violence
218
False
What news company  discovered visual evidence of the disdain exhibited by civil employees and civilians in Burma ?
572886362ca10214002da440
BBC News media outlet obtained video footage of a man with severe burns who received no assistance from passers-by or police officers
363
False
Who recorded the visual evidence on the disdainful incident?
572886362ca10214002da441
footage was filmed by members of the Burmese police force in the town of Meiktila
558
False
Who was the videotape used as evidence against in Burma ?
572886362ca10214002da442
used as evidence that Buddhists continued to kill Muslims after the European Union sanctions were lifted on 23 April 2013.
648
False
Since the democratic transition began in 2011, there has been continuous violence as 280 people have been killed and 140,000 forced to flee from their homes in the Rakhine state. A UN envoy reported in March 2013 that unrest had re-emerged between Myanmar's Buddhist and Muslim communities, with violence spreading to towns that are located closer to Yangon. The BBC News media outlet obtained video footage of a man with severe burns who received no assistance from passers-by or police officers even though he was lying on the ground in a public area. The footage was filmed by members of the Burmese police force in the town of Meiktila and was used as evidence that Buddhists continued to kill Muslims after the European Union sanctions were lifted on 23 April 2013.
What was believed to be one of the Burma reasons for the unrest in 2012 ?
57288a732ca10214002da452
many commentators citing the killing of ten Burmese Muslims by ethnic Rakhine
50
False
How many are believed to have been uprooted by this unrest ?
57288a732ca10214002da453
It displaced more than 52,000 people
669
False
Who is the president of the BROUK's UK division?
57288a732ca10214002da454
Tun Khin
309
False
How many people where missing after the 2012 Burma civil unrest ?
57288a732ca10214002da455
1,200 are missing
434
False
The immediate cause of the riots is unclear, with many commentators citing the killing of ten Burmese Muslims by ethnic Rakhine after the rape and murder of a Rakhine woman as the main cause. Whole villages have been "decimated". Over 300 houses and a number of public buildings have been razed. According to Tun Khin, the president of the Burmese Rohingya Organisation UK (BROUK), as of 28 June 2012, 650 Rohingyas have been killed, 1,200 are missing, and more than 80,000 have been displaced. According to the Myanmar authorities, the violence, between ethnic Rakhine Buddhists and Rohingya Muslims, left 78 people dead, 87 injured, and thousands of homes destroyed. It displaced more than 52,000 people.
How did the Burmese government respond to the unrest in 2012 ?
57288c223acd2414000dfad1
The government has responded by imposing curfews and by deploying troops in the regions
0
False
What happened in Rakhine in the summer of 2012 that had severe implications on the running of the location?
57288c223acd2414000dfad2
On 10 June 2012, a state of emergency was declared in Rakhine, allowing the military to participate in administration of the region
89
False
What have the military and law enforcement been denounced for in the matter of  summer of 2012 ?
57288c223acd2414000dfad3
The Burmese army and police have been accused of targeting Rohingya Muslims through mass arrests and arbitrary violence
222
False
How have the friar organizations contributed to the struggle in Burma?
57288c223acd2414000dfad4
monks' organisations that played a vital role in Myanmar's struggle for democracy have taken measures to block any humanitarian assistance to the Rohingya
355
False
The government has responded by imposing curfews and by deploying troops in the regions. On 10 June 2012, a state of emergency was declared in Rakhine, allowing the military to participate in administration of the region. The Burmese army and police have been accused of targeting Rohingya Muslims through mass arrests and arbitrary violence. A number of monks' organisations that played a vital role in Myanmar's struggle for democracy have taken measures to block any humanitarian assistance to the Rohingya community.
Have there been any changes to restrictions placed on the communications networks in Burma ?
57288e8eff5b5019007da2e6
Restrictions on media censorship were significantly eased in August 2012
0
False
If communications restrictions have changed how so?
57288e8eff5b5019007da2e7
The most significant change has come in the form that media organisations will no longer have to submit their content to a censorship board before publication.
196
False
What is the name of the newspaper that was banished from Burma?
57288e8eff5b5019007da2e8
The Irrawaddy
415
False
What is required of commentators before publishing or airing content ?
57288e8eff5b5019007da2e9
journalists "are required to follow 16 guidelines towards protecting the three national causes
572
False
What did demonstrators wear during the media rally?
57288e8eff5b5019007da2ea
wore shirts demanding that the government "Stop Killing the Press.
128
False
Restrictions on media censorship were significantly eased in August 2012 following demonstrations by hundreds of protesters who wore shirts demanding that the government "Stop Killing the Press." The most significant change has come in the form that media organisations will no longer have to submit their content to a censorship board before publication. However, as explained by one editorial in the exiled press The Irrawaddy, this new "freedom" has caused some Burmese journalists to simply see the new law as an attempt to create an environment of self-censorship as journalists "are required to follow 16 guidelines towards protecting the three national causes — non-disintegration of the Union, non-disintegration of national solidarity, perpetuation of sovereignty — and "journalistic ethics" to ensure their stories are accurate and do not jeopardise national security." In July 2014 five journalists were sentenced to 10 years in jail after publishing a report saying the country was planning to build a new chemical weapons plant. Journalists described the jailings as a blow to the recently-won news media freedoms that had followed five decades of censorship and persecution.
What is the name of the individuals who gave relevant information on the recent events in Burma ?
5728e3113acd2414000e011d
the Crisis Group
13
False
Have there been any advances in the human rights situation in Myanmar?
5728e3113acd2414000e011e
the country's human rights record has been improving
94
False
What is the current rating of for Burma from the  Freedom in the World report and what caused the current standing ?
5728e3113acd2414000e011f
Myanmar improved yet again, receiving a score of five in civil liberties and a six in political freedom
414
False
What was the previous rating for Burma?
5728e3113acd2414000e0120
lowest rating of 7
178
False
What caused Myanmar to receive a rating of 6?
5728e3113acd2414000e0121
improvements in civil liberties and political rights, the release of political prisoners, and a loosening of restrictions.
282
False
According to the Crisis Group, since Myanmar transitioned to a new government in August 2011, the country's human rights record has been improving. Previously giving Myanmar its lowest rating of 7, the 2012 Freedom in the World report also notes improvement, giving Myanmar a 6 for improvements in civil liberties and political rights, the release of political prisoners, and a loosening of restrictions. In 2013, Myanmar improved yet again, receiving a score of five in civil liberties and a six in political freedoms
What did the government bring together ?
5728e4a93acd2414000e0145
National Human Rights Commission
31
False
Once the decision was made to bring the group together who was it comprised of ?
5728e4a93acd2414000e0146
consists of 15 members from various backgrounds
69
False
Has the joining brought about any changes in the region ?
5728e4a93acd2414000e0147
invitation to expatriates to return home to work for national development.
241
False
Who extended the offer to the activists ?
5728e4a93acd2414000e0148
President Thein Sein
218
False
Who addressed the United nations on Myanmar's behalf in the fall 2011 ?
5728e4a93acd2414000e0149
Myanmar's Foreign Minister Wunna Maung Lwin
391
False
The government has assembled a National Human Rights Commission that consists of 15 members from various backgrounds. Several activists in exile, including Thee Lay Thee Anyeint members, have returned to Myanmar after President Thein Sein's invitation to expatriates to return home to work for national development. In an address to the United Nations Security Council on 22 September 2011, Myanmar's Foreign Minister Wunna Maung Lwin confirmed the government's intention to release prisoners in the near future.
Has the government of Myanmar made life any easier for it's inhabitants ?
5728e6092ca10214002daa5a
has also relaxed reporting laws, but these remain highly restrictive.
15
False
Does the government allow access to any desired  media channels for residents ?
5728e6092ca10214002daa5b
several banned websites, including YouTube, Democratic Voice of Burma and Voice of America, were unblocked.
104
False
Are there any groups who are able to effectively operate in Burma ?
5728e6092ca10214002daa5c
international humanitarian non-governmental organisations (NGOs)
368
False
Why are groups hesitant to work with government officials ?
5728e6092ca10214002daa5d
ethical quandary of how to work with the government without bolstering or appeasing it.
588
False
The government has also relaxed reporting laws, but these remain highly restrictive. In September 2011, several banned websites, including YouTube, Democratic Voice of Burma and Voice of America, were unblocked. A 2011 report by the Hauser Center for Nonprofit Organizations found that, while contact with the Myanmar government was constrained by donor restrictions, international humanitarian non-governmental organisations (NGOs) see opportunities for effective advocacy with government officials, especially at the local level. At the same time, international NGOs are mindful of the ethical quandary of how to work with the government without bolstering or appeasing it.
What official was the first to visit the grounds of Great Britain from Burma?
5728e7593acd2414000e019b
Thein Sein
10
False
Who did the official from Myanmar meet with ?
5728e7593acd2414000e019c
Prime Minister David Cameron,
69
False
What was the outcome of the meeting ?
5728e7593acd2414000e019d
Myanmar president declared that all of his nation's political prisoners will be released by the end of 2013
103
False
Where did the official make his announcement of the meetings outcome ?
5728e7593acd2414000e019e
at Chatham House
315
False
What would the official like to see happen between the two countries ?
5728e7593acd2414000e019f
a desire to strengthen links between the UK and Myanmar's military forces
530
False
Following Thein Sein's first ever visit to the UK and a meeting with Prime Minister David Cameron, the Myanmar president declared that all of his nation's political prisoners will be released by the end of 2013, in addition to a statement of support for the well-being of the Rohingya Muslim community. In a speech at Chatham House, he revealed that "We [Myanmar government] are reviewing all cases. I guarantee to you that by the end of this year, there will be no prisoners of conscience in Myanmar.", in addition to expressing a desire to strengthen links between the UK and Myanmar's military forces.
In terms of finance, when being ruled by the English, where did Burma stand ?
5728e91a4b864d1900165074
Under British administration, Myanmar was the second-wealthiest country in South-East Asia.
0
False
What was Burma's greatest export during that time of English rule ?
5728e91a4b864d1900165075
rice
136
False
What did Myanmar do that made it know to be one of the originals in a particular finance producing endeavor ?
5728e91a4b864d1900165076
Burma began exporting crude oil in 1853, making it one of the earliest petroleum producers in the world.
209
False
What wood product was produced primarily in Myanmar during British rule ?
5728e91a4b864d1900165077
75% of the world's teak
326
False
What notable quality made Burma stand out from other South East Asian countries ?
5728e91a4b864d1900165078
a highly literate population
358
False
Under British administration, Myanmar was the second-wealthiest country in South-East Asia. It had been the world's largest exporter of rice. Myanmar also had a wealth of natural and labour resources. British Burma began exporting crude oil in 1853, making it one of the earliest petroleum producers in the world. It produced 75% of the world's teak and had a highly literate population. The wealth was however, mainly concentrated in the hands of Europeans. In 1930s, agricultural production fell dramatically as international rice prices declined, and did not recover for several decades.
How did world war two affect Burmese business and economy ?
5728eae32ca10214002daa8e
British destroyed the major government buildings, oil wells and mines for tungsten, tin, lead and silver to keep them from the Japanese.
25
False
How was the Burma framework affected by WWII ?
5728eae32ca10214002daa8f
the country was in ruins with its major infrastructure completely destroyed.
228
False
What lead to the architectural changes in Myanmar ?
5728eae32ca10214002daa90
bombed extensively
174
False
Who was credited with changes that occurred to the interior due to the war's effects ?
5728eae32ca10214002daa91
bombed extensively by both sides
174
False
When was Myanmar given sovereignty to rule it's own nation ?
5728eae32ca10214002daa92
1948, Prime Minister U Nu embarked upon a policy of nationalisation and the state was declared the owner of all land.
352
False
During World War II, the British destroyed the major government buildings, oil wells and mines for tungsten, tin, lead and silver to keep them from the Japanese. Myanmar was bombed extensively by both sides. After independence, the country was in ruins with its major infrastructure completely destroyed. After a parliamentary government was formed in 1948, Prime Minister U Nu embarked upon a policy of nationalisation and the state was declared the owner of all land. The government also tried to implement a poorly considered Eight-Year plan. By the 1950s, rice exports had fallen by two thirds and mineral exports by over 96% (as compared to the pre-World War II period). Plans were partly financed by printing money, which led to inflation.
What is the major farming production crop in Burma?
5728ec424b864d19001650a0
rice
34
False
What percentage of  the countries's farm-able land is used for the major farming production crop in Burma?
5728ec424b864d19001650a1
60%
59
False
What category does the major farming production crop in Burma fall into ?
5728ec424b864d19001650a2
food grain production
139
False
How is production in the category tallied ?
5728ec424b864d19001650a3
by weight
161
False
How many novel types of this crop did Burma develop as of 1997 ?
5728ec424b864d19001650a4
52 modern rice varieties
241
False
The major agricultural product is rice, which covers about 60% of the country's total cultivated land area. Rice accounts for 97% of total food grain production by weight. Through collaboration with the International Rice Research Institute 52 modern rice varieties were released in the country between 1966 and 1997, helping increase national rice production to 14 million tons in 1987 and to 19 million tons in 1996. By 1988, modern varieties were planted on half of the country's ricelands, including 98 percent of the irrigated areas. In 2008 rice production was estimated at 50 million tons.
What is the difficulty with expanding the gem business in Burma ?
5728edf0ff5b5019007da98c
US and European jewellery companies, including Bulgari, Tiffany, and Cartier, refuse to import these stones based
5
False
Why is Burma experiencing this problem with the gems industry  ?
5728edf0ff5b5019007da98d
reports of deplorable working conditions in the mines.
122
False
Who gave information on the gem industries in Burma ?
5728edf0ff5b5019007da98e
Human Rights Watch
177
False
What did the group advised based on the information's results ?
5728edf0ff5b5019007da98f
encouraged a complete ban on the purchase of Burmese gems based
200
False
Who receives the majority of financial benefits from the gem mining ?
5728edf0ff5b5019007da990
the ruling junta
318
False
Many US and European jewellery companies, including Bulgari, Tiffany, and Cartier, refuse to import these stones based on reports of deplorable working conditions in the mines. Human Rights Watch has encouraged a complete ban on the purchase of Burmese gems based on these reports and because nearly all profits go to the ruling junta, as the majority of mining activity in the country is government-run. The government of Myanmar controls the gem trade by direct ownership or by joint ventures with private owners of mines.
Name two of the metropolitan areas that are enjoyed most frequently by tourist in Myanmar  ?
5728f0da2ca10214002daaee
Yangon and Mandalay
86
False
What are two of the top spiritual destination that Myanmar offers ?
5728f0da2ca10214002daaef
Mon State, Pindaya, Bago and Hpa-An
126
False
Does Myanmar offer any destinations  that might be good for outside enthusiasts ?
5728f0da2ca10214002daaf0
nature trails in Inle Lake, Kengtung, Putao, Pyin Oo Lwin
163
False
Are there any edifice points of interest that may be of note to visitors of Burma?
5728f0da2ca10214002daaf1
ancient cities such as Bagan and Mrauk-U; as well as beaches in Nabule, Ngapali, Ngwe-Saung, Mergui.
222
False
Can visitors travel unrestricted through the country ?
5728f0da2ca10214002daaf2
much of the country is off-limits to tourists
337
False
The most popular available tourist destinations in Myanmar include big cities such as Yangon and Mandalay; religious sites in Mon State, Pindaya, Bago and Hpa-An; nature trails in Inle Lake, Kengtung, Putao, Pyin Oo Lwin; ancient cities such as Bagan and Mrauk-U; as well as beaches in Nabule, Ngapali, Ngwe-Saung, Mergui. Nevertheless, much of the country is off-limits to tourists, and interactions between foreigners and the people of Myanmar, particularly in the border regions, are subject to police scrutiny. They are not to discuss politics with foreigners, under penalty of imprisonment and, in 2001, the Myanmar Tourism Promotion Board issued an order for local officials to protect tourists and limit "unnecessary contact" between foreigners and ordinary Burmese people.
How are most visitors ushered into the city of Myanmar ?
5728f2872ca10214002dab0a
by air
68
False
Is Myanmar convenient to other countries in South East Asia ?
5728f2872ca10214002dab0b
No bus or train service connects Myanmar with another country, nor can you travel by car or motorcycle across the border – you must walk across
154
False
Are there any cruise travel destinations for Myanmar ?
5728f2872ca10214002dab0c
It is not possible for foreigners to go to/from Myanmar by sea or river.
319
False
How long have bus tours been available to tourist of Myanmar ?
5728f2872ca10214002dab0d
one tourist company has successfully run commercial overland routes through these borders since 2013.
734
False
How far are the people from Taiwan ,but not actually citizens of Taiwan, allowed to venture into the Myanmar territory ?
5728f2872ca10214002dab0e
Those in Thailand on a visa run can cross to Kawthaung but cannot venture farther into Myanmar
925
False
The most common way for travellers to enter the country seems to be by air. According to the website Lonely Planet, getting into Myanmar is problematic: "No bus or train service connects Myanmar with another country, nor can you travel by car or motorcycle across the border – you must walk across.", and states that, "It is not possible for foreigners to go to/from Myanmar by sea or river." There are a small number of border crossings that allow the passage of private vehicles, such as the border between Ruili (China) to Mu-se, the border between Htee Kee (Myanmar) and Ban Phu Nam Ron (Thailand) (the most direct border between Dawei and Kanchanaburi), and the border between Myawaddy (Myanmar) and Mae Sot (Thailand). At least one tourist company has successfully run commercial overland routes through these borders since 2013. "From Mae Sai (Thailand) you can cross to Tachileik, but can only go as far as Kengtung. Those in Thailand on a visa run can cross to Kawthaung but cannot venture farther into Myanmar."
Can one travel by plane from any country in Myanmar ?
5728f8422ca10214002dab4a
Flights are available from most countries
0
False
Is there anyway to decrease travel time in getting to Myanmar ?
5728f8422ca10214002dab4b
direct flights are limited to mainly Thai and other ASEAN airlines
50
False
Has the travel industry considered making changes to fight plans for Myanmar ?
5728f8422ca10214002dab4c
5 international airlines and increasing numbers of airlines have began launching direct flights from Japan, Qatar, Taiwan, South Korea, Germany and Singapore.
179
False
What airlines travel to Myanmar that currently has development plans towards expanding ?
5728f8422ca10214002dab4d
Thailand-based Nok Air and Business Airlines and Singapore-based Tiger Airline".
487
False
Flights are available from most countries, though direct flights are limited to mainly Thai and other ASEAN airlines. According to Eleven magazine, "In the past, there were only 15 international airlines and increasing numbers of airlines have began launching direct flights from Japan, Qatar, Taiwan, South Korea, Germany and Singapore." Expansions were expected in September 2013, but yet again are mainly Thai and other Asian-based airlines according to Eleven Media Group's Eleven, "Thailand-based Nok Air and Business Airlines and Singapore-based Tiger Airline".
What occurred in the winter of 2014 of significance for Myanmar ?
5728f9a14b864d190016515c
December 2014, Myanmar signed an agreement to set up its first stock exchange
3
False
What is the name of the business that first rang a bell to begin in the winter of 2014 in Myanmar ?
5728f9a14b864d190016515d
Yangon Stock Exchange Joint Venture Co. Ltd
86
False
W is set to to be the major stock holder of the business that first rang a bell to begin in the winter of 2014 in Myanmar ?
5728f9a14b864d190016515e
Myanma Economic Bank sharing 51 percent
150
False
Did other countries actively participate in business that first rang a bell to begin in the winter of 2014 in Myanmar ?
5728f9a14b864d190016515f
Japan's Daiwa Institute of Research Ltd 30.25 percent and Japan Exchange Group 18.75 percent.
191
False
What day did the business that first rang a bell to begin in the winter of 2014 in Myanmar open its doors to customers?
5728f9a14b864d1900165160
Yangon Stock Exchange (YSX) officially opened for business on Friday, March 25, 2016.
289
False
In December 2014, Myanmar signed an agreement to set up its first stock exchange. The Yangon Stock Exchange Joint Venture Co. Ltd will be set up with Myanma Economic Bank sharing 51 percent, Japan's Daiwa Institute of Research Ltd 30.25 percent and Japan Exchange Group 18.75 percent. The Yangon Stock Exchange (YSX) officially opened for business on Friday, March 25, 2016. First Myanmar Investment Co., Ltd. (FMI) became the first stock to be traded after receiving approval for an opening price of 26,000 kyats ($22).
How many are estimated people live in Burma officially?
5728fb4caf94a219006a9ebd
provisional results of the 2014 Myanmar Census show that the total population is 51,419,420
4
False
Who may have been left out of the 2014 census in Burma ?
5728fb4caf94a219006a9ebe
an estimated 1,206,353 persons in parts of northern Rakhine State, Kachin State and Kayin State who were not counted.
118
False
How many people in Burma are currently using a work visa for Thailand?
5728fb4caf94a219006a9ebf
600,000 registered migrant workers from Myanmar in Thailand
347
False
How many of the Burmese  people are predicted to work in Thailand without authorization
5728fb4caf94a219006a9ec0
millions more work illegally
412
False
What percentage of emigrant workers in Thailand that are from Myanmar ?
5728fb4caf94a219006a9ec1
80% of Thailand's migrant workers
478
False
The provisional results of the 2014 Myanmar Census show that the total population is 51,419,420. This figure includes an estimated 1,206,353 persons in parts of northern Rakhine State, Kachin State and Kayin State who were not counted. People who were out of the country at the time of the census are not included in these figures. There are over 600,000 registered migrant workers from Myanmar in Thailand, and millions more work illegally. Burmese migrant workers account for 80% of Thailand's migrant workers. Population density is 76 per square kilometre (200/sq mi), among the lowest in Southeast Asia.
What is the largest percentage of  the Burmese populace ?
5728fc61af94a219006a9ed1
Bamar form an estimated 68% of the population
4
False
What is the smallest percentage of the Burmese populace ?
5728fc61af94a219006a9ed2
Overseas Chinese form approximately 3% of the population
175
False
What is the preferential term for those in Burma that are not a part of the racial majority ?
5728fc61af94a219006a9ed3
ethnic nationality
283
False
What does the term Burmanisation make people feel ?
5728fc61af94a219006a9ed4
the proliferation and domination of the dominant Bamar culture over minority cultures.
442
False
What percentage of the population is of the  Rakhine descendant line ?
5728fc61af94a219006a9ed5
Rakhine people constitute 4% of the population
127
False
The Bamar form an estimated 68% of the population. 10% of the population are Shan. The Kayin make up 7% of the population. The Rakhine people constitute 4% of the population. Overseas Chinese form approximately 3% of the population. Myanmar's ethnic minority groups prefer the term "ethnic nationality" over "ethnic minority" as the term "minority" furthers their sense of insecurity in the face of what is often described as "Burmanisation"—the proliferation and domination of the dominant Bamar culture over minority cultures.
What percentage of people in Burma are related by linguistically lines to the Khmer.
5728fed41d04691400778f3d
2% of the population, are ethno-linguistically related to the Khmer
14
False
Which community previously held a persuasive authority on the Burmese population?
5728fed41d04691400778f3e
Anglo-Burmese
240
False
When did a mass migration of the community that  previously held a persuasive authority on the Burmese population start?
5728fed41d04691400778f3f
1958 onwards
361
False
Where did the majority of these people end up after Burma ?
5728fed41d04691400778f40
principally to Australia and the UK
375
False
Mon, who form 2% of the population, are ethno-linguistically related to the Khmer. Overseas Indians are 2%. The remainder are Kachin, Chin, Rohingya, Anglo-Indians, Gurkha, Nepali and other ethnic minorities. Included in this group are the Anglo-Burmese. Once forming a large and influential community, the Anglo-Burmese left the country in steady streams from 1958 onwards, principally to Australia and the UK. It is estimated that 52,000 Anglo-Burmese remain in Myanmar. As of 2009[update], 110,000 Burmese refugees were living in refugee camps in Thailand.
What are the four categories for the most prolific dialects used in Burma ?
572901ec1d04691400778f55
Sino-Tibetan, Tai–Kadai, Austro-Asiatic, and Indo-European.
49
False
What are the primary languages of Europe that are used in Burma ?
572901ec1d04691400778f56
Pali, the liturgical language of Theravada Buddhism, and English
389
False
How many different types of dictionaries could you potentially need to cover all the languages spoken in Myanmar
572901ec1d04691400778f57
there are more than 130 languages spoken by people in Myanmar
490
False
Are the languages of Myanmar widely used by other nations  ?
572901ec1d04691400778f58
many of them are known only within small tribes around the country
559
False
What is the preferred lingo for the Tai–Kadai language?
572901ec1d04691400778f59
The primary Tai–Kadai language is Shan
229
False
Myanmar is home to four major language families: Sino-Tibetan, Tai–Kadai, Austro-Asiatic, and Indo-European. Sino-Tibetan languages are most widely spoken. They include Burmese, Karen, Kachin, Chin, and Chinese (mainly Hokkien). The primary Tai–Kadai language is Shan. Mon, Palaung, and Wa are the major Austroasiatic languages spoken in Myanmar. The two major Indo-European languages are Pali, the liturgical language of Theravada Buddhism, and English. Little known fact about Myanmar is there are more than 130 languages spoken by people in Myanmar. Since many of them are known only within small tribes around the country, they may have been lost (many if not all) after a few generations.
What is the matriarchal brogue of Burma that became the countries' standard vernacular ?
572904696aef0514001549ac
Burmese
0
False
Which two vernaculars hold relation to the official language?
572904696aef0514001549ad
Tibetan and Chinese language
88
False
How is the recognized official language of Burma displayed ?
572904696aef0514001549ae
It is written in a script consisting of circular and semi-circular letters
118
False
On what is the visual display of the language a subset of  ?
572904696aef0514001549af
the Mon script, which in turn was developed from a southern Indian script in the 5th century
218
False
From when are the  first impressions of the visually displayed language ?
572904696aef0514001549b0
The earliest known inscriptions in the Burmese script date from the 11th century.
312
False
Burmese, the mother tongue of the Bamar and official language of Myanmar, is related to Tibetan and Chinese language. It is written in a script consisting of circular and semi-circular letters, which were adapted from the Mon script, which in turn was developed from a southern Indian script in the 5th century. The earliest known inscriptions in the Burmese script date from the 11th century. It is also used to write Pali, the sacred language of Theravada Buddhism, as well as several ethnic minority languages, including Shan, several Karen dialects, and Kayah (Karenni), with the addition of specialised characters and diacritics for each language.
Does Burma have more than one religion ?
5729058baf94a219006a9f69
Many religions are practised in Myanmar
0
False
Are public displays allowed for the celebration of religion in Myanmar ?
5729058baf94a219006a9f6a
Festivals can be held on a grand scale.
110
False
Are all welcomed to practice faith openly in Burma
5729058baf94a219006a9f6b
Christian and Muslim populations do, however, face religious persecution
154
False
Can anyone in Burma Join the military forces in Burma ?
5729058baf94a219006a9f6c
it is hard, if not impossible, for non-Buddhists to join the army
231
False
What are the best routes for career achievement in Burma ?
5729058baf94a219006a9f6d
join the army or get government jobs, the main route to success in the country.
283
False
Many religions are practised in Myanmar. Religious edifices and orders have been in existence for many years. Festivals can be held on a grand scale. The Christian and Muslim populations do, however, face religious persecution and it is hard, if not impossible, for non-Buddhists to join the army or get government jobs, the main route to success in the country. Such persecution and targeting of civilians is particularly notable in Eastern Myanmar, where over 3000 villages have been destroyed in the past ten years. More than 200,000 Muslims have fled to Bangladesh over the last 20 years to escape Islamophobic persecution.
What part of the populace does not  identify with conformists religious  majority?
5729072e1d04691400778f97
7% of the population identifies as Christian; 4% as Muslim; 1% follows traditional animistic beliefs; and 2% follow other religions
27
False
Are these percentages an accurate estimate of nonconformists religious  groups ?
5729072e1d04691400778f98
international religious freedom report, official statistics are alleged to underestimate the non-Buddhist population.
276
False
How many dwelling are dedicated to the worship of the faith Jehovah's Witnesses ?
5729072e1d04691400778f99
80 congregations around the country and a branch office in Yangon
556
False
How many dialects are the publications distributed by the Jehovah Witness available in ?
5729072e1d04691400778f9a
16 languages
636
False
What problem presented itself to the Jewish locale in Rangoon ?
5729072e1d04691400778f9b
a synagogue but no resident rabbi to conduct services
689
False
According to Pew Research, 7% of the population identifies as Christian; 4% as Muslim; 1% follows traditional animistic beliefs; and 2% follow other religions, including Mahayana Buddhism, Hinduism, and East Asian religions. However, according to a US State Department's 2010 international religious freedom report, official statistics are alleged to underestimate the non-Buddhist population. Independent researchers put the Muslim population at 6 to 10% of the population[citation needed]. Jehovah's Witnesses have been present since 1914 and have about 80 congregations around the country and a branch office in Yangon publishing in 16 languages. A tiny Jewish community in Rangoon had a synagogue but no resident rabbi to conduct services.
Who runs the school system in Myanmar ?
572908166aef0514001549c8
the Ministry of Education
72
False
What country is Burma to credit for its academic system ?
572908166aef0514001549c9
United Kingdom's
136
False
Why is this country so influential to the Burma academics ?
572908166aef0514001549ca
due to nearly a century of British and Christian presences in Myanmar.
160
False
Are there any alternatives to the public school system in Burma ?
572908166aef0514001549cb
privately funded English language schoo
315
False
Are children required to go to school or can they choose to stay at home and work ?
572908166aef0514001549cc
Schooling is compulsory until the end of elementary school
358
False
The educational system of Myanmar is operated by the government agency, the Ministry of Education. The education system is based on the United Kingdom's system due to nearly a century of British and Christian presences in Myanmar. Nearly all schools are government-operated, but there has been a recent increase in privately funded English language schools. Schooling is compulsory until the end of elementary school, approximately about 9 years old, while the compulsory schooling age is 15 or 16 at international level.
What are the pervasive culture that is sanctioned in Burma ?
5729098faf94a219006a9fbd
the majority culture is primarily Buddhist and Bamar.
57
False
Have these cultures developed on there own over time ?
5729098faf94a219006a9fbe
Bamar culture has been influenced by the cultures of neighbouring countries
111
False
What type of effect did Theravada Buddhism.have on Bamar?
5729098faf94a219006a9fbf
The arts, particularly literature, have historically been influenced by the local form of Theravada Buddhism
259
False
What is the connection between an insect that has devotional following and Buddhism ?
5729098faf94a219006a9fc0
Buddhism is practised along with nat worship, which involves elaborate rituals to propitiate one from a pantheon of 37 nats.
537
False
A diverse range of indigenous cultures exist in Myanmar, the majority culture is primarily Buddhist and Bamar. Bamar culture has been influenced by the cultures of neighbouring countries. This is manifested in its language, cuisine, music, dance and theatre. The arts, particularly literature, have historically been influenced by the local form of Theravada Buddhism. Considered the national epic of Myanmar, the Yama Zatdaw, an adaptation of India's Ramayana, has been influenced greatly by Thai, Mon, and Indian versions of the play. Buddhism is practised along with nat worship, which involves elaborate rituals to propitiate one from a pantheon of 37 nats.
Customarily where is the expected place in the lives of the people for the home of monks in Burma ?
57290af96aef0514001549e2
In a traditional village, the monastery is the centre of cultural life.
0
False
What event is exceedingly relevant for young males that involves monks in Burma ?
57290af96aef0514001549e3
A novitiation ceremony called shinbyu
125
False
What do girls of the village get in comparison the the young male event ?
57290af96aef0514001549e4
Girls have ear-piercing ceremonies (နားသ) at the same time.
432
False
What is the biggest celebration held in local events in Burma ?
57290af96aef0514001549e5
the most important being the pagoda festival
588
False
What do many villages have that protects them in times of imminent or impending danger ?
57290af96aef0514001549e6
Many villages have a guardian nat
634
False
In a traditional village, the monastery is the centre of cultural life. Monks are venerated and supported by the lay people. A novitiation ceremony called shinbyu is the most important coming of age events for a boy, during which he enters the monastery for a short time. All male children in Buddhist families are encouraged to be a novice (beginner for Buddhism) before the age of twenty and to be a monk after the age of twenty. Girls have ear-piercing ceremonies (နားသ) at the same time. Burmese culture is most evident in villages where local festivals are held throughout the year, the most important being the pagoda festival. Many villages have a guardian nat, and superstition and taboos are commonplace.
What evidence of previous rule is evident in the buildings in Burma ?
57290c141d04691400778fc7
Colonial architectural influences are most evident in major cities
142
False
What part of the Burmese population is considered not a part of the mainstream group?
57290c141d04691400778fc8
ethnic groups constitute 32%
448
False
Do opinions differ on the numbers for that population is considered not a part of the mainstream
57290c141d04691400778fc9
exiled leaders and organisations claims that ethnic population is 40%, which is implicitly contrasted with CIA report (official US report).
491
False
What is the name of the group that reported the information regarding the populace in Burma ?
57290c141d04691400778fca
The World Factbook
391
False
British colonial rule introduced Western elements of culture to Burma. Burma's education system is modelled after that of the United Kingdom. Colonial architectural influences are most evident in major cities such as Yangon. Many ethnic minorities, particularly the Karen in the southeast and the Kachin and Chin who populate the north and northeast, practice Christianity. According to the The World Factbook, the Burman population is 68% and the ethnic groups constitute 32%. However, the exiled leaders and organisations claims that ethnic population is 40%, which is implicitly contrasted with CIA report (official US report).
What is the time-honored dish served for the morning meal in Burma ?
57290d37af94a219006a9fe1
Mohinga is the traditional breakfast dish
0
False
What is most commonly enjoyed to eat along the coast of Myanmar ?
57290d37af94a219006a9fe2
Seafood is a common ingredient in coastal cities
74
False
Where is the most chicken enjoyed in Burma ?
57290d37af94a219006a9fe3
landlocked cities
257
False
What is considered as an alternative to tofu for the valuable ingredient it holds for those not living near water in BUrma?
57290d37af94a219006a9fe4
Freshwater fish and shrimp have been incorporated into inland cooking as a primary source of protein
290
False
What are popular ways that fish are used in Burma ?
57290d37af94a219006a9fe5
fresh, salted whole or filleted, salted and dried, made into a salty paste, or fermented sour and pressed.
426
False
Mohinga is the traditional breakfast dish and is Myanmar's national dish. Seafood is a common ingredient in coastal cities such as Sittwe, Kyaukpyu, Mawlamyaing (formerly Moulmein), Mergui (Myeik) and Dawei, while meat and poultry are more commonly used in landlocked cities like Mandalay. Freshwater fish and shrimp have been incorporated into inland cooking as a primary source of protein and are used in a variety of ways, fresh, salted whole or filleted, salted and dried, made into a salty paste, or fermented sour and pressed.
What was the first motion picture about someone's life filmed in Myanmar ?
57290eaeaf94a219006a9ff5
Myanmar's first film was a documentary of the funeral of Tun Shein
0
False
Why was this film relevant enough to be the first ?
57290eaeaf94a219006a9ff6
Tun Shein — a leading politician of the 1910s, who campaigned for Burmese independence in London.
57
False
Before the advent of talking pictures, what was the name of the first movie in Myanmar and when was it 's debut ?
57290eaeaf94a219006a9ff7
first Burmese silent film Myitta Ne Thuya (Love and Liquor) in 1920
159
False
Following the end of the second World War, what was a still a popular theme among films makers in Burma ?
57290eaeaf94a219006a9ff8
After World War II, Burmese cinema continued to address political themes
563
False
Where any of the Burmese films ever used as an instrument to influence the people ?
57290eaeaf94a219006a9ff9
Many of the films produced in the early Cold War era had a strong propaganda element to them.
637
False
Myanmar's first film was a documentary of the funeral of Tun Shein — a leading politician of the 1910s, who campaigned for Burmese independence in London. The first Burmese silent film Myitta Ne Thuya (Love and Liquor) in 1920 which proved a major success, despite its poor quality due to a fixed camera position and inadequate film accessories. During the 1920s and 1930s, many Burmese-owned film companies made and produced several films. The first Burmese sound film was produced in 1932 in Bombay, India with the title Ngwe Pay Lo Ma Ya (Money Can't Buy It). After World War II, Burmese cinema continued to address political themes. Many of the films produced in the early Cold War era had a strong propaganda element to them.
Jews
Which group originated as a national and religious group in the Middle East during the second millennium BCE, in the part of the Levant known as the Land of Israel?
5726723b708984140094c65d
Jews
0
False
Who consolidated their hold with the emergence of the Kingdom of Israel, and the kingdom of Judah?
5726723b708984140094c65e
Israelites
323
False
What were incoming nomadic groups known as?
5726723b708984140094c65f
Hebrews
577
False
When did Jews originate as a national and religious group in the Middle East?
5726723b708984140094c660
during the second millennium BCE, in the part of the Levant known as the Land of Israel
69
False
What appears to confirm the existence of a people of Israel?
5726723b708984140094c661
The Merneptah Stele
158
False
Jews
0
What national and religious group originated in the first millennium BCE?
5ace7a4132bba1001ae4a78f
True
The Merneptah Stele
158
What confirms the existence of the Ancient Egyptians?
5ace7a4132bba1001ae4a790
True
the Canaanite population
354
Who was an outgrowth of the Israelite population?
5ace7a4132bba1001ae4a791
True
the experience of diaspora life
657
What was a major feature of the Babylonian history, identity, and memory?
5ace7a4132bba1001ae4a792
True
the 13th century BCE
297
When did the people of Israel cease to be associated with the god El?
5ace7a4132bba1001ae4a793
True
Jews originated as a national and religious group in the Middle East during the second millennium BCE, in the part of the Levant known as the Land of Israel. The Merneptah Stele appears to confirm the existence of a people of Israel, associated with the god El, somewhere in Canaan as far back as the 13th century BCE. The Israelites, as an outgrowth of the Canaanite population, consolidated their hold with the emergence of the Kingdom of Israel, and the Kingdom of Judah. Some consider that these Canaanite sedentary Israelites melded with incoming nomadic groups known as 'Hebrews'. Though few sources in the Bible mention the exilic periods in detail, the experience of diaspora life, from the Ancient Egyptian rule over the Levant, to Assyrian Captivity and Exile, to Babylonian Captivity and Exile, to Seleucid Imperial rule, to the Roman occupation, and the historical relations between Israelites and the homeland, became a major feature of Jewish history, identity and memory.
What percentage of Jews reside in Israel?
57267331708984140094c689
43%
47
False
What percentage of Jews reside in the U.S.?
57267331708984140094c68a
40%
99
False
How many Jews live in Europe?
57267331708984140094c68b
1.4 million
184
False
What is one reason the world population of Jews difficult to determine?
57267331708984140094c68d
issues with census methodology
462
False
6.1 million
81
How many non Jewish people live in Israel?
5ace832032bba1001ae4a8f9
True
5.7 million
125
How many non Jewish people live in the United States?
5ace832032bba1001ae4a8fa
True
census methodology
474
Why is the world population of Jews easy to measure?
5ace832032bba1001ae4a8fb
True
40%
99
What percentage of non Jews live in the United States?
5ace832032bba1001ae4a8fc
True
ancestral identification
557
What is not a factor in who is a Jew?
5ace832032bba1001ae4a8fd
True
According to a report published in 2014, about 43% of all Jews reside in Israel (6.1 million), and 40% in the United States (5.7 million), with most of the remainder living in Europe (1.4 million) and Canada (0.4 million). These numbers include all those who self-identified as Jews in a socio-demographic study or were identified as such by a respondent in the same household. The exact world Jewish population, however, is difficult to measure. In addition to issues with census methodology, disputes among proponents of halakhic, secular, political, and ancestral identification factors regarding who is a Jew may affect the figure considerably depending on the source.
What is the origin of the word Yiddish?
572674a0f1498d1400e8e026
Jude
479
False
What is another word to describe a Jew?
572674a0f1498d1400e8e027
Ebreo
373
False
What is a Russian word used to describe a Jew?
572674a0f1498d1400e8e028
Еврей, Yevrey
446
False
Ebreo is an Italian word derivation of what word?
572674a0f1498d1400e8e029
Hebrew
312
False
Jude
150
How do you say Hebrew in German?
5ace842632bba1001ae4a92f
True
judeu
168
How do you say Hebrew in Portuguese?
5ace842632bba1001ae4a930
True
juif
191
How do you say Hebrew in French?
5ace842632bba1001ae4a931
True
jüdisch
538
What German word is the origin of the word "Hebrew"?
5ace842632bba1001ae4a932
True
Ebreo
373
How do you say Yiddish in Italian?
5ace842632bba1001ae4a933
True
The etymological equivalent is in use in other languages, e.g., يَهُودِيّ yahūdī (sg.), al-yahūd (pl.), and بَنُو اِسرَائِيل banū isrāʼīl in Arabic, "Jude" in German, "judeu" in Portuguese, "juif" in French, "jøde" in Danish and Norwegian, "judío" in Spanish, "jood" in Dutch, etc., but derivations of the word "Hebrew" are also in use to describe a Jew, e.g., in Italian (Ebreo), in Persian ("Ebri/Ebrani" (Persian: عبری/عبرانی‎‎)) and Russian (Еврей, Yevrey). The German word "Jude" is pronounced [ˈjuːdə], the corresponding adjective "jüdisch" [ˈjyːdɪʃ] (Jewish) is the origin of the word "Yiddish". (See Jewish ethnonyms for a full overview.)
Name one person that Jewish ancestry traced back to?
572675c2708984140094c6d5
Abraham
107
False
Where did Jacob and his family migrate to?
572675c2708984140094c6d6
Ancient Egypt
277
False
Who led the Exodus?
572675c2708984140094c6d7
Moses
439
False
Who was Jacob's son?
572675c2708984140094c6d8
Joseph
336
False
Who was Joseph's father?
572675c2708984140094c6d9
Jacob
324
False
Biblical patriarchs
79
Who lived in Canaan before the 18th century BCE?
5ace85a332bba1001ae4a95b
True
Joseph
336
Who invited the Pharaoh to live in Egypt?
5ace85a332bba1001ae4a95c
True
13th century BCE
473
When did Canaan conquer the Israelites?
5ace85a332bba1001ae4a95d
True
the Pharaoh
346
Who invited Joseph to live in Egypt?
5ace85a332bba1001ae4a95e
True
until the Exodus
415
How long were the Egyptians enslaved?
5ace85a332bba1001ae4a95f
True
According to the Hebrew Bible narrative, Jewish ancestry is traced back to the Biblical patriarchs such as Abraham, Isaac and Jacob, and the Biblical matriarchs Sarah, Rebecca, Leah, and Rachel, who lived in Canaan around the 18th century BCE. Jacob and his family migrated to Ancient Egypt after being invited to live with Jacob's son Joseph by the Pharaoh himself. The patriarchs' descendants were later enslaved until the Exodus led by Moses, traditionally dated to the 13th century BCE, after which the Israelites conquered Canaan.[citation needed]
Which culture was largely Canaanite in nature?
572678f9708984140094c743
Israelite
898
False
What is one of the Ancient Canaanite deities?
572678f9708984140094c744
Yahweh
472
False
The period of time from 1200 to 1000 BCE is known as what?
572678f9708984140094c745
Iron Age
864
False
largely discarded
23
How has historical archaeology treated the historicity of the Patriarchs?
5ace89e932bba1001ae4a9c5
True
by force
300
How did the Israelites take over the region according to historical archaeology?
5ace89e932bba1001ae4a9c6
True
Yahweh
472
What god did the Ancient Canaanites not worship?
5ace89e932bba1001ae4a9c7
True
Iron Age
864
The period of time before 1200 BCE is known as what?
5ace89e932bba1001ae4a9c8
True
The growth of Yahweh-centric belief
518
What gave rise to a distinct Canaanite ethnic group?
5ace89e932bba1001ae4a9c9
True
Modern archaeology has largely discarded the historicity of the Patriarchs and of the Exodus story, with it being reframed as constituting the Israelites' inspiring national myth narrative. The Israelites and their culture, according to the modern archaeological account, did not overtake the region by force, but instead branched out of the Canaanite peoples and culture through the development of a distinct monolatristic — and later monotheistic — religion centered on Yahweh, one of the Ancient Canaanite deities. The growth of Yahweh-centric belief, along with a number of cultic practices, gradually gave rise to a distinct Israelite ethnic group, setting them apart from other Canaanites. The Canaanites themselves are archeologically attested in the Middle Bronze Age, while the Hebrew language is the last extant member of the Canaanite languages. In the Iron Age I period (1200–1000 BCE) Israelite culture was largely Canaanite in nature.
What group was divided into Twelve Tribes?
572679f9dd62a815002e8670
Israelites
13
False
When was the Kingdom of Israel conquered by the Neo-Assyrian Empire?
572679f9dd62a815002e8671
after the 720s BCE
465
False
From where do the Jews derive their ethonynm?
572679f9dd62a815002e8672
Israelite tribes of Judah
185
False
Twelve
42
How many tribes were the Samaritans split into?
5ace8dd832bba1001ae4aa2b
True
the Samaritans
119
Who do the tribes of Judah descend from?
5ace8dd832bba1001ae4aa2c
True
the Kingdom of Judah
428
Where did the Southern Kingdom of Israel migrate to?
5ace8dd832bba1001ae4aa2d
True
the remnants of the northern Kingdom of Israel
365
Who assimilated before the 720s BCE?
5ace8dd832bba1001ae4aa2e
True
720s BCE
475
When did the Kingdom of Israel conquer the Neo-Assyrian Empire?
5ace8dd832bba1001ae4aa2f
True
Although the Israelites were divided into Twelve Tribes, the Jews (being one offshoot of the Israelites, another being the Samaritans) are traditionally said to descend mostly from the Israelite tribes of Judah (from where the Jews derive their ethnonym) and Benjamin, and partially from the tribe of Levi, who had together formed the ancient Kingdom of Judah, and the remnants of the northern Kingdom of Israel who migrated to the Kingdom of Judah and assimilated after the 720s BCE, when the Kingdom of Israel was conquered by the Neo-Assyrian Empire.
How many times did Israelites have political independence in ancient history?
57268047f1498d1400e8e1de
twice
42
False
From where did the term Jews originate?
57268047f1498d1400e8e1df
Roman "Judean
284
False
When was land divided into Israel and Judah?
57268047f1498d1400e8e1e0
After the fall of the United Monarchy
169
False
Inhabitants of Judah are known as what?
57268047f1498d1400e8e1e1
Jews
399
False
When did the Babylonian exile end?
57268047f1498d1400e8e1e2
539 BCE
884
False
twice
42
How many times did Israelites enjoy political independence in modern times?
5ace90a732bba1001ae4aa47
True
Jew
260
What term denoted someone from the northern kingdom of Judah?
5ace90a732bba1001ae4aa48
True
587 BC
589
When did Nebuchadnezzar II build the First Temple?
5ace90a732bba1001ae4aa49
True
586 BC
752
When did Judah first become an independent kingdom?
5ace90a732bba1001ae4aa4a
True
70 CE
1406
When did most Jews stop living in diaspora?
5ace90a732bba1001ae4aa4b
True
Israelites enjoyed political independence twice in ancient history, first during the periods of the Biblical judges followed by the United Monarchy.[disputed – discuss] After the fall of the United Monarchy the land was divided into Israel and Judah. The term Jew originated from the Roman "Judean" and denoted someone from the southern kingdom of Judah. The shift of ethnonym from "Israelites" to "Jews" (inhabitant of Judah), although not contained in the Torah, is made explicit in the Book of Esther (4th century BCE), a book in the Ketuvim, the third section of the Jewish Tanakh. In 587 BC Nebuchadnezzar II, King of the Neo-Babylonian Empire, besieged Jerusalem, destroyed the First Temple, and deported the most prominent citizens of Judah. In 586 BC, Judah itself ceased to be an independent kingdom, and its remaining Jews were left stateless. The Babylonian exile ended in 539 BCE when the Achaemenid Empire conquered Babylon and Cyrus the Great allowed the exiled Jews to return to Yehud and rebuild their Temple. The Second Temple was completed in 515 BCE. Yehud province was a peaceful part of the Achaemenid Empire until the fall of the Empire in c. 333 BCE to Alexander the Great. Jews were also politically independent during the Hasmonean dynasty spanning from 140 to 37 BCE and to some degree under the Herodian dynasty from 37 BCE to 6 CE. Since the destruction of the Second Temple in 70 CE, most Jews have lived in diaspora. As an ethnic minority in every country in which they live (except Israel), they have frequently experienced persecution throughout history, resulting in a population that has fluctuated both in numbers and distribution over the centuries.[citation needed]
Genetic studies show that Jews bear their strongest resemblance to the peoples of where?
57268c8fdd62a815002e8940
Fertile Crescent
191
False
How far back does the Jews' shared common genetic pool date?
57268c8fdd62a815002e8941
4,000 years
316
False
Most Jews share a common genetic heritage that originates from what place?
57268c8fdd62a815002e8942
Middle East
109
False
Fertile Crescent
191
What people do Jews show the least genetic resemblance to?
5ace91ab32bba1001ae4aa59
True
4,000 years
316
How far back does the people of the Fertile Crescent's shared genetic pool date?
5ace91ab32bba1001ae4aa5a
True
the Middle East
105
Most people of the Fertile Crescent share a common heritage that originates from where?
5ace91ab32bba1001ae4aa5b
True
culture
480
What do people of the Fertile Crescent share besides genetics?
5ace91ab32bba1001ae4aa5c
True
language
504
What is one thing that Jews were not able to maintain?
5ace91ab32bba1001ae4aa5d
True
Genetic studies on Jews show that most Jews worldwide bear a common genetic heritage which originates in the Middle East, and that they bear their strongest resemblance to the peoples of the Fertile Crescent. The genetic composition of different Jewish groups shows that Jews share a common genetic pool dating back 4,000 years, as a marker of their common ancestral origin. Despite their long-term separation and beside their shared genetic origin, Jews also maintained a common culture, tradition, and language.
What book is considered a religious interpretation of the traditions and early national history of the Jews?
57277015708984140094dd8b
The Hebrew Bible
0
False
What religions are now practiced by 54% of the world?
57277015708984140094dd8c
Abrahamic religions
132
False
What is the Hebrew Bible?
57277015708984140094dd8d
a religious interpretation of the traditions and early national history of the Jews
18
False
The Hebrew Bible
0
What is a religious interpretation of the traditions and history of Europe?
5ace92a232bba1001ae4aa7f
True
Abrahamic religions
132
What is not practiced by 54% of the world?
5ace92a232bba1001ae4aa80
True
Islamic Spain
589
Where have Jewish culture phenomena never developed?
5ace92a232bba1001ae4aa81
True
54%
180
What percentage of the world does not follow an Abrahamic religion?
5ace92a232bba1001ae4aa82
True
North Africa
620
Where have specifically religious Jewish customs developed?
5ace92a232bba1001ae4aa83
True
The Hebrew Bible, a religious interpretation of the traditions and early national history of the Jews, established the first of the Abrahamic religions, which are now practiced by 54% of the world. Judaism guides its adherents in both practice and belief, and has been called not only a religion, but also a "way of life," which has made drawing a clear distinction between Judaism, Jewish culture, and Jewish identity rather difficult. Throughout history, in eras and places as diverse as the ancient Hellenic world, in Europe before and after The Age of Enlightenment (see Haskalah), in Islamic Spain and Portugal, in North Africa and the Middle East, India, China, or the contemporary United States and Israel, cultural phenomena have developed that are in some sense characteristically Jewish without being at all specifically religious. Some factors in this come from within Judaism, others from the interaction of Jews or specific communities of Jews with their surroundings, others from the inner social and cultural dynamics of the community, as opposed to from the religion itself. This phenomenon has led to considerably different Jewish cultures unique to their own communities, each as authentically Jewish as the next.
In modern secular usage Jews include how many groups?
572770d6708984140094dda3
three
272
False
What makes the definition of a Jew vary slightly?
572770d6708984140094dda4
whether a religious or national approach to identity is used
162
False
Which religion shares some characteristics of a nation, an ethnicity, a religion and a culture?
572770d6708984140094dda5
Judaism
0
False
Judaism
0
What doesn't share any characteristics with a nation?
5ace940d32bba1001ae4aab7
True
three
272
How many groups do Jews include in modern religious usage?
5ace940d32bba1001ae4aab8
True
three
272
How many groups do Jews include in historical secular usage?
5ace940d32bba1001ae4aab9
True
people who were born to a Jewish family
286
Who is not included as a Jew in modern secular usage?
5ace940d32bba1001ae4aaba
True
whether a religious or national approach to identity is used
162
What has no effect on the definition of who is a Jew?
5ace940d32bba1001ae4aabb
True
Judaism shares some of the characteristics of a nation, an ethnicity, a religion, and a culture, making the definition of who is a Jew vary slightly depending on whether a religious or national approach to identity is used. Generally, in modern secular usage Jews include three groups: people who were born to a Jewish family regardless of whether or not they follow the religion, those who have some Jewish ancestral background or lineage (sometimes including those who do not have strictly matrilineal descent), and people without any Jewish ancestral background or lineage who have formally converted to Judaism and therefore are followers of the religion.
What have historical definitions of Jewish identity been based on?
572771def1498d1400e8f848
halakhic definitions of matrilineal descent, and halakhic conversions
75
False
Historical definitions of who a Jew is dates back to what year?
572771def1498d1400e8f849
200 CE
268
False
What is used as a warning against intermarriage between Jews and Canaanites?
572771def1498d1400e8f84a
Jewish sages
349
False
halakhic definitions of matrilineal descent
75
What have historical definitions of Jewish identity never been based on?
5ace951c32bba1001ae4aae5
True
around 200 CE
261
When was the Babylonian Talmud codified into the Oral Torah?
5ace951c32bba1001ae4aae6
True
Deuteronomy 7:1–5
327
What section of the Tanakh encouraged intermarriage?
5ace951c32bba1001ae4aae7
True
Haskalah
852
What movement in the 18th and 19th centuries was pro religious?
5ace951c32bba1001ae4aae8
True
halakhic
907
What interpretations of Jewish identity have never been challenged?
5ace951c32bba1001ae4aae9
True
Historical definitions of Jewish identity have traditionally been based on halakhic definitions of matrilineal descent, and halakhic conversions. Historical definitions of who is a Jew date back to the codification of the Oral Torah into the Babylonian Talmud, around 200 CE. Interpretations of sections of the Tanakh, such as Deuteronomy 7:1–5, by Jewish sages, are used as a warning against intermarriage between Jews and Canaanites because "[the non-Jewish husband] will cause your child to turn away from Me and they will worship the gods (i.e., idols) of others." Leviticus 24:10 says that the son in a marriage between a Hebrew woman and an Egyptian man is "of the community of Israel." This is complemented by Ezra 10:2–3, where Israelites returning from Babylon vow to put aside their gentile wives and their children. Since the anti-religious Haskalah movement of the late 18th and 19th centuries, halakhic interpretations of Jewish identity have been challenged.
Who believed the status of the offspring of mixed marriages was determined patrilineally in the Bible?
5727728ef1498d1400e8f860
Shaye J. D. Cohen
23
False
What dictated that when a parent could not contract a legal marriage, offspring would follow the mother?
5727728ef1498d1400e8f861
Roman law
508
False
What is one explanation for the change in Mishnaic times?
5727728ef1498d1400e8f862
the Mishnah may have been applying the same logic to mixed marriages as it had applied to other mixtures
207
False
Shaye J. D. Cohen
23
Who believed that the status of offspring of mixed marriages was determined matrilineally in the Bible?
5ace968a32bba1001ae4ab2f
True
two
142
How many explanations were there for the lack of change in Mishnaic times?
5ace968a32bba1001ae4ab30
True
Roman law
508
What dictated that when a parent could not contract a legal marriage, offspring would follow the father?
5ace968a32bba1001ae4ab31
True
offspring would follow the mother
590
What did Roman law dictate if a parent contracted a legal marriage?
5ace968a32bba1001ae4ab32
True
the union of a horse and a donkey
366
What unions were allowed along with mixed marriages?
5ace968a32bba1001ae4ab33
True
According to historian Shaye J. D. Cohen, the status of the offspring of mixed marriages was determined patrilineally in the Bible. He brings two likely explanations for the change in Mishnaic times: first, the Mishnah may have been applying the same logic to mixed marriages as it had applied to other mixtures (Kil'ayim). Thus, a mixed marriage is forbidden as is the union of a horse and a donkey, and in both unions the offspring are judged matrilineally. Second, the Tannaim may have been influenced by Roman law, which dictated that when a parent could not contract a legal marriage, offspring would follow the mother.
Where did Jews migrate to after the Babylonian conquest?
572773195951b619008f8a2b
Babylonia
20
False
Between what years did Jews increase to an estimated 2 million?
572773195951b619008f8a2c
200 CE – 500 CE
273
False
Name one thing that has accounted for Jewish population growth?
572773195951b619008f8a2d
conversion
443
False
Babylonia
20
Where did the Jews migrate to before the Babylonian conquest?
5ace97a932bba1001ae4ab9d
True
1,000,000
196
How many Jews lived in Babylonia before the 1st century?
5ace97a932bba1001ae4ab9e
True
2 million
244
How many Jews lived in Babylonia after 500 CE?
5ace97a932bba1001ae4ab9f
True
more than doubled
600
How did the Jewish population increase before the 1st century?
5ace97a932bba1001ae4aba0
True
8–10 million
632
How many Jews lived outside of the Roman Empire?
5ace97a932bba1001ae4aba1
True
By the 1st century, Babylonia, to which Jews migrated to after the Babylonian conquest as well as after the Bar Kokhba revolt in 135 CE, already held a speedily growing population of an estimated 1,000,000 Jews, which increased to an estimated 2 million  between the years 200 CE – 500 CE, both by natural growth and by immigration of more Jews from the Land of Israel, making up about 1/6 of the world Jewish population at that era. At times conversion has accounted for a part of Jewish population growth. Some have claimed that in the 1st century of the Christian era, for example, the population more than doubled, from four to 8–10 million within the confines of the Roman Empire, in good part as a result of a wave of conversion.
What is a tax imposed on Jews in 70 CE?
57277434708984140094de01
The Fiscus Judaicus
452
False
When did the FIscus Judaicus relax to exclude Christians?
57277434708984140094de02
96 CE
541
False
Name one reason historians believe the conversion during the Roman era was limited in number and did not account for much of the Jewish population growth?
57277434708984140094de03
illegality of male conversion to Judaism
181
False
Judaism
214
What religion was it legal to convert to in the Roman world from the mid-2nd century?
5ace989e32bba1001ae4abe3
True
the Roman world
225
Where was it legal to convert to Judaism?
5ace989e32bba1001ae4abe4
True
the halakhic requirement of circumcision
347
What made conversion easy in the Roman world?
5ace989e32bba1001ae4abe5
True
96 CE
541
When was the Fiscus Judaicus expanded to also include Christians?
5ace989e32bba1001ae4abe6
True
Fiscus Judaicus
456
What was a tax imposed on non Jewish citizens in 70 CE?
5ace989e32bba1001ae4abe7
True
Other historians believe that conversion during the Roman era was limited in number and did not account for much of the Jewish population growth, due to various factors such as the illegality of male conversion to Judaism in the Roman world from the mid-2nd century. Another factor that would have made conversion difficult in the Roman world was the halakhic requirement of circumcision, a requirement that proselytizing Christianity quickly dropped. The Fiscus Judaicus, a tax imposed on Jews in 70 CE and relaxed to exclude Christians in 96 CE, also limited Judaism's appeal. In addition, historians argue the very figure (4 million) that had been guessed to account for the population of Jews in the ancient Roman Empire is an error that has long been disproven and thus the assumption that conversion impacted Jewish population growth in ancient Rome on a large scale is false. The 8 million figure is also in doubt as it may refer to a census of total Roman citizens.
What resulted in effective and long-term isolation of Jewish communities?
572774d8f1498d1400e8f89c
An array of Jewish communities was established by Jewish settlers in various places around the Old World, often at great distances from one another
218
False
Name one way Jewish cultural expressions differ in each community?
572774d8f1498d1400e8f89d
religious interpretations
799
False
Name another way Jewish cultural expressions differ in each community?
572774d8f1498d1400e8f89e
culinary preferences
755
False
geographic branching
116
What did not cause ethnic divisions between Jews?
5acea23e32bba1001ae4ae23
True
the Old World
309
Where did Jewish people not settle?
5acea23e32bba1001ae4ae24
True
culinary preferences
755
What is one way Jewish cultural expressions stayed the same in each community?
5acea23e32bba1001ae4ae25
True
religious interpretations
799
What is another way Jewish cultural expressions stayed the same in each community?
5acea23e32bba1001ae4ae26
True
During the millennia of the Jewish diaspora
421
At what time did Jewish communities not develop under the influence of their local environments?
5acea23e32bba1001ae4ae27
True
Within the world's Jewish population there are distinct ethnic divisions, most of which are primarily the result of geographic branching from an originating Israelite population, and subsequent independent evolutions. An array of Jewish communities was established by Jewish settlers in various places around the Old World, often at great distances from one another, resulting in effective and often long-term isolation. During the millennia of the Jewish diaspora the communities would develop under the influence of their local environments: political, cultural, natural, and populational. Today, manifestations of these differences among the Jews can be observed in Jewish cultural expressions of each community, including Jewish linguistic diversity, culinary preferences, liturgical practices, religious interpretations, as well as degrees and sources of genetic admixture.
Name one major group that Jews are often identified as belonging to.
5727757edd62a815002e9d50
Ashkenazim
71
False
Name another major group that Jews are often identified as belonging to?
5727757edd62a815002e9d51
Sephardim
90
False
What does Ashkenaz mean in Hebrew?
5727757edd62a815002e9d52
Germany
147
False
What is the more common term in Israel for many of those broadly called Sephardim?
5727757edd62a815002e9d53
Mizrahim
500
False
What does Mizrach mean in Hebrew?
5727757edd62a815002e9d54
East
544
False
two
49
How many major groups do the Ashkenazim belong to?
5acea3bc32bba1001ae4ae7b
True
Mizrahim
500
What term means "Westerners" in Israel?
5acea3bc32bba1001ae4ae7c
True
Germany
147
What does Ashkenaz mean in German?
5acea3bc32bba1001ae4ae7d
True
Sefarad
278
What word means "Spain" in Spanish?
5acea3bc32bba1001ae4ae7e
True
Mizrahi Jewish groups and Sephardi Jews
782
What two groups are not ethnically distinct?
5acea3bc32bba1001ae4ae7f
True
Jews are often identified as belonging to one of two major groups: the Ashkenazim and the Sephardim. Ashkenazim, or "Germanics" (Ashkenaz meaning "Germany" in Hebrew), are so named denoting their German Jewish cultural and geographical origins, while Sephardim, or "Hispanics" (Sefarad meaning "Spain/Hispania" or "Iberia" in Hebrew), are so named denoting their Spanish/Portuguese Jewish cultural and geographic origins. The more common term in Israel for many of those broadly called Sephardim, is Mizrahim (lit. "Easterners", Mizrach being "East" in Hebrew), that is, in reference to the diverse collection of Middle Eastern and North African Jews who are often, as a group, referred to collectively as Sephardim (together with Sephardim proper) for liturgical reasons, although Mizrahi Jewish groups and Sephardi Jews proper are ethnically distinct.
In modern usage, why is Mizrahim sometimes termed Sephardi?
5727762a708984140094de47
due to similar styles of liturgy
408
False
When did the expulsion of Jews from Spain and Portugal occur?
5727762a708984140094de48
the 1490s
1060
False
Where are the Teimanim from?
5727762a708984140094de49
Yemen
707
False
their boundaries
59
What is always clear between these groups?
5acea49932bba1001ae4aeb7
True
due to similar styles of liturgy
408
Why are Mizrahim sometimes termed Sephardi in historical usage?
5acea49932bba1001ae4aeb8
True
Egyptian Jews
528
What Jews are not included in the Mizrahim?
5acea49932bba1001ae4aeb9
True
the 1490s
1060
When were the Jews welcomed into Spain and Portugal?
5acea49932bba1001ae4aeba
True
Yemen
707
Where are the Georgian Jews from?
5acea49932bba1001ae4aebb
True
The divisions between all these groups are approximate and their boundaries are not always clear. The Mizrahim for example, are a heterogeneous collection of North African, Central Asian, Caucasian, and Middle Eastern Jewish communities that are no closer related to each other than they are to any of the earlier mentioned Jewish groups. In modern usage, however, the Mizrahim are sometimes termed Sephardi due to similar styles of liturgy, despite independent development from Sephardim proper. Thus, among Mizrahim there are Egyptian Jews, Iraqi Jews, Lebanese Jews, Kurdish Jews, Libyan Jews, Syrian Jews, Bukharian Jews, Mountain Jews, Georgian Jews, Iranian Jews and various others. The Teimanim from Yemen are sometimes included, although their style of liturgy is unique and they differ in respect to the admixture found among them to that found in Mizrahim. In addition, there is a differentiation made between Sephardi migrants who established themselves in the Middle East and North Africa after the expulsion of the Jews from Spain and Portugal in the 1490s and the pre-existing Jewish communities in those regions.
What group of Jews represent the bulk of modern Jewry?
572777c3f1498d1400e8f8f0
Ashkenazi Jews
0
False
Which group represents at least 70% of Jews worldwide?
572777c3f1498d1400e8f8f1
Ashkenazi Jews
0
False
Why does Ashkenazim represent the overwhelming majority of Jews in the New World continents?
572777c3f1498d1400e8f8f2
As a result of their emigration from Europe
144
False
In what country does the immigration of Jews from Algeria (Sephardim) has led them to outnumber the Ashkenazim?
572777c3f1498d1400e8f8f3
France
363
False
Ashkenazi Jews
0
Who represents the minority of modern Jewry?
5acea6ec32bba1001ae4af01
True
Ashkenazi Jews
0
Which group represents less than 70% of Jews worldwide?
5acea6ec32bba1001ae4af02
True
United States
303
What is a country where Ashkenazi Jews have not emigrated to?
5acea6ec32bba1001ae4af03
True
As a result of their emigration from Europe
144
Why do Sephardim represent the overwhelming majority of Jews in the New World?
5acea6ec32bba1001ae4af04
True
Israel
470
Where is the Jewish population least representative of all groups?
5acea6ec32bba1001ae4af05
True
Ashkenazi Jews represent the bulk of modern Jewry, with at least 70% of Jews worldwide (and up to 90% prior to World War II and the Holocaust). As a result of their emigration from Europe, Ashkenazim also represent the overwhelming majority of Jews in the New World continents, in countries such as the United States, Canada, Argentina, Australia, and Brazil. In France, the immigration of Jews from Algeria (Sephardim) has led them to outnumber the Ashkenazim. Only in Israel is the Jewish population representative of all groups, a melting pot independent of each group's proportion within the overall world Jewish population.
What is the liturgical language of Judaism?
572778495951b619008f8aad
Hebrew
0
False
What is also termed lason ha-kodesh, "the holy tongue?"
572778495951b619008f8aae
Hebrew
0
False
What are the Hebrew scriptures called?
572778495951b619008f8aaf
Tanakh
144
False
What are the two languages of the Babylonian Talmud?
572778495951b619008f8ab0
Hebrew and Aramaic
471
False
What is a closely related tongue to Hebrew?
572778495951b619008f8ab1
Aramaic
248
False
lashon ha-kodesh
53
What is Judaism termed?
5acea98d32bba1001ae4af4d
True
Aramaic
248
What language did the Jews never speak?
5acea98d32bba1001ae4af4e
True
some
354
How many Jews spoke Greek before the 3rd century BCE?
5acea98d32bba1001ae4af4f
True
Greek
394
What language was the Babylonian Talmud not written in?
5acea98d32bba1001ae4af50
True
Aramaic
482
What language did the Jews of Israel not use at that time?
5acea98d32bba1001ae4af51
True
Hebrew is the liturgical language of Judaism (termed lashon ha-kodesh, "the holy tongue"), the language in which most of the Hebrew scriptures (Tanakh) were composed, and the daily speech of the Jewish people for centuries. By the 5th century BCE, Aramaic, a closely related tongue, joined Hebrew as the spoken language in Judea. By the 3rd century BCE, some Jews of the diaspora were speaking Greek. Others, such as in the Jewish communities of Babylonia, were speaking Hebrew and Aramaic, the languages of the Babylonian Talmud. These languages were also used by the Jews of Israel at that time.[citation needed]
What is the Judaeo-German language developed by Ashkenazi Jews who migrated to Central Europe?
572778e8dd62a815002e9dd4
Yiddish
199
False
What is the Judaeo-Spanish language developed by Sephardic Jews who migrated to the Iberian peninsula?
572778e8dd62a815002e9dd5
Ladino
296
False
Name one reason the ancient and distinct Jewish languages have largely fallen out of use?
572778e8dd62a815002e9dd6
Jewish exodus from Arab and Muslim countries
482
False
centuries
4
For how long have Jews not spoken the local languages of the regions they migrated to?
5aceab0f32bba1001ae4af93
True
the local or dominant languages of the regions they migrated to
42
What have Jews never spoken?
5aceab0f32bba1001ae4af94
True
Yiddish
199
What language was developed by Ashkenazi Jews who migrated to the Iberian peninsula?
5aceab0f32bba1001ae4af95
True
widespread emigration
532
What was not a factor in Jewish languages falling out of use?
5aceab0f32bba1001ae4af96
True
Judæo-Georgian
674
What is a Jewish language that has not fallen out of use?
5aceab0f32bba1001ae4af97
True
For centuries, Jews worldwide have spoken the local or dominant languages of the regions they migrated to, often developing distinctive dialectal forms or branches that became independent languages. Yiddish is the Judæo-German language developed by Ashkenazi Jews who migrated to Central Europe. Ladino is the Judæo-Spanish language developed by Sephardic Jews who migrated to the Iberian peninsula. Due to many factors, including the impact of the Holocaust on European Jewry, the Jewish exodus from Arab and Muslim countries, and widespread emigration from other Jewish communities around the world, ancient and distinct Jewish languages of several communities, including Judæo-Georgian, Judæo-Arabic, Judæo-Berber, Krymchak, Judæo-Malayalam and many others, have largely fallen out of use.
What language is spoken by more Jews in history than any other language?
572799cb5951b619008f8e57
Yiddish
686
False
North Africans continue to use what language as their mother tongue?
572799cb5951b619008f8e58
North Africans
1823
False
What are the three most commonly spoken languages among Jews today?
572799cb5951b619008f8e59
Hebrew, English, and Russian
577
False
South African Jews adopted which language?
572799cb5951b619008f8e5a
English
1196
False
Which language has by and far superseded most Jewish vernaculars?
572799cb5951b619008f8e5b
English
154
False
the early 20th century
390
When was Hebrew last commonly used?
5acead9532bba1001ae4b009
True
Hebrew
26
What language has surpassed English as a Jewish vernacular?
5acead9532bba1001ae4b00a
True
Hebrew, English, and Russian
577
What are the three least commonly spoken languages among Jews?
5acead9532bba1001ae4b00b
True
English
1083
What language have Ashkenazi Jews adopted outside of Quebec?
5acead9532bba1001ae4b00c
True
North Africans
1823
What group has shifted from a monolingual group to a multilingual one?
5acead9532bba1001ae4b00d
True
Despite efforts to revive Hebrew as the national language of the Jewish people, knowledge of the language is not commonly possessed by Jews worldwide and English has emerged as the lingua franca of the Jewish diaspora. Although many Jews once had sufficient knowledge of Hebrew to study the classic literature, and Jewish languages like Yiddish and Ladino were commonly used as recently as the early 20th century, most Jews lack such knowledge today and English has by and large superseded most Jewish vernaculars. The three most commonly spoken languages among Jews today are Hebrew, English, and Russian. Some Romance languages, particularly French and Spanish, are also widely used. Yiddish has been spoken by more Jews in history than any other language, but it is far less used today following the Holocaust and the adoption of Modern Hebrew by the Zionist movement and the State of Israel. In some places, the mother language of the Jewish community differs from that of the general population or the dominant group. For example, in Quebec, the Ashkenazic majority has adopted English, while the Sephardic minority uses French as its primary language. Similarly, South African Jews adopted English rather than Afrikaans. Due to both Czarist and Soviet policies, Russian has superseded Yiddish as the language of Russian Jews, but these policies have also affected neighboring communities. Today, Russian is the first language for many Jewish communities in a number of Post-Soviet states, such as Ukraine and Uzbekistan, as well as for Ashkenazic Jews in Azerbaijan, Georgia, and Tajikistan. Although communities in North Africa today are small and dwindling, Jews there had shifted from a multilingual group to a monolingual one (or nearly so), speaking French in Algeria, Morocco, and the city of Tunis, while most North Africans continue to use Arabic as their mother tongue.[citation needed]
Ashkenazi Jews share more common paternal lineages with what group?
57279ae43acd2414000de7b5
Jewish and Middle Eastern groups
309
False
Jewish traditions place most Jewish paternal origins in which region?
57279ae43acd2414000de7b6
Middle East
560
False
Which lineages are generally more heterogeneous?
57279ae43acd2414000de7b7
maternal lineages
589
False
DNA studies
2
What tends to imply a large number of founders in an old population?
5aceaf1632bba1001ae4b03b
True
mainly Middle Eastern
211
What do male line ancestors appear to be outside of Jewish populations?
5aceaf1632bba1001ae4b03c
True
Scholars such as Harry Ostrer and Raphael Falk
705
Who believes many Jewish males did not find new mates from European communities?
5aceaf1632bba1001ae4b03d
True
40%
979
What percent of Ashkenazi Jews originate from four male founders?
5aceaf1632bba1001ae4b03e
True
the large portion of non-local maternal origin among Ashkenazi Jews
1255
What did studies carried out by Feder not confirm?
5aceaf1632bba1001ae4b03f
True
Y DNA studies tend to imply a small number of founders in an old population whose members parted and followed different migration paths. In most Jewish populations, these male line ancestors appear to have been mainly Middle Eastern. For example, Ashkenazi Jews share more common paternal lineages with other Jewish and Middle Eastern groups than with non-Jewish populations in areas where Jews lived in Eastern Europe, Germany and the French Rhine Valley. This is consistent with Jewish traditions in placing most Jewish paternal origins in the region of the Middle East. Conversely, the maternal lineages of Jewish populations, studied by looking at mitochondrial DNA, are generally more heterogeneous. Scholars such as Harry Ostrer and Raphael Falk believe this indicates that many Jewish males found new mates from European and other communities in the places where they migrated in the diaspora after fleeing ancient Israel. In contrast, Behar has found evidence that about 40% of Ashkenazi Jews originate maternally from just four female founders, who were of Middle Eastern origin. The populations of Sephardi and Mizrahi Jewish communities "showed no evidence for a narrow founder effect." Subsequent studies carried out by Feder et al. confirmed the large portion of non-local maternal origin among Ashkenazi Jews. Reflecting on their findings related to the maternal origin of Ashkenazi Jews, the authors conclude "Clearly, the differences between Jews and non-Jews are far larger than those observed among the Jewish communities. Hence, differences between the Jewish communities can be overlooked when non-Jews are included in the comparisons."
What looks at the entire DNA mixture?
57279bc4ff5b5019007d90e2
autosomal DNA
11
False
What has become increasingly important as the technology deveops?
57279bc4ff5b5019007d90e3
autosomal DNA
11
False
Mizrahi Jews show evidence of admixture with whom?
57279bc4ff5b5019007d90e4
Middle Eastern populations and Sub-Saharan Africans
1194
False
autosomal DNA
11
What looks at a small part of the DNA mixture?
5aceb04432bba1001ae4b06d
True
autosomal DNA
11
What has become less important as technology develops?
5aceb04432bba1001ae4b06e
True
the genetic composition of Ashkenazi, Sephardi, and Mizrahi Jewish populations
348
What does not show shared Middle Eastern ancestry?
5aceb04432bba1001ae4b06f
True
modern Italians
1332
Who did Behar say has an especially close relationship with Sephardi Jews?
5aceb04432bba1001ae4b070
True
consistent with the historical formulation of the Jewish people
597
What is the least parsimonious explantion for shared Middle Eastern ancestry?
5aceb04432bba1001ae4b071
True
Studies of autosomal DNA, which look at the entire DNA mixture, have become increasingly important as the technology develops. They show that Jewish populations have tended to form relatively closely related groups in independent communities, with most in a community sharing significant ancestry in common. For Jewish populations of the diaspora, the genetic composition of Ashkenazi, Sephardi, and Mizrahi Jewish populations show a predominant amount of shared Middle Eastern ancestry. According to Behar, the most parsimonious explanation for this shared Middle Eastern ancestry is that it is "consistent with the historical formulation of the Jewish people as descending from ancient Hebrew and Israelite residents of the Levant" and "the dispersion of the people of ancient Israel throughout the Old World". North African, Italian and others of Iberian origin show variable frequencies of admixture with non-Jewish historical host populations among the maternal lines. In the case of Ashkenazi and Sephardi Jews (in particular Moroccan Jews), who are closely related, the source of non-Jewish admixture is mainly southern European, while Mizrahi Jews show evidence of admixture with other Middle Eastern populations and Sub-Saharan Africans. Behar et al. have remarked on an especially close relationship of Ashkenazi Jews and modern Italians.
What are Sephardic Bnei Anusim?
57279c47dd62a815002ea1f8
descendants of the "anusim" forced converts to Catholicism
54
False
Who are descendants of the "anusim" forced converts to Catholicism?
57279c47dd62a815002ea1f9
Sephardic Bnei Anusim
31
False
What percentage of Iberians are Sephardic Bnei Anusim?
57279c47dd62a815002ea1fa
19.8%
144
False
Sephardic Bnei Anusim
31
Who are the descendants of the willing converts to Catholicism?
5aceb1e832bba1001ae4b089
True
19.8
144
What percentage of historical Iberia was Sephardic Bnei Anusim?
5aceb1e832bba1001ae4b08a
True
10
206
What percentage of ancient Ibero-America was Sephardic Bnei Anusim?
5aceb1e832bba1001ae4b08b
True
Cochin Jews of India
322
What population does not have some more remote ancient Jewish descent?
5aceb1e832bba1001ae4b08c
True
Beta Israel of Ethiopia
344
What other population does not have some more remote ancient Jewish descent?
5aceb1e832bba1001ae4b08d
True
The studies also show that the Sephardic Bnei Anusim (descendants of the "anusim" forced converts to Catholicism) of Iberia (estimated at about 19.8% of modern Iberia) and Ibero-America (estimated at least 10% of modern Ibero-America) have Sephardic Jewish origins within the last few centuries, while the Bene Israel and Cochin Jews of India, Beta Israel of Ethiopia, and a portion of the Lemba people of Southern Africa, despite more closely resembling the local populations of their native countries, also have some more remote ancient Jewish descent.
What years did the Jewish population rise from 800,000 to two million?
57279ce7dd62a815002ea208
1948 and 1958
8
False
What is the population of Israel?
57279ce7dd62a815002ea209
6 million
143
False
Between 1974 and 1979, how many immigrants arrived in Israel?
57279ce7dd62a815002ea20a
227,258
478
False
two million
66
What did the Jewish population rise to before 1948?
5aceb28632bba1001ae4b0ad
True
75.4
107
What percent of the Israeli population is not Jewish?
5aceb28632bba1001ae4b0ae
True
the mass immigration of Holocaust survivors
215
What were the latest years of the State of Israel marked by?
5aceb28632bba1001ae4b0af
True
227,258
478
Before 1974 how many immigrants arrived in Israel?
5aceb28632bba1001ae4b0b0
True
Western Europe
619
Where did this period see a decrease in immigration to Israel?
5aceb28632bba1001ae4b0b1
True
Between 1948 and 1958, the Jewish population rose from 800,000 to two million. Currently, Jews account for 75.4% of the Israeli population, or 6 million people. The early years of the State of Israel were marked by the mass immigration of Holocaust survivors in the aftermath of the Holocaust and Jews fleeing Arab lands. Israel also has a large population of Ethiopian Jews, many of whom were airlifted to Israel in the late 1980s and early 1990s. Between 1974 and 1979 nearly 227,258 immigrants arrived in Israel, about half being from the Soviet Union. This period also saw an increase in immigration to Israel from Western Europe, Latin America, and North America.
More than half of the Jews live where?
57279d5a3acd2414000de7e9
Diaspora
39
False
How many Jews live in Canada?
57279d5a3acd2414000de7ea
315,000
370
False
How many Jews live in Argentina?
57279d5a3acd2414000de7eb
180,000-300,000
391
False
How many Jews live in Brazil?
57279d5a3acd2414000de7ec
196,000-600,000
421
False
Diaspora
39
Where do less than half of Jews live?
5aceb3b432bba1001ae4b0cf
True
the United States
214
Where is the smallest Jewish community located?
5aceb3b432bba1001ae4b0d0
True
315,000
370
How many Jews live in Mexico?
5aceb3b432bba1001ae4b0d1
True
whether the United States has a larger Jewish population than Israel
607
What do demographers agree on?
5aceb3b432bba1001ae4b0d2
True
the 2000s
767
When did the United States surpass Israel in Jewish population?
5aceb3b432bba1001ae4b0d3
True
More than half of the Jews live in the Diaspora (see Population table). Currently, the largest Jewish community outside Israel, and either the largest or second-largest Jewish community in the world, is located in the United States, with 5.2 million to 6.4 million Jews by various estimates. Elsewhere in the Americas, there are also large Jewish populations in Canada (315,000), Argentina (180,000-300,000), and Brazil (196,000-600,000), and smaller populations in Mexico, Uruguay, Venezuela, Chile, Colombia and several other countries (see History of the Jews in Latin America). Demographers disagree on whether the United States has a larger Jewish population than Israel, with many maintaining that Israel surpassed the United States in Jewish population during the 2000s, while others maintain that the United States still has the largest Jewish population in the world. Currently, a major national Jewish population survey is planned to ascertain whether or not Israel has overtaken the United States in Jewish population.
Where is Western Europe's largest Jewish community?
57279dc32ca10214002d9224
France
112
False
How many Jews live in France?
57279dc32ca10214002d9225
between 483,000 and 500,000
128
False
What is the population of Jews in the United Kingdom?
57279dc32ca10214002d9226
292,000
351
False
France
112
What is Western Europe's smallest Jewish community?
5aceb57332bba1001ae4b0fb
True
North African Arab countries
215
Where are the majority of immigrants in the United Kingdom's Jewish community from?
5aceb57332bba1001ae4b0fc
True
Thousands
730
How many Israelis live outside of Germany?
5aceb57332bba1001ae4b0fd
True
tens of thousands
640
How many Jews immigrated to Germany before the fall of the Berlin Wall?
5aceb57332bba1001ae4b0fe
True
Germany
515
What is a slowly increasing Jewish community?
5aceb57332bba1001ae4b0ff
True
Western Europe's largest Jewish community, and the third-largest Jewish community in the world, can be found in France, home to between 483,000 and 500,000 Jews, the majority of whom are immigrants or refugees from North African Arab countries such as Algeria, Morocco, and Tunisia (or their descendants). The United Kingdom has a Jewish community of 292,000. In Eastern Europe, there are anywhere from 350,000 to one million Jews living in the former Soviet Union, but exact figures are difficult to establish. In Germany, the 102,000 Jews registered with the Jewish community are a slowly declining population, despite the immigration of tens of thousands of Jews from the former Soviet Union since the fall of the Berlin Wall. Thousands of Israelis also live in Germany, either permanently or temporarily, for economic reasons.
Prior to 1948, how many Jews were living in lands which now make up the Arab world (excluding Israel)?
57279e7d3acd2414000de801
800,000
29
False
When did a small-scale exodus begin in many countries?
57279e7d3acd2414000de802
early decades of the 20th century
525
False
The only substantial aliyah came from where?
57279e7d3acd2414000de803
Yemen and Syria
607
False
800,000
29
How many Jews lived in Arab world prior to 1948, including Israel?
5aceb83132bba1001ae4b18b
True
7
286
What percentage of Jews lived in Pahlavi Iran?
5aceb83132bba1001ae4b18c
True
800,000
29
How many Jews lived outside of the Arab world prior to 1948?
5aceb83132bba1001ae4b18d
True
Iraq, Yemen and Libya
788
Where did the last large scale exoduses of the 1940s and 1950s occur?
5aceb83132bba1001ae4b18e
True
1980s
1332
When did the migration of Iranian Jews hit its lowest point?
5aceb83132bba1001ae4b18f
True
Prior to 1948, approximately 800,000 Jews were living in lands which now make up the Arab world (excluding Israel). Of these, just under two-thirds lived in the French-controlled Maghreb region, 15–20% in the Kingdom of Iraq, approximately 10% in the Kingdom of Egypt and approximately 7% in the Kingdom of Yemen. A further 200,000 lived in Pahlavi Iran and the Republic of Turkey. Today, around 26,000 Jews live in Arab countries and around 30,000 in Iran and Turkey. A small-scale exodus had begun in many countries in the early decades of the 20th century, although the only substantial aliyah came from Yemen and Syria. The exodus from Arab and Muslim countries took place primarily from 1948. The first large-scale exoduses took place in the late 1940s and early 1950s, primarily in Iraq, Yemen and Libya, with up to 90% of these communities leaving within a few years. The peak of the exodus from Egypt occurred in 1956. The exodus in the Maghreb countries peaked in the 1960s. Lebanon was the only Arab country to see a temporary increase in its Jewish population during this period, due to an influx of refugees from other Arab countries, although by the mid-1970s the Jewish community of Lebanon had also dwindled. In the aftermath of the exodus wave from Arab states, an additional migration of Iranian Jews peaked in the 1980s when around 80% of Iranian Jews left the country.[citation needed]
When did the advent of the Jewish Enlightenment occur?
57279f7c4b864d19001638c0
18th century
426
False
What was a result of the Jewish Enlightenment?
57279f7c4b864d19001638c1
growing trend of assimilation
690
False
Name a Jewish community that disappeared entirely?
57279f7c4b864d19001638c2
Kaifeng Jews of China
334
False
in all areas
245
Where did assimilation never take place?
5aceb98332bba1001ae4b1d1
True
Kaifeng Jews of China
334
What Jewish community has never disappeared?
5aceb98332bba1001ae4b1d2
True
the Jewish Enlightenment
394
What encouraged Jews to not participate in secular society?
5aceb98332bba1001ae4b1d3
True
Jews marry non-Jewish spouses
724
What has not been caused by Jews assimilating?
5aceb98332bba1001ae4b1d4
True
Since at least the time of the Ancient Greeks, a proportion of Jews have assimilated into the wider non-Jewish society around them, by either choice or force, ceasing to practice Judaism and losing their Jewish identity. Assimilation took place in all areas, and during all time periods, with some Jewish communities, for example the Kaifeng Jews of China, disappearing entirely. The advent of the Jewish Enlightenment of the 18th century (see Haskalah) and the subsequent emancipation of the Jewish populations of Europe and America in the 19th century, accelerated the situation, encouraging Jews to increasingly participate in, and become part of, secular society. The result has been a growing trend of assimilation, as Jews marry non-Jewish spouses and stop participating in the Jewish community.
What is the rate of interreligious marriage in the United States?
57279ff03acd2414000de82d
just under 50%
74
False
What is the rate of interreligious marriage in the United Kingdom?
57279ff03acd2414000de82e
53%
120
False
What is the rate of interreligious marriage in France?
57279ff03acd2414000de82f
30%
143
False
What is the rate of interreligious marriage in Mexico?
57279ff03acd2414000de830
as low as 10%
177
False
What is the rate of interreligious marriage in Australia?
57279ff03acd2414000de831
as low as 10%
177
False
Rates of interreligious marriage
0
What does not vary by much?
5aceba3f32bba1001ae4b1eb
True
about a third
219
How many children from intermarriage affiliate with Jewish religious practice in the United Kingdom?
5aceba3f32bba1001ae4b1ec
True
about a third
219
How many children from intermarriage affiliate with Jewish religious practice in France?
5aceba3f32bba1001ae4b1ed
True
Jews continue to assimilate
425
Why do most countries in the Diaspora have increasing religiously Jewish populations?
5aceba3f32bba1001ae4b1ee
True
the countries in which they live
458
Where are Jews not assimilating into?
5aceba3f32bba1001ae4b1ef
True
Rates of interreligious marriage vary widely: In the United States, it is just under 50%, in the United Kingdom, around 53%; in France; around 30%, and in Australia and Mexico, as low as 10%. In the United States, only about a third of children from intermarriages affiliate with Jewish religious practice. The result is that most countries in the Diaspora have steady or slightly declining religiously Jewish populations as Jews continue to assimilate into the countries in which they live.[citation needed]
When did the Papal States exist?
5727a0c33acd2414000de841
until 1870
35
False
In the Papal States, what is the name for the specified neighborhoods where Jews were required to live?
5727a0c33acd2414000de842
ghettos
113
False
What promoted hatred of Jews because of their descent?
5727a0c33acd2414000de843
bad antisemitism
271
False
the Papal States
3
What existed after 1870?
5acebb5832bba1001ae4b217
True
specified neighborhoods called ghettos
82
Where were Jews required to live outside of in the Papal States?
5acebb5832bba1001ae4b218
True
the Roman Catholic Church
187
Who did not make a distinction between "good" and "bad" antisemitism?
5acebb5832bba1001ae4b219
True
conspiracies to control newspapers, banks, and other institutions
551
What conspiracies were alleged about the Catholic Church?
5acebb5832bba1001ae4b21a
True
hatred of Jews because of their descent
314
What did the "bad" kind of antisemitism not promote?
5acebb5832bba1001ae4b21b
True
In the Papal States, which existed until 1870, Jews were required to live only in specified neighborhoods called ghettos. In the 19th and (before the end of World War II) 20th centuries, the Roman Catholic Church adhered to a distinction between "good antisemitism" and "bad antisemitism". The "bad" kind promoted hatred of Jews because of their descent. This was considered un-Christian because the Christian message was intended for all of humanity regardless of ethnicity; anyone could become a Christian. The "good" kind criticized alleged Jewish conspiracies to control newspapers, banks, and other institutions, to care only about accumulation of wealth, etc.
What were Jews and Christians living in Muslim lands known as?
5727a1b64b864d19001638e8
dhimmis
114
False
What is the per capita tax imposed on free adult non-Muslim males known as?
5727a1b64b864d19001638e9
jizya
268
False
Which group had an inferior status under Islamic rule?
5727a1b64b864d19001638ea
Dhimmis
354
False
What was the disability described by Bernard Lewis as "most degrading?"
5727a1b64b864d19001638eb
requirement of distinctive clothing
662
False
Islam and Judaism
0
What religions have a simple relationship?
5acebc7c32bba1001ae4b247
True
free adult non-Muslim males
303
Who did not have to pay the jizya?
5acebc7c32bba1001ae4b248
True
Dhimmis
354
Who had a superior status under Muslim rule?
5acebc7c32bba1001ae4b249
True
prohibitions against bearing arms
460
What was a prohibition placed on Muslims under Christian rule?
5acebc7c32bba1001ae4b24a
True
the requirement of distinctive clothing
658
What was the least degrading prohibition placed on non Muslims?
5acebc7c32bba1001ae4b24b
True
Islam and Judaism have a complex relationship. Traditionally Jews and Christians living in Muslim lands, known as dhimmis, were allowed to practice their religions and administer their internal affairs, but they were subject to certain conditions. They had to pay the jizya (a per capita tax imposed on free adult non-Muslim males) to the Islamic state. Dhimmis had an inferior status under Islamic rule. They had several social and legal disabilities such as prohibitions against bearing arms or giving testimony in courts in cases involving Muslims. Many of the disabilities were highly symbolic. The one described by Bernard Lewis as "most degrading" was the requirement of distinctive clothing, not found in the Quran or hadith but invented in early medieval Baghdad; its enforcement was highly erratic. On the other hand, Jews rarely faced martyrdom or exile, or forced compulsion to change their religion, and they were mostly free in their choice of residence and profession.
What were walled quarters known as?
5727a28cff5b5019007d9170
mellahs
259
False
Who was forced into confinement in mellahs?
5727a28cff5b5019007d9171
Moroccan Jews
217
False
When did the confinement of Moroccan Jews in mellahs begin?
5727a28cff5b5019007d9172
15th century
286
False
Almohad
106
What dynasty did not massacre Jews?
5acebd3c32bba1001ae4b269
True
mellahs
259
Where were Jews in Islamic Persia confined to?
5acebd3c32bba1001ae4b26a
True
mellahs
259
Where were Jews confined after the 19th century?
5acebd3c32bba1001ae4b26b
True
antisemitic themes
397
What was conflated with anti-Zionist publications in historical times?
5acebd3c32bba1001ae4b26c
True
Hezbollah
511
What Jewish movements have made antisemitic pronouncements?
5acebd3c32bba1001ae4b26d
True
Notable exceptions include the massacre of Jews and forcible conversion of some Jews by the rulers of the Almohad dynasty in Al-Andalus in the 12th century, as well as in Islamic Persia, and the forced confinement of Moroccan Jews to walled quarters known as mellahs beginning from the 15th century and especially in the early 19th century. In modern times, it has become commonplace for standard antisemitic themes to be conflated with anti-Zionist publications and pronouncements of Islamic movements such as Hezbollah and Hamas, in the pronouncements of various agencies of the Islamic Republic of Iran, and even in the newspapers and other publications of Turkish Refah Partisi."
What was one method used to entirely eliminate Jewish populations?
5727a3644b864d1900163912
expulsion
160
False
What resulted in the massacre of Jews?
5727a3644b864d1900163913
First Crusade
326
False
Who led the Spanish Inquisition?
5727a3644b864d1900163914
Tomás de Torquemada
412
False
According to the American Journal of Human Genetics, what percentage of modern Iberian population has Sephardic Jewish ancestry?
5727a3644b864d1900163915
19.8%
843
False
expulsion to outright genocide
160
What methods were never used on Jewish populations?
5acebef832bba1001ae4b28f
True
the threat of these extreme methods
214
What was not sufficient to silence dissent?
5acebef832bba1001ae4b290
True
Tomás de Torquemada
412
Who was the First Crusade led by?
5acebef832bba1001ae4b291
True
Pogroms
606
What was opposed by the Russian Tsars?
5acebef832bba1001ae4b292
True
19.8
843
What percent of the historical Iberian population has Sephardic Jewish ancestry?
5acebef832bba1001ae4b293
True
Throughout history, many rulers, empires and nations have oppressed their Jewish populations or sought to eliminate them entirely. Methods employed ranged from expulsion to outright genocide; within nations, often the threat of these extreme methods was sufficient to silence dissent. The history of antisemitism includes the First Crusade which resulted in the massacre of Jews; the Spanish Inquisition (led by Tomás de Torquemada) and the Portuguese Inquisition, with their persecution and autos-da-fé against the New Christians and Marrano Jews; the Bohdan Chmielnicki Cossack massacres in Ukraine; the Pogroms backed by the Russian Tsars; as well as expulsions from Spain, Portugal, England, France, Germany, and other countries in which the Jews had settled. According to a 2008 study published in the American Journal of Human Genetics, 19.8% of the modern Iberian population has Sephardic Jewish ancestry, indicating that the number of conversos may have been much higher than originally thought.
How many Jews were slaughtered in the Holocaust?
5727a4b74b864d190016392e
approximately 6 million
113
False
Worldwide, how many Jews were there in 1939?
5727a4b74b864d190016392f
15 million
158
False
What was the state-led systematic persecution and genocide of European Jews and other minority groups?
5727a4b74b864d1900163930
The Holocaust
231
False
In 1939, what fraction of Jews were killed in The Holocaust?
5727a4b74b864d1900163931
more than a third
183
False
Nazi Germany's
34
Where did the persecution reach its lowest amount?
5acec0c132bba1001ae4b2b9
True
more than a third
183
How many Jews were not killed in the Holocaust?
5acec0c132bba1001ae4b2ba
True
years before the outbreak of World War II
662
When was legislation to remove the Jews from civil society struck down?
5acec0c132bba1001ae4b2bb
True
15 million
158
How many Jews were there before 1939?
5acec0c132bba1001ae4b2bc
True
specialized units called Einsatzgruppen murdered Jews and political opponents in mass shootings
892
What happened when the Third Reich conquered territory in Western Europe?
5acec0c132bba1001ae4b2bd
True
The persecution reached a peak in Nazi Germany's Final Solution, which led to the Holocaust and the slaughter of approximately 6 million Jews. Of the world's 15 million Jews in 1939, more than a third were killed in the Holocaust. The Holocaust—the state-led systematic persecution and genocide of European Jews (and certain communities of North African Jews in European controlled North Africa) and other minority groups of Europe during World War II by Germany and its collaborators remains the most notable modern-day persecution of Jews. The persecution and genocide were accomplished in stages. Legislation to remove the Jews from civil society was enacted years before the outbreak of World War II. Concentration camps were established in which inmates were used as slave labour until they died of exhaustion or disease. Where the Third Reich conquered new territory in Eastern Europe, specialized units called Einsatzgruppen murdered Jews and political opponents in mass shootings. Jews and Roma were crammed into ghettos before being transported hundreds of miles by freight train to extermination camps where, if they survived the journey, the majority of them were killed in gas chambers. Virtually every arm of Germany's bureaucracy was involved in the logistics of the mass murder, turning the country into what one Holocaust scholar has called "a genocidal nation."
What is one method used to prevent intermarriage?
5727a5602ca10214002d92b8
pursuing secular Jews in order to give them a stronger Jewish identity
44
False
What is the trend for secular Jews to become more religiously observant known as?
5727a5602ca10214002d92b9
the Baal Teshuva movement
274
False
Who leads the movement that pursues secular Jews in order to give them stronger Jewish identity?
5727a5602ca10214002d92ba
Orthodox
25
False
in order to give them a stronger Jewish identity
66
Why do secular Jews persue Orthodox movements?
5acec1ed32bba1001ae4b2ed
True
As a result of the efforts by these and other Jewish groups
157
Why has there been a trend for secular Jews to become less religious?
5acec1ed32bba1001ae4b2ee
True
gentiles
496
Who has a shrinking rate of conversion?
5acec1ed32bba1001ae4b2ef
True
the Baal Teshuva movement
274
What is the trend for Jews to become less religiously observant called?
5acec1ed32bba1001ae4b2f0
True
over the past 25 years
217
When have Jews made efforts to be less religiously observant?
5acec1ed32bba1001ae4b2f1
True
There is also a trend of Orthodox movements pursuing secular Jews in order to give them a stronger Jewish identity so there is less chance of intermarriage. As a result of the efforts by these and other Jewish groups over the past 25 years, there has been a trend (known as the Baal Teshuva movement) for secular Jews to become more religiously observant, though the demographic implications of the trend are unknown. Additionally, there is also a growing rate of conversion to Jews by Choice of gentiles who make the decision to head in the direction of becoming Jews.
Cotton
What is the most frequent use of cotton?
572673e2f1498d1400e8e012
fabric
116
False
To what date has cotton been dated?
572673e2f1498d1400e8e013
5000 BC
200
False
Where in India has cotton been found from prehistoric times?
572673e2f1498d1400e8e014
Indus Valley
246
False
In what Central American country has cotton use been found from early times?
572673e2f1498d1400e8e015
Mexico
231
False
What machinery has lead to the  easily made and widespread use of cotton?
572673e2f1498d1400e8e016
cotton gin
401
False
fabric
116
What is the most frequent use of cloth?
5a816f9931013a001a334c19
True
5000 BC
200
To what date has the cotton gin been dated?
5a816f9931013a001a334c1a
True
Indus Valley
246
Where in India has the cotton gin been found from prehistoric times?
5a816f9931013a001a334c1b
True
Mexico
231
In what Central American country has cotton gin use been found from early times?
5a816f9931013a001a334c1c
True
cotton gin
401
What textile has lead to the easily and widespread use of cotton?
5a816f9931013a001a334c1d
True
The fiber is most often spun into yarn or thread and used to make a soft, breathable textile. The use of cotton for fabric is known to date to prehistoric times; fragments of cotton fabric dated from 5000 BC have been excavated in Mexico and the Indus Valley Civilization in Ancient India (modern-day Pakistan and some parts of India). Although cultivated since antiquity, it was the invention of the cotton gin that lowered the cost of production that led to its widespread use, and it is the most widely used natural fiber cloth in clothing today.
Where in Southeast Asia has early use of cotton been discovered?
572676edf1498d1400e8e090
Mehrgarh, Pakistan
80
False
To what period has cotton been dated in Pakistan?
572676edf1498d1400e8e091
Neolithic
195
False
When did the Indus Valley Civilization cover parts of India and Pakistan?
572676edf1498d1400e8e092
3300 and 1300 BCE
388
False
Until what event did the ancient methods of spinning and fabrication of cotton last?
572676edf1498d1400e8e093
industrialization
539
False
During what time did cotton become widely used in India?
572676edf1498d1400e8e094
2000 and 1000 BC
575
False
Mehrgarh, Pakistan
80
Where in Southeast Asia has early use of industry been discovered?
5a81715931013a001a334c23
True
Neolithic
195
To what period has industry been dated in Pakistan?
5a81715931013a001a334c24
True
3300 and 1300 BCE
388
When did cotton cover parts of Inida and Pakistan?
5a81715931013a001a334c25
True
industrialization
539
Until what event did the ancient methods of bead spinning last?
5a81715931013a001a334c26
True
2000 and 1000 BC
575
During what time did copper beads become widely used in India?
5a81715931013a001a334c27
True
The earliest evidence of cotton use in South Asia has been found at the site of Mehrgarh, Pakistan, where cotton threads have been found preserved in copper beads; these finds have been dated to Neolithic (between 6000 and 5000 BCE). Cotton cultivation in the region is dated to the Indus Valley Civilization, which covered parts of modern eastern Pakistan and northwestern India between 3300 and 1300 BCE The Indus cotton industry was well-developed and some methods used in cotton spinning and fabrication continued to be used until the industrialization of India. Between 2000 and 1000 BC cotton became widespread across much of India. For example, it has been found at the site of Hallus in Karnataka dating from around 1000 BC.
Use of cotton in Iran dates back to what period?
5726785bf1498d1400e8e0d2
Achaemenid era
58
False
When was the Achaemenid era?
5726785bf1498d1400e8e0d3
5th century BC
74
False
In what source can references to cotton be found in Iran?
5726785bf1498d1400e8e0d4
Persian poets' poems
240
False
What 13th century explorer saw cotton in Persia?
5726785bf1498d1400e8e0d5
Marco Polo
347
False
What Frenchman in the 17th century noted cotton farming in Persia?
5726785bf1498d1400e8e0d6
John Chardin
431
False
Achaemenid era
58
Us of cotton in France dates back to what period?
5a8173b931013a001a334c2d
True
5th century BC
74
When was the Persian era?
5a8173b931013a001a334c2e
True
Persian poets' poems
240
In what source can references to cotton be found in France?
5a8173b931013a001a334c2f
True
Marco Polo
347
What 13th century explorer saw cotton in France?
5a8173b931013a001a334c30
True
John Chardin
431
What Frenchman in the 13th century noted cotton farming in Persia?
5a8173b931013a001a334c31
True
In Iran (Persia), the history of cotton dates back to the Achaemenid era (5th century BC); however, there are few sources about the planting of cotton in pre-Islamic Iran. The planting of cotton was common in Merv, Ray and Pars of Iran. In Persian poets' poems, especially Ferdowsi's Shahname, there are references to cotton ("panbe" in Persian). Marco Polo (13th century) refers to the major products of Persia, including cotton. John Chardin, a French traveler of the 17th century who visited the Safavid Persia, spoke approvingly of the vast cotton farms of Persia.
When did cotton begin to be commercially grown in Egypt?
57267a28f1498d1400e8e104
1820's,
87
False
What French businessman convinced the ruler of Egypt to grow cotton for the French market?
57267a28f1498d1400e8e105
M. Jumel
133
False
Who was ruler of Egypt in the 1820s?
57267a28f1498d1400e8e106
Mohamed Ali Pasha
330
False
How high had cotton revenues risen by the time of the American Civil War?
57267a28f1498d1400e8e107
$56 million
629
False
How many bales of cotton were produced by Egypt by 1903?
57267a28f1498d1400e8e108
1.2 million bales a year
856
False
1820's
87
When did cotton begin to be commercially grown in the US?
5a81764131013a001a334c37
True
M. Jumel
133
What French businessman convinced the ruler of Egypt to grow cotton for the US market?
5a81764131013a001a334c38
True
Mohamed Ali Pasha
174
Who was ruler of Egypt in 1903?
5a81764131013a001a334c39
True
$56 million
629
How high had cotton revenues risen by the time of the French Civil War?
5a81764131013a001a334c3a
True
1.2 million bales a year
856
How many bales of cotton were produced by Egypt by 1820?
5a81764131013a001a334c3b
True
Though known since antiquity the commercial growing of cotton in Egypt only started in 1820's, following a Frenchman, by the name of M. Jumel, propositioning the then ruler, Mohamed Ali Pasha, that he could earn a substantial income by growing an extra-long staple Maho (Barbadence) cotton, in Lower Egypt, for the French market. Mohamed Ali Pasha accepted the proposition and granted himself the monopoly on the sale and export of cotton in Egypt; and later dictated cotton should be grown in preference to other crops. By the time of the American Civil war annual exports had reached $16 million (120,000 bales), which rose to $56 million by 1864, primarily due to the loss of the Confederate supply on the world market. Exports continued to grow even after the reintroduction of US cotton, produced now by a paid workforce, and Egyptian exports reached 1.2 million bales a year by 1903.
In the late medieval period in Europe as what was cotton viewed?
57267c9bdd62a815002e86e0
imported fiber
59
False
What ancient writer gave later eras the idea that cotton might be a tree?
57267c9bdd62a815002e86e1
Herodotus
179
False
What 1350 writer stated that cotton was produced by sheep that grew on trees?
57267c9bdd62a815002e86e2
John Mandeville
651
False
By the end of what century was cotton grown in the Americas and Asia?
57267c9bdd62a815002e86e3
16th century
984
False
Why was it easy for people to believe that cotton grew on sheep that grew in plants?
57267c9bdd62a815002e86e4
similarities to wool
538
False
imported fiber
59
What was cotton viewed as in the late medieval period in Asia?
5a8178d431013a001a334c41
True
Herodotus
179
What ancient writer gave later eras the idea that wool might be a tree?
5a8178d431013a001a334c42
True
John Mandeville
651
What 1350 writer stated that wool was produced by sheep that grew on trees?
5a8178d431013a001a334c43
True
16th century
984
By the end of what century was cotton grown in Germany?
5a8178d431013a001a334c44
True
similarities to wool
538
Why was it easy for people to believe that cotton grew on sheep that grew in northern Europe?
5a8178d431013a001a334c45
True
During the late medieval period, cotton became known as an imported fiber in northern Europe, without any knowledge of how it was derived, other than that it was a plant. Because Herodotus had written in his Histories, Book III, 106, that in India trees grew in the wild producing wool, it was assumed that the plant was a tree, rather than a shrub. This aspect is retained in the name for cotton in several Germanic languages, such as German Baumwolle, which translates as "tree wool" (Baum means "tree"; Wolle means "wool"). Noting its similarities to wool, people in the region could only imagine that cotton must be produced by plant-borne sheep. John Mandeville, writing in 1350, stated as fact the now-preposterous belief: "There grew there [India] a wonderful tree which bore tiny lambs on the endes of its branches. These branches were so pliable that they bent down to allow the lambs to feed when they are hungrie  [sic]." (See Vegetable Lamb of Tartary.) By the end of the 16th century, cotton was cultivated throughout the warmer regions in Asia and the Americas.
How did British rule effect Indian cotton processing?
572732bbdd62a815002e9970
declined
43
False
During what centuries did British rule effect Indian cotton production?
572732bbdd62a815002e9971
late 18th and early 19th
136
False
What British business's policies damaged the Indian cotton industry?
572732bbdd62a815002e9972
British East India Company
246
False
What cotton products did British law mandate that India was allowed to sell?
572732bbdd62a815002e9973
raw cotton
410
False
If instead of producing fabrics, where was India forced to purchase cotton products?
572732bbdd62a815002e9974
Britain
489
False
declined
43
How did East India rule effect Indian cotton processing?
5a817a6831013a001a334c4b
True
late 18th and early 19th
136
During what centuries did East India rule effect Indian cotton production?
5a817a6831013a001a334c4c
True
British East India Company
246
What British business's policies damaged the British cotton industry?
5a817a6831013a001a334c4d
True
raw cotton
410
What cotton products did Indian law mandate that India was allowed to sell?
5a817a6831013a001a334c4e
True
Britain
489
Where was the British East India Company forced to purchase cotton products?
5a817a6831013a001a334c4f
True
India's cotton-processing sector gradually declined during British expansion in India and the establishment of colonial rule during the late 18th and early 19th centuries. This was largely due to aggressive colonialist mercantile policies of the British East India Company, which made cotton processing and manufacturing workshops in India uncompetitive. Indian markets were increasingly forced to supply only raw cotton and, by British-imposed law, to purchase manufactured textiles from Britain.[citation needed]
What event produced an expansion of the British cotton industry?
57273abddd62a815002e99cc
Industrial Revolution
18
False
When was a new spinning machine patented that boosted cotton production?
57273abddd62a815002e99cd
1738
149
False
What device did James Hargreaves invent?
57273abddd62a815002e99ce
spinning jenny
434
False
What was Samuel Crompton's invention of 1775?
57273abddd62a815002e99cf
spinning mule
523
False
Whic British city was nicknamed "Cottonopolis" because of its cotton production?
57273abddd62a815002e99d0
Manchester
666
False
Industrial Revolution
18
What event produced an expansion of John Wyatt's cotton industry?
5a817da431013a001a334c55
True
1738
149
When was a new spinning machine patented that boosted frame production?
5a817da431013a001a334c56
True
spinning jenny
434
What device did Manchester invent?
5a817da431013a001a334c57
True
spinning mule
523
What was Samuel Crompton's invention of 1769?
5a817da431013a001a334c58
True
Manchester
666
Which British city was nicknamed "Cottonopolis" because of its frame production?
5a817da431013a001a334c59
True
The advent of the Industrial Revolution in Britain provided a great boost to cotton manufacture, as textiles emerged as Britain's leading export. In 1738, Lewis Paul and John Wyatt, of Birmingham, England, patented the roller spinning machine, as well as the flyer-and-bobbin system for drawing cotton to a more even thickness using two sets of rollers that traveled at different speeds. Later, the invention of the James Hargreaves' spinning jenny in 1764, Richard Arkwright's spinning frame in 1769 and Samuel Crompton's spinning mule in 1775 enabled British spinners to produce cotton yarn at much higher rates. From the late 18th century on, the British city of Manchester acquired the nickname "Cottonopolis" due to the cotton industry's omnipresence within the city, and Manchester's role as the heart of the global cotton trade.
What invention improved the cotton industry in both America and Britain?
57273cb5dd62a815002e99e6
cotton gin
90
False
What American invented the cotton gin?
57273cb5dd62a815002e99e7
Eli Whitney
117
False
Before the use of the cotton gin, how was cotton separated?
57273cb5dd62a815002e99e8
by hand
237
False
What business development did the British use to establish a hold on the global cotton market?
57273cb5dd62a815002e99e9
commercial chain
868
False
From what source was raw cotton first bought and later resold?
57273cb5dd62a815002e99ea
colonial markets
1067
False
cotton gin
90
What invention improved the cotton industry in both Holmes and Britain?
5a817f9831013a001a334c5f
True
Eli Whitney
117
What British person invented the cotton gin?
5a817f9831013a001a334c60
True
by hand
237
Before the use of the cotton gin, how were bales separated?
5a817f9831013a001a334c61
True
commercial chain
868
What business development did the Americans use to establish a hold on the global cotton market?
5a817f9831013a001a334c62
True
colonial markets
1067
From what source were cotton gins first bought and later resold?
5a817f9831013a001a334c63
True
Production capacity in Britain and the United States was improved by the invention of the cotton gin by the American Eli Whitney in 1793. Before the development of cotton gins, the cotton fibers had to be pulled from the seeds tediously by hand. By the late 1700s a number of crude ginning machines had been developed. However, to produce a bale of cotton required over 600 hours of human labor, making large-scale production uneconomical in the United States, even with the use of humans as slave labor. The gin that Whitney manufactured (the Holmes design) reduced the hours down to just a dozen or so per bale. Although Whitney patented his own design for a cotton gin, he manufactured a prior design from Henry Odgen Holmes, for which Holmes filed a patent in 1796. Improving technology and increasing control of world markets allowed British traders to develop a commercial chain in which raw cotton fibers were (at first) purchased from colonial plantations, processed into cotton cloth in the mills of Lancashire, and then exported on British ships to captive colonial markets in West Africa, India, and China (via Shanghai and Hong Kong).
What was the difference that made American cotton preferred over Indian cotton?
57273ec05951b619008f8747
longer, stronger fibers
310
False
In the 1840s, what country could no longer adequately supply the British cotton mills?
57273ec05951b619008f8748
India
14
False
Besides buying from the American plantations, where else in the western hemisphere did Britain buy cotton?
57273ec05951b619008f8749
Caribbean
536
False
By what time had cotton become prominent in the American economy of the south?
57273ec05951b619008f874a
mid-19th century
554
False
What was cotton called in the 19th century?
57273ec05951b619008f874b
King Cotton
573
False
longer, stronger fibers
310
What was the difference that made Indian cotton preferred over British cotton?
5a8181e831013a001a334c69
True
India
14
In the 1840s, what country could no longer adequately supply the Indian cotton mills?
5a8181e831013a001a334c6a
True
Caribbean
536
Besides buying from the American plantations, where else in the western hemisphere did India buy cotton?
5a8181e831013a001a334c6b
True
mid-19th century
554
By what time had cotton become prominent in the Indian economy of the south?
5a8181e831013a001a334c6c
True
King Cotton
573
What was America called in the 19th century?
5a8181e831013a001a334c6d
True
By the 1840s, India was no longer capable of supplying the vast quantities of cotton fibers needed by mechanized British factories, while shipping bulky, low-price cotton from India to Britain was time-consuming and expensive. This, coupled with the emergence of American cotton as a superior type (due to the longer, stronger fibers of the two domesticated native American species, Gossypium hirsutum and Gossypium barbadense), encouraged British traders to purchase cotton from plantations in the United States and plantations in the Caribbean. By the mid-19th century, "King Cotton" had become the backbone of the southern American economy. In the United States, cultivating and harvesting cotton became the leading occupation of slaves.
When did the American cotton industry fail?
572740875951b619008f8775
American Civil War
11
False
What action of the Union damaged the southern cotton exports?
572740875951b619008f8776
Union blockade
72
False
To what county's cotton did European buyers turn due to the American Civil War?
572740875951b619008f8777
Egyptian
340
False
What characteristic of American cotton attracted buyers after the end of the Civil war?
572740875951b619008f8778
cheap
650
False
What did the abandonment of Egyptian cotton mean to the Egyptian economy?
572740875951b619008f8779
bankruptcy
761
False
American Civil War
11
When did the Egyptian cotton industry fall?
5a8184d631013a001a334c73
True
Union blockade
72
What action of the Union damaged the French cotton exports?
5a8184d631013a001a334c74
True
Egyptian
340
To what country's cotton did Southern buyers turn due to the American Civil War?
5a8184d631013a001a334c75
True
cheap
650
What characteristic of Egyptian cotton attracted buyers after the end of the Civil war?
5a8184d631013a001a334c76
True
bankruptcy
761
What did the abandonment of Southern cotton mean to the Egyptian economy?
5a8184d631013a001a334c77
True
During the American Civil War, American cotton exports slumped due to a Union blockade on Southern ports, and also because of a strategic decision by the Confederate government to cut exports, hoping to force Britain to recognize the Confederacy or enter the war. This prompted the main purchasers of cotton, Britain and France, to turn to Egyptian cotton. British and French traders invested heavily in cotton plantations. The Egyptian government of Viceroy Isma'il took out substantial loans from European bankers and stock exchanges. After the American Civil War ended in 1865, British and French traders abandoned Egyptian cotton and returned to cheap American exports,[citation needed] sending Egypt into a deficit spiral that led to the country declaring bankruptcy in 1876, a key factor behind Egypt's occupation by the British Empire in 1882.
What was the procedure called which involved workers to work for a share of the profits?
5727428ff1498d1400e8f546
sharecropping
126
False
What difficulty in harvesting cotton required a large labor force?
5727428ff1498d1400e8f547
hand-pick
418
False
Besides adults what segment of the southern US population was involved in the harvesting of cotton?
5727428ff1498d1400e8f548
children
564
False
What function of southern schools was created for children to pick cotton?
5727428ff1498d1400e8f549
split vacations
545
False
What part of the southern population worked as sharecroppers?
5727428ff1498d1400e8f54a
landless
158
False
sharecropping
126
What was the procedure called which involved the South to work for a share of the profits?
5a8187fa31013a001a334c7d
True
hand-pick
418
What difficulty in harvesting cotton required a larger economy?
5a8187fa31013a001a334c7e
True
children
564
Besides adults what segment of the southern US population was involved in school systems?
5a8187fa31013a001a334c7f
True
split vacations
545
What function of southern schools was created for adults to pick cotton?
5a8187fa31013a001a334c80
True
landless
158
What part of the southern population worked as farmers?
5a8187fa31013a001a334c81
True
Cotton remained a key crop in the Southern economy after emancipation and the end of the Civil War in 1865. Across the South, sharecropping evolved, in which landless black and white farmers worked land owned by others in return for a share of the profits. Some farmers rented the land and bore the production costs themselves. Until mechanical cotton pickers were developed, cotton farmers needed additional labor to hand-pick cotton. Picking cotton was a source of income for families across the South. Rural and small town school systems had split vacations so children could work in the fields during "cotton-picking."
What is the optimum amount of rainfall for cotton growth?
5727444df1498d1400e8f574
600 to 1,200 mm
126
False
In what soil type does cotton prefer to grow ?
5727444df1498d1400e8f575
heavy
189
False
Why is cotton grown as an annual crop?
5727444df1498d1400e8f576
control pests
684
False
Where in the US is considered the best place to grow cotton on Earth?
5727444df1498d1400e8f577
South Plains
857
False
What type of tolerances make cotton an ideal crop for semiarid areas?
5727444df1498d1400e8f578
salt and drought
1141
False
600 to 1,200 mm
126
What is the minimum amount of rainfall for cotton growth?
5a81893831013a001a334c87
True
heavy
189
In what rainfall type does cotton prefer to grow?
5a81893831013a001a334c88
True
control pests
684
Why is cotton grown as a regional crop?
5a81893831013a001a334c89
True
South Plains
857
Where in the US is considered the best place to control pests on Earth?
5a81893831013a001a334c8a
True
salt and drought
1141
What type of tolerances make cotton an ideal crop for the Northern hemisphere?
5a81893831013a001a334c8b
True
Successful cultivation of cotton requires a long frost-free period, plenty of sunshine, and a moderate rainfall, usually from 600 to 1,200 mm (24 to 47 in). Soils usually need to be fairly heavy, although the level of nutrients does not need to be exceptional. In general, these conditions are met within the seasonally dry tropics and subtropics in the Northern and Southern hemispheres, but a large proportion of the cotton grown today is cultivated in areas with less rainfall that obtain the water from irrigation. Production of the crop for a given year usually starts soon after harvesting the preceding autumn. Cotton is naturally a perennial but is grown as an annual to help control pests. Planting time in spring in the Northern hemisphere varies from the beginning of February to the beginning of June. The area of the United States known as the South Plains is the largest contiguous cotton-growing region in the world. While dryland (non-irrigated) cotton is successfully grown in this region, consistent yields are only produced with heavy reliance on irrigation water drawn from the Ogallala Aquifer. Since cotton is somewhat salt and drought tolerant, this makes it an attractive crop for arid and semiarid regions. As water resources get tighter around the world, economies that rely on it face difficulties and conflict, as well as potential environmental problems. For example, improper cropping and irrigation practices have led to desertification in areas of Uzbekistan, where cotton is a major export. In the days of the Soviet Union, the Aral Sea was tapped for agricultural irrigation, largely of cotton, and now salination is widespread.
To stop reliance on what was GM cotton developed?
57274e25dd62a815002e9aca
pesticides
79
False
What form of cotton is GM?
57274e25dd62a815002e9acb
Genetically modified
0
False
What bacterium is used to produced GM cotton?
57274e25dd62a815002e9acc
Bacillus thuringiensis
105
False
What farming pest management technique does the use of GM grown plants promote?
57274e25dd62a815002e9acd
noninsecticide
851
False
What part of the life cycle of moths does Bt toxin effect?
57274e25dd62a815002e9ace
larvae
225
False
pesticides
79
To stop refinance on what was GM larvae developed?
5a818a8a31013a001a334c91
True
Genetically modified
0
What form of larvae is larvae?
5a818a8a31013a001a334c92
True
noninsecticide
851
What farming pest management technique does the use of larvae grown plants promote?
5a818a8a31013a001a334c93
True
larvae
531
What part of the life cycle of cotton does Bt toxin effect
5a818a8a31013a001a334c94
True
Bacillus thuringiensis
105
What bacterium is used to produce larvae cotton?
5a818a8a31013a001a334c95
True
Genetically modified (GM) cotton was developed to reduce the heavy reliance on pesticides. The bacterium Bacillus thuringiensis (Bt) naturally produces a chemical harmful only to a small fraction of insects, most notably the larvae of moths and butterflies, beetles, and flies, and harmless to other forms of life. The gene coding for Bt toxin has been inserted into cotton, causing cotton, called Bt cotton, to produce this natural insecticide in its tissues. In many regions, the main pests in commercial cotton are lepidopteran larvae, which are killed by the Bt protein in the transgenic cotton they eat. This eliminates the need to use large amounts of broad-spectrum insecticides to kill lepidopteran pests (some of which have developed pyrethroid resistance). This spares natural insect predators in the farm ecology and further contributes to noninsecticide pest management.
In what year did a research study find that the use of Bt toxin plants failed to be effective after 7 years?
5727502cdd62a815002e9ae6
2006
199
False
On what did a 2009 study conclude that increased insects were dependent?
5727502cdd62a815002e9ae7
temperature and rainfall
876
False
What did a 2012 study suggest  was halved by the use of GM plants?
5727502cdd62a815002e9ae8
pesticides
1198
False
What did the 2012 study say was doubled by the use of GM cotton?
5727502cdd62a815002e9ae9
ladybirds, lacewings and spiders
1234
False
How much of the Earth's cotton crops are planted in GM cotton?
5727502cdd62a815002e9aea
69%
1447
False
temperature and rainfall
876
On what did a 2009 study conclude that increased pests were dependent?
5a818ce231013a001a334c9b
True
pesticides
1198
What did a 2012 study suggest was halved by the use of secondary plants?
5a818ce231013a001a334c9c
True
ladybirds, lacewings and spiders
1234
What did the 2012 study say was doubled by the use of Chinese cotton?
5a818ce231013a001a334c9d
True
69%
1447
How much of the Earth's cotton crops are planted in China?
5a818ce231013a001a334c9e
True
25 million hectares
1409
How much GM cotton was planted in 2009?
5a818ce231013a001a334c9f
True
But Bt cotton is ineffective against many cotton pests, however, such as plant bugs, stink bugs, and aphids; depending on circumstances it may still be desirable to use insecticides against these. A 2006 study done by Cornell researchers, the Center for Chinese Agricultural Policy and the Chinese Academy of Science on Bt cotton farming in China found that after seven years these secondary pests that were normally controlled by pesticide had increased, necessitating the use of pesticides at similar levels to non-Bt cotton and causing less profit for farmers because of the extra expense of GM seeds. However, a 2009 study by the Chinese Academy of Sciences, Stanford University and Rutgers University refuted this. They concluded that the GM cotton effectively controlled bollworm. The secondary pests were mostly miridae (plant bugs) whose increase was related to local temperature and rainfall and only continued to increase in half the villages studied. Moreover, the increase in insecticide use for the control of these secondary insects was far smaller than the reduction in total insecticide use due to Bt cotton adoption. A 2012 Chinese study concluded that Bt cotton halved the use of pesticides and doubled the level of ladybirds, lacewings and spiders. The International Service for the Acquisition of Agri-biotech Applications (ISAAA) said that, worldwide, GM cotton was planted on an area of 25 million hectares in 2011. This was 69% of the worldwide total area planted in cotton.
How much area was planted in India in GM cotton in 2011?
572751d2dd62a815002e9afa
10.6 million hectares
92
False
What was the percentage of GM cotton planted in India in 2011?
572751d2dd62a815002e9afb
88%
215
False
Waht country has the largest area of GM cotton on Earth?
572751d2dd62a815002e9afc
India
249
False
At what rank does US GM cotton stand in the world?
572751d2dd62a815002e9afd
second largest
579
False
What percentage of Australia's cotton crop was GM in 2009?
572751d2dd62a815002e9afe
95%
1090
False
10.6 million hectares
92
How much area was planted in India in GM cotton in 2009?
5a818e2831013a001a334ca5
True
88%
215
What was the percentage of GM cotton planted in India in 2009?
5a818e2831013a001a334ca6
True
India
148
What country has the largest area of non-transgenic cotton on Earth?
5a818e2831013a001a334ca7
True
second largest
579
At what rank does US non-trangenic cotton stand in the world?
5a818e2831013a001a334ca8
True
95%
1090
What percentage of Australia's cotton crop was non-transgenic in 2009?
5a818e2831013a001a334ca9
True
GM cotton acreage in India grew at a rapid rate, increasing from 50,000 hectares in 2002 to 10.6 million hectares in 2011. The total cotton area in India was 12.1 million hectares in 2011, so GM cotton was grown on 88% of the cotton area. This made India the country with the largest area of GM cotton in the world. A long-term study on the economic impacts of Bt cotton in India, published in the Journal PNAS in 2012, showed that Bt cotton has increased yields, profits, and living standards of smallholder farmers. The U.S. GM cotton crop was 4.0 million hectares in 2011 the second largest area in the world, the Chinese GM cotton crop was third largest by area with 3.9 million hectares and Pakistan had the fourth largest GM cotton crop area of 2.6 million hectares in 2011. The initial introduction of GM cotton proved to be a success in Australia – the yields were equivalent to the non-transgenic varieties and the crop used much less pesticide to produce (85% reduction). The subsequent introduction of a second variety of GM cotton led to increases in GM cotton production until 95% of the Australian cotton crop was GM in 2009 making Australia the country with the fifth largest GM cotton crop in the world. Other GM cotton growing countries in 2011 were Argentina, Myanmar, Burkina Faso, Brazil, Mexico, Colombia, South Africa and Costa Rica.
What are organic plants understood to be?
572754b1f1498d1400e8f656
not genetically modified
61
False
Without what are organic plants meant to be grown ?
572754b1f1498d1400e8f657
synthetic agricultural chemicals
143
False
What is meant by synthetic chemicals?
572754b1f1498d1400e8f658
fertilizers or pesticides
185
False
What group in the US determines the allowed practices in organic agriculture?
572754b1f1498d1400e8f659
National Organic Program
367
False
How much organic cotton was produced worldwide in 2007?
572754b1f1498d1400e8f65a
265,517 bales
532
False
not genetically modified
61
What are NOP plants understood to be?
5a818f7131013a001a334caf
True
synthetic agricultural chemicals
143
Without what are NOP plants meant to be grown?
5a818f7131013a001a334cb0
True
fertilizers or pesticides
185
What is meant by NOP chemicals?
5a818f7131013a001a334cb1
True
National Organic Program
367
What group in the US determines the allowed practices in 24 countries?
5a818f7131013a001a334cb2
True
265,517 bales
532
How much sythetic cotton was produced worldwide in 2007?
5a818f7131013a001a334cb3
True
Organic cotton is generally understood as cotton from plants not genetically modified and that is certified to be grown without the use of any synthetic agricultural chemicals, such as fertilizers or pesticides. Its production also promotes and enhances biodiversity and biological cycles. In the United States, organic cotton plantations are required to enforce the National Organic Program (NOP). This institution determines the allowed practices for pest control, growing, fertilizing, and handling of organic crops. As of 2007, 265,517 bales of organic cotton were produced in 24 countries, and worldwide production was growing at a rate of more than 50% per year.
What insect is the most destructive pest in cotton growing in the US?
572756af708984140094dc67
boll weevil
113
False
What program has effectively eliminated the boll weevil in the US?
572756af708984140094dc68
Boll Weevil Eradication Program
186
False
What is the organization that instigated the Boll Weevil Eradication Program?
572756af708984140094dc69
US Department of Agriculture
137
False
What form of cotton contains a genetically modified gene?
572756af708984140094dc6a
Bt cotton
366
False
On what does the use of Bt cotton reduce reliance?
572756af708984140094dc6b
synthetic insecticides.
566
False
boll weevil
113
What insect is the most destructive pest in cotton growing in the BWEP?
5a81907331013a001a334cb9
True
Boll Weevil Eradication Program
186
What program has effectively eliminated pests in the US?
5a81907331013a001a334cba
True
US Department of Agriculture
137
What is the organization that instigated the boll weevil?
5a81907331013a001a334cbb
True
Bt cotton
366
What form of cotton contains a genetically modified pest?
5a81907331013a001a334cbc
True
synthetic insecticides
566
On what does the use of BWEP reduce reliance?
5a81907331013a001a334cbd
True
Historically, in North America, one of the most economically destructive pests in cotton production has been the boll weevil. Due to the US Department of Agriculture's highly successful Boll Weevil Eradication Program (BWEP), this pest has been eliminated from cotton in most of the United States. This program, along with the introduction of genetically engineered Bt cotton (which contains a bacterial gene that codes for a plant-produced protein that is toxic to a number of pests such as cotton bollworm and pink bollworm), has allowed a reduction in the use of synthetic insecticides.
How is most cotton harvested?
57275893dd62a815002e9b6e
mechanically
68
False
What is the cotton harvesting machine that removes the boll with damaging the plant?
57275893dd62a815002e9b6f
cotton picker
94
False
What machine strips off the entire head of the cotton plant?
57275893dd62a815002e9b70
cotton stripper
200
False
What weather conditions mandate the planting of stripper types of cotton?
57275893dd62a815002e9b71
windy
314
False
What type of plant is cotton?
57275893dd62a815002e9b72
perennial
477
False
mechanically
68
How are most plants harvested?
5a8191e131013a001a334cc3
True
cotton picker
94
What is the cotton harvesting machine that removes the bolll and damages the plant?
5a8191e131013a001a334cc4
True
cotton stripper
200
What machine strips off the chemicals off the cotton plant?
5a8191e131013a001a334cc5
True
windy
314
What weather conditions mandate the planting of defoliation types of cotton?
5a8191e131013a001a334cc6
True
perennial
477
What type of plant is defoliant?
5a8191e131013a001a334cc7
True
Most cotton in the United States, Europe and Australia is harvested mechanically, either by a cotton picker, a machine that removes the cotton from the boll without damaging the cotton plant, or by a cotton stripper, which strips the entire boll off the plant. Cotton strippers are used in regions where it is too windy to grow picker varieties of cotton, and usually after application of a chemical defoliant or the natural defoliation that occurs after a freeze. Cotton is a perennial crop in the tropics, and without defoliation or freezing, the plant will continue to grow.
What was the first manufactured fiber?
572759cb5951b619008f888d
rayon
61
False
When was rayon first made in France?
572759cb5951b619008f888e
1890s
84
False
What type of industry produced a growing chain of synthetic fibers?
572759cb5951b619008f888f
chemicals industry
367
False
What was manufactured completely from petrochemicals?
572759cb5951b619008f8890
Nylon
457
False
What company produced nylon and acrylic in the 1930s and 1940s?
572759cb5951b619008f8891
DuPont
559
False
Rayon
91
What was the first polyester fiber?
5a8192e331013a001a334ccd
True
1890s
84
When was polyester first made in France?
5a8192e331013a001a334cce
True
chemicals industry
367
What type of industry produced a growing chain of DuPont?
5a8192e331013a001a334ccf
True
Nylon
457
What was manufactured completely from DuPont?
5a8192e331013a001a334cd0
True
DuPont
559
What company produced polyester and nylon in the 1930s and 1940s?
5a8192e331013a001a334cd1
True
The era of manufactured fibers began with the development of rayon in France in the 1890s. Rayon is derived from a natural cellulose and cannot be considered synthetic, but requires extensive processing in a manufacturing process, and led the less expensive replacement of more naturally derived materials. A succession of new synthetic fibers were introduced by the chemicals industry in the following decades. Acetate in fiber form was developed in 1924. Nylon, the first fiber synthesized entirely from petrochemicals, was introduced as a sewing thread by DuPont in 1936, followed by DuPont's acrylic in 1944. Some garments were created from fabrics based on these fibers, such as women's hosiery from nylon, but it was not until the introduction of polyester into the fiber marketplace in the early 1950s that the market for cotton came under threat. The rapid uptake of polyester garments in the 1960s caused economic hardship in cotton-exporting economies, especially in Central American countries, such as Nicaragua, where cotton production had boomed tenfold between 1950 and 1965 with the advent of cheap chemical pesticides. Cotton production recovered in the 1970s, but crashed to pre-1960 levels in the early 1990s.
What prompted a help program produced by cotton producers in the 1960s?
57275bbb708984140094dc8d
decline in market share
170
False
What law was passed in 1966 to aid cotton producers?
57275bbb708984140094dc8e
Cotton Research and Promotion Act
364
False
What type of competitors does the 1966 act help combat?
57275bbb708984140094dc8f
synthetic competitors
452
False
Where has the Cotton Research and Promotion Act made cotton the best selling fiber?
57275bbb708984140094dc90
U.S.
595
False
What did producers of cotton have to re-establish after the market declined?
57275bbb708984140094dc91
markets for cotton
494
False
decline in market share
170
What prompted a help program produced by investments in the 1960s?
5a819b8d31013a001a334cd7
True
Cotton Research and Promotion Act
364
What law was passed in 1966 to aid investments?
5a819b8d31013a001a334cd8
True
synthetic competitors
452
What type of competitors does the 1966 act help?
5a819b8d31013a001a334cd9
True
U.S.
595
Where has the Cotton Research and Promotion Act made synthetics the best selling fiber?
5a819b8d31013a001a334cda
True
markets for cotton
494
What did producers of synthetics have to re-establish after the market declined?
5a819b8d31013a001a334cdb
True
Beginning as a self-help program in the mid-1960s, the Cotton Research and Promotion Program (CRPP) was organized by U.S. cotton producers in response to cotton's steady decline in market share. At that time, producers voted to set up a per-bale assessment system to fund the program, with built-in safeguards to protect their investments. With the passage of the Cotton Research and Promotion Act of 1966, the program joined forces and began battling synthetic competitors and re-establishing markets for cotton. Today, the success of this program has made cotton the best-selling fiber in the U.S. and one of the best-selling fibers in the world.[citation needed]
For what is cotton used to make?
57275f1df1498d1400e8f6fc
textile products
35
False
Besides new cotton fibers, what type of fibers can be used to make cotton products?
57275f1df1498d1400e8f6fd
recycled or recovered cotton
484
False
With what is cotton often blended to make a new style of fabric?
57275f1df1498d1400e8f6fe
synthetic fibers
716
False
What kinds of fabrics can be made from blended fibers?
57275f1df1498d1400e8f6ff
knitted or woven
777
False
For what can cotton yarn be used?
57275f1df1498d1400e8f700
crochet and knitting
433
False
textile products
35
For what are jeans used to make?
5a819d8531013a001a334ce1
True
recycled or recovered cotton
484
Besides new cotton fivers, what type of fivers can be used to make elastine?
5a819d8531013a001a334ce2
True
synthetic fibers
716
With what is cotton often blended to make a new style of elastine?
5a819d8531013a001a334ce3
True
knitted or woven
777
What kinds of fabrics can be made from stretch jeans?
5a819d8531013a001a334ce4
True
crochet and knitting
433
For what can cotton elastine be used?
5a819d8531013a001a334ce5
True
Cotton is used to make a number of textile products. These include terrycloth for highly absorbent bath towels and robes; denim for blue jeans; cambric, popularly used in the manufacture of blue work shirts (from which we get the term "blue-collar"); and corduroy, seersucker, and cotton twill. Socks, underwear, and most T-shirts are made from cotton. Bed sheets often are made from cotton. Cotton also is used to make yarn used in crochet and knitting. Fabric also can be made from recycled or recovered cotton that otherwise would be thrown away during the spinning, weaving, or cutting process. While many fabrics are made completely of cotton, some materials blend cotton with other fibers, including rayon and synthetic fibers such as polyester. It can either be used in knitted or woven fabrics, as it can be blended with elastine to make a stretchier thread for knitted fabrics, and apparel such as stretch jeans.
For what is cottonseed used after it is separate from the fibers?
572760f55951b619008f8907
cottonseed oil
75
False
What product is processed cottonseed oil?
572760f55951b619008f8908
vegetable oil.
155
False
What is cottonseed meal used for feed?
572760f55951b619008f8909
ruminant livestock
223
False
For what purpose are cottonseed hulls used in feed?
572760f55951b619008f890a
roughage
369
False
As what did early scientists describe gossypol ?
572760f55951b619008f890b
poisonous pigment
635
False
cottonseed oil
75
For what is cottonseed used after it is separate from root bark?
5a819e6831013a001a334ceb
True
vegetable oil
155
What product is processed cottonseed bark?
5a819e6831013a001a334cec
True
roughage
369
For what purpose is root bark used in feed?
5a819e6831013a001a334ced
True
poisonous pigment
635
As what did early scientists describe cottonseed oil?
5a819e6831013a001a334cee
True
Gossypol
513
What inhibits the development of root bark?
5a819e6831013a001a334cef
True
The cottonseed which remains after the cotton is ginned is used to produce cottonseed oil, which, after refining, can be consumed by humans like any other vegetable oil. The cottonseed meal that is left generally is fed to ruminant livestock; the gossypol remaining in the meal is toxic to monogastric animals. Cottonseed hulls can be added to dairy cattle rations for roughage. During the American slavery period, cotton root bark was used in folk remedies as an abortifacient, that is, to induce a miscarriage. Gossypol was one of the many substances found in all parts of the cotton plant and it was described by the scientists as 'poisonous pigment'. It also appears to inhibit the development of sperm or even restrict the mobility of the sperm. Also, it is thought to interfere with the menstrual cycle by restricting the release of certain hormones.
What part of the cotton plant is used for paper manufacture?
57276249dd62a815002e9be0
Cotton linters
0
False
What do cotton linters look like?
57276249dd62a815002e9be1
fine, silky fibers
19
False
What are cotton linters called in the UK?
57276249dd62a815002e9be2
cotton wool
445
False
What is cotton wool called in the US?
57276249dd62a815002e9be3
absorbent cotton
495
False
What individual first used cotton wool medically?
57276249dd62a815002e9be4
Sampson Gamgee
630
False
Cotton linters
0
What part of wool is used for paper manufacture?
5a81a04d31013a001a334cf5
True
fine, silky fibers
19
What does wool look like?
5a81a04d31013a001a334cf6
True
cotton wool
445
What are cotton linters called in the U.S.?
5a81a04d31013a001a334cf7
True
Sampson Gamgee
630
What individual first used wool medically?
5a81a04d31013a001a334cf8
True
the Queen's Hospital (later the General Hospital) in Birmingham, England
648
Where did Sampson Gamgee first use wool medically?
5a81a04d31013a001a334cf9
True
Cotton linters are fine, silky fibers which adhere to the seeds of the cotton plant after ginning. These curly fibers typically are less than 1⁄8 inch (3.2 mm) long. The term also may apply to the longer textile fiber staple lint as well as the shorter fuzzy fibers from some upland species. Linters are traditionally used in the manufacture of paper and as a raw material in the manufacture of cellulose. In the UK, linters are referred to as "cotton wool". This can also be a refined product (absorbent cotton in U.S. usage) which has medical, cosmetic and many other practical uses. The first medical use of cotton wool was by Sampson Gamgee at the Queen's Hospital (later the General Hospital) in Birmingham, England.
What is a fine, tightly twisted type of cotton fabric?
572763db708984140094dce3
Cotton lisle
0
False
What is lisle considered to be as a fabric?
572763db708984140094dce4
strong and durable
86
False
What does extra twisting of lisle thread produce?
572763db708984140094dce5
single thread
236
False
Where was the lisle thread originally made?
572763db708984140094dce6
Lisle, France
515
False
How is color perceived to be for lisle in comparison to softer yarns?
572763db708984140094dce7
more brilliant
414
False
Cotton lisle
0
What is a fine, tightly twisted type of cotton glove?
5a81a14f31013a001a334cff
True
strong and durable
86
What is lisle considered to be as a city?
5a81a14f31013a001a334d00
True
single thread
236
What does extra twisting of gloves produce?
5a81a14f31013a001a334d01
True
Lisle, France
515
Where were gloves originally made?
5a81a14f31013a001a334d02
True
more brilliant
414
How is color perceived to be for gloves in comparison with stockings?
5a81a14f31013a001a334d03
True
Cotton lisle is a finely-spun, tightly twisted type of cotton that is noted for being strong and durable. Lisle is composed of two strands that have each been twisted an extra twist per inch than ordinary yarns and combined to create a single thread. The yarn is spun so that it is compact and solid. This cotton is used mainly for underwear, stockings, and gloves. Colors applied to this yarn are noted for being more brilliant than colors applied to softer yarn. This type of thread was first made in the city of Lisle, France (now Lille), hence its name.
In 2009 what were the largest producers of cotton?
5727654add62a815002e9c0e
China and India
55
False
How do the US and Africa rank as exporters of cotton?
5727654add62a815002e9c0f
largest exporters
239
False
What is the combined international trade in cotton?
5727654add62a815002e9c10
$12 billion
411
False
What company is the top cotton broker in Africa?
5727654add62a815002e9c11
Dunavant Enterprises
703
False
Where is Dunavant Enterprises based?
5727654add62a815002e9c12
Memphis, Tennessee
734
False
China and India
55
In 2009 what were the largest importers?
5a81a32031013a001a334d09
True
largest exporters
239
How do the US and Africa rank as exporters of rice?
5a81a32031013a001a334d0a
True
$12 billion
411
What is the combined international trade in rice?
5a81a32031013a001a334d0b
True
Dunavant Enterprises
703
What company is the top cotton broker in India?
5a81a32031013a001a334d0c
True
Memphis, Tennessee
734
Where is Cargill based?
5a81a32031013a001a334d0d
True
The largest producers of cotton, currently (2009), are China and India, with annual production of about 34 million bales and 33.4 million bales, respectively; most of this production is consumed by their respective textile industries. The largest exporters of raw cotton are the United States, with sales of $4.9 billion, and Africa, with sales of $2.1 billion. The total international trade is estimated to be $12 billion. Africa's share of the cotton trade has doubled since 1980. Neither area has a significant domestic textile industry, textile manufacturing having moved to developing nations in Eastern and South Asia such as India and China. In Africa, cotton is grown by numerous small holders. Dunavant Enterprises, based in Memphis, Tennessee, is the leading cotton broker in Africa, with hundreds of purchasing agents. It operates cotton gins in Uganda, Mozambique, and Zambia. In Zambia, it often offers loans for seed and expenses to the 180,000 small farmers who grow cotton for it, as well as advice on farming methods. Cargill also purchases cotton in Africa for export.
How many subsidized cotton growers are in the US?
572766bb708984140094dd09
25,000
4
False
What is the rate of subsidies of cotton growers in the US?
572766bb708984140094dd0a
$2 billion per year
96
False
What country provides the highest rate of support for cotton growers?
572766bb708984140094dd0b
China
125
False
Which former colonies still have tight monopolies on cotton brokering?
572766bb708984140094dd0c
French
450
False
Where in Africa is it possible to buy out brokerages in cotton?
572766bb708984140094dd0d
former British colonies
403
False
25,000
4
How many subsidized cotton growers are in Africa?
5a81a3df31013a001a334d13
True
$2 billion per year
96
What is the rate of subsidies of cotton growers in Africa?
5a81a3df31013a001a334d14
True
China
125
What country provides the highest rate of support for colonies?
5a81a3df31013a001a334d15
True
French
450
Which former colonies still have tight monopolies on colonies?
5a81a3df31013a001a334d16
True
former British colonies
403
Where in the United States is it possible to buy out brokerages in cotton?
5a81a3df31013a001a334d17
True
The 25,000 cotton growers in the United States of America are heavily subsidized at the rate of $2 billion per year although China now provides the highest overall level of cotton sector support. The future of these subsidies is uncertain and has led to anticipatory expansion of cotton brokers' operations in Africa. Dunavant expanded in Africa by buying out local operations. This is only possible in former British colonies and Mozambique; former French colonies continue to maintain tight monopolies, inherited from their former colonialist masters, on cotton purchases at low fixed prices.
What was Brazil's argument against the US cotton industry?
57276d73f1498d1400e8f7e0
heavily subsidized
90
False
What are the African countries of Benin, Burkina Faso, Chad, and Mali referred to as in the cotton industry?
57276d73f1498d1400e8f7e1
Cotton-4
231
False
What has the Cotton-4 been in regards to the US cotton subsidies?
57276d73f1498d1400e8f7e2
leading protagonist
255
False
What could the US do that would please the foreign cotton industry concerning cotton subsidies?
57276d73f1498d1400e8f7e3
reduction
283
False
What organization has Brazil tried to use to curb US cotton subsidies?
57276d73f1498d1400e8f7e4
WTO's Dispute Settlement Mechanism
45
False
heavily subsidized
90
What was Brazil's argument against Chad's cotton industry?
5a81a59231013a001a334d1d
True
leading protagonist
255
What has the Cotton-4 been in regards to the cotton industry?
5a81a59231013a001a334d1e
True
reduction
283
What could the US do that would please the WTO concerning cotton subsidies?
5a81a59231013a001a334d1f
True
WTO's Dispute Settlement Mechanism
45
What organization has the US tried to use to curb Brazilian subsidies?
5a81a59231013a001a334d20
True
10 June 2003
500
When were cotton subsidies introduced?
5a81a59231013a001a334d21
True
While Brazil was fighting the US through the WTO's Dispute Settlement Mechanism against a heavily subsidized cotton industry, a group of four least-developed African countries – Benin, Burkina Faso, Chad, and Mali – also known as "Cotton-4" have been the leading protagonist for the reduction of US cotton subsidies through negotiations. The four introduced a "Sectoral Initiative in Favour of Cotton", presented by Burkina Faso's President Blaise Compaoré during the Trade Negotiations Committee on 10 June 2003.
What type of labor have some countries come under fire for employing?
57276f4cdd62a815002e9cc6
child
109
False
What usage that causes worker damage have some countries been reported doing?
57276f4cdd62a815002e9cc7
exposure to pesticides
153
False
What country has been accused of forced child and adult labor?
57276f4cdd62a815002e9cc8
Uzbekistan
330
False
Where does Uzbekistan rank as a cotton exporter?
57276f4cdd62a815002e9cc9
third largest
354
False
What system was started in 2005 to deal with organic and ethically produced products?
57276f4cdd62a815002e9cca
fair trade
582
False
child
109
What type of footwear have some countries come under fire for employing?
5a81a71031013a001a334d27
True
exposure to pesticides
153
What usage that causes footwear damage have some countries been reported to doing?
5a81a71031013a001a334d28
True
Uzbekistan
330
What country has been accused of fair fashion?
5a81a71031013a001a334d29
True
third largest
354
Where does Mali rank as a cotton exporter?
5a81a71031013a001a334d2a
True
fair trade
582
What system was started in 2005 to deal with forced labor?
5a81a71031013a001a334d2b
True
In addition to concerns over subsidies, the cotton industries of some countries are criticized for employing child labor and damaging workers' health by exposure to pesticides used in production. The Environmental Justice Foundation has campaigned against the prevalent use of forced child and adult labor in cotton production in Uzbekistan, the world's third largest cotton exporter. The international production and trade situation has led to "fair trade" cotton clothing and footwear, joining a rapidly growing market for organic clothing, fair fashion or "ethical fashion". The fair trade system was initiated in 2005 with producers from Cameroon, Mali and Senegal.
What is the final sequencing goal of sequencing diploid cotton genomes first ?
572771b85951b619008f8a07
tetraploid cotton
169
False
What type of cotton has two separate genomes within its nucleus?
572771b85951b619008f8a08
Tetraploid
189
False
When did a group of researchers decide to sequence the genomic structure of tetraploid cotton?
572771b85951b619008f8a09
2007
61
False
What type of genome must be sequenced first to prevent confusion before the tetraploid form?
572771b85951b619008f8a0a
diploid
896
False
In order to understand the tetraploid forms, what must be used as a comparison in cotton gene sequencing?
572771b85951b619008f8a0b
diploid counterparts
1397
False
tetraploid cotton
169
What is the final sequencing goal of sequencing tetraploid genomes first?
5a81a8b031013a001a334d31
True
Tetraploid
189
What type of cotton has two separate genomes within its sequence?
5a81a8b031013a001a334d32
True
2007
61
When did a group or researchers decide to sequence the genomic structure of diploid counterparts?
5a81a8b031013a001a334d33
True
diploid
896
What type of genome must be sequenced first to prevent confusion before GORGE?
5a81a8b031013a001a334d34
True
diploid counterparts
1397
In order to understand the tetraploid forms, what must be used as a comparison in cotton GORGE?
5a81a8b031013a001a334d35
True
A public genome sequencing effort of cotton was initiated in 2007 by a consortium of public researchers. They agreed on a strategy to sequence the genome of cultivated, tetraploid cotton. "Tetraploid" means that cultivated cotton actually has two separate genomes within its nucleus, referred to as the A and D genomes. The sequencing consortium first agreed to sequence the D-genome relative of cultivated cotton (G. raimondii, a wild Central American cotton species) because of its small size and limited number of repetitive elements. It is nearly one-third the number of bases of tetraploid cotton (AD), and each chromosome is only present once.[clarification needed] The A genome of G. arboreum would be sequenced next. Its genome is roughly twice the size of G. raimondii's. Part of the difference in size between the two genomes is the amplification of retrotransposons (GORGE). Once both diploid genomes are assembled, then research could begin sequencing the actual genomes of cultivated cotton varieties. This strategy is out of necessity; if one were to sequence the tetraploid genome without model diploid genomes, the euchromatic DNA sequences of the AD genomes would co-assemble and the repetitive elements of AD genomes would assembly independently into A and D sequences respectively. Then there would be no way to untangle the mess of AD sequences without comparing them to their diploid counterparts.
What companies finished much of the sequencing of the D genome?
57277399708984140094dde3
Monsanto and Illumina
359
False
When was the sequencing of D genome of G.  raimondii mostly completed?
57277399708984140094dde4
2010
338
False
What did Monsanto and Illumina say they would do with the research?
57277399708984140094dde5
donate
500
False
What is the seeming result of donating genetic cotton sequencing to the public?
57277399708984140094dde6
public relations
543
False
What plants are the goal of sequencing wild forms of cotton?
57277399708984140094dde7
cultivated varieties
754
False
Monsanto and Illumina
359
What companies finished much of the sequencing of the BAC genome?
5a81a9d631013a001a334d3b
True
2010
338
When was the sequencing of D genome of AD, raimondii mostly completed?
5a81a9d631013a001a334d3c
True
donate
500
What did Monsanto and Illumina say they would do with the D genome of G?
5a81a9d631013a001a334d3d
True
public relations
543
What is the seeming result of donating genetic cotton sequencing to the AD genomes?
5a81a9d631013a001a334d3e
True
cultivated varieties
754
What plants are the goal of sequencing wild forms of BAC?
5a81a9d631013a001a334d3f
True
The public sector effort continues with the goal to create a high-quality, draft genome sequence from reads generated by all sources. The public-sector effort has generated Sanger reads of BACs, fosmids, and plasmids as well as 454 reads. These later types of reads will be instrumental in assembling an initial draft of the D genome. In 2010, two companies (Monsanto and Illumina), completed enough Illumina sequencing to cover the D genome of G. raimondii about 50x. They announced that they would donate their raw reads to the public. This public relations effort gave them some recognition for sequencing the cotton genome. Once the D genome is assembled from all of this raw material, it will undoubtedly assist in the assembly of the AD genomes of cultivated varieties of cotton, but a lot of hard work remains.
Data_compression
What involves encoding information using fewer bits than the original representation?
5726767edd62a815002e85d6
data compression
22
False
What can be either lossy or lossless?
5726767edd62a815002e85d7
Compression
158
False
What reduces bits by identifying and eliminating statistical redundancy?
5726767edd62a815002e85d8
Lossless compression
203
False
What is the process called of reducing the size of a data file?
5726767edd62a815002e85d9
data compression
493
False
What is the process called of encoding at the source of the data before it's processed?
5726767edd62a815002e85da
source coding
561
False
data compression
22
What involves encoding information using fewer bits than the channel coding?
5a668029f038b7001ab0bee6
True
Compression
158
What can not be lossy or lossless?
5a668029f038b7001ab0bee7
True
Lossless compression
203
What reduces bits by identifying and eliminating source coding?
5a668029f038b7001ab0bee8
True
data compression
493
What is the process called of reducing the size of a lossless?
5a668029f038b7001ab0bee9
True
In signal processing, data compression, source coding, or bit-rate reduction involves encoding information using fewer bits than the original representation. Compression can be either lossy or lossless. Lossless compression reduces bits by identifying and eliminating statistical redundancy. No information is lost in lossless compression. Lossy compression reduces bits by identifying unnecessary information and removing it. The process of reducing the size of a data file is referred to as data compression. In the context of data transmission, it is called source coding (encoding done at the source of the data before it is stored or transmitted) in opposition to channel coding.
What helps reduce resource usage?
572677855951b619008f738d
Compression
0
False
What must be decompressed?
572677855951b619008f738e
compressed data
123
False
What is subject to a space-time complexity trade off?
572677855951b619008f738f
Data compression
297
False
What type of scheme involves trade offs among other things?
572677855951b619008f7390
data compression
657
False
Compression
0
What helps reduce trade-offs?
5a6681f4f038b7001ab0bf0a
True
Data compression
297
What is subject to a space-time hardware?
5a6681f4f038b7001ab0bf0b
True
data compression
657
What type of scheme involves storage among other things?
5a6681f4f038b7001ab0bf0c
True
decompressed
147
What must compressed data be to be inconvenient?
5a6681f4f038b7001ab0bf0d
True
computational or other costs
198
What does extra processing impose through distortion?
5a6681f4f038b7001ab0bf0e
True
Compression is useful because it helps reduce resource usage, such as data storage space or transmission capacity. Because compressed data must be decompressed to use, this extra processing imposes computational or other costs through decompression; this situation is far from being a free lunch. Data compression is subject to a space–time complexity trade-off. For instance, a compression scheme for video may require expensive hardware for the video to be decompressed fast enough to be viewed as it is being decompressed, and the option to decompress the video in full before watching it may be inconvenient or require additional storage. The design of data compression schemes involves trade-offs among various factors, including the degree of compression, the amount of distortion introduced (when using lossy data compression), and the computational resources required to compress and decompress the data.
What usually exploits statistical redundancy?
572678305951b619008f7395
Lossless data compression algorithms
0
False
What represents statistical redundancy?
572678305951b619008f7396
Lossless compression
161
False
What may have colors that do not change over several pixels?
572678305951b619008f7397
an image
269
False
Lossless data compression algorithms
0
What usually exploits run-length coding?
5a6683dff038b7001ab0bf28
True
an image
269
What may have redundancy that does not change over several pixels?
5a6683dff038b7001ab0bf29
True
Lossless compression
161
What is possible because most real-world data have areas of color?
5a6683dff038b7001ab0bf2a
True
eliminating redundancy
528
What allows many schemes to reduce lossless compression?
5a6683dff038b7001ab0bf2b
True
statistical redundancy
53
What do red pixel algorithms usually exploit?
5a6683dff038b7001ab0bf2c
True
Lossless data compression algorithms usually exploit statistical redundancy to represent data without losing any information, so that the process is reversible. Lossless compression is possible because most real-world data exhibits statistical redundancy. For example, an image may have areas of colour that do not change over several pixels; instead of coding "red pixel, red pixel, ..." the data may be encoded as "279 red pixels". This is a basic example of run-length encoding; there are many schemes to reduce file size by eliminating redundancy.
What compression methods are among the most popular?
57267902dd62a815002e8648
Lempel–Ziv (LZ)
4
False
What is used in PKZIP, Gzip and PNG?
57267902dd62a815002e8649
DEFLATE
215
False
What serves as the basis of the Zip method?
57267902dd62a815002e864a
LZR
324
False
What is a current LZ based coding scheme that does well?
57267902dd62a815002e864b
Brotli
737
False
What is used in Microsoft's CAB format?
57267902dd62a815002e864c
LZX
753
False
Lempel–Ziv (LZ)
4
What speed methods are among the most popular?
5a6684fdf038b7001ab0bf32
True
DEFLATE
215
What is used in PKZIP, LZR, and Huffman?
5a6684fdf038b7001ab0bf33
True
LZR
324
What serves as the dynamically generated table for the Zip method?
5a6684fdf038b7001ab0bf34
True
Brotli
737
What is a current LZ based CAB that does well?
5a6684fdf038b7001ab0bf35
True
LZX
753
What is used in Microsoft's DEFLATE format?
5a6684fdf038b7001ab0bf36
True
The Lempel–Ziv (LZ) compression methods are among the most popular algorithms for lossless storage. DEFLATE is a variation on LZ optimized for decompression speed and compression ratio, but compression can be slow. DEFLATE is used in PKZIP, Gzip and PNG. LZW (Lempel–Ziv–Welch) is used in GIF images. Also noteworthy is the LZR (Lempel-Ziv–Renau) algorithm, which serves as the basis for the Zip method.[citation needed] LZ methods use a table-based compression model where table entries are substituted for repeated strings of data. For most LZ methods, this table is generated dynamically from earlier data in the input. The table itself is often Huffman encoded (e.g. SHRI, LZX). Current LZ-based coding schemes that perform well are Brotli and LZX. LZX is used in Microsoft's CAB format.
What can be paired with an algorithm called arithmetic coding?
572679a5f1498d1400e8e0fe
statistical estimates
70
False
What can achieve superior compression?
572679a5f1498d1400e8e0ff
Arithmetic coding
149
False
What uses an internal memory state?
572679a5f1498d1400e8e100
Huffman algorithm
421
False
statistical estimates
70
What can e paired with adaptive data called arithmetic coding?
5a6686a7f038b7001ab0bf58
True
Arithmetic coding
149
What can achieve superior internal memory state?
5a6686a7f038b7001ab0bf59
True
Huffman algorithm
421
What uses a JPEG memory state?
5a6686a7f038b7001ab0bf5a
True
Arithmetic coding
708
What applies well to coding standard compression tasks?
5a6686a7f038b7001ab0bf5b
True
various other designs including H.264/MPEG-4 AVC and HEVC
1110
What were early examples of probability distribution applied in?
5a6686a7f038b7001ab0bf5c
True
In a further refinement of the direct use of probabilistic modelling, statistical estimates can be coupled to an algorithm called arithmetic coding. Arithmetic coding is a more modern coding technique that uses the mathematical calculations of a finite-state machine to produce a string of encoded bits from a series of input data symbols. It can achieve superior compression to other techniques such as the better-known Huffman algorithm. It uses an internal memory state to avoid the need to perform a one-to-one mapping of individual input symbols to distinct representations that use an integer number of bits, and it clears out the internal memory only after encoding the entire string of data symbols. Arithmetic coding applies especially well to adaptive data compression tasks where the statistics vary and are context-dependent, as it can be easily coupled with an adaptive model of the probability distribution of the input data. An early example of the use of arithmetic coding was its use as an optional (but not widely used) feature of the JPEG image coding standard. It has since been applied in various other designs including H.264/MPEG-4 AVC and HEVC for video coding.
What type of data compression is the converse of lossless date data compression?
57267a4e5951b619008f73f7
Lossy
0
False
What can save storage space?
57267a4e5951b619008f73f8
Dropping nonessential detail from the data source
127
False
What helps by eliminating off nonessential bits of information?
57267a4e5951b619008f73f9
JPEG image compression
420
False
Lossy
0
What type of data compression is the converse of subtle variations?
5a6687f8f038b7001ab0bf62
True
JPEG image compression
420
What helps by eliminating off nonessential bits of perceptual differences?
5a6687f8f038b7001ab0bf63
True
the human eye
315
What is more sensitive to reducing size in luminance than variations in color?
5a6687f8f038b7001ab0bf64
True
how people perceive the data in question
260
What are Lossy data compression music files designed by?
5a6687f8f038b7001ab0bf65
True
preserving information and reducing size
550
What is there a corresponding compression scheme between?
5a6687f8f038b7001ab0bf66
True
Lossy data compression is the converse of lossless data compression. In these schemes, some loss of information is acceptable. Dropping nonessential detail from the data source can save storage space. Lossy data compression schemes are designed by research on how people perceive the data in question. For example, the human eye is more sensitive to subtle variations in luminance than it is to the variations in color. JPEG image compression works in part by rounding off nonessential bits of information. There is a corresponding trade-off between preserving information and reducing size. A number of popular compression formats exploit these perceptual differences, including those used in music files, images, and video.
What methods are used to remove non-audible components of audio signals?
57267b155951b619008f7419
psychoacoustics
39
False
What compression is usually performed with even more specialized techniques?
57267b155951b619008f741a
human speech
151
False
What is used in internet telephony?
57267b155951b619008f741b
Voice compression
418
False
What is used for CD ripping?
57267b155951b619008f741c
audio compression
480
False
What is encoded by audio players?
57267b155951b619008f741d
audio compression
480
False
psychoacoustics
39
What methods are used to removed coding components of audio signals?
5a6689e4f038b7001ab0bf7e
True
Voice compression
418
What compression is usually performed with even more psychoacoustics?
5a6689e4f038b7001ab0bf7f
True
audio coding formats
396
What are different audio and speech CD ripping listed under?
5a6689e4f038b7001ab0bf80
True
speech coding
222
What is distinguished as a separate lossy from audio compression?
5a6689e4f038b7001ab0bf81
True
internet telephony
447
Voice speech is used in what?
5a6689e4f038b7001ab0bf82
True
In lossy audio compression, methods of psychoacoustics are used to remove non-audible (or less audible) components of the audio signal. Compression of human speech is often performed with even more specialized techniques; speech coding, or voice coding, is sometimes distinguished as a separate discipline from audio compression. Different audio and speech compression standards are listed under audio coding formats. Voice compression is used in internet telephony, for example, audio compression is used for CD ripping and is decoded by the audio players.
What is Machine learning closely related to?
57267c225951b619008f7451
compression
57
False
What type of compressor can be used for prediction?
57267c225951b619008f7452
optimal
266
False
What has been used as a benchmark for "general intelligence"?
57267c225951b619008f7453
data compression
446
False
optimal
176
What type of compressor can be used for general intelligence?
5a668b99f038b7001ab0bf9a
True
prediction
301
What can a benchmark compressor be used for?
5a668b99f038b7001ab0bf9b
True
compression
57
What has a close connection to machine equivalence?
5a668b99f038b7001ab0bf9c
True
a system that predicts the posterior probabilities of a sequence given its entire history
70
What can be used for optimal justification?
5a668b99f038b7001ab0bf9d
True
by finding the symbol that compresses best
313
How is an arithmetic compressor used for prediction?
5a668b99f038b7001ab0bf9e
True
There is a close connection between machine learning and compression: a system that predicts the posterior probabilities of a sequence given its entire history can be used for optimal data compression (by using arithmetic coding on the output distribution) while an optimal compressor can be used for prediction (by finding the symbol that compresses best, given the previous history). This equivalence has been used as a justification for using data compression as a benchmark for "general intelligence."
What can be looked at as a special case of data differencing?
57267c9ff1498d1400e8e16a
Data compression
0
False
What is made up of producing a difference given a source and a target?
57267c9ff1498d1400e8e16b
Data differencing
71
False
What can classified as data differencing with empty source data?
57267c9ff1498d1400e8e16c
data compression
400
False
Data compression
0
What can be looked at as a special case of relative entropy?
5a668d29f038b7001ab0bfb6
True
Data differencing
71
What is made up of producing a compressed file given a source and a target?
5a668d29f038b7001ab0bfb7
True
data compression
400
What can be classified as data differencing with corresponding data?
5a668d29f038b7001ab0bfb8
True
decompression
302
What means producing a target given only a special case?
5a668d29f038b7001ab0bfb9
True
data compression
225
What means producing a compressed file given no initial data?
5a668d29f038b7001ab0bfba
True
Data compression can be viewed as a special case of data differencing: Data differencing consists of producing a difference given a source and a target, with patching producing a target given a source and a difference, while data compression consists of producing a compressed file given a target, and decompression consists of producing a target given only a compressed file. Thus, one can consider data compression as data differencing with empty source data, the compressed file corresponding to a "difference from nothing." This is the same as considering absolute entropy (corresponding to data compression) as a special case of relative entropy (corresponding to data differencing) with no initial data.
What has the potential to reduce the transmission bandwidth and storage requirements of audio data?
5726828bf1498d1400e8e228
Audio data compression
0
False
What is inserted in software as audio codecs?
5726828bf1498d1400e8e229
Audio compression algorithms
170
False
What compression algorithms provide higher compression at the cost of fidelity?
5726828bf1498d1400e8e22a
Lossy
244
False
Audio data compression
0
What has the potential to reduce the transmission bandwidth and storage requirements of software?
5a668e9df038b7001ab0bfd2
True
Audio compression algorithms
170
What is inserted in psychoacoustics as audio codecs?
5a668e9df038b7001ab0bfd3
True
Lossy
244
What compression algorithms provide higher compression at the transmission?
5a668e9df038b7001ab0bfd4
True
psychoacoustics
411
What do algorithms rely on to eliminate requirements?
5a668e9df038b7001ab0bfd5
True
audio data
158
What does audio data compression have the potential to reduce the dynamic range of?
5a668e9df038b7001ab0bfd6
True
Audio data compression, not to be confused with dynamic range compression, has the potential to reduce the transmission bandwidth and storage requirements of audio data. Audio compression algorithms are implemented in software as audio codecs. Lossy audio compression algorithms provide higher compression at the cost of fidelity and are used in numerous audio applications. These algorithms almost all rely on psychoacoustics to eliminate less audible or meaningful sounds, thereby reducing the space required to store or transmit them.
What produces a representation of digital data that decompresses?
5726831df1498d1400e8e236
Lossless audio compression
0
False
What are around 50-60% of the original size?
5726831df1498d1400e8e237
Compression ratios
219
False
What compression cannot attain high compression ratios?
5726831df1498d1400e8e238
Lossless
339
False
Lossless audio compression
0
What does a representation of algorithms that decompresses?
5a66957ef038b7001ab0c00c
True
Compression ratios
219
What are around 50-60% of the spectrum?
5a66957ef038b7001ab0c00d
True
Lossless
339
What compression cannot attain high work efficiently?
5a66957ef038b7001ab0c00e
True
FLAC, Shorten and TTA
489
What are three Codecs that use linear prediction to estimate the decompression?
5a66957ef038b7001ab0c00f
True
50–60% of original size
249
What size is similar to those for generic high compression?
5a66957ef038b7001ab0c010
True
Lossless audio compression produces a representation of digital data that decompress to an exact digital duplicate of the original audio stream, unlike playback from lossy compression techniques such as Vorbis and MP3. Compression ratios are around 50–60% of original size, which is similar to those for generic lossless data compression. Lossless compression is unable to attain high compression ratios due to the complexity of waveforms and the rapid changes in sound forms. Codecs like FLAC, Shorten and TTA use linear prediction to estimate the spectrum of the signal. Many of these algorithms use convolution with the filter [-1 1] to slightly whiten or flatten the spectrum, thereby allowing traditional lossless compression to work more efficiently. The process is reversed upon decompression.
What compression is used in a lot of applications?
57268380dd62a815002e87da
Lossy
0
False
What is used in most video DVDs?
57268380dd62a815002e87db
digitally compressed audio streams
132
False
What compression usually achieves far greater compression then lossless?
57268380dd62a815002e87dc
Lossy
326
False
Lossy
0
What compression is used in a lot of discarding?
5a6697f8f038b7001ab0c032
True
Lossy
326
What compression usually achieves far greater streams than lossless?
5a6697f8f038b7001ab0c033
True
digitally compressed audio streams
132
What are used in most video DVDs and original streams?
5a6697f8f038b7001ab0c034
True
lossless
392
What gets between 5 percent and 50 percent compression?
5a6697f8f038b7001ab0c035
True
by discarding less-critical data
509
How are higher percentages of cable radio attained with Lossy?
5a6697f8f038b7001ab0c036
True
Lossy audio compression is used in a wide range of applications. In addition to the direct applications (mp3 players or computers), digitally compressed audio streams are used in most video DVDs, digital television, streaming media on the internet, satellite and cable radio, and increasingly in terrestrial radio broadcasts. Lossy compression typically achieves far greater compression than lossless compression (data of 5 percent to 20 percent of the original stream, rather than 50 percent to 60 percent), by discarding less-critical data.
What may be used to weight the importance of components?
572683fbf1498d1400e8e256
Equal-loudness contours
690
False
What are often called psychoacoustic models?
572683fbf1498d1400e8e257
Models of the human ear-brain
782
False
What is the process called when a signal is masked by another signal separated by time?
572683fbf1498d1400e8e258
temporal masking
611
False
Equal-loudness contours
690
What may be used to weight the importance of cosine?
5a66aa24f038b7001ab0c086
True
Models of the human ear-brain
782
What are often called psychoacoustic masking?
5a66aa24f038b7001ab0c087
True
temporal masking
611
What is the process when a signal is masked by another signal separated by contours?
5a66aa24f038b7001ab0c088
True
simultaneous masking
487
What is the phenomenon wherein a signal is masked by another signal separated by threshold?
5a66aa24f038b7001ab0c089
True
modified discrete cosine transform
138
What is a transform that a compression frequency might use?
5a66aa24f038b7001ab0c08a
True
To determine what information in an audio signal is perceptually irrelevant, most lossy compression algorithms use transforms such as the modified discrete cosine transform (MDCT) to convert time domain sampled waveforms into a transform domain. Once transformed, typically into the frequency domain, component frequencies can be allocated bits according to how audible they are. Audibility of spectral components calculated using the absolute threshold of hearing and the principles of simultaneous masking—the phenomenon wherein a signal is masked by another signal separated by frequency—and, in some cases, temporal masking—where a signal is masked by another signal separated by time. Equal-loudness contours may also be used to weight the perceptual importance of components. Models of the human ear-brain combination incorporating such effects are often called psychoacoustic models.
What is the coding called that is used with speech?
57268489f1498d1400e8e264
linear predictive coding
46
False
What is thought of as a basic perceptual coding technique?
57268489f1498d1400e8e265
linear predictive coding
46
False
What uses a model of the sound's generator?
57268489f1498d1400e8e266
source-based coders
99
False
linear predictive coding
46
What is thought of as a basic signal coding technique?
5a66ac0af038b7001ab0c090
True
source-based coders
99
What uses a model of the sound's quantization?
5a66ac0af038b7001ab0c091
True
linear predictive coding
46
What may be thought of as a basic perceptual spectrum?
5a66ac0af038b7001ab0c092
True
the spectrum of the target signal
452
What does reconstruction of an audio signal shape the coder's compressor noise into?
5a66ac0af038b7001ab0c093
True
LPC
288
What may be thought of as a generator coding technique?
5a66ac0af038b7001ab0c094
True
Other types of lossy compressors, such as the linear predictive coding (LPC) used with speech, are source-based coders. These coders use a model of the sound's generator (such as the human vocal tract with LPC) to whiten the audio signal (i.e., flatten its spectrum) before quantization. LPC may be thought of as a basic perceptual coding technique: reconstruction of an audio signal using a linear predictor shapes the coder's quantization noise into the spectrum of the target signal, partially masking it.
What results from methods used to encode and decode data?
57268606708984140094c8d5
Latency
0
False
What analyzes a statement of data to boost performance?
57268606708984140094c8d6
codecs
74
False
What creates segments called a "frame"?
57268606708984140094c8d7
codecs
245
False
Latency
0
What results from methods used to encode and decode delays?
5a66af9ff038b7001ab0c09a
True
codecs
74
What analyzes a statement of data to boost data segments?
5a66af9ff038b7001ab0c09b
True
codecs
245
What creates conversation called a "frame"?
5a66af9ff038b7001ab0c09c
True
delays
518
What may seriously degrade the perceived segment of data?
5a66af9ff038b7001ab0c09d
True
a "frame"
275
What has the purpose of creating discrete data segments for telephones?
5a66af9ff038b7001ab0c09e
True
Latency results from the methods used to encode and decode the data. Some codecs will analyze a longer segment of the data to optimize efficiency, and then code it in a manner that requires a larger segment of data at one time to decode. (Often codecs create segments called a "frame" to create discrete data segments for encoding and decoding.) The inherent latency of the coding algorithm can be critical; for example, when there is a two-way transmission of data, such as with a telephone conversation, significant delays may seriously degrade the perceived quality.
What refers to the number of samples that must be analysed before a block of audio is processed?
5726869df1498d1400e8e2c2
latency
123
False
What has zero samples in a minimum case?
5726869df1498d1400e8e2c3
latency
244
False
What often has low latencies?
5726869df1498d1400e8e2c4
LPC
391
False
latency
123
What refers to the number of samples that must be analyzed before a coding is processed?
5a66b1a1f038b7001ab0c0a4
True
latency
244
What has zero samples in a minimum audio?
5a66b1a1f038b7001ab0c0a5
True
psychoacoustic model
578
What  requires large number of speech coding to be analyzed?
5a66b1a1f038b7001ab0c0a6
True
23 ms
655
What is the latency for algorithms such as LPC on the order of?
5a66b1a1f038b7001ab0c0a7
True
coder/decoder
282
What reduces the number of bits used to quantize a block of audio?
5a66b1a1f038b7001ab0c0a8
True
In contrast to the speed of compression, which is proportional to the number of operations required by the algorithm, here latency refers to the number of samples that must be analysed before a block of audio is processed. In the minimum case, latency is zero samples (e.g., if the coder/decoder simply reduces the number of bits used to quantize the signal). Time domain algorithms such as LPC also often have low latencies, hence their popularity in speech coding for telephony. In algorithms such as MP3, however, a large number of samples have to be analyzed to implement a psychoacoustic model in the frequency domain, and latency is on the order of 23 ms (46 ms for two-way communication)).
What varies with time?
5726872b5951b619008f75c3
voltage
50
False
What has to be compressed in order to perform properly?
5726872b5951b619008f75c4
data
7
False
What does "A/D" stand for?
5726872b5951b619008f75c5
analog-to-digital
179
False
data
7
What has to be compressed in order to perform signal values?
5a66b515f038b7001ab0c0ae
True
65,536
512
How many intervals is the range of the conversion divided into if 16-bit integers are generated?
5a66b515f038b7001ab0c0af
True
256
333
How many intervals is the range of the conversion divided into if 8-bit integers are generated?
5a66b515f038b7001ab0c0b0
True
the same number
409
What are all signal values within an analog quantized to?
5a66b515f038b7001ab0c0b1
True
analog
32
What is a voltage that is divided with time classified as?
5a66b515f038b7001ab0c0b2
True
If the data to be compressed is analog (such as a voltage that varies with time), quantization is employed to digitize it into numbers (normally integers). This is referred to as analog-to-digital (A/D) conversion. If the integers generated by quantization are 8 bits each, then the entire range of the analog signal is divided into 256 intervals and all the signal values within an interval are quantized to the same number. If 16-bit integers are generated, then the range of the analog signal is divided into 65,536 intervals.
What was published in the IEEE Journal in 1988?
572687ad708984140094c8f7
literature compendium
2
False
What did the literature compendium document?
572687ad708984140094c8f8
finished, working audio coders
261
False
Where were most of the authors in the JSAC edition?
572687ad708984140094c8f9
MPEG-1 Audio committee
612
False
literature compendium
2
What was published in the MPEG-1 in 1988?
5a66b6f4f038b7001ab0c0b8
True
finished, working audio coders
261
What did the digital audio document?
5a66b6f4f038b7001ab0c0b9
True
MPEG-1 Audio committee
612
Where were most of the papers in the JSAC edition?
5a66b6f4f038b7001ab0c0ba
True
audio coders
279
What did the collection of coding document?
5a66b6f4f038b7001ab0c0bb
True
difficulty of obtaining good, clean digital audio for research purposes
462
What did these coders remark on?
5a66b6f4f038b7001ab0c0bc
True
A literature compendium for a large variety of audio coding systems was published in the IEEE Journal on Selected Areas in Communications (JSAC), February 1988. While there were some papers from before that time, this collection documented an entire variety of finished, working audio coders, nearly all of them using perceptual (i.e. masking) techniques and some kind of frequency analysis and back-end noiseless coding. Several of these papers remarked on the difficulty of obtaining good, clean digital audio for research purposes. Most, if not all, of the authors in the JSAC edition were also active in the MPEG-1 Audio committee.
Who developed the first commercial broadcast automation audio compression system?
5726882b708984140094c911
Oscar Bonello
92
False
Who was an engineering professor at the University of Buenos Aires?
5726882b708984140094c912
Oscar Bonello
92
False
What was launched in 1987 under the name Audicom?
5726882b708984140094c913
broadcast automation system
372
False
Oscar Bonello
92
Who developed the first commercial broadcast automation band?
5a66b8caf038b7001ab0c0c2
True
Oscar Bonello
92
Who was an broadcast professor at the University of Buenos Aires?
5a66b8caf038b7001ab0c0c3
True
broadcast automation system
372
What was launched in 1987 under the name Bonello?
5a66b8caf038b7001ab0c0c4
True
IBM PC
347
On what computer did Bonello develop a practical commercial on?
5a66b8caf038b7001ab0c0c5
True
1967
263
When was the principle of compression first published?
5a66b8caf038b7001ab0c0c6
True
The world's first commercial broadcast automation audio compression system was developed by Oscar Bonello, an engineering professor at the University of Buenos Aires. In 1983, using the psychoacoustic principle of the masking of critical bands first published in 1967, he started developing a practical application based on the recently developed IBM PC computer, and the broadcast automation system was launched in 1987 under the name Audicom. Twenty years later, almost all the radio stations in the world were using similar technology manufactured by a number of companies.
What all mostly use lossy compression?
5726887d5951b619008f75fb
video compression algorithms
16
False
What requires a high data rate?
5726887d5951b619008f75fc
Uncompressed video
68
False
What may present visible or distracting artifacts?
5726887d5951b619008f75fd
Highly compressed video
441
False
Highly compressed video
441
What may present visible or distracting MPEG-4?
5a66baa0f038b7001ab0c0cc
True
Uncompressed video
68
What requires a very high quality?
5a66baa0f038b7001ab0c0cd
True
video quality, cost of processing the compression and decompression, and system requirements
347
What is there a tradeoff between in artifacts?
5a66baa0f038b7001ab0c0ce
True
a typical MPEG-4 lossy compression video
203
What has a data rate between 20 and 200?
5a66baa0f038b7001ab0c0cf
True
lossless video compression codecs
128
What has a data rate between 5 and 12?
5a66baa0f038b7001ab0c0d0
True
The majority of video compression algorithms use lossy compression. Uncompressed video requires a very high data rate. Although lossless video compression codecs perform at a compression factor of 5-12, a typical MPEG-4 lossy compression video has a compression factor between 20 and 200. As in all lossy compression, there is a trade-off between video quality, cost of processing the compression and decompression, and system requirements. Highly compressed video may present visible or distracting artifacts.
What compression typically operate on square-shaped groups of pixels?
5726890bdd62a815002e887c
video
5
False
What only sends the differences within those pixels and blocks?
5726890bdd62a815002e887d
macroblocks
109
False
What does high-frequency detail lead to?
5726890bdd62a815002e887e
variable bitrate
577
False
video
5
What compression typically operate on square-shaped groups of flames?
5a66bca8f038b7001ab0c0d6
True
macroblocks
109
What only sends the differences within those bitrates?
5a66bca8f038b7001ab0c0d7
True
variable bitrate
577
What do high-frequency explosions lead to?
5a66bca8f038b7001ab0c0d8
True
video compression codec
210
What sends only the difference within animals?
5a66bca8f038b7001ab0c0d9
True
explosions, flames, flocks of animals, and in some panning shots
435
When does high-frequency detail lead to blocks of pixels?
5a66bca8f038b7001ab0c0da
True
Some video compression schemes typically operate on square-shaped groups of neighboring pixels, often called macroblocks. These pixel groups or blocks of pixels are compared from one frame to the next, and the video compression codec sends only the differences within those blocks. In areas of video with more motion, the compression must encode more data to keep up with the larger number of pixels that are changing. Commonly during explosions, flames, flocks of animals, and in some panning shots, the high-frequency detail leads to quality decreases or to increases in the variable bitrate.
What may be represented as a series of still image frames?
5726897edd62a815002e888a
Video data
0
False
What can average a color across similar areas to reduce space?
5726897edd62a815002e888b
Compression algorithms
435
False
What is hard to tell with smaller differences involved?
5726897edd62a815002e888c
color
472
False
Video data
0
What may be represented as a series of algorithms?
5a66be76f038b7001ab0c0e0
True
Compression algorithms
435
What can average a color across similar areas to reduce changes?
5a66be76f038b7001ab0c0e1
True
color
366
What is hard to tell with smaller redundancy involved?
5a66be76f038b7001ab0c0e2
True
those used in JPEG image compression
545
What is the method in which videos can average a color similar to?
5a66be76f038b7001ab0c0e3
True
changes in brightness
412
What is easier to perceive than changes in frames?
5a66be76f038b7001ab0c0e4
True
Video data may be represented as a series of still image frames. The sequence of frames contains spatial and temporal redundancy that video compression algorithms attempt to eliminate or code in a smaller size. Similarities can be encoded by only storing differences between frames, or by using perceptual features of human vision. For example, small differences in color are more difficult to perceive than are changes in brightness. Compression algorithms can average a color across these similar areas to reduce space, in a manner similar to those used in JPEG image compression. Some of these methods are inherently lossy while others may preserve all relevant information from the original, uncompressed video.
What still remains much shorter than intraframe compression?
57268a7ddd62a815002e88be
longer command
446
False
What happens when a frame contains areas where nothing has moved?
57268a7ddd62a815002e88bf
the system simply issues a short command
149
False
What is a sequence that can be edited?
57268a7ddd62a815002e88c0
video
641
False
longer command
446
What still remains much shorter than video?
5a66c197f038b7001ab0c0ea
True
the system simply issues a short command
149
What happens when a frame contains areas that can be compared?
5a66c197f038b7001ab0c0eb
True
video
641
What is a sequence that can cause rotate?
5a66c197f038b7001ab0c0ec
True
a (slightly longer) command
338
What tells the decompressor to shift, rotate, or copy?
5a66c197f038b7001ab0c0ed
True
the compressor emits a (slightly longer) command
317
What happens if sections of the frame move in a powerful method?
5a66c197f038b7001ab0c0ee
True
The most powerful used method works by comparing each frame in the video with the previous one. If the frame contains areas where nothing has moved, the system simply issues a short command that copies that part of the previous frame, bit-for-bit, into the next one. If sections of the frame move in a simple manner, the compressor emits a (slightly longer) command that tells the decompressor to shift, rotate, lighten, or darken the copy. This longer command still remains much shorter than intraframe compression. Interframe compression works well for programs that will simply be played back by the viewer, but can cause problems if the video sequence needs to be edited.
What copies data from one frame to another?
57268af2708984140094c987
interframe compression
8
False
What is a type of video format?
57268af2708984140094c988
DV
220
False
What is almost as easy as editing uncompressed video?
57268af2708984140094c989
Making 'cuts'
288
False
interframe compression
8
What copies data from a frame to a video?
5a66c2c0f038b7001ab0c0f4
True
DV
220
What is a type of intraframe?
5a66c2c0f038b7001ab0c0f5
True
Making 'cuts'
288
What is almost as easy as editing frames?
5a66c2c0f038b7001ab0c0f6
True
Some video formats
192
What compress each DV independently?
5a66c2c0f038b7001ab0c0f7
True
copy data from other frames
772
What are certain compressions not allowed to do in most interframe systems?
5a66c2c0f038b7001ab0c0f8
True
Because interframe compression copies data from one frame to another, if the original frame is simply cut out (or lost in transmission), the following frames cannot be reconstructed properly. Some video formats, such as DV, compress each frame independently using intraframe compression. Making 'cuts' in intraframe-compressed video is almost as easy as editing uncompressed video: one finds the beginning and ending of each frame, and simply copies bit-for-bit each frame that one wants to keep, and discards the frames one doesn't want. Another difference between intraframe and interframe compression is that, with intraframe systems, each frame uses a similar amount of data. In most interframe systems, certain frames (such as "I frames" in MPEG-2) aren't allowed to copy data from other frames, so they require much more data than other frames nearby.
What do all commonly used video compression methods use?
57268b4d5951b619008f763f
discrete cosine transform
122
False
What does a DCT do?
57268b4d5951b619008f7640
spatial redundancy reduction
158
False
What is not used in practical products?
57268b4d5951b619008f7641
fractal compression
318
False
discrete cosine transform
122
What do all commonly used fractals use?
5a66c406f038b7001ab0c0fe
True
spatial redundancy reduction
158
What is not used in DWT?
5a66c406f038b7001ab0c0ff
True
fractal compression
318
What does a wavelet do?
5a66c406f038b7001ab0c100
True
ITU-T or ISO
100
Who approves still-image coders?
5a66c406f038b7001ab0c101
True
N. Ahmed, T. Natarajan and K. R. Rao
249
Who introduced redundancy reduction in 1974?
5a66c406f038b7001ab0c102
True
Today, nearly all commonly used video compression methods (e.g., those in standards approved by the ITU-T or ISO) apply a discrete cosine transform (DCT) for spatial redundancy reduction. The DCT that is widely used in this regard was introduced by N. Ahmed, T. Natarajan and K. R. Rao in 1974. Other methods, such as fractal compression, matching pursuit and the use of a discrete wavelet transform (DWT) have been the subject of some research, but are typically not used in practical products (except for the use of wavelet coding as still-image coders without motion compensation). Interest in fractal compression seems to be waning, due to recent theoretical analysis showing a comparative lack of effectiveness of such methods.
What are the latest generation of lossless algorithms?
57268bcdf1498d1400e8e35a
Genetics
0
False
What encoding reduces the heterogeneity of a dataset by sorting SNPs?
57268bcdf1498d1400e8e35b
MAFE
693
False
What two algorithms have compression ratios of up to 1200-fold?
57268bcdf1498d1400e8e35c
DNAZip and GenomeZip
862
False
Genetics
0
What are the latest generation of DNAZip and GEnomeZip?
5a66c596f038b7001ab0c108
True
MAFE
693
What encoding reduces the heterogenelty of a dataset by sorting megabytes?
5a66c596f038b7001ab0c109
True
DNAZip and GenomeZip
862
What two algorithms have allele frequency of up to 1200-fold?
5a66c596f038b7001ab0c10a
True
HAPZIPPER
397
What provides 2- to 4- fold better heterogenelty than the leading gemeral-purpose compression utilities?
5a66c596f038b7001ab0c10b
True
Johns Hopkins University
276
Who published a genetic compression algorithm that does not use diploids?
5a66c596f038b7001ab0c10c
True
Genetics compression algorithms are the latest generation of lossless algorithms that compress data (typically sequences of nucleotides) using both conventional compression algorithms and genetic algorithms adapted to the specific datatype. In 2012, a team of scientists from Johns Hopkins University published a genetic compression algorithm that does not use a reference genome for compression. HAPZIPPER was tailored for HapMap data and achieves over 20-fold compression (95% reduction in file size), providing 2- to 4-fold better compression and in much faster time than the leading general-purpose compression utilities. For this, Chanda, Elhaik, and Bader introduced MAF based encoding (MAFE), which reduces the heterogeneity of the dataset by sorting SNPs by their minor allele frequency, thus homogenizing the dataset. Other algorithms in 2009 and 2013 (DNAZip and GenomeZip) have compression ratios of up to 1200-fold—allowing 6 billion basepair diploid human genomes to be stored in 2.5 megabytes (relative to a reference genome or averaged over many genomes).
The_Sun_(United_Kingdom)
Which newspaper overtook The Sun as largest Saturday UK newspaper?
57267978708984140094c753
Daily Mail
155
False
What was the sun's circulation per day in March 2014?
57267978708984140094c754
2.2 million copies
206
False
What was the largest demographic for readers of The Sun?
57267978708984140094c755
C2DE demographic
424
False
What is the percentage of The Sun readers who are women?
57267978708984140094c756
Approximately 41%
442
False
What is one controversial event covered by The Sun?
57267978708984140094c757
1989 Hillsborough football stadium disaster
576
False
The Sun had the largest circulation of any daily newspaper in the United Kingdom, but in late 2013 slipped to second largest Saturday newspaper behind the Daily Mail. It had an average daily circulation of 2.2 million copies in March 2014. Between July and December 2013 the paper had an average daily readership of approximately 5.5 million, with approximately 31% of those falling into the ABC1 demographic and 68% in the C2DE demographic. Approximately 41% of readers are women. The Sun has been involved in many controversies in its history, including its coverage of the 1989 Hillsborough football stadium disaster. Regional editions of the newspaper for Scotland, Northern Ireland and the Republic of Ireland are published in Glasgow (The Scottish Sun), Belfast (The Sun) and Dublin (The Irish Sun) respectively.
Which newspaper did the The Sun on Sunday take the place of?
57267a9b5951b619008f73fd
News of the World
74
False
In what year was The Sun's look changed?
57267a9b5951b619008f73fe
2013
143
False
What was the circulation of The Sun on Sunday in March 2014?
57267a9b5951b619008f73ff
1,686,840
259
False
When did the Sunday Mail overtake The Sun in sales numbers?
57267a9b5951b619008f7400
May 2015
277
False
When is the weekly Mail forecast to pass The Sun in terms of circulation?
57267a9b5951b619008f7401
during 2016
547
False
On 26 February 2012, The Sun on Sunday was launched to replace the closed News of the World, employing some of its former journalists. In late 2013, it was given a new look, with a new typeface. The average circulation for The Sun on Sunday in March 2014 was 1,686,840; but in May 2015 The Mail on Sunday sold more copies for the first time, an average of 28,650 over those of its rival: 1,497,855 to 1,469,195. Roy Greenslade issued some caveats over the May 2015 figures, but believes the weekday Daily Mail will overtake The Sun in circulation during 2016.
Who ordered research on the Herald?
57267bc45951b619008f743d
Cecil King from Mark Abrams of Sussex University
25
False
What was named as a potential reason for the Herald's decline?
57267bc45951b619008f743e
demographic changes
128
False
What type of people was the new paper supposed to attract?
57267bc45951b619008f743f
'social radicals'
258
False
What was the advertising budget of the new paper?
57267bc45951b619008f7440
£400,000
353
False
What was the number of papers in the first print run of the Times?
57267bc45951b619008f7441
3.5 million
469
False
Research commissioned by Cecil King from Mark Abrams of Sussex University, The Newspaper Reading Public of Tomorrow, identified demographic changes which suggested reasons why the Herald might be in decline. The new paper was intended to add a readership of 'social radicals' to the Herald's 'political radicals'. Launched with an advertising budget of £400,000 the brash new paper "burst forth with tremendous energy", according to The Times. Its initial print run of 3.5 million was attributed to 'curiosity' and the 'advantage of novelty', and had declined to the previous circulation of the Daily Herald (1.2 million) within a few weeks.
What did the prospective owner of the paper promise?
57267c915951b619008f745f
fewer redundancies
120
False
How did the prospective publisher describe the newspaper he would produce?
57267c915951b619008f7460
a "straightforward, honest newspaper"
206
False
Which party would the newspaper endorse?
57267c915951b619008f7461
Labour
276
False
What was the price paid for the newspaper?
57267c915951b619008f7462
£800,000
380
False
Whose offer to buy the paper was turned down?
57267c915951b619008f7463
Maxwell's offer
330
False
Seizing the opportunity to increase his presence on Fleet Street, he made an agreement with the print unions, promising fewer redundancies if he acquired the newspaper. He assured IPC that he would publish a "straightforward, honest newspaper" which would continue to support Labour. IPC, under pressure from the unions, rejected Maxwell's offer, and Murdoch bought the paper for £800,000, to be paid in instalments. He would later remark: "I am constantly amazed at the ease with which I entered British newspapers."
What position did Larry Lamb take with the Sun?
57267d66f1498d1400e8e180
editor
160
False
What type of view did Lamb have of the Mirror?
57267d66f1498d1400e8e181
scathing
190
False
What did Lamb and Murdoch believe to be the best indicator of newspaper quality?
57267d66f1498d1400e8e182
its sales
359
False
What position did Lamb formerly hold at the Mirror?
57267d66f1498d1400e8e183
senior sub-editor
270
False
How many reporters did Lamb hire for the Mirror's initial staff?
57267d66f1498d1400e8e184
about 125
492
False
Murdoch found he had such a rapport with Larry Lamb over lunch that other potential recruits as editor were not interviewed and Lamb was appointed as the first editor of the new Sun. He was scathing in his opinion of the Mirror, where he had recently been employed as a senior sub-editor, and shared Murdoch's view that a paper's quality was best measured by its sales, and he regarded the Mirror as overstaffed, and primarily aimed at an ageing readership. Lamb hastily recruited a staff of about 125 reporters, who were mostly selected for their availability rather than their ability.
What did Lamb employ as an important theme from the beginning of the paper?
57267eb8708984140094c7f3
Sex
0
False
When did the first Page 3 model appear topless?
57267eb8708984140094c7f4
17 November 1970
206
False
Who was the first Page 3 topless model?
57267eb8708984140094c7f5
Stephanie Rahn
236
False
Who was the first to prohibit the paper from being in its library?
57267eb8708984140094c7f6
A Conservative council in Sowerby Bridge, Yorkshire
625
False
When was the library ban reversed?
57267eb8708984140094c7f7
1971
944
False
Sex was used as an important element in the content and marketing the paper from the start, which Lamb believed was the most important part of his readers' lives. The first topless Page 3 model appeared on 17 November 1970, German-born Stephanie Rahn; she was tagged as a "Birthday Suit Girl" to mark the first anniversary of the relaunched Sun. A topless Page 3 model gradually became a regular fixture, and with increasingly risqué poses. Both feminists and many cultural conservatives saw the pictures as pornographic and misogynistic. Lamb expressed some regret at introducing the feature, although denied it was sexist. A Conservative council in Sowerby Bridge, Yorkshire, was the first to ban the paper from its public library, shortly after Page 3 began, because of its excessive sexual content. This decision was reversed after a sustained campaign by the newspaper itself lasting 16 months, and the election of a Labour-led council in 1971.
What were the Sun's political leanings early on under Murdoch?
57267fbff1498d1400e8e1d4
nominally Labour
58
False
Who led the Labour Party in the 1970 General Election?
57267fbff1498d1400e8e1d5
Harold Wilson
113
False
Who did the Sun support in 1974?
57267fbff1498d1400e8e1d6
Edward Heath
280
False
Who would the Sun consider supporting from the Labour Party in 1974?
57267fbff1498d1400e8e1d7
James Callaghan or Roy Jenkins
354
False
What type of politician did a Sun editorial state that it would support in October 1974?
57267fbff1498d1400e8e1d8
any able politician who would describe himself as a Social Democrat
501
False
Politically, The Sun in the early Murdoch years, remained nominally Labour. It supported the Labour Party led by Harold Wilson in the 1970 General Election, with the headline "Why It Must Be Labour" but by February 1974 it was calling for a vote for the Conservative Party led by Edward Heath while suggesting that it might support a Labour Party led by James Callaghan or Roy Jenkins. In the October election an editorial asserted: "ALL our instincts are left rather than right and we would vote for any able politician who would describe himself as a Social Democrat."
Who temporarily replaced Larry Lamb?
5726808c708984140094c833
Bernard Shrimsley
125
False
What was Shrimsley's political background?
5726808c708984140094c834
middle-class uncommitted Conservative.
159
False
Who lent his voice to a campaign that aided The Sun in passing the Daily Mirror in 1978?
5726808c708984140094c835
Christopher Timothy
283
False
Where did Murdoch begin expanding?
5726808c708984140094c836
United States
562
False
When did Murdoch begin expanding into the U.S?
5726808c708984140094c837
1973
581
False
The editor, Larry Lamb, was originally from a Labour background, with a socialist upbringing while his temporary replacement Bernard Shrimsley (1972–75) was a middle-class uncommitted Conservative. An extensive advertising campaign on the ITV network in this period, voiced by actor Christopher Timothy, may have helped The Sun to overtake the Daily Mirror's circulation in 1978. Despite the industrial relations of the 1970s – the so-called "Spanish practices" of the print unions – The Sun was very profitable, enabling Murdoch to expand his operations to the United States from 1973.
What newspaper was founded by Express Newspaper?
57268173708984140094c853
The Daily Star
0
False
By what year had The Daily Star started impacting The Sun's sales?
57268173708984140094c854
1981
70
False
What helped the Sun overcome the Daily Star's challenge?
57268173708984140094c855
Bingo was introduced as a marketing tool and a 2p drop in cover price
113
False
Who became editor of the Sun in 1981?
57268173708984140094c856
Kelvin MacKenzie
358
False
What impact was Mackenzie said to have?
57268173708984140094c857
changed the British tabloid concept more profoundly than [Larry] Lamb did"
437
False
The Daily Star had been launched in 1978 by Express Newspaper, and by 1981 had begun to affect sales of The Sun. Bingo was introduced as a marketing tool and a 2p drop in cover price removed the Daily Star's competitive advantage opening a new circulation battle which resulted in The Sun neutralising the threat of the new paper. The new editor of The Sun, Kelvin MacKenzie, took up his post in 1981 just after these developments, and "changed the British tabloid concept more profoundly than [Larry] Lamb did", according to Bruce Page, MacKenzie The paper became "more outrageous, opinionated and irreverent than anything ever produced in Britain".
What did The Sun state that had it taken sponsorship of?
57268242dd62a815002e87ac
a British missile
46
False
What did the wording on the side of The Sun missile state?
57268242dd62a815002e87ad
"Here It Comes, Senors..."
334
False
Who did The Sun state that the missile would be used against?
57268242dd62a815002e87ae
Argentinian forces
608
False
How did troops react to the missile?
57268242dd62a815002e87af
it was not well received
642
False
What was the name of The Sun journalist who reported on the missile?
57268242dd62a815002e87b0
Tony Snow
720
False
On 1 May, The Sun claimed to have 'sponsored' a British missile. Under the headline "Stick This Up Your Junta: A Sun missile for Galtieri’s gauchos", the newspaper published a photograph of a missile, (actually a Polaris missile stock shot from the Ministry of Defence) which had a large Sun logo printed on its side with the caption "Here It Comes, Senors..." underneath. The paper explained that it was 'sponsoring' the missile by contributing to the eventual victory party on HMS Invincible when the war ended. In copy written by Wendy Henry, the paper said that the missile would shortly be used against Argentinian forces. Despite this, it was not well received by the troops and copies of The Sun were soon burnt. Tony Snow, The Sun journalist on HMS Invincible who had 'signed' the missile, reported a few days later that it had hit an Argentinian target.
What was the Sun's headline on 4 May 1982?
57268318708984140094c889
"GOTCHA"
179
False
Which Argentine ship was torpedoed?
57268318708984140094c88a
the General Belgrano
118
False
Why did The Sun change the wording of the headline?
57268318708984140094c88b
the extent of Argentinian casualties became known
375
False
Which reporter saw copies of The Sun being thrown into the ocean?
57268318708984140094c88c
John Shirley
426
False
What ship were copies of The Sun thrown from?
57268318708984140094c88d
HMS Fearless
566
False
One of the paper's best known front pages, published on 4 May 1982, commemorated the torpedoing of the Argentine ship the General Belgrano by running the story under the headline "GOTCHA". At MacKenzie's insistence, and against the wishes of Murdoch (the mogul was present because almost all the journalists were on strike), the headline was changed for later editions after the extent of Argentinian casualties became known. John Shirley, a reporter for The Sunday Times, witnessed copies of this edition of The Sun being thrown overboard by sailors and marines on HMS Fearless.
Which ship was the target of Argentinian aggression?
5726842edd62a815002e87ea
HMS Sheffield
6
False
Which newspapers were highly critical of The Sun's war reporting?
5726842edd62a815002e87eb
The Daily Mirror and The Guardian
136
False
Who was lead writer of The Sun?
5726842edd62a815002e87ec
Ronald Spark
362
False
Who was the BBC's defense correspondent?
5726842edd62a815002e87ed
Peter Snow
478
False
What was the accusation leveled by Ronald Spark against The Daily Mirror, The Guardian, and BBC?
5726842edd62a815002e87ee
treason
494
False
After HMS Sheffield was wrecked by an Argentinian attack, The Sun was heavily criticised and even mocked for its coverage of the war in The Daily Mirror and The Guardian, and the wider media queried the veracity of official information and worried about the number of casualties, The Sun gave its response. "There are traitors in our midst", wrote leader writer Ronald Spark on 7 May, accusing commentators on Daily Mirror and The Guardian, plus the BBC's defence correspondent Peter Snow, of "treason" for aspects of their coverage.
Who did The Sun say was not fit to be Prime Minister in 1983?
572685275951b619008f7557
Michael Foot
226
False
Which party was The Sun accused of covering maliciously?
572685275951b619008f7558
Labour Party
79
False
Who did The Sun support in the 1984 U.S. presidential election?
572685275951b619008f7559
Ronald Reagan
516
False
How old would Ronald Reagan turn soon after he began his second term as U.S. president?
572685275951b619008f755a
74
584
False
What did the headline read that was run with Michael Foot's photo?
572685275951b619008f755b
"Do You Really Want This Old Fool To Run Britain?"
375
False
These years included what was called "spectacularly malicious coverage" of the Labour Party by The Sun and other newspapers. During the general election of 1983 The Sun ran a front page featuring an unflattering photograph of Michael Foot, then aged almost 70, claiming he was unfit to be Prime Minister on grounds of his age, appearance and policies, alongside the headline "Do You Really Want This Old Fool To Run Britain?" A year later, in 1984, The Sun made clear its enthusiastic support for the re-election of Ronald Reagan as president in the USA. Reagan was two weeks off his 74th birthday when he started his second term, in January 1985.
Who did The Sun support in the 1984-85 Miners' strike?
5726893c5951b619008f7625
the police and the Thatcher government
57
False
Who was president of the Miners' union?
5726893c5951b619008f7626
Arthur Scargill
170
False
What did a picture of Scargill have him appear to be doing?
5726893c5951b619008f7627
giving a Nazi salute
363
False
How did The Sun feel about the American bombing of Libya in 1986?
5726893c5951b619008f7628
strongly supported the April 1986 bombing
443
False
Who was Labour M.P. in 1986?
5726893c5951b619008f7629
Clare Short
659
False
The Sun, during the Miners' strike of 1984–85, supported the police and the Thatcher government against the striking NUM miners, and in particular the union's president, Arthur Scargill. On 23 May 1984, The Sun prepared a front page with the headline "Mine Führer" and a photograph of Scargill with his arm in the air, a pose which made him look as though he was giving a Nazi salute. The print workers at The Sun refused to print it. The Sun strongly supported the April 1986 bombing of Libya by the US, which was launched from British bases. Several civilians were killed during the bombing. Their leader was "Right Ron, Right Maggie". That year, Labour MP Clare Short attempted in vain to persuade Parliament to outlaw the pictures on Page Three and gained opprobrium from the newspaper for her stand.
How did Murdoch describe critics of his newspaper?
57268a4cdd62a815002e88ac
"snobs" who want to "impose their tastes on everyone else"
96
False
What did Murdoch and Mackenzie say in defense of The Sun?
57268a4cdd62a815002e88ad
they are "giving the public what they want"
459
False
Who is one critic of The Sun?
57268a4cdd62a815002e88ae
John Pilger
544
False
What was the focus of Pilger's reporting in one issue of The Daily Mirror?
57268a4cdd62a815002e88af
the genocide in Pol Pot's Cambodia
745
False
What distinction does one single edition of The Daily Mirror hold?
57268a4cdd62a815002e88b0
the only edition of the Daily Mirror to ever sell every single copy issued throughout the country
842
False
Murdoch has responded to some of the arguments against the newspaper by saying that critics are "snobs" who want to "impose their tastes on everyone else", while MacKenzie claims the same critics are people who, if they ever had a "popular idea", would have to "go and lie down in a dark room for half an hour". Both have pointed to the huge commercial success of the Sun in this period and its establishment as Britain's top-selling newspaper, claiming that they are "giving the public what they want". This conclusion is disputed by critics. John Pilger has said that a late-1970s edition of the Daily Mirror, which replaced the usual celebrity and domestic political news items with an entire issue devoted to his own front-line reporting of the genocide in Pol Pot's Cambodia, not only outsold The Sun on the day it was issued but became the only edition of the Daily Mirror to ever sell every single copy issued throughout the country, something never achieved by The Sun.
Who wrote Max Clifford: Read All About It?
57268c78708984140094c9bb
Clifford and Angela Levin
57
False
Who was writing a book with McCaffrey?
57268c78708984140094c9bc
Starr
136
False
Who was previously Starr's public relations agent?
57268c78708984140094c9bd
Max Clifford
327
False
How did attention from the story impact Starr's career?
57268c78708984140094c9be
the attention helped to revive his career
463
False
What was the name of Starr's autobiography?
57268c78708984140094c9bf
Unwrapped
532
False
According to Max Clifford: Read All About It, written by Clifford and Angela Levin, La Salle invented the story out of frustration with Starr who had been working on a book with McCaffrey. She contacted an acquaintance who worked for The Sun in Manchester. The story reportedly delighted MacKenzie, who was keen to run it, and Max Clifford, who had been Starr's public relations agent. Starr had to be persuaded that the apparent revelation would not damage him; the attention helped to revive his career. In his 2001 autobiography Unwrapped, Starr wrote that the incident was a complete fabrication: "I have never eaten or even nibbled a live hamster, gerbil, guinea pig, mouse, shrew, vole or any other small mammal."
How many libel writs did The Sun get for their coverage of Elton John?
572695b6f1498d1400e8e470
17
24
False
Who did The Sun allege that Elton John had sex with?
572695b6f1498d1400e8e471
rent boys
227
False
What journalist did The Daily Mirror wrest from The Sun?
572695b6f1498d1400e8e472
John Blake
331
False
What breed of dog did The Sun mistakenly report that Elton John owned?
572695b6f1498d1400e8e473
Rottweiler
475
False
Where did The Sun offer to fly gay men in 1987?
572695b6f1498d1400e8e474
Norway
1044
False
Eventually resulting in 17 libel writs in total, The Sun ran a series of false stories about the pop musician Elton John from 25 February 1987. They began with an invented account of the singer having sexual relationships with rent boys. The singer-songwriter was abroad on the day indicated in the story, as former Sun journalist John Blake, recently poached by the Daily Mirror, soon discovered. After further stories, in September 1987, The Sun accused John of having his Rottweiler guard dogs voice boxes surgically removed. In November, the Daily Mirror found their rival's only source for the rent boy story and he admitted it was a totally fictitious concoction created for money. The inaccurate story about his dogs, actually Alsatians, put pressure on The Sun, and John received £1 million in an out of court settlement, then the largest damages payment in British history. The Sun ran a front-page apology on 12 December 1988, under the banner headline "SORRY, ELTON". In May 1987 gay men were offered free one-way airline tickets to Norway to leave Britain for good: "Fly Away Gays - And We Will Pay" was the paper's headline. Gay Church of England clergymen were described in one headline in November 1987 as "Pulpit poofs".
What did Piers Morgan offer opinions about in a late 1980s column?
572696f75951b619008f776b
the sexuality of male pop stars
208
False
Which papers did Morgan serve as editor of?
572696f75951b619008f776c
Daily Mirror and of The Sun
60
False
Which BBC show's homosexual kiss did The Sun report on?
572696f75951b619008f776d
EastEnders
405
False
Who shared the first homosexual kiss on EastEnders?
572696f75951b619008f776e
Colin Russell and Guido Smith
459
False
Which column did Piers Morgan edit at The Sun?
572696f75951b619008f776f
Bizarre pop column
90
False
Television personality Piers Morgan, a former editor of the Daily Mirror and of The Sun's Bizarre pop column, has said that during the late 1980s, at Kelvin MacKenzie's behest, he was ordered to speculate on the sexuality of male pop stars for a feature headlined "The Poofs of Pop". He also recalls MacKenzie headlining a January 1989 story about the first same-sex kiss on the BBC television soap opera EastEnders "EastBenders", describing the kiss between Colin Russell and Guido Smith as "a homosexual love scene between yuppie poofs ... when millions of children were watching".
What was the headline for a page 2 Sun story on 17 November 1989?
572697ec5951b619008f777f
"STRAIGHT SEX CANNOT GIVE YOU AIDS – OFFICIAL."
66
False
Whose opinion did The Sun trust in their AIDS reporting?
572697ec5951b619008f7780
Lord Kilbracken
155
False
Which groups were classified as being at a high risk for AIDS?
572697ec5951b619008f7781
homosexuals and recreational drug users
407
False
With which group was Lord Kilbracken associated?
572697ec5951b619008f7782
All Parliamentary Group on AIDS
188
False
How did other news outlets report on Lord Kilbracken's words?
572697ec5951b619008f7783
none of them presented Lord Kilbracken's ideas without context or criticism
856
False
On 17 November 1989, The Sun headlined a page 2 news story titled "STRAIGHT SEX CANNOT GIVE YOU AIDS – OFFICIAL." The Sun favourably cited the opinions of Lord Kilbracken, a member of the All Parliamentary Group on AIDS. Lord Kilbracken said that only one person out of the 2,372 individuals with HIV/AIDS mentioned in a specific Department of Health report was not a member of a "high risk group", such as homosexuals and recreational drug users. The Sun also ran an editorial further arguing that "At last the truth can be told... the risk of catching AIDS if you are heterosexual is "statistically invisible". In other words, impossible. So now we know – everything else is homosexual propaganda." Although many other British press services covered Lord Kilbracken's public comments, none of them made the argument that the Sun did in its editorial and none of them presented Lord Kilbracken's ideas without context or criticism.
What did critics believe about The Sun and Lord Kilbracken's ideas on AIDS?
57269a6d708984140094cb6b
The Sun and Lord Kilbracken cherry-picked the results from one specific study while ignoring other data reports on HIV infection and not just AIDS infection
25
False
What did Lord Kilbracken think of The Sun's editorial?
57269a6d708984140094cb6c
Lord Kilbracken himself criticised The Sun's editorial and the headline of its news story
256
False
Who criticized The Sun for its reporting on AIDS and HIV?
57269a6d708984140094cb6d
The Press Council
502
False
What did David Randall say about the Sun's AIDS story?
57269a6d708984140094cb6e
The Sun's story was one of the worst cases of journalistic malpractice in recent history
725
False
In what textbook did David Randall write his opinion?
57269a6d708984140094cb6f
The Universal Journalist
695
False
Critics stated that both The Sun and Lord Kilbracken cherry-picked the results from one specific study while ignoring other data reports on HIV infection and not just AIDS infection, which the critics viewed as unethical politicisation of a medical issue. Lord Kilbracken himself criticised The Sun's editorial and the headline of its news story; he stated that while he thought that gay people were more at risk of developing AIDS it was still wrong to imply that no one else could catch the disease. The Press Council condemned The Sun for committing what it called a "gross distortion". The Sun later ran an apology, which they ran on Page 28. Journalist David Randall argued in the textbook The Universal Journalist that The Sun's story was one of the worst cases of journalistic malpractice in recent history, putting its own readers in harm's way.
What did the paper report that some fans did?
57269b9bdd62a815002e8af4
picked the pockets of crushed victims
103
False
Who was reported to have been assaulted while trying to help a patient?
57269b9bdd62a815002e8af5
a police constable
251
False
Who wrote the headline "The Truth"?
57269b9bdd62a815002e8af6
Kelvin MacKenzie
364
False
Who wrote the actual story?
57269b9bdd62a815002e8af7
Harry Arnold
554
False
What was the story based on?
57269b9bdd62a815002e8af8
allegations either by unnamed and unattributable sources, or hearsay accounts of what named individuals had said
405
False
Under a front page headline "The Truth", the paper printed allegations provided to them that some fans picked the pockets of crushed victims, that others urinated on members of the emergency services as they tried to help and that some even assaulted a police constable "whilst he was administering the kiss of life to a patient." Despite the headline, written by Kelvin MacKenzie, the story was based on allegations either by unnamed and unattributable sources, or hearsay accounts of what named individuals had said – a fact made clear to MacKenzie by Harry Arnold, the reporter who wrote the story.
Where did The sun lose a large portion of its daily sales as a result of the front page?
57269c5f5951b619008f77bd
Liverpool
33
False
What were the estimated daily sales in Liverpool 25 years later?
57269c5f5951b619008f77be
around 12,000
187
False
What documentary aired in 2008?
57269c5f5951b619008f77bf
Alexei Sayle's Liverpool
327
False
What do many Liverpool residents do with the paper even if given to them free?
57269c5f5951b619008f77c0
simply burn or tear it up
466
False
What name have Liverpool residents given to The Sun?
57269c5f5951b619008f77c1
The Scum'
530
False
The front page caused outrage in Liverpool, where the paper lost more than three-quarters of its estimated 55,000 daily sales and still sells poorly in the city more than 25 years later (around 12,000). It is unavailable in many parts of the city, as many newsagents refuse to stock it. It was revealed in a documentary called Alexei Sayle's Liverpool, aired in September 2008, that many Liverpudlians will not even take the newspaper for free, and those who do may simply burn or tear it up. Liverpudlians refer to the paper as 'The Scum' with campaigners believing it handicapped their fight for justice.
Which footballer was verbally attacked in Liverpool?
57269d17708984140094cbc5
Wayne Rooney
62
False
What team did Rooney transfer to?
57269d17708984140094cbc6
Manchester United
117
False
What was Rooney's age at the time of the Hillsborough disaster?
57269d17708984140094cbc7
three years old
324
False
Who was managing editor of The Sun in 2005?
57269d17708984140094cbc8
Graham Dudman
456
False
How did Dudman describe The Sun's Hillsborough coverage?
57269d17708984140094cbc9
"the worst mistake in our history"
510
False
On 7 July 2004, in response to verbal attacks in Liverpool on Wayne Rooney, just before his transfer from Everton to Manchester United, who had sold his life story to The Sun, the paper devoted a full-page editorial to an apology for the "awful error" of its Hillsborough coverage and argued that Rooney (who was still only three years old at the time of Hillsborough) should not be punished for its "past sins". In January 2005, The Sun's managing editor Graham Dudman admitting the Hillsborough coverage was "the worst mistake in our history", added: "What we did was a terrible mistake. It was a terrible, insensitive, horrible article, with a dreadful headline; but what we'd also say is: we have apologised for it, and the entire senior team here now is completely different from the team that put the paper out in 1989."
When did Margaret Thatcher leave office?
57269deaf1498d1400e8e502
November 1990
66
False
What is another name for the Community Charge?
57269deaf1498d1400e8e503
Poll tax
177
False
Who took over for Thatcher?
57269deaf1498d1400e8e504
John Major
496
False
Who opposed the poll tax?
57269deaf1498d1400e8e505
Conservative MPs
367
False
How did The Sun feel about the Poll tax?
57269deaf1498d1400e8e506
was vociferously supported by the newspaper
280
False
The Sun remained loyal to Thatcher right up to her resignation in November 1990, despite the party's fall in popularity over the previous year following the introduction of the Poll tax (officially known as the Community Charge). This change to the way local government is funded was vociferously supported by the newspaper, despite widespread opposition, (some from Conservative MPs), which is seen as having contributed to Thatcher's own downfall. The tax was quickly repealed by her successor John Major, whom The Sun initially supported enthusiastically, believing he was a radical Thatcherite – despite the economy having entered recession at this time.
What types of policies did The Sun support?
57269ef4f1498d1400e8e52a
Thatcherite policies
126
False
What is an example of a Thatcherite policy?
57269ef4f1498d1400e8e52b
Royal Mail privatisation
156
False
What was The Sun's stance toward the EU?
57269ef4f1498d1400e8e52c
The paper showed hostility
329
False
What's another thing the paper showed hostility to?
57269ef4f1498d1400e8e52d
promotion of right-wing ministers to the cabinet
418
False
What was The Sun's initial stance toward the closures?
57269ef4f1498d1400e8e52e
opposition
20
False
Despite its initial opposition to the closures, until 1997, the newspaper repeatedly called for the implementation of further Thatcherite policies, such as Royal Mail privatisation,[verification needed] and social security cutbacks, with leaders such as "Peter Lilley is right, we can't carry on like this",[verification needed] The paper showed hostility to the EU and approval of public spending cuts, tax cuts, and promotion of right-wing ministers to the cabinet, with leaders such as "More of the Redwood, not Deadwood".
Who did The Sun declare political endorsement of in 1997?
57269fe55951b619008f7811
Labour party
32
False
Who became Prime Minister in 1997?
57269fe55951b619008f7812
Tony Blair
141
False
Which New Labour policies did The Sun oppose?
57269fe55951b619008f7813
Minimum Wage and Devolution
444
False
How did The Sun describe John Major's Conservatives?
57269fe55951b619008f7814
"tired, divided and rudderless"
591
False
Who greatly changed the image of the Labour party?
57269fe55951b619008f7815
Blair
624
False
The Sun switched support to the Labour party on 18 March 1997, six weeks before the General Election victory which saw the New Labour leader Tony Blair become Prime Minister with a large parliamentary majority, despite the paper having attacked Blair and New Labour up to a month earlier. Its front page headline read THE SUN BACKS BLAIR and its front page editorial made clear that while it still opposed some New Labour policies, such as the Minimum Wage and Devolution, it believed Blair to be "the breath of fresh air this great country needs". John Major's Conservatives, it said, were "tired, divided and rudderless". Blair, who had radically altered his party's image and policies, noting the influence the paper could have over its readers' political thinking, had courted it (and Murdoch) for some time by granting exclusive interviews and writing columns.
What did Blair agree to in order to get the support of Rupert Murdoch?
5726a0d2708984140094cc3f
not to join the European Exchange Rate Mechanism
55
False
Who was Cabinet Minister in 1998?
5726a0d2708984140094cc40
Peter Mandelson
213
False
What happened on BBC's Newsnight in 1998?
5726a0d2708984140094cc41
Peter Mandelson was "outed" by Matthew Parris
213
False
Who was editor of The Sun in 1998?
5726a0d2708984140094cc42
David Yelland
369
False
What did The Sun say its policy about revealing an individual's sexuality would be moving forward?
5726a0d2708984140094cc43
The Sun would never again reveal a person's sexuality unless it could be defended on the grounds of "overwhelming public interest"
598
False
In exchange for Rupert Murdoch's support, Blair agreed not to join the European Exchange Rate Mechanism – which John Major had withdrawn the country from in September 1992 after barely two years. Cabinet Minister Peter Mandelson was "outed" by Matthew Parris (a former Sun columnist) on BBC TV's Newsnight in November 1998. Misjudging public response, The Sun's editor David Yelland demanded to know in a front page editorial whether Britain was governed by a "gay mafia" of a "closed world of men with a mutual self-interest". Three days later the paper apologised in another editorial which said The Sun would never again reveal a person's sexuality unless it could be defended on the grounds of "overwhelming public interest".
What allegation did the government level against The Sun in 2003?
5726a1b75951b619008f784d
racism
33
False
Who specifically leveled the allegations against The Sun?
5726a1b75951b619008f784e
Prime Minister's press spokesman Alastair Campbell and the Home Secretary David Blunkett
167
False
What did a 4 July 2003 front page story claim?
5726a1b75951b619008f784f
asylum seekers were slaughtering and eating swans
600
False
From which issue did claims that The Sun was racist stem?
5726a1b75951b619008f7850
immigration
128
False
Who did The Sun print pictures of in a Nazi outfit in 2005?
5726a1b75951b619008f7851
Prince Harry
925
False
In 2003 the paper was accused of racism by the Government over its criticisms of what it perceived as the "open door" policy on immigration. The attacks came from the Prime Minister's press spokesman Alastair Campbell and the Home Secretary David Blunkett (later a Sun columnist). The paper rebutted the claim, believing that it was not racist to suggest that a "tide" of unchecked illegal immigrants was increasing the risk of terrorist attacks and infectious diseases. It did not help its argument by publishing a front page story on 4 July 2003, under the headline "Swan Bake", which claimed that asylum seekers were slaughtering and eating swans. It later proved to have no basis in fact. Subsequently The Sun published a follow-up headlined "Now they're after our fish!". Following a Press Complaints Commission adjudication a "clarification" was eventually printed, on page 41. In 2005 The Sun published photographs of Prince Harry sporting a Nazi costume to a fancy dress party. The photographs caused outrage across the world and Clarence House was forced to issue a statement in response apologising for any offence or embarrassment caused.
Who did The Sun endorse in the 2005 general election?
5726a25cf1498d1400e8e580
Blair and Labour
189
False
What is one of the weaknesses The Sun thought Blair possessed?
5726a25cf1498d1400e8e581
failure to control immigration
363
False
Who was leading the Conservatives at this time?
5726a25cf1498d1400e8e582
Michael Howard
460
False
What did Blair state about the 2005 election?
5726a25cf1498d1400e8e583
it would be his last as prime minister
559
False
What was the result of the 2005 election?
5726a25cf1498d1400e8e584
Labour's third successive win
611
False
Despite being a persistent critic of some of the government's policies, the paper supported Labour in both subsequent elections the party won. For the 2005 general election, The Sun backed Blair and Labour for a third consecutive election win and vowed to give him "one last chance" to fulfil his promises, despite berating him for several weaknesses including a failure to control immigration. However, it did speak of its hope that the Conservatives (led by Michael Howard) would one day be fit for a return to government. This election (Blair had declared it would be his last as prime minister) resulted in Labour's third successive win but with a much reduced majority.
What was the subject of the front page on 22 September 2003?
5726a33bdd62a815002e8bb2
mental health
84
False
Who was featured in the article on mental health?
5726a33bdd62a815002e8bb3
Frank Bruno
168
False
What was the original headline on 22 September 2003?
5726a33bdd62a815002e8bb4
Bonkers Bruno Locked Up
235
False
What was the headline changed to after public backlash?
5726a33bdd62a815002e8bb5
Sad Bruno In Mental Home
485
False
What had happened to Frank Bruno to spur the publishing of a story about him?
5726a33bdd62a815002e8bb6
had been admitted to hospital
185
False
On 22 September 2003 the newspaper appeared to misjudge the public mood surrounding mental health, as well as its affection for former world heavyweight champion boxer Frank Bruno, who had been admitted to hospital, when the headline "Bonkers Bruno Locked Up" appeared on the front page of early editions. The adverse reaction, once the paper had hit the streets on the evening of 21 September, led to the headline being changed for the paper's second edition to the more sympathetic "Sad Bruno In Mental Home".
Which two nations has The Sun been very antagonistic towards?
5726a3fc5951b619008f78b5
French and Germans
86
False
What names were used by The Sun to characterize the French and Germans?
5726a3fc5951b619008f78b6
"frogs", "krauts" or "hun"
202
False
What is the paper's stance on the EU?
5726a3fc5951b619008f78b7
opposed
246
False
How was French president Jacques Chirac described by The Sun?
5726a3fc5951b619008f78b8
le Worm
424
False
Which German chancellor was criticized by The Sun?
5726a3fc5951b619008f78b9
Angela Merkel
479
False
The Sun has been openly antagonistic towards other European nations, particularly the French and Germans. During the 1980s and 1990s, the nationalities were routinely described in copy and headlines as "frogs", "krauts" or "hun". As the paper is opposed to the EU it has referred to foreign leaders who it deemed hostile to the UK in unflattering terms. Former President Jacques Chirac of France, for instance, was branded "le Worm". An unflattering picture of German chancellor Angela Merkel, taken from the rear, bore the headline "I'm Big in the Bumdestag" (17 April 2006).
What type of forum was the subject of a January 2009 front page story in The Sun?
5726a5e05951b619008f78f9
a British Muslim internet forum
118
False
Who was said to be targeted in The Sun's front page story?
5726a5e05951b619008f78fa
a "hate hit list" of British Jews
160
False
What magazine refuted the claims made by The Sun in its article about the forum?
5726a5e05951b619008f78fb
Private Eye
399
False
According to Private Eye who was the only forum member expressing wishes for a hate campaign?
5726a5e05951b619008f78fc
Glen Jenvey
424
False
Complaints to which body led to The Sun removing the story from its website?
5726a5e05951b619008f78fd
UK's Press Complaints Commission
768
False
On 7 January 2009, The Sun ran an exclusive front page story claiming that participants in a discussion on Ummah.com, a British Muslim internet forum, had made a "hate hit list" of British Jews to be targeted by extremists over the Gaza War. It was claimed that "Those listed [on the forum] should treat it very seriously. Expect a hate campaign and intimidation by 20 or 30 thugs." The UK magazine Private Eye claimed that Glen Jenvey, a man quoted by The Sun as a terrorism expert, who had been posting to the forum under the pseudonym "Abuislam", was the only forum member promoting a hate campaign while other members promoted peaceful advocacy, such as writing 'polite letters'. The story has since been removed from The Sun's website following complaints to the UK's Press Complaints Commission.
What was the claimed target of a terrorist attack according to a late 2010 Sun front page story?
5726acb05951b619008f79b3
Granada Television in Manchester
133
False
What was the television program that would have been affected by the attack?
5726acb05951b619008f79b4
Coronation Street
207
False
What did the Manchester police say about these claimed attacks?
5726acb05951b619008f79b5
categorically denied having "been made aware of any threat from Al-Qaeda or any other proscribed organisation."
491
False
Who negotiated an apology from The Sun for its misreporting of this story?
5726acb05951b619008f79b6
the Press Complaints Commission
823
False
Who was responsible for the 2011 Norway attacks?
5726acb05951b619008f79b7
Anders Behring Breivik,
1011
False
On 9 December 2010, The Sun published a front-page story claiming that terrorist group Al-Qaeda had threatened a terrorist attack on Granada Television in Manchester to disrupt the episode of the soap opera Coronation Street to be transmitted live that evening. The paper cited unnamed sources, claiming "cops are throwing a ring of steel around tonight's live episode of Coronation Street over fears it has been targeted by Al-Qaeda." Later that morning, however, Greater Manchester Police categorically denied having "been made aware of any threat from Al-Qaeda or any other proscribed organisation." The Sun published a small correction on 28 December, admitting "that while cast and crew were subject to full body searches, there was no specific threat from Al-Qaeda as we reported." The apology had been negotiated by the Press Complaints Commission. For the day following the 2011 Norway attacks The Sun produced an early edition blaming the massacre on al-Qaeda. Later the perpetrator was revealed to be Anders Behring Breivik, a Norwegian nationalist.
When was The Sun printed on the Wapping presses for the last time?
5726b1655951b619008f7ab9
January 2008
3
False
Where was London printing of The Sun moved to?
5726b1655951b619008f7aba
Waltham Cross in the Borough of Broxbourne in Hertfordshire
109
False
How many presses were there at the new printing facility?
5726b1655951b619008f7abb
12
270
False
Where had northern printing been moved to?
5726b1655951b619008f7abc
Knowsley on Merseyside
536
False
How much had been invested in the new printing locations?
5726b1655951b619008f7abd
£600 million
665
False
In January 2008 the Wapping presses printed The Sun for the last time and London printing was transferred to Waltham Cross in the Borough of Broxbourne in Hertfordshire, where News International had built what is claimed to be the largest printing centre in Europe with 12 presses. The site also produces The Times and Sunday Times, Daily Telegraph and Sunday Telegraph, Wall Street Journal Europe (also now a Murdoch newspaper), London's Evening Standard and local papers. Northern printing had earlier been switched to a new plant at Knowsley on Merseyside and the Scottish Sun to another new plant at Motherwell near Glasgow. The three print centres represent a £600 million investment by NI and allowed all the titles to be produced with every page in full colour from 2008. The Waltham Cross plant is capable of producing one million copies an hour of a 120-page tabloid newspaper.
Who followed Tony Blair as Prime Minister?
5726b361708984140094ce27
Gordon Brown
68
False
Who was the Conservative leader that The Sun often supported?
5726b361708984140094ce28
David Cameron
230
False
What is the name of the company that operates The Sun?
5726b361708984140094ce29
News Corporation
294
False
What was the House of Lords Select Committee on Communications investigating in 2007?
5726b361708984140094ce2a
media ownership and the news
423
False
On which issues did Murdoch claim he exerted editorial control?
5726b361708984140094ce2b
which political party to back in a general election or which policy to adopt on Europe
568
False
Politically, the paper's stance was less clear under Prime Minister Gordon Brown who succeeded Blair in June 2007. Its editorials were critical of many of Brown's policies and often more supportive of those of Conservative leader David Cameron. Rupert Murdoch, head of The Sun's parent company News Corporation, speaking at a 2007 meeting with the House of Lords Select Committee on Communications, which was investigating media ownership and the news, said that he acts as a "traditional proprietor". This means he exercises editorial control on major issues such as which political party to back in a general election or which policy to adopt on Europe.
Who showed up on the editorial floor of the Independent?
5726b4745951b619008f7b23
James Murdoch and Rebekah Wade
174
False
Who was the editor of the Independent?
5726b4745951b619008f7b24
Simon Kelner
335
False
What did The Sun neglect to report concerning the upcoming election?
5726b4745951b619008f7b25
its own YouGov poll result
421
False
Who did the Independent state wouldn't decide the election?
5726b4745951b619008f7b26
Rupert Murdoch
107
False
What year was the United Kingdom general election?
5726b4745951b619008f7b27
2010
61
False
During the campaign for the United Kingdom general election, 2010, The Independent ran ads declaring that "Rupert Murdoch won't decide this election – you will." In response James Murdoch and Rebekah Wade "appeared unannounced and uninvited on the editorial floor" of the Independent, and had an energetic conversation with its editor Simon Kelner. Several days later the Independent reported The Sun's failure to report its own YouGov poll result which said that "if people thought Mr Clegg's party had a significant chance of winning the election" the Liberal Democrats would win 49% of the vote, and with it a landslide majority.
Who did The Sun advocate for the 2010 election?
5726b533dd62a815002e8d8e
David Cameron
68
False
What did The Sun fear would result from election of the Labour Party?
5726b533dd62a815002e8d8f
disaster
151
False
What was the outcome of the general election?
5726b533dd62a815002e8d90
hung parliament
281
False
Which party came to power after the election?
5726b533dd62a815002e8d91
Tories
338
False
Who did David Cameron align with in order to become Prime Minister?
5726b533dd62a815002e8d92
Liberal Democrats
604
False
On election day (6 May 2010), The Sun urged its readers to vote for David Cameron's "modern and positive" Conservatives in order to save Britain from "disaster" which the paper thought the country would face if the Labour government was re-elected. The election ended in the first hung parliament after an election for 36 years, with the Tories gaining the most seats and votes but being 20 seats short of an overall majority. They finally came to power on 11 May when Gordon Brown stepped down as prime minister, paving the way for David Cameron to become prime minister by forming a coalition with the Liberal Democrats.
Why were former Sun staff members put in police custody in early 2012?
5726b605708984140094ce99
as part of a probe in which journalists paid police officers for information
86
False
What was the charge against those arrested?
5726b605708984140094ce9a
suspicion of corruption
456
False
What greater scandal was this investigation a part of?
5726b605708984140094ce9b
the News of the World scandal
607
False
Which Sun staffers were arrested?
5726b605708984140094ce9c
crime editor Mike Sullivan, head of news Chris Pharo, former deputy editor Fergus Shanahan, and former managing editor Graham Dudman
244
False
What role had Graham Dudman taken after serving as The Sun managing editor?
5726b605708984140094ce9d
columnist and media writer
397
False
On 28 January 2012, police arrested four current and former staff members of The Sun, as part of a probe in which journalists paid police officers for information; a police officer was also arrested in the probe. The Sun staffers arrested were crime editor Mike Sullivan, head of news Chris Pharo, former deputy editor Fergus Shanahan, and former managing editor Graham Dudman, who since became a columnist and media writer. All five arrested were held on suspicion of corruption. Police also searched the offices of News International, the publishers of The Sun, as part of a continuing investigation into the News of the World scandal.
Who were the main leaders of the ruling party?
5726b718708984140094cebf
David Cameron, Nick Clegg and Ed Miliband
24
False
Who criticized Milliband for posing with a copy of The Sun showing the Hillsborough disaster?
5726b718708984140094cec0
Liverpool Labour MPs and the city's Labour Mayor, Joe Anderson
374
False
How did Milliband explain posing with this newspaper?
5726b718708984140094cec1
promoting England's bid to win the World Cup
502
False
Who was the Labour Mayour of Liverpool?
5726b718708984140094cec2
Joe Anderson
424
False
What emotion did many people feel over The Sun's coverage of Hillsborough?
5726b718708984140094cec3
anger
578
False
The main party leaders, David Cameron, Nick Clegg and Ed Miliband, were all depicted holding a copy of the special issue in publicity material. Miliband's decision to pose with a copy of The Sun received a strong response. Organisations representing the relatives of Hillsborough victims described Miliband's action as an "absolute disgrace" and he faced criticism too from Liverpool Labour MPs and the city's Labour Mayor, Joe Anderson. A statement was issued on 13 June explaining that Miliband "was promoting England's bid to win the World Cup", although "he understands the anger that is felt towards the Sun over Hillsborough by many people in Merseyside and he is sorry to those who feel offended."
Who was the subject of an early June 2013 front page story?
5726b7eff1498d1400e8e8ba
Tulisa Contostavlos
78
False
Who wrote the story on Tulisa Contostavlos?
5726b7eff1498d1400e8e8bb
Mahzer Mahmood
217
False
What was the main allegation in The Sun's story on Contostavlos?
5726b7eff1498d1400e8e8bc
that Tulisa introduced three film producers (actually Mahmood and two other Sun journalists) to a drug dealer and set up a £800 deal
301
False
What did The Sun reporters make Contostavlos believe?
5726b7eff1498d1400e8e8bd
that she was being considered for a role in an £8 million Bollywood film
493
False
What was the title of the front page story on Contostavlos?
5726b7eff1498d1400e8e8be
Tulisa's cocaine deal shame
121
False
On 2 June 2013, The Sun on Sunday ran a front page story on singer-songwriter Tulisa Contostavlos. The front page read: "Tulisa's cocaine deal shame"; this story was written by The Sun On Sunday's undercover reporter Mahzer Mahmood, who had previously worked for the News of the World. It was claimed that Tulisa introduced three film producers (actually Mahmood and two other Sun journalists) to a drug dealer and set up a £800 deal. The subterfuge involved conning the singer into believing that she was being considered for a role in an £8 million Bollywood film.
How did the case against Tulisa fare?
5726b8ab708984140094cf0b
collapsed
49
False
What did the judge in the case state?
5726b8ab708984140094cf0c
Mahmood had lied at a pre-trial hearing and tried to manipulate evidence against the co-defendant Tulisa
173
False
What type of drugs was Tulisa accused of supplying?
5726b8ab708984140094cf0d
Class A drugs
311
False
What action did The Sun take against Mahmood?
5726b8ab708984140094cf0e
suspended
461
False
When was the case against Tulisa tried?
5726b8ab708984140094cf0f
July 2014
87
False
At her subsequent trial, the case against Tulisa collapsed at Southwark Crown Court in July 2014, with the judge commenting that there were "strong grounds" to believe that Mahmood had lied at a pre-trial hearing and tried to manipulate evidence against the co-defendant Tulisa. Tulisa was cleared of supplying Class A drugs. After these events, The Sun released a statement saying that the newspaper "takes the Judge's remarks very seriously. Mahmood has been suspended pending an immediate internal investigation."
What were Sun staff accused of in a 2014 trial?
5726b9ba708984140094cf45
conspiring to commit misconduct in a public office
117
False
What was at issue in the 2014 trial?
5726b9ba708984140094cf46
illegal payments allegedly made to public officials
551
False
Who were The Sun staffers accused of buying information about?
5726b9ba708984140094cf47
the Royal Family, public figures and prison inmates
784
False
Who was the judge in this particular case?
5726b9ba708984140094cf48
Richard Marks
1272
False
What was the outcome of the jury's deliberation in the trial?
5726b9ba708984140094cf49
failing to reach verdicts on the outstanding charges
1736
False
In October 2014, the trial of six senior staff and journalists at The Sun newspaper began. All six were charged with conspiring to commit misconduct in a public office. They included The Sun's head of news Chris Pharo, who faced six charges, while ex-managing editor Graham Dudman and ex-Sun deputy news editor Ben O'Driscoll were accused of four charges each. Thames Valley district reporter Jamie Pyatt and picture editor John Edwards were charged with three counts each, while ex-reporter John Troup was accused of two counts. The trial related to illegal payments allegedly made to public officials, with prosecutors saying the men conspired to pay officials from 2002–11, including police, prison officers and soldiers. They were accused of buying confidential information about the Royal Family, public figures and prison inmates. They all denied the charges. On 16 January 2015, Troup and Edwards were cleared by the jury of all charges against them. The jury also partially cleared O'Driscoll and Dudman but continued deliberating over other counts faced by them, as well as the charges against Pharo and Pyatt. On 21 January 2015, the jury told the court that it was unable to reach unanimous verdicts on any of the outstanding charges and was told by the judge, Richard Marks, that he would accept majority verdicts. Shortly afterwards, one of the jurors sent a note to the judge and was discharged. The judge told the remaining 11 jurors that their colleague had been "feeling unwell and feeling under a great deal of pressure and stress from the situation you are in", and that under the circumstances he was prepared to accept majority verdicts of "11 to zero or 10 to 1". On 22 January 2015, the jury was discharged after failing to reach verdicts on the outstanding charges. The Crown Prosecution Service (CPS) announced that it would seek a retrial.
Who was appointed presiding judge over the retrial in 2015?
5726baf5f1498d1400e8e92c
Charles Wide
89
False
In which newspaper did Lisa O'Carroll report the choice of judge?
5726baf5f1498d1400e8e92d
The Guardian
342
False
Who was Pharo's lawyer in the case?
5726baf5f1498d1400e8e92e
Nigel Rumfitt QC
775
False
What did Rumfit state that the defendants should have been informed about?
5726baf5f1498d1400e8e92f
why Marks was being replaced by Wide
1097
False
What did the lawyers for the defendants threaten to do?
5726baf5f1498d1400e8e930
take the decision to judicial review
698
False
On 6 February 2015, it was announced that Judge Richard Marks is to be replaced by Judge Charles Wide at the retrial. Two days earlier, Marks had emailed counsel for the defendants telling them: "It has been decided (not by me but by my elders and betters) that I am not going to be doing the retrial". Reporting the decision in UK newspaper The Guardian, Lisa O’Carroll wrote: "Wide is the only judge so far to have presided in a case which has seen a conviction of a journalist in relation to allegations of unlawful payments to public officials for stories. The journalist, who cannot be named for legal reasons, is appealing the verdict". Defence counsel for the four journalists threatened to take the decision to judicial review, with the barrister representing Pharo, Nigel Rumfitt QC, saying: "The way this has come about gives rise to the impression that something has been going on behind the scenes which should not have been going on behind the scenes and which should have been dealt with transparently". He added that the defendants were "extremely concerned" and "entitled" to know why Marks was being replaced by Wide.
Who was found guilty in 2015?
5726bb79f1498d1400e8e954
Anthony France
29
False
Which Sun reporter was found guilty in 2015?
5726c173f1498d1400e8ea4e
Anthony France
29
False
Who was responsible for Operation Elveden?
5726c173f1498d1400e8ea4f
London Metropolitan Police
165
False
How much did Anthony France pay to a police officer?
5726c173f1498d1400e8ea50
more than £22,000
336
False
Who was the policeman leading Operation Elveden?
5726c173f1498d1400e8ea51
Detective Chief Superintendent Gordon Briggs
701
False
How did Briggs characterize the relationship between France and Edwards?
5726c173f1498d1400e8ea52
"long-term, corrupt relationship"
784
False
On 22 May 2015, Sun reporter Anthony France was found guilty of aiding and abetting misconduct in a public office between 2008 and 2011. France’s trial followed the London Metropolitan Police's Operation Elveden, an ongoing investigation into alleged payments to police and officials in exchange for information. He had paid a total of more than £22,000 to PC Timothy Edwards, an anti-terrorism police officer based at Heathrow Airport. The police officer had already pleaded guilty to misconduct in a public office and given a two-year gaol sentence in 2014, but the jury in France’s trial was not informed of this. Following the passing of the guilty verdict, the officer leading Operation Elveden, Detective Chief Superintendent Gordon Briggs said France and Edwards had been in a "long-term, corrupt relationship".
Who was the first journalist convicted as a result of Operation Elveden since it had been revised?
5726ce2d708984140094d1df
France
22
False
What was the change made to Operation Elveden by the Crown Prosecution Service?
5726ce2d708984140094d1e0
prosecutions would only be brought against journalists who had made payments to police officers over a period of time
198
False
Which judge commented on France's unlawful activities?
5726ce2d708984140094d1e1
Timothy Pontius
825
False
Who else did Judge Pontius believe should be blamed for France's actions?
5726ce2d708984140094d1e2
News International
988
False
Who was News International considering bringing a case against?
5726ce2d708984140094d1e3
the London Metropolitan Police Service
1345
False
The BBC reported that France was the first journalist to face trial and be convicted under Operation Elveden since the Crown Prosecution Service (CPS) had revised its guidance in April 2015 so that prosecutions would only be brought against journalists who had made payments to police officers over a period of time. As a result of the change in the CPS’ policy, charges against several journalists who had made payments to other types of public officials – including civil servants, health workers and prison staff - had been dropped. In July 2015, Private Eye magazine reported that at a costs hearing at the Old Bailey The Sun's parent company had refused to pay for the prosecution costs relating to France’s trial, leading the presiding judge to express his "considerable disappointment" at this state of affairs. Judge Timothy Pontius said in court that France’s illegal actions had been part of a "clearly recognised procedure at The Sun", adding that, "There can be no doubt that News International bears some measure of moral responsibility if not legal culpability for the acts of the defendant". The Private Eye report noted that despite this The Sun's parent organisation was "considering disciplinary actions" against France whilst at the same time it was also preparing to bring a case to the Investigatory Powers Tribunal against the London Metropolitan Police Service for its actions relating to him and two other journalists.
What did The Irish Sun stop doing in 2013?
5726cf69f1498d1400e8ebec
featuring topless models on Page 3
52
False
What was stated to be the last edition of the regular Sun to publish topless models?
5726cf69f1498d1400e8ebed
the edition of 16 January
150
False
Which newspaper claimed that The Sun stopped featuring topless models in 2013?
5726cf69f1498d1400e8ebee
The Times
240
False
What happened on 22 January 2015?
5726cf69f1498d1400e8ebef
Page 3 returned to its usual format
359
False
What did The Sun's Head of PR say about the reported editorial change at The Sun?
5726cf69f1498d1400e8ebf0
the reputed end of Page 3 had been "speculation" only
496
False
In August 2013, The Irish Sun ended the practice of featuring topless models on Page 3. The main newspaper was reported to have followed in 2015 with the edition of 16 January supposedly the last to carry such photographs after a report in The Times made such an assertion. After substantial coverage in the media about an alleged change in editorial policy, Page 3 returned to its usual format on 22 January 2015. A few hours before the issue was published, the Head of PR at the newspaper said the reputed end of Page 3 had been "speculation" only.
Which Sun columnist made controversial remarks about migrants to Britain in April 2015?
5726d0525951b619008f7ecb
Katie Hopkins
38
False
What terms did Katie Hopkins use to describe migrants to Britain?
5726d0525951b619008f7ecc
"cockroaches" and "feral humans" and said they were "spreading like the norovirus"
79
False
Which organization sharply rebuked Hopkins' comments?
5726d0525951b619008f7ecd
the United Nations High Commission for Human Rights
193
False
Who was the High Commissioner of the United Nations High Commission for Human Rights?
5726d0525951b619008f7ece
Zeid Ra'ad Al Hussein
306
False
What did Hussein compare Hopkins' remarks to?
5726d0525951b619008f7ecf
that employed by Rwanda's Kangura newspaper and Radio Mille Collines during the run up to the 1994 genocide
380
False
On 17 April 2015, The Sun's columnist Katie Hopkins called migrants to Britain "cockroaches" and "feral humans" and said they were "spreading like the norovirus". Her remarks were condemned by the United Nations High Commission for Human Rights. In a statement released on 24 April 2015, High Commissioner Zeid Ra'ad Al Hussein stated that Hopkins' used "language very similar to that employed by Rwanda's Kangura newspaper and Radio Mille Collines during the run up to the 1994 genocide", and noted that both media organizations were subsequently convicted by an international tribunal of public incitement to commit genocide.
On Twitter what famous person condemned Hopkins' remarks?
5726d1c75951b619008f7f07
Russell Brand
63
False
Who wrote critically in The Independent about Hopkins?
5726d1c75951b619008f7f08
Simon Usborne
180
False
With whom did Usborne draw parallels to Hopkins as a result of Hopkins' comments?
5726d1c75951b619008f7f09
previous uses by the Nazis and just before the Rwandan Genocide by its perpetrators
267
False
Which writer in The Guardian was critical of Hopkins?
5726d1c75951b619008f7f0a
Zoe Williams
508
False
What did Williams say should be done about Hopkins?
5726d1c75951b619008f7f0b
I’m not saying gag her: I’m saying fight her
705
False
Hopkins' column also drew criticism on Twitter, including from Russell Brand, to whom Hopkins responded by accusing Brand's "champagne socialist humanity" of neglecting taxpayers. Simon Usborne, writing in The Independent, compared her use of the word "cockroach" to previous uses by the Nazis and just before the Rwandan Genocide by its perpetrators. He suspected that if any other contributor had written the piece it would not have been published and questioned her continued employment by the newspaper. Zoe Williams commented in The Guardian: "It is no joke when people start talking like this. We are not 'giving her what she wants' when we make manifest our disgust. It is not a free speech issue. I’m not saying gag her: I’m saying fight her".
What is an often used term for British withdrawal from the European Union?
5726d31af1498d1400e8ec64
Brexit
86
False
Who did The Sun say was in favor of British withdrawal from the European Union?
5726d31af1498d1400e8ec65
Queen Elizabeth II
54
False
Where was Queen Elizabeth II said to have made critical remarks about the European Union?
5726d31af1498d1400e8ec66
Windsor Castle
186
False
Who refuted the statement that the Queen was critical of the European Union?
5726d31af1498d1400e8ec67
Deputy Prime Minister Nick Clegg
226
False
With whom was a complaint lodged alleging breach of guidelines in accuracy after the incident involving Queen Elizabeth II?
5726d31af1498d1400e8ec68
Independent Press Standards Organisation
430
False
On 9 March 2016, The Sun's front page proclaimed that Queen Elizabeth II was backing "Brexit", a common term for a British withdrawal from the European Union. It claimed that in 2011 at Windsor Castle, while having lunch with Deputy Prime Minister Nick Clegg, the monarch criticised the union. Clegg denied that the Queen made such a statement, and a Buckingham Palace spokesperson confirmed that a complaint had been made to the Independent Press Standards Organisation over a breach of guidelines relating to accuracy.
Pesticide
What is the difference between a pesticide and a plant protection product?
57268054dd62a815002e8764
pesticides are also used for non-agricultural purposes
480
False
What is the purpose of a pesticide?
57268054dd62a815002e8765
Pesticides are substances meant for attracting, seducing, and then destroying any pest
0
False
What are pesticides most commonly used for?
57268054dd62a815002e8766
The most common use of pesticides is as plant protection products
117
False
What can pesticides protect plants from?
57268054dd62a815002e8767
protect plants from damaging influences such as weeds, fungi, or insects
242
False
What item commonly used in hospitals, schools and offices is a pesticide?
57268054dd62a815002e8768
sanitizer
827
False
attracting, seducing, and then destroying any pest
36
What are examples of the way a plant protects itself against pests?
5a70dbb38abb0b001a6761c5
True
They are a class of biocide
88
How are plants that protect themselves from pests classified?
5a70dbb38abb0b001a6761c6
True
weeds, fungi, or insects
290
What are three things that crop pests eat?
5a70dbb38abb0b001a6761c7
True
plant protection products
157
What is one thing that some fungi are also used in?
5a70dbb38abb0b001a6761c8
True
for non-agricultural purposes
505
How are weeds also used when harvested commercially?
5a70dbb38abb0b001a6761c9
True
Pesticides are substances meant for attracting, seducing, and then destroying any pest. They are a class of biocide. The most common use of pesticides is as plant protection products (also known as crop protection products), which in general protect plants from damaging influences such as weeds, fungi, or insects. This use of pesticides is so common that the term pesticide is often treated as synonymous with plant protection product, although it is in fact a broader term, as pesticides are also used for non-agricultural purposes. The term pesticide includes all of the following: herbicide, insecticide, insect growth regulator, nematicide, termiticide, molluscicide, piscicide, avicide, rodenticide, predacide, bactericide, insect repellent, animal repellent, antimicrobial, fungicide, disinfectant (antimicrobial), and sanitizer.
What are three pests pesticides target?
57268286dd62a815002e87b6
plant pathogens, weeds, mollusks
220
False
Are pesticides chemical or biological agents?
57268286dd62a815002e87b7
a pesticide is a chemical or biological agent
12
False
What are possible cons of pesticides?
57268286dd62a815002e87b8
potential toxicity to humans and other species
464
False
What are pesticides meant to prevent?
57268286dd62a815002e87b9
destroy property, cause nuisance, or spread disease, or are disease vectors
318
False
12
593
How many microbes exist that are dangerous to humans?
5a70dd718abb0b001a6761e3
True
incapacitates, kills
132
What do nematodes do when they infect a host?
5a70dd718abb0b001a6761e4
True
potential toxicity
464
What is the danger of people eating some mollusks?
5a70dd718abb0b001a6761e5
True
9
584
How many types of poisonous mollusks are there in the wild?
5a70dd718abb0b001a6761e6
True
disease
362
What does being immunized against a virus help prevent?
5a70dd718abb0b001a6761e7
True
In general, a pesticide is a chemical or biological agent (such as a virus, bacterium, antimicrobial, or disinfectant) that deters, incapacitates, kills, or otherwise discourages pests. Target pests can include insects, plant pathogens, weeds, mollusks, birds, mammals, fish, nematodes (roundworms), and microbes that destroy property, cause nuisance, or spread disease, or are disease vectors. Although pesticides have benefits, some also have drawbacks, such as potential toxicity to humans and other species. According to the Stockholm Convention on Persistent Organic Pollutants, 9 of the 12 most dangerous and persistent organic chemicals are organochlorine pesticides.
What is one way to group pesticides?
572684165951b619008f752f
chemical structure
139
False
Give three examples of target organisms of pesticides.
572684165951b619008f7530
herbicides, insecticides, fungicides
55
False
What are the two types of biopesticides?
572684165951b619008f7531
microbial pesticides and biochemical pesticides
340
False
Which type of pesticides have seen rapid growth in development?
572684165951b619008f7532
Plant-derived pesticides, or "botanicals
389
False
pyrethroids, rotenoids, nicotinoids, and a fourth group that includes strychnine and scilliroside
480
What are some examples of hybrid plants that have been developed?
5a70dead8abb0b001a6761ed
True
herbicides, insecticides, fungicides, rodenticides, and pediculicides
55
What type of pesticides can't be used on organic food?
5a70dead8abb0b001a6761ee
True
Plant-derived pesticides
389
What is the one type of pesticide that can be used on organic food?
5a70dead8abb0b001a6761ef
True
botanicals
419
What is another word used for organic chemical structure?
5a70dead8abb0b001a6761f0
True
quickly
453
How have insecticides been developing recently?
5a70dead8abb0b001a6761f1
True
Pesticides can be classified by target organism (e.g., herbicides, insecticides, fungicides, rodenticides, and pediculicides - see table), chemical structure (e.g., organic, inorganic, synthetic, or biological (biopesticide), although the distinction can sometimes blur), and physical state (e.g. gaseous (fumigant)). Biopesticides include microbial pesticides and biochemical pesticides. Plant-derived pesticides, or "botanicals", have been developing quickly. These include the pyrethroids, rotenoids, nicotinoids, and a fourth group that includes strychnine and scilliroside.:15
Organochlorine hydrocarbons effect what balance of the nerve fiber?
5726861f708984140094c8db
sodium/potassium
316
False
Why was the use of organochlorine hydrocarbons ended?
5726861f708984140094c8dc
because of their persistence and potential to bioaccumulate
466
False
What type of herbicide selectively kills broad leef weeds?
5726861f708984140094c8dd
Phenoxy compounds
1160
False
What essential plan funtion is interrupted by triazines?
5726861f708984140094c8de
photosynthesis
1446
False
Organophospates and carbamates cause which symptoms?
5726861f708984140094c8df
weakness or paralysis
770
False
organochlorines
583
What did glyphosate take the place of?
5a70e3598abb0b001a6761f7
True
Both operate through inhibiting the enzyme acetylcholinesterase, allowing acetylcholine to transfer nerve impulses indefinitely
600
What do glyphosate and triazine do when they are both used?
5a70e3598abb0b001a6761f8
True
weakness or paralysis
770
What are the symptoms if you are exposed to both glyphosate and triazine?
5a70e3598abb0b001a6761f9
True
broad-leaf weeds
1203
What does glyphosate tend to selectively kill besides grasses?
5a70e3598abb0b001a6761fa
True
crushing the plant's nutrient transport system
1369
What does glyphosate do to a plant when it causes cell growth without cell division?
5a70e3598abb0b001a6761fb
True
Many pesticides can be grouped into chemical families. Prominent insecticide families include organochlorines, organophosphates, and carbamates. Organochlorine hydrocarbons (e.g., DDT) could be separated into dichlorodiphenylethanes, cyclodiene compounds, and other related compounds. They operate by disrupting the sodium/potassium balance of the nerve fiber, forcing the nerve to transmit continuously. Their toxicities vary greatly, but they have been phased out because of their persistence and potential to bioaccumulate.:239–240 Organophosphate and carbamates largely replaced organochlorines. Both operate through inhibiting the enzyme acetylcholinesterase, allowing acetylcholine to transfer nerve impulses indefinitely and causing a variety of symptoms such as weakness or paralysis. Organophosphates are quite toxic to vertebrates, and have in some cases been replaced by less toxic carbamates.:136–137 Thiocarbamate and dithiocarbamates are subclasses of carbamates. Prominent families of herbicides include phenoxy and benzoic acid herbicides (e.g. 2,4-D), triazines (e.g., atrazine), ureas (e.g., diuron), and Chloroacetanilides (e.g., alachlor). Phenoxy compounds tend to selectively kill broad-leaf weeds rather than grasses. The phenoxy and benzoic acid herbicides function similar to plant growth hormones, and grow cells without normal cell division, crushing the plant's nutrient transport system.:300 Triazines interfere with photosynthesis.:335 Many commonly used pesticides are not included in these families, including glyphosate.
What is one way you could group pesticides?
57268a27dd62a815002e88a4
application method
79
False
What is the main way that peticides perform their function?
57268a27dd62a815002e88a5
by poisoning pests
120
False
In which direction do systemic pesticide generally travel through a plant?
57268a27dd62a815002e88a6
movement is usually upward
261
False
Which parts of a plant do systemic pesticides generally attack?
57268a27dd62a815002e88a7
pollen and nectar in the flowers
395
False
biological mechanism function or application method
46
What traits are used to classify types of flower nectar?
5a70e5318abb0b001a676201
True
usually upward (through the xylem) and outward
273
How does nectar move up through a plant?
5a70e5318abb0b001a676202
True
Increased efficiency
321
Why does a plant move nectar through the xylem?
5a70e5318abb0b001a676203
True
poisoning
123
How do some flowers protect themselves from harm?
5a70e5318abb0b001a676204
True
flowers
420
What does a plant use to attract pollinators?
5a70e5318abb0b001a676205
True
Pesticides can be classified based upon their biological mechanism function or application method. Most pesticides work by poisoning pests. A systemic pesticide moves inside a plant following absorption by the plant. With insecticides and most fungicides, this movement is usually upward (through the xylem) and outward. Increased efficiency may be a result. Systemic insecticides, which poison pollen and nectar in the flowers[citation needed], may kill bees and other needed pollinators[citation needed].
Pesticides can be used to stop the spread of what dieseases?
57268e22dd62a815002e895e
West Nile virus, yellow fever, and malaria
173
False
What sort of pesticides would you find in ponds and lakes?
57268e22dd62a815002e895f
Herbicides
620
False
Which agency regulates safety of pesticides in the US?
57268e22dd62a815002e8960
Environmental Protection Agency (EPA)
1238
False
Which agency regulates safety of pesticides in Canada?
57268e22dd62a815002e8961
Pest Management Regulatory Agency
1284
False
swimming and fishing
761
What activities do mosquitoes make it hard to take part in when they swarm?
5a70f0300efcfe001a8afcd7
True
cause the water to look or smell unpleasant
786
What can mosquitoes do to water quality?
5a70f0300efcfe001a8afcd8
True
West Nile virus, yellow fever, and malaria
173
What diseases in the environment are monitored by the EPA?
5a70f0300efcfe001a8afcd9
True
weeds, trees and brush
525
In what areas do fleas like to live?
5a70f0300efcfe001a8afcda
True
ants
251
What pest is attracted by moldy food or diseased produce left outside?
5a70f0300efcfe001a8afcdb
True
Pesticides are used to control organisms that are considered to be harmful. For example, they are used to kill mosquitoes that can transmit potentially deadly diseases like West Nile virus, yellow fever, and malaria. They can also kill bees, wasps or ants that can cause allergic reactions. Insecticides can protect animals from illnesses that can be caused by parasites such as fleas. Pesticides can prevent sickness in humans that could be caused by moldy food or diseased produce. Herbicides can be used to clear roadside weeds, trees and brush. They can also kill invasive weeds that may cause environmental damage. Herbicides are commonly applied in ponds and lakes to control algae and plants such as water grasses that can interfere with activities like swimming and fishing and cause the water to look or smell unpleasant. Uncontrolled pests such as termites and mold can damage structures such as houses. Pesticides are used in grocery stores and food storage facilities to manage rodents and insects that infest food such as grain. Each use of a pesticide carries some associated risk. Proper pesticide use decreases these associated risks to a level deemed acceptable by pesticide regulatory agencies such as the United States Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) and the Pest Management Regulatory Agency (PMRA) of Canada.
What kind of pesticide is DDT?
572690b9f1498d1400e8e3f8
an organochlorine
40
False
Why have DDTs been banned in some areas?
572690b9f1498d1400e8e3f9
persistence in the environment and human toxicity
326
False
Is DDT 100% guaranteed to work?
572690b9f1498d1400e8e3fa
DDT use is not always effective
377
False
How may species have been found to be resistant to DDT?
572690b9f1498d1400e8e3fb
nineteen
486
False
1972
481
When were 19 new species of mosquito discovered in Africa?
5a70f1fd0efcfe001a8afce1
True
since the 1950s
94
How long has DDT been banned worldwide?
5a70f1fd0efcfe001a8afce2
True
have given stronger support to this approach
169
How supportive is Africa about DDT being banned?
5a70f1fd0efcfe001a8afce3
True
1955
468
In what year was DDT first invented?
5a70f1fd0efcfe001a8afce4
True
1972
481
When were mosquitoes first discovered to carry Malaria?
5a70f1fd0efcfe001a8afce5
True
DDT, sprayed on the walls of houses, is an organochlorine that has been used to fight malaria since the 1950s. Recent policy statements by the World Health Organization have given stronger support to this approach. However, DDT and other organochlorine pesticides have been banned in most countries worldwide because of their persistence in the environment and human toxicity. DDT use is not always effective, as resistance to DDT was identified in Africa as early as 1955, and by 1972 nineteen species of mosquito worldwide were resistant to DDT.
On estimate how many megatonnes of pesticides were used between 2006 and 2007?
572696cf708984140094cb0f
approximately 2.4
33
False
What amount of conventional pesticide use does the agricultural sector account for?
572696cf708984140094cb10
80%
460
False
Pesticides contain at least how many ingredients?
572696cf708984140094cb11
more than 1,055
754
False
How maney pesticides are offered for sale in the US?
572696cf708984140094cb12
over 20,000
827
False
over 20,000
827
How many pesticide products are sold worldwide?
5a7102970efcfe001a8afcf5
True
more than 1,055
754
How many active ingredients were in herbicides used in agriculture in 2006?
5a7102970efcfe001a8afcf6
True
22%
327
What percentage of pesticides in the US are sold at home and garden centers?
5a7102970efcfe001a8afcf7
True
857 million
361
How many pounds of pesticide are used by the US government?
5a7102970efcfe001a8afcf8
True
80%
460
How much of conventional pesticide use is by the US government?
5a7102970efcfe001a8afcf9
True
In 2006 and 2007, the world used approximately 2.4 megatonnes (5.3×109 lb) of pesticides, with herbicides constituting the biggest part of the world pesticide use at 40%, followed by insecticides (17%) and fungicides (10%). In 2006 and 2007 the U.S. used approximately 0.5 megatonnes (1.1×109 lb) of pesticides, accounting for 22% of the world total, including 857 million pounds (389 kt) of conventional pesticides, which are used in the agricultural sector (80% of conventional pesticide use) as well as the industrial, commercial, governmental and home & garden sectors.Pesticides are also found in majority of U.S. households with 78 million out of the 105.5 million households indicating that they use some form of pesticide. As of 2007, there were more than 1,055 active ingredients registered as pesticides, which yield over 20,000 pesticide products that are marketed in the United States.
What do monetary savings in crops from the use of pesticide amount to?
572697d6708984140094cb2f
$40 billion
209
False
What amount is spent annualoy on pesticides?
572697d6708984140094cb30
$10 billion
173
False
How are consumers able to benefit from saved crops?
572697d6708984140094cb31
vast quantities of produce available year-round
504
False
In which area do pesticides creat jobs?
572697d6708984140094cb32
agrichemical sector
746
False
How is the health of the general publis affected by pesticides?
572697d6708984140094cb33
control of insect-borne diseases and illnesses
621
False
$40 billion
209
How much profit is generated by the agrichemical sector in the US each year?
5a71056c0efcfe001a8afcff
True
$10 billion
173
How much money is spent each year to fight malaria?
5a71056c0efcfe001a8afd00
True
increase in crop yield and from being able to grow a variety of crops throughout the year
335
In what ways do farmers benefit from the $10 billion spent on preventing malaria each year?
5a71056c0efcfe001a8afd01
True
produce available year-round
523
Farmers make $10 billion per year growing what type of produce?
5a71056c0efcfe001a8afd02
True
large job market
718
What is the job market like if you want to be a farmer?
5a71056c0efcfe001a8afd03
True
Every dollar ($1) that is spent on pesticides for crops yields four dollars ($4) in crops saved. This means based that, on the amount of money spent per year on pesticides, $10 billion, there is an additional $40 billion savings in crop that would be lost due to damage by insects and weeds. In general, farmers benefit from having an increase in crop yield and from being able to grow a variety of crops throughout the year. Consumers of agricultural products also benefit from being able to afford the vast quantities of produce available year-round. The general public also benefits from the use of pesticides for the control of insect-borne diseases and illnesses, such as malaria. The use of pesticides creates a large job market within the agrichemical sector.
Can pesticides have a serious effect on people?
572699bf708984140094cb51
cause acute and delayed health effects
15
False
What is one of the most serious effects of exposure to pesticides?
572699bf708984140094cb52
cancer
327
False
What is thought to possibly cause neurobehavioral alterations?
572699bf708984140094cb53
organophosphate insecticide exposures
602
False
the nervous system
240
What system is mostly affected by non-Hodgkin lymphoma?
5a710d100efcfe001a8afd09
True
birth defects, fetal death
779
What two things can happen if you are pregnant and being treated for cancer?
5a710d100efcfe001a8afd0a
True
reproductive problems
287
What problems do hormones produced by cancer cells cause?
5a710d100efcfe001a8afd0b
True
2007
337
When was Non-Hodgkin lymphoma first diagnosed in a patient?
5a710d100efcfe001a8afd0c
True
irritation of the skin and eyes
167
What is one thing that can be caused by the use of cosmetics?
5a710d100efcfe001a8afd0d
True
Pesticides may cause acute and delayed health effects in people who are exposed. Pesticide exposure can cause a variety of adverse health effects, ranging from simple irritation of the skin and eyes to more severe effects such as affecting the nervous system, mimicking hormones causing reproductive problems, and also causing cancer. A 2007 systematic review found that "most studies on non-Hodgkin lymphoma and leukemia showed positive associations with pesticide exposure" and thus concluded that cosmetic use of pesticides should be decreased. There is substantial evidence of associations between organophosphate insecticide exposures and neurobehavioral alterations.  Limited evidence also exists for other negative outcomes from pesticide exposure including neurological, birth defects, fetal death,
How many workers in agriculture die a year from severly poisining pesticides in developing countries?
57269f685951b619008f77ff
18,000
196
False
What careers put people in danger of being exposed to pesticide poisining?
57269f685951b619008f7800
groomers, groundskeepers, and fumigators
644
False
In developing countries, how many workers are exposed to mild pesticide poisining?
57269f685951b619008f7801
as 25 million
411
False
Why are 99% of pesticide related deaths in underdeveloped countries?
57269f685951b619008f7802
inadequate regulation
225
False
3 million
88
How many workers are there who are pet groomers, groudskeepers and fumigators world wide?
5a710ea40efcfe001a8afd13
True
about 18,000
190
How many people call a fumigator each year due to pests?
5a710ea40efcfe001a8afd14
True
99%
271
What percentage of pet groomers always follow safety precautions when using clippers?
5a710ea40efcfe001a8afd15
True
pet groomers, groundskeepers, and fumigators
640
What three careers are most commonly held in the developing world?
5a710ea40efcfe001a8afd16
True
safety precautions
251
What is one reason that pet groomers can perform their job without injury?
5a710ea40efcfe001a8afd17
True
The World Health Organization and the UN Environment Programme estimate that each year, 3 million workers in agriculture in the developing world experience severe poisoning from pesticides, about 18,000 of whom die. Owing to inadequate regulation and safety precautions, 99% of pesticide related deaths occur in developing countries that account for only 25% of pesticide usage. According to one study, as many as 25 million workers in developing countries may suffer mild pesticide poisoning yearly. There are several careers aside from agriculture that may also put individuals at risk of health effects from pesticide exposure including pet groomers, groundskeepers, and fumigators.
What pecentage of sprayed pesticides affect the wrong species?
5726a066708984140094cc2f
Over 98%
57
False
What is affected when pesticides don't reach their target?
5726a066708984140094cc30
non-target species, air, water and soil
175
False
What is it called when pesticides are caught in the wind and carried to unintended areas?
5726a066708984140094cc31
Pesticide drift
216
False
Pesticides contribute to what sort of pollution?
5726a066708984140094cc32
water pollution
393
False
What is the effect of pesticide drift?
5726a066708984140094cc33
potentially contaminating
325
False
water pollution
393
What are contaminated bugs living in water one of the causes of?
5a7112630efcfe001a8afd1d
True
98%
62
What percentage of species are able to live in polluted water?
5a7112630efcfe001a8afd1e
True
soil contamination
482
What do animals digging in the soil for food contribute to?
5a7112630efcfe001a8afd1f
True
environmental
33
What concerns are raised when thinking about animals digging in the soil for food?
5a7112630efcfe001a8afd20
True
95%
94
What percentage of people want to eat organic food?
5a7112630efcfe001a8afd21
True
Pesticide use raises a number of environmental concerns. Over 98% of sprayed insecticides and 95% of herbicides reach a destination other than their target species, including non-target species, air, water and soil. Pesticide drift occurs when pesticides suspended in the air as particles are carried by wind to other areas, potentially contaminating them. Pesticides are one of the causes of water pollution, and some pesticides are persistent organic pollutants and contribute to soil contamination.
Why are hydrocarbon pesticides not excreted?
5726a1bbdd62a815002e8b78
dissolve in fats
41
False
How are levels of pesticides higher going up the food chain?
5726a1bbdd62a815002e8b79
Biological magnification
131
False
The movement of pesticides from wawrme to cooler climates is called what?
5726a1bbdd62a815002e8b7a
Global distillation
451
False
How could pesticides travel over hundreds of miles?
5726a1bbdd62a815002e8b7b
the wind
752
False
almost indefinitely
110
How long does an animal store fat when it has a healthy diet?
5a7114f40efcfe001a8afd27
True
colder regions
536
What regions have larger concentrations of marine animals?
5a7114f40efcfe001a8afd28
True
carnivorous fishes
339
What group is able to store fat more quickly?
5a7114f40efcfe001a8afd29
True
mountain tops
593
In what area do fish-eating birds usually live?
5a7114f40efcfe001a8afd2a
True
considerable distances
700
How far do fish-eating birds need to fly for a meal?
5a7114f40efcfe001a8afd2b
True
Since chlorinated hydrocarbon pesticides dissolve in fats and are not excreted, organisms tend to retain them almost indefinitely. Biological magnification is the process whereby these chlorinated hydrocarbons (pesticides) are more concentrated at each level of the food chain. Among marine animals, pesticide concentrations are higher in carnivorous fishes, and even more so in the fish-eating birds and mammals at the top of the ecological pyramid. Global distillation is the process whereby pesticides are transported from warmer to colder regions of the Earth, in particular the Poles and mountain tops. Pesticides that evaporate into the atmosphere at relatively high temperature can be carried considerable distances (thousands of kilometers) by the wind to an area of lower temperature, where they condense and are carried back to the ground in rain or snow.
What feature is wanted to assist with reducing negative impacts of pesticides?
5726a21a708984140094cc6d
that pesticides be degradable
53
False
How else can negative impacts of pesticides be reduced?
5726a373708984140094cca7
quickly deactivated in the environment
95
False
What is one way by which pesticides lose their efficacy?
5726a373708984140094cca8
presence of halogens
302
False
What may slow pesticide movement?
5726a373708984140094cca9
Adsorption to soil
407
False
be degradable
69
What characteristic is desirable in soil for planting?
5a7116a20efcfe001a8afd31
True
environmental processes or conditions
246
What makes microbes degrade?
5a7116a20efcfe001a8afd32
True
the presence of halogens
298
What slows down degradation of microbes?
5a7116a20efcfe001a8afd33
True
an aerobic environment
383
What kind of environment is needed to degrade microbes?
5a7116a20efcfe001a8afd34
True
Adsorption to soil
407
What slows the movement of microbes?
5a7116a20efcfe001a8afd35
True
In order to reduce negative impacts, it is desirable that pesticides be degradable or at least quickly deactivated in the environment. Such loss of activity or toxicity of pesticides is due to both innate chemical properties of the compounds and environmental processes or conditions. For example, the presence of halogens within a chemical structure often slows down degradation in an aerobic environment. Adsorption to soil may retard pesticide movement, but also may reduce bioavailability to microbial degraders.
What is one thing that can be used in place of pesticides?
5726a4de708984140094ccc7
methods of cultivation
53
False
What natural product can be used to control pests?
5726a4de708984140094ccc8
composted yard waste
241
False
Why are alternative methods of pest control gaining popularity?
5726a4de708984140094ccc9
safer than traditional chemical pesticides
374
False
What agency has offered acceptance of safer pesticides?
5726a4de708984140094ccca
EPA
431
False
What is one non chemical way of dealing with pests?
5726a4de708984140094cccb
interfering with insect breeding
192
False
composted yard waste
241
What is recommended by the EPA for cultivating a garden to enrich the soil?
5a7118e20efcfe001a8afd3b
True
in increasing numbers
487
How well do insects breed in your yard when you use a yard waste bin?
5a7118e20efcfe001a8afd3c
True
safer
374
How is genetic engineering compared to conventional crop growing methods?
5a7118e20efcfe001a8afd3d
True
interfering with insect breeding
192
What is one thing that the use of pesticides does when used on insects?
5a7118e20efcfe001a8afd3e
True
pheromones
118
What chemical is secreted by insects when they are breeding?
5a7118e20efcfe001a8afd3f
True
Alternatives to pesticides are available and include methods of cultivation, use of biological pest controls (such as pheromones and microbial pesticides), genetic engineering, and methods of interfering with insect breeding. Application of composted yard waste has also been used as a way of controlling pests. These methods are becoming increasingly popular and often are safer than traditional chemical pesticides. In addition, EPA is registering reduced-risk conventional pesticides in increasing numbers.
What does IPM stand for?
5726a7695951b619008f7935
integrated pest management
64
False
How can the location and amount of insects be changed?
5726a7695951b619008f7936
behavior-modifying stimuli
130
False
What is one thing that can be used to pull pests?
5726a7695951b619008f7937
food additives
387
False
What is the name of the process by which pests are attracted and repelled using IPM.
5726a7695951b619008f7938
Push-Pull
593
False
1987
40
When was the term semiochemcial stimuli established?
5a711c850efcfe001a8afd45
True
behavior-modifying stimuli
130
What is one thing that makes people want to buy products they don't need?
5a711c850efcfe001a8afd46
True
genetically altered plants
419
What is easier to grow than normal plants?
5a711c850efcfe001a8afd47
True
food additives
387
What was created in 1987 to add to food so they will last longer on the shelf?
5a711c850efcfe001a8afd48
True
visual stimuli
403
What do marketers use in commercials to get people to buy their products?
5a711c850efcfe001a8afd49
True
The term "push-pull" was established in 1987 as an approach for integrated pest management (IPM). This strategy uses a mixture of behavior-modifying stimuli to manipulate the distribution and abundance of insects. "Push" means the insects are repelled or deterred away from whatever resource that is being protected. "Pull" means that certain stimuli (semiochemical stimuli, pheromones, food additives, visual stimuli, genetically altered plants, etc.) are used to attract pests to trap crops where they will be killed. There are numerous different components involved in order to implement a Push-Pull Strategy in IPM.
How much was Sweden able to lower thier pesticide usage?
5726a8e6708984140094cd25
halved its use
126
False
What other country has reduced its pesticide usage?
5726a8e6708984140094cd26
Indonesia
214
False
What natural substance has been found to effectively increase crop yields
5726a8e6708984140094cd27
carbon to nitrogen
444
False
What amount of gain in crops can be contributed to application of composted yard waste?
5726a9a2708984140094cd3f
10% to 212%
630
False
hardly any reduction in crops
160
What happened after Indonesia cut its pesticide use in half?
5a711df70efcfe001a8afd4f
True
experienced a 15% crop increase
286
What happened when they reduced pesticide use by 65% in Sweden?
5a711df70efcfe001a8afd50
True
the third season of the study
706
How long did it take to see a higher crop yield in Sweden when studied?
5a711df70efcfe001a8afd51
True
from 10% to 212%
625
What was the range of yield increases in Sweden during the study?
5a711df70efcfe001a8afd52
True
Maize fields
350
What kind of crops were studied in Sweden?
5a711df70efcfe001a8afd53
True
Some evidence shows that alternatives to pesticides can be equally effective as the use of chemicals. For example, Sweden has halved its use of pesticides with hardly any reduction in crops.[unreliable source?] In Indonesia, farmers have reduced pesticide use on rice fields by 65% and experienced a 15% crop increase.[unreliable source?] A study of Maize fields in northern Florida found that the application of composted yard waste with high carbon to nitrogen ratio to agricultural fields was highly effective at reducing the population of plant-parasitic nematodes and increasing crop yield, with yield increases ranging from 10% to 212%; the observed effects were long-term, often not appearing until the third season of the study.
What is one type of pesticide?
5726adcd5951b619008f79f9
biodegradable
121
False
How long may it take for persistent pesticides to be broken down?
5726adcd5951b619008f79fa
months or years
275
False
What quality caused DDT to build up in various organisms?
5726adcd5951b619008f79fb
persistence
331
False
What is one way to classify pesticides?
5726adcd5951b619008f79fc
type of pest they control
50
False
persistent
237
What is one characteristic that defines the nature of microbes?
5a711f1d0efcfe001a8afd59
True
months or years
275
How long do microbes live in the soil?
5a711f1d0efcfe001a8afd5a
True
the type of pest they control
46
What is one way to classify birds?
5a711f1d0efcfe001a8afd5b
True
killing of birds of prey
420
What happens when there are too many microbes in the soil?
5a711f1d0efcfe001a8afd5c
True
a common source
583
Where do microbes usually come from when in the environment?
5a711f1d0efcfe001a8afd5d
True
Pesticides are often referred to according to the type of pest they control. Pesticides can also be considered as either biodegradable pesticides, which will be broken down by microbes and other living beings into harmless compounds, or persistent pesticides, which may take months or years before they are broken down: it was the persistence of DDT, for example, which led to its accumulation in the food chain and its killing of birds of prey at the top of the food chain. Another way to think about pesticides is to consider those that are chemical pesticides or are derived from a common source or production method.
What are sulfonyureas commonly used for?
5726b072f1498d1400e8e76c
weed control
57
False
Nicosulfuron, triflusulfuron methyl and chlorsulfuron can be classified as what type of pesticides?
5726b072f1498d1400e8e76d
broad-spectrum herbicides
484
False
The restriction of what enzyme allows broad-spectrum herbicides to kill plants?
5726b072f1498d1400e8e76e
acetolactate synthase
552
False
The amount of material used as a crop protection measure decreased from 1kg/ha in what year to its current 1%?
5726b072f1498d1400e8e76f
1960s
582
False
weed control
57
What has acetolactate synthase been used for commercially?
5a7121c60efcfe001a8afd63
True
broad-spectrum herbicides
484
What is acetolactate synthase classified as when used on plants?
5a7121c60efcfe001a8afd64
True
In the 1960s
575
In what year was acetolactate synthase created?
5a7121c60efcfe001a8afd65
True
more than 1 kg/ha (0.89 lb/acre)
589
How much acetolactate synthase was applied in the 1960's?
5a7121c60efcfe001a8afd66
True
crop protection
622
What was acetolactate synthase used for in the 1960's?
5a7121c60efcfe001a8afd67
True
The following sulfonylureas have been commercialized for weed control: amidosulfuron, azimsulfuron, bensulfuron-methyl, chlorimuron-ethyl, ethoxysulfuron, flazasulfuron, flupyrsulfuron-methyl-sodium, halosulfuron-methyl, imazosulfuron, nicosulfuron, oxasulfuron, primisulfuron-methyl, pyrazosulfuron-ethyl, rimsulfuron, sulfometuron-methyl Sulfosulfuron, terbacil, bispyribac-sodium, cyclosulfamuron, and pyrithiobac-sodium. Nicosulfuron, triflusulfuron methyl, and chlorsulfuron are broad-spectrum herbicides that kill plants by inhibiting the enzyme acetolactate synthase. In the 1960s, more than 1 kg/ha (0.89 lb/acre) crop protection chemical was typically applied, while sulfonylureates allow as little as 1% as much material to achieve the same effect.
Is the trade of pesticides and pesticide treated goods limited to the United States?
5726b3c8dd62a815002e8d5e
traded across international borders
114
False
What commitee deals with differences in rules governing the use of pesticides among different countries?
5726b3c8dd62a815002e8d5f
United Nations Food and Agriculture Organization
245
False
When was the international code which governs the distribution and use of pesticides established?
5726b3c8dd62a815002e8d60
1985
380
False
How recently were voluntary standards of pesticide regulation updated?
5726b3c8dd62a815002e8d61
2002
497
False
1985
380
When was the UN Food and Agriculture Organization founded?
5a7124570efcfe001a8afd6d
True
to create voluntary standards of pesticide regulation for different countries
385
Why was the UN food and Agriculture Organization created in 1985?
5a7124570efcfe001a8afd6e
True
1998
488
When were pesticides first able to be traded across international borders?
5a7124570efcfe001a8afd6f
True
from country to country
36
In what areas do agriculture methods differ?
5a7124570efcfe001a8afd70
True
across international borders
121
Where are agriculture methods traded?
5a7124570efcfe001a8afd71
True
Though pesticide regulations differ from country to country, pesticides, and products on which they were used are traded across international borders. To deal with inconsistencies in regulations among countries, delegates to a conference of the United Nations Food and Agriculture Organization adopted an International Code of Conduct on the Distribution and Use of Pesticides in 1985 to create voluntary standards of pesticide regulation for different countries. The Code was updated in 1998 and 2002. The FAO claims that the code has raised awareness about pesticide hazards and decreased the number of countries without restrictions on pesticide use.
What country has attempted to better the controls of pesticide exchanges?
5726b60bdd62a815002e8da2
London
98
False
What is one agency who is trying to help make the trade of pesticides safer?
5726b60bdd62a815002e8da3
United Nations Codex Alimentarius Commission
192
False
What is one important thing that should be present when countries are trading with pesticides?
5726b60bdd62a815002e8da4
prior informed consent
314
False
Are these agencies a requirement in the countries where they exist?
5726b60bdd62a815002e8da5
initiatives operate on a voluntary basis
521
False
improve regulation
23
What does London want to do about volunteering?
5a7126470efcfe001a8afd77
True
procedures
285
What may be implemented to make sure volunteers are aware of informed consent laws?
5a7126470efcfe001a8afd78
True
uniform standards
426
What does London want to create for people who want to be volunteers to follow?
5a7126470efcfe001a8afd79
True
on a voluntary basis
541
How are these agencies involved with the regulation of volunteers?
5a7126470efcfe001a8afd7a
True
among participating countries
485
Where does the UN Code Alimentarius want to do business regulating volunteers?
5a7126470efcfe001a8afd7b
True
Three other efforts to improve regulation of international pesticide trade are the United Nations London Guidelines for the Exchange of Information on Chemicals in International Trade and the United Nations Codex Alimentarius Commission.[citation needed] The former seeks to implement procedures for ensuring that prior informed consent exists between countries buying and selling pesticides, while the latter seeks to create uniform standards for maximum levels of pesticide residues among participating countries. Both initiatives operate on a voluntary basis.
What is one measure taken to keep society safe from improper pesticide use?
5726b952708984140094cf3b
pesticide applicator regulation
32
False
What is a choice that users of pesticides can make that will lower risks?
5726b952708984140094cf3c
choosing less toxic pesticides
190
False
What is one country that has sucessfully used IPM?
5726b952708984140094cf3d
Australia
488
False
Biological and botanical derivatives have what positive effects?
5726b952708984140094cf3e
reduce health and environmental risks
755
False
Who has the ability to make the choice of using less harmful pesticides?
5726b952708984140094cf3f
applicators
807
False
China
459
What is one country that still uses chemical pesticides heavily?
5a7128460efcfe001a8afd81
True
Indonesia, China, Bangladesh, the U.S., Australia, and Mexico
448
What countries risk the environment by using pesticides often?
5a7128460efcfe001a8afd82
True
health and environmental risks
762
What has pesticide safety education reduced in Australia?
5a7128460efcfe001a8afd83
True
biological and botanical
681
What are two classifications of pests in an ecosystem?
5a7128460efcfe001a8afd84
True
Mexico
503
In what country are ecosystems most at risk from pesticide misuse?
5a7128460efcfe001a8afd85
True
Pesticides safety education and pesticide applicator regulation are designed to protect the public from pesticide misuse, but do not eliminate all misuse. Reducing the use of pesticides and choosing less toxic pesticides may reduce risks placed on society and the environment from pesticide use. Integrated pest management, the use of multiple approaches to control pests, is becoming widespread and has been used with success in countries such as Indonesia, China, Bangladesh, the U.S., Australia, and Mexico. IPM attempts to recognize the more widespread impacts of an action on an ecosystem, so that natural balances are not upset. New pesticides are being developed, including biological and botanical derivatives and alternatives that are thought to reduce health and environmental risks. In addition, applicators are being encouraged to consider alternative controls and adopt methods that reduce the use of chemical pesticides.
What is a measure of pesticides determined in EPA studies?
5726bb5b708984140094cf83
material is safe to use and the effectiveness
286
False
Who is protected by EPA regulations?
5726bb5b708984140094cf84
humans or the environment
452
False
Pesticides are inspected often to make sure they meet up to date safety regulations from what period of time.
5726bb5b708984140094cf85
before November 1984
499
False
How often are pesticides produced more recently evaluated for safety?
5726bb5b708984140094cf86
every 15 years
651
False
How could someone learn more about how to safely use and handle an unknow pesticide?
5726bb5b708984140094cf87
label
743
False
1984
515
In what year was the EPA established?
5a712bf10efcfe001a8afd8b
True
15
657
How many years did it take to pass the FIFRA act?
5a712bf10efcfe001a8afd8c
True
a Toxicity Class
910
What are foods assigned to based on the FQPA act passed in 1984?
5a712bf10efcfe001a8afd8d
True
continue to be reassessed
520
What happens to foods in a Toxicity Class after 1984?
5a712bf10efcfe001a8afd8e
True
to meet the current scientific and regulatory standards
555
Why are foods evaluated after 1984 reassessed?
5a712bf10efcfe001a8afd8f
True
In the United States, the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is responsible for regulating pesticides under the Federal Insecticide, Fungicide, and Rodenticide Act (FIFRA) and the Food Quality Protection Act (FQPA). Studies must be conducted to establish the conditions in which the material is safe to use and the effectiveness against the intended pest(s). The EPA regulates pesticides to ensure that these products do not pose adverse effects to humans or the environment. Pesticides produced before November 1984 continue to be reassessed in order to meet the current scientific and regulatory standards. All registered pesticides are reviewed every 15 years to ensure they meet the proper standards. During the registration process, a label is created. The label contains directions for proper use of the material in addition to safety restrictions. Based on acute toxicity, pesticides are assigned to a Toxicity Class.
What are pesticides that are thought to be extremely dangerous called?
5726bd825951b619008f7ca9
restricted use pesticides
95
False
What would qualify someone to use restricted use pesticides?
5726bd825951b619008f7caa
an exam
166
False
The EPA or other groups who govern pesticide use may inspect what?
5726bd825951b619008f7cab
Records of sales and use
247
False
Agencies who regulate the environment exists in what regional capacities?
5726bd825951b619008f7cac
state or territorial
453
False
restricted
95
How are some records of sales designated?
5a712f290efcfe001a8afd95
True
too hazardous
31
What keeps some applicators from being for sale to the public?
5a712f290efcfe001a8afd96
True
an exam
166
What do government agency employees have to pass to be hired?
5a712f290efcfe001a8afd97
True
be audited
310
What is something the public doesn't want the government to do to their finances?
5a712f290efcfe001a8afd98
True
Records of sales
247
What needs to be kept about the sale of applicators?
5a712f290efcfe001a8afd99
True
Some pesticides are considered too hazardous for sale to the general public and are designated restricted use pesticides. Only certified applicators, who have passed an exam, may purchase or supervise the application of restricted use pesticides. Records of sales and use are required to be maintained and may be audited by government agencies charged with the enforcement of pesticide regulations. These records must be made available to employees and state or territorial environmental regulatory agencies.
What is the earliest records of humans using pesticides?
5726c1d1dd62a815002e8f9c
before 2000 BC
6
False
What was used as a insecticide in the 17th century?
5726c1d1dd62a815002e8f9d
nicotine sulfate
438
False
What decade did herbicides become common?
5726c1d1dd62a815002e8f9e
1960s
1052
False
Who can be credited with finding out DDT is useful as an insecticide?
5726c1d1dd62a815002e8f9f
Paul Müller
762
False
What is the source used to exact nicotine sulfate?
5726c1d1dd62a815002e8fa0
tobacco leaves
474
False
in ancient Mesopotamia
177
Where was The Rig Veda written?
5a7130740efcfe001a8afd9f
True
arsenic, mercury, and lead
347
Since before 2000 BC what three toxic chemicals were used to kill pests?
5a7130740efcfe001a8afda0
True
nicotine sulfate
438
What was extracted from tobacco in the 15th century as an insecticide?
5a7130740efcfe001a8afda1
True
pyrethrum
586
What was one natural pesticide used in the 17th century?
5a7130740efcfe001a8afda2
True
chrysanthemums
619
Where was pyrethrum extracted from in the 17th century?
5a7130740efcfe001a8afda3
True
Since before 2000 BC, humans have utilized pesticides to protect their crops. The first known pesticide was elemental sulfur dusting used in ancient Sumer about 4,500 years ago in ancient Mesopotamia. The Rig Veda, which is about 4,000 years old, mentions the use of poisonous plants for pest control. By the 15th century, toxic chemicals such as arsenic, mercury, and lead were being applied to crops to kill pests. In the 17th century, nicotine sulfate was extracted from tobacco leaves for use as an insecticide. The 19th century saw the introduction of two more natural pesticides, pyrethrum, which is derived from chrysanthemums, and rotenone, which is derived from the roots of tropical vegetables. Until the 1950s, arsenic-based pesticides were dominant. Paul Müller discovered that DDT was a very effective insecticide. Organochlorines such as DDT were dominant, but they were replaced in the U.S. by organophosphates and carbamates by 1975. Since then, pyrethrin compounds have become the dominant insecticide. Herbicides became common in the 1960s, led by "triazine and other nitrogen-based compounds, carboxylic acids such as 2,4-dichlorophenoxyacetic acid, and glyphosate".
When were laws first created to regulate pesticides?
5726c384dd62a815002e8fc4
1910
91
False
What might someone knowledgable about the history of pesticides call ther period of the 1940s and 1950s?
5726c384dd62a815002e8fc5
pesticide era
312
False
When did America establish the Environmental Protection Agency?
5726c384dd62a815002e8fc6
1970
397
False
Countries which are established use what amount of pesticides?
5726c384dd62a815002e8fc7
Seventy-five percent
598
False
Trends about use of pesticides have been published from which country?
5726c384dd62a815002e8fc8
USA
741
False
pesticides
65
What were laws first created to regulate in 1940?
5a71317a0efcfe001a8afda9
True
synthetic pesticides
185
What did manufacturers produce in large quantities in 1910?
5a71317a0efcfe001a8afdaa
True
the "pesticide era
307
What is 1910 considered the start of according to some sources?
5a71317a0efcfe001a8afdab
True
50-fold
475
How much has pesticide use increased by since 1910?
5a71317a0efcfe001a8afdac
True
2.3 million tonnes
498
How many pesticides were used in 1910?
5a71317a0efcfe001a8afdad
True
The first legislation providing federal authority for regulating pesticides was enacted in 1910; however, decades later during the 1940s manufacturers began to produce large amounts of synthetic pesticides and their use became widespread. Some sources consider the 1940s and 1950s to have been the start of the "pesticide era." Although the U.S. Environmental Protection Agency was established in 1970 and amendments to the pesticide law in 1972, pesticide use has increased 50-fold since 1950 and 2.3 million tonnes (2.5 million short tons) of industrial pesticides are now[when?] used each year. Seventy-five percent of all pesticides in the world are used in developed countries, but use in developing countries is increasing. A study of USA pesticide use trends through 1997 was published in 2003 by the National Science Foundation's Center for Integrated Pest Management.
Somerset
What type of region is somerset
5726871ff1498d1400e8e2d2
Somerset is a rural county of rolling hills
0
False
What are some areas of Somerset county
5726871ff1498d1400e8e2d3
Blackdown Hills, Mendip Hills, Quantock Hills and Exmoor National Park, and large flat expanses of land including the Somerset Levels
56
False
How far back was the county populated
5726871ff1498d1400e8e2d4
There is evidence of human occupation from Paleolithic times, and of subsequent settlement in the Roman and Anglo-Saxon periods
191
False
What Kings rise did the county play part in
5726871ff1498d1400e8e2d5
a significant part in the consolidation of power and rise of King Alfred the Great, and later in the English Civil War and the Monmouth Rebellion
338
False
What is the city of Bath famous for
5726871ff1498d1400e8e2d6
substantial Georgian architecture and is a UNESCO World Heritage Site
520
False
Somerset
0
In which county was the English Civil War primarily fought?
5acf54b277cf76001a684b96
True
Somerset
0
Which county of England was King Alfred the Great born in?
5acf54b277cf76001a684b97
True
Quantock Hills
87
Where did the Monmouth Rebellion get its start?
5acf54b277cf76001a684b98
True
Somerset
0
Which county of England is an urban one on a flat plain?
5acf54b277cf76001a684b99
True
Roman
289
King Alfred the Great ruled over which civilization?
5acf54b277cf76001a684b9a
True
Somerset is a rural county of rolling hills such as the Blackdown Hills, Mendip Hills, Quantock Hills and Exmoor National Park, and large flat expanses of land including the Somerset Levels. There is evidence of human occupation from Paleolithic times, and of subsequent settlement in the Roman and Anglo-Saxon periods. The county played a significant part in the consolidation of power and rise of King Alfred the Great, and later in the English Civil War and the Monmouth Rebellion. The city of Bath is famous for its substantial Georgian architecture and is a UNESCO World Heritage Site.
What are the people of somerset mentioned in
572688a6f1498d1400e8e316
Anglo-Saxon Chronicle's entry for AD 845
44
False
What archaic name was mentioned in 878
572688a6f1498d1400e8e317
The archaic name Somersetshire was mentioned in the Chronicle's entry for 878
192
False
When did the county stop using Somersetshire
572688a6f1498d1400e8e318
it went out of fashion in the late 19th century
353
False
What was superfluous
572688a6f1498d1400e8e319
As with other counties not ending in "shire," the suffix was superfluous, as there was no need to differentiate between the county and a town
552
False
AD 845
78
People first settled in Somerset in what year?
5acf572577cf76001a684baa
True
AD 845
78
In what year was the Anglo-Saxon Chronicle first published?
5acf572577cf76001a684bab
True
1889
546
What was the last year the Anglo-Saxon Chronicle was published?
5acf572577cf76001a684bac
True
1015
166
In what year did people stop using the term "Sumursaetum" for this county?
5acf572577cf76001a684bad
True
AD 845
78
When did people first start referring to it as Somersetshire?
5acf572577cf76001a684bae
True
The people of Somerset are mentioned in the Anglo-Saxon Chronicle's entry for AD 845, in the inflected form "Sumursætum", and the county is recorded in the entry for 1015 using the same name. The archaic name Somersetshire was mentioned in the Chronicle's entry for 878. Although "Somersetshire" was in common use as an alternative name for the county, it went out of fashion in the late 19th century, and is no longer used possibly due to the adoption of "Somerset" as the county's official name after the establishment of the county council in 1889. As with other counties not ending in "shire," the suffix was superfluous, as there was no need to differentiate between the county and a town within it.
Who invaded Britain when the Romans Left
57268b59f1498d1400e8e346
Britain was invaded by Anglo-Saxon peoples
23
False
It took how long for the Anglo Saxons to control  the Somerset area
57268b59f1498d1400e8e347
by the early eighth century King Ine of Wessex had pushed the boundaries of the West Saxon kingdom far enough west to include Somerset
270
False
What was the Saxon Royal Palace used for
57268b59f1498d1400e8e348
was used several times in the 10th century to host the Witenagemot
440
False
What prison does somerset county contain
57268b59f1498d1400e8e349
HM Prison Shepton Mallet, which was England's oldest prison still in use prior to its closure in 2013, having opened in 1610
706
False
What rebellion took place in Somerset in 1685
57268b59f1498d1400e8e34a
Monmouth Rebellion was played out in Somerset and neighbouring Dorset
984
False
AD 600
70
In what year did the Romans leave Britain?
5acf58ea77cf76001a684bdc
True
AD 600
70
In what year did King Ine of Wessex rise to power?
5acf58ea77cf76001a684bdd
True
10th century
470
In what century did the Norman Conquest occur?
5acf58ea77cf76001a684bde
True
1610
826
In what year did the Sieges of Taunton occur?
5acf58ea77cf76001a684bdf
True
King Ine of Wessex
298
Who led the forces against the rebels in the Monmouth Rebellion?
5acf58ea77cf76001a684be0
True
After the Romans left, Britain was invaded by Anglo-Saxon peoples. By AD 600 they had established control over much of what is now England, but Somerset was still in native British hands. The British held back Saxon advance into the south-west for some time longer, but by the early eighth century King Ine of Wessex had pushed the boundaries of the West Saxon kingdom far enough west to include Somerset. The Saxon royal palace in Cheddar was used several times in the 10th century to host the Witenagemot. After the Norman Conquest, the county was divided into 700 fiefs, and large areas were owned by the crown, with fortifications such as Dunster Castle used for control and defence. Somerset contains HM Prison Shepton Mallet, which was England's oldest prison still in use prior to its closure in 2013, having opened in 1610. In the English Civil War Somerset was largely Parliamentarian, with key engagements being the Sieges of Taunton and the Battle of Langport. In 1685 the Monmouth Rebellion was played out in Somerset and neighbouring Dorset. The rebels landed at Lyme Regis and travelled north, hoping to capture Bristol and Bath, but they were defeated in the Battle of Sedgemoor at Westonzoyland, the last pitched battle fought in England. Arthur Wellesley took his title, Duke of Wellington from the town of Wellington; he is commemorated on a nearby hill by a large, spotlit obelisk, known as the Wellington Monument.
What ended Somersets cottage industry
57268c47dd62a815002e8930
The Industrial Revolution in the Midlands and Northern England spelled the end for most of Somerset's cottage industries
0
False
What flourished in Somerset after the Industrial revelotuion
57268c47dd62a815002e8931
Farming continued to flourish
122
False
What Industry was important in the late 18th and 19th century of North Somerset
57268c47dd62a815002e8932
Coal mining was an important industry in north Somerset
483
False
What did the west somerset mineral way transport
57268c47dd62a815002e8933
iron ore in the late 19th century; this was taken by the West Somerset Mineral Railway to Watchet Harbour for shipment to the furnaces at Ebbw Vale
942
False
1777
288
In what year did coal mining begin in Somerset?
5acf5a6677cf76001a684c0e
True
John Billingsley
350
Who established the Somerset Coalfield?
5acf5a6677cf76001a684c0f
True
West Somerset Mineral Railway
999
How was coal shipped from the Somerset Coalfield?
5acf5a6677cf76001a684c10
True
1800
582
In what year did the Bath and West of England Society for the Encouragement of Agriculture, Arts, Manufactures and Commerce shut down?
5acf5a6677cf76001a684c11
True
1795
417
In what year was the Somerset Coalfield established?
5acf5a6677cf76001a684c12
True
The Industrial Revolution in the Midlands and Northern England spelled the end for most of Somerset's cottage industries. Farming continued to flourish, however, and the Bath and West of England Society for the Encouragement of Agriculture, Arts, Manufactures and Commerce was founded in 1777 to improve farming methods. Despite this, 20 years later John Billingsley conducted a survey of the county's agriculture in 1795 and found that agricultural methods could still be improved. Coal mining was an important industry in north Somerset during the 18th and 19th centuries, and by 1800 it was prominent in Radstock. The Somerset Coalfield reached its peak production by the 1920s, but all the pits have now been closed, the last in 1973. Most of the surface buildings have been removed, and apart from a winding wheel outside Radstock Museum, little evidence of their former existence remains. Further west, the Brendon Hills were mined for iron ore in the late 19th century; this was taken by the West Somerset Mineral Railway to Watchet Harbour for shipment to the furnaces at Ebbw Vale.
How many Somerset soldiers were killed in WW1
57268d16dd62a815002e8946
Many Somerset soldiers died during the First World War, with the Somerset Light Infantry suffering nearly 5,000 casualties
0
False
How many counties had no casualties in WW1
57268d16dd62a815002e8947
only nine, described as the Thankful Villages, had none of their residents killed
194
False
The county was base for what in WW2
57268d16dd62a815002e8948
for troops preparing for the D-Day landings
327
False
What is the Tauton stop line
57268d16dd62a815002e8949
The Taunton Stop Line was set up to repel a potential German invasion
456
False
Taunton
460
What was one of the Thankful Villages?
5acf5b6977cf76001a684c18
True
Ilminster
610
Which village suffered the most First World War casualties?
5acf5b6977cf76001a684c19
True
5,000
106
How many Somerset soldiers died in all in the First World War?
5acf5b6977cf76001a684c1a
True
5,000
106
How many Somerset soldiers did in the Second World War?
5acf5b6977cf76001a684c1b
True
nine
199
How many pill boxes can still be seen along the coast?
5acf5b6977cf76001a684c1c
True
Many Somerset soldiers died during the First World War, with the Somerset Light Infantry suffering nearly 5,000 casualties. War memorials were put up in most of the county's towns and villages; only nine, described as the Thankful Villages, had none of their residents killed. During the Second World War the county was a base for troops preparing for the D-Day landings. Some of the hospitals which were built for the casualties of the war remain in use. The Taunton Stop Line was set up to repel a potential German invasion. The remains of its pill boxes can still be seen along the coast, and south through Ilminster and Chard.
Why were decoy towns used in WW2
57268e345951b619008f7677
decoy towns were constructed in Somerset in World War II to protect Bristol and other towns, at night
12
False
What did the decoy towns mimic
57268e345951b619008f7678
mimic the geometry of "blacked out" streets, railway lines, and Bristol Temple Meads railway station, to encourage bombers away from these targets
137
False
Who layed out  Beacon Batch
57268e345951b619008f7679
Shepperton Studios, based on aerial photographs of the city's railway marshalling yards. The decoys were fitted with dim red lights
384
False
What decoy city was hit
57268e345951b619008f767a
The Chew Magna decoy town was hit by half-a-dozen bombs on 2 December 1940, and over a thousand incendiaries on 3 January 1941
1014
False
half-a-dozen
1051
How many times was the Uphill decoy town bombed on 4 January 1942?
5acf5d8c77cf76001a684c4a
True
Shepperton Studios
384
Who laid out Chew Magna decoy town?
5acf5d8c77cf76001a684c4b
True
half-a-dozen
1051
How many dairy cows were killed when the Uphill decoy town was bombed?
5acf5d8c77cf76001a684c4c
True
Bristol
80
Who created the Uphill decoy town?
5acf5d8c77cf76001a684c4d
True
Weston-super-Mare's airfield
1196
Where did the Pathfinder night bombers usually take off from to bomb Somerset?
5acf5d8c77cf76001a684c4e
True
A number of decoy towns were constructed in Somerset in World War II to protect Bristol and other towns, at night. They were designed to mimic the geometry of "blacked out" streets, railway lines, and Bristol Temple Meads railway station, to encourage bombers away from these targets. One, on the radio beam flight path to Bristol, was constructed on Beacon Batch. It was laid out by Shepperton Studios, based on aerial photographs of the city's railway marshalling yards. The decoys were fitted with dim red lights, simulating activities like the stoking of steam locomotives. Burning bales of straw soaked in creosote were used to simulate the effects of incendiary bombs dropped by the first wave of Pathfinder night bombers; meanwhile, incendiary bombs dropped on the correct location were quickly smothered, wherever possible. Drums of oil were also ignited to simulate the effect of a blazing city or town, with the aim of fooling subsequent waves of bombers into dropping their bombs on the wrong location. The Chew Magna decoy town was hit by half-a-dozen bombs on 2 December 1940, and over a thousand incendiaries on 3 January 1941. The following night the Uphill decoy town, protecting Weston-super-Mare's airfield, was bombed; a herd of dairy cows was hit, killing some and severely injuring others.
How long have the boundaries of somerset remained constant
57268ec7dd62a815002e8980
are largely unaltered from medieval times
27
False
What river forms the border of Somerset
57268ec7dd62a815002e8981
The River Avon formed much of the border with Gloucestershire, except that the hundred of Bath Forum
70
False
What did king Edward the 3 do
57268ec7dd62a815002e8982
Edward III proclaimed "that the town of Bristol with its suburbs and precincts shall henceforth be separate from the counties of Gloucester and Somerset
359
False
1373
354
In what year was Somerset established?
5acf5e5077cf76001a684c72
True
Somerset
18
In which county was Edward III born?
5acf5e5077cf76001a684c73
True
Gloucester
488
Which county lies east of Somerset?
5acf5e5077cf76001a684c74
True
1373
354
In what year did Edward III start his reign?
5acf5e5077cf76001a684c75
True
Gloucester
488
Is Bristol larger on the Gloucester or Somerset side of the River Avon?
5acf5e5077cf76001a684c76
True
The boundaries of Somerset are largely unaltered from medieval times. The River Avon formed much of the border with Gloucestershire, except that the hundred of Bath Forum, which straddles the Avon, formed part of Somerset. Bristol began as a town on the Gloucestershire side of the Avon, however as it grew it extended across the river into Somerset. In 1373 Edward III proclaimed "that the town of Bristol with its suburbs and precincts shall henceforth be separate from the counties of Gloucester and Somerset... and that it should be a county by itself".
When did Somerton take over from Ilchester as the county town
57269193f1498d1400e8e410
in the late thirteenth century, but it declined in importance and the status of county town transferred to Taunton about 1366
53
False
How many cities and towns in Somerset
57269193f1498d1400e8e411
The county has two cities, Bath and Wells, and 30 towns
180
False
The largest populations of the county
57269193f1498d1400e8e412
in terms of population are Bath, Weston-super-Mare, Taunton, Yeovil and Bridgwater
392
False
What was the strategic purpose to settle this area
57269193f1498d1400e8e413
strategic importance in relation to geographical features, such as river crossings or valleys in ranges of hills
520
False
Most Southernly town of somerset
57269193f1498d1400e8e414
Chard is the most southerly town in Somerset, and at an altitude of 121 m (397 ft) it is also the highest
929
False
1366
174
In which year was Taunton established?
5acf5f2877cf76001a684ca4
True
121 m
997
What is the average altitude of Taunton?
5acf5f2877cf76001a684ca5
True
Yeovil
453
What is the largest Urban area in Somerton?
5acf5f2877cf76001a684ca6
True
Taunton
266
What is the most northerly town in Somerset?
5acf5f2877cf76001a684ca7
True
397 ft
1004
What is the average altitude of Axbridge?
5acf5f2877cf76001a684ca8
True
Somerton took over from Ilchester as the county town in the late thirteenth century, but it declined in importance and the status of county town transferred to Taunton about 1366. The county has two cities, Bath and Wells, and 30 towns (including the county town of Taunton, which has no town council but instead is the chief settlement of the county's only borough). The largest urban areas in terms of population are Bath, Weston-super-Mare, Taunton, Yeovil and Bridgwater. Many settlements developed because of their strategic importance in relation to geographical features, such as river crossings or valleys in ranges of hills. Examples include Axbridge on the River Axe, Castle Cary on the River Cary, North Petherton on the River Parrett, and Ilminster, where there was a crossing point on the River Isle. Midsomer Norton lies on the River Somer; while the Wellow Brook and the Fosse Way Roman road run through Radstock. Chard is the most southerly town in Somerset, and at an altitude of 121 m (397 ft) it is also the highest.
What area lies in the northeastern part of Somerset levels
57269335708984140094caa7
the Mendip Hills are moderately high limestone hills
42
False
What area was Designated to have outstanding beauty
57269335708984140094caa8
Quantock Hills which was England's first Area of Outstanding Natural Beauty designated in 1956
361
False
What is the name of the coal field
57269335708984140094caa9
The Somerset Coalfield is part of a larger coalfield which stretches into Gloucestershire
581
False
What area support dairy farming
57269335708984140094caaa
on the clay substrate, are broad valleys which support dairy farming and drain into the Somerset Levels.
742
False
198 km2
205
How much area does the Somerset Coalfield cover?
5acf603a77cf76001a684cc2
True
76 sq mi
214
How much area does the Chew Valley cover?
5acf603a77cf76001a684cc3
True
Quantock Hills
361
What lies to the north-west of the Somerset Levels?
5acf603a77cf76001a684cc4
True
Chew Valley
712
What lies to the east of the Mendip Hills?
5acf603a77cf76001a684cc5
True
oak
487
What type of trees are prevalent in the Chew Valley?
5acf603a77cf76001a684cc6
True
To the north-east of the Somerset Levels, the Mendip Hills are moderately high limestone hills. The central and western Mendip Hills was designated an Area of Outstanding Natural Beauty in 1972 and covers 198 km2 (76 sq mi). The main habitat on these hills is calcareous grassland, with some arable agriculture. To the south-west of the Somerset Levels are the Quantock Hills which was England's first Area of Outstanding Natural Beauty designated in 1956 which is covered in heathland, oak woodlands, ancient parklands with plantations of conifer and covers 99 square kilometres. The Somerset Coalfield is part of a larger coalfield which stretches into Gloucestershire. To the north of the Mendip hills is the Chew Valley and to the south, on the clay substrate, are broad valleys which support dairy farming and drain into the Somerset Levels.
What's the name of the cave system
57269446dd62a815002e8a26
an extensive network of caves, including Wookey Hole
9
False
Name 2 of the county gorges
57269446dd62a815002e8a27
and gorges, including the Cheddar Gorge and Ebbor Gorge
83
False
Name some of the county rivers
57269446dd62a815002e8a28
the Axe, Brue, Cary, Parrett, Sheppey, Tone and Yeo
178
False
What did King charles levy on river boats
57269446dd62a815002e8a29
King Charles I, river tolls were levied on boats to pay for the maintenance of the bridge.
503
False
Bristol Avon
366
Where does the Axe river flow into?
5acf613977cf76001a684cea
True
Ebbor Gorge
127
Which is larger, the Cheddar Gorge or the Ebbor Gorge?
5acf613977cf76001a684ceb
True
Sheppey
208
What is Somerset's northernmost river?
5acf613977cf76001a684cec
True
Parrett
199
What is the name of one of Somerset's underground rivers?
5acf613977cf76001a684ced
True
Cary
193
What is Somerset's westernmost river?
5acf613977cf76001a684cee
True
There is an extensive network of caves, including Wookey Hole, underground rivers, and gorges, including the Cheddar Gorge and Ebbor Gorge. The county has many rivers, including the Axe, Brue, Cary, Parrett, Sheppey, Tone and Yeo. These both feed and drain the flat levels and moors of mid and west Somerset. In the north of the county the River Chew flows into the Bristol Avon. The Parrett is tidal almost to Langport, where there is evidence of two Roman wharfs. At the same site during the reign of King Charles I, river tolls were levied on boats to pay for the maintenance of the bridge.
What are the Somerset levels
572697e4dd62a815002e8a84
are a sparsely populated wetland area of central Somerset, between the Quantock and Mendip hills
102
False
what do the Somerset levels consist of
572697e4dd62a815002e8a85
marine clay levels along the coast, and the inland (often peat based) moors
216
False
what are the 2 sections of the somerset levels
572697e4dd62a815002e8a86
the Polden Hills; land to the south is drained by the River Parrett while land to the north is drained by the River Axe and the River Brue
328
False
What is the total area of the levels
572697e4dd62a815002e8a87
The total area of the Levels amounts to about 647.5 square kilometres (160,000 acres)
468
False
who started drainage of the Somerset levels
572697e4dd62a815002e8a88
the Romans, and was restarted at various times: by the Anglo-Saxons
973
False
160,000
539
How many people live in the sparsely populated Somerset Levels?
5acf6a5377cf76001a684dbc
True
647.5 square kilometres
514
What is the total area of the Polden Hills?
5acf6a5377cf76001a684dbd
True
32 kilometres
754
How long are the Polden Hills?
5acf6a5377cf76001a684dbe
True
Polden Hills
332
What lies east of the Somerset Levels?
5acf6a5377cf76001a684dbf
True
20 mi
769
How long is the River Brue?
5acf6a5377cf76001a684dc0
True
The Somerset Levels (or Somerset Levels and Moors as they are less commonly but more correctly known) are a sparsely populated wetland area of central Somerset, between the Quantock and Mendip hills. They consist of marine clay levels along the coast, and the inland (often peat based) moors. The Levels are divided into two by the Polden Hills; land to the south is drained by the River Parrett while land to the north is drained by the River Axe and the River Brue. The total area of the Levels amounts to about 647.5 square kilometres (160,000 acres) and broadly corresponds to the administrative district of Sedgemoor but also includes the south west of Mendip district. Approximately 70% of the area is grassland and 30% is arable. Stretching about 32 kilometres (20 mi) inland, this expanse of flat land barely rises above sea level. Before it was drained, much of the land was under a shallow brackish sea in winter and was marsh land in summer. Drainage began with the Romans, and was restarted at various times: by the Anglo-Saxons; in the Middle Ages by the Glastonbury Abbey, from 1400–1770; and during the Second World War, with the construction of the Huntspill River. Pumping and management of water levels still continues.
What are the main coastal towns
572698f9dd62a815002e8aa2
Minehead, Watchet, Burnham-on-Sea, Weston-super-Mare, Clevedon and Portishead
61
False
what is the name of the natural reserve area
572698f9dd62a815002e8aa3
Bridgwater Bay, and is a National Nature Reserve
265
False
what does the western coastline look like
572698f9dd62a815002e8aa4
the coastline is high and dramatic where the plateau of Exmoor meets the sea, with high cliffs and waterfalls.
566
False
Sand Bay
361
What is east of Weston Bay?
5acf6b5d77cf76001a684dc6
True
Burnham-on-Sea
80
What is the largest main coastal town?
5acf6b5d77cf76001a684dc7
True
Weston-super-Mare
96
What is the smallest main coastal town?
5acf6b5d77cf76001a684dc8
True
Bridgwater Bay
265
What lies between Burnham-on-Sea and Weston-super-Mare?
5acf6b5d77cf76001a684dc9
True
Brean Down
242
What marks the upper limit of the Severn Estuary?
5acf6b5d77cf76001a684dca
True
The main coastal towns are, from the west to the north-east, Minehead, Watchet, Burnham-on-Sea, Weston-super-Mare, Clevedon and Portishead. The coastal area between Minehead and the eastern extreme of the administrative county's coastline at Brean Down is known as Bridgwater Bay, and is a National Nature Reserve. North of that, the coast forms Weston Bay and Sand Bay whose northern tip, Sand Point, marks the lower limit of the Severn Estuary. In the mid and north of the county the coastline is low as the level wetlands of the levels meet the sea. In the west, the coastline is high and dramatic where the plateau of Exmoor meets the sea, with high cliffs and waterfalls.
What is the somerset climate like
57269a315951b619008f77a3
a temperate climate which is generally wetter and milder than the rest of the country
56
False
The annual sunshine rate of somerset
57269a315951b619008f77a4
Annual sunshine rates are slightly less than the regional average of 1,600 hours
681
False
How many days of snow on average
57269a315951b619008f77a5
About 8–15 days of snowfall is typical
1220
False
The average rainfall level of somerset
57269a315951b619008f77a6
Average rainfall is around 700 mm (28 in)
1177
False
10 °C
188
What is the annual average temperature?
5acf6cd977cf76001a684df8
True
21 °C
419
What is the mean daily maxima temperature of May?
5acf6cd977cf76001a684df9
True
28 in
1212
How much snowfall falls in a typical year?
5acf6cd977cf76001a684dfa
True
2 °C
493
What is the mean minimum temperature in November?
5acf6cd977cf76001a684dfb
True
Somerset
43
What county in England is drier than the rest of the country?
5acf6cd977cf76001a684dfc
True
Along with the rest of South West England, Somerset has a temperate climate which is generally wetter and milder than the rest of the country. The annual mean temperature is approximately 10 °C (50.0 °F). Seasonal temperature variation is less extreme than most of the United Kingdom because of the adjacent sea temperatures. The summer months of July and August are the warmest with mean daily maxima of approximately 21 °C (69.8 °F). In winter mean minimum temperatures of 1 °C (33.8 °F) or 2 °C (35.6 °F) are common. In the summer the Azores high pressure affects the south-west of England, but convective cloud sometimes forms inland, reducing the number of hours of sunshine. Annual sunshine rates are slightly less than the regional average of 1,600 hours. In December 1998 there were 20 days without sun recorded at Yeovilton. Most the rainfall in the south-west is caused by Atlantic depressions or by convection. Most of the rainfall in autumn and winter is caused by the Atlantic depressions, which is when they are most active. In summer, a large proportion of the rainfall is caused by sun heating the ground leading to convection and to showers and thunderstorms. Average rainfall is around 700 mm (28 in). About 8–15 days of snowfall is typical. November to March have the highest mean wind speeds, and June to August the lightest winds. The predominant wind direction is from the south-west.
What is the leading port of somerset
57269c32708984140094cbab
Bridgwater was developed during the Industrial Revolution as the area's leading port
0
False
what was manufacture in Bridgeport in the 19th and 20th century
57269c32708984140094cbac
was a centre for the manufacture of bricks and clay roof tiles, and later cellophane, but those industries have now stopped
481
False
The good motor system presently allows for
57269c32708984140094cbad
Bridgwater has developed as a distribution hub for companies such as Argos, Toolstation, Morrisons and Gerber Juice
650
False
where are aircraft manufactured
57269c32708984140094cbae
AgustaWestland manufactures helicopters in Yeovil, and Normalair Garratt, builder of aircraft oxygen systems
767
False
What do many towns encourage
57269c32708984140094cbaf
Many towns have encouraged small-scale light industries, such as Crewkerne's Ariel Motor Company, one of the UK's smallest car manufacturers
904
False
Gerber Juice
753
What company uses Langport as a distribution hub?
5acf708a77cf76001a684e34
True
Burrowbridge
318
In what town is Crewkerne's Ariel Motor Company based?
5acf708a77cf76001a684e35
True
Dunball Wharf
422
What was this area's leading port before the Industrial Revolution?
5acf708a77cf76001a684e36
True
Argos
719
What is one of the UK's biggest car manufacturers?
5acf708a77cf76001a684e37
True
Gerber Juice
753
What large company is based in Taunton?
5acf708a77cf76001a684e38
True
Bridgwater was developed during the Industrial Revolution as the area's leading port. The River Parrett was navigable by large ships as far as Bridgwater. Cargoes were then loaded onto smaller boats at Langport Quay, next to the Bridgwater Bridge, to be carried further up river to Langport; or they could turn off at Burrowbridge and then travel via the River Tone to Taunton. The Parrett is now only navigable as far as Dunball Wharf. Bridgwater, in the 19th and 20th centuries, was a centre for the manufacture of bricks and clay roof tiles, and later cellophane, but those industries have now stopped. With its good links to the motorway system, Bridgwater has developed as a distribution hub for companies such as Argos, Toolstation, Morrisons and Gerber Juice. AgustaWestland manufactures helicopters in Yeovil, and Normalair Garratt, builder of aircraft oxygen systems, is also based in the town. Many towns have encouraged small-scale light industries, such as Crewkerne's Ariel Motor Company, one of the UK's smallest car manufacturers.
What is Somerset an important supplier of
57269f70f1498d1400e8e53c
defence equipment and technology.
37
False
What type of factory was built in Somerset
57269f70f1498d1400e8e53d
A Royal Ordnance Factory, ROF Bridgwater was built at the start of the Second World War, between the villages of Puriton and Woolavington
71
False
What other high tech industry is in Somerset
57269f70f1498d1400e8e53e
Other high-technology companies include the optics company Gooch and Housego, at Ilminster
661
False
What area is home to royal marines
57269f70f1498d1400e8e53f
Norton Fitzwarren is the home of 40 Commando Royal Marines
804
False
What is yeovilton home to
57269f70f1498d1400e8e540
The Royal Naval Air Station in Yeovilton, is one of Britain's two active Fleet Air Arm bases and is home to the Royal Navy's Lynx helicopters
864
False
at the start of the Second World War
122
When was Thales Underwater Systems launched?
5acf744a77cf76001a684e5a
True
2006
477
In what year did Avimo become a part of Thales Optics?
5acf744a77cf76001a684e5b
True
Thales Optics
430
What is one of the high tech companies headquartered in Yeovilton?
5acf744a77cf76001a684e5c
True
Gooch
720
What tech firm can be found in Norton Fitzwarren?
5acf744a77cf76001a684e5d
True
2006
477
In what year was Gooch founded?
5acf744a77cf76001a684e5e
True
Somerset is an important supplier of defence equipment and technology. A Royal Ordnance Factory, ROF Bridgwater was built at the start of the Second World War, between the villages of Puriton and Woolavington, to manufacture explosives. The site was decommissioned and closed in July 2008. Templecombe has Thales Underwater Systems, and Taunton presently has the United Kingdom Hydrographic Office and Avimo, which became part of Thales Optics. It has been announced twice, in 2006 and 2007, that manufacturing is to end at Thales Optics' Taunton site, but the trade unions and Taunton Deane District Council are working to reverse or mitigate these decisions. Other high-technology companies include the optics company Gooch and Housego, at Ilminster. There are Ministry of Defence offices in Bath, and Norton Fitzwarren is the home of 40 Commando Royal Marines. The Royal Naval Air Station in Yeovilton, is one of Britain's two active Fleet Air Arm bases and is home to the Royal Navy's Lynx helicopters and the Royal Marines Commando Westland Sea Kings. Around 1,675 service and 2,000 civilian personnel are stationed at Yeovilton and key activities include training of aircrew and engineers and the Royal Navy's Fighter Controllers and surface-based aircraft controllers.
What area employs 15000 people in the couinty
5726a1ccf1498d1400e8e56a
Agriculture and food and drink production continue to be major industries in the county, employing over 15,000 people
0
False
What type of orchids used to be pleantiful
5726a1ccf1498d1400e8e56b
Apple orchards were once plentiful, and Somerset is still a major producer of cider
119
False
What area is important to the fruit juice industry
5726a1ccf1498d1400e8e56c
Gerber Products Company in Bridgwater is the largest producer of fruit juices in Europe, producing brands such as "Sunny Delight" and "Ocean Spray
429
False
What area is PDO
5726a1ccf1498d1400e8e56d
Cheddar cheese—some of which has the West Country Farmhouse Cheddar Protected Designation of Origin (PDO).
764
False
15,000
104
How many people work in the Apple Orchards?
5acf76ad77cf76001a684e78
True
Shepton Mallet
229
In what town is Yeo Valley Organic based?
5acf76ad77cf76001a684e79
True
nationwide
330
Where is the Ilchester Cheese Company cheese sold?
5acf76ad77cf76001a684e7a
True
Ilchester Cheese Company
628
What company is the largest producer of cheese in the UK?
5acf76ad77cf76001a684e7b
True
Ilchester Cheese Company
628
Which Somerset cheeses have earned the West Country Farmhouse Cheddar Protected Designation of Origin?
5acf76ad77cf76001a684e7c
True
Agriculture and food and drink production continue to be major industries in the county, employing over 15,000 people. Apple orchards were once plentiful, and Somerset is still a major producer of cider. The towns of Taunton and Shepton Mallet are involved with the production of cider, especially Blackthorn Cider, which is sold nationwide, and there are specialist producers such as Burrow Hill Cider Farm and Thatchers Cider. Gerber Products Company in Bridgwater is the largest producer of fruit juices in Europe, producing brands such as "Sunny Delight" and "Ocean Spray." Development of the milk-based industries, such as Ilchester Cheese Company and Yeo Valley Organic, have resulted in the production of ranges of desserts, yoghurts and cheeses, including Cheddar cheese—some of which has the West Country Farmhouse Cheddar Protected Designation of Origin (PDO).
Where is willow growing still practiced
5726a3655951b619008f7891
Traditional willow growing and weaving (such as basket weaving) is not as extensive as it used to be but is still carried out on the Somerset Levels
0
False
What is pollarding
5726a3655951b619008f7892
The willow was harvested using a traditional method of pollarding, where a tree would be cut back to the main stem
358
False
What did plastic bags result in
5726a3655951b619008f7893
Largely due to the displacement of baskets with plastic bags and cardboard boxes, the industry has severely declined since the 1950s
585
False
The somerset level is the only area left  to commercially grow what
5726a3655951b619008f7894
The Somerset Levels is now the only area in the UK where basket willow is grown commercially.
877
False
1930s
485
In what decade was the Willows and Wetlands Visitor Centre established?
5acf78f377cf76001a684ece
True
3,600 hectares
501
How many acres of commercial willow growing was there in the 1950s?
5acf78f377cf76001a684ecf
True
Westonzoyland
846
In what village is the most willow now grown commercially?
5acf78f377cf76001a684ed0
True
baskets
620
What is willow mostly used for nowadays?
5acf78f377cf76001a684ed1
True
1930s
485
In what decade was Glastonbury Lake Village abandoned?
5acf78f377cf76001a684ed2
True
Traditional willow growing and weaving (such as basket weaving) is not as extensive as it used to be but is still carried out on the Somerset Levels and is commemorated at the Willows and Wetlands Visitor Centre. Fragments of willow basket were found near the Glastonbury Lake Village, and it was also used in the construction of several Iron Age causeways. The willow was harvested using a traditional method of pollarding, where a tree would be cut back to the main stem. During the 1930s more than 3,600 hectares (8,900 acres) of willow were being grown commercially on the Levels. Largely due to the displacement of baskets with plastic bags and cardboard boxes, the industry has severely declined since the 1950s. By the end of the 20th century only about 140 hectares (350 acres) were grown commercially, near the villages of Burrowbridge, Westonzoyland and North Curry. The Somerset Levels is now the only area in the UK where basket willow is grown commercially.
What towns grew around the weaving Industry
5726a5eef1498d1400e8e612
Castle Cary and Frome grew around the medieval weaving industry
14
False
Why did Cj clark shoes leave the area
5726a5eef1498d1400e8e613
the work was transferred to lower-wage areas, such as China and Asia
292
False
What famous shoe brand was made in Somerset
5726a5eef1498d1400e8e614
Dr. Martens shoes were also made in Somerset, by the Northampton-based R. Griggs Group
752
False
1993
374
When did C.&J. Clark shut down operations in Somerset?
5acf7a9777cf76001a684f1e
True
1993
374
When were Dr. Martens shoes no longer made in Somerset?
5acf7a9777cf76001a684f1f
True
Clarks Village
431
What was the second purpose-built factory outlet in the UK?
5acf7a9777cf76001a684f20
True
Westfield
569
What village outside of Street was the first to have one of C.&J. Clark's satellite sites?
5acf7a9777cf76001a684f21
True
Towns such as Castle Cary and Frome grew around the medieval weaving industry. Street developed as a centre for the production of woollen slippers and, later, boots and shoes, with C. & J. Clark establishing its headquarters in the town. C&J Clark's shoes are no longer manufactured there as the work was transferred to lower-wage areas, such as China and Asia. Instead, in 1993, redundant factory buildings were converted to form Clarks Village, the first purpose-built factory outlet in the UK. C&J Clark also had shoe factories, at one time at Bridgwater, Minehead, Westfield and Weston super Mare to provide employment outside the main summer tourist season, but those satellite sites were closed in the late 1980s, before the main site at Street. Dr. Martens shoes were also made in Somerset, by the Northampton-based R. Griggs Group, using redundant skilled shoemakers from C&J Clark; that work has also been transferred to Asia.
What type of stone was supplied in the county
5726a6d2dd62a815002e8c0a
supplying freestone and building stone
35
False
Who promoted the use of stone from the  Bath area
5726a6d2dd62a815002e8c0b
Ralph Allen promoted its use in the early 18th century, as did Hans Price in the 19th century
192
False
What are some uses for Blue Lias
5726a6d2dd62a815002e8c0c
Blue Lias has been used locally as a building stone and as a raw material for lime mortar and Portland cement
717
False
What has been supplied by the county since the 1920's
5726a6d2dd62a815002e8c0d
the county has supplied aggregates. Foster Yeoman is Europe's large supplier of limestone aggregates
1143
False
19th
273
In what century was Wells Cathedral built?
5acf7c0477cf76001a684f38
True
Combe Down
349
Where is Blue Lias now mined?
5acf7c0477cf76001a684f39
True
1970s
1119
In what decade was Mendip Rail built?
5acf7c0477cf76001a684f3a
True
Puriton
845
In what village is Foster Yeoman headquartered?
5acf7c0477cf76001a684f3b
True
lime mortar and Portland cement
795
What are aggregates used for?
5acf7c0477cf76001a684f3c
True
The county has a long tradition of supplying freestone and building stone. Quarries at Doulting supplied freestone used in the construction of Wells Cathedral. Bath stone is also widely used. Ralph Allen promoted its use in the early 18th century, as did Hans Price in the 19th century, but it was used long before then. It was mined underground at Combe Down and Bathampton Down Mines, and as a result of cutting the Box Tunnel, at locations in Wiltshire such as Box. Bath stone is still used on a reduced scale today, but more often as a cladding rather than a structural material. Further south, Hamstone is the colloquial name given to stone from Ham Hill, which is also widely used in the construction industry. Blue Lias has been used locally as a building stone and as a raw material for lime mortar and Portland cement. Until the 1960s, Puriton had Blue Lias stone quarries, as did several other Polden villages. Its quarries also supplied a cement factory at Dunball, adjacent to the King's Sedgemoor Drain. Its derelict, early 20th century remains, was removed when the M5 motorway was constructed in the mid-1970s. Since the 1920s, the county has supplied aggregates. Foster Yeoman is Europe's large supplier of limestone aggregates, with quarries at Merehead Quarry. It has a dedicated railway operation, Mendip Rail, which is used to transport aggregates by rail from a group of Mendip quarries.
Tourism supports how many people in the County
5726a91c5951b619008f795f
estimated in 2001 to support around 23,000 people
29
False
Some of the county attractions are
5726a91c5951b619008f7960
the coastal towns, part of the Exmoor National Park, the West Somerset Railway (a heritage railway), and the museum of the Fleet Air Arm at RNAS Yeovilton
100
False
What does Glastonbury have associations with
5726a91c5951b619008f7961
mythical associations, including legends of a visit by the young Jesus of Nazareth and Joseph of Arimathea, with links to the Holy Grail, King Arthur
284
False
What type of festival is Glastonbury famous for
5726a91c5951b619008f7962
Glastonbury also gives its name to an annual open-air rock festival held in nearby Pilton
509
False
What type of cheese is the county famous for
5726a91c5951b619008f7963
locally produced cheese, although there is now only one remaining cheese maker in the village of Cheddar
675
False
23,000
65
How many people visit Exmoor National Park each month?
5acf7cfc77cf76001a684f54
True
2001
42
In what year was the first annual open-air rock festival near Pilton?
5acf7cfc77cf76001a684f55
True
23,000
65
How many people attend the open-air rock festival near Pilton each year?
5acf7cfc77cf76001a684f56
True
23,000
65
How many visit the museum of the Fleet Air Arm each month?
5acf7cfc77cf76001a684f57
True
2001
42
In what year was the Fleet Air Arm museum established?
5acf7cfc77cf76001a684f58
True
Tourism is a major industry, estimated in 2001 to support around 23,000 people. Attractions include the coastal towns, part of the Exmoor National Park, the West Somerset Railway (a heritage railway), and the museum of the Fleet Air Arm at RNAS Yeovilton. The town of Glastonbury has mythical associations, including legends of a visit by the young Jesus of Nazareth and Joseph of Arimathea, with links to the Holy Grail, King Arthur, and Camelot, identified by some as Cadbury Castle, an Iron Age hill fort. Glastonbury also gives its name to an annual open-air rock festival held in nearby Pilton. There are show caves open to visitors in the Cheddar Gorge, as well as its locally produced cheese, although there is now only one remaining cheese maker in the village of Cheddar.
What is Hinkley point C
5726aa10708984140094cd55
Hinkley Point C nuclear power station is a project to construct a 3,200 MW two reactor nuclear power station
0
False
What was Stop Hinkley
5726aa10708984140094cd56
Stop Hinkley, was formed to campaign for the closure of Hinkley Point B and oppose any expansion at the Hinkley Point site
549
False
What did the European Commission review
5726aa10708984140094cd57
opened an investigation to assess whether the project breaks state-aid rules
715
False
How did the Commission vote turn out
5726aa10708984140094cd58
the European Commission has approved the project, with an overwhelming majority and only four commissioners voting against the decision.
833
False
3,200 MW
66
How powerful was the Hinkley Point A nuclear power station?
5acf7e2877cf76001a684f8e
True
four
922
How many commissioners are on the European Commission?
5acf7e2877cf76001a684f8f
True
3,200 MW
66
How powerful is the Hinkley Point B nuclear power station?
5acf7e2877cf76001a684f90
True
2011
526
In what year was Hinkley Point B finish construction?
5acf7e2877cf76001a684f91
True
2010
124
In what year was Hinkley Point A shut down?
5acf7e2877cf76001a684f92
True
Hinkley Point C nuclear power station is a project to construct a 3,200 MW two reactor nuclear power station. On 18 October 2010, the British government announced that Hinkley Point – already the site of the disused Hinkley Point A and the still operational Hinkley Point B power stations – was one of the eight sites it considered suitable for future nuclear power stations. NNB Generation Company, a subsidiary of EDF, submitted an application for development consent to the Infrastructure Planning Commission on 31 October 2011. A protest group, Stop Hinkley, was formed to campaign for the closure of Hinkley Point B and oppose any expansion at the Hinkley Point site. In December 2013, the European Commission opened an investigation to assess whether the project breaks state-aid rules. On 8 October 2014 it was announced that the European Commission has approved the project, with an overwhelming majority and only four commissioners voting against the decision.
What is the population growth rate of Somerset county
5726aabcf1498d1400e8e686
Population growth is higher than the national average, with a 6.4% increase, in the Somerset County Council area, since 1991, and a 17% increase since 1981
0
False
The unemployment rate of the county
5726aabcf1498d1400e8e687
the unemployment rate is lower than the regional and national average.
511
False
What percentage of the population is economically active
5726aabcf1498d1400e8e688
is higher than the regional and national average
457
False
6.4%
62
What is the average national population growth since 1991?
5acf7ed677cf76001a684fac
True
17%
132
How much has the UK population grown since 1981?
5acf7ed677cf76001a684fad
True
6.4%
62
What is the national UK unemployment rate?
5acf7ed677cf76001a684fae
True
2.2
354
What is the average people per hectare in the UK?
5acf7ed677cf76001a684faf
True
0.5
330
What is the people per hectare in the least populated county in the UK?
5acf7ed677cf76001a684fb0
True
Population growth is higher than the national average, with a 6.4% increase, in the Somerset County Council area, since 1991, and a 17% increase since 1981. The population density is 1.4 persons per hectare, which can be compared to 2.07 persons per hectare for the South West region. Within the county, population density ranges 0.5 in West Somerset to 2.2 persons per hectare in Taunton Deane. The percentage of the population who are economically active is higher than the regional and national average, and the unemployment rate is lower than the regional and national average.
What percentage of the population is native
5726ab84708984140094cd65
Somerset has a high indigenous British population, with 98.8% registering as white British and 92.4% of these as born in the United Kingdom
0
False
The largest ethnic group in somerset county is
5726ab84708984140094cd66
Chinese is the largest ethnic group
141
False
Tauton Bridgewater and Yeovil has what concentration of the population
5726ab84708984140094cd67
Over 25% of Somerset's population is concentrated in Taunton, Bridgwater and Yeovil
254
False
How many tourist nights are spent in Somerset
5726ab84708984140094cd68
Over 9 million tourist nights are spent in Somerset each year
395
False
2.9%
248
What is the percentage of Chinese people in Somerset?
5acf809d77cf76001a68500e
True
9 million
400
How many people live in Somerset?
5acf809d77cf76001a68500f
True
Yeovil
331
What is Somerset's most populous city?
5acf809d77cf76001a685010
True
25%
259
What proportion of Somerset's residents live in Taunton?
5acf809d77cf76001a685011
True
2.9%
248
What proportion of the Chinese ethnic group live in rural Somerset?
5acf809d77cf76001a685012
True
Somerset has a high indigenous British population, with 98.8% registering as white British and 92.4% of these as born in the United Kingdom. Chinese is the largest ethnic group, while the black minority ethnic proportion of the total population is 2.9%. Over 25% of Somerset's population is concentrated in Taunton, Bridgwater and Yeovil. The rest of the county is rural and sparsely populated. Over 9 million tourist nights are spent in Somerset each year, which significantly increases the population at peak times.
How many tiers  does somerset county consist of
5726ac12708984140094cd77
The ceremonial county of Somerset consists of a two-tier non-metropolitan county
0
False
What are the 5 districts of Somerset
5726ac12708984140094cd78
The five districts of Somerset are West Somerset, South Somerset, Taunton Deane, Mendip, and Sedgemoor
258
False
What 2 Unitary authorities were established in april 1996
5726ac12708984140094cd79
North Somerset, and Bath & North East Somerset
494
False
five
262
For how many years did Avon county exist?
5acf818277cf76001a68503c
True
North Somerset
494
What was the main city of Avon County?
5acf818277cf76001a68503d
True
five
262
How many districts made up Avon County?
5acf818277cf76001a68503e
True
ceremonial
4
What type of county was Avon?
5acf818277cf76001a68503f
True
two
48
How many tiers did Avon County have for its form of government?
5acf818277cf76001a685040
True
The ceremonial county of Somerset consists of a two-tier non-metropolitan county, which is administered by Somerset County Council and five district councils, and two unitary authority areas (whose councils combine the functions of a county and a district). The five districts of Somerset are West Somerset, South Somerset, Taunton Deane, Mendip, and Sedgemoor. The two unitary authorities — which were established on 1 April 1996 following the break-up of the short-lived county of Avon — are North Somerset, and Bath & North East Somerset.
What police force covers the ceremonial county
5726ad33708984140094cd99
Somerset is covered by the Avon and Somerset Constabulary, a police force which also covers Bristol and South Gloucestershire
32
False
What fire / rescue squad was formed in 2007
5726ad33708984140094cd9a
The Devon and Somerset Fire and Rescue Service was formed in 2007 upon the merger of the Somerset Fire and Rescue Service with its neighbouring Devon service
159
False
What area does South western Ambulance  Service cover
5726ad33708984140094cd9b
covers the entire South West of England, including all of Somerset
641
False
What is the name of the charitable air ambulance service
5726ad33708984140094cd9c
The Dorset and Somerset Air Ambulance
847
False
2007
220
In what year was the South Western Ambulance Service established?
5acf82a577cf76001a68505a
True
2007
220
In what year was the Avon and Somerset Constabulary formed?
5acf82a577cf76001a68505b
True
charitable
890
What type of organization is the Great Western Ambulance Service?
5acf82a577cf76001a68505c
True
South Western Ambulance Service
609
What ambulance service covers the North West of England?
5acf82a577cf76001a68505d
True
2007
220
In what year was the Dorset and Somerset Air Ambulance organization formed?
5acf82a577cf76001a68505e
True
All of the ceremonial county of Somerset is covered by the Avon and Somerset Constabulary, a police force which also covers Bristol and South Gloucestershire. The Devon and Somerset Fire and Rescue Service was formed in 2007 upon the merger of the Somerset Fire and Rescue Service with its neighbouring Devon service; it covers the area of Somerset County Council as well as the entire ceremonial county of Devon. The unitary districts of North Somerset and Bath & North East Somerset are instead covered by the Avon Fire and Rescue Service, a service which also covers Bristol and South Gloucestershire. The South Western Ambulance Service covers the entire South West of England, including all of Somerset; prior to February 2013 the unitary districts of Somerset came under the Great Western Ambulance Service, which merged into South Western. The Dorset and Somerset Air Ambulance is a charitable organisation based in the county.
Where does the Glastonbury Music festival take place
5726adcff1498d1400e8e6f6
takes place most years in Pilton, near Shepton Mallet
57
False
who holds a literature festival each summer
5726adcff1498d1400e8e6f7
The annual Bath Literature Festival is one of several local festivals in the county
385
False
The annual Carnival is held when and where
5726adcff1498d1400e8e6f8
The annual circuit of West Country Carnivals is held in a variety of Somerset towns during the autumn
615
False
170,000
128
How many people attend the Bath Literature Festival each year?
5acf837477cf76001a685078
True
170,000
128
How many people live in Pilton?
5acf837477cf76001a685079
True
The Glastonbury Festival of Contemporary Performing Arts
0
What is the largest annual music festival in Europe?
5acf837477cf76001a68507a
True
Village Pump Festival
523
What Festival is held in Trowbridge?
5acf837477cf76001a68507b
True
170,000
128
How many people attend the Festival of Lights each year?
5acf837477cf76001a68507c
True
The Glastonbury Festival of Contemporary Performing Arts takes place most years in Pilton, near Shepton Mallet, attracting over 170,000 music and culture lovers from around the world to see world-famous entertainers. The Big Green Gathering which grew out of the Green fields at the Glastonbury Festival is held in the Mendip Hills between Charterhouse and Compton Martin each summer. The annual Bath Literature Festival is one of several local festivals in the county; others include the Frome Festival and the Trowbridge Village Pump Festival, which, despite its name, is held at Farleigh Hungerford in Somerset. The annual circuit of West Country Carnivals is held in a variety of Somerset towns during the autumn, forming a major regional festival, and the largest Festival of Lights in Europe.
What does Artharian legend claim about Glastonbury
5726b087708984140094cde1
Avalon became associated with Glastonbury Tor when monks at Glastonbury Abbey claimed to have discovered the bones of King Arthur and his queen
21
False
What is built in Avalon
5726b087708984140094cde2
the oldest above-ground Christian church in the World" situated "in the mystical land of Avalon
266
False
The Episcopal seat of the Bishop is now where
5726b087708984140094cde3
The Episcopal seat of the Bishop of Bath and Wells is now in the Cathedral Church of Saint Andrew in the city of Wells, having previously been at Bath Abbey
824
False
Where is St Greggorys abbey
5726b087708984140094cde4
is at Stratton-on-the-Fosse, and the ruins of the former Cistercian Cleeve Abbey are near the village of Washford
1197
False
AD 63
435
In what year was Glastonbury Abbey built?
5acf84ba77cf76001a685094
True
700
244
In what year was Muchelney Abbey built?
5acf84ba77cf76001a685095
True
Dorset
816
Where was Woodspring Priory?
5acf84ba77cf76001a685096
True
Stratton-on-the-Fosse
1203
Where was Muchelney Abbey?
5acf84ba77cf76001a685097
True
700
244
In what year was Saint Gregory's Abbey built?
5acf84ba77cf76001a685098
True
In Arthurian legend, Avalon became associated with Glastonbury Tor when monks at Glastonbury Abbey claimed to have discovered the bones of King Arthur and his queen. What is more certain is that Glastonbury was an important religious centre by 700 and claims to be "the oldest above-ground Christian church in the World" situated "in the mystical land of Avalon." The claim is based on dating the founding of the community of monks at AD 63, the year of the legendary visit of Joseph of Arimathea, who was supposed to have brought the Holy Grail. During the Middle Ages there were also important religious sites at Woodspring Priory and Muchelney Abbey. The present Diocese of Bath and Wells covers Somerset – with the exception of the Parish of Abbots Leigh with Leigh Woods in North Somerset – and a small area of Dorset. The Episcopal seat of the Bishop of Bath and Wells is now in the Cathedral Church of Saint Andrew in the city of Wells, having previously been at Bath Abbey. Before the English Reformation, it was a Roman Catholic diocese; the county now falls within the Roman Catholic Diocese of Clifton. The Benedictine monastery Saint Gregory's Abbey, commonly known as Downside Abbey, is at Stratton-on-the-Fosse, and the ruins of the former Cistercian Cleeve Abbey are near the village of Washford.
What some of the Museums in Bath
5726b142f1498d1400e8e7a2
American Museum in Britain, the Museum of Bath Architecture, the Herschel Museum of Astronomy, the Jane Austen Centre, and the Roman Baths
58
False
What are some other attractions
5726b142f1498d1400e8e7a3
Claverton Pumping Station, Dunster Working Watermill, the Fleet Air Arm Museum at Yeovilton, Nunney Castle, The Helicopter Museum in Weston-super-Mare
283
False
Where is the Museum of Somerset
5726b142f1498d1400e8e7a4
in Taunton
535
False
What is the name of the museum in Glastonbury
5726b142f1498d1400e8e7a5
the Somerset Rural Life Museum in Glastonbury
547
False
Herschel Museum of Astronomy
123
What is the largest museum in Somerset?
5acf861a77cf76001a6850bc
True
Radstock Museum
499
What is the smallest museum in Somerset?
5acf861a77cf76001a6850bd
True
Jane Austen Centre
157
What is the most visited museum in Somerset?
5acf861a77cf76001a6850be
True
American Museum in Britain
58
Which Somerset museum has the most valuable collection?
5acf861a77cf76001a6850bf
True
Dunster Working Watermill
310
Which Somerset museum has the most extensive collection?
5acf861a77cf76001a6850c0
True
The county has several museums; those at Bath include the American Museum in Britain, the Museum of Bath Architecture, the Herschel Museum of Astronomy, the Jane Austen Centre, and the Roman Baths. Other visitor attractions which reflect the cultural heritage of the county include: Claverton Pumping Station, Dunster Working Watermill, the Fleet Air Arm Museum at Yeovilton, Nunney Castle, The Helicopter Museum in Weston-super-Mare, King John's Hunting Lodge in Axbridge, Blake Museum Bridgwater, Radstock Museum, Museum of Somerset in Taunton, the Somerset Rural Life Museum in Glastonbury, and Westonzoyland Pumping Station Museum.
How many listed buildings in Somerset
5726b2165951b619008f7ad5
Somerset has 11,500 listed buildings
0
False
How many monuments on Somerset
5726b2165951b619008f7ad6
523 scheduled monuments
38
False
What is a key type of Architecture in Somerset
5726b2165951b619008f7ad7
its medieval church towers
615
False
Name some historic private houses in the county
5726b2165951b619008f7ad8
Halswell House and Marston Bigot.
534
False
Prior Park Landscape Garden
163
What is the most visited park and garden in Somerset?
5acf88e277cf76001a68515e
True
Tintinhull Garden
195
What is the biggest part in Somerset?
5acf88e277cf76001a68515f
True
Montacute House
307
What is the most visited National Trust site in Somerset?
5acf88e277cf76001a685160
True
Stembridge Tower Mill
350
What is the largest National Trust site in Somerset?
5acf88e277cf76001a685161
True
Clevedon Court
279
What is the most valuable National Trust site in Somerset?
5acf88e277cf76001a685162
True
Somerset has 11,500 listed buildings, 523 scheduled monuments, 192 conservation areas, 41 parks and gardens including those at Barrington Court, Holnicote Estate, Prior Park Landscape Garden and Tintinhull Garden, 36 English Heritage sites and 19 National Trust sites, including Clevedon Court, Fyne Court, Montacute House and Tyntesfield as well as Stembridge Tower Mill, the last remaining thatched windmill in England. Other historic houses in the county which have remained in private ownership or used for other purposes include Halswell House and Marston Bigot. A key contribution of Somerset architecture is its medieval church towers. Jenkins writes, "These structures, with their buttresses, bell-opening tracery and crowns, rank with Nottinghamshire alabaster as England's finest contribution to medieval art."
Where does the rugby team play
5726b346dd62a815002e8d4c
Bath Rugby play at the Recreation Ground in Bath
0
False
The county's first football team is
5726b346dd62a815002e8d4d
Yeovil Town won promotion to Division Three as Football Conference champions
193
False
When did yeovil achieve promotion to the champion league
5726b346dd62a815002e8d4e
Yeovil achieved promotion to the Championship in 2013 after beating Brentford in the playoff final
614
False
Where are the horse races held
5726b346dd62a815002e8d4f
Horse racing courses are at Taunton and Wincanton
714
False
2003
182
In what year did Blackpool acquire a Football League club?
5acf8a0277cf76001a685172
True
2003
182
In what year did horse racing start in Wincanton?
5acf8a0277cf76001a685173
True
2003
182
In what year was the Recreating Ground in Bath established?
5acf8a0277cf76001a685174
True
Brentford
682
What is one of the teams the Yeovil Town have beaten for a FA cup victory?
5acf8a0277cf76001a685175
True
Blackpool
565
Who did Yeovil Town beat in the 2005 championship game?
5acf8a0277cf76001a685176
True
Bath Rugby play at the Recreation Ground in Bath, and the Somerset County Cricket Club are based at the County Ground in Taunton. The county gained its first Football League club in 2003, when Yeovil Town won promotion to Division Three as Football Conference champions. They had achieved numerous FA Cup victories over football League sides in the past 50 years, and since joining the elite they have won promotion again—as League Two champions in 2005. They came close to yet another promotion in 2007, when they reached the League One playoff final, but lost to Blackpool at the newly reopened Wembley Stadium. Yeovil achieved promotion to the Championship in 2013 after beating Brentford in the playoff final. Horse racing courses are at Taunton and Wincanton.
Why was the Somerset county Canal built
5726b4e8dd62a815002e8d84
to reduce the cost of transportation of coal and other heavy produce
60
False
What was in use along the canal
5726b4e8dd62a815002e8d85
several tramways
308
False
What was never built
5726b4e8dd62a815002e8d86
A planned 11.7 km (7.3 mi) branch to Midford was never built
326
False
What was laid on the path to Midford
5726b4e8dd62a815002e8d87
in 1815 a tramway was laid along its towing path
392
False
Who purchased the tramway in 1871
5726b4e8dd62a815002e8d88
In 1871 the tramway was purchased by the Somerset and Dorset Joint Railway (S&DJR), and operated until the 1950s
442
False
Somerset and Dorset Joint Railway
483
Who built the Somerset Coal Canal?
5acf8af377cf76001a685186
True
1805
288
In what year had it been planned to build a branch to Midford?
5acf8af377cf76001a685187
True
1871
445
In what year were the several tramways completed?
5acf8af377cf76001a685188
True
1805
288
In what year was Paulton established?
5acf8af377cf76001a685189
True
The Somerset Coal Canal was built in the early 19th century to reduce the cost of transportation of coal and other heavy produce. The first 16 kilometres (10 mi), running from a junction with the Kennet and Avon Canal, along the Cam valley, to a terminal basin at Paulton, were in use by 1805, together with several tramways. A planned 11.7 km (7.3 mi) branch to Midford was never built, but in 1815 a tramway was laid along its towing path. In 1871 the tramway was purchased by the Somerset and Dorset Joint Railway (S&DJR), and operated until the 1950s.
How long were canals used
5726b5ea5951b619008f7b73
usefulness of the canals was short-lived, though some have now been restored for recreation
4
False
What was built int the 19th century
5726b5ea5951b619008f7b74
19th century also saw the construction of railways to and through Somerset
101
False
How many railways served the county
5726b5ea5951b619008f7b75
The county was served by five pre-1923 Grouping railway companies
177
False
Were any of the railways  electrified
5726b5ea5951b619008f7b76
None of these lines, in Somerset, are electrified.
837
False
What railways lines are still in use today
5726b5ea5951b619008f7b77
The former main lines of the GWR are still in use today, although many of its branch lines were scrapped under the notorious Beeching Axe
452
False
London
410
Where does the Great Western Railway go to from Somerset?
5acf8d5577cf76001a685200
True
1923
211
In what year was the Beeching Axe?
5acf8d5577cf76001a685201
True
1923
211
In what year was the Dorset Joint Railway closed?
5acf8d5577cf76001a685202
True
West of England Main Line
810
Which of these lines are electrified outside of Somerset?
5acf8d5577cf76001a685203
True
Grouping railway companies
216
Who now owns the West Somerset Railway?
5acf8d5577cf76001a685204
True
The usefulness of the canals was short-lived, though some have now been restored for recreation. The 19th century also saw the construction of railways to and through Somerset. The county was served by five pre-1923 Grouping railway companies: the Great Western Railway (GWR); a branch of the Midland Railway (MR) to Bath Green Park (and another one to Bristol); the Somerset and Dorset Joint Railway, and the London and South Western Railway (L&SWR). The former main lines of the GWR are still in use today, although many of its branch lines were scrapped under the notorious Beeching Axe. The former lines of the Somerset and Dorset Joint Railway closed completely, as has the branch of the Midland Railway to Bath Green Park (and to Bristol St Philips); however, the L&SWR survived as a part of the present West of England Main Line. None of these lines, in Somerset, are electrified. Two branch lines, the West and East Somerset Railways, were rescued and transferred back to private ownership as "heritage" lines. The fifth railway was a short-lived light railway, the Weston, Clevedon and Portishead Light Railway. The West Somerset Mineral Railway carried the iron ore from the Brendon Hills to Watchet.
What  did paddle streamers serve until the 1960's
5726b6ba708984140094cead
the piers at Weston-super-Mare, Clevedon, Portishead and Minehead were served by the paddle steamers of P and A Campbell
16
False
What was the pier on Burnham -on-sea used for
5726b6ba708984140094ceae
The pier at Burnham-on-Sea was used for commercial goods
223
False
What is the shortest pier in the UK
5726b6ba708984140094ceaf
The pier at Burnham-on-Sea is the shortest pier in the UK
417
False
What was constructed in the 1970's
5726b6ba708984140094ceb0
In the 1970s the Royal Portbury Dock was constructed to provide extra capacity for the Port of Bristol
476
False
Weston-super-Mare
29
What pier in Somerset could accommodate the biggest ships?
5acf8e4477cf76001a68524e
True
commercial goods
263
What were the piers at Barry primarily used for?
5acf8e4477cf76001a68524f
True
Cardiff
175
What is the longest pier in Somerset?
5acf8e4477cf76001a685250
True
1970s
483
In what decade was the Lundy Island pier built?
5acf8e4477cf76001a685251
True
1970s
483
In what decade was the Portishead pier closed?
5acf8e4477cf76001a685252
True
Until the 1960s the piers at Weston-super-Mare, Clevedon, Portishead and Minehead were served by the paddle steamers of P and A Campbell who ran regular services to Barry and Cardiff as well as Ilfracombe and Lundy Island. The pier at Burnham-on-Sea was used for commercial goods, one of the reasons for the Somerset and Dorset Joint Railway was to provide a link between the Bristol Channel and the English Channel. The pier at Burnham-on-Sea is the shortest pier in the UK. In the 1970s the Royal Portbury Dock was constructed to provide extra capacity for the Port of Bristol.
What are the  state schools in somerset
5726b792dd62a815002e8de2
Bath and North East Somerset, North Somerset, and the larger Somerset County Council
77
False
What are the 3 tiers of school
5726b792dd62a815002e8de3
a three-tier system of first, middle and upper schools in the Cheddar Valley, and in West Somerset
342
False
How many state and independent secondary  schools in Somerset
5726b792dd62a815002e8de4
Somerset has 30 state and 17 independent secondary schools
506
False
17
532
What is the average class size in Somerset independent secondary schools?
5acf8f1b77cf76001a685262
True
30
519
What is the average class size in Somerset state secondary schools?
5acf8f1b77cf76001a685263
True
5
612
How many schools are in Cheddar Valley?
5acf8f1b77cf76001a685264
True
13
599
How many state secondary schools are there in Bath?
5acf8f1b77cf76001a685265
True
17
532
How many private secondary schools are there in North Somerset?
5acf8f1b77cf76001a685266
True
State schools in Somerset are provided by three local education authorities: Bath and North East Somerset, North Somerset, and the larger Somerset County Council. All state schools are comprehensive. In some areas primary, infant and junior schools cater for ages four to eleven, after which the pupils move on to secondary schools. There is a three-tier system of first, middle and upper schools in the Cheddar Valley, and in West Somerset, while most other schools in the county use the two-tier system. Somerset has 30 state and 17 independent secondary schools; Bath and North East Somerset has 13 state and 5 independent secondary schools; and North Somerset has 10 state and 2 independent secondary schools, excluding sixth form colleges.
What schools can trace their origins back
5726b85cf1498d1400e8e8d8
Several schools can trace their origins back many years, such as The Blue School in Wells and Richard Huish College in Taunton
153
False
What was the original name of the Beechen Cliff School
5726b85cf1498d1400e8e8d9
started in 1905 as the City of Bath Boys' School
367
False
In 2006 Somerset students performed how well compared to England as a whole
5726b85cf1498d1400e8e8da
In 2006, 5,900 pupils in Somerset sat GCSE examinations, with 44.5% achieving 5 grades A-C including English and Maths (compared to 45.8% for England).
633
False
1905
378
In what year was The Blue School established?
5acf926d77cf76001a6852d4
True
1972
451
In what year did Richard Huish College open its doors?
5acf926d77cf76001a6852d5
True
45.8%
765
At The Blue School what is the percentage of students achieve 5 grades A-C?
5acf926d77cf76001a6852d6
True
44.5%
695
What 5 grades A-C percentage to they get at City of Bath Boys' School?
5acf926d77cf76001a6852d7
True
5,900
642
How many students attend the Richard Huish College?
5acf926d77cf76001a6852d8
True
Some of the county's secondary schools have specialist school status. Some schools have sixth forms and others transfer their sixth formers to colleges. Several schools can trace their origins back many years, such as The Blue School in Wells and Richard Huish College in Taunton. Others have changed their names over the years such as Beechen Cliff School which was started in 1905 as the City of Bath Boys' School and changed to its present name in 1972 when the grammar school was amalgamated with a local secondary modern school, to form a comprehensive school. Many others were established and built since the Second World War. In 2006, 5,900 pupils in Somerset sat GCSE examinations, with 44.5% achieving 5 grades A-C including English and Maths (compared to 45.8% for England).
What school in Bruton was given royal  foundation status
5726ba17dd62a815002e8e4e
King's School, Bruton, was founded in 1519 and received royal foundation status around 30 years later
162
False
What are some prepatory schools for younger students
5726ba17dd62a815002e8e4f
such as All Hallows, and Hazlegrove Preparatory School
405
False
What is one of the Musical schools
5726ba17dd62a815002e8e50
Wells Cathedral School which is one of the five established musical schools for school-age children in Britain
698
False
What is a roman catholic school
5726ba17dd62a815002e8e51
Downside School which is a Roman Catholic public school in Stratton-on-the-Fosse
984
False
1519
200
In what year did Edward VI begin his reign?
5acf934a77cf76001a6852fc
True
1519
200
In what year was All Hallows established?
5acf934a77cf76001a6852fd
True
7 to 16
535
What age children are taught at Monkton Combe School?
5acf934a77cf76001a6852fe
True
4 years through to 18
610
What age children are taught at Sidcot School?
5acf934a77cf76001a6852ff
True
1748
1173
In what year was Monkton Combe School founded?
5acf934a77cf76001a685300
True
There is also a range of independent or public schools. Many of these are for pupils between 11 and 18 years, such as King's College, Taunton and Taunton School. King's School, Bruton, was founded in 1519 and received royal foundation status around 30 years later in the reign of Edward VI. Millfield is the largest co-educational boarding school. There are also preparatory schools for younger children, such as All Hallows, and Hazlegrove Preparatory School. Chilton Cantelo School offers places both to day pupils and boarders aged 7 to 16. Other schools provide education for children from the age of 3 or 4 years through to 18, such as King Edward's School, Bath, Queen's College, Taunton and Wells Cathedral School which is one of the five established musical schools for school-age children in Britain. Some of these schools have religious affiliations, such as Monkton Combe School, Prior Park College, Sidcot School which is associated with the Religious Society of Friends, Downside School which is a Roman Catholic public school in Stratton-on-the-Fosse, situated next to the Benedictine Downside Abbey, and Kingswood School, which was founded by John Wesley in 1748 in Kingswood near Bristol, originally for the education of the sons of the itinerant ministers (clergy) of the Methodist Church.
What University are in Bath
5726baf35951b619008f7c29
The University of Bath and Bath Spa University are higher education establishments in the north-east of the county
0
False
When did the university of Bath gain royal charter
5726baf35951b619008f7c2a
The University of Bath gained its Royal Charter in 1966, although its origins go back to the Bristol Trade School
116
False
Bath school of pharmacy founded in
5726baf35951b619008f7c2b
Bath School of Pharmacy (founded 1907
249
False
When did Bath Spa Gain University status
5726baf35951b619008f7c2c
achieved university status in 2005
437
False
1966
167
In what year did the Bristol Trade School become part of the University of Bath?
5acf940077cf76001a68531a
True
5,500
640
How many students attend the Bath Teacher Training School?
5acf940077cf76001a68531b
True
1898
532
In what year was the Bath Teacher Training College established?
5acf940077cf76001a68531c
True
1966
167
In what year did the Bath School of Pharmacy become part of the University of Bath?
5acf940077cf76001a68531d
True
1907
282
In what year was the Bath College of Higher Education established?
5acf940077cf76001a68531e
True
The University of Bath and Bath Spa University are higher education establishments in the north-east of the county. The University of Bath gained its Royal Charter in 1966, although its origins go back to the Bristol Trade School (founded 1856) and Bath School of Pharmacy (founded 1907). It has a purpose-built campus at Claverton on the outskirts of Bath, and has 15,000 students. Bath Spa University, which is based at Newton St Loe, achieved university status in 2005, and has origins including the Bath Academy of Art (founded 1898), Bath Teacher Training College, and the Bath College of Higher Education. It has several campuses and 5,500 students.
Yale_University
When was the Collegiate School of Saybrook Colony founded?
57268a89dd62a815002e88c4
1701
108
False
When was the Collegiate School renamed to Yale College?
57268a89dd62a815002e88c5
1718
286
False
Why was the school named Yale College?
57268a89dd62a815002e88c6
recognition of a gift from Elihu Yale
294
False
When did Yale first incorporate humanities and sciences?
57268a89dd62a815002e88c7
by 1777
468
False
When did Yale issue the first Ph.D in the United States?
57268a89dd62a815002e88c8
1861
678
False
1701
108
When was the Collegiate School of Saybrook Colony closed?
5ad3d121604f3c001a3ff1eb
True
1718
286
When wasn't the Collegiate School renamed to Yale College?
5ad3d121604f3c001a3ff1ec
True
recognition of a gift from Elihu Yale
294
Why wasn't the school named Yale College?
5ad3d121604f3c001a3ff1ed
True
by 1777
468
When did Yale last incorporate humanities and sciences?
5ad3d121604f3c001a3ff1ee
True
1861
678
When did Yale issue the last Ph.D in the United States?
5ad3d121604f3c001a3ff1ef
True
Yale University is an American private Ivy League research university in New Haven, Connecticut. Founded in 1701 in Saybrook Colony as the Collegiate School, the University is the third-oldest institution of higher education in the United States. The school was renamed Yale College in 1718 in recognition of a gift from Elihu Yale, who was governor of the British East India Company. Established to train Congregationalist ministers in theology and sacred languages, by 1777 the school's curriculum began to incorporate humanities and sciences. In the 19th century the school incorporated graduate and professional instruction, awarding the first Ph.D. in the United States in 1861 and organizing as a university in 1887.
How many schools is Yale composed of?
57268eb6708984140094ca09
fourteen
23
False
How much is Yale's endowment worth?
57268eb6708984140094ca0a
$25.6 billion
584
False
How many books are in the Yale University Library?
57268eb6708984140094ca0b
15 million
748
False
Who runs Yale College?
57268eb6708984140094ca0c
Yale Corporation
209
False
Where is the main Yale campus?
57268eb6708984140094ca0d
downtown New Haven
329
False
fourteen
23
How many schools isn't Yale composed of?
5ad3d182604f3c001a3ff207
True
$25.6 billion
584
How much isn't Yale's endowment worth?
5ad3d182604f3c001a3ff208
True
15 million
748
How many books are in the Yale University Labratory?
5ad3d182604f3c001a3ff209
True
Yale Corporation
209
Who doesn't run Yale College?
5ad3d182604f3c001a3ff20a
True
downtown New Haven
329
Where is the side Yale campus?
5ad3d182604f3c001a3ff20b
True
Yale is organized into fourteen constituent schools: the original undergraduate college, the Yale Graduate School of Arts and Sciences, and twelve professional schools. While the university is governed by the Yale Corporation, each school's faculty oversees its curriculum and degree programs. In addition to a central campus in downtown New Haven, the University owns athletic facilities in western New Haven, including the Yale Bowl, a campus in West Haven, Connecticut, and forest and nature preserves throughout New England. The university's assets include an endowment valued at $25.6 billion as of September 2015, the second largest of any educational institution.The Yale University Library, serving all constituent schools, holds more than 15 million volumes and is the third-largest academic library in the United States.
When was "An Act for Liberty to Erect a Collegiate School" approved?
57268ff4dd62a815002e89aa
October 9, 1701
141
False
Who voted on "An Act for Liberty to Erect a Collegiate School"?
57268ff4dd62a815002e89ab
General Court of the Colony of Connecticut
95
False
What was the name of the group that started Yale's library?
57268ff4dd62a815002e89ac
The Founders
736
False
Why was "An Act for Liberty to Erect a Collegiate School" proposed?
57268ff4dd62a815002e89ad
to create an institution to train ministers and lay leadership for Connecticut
208
False
Where did "The Founders" go to school?
57268ff4dd62a815002e89ae
Harvard
556
False
October 9, 1701
141
When was "An Act for Liberty to Erect a Collegiate School" disapproved?
5ad3d1e1604f3c001a3ff221
True
General Court of the Colony of Connecticut
95
Who never voted on "An Act for Liberty to Erect a Collegiate School"?
5ad3d1e1604f3c001a3ff222
True
The Founders
736
What was the name of the group that ended Yale's library?
5ad3d1e1604f3c001a3ff223
True
to create an institution to train ministers and lay leadership for Connecticut
208
Why was "An Act for Liberty to Erect a Collegiate School" rejected?
5ad3d1e1604f3c001a3ff224
True
Harvard
556
Where didn't "The Founders" go to school?
5ad3d1e1604f3c001a3ff225
True
Yale traces its beginnings to "An Act for Liberty to Erect a Collegiate School," passed by the General Court of the Colony of Connecticut on October 9, 1701, while meeting in New Haven. The Act was an effort to create an institution to train ministers and lay leadership for Connecticut. Soon thereafter, a group of ten Congregationalist ministers: Samuel Andrew, Thomas Buckingham, Israel Chauncy, Samuel Mather, Rev. James Noyes II (son of James Noyes), James Pierpont, Abraham Pierson, Noadiah Russell, Joseph Webb and Timothy Woodbridge, all alumni of Harvard, met in the study of Reverend Samuel Russell in Branford, Connecticut, to pool their books to form the school's library. The group, led by James Pierpont, is now known as "The Founders".[citation needed]
Where did Elihu Yale grow up?
57269289dd62a815002e89fc
Wales
179
False
Where was Elihu Yale born?
57269289dd62a815002e89fd
Boston
206
False
What was Elihu Yale's father's name?
57269289dd62a815002e89fe
David
231
False
Who suggested the new name of Yale?
57269289dd62a815002e89ff
Cotton Mather
620
False
How many books were in the 1714 shipment to Yale?
57269289dd62a815002e8a00
500
845
False
Wales
179
Where did Elihu Yale die?
5ad3d244604f3c001a3ff23b
True
Boston
206
Where wasn't Elihu Yale born?
5ad3d244604f3c001a3ff23c
True
David
231
What was Elihu Yale's father's nickname?
5ad3d244604f3c001a3ff23d
True
Cotton Mather
620
Who suggested the old name of Yale?
5ad3d244604f3c001a3ff23e
True
500
845
How many books were in the 1741 shipment to Yale?
5ad3d244604f3c001a3ff23f
True
In 1718, at the behest of either Rector Samuel Andrew or the colony's Governor Gurdon Saltonstall, Cotton Mather contacted a successful businessman named Elihu Yale, who lived in Wales but had been born in Boston and whose father, David, had been one of the original settlers in New Haven, to ask him for financial help in constructing a new building for the college. Through the persuasion of Jeremiah Dummer, Yale, who had made a fortune through trade while living in Madras as a representative of the East India Company, donated nine bales of goods, which were sold for more than £560, a substantial sum at the time. Cotton Mather suggested that the school change its name to Yale College. Meanwhile, a Harvard graduate working in England convinced some 180 prominent intellectuals that they should donate books to Yale. The 1714 shipment of 500 books represented the best of modern English literature, science, philosophy and theology. It had a profound effect on intellectuals at Yale. Undergraduate Jonathan Edwards discovered John Locke's works and developed his original theology known as the "new divinity." In 1722 the Rector and six of his friends, who had a study group to discuss the new ideas, announced that they had given up Calvinism, become Arminians, and joined the Church of England. They were ordained in England and returned to the colonies as missionaries for the Anglican faith. Thomas Clapp became president in 1745, and struggled to return the college to Calvinist orthodoxy; but he did not close the library. Other students found Deist books in the library.
When was Ezra Stiles president of Yale?
572693b7708984140094caaf
1778 to 1795
274
False
What course did Ezra Stiles require freshmen to take?
572693b7708984140094cab0
Hebrew
483
False
When did the British threaten to take over the college?
572693b7708984140094cab1
July 1779
706
False
Who saved Yale from the British raid?
572693b7708984140094cab2
Edmund Fanning
822
False
What degree was Edmund Fanning given for his services?
572693b7708984140094cab3
an honorary degree LL.D
965
False
1778 to 1795
274
When was Ezra Stiles vice president of Yale?
5ad3d2a6604f3c001a3ff24d
True
Hebrew
325
What course did Ezra Stiles require seniors to take?
5ad3d2a6604f3c001a3ff24e
True
July 1779
706
When did the British threaten to destroy the college?
5ad3d2a6604f3c001a3ff24f
True
Edmund Fanning
822
Who saved Yale from the French raid?
5ad3d2a6604f3c001a3ff250
True
an honorary degree LL.D.
965
What degree was Edmund Fanning stripped of for his services?
5ad3d2a6604f3c001a3ff251
True
Serious American students of theology and divinity, particularly in New England, regarded Hebrew as a classical language, along with Greek and Latin, and essential for study of the Old Testament in the original words. The Reverend Ezra Stiles, president of the College from 1778 to 1795, brought with him his interest in the Hebrew language as a vehicle for studying ancient Biblical texts in their original language (as was common in other schools), requiring all freshmen to study Hebrew (in contrast to Harvard, where only upperclassmen were required to study the language) and is responsible for the Hebrew phrase אורים ותמים (Urim and Thummim) on the Yale seal. Stiles' greatest challenge occurred in July 1779 when hostile British forces occupied New Haven and threatened to raze the College. However, Yale graduate Edmund Fanning, Secretary to the British General in command of the occupation, interceded and the College was saved. Fanning later was granted an honorary degree LL.D., at 1803, for his efforts.
When did William Graham Sumner teach?
572697f6dd62a815002e8a8e
1872 to 1909
1371
False
What did William Graham Sumner teach?
572697f6dd62a815002e8a8f
economics and sociology
1423
False
Why was The Yale Report established?
572697f6dd62a815002e8a90
the classics would not be abandoned
568
False
What were the group of Yale professors and ministers attempting to achieve?
572697f6dd62a815002e8a91
developing a whole man possessed of religious values sufficiently strong to resist temptations
1091
False
What changes were the professors and ministers responding to?
572697f6dd62a815002e8a92
Victorian culture
1051
False
1872 to 1909
1371
When did William Graham Winter teach?
5ad3d344604f3c001a3ff27f
True
economics and sociology
1423
What didn't William Graham Sumner teach?
5ad3d344604f3c001a3ff280
True
the classics would not be abandoned
568
Why was The Yale Report closed?
5ad3d344604f3c001a3ff281
True
developing a whole man possessed of religious values sufficiently strong to resist temptations
1091
What weren't the group of Yale professors and ministers attempting to achieve?
5ad3d344604f3c001a3ff282
True
Victorian culture
1051
What changes weren't the professors and ministers responding to?
5ad3d344604f3c001a3ff283
True
The Yale Report of 1828 was a dogmatic defense of the Latin and Greek curriculum against critics who wanted more courses in modern languages, mathematics, and science. Unlike higher education in Europe, there was no national curriculum for colleges and universities in the United States. In the competition for students and financial support, college leaders strove to keep current with demands for innovation. At the same time, they realized that a significant portion of their students and prospective students demanded a classical background. The Yale report meant the classics would not be abandoned. All institutions experimented with changes in the curriculum, often resulting in a dual track. In the decentralized environment of higher education in the United States, balancing change with tradition was a common challenge because no one could afford to be completely modern or completely classical. A group of professors at Yale and New Haven Congregationalist ministers articulated a conservative response to the changes brought about by the Victorian culture. They concentrated on developing a whole man possessed of religious values sufficiently strong to resist temptations from within, yet flexible enough to adjust to the 'isms' (professionalism, materialism, individualism, and consumerism) tempting him from without. William Graham Sumner, professor from 1872 to 1909, taught in the emerging disciplines of economics and sociology to overflowing classrooms. He bested President Noah Porter, who disliked social science and wanted Yale to lock into its traditions of classical education. Porter objected to Sumner's use of a textbook by Herbert Spencer that espoused agnostic materialism because it might harm students.
What was Nathan Hale famous for?
57269a03708984140094cb57
Revolutionary War soldier
4
False
What profession did Frederic Remington hold?
57269a03708984140094cb58
artist
332
False
What was the name of the protagonist of "Stover at Yale"?
57269a03708984140094cb59
Frank Stover
555
False
What turned into the goal of the student body?
57269a03708984140094cb5a
winning the big game
763
False
What were the subjects of Frederic Remington's paintings?
57269a03708984140094cb5b
heroes gloried in combat and tests of strength in the Wild West
345
False
Revolutionary War soldier
4
What was Nathan Hale not famous for?
5ad3d398604f3c001a3ff289
True
artist
332
What profession did Frederic Remington reject?
5ad3d398604f3c001a3ff28a
True
Frank Stover
555
What was the name of the antagonist of "Stover at Yale"?
5ad3d398604f3c001a3ff28b
True
winning the big game
763
What turned into the goal of the faculty?
5ad3d398604f3c001a3ff28c
True
heroes gloried in combat and tests of strength in the Wild West
345
What were the obbjects of Frederic Remington's paintings?
5ad3d398604f3c001a3ff28d
True
The Revolutionary War soldier Nathan Hale (Yale 1773) was the prototype of the Yale ideal in the early 19th century: a manly yet aristocratic scholar, equally well-versed in knowledge and sports, and a patriot who "regretted" that he "had but one life to lose" for his country. Western painter Frederic Remington (Yale 1900) was an artist whose heroes gloried in combat and tests of strength in the Wild West. The fictional, turn-of-the-20th-century Yale man Frank Merriwell embodied the heroic ideal without racial prejudice, and his fictional successor Frank Stover in the novel Stover at Yale (1911) questioned the business mentality that had become prevalent at the school. Increasingly the students turned to athletic stars as their heroes, especially since winning the big game became the goal of the student body, and the alumni, as well as the team itself.
In what year was the first debate between Harvard, Yale, and Princeton?
57269c77f1498d1400e8e4d4
1909
89
False
When was the first debate between Harvard and Yale?
57269c77f1498d1400e8e4d5
1892
8
False
How were debates shown to the college students?
57269c77f1498d1400e8e4d6
front pages of college newspapers
289
False
What did members of the debate team get for their service?
57269c77f1498d1400e8e4d7
the equivalent of athletic letters for their jackets
383
False
Why do debates not have a distinct winner?
57269c77f1498d1400e8e4d8
scoring is subjective
671
False
1909
89
In what year was the last debate between Harvard, Yale, and Princeton?
5ad3d3ec604f3c001a3ff29d
True
1892
8
When was the last debate between Harvard and Yale?
5ad3d3ec604f3c001a3ff29e
True
front pages of college newspapers
289
How were debates shown to the college faculty?
5ad3d3ec604f3c001a3ff29f
True
equivalent of athletic letters for their jackets
387
What did fans of the debate team get for their service?
5ad3d3ec604f3c001a3ff2a0
True
scoring is subjective
671
Why do debates have a distinct winner?
5ad3d3ec604f3c001a3ff2a1
True
Between 1892, when Harvard and Yale met in one of the first intercollegiate debates, and 1909, the year of the first Triangular Debate of Harvard, Yale, and Princeton, the rhetoric, symbolism, and metaphors used in athletics were used to frame these early debates. Debates were covered on front pages of college newspapers and emphasized in yearbooks, and team members even received the equivalent of athletic letters for their jackets. There even were rallies sending off the debating teams to matches. Yet, the debates never attained the broad appeal that athletics enjoyed. One reason may be that debates do not have a clear winner, as is the case in sports, and that scoring is subjective. In addition, with late 19th-century concerns about the impact of modern life on the human body, athletics offered hope that neither the individual nor the society was coming apart.
Who attempted to enact measures of football reform?
57269e6bdd62a815002e8b1a
the presidents of Harvard, Yale, and Princeton
218
False
What did the rebellion to the new football measures start?
57269e6bdd62a815002e8b1b
Intercollegiate Athletic Association
632
False
Who was president of Yale during the rebellion?
57269e6bdd62a815002e8b1c
Arthur Hadley
391
False
Who represented Harvard during the rule changing debates?
57269e6bdd62a815002e8b1d
A. Lawrence Lowell
414
False
Who represented Princeton during the rule changing discussions?
57269e6bdd62a815002e8b1e
Woodrow Wilson
449
False
the presidents of Harvard, Yale, and Princeton
218
Who attempted to enact measures of soccer reform?
5ad3d467604f3c001a3ff2a7
True
Intercollegiate Athletic Association
632
What did the rebellion to the old football measures start?
5ad3d467604f3c001a3ff2a8
True
Arthur Hadley
391
Who was vice president of Yale during the rebellion?
5ad3d467604f3c001a3ff2a9
True
A. Lawrence Lowell
414
Who represented Harvard after the rule changing debates?
5ad3d467604f3c001a3ff2aa
True
Woodrow Wilson
449
Who represented Princeton before the rule changing discussions?
5ad3d467604f3c001a3ff2ab
True
In 1909–10, football faced a crisis resulting from the failure of the previous reforms of 1905–06 to solve the problem of serious injuries. There was a mood of alarm and mistrust, and, while the crisis was developing, the presidents of Harvard, Yale, and Princeton developed a project to reform the sport and forestall possible radical changes forced by government upon the sport. President Arthur Hadley of Yale, A. Lawrence Lowell of Harvard, and Woodrow Wilson of Princeton worked to develop moderate changes to reduce injuries. Their attempts, however, were reduced by rebellion against the rules committee and formation of the Intercollegiate Athletic Association. The big three had tried to operate independently of the majority, but changes did reduce injuries.
When was the Yale School of Medicine established?
5726a0605951b619008f7825
1810
67
False
When was Yale Divinity School established?
5726a0605951b619008f7826
1822
96
False
When was Yale Law School created?
5726a0605951b619008f7827
1843
120
False
When was Yale Graduate Schools and Arts and Sciences established?
5726a0605951b619008f7828
(1847
169
False
When was the Sheffield Scientific School created?
5726a0605951b619008f7829
1847
210
False
1810
67
When was the Yale School of Medicine closed?
5ad3d4df604f3c001a3ff2bb
True
1822
96
When was Yale Divinity School closed?
5ad3d4df604f3c001a3ff2bc
True
1843
120
When was Yale Law School closed?
5ad3d4df604f3c001a3ff2bd
True
1847
170
When was Yale Graduate Schools and Arts and Sciences closed?
5ad3d4df604f3c001a3ff2be
True
1847
210
When was the Sheffield Scientific School closed?
5ad3d4df604f3c001a3ff2bf
True
Yale expanded gradually, establishing the Yale School of Medicine (1810), Yale Divinity School (1822), Yale Law School (1843), Yale Graduate School of Arts and Sciences (1847), the Sheffield Scientific School (1847), and the Yale School of Fine Arts (1869). In 1887, as the college continued to grow under the presidency of Timothy Dwight V, Yale College was renamed Yale University. The university would later add the Yale School of Music (1894), the Yale School of Forestry & Environmental Studies (founded by Gifford Pinchot in 1900), the Yale School of Public Health (1915), the Yale School of Nursing (1923), the Yale School of Drama (1955), the Yale Physician Associate Program (1973), and the Yale School of Management (1976). It would also reorganize its relationship with the Sheffield Scientific School.
When was Noah Porter president of Yale?
5726a1f15951b619008f7857
1871 to 1886
104
False
What idea did Noah Porter strike down?
5726a1f15951b619008f7858
new research university
209
False
What did many historians think of Noah Porter?
5726a1f15951b619008f7859
simple-minded reactionary, uncritically committed to tradition
467
False
What was Porter's reason for striking down the research university?
5726a1f15951b619008f785a
an eager embrace of its ideals would corrupt undergraduate education
248
False
What caused disagreement about Yale's new position?
5726a1f15951b619008f785b
Expansion
0
False
1871 to 1886
104
When was Noah Porter vice president of Yale?
5ad3d580604f3c001a3ff2cf
True
new research university
209
What idea did Noah Porter approve?
5ad3d580604f3c001a3ff2d0
True
simple-minded reactionary
467
What did no historians think of Noah Porter?
5ad3d580604f3c001a3ff2d1
True
eager embrace of its ideals would corrupt undergraduate education
251
What was Porter's reason for approving the research university?
5ad3d580604f3c001a3ff2d2
True
Expansion
0
What caused agreement about Yale's new position?
5ad3d580604f3c001a3ff2d3
True
Expansion caused controversy about Yale's new roles. Noah Porter, moral philosopher, was president from 1871 to 1886. During an age of tremendous expansion in higher education, Porter resisted the rise of the new research university, claiming that an eager embrace of its ideals would corrupt undergraduate education. Many of Porter's contemporaries criticized his administration, and historians since have disparaged his leadership. Levesque argues Porter was not a simple-minded reactionary, uncritically committed to tradition, but a principled and selective conservative. He did not endorse everything old or reject everything new; rather, he sought to apply long-established ethical and pedagogical principles to a rapidly changing culture. He may have misunderstood some of the challenges of his time, but he correctly anticipated the enduring tensions that have accompanied the emergence and growth of the modern university.
How much did  philanthropic foundations donate between 1925 and 1940?
5726ae135951b619008f7a15
about $7 million
111
False
What was the $7 million used for?
5726ae135951b619008f7a16
behavioral science research
258
False
What was the goal of the behavioral research?
5726ae135951b619008f7a17
improve mankind
344
False
Who were the behavioral scientists in charge of the research?
5726ae135951b619008f7a18
President James R. Angell and psychobiologist Robert M. Yerkes
464
False
What animals sexual behavior did Yerkes study?
5726ae135951b619008f7a19
chimpanzee
700
False
about $7 million
111
How much did philanthropic foundations donate between 1935 and 1940?
5ad3d622604f3c001a3ff2ef
True
behavioral science research
258
What was the $6 million used for?
5ad3d622604f3c001a3ff2f0
True
improve mankind
344
What wasn't the goal of the behavioral research?
5ad3d622604f3c001a3ff2f1
True
President James R. Angell and psychobiologist Robert M. Yerkes
464
Who were the behavioral students in charge of the research?
5ad3d622604f3c001a3ff2f2
True
chimpanzee
700
What animals eating behavior did Yerkes study?
5ad3d622604f3c001a3ff2f3
True
Between 1925 and 1940, philanthropic foundations, especially ones connected with the Rockefellers, contributed about $7 million to support the Yale Institute of Human Relations and the affiliated Yerkes Laboratories of Primate Biology. The money went toward behavioral science research, which was supported by foundation officers who aimed to "improve mankind" under an informal, loosely defined human engineering effort. The behavioral scientists at Yale, led by President James R. Angell and psychobiologist Robert M. Yerkes, tapped into foundation largesse by crafting research programs aimed to investigate, then suggest, ways to control, sexual and social behavior. For example, Yerkes analyzed chimpanzee sexual behavior in hopes of illuminating the evolutionary underpinnings of human development and providing information that could ameliorate dysfunction. Ultimately, the behavioral-science results disappointed foundation officers, who shifted their human-engineering funds toward biological sciences.
Which group of researchers provided a standard research school environment?
5726b0125951b619008f7a75
Harrison's group
523
False
Which groups of researchers provided unorthodox structure for a research group?
5726b0125951b619008f7a76
Pickford's and Hutchinson's
589
False
What was Pickford's group lacking to make it more like other research schools?
5726b0125951b619008f7a77
departmental or institutional position or power
683
False
What did Hutchinson's group research?
5726b0125951b619008f7a78
diverse areas of ecology
820
False
What information did Hutchinson's model provide?
5726b0125951b619008f7a79
new models for research groups are needed
959
False
Harrison's group
523
Which group of researchers provided a nonstandard research school environment?
5ad3d685604f3c001a3ff303
True
Pickford's and Hutchinson's
589
Which groups of researchers provided orthodox structure for a research group?
5ad3d685604f3c001a3ff304
True
departmental or institutional position or power
683
What was Pickford's group lacking to make it less like other research schools?
5ad3d685604f3c001a3ff305
True
diverse areas of ecology
820
What didn't Hutchinson's group research?
5ad3d685604f3c001a3ff306
True
new models for research groups are needed
959
What information didn't Hutchinson's model provide?
5ad3d685604f3c001a3ff307
True
Slack (2003) compares three groups that conducted biological research at Yale during overlapping periods between 1910 and 1970. Yale proved important as a site for this research. The leaders of these groups were Ross Granville Harrison, Grace E. Pickford, and G. Evelyn Hutchinson, and their members included both graduate students and more experienced scientists. All produced innovative research, including the opening of new subfields in embryology, endocrinology, and ecology, respectively, over a long period of time. Harrison's group is shown to have been a classic research school; Pickford's and Hutchinson's were not. Pickford's group was successful in spite of her lack of departmental or institutional position or power. Hutchinson and his graduate and postgraduate students were extremely productive, but in diverse areas of ecology rather than one focused area of research or the use of one set of research tools. Hutchinson's example shows that new models for research groups are needed, especially for those that include extensive field research.
Who was dean of Yale Medical School from 1920 to 1935?
5726b0b6708984140094cde9
Milton Winternitz
0
False
What was the driving force behind Milton Winternitz's research?
5726b0b6708984140094cdea
social medicine
172
False
What teaching style did Milton Winternitz develop?
5726b0b6708984140094cdeb
Yale System
267
False
What is the Yale System?
5726b0b6708984140094cdec
few lectures and fewer exams, and strengthened the full-time faculty system
298
False
What programs did Milton Winternitz create?
5726b0b6708984140094cded
graduate-level Yale School of Nursing and the Psychiatry Department
395
False
Milton Winternitz
0
Who was dean of Yale Medical School from 1925 to 1935?
5ad3d6fd604f3c001a3ff31f
True
social medicine
172
What wasn't the driving force behind Milton Winternitz's research?
5ad3d6fd604f3c001a3ff320
True
Yale System
267
What teaching style did Milton Winternitz reject?
5ad3d6fd604f3c001a3ff321
True
few lectures and fewer exams, and strengthened the full-time faculty system
298
What isn't the Yale System?
5ad3d6fd604f3c001a3ff322
True
graduate-level Yale School of Nursing and the Psychiatry Department
395
What programs did Milton Winternitz end?
5ad3d6fd604f3c001a3ff323
True
Milton Winternitz led the Yale Medical School as its dean from 1920 to 1935. Dedicated to the new scientific medicine established in Germany, he was equally fervent about "social medicine" and the study of humans in their culture and environment. He established the "Yale System" of teaching, with few lectures and fewer exams, and strengthened the full-time faculty system; he also created the graduate-level Yale School of Nursing and the Psychiatry Department, and built numerous new buildings. Progress toward his plans for an Institute of Human Relations, envisioned as a refuge where social scientists would collaborate with biological scientists in a holistic study of humankind, unfortunately lasted for only a few years before the opposition of resentful anti-Semitic colleagues drove him to resign.
Who was the first professor for the American studies program?
5726b49d708984140094ce69
Norman Holmes Pearson
90
False
Where did Norman Holmes Pearson work before Yale?
5726b49d708984140094ce6a
Office of Strategic Studies in London
132
False
What did the American studies program hope to instruct?
5726b49d708984140094ce6b
fundamentals of American civilization
398
False
Who contributed to the American studies programs at Yale and University of Wyoming?
5726b49d708984140094ce6c
William Robertson Coe
554
False
Why did Coe donate to American studies programs?
5726b49d708984140094ce6d
to celebrate the 'values' of the Western United States
705
False
Norman Holmes Pearson
90
Who was the last professor for the American studies program?
5ad3d749604f3c001a3ff33b
True
Office of Strategic Studies in London
132
Where did Norman Holmes Pearson work after Yale?
5ad3d749604f3c001a3ff33c
True
fundamentals of American civilization
398
What did the American studies program hope to destruct?
5ad3d749604f3c001a3ff33d
True
William Robertson Coe
554
Who contributed to the Canadian studies programs at Yale and University of Wyoming?
5ad3d749604f3c001a3ff33e
True
to celebrate the 'values' of the Western United States
705
Why did Coe not donate to American studies programs?
5ad3d749604f3c001a3ff33f
True
The American studies program reflected the worldwide anti-Communist ideological struggle. Norman Holmes Pearson, who worked for the Office of Strategic Studies in London during World War II, returned to Yale and headed the new American studies program, in which scholarship quickly became an instrument of promoting liberty. Popular among undergraduates, the program sought to instruct them in the fundamentals of American civilization and thereby instill a sense of nationalism and national purpose. Also during the 1940s and 1950s, Wyoming millionaire William Robertson Coe made large contributions to the American studies programs at Yale University and at the University of Wyoming. Coe was concerned to celebrate the 'values' of the Western United States in order to meet the "threat of communism."
What sister school of Yale's considered merger in 1966?
5726b6f85951b619008f7ba3
Vassar College
55
False
Who was the first undergraduate woman at Yale?
5726b6f85951b619008f7ba4
Amy Solomon
444
False
What society did Amy Solomon enroll in at Yale?
5726b6f85951b619008f7ba5
St. Anthony Hall
584
False
What year did the first undergraduate class including women graduate from Yale?
5726b6f85951b619008f7ba6
1973
629
False
Where did undergraduate women live during the first few years of women being allowed to attend Yale?
5726b6f85951b619008f7ba7
Vanderbilt Hall
749
False
Vassar College
55
What sister school of Yale's considered merger in 1996?
5ad3ddcb604f3c001a3ff441
True
Amy Solomon
444
Who was the last undergraduate woman at Yale?
5ad3ddcb604f3c001a3ff442
True
St. Anthony Hall
584
What society did Amy Solomon drop out at Yale?
5ad3ddcb604f3c001a3ff443
True
1973
629
What year did the last undergraduate class including women graduate from Yale?
5ad3ddcb604f3c001a3ff444
True
Vanderbilt Hall
749
Where did undergraduate women live during the last few years of women being allowed to attend Yale?
5ad3ddcb604f3c001a3ff445
True
In 1966, Yale began discussions with its sister school Vassar College about merging to foster coeducation at the undergraduate level. Vassar, then all-female and part of the Seven Sisters—elite higher education schools that historically served as sister institutions to the Ivy League when the Ivy League still only admitted men—tentatively accepted, but then declined the invitation. Both schools introduced coeducation independently in 1969. Amy Solomon was the first woman to register as a Yale undergraduate; she was also the first woman at Yale to join an undergraduate society, St. Anthony Hall. The undergraduate class of 1973 was the first class to have women starting from freshman year; at the time, all undergraduate women were housed in Vanderbilt Hall at the south end of Old Campus.[citation needed]
What led to Yale's Grievance Board and the Yale Women's Center?
5726b8de708984140094cf27
Alexander v. Yale
126
False
When was a Title IX complaint filed against Yale?
5726b8de708984140094cf28
March 2011
355
False
What was the name of the magazine of which multiple editors were involved in the Title IX complaint?
5726b8de708984140094cf29
Broad Recognition
490
False
What was the complaint of the editors of Broad Recognition?
5726b8de708984140094cf2a
the university had a hostile sexual climate
523
False
What did Yale do about the Title IX complaint?
5726b8de708984140094cf2b
formed a Title IX steering committee to address complaints of sexual misconduct
596
False
Alexander v. Yale
126
What led to Yale's Grievance Board and the Yale Men's Center?
5ad3de2f604f3c001a3ff45d
True
2011
361
When was a Title X complaint filed against Yale?
5ad3de2f604f3c001a3ff45e
True
Broad Recognition
490
What was the name of the magazine of which multiple editors were involved in the Title X complaint?
5ad3de2f604f3c001a3ff45f
True
the university had a hostile sexual climate
523
What was the complaint of the writers of Broad Recognition?
5ad3de2f604f3c001a3ff460
True
formed a Title IX steering committee to address complaints of sexual misconduct
596
What did Yale do about the Title X complaint?
5ad3de2f604f3c001a3ff461
True
A decade into co-education, rampant student assault and harassment by faculty became the impetus for the trailblazing lawsuit Alexander v. Yale. While unsuccessful in the courts, the legal reasoning behind the case changed the landscape of sex discrimination law and resulted in the establishment of Yale's Grievance Board and the Yale Women's Center. In March 2011 a Title IX complaint was filed against Yale by students and recent graduates, including editors of Yale's feminist magazine Broad Recognition, alleging that the university had a hostile sexual climate. In response, the university formed a Title IX steering committee to address complaints of sexual misconduct.
Why do New Haven city officials dislike Yale?
5726baf15951b619008f7c21
exemption from local property taxes
189
False
Which Yale president assisted with New Haven's revitalization efforts?
5726baf15951b619008f7c22
President Levin
285
False
What has been the effect of Yale and New Haven's relationship on Yale?
5726baf15951b619008f7c23
economic power of the university increased dramatically with its financial success
478
False
What has been the effect of Yale and New Haven's relation on New Haven?
5726baf15951b619008f7c24
decline in the local economy
568
False
exemption from local property taxes
189
Why do New Haven city officials like Yale?
5ad3dec5604f3c001a3ff47d
True
President Levin
285
Which Yale president rejected the New Haven's revitalization efforts?
5ad3dec5604f3c001a3ff47e
True
economic power of the university increased dramatically with its financial success
478
What hasn't been the effect of Yale and New Haven's relationship on Yale?
5ad3dec5604f3c001a3ff47f
True
exemption from local property taxes
189
Why don't New Haven city officials dislike Yale?
5ad3dec5604f3c001a3ff480
True
decline in the local economy
568
What hasn't been the effect of Yale and New Haven's relation on New Haven?
5ad3dec5604f3c001a3ff481
True
Yale has a complicated relationship with its home city; for example, thousands of students volunteer every year in a myriad of community organizations, but city officials, who decry Yale's exemption from local property taxes, have long pressed the university to do more to help. Under President Levin, Yale has financially supported many of New Haven's efforts to reinvigorate the city. Evidence suggests that the town and gown relationships are mutually beneficial. Still, the economic power of the university increased dramatically with its financial success amid a decline in the local economy.
What did the Boston Globe have to say about Yale?
5726bc43708984140094cf97
"if there's one school that can lay claim to educating the nation's top national leaders over the past three decades, it's Yale."
28
False
Which US presidents since the Vietnam War have studied at Yale?
5726bc43708984140094cf98
Gerald Ford, George H.W. Bush, Bill Clinton, and George W. Bush
351
False
What well known presidential candidates also studied at Yale?
5726bc43708984140094cf99
Hillary Clinton (2008), Howard Dean (2004), Gary Hart (1984 and 1988), Paul Tsongas (1992), Pat Robertson (1988) and Jerry Brown (1976, 1980, 1992).
658
False
What non winning major party nominees studied at Yale?
5726bc43708984140094cf9a
John Kerry (2004), Joseph Lieberman (Vice President, 2000), and Sargent Shriver (Vice President, 1972)
468
False
How many times were Yale alumni on a presidential ticket between 1972 and 2004
5726bc43708984140094cf9b
every
229
False
if there's one school that can lay claim to educating the nation's top national leaders over the past three decades, it's Yale.
29
What didn't the Boston Globe have to say about Yale?
5ad3df35604f3c001a3ff48f
True
Hillary Clinton (2008), Howard Dean (2004), Gary Hart (1984 and 1988), Paul Tsongas (1992), Pat Robertson (1988) and Jerry Brown (1976, 1980, 1992)
658
What unknown presidential candidates also studied at Yale?
5ad3df35604f3c001a3ff490
True
Gerald Ford, George H.W. Bush, Bill Clinton, and George W. Bush
351
Which US presidents since before the Vietnam War have studied at Yale?
5ad3df35604f3c001a3ff491
True
John Kerry (2004), Joseph Lieberman (Vice President, 2000), and Sargent Shriver (Vice President, 1972)
468
What non winning minor party nominees studied at Yale?
5ad3df35604f3c001a3ff492
True
every
229
How many times were Yale alumni on a presidential ticket between 1927 and 2004
5ad3df35604f3c001a3ff493
True
The Boston Globe wrote that "if there's one school that can lay claim to educating the nation's top national leaders over the past three decades, it's Yale." Yale alumni were represented on the Democratic or Republican ticket in every U.S. Presidential election between 1972 and 2004. Yale-educated Presidents since the end of the Vietnam War include Gerald Ford, George H.W. Bush, Bill Clinton, and George W. Bush, and major-party nominees during this period include John Kerry (2004), Joseph Lieberman (Vice President, 2000), and Sargent Shriver (Vice President, 1972). Other Yale alumni who made serious bids for the Presidency during this period include Hillary Clinton (2008), Howard Dean (2004), Gary Hart (1984 and 1988), Paul Tsongas (1992), Pat Robertson (1988) and Jerry Brown (1976, 1980, 1992).
Why did President Levin believe there were so many Yale alumni presidential candidates?
5726d77fdd62a815002e9216
Yale’s focus on creating "a laboratory for future leaders,"
364
False
Why did Richard Brodhead believe there were so many Yale alumni presidential candidates?
5726d77fdd62a815002e9217
very strong tradition of volunteerism
744
False
Why did Gaddis Smith believe John Kerry led Yale's Political Union Liberal Party?
5726d77fdd62a815002e9218
an ethos of organized activity
827
False
Why does CNN believe George W. Bush was accepted into Yale?
5726d77fdd62a815002e9219
"son and grandson of alumni", and for a "member of a politically influential family."
1280
False
What does Elisabeth Bumiller believe the reasoning behind the amount of political Yale alumni is?
5726d77fdd62a815002e921a
the culture of community and cooperation
1474
False
Yale’s focus on creating "a laboratory for future leaders,"
364
Why did President Levin believe there were so few Yale alumni presidential candidates?
5ad3dfe8604f3c001a3ff4a1
True
very strong tradition of volunteerism
744
Why did Richard Brodhead believe there were so few Yale alumni presidential candidates?
5ad3dfe8604f3c001a3ff4a2
True
an ethos of organized activity"
827
Why did Gaddis Smith believe John Kerry never led Yale's Political Union Liberal Party?
5ad3dfe8604f3c001a3ff4a3
True
"son and grandson of alumni", and for a "member of a politically influential family."
1280
Why does CNN believe George W. Bush was rejected from Yale?
5ad3dfe8604f3c001a3ff4a4
True
the culture of community and cooperation
1474
What does Elisabeth Bumiller believe the reasoning behind the lack of political Yale alumni is?
5ad3dfe8604f3c001a3ff4a5
True
Several explanations have been offered for Yale’s representation in national elections since the end of the Vietnam War. Various sources note the spirit of campus activism that has existed at Yale since the 1960s, and the intellectual influence of Reverend William Sloane Coffin on many of the future candidates. Yale President Richard Levin attributes the run to Yale’s focus on creating "a laboratory for future leaders," an institutional priority that began during the tenure of Yale Presidents Alfred Whitney Griswold and Kingman Brewster. Richard H. Brodhead, former dean of Yale College and now president of Duke University, stated: "We do give very significant attention to orientation to the community in our admissions, and there is a very strong tradition of volunteerism at Yale." Yale historian Gaddis Smith notes "an ethos of organized activity" at Yale during the 20th century that led John Kerry to lead the Yale Political Union's Liberal Party, George Pataki the Conservative Party, and Joseph Lieberman to manage the Yale Daily News. Camille Paglia points to a history of networking and elitism: "It has to do with a web of friendships and affiliations built up in school." CNN suggests that George W. Bush benefited from preferential admissions policies for the "son and grandson of alumni", and for a "member of a politically influential family." New York Times correspondent Elisabeth Bumiller and The Atlantic Monthly correspondent James Fallows credit the culture of community and cooperation that exists between students, faculty, and administration, which downplays self-interest and reinforces commitment to others.
In the 1988 election, where did George H. W. Bush say Michael Dukakis's foreign policy was born?
5726d8c9dd62a815002e9264
Harvard Yard's boutique
133
False
How did George H. W. Bush describe Yale's reputation?
5726d8c9dd62a815002e9265
so diffuse, there isn't a symbol
313
False
How did George H. W. Bush describe Harvard's reputation?
5726d8c9dd62a815002e9266
liberalism and elitism
460
False
Why was Howard Dean proud of his graduating class?
5726d8c9dd62a815002e9267
first class to have women in it
688
False
Harvard Yard's boutique
133
In the 1968 election, where did George H. W. Bush say Michael Dukakis's foreign policy was born?
5ad3e080604f3c001a3ff4c9
True
so diffuse, there isn't a symbol
313
How did George W. Bush describe Yale's reputation?
5ad3e080604f3c001a3ff4ca
True
liberalism and elitism
460
How did George W. Bush describe Harvard's reputation?
5ad3e080604f3c001a3ff4cb
True
first class to have women in it
688
Why was Howard Dean not proud of his graduating class?
5ad3e080604f3c001a3ff4cc
True
first class to have women in it
688
Why was Howard Dean proud of his non-graduating class?
5ad3e080604f3c001a3ff4cd
True
During the 1988 presidential election, George H. W. Bush (Yale '48) derided Michael Dukakis for having "foreign-policy views born in Harvard Yard's boutique". When challenged on the distinction between Dukakis's Harvard connection and his own Yale background, he said that, unlike Harvard, Yale's reputation was "so diffuse, there isn't a symbol, I don't think, in the Yale situation, any symbolism in it" and said Yale did not share Harvard's reputation for "liberalism and elitism". In 2004 Howard Dean stated, "In some ways, I consider myself separate from the other three (Yale) candidates of 2004. Yale changed so much between the class of '68 and the class of '71. My class was the first class to have women in it; it was the first class to have a significant effort to recruit African Americans. It was an extraordinary time, and in that span of time is the change of an entire generation".
Besides Yale, what other two locations were chosen by Tony Blair for the Tony Blair Faith Foundation's United States Faith and Globalization Initiative?
5726da655951b619008f7fff
Britain's Durham University and Universiti Teknologi Mara
95
False
As of 2009, who is the director of the Yale Center for the Study of Globalization?
5726da655951b619008f8000
former Mexican President Ernesto Zedillo
255
False
What former presidential candidate teaches a seminar at Yale?
5726da655951b619008f8001
Howard Dean
482
False
What is the name of Howard Dean's class at Yale?
5726da655951b619008f8002
Understanding Politics and Politicians
534
False
What college did Yale's medical facility team up with?
5726da655951b619008f8003
University College London
624
False
Britain's Durham University and Universiti Teknologi Mara
95
Besides Yale, what other three locations were chosen by Tony Blair for the Tony Blair Faith Foundation's United States Faith and Globalization Initiative?
5ad3e101604f3c001a3ff4f1
True
former Mexican President Ernesto Zedillo
255
As of 2008, who is the director of the Yale Center for the Study of Globalization?
5ad3e101604f3c001a3ff4f2
True
Howard Dean
482
What current presidential candidate teaches a seminar at Yale?
5ad3e101604f3c001a3ff4f3
True
Understanding Politics and Politicians
534
What isn't the name of Howard Dean's class at Yale?
5ad3e101604f3c001a3ff4f4
True
University College London
624
What college didn't Yale's medical facility team up with?
5ad3e101604f3c001a3ff4f5
True
In 2009, former British Prime Minister Tony Blair picked Yale as one location – the others are Britain's Durham University and Universiti Teknologi Mara – for the Tony Blair Faith Foundation's United States Faith and Globalization Initiative. As of 2009, former Mexican President Ernesto Zedillo is the director of the Yale Center for the Study of Globalization and teaches an undergraduate seminar, "Debating Globalization". As of 2009, former presidential candidate and DNC chair Howard Dean teaches a residential college seminar, "Understanding Politics and Politicians." Also in 2009, an alliance was formed among Yale, University College London, and both schools’ affiliated hospital complexes to conduct research focused on the direct improvement of patient care—a growing field known as translational medicine. President Richard Levin noted that Yale has hundreds of other partnerships across the world, but "no existing collaboration matches the scale of the new partnership with UCL".
Who was appointed acting President of Yale in 1977?
5726dbaf5951b619008f802d
Hanna Holborn Gray
101
False
Where did Hanna Holborn Gray go after Yale?
5726dbaf5951b619008f802e
University of Chicago
218
False
In what year did Judith Rodin become the first female president of an Ivy League school?
5726dbaf5951b619008f802f
1994
304
False
In what year did Susan Hockfield become President of MIT?
5726dbaf5951b619008f8030
2004
526
False
Who became Vice Chancellor of the University of Cambridge in 2002?
5726dbaf5951b619008f8031
Alison Richard
449
False
Hanna Holborn Gray
101
Who was appointed acting President of Yale in 1979?
5ad3e159604f3c001a3ff505
True
University of Chicago
218
Where did Hanna Holborn Gray go before Yale?
5ad3e159604f3c001a3ff506
True
1994
304
In what year did Judith Rodin become the first male president of an Ivy League school?
5ad3e159604f3c001a3ff507
True
2004
526
In what year did Susan Hockfield become President of IMT?
5ad3e159604f3c001a3ff508
True
Alison Richard
449
Who became Chancellor of the University of Cambridge in 2002?
5ad3e159604f3c001a3ff509
True
The Yale Provost's Office has launched several women into prominent university presidencies. In 1977 Hanna Holborn Gray was appointed acting President of Yale from this position, and went on to become President of the University of Chicago, the first woman to be full president of a major university. In 1994 Yale Provost Judith Rodin became the first female president of an Ivy League institution at the University of Pennsylvania. In 2002 Provost Alison Richard became the Vice Chancellor of the University of Cambridge. In 2004, Provost Susan Hockfield became the President of the Massachusetts Institute of Technology. In 2007 Deputy Provost Kim Bottomly was named President of Wellesley College. In 2003, the Dean of the Divinity School, Rebecca Chopp, was appointed president of Colgate University and now heads Swarthmore College.
What union are the members of the Yale University Police Department a part of?
5726dcaff1498d1400e8ed9e
Yale Police Benevolent Association
677
False
What union do Yale security guards belong to?
5726dcaff1498d1400e8ed9f
International Union of Security, Police and Fire Professionals of America
851
False
What is the name of the unrecognized union of graduate employees?
5726dcaff1498d1400e8eda0
Graduate Employees and Students Organization (GESO)
299
False
What union are Yale's clerical and technical employees a part of?
5726dcaff1498d1400e8eda1
Local 34 of UNITE HERE
183
False
What union are Yale's service and maintenance workers a part of?
5726dcaff1498d1400e8eda2
Local 35 of the same international
245
False
Yale Police Benevolent Association
677
What union are the members of the Yale University Police Department not a part of?
5ad3e1b4604f3c001a3ff517
True
International Union of Security, Police and Fire Professionals of America
851
What union don't Yale security guards belong to?
5ad3e1b4604f3c001a3ff518
True
Graduate Employees and Students Organization
299
What is the name of the recognized union of graduate employees?
5ad3e1b4604f3c001a3ff519
True
Local 34 of UNITE HERE
183
What union aren't Yale's clerical and technical employees a part of?
5ad3e1b4604f3c001a3ff51a
True
Local 35 of the same international
245
What union aren't Yale's service and maintenance workers a part of?
5ad3e1b4604f3c001a3ff51b
True
Much of Yale University's staff, including most maintenance staff, dining hall employees, and administrative staff, are unionized. Clerical and technical employees are represented by Local 34 of UNITE HERE and service and maintenance workers by Local 35 of the same international. Together with the Graduate Employees and Students Organization (GESO), an unrecognized union of graduate employees, Locals 34 and 35 make up the Federation of Hospital and University Employees. Also included in FHUE are the dietary workers at Yale-New Haven Hospital, who are members of 1199 SEIU. In addition to these unions, officers of the Yale University Police Department are members of the Yale Police Benevolent Association, which affiliated in 2005 with the Connecticut Organization for Public Safety Employees. Finally, Yale security officers voted to join the International Union of Security, Police and Fire Professionals of America in fall 2010 after the National Labor Relations Board ruled they could not join AFSCME; the Yale administration contested the election.
How many strikes has Yale had since 1968?
5726dde0f1498d1400e8edf4
at least eight
112
False
What are The New York Times' views on Yale's labor tension?
5726dde0f1498d1400e8edf5
the worst record of labor tension of any university in the U.S.
213
False
What professor was retired in a 2003 labor strike?
5726dde0f1498d1400e8edf6
Professor David Graeber
524
False
Why was Professor David Graeber retired during the strike?
5726dde0f1498d1400e8edf7
he came to the defense of a student who was involved in campus labor issues.
568
False
What adds to the tensions during wage considerations?
5726dde0f1498d1400e8edf8
Yale's unusually large endowment
277
False
at least eight
112
How many strikes has Yale had since 1986?
5ad3e20e604f3c001a3ff521
True
the worst record of labor tension of any university in the U.S.
213
What are The New Jersey Times' views on Yale's labor tension?
5ad3e20e604f3c001a3ff522
True
Professor David Graeber
524
What professor was retired in a 2013 labor strike?
5ad3e20e604f3c001a3ff523
True
he came to the defense of a student who was involved in campus labor issues
568
Why was Professor David Graeber hired during the strike?
5ad3e20e604f3c001a3ff524
True
Yale's unusually large endowment
277
What eases the tensions during wage considerations?
5ad3e20e604f3c001a3ff525
True
Yale has a history of difficult and prolonged labor negotiations, often culminating in strikes. There have been at least eight strikes since 1968, and The New York Times wrote that Yale has a reputation as having the worst record of labor tension of any university in the U.S. Yale's unusually large endowment exacerbates the tension over wages. Moreover, Yale has been accused of failing to treat workers with respect. In a 2003 strike, however, the university claimed that more union employees were working than striking. Professor David Graeber was 'retired' after he came to the defense of a student who was involved in campus labor issues.
Where does Yale own 500 acres of athletic facilities?
5726df7c5951b619008f80e3
western New Haven
176
False
What campus did Yale buy in 2008?
5726df7c5951b619008f80e4
former Bayer Pharmaceutical campus
340
False
What is the former Bayer Pharmaceutical campus used for?
5726df7c5951b619008f80e5
laboratory and research space
442
False
How many forests does Yale own?
5726df7c5951b619008f80e6
seven
488
False
How big is the largest forest in Yale's possession?
5726df7c5951b619008f80e7
7,840-acre
573
False
western New Haven
176
Where does Yale own 5000 acres of athletic facilities?
5ad3e267604f3c001a3ff535
True
former Bayer Pharmaceutical campus
340
What campus did Yale buy in 2009?
5ad3e267604f3c001a3ff536
True
laboratory and research space
442
What is the current Bayer Pharmaceutical campus used for?
5ad3e267604f3c001a3ff537
True
seven
488
How many forests doesn't Yale own?
5ad3e267604f3c001a3ff538
True
7,840-acre
573
How big is the smallest forest in Yale's possession?
5ad3e267604f3c001a3ff539
True
Yale's central campus in downtown New Haven covers 260 acres (1.1 km2) and comprises its main, historic campus and a medical campus adjacent to the Yale-New Haven Hospital. In western New Haven, the university holds 500 acres (2.0 km2) of athletic facilities, including the Yale Golf Course. In 2008, Yale purchased the 136-acre (0.55 km2) former Bayer Pharmaceutical campus in West Haven, Connecticut, the buildings of which are now used as laboratory and research space. Yale also owns seven forests in Connecticut, Vermont, and New Hampshire—the largest of which is the 7,840-acre (31.7 km2) Yale-Myers Forest in Connecticut's Quiet Corner—and nature preserves including Horse Island.
Who called Hillhouse Avenue the most beautiful street in America in the 1840's?
5726e0c9708984140094d47f
Charles Dickens
488
False
Who listed Yale as one of the most beautiful campuses in the United States?
5726e0c9708984140094d480
Travel+Leisure
561
False
What is Yale largely known for?
5726e0c9708984140094d481
Collegiate Gothic campus
30
False
When did Travel + Leisure list Yale as one of the most beautiful campuses?
5726e0c9708984140094d482
2011
555
False
Charles Dickens
488
Who called Hillhouse Avenue the most beautiful street in America in the 1940's?
5ad3e2bf604f3c001a3ff53f
True
Travel+Leisure
561
Who listed Yale as one of the least beautiful campuses in the United States?
5ad3e2bf604f3c001a3ff540
True
Collegiate Gothic campus
30
What is Yale largely unknown for?
5ad3e2bf604f3c001a3ff541
True
Collegiate Gothic campus
30
What is Yale lesser known for?
5ad3e2bf604f3c001a3ff542
True
2011
555
When did Travel + Leisure list Yale as one of the least beautiful campuses?
5ad3e2bf604f3c001a3ff543
True
Yale is noted for its largely Collegiate Gothic campus as well as for several iconic modern buildings commonly discussed in architectural history survey courses: Louis Kahn's Yale Art Gallery and Center for British Art, Eero Saarinen's Ingalls Rink and Ezra Stiles and Morse Colleges, and Paul Rudolph's Art & Architecture Building. Yale also owns and has restored many noteworthy 19th-century mansions along Hillhouse Avenue, which was considered the most beautiful street in America by Charles Dickens when he visited the United States in the 1840s. In 2011, Travel+Leisure listed the Yale campus as one of the most beautiful in the United States.
Who financed a large chunk of the architecture from 1917 to 1931
5726e24f5951b619008f815b
Edward S. Harkness
125
False
What do the stone statues on Yale's campus depict?
5726e24f5951b619008f815c
a writer, an athlete, a tea-drinking socialite, and a student who has fallen asleep while reading
249
False
What do the decorative friezes on the buildings show?
5726e24f5951b619008f815d
contemporary scenes
406
False
How did James Gamble Rogers faux age the buildings?
5726e24f5951b619008f815e
splashing the walls with acid
644
False
How did James Gamble Rogers faux age the windows?
5726e24f5951b619008f815f
breaking their leaded glass windows and repairing them in the style of the Middle Ages
688
False
Edward S. Harkness
125
Who financed a large chunk of the architecture from 1817 to 1931
5ad3e363604f3c001a3ff553
True
a writer, an athlete, a tea-drinking socialite, and a student who has fallen asleep while reading
249
What don't the stone statues on Yale's campus depict?
5ad3e363604f3c001a3ff554
True
contemporary scenes
406
What don't the decorative friezes on the buildings show?
5ad3e363604f3c001a3ff555
True
splashing the walls with acid
644
How didn't James Gamble Rogers really age the buildings?
5ad3e363604f3c001a3ff556
True
deliberately breaking their leaded glass windows and repairing them in the style of the Middle Ages
675
How didn't James Gamble Rogers faux age the windows?
5ad3e363604f3c001a3ff557
True
Many of Yale's buildings were constructed in the Collegiate Gothic architecture style from 1917 to 1931, financed largely by Edward S. Harkness Stone sculpture built into the walls of the buildings portray contemporary college personalities such as a writer, an athlete, a tea-drinking socialite, and a student who has fallen asleep while reading. Similarly, the decorative friezes on the buildings depict contemporary scenes such as policemen chasing a robber and arresting a prostitute (on the wall of the Law School), or a student relaxing with a mug of beer and a cigarette. The architect, James Gamble Rogers, faux-aged these buildings by splashing the walls with acid, deliberately breaking their leaded glass windows and repairing them in the style of the Middle Ages, and creating niches for decorative statuary but leaving them empty to simulate loss or theft over the ages. In fact, the buildings merely simulate Middle Ages architecture, for though they appear to be constructed of solid stone blocks in the authentic manner, most actually have steel framing as was commonly used in 1930. One exception is Harkness Tower, 216 feet (66 m) tall, which was originally a free-standing stone structure. It was reinforced in 1964 to allow the installation of the Yale Memorial Carillon.
What architects have buildings in the Yale Old Campus?
5726e3725951b619008f8183
Henry Austin, Charles C. Haight and Russell Sturgis
122
False
What is the largest residential college?
5726e3725951b619008f8184
Silliman College
514
False
Which school was used as the engineering and sciences school until 1956?
5726e3725951b619008f8185
Sheffield Scientific School
413
False
What are some other terms for the gothic style buildings in the Old Campus at Yale?
5726e3725951b619008f8186
neo-Gothic and collegiate Gothic
42
False
Henry Austin, Charles C. Haight and Russell Sturgis
122
What architects have buildings in the Yale New Campus?
5ad3e3e4604f3c001a3ff567
True
Silliman College
514
What is the smallest residential college?
5ad3e3e4604f3c001a3ff568
True
Silliman College
514
What is the largest industrial college?
5ad3e3e4604f3c001a3ff569
True
Sheffield Scientific School
413
Which school was used as the engineering and sciences school until 1965?
5ad3e3e4604f3c001a3ff56a
True
neo-Gothic and collegiate Gothic
42
What are some other terms for the gothic style buildings in the New Campus at Yale?
5ad3e3e4604f3c001a3ff56b
True
Other examples of the Gothic (also called neo-Gothic and collegiate Gothic) style are on Old Campus by such architects as Henry Austin, Charles C. Haight and Russell Sturgis. Several are associated with members of the Vanderbilt family, including Vanderbilt Hall, Phelps Hall, St. Anthony Hall (a commission for member Frederick William Vanderbilt), the Mason, Sloane and Osborn laboratories, dormitories for the Sheffield Scientific School (the engineering and sciences school at Yale until 1956) and elements of Silliman College, the largest residential college.
Who created the Gateway Arch in St. Louis?
5726e4d6dd62a815002e9424
Alumnus Eero Saarinen
0
False
What airport was designed by Alumnus Eero Saarinen?
5726e4d6dd62a815002e9425
Washington Dulles International Airport main terminal
111
False
What did Alumnus Eero Saarinen use for inspiration for Ingalls Rink at Yale?
5726e4d6dd62a815002e9426
the medieval Italian hilltown of San Gimignano
352
False
What counterpoints Yale's gothic towers?
5726e4d6dd62a815002e9427
fortress-like stone towers
466
False
Of what nationality is Alumnus Eero Saarinen?
5726e4d6dd62a815002e9428
Finnish-American
23
False
Alumnus Eero Saarinen
0
Who destroyed the Gateway Arch in St. Louis?
5ad3e75d604f3c001a3ff5f7
True
Washington Dulles International Airport main terminal
111
What airport wasn't designed by Alumnus Eero Saarinen?
5ad3e75d604f3c001a3ff5f8
True
the medieval Italian hilltown of San Gimignano
352
What did Alumnus Eero Saarinen not use for inspiration for Ingalls Rink at Yale?
5ad3e75d604f3c001a3ff5f9
True
fortress-like stone towers
466
What counterpoints Yale's hectic towers?
5ad3e75d604f3c001a3ff5fa
True
Finnish-American
23
Of what nationality isn't Alumnus Eero Saarinen?
5ad3e75d604f3c001a3ff5fb
True
Alumnus Eero Saarinen, Finnish-American architect of such notable structures as the Gateway Arch in St. Louis, Washington Dulles International Airport main terminal, Bell Labs Holmdel Complex and the CBS Building in Manhattan, designed Ingalls Rink at Yale and the newest residential colleges of Ezra Stiles and Morse. These latter were modelled after the medieval Italian hilltown of San Gimignano – a prototype chosen for the town's pedestrian-friendly milieu and fortress-like stone towers. These tower forms at Yale act in counterpoint to the college's many Gothic spires and Georgian cupolas.
Who creates sustainability practices at Yale?
5726e6bcdd62a815002e9478
Yale's Office of Sustainability
0
False
By what percent is Yale committed to reducing greenhouse gas emissions below 1990 levels by the year 2020?
5726e6bcdd62a815002e9479
10%
147
False
How many campus buildings are candidates for LEED design and certification?
5726e6bcdd62a815002e947a
Eleven
324
False
What project is bringing organic food to all of Yale's residential college dining areas?
5726e6bcdd62a815002e947b
Yale Sustainable Food Project
398
False
What grade did Yale get on their Sustainable Endowments Institute's College Sustainability Report Card 2008?
5726e6bcdd62a815002e947c
B+
692
False
Yale's Office of Sustainability
0
Who rejects sustainability practices at Yale?
5ad3e7f7604f3c001a3ff621
True
10%
147
By what percent is Yale committed to reducing greenhouse gas emissions below 1990 levels by the year 2030?
5ad3e7f7604f3c001a3ff622
True
Eleven
324
How many campus buildings are candidates for ELED design and certification?
5ad3e7f7604f3c001a3ff623
True
Yale Sustainable Food Project
398
What project is bringing inorganic food to all of Yale's residential college dining areas?
5ad3e7f7604f3c001a3ff624
True
B+
692
What grade did Yale get on their Sustainable Endowments Institute's College Sustainability Report Card 2018?
5ad3e7f7604f3c001a3ff625
True
Yale's Office of Sustainability develops and implements sustainability practices at Yale. Yale is committed to reduce its greenhouse gas emissions 10% below 1990 levels by the year 2020. As part of this commitment, the university allocates renewable energy credits to offset some of the energy used by residential colleges. Eleven campus buildings are candidates for LEED design and certification. Yale Sustainable Food Project initiated the introduction of local, organic vegetables, fruits, and beef to all residential college dining halls. Yale was listed as a Campus Sustainability Leader on the Sustainable Endowments Institute’s College Sustainability Report Card 2008, and received a "B+" grade overall.
What is another term for some of Yale's secret society buildings?
5726e7c7708984140094d569
tombs
59
False
Who is the interior moulding of the Mace and Chain building rumored to have belonged to?
5726e7c7708984140094d56a
Benedict Arnold
611
False
Who was responsible for landscaping the Manuscript Society building?
5726e7c7708984140094d56b
Dan Kniley
665
False
Who was the architect for St. Elmo?
5726e7c7708984140094d56c
Kenneth M. Murchison
1172
False
Who was the architect behind the Manuscript Society building?
5726e7c7708984140094d56d
King Lui-Wu
648
False
tombs
59
What is another term for some of Yale's public society buildings?
5ad3e856604f3c001a3ff645
True
Benedict Arnold
611
Who is the exterior moulding of the Mace and Chain building rumored to have belonged to?
5ad3e856604f3c001a3ff646
True
Dan Kniley
665
Who was unresponsible for landscaping the Manuscript Society building?
5ad3e856604f3c001a3ff647
True
Kenneth M. Murchison
1172
Who wasn't the architect for St. Elmo?
5ad3e856604f3c001a3ff648
True
King Lui-Wu
648
Who wasn't the architect behind the Manuscript Society building?
5ad3e856604f3c001a3ff649
True
Yale's secret society buildings (some of which are called "tombs") were built both to be private yet unmistakable. A diversity of architectural styles is represented: Berzelius, Donn Barber in an austere cube with classical detailing (erected in 1908 or 1910); Book and Snake, Louis R. Metcalfe in a Greek Ionic style (erected in 1901); Elihu, architect unknown but built in a Colonial style (constructed on an early 17th-century foundation although the building is from the 18th century); Mace and Chain, in a late colonial, early Victorian style (built in 1823). Interior moulding is said to have belonged to Benedict Arnold; Manuscript Society, King Lui-Wu with Dan Kniley responsible for landscaping and Josef Albers for the brickwork intaglio mural. Building constructed in a mid-century modern style; Scroll and Key, Richard Morris Hunt in a Moorish- or Islamic-inspired Beaux-Arts style (erected 1869–70); Skull and Bones, possibly Alexander Jackson Davis or Henry Austin in an Egypto-Doric style utilizing Brownstone (in 1856 the first wing was completed, in 1903 the second wing, 1911 the Neo-Gothic towers in rear garden were completed); St. Elmo, (former tomb) Kenneth M. Murchison, 1912, designs inspired by Elizabethan manor. Current location, brick colonial; Shabtai, 1882, the Anderson Mansion built in the Second Empire architectural style; and Wolf's Head, Bertram Grosvenor Goodhue (erected 1923-4).
When were the first campus police formed at Yale?
5726e8bd5951b619008f8221
1894
115
False
Who were the the first campus police composed of?
5726e8bd5951b619008f8222
city police officers
152
False
Why was the campus police established?
5726e8bd5951b619008f8223
quell unrest between students and city residents
280
False
What other safety measures are available at Yale besides campus police?
5726e8bd5951b619008f8224
blue phones, a safety escort, and 24-hour shuttle service.
464
False
1894
115
When were the last campus police formed at Yale?
5ad3e8a6604f3c001a3ff661
True
1894
115
When were the first campus police fired at Yale?
5ad3e8a6604f3c001a3ff662
True
city police officers
152
Who were the the last campus police composed of?
5ad3e8a6604f3c001a3ff663
True
quell unrest between students and city residents
280
Why was the campus police disbanded?
5ad3e8a6604f3c001a3ff664
True
blue phones, a safety escort, and 24-hour shuttle service
464
What other safety measures are unavailable at Yale besides campus police?
5ad3e8a6604f3c001a3ff665
True
Several campus safety strategies have been pioneered at Yale. The first campus police force was founded at Yale in 1894, when the university contracted city police officers to exclusively cover the campus. Later hired by the university, the officers were originally brought in to quell unrest between students and city residents and curb destructive student behavior. In addition to the Yale Police Department, a variety of safety services are available including blue phones, a safety escort, and 24-hour shuttle service.
What kind of system is Yale's financial aid?
5726e978dd62a815002e94d0
need-based
23
False
How is most financial aid obtained at Yale?
5726e978dd62a815002e94d1
grants and scholarships
163
False
What was the average need of financial aid at Yale for the Class of 2017?
5726e978dd62a815002e94d2
$46,395
302
False
What percent of students at Yale are thought to have no parental help?
5726e978dd62a815002e94d3
15%
311
False
What was the average debt of student loan borrowers from the class of 2013?
5726e978dd62a815002e94d4
$13,000
542
False
need-based
23
What kind of system isn't Yale's financial aid?
5ad3e8ff604f3c001a3ff675
True
grants and scholarships
163
How is least financial aid obtained at Yale?
5ad3e8ff604f3c001a3ff676
True
$46,395
302
What was the average need of financial aid at Yale for the Class of 2007?
5ad3e8ff604f3c001a3ff677
True
15%
311
What percent of students at Yale are thought to have all parental help?
5ad3e8ff604f3c001a3ff678
True
$13,000
542
What was the average debt of student loan borrowers from the class of 2003?
5ad3e8ff604f3c001a3ff679
True
Through its program of need-based financial aid, Yale commits to meet the full demonstrated financial need of all applicants. Most financial aid is in the form of grants and scholarships that do not need to be paid back to the university, and the average need-based aid grant for the Class of 2017 was $46,395. 15% of Yale College students are expected to have no parental contribution, and about 50% receive some form of financial aid. About 16% of the Class of 2013 had some form of student loan debt at graduation, with an average debt of $13,000 among borrowers.
Where would one find a collection of historical medical equipment?
5726eb54dd62a815002e953e
The Harvey Cushing/John Hay Whitney Medical Library
135
False
What library contains the biggest assortment of 18th century British literary works?
5726eb54dd62a815002e953f
The Lewis Walpole Library
325
False
Where can qualified researchers obtain Elizabethan folios?
5726eb54dd62a815002e9540
The Elizabethan Club
423
False
What library has a vast assortment of rare books and manuscripts?
5726eb54dd62a815002e9541
The Beinecke Rare Book Library
50
False
The Harvey Cushing/John Hay Whitney Medical Library
135
Where would no one find a collection of historical medical equipment?
5ad3e94f604f3c001a3ff67f
True
The Lewis Walpole Library
325
What library contains the smallest assortment of 18th century British literary works?
5ad3e94f604f3c001a3ff680
True
The Elizabethan Club
423
Where can unqualified researchers obtain Elizabethan folios?
5ad3e94f604f3c001a3ff681
True
The Elizabethan Club
423
Where can qualified researchers lose Elizabethan folios?
5ad3e94f604f3c001a3ff682
True
The Beinecke Rare Book Library
50
What library has a tiny assortment of rare books and manuscripts?
5ad3e94f604f3c001a3ff683
True
Rare books are found in several Yale collections. The Beinecke Rare Book Library has a large collection of rare books and manuscripts. The Harvey Cushing/John Hay Whitney Medical Library includes important historical medical texts, including an impressive collection of rare books, as well as historical medical instruments. The Lewis Walpole Library contains the largest collection of 18th‑century British literary works. The Elizabethan Club, technically a private organization, makes its Elizabethan folios and first editions available to qualified researchers through Yale.
What is the name of the country's first university partnered art museum?
5726ed335951b619008f8287
The Yale University Art Gallery
61
False
How many items are in The Yale University Art Gallery?
5726ed335951b619008f8288
more than 180,000
157
False
Where is the largest center for British art, UK not included?
5726ed335951b619008f8289
The Yale Center for British Art
391
False
Whose contributions started The Yale Center for British Art?
5726ed335951b619008f828a
Paul Mellon
501
False
Who designed the building for The Yale Center for British Art?
5726ed335951b619008f828b
Louis Kahn
293
False
The Yale University Art Gallery
61
What is the name of the country's last university partnered art museum?
5ad3e999604f3c001a3ff691
True
more than 180,000
157
How many items aren't in The Yale University Art Gallery?
5ad3e999604f3c001a3ff692
True
The Yale Center for British Art
391
Where is the smallest center for British art, UK not included?
5ad3e999604f3c001a3ff693
True
Louis Kahn
293
Who re-designed the building for The Yale Center for British Art?
5ad3e999604f3c001a3ff694
True
Paul Mellon
501
Whose contributions ended The Yale Center for British Art?
5ad3e999604f3c001a3ff695
True
Yale's museum collections are also of international stature. The Yale University Art Gallery, the country's first university-affiliated art museum, contains more than 180,000 works, including Old Masters and important collections of modern art, in the Swartout and Kahn buildings. The latter, Louis Kahn's first large-scale American work (1953), was renovated and reopened in December 2006. The Yale Center for British Art, the largest collection of British art outside of the UK, grew from a gift of Paul Mellon and is housed in another Kahn-designed building.
Which of the New Critics were staffed at Yale?
5726ee7af1498d1400e8f044
Robert Penn Warren, W.K. Wimsatt, and Cleanth Brooks
115
False
Who is known as the father of deconstruction?
5726ee7af1498d1400e8f045
Jacques Derrida
285
False
Where did Jacques Derrida teach from the late 1970's to mid 1980's?
5726ee7af1498d1400e8f046
Department of Comparative Literature
346
False
Which Yale staffed labor historian advised other younger labor historians?
5726ee7af1498d1400e8f047
David Montgomery
1129
False
When was The Journal of Music Theory founded?
5726ee7af1498d1400e8f048
1957
1401
False
Robert Penn Warren, W.K. Wimsatt, and Cleanth Brooks
115
Which of the Old Critics were staffed at Yale?
5ad3e9f6604f3c001a3ff6b3
True
Jacques Derrida
285
Who is known as the mother of deconstruction?
5ad3e9f6604f3c001a3ff6b4
True
Department of Comparative Literature
346
Where did Jacques Derrida teach from the late 1970's to mid 1990's?
5ad3e9f6604f3c001a3ff6b5
True
David Montgomery
1129
Which Yale staffed labor historian advised other older labor historians?
5ad3e9f6604f3c001a3ff6b6
True
1957
1401
When wasn't The Journal of Music Theory founded?
5ad3e9f6604f3c001a3ff6b7
True
Yale's English and Comparative Literature departments were part of the New Criticism movement. Of the New Critics, Robert Penn Warren, W.K. Wimsatt, and Cleanth Brooks were all Yale faculty. Later, the Yale Comparative literature department became a center of American deconstruction. Jacques Derrida, the father of deconstruction, taught at the Department of Comparative Literature from the late seventies to mid-1980s. Several other Yale faculty members were also associated with deconstruction, forming the so-called "Yale School". These included Paul de Man who taught in the Departments of Comparative Literature and French, J. Hillis Miller, Geoffrey Hartman (both taught in the Departments of English and Comparative Literature), and Harold Bloom (English), whose theoretical position was always somewhat specific, and who ultimately took a very different path from the rest of this group. Yale's history department has also originated important intellectual trends. Historians C. Vann Woodward and David Brion Davis are credited with beginning in the 1960s and 1970s an important stream of southern historians; likewise, David Montgomery, a labor historian, advised many of the current generation of labor historians in the country. Yale's Music School and Department fostered the growth of Music Theory in the latter half of the 20th century. The Journal of Music Theory was founded there in 1957; Allen Forte and David Lewin were influential teachers and scholars.
When was Yale's residential college system established?
5726efa6dd62a815002e95bc
1933
53
False
Who established Yale's residential college system?
5726efa6dd62a815002e95bd
Edward S. Harkness
61
False
Who runs Yale's residential colleges?
5726efa6dd62a815002e95be
The colleges are led by a master and an academic dean
380
False
Are there academic programs in Yale's residential colleges?
5726efa6dd62a815002e95bf
do not contain programs of study or academic departments
641
False
Who teaches Yale's residential college's undergraduate classes?
5726efa6dd62a815002e95c0
Faculty of Arts and Sciences
752
False
1933
53
When was Yale's residential college system unestablished?
5ad3ea5f604f3c001a3ff6d5
True
Edward S. Harkness
61
Who established Yale's commercial college system?
5ad3ea5f604f3c001a3ff6d6
True
The colleges are led by a master and an academic dean
380
Who runs Yale's industrial colleges?
5ad3ea5f604f3c001a3ff6d7
True
do not contain programs of study or academic departments
641
Are there unacademic programs in Yale's residential colleges?
5ad3ea5f604f3c001a3ff6d8
True
Faculty of Arts and Sciences
752
Who teaches Yale's residential college's graduate classes?
5ad3ea5f604f3c001a3ff6d9
True
Yale's residential college system was established in 1933 by Edward S. Harkness, who admired the social intimacy of Oxford and Cambridge and donated significant funds to found similar colleges at Yale and Harvard. Though Yale's colleges resemble their English precursors organizationally and architecturally, they are dependent entities of Yale College and have limited autonomy. The colleges are led by a master and an academic dean, who reside in the college, and university faculty and affiliates comprise each college's fellowship. Colleges offer their own seminars, social events, and speaking engagements known as "Master's Teas," but do not contain programs of study or academic departments. Instead, all undergraduate courses are taught by the Faculty of Arts and Sciences and are open to members of any college.
In what architectural styles were Harkness' original colleges?
5726f08ef1498d1400e8f07c
Georgian Revival or Collegiate Gothic
39
False
Which two residential colleges are of modernist style?
5726f08ef1498d1400e8f07d
Morse and Ezra Stiles Colleges
126
False
What are Yale's colleges encircling?
5726f08ef1498d1400e8f07e
a courtyard
234
False
Who are the Yale colleges named after?
5726f08ef1498d1400e8f07f
important alumni or significant places in university history
377
False
In what year does the university expect to open two more colleges?
5726f08ef1498d1400e8f080
2017
442
False
Georgian Revival or Collegiate Gothic
39
In what architectural styles weren't Harkness' original colleges?
5ad3eab7604f3c001a3ff6f7
True
Morse and Ezra Stiles Colleges
126
Which three residential colleges are of modernist style?
5ad3eab7604f3c001a3ff6f8
True
a courtyard
234
What are Yale's colleges encircled by?
5ad3eab7604f3c001a3ff6f9
True
important alumni or significant places in university history
377
Who aren't the Yale colleges named after?
5ad3eab7604f3c001a3ff6fa
True
2017
442
In what year does the university expect to close two more colleges?
5ad3eab7604f3c001a3ff6fb
True
While Harkness' original colleges were Georgian Revival or Collegiate Gothic in style, two colleges constructed in the 1960s, Morse and Ezra Stiles Colleges, have modernist designs. All twelve college quadrangles are organized around a courtyard, and each has a dining hall, courtyard, library, common room, and a range of student facilities. The twelve colleges are named for important alumni or significant places in university history. In 2017, the university expects to open two new colleges near Science Hill.
Who was Calhoun college named for?
5726f249708984140094d6b3
John C. Calhoun
214
False
Why did people dislike the college being named after John C. Calhoun?
5726f249708984140094d6b4
a slave-owner and strong slavery supporter in the nineteenth century
231
False
What title change will be happening to reduce racial tensions?
5726f249708984140094d6b5
the title of “master” for faculty members who serve as residential college leaders will be renamed to “head of college”
2020
False
What did President Salovey believe would happen if Calhoun's name was removed from the college?
5726f249708984140094d6b6
it would "obscure" his "legacy of slavery rather than addressing it."
1793
False
Whose comments increased racial tension in the Fall of 2015?
5726f249708984140094d6b7
Nicholas A. Christakis and his wife Erika
1347
False
John C. Calhoun
214
Who was Calhoun college not named for?
5ad3eb6c604f3c001a3ff725
True
a slave-owner and strong slavery supporter in the nineteenth century
231
Why did people like the college being named after John C. Calhoun?
5ad3eb6c604f3c001a3ff726
True
the title of “master” for faculty members who serve as residential college leaders will be renamed to “head of college”
2020
What title change will be happening to increase racial tensions?
5ad3eb6c604f3c001a3ff727
True
it would "obscure" his "legacy of slavery rather than addressing it."
1793
What did President Salovey believe wouldn't happen if Calhoun's name was removed from the college?
5ad3eb6c604f3c001a3ff728
True
Nicholas A. Christakis and his wife Erika
1347
Whose comments increased racial tension in the Fall of 2016?
5ad3eb6c604f3c001a3ff729
True
In the wake of the racially-motivated" church shooting in Charleston, South Carolina, Yale was under criticism again in the summer of 2015 for Calhoun College, one of 12 residential colleges, which was named after John C. Calhoun, a slave-owner and strong slavery supporter in the nineteenth century. In July 2015 students signed a petition calling for the name change. They argued in the petition that—while Calhoun was respected in the 19th century as an "extraordinary American statesman"—he was "one of the most prolific defenders of slavery and white supremacy" in the history of the United States. In August 2015 Yale President Peter Salovey addressed the Freshman Class of 2019 in which he responded to the racial tensions but explained why the college would not be renamed. He described Calhoun as a "a notable political theorist, a vice president to two different U.S. presidents, a secretary of war and of state, and a congressman and senator representing South Carolina." He acknowledged that Calhoun also "believed that the highest forms of civilization depend on involuntary servitude. Not only that, but he also believed that the races he thought to be inferior, black people in particular, ought to be subjected to it for the sake of their own best interests." Racial tensions increased in the fall of 2015 centering on comments by Nicholas A. Christakis and his wife Erika regarding freedom of speech. In April 2016 Salovey announced that "despite decades of vigorous alumni and student protests," Calhoun's name will remain on the Yale residential college explaining that it is preferable for Yale students to live in Calhoun's "shadow" so they will be "better prepared to rise to the challenges of the present and the future." He claimed that if they removed Calhoun's name, it would "obscure" his "legacy of slavery rather than addressing it." "Yale is part of that history" and "We cannot erase American history, but we can confront it, teach it and learn from it." One change that will be issued is the title of “master” for faculty members who serve as residential college leaders will be renamed to “head of college” due to its connotation of slavery.
What is the name of the world's oldest humor magazine?
5726f456708984140094d6df
The Yale Record
100
False
What year was The Yale Record first published?
5726f456708984140094d6e0
1872
94
False
In what year was the Yale Daily News established?
5726f456708984140094d6e1
1878
223
False
When was the Yale Herald established?
5726f456708984140094d6e2
1986
286
False
What is the name of the campus radio station?
5726f456708984140094d6e3
WYBC Yale Radio
864
False
The Yale Record
100
What is the name of the world's newest humor magazine?
5ad3ebe9604f3c001a3ff741
True
1872
94
What year was The Yale Record last published?
5ad3ebe9604f3c001a3ff742
True
1878
223
In what year was the Yale Daily News closed?
5ad3ebe9604f3c001a3ff743
True
1986
286
When was the Yale Herald closed?
5ad3ebe9604f3c001a3ff744
True
WYBC Yale Radio
864
What is the name of the campus tv station?
5ad3ebe9604f3c001a3ff745
True
The university hosts a variety of student journals, magazines, and newspapers. Established in 1872, The Yale Record is the world's oldest humor magazine. Newspapers include the Yale Daily News, which was first published in 1878, and the weekly Yale Herald, which was first published in 1986. Dwight Hall, an independent, non-profit community service organization, oversees more than 2,000 Yale undergraduates working on more than 70 community service initiatives in New Haven. The Yale College Council runs several agencies that oversee campus wide activities and student services. The Yale Dramatic Association and Bulldog Productions cater to the theater and film communities, respectively. In addition, the Yale Drama Coalition serves to coordinate between and provide resources for the various Sudler Fund sponsored theater productions which run each weekend. WYBC Yale Radio is the campus's radio station, owned and operated by students. While students used to broadcast on AM & FM frequencies, they now have an Internet-only stream.
What do seniors crush to celebrate graduation?
5726f52c5951b619008f835f
clay pipes
33
False
What do they destroy now instead of clay pipes?
5726f52c5951b619008f8360
bubble pipes
170
False
What statue is it rumored to be good luck to rub?
5726f52c5951b619008f8361
Theodore Dwight Woolsey on Old Campus
435
False
What part of the statue of Theodore Dwight Woolsey is it said to be good luck to rub?
5726f52c5951b619008f8362
the toe
410
False
What game was created, to later be banned by administration?
5726f52c5951b619008f8363
Bladderball
543
False
clay pipes
33
What do juniors crush to celebrate graduation?
5ad3ec5c604f3c001a3ff763
True
bubble pipes
170
What do they destroy now with clay pipes?
5ad3ec5c604f3c001a3ff764
True
Theodore Dwight Woolsey on Old Campus
435
What statue is it rumored to be bad luck to rub?
5ad3ec5c604f3c001a3ff765
True
the toe
410
What part of the statue of Theodore Dwight Woolsey is it said to be bad luck to rub?
5ad3ec5c604f3c001a3ff766
True
Bladderball
543
What game was created, to later be joined by administration?
5ad3ec5c604f3c001a3ff767
True
Yale seniors at graduation smash clay pipes underfoot to symbolize passage from their "bright college years," though in recent history the pipes have been replaced with "bubble pipes". ("Bright College Years," the University's alma mater, was penned in 1881 by Henry Durand, Class of 1881, to the tune of Die Wacht am Rhein.) Yale's student tour guides tell visitors that students consider it good luck to rub the toe of the statue of Theodore Dwight Woolsey on Old Campus. Actual students rarely do so. In the second half of the 20th century Bladderball, a campus-wide game played with a large inflatable ball, became a popular tradition but was banned by administration due to safety concerns. In spite of administration opposition, students revived the game in 2009, 2011, and 2014, but its future remains uncertain.
What is the name of the United States' first bowl stadium?
5726f607dd62a815002e964c
Yale Bowl
53
False
What landmarks did the Yale Bowl influence?
5726f607dd62a815002e964d
Los Angeles Memorial Coliseum and the Rose Bowl
146
False
What is the name of the world's second largest indoor athletic building?
5726f607dd62a815002e964e
Payne Whitney Gymnasium
255
False
On what day was the Richard Gilder Boathouse established?
5726f607dd62a815002e964f
October 21, 2000
337
False
How much did the Richard Gilder Boathouse cost to construct?
5726f607dd62a815002e9650
$7.5 million
598
False
Yale Bowl
53
What is the name of the United States' last bowl stadium?
5ad3eca8604f3c001a3ff777
True
Los Angeles Memorial Coliseum and the Rose Bowl
146
What landmarks didn't the Yale Bowl influence?
5ad3eca8604f3c001a3ff778
True
Payne Whitney Gymnasium
255
What is the name of the world's second smallest indoor athletic building?
5ad3eca8604f3c001a3ff779
True
October 21, 2000
337
On what day was the Richard Gilder Boathouse closed?
5ad3eca8604f3c001a3ff77a
True
$7.5 million
598
How much did the Richard Gilder Boathouse cost to destroy?
5ad3eca8604f3c001a3ff77b
True
Yale has numerous athletic facilities, including the Yale Bowl (the nation's first natural "bowl" stadium, and prototype for such stadiums as the Los Angeles Memorial Coliseum and the Rose Bowl), located at The Walter Camp Field athletic complex, and the Payne Whitney Gymnasium, the second-largest indoor athletic complex in the world. October 21, 2000, marked the dedication of Yale's fourth new boathouse in 157 years of collegiate rowing. The Richard Gilder Boathouse is named to honor former Olympic rower Virginia Gilder '79 and her father Richard Gilder '54, who gave $4 million towards the $7.5 million project. Yale also maintains the Gales Ferry site where the heavyweight men's team trains for the Yale-Harvard Boat Race.
How much did Charles B. Johnson pledge to Yale in 2013?
5726f6d3708984140094d731
$250 million
608
False
How much did the 1954 class donate for their 50th reunion?
5726f6d3708984140094d732
$70 million
493
False
Who led the 1954 class in their large donation?
5726f6d3708984140094d733
Richard Gilder
469
False
$250 million
608
How much didn't Charles B. Johnson pledge to Yale in 2013?
5ad3ece8604f3c001a3ff78b
True
$250 million
608
How much did Charles B. Johnson pledge to Yale in 2003?
5ad3ece8604f3c001a3ff78c
True
$70 million
493
How much did the 1945 class donate for their 50th reunion?
5ad3ece8604f3c001a3ff78d
True
$70 million
493
How much did the 1954 class donate for their 40th reunion?
5ad3ece8604f3c001a3ff78e
True
Richard Gilder
469
Who led the 1945 class in their large donation?
5ad3ece8604f3c001a3ff78f
True
Yale has had many financial supporters, but some stand out by the magnitude or timeliness of their contributions. Among those who have made large donations commemorated at the university are: Elihu Yale; Jeremiah Dummer; the Harkness family (Edward, Anna, and William); the Beinecke family (Edwin, Frederick, and Walter); John William Sterling; Payne Whitney; Joseph E. Sheffield, Paul Mellon, Charles B. G. Murphy and William K. Lanman. The Yale Class of 1954, led by Richard Gilder, donated $70 million in commemoration of their 50th reunion. Charles B. Johnson, a 1954 graduate of Yale College, pledged a $250 million gift in 2013 to support of the construction of two new residential colleges.
What royalty has attended Yale?
5726f7dbf1498d1400e8f148
Crown Princess Victoria Bernadotte, Prince Rostislav Romanov and Prince Akiiki Hosea Nyabongo
201
False
What Italian Prime Minister attended Yale?
5726f7dbf1498d1400e8f149
Mario Monti
345
False
What Mexican president attended Yale?
5726f7dbf1498d1400e8f14a
Ernesto Zedillo
413
False
Who was the father of American football?
5726f7dbf1498d1400e8f14b
Walter Camp
1224
False
What Time magazine founder attended Yale?
5726f7dbf1498d1400e8f14c
Henry Luce
2228
False
Crown Princess Victoria Bernadotte, Prince Rostislav Romanov and Prince Akiiki Hosea Nyabongo
201
What royalty hasn't attended Yale?
5ad3ed86604f3c001a3ff7b3
True
Mario Monti
345
What Italian Prime Minister never attended Yale?
5ad3ed86604f3c001a3ff7b4
True
Ernesto Zedillo
413
What Mexican president never attended Yale?
5ad3ed86604f3c001a3ff7b5
True
Walter Camp
1224
Who was the mother of American football?
5ad3ed86604f3c001a3ff7b6
True
Henry Luce
2228
What Time magazine founder never attended Yale?
5ad3ed86604f3c001a3ff7b7
True
Yale has produced alumni distinguished in their respective fields. Among the best-known are U.S. Presidents William Howard Taft, Gerald Ford, George H. W. Bush, Bill Clinton and George W. Bush; royals Crown Princess Victoria Bernadotte, Prince Rostislav Romanov and Prince Akiiki Hosea Nyabongo; heads of state, including Italian prime minister Mario Monti, Turkish prime minister Tansu Çiller, Mexican president Ernesto Zedillo, German president Karl Carstens, and Philippines president José Paciano Laurel; U.S. Supreme Court Justices Sonia Sotomayor, Samuel Alito and Clarence Thomas; U.S. Secretaries of State John Kerry, Hillary Clinton, Cyrus Vance, and Dean Acheson; authors Sinclair Lewis, Stephen Vincent Benét, and Tom Wolfe; lexicographer Noah Webster; inventors Samuel F. B. Morse and Eli Whitney; patriot and "first spy" Nathan Hale; theologian Jonathan Edwards; actors, directors and producers Paul Newman, Henry Winkler, Vincent Price, Meryl Streep, Sigourney Weaver, Jodie Foster, Angela Bassett, Patricia Clarkson, Courtney Vance, Frances McDormand, Elia Kazan, George Roy Hill, Edward Norton, Lupita Nyong'o, Allison Williams, Oliver Stone, Sam Waterston, and Michael Cimino; "Father of American football" Walter Camp, James Franco, "The perfect oarsman" Rusty Wailes; baseball players Ron Darling, Bill Hutchinson, and Craig Breslow; basketball player Chris Dudley; football players Gary Fencik, and Calvin Hill; hockey players Chris Higgins and Mike Richter; figure skater Sarah Hughes; swimmer Don Schollander; skier Ryan Max Riley; runner Frank Shorter; composers Charles Ives, Douglas Moore and Cole Porter; Peace Corps founder Sargent Shriver; child psychologist Benjamin Spock; architects Eero Saarinen and Norman Foster; sculptor Richard Serra; film critic Gene Siskel; television commentators Dick Cavett and Anderson Cooper; New York Times journalist David Gonzalez; pundits William F. Buckley, Jr., and Fareed Zakaria; economists Irving Fischer, Mahbub ul Haq, and Paul Krugman; cyclotron inventor and Nobel laureate in Physics, Ernest Lawrence; Human Genome Project director Francis S. Collins; mathematician and chemist Josiah Willard Gibbs; and businesspeople, including Time Magazine co-founder Henry Luce, Morgan Stanley founder Harold Stanley, Boeing CEO James McNerney, FedEx founder Frederick W. Smith, Time Warner president Jeffrey Bewkes, Electronic Arts co-founder Bing Gordon, and investor/philanthropist Sir John Templeton; pioneer in electrical applications Austin Cornelius Dunham.
Who were the main characters in Stover at Yale?
5726f9485951b619008f83db
Dink Stover and Frank Merriwell
355
False
What F. Scott Fitzgerald novel is Yale a part of?
5726f9485951b619008f83dc
The Great Gatsby
597
False
What character in The Great Gatsby wrote editorials for the Yale News?
5726f9485951b619008f83dd
Nick Carraway
630
False
What football playing character in The Great Gatsby played for Yale?
5726f9485951b619008f83de
Tom Buchanan
697
False
Who wrote the novel Stover at Yale?
5726f9485951b619008f83df
Owen Johnson
287
False
Dink Stover and Frank Merriwell
355
Who were the side characters in Stover at Yale?
5ad3ede9604f3c001a3ff7cd
True
The Great Gatsby
597
What F. Scott Fitzgerald novel is Yale not a part of?
5ad3ede9604f3c001a3ff7ce
True
Nick Carraway
630
What character in The Great Gatsby read editorials for the Yale News?
5ad3ede9604f3c001a3ff7cf
True
Tom Buchanan
697
What baseball playing character in The Great Gatsby played for Yale?
5ad3ede9604f3c001a3ff7d0
True
Owen Johnson
287
Who read the novel Stover at Yale?
5ad3ede9604f3c001a3ff7d1
True
Yale University, one of the oldest universities in the United States, is a cultural referent as an institution that produces some of the most elite members of society and its grounds, alumni, and students have been prominently portrayed in fiction and U.S. popular culture. For example, Owen Johnson's novel, Stover at Yale, follows the college career of Dink Stover and Frank Merriwell, the model for all later juvenile sports fiction, plays football, baseball, crew, and track at Yale while solving mysteries and righting wrongs. Yale University also is featured in F. Scott Fitzgerald's novel "The Great Gatsby". The narrator, Nick Carraway, wrote a series of editorials for the Yale News, and Tom Buchanan was "one of the most powerful ends that ever played football" for Yale.
Late_Middle_Ages
What shattered the unity of the Catholic Church?
57268c14dd62a815002e891c
the Western Schism
585
False
What are the series of events that ended centuries of prosperity in Europe, starting around 1300, known as?
57268c14dd62a815002e891d
the Crisis of the Late Middle Ages
652
False
In what years was the Great Famine?
57268c14dd62a815002e891e
1315–1317
137
False
Which two countries experienced peasant uprisings?
57268c14dd62a815002e891f
France and England
308
False
What major conflict occurred in Europe during the Crisis of the Late Middle Ages?
57268c14dd62a815002e8920
Hundred Years' War
472
False
the Western Schism
585
What saved the unity of the Catholic Church?
5ad01b7a77cf76001a686a1e
True
Crisis of the Late Middle Ages
656
What are the series of events that ended centuries of prosperity in Europe, starting around 1400, known as?
5ad01b7a77cf76001a686a1f
True
1315–1317
137
In what years wasn't the Great Famine?
5ad01b7a77cf76001a686a20
True
France and England
308
Which two countries never experienced peasant uprisings?
5ad01b7a77cf76001a686a21
True
Hundred Years' War
472
What minor conflict occurred in Europe during the Crisis of the Late Middle Ages?
5ad01b7a77cf76001a686a22
True
Around 1300, centuries of prosperity and growth in Europe came to a halt. A series of famines and plagues, including the Great Famine of 1315–1317 and the Black Death, reduced the population to around half of what it was before the calamities. Along with depopulation came social unrest and endemic warfare. France and England experienced serious peasant uprisings, such as the Jacquerie and the Peasants' Revolt, as well as over a century of intermittent conflict in the Hundred Years' War. To add to the many problems of the period, the unity of the Catholic Church was shattered by the Western Schism. Collectively these events are sometimes called the Crisis of the Late Middle Ages.
An interest in texts from which two ancient civilizations sparked the Italian Renaissance?
57269018dd62a815002e89be
Greek and Roman
139
False
Which conflicts brought Europeans into contact with Arabs prior to the 12th century?
57269018dd62a815002e89bf
the Crusades
351
False
Which city was captured by the Ottoman Turks, resulting in the fleeing of scholars to Western Europe?
57269018dd62a815002e89c0
Constantinople
443
False
Who captured Constantinople?
57269018dd62a815002e89c1
Ottoman Turks
465
False
What kind of texts did Byzantine scholars take with them when they fled Constantinople?
57269018dd62a815002e89c2
Greek
399
False
Greek and Roman
139
An interest in texts from which two modern civilizations sparked the Italian Renaissance?
5ad01bc577cf76001a686a3c
True
the Crusades
351
Which conflicts brought Europeans into contact with Arabs prior to the 11th century?
5ad01bc577cf76001a686a3d
True
Constantinople
443
Which city was captured by the Ottoman Turks, resulting in the fleeing of scholars to Eastern Europe?
5ad01bc577cf76001a686a3e
True
Ottoman Turks
465
Who released Constantinople?
5ad01bc577cf76001a686a3f
True
Greek
399
What kind of texts didn't Byzantine scholars take with them when they fled Constantinople?
5ad01bc577cf76001a686a40
True
Despite these crises, the 14th century was also a time of great progress in the arts and sciences. Following a renewed interest in ancient Greek and Roman texts that took root in the High Middle Ages, the Italian Renaissance began. The absorption of Latin texts had started before the Renaissance of the 12th century through contact with Arabs during the Crusades, but the availability of important Greek texts accelerated with the capture of Constantinople by the Ottoman Turks, when many Byzantine scholars had to seek refuge in the West, particularly Italy.
Which invention resulted in more widespread use of the printed word?
5726945d708984140094cacd
printing
66
False
In what year did Constantinople fall?
5726945d708984140094cace
1453
372
False
In what year did Vasco da Gama sail around India and Africa?
5726945d708984140094cacf
1498
649
False
In what year was Columbus' expedition to the Americas?
5726945d708984140094cad0
1492
583
False
The Protestant Reformation is attributed to what two developments that resulted from the invention of printing?
5726945d708984140094cad1
dissemination of the printed word and democratized learning
93
False
printing
66
Which invention resulted in less widespread use of the printed word?
5ad01c1b77cf76001a686a46
True
1453
372
In what year did Constantinople rise?
5ad01c1b77cf76001a686a47
True
1498
649
In what year did Vasco da Gama sail through India and Africa?
5ad01c1b77cf76001a686a48
True
1492
583
In what year was Columbus' expedition to the Africas?
5ad01c1b77cf76001a686a49
True
dissemination of the printed word and democratized learning
93
The Protestant Reformation isn't attributed to what two developments that resulted from the invention of printing?
5ad01c1b77cf76001a686a4a
True
Combined with this influx of classical ideas was the invention of printing which facilitated dissemination of the printed word and democratized learning. These two things would later lead to the Protestant Reformation. Toward the end of the period, an era of discovery began (Age of Discovery). The rise of the Ottoman Empire, culminating in the Fall of Constantinople in 1453, eroded the last remnants of the Byzantine Empire and cut off trading possibilities with the east. Europeans were forced to seek new trading routes, leading to the expedition of Columbus to the Americas in 1492, and Vasco da Gama’s circumnavigation of India and Africa in 1498. Their discoveries strengthened the economy and power of European nations.
Along with the Late Middle Ages, what are the other two period of the Middle Ages?
572698c9f1498d1400e8e4a0
Early Middle Ages and the High Middle Ages
98
False
When was Leonardo Bruni's "History of the Florentine People" published?
572698c9f1498d1400e8e4a1
1442
254
False
What is the name for the division of the periods of history introduced by Bruni?
572698c9f1498d1400e8e4a2
tripartite periodization
188
False
Who was the author of "Decades of History from the Deterioration of the Roman Empire
572698c9f1498d1400e8e4a3
Flavio Biondo
261
False
What 1683 work resulted in the standard use of tripartite periodization?
572698c9f1498d1400e8e4a4
Universal History Divided into an Ancient, Medieval, and New Period
476
False
Early Middle Ages and the High Middle Ages
98
Along with the Late Middle Ages, what are the other three period of the Middle Ages?
5ad01d0777cf76001a686a74
True
1442
254
When was Leonardo Bruni's "History of the Florentine People" unpublished?
5ad01d0777cf76001a686a75
True
tripartite periodization
188
What isn't the name for the division of the periods of history introduced by Bruni?
5ad01d0777cf76001a686a76
True
Flavio Biondo
261
Who was the reader of "Decades of History from the Deterioration of the Roman Empire
5ad01d0777cf76001a686a77
True
Universal History Divided into an Ancient, Medieval, and New Period
476
What 1863 work resulted in the standard use of tripartite periodization?
5ad01d0777cf76001a686a78
True
The term "Late Middle Ages" refers to one of the three periods of the Middle Ages, along with the Early Middle Ages and the High Middle Ages. Leonardo Bruni was the first historian to use tripartite periodization in his History of the Florentine People (1442). Flavio Biondo used a similar framework in Decades of History from the Deterioration of the Roman Empire (1439–1453). Tripartite periodization became standard after the German historian Christoph Cellarius published Universal History Divided into an Ancient, Medieval, and New Period (1683).
What methods, applied to the study of history, led to the perception of the Middle Ages as a time of recession and crisis?
57269fea708984140094cc1b
economic and demographic
3
False
Which author popularized a pessimistic view of the Late Middle Ages in his 1919 book?
57269fea708984140094cc1c
Johan Huizinga
326
False
What was the title of Huizinga's 1919 book on the Middle Ages?
57269fea708984140094cc1d
The Autumn of the Middle Ages
449
False
Which countries were the focus of Huizinga's research?
57269fea708984140094cc1e
France and the Low Countries
526
False
What was the nationality of historian Henri Pirenne?
57269fea708984140094cc1f
Belgian
166
False
economic and demographic
3
What methods, applied to the study of chemistry, led to the perception of the Middle Ages as a time of recession and crisis?
5ad01d8477cf76001a686a88
True
Johan Huizinga
326
Which author popularized a pessimistic view of the Late Middle Ages in his 1991 book?
5ad01d8477cf76001a686a89
True
The Autumn of the Middle Ages
449
What was the title of Huizinga's 1819 book on the Middle Ages?
5ad01d8477cf76001a686a8a
True
France and the Low Countries
526
Which countries weren't the focus of Huizinga's research?
5ad01d8477cf76001a686a8b
True
Belgian
166
What wasn't the nationality of historian Henri Pirenne?
5ad01d8477cf76001a686a8c
True
As economic and demographic methods were applied to the study of history, the trend was increasingly to see the late Middle Ages as a period of recession and crisis. Belgian historian Henri Pirenne continued the subdivision of Early, High, and Late Middle Ages in the years around World War I. Yet it was his Dutch colleague, Johan Huizinga, who was primarily responsible for popularising the pessimistic view of the Late Middle Ages, with his book The Autumn of the Middle Ages (1919). To Huizinga, whose research focused on France and the Low Countries rather than Italy, despair and decline were the main themes, not rebirth.
What geopolitical entity emerged from the Late Middle Ages?
5726a296708984140094cc89
the nation state
753
False
Which mountain range is seen as a dividing line when considering conditions during the Middle Ages?
5726a296708984140094cc8a
the Alps
203
False
The Renaissance is generally used to describe developments in what areas of life in the Middle Ages?
5726a296708984140094cc8b
intellectual, cultural, or artistic
366
False
Which centuries are considered to be part of the Late Middle Ages?
5726a296708984140094cc8c
early 14th century up until – and sometimes including – the 16th century
508
False
What was the general effect of the Late Middle Ages on religion?
5726a296708984140094cc8d
the end of western religious unity
686
False
the nation state
753
What geopolitical entity faded from the Late Middle Ages?
5ad01e0677cf76001a686a92
True
the Alps
203
Which mountain range isn't seen as a dividing line when considering conditions during the Middle Ages?
5ad01e0677cf76001a686a93
True
intellectual, cultural, or artistic
366
The Renaissance is never used to describe developments in what areas of life in the Middle Ages?
5ad01e0677cf76001a686a94
True
early 14th century up until – and sometimes including – the 16th century
508
Which centuries are considered not to be part of the Late Middle Ages?
5ad01e0677cf76001a686a95
True
the end of western religious unity
686
What was the general effect of the Late Middle Ages on science?
5ad01e0677cf76001a686a96
True
Modern historiography on the period has reached a consensus between the two extremes of innovation and crisis. It is now (generally) acknowledged that conditions were vastly different north and south of the Alps, and "Late Middle Ages" is often avoided entirely within Italian historiography. The term "Renaissance" is still considered useful for describing certain intellectual, cultural, or artistic developments, but not as the defining feature of an entire European historical epoch. The period from the early 14th century up until – and sometimes including – the 16th century, is rather seen as characterised by other trends: demographic and economic decline followed by recovery, the end of western religious unity and the subsequent emergence of the nation state, and the expansion of European influence onto the rest of the world.
When was the Kalmar Union formed?
5726a7a0f1498d1400e8e64a
1397
110
False
Which Danish King was responsible for the Stockholm Bloodbath?
5726a7a0f1498d1400e8e64b
King Christian II
232
False
In what year did Sweden break away from the Kalmar Union?
5726a7a0f1498d1400e8e64c
1523
433
False
Denmark and Norway remained in the Kalmar Union until what year?
5726a7a0f1498d1400e8e64d
1814
543
False
In what year did the Stockholm Bloodbath take place?
5726a7a0f1498d1400e8e64e
1520
343
False
1397
110
When wasn't the Kalmar Union formed?
5ad01e5177cf76001a686aae
True
King Christian II
232
Which Amish King was responsible for the Stockholm Bloodbath?
5ad01e5177cf76001a686aaf
True
1523
433
In what year did Finland break away from the Kalmar Union?
5ad01e5177cf76001a686ab0
True
1814
543
Denmark and Norway left in the Kalmar Union until what year?
5ad01e5177cf76001a686ab1
True
1520
343
In what year didn't the Stockholm Bloodbath take place?
5ad01e5177cf76001a686ab2
True
After the failed union of Sweden and Norway of 1319–1365, the pan-Scandinavian Kalmar Union was instituted in 1397. The Swedes were reluctant members of the Danish-dominated union from the start. In an attempt to subdue the Swedes, King Christian II of Denmark had large numbers of the Swedish aristocracy killed in the Stockholm Bloodbath of 1520. Yet this measure only led to further hostilities, and Sweden broke away for good in 1523. Norway, on the other hand, became an inferior party of the union and remained united with Denmark until 1814.
In what year was the Holy Roman Empire dissolved?
5727284add62a815002e9968
1806
283
False
In what year did a Golden Bull make the king of Bohemia first among the imperial electors?
5727284add62a815002e9969
1356
62
False
The Hanseatic League was what type of institution?
5727284add62a815002e996a
financial
480
False
In 1438, control of the Holy Roman Empire passed to what dynasty?
5727284add62a815002e996b
the Habsburgs
217
False
1806
283
In what year was the Holy Roman Empire saved?
5ad01ec877cf76001a686ab8
True
1356
62
In what year did a Silver Bull make the king of Bohemia first among the imperial electors?
5ad01ec877cf76001a686ab9
True
1356
62
In what year did a Golden Bull make the king of Bohemia last among the imperial electors?
5ad01ec877cf76001a686aba
True
financial
480
The Hanseatic League wasn't what type of institution?
5ad01ec877cf76001a686abb
True
the Habsburgs
217
In 1483, control of the Holy Roman Empire passed to what dynasty?
5ad01ec877cf76001a686abc
True
Bohemia prospered in the 14th century, and the Golden Bull of 1356 made the king of Bohemia first among the imperial electors, but the Hussite revolution threw the country into crisis. The Holy Roman Empire passed to the Habsburgs in 1438, where it remained until its dissolution in 1806. Yet in spite of the extensive territories held by the Habsburgs, the Empire itself remained fragmented, and much real power and influence lay with the individual principalities. In addition, financial institutions, such as the Hanseatic League and the Fugger family, held great power, on both economic and a political levels.
In what year did Louis die?
5727299f708984140094da8d
1382
53
False
Who did Louis name as his heir?
5727299f708984140094da8e
Sigismund of Luxemburg
106
False
How old was Sigismund of Luxemburg when he was named heir?
5727299f708984140094da8f
11
138
False
Upon taking the throne of Hungary where did Sigismund establish his court?
5727299f708984140094da90
Buda and Visegrád
321
False
What was the result of the Hungarian nobility's refusal to accept Sigismund claim as Louis' heir?
5727299f708984140094da91
internal war
223
False
1382
53
In what year did Louis live?
5ad01f3077cf76001a686ac8
True
Sigismund of Luxemburg
106
Who didn't Louis name as his heir?
5ad01f3077cf76001a686ac9
True
11
138
How old was Sigismund of Luxemburg when he wasn't named heir?
5ad01f3077cf76001a686aca
True
Buda and Visegrád
321
Upon taking the throne of Hungary where didn't Sigismund establish his court?
5ad01f3077cf76001a686acb
True
internal war
223
What was the result of the Hungarian nobility's honor to accept Sigismund claim as Louis' heir?
5ad01f3077cf76001a686acc
True
Louis did not leave a son as heir after his death in 1382. Instead, he named as his heir the young prince Sigismund of Luxemburg, who was 11 years old. The Hungarian nobility did not accept his claim, and the result was an internal war. Sigismund eventually achieved total control of Hungary and established his court in Buda and Visegrád. Both palaces were rebuilt and improved, and were considered the richest of the time in Europe. Inheriting the throne of Bohemia and the Holy Roman Empire, Sigismund continued conducting his politics from Hungary, but he was kept busy fighting the Hussites and the Ottoman Empire, which was becoming a menace to Europe in the beginning of the 15th century.
In what year did Belgrade fall to the Ottomans?
57272b9d708984140094da97
1521
863
False
Who led led the Serbian Army at the Battle of Kosovo?
57272b9d708984140094da98
Lazar Hrebljevanovic
310
False
In what year was the Battle of Kosovo?
57272b9d708984140094da99
1389
387
False
What event resulted in the triumph of Serbia over Bulgaria in 1330?
57272b9d708984140094da9a
Battle of Velbazhd
147
False
Which country was conquered by the Ottomans in 1479?
57272b9d708984140094da9b
Albania
669
False
1521
863
In what year didn't Belgrade fall to the Ottomans?
5ad01fbd77cf76001a686ad2
True
Lazar Hrebljevanovic
310
Who never led the Serbian Army at the Battle of Kosovo?
5ad01fbd77cf76001a686ad3
True
1389
387
In what year wasn't the Battle of Kosovo?
5ad01fbd77cf76001a686ad4
True
Battle of Velbazhd
147
What event resulted in the triumph of Serbia over Bulgaria in 1303?
5ad01fbd77cf76001a686ad5
True
Albania
669
Which country wasn't conquered by the Ottomans in 1479?
5ad01fbd77cf76001a686ad6
True
The Bulgarian Empire was in decline by the 14th century, and the ascendancy of Serbia was marked by the Serbian victory over the Bulgarians in the Battle of Velbazhd in 1330. By 1346, the Serbian king Stefan Dušan had been proclaimed emperor. Yet Serbian dominance was short-lived; the Serbian army led by the Lazar Hrebljevanovic was defeated by the Ottomans at the Battle of Kosovo in 1389, where most of the Serbian nobility was killed and the south of the country came under Ottoman occupation, as much of southern Bulgaria had become Ottoman territory in 1371. Northern remnants of Bulgaria were finally conquered by 1396, Serbia fell in 1459, Bosnia in 1463, and Albania was finally subordinated in 1479 only a few years after the death of Skanderbeg. Belgrade, an Hungarian domain at the time, was the last large Balkan city to fall under Ottoman rule, in 1521. By the end of the medieval period, the entire Balkan peninsula was annexed by, or became vassal to, the Ottomans.
What city was the seat of the papacy for most of the 14th century?
57272dbd708984140094daa9
Avignon
0
False
In what year did the papacy return to Rome?
57272dbd708984140094daaa
1378
93
False
What 14th century conflict resulted in the division of southern Italy into two kingdoms?
57272dbd708984140094daab
The War of the Sicilian Vespers
540
False
What were the names of the two kingdoms into which southern Italy was divided?
57272dbd708984140094daac
Aragon Kingdom of Sicily and an Anjou Kingdom of Naples
633
False
In what year were the two southern Italian kingdoms re-united?
57272dbd708984140094daad
1442
693
False
Avignon
0
What city was the seat of the papacy for most of the 13th century?
5ad0200577cf76001a686adc
True
1378
93
In what year didn't the papacy return to Rome?
5ad0200577cf76001a686add
True
The War of the Sicilian Vespers
540
What 13th century conflict resulted in the division of southern Italy into two kingdoms?
5ad0200577cf76001a686ade
True
Aragon Kingdom of Sicily and an Anjou Kingdom of Naples
633
What were the names of the two kingdoms into which northern Italy was divided?
5ad0200577cf76001a686adf
True
1442
693
In what year were the two southern Italian kingdoms separated?
5ad0200577cf76001a686ae0
True
Avignon was the seat of the papacy from 1309 to 1376. With the return of the Pope to Rome in 1378, the Papal State developed into a major secular power, culminating in the morally corrupt papacy of Alexander VI. Florence grew to prominence amongst the Italian city-states through financial business, and the dominant Medici family became important promoters of the Renaissance through their patronage of the arts. Other city states in northern Italy also expanded their territories and consolidated their power, primarily Milan and Venice. The War of the Sicilian Vespers had by the early 14th century divided southern Italy into an Aragon Kingdom of Sicily and an Anjou Kingdom of Naples. In 1442, the two kingdoms were effectively united under Aragonese control.
In what year were Isabel I and Ferdinand II married?
5727311af1498d1400e8f460
1469
4
False
When was modern-day Spain created?
5727311af1498d1400e8f461
1492
154
False
The capture of which city finalized the Reconquista?
5727311af1498d1400e8f462
Granada
160
False
Which explorer discovered a sea-route to India?
5727311af1498d1400e8f463
Vasco da Gama
366
False
In what year did Christopher Columbus discover the Americas?
5727311af1498d1400e8f464
1492
594
False
1469
4
In what year were Isabel II and Ferdinand II married?
5ad0205a77cf76001a686af0
True
1492
154
When was ancient-day Spain created?
5ad0205a77cf76001a686af1
True
Granada
160
The release of which city finalized the Reconquista?
5ad0205a77cf76001a686af2
True
Vasco da Gama
366
Which explorer ignored a sea-route to India?
5ad0205a77cf76001a686af3
True
1492
594
In what year did Christopher Columbus miss the Americas?
5ad0205a77cf76001a686af4
True
The 1469 marriage of Isabella I of Castile and Ferdinand II of Aragon and the 1479 death of John II of Aragon led to the creation of modern-day Spain. In 1492, Granada was captured from the Moors, thereby completing the Reconquista. Portugal had during the 15th century – particularly under Henry the Navigator – gradually explored the coast of Africa, and in 1498, Vasco da Gama found the sea route to India. The Spanish monarchs met the Portuguese challenge by financing the expedition of Christopher Columbus to find a western sea route to India, leading to the discovery of the Americas in 1492.
Which climactic epoch followed the Medieval Warm Period?
572732f9dd62a815002e997a
the Little Ice Age
54
False
What was the high end of the estimated death rate of the Black Plague?
572732f9dd62a815002e997b
sixty percent
429
False
What major conflict rocked France during the 13th and 14th centuries?
572732f9dd62a815002e997c
Hundred Years' War
741
False
When did the Medieval Warm Period end?
572732f9dd62a815002e997d
Around 1300–1350
0
False
What was the effect of the Little Ice Age?
572732f9dd62a815002e997e
agricultural crises
105
False
Little Ice Age
58
Which climactic epoch followed the Medieval Cold Period?
5ad0212077cf76001a686b02
True
sixty percent.
429
What was the low end of the known death rate of the Black Plague?
5ad0212077cf76001a686b03
True
agricultural crises
105
What wasn't the effect of the Little Ice Age?
5ad0212077cf76001a686b04
True
Hundred Years' War
741
What major conflict rocked France during the 12th and 13th centuries?
5ad0212077cf76001a686b05
True
1300–1350
7
When did the Medieval Warm Period start?
5ad0212077cf76001a686b06
True
Around 1300–1350 the Medieval Warm Period gave way to the Little Ice Age. The colder climate resulted in agricultural crises, the first of which is known as the Great Famine of 1315-1317. The demographic consequences of this famine, however, were not as severe as the plagues that occurred later in the century, particularly the Black Death. Estimates of the death rate caused by this epidemic range from one third to as much as sixty percent. By around 1420, the accumulated effect of recurring plagues and famines had reduced the population of Europe to perhaps no more than a third of what it was a century earlier. The effects of natural disasters were exacerbated by armed conflicts; this was particularly the case in France during the Hundred Years' War.
When did the French Jacquerie take place?
572734fff1498d1400e8f4a0
1358
391
False
What English law was enacted in order to forcibly reduce wages?
572734fff1498d1400e8f4a1
Statute of Laborers
209
False
In what year was the Statute of Laborers enacted?
572734fff1498d1400e8f4a2
1351
204
False
In what year did the English Peasants' Revolt occur?
572734fff1498d1400e8f4a3
1381
432
False
Which economic system was ultimately ended by the upheavals of the 14th century?
572734fff1498d1400e8f4a4
serfdom
482
False
1358
391
When didn't the French Jacquerie take place?
5ad0217377cf76001a686b16
True
Statute of Laborers
209
What English law was scrapped in order to forcibly reduce wages?
5ad0217377cf76001a686b17
True
1351
204
In what year was the Statute of Laborers rejected?
5ad0217377cf76001a686b18
True
1381
432
In what year didn't the English Peasants' Revolt occur?
5ad0217377cf76001a686b19
True
serfdom
482
Which economic system was ultimately started by the upheavals of the 14th century?
5ad0217377cf76001a686b1a
True
As the European population was severely reduced, land became more plentiful for the survivors, and labour consequently more expensive. Attempts by landowners to forcibly reduce wages, such as the English 1351 Statute of Laborers, were doomed to fail. These efforts resulted in nothing more than fostering resentment among the peasantry, leading to rebellions such as the French Jacquerie in 1358 and the English Peasants' Revolt in 1381. The long-term effect was the virtual end of serfdom in Western Europe. In Eastern Europe, on the other hand, landowners were able to exploit the situation to force the peasantry into even more repressive bondage.
Which European cities likely had populations greater than 100,000 in 1500?
5727367d708984140094dafd
Venice, Milan, Naples, Paris and Constantinople
246
False
How many other cities had populations larger than 40,000 by 1500?
5727367d708984140094dafe
Twenty-two
343
False
What event decimated urban populations in the 14th century?
5727367d708984140094daff
the Black Death
118
False
Which English city had a population greater than 40,000 in 1500?
5727367d708984140094db00
London
519
False
Venice, Milan, Naples, Paris and Constantinople
246
Which European cities likely had populations greater than 1,000,000 in 1500?
5ad0221377cf76001a686b34
True
Venice, Milan, Naples, Paris and Constantinople
246
Which European cities likely had populations less than 100,000 in 1500?
5ad0221377cf76001a686b35
True
Twenty-two
343
How many other cities had populations larger than 40,000 by 1600?
5ad0221377cf76001a686b36
True
the Black Death
118
What event decimated urban populations in the 13th century?
5ad0221377cf76001a686b37
True
London
519
Which English city had a population greater than 40,000 in 1600?
5ad0221377cf76001a686b38
True
Up until the mid-14th century, Europe had experienced steadily increasing urbanisation. Cities were also decimated by the Black Death, but the role of urban areas as centres of learning, commerce and government ensured continued growth. By 1500, Venice, Milan, Naples, Paris and Constantinople each probably had more than 100,000 inhabitants. Twenty-two other cities were larger than 40,000; most of these were in Italy and the Iberian peninsula, but there were also some in France, the Empire, the Low Countries, plus London in England.
Which conflict in France resulted in the establishment of permanent armies?
572738d25951b619008f86ef
Hundred Years' War
504
False
The use of paid mercenaries and domestic retinues replaced which method of raising troops?
572738d25951b619008f86f0
national or feudal levy
89
False
Which soldiers were in high demand under the mercenary system?
572738d25951b619008f86f1
Swiss
316
False
Which English king is associated with the use of mercenaries in the 14th century?
572738d35951b619008f86f2
Edward III
229
False
Hundred Years' War
504
Which conflict in France resulted in the abolishment of permanent armies?
5ad0225d77cf76001a686b48
True
national or feudal levy
89
The use of paid mercenaries and international retinues replaced which method of raising troops?
5ad0225d77cf76001a686b49
True
Swiss
316
Which soldiers were in low demand under the mercenary system?
5ad0225d77cf76001a686b4a
True
Swiss
316
Which soldiers were in high demand under the judicial system?
5ad0225d77cf76001a686b4b
True
Edward III
229
Which English king is associated with the use of mercenaries in the 13th century?
5ad0225d77cf76001a686b4c
True
Changes also took place within the recruitment and composition of armies. The use of the national or feudal levy was gradually replaced by paid troops of domestic retinues or foreign mercenaries. The practice was associated with Edward III of England and the condottieri of the Italian city-states. All over Europe, Swiss soldiers were in particularly high demand. At the same time, the period also saw the emergence of the first permanent armies. It was in Valois France, under the heavy demands of the Hundred Years' War, that the armed forces gradually assumed a permanent nature.
What was the chivalric order established by Edward III in 1348?
57273aa2dd62a815002e99c2
Order of the Garter
534
False
Who founded the Order of St. George?
57273aa2dd62a815002e99c3
Charles I of Hungary
458
False
In what year was the Order of St. George founded?
57273aa2dd62a815002e99c4
1325
482
False
What was the code of conduct of the military orders called?
57273aa2dd62a815002e99c5
chivalry
317
False
In what year was the Order of the Garter established?
57273aa2dd62a815002e99c6
1348
580
False
English Order of the Garter
526
What was the chivalric order established by Edward III in 1438?
5ad022b677cf76001a686b5e
True
Charles I of Hungary
458
Who co-founded the Order of St. George?
5ad022b677cf76001a686b5f
True
1325
482
In what year was the Order of St. George disbanded?
5ad022b677cf76001a686b60
True
chivalry
317
What wasn't the code of conduct of the military orders called?
5ad022b677cf76001a686b61
True
1348
580
In what year was the Order of the Garter destroyed?
5ad022b677cf76001a686b62
True
Parallel to the military developments emerged also a constantly more elaborate chivalric code of conduct for the warrior class. This new-found ethos can be seen as a response to the diminishing military role of the aristocracy, and gradually it became almost entirely detached from its military origin. The spirit of chivalry was given expression through the new (secular) type of chivalric orders; the first of these was the Order of St. George, founded by Charles I of Hungary in 1325, while the best known was probably the English Order of the Garter, founded by Edward III in 1348.
What was the result of the election of two popes at the same time?
57273c11dd62a815002e99dc
Papal Schism
245
False
Where was the Holy See transferred to in 1309?
57273c11dd62a815002e99dd
Avignon
106
False
In what year did the Pope return to Rome from Avignon?
57273c11dd62a815002e99de
1377
157
False
What was the time frame of the Papal Schism?
57273c11dd62a815002e99df
1378–1417
259
False
Who were the supporters of the Avignon Papacy?
57273c11dd62a815002e99e0
France, her ally Scotland and the Spanish kingdoms
326
False
Papal Schism
245
What was the result of the election of three popes at the same time?
5ad0231977cf76001a686b68
True
Avignon
106
Where was the Holy See transferred to in 1039?
5ad0231977cf76001a686b69
True
1377
157
In what year didn't the Pope return to Rome from Avignon?
5ad0231977cf76001a686b6a
True
1378–1417
259
What wasn't the time frame of the Papal Schism?
5ad0231977cf76001a686b6b
True
France, her ally Scotland and the Spanish kingdoms
326
Who were the rejecters of the Avignon Papacy?
5ad0231977cf76001a686b6c
True
The French crown's increasing dominance over the Papacy culminated in the transference of the Holy See to Avignon in 1309. When the Pope returned to Rome in 1377, this led to the election of different popes in Avignon and Rome, resulting in the Papal Schism (1378–1417). The Schism divided Europe along political lines; while France, her ally Scotland and the Spanish kingdoms supported the Avignon Papacy, France's enemy England stood behind the Pope in Rome, together with Portugal, Scandinavia and most of the German princes.
Which Oxford professor believed that the Bible should be the sole authority in religious questions?
572740eaf1498d1400e8f534
John Wycliffe
429
False
What were Jon Wycliffe's supporters called?
572740eaf1498d1400e8f535
the Lollards
799
False
What was the event that ended religious unity in the Western Church?
572740eaf1498d1400e8f536
the Protestant Reformation
131
False
Which Catholic practices did Wycliffe speak out against?
572740eaf1498d1400e8f537
transubstantiation, celibacy and indulgences
562
False
Who was one of the English aristocrats who supported the Lollard movement?
572740eaf1498d1400e8f538
John of Gaunt
682
False
John Wycliffe
429
Which Oxford professor believed that the Bible shouldn't be the sole authority in religious questions?
5ad0239977cf76001a686b72
True
the Lollards
799
What were Jon Wycliffe's supporters not called?
5ad0239977cf76001a686b73
True
(the Protestant Reformation),
130
What wasn't the event that ended religious unity in the Western Church?
5ad0239977cf76001a686b74
True
transubstantiation, celibacy and indulgences
562
Which Catholic practices did Wycliffe speak out for?
5ad0239977cf76001a686b75
True
John of Gaunt
682
Who was one of the English aristocrats who never supported the Lollard movement?
5ad0239977cf76001a686b76
True
Though many of the events were outside the traditional time-period of the Middle Ages, the end of the unity of the Western Church (the Protestant Reformation), was one of the distinguishing characteristics of the medieval period. The Catholic Church had long fought against heretic movements, but during the Late Middle Ages, it started to experience demands for reform from within. The first of these came from Oxford professor John Wycliffe in England. Wycliffe held that the Bible should be the only authority in religious questions, and he spoke out against transubstantiation, celibacy and indulgences. In spite of influential supporters among the English aristocracy, such as John of Gaunt, the movement was not allowed to survive. Though Wycliffe himself was left unmolested, his supporters, the Lollards, were eventually suppressed in England.
In what year was Jan Hus burned at the stake?
57274264708984140094db7f
1415
487
False
Who did Richard II of England marry?
57274264708984140094db80
Anne of Bohemia
41
False
Whose teachings did Jan Hus base his own on?
57274264708984140094db81
John Wycliffe
210
False
What were the followers of Jan Hus called?
57274264708984140094db82
Hussites
248
False
What conflict resulted from death of Jan Hus?
57274264708984140094db83
Hussite Wars
557
False
1415
487
In what year was Jan Hus saved at the stake?
5ad023f477cf76001a686b7c
True
Anne of Bohemia
41
Who did Richard I of England marry?
5ad023f477cf76001a686b7d
True
John Wycliffe
210
Whose teachings did Jan Hus not base his own on?
5ad023f477cf76001a686b7e
True
Hussites
248
What weren't the followers of Jan Hus called?
5ad023f477cf76001a686b7f
True
Hussite Wars
557
What conflict resulted from birth of Jan Hus?
5ad023f477cf76001a686b80
True
The marriage of Richard II of England to Anne of Bohemia established contacts between the two nations and brought Lollard ideas to her homeland. The teachings of the Czech priest Jan Hus were based on those of John Wycliffe, yet his followers, the Hussites, were to have a much greater political impact than the Lollards. Hus gained a great following in Bohemia, and in 1414, he was requested to appear at the Council of Constance to defend his cause. When he was burned as a heretic in 1415, it caused a popular uprising in the Czech lands. The subsequent Hussite Wars fell apart due to internal quarrels and did not result in religious or national independence for the Czechs, but both the Catholic Church and the German element within the country were weakened.
Into what language did Martin Luther translate the Bible?
572743c45951b619008f8797
German
522
False
What did Martin Luther post on the castle church of Wittenberg?
572743c45951b619008f8798
95 theses
72
False
In what year did Martin Luther post his 95 theses?
572743c45951b619008f8799
1517
132
False
What was Martin Luther's response when challenged to recant his heresy?
572743c45951b619008f879a
he refused
361
False
Who acted as protector to Martin Luther when he was under the ban of the Empire?
572743c45951b619008f879b
Frederick the Wise
457
False
German
17
Into what language didn't Martin Luther translate the Bible?
5ad0246777cf76001a686b86
True
95 theses
72
What didn't Martin Luther post on the castle church of Wittenberg?
5ad0246777cf76001a686b87
True
1517
132
In what year did Martin Luther post his 59 theses?
5ad0246777cf76001a686b88
True
he refused
361
What wasn't Martin Luther's response when challenged to recant his heresy?
5ad0246777cf76001a686b89
True
Frederick the Wise
457
Who acted as protector to Martin Luther when he wasn't under the ban of the Empire?
5ad0246777cf76001a686b8a
True
Martin Luther, a German monk, started the German Reformation by posting 95 theses on the castle church of Wittenberg on October 31, 1517. The immediate provocation spurring this act was Pope Leo X’s renewal of the indulgence for the building of the new St. Peter's Basilica in 1514. Luther was challenged to recant his heresy at the Diet of Worms in 1521. When he refused, he was placed under the ban of the Empire by Charles V. Receiving the protection of Frederick the Wise, he was then able to translate the Bible into German.
What new form of accounting was created during the late 13th and early 14th centuries?
57274695dd62a815002e9a54
double-entry bookkeeping
542
False
In which country did the so-called 'commercial revolution' primarily take place?
57274695dd62a815002e9a55
Italy
79
False
What was the main benefit of the creation of new forms of partnerships during the commercial revolution?
57274695dd62a815002e9a56
reducing the risk of commercial ventures
297
False
Laws against what lending practice were addressed by the creation of bills of exchange?
57274695dd62a815002e9a57
usury
444
False
What were the benefits of the new system of double-entry bookkeeping?
57274695dd62a815002e9a58
better oversight and accuracy
586
False
double-entry bookkeeping
542
What old form of accounting was created during the late 13th and early 14th centuries?
5ad025ea77cf76001a686baa
True
Italy
79
In which country did the so-called 'commercial revolution' never take place?
5ad025ea77cf76001a686bab
True
reducing the risk of commercial ventures
297
What was the main benefit of the creation of old forms of partnerships during the commercial revolution?
5ad025ea77cf76001a686bac
True
usury
444
Laws against what lending practice weren't addressed by the creation of bills of exchange?
5ad025ea77cf76001a686bad
True
better oversight and accuracy
586
What were the benefits of the new system of single-entry bookkeeping?
5ad025ea77cf76001a686bae
True
In the late 13th and early 14th centuries, a process took place – primarily in Italy but partly also in the Empire – that historians have termed a 'commercial revolution'. Among the innovations of the period were new forms of partnership and the issuing of insurance, both of which contributed to reducing the risk of commercial ventures; the bill of exchange and other forms of credit that circumvented the canonical laws for gentiles against usury, and eliminated the dangers of carrying bullion; and new forms of accounting, in particular double-entry bookkeeping, which allowed for better oversight and accuracy.
What privilege was granted to companies on a national level?
57274a76708984140094dbcb
monopolies
200
False
Which families financed the wars of kings?
57274a76708984140094dbcc
the Fuggers in Germany, the Medicis in Italy, the de la Poles in England
350
False
Which economic associations gained power in the towns?
57274a76708984140094dbcd
guilds
131
False
Where was Jacques Couer from?
57274a76708984140094dbce
France
462
False
monopolies
200
What privilege wasn't granted to companies on a national level?
5ad0267877cf76001a686bbe
True
monopolies
200
What privilege was granted to companies on a international level?
5ad0267877cf76001a686bbf
True
the Fuggers in Germany, the Medicis in Italy, the de la Poles in England
350
Which families never financed the wars of kings?
5ad0267877cf76001a686bc0
True
guilds
131
Which economic associations lost power in the towns?
5ad0267877cf76001a686bc1
True
France
462
Where wasn't Jacques Couer from?
5ad0267877cf76001a686bc2
True
With the financial expansion, trading rights became more jealously guarded by the commercial elite. Towns saw the growing power of guilds, while on a national level special companies would be granted monopolies on particular trades, like the English wool Staple. The beneficiaries of these developments would accumulate immense wealth. Families like the Fuggers in Germany, the Medicis in Italy, the de la Poles in England, and individuals like Jacques Coeur in France would help finance the wars of kings, and achieve great political influence in the process.
What caused the decrease in commerce and production in the 14th century?
57274d85dd62a815002e9ac2
demographic crisis
34
False
What is the alternative to the theory that the Renaissance was a time of great opulence?
57274d85dd62a815002e9ac3
depression of the Renaissance
436
False
What type of evidence is too incomplete for a decision to be made between the two theories of the Renaissance?
57274d85dd62a815002e9ac4
statistical
519
False
What is posited as the cause of increased artistic output during the Renaissance?
57274d85dd62a815002e9ac5
greater opulence
343
False
demographic crisis
34
What caused the increase in commerce and production in the 14th century?
5ad026e577cf76001a686bd0
True
depression of the Renaissance
436
What is the alternative to the theory that the Renaissance wasn't a time of great opulence?
5ad026e577cf76001a686bd1
True
'depression of the Renaissance'
435
What is the alternative to the theory that the Renaissance was a time of no opulence?
5ad026e577cf76001a686bd2
True
statistical
519
What type of evidence is too complete for a decision to be made between the two theories of the Renaissance?
5ad026e577cf76001a686bd3
True
greater opulence
343
What is posited as the cause of decreased artistic output during the Renaissance?
5ad026e577cf76001a686bd4
True
Though there is no doubt that the demographic crisis of the 14th century caused a dramatic fall in production and commerce in absolute terms, there has been a vigorous historical debate over whether the decline was greater than the fall in population. While the older orthodoxy held that the artistic output of the Renaissance was a result of greater opulence, more recent studies have suggested that there might have been a so-called 'depression of the Renaissance'. In spite of convincing arguments for the case, the statistical evidence is simply too incomplete for a definite conclusion to be made.
Which philosophy attempted to reconcile Aristotelian teachings and Christian theology in the 13th century?
57274fac5951b619008f8813
Thomistic
62
False
Where was the Condemnation of 1277 enacted?
57274fac5951b619008f8814
University of Paris
183
False
Which philosopher believed that reason and faith were to be kept separate?
57274fac5951b619008f8815
William of Ockham
365
False
What is the common name for William of Ockham's principle of parsimony?
57274fac5951b619008f8816
Occam's razor
517
False
On what types of ideas did the Condemnation of 1277 place restrictions?
57274fac5951b619008f8817
heretical
262
False
Thomistic
62
Which philosophy attempted to reconcile Aristotelian teachings and Christian theology in the 12th century?
5ad0278877cf76001a686bee
True
University of Paris
183
Where was the Condemnation of 1727 enacted?
5ad0278877cf76001a686bef
True
William of Ockham
365
Which philosopher believed that reason and faith were to be kept together?
5ad0278877cf76001a686bf0
True
Occam's razor
517
What is the uncommon name for William of Ockham's principle of parsimony?
5ad0278877cf76001a686bf1
True
heretical
262
On what types of ideas did the Condemnation of 1272 place restrictions?
5ad0278877cf76001a686bf2
True
The predominant school of thought in the 13th century was the Thomistic reconciliation of the teachings of Aristotle with Christian theology. The Condemnation of 1277, enacted at the University of Paris, placed restrictions on ideas that could be interpreted as heretical; restrictions that had implication for Aristotelian thought. An alternative was presented by William of Ockham, who insisted that the world of reason and the world of faith had to be kept apart. Ockham introduced the principle of parsimony – or Occam's razor – whereby a simple theory is preferred to a more complex one, and speculation on unobservable phenomena is avoided.
What did Jean Buridan create to explain the motion of projectiles?
57275ef9708984140094dca1
the theory of impetus
350
False
What school of scientific thought was challenged by Jean Buridan and Nicole Oresme?
57275ef9708984140094dca2
Aristotelian
83
False
What scientist is most associated with the heliocentric worldview?
57275ef9708984140094dca3
Nicolaus Copernicus
552
False
Which scholars made great advances in the theories of motion?
57275ef9708984140094dca4
Jean Buridan, Nicole Oresme and the Oxford Calculators
243
False
Buridan's theory of impetus led to what modern concept?
57275ef9708984140094dca5
inertia
473
False
the theory of impetus
350
What didn't Jean Buridan create to explain the motion of projectiles?
5ad027ef77cf76001a686bf8
True
the theory of impetus
350
What did Jean Buridan destroy to explain the motion of projectiles?
5ad027ef77cf76001a686bf9
True
Aristotelian
83
What school of scientific thought was accepted by Jean Buridan and Nicole Oresme?
5ad027ef77cf76001a686bfa
True
Nicolaus Copernicus
552
What scientist is least associated with the heliocentric worldview?
5ad027ef77cf76001a686bfb
True
Jean Buridan, Nicole Oresme and the Oxford Calculators
243
Which scholars made no advances in the theories of motion?
5ad027ef77cf76001a686bfc
True
This new approach liberated scientific speculation from the dogmatic restraints of Aristotelian science, and paved the way for new approaches. Particularly within the field of theories of motion great advances were made, when such scholars as Jean Buridan, Nicole Oresme and the Oxford Calculators challenged the work of Aristotle. Buridan developed the theory of impetus as the cause of the motion of projectiles, which was an important step towards the modern concept of inertia. The works of these scholars anticipated the heliocentric worldview of Nicolaus Copernicus.
Who invented the movable printing press?
5727606bdd62a815002e9bce
Gutenberg
376
False
What religious movement was spurred by the invention of the printing press?
5727606bdd62a815002e9bcf
the Reformation
439
False
Which inventions of the period had a great impact on everyday life?
5727606bdd62a815002e9bd0
eyeglasses and the weight-driven clock
818
False
Which invention with military applications helped bring about the nation state?
5727606bdd62a815002e9bd1
gunpowder
265
False
Advances in what construction trade helped to increase global navigation?
5727606bdd62a815002e9bd2
shipbuilding
659
False
Gutenberg
376
Who invented the stationary printing press?
5ad028fe77cf76001a686c14
True
the Reformation
439
What religious movement was halted by the invention of the printing press?
5ad028fe77cf76001a686c15
True
eyeglasses and the weight-driven clock
818
Which inventions of the period had no impact on everyday life?
5ad028fe77cf76001a686c16
True
gunpowder
265
Which invention with no military applications helped bring about the nation state?
5ad028fe77cf76001a686c17
True
shipbuilding
659
Advances in what construction trade helped to decrease global navigation?
5ad028fe77cf76001a686c18
True
Certain technological inventions of the period – whether of Arab or Chinese origin, or unique European innovations – were to have great influence on political and social developments, in particular gunpowder, the printing press and the compass. The introduction of gunpowder to the field of battle affected not only military organisation, but helped advance the nation state. Gutenberg's movable type printing press made possible not only the Reformation, but also a dissemination of knowledge that would lead to a gradually more egalitarian society. The compass, along with other innovations such as the cross-staff, the mariner's astrolabe, and advances in shipbuilding, enabled the navigation of the World Oceans, and the early phases of colonialism. Other inventions had a greater impact on everyday life, such as eyeglasses and the weight-driven clock.
Who championed the scientific study of anatomy for the benefit of art?
5727624e5951b619008f8929
Donatello
267
False
Which artistic principle was innovated by Brunelleschi?
5727624e5951b619008f892a
linear perspective
78
False
Along with da Vinci, who were two other artists regarded as masters of the High Renaissance?
5727624e5951b619008f892b
Michelangelo and Raphael
486
False
What was achieved though the use of the scientific study of anatomy in the field of art?
5727624e5951b619008f892c
Greater realism
165
False
What did Donatello study that inspired sculptures?
5727624e5951b619008f892d
classical models
357
False
Donatello
267
Who rejected the scientific study of anatomy for the benefit of art?
5ad0295c77cf76001a686c30
True
linear perspective
78
Which artistic principle was renovated by Brunelleschi?
5ad0295c77cf76001a686c31
True
Michelangelo and Raphael
486
Along with da Vinci, who weren't two other artists regarded as masters of the High Renaissance?
5ad0295c77cf76001a686c32
True
Greater realism
165
What wasn't achieved though the use of the scientific study of anatomy in the field of art?
5ad0295c77cf76001a686c33
True
classical models
357
What didn't Donatello study that inspired sculptures?
5ad0295c77cf76001a686c34
True
The period saw several important technical innovations, like the principle of linear perspective found in the work of Masaccio, and later described by Brunelleschi. Greater realism was also achieved through the scientific study of anatomy, championed by artists like Donatello. This can be seen particularly well in his sculptures, inspired by the study of classical models. As the centre of the movement shifted to Rome, the period culminated in the High Renaissance masters da Vinci, Michelangelo and Raphael.
What was the focus of paintings in Italy?
572763d9dd62a815002e9bfe
idealized compositions
494
False
Where was the focus of paintings on textures and surfaces?
572763d9dd62a815002e9bff
the Netherlands
422
False
What painter was an early champion of oil as a medium in painting?
572763d9dd62a815002e9c00
Jan van Eyck
227
False
Jan van Eyck's paintings are known for what characteristics?
572763d9dd62a815002e9c01
great realism and minute detail
305
False
idealized compositions
494
What wasn't the focus of paintings in Italy?
5ad02a2f77cf76001a686c4a
True
the Netherlands
422
Where wasn't the focus of paintings on textures and surfaces?
5ad02a2f77cf76001a686c4b
True
Jan van Eyck
227
What painter was a late champion of oil as a medium in painting?
5ad02a2f77cf76001a686c4c
True
Jan van Eyck
227
What painter wasn't an early champion of oil as a medium in painting?
5ad02a2f77cf76001a686c4d
True
great realism and minute detail
305
Jan van Eyck's paintings are unknown for what characteristics?
5ad02a2f77cf76001a686c4e
True
The ideas of the Italian Renaissance were slow to cross the Alps into northern Europe, but important artistic innovations were made also in the Low Countries. Though not – as previously believed – the inventor of oil painting, Jan van Eyck was a champion of the new medium, and used it to create works of great realism and minute detail. The two cultures influenced each other and learned from each other, but painting in the Netherlands remained more focused on textures and surfaces than the idealized compositions of Italy.
Who wrote the Divine Comedy?
5727657f708984140094dcf7
Dante Alighieri
0
False
In what languages did Dante and Boccaccio create their works?
5727657f708984140094dcf8
Latin as well as Italian
317
False
Which dialect became the norm for the modern Italian language?
5727657f708984140094dcf9
Tuscan
520
False
What is one of Boccaccio's works that helped promote the Italian language?
5727657f708984140094dcfa
Decameron
184
False
Whose work, Canzoniere, is considered to be the first example of modern lyric poetry?
5727657f708984140094dcfb
Petrarch
352
False
Dante Alighieri
0
Who didn't wrote the Divine Comedy?
5ad02a8077cf76001a686c54
True
Latin as well as Italian
317
In what languages didn't Dante and Boccaccio create their works?
5ad02a8077cf76001a686c55
True
Tuscan
520
Which dialect became the norm for the ancient Italian language?
5ad02a8077cf76001a686c56
True
Decameron
184
What is one of Boccaccio's works that helped demote the Italian language?
5ad02a8077cf76001a686c57
True
Petrarch
352
Whose work, Canzoniere, is considered to be the last example of modern lyric poetry?
5ad02a8077cf76001a686c58
True
Dante Alighieri's Divine Comedy, written in the early 14th century, merged a medieval world view with classical ideals. Another promoter of the Italian language was Boccaccio with his Decameron. The application of the vernacular did not entail a rejection of Latin, and both Dante and Boccaccio wrote prolifically in Latin as well as Italian, as would Petrarch later (whose Canzoniere also promoted the vernacular and whose contents are considered the first modern lyric poems). Together the three poets established the Tuscan dialect as the norm for the modern Italian language.
What was the dominant sacred musical form in the early 13th century?
57276748dd62a815002e9c46
the motet
217
False
What style of sacred musical form emerged in the 1330s?
57276748dd62a815002e9c47
polyphonic
310
False
Polyphony was common in the secular music of which French region?
57276748dd62a815002e9c48
Provençal
437
False
What is the term for the four subjects that comprised the liberal arts in medieval universities?
57276748dd62a815002e9c49
the quadrivium
110
False
the motet
217
What was the dominant sacred musical form in the early 12th century?
5ad02b6777cf76001a686c86
True
the motet
217
What was the nondominant sacred musical form in the early 13th century?
5ad02b6777cf76001a686c87
True
polyphonic
310
What style of sacred musical form emerged in the 1320s?
5ad02b6777cf76001a686c88
True
Provençal
437
Polyphony was uncommon in the secular music of which French region?
5ad02b6777cf76001a686c89
True
the quadrivium
110
What isn't the term for the four subjects that comprised the liberal arts in medieval universities?
5ad02b6777cf76001a686c8a
True
Music was an important part of both secular and spiritual culture, and in the universities it made up part of the quadrivium of the liberal arts. From the early 13th century, the dominant sacred musical form had been the motet; a composition with text in several parts. From the 1330s and onwards, emerged the polyphonic style, which was a more complex fusion of independent voices. Polyphony had been common in the secular music of the Provençal troubadours. Many of these had fallen victim to the 13th-century Albigensian Crusade, but their influence reached the papal court at Avignon.
Who introduced a system of musical notation used in the Balkans in the 14th century?
5727692ef1498d1400e8f794
John Kukuzelis
466
False
What was the name of the new musical style introduced in the Late Middle Ages?
5727692ef1498d1400e8f795
ars nova
64
False
Which musical style did ars nova replace in the 14th century?
5727692ef1498d1400e8f796
ars antiqua
91
False
Who were the leading composers of the trecento period?
5727692ef1498d1400e8f797
Giovanni da Cascia, Jacopo da Bologna and Francesco Landini
321
False
Kukuzelis reformed the music of which religion?
5727692ef1498d1400e8f798
Orthodox Church
404
False
John Kukuzelis
466
Who introduced a system of nonmusical notation used in the Balkans in the 14th century?
5ad02bb777cf76001a686c90
True
ars nova
64
What was the name of the old musical style introduced in the Late Middle Ages?
5ad02bb777cf76001a686c91
True
ars antiqua
91
Which musical style did ars nova replace in the 13th century?
5ad02bb777cf76001a686c92
True
Giovanni da Cascia, Jacopo da Bologna and Francesco Landini
321
Who were the nonleading composers of the trecento period?
5ad02bb777cf76001a686c93
True
Orthodox Church
404
Kukuzelis kept the music of which religion?
5ad02bb777cf76001a686c94
True
The main representatives of the new style, often referred to as ars nova as opposed to the ars antiqua, were the composers Philippe de Vitry and Guillaume de Machaut. In Italy, where the Provençal troubadours had also found refuge, the corresponding period goes under the name of trecento, and the leading composers were Giovanni da Cascia, Jacopo da Bologna and Francesco Landini. Prominent reformer of Orthodox Church music from the first half of 14th century was John Kukuzelis; he also introduced a system of notation widely used in the Balkans in the following centuries.
What is the most famous morality play from the medieval period?
57276a74dd62a815002e9c80
Everyman
289
False
Which dramatic form was created around 1400?
57276a74dd62a815002e9c81
Morality plays
0
False
What goes to the grave with Everyman in the morality play?
57276a74dd62a815002e9c82
Good Deeds
467
False
Which morality play depicted mankind's progress from birth to death?
57276a74dd62a815002e9c83
The Castle of Perseverance
128
False
In the morality play, who summoned Everyman?
57276a74dd62a815002e9c84
Death
317
False
Everyman
299
What is the least famous morality play from the medieval period?
5ad02c8777cf76001a686cb4
True
Morality plays
0
Which dramatic form was created around 1300?
5ad02c8777cf76001a686cb5
True
Good Deeds
467
What goes to the store with Everyman in the morality play?
5ad02c8777cf76001a686cb6
True
The Castle of Perseverance
128
Which morality play depicted mankind's progress from birth to mid-life?
5ad02c8777cf76001a686cb7
True
Death
317
In the morality play, who never summoned Everyman?
5ad02c8777cf76001a686cb8
True
Morality plays emerged as a distinct dramatic form around 1400 and flourished until 1550. The most interesting morality play is The Castle of Perseverance which depicts mankind's progress from birth to death. However, the most famous morality play and perhaps best known medieval drama is Everyman. Everyman receives Death's summons, struggles to escape and finally resigns himself to necessity. Along the way, he is deserted by Kindred, Goods, and Fellowship - only Good Deeds goes with him to the grave.
Which Late Middle Age English kings kept their own troupes of professional actors?
57276c8df1498d1400e8f7ba
Richard III and Henry VII
95
False
Who performed the seasonal Christmas plays?
57276c8df1498d1400e8f7bb
Mummers
370
False
In what year did Henry VIII establish an Office of Revels?
57276c8df1498d1400e8f7bc
1545
584
False
What did Henry VIII build in 1545 for the benefit of the theatrical arts?
57276c8df1498d1400e8f7bd
House of Revels
523
False
In what part of a nobleman's house were plays performed?
57276c8df1498d1400e8f7be
the Great Hall
207
False
Richard III and Henry VII
95
Which Early Middle Age English kings kept their own troupes of professional actors?
5ad02ce877cf76001a686cce
True
Mummers
370
Who performed the seasonal non-Christmas plays?
5ad02ce877cf76001a686ccf
True
1545
584
In what year did Henry VII establish an Office of Revels?
5ad02ce877cf76001a686cd0
True
House of Revels
523
What did Henry VIII build in 1554 for the benefit of the theatrical arts?
5ad02ce877cf76001a686cd1
True
the Great Hall
207
In what part of a nobleman's house weren't plays performed?
5ad02ce877cf76001a686cd2
True
At the end of the Late Middle Ages, professional actors began to appear in England and Europe. Richard III and Henry VII both maintained small companies of professional actors. Their plays were performed in the Great Hall of a nobleman's residence, often with a raised platform at one end for the audience and a "screen" at the other for the actors. Also important were Mummers' plays, performed during the Christmas season, and court masques. These masques were especially popular during the reign of Henry VIII who had a House of Revels built and an Office of Revels established in 1545.
What was banned that led to the demise of medieval drama?
57276daedd62a815002e9cb2
religious plays
165
False
In what year did Elizabeth I ban religious plays?
57276daedd62a815002e9cb3
1558
242
False
In what year were religious plays banned in the Netherlands?
57276daedd62a815002e9cb4
1539
366
False
What types of subjects did dramatists turn to when religious plays were banned?
57276daedd62a815002e9cb5
secular
607
False
Where were religious plays banned in 1548?
57276daedd62a815002e9cb6
Paris
404
False
religious plays
165
What wasn't banned that led to the demise of medieval drama?
5ad02daf77cf76001a686d00
True
1558
242
In what year did Elizabeth II ban religious plays?
5ad02daf77cf76001a686d01
True
1539
366
In what year weren't religious plays banned in the Netherlands?
5ad02daf77cf76001a686d02
True
secular
607
What types of subjects didn't dramatists turn to when religious plays were banned?
5ad02daf77cf76001a686d03
True
Paris
404
Where were religious plays banned in 1584?
5ad02daf77cf76001a686d04
True
The end of medieval drama came about due to a number of factors, including the weakening power of the Catholic Church, the Protestant Reformation and the banning of religious plays in many countries. Elizabeth I forbid all religious plays in 1558 and the great cycle plays had been silenced by the 1580s. Similarly, religious plays were banned in the Netherlands in 1539, the Papal States in 1547 and in Paris in 1548. The abandonment of these plays destroyed the international theatre that had thereto existed and forced each country to develop its own form of drama. It also allowed dramatists to turn to secular subjects and the reviving interest in Greek and Roman theatre provided them with the perfect opportunity.
Along with the invention of printing, and the associated dissemination of the printed word, what other factor is believed to have led to the Protestant Reformation?
57276fdcdd62a815002e9cd8
democratized learning
445
False
Which continents did Vasco da Gama circumnavigate in 1498?
57276fdcdd62a815002e9cd9
Africa and India
677
False
What effect did the discoveries of Columbus and da Gama have on European nations?
57276fdcdd62a815002e9cda
strengthened the economy and power
721
False
What historical era is viewed as a bridge between the Middle Ages and the Modern Era?
57276fdcdd62a815002e9cdb
the Renaissance
178
False
What was discovered as the result of both Columbus' and da Gama's voyages?
57276fdcdd62a815002e9cdc
new trading routes
553
False
democratized learning
445
Along with the invention of printing, and the associated dissemination of the printed word, what other factor is not believed to have led to the Protestant Reformation?
5ad02e2877cf76001a686d28
True
Africa and India
677
Which continents did Vasco da Gama circumnavigate in 1489?
5ad02e2877cf76001a686d29
True
strengthened the economy and power
721
What effect didn't the discoveries of Columbus and da Gama have on European nations?
5ad02e2877cf76001a686d2a
True
the Renaissance
46
What historical era isn't viewed as a bridge between the Middle Ages and the Modern Era?
5ad02e2877cf76001a686d2b
True
new trading routes
553
What wasn't discovered as the result of both Columbus' and da Gama's voyages?
5ad02e2877cf76001a686d2c
True
After the end of the late Middle Ages period, the Renaissance would spread unevenly over continental Europe from the southern European region. The intellectual transformation of the Renaissance is viewed as a bridge between the Middle Ages and the Modern era. Europeans would later begin an era of world discovery. Combined with the influx of classical ideas was the invention of printing which facilitated dissemination of the printed word and democratized learning. These two things would lead to the Protestant Reformation. Europeans also discovered new trading routes, as was the case with Columbus’s travel to the Americas in 1492, and Vasco da Gama’s circumnavigation of Africa and India in 1498. Their discoveries strengthened the economy and power of European nations.
Which empire completed its conquest of the Byzantines at the end of the 15th century?
5727721add62a815002e9d04
Ottoman
35
False
In what year did the Battle of Varna take place?
5727721add62a815002e9d05
1444
404
False
Which Hungarian ruler was killed at the Battle of Varna?
5727721add62a815002e9d06
Vladislaus I
350
False
Who was appointed regent-governor of the Kingdom of Hungary in 1446?
5727721add62a815002e9d07
count John Hunyadi
470
False
Who gave the title of Champion of Christ to John Hyundai?
5727721add62a815002e9d08
Pope Pius II
626
False
Ottoman
35
Which empire completed its conquest of the Byzantines at the end of the 14th century?
5ad02eec77cf76001a686d5e
True
1444
404
In what year didn't the Battle of Varna take place?
5ad02eec77cf76001a686d5f
True
Vladislaus I
350
Which Hungarian ruler was saved at the Battle of Varna?
5ad02eec77cf76001a686d60
True
count John Hunyadi
470
Who was appointed regent-governor of the Kingdom of Hungary in 1464?
5ad02eec77cf76001a686d61
True
Pope Pius II
626
Who gave the title of Champion of Christ to Sean Hyundai?
5ad02eec77cf76001a686d62
True
At the end of the 15th century the Ottoman Empire advanced all over Southeastern Europe, eventually conquering the Byzantine Empire and extending control over the Balkan states. Hungary was the last bastion of the Latin Christian world in the East, and fought to keep its rule over a period of two centuries. After the tragic death of the young king Vladislaus I of Hungary during the Battle of Varna in 1444 against the Ottomans, the Kingdom was placed in the hands of count John Hunyadi, who became Hungary's regent-governor (1446–1453). Hunyadi was considered one of the most relevant military figures of the 15th century: Pope Pius II awarded him the title of Athleta Christi or Champion of Christ for being the only hope of resisting the Ottomans from advancing to Central and Western Europe.
Which Franciscan monk motivated the peasants to fight against Muslims at the Siege of Belgrade?
57277421708984140094ddf7
Saint John of Capistrano
238
False
In what year was the Siege of Belgrade fought?
57277421708984140094ddf8
1456
50
False
Who did the Hungarian nobility elect as King of Hungary?
57277421708984140094ddf9
Matthias
568
False
Which country did Saint Francis of Capistrano come from?
57277421708984140094ddfa
Italy
278
False
When John Hunyadi died, which province was left in chaos?
57277421708984140094ddfb
Pannonia
467
False
Saint John of Capistrano
238
Which Franciscan monk motivated the peasants to fight for Muslims at the Siege of Belgrade?
5ad02f5777cf76001a686d7a
True
1456
50
In what year wasn't the Siege of Belgrade fought?
5ad02f5777cf76001a686d7b
True
Matthias
568
Who didn't the Hungarian nobility elect as King of Hungary?
5ad02f5777cf76001a686d7c
True
Italy
278
Which country didn't Saint Francis of Capistrano come from?
5ad02f5777cf76001a686d7d
True
Pannonia
467
When John Hunyadi died, which province was left in peace?
5ad02f5777cf76001a686d7e
True
Hunyadi succeeded during the Siege of Belgrade in 1456 against the Ottomans, the biggest victory against that empire in decades. This battle became a real Crusade against the Muslims, as the peasants were motivated by the Franciscan monk Saint John of Capistrano, who came from Italy predicating Holy War. The effect that it created in that time was one of the main factors that helped in achieving the victory. However the premature death of the Hungarian Lord left Pannonia defenseless and in chaos. In an extremely unusual event for the Middle Ages, Hunyadi's son, Matthias, was elected as King of Hungary by the nobility. For the first time, a member of an aristocratic family (and not from a royal family) was crowned.
How did Louis II of Hungary die?
5727762cdd62a815002e9d78
drowned in the Csele Creek while trying to escape
822
False
Who was the leader of the Hungarian army at the Battle of Mohács?
5727762cdd62a815002e9d79
Pál Tomori
907
False
In what years did Matthias Corvinus reign as King of Hungary?
5727762cdd62a815002e9d7a
1458–1490
35
False
Who did Matthias defeat to conquer Bohemia?
5727762cdd62a815002e9d7b
Hussite Protestants
201
False
Who opposed the Hungarian army at the Battle of Mohács?
5727762cdd62a815002e9d7c
the forces of the Ottoman Empire
734
False
drowned in the Csele Creek while trying to escape
822
How did Louis XII of Hungary die?
5ad02ff277cf76001a686daa
True
Pál Tomori
907
Who wasn't the leader of the Hungarian army at the Battle of Mohács?
5ad02ff277cf76001a686dab
True
1458–1490
35
In what years didn't Matthias Corvinus reign as King of Hungary?
5ad02ff277cf76001a686dac
True
Hussite Protestants
201
Who did Matthias lose to conquer Bohemia?
5ad02ff277cf76001a686dad
True
forces of the Ottoman Empire
738
Who supported the Hungarian army at the Battle of Mohács?
5ad02ff277cf76001a686dae
True
King Matthias Corvinus of Hungary (1458–1490) was one of the most prominent figures of the period, directing campaigns to the West, conquering Bohemia in answer to the Pope's call for help against the Hussite Protestants. Also, in resolving political hostilities with the German emperor Frederick III of Habsburg, he invaded his western domains. Matthew organized the Black Army of mercenary soldiers; it was considered as the biggest army of its time. Using this powerful tool, the Hungarian king led wars against the Turkish armies and stopped the Ottomans during his reign. After the death of Matthew, and with end of the Black Army, the Ottoman Empire grew in strength and Central Europe was defenseless. At the Battle of Mohács, the forces of the Ottoman Empire annihilated the Hungarian army and Louis II of Hungary drowned in the Csele Creek while trying to escape. The leader of the Hungarian army, Pál Tomori, also died in the battle. This is considered to be one of the final battles of Medieval times.
Historians from what country in particular do not refer to the Late Middle Ages?
5727784ddd62a815002e9db8
Italy
446
False
What provided developmental continuity between the ancient and modern ages?
5727784ddd62a815002e9db9
classical antiquity
372
False
What period do Italian historians believe came immediately after the High Period of the Middle Ages?
5727784ddd62a815002e9dba
the Renaissance
572
False
What do many scholars regard the Late Middle Ages as the beginning of?
5727784ddd62a815002e9dbb
modern history and early modern Europe
138
False
Italy
446
Historians from what country in particular do not refer to the Early Middle Ages?
5ad01c7f77cf76001a686a5a
True
classical antiquity)
372
What never provided developmental continuity between the ancient and modern ages?
5ad01c7f77cf76001a686a5b
True
Renaissance
576
What period do Italian historians not believe came immediately after the High Period of the Middle Ages?
5ad01c7f77cf76001a686a5c
True
Renaissance
576
What period do Italian historians believe came immediately after the Low Period of the Middle Ages?
5ad01c7f77cf76001a686a5d
True
modern history and early modern Europe
138
What do many scholars regard the Late Middle Ages as the end of?
5ad01c7f77cf76001a686a5e
True
The changes brought about by these developments have led many scholars to view this period as the end of the Middle Ages and beginning of modern history and early modern Europe. However, the division is somewhat artificial, since ancient learning was never entirely absent from European society. As a result there was developmental continuity between the ancient age (via classical antiquity) and the modern age. Some historians, particularly in Italy, prefer not to speak of the late Middle Ages at all, but rather see the high period of the Middle Ages transitioning to the Renaissance and the modern era.
Ann_Arbor,_Michigan
When was Ann Arbor founded?
57268e815951b619008f767f
1824
25
False
Which University moved from Detroit to Ann Arbor in 1837?
57268e815951b619008f7680
University of Michigan
110
False
During  the 1960's & 70's, Ann Arbor gained a reputation for what?
57268e815951b619008f7681
center for left-wing politics
304
False
Which type of tree is associated with the city Ann Arbor's name?
57268e815951b619008f7682
Bur Oak
91
False
University of Michigan
110
What college moved to Ann Arbor in 1873?
5ace17d032bba1001ae49aad
True
Ann Arbor
0
What Michigan city was founded in 1842?
5ace17d032bba1001ae49aae
True
center for left-wing politics
304
During the 1950's and 60's, Ann Arbor gained a reputation for what?
5ace17d032bba1001ae49aaf
True
Ann Arbor was founded in 1824, named for wives of the village's founders and the stands of Bur Oak trees. The University of Michigan moved from Detroit to Ann Arbor in 1837, and the city grew at a rapid rate in the early to mid-20th century. During the 1960s and 1970s, the city gained a reputation as a center for left-wing politics. Ann Arbor became a focal point for political activism and served as a hub for the civil-rights movement and anti-Vietnam War movement, as well as various student movements.
Who founded Ann Arbor?
57268fcdf1498d1400e8e3dc
John Allen and Elisha Walker Rumsey
50
False
What was the profession of the founders of Ann arbor?
57268fcdf1498d1400e8e3dd
land speculators
33
False
Which tribe named the settlement as kaw-goosh-kaw-nick?
57268fcdf1498d1400e8e3de
Ojibwa
439
False
For how much money did the founders purchase the land from the federal government?
57268fcdf1498d1400e8e3df
$800
377
False
What were the names of the founders wives?
57268fcdf1498d1400e8e3e0
Ann
289
False
1824
97
Ann Arbor was registered with Wayne County on May 24th of what year?
5ace18e932bba1001ae49ab5
True
John Allen and Elisha Walker Rumsey
50
Who founded Ann Arbor in 1842?
5ace18e932bba1001ae49ab6
True
kaw-goosh-kaw-nick
467
What name did the Ojibwa give the settlement because of the sound of Rumsey's sawmill?
5ace18e932bba1001ae49ab7
True
$800
377
How much did the founder's wives pay for the settlement?
5ace18e932bba1001ae49ab8
True
640
331
How many acres did the founders buy at $1.52 per acre?
5ace18e932bba1001ae49ab9
True
Ann Arbor was founded in 1824 by land speculators John Allen and Elisha Walker Rumsey. On 25 May 1824, the town plat was registered with Wayne County as "Annarbour;" this represents the earliest known use of the town's name. Allen and Rumsey decided to name it for their wives, both named Ann, and for the stands of Bur Oak in the 640 acres (260 ha) of land they purchased for $800 from the federal government at $1.25 per acre. The local Ojibwa named the settlement kaw-goosh-kaw-nick, after the sound of Allen's sawmill.
Ann Arbor has been linked with which university?
57273d3cdd62a815002e99f0
University of Michigan
79
False
Which town became the regional transport hub in 1878?
57273d3cdd62a815002e99f1
Ann Arbor
284
False
Who were the early settlers of Ann Arbor?
57273d3cdd62a815002e99f2
British
481
False
In which year was Ann Arbor chartered as a city?
57273d3cdd62a815002e99f3
1851
578
False
In 1916, what was the name of the Synagogue that was establish?
57273d3cdd62a815002e99f4
Beth Israel Congregation
1019
False
Michigan Central Railroad
220
What railroad arrived in 1893?
5ace1c4a32bba1001ae49af5
True
Toledo
297
In 1887 a north-south railway connected Ann Arbor to what Ohio city?
5ace1c4a32bba1001ae49af6
True
a city,
611
In 1815, what was Ann Arbor chartered as?
5ace1c4a32bba1001ae49af7
True
Beth Israel Congregation
1019
What was the name of the synagogue founded in 1961?
5ace1c4a32bba1001ae49af8
True
Ann Arbor
284
What city became a regional transport hub in 1878?
5ace1c4a32bba1001ae49af9
True
Since the university's establishment in the city in 1837, the histories of the University of Michigan and Ann Arbor have been closely linked. The town became a regional transportation hub in 1839 with the arrival of the Michigan Central Railroad, and a north—south railway connecting Ann Arbor to Toledo and other markets to the south was established in 1878. Throughout the 1840s and the 1850s settlers continued to come to Ann Arbor. While the earlier settlers were primarily of British ancestry, the newer settlers also consisted of Germans, Irish, and African-Americans. In 1851, Ann Arbor was chartered as a city, though the city showed a drop in population during the Depression of 1873. It was not until the early 1880s that Ann Arbor again saw robust growth, with new immigrants coming from Greece, Italy, Russia, and Poland. Ann Arbor saw increased growth in manufacturing, particularly in milling. Ann Arbor's Jewish community also grew after the turn of the 20th century, and its first and oldest synagogue, Beth Israel Congregation, was established in 1916.
When was the Thomas More Law center established?
57273eadf1498d1400e8f518
1999
1313
False
What was the Thomas More law group?
57273eadf1498d1400e8f519
a religious-conservative advocacy group
1320
False
During the early & mid 70's, which party won the city council seats?
57273eadf1498d1400e8f51a
Human Rights Party
721
False
Vietnam War
214
Ann Arbor was a hub for supporting what War?
5ace1d7032bba1001ae49b17
True
Vietnam War
466
In 1956, Ann Arbor was home to the first U.S. teach-in against what war?
5ace1d7032bba1001ae49b18
True
Word of God
1186
In 1976 what religious group was founded?
5ace1d7032bba1001ae49b19
True
1960s and 1970s
11
In what decades was Ann Arbor an important center for conservative politics?
5ace1d7032bba1001ae49b1a
True
During the 1960s and 1970s, the city gained a reputation as an important center for liberal politics. Ann Arbor also became a locus for left-wing activism and served as a hub for the civil-rights movement and anti-Vietnam War movement, as well as the student movement. The first major meetings of the national left-wing campus group Students for a Democratic Society took place in Ann Arbor in 1960; in 1965, the city was home to the first U.S. teach-in against the Vietnam War. During the ensuing 15 years, many countercultural and New Left enterprises sprang up and developed large constituencies within the city. These influences washed into municipal politics during the early and mid-1970s when three members of the Human Rights Party (HRP) won city council seats on the strength of the student vote. During their time on the council, HRP representatives fought for measures including pioneering antidiscrimination ordinances, measures decriminalizing marijuana possession, and a rent-control ordinance; many of these remain in effect in modified form. Alongside these liberal and left-wing efforts, a small group of conservative institutions were born in Ann Arbor. These include Word of God (established in 1967), a charismatic inter-denominational movement; and the Thomas More Law Center (established in 1999), a religious-conservative advocacy group.
Which magazine listed Ann Arbor as one of the most liveable cities in the USA?
57274262dd62a815002e9a36
Forbes
735
False
For the past few years, what effects has the city Ann Arbor grappled with?
57274262dd62a815002e9a37
sharply rising land values
72
False
What plan did the city voters approve in 2003?
57274262dd62a815002e9a38
greenbelt plan
209
False
greenbelt plan
209
What kind of plan did voters approve on November 4, 2300?
5ace1e7832bba1001ae49b33
True
2008,
630
What year was Ann Arbor listed 27th by Forbes?
5ace1e7832bba1001ae49b34
True
2010
729
What year was Ann Arbor listed as one of the most liveable cities by CNNMoney.com?
5ace1e7832bba1001ae49b35
True
In the past several decades, Ann Arbor has grappled with the effects of sharply rising land values, gentrification, and urban sprawl stretching into outlying countryside. On 4 November 2003, voters approved a greenbelt plan under which the city government bought development rights on agricultural parcels of land adjacent to Ann Arbor to preserve them from sprawling development. Since then, a vociferous local debate has hinged on how and whether to accommodate and guide development within city limits. Ann Arbor consistently ranks in the "top places to live" lists published by various mainstream media outlets every year. In 2008, it was ranked by CNNMoney.com 27th out of 100 "America's best small cities". And in the year 2010, Forbes listed Ann Arbor as one of the most liveable cities in the United States of America.
On which river is the city of Ann Arbor situated?
5727547d5951b619008f885d
Huron
565
False
What is the landscape of Ann Arbor like?
5727547d5951b619008f885e
hills and valleys
503
False
What is the name of the city's airport?
5727547d5951b619008f885f
Ann Arbor Municipal Airport
936
False
Detroit
291
Ann Arbor is 56 miles west of what Michigan city?
5ace20e832bba1001ae49b55
True
Ann Arbor Municipal Airport
936
What airport has an elevation of 893 feet?
5ace20e832bba1001ae49b56
True
Huron River
565
What river has an elevation of 570 feet?
5ace20e832bba1001ae49b57
True
west side
685
What side of the city has elevation of 1,510 feet?
5ace20e832bba1001ae49b58
True
Huron River
902
The highest parts of the city are along what river?
5ace20e832bba1001ae49b59
True
According to the United States Census Bureau, the city has a total area of 28.70 square miles (74.33 km2), of which, 27.83 square miles (72.08 km2) of it is land and 0.87 square miles (2.25 km2) is water, much of which is part of the Huron River. Ann Arbor is about 35 miles (56 km) west of Detroit. Ann Arbor Charter Township adjoins the city's north and east sides. Ann Arbor is situated on the Huron River in a productive agricultural and fruit-growing region. The landscape of Ann Arbor consists of hills and valleys, with the terrain becoming steeper near the Huron River. The elevation ranges from about 750 feet (230 m) along the Huron River to 1,015 feet (309 m) on the city's west side, near the intersection of Maple Road and Pauline Blvd. Generally, the west-central and northwestern parts of the city and U-M's North Campus are the highest parts of the city; the lowest parts are along the Huron River and in the southeast. Ann Arbor Municipal Airport, which is south of the city at 42°13.38′N 83°44.74′W﻿ / ﻿42.22300°N 83.74567°W﻿ / 42.22300; -83.74567, has an elevation of 839 feet (256 m).
What is the city of Ann arbor nicknamed as?
572755d8708984140094dc57
Tree Town
13
False
How many parks are there in the city of Ann Arbor?
572755d8708984140094dc58
157
313
False
What is the name of the Arboretum owned by the University of Michigan?
572755d8708984140094dc59
Nichols Arboretum
624
False
How big is the Matthaei botanical garden?
572755d8708984140094dc5a
300 acres
967
False
emerald ash borer
212
What pest has destroyed many of the 15,000 ash trees?
5ace221132bba1001ae49b79
True
Nichols Arboretum
624
What arboretum is situated on 132 acres?
5ace221132bba1001ae49b7a
True
Ann Arbor
0
What city has 175 municipal parks?
5ace221132bba1001ae49b7b
True
The Nichols Arboretum
620
What arboretum is owned by the University Hospital?
5ace221132bba1001ae49b7c
True
Matthaei Botanical Gardens
924
What is the name of the gardens that contains 30 acres of gardens?
5ace221132bba1001ae49b7d
True
Ann Arbor's "Tree Town" nickname stems from the dense forestation of its parks and residential areas. The city contains more than 50,000 trees along its streets and an equal number in parks. In recent years, the emerald ash borer has destroyed many of the city's approximately 10,500 ash trees. The city contains 157 municipal parks ranging from small neighborhood green spots to large recreation areas. Several large city parks and a university park border sections of the Huron River. Fuller Recreation Area, near the University Hospital complex, contains sports fields, pedestrian and bike paths, and swimming pools. The Nichols Arboretum, owned by the University of Michigan, is a 123-acre (50 ha) arboretum that contains hundreds of plant and tree species. It is on the city's east side, near the university's Central Campus. Located across the Huron River just beyond the university's North Campus is the university's Matthaei Botanical Gardens, which contains 300 acres of gardens and a large tropical conservatory.
Which district has the farmers market in the city?
5727568bf1498d1400e8f67a
Kerrytown district
651
False
Which districts compose mostly of 2-4 story structures?
5727568bf1498d1400e8f67b
commercial districts
682
False
Which area in the city contains 19th&20th century as well as modern structures?
5727568bf1498d1400e8f67c
Downtown
520
False
commercial districts
682
Which area in the city is composed mostly of two-to-three story buildings?
5ace23e032bba1001ae49b93
True
Briarwood Mall
271
What Mall is north of downtown Ann Arbor?
5ace23e032bba1001ae49b94
True
Westgate/West Stadium
474
What stadium is on the east side of Ann Arbor?
5ace23e032bba1001ae49b95
True
Kerrytown district
651
The farmers market is in what west side district?
5ace23e032bba1001ae49b96
True
The Kerrytown Shops, Main Street Business District, the State Street Business District, and the South University Business District are commercial areas in downtown Ann Arbor. Three commercial areas south of downtown include the areas near I-94 and Ann Arbor-Saline Road, Briarwood Mall, and the South Industrial area. Other commercial areas include the Arborland/Washtenaw Avenue and Packard Road merchants on the east side, the Plymouth Road area in the northeast, and the Westgate/West Stadium areas on the west side. Downtown contains a mix of 19th- and early-20th-century structures and modern-style buildings, as well as a farmers' market in the Kerrytown district. The city's commercial districts are composed mostly of two- to four-story structures, although downtown and the area near Briarwood Mall contain a small number of high-rise buildings.
Which century does the Kit houses belong to?
5727575af1498d1400e8f688
20th century
219
False
Who primarily occupies the complexes surrounding the University?
5727575af1498d1400e8f689
student renters
402
False
Which is the tallest building in Ann Arbor?
5727575af1498d1400e8f68a
Tower Plaza
419
False
When was the city listed on the National Register of historic Places?
5727575af1498d1400e8f68b
1972
684
False
Tower Plaza
419
What 62-story condominium is the tallest building in Ann Arbor?
5ace258532bba1001ae49bb9
True
National Register of Historic Places
721
In 1927, the Old West Side neighborhood was placed on what list?
5ace258532bba1001ae49bba
True
20th century
219
Kit houses were built late in what century?
5ace258532bba1001ae49bbb
True
Tower Plaza
419
What 62-story condominium is located between the University of Michigan campus and downtown?
5ace258532bba1001ae49bbc
True
Ann Arbor's residential neighborhoods contain architectural styles ranging from classic 19th-century and early-20th-century designs to ranch-style houses. Among these homes are a number of kit houses built in the early 20th century. Contemporary-style houses are farther from the downtown district. Surrounding the University of Michigan campus are houses and apartment complexes occupied primarily by student renters. Tower Plaza, a 26-story condominium building located between the University of Michigan campus and downtown, is the tallest building in Ann Arbor. The 19th-century buildings and streetscape of the Old West Side neighborhood have been preserved virtually intact; in 1972, the district was listed on the National Register of Historic Places, and it is further protected by city ordinances and a nonprofit preservation group.
How many seasons are experienced in the city of Ann Arbor?
572757e15951b619008f887d
four
127
False
When is the precipitation highest in Ann Arbor?
572757e15951b619008f887e
summer
683
False
What is the average snowfall for the city?
572757e15951b619008f887f
58 inches
831
False
July
445
What month has an average daily temperature of 72.6 Celsius?
5ace26d432bba1001ae49bcb
True
−23 °F (−31 °C)
898
What was the lowest recorded temperature on 11 February 1858?
5ace26d432bba1001ae49bcc
True
105 °F (41 °C)
975
What was the highest recorded temperature on 24 July 1943?
5ace26d432bba1001ae49bcd
True
Precipitation
633
What kind of weather is most frequent during summer?
5ace26d432bba1001ae49bce
True
January
498
What month has an average daily temperature of 24.5 Celsius?
5ace26d432bba1001ae49bcf
True
Ann Arbor has a typically Midwestern humid continental climate (Köppen Dfa), which is influenced by the Great Lakes. There are four distinct seasons: winters are cold with moderate to heavy snowfall, while summers are very warm and humid, and spring and autumn are short but mild. The area experiences lake effect weather, primarily in the form of increased cloudiness during late fall and early winter. The monthly daily average temperature in July is 72.6 °F (22.6 °C), while the same figure for January is 24.5 °F (−4.2 °C). Temperatures reach or exceed 90 °F (32 °C) on 10 days, and drop to or below 0 °F (−18 °C) on 4.6 nights. Precipitation tends to be the heaviest during the summer months, but most frequent during winter. Snowfall, which normally occurs from November to April but occasionally starts in October, averages 58 inches (147 cm) per season. The lowest recorded temperature was −23 °F (−31 °C) on 11 February 1885 and the highest recorded temperature was 105 °F (41 °C) on 24 July 1934.
What is the population density of the city?
572773e45951b619008f8a3b
4,270.33 people per square mile
143
False
What percentage makes up for the whites living in the city?
572773e45951b619008f8a3c
73.0%
510
False
Which parts of the city of Detroit are densely populated?
572773e45951b619008f8a3d
Oak Park and Ferndale
354
False
2010
10
During what census were there 21,407 families residing in the city?
5ace319832bba1001ae49d7f
True
Oak Park and Ferndale (and than Detroit proper)
354
What inner-ring suburbs were less densely populated than Ann Arbor?
5ace319832bba1001ae49d80
True
Livonia or Troy
459
What outer-ring suburbs were more densely populated than Ann Arbor?
5ace319832bba1001ae49d81
True
2010
10
The white makeup of the city was 37.0% white during which U.S. Census?
5ace319832bba1001ae49d82
True
As of the 2010 U.S. Census, there were 113,394 people, 45,634 households, and 21,704 families residing in the city. The population density was 4,270.33 people per square mile (2653.47/km²). There were 49,982 housing units at an average density of 1,748.0 per square mile (675.0/km²), making it less densely populated than inner-ring Detroit suburbs like Oak Park and Ferndale (and than Detroit proper), but more densely populated than outer-ring suburbs like Livonia or Troy. The racial makeup of the city was 73.0% White (70.4% non-Hispanic White), 7.7% Black or African American, 0.3% Native American, 14.4% Asian, 0.0% Pacific Islander, 1.0% from other races, and 3.6% from two or more races. Hispanic or Latino residents of any race were 4.1% of the population.
What is the average household size in the city of Ann Arbor?
572774785951b619008f8a4b
2.22
366
False
What is the average family size in the city of Ann Arbor?
572774785951b619008f8a4c
2.90
403
False
What is the median age for the city of Ann Arbor?
572774785951b619008f8a4d
28
559
False
2000
3
In what year was the average family size was 2.22?
5ace332d32bba1001ae49dd1
True
65 or older
527
What age group did 9.7% of the population fall into?
5ace332d32bba1001ae49dd2
True
45 to 64
503
What age group did 13.7% of the population fall into?
5ace332d32bba1001ae49dd3
True
2000
3
In what year was the median age 82 years old?
5ace332d32bba1001ae49dd4
True
2000
3
When was 87.3% of the population married couples?
5ace332d32bba1001ae49dd5
True
In 2000, out of 45,693 households, 23.0% had children under the age of 18 living with them, 37.8% were married couples living together, 7.5% had a female householder with no husband present, and 52.5% were nonfamilies. 35.5% of households were made up of individuals and 6.6% had someone living alone who was 65 years of age or older. The average household size was 2.22 and the average family size was 2.90. The age distribution was 16.8% under 18, 26.8% from 18 to 24, 31.2% from 25 to 44, 17.3% from 45 to 64, and 7.9% were 65 or older. The median age was 28 years. For every 100 females there were 97.7 males; while for every 100 females age 18 and over, there were 96.4 males.
Name some automobile manufacturers in the city of Ann Arbor
57277524dd62a815002e9d40
General Motors and Visteon
479
False
What is the employee count of the University of Michigan?
57277524dd62a815002e9d41
30,000
86
False
Nam the major components for the City's growth.
57277524dd62a815002e9d42
High tech, health services and biotechnology
260
False
The University of Michigan
0
What university employs about 30,000 workers in the medical center?
5ace34f132bba1001ae49e45
True
The University of Michigan
0
What university employs about 12,000 workers?
5ace34f132bba1001ae49e46
True
General Motors and Visteon
479
Who are the automobile manufacturers that are the major components of the city's economy?
5ace34f132bba1001ae49e47
True
High tech, health services and biotechnology
260
What are the four major components of the city's economy?
5ace34f132bba1001ae49e48
True
The University of Michigan shapes Ann Arbor's economy significantly. It employs about 30,000 workers, including about 12,000 in the medical center. Other employers are drawn to the area by the university's research and development money, and by its graduates. High tech, health services and biotechnology are other major components of the city's economy; numerous medical offices, laboratories, and associated companies are located in the city. Automobile manufacturers, such as General Motors and Visteon, also employ residents.
Which company manufactured cameras in Ann Arbor from 1936 to 1960's?
572776665951b619008f8a79
Argus camera company
235
False
Which network company opened up in 2008 providing security, storage & networking?
572776665951b619008f8a7a
Barracuda Networks
813
False
International Radio introduced which mass produced product from the city of Ann Arbor?
572776665951b619008f8a7b
AC/DC radio
134
False
the Kadette
147
What radio was mass produced in 1913?
5ace361932bba1001ae49e7d
True
Argus camera company
235
What camera company started manufacturing cameras in Ann Arbor in 1963?
5ace361932bba1001ae49e7e
True
1933
224
What year was the first pocket radio (the Kadette) made in?
5ace361932bba1001ae49e7f
True
the 1980s
802
In what decade was the Ann Arbor Ambassador manufactured  by Barracuda Networks?
5ace361932bba1001ae49e80
True
High tech companies have located in the area since the 1930s, when International Radio Corporation introduced the first mass-produced AC/DC radio (the Kadette, in 1931) as well as the first pocket radio (the Kadette Jr., in 1933). The Argus camera company, originally a subsidiary of International Radio, manufactured cameras in Ann Arbor from 1936 to the 1960s. Current firms include Arbor Networks (provider of Internet traffic engineering and security systems), Arbortext (provider of XML-based publishing software), JSTOR (the digital scholarly journal archive), MediaSpan (provider of software and online services for the media industries), Truven Health Analytics, and ProQuest, which includes UMI. Ann Arbor Terminals manufactured a video-display terminal called the Ann Arbor Ambassador during the 1980s. Barracuda Networks, which provides networking, security, and storage products based on network appliances and cloud services, opened an engineering office in Ann Arbor in 2008 on Depot St. and recently announced it will move downtown to occupy the building previously used as the Borders headquarters.
Which company's adwords program is headquartered at Ann Arbor?
57277758dd62a815002e9d96
Google
430
False
Name some website or media companies located in Ann Arbor.
57277758dd62a815002e9d97
All Media Guide, the Weather Underground, and Zattoo
64
False
What company is Merit network?
57277758dd62a815002e9d98
education computer network
206
False
11.80%
695
On December 13, 2012 what was the total market vacancy rate?
5ace376832bba1001ae49ec5
True
2012
851
What year did the flex vacancy rate drop to 15.20%?
5ace376832bba1001ae49ec6
True
2011
871
What year was the office vacancy rate 12.80%?
5ace376832bba1001ae49ec7
True
2012
851
What year was the flex vacancy rate at 16.05%?
5ace376832bba1001ae49ec8
True
Ann Arbor
118
What city is home to the headquarters of Zattoo's AdWords program?
5ace376832bba1001ae49ec9
True
Websites and online media companies in or near the city include All Media Guide, the Weather Underground, and Zattoo. Ann Arbor is the home to Internet2 and the Merit Network, a not-for-profit research and education computer network. Both are located in the South State Commons 2 building on South State Street, which once housed the Michigan Information Technology Center Foundation. The city is also home to the headquarters of Google's AdWords program—the company's primary revenue stream. The recent surge in companies operating in Ann Arbor has led to a decrease in its office and flex space vacancy rates. As of 31 December 2012, the total market vacancy rate for office and flex space is 11.80%, a 1.40% decrease in vacancy from one year previous, and the lowest overall vacancy level since 2003. The office vacancy rate decreased to 10.65% in 2012 from 12.08% in 2011, while the flex vacancy rate decreased slightly more, with a drop from 16.50% to 15.02%.
Who is the city's 2nd largest employer?
57277b3cdd62a815002e9e22
Pfizer
0
False
Which non-profit non-governmental organization is located in Ann Arbor?
57277b3cdd62a815002e9e23
National Sanitation Foundation International
897
False
How many researchers does the University of Michigan expect to hire?
57277b3cdd62a815002e9e24
2,000
458
False
Pfizer
0
What pharmaceutical company was Ann Arbor's largest employer?
5ace390232bba1001ae49f13
True
Pfizer
155
What company announced it would close operations by the end of 2007?
5ace390232bba1001ae49f14
True
December
320
What month in 2007 did the University of Michigan Board of Regents approve the purchase of the facilities?
5ace390232bba1001ae49f15
True
Toyota
847
Who automobile manufactures has a Fuel Emissions Laboratory in Ann Arbor?
5ace390232bba1001ae49f16
True
Pfizer, once the city's second largest employer, operated a large pharmaceutical research facility on the northeast side of Ann Arbor. On 22 January 2007, Pfizer announced it would close operations in Ann Arbor by the end of 2008. The facility was previously operated by Warner-Lambert and, before that, Parke-Davis. In December 2008, the University of Michigan Board of Regents approved the purchase of the facilities, and the university anticipates hiring 2,000 researchers and staff during the next 10 years. The city is the home of other research and engineering centers, including those of Lotus Engineering, General Dynamics and the National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA). Other research centers sited in the city are the United States Environmental Protection Agency's National Vehicle and Fuel Emissions Laboratory and the Toyota Technical Center. The city is also home to National Sanitation Foundation International (NSF International), the nonprofit non-governmental organization that develops generally accepted standards for a variety of public health related industries and subject areas.
When did the Borders Books open up in Ann Arbor?
57277c695951b619008f8b1d
1971
85
False
Who opened the Borders Books store in Ann Arbor?
57277c695951b619008f8b1e
Tom and Louis Borders
60
False
Which pizza chain is headquartered at Ann Arbor?
57277c695951b619008f8b1f
Domino's Pizza's
220
False
Which company was the world's largest privately held ink manufacturer till 2005?
57277c695951b619008f8b20
Flint Ink Corp
678
False
Avfuel, a global supplier of what services is headquartered in Ann Arbor?
57277c695951b619008f8b21
aviation fuels
892
False
Borders Books
0
What book store opened in 1917?
5ace39e332bba1001ae49f47
True
Domino's Pizza
220
What pizza chain has their headquarters located on a 217 acre complex?
5ace39e332bba1001ae49f48
True
Domino's Farms
271
What is the name of the complex located on 217 acres just northeast of the city?
5ace39e332bba1001ae49f49
True
Flint Ink Corp
678
What is the world's largest privately held ink manufacturer?
5ace39e332bba1001ae49f4a
True
Borders Books
0
What bookstore was started by Tom and Lois Borders?
5ace39e332bba1001ae49f4b
True
Borders Books, started in Ann Arbor, was opened by brothers Tom and Louis Borders in 1971 with a stock of used books. The Borders chain was based in the city, as was its flagship store until it closed in September 2011. Domino's Pizza's headquarters is near Ann Arbor on Domino's Farms, a 271-acre (110 ha) Frank Lloyd Wright-inspired complex just northeast of the city. Another Ann Arbor-based company is Zingerman's Delicatessen, which serves sandwiches and has developed businesses under a variety of brand names. Zingerman's has grown into a family of companies which offers a variety of products (bake shop, mail order, creamery, coffee) and services (business education). Flint Ink Corp., another Ann Arbor-based company, was the world's largest privately held ink manufacturer until it was acquired by Stuttgart-based XSYS Print Solutions in October 2005. Avfuel, a global supplier of aviation fuels and services, is also headquartered in Ann Arbor. Aastrom Biosciences, a publicly traded company that develops stem cell treatments for cardiovascular diseases, is headquartered in Ann Arbor.
When was the University Musical Society founded?
57277dfddd62a815002e9eac
1879
181
False
How many events does the University Musical Society present in a year?
57277dfddd62a815002e9ead
over 60
279
False
When was the Ann Arbor civic Ballet established?
57277dfddd62a815002e9eae
1954
726
False
Name Michigan's first Civic chartered company.
57277dfddd62a815002e9eaf
Ann Arbor Civic Ballet
687
False
the University Musical Society
187
What society was found in 1897 in Ann Arbor?
5ace3ac232bba1001ae49f79
True
Ann Arbor Civic Ballet
687
What ballet company was established in 1945?
5ace3ac232bba1001ae49f7a
True
the University Musical Society
187
What organization presents over 6 events each year?
5ace3ac232bba1001ae49f7b
True
Ann Arbor Civic Theatre
569
What Civic Theatre is associated with the university?
5ace3ac232bba1001ae49f7c
True
Shakespeare in the Arb
377
What is the name of the yearly event featuring Shakespeare that started in 2011?
5ace3ac232bba1001ae49f7d
True
Several performing arts groups and facilities are on the University of Michigan's campus, as are museums dedicated to art, archaeology, and natural history and sciences. Founded in 1879, the University Musical Society is an independent performing arts organization that presents over 60 events each year, bringing international artists in music, dance, and theater. Since 2001 Shakespeare in the Arb has presented one play by Shakespeare each June, in a large park near downtown. Regional and local performing arts groups not associated with the university include the Ann Arbor Civic Theatre, the Arbor Opera Theater, the Ann Arbor Symphony Orchestra, the Ann Arbor Ballet Theater, the Ann Arbor Civic Ballet (established in 1954 as Michigan's first chartered ballet company), The Ark, and Performance Network Theatre. Another unique piece of artistic expression in Ann Arbor is the fairy doors. These small portals are examples of installation art and can be found throughout the downtown area.
Which museum is located at Ann Arbors historic downtown fire station?
57277e815951b619008f8b51
The Ann Arbor Hands-On Museum
0
False
Ann Arbor ranks 1st among what goods sold?
57277e815951b619008f8b52
books
402
False
Which presidential library is located in Ann Arbor?
57277e815951b619008f8b53
Gerald R. Ford Presidential Library
558
False
The Ann Arbor Hands-On Museum
0
What museum is located in a renovated historic downtown police station?
5ace3dd532bba1001ae4a009
True
four
466
How many branch outlets does the Gerald R. Ford Presidential Library have?
5ace3dd532bba1001ae4a00a
True
booksellers
386
What kind of business is notably found in the downtown area?
5ace3dd532bba1001ae4a00b
True
first
345
Where does Ann Arbor rank among U.S. cities in the number of restaurants per capita?
5ace3dd532bba1001ae4a00c
True
The Ann Arbor Hands-On Museum is located in a renovated and expanded historic downtown fire station. Multiple art galleries exist in the city, notably in the downtown area and around the University of Michigan campus. Aside from a large restaurant scene in the Main Street, South State Street, and South University Avenue areas, Ann Arbor ranks first among U.S. cities in the number of booksellers and books sold per capita. The Ann Arbor District Library maintains four branch outlets in addition to its main downtown building. The city is also home to the Gerald R. Ford Presidential Library.
What type of Art fairs are held at Ann Arbor?
57277f065951b619008f8b57
juried fairs
170
False
What is the name of the film festival held at Ann Arbor?
57277f065951b619008f8b58
Ann Arbor Film Festival
341
False
How many submissions does the Ann arbor film festival receive?
57277f065951b619008f8b59
2,500
428
False
the Ann Arbor Film Festival
337
What festival receives more than 5,200 submissions annually?
5ace3e9b32bba1001ae4a033
True
March
396
What month is the Ann Arbor Film Festival held during the second week?
5ace3e9b32bba1001ae4a034
True
the Ann Arbor Art Fairs
120
What event draws upward of half a billion visitors?
5ace3e9b32bba1001ae4a035
True
the third week
252
What week in March is the Ann Arbor Art Fairs held?
5ace3e9b32bba1001ae4a036
True
the third week
252
What week in July is the Ann Arbor Film Festival held?
5ace3e9b32bba1001ae4a037
True
Several annual events—many of them centered on performing and visual arts—draw visitors to Ann Arbor. One such event is the Ann Arbor Art Fairs, a set of four concurrent juried fairs held on downtown streets. Scheduled on Wednesday through Saturday of the third week of July, the fairs draw upward of half a million visitors. Another is the Ann Arbor Film Festival, held during the third week of March, which receives more than 2,500 submissions annually from more than 40 countries and serves as one of a handful of Academy Award–qualifying festivals in the United States.
What medical dispensarys are there in Ann Arbor?
57277fb1f1498d1400e8f9f2
medical marijuana dispensaries
124
False
What are the Medical marijuana dispensaries called in the city?
57277fb1f1498d1400e8f9f3
People's Co-op
191
False
What annual event is held on the 1st saturday of april?
57277fb1f1498d1400e8f9f4
annual Hash Bash
367
False
marijuana
659
What was legal to smoke on the University of Michigan property/
5ace3ff232bba1001ae4a07b
True
marijuana
338
What drug are a large number of residents against?
5ace3ff232bba1001ae4a07c
True
People's Co-op
191
What dispensary was forced by zoning to move one mile to the east?
5ace3ff232bba1001ae4a07d
True
Michigan Stadium
243
What stadium is People's Co-op currently across the street from?
5ace3ff232bba1001ae4a07e
True
Ann Arbor has a long history of openness to marijuana, given Ann Arbor's decriminalization of cannabis, the large number of medical marijuana dispensaries in the city (one dispensary, called People's Co-op, was directly across the street from Michigan Stadium until zoning forced it to move one mile to the west), the large number of pro-marijuana residents, and the annual Hash Bash: an event that is held on the first Saturday of April. Until (at least) the successful passage of Michigan's medical marijuana law, the event had arguably strayed from its initial intent, although for years, a number of attendees have received serious legal responses due to marijuana use on University of Michigan property, which does not fall under the City's progressive and compassionate ticketing program.
Who is the member of the Big Ten Conference in college sports in the city?
57278046708984140094df43
University of Michigan
66
False
Which is the largest American football stadium in the world?
57278046708984140094df44
Michigan Stadium
200
False
What is the Michigan Stadium called colloquially?
57278046708984140094df45
The Big House
452
False
Michigan Stadium
200
What stadium was completed in 1972?
5ace412d32bba1001ae4a0a9
True
Crisler Center
468
Ice hockey is played at what Center?
5ace412d32bba1001ae4a0aa
True
Michigan Stadium
200
What stadium cost more than $590,000 to build?
5ace412d32bba1001ae4a0ab
True
Big Ten Conference
106
What conference is Concordia University a member of?
5ace412d32bba1001ae4a0ac
True
The Big House
452
What is the nickname of Crisler Center?
5ace412d32bba1001ae4a0ad
True
Ann Arbor is a major scene of college sports, most notably at the University of Michigan, a member of the Big Ten Conference. Several well-known college sports facilities exist in the city, including Michigan Stadium, the largest American football stadium in the world. The stadium was completed in 1927 and cost more than $950,000 to build. It has a 109,901 seating capacity after multiple renovations were made. The stadium is colloquially known as "The Big House". Crisler Center and Yost Ice Arena play host to the school's basketball (both men's and women's) and ice hockey teams, respectively. Concordia University, a member of the NAIA, also fields sports teams.
What is a person from Ann Arbor called?
572780ed5951b619008f8b83
Ann Arborite
38
False
In recent years what has Ann Arbor become?
572780ed5951b619008f8b84
gentrified
919
False
Which city is referred to as the "People's Republic of Ann Arbor"?
572780ed5951b619008f8b85
Ann Arbor
379
False
Ann Arbor
14
What city is known as 52 square miles surrounded by reality?
5ace426332bba1001ae4a0e5
True
25 square miles surrounded by reality
394
What phrase did Wisconsin Governor Lee Dreyfus use to describe Ann Arbor?
5ace426332bba1001ae4a0e6
True
a misunderstanding of the abbreviation for Michigan
832
What does the academic degree MI stand for?
5ace426332bba1001ae4a0e7
True
The People's Republic of Ann Arbor
354
What do they sometimes refer to Ann Arbor as because of the city's conservative political leanings?
5ace426332bba1001ae4a0e8
True
A person from Ann Arbor is called an "Ann Arborite", and many long-time residents call themselves "townies". The city itself is often called "A²" ("A-squared") or "A2" ("A two") or "AA", "The Deuce" (mainly by Chicagoans), and "Tree Town". With tongue-in-cheek reference to the city's liberal political leanings, some occasionally refer to Ann Arbor as "The People's Republic of Ann Arbor" or "25 square miles surrounded by reality", the latter phrase being adapted from Wisconsin Governor Lee Dreyfus's description of Madison, Wisconsin. In A Prairie Home Companion broadcast from Ann Arbor, Garrison Keillor described Ann Arbor as "a city where people discuss socialism, but only in the fanciest restaurants." Ann Arbor sometimes appears on citation indexes as an author, instead of a location, often with the academic degree MI, a misunderstanding of the abbreviation for Michigan. Ann Arbor has become increasingly gentrified in recent years.
What form of government does Ann Arbor have?
572781a5f1498d1400e8fa1c
council-manager
16
False
How many voting members are there in the city- council?
572781a5f1498d1400e8fa1d
11
73
False
How many terms does the mayor of the city serve?
572781a5f1498d1400e8fa1e
two-year
172
False
Who is elected every even numbered year?
572781a5f1498d1400e8fa1f
mayor
192
False
How many council members are elected for the city's ward?
572781a5f1498d1400e8fa20
Two
359
False
Christopher Taylor
686
Who is the current Republican mayor of Ann Arbor?
5ace433e32bba1001ae4a115
True
city administrator
795
What administrator manages day to day operations and is chosen by the mayor?
5ace433e32bba1001ae4a116
True
Christopher Taylor
686
Who was chosen mayor in the last odd numbered year?
5ace433e32bba1001ae4a117
True
Ann Arbor has a council-manager form of government. The City Council has 11 voting members: the mayor and 10 city council members. The mayor and city council members serve two-year terms: the mayor is elected every even-numbered year, while half of the city council members are up for election annually (five in even-numbered and five in odd-numbered years). Two council members are elected from each of the city's five wards. The mayor is elected citywide. The mayor is the presiding officer of the City Council and has the power to appoint all Council committee members as well as board and commission members, with the approval of the City Council. The current mayor of Ann Arbor is Christopher Taylor, a Democrat who was elected as mayor in 2014. Day-to-day city operations are managed by a city administrator chosen by the city council.
Who represents the congress in Ann Arbor?
5727823cdd62a815002e9f0e
Debbie Dingell
103
False
On a state level the city is part of which district number?
5727823cdd62a815002e9f0f
18th district
175
False
Who represents the city in Michigan senate?
5727823cdd62a815002e9f10
Rebekah Warren
237
False
Ann Arbor
0
What city is represented in the 21st congressional district?
5ace43df32bba1001ae4a11b
True
most of downtown and the southern half of the city
479
What is the 35th district comprised of?
5ace43df32bba1001ae4a11c
True
Gretchen Driskell
688
Who represents the 25th district?
5ace43df32bba1001ae4a11d
True
Rebekah Warren
237
Who represents the 81st district?
5ace43df32bba1001ae4a11e
True
Debbie Dingell
103
Who represents the 21st district?
5ace43df32bba1001ae4a11f
True
Ann Arbor is part of Michigan's 12th congressional district, represented in Congress by Representative Debbie Dingell, a Democrat. On the state level, the city is part of the 18th district in the Michigan Senate, represented by Democrat Rebekah Warren. In the Michigan House of Representatives, representation is split between the 55th district (northern Ann Arbor, part of Ann Arbor Township, and other surrounding areas, represented by Democrat Adam Zemke), the 53rd district (most of downtown and the southern half of the city, represented by Democrat Jeff Irwin) and the 52nd district (southwestern areas outside Ann Arbor proper and western Washtenaw County, represented by Democrat Gretchen Driskell).
Voters in the city approve which kind of amendment?
572782b6dd62a815002e9f30
charter
106
False
What kind of politics have been strong in the municipal government?
572782b6dd62a815002e9f31
Left-wing politics
0
False
Ann Arbor became the 1st city in the US to what type of voting in the Mayoral race?
572782b6dd62a815002e9f32
instant-runoff
514
False
lessened the penalties for possession of marijuana
135
What charter amendment was approved in 1947?
5ace451232bba1001ae4a143
True
Kathy Kozachenko
321
Who was the first openly homosexual to win office in 1947?
5ace451232bba1001ae4a144
True
instant-runoff voting
514
What kind of voting did Ann arbor use in 1957?
5ace451232bba1001ae4a145
True
instant-runoff voting
514
What process was repealed in 1967 after use in only one election?
5ace451232bba1001ae4a146
True
Debbie Dingell
1022
Who is the representative for Ann Arbor in the 21st congressional district?
5ace451232bba1001ae4a147
True
Left-wing politics have been particularly strong in municipal government since the 1960s. Voters approved charter amendments that have lessened the penalties for possession of marijuana (1974), and that aim to protect access to abortion in the city should it ever become illegal in the State of Michigan (1990). In 1974, Kathy Kozachenko's victory in an Ann Arbor city-council race made her the country's first openly homosexual candidate to win public office. In 1975, Ann Arbor became the first U.S. city to use instant-runoff voting for a mayoral race. Adopted through a ballot initiative sponsored by the local Human Rights Party, which feared a splintering of the liberal vote, the process was repealed in 1976 after use in only one election. As of August 2009, Democrats hold the mayorship and all council seats. The left tilt of politics in the city has earned it the nickname "The People's Republic of Ann Arbor". Nationally, Ann Arbor is located in Michigan's 12th congressional district, represented by Democrat Debbie Dingell.
Name a private business school located in Ann arbor.
5727837f5951b619008f8bd5
Cleary University
158
False
Who founded Domino's pizza?
5727837f5951b619008f8bd6
Tom Monaghan
382
False
Which school acquired the former Ave Maria building after a Roman catholic school moved from there?
5727837f5951b619008f8bd7
Thomas M. Cooley Law School
490
False
Ave Maria School of Law
291
What law school moved to Florida in 2000?
5ace45ed32bba1001ae4a153
True
Ave Maria School of Law
291
What Lutheran school did Tom Monaghan found?
5ace45ed32bba1001ae4a154
True
Thomas M. Cooley Law School
490
What law school acquired the former Ave Maria buildings in 2000?
5ace45ed32bba1001ae4a155
True
Washtenaw Community College
204
What community college is located in Ann Arbor?
5ace45ed32bba1001ae4a156
True
Cleary University
158
What private business school is in Ann Arbor Township?
5ace45ed32bba1001ae4a157
True
Other local colleges and universities include Concordia University Ann Arbor, a Lutheran liberal-arts institution; a campus of the University of Phoenix; and Cleary University, a private business school. Washtenaw Community College is located in neighboring Ann Arbor Township. In 2000, the Ave Maria School of Law, a Roman Catholic law school established by Domino's Pizza founder Tom Monaghan, opened in northeastern Ann Arbor, but the school moved to Ave Maria, Florida in 2009, and the Thomas M. Cooley Law School acquired the former Ave Maria buildings for use as a branch campus.
Ann Arbor has one of the leading programs in what subject?
57278428708984140094dfc7
music
111
False
What program is open to the residents of Ann arbor?
57278428708984140094dfc8
Ann Arbor Open School
538
False
In 2008, how many were enrolled in public schools?
57278428708984140094dfc9
16,539
146
False
2008
140
What year did Ann Arbor public schools have 12 elementary schools?
5ace471732bba1001ae4a179
True
2008
140
In what year was 16,935 students enrolled in the Ann Arbor Public Schools?
5ace471732bba1001ae4a17a
True
Ann Arbor Open School
538
What high school operates in the former Mack School?
5ace471732bba1001ae4a17b
True
middle schools
252
Is Forsythe a traditional or alternative high school?
5ace471732bba1001ae4a17c
True
middle schools
252
What kind of high school is Forsythe?
5ace471732bba1001ae4a17d
True
Public schools are part of the Ann Arbor Public Schools (AAPS) district. AAPS has one of the country's leading music programs. In September 2008, 16,539 students had been enrolled in the Ann Arbor Public Schools. There were 21 elementary schools, five middle schools (Forsythe, Slauson, Tappan, Scarlett, and Clague) three traditional high schools (Pioneer, Huron, and Skyline), and three alternative high schools (Community High, Stone School, and Roberto Clemente) in the district. The district also operates a K-8 open school program, Ann Arbor Open School, out of the former Mack School. This program is open to all families who live within the district. Ann Arbor Public Schools also operates a preschool and family center, with programs for at-risk infants and children before kindergarten. The district has a preschool center with both free and tuition-based programs for preschoolers in the district.
Who owns Ann Arbor news?
5727849b5951b619008f8c17
Booth Newspapers
48
False
When did the Ann Arbor news end its print?
5727849b5951b619008f8c18
2009
199
False
Which was the only city in the US to loose its only daily paper?
5727849b5951b619008f8c19
Ann Arbor
447
False
The Ann Arbor News
0
What newspaper ran for 147 years?
5ace47e132bba1001ae4a18b
True
The Ann Arbor News
0
What online newspaper stopped printing in 2009?
5ace47e132bba1001ae4a18c
True
The Ann Arbor Chronicle
534
What newspaper covered local news until September 13, 2014?
5ace47e132bba1001ae4a18d
True
2013
337
When did the Ann Arbor Paper start a limited print publication?
5ace47e132bba1001ae4a18e
True
The Ann Arbor News, owned by the Michigan-based Booth Newspapers chain, is the major daily newspaper serving Ann Arbor and the rest of Washtenaw County. The newspaper ended its 174-year print run in 2009, due to economic difficulties. It was replaced by AnnArbor.com, but returned to a limited print publication under its former name in 2013. Another Ann Arbor-based publication that has ceased production was the Ann Arbor Paper, a free monthly. Ann Arbor has been said to be the first significant city to lose its only daily paper. The Ann Arbor Chronicle, an online newspaper, covered local news, including meetings of the library board, county commission, and DDA until September 3, 2014.
What magazine covers Ann Arbor's local businesses?
5727852d708984140094dfdd
Ann Arbor Business Review
284
False
Which automobile magazines are based from Ann Arbor?
5727852d708984140094dfde
Car and Driver magazine and Automobile Magazine
345
False
Which university magazine reports local, state & regional issues in addition to campus news?
5727852d708984140094dfdf
Michigan Daily student newspaper
515
False
Car and Driver magazine and Automobile Magazine
345
What automobile magazines are run by the University of Michigan?
5ace497632bba1001ae4a1c1
True
Michigan Daily
515
What political student newspaper is run by the University of Michigan?
5ace497632bba1001ae4a1c2
True
Current
230
Which university magazine is a free entertainment magazine?
5ace497632bba1001ae4a1c3
True
Ann Arbor Observer
111
Which university magazine is a free monthly local magazine?
5ace497632bba1001ae4a1c4
True
Current publications in the city include the Ann Arbor Journal (A2 Journal), a weekly community newspaper; the Ann Arbor Observer, a free monthly local magazine; the Ann Arbor Independent, a locally owned, independent weekly; and Current, a free entertainment-focused alt-weekly. The Ann Arbor Business Review covers local business in the area. Car and Driver magazine and Automobile Magazine are also based in Ann Arbor. The University of Michigan is served by many student publications, including the independent Michigan Daily student newspaper, which reports on local, state, and regional issues in addition to campus news.
What is the name of the conservative AM radio channel in Ann arbor?
572785935951b619008f8c45
WAAM 1600
60
False
What is the name of the city's FM radio channel?
572785935951b619008f8c46
WUOM 91.7
277
False
What is the name of the local free community college radio?
572785935951b619008f8c47
WCBN-FM 88.3
375
False
WDEO 990
154
What FM station is known as Catholic radio?
5ace4ac032bba1001ae4a1e3
True
WTKA 1050
184
What FM station is a sports station?
5ace4ac032bba1001ae4a1e4
True
WWWW 102.9
304
What AM station plays country music?
5ace4ac032bba1001ae4a1e5
True
WCBN-FM 88.3
375
What AM station is run by the University of Michigan?
5ace4ac032bba1001ae4a1e6
True
Four major AM radio stations based in or near Ann Arbor are WAAM 1600, a conservative news and talk station; WLBY 1290, a business news and talk station; WDEO 990, Catholic radio; and WTKA 1050, which is primarily a sports station. The city's FM stations include NPR affiliate WUOM 91.7; country station WWWW 102.9; and adult-alternative station WQKL 107.1. Freeform station WCBN-FM 88.3 is a local community radio/college radio station operated by the students of the University of Michigan featuring noncommercial, eclectic music and public-affairs programming. The city is also served by public and commercial radio broadcasters in Ypsilanti, the Lansing/Jackson area, Detroit, Windsor, and Toledo.
WPXD channel 31 is an affliate of which TV network?
572785e85951b619008f8c4b
ION
37
False
What is the abbreviation of CTN?
572785e85951b619008f8c4c
Community Television Network
229
False
WPXD channel 31
0
What affiliate of the ION Television Network broadcasts from Lyndon Township?
5ace4be532bba1001ae4a1ff
True
WHTV channel 18
86
What MyNetworkTV-affiliated station is licensed to the city of Ann Arbor?
5ace4be532bba1001ae4a200
True
Lyndon Township
193
Where is WHTV channel 81 based?
5ace4be532bba1001ae4a201
True
the city
76
Where is WPXD channel 13 based?
5ace4be532bba1001ae4a202
True
WPXD channel 31, an affiliate of the ION Television network, is licensed to the city. WHTV channel 18, a MyNetworkTV-affiliated station for the Lansing market, broadcasts from a transmitter in Lyndon Township, west of Ann Arbor. Community Television Network (CTN) is a city-provided cable television channel with production facilities open to city residents and nonprofit organizations. Detroit and Toledo-area radio and television stations also serve Ann Arbor, and stations from Lansing and Windsor, Ontario, can be heard in parts of the area.
C.S. Mott Children's Hospital
268
What is the children's hospital located in nearby Superior Township?
5ace4cb332bba1001ae4a21b
True
The University of Michigan Medical Center
0
What hospital was rated number 1 in Michigan in 2014?
5ace4cb332bba1001ae4a21c
True
Saint Joseph Mercy Hospital
544
What Catholic hospital is in Ann Arbor?
5ace4cb332bba1001ae4a21d
True
The University of Michigan Medical Center, the only teaching hospital in the city, took the number 1 slot in U.S. News & World Report for best hospital in the state of Michigan, as of 2015. The University of Michigan Health System (UMHS) includes University Hospital, C.S. Mott Children's Hospital and Women's Hospital in its core complex. UMHS also operates out-patient clinics and facilities throughout the city. The area's other major medical centers include a large facility operated by the Department of Veterans Affairs in Ann Arbor, and Saint Joseph Mercy Hospital in nearby Superior Township.
Comcast
755
What is the name of the city owned cable company?
5ace4db032bba1001ae4a229
True
Huron River
88
What is the river that private entities use for water supply services?
5ace4db032bba1001ae4a22a
True
four
203
How many pump stations do private entities have?
5ace4db032bba1001ae4a22b
True
Recycle Ann Arbor
492
Who is the private entity that handles recycling for the city?
5ace4db032bba1001ae4a22c
True
AT&T Inc.
641
What is the name of the city owned telephone provider?
5ace4db032bba1001ae4a22d
True
The city provides sewage disposal and water supply services, with water coming from the Huron River and groundwater sources. There are two water-treatment plants, one main and three outlying reservoirs, four pump stations, and two water towers. These facilities serve the city, which is divided into five water districts. The city's water department also operates four dams along the Huron River, two of which provide hydroelectric power. The city also offers waste management services, with Recycle Ann Arbor handling recycling service. Other utilities are provided by private entities. Electrical power and gas are provided by DTE Energy. AT&T Inc. is the primary wired telephone service provider for the area. Cable TV service is primarily provided by Comcast.
eastern edge
384
US Highway 32 runs along what edge of Ann Arbor?
5ace4eb332bba1001ae4a23d
True
northern edge
442
M-41 runs along what edge of the city?
5ace4eb332bba1001ae4a23e
True
southern portion
298
What portion of the city does I-49 run along?
5ace4eb332bba1001ae4a23f
True
west
602
Where is the I-49/M-14 interchange located?
5ace4eb332bba1001ae4a240
True
Washtenaw County Border-to-Border Trail
743
What is the completed bike trail called?
5ace4eb332bba1001ae4a241
True
The streets in downtown Ann Arbor conform to a grid pattern, though this pattern is less common in the surrounding areas. Major roads branch out from the downtown district like spokes on a wheel to the highways surrounding the city. The city is belted by three freeways: I-94, which runs along the southern portion of the city; U.S. Highway 23 (US 23), which primarily runs along the eastern edge of Ann Arbor; and M-14, which runs along the northern edge of the city. Other nearby highways include US 12, M-17, and M-153. Several of the major surface arteries lead to the I-94/M-14 interchange in the west, US 23 in the east, and the city's southern areas. The city also has a system of bike routes and paths and includes the nearly complete Washtenaw County Border-to-Border Trail.
Gothic_architecture
What is one time period in which Gothic architecture flourished?
57268fad5951b619008f769b
late medieval period
83
False
What style of architecture did Gothic architecture evolve from?
57268fad5951b619008f769c
Romanesque architecture
121
False
What style of architecture came after the Gothic style?
57268fad5951b619008f769d
Renaissance architecture
166
False
Where did the Gothic architecture style originate?
57268fad5951b619008f769e
France
220
False
Gothic architecture is known for being commonly used in cathedrals and churches, what is one example of a lesser known type of structure in which Gothic architecture has been used?
57268fad5951b619008f769f
private dwellings, such as dorms and rooms
758
False
late medieval period
83
What is one time period in which Gothic architecture was not allowed?
5ad0bf10645df0001a2d0194
True
Romanesque architecture
121
What style of architecture did Gothic architecture devolve from?
5ad0bf10645df0001a2d0195
True
Renaissance architecture
166
What style of architecture came along with the Gothic style?
5ad0bf10645df0001a2d0196
True
France
220
Where did the Gothic architecture style fail originally?
5ad0bf10645df0001a2d0197
True
Gothic architecture
0
What style of architecture no longer exists for castles?
5ad0bf10645df0001a2d0198
True
Gothic architecture is a style of architecture that flourished during the high and late medieval period. It evolved from Romanesque architecture and was succeeded by Renaissance architecture. Originating in 12th-century France and lasting into the 16th century, Gothic architecture was known during the period as Opus Francigenum ("French work") with the term Gothic first appearing during the later part of the Renaissance. Its characteristics include the pointed arch, the ribbed vault and the flying buttress. Gothic architecture is most familiar as the architecture of many of the great cathedrals, abbeys and churches of Europe. It is also the architecture of many castles, palaces, town halls, guild halls, universities and to a less prominent extent, private dwellings, such as dorms and rooms.
What is an example of where the Gothic style is expressed most strongly?
572692565951b619008f76ff
churches and cathedrals
19
False
Where do the emotions which traits of the Gothic style represent, originate from?
572692565951b619008f7700
faith or from civic pride
221
False
A great number of what type of buildings still remain from this period today?
572692565951b619008f7701
ecclesiastical
266
False
With what organization are many Gothic cathedral listed with as World Heritage Sites?
572692565951b619008f7702
UNESCO
485
False
Why are larger cathedrals and churches associated with the Gothic style?
572692565951b619008f7703
larger churches are considered priceless works of art
411
False
churches and cathedrals
19
Where is the Gothic style expressed least strongly?
5ad0c1a6645df0001a2d01da
True
faith or from civic pride
221
What are the emotions which traits of the Gothic style diminish?
5ad0c1a6645df0001a2d01db
True
ecclesiastical
266
What is the only style of building that still remains from this period today?
5ad0c1a6645df0001a2d01dc
True
UNESCO
485
With what organization are many Gothic cathedrals unlisted as World Heritage Sites?
5ad0c1a6645df0001a2d01dd
True
larger churches are considered priceless works of art
411
Why are only smaller cathedrals and churches associated with the Gothic style?
5ad0c1a6645df0001a2d01de
True
It is in the great churches and cathedrals and in a number of civic buildings that the Gothic style was expressed most powerfully, its characteristics lending themselves to appeals to the emotions, whether springing from faith or from civic pride. A great number of ecclesiastical buildings remain from this period, of which even the smallest are often structures of architectural distinction while many of the larger churches are considered priceless works of art and are listed with UNESCO as World Heritage Sites. For this reason a study of Gothic architecture is largely a study of cathedrals and churches.
What type of description did the term "Gothic architecture" originate as?
572694b7dd62a815002e8a3e
a pejorative description
45
False
Who used the term "barbarous German style" to portray what is known today as the Gothic style?
572694b7dd62a815002e8a3f
Giorgio Vasari
71
False
Who does Vasari believe destroyed ancient buildings after they conquered Rome?
572694b7dd62a815002e8a40
"the Goths"
291
False
How long had Italy undergone building in a Classical architecture style at the time of Vasari?
572694b7dd62a815002e8a41
a century
493
False
In what period was the Classical architecture vocabulary revived?
572694b7dd62a815002e8a42
the Renaissance
568
False
a pejorative description
45
What type of description did the term "Gothic architecture" dismiss?
5ad0c274645df0001a2d020a
True
Giorgio Vasari
71
Who used the term "barbarous German style" to portray what is known today as the Modern style?
5ad0c274645df0001a2d020b
True
"the Goths"
291
Who does Vasari believe destroyed new buildings after they fell to Rome?
5ad0c274645df0001a2d020c
True
a century
493
How long had Italy stopped building in a Classical architecture style at the time of Vasari?
5ad0c274645df0001a2d020d
True
the Renaissance
568
What period was the Classical architecture vocabulary forgotten?
5ad0c274645df0001a2d020e
True
The term "Gothic architecture" originated as a pejorative description. Giorgio Vasari used the term "barbarous German style" in his Lives of the Artists to describe what is now considered the Gothic style, and in the introduction to the Lives he attributes various architectural features to "the Goths" whom he holds responsible for destroying the ancient buildings after they conquered Rome, and erecting new ones in this style. At the time in which Vasari was writing, Italy had experienced a century of building in the Classical architectural vocabulary revived in the Renaissance and seen as evidence of a new Golden Age of learning and refinement.
What type of structures remaining today have the largest amount of examples of the Gothic style?
5726965c5951b619008f775b
churches
54
False
What is one region with which the Gothic style is distinctly connected with?
5726965c5951b619008f775c
Northern France
415
False
What is another region with which the Gothic style is distinctly connected with?
5726965c5951b619008f775d
the Low Countries
432
False
What is one country with which the Gothic style is distinctly connected with?
5726965c5951b619008f775e
England
451
False
What is another country with which the Gothic style is distinctly connected with?
5726965c5951b619008f775f
Spain
463
False
churches
54
What type of structures remaining today have the only examples of the Gothic style?
5ad0c3b4645df0001a2d0246
True
Northern France
415
What is one region with which the Gothic style is distinctly forbidden?
5ad0c3b4645df0001a2d0247
True
the Low Countries
432
What is the only region with which the Gothic style is distinctly connected with?
5ad0c3b4645df0001a2d0248
True
England
451
What country no longer has examples of Gothic buildings?
5ad0c3b4645df0001a2d0249
True
The greatest number of surviving Gothic buildings are churches. These range from tiny chapels to large cathedrals, and although many have been extended and altered in different styles, a large number remain either substantially intact or sympathetically restored, demonstrating the form, character and decoration of Gothic architecture. The Gothic style is most particularly associated with the great cathedrals of Northern France, the Low Countries, England and Spain, with other fine examples occurring across Europe.
At the end of what century was Europe separated into several city states and kingdoms?
5726980cf1498d1400e8e496
the end of the 12th century
3
False
What was the region covering modern Germany, southern Denmark, the Netherlands, Belgium, Luxembourg, Switzerland, Austria, Slovakia, Czech Republic and much of northern Italy known as?
5726980cf1498d1400e8e497
the Holy Roman Empire
322
False
What modern country contains regions in which Plantagenet kings controlled large domains?
5726980cf1498d1400e8e498
modern France
625
False
Poland was affected by trade connections with what League?
5726980cf1498d1400e8e499
the Hanseatic League
775
False
What type of kings brought the Gothic style from France to Southern Italy?
5726980cf1498d1400e8e49a
Angevin kings
797
False
the end of the 12th century
3
What century was Europe split into two city states and kingdoms?
5ad0c4b9645df0001a2d0276
True
modern France
625
What modern country contains regions in which Plantagenet kings controlled small domains?
5ad0c4b9645df0001a2d0277
True
Angevin kings
797
What type of kings brought the Gothic style from France to Southern Asia?
5ad0c4b9645df0001a2d0278
True
the Hanseatic League
775
What league affected trade connections with Peru?
5ad0c4b9645df0001a2d0279
True
the Holy Roman Empire
322
What was the region covering modern Germany, northern Denmark, the Netherlands, Belgium, Luxembourg, Switzerland, Austria, Slovakia, Czech Republic and much of southern Italy known as?
5ad0c4b9645df0001a2d027a
True
At the end of the 12th century, Europe was divided into a multitude of city states and kingdoms. The area encompassing modern Germany, southern Denmark, the Netherlands, Belgium, Luxembourg, Switzerland, Austria, Slovakia, Czech Republic and much of northern Italy (excluding Venice and Papal State) was nominally part of the Holy Roman Empire, but local rulers exercised considerable autonomy. France, Denmark, Poland, Hungary, Portugal, Scotland, Castile, Aragon, Navarre, Sicily and Cyprus were independent kingdoms, as was the Angevin Empire, whose Plantagenet kings ruled England and large domains in what was to become modern France. Norway came under the influence of England, while the other Scandinavian countries and Poland were influenced by trading contacts with the Hanseatic League. Angevin kings brought the Gothic tradition from France to Southern Italy, while Lusignan kings introduced French Gothic architecture to Cyprus.
Europe experienced a rapid growth in what at this time?
572699fcdd62a815002e8abc
trade
59
False
What is one country that contained considerable and prosperous towns during this time?
572699fcdd62a815002e8abd
Germany
100
False
What type of building was considered to be very important and a sign of affluence and achievement?
572699fcdd62a815002e8abe
Civic building
282
False
What is one country that stayed mostly feudal and created spectacular architecture for its royalty rather than its burghers?
572699fcdd62a815002e8abf
England
367
False
What is another country that stayed mostly feudal and created spectacular architecture for its royalty rather than its burghers?
572699fcdd62a815002e8ac0
France
379
False
trade
59
What did Europe experience a rapid decline in at this time?
5ad0c662645df0001a2d02c6
True
Germany
100
What is the only country that contained considerable and prosperous towns during this time?
5ad0c662645df0001a2d02c7
True
Civic building
282
What type of building was considered to be very unimportant and a sign of affluence and achievement?
5ad0c662645df0001a2d02c8
True
England
367
What is one country that stayed mostly feudal and created spectacular architecture for its burghers rather than its royalty?
5ad0c662645df0001a2d02c9
True
Throughout Europe at this time there was a rapid growth in trade and an associated growth in towns. Germany and the Lowlands had large flourishing towns that grew in comparative peace, in trade and competition with each other, or united for mutual weal, as in the Hanseatic League. Civic building was of great importance to these towns as a sign of wealth and pride. England and France remained largely feudal and produced grand domestic architecture for their kings, dukes and bishops, rather than grand town halls for their burghers.
What church was widespread across Europe at this time?
57269b79dd62a815002e8aea
The Catholic Church
0
False
Who were bishops appointed by?
57269b79dd62a815002e8aeb
by the feudal lords (kings, dukes and other landowners)
135
False
Which periods saw a quick growth in Monasticism?
57269b79dd62a815002e8aec
The early Medieval periods
251
False
What types of church were the Benedictines known for?
57269b79dd62a815002e8aed
great abbey churches
439
False
What is one type of Benedictine order that was common in France?
57269b79dd62a815002e8aee
Cistercian Orders
651
False
The Catholic Church
0
What church was widespread across Asia at this time?
5ad0c6de645df0001a2d02d8
True
by the feudal lords (kings, dukes and other landowners)
135
Who were bishops killed by?
5ad0c6de645df0001a2d02d9
True
The early Medieval periods
251
Which periods saw a very slow growth in Monasticism?
5ad0c6de645df0001a2d02da
True
great abbey churches
439
What types of church were the Benedictines unknown for?
5ad0c6de645df0001a2d02db
True
Cistercian Orders
651
What is one type of Benedictine order that was rare in France?
5ad0c6de645df0001a2d02dc
True
The Catholic Church prevailed across Europe at this time, influencing not only faith but also wealth and power. Bishops were appointed by the feudal lords (kings, dukes and other landowners) and they often ruled as virtual princes over large estates. The early Medieval periods had seen a rapid growth in monasticism, with several different orders being prevalent and spreading their influence widely. Foremost were the Benedictines whose great abbey churches vastly outnumbered any others in France and England. A part of their influence was that towns developed around them and they became centers of culture, learning and commerce. The Cluniac and Cistercian Orders were prevalent in France, the great monastery at Cluny having established a formula for a well planned monastic site which was then to influence all subsequent monastic building for many centuries.
During what time period did Romanesque architecture become a pan-European style of construction?
57269de45951b619008f77e1
10th to the 13th century
9
False
What is one country in the geographic area that was affected by the development of the Gothic style of architecture?
57269de45951b619008f77e2
Croatia
177
False
Why did country borders not affect differences in style within Gothic architecture?
57269de45951b619008f77e3
proximity of some regions
437
False
During which period did regional differences in Romanesque architecture become even more pronounced?
57269de45951b619008f77e4
the Gothic
876
False
England and what other country showed differences in architectural style rarely observed anywhere else?
57269de45951b619008f77e5
Spain
583
False
10th to the 13th century
9
What time period did Romanesque architecture become a pan-European style of destruction?
5ad0c9d5645df0001a2d035a
True
Croatia
177
What is the only country in the geographic area that was affected by the development of the Gothic style of architecture?
5ad0c9d5645df0001a2d035b
True
proximity of some regions
437
Why did country borders not affect differences in style within Gothic architecture?
5ad0c9d5645df0001a2d035c
True
Gothic
322
Which period did regional similarities in Romanesque architecture become even more pronounced?
5ad0c9d5645df0001a2d035d
True
Spain
583
What other country aside from England showed identical architectural style frequently observed everywhere else?
5ad0c9d5645df0001a2d035e
True
From the 10th to the 13th century, Romanesque architecture had become a pan-European style and manner of construction, affecting buildings in countries as far apart as Ireland, Croatia, Sweden and Sicily. The same wide geographic area was then affected by the development of Gothic architecture, but the acceptance of the Gothic style and methods of construction differed from place to place, as did the expressions of Gothic taste. The proximity of some regions meant that modern country borders do not define divisions of style. On the other hand, some regions such as England and Spain produced defining characteristics rarely seen elsewhere, except where they have been carried by itinerant craftsmen, or the transfer of bishops. Regional differences that are apparent in the great abbey churches and cathedrals of the Romanesque period often become even more apparent in the Gothic.
Northern Germany, Netherlands, northern Poland, Denmark, and the Baltic countries used what building material in place of local stone?
57269f5add62a815002e8b44
brick
170
False
What was the name of the building style that resulted from the use of brick?
57269f5add62a815002e8b45
Brick Gothic, is called "Backsteingotik"
198
False
What building style was the Hanseatic League connected with in Germany and Scandinavia?
57269f5add62a815002e8b46
"Backsteingotik"
222
False
Why were many buildings covered with marble?
57269f5add62a815002e8b47
Because of the extensive and varied deposits of marble
401
False
With what type of facade were buildings left with if they were to completed at a later time?
57269f5add62a815002e8b48
undecorated façade
512
False
Brick Gothic
198
What was the name of the building style that resulted from the use of one brick?
5ad0ca55645df0001a2d036e
True
"Backsteingotik"
222
What building style was the Hanseatic League disconnected with in Germany and Scandinavia?
5ad0ca55645df0001a2d036f
True
Because of the extensive and varied deposits of marble
401
Why were many buildings covered with marbles?
5ad0ca55645df0001a2d0370
True
undecorated façade
512
With what type of facade were buildings left with if they were to never be completed at a later time?
5ad0ca55645df0001a2d0371
True
In Northern Germany, Netherlands, northern Poland, Denmark, and the Baltic countries local building stone was unavailable but there was a strong tradition of building in brick. The resultant style, Brick Gothic, is called "Backsteingotik" in Germany and Scandinavia and is associated with the Hanseatic League. In Italy, stone was used for fortifications, but brick was preferred for other buildings. Because of the extensive and varied deposits of marble, many buildings were faced in marble, or were left with undecorated façade so that this might be achieved at a later date.
What is Romanesque architecture known as in England?
5726a0f0dd62a815002e8b6e
Norman architecture
53
False
By the beginning of what century was the Romanesque style established all over Europe?
5726a0f0dd62a815002e8b6f
the 12th century
3
False
The Romanesque style continued to affect and inspire  the basic architectural forms throughout which period?
5726a0f0dd62a815002e8b70
the Medieval period
269
False
What is one important category of building that was recognized during the Romanesque period?
5726a0f0dd62a815002e8b71
the cathedral church
328
False
What is another category of building that was established during the Romanesque period?
5726a0f0dd62a815002e8b72
the palace
396
False
Norman architecture
53
What is Romanesque architecture no longer known as in England?
5ad0cada645df0001a2d0396
True
the 12th century
3
What century was the Romanesque style forgotten all over Europe?
5ad0cada645df0001a2d0397
True
the cathedral church
328
What is one useless category of building that was recognized during the Romanesque period?
5ad0cada645df0001a2d0398
True
the palace
396
What is the only category of building that was demolished during the Romanesque period?
5ad0cada645df0001a2d0399
True
By the 12th century, Romanesque architecture (termed Norman architecture in England because of its association with the Norman invasion), was established throughout Europe and provided the basic architectural forms and units that were to remain in evolution throughout the Medieval period. The important categories of building: the cathedral church, the parish church, the monastery, the castle, the palace, the great hall, the gatehouse, the civic building, had been established in the Romanesque period.
What was the most important single design aspect that separated the Gothic style from the Romanesque?
5726a317dd62a815002e8ba8
the pointed arch
68
False
What is one example of a Gothic style element that was able to be incorporated because of technological innovation?
5726a317dd62a815002e8ba9
the flying buttresses
617
False
What is another example of a Gothic style element that was able to be incorporated because of technological innovation?
5726a317dd62a815002e8baa
traceried windows
654
False
What is the name of the cathedral in Northern England that first displayed the use of the pointed arch?
5726a317dd62a815002e8bab
Durham Cathedral
900
False
What is the name of the cathedral in Sicily that first displayed the use of the pointed arch?
5726a317dd62a815002e8bac
Cathedral of Cefalù
965
False
the pointed arch
68
What was the least important single design aspect that separated the Gothic style from the Romanesque?
5ad0cd2a645df0001a2d03c4
True
the flying buttresses
617
What is one example of a Gothic style element that was able to be ignored because of technological innovation?
5ad0cd2a645df0001a2d03c5
True
Durham Cathedral
900
What is the name of the cathedral in Southern England that first displayed the use of the pointed arch?
5ad0cd2a645df0001a2d03c6
True
Cathedral of Cefalù
965
What is the name of the cathedral in Sicily that first displayed the use of the twisted arch?
5ad0cd2a645df0001a2d03c7
True
traceried windows
654
What is another example of a Gothic style element that was able to be forgotten because of technological innovation?
5ad0cd2a645df0001a2d03c8
True
It was principally the widespread introduction of a single feature, the pointed arch, which was to bring about the change that separates Gothic from Romanesque. The technological change permitted a stylistic change which broke the tradition of massive masonry and solid walls penetrated by small openings, replacing it with a style where light appears to triumph over substance. With its use came the development of many other architectural devices, previously put to the test in scattered buildings and then called into service to meet the structural, aesthetic and ideological needs of the new style. These include the flying buttresses, pinnacles and traceried windows which typify Gothic ecclesiastical architecture. But while pointed arch is so strongly associated with the Gothic style, it was first used in Western architecture in buildings that were in other ways clearly Romanesque, notably Durham Cathedral in the north of England, Monreale Cathedral and Cathedral of Cefalù in Sicily, Autun Cathedral in France.
What is one defining characteristic of the Gothic architectural style?
5726a450f1498d1400e8e5c2
The pointed arch
0
False
Which type of architecture first used the pointed arch during the seventh century?
5726a450f1498d1400e8e5c3
Islamic architecture
90
False
What other type of architecture also made use of the pointed arch?
5726a450f1498d1400e8e5c4
Sassanian architecture
278
False
The Roman Karamagara Bridge is an example of what type of structure?
5726a450f1498d1400e8e5c5
secular structures
387
False
Parabolic and pointed arches were used in what type of constrcution?
5726a450f1498d1400e8e5c6
palace and sacred construction
515
False
The pointed arch
0
What is the only defining characteristic of the Gothic architectural style?
5ad0ceb6645df0001a2d043c
True
Islamic architecture
90
Which type of architecture first used the pointed arch during the fifth century?
5ad0ceb6645df0001a2d043d
True
Sassanian architecture
278
What other type of architecture also made use of the curved arch?
5ad0ceb6645df0001a2d043e
True
palace and sacred construction
515
What type of construction involved many twisted arches?
5ad0ceb6645df0001a2d043f
True
The pointed arch, one of the defining attributes of Gothic, was earlier incorporated into Islamic architecture following the Islamic conquests of Roman Syria and the Sassanid Empire in the Seventh Century. The pointed arch and its precursors had been employed in Late Roman and Sassanian architecture; within the Roman context, evidenced in early church building in Syria and occasional secular structures, like the Roman Karamagara Bridge; in Sassanid architecture, in the parabolic and pointed arches employed in palace and sacred construction.
What could have affected Medieval Europe's embracing of the pointed arch?
5726a63c5951b619008f790d
cultural contacts with the Muslim world
24
False
What event in the year 1090 could have had an effect on Medieval Europe's embracing of the pointed arch?
5726a63c5951b619008f790e
the Norman conquest of Islamic Sicily
75
False
In which parts of the Western Mediterranean did the blending of Romanesque and Islamic styles occur?
5726a63c5951b619008f790f
those parts of the Western Mediterranean subject to Islamic control
317
False
What is one cathedral in which the mixing of Romanesque, Gothic and Islamic styles can be seen?
5726a63c5951b619008f7910
Cefalù Cathedrals
544
False
What is another example of a cathedral in which the blending of Romanesque, Gothic and Islamic styles can be seen?
5726a63c5951b619008f7911
Teruel Cathedral
591
False
cultural contacts with the Muslim world
24
What could have eliminated Medieval Europe's embracing of the pointed arch?
5ad0d460645df0001a2d05f0
True
the Norman conquest of Islamic Sicily
75
What event in the year 1290 could have had an effect on Medieval Europe's embracing of the pointed arch?
5ad0d460645df0001a2d05f1
True
those parts of the Western Mediterranean subject to Islamic control
317
Which parts of the Western Mediterranean did the blending of Asian and Islamic styles occur?
5ad0d460645df0001a2d05f2
True
Cefalù Cathedrals
544
What is the only cathedral in which the mixing of Romanesque, Gothic and Islamic styles can be seen?
5ad0d460645df0001a2d05f3
True
Teruel Cathedral
591
What is the worst example of a cathedral in which the blending of Romanesque, French and Islamic styles can be seen?
5ad0d460645df0001a2d05f4
True
Increasing military and cultural contacts with the Muslim world, including the Norman conquest of Islamic Sicily in 1090, the Crusades, beginning 1096, and the Islamic presence in Spain, may have influenced Medieval Europe's adoption of the pointed arch, although this hypothesis remains controversial. Certainly, in those parts of the Western Mediterranean subject to Islamic control or influence, rich regional variants arose, fusing Romanesque and later Gothic traditions with Islamic decorative forms, as seen, for example, in Monreale and Cefalù Cathedrals, the Alcázar of Seville, and Teruel Cathedral.
The distinctive forms that describe Gothic architecture developed out of which style?
5726a78bf1498d1400e8e640
Romanesque
77
False
Barrel and groin vaults are examples of what kind of architecture?
5726a78bf1498d1400e8e641
Romanesque architecture
277
False
What type of vaults were used in the Abbey of Saint-Étienne and Abbaye aux Dames?
5726a78bf1498d1400e8e642
ribbed vaults
302
False
When was Durham Cathedral constructed?
5726a78bf1498d1400e8e643
from 1128 to 1133
591
False
What cathedral first made use of pointed arches in high vaults?
5726a78bf1498d1400e8e644
Durham Cathedral in England
556
False
Romanesque
77
What style helped to destroy Gothic architecture?
5ad0d4f1645df0001a2d0624
True
ribbed vaults
302
What type of vaults were lost in the Abbey of Saint-Étienne and Abbaye aux Dames?
5ad0d4f1645df0001a2d0625
True
from 1128 to 1133
591
When was Durham Cathedral abandoned?
5ad0d4f1645df0001a2d0626
True
Durham Cathedral in England
556
What cathedral last made use of pointed arches in low vaults?
5ad0d4f1645df0001a2d0627
True
The characteristic forms that were to define Gothic architecture grew out of Romanesque architecture and developed at several different geographic locations, as the result of different influences and structural requirements. While barrel vaults and groin vaults are typical of Romanesque architecture, ribbed vaults were used in the naves of two Romanesque churches in Caen, Abbey of Saint-Étienne and Abbaye aux Dames in 1120. Another early example is the nave and apse area of the Cathedral of Cefalù in 1131. The ribbed vault over the north transept at Durham Cathedral in England, built from 1128 to 1133, is probably earlier still and was the first time pointed arches were used in a high vault.
What is considered the first truly Gothic building?
5726a86a708984140094cd1b
The Basilica of Saint Denis
0
False
Which cathedral was first to be rebuilt in the new style from 1150 to 1231?
5726a86a708984140094cd1c
Noyon Cathedral
179
False
What is one of the features that have come to be considered as an important part of the Gothic style?
5726a86a708984140094cd1f
ribbed vaulting
427
False
The Basilica of Saint Denis
0
What is considered the last true Gothic building?
5ad0d57b645df0001a2d063a
True
Noyon Cathedral
179
Which cathedral was first to be rebuilt in the new style from 1140 to 1241?
5ad0d57b645df0001a2d063b
True
flying buttresses
405
What is one of the features that is no longer an important part of the Gothic style?
5ad0d57b645df0001a2d063c
True
1150
301
When was the Noyon Cathedral abandoned?
5ad0d57b645df0001a2d063d
True
The Basilica of Saint Denis is generally cited as the first truly Gothic building, however the distinction is best reserved for the choir, of which the ambulatory remains intact. Noyon Cathedral, also in France, saw the earliest completion of a rebuilding of an entire cathedral in the new style from 1150 to 1231. While using all those features that came to be known as Gothic, including pointed arches, flying buttresses and ribbed vaulting, the builders continued to employ many of the features and much of the character of Romanesque architecture including round-headed arch throughout the building, varying the shape to pointed where it was functionally practical to do so.
What is one cathedral in which simple cylindrical columns stand out more than the Gothic features?
5726a9f5dd62a815002e8c5c
Abbey Saint-Denis
7
False
When was the construction of Wells Cathedral in England begun?
5726a9f5dd62a815002e8c5d
in 1175
280
False
Who completed the transepts and nave on Wells Cathedral in about 1230?
5726a9f5dd62a815002e8c5e
Adam Locke
616
False
Which Cathedral is considered the first thoroughly Gothic cathedral?
5726a9f5dd62a815002e8c5f
Wells Cathedral
724
False
What is another cathedral in which simple cylindrical columns stand out more than the Gothic features?
5726a9f5dd62a815002e8c60
Notre Dame de Paris
43
False
Abbey Saint-Denis
7
What is one cathedral in which complex cylindrical columns stand out more than the Gothic features?
5ad0d742645df0001a2d0668
True
in 1175
280
When was the construction of Wells Cathedral in England halted?
5ad0d742645df0001a2d0669
True
Adam Locke
616
Who completed the transepts and nave on Wells Cathedral in about 1130?
5ad0d742645df0001a2d066a
True
Wells Cathedral
724
Which Cathedral is considered the only thoroughly Gothic cathedral?
5ad0d742645df0001a2d066b
True
At the Abbey Saint-Denis, Noyon Cathedral, Notre Dame de Paris and at the eastern end of Canterbury Cathedral in England, simple cylindrical columns predominate over the Gothic forms of clustered columns and shafted piers. Wells Cathedral in England, commenced at the eastern end in 1175, was the first building in which the designer broke free from Romanesque forms. The architect entirely dispensed with the round arch in favour of the pointed arch and with cylindrical columns in favour of piers composed of clusters of shafts which lead into the mouldings of the arches. The transepts and nave were continued by Adam Locke in the same style and completed in about 1230. The character of the building is entirely Gothic. Wells Cathedral is thus considered the first truly Gothic cathedral.
Who chose to rebuild the great Church of Saint-Denis in about 1137?
5726ab90f1498d1400e8e6ac
Suger
0
False
Which portion the cathedral was the reconstruction of the great Church of Saint-Denis begun?
5726ab90f1498d1400e8e6ad
the West Front
209
False
The facade of Saint Denis resembled what other well known structure?
5726ab90f1498d1400e8e6ae
the Roman Arch of Constantine
349
False
Why were three large portal used in the construction of the Roman Arch of Constantine?
5726ab90f1498d1400e8e6af
to ease the problem of congestion
432
False
The facade of Saint Denis combines round arches with what other style arch?
5726ab90f1498d1400e8e6b0
pointed arches of the Gothic style
588
False
Suger
0
Who chose to rebuild the great Church of Saint-Denis in about 1237?
5ad0dc38645df0001a2d06de
True
the West Front
209
Which portion of the cathedral was involved in the destruction of the great Church of Saint-Denis?
5ad0dc38645df0001a2d06df
True
the Roman Arch of Constantine
349
What did the facade of Saint Denis resemble as a well known creature?
5ad0dc38645df0001a2d06e0
True
to ease the problem of congestion
432
Why were nine large portals used in the construction of the Roman Arch of Constantine?
5ad0dc38645df0001a2d06e1
True
pointed arches of the Gothic style
588
What does the facade of Saint Denis combine pyramids with what other style arch?
5ad0dc38645df0001a2d06e2
True
Suger, friend and confidant of the French Kings, Louis VI and Louis VII, decided in about 1137, to rebuild the great Church of Saint-Denis, attached to an abbey which was also a royal residence. He began with the West Front, reconstructing the original Carolingian façade with its single door. He designed the façade of Saint-Denis to be an echo of the Roman Arch of Constantine with its three-part division and three large portals to ease the problem of congestion. The rose window is the earliest-known example above the West portal in France. The façade combines both round arches and pointed arches of the Gothic style.
When was the west front of Saint Denis completed?
5726acd3708984140094cd8f
in 1140
36
False
What portion of the reconstruction of Saint Denis was begun after the completion of the west front?
5726acd3708984140094cd90
the eastern end
91
False
What style of nave was left unaltered during this portion of the reconstruction of Saint Denis?
5726acd3708984140094cd91
the Carolingian nave
116
False
What style of columns did Abbott Suger use when reconstructing Saint Denis?
5726acd3708984140094cd92
clustered columns
409
False
What design element allowed the use of large clerestory windows?
5726acd3708984140094cd93
the flying buttresses
481
False
1140
39
When was the south front of Saint Denis removed?
5ad0dcc3645df0001a2d06f0
True
clustered columns
409
What style of columns did Abbott Suger use when destructing Saint Denis?
5ad0dcc3645df0001a2d06f1
True
the Carolingian nave
116
What style of nave was fully altered during this portion of the reconstruction of Saint Denis?
5ad0dcc3645df0001a2d06f2
True
the flying buttresses
481
What design element allowed the use of small clerestory doors?
5ad0dcc3645df0001a2d06f3
True
the eastern end
91
What portion of the reconstruction of Saint Denis was delayed after the completion of the west front?
5ad0dcc3645df0001a2d06f4
True
At the completion of the west front in 1140, Abbot Suger moved on to the reconstruction of the eastern end, leaving the Carolingian nave in use. He designed a choir that would be suffused with light. To achieve his aims, his masons drew on the several new features which evolved or had been introduced to Romanesque architecture, the pointed arch, the ribbed vault, the ambulatory with radiating chapels, the clustered columns supporting ribs springing in different directions and the flying buttresses which enabled the insertion of large clerestory windows.
What type of buildings most prominently display the design aspects of the Gothic architectural style?
5726adf0dd62a815002e8cc4
cathedrals and great churches
88
False
Prior to the 20th century, a Gothic cathedral was considered to be what type of building in the town in which it was constructed?
5726adf0dd62a815002e8cc5
the landmark building
293
False
What is another name for the pointed arch?
5726adf0dd62a815002e8cc6
the ogival
769
False
What is an example of architectural technology that is seen in Gothic construction?
5726adf0dd62a815002e8cc7
the ribbed vault
797
False
What is another example of architectural technology that is seen in Gothic construction?
5726adf0dd62a815002e8cc8
the buttress
819
False
cathedrals and great churches
88
What type of buildings most prominently hide the design aspects of the Gothic architectural style?
5ad0ddaa645df0001a2d0716
True
the ogival
769
What is another name for the twisted arch?
5ad0ddaa645df0001a2d0717
True
the ribbed vault
797
What is an example of impossible technology that is seen in Gothic construction?
5ad0ddaa645df0001a2d0718
True
prior to the 20th century
256
When was it typical that Gothic cathedrals were hidden?
5ad0ddaa645df0001a2d0719
True
While many secular buildings exist from the Late Middle Ages, it is in the buildings of cathedrals and great churches that Gothic architecture displays its pertinent structures and characteristics to the fullest advantage. A Gothic cathedral or abbey was, prior to the 20th century, generally the landmark building in its town, rising high above all the domestic structures and often surmounted by one or more towers and pinnacles and perhaps tall spires. These cathedrals were the skyscrapers of that day and would have been the largest buildings by far that Europeans would ever have seen. It is in the architecture of these Gothic churches that a unique combination of existing technologies established the emergence of a new building style. Those technologies were the ogival or pointed arch, the ribbed vault, and the buttress.
In England, which arm would generally show two distinct sections, choir and presbytery?
5726afd2dd62a815002e8cf6
The eastern arm
0
False
Who is a projecting Lady Chapel dedicated to?
5726afd2dd62a815002e8cf7
the Virgin Mary
212
False
What shape does the eastern end often exhibit in France?
5726afd2dd62a815002e8cf8
polygonal
264
False
What is the ring of chapels found in the eastern end of French chapels known as?
5726afd2dd62a815002e8cf9
chevet
365
False
In Italy, the eastern projection beyond the transept often contains what?
5726afd2dd62a815002e8cfa
the sanctuary
539
False
The eastern arm
0
Which arm in England would generally show no distinct sections?
5ad0de78645df0001a2d073a
True
the Virgin Mary
212
Who was a projecting Lady Chapel meant to harm?
5ad0de78645df0001a2d073b
True
polygonal
264
What shape does the eastern end rarely exhibit in France?
5ad0de78645df0001a2d073c
True
chevet
365
What is the sphere of chapels found in the eastern end of French chapels known as?
5ad0de78645df0001a2d073d
True
The eastern arm shows considerable diversity. In England it is generally long and may have two distinct sections, both choir and presbytery. It is often square ended or has a projecting Lady Chapel, dedicated to the Virgin Mary. In France the eastern end is often polygonal and surrounded by a walkway called an ambulatory and sometimes a ring of chapels called a "chevet". While German churches are often similar to those of France, in Italy, the eastern projection beyond the transept is usually just a shallow apsidal chapel containing the sanctuary, as at Florence Cathedral.
The use of the pointed arch for bringing transverse vaults to the same height diagonal ones, is in disagreement with what theory?
5726b3bc708984140094ce3b
the diffusionist theory
12
False
At which cathedral is the pointed arch used to match the heights of transverse and diagonal vaults?
5726b3bc708984140094ce3c
Durham Cathedral
272
False
In what type of decorative blind arcading are pointed arches common?
5726b3bc708984140094ce3d
Romanesque
358
False
When semicircular arches overlap each other, what type of design is accidentally created?
5726b3bc708984140094ce3e
points
482
False
Durham Cathedral
272
Which cathedral is the twisted arch used to match the heights of transverse and diagonal vaults?
5ad0ed24645df0001a2d085a
True
Romanesque
358
What type of decorative blind are curved arches common?
5ad0ed24645df0001a2d085b
True
points
482
When triangular arches overlap each other, what type of design is accidentally created?
5ad0ed24645df0001a2d085c
True
the diffusionist theory
12
What theory was not supported by anyone?
5ad0ed24645df0001a2d085d
True
Contrary to the diffusionist theory, it appears that there was simultaneously a structural evolution towards the pointed arch, for the purpose of vaulting spaces of irregular plan, or to bring transverse vaults to the same height as diagonal vaults. This latter occurs at Durham Cathedral in the nave aisles in 1093. Pointed arches also occur extensively in Romanesque decorative blind arcading, where semi-circular arches overlap each other in a simple decorative pattern, and the points are accidental to the design.
Which type of vault can be used for rectangular and trapezoidal shaped roofs?
5726b585708984140094ce87
The Gothic vault
0
False
What structural benefit is offered by the Gothic vault?
5726b585708984140094ce88
channels the weight onto the bearing piers or columns at a steep angle
221
False
What can architects raise much higher using the Gothic versus the Romanesque variety?
5726b585708984140094ce89
vaults
326
False
What type of visual character is achieved by using the pointed arch?
5726b585708984140094ce8a
more vertical visual character
540
False
Gothic vault
4
Which type of vault can be used for circular and square shaped roofs?
5ad0edbc645df0001a2d0862
True
channels the weight onto the bearing piers or columns at a steep angle
221
What structural danger is offered by the Gothic vault?
5ad0edbc645df0001a2d0863
True
vaults
326
What can architects raise much lower using the Gothic versus the Romanesque variety?
5ad0edbc645df0001a2d0864
True
more vertical visual character
540
What type of visual character is forgotten by using the pointed arch?
5ad0edbc645df0001a2d0865
True
The Gothic vault, unlike the semi-circular vault of Roman and Romanesque buildings, can be used to roof rectangular and irregularly shaped plans such as trapezoids. The other structural advantage is that the pointed arch channels the weight onto the bearing piers or columns at a steep angle. This enabled architects to raise vaults much higher than was possible in Romanesque architecture. While, structurally, use of the pointed arch gave a greater flexibility to architectural form, it also gave Gothic architecture a very different and more vertical visual character than Romanesque.
What is one feature of both large and small Gothic churches?
5726b6995951b619008f7b87
towers
12
False
What is another feature of both large and small Gothic churches?
5726b6995951b619008f7b88
spires
23
False
How many towers are typical on the front of Gothic churches in France and Spain?
5726b6995951b619008f7b89
two towers
342
False
In what country is the tower often found detached from the main building?
5726b6995951b619008f7b8a
Italy
180
False
How many towers are found at the Salisbury Chapel?
5726b6995951b619008f7b8b
just one tower
562
False
towers
12
What is one feature of only small Gothic churches?
5ad0ef59645df0001a2d086a
True
two
342
How many riddles are typical on the front of Gothic churches in France and Spain?
5ad0ef59645df0001a2d086b
True
Italy
180
What country is the tower often vanishing from the main building?
5ad0ef59645df0001a2d086c
True
just one tower
562
How many towers fell at the Salisbury Chapel?
5ad0ef59645df0001a2d086d
True
Externally, towers and spires are characteristic of Gothic churches both great and small, the number and positioning being one of the greatest variables in Gothic architecture. In Italy, the tower, if present, is almost always detached from the building, as at Florence Cathedral, and is often from an earlier structure. In France and Spain, two towers on the front is the norm. In England, Germany and Scandinavia this is often the arrangement, but an English cathedral may also be surmounted by an enormous tower at the crossing. Smaller churches usually have just one tower, but this may also be the case at larger buildings, such as Salisbury Cathedral or Ulm Minster, which has the tallest spire in the world, slightly exceeding that of Lincoln Cathedral, the tallest which was actually completed during the medieval period, at 160 metres (520 ft).
What enhances the vertical look of the exterior of Gothic construction?
5726b7d7708984140094cee3
the towers and spires
65
False
What is one design element of Gothic construction that is often terminated by small pinnacles?
5726b7d7708984140094cee4
The roofline
391
False
What is another design element of Gothic construction that is often terminated by small pinnacles?
5726b7d7708984140094cee5
gable ends
405
False
Which cathedral demonstrates a drastic example of termination with small pinnacles?
5726b7d7708984140094cee6
Milan Cathedral
501
False
What other part of Gothic buildings are often found terminated with small pinnacles?
5726b7d7708984140094cee7
buttresses
417
False
the towers and spires
65
What hinders the vertical look of the exterior of Gothic construction?
5ad0f0c4645df0001a2d087c
True
gable ends
405
What is one design element of Gothic construction that is always terminated by small pinnacles?
5ad0f0c4645df0001a2d087d
True
Milan Cathedral
501
Which cathedral demonstrates an impossible structure of small pinnacles?
5ad0f0c4645df0001a2d087e
True
buttresses
139
What part of Gothic buildings are often found terminated with enormous pinnacles?
5ad0f0c4645df0001a2d087f
True
On the exterior, the verticality is emphasised in a major way by the towers and spires and in a lesser way by strongly projecting vertical buttresses, by narrow half-columns called attached shafts which often pass through several storeys of the building, by long narrow windows, vertical mouldings around doors and figurative sculpture which emphasises the vertical and is often attenuated. The roofline, gable ends, buttresses and other parts of the building are often terminated by small pinnacles, Milan Cathedral being an extreme example in the use of this form of decoration.
What is often found sweeping unbroken from floor to ceiling on the interior of Gothic buildings?
5726bb60f1498d1400e8e942
attached shafts
32
False
Where are the verticals found repeated in the interior of Gothic buildings?
5726bb60f1498d1400e8e943
the treatment of the windows and wall surfaces
205
False
What sort of feature is created by the use of vertical elements in gallery and window tracery?
5726bb60f1498d1400e8e944
a strongly unifying feature
439
False
What does the use of vertical elements help to counteract?
5726bb60f1498d1400e8e945
horizontal divisions of the interior structure
488
False
attached shafts
32
What is often found completely broken from floor to ceiling on the interior of Gothic buildings?
5ad0f16f645df0001a2d0884
True
the windows and wall surfaces
222
Where are the verticals never repeated in the interior of Gothic buildings?
5ad0f16f645df0001a2d0885
True
a strongly unifying feature
439
What sort of feature is ruined by the use of vertical elements in gallery and window tracery?
5ad0f16f645df0001a2d0886
True
horizontal divisions of the interior structure
488
What does the use of vertical elements harm the most?
5ad0f16f645df0001a2d0887
True
On the interior of the building attached shafts often sweep unbroken from floor to ceiling and meet the ribs of the vault, like a tall tree spreading into branches. The verticals are generally repeated in the treatment of the windows and wall surfaces. In many Gothic churches, particularly in France, and in the Perpendicular period of English Gothic architecture, the treatment of vertical elements in gallery and window tracery creates a strongly unifying feature that counteracts the horizontal divisions of the interior structure.
What sort of light has always been characteristic of Gothic cathedrals?
5726bda85951b619008f7cb1
Expansive interior light
0
False
Whose writings led to the clerical belief in the divinity of light?
5726bda85951b619008f7cb2
Pseudo-Dionysius
287
False
What book became popular with monks in France and had an effect on how light was used in cathedrals?
5726bda85951b619008f7cb3
The Celestial Hierarchy
340
False
Who encouraged cathedral architects to allow as much light as possible into the building?
5726bda85951b619008f7cb4
the Abbot Suger
609
False
Who held the belief that all light, including light reflected from walls and surfaces was divine?
5726bda85951b619008f7cb5
Pseudo-Dionysius
400
False
Expansive interior light
0
What sort of ultraviolet light has always been characteristic of Gothic cathedrals?
5ad0f256645df0001a2d088c
True
Pseudo-Dionysius
400
Whose writings led to the clerical belief in the divinity of darkness?
5ad0f256645df0001a2d088d
True
The Celestial Hierarchy
340
What book became unpopular with monks in France and had an effect on how light was used in cathedrals?
5ad0f256645df0001a2d088e
True
the Abbot Suger
609
Who encouraged cathedral architects to allow as little light as possible into the building?
5ad0f256645df0001a2d088f
True
Pseudo-Dionysius
400
Who held the belief that all light, including light reflected from walls and surfaces was fake?
5ad0f256645df0001a2d0890
True
Expansive interior light has been a feature of Gothic cathedrals since the first structure was opened. The metaphysics of light in the Middle Ages led to clerical belief in its divinity and the importance of its display in holy settings. Much of this belief was based on the writings of Pseudo-Dionysius, a sixth-century mystic whose book, The Celestial Hierarchy, was popular among monks in France. Pseudo-Dionysius held that all light, even light reflected from metals or streamed through windows, was divine. To promote such faith, the abbot in charge of the Saint-Denis church on the north edge of Paris, the Abbot Suger, encouraged architects remodeling the building to make the interior as bright as possible.
What size of window is found above the main portal at York Minster?
5726bf8f5951b619008f7d19
a large window
41
False
What type of window is often found above the main portal at cathedrals in France such as the Reims Cathedral?
5726bf8f5951b619008f7d1a
a rose window
169
False
Where are rose windows never found in the facades of cathedrals?
5726bf8f5951b619008f7d1b
any English Cathedrals
354
False
What portion of Gothic buildings are usually richly decorated with arcading or sculpture?
5726bf8f5951b619008f7d1c
The gable
378
False
Which Italian cathedral displays polychrome marble and mosaic on the gable?
5726bf8f5951b619008f7d1d
Orvieto Cathedral
556
False
large
43
What size of hole is found above the main portal at York Minster?
5ad0f312645df0001a2d0896
True
a rose window
169
What type of window is often found above the main portal at cathedrals in Greece such as the Reims Cathedral?
5ad0f312645df0001a2d0897
True
any English Cathedrals
354
Where are clear windows never found in the facades of cathedrals?
5ad0f312645df0001a2d0898
True
The gable
378
What portion of Egyptian buildings are usually richly decorated with arcading or sculpture?
5ad0f312645df0001a2d0899
True
Orvieto Cathedral
556
Which Italian cathedral displays polychrome marble and mosaic on the floor?
5ad0f312645df0001a2d089a
True
Above the main portal there is generally a large window, like that at York Minster, or a group of windows such as those at Ripon Cathedral. In France there is generally a rose window like that at Reims Cathedral. Rose windows are also often found in the façades of churches of Spain and Italy, but are rarer elsewhere and are not found on the façades of any English Cathedrals. The gable is usually richly decorated with arcading or sculpture or, in the case of Italy, may be decorated with the rest of the façade, with polychrome marble and mosaic, as at Orvieto Cathedral.
What is the distinguiushing visual design feature of French cathedrals?
5726c5c7f1498d1400e8eace
their impression of verticality
145
False
How many portals are typically found on the west front of French cathedrals?
5726c5c7f1498d1400e8eacf
three portals
479
False
How many towers are typically found on the west front of French cathedrals?
5726c5c7f1498d1400e8ead0
two large towers
526
False
What shape does the east end of French chapels typically have?
5726c5c7f1498d1400e8ead1
The east end is polygonal
604
False
What do many major churches in Southern France often lack?
5726c5c7f1498d1400e8ead2
transepts
756
False
their impression of verticality
145
What is the only visual design feature of French cathedrals?
5ad0f47b645df0001a2d08a0
True
three
479
How many wormholes are typically found on the west front of French cathedrals?
5ad0f47b645df0001a2d08a1
True
transepts
756
What do many major churches in Southern France often require?
5ad0f47b645df0001a2d08a2
True
polygonal
620
What shape does the east end of French chapels typically forbid?
5ad0f47b645df0001a2d08a3
True
The distinctive characteristic of French cathedrals, and those in Germany and Belgium that were strongly influenced by them, is their height and their impression of verticality. Each French cathedral tends to be stylistically unified in appearance when compared with an English cathedral where there is great diversity in almost every building. They are compact, with slight or no projection of the transepts and subsidiary chapels. The west fronts are highly consistent, having three portals surmounted by a rose window, and two large towers. Sometimes there are additional towers on the transept ends. The east end is polygonal with ambulatory and sometimes a chevette of radiating chapels. In the south of France, many of the major churches are without transepts and some are without aisles.
What is the unique design feature of English cathedrals?
5726c713708984140094d13f
their extreme length
56
False
What type of transepts do English cathedrals often feature?
5726c713708984140094d140
double transepts
614
False
What size of window is typically featured on the west end of English cathedrals?
5726c713708984140094d141
very large
872
False
Where are rose windows used on English cathedrals?
5726c713708984140094d142
the transept gables
924
False
On English cathedrals, where is a tower almost always found?
5726c713708984140094d143
at the crossing
1045
False
their extreme length
56
What is the worst design feature of English cathedrals?
5ad0f537645df0001a2d08b2
True
double transepts
614
What type of transepts do English cathedrals often lack?
5ad0f537645df0001a2d08b3
True
very large
872
What size of cat is typically featured on the west end of English cathedrals?
5ad0f537645df0001a2d08b4
True
the transept gables
924
Where are blackened windows used on English cathedrals?
5ad0f537645df0001a2d08b5
True
at the crossing
1045
Where is a tower almost never found on Greek cathedrals?
5ad0f537645df0001a2d08b6
True
The distinctive characteristic of English cathedrals is their extreme length, and their internal emphasis upon the horizontal, which may be emphasised visually as much or more than the vertical lines. Each English cathedral (with the exception of Salisbury) has an extraordinary degree of stylistic diversity, when compared with most French, German and Italian cathedrals. It is not unusual for every part of the building to have been built in a different century and in a different style, with no attempt at creating a stylistic unity. Unlike French cathedrals, English cathedrals sprawl across their sites, with double transepts projecting strongly and Lady Chapels tacked on at a later date, such as at Westminster Abbey. In the west front, the doors are not as significant as in France, the usual congregational entrance being through a side porch. The West window is very large and never a rose, which are reserved for the transept gables. The west front may have two towers like a French Cathedral, or none. There is nearly always a tower at the crossing and it may be very large and surmounted by a spire. The distinctive English east end is square, but it may take a completely different form. Both internally and externally, the stonework is often richly decorated with carvings, particularly the capitals.
In Germany, Poland and Austria Romanesque architecture is defined by its massive size and what other design element?
5726c8de708984140094d153
modular nature
108
False
What design style does Romanesque architecture in Germany, Poland, and Austria normally follow?
5726c8de708984140094d154
the French formula
306
False
What does the eastern end of German Romanesque cathedrals typically emulate?
5726c8de708984140094d155
follows the French form
576
False
What is the distinguishing design element in German Gothic cathedrals?
5726c8de708984140094d156
their breadth and openness
674
False
What are hall churches in German cathedrals known as?
5726c8de708984140094d157
Hallenkirchen
913
False
the French formula
306
What design style does Romanesque architecture in Germany, Poland, and Australia rarely follow?
5ad0f778645df0001a2d08e4
True
the French form
584
What does the eastern end of German Romanesque cathedrals typically avoid?
5ad0f778645df0001a2d08e5
True
their breadth and openness
674
What is the only design element in German Gothic cathedrals?
5ad0f778645df0001a2d08e6
True
Hallenkirchen
913
What are hall churches in German cathedrals no longer known as?
5ad0f778645df0001a2d08e7
True
Romanesque architecture in Germany, Poland, the Czech Lands and Austria is characterised by its massive and modular nature. This is expressed in the Gothic architecture of Central Europe in the huge size of the towers and spires, often projected, but not always completed. The west front generally follows the French formula, but the towers are very much taller and, if complete, are surmounted by enormous openwork spires that are a regional feature. Because of the size of the towers, the section of the façade between them may appear narrow and compressed. The eastern end follows the French form. The distinctive character of the interior of German Gothic cathedrals is their breadth and openness. This is the case even when, as at Cologne, they have been modelled upon a French cathedral. German cathedrals, like the French, tend not to have strongly projecting transepts. There are also many hall churches (Hallenkirchen) without clerestory windows.
What is the distinctive design element of Gothic cathedrals of the Iberian Peninsula?
5726cac1dd62a815002e9068
their spatial complexity
80
False
What size are the arcades of Gothic cathedrals of the Iberian Peninsula?
5726cac1dd62a815002e9069
very tall arcades
211
False
What type of architecture is a prominent influence on the design and form of Gothic cathedrals from the Iberian Peninsula?
5726cac1dd62a815002e906a
Islamic architecture
691
False
What type of West front does the Leon Cathedral resemble?
5726cac1dd62a815002e906b
a French west front
876
False
What style are the spires at Burgos Cathedral?
5726cac1dd62a815002e906c
German style
1081
False
their spatial complexity
80
What is the distinctive design element of Gothic cathedrals of the Iberian continent?
5ad0f821645df0001a2d0900
True
very tall arcades
211
What size are the arcades of Gothic malls of the Iberian Peninsula?
5ad0f821645df0001a2d0901
True
a French west front
876
What type of West front does the Leon Cathedral resent?
5ad0f821645df0001a2d0902
True
German style
1081
What style are the spirals at Burgos Cathedral?
5ad0f821645df0001a2d0903
True
Islamic architecture
691
What type of architecture lost influence on the design and form of Gothic cathedrals from the Iberian Peninsula?
5ad0f821645df0001a2d0904
True
The distinctive characteristic of Gothic cathedrals of the Iberian Peninsula is their spatial complexity, with many areas of different shapes leading from each other. They are comparatively wide, and often have very tall arcades surmounted by low clerestories, giving a similar spacious appearance to the 'Hallenkirche of Germany, as at the Church of the Batalha Monastery in Portugal. Many of the cathedrals are completely surrounded by chapels. Like English cathedrals, each is often stylistically diverse. This expresses itself both in the addition of chapels and in the application of decorative details drawn from different sources. Among the influences on both decoration and form are Islamic architecture and, towards the end of the period, Renaissance details combined with the Gothic in a distinctive manner. The West front, as at Leon Cathedral, typically resembles a French west front, but wider in proportion to height and often with greater diversity of detail and a combination of intricate ornament with broad plain surfaces. At Burgos Cathedral there are spires of German style. The roofline often has pierced parapets with comparatively few pinnacles. There are often towers and domes of a great variety of shapes and structural invention rising above the roof.
What is the unique characteristic of Italian Gothic design?
5726cc61708984140094d1a5
the use of polychrome decoration
52
False
What color are the columns of Italian Gothic cathedrals often painted?
5726cc61708984140094d1a6
the columns may be painted red
242
False
What type of arches do they love to use in Venice?
5726cc61708984140094d1a7
they loved flamboyant arches
570
False
Instead of rose windows, what type of windows do Italian cathedral facades usually feature?
5726cc61708984140094d1a8
occular or wheel windows
869
False
What is the preferred narrative medium for the interior of Italian cathedrals?
5726cc61708984140094d1a9
the fresco
1268
False
the use of polychrome decoration
52
What is the worst characteristic of Italian Gothic design?
5ad0f8b2645df0001a2d0914
True
red
269
What color are the columns of Italian Gothic cathedrals always painted?
5ad0f8b2645df0001a2d0915
True
flamboyant arches
581
What type of arches do they never use in Venice?
5ad0f8b2645df0001a2d0916
True
occular or wheel windows
869
What type of windows do Italian cathedral facades usually forbid?
5ad0f8b2645df0001a2d0917
True
the fresco
1268
What is the preferred narrative medium for the interior of Italian cinemas?
5ad0f8b2645df0001a2d0918
True
The distinctive characteristic of Italian Gothic is the use of polychrome decoration, both externally as marble veneer on the brick façade and also internally where the arches are often made of alternating black and white segments, and where the columns may be painted red, the walls decorated with frescoes and the apse with mosaic. The plan is usually regular and symmetrical, Italian cathedrals have few and widely spaced columns. The proportions are generally mathematically equilibrated, based on the square and the concept of "armonìa", and except in Venice where they loved flamboyant arches, the arches are almost always equilateral. Colours and moldings define the architectural units rather than blending them. Italian cathedral façades are often polychrome and may include mosaics in the lunettes over the doors. The façades have projecting open porches and occular or wheel windows rather than roses, and do not usually have a tower. The crossing is usually surmounted by a dome. There is often a free-standing tower and baptistry. The eastern end usually has an apse of comparatively low projection. The windows are not as large as in northern Europe and, although stained glass windows are often found, the favourite narrative medium for the interior is the fresco.
Who was the Royal palace of Olite built for?
5726cda3708984140094d1c1
the kings of Navarre
155
False
Who was the Malbork Castle built for?
5726cda3708984140094d1c2
the master of the Teutonic order
206
False
What type of Gothic architecture is the Malbork Castle an example of?
5726cda3708984140094d1c3
Brick Gothic architecture
256
False
What is the name of the royal residence built for the kings of France in Paris?
5726cda3708984140094d1c4
the famous Conciergerie
461
False
When was the Palau de la Generalitat in Barcelona constructed?
5726cda3708984140094d1c5
built in the 15th century
407
False
the kings of Navarre
155
Who was the Royal palace of Olite pillaged for?
5ad0f932645df0001a2d0928
True
the master of the Teutonic order
206
Who was the Malbork Castle burned for?
5ad0f932645df0001a2d0929
True
Brick Gothic architecture
256
What type of Gothic architecture is the Malbork Castle a poor example of?
5ad0f932645df0001a2d092a
True
the 15th century
416
When was the Palau de la Generalitat in Barcelona deconstructed?
5ad0f932645df0001a2d092b
True
the famous Conciergerie
461
What is the name of the special residence built for the citizens of France in Paris?
5ad0f932645df0001a2d092c
True
The Palais des Papes in Avignon is the best complete large royal palace, alongside the Royal palace of Olite, built during the 13th and 14th centuries for the kings of Navarre. The Malbork Castle built for the master of the Teutonic order is an example of Brick Gothic architecture. Partial survivals of former royal residences include the Doge's Palace of Venice, the Palau de la Generalitat in Barcelona, built in the 15th century for the kings of Aragon, or the famous Conciergerie, former palace of the kings of France, in Paris.
What is an example of secular Northern Brick Gothic architecture from the 14th century?
5726cf16dd62a815002e90ec
Stralsund town halls
158
False
When was Brussels Town Hall built?
5726cf16dd62a815002e90ed
built during the 15th century
306
False
What is the name of the secular building in Spain which was constructed for the purpose of silk exchange?
5726cf16dd62a815002e90ee
the Llotja de la Seda of Valencia
765
False
What is the name of the 13th-century town hall constructed to host the offices of the republic of Siena?
5726cf16dd62a815002e90ef
the Palazzo Pubblico
952
False
Impressive public secular architecture can also be found in what other Italian city?
5726cf16dd62a815002e90f0
Florence
1112
False
Stralsund town halls
158
What is an example of secular Northern Brick Gothic architecture from the 12th century?
5ad0f9d0645df0001a2d0932
True
during the 15th century
312
When was Brussels Town Hall hidden?
5ad0f9d0645df0001a2d0933
True
the Llotja de la Seda of Valencia
765
What is the name of the secular building in space which was constructed for the purpose of silk exchange?
5ad0f9d0645df0001a2d0934
True
the Palazzo Pubblico
952
What is the name of the 18th-century town hall constructed to host the offices of the republic of Siena?
5ad0f9d0645df0001a2d0935
True
Florence
1112
What is the only Italian city with public secular architecture?
5ad0f9d0645df0001a2d0936
True
Secular Gothic architecture can also be found in a number of public buildings such as town halls, universities, markets or hospitals. The Gdańsk, Wrocław and Stralsund town halls are remarkable examples of northern Brick Gothic built in the late 14th centuries. The Belfry of Bruges or Brussels Town Hall, built during the 15th century, are associated to the increasing wealth and power of the bourgeoisie in the late Middle Ages; by the 15th century, the traders of the trade cities of Burgundy had acquired such wealth and influence that they could afford to express their power by funding lavishly decorated buildings of vast proportions. This kind of expressions of secular and economic power are also found in other late mediaeval commercial cities, including the Llotja de la Seda of Valencia, Spain, a purpose built silk exchange dating from the 15th century, in the partial remains of Westminster Hall in the Houses of Parliament in London, or the Palazzo Pubblico in Siena, Italy, a 13th-century town hall built to host the offices of the then prosperous republic of Siena. Other Italian cities such as Florence (Palazzo Vecchio), Mantua or Venice also host remarkable examples of secular public architecture.
In what era had university towns grown in wealth and importance?
5726d047f1498d1400e8ec06
the late Middle Ages
3
False
What is the name of the university building in Bologna, built in the 14th and 15th centuries?
5726d047f1498d1400e8ec07
the Collegio di Spagna
232
False
What is the name of the building at University of Prague in Bohemia?
5726d047f1498d1400e8ec08
the Collegium Carolinum
327
False
What is the name of the secular building at the University of Salamanca in Spain?
5726d047f1498d1400e8ec09
the Escuelas mayores
391
False
What is the name of the secular building at the Jagiellonian University in Kraków, Poland?
5726d047f1498d1400e8ec0a
the Collegium Maius
497
False
late Middle Ages
7
What era had university towns lost wealth and importance?
5ad0fabd645df0001a2d093c
True
the Collegio di Spagna
232
What is the name of the university building in Bologna, built in the 14th and 17th centuries?
5ad0fabd645df0001a2d093d
True
the Collegium Carolinum
327
What is the name of the building at University of Prague in Bahamas?
5ad0fabd645df0001a2d093e
True
during the 14th and 15th centuries
291
When was the Escuelas mayores building of the University of Salamanca in Spain destroyed?
5ad0fabd645df0001a2d093f
True
the Collegium Maius
497
What is no longer the name of the building at the Jagiellonian University in Kraków, Poland?
5ad0fabd645df0001a2d0940
True
By the late Middle Ages university towns had grown in wealth and importance as well, and this was reflected in the buildings of some of Europe's ancient universities. Particularly remarkable examples still standing nowadays include the Collegio di Spagna in the University of Bologna, built during the 14th and 15th centuries; the Collegium Carolinum of the University of Prague in Bohemia; the Escuelas mayores of the University of Salamanca in Spain; the chapel of King's College, Cambridge; or the Collegium Maius of the Jagiellonian University in Kraków, Poland.
What is one city with an accumulation of secular Gothic structures?
5726d18a708984140094d22d
Bruges
60
False
What is another city with an accumulation of secular Gothic structures?
5726d18a708984140094d22e
Siena
71
False
What style are most windows on secular Gothic structures?
5726d18a708984140094d22f
flat-topped with mullions
176
False
Where are pointed arches and vaulted ceilings found on most secular Gothic structures?
5726d18a708984140094d230
a few focal points
264
False
What is the name of the surviving monastic building in England?
5726d18a708984140094d231
Mont Saint-Michel
540
False
Bruges
60
What is the only city with an accumulation of secular Gothic structures?
5ad0fc08645df0001a2d0964
True
flat-topped with mullions
176
What style are all windows on secular Gothic structures?
5ad0fc08645df0001a2d0965
True
a few focal points
264
Where are pointed arches and vaulted ceilings concealed on most secular Gothic structures?
5ad0fc08645df0001a2d0966
True
Mont Saint-Michel
540
What is the name of the surviving monastic building in Egypt?
5ad0fc08645df0001a2d0967
True
Other cities with a concentration of secular Gothic include Bruges and Siena. Most surviving small secular buildings are relatively plain and straightforward; most windows are flat-topped with mullions, with pointed arches and vaulted ceilings often only found at a few focal points. The country-houses of the nobility were slow to abandon the appearance of being a castle, even in parts of Europe, like England, where defence had ceased to be a real concern. The living and working parts of many monastic buildings survive, for example at Mont Saint-Michel.
What is the name of the Archbishop of Canterbury's residence?
5726d2ce5951b619008f7f17
Lambeth Palace
53
False
In what year was a Gothic hammerbeam roof installed on the Archbishop of Canterbury's residence?
5726d2ce5951b619008f7f18
In 1663
0
False
In what century were distinct Gothic details used on new construction at Oxford and Cambridge?
5726d2ce5951b619008f7f19
the late 17th century
197
False
Who used Gothic details in construction of Tom Tower, Oxford?
5726d2ce5951b619008f7f1a
Christopher Wren
375
False
Lambeth Palace
53
What is the location of the Archbishop of Canterbury's dentist?
5ad0fc8f645df0001a2d0976
True
1663
3
What year was a Gothic hammerbeam roof stolen on the Archbishop of Canterbury's residence?
5ad0fc8f645df0001a2d0977
True
the late 17th century
197
What century were vague Gothic details used on new construction at Oxford and Yale?
5ad0fc8f645df0001a2d0978
True
Christopher Wren
375
Who avoided Gothic details in construction of Tom Tower, Oxford?
5ad0fc8f645df0001a2d0979
True
In 1663 at the Archbishop of Canterbury's residence, Lambeth Palace, a Gothic hammerbeam roof was built to replace that destroyed when the building was sacked during the English Civil War. Also in the late 17th century, some discrete Gothic details appeared on new construction at Oxford University and Cambridge University, notably on Tom Tower at Christ Church, Oxford, by Christopher Wren. It is not easy to decide whether these instances were Gothic survival or early appearances of Gothic revival.
When was neo-Gothic popularized by influential figures?
5726d4dfdd62a815002e919a
during the second quarter of the 19th century
170
False
In Britain after 1837, what was the Gothic revival known as?
5726d4dfdd62a815002e919b
Victorian Gothic
456
False
During what years was the High Victorian Gothic period in Britain?
5726d4dfdd62a815002e919c
1855–1885
600
False
What movement was responsible for the philosophy which led to the revival of Anglo Catholic ideas?
5726d4dfdd62a815002e919d
the Oxford Movement
61
False
Besides ecclesiastical and civic architecture, what other style of architecture did influential figures of the 19th century prefer to use Victorian Gothic for?
5726d4dfdd62a815002e919e
institutional architecture
343
False
during the second quarter of the 19th century
170
When was neo-Gothic forgotten by influential figures?
5ad0fd74645df0001a2d0988
True
Victorian Gothic
456
What was the Gothic death known as in Britain after 1827?
5ad0fd74645df0001a2d0989
True
1855
600
What year was the High Victorian Gothic period in Africa?
5ad0fd74645df0001a2d098a
True
the Oxford Movement
61
What movement was responsible for the philosophy which led to the end of Anglo Catholic ideas?
5ad0fd74645df0001a2d098b
True
institutional architecture
343
What other style of architecture did influential figures of the 14th century prefer to use Victorian Gothic for?
5ad0fd74645df0001a2d098c
True
In England, partly in response to a philosophy propounded by the Oxford Movement and others associated with the emerging revival of 'high church' or Anglo-Catholic ideas during the second quarter of the 19th century, neo-Gothic began to become promoted by influential establishment figures as the preferred style for ecclesiastical, civic and institutional architecture. The appeal of this Gothic revival (which after 1837, in Britain, is sometimes termed Victorian Gothic), gradually widened to encompass "low church" as well as "high church" clients. This period of more universal appeal, spanning 1855–1885, is known in Britain as High Victorian Gothic.
Who was the exterior architect of the Houses of Parliament?
5726d5d3708984140094d2d3
Sir Charles Barry
38
False
Who was the interior architect of the Houses of Parliament?
5726d5d3708984140094d2d4
Augustus Welby Pugin
120
False
What style of architecture does the Houses of Parliament exemplify?
5726d5d3708984140094d2d5
the Gothic revival style
159
False
Who designed the Albert Memorial in London?
5726d5d3708984140094d2d6
George Gilbert Scott
306
False
Who designed the chapel at Keble College, Oxford?
5726d5d3708984140094d2d7
William Butterfield
375
False
Sir Charles Barry
38
Who was the failed architect of the Houses of Parliament?
5ad0fded645df0001a2d0992
True
Augustus Welby Pugin
120
Who was the cook of the Houses of Parliament?
5ad0fded645df0001a2d0993
True
the Gothic revival style
159
What style of architecture does the Houses of Parliament mock?
5ad0fded645df0001a2d0994
True
George Gilbert Scott
306
Who designed the Albert Memorial in Germany?
5ad0fded645df0001a2d0995
True
William Butterfield
375
Who destroyed the chapel at Keble College, Oxford?
5ad0fded645df0001a2d0996
True
The Houses of Parliament in London by Sir Charles Barry with interiors by a major exponent of the early Gothic Revival, Augustus Welby Pugin, is an example of the Gothic revival style from its earlier period in the second quarter of the 19th century. Examples from the High Victorian Gothic period include George Gilbert Scott's design for the Albert Memorial in London, and William Butterfield's chapel at Keble College, Oxford. From the second half of the 19th century onwards it became more common in Britain for neo-Gothic to be used in the design of non-ecclesiastical and non-governmental buildings types. Gothic details even began to appear in working-class housing schemes subsidised by philanthropy, though given the expense, less frequently than in the design of upper and middle-class housing.
Who was the main figure of the Gothic Revival in France?
5726d73d708984140094d30f
Eugène Viollet-le-Duc
73
False
What famous French cathedral was restored and reconstructed by Viollet-le-Duc?
5726d73d708984140094d310
the Abbey of Saint-Denis
541
False
What modern building material did Viollet-le-Duc teach reform Gothic designers to work with?
5726d73d708984140094d311
cast iron
799
False
In what fortified city in Southern France did Viollet-le-Duc recreate historical Gothic constructions?
5726d73d708984140094d312
Carcassonne
217
False
What other famous French cathedral did Viollet-le-Duc work on?
5726d73d708984140094d313
Notre Dame de Paris
582
False
Eugène Viollet-le-Duc
73
Who was the villain of the Gothic Revival in France?
5ad0fe89645df0001a2d09a4
True
the Abbey of Saint-Denis
541
What famous French cathedral was ruined by Viollet-le-Duc?
5ad0fe89645df0001a2d09a5
True
cast iron
799
What modern building material did Viollet-le-Duc teach reform Gothic designers to avoid?
5ad0fe89645df0001a2d09a6
True
Notre Dame de Paris
582
What other famous American cathedral did Viollet-le-Duc work on?
5ad0fe89645df0001a2d09a7
True
Carcassonne
217
What empty city in Northern France did Viollet-le-Duc recreate historical Gothic constructions?
5ad0fe89645df0001a2d09a8
True
In France, simultaneously, the towering figure of the Gothic Revival was Eugène Viollet-le-Duc, who outdid historical Gothic constructions to create a Gothic as it ought to have been, notably at the fortified city of Carcassonne in the south of France and in some richly fortified keeps for industrial magnates. Viollet-le-Duc compiled and coordinated an Encyclopédie médiévale that was a rich repertory his contemporaries mined for architectural details. He effected vigorous restoration of crumbling detail of French cathedrals, including the Abbey of Saint-Denis and famously at Notre Dame de Paris, where many of whose most "Gothic" gargoyles are Viollet-le-Duc's. He taught a generation of reform-Gothic designers and showed how to apply Gothic style to modern structural materials, especially cast iron.
Cubism
Name the 8 peopl who began the movement
572690fdf1498d1400e8e400
Georges Braque and Pablo Picasso, joined by Jean Metzinger, Albert Gleizes, Robert Delaunay, Henri Le Fauconnier, Fernand Léger and Juan Gris.
30
False
Which person  was the most influential in beginning the movement with is three dimensional forms?
572690fdf1498d1400e8e401
Paul Cézanne
282
False
What year's were Cezannes painting's displayed at Salon d'Automne? Not including the retrospectives.
572690fdf1498d1400e8e402
1905 and 1906
417
False
Cubism
205
What movement did Picasso not participate in?
5acfc70077cf76001a685ed6
True
Cubism
205
What movement did Braque not participate in?
5acfc70077cf76001a685ed7
True
retrospective of Cézanne's paintings had been held at the Salon d'Automne
298
What happened in 1903?
5acfc70077cf76001a685ed8
True
Paul Cézanne
282
Which person was the least influential in beginning the movement with is three dimensional forms?
5acfc70077cf76001a685ed9
True
1905 and 1906
417
What year's were Cezannes painting's not displayed at Salon d'Automne?
5acfc70077cf76001a685eda
True
The movement was pioneered by Georges Braque and Pablo Picasso, joined by Jean Metzinger, Albert Gleizes, Robert Delaunay, Henri Le Fauconnier, Fernand Léger and Juan Gris. A primary influence that led to Cubism was the representation of three-dimensional form in the late works of Paul Cézanne. A retrospective of Cézanne's paintings had been held at the Salon d'Automne of 1904, current works were displayed at the 1905 and 1906 Salon d'Automne, followed by two commemorative retrospectives after his death in 1907.
What were the three offshoots of Cubism formed in France?
572691b6f1498d1400e8e41a
Orphism, Abstract art and later Purism
52
False
What were the other offshoots formed in countries other than France?
572691b6f1498d1400e8e41b
Futurism, Suprematism, Dada, Constructivism and De Stijl
111
False
Which offshoot had little in common with Cubism?
572691b6f1498d1400e8e41c
Futurist
207
False
Which offshoot of cubism was influenced by Picasso?
572691b6f1498d1400e8e41d
Constructivism
443
False
Orphism, Abstract art and later Purism
52
What were the four offshoots of Cubism formed in France?
5acfc72577cf76001a685eea
True
Futurism, Suprematism, Dada, Constructivism and De Stijl
111
What were the other offshoots formed in France?
5acfc72577cf76001a685eeb
True
Futurist
207
Which offshoot had everything in common with Cubism?
5acfc72577cf76001a685eec
True
Constructivism
443
Which offshoot of cubism was not influenced by Picasso?
5acfc72577cf76001a685eed
True
In France, offshoots of Cubism developed, including Orphism, Abstract art and later Purism. In other countries Futurism, Suprematism, Dada, Constructivism and De Stijl developed in response to Cubism. Early Futurist paintings hold in common with Cubism the fusing of the past and the present, the representation of different views of the subject pictured at the same time, also called multiple perspective, simultaneity or multiplicity, while Constructivism was influenced by Picasso's technique of constructing sculpture from separate elements. Other common threads between these disparate movements include the faceting or simplification of geometric forms, and the association of mechanization and modern life.
Between what years did cubism begin?
572692ba708984140094ca9d
1907 and 1911
21
False
In the spring of what year did the first organized exhibition by cubist appear?
572692ba708984140094ca9e
1911
538
False
What was the name of the room that the first exhibition of Cubists took place?
572692ba708984140094ca9f
Salle 41
561
False
Who mentioned the landscapes made by Picasso in the first Cubist paintings?
572692ba708984140094caa0
Gertrude Stein
289
False
In what city did the first exhibition of Cubists take place?
572692ba708984140094caa1
Paris
511
False
Cubism began
0
What happened in 1906?
5acfc76a77cf76001a685f0e
True
Les Demoiselles d'Avignon
66
What painting did Picasso paint in 1908?
5acfc76a77cf76001a685f0f
True
Houses at L’Estaque
161
What painting did Braque paint in 1907?
5acfc76a77cf76001a685f10
True
Salle 41
561
What was the name of the room that the last exhibition of Cubists took place?
5acfc76a77cf76001a685f11
True
Paris
511
In what city did the last exhibition of Cubists take place?
5acfc76a77cf76001a685f12
True
Cubism began between 1907 and 1911. Pablo Picasso's 1907 painting Les Demoiselles d'Avignon has often been considered a proto-Cubist work. Georges Braque's 1908 Houses at L’Estaque (and related works) prompted the critic Louis Vauxcelles to refer to bizarreries cubiques (cubic oddities). Gertrude Stein referred to landscapes made by Picasso in 1909, such as Reservoir at Horta de Ebro, as the first Cubist paintings. The first organized group exhibition by Cubists took place at the Salon des Indépendants in Paris during the spring of 1911 in a room called 'Salle 41'; it included works by Jean Metzinger, Albert Gleizes, Fernand Léger, Robert Delaunay and Henri Le Fauconnier, yet no works by Picasso or Braque were exhibited.
What was the first phase of Cubism known as?
572693d7708984140094cab9
Analytic Cubism
110
False
Who coined the phrase Analytic Cubsim?
572693d7708984140094caba
Juan Gris
146
False
What was the second phase of Cubism called?
572693d7708984140094cabb
Synthetic Cubism
299
False
From what years did High Cubism take place?
572693d7708984140094cabc
1909 to 1914
723
False
From what years did Late Cubism take place?
572693d7708984140094cabd
1914 to 1921
863
False
Analytic Cubism
110
What was the last phase of Cubism known as?
5acfc7b977cf76001a685f24
True
Juan Gris
146
Who coined the term non-analytic cubism?
5acfc7b977cf76001a685f25
True
1906 to 1908
578
From what years did Low Cubism take place?
5acfc7b977cf76001a685f26
True
1914 to 1921
863
From what years did Post Cubism take place?
5acfc7b977cf76001a685f27
True
Historians have divided the history of Cubism into phases. In one scheme, the first phase of Cubism, known as Analytic Cubism, a phrase coined by Juan Gris a posteriori, was both radical and influential as a short but highly significant art movement between 1910 and 1912 in France. A second phase, Synthetic Cubism, remained vital until around 1919, when the Surrealist movement gained popularity. English art historian Douglas Cooper proposed another scheme, describing three phases of Cubism in his book, The Cubist Epoch. According to Cooper there was "Early Cubism", (from 1906 to 1908) when the movement was initially developed in the studios of Picasso and Braque; the second phase being called "High Cubism", (from 1909 to 1914) during which time Juan Gris emerged as an important exponent (after 1911); and finally Cooper referred to "Late Cubism" (from 1914 to 1921) as the last phase of Cubism as a radical avant-garde movement. Douglas Cooper's restrictive use of these terms to distinguish the work of Braque, Picasso, Gris (from 1911) and Léger (to a lesser extent) implied an intentional value judgement.
Who asserted that the flat canvas supported Cubism?
57269560dd62a815002e8a58
Daniel-Henry Kahnweiler
147
False
In what year was the assertion made that the flat canvas supported Cubism?
57269560dd62a815002e8a59
early as 1920
174
False
When was the assertion that the flat canvas supported Cubism put into debate?
57269560dd62a815002e8a5a
1950s and 1960s,
228
False
Who was the main opponent that began to argue that the flat canvas did not support Cubism?
57269560dd62a815002e8a5b
Clement Greenberg.
259
False
Who's work undermined Douglass  Coopers terms describing Cubism?
57269560dd62a815002e8a5c
Picasso, Braque, Gris and Léger
1301
False
Daniel-Henry Kahnweiler
147
Who disagreed that the flat canvas supported Cubism?
5acfc87d77cf76001a685f54
True
early as 1920
174
In what year was the assertion made that the flat canvas did not support Cubism?
5acfc87d77cf76001a685f55
True
1950s and 1960s
228
When was the assertion that the flat canvas did not support Cubism put into debate?
5acfc87d77cf76001a685f56
True
Clement Greenberg
259
Who was the main opponent that began to agree that the flat canvas did not support Cubism?
5acfc87d77cf76001a685f57
True
Picasso, Braque, Gris and Léger
1301
Who's work undermined Douglass Coopers terms in not describing Cubism?
5acfc87d77cf76001a685f58
True
The assertion that the Cubist depiction of space, mass, time, and volume supports (rather than contradicts) the flatness of the canvas was made by Daniel-Henry Kahnweiler as early as 1920, but it was subject to criticism in the 1950s and 1960s, especially by Clement Greenberg. Contemporary views of Cubism are complex, formed to some extent in response to the "Salle 41" Cubists, whose methods were too distinct from those of Picasso and Braque to be considered merely secondary to them. Alternative interpretations of Cubism have therefore developed. Wider views of Cubism include artists who were later associated with the "Salle 41" artists, e.g., Francis Picabia; the brothers Jacques Villon, Raymond Duchamp-Villon and Marcel Duchamp, who beginning in late 1911 formed the core of the Section d'Or (or the Puteaux Group); the sculptors Alexander Archipenko, Joseph Csaky and Ossip Zadkine as well as Jacques Lipchitz and Henri Laurens; and painters such as Louis Marcoussis, Roger de La Fresnaye, František Kupka, Diego Rivera, Léopold Survage, Auguste Herbin, André Lhote, Gino Severini (after 1916), María Blanchard (after 1916) and Georges Valmier (after 1918). More fundamentally, Christopher Green argues that Douglas Cooper's terms were "later undermined by interpretations of the work of Picasso, Braque, Gris and Léger that stress iconographic and ideological questions rather than methods of representation."
Which artists in the early 19th and 20th century inspired by the newly discovered African, Native American, Micro and Polynesian art?
572697afdd62a815002e8a7c
Paul Gauguin, Henri Matisse, and Pablo Picasso
148
False
What about the Native cultures art inspired Matisse, Picasso, and Gauguin?
572697afdd62a815002e8a7d
stark power and simplicity
230
False
Who did Picasso meet around 1906 that had also recenelty learned about Primitivism?
572697afdd62a815002e8a7e
Gertrude Stein,
335
False
What were Picasso's 1907 paintings usually characterized by?
572697afdd62a815002e8a7f
Protocubism
753
False
Paul Gauguin, Henri Matisse, and Pablo Picasso
148
Which artists in the early 21st century inspired by the newly discovered African, Native American, Micro and Polynesian art?
5acfc8c877cf76001a685f74
True
stark power and simplicity
230
What about the Native cultures art did not inspire Matisse, Picasso, and Gauguin?
5acfc8c877cf76001a685f75
True
Gertrude Stein
335
Who did Picasso meet around 1960 that had also recently learned about Primitivism?
5acfc8c877cf76001a685f76
True
Protocubism
753
What were Picasso's 1970 paintings usually characterized by?
5acfc8c877cf76001a685f77
True
During the late 19th and early 20th centuries, Europeans were discovering African, Polynesian, Micronesian and Native American art. Artists such as Paul Gauguin, Henri Matisse, and Pablo Picasso were intrigued and inspired by the stark power and simplicity of styles of those foreign cultures. Around 1906, Picasso met Matisse through Gertrude Stein, at a time when both artists had recently acquired an interest in primitivism, Iberian sculpture, African art and African tribal masks. They became friendly rivals and competed with each other throughout their careers, perhaps leading to Picasso entering a new period in his work by 1907, marked by the influence of Greek, Iberian and African art. Picasso's paintings of 1907 have been characterized as Protocubism, as notably seen in Les Demoiselles d'Avignon, the antecedent of Cubism.
Which two artists did Douglass Cooper say were very important to the forming of Cubism?
5726994b708984140094cb4b
Paul Gauguin and Paul Cézanne
45
False
What does Cooper say is the first  Cubist picture?
5726994b708984140094cb4c
The Demoiselles
233
False
Is it true that the first Cubist picture is The Demoiselles?
5726994b708984140094cb4d
although it was a major first step towards Cubism it is not yet Cubist.
332
False
Paul Gauguin and Paul Cézanne
45
Which two artists did Douglass Cooper say were not important to the forming of Cubism?
5acfc92477cf76001a685f86
True
Demoiselles
237
What does Cooper say is the last Cubist picture?
5acfc92477cf76001a685f87
True
Cubist
396
What style is The Desmoiselles?
5acfc92477cf76001a685f88
True
Cooper
209
Who said The disruptive, expressionist element in it is not at all contrary to the spirit of Cubism"
5acfc92477cf76001a685f89
True
The art historian Douglas Cooper states that Paul Gauguin and Paul Cézanne "were particularly influential to the formation of Cubism and especially important to the paintings of Picasso during 1906 and 1907". Cooper goes on to say: "The Demoiselles is generally referred to as the first Cubist picture. This is an exaggeration, for although it was a major first step towards Cubism it is not yet Cubist. The disruptive, expressionist element in it is even contrary to the spirit of Cubism, which looked at the world in a detached, realistic spirit. Nevertheless, the Demoiselles is the logical picture to take as the starting point for Cubism, because it marks the birth of a new pictorial idiom, because in it Picasso violently overturned established conventions and because all that followed grew out of it."
What did Daniel Robbins say about Demoiselles being the beginning of Cubism?
57269edadd62a815002e8b2c
such deductions are unhistorical
135
False
During which years did the conscious begin to look for a new style in Germany, Italy, Russia, and Holland?
57269edadd62a815002e8b2d
1905 and 1908,
410
False
Which impressionist movements were also influenced by Cubism?
57269edadd62a815002e8b2e
Les Nabis and the Symbolists
601
False
Which technique did the Impressionists use to make their subjects simple forms?
57269edadd62a815002e8b2f
double point of view
570
False
unhistorical
155
What did Daniel Robbins say about Demoiselles being the end of Cubism?
5acfc97f77cf76001a685fa4
True
1905 and 1908
410
During which years did the conscious begin to look for a old style in Germany, Italy, Russia, and Holland?
5acfc97f77cf76001a685fa5
True
Les Nabis and the Symbolists
601
Which impressionist movements were not influenced by Cubism?
5acfc97f77cf76001a685fa6
True
double point of view
570
Which technique did the Impressionists use to not make their subjects simple forms?
5acfc97f77cf76001a685fa7
True
The most serious objection to regarding the Demoiselles as the origin of Cubism, with its evident influence of primitive art, is that "such deductions are unhistorical", wrote the art historian Daniel Robbins. This familiar explanation "fails to give adequate consideration to the complexities of a flourishing art that existed just before and during the period when Picasso's new painting developed." Between 1905 and 1908, a conscious search for a new style caused rapid changes in art across France, Germany, Holland, Italy, and Russia. The Impressionists had used a double point of view, and both Les Nabis and the Symbolists (who also admired Cézanne) flattened the picture plane, reducing their subjects to simple geometric forms. Neo-Impressionist structure and subject matter, most notably to be seen in the works of Georges Seurat (e.g., Parade de Cirque, Le Chahut and Le Cirque), was another important influence. There were also parallels in the development of literature and social thought.
Besides Seurat where else are the beginnigs of Cubism found?
5726a47e5951b619008f78c7
in the two distinct tendencies of Cézanne's later work
59
False
Cubists exploration of the concept of the simplification of forms into cones cylinders and spheres was further explored by whom?
5726a47e5951b619008f78c8
Cézanne
420
False
Cubism revolutionized the way things could be seen in art how?
5726a47e5951b619008f78c9
all the surfaces of depicted objects in a single picture plane, as if the objects had all their faces visible at the same time.
446
False
in the two distinct tendencies of Cézanne's later work
59
Besides Seurat where else are the end of Cubism found?
5acfc9dc77cf76001a685fc4
True
Cézanne's
93
Cubists exploration of the concept of the simplification of forms into cones cylinders and spheres was further not explored by whom?
5acfc9dc77cf76001a685fc5
True
all the surfaces of depicted objects in a single picture plane
446
Cubism revolutionized the way things could not be seen in art how?
5acfc9dc77cf76001a685fc6
True
In addition to Seurat, the roots of cubism are to be found in the two distinct tendencies of Cézanne's later work: first his breaking of the painted surface into small multifaceted areas of paint, thereby emphasizing the plural viewpoint given by binocular vision, and second his interest in the simplification of natural forms into cylinders, spheres, and cones. However, the cubists explored this concept further than Cézanne. They represented all the surfaces of depicted objects in a single picture plane, as if the objects had all their faces visible at the same time. This new kind of depiction revolutionized the way objects could be visualized in painting and art.
When did the historical study of Cubism begin?
5726a4e1f1498d1400e8e5e6
in the late 1920s
37
False
On who's opinions were the beginnings of the this historical study of Cubism based?
5726a4e1f1498d1400e8e5e7
Guillaume Apollinaire
126
False
On which book and who was the author was one of the main sources of the historical study of Cubism based?
5726a4e1f1498d1400e8e5e8
Daniel-Henry Kahnweiler's book Der Weg zum Kubismus
176
False
1920s
49
When did the historical study of Cubism end?
5acfca0f77cf76001a685fd6
True
historical study of Cubism began
4
What happened in the early 1920s?
5acfca0f77cf76001a685fd7
True
Guillaume Apollinaire
126
On whose opinions were the end of the this historical study of Cubism based?
5acfca0f77cf76001a685fd8
True
Daniel-Henry Kahnweiler's
176
On which book and who was the author was one of the main sources of the historical study of non-Cubism based?
5acfca0f77cf76001a685fd9
True
The historical study of Cubism began in the late 1920s, drawing at first from sources of limited data, namely the opinions of Guillaume Apollinaire. It came to rely heavily on Daniel-Henry Kahnweiler's book Der Weg zum Kubismus (published in 1920), which centered on the developments of Picasso, Braque, Léger, and Gris. The terms "analytical" and "synthetic" which subsequently emerged have been widely accepted since the mid-1930s. Both terms are historical impositions that occurred after the facts they identify. Neither phase was designated as such at the time corresponding works were created. "If Kahnweiler considers Cubism as Picasso and Braque," wrote Daniel Robbins, "our only fault is in subjecting other Cubists' works to the rigors of that limited definition."
Understanding who's work was the tradition meaning of Cubism formed on?
5726a6655951b619008f7917
Braque and Picasso
107
False
Who suggested that the artists other than Braque and Picasso's relgation to a distant role in Cubism was a mistake?
5726a6655951b619008f7918
Daniel Robbins
452
False
What other painters were not thought of as being as Cubist as Braque and Picasso?
5726a6655951b619008f7919
Jean Metzinger, Albert Gleizes, Robert Delaunay and Henri Le Fauconnier
238
False
Braque and Picasso
107
Understanding whose work was the tradition meaning of non-Cubism formed on?
5acfca6f77cf76001a685ffc
True
Daniel Robbins
452
Who suggested that the artists other than Braque and Picasso's relgation to a close role in Cubism was a mistake?
5acfca6f77cf76001a685ffd
True
Jean Metzinger, Albert Gleizes, Robert Delaunay and Henri Le Fauconnier
238
What other painters were thought of as being as Cubist as Braque and Picasso?
5acfca6f77cf76001a685ffe
True
Daniel Robbins
452
Who said "o suggest that merely because these artists developed same as the traditional pattern"
5acfca6f77cf76001a685fff
True
The traditional interpretation of "Cubism", formulated post facto as a means of understanding the works of Braque and Picasso, has affected our appreciation of other twentieth-century artists. It is difficult to apply to painters such as Jean Metzinger, Albert Gleizes, Robert Delaunay and Henri Le Fauconnier, whose fundamental differences from traditional Cubism compelled Kahnweiler to question their right to be called Cubists at all. According to Daniel Robbins, "To suggest that merely because these artists developed differently or varied from the traditional pattern they deserved to be relegated to a secondary or satellite role in Cubism is a profound mistake."
What year did the term Cubism become used more?
5726c22c5951b619008f7d6b
1911
54
False
Which poet critic in 1911 with a group of poets accepted the term Cubism?
5726c22c5951b619008f7d6c
Guillaume Apollinaire
155
False
The artists of Passy included which two people?
5726c22c5951b619008f7d6d
Picabia and the Duchamp brothers
971
False
1911
54
What year did the term Cubism become used less?
5acfcabb77cf76001a68600e
True
the poet and critic Guillaume Apollinaire accepted the term on behalf of a group of artists
135
What happened in 1910?
5acfcabb77cf76001a68600f
True
Guillaume Apollinaire
155
Which poet critic in 1911 with a group of poets rejected the term Cubism?
5acfcabb77cf76001a686010
True
Picabia and the Duchamp
971
The artists of Passy included which three people?
5acfcabb77cf76001a686011
True
The term Cubism did not come into general usage until 1911, mainly with reference to Metzinger, Gleizes, Delaunay, and Léger. In 1911, the poet and critic Guillaume Apollinaire accepted the term on behalf of a group of artists invited to exhibit at the Brussels Indépendants. The following year, in preparation for the Salon de la Section d'Or, Metzinger and Gleizes wrote and published Du "Cubisme" in an effort to dispel the confusion raging around the word, and as a major defence of Cubism (which had caused a public scandal following the 1911 Salon des Indépendants and the 1912 Salon d'Automne in Paris). Clarifying their aims as artists, this work was the first theoretical treatise on Cubism and it still remains the clearest and most intelligible. The result, not solely a collaboration between its two authors, reflected discussions by the circle of artists who met in Puteaux and Courbevoie. It mirrored the attitudes of the "artists of Passy", which included Picabia and the Duchamp brothers, to whom sections of it were read prior to publication. The concept developed in Du "Cubisme" of observing a subject from different points in space and time simultaneously, i.e., the act of moving around an object to seize it from several successive angles fused into a single image (multiple viewpoints, mobile perspective, simultaneity or multiplicity), is a generally recognized device used by the Cubists.
Where did Picassos work until 1912?
5726c394f1498d1400e8ea90
Montmartre
470
False
Where did Braque and Gris stay until the end of the World War I?
5726c394f1498d1400e8ea91
Montmartre
470
False
Where was Leger based around 1912?
5726c394f1498d1400e8ea92
Montparnasse
582
False
Montmartre
470
Where did Picassos work until 1911?
5acfcaee77cf76001a686020
True
Montmartre
470
Where did Braque and Gris move to at the end of the World War I?
5acfcaee77cf76001a686021
True
Montparnasse
582
Where was Leger not based around 1912?
5acfcaee77cf76001a686022
True
There was a distinct difference between Kahnweiler’s Cubists and the Salon Cubists. Prior to 1914, Picasso, Braque, Gris and Léger (to a lesser extent) gained the support of a single committed art dealer in Paris, Daniel-Henry Kahnweiler, who guaranteed them an annual income for the exclusive right to buy their works. Kahnweiler sold only to a small circle of connoisseurs. His support gave his artists the freedom to experiment in relative privacy. Picasso worked in Montmartre until 1912, while Braque and Gris remained there until after the First World War. Léger was based in Montparnasse.
Which four people usually met at Fauconnier's studio in 1910?
5726c4aaf1498d1400e8eab4
Metzinger, Gleizes, Delaunay and Léger
317
False
Where was Fauconnier's studio located?
5726c4aaf1498d1400e8eab5
Boulevard de Montparnasse
417
False
What did the group meeting at Fauconnier's studio want to focus on?
5726c4aaf1498d1400e8eab6
research into form, in opposition to the Neo-Impressionist emphasis on color.
596
False
Metzinger, Gleizes, Delaunay and Léger
317
Which five people usually met at Fauconnier's studio in 1910?
5acfcb4c77cf76001a68603a
True
Boulevard de Montparnasse
417
Where was Fauconnier's studio destroyed?
5acfcb4c77cf76001a68603b
True
form
610
What did the group meeting at Fauconnier's studio not want to focus on?
5acfcb4c77cf76001a68603c
True
Metzinger, Gleizes, Delaunay and Léger
317
What group formed in 1911?
5acfcb4c77cf76001a68603d
True
In contrast, the Salon Cubists built their reputation primarily by exhibiting regularly at the Salon d'Automne and the Salon des Indépendants, both major non-academic Salons in Paris. They were inevitably more aware of public response and the need to communicate. Already in 1910 a group began to form which included Metzinger, Gleizes, Delaunay and Léger. They met regularly at Henri le Fauconnier's studio near the Boulevard de Montparnasse. These soirées often included writers such as Guillaume Apollinaire and André Salmon. Together with other young artists, the group wanted to emphasise a research into form, in opposition to the Neo-Impressionist emphasis on color.
In what year did the New York Times review the Salon d'Automne?
5726c6385951b619008f7dc3
October 8, 1911
265
False
What was the subtitle of the article published in 1911 in New York TImes about Cubism?
5726c6385951b619008f7dc4
Eccentric School of Painting Increases Its Vogue in the Current Art Exhibition - What Its Followers Attempt to Do
822
False
List the artists who were featured in the Salon d'Automne?
5726c6385951b619008f7dc5
André Lhote, Marcel Duchamp, Jacques Villon, Roger de La Fresnaye, André Dunoyer de Segonzac and František Kupka
116
False
1911
276
In what year did the New York Times not review the Salon d'Automne?
5acfcb8d77cf76001a686056
True
The exhibition was reviewed
230
What happened October 9 1911?
5acfcb8d77cf76001a686057
True
Eccentric School of Painting Increases Its Vogue in the Current Art Exhibition - What Its Followers Attempt to Do
822
What was the subtitle of the article not published in 1911 in New York TImes about Cubism?
5acfcb8d77cf76001a686058
True
André Dunoyer de Segonzac and František Kupka
183
List the artists who weren't featured in the Salon d'Automne?
5acfcb8d77cf76001a686059
True
At the Salon d'Automne of the same year, in addition to the Indépendants group of Salle 41, were exhibited works by André Lhote, Marcel Duchamp, Jacques Villon, Roger de La Fresnaye, André Dunoyer de Segonzac and František Kupka. The exhibition was reviewed in the October 8, 1911 issue of The New York Times. This article was published a year after Gelett Burgess' The Wild Men of Paris, and two years prior to the Armory Show, which introduced astonished Americans, accustomed to realistic art, to the experimental styles of the European avant garde, including Fauvism, Cubism, and Futurism. The 1911 New York Times article portrayed works by Picasso, Matisse, Derain, Metzinger and others dated before 1909; not exhibited at the 1911 Salon. The article was titled The "Cubists" Dominate Paris' Fall Salon and subtitled Eccentric School of Painting Increases Its Vogue in the Current Art Exhibition - What Its Followers Attempt to Do.
Which Duchamp presentation was displayed in the 1912 Salon des Independants?
5726d222dd62a815002e9152
Nude Descending a Staircase, No. 2
94
False
Was Duchamp's work considered controversial when displayed in 1912?
5726d222dd62a815002e9153
caused a scandal
143
False
What were one of  Metzingers two showings in 1912's Salon des Independants?
5726d222dd62a815002e9154
La Femme au Cheval (Woman with a horse) 1911-1912
627
False
Nude Descending a Staircase, No. 2,
94
Which Duchamp presentation was displayed in the 1913 Salon des Independants?
5acfcc2b77cf76001a686070
True
Nude Descending a Staircase, No. 2,
94
What painting of Duchamp's was not controversial?
5acfcc2b77cf76001a686071
True
La Femme au Cheval
627
What were one of Metzingers two showings in 1913's Salon des Independants?
5acfcc2b77cf76001a686072
True
La Femme au Cheval
627
Where was Woman with a Door displayed?
5acfcc2b77cf76001a686073
True
Musée d'art moderne de la Ville de Paris
749
Where was La Ville de Rome featured?
5acfcc2b77cf76001a686074
True
The subsequent 1912 Salon des Indépendants was marked by the presentation of Marcel Duchamp's Nude Descending a Staircase, No. 2, which itself caused a scandal, even amongst the Cubists. It was in fact rejected by the hanging committee, which included his brothers and other Cubists. Although the work was shown in the Salon de la Section d'Or in October 1912 and the 1913 Armory Show in New York, Duchamp never forgave his brothers and former colleagues for censoring his work. Juan Gris, a new addition to the Salon scene, exhibited his Portrait of Picasso (Art Institute of Chicago), while Metzinger's two showings included La Femme au Cheval (Woman with a horse) 1911-1912 (National Gallery of Denmark). Delaunay's monumental La Ville de Paris (Musée d'art moderne de la Ville de Paris) and Léger's La Noce, The Wedding (Musée National d'Art Moderne, Paris) were also exhibited.
Which politician made the front page of Le Journa in 1912 for his indignation?
5726d7a55951b619008f7fa5
Jean Pierre Philippe Lampué
202
False
Who defended the Cubists in the controversy of 1912?
5726d7a55951b619008f7fa6
Socialist deputy, Marcel Sembat.
484
False
Towards which social topic did the Cubists  at the Salon d'Automne creat contrevesy towards?
5726d7a55951b619008f7fa7
the use of government owned buildings,
78
False
Jean Pierre Philippe Lampué
202
Which politician made the front page of Le Journa in 1913 for his indignation?
5acfcc6e77cf76001a68607a
True
Socialist deputy
484
Who defended the Cubists in the controversy of 1915?
5acfcc6e77cf76001a68607b
True
use of public funds to
396
Towards which social topic did the Cubists at the Salon d'Automne not create controversy towards?
5acfcc6e77cf76001a68607c
True
Salon d'Automne created scandal regarding the use of government owned buildings
36
What happened in 1911?
5acfcc6e77cf76001a68607d
True
The Cubist contribution to the 1912 Salon d'Automne created scandal regarding the use of government owned buildings, such as the Grand Palais, to exhibit such artwork. The indignation of the politician Jean Pierre Philippe Lampué made the front page of Le Journal, 5 October 1912. The controversy spread to the Municipal Council of Paris, leading to a debate in the Chambre des Députés about the use of public funds to provide the venue for such art. The Cubists were defended by the Socialist deputy, Marcel Sembat.
What against did Metzinger and Gleizes write Du "Cubsime"?
5726d8b6dd62a815002e925e
public anger
34
False
Who published Du "Cubisme"?
5726d8b6dd62a815002e925f
Eugène Figuière
119
False
In what year was  Du "Cubisme" published?
5726d8b6dd62a815002e9260
1912
138
False
public anger
34
What did Metzinger and Gleizes write Du "Cubsime" in support of?
5acfccf077cf76001a686096
True
Albert Gleizes
71
Who wrote Du "Squarism"?
5acfccf077cf76001a686097
True
1912
138
In what year was Du "Squarism" published?
5acfccf077cf76001a686098
True
Eugène Figuière
119
Who published Du "Squarism"?
5acfccf077cf76001a686099
True
The National Gallery, Prague
493
Where was Kupka's paintings not displayed?
5acfccf077cf76001a68609a
True
It was against this background of public anger that Jean Metzinger and Albert Gleizes wrote Du "Cubisme" (published by Eugène Figuière in 1912, translated to English and Russian in 1913). Among the works exhibited were Le Fauconnier's vast composition Les Montagnards attaqués par des ours (Mountaineers Attacked by Bears) now at Rhode Island School of Design Museum, Joseph Csaky's Deux Femme, Two Women (a sculpture now lost), in addition to the highly abstract paintings by Kupka, Amorpha (The National Gallery, Prague), and Picabia, La Source, The Spring (Museum of Modern Art, New York).
What were Kupka's two entries at the Salon d'Automne?
5726db225951b619008f801b
Amorpha-Fugue à deux couleurs and Amorpha chromatique chaude
369
False
What were the titles of Delaunay's paintings in 1912?
5726db225951b619008f801c
Simultaneous Windows,
726
False
During what years did  Leger produce Contrasts of Forms?
5726db225951b619008f801d
1913–14
1001
False
Amorpha-Fugue à deux couleurs and Amorpha chromatique chaude
369
What were Kupka's three entries at the Salon d'Automne?
5acfcd5577cf76001a6860b4
True
Simultaneous Windows
726
What were the titles of Delaunay's paintings in 1914?
5acfcd5577cf76001a6860b5
True
1913–14
1001
During what years did Leger not produce Contrasts of Forms?
5acfcd5577cf76001a6860b6
True
Léger
1009
Who produced the series called Non-contrast of Forms?
5acfcd5577cf76001a6860b7
True
The most extreme forms of Cubism were not those practiced by Picasso and Braque, who resisted total abstraction. Other Cubists, by contrast, especially František Kupka, and those considered Orphists by Apollinaire (Delaunay, Léger, Picabia and Duchamp), accepted abstraction by removing visible subject matter entirely. Kupka’s two entries at the 1912 Salon d'Automne, Amorpha-Fugue à deux couleurs and Amorpha chromatique chaude, were highly abstract (or nonrepresentational) and metaphysical in orientation. Both Duchamp in 1912 and Picabia from 1912 to 1914 developed an expressive and allusive abstraction dedicated to complex emotional and sexual themes. Beginning in 1912 Delaunay painted a series of paintings entitled Simultaneous Windows, followed by a series entitled Formes Circulaires, in which he combined planar structures with bright prismatic hues; based on the optical characteristics of juxtaposed colors his departure from reality in the depiction of imagery was quasi-complete. In 1913–14 Léger produced a series entitled Contrasts of Forms, giving a similar stress to color, line and form. His Cubism, despite its abstract qualities, was associated with themes of mechanization and modern life. Apollinaire supported these early developments of abstract Cubism in Les Peintres cubistes (1913), writing of a new "pure" painting in which the subject was vacated. But in spite of his use of the term Orphism these works were so different that they defy attempts to place them in a single category.
By whom was Marcel Duchamp labeled an Orphanist?
5726dcf4f1498d1400e8edb2
Apollinaire
27
False
What two items did Duchamp attach together in 1913?
5726dcf4f1498d1400e8edb3
a bicycle wheel to a kitchen stool
512
False
What object did Duchamp select in 1914 as a scuplture by itself?
5726dcf4f1498d1400e8edb4
bottle-drying rack
570
False
Apollinaire
27
By whom was Marcel Duchamp labeled not an Orphanist?
5acfcdc577cf76001a6860c4
True
bicycle wheel to a kitchen stool
514
What three items did Duchamp attach together in 1913?
5acfcdc577cf76001a6860c5
True
joint consideration
151
What object did Duchamp select in 1912 as a scuplture by itself?
5acfcdc577cf76001a6860c6
True
another extreme development
75
What was Duchamp not responsible for?
5acfcdc577cf76001a6860c7
True
Also labeled an Orphist by Apollinaire, Marcel Duchamp was responsible for another extreme development inspired by Cubism. The ready-made arose from a joint consideration that the work itself is considered an object (just as a painting), and that it uses the material detritus of the world (as collage and papier collé in the Cubist construction and Assemblage). The next logical step, for Duchamp, was to present an ordinary object as a self-sufficient work of art representing only itself. In 1913 he attached a bicycle wheel to a kitchen stool and in 1914 selected a bottle-drying rack as a sculpture in its own right.
How many works displayed at The Salon de la Section d'Or at the Galerie La Boétie in Paris, October 1912?
5726ddde708984140094d417
Over 200
506
False
Over 200
506
How many works displayed at The Salon de la Section d'Or at the Galerie La Boétie in Paris, October 1922?
5acfce2e77cf76001a6860d4
True
The Section d'Or
0
What was also known as Non-Groupe de Puteaux?
5acfce2e77cf76001a6860d5
True
Groupe de Puteaux
32
What's another term for The Section d'voures?
5acfce2e77cf76001a6860d6
True
Cubist retrospective
681
What was developed in 1913?
5acfce2e77cf76001a6860d7
True
The Section d'Or, also known as Groupe de Puteaux, founded by some of the most conspicuous Cubists, was a collective of painters, sculptors and critics associated with Cubism and Orphism, active from 1911 through about 1914, coming to prominence in the wake of their controversial showing at the 1911 Salon des Indépendants. The Salon de la Section d'Or at the Galerie La Boétie in Paris, October 1912, was arguably the most important pre-World War I Cubist exhibition; exposing Cubism to a wide audience. Over 200 works were displayed, and the fact that many of the artists showed artworks representative of their development from 1909 to 1912 gave the exhibition the allure of a Cubist retrospective.
What did the 1912 exhiibtion of Cubism show?
5726de2d5951b619008f80a9
indicates the artists' intention of making their work comprehensible to a wide audience
176
False
intention of making their work comprehensible to a wide audience
199
What did the 1912 exhibtion of Cubism not show?
5acfce8177cf76001a6860e6
True
art critics, art collectors, art dealers and the general public
265
What type of audience did the exhibition not appeal to?
5acfce8177cf76001a6860e7
True
Cubism became recognized as a tendency
388
What came out of the exhibit failing?
5acfce8177cf76001a6860e8
True
Cubism
388
What did not become a genre after the exhibition?
5acfce8177cf76001a6860e9
True
Cubism
388
What wasn't a new avant-garde style?
5acfce8177cf76001a6860ea
True
The fact that the 1912 exhibition had been curated to show the successive stages through which Cubism had transited, and that Du "Cubisme" had been published for the occasion, indicates the artists' intention of making their work comprehensible to a wide audience (art critics, art collectors, art dealers and the general public). Undoubtedly, due to the great success of the exhibition, Cubism became recognized as a tendency, genre or style in art with a specific common philosophy or goal: a new avant-garde movement.
What did Christopher Green say of the difference between traditional cubist and Salon Cubists?
5726df5c5951b619008f80df
It is by no means clear, in any case
229
False
Whom did Braque and Picasso aim their works at?
5726df5c5951b619008f80e0
large public
862
False
It is by no means clear, in any case
229
What did Christopher Green say of the similarities between traditional cubist and Salon Cubists?
5acfcebc77cf76001a686102
True
Christopher Green
274
Who said "It is clear, in any case"?
5acfcebc77cf76001a686103
True
large public
862
Whom did Braque and Picasso not aim their works at?
5acfcebc77cf76001a686104
True
Salons extended beyond the conventional Cézanne-like subjects
672
What happened in 1913?
5acfcebc77cf76001a686105
True
The Cubism of Picasso, Braque and Gris had more than a technical or formal significance, and the distinct attitudes and intentions of the Salon Cubists produced different kinds of Cubism, rather than a derivative of their work. "It is by no means clear, in any case," wrote Christopher Green, "to what extent these other Cubists depended on Picasso and Braque for their development of such techniques as faceting, 'passage' and multiple perspective; they could well have arrived at such practices with little knowledge of 'true' Cubism in its early stages, guided above all by their own understanding of Cézanne." The works exhibited by these Cubists at the 1911 and 1912 Salons extended beyond the conventional Cézanne-like subjects—the posed model, still-life and landscape—favored by Picasso and Braque to include large-scale modern-life subjects. Aimed at a large public, these works stressed the use of multiple perspective and complex planar faceting for expressive effect while preserving the eloquence of subjects endowed with literary and philosophical connotations.
In Du Cubisme who so Metzinger and Gleizes  relate the sense of time to?
5726e1cef1498d1400e8ee8e
Henri Bergson
183
False
The Cubist used what kind of treatment of space and time?
5726e1cef1498d1400e8ee8f
The Salon Cubists
345
False
Henri Bergson
829
In Du Cubisme who so Metzinger and Gleizes not relate the sense of time to?
5acfcf1477cf76001a686114
True
concept of separate spatial and temporal dimensions
867
The Cubist didn't use what kind of treatment of space and time?
5acfcf1477cf76001a686115
True
the notion of ‘duration’ proposed by the philosopher Henri Bergson
130
What was not a symbolic expression?
5acfcf1477cf76001a686116
True
Salon Cubists
636
What type of philosopher was Henri Bergson?
5acfcf1477cf76001a686117
True
In Du "Cubisme" Metzinger and Gleizes explicitly related the sense of time to multiple perspective, giving symbolic expression to the notion of ‘duration’ proposed by the philosopher Henri Bergson according to which life is subjectively experienced as a continuum, with the past flowing into the present and the present merging into the future. The Salon Cubists used the faceted treatment of solid and space and effects of multiple viewpoints to convey a physical and psychological sense of the fluidity of consciousness, blurring the distinctions between past, present and future. One of the major theoretical innovations made by the Salon Cubists, independently of Picasso and Braque, was that of simultaneity, drawing to greater or lesser extent on theories of Henri Poincaré, Ernst Mach, Charles Henry, Maurice Princet, and Henri Bergson. With simultaneity, the concept of separate spatial and temporal dimensions was comprehensively challenged. Linear perspective developed during the Renaissance was vacated. The subject matter was no longer considered from a specific point of view at a moment in time, but built following a selection of successive viewpoints, i.e., as if viewed simultaneously from numerous angles (and in multiple dimensions) with the eye free to roam from one to the other.
What did the technique in Gliezes' piece Le Depiquage represent?
57278fad708984140094e0ed
relative motion)
69
False
Who painted the Wedding, show at Salon des Independants in 1912?
57278fad708984140094e0ee
Léger
453
False
Which of Gliezes pieces was featured at Salon de la Section d'Or?
57278fad708984140094e0ef
Le Dépiquage des Moissons (Harvest Threshing)
150
False
relative motion
69
What did the technique in Gliezes' piece Le Depiquage not represent?
5acfcf7277cf76001a68612e
True
Léger’s
453
Who painted the Wedding, show at Salon des Independants in 1913?
5acfcf7277cf76001a68612f
True
Le Dépiquage des Moissons
150
Which of Gliezes pieces was not featured at Salon de la Section d'Or?
5acfcf7277cf76001a686130
True
Umberto Boccioni, Gino Severini and Carlo Carrà
828
Who did not make a response in early cubism?
5acfcf7277cf76001a686131
True
Salon des Indépendants
492
What did not give form to the notion of simultaneity?
5acfcf7277cf76001a686132
True
This technique of representing simultaneity, multiple viewpoints (or relative motion) is pushed to a high degree of complexity in Gleizes' monumental Le Dépiquage des Moissons (Harvest Threshing), exhibited at the 1912 Salon de la Section d'Or, Le Fauconnier’s Abundance shown at the Indépendants of 1911, and Delaunay's City of Paris, shown at the Indépendants in 1912. These ambitious works are some of the largest paintings in the history of Cubism. Léger’s The Wedding, also shown at the Salon des Indépendants in 1912, gave form to the notion of simultaneity by presenting different motifs as occurring within a single temporal frame, where responses to the past and present interpenetrate with collective force. The conjunction of such subject matter with simultaneity aligns Salon Cubism with early Futurist paintings by Umberto Boccioni, Gino Severini and Carlo Carrà; themselves made in response to early Cubism.
What was the name of the show that introduced Cubism to the USA?
5727a5f04b864d190016395c
Armory Show
95
False
In what city did the show that introduced Cubism to the USA take place?
5727a5f04b864d190016395d
New York City
110
False
Which 1907 piece did Picasso present in the show that introduced Cubism to the USA?
5727a5f04b864d190016395e
Les Arbres
299
False
What 1910 piece did Albert Gleizes present in that show that introduced Cubism to the USA?
5727a5f04b864d190016395f
La Femme aux phlox
655
False
Armory Show
95
What was the name of the show that introduced Cubism to China?
5acfcfaf77cf76001a686142
True
New York City
110
In what city did the show that introduced Cubism to Canada take place?
5acfcfaf77cf76001a686143
True
Chicago
148
Where did the show go after Boston?
5acfcfaf77cf76001a686144
True
Chicago
148
Where did the show go before New York?
5acfcfaf77cf76001a686145
True
Les Arbres
299
Which 1907 piece did Picasso present in the show that introduced Cubism to China?
5acfcfaf77cf76001a686146
True
Cubism and modern European art was introduced into the United States at the now legendary 1913 Armory Show in New York City, which then traveled to Chicago and Boston. In the Armory show Pablo Picasso exhibited La Femme au pot de moutarde (1910), the sculpture Head of a Woman (Fernande) (1909–10), Les Arbres (1907) amongst other cubist works. Jacques Villon exhibited seven important and large drypoints, his brother Marcel Duchamp shocked the American public with his painting Nude Descending a Staircase, No. 2 (1912). Francis Picabia exhibited his abstractions La Danse à la source and La Procession, Seville (both of 1912). Albert Gleizes exhibited La Femme aux phlox (1910) and L'Homme au balcon (1912), two highly stylized and faceted cubist works. Georges Braque, Fernand Léger, Raymond Duchamp-Villon, Roger de La Fresnaye and Alexander Archipenko also contributed examples of their cubist works.
What was the name of the 1909 Cubist sculpture Picassos created?
5727a8483acd2414000de8fd
Head of a Woman
102
False
What Douglas Cooper call Picasso's 1909 Cubist sculpture?
5727a8483acd2414000de8fe
The first true Cubist sculpture
225
False
Which  Alexander Archipenko piece was similar to other Cubist scupltures of that time?
5727a8483acd2414000de8ff
Woman Walking
538
False
Head of a Woman
102
What was the name of the 1907 Cubist sculpture Picassos created?
5acfd0d477cf76001a686172
True
Picasso
85
Who sculpted arm of a woman?
5acfd0d477cf76001a686173
True
1909
80
When was Leg of a Woman sculpted?
5acfd0d477cf76001a686174
True
Woman Walking
538
Which Alexander Archipenko piece was different from other Cubist scupltures of that time?
5acfd0d477cf76001a686175
True
Woman Walking
538
What did Alexander Archipenko paint in 1915?
5acfd0d477cf76001a686176
True
Cubist sculpture developed in parallel to Cubist painting. During the autumn of 1909 Picasso sculpted Head of a Woman (Fernande) with positive features depicted by negative space and vice versa. According to Douglas Cooper: "The first true Cubist sculpture was Picasso's impressive Woman's Head, modeled in 1909–10, a counterpart in three dimensions to many similar analytical and faceted heads in his paintings at the time." These positive/negative reversals were ambitiously exploited by Alexander Archipenko in 1912–13, for example in Woman Walking. Joseph Csaky, after Archipenko, was the first sculptor in Paris to join the Cubists, with whom he exhibited from 1911 onwards. They were followed by Raymond Duchamp-Villon and then in 1914 by Jacques Lipchitz, Henri Laurens and Ossip Zadkine.
What did the critic Maurice Raynal begin to refer to Cubism in around 1917-1920?
5727a9fa4b864d19001639e4
'crystal' Cubism
550
False
Who's concept of duration was left  behind for a for more concrete frame's of references?
5727a9fa4b864d19001639e5
Henri Bergson's
711
False
What was the first time period that a significant change began to happen in Cubism?
5727a9fa4b864d19001639e6
1914 and 1916
45
False
What was the second time period that a significant change began to happen in Cubism?
5727a9fa4b864d19001639e7
between 1917 and 1920
248
False
crystal
551
What did the critic Maurice Raynal stop referring to Cubism in around 1917-1920?
5acfd11077cf76001a686186
True
Henri Bergson's
711
Whose concept of duration was not left behind for a for more concrete frame's of references?
5acfd11077cf76001a686187
True
1914 and 1916
45
What was the first time period that no change began to happen in Cubism?
5acfd11077cf76001a686188
True
1917 and 1920
256
What was the last time period that a significant change did not happen in Cubism?
5acfd11077cf76001a686189
True
A significant modification of Cubism between 1914 and 1916 was signaled by a shift towards a strong emphasis on large overlapping geometric planes and flat surface activity. This grouping of styles of painting and sculpture, especially significant between 1917 and 1920, was practiced by several artists; particularly those under contract with the art dealer and collector Léonce Rosenberg. The tightening of the compositions, the clarity and sense of order reflected in these works, led to its being referred to by the critic Maurice Raynal (fr) as 'crystal' Cubism. Considerations manifested by Cubists prior to the outset of World War I—such as the fourth dimension, dynamism of modern life, the occult, and Henri Bergson's concept of duration—had now been vacated, replaced by a purely formal frame of reference.
Before what year was Cubism considered the most innovative?
5727ac434b864d1900163a0e
1914
48
False
With the assistance of what dealer did Cubism return as  a central consideration for artists after World War I?
5727ac434b864d1900163a0f
Léonce Rosenberg
110
False
In what year did Rosenberg exhibit Cubist works at  Galerie de l’Effort Moderne?
5727ac434b864d1900163a10
1918
870
False
In which city did Galerie de l’Effort Moderne take place?
5727ac434b864d1900163a11
Paris
964
False
1914
48
Before what year was Cubism considered the least innovative?
5acfd14f77cf76001a6861a2
True
Léonce Rosenberg
700
With the assistance of what dealer did Cubism return as a central consideration for artists after World War II?
5acfd14f77cf76001a6861a3
True
Cubism
646
What did not decline in 1925?
5acfd14f77cf76001a6861a4
True
1918
870
In what year did Rosenberg refuse to exhibit Cubist works at Galerie de l’Effort Moderne?
5acfd14f77cf76001a6861a5
True
Paris
964
In which city was Galerie de l’Effort Moderne banned from?
5acfd14f77cf76001a6861a6
True
The most innovative period of Cubism was before 1914. After World War I, with the support given by the dealer Léonce Rosenberg, Cubism returned as a central issue for artists, and continued as such until the mid-1920s when its avant-garde status was rendered questionable by the emergence of geometric abstraction and Surrealism in Paris. Many Cubists, including Picasso, Braque, Gris, Léger, Gleizes, and Metzinger, while developing other styles, returned periodically to Cubism, even well after 1925. Cubism reemerged during the 1920s and the 1930s in the work of the American Stuart Davis and the Englishman Ben Nicholson. In France, however, Cubism experienced a decline beginning in about 1925. Léonce Rosenberg exhibited not only the artists stranded by Kahnweiler’s exile but others including Laurens, Lipchitz, Metzinger, Gleizes, Csaky, Herbin and Severini. In 1918 Rosenberg presented a series of Cubist exhibitions at his Galerie de l’Effort Moderne in Paris. Attempts were made by Louis Vauxcelles to claim that Cubism was dead, but these exhibitions, along with a well-organized Cubist show at the 1920 Salon des Indépendants and a revival of the Salon de la Section d’Or in the same year, demonstrated it was still alive.
Name the three artists who were in part resonsible for the reemergence of Cubism between 1917 and 1924.
5727af0cff5b5019007d927a
Gris, Léger and Gleizes
206
False
Name the three writers who were in part resonsible for the reemergence of Cubism between 1917 and 1924.
5727af0cff5b5019007d927b
Pierre Reverdy, Maurice Raynal and Daniel-Henry Kahnweiler
120
False
In 1918 which way did the French idealogies shift that effected Cubism?
5727af0cff5b5019007d927c
conservatism
654
False
Gris, Léger and Gleizes
206
Name the four artists who were in part resonsible for the reemergence of Cubism between 1917 and 1924.
5acfd19a77cf76001a6861ac
True
conservatism
654
In 1919 which way did the French idealogies shift that effected Cubism?
5acfd19a77cf76001a6861ad
True
Cubism
708
What did not remain evolutionary?
5acfd19a77cf76001a6861ae
True
seen as part of a wide ideological shift towards conservatism
605
What happened to Cubism before 1918?
5acfd19a77cf76001a6861af
True
The reemergence of Cubism coincided with the appearance from about 1917–24 of a coherent body of theoretical writing by Pierre Reverdy, Maurice Raynal and Daniel-Henry Kahnweiler and, among the artists, by Gris, Léger and Gleizes. The occasional return to classicism—figurative work either exclusively or alongside Cubist work—experienced by many artists during this period (called Neoclassicism) has been linked to the tendency to evade the realities of the war and also to the cultural dominance of a classical or Latin image of France during and immediately following the war. Cubism after 1918 can be seen as part of a wide ideological shift towards conservatism in both French society and culture. Yet, Cubism itself remained evolutionary both within the oeuvre of individual artists, such as Gris and Metzinger, and across the work of artists as different from each other as Braque, Léger and Gleizes. Cubism as a publicly debated movement became relatively unified and open to definition. Its theoretical purity made it a gauge against which such diverse tendencies as Realism or Naturalism, Dada, Surrealism and abstraction could be compared.
What two things did Cubism in the early 20th century form an important link between?
5727b2124b864d1900163aa0
art and architecture.
59
False
What are the four formal characteristics that are usually connected with Cubism?
5727b2134b864d1900163aa1
faceting of form, spatial ambiguity, transparency, and multiplicity.
506
False
In which four countries were the impacts of avant garde art particularly strong?
5727b2134b864d1900163aa2
France, Germany, the Netherlands and Czechoslovakia
241
False
art and architecture
59
What four things did Cubism in the early 20th century form an important link between?
5acfd1f277cf76001a6861c8
True
art and architecture
59
What two things did Cubism in the early 19th century form an important link between?
5acfd1f277cf76001a6861c9
True
faceting of form, spatial ambiguity, transparency, and multiplicity
506
What are the four formal characteristics that are never connected with Cubism?
5acfd1f277cf76001a6861ca
True
France, Germany, the Netherlands and Czechoslovakia
241
In which four countries were the impacts of avant garde art particularly weak?
5acfd1f277cf76001a6861cb
True
important
17
What was the reception like in Italy?
5acfd1f277cf76001a6861cc
True
Cubism formed an important link between early-20th-century art and architecture. The historical, theoretical, and socio-political relationships between avant-garde practices in painting, sculpture and architecture had early ramifications in France, Germany, the Netherlands and Czechoslovakia. Though there are many points of intersection between Cubism and architecture, only a few direct links between them can be drawn. Most often the connections are made by reference to shared formal characteristics: faceting of form, spatial ambiguity, transparency, and multiplicity.
In Cubism what was architechtural interested base on?
5727b8e0ff5b5019007d9370
the dissolution and reconstitution of three-dimensional form
45
False
Who said that Cubism was becoming an influetial aspect in modern architecture ?
5727b8e0ff5b5019007d9371
Raymond Duchamp-Villon and André Mare
440
False
Increased use of what material marked Cubism influence in architecture?
5727b8e0ff5b5019007d9372
glass
697
False
dissolution and reconstitution of three-dimensional form
49
In Cubism what was not architechtural interested base on?
5acfd22577cf76001a6861d2
True
Raymond Duchamp-Villon
440
Who said that Cubism was not becoming an influetial aspect in modern architecture ?
5acfd22577cf76001a6861d3
True
glass
697
Increased use of what material marked Cubism non-influence in architecture?
5acfd22577cf76001a6861d4
True
Architectural interest in Cubism centered on the dissolution and reconstitution of three-dimensional form, using simple geometric shapes, juxtaposed without the illusions of classical perspective. Diverse elements could be superimposed, made transparent or penetrate one another, while retaining their spatial relationships. Cubism had become an influential factor in the development of modern architecture from 1912 (La Maison Cubiste, by Raymond Duchamp-Villon and André Mare) onwards, developing in parallel with architects such as Peter Behrens and Walter Gropius, with the simplification of building design, the use of materials appropriate to industrial production, and the increased use of glass.
The ideas of which Cubo Futurist influenced the avant-garde in architecture?
5727baba3acd2414000deac1
Filippo Tommaso Marinetti
258
False
The De Stijl movement took part in the aesthetic principles of what?
5727baba3acd2414000deac2
Neo-plasticism
405
False
Who developed Neo Plasticism?
5727baba3acd2414000deac3
Piet Mondrian
433
False
Who linked De Stijl to Cubist theory?
5727baba3acd2414000deac4
Gino Severini
515
False
Who did Le Corbusier open his Paris studio with in 1922?
5727baba3acd2414000deac5
his cousin Jeanneret
1161
False
Filippo Tommaso Marinetti
258
The ideas of which Cubo Futurist did not influence the avant-garde in architecture?
5acfd2c577cf76001a6861da
True
Albert Gleizes
570
Who wrote squarist theory?
5acfd2c577cf76001a6861db
True
industrial application
665
What was prefigured by Duchamp in 1915?
5acfd2c577cf76001a6861dc
True
1918 and 1922
1051
What years did Le Corbusier not concentrate his efforts?
5acfd2c577cf76001a6861dd
True
Le Corbusier and his cousin Jeanneret opened a studio
1144
What happened in 1912?
5acfd2c577cf76001a6861de
True
Cubism was relevant to an architecture seeking a style that needed not refer to the past. Thus, what had become a revolution in both painting and sculpture was applied as part of "a profound reorientation towards a changed world". The Cubo-Futurist ideas of Filippo Tommaso Marinetti influenced attitudes in avant-garde architecture. The influential De Stijl movement embraced the aesthetic principles of Neo-plasticism developed by Piet Mondrian under the influence of Cubism in Paris. De Stijl was also linked by Gino Severini to Cubist theory through the writings of Albert Gleizes. However, the linking of basic geometric forms with inherent beauty and ease of industrial application—which had been prefigured by Marcel Duchamp from 1914—was left to the founders of Purism, Amédée Ozenfant and Charles-Édouard Jeanneret (better known as Le Corbusier,) who exhibited paintings together in Paris and published Après le cubisme in 1918. Le Corbusier's ambition had been to translate the properties of his own style of Cubism to architecture. Between 1918 and 1922, Le Corbusier concentrated his efforts on Purist theory and painting. In 1922, Le Corbusier and his cousin Jeanneret opened a studio in Paris at 35 rue de Sèvres. His theoretical studies soon advanced into many different architectural projects.
What was La Maison Cubiste ?
5727bba52ca10214002d9506
a fully furnished house
1424
False
Which Metzinger piece was hung in La Maison Cubiste?
5727bba52ca10214002d9507
Woman with a Fan
1572
False
How big was the model of La Maison Cubiste?
5727bba52ca10214002d9508
10-by-3-meter
1849
False
Metzinger
526
What type of boat was La Maison Cubist?
5acfd32d77cf76001a686202
True
Fresnaye
1391
Which Metzinger piece was not hung in La Maison Cubiste?
5acfd32d77cf76001a686203
True
10-by-3-meter
1849
How big was the model of Be Maison Cubiste?
5acfd32d77cf76001a686204
True
At the 1912 Salon d'Automne an architectural installation was exhibited that quickly became known as Maison Cubiste (Cubist House), signed Raymond Duchamp-Villon and André Mare along with a group of collaborators. Metzinger and Gleizes in Du "Cubisme", written during the assemblage of the "Maison Cubiste", wrote about the autonomous nature of art, stressing the point that decorative considerations should not govern the spirit of art. Decorative work, to them, was the "antithesis of the picture". "The true picture" wrote Metzinger and Gleizes, "bears its raison d'être within itself. It can be moved from a church to a drawing-room, from a museum to a study. Essentially independent, necessarily complete, it need not immediately satisfy the mind: on the contrary, it should lead it, little by little, towards the fictitious depths in which the coordinative light resides. It does not harmonize with this or that ensemble; it harmonizes with things in general, with the universe: it is an organism...". "Mare's ensembles were accepted as frames for Cubist works because they allowed paintings and sculptures their independence", writes Christopher Green, "creating a play of contrasts, hence the involvement not only of Gleizes and Metzinger themselves, but of Marie Laurencin, the Duchamp brothers (Raymond Duchamp-Villon designed the facade) and Mare's old friends Léger and Roger La Fresnaye". La Maison Cubiste was a fully furnished house, with a staircase, wrought iron banisters, a living room—the Salon Bourgeois, where paintings by Marcel Duchamp, Metzinger (Woman with a Fan), Gleizes, Laurencin and Léger were hung—and a bedroom. It was an example of L'art décoratif, a home within which Cubist art could be displayed in the comfort and style of modern, bourgeois life. Spectators at the Salon d'Automne passed through the full-scale 10-by-3-meter plaster model of the ground floor of the facade, designed by Duchamp-Villon. This architectural installation was subsequently exhibited at the 1913 Armory Show, New York, Chicago and Boston, listed in the catalogue of the New York exhibit as Raymond Duchamp-Villon, number 609, and entitled "Facade architectural, plaster" (Façade architecturale).
Is original Cubist architecture rare?
5727bc2a4b864d1900163be8
Cubist architecture is very rare
13
False
Which country applied Cubism to architecture the most?
5727bc2a4b864d1900163be9
Bohemia (today Czech Republic
143
False
What was for the form of architectural Cubism in Prague called?
5727bc2a4b864d1900163bea
Rondo-Cubism
510
False
Rondo-Cubism
510
What was for the form of architectural Cubism in France called?
5acfd37b77cf76001a686208
True
Cubist or Cubism-influenced buildings
387
What was built after World War II?
5acfd37b77cf76001a686209
True
Cubist or Cubism-influenced buildings
387
What was built before WWI?
5acfd37b77cf76001a68620a
True
Bohemia
143
Which country did not apply Cubism to architecture the most?
5acfd37b77cf76001a68620b
True
The original Cubist architecture is very rare. There is only one country in the world where Cubism was really applied to architecture – namely Bohemia (today Czech Republic) and especially its capital, Prague. Czech architects were the first and only ones in the world to ever design original Cubist buildings. Cubist architecture flourished for the most part between 1910–1914, but the Cubist or Cubism-influenced buildings were also built after the World War I. After the war, the architectural style called Rondo-Cubism was developed in Prague fusing the Cubist architecture with round shapes.
What was the essential piece Cubist architects explained in their theoretical rules?
5727bda4ff5b5019007d93e6
dynamism
79
False
What's  window shapes di Czech Cubist architects use?
5727bda4ff5b5019007d93e7
hexagonal
826
False
What feelings should Cubist architecture evoke in viewer?
5727bda4ff5b5019007d93e8
dynamism and expressive plasticity
215
False
dynamism
215
What was the essential piece Cubist architects explained in their non-theoretical rules?
5acfd3ab77cf76001a686210
True
hexagonal
826
What's window shapes di Czech Cubist architects not use?
5acfd3ab77cf76001a686211
True
dynamism and expressive
215
What feelings should Cubist architecture not evoke in viewer?
5acfd3ab77cf76001a686212
True
three-dimensional
740
What type of doors were not used?
5acfd3ab77cf76001a686213
True
In their theoretical rules, the Cubist architects expressed the requirement of dynamism, which would surmount the matter and calm contained in it, through a creative idea, so that the result would evoke feelings of dynamism and expressive plasticity in the viewer. This should be achieved by shapes derived from pyramids, cubes and prisms, by arrangements and compositions of oblique surfaces, mainly triangular, sculpted facades in protruding crystal-like units, reminiscent of the so-called diamond cut, or even cavernous that are reminiscent of the late Gothic architecture. In this way, the entire surfaces of the facades including even the gables and dormers are sculpted. The grilles as well as other architectural ornaments attain a three-dimensional form. Thus, new forms of windows and doors were also created, e. g. hexagonal windows. Czech Cubist architects also designed Cubist furniture.
Who were the leading Cubist architects?
5727bdf52ca10214002d953a
Pavel Janák, Josef Gočár, Vlastislav Hofman, Emil Králíček and Josef Chochol
35
False
Where did the leading Cubist architects work?
5727bdf52ca10214002d953b
Prague
135
False
What is the best known Cubist architecture building?
5727bdf52ca10214002d953c
House of the Black Madonna
214
False
Where is the House of the Black Madonna located?
5727bdf52ca10214002d953d
Old Town of Prague
248
False
Who built the House of the Black Madonna?
5727bdf52ca10214002d953e
Vlastislav Hofman
355
False
Pavel Janák, Josef Gočár, Vlastislav Hofman, Emil Králíček and Josef Chochol
35
Who weren't the leading Cubist architects?
5acfd3d577cf76001a686220
True
Prague
260
Where did the leading Cubist architects study?
5acfd3d577cf76001a686221
True
House of the Black Madonna
214
What is the least known Cubist architecture building?
5acfd3d577cf76001a686222
True
Old Town of Prague
248
Where is the House of the White Madonna located?
5acfd3d577cf76001a686223
True
Vlastislav Hofman
355
Who built the House of the White Madonna?
5acfd3d577cf76001a686224
True
The leading Cubist architects were Pavel Janák, Josef Gočár, Vlastislav Hofman, Emil Králíček and Josef Chochol. They worked mostly in Prague but also in other Bohemian towns. The best-known Cubist building is the House of the Black Madonna in the Old Town of Prague built in 1912 by Josef Gočár with the only Cubist café in the world, Grand Café Orient. Vlastislav Hofman built the entrance pavilions of Ďáblice Cemetery in 1912–1914, Josef Chochol designed several residential houses under Vyšehrad. A Cubist streetlamp has also been preserved near the Wenceslas Square, designed by Emil Králíček in 1912, who also built the Diamond House in the New Town of Prague around 1913.
Did cubism influence other fields outside of painting and scuplture?
5727be66ff5b5019007d940c
The influence of cubism extended to other artistic fields,
0
False
Who's written works used repitition that was similar to Cubist art?
5727be66ff5b5019007d940d
Gertrude Stein
127
False
What was Gertrude Stein's brother's name?
5727be66ff5b5019007d940e
Leo
439
False
What was the title of Gertrude Stein's 1906-1908 book?
5727be66ff5b5019007d940f
The Making of Americans
315
False
painting and sculpture
67
What artistic fields did not inspire other cubism work?
5acfd41b77cf76001a68623a
True
The Making of Americans
315
What novel came out in 2008?
5acfd41b77cf76001a68623b
True
Gertrude Stein
408
Who wrote The Making of French?
5acfd41b77cf76001a68623c
True
Gertrude Stein and her brother Leo
408
Who was not influencial on Cubism?
5acfd41b77cf76001a68623d
True
The influence of cubism extended to other artistic fields, outside painting and sculpture. In literature, the written works of Gertrude Stein employ repetition and repetitive phrases as building blocks in both passages and whole chapters. Most of Stein's important works utilize this technique, including the novel The Making of Americans (1906–08). Not only were they the first important patrons of Cubism, Gertrude Stein and her brother Leo were also important influences on Cubism as well. Picasso in turn was an important influence on Stein's writing.
Which poets are closely alligned with Cubism?
5727c01dff5b5019007d943a
Guillaume Apollinaire, Blaise Cendrars, Jean Cocteau, Max Jacob, André Salmon and Pierre Reverdy
47
False
What is the name of the american Poet who is associated with talking about the rigiorous architecture of Cubism?
5727c01dff5b5019007d943b
Kenneth Rexroth
162
False
Which two American poets have recently created new traslations of Reverdy's work?
5727c01dff5b5019007d943c
John Ashbery and Ron Padgett
888
False
What is the name of Wallace Steven's work that explains how cubism can be translated into poetry?
5727c01dff5b5019007d943d
Thirteen Ways of Looking at a Blackbird
994
False
Guillaume Apollinaire, Blaise Cendrars, Jean Cocteau, Max Jacob, André Salmon and Pierre Reverdy
47
Which poets are not aligned with Cubism?
5acfd45977cf76001a68624a
True
Kenneth Rexroth
162
What is the name of the american Poet who is not associated with talking about the rigiorous architecture of Cubism?
5acfd45977cf76001a68624b
True
John Ashbery and Ron Padgett
888
Which three American poets have recently created new traslations of Reverdy's work?
5acfd45977cf76001a68624c
True
Wallace Stevens
976
Who wrote Fifteen ways of Looking at Blackbird?
5acfd45977cf76001a68624d
True
The poets generally associated with Cubism are Guillaume Apollinaire, Blaise Cendrars, Jean Cocteau, Max Jacob, André Salmon and Pierre Reverdy. As American poet Kenneth Rexroth explains, Cubism in poetry "is the conscious, deliberate dissociation and recombination of elements into a new artistic entity made self-sufficient by its rigorous architecture. This is quite different from the free association of the Surrealists and the combination of unconscious utterance and political nihilism of Dada." Nonetheless, the Cubist poets' influence on both Cubism and the later movements of Dada and Surrealism was profound; Louis Aragon, founding member of Surrealism, said that for Breton, Soupault, Éluard and himself, Reverdy was "our immediate elder, the exemplary poet." Though not as well remembered as the Cubist painters, these poets continue to influence and inspire; American poets John Ashbery and Ron Padgett have recently produced new translations of Reverdy's work. Wallace Stevens' "Thirteen Ways of Looking at a Blackbird" is also said to demonstrate how cubism's multiple perspectives can be translated into poetry.
Political_philosophy
What specifically dates back with Confucius in the 6th century BC?
572696dff1498d1400e8e48e
Chinese political philosophy
0
False
Chinese political philosophy dates back to what century?
572696dff1498d1400e8e48f
6th century BC
108
False
Chinese political philosophy was developed as a response to what?
572696dff1498d1400e8e490
the social and political breakdown of the country
184
False
What advocated a communal, decentralized government centered on frugality and ascetism?
572696dff1498d1400e8e491
Mohism
835
False
Chinese political philosophy
0
What dates back to the 6th century AD?
5a1d9ee24ea40d0018b06f7f
True
Chinese political philosophy
124
What was a response to increased social and political awareness in China?
5a1d9ee24ea40d0018b06f80
True
Mohism
378
What advocated a communal, centralized government centered on frugality and accetism?
5a1d9ee24ea40d0018b06f81
True
Confucius
491
Who advocated a government based on empathy, loyalty and personal relationships?
5a1d9ee24ea40d0018b06f82
True
Agrarians
929
Who advocated a peasant uprising and egalitarianism?
5a1d9ee24ea40d0018b06f83
True
the Spring and Autumn Period
43
When did Agrarianism begin?
5a219f688a6e4f001aa08e32
True
Chinese political philosophy
0
What is attributed to Mencius in the 6th Century BC?
5a219f688a6e4f001aa08e33
True
a political aspect
419
What attribute did all of the philosophies share?
5a219f688a6e4f001aa08e34
True
Qin Dynasty
1089
In what Spring and Autumn period was Legalism dominant?
5a219f688a6e4f001aa08e35
True
State Confucianism
1122
In the Qin Dynasty, what replaced Legalism?
5a219f688a6e4f001aa08e36
True
Chinese political philosophy dates back to the Spring and Autumn Period, specifically with Confucius in the 6th century BC. Chinese political philosophy was developed as a response to the social and political breakdown of the country characteristic of the Spring and Autumn Period and the Warring States period. The major philosophies during the period, Confucianism, Legalism, Mohism, Agrarianism and Taoism, each had a political aspect to their philosophical schools. Philosophers such as Confucius, Mencius, and Mozi, focused on political unity and political stability as the basis of their political philosophies. Confucianism advocated a hierarchical, meritocratic government based on empathy, loyalty, and interpersonal relationships. Legalism advocated a highly authoritarian government based on draconian punishments and laws. Mohism advocated a communal, decentralized government centered on frugality and ascetism. The Agrarians advocated a peasant utopian communalism and egalitarianism. Taoism advocated a proto-anarchism. Legalism was the dominant political philosophy of the Qin Dynasty, but was replaced by State Confucianism in the Han Dynasty. Prior to China's adoption of communism, State Confucianism remained the dominant political philosophy of China up to the 20th century.
Western political philosophy originates in what philosophy?
57269755dd62a815002e8a76
ancient Greece
61
False
What philosophy has dates back to at least Plato?
57269755dd62a815002e8a77
philosophy of ancient Greece
47
False
Ancient Greece was dominated by what?
57269755dd62a815002e8a78
city-states
166
False
the philosophy of ancient Greece,
43
What originated with Western  philosophy?
5a1dab724ea40d0018b06f89
True
philosophy of ancient Greece
47
What philosophy dates back to sme time after Plato?
5a1dab724ea40d0018b06f8a
True
Ancient Greece
134
What civilization was dominated by independent towns that experimented with different governments?
5a1dab724ea40d0018b06f8b
True
Cicero
582
What Roman statesman was influenced by Plato?
5a1dab724ea40d0018b06f8c
True
timocracy, tyranny, democracy and oligarchy
283
What 4 catagories did Aristotle divide greek political organizations into?
5a1dab724ea40d0018b06f8d
True
Plato's Republic
409
What is the first important work of political organization?
5a21a1128a6e4f001aa08e3c
True
Aristotle's Nichomachean Ethics and Politics
449
What example of Stoic influence followed Plato's?
5a21a1128a6e4f001aa08e3d
True
city-states
166
What was the western political philosophy dominated by?
5a21a1128a6e4f001aa08e3e
True
into four categories: timocracy, tyranny, democracy and oligarchy
261
How was ancient Greece's government grouped by Cicero?
5a21a1128a6e4f001aa08e3f
True
Roman political philosophy
495
What was influenced by timocracy in Rome?
5a21a1128a6e4f001aa08e40
True
Western political philosophy originates in the philosophy of ancient Greece, where political philosophy dates back to at least Plato. Ancient Greece was dominated by city-states, which experimented with various forms of political organization, grouped by Plato into four categories: timocracy, tyranny, democracy and oligarchy. One of the first, extremely important classical works of political philosophy is Plato's Republic, which was followed by Aristotle's Nichomachean Ethics and Politics. Roman political philosophy was influenced by the Stoics, including the Roman statesman Cicero.
What demarcates a clear distinction between nation and state, as well as religion and state?
572698e3f1498d1400e8e4aa
Indian political philosophy
0
False
What was divided into governance, administration, defense, law and  order?
572698e3f1498d1400e8e4ab
The institutions of state
276
False
What was the governing body of the Hindu states?
572698e3f1498d1400e8e4ac
Mantranga
380
False
Indian political philosophy
0
What political philosophy does not make a clear distinction between nation and state or religion state
5a1dbb1a4ea40d0018b06f93
True
Hindu states
162
What evolved over time and is based on legal treaties and obscure social institutions?
5a1dbb1a4ea40d0018b06f94
True
Hindu states
162
Who state institutions were divided into narrow well-defined entities?
5a1dbb1a4ea40d0018b06f95
True
Mantranga
380
What governing body of the states listed of the Prime Minister and civil servants?
5a1dbb1a4ea40d0018b06f96
True
the King, Prime Minister, Commander in chief of army, Chief Priest of the King.
450
What did political and legal treatisies consist of in Indian government?
5a21a3218a6e4f001aa08e46
True
political and legal treatises and prevalent social institutions
211
What were the constitutions of Maha states based on?
5a21a3218a6e4f001aa08e47
True
broadly divided into governance, administration, defense, law and order
307
How was the committee of ministers divided?
5a21a3218a6e4f001aa08e48
True
Indian political philosophy
0
What prevalant social institution made a clear line between nation and religion?
5a21a3218a6e4f001aa08e49
True
Mantranga
380
What was the governing body of the head of executive?
5a21a3218a6e4f001aa08e4a
True
Indian political philosophy evolved in ancient times and demarcated a clear distinction between (1) nation and state (2) religion and state. The constitutions of Hindu states evolved over time and were based on political and legal treatises and prevalent social institutions. The institutions of state were broadly divided into governance, administration, defense, law and order. Mantranga, the principal governing body of these states, consisted of the King, Prime Minister, Commander in chief of army, Chief Priest of the King. The Prime Minister headed the committee of ministers along with head of executive (Maha Amatya).
Who was the 4th Century BC Indian political philosopher?
572699885951b619008f7789
Chanakya
0
False
What provides an account of the science of politics for a wise ruler?
572699885951b619008f778a
The Arthashastra
55
False
What is an example of a code of law in ancient India?
572699885951b619008f778b
the Manusmṛti or Laws of Manu
630
False
Chanakya
0
Who was the Indian political philosopher in the fourth century A.D.?
5a1dc2134ea40d0018b06f9b
True
Arthashastra
59
What provides an account of the science of economics for a wise ruler?
5a1dc2134ea40d0018b06f9c
True
Bruhaspati, Ushanas, Prachetasa Manu, Parasara
302
"What authorities does Ambi quote?
5a1dc2134ea40d0018b06f9d
True
Chanakya
0
Who is a predecessor of Chanaka?
5a1dc2134ea40d0018b06f9e
True
ancient India
613
Where is Sukra Neeti an example of a code of law?
5a1dc2134ea40d0018b06f9f
True
Chanakya
0
Who was the 4th BC Indian Arthashastra?
5a21a5b98a6e4f001aa08e50
True
policies for foreign affairs and wars, the system of a spy state and surveillance and economic stability of the state
137
What are a few examples the Bruhaspati gives for governance?
5a21a5b98a6e4f001aa08e51
True
Bruhaspati, Ushanas, Prachetasa Manu, Parasara, and Ambi
302
Who are the authorities Ambi quotes?
5a21a5b98a6e4f001aa08e52
True
a descendant of a lineage of political philosophers
385
Who is Prachetasa a descendant of?
5a21a5b98a6e4f001aa08e53
True
Chanaka
454
Who is the father of Ushanas?
5a21a5b98a6e4f001aa08e54
True
Chanakya, 4th Century BC Indian political philosopher. The Arthashastra provides an account of the science of politics for a wise ruler, policies for foreign affairs and wars, the system of a spy state and surveillance and economic stability of the state. Chanakya quotes several authorities including Bruhaspati, Ushanas, Prachetasa Manu, Parasara, and Ambi, and described himself as a descendant of a lineage of political philosophers, with his father Chanaka being his immediate predecessor. Another influential extant Indian treatise on political philosophy is the Sukra Neeti. An example of a code of law in ancient India is the Manusmṛti or Laws of Manu.
Who heavily influenced the early Christian philosophy of Augustine of Hippo?
57269a5f708984140094cb61
Plato
79
False
What was a key change brought about by Christian thought?
57269a5f708984140094cb62
the moderatation of the Stoicism
138
False
Who also preached that one was not a member of his or her city?
57269a5f708984140094cb63
Augustine
293
False
What does Civitas terrena mean?
57269a5f708984140094cb64
City of Man
428
False
What does Civitas Dei mean?
57269a5f708984140094cb65
City of God
395
False
Plato
79
Who influenced the Christian philosophy of Hippo of Augustine?
5a1dea453de3f40018b26422
True
Stoicism
162
What philosophy modernized Christian thought?
5a1dea453de3f40018b26423
True
Civitas Terrena
441
What mean city of mankind?
5a1dea453de3f40018b26424
True
the Christian view could be realized on Earth
583
What Christian belief was challenged by Augustine's city of man?
5a1dea453de3f40018b26425
True
Augustine
293
Who taught that one was a member of their city?
5a1dea453de3f40018b26426
True
Plato
79
Who influenced Terrena's view of the moderation of the Stoicism?
5a21ab358a6e4f001aa08e5a
True
emphasis on the role of the state in applying mercy as a moral example
221
What was one change brought about by Augustine?
5a21ab358a6e4f001aa08e5b
True
a citizen of the City of God (Civitas Dei) or the City of Man (Civitas Terrena).
378
What did Plato mention people were a member of?
5a21ab358a6e4f001aa08e5c
True
that the Christian view could be realized on Earth
578
What does Hippo's view attack regarding what Christians believed?
5a21ab358a6e4f001aa08e5d
True
the moderatation of the Stoicism and theory of justice
138
What is one thing that Plato changed in the Roman world?
5a21ab358a6e4f001aa08e5e
True
The early Christian philosophy of Augustine of Hippo was heavily influenced by Plato. A key change brought about by Christian thought was the moderatation of the Stoicism and theory of justice of the Roman world, as well emphasis on the role of the state in applying mercy as a moral example. Augustine also preached that one was not a member of his or her city, but was either a citizen of the City of God (Civitas Dei) or the City of Man (Civitas Terrena). Augustine's City of God is an influential work of this period that attacked the thesis, held by many Christian Romans, that the Christian view could be realized on Earth.
What strongly altered the power balances and perceptions of origin of power in the Mediterranean region?
57269b7e708984140094cb83
The rise of Islam
0
False
What emphasized an inexorable link between science and religion?
57269b7e708984140094cb84
Early Islamic philosophy
157
False
Who challenged the early Islamic philosophy's views?
57269b7e708984140094cb85
the "rationalist" Mutazilite philosophers
396
False
What type of views did the "rationalist" Mutaziite philosophers hold?
57269b7e708984140094cb86
Hellenic view
455
False
The rise of Islam
0
What help to balance the power in the Mediterranean region?
5a1df8b43de3f40018b2642c
True
Early Islamic philosophy
157
What early philosophy emphasize a separation between science and religion?
5a1df8b43de3f40018b2642d
True
Mutazilite philosophers
414
What philosophers placed revelation above reason?
5a1df8b43de3f40018b2642e
True
Mutazilite philosophers
414
Who were the first theologies of Islam?
5a1df8b43de3f40018b2642f
True
Asharites
811
Who said the Koran must be subordinate to reason?
5a1df8b43de3f40018b26430
True
Early Islamic philosophy
157
What focused on a link between reason and freedom of action?
5a21ae368a6e4f001aa08e64
True
The rise of Islam
0
The rise of what was based on modern scholars views and science?
5a21ae368a6e4f001aa08e65
True
the "rationalist" Mutazilite philosophers
396
What group challenged the Hellenic view of Islam?
5a21ae368a6e4f001aa08e66
True
the Quran and the Sunna
852
What must reason be subordinate to according to Mutazilite philosophers?
5a21ae368a6e4f001aa08e67
True
ijtihad
261
What process did speculative theologians use to find truth?
5a21ae368a6e4f001aa08e68
True
The rise of Islam, based on both the Qur'an and Muhammad strongly altered the power balances and perceptions of origin of power in the Mediterranean region. Early Islamic philosophy emphasized an inexorable link between science and religion, and the process of ijtihad to find truth—in effect all philosophy was "political" as it had real implications for governance. This view was challenged by the "rationalist" Mutazilite philosophers, who held a more Hellenic view, reason above revelation, and as such are known to modern scholars as the first speculative theologians of Islam; they were supported by a secular aristocracy who sought freedom of action independent of the Caliphate. By the late ancient period, however, the "traditionalist" Asharite view of Islam had in general triumphed. According to the Asharites, reason must be subordinate to the Quran and the Sunna.
The clashes between Ehl-i Sunna and Shia had what kind of character?
57269c73708984140094cbb5
political
1112
False
Islamic political philosophy was rooted in what sources?
57269c73708984140094cbb6
Islam
73
False
What is taken as the basis of an analysis?
57269c73708984140094cbb7
The political conceptions of Islam
451
False
Islamic
0
What political philosophy was rooted in theology?
5a1dfd413de3f40018b26436
True
kudrah (power), sultan, ummah, cemaa (obligation)-and even the "core" terms of the Qur'an—i.e., ibadah (worship), din (religion), rab (master) and ilah (deity)
494
What are the religious conceptions of Islam?
5a1dfd413de3f40018b26437
True
Ehl-i Sunna and Shia
1048
What clashed up until the seventh and eighth century?
5a1dfd413de3f40018b26438
True
basis of an analysis
670
What is the religious conception of Islam taken as?
5a1dfd413de3f40018b26439
True
genuine political character
1104
What kind of character did the clashes between Bajjah and Rushd have in the 7th and 8th centuries?
5a21b2758a6e4f001aa08e6e
True
Qur'an and the Sunnah, the words and practices of Muhammad
89
What sources are Avicenna based on?
5a21b2758a6e4f001aa08e6f
True
it was a specific area peculiar merely to the great philosophers of Islam
250
How did the ilah generally suppose Islamic philosophy was rooted?
5a21b2758a6e4f001aa08e70
True
political ideas and theories
799
What did Ehl-i-Sunna and Shia pose regarding Islam?
5a21b2758a6e4f001aa08e71
True
political thought
1005
What do the ideas of general political character give proof of in early Islamic history?
5a21b2758a6e4f001aa08e72
True
Islamic political philosophy, was, indeed, rooted in the very sources of Islam—i.e., the Qur'an and the Sunnah, the words and practices of Muhammad—thus making it essentially theocratic. However, in the Western thought, it is generally supposed that it was a specific area peculiar merely to the great philosophers of Islam: al-Kindi (Alkindus), al-Farabi (Abunaser), İbn Sina (Avicenna), Ibn Bajjah (Avempace), Ibn Rushd (Averroes), and Ibn Khaldun. The political conceptions of Islam such as kudrah (power), sultan, ummah, cemaa (obligation)-and even the "core" terms of the Qur'an—i.e., ibadah (worship), din (religion), rab (master) and ilah (deity)—is taken as the basis of an analysis. Hence, not only the ideas of the Muslim political philosophers but also many other jurists and ulama posed political ideas and theories. For example, the ideas of the Khawarij in the very early years of Islamic history on Khilafa and Ummah, or that of Shia Islam on the concept of Imamah are considered proofs of political thought. The clashes between the Ehl-i Sunna and Shia in the 7th and 8th centuries had a genuine political character.
What was heavily influenced by Christian thinking?
57269d1b5951b619008f77d1
Medieval political philosophy in Europe
0
False
Medieval political philosophy had much in common with what type of thinking?
57269d1b5951b619008f77d2
Mutazalite Islamic thinking
117
False
Who was the most influential political philosopher of medieval Europe?
57269d1b5951b619008f77d3
St. Thomas Aquinas
582
False
Christian thinking
66
What influenced medieval politics?
5a1dfe873de3f40018b2643e
True
philosophy
194
What did Roman Catholics subordinate theology too?
5a1dfe873de3f40018b2643f
True
subordinating philosophy to theology
180
How did Christian thinking differ from Mutazalite Islamic thinking?
5a1dfe873de3f40018b26440
True
The Scholastics
344
Who emphasize the harmony absent in reason and revelation?
5a1dfe873de3f40018b26441
True
St. Thomas Aquinas
582
What medieval philosopher help to write some of Aristotle's works?
5a1dfe873de3f40018b26442
True
Christian thinking
66
What was Mutazalite Islamic thinking influenced by in Europe?
5a21b51c8a6e4f001aa08e78
True
St. Thomas Aquinas
582
Who was the most influential Asharite in medieval Europe?
5a21b51c8a6e4f001aa08e79
True
Aristotle's works
624
What did Averroes help reintroduce in Europe?
5a21b51c8a6e4f001aa08e7a
True
set the agenda, for scholastic political philosophy dominated European thought for centuries even unto the Renaissance
779
What was the effect of Averroes uses of Aristotle's works in Europe?
5a21b51c8a6e4f001aa08e7b
True
St. Thomas Aquinas
582
Who was the most influential political philosopher who made the commentaries of Averroes?
5a21b51c8a6e4f001aa08e7c
True
Medieval political philosophy in Europe was heavily influenced by Christian thinking. It had much in common with the Mutazalite Islamic thinking in that the Roman Catholics though subordinating philosophy to theology did not subject reason to revelation but in the case of contradictions, subordinated reason to faith as the Asharite of Islam. The Scholastics by combining the philosophy of Aristotle with the Christianity of St. Augustine emphasized the potential harmony inherent in reason and revelation. Perhaps the most influential political philosopher of medieval Europe was St. Thomas Aquinas who helped reintroduce Aristotle's works, which had only been transmitted to Catholic Europe through Muslim Spain, along with the commentaries of Averroes. Aquinas's use of them set the agenda, for scholastic political philosophy dominated European thought for centuries even unto the Renaissance.
What was one of the most influential works during the period?
57269e71dd62a815002e8b24
Niccolò Machiavelli's The Prince
68
False
When was Niccolo Machiavelli's The Prince published?
57269e71dd62a815002e8b25
1532
143
False
Who wrote The  Prince?
57269e71dd62a815002e8b26
Niccolò Machiavelli
68
False
Who was well known for his theory of the social contract?
57269e71dd62a815002e8b27
Thomas Hobbes
931
False
Niccolò Machiavelli's The Prince
68
What influential work was written in 1532?
5a1e03953de3f40018b26448
True
The Prince
90
What was published just before Machiavelli died?
5a1e03953de3f40018b26449
True
The Discourses
198
The Prince and what other work influenced medieval political thought?
5a1e03953de3f40018b2644a
True
The Prince
376
What was written to free the Mattice family from exile?
5a1e03953de3f40018b2644b
True
Thomas Hobbes
931
Who is known for their theory of social contract in the 1700s?
5a1e03953de3f40018b2644c
True
The Prince
90
What did Thomas Hobbes write  between 1511-1512?
5a21ba1c8a6e4f001aa08e82
True
1532
143
After what year did Jean-Jacques Rousseau die?
5a21ba1c8a6e4f001aa08e83
True
much to influence modern political thought in the West
263
What did di Medici do for the West?
5a21ba1c8a6e4f001aa08e84
True
the Medici
420
Who expelled Hobbes from Florence?
5a21ba1c8a6e4f001aa08e85
True
the Republic of Florence rather than the oligarchy of the di Medici family
660
What group did Thomas Hobbes support more than the other?
5a21ba1c8a6e4f001aa08e86
True
One of the most influential works during this burgeoning period was Niccolò Machiavelli's The Prince, written between 1511–12 and published in 1532, after Machiavelli's death. That work, as well as The Discourses, a rigorous analysis of the classical period, did much to influence modern political thought in the West. A minority (including Jean-Jacques Rousseau) interpreted The Prince as a satire meant to be given to the Medici after their recapture of Florence and their subsequent expulsion of Machiavelli from Florence. Though the work was written for the di Medici family in order to perhaps influence them to free him from exile, Machiavelli supported the Republic of Florence rather than the oligarchy of the di Medici family. At any rate, Machiavelli presents a pragmatic and somewhat consequentialist view of politics, whereby good and evil are mere means used to bring about an end—i.e., the secure and powerful state. Thomas Hobbes, well known for his theory of the social contract, goes on to expand this view at the start of the 17th century during the English Renaissance. Although neither Machiavelli nor Hobbes believed in the divine right of kings, they both believed in the inherent selfishness of the individual. It was necessarily this belief that led them to adopt a strong central power as the only means of preventing the disintegration of the social order.
What would refer to a set of enduring institutions through which power would be distributed and its use justified?
57269f0fdd62a815002e8b34
state
285
False
What refers to a specific group of people who occupied the institutions of the state?
57269f0fdd62a815002e8b35
government
412
False
Society has been considered subject to natural laws akin to what?
57269f0fdd62a815002e8b36
the physical world
1276
False
by what right or need do people form states; and two, what the best form for a state could be
57
What two questions joined the concepts of state and government?
5a1e07ce3de3f40018b26452
True
state
285
What term referred to a set of temporary institutions through which power could be distributed in its use justified?
5a1e07ce3de3f40018b26453
True
government
412
What term referred to individuals who created laws and ordinances by which other people would be bound?
5a1e07ce3de3f40018b26454
True
distinction between the concepts of "state" and "government."
202
What conceptual distinction continues to operate in science?
5a1e07ce3de3f40018b26455
True
natural laws akin to the physical world
1255
What has been believed society is subject to since the 1700s?
5a1e07ce3de3f40018b26456
True
what the best form for a state could be
111
What is one question government was driven by?
5a21bde98a6e4f001aa08e8c
True
society has been considered subject to natural laws akin to the physical world
1216
What has happened since power was distributed and justified in Europe?
5a21bde98a6e4f001aa08e8d
True
by what right or need do people form states; and two, what the best form for a state could be.
57
What theistic thinking led to a division between state and government?
5a21bde98a6e4f001aa08e8e
True
a conceptual distinction between the concepts of "state" and "government."
189
What society not organized into states continues to operate today?
5a21bde98a6e4f001aa08e8f
True
most political action in any given society occurs outside of its state, and that there are societies that are not organized into states
781
What does the rest of Europe argue about political action?
5a21bde98a6e4f001aa08e90
True
These theorists were driven by two basic questions: one, by what right or need do people form states; and two, what the best form for a state could be. These fundamental questions involved a conceptual distinction between the concepts of "state" and "government." It was decided that "state" would refer to a set of enduring institutions through which power would be distributed and its use justified. The term "government" would refer to a specific group of people who occupied the institutions of the state, and create the laws and ordinances by which the people, themselves included, would be bound. This conceptual distinction continues to operate in political science, although some political scientists, philosophers, historians and cultural anthropologists have argued that most political action in any given society occurs outside of its state, and that there are societies that are not organized into states that nevertheless must be considered in political terms. As long as the concept of natural order was not introduced, the social sciences could not evolve independently of theistic thinking. Since the cultural revolution of the 17th century in England, which spread to France and the rest of Europe, society has been considered subject to natural laws akin to the physical world.
The concept of the guild was subordinated to the theory of what?
5726a0a5dd62a815002e8b60
free trade
141
False
What increasingly challenged the Roman Catholic dominance of theology?
5726a0a5dd62a815002e8b61
Protestant churches
225
False
The enlightenment was an outright attack on what?
5726a0a5dd62a815002e8b62
religion
464
False
Who was the most outspoken critic of the church in France?
5726a0a5dd62a815002e8b63
François Marie Arouet de Voltaire
555
False
free trade
141
The concept of Guild was superior to what theory?
5a1e09db3de3f40018b26466
True
each nation-state
260
The Roman Catholic Church was subordinate to what?
5a1e09db3de3f40018b26467
True
religion
464
The allotment was an evolution of what?
5a1e09db3de3f40018b26468
True
Voltaire
580
Who is the most outspoken supporter of the church in France?
5a1e09db3de3f40018b26469
True
Voltaire
642
After who philosophy was never the same again in France?
5a1e09db3de3f40018b2646a
True
the theory of free trade
127
What concept was the enlightenment subordinated  to?
5a21c0338a6e4f001aa08e96
True
Protestant churches
225
Who challenged Voltaire's dominance of theology?
5a21c0338a6e4f001aa08e97
True
religion, particularly Christianity
464
What were political and economic relations an attack on?
5a21c0338a6e4f001aa08e98
True
François Marie Arouet de Voltaire
555
Who was an outspoken critic of the theory of free trade?
5a21c0338a6e4f001aa08e99
True
religion would never be the same again in France.
652
After the concept of the guild, what happened to religion in France?
5a21c0338a6e4f001aa08e9a
True
Political and economic relations were drastically influenced by these theories as the concept of the guild was subordinated to the theory of free trade, and Roman Catholic dominance of theology was increasingly challenged by Protestant churches subordinate to each nation-state, which also (in a fashion the Roman Catholic Church often decried angrily) preached in the vulgar or native language of each region. However, the enlightenment was an outright attack on religion, particularly Christianity. The most outspoken critic of the church in France was François Marie Arouet de Voltaire, a representative figure of the enlightenment. After Voltaire, religion would never be the same again in France.
In what area did these ideological reforms not take place until much later?
5726a16ff1498d1400e8e55c
Ottoman Empire
7
False
Whose philosophy gave much to Christian thought of the time?
5726a16ff1498d1400e8e55d
The Iroquois philosophy
318
False
Who was a great admirer of some of the methods of the Iroquois Confederacy?
5726a16ff1498d1400e8e55e
Benjamin Franklin
503
False
Ottoman Empire
7
What area did ideological reforms take place much earlier?
5a1e0fb23de3f40018b26484
True
the advanced civilizations of the Aztec, Maya, Inca, Mohican, Delaware, Huron and especially the Iroquois
211
Where in the New World was this doctrine spread?
5a1e0fb23de3f40018b26485
True
Benjamin Franklin
503
Who modeled some of the methods of the Huron?
5a1e0fb23de3f40018b26486
True
American literature
611
Whose literature emphasize the religious philosophy of the natives?
5a1e0fb23de3f40018b26487
True
inspired some of the institutions adopted in the United States
426
What did Aztec civilizations inspire in the US?
5a21c32a8a6e4f001aa08ea0
True
the political philosophy of the natives
642
What did early Mohican literature focus on?
5a21c32a8a6e4f001aa08ea1
True
Benjamin Franklin
503
Who admired the methods of the Incan Confederacy?
5a21c32a8a6e4f001aa08ea2
True
did not integrate into common thought until much later
84
What happened when methods of the Iroquois Confederacy were introduced to the Ottoman Empire?
5a21c32a8a6e4f001aa08ea3
True
The Iroquois philosophy
318
What viewpoint influenced doctrine within the New World at the time?
5a21c32a8a6e4f001aa08ea4
True
In the Ottoman Empire, these ideological reforms did not take place and these views did not integrate into common thought until much later. As well, there was no spread of this doctrine within the New World and the advanced civilizations of the Aztec, Maya, Inca, Mohican, Delaware, Huron and especially the Iroquois. The Iroquois philosophy in particular gave much to Christian thought of the time and in many cases actually inspired some of the institutions adopted in the United States: for example, Benjamin Franklin was a great admirer of some of the methods of the Iroquois Confederacy, and much of early American literature emphasized the political philosophy of the natives.
Who was responsible for the work Two Treatises of Government?
5726a213f1498d1400e8e572
John Locke
0
False
Locke refuted whose political theory?
5726a213f1498d1400e8e573
Sir Robert Filmer
316
False
According to Locke, an absolute ruler is proposed by Hobbes is what?
5726a213f1498d1400e8e574
unnecessary
1094
False
John Locke
0
Who critique the work Two Treaties of Government?
5a1e11aa3de3f40018b2648c
True
political development
207
What did Sir Robert Filmer could be found through contractual obligation?
5a1e11aa3de3f40018b2648d
True
The theory of the divine right of kings
447
Which of John Locke's theories was a passing fancy?
5a1e11aa3de3f40018b2648e
True
that man seeks to be happy in a state of social harmony as a social animal
663
What theory of Machiavelli and Hobbes did lock except?
5a1e11aa3de3f40018b2648f
True
man's mind
837
What did Aquinas believe came into this world is a tabula rasa?
5a1e11aa3de3f40018b26490
True
Two Treatises of Government
84
What work did Sir Rober FIlmer write?
5a21c4ba8a6e4f001aa08eaa
True
The theory of the divine right of kings
447
What theory was ridiculed by Aquinas?
5a21c4ba8a6e4f001aa08eab
True
Aristotle's dictum that man seeks to be happy in a state of social harmony as a social animal
644
What did Locke accept that Machiavelli and Hobbes also believed?
5a21c4ba8a6e4f001aa08eac
True
man's mind comes into this world as tabula rasa
837
What did Sir Robert Filmer believe about man's mind at birth?
5a21c4ba8a6e4f001aa08ead
True
subject to uncertainty tempered by reason, tolerance and moderation
962
What did Hobbes believe about gaining knowledge?
5a21c4ba8a6e4f001aa08eae
True
John Locke in particular exemplified this new age of political theory with his work Two Treatises of Government. In it Locke proposes a state of nature theory that directly complements his conception of how political development occurs and how it can be founded through contractual obligation. Locke stood to refute Sir Robert Filmer's paternally founded political theory in favor of a natural system based on nature in a particular given system. The theory of the divine right of kings became a passing fancy, exposed to the type of ridicule with which John Locke treated it. Unlike Machiavelli and Hobbes but like Aquinas, Locke would accept Aristotle's dictum that man seeks to be happy in a state of social harmony as a social animal. Unlike Aquinas's preponderant view on the salvation of the soul from original sin, Locke believes man's mind comes into this world as tabula rasa. For Locke, knowledge is neither innate, revealed nor based on authority but subject to uncertainty tempered by reason, tolerance and moderation. According to Locke, an absolute ruler as proposed by Hobbes is unnecessary, for natural law is based on reason and seeking peace and survival for man.
Who developed the Marxist critique of capitalism?
5726a284708984140094cc83
Friedrich Engels
52
False
What was one of the defining ideological movements of the Twentieth Century?
5726a284708984140094cc84
The Marxist critique of capitalism
0
False
What produced a parallel revolution in political thought?
5726a284708984140094cc85
The industrial revolution
178
False
Friedrich Engels
52
Who developed liberalism and fascism?
5a1e17363de3f40018b264b4
True
industrial
182
What revolution was parallel but urbanization and capitalism?
5a1e17363de3f40018b264b5
True
socialist movement
340
What movement formed in the mid-1900s?
5a1e17363de3f40018b264b6
True
Karl Marx's
791
Whose theory of revolution is similar to Immanuel Kant's philosophy of history?
5a1e17363de3f40018b264b7
True
socialism and trade unions
1129
Who were established members of the political landscape by the late 1900s?
5a1e17363de3f40018b264b8
True
socialism
426
What political system was supported by capitalism?
5a21c7658a6e4f001aa08eb4
True
Vladimir Lenin, Mao Zedong, Ho Chi Minh, and Fidel Castro
660
What revolutionaries used Mikhail Bakunin's theories in the 20th century?
5a21c7658a6e4f001aa08eb5
True
socialism and trade unions
1129
By the turn of the 20th century what two groups were established politically?
5a21c7658a6e4f001aa08eb6
True
anti-imperialism and pluralism
1413
In the late 19th century what two ideas were becoming prominent in the Anglo-American world?
5a21c7658a6e4f001aa08eb7
True
The Marxist critique of capitalism
0
What was a defining movement of the Twentieth Century against capitalism, created by Vladamir Lenin?
5a21c7658a6e4f001aa08eb8
True
The Marxist critique of capitalism — developed with Friedrich Engels — was, alongside liberalism and fascism, one of the defining ideological movements of the Twentieth Century. The industrial revolution produced a parallel revolution in political thought. Urbanization and capitalism greatly reshaped society. During this same period, the socialist movement began to form. In the mid-19th century, Marxism was developed, and socialism in general gained increasing popular support, mostly from the urban working class. Without breaking entirely from the past, Marx established principles that would be used by future revolutionaries of the 20th century namely Vladimir Lenin, Mao Zedong, Ho Chi Minh, and Fidel Castro. Though Hegel's philosophy of history is similar to Immanuel Kant's, and Karl Marx's theory of revolution towards the common good is partly based on Kant's view of history—Marx declared that he was turning Hegel's dialectic, which was "standing on its head", "the right side up again". Unlike Marx who believed in historical materialism, Hegel believed in the Phenomenology of Spirit. By the late 19th century, socialism and trade unions were established members of the political landscape. In addition, the various branches of anarchism, with thinkers such as Mikhail Bakunin, Pierre-Joseph Proudhon or Peter Kropotkin, and syndicalism also gained some prominence. In the Anglo-American world, anti-imperialism and pluralism began gaining currency at the turn of the 20th century.
What was a watershed event in human history?
5726a3475951b619008f7889
World War I
0
False
When was The Russian Revolution?
5726a3475951b619008f788a
1917
122
False
What brought communism?
5726a3475951b619008f788b
The Russian Revolution of 1917
96
False
What did Ludwig Von Mises and Friedrich Hayek run?
5726a3475951b619008f788c
a group of central European economists
529
False
views of governments and politics
61
What changed because of Leninism?
5a21cc658a6e4f001aa08ecc
True
1917
122
When did universal suffrage I begin?
5a21cc658a6e4f001aa08ecd
True
won elections and formed governments
402
What did social democratic parties do after communism was introduced?
5a21cc658a6e4f001aa08ece
True
a group of central European economists
529
What did European countries lead that identified the inspirations behind new government doctrines?
5a21cc658a6e4f001aa08ecf
True
the collectivist underpinnings to the various new socialist and fascist doctrines of government power
650
What was identified as being different types of Luxemburgism?
5a21cc658a6e4f001aa08ed0
True
World War I was a watershed event in human history, changing views of governments and politics. The Russian Revolution of 1917 (and similar, albeit less successful, revolutions in many other European countries) brought communism - and in particular the political theory of Leninism, but also on a smaller level Luxemburgism (gradually) - on the world stage. At the same time, social democratic parties won elections and formed governments for the first time, often as a result of the introduction of universal suffrage. However, a group of central European economists led by Austrian School economists Ludwig von Mises and Friedrich Hayek identified the collectivist underpinnings to the various new socialist and fascist doctrines of government power as being different brands of political totalitarianism.
Who published A Theory of Justice?
5726a49df1498d1400e8e5d4
John Rawls
46
False
What did John Rawls publish?
5726a49df1498d1400e8e5d5
A Theory of Justice
67
False
What continent saw a huge blossoming of political philosophy?
5726a49df1498d1400e8e5d6
Europe
362
False
The events of May 1968 led to an increased interest in what?
5726a49df1498d1400e8e5d7
revolutionary ideology
680
False
political philosophy
88
From the end of WWII until 1971 what declined in China?
5a21ce268a6e4f001aa08ee8
True
the possibility that normative judgments had cognitive content
208
What was continental Europe skeptical about?
5a21ce268a6e4f001aa08ee9
True
statistical methods and behavioralism
308
What did Marxism turn towards from the end of WWII until 1971?
5a21ce268a6e4f001aa08eea
True
the New Left
718
In the 1950's and 1960's what group was interested in revolutionary ideology?
5a21ce268a6e4f001aa08eeb
True
Karl Popper, Friedrich Hayek, Leo Strauss, Isaiah Berlin, Eric Voegelin and Judith Shklar
816
What immigrants to the US and Britain encouraged studies in Marxism?
5a21ce268a6e4f001aa08eec
True
From the end of World War II until 1971, when John Rawls published A Theory of Justice, political philosophy declined in the Anglo-American academic world, as analytic philosophers expressed skepticism about the possibility that normative judgments had cognitive content, and political science turned toward statistical methods and behavioralism. In continental Europe, on the other hand, the postwar decades saw a huge blossoming of political philosophy, with Marxism dominating the field. This was the time of Jean-Paul Sartre and Louis Althusser, and the victories of Mao Zedong in China and Fidel Castro in Cuba, as well as the events of May 1968 led to increased interest in revolutionary ideology, especially by the New Left. A number of continental European émigrés to Britain and the United States—including Karl Popper, Friedrich Hayek, Leo Strauss, Isaiah Berlin, Eric Voegelin and Judith Shklar—encouraged continued study in political philosophy in the Anglo-American world, but in the 1950s and 1960s they and their students remained at odds with the analytic establishment.
What remained an important focus during the 1950s and 1960s?
5726a550f1498d1400e8e5ec
Communism
0
False
There was a marked trend towards what type of approach to political issues?
5726a550f1498d1400e8e5ed
pragmatic approach
181
False
Who wrote The Racial Contract?
5726a550f1498d1400e8e5ee
Charles W. Mills
829
False
Who wrote The Sexual Contract?
5726a550f1498d1400e8e5ef
Carole Patemen
882
False
Communism
0
What was a political exclusion in the 1950's and 1960's?
5a21d12e8a6e4f001aa08f0c
True
pragmatic approach
181
What was the trend towards dealing with racism?
5a21d12e8a6e4f001aa08f0d
True
feminist, postcolonial, and multicultural thought becoming significant
694
What did utilitarianism lead to in the developed world?
5a21d12e8a6e4f001aa08f0e
True
the social contract excluded persons of colour and women
934
What did the Communism mention about who was excluded in society?
5a21d12e8a6e4f001aa08f0f
True
to apply economic models (such as rational choice theory) to political issues
415
What was one approach to the debate about colonialism?
5a21d12e8a6e4f001aa08f10
True
Communism remained an important focus especially during the 1950s and 1960s. Colonialism and racism were important issues that arose. In general, there was a marked trend towards a pragmatic approach to political issues, rather than a philosophical one. Much academic debate regarded one or both of two pragmatic topics: how (or whether) to apply utilitarianism to problems of political policy, or how (or whether) to apply economic models (such as rational choice theory) to political issues. The rise of feminism, LGBT social movements and the end of colonial rule and of the political exclusion of such minorities as African Americans and sexual minorities in the developed world has led to feminist, postcolonial, and multicultural thought becoming significant. This led to a challenge to the social contract by philosophers Charles W. Mills in his book The Racial Contract and Carole Patemen in her book The Sexual Contract that the social contract excluded persons of colour and women respectively.
What did John Rawsl publish?
5726a5d15951b619008f78f1
A Theory of Justice
81
False
Who Published A Theory of Justice?
5726a5d15951b619008f78f2
John Rawls
68
False
When was A Theory of Justice published?
5726a5d15951b619008f78f3
1971
104
False
Who wrote Anarchy, State, and Utopia?
5726a5d15951b619008f78f4
Robert Nozick
413
False
A Theory of Justice
81
What did Robert Nozick write in 1971?
5a21d2fc8a6e4f001aa08f26
True
Anarchy, State, and Utopia
439
What did John Rawls write in 1974?
5a21d2fc8a6e4f001aa08f27
True
a National Book Award
477
What award did John Rawls's book win?
5a21d2fc8a6e4f001aa08f28
True
a milestone
123
What is Robert Nozick's book considered in American philosophy?
5a21d2fc8a6e4f001aa08f29
True
a libertarian perspective
524
What viewpoint did John Rawls have when responding to Rober Nozick?
5a21d2fc8a6e4f001aa08f2a
True
In Anglo-American academic political philosophy, the publication of John Rawls's A Theory of Justice in 1971 is considered a milestone. Rawls used a thought experiment, the original position, in which representative parties choose principles of justice for the basic structure of society from behind a veil of ignorance. Rawls also offered a criticism of utilitarian approaches to questions of political justice. Robert Nozick's 1974 book Anarchy, State, and Utopia, which won a National Book Award, responded to Rawls from a libertarian perspective and gained academic respectability for libertarian viewpoints.
Herbert Marcuse was from what school?
5726a6ff5951b619008f792f
Frankfurt School,
331
False
Thinkers out of the Frankfurt School combined Marxian and what other perspective?
5726a6ff5951b619008f7930
Freudian
456
False
Who in particular moved a Marxist analysis of commodity fetishism to the realm of consumption?
5726a6ff5951b619008f7931
Guy Debord
864
False
Herbert Marcuse, Theodor W. Adorno, Max Horkheimer, and Jürgen Habermas
363
What thinkers came out of the Foucault School?
5a21d5ee8a6e4f001aa08f48
True
Marxian and Freudian perspectives
444
What points-of-view did Anglo-Americans combine?
5a21d5ee8a6e4f001aa08f49
True
Marxism
578
What were thinkers influenced by when they emphasized consumerism?
5a21d5ee8a6e4f001aa08f4a
True
Guy Debord
864
Who took Marxist commodity fetishism to the realm of cultural emphasis?
5a21d5ee8a6e4f001aa08f4b
True
the rise of analytic ethics in Anglo-American thought
23
What happened in Europe that led to criticism of Hegel between 1950 and 1980?
5a21d5ee8a6e4f001aa08f4c
True
Contemporaneously with the rise of analytic ethics in Anglo-American thought, in Europe several new lines of philosophy directed at critique of existing societies arose between the 1950s and 1980s. Most of these took elements of Marxist economic analysis, but combined them with a more cultural or ideological emphasis. Out of the Frankfurt School, thinkers like Herbert Marcuse, Theodor W. Adorno, Max Horkheimer, and Jürgen Habermas combined Marxian and Freudian perspectives. Along somewhat different lines, a number of other continental thinkers—still largely influenced by Marxism—put new emphases on structuralism and on a "return to Hegel". Within the (post-) structuralist line (though mostly not taking that label) are thinkers such as Gilles Deleuze, Michel Foucault, Claude Lefort, and Jean Baudrillard. The Situationists were more influenced by Hegel; Guy Debord, in particular, moved a Marxist analysis of commodity fetishism to the realm of consumption, and looked at the relation between consumerism and dominant ideology formation.
What is often considered valuable for generating a new set of philosophical problems?
5726a7b4dd62a815002e8c24
The liberal-communitarian debate
145
False
What type of control do communitarians tend to support?
5726a7b4dd62a815002e8c25
greater local control
553
False
What type of economic and social policies do Communitarians tend to support?
5726a7b4dd62a815002e8c26
policies which encourage the growth of social capital
606
False
The liberal-communitarian debate
145
What is valuable for creating greater local control?
5a21d8f78a6e4f001aa08f6e
True
greater local control as well as economic and social policies which encourage the growth of social capital.
553
What does political theory tend to support in communities?
5a21d8f78a6e4f001aa08f6f
True
economic and social policies which encourage the growth of social capital.
586
What type of policies do individuals support?
5a21d8f78a6e4f001aa08f70
True
the (distinct) criticisms of liberal political theory made by Michael Walzer, Michael Sandel and Charles Taylor
32
What did a clash of perspective develop around?
5a21d8f78a6e4f001aa08f71
True
other communitarians (such as Alasdair MacIntyre and Daniel A. Bell)
330
Who argues that individuals should have political focus?
5a21d8f78a6e4f001aa08f72
True
Another debate developed around the (distinct) criticisms of liberal political theory made by Michael Walzer, Michael Sandel and Charles Taylor. The liberal-communitarian debate is often considered valuable for generating a new set of philosophical problems, rather than a profound and illuminating clash of perspective.These and other communitarians (such as Alasdair MacIntyre and Daniel A. Bell) argue that, contra liberalism, communities are prior to individuals and therefore should be the center of political focus. Communitarians tend to support greater local control as well as economic and social policies which encourage the growth of social capital.
When did republicanism and the capability approach arise?
5726a88e5951b619008f794f
the end of the 20th century
60
False
What aims to provide an alternate definition of liberty from Isaiah Berlin's positive and negative forms of liberty?
5726a88e5951b619008f7950
The resurgent republican movement
168
False
Mahbub ul Haq and Amartya Sen pioneered what approach?
5726a88e5951b619008f7951
The capability approach
798
False
toward the end of the 20th century
53
When did the perspectives jurist and non-interference appear?
5a21dc2f8a6e4f001aa08fae
True
may be free
558
To a liberal, what is the state of a political perspective that is not interfered with?
5a21dc2f8a6e4f001aa08faf
True
understands freedom under allied lines: the real-world ability to act
933
What is the approach of republicanism as developed by Mahbub ul Haq and Amartya Sen?
5a21dc2f8a6e4f001aa08fb0
True
something which must be resourced
1067
How do both political perspectives treat arbitrary will?
5a21dc2f8a6e4f001aa08fb1
True
liberty
245
What does the economist movement look to define in a different way?
5a21dc2f8a6e4f001aa08fb2
True
A pair of overlapping political perspectives arising toward the end of the 20th century are republicanism (or neo- or civic-republicanism) and the capability approach. The resurgent republican movement aims to provide an alternate definition of liberty from Isaiah Berlin's positive and negative forms of liberty, namely "liberty as non-domination." Unlike liberals who understand liberty as "non-interference," "non-domination" entails individuals not being subject to the arbitrary will of anyother person. To a liberal, a slave who is not interfered with may be free, yet to a republican the mere status as a slave, regardless of how that slave is treated, is objectionable. Prominent republicans include historian Quentin Skinner, jurist Cass Sunstein, and political philosopher Philip Pettit. The capability approach, pioneered by economists Mahbub ul Haq and Amartya Sen and further developed by legal scholar Martha Nussbaum, understands freedom under allied lines: the real-world ability to act. Both the capability approach and republicanism treat choice as something which must be resourced. In other words, it is not enough to be legally able to do something, but to have the real option of doing it.
Alloy
What is an alloy?
5726971b708984140094cb17
a mixture of metals or a mixture of a metal and another element
12
False
What are alloys defined by?
5726971b708984140094cb18
metallic bonding character
99
False
When are Zintl considered alloys?
5726971b708984140094cb19
depending on bond types
389
False
What is solid solution metal elements classified as?
5726971b708984140094cb1a
a single phase
179
False
An alloy
0
What is always a mixture of metal and other elements?
5a204cd054a786001a36b2f9
True
Alloys
77
What is defined by its atomic bonding character?
5a204cd054a786001a36b2fa
True
solid solution
145
What type of solution has a single phase in two or more solutions?
5a204cd054a786001a36b2fb
True
Zintl phases
339
What type of phases are always considered to be alloys?
5a204cd054a786001a36b2fc
True
An alloy is a mixture of metals or a mixture of a metal and another element. Alloys are defined by metallic bonding character. An alloy may be a solid solution of metal elements (a single phase) or a mixture of metallic phases (two or more solutions). Intermetallic compounds are alloys with a defined stoichiometry and crystal structure. Zintl phases are also sometimes considered alloys depending on bond types (see also: Van Arkel-Ketelaar triangle for information on classifying bonding in binary compounds).
What kind of substance is an alloy?
57269b6b708984140094cb75
impure
86
False
What happens when an alloy is mixed with a molten base?
57269b6b708984140094cb76
they will be soluble, dissolving into the mixture
630
False
What is an alloy composed of?
57269b6b708984140094cb77
two or more elements
363
False
What other metal is impure like alloy?
57269b6b708984140094cb78
wrought iron
211
False
An alloy
0
What is a mixture of impure substances?
5a2052ef54a786001a36b301
True
An alloy
0
What is a pure substance that retains the characteristics of a metal?
5a2052ef54a786001a36b302
True
added impurities
253
What desirable characteristic doesn't alloy and an impure metal have?
5a2052ef54a786001a36b303
True
elements;
375
Mixing any to what produces an alloy
5a2052ef54a786001a36b304
True
wrought iron
211
What other metal is pure like an alloy?
5a2052ef54a786001a36b305
True
An alloy is a mixture of either pure or fairly pure chemical elements, which forms an impure substance (admixture) that retains the characteristics of a metal. An alloy is distinct from an impure metal, such as wrought iron, in that, with an alloy, the added impurities are usually desirable and will typically have some useful benefit. Alloys are made by mixing two or more elements; at least one of which being a metal. This is usually called the primary metal or the base metal, and the name of this metal may also be the name of the alloy. The other constituents may or may not be metals but, when mixed with the molten base, they will be soluble, dissolving into the mixture.
How is steel produced?
57269e385951b619008f77eb
Adding a small amount of non-metallic carbon to iron
400
False
What kind of metal is soft like copper?
57269e385951b619008f77ec
aluminium
209
False
What can be added to steel to enhance is corrosion resistance?
57269e385951b619008f77ed
chromium
689
False
What is superior to pure iron?
57269e385951b619008f77ee
steel
625
False
What is another word for when alloys solidify?
57269e385951b619008f77ef
crystallizes
37
False
steel
478
What is produced by adding metallic carb and iron?
5a20554354a786001a36b30b
True
aluminium
209
What type of metal is hardly copper?
5a20554354a786001a36b30c
True
chromium
689
What makes steel more corrosive?
5a20554354a786001a36b30d
True
alloy
9
The characteristics of what stay the same as it cools?
5a20554354a786001a36b30e
True
alloys
657
What is aluminum alloy the most common of?
5a20554354a786001a36b30f
True
When the alloy cools and solidifies (crystallizes), its mechanical properties will often be quite different from those of its individual constituents. A metal that is normally very soft and malleable, such as aluminium, can be altered by alloying it with another soft metal, like copper. Although both metals are very soft and ductile, the resulting aluminium alloy will be much harder and stronger. Adding a small amount of non-metallic carbon to iron produces an alloy called steel. Due to its very-high strength and toughness (which is much higher than pure iron), and its ability to be greatly altered by heat treatment, steel is one of the most common alloys in modern use. By adding chromium to steel, its resistance to corrosion can be enhanced, creating stainless steel, while adding silicon will alter its electrical characteristics, producing silicon steel.
What causes an alloy to form a solid solution?
5726a1cadd62a815002e8b80
If the metals remain soluble when solid
118
False
What is the purpose of intermetallic phases?
5726a1cadd62a815002e8b81
to reinforce the crystals internally
879
False
What are alloys called when the insoluble elements don't separate until after crystallization occurs?
5726a1cadd62a815002e8b82
intermetallic alloys
590
False
elements
13
What is always soluble as a solid and illiquid?
5a20580354a786001a36b315
True
alloy
163
What are not soluble when solid?
5a20580354a786001a36b316
True
forms a solid solution
169
What happens to an alloy if the medical support insoluble when solid?
5a20580354a786001a36b317
True
intermetallic alloys
590
What are alloys called when the soluble elements separate after crystallization occurs?
5a20580354a786001a36b318
True
intermetallic phases
847
What do the crystals intermetallic alloys support?
5a20580354a786001a36b319
True
Although the elements usually must be soluble in the liquid state, they may not always be soluble in the solid state. If the metals remain soluble when solid, the alloy forms a solid solution, becoming a homogeneous structure consisting of identical crystals, called a phase. If the mixture cools and the constituents become insoluble, they may separate to form two or more different types of crystals, creating a heterogeneous microstructure of different phases. However, in other alloys, the insoluble elements may not separate until after crystallization occurs. These alloys are called intermetallic alloys because, if cooled very quickly, they first crystallize as a homogeneous phase, but they are supersaturated with the secondary constituents. As time passes, the atoms of these supersaturated alloys separate within the crystals, forming intermetallic phases that serve to reinforce the crystals internally.
What is electrum made of?
5726a320708984140094cc93
silver and gold
104
False
What alloy is formed naturally?
5726a320708984140094cc94
electrum
37
False
Which was on of the first alloys made by humans?
5726a320708984140094cc95
bronze
277
False
What metal is made by combining tin and copper?
5726a320708984140094cc96
bronze
277
False
Around what time where alloys starting to get made by humans?
5726a320708984140094cc97
1900s
1306
False
electrum
37
What is a man-made alloy of silver and gold?
5a205e3c54a786001a36b31f
True
iron and nickel,
184
Meteorites contain what alloy native to earth?
5a205e3c54a786001a36b320
True
copper
328
Iron and what metal formed the first alloy made by humans?
5a205e3c54a786001a36b321
True
alloys
1272
What did humans start making in the 1900s?
5a205e3c54a786001a36b322
True
manganese
1065
What adds desired impurities to modern steel?
5a205e3c54a786001a36b323
True
Some alloys occur naturally, such as electrum, which is an alloy that is native to Earth, consisting of silver and gold. Meteorites are sometimes made of naturally occurring alloys of iron and nickel, but are not native to the Earth. One of the first alloys made by humans was bronze, which is made by mixing the metals tin and copper. Bronze was an extremely useful alloy to the ancients, because it is much stronger and harder than either of its components. Steel was another common alloy. However, in ancient times, it could only be created as an accidental byproduct from the heating of iron ore in fires (smelting) during the manufacture of iron. Other ancient alloys include pewter, brass and pig iron. In the modern age, steel can be created in many forms. Carbon steel can be made by varying only the carbon content, producing soft alloys like mild steel or hard alloys like spring steel. Alloy steels can be made by adding other elements, such as molybdenum, vanadium or nickel, resulting in alloys such as high-speed steel or tool steel. Small amounts of manganese are usually alloyed with most modern-steels because of its ability to remove unwanted impurities, like phosphorus, sulfur and oxygen, which can have detrimental effects on the alloy. However, most alloys were not created until the 1900s, such as various aluminium, titanium, nickel, and magnesium alloys. Some modern superalloys, such as incoloy, inconel, and hastelloy, may consist of a multitude of different components.
The matrix and the solvent are other names for what?
5726a4e05951b619008f78cd
The primary metal
99
False
What is another name for solutes?
5726a4e05951b619008f78ce
The secondary constituents
165
False
What is the name of an alloy that has  four constituents?
5726a4e05951b619008f78cf
quaternary alloy
520
False
A five-part alloy is known as?
5726a4e05951b619008f78d0
ternary alloy
468
False
alloy
9
What term describes a mixture of atoms that include at least some metal?
5a20607c54a786001a36b329
True
the base,
127
What is another name for the primary metal or solute in an alloy?
5a20607c54a786001a36b32a
True
constituents
502
An alloy with five what is called a quaternary alloy?
5a20607c54a786001a36b32b
True
ternary
985
What type of alloy contains ten constituents?
5a20607c54a786001a36b32c
True
The term alloy is used to describe a mixture of atoms in which the primary constituent is a metal. The primary metal is called the base, the matrix, or the solvent. The secondary constituents are often called solutes. If there is a mixture of only two types of atoms, not counting impurities, such as a copper-nickel alloy, then it is called a binary alloy. If there are three types of atoms forming the mixture, such as iron, nickel and chromium, then it is called a ternary alloy. An alloy with four constituents is a quaternary alloy, while a five-part alloy is termed a quinary alloy. Because the percentage of each constituent can be varied, with any mixture the entire range of possible variations is called a system. In this respect, all of the various forms of an alloy containing only two constituents, like iron and carbon, is called a binary system, while all of the alloy combinations possible with a ternary alloy, such as alloys of iron, carbon and chromium, is called a ternary system.
What is a characteristic of iron sulfide?
5726a6d05951b619008f7927
very brittle
398
False
What makes pure metals impure metals?
5726a6d05951b619008f7928
unwanted impurities
643
False
What are the three common impurities in aluminum alloys?
5726a6d05951b619008f7929
Lithium, sodium and calcium
446
False
Using fluxes and chemical additives during the alloying process does what?
5726a6d05951b619008f792a
remove excess impurities
943
False
impurities
86
What is the term for desired elements in an alloy?
5a20654854a786001a36b331
True
sulfur
295
What is a rare impurity in steel?
5a20654854a786001a36b332
True
calcium
466
Lithium, sodium and what other elements are common in steel?
5a20654854a786001a36b333
True
additives
992
Chemical what are used during alloying to add impurities?
5a20654854a786001a36b334
True
Oxygen
739
What element from the air does not easily combined with most metals?
5a20654854a786001a36b335
True
Although an alloy is technically an impure metal, when referring to alloys, the term "impurities" usually denotes those elements which are not desired. These impurities are often found in the base metals or the solutes, but they may also be introduced during the alloying process. For instance, sulfur is a common impurity in steel. Sulfur combines readily with iron to form iron sulfide, which is very brittle, creating weak spots in the steel. Lithium, sodium and calcium are common impurities in aluminium alloys, which can have adverse effects on the structural integrity of castings. Conversely, otherwise pure-metals that simply contain unwanted impurities are often called "impure metals" and are not usually referred to as alloys. Oxygen, present in the air, readily combines with most metals to form metal oxides; especially at higher temperatures encountered during alloying. Great care is often taken during the alloying process to remove excess impurities, using fluxes, chemical additives, or other methods of extractive metallurgy.
What is the name of a common alloy?
5726a825f1498d1400e8e65c
Steel
289
False
What is something on a car that sometimes is made of alloy?
5726a825f1498d1400e8e65d
automobile wheels
104
False
Steel and other very practical metals are also named what?
5726a825f1498d1400e8e65e
alloys
281
False
alloy wheels
185
Aluminum alloy is sometimes used as a synonym for what?
5a20671f54a786001a36b33b
True
such a common alloy
298
Why are some items made of iron only referred to by name?
5a20671f54a786001a36b33c
True
The term "alloy" is sometimes used in everyday speech as a synonym for a particular alloy. For example, automobile wheels made of an aluminium alloy are commonly referred to as simply "alloy wheels", although in point of fact steels and most other metals in practical use are also alloys. Steel is such a common alloy that many items made from it, like wheels, barrels, or girders, are simply referred to by the name of the item, assuming it is made of steel. When made from other materials, they are typically specified as such, (i.e.: "bronze wheel," "plastic barrel," or "wood girder").
What can be done to a metal to enhance its properties?
5726a950dd62a815002e8c48
combining it with one or more other metals or non-metals
28
False
Pure metals have a higher electrical and thermal conductivity than what?
5726a950dd62a815002e8c49
alloys
226
False
When copper and tin is mixed, what is made?
5726a950dd62a815002e8c4a
Bronze
1125
False
When was the bronze age?
5726a950dd62a815002e8c4b
prehistoric period
1204
False
Copper and zinc combine to make what?
5726a950dd62a815002e8c4c
Brass
1481
False
Alloying
0
What is done by combining one or more metals and removing nonmetals?
5a20684f54a786001a36b33f
True
alloys
226
What has a higher electrical and thermal conductivity then pure metals?
5a20684f54a786001a36b340
True
Bronze,
1125
What is made by mixing copper and iron?
5a20684f54a786001a36b341
True
copper
1509
What is combined with tin to make brass?
5a20684f54a786001a36b342
True
neighboring atoms
673
Who do smaller atoms exert a compressive force on?
5a20684f54a786001a36b343
True
Alloying a metal is done by combining it with one or more other metals or non-metals that often enhance its properties. For example, steel is stronger than iron, its primary element. The electrical and thermal conductivity of alloys is usually lower than that of the pure metals. The physical properties, such as density, reactivity, Young's modulus of an alloy may not differ greatly from those of its elements, but engineering properties such as tensile strength and shear strength may be substantially different from those of the constituent materials. This is sometimes a result of the sizes of the atoms in the alloy, because larger atoms exert a compressive force on neighboring atoms, and smaller atoms exert a tensile force on their neighbors, helping the alloy resist deformation. Sometimes alloys may exhibit marked differences in behavior even when small amounts of one element are present. For example, impurities in semiconducting ferromagnetic alloys lead to different properties, as first predicted by White, Hogan, Suhl, Tian Abrie and Nakamura. Some alloys are made by melting and mixing two or more metals. Bronze, an alloy of copper and tin, was the first alloy discovered, during the prehistoric period now known as the bronze age; it was harder than pure copper and originally used to make tools and weapons, but was later superseded by metals and alloys with better properties. In later times bronze has been used for ornaments, bells, statues, and bearings. Brass is an alloy made from copper and zinc.
What kind of treatment can be made to alter it's properties?
5726abe25951b619008f79a1
heat treatment
440
False
Softening metals can be achieved by?
5726abe25951b619008f79a2
annealing
493
False
Aluminium, copper, magnesium, titanium, and nickel can be strengthened by?
5726abe25951b619008f79a3
heat treatment
746
False
Annealling softens metals by achieving what?
5726abe25951b619008f79a4
recrystallizes the alloy and repairs the defects
510
False
Alloys
0
what is made to stabalize the properties of base metals?
5a20747a54a786001a36b349
True
crystal structure
220
|Creating defects in what softens a metal?
5a20747a54a786001a36b34a
True
defects in their crystal structure
203
What does recrystalization make permanent?
5a20747a54a786001a36b34b
True
Nearly all metals
456
What does annealing harden?
5a20747a54a786001a36b34c
True
crystal structure
220
What does annealing cause defects in?
5a20747a54a786001a36b34d
True
Alloys are often made to alter the mechanical properties of the base metal, to induce hardness, toughness, ductility, or other desired properties. Most metals and alloys can be work hardened by creating defects in their crystal structure. These defects are created during plastic deformation, such as hammering or bending, and are permanent unless the metal is recrystallized. However, some alloys can also have their properties altered by heat treatment. Nearly all metals can be softened by annealing, which recrystallizes the alloy and repairs the defects, but not as many can be hardened by controlled heating and cooling. Many alloys of aluminium, copper, magnesium, titanium, and nickel can be strengthened to some degree by some method of heat treatment, but few respond to this to the same degree that steel does.
What is the name of steel when it is being formed of two phases?
5726ae06f1498d1400e8e6fc
heterogeneous
795
False
What are the two phases when steel becomes heterogenous?
5726ae06f1498d1400e8e6fd
carbon (carbide) phase cementite, and ferrite
842
False
What are the characteristics of steel if it is cooled to quickly?
5726ae06f1498d1400e8e6fe
very hard and brittle
1322
False
Soft and bendable steel is caused by what?
5726ae06f1498d1400e8e6ff
If the steel is cooled slowly
498
False
Allotrophy happens between what temperatures?
5726ae06f1498d1400e8e700
1,500 °F (820 °C) and 1,600 °F (870 °C)
43
False
the base metal of steel undergoes a change in the arrangement of the atoms in its crystal matrix
114
What changes when steel reaches 870°F?
5a20922d8a6e4f001aa08dc0
True
allotropy
219
What is it called iron crystals enter carbon atoms?
5a20922d8a6e4f001aa08dc1
True
steel
505
What becomes brittle if it's cool too slowly?
5a20922d8a6e4f001aa08dc2
True
bendable
956
Steel that is cool too quickly is soft and what?
5a20922d8a6e4f001aa08dc3
True
in solution
1172
Where's the carbon atom trapped when steel is called slowly?
5a20922d8a6e4f001aa08dc4
True
At a certain temperature, (usually between 1,500 °F (820 °C) and 1,600 °F (870 °C), depending on carbon content), the base metal of steel undergoes a change in the arrangement of the atoms in its crystal matrix, called allotropy. This allows the small carbon atoms to enter the interstices of the iron crystal, diffusing into the iron matrix. When this happens, the carbon atoms are said to be in solution, or mixed with the iron, forming a single, homogeneous, crystalline phase called austenite. If the steel is cooled slowly, the iron will gradually change into its low temperature allotrope. When this happens the carbon atoms will no longer be soluble with the iron, and will be forced to precipitate out of solution, nucleating into the spaces between the crystals. The steel then becomes heterogeneous, being formed of two phases; the carbon (carbide) phase cementite, and ferrite. This type of heat treatment produces steel that is rather soft and bendable. However, if the steel is cooled quickly the carbon atoms will not have time to precipitate. When rapidly cooled, a diffusionless (martensite) transformation occurs, in which the carbon atoms become trapped in solution. This causes the iron crystals to deform intrinsically when the crystal structure tries to change to its low temperature state, making it very hard and brittle.
Precipitation hardening alloys produce the opposite effects of?
5726afd0708984140094cdd1
steel
115
False
Precipitation hardening alloys are sometimes also?
5726afd0708984140094cdd2
heat-treatable alloys
17
False
What makes alloys more softer than normal?
5726afd0708984140094cdd3
When heated to form a solution and then cooled quickly
127
False
steel
115
What do precipitation hardening alloys behave similarly to?
5a2093188a6e4f001aa08dca
True
heat-treatable alloys
17
What alloys become softer when cooled slowly?
5a2093188a6e4f001aa08dcb
True
precipitation hardening alloys
43
What alloys soften with age?
5a2093188a6e4f001aa08dcc
True
intermetallic alloys
618
What type of alloys become soft and brittle?
5a2093188a6e4f001aa08dcd
True
intermetallic phases
362
What are easy to discern from the base metal?
5a2093188a6e4f001aa08dce
True
Conversely, most heat-treatable alloys are precipitation hardening alloys, which produce the opposite effects that steel does. When heated to form a solution and then cooled quickly, these alloys become much softer than normal, during the diffusionless transformation, and then harden as they age. The solutes in these alloys will precipitate over time, forming intermetallic phases, which are difficult to discern from the base metal. Unlike steel, in which the solid solution separates to form different crystal phases, precipitation hardening alloys separate to form different phases within the same crystal. These intermetallic alloys appear homogeneous in crystal structure, but tend to behave heterogeneous, becoming hard and somewhat brittle.
Bronze and brass are examples of what?
5726b169708984140094ce07
substitutional alloys
522
False
Tin or zinc atoms in place of copper atoms create?
5726b169708984140094ce08
substitutional alloys
522
False
What is the name of one interstitial alloy?
5726b169708984140094ce09
Steel
965
False
Stainless steel is an example of what two alloys?
5726b169708984140094ce0a
interstitial and substitutional
1138
False
an alloy
93
What is formed when molten metal is separated from other substances?
5a209dd78a6e4f001aa08dd4
True
substitutional alloy
488
What is it called when the atoms of the other constituent are substituted with metallic crystals?
5a209dd78a6e4f001aa08dd5
True
bronze and brass
552
What is formed by substituting tin or zinc atoms with copper?
5a209dd78a6e4f001aa08dd6
True
interstitial and substitutional allo
1138
What two alloys is still a combination of?
5a209dd78a6e4f001aa08dd7
True
When a molten metal is mixed with another substance, there are two mechanisms that can cause an alloy to form, called atom exchange and the interstitial mechanism. The relative size of each element in the mix plays a primary role in determining which mechanism will occur. When the atoms are relatively similar in size, the atom exchange method usually happens, where some of the atoms composing the metallic crystals are substituted with atoms of the other constituent. This is called a substitutional alloy. Examples of substitutional alloys include bronze and brass, in which some of the copper atoms are substituted with either tin or zinc atoms. With the interstitial mechanism, one atom is usually much smaller than the other, so cannot successfully replace an atom in the crystals of the base metal. The smaller atoms become trapped in the spaces between the atoms in the crystal matrix, called the interstices. This is referred to as an interstitial alloy. Steel is an example of an interstitial alloy, because the very small carbon atoms fit into interstices of the iron matrix. Stainless steel is an example of a combination of interstitial and substitutional alloys, because the carbon atoms fit into the interstices, but some of the iron atoms are replaced with nickel and chromium atoms.
What was one of the first alloys used by humans?
5726b28edd62a815002e8d38
meteoric iron
52
False
What is meteoric iron composed of?
5726b28edd62a815002e8d39
nickel and iron
98
False
What can forged meteoric iron make?
5726b28edd62a815002e8d3a
tools, weapons, and nails
385
False
Where does meteoric iron come from?
5726b28edd62a815002e8d3b
iron meteorites
145
False
How does meteoric iron come to earth?
5726b28edd62a815002e8d3c
occasionally fall down on Earth from outer space
167
False
meteoric iron
52
What was the first man-made alloy used by humans?
5a209f0b8a6e4f001aa08ddc
True
metallurgic processes
223
What was used to separate the iron and nickelin meteoric iron? And
5a209f0b8a6e4f001aa08ddd
True
knives and arrowheads
466
What was formed from meteoric iron using hot hammering?
5a209f0b8a6e4f001aa08dde
True
Meteoric iron
521
What kind of iron was readily available to people?
5a209f0b8a6e4f001aa08ddf
True
The use of alloys by humans started with the use of meteoric iron, a naturally occurring alloy of nickel and iron. It is the main constituent of iron meteorites which occasionally fall down on Earth from outer space. As no metallurgic processes were used to separate iron from nickel, the alloy was used as it was. Meteoric iron could be forged from a red heat to make objects such as tools, weapons, and nails. In many cultures it was shaped by cold hammering into knives and arrowheads. They were often used as anvils. Meteoric iron was very rare and valuable, and difficult for ancient people to work.
Where is the only iron deposit on earth?
5726b450708984140094ce5f
Greenland
85
False
Around what time did bronze start being formed?
5726b450708984140094ce60
2500 BC
522
False
What does copper and zinc form to make?
5726b450708984140094ce61
brass
747
False
Where is tin mostly found?
5726b450708984140094ce62
Great Britain
665
False
Which metal important to the ancients is the hardest one?
5726b450708984140094ce63
Copper
301
False
Iron
0
What is usually found his iron ore in Greenland?
5a20a20a8a6e4f001aa08de4
True
Native
132
What kind of copper is rare on earth?
5a20a20a8a6e4f001aa08de5
True
gold and platinum
196
What was used to make tools in jewelry before Neolithic times?
5a20a20a8a6e4f001aa08de6
True
copper and tin
485
What did humans began alloying around 2500 A.D.?
5a20a20a8a6e4f001aa08de7
True
Tin
620
What was rare in Great Britain?
5a20a20a8a6e4f001aa08de8
True
Iron is usually found as iron ore on Earth, except for one deposit of native iron in Greenland, which was used by the Inuit people. Native copper, however, was found worldwide, along with silver, gold and platinum, which were also used to make tools, jewelry, and other objects since Neolithic times. Copper was the hardest of these metals, and the most widely distributed. It became one of the most important metals to the ancients. Eventually, humans learned to smelt metals such as copper and tin from ore, and, around 2500 BC, began alloying the two metals to form bronze, which is much harder than its ingredients. Tin was rare, however, being found mostly in Great Britain. In the Middle East, people began alloying copper with zinc to form brass. Ancient civilizations took into account the mixture and the various properties it produced, such as hardness, toughness and melting point, under various conditions of temperature and work hardening, developing much of the information contained in modern alloy phase diagrams. Arrowheads from the Chinese Qin dynasty (around 200 BC) were often constructed with a hard bronze-head, but a softer bronze-tang, combining the alloys to prevent both dulling and breaking during use.
What does mercury make most metals do?
5726b5b3f1498d1400e8e860
dissolves
71
False
Since when have Amalgams been used?
5726b5b3f1498d1400e8e861
200 BC
239
False
What did ancient Romans use to gild their armor?
5726b5b3f1498d1400e8e862
mercury-tin amalgams
370
False
Gold and silver were extracted from their ores by using?
5726b5b3f1498d1400e8e863
Mercury
537
False
Mercury
0
What is cinnabar smelted from?
5a20a37a8a6e4f001aa08dee
True
gold, silver, and tin
102
Amalgams melt mercury in what metals?
5a20a37a8a6e4f001aa08def
True
Amalgams
209
What have been used since 200 A.D. in China?
5a20a37a8a6e4f001aa08df0
True
Amalgams
209
What is used to plate objects with common metals?
5a20a37a8a6e4f001aa08df1
True
mercury-tin
370
What did the Chinese use for gilding their armor?
5a20a37a8a6e4f001aa08df2
True
Mercury has been smelted from cinnabar for thousands of years. Mercury dissolves many metals, such as gold, silver, and tin, to form amalgams (an alloy in a soft paste, or liquid form at ambient temperature). Amalgams have been used since 200 BC in China for plating objects with precious metals, called gilding, such as armor and mirrors. The ancient Romans often used mercury-tin amalgams for gilding their armor. The amalgam was applied as a paste and then heated until the mercury vaporized, leaving the gold, silver, or tin behind. Mercury was often used in mining, to extract precious metals like gold and silver from their ores.
Ancient civilizations often alloyed metals for what reason?
5726b83af1498d1400e8e8c4
purely aesthetic purposes
46
False
Red gold is made by combining gold with?
5726b83af1498d1400e8e8c5
copper
131
False
Around what time was the Archimedes' principle discovered?
5726b83af1498d1400e8e8c6
250 BC
633
False
Who shouted "Eureka!" while checking the purity of a crown?
5726b83af1498d1400e8e8c7
Archimedes
641
False
Buyers were often deceived when precious metals were mixed with?
5726b83af1498d1400e8e8c8
less valuable substances
571
False
ancient civilizations
5
Who alloyed metals for utilitarian purposes?
5a20a45c8a6e4f001aa08df8
True
red-gold
149
What is produced when gold is alloyed with tin?
5a20a45c8a6e4f001aa08df9
True
silver
410
Ten is often added to what to make sterling silver?
5a20a45c8a6e4f001aa08dfa
True
dishes, silverware,
477
Softer silver was used for what practical items?
5a20a45c8a6e4f001aa08dfb
True
find a way to check the purity of the gold in a crown
684
What was Archimedes commissioned to do in 250 A.D.?
5a20a45c8a6e4f001aa08dfc
True
Many ancient civilizations alloyed metals for purely aesthetic purposes. In ancient Egypt and Mycenae, gold was often alloyed with copper to produce red-gold, or iron to produce a bright burgundy-gold. Gold was often found alloyed with silver or other metals to produce various types of colored gold. These metals were also used to strengthen each other, for more practical purposes. Copper was often added to silver to make sterling silver, increasing its strength for use in dishes, silverware, and other practical items. Quite often, precious metals were alloyed with less valuable substances as a means to deceive buyers. Around 250 BC, Archimedes was commissioned by the king to find a way to check the purity of the gold in a crown, leading to the famous bath-house shouting of "Eureka!" upon the discovery of Archimedes' principle.
Pewter is mostly made up of?
5726ba315951b619008f7c03
tin
67
False
Why was tin was rarely used for everyday use?
5726ba315951b619008f7c04
too soft
102
False
During the bronze age, which metal was valued higher than gold in Europe and the Mediterranean?
5726ba315951b619008f7c05
tin
177
False
What was done to tin to make it stronger?
5726ba315951b619008f7c06
alloyed with other metals
362
False
What metals were alloyed with tin to make it stronger?
5726ba315951b619008f7c07
lead, antimony, bismuth or copper
455
False
pewter
9
What alloys consist primarily of lead?
5a20a62e8a6e4f001aa08e02
True
practical purpose
130
What was tend to rare to be used for?
5a20a62e8a6e4f001aa08e03
True
Europe and the Mediterranean
220
Where was gold the highest valued metal during the Bronze Age?
5a20a62e8a6e4f001aa08e04
True
dishes, surgical tools, candlesticks or funnels, to decorative items such as ear rings and hair clips.
645
What practical items were made from tin without solutes
5a20a62e8a6e4f001aa08e05
True
The term pewter covers a variety of alloys consisting primarily of tin. As a pure metal, tin was much too soft to be used for any practical purpose. However, in the Bronze age, tin was a rare metal and, in many parts of Europe and the Mediterranean, was often valued higher than gold. To make jewelry, forks and spoons, or other objects from tin, it was usually alloyed with other metals to increase its strength and hardness. These metals were typically lead, antimony, bismuth or copper. These solutes sometimes were added individually in varying amounts, or added together, making a wide variety of things, ranging from practical items, like dishes, surgical tools, candlesticks or funnels, to decorative items such as ear rings and hair clips.
Where did smelting of iron begin?
5726bb69dd62a815002e8e92
Anatolia
42
False
When did the smelting of iron first begin?
5726bb69dd62a815002e8e93
around 1800 BC
52
False
When did iron making technology begin in Japan?
5726bb69dd62a815002e8e94
around 700 AD
219
False
Pig iron is composed of iron and what else?
5726bb69dd62a815002e8e95
carbon
286
False
What makes Pig iron different from regular iron?
5726bb69dd62a815002e8e96
lower melting point
410
False
Anatolia,
42
Where was bronze first smelted
5a20a6e18a6e4f001aa08e0a
True
bloomery process
79
What smelting process was developed in 800 A.D.?
5a20a6e18a6e4f001aa08e0b
True
iron-making technology
156
What technology arrived in Europe in 1800 BC
5a20a6e18a6e4f001aa08e0c
True
Japan
213
Where did iron technology arrived in 700 BC?
5a20a6e18a6e4f001aa08e0d
True
Pig iron
234
What was being produced in China in 1200 A.D.?
5a20a6e18a6e4f001aa08e0e
True
The first known smelting of iron began in Anatolia, around 1800 BC. Called the bloomery process, it produced very soft but ductile wrought iron. By 800 BC, iron-making technology had spread to Europe, arriving in Japan around 700 AD. Pig iron, a very hard but brittle alloy of iron and carbon, was being produced in China as early as 1200 BC, but did not arrive in Europe until the Middle Ages. Pig iron has a lower melting point than iron, and was used for making cast-iron. However, these metals found little practical use until the introduction of crucible steel around 300 BC. These steels were of poor quality, and the introduction of pattern welding, around the 1st century AD, sought to balance the extreme properties of the alloys by laminating them, to create a tougher metal. Around 700 AD, the Japanese began folding bloomery-steel and cast-iron in alternating layers to increase the strength of their swords, using clay fluxes to remove slag and impurities. This method of Japanese swordsmithing produced one of the purest steel-alloys of the early Middle Ages.
Heat treatment of steel has been know since what time?
5726bc73dd62a815002e8ec4
1100 BC
381
False
When did iron start to become melted by people?
5726bc73dd62a815002e8ec5
Middle Ages
659
False
Who created the first process for the mass production of tool steel?
5726bc73dd62a815002e8ec6
Benjamin Huntsman
856
False
When did Benjamin Huntsman begin to melt blister steel in a crucible
5726bc73dd62a815002e8ec7
1740
850
False
iron
17
What became more widespread in 1280 BC?
5a20a8b08a6e4f001aa08e14
True
steel
336
The softness of what could be modified in 1100 BC?
5a20a8b08a6e4f001aa08e15
True
steel
202
What common material was valued for the manufacturing of tools and weapons?
5a20a8b08a6e4f001aa08e16
True
steel
642
What was produced in decent quantities starting in 1100 BC?
5a20a8b08a6e4f001aa08e17
True
Huntsman's
1014
What process was used for manufacturing tool steel until the nineteenth century?
5a20a8b08a6e4f001aa08e18
True
While the use of iron started to become more widespread around 1200 BC, mainly because of interruptions in the trade routes for tin, the metal is much softer than bronze. However, very small amounts of steel, (an alloy of iron and around 1% carbon), was always a byproduct of the bloomery process. The ability to modify the hardness of steel by heat treatment had been known since 1100 BC, and the rare material was valued for the manufacture of tools and weapons. Because the ancients could not produce temperatures high enough to melt iron fully, the production of steel in decent quantities did not occur until the introduction of blister steel during the Middle Ages. This method introduced carbon by heating wrought iron in charcoal for long periods of time, but the penetration of carbon was not very deep, so the alloy was not homogeneous. In 1740, Benjamin Huntsman began melting blister steel in a crucible to even out the carbon content, creating the first process for the mass production of tool steel. Huntsman's process was used for manufacturing tool steel until the early 1900s.
What did the blast furnace help do to pig iron in the middle ages?
5726bde15951b619008f7cc5
produced in much higher volumes than wrought iron
97
False
By reducing carbon in liquid pig iron, what was created?
5726bde15951b619008f7cc6
steel
272
False
When did puddling start occurring?
5726bde15951b619008f7cc7
1700s
314
False
When was the Bessemer process developed?
5726bde15951b619008f7cc8
1858
419
False
Steel and manganese combines form to make what?
5726bde15951b619008f7cc9
Mangalloy
733
False
the blast furnace
25
What allowed wrought iron to be produced in larger quantities than pig iron during the Middle Ages?
5a20a98f8a6e4f001aa08e1e
True
steel
272
What was created by reducing carbon in liquid wrought iron?
5a20a98f8a6e4f001aa08e1f
True
Puddling
279
What was introduced during the seventeenth century?
5a20a98f8a6e4f001aa08e20
True
1858
419
In what year did Henry Bessemer create Mangalloy?
5a20a98f8a6e4f001aa08e21
True
Mangalloy
733
What steel alloy was created by Henry Bessemer?
5a20a98f8a6e4f001aa08e22
True
With the introduction of the blast furnace to Europe in the Middle Ages, pig iron was able to be produced in much higher volumes than wrought iron. Because pig iron could be melted, people began to develop processes of reducing the carbon in the liquid pig iron to create steel. Puddling was introduced during the 1700s, where molten pig iron was stirred while exposed to the air, to remove the carbon by oxidation. In 1858, Sir Henry Bessemer developed a process of steel-making by blowing hot air through liquid pig iron to reduce the carbon content. The Bessemer process was able to produce the first large scale manufacture of steel. Once the Bessemer process began to gain widespread use, other alloys of steel began to follow. Mangalloy, an alloy of steel and manganese exhibiting extreme hardness and toughness, was one of the first alloy steels, and was created by Robert Hadfield in 1882.
Who discovered precipitation hardening alloys?
5726bf09f1498d1400e8e9fa
Alfred Wilm
59
False
When were precipitation hardening alloys discovered?
5726bf09f1498d1400e8e9fb
1906
3
False
What happens to precipitation hardening alloys after they quenched?
5726bf09f1498d1400e8e9fc
harden over time
242
False
One of the first "age hardening" alloys used were called?
5726bf09f1498d1400e8e9fd
duralumin
492
False
What was used in the construction of modern aircraft?
5726bf09f1498d1400e8e9fe
duralumin
492
False
quenched
206
What is done to make precipitation hardening alloys hardened immediately?
5a20ac1b8a6e4f001aa08e28
True
quenched
206
What term refers to cooling over time?
5a20ac1b8a6e4f001aa08e29
True
Alfred Wilm
59
Who discovered precipitation hardening alloys in 1919?
5a20ac1b8a6e4f001aa08e2a
True
alloy increased in hardness when left to age at room temperature
354
What phenomenon was explained in 1906?
5a20ac1b8a6e4f001aa08e2b
True
duralumin
492
What was used in the construction of early aircraft's?
5a20ac1c8a6e4f001aa08e2c
True
In 1906, precipitation hardening alloys were discovered by Alfred Wilm. Precipitation hardening alloys, such as certain alloys of aluminium, titanium, and copper, are heat-treatable alloys that soften when quenched (cooled quickly), and then harden over time. After quenching a ternary alloy of aluminium, copper, and magnesium, Wilm discovered that the alloy increased in hardness when left to age at room temperature. Although an explanation for the phenomenon was not provided until 1919, duralumin was one of the first "age hardening" alloys to be used, and was soon followed by many others. Because they often exhibit a combination of high strength and low weight, these alloys became widely used in many forms of industry, including the construction of modern aircraft.
Norfolk_Island
In what ocean is Norfolk Island found?
572698f8708984140094cb41
Pacific Ocean
84
False
How far away is the nearest land mass to Norfolk Island?
572698f8708984140094cb42
about 900 kilometres (560 mi)
236
False
What is the capital city of Norfolk Island?
572698f8708984140094cb43
Kingston
523
False
How many people live on Norfolk Island?
572698f8708984140094cb44
1,796
439
False
How far away is Evans Head from Norfolk Island?
572698f8708984140094cb45
1,412 kilometres (877 mi)
156
False
Pacific Ocean
84
What ocean is Norfolk Island relocated from?
5a81ab3731013a001a334d45
True
about 900 kilometres (560 mi)
236
How far away is the furthest land mass to Norfolk Island?
5a81ab3731013a001a334d46
True
Kingston
523
What is the only city of Norfolk Island?
5a81ab3731013a001a334d47
True
1,796
439
How many people have left Norfolk Island?
5a81ab3731013a001a334d48
True
Norfolk Island
0
Which island has no capital city?
5a81ab3731013a001a334d49
True
Norfolk Island (i/ˈnɔːrfək ˈaɪlənd/; Norfuk: Norf'k Ailen) is a small island in the Pacific Ocean located between Australia, New Zealand and New Caledonia, 1,412 kilometres (877 mi) directly east of mainland Australia's Evans Head, and about 900 kilometres (560 mi) from Lord Howe Island. The island is part of the Commonwealth of Australia. Together with two neighbouring islands, it forms one of Australia's external territories. It has 1,796 inhabitants living on a total area of about 35 km2 (14 sq mi). Its capital is Kingston.
Who was Norfolk Island colonised by?
57269af1f1498d1400e8e4b6
East Polynesians
32
False
What purpose did Norfolk Island serve for the majority of the time from 1788 until 1855?
57269af1f1498d1400e8e4b7
a convict penal settlement
180
False
What date did civilians begin to permanently reside in Norfolk Island?
57269af1f1498d1400e8e4b8
8 June 1856
340
False
Where did the first permanent civilians of Norfolk Island settle from in 1856?
57269af1f1498d1400e8e4b9
Pitcairn Island
427
False
In what year did the UK hand Norfolk Island over to Australia to administrate?
57269af1f1498d1400e8e4ba
1913
447
False
East Polynesians
32
Who was Norfolk Island destroyed by?
5a81abed31013a001a334d4f
True
a convict penal settlement
180
What purpose did Norfolk Island avoid for the majority of the time from 1788 until 1855?
5a81abed31013a001a334d50
True
8 June 1856
340
What date did civilians begin to permanently leave Norfolk Island?
5a81abed31013a001a334d51
True
Pitcairn Island
427
Where were the first permanent civilians of Norfolk Island banned from in 1856?
5a81abed31013a001a334d52
True
1913
447
What year did the UK hand Norfolk Island over to America to administrate?
5a81abed31013a001a334d53
True
Norfolk Island was colonised by East Polynesians but was long unpeopled when it was settled by Great Britain as part of its settlement of Australia from 1788. The island served as a convict penal settlement from 6 March 1788 until 5 May 1855, except for an 11-year hiatus between 15 February 1814 and 6 June 1825, when it lay abandoned. On 8 June 1856, permanent civilian residence on the island began when it was settled from Pitcairn Island. In 1913, the UK handed Norfolk over to Australia to administer as an external territory.
In what year did the British government include Norfolk Island as a auxiliary settlement?
57269c97708984140094cbbb
1786
122
False
Who proposed the idea to include Norfolk Island as a British auxiliary settlement in 1786?
57269c97708984140094cbbc
John Call
217
False
In including Norfolk Island as an auxiliary settlement, what Australian state did the British government plan to colonise?
57269c97708984140094cbbd
New South Wales
260
False
What woman influenced the decision by the British to settle Norfolk Island?
57269c97708984140094cbbe
Empress Catherine II of Russia
332
False
Where was the majority of the hemp and flax used by the Royal Navy imported from?
57269c97708984140094cbbf
Russia
506
False
1786
122
What year did the German government include Norfolk Island as a auxiliary settlement?
5a81acc831013a001a334d59
True
John Call
217
Who rejected the idea to include Norfolk Island as a British auxiliary settlement in 1786?
5a81acc831013a001a334d5a
True
New South Wales
260
What German state did the British government plan to colonise while including Norfolk Island as an auxiliary settlement?
5a81acc831013a001a334d5b
True
Empress Catherine II of Russia
332
What woman influenced the decision by the Russians to settle Norfolk Island?
5a81acc831013a001a334d5c
True
Russia
506
Where was the majority of the cheese and wine used by the Royal Navy imported from?
5a81acc831013a001a334d5d
True
Sir John Call argued the advantages of Norfolk Island in that it was uninhabited and that New Zealand flax grew there. In 1786 the British government included Norfolk Island as an auxiliary settlement, as proposed by John Call, in its plan for colonisation of New South Wales. The decision to settle Norfolk Island was taken due to Empress Catherine II of Russia's decision to restrict sales of hemp. Practically all the hemp and flax required by the Royal Navy for cordage and sailcloth was imported from Russia.
When did Lieutenant-Governor of New South Wales Francis Grose start suggesting Norfolk Island be closed as a penal settlement?
57269e12f1498d1400e8e50c
1794
12
False
Why did Francis Grose think that Norfolk Island should be closed as a penal settlement?
57269e12f1498d1400e8e50d
it was too remote and difficult for shipping and too costly to maintain
119
False
When did the first group of people leave Norfolk Island?
57269e12f1498d1400e8e50e
February 1805
226
False
By 1808, how many people remained on Norfolk Island?
57269e12f1498d1400e8e50f
200
264
False
Why did a small group of people remain on Norfolk Island, after others had already left?
57269e12f1498d1400e8e510
to slaughter stock and destroy all buildings
369
False
1794
12
When did Lieutenant-Governor of New South Wales Francis Grose start suggesting Norfolk Island be permanently opened as a penal settlement?
5a81ad7231013a001a334d63
True
it was too remote and difficult for shipping and too costly to maintain
119
Why did Francis Grose think that Norfolk Island should be kept as a penal settlement?
5a81ad7231013a001a334d64
True
February 1805
226
When did the first group of people save Norfolk Island?
5a81ad7231013a001a334d65
True
200
264
How many people died on Norfolk Island by 1808?
5a81ad7231013a001a334d66
True
to slaughter stock and destroy all buildings
369
Why did one person remain on Norfolk Island, after others had already left?
5a81ad7231013a001a334d67
True
As early as 1794, Lieutenant-Governor of New South Wales Francis Grose suggested its closure as a penal settlement, as it was too remote and difficult for shipping and too costly to maintain. The first group of people left in February 1805, and by 1808 only about 200 remained, forming a small settlement until the remnants were removed in 1813. A small party remained to slaughter stock and destroy all buildings, so that there would be no inducement for anyone, especially from other European powers, to visit and lay claim to the place. From 15 February 1814 to 6 June 1825 the island was abandoned.
Who instructed the Governor of New South Wales Thomas Brisbane to send the worst convicts to Norfolk Island?
57269ffdf1498d1400e8e546
the British government
8
False
What previous disadvantage of Norfolk Island was seen as an advantage for holding male convicts?
57269ffdf1498d1400e8e547
Its remoteness
171
False
What were the prisoners on Norfolk Island spared from on the the mainland?
57269ffdf1498d1400e8e548
the gallows
548
False
How many convicts are listed in the database at Norfolk Island?
57269ffdf1498d1400e8e549
6,458
666
False
What was the average length of a prisoner's detention at Norfolk Island?
57269ffdf1498d1400e8e54a
three years
1046
False
the British government
8
Who blocked the Governor of New South Wales Thomas Brisbane from sending the worst convicts to Norfolk Island?
5a81af8c31013a001a334d6d
True
Its remoteness
171
What previous disadvantage of Norfolk Island was seen as an advantage for holding female convicts?
5a81af8c31013a001a334d6e
True
the gallows
548
What were the prisoners on Norfolk Island condemned to on the mainland?
5a81af8c31013a001a334d6f
True
6,458
666
How many convicts are no longer listed in the database at Norfolk Island?
5a81af8c31013a001a334d70
True
three years
1046
What was the average length of a prisoner's escape at Norfolk Island?
5a81af8c31013a001a334d71
True
In 1824 the British government instructed the Governor of New South Wales Thomas Brisbane to occupy Norfolk Island as a place to send "the worst description of convicts". Its remoteness, previously seen as a disadvantage, was now viewed as an asset for the detention of recalcitrant male prisoners. The convicts detained have long been assumed to be a hardcore of recidivists, or 'doubly-convicted capital respites' – that is, men transported to Australia who committed fresh colonial crimes for which they were sentenced to death, and were spared the gallows on condition of life at Norfolk Island. However, a recent study has demonstrated, utilising a database of 6,458 Norfolk Island convicts, that the reality was somewhat different: more than half were detained at Norfolk Island without ever receiving a colonial conviction, and only 15% had been reprieved from a death sentence. Furthermore, the overwhelming majority of convicts sent to Norfolk Island had committed non-violent property sentences, and the average length of detention was three years.
Who were the next settlement of people on Norfolk Island descended from?
5726a33a5951b619008f787f
Tahitians and the HMS Bounty mutineers
91
False
Where did the next settlement of people on Norfolk Island settle from?
5726a33a5951b619008f7880
the Pitcairn Islands
190
False
On May 3, 1856, how many Pitcairners left for Norfolk Island?
5726a33a5951b619008f7881
193
284
False
What was the name of the ship the Pitcairners traveled on to Norfolk Island?
5726a33a5951b619008f7882
Morayshire
330
False
What trades did the Pitcairners establish while on Norfolk Island?
5726a33a5951b619008f7883
farming and whaling industries
533
False
Tahitians and the HMS Bounty mutineers
91
Who were the next settlement of people on Norfolk Island restricted from?
5a81b0f531013a001a334d77
True
the Pitcairn Islands
190
Where did the next settlement of people on Norfolk Island bomb?
5a81b0f531013a001a334d78
True
193
284
How many of the Pitcairners arrived at Norfolk Island on May 3, 1856?
5a81b0f531013a001a334d79
True
Morayshire
330
What was the name of the canoe the Pitcairners traveled on to Norfolk Island?
5a81b0f531013a001a334d7a
True
farming and whaling industries
533
What trades did the Pitcairners punish while on Norfolk Island?
5a81b0f531013a001a334d7b
True
On 8 June 1856, the next settlement began on Norfolk Island. These were the descendants of Tahitians and the HMS Bounty mutineers, including those of Fletcher Christian. They resettled from the Pitcairn Islands, which had become too small for their growing population. On 3 May 1856, 193 persons left Pitcairn Islands aboard the "Morayshire". On 8 June 194 persons arrived, a baby having been born in transit. The Pitcairners occupied many of the buildings remaining from the penal settlements, and gradually established traditional farming and whaling industries on the island. Although some families decided to return to Pitcairn in 1858 and 1863, the island's population continued to grow. They accepted additional settlers, who often arrived with whaling fleets.
When was the Commonwealth of Australia created?
5726a4c1dd62a815002e8bd8
1901
55
False
During what major event did Norfolk Island become an important airbase and refuelling station?
5726a4c1dd62a815002e8bd9
World War II
194
False
Who contructed the airbase used on Norfolk Island during World War II?
5726a4c1dd62a815002e8bda
Australian, New Zealand and United States servicemen
369
False
Norfolk Island fell under whose responsibility during World War II?
5726a4c1dd62a815002e8bdb
New Zealand
468
False
When did N Force leave Norfolk Island during the time of World War II?
5726a4c1dd62a815002e8bdc
February 1944
806
False
1901
55
When was the Commonwealth of Australia hidden?
5a81b1fd31013a001a334d81
True
World War II
194
What minor event did Norfolk Island become an important airbase and refueling station during?
5a81b1fd31013a001a334d82
True
Australian, New Zealand and United States servicemen
369
Who removed the airbase used on Norfolk Island during World War II?
5a81b1fd31013a001a334d83
True
New Zealand
468
Whose responsibility did Norfolk Island avoid during World War II?
5a81b1fd31013a001a334d84
True
February 1944
806
When did N Force leave Norfolk Island during the time of World War I?
5a81b1fd31013a001a334d85
True
After the creation of the Commonwealth of Australia in 1901, Norfolk Island was placed under the authority of the new Commonwealth government to be administered as an external territory. During World War II, the island became a key airbase and refuelling depot between Australia and New Zealand, and New Zealand and the Solomon Islands. The airstrip was constructed by Australian, New Zealand and United States servicemen during 1942. Since Norfolk Island fell within New Zealand's area of responsibility it was garrisoned by a New Zealand Army unit known as N Force at a large Army camp which had the capacity to house a 1,500 strong force. N Force relieved a company of the Second Australian Imperial Force. The island proved too remote to come under attack during the war and N Force left the island in February 1944.
What lead to Norfolk Island asking for assistance from Australia in 2010?
5726a65e708984140094cce3
Financial problems and a reduction in tourism
0
False
What benefit were residents of Norfolk Island told they would receive as a result of Australia's assistance?
5726a65e708984140094cce4
greater welfare benefits
249
False
What actually ended up happening after Norfolk Island asked Australia for help?
5726a65e708984140094cce5
islanders were having to leave to find work and welfare
331
False
An agreement was finally signed in Canberra on March 12, 2015, to do what for Norfolk Island?
5726a65e708984140094cce6
replace self-government with a local council
452
False
What percentage of Norfolk Island voters were against the changes brought by Australia?
5726a65e708984140094cce7
68%
715
False
Financial problems and a reduction in tourism
0
What lead to Norfolk Island asking for assistance from Russia in 2010?
5a81b43131013a001a334d8b
True
greater welfare benefits
249
What benefit were residents of Norfolk Island told they would receive as a result of Russia's assistance?
5a81b43131013a001a334d8c
True
islanders were having to leave to find work and welfare
331
What actually ended up happening after Norfolk Island asked Russia for help?
5a81b43131013a001a334d8d
True
to replace self-government with a local council
449
What agreement was never signed in Canberra on March 12, 2015?
5a81b43131013a001a334d8e
True
68%
715
What percentage of Norfolk Island voters were against the changes brought by Russia?
5a81b43131013a001a334d8f
True
Financial problems and a reduction in tourism led to Norfolk Island's administration appealing to the Australian federal government for assistance in 2010. In return, the islanders were to pay income tax for the first time but would be eligible for greater welfare benefits. However, by May 2013 agreement had not been reached and islanders were having to leave to find work and welfare. An agreement was finally signed in Canberra on 12 March 2015 to replace self-government with a local council but against the wishes of the Norfolk Island government. A majority of Norfolk Islanders have objected to the Australian plan to make changes to Norfolk Island without first consulting them and allowing their say with 68% of voters against forced changes.
What part of the Pacific Ocean is Norfolk Island located?
5726a73df1498d1400e8e62c
South
33
False
What direction is Norfolk Island in relation to Australia?
5726a73df1498d1400e8e62d
east
54
False
What are the coordinates for Norfolk Island?
5726a73df1498d1400e8e62e
29°02′S 167°57′E﻿ / ﻿29.033°S 167.950°E﻿ / -29.033; 167.950
185
False
What is the name of the mountain at Norfolk Island's highest point?
5726a73df1498d1400e8e62f
Mount Bates
408
False
What is the name of the second largest island of the territory of Norfolk Island?
5726a73df1498d1400e8e630
Phillip Island
593
False
South
33
What part of the Atlantic Ocean is Norfolk Island located?
5a81b4a831013a001a334d95
True
east
54
What direction is Norfolk Island no longer in relation to Australia?
5a81b4a831013a001a334d96
True
29°02′S 167°57′E﻿ / ﻿29.033°S 167.950°E﻿ / -29.033; 167.950
185
What are the fake coordinates for Norfolk Island?
5a81b4a831013a001a334d97
True
Mount Bates
408
What is the name of the mountain at Norfolk Island's lowest point?
5a81b4a831013a001a334d98
True
Phillip Island
593
What is the name of the second worst island of the territory of Norfolk Island?
5a81b4a831013a001a334d99
True
Norfolk Island is located in the South Pacific Ocean, east of the Australian mainland. Norfolk Island is the main island of the island group the territory encompasses and is located at 29°02′S 167°57′E﻿ / ﻿29.033°S 167.950°E﻿ / -29.033; 167.950. It has an area of 34.6 square kilometres (13.4 sq mi), with no large-scale internal bodies of water and 32 km (20 mi) of coastline. The island's highest point is Mount Bates (319 metres (1,047 feet) above sea level), located in the northwest quadrant of the island. The majority of the terrain is suitable for farming and other agricultural uses. Phillip Island, the second largest island of the territory, is located at 29°07′S 167°57′E﻿ / ﻿29.117°S 167.950°E﻿ / -29.117; 167.950, seven kilometres (4.3 miles) south of the main island.
What is the coastline of Norfolk made of?
5726a83edd62a815002e8c2a
cliff faces
65
False
Where is the site of the original colonial settlement of Kingston, Norfolk Islands, currently located?
5726a83edd62a815002e8c2b
Slaughter Bay and Emily Bay
110
False
How are goods imported to Norfolk Island?
5726a83edd62a815002e8c2c
by ship
363
False
Where are imported goods usually sent on Norfolk Island?
5726a83edd62a815002e8c2d
Cascade Bay
383
False
Where can you go to surf on Norfolk Island?
5726a83edd62a815002e8c2e
Anson and Ball Bays
551
False
cliff faces
65
What is the center of Norfolk made of?
5a81b54b31013a001a334d9f
True
Slaughter Bay and Emily Bay
110
Where is the site of the original colonial settlement of Kingston, Norfolk Islands, going to be relocated?
5a81b54b31013a001a334da0
True
by ship
363
How are goods stolen from Norfolk Island?
5a81b54b31013a001a334da1
True
Cascade Bay
299
Where are imported goods usually stolen on Norfolk Island?
5a81b54b31013a001a334da2
True
Anson and Ball Bays
551
Where can you illegally surf on Norfolk Island?
5a81b54b31013a001a334da3
True
The coastline of Norfolk Island consists, to varying degrees, of cliff faces. A downward slope exists towards Slaughter Bay and Emily Bay, the site of the original colonial settlement of Kingston. There are no safe harbour facilities on Norfolk Island, with loading jetties existing at Kingston and Cascade Bay. All goods not domestically produced are brought in by ship, usually to Cascade Bay. Emily Bay, protected from the Pacific Ocean by a small coral reef, is the only safe area for recreational swimming, although surfing waves can be found at Anson and Ball Bays.
How many plants can only be found on Norfolk Island?
5726a9f3f1498d1400e8e67c
51
38
False
How many of the plants that can only be found on Norfolk Island are rare or threatened?
5726a9f3f1498d1400e8e67d
18
71
False
Where can the tallest tree-fern in the world be found?
5726a9f3f1498d1400e8e67e
Norfolk Island National Park
266
False
What was the majority of Norfolk Island covered with, before European colonization?
5726a9f3f1498d1400e8e67f
subtropical rain forest
399
False
How much of the rainforest remains in Norfolk Island today?
5726a9f3f1498d1400e8e680
5 km2
725
False
51
38
How many plants can only be eaten on Norfolk Island?
5a81b5f931013a001a334da9
True
18
71
How many of the plants that can only be found on Norfolk Island are extinct?
5a81b5f931013a001a334daa
True
Norfolk Island National Park
266
Where can the smallest tree-fern in the world be found?
5a81b5f931013a001a334dab
True
subtropical rain forest
399
What was the majority of Norfolk Island covered with, after European colonization?
5a81b5f931013a001a334dac
True
5 km2
725
How much of the rainforest was lost in Norfolk Island today?
5a81b5f931013a001a334dad
True
Norfolk Island has 174 native plants; 51 of them are endemic. At least 18 of the endemic species are rare or threatened. The Norfolk Island palm (Rhopalostylis baueri) and the smooth tree-fern (Cyathea brownii), the tallest tree-fern in the world, are common in the Norfolk Island National Park but rare elsewhere on the island. Before European colonization, most of Norfolk Island was covered with subtropical rain forest, the canopy of which was made of Araucaria heterophylla (Norfolk Island pine) in exposed areas, and the palm Rhopalostylis baueri and tree ferns Cyathea brownii and C. australis in moister protected areas. The understory was thick with lianas and ferns covering the forest floor. Only one small tract (5 km2) of rainforest remains, which was declared as the Norfolk Island National Park in 1986.
What type of bird does Norfolk Island have few of?
5726ac06dd62a815002e8c8c
land
67
False
What is one reason that has caused many of the birds of Norfolk Island to become extinct?
5726ac06dd62a815002e8c8d
massive clearance of the island's native vegetation
200
False
What is the second thing that caused many of the birds of Norfolk Island to become extinct?
5726ac06dd62a815002e8c8e
hunting and persecution as agricultural pests
295
False
What non-bird animals caused the bird populations of Norfolk Island to suffer?
5726ac06dd62a815002e8c8f
mammals
396
False
What non-native birds caused the bird populations of Norfolk Island to suffer?
5726ac06dd62a815002e8c90
common blackbirds and crimson rosellas
487
False
land
67
What type of bird does Norfolk Island have billions of?
5a81b6a631013a001a334dc7
True
massive clearance of the island's native vegetation
200
What is one reason that has caused many of the birds of Norfolk Island to thrive?
5a81b6a631013a001a334dc8
True
hunting and persecution as agricultural pests
295
What is the second thing that caused many of the birds of Norfolk Island to thrive?
5a81b6a631013a001a334dc9
True
mammals
396
What non-bird animals caused the bird populations of Norfolk Island to celebrate?
5a81b6a631013a001a334dca
True
common blackbirds and crimson rosellas
487
What non-native birds caused the bird populations of Norfolk Island to be happy?
5a81b6a631013a001a334dcb
True
As a relatively small and isolated oceanic island, Norfolk has few land birds but a high degree of endemicity among them. Many of the endemic species and subspecies have become extinct as a result of massive clearance of the island's native vegetation of subtropical rainforest for agriculture, hunting and persecution as agricultural pests. The birds have also suffered from the introduction of mammals such as rats, cats, pigs and goats, as well as from introduced competitors such as common blackbirds and crimson rosellas.
What island in the Norfolk Island Group is home to breeding seabirds?
5726ad725951b619008f79ef
Nepean Island
25
False
What near extinct bird of Norfolk Island has shown signs of population increase?
5726ad725951b619008f79f0
The providence petrel
74
False
Where has the providence petrel been seen breeding on Norfolk Island?
5726ad725951b619008f79f1
Phillip Island
210
False
What other types of petrels breed on Phillip Island?
5726ad725951b619008f79f2
the white-necked petrel, Kermadec petrel
264
False
What is the sooty tern known as on Norfolk Island?
5726ad725951b619008f79f3
the whale bird
425
False
Nepean Island
25
What island in the Norfolk Island Group is home to bioluminescent seabirds?
5a81b79c31013a001a334dd1
True
The providence petrel
74
What near extinct bird of Norfolk Island has shown signs of population decrease?
5a81b79c31013a001a334dd2
True
Phillip Island
210
Where has the providence petrel never been seen breeding on Norfolk Island?
5a81b79c31013a001a334dd3
True
the white-necked petrel, Kermadec petrel
264
What other types of petrels are extinct on Phillip Island?
5a81b79c31013a001a334dd4
True
The Norfolk Island Group Nepean Island is also home to breeding seabirds. The providence petrel was hunted to local extinction by the beginning of the 19th century, but has shown signs of returning to breed on Phillip Island. Other seabirds breeding there include the white-necked petrel, Kermadec petrel, wedge-tailed shearwater, Australasian gannet, red-tailed tropicbird and grey ternlet. The sooty tern (known locally as the whale bird) has traditionally been subject to seasonal egg harvesting by Norfolk Islanders.
What used to be abundant in the waters around Norfolk Island?
5726aeff5951b619008f7a3d
Cetaceans
0
False
When did commercial sea hunts on Norfolk Island stop operating?
5726aeff5951b619008f7a3e
1956
109
False
What are some species of whales that can be seen around Norfolk Island today?
5726aeff5951b619008f7a3f
humpback whale, minke whale, sei whale
198
False
What other species can be seen close to the shores of Norfolk Island?
5726aeff5951b619008f7a40
dolphins
242
False
What type of whales were once common in Norfolk Island, but hardly any remain today?
5726aeff5951b619008f7a41
Southern right whales
338
False
Cetaceans
0
What was never abundant in the waters around Norfolk Island?
5a81b93931013a001a334deb
True
1956
109
When did amateur sea hunts on Norfolk Island stop operating?
5a81b93931013a001a334dec
True
humpback whale, minke whale, sei whale
198
What are some species of extinct whales that can currently be seen on Norfolk Island today?
5a81b93931013a001a334ded
True
dolphins
242
What other species can only be seen far away from the shores of Norfolk Island?
5a81b93931013a001a334dee
True
Southern right whales
338
What type of whales were once rare near Norfolk Island, but many exist today?
5a81b93931013a001a334def
True
Cetaceans were historically abundant around the island as commercial hunts on the island was operating until 1956. Today, numbers of larger whales have disappeared, but even today many species such humpback whale, minke whale, sei whale, and dolphins can be observed close to shores, and scientific surveys have been conducted regularly. Southern right whales were once regular migrants to the Norfolk hence naming the island as the "Middle ground" by whalers, but had been severely depleted by historical hunts, and further by illegal Soviet and Japan whaling, resulting in none of very few, if remnants still live, right whales in these regions along with Lord Howe Island.
Christians make up what percentage of the population of Norfolk Island?
5726b08c5951b619008f7a87
Sixty-two percent
0
False
Who was the first chaplain of Norfolk Island?
5726b08c5951b619008f7a88
Rev G. H. Nobbs
85
False
What type of church was formed after Rev G.H. Nobbs' death in 1884?
5726b08c5951b619008f7a89
a Methodist church
110
False
Who led Norfolk Island's first Seventh-day Adventist church?
5726b08c5951b619008f7a8a
one of Nobbs' sons
196
False
Typical church congregations on Norfolk Island as of 2010 don't exceed what number?
5726b08c5951b619008f7a8b
30
1168
False
Sixty-two percent
0
What percentage of the population of Norfolk Island do Christians avoid?
5a81ba0631013a001a334dff
True
Rev G. H. Nobbs
85
Who was the first chaplain of Norfolk Island to be exiled?
5a81ba0631013a001a334e00
True
a Methodist church
110
What type of church was forbidden after Rev G.H. Nobbs' death in 1882?
5a81ba0631013a001a334e01
True
one of Nobbs' sons
196
Who led Norfolk Island's first Sixth-day Adventist church?
5a81ba0631013a001a334e02
True
30
1168
What number is always exceeded by typical church congregations on Norfolk Island as of 2010?
5a81ba0631013a001a334e03
True
Sixty-two percent of islanders are Christians. After the death of the first chaplain Rev G. H. Nobbs in 1884, a Methodist church was formed and in 1891 a Seventh-day Adventist congregation led by one of Nobbs' sons. Some unhappiness with G. H. Nobbs, the more organised and formal ritual of the Church of England service arising from the influence of the Melanesian Mission, decline in spirituality, the influence of visiting American whalers, literature sent by Christians overseas impressed by the Pitcairn story, and the adoption of Seventh-day Adventism by the descendants of the mutineers still on Pitcairn, all contributed to these developments. The Roman Catholic Church began work in 1957 and in the late 1990s a group left the former Methodist (then Uniting Church) and formed a charismatic fellowship. In 2011, 34 percent of the ordinary residents identified as Anglican, 13 percent as Uniting Church, 12 percent as Roman Catholic and three percent as Seventh-day Adventist. Nine percent were from other religions. Twenty four percent had no religion, and seven percent did not indicate a religion. Typical ordinary congregations in any church do not exceed 30 local residents as of 2010[update]. The three older denominations have good facilities. Ministers are usually short-term visitors.
What languages do residents of Norfolk Island speak?
5726b22bf1498d1400e8e7bc
English and a creole language known as Norfuk
21
False
What is the Norfuk language a mixture of?
5726b22bf1498d1400e8e7bd
18th-century English and Tahitian
79
False
The Norfuk language of Norfolk Island was first spoken by whom?
5726b22bf1498d1400e8e7be
descendants of the first free settlers of Norfolk Island who were descendants of the settlers of Pitcairn Island
690
False
What is the official co-language of Norfolk Island?
5726b22bf1498d1400e8e7bf
The Norfuk language
114
False
What part of the residents of Norfolk Island could speak Norfuk as of 2011?
5726b22bf1498d1400e8e7c0
under three-quarters
1068
False
English and a creole language known as Norfuk
21
What languages do residents of Norfolk Island restrict?
5a81bb1f31013a001a334e09
True
18th-century English and Tahitian
79
What is the Norfuk language not influenced by?
5a81bb1f31013a001a334e0a
True
The Norfuk language
114
What is the unofficial co-language of Norfolk Island?
5a81bb1f31013a001a334e0b
True
under three-quarters
1068
What portion of the residents of Norfolk Island don't understand any Norfuk as of 2011?
5a81bb1f31013a001a334e0c
True
Islanders speak both English and a creole language known as Norfuk, a blend of 18th-century English and Tahitian. The Norfuk language is decreasing in popularity as more tourists travel to the island and more young people leave for work and study reasons; however, there are efforts to keep it alive via dictionaries and the renaming of some tourist attractions to their Norfuk equivalents. In 2004 an act of the Norfolk Island Assembly made it a co-official language of the island. The act is long-titled: "An Act to recognise the Norfolk Island Language (Norf'k) as an official language of Norfolk Island." The "language known as 'Norf'k'" is described as the language "that is spoken by descendants of the first free settlers of Norfolk Island who were descendants of the settlers of Pitcairn Island". The act recognises and protects use of the language but does not require it; in official use, it must be accompanied by an accurate translation into English. 32% of the total population reported speaking a language other than English in the 2011 census, and just under three-quarters of the ordinarily resident population could speak Norfuk.
What is the only non-mainland Australian territory that is governed by itself?
5726b36add62a815002e8d54
Norfolk Island
0
False
What is the name of the Act that formerly governed Norfolk Island?
5726b36add62a815002e8d55
The Norfolk Island Act 1979
95
False
What is the name of the new Act that governs Norfolk Island, passed in 2015?
5726b36add62a815002e8d56
the Norfolk Island Legislation Amendment Act 2015
239
False
Who is the current administrator of Norfolk Island?
5726b36add62a815002e8d57
Gary Hardgrave
386
False
During 1979-2015, Legislative Assembly terms lasted no longer than how many years?
5726b36add62a815002e8d58
three years
499
False
Norfolk Island
0
What is one of only two non-mainland Australian territories that is governed by itself?
5a81bbfe31013a001a334e11
True
The Norfolk Island Act 1979
95
What is the name of the Act that will govern Norfolk Island?
5a81bbfe31013a001a334e12
True
the Norfolk Island Legislation Amendment Act 2015
239
What is the name of the new Act that governs Norfolk Island, passed in 2016?
5a81bbfe31013a001a334e13
True
Gary Hardgrave
386
Who is the future administrator of Norfolk Island?
5a81bbfe31013a001a334e14
True
Norfolk Island is the only non-mainland Australian territory to have achieved self-governance. The Norfolk Island Act 1979, passed by the Parliament of Australia in 1979, is the Act under which the island was governed until the passing of the Norfolk Island Legislation Amendment Act 2015. The Australian government maintains authority on the island through an Administrator, currently Gary Hardgrave. From 1979 to 2015, a Legislative Assembly was elected by popular vote for terms of not more than three years, although legislation passed by the Australian Parliament could extend its laws to the territory at will, including the power to override any laws made by the assembly.
The Assembly of Norfolk Island is made of how many seats?
5726b4e35951b619008f7b37
nine
26
False
What method of voting does Norfolk Island use for it's Assembly?
5726b4e35951b619008f7b38
a "weighted first past the post system"
180
False
Four members of the Assembly made up what Council, responsible for devising policy for Norfolk Island?
5726b4e35951b619008f7b39
Executive
268
False
Who was the last Chief Minister of Norfolk Island?
5726b4e35951b619008f7b3a
Lisle Snell
406
False
What is the official name for the Minister in charge of tourism on Norfolk Island?
5726b4e35951b619008f7b3b
Minister for Tourism, Industry and Development
445
False
nine
26
How many seats does the Assembly of Norfolk Island eliminate?
5a81c18c31013a001a334e55
True
a "weighted first past the post system"
180
What method of voting does Norfolk Island forbid for it's Assembly?
5a81c18c31013a001a334e56
True
Executive
268
What Council do three members of the Assembly consist of that are responsible for devising policy for Norfolk Island?
5a81c18c31013a001a334e57
True
Lisle Snell
406
Who was the only Chief Minister of Norfolk Island?
5a81c18c31013a001a334e58
True
Minister for Tourism, Industry and Development
445
What is the official name for the King in charge of tourism on Norfolk Island?
5a81c18c31013a001a334e59
True
The Assembly consisted of nine seats, with electors casting nine equal votes, of which no more than two could be given to any individual candidate. It is a method of voting called a "weighted first past the post system". Four of the members of the Assembly formed the Executive Council, which devised policy and acted as an advisory body to the Administrator. The last Chief Minister of Norfolk Island was Lisle Snell. Other ministers included: Minister for Tourism, Industry and Development; Minister for Finance; Minister for Cultural Heritage and Community Services; and Minister for Environment.
How many models did Australia propose to Norfolk Island's legislative assembly?
5726b6a0f1498d1400e8e87c
two
171
False
What would the more severe of the proposed plans threaten to reduce Norfolk Island's assembly to?
5726b6a0f1498d1400e8e87d
a local council
281
False
When did the Australian government end their review on Norfolk Island?
5726b6a0f1498d1400e8e87e
December 2006
310
False
The Australian government said that changes to Norfolk Island's government would cause what?
5726b6a0f1498d1400e8e87f
significant disruption
337
False
two
171
How many models did Australia end as part of Norfolk Island's legislative assembly?
5a81c20d31013a001a334e5f
True
a local council
281
What would the more severe of the proposed plans threaten to promote Norfolk Island's assembly to?
5a81c20d31013a001a334e60
True
December 2006
310
When did the European government end their review on Norfolk Island?
5a81c20d31013a001a334e61
True
significant disruption
337
What did the Australian government say that changes to Norfolk Island's government would not cause?
5a81c20d31013a001a334e62
True
Disagreements over the island's relationship with Australia were put in sharper relief by a 2006 review undertaken by the Australian government. Under the more radical of two models proposed in the review, the island's legislative assembly would have been reduced to the status of a local council. However, in December 2006, citing the "significant disruption" that changes to the governance would impose on the island's economy, the Australian government ended the review leaving the existing governance arrangements unaltered.
When did the Commonwealth of Australia announce that Norfolk Island would no longer be governed by itself?
5726b83f5951b619008f7bbf
19 March 2015
20
False
What did the Commonwealth want to replace the Norfolk Island government with?
5726b83f5951b619008f7bc0
a local council
123
False
From what state did the proposed council come from?
5726b83f5951b619008f7bc1
New South Wales
157
False
What benefits would Norfolk Island residents receive as a result of the new council?
5726b83f5951b619008f7bc2
they would also be covered by Australian welfare schemes such as Centrelink and Medicare
440
False
What would Norfolk Island residents have to start paying as a result of the new council?
5726b83f5951b619008f7bc3
Australian income tax
413
False
19 March 2015
20
When did the Commonwealth of Australia announce that Norfolk Island would always be governed by itself?
5a81c28831013a001a334e67
True
a local council
123
What did the Commonwealth want to combine the Norfolk Island government with?
5a81c28831013a001a334e68
True
New South Wales
157
What state did the proposed council dismiss?
5a81c28831013a001a334e69
True
they would also be covered by Australian welfare schemes such as Centrelink and Medicare
440
What benefits would Norfolk Island residents lose as a result of the new council?
5a81c28831013a001a334e6a
True
Australian income tax
413
What would Norfolk Island residents have to stop paying as a result of the new council?
5a81c28831013a001a334e6b
True
It was announced on 19 March 2015 that self-governance for the island would be revoked by the Commonwealth and replaced by a local council with the state of New South Wales providing services to the island. A reason given was that the island had never gained self-sufficiency and was being heavily subsidised by the Commonwealth, by $12.5 million in 2015 alone. It meant that residents would have to start paying Australian income tax, but they would also be covered by Australian welfare schemes such as Centrelink and Medicare.
When did the Legislative Assembly of Norfolk Island vote regarding the proposed Australian reforms?
5726bb03dd62a815002e8e7e
8 May 2015
89
False
How many Norfolk Island residents voted on May 8, 2015?
5726bb03dd62a815002e8e7f
912
419
False
What percentage of Norfolk Island residents voted in favor of self-governance?
5726bb03dd62a815002e8e80
68%
408
False
Who is Norfolk Island's Chief Minister?
5726bb03dd62a815002e8e81
Lisle Snell
482
False
According to Lisle Snell, Australian Parliament thought that abolishing Norfolk Island's self-governance would be what?
5726bb03dd62a815002e8e82
overwhelmingly supported by the people of Norfolk Island
710
False
8 May 2015
89
When did the Legislative Assembly of Norfolk Island vote regarding the proposed Chinese reforms?
5a81c30c31013a001a334e71
True
912
419
How many Norfolk Island residents lost their vote on May 8, 2015?
5a81c30c31013a001a334e72
True
68%
408
What percentage of Norfolk Island residents voted in favor of worse-governance?
5a81c30c31013a001a334e73
True
Lisle Snell
482
Who is Norfolk Island's Chief Wizard?
5a81c30c31013a001a334e74
True
The Norfolk Island Legislative Assembly decided to hold a referendum on the proposal. On 8 May 2015, voters were asked if Norfolk Islanders should freely determine their political status and their economic, social and cultural development, and to "be consulted at referendum or plebiscite on the future model of governance for Norfolk Island before such changes are acted upon by the Australian parliament". 68% out of 912 voters voted in favour. The Norfolk Island Chief Minister, Lisle Snell, said that "the referendum results blow a hole in Canberra's assertion that the reforms introduced before the Australian Parliament that propose abolishing the Legislative Assembly and Norfolk Island Parliament were overwhelmingly supported by the people of Norfolk Island".
Norfolk Island was originally a what?
5726bc4cdd62a815002e8eba
colony acquired by settlement
32
False
Norfolk Island became a territory of what country?
5726bc4cdd62a815002e8ebb
Australia
146
False
Under what Act was Norfolk Island accepted as a territory of Australia?
5726bc4cdd62a815002e8ebc
the Norfolk Island Act 1913 (Cth)
185
False
Who decided in 1976 that Norfolk Island is a part of the Commonwealth?
5726bc4cdd62a815002e8ebd
High Court of Australia
322
False
What was a necessary qualification for voting in Norfolk Island?
5726bc4cdd62a815002e8ebe
Australian citizenship
504
False
colony acquired by settlement
32
What was Norfolk Island against being?
5a81c3a731013a001a334e79
True
Australia
146
What country did Norfolk Island became a city of?
5a81c3a731013a001a334e7a
True
the Norfolk Island Act 1913
185
What Act was Norfolk Island rejected as a territory of Australia?
5a81c3a731013a001a334e7b
True
High Court of Australia
433
Who decided in 1974 that Norfolk Island is a part of the Commonwealth?
5a81c3a731013a001a334e7c
True
Australian citizenship
504
What was an unnecessary qualification for voting in Norfolk Island?
5a81c3a731013a001a334e7d
True
Norfolk Island was originally a colony acquired by settlement but was never within the British Settlements Act. It was accepted as a territory of Australia, separate from any state, by the Norfolk Island Act 1913 (Cth), passed under the territories power (Constitution section 122) and made effective in 1914. In 1976 the High Court of Australia held unanimously that Norfolk Island is a part of the Commonwealth. Again, in 2007 the High Court of Australia affirmed the validity of legislation that made Australian citizenship a necessary qualification for voting for, and standing for election to, the Legislative Assembly of Norfolk Island.
What has been heavily restricted in Norfolk Island, until recently?
5726be37dd62a815002e8f18
immigration
103
False
When were the immigration protocols relaxed in Norfolk Island?
5726be37dd62a815002e8f19
2012
194
False
What aided in the relaxation of immigration protocols to Norfolk Island?
5726be37dd62a815002e8f1a
an Unrestricted Entry Permit for all Australian and New Zealand citizens
259
False
What must Australian and New Zealand citizens do in order to apply for residency in Norfolk Island?
5726be37dd62a815002e8f1b
pass a police check and be able to pay into the local health scheme
409
False
When will the Australian migration system replace Norfolk Island's immigration policies?
5726be37dd62a815002e8f1c
1 July 2016
483
False
immigration
103
What has been heavily encouraged in Norfolk Island, until recently?
5a81c56131013a001a334e83
True
2012
194
When were the immigration protocols made more strict in Norfolk Island?
5a81c56131013a001a334e84
True
an Unrestricted Entry Permit for all Australian and New Zealand citizens
259
What damaged the relaxation of immigration protocols to Norfolk Island?
5a81c56131013a001a334e85
True
pass a police check and be able to pay into the local health scheme
409
What must Australian and New Zealand citizens avoid in order to apply for residency in Norfolk Island?
5a81c56131013a001a334e86
True
1 July 2016
483
When will the Russian migration system replace Norfolk Island's immigration policies?
5a81c56131013a001a334e87
True
The island is subject to separate immigration controls from the remainder of Australia. Until recently immigration to Norfolk Island even by other Australian citizens was heavily restricted. In 2012, immigration controls were relaxed with the introduction of an Unrestricted Entry Permit for all Australian and New Zealand citizens upon arrival and the option to apply for residency; the only criteria are to pass a police check and be able to pay into the local health scheme. From 1 July 2016, the Australian migration system will replace the immigration arrangements currently maintained by the Norfolk Island Government.
What automatic right do Australian citizens and residents have on Norfolk Island after meeting the criteria in Immigration (Amendment No. 2) Act 2012?
5726bff8dd62a815002e8f50
automatic right of residence
74
False
What do Australian citizens need in order to travel to Norfolk Island?
5726bff8dd62a815002e8f51
either a passport or a Document of Identity
219
False
What do citizens from other nations need in order to travel to Norfolk Island?
5726bff8dd62a815002e8f52
a passport
333
False
When someone has an Australian visa and they want to travel to Norfolk Island, where must they depart?
5726bff8dd62a815002e8f53
Australian Migration Zone
495
False
What will happen to travelers with an Australian visa who don't depart from the Australian Migration Zone?
5726bff8dd62a815002e8f54
the visa will have ceased
562
False
automatic right of residence
74
What automatic right do Australian citizens and residents lose on Norfolk Island after meeting the criteria in Immigration (Amendment No. 2) Act 2012?
5a81c62831013a001a334e8d
True
either a passport or a Document of Identity
219
What do Australian citizens need in order to talk about Norfolk Island?
5a81c62831013a001a334e8e
True
a passport
333
What do citizens from other nations need in order to talk about Norfolk Island?
5a81c62831013a001a334e8f
True
Australian Migration Zone
495
When someone has an American visa and they want to travel to Norfolk Island, where must they depart?
5a81c62831013a001a334e90
True
the visa will have ceased
562
What will happen to travelers with an American visa who don't depart from the Australian Migration Zone?
5a81c62831013a001a334e91
True
Australian citizens and residents from other parts of the nation now have automatic right of residence on the island after meeting these criteria (Immigration (Amendment No. 2) Act 2012). Australian citizens must carry either a passport or a Document of Identity to travel to Norfolk Island. Citizens of all other nations must carry a passport to travel to Norfolk Island even if arriving from other parts of Australia. Holders of Australian visas who travel to Norfolk Island have departed the Australian Migration Zone. Unless they hold a multiple-entry visa, the visa will have ceased; in which case they will require another visa to re-enter mainland Australia.
What Act declares Non-Australian residents "outside of Australia" while they are on Norfolk Island?
5726c19ff1498d1400e8ea58
the Migration Act
172
False
What does a Non-Australian citizen who is a resident need to return from Norfolk Island to the mainland?
5726c19ff1498d1400e8ea59
a still-valid migrant visa or Resident return visa
231
False
As far as Australian nationality law goes, Norfolk Island is considered a part of what?
5726c19ff1498d1400e8ea5a
Australia
582
False
According to Australian nationality law, time spent by a permanent Australian resident on Norfolk Island will do what?
5726c19ff1498d1400e8ea5b
count as time spent in Australia
671
False
the Migration Act
172
What Act declares Non-Australian residents "inside of Australia" while they are on Norfolk Island?
5a81c6d231013a001a334e97
True
a still-valid migrant visa or Resident return visa
231
What does a Non-American citizen who is a resident need to return from Norfolk Island to the mainland?
5a81c6d231013a001a334e98
True
Australia
582
What is Norfolk Island considered separate from as far as Australian nationality law goes?
5a81c6d231013a001a334e99
True
Norfolk Island
554
What island is no longer considered part of Australia?
5a81c6d231013a001a334e9a
True
Non-Australian citizens who are Australian permanent residents should be aware that during their stay on Norfolk Island they are "outside of Australia" for the purposes of the Migration Act. This means that not only will they need a still-valid migrant visa or Resident return visa to return from Norfolk Island to the mainland, but also the time spent in Norfolk Island will not be counted for satisfying the residence requirement for obtaining a Resident return visa in the future. On the other hand, as far as Australian nationality law is concerned, Norfolk Island is a part of Australia, and any time spent by an Australian permanent resident on Norfolk Island will count as time spent in Australia for the purpose of applying for Australian citizenship.
What is the name of the only medical center on Norfolk Island?
5726c314708984140094d0c5
Norfolk Island Hospital
0
False
What are visitors of Norfolk Island recommended to purchase?
5726c314708984140094d0c6
travel insurance
226
False
Where are Norfolk Island patients who need serious treatment flown to?
5726c314708984140094d0c7
mainland Australia
397
False
Who handles serious medical emergencies on Norfolk Island?
5726c314708984140094d0c8
the Royal Australian Air Force
535
False
Who staffs the one ambulance available on Norfolk Island?
5726c314708984140094d0c9
St John Ambulance Australia volunteers
607
False
Norfolk Island Hospital
0
What is one of many medical centers on Norfolk Island?
5a81c7aa31013a001a334e9f
True
travel insurance
226
What are visitors of Norfolk Island recommended to sell?
5a81c7aa31013a001a334ea0
True
mainland Australia
397
Where are Norfolk Island patients who need serious treatment imprisoned?
5a81c7aa31013a001a334ea1
True
the Royal Australian Air Force
535
Who handles non-serious medical emergencies on Norfolk Island?
5a81c7aa31013a001a334ea2
True
St John Ambulance Australia volunteers
607
Who broke the one ambulance available on Norfolk Island?
5a81c7aa31013a001a334ea3
True
Norfolk Island Hospital is the only medical centre on the island. Medicare and the Pharmaceutical Benefits Scheme do not cover Norfolk Island. All visitors to Norfolk Island, including Australians, are recommended to purchase travel insurance. Although the hospital can perform minor surgery, serious medical conditions are not permitted to be treated on the island and patients are flown back to mainland Australia. Air charter transport can cost in the order of A$30,000. For serious emergencies, medical evacuations are provided by the Royal Australian Air Force. The island has one ambulance staffed by St John Ambulance Australia volunteers.
What services do Norfolk Island residents believe should be made available from the Norfolk Island's EEZ profit?
5726c566708984140094d103
health and infrastructure
388
False
What is Norfolk Island's only major natural resource?
5726c566708984140094d104
fish
622
False
What is the name of the area residents of Norfolk Island are permitted to fish recreationally?
5726c566708984140094d105
the Box
897
False
What is speculated to be available in Norfolk Island's EEZ zone?
5726c566708984140094d106
oil and gas deposits
960
False
What percentage of Norfolk Island is a permanent pasture?
5726c566708984140094d107
25
1071
False
health and infrastructure
388
What services do Norfolk Island residents believe should be made unavailable from the Norfolk Island's EEZ profit?
5a81c83931013a001a334ea9
True
fish
622
What is Norfolk Island's only resource?
5a81c83931013a001a334eaa
True
the Box
897
What is the name of the area residents of Norfolk Island are permitted to fish illegally?
5a81c83931013a001a334eab
True
oil and gas deposits
960
What is speculated to be forbidden in Norfolk Island's EEZ zone?
5a81c83931013a001a334eac
True
25
1071
What percentage of Norfolk Island is no longer a permanent pasture?
5a81c83931013a001a334ead
True
The Australian government controls the exclusive economic zone (EEZ) and revenue from it extending 200 nautical miles (370 km) around Norfolk Island (roughly 428,000km2) and territorial sea claims to three nautical miles (6 km) from the island. There is a strong belief on the island that some of the revenue generated from Norfolk's EEZ should be available to providing services such as health and infrastructure on the island, which the island has been responsible for, similar to how the Northern Territory is able to access revenue from their mineral resources. The exclusive economic zone provides the islanders with fish, its only major natural resource. Norfolk Island has no direct control over any marine areas but has an agreement with the Commonwealth through the Australian Fisheries Management Authority (AFMA) to fish "recreationally" in a small section of the EEZ known locally as "the Box". While there is speculation that the zone may include oil and gas deposits, this is not proven. There are no major arable lands or permanent farmlands, though about 25 per cent of the island is a permanent pasture. There is no irrigated land. The island uses the Australian dollar as its currency.
Norfolk Island inhabitants and visitors don't pay what?
5726c7305951b619008f7dd3
Australian federal taxes
39
False
Who is the Chief Minister of Norfolk Island?
5726c7305951b619008f7dd4
David Buffett
383
False
What reason did David Buffett give for Norfolk Island surrendering its' tax-free status?
5726c7305951b619008f7dd5
for a financial bailout from the federal government
501
False
When will income tax be introduced on Norfolk Island?
5726c7305951b619008f7dd6
July 1, 2016
646
False
What type of services were Norfolk Island inhabitants unable to receive prior to this announcement?
5726c7305951b619008f7dd7
social
1085
False
Australian federal taxes
39
What do Norfolk Island inhabitants and visitors always pay?
5a81c94f31013a001a334eb3
True
David Buffett
383
Who is the Chief Master of Norfolk Island?
5a81c94f31013a001a334eb4
True
for a financial bailout from the federal government
501
What reason did David Buffett give for Norfolk Island keeping its' tax-free status?
5a81c94f31013a001a334eb5
True
July 1, 2016
646
When will income tax be removed by Norfolk Island?
5a81c94f31013a001a334eb6
True
social
1085
What type of services were Norfolk Island inhabitants unable to receive after this announcement?
5a81c94f31013a001a334eb7
True
Residents of Norfolk Island do not pay Australian federal taxes, creating a tax haven for locals and visitors alike. Because there is no income tax, the island's legislative assembly raises money through an import duty, fuel levy, medicare levy, GST of 12% and local/international phone calls. In a move that apparently surprised many islanders the Chief Minister of Norfolk Island, David Buffett, announced on 6 November 2010 that the island would voluntarily surrender its tax free status in return for a financial bailout from the federal government to cover significant debts. The introduction of income taxation will now come into effect on July 1, 2016, with a variation of opinion on the island about these changes but with many understanding that for the island's governance to continue there is a need to pay into the commonwealth revenue pool so that the island can have assistance in supporting its delivery of State government responsibilities such as health, education, medicare, and infrastructure. Prior to these reforms residents of Norfolk Island were not entitled to social services. It appears that the reforms do extend to companies and trustees and not only individuals.
How many main telephone lines were being used on Norfolk Island, as of 2004?
5726c86bf1498d1400e8eb1e
2532
20
False
How many analog telephone lines were being used on Norfolk Island, as of 2004?
5726c86bf1498d1400e8eb1f
2500
75
False
How many local radio stations does Norfolk Island have?
5726c86bf1498d1400e8eb20
one
181
False
What is the name of Norfolk Island's only TV station?
5726c86bf1498d1400e8eb21
Norfolk TV
311
False
What is Norfolk Island's Internet country code top-level domain?
5726c86bf1498d1400e8eb22
.nf
508
False
2532
20
How many main telephone lines were being stolen on Norfolk Island as of 2004?
5a81ca0831013a001a334ec7
True
2500
75
How many analog telephone lines were being removed on Norfolk Island as of 2004?
5a81ca0831013a001a334ec8
True
one
295
How many local radio stations does Norfolk Island ban?
5a81ca0831013a001a334ec9
True
Norfolk TV
311
What is the name of Norfolk Island's only phone?
5a81ca0831013a001a334eca
True
.nf
508
What is no longer Norfolk Island's Internet country code top-level domain?
5a81ca0831013a001a334ecb
True
As of 2004[update], 2532 telephone main lines are in use, a mix of analog (2500) and digital (32) circuits. Satellite communications services are planned.[citation needed] There is one locally based radio station (Radio Norfolk 89.9FM), broadcasting on both AM and FM frequencies. There is also one TV station, Norfolk TV, featuring local programming, plus transmitters for Australian channels ABC, SBS, Imparja Television and Southern Cross Television. The Internet country code top-level domain (ccTLD) is .nf.
Where are loading jetties found on Norfolk Island?
5726c96bdd62a815002e9034
Kingston and Cascade
98
False
How is a supply ship unloaded when it reaches Norfolk Island?
5726c96bdd62a815002e9035
by whaleboats towed by launches
208
False
What determines the jetty that's used by supply ships to Norfolk Island?
5726c96bdd62a815002e9036
the prevailing weather on the day
295
False
Where can you find the often-used jetty on Norfolk Island?
5726c96bdd62a815002e9037
on the leeward side of the island
340
False
Who can usually be found watching supply ships unload at Norfolk Island?
5726c96bdd62a815002e9038
Visitors
494
False
Kingston and Cascade
98
Where are loading jetties crashed on Norfolk Island?
5a81ca8131013a001a334ed1
True
by whaleboats towed by launches
208
How is a supply ship flying when it reaches Norfolk Island?
5a81ca8131013a001a334ed2
True
the prevailing weather on the day
295
What has no influence on the jetty that's used by supply ships to Norfolk Island?
5a81ca8131013a001a334ed3
True
on the leeward side of the island
340
Where can you find the rarely-used jetty on Norfolk Island?
5a81ca8131013a001a334ed4
True
Visitors
494
Who can never be found watching supply ships unload at Norfolk Island?
5a81ca8131013a001a334ed5
True
There are no railways, waterways, ports or harbours on the island. Loading jetties are located at Kingston and Cascade, but ships cannot get close to either of them. When a supply ship arrives, it is emptied by whaleboats towed by launches, five tonnes at a time. Which jetty is used depends on the prevailing weather on the day. The jetty on the leeward side of the island is often used. If the wind changes significantly during unloading/loading, the ship will move around to the other side. Visitors often gather to watch the activity when a supply ship arrives.
Edmund_Burke
Where was Burke born?
572699c4dd62a815002e8ab2
Dublin, Ireland
18
False
What was Burke's mother's maiden name?
572699c4dd62a815002e8ab3
Nagle
55
False
When did Burke's mother die?
572699c4dd62a815002e8ab4
1770
72
False
When did Burke's father die?
572699c4dd62a815002e8ab5
1761
233
False
When did Burke's ancestors arrive in Ireland?
572699c4dd62a815002e8ab6
1185
492
False
Dublin, Ireland
18
What city was Mary nee Nagle born in?
5ad0b1c6645df0001a2d0084
True
1702
65
When was Richard Burke born?
5ad0b1c6645df0001a2d0085
True
Burgo
459
What is the latinised form of the last name Burke?
5ad0b1c6645df0001a2d0086
True
1171
529
When did Henry II invade England?
5ad0b1c6645df0001a2d0087
True
Richard Burke
323
Who converted into Catholicism?
5ad0b1c6645df0001a2d0088
True
Burke was born in Dublin, Ireland. His mother Mary née Nagle (c. 1702 – 1770) was a Roman Catholic who hailed from a déclassé County Cork family (and a cousin of Nano Nagle), whereas his father, a successful solicitor, Richard (died 1761), was a member of the Church of Ireland; it remains unclear whether this is the same Richard Burke who converted from Catholicism. The Burke dynasty descends from an Anglo-Norman knight surnamed de Burgh (latinised as de Burgo) who arrived in Ireland in 1185 following Henry II of England's 1171 invasion of Ireland.
When did Burke begin attending Trinity College Dublin?
57269f33dd62a815002e8b3a
1744
3
False
What type of people did Trinity College Dublin not allow to earn degrees there?
57269f33dd62a815002e8b3b
Catholics
114
False
When did Edmund Burke start a debate club?
57269f33dd62a815002e8b3c
1747
144
False
What club did Edmund Burke's debate club merge with in 1770?
57269f33dd62a815002e8b3d
TCD's Historical Club
231
False
When did Edmund Burke graduate?
57269f33dd62a815002e8b3e
1748
474
False
1744
3
When was Trinity College Dublin established?
5ad0b25f645df0001a2d0098
True
1793
93
In what year did Trinity College ban Catholics?
5ad0b25f645df0001a2d0099
True
TCD's Historical Club
231
Who did Edmund Burke's Club split from?
5ad0b25f645df0001a2d009a
True
Catholics
114
What group of people did Middle Temple refuse to grant degrees to?
5ad0b25f645df0001a2d009b
True
1750
562
What year did Burke abandon law?
5ad0b25f645df0001a2d009c
True
In 1744, Burke started at Trinity College Dublin, a Protestant establishment, which up until 1793, did not permit Catholics to take degrees. In 1747, he set up a debating society, "Edmund Burke's Club", which, in 1770, merged with TCD's Historical Club to form the College Historical Society; it is the oldest undergraduate society in the world. The minutes of the meetings of Burke's Club remain in the collection of the Historical Society. Burke graduated from Trinity in 1748. Burke's father wanted him to read Law, and with this in mind he went to London in 1750, where he entered the Middle Temple, before soon giving up legal study to travel in Continental Europe. After eschewing the Law, he pursued a livelihood through writing.
Which bishop didn't realize the satirical nature of Burke's book?
57269fcddd62a815002e8b4e
Bishop Warburton
149
False
Which lord didn't realize the satirical nature of Burke's book?
57269fcddd62a815002e8b4f
Lord Chesterfield
127
False
When was the 2nd edition of Burke's book published?
57269fcddd62a815002e8b50
1757
501
False
Where did Burke make it clear that his book was a satire?
57269fcddd62a815002e8b51
in the preface to the second edition
463
False
revealed religion
51
What did Bolingbroke argue for?
5ad0b346645df0001a2d00ca
True
all social and civil institutions
84
What did Lord Chesterfield believe Bolingbroke's arguments could also apply to?
5ad0b346645df0001a2d00cb
True
Burke's quality of writing
345
What did critics particularly protest of Burke's work?
5ad0b346645df0001a2d00cc
True
that it was a satire
507
What did Burke note in the preface of the first edition of the book?
5ad0b346645df0001a2d00cd
True
Warburton
156
Which bishop wrote the preface for Burke's book?
5ad0b346645df0001a2d00ce
True
Burke claimed that Bolingbroke's arguments against revealed religion could apply to all social and civil institutions as well. Lord Chesterfield and Bishop Warburton (and others) initially thought that the work was genuinely by Bolingbroke rather than a satire. All the reviews of the work were positive, with critics especially appreciative of Burke's quality of writing. Some reviewers failed to notice the ironic nature of the book, which led to Burke stating in the preface to the second edition (1757) that it was a satire.
Who thought that Burke's imitation was too perfect to be effective ridicule?
5726a0ccdd62a815002e8b68
Richard Hurd
0
False
Why did a few scholars think Burke hadn't intended his book as a satire yet later claimed it was a satire?
5726a0ccdd62a815002e8b69
political reasons
554
False
Whose principles did Burke imitate?
5726a0ccdd62a815002e8b6a
L. Bol.
304
False
Burke's imitation
27
What did Richard Hurd claim made Burke's satire perfect?
5ad0b3fb645df0001a2d00de
True
Richard Hurd
0
What is the name of one of the scholars who believe Burke wrote the Vindication in earnest?
5ad0b3fb645df0001a2d00df
True
Vindication
217
What is the name of the book Richard Hurd wrote?
5ad0b3fb645df0001a2d00e0
True
political reasons
554
Why did Hurd believe Burke's imitation was near perfect?
5ad0b3fb645df0001a2d00e1
True
Burke's
27
Whose principles did L. Bol imitate?
5ad0b3fb645df0001a2d00e2
True
Richard Hurd believed that Burke's imitation was near-perfect and that this defeated his purpose: an ironist "should take care by a constant exaggeration to make the ridicule shine through the Imitation. Whereas this Vindication is everywhere enforc'd, not only in the language, and on the principles of L. Bol., but with so apparent, or rather so real an earnestness, that half his purpose is sacrificed to the other". A minority of scholars have taken the position that, in fact, Burke did write the Vindication in earnest, later disowning it only for political reasons.
When did Burke sign a contract for a history of England?
5726a1575951b619008f7843
25 February 1757
3
False
How many words long was Burke's history of England contracted to be?
5726a1575951b619008f7844
nearly 400,000
218
False
How many pages long was Burke's history of England contracted to be?
5726a1575951b619008f7845
640 pages
206
False
When was Burke's history of England published?
5726a1575951b619008f7846
1812
422
False
Which author's history of England being published before Burke's might have dissuaded Burke from continuing his?
5726a1575951b619008f7847
David Hume
707
False
An Essay Towards an Abridgement of the English History
461
What is the name of David Hume's history?
5ad0b4c1645df0001a2d00fc
True
G. M. Young
517
What critic praised the Frenchness of Burke's text?
5ad0b4c1645df0001a2d00fd
True
1812
422
When was Hume's history of England published?
5ad0b4c1645df0001a2d00fe
True
eighty quarto sheets (640 pages)
184
How long was the book Robert Dodsley wrote?
5ad0b4c1645df0001a2d00ff
True
400,000
225
How many words was Lord Acton's commentary?
5ad0b4c1645df0001a2d0100
True
On 25 February 1757, Burke signed a contract with Robert Dodsley to write a "history of England from the time of Julius Caesar to the end of the reign of Queen Anne", its length being eighty quarto sheets (640 pages), nearly 400,000 words. It was to be submitted for publication by Christmas 1758. Burke completed the work to the year 1216 and stopped; it was not published until after Burke's death, being included in an 1812 collection of his works, entitled An Essay Towards an Abridgement of the English History. G. M. Young did not value Burke's history and claimed that it was "demonstrably a translation from the French". Lord Acton, on commenting on the story that Burke stopped his history because David Hume published his, said "it is ever to be regretted that the reverse did not occur".
What publication did Burke found?
5726a1d5708984140094cc63
Annual Register
85
False
The Annual Register covered international events of what type?
5726a1d5708984140094cc64
political
169
False
Burke was the only known writer for the Register until what year?
5726a1d5708984140094cc65
1766
595
False
Burke was the chief editor for the Register until at least what year?
5726a1d5708984140094cc66
1789
518
False
Who wrote a biography of Burke?
5726a1d5708984140094cc67
Philip Magnus
379
False
Annual Register
85
What was founded the year before the contract?
5ad0b591645df0001a2d0106
True
Robert Murray
308
Whose biography did Burke write?
5ad0b591645df0001a2d0107
True
1789
518
When did Burke become the chief editor?
5ad0b591645df0001a2d0108
True
Philip Magnus
379
Who wrote Dodsley's biography?
5ad0b591645df0001a2d0109
True
1766
595
Dodsley was the only writer for the register until what year?
5ad0b591645df0001a2d010a
True
During the year following that contract, with Dodsley, Burke founded the influential Annual Register, a publication in which various authors evaluated the international political events of the previous year. The extent to which Burke contributed to the Annual Register is unclear: in his biography of Burke, Robert Murray quotes the Register as evidence of Burke's opinions, yet Philip Magnus in his biography does not cite it directly as a reference. Burke remained the chief editor of the publication until at least 1789 and there is no evidence that any other writer contributed to it before 1766.
What was William Gerard Hamilton's nickname?
5726a292dd62a815002e8b94
Single-speech Hamilton
84
False
Who was William Gerard Hamilton's private secretary?
5726a292dd62a815002e8b95
Burke
167
False
When did Burke become the Prime Minister's private secretary?
5726a292dd62a815002e8b96
1765
264
False
Who invited Burke to join the Freemasons?
5726a292dd62a815002e8b97
Charles, Marquess of Rockingham
331
False
What political party was Charles, Marquess of Rockingham in?
5726a292dd62a815002e8b98
Whig
315
False
Single-speech Hamilton
84
What was Burke's nickname?
5ad0b5fc645df0001a2d0110
True
William Gerard Hamilton
49
Who was Burke's secretary?
5ad0b5fc645df0001a2d0111
True
Ireland
158
What country was Burke the Chief Secretary for?
5ad0b5fc645df0001a2d0112
True
1765
264
What year did Burke go with Hamilton to Dublin?
5ad0b5fc645df0001a2d0113
True
1782
478
When did Hamilton die?
5ad0b5fc645df0001a2d0114
True
At about this same time, Burke was introduced to William Gerard Hamilton (known as "Single-speech Hamilton"). When Hamilton was appointed Chief Secretary for Ireland, Burke accompanied him to Dublin as his private secretary, a position he held for three years. In 1765 Burke became private secretary to the liberal Whig statesman, Charles, Marquess of Rockingham, then Prime Minister of Great Britain, who remained Burke's close friend and associate until his untimely death in 1782. Rockingham also introduced Burke as a Freemason.
Who did Burke want constitutional limits on the power of?
5726a354f1498d1400e8e5a6
the king
106
False
What type of institution did Burke think could offer opposition to abuses of power?
5726a354f1498d1400e8e5a7
political parties
188
False
What type of group were the "king's friends"?
5726a354f1498d1400e8e5a8
neo-Tory
546
False
What was Burke's most important publication about limiting royal power?
5726a354f1498d1400e8e5a9
Thoughts on the Cause of the Present Discontents of 23 April 1770
399
False
Burke
0
Who wanted to limit the powers of the political parties?
5ad0b6cb645df0001a2d012e
True
Thoughts on the Cause of the Present Discontents
399
What was the name of the paper the neo-Tories published?
5ad0b6cb645df0001a2d012f
True
23 April 1770
451
When did Burke take the leading role in the debate?
5ad0b6cb645df0001a2d0130
True
a neo-Tory group
544
What party did Burke believe would have strong principles?
5ad0b6cb645df0001a2d0131
True
king's friends
582
What were Burke and his friends nicknamed?
5ad0b6cb645df0001a2d0132
True
Burke took a leading role in the debate regarding the constitutional limits to the executive authority of the king. He argued strongly against unrestrained royal power and for the role of political parties in maintaining a principled opposition capable of preventing abuses, either by the monarch, or by specific factions within the government. His most important publication in this regard was his Thoughts on the Cause of the Present Discontents of 23 April 1770. Burke identified the "discontents" as stemming from the "secret influence" of a neo-Tory group he labelled as, the "king's friends", whose system "comprehending the exterior and interior administrations, is commonly called, in the technical language of the Court, Double Cabinet". Britain needed a party with "an unshaken adherence to principle, and attachment to connexion, against every allurement of interest". Party divisions "whether operating for good or evil, are things inseparable from free government".
What country did Burke propose restricting trade with?
5726a3d15951b619008f78ad
Ireland
201
False
What city did Burke represent in parliament?
5726a3d15951b619008f78ae
Bristol
146
False
When did Burke make a motion to restrict Irish trade?
5726a3d15951b619008f78af
May 1778
3
False
What was Bristol's most important industry?
5726a3d15951b619008f78b0
trading
130
False
Ireland
201
What country did Burke wish to decrease trade with?
5ad0b7c0645df0001a2d014c
True
Bristol
146
What city supported Burke's decisions?
5ad0b7c0645df0001a2d014d
True
May 1778
3
When was trade with Ireland originally restricted?
5ad0b7c0645df0001a2d014e
True
his judgment assured him they were wrong
502
Why did Burke say he acquiesced to his constituents?
5ad0b7c0645df0001a2d014f
True
In May 1778, Burke supported a parliamentary motion revising restrictions on Irish trade. His constituents, citizens of the great trading city of Bristol, however urged Burke to oppose free trade with Ireland. Burke resisted their protestations and said: "If, from this conduct, I shall forfeit their suffrages at an ensuing election, it will stand on record an example to future representatives of the Commons of England, that one man at least had dared to resist the desires of his constituents when his judgment assured him they were wrong".
Where was Burke worried Britain might not win a war?
5726a499f1498d1400e8e5cc
America
496
False
How many reasons against violence did Burke present?
5726a499f1498d1400e8e5cd
four
97
False
How far away was the potential conflict Burke argued against?
5726a499f1498d1400e8e5ce
thousands of miles
1115
False
What area could the American colonists retreat to?
5726a499f1498d1400e8e5cf
the mountains
802
False
America
496
Who did Burke think Britain could beat at war?
5ad0b86a645df0001a2d015e
True
armament
509
What did Burke say was a victory?
5ad0b86a645df0001a2d015f
True
four
97
How many reasons in favor of the use of force did Burke present?
5ad0b86a645df0001a2d0160
True
scorched earth war
659
What type of war did Burke endorse for the government?
5ad0b86a645df0001a2d0161
True
mountains
806
What geographical feature would prevent the Americans from retreating?
5ad0b86a645df0001a2d0162
True
Burke was not merely presenting a peace agreement to Parliament; rather, he stepped forward with four reasons against using force, carefully reasoned. He laid out his objections in an orderly manner, focusing on one before moving to the next. His first concern was that the use of force would have to be temporary, and that the uprisings and objections to British governance in America would not be. Second, Burke worried about the uncertainty surrounding whether Britain would win a conflict in America. "An armament", Burke said, "is not a victory". Third, Burke brought up the issue of impairment; it would do the British Government no good to engage in a scorched earth war and have the object they desired (America) become damaged or even useless. The American colonists could always retreat into the mountains, but the land they left behind would most likely be unusable, whether by accident or design. The fourth and final reason to avoid the use of force was experience; the British had never attempted to rein in an unruly colony by force, and they did not know if it could be done, let alone accomplished thousands of miles away from home. Not only were all of these concerns reasonable, but some turned out to be prophetic – the American colonists did not surrender, even when things looked extremely bleak, and the British were ultimately unsuccessful in their attempts to win a war fought on American soil.
When did Lord Bathurst die?
5726a5975951b619008f78e7
1775
92
False
When did an angel supposedly speak to Bathurst?
5726a5975951b619008f78e8
1704
127
False
What political position did Samuel Johnson say would soon poison America?
5726a5975951b619008f78e9
Whiggism
642
False
When was Lord Bathurst born?
5726a5975951b619008f78ea
1684
87
False
In Samuel Johnson's writing, who appeared to a Whig?
5726a5975951b619008f78eb
the devil
575
False
the future greatness of England and also of America
156
What did Bathurst prophesy?
5ad0bf7c645df0001a2d01a8
True
1775
92
When did Samuel Johnson die?
5ad0bf7c645df0001a2d01a9
True
an angel
115
What mythical creature prophesied to Burke?
5ad0bf7c645df0001a2d01aa
True
Samuel Johnson
473
Who was impressed by Bathurst's prophesy?
5ad0bf7c645df0001a2d01ab
True
Whiggism
642
What political party did Johnson claim the angel represented?
5ad0bf7c645df0001a2d01ac
True
Among the reasons this speech was so greatly admired was its passage on Lord Bathurst (1684–1775); Burke describes an angel in 1704 prophesying to Bathurst the future greatness of England and also of America: "Young man, There is America – which at this day serves little more than to amuse you with stories of savage men, and uncouth manners; yet shall, before you taste of death, shew itself equal to the whole of that commerce which now attracts the envy of the world". Samuel Johnson was so irritated at hearing it continually praised, that he made a parody of it, where the devil appears to a young Whig and predicts that in short time, Whiggism will poison even the paradise of America!
When did Lord North take office?
5726a652f1498d1400e8e618
1770
34
False
When did Lord North leave office?
5726a652f1498d1400e8e619
1782
39
False
Which victories against the Americans did the British celebrate?
5726a652f1498d1400e8e61a
New York and Pennsylvania
288
False
How did Burke feel about the British celebrating victories against the Americans?
5726a652f1498d1400e8e61b
appalled
218
False
When was the American Declaration of Independence issued?
5726a652f1498d1400e8e61c
1776
155
False
1770
34
When was Lord North born?
5ad0c060645df0001a2d01c6
True
appalled
218
How did Lord North feel about the British celebrations?
5ad0c060645df0001a2d01c7
True
New York and Pennsylvania
288
What states were the Americans victorious over Britain in?
5ad0c060645df0001a2d01c8
True
English national character
330
What did Burke claim authoritarianism was being changed by?
5ad0c060645df0001a2d01c9
True
American Declaration of Independence
170
What was published in 1775?
5ad0c060645df0001a2d01ca
True
The administration of Lord North (1770–1782) tried to defeat the colonist rebellion by military force. British and American forces clashed in 1775 and, in 1776, came the American Declaration of Independence. Burke was appalled by celebrations in Britain of the defeat of the Americans at New York and Pennsylvania. He claimed the English national character was being changed by this authoritarianism. Burke wrote: "As to the good people of England, they seem to partake every day more and more of the Character of that administration which they have been induced to tolerate. I am satisfied, that within a few years there has been a great Change in the National Character. We seem no longer that eager, inquisitive, jealous, fiery people, which we have been formerly".
Where had Paymasters been able to get money from directly until 1782?
5726a714dd62a815002e8c12
HM Treasury
130
False
After 1782, where would money from Paymasters' withdrawal requests go?
5726a714dd62a815002e8c13
the Bank of England
257
False
Whose administration repealed the Paymaster General Act?
5726a714dd62a815002e8c14
Shelburne
446
False
When was the Paymaster General Act passed?
5726a714dd62a815002e8c15
1782
26
False
1782
26
When did Paymasters begin to get money directly from the HM treasury?
5ad0c287645df0001a2d0214
True
Paymasters
83
Who could no longer make withdrawal requests to the Bank of England after 1782?
5ad0c287645df0001a2d0215
True
monthly
362
How often could paymasters make withdrawals?
5ad0c287645df0001a2d0216
True
Shelburne's
446
Which administration proposed the Paymaster act?
5ad0c287645df0001a2d0217
True
HM Treasury
130
The Paymaster Act allowed Paymasters to withdraw funds from what source at their own discretion?
5ad0c287645df0001a2d0218
True
The Paymaster General Act 1782 ended the post as a lucrative sinecure. Previously, Paymasters had been able to draw on money from HM Treasury at their discretion. Now they were required to put the money they had requested to withdraw from the Treasury into the Bank of England, from where it was to be withdrawn for specific purposes. The Treasury would receive monthly statements of the Paymaster's balance at the Bank. This act was repealed by Shelburne's administration, but the act that replaced it repeated verbatim almost the whole text of the Burke Act.
What type of government did Burke think would be inept?
5726a7965951b619008f793d
democratic
142
False
For how many reasons did Burke oppose democracy?
5726a7965951b619008f793e
three
257
False
What did Burke think could arouse common people's dangerous passions?
5726a7965951b619008f793f
demagogues
538
False
What type of impulses did Burke think could gain power through commoners' passions?
5726a7965951b619008f7940
authoritarian
569
False
Who did Burke think protected unpopular minorities?
5726a7965951b619008f7941
the upper classes
861
False
democracy
44
What type of government system did Burke favor?
5ad0c36a645df0001a2d023c
True
three
257
How many reasons did Burke present for the intelligence of the common people?
5ad0c36a645df0001a2d023d
True
common people
459
What group did Burke believe would instigate passions of demagogues?
5ad0c36a645df0001a2d023e
True
the upper classes
861
Who did Burke say unpopular minorities protected?
5ad0c36a645df0001a2d023f
True
authoritarian impulses
569
What did Burke say established religion undermined?
5ad0c36a645df0001a2d0240
True
Burke was a leading sceptic with respect to democracy. While admitting that theoretically, in some cases it might be desirable, he insisted a democratic government in Britain in his day would not only be inept, but also oppressive. He opposed democracy for three basic reasons. First, government required a degree of intelligence and breadth of knowledge of the sort that occurred rarely among the common people. Second, he thought that if they had the vote, common people had dangerous and angry passions that could be aroused easily by demagogues; he feared that the authoritarian impulses that could be empowered by these passions would undermine cherished traditions and established religion, leading to violence and confiscation of property. Third, Burke warned that democracy would create a tyranny over unpopular minorities, who needed the protection of the upper classes.
When was Warren Hastings impeached?
5726a833708984140094cd11
1786
140
False
Where was Hastings formerly the governor?
5726a833708984140094cd12
Bengal
98
False
How long before Hastings's trial had Britain been dealing with Indian unrest?
5726a833708984140094cd13
two decades
248
False
What was Burke made chairman of in 1781?
5726a833708984140094cd14
the Commons Select Committee on East Indian Affairs
518
False
When Burke said the Indian problems 'began in commerce', where did he say the problems ended in?
5726a833708984140094cd15
empire
1356
False
Warren Hastings
52
Who attempted to impeach Burke?
5ad0c42a645df0001a2d0262
True
1786
140
When was Burke taken to trial?
5ad0c42a645df0001a2d0263
True
Bengal
98
What was Hastings the governor of during his impeachment?
5ad0c42a645df0001a2d0264
True
1781
398
When did the war with Hyder Ali begin?
5ad0c42a645df0001a2d0265
True
HEIC
1098
Who did Burke want Hastings to recall?
5ad0c42a645df0001a2d0266
True
For years Burke pursued impeachment efforts against Warren Hastings, formerly Governor-General of Bengal, that resulted in the trial during 1786. His interaction with the British dominion of India began well before Hastings' impeachment trial. For two decades prior to the impeachment, Parliament had dealt with the Indian issue. This trial was the pinnacle of years of unrest and deliberation. In 1781 Burke was first able to delve into the issues surrounding the East India Company when he was appointed Chairman of the Commons Select Committee on East Indian Affairs—from that point until the end of the trial; India was Burke's primary concern. This committee was charged "to investigate alleged injustices in Bengal, the war with Hyder Ali, and other Indian difficulties". While Burke and the committee focused their attention on these matters, a second 'secret' committee was formed to assess the same issues. Both committee reports were written by Burke. Among other purposes, the reports conveyed to the Indian princes that Britain would not wage war on them, along with demanding that the HEIC recall Hastings. This was Burke's first call for substantive change regarding imperial practices. When addressing the whole House of Commons regarding the committee report, Burke described the Indian issue as one that "began 'in commerce' but 'ended in empire.'"
When did Burke charge Hastings for impeachment?
5726a8d25951b619008f7955
4 April 1786
3
False
What was the impeachment formally called?
5726a8d25951b619008f7956
Article of Charge of High Crimes and Misdemeanors
54
False
Which house acquitted Hastings?
5726a8d25951b619008f7957
House of Lords
870
False
Which house impeached Hastings?
5726a8d25951b619008f7958
House of Commons
800
False
Like what creature did Burke say Hastings was 'devouring the dead'?
5726a8d25951b619008f7959
ravenous vulture
741
False
4 April 1786
3
When did Hastings present his article against Burke?
5ad0c4d2645df0001a2d028a
True
captain-general of iniquity
576
What nickname was Burke given for his emotional indignation?
5ad0c4d2645df0001a2d028b
True
both a 'spider of Hell' and a 'ravenous vulture devouring the carcasses of the dead'.
710
What did the House of Commons compare Hastings to?
5ad0c4d2645df0001a2d028c
True
14 February 1788
185
When did the House of Lords impeach Hastings?
5ad0c4d2645df0001a2d028d
True
House of Lords
870
Which house acquitted Burke?
5ad0c4d2645df0001a2d028e
True
On 4 April 1786, Burke presented the Commons with the Article of Charge of High Crimes and Misdemeanors against Hastings. The impeachment in Westminster Hall, which did not begin until 14 February 1788, would be the "first major public discursive event of its kind in England", bringing the morality and duty of imperialism to the forefront of public perception. Burke already was known for his eloquent rhetorical skills and his involvement in the trial only enhanced its popularity and significance. Burke's indictment, fuelled by emotional indignation, branded Hastings a 'captain-general of iniquity'; who never dined without 'creating a famine'; whose heart was 'gangrened to the core', and who resembled both a 'spider of Hell' and a 'ravenous vulture devouring the carcasses of the dead'. The House of Commons eventually impeached Hastings, but subsequently, the House of Lords acquitted him of all charges.
Who did Parisian women want to return to Paris?
5726a993dd62a815002e8c53
King Louis XVI
564
False
What was Burke's son's name?
5726a993dd62a815002e8c54
Richard Burke
648
False
Who requested that Burke support the French Revolution?
5726a993dd62a815002e8c55
Charles-Jean-François Depont
1046
False
When did Burke first publicly condemn the French Revolution?
5726a993dd62a815002e8c56
9 February 1790
1497
False
the French Revolution
33
What did Burke condemn in August 1789?
5ad0c8c2645df0001a2d031e
True
5–6 October 1789
483
When did Burke march in Versailles?
5ad0c8c2645df0001a2d031f
True
10 October
669
When did Burke write to Laurence?
5ad0c8c2645df0001a2d0320
True
Charles-Jean-François Depont
1046
Who did Burke want to support the revolution?
5ad0c8c2645df0001a2d0321
True
9 February 1790
1497
When did Pitt and Fox officially denounce the revolution?
5ad0c8c2645df0001a2d0322
True
Initially, Burke did not condemn the French Revolution. In a letter of 9 August 1789, Burke wrote: "England gazing with astonishment at a French struggle for Liberty and not knowing whether to blame or to applaud! The thing indeed, though I thought I saw something like it in progress for several years, has still something in it paradoxical and Mysterious. The spirit it is impossible not to admire; but the old Parisian ferocity has broken out in a shocking manner". The events of 5–6 October 1789, when a crowd of Parisian women marched on Versailles to compel King Louis XVI to return to Paris, turned Burke against it. In a letter to his son, Richard Burke, dated 10 October he said: "This day I heard from Laurence who has sent me papers confirming the portentous state of France—where the Elements which compose Human Society seem all to be dissolved, and a world of Monsters to be produced in the place of it—where Mirabeau presides as the Grand Anarch; and the late Grand Monarch makes a figure as ridiculous as pitiable". On 4 November Charles-Jean-François Depont wrote to Burke, requesting that he endorse the Revolution. Burke replied that any critical language of it by him should be taken "as no more than the expression of doubt" but he added: "You may have subverted Monarchy, but not recover'd freedom". In the same month he described France as "a country undone". Burke's first public condemnation of the Revolution occurred on the debate in Parliament on the army estimates on 9 February 1790, provoked by praise of the Revolution by Pitt and Fox:
When did Richard Price give a sermon to the Revolution Society?
5726ab16f1498d1400e8e68c
4 November 1789
58
False
What was the Revolution Society commemorating?
5726ab16f1498d1400e8e68d
the Glorious Revolution of 1688
196
False
Who did Price think should see themselves as citizens of the world?
5726ab16f1498d1400e8e68e
Englishmen
524
False
What philosophy did Price support?
5726ab16f1498d1400e8e68f
universal "Rights of Men"
277
False
A Discourse on the Love of our Country, to the Revolution Society
84
What was the name of Burke's sermon?
5ad0c966645df0001a2d0350
True
1688
223
When was the Revolution Society founded?
5ad0c966645df0001a2d0351
True
as citizens of the world
563
How did Burke say Englishmen should see themselves?
5ad0c966645df0001a2d0352
True
January 1790
3
When did Burke propose the idea of universal rights for men?
5ad0c966645df0001a2d0353
True
4 November 1789
58
When did Price read Burke's sermon?
5ad0c966645df0001a2d0354
True
In January 1790, Burke read Dr. Richard Price's sermon of 4 November 1789 entitled, A Discourse on the Love of our Country, to the Revolution Society. That society had been founded to commemorate the Glorious Revolution of 1688. In this sermon Price espoused the philosophy of universal "Rights of Men". Price argued that love of our country "does not imply any conviction of the superior value of it to other countries, or any particular preference of its laws and constitution of government". Instead, Price asserted that Englishmen should see themselves "more as citizens of the world than as members of any particular community".
Which of Burke's writings was inspired by Price's sermon?
5726aba15951b619008f798f
Reflections on the Revolution in France
89
False
When did Burke publish his Reflections on the Revolution in France?
5726aba15951b619008f7990
1790
145
False
How many copies did Reflections on the Revolution in France sell in 2 months?
5726aba15951b619008f7991
17,500
570
False
Who translated 'Reflections on the Revolution in France' into French?
5726aba15951b619008f7992
Pierre-Gaëton Dupont
665
False
When was the tenth printing of the French translation of 'Reflections on the Revolution in France'?
5726aba15951b619008f7993
June 1791
792
False
Reflections on the Revolution in France
89
What did Price draft after his initial sermon?
5ad0ca13645df0001a2d0364
True
five shillings
420
How much did most pamphlets cost at the time?
5ad0ca13645df0001a2d0365
True
2,500
709
How many copies had sold by June 1791?
5ad0ca13645df0001a2d0366
True
Pierre-Gaëton Dupont
665
Who translated Burke's work from French?
5ad0ca13645df0001a2d0367
True
Reflections on the Revolution in France.
89
What pamphlet was published on 13 February 1790?
5ad0ca13645df0001a2d0368
True
Immediately after reading Price's sermon, Burke wrote a draft of what eventually became, Reflections on the Revolution in France. On 13 February 1790, a notice in the press said that shortly, Burke would publish a pamphlet on the Revolution and its British supporters, however he spent the year revising and expanding it. On 1 November he finally published the Reflections and it was an immediate best-seller. Priced at five shillings, it was more expensive than most political pamphlets, but by the end of 1790, it had gone through ten printings and sold approximately 17,500 copies. A French translation appeared on 29 November and on 30 November the translator, Pierre-Gaëton Dupont, wrote to Burke saying 2,500 copies had already been sold. The French translation ran to ten printings by June 1791.
Who did Burke say we look up to with awe?
5726abf2708984140094cd6d
kings
60
False
Who did Burke say we look to with affection?
5726abf2708984140094cd6e
parliaments
85
False
Who did Burke say we look to with reverence?
5726abf2708984140094cd6f
priests
142
False
How did Burke say we look towards nobility?
5726abf2708984140094cd70
with respect
155
False
How did Burke say we look towards magistrates?
5726abf2708984140094cd71
duty
103
False
social contract theory
756
What theory did Burke praise?
5ad0cac4645df0001a2d0388
True
those who are dead, and those who are to be born
919
Burke claimed that the contract did not affect what groups of people?
5ad0cac4645df0001a2d0389
True
priests
142
Who did Burke say looks to us with reverence?
5ad0cac4645df0001a2d038a
True
magistrates
111
Who did Burke say owes us duty?
5ad0cac4645df0001a2d038b
True
nobility
171
Who did Burke say gives us respect?
5ad0cac4645df0001a2d038c
True
Burke put forward that "We fear God, we look up with awe to kings; with affection to parliaments; with duty to magistrates; with reverence to priests; and with respect to nobility. Why? Because when such ideas are brought before our minds, it is natural to be so affected". Burke defended this prejudice on the grounds that it is "the general bank and capital of nations, and of ages" and superior to individual reason, which is small in comparison. "Prejudice", Burke claimed, "is of ready application in the emergency; it previously engages the mind in a steady course of wisdom and virtue, and does not leave the man hesitating in the moment of decision, skeptical, puzzled, and unresolved. Prejudice renders a man's virtue his habit". Burke criticised social contract theory by claiming that society is indeed, a contract, but "a partnership not only between those who are living, but between those who are living, those who are dead, and those who are to be born".
Who was featured in the most well-known part of Burke's Reflections?
5726ac66dd62a815002e8c96
Marie-Antoinette
117
False
Who said Burke wrote 'pure foppery' about Marie-Antoinette?
5726ac66dd62a815002e8c97
Philip Francis
317
False
Who adored Burke's chivalry?
5726ac66dd62a815002e8c98
Edward Gibbon
413
False
How did Marie-Antoinette react to Burke's writing about her?
5726ac66dd62a815002e8c99
she burst into tears
613
False
pure foppery
398
What did Philip Francis call Marie-Antoinette?
5ad0ce03645df0001a2d0410
True
5–6 October 1789
84
When did Marie-Antoinette read Burke's writings?
5ad0ce03645df0001a2d0411
True
she burst into tears
613
How did Marie-Antoinette react to Edward Gibbon's praise?
5ad0ce03645df0001a2d0412
True
Edward Gibbon
413
Who admired Francis's chivalry?
5ad0ce03645df0001a2d0413
True
Burke
781
Who thought the October Days were a cowardly attack on the Jacobins?
5ad0ce03645df0001a2d0414
True
The most famous passage in Burke's Reflections was his description of the events of 5–6 October 1789 and the part of Marie-Antoinette in them. Burke's account differs little from modern historians who have used primary sources. His use of flowery language to describe it, however, provoked both praise and criticism. Philip Francis wrote to Burke saying that what he wrote of Marie-Antoinette was "pure foppery". Edward Gibbon, however, reacted differently: "I adore his chivalry". Burke was informed by an Englishman who had talked with the Duchesse de Biron, that when Marie-Antoinette was reading the passage, she burst into tears and took considerable time to finish reading it. Price had rejoiced that the French king had been "led in triumph" during the October Days, but to Burke this symbolised the opposing revolutionary sentiment of the Jacobins and the natural sentiments of those who shared his own view with horror—that the ungallant assault on Marie-Antoinette—was a cowardly attack on a defenceless woman.
Who re-translated the Reflections into French?
5726ad5d5951b619008f79e5
Louis XVI
0
False
Which British ministers disagreed with Burke's Reflections?
5726ad5d5951b619008f79e6
Richard Sheridan and Charles James Fox
84
False
What political party was Charles James Fox?
5726ad5d5951b619008f79e7
Whig
75
False
What political party was Earl Fitzwilliam?
5726ad5d5951b619008f79e8
Whigs
258
False
What political party was Richard Sheridan?
5726ad5d5951b619008f79e9
Whig
75
False
Reflections
25
What did Charles James Fox translate?
5ad0d016645df0001a2d04a0
True
Duke of Portland and Earl Fitzwilliam
276
Which Whigs publicly endorsed Burke?
5ad0d016645df0001a2d04a1
True
Fitzwilliam
302
Who was the Duke of Portland?
5ad0d016645df0001a2d04a2
True
29 November 1790
423
When did John Cavendish write to Burke?
5ad0d016645df0001a2d04a3
True
his sons
869
Who did the Duke of Devonshire recommend Reflections to?
5ad0d016645df0001a2d04a4
True
Louis XVI translated the Reflections "from end to end" into French. Fellow Whig MPs Richard Sheridan and Charles James Fox, disagreed with Burke and split with him. Fox thought the Reflections to be "in very bad taste" and "favouring Tory principles". Other Whigs such as the Duke of Portland and Earl Fitzwilliam privately agreed with Burke, but did not wish for a public breach with their Whig colleagues. Burke wrote on 29 November 1790: "I have received from the Duke of Portland, Lord Fitzwilliam, the Duke of Devonshire, Lord John Cavendish, Montagu (Frederick Montagu MP), and a long et cetera of the old Stamina of the Whiggs a most full approbation of the principles of that work and a kind indulgence to the execution". The Duke of Portland said in 1791 that when anyone criticised the Reflections to him, he informed them that he had recommended the book to his sons as containing the true Whig creed.
Who wrote 'The Rights of Man'?
5726adef5951b619008f7a01
Thomas Paine
44
False
Who wrote 'A Vindication of the Rights of Men'?
5726adef5951b619008f7a02
Mary Wollstonecraft
114
False
Who said the Reflections were "the manifesto of a Counter Revolution"?
5726adef5951b619008f7a03
James Mackintosh
183
False
Who did Mackintosh compare Burke to?
5726adef5951b619008f7a04
Lord Bacon and Cicero
712
False
What types of wisdom did Mackintosh say Burke had?
5726adef5951b619008f7a05
political and moral
776
False
1791
85
When did Mary Wollstonecraft publish her response?
5ad0d0e6645df0001a2d04ce
True
December 1796
375
When did Mary meet Burke?
5ad0d0e6645df0001a2d04cf
True
political and moral wisdom
776
What did Mackintosh claim he had more of than any other writer?
5ad0d0e6645df0001a2d04d0
True
Lord Bacon and Cicero
712
Who did Thomas Paine compare Burke to?
5ad0d0e6645df0001a2d04d1
True
the manifesto of a Counter Revolution
278
What did Paine call Reflections?
5ad0d0e6645df0001a2d04d2
True
Burke's Reflections sparked a pamphlet war. Thomas Paine penned the Rights of Man in 1791 as a response to Burke; Mary Wollstonecraft published A Vindication of the Rights of Men and James Mackintosh wrote Vindiciae Gallicae. Mackintosh was the first to see the Reflections as "the manifesto of a Counter Revolution". Mackintosh later agreed with Burke's views, remarking in December 1796 after meeting him, that Burke was "minutely and accurately informed, to a wonderful exactness, with respect to every fact relating to the French Revolution". Mackintosh later said: "Burke was one of the first thinkers as well as one of the greatest orators of his time. He is without parallel in any age, excepting perhaps Lord Bacon and Cicero; and his works contain an ampler store of political and moral wisdom than can be found in any other writer whatever".
Who asked Burke for more "very refreshing mental food"?
5726ae6cf1498d1400e8e710
François-Louis-Thibault de Menonville
18
False
When did Burke release 'A Letter to a Member of the National Assembly'?
5726ae6cf1498d1400e8e711
April 1791
230
False
Which French philosopher did Burke attack?
5726ae6cf1498d1400e8e712
Jean-Jacques Rousseau
419
False
When did Rousseau visit Britain?
5726ae6cf1498d1400e8e713
1766–7
712
False
Who did Rousseau stay with when visiting Britain?
5726ae6cf1498d1400e8e714
David Hume
741
False
the National Assembly of France
69
What was Burke a member of?
5ad0d18a645df0001a2d04f6
True
A Letter to a Member of the National Assembly
259
What did François-Louis-Thibault de Menonville publish in April 1791?
5ad0d18a645df0001a2d04f7
True
April 1791
230
When did Jean-Jacques Rousseau die?
5ad0d18a645df0001a2d04f8
True
considerable insight
587
What did Rousseau say Burke had in regards to understanding human nature?
5ad0d18a645df0001a2d04f9
True
Confessions
993
What vice-filled book did Hume publish?
5ad0d18a645df0001a2d04fa
True
In November 1790, François-Louis-Thibault de Menonville, a member of the National Assembly of France, wrote to Burke, praising Reflections and requesting more "very refreshing mental food" that he could publish. This Burke did in April 1791 when he published A Letter to a Member of the National Assembly. Burke called for external forces to reverse the revolution and included an attack on the late French philosopher Jean-Jacques Rousseau, as being the subject of a personality cult that had developed in revolutionary France. Although Burke conceded that Rousseau sometimes showed "a considerable insight into human nature" he mostly was critical. Although he did not meet Rousseau on his visit to Britain in 1766–7 Burke was a friend of David Hume, with whom Rousseau had stayed. Burke said Rousseau "entertained no principle either to influence of his heart, or to guide his understanding—but vanity"—which he "was possessed to a degree little short of madness". He also cited Rousseau's Confessions as evidence that Rousseau had a life of "obscure and vulgar vices" that was not "chequered, or spotted here and there, with virtues, or even distinguished by a single good action". Burke contrasted Rousseau's theory of universal benevolence and his having sent his children to a foundling hospital: "a lover of his kind, but a hater of his kindred".
Fox praised revolutionary principles in a debate about which country?
5726af1cf1498d1400e8e72e
Russia
202
False
What type of power did Fox think Burke was wrong about?
5726af1cf1498d1400e8e72f
hereditary
546
False
Which constitution did Burke condemn on May 6, 1791?
5726af1cf1498d1400e8e730
French
700
False
Fox quoted Burke's speeches from how long ago?
5726af1cf1498d1400e8e731
fourteen and fifteen years
1395
False
6 May 1791
567
When did Parliament debate the Quebec bill?
5ad0d256645df0001a2d052e
True
Fox
934
Who interrupted Burke?
5ad0d256645df0001a2d052f
True
both rebuking and complimenting
1215
What type of speech did Lord Sheffield give in regards to Burke?
5ad0d256645df0001a2d0530
True
fourteen and fifteen years before
1395
Fox quoted his own speeches from how long ago?
5ad0d256645df0001a2d0531
True
Burke
635
Who condemned the Canadian constitution?
5ad0d256645df0001a2d0532
True
These events and the disagreements that arose from them within the Whig Party, led to its break-up and to the rupture of Burke's friendship with Fox. In debate in Parliament on Britain's relations with Russia, Fox praised the principles of the revolution, although Burke was not able to reply at this time as he was "overpowered by continued cries of question from his own side of the House". When Parliament was debating the Quebec Bill for a constitution for Canada, Fox praised the revolution and criticised some of Burke's arguments, such as hereditary power. On 6 May 1791, during another debate in Parliament on the Quebec Bill, Burke used the opportunity to answer Fox, and to condemn the new French Constitution and "the horrible consequences flowing from the French idea of the Rights of Man". Burke asserted that those ideas were the antithesis of both the British and the American constitutions. Burke was interrupted, and Fox intervened, saying that Burke should be allowed to carry on with his speech. A vote of censure was moved against Burke, however, for noticing the affairs of France, which was moved by Lord Sheffield and seconded by Fox. Pitt made a speech praising Burke, and Fox made a speech—both rebuking and complimenting Burke. He questioned the sincerity of Burke, who seemed to have forgotten the lessons he had learned from him, quoting from Burke's own speeches of fourteen and fifteen years before.
When did Burke leave the Whig party?
5726af88f1498d1400e8e73c
5 June 1791
676
False
Who did Burke turn down money from?
5726af88f1498d1400e8e73d
Fitzwilliam
702
False
What did Burke say 'envenoms everything it touches'?
5726af88f1498d1400e8e73e
French constitution
236
False
Who thought that Fox and Burke could still be friends?
5726af88f1498d1400e8e73f
Fox
15
False
Who thought that Fox and Burke's friendship was lost?
5726af88f1498d1400e8e740
Burke
97
False
Fitzwilliam
702
Who declined taking money from Burke?
5ad0d2fa645df0001a2d056a
True
5 June 1791
676
When did Burke leave the party?
5ad0d2fa645df0001a2d056b
True
Burke
97
Who kept their friend at the cost of their duty?
5ad0d2fa645df0001a2d056c
True
that envenoms every thing it touches
256
What did Fox say about the French constitution?
5ad0d2fa645df0001a2d056d
True
Fox
322
Who overcame his emotions in order to finish his speech?
5ad0d2fa645df0001a2d056e
True
At this point, Fox whispered that there was "no loss of friendship". "I regret to say there is", Burke replied, "I have indeed made a great sacrifice; I have done my duty though I have lost my friend. There is something in the detested French constitution that envenoms every thing it touches". This provoked a reply from Fox, yet he was unable to give his speech for some time since he was overcome with tears and emotion, he appealed to Burke to remember their inalienable friendship, but also repeated his criticisms of Burke and uttered "unusually bitter sarcasms". This only aggravated the rupture between the two men. Burke demonstrated his separation from the party on 5 June 1791 by writing to Fitzwilliam, declining money from him.
What did Burke want the Whigs to condemn?
5726b00ef1498d1400e8e75a
the French Revolution
119
False
What did Burke publish on Aug 3, 1791?
5726b00ef1498d1400e8e75b
Appeal from the New to the Old Whigs
461
False
Burke thought the French Revolution was against whose principles?
5726b00ef1498d1400e8e75c
the Whig party
712
False
Burke attacked Whigs who supported what?
5726b00ef1498d1400e8e75d
the French Revolution
585
False
the French Revolution
119
What did the Whig party want Burke to condemn?
5ad0d39d645df0001a2d05a6
True
Appeal from the New to the Old Whigs
461
What pamphlet did Fox publish in 3 August 1791?
5ad0d39d645df0001a2d05a7
True
3 August 1791
427
When did Burke write that he wanted to represent the whole party?
5ad0d39d645df0001a2d05a8
True
the Whig Party
32
What party did the French Revolution condemn?
5ad0d39d645df0001a2d05a9
True
Fox
61
Burke believe most party member agreed with which opponent?
5ad0d39d645df0001a2d05aa
True
Burke knew that many members of the Whig Party did not share Fox's views and he wanted to provoke them into condemning the French Revolution. Burke wrote that he wanted to represent the whole Whig party "as tolerating, and by a toleration, countenancing those proceedings" so that he could "stimulate them to a public declaration of what every one of their acquaintance privately knows to be...their sentiments". Therefore, on 3 August 1791 Burke published his Appeal from the New to the Old Whigs, in which he renewed his criticism of the radical revolutionary programmes inspired by the French Revolution and attacked the Whigs who supported them, as holding principles contrary to those traditionally held by the Whig party.
Who thought Burke should have written in a more moderate tone?
5726b095f1498d1400e8e77e
Portland and Fitzwilliam
31
False
Who said he 'perfectly differed from Mr. Fox'?
5726b095f1498d1400e8e77f
Francis Basset
237
False
What was Francis Basset's political party?
5726b095f1498d1400e8e780
Whig
265
False
How did Burke think the Whigs secretly felt?
5726b095f1498d1400e8e781
galled
711
False
Who thought Burke and Fox shouldn't have made their argument public?
5726b095f1498d1400e8e782
Charles Burney
872
False
Portland and Fitzwilliam
31
Who did Burke want to use more moderate language?
5ad0d41f645df0001a2d05de
True
a backbench Whig MP,
253
What type of Whig was Fitzwilliam?
5ad0d41f645df0001a2d05df
True
Francis Basset
237
Who claimed to be similar to Mr. Fox?
5ad0d41f645df0001a2d05e0
True
the king
514
Who did Basset send a copy of his letter to?
5ad0d41f645df0001a2d05e1
True
Charles Burney
872
Who wanted the argument to go public?
5ad0d41f645df0001a2d05e2
True
Although Whig grandees such as Portland and Fitzwilliam privately agreed with Burke's Appeal, they wished he had used more moderate language. Fitzwilliam saw the Appeal as containing "the doctrines I have sworn by, long and long since". Francis Basset, a backbench Whig MP, wrote to Burke: "...though for reasons which I will not now detail I did not then deliver my sentiments, I most perfectly differ from Mr. Fox & from the great Body of opposition on the French Revolution". Burke sent a copy of the Appeal to the king and the king requested a friend to communicate to Burke that he had read it "with great Satisfaction". Burke wrote of its reception: "Not one word from one of our party. They are secretly galled. They agree with me to a title; but they dare not speak out for fear of hurting Fox. ... They leave me to myself; they see that I can do myself justice". Charles Burney viewed it as "a most admirable book—the best & most useful on political subjects that I have ever seen" but believed the differences in the Whig Party between Burke and Fox should not be aired publicly.
Who did Burke write to on Nov 4, 1793?
5726b119708984140094cdfd
William Windham
300
False
Which faction's uprising in La Vendee did Burke support?
5726b119708984140094cdfe
royalist
220
False
Who did Burke urge to send reinforcements to La Vendee?
5726b119708984140094cdff
Henry Dundas
375
False
Where did Burke think La Vendee might lead to a march on?
5726b119708984140094ce00
Paris
519
False
What did Burke support Britain fighting against?
5726b119708984140094ce01
revolutionary France
32
False
William Windham
300
Who wrote to Burke on Nov 4, 1793?
5ad0d656645df0001a2d0654
True
royalist
220
What faction was Burke opposed to in La Vendée?
5ad0d656645df0001a2d0655
True
7 October
391
When did Henry Dundas write to Burke?
5ad0d656645df0001a2d0656
True
Burke's
548
Whose advice did Dundas heed?
5ad0d656645df0001a2d0657
True
France
187
Burke considered supporting the war against the revolution as being against which nation?
5ad0d656645df0001a2d0658
True
Burke supported the war against revolutionary France, seeing Britain as fighting on the side of the royalists and émigres in a civil war, rather than fighting against the whole nation of France. Burke also supported the royalist uprising in La Vendée, describing it on 4 November 1793 in a letter to William Windham, as "the sole affair I have much heart in". Burke wrote to Henry Dundas on 7 October urging him to send reinforcements there, as he viewed it as the only theatre in the war that might lead to a march on Paris. Dundas did not follow Burke's advice, however.
When did Prince Charles write to Burke?
5726b1c0708984140094ce0f
23 October
190
False
How many foreign supporters did Burke think a French royalist was worth?
5726b1c0708984140094ce10
twenty
593
False
What did Burke see as proof of the importance of French royalists?
5726b1c0708984140094ce11
La Vendée
612
False
What country was Prince Charles part of the ruling family of?
5726b1c0708984140094ce12
France
149
False
In what writing did Burke comment about the importance of La Vendee?
5726b1c0708984140094ce13
Remarks on the Policy of the Allies with Respect to France
411
False
the Government
15
Who thought Burke was not taking the uprising seriously?
5ad0d86b645df0001a2d0694
True
one
570
How many foreigners did Burke say twenty Frenchman were worth?
5ad0d86b645df0001a2d0695
True
La Vendée
612
What region did Prince Charles use to back up his points?
5ad0d86b645df0001a2d0696
True
6 November
306
When did Burke enter His Majesty's Service?
5ad0d86b645df0001a2d0697
True
Prince Charles of France
131
Who told Burke Frenchman were worth more than foreigners?
5ad0d86b645df0001a2d0698
True
Burke believed the Government was not taking the uprising seriously enough, a view reinforced by a letter he had received from the Prince Charles of France (S.A.R. le comte d'Artois), dated 23 October, requesting that he intercede on behalf of the royalists to the Government. Burke was forced to reply on 6 November: "I am not in His Majesty's Service; or at all consulted in his Affairs". Burke published his Remarks on the Policy of the Allies with Respect to France, begun in October, where he said: "I am sure every thing has shewn us that in this war with France, one Frenchman is worth twenty foreigners. La Vendée is a proof of this".
When did Burke receive a vote of thanks?
5726b27add62a815002e8d2e
20 June 1794
3
False
When did Burke's son die?
5726b27add62a815002e8d2f
August 1794
236
False
What did King George III want to make Burke an Earl of?
5726b27add62a815002e8d30
Beaconsfield
664
False
How much money did Burke accept instead of the Earlship?
5726b27add62a815002e8d31
£2,500
822
False
Who attacked Burke for receiving recognition from King George III?
5726b27add62a815002e8d32
Duke of Bedford and the Earl of Lauderdale
874
False
20 June 1794
3
When did Burke submit a vote of thanks?
5ad0df02645df0001a2d0742
True
the Commons
54
Who did Burke thank in June 1794?
5ad0df02645df0001a2d0743
True
August 1794
236
When did Richard resign?
5ad0df02645df0001a2d0744
True
£2,500
822
What pension did the Duke of Bedford receive?
5ad0df02645df0001a2d0745
True
King George III
549
Who wanted to make Richard Burke an Earl?
5ad0df02645df0001a2d0746
True
On 20 June 1794, Burke received a vote of thanks from the Commons for his services in the Hastings Trial and he immediately resigned his seat, being replaced by his son Richard. A tragic blow fell upon Burke with the loss of Richard in August 1794, to whom he was tenderly attached, and in whom he saw signs of promise, which were not patent to others and which, in fact, appear to have been non-existent (though this view may have rather reflected the fact that Richard Burke had worked successfully in the early battle for Catholic emancipation). King George III, whose favour he had gained by his attitude on the French Revolution, wished to create him Earl of Beaconsfield, but the death of his son deprived the opportunity of such an honour and all its attractions, so the only award he would accept was a pension of £2,500. Even this modest reward was attacked by the Duke of Bedford and the Earl of Lauderdale, to whom Burke replied in his Letter to a Noble Lord (1796): "It cannot at this time be too often repeated; line upon line; precept upon precept; until it comes into the currency of a proverb, To innovate is not to reform". He argued that he was rewarded on merit, but the Duke of Bedford received his rewards from inheritance alone, his ancestor being the original pensioner: "Mine was from a mild and benevolent sovereign; his from Henry the Eighth". Burke also hinted at what would happen to such people if their revolutionary ideas were implemented, and included a description of the British constitution:
What was Burke's final publication?
5726b358f1498d1400e8e7f8
Letters on a Regicide Peace
35
False
When was Burke's final publication?
5726b358f1498d1400e8e7f9
October 1796
64
False
What did Burke think was missing from the French Revolutionary Government?
5726b358f1498d1400e8e7fa
Individuality
307
False
What did Burke think were the French Revolutionary Government's only goals?
5726b358f1498d1400e8e7fb
dominion and conquest
595
False
What negotiations did Burke think were appeasement?
5726b358f1498d1400e8e7fc
negotiations for peace with France by the Pitt government
95
False
Letters on a Regicide Peace
35
What was Pitt's last publication?
5ad0dff2645df0001a2d0768
True
the French Revolutionary Government
269
Who did Burke say had too much individuality?
5ad0dff2645df0001a2d0769
True
The State is all in all
364
What did Burke say was problematic in his First letter?
5ad0dff2645df0001a2d076a
True
appeasement
177
What did Burke believe would be good for the national dignity?
5ad0dff2645df0001a2d076b
True
Burke's last publications were the Letters on a Regicide Peace (October 1796), called forth by negotiations for peace with France by the Pitt government. Burke regarded this as appeasement, injurious to national dignity and honour. In his Second Letter, Burke wrote of the French Revolutionary Government: "Individuality is left out of their scheme of government. The State is all in all. Everything is referred to the production of force; afterwards, everything is trusted to the use of it. It is military in its principle, in its maxims, in its spirit, and in all its movements. The State has dominion and conquest for its sole objects—dominion over minds by proselytism, over bodies by arms".
What did Burke think the war with France was against?
5726b3d1f1498d1400e8e80c
an "armed doctrine"
145
False
Burke hoped which country wouldn't be partitioned?
5726b3d1f1498d1400e8e80d
France
181
False
What kind of empire did Burke think the French revolutionaries wanted?
5726b3d1f1498d1400e8e80e
universal
470
False
Who did Burke think the war was against, rather than France as a whole?
5726b3d1f1498d1400e8e80f
the revolutionaries governing her
335
False
armed doctrine
149
What type of doctrine did Burke propose?
5ad0e0b4645df0001a2d0784
True
France
181
What country did Burke want partitioned?
5ad0e0b4645df0001a2d0785
True
universal
470
What kind of empire did Burke think Europe would become?
5ad0e0b4645df0001a2d0786
True
a foreign empire
410
What did Burke say France was trying to extend?
5ad0e0b4645df0001a2d0787
True
This is held to be the first explanation of the modern concept of totalitarian state. Burke regarded the war with France as ideological, against an "armed doctrine". He wished that France would not be partitioned due to the effect this would have on the balance of power in Europe, and that the war was not against France, but against the revolutionaries governing her. Burke said: "It is not France extending a foreign empire over other nations: it is a sect aiming at universal empire, and beginning with the conquest of France".
Who did Burke write to about the price of corn?
5726b44edd62a815002e8d70
Pitt
109
False
Who introduced a bill in 1795 about minimum wage?
5726b44edd62a815002e8d71
Samuel Whitbread
142
False
Who was the Secretary of the Board of Agriculture?
5726b44edd62a815002e8d72
Arthur Young
450
False
Burke's unfinished letter to Arthur Young became part of what publication?
5726b44edd62a815002e8d73
Thoughts and Details on Scarcity
599
False
When was 'Thoughts and Details on Scarcity' published?
5726b44edd62a815002e8d74
1800
590
False
November 1795
3
When did Pitt write to Burke?
5ad0e131645df0001a2d0796
True
a bill giving magistrates the power to fix minimum wages
173
What bill did Fox introduce?
5ad0e131645df0001a2d0797
True
This debate
265
What was the subject of the letter Arthur Young did not complete?
5ad0e131645df0001a2d0798
True
Thoughts and Details on Scarcity
599
What was the name of the letters Young published?
5ad0e131645df0001a2d0799
True
1800
590
When did Fox die?
5ad0e131645df0001a2d079a
True
In November 1795, there was a debate in Parliament on the high price of corn and Burke wrote a memorandum to Pitt on the subject. In December Samuel Whitbread MP introduced a bill giving magistrates the power to fix minimum wages and Fox said he would vote for it. This debate probably led Burke to editing his memorandum, as there appeared a notice that Burke would soon publish a letter on the subject to the Secretary of the Board of Agriculture, Arthur Young; but he failed to complete it. These fragments were inserted into the memorandum after his death and published posthumously in 1800 as, Thoughts and Details on Scarcity. In it, Burke expounded "some of the doctrines of political economists bearing upon agriculture as a trade". Burke criticised policies such as maximum prices and state regulation of wages, and set out what the limits of government should be:
Whose ascendancy did Burke think was malignant?
5726b5565951b619008f7b4b
Protestant
140
False
What did Burke call corporate tyranny in India?
5726b5565951b619008f7b4c
Indianism
193
False
Which continent did Jacobinism affect?
5726b5565951b619008f7b4d
Europe
372
False
When did Burke decide Indianism was the worst threat?
5726b5565951b619008f7b4e
March 1796
454
False
What did Burke think was the worst threat in 1795?
5726b5565951b619008f7b4f
Jacobinism
341
False
the principles of Protestant ascendency
122
What did Burke think was overrated?
5ad0e22f645df0001a2d07a8
True
British East Indies Company
248
Who practiced Protestant ascendency?
5ad0e22f645df0001a2d07a9
True
the greatest evil
431
What did Burke initially call Indianism?
5ad0e22f645df0001a2d07aa
True
March 1796
454
When did Burke decide Indianism was not as great of an issue?
5ad0e22f645df0001a2d07ab
True
Jacobinism
341
Burke never changed his mind on which ideology, which he called "the greatest evil"?
5ad0e22f645df0001a2d07ac
True
Writing to a friend in May 1795, Burke surveyed the causes of discontent: "I think I can hardly overrate the malignity of the principles of Protestant ascendency, as they affect Ireland; or of Indianism [i.e. corporate tyranny, as practiced by the British East Indies Company], as they affect these countries, and as they affect Asia; or of Jacobinism, as they affect all Europe, and the state of human society itself. The last is the greatest evil". By March 1796, however Burke had changed his mind: "Our Government and our Laws are beset by two different Enemies, which are sapping its foundations, Indianism, and Jacobinism. In some Cases they act separately, in some they act in conjunction: But of this I am sure; that the first is the worst by far, and the hardest to deal with; and for this amongst other reasons, that it weakens discredits, and ruins that force, which ought to be employed with the greatest Credit and Energy against the other; and that it furnishes Jacobinism with its strongest arms against all formal Government".
What did Burke think was crucial for human life?
5726b60ef1498d1400e8e872
property
20
False
What did Burke think a social hierarchy should be based on?
5726b60ef1498d1400e8e873
property
228
False
Who did Burke think a social class structure benefited?
5726b60ef1498d1400e8e874
all subjects
753
False
Who wrote that Burke "appealed to property owners"?
5726b60ef1498d1400e8e875
Christopher Hitchens
822
False
What did Hitchens think Burke supported preserving?
5726b60ef1498d1400e8e876
the ancestral and the immemorial
1066
False
Burke
906
Who was influenced by modern conservatism?
5ad0e31f645df0001a2d07bc
True
property
20
What did Christopher Hitchens believe was essential to human life?
5ad0e31f645df0001a2d07bd
True
division of property
406
What did Burke believe kept the classes in check?
5ad0e31f645df0001a2d07be
True
the preservation of the ancestral and the immemorial
1046
What did Hitchens appeal to?
5ad0e31f645df0001a2d07bf
True
social changes brought on by property
268
What did Burke believe was against the natural order of events?
5ad0e31f645df0001a2d07c0
True
Burke believed that property was essential to human life. Because of his conviction that people desire to be ruled and controlled, the division of property formed the basis for social structure, helping develop control within a property-based hierarchy. He viewed the social changes brought on by property as the natural order of events, which should be taking place as the human race progressed. With the division of property and the class system, he also believed that it kept the monarch in check to the needs of the classes beneath the monarch. Since property largely aligned or defined divisions of social class, class too, was seen as natural—part of a social agreement that the setting of persons into different classes, is the mutual benefit of all subjects. Concern for property is not Burke's only influence. As Christopher Hitchens summarises, "If modern conservatism can be held to derive from Burke, it is not just because he appealed to property owners in behalf of stability but also because he appealed to an everyday interest in the preservation of the ancestral and the immemorial."
Who thought Burke was prophetic about the French revolution's consequences?
5726b6f4dd62a815002e8db4
Philip Francis
95
False
What did Francis think Burke's writing had too much of?
5726b6f4dd62a815002e8db5
passion
291
False
Who made speeches very similar to Burke's in Parliament?
5726b6f4dd62a815002e8db6
William Windham
339
False
When did Windham speak against peace with France?
5726b6f4dd62a815002e8db7
1801
563
False
When did Wordsworth initially attack Burke?
5726b6f4dd62a815002e8db8
1793
974
False
the nineteenth century
3
When did both liberals and conservatives condemn Burke?
5ad0e7c3645df0001a2d080a
True
1801
563
When did Fox make a speech against peace with France?
5ad0e7c3645df0001a2d080b
True
Junius and Rousseau
687
Besides Burke, who were Windham's favourite writers?
5ad0e7c3645df0001a2d080c
True
passion
291
What did Burke criticise Francis for having too much of in his writing?
5ad0e7c3645df0001a2d080d
True
1823
2230
When did Benjamin Disraeli say he was deeply affected by Burke?
5ad0e7c3645df0001a2d080e
True
In the nineteenth century Burke was praised by both liberals and conservatives. Burke's friend Philip Francis wrote that Burke "was a man who truly & prophetically foresaw all the consequences which would rise from the adoption of the French principles" but because Burke wrote with so much passion, people were doubtful of his arguments. William Windham spoke from the same bench in the House of Commons as Burke had, when he had separated from Fox, and an observer said Windham spoke "like the ghost of Burke" when he made a speech against peace with France in 1801. William Hazlitt, a political opponent of Burke, regarded him as amongst his three favourite writers (the others being Junius and Rousseau), and made it "a test of the sense and candour of any one belonging to the opposite party, whether he allowed Burke to be a great man". William Wordsworth was originally a supporter of the French Revolution and attacked Burke in 'A Letter to the Bishop of Llandaff' (1793), but by the early nineteenth century he had changed his mind and came to admire Burke. In his Two Addresses to the Freeholders of Westmorland Wordsworth called Burke "the most sagacious Politician of his age" whose predictions "time has verified". He later revised his poem The Prelude to include praise of Burke ("Genius of Burke! forgive the pen seduced/By specious wonders") and portrayed him as an old oak. Samuel Taylor Coleridge came to have a similar conversion: he had criticised Burke in The Watchman, but in his Friend (1809–10) Coleridge defended Burke from charges of inconsistency. Later, in his Biographia Literaria (1817) Coleridge hails Burke as a prophet and praises Burke for referring "habitually to principles. He was a scientific statesman; and therefore a seer". Henry Brougham wrote of Burke: "... all his predictions, save one momentary expression, had been more than fulfilled: anarchy and bloodshed had borne sway in France; conquest and convulsion had desolated Europe...the providence of mortals is not often able to penetrate so far as this into futurity". George Canning believed that Burke's Reflections "has been justified by the course of subsequent events; and almost every prophecy has been strictly fulfilled". In 1823 Canning wrote that he took Burke's "last works and words [as] the manual of my politics". The Conservative Prime Minister Benjamin Disraeli "was deeply penetrated with the spirit and sentiment of Burke's later writings".
What political party was Gladstone in?
5726b783dd62a815002e8dd8
Liberal
17
False
What countries did Gladstone think Burke was wise about?
5726b783dd62a815002e8dd9
Ireland and America
106
False
What was Cobden an activist against?
5726b783dd62a815002e8dda
Corn Law
235
False
Lord Macaulay thought Burke was the best author since whom?
5726b783dd62a815002e8ddb
Milton
599
False
Who thought Burke was like an architect remodeling an old house instead of tearing it down?
5726b783dd62a815002e8ddc
Francis Hirst
785
False
Corn Law
235
What law was William Ewart Gladstone against?
5ad0e9c7645df0001a2d083c
True
Thoughts and Details on Scarcity
290
Which pamphlet did Lord Acton praise?
5ad0e9c7645df0001a2d083d
True
Milton
599
Who did Macaulay say was the best man since Burke?
5ad0e9c7645df0001a2d083e
True
two
657
How many books did Lord Acton publish on Burke?
5ad0e9c7645df0001a2d083f
True
Francis Hirst
785
What architect admired Burke?
5ad0e9c7645df0001a2d0840
True
The 19th-century Liberal Prime Minister William Ewart Gladstone considered Burke "a magazine of wisdom on Ireland and America" and in his diary recorded: "Made many extracts from Burke—sometimes almost divine". The Radical MP and anti-Corn Law activist Richard Cobden often praised Burke's Thoughts and Details on Scarcity. The Liberal historian Lord Acton considered Burke one of the three greatest Liberals, along with William Gladstone and Thomas Babington Macaulay. Lord Macaulay recorded in his diary: "I have now finished reading again most of Burke's works. Admirable! The greatest man since Milton". The Gladstonian Liberal MP John Morley published two books on Burke (including a biography) and was influenced by Burke, including his views on prejudice. The Cobdenite Radical Francis Hirst thought Burke deserved "a place among English libertarians, even though of all lovers of liberty and of all reformers he was the most conservative, the least abstract, always anxious to preserve and renovate rather than to innovate. In politics he resembled the modern architect who would restore an old house instead of pulling it down to construct a new one on the site". Burke's Reflections on the Revolution in France was controversial at the time of its publication, but after his death, it was to become his best known and most influential work, and a manifesto for Conservative thinking.
Who thought Burke's trial of Hastings was a moral foundation of the British Empire?
5726b836dd62a815002e8e0e
Piers Brendon
14
False
What did Burke think the British Empire should be governed based on?
5726b836dd62a815002e8e0f
a plan of freedom
244
False
What did Burke call 'a smuggling adventure'?
5726b836dd62a815002e8e10
opium trade
624
False
What did Burke think had disgraced Britain in India?
5726b836dd62a815002e8e11
opium trade
624
False
Piers Brendon
14
What historian laid the foundations for the morals of the British Empire?
5ad11348645df0001a2d0c58
True
The British Empire
205
What did Burke say the plan of freedom must be governed by?
5ad11348645df0001a2d0c59
True
the opium trade
620
What did Burke say had disgraced India in Britain?
5ad11348645df0001a2d0c5a
True
smuggling adventure
656
What did Burke nickname his paternalistic doctrine?
5ad11348645df0001a2d0c5b
True
paternalistic
386
What kind of doctrine did Hastings propose?
5ad11348645df0001a2d0c5c
True
The historian Piers Brendon asserts that Burke laid the moral foundations for the British Empire, epitomised in the trial of Warren Hastings, that was ultimately to be its undoing: when Burke stated that "The British Empire must be governed on a plan of freedom, for it will be governed by no other", this was "...an ideological bacillus that would prove fatal. This was Edmund Burke's paternalistic doctrine that colonial government was a trust. It was to be so exercised for the benefit of subject people that they would eventually attain their birthright—freedom". As a consequence of this opinion, Burke objected to the opium trade, which he called a "smuggling adventure" and condemned "the great Disgrace of the British character in India".
Which church did Burke most defend?
5726b8be708984140094cf15
Anglican
392
False
What did Burke think was the foundation of society?
5726b8be708984140094cf16
religion
153
False
What religion was Burke's mother?
5726b8be708984140094cf17
Catholic
321
False
What religion was Burke's father?
5726b8be708984140094cf18
Protestant
343
False
Burke thought religion was beneficial to what besides souls?
5726b8be708984140094cf19
political arrangements
670
False
civil society
183
What did Burke believe was the foundation of religion?
5ad11411645df0001a2d0c94
True
mother
330
Which of Burke's parents was an athiest?
5ad11411645df0001a2d0c95
True
father
354
Which of Burke's parents was a deist?
5ad11411645df0001a2d0c96
True
Christianity
602
What did Burke believe made political arrangements difficult?
5ad11411645df0001a2d0c97
True
Catholic
446
Burke failed to show concern for what sect of Christianity?
5ad11411645df0001a2d0c98
True
Burke's religious writing comprises published works and commentary on the subject of religion. Burke's religious thought was grounded in the belief that religion is the foundation of civil society. He sharply criticised deism and atheism, and emphasised Christianity as a vehicle of social progress. Born in Ireland to a Catholic mother and a Protestant father, Burke vigorously defended the Anglican Church, but also demonstrated sensitivity to Catholic concerns. He linked the conservation of a state (established) religion with the preservation of citizens' constitutional liberties and highlighted Christianity's benefit not only to the believer's soul, but also to political arrangements.
Samoa
What was Samoa's old name?
57269b01dd62a815002e8ae0
Western Samoa
157
False
How many administrative divisions does Samoa have?
57269b01dd62a815002e8ae1
eleven
213
False
How many little islands are there around Savai'i and Upolu?
57269b01dd62a815002e8ae2
four
294
False
What's the name of Samoa's capital?
57269b01dd62a815002e8ae3
Apia
363
False
About how long ago were the Samoan islands discovered?
57269b01dd62a815002e8ae4
3,500 years
436
False
Western Samoa
157
What was Lapita formerly known as?
5a6243f1f8d794001af1bef8
True
Apia
363
What is the capital of Lapita?
5a6243f1f8d794001af1bef9
True
around 3,500 years ago
429
When did the Tuto people discover Malo and settle there?
5a6243f1f8d794001af1befa
True
a unique language and cultural identity
468
What are two things the Tuto developed when they settled at Malo?
5a6243f1f8d794001af1befb
True
four
294
How many little islands surround Malo?
5a6243f1f8d794001af1befc
True
The Independent State of Samoa ( Samoan: Malo Sa 'oloto Tuto 'atasi o Sāmoa, IPA: [ˌsaːˈmoa]), commonly known as Samoa (Samoan: Sāmoa) and formerly known as Western Samoa, is a Unitary Parliamentary Republic with eleven administrative divisions. The two main islands are Savai'i and Upolu with four smaller islands surrounding the landmasses. The capital city is Apia. The Lapita people discovered and settled the Samoan islands around 3,500 years ago. They developed a unique language and cultural identity.
In what year did new discoveries change the course of research on Samoan origins?
5726a4cd708984140094ccbf
2003
555
False
In addition to linguistics and genetics, what field of study researches Samoan origins?
5726a4cd708984140094ccc0
anthropology
150
False
One theory posits that Samoans originated from what people during the Lapita expansion period?
5726a4cd708984140094ccc1
Austronesian
300
False
What year marks the end of the period of the terminal eastward Lapita expansion?
5726a4cd708984140094ccc2
1,500 BCE
431
False
genetics, linguistics and anthropology
124
What scientific disciplines are being used to study where the Austronesian people came from?
5a62458cf8d794001af1bf16
True
between 2,500 and 1,500 BCE
413
During what period did the Austronesians migrate from Southeast Asia and Melanesia?
5a62458cf8d794001af1bf17
True
due to new scientific evidence and carbon dating findings
492
Why are Austronesian origins now being reassessed?
5a62458cf8d794001af1bf18
True
from 2003 and onwards
550
From what period is new evidence being used to reassess Austronesian origins?
5a62458cf8d794001af1bf19
True
the Samoans
15
Whos origins are being studied in research about Melanesia?
5a62458cf8d794001af1bf1a
True
The origins of the Samoans are closely studied in modern research about Polynesia in various scientific disciplines such as genetics, linguistics and anthropology. Scientific research is ongoing, although a number of different theories exist; including one proposing that the Samoans originated from Austronesian predecessors during the terminal eastward Lapita expansion period from Southeast Asia and Melanesia between 2,500 and 1,500 BCE. The Samoan origins are currently being reassessed due to new scientific evidence and carbon dating findings from 2003 and onwards.
Who was the first missionary in Samoa?
5726a5daf1498d1400e8e608
John Williams
48
False
What English organization did John Williams belong to?
5726a5daf1498d1400e8e609
London Missionary Society
70
False
What warring ritual did Barbara A. West say the indigenous Samoans engaged in?
5726a5daf1498d1400e8e60a
headhunting
226
False
What notable author who lived in Samoa called the Samoans "gentle people"?
5726a5daf1498d1400e8e60b
Robert Louis Stevenson
370
False
In what year did Robert Louis Stevenson die?
5726a5daf1498d1400e8e60c
1894
442
False
Mission work
0
What work did Barbara A. West do in the late 1830's?
5a6246a3f8d794001af1bf2a
True
the London Missionary Society
66
What group was Barbara A. West a member of?
5a6246a3f8d794001af1bf2b
True
‘headhunting'
225
What ritual did Robert Lewis Stevenson say that the Samoans engaged in?
5a6246a3f8d794001af1bf2c
True
1894
442
What year did John Williams die?
5a6246a3f8d794001af1bf2d
True
A Footnote to History: Eight Years of Trouble in Samoa, "
457
What work was written by John Williams about the people of Samoa?
5a6246a3f8d794001af1bf2e
True
Mission work in Samoa had begun in late 1830 by John Williams, of the London Missionary Society arriving in Sapapali'i from The Cook Islands and Tahiti. According to Barbara A. West, "The Samoans were also known to engage in ‘headhunting', a ritual of war in which a warrior took the head of his slain opponent to give to his leader, thus proving his bravery." However, Robert Louis Stevenson, who lived in Samoa from 1889 until his death in 1894, wrote in A Footnote to History: Eight Years of Trouble in Samoa, "… the Samoans are gentle people."
What country sent their military to protect their interests in Samoa?
5726b08af1498d1400e8e774
Britain
0
False
For how many years did the civil war in Samoa last?
5726b08af1498d1400e8e775
eight
127
False
How many contenders were vying for power in the war?
5726b08af1498d1400e8e776
three
174
False
When did the crucial climax of the civil war occur?
5726b08af1498d1400e8e777
March 1889
323
False
What natural disaster put an end to the war in Apia harbour?
5726b08af1498d1400e8e778
A massive storm
442
False
business enterprise, harbour rights, and consulate office
44
What interests were Samoans trying to protect?
5a624829f8d794001af1bf34
True
eight
127
For how many years did the civil war in Britain last?
5a624829f8d794001af1bf35
True
A massive storm
442
What happened to cause the British civil war to come to an end?
5a624829f8d794001af1bf36
True
three
174
How many Samoan parties were involved in the war?
5a624829f8d794001af1bf37
True
March 1889
323
On what date did the Samoans stand and fight for their own interests?
5a624829f8d794001af1bf38
True
Britain also sent troops to protect British business enterprise, harbour rights, and consulate office. This was followed by an eight-year civil war, during which each of the three powers supplied arms, training and in some cases combat troops to the warring Samoan parties. The Samoan crisis came to a critical juncture in March 1889 when all three colonial contenders sent warships into Apia harbour, and a larger-scale war seemed imminent. A massive storm on 15 March 1889 damaged or destroyed the warships, ending the military conflict.
What country was in control of Samoa up until 1962?
5726b1c05951b619008f7ac3
New Zealand
40
False
During what years was the Samoan influenza epidemic?
5726b1c05951b619008f7ac4
1918–1919
378
False
What official organization was responsible for Samoa during most of the 20th century?
5726b1c05951b619008f7ac5
the Department of External Affairs
438
False
What new label did the Department of External Affairs receive in 1943?
5726b1c05951b619008f7ac6
Department of Island Territories
627
False
About how much of the total population of Samoa died from influenza during the epidemic?
5726b1c05951b619008f7ac7
one fifth
309
False
From the end of World War I until 1962
0
For how long did the UN control Samoa?
5a625267f8d794001af1bf52
True
approximately one fifth
295
How much of the New Zeland population died from the flu from 1918-1919?
5a625267f8d794001af1bf53
True
the Department of External Affairs
438
What organization was responsible for governing New Zeland from 1919-1962?
5a625267f8d794001af1bf54
True
the Department of Island Territories
623
What was the new name of the Department of External Affairs in 1918?
5a625267f8d794001af1bf55
True
as a Class C Mandate under trusteeship
69
How was New Zeland classified when under the League of Nations and the UN?
5a625267f8d794001af1bf56
True
From the end of World War I until 1962, New Zealand controlled Samoa as a Class C Mandate under trusteeship through the League of Nations, then through the United Nations. There followed a series of New Zealand administrators who were responsible for two major incidents. In the first incident, approximately one fifth of the Samoan population died in the influenza epidemic of 1918–1919. Between 1919 and 1962, Samoa was administered by the Department of External Affairs, a government department which had been specially created to oversee New Zealand's Island Territories and Samoa. In 1943, this Department was renamed the Department of Island Territories after a separate Department of External Affairs was created to conduct New Zealand's foreign affairs.
What decade marked the peak of support for opposition to New Zealand's governance?
5726b35f5951b619008f7b05
1920s
151
False
What was the name of the Mau leader who was of Samoan and Swedish descent?
5726b35f5951b619008f7b06
Olaf Frederick Nelson
263
False
What philosophy characterized the Mau resistance?
5726b35f5951b619008f7b07
non-violent philosophy
497
False
What title was given to the Mau's elected leader, Tupua Tamasese Lealofi?
5726b35f5951b619008f7b08
High Chief
547
False
On what date did the Mau demonstrate on the streets of Apia?
5726b35f5951b619008f7b09
28 December 1929
659
False
inflation and the catastrophic 1918 flu epidemic
74
What events did New Zeland hold Samoa responsible for?
5a625375f8d794001af1bf5c
True
a peaceful demonstration
614
What was lead by Olaf Frederick Nelson on December 28, 1929?
5a625375f8d794001af1bf5d
True
in downtown Apia
639
Where did Olaf Fredrick Nelson organize and lead the demonstration?
5a625375f8d794001af1bf5e
True
New Zealand's colonial rule
34
What did High Chief Tupua Tamasese Lealofi resent?
5a625375f8d794001af1bf5f
True
non-violent
497
What was the philosophy of most New Zelanders?
5a625375f8d794001af1bf60
True
However, Samoans greatly resented New Zealand's colonial rule, and blamed inflation and the catastrophic 1918 flu epidemic on its misrule. By the late 1920s the resistance movement against colonial rule had gathered widespread support. One of the Mau leaders was Olaf Frederick Nelson, a half Samoan and half Swedish merchant. Nelson was eventually exiled during the late 1920s and early 1930s, but he continued to assist the organisation financially and politically. In accordance with the Mau's non-violent philosophy, the newly elected leader, High Chief Tupua Tamasese Lealofi, led his fellow uniformed Mau in a peaceful demonstration in downtown Apia on 28 December 1929.
What kind of weapon was used against the Mau demonstrators?
5726b478f1498d1400e8e81e
Lewis machine gun
212
False
Was Chief Tamasese wounded or killed during the demonstration?
5726b478f1498d1400e8e81f
killed
358
False
What was the phrase the Mau's chief shouted to try to calm his people?
5726b478f1498d1400e8e820
"Peace, Samoa"
438
False
Besides Chief Tamasese, how many Mau died as a result of the violence that erupted on that day?
5726b478f1498d1400e8e821
Ten
454
False
What do Samoans call the historical day of the Mau demonstration?
5726b478f1498d1400e8e822
Black Saturday
594
False
a Lewis machine gun
210
What kind of weapon was used against the New Zeland police?
5a6254d7f8d794001af1bf70
True
Ten
454
How many New Zeland police were killed during the demonstration?
5a6254d7f8d794001af1bf71
True
Black Saturday
594
What do New Zelanders call the day of the Mau demonstration?
5a6254d7f8d794001af1bf72
True
approximately 50
483
How many women were injured in the demonstration?
5a6254d7f8d794001af1bf73
True
"Peace, Samoa"
438
What were the New Zeland police screaming to the crowd?
5a6254d7f8d794001af1bf74
True
The New Zealand police attempted to arrest one of the leaders in the demonstration. When he resisted, a struggle developed between the police and the Mau. The officers began to fire randomly into the crowd and a Lewis machine gun, mounted in preparation for this demonstration, was used to disperse the demonstrators. Chief Tamasese was shot from behind and killed while trying to bring calm and order to the Mau demonstrators, screaming "Peace, Samoa". Ten others died that day and approximately 50 were injured by gunshot wounds and police batons. That day would come to be known in Samoa as Black Saturday. The Mau grew, remaining steadfastly non-violent, and expanded to include a highly influential women's branch.
What act gave Samoa independence?
5726b876dd62a815002e8e16
New Zealand Western Samoa Act 1961
64
False
What exact date did Samoan independence go into effect?
5726b876dd62a815002e8e17
1 January 1962
156
False
What's the name of the agreement that ended with the start of Samoa's independence from New Zealand?
5726b876dd62a815002e8e18
Trusteeship Agreement
187
False
Where was Samoa in the order of small-island countries in their region declaring independence?
5726b876dd62a815002e8e19
first
288
False
On what date do Samoans celebrate their independence from New Zealand?
5726b876dd62a815002e8e1a
1 June
494
False
1 January 1962
156
When was New Zealand granted independence?
5a62562ff8d794001af1bf7a
True
1 June
494
What other day does New Zealand celebrate its independence day each year?
5a62562ff8d794001af1bf7b
True
the New Zealand Western Samoa Act 1961
60
What act gave New Zealand its independence in 1961?
5a62562ff8d794001af1bf7c
True
a friendship treaty
239
What did the Commonwealth of Nations sign with New Zealand?
5a62562ff8d794001af1bf7d
True
on 28 August 1970
388
When did New Zealand join the Commonwealth of Nations?
5a62562ff8d794001af1bf7e
True
After repeated efforts by the Samoan independence movement, the New Zealand Western Samoa Act 1961 of 24 November 1961 granted Samoa independence effective 1 January 1962, upon which the Trusteeship Agreement terminated. Samoa also signed a friendship treaty with New Zealand. Samoa, the first small-island country in the Pacific to become independent, joined the Commonwealth of Nations on 28 August 1970. While independence was achieved at the beginning of January, Samoa annually celebrates 1 June as its independence day.
What office was held by Fiame Mata'afa Faumuina Mulinu'u II?
5726b98bf1498d1400e8e8f2
Prime Minister
123
False
What was the term of office for Samoa's first joint heads of state?
5726b98bf1498d1400e8e8f3
life
234
False
What year did the first of the two heads of state die?
5726b98bf1498d1400e8e8f4
1963
271
False
Who was the head of state in Samoa in 2006?
5726b98bf1498d1400e8e8f5
Malietoa Tanumafili II
285
False
Before becoming a de facto parliamentary republic, what form of government did Samoa have?
5726b98bf1498d1400e8e8f6
constitutional monarchy
391
False
in 1963
268
When did Fiame Mata'afa Faumuina Mulinu'u II die?
5a62589ff8d794001af1bf84
True
Malietoa Tanumafili II
285
When Mulinu'u II died in 1963 who was left as sole head of state?
5a62589ff8d794001af1bf85
True
constitutional monarchy
391
Before it was a de facto parlimentary republic, what type of government did Tamasese have?
5a62589ff8d794001af1bf86
True
a fixed five-year term
556
For how long of a term was Malietoa Tanumafili II elected in 2007?
5a62589ff8d794001af1bf87
True
was re-elected unopposed
584
What happened when Malietoa Tanumafili II ran again in 2012?
5a62589ff8d794001af1bf88
True
Fiame Mata'afa Faumuina Mulinu’u II, one of the four highest-ranking paramount chiefs in the country, became Samoa's first Prime Minister. Two other paramount chiefs at the time of independence were appointed joint heads of state for life. Tupua Tamasese Mea'ole died in 1963, leaving Malietoa Tanumafili II sole head of state until his death on 11 May 2007, upon which Samoa changed from a constitutional monarchy to a parliamentary republic de facto. The next Head of State, Tuiatua Tupua Tamasese Efi, was elected by the legislature on 17 June 2007 for a fixed five-year term, and was re-elected unopposed in July 2012.
What do Samoans call their legislative body?
5726bce2f1498d1400e8e99c
the Fono
28
False
How many Fono members are there?
5726bce2f1498d1400e8e99d
49
50
False
How many of the members of the Fono are elected to office?
5726bce2f1498d1400e8e99e
Forty-seven
83
False
What percentage of female matais are there in Samoa?
5726bce2f1498d1400e8e99f
5%
427
False
What position in government is chosen by Fono majority vote?
5726bce2f1498d1400e8e9a0
prime minister
453
False
1990
297
In what year was the Fono created?
5a625b2ff8d794001af1bf8e
True
more than 25,000
381
What number of non-Samoans are in the country?
5a625b2ff8d794001af1bf8f
True
12
596
How many cabinet positions are appointed by women?
5a625b2ff8d794001af1bf90
True
no chiefly affiliation on separate electoral rolls
211
What is one thing women don't have when they are members of the Fono?
5a625b2ff8d794001af1bf91
True
in 1990
294
In what year were women allowed to stand for election to the Samoan seats?
5a625b2ff8d794001af1bf92
True
The unicameral legislature (the Fono) consists of 49 members serving 5-year terms. Forty-seven are matai title-holders elected from territorial districts by Samoans; the other two are chosen by non-Samoans with no chiefly affiliation on separate electoral rolls. Universal suffrage was adopted in 1990, but only chiefs (matai) may stand for election to the Samoan seats. There are more than 25,000 matais in the country, about 5% of whom are women. The prime minister, chosen by a majority in the Fono, is appointed by the head of state to form a government. The prime minister's choices for the 12 cabinet positions are appointed by the head of state, subject to the continuing confidence of the Fono.
What district is Leulumoega the capital of?
5726be91dd62a815002e8f2c
A'ana
199
False
What is the Samoan word for the "House of Nine" in Leulumoega?
5726be91dd62a815002e8f2d
Faleiva
330
False
What is A'ana's paramount title?
5726be91dd62a815002e8f2e
the TuiA'ana
268
False
What's the paramount title of the Tuamasaga district?
5726be91dd62a815002e8f2f
Malietoa
499
False
In what town does the FaleTuamasaga conduct business?
5726be91dd62a815002e8f30
Afega
559
False
administers and coordinates the affairs of the district and confers each district's paramount title
37
What are the responsibilities of the Afega in each district?
5a6264dff8d794001af1bfa6
True
Faleiva
330
What is the word for Afega according to the orator group?
5a6264dff8d794001af1bfa7
True
TuiA'ana
272
What is the paramount title of the capital village?
5a6264dff8d794001af1bfa8
True
Malietoa
499
What is the paramount title of the Afega district?
5a6264dff8d794001af1bfa9
True
Afega
559
In what town does the TuiA'ana conduct business?
5a6264dff8d794001af1bfaa
True
The capital village of each district administers and coordinates the affairs of the district and confers each district's paramount title, amongst other responsibilities. For example, the District of A'ana has its capital at Leulumoega. The paramount title of A'ana is the TuiA'ana. The orator group which confers this title – the Faleiva (House of Nine) – is based at Leulumoega. This is also the same for the other districts. In the district of Tuamasaga, the paramount title of the district – the Malietoa title – is conferred by the FaleTuamasaga based in Afega.
What natural process formed the land masses that would become the Samoan islands?
5726bfee708984140094d061
vulcanism
41
False
Which of the Samoan islands has active volcanoes?
5726bfee708984140094d062
Savai'i
194
False
What's the name of the highest peak in Samoa?
5726bfee708984140094d063
Mt Silisili,
392
False
How many meters is 6,096 feet?
5726bfee708984140094d064
1858
408
False
What volcano created the Saleaula lava fields?
5726bfee708984140094d065
Mt Matavanu
521
False
the Samoa hotspot
75
What is the source of solidified lava on Mata o le Afi?
5a626754f8d794001af1bfb8
True
is volcanically active
237
What is different about Mauga Afi compared to the other islands?
5a626754f8d794001af1bfb9
True
Mt Silisili, at 1858 m (6,096 ft)
392
What is the highest point in Mauga Afi?
5a626754f8d794001af1bfba
True
1725
355
When was a mantle plume discovered near Magua Alfi?
5a626754f8d794001af1bfbb
True
a mantle plume
125
What is Mata o le Afi probably the result of?
5a626754f8d794001af1bfbc
True
The Samoan islands have been produced by vulcanism, the source of which is the Samoa hotspot which is probably the result of a mantle plume. While all of the islands have volcanic origins, only Savai'i, the western most island in Samoa, is volcanically active with the most recent eruptions in Mt Matavanu (1905–1911), Mata o le Afi (1902) and Mauga Afi (1725). The highest point in Samoa is Mt Silisili, at 1858 m (6,096 ft). The Saleaula lava fields situated on the central north coast of Savai'i are the result of the Mt Matavanu eruptions which left 50 km² (20 sq mi) of solidified lava.
What institution is in charge of Samoa's currency?
5726c12a5951b619008f7d47
Central Bank of Samoa
69
False
In addition to agriculture, what industry historically supported Samoa's local economy?
5726c12a5951b619008f7d48
fishing
165
False
What fruit juice is a major Samoan export?
5726c12a5951b619008f7d49
noni
463
False
What portion of Samoa works in agriculture?
5726c12a5951b619008f7d4a
two-thirds
363
False
What kind of oil does Samoa export?
5726c12a5951b619008f7d4b
coconut
450
False
two-thirds
363
How much of the country uses the Samoa tala?
5a62701ef8d794001af1bfc8
True
90%
409
What percentage of people in Samoa receive money from overseas?
5a62701ef8d794001af1bfc9
True
coconut cream, coconut oil, noni (juice of the nonu fruit, as it is known in Samoan), and copra
435
What resources does Samoa not produce themeselves and need to import?
5a62701ef8d794001af1bfca
True
two-thirds
363
What percentage of Samoans are fishermen?
5a62701ef8d794001af1bfcb
True
nonu fruit
482
What fruit has the Samoan tala traditionally been dependent on?
5a62701ef8d794001af1bfcc
True
The country currency is the Samoan tālā, issued and regulated by the Central Bank of Samoa. The economy of Samoa has traditionally been dependent on agriculture and fishing at the local level. In modern times, development aid, private family remittances from overseas, and agricultural exports have become key factors in the nation's economy. Agriculture employs two-thirds of the labour force, and furnishes 90% of exports, featuring coconut cream, coconut oil, noni (juice of the nonu fruit, as it is known in Samoan), and copra.
In which sector would the government of Samoa like to see deregulation?
5726c409f1498d1400e8eaa0
financial
57
False
The flexibility of what segment could support economic growth in Samoa?
5726c409f1498d1400e8eaa1
the labour market
192
False
What infrastructure has benefited greatly from capital investment?
5726c409f1498d1400e8eaa2
hotel infrastructure
346
False
What's the name of the team-up between Samoa and Virgin Australia?
5726c409f1498d1400e8eaa3
Virgin Samoa
448
False
Is Samoa helped or hurt by political upheaval in the countries around them?
5726c409f1498d1400e8eaa4
helped
297
False
deregulation of the financial sector, encouragement of investment, and continued fiscal discipline
37
What have neighboring Pacific countries called for?
5a627457f8d794001af1bfe0
True
the flexibility of the labour market
173
What is one strength of Virgin Blue and its operations?
5a627457f8d794001af1bfe1
True
major capital investment in hotel infrastructure, political instability in neighbouring Pacific countries
318
What are two things that have helped the launch of Virgin Samoa?
5a627457f8d794001af1bfe2
True
2005
433
In what year did the Samoan government call for the financial sector to be deregulated?
5a627457f8d794001af1bfe3
True
Virgin Samoa
448
What was launched as a joint venture between Pacific countries and capital investment?
5a627457f8d794001af1bfe4
True
The Samoan government has called for deregulation of the financial sector, encouragement of investment, and continued fiscal discipline.[citation needed] Observers point to the flexibility of the labour market as a basic strength for future economic advances.[citation needed] The sector has been helped enormously by major capital investment in hotel infrastructure, political instability in neighbouring Pacific countries, and the 2005 launch of Virgin Samoa a joint-venture between the government and Virgin Australia (then Virgin Blue).
What was Samoa's major production product before the Germans arrived?
5726c5615951b619008f7da5
copra
64
False
What product significantly dropped in price at the end of World War I?
5726c5615951b619008f7da6
natural rubber
298
False
What did Samoa start growing more of to make up for the lost value of rubber?
5726c5615951b619008f7da7
bananas
433
False
Which country's government wanted Samoa to grow bananas for them?
5726c5615951b619008f7da8
New Zealand
381
False
Besides Melanesia, which country sent many workers for the cocoa and rubber plantations in Samoa?
5726c5615951b619008f7da9
China
259
False
mostly copra
57
What did China produce before Melanesian colonization?
5a6276a9f8d794001af1bfea
True
cocoa bean and rubber
201
What new industries were produced by China in Somoa?
5a6276a9f8d794001af1bfeb
True
the New Zealand government encouraged the production of bananas
377
What happened when the price of cocoa beans fell?
5a6276a9f8d794001af1bfec
True
bananas
433
What is there a large market for in Melanesia?
5a6276a9f8d794001af1bfed
True
German merchants and settlers
71
What groups were developing new industries and plantations in Melanesia?
5a6276a9f8d794001af1bfee
True
In the period before German colonisation, Samoa produced mostly copra. German merchants and settlers were active in introducing large scale plantation operations and developing new industries, notably cocoa bean and rubber, relying on imported labourers from China and Melanesia. When the value of natural rubber fell drastically, about the end of the Great War (World War I), the New Zealand government encouraged the production of bananas, for which there is a large market in New Zealand.[citation needed]
What is copra?
5726c63ddd62a815002e8fec
dried coconut meat
40
False
How many metric tons of bananas and copra does Samoa produce each year?
5726c63ddd62a815002e8fed
13,000 to 15,000
175
False
What pest is the greatest threat to Samoan crops?
5726c63ddd62a815002e8fee
rhinoceros beetle
248
False
Are the cocoa beans grown in Samoa high or low quality?
5726c63ddd62a815002e8fef
high quality
405
False
What company produces more coffee than any other in Samoa?
5726c63ddd62a815002e8ff0
WSTEC
546
False
in the range of 13,000 to 15,000 metric tons
159
In how many tons is the annual production of coffee?
5a6287f1f8d794001af1c0b2
True
Samoa could produce in excess of 40,000 metric tons (44,000 short tons) of copra
292
What would happen if rubber wasn't produced in Samoa?
5a6287f1f8d794001af1c0b3
True
Most are Criollo-Forastero hybrids
459
What kind of coffee plants are grown in Samoa?
5a6287f1f8d794001af1c0b4
True
WSTEC
546
What company is the largest copra producer?
5a6287f1f8d794001af1c0b5
True
little impact
659
What kind of impact does the export value of copra have on the economy?
5a6287f1f8d794001af1c0b6
True
The staple products of Samoa are copra (dried coconut meat), cocoa bean (for chocolate), and bananas. The annual production of both bananas and copra has been in the range of 13,000 to 15,000 metric tons (about 14,500 to 16,500 short tons). If the rhinoceros beetle in Samoa were eradicated, Samoa could produce in excess of 40,000 metric tons (44,000 short tons) of copra. Samoan cocoa beans are of very high quality and used in fine New Zealand chocolates. Most are Criollo-Forastero hybrids. Coffee grows well, but production has been uneven. WSTEC is the biggest coffee producer. Rubber has been produced in Samoa for many years, but its export value has little impact on the economy.[citation needed]
What's the most popular church in Samoa?
5726d4285951b619008f7f41
Christian Congregational Church of Samoa
53
False
What percentage of Samoa's population is Mormon?
5726d4285951b619008f7f42
7.6%
170
False
Where is the Bahá'í place of worship located in Samoa?
5726d4285951b619008f7f43
Tiapapata
528
False
What Samoan Head of State might have worshiped at the Bahá'í House of Worship?
5726d4285951b619008f7f44
His Highness Malietoa Tanumafili II
334
False
What church's religion does 19.4% of the Samoan population practice?
5726d4285951b619008f7f45
Roman Catholic
101
False
15.2%
133
What percentage of Samoans were Methodist in 2007?
5a6289dcf8d794001af1c0c6
True
His Highness Malietoa Tanumafili II
334
Who was the Head of State In Samoa until 2011?
5a6289dcf8d794001af1c0c7
True
1984
470
When was the Roman Catholic church built in Samoa?
5a6289dcf8d794001af1c0c8
True
the Head of State
492
Who dedicated the Roman Catholic church built in Samoa in 1984?
5a6289dcf8d794001af1c0c9
True
Tiapapata
528
Where is the Roman Catholic church located in Samoa?
5a6289dcf8d794001af1c0ca
True
Samoans' religious adherence includes the following: Christian Congregational Church of Samoa 31.8%, Roman Catholic 19.4%, Methodist 15.2%, Assembly of God 13.7%, Mormon 7.6%, Seventh-day Adventist 3.9%, Worship Centre 1.7%, other Christian 5.5%, other 0.7%, none 0.1%, unspecified 0.1% (2011 estimate). The Head of State until 2007, His Highness Malietoa Tanumafili II, was a Bahá'í convert. Samoa hosts one of seven Bahá'í Houses of Worship in the world; completed in 1984 and dedicated by the Head of State, it is located in Tiapapata, 8 km (5 mi) from Apia.
What religion is practiced by the vast majority of Samoans?
5726d581dd62a815002e91b6
Christianity
91
False
What word that means human relationships is at the core of Samoa's culture?
5726d581dd62a815002e91b7
vāfealoa'i
357
False
What word is used in Samoa to mean "respect"?
5726d581dd62a815002e91b8
fa'aaloalo
448
False
What percentage of Samoans call themselves Christians?
5726d581dd62a815002e91b9
98%
543
False
Christianity
465
What religion is practiced by the fa'aaloalo?
5a628da1f8d794001af1c0d0
True
vāfealoa'i
357
What word encapsulates the core beliefs of Christianity?
5a628da1f8d794001af1c0d1
True
98%
543
How much of the population believe in fa'a Samoa?
5a628da1f8d794001af1c0d2
True
respect
436
What is the practice of Christianity based on?
5a628da1f8d794001af1c0d3
True
most Samoan people converted
503
What happened when fa'a Samoa was introduced?
5a628da1f8d794001af1c0d4
True
Some Samoans are spiritual and religious, and have subtly adapted the dominant religion of Christianity to 'fit in' with fa'a Samoa and vice versa. As such, ancient beliefs continue to co-exist side-by-side with Christianity, particularly in regard to the traditional customs and rituals of fa'a Samoa. The Samoan culture is centred around the principle of vāfealoa'i, the relationships between people. These relationships are based on respect, or fa'aaloalo. When Christianity was introduced in Samoa, most Samoan people converted. Currently 98% of the population identify themselves as Christian.
What does "siva" mean in Samoan?
5726d7ebf1498d1400e8ecd0
dance
20
False
What's the name of the traditional Samoan dance performed by synchronized rows of dancers?
5726d7ebf1498d1400e8ecd1
sasa
186
False
What are pates?
5726d7ebf1498d1400e8ecd2
wooden drums
303
False
What is the name of the Samoan dance only men can perform?
5726d7ebf1498d1400e8ecd3
fa'ataupati
386
False
The "slap dance" probably mimics the movements of Samoans trying to rid themselves of what creatures?
5726d7ebf1498d1400e8ecd4
insects
535
False
siva
29
What is the Samoan word for rhythm?
5a628f99f8d794001af1c0da
True
the fa'ataupati or the slap dance
382
What is another dance not performed by men?
5a628f99f8d794001af1c0db
True
This is believed to have been derived from slapping insects on the body
483
Why was the siva dance created?
5a628f99f8d794001af1c0dc
True
wooden drums
303
What kind of instruments are used when performing the siva?
5a628f99f8d794001af1c0dd
True
tells a story
102
What else does the sasa do besides having unique gentle movements of the body to music?
5a628f99f8d794001af1c0de
True
The Samoan word for dance is siva with unique gentle movements of the body in time to music and which tells a story, although the Samoan male dances can be more physical and snappy. The sasa is also a traditional dance where rows of dancers perform rapid synchronised movements in time to the rhythm of wooden drums (pate) or rolled mats. Another dance performed by males is called the fa'ataupati or the slap dance, creating rhythmic sounds by slapping different parts of the body. This is believed to have been derived from slapping insects on the body.
What Samoan author write Flying Fox in Freedom Tree?
5726d91ddd62a815002e9274
Albert Wendt
0
False
In what country was Flying Fox in Freedom Tree made into a feature film?
5726d91ddd62a815002e9275
New Zealand
177
False
Which Wendt novel was made into a film directed by Paul Maunder?
5726d91ddd62a815002e9276
Sons for the Return Home
234
False
Who won a Commonwealth Writers' Prize for fiction for her book "Where We Once Belonged"?
5726d91ddd62a815002e9277
Sia Figiel
441
False
What type of literature does Tusiata Avia write?
5726d91ddd62a815002e9278
poetry
711
False
Flying Fox in a Freedom Tree
116
What novel was written by Martyn Sanderson?
5a62915df8d794001af1c0e4
True
was made into a feature film in New Zealand
145
What happened to Martyn Sanderson's novel in 1989?
5a62915df8d794001af1c0e5
True
Commonwealth Writers' Prize for fiction
465
What did Paul Maunder win in 1997?
5a62915df8d794001af1c0e6
True
"Where We Once Belonged"
564
What novel was written by Paul Maunder?
5a62915df8d794001af1c0e7
True
Wild Dogs Under My Skirt
718
What book of poetry was published by John Kneubuhl in 2004?
5a62915df8d794001af1c0e8
True
Albert Wendt is a significant Samoan writer whose novels and stories tell the Samoan experience. In 1989, his novel Flying Fox in a Freedom Tree was made into a feature film in New Zealand, directed by Martyn Sanderson. Another novel Sons for the Return Home had also been made into a feature film in 1979, directed by Paul Maunder. The late John Kneubuhl, born in American Samoa, was an accomplished playwright and screenwriter and writer. Sia Figiel won the 1997 Commonwealth Writers' Prize for fiction in the south-east Asia/South Pacific region with her novel "Where We Once Belonged". Momoe Von Reiche is an internationally recognised poet and artist. Tusiata Avia is a performance poet. Her first book of poetry Wild Dogs Under My Skirt was published by Victoria University Press in 2004. Dan Taulapapa McMullin is an artist and writer. Other Samoan poets and writers include Sapa'u Ruperake Petaia, Eti Sa'aga and Savea Sano Malifa, the editor of the Samoa Observer.
What popular Samoan band has a number in its name?
5726da61f1498d1400e8ed38
The Five Stars
38
False
What song covered by a Samoan group was a 1974 number one in New Zealand?
5726da61f1498d1400e8ed39
Sweet Inspiration
126
False
What award did King Kapisi win for his song Reverse Resistance?
5726da61f1498d1400e8ed3a
New Zealand APRA Silver Scroll Award
266
False
Which hip hop artist filmed a music video for his song Suamalie in Samoa?
5726da61f1498d1400e8ed3b
Tha Feelstyle
506
False
What year did King Kapisi become the first hip hop artist to win an APRA Silver Scroll?
5726da61f1498d1400e8ed3c
1999
306
False
in 1974
189
When did the band The Five Stars reach number one on the New Zealand charts?
5a629330f8d794001af1c0f8
True
New Zealand APRA Silver Scroll Award
266
What award did Penina o Tiafu recieve in 1999?
5a629330f8d794001af1c0f9
True
Reverse Resistance
324
What song did Penina o Tiafau win the award for in 1999?
5a629330f8d794001af1c0fa
True
hip hop
224
What kind of music style does Penina o Tiafau use?
5a629330f8d794001af1c0fb
True
in Samoa
558
Where was The Five Stars music video filmed?
5a629330f8d794001af1c0fc
True
In music, popular local bands include The Five Stars, Penina o Tiafau and Punialava'a. The Yandall Sisters' cover of the song Sweet Inspiration reached number one on the New Zealand charts in 1974. King Kapisi was the first hip hop artist to receive the prestigious New Zealand APRA Silver Scroll Award in 1999 for his song Reverse Resistance. The music video for Reverse Resistance was filmed in Savai'i at his villages. Other successful Samoan hip hop artists include rapper Scribe, Dei Hamo, Savage and Tha Feelstyle whose music video Suamalie was filmed in Samoa.
What did Lemi Ponifasio name his dance company?
5726dc07f1498d1400e8ed8a
MAU
103
False
What genre of music greatly influenced the culture in Samoa?
5726dc07f1498d1400e8ed8b
Hip hop
218
False
What Samoan choreographer founded Black Grace?
5726dc07f1498d1400e8ed8c
Neil Ieremia
108
False
What professor at the University in Hawaii at Manoa wrote about the relationships between hip hop, dance, and traditional Samoan culture?
5726dc07f1498d1400e8ed8d
Katerina Martina Teaiwa
287
False
Among what age group in Samoa is hip hop and dance most popular?
5726dc07f1498d1400e8ed8e
youths
830
False
international acclaim
161
What has Neil Leremia's company MAU recieved when touring in Europe and NY?
5a62963af8d794001af1c120
True
director and choreographer
20
What is Lemi Ponifasio's position at hs company Black Grace?
5a62963af8d794001af1c121
True
Hip hop culture
357
What is popular among Samoan youth according to Lemi Ponifasio?
5a62963af8d794001af1c122
True
youths
830
Among what group is the dance company MAU popular?
5a62963af8d794001af1c123
True
hip hop
511
What dance form is taught at the University of Hawaii?
5a62963af8d794001af1c124
True
Lemi Ponifasio is a director and choreographer who is prominent internationally with his dance Company MAU. Neil Ieremia's company Black Grace has also received international acclaim with tours to Europe and New York. Hip hop has had a significant impact on Samoan culture. According to Katerina Martina Teaiwa, PhD from the University of Hawaii at Manoa, "Hip hop culture in particular is popular amongst Samoan youth." Like very many other countries, hip hop music is popular. In addition, the integration of hip hop elements into Samoan tradition also "testifies to the transferability of the dance forms themselves," and to the "circuits through which people and all their embodied knowledge travel." Dance both in its traditional form and its more modern forms has remained a central cultural currency to Samoans, especially youths.
Who made the film O Tamaiti?
5726dd33f1498d1400e8edbe
Sima Urale
9
False
What was Sima Urale's first feature-length production?
5726dd33f1498d1400e8edbf
Apron Strings
176
False
What movie was the first ever all-Samoan production?
5726dd33f1498d1400e8edc0
The Orator
384
False
Who wrote and directed The Orator?
5726dd33f1498d1400e8edc1
Tusi Tamasese
546
False
In what year did Apron Strings star as the opening film of the NZ International Film Festival?
5726dd33f1498d1400e8edc2
2008
201
False
O Tamaiti
70
What film directed by Oscar Knightley won Best Short Film in 1996?
5a6297e5f8d794001af1c134
True
the 2008 NZ International Film Festival
197
What event did the first feature film made by Oscar Knightley open?
5a6297e5f8d794001af1c135
True
The Orator
384
What was the name of the first fully Samoan film made in 1996?
5a6297e5f8d794001af1c136
True
Tusi Tamasese
546
Who wrote and directed Siones Wedding in 2011?
5a6297e5f8d794001af1c137
True
throughout the world
627
Where did the film Apron Strings receive critical acclaim and attention in 2011?
5a6297e5f8d794001af1c138
True
Director Sima Urale is an award-winning filmmaker. Urale's short film O Tamaiti won the prestigious Best Short Film at the Venice Film Festival in 1996. Her first feature film Apron Strings opened the 2008 NZ International Film Festival. The feature film Siones Wedding, co-written by Oscar Kightley, was financially successful following premieres in Auckland and Apia. The 2011 film The Orator was the first ever fully Samoan film, shot in Samoa in the Samoan language with a Samoan cast telling a uniquely Samoan story. Written and directed by Tusi Tamasese, it received much critical acclaim and attention at film festivals throughout the world.
What do Samoans affectionately call their national rugby team?
5726def05951b619008f80cf
Manu Samoa
80
False
The Samoan team hasn't missed a Rugby World Cup since what year?
5726def05951b619008f80d0
1991
219
False
What organization governs the Samoan rugby team?
5726def05951b619008f80d1
Samoa Rugby Football Union
504
False
What team that went on to become World Cup champions was almost bested by Manu Samoa in 2003?
5726def05951b619008f80d2
England
393
False
In what year did Manu Samoa make it to the second round of the World Cup?
5726def05951b619008f80d3
1999
295
False
Rugby union
0
What is the national sport in England?
5a629af0f8d794001af1c148
True
since 1991
213
How long has England competed at every Rugby World Cup?
5a629af0f8d794001af1c149
True
in 1991, 1995 and the second round of the 1999 world cup
253
How often did England make quarter finals?
5a629af0f8d794001af1c14a
True
At the 2003 world cup
311
When did England come close to beating Samoa?
5a629af0f8d794001af1c14b
True
Pacific Tri-Nations
455
What alliance has England been a member of since 1991?
5a629af0f8d794001af1c14c
True
Rugby union is the national sport in Samoa and the national team, nicknamed the Manu Samoa, is consistently competitive against teams from vastly more populous nations. Samoa has competed at every Rugby World Cup since 1991, and made the quarter finals in 1991, 1995 and the second round of the 1999 world cup. At the 2003 world cup, Manu Samoa came close to beating eventual world champions, England. Samoa also played in the Pacific Nations Cup and the Pacific Tri-Nations The sport is governed by the Samoa Rugby Football Union, who are members of the Pacific Islands Rugby Alliance, and thus, also contribute to the international Pacific Islanders rugby union team.
In what competition did the Samoan rugby team reach the quarter finals in 2013?
5726e320f1498d1400e8eebc
Rugby League World Cup
146
False
Apart from Australia, in what country other than Samoa might Samoan rugby players live?
5726e320f1498d1400e8eebd
New Zealand
51
False
What Samoan rugby player signed to London Irish rugby club?
5726e320f1498d1400e8eebe
Setima Sa
482
False
How many teams played in the 2011 domestic Samoan rugby league competition?
5726e320f1498d1400e8eebf
10
683
False
What rugby club did Maurie Fa'asavalu play for?
5726e320f1498d1400e8eec0
St Helens
434
False
Rugby league
0
What is mostly played by Australians living in New Zealand?
5a62a164f8d794001af1c170
True
made of players playing in the NRL, Super League and domestic players
169
What players made up the British rugby team in 2013?
5a62a164f8d794001af1c171
True
10
683
How many teams played in the 2013 Rugby League World Cup?
5a62a164f8d794001af1c172
True
London Irish rugby club
508
What rugby club did Francis Meli sign with in 2012?
5a62a164f8d794001af1c173
True
12
716
How many teams will the NRL expand to have in 2012?
5a62a164f8d794001af1c174
True
Rugby league is mostly played by Samoans living in New Zealand and Australia,[citation needed] with Samoa reaching the quarter finals of the 2013 Rugby League World Cup made of players playing in the NRL, Super League and domestic players. Many Samoans and New Zealanders or Australians of Samoan descent play in the Super League and National Leagues in Britain. Francis Meli, Ta'ane Lavulavu of Workington Town, Maurie Fa'asavalu of St Helens and David Fatialofa of Whitehaven and Setima Sa who signed with London Irish rugby club. Other noteworthy players from NZ and Australia have represented the Samoan National team. The 2011 domestic Samoan rugby league competition contained 10 teams with plans to expand to 12 in 2012.
Pope_Paul_VI
On What date was Pope Paul VI born?
57269bfff1498d1400e8e4c0
26 September 1897
184
False
On what date did Pope Paul VI die?
57269bfff1498d1400e8e4c1
6 August 1978)
204
False
In what year did Pope Paul VI close the Second Vatican Counsel?
57269bfff1498d1400e8e4c2
1965
363
False
When was Pope Paul VI elected as Pope?
57269bfff1498d1400e8e4c3
21 June 1963
241
False
What was Pope Paul VI's first name at birth?
57269bfff1498d1400e8e4c4
Giovanni
57
False
Pope Paul VI (Latin: Paulus VI; Italian: Paolo VI), born Giovanni Battista Enrico Antonio Maria Montini (Italian pronunciation: [dʒioˈvani baˈtista enˈriko anˈtonjo marˈija monˈtini]; 26 September 1897 – 6 August 1978), reigned as Pope from 21 June 1963 to his death in 1978. Succeeding Pope John XXIII, he continued the Second Vatican Council which he closed in 1965, implementing its numerous reforms, and fostered improved ecumenical relations with Eastern Orthodox and Protestants, which resulted in many historic meetings and agreements. Montini served in the Vatican's Secretariat of State from 1922 to 1954. While in the Secretariat of State, Montini and Domenico Tardini were considered as the closest and most influential colleagues of Pope Pius XII, who in 1954 named him Archbishop of Milan, the largest Italian diocese. Montini automatically became the Secretary of the Italian Bishops Conference. John XXIII elevated him to the College of Cardinals in 1958, and after the death of John XXIII, Montini was considered one of his most likely successors.
What type of devotee was Pope Paul VI?
57269ef1708984140094cbf5
Marian
796
False
What name had not been used for a Pope since the year 1605?
57269ef1708984140094cbf6
"Paul"
102
False
In what year was the name "Paul" last used as a pontifical name before Pope Paul VI became Pope?
57269ef1708984140094cbf7
1605
115
False
What did Pope Paul VI re-convene when he became Pope?
57269ef1708984140094cbf8
the Second Vatican Council
269
False
What publication promoted Pope Paul VI's views on abortion?
57269ef1708984140094cbf9
encyclical Humanae vitae
1433
False
Upon his election to the papacy, Montini took the pontifical name Paul VI (the first to take the name "Paul" since 1605) to indicate a renewed worldwide mission to spread the message of Christ, following the example of Apostle St. Paul.[citation needed] He re-convened the Second Vatican Council, which was automatically closed with the death of John XXIII, and gave it priority and direction. After the council had concluded its work, Paul VI took charge of the interpretation and implementation of its mandates, often walking a thin line between the conflicting expectations of various groups within Catholicism. The magnitude and depth of the reforms affecting all fields of Church life during his pontificate exceeded similar reform policies of his predecessors and successors. Paul VI was a Marian devotee, speaking repeatedly to Marian congresses and mariological meetings, visiting Marian shrines and issuing three Marian encyclicals. Following his famous predecessor Saint Ambrose of Milan, he named Mary as the Mother of the Church during the Second Vatican Council. Paul VI sought dialogue with the world, with other Christians, other religions, and atheists, excluding nobody. He saw himself as a humble servant for a suffering humanity and demanded significant changes of the rich in North America and Europe in favour of the poor in the Third World. His positions on birth control, promulgated most famously in the 1968 encyclical Humanae vitae, and other political issues, were often controversial, especially in Western Europe and North America.
In what Italian province was Giovanni Battista Montini born?
57269ff7dd62a815002e8b56
Brescia, Lombardy
82
False
In what Italian village was Giovanni Battista Montini born?
57269ff7dd62a815002e8b57
Concesio
53
False
What political organization was Giovanni's father a member of?
57269ff7dd62a815002e8b58
Italian Parliament
212
False
How many brothers did Giovanni have?
57269ff7dd62a815002e8b59
two
305
False
What was Giovanni's mother descended from?
57269ff7dd62a815002e8b5a
rural nobility
282
False
Giovanni Battista Montini was born in the village of Concesio, in the province of Brescia, Lombardy in 1897. His father Giorgio Montini was a lawyer, journalist, director of the Catholic Action and member of the Italian Parliament. His mother was Giudetta Alghisi, from a family of rural nobility. He had two brothers, Francesco Montini, who became a physician, and Lodovico Montini, who became a lawyer and politician. On 30 September 1897, he was baptized in the name of Giovanni Battista Enrico Antonio Maria Montini. He attended Cesare Arici, a school run by the Jesuits, and in 1916, he received a diploma from Arnaldo da Brescia, a public school in Brescia. His education was often interrupted by bouts of illness.
In what year did Montini enter the Catholic seminary to become a priest?
5726a158708984140094cc59
1916
3
False
In what field did Montini obtain a doctorate in?
5726a158708984140094cc5a
Canon Law
267
False
In what city did Montini finish his doctoral studies?
5726a158708984140094cc5b
Milan
241
False
At what age did Montini enter the Secretariat of state?
5726a158708984140094cc5c
twenty-five
479
False
Where did Montini continue to study at the request of Giuseppe Pizzardo?
5726a158708984140094cc5d
Accademia dei Nobili Ecclesiastici
429
False
In 1916, he entered the seminary to become a Roman Catholic priest. He was ordained priest on 29 May 1920 in Brescia and celebrated his first Holy Mass in Brescia in the Basilica of Santa Maria delle Grazie. Montini concluded his studies in Milan with a doctorate in Canon Law in the same year. Afterwards he studied at the Gregorian University, the University of Rome La Sapienza and, at the request of Giuseppe Pizzardo at the Accademia dei Nobili Ecclesiastici. At the age of twenty-five, again at the request of Giuseppe Pizzardo, Montini entered the Secretariat of State in 1922, where he worked under Pizzardo together with Francesco Borgongini-Duca, Alfredo Ottaviani, Carlo Grano, Domenico Tardini and Francis Spellman. Consequently, he spent not a day as a parish priest. In 1925 he helped found the publishing house Morcelliana in Brescia, focused on promoting a 'Christian inspired culture'.
What political problem did Montini feel he needed to address as a diplomat in Poland?
5726a337f1498d1400e8e58a
excessive nationalism
217
False
How did Montini see the nationalism of Poland as a problem?
5726a337f1498d1400e8e58b
treats foreigners as enemies
266
False
What humanitarian concept did Montini see nationalism as violating?
5726a337f1498d1400e8e58c
common frontiers
336
False
What type of political stability was compromised as a result of violent nationalism?
5726a337f1498d1400e8e58d
Peace
498
False
Where was Montini happy to return to after his tenure in Poland?
5726a337f1498d1400e8e58e
Rome
574
False
The only foreign diplomatic experience Montini underwent was his time in the nunciature in Warsaw, Poland in 1923. Like Achille Ratti before him,[a] he felt confronted with the huge problem, not limited to Poland, of excessive nationalism: "This form of nationalism treats foreigners as enemies, especially foreigners with whom one has common frontiers. Then one seeks the expansion of one's own country at the expense of the immediate neighbours. People grow up with a feeling of being hemmed in. Peace becomes a transient compromise between wars." When he was recalled to Rome he was happy to go, because "this concludes this episode of my life, which has provided useful, though not always joyful, experiences."
What type of natural ability helped Montini in his career in the Roman Curia?
5726a578f1498d1400e8e5f4
organisational skills
4
False
When was Paccelli elected to the papacy?
5726a578f1498d1400e8e5f5
1939
681
False
With whom did Montini have a relationship with that eventually groomed him for the papacy?
5726a578f1498d1400e8e5f6
Pacelli
656
False
Where did Montini teach history?
5726a578f1498d1400e8e5f7
Papal Academy for Diplomats
146
False
Who was Montini's mentor that eventually became a Cardinal?
5726a578f1498d1400e8e5f8
Giuseppe Pizzardo
200
False
His organisational skills led him to a career in the Roman Curia, the papal civil service. In 1931, Pacelli appointed him to teach history at the Papal Academy for Diplomats In 1937, after his mentor Giuseppe Pizzardo was named a cardinal and was succeeded by Domenico Tardini, Montini was named Substitute for Ordinary Affairs under Cardinal Pacelli, the Secretary of State under Pope Pius XI. From Pius XI, whom he viewed with awe, he adopted the view, that learning is a life long process, and that history was the magister vitae teacher of life His immediate supervisor in the Vatican was Domenico Tardini, with whom he got along well. The election of Pacelli to the papacy in 1939, anticipated by everybody and openly promoted by Pope Pius XI in his last years, was a good omen for Montini, whose position was confirmed in the position under the new Cardinal Secretary of State Luigi Maglione. He met the pope every morning until 1954 and thus developed a rather close relationship:
What department did Montini oversee when he worked with the Secretariat of State?
5726a764f1498d1400e8e636
ordinary affairs
236
False
What organization did Montini, Maglione and Tardini belong to?
5726a764f1498d1400e8e637
Vatican's State Department
77
False
What role did Montini fill for Pius XII?
5726a764f1498d1400e8e638
Private Secretary
405
False
What did Montini take charge of responding to on behalf of Pius XII?
5726a764f1498d1400e8e639
letters
616
False
During what time was Montini responsible for the communications of the Vatican?
5726a764f1498d1400e8e63a
war years
167
False
As war broke out, Maglione, Tardini and Montini were the main figures in the Vatican's State Department, as despatches originated from or addressed to them during the war years.[page needed] Montini was in charge of taking care of the "ordinary affairs" of the Secretariat of State, which took much of the mornings of every working day. In the afternoon he moved to the third floor into the Office of the Private Secretary of the Pontiff. Pius XII did not have a personal secretary. As did several popes before him, he delegated the secretarial functions to the State Secretariat. During the war years, thousands of letters from all parts of the world arrived at the desk of the pope, most of them asking for understanding, prayer and help. Montini was tasked to formulate the replies in the name of Pius XII, expressing his empathy, and understanding and providing help, where possible.
In what year was the office for information for prisoners and refugees founded?
5726a975708984140094cd35
1939
137
False
How many inquiries did Mintini receive regarding missing persons ?
5726a975708984140094cd36
ten million
169
False
What was Montini accused of being by the Italian government?
5726a975708984140094cd37
politician
371
False
With whom did Montini feel he had a brother like connection to?
5726a975708984140094cd38
Pope Pius XII
640
False
What Italian Prime Minister attacked Montini for his political stances?
5726a975708984140094cd39
Mussolini
343
False
At the request of the pope, he created an information office for prisoners of war and refugees, which in the years of its existence from 1939 until 1947 received almost ten million (9 891 497) information requests and produced over eleven million (11.293.511) answers about missing persons. Montini was several times openly attacked by Benito Mussolini's government as a politician, and meddling in politics, but each time he found powerful defenses by the Vatican. In 1944, Luigi Maglione died, and Pius XII appointed Tardini and Montini together as heads of the State Department. Montini's admiration was almost filial, when he described Pope Pius XII:
Who requested Montini become involved in the Church Asylum movement?
5726abd7f1498d1400e8e6b6
Pius XII
732
False
What war time group did the Vatican and Papal residence open their doors to?
5726abd7f1498d1400e8e6b7
refugees
597
False
How many people lived at Castel Gofolfo during the war?
5726abd7f1498d1400e8e6b8
15,000
612
False
What organization did Montini form with other fellow officials to help refugees?
5726abd7f1498d1400e8e6b9
Pontificia Commissione di Assistenza
275
False
What did Montini strive to reestablish to help persecuted Jews and allied soldiers?
5726abd7f1498d1400e8e6ba
Church Asylum
795
False
As Secretary of State Montini coordinated the activities of assistance to the persecuted hidden in convents, parishes, seminaries, and in ecclesiastical schools. At the request of the pope, together with Pascalina Lehnert, Ferdinando Baldelli and Otto Faller, he created the Pontificia Commissione di Assistenza, which aided large number of Romans and refugees from everywhere with shelter, food and other material assistance. In Rome alone this organization distributed almost two million portions of free food in the year 1944. The Vatican and the Papal Residence Castel Gandolfo were opened to refugees. Some 15,000 persons lived in Castel Gandolfo alone, supported by the Pontificia Commissione di Assistenza. At the request of Pius XII, Montini was also involved in the re-establishment of Church Asylum, providing protection to hundreds of Allied soldiers, who had escaped from Axis prison camps, Jews, anti-Fascists, Socialists, Communists, and after the liberation of Rome, German soldiers, partisans and other displaced persons. After the war and later as pope, Montini turned the Pontificia Commissione di Assistenza, into the major charity, Caritas Italiana.[b]
In what year did Pius XII deliver a radio address announcing Montini's papal appointment?
5726ad0d5951b619008f79d1
1954
145
False
In what year did Montini become the archbishop of the Cathedral of Milan?
5726ad0d5951b619008f79d2
1955
307
False
On what date did Montini become the archbishop of Milan?
5726ad0d5951b619008f79d3
5 January
297
False
To what Italian city was Montini appointed archbishop?
5726ad0d5951b619008f79d4
Milan
488
False
Where was Pius XII when he announced Montini's appointment as archbishop?
5726ad0d5951b619008f79d5
his sick-bed
63
False
Pius XII delivered an address about Montini's appointment from his sick-bed over radio to those assembled in St. Peter's Basilica on 12 December 1954. Both Montini and the pope had tears in their eyes when Montini parted for his dioceses with 1,000 churches, 2,500 priests and 3,500,000 souls. On 5 January 1955, Montini formally took possession of his Cathedral of Milan. Montini, after a period of preparation, liked his new tasks as archbishop, connecting to all groups of faithful in Milan. He enjoyed meetings with intellectuals, artists and writers.
What group did Montini oppose reforming?
5726aec85951b619008f7a29
Ecumenical Council
113
False
In what year was Montini appointed to the Central Preparatory Commission?
5726aec85951b619008f7a2a
1961
330
False
Where did the Pope ask Cardinal Montini to live?
5726aec85951b619008f7a2b
Vatican
408
False
What did Montini avoid as a member of the Commission for Extraordinary Affairs?
5726aec85951b619008f7a2c
debates
524
False
What illness had the Pope contracted?
5726aec85951b619008f7a2d
cancer
956
False
Montini and Angelo Roncalli were considered to be friends, but when Roncalli, as Pope John XXIII announced a new Ecumenical Council, Cardinal Montini reacted with disbelief and said to Giulio Bevilacqua: "This old boy does not know what a hornets nest he is stirring up." He was appointed to the Central Preparatory Commission in 1961. During the Council, his friend Pope John XXIII asked him to live in the Vatican. He was a member of the Commission for Extraordinary Affairs but did not engage himself much into the floor debates on various issues. His main advisor was Monsignore Giovanni Colombo, whom he later appointed to be his successor in Milan The Commission was greatly overshadowed by the insistence of John XXIII to have the Council complete all its work in one single session before Christmas 1962, to the 400th anniversary of the Council of Trent, an insistence which may have also been influenced by the Pope's recent knowledge that he had cancer.
What type of political viewpoint was Montini known for as a member of the Catholic leadership?
5726b0d3f1498d1400e8e788
progressive
51
False
What part of Catholic ministry did Montini seek to reform?
5726b0d3f1498d1400e8e789
pastoral care
122
False
What type of media did Montini use to advertise the church's sermons to the people of Milan?
5726b0d3f1498d1400e8e78a
posters
331
False
How many "voices" did Montini's posters claim the people of Milan would hear?
5726b0d3f1498d1400e8e78b
1,000
354
False
From the 10 of NOvember to the 24 of November how many sermons were actually delivered to the Italian people?
5726b0d3f1498d1400e8e78c
7,000
492
False
During his period in Milan, Montini was known as a progressive member of the Catholic hierarchy. Montini went new ways in pastoral care, which he reformed. He used his authority to ensure that the liturgical reforms of Pius XII were carried out at the local level and employed innovative methods to reach the people of Milan: Huge posters announced that 1,000 voices would speak to them from 10 to 24 November 1957. More than 500 priests and many bishops, cardinals and lay persons delivered 7,000 sermons in the period not only in churches but in factories, meeting halls, houses, courtyards, schools, offices, military barracks, hospitals, hotels and other places, where people meet. His goal was the re-introduction of faith to a city without much religion. "If only we can say Our Father and know what this means, then we would understand the Christian faith."
To whom did Montini speak as an archbishop in the year 1957?
5726b1fcdd62a815002e8d1c
Second World Congress of Lay Apostolate
99
False
According to Montini was does the term apostolate mean?
5726b1fcdd62a815002e8d1d
love
458
False
How many nations did Montini hope to unify as Pro-secretary?
5726b1fcdd62a815002e8d1e
58
239
False
When was Montini's first meeting addressing the unification of Catholic lay followers?
5726b1fcdd62a815002e8d1f
1951
332
False
Pius XII asked Archbishop Montini to Rome October 1957, where he gave the main presentation to the Second World Congress of Lay Apostolate. Previously as Pro-Secretary, he had worked hard to unify a worldwide organization of lay people of 58 nations, representing 42 national organizations. He presented them to Pius XII in Rome in 1951. The second meeting in 1957 gave Montini an opportunity to express the lay apostolate in modern terms: "Apostolate means love. We will love all, but especially those, who need help... We will love our time, our technology, our art, our sports, our world."
What role was Montini not considered a likely candidate for?
5726b2a55951b619008f7ae7
pope
90
False
What had Montini yet to become?
5726b2a55951b619008f7ae8
a cardinal,
171
False
Who was elected pope in 1958?
5726b2a55951b619008f7ae9
Angelo Roncalli
221
False
When did Montini finally become a cardinal?
5726b2a55951b619008f7aea
15 December 1958
486
False
What doicese did Montini become cardinal of?
5726b2a55951b619008f7aeb
Ss. Silvestro e Martino
533
False
Although some cardinals seem to have viewed him as papabile, a likely candidate to become pope, and may have received some votes in the 1958 conclave, Montini was not yet a cardinal, which made him an unlikely choice.[c] Angelo Roncalli was elected pope on 28 October 1958 and assumed the name John XXIII. On 17 November 1958, L'Osservatore Romano announced a consistory for the creation of new cardinals. Montini's name led the list. When the pope raised Montini to the cardinalate on 15 December 1958, he became Cardinal-Priest of Ss. Silvestro e Martino ai Monti. He appointed him simultaneously to several Vatican congregations which resulted in many visits by Montini to Rome in the coming years.
What country did Montini visit as Cardinal?
5726b375708984140094ce31
Africa
36
False
In what year did Montini travel to visit Africa as a cardinal?
5726b375708984140094ce32
1962
44
False
How many foreign trips did Montini make as Cardinal?
5726b375708984140094ce33
fifteen
238
False
In what year did Montini visit the United States?
5726b375708984140094ce34
1960
296
False
Where did Montini like to use as a retreat as a cardinal?
5726b375708984140094ce35
Engelberg Abbey
474
False
As a Cardinal, Montini journeyed to Africa (1962), where he visited Ghana, Sudan, Kenya, Congo, Rhodesia, South Africa, and Nigeria. After his journey, John XXIII gave him a private audience on his trip which lasted for several hours. In fifteen other trips he visited Brazil (1960) and the USA (1960), including New York City, Washington, DC, Chicago, the University of Notre Dame in Indiana, Boston, Philadelphia, and Baltimore. While a cardinal, he usually vacationed in Engelberg Abbey, a secluded Benedictine monastery in Switzerland.
What role was Montini not perceived to fill unlike some of his fellow cardinals?
5726b4b65951b619008f7b2d
reformer
167
False
What organization did the church expect Montini to continue?
5726b4b65951b619008f7b2e
Second Vatican Council
222
False
What illness caused the death of Pope John XXIII
5726b4b65951b619008f7b2f
stomach cancer
538
False
In what year did Pope John XXIII die?
5726b4b65951b619008f7b30
1963
563
False
What role did Pope John XXIII's death precipitate the election of?
5726b4b65951b619008f7b31
pope
608
False
Unlike the papabile cardinals Giacomo Lercaro of Bologna and Giuseppe Siri of Genoa, he was not identified with either the left or right, nor was he seen as a radical reformer. He was viewed as most likely to continue the Second Vatican Council, which already, without any tangible results, had lasted longer than anticipated by John XXIII, who had a vision but "did not have a clear agenda. His rhetoric seems to have had a note of over-optimism, a confidence in progress, which was characteristic of the 1960s." When John XXIII died of stomach cancer on 3 June 1963, it triggered a conclave to elect a new pope.
What did Paul VI donate to the Basilica of the National Shrine of the Immaculate Conception ?
5726b6285951b619008f7b7d
Papal Tiara
358
False
What group gave Paul VI his Papal tiara?
5726b6285951b619008f7b7e
Archdiocese of Milan
394
False
Where is the Basilica of the National Shrine of the Immaculate Conception located?
5726b6285951b619008f7b7f
Washington, DC
487
False
Who was the last pope to be crowned?
5726b6285951b619008f7b80
Paul VI
0
False
What ceremony had Paul VI left in place in in the 1975 apostolic constitution?
5726b6285951b619008f7b81
Papal Coronation
152
False
Paul VI did away with much of the regal splendor of the papacy. He was the last pope to date to be crowned; his successor Pope John Paul I replaced the Papal Coronation (which Paul had already substantially modified, but which he left mandatory in his 1975 apostolic constitution Romano Pontifici Eligendo) with a Papal Inauguration. Paul VI donated his own Papal Tiara, a gift from his former Archdiocese of Milan, to the Basilica of the National Shrine of the Immaculate Conception in Washington, DC (where it is on permanent display in the Crypt) as a gift to American Catholics.
Who was President of the Christian Unity Secretariat?
5726b7a95951b619008f7bad
Cardinal Augustin Bea
117
False
What did Paul VI believe in keeping friendly to people of other Christian faiths?
5726b7a95951b619008f7bae
Council language
264
False
Who insisted that Protestant and Orthodox Christians be invited to all Counsel meetings?
5726b7a95951b619008f7baf
Pope John XXIII
415
False
Which cardinal became heavily engaged in the passage of Nostra aetate?
5726b7a95951b619008f7bb0
Cardinal Augustin Bea
117
False
Which Vatican strove to avoid offending other Christian faiths with counsel session language?
5726b7a95951b619008f7bb1
Vatican II
7
False
During Vatican II, the Council Fathers avoided statements which might anger Christians of other faiths.[page needed] Cardinal Augustin Bea, the President of the Christian Unity Secretariat, always had the full support of Paul VI in his attempts to ensure that the Council language was friendly and open to the sensitivities of Protestant and Orthodox Churches, whom he had invited to all sessions at the request of Pope John XXIII. Bea also was strongly involved in the passage of Nostra aetate, which regulates the Church's relations with the Jewish faith and members of other religions.[d]
What did Paul VI want to keep open with the modern world and people from all walks of life?
5726b8addd62a815002e8e26
a dialogue
132
False
How many days after Paul VI election did he announce he would continue the Vatican II?
5726b8addd62a815002e8e27
Six
236
False
On what date was Vatican II re convened?
5726b8addd62a815002e8e28
29 September
353
False
Six days after he was elected, what did Paul VI announce he would continue?
5726b8addd62a815002e8e29
Vatican II
300
False
What did Paul want to reform as a newly elected pope?
5726b8addd62a815002e8e2a
Canon Law
655
False
After his election as Bishop of Rome, Paul VI first met with the priests in his new dioceses. He told them that in Milan he started a dialogue with the modern world and asked them to seek contact with all people from all walks of life. Six days after his election he announced that he would continue Vatican II and convened the opening to take place on 29 September 1963. In a radio address to the world, Paul VI recalled the uniqueness of his predecessors, the strength of Pius XI, the wisdom and intelligence of Pius XII and the love of John XXIII. As "his pontifical goals" he mentioned the continuation and completion of Vatican II, the reform of the Canon Law and improved social peace and justice in the world. The Unity of Christianity would be central to his activities.
What edict did Pope Pius XXIII issue regarding the body of Christ?
5726bab35951b619008f7c17
Mystici corporis
102
False
How is the body of Christ regarded by Catholic liturgy?
5726bab35951b619008f7c18
mystical
129
False
What type of language did Paul VI want to the church to relay dogma in?
5726bab35951b619008f7c19
simple
235
False
From what area were bishops prevented from attending the ecumenical meeting of Paul VI?
5726bab35951b619008f7c1a
the east
504
False
What did Paul VI ask other Christian faiths forgiveness for?
5726bab35951b619008f7c1b
separation
432
False
He reminded the council fathers that only a few years earlier Pope Pius XII had issued the encyclical Mystici corporis about the mystical body of Christ. He asked them not to repeat or create new dogmatic definitions but to explain in simple words how the Church sees itself. He thanked the representatives of other Christian communities for their attendance and asked for their forgiveness if the Catholic Church is guilty for the separation. He also reminded the Council Fathers that many bishops from the east could not attend because the governments in the East did not permit their journeys.
What topic did Paul VI see as the most important to the church counsel?
5726bc075951b619008f7c5f
Church
116
False
Who did Paul VI feel was most important in the Catholic Hierarchy?
5726bc075951b619008f7c60
papacy
236
False
What did the American Counsel of Bishops rally for?
5726bc075951b619008f7c61
religious freedom
442
False
What Saint did Paul VI denote as mother of the Catholic church?
5726bc075951b619008f7c62
Mary
634
False
In what year did Paul VI formally appoint Mary as mother of the Catholic church?
5726bc075951b619008f7c63
1964
595
False
Paul VI opened the third period on 14 September 1964, telling the Council Fathers that he viewed the text about the Church as the most important document to come out from the Council. As the Council discussed the role of bishops in the papacy, Paul VI issued an explanatory note confirming the primacy of the papacy, a step which was viewed by some as meddling in the affairs of the Council American bishops pushed for a speedy resolution on religious freedom, but Paul VI insisted this to be approved together with related texts such as ecumenism. The Pope concluded the session on 21 November 1964, with the formal pronouncement of Mary as Mother of the Church.
What did Paul VI enact between the third and fourth ecumenical sessions?
5726bd6f708984140094cfdb
reforms
57
False
What does the Catholic church considered "mixed" in a "mixed marriage"?
5726bd6f708984140094cfdc
faiths
167
False
What is celebrated in the Catholic calendar the 8 of December?
5726bd6f708984140094cfdd
the Feast of the Immaculate Conception.
466
False
In what year was Paul Vi's final counsel session?
5726bd6f708984140094cfde
1965
460
False
With whom did Paul VI celebrate surviving persecution in other countries?
5726bd6f708984140094cfdf
bishops
265
False
Between the third and fourth sessions the pope announced reforms in the areas of Roman Curia, revision of Canon Law, regulations for mixed marriages involving several faiths, and birth control issues. He opened the final session of the council, concelebrating with bishops from countries where the Church was persecuted. Several texts proposed for his approval had to be changed. But all texts were finally agreed upon. The Council was concluded on 8 December 1965, the Feast of the Immaculate Conception.
For whom did Paul VI work for from 1922 to 1954?
5726be6b708984140094d011
Roman Curia
22
False
In what year did Paul VI issue a regulation?
5726be6b708984140094d012
1968
176
False
With whom did Paul VI issue a regulation in 1968?
5726be6b708984140094d013
Pontificalis Domus
299
False
What did Paul Vi's reforms reduce in the Curia?
5726be6b708984140094d014
bureaucracy
451
False
Whose representation was enlarged through reforms in the Curia?
5726be6b708984140094d015
non-Italians
535
False
Pope Paul VI knew the Roman Curia well, having worked there for a generation from 1922 to 1954. He implemented his reforms in stages, rather than in one fell swoop. On 1 March 1968, he issued a regulation, a process that had been initiated by Pius XII and continued by John XXIII. On 28 March, with Pontificalis Domus, and in several additional Apostolic Constitutions in the following years, he revamped the entire Curia, which included reduction of bureaucracy, streamlining of existing congregations and a broader representation of non-Italians in the curial positions.
At what age were cardinals restricted by Paul Vi from participating in conclaves?
5726bfb3708984140094d057
eighty
88
False
At what age were bishops required to retire by Paul VI?
5726bfb3708984140094d058
75
301
False
At what age were cardinals subsequently required to retire in an edict issued in 1970?
5726bfb3708984140094d059
75
301
False
What did Paul VI over hall with age and retirement restrictions?
5726bfb3708984140094d05a
papal elections
23
False
When was Paul Vi's Ecclesiae Sanctae issued?
5726bfb3708984140094d05b
1966
185
False
Paul VI revolutionized papal elections by ordering that only cardinals below the age of eighty might participate in future conclaves. In Ecclesiae Sanctae, his motu proprio of 6 August 1966, he further invited all bishops to offer their retirement to the pontiff no later than the completion of their 75th year of age. This requirement was extended to all Cardinals of the Catholic Church on 21 November 1970. With these two stipulations, the Pope filled several positions with younger bishops and cardinals, and further internationalized the Roman Curia in light of several resignations due to age.
What language was traditionally used in Roman Catholic services?
5726c10add62a815002e8f80
Latin
273
False
What were revised between 1951 and 1955?
5726c10add62a815002e8f81
Easter liturgies
418
False
What was re instated to the Easter liturgy by reform?
5726c10add62a815002e8f82
Easter Triduum
504
False
What type of service did Paul Vi announce reformed in 1969?
5726c10add62a815002e8f83
Mass
755
False
How many new prayers were included in the official mass reforms of 1969?
5726c10add62a815002e8f84
three
899
False
Reform of the liturgy had been a part of the liturgical movements in the 20th century mainly in France, and Germany which were officially recognized by Pius XII in his encyclical Mediator Dei. During the pontificate of Pius XII, the Vatican eased regulations on the use of Latin in Roman Catholic liturgies, permitting some use of vernacular languages during baptisms, funerals and other events. In 1951 and 1955, the Easter liturgies underwent revision, most notably including the reintroduction of the Easter Triduum. The Second Vatican Council made no changes to the Roman Missal, but in the document Sacrosanctum Concilium mandated that a general revision of it take place. After the Vatican Council, in April 1969, Paul VI approved the "new Order of Mass" promulgated in 1970, as stated in the Acta Apostolica Sedis to "end experimentation" with the Mass and which included the introduction of three new Eucharistic Prayers to what was up to then a single Roman Canon.
What type of language did Paul Vi's reforms approve for use in the Catholic mass?
5726c245dd62a815002e8fb0
vernacular
76
False
How old was the mass reformed by Paul VI?
5726c245dd62a815002e8fb1
400-year
359
False
What type of music was used in traditional mass?
5726c245dd62a815002e8fb2
Gregorian Chant
646
False
Who unified two previous popes views of the Roman Catholic Mass?
5726c245dd62a815002e8fb3
Pope Benedict XVI
790
False
In what year were the various versions of the Catholic mass finally synthesized?
5726c245dd62a815002e8fb4
2007
784
False
The Mass of Paul VI was also in Latin but approval was given for the use of vernacular languages. There had been other instructions issued by the Pope in 1964, 1967, 1968, 1969 and 1970 which centered on the reform of all liturgies of the Roman Church. These major reforms were not welcomed by all and in all countries. The sudden apparent "outlawing" of the 400-year-old Mass, the last typical edition of which being promulgated only a few years earlier in 1962 by Paul's predecessor, Pope John XXIII, was not always explained well. Further experimentation with the new Mass by liturgists, such as the usage of pop/folk music (as opposed to the Gregorian Chant advocated by Pope Pius X), along with concurrent changes in the order of sanctuaries, was viewed by some as vandalism. In 2007, Pope Benedict XVI clarified that the 1962 Mass of John XXIII and the 1970 Mass of Paul VI are two forms of the same Roman Rite, the first, which had never been "juridically abrogated", now being an "extraordinary form of the Roman Rite", while the other "obviously is and continues to be the normal Form – the Forma ordinaria – of the Eucharistic Liturgy".
Who established the Pontifical Council for Culture?
5726c3b1f1498d1400e8ea96
Pope John Paul II
259
False
What organization did Paul VI create to address non believers by the church?
5726c3b1f1498d1400e8ea97
Secretariat for non-Christians
27
False
What was the Secretariat for non-believers eventually renamed?
5726c3b1f1498d1400e8ea98
Pontifical Council for Interreligious Dialogue
77
False
What Prime Minister did Paul VI attempt to interact with in order to help Catholics in Communist countries?
5726c3b1f1498d1400e8ea99
Andrei Gromyko
750
False
What is celebrated by the Catholic church on January 1 of every year?
5726c3b1f1498d1400e8ea9a
peace day
519
False
In 1964, Paul VI created a Secretariat for non-Christians, later renamed the Pontifical Council for Interreligious Dialogue and a year later a new Secretariat (later Pontifical Council) for Dialogue with Non-Believers. This latter was in 1993 incorporated by Pope John Paul II in the Pontifical Council for Culture, which he had established in 1982. In 1971, Paul VI created a papal office for economic development and catastrophic assistance. To foster common bonds with all persons of good will, he decreed an annual peace day to be celebrated on January first of every year. Trying to improve the condition of Christians behind the Iron Curtain, Paul VI engaged in dialogue with Communist authorities at several levels, receiving Foreign Minister Andrei Gromyko and Chairman of the Presidium of the Supreme Soviet Nikolai Podgorny in 1966 and 1967 in the Vatican. The situation of the Church in Hungary, Poland and Romania, improved during his pontificate.
In what year was pre and extra marital sex outlawed by the Catholic church?
5726c4fbdd62a815002e8fe2
1976
134
False
Who was accused of being a homosexual in 1976?
5726c4fbdd62a815002e8fe3
Montini
8
False
Who brought allegations of Montini's homosexuality?
5726c4fbdd62a815002e8fe4
Roger Peyrefitte
365
False
Who was Montini's alleged lover?
5726c4fbdd62a815002e8fe5
Paolo Carlini
603
False
On what date did Montini publicly address charges of homosexuality?
5726c4fbdd62a815002e8fe6
April 18
964
False
In 1976 Montini became the first pontiff in modern history to deny the accusation of homosexuality. Published by his order in January 1976 was a homily Persona Humana: Declaration on Certain Questions concerning Sexual Ethics, which outlawed pre or extra-marital sex, condemned homosexuality, and forbade masturbation. It provoked French author and former diplomat Roger Peyrefitte, in an interview published by the magazine Tempo, to accuse Montini of hypocrisy, and of having a longtime lover who was a movie actor. According to rumors prevalent both inside the Curia and in Italian society, this was Paolo Carlini, who had a bit part as a hairdresser in the Audrey Hepburn film Roman Holiday. Peyrefitte had previously published the accusation in two books, but the interview (previously published in a French gay magazine) brought the rumors to a wider public and caused an uproar. In a brief address to a crowd of approximately 20,000 in St. Peters Square on April 18, Montini called the charges "horrible and slanderous insinuations" and appealed for prayers on his behalf. Special prayers for Montini were said in all Italian Roman Catholic churches in "a day of consolation". In 1984 a New York Times correspondent repeated the allegations.
How many continents did Paul Vi visit as pope?
5726c5c7708984140094d10d
six
44
False
What was Paul Vi's nickname during his papacy?
5726c5c7708984140094d10e
the Pilgrim Pope
139
False
In what year did Paul VI journey to the Holy Land?
5726c5c7708984140094d10f
1964
316
False
In what country was an assignation attempt made on the life of Paul VI?
5726c5c7708984140094d110
Manila
717
False
Who organized Paul Vi's visit to Manila?
5726c5c7708984140094d111
Msgr. Paul Marcinkus
920
False
Pope Paul VI became the first pope to visit six continents, and was the most travelled pope in history to that time, earning the nickname "the Pilgrim Pope". With his travels he opened new avenues for the papacy, which were continued by his successors John Paul II and Benedict XVI. He travelled to the Holy Land in 1964, to the Eucharistic Congresses in Bombay, India and Bogotá, Colombia. In 1966, however, he was twice denied permission to visit Poland for the 1,000th anniversary of the baptism of Poland. In 1967, however, fifty years after the first apparition, he visited Fátima in Portugal. He undertook a pastoral visit to Africa in 1969. On 27 November 1970 he was the target of an assassination attempt at Manila International Airport in the Philippines. He was only lightly stabbed by the would-be assassin Benjamín Mendoza y Amor Flores, who was subdued by the pope's personal bodyguard and trip organizer, Msgr. Paul Marcinkus.
What group did Paul VI address in New York in 1965?
5726c6dd5951b619008f7dc9
United Nations
130
False
Who was the first pope to visit the United States?
5726c6dd5951b619008f7dca
Pope Paul VI
0
False
To whom did Paul VI give a diamond cross and ring in hopes it would raise funds to help people globally?
5726c6dd5951b619008f7dcb
United Nations
130
False
What did Paul VI ask the UN to promote during the Vietnam war?
5726c6dd5951b619008f7dcc
peace
495
False
What US president was in office when Paul VI visited America for the first time?
5726c6dd5951b619008f7dcd
President Johnson
456
False
Pope Paul VI became the first reigning pontiff ever to visit the Americas when he flew to New York in October 1965 to address the United Nations. As a gesture of goodwill, the pope gave to the UN two pieces of papal jewelry, a diamond cross and ring, with the hopes that the proceeds from their sale at auction would contribute to the UN's efforts to end human suffering. During the pope's visit, as the U.S. involvement in the Vietnam War escalated under President Johnson, Paul VI pleaded for peace before the UN:
What number doubled during Paul Vi's papacy?
5726d061f1498d1400e8ec10
foreign embassies
160
False
Who did Paul Vi want to maintain a continuing dialogue with?
5726d061f1498d1400e8ec11
nations
82
False
What document states that the Catholic church is not subject to any particlar government?
5726d061f1498d1400e8ec12
Gaudium et spes
416
False
Who did the church retain the right to elect without interference from the state in its constitutional document?
5726d061f1498d1400e8ec13
bishops
586
False
What organization officially outlined the church's relationship to state?
5726d061f1498d1400e8ec14
Vatican II
378
False
Like his predecessor Pius XII, Paul VI put much emphasis on the dialogue with all nations of the world through establishing diplomatic relations. The number of foreign embassies accredited to the Vatican doubled during his pontificate. This was a reflection of a new understanding between Church and State, which had been formulated first by Pius XI and Pius XII but decreed by Vatican II. The pastoral constitution Gaudium et spes stated that the Catholic Church is not bound to any form of government and willing to cooperate with all forms. The Church maintained its right to select bishops on its own without any interference by the State.
What catholic document compares the Catholic church to the body of Christ?
5726d168f1498d1400e8ec34
Ecclesiam suam
0
False
What document declares that the Roman Catholic church lives within the body of Christ?
5726d168f1498d1400e8ec35
Lumen Gentium
257
False
What was being celebrated in the Catholic calendar when the Eccelsiam suam was given in 1964?
5726d168f1498d1400e8ec36
Feast of the Transfiguration
54
False
On what date is the Feat of Transfiguration celebrated?
5726d168f1498d1400e8ec37
6 August
84
False
In what city  is the cathedral of St Peter's  located?
5726d168f1498d1400e8ec38
Rome
41
False
Ecclesiam suam was given at St. Peter's, Rome, on the Feast of the Transfiguration, 6 August 1964, the second year of his Pontificate. It is considered an important document, identifying the Catholic Church with the Body of Christ. A later Council document Lumen Gentium stated that the Church subsists in the Body of Christ, raising questions as to the difference between "is" and "subsists in". Paul VI appealed to "all people of good will" and discussed necessary dialogues within the Church and between the Churches and with atheism.
What is considered an ideal state for priests in the Catholic church?
5726d2e6dd62a815002e916a
Celibacy
744
False
What is seen as symbolizing the reality of living in the modern world as Roman Catholic priest?
5726d2e6dd62a815002e916b
Celibacy
744
False
What document  of 1967 promotes the church's stance of celibacy in the priesthood?
5726d2e6dd62a815002e916c
Sacerdotalis caelibatus
0
False
What type of law locked down the Catholic church's stance on celibacy in the priesthood?
5726d2e6dd62a815002e916d
Canon
1141
False
In what year was Canon Law issued affirming celibacy in the priesthood?
5726d2e6dd62a815002e916e
1983
1136
False
Sacerdotalis caelibatus (Latin for "Of the celibate priesthood"), promulgated on 24 June 1967, defends the Catholic Church's tradition of priestly celibacy in the West. This encyclical was written in the wake of Vatican II, when the Catholic Church was questioning and revising many long-held practices. Priestly celibacy is considered a discipline rather than dogma, and some had expected that it might be relaxed. In response to these questions, the Pope reaffirms the discipline as a long-held practice with special importance in the Catholic Church. The encyclical Sacerdotalis caelibatus from 24 June 1967, confirms the traditional Church teaching, that celibacy is an ideal state and continues to be mandatory for Roman Catholic priests. Celibacy symbolizes the reality of the kingdom of God amid modern society. The priestly celibacy is closely linked to the sacramental priesthood. However, during his pontificate Paul VI was considered generous in permitting bishops to grant laicization of priests who wanted to leave the sacerdotal state, a position which was drastically reversed by John Paul II in 1980 and cemented in the 1983 Canon Law that only the pope can in exceptional circumstances grant laicization.
Which one of Paul Vi's encyclicals best known in Catholic history?
5726d4015951b619008f7f37
Humanae vitae
72
False
What did Paul VI's Humanae Vitae condemn?
5726d4015951b619008f7f38
artificial birth control
306
False
What type of birth control is condemned by the Catholic church?
5726d4015951b619008f7f39
artificial
476
False
How many encyclicals did Paul VI publish?
5726d4015951b619008f7f3a
eight
7
False
What does Humanae Vitae mean?
5726d4015951b619008f7f3b
Of Human Life
87
False
Of his eight encyclicals, Pope Paul VI is best known for his encyclical Humanae vitae (Of Human Life, subtitled On the Regulation of Birth), published on 25 July 1968. In this encyclical he reaffirmed the Catholic Church's traditional view of marriage and marital relations and a continued condemnation of artificial birth control. There were two Papal committees and numerous independent experts looking into the latest advancement of science and medicine on the question of artificial birth control. which were noted by the Pope in his encyclical The expressed views of Paul VI reflected the teachings of his predecessors, especially Pius XI, Pius XII and John XXIII and never changed, as he repeatedly stated them in the first few years of his Pontificate
According to Paul VI  to whom are a  man and woman in union with besides each other?
5726d56f5951b619008f7f73
God
159
False
What does God contribute to a married couple's child?
5726d56f5951b619008f7f74
soul
268
False
Who is considered to be love?
5726d56f5951b619008f7f75
God
989
False
From whom is married love generated?
5726d56f5951b619008f7f76
God
989
False
What type of relations did Paul VI's Humanae VItae discuss?
5726d56f5951b619008f7f77
marital
40
False
To the pope as to all his predecessors, marital relations are much more than a union of two people. They constitute a union of the loving couple with a loving God, in which the two persons create a new person materially, while God completes the creation by adding the soul. For this reason, Paul VI teaches in the first sentence of Humanae vitae that the transmission of human life is a most serious role in which married people collaborate freely and responsibly with God the Creator. This divine partnership, according to Paul VI, does not allow for arbitrary human decisions, which may limit divine providence. The Pope does not paint an overly romantic picture of marriage: marital relations are a source of great joy, but also of difficulties and hardships. The question of human procreation exceeds in the view of Paul VI specific disciplines such as biology, psychology, demography or sociology. The reason for this, according to Paul VI, is that married love takes its origin from God, who "is love". From this basic dignity, he defines his position:
Who was president of the World Bank in 1968?
5726d74cf1498d1400e8ecae
Robert McNamara
265
False
What were developing countries encouraged to allow access to by the World Bank?
5726d74cf1498d1400e8ecaf
birth control
403
False
In what country did doctors call the World Bank's offer of resources in exchange for liberal birth control policies "insulting"?
5726d74cf1498d1400e8ecb0
Bolivia
490
False
Who said Columbia did not want American aid if it required changing the Catholic church's stance on birth control?
5726d74cf1498d1400e8ecb1
Cardinal archbishop Aníbal Muñoz Duque
603
False
What country did Cardinal archbishop Anlbal Munoz Duque represent?
5726d74cf1498d1400e8ecb2
Colombia
593
False
The reaction to the encyclical's continued prohibitions of artificial birth control was very mixed. In Italy, Spain, Portugal and Poland, the encyclical was welcomed. In Latin America, much support developed for the Pope and his encyclical. As World Bank President Robert McNamara declared at the 1968 Annual Meeting of the International Monetary Fund and the World Bank Group that countries permitting birth control practices would get preferential access to resources, doctors in La Paz, Bolivia called it insulting that money should be exchanged for the conscience of a Catholic nation. In Colombia, Cardinal archbishop Aníbal Muñoz Duque declared, if American conditionality undermines Papal teachings, we prefer not to receive one cent. The Senate of Bolivia passed a resolution stating that Humanae vitae could be discussed in its implications for individual consciences, but was of greatest significance because the papal document defended the rights of developing nations to determine their own population policies. The Jesuit Journal Sic dedicated one edition to the encyclical with supportive contributions.
To whom did Paul VI tell "not to be afraid" when the church released its statement on birth control?
5726d88add62a815002e9254
Edouard Gagnon
202
False
What did Paul VI declare he would be seen as in 25 years?
5726d88add62a815002e9255
prophet
287
False
To which pope can the Evangelium Vitae be attributed to?
5726d88add62a815002e9256
Pope John Paul II
544
False
Which pope affirmed Paul VI Humanae Vitae?
5726d88add62a815002e9257
Pope John Paul II
544
False
To what did Western Europe and the United States demonstrate a negative response?
5726d88add62a815002e9258
the encyclical
231
False
Paul VI was concerned but not surprised by the negative reaction in Western Europe and the United States. He fully anticipated this reaction to be a temporary one: "Don't be afraid", he reportedly told Edouard Gagnon on the eve of the encyclical, "in twenty years time they'll call me a prophet." His biography on the Vatican's website notes of his reaffirmations of priestly celibacy and the traditional teaching on contraception that "[t]he controversies over these two pronouncements tended to overshadow the last years of his pontificate". Pope John Paul II later reaffirmed and expanded upon Humanae vitae with the encyclical Evangelium vitae.
In what city did the pope encourage visits from Catholics from other countries?
5726db0ff1498d1400e8ed4c
Rome
323
False
In how many ways did Paul VI contribute to an ecumenical dialogue between Catholics?
5726db0ff1498d1400e8ed4d
two
42
False
In Paul VI's view what does the Catholic ecumenical dialogue require from someone?
5726db0ff1498d1400e8ed4e
whole person
735
False
How much of the person is needed to fully engage in a ecumenical dialogue according to Paul VI?
5726db0ff1498d1400e8ed4f
whole
735
False
To what historical figure can the words "Do you love me more" be attributed?
5726db0ff1498d1400e8ed50
Christ
1048
False
After the Council, Paul VI contributed in two ways to the continued growth of ecumenical dialogue. The separated brothers and sisters, as he called them, were not able to contribute to the Council as invited observers. After the Council, many of them took initiative to seek out their Catholic counterparts and the Pope in Rome, who welcomed such visits. But the Catholic Church itself recognized from the many previous ecumenical encounters, that much needed to be done within, to be an open partner for ecumenism. To those who are entrusted the highest and deepest truth and therefore, so Paul VI, believed that he had the most difficult part to communicate. Ecumenical dialogue, in the view of Paul VI, requires from a Catholic the whole person: one's entire reason, will, and heart. Paul VI, like Pius XII before him, was reluctant to give in on a lowest possible point. And yet, Paul felt compelled to admit his ardent Gospel-based desire to be everything to everybody and to help all people Being the successor of Peter, he felt the words of Christ, "Do you love me more" like a sharp knife penetrating to the marrow of his soul. These words meant to Paul VI love without limits, and they underscore the Church's fundamental approach to ecumenism.
What statement addressed the relationship of Italy to Greece in the Catholic church?
5726dcbfdd62a815002e932a
Catholic-Orthodox Joint declaration of 1965
105
False
In what year was the Catholic-Orthodox joint declaration read?
5726dcbfdd62a815002e932b
1965
183
False
In what city was the Catholic-Orthodox joint declaration read?
5726dcbfdd62a815002e932c
Rome
257
False
Who visited the Vatican in May of 1973 in an effort to negotiate Orthodox and Catholic relations?
5726dcbfdd62a815002e932d
Coptic Patriarch Shenouda III
431
False
How many times did Coptic Patriarch Shenouda III meet with Paul VI in 1973?
5726dcbfdd62a815002e932e
three
509
False
This was a significant step towards restoring communion between Rome and Constantinople. It produced the Catholic-Orthodox Joint declaration of 1965, which was read out on 7 December 1965, simultaneously at a public meeting of the Second Vatican Council in Rome and at a special ceremony in Istanbul. The declaration did not end the schism, but showed a desire for greater reconciliation between the two churches. In May 1973, the Coptic Patriarch Shenouda III of Alexandria visited the Vatican, where he met three times with Pope Paul VI. A common declaration and a joint Creed issued after the visit demonstrated that there are virtually no more[additional citation needed] theological discrepancies between the Coptic and Roman Catholic Churches.
Who was the first pope to meet with an Anglican Archbishop as an official Head of Church since 1960?
5726de0fdd62a815002e9340
Paul VI
0
False
Who was Archbishop of Canterbury during Paul VI papacy?
5726de0fdd62a815002e9341
Michael Ramsey
76
False
How many times did Archbishop Ramsey meet with Paul VI?
5726de0fdd62a815002e9342
three
249
False
What center did Archbishop Ramsey open in Rome to improve Anglican and Catholic relations?
5726de0fdd62a815002e9343
Anglican Centre
293
False
In what Italian center was the Anglican center opened in by Archbishop Ramsey?
5726de0fdd62a815002e9344
Rome
312
False
Paul VI was the first pope to receive an Anglican Archbishop of Canterbury, Michael Ramsey in official audience as Head of Church, after the private audience visit of Archbishop Geoffrey Fisher to Pope John XXIII on 2 December 1960. Ramsey met Paul three times during his visit and opened the Anglican Centre in Rome to increase their mutual knowledge. He praised Paul VI[e] and his contributions in the service of unity. Paul replied that "by entering into our house, you are entering your own house, we are happy to open our door and heart to you." The two Church leaders signed a common declaration, which put an end to the disputes of the past and outlined a common agenda for the future.
What did the Cardinal Augustin Bea's Secretariat promote?
5726df41dd62a815002e936c
Christian Unity
65
False
What group condemned mixed faith marriages?
5726df41dd62a815002e936d
Congregation of Faith
227
False
To what type of non Catholic denomination was Paul VI considered to be a great ally of?
5726df41dd62a815002e936e
Anglican
582
False
Which church did Paul VI call "our beloved sister church"?
5726df41dd62a815002e936f
Anglican Church
582
False
Who described the Anglican church as "our beloved sister Church"?
5726df41dd62a815002e9370
Paul VI
549
False
Cardinal Augustin Bea, the head of the Secretariat for Promoting Christian Unity, added at the end of the visit, "Let us move forward in Christ. God wants it. Humanity is waiting for it." Unmoved by a harsh condemnation by the Congregation of Faith on mixed marriages precisely at this time of the visit, Paul VI and Ramsey appointed a preparatory commission which was to put the common agenda into practice on such issues as mixed marriages. This resulted in a joint Malta declaration, the first joint agreement on the Creed since the Reformation. Paul VI was a good friend of the Anglican Church, which he described as "our beloved sister Church". This description was unique to Paul and not used by later popes.
In what year was a group created to work with the World Council of Churches to increase dialogue between Catholic Christians and other Christian denominations?
5726e0c2f1498d1400e8ee62
1965
3
False
In what year did the World Council of Churches meet in Uppsala, Sweden?
5726e0c2f1498d1400e8ee63
1968
606
False
What type of theologians did the World Council of Churches decide to include in their committees?
5726e0c2f1498d1400e8ee64
Catholic
901
False
In what country did the World Council of Churches meet in 1968?
5726e0c2f1498d1400e8ee65
Sweden
680
False
Whose backing did the World Council of Churches require Catholic theologians serving on joint committees to have?
5726e0c2f1498d1400e8ee66
Vatican
979
False
In 1965, Paul VI decided on the creation of a joint working group with the World Council of Churches to map all possible avenues of dialogue and cooperation. In the following three years, eight sessions were held which resulted in many joint proposals. It was proposed to work closely together in areas of social justice and development and Third World Issues such as hunger and poverty. On the religious side, it was agreed to share together in the Week of Prayer for Christian Unity, to be held every year. The joint working group was to prepare texts which were to be used by all Christians. On 19 July 1968, the meeting of the World Council of Churches took place in Uppsala, Sweden, which Pope Paul called a sign of the times. He sent his blessing in an ecumenical manner: "May the Lord bless everything you do for the case of Christian Unity." The World Council of Churches decided on including Catholic theologians in its committees, provided they have the backing of the Vatican.
Which protestants were the first to reach out to the Catholic church in 1964 in Iceland?
5726e257708984140094d4b3
Lutherans
4
False
In what year did The Catholic church begin diplomatic relations with the Methodist church?
5726e257708984140094d4b4
1965
237
False
In what year did the Catholic church begin diplomatic relations with the Lutheran church?
5726e257708984140094d4b5
1964
103
False
Who was president of the World Council of Churches during the 450th anniversary of the Reformation?
5726e257708984140094d4b6
Fredrik A. Schiotz
566
False
To whom did Schiotz state one should be grateful for the Reformation?
5726e257708984140094d4b7
God
756
False
The Lutherans were the first Protestant Church offering a dialogue to the Catholic Church in September 1964 in Reykjavík, Iceland. It resulted in joint study groups of several issues. The dialogue with the Methodist Church began October 1965, after its representatives officially applauded remarkable changes, friendship and cooperation of the past five years. The Reformed Churches entered four years later into a dialogue with the Catholic Church. The President of the Lutheran World Federation and member of the central committee of the World Council of Churches Fredrik A. Schiotz stated during the 450th anniversary of the Reformation, that earlier commemorations were viewed almost as a triumph. Reformation should be celebrated as a thanksgiving to God, his truth and his renewed life. He welcomed the announcement of Pope Paul VI to celebrate the 1900th anniversary of the death of the Apostle Peter and Apostle Paul, and promised the participation and cooperation in the festivities.
Who was Paul VI in favor of cooperating with in the translation of the bible?
5726e372f1498d1400e8eed0
Protestant Bible societies
212
False
Who asked Paul VI for permission to cooperate with Protestants to translate the bible?
5726e372f1498d1400e8eed1
Cardinal Augustin Bea
97
False
In what year did Paul VI officially declare his support of a cross faith translation of the bible?
5726e372f1498d1400e8eed2
1967
411
False
What group of Christians did Paul VI support and approve of cooperation with?
5726e372f1498d1400e8eed3
Protestants
61
False
Paul VI supported the new-found harmony and cooperation with Protestants on so many levels. When Cardinal Augustin Bea went to see him for permission for a joint Catholic-Protestant translation of the Bible with Protestant Bible societies, the pope walked towards him and exclaimed, "as far as the cooperation with Bible societies is concerned, I am totally in favour." He issued a formal approval on Pentecost 1967, the feast on which the Holy Spirit descended on the Christians, overcoming all linguistic difficulties, according to Christian tradition.
How many future popes did Paul VI create first as cardinals?
5726e47edd62a815002e9414
three
9
False
Who was made a cardinal by Paul VI on June 27 1977?
5726e47edd62a815002e9415
Joseph Ratzinger
293
False
What future pope was made a cardinal by Paul VI on June 26, 1967?
5726e47edd62a815002e9416
Karol Wojtyła
221
False
In what year did Paul VI die?
5726e47edd62a815002e9417
1978
522
False
What name did Albino Luciani take as a pope?
5726e47edd62a815002e9418
John Paul I
150
False
The next three popes, including Pope Emeritus Benedict XVI, were created cardinals by him. His immediate successor, Albino Luciani, who took the name John Paul I, was created a cardinal in the consistory of 5 March 1973. Karol Wojtyła was created a cardinal in the consistory of 26 June 1967. Joseph Ratzinger was created a cardinal in the small four-appointment consistory of 27 June 1977, which also included Bernardin Gantin from Benin, Africa. This became the last of Paul VI's consistories before his death in August 1978. Pope Paul was asked towards the end of his papacy whether he would retire at age 80, he replied "Kings can abdicate, Popes cannot."[citation needed]
Where was Paul VI headed to on July 14, 1978?
5726e7135951b619008f81e3
Castel Gandolfo
67
False
What was considered to be the papal summer residence?
5726e7135951b619008f81e4
Castel Gandolfo
67
False
Who was the Italian Prime Minister in July of 1978?
5726e7135951b619008f81e5
Sandro Pertini
288
False
For how long did an ailing Paul VI meet with Sandro Pertini in 1978?
5726e7135951b619008f81e6
two hours
312
False
What animals did Paul VI consider to be "the most beautiful animals God ever created"?
5726e7135951b619008f81e7
horses
390
False
Pope Paul VI left the Vatican to go to the papal summer residence, Castel Gandolfo, on 14 July 1978, visiting on the way the tomb of Cardinal Giuseppe Pizzardo, who had introduced him to the Vatican half a century earlier. Although he was sick, he agreed to see the new Italian President Sandro Pertini for over two hours. In the evening he watched a Western on TV, happy only when he saw "horses, the most beautiful animals that God had created." He had breathing problems and needed oxygen. On Sunday, at the Feast of the Transfiguration, he was tired, but wanted to say the Angelus. He was neither able nor permitted to do so and instead stayed in bed, his temperature rising.
In what year was Paul VI beautified?
5726e8d8dd62a815002e94b4
2014
316
False
On what day was Paul VI born?
5726e8d8dd62a815002e94b5
26 September
520
False
Whose liturgical feast is celebrated on the 26th of September?
5726e8d8dd62a815002e94b6
Paul VI
369
False
On what day was the beautification ceremony performed for Paul VI?
5726e8d8dd62a815002e94b7
19 October
389
False
What was attributed to Paul VI and officially approved on May 9, 2014?
5726e8d8dd62a815002e94b8
A miracle
242
False
On 20 December 2012, Pope Benedict XVI, in an audience with the Cardinal Prefect of the Congregation for the Causes of Saints, declared that the late pontiff had lived a life of heroic virtue, which means that he could be called "Venerable". A miracle attributed to the intercession of Paul VI was approved on 9 May 2014 by Pope Francis. The beatification ceremony for Paul VI was held on 19 October 2014, which means that he can now be called "Blessed". His liturgical feast day is celebrated on the date of his birth, 26 September, rather than the day of his death as is usual.
According to the Vatican who could the healing of an unborn child be attributed to in the 1990's?
5726e9c2708984140094d5a5
pontiff
116
False
Who approved the miracle of Paul VI?
5726e9c2708984140094d5a6
Pope Francis
220
False
What group was responsible for recognizing Paul Vi's miracle?
5726e9c2708984140094d5a7
Congregation for the Causes of Saints
416
False
What is the process called that acknowledges sainthood?
5726e9c2708984140094d5a8
beatification
300
False
In December 2013, Vatican officials approved a supposed miracle that was attributed to the intercession of the late pontiff which was the curing of an unborn child in California, U.S.A in the 1990s. It was expected that Pope Francis would approve the miracle in the near future, thus, warranting the beatification of the late pontiff. In February 2014, it was reported that the consulting Vatican theologians to the Congregation for the Causes of Saints recognized the miracle attributed to the late pontiff.
What magazine broke the story of Paul VI pending saint hood?
5726eae2708984140094d5e3
Credere
58
False
What type of miracle was attributed to Pope Paul VI?
5726eae2708984140094d5e4
healing
483
False
What group declared the healing a miracle by Paul VI?
5726eae2708984140094d5e5
The Congregation for the Causes of Saints
389
False
Who needed to approve the Congregation for the Causes of Saints conclusion that Paul VI performed a miracle?
5726eae2708984140094d5e6
pope
601
False
Who was required to sign a decree declaring Paul VI a saint?
5726eae2708984140094d5e7
Pope Francis
314
False
On 24 April 2014, it was reported in the Italian magazine Credere that the late pope could possibly be beatified on 19 October 2014. This report from the magazine further stated that several cardinals and bishops would meet on 5 May to confirm the miracle that had previously been approved, and then present it to Pope Francis who may sign the decree for beatification shortly after that. The Congregation for the Causes of Saints held that meeting and positively concluded that the healing was indeed a miracle that could be attributed to the late pope. The matter shall now soon be presented to the pope for approval.
What was Pius XII accused of not condemning?
5726ec69dd62a815002e9562
Holocaust
286
False
Whose theology did Paul VI continue to propagate during his papacy?
5726ec69dd62a815002e9563
Pius XII
241
False
What type of work did Paul Vi finish that had been started by two previous popes?
5726ec69dd62a815002e9564
reform
605
False
On which anniversary of his Humanae Vitae did Paul VI reconfirm the beliefs set forth by the Humanae Vitae?
5726ec69dd62a815002e9565
tenth
59
False
Which pope that preceded Paul VI was noted for his warmth and humor?
5726ec69dd62a815002e9566
John XXIII
559
False
On basic Church teachings, the pope was unwavering. On the tenth anniversary of Humanae vitae, he reconfirmed this teaching. In his style and methodology, he was a disciple of Pius XII, whom he deeply revered. He suffered for the attacks on Pius XII for his alleged silences during the Holocaust. Pope Paul VI was less outstanding than his predecessors: he was not credited with an encyclopedic memory, nor a gift for languages, nor the brilliant writing style of Pius XII, nor did he have the charisma and outpouring love, sense of humor and human warmth of John XXIII. He took on himself the unfinished reform work of these two popes, bringing them diligently with great humility and common sense and without much fanfare to conclusion. In doing so, Paul VI saw himself following in the footsteps of the Apostle Paul, torn to several directions as Saint Paul, who said, "I am attracted to two sides at once, because the Cross always divides."
Who did Paul VI refuse to excommunicate?
5726ede3f1498d1400e8f01c
opponents
77
False
What did many other Catholics and Christians consider Paul VI reforms to be?
5726ede3f1498d1400e8f01d
controversial
936
False
To what can the dissent among Catholics be attributed to during Paul VI's papacy?
5726ede3f1498d1400e8f01e
theological freedoms
153
False
What was the reintroduction of divorced Catholics into the church considered to be by the Council?
5726ede3f1498d1400e8f01f
taboo
302
False
Unlike his predecessors and successors, Paul VI refused to excommunicate the opponents. He admonished but did not punish those with other views. The new theological freedoms which he fostered resulted in a pluralism of opinions and uncertainties among the faithful. New demands were voiced, which were taboo at the Council, the reintegration of divorced Catholics, the sacramental character of the confession, and the role of women in the Church and its ministries. Conservatives complained, that "women wanted to be priests, priests wanted to get married, bishops became regional popes and theologians claimed absolute teaching authority. Protestants claimed equality, homosexuals and divorced called for full acceptance." Changes such as the reorientation of the liturgy, alterations to the ordinary of the Mass, alterations to the liturgical calendar in the motu proprio Mysterii Paschalis, and the relocation of the tabernacle were controversial among some Catholics.
How many Synod of Bishops took place during Paul VI's papacy?
5726ef98708984140094d66d
five
217
False
What conferences became a requirement after Vatican II?
5726ef98708984140094d66e
National Bishop Conferences
347
False
What political movement was Paul VI criticized for having a relationship with?
5726ef98708984140094d66f
Communism
468
False
The Council, under Paul VI, decided whom could make decisions independently of Rome?
5726ef98708984140094d670
Bishops
62
False
How many of his bishop's decisions did Paul VI end up enacting?
5726ef98708984140094d671
all
282
False
Some critiqued Paul VI's decision; the newly created Synod of Bishops had an advisory role only and could not make decisions on their own, although the Council decided exactly that. During the pontificate of Paul VI, five such synods took place, and he is on record of implementing all their decisions. Related questions were raised about the new National Bishop Conferences, which became mandatory after Vatican II. Others questioned his Ostpolitik and contacts with Communism and the deals he engaged in for the faithful.
How long did Paul VI live for after experiencing a massive heart attack in 1978?
5726efc85951b619008f82c7
three hours
150
False
At what time did Paul VI die?
5726efc85951b619008f82c8
21:41
183
False
On what day did Paul VI die?
5726efc85951b619008f82c9
6 August
166
False
From where did Paul VI conduct mass on the day of his death?
5726efc85951b619008f82ca
bed
9
False
What residence was the Paul VI staying in on the day of his death?
5726efc85951b619008f82cb
Castel Gandolfo
205
False
From his bed he participated in Sunday Mass at 18:00. After communion, the pope suffered a massive heart attack, after which he continued to live for three hours. On 6 August 1978 at 21:41 Paul VI died in Castel Gandolfo. According to his will, he was buried in the grottos of the Vatican not in an ornate tomb, but in a grave in the ground. He is buried beneath the floor of Saint Peter's Basilica with other popes. In his will, he requested to be buried in the "true earth" and therefore, he does not have an ornate sarcophagus but an in-ground grave.
How many cardinals were from Africa in 1976?
5726efeff1498d1400e8f068
five
160
False
What country did Cardinal Eduardo Francisco Pironi represent?
5726efeff1498d1400e8f069
Argentina
331
False
What country did Cardinal Araujo Sales represent?
5726efeff1498d1400e8f06a
Brazil
435
False
What group's committees did Paul VI declare both bishops and cardinals could participate in?
5726efeff1498d1400e8f06b
Roman Curia
837
False
What type of clothing did Paul VI enact reform on?
5726efeff1498d1400e8f06c
regal vestments
971
False
With the six consistories, Paul VI continued the internationalization policies started by Pius XII in 1946 and continued by John XXIII. In his 1976 consistory, five of twenty cardinals originated from Africa, one of them a son of a tribal chief with fifty wives. Several prominent Latin Americans like Eduardo Francisco Pironio of Argentina; Luis Aponte Martinez of Puerto Rico and Eugênio de Araújo Sales and Aloisio Lorscheider from Brazil were also elevated by him. There were voices within the Church at the time saying that the European period of the Church was coming to a close, a view shared by Britain's Cardinal Basil Hume. At the same time, the members of the College of Cardinals lost some of their previous influences, after Paul VI decreed, that not only cardinals but also bishops too may participate in committees of the Roman Curia. The age limit of eighty years imposed by the Pope, a numerical increase of Cardinals by almost 100%, and a reform of the regal vestments of the "Princes of the Church" further contributed to a service-oriented perception of Cardinals under his pontificate. The increased number of Cardinals from the Third World and the papal emphasis on related issues was nevertheless welcomed by many in Western Europe.
What type of theatrical uniforms did Paul VI eradicate from the Vatican?
5726f6ecf1498d1400e8f122
army
205
False
Who was the first pope to visit five continents?
5726f6ecf1498d1400e8f123
Paul VI
0
False
Where did Paul Vi turn the focus of the church toward during his papacy?
5726f6ecf1498d1400e8f124
world
461
False
What group of clergy did Paul VI include in Vatican decision making that had previously been denied influence in this realm?
5726f6ecf1498d1400e8f125
bishops
487
False
What papal statement under Paul VI opened the Vatican doors to global influences?
5726f6ecf1498d1400e8f126
motu proprio Pro Comperto Sane
588
False
Paul VI did renounce many traditional symbols of the papacy and the Catholic Church; some of his changes to the papal dress were reversed by Pope Benedict XVI in the early 21st century. Refusing a Vatican army of colourful military uniforms from centuries, he got rid of them. He became the first pope to visit five continents. Paul VI systematically continued and completed the efforts of his predecessors, to turn the Euro-centric Church into a Church of the world, by integrating the bishops from all continents in its government and in the Synods which he convened. His 6 August 1967 motu proprio Pro Comperto Sane opened the Roman Curia to the bishops of the world. Until then, only Cardinals could be leading members of the Curia.
Electric_motor
What is the largest rating of an electric motor?
57269f3b708984140094cbff
100 megawatts
668
False
What is the main example of a DC power source?
57269f3b708984140094cc00
batteries
215
False
What does AC stand for?
57269f3b708984140094cc01
alternating current
262
False
What does DC stand for?
57269f3b708984140094cc02
direct current
173
False
In what device are small motors commonly found?
57269f3b708984140094cc03
electric watches
379
False
100 megawatts
668
What is the smallest rating of an electric motor?
5ad14d10645df0001a2d1674
True
batteries
215
What is the main example of a RC power source?
5ad14d10645df0001a2d1675
True
alternating current
262
What does EC stand for?
5ad14d10645df0001a2d1676
True
direct current
173
What does DCC stand for?
5ad14d10645df0001a2d1677
True
pipeline compression
593
In what device are large motors least commonly found?
5ad14d10645df0001a2d1678
True
Found in applications as diverse as industrial fans, blowers and pumps, machine tools, household appliances, power tools, and disk drives, electric motors can be powered by direct current (DC) sources, such as from batteries, motor vehicles or rectifiers, or by alternating current (AC) sources, such as from the power grid, inverters or generators. Small motors may be found in electric watches. General-purpose motors with highly standardized dimensions and characteristics provide convenient mechanical power for industrial use. The largest of electric motors are used for ship propulsion, pipeline compression and pumped-storage applications with ratings reaching 100 megawatts. Electric motors may be classified by electric power source type, internal construction, application, type of motion output, and so on.
Who created the first electrostatic device?
5726a114708984140094cc49
Andrew Gordon
97
False
Who discovered the principles of magnetic and electric interactions?
5726a114708984140094cc4a
André-Marie Ampère
298
False
In what year did Faraday convert electrical energy into mechanical energy?
5726a114708984140094cc4b
1821
471
False
What toxic substance originally served the function of brine in primitive motors?
5726a114708984140094cc4c
mercury
830
False
Andrew Gordon
97
Who created the last electrostatic device?
5ad14d54645df0001a2d169c
True
André-Marie Ampère
298
Who discovered the principles of magnetic and electric non-interactions?
5ad14d54645df0001a2d169d
True
1821
471
In what year did Faraday convert non-electrical energy into mechanical energy?
5ad14d54645df0001a2d169e
True
mercury
830
What toxic substance originally didn't serve the function of brine in primitive motors?
5ad14d54645df0001a2d169f
True
Perhaps the first electric motors were simple electrostatic devices created by the Scottish monk Andrew Gordon in the 1740s. The theoretical principle behind production of mechanical force by the interactions of an electric current and a magnetic field, Ampère's force law, was discovered later by André-Marie Ampère in 1820. The conversion of electrical energy into mechanical energy by electromagnetic means was demonstrated by the British scientist Michael Faraday in 1821. A free-hanging wire was dipped into a pool of mercury, on which a permanent magnet (PM) was placed. When a current was passed through the wire, the wire rotated around the magnet, showing that the current gave rise to a close circular magnetic field around the wire. This motor is often demonstrated in physics experiments, brine substituting for toxic mercury. Though Barlow's wheel was an early refinement to this Faraday demonstration, these and similar homopolar motors were to remain unsuited to practical application until late in the century.
In what year did Jedlik begin experimenting with electromagnetism?
5726a2605951b619008f786b
1827
3
False
Besides the stator and the communicator, what is an element of a DC motor?
5726a2605951b619008f786c
rotor
434
False
What did Jedlik call his earliest devices?
5726a2605951b619008f786d
electromagnetic self-rotors
229
False
What discovery solved the problem of continuous rotation?
5726a2605951b619008f786e
commutator
188
False
What did Jedlik's improved device eliminate the need for?
5726a2605951b619008f786f
permanent magnets
479
False
1827
3
In what year did Jedlik begin experimenting with non-electromagnetism?
5ad14e08645df0001a2d16ca
True
rotor
434
Besides the stator and the communicator, what is an element of a non-DC motor?
5ad14e08645df0001a2d16cb
True
electromagnetic self-rotors
229
What didn't Jedlik call his earliest devices?
5ad14e08645df0001a2d16cc
True
commutator
444
What discovery solved the problem of non-continuous rotation?
5ad14e08645df0001a2d16cd
True
permanent magnets
479
What did Jedlik's improved device make the need for?
5ad14e08645df0001a2d16ce
True
In 1827, Hungarian physicist Ányos Jedlik started experimenting with electromagnetic coils. After Jedlik solved the technical problems of the continuous rotation with the invention of the commutator, he called his early devices "electromagnetic self-rotors". Although they were used only for instructional purposes, in 1828 Jedlik demonstrated the first device to contain the three main components of practical DC motors: the stator, rotor and commutator. The device employed no permanent magnets, as the magnetic fields of both the stationary and revolving components were produced solely by the currents flowing through their windings.
When were developers competing with Jacobi able to match his accomplishments?
5726a342f1498d1400e8e594
1839/40
473
False
What was Jacobi's improved motor used to propel?
5726a342f1498d1400e8e595
boat
415
False
Who created the first real electric motor?
5726a342f1498d1400e8e596
Moritz von Jacobi
121
False
Who broke the world record set by Jacobi's first motor?
5726a342f1498d1400e8e597
Jacobi himself
351
False
How long did it take for Jacobi's first world record to be broken?
5726a342f1498d1400e8e598
four years
313
False
1839/40
473
When were developers competing with Jacobi able to not match his accomplishments?
5ad14e44645df0001a2d16d4
True
boat
415
What was Jacobi's improved motor used to not propel?
5ad14e44645df0001a2d16d5
True
Moritz von Jacobi
121
Who created the first fake electric motor?
5ad14e44645df0001a2d16d6
True
Jacobi
132
Who broke the world record set by Jacobi's second motor?
5ad14e44645df0001a2d16d7
True
four years
313
How long did it take for Jacobi's second world record to be broken?
5ad14e44645df0001a2d16d8
True
After many other more or less successful attempts with relatively weak rotating and reciprocating apparatus the Prussian Moritz von Jacobi created the first real rotating electric motor in May 1834 that actually developed a remarkable mechanical output power. His motor set a world record which was improved only four years later in September 1838 by Jacobi himself. His second motor was powerful enough to drive a boat with 14 people across a wide river. It was not until 1839/40 that other developers worldwide managed to build motors of similar and later also of higher performance.
Who developed the first mnotor capable of being used for machinery?
5726a45cdd62a815002e8bc6
William Sturgeon
106
False
Which inventor went bankrupt?
5726a45cdd62a815002e8bc7
Thomas Davenport
284
False
What was the main problem with applying early electric motors to industry?
5726a45cdd62a815002e8bc8
the high cost of primary battery power
436
False
What necessary technical development had yet to occur to make electric motors useful?
5726a45cdd62a815002e8bc9
electricity distribution
674
False
How fast did Sturgeon and Davenport's motors run?
5726a45cdd62a815002e8bca
600 revolutions per minute
353
False
William Sturgeon
106
Who developed the last motor capable of being used for machinery?
5ad15543645df0001a2d17d0
True
Thomas Davenport
284
Which inventor never went bankrupt?
5ad15543645df0001a2d17d1
True
high cost of primary battery power
440
What wasn't the main problem with applying early electric motors to industry?
5ad15543645df0001a2d17d2
True
electricity distribution
674
What necessary technical development always occurred to make electric motors useful?
5ad15543645df0001a2d17d3
True
600 revolutions per minute
353
How slow did Sturgeon and Davenport's motors run?
5ad15543645df0001a2d17d4
True
The first commutator DC electric motor capable of turning machinery was invented by the British scientist William Sturgeon in 1832. Following Sturgeon's work, a commutator-type direct-current electric motor made with the intention of commercial use was built by the American inventor Thomas Davenport, which he patented in 1837. The motors ran at up to 600 revolutions per minute, and powered machine tools and a printing press. Due to the high cost of primary battery power, the motors were commercially unsuccessful and Davenport went bankrupt. Several inventors followed Sturgeon in the development of DC motors but all encountered the same battery power cost issues. No electricity distribution had been developed at the time. Like Sturgeon's motor, there was no practical commercial market for these motors.
What made Pacinotti's motor an important advancement?
5726a572dd62a815002e8be2
non-fluctuating current
292
False
Who created a motor similar to Pacinotti?
5726a572dd62a815002e8be3
Zénobe Gramme
387
False
How far from each other were the motors in Gramme's demonstrations?
5726a572dd62a815002e8be4
2 km
647
False
Besides a motor, what did Gramme use the other device for?
5726a572dd62a815002e8be5
generator
683
False
In what two cities did Gramme conduct his demonstrations?
5726a572dd62a815002e8be6
Vienna and Philadelphia
567
False
non-fluctuating current
292
What made Pacinotti's motor an unimportant advancement?
5ad155f1645df0001a2d17ec
True
Zénobe Gramme
387
Who created a motor very different from Pacinotti?
5ad155f1645df0001a2d17ed
True
2 km
647
How similar were the motors in Gramme's demonstrations?
5ad155f1645df0001a2d17ee
True
generator
683
Besides a motor, what didn't Gramme use the other device for?
5ad155f1645df0001a2d17ef
True
Vienna and Philadelphia
567
In what two cities did Gramme never conduct his demonstrations?
5ad155f1645df0001a2d17f0
True
A major turning point in the development of DC machines took place in 1864, when Antonio Pacinotti described for the first time the ring armature with its symmetrically grouped coils closed upon themselves and connected to the bars of a commutator, the brushes of which delivered practically non-fluctuating current. The first commercially successful DC motors followed the invention by Zénobe Gramme who, in 1871, reinvented Pacinotti's design. In 1873, Gramme showed that his dynamo could be used as a motor, which he demonstrated to great effect at exhibitions in Vienna and Philadelphia by connecting two such DC motors at a distance of up to 2 km away from each other, one as a generator. (See also 1873 : l'expérience décisive [Decisive Workaround] .)
What needs to exist between the rotor and stator for increased efficiency?
5726a6ba5951b619008f791d
small air gap
1359
False
Which inventor created the first useful DC motor?
5726a6ba5951b619008f791e
Frank Julian Sprague
9
False
What was the transportation advancement made possible by Sprague's designs?
5726a6ba5951b619008f791f
electric trolley system
578
False
What was the name of Chicago's first electric trolley system?
5726a6ba5951b619008f7920
South Side Elevated Railway
810
False
Who did Sprague work for early in his career?
5726a6ba5951b619008f7921
Thomas Edison
283
False
small air gap
1280
What can't exist between the rotor and stator for increased efficiency?
5ad1580b645df0001a2d181e
True
Frank Julian Sprague
9
Which inventor created the first useful DC motor?
5ad1580b645df0001a2d181f
True
electric trolley system
578
What was the transportation advancement made impossible by Sprague's designs?
5ad1580b645df0001a2d1820
True
South Side Elevated Railway
810
What was the name of Chicago's last electric trolley system?
5ad1580b645df0001a2d1821
True
Thomas Edison
283
Who did Sprague not work for early in his career?
5ad1580b645df0001a2d1822
True
In 1886, Frank Julian Sprague invented the first practical DC motor, a non-sparking motor that maintained relatively constant speed under variable loads. Other Sprague electric inventions about this time greatly improved grid electric distribution (prior work done while employed by Thomas Edison), allowed power from electric motors to be returned to the electric grid, provided for electric distribution to trolleys via overhead wires and the trolley pole, and provided controls systems for electric operations. This allowed Sprague to use electric motors to invent the first electric trolley system in 1887–88 in Richmond VA, the electric elevator and control system in 1892, and the electric subway with independently powered centrally controlled cars, which were first installed in 1892 in Chicago by the South Side Elevated Railway where it became popularly known as the "L". Sprague's motor and related inventions led to an explosion of interest and use in electric motors for industry, while almost simultaneously another great inventor was developing its primary competitor, which would become much more widespread. The development of electric motors of acceptable efficiency was delayed for several decades by failure to recognize the extreme importance of a relatively small air gap between rotor and stator. Efficient designs have a comparatively small air gap. [a] The St. Louis motor, long used in classrooms to illustrate motor principles, is extremely inefficient for the same reason, as well as appearing nothing like a modern motor.
How much energy do electric motors use in the modern United States?
5726a8565951b619008f7947
more than half
646
False
In what domain did electric motors reduce reliance on humans and animals?
5726a8565951b619008f7948
agriculture
371
False
Besides shafts, belts and compressed air, what did electric motors reduce the need for?
5726a8565951b619008f7949
hydraulic pressure
166
False
Where did electric motors improve convenience and safety?
5726a8565951b619008f794a
in the home
530
False
more than half
646
How much energy do electric motors use in the modern UK?
5ad159db645df0001a2d184e
True
agriculture
371
In what domain did electric motors not reduce reliance on humans and animals?
5ad159db645df0001a2d184f
True
hydraulic pressure
166
Besides shafts, belts and compressed air, what didn't electric motors reduce the need for?
5ad159db645df0001a2d1850
True
in the home
530
Where didn't electric motors improve convenience and safety?
5ad159db645df0001a2d1851
True
Application of electric motors revolutionized industry. Industrial processes were no longer limited by power transmission using line shafts, belts, compressed air or hydraulic pressure. Instead every machine could be equipped with its own electric motor, providing easy control at the point of use, and improving power transmission efficiency. Electric motors applied in agriculture eliminated human and animal muscle power from such tasks as handling grain or pumping water. Household uses of electric motors reduced heavy labor in the home and made higher standards of convenience, comfort and safety possible. Today, electric motors stand for more than half of the electric energy consumption in the US.
Who built the first induction motor?
5726a9a8f1498d1400e8e672
Walter Baily
173
False
What type of power were early motors unable to use?
5726a9a8f1498d1400e8e673
AC
455
False
Who bought Tesla's patents?
5726a9a8f1498d1400e8e674
George Westinghouse
1441
False
For what application was Tesla's motor first used?
5726a9a8f1498d1400e8e675
mining
1751
False
What's another name for the bar-winding-rotor?
5726a9a8f1498d1400e8e676
squirrel-cage
2695
False
Walter Baily
173
Who built the second induction motor?
5ad15b59645df0001a2d1892
True
AC
319
What type of power were late motors unable to use?
5ad15b59645df0001a2d1893
True
Galileo Ferraris
552
Who sold Tesla's patents?
5ad15b59645df0001a2d1894
True
mining
1751
For what application was Tesla's motor never used?
5ad15b59645df0001a2d1895
True
squirrel-cage
2695
What's not another name for the bar-winding-rotor?
5ad15b59645df0001a2d1896
True
In 1824, the French physicist François Arago formulated the existence of rotating magnetic fields, termed Arago's rotations, which, by manually turning switches on and off, Walter Baily demonstrated in 1879 as in effect the first primitive induction motor.  In the 1880s, many inventors were trying to develop workable AC motors because AC's advantages in long-distance high-voltage transmission were counterbalanced by the inability to operate motors on AC. The first alternating-current commutatorless induction motors were independently invented by Galileo Ferraris and Nikola Tesla, a working motor model having been demonstrated by the former in 1885 and by the latter in 1887. In 1888, the Royal Academy of Science of Turin published Ferraris' research detailing the foundations of motor operation while however concluding that "the apparatus based on that principle could not be of any commercial importance as motor." In 1888, Tesla presented his paper A New System for Alternating Current Motors and Transformers to the AIEE that described three patented two-phase four-stator-pole motor types: one with a four-pole rotor forming a non-self-starting reluctance motor, another with a wound rotor forming a self-starting induction motor, and the third a true synchronous motor with separately excited DC supply to rotor winding. One of the patents Tesla filed in 1887, however, also described a shorted-winding-rotor induction motor. George Westinghouse promptly bought Tesla's patents, employed Tesla to develop them, and assigned C. F. Scott to help Tesla, Tesla left for other pursuits in 1889.  The constant speed AC induction motor was found not to be suitable for street cars but Westinghouse engineers successfully adapted it to power a mining operation in Telluride, Colorado in 1891. Steadfast in his promotion of three-phase development, Mikhail Dolivo-Dobrovolsky invented the three-phase cage-rotor induction motor in 1889 and the three-limb transformer in 1890. This type of motor is now used for the vast majority of commercial applications. However, he claimed that Tesla's motor was not practical because of two-phase pulsations, which prompted him to persist in his three-phase work. Although Westinghouse achieved its first practical induction motor in 1892 and developed a line of polyphase 60 hertz induction motors in 1893, these early Westinghouse motors were two-phase motors with wound rotors until B. G. Lamme developed a rotating bar winding rotor. The General Electric Company began developing three-phase induction motors in 1891. By 1896, General Electric and Westinghouse signed a cross-licensing agreement for the bar-winding-rotor design, later called the squirrel-cage rotor. Induction motor improvements flowing from these inventions and innovations were such that a 100 horsepower (HP) induction motor currently has the same mounting dimensions as a 7.5 HP motor in 1897.
What would a rotor do without current reversal?
5726aad5708984140094cd5d
brake to a stop
493
False
What switches the input of most DC motors?
5726aad5708984140094cd5e
commutator
2
False
From where is current to the motor supplied?
5726aad5708984140094cd5f
stationary brushes
246
False
What two motor types are ascendant today?
5726aad5708984140094cd60
externally commutated induction and permanent-magnet
768
False
brake to a stop
493
What would a rotor do with current reversal?
5ad15d84645df0001a2d18c8
True
commutator
295
What switches the output of most DC motors?
5ad15d84645df0001a2d18c9
True
stationary brushes
246
From where is current to the motor not supplied?
5ad15d84645df0001a2d18ca
True
externally commutated induction and permanent-magnet motors
768
What two motor types are descendant today?
5ad15d84645df0001a2d18cb
True
A commutator is a mechanism used to switch the input of most DC machines and certain AC machines consisting of slip ring segments insulated from each other and from the electric motor's shaft. The motor's armature current is supplied through the stationary brushes in contact with the revolving commutator, which causes required current reversal and applies power to the machine in an optimal manner as the rotor rotates from pole to pole. In absence of such current reversal, the motor would brake to a stop. In light of significant advances in the past few decades due to improved technologies in electronic controller, sensorless control, induction motor, and permanent magnet motor fields, electromechanically commutated motors are increasingly being displaced by externally commutated induction and permanent-magnet motors.
What does the communicator do?
5726abebdd62a815002e8c84
reverses the flow of current in the rotor windings
200
False
What type of current is featured in brushed DC motors?
5726abebdd62a815002e8c85
AC
306
False
Where do brushes get their power?
5726abebdd62a815002e8c86
external
451
False
What is the main feature of the shaft in a commutated DC motor?
5726abebdd62a815002e8c87
rotating
492
False
reverses the flow of current in the rotor windings as the shaft rotates
200
What does the excommunicator do?
5ad15db0645df0001a2d18d0
True
AC
306
What type of current is featured in brushed RC motors?
5ad15db0645df0001a2d18d1
True
external
451
Where do brushes not get their power?
5ad15db0645df0001a2d18d2
True
rotating
329
What is not the main feature of the shaft in a commutated DC motor?
5ad15db0645df0001a2d18d3
True
A commutated DC motor has a set of rotating windings wound on an armature mounted on a rotating shaft. The shaft also carries the commutator, a long-lasting rotary electrical switch that periodically reverses the flow of current in the rotor windings as the shaft rotates. Thus, every brushed DC motor has AC flowing through its rotating windings. Current flows through one or more pairs of brushes that bear on the commutator; the brushes connect an external source of electric power to the rotating armature.
Current flowing to create a temporary magent is called what?
5726ad34dd62a815002e8ca8
electromagnet
246
False
What rotates the motor shaft?
5726ad34dd62a815002e8ca9
force between the two magnetic fields
437
False
What element of the motor keeps the poles from alligning?
5726ad34dd62a815002e8caa
commutator
512
False
What non-motor device demonstrates why a commutator is needed?
5726ad34dd62a815002e8cab
compass
719
False
electromagnet
246
Current flowing to create a non-temporary magent is called what?
5ad15ea5645df0001a2d18ea
True
The force between the two magnetic fields
433
What doesn't rotate the motor shaft?
5ad15ea5645df0001a2d18eb
True
commutator
512
What element of the motor makes the poles alligning?
5ad15ea5645df0001a2d18ec
True
compass
719
What motor device demonstrates why a commutator is needed?
5ad15ea5645df0001a2d18ed
True
The rotating armature consists of one or more coils of wire wound around a laminated, magnetically "soft" ferromagnetic core. Current from the brushes flows through the commutator and one winding of the armature, making it a temporary magnet (an electromagnet). The magnetic field produced by the armature interacts with a stationary magnetic field produced by either PMs or another winding a field coil, as part of the motor frame. The force between the two magnetic fields tends to rotate the motor shaft. The commutator switches power to the coils as the rotor turns, keeping the magnetic poles of the rotor from ever fully aligning with the magnetic poles of the stator field, so that the rotor never stops (like a compass needle does), but rather keeps rotating as long as power is applied.
How is RFI generated?
5726ae3cdd62a815002e8cce
sparking
946
False
What do brushes need to be in contact with?
5726ae3cdd62a815002e8ccf
commutator
112
False
What is created by contact between parts of the motor?
5726ae3cdd62a815002e8cd0
friction
137
False
What does sparking limit?
5726ae3cdd62a815002e8cd1
maximum speed
645
False
What motor components most need replacement and maintenance?
5726ae3cdd62a815002e8cd2
Brushes
970
False
Sparks
147
How is RFID generated?
5ad160f9645df0001a2d1918
True
commutator
283
What don't brushes need to be in contact with?
5ad160f9645df0001a2d1919
True
voltage
524
What is not created by contact between parts of the motor?
5ad160f9645df0001a2d191a
True
maximum speed
645
What does sparking not limit?
5ad160f9645df0001a2d191b
True
Brushes
970
What motor components least need replacement and maintenance?
5ad160f9645df0001a2d191c
True
Many of the limitations of the classic commutator DC motor are due to the need for brushes to press against the commutator. This creates friction. Sparks are created by the brushes making and breaking circuits through the rotor coils as the brushes cross the insulating gaps between commutator sections. Depending on the commutator design, this may include the brushes shorting together adjacent sections – and hence coil ends – momentarily while crossing the gaps. Furthermore, the inductance of the rotor coils causes the voltage across each to rise when its circuit is opened, increasing the sparking of the brushes. This sparking limits the maximum speed of the machine, as too-rapid sparking will overheat, erode, or even melt the commutator. The current density per unit area of the brushes, in combination with their resistivity, limits the output of the motor. The making and breaking of electric contact also generates electrical noise; sparking generates RFI. Brushes eventually wear out and require replacement, and the commutator itself is subject to wear and maintenance (on larger motors) or replacement (on small motors). The commutator assembly on a large motor is a costly element, requiring precision assembly of many parts. On small motors, the commutator is usually permanently integrated into the rotor, so replacing it usually requires replacing the whole rotor.
What are large brushes favorable for?
5726af505951b619008f7a47
motor output
70
False
Whate are small brushes favorable for?
5726af505951b619008f7a48
speed
557
False
What type of brushes are cheapest?
5726af505951b619008f7a49
small
88
False
How can the speed of larger brushes be increased?
5726af505951b619008f7a4a
Stiffer brush springs
282
False
Besides wear, what is a downside of stiff brush springs?
5726af505951b619008f7a4b
lower efficiency
421
False
motor output
70
What are small brushes favorable for?
5ad161db645df0001a2d192a
True
contact
45
What are small brushes not favorable for?
5ad161db645df0001a2d192b
True
small
88
What type of brushes are not the cheapest?
5ad161db645df0001a2d192c
True
greater friction
396
How can the speed of larger brushes be decreased?
5ad161db645df0001a2d192d
True
efficiency
568
Besides wear, what is a upside of stiff brush springs?
5ad161db645df0001a2d192e
True
Large brushes are desired for a larger brush contact area to maximize motor output, but small brushes are desired for low mass to maximize the speed at which the motor can run without the brushes excessively bouncing and sparking. (Small brushes are also desirable for lower cost.) Stiffer brush springs can also be used to make brushes of a given mass work at a higher speed, but at the cost of greater friction losses (lower efficiency) and accelerated brush and commutator wear. Therefore, DC motor brush design entails a trade-off between output power, speed, and efficiency/wear.
What can a PM motor not be adjusted for?
5726b0355951b619008f7a7f
speed control
342
False
What is another name for PM fields?
5726b0355951b619008f7a80
stators
368
False
What design feature does a PM motor lack?
5726b0355951b619008f7a81
field winding
27
False
What do field windings provide?
5726b0355951b619008f7a82
flux
694
False
produce torque
158
What can a PMM motor not be adjusted for?
5ad1620e645df0001a2d193c
True
dynamo
503
What is another name for PMM fields?
5ad1620e645df0001a2d193d
True
field winding
454
What design feature does a PMM motor lack?
5ad1620e645df0001a2d193e
True
flux
694
What don't field windings provide?
5ad1620e645df0001a2d193f
True
A PM motor does not have a field winding on the stator frame, instead relying on PMs to provide the magnetic field against which the rotor field interacts to produce torque. Compensating windings in series with the armature may be used on large motors to improve commutation under load. Because this field is fixed, it cannot be adjusted for speed control. PM fields (stators) are convenient in miniature motors to eliminate the power consumption of the field winding. Most larger DC motors are of the "dynamo" type, which have stator windings. Historically, PMs could not be made to retain high flux if they were disassembled; field windings were more practical to obtain the needed amount of flux. However, large PMs are costly, as well as dangerous and difficult to assemble; this favors wound fields for large machines.
Why do miniature PM motors use high energy magnets?
5726b10af1498d1400e8e792
To minimize overall weight and size
0
False
What are high energy magnets typically made of?
5726b10af1498d1400e8e793
neodymium-iron-boron alloy
148
False
What does the outer housing of a miniature motor resemble?
5726b10af1498d1400e8e794
steel tube
546
False
How do PMs rate against other types of electric motors?
5726b10af1498d1400e8e795
least competitive
254
False
minimize overall weight and size,
3
Why do large PM motors use high energy magnets?
5ad1635a645df0001a2d1954
True
neodymium-iron-boron alloy
148
What are high energy magnets never made of?
5ad1635a645df0001a2d1955
True
steel tube
546
What doesn't the outer housing of a miniature motor resemble?
5ad1635a645df0001a2d1956
True
least competitive
254
How do PMs rate with other types of electric motors?
5ad1635a645df0001a2d1957
True
To minimize overall weight and size, miniature PM motors may use high energy magnets made with neodymium or other strategic elements; most such are neodymium-iron-boron alloy. With their higher flux density, electric machines with high-energy PMs are at least competitive with all optimally designed singly-fed synchronous and induction electric machines. Miniature motors resemble the structure in the illustration, except that they have at least three rotor poles (to ensure starting, regardless of rotor position) and their outer housing is a steel tube that magnetically links the exteriors of the curved field magnets.
What is the typical maximum range of universal motors?
5726b1f0f1498d1400e8e7b4
1000 watts
98
False
What type of motor was used in trailway traction applications?
5726b1f0f1498d1400e8e7b5
universal
44
False
What is the result of using AC power on a DC motor?
5726b1f0f1498d1400e8e7b6
efficiency losses
312
False
What were universal motor pole pieces constructed from?
5726b1f0f1498d1400e8e7b7
solid (un-laminated) iron
459
False
1000 watts
98
What is the atypical maximum range of universal motors?
5ad163a9645df0001a2d1962
True
universal
44
What type of motor was not used in trailway traction applications?
5ad163a9645df0001a2d1963
True
efficiency losses
312
What is the result of using DC power on a DC motor?
5ad163a9645df0001a2d1964
True
solid (un-laminated)
459
What weren't universal motor pole pieces constructed from?
5ad163a9645df0001a2d1965
True
Operating at normal power line frequencies, universal motors are often found in a range less than 1000 watts. Universal motors also formed the basis of the traditional railway traction motor in electric railways. In this application, the use of AC to power a motor originally designed to run on DC would lead to efficiency losses due to eddy current heating of their magnetic components, particularly the motor field pole-pieces that, for DC, would have used solid (un-laminated) iron and they are now rarely used.
What kind of motor can employ both AC and DC?
5726b408dd62a815002e8d66
universal
20
False
What component of a universal motor is most likely to fail?
5726b408dd62a815002e8d67
commutator
304
False
When is torque most important in universal motor applications?
5726b408dd62a815002e8d68
starting
440
False
Switching the field winding in washing machines causes the drum to agitate how?
5726b408dd62a815002e8d69
forwards and in reverse
940
False
How is stepped speed control achieved?
5726b408dd62a815002e8d6a
Multiple taps on the field coil provide
465
False
universal
20
What kind of motor can employ both DC and DC?
5ad163ff645df0001a2d1972
True
commutator
304
What component of a universal motor is most likely to not fail?
5ad163ff645df0001a2d1973
True
starting
440
When is torque least important in universal motor applications?
5ad163ff645df0001a2d1974
True
forwards and in reverse
940
Switching the field winding out of washing machines causes the drum to agitate how?
5ad163ff645df0001a2d1975
True
An advantage of the universal motor is that AC supplies may be used on motors which have some characteristics more common in DC motors, specifically high starting torque and very compact design if high running speeds are used. The negative aspect is the maintenance and short life problems caused by the commutator. Such motors are used in devices such as food mixers and power tools which are used only intermittently, and often have high starting-torque demands. Multiple taps on the field coil provide (imprecise) stepped speed control. Household blenders that advertise many speeds frequently combine a field coil with several taps and a diode that can be inserted in series with the motor (causing the motor to run on half-wave rectified AC). Universal motors also lend themselves to electronic speed control and, as such, are an ideal choice for devices like domestic washing machines. The motor can be used to agitate the drum (both forwards and in reverse) by switching the field winding with respect to the armature.
At around what RMP do weed trimmer motors operate?
5726b4e8f1498d1400e8e83c
10,000
466
False
At around what RMP do miniature grinders operate?
5726b4e8f1498d1400e8e83d
30,000
523
False
What type of motor can universal motors operate much faster than?
5726b4e8f1498d1400e8e83e
SCIMs
8
False
What attributes make universal motors desireable for consumer applications like hair dryers?
5726b4e8f1498d1400e8e83f
high speed and light weight
226
False
10,000 rpm
466
At around what RRP do weed trimmer motors operate?
5ad16431645df0001a2d197a
True
30,000 rpm
523
At around what RMR do miniature grinders operate?
5ad16431645df0001a2d197b
True
SCIMs
8
What type of motor can't universal motors operate much faster than?
5ad16431645df0001a2d197c
True
high speed and light weight
226
What attributes make universal motors less desirable for consumer applications like hair dryers?
5ad16431645df0001a2d197d
True
Whereas SCIMs cannot turn a shaft faster than allowed by the power line frequency, universal motors can run at much higher speeds. This makes them useful for appliances such as blenders, vacuum cleaners, and hair dryers where high speed and light weight are desirable. They are also commonly used in portable power tools, such as drills, sanders, circular and jig saws, where the motor's characteristics work well. Many vacuum cleaner and weed trimmer motors exceed 10,000 rpm, while many similar miniature grinders exceed 30,000 rpm.
What determines the properties of speed and torque?
5726b5dcf1498d1400e8e868
shape of the rotor bars
73
False
At high speed, where is the most current?
5726b5dcf1498d1400e8e869
interior of the winding
367
False
Is the current frequency higher or lower at high speed?
5726b5dcf1498d1400e8e86a
lower
333
False
Changing the shapes of the bars creates what?
5726b5dcf1498d1400e8e86b
variable resistance
520
False
Where can variable resistance be created?
5726b5dcf1498d1400e8e86c
rotor circuit
559
False
shaping the bars
395
What doesn't determine the properties of speed and torque?
5ad165ad645df0001a2d19a0
True
interior of the winding
367
At low speed, where is the most current?
5ad165ad645df0001a2d19a1
True
lower
333
Is the non-current frequency higher or lower at high speed?
5ad165ad645df0001a2d19a2
True
variable resistance
520
Not changing the shapes of the bars creates what?
5ad165ad645df0001a2d19a3
True
rotor bars
86
Where can variable resistance not be created?
5ad165ad645df0001a2d19a4
True
Currents induced into this winding provide the rotor magnetic field. The shape of the rotor bars determines the speed-torque characteristics. At low speeds, the current induced in the squirrel cage is nearly at line frequency and tends to be in the outer parts of the rotor cage. As the motor accelerates, the slip frequency becomes lower, and more current is in the interior of the winding. By shaping the bars to change the resistance of the winding portions in the interior and outer parts of the cage, effectively a variable resistance is inserted in the rotor circuit. However, the majority of such motors have uniform bars.
Where might a resistor be attached?
5726b6a15951b619008f7b91
rotor circuit
190
False
What can a resistor control?
5726b6a15951b619008f7b92
motor speed
236
False
How might wasted power be salvaged?
5726b6a15951b619008f7b93
inverter or separate motor-generator
469
False
From where may a converter be fed?
5726b6a15951b619008f7b94
rotor circuit
350
False
rotor circuit
350
Where might a resistor not be attached?
5ad16638645df0001a2d19b2
True
motor speed
236
What can a resistor never control?
5ad16638645df0001a2d19b3
True
inverter or separate motor-generator
469
How might wasted power not be salvaged?
5ad16638645df0001a2d19b4
True
rotor circuit
350
From where won't a converter be fed?
5ad16638645df0001a2d19b5
True
In a WRIM, the rotor winding is made of many turns of insulated wire and is connected to slip rings on the motor shaft. An external resistor or other control devices can be connected in the rotor circuit. Resistors allow control of the motor speed, although significant power is dissipated in the external resistance. A converter can be fed from the rotor circuit and return the slip-frequency power that would otherwise be wasted back into the power system through an inverter or separate motor-generator.
What will a motor do if the load is reduced?
5726b731dd62a815002e8dc8
speed up
220
False
What will a motor do if the load is increased?
5726b731dd62a815002e8dc9
slow down
278
False
Where are slip losses dissipated?
5726b731dd62a815002e8dca
secondary resistors
394
False
How efficient is such a design?
5726b731dd62a815002e8dcb
very poor
491
False
speed up
220
What will a motor do if the load is not reduced?
5ad1665e645df0001a2d19c4
True
slow down
278
What will a motor do if the load is decreased?
5ad1665e645df0001a2d19c5
True
secondary resistors
394
Where are slip losses not dissipated?
5ad1665e645df0001a2d19c6
True
very poor
491
How inefficient is such a design?
5ad1665e645df0001a2d19c7
True
When used with a load that has a torque curve that increases with speed, the motor will operate at the speed where the torque developed by the motor is equal to the load torque. Reducing the load will cause the motor to speed up, and increasing the load will cause the motor to slow down until the load and motor torque are equal. Operated in this manner, the slip losses are dissipated in the secondary resistors and can be very significant. The speed regulation and net efficiency is also very poor.
How are torque motors used in computer gaming?
5726b7fadd62a815002e8dfc
feedback steering wheels
585
False
A torque motor at low voltage provides what?
5726b7fadd62a815002e8dfd
constant light tension
204
False
A torque motor at high voltage provides what?
5726b7fadd62a815002e8dfe
higher torque
368
False
In a tape drive, what is not needed if a torque motor is used?
5726b7fadd62a815002e8dff
gears or clutches
504
False
feedback steering wheels
585
How aren't torque motors used in computer gaming?
5ad1668c645df0001a2d19cc
True
constant light tension
204
A torque motor at high voltage provides what?
5ad1668c645df0001a2d19cd
True
gaming
539
A torque motor at low voltage provides what?
5ad1668c645df0001a2d19ce
True
gears or clutches
504
In a tape drive, what is needed if a torque motor is used?
5ad1668c645df0001a2d19cf
True
A common application of a torque motor would be the supply- and take-up reel motors in a tape drive. In this application, driven from a low voltage, the characteristics of these motors allow a relatively constant light tension to be applied to the tape whether or not the capstan is feeding tape past the tape heads. Driven from a higher voltage, (and so delivering a higher torque), the torque motors can also achieve fast-forward and rewind operation without requiring any additional mechanics such as gears or clutches. In the computer gaming world, torque motors are used in force feedback steering wheels.
What element of a combustion engine does a governor monitor?
5726b8c9708984140094cf1f
electrical pulses
303
False
What is a governor connected to?
5726b8c9708984140094cf20
return spring
773
False
What kinds of adjustments would a governor make?
5726b8c9708984140094cf21
small
407
False
What would a governor do to a too-fast running engine?
5726b8c9708984140094cf22
reduce the current being applied to the motor
714
False
electrical pulses
303
What element of a combustion engine doesn't a governor monitor?
5ad166da645df0001a2d19d4
True
return spring
624
What is a governor disconnected from?
5ad166da645df0001a2d19d5
True
small
407
What kinds of adjustments would a governor never make?
5ad166da645df0001a2d19d6
True
reduce the current being applied to the motor
714
What would a governor do to a too-slow running engine?
5ad166da645df0001a2d19d7
True
Another common application is the control of the throttle of an internal combustion engine in conjunction with an electronic governor. In this usage, the motor works against a return spring to move the throttle in accordance with the output of the governor. The latter monitors engine speed by counting electrical pulses from the ignition system or from a magnetic pickup and, depending on the speed, makes small adjustments to the amount of current applied to the motor. If the engine starts to slow down relative to the desired speed, the current will be increased, the motor will develop more torque, pulling against the return spring and opening the throttle. Should the engine run too fast, the governor will reduce the current being applied to the motor, causing the return spring to pull back and close the throttle.
How much slip does a synchronous motor have?
5726b9d3dd62a815002e8e44
zero
220
False
How does an induction motor produce torque?
5726b9d3dd62a815002e8e45
slip
314
False
Whithout rotor windings, how must a Hammond clock be started?
5726b9d3dd62a815002e8e46
manually
1046
False
How can a synchronous motor be made more like an induction motor?
5726b9d3dd62a815002e8e47
DC field
428
False
How is current brought to the rotor in a synchronous motor?
5726b9d3dd62a815002e8e48
Slip rings and brushes
438
False
zero
220
How much slip does a non-synchronous motor have?
5ad1672c645df0001a2d19ee
True
slip
225
How doesn't an induction motor produce torque?
5ad1672c645df0001a2d19ef
True
manual
909
With rotor windings, how must a Hammond clock be started?
5ad1672c645df0001a2d19f0
True
DC field
428
How can a synchronous motor be made less like an induction motor?
5ad1672c645df0001a2d19f1
True
Slip rings and brushes
438
How isn't current brought to the rotor in a synchronous motor?
5ad1672c645df0001a2d19f2
True
A synchronous electric motor is an AC motor distinguished by a rotor spinning with coils passing magnets at the same rate as the AC and resulting magnetic field which drives it. Another way of saying this is that it has zero slip under usual operating conditions. Contrast this with an induction motor, which must slip to produce torque. One type of synchronous motor is like an induction motor except the rotor is excited by a DC field. Slip rings and brushes are used to conduct current to the rotor. The rotor poles connect to each other and move at the same speed hence the name synchronous motor. Another type, for low load torque, has flats ground onto a conventional squirrel-cage rotor to create discrete poles. Yet another, such as made by Hammond for its pre-World War II clocks, and in the older Hammond organs, has no rotor windings and discrete poles. It is not self-starting. The clock requires manual starting by a small knob on the back, while the older Hammond organs had an auxiliary starting motor connected by a spring-loaded manually operated switch.
What do hysteresis synchronous motors' rotors do when slip rate decreases?
5726bcf3f1498d1400e8e9a6
becomes temporarily magnetized
238
False
When in operation, what do hysteresis synchronous motors poles do?
5726bcf3f1498d1400e8e9a7
stay in place
470
False
What do hysteresis synchronous motors resemble at startup?
5726bcf3f1498d1400e8e9a8
induction motors
147
False
How can a hysteresis synchronous motor's rotor be described?
5726bcf3f1498d1400e8e9a9
a smooth cylinder
219
False
What do the distributed poles of a hysteresis synchronous motor resemble?
5726bcf3f1498d1400e8e9aa
PMSM
311
False
temporarily magnetized
246
What do hysteresis synchronous motors' rotors do when slip rate increases?
5ad16772645df0001a2d19f8
True
stay in place
470
When in operation, what don't hysteresis synchronous motors poles do?
5ad16772645df0001a2d19f9
True
induction motors
147
What do hysteresis synchronous motors not resemble at startup?
5ad16772645df0001a2d19fa
True
a smooth cylinder
219
How can't a hysteresis synchronous motor's rotor be described?
5ad16772645df0001a2d19fb
True
PMSM
311
What do the undistributed poles of a hysteresis synchronous motor resemble?
5ad16772645df0001a2d19fc
True
Finally, hysteresis synchronous motors typically are (essentially) two-phase motors with a phase-shifting capacitor for one phase. They start like induction motors, but when slip rate decreases sufficiently, the rotor (a smooth cylinder) becomes temporarily magnetized. Its distributed poles make it act like a PMSM. The rotor material, like that of a common nail, will stay magnetized, but can also be demagnetized with little difficulty. Once running, the rotor poles stay in place; they do not drift.
What type of motor has two independent multiphase winding sets?
5726be1add62a815002e8f10
Doubly fed electric motors
0
False
What advanage do independent multiphase winding sets have?
5726be1add62a815002e8f11
contribute active (i.e., working) power to the energy conversion process
79
False
What is one of the independent multiphase winding sets configured for?
5726be1add62a815002e8f12
variable speed operation
221
False
Doubly fed motors have what advantage over single fed?
5726be1add62a815002e8f13
twice the constant torque speed range
547
False
Doubly fed electric motors
0
What type of motor has three independent multiphase winding sets?
5ad16800645df0001a2d1a02
True
contribute active (i.e., working) power to the energy conversion process
79
What advantage don't independent multiphase winding sets have?
5ad16800645df0001a2d1a03
True
variable speed operation
221
What is one of the dependent multiphase winding sets configured for?
5ad16800645df0001a2d1a04
True
twice the constant torque speed range
547
Doubly fed motors have what disadvantage under single fed?
5ad16800645df0001a2d1a05
True
Doubly fed electric motors have two independent multiphase winding sets, which contribute active (i.e., working) power to the energy conversion process, with at least one of the winding sets electronically controlled for variable speed operation. Two independent multiphase winding sets (i.e., dual armature) are the maximum provided in a single package without topology duplication. Doubly-fed electric motors are machines with an effective constant torque speed range that is twice synchronous speed for a given frequency of excitation. This is twice the constant torque speed range as singly-fed electric machines, which have only one active winding set.
A coreless DC motor is distinguished by what?
5726bec2dd62a815002e8f36
rapid acceleration
434
False
What is absent in a coreless DC motor?
5726bec2dd62a815002e8f37
iron core
512
False
What forms can the rotor take?
5726bec2dd62a815002e8f38
winding-filled cylinder, or a self-supporting structure
556
False
rapid acceleration
434
A coreless RC motor is distinguished by what?
5ad16823645df0001a2d1a0a
True
iron core
512
What is absent in a coreless RC motor?
5ad16823645df0001a2d1a0b
True
winding-filled cylinder, or a self-supporting
556
What forms can't the rotor take?
5ad16823645df0001a2d1a0c
True
Nothing in the principle of any of the motors described above requires that the iron (steel) portions of the rotor actually rotate. If the soft magnetic material of the rotor is made in the form of a cylinder, then (except for the effect of hysteresis) torque is exerted only on the windings of the electromagnets. Taking advantage of this fact is the coreless or ironless DC motor, a specialized form of a PM DC motor. Optimized for rapid acceleration, these motors have a rotor that is constructed without any iron core. The rotor can take the form of a winding-filled cylinder, or a self-supporting structure comprising only the magnet wire and the bonding material. The rotor can fit inside the stator magnets; a magnetically soft stationary cylinder inside the rotor provides a return path for the stator magnetic flux. A second arrangement has the rotor winding basket surrounding the stator magnets. In that design, the rotor fits inside a magnetically soft cylinder that can serve as the housing for the motor, and likewise provides a return path for the flux.
What is a likely problem of coreless DC motors?
5726bfb05951b619008f7d23
Overheating
447
False
How does a coreless rotor compare to traditional rotors in terms of weight?
5726bfb05951b619008f7d24
lighter
26
False
What advantage does a coreless rotor have over traditional variants?
5726bfb05951b619008f7d25
accelerate much more rapidly
141
False
How is a coreless motor cooled?
5726bfb05951b619008f7d26
forced air
435
False
The lack of a metal mass in the core causes what function to be absent?
5726bfb05951b619008f7d27
heat sink
373
False
Overheating
447
What is a likely problem of coreless RC motors?
5ad168ad645df0001a2d1a10
True
lighter
26
How does a coreless rotor not compare to traditional rotors in terms of weight?
5ad168ad645df0001a2d1a11
True
accelerate much more rapidly
141
What advantage doesn't a coreless rotor have over traditional variants?
5ad168ad645df0001a2d1a12
True
forced air
435
How is a coreless motor warmed?
5ad168ad645df0001a2d1a13
True
heat sink
373
The surplus of a metal mass in the core causes what function to be absent?
5ad168ad645df0001a2d1a14
True
Because the rotor is much lighter in weight (mass) than a conventional rotor formed from copper windings on steel laminations, the rotor can accelerate much more rapidly, often achieving a mechanical time constant under one ms. This is especially true if the windings use aluminum rather than the heavier copper. But because there is no metal mass in the rotor to act as a heat sink, even small coreless motors must often be cooled by forced air. Overheating might be an issue for coreless DC motor designs.
What was the original purpose for pancake motors?
5726c077708984140094d07d
drive the capstan(s) of magnetic tape drives
41
False
What are advantages of pancake motors?
5726c077708984140094d07e
minimal time to reach operating speed and minimal stopping distance
129
False
For what type of military applications are pancake motors currently used?
5726c077708984140094d07f
high temperature
450
False
What type of servo-controlled systems use pancake motors?
5726c077708984140094d080
high-performance
252
False
drive the capstan(s)
41
What was the original purpose for waffle motors?
5ad16907645df0001a2d1a2e
True
minimal time to reach operating speed
129
What are advantages of waffle motors?
5ad16907645df0001a2d1a2f
True
high temperature
450
For what type of military applications are waffle motors currently used?
5ad16907645df0001a2d1a30
True
high-performance
252
What type of servo-controlled systems use waffle motors?
5ad16907645df0001a2d1a31
True
These motors were originally invented to drive the capstan(s) of magnetic tape drives in the burgeoning computer industry, where minimal time to reach operating speed and minimal stopping distance were critical. Pancake motors are still widely used in high-performance servo-controlled systems, robotic systems, industrial automation and medical devices. Due to the variety of constructions now available, the technology is used in applications from high temperature military to low cost pump and basic servos.
What may servo motors be used for?
5726c204708984140094d0ab
machine tools, pen plotters, and other process systems
251
False
What must be well understood when applying a servo motor for use?
5726c204708984140094d0ac
speed, torque, and power
397
False
What factors limit performance of servo motors?
5726c204708984140094d0ad
winding inductance and rotor inertia
547
False
Large, slow servos can use what types of motors?
5726c204708984140094d0ae
conventional AC or DC motors
733
False
When might coreless motors be used in servo applications?
5726c204708984140094d0af
As dynamic response requirements increase
826
False
machine tools, pen plotters, and other process systems
251
What may servo motors never be used for?
5ad16977645df0001a2d1a40
True
speed, torque, and power
397
What must not be well understood when applying a servo motor for use?
5ad16977645df0001a2d1a41
True
winding inductance and rotor inertia
547
What factors don't limit performance of servo motors?
5ad16977645df0001a2d1a42
True
conventional AC or DC motors
733
Small, fast servos can use what types of motors?
5ad16977645df0001a2d1a43
True
A servomotor is a motor, very often sold as a complete module, which is used within a position-control or speed-control feedback control system mainly control valves, such as motor-operated control valves. Servomotors are used in applications such as machine tools, pen plotters, and other process systems. Motors intended for use in a servomechanism must have well-documented characteristics for speed, torque, and power. The speed vs. torque curve is quite important and is high ratio for a servo motor. Dynamic response characteristics such as winding inductance and rotor inertia are also important; these factors limit the overall performance of the servomechanism loop. Large, powerful, but slow-responding servo loops may use conventional AC or DC motors and drive systems with position or speed feedback on the motor. As dynamic response requirements increase, more specialized motor designs such as coreless motors are used. AC motors' superior power density and acceleration characteristics compared to that of DC motors tends to favor PM synchronous, BLDC, induction, and SRM drive applications.
How do servo motors differ from stepper motors?
5726c9505951b619008f7e0b
position feedback is continuous
72
False
How does a stepper system achieve stability?
5726c9505951b619008f7e0c
a "home" switch
252
False
What makes a printer home switch work?
5726c9505951b619008f7e0d
position sensor
484
False
What kind of counter keeps track of a print head's position?
5726c9505951b619008f7e0e
bidirectional
568
False
A stepper system's motor is relied on to not do what?
5726c9505951b619008f7e0f
miss steps
177
False
position feedback is continuous
72
How are servo motors the same as stepper motors?
5ad169cf645df0001a2d1a48
True
a "home" switch
252
How does a stepper system not achieve stability?
5ad169cf645df0001a2d1a49
True
position sensor
484
What makes a printer home switch break?
5ad169cf645df0001a2d1a4a
True
bidirectional
568
What kind of counter keeps track of a print foot's position?
5ad169cf645df0001a2d1a4b
True
miss steps
177
A stepper system's motor is unrelied on to not do what?
5ad169cf645df0001a2d1a4c
True
A servo system differs from some stepper motor applications in that the position feedback is continuous while the motor is running; a stepper system relies on the motor not to "miss steps" for short term accuracy, although a stepper system may include a "home" switch or other element to provide long-term stability of control. For instance, when a typical dot matrix computer printer starts up, its controller makes the print head stepper motor drive to its left-hand limit, where a position sensor defines home position and stops stepping. As long as power is on, a bidirectional counter in the printer's microprocessor keeps track of print-head position.
When are stepper motors most useful?
5726ca94708984140094d179
when precise rotations are required
51
False
What two devices can describe a stepper motor?
5726ca94708984140094d17a
DC electric motor and a rotary solenoid
325
False
What do stepper motor rotors allign themselves with?
5726ca94708984140094d17b
magnetic field produced by the energized field winding
434
False
How does a stepper motor differ from a synchronous motor?
5726ca94708984140094d17c
the stepper motor may not rotate continuously
538
False
What types of velocities and positions is the stepper motor capable of?
5726ca94708984140094d17d
forwards or backwards, and it may change direction, stop, speed up or slow down
779
False
when precise rotations are required
51
When are stepper motors least useful?
5ad16a27645df0001a2d1a52
True
DC electric motor and a rotary solenoid
325
What three devices can describe a stepper motor?
5ad16a27645df0001a2d1a53
True
magnetic field produced by the energized field winding
434
What do stepper motor rotors align themselves without?
5ad16a27645df0001a2d1a54
True
stepper motor may not rotate continuously
542
How doesn't a stepper motor differ from a synchronous motor?
5ad16a27645df0001a2d1a55
True
Stepper motors are a type of motor frequently used when precise rotations are required. In a stepper motor an internal rotor containing PMs or a magnetically soft rotor with salient poles is controlled by a set of external magnets that are switched electronically. A stepper motor may also be thought of as a cross between a DC electric motor and a rotary solenoid. As each coil is energized in turn, the rotor aligns itself with the magnetic field produced by the energized field winding. Unlike a synchronous motor, in its application, the stepper motor may not rotate continuously; instead, it "steps"—starts and then quickly stops again—from one position to the next as field windings are energized and de-energized in sequence. Depending on the sequence, the rotor may turn forwards or backwards, and it may change direction, stop, speed up or slow down arbitrarily at any time.
What is a trait of a sophisticated stepper motor?
5726cb58f1498d1400e8eb78
proportionally control the power to the field windings
183
False
What does proportinal control of the field windings in a stepper motor achieve?
5726cb58f1498d1400e8eb79
rotate extremely smoothly
306
False
What is another name for smooth rotation?
5726cb58f1498d1400e8eb7a
microstepping
372
False
With what other device are stepper motors most versatile?
5726cb58f1498d1400e8eb7b
digital servo-controlled system
510
False
proportionally control the power to the field windings
183
What is not a trait of a sophisticated stepper motor?
5ad16a56645df0001a2d1a5a
True
rotate extremely smoothly
306
What doesn't proportional control of the field windings in a stepper motor achieve?
5ad16a56645df0001a2d1a5b
True
microstepping
372
What is another name for rough rotation?
5ad16a56645df0001a2d1a5c
True
digital servo-controlled system
510
With what other device aren't stepper motors most versatile?
5ad16a56645df0001a2d1a5d
True
Simple stepper motor drivers entirely energize or entirely de-energize the field windings, leading the rotor to "cog" to a limited number of positions; more sophisticated drivers can proportionally control the power to the field windings, allowing the rotors to position between the cog points and thereby rotate extremely smoothly. This mode of operation is often called microstepping. Computer controlled stepper motors are one of the most versatile forms of positioning systems, particularly when part of a digital servo-controlled system.
Why were stepper motors abandoned in computer drive designs?
5726cc10f1498d1400e8eb80
precision and speed limitations
420
False
What do newer computer drives use instead of stepper motors?
5726cc10f1498d1400e8eb81
voice coil-based head actuator systems
631
False
In what direction do modern coil actuators move?
5726cc10f1498d1400e8eb82
perpendicular to the magnetic lines of force
1053
False
To what device does the term, "voice coil" historically refer?
5726cc10f1498d1400e8eb83
the structure in a typical (cone type) loudspeaker
739
False
precision and speed limitations
420
Why weren't stepper motors abandoned in computer drive designs?
5ad16abe645df0001a2d1a74
True
voice coil-based head actuator systems
631
What don't newer computer drives use instead of stepper motors?
5ad16abe645df0001a2d1a75
True
perpendicular to the magnetic lines of force
1053
In what direction don't modern coil actuators move?
5ad16abe645df0001a2d1a76
True
structure in a typical (cone type) loudspeaker
743
To what device does the term, "voice coil" not historically refer?
5ad16abe645df0001a2d1a77
True
Stepper motors can be rotated to a specific angle in discrete steps with ease, and hence stepper motors are used for read/write head positioning in computer floppy diskette drives. They were used for the same purpose in pre-gigabyte era computer disk drives, where the precision and speed they offered was adequate for the correct positioning of the read/write head of a hard disk drive. As drive density increased, the precision and speed limitations of stepper motors made them obsolete for hard drives—the precision limitation made them unusable, and the speed limitation made them uncompetitive—thus newer hard disk drives use voice coil-based head actuator systems. (The term "voice coil" in this connection is historic; it refers to the structure in a typical (cone type) loudspeaker. This structure was used for a while to position the heads. Modern drives have a pivoted coil mount; the coil swings back and forth, something like a blade of a rotating fan. Nevertheless, like a voice coil, modern actuator coil conductors (the magnet wire) move perpendicular to the magnetic lines of force.)
List two alternatives to rotary stepper motors in printer applications.
5726cdc15951b619008f7e7d
linear stepper motors or servomotors
465
False
In scanners, what do stepper motors move?
5726cdc15951b619008f7e7e
optical scanning element
122
False
In printers and copiers, what do stepper motors move?
5726cdc15951b619008f7e7f
print head carriage (of dot matrix and inkjet printers), and the platen or feed rollers
152
False
linear stepper motors or servomotors
465
List two alternatives to rotary stepper motors in non-printer applications.
5ad16b34645df0001a2d1a86
True
optical scanning element
122
In scanners, what don't stepper motors move?
5ad16b34645df0001a2d1a87
True
print head carriage
152
In printers and copiers, what don't stepper motors move?
5ad16b34645df0001a2d1a88
True
Stepper motors were and still are often used in computer printers, optical scanners, and digital photocopiers to move the optical scanning element, the print head carriage (of dot matrix and inkjet printers), and the platen or feed rollers. Likewise, many computer plotters (which since the early 1990s have been replaced with large-format inkjet and laser printers) used rotary stepper motors for pen and platen movement; the typical alternatives here were either linear stepper motors or servomotors with closed-loop analog control systems.
Voltage opposing the motor supply voltage is called what?
5726cea6708984140094d1f1
back electromotive force
213
False
EMP is proportional to what?
5726cea6708984140094d1f2
the running speed of the motor
277
False
Voltage at the brushes is equal to what?
5726cea6708984140094d1f3
back emf of the motor, plus the voltage drop across the winding internal resistance
313
False
If load increases, what happens to current drawn?
5726cea6708984140094d1f4
more current is drawn from the supply
610
False
back electromotive force
213
Voltage not opposing the motor supply voltage is called what?
5ad16b8f645df0001a2d1a96
True
running speed of the motor
281
ENP is proportional to what?
5ad16b8f645df0001a2d1a97
True
back emf results, and more current is drawn from the supply
588
Voltage at the brushes is not equal to what?
5ad16b8f645df0001a2d1a98
True
more current is drawn from the supply
610
If load decreases, what happens to current drawn?
5ad16b8f645df0001a2d1a99
True
Since the armature windings of a direct-current or universal motor are moving through a magnetic field, they have a voltage induced in them. This voltage tends to oppose the motor supply voltage and so is called "back electromotive force (emf)". The voltage is proportional to the running speed of the motor. The back emf of the motor, plus the voltage drop across the winding internal resistance and brushes, must equal the voltage at the brushes. This provides the fundamental mechanism of speed regulation in a DC motor. If the mechanical load increases, the motor slows down; a lower back emf results, and more current is drawn from the supply. This increased current provides the additional torque to balance the new load.
What needs to be known to calculate torque?
5726cf6d708984140094d201
fields in the air gap
199
False
How are the many calculations to determine torque done?
5726cf6d708984140094d202
FEA
287
False
How is torque determined?
5726cf6d708984140094d203
from the vector product of the interacting fields
93
False
What is the formulia to determine torque?
5726cf6d708984140094d204
the integral of all the vectors of force multiplied by the radius of each vector
338
False
fields in the air gap
199
What needs to be unknown to calculate torque?
5ad16c79645df0001a2d1aa8
True
FEA
287
How are the very few calculations to determine torque done?
5ad16c79645df0001a2d1aa9
True
vector product of the interacting fields
102
How is torque undetermined?
5ad16c79645df0001a2d1aaa
True
integral of all the vectors of force multiplied by the radius of each vector
342
What is the formula to not determine torque?
5ad16c79645df0001a2d1aab
True
All the electromagnetic motors, and that includes the types mentioned here derive the torque from the vector product of the interacting fields. For calculating the torque it is necessary to know the fields in the air gap . Once these have been established by mathematical analysis using FEA or other tools the torque may be calculated as the integral of all the vectors of force multiplied by the radius of each vector. The current flowing in the winding is producing the fields and for a motor using a magnetic material the field is not linearly proportional to the current. This makes the calculation difficult but a computer can do the many calculations needed.
What are factors that determine shaft torque?
5726d031f1498d1400e8ec00
torque current), voltage, pole-pair number, excitation frequency (i.e., synchronous speed), and air-gap flux density
104
False
Whate decides the size of an electromagnetic core?
5726d031f1498d1400e8ec01
air-gap area with winding slots and back-iron depth
374
False
What limits excessive torque?
5726d031f1498d1400e8ec02
magnetic core saturation or safe operating temperature rise and voltage
667
False
voltage, pole-pair number, excitation frequency
121
What aren't factors that determine shaft torque?
5ad16cbb645df0001a2d1ab8
True
air-gap area with winding slots and back-iron depth
374
Whate decides the size of a nonelectromagnetic core?
5ad16cbb645df0001a2d1ab9
True
temperature rise and voltage
710
What doesn't limit excessive torque?
5ad16cbb645df0001a2d1aba
True
When optimally designed within a given core saturation constraint and for a given active current (i.e., torque current), voltage, pole-pair number, excitation frequency (i.e., synchronous speed), and air-gap flux density, all categories of electric motors or generators will exhibit virtually the same maximum continuous shaft torque (i.e., operating torque) within a given air-gap area with winding slots and back-iron depth, which determines the physical size of electromagnetic core. Some applications require bursts of torque beyond the maximum operating torque, such as short bursts of torque to accelerate an electric vehicle from standstill. Always limited by magnetic core saturation or safe operating temperature rise and voltage, the capacity for torque bursts beyond the maximum operating torque differs significantly between categories of electric motors or generators.
What is the only device with dual ported transformer circuit topology?
5726d11ddd62a815002e912a
brushless wound-rotor
4
False
What is a brushless wound-rotor?
5726d11ddd62a815002e912b
both ports independently excited with no short-circuited port
156
False
How does a brushless wound rotor achieve stability?
5726d11ddd62a815002e912c
a multiphase slip-ring-brush assembly to propagate limited power to the rotor winding set
302
False
What is the theoretical maximum of a brushless wound rotor?
5726d11ddd62a815002e912d
eight times operating torque
924
False
brushless wound-rotor
4
What is the only device with triple ported transformer circuit topology?
5ad16cf3645df0001a2d1ac6
True
both ports independently excited with no short-circuited port
156
What is a brushfilled wound-rotor?
5ad16cf3645df0001a2d1ac7
True
multiphase slip-ring-brush assembly to propagate limited power to the rotor winding set
304
How doesn't a brushless wound rotor achieve stability?
5ad16cf3645df0001a2d1ac8
True
eight times operating torque
924
What isn't the theoretical maximum of a brushless wound rotor?
5ad16cf3645df0001a2d1ac9
True
The brushless wound-rotor synchronous doubly-fed (BWRSDF) machine is the only electric machine with a truly dual ported transformer circuit topology (i.e., both ports independently excited with no short-circuited port). The dual ported transformer circuit topology is known to be unstable and requires a multiphase slip-ring-brush assembly to propagate limited power to the rotor winding set. If a precision means were available to instantaneously control torque angle and slip for synchronous operation during motoring or generating while simultaneously providing brushless power to the rotor winding set, the active current of the BWRSDF machine would be independent of the reactive impedance of the transformer circuit and bursts of torque significantly higher than the maximum operating torque and far beyond the practical capability of any other type of electric machine would be realizable. Torque bursts greater than eight times operating torque have been calculated.
What determines continuous torque density?
5726d1d8708984140094d241
size of the air-gap area and the back-iron depth
85
False
What three elements determine the size of the air-gap area and back iron depth?
5726d1d8708984140094d242
power rating of the armature winding set, the speed of the machine, and the achievable air-gap flux density before core saturation
163
False
What does continuous torque density refer to?
5726d1d8708984140094d243
method of cooling and permissible period of operation before destruction by overheating
518
False
How does continuous torque density vary between well designed motors?
5726d1d8708984140094d244
virtually the same
389
False
size of the air-gap area and the back-iron depth,
85
What determines non-continuous torque density?
5ad16d3b645df0001a2d1ace
True
achievable air-gap flux density before core saturation
239
What is the fourth element that determines the size of the air-gap area and back iron depth?
5ad16d3b645df0001a2d1acf
True
method of cooling and permissible period of operation before destruction by overheating
518
What doesn't continuous torque density refer to?
5ad16d3b645df0001a2d1ad0
True
virtually the same
389
How does non-continuous torque density vary between well designed motors?
5ad16d3b645df0001a2d1ad1
True
The continuous torque density of conventional electric machines is determined by the size of the air-gap area and the back-iron depth, which are determined by the power rating of the armature winding set, the speed of the machine, and the achievable air-gap flux density before core saturation. Despite the high coercivity of neodymium or samarium-cobalt PMs, continuous torque density is virtually the same amongst electric machines with optimally designed armature winding sets. Continuous torque density relates to method of cooling and permissible period of operation before destruction by overheating of windings or PM damage.
What type of motor is based on the attraction and repulsion of electric charge?
5726d2f5708984140094d271
electrostatic
3
False
What are electrostatic motors like two of?
5726d2f5708984140094d272
conventional coil-based motors
130
False
What type of power supply do electrostatic motors usually have?
5726d2f5708984140094d273
high-voltage
187
False
What two inventors developed the first electrostatic motors?
5726d2f5708984140094d274
Benjamin Franklin and Andrew Gordon
448
False
Micro-electro mechanical systems prefer what type of motor?
5726d2f5708984140094d275
electrostatic motor
495
False
electrostatic
3
What type of motor is not based on the attraction and repulsion of electric charge?
5ad16d72645df0001a2d1ae0
True
conventional coil-based motors
130
What are electrostatic motors like three of?
5ad16d72645df0001a2d1ae1
True
high-voltage
187
What type of power supply don't electrostatic motors usually have?
5ad16d72645df0001a2d1ae2
True
Benjamin Franklin and Andrew Gordon
448
What two inventors developed the second electrostatic motors?
5ad16d72645df0001a2d1ae3
True
electrostatic motors
409
Macro-electro mechanical systems prefer what type of motor?
5ad16d72645df0001a2d1ae4
True
An electrostatic motor is based on the attraction and repulsion of electric charge. Usually, electrostatic motors are the dual of conventional coil-based motors. They typically require a high-voltage power supply, although very small motors employ lower voltages. Conventional electric motors instead employ magnetic attraction and repulsion, and require high current at low voltages. In the 1750s, the first electrostatic motors were developed by Benjamin Franklin and Andrew Gordon. Today the electrostatic motor finds frequent use in micro-electro-mechanical systems (MEMS) where their drive voltages are below 100 volts, and where moving, charged plates are far easier to fabricate than coils and iron cores. Also, the molecular machinery which runs living cells is often based on linear and rotary electrostatic motors.[citation needed]
Switzerland
What is the official name of Switzerland?
5726a6b8708984140094cced
Swiss Confederation
45
False
What type of government does Switzerland have?
5726a6b8708984140094ccee
a federal directorial republic
240
False
How many cantons are in Switzerland's federal directorial republic?
5726a6b8708984140094ccef
26
285
False
What 3 geographical features divide Switzerland?
5726a6b8708984140094ccf0
the Alps, the Swiss Plateau and the Jura
646
False
What is the population of Switzerland?
5726a6b8708984140094ccf1
approximately 8 million
816
False
Switzerland (/ˈswɪtsərlənd/), officially the Swiss Confederation (Latin: Confoederatio Helvetica, hence its abbreviation CH), is a country in Europe. While still named the "Swiss Confederation" for historical reasons, modern Switzerland is a federal directorial republic consisting of 26 cantons, with Bern as the seat of the federal authorities, called Bundesstadt ("federal city").[note 3] The country is situated in Western and Central Europe,[note 4] and is bordered by Italy to the south, France to the west, Germany to the north, and Austria and Liechtenstein to the east. Switzerland is a landlocked country geographically divided between the Alps, the Swiss Plateau and the Jura, spanning an area of 41,285 km2 (15,940 sq mi). While the Alps occupy the greater part of the territory, the Swiss population of approximately 8 million people is concentrated mostly on the Plateau, where the largest cities are to be found: among them are the two global and economic centres, Zürich and Geneva.
What is the traditional date of the establishment of the Swiss Confederation?
5726a7ef708984140094cd07
1 August 1291
71
False
What year did Switzerland join the United Nations?
5726a7ef708984140094cd08
2002
296
False
What country is the birthplace of the Red Cross?
5726a7ef708984140094cd09
Switzerland
479
False
In what year was Switzerland last involved in a war internationally?
5726a7ef708984140094cd0a
1815
249
False
What Swiss holiday is celebrated on August 1st every year?
5726a7ef708984140094cd0b
Swiss National Day
122
False
The establishment of the Swiss Confederation is traditionally dated to 1 August 1291, which is celebrated annually as the Swiss National Day. The country has a long history of armed neutrality—it has not been in a state of war internationally since 1815—and did not join the United Nations until 2002. Nevertheless, it pursues an active foreign policy and is frequently involved in peace-building processes around the world. In addition to being the birthplace of the Red Cross, Switzerland is home to numerous international organizations, including the second largest UN office. On the European level, it is a founding member of the European Free Trade Association, but notably it is not part of the European Union, nor the European Economic Area. However the country does participate in the Schengen Area and the EU's single market through a number of bilateral treaties.
Which four main linguistic and cultural regions make up Switzerland?
5726a8f3dd62a815002e8c3e
German, French, Italian and Romansh
125
False
What is the predominant language in Switzerland?
5726a8f3dd62a815002e8c3f
German
207
False
What do the French Swiss call Switzerland?
5726a8f3dd62a815002e8c40
Suisse
597
False
What do the German Swiss call Switzerland?
5726a8f3dd62a815002e8c41
Schweiz
561
False
What do the Italian Swiss call Switzerland?
5726a8f3dd62a815002e8c42
Svizzera
624
False
Straddling the intersection of Germanic and Romance Europe, Switzerland comprises four main linguistic and cultural regions: German, French, Italian and Romansh. Therefore, the Swiss, although predominantly German-speaking, do not form a nation in the sense of a common ethnicity or language; rather, Switzerland's strong sense of identity and community is founded on a common historical background, shared values such as federalism and direct democracy, and Alpine symbolism. Due to its linguistic diversity, Switzerland is known by a variety of native names: Schweiz [ˈʃvaɪts] (German);[note 5] Suisse [sɥis(ə)] (French); Svizzera [ˈzvittsera] (Italian); and Svizra [ˈʒviːtsrɐ] or [ˈʒviːtsʁːɐ] (Romansh).[note 6]
How does Switzerland rank worldwide in areas such as quality of life and civil liberties?
5726ab0ddd62a815002e8c66
top or close to the top
91
False
Which country has the highest nominal wealth per adult in the world according to Credit Suisse?
5726ab0ddd62a815002e8c67
Switzerland
0
False
Which two Swiss cities have been ranked as having the highest quality of life in the world?
5726ab0ddd62a815002e8c68
Zürich and Geneva
472
False
What assets are included in nominal wealth?
5726ab0ddd62a815002e8c69
financial and non-financial
312
False
What is Switzerland's ranking for per capita gross domestic product on the IMF list?
5726ab0ddd62a815002e8c6a
eighth-highest
406
False
Switzerland is one of the richest and wealthiest countries in the world. Switzerland ranks top or close to the top in several metrics of national performance, including government transparency, civil liberties, quality of life, economic competitiveness, and human development. It has the highest nominal wealth (financial and non-financial assets) per adult in the world according to Credit Suisse and the eighth-highest per capita gross domestic product on the IMF list. Zürich and Geneva have each been ranked among the top cities with the highest quality of life in the world, with the former ranked 2nd globally, according to Mercer.
What was the Swiss term for Switzerland during the 16th - 19th centuries?
57276a1b5951b619008f898d
Switzer
55
False
Where did the English adjective Swiss originate from?
57276a1b5951b619008f898e
French Suisse
191
False
Where did the name Switzer originate from?
57276a1b5951b619008f898f
the Alemannic Schwiizer
267
False
What did the Alemannic Schwiizer help form the nucleus of?
57276a1b5951b619008f8990
the Old Swiss Confederacy
415
False
The English name Switzerland is a compound containing Switzer, an obsolete term for the Swiss, which was in use during the 16th to 19th centuries. The English adjective Swiss is a loan from French Suisse, also in use since the 16th century. The name Switzer is from the Alemannic Schwiizer, in origin an inhabitant of Schwyz and its associated territory, one of the Waldstätten cantons which formed the nucleus of the Old Swiss Confederacy. The name originates as an exonym, applied pars pro toto to the troops of the Confederacy. The Swiss began to adopt the name for themselves after the Swabian War of 1499, used alongside the term for "Confederates", Eidgenossen (literally: comrades by oath), used since the 14th century.
In what year was the toponym Schwyz first attested as Old High German Suittes?
57276c675951b619008f89b1
972
47
False
At what time did the name Schwyz begin to be used by the entire Confederation?
57276c675951b619008f89b2
after the Swabian War of 1499
261
False
What was the Swiss German name for Schwyz?
57276c675951b619008f89b3
Schwiiz
385
False
What was the name d'Schwiiz used for?
57276c675951b619008f89b4
the Confederation
519
False
The toponym Schwyz itself is first attested in 972, as Old High German Suittes, ultimately perhaps related to suedan "to burn", referring to the area of forest that was burned and cleared to build. The name was extended to the area dominated by the canton, and after the Swabian War of 1499 gradually came to be used for the entire Confederation. The Swiss German name of the country, Schwiiz, is homophonous to that of the canton and the settlement, but distinguished by the use of the definite article (d'Schwiiz for the Confederation, but simply Schwyz for the canton and the town).
What were the two earliest know cultural tribes in Switerland?
57276e95dd62a815002e9cbc
Hallstatt and La Tène
67
False
Which Swiss cultural tribe developed and flourished during the late Iron Age?
57276e95dd62a815002e9cbd
La Tène
183
False
Which Swiss tribal group was defeated by Julius Caesar at the Battle of Bribacti as they tried to escape the Swiss plateau?
57276e95dd62a815002e9cbe
the Helvetii
463
False
In what year did Tiberius conquer the Alps, integrating them into the Roman Empire?
57276e95dd62a815002e9cbf
15 BC
711
False
What is the name of the large legionary camp, now a ruin, that the Romans maintained around the start of the Common Era?
57276e95dd62a815002e9cc0
Vindonissa
1237
False
The earliest known cultural tribes of the area were members of the Hallstatt and La Tène cultures, named after the archaeological site of La Tène on the north side of Lake Neuchâtel. La Tène culture developed and flourished during the late Iron Age from around 450 BC, possibly under some influence from the Greek and Etruscan civilisations. One of the most important tribal groups in the Swiss region was the Helvetii. Steadily harassed by the Germans, in 58 BC the Helvetii decided to abandon the Swiss plateau and migrate to western Gallia, but Julius Caesar's armies pursued and defeated them at the Battle of Bibracte, in today's western France, forcing the tribe to move back to its original homeland. In 15 BC, Tiberius, who was destined to be the second Roman emperor and his brother, Drusus, conquered the Alps, integrating them into the Roman Empire. The area occupied by the Helvetii—the namesakes of the later Confoederatio Helvetica—first became part of Rome's Gallia Belgica province and then of its Germania Superior province, while the eastern portion of modern Switzerland was integrated into the Roman province of Raetia. Sometime around the start of the Common Era, the Romans maintained a large legionary camp called Vindonissa, now a ruin at the confluence of the Aare and Reuss rivers, near the town of Windisch, an outskirt of Brugg.
In what year did the fall of the Agri Decumates territory transform today's Switzerland?
572770f9f1498d1400e8f82c
about 260 AD
3
False
In about 260 AD, what forced the people of Roman towns to find shelter in Roman fortresses?
572770f9f1498d1400e8f82d
raids by the Alamanni tribes
154
False
What was the name of the concept used by the Roman Empire when building another line of defense at the north border?
572770f9f1498d1400e8f82e
the linear defence concept
545
False
What increased pressure forced the Romans to abandon their line of defense concept at the end of the 4th century?
572770f9f1498d1400e8f82f
Germanic
498
False
Who was allowed to settle on the Swiss plateau by the end of the 4th century?
572770f9f1498d1400e8f830
German tribes
633
False
In about 260 AD, the fall of the Agri Decumates territory north of the Rhine transformed today's Switzerland into a frontier land of the Empire. Repeated raids by the Alamanni tribes provoked the ruin of the Roman towns and economy, forcing the population to find shelter near Roman fortresses, like the Castrum Rauracense near Augusta Raurica. The Empire built another line of defense at the north border (the so-called Donau-Iller-Rhine-Limes), but at the end of the fourth century the increased Germanic pressure forced the Romans to abandon the linear defence concept, and the Swiss plateau was finally open to the settlement of German tribes.
From the end of the 4th century, what territory was the western extent of modern-day Switzerland part of?
5727729cdd62a815002e9d14
the Kings of the Burgundians
133
False
Where did the Alemanni settle in the 5th century?
5727729cdd62a815002e9d15
the Swiss plateau
184
False
Where did the Alemanni settle in the 8th century, forming Alemannia?
5727729cdd62a815002e9d16
valleys of the Alps
229
False
In the 8th century, what two kingdoms made up Modern-day Switzerland?
5727729cdd62a815002e9d17
Alemannia and Burgundy
362
False
What Empire did the entire region of Modern-day Switzerland become part of in the 6th century?
5727729cdd62a815002e9d18
Frankish Empire
433
False
In the Early Middle Ages, from the end of the 4th century, the western extent of modern-day Switzerland was part of the territory of the Kings of the Burgundians. The Alemanni settled the Swiss plateau in the 5th century and the valleys of the Alps in the 8th century, forming Alemannia. Modern-day Switzerland was therefore then divided between the kingdoms of Alemannia and Burgundy. The entire region became part of the expanding Frankish Empire in the 6th century, following Clovis I's victory over the Alemanni at Tolbiac in 504 AD, and later Frankish domination of the Burgundians.
In 1200, what area did the houses of Savoy, Zahringer, Habsburg, and Kyburg comprise?
5727746d708984140094de07
the Swiss plateau
9
False
In 1264 AD, what caused the Kyburg dynasty to fall?
5727746d708984140094de08
extinction of its male line in 1263
283
False
Who claimed the Kyburg lands after their fall in 1264 AD?
5727746d708984140094de09
the Habsburgs
360
False
Which Holy Roman Emperor were the Habsburgs under in 1273 AD?
5727746d708984140094de0a
King Rudolph I
380
False
What did the three regions of Uri, Schwyz, and Unterwalden become known as?
5727746d708984140094de0b
Waldstätten
163
False
By 1200, the Swiss plateau comprised the dominions of the houses of Savoy, Zähringer, Habsburg, and Kyburg. Some regions (Uri, Schwyz, Unterwalden, later known as Waldstätten) were accorded the Imperial immediacy to grant the empire direct control over the mountain passes. With the extinction of its male line in 1263 the Kyburg dynasty fell in AD 1264; then the Habsburgs under King Rudolph I (Holy Roman Emperor in 1273) laid claim to the Kyburg lands and annexed them extending their territory to the eastern Swiss plateau.
In what year did the three original  cantons join with five other cantons to form the "Old Confederacy" of eight states?
5727766cf1498d1400e8f8cc
By 1353
0
False
Which century did the Old Confederacy of the eight states exist until?
5727766cf1498d1400e8f8cd
end of the 15th century
196
False
What effect did the expansion of the three cantons into eight have on the status of the federation?
5727766cf1498d1400e8f8ce
increased power and wealth
242
False
By 1460, who controlled most of the territory south and west of the Rhine?
5727766cf1498d1400e8f8cf
the confederates
298
False
Which Swiss victory in 1499 amounted to de facto independence within the Holy Roman Empire?
5727766cf1498d1400e8f8d0
Swabian War
621
False
By 1353, the three original cantons had joined with the cantons of Glarus and Zug and the Lucerne, Zürich and Bern city states to form the "Old Confederacy" of eight states that existed until the end of the 15th century. The expansion led to increased power and wealth for the federation. By 1460, the confederates controlled most of the territory south and west of the Rhine to the Alps and the Jura mountains, particularly after victories against the Habsburgs (Battle of Sempach, Battle of Näfels), over Charles the Bold of Burgundy during the 1470s, and the success of the Swiss mercenaries. The Swiss victory in the Swabian War against the Swabian League of Emperor Maximilian I in 1499 amounted to de facto independence within the Holy Roman Empire.
Which Battle was the first to interrupt the seeming invincibility of the Old Swiss Confederacy in 1515?
572778a2708984140094de85
Battle of Marignano
184
False
What inter-cantonal conflicts resulted in the Wars of Kappel?
572778a2708984140094de86
religious
338
False
In what year did European countries first recognize Switzerland's independence from the Holy Roman Empire?
572778a2708984140094de87
1648
473
False
In what two years were the Wars of Kappel?
572778a2708984140094de88
1529 and 1531
361
False
Under the Peace of Westphalia, who finally recognized Switzerland's neutrality?
572778a2708984140094de89
European countries
510
False
The Old Swiss Confederacy had acquired a reputation of invincibility during these earlier wars, but expansion of the federation suffered a setback in 1515 with the Swiss defeat in the Battle of Marignano. This ended the so-called "heroic" epoch of Swiss history. The success of Zwingli's Reformation in some cantons led to inter-cantonal religious conflicts in 1529 and 1531 (Wars of Kappel). It was not until more than one hundred years after these internal wars that, in 1648, under the Peace of Westphalia, European countries recognized Switzerland's independence from the Holy Roman Empire and its neutrality.
Who conquered Switzerland in 1798?
57277a89f1498d1400e8f940
the revolutionary French government
9
False
What did the French government impose on Switzerland in 1798, centralizing the Swiss government?
57277a89f1498d1400e8f941
a new unified constitution
79
False
What was abolished with the introduction of the unified constitution in Switzerland?
57277a89f1498d1400e8f942
the cantons
178
False
What was the name of the new regime created when the Cisalpine Republic separated from Switzerland?
57277a89f1498d1400e8f943
Helvetic Republic
330
False
Which unpopular republic destroyed centuries of Swiss traditions?
57277a89f1498d1400e8f944
Helvetic
330
False
In 1798, the revolutionary French government conquered Switzerland and imposed a new unified constitution. This centralised the government of the country, effectively abolishing the cantons: moreover, Mülhausen joined France and Valtellina valley, the Cisalpine Republic, separating from Switzerland. The new regime, known as the Helvetic Republic, was highly unpopular. It had been imposed by a foreign invading army and destroyed centuries of tradition, making Switzerland nothing more than a French satellite state. The fierce French suppression of the Nidwalden Revolt in September 1798 was an example of the oppressive presence of the French Army and the local population's resistance to the occupation.
During the Helvetic Republic, which forces invaded Switzerland when war broke out between France and its rivals?
57277da6dd62a815002e9e88
Russian and Austrian
50
False
Who refused to fight alongside the Helvetic Republic when it was invaded by the Russians and Austrians?
57277da6dd62a815002e9e89
The Swiss
99
False
What Act was the result of a meeting of Swiss politicians organized by Napolean?
57277da6dd62a815002e9e8a
Act of Mediation
300
False
What was the Act of Mediation responsible for restoring?
57277da6dd62a815002e9e8b
Swiss autonomy
340
False
How many cantons were introduced as a Confederation by the Act of Mediation?
57277da6dd62a815002e9e8c
19
389
False
When war broke out between France and its rivals, Russian and Austrian forces invaded Switzerland. The Swiss refused to fight alongside the French in the name of the Helvetic Republic. In 1803 Napoleon organised a meeting of the leading Swiss politicians from both sides in Paris. The result was the Act of Mediation which largely restored Swiss autonomy and introduced a Confederation of 19 cantons. Henceforth, much of Swiss politics would concern balancing the cantons' tradition of self-rule with the need for a central government.
What did Catholic cantons attempt to set up which caused a civil war in 1839?
57277f175951b619008f8b5d
a separate alliance (the Sonderbund)
244
False
What was responsible for most of the 1100 casualties incurred during the Swiss civil war in 1839?
57277f175951b619008f8b5e
friendly fire
382
False
How long did the Swiss civil war in 1839 last?
57277f175951b619008f8b5f
less than a month
301
False
What was the name of the Swiss civil war in 1839?
57277f175951b619008f8b60
the Sonderbundskrieg
415
False
How big was the impact the Sonderbundskrieg had on the psychology and society of the Swiss and Switzerland?
57277f175951b619008f8b61
major
531
False
The restoration of power to the patriciate was only temporary. After a period of unrest with repeated violent clashes such as the Züriputsch of 1839, civil war (the Sonderbundskrieg) broke out in 1847 when some Catholic cantons tried to set up a separate alliance (the Sonderbund). The war lasted for less than a month, causing fewer than 100 casualties, most of which were through friendly fire. Yet however minor the Sonderbundskrieg appears compared with other European riots and wars in the 19th century, it nevertheless had a major impact on both the psychology and the society of the Swiss and of Switzerland.
What example inspired much of a new Swiss constitution providing for a federal layout?
5727816ddd62a815002e9ef2
American
157
False
Under the new Swiss constitution, what did the cantons have the right to self-govern?
5727816ddd62a815002e9ef3
local issues
284
False
How many houses was the Swiss national assembly divided into?
5727816ddd62a815002e9ef4
two
466
False
What was the name of the upper house, which included 2 representatives from each canton?
5727816ddd62a815002e9ef5
Council of States
447
False
What was the name of the lower house, whose representatives were elected throughout the country?
5727816ddd62a815002e9ef6
National Council
521
False
Thus, while the rest of Europe saw revolutionary uprisings, the Swiss drew up a constitution which provided for a federal layout, much of it inspired by the American example. This constitution provided for a central authority while leaving the cantons the right to self-government on local issues. Giving credit to those who favoured the power of the cantons (the Sonderbund Kantone), the national assembly was divided between an upper house (the Council of States, two representatives per canton) and a lower house (the National Council, with representatives elected from across the country). Referenda were made mandatory for any amendment of this constitution.
Though invasion plans were drawn up the the Germans, which war did Switzerland escape attack during?
57278395f1498d1400e8fa50
World War II
7
False
Who was the head of the Swiss central command during World War II?
57278395f1498d1400e8fa51
General Henri Guisan
300
False
What did General Henry Guisan order a general mobilisation of during World War II?
57278395f1498d1400e8fa52
armed forces
368
False
What was the original goal of the Swiss military strategy?
57278395f1498d1400e8fa53
protect the economic heartland
479
False
What were the Reduit?
57278395f1498d1400e8fa54
strong, well-stockpiled positions high in the Alps
569
False
During World War II, detailed invasion plans were drawn up by the Germans, but Switzerland was never attacked. Switzerland was able to remain independent through a combination of military deterrence, concessions to Germany, and good fortune as larger events during the war delayed an invasion. Under General Henri Guisan central command, a general mobilisation of the armed forces was ordered. The Swiss military strategy was changed from one of static defence at the borders to protect the economic heartland, to one of organised long-term attrition and withdrawal to strong, well-stockpiled positions high in the Alps known as the Reduit. Switzerland was an important base for espionage by both sides in the conflict and often mediated communications between the Axis and Allied powers.
Who blockaded Switzerland's trade during World War II?
572784dcf1498d1400e8fa96
by both the Allies and by the Axis
34
False
What was severed in 1942, leaving Switzerland completely surrounded by the Axis?
572784dcf1498d1400e8fa97
a crucial rail link through Vichy France
272
False
How many refugees did Switzerland intern during World War II?
572784dcf1498d1400e8fa98
over 300,000
438
False
When did the financial relationship Switzerland had with Nazi Germany begin to raise controversy?
572784dcf1498d1400e8fa99
end of the 20th century
690
False
Where was the International Red Cross based?
572784dcf1498d1400e8fa9a
Geneva
502
False
Switzerland's trade was blockaded by both the Allies and by the Axis. Economic cooperation and extension of credit to the Third Reich varied according to the perceived likelihood of invasion and the availability of other trading partners. Concessions reached a peak after a crucial rail link through Vichy France was severed in 1942, leaving Switzerland completely surrounded by the Axis. Over the course of the war, Switzerland interned over 300,000 refugees and the International Red Cross, based in Geneva, played an important part during the conflict. Strict immigration and asylum policies as well as the financial relationships with Nazi Germany raised controversy, but not until the end of the 20th century.
Who did Switzerland finally grant the right to vote to following the rest of the Western republic?
5727860fdd62a815002e9f74
women
51
False
When were Switzerland women granted the right to vote on a federal level?
5727860fdd62a815002e9f75
1971
164
False
Who was the first woman to serve on the Federal Council?
5727860fdd62a815002e9f76
Elisabeth Kopp
450
False
Who was Switzerland's first female president?
5727860fdd62a815002e9f77
Ruth Dreifuss
530
False
In what year did Ruth Dreifuss become president?
5727860fdd62a815002e9f78
1999
547
False
Switzerland was the last Western republic to grant women the right to vote. Some Swiss cantons approved this in 1959, while at the federal level it was achieved in 1971 and, after resistance, in the last canton Appenzell Innerrhoden (one of only two remaining Landsgemeinde) in 1990. After obtaining suffrage at the federal level, women quickly rose in political significance, with the first woman on the seven member Federal Council executive being Elisabeth Kopp, who served from 1984–1989, and the first female president being Ruth Dreifuss in 1999.
In what year did Switzerland become a full member of the United Nations?
572787a85951b619008f8c85
2002
3
False
What did Swiss voters agree to join on June 5, 2005?
572787a85951b619008f8c86
Schengen treaty
954
False
What percentage of Swiss voters voted to join the Schengen treaty?
572787a85951b619008f8c87
55%
929
False
Though Switzerland is a founding member of the EFTA, what are they not a member of?
572787a85951b619008f8c88
European Economic Area
226
False
What has completely surrounded Switzerland and Liechtenstein since 1995?
572787a85951b619008f8c89
the EU
850
False
In 2002 Switzerland became a full member of the United Nations, leaving the Vatican City as the last widely recognised state without full UN membership. Switzerland is a founding member of the EFTA, but is not a member of the European Economic Area. An application for membership in the European Union was sent in May 1992, but not advanced since the EEA was rejected in December 1992 when Switzerland was the only country to launch a referendum on the EEA. There have since been several referenda on the EU issue; due to a mixed reaction from the population the membership application has been frozen. Nonetheless, Swiss law is gradually being adjusted to conform with that of the EU, and the government has signed a number of bilateral agreements with the European Union. Switzerland, together with Liechtenstein, has been completely surrounded by the EU since Austria's entry in 1995. On 5 June 2005, Swiss voters agreed by a 55% majority to join the Schengen treaty, a result that was regarded by EU commentators as a sign of support by Switzerland, a country that is traditionally perceived as independent and reluctant to enter supranational bodies.
How large is Switzerland?
572788bf5951b619008f8ca1
41,285 square kilometres (15,940 sq mi)
168
False
What is the average population density of Switzerland?
572788bf5951b619008f8ca2
195 people per square kilometre (500/sq mi)
297
False
What is the population density of the largest Canton of Graubunden, located in the Alps?
572788bf5951b619008f8ca3
27 /km² (70 /sq mi)
540
False
Which half of Switzerland is more mountainous?
572788bf5951b619008f8ca4
southern
363
False
Which mountain range does Switzerland extend over on both the north and south sides?
572788bf5951b619008f8ca5
Alps
49
False
Extending across the north and south side of the Alps in west-central Europe, Switzerland encompasses a great diversity of landscapes and climates on a limited area of 41,285 square kilometres (15,940 sq mi). The population is about 8 million, resulting in an average population density of around 195 people per square kilometre (500/sq mi). The more mountainous southern half of the country is far more sparsely populated than the northern half. In the largest Canton of Graubünden, lying entirely in the Alps, population density falls to 27 /km² (70 /sq mi).
Which basic topographical area is in the south of Switzerland?
572789bff1498d1400e8fb3e
Swiss Alps
128
False
Which basic topographical area is in central Switzerland?
572789bff1498d1400e8fb3f
Swiss Plateau
410
False
Which basic topographical area is in western Switzerland?
572789bff1498d1400e8fb40
Jura mountains
199
False
How much of Switzerland's total area do the Alps comprise?
572789bff1498d1400e8fb41
60%
328
False
What is the largest lake in Switzerland?
572789bff1498d1400e8fb42
Lake Geneva
1318
False
Switzerland lies between latitudes 45° and 48° N, and longitudes 5° and 11° E. It contains three basic topographical areas: the Swiss Alps to the south, the Swiss Plateau or Central Plateau, and the Jura mountains on the west. The Alps are a high mountain range running across the central-south of the country, comprising about 60% of the country's total area. The majority of the Swiss population live in the Swiss Plateau. Among the high valleys of the Swiss Alps many glaciers are found, totalling an area of 1,063 square kilometres (410 sq mi). From these originate the headwaters of several major rivers, such as the Rhine, Inn, Ticino and Rhône, which flow in the four cardinal directions into the whole of Europe. The hydrographic network includes several of the largest bodies of freshwater in Central and Western Europe, among which are included Lake Geneva (also called le Lac Léman in French), Lake Constance (known as Bodensee in German) and Lake Maggiore. Switzerland has more than 1500 lakes, and contains 6% of Europe's stock of fresh water. Lakes and glaciers cover about 6% of the national territory. The largest lake is Lake Geneva, in western Switzerland shared with France. The Rhône is both the main source and outflow of Lake Geneva. Lake Constance is the second largest Swiss lake and, like the Lake Geneva, an intermediate step by the Rhine at the border to Austria and Germany. While the Rhône flows into the Mediterranean Sea at the French Camarque region and the Rhine flows into the North Sea at Rotterdam in the Netherlands, about 1000 km apart, both springs are only about 22 km apart from each other in the Swiss Alps.
What is the highest mountain in Switzerland?
57278a97f1498d1400e8fb5a
Monte Rosa
116
False
What is often regarded as the most famous mountain in Switzerland?
57278a97f1498d1400e8fb5b
Matterhorn
156
False
How many of Switzerland's mountains are at least 4000 meters above sea level?
57278a97f1498d1400e8fb5c
48
0
False
Where are both Monte Rosa and Matterhorn located?
57278a97f1498d1400e8fb5d
Pennine Alps in the canton of Valais
256
False
48 of Switzerland's mountains are 4,000 metres (13,000 ft) above sea in altitude or higher. At 4,634 m (15,203 ft), Monte Rosa is the highest, although the Matterhorn (4,478 m or 14,692 ft) is often regarded as the most famous. Both are located within the Pennine Alps in the canton of Valais. The section of the Bernese Alps above the deep glacial Lauterbrunnen valley, containing 72 waterfalls, is well known for the Jungfrau (4,158 m or 13,642 ft) Eiger and Mönch, and the many picturesque valleys in the region. In the southeast the long Engadin Valley, encompassing the St. Moritz area in canton of Graubünden, is also well known; the highest peak in the neighbouring Bernina Alps is Piz Bernina (4,049 m or 13,284 ft).
Where are Switzerland's glacial conditions located?
57278b96dd62a815002e9fe0
mountaintops
118
False
What is typical weather in Switzerland during the summer months?
57278b96dd62a815002e9fe1
warm and humid at times with periodic rainfall
338
False
What can the lower lands, suffering from inversion, sometimes lack for weeks?
57278b96dd62a815002e9fe2
sun
614
False
What is the climate on Switzerland's southern tip?
57278b96dd62a815002e9fe3
Mediterranean
158
False
The Swiss climate is generally temperate, but can vary greatly between the localities, from glacial conditions on the mountaintops to the often pleasant near Mediterranean climate at Switzerland's southern tip. There are some valley areas in the southern part of Switzerland where some cold-hardy palm trees are found. Summers tend to be warm and humid at times with periodic rainfall so they are ideal for pastures and grazing. The less humid winters in the mountains may see long intervals of stable conditions for weeks, while the lower lands tend to suffer from inversion, during these periods, thus seeing no sun for weeks.
What is the weather phenomena characterized by an unexpected warm wind bringing low reletive humidity to the northern Alps during rainfall in the southern Alps?
57278d8c708984140094e0ad
föhn
34
False
At what time of year can the fohn occur?
57278d8c708984140094e0ae
all times
99
False
Where do clouds lose most of their content before getting to the inner alpine valleys?
57278d8c708984140094e0af
crossing the mountains
636
False
What type of grapes are grown in the valley of Valais?
57278d8c708984140094e0b0
wine
801
False
During the fohn, from which direction is the blowing wind more efficient?
57278d8c708984140094e0b1
the south
373
False
A weather phenomenon known as the föhn (with an identical effect to the chinook wind) can occur at all times of the year and is characterised by an unexpectedly warm wind, bringing air of very low relative humidity to the north of the Alps during rainfall periods on the southern face of the Alps. This works both ways across the alps but is more efficient if blowing from the south due to the steeper step for oncoming wind from the south. Valleys running south to north trigger the best effect. The driest conditions persist in all inner alpine valleys that receive less rain because arriving clouds lose a lot of their content while crossing the mountains before reaching these areas. Large alpine areas such as Graubünden remain drier than pre-alpine areas and as in the main valley of the Valais wine grapes are grown there.
What rank was Switzerland in safeguarding the environment according to the 2014 Environmental Performance Index?
57278ecf708984140094e0cf
first among 132 nations
561
False
What do mountainous regions have that make their ecosystems particularly fragile?
57278ecf708984140094e0d0
plants not found at other altitudes
222
False
What is the ecosystem in the alpine region particularly sensitive to?
57278ecf708984140094e0d1
climate change
458
False
What sources of energy does Switzerland heavily rely on?
57278ecf708984140094e0d2
renewable
695
False
Switzerland's ecosystems can be particularly fragile, because the many delicate valleys separated by high mountains often form unique ecologies. The mountainous regions themselves are also vulnerable, with a rich range of plants not found at other altitudes, and experience some pressure from visitors and grazing. The climatic, geological and topographical conditions of the alpine region make for a very fragile ecosystem that is particularly sensitive to climate change. Nevertheless, according to the 2014 Environmental Performance Index, Switzerland ranks first among 132 nations in safeguarding the environment, due to its high scores on environmental public health, its heavy reliance on renewable sources of energy (hydropower and geothermal energy), and its control of greenhouse gas emissions.
When was Switzerland's Federal Constitution adopted?
572791fc5951b619008f8dd1
1848
36
False
When was a new Constitution adopted in Switzerland?
572791fc5951b619008f8dd2
1999
179
False
How many main governing bodies are on the federal level in Switzerland?
572791fc5951b619008f8dd3
three
467
False
What is the legislative body of the Swiss government called?
572791fc5951b619008f8dd4
bicameral parliament
521
False
What is the executive body of the Swiss government called?
572791fc5951b619008f8dd5
Federal Council
561
False
The Federal Constitution adopted in 1848 is the legal foundation of the modern federal state. It is among the oldest constitutions in the world. A new Constitution was adopted in 1999, but did not introduce notable changes to the federal structure. It outlines basic and political rights of individuals and citizen participation in public affairs, divides the powers between the Confederation and the cantons and defines federal jurisdiction and authority. There are three main governing bodies on the federal level: the bicameral parliament (legislative), the Federal Council (executive) and the Federal Court (judicial).
How many members are on the National Council?
5727931add62a815002ea0da
200
251
False
How long do members of both houses of the Swiss Parliament serve?
5727931add62a815002ea0db
4 years
403
False
What are both houses of the Swiss Parliament collectively known as when both are in joint session?
5727931add62a815002ea0dc
Federal Assembly
486
False
What can citizens use to challenge any law passed by Parliament?
5727931add62a815002ea0dd
referendums
512
False
What can citizens use to introduce amendments to the federal constitution?
5727931add62a815002ea0de
initiatives
589
False
The Swiss Parliament consists of two houses: the Council of States which has 46 representatives (two from each canton and one from each half-canton) who are elected under a system determined by each canton, and the National Council, which consists of 200 members who are elected under a system of proportional representation, depending on the population of each canton. Members of both houses serve for 4 years. When both houses are in joint session, they are known collectively as the Federal Assembly. Through referendums, citizens may challenge any law passed by parliament and through initiatives, introduce amendments to the federal constitution, thus making Switzerland a direct democracy.
What serves as the collective Head of State?
5727942cdd62a815002ea0fc
The Federal Council
0
False
How many members are in the Federal Council?
5727942cdd62a815002ea0fd
seven
157
False
Who elects the members of the Federal Council?
5727942cdd62a815002ea0fe
Federal Assembly
211
False
What is the traditional term for the President of the Confederation?
5727942cdd62a815002ea0ff
one-year
405
False
Who elects the President of the Confederation from its 7 members?
5727942cdd62a815002ea100
the Assembly
326
False
The Federal Council constitutes the federal government, directs the federal administration and serves as collective Head of State. It is a collegial body of seven members, elected for a four-year mandate by the Federal Assembly which also exercises oversight over the Council. The President of the Confederation is elected by the Assembly from among the seven members, traditionally in rotation and for a one-year term; the President chairs the government and assumes representative functions. However, the president is a primus inter pares with no additional powers, and remains the head of a department within the administration.
How many legal jurisdictions are Swiss citizens subject to?
57279543f1498d1400e8fcc6
three
107
False
What are the legal jurisdictions that Swiss citizens are subject to?
57279543f1498d1400e8fcc7
commune, canton and federal levels
138
False
What type of democracy was defined in the 1848 federal constitution?
57279543f1498d1400e8fcc8
direct
224
False
What two things do citizens have the right to submit to overturn parliamentary decisions?
57279543f1498d1400e8fcc9
a constitutional initiative and a referendum
530
False
What are the two hallmarks of the Swiss political system?
57279543f1498d1400e8fcca
Direct democracy and federalism
0
False
Direct democracy and federalism are hallmarks of the Swiss political system. Swiss citizens are subject to three legal jurisdictions: the commune, canton and federal levels. The 1848 federal constitution defines a system of direct democracy (sometimes called half-direct or representative direct democracy because it is aided by the more commonplace institutions of a representative democracy). The instruments of this system at the federal level, known as civic rights (Volksrechte, droits civiques), include the right to submit a constitutional initiative and a referendum, both of which may overturn parliamentary decisions.
How many voters are needed to put a constitutional amendment to a national vote?
572796b2f1498d1400e8fcea
100,000
122
False
How long do citizens have to collect enough votes for a national vote on a constitutional amendment?
572796b2f1498d1400e8fceb
18 months
172
False
What can Parliament supplement the amendment proposed by the citizens with?
572796b2f1498d1400e8fcec
a counter-proposal
245
False
What must voters do on the ballot when Parliament adds a supplement?
572796b2f1498d1400e8fced
indicate a preference
286
False
How much of the national popular vote and the cantonal popular vote is needed to pass a constitutional amendment?
572796b2f1498d1400e8fcee
a double majority
457
False
Similarly, the federal constitutional initiative allows citizens to put a constitutional amendment to a national vote, if 100,000 voters sign the proposed amendment within 18 months.[note 8] Parliament can supplement the proposed amendment with a counter-proposal, and then voters must indicate a preference on the ballot in case both proposals are accepted. Constitutional amendments, whether introduced by initiative or in Parliament, must be accepted by a double majority of the national popular vote and the cantonal popular votes.[note 9]
According to the Federal Constitution, how many cantons are equal in status?
57279799708984140094e1af
all 26
172
False
What are the two major differences between cantons?
57279799708984140094e1b0
population and geographical area
399
False
What is the population of the largest canton?
57279799708984140094e1b1
1,253,500 (Zürich)
499
False
What is the population of the smallest canton?
57279799708984140094e1b2
15,000 (Appenzell Innerrhoden)
464
False
How large is the smallest canton?
57279799708984140094e1b3
37 km2 (14 sq mi) (Basel-Stadt)
542
False
The cantons have a permanent constitutional status and, in comparison with the situation in other countries, a high degree of independence. Under the Federal Constitution, all 26 cantons are equal in status. Each canton has its own constitution, and its own parliament, government and courts. However, there are considerable differences between the individual cantons, most particularly in terms of population and geographical area. Their populations vary between 15,000 (Appenzell Innerrhoden) and 1,253,500 (Zürich), and their area between 37 km2 (14 sq mi) (Basel-Stadt) and 7,105 km2 (2,743 sq mi) (Graubünden). The Cantons comprise a total of 2,485 municipalities. Within Switzerland there are two enclaves: Büsingen belongs to Germany, Campione d'Italia belongs to Italy.
When was Switzerland's policy of neutrality internationally recognized?
572798f7708984140094e1dd
Congress of Vienna in 1815
233
False
What was Switzerland the first state to join the U.N. by?
572798f7708984140094e1de
referendum
374
False
What have the Swiss people continually rejected membership in since the 1990's?
572798f7708984140094e1df
European Union
559
False
How long has Switzerland traditionally been neutral?
572798f7708984140094e1e0
since the end of its expansion in 1515
130
False
How does Switzerland treat alliances that might entail military or political action?
572798f7708984140094e1e1
avoids
27
False
Traditionally, Switzerland avoids alliances that might entail military, political, or direct economic action and has been neutral since the end of its expansion in 1515. Its policy of neutrality was internationally recognised at the Congress of Vienna in 1815. Only in 2002 did Switzerland become a full member of the United Nations and it was the first state to join it by referendum. Switzerland maintains diplomatic relations with almost all countries and historically has served as an intermediary between other states. Switzerland is not a member of the European Union; the Swiss people have consistently rejected membership since the early 1990s. However, Switzerland does participate in the Schengen Area.
How long has Switzerland hosted the United Nations Human Rights Council?
57279a165951b619008f8e61
since 2006
223
False
What is the second biggest centre for the U.N.?
57279a165951b619008f8e62
Palace of Nations in Geneva
381
False
Where did the Red Crescent Movement begin?
57279a165951b619008f8e63
Geneva
123
False
Where is the League of Nations located?
57279a165951b619008f8e64
Switzerland
481
False
A large number of international institutions have their seats in Switzerland, in part because of its policy of neutrality. Geneva is the birthplace of the Red Cross and Red Crescent Movement and the Geneva Conventions and, since 2006, hosts the United Nations Human Rights Council. Even though Switzerland is one of the most recent countries to have joined the United Nations, the Palace of Nations in Geneva is the second biggest centre for the United Nations after New York, and Switzerland was a founding member and home to the League of Nations.
Besides the U.N. Headquarters, who hosts many U.N. agencies?
57279afddd62a815002ea1d2
Swiss Confederation
48
False
What does the ILO stand for?
57279afddd62a815002ea1d3
International Labour Organization
143
False
What is disucussed at the World Economic Forum in Davos?
57279afddd62a815002ea1d4
important issues facing the world, including health and the environment
600
False
What does BIS stand for?
57279afddd62a815002ea1d5
Bank for International Settlements
710
False
What does UNHCR stand for?
57279afddd62a815002ea1d6
United Nations High Commissioner for Refugees
237
False
Apart from the United Nations headquarters, the Swiss Confederation is host to many UN agencies, like the World Health Organization (WHO), the International Labour Organization (ILO), the International Telecommunication Union (ITU), the United Nations High Commissioner for Refugees (UNHCR) and about 200 other international organisations, including the World Trade Organization and the World Intellectual Property Organization. The annual meetings of the World Economic Forum in Davos bring together top international business and political leaders from Switzerland and foreign countries to discuss important issues facing the world, including health and the environment. Additionally the headquarters of the Bank for International Settlements (BIS) are located in Basel since 1930.
Where do Swiss militia keep their Army issued equipment?
57279bd5dd62a815002ea1dc
at home
137
False
Who has compulsory military service in Switzerland?
57279bd5dd62a815002ea1dd
all male Swiss citizens
314
False
Who can serve in the Swiss military voluntarily?
57279bd5dd62a815002ea1de
women
339
False
What replaced Army 95 in 2003?
57279bd5dd62a815002ea1df
Army XXI
702
False
In Army XXI, how many are active in periodic army training?
57279bd5dd62a815002ea1e0
120,000
856
False
The structure of the Swiss militia system stipulates that the soldiers keep their Army issued equipment, including all personal weapons, at home. Some organizations and political parties find this practice controversial but mainstream Swiss opinion is in favour of the system. Compulsory military service concerns all male Swiss citizens; women can serve voluntarily. Men usually receive military conscription orders for training at the age of 18. About two thirds of the young Swiss are found suited for service; for those found unsuited, various forms of alternative service exist. Annually, approximately 20,000 persons are trained in recruit centres for a duration from 18 to 21 weeks. The reform "Army XXI" was adopted by popular vote in 2003, it replaced the previous model "Army 95", reducing the effectives from 400,000 to about 200,000. Of those, 120,000 are active in periodic Army training and 80,000 are non-training reserves.
How does the Swiss economy rank worldwide by nominal GDP?
57279d1edd62a815002ea20e
nineteenth largest
492
False
How does the Swiss economy rank worldwide by purchasing power parity?
57279d1edd62a815002ea20f
thirty-sixth largest
542
False
What ranking does Switzerland hold in terms of GDP per capita, adjusting for purchasing power, according to the World Bank?
57279d1edd62a815002ea210
8th in the world
968
False
Which rating was assigned to Switzerland by the Index of Economic Freedom of 2010?
57279d1edd62a815002ea211
highest European rating
673
False
Switzerland has a stable, prosperous and high-tech economy and enjoys great wealth, being ranked as the wealthiest country in the world per capita in multiple rankings. In 2011 it was ranked as the wealthiest country in the world in per capita terms (with "wealth" being defined to include both financial and non-financial assets), while the 2013 Credit Suisse Global Wealth Report showed that Switzerland was the country with the highest average wealth per adult in 2013. It has the world's nineteenth largest economy by nominal GDP and the thirty-sixth largest by purchasing power parity. It is the twentieth largest exporter, despite its small size. Switzerland has the highest European rating in the Index of Economic Freedom 2010, while also providing large coverage through public services. The nominal per capita GDP is higher than those of the larger Western and Central European economies and Japan. If adjusted for purchasing power parity, Switzerland ranks 8th in the world in terms of GDP per capita, according to the World Bank and IMF (ranked 15th according to the CIA Worldfactbook).
What did the World Economic Forum's Global Competetiveness Report Rank Switzerland's economy as?
57279df23acd2414000de7f1
the most competitive in the world
98
False
What was the gross median estimate of household income in Switzerland in 2007?
57279df23acd2414000de7f2
137,094 USD at Purchasing power parity
406
False
What was Switzerland's median income in 2007?
57279df23acd2414000de7f3
95,824 USD
473
False
How did the European Union rank Switzerland's economy?
57279df23acd2414000de7f4
Europe's most innovative country
171
False
The World Economic Forum's Global Competitiveness Report currently ranks Switzerland's economy as the most competitive in the world, while ranked by the European Union as Europe's most innovative country. For much of the 20th century, Switzerland was the wealthiest country in Europe by a considerable margin (by GDP – per capita). In 2007 the gross median household income in Switzerland was an estimated 137,094 USD at Purchasing power parity while the median income was 95,824 USD. Switzerland also has one of the world's largest account balances as a percentage of GDP.
What is Switzerland's most important economic sector?
57279eac3acd2414000de807
manufacturing
48
False
What accounts for 34% of Switzerland's exported goods?
57279eac3acd2414000de808
chemicals
273
False
What accounts for 20.9% of Switzerland's exported goods?
57279eac3acd2414000de809
machines/electronics
308
False
What accounts for 16.9% of Switzerland's exported goods?
57279eac3acd2414000de80a
precision instruments/watches
342
False
What percentage of exports are exported services?
57279eac3acd2414000de80b
a third
409
False
Switzerland's most important economic sector is manufacturing. Manufacturing consists largely of the production of specialist chemicals, health and pharmaceutical goods, scientific and precision measuring instruments and musical instruments. The largest exported goods are chemicals (34% of exported goods), machines/electronics (20.9%), and precision instruments/watches (16.9%). Exported services amount to a third of exports. The service sector – especially banking and insurance, tourism, and international organisations – is another important industry for Switzerland.
What percentage of employees belonged to a trade union in 2004?
57279f803acd2414000de81b
about 25%
47
False
How many people work in Switzerland?
57279f803acd2414000de81c
Around 3.8 million
0
False
What was the unemployment rate in Switzerland in 2014?
57279f803acd2414000de81d
3.2%
340
False
What was the foreign citizen population percentage in Switzerland in 2014?
57279f803acd2414000de81e
21.8%
475
False
What was the peak unemployment rate reached in December, 2009?
57279f803acd2414000de81f
4.4%
292
False
Around 3.8 million people work in Switzerland; about 25% of employees belonged to a trade union in 2004. Switzerland has a more flexible job market than neighbouring countries and the unemployment rate is very low. The unemployment rate increased from a low of 1.7% in June 2000 to a peak of 4.4% in December 2009. The unemployment rate is 3.2% in 2014. Population growth from net immigration is quite high, at 0.52% of population in 2004. The foreign citizen population was 21.8% in 2004, about the same as in Australia. GDP per hour worked is the world's 16th highest, at 49.46 international dollars in 2012.
How is Switzerland ranked of 189 countries in the Ease of Doing Business Index?
5727a05d2ca10214002d924c
20th
240
False
According to Credit Suisse, what percentage of residents own their homes?
5727a05d2ca10214002d924d
about 37%
497
False
How do Switzerland's tax rates compare by Western World standards?
5727a05d2ca10214002d924e
low
61
False
Switzerland has an overwhelmingly private sector economy and low tax rates by Western World standards; overall taxation is one of the smallest of developed countries. Switzerland is a relatively easy place to do business, currently ranking 20th of 189 countries in the Ease of Doing Business Index. The slow growth Switzerland experienced in the 1990s and the early 2000s has brought greater support for economic reforms and harmonization with the European Union. According to Credit Suisse, only about 37% of residents own their own homes, one of the lowest rates of home ownership in Europe. Housing and food price levels were 171% and 145% of the EU-25 index in 2007, compared to 113% and 104% in Germany.
What size was the Swiss Federal budget in 2010?
5727a1ec2ca10214002d9262
62.8 billion Swiss francs
39
False
What are the two main sources of income for the federal government?
5727a1ec2ca10214002d9263
value-added tax (33%) and the direct federal tax (29%)
393
False
Which sectors are the main source of expenditures for the federal government?
5727a1ec2ca10214002d9264
social welfare and finance & tax
675
False
Which sectors have experienced a reduction in federal government expenditures?
5727a1ec2ca10214002d9265
agriculture and national defense
838
False
How much were expenditures estimated to be cut in agriculture and national defense in 2015?
5727a1ec2ca10214002d9266
from 26.5% in to 12.4%
872
False
The Swiss Federal budget had a size of 62.8 billion Swiss francs in 2010, which is an equivalent 11.35% of the country's GDP in that year; however, the regional (canton) budgets and the budgets of the municipalities are not counted as part of the federal budget and the total rate of government spending is closer to 33.8% of GDP. The main sources of income for the federal government are the value-added tax (33%) and the direct federal tax (29%) and the main expenditure is located in the areas of social welfare and finance & tax. The expenditures of the Swiss Confederation have been growing from 7% of GDP in 1960 to 9.7% in 1990 and to 10.7% in 2010. While the sectors social welfare and finance & tax have been growing from 35% in 1990 to 48.2% in 2010, a significant reduction of expenditures has been occurring in the sectors of agriculture and national defense; from 26.5% in to 12.4% (estimation for the year 2015).
What has contributed to high food prices in Switzerland?
5727a2c23acd2414000de87b
Agricultural protectionism
0
False
What type of trade agreements does Switzerland have worldwide?
5727a2c23acd2414000de87c
free
407
False
What is the EFTA?
5727a2c23acd2414000de87d
European Free Trade Association
471
False
What is Switzerland's world ranking in domestic purchasing power?
5727a2c23acd2414000de87e
one of the best
250
False
According to the OECD, what is Switzerland lagging behind many EU countries in?
5727a2c23acd2414000de87f
Product market liberalisation
118
False
Agricultural protectionism—a rare exception to Switzerland's free trade policies—has contributed to high food prices. Product market liberalisation is lagging behind many EU countries according to the OECD. Nevertheless, domestic purchasing power is one of the best in the world. Apart from agriculture, economic and trade barriers between the European Union and Switzerland are minimal and Switzerland has free trade agreements worldwide. Switzerland is a member of the European Free Trade Association (EFTA).
Who has authority of school systems in Switzerland?
5727a38d3acd2414000de895
the cantons
130
False
What is the minimum age for primary school in all cantons?
5727a38d3acd2414000de896
six
276
False
What do most cantons provide for free when children are 4 or 5 years old?
5727a38d3acd2414000de897
children's school
335
False
When was English introduced as a first foreign language in many cantons?
5727a38d3acd2414000de898
2000
590
False
How long does primary school continue?
5727a38d3acd2414000de899
until grade four, five or six
415
False
Education in Switzerland is very diverse because the constitution of Switzerland delegates the authority for the school system to the cantons. There are both public and private schools, including many private international schools. The minimum age for primary school is about six years in all cantons, but most cantons provide a free "children's school" starting at four or five years old. Primary school continues until grade four, five or six, depending on the school. Traditionally, the first foreign language in school was always one of the other national languages, although recently (2000) English was introduced first in a few cantons.
How many universities are in Switzerland?
5727a452ff5b5019007d91c0
12
10
False
How many of the 12 Swiss universities are maintained at the cantonal level?
5727a452ff5b5019007d91c1
ten
42
False
When was the first university in Switzerland founded?
5727a452ff5b5019007d91c2
1460
192
False
What is the biggest university in Switzerland?
5727a452ff5b5019007d91c3
University of Zurich
349
False
How many students attend the University of Zurich?
5727a452ff5b5019007d91c4
nearly 25,000
375
False
There are 12 universities in Switzerland, ten of which are maintained at cantonal level and usually offer a range of non-technical subjects. The first university in Switzerland was founded in 1460 in Basel (with a faculty of medicine) and has a tradition of chemical and medical research in Switzerland. The biggest university in Switzerland is the University of Zurich with nearly 25,000 students. The two institutes sponsored by the federal government are the ETHZ in Zürich (founded 1855) and the EPFL in Lausanne (founded 1969 as such, formerly an institute associated with the University of Lausanne) which both have an excellent international reputation.[note 10]
What Swiss world famous physicist developed his Special relativity while working in Bern?
5727a5532ca10214002d92b2
Albert Einstein
99
False
How many total Nobel prizes were awarded to Swiss scientists?
5727a5532ca10214002d92b3
113
362
False
How many times has the Nobel Peace Prize been awarded to organisations residing in Switzerland?
5727a5532ca10214002d92b4
nine
485
False
Many Nobel prizes have been awarded to Swiss scientists, for example to the world-famous physicist Albert Einstein in the field of physics who developed his Special relativity while working in Bern. More recently Vladimir Prelog, Heinrich Rohrer, Richard Ernst, Edmond Fischer, Rolf Zinkernagel and Kurt Wüthrich received Nobel prizes in the sciences. In total, 113 Nobel Prize winners in all fields stand in relation to Switzerland[note 11] and the Nobel Peace Prize has been awarded nine times to organisations residing in Switzerland.
What is the world's largest laboratory?
5727a643ff5b5019007d91ec
CERN
87
False
Who co-hosts CERN along with the French department of Ain?
5727a643ff5b5019007d91ed
Geneva
0
False
What research is CERN dedicated to?
5727a643ff5b5019007d91ee
particle physics
106
False
What notable Swiss invention won the nobel prize?
5727a643ff5b5019007d91ef
scanning tunneling microscope
264
False
Who invented the pressurized balloon?
5727a643ff5b5019007d91f0
Auguste Piccard
411
False
Geneva and the nearby French department of Ain co-host the world's largest laboratory, CERN, dedicated to particle physics research. Another important research center is the Paul Scherrer Institute. Notable inventions include lysergic acid diethylamide (LSD), the scanning tunneling microscope (Nobel prize) and Velcro. Some technologies enabled the exploration of new worlds such as the pressurized balloon of Auguste Piccard and the Bathyscaphe which permitted Jacques Piccard to reach the deepest point of the world's oceans.
How has Switzerland maintained its relationships with the EU?
5727a7603acd2414000de8e9
through bilateral agreements
209
False
In recent years, what have the Swiss brought their economic practices into conformity with?
5727a7603acd2414000de8ea
the EU
334
False
What have the Swiss tried to enhance by conforming to EU economic practices?
5727a7603acd2414000de8eb
international competitiveness
496
False
How much did the Swiss economy grow in 2010?
5727a7603acd2414000de8ec
3%
547
False
Which conservative party is popularly against joining the EU?
5727a7603acd2414000de8ed
SVP party
753
False
Switzerland voted against membership in the European Economic Area in a referendum in December 1992 and has since maintained and developed its relationships with the European Union (EU) and European countries through bilateral agreements. In March 2001, the Swiss people refused in a popular vote to start accession negotiations with the EU. In recent years, the Swiss have brought their economic practices largely into conformity with those of the EU in many ways, in an effort to enhance their international competitiveness. The economy grew at 3% in 2010, 1.9% in 2011, and 1% in 2012. Full EU membership is a long-term objective of some in the Swiss government, but there is considerable popular sentiment against this supported by the conservative SVP party. The western French-speaking areas and the urban regions of the rest of the country tend to be more pro-EU, however with far from any significant share of the population.
How many bilateral agreements did Bern and Brussels sign to further liberalise trade ties?
5727a8874b864d19001639b8
seven
248
False
What was included in the first series of bilateral agreements pertaining to people?
5727a8874b864d19001639b9
free movement of persons
426
False
When was a second series of 9 bilateral agreements signed?
5727a8874b864d19001639ba
2004
502
False
What has since happened to the second series of bilateral agreements?
5727a8874b864d19001639bb
has since been ratified
511
False
What were the original bilateral agreements meant to minimize the negative consequences of?
5727a8874b864d19001639bc
Switzerland's isolation from the rest of Europe
174
False
The government has established an Integration Office under the Department of Foreign Affairs and the Department of Economic Affairs. To minimise the negative consequences of Switzerland's isolation from the rest of Europe, Bern and Brussels signed seven bilateral agreements to further liberalise trade ties. These agreements were signed in 1999 and took effect in 2001. This first series of bilateral agreements included the free movement of persons. A second series covering nine areas was signed in 2004 and has since been ratified, which includes the Schengen Treaty and the Dublin Convention besides others. They continue to discuss further areas for cooperation.
In 2006, what did Switzerland approve 1 billion francs of supportive investment for?
5727a96d2ca10214002d9320
poorer Southern and Central European countries
79
False
What have the Swiss been under EU and national pressure to reduce in terms of banking?
5727a96d2ca10214002d9321
secrecy
407
False
What have the Swiss been under pressure from the EU to do in terms of tax rates?
5727a96d2ca10214002d9322
raise tax rates to parity with the EU
422
False
In 2006, Switzerland approved 1 billion francs of supportive investment in the poorer Southern and Central European countries in support of cooperation and positive ties to the EU as a whole. A further referendum will be needed to approve 300 million francs to support Romania and Bulgaria and their recent admission. The Swiss have also been under EU and sometimes international pressure to reduce banking secrecy and to raise tax rates to parity with the EU. Preparatory discussions are being opened in four new areas: opening up the electricity market, participation in the European GNSS project Galileo, cooperating with the European centre for disease prevention and recognising certificates of origin for food products.
In February of 2014, what did Swiss voters narrowly approve to restrict?
5727aad82ca10214002d933e
immigration
161
False
What was reintroduced on the influx of foreigners in February of 2014?
5727aad82ca10214002d933f
a quota system
197
False
Which centres of Switzerland mostly rejected the quota system for foreigners?
5727aad82ca10214002d9340
metropolitan
464
False
What was the rejection rate of the quota system by the French speaking part of Switzerland?
5727aad82ca10214002d9341
58.5%
533
False
What do some news commentators claim is violated by the restricted immigration proposal?
5727aad82ca10214002d9342
bilateral agreements on the free movement of persons
658
False
On 9 February 2014, Swiss voters narrowly approved by 50.3% a ballot initiative launched by the national conservative Swiss People's Party (SVP/UDC) to restrict immigration, and thus reintroducing a quota system on the influx of foreigners. This initiative was mostly backed by rural (57.6% approvals), suburban (51.2% approvals), and isolated cities (51.3% approvals) of Switzerland as well as by a strong majority (69.2% approval) in the canton of Ticino, while metropolitan centres (58.5% rejection) and the French-speaking part (58.5% rejection) of Switzerland rather rejected it. Some news commentators claim that this proposal de facto contradicts the bilateral agreements on the free movement of persons from these respective countries.
What was the former 10-year moratorium on the construction of nuclear plants the result of?
5727abdfff5b5019007d9234
a citizens' initiative
97
False
What accident caused the delay in plans for the new nuclear power plant in Bern?
5727abdfff5b5019007d9235
Fukushima Daiichi power plant in 2011
289
False
What does SFOE stand for?
5727abdfff5b5019007d9236
Swiss Federal Office of Energy
332
False
What does DETEC stand for?
5727abdfff5b5019007d9237
Department of Environment, Transport, Energy and Communications
474
False
What is the 2000-watt society initiative designed to cut by more than half by 2050?
5727abdfff5b5019007d9238
the nation's energy use
612
False
The former ten-year moratorium on the construction of new nuclear power plants was the result of a citizens' initiative voted on in 1990 which had passed with 54.5% Yes vs. 45.5% No votes. Plans for a new nuclear plant in the Canton of Bern have been put on hold after the accident at the Fukushima Daiichi power plant in 2011. The Swiss Federal Office of Energy (SFOE) is the office responsible for all questions relating to energy supply and energy use within the Federal Department of Environment, Transport, Energy and Communications (DETEC). The agency is supporting the 2000-watt society initiative to cut the nation's energy use by more than half by the year 2050.
In 2011, what time frame did the Swiss government give for ending its use of nuclear energy?
5727acb32ca10214002d9362
2 or 3 decades
105
False
What reason did the Swiss government give for ending its use of nuclear energy?
5727acb32ca10214002d9363
to ensure a secure and autonomous supply of energy
178
False
When is Switzerland's first nuclear reactor scheduled to be taken offline?
5727acb32ca10214002d9364
2019
489
False
When is Switzerland's last nuclear reactor scheduled to be taken offline?
5727acb32ca10214002d9365
2034
514
False
Who is the Doris Leuthard?
5727acb32ca10214002d9366
Energy Minister
231
False
On 25 May 2011 the Swiss government announced that it plans to end its use of nuclear energy in the next 2 or 3 decades. "The government has voted for a phaseout because we want to ensure a secure and autonomous supply of energy", Energy Minister Doris Leuthard said that day at a press conference in Bern. "Fukushima showed that the risk of nuclear power is too high, which in turn has also increased the costs of this energy form." The first reactor would reportedly be taken offline in 2019 and the last one in 2034. Parliament will discuss the plan in June 2011, and there could be a referendum as well.
How many passengers does the most dense rail network in Europe carry annualy?
5727adf42ca10214002d9376
over 350 million
69
False
In 2007, what was the average amount of km's travelled by eacg Swiss citizens on the rails?
5727adf42ca10214002d9377
2,258
156
False
Who mainly administers the Swiss railway system?
5727adf42ca10214002d9378
Federal Railways
268
False
What is the Alp-Transit project designed to reduce the time of travel between?
5727adf42ca10214002d9379
north and south
540
False
Under which mountains are the railway tunnels being built for the Alp-Transit project?
5727adf42ca10214002d937a
the Alps
481
False
The most dense rail network in Europe of 5,063 km (3,146 mi) carries over 350 million passengers annually. In 2007, each Swiss citizen travelled on average 2,258 km (1,403 mi) by rail, which makes them the keenest rail users. The network is administered mainly by the Federal Railways, except in Graubünden, where the 366 km (227 mi) narrow gauge railway is operated by the Rhaetian Railways and includes some World Heritage lines. The building of new railway base tunnels through the Alps is under way to reduce the time of travel between north and south through the AlpTransit project.
What is the Swiss private-public managed road network funded by?
5727af18ff5b5019007d9280
road tolls and vehicle taxes
55
False
How much does the Swiss autoroute network charge for a toll sticker to use Swiss roadways for a year?
5727af18ff5b5019007d9281
40 Swiss francs
184
False
Which airport is Switzerland's largest international flight gateway?
5727af18ff5b5019007d9282
Zürich
487
False
What is the name of the flag airline carrier in Switzerland?
5727af18ff5b5019007d9283
Swiss International Air Lines
833
False
How many passengers used the Zurich airport in 2012?
5727af18ff5b5019007d9284
22.8 million
571
False
Swiss private-public managed road network is funded by road tolls and vehicle taxes. The Swiss autobahn/autoroute system requires the purchase of a vignette (toll sticker)—which costs 40 Swiss francs—for one calendar year in order to use its roadways, for both passenger cars and trucks. The Swiss autobahn/autoroute network has a total length of 1,638 km (1,018 mi) (as of 2000) and has, by an area of 41,290 km2 (15,940 sq mi), also one of the highest motorway densities in the world. Zürich Airport is Switzerland's largest international flight gateway, which handled 22.8 million passengers in 2012. The other international airports are Geneva Airport (13.9 million passengers in 2012), EuroAirport Basel-Mulhouse-Freiburg which is located in France, Bern Airport, Lugano Airport, St. Gallen-Altenrhein Airport and Sion Airport. Swiss International Air Lines is the flag carrier of Switzerland. Its main hub is Zürich.
When did Switzerland sign the Kyoto Protocol?
5727afec3acd2414000de9b7
1998
150
False
When did Switzerland ratify the Kyoto Protocol
5727afec3acd2414000de9b8
2003
174
False
What was formed by Switzerland, Mexico, and the Republic of Korea?
5727afec3acd2414000de9b9
Environmental Integrity Group (EIG)
231
False
What percentage of recyclable materials are being recycled in Switzerland?
5727afec3acd2414000de9ba
66% to 96%
393
False
How did the 2010 Global Green Economy Index rank Switzerland?
5727afec3acd2414000de9bb
among the top 10 green economies in the world
537
False
Switzerland has one of the best environmental records among nations in the developed world; it was one of the countries to sign the Kyoto Protocol in 1998 and ratified it in 2003. With Mexico and the Republic of Korea it forms the Environmental Integrity Group (EIG). The country is heavily active in recycling and anti-littering regulations and is one of the top recyclers in the world, with 66% to 96% of recyclable materials being recycled, depending on the area of the country. The 2014 Global Green Economy Index ranked Switzerland among the top 10 green economies in the world.
What does Switzerland charge for the disposal of in order to encourage recycling?
5727b0983acd2414000de9d5
Rubbish
74
False
What are the fines for not paying the rubbish disposal fee?
5727b0983acd2414000de9d6
from CHF 200–500
614
False
What is the charge for recycling in Switzerland?
5727b0983acd2414000de9d7
free
357
False
In many places in Switzerland, household rubbish disposal is charged for. Rubbish (except dangerous items, batteries etc.) is only collected if it is in bags which either have a payment sticker attached, or in official bags with the surcharge paid at the time of purchase. This gives a financial incentive to recycle as much as possible, since recycling is free. Illegal disposal of garbage is not tolerated but usually the enforcement of such laws is limited to violations that involve the unlawful disposal of larger volumes at traffic intersections and public areas. Fines for not paying the disposal fee range from CHF 200–500.
In 2010, what percentage of the population was made up of foreigners?
5727b1f42ca10214002d941a
23.3%
37
False
Who were the largest single group of foreigners in 2010?
5727b1f42ca10214002d941b
Italians
126
False
What percentage of the population aged 15 and over were shown to have an immigrant background as of 2012?
5727b1f42ca10214002d941c
34.7%
546
False
What percentage of the immigrants were born in Switzerland as of 2012?
5727b1f42ca10214002d941d
one fifth
902
False
In the 2000's, what was the concern perceived toward immigrants by institutions?
5727b1f42ca10214002d941e
increase in xenophobia
1120
False
In 2012, resident foreigners made up 23.3% of the population. Most of these (64%) were from European Union or EFTA countries. Italians were the largest single group of foreigners with 15.6% of total foreign population. They were closely followed by Germans (15.2%), immigrants from Portugal (12.7%), France (5.6%), Serbia (5.3%), Turkey (3.8%), Spain (3.7%), and Austria (2%). Immigrants from Sri Lanka, most of them former Tamil refugees, were the largest group among people of Asian origin (6.3%). Additionally, the figures from 2012 show that 34.7% of the permanent resident population aged 15 or over in Switzerland, i.e. 2,335,000 persons, had an immigrant background. A third of this population (853,000) held Swiss citizenship. Four fifths of persons with an immigration background were themselves immigrants (first generation foreigners and native-born and naturalised Swiss citizens), whereas one fifth were born in Switzerland (second generation foreigners and native-born and naturalised Swiss citizens). In the 2000s, domestic and international institutions expressed concern about what they perceived as an increase in xenophobia, particularly in some political campaigns. In reply to one critical report the Federal Council noted that "racism unfortunately is present in Switzerland", but stated that the high proportion of foreign citizens in the country, as well as the generally unproblematic integration of foreigners", underlined Switzerland's openness.
How many official languages does Switzerland have?
5727b2b2ff5b5019007d92d2
four
16
False
What is the principal official language in Switzerland?
5727b2b2ff5b5019007d92d3
German
53
False
What is the principal official language in the western part of Switzerland?
5727b2b2ff5b5019007d92d4
French
125
False
What is the principal official language in the southern part of Switzerland?
5727b2b2ff5b5019007d92d5
Italian
157
False
What is the least popular official language of Switzerland?
5727b2b2ff5b5019007d92d6
Romansh
216
False
Switzerland has four official languages: principally German (63.5% total population share, with foreign residents, in 2013); French (22.5%) in the west; and Italian (8.1%) in the south. The fourth official language, Romansh (0.5%), is a Romance language spoken locally in the southeastern trilingual canton of Graubünden, and is designated by Article 4 of the Federal Constitution as a national language along with German, French, and Italian, and in Article 70 as an official language if the authorities communicate with persons who speak Romansh. However, federal laws and other official acts do not need to be decreed in Romansh.
How many linguistic regions of Switzerland have their own form of local dialect?
5727b3c24b864d1900163ac2
four
65
False
What dialect is increasing in German speaking regions?
5727b3c24b864d1900163ac3
Swiss German
250
False
What has happened to the local dialects in the French speaking regions?
5727b3c24b864d1900163ac4
have almost disappeared
650
False
Where do dialects tend to be limited to in the Italian speaking regions?
5727b3c24b864d1900163ac5
family settings and casual conversation
872
False
Aside from the official forms of their respective languages, the four linguistic regions of Switzerland also have their local dialectal forms. The role played by dialects in each linguistic region varies dramatically: in the German-speaking regions, Swiss German dialects have become ever more prevalent since the second half of the 20th century, especially in the media, such as radio and television, and are used as an everyday language, while the Swiss variety of Standard German is almost always used instead of dialect for written communication (c.f. diglossic usage of a language). Conversely, in the French-speaking regions the local dialects have almost disappeared (only 6.3% of the population of Valais, 3.9% of Fribourg, and 3.1% of Jura still spoke dialects at the end of the 20th century), while in the Italian-speaking regions dialects are mostly limited to family settings and casual conversation.
What are terms that are not used outside of Switzerland known as?
5727b48e4b864d1900163ade
Helvetisms
117
False
Where are the most frequent characteristics of Helvetisms found?
5727b48e4b864d1900163adf
vocabulary, phrases, and pronunciation
667
False
What do current French dictionaries include several hundred of?
5727b48e4b864d1900163ae0
Helvetisms
971
False
The principal official languages (German, French, and Italian) have terms, not used outside of Switzerland, known as Helvetisms. German Helvetisms are, roughly speaking, a large group of words typical of Swiss Standard German, which do not appear either in Standard German, nor in other German dialects. These include terms from Switzerland's surrounding language cultures (German Billette from French), from similar term in another language (Italian azione used not only as act but also as discount from German Aktion). The French spoken in Switzerland has similar terms, which are equally known as Helvetisms. The most frequent characteristics of Helvetisms are in vocabulary, phrases, and pronunciation, but certain Helvetisms denote themselves as special in syntax and orthography likewise. Duden, one of the prescriptive sources for Standard German, is aware of about 3000 Helvetisms. Current French dictionaries, such as the Petit Larousse, include several hundred Helvetisms.
Who are Swiss citizens required to buy health insurance from?
5727b5944b864d1900163af8
private insurance companies
69
False
Who are private insurance companies required to accept?
5727b5944b864d1900163af9
every applicant
135
False
In 2012, what was Switzerland's world ranking for life expectancy in 2012?
5727b5944b864d1900163afa
highest
459
False
What population will cause health spending to likely rise in the future?
5727b5944b864d1900163afb
ageing
780
False
What do new high tech healthcare technologies translate to?
5727b5944b864d1900163afc
high costs of the services provided
735
False
Swiss citizens are universally required to buy health insurance from private insurance companies, which in turn are required to accept every applicant. While the cost of the system is among the highest it compares well with other European countries in terms of health outcomes; patients who are citizens have been reported as being, in general, highly satisfied with it. In 2012, life expectancy at birth was 80.4 years for men and 84.7 years for women — the highest in the world. However, spending on health is particularly high at 11.4% of GDP (2010), on par with Germany and France (11.6%) and other European countries, and notably less than spending in the USA (17.6%). From 1990, a steady increase can be observed, reflecting the high costs of the services provided. With an ageing population and new healthcare technologies, health spending will likely continue to rise.
How much of the Swiss population live in urban areas?
5727b63dff5b5019007d9332
Between two thirds and three quarters
0
False
From the beginning of the 21st century, how does the population growth in urban areas compare to the countryside?
5727b63dff5b5019007d9333
higher
506
False
How many years did it take Switzerland to go from a largely urban country to a rural one?
5727b63dff5b5019007d9334
70
151
False
Between two thirds and three quarters of the population live in urban areas. Switzerland has gone from a largely rural country to an urban one in just 70 years. Since 1935 urban development has claimed as much of the Swiss landscape as it did during the previous 2,000 years. This urban sprawl does not only affect the plateau but also the Jura and the Alpine foothills and there are growing concerns about land use. However, from the beginning of the 21st century, the population growth in urban areas is higher than in the countryside.
What is the population density of the plateau?
5727b6f93acd2414000dea63
450 people per km2
148
False
Which 2 centers are recognized for their particularly great quality of life?
5727b6f93acd2414000dea64
Zürich and Geneva
497
False
What does the weight of the largest metropolitan areas tend to do?
5727b6f93acd2414000dea65
increase
332
False
Switzerland has a dense network of cities, where large, medium and small cities are complementary. The plateau is very densely populated with about 450 people per km2 and the landscape continually shows signs of human presence. The weight of the largest metropolitan areas, which are Zürich, Geneva–Lausanne, Basel and Bern tend to increase. In international comparison the importance of these urban areas is stronger than their number of inhabitants suggests. In addition the two main centers of Zürich and Geneva are recognized for their particularly great quality of life.
What is the predominant religion of Switzerland?
5727b7c74b864d1900163b48
Christianity
0
False
What religion has immigration brought by 4.95%?
5727b7c74b864d1900163b49
Islam
369
False
What religion has immigration brought by 2%?
5727b7c74b864d1900163b4a
Eastern Orthodoxy
387
False
According to a 2015 Gallup Poll, what percentage of Swiss people are convinced atheists?
5727b7c74b864d1900163b4b
12%
499
False
What percentage of the Christian population is Catholic?
5727b7c74b864d1900163b4c
38.21%
155
False
Christianity is the predominant religion of Switzerland (about 71% of resident population and 75% of Swiss citizens), divided between the Catholic Church (38.21% of the population), the Swiss Reformed Church (26.93%), further Protestant churches (2.89%) and other Christian denominations (2.79%). There has been a recent rise in Evangelicalism. Immigration has brought Islam (4.95%) and Eastern Orthodoxy (around 2%) as sizeable minority religions. According to a 2015 poll by Gallup International, 12% of Swiss people self-identified as "convinced atheists."
What percentage of Swiss people claimed no church affiliation in 2012?
5727b873ff5b5019007d9362
21.4%
490
False
According to the census of 2000, what percentage of Swiss are pentecostal?
5727b873ff5b5019007d9363
0.28%
104
False
According to the census of 2000, what percentage of Swiss are Jehova's Witnesses?
5727b873ff5b5019007d9364
0.28%
239
False
According to the census of 2000, what percentage of Swiss are Buddhists?
5727b873ff5b5019007d9365
0.29%
415
False
As of the 2000 census other Christian minority communities include Neo-Pietism (0.44%), Pentecostalism (0.28%, mostly incorporated in the Schweizer Pfingstmission), Methodism (0.13%), the New Apostolic Church (0.45%), Jehovah's Witnesses (0.28%), other Protestant denominations (0.20%), the Old Catholic Church (0.18%), other Christian denominations (0.20%). Non-Christian religions are Hinduism (0.38%), Buddhism (0.29%), Judaism (0.25%) and others (0.11%); 4.3% did not make a statement. 21.4% in 2012 declared themselves as unchurched i.e. not affiliated with any church or other religious body (Agnostic, Atheist, or just not related to any official religion).
When did Geneva convert to Protestantism?
5727b9ba4b864d1900163b8e
1536
186
False
How is a consociational state defined by the Constitution of 1848?
5727b9ba4b864d1900163b8f
allowing the peaceful co-existence of Catholics and Protestants
754
False
When was the calling for a complete separation from church and state rejected by the majority of voters?
5727b9ba4b864d1900163b90
1980
821
False
What percentage of voters rejected the separation of church and state in 1980?
5727b9ba4b864d1900163b91
78.9%
909
False
The country was historically about evenly balanced between Catholic and Protestant, with a complex patchwork of majorities over most of the country. Geneva converted to Protestantism in 1536, just before John Calvin arrived there. One canton, Appenzell, was officially divided into Catholic and Protestant sections in 1597. The larger cities and their cantons (Bern, Geneva, Lausanne, Zürich and Basel) used to be predominantly Protestant. Central Switzerland, the Valais, the Ticino, Appenzell Innerrhodes, the Jura, and Fribourg are traditionally Catholic. The Swiss Constitution of 1848, under the recent impression of the clashes of Catholic vs. Protestant cantons that culminated in the Sonderbundskrieg, consciously defines a consociational state, allowing the peaceful co-existence of Catholics and Protestants. A 1980 initiative calling for the complete separation of church and state was rejected by 78.9% of the voters. Some traditionally Protestant cantons and cities nowadays have a slight Catholic majority, not because they were growing in members, quite the contrary, but only because since about 1970 a steadily growing minority became not affiliated with any church or other religious body (21.4% in Switzerland, 2012) especially in traditionally Protestant regions, such as Basel-City (42%), canton of Neuchâtel (38%), canton of Geneva (35%), canton of Vaud (26%), or Zürich city (city: >25%; canton: 23%).
What culture is linguistically isolated from the rest of Switzerland?
5727ba374b864d1900163b96
Romansh
369
False
Where is the Romansh culture located?
5727ba374b864d1900163b97
in Graubünden in eastern Switzerland
385
False
How many of Europe's major languages are official in Switzerland?
5727ba374b864d1900163b98
Three
0
False
Three of Europe's major languages are official in Switzerland. Swiss culture is characterised by diversity, which is reflected in a wide range of traditional customs. A region may be in some ways strongly culturally connected to the neighbouring country that shares its language, the country itself being rooted in western European culture. The linguistically isolated Romansh culture in Graubünden in eastern Switzerland constitutes an exception, it survives only in the upper valleys of the Rhine and the Inn and strives to maintain its rare linguistic tradition.
What symbolism has played an important role in shaping the history of Switzerland?
5727bb71ff5b5019007d93a6
Alpine
0
False
What highly energetic culture is in some concentrated mountain areas in the winter?
5727bb71ff5b5019007d93a7
ski resort culture
190
False
What is the name of the trumpet like musical instrument made of wood has become the epitome of traditional Swiss music?
5727bb71ff5b5019007d93a8
alphorn
733
False
What traditional culture predominates in many areas of small farms?
5727bb71ff5b5019007d93a9
farmer and herder culture
465
False
Alpine symbolism has played an essential role in shaping the history of the country and the Swiss national identity. Nowadays some concentrated mountain areas have a strong highly energetic ski resort culture in winter, and a hiking (ger: das Wandern) or Mountain biking culture in summer. Other areas throughout the year have a recreational culture that caters to tourism, yet the quieter seasons are spring and autumn when there are fewer visitors. A traditional farmer and herder culture also predominates in many areas and small farms are omnipresent outside the cities. Folk art is kept alive in organisations all over the country. In Switzerland it is mostly expressed in music, dance, poetry, wood carving and embroidery. The alphorn, a trumpet-like musical instrument made of wood, has become alongside yodeling and the accordion an epitome of traditional Swiss music.
What causes the government to exert greater control over broadcast media than print media?
5727bc053acd2414000deae7
finance and licensing
95
False
Where are television programs produced?
5727bc053acd2414000deae8
Geneva, Zürich and Lugano
463
False
What was the Swiss Broadcasting Corporations name recently changed to?
5727bc053acd2414000deae9
SRG SSR
189
False
The government exerts greater control over broadcast media than print media, especially due to finance and licensing. The Swiss Broadcasting Corporation, whose name was recently changed to SRG SSR, is charged with the production and broadcast of radio and television programs. SRG SSR studios are distributed throughout the various language regions. Radio content is produced in six central and four regional studios while the television programs are produced in Geneva, Zürich and Lugano. An extensive cable network also allows most Swiss to access the programs from neighboring countries.
What 3 mountain sports are among the most popular in Switzerland?
5727bc974b864d1900163bee
Skiing, snowboarding and mountaineering
0
False
Where was the bobsleigh invented?
5727bc974b864d1900163bef
St. Moritz
296
False
When were the first ski championships held in Murren?
5727bc974b864d1900163bf0
1931
363
False
Which town hosted the 2nd Winter Olympic Games in 1928?
5727bc974b864d1900163bf1
St. Moritz
373
False
Skiing, snowboarding and mountaineering are among the most popular sports in Switzerland, the nature of the country being particularly suited for such activities. Winter sports are practiced by the natives and tourists since the second half of the 19th century with the invention of bobsleigh in St. Moritz. The first world ski championships were held in Mürren (1931) and St. Moritz (1934). The latter town hosted the second Winter Olympic Games in 1928 and the fifth edition in 1948. Among the most successful skiers and world champions are Pirmin Zurbriggen and Didier Cuche.
What is the nickname for the Swiss national football team?
5727bd4a4b864d1900163c08
Nati
67
False
What does FIFA stand for?
5727bd4a4b864d1900163c09
International Federation of Association Football
126
False
Where is Europe's highest football pitch located?
5727bd4a4b864d1900163c0a
Switzerland
667
False
Where is the FIFA located?
5727bd4a4b864d1900163c0b
Zürich
197
False
Which FIFA world cup did Switzerland host?
5727bd4a4b864d1900163c0c
1954
228
False
Swiss are fans of football and the national team is nicknamed the 'Nati'. The headquarters of the sport's governing body, the International Federation of Association Football (FIFA), is located in Zürich. Switzerland hosted the 1954 FIFA World Cup, and was the joint host, with Austria, of the Euro 2008 tournament. The Swiss Super League is the nation's professional club league. For the Brasil 2014 World Cup finals tournament, the country's German-speaking cantons will be closely monitored by local police forces to prevent celebrations beyond one hour after matches end. Europe's highest football pitch, at 2,000 metres (6,600 ft) above sea level, is located in Switzerland and is named the Ottmar Hitzfeld Stadium.
What was hosted for the 10th time by Switzerland in 2009?
5727bdd3ff5b5019007d93ec
IIHF World Championship
160
False
What was the name of the 1st European sailing team to win America's cup in 2013?
5727bdd3ff5b5019007d93ee
Alinghi
374
False
Which Swiss professional wrestler is currently signed with WWE?
5728b4e33acd2414000dfd25
Claudio Castagnoli
703
False
Which Swiss sailing team was the 1st to win America's Cup in 2003?
5728b4e33acd2414000dfd26
Alinghi
374
False
Many Swiss also follow ice hockey and support one of the 12 clubs in the League A, which is the most attended league in Europe. In 2009, Switzerland hosted the IIHF World Championship for the 10th time. It also became World Vice-Champion in 2013. The numerous lakes make Switzerland an attractive place for sailing. The largest, Lake Geneva, is the home of the sailing team Alinghi which was the first European team to win the America's Cup in 2003 and which successfully defended the title in 2007. Tennis has become an increasingly popular sport, and Swiss players such as Martina Hingis, Roger Federer, and most recently, Stanislas Wawrinka have won multiple Grand Slams. Swiss professional wrestler Claudio Castagnoli is currently signed with WWE, and is a former United States champion.
What was banned in Switzerland in 1955 after the Le Mans disaster?
5727bdfe3acd2414000deb2f
Motorsport racecourses and events
0
False
Who voted to overturn the ban on motorsport events in June 2007?
5728b6834b864d1900164ca8
Swiss National Council
651
False
Who rejected the  2007 vote to overturn the motorsport ban in Switzerland?
5728b6834b864d1900164ca9
Swiss Council of States
781
False
Which successful World Touring Car Championship driver was produced in Switzerland despite the ban on motorsport events?
5728b6834b864d1900164caa
Alain Menu
339
False
Which Swiss motorcycle racer won the 2005 MotoGP World Championship in the 125cc category?
5728b6834b864d1900164cab
Thomas Lüthi
559
False
Motorsport racecourses and events were banned in Switzerland following the 1955 Le Mans disaster with exception to events such as Hillclimbing. During this period, the country still produced successful racing drivers such as Clay Regazzoni, Sebastian Buemi, Jo Siffert, Dominique Aegerter, successful World Touring Car Championship driver Alain Menu, 2014 24 Hours of Le Mans winner Marcel Fässler and 2015 24 Hours Nürburgring winner Nico Müller. Switzerland also won the A1GP World Cup of Motorsport in 2007–08 with driver Neel Jani. Swiss motorcycle racer Thomas Lüthi won the 2005 MotoGP World Championship in the 125cc category. In June 2007 the Swiss National Council, one house of the Federal Assembly of Switzerland, voted to overturn the ban, however the other house, the Swiss Council of States rejected the change and the ban remains in place.
Which popular Swiss sport is a cross between baseball and golf?
5727be234b864d1900163c3c
Hornussen
156
False
Which old, traditional sport is considered to be the national sport by some Swiss?
5728b7dbff5b5019007da55a
Swiss wrestling or "Schwingen"
27
False
What is thrown in the Swiss competition Steinstossen?
5728b7dbff5b5019007da55b
a heavy stone
324
False
Which Swiss population is the only one to have practiced Steinstossen since prehistoric times?
5728b7dbff5b5019007da55c
alpine
364
False
What was the name of the 83.5 kg stone that symbolized the Unspunnenfest, first held in 1805?
5728b7dbff5b5019007da55d
Unspunnenstein
573
False
Traditional sports include Swiss wrestling or "Schwingen". It is an old tradition from the rural central cantons and considered the national sport by some. Hornussen is another indigenous Swiss sport, which is like a cross between baseball and golf. Steinstossen is the Swiss variant of stone put, a competition in throwing a heavy stone. Practiced only among the alpine population since prehistoric times, it is recorded to have taken place in Basel in the 13th century. It is also central to the Unspunnenfest, first held in 1805, with its symbol the 83.5 kg stone named Unspunnenstein.
What part of Switzerland has a particularly high number of fine-dining establishments?
5727be542ca10214002d9544
western Switzerland
509
False
What unique dairy cheese is produced in the Swiss valleys of Gruyeres?
5728b9464b864d1900164cde
Gruyère
372
False
What differences primarily dictated some of the regional variations in Swiss cuisine?
5728b9464b864d1900164cdf
climate and languages
206
False
What dairy product is produced in the valley of Emmental?
5728b9464b864d1900164ce0
Emmental
383
False
How do the ingredients of traditional Swiss cuisine compare to that of other European countries?
5728b9464b864d1900164ce1
similar
273
False
The cuisine of Switzerland is multifaceted. While some dishes such as fondue, raclette or rösti are omnipresent through the country, each region developed its own gastronomy according to the differences of climate and languages.  Traditional Swiss cuisine uses ingredients similar to those in other European countries, as well as unique dairy products and cheeses such as Gruyère or Emmental, produced in the valleys of Gruyères and Emmental. The number of fine-dining establishments is high, particularly in western Switzerland.
What is the most popular alcoholic drink in Switzerland?
5727be964b864d1900163c56
wine
51
False
When were vineyards first cultivated in Switzerland?
5727be964b864d1900163c57
Roman era
386
False
What type of wine comprises a small majority of wine produced in Switzerland?
5728ba494b864d1900164cfa
white
317
False
What are the two most widespread varieties of wines in Switzerland?
5728ba494b864d1900164cfb
Chasselas (called Fendant in Valais) and Pinot noir
501
False
What 4 terrain variations are credited for Switzerland's notable variety of grapes grown?
5728ba494b864d1900164cfc
specific mixes of soil, air, altitude and light
168
False
The most popular alcoholic drink in Switzerland is wine. Switzerland is notable for the variety of grapes grown because of the large variations in terroirs, with their specific mixes of soil, air, altitude and light. Swiss wine is produced mainly in Valais, Vaud (Lavaux), Geneva and Ticino, with a small majority of white wines. Vineyards have been cultivated in Switzerland since the Roman era, even though certain traces can be found of a more ancient origin. The most widespread varieties are the Chasselas (called Fendant in Valais) and Pinot noir. The Merlot is the main variety produced in Ticino.
Mali
Of Africa what rank in size country is Mali?
5726aaf25951b619008f7973
Mali is the eighth-largest country in Africa
137
False
What is Mali's capital named?
5726aaf25951b619008f7974
Bamako
309
False
What are two major rivers located inside of Mali?
5726aaf25951b619008f7975
Niger and Senegal rivers
514
False
Besides salt what other major natural resources does Mali produce?
5726aaf25951b619008f7976
prominent natural resources include gold
613
False
More than half of the population is what religion?
5726aaf25951b619008f7977
(55%) are non-denominational Muslims
853
False
the Republic of Mali
46
What is the eighth largest country in the world?
5a27f540d1a287001a6d0a5c
True
West
124
Which African coast is Mali?
5a27f540d1a287001a6d0a5d
True
the Republic of Mali
46
What country has an area of 1,240,000 mi.²?
5a27f540d1a287001a6d0a5e
True
Sahara Desert,
411
What desert does Mali just touch the edge of?
5a27f540d1a287001a6d0a5f
True
The country's economy
540
What is basal agriculture in deep-sea fishing?
5a27f540d1a287001a6d0a60
True
Mali (i/ˈmɑːli/; French: [maˈli]), officially the Republic of Mali (French: République du Mali), is a landlocked country in West Africa. Mali is the eighth-largest country in Africa, with an area of just over 1,240,000 square kilometres (480,000 sq mi). The population of Mali is 14.5 million. Its capital is Bamako. Mali consists of eight regions and its borders on the north reach deep into the middle of the Sahara Desert, while the country's southern part, where the majority of inhabitants live, features the Niger and Senegal rivers. The country's economy centers on agriculture and fishing. Some of Mali's prominent natural resources include gold, being the third largest producer of gold in the African continent, and salt. About half the population lives below the international poverty line of $1.25 (U.S.) a day. A majority of the population (55%) are non-denominational Muslims.
In the latter part of the 19th century what country took control of Mali?
5726ae25f1498d1400e8e706
France seized control of Mali
474
False
What year did Mali gain independence as the Mali Federation?
5726ae25f1498d1400e8e707
1960
645
False
Along with a new constitution, Mali became what type of state in 1991?
5726ae25f1498d1400e8e708
Mali as a democratic, multi-party state
938
False
Mali was once part of how many West African empires?
5726ae25f1498d1400e8e709
three
34
False
What was the name of the Empire that the country is now named after?
5726ae25f1498d1400e8e70a
Mali Empire (for which Mali is named)
120
False
the Mali Empire
116
What empire is present day Mali part of?
5a27f7b4d1a287001a6d0a66
True
France
366
What country took control of Mali in the 1900s?
5a27f7b4d1a287001a6d0a67
True
the Mali Empire
299
What was at its peak in the thirteenth century?
5a27f7b4d1a287001a6d0a68
True
French Sudan
539
Who joined with Senegal in 1960?
5a27f7b4d1a287001a6d0a69
True
the Mali Federation
653
Who won its independence in 1959?
5a27f7b4d1a287001a6d0a6a
True
Present-day Mali was once part of three West African empires that controlled trans-Saharan trade: the Ghana Empire, the Mali Empire (for which Mali is named), and the Songhai Empire. During its golden age, there was a flourishing of mathematics, astronomy, literature, and art. At its peak in 1300, the Mali Empire covered an area about twice the size of modern-day France and stretched to the west coast of Africa. In the late 19th century, during the Scramble for Africa, France seized control of Mali, making it a part of French Sudan. French Sudan (then known as the Sudanese Republic) joined with Senegal in 1959, achieving independence in 1960 as the Mali Federation. Shortly thereafter, following Senegal's withdrawal from the federation, the Sudanese Republic declared itself the independent Republic of Mali. After a long period of one-party rule, a coup in 1991 led to the writing of a new constitution and the establishment of Mali as a democratic, multi-party state.
What area of Mali did conflict arise in January of 2012?
5726b0095951b619008f7a6b
northern Mali
48
False
What were the rebels named in the conflict of 2012?
5726b0095951b619008f7a6c
Tuareg rebels
69
False
What was the name that the rebels declared as a new state?
5726b0095951b619008f7a6d
new state, Azawad
140
False
What country sent military in response to terrorism in 2013?
5726b0095951b619008f7a6e
French military
334
False
On July 28 2013 what type of elections were held?
5726b0095951b619008f7a6f
Presidential elections
463
False
January 2012
3
When you armed conflict breakout in South Mali?
5a27ffd4d1a287001a6d0a70
True
Tuareg rebels
69
Who took over Azawad and declared a new state?
5a27ffd4d1a287001a6d0a71
True
Islamist rebels
270
Who did the Tunareg rebels fight in March?
5a27ffd4d1a287001a6d0a72
True
a new state
138
What to do Islamic rebels declare in Azawad?
5a27ffd4d1a287001a6d0a73
True
launched Opération Serval
350
What did the French do in response to Tuareg rebel gains?
5a27ffd4d1a287001a6d0a74
True
In January 2012, an armed conflict broke out in northern Mali, which Tuareg rebels took control of by April and declared the secession of a new state, Azawad. The conflict was complicated by a military coup that took place in March and later fighting between Tuareg and Islamist rebels. In response to Islamist territorial gains, the French military launched Opération Serval in January 2013. A month later, Malian and French forces recaptured most of the north. Presidential elections were held on 28 July 2013, with a second round run-off held on 11 August, and legislative elections were held on 24 November and 15 December 2013.
The Sonhgai Empire's demise was due to what invasion?
5726b2c95951b619008f7af1
Moroccan invasion in 1591
238
False
What major impact did the falling of the Songhai Empire have?
5726b2c95951b619008f7af2
Saharan trade routes lost significance.
467
False
What century did Songhai become independent from Mali?
5726b2c95951b619008f7af3
14th century
12
False
Who was the commander of the Moroccan invasion of 1591?
5726b2c95951b619008f7af4
Judar Pasha
286
False
What type of trading routes did Europeans make that compounded to the profound effect?
5726b2c95951b619008f7af5
establishment of sea routes
405
False
the Songhai
26
Who gained independence in the 1400s?
5a2814ecd1a287001a6d0a7a
True
Moroccan
238
What invasion caused the collapse of the Mali Empire?
5a2814ecd1a287001a6d0a7b
True
Judar Pasha
286
Who invaded the Songhai Empire in the fifteenth century?
5a2814ecd1a287001a6d0a7c
True
The fall of the Songhai Empire
299
What marked the beginning of the region's role as a trading crossroads?
5a2814ecd1a287001a6d0a7d
True
the trans-Saharan trade routes
457
What cause sea routes to lose significance?
5a2814ecd1a287001a6d0a7e
True
In the late 14th century, the Songhai gradually gained independence from the Mali Empire and expanded, ultimately subsuming the entire eastern portion of the Mali Empire. The Songhai Empire's eventual collapse was largely the result of a Moroccan invasion in 1591, under the command of Judar Pasha. The fall of the Songhai Empire marked the end of the region's role as a trading crossroads. Following the establishment of sea routes by the European powers, the trans-Saharan trade routes lost significance.
What regime was overthrown in 1968?
5726b52a5951b619008f7b41
Keïta regime
65
False
Who led the military on what is now celebrated Liberation Day?
5726b52a5951b619008f7b42
Moussa Traoré
129
False
What position did Moussa Traoré take on as a result of his success?
5726b52a5951b619008f7b43
president
246
False
Between what years did famine and drought afflict the country?
5726b52a5951b619008f7b44
1968 to 1974
373
False
In the 1970's how many attempts were there the overthrow the govenment?
5726b52a5951b619008f7b45
three coup attempts
502
False
the Keïta regime
61
Who was overthrown in a bloodied military coup?
5a281f37d1a287001a6d0a84
True
the Keïta regime
61
Who overthrew Moussa Traoe?
5a281f37d1a287001a6d0a85
True
Liberation Day
179
What is November 19, 1974 celebrated as?
5a281f37d1a287001a6d0a86
True
political turmoil and a devastating drought between
321
What afflicted the country prior to 1968?
5a281f37d1a287001a6d0a87
True
three coup attempts
502
How many attempts were there to overthrow the government in the 1980s?
5a281f37d1a287001a6d0a88
True
On 19 November 1968, following progressive economic decline, the Keïta regime was overthrown in a bloodless military coup led by Moussa Traoré, a day which is now commemorated as Liberation Day. The subsequent military-led regime, with Traoré as president, attempted to reform the economy. His efforts were frustrated by political turmoil and a devastating drought between 1968 to 1974, in which famine killed thousands of people. The Traoré regime faced student unrest beginning in the late 1970s and three coup attempts. The Traoré regime repressed all dissenters until the late 1980s.
In what year did Mali get a new constitution?
5726bc0b708984140094cf8d
1991
28
False
In January of 1991 what type of protests were violently curbed?
5726bc0b708984140094cf8e
student protests
433
False
What type of administration did general Mousa Traoré have?
5726bc0b708984140094cf8f
dictatorial regime
129
False
Strict rules were put in place to appease what monetary fund?
5726bc0b708984140094cf90
International Monetary Fund
264
False
It was rumored that people close to the government lived in what type of condition?
5726bc0b708984140094cf91
growing wealth
408
False
Anti-government protests
0
What stopped a coup in 1991?
5a2824f1d1a287001a6d0a8e
True
General Moussa Traoré
151
Opposition to who grew during the 1990s?
5a2824f1d1a287001a6d0a8f
True
student
433
Who lead violent protests in January 1991?
5a2824f1d1a287001a6d0a90
True
student
433
Who is subject to mass arrests in the 1980s?
5a2824f1d1a287001a6d0a91
True
dissidents
645
Who performed mostly violent actions?
5a2824f1d1a287001a6d0a92
True
Anti-government protests in 1991 led to a coup, a transitional government, and a new constitution. Opposition to the corrupt and dictatorial regime of General Moussa Traoré grew during the 1980s. During this time strict programs, imposed to satisfy demands of the International Monetary Fund, brought increased hardship upon the country's population, while elites close to the government supposedly lived in growing wealth. Peaceful student protests in January 1991 were brutally suppressed, with mass arrests and torture of leaders and participants. Scattered acts of rioting and vandalism of public buildings followed, but most actions by the dissidents remained nonviolent.
What type of rallies were being held in March of 1991?
5726bf215951b619008f7cf3
pro-democracy
42
False
There was a nationwide strike being held that was called les envenements and also named what?
5726bf215951b619008f7cf4
March Revolution
193
False
After the president declared a state of emergency, what type of curfew was placed on the country?
5726bf215951b619008f7cf5
nightly
559
False
How many people died over the course of four days?
5726bf215951b619008f7cf6
300 lives
604
False
After all of the governments efforts what types of protests continued?
5726bf215951b619008f7cf7
nonviolent
644
False
mass pro-democracy rallies and a nationwide strike
37
What was held in both urban and rural communities throughout the 1990s?
5a28349ad1a287001a6d0ae2
True
soldiers
338
Who opened fire on violent demonstrators?
5a28349ad1a287001a6d0ae3
True
Riots
409
What was ended by the shootings?
5a28349ad1a287001a6d0ae4
True
nonviolent protesters
644
Who stopped coming to Bamako as a result of the 300 lives lost?
5a28349ad1a287001a6d0ae5
True
From 22 March through 26 March 1991, mass pro-democracy rallies and a nationwide strike was held in both urban and rural communities, which became known as les evenements ("the events") or the March Revolution. In Bamako, in response to mass demonstrations organized by university students and later joined by trade unionists and others, soldiers opened fire indiscriminately on the nonviolent demonstrators. Riots broke out briefly following the shootings. Barricades as well as roadblocks were erected and Traoré declared a state of emergency and imposed a nightly curfew. Despite an estimated loss of 300 lives over the course of four days, nonviolent protesters continued to return to Bamako each day demanding the resignation of the dictatorial president and the implementation of democratic policies.
Who was president during the March protests?
5726c4a7708984140094d0eb
Moussa Traoré
184
False
How many people aside from the president received a death sentence?
5726c4a7708984140094d0ec
three associates
206
False
What day is now a National holiday in connection to Moussa Traoré?
5726c4a7708984140094d0ed
26 March
0
False
All four men were convicted and received what as punishment?
5726c4a7708984140094d0ee
death sentence
271
False
Those that received the death sentence had gotten it for their role in what?
5726c4a7708984140094d0ef
their part in the decision-making
290
False
students
99
Who shot soldiers in March 1991?
5a283571d1a287001a6d0aea
True
President Moussa Traoré
174
Which president tried to stop the massacre?
5a283571d1a287001a6d0aeb
True
The coup
469
What is remembered as Mali's March revolution of 1990
5a283571d1a287001a6d0aec
True
Mali's March Revolution of 1991.
495
What national holiday celebrates Moussa Traore?
5a283571d1a287001a6d0aed
True
26 March 1991 is the day that marks the clash between military soldiers and peaceful demonstrating students which climaxed in the massacre of dozens under the orders of then President Moussa Traoré. He and three associates were later tried and convicted and received the death sentence for their part in the decision-making of that day. Nowadays, the day is a national holiday in order to remember the tragic events and the people that were killed.[unreliable source?] The coup is remembered as Mali's March Revolution of 1991.
Who announced over the Radio that the president had been arrested?
5726c67d708984140094d12b
Lieutenant Colonel Amadou Toumani Touré
252
False
Thousands of soldiers put their weapons down and joined what type of efforts?
5726c67d708984140094d12c
pro-democracy
212
False
The non violent protesting led the soldiers to engage in what type of behavior?
5726c67d708984140094d12d
refusal of soldiers to fire
25
False
Opposing groups met to make and create what kind of democratic laws?
5726c67d708984140094d12e
constitution
514
False
What group was to approve the new democratic constitution?
5726c67d708984140094d12f
a national referendum
545
False
soldiers
36
Who willingly fired into the nonviolent protesters?
5a28364dd1a287001a6d0af2
True
fire
48
What did students refused to do?
5a28364dd1a287001a6d0af3
True
their arms
185
What did students lay down?
5a28364dd1a287001a6d0af4
True
Lieutenant Colonel Amadou Toumani Touré
252
Who did Moussa Traore arrest?
5a28364dd1a287001a6d0af5
True
opposition parties
396
What was made illegal as a result of Moussa's arrest?
5a28364dd1a287001a6d0af6
True
By 26 March, the growing refusal of soldiers to fire into the largely nonviolent protesting crowds turned into a full-scale tumult, and resulted into thousands of soldiers putting down their arms and joining the pro-democracy movement. That afternoon, Lieutenant Colonel Amadou Toumani Touré announced on the radio that he had arrested the dictatorial president, Moussa Traoré. As a consequence, opposition parties were legalized and a national congress of civil and political groups met to draft a new democratic constitution to be approved by a national referendum.
What rebellion began in January of 2012?
5726c9a75951b619008f7e15
Tuareg rebellion
18
False
In March of 2012 whom gained control of Mali?
5726c9a75951b619008f7e16
Amadou Sanogo
145
False
What group led the rebellion in Northern Mali?
5726c9a75951b619008f7e17
National Movement for the Liberation of Azawad
70
False
The embargo of the Economic Community of West African States imposed what type of punishment?
5726c9a75951b619008f7e18
sanctions
256
False
What group declared independence as Asawad?
5726c9a75951b619008f7e19
MNLA
335
False
Tuareg rebellion
18
What rebellion began in South Mali?
5a283823d1a287001a6d0afc
True
2012
11
The Tuareg rebellion began in June of what year?
5a283823d1a287001a6d0afd
True
Ansar Dine
444
What Islamic group led the rebellion in North Mali?
5a283823d1a287001a6d0afe
True
Amadou Sanogo
145
Who did AQIM Institute sanctions against?
5a283823d1a287001a6d0aff
True
Tuareg
560
Who did the MNLA turn against?
5a283823d1a287001a6d0b00
True
In January 2012 a Tuareg rebellion began in Northern Mali, led by the National Movement for the Liberation of Azawad. In March, military officer Amadou Sanogo seized power in a coup d'état, citing Touré's failures in quelling the rebellion, and leading to sanctions and an embargo by the Economic Community of West African States. The MNLA quickly took control of the north, declaring independence as Azawad. However, Islamist groups including Ansar Dine and Al-Qaeda in the Islamic Maghreb (AQIM), who had helped the MNLA defeat the government, turned on the Tuareg and took control of the North with the goal of implementing sharia in Mali.
Mali is located in what Zone?
5726cc31dd62a815002e9090
torrid
17
False
What months are have a rainy season in the South?
5726cc31dd62a815002e9091
June to early December
300
False
Flooding of what river is typical during these months?
5726cc31dd62a815002e9092
Niger River
403
False
What is the name of the Delta that these floods cause?
5726cc31dd62a815002e9093
Inner Niger
439
False
What part of the country has the Köppen Climate Classification of (BWh)?
5726cc31dd62a815002e9094
northern desert
467
False
Mali
0
What is in the tropical zone?
5a283a59d1a287001a6d0b06
True
Mali
0
What is the hottest country in the world?
5a283a59d1a287001a6d0b07
True
Mali
229
What does the equator cross?
5a283a59d1a287001a6d0b08
True
Mali
229
Where is rainfall very frequent?
5a283a59d1a287001a6d0b09
True
The central area
639
Where is there a brief intense dry season?
5a283a59d1a287001a6d0b0a
True
Mali lies in the torrid zone and is among the hottest countries in the world. The thermal equator, which matches the hottest spots year-round on the planet based on the mean daily annual temperature, crosses the country. Most of Mali receives negligible rainfall and droughts are very frequent. Late June to early December is the rainy season in the southernmost area. During this time, flooding of the Niger River is common, creating the Inner Niger Delta. The vast northern desert part of Mali has a hot desert climate (Köppen climate classification (BWh) with long, extremely hot summers and scarce rainfall which decreases northwards. The central area has a hot semi-arid climate (Köppen climate classification (BSh) with very high temperatures year-round, a long, intense dry season and a brief, irregular rainy season. The little southern band possesses a tropical wet and dry climate (Köppen climate classification (Aw) very high temperatures year-round with a dry season and a rainy season.
What year was the constitution amended from the previous one of 1992?
5726cfd8f1498d1400e8ebf6
1999
192
False
The newer constitution divide power among what branches of government?
5726cfd8f1498d1400e8ebf7
the executive, legislative, and judicial branches of government
257
False
How many years is one presidential term for?
5726cfd8f1498d1400e8ebf8
five-year
450
False
How many total terms can a president be elected for?
5726cfd8f1498d1400e8ebf9
two terms
505
False
Executive power is given to what person within the government?
5726cfd8f1498d1400e8ebfa
president
419
False
the Constitution
134
What was amended in 1992?
5a283c47d1a287001a6d0b10
True
powers among the executive, legislative, and judicial branches of government
244
What did the Constitution not separate?
5a283c47d1a287001a6d0b11
True
Mali
86
Who had a presidential system of government?
5a283c47d1a287001a6d0b12
True
Mali
86
What country does not have universal suffrage?
5a283c47d1a287001a6d0b13
True
Until the military coup of 22 March 2012 and a second military coup in December 2012, Mali was a constitutional democracy governed by the Constitution of 12 January 1992, which was amended in 1999. The constitution provides for a separation of powers among the executive, legislative, and judicial branches of government. The system of government can be described as "semi-presidential". Executive power is vested in a president, who is elected to a five-year term by universal suffrage and is limited to two terms.
Who is given both titles of commander of armed forces and chief of state?
5726d1a8708984140094d237
president
4
False
What group is Mali's sole legislative party?
5726d1a8708984140094d238
The unicameral National Assembly
205
False
The Alliance of democracy and Progress has how many seats as of 2007?
5726d1a8708984140094d239
113
397
False
How many legislative assemblies are  held each year?
5726d1a8708984140094d23a
two regular sessions
450
False
Who is considered head of government and assigns the council of ministers?
5726d1a8708984140094d23b
prime minister
87
False
the armed forces
67
What is the Prime Minister commander-in-chief of?
5a284cb7d1a287001a6d0b20
True
government
147
What is the president had of?
5a284cb7d1a287001a6d0b21
True
Mali's
241
What country is the Council of ministers the legislative body for?
5a284cb7d1a287001a6d0b22
True
Alliance for Democracy
356
Who held 160 seats in the assembly after the 2007 elections?
5a284cb7d1a287001a6d0b23
True
legislation that has been submitted by a member or by the government.
519
What does the Council of ministers vote on?
5a284cb7d1a287001a6d0b24
True
The president serves as a chief of state and commander in chief of the armed forces. A prime minister appointed by the president serves as head of government and in turn appoints the Council of Ministers. The unicameral National Assembly is Mali's sole legislative body, consisting of deputies elected to five-year terms. Following the 2007 elections, the Alliance for Democracy and Progress held 113 of 160 seats in the assembly. The assembly holds two regular sessions each year, during which it debates and votes on legislation that has been submitted by a member or by the government.
What is Mali's highest court?
5726d30bf1498d1400e8ec5a
Supreme Court
252
False
What controls do the supreme court have?
5726d30bf1498d1400e8ec5b
both judicial and administrative powers
277
False
Constitutional Court provides what type of review of legislative acts?
5726d30bf1498d1400e8ec5c
judicial review
368
False
Constitutional Court also serves as what type of arbiter?
5726d30bf1498d1400e8ec5d
election
421
False
Local disputes in rural areas are usually handled by what individuals?
5726d30bf1498d1400e8ec5e
village chiefs and elders
474
False
Mali
0
What country does not have an independent judiciary?
5a284d65d1a287001a6d0b32
True
law
205
What does the Supreme Court enforce?
5a284d65d1a287001a6d0b33
True
legislative acts
387
What this is Supreme Court review?
5a284d65d1a287001a6d0b34
True
disputes
519
What do lower courts resolve at the local level?
5a284d65d1a287001a6d0b35
True
Mali's constitution provides for an independent judiciary, but the executive continues to exercise influence over the judiciary by virtue of power to appoint judges and oversee both judicial functions and law enforcement. Mali's highest courts are the Supreme Court, which has both judicial and administrative powers, and a separate Constitutional Court that provides judicial review of legislative acts and serves as an election arbiter. Various lower courts exist, though village chiefs and elders resolve most local disputes in rural areas.
In what year did Mali start economic changes?
5726d4705951b619008f7f55
1988
45
False
Mali signed agreements with what to parties that began their economic changes?
5726d4705951b619008f7f56
World Bank and the International Monetary Fund
81
False
In what years did Mali restructure public enterprises?
5726d4705951b619008f7f57
1988 to 1996
136
False
How many enterprises have been made completely private since the agreement?
5726d4705951b619008f7f58
sixteen enterprises
226
False
How many companies were completely liquidated?
5726d4705951b619008f7f59
20
292
False
Mali
0
Whose economic reform ended in 1988?
5a284fbcd1a287001a6d0b4a
True
agreements
61
What did the World Bank and international monetary fund sign with each other in 1988?
5a284fbcd1a287001a6d0b4b
True
Mali's government
150
Who were formed public enterprises prior to 1988?
5a284fbcd1a287001a6d0b4c
True
enterprises
234
Twenty what were privatized?
5a284fbcd1a287001a6d0b4d
True
a railroad company
347
What did the Malain government concede to the cotton gin company?
5a284fbcd1a287001a6d0b4e
True
Mali underwent economic reform, beginning in 1988 by signing agreements with the World Bank and the International Monetary Fund. During 1988 to 1996, Mali's government largely reformed public enterprises. Since the agreement, sixteen enterprises were privatized, 12 partially privatized, and 20 liquidated. In 2005, the Malian government conceded a railroad company to the Savage Corporation. Two major companies, Societé de Telecommunications du Mali (SOTELMA) and the Cotton Ginning Company (CMDT), were expected to be privatized in 2008.
In 2007 what percent of people were 12 and under?
5726d60bf1498d1400e8ec9e
48
15
False
What was the total fertility rate per woman as of 2012?
5726d60bf1498d1400e8ec9f
6.4 children
259
False
In 2007 what was the death rate per 1000 people?
5726d60bf1498d1400e8eca0
16.5
310
False
Mali has one of the highest rates of what type of mortality?
5726d60bf1498d1400e8eca1
infant
466
False
For both men and women average life expectancy is how many years?
5726d60bf1498d1400e8eca2
53.06
362
False
2007
3
What year were 48% of Malians older than twelve years old?
5a285221d1a287001a6d0b64
True
2007
3
When were 49% of Malians sixty-five and older?
5a285221d1a287001a6d0b65
True
6.4 children per woman
259
How many children were born per woman in 2014?
5a285221d1a287001a6d0b66
True
16.5 deaths per 1,000
310
What was the death rate in 2014?
5a285221d1a287001a6d0b67
True
53.06
362
What was the life expectancy in 2012?
5a285221d1a287001a6d0b68
True
In 2007, about 48 percent of Malians were younger than 12 years old, 49 percent were 15–64 years old, and 3 percent were 65 and older. The median age was 15.9 years. The birth rate in 2014 is 45.53 births per 1,000, and the total fertility rate (in 2012) was 6.4 children per woman. The death rate in 2007 was 16.5 deaths per 1,000. Life expectancy at birth was 53.06 years total (51.43 for males and 54.73 for females). Mali has one of the world's highest rates of infant mortality, with 106 deaths per 1,000 live births in 2007.
Roughly how many Malians are descendants of slaves?
5726d79add62a815002e922a
800,000
203
False
What is the estimate of current Mali enslavement?
5726d79add62a815002e922b
200,000
562
False
What group of people were known to keep Malian salves into the 20th century?
5726d79add62a815002e922c
Arabic population
302
False
The darker skinned Bella people are also refereed to as what name?
5726d79add62a815002e922d
Tamasheq
121
False
What region of the country is historical slavery well known?
5726d79add62a815002e922e
far north
7
False
Berber-descendent Tuareg nomad populations and the darker-skinned Bella or Tamasheq people,
46
Who is their division between in the South?
5a285358d1a287001a6d0b78
True
the historical spread of slavery in the region
142
Wiser division in southern Mali?
5a285358d1a287001a6d0b79
True
800,000
203
How many people in Mali are descended from slaveowners?
5a285358d1a287001a6d0b7a
True
Arabic population
302
Who kept slaves until the 2000's?
5a285358d1a287001a6d0b7b
True
slavery
366
What did the Arabic authorities suppress in the twentieth century?
5a285358d1a287001a6d0b7c
True
In the far north, there is a division between Berber-descendent Tuareg nomad populations and the darker-skinned Bella or Tamasheq people, due the historical spread of slavery in the region. An estimated 800,000 people in Mali are descended from slaves. Slavery in Mali has persisted for centuries. The Arabic population kept slaves well into the 20th century, until slavery was suppressed by French authorities around the mid-20th century. There still persist certain hereditary servitude relationships, and according to some estimates, even today approximately 200,000 Malians are still enslaved.
Ethnic tension are between what two groups of people?
5726dabddd62a815002e92c4
Songhai and nomadic Tuaregs
213
False
Radical Islam and the Tuaregs are both considered problematic according to whom?
5726dabddd62a815002e92c5
Malian government
559
False
What group of people are trying to establish sharia law?
5726dabddd62a815002e92c6
radical Islamists
598
False
What type of hereditary relationships still exist today?
5726dabddd62a815002e92c7
servitude and bondage
129
False
Songhai and Tuaregs both complain about what same issue towards each other?
5726dabddd62a815002e92c8
discrimination
385
False
coexistence,
100
What does Mali not have a long history of?
5a285625d1a287001a6d0b9c
True
servitude and bondage relationship
129
What kind of relationships no longer exist in Mali?
5a285625d1a287001a6d0b9d
True
ethnic tension
182
What exists between the settled Tuaregs and the nomadic Songhai?
5a285625d1a287001a6d0b9e
True
groups complain about discrimination on the part of the other group
363
What plays a role in the tension between the Soanghai and the government?
5a285625d1a287001a6d0b9f
True
Although Mali has enjoyed a reasonably good inter-ethnic relationships based on the long history of coexistence, some hereditary servitude and bondage relationship exist, as well as ethnic tension between settled Songhai and nomadic Tuaregs of the north. Due to a backlash against the northern population after independence, Mali is now in a situation where both groups complain about discrimination on the part of the other group. This conflict also plays a role in the continuing Northern Mali conflict where there is a tension between both Tuaregs and the Malian government, and the Tuaregs and radical Islamists who are trying to establish sharia law.
What four main health problems do the Malian people currently have?
5726dc5cf1498d1400e8ed94
poverty, malnutrition, and inadequate hygiene and sanitation
49
False
How does Malian Health and development rank globally?
5726dc5cf1498d1400e8ed95
among the worst in the world
157
False
As of 2012 50.3 years is considered the Malian peoples averages of what statistic?
5726dc5cf1498d1400e8ed96
Life expectancy
187
False
In 2000 what percentage of the population had access to safe drinking water?
5726dc5cf1498d1400e8ed97
62–65
261
False
In 2000 roughly how much of the population had access to sanitation services?
5726dc5cf1498d1400e8ed98
69
354
False
challenges related to poverty, malnutrition, and inadequate hygiene and sanitation.
27
What health challenges has Mali largely overcome?
5a2857f0d1a287001a6d0ba4
True
health and development indicators
118
Mali's what now rank among the best in the world?
5a2857f0d1a287001a6d0ba5
True
53.06 years
231
What was life expectancy estimated to be in 2000?
5a2857f0d1a287001a6d0ba6
True
62–65
261
What percentage of the population had safe drinking water in 2012?
5a2857f0d1a287001a6d0ba7
True
government expenditures on health
423
What totaled US$40 per capita?
5a2857f0d1a287001a6d0ba8
True
Mali faces numerous health challenges related to poverty, malnutrition, and inadequate hygiene and sanitation. Mali's health and development indicators rank among the worst in the world. Life expectancy at birth is estimated to be 53.06 years in 2012. In 2000, 62–65 percent of the population was estimated to have access to safe drinking water and only 69 percent to sanitation services of some kind. In 2001, the general government expenditures on health totalled about US$4 per capita at an average exchange rate.
What does ICRISTAT stand for?
5726ddf15951b619008f8099
International Crops Research Institute for the Semi-Arid Tropics
168
False
What types of efforts to aid in health problems have been made?
5726ddf15951b619008f809a
improve nutrition
26
False
The local communities have accepted equinut because it is similar to what native recipe?
5726ddf15951b619008f809b
recipe di-dèguè
365
False
ICRISTAT had success in teaching women how to make what product of nutritional value?
5726ddf15951b619008f809c
equinut
303
False
What ingredients are in both the traditional and nutritional version of this dish?
5726ddf15951b619008f809d
peanut paste, honey and millet or rice flour
393
False
nutrition
34
Little effort has been made to improve what?
5a285880d1a287001a6d0bae
True
nutritious versions of local recipes
113
What are men encouraged to cook?
5a285880d1a287001a6d0baf
True
nutrition and livelihoods
461
What is boosted by producing a product men can sell?
5a285880d1a287001a6d0bb0
True
nutritious versions of local recipes
113
What is not accepted by the local community?
5a285880d1a287001a6d0bb1
True
Efforts have been made to improve nutrition, and reduce associated health problems, by encouraging women to make nutritious versions of local recipes. For example, the International Crops Research Institute for the Semi-Arid Tropics (ICRISAT) and the Aga Khan Foundation, trained women's groups to make equinut, a healthy and nutritional version of the traditional recipe di-dèguè (comprising peanut paste, honey and millet or rice flour). The aim was to boost nutrition and livelihoods by producing a product that women could make and sell, and which would be accepted by the local community because of its local heritage.
What are the two main prevalent infectious diseases of Mali?
5726e051708984140094d46d
cholera and tuberculosis
193
False
what arthropod born disease has plagued the nation?
5726e051708984140094d46e
Malaria
80
False
According to the data from 2001 to 2006 what percent of female genitalia are mutilated?
5726e051708984140094d46f
85–91
481
False
What Sexually transmitted disease afflicts roughly 1.9 percent of the population?
5726e051708984140094d470
HIV/AIDS
402
False
Malians suffer from malnutrition and low rates of what type of medical need?
5726e051708984140094d471
immunization
307
False
Mali
22
Where are there adequate medical facilities?
5a285908d1a287001a6d0bb6
True
Malaria and other arthropod-borne diseases
80
What type of diseases are now where in Mali?
5a285908d1a287001a6d0bb7
True
2006 and 2001
557
In what year was less than 85% of girls and women mutilated?
5a285908d1a287001a6d0bb8
True
HIV/AIDS
402
What disease is rare among children?
5a285908d1a287001a6d0bb9
True
Medical facilities in Mali are very limited, and medicines are in short supply. Malaria and other arthropod-borne diseases are prevalent in Mali, as are a number of infectious diseases such as cholera and tuberculosis. Mali's population also suffers from a high rate of child malnutrition and a low rate of immunization. An estimated 1.9 percent of the adult and children population was afflicted with HIV/AIDS that year, among the lowest rates in Sub-Saharan Africa. An estimated 85–91 percent of Mali's girls and women have had female genital mutilation (2006 and 2001 data).
What is the translation or meaning of a griot?
5726e209f1498d1400e8ee98
Keepers of Memories
73
False
Aside from music what other activity plays a significant role in culture?
5726e209f1498d1400e8ee99
Dance
423
False
What type of garment or accessory is traditionally worn at some of the dances held?
5726e209f1498d1400e8ee9a
mask
535
False
What is the name of the musician that was a part of the roots and was also a blues guitarist?
5726e209f1498d1400e8ee9b
Ali Farka Touré
271
False
What is a well known Afro-pop artist?
5726e209f1498d1400e8ee9c
Salif Keita
352
False
griots,
47
What translates to keeper of the songs?
5a285975d1a287001a6d0bbe
True
Dance
423
What plays a minor role in culture compared to music?
5a285975d1a287001a6d0bbf
True
Dance parties
472
What is not common among friends?
5a285975d1a287001a6d0bc0
True
ceremonial events.
564
Where are modern mask dances performed?
5a285975d1a287001a6d0bc1
True
Malian musical traditions are derived from the griots, who are known as "Keepers of Memories". Malian music is diverse and has several different genres. Some famous Malian influences in music are kora virtuoso musician Toumani Diabaté, the late roots and blues guitarist Ali Farka Touré, the Tuareg band Tinariwen, and several Afro-pop artists such as Salif Keita, the duo Amadou et Mariam, Oumou Sangare, and Habib Koité. Dance also plays a large role in Malian culture. Dance parties are common events among friends, and traditional mask dances are performed at ceremonial events.
Raleigh,_North_Carolina
What state is Raleigh the capital of?
5726ab455951b619008f7985
North Carolina
59
False
What is the biggest city in NC?
5726ab455951b619008f7986
Charlotte
192
False
Who is it named after?
5726ab455951b619008f7987
Sir Walter Raleigh
561
False
What county is Raleigh in?
5726ab455951b619008f7988
Dare
636
False
What is the population of the city?
5726ab455951b619008f7989
439,896
437
False
Raleigh
203
What city is known as the City of Elks?
5acd50c607355d001abf3cf0
True
Sir Walter Raleigh
561
Who is Releigh not named after?
5acd50c607355d001abf3cf1
True
Wake
97
What county is Raleigh's neighbor?
5acd50c607355d001abf3cf2
True
439,896
437
What is the population of the North Carolina?
5acd50c607355d001abf3cf3
True
Roanoke Colony
606
What lost city is 142 miles large?
5acd50c607355d001abf3cf4
True
Raleigh (/ˈrɑːli/; RAH-lee) is the capital of the state of North Carolina as well as the seat of Wake County in the United States. It is the second most populous city in North Carolina, after Charlotte. Raleigh is known as the "City of Oaks" for its many oak trees, which line the streets in the heart of the city. The city covers a land area of 142.8 square miles (370 km2). The U.S. Census Bureau estimated the city's population to be 439,896 as of July 1, 2014. It is also one of the fastest-growing cities in the country. The city of Raleigh is named after Sir Walter Raleigh, who established the lost Roanoke Colony in present-day Dare County.
What is the MSA of Raleigh?
5726abb3dd62a815002e8c7b
1,214,516
658
False
What is the Triangle?
5726abb3dd62a815002e8c7c
Research Triangle area
70
False
What is another university in the triangle?
5726abb3dd62a815002e8c7d
Duke
124
False
When was the Triangle created?
5726abb3dd62a815002e8c7e
1959
261
False
North Carolina State University
19
What university is outside of Raleigh?
5acd514307355d001abf3d02
True
1,214,516
658
What is the MSA of only Durham?
5acd514307355d001abf3d03
True
1959
261
When did the Triangle stop existing?
5acd514307355d001abf3d04
True
Chapel Hill
145
What university is not in the triangle?
5acd514307355d001abf3d05
True
2,037,430
560
What is the population of Durham?
5acd514307355d001abf3d06
True
Raleigh is home to North Carolina State University and is part of the Research Triangle area, together with Durham (home of Duke University) and Chapel Hill (home of the University of North Carolina at Chapel Hill). The "Triangle" nickname originated after the 1959 creation of the Research Triangle Park, located in Durham & Wake Counties partway between the three cities and their universities. The Research Triangle region encompasses the U.S. Census Bureau's Raleigh-Durham-Chapel Hill Combined Statistical Area (CSA), which had an estimated population of 2,037,430 in 2013. The Raleigh Metropolitan Statistical Area (MSA) had an estimated population of 1,214,516 in 2013.
What kind of city is Raleigh?
5726ac58708984140094cd7d
planned
54
False
What year was it incorporated?
5726ac58708984140094cd7e
1792
136
False
What happened in the 20th century?
5726ac58708984140094cd7f
Research Triangle Park
563
False
What war was near the city?
5726ac58708984140094cd80
Civil War
291
False
What type of community is it?
5726ac58708984140094cd81
fastest growing
699
False
Raleigh
0
What city was chosen as the capital in 1792?
5acd51b907355d001abf3d20
True
Raleigh
0
What city was incorporated in 1788?
5acd51b907355d001abf3d21
True
Civil War
291
What war began in the city?
5acd51b907355d001abf3d22
True
1959
589
What year did Research Triangle Park close?
5acd51b907355d001abf3d23
True
21st century
761
What century did Raleigh stop growing?
5acd51b907355d001abf3d24
True
Raleigh is an early example in the United States of a planned city, chosen as the site of the state capital in 1788 and incorporated in 1792 as such. The city was originally laid out in a grid pattern with the North Carolina State Capitol in Union Square at the center. In the United States Civil War the city was spared from any significant battle, only falling in the closing days of the war, though it did not escape the economic hardships that plagued the rest of the American South during the Reconstruction Era. The twentieth century saw the opening of the Research Triangle Park in 1959, and with the jobs it created the region and city saw a large influx of population, making it one of the fastest growing communities in the United States by the early 21st century.
What energy center is downtown?
5726acc95951b619008f79bd
Duke
75
False
What university is in Raleigh?
5726acc95951b619008f79be
North Carolina State University,
645
False
What is the first historically black university?
5726acc95951b619008f79bf
Shaw
726
False
What president was born in Raleigh?
5726acc95951b619008f79c0
Andrew Johnson
955
False
What is the name of the amphitheater in Raleigh?
5726acc95951b619008f79c1
Walnut Creek Amphitheatre
248
False
Duke
75
What energy center is on the outskirts of town?
5acd521e07355d001abf3d2a
True
North Carolina State University
645
What university is outside of Raleigh?
5acd521e07355d001abf3d2b
True
Shaw
726
What is the first white university?
5acd521e07355d001abf3d2c
True
Andrew Johnson
955
Which US president died in Raleigh?
5acd521e07355d001abf3d2d
True
Walnut Creek Amphitheatre
248
What's the name of the smallest amphitheater in Raleigh?
5acd521e07355d001abf3d2e
True
Raleigh is home to numerous cultural, educational, and historic sites. The Duke Energy Center for the Performing Arts in Downtown Raleigh features three theater venues and serves as the home for the North Carolina Symphony and the Carolina Ballet. Walnut Creek Amphitheatre is a large music amphitheater located in Southeast Raleigh. Museums in Raleigh include the North Carolina Museum of Art in West Raleigh, as well as the North Carolina Museum of History and North Carolina Museum of Natural Sciences located next to each other near the State Capitol in Downtown Raleigh. Several major universities and colleges call Raleigh home, including North Carolina State University, the largest public university in the state, and Shaw University, the first historically black university in the American South and site of the foundation of the Student Nonviolent Coordinating Committee, an important civil rights organization of the 1960s. One U.S. president, Andrew Johnson, was born in Raleigh.
How many miles is the city from Isaac's Tavern?
5726ad6add62a815002e8cb0
11
58
False
Why is Isaac Hunter's Tavern popular?
5726ad6add62a815002e8cb1
state legislators.
133
False
What was Raleigh as a city?
5726ad6add62a815002e8cb2
planned
281
False
What were the original boundaries?
5726ad6add62a815002e8cb3
the downtown streets of North, East, West and South streets
380
False
What city was the plan based on?
5726ad6add62a815002e8cb4
Philadelphia
588
False
state legislators
133
Who does not go to Isaac Hunter's Tavern?
5acd52b907355d001abf3d44
True
North, East, West and South streets
404
What are the modern boundaries?
5acd52b907355d001abf3d45
True
Philadelphia
588
What city was the plan not inspired by?
5acd52b907355d001abf3d46
True
Thomas Holme's
559
Who planned Raleigh?
5acd52b907355d001abf3d47
True
two main axes meeting at a central square
463
What is the opposite of a grid system?
5acd52b907355d001abf3d48
True
The city's location was chosen, in part, for being within 11 mi (18 km) of Isaac Hunter's Tavern, a popular tavern frequented by the state legislators. No known city or town existed previously on the chosen city site. Raleigh is one of the few cities in the United States that was planned and built specifically to serve as a state capital. Its original boundaries were formed by the downtown streets of North, East, West and South streets. The plan, a grid with two main axes meeting at a central square and an additional square in each corner, was based on Thomas Holme's 1682 plan for Philadelphia.
Who was the governor during the Civil War?
5726addcdd62a815002e8cba
Zebulon Baird Vance
36
False
What did the governor order constructed?
5726addcdd62a815002e8cbb
breastworks
84
False
What was Raleigh captured by in the Civil War?
5726addcdd62a815002e8cbc
Union cavalry
214
False
Who led the cavalry in the capture?
5726addcdd62a815002e8cbd
Hugh Judson Kilpatrick
257
False
Why did the city not grow during the Civil War?
5726addcdd62a815002e8cbe
a state economy based on agriculture,
557
False
Zebulon Baird Vance
36
Who was the governor during World War II?
5acd533407355d001abf3d4e
True
state economy based on agriculture
559
Why did the city boom in growth during the Civil War?
5acd533407355d001abf3d4f
True
Hugh Judson Kilpatrick
257
Who died in the capture?
5acd533407355d001abf3d50
True
April 13, 1865
283
When did Hugh Judson Kilpatrick die?
5acd533407355d001abf3d51
True
breastworks
84
What was built to protect the city from Confederates?
5acd533407355d001abf3d52
True
After the Civil War began, Governor Zebulon Baird Vance ordered the construction of breastworks around the city as protection from Union troops. During General Sherman's Carolinas Campaign, Raleigh was captured by Union cavalry under the command of General Hugh Judson Kilpatrick on April 13, 1865. As the Confederate cavalry retreated west, the Union soldiers followed, leading to the nearby Battle of Morrisville. The city was spared significant destruction during the War, but due to the economic problems of the post-war period and Reconstruction, with a state economy based on agriculture, it grew little over the next several decades.
What year did the News and the Observer merge?
5726ae55708984140094cdb3
1880
3
False
What is Raleigh's daily newspaper?
5726ae55708984140094cdb4
The News & Observer
59
False
What was North Carolina State called before?
5726ae55708984140094cdb5
The North Carolina College of Agriculture and Mechanic Arts,
126
False
What year was the college founded?
5726ae55708984140094cdb6
1887
272
False
When did Merideth College open?
5726ae55708984140094cdb7
1891
434
False
1880
3
When did the News and the Observer separate?
5acd53ef07355d001abf3d58
True
Meredith College
406
What school is now known as The Baptist Women's College?
5acd53ef07355d001abf3d59
True
1889
312
When did Rex Hospital close?
5acd53ef07355d001abf3d5a
True
1887
272
When did North Carolina State University close?
5acd53ef07355d001abf3d5b
True
1898
447
When was the Academy of Music established?
5acd53ef07355d001abf3d5c
True
In 1880, the newspapers News and Observer combined to form The News & Observer. It remains Raleigh's primary daily newspaper. The North Carolina College of Agriculture and Mechanic Arts, now known as North Carolina State University, was founded as a land-grant college in 1887. The city's Rex Hospital opened in 1889 and included the state's first nursing school. The Baptist Women's College, now known as Meredith College, opened in 1891, and in 1898, The Academy of Music, a private music conservatory, was established.
When was the last time two black congressmen were elected?
5726aec3f1498d1400e8e71a
1898
115
False
What district were the congressmen in 1898 from?
5726aec3f1498d1400e8e71b
2nd
89
False
What happened in 1900?
5726aec3f1498d1400e8e71c
the state legislature passed a new constitution
310
False
When did blacks lose the right to vote?
5726aec3f1498d1400e8e71d
1908
498
False
When did black regain the right to vote?
5726aec3f1498d1400e8e71e
mid-1960s
890
False
1898
115
When did the two black congressmen retire?
5acd54e307355d001abf3d6c
True
George Henry White
121
Who sought to promote civil rights for women?
5acd54e307355d001abf3d6d
True
two
32
How many blacks voted in 1898?
5acd54e307355d001abf3d6e
True
1960s
894
What year was the federal civil rights legislation overturned?
5acd54e307355d001abf3d6f
True
In the late nineteenth century, two black Congressmen were elected from North Carolina's 2nd district, the last in 1898. George Henry White sought to promote civil rights for blacks and to challenge efforts by white Democrats to reduce black voting by new discriminatory laws. They were unsuccessful. In 1900, the state legislature passed a new constitution, with voter registration rules that disfranchised most blacks and many poor whites. The state succeeded in reducing black voting to zero by 1908. Loss of the ability to vote disqualified black men (and later women) from sitting on juries and serving in any office, local, state or federal. The rising black middle-class in Raleigh and other areas was politically silenced and shut out of local governance, and the Republican Party was no longer competitive. It was not until after federal civil rights legislation was passed in the mid-1960s that the majority of blacks in North Carolina would again be able to vote, sit on juries and serve in local offices. No African American was elected to Congress until 1992.
When was the Great Depression?
5726afa0f1498d1400e8e746
1930s
21
False
What did the city provide during the Great Depression?
5726afa0f1498d1400e8e747
recreational and educational programs
126
False
What was dedicated in 1932?
5726afa0f1498d1400e8e748
Raleigh Memorial Auditorium
218
False
What year was the North Carolina Symphony founded?
5726afa0f1498d1400e8e749
1932
212
False
What was charted in 1939?
5726afa0f1498d1400e8e74a
Raleigh-Durham Aeronautical Authority to build a larger airport between Raleigh and Durham,
514
False
1930s
21
When did the Great Depression start?
5acd554207355d001abf3d7e
True
recreational and educational programs
126
What did the city restrict during the Great Depression?
5acd554207355d001abf3d7f
True
Raleigh Memorial Auditorium
218
What building was torn down in 1932?
5acd554207355d001abf3d80
True
1932
212
What year did the North Carolina Symphony fail?
5acd554207355d001abf3d81
True
1943
641
When did the last flight leave the Raleigh-Durham airport?
5acd554207355d001abf3d82
True
During the difficult 1930s of the Great Depression, government at all levels was integral to creating jobs. The city provided recreational and educational programs, and hired people for public works projects. In 1932, Raleigh Memorial Auditorium was dedicated. The North Carolina Symphony, founded the same year, performed in its new home. From 1934 to 1937, the federal Civilian Conservation Corps constructed the area now known as William B. Umstead State Park. In 1939, the State General Assembly chartered the Raleigh-Durham Aeronautical Authority to build a larger airport between Raleigh and Durham, with the first flight occurring in 1943.
Where is Raleigh located?
5726b01df1498d1400e8e762
northeast central region of North Carolina
26
False
What is the area known as?
5726b01df1498d1400e8e763
"fall line"
156
False
What type of geography is in Raleigh?
5726b01df1498d1400e8e764
gently rolling hills that slope eastward toward the state's flat coastal plain.
302
False
How far is Raleigh from Atlantic Beach?
5726b01df1498d1400e8e765
two hours
435
False
How far is Raleigh from Richmond?
5726b01df1498d1400e8e766
155
554
False
Raleigh
0
What city is in the southeast region of North Carolina?
5acd55a707355d001abf3d8e
True
Piedmont
80
What region meets the Pacific Coastal Plain?
5acd55a707355d001abf3d8f
True
fall line
157
What is it called when waterfalls aren't in creeks and rivers?
5acd55a707355d001abf3d90
True
155 miles
554
How far south is Richmond?
5acd55a707355d001abf3d91
True
263 miles
602
How far north is Washington DC?
5acd55a707355d001abf3d92
True
Raleigh is located in the northeast central region of North Carolina, where the Piedmont and Atlantic Coastal Plain regions meet. This area is known as the "fall line" because it marks the elevation inland at which waterfalls begin to appear in creeks and rivers. As a result, most of Raleigh features gently rolling hills that slope eastward toward the state's flat coastal plain. Its central Piedmont location situates Raleigh about two hours west of Atlantic Beach, North Carolina, by car and four hours east of the Great Smoky Mountains. The city is 155 miles (249 km) south of Richmond, Virginia, 263 miles (423 km) south of Washington, D.C., and 150 miles (240 km) northeast of Charlotte, North Carolina.
What historic hotel is downtown?
5726b0cc5951b619008f7a9b
Fayetteville Street downtown business district,
162
False
What is in the Fayetteville business district?
5726b0cc5951b619008f7a9c
PNC Plaza and Wells Fargo Capitol Center
229
False
What are some neighborhoods in Raleigh?
5726b0cc5951b619008f7a9d
Cameron Park, Boylan Heights, Country Club Hills,
557
False
Who separated the neighborhoods in the early 2000's?
5726b0cc5951b619008f7a9e
Downtown Raleigh Alliance
817
False
What are some common names in the area?
5726b0cc5951b619008f7a9f
Warehouse, Fayetteville Street
1087
False
Sir Walter Raleigh Hotel
74
What historic hotel is in the upntown?
5acd561d07355d001abf3da2
True
early 20th
112
What century did they take down the Sir Walter Raleigh Hotel?
5acd561d07355d001abf3da3
True
Cameron Park, Boylan Heights, Country Club Hills
557
What are the neighborhoods outside of Raleigh?
5acd561d07355d001abf3da4
True
Warehouse
966
What is an uncommon name for Raleigh?
5acd561d07355d001abf3da5
True
Downtown Raleigh Alliance
817
Who joined the neighborhoods together in the early 2000's?
5acd561d07355d001abf3da6
True
Downtown area is home to historic neighborhoods and buildings such as the Sir Walter Raleigh Hotel built in the early 20th century, the restored City Market, the Fayetteville Street downtown business district, which includes the PNC Plaza and Wells Fargo Capitol Center buildings, as well as the North Carolina Museum of History, North Carolina Museum of Natural Sciences, North Carolina State Capitol, Peace College, the Raleigh City Museum, Raleigh Convention Center, Shaw University, and St. Augustine's College. The neighborhoods in Old Raleigh include Cameron Park, Boylan Heights, Country Club Hills, Coley Forest, Five Points, Budleigh, Glenwood-Brooklyn, Hayes Barton Historic District, Moore Square, Mordecai, Rosengarten Park, Belvidere Park, Woodcrest, and Historic Oakwood. In the 2000s, an effort by the Downtown Raleigh Alliance was made to separate this area of the city into five smaller districts: Fayetteville Street, Moore Square, Glenwood South, Warehouse (Raleigh), and Capital District (Raleigh). Some of the names have become common place among locals such as the Warehouse, Fayetteville Street, and Glenwood South Districts.
Where is Midtown Raleigh?
5726b149dd62a815002e8d0a
North of the I-440 Beltline
58
False
What frames Midtown Raleigh?
5726b149dd62a815002e8d0b
Glenwood/Creedmoor Road to the West, Wake Forest Road to the East, and Millbrook Road
140
False
Where is the North Hills Shopping center?
5726b149dd62a815002e8d0c
Midtown Raleigh
0
False
Who was the area developer?
5726b149dd62a815002e8d0d
John Kane
464
False
When was the Midtown Raleigh Alliance formed?
5726b149dd62a815002e8d0e
July 25, 2011
639
False
Midtown Raleigh
0
What is the area south of I-440?
5acd56cc07355d001abf3dc0
True
North of the I-440 Beltline
58
Where is downtown Raleigh?
5acd56cc07355d001abf3dc1
True
North Raleigh
101
Where is the South Hills Shopping center located?
5acd56cc07355d001abf3dc2
True
July 25, 2011
639
When was the Midtown Raleigh Alliance dissolved?
5acd56cc07355d001abf3dc3
True
John Kane
464
Who fired the area developer?
5acd56cc07355d001abf3dc4
True
Midtown Raleigh is a residential and commercial area just North of the I-440 Beltline and is part of North Raleigh. It is roughly framed by Glenwood/Creedmoor Road to the West, Wake Forest Road to the East, and Millbrook Road to the North. It includes shopping centers such as North Hills and Crabtree Valley Mall. It also includes North Hills Park and part of the Raleigh Greenway System. The term was coined by the Greater Raleigh Chamber of Commerce, developer John Kane and planning director Mitchell Silver. The News & Observer newspaper started using the term for marketing purposes only. The Midtown Raleigh Alliance was founded on July 25, 2011 as a way for community leaders to promote the area.
Where is West Raleigh?
5726b1c6f1498d1400e8e7aa
along Hillsborough Street and Western Boulevard.
18
False
What is West Raleigh the home of?
5726b1c6f1498d1400e8e7ab
North Carolina State University
132
False
What arena is in the area?
5726b1c6f1498d1400e8e7ac
PNC Arena
472
False
What is the name of the hospital in West Raleigh?
5726b1c6f1498d1400e8e7ad
Rex Hospital.
598
False
How far is Rex Hospital from the fairgrounds?
5726b1c6f1498d1400e8e7ae
2 miles
585
False
Hillsborough Street and Western Boulevard
24
Where is East Raleigh?
5acd572b07355d001abf3dd0
True
North Carolina State University, Meredith College
132
What colleges are in North Raleigh?
5acd572b07355d001abf3dd1
True
North Carolina State Fairgrounds
519
What fairgrounds are 5 miles away from Rex Hospital?
5acd572b07355d001abf3dd2
True
Rex Hospital
598
What is the name of the hospital in East Raleigh?
5acd572b07355d001abf3dd3
True
PNC Arena
472
What arena is in East Raleigh?
5acd572b07355d001abf3dd4
True
West Raleigh lies along Hillsborough Street and Western Boulevard. The area is bordered to the west by suburban Cary. It is home to North Carolina State University, Meredith College, Pullen Park, Pullen Memorial Baptist Church, Cameron Village, Lake Johnson, the North Carolina Museum of Art and historic Saint Mary's School. Primary thoroughfares serving West Raleigh, in addition to Hillsborough Street, are Avent Ferry Road, Blue Ridge Road, and Western Boulevard. The PNC Arena is also located here adjacent to the North Carolina State Fairgrounds. These are located approximately 2 miles from Rex Hospital.
What are in the area?
5726b246708984140094ce19
large shopping areas.
291
False
What neighborhoods are in North Raleigh?
5726b246708984140094ce1a
Harrington Grove, Springdale, Dominion Park
377
False
What are the means of transportation in the area?
5726b246708984140094ce1b
U.S. Route 70, Interstate 540,
876
False
What type of area is North Raleigh?
5726b246708984140094ce1c
expansive, diverse, and fast-growing
20
False
North Raleigh
0
What area is slow-growing and not expansive?
5acd57aa07355d001abf3df6
True
North Raleigh
0
Where are subdivisions hard to find?
5acd57aa07355d001abf3df7
True
North Raleigh
0
What area is urban and not suburban?
5acd57aa07355d001abf3df8
True
North Raleigh
0
What area does Route 40 run through?
5acd57aa07355d001abf3df9
True
North Raleigh
0
What area does US 90 run through?
5acd57aa07355d001abf3dfa
True
North Raleigh is an expansive, diverse, and fast-growing suburban area of the city that is home to established neighborhoods to the south along with many newly built subdivisions and along its northern fringes. The area generally falls North of Millbrook Road. It is primarily suburban with large shopping areas. Primary neighborhoods and subdivisions in North Raleigh include Harrington Grove, Springdale, Dominion Park, Bedford, Bent Tree, Brentwood, Brier Creek, Brookhaven, Black Horse Run, Coachman's Trail, Crossgate, Crosswinds, Falls River, Hidden Valley, Lake Park, North Haven, North Ridge, Oakcroft, Shannon Woods, Six Forks Station, Springdale, Stonebridge, Stone Creek, Stonehenge, Summerfield, Valley Estates, Wakefield, Weathersfield, Windsor Forest, and Wood Valley. The area is served by a number of primary transportation corridors including Glenwood Avenue U.S. Route 70, Interstate 540, Wake Forest Road, Millbrook Road, Lynn Road, Six Forks Road, Spring Forest Road, Creedmoor Road, Leesville Road, Strickland Road, and North Hills Drive.
Where is South Raleigh?
5726b298f1498d1400e8e7d0
along U.S. 401 south toward Fuquay-Varina
25
False
What is different about South Raleigh?
5726b298f1498d1400e8e7d1
least developed and least dense
122
False
What borders South Raleigh to the west?
5726b298f1498d1400e8e7d2
Cary,
345
False
Where is Holly Springs compared to South Raleigh?
5726b298f1498d1400e8e7d3
southwest
385
False
What are some neighborhoods in South Raleigh?
5726b298f1498d1400e8e7d4
Renaissance Park, Lake Wheeler, Swift Creek
452
False
U.S. 401 south toward Fuquay-Varina
31
Where is North Raleigh?
5acd59a007355d001abf3e3a
True
least developed and least dense
122
What is not unique about South Raleigh?
5acd59a007355d001abf3e3b
True
Cary
345
What borders South Raleigh to the east?
5acd59a007355d001abf3e3c
True
Garner
366
What borders South Raleigh to the west?
5acd59a007355d001abf3e3d
True
Holly Springs
398
What borders South Raleigh to the north?
5acd59a007355d001abf3e3e
True
South Raleigh is located along U.S. 401 south toward Fuquay-Varina and along US 70 into suburban Garner. This area is the least developed and least dense area of Raleigh (much of the area lies within the Swift Creek watershed district, where development regulations limit housing densities and construction). The area is bordered to the west by Cary, to the east by Garner, and to the southwest by Holly Springs. Neighborhoods in South Raleigh include Renaissance Park, Lake Wheeler, Swift Creek, Carolina Pines, Rhamkatte, Riverbrooke, and Enchanted Oaks.
What is to the west of Southeast Raleigh?
5726b3445951b619008f7afb
downtown
32
False
What areas are in Southeast Raleigh?
5726b3445951b619008f7afc
Rock Quarry Road, Poole Road, and New Bern Avenue
149
False
What neighborhoods does Southeast Raleigh have?
5726b3445951b619008f7afd
Chastain, Chavis Heights, Raleigh Country Club,
230
False
What concert venue is in the area?
5726b3445951b619008f7afe
Time Warner Cable Music Pavilion
361
False
What university is in this part of Raleigh?
5726b3445951b619008f7aff
Shaw University
539
False
downtown
32
What is to the north of Southeast Raleigh?
5acd59e707355d001abf3e44
True
Rock Quarry Road, Poole Road, and New Bern Avenue
149
What areas are in Northeast Raleigh?
5acd59e707355d001abf3e45
True
Chavis Heights, Raleigh Country Club
240
What neighborhoods does Northeast Raleigh have?
5acd59e707355d001abf3e46
True
Time Warner Cable Music Pavilion
361
What concert venue is in northwest Raleigh
5acd59e707355d001abf3e47
True
Alltel Pavilion
404
What is the new name for the Time Warner Cable Music Pavilion?
5acd59e707355d001abf3e48
True
Southeast Raleigh is bounded by downtown on the west, Garner on the southwest, and rural Wake County to the southeast. The area includes areas along Rock Quarry Road, Poole Road, and New Bern Avenue. Primary neighborhoods include Chastain, Chavis Heights, Raleigh Country Club, Southgate, Kingwood Forest, Rochester Heights, Emerald Village and Biltmore Hills. Time Warner Cable Music Pavilion (formerly Alltel Pavilion and Walnut Creek Amphitheatre) is one of the region's major outdoor concert venues and is located on Rock Quarry Road. Shaw University is located in this part of the city.
What is the climate of Raleigh?
5726b3bc5951b619008f7b0f
humid subtropical climate
59
False
How many seasons are there in Raleigh?
5726b3bc5951b619008f7b10
four
104
False
How many nights in a year are there in Raleigh that are freezing?
5726b3bc5951b619008f7b11
69 nights per year
237
False
What month has the most precipitation?
5726b3bc5951b619008f7b12
July
507
False
What is the hottest temperature in Raleigh?
5726b3bc5951b619008f7b13
105
932
False
69
237
How many nights in a year are there in Raleigh that are above freezing?
5acd5ab907355d001abf3e8a
True
July 8, 2012
965
When did it get 110 degrees F?
5acd5ab907355d001abf3e8b
True
January 21, 1985
909
When was it as cold as -15 F?
5acd5ab907355d001abf3e8c
True
48 days
727
How many days go under 90 F?
5acd5ab907355d001abf3e8d
True
Like much of the southeastern United States, Raleigh has a humid subtropical climate (Köppen Cfa), with four distinct seasons. Winters are short and generally cool, with a January daily average of 41.0 °F (5.0 °C). On average, there are 69 nights per year that drop to or below freezing, and only 2.7 days that fail to rise above freezing. April is the driest month, with an average of 2.91 inches (73.9 mm) of precipitation. Precipitation is well distributed around the year, with a slight maximum between July and September; on average, July is the wettest month, owing to generally frequent, sometimes heavy, showers and thunderstorms. Summers are hot and humid, with a daily average in July of 80.0 °F (26.7 °C). There are 48 days per year with highs at or above 90 °F (32 °C). Autumn is similar to spring overall but has fewer days of rainfall. Extremes in temperature have ranged from −9 °F (−23 °C) on January 21, 1985 up to 105 °F (41 °C), most recently on July 8, 2012.
How much snow does Raleigh get?
5726b41e5951b619008f7b19
6.0 inches
31
False
When was the greatest snowfall?
5726b41e5951b619008f7b1a
January 24–25, 2000
189
False
How much snow did Raleigh get on January 24, 2000?
5726b41e5951b619008f7b1b
20.3 inches
271
False
What caused the Winter Storm of 2000?
5726b41e5951b619008f7b1c
cold air damming
380
False
What mountains are the city near?
5726b41e5951b619008f7b1d
Appalachian Mountains.
447
False
20.3 inches
271
How much snow did Raleigh get in January 2001?
5acd5bb107355d001abf3eb6
True
20.3 inches
271
How much snow fell on January 18 2001?
5acd5bb107355d001abf3eb7
True
Appalachian Mountains
447
What mountains are not in Raleigh?
5acd5bb107355d001abf3eb8
True
cold air damming
380
What caused the Summer Storm of 2000?
5acd5bb107355d001abf3eb9
True
Raleigh receives an average of 6.0 inches (15.2 cm) of snow in winter. Freezing rain and sleet also occur most winters, and occasionally the area experiences a major damaging ice storm. On January 24–25, 2000, Raleigh received its greatest snowfall from a single storm – 20.3 inches (52 cm) – the Winter Storm of January 2000. Storms of this magnitude are generally the result of cold air damming that affects the city due to its proximity to the Appalachian Mountains. Winter storms have caused traffic problems in the past as well.
What does the area experience?
5726b53b708984140094ce7d
drought
50
False
How does drought effect the city?
5726b53b708984140094ce7e
restricted water use
95
False
When does Raleigh experience hurricanes?
5726b53b708984140094ce7f
late summer and early fall
141
False
What was the name of the hurricane in 2003?
5726b53b708984140094ce80
Isabel
369
False
How big was the tornado in 2011?
5726b53b708984140094ce81
F3
647
False
Hurricane Fran
213
What hurricane landed in 1995?
5acd5d7d07355d001abf3ef4
True
Isabel
369
What hurricane hit in 2004?
5acd5d7d07355d001abf3ef5
True
tornado
481
What happened on November 26, 1988?
5acd5d7d07355d001abf3ef6
True
November 28, 1988
463
What date did a tornado hit the southwest portion?
5acd5d7d07355d001abf3ef7
True
April 16, 2011
632
What date did a tornado hit the east Raleigh?
5acd5d7d07355d001abf3ef8
True
The region also experiences occasional periods of drought, during which the city sometimes has restricted water use by residents. During the late summer and early fall, Raleigh can experience hurricanes. In 1996, Hurricane Fran caused severe damage in the Raleigh area, mostly from falling trees. The most recent hurricane to have a considerable effect on the area was Isabel in 2003. Tornadoes also have on occasion affected the city of Raleigh most notably the November 28, 1988 tornado which occurred in the early morning hours and rated an F4 on the Fujita Tornado Scale and affected Northwestern portions of the city. Also the April 16, 2011 F3 Tornado which affected portions of downtown and North east Raleigh and the suburb of Holly Springs.
How many families lived in Raleigh in 2000?
5726b58df1498d1400e8e844
61,371
101
False
What is the population density of Raleigh?
5726b58df1498d1400e8e845
2,409.2 people per square mile
165
False
How many housing units were in Raleigh?
5726b58df1498d1400e8e846
120,699 housing
220
False
What percentage of people in Raleigh are white?
5726b58df1498d1400e8e847
63.31%
344
False
How many Native Hawaiian are in Raleigh?
5726b58df1498d1400e8e848
0.04%
472
False
61,371
101
How many families moved out of Raleigh in 2000?
5acd5e3407355d001abf3f26
True
120,699
220
How many housing units were destroyed in Raleigh?
5acd5e3407355d001abf3f27
True
0.36%
449
What percentage of Native Americans left Raleigh?
5acd5e3407355d001abf3f28
True
1.88%
548
What percentage are three or more races?
5acd5e3407355d001abf3f29
True
380,173
88
What was the June 2008 estimated population?
5acd5e3407355d001abf3f2a
True
As of the 2000 United States census, there were 276,093 persons (July 2008 estimate was 380,173) and 61,371 families residing in Raleigh. The population density was 2,409.2 people per square mile (930.2/km²). There were 120,699 housing units at an average density of 1,053.2 per square mile (406.7/km²). The racial composition of the city was: 63.31% White, 27.80% Black or African American, 7.01% Hispanic or Latino American, 3.38% Asian American, 0.36% Native American, 0.04% Native Hawaiian or Other Pacific Islander, 3.24% some other race, and 1.88% two or more races.
What percent of households had children in 2000?
5726b67f708984140094cea3
26.5%
60
False
39.5% of the households comprised of what?
5726b67f708984140094cea4
married couples living together
128
False
How many people lived alone in 2000?
5726b67f708984140094cea5
33.1%
336
False
How many households had someone 65 or older?
5726b67f708984140094cea6
6.2%
412
False
What was the average family size?
5726b67f708984140094cea7
2.97 persons.
543
False
112,608
11
How many households were there in 2001?
5acd5f1607355d001abf3f5c
True
26.5%
60
What is the percentage of children are under 10?
5acd5f1607355d001abf3f5d
True
33.1%
336
How many people lived alone in 2004?
5acd5f1607355d001abf3f5e
True
26.5%
60
What percent of households had children in 2008?
5acd5f1607355d001abf3f5f
True
6.2%
412
What percentage were 70 and older?
5acd5f1607355d001abf3f60
True
There were 112,608 households in the city in 2000, of which 26.5% included children below the age of 18, 39.5% were composed of married couples living together, 11.4% reported a female householder with no husband present, and 45.5% classified themselves as nonfamily. Unmarried partners were present in 2.2% of households. In addition, 33.1% of all households were composed of individuals living alone, of which 6.2% was someone 65 years of age or older. The average household size in Raleigh was 2.30 persons, and the average family size was 2.97 persons.
How many people are affiliated with religion?
5726b6dcf1498d1400e8e88c
46.41% of people
74
False
What is the main religion of Raleigh?
5726b6dcf1498d1400e8e88d
Christianity
173
False
What percent of Baptists are there in Raleigh?
5726b6dcf1498d1400e8e88e
10.85
264
False
What other denominations are there in Raleigh?
5726b6dcf1498d1400e8e88f
Eastern Orthodox, Coptic Orthodox, Jehovah's Witness,
473
False
How large of a percent does Lutheran's take up?
5726b6dcf1498d1400e8e890
1.06%
386
False
46.41%
74
How many people are affiliated with religion in 2014?
5acd5f9907355d001abf3f7a
True
Christianity
173
What religion is not present in Raleigh
5acd5f9907355d001abf3f7b
True
10.85%
264
What percent of Baptists are there outside of Raleigh?
5acd5f9907355d001abf3f7c
True
Eastern Orthodox, Coptic Orthodox, Jehovah's Witness
473
What other denominations are there outside of Raleigh?
5acd5f9907355d001abf3f7d
True
0.99%
413
What percentage are Buddhist?
5acd5f9907355d001abf3f7e
True
Raleigh is home to a wide variety of religious practitioners. As of 2013, 46.41% of people in Raleigh are affiliated with a religion. The predominant religion in Raleigh is Christianity, with the largest numbers of adherents being Roman Catholic (11.3%), Baptist (10.85%), and Methodist (7.08%). Others include Presbyterian (2.52%), Pentecostal (1.99%), Episcopalian (1.12%), Lutheran (1.06%), Latter-Day Saints (0.99%), and other Christian denominations (6.68%) including Eastern Orthodox, Coptic Orthodox, Jehovah's Witness, Christian Science, Christian Unitarianism, other Mainline Protestant groups, and non-denominational.
What is the main industrial area of Raleigh?
5726b737708984140094cec9
banking/financial services;
35
False
What is Raleigh part of?
5726b737708984140094ceca
North Carolina's Research Triangle
224
False
What does the Research Triangle do?
5726b737708984140094cecb
high-tech and biotech research
369
False
Is the city concerned with shipping?
5726b737708984140094cecc
The city is a major retail shipping point
442
False
What industry is Raleigh a major wholesaler for?
5726b737708984140094cecd
grocery
554
False
banking/financial
35
What is not the main industrial area of Raleigh?
5acd600907355d001abf3f98
True
Research Triangle
241
What is Raleigh not part of?
5acd600907355d001abf3f99
True
high-tech and biotech research
369
What does the Research Square do?
5acd600907355d001abf3f9a
True
retail shipping point
462
What is on the west coast of North Carolina?
5acd600907355d001abf3f9b
True
Research Triangle
241
What is the country's largest medical research in North Carolina?
5acd600907355d001abf3f9c
True
Raleigh's industrial base includes banking/financial services; electrical, medical, electronic and telecommunications equipment; clothing and apparel; food processing; paper products; and pharmaceuticals. Raleigh is part of North Carolina's Research Triangle, one of the country's largest and most successful research parks, and a major center in the United States for high-tech and biotech research, as well as advanced textile development. The city is a major retail shipping point for eastern North Carolina and a wholesale distributing point for the grocery industry.
Where are major touring acts hosted in the city?
5726b79bdd62a815002e8de8
The Time Warner Cable Music Pavilion
0
False
What is the Red Hat Amphitheater also called?
5726b79bdd62a815002e8de9
Downtown Raleigh Amphitheater
106
False
What event plaza is in Cary?
5726b79bdd62a815002e8dea
Koka Booth Amphitheatre
417
False
Where is the North Carolina State Fair?
5726b79bdd62a815002e8deb
Dorton Arena
652
False
What is the Lincoln Theater downtown?
5726b79bdd62a815002e8dec
one of several clubs in downtown Raleigh that schedules many concerts
717
False
Downtown Raleigh Amphitheater
106
What opened in 2012?
5acd607c07355d001abf3fb4
True
Downtown Raleigh Amphitheater
106
What used to be known as Red Hat?
5acd607c07355d001abf3fb5
True
Dorton Arena
652
Where is the North Carolina County Fair?
5acd607c07355d001abf3fb6
True
one of several clubs in downtown
717
What is the Ford Theater downtown?
5acd607c07355d001abf3fb7
True
The Time Warner Cable Music Pavilion at Walnut Creek hosts major international touring acts. In 2011, the Downtown Raleigh Amphitheater opened (now sponsored as the Red Hat Amphitheater), which hosts numerous concerts primarily in the summer months. An additional amphitheater sits on the grounds of the North Carolina Museum of Art, which hosts a summer concert series and outdoor movies. Nearby Cary is home to the Koka Booth Amphitheatre which hosts additional summer concerts and outdoor movies, and serves as the venue for regularly scheduled outdoor concerts by the North Carolina Symphony based in Raleigh. During the North Carolina State Fair, Dorton Arena hosts headline acts. The private Lincoln Theatre is one of several clubs in downtown Raleigh that schedules many concerts throughout the year in multiple formats (rock, pop, country).
Where is the Raleigh Memorial Auditorium?
5726b7f6708984140094ceed
Duke Energy Center for the Performing Arts
4
False
What other theater is in the Duke Energy Center?
5726b7f6708984140094ceee
Fletcher Opera Theater
99
False
When did the Meymandi Theater open?
5726b7f6708984140094ceef
2008
178
False
Where else can one see a theater performance?
5726b7f6708984140094cef0
Raleigh Little Theatre
364
False
What theaters are at North Carolina State University?
5726b7f6708984140094cef1
Stewart and Thompson Theaters
450
False
2008
178
When did the Meymandi Theater close?
5acd60f107355d001abf3fd0
True
Duke Energy Center for the Performing Arts complex
4
Where is Raleigh Memorial Auditorium?
5acd60f107355d001abf3fd1
True
Meymandi Theatre
209
Where can one go to watch a movie?
5acd60f107355d001abf3fd2
True
Meymandi Theatre
209
What theater opened in the old Long View school?
5acd60f107355d001abf3fd3
True
Murphey School
233
What school is brand new?
5acd60f107355d001abf3fd4
True
The Duke Energy Center for the Performing Arts complex houses the Raleigh Memorial Auditorium, the Fletcher Opera Theater, the Kennedy Theatre, and the Meymandi Concert Hall. In 2008, a new theatre space, the Meymandi Theatre at the Murphey School, was opened in the restored auditorium of the historic Murphey School. Theater performances are also offered at the Raleigh Little Theatre, Long View Center, Ira David Wood III Pullen Park Theatre, and Stewart and Thompson Theaters at North Carolina State University.
What is the North Carolina Museum of Art near?
5726b8c8dd62a815002e8e30
North Carolina State Fairgrounds
92
False
What type of art is in the Museum of Art?
5726b8c8dd62a815002e8e31
American Art, European Art and ancient art,
269
False
When was the Auguste Rodine exhibit?
5726b8c8dd62a815002e8e32
2000
390
False
How many people attended the Monet exhibit?
5726b8c8dd62a815002e8e33
200,000
453
False
How did the museum get the artworks they have?
5726b8c8dd62a815002e8e34
public funds
630
False
North Carolina State Fairgrounds
92
What is the North Carolina Museum of Art far away from?
5acd615d07355d001abf3ffe
True
Auguste Rodin
372
What exhibit was in 2001?
5acd615d07355d001abf3fff
True
200,000
453
How many people attended the da Vinci exhibit?
5acd615d07355d001abf4000
True
2010
834
When was the exhibit closed?
5acd615d07355d001abf4001
True
Thomas Phifer
898
What architect from Missouri completed the museum?
5acd615d07355d001abf4002
True
North Carolina Museum of Art, occupying a large suburban campus on Blue Ridge Road near the North Carolina State Fairgrounds, maintains one of the premier public art collections located between Washington, D.C., and Atlanta. In addition to its extensive collections of American Art, European Art and ancient art, the museum recently has hosted major exhibitions featuring Auguste Rodin (in 2000) and Claude Monet (in 2006-07), each attracting more than 200,000 visitors. Unlike most prominent public museums, the North Carolina Museum of Art acquired a large number of the works in its permanent collection through purchases with public funds. The museum's outdoor park is one of the largest such art parks in the country. The museum facility underwent a major expansion which greatly expanded the exhibit space that was completed in 2010. The 127,000 sf new expansion is designed by NYC architect Thomas Phifer and Partners.
When did the Carolina Hurricanes start in Raleigh?
5726b92a708984140094cf31
1997
79
False
Where did the Hurricanes play their first two seasons?
5726b92a708984140094cf32
Greensboro Coliseum
222
False
What is the home stadium of the Carolina Hurricanes called?
5726b92a708984140094cf33
PNC Arena
329
False
What is the only professional sports team in North Carolina?
5726b92a708984140094cf34
National Hockey League's Carolina Hurricanes
4
False
When did the Carolina Hurricanes win the Stanley Cup?
5726b92a708984140094cf35
2006
525
False
1997
79
When did the Carolina Hurricanes leave Raleigh?
5acd620507355d001abf401a
True
Greensboro Coliseum
222
Where did the Hurricanes play their last two seasons?
5acd620507355d001abf401b
True
2006
525
When did the Carolina Hurricanes lose the Stanley Cup?
5acd620507355d001abf401c
True
2011
585
When did the city refuse to host the NHL All-Star game?
5acd620507355d001abf401d
True
RBC Center
310
What did PNC change it's name to?
5acd620507355d001abf401e
True
The National Hockey League's Carolina Hurricanes franchise moved to Raleigh in 1997 from Hartford, Connecticut (where it was known as the Hartford Whalers). The team played its first two seasons more than 60 miles away at Greensboro Coliseum while its home arena, Raleigh Entertainment and Sports Arena (later RBC Center and now PNC Arena), was under construction. The Hurricanes are the only major league (NFL, NHL, NBA, MLB) professional sports team in North Carolina to have won a championship, winning the Stanley Cup in 2006, over the Edmonton Oilers. The city played host to the 2011 NHL All-Star Game.
What sports teams have been in Raleigh?
5726b98f5951b619008f7bdd
Raleigh IceCaps of the ECHL (1991–1998); Carolina Cobras of the Arena Football
109
False
What was the name of the GBA team in Raleigh?
5726b98f5951b619008f7bde
Raleigh Bullfrogs
289
False
When did the Raleigh Cougars play?
5726b98f5951b619008f7bdf
1997–1999
417
False
What type of team was the Carolina Courage?
5726b98f5951b619008f7be0
Women's United Soccer
476
False
What year did the Carolina Courage win the Founders Cup?
5726b98f5951b619008f7be1
2002
619
False
Global Basketball Association
314
What league did the Raleigh Bulldogs play in?
5acd628907355d001abf4024
True
Raleigh IceCaps
109
What team quit the ECHL in 1991?
5acd628907355d001abf4025
True
Carolina Cobras
150
What arena football team started in 2004?
5acd628907355d001abf4026
True
Carolina Courage
452
What team lost the soccer championship in 2002?
5acd628907355d001abf4027
True
Carolina Courage
452
What team played soccer in Chapel hill in 2004?
5acd628907355d001abf4028
True
Several other professional sports leagues have had former franchises (now defunct) in Raleigh, including the Raleigh IceCaps of the ECHL (1991–1998); Carolina Cobras of the Arena Football League (2000–2004); the Raleigh–Durham Skyhawks of the World League of American Football (1991); the Raleigh Bullfrogs of the Global Basketball Association (1991–1992); the Raleigh Cougars of the United States Basketball League (1997–1999); and most recently, the Carolina Courage of the Women's United Soccer Association (2000–2001 in Chapel Hill, 2001–2003 in suburban Cary), which won that league's championship Founders Cup in 2002.
Where is North Carolina State University?
5726ba1add62a815002e8e56
southwest Raleigh
46
False
What is the mascot for North Carolina State University?
5726ba1add62a815002e8e57
Wolfpack
74
False
Where does the football team for North Carolina State University play?
5726ba1add62a815002e8e58
Carter-Finley Stadium
226
False
How big is Carter Finley Stadium?
5726ba1add62a815002e8e59
third largest football stadium in North Carolina
253
False
Where does North Carolina State University men's wrestling compete?
5726ba1add62a815002e8e5a
Reynolds Coliseum
514
False
North Carolina State University
0
What college is in Northwest Raleigh?
5acd633007355d001abf4042
True
Carter-Finley Stadium
226
What is the fourth largest football stadium in North Carolina?
5acd633007355d001abf4043
True
Carter-Finley Stadium
226
What is the largest stadium in North Carolina?
5acd633007355d001abf4044
True
Carter-Finley Stadium
226
What is the smallest stadium in North Carolina?
5acd633007355d001abf4045
True
Reynolds Coliseum
514
Where does women's wrestling compete?
5acd633007355d001abf4046
True
North Carolina State University is located in southwest Raleigh where the Wolfpack competes nationally in 24 intercollegiate varsity sports as a member of the Atlantic Coast Conference. The university's football team plays in Carter-Finley Stadium, the third largest football stadium in North Carolina, while the men's basketball team shares the PNC Arena with the Carolina Hurricanes hockey club. The Wolfpack women's basketball, volleyball, and gymnastics as well as men's wrestling events are held on campus at Reynolds Coliseum. The men's baseball team plays at Doak Field.
How many sites are throughout Raleigh?
5726baec708984140094cf71
150
104
False
What are there 8,100 acres of in Raleigh?
5726baec708984140094cf72
park land,
174
False
What type of race track is in Raleigh?
5726baec708984140094cf73
BMX championship-caliber
240
False
How many public lakes are in Raleigh?
5726baec708984140094cf74
5 public lakes,
315
False
What is the name of the arboretum?
5726baec708984140094cf75
J. C. Raulston Arboretum
368
False
The Raleigh Parks and Recreation Department
0
What has more than 200 sites throughout the city?
5acd63d307355d001abf404c
True
150
104
How many parks were new this year?
5acd63d307355d001abf404d
True
C. Raulston Arboretum
371
What is the 10-acre arboretum called?
5acd63d307355d001abf404e
True
112
277
How many football stadiums are there?
5acd63d307355d001abf404f
True
8
335
How many ponds are there?
5acd63d307355d001abf4050
True
The Raleigh Parks and Recreation Department offers a wide variety of leisure opportunities at more than 150 sites throughout the city, which include: 8,100 acres (33 km2) of park land, 78 miles (126 km) of greenway, 22 community centers, a BMX championship-caliber race track, 112 tennis courts among 25 locations, 5 public lakes, and 8 public aquatic facilities. The J. C. Raulston Arboretum, an 8-acre (32,000 m²) arboretum and botanical garden in west Raleigh administered by North Carolina State University, maintains a year-round collection that is open daily to the public without charge.
How many incidents of violent crime were there in 2010?
5726bb4add62a815002e8e88
1,740
152
False
What were there 12,995 of in 2010?
5726bb4add62a815002e8e89
property crime
209
False
How does Raleigh compare in crime to the rest of the country?
5726bb4add62a815002e8e8a
far below both the national average
226
False
How many murders were in Raleigh in 2010?
5726bb4add62a815002e8e8b
14
326
False
How many incidents of motor vehicle theft were there in 2010?
5726bb4add62a815002e8e8c
870
624
False
1,740
152
How many incidents of violent crime were there in 2011?
5acd640c07355d001abf4056
True
property crime
209
What were there 15,995 of in 2010?
5acd640c07355d001abf4057
True
14
326
How many murders were in Raleigh in 2015?
5acd640c07355d001abf4058
True
99
343
How many rapes were there in 2001?
5acd640c07355d001abf4059
True
870
624
How many motor vehicle thefts were in 2004?
5acd640c07355d001abf405a
True
According to the Federal Bureau of Investigation's Uniform Crime Reports, in 2010 the Raleigh Police Department and other agencies in the city reported 1,740 incidents of violent crime and 12,995 incidents of property crime – far below both the national average and the North Carolina average. Of the violent crimes reported, 14 were murders, 99 were forcible rapes and 643 were robberies. Aggravated assault accounted for 984 of the total violent crimes. Property crimes included burglaries which accounted for 3,021, larcenies for 9,104 and arson for 63 of the total number of incidents. Motor vehicle theft accounted for 870 incidents out of the total.
Who operates the public schools in Raleigh?
5726bbc15951b619008f7c55
Wake County Public School System
46
False
What is the school system praised for?
5726bbc15951b619008f7c56
innovative efforts to maintain a socially, economically and racial balanced system
148
False
How many magnet schools are there in Raleigh?
5726bbc15951b619008f7c57
three
318
False
What type of degree can you get from a high school in Raleigh?
5726bbc15951b619008f7c58
International Baccalaureate
380
False
Does Raleigh have alternate high schools?
5726bbc15951b619008f7c59
Raleigh also has two alternative high schools.
471
False
Wake County
46
What is the private school name?
5acd648707355d001abf407c
True
innovative efforts to maintain a socially, economically and racial balanced system by using income as a prime factor in assigning students to schools
148
What is the school system criticized for?
5acd648707355d001abf407d
True
Wake County
107
What college can you get a International Baccalaureate from?
5acd648707355d001abf407e
True
three
318
How many non-magnet schools are in Raleigh?
5acd648707355d001abf407f
True
two
488
How many non-alternative high schools are there?
5acd648707355d001abf4080
True
Public schools in Raleigh are operated by the Wake County Public School System. Observers have praised the Wake County Public School System for its innovative efforts to maintain a socially, economically and racial balanced system by using income as a prime factor in assigning students to schools. Raleigh is home to three magnet high schools and three high schools offering the International Baccalaureate program. There are four early college high schools in Raleigh. Raleigh also has two alternative high schools.
What is the area's primary airport?
5726bc32dd62a815002e8eb0
Raleigh-Durham International Airport,
0
False
Where is Raleigh-Durham International Airport?
5726bc32dd62a815002e8eb1
Interstate-40 between Raleigh and Durham
151
False
How many destinations does the airport offer internationally?
5726bc32dd62a815002e8eb2
35
343
False
What are there 10 million of each year at the airport?
5726bc32dd62a815002e8eb3
passengers
422
False
What was Terminal 2 formerly called at the airport?
5726bc32dd62a815002e8eb4
Terminal C
575
False
Raleigh-Durham
0
What is the area's least used airport?
5acd64d007355d001abf4086
True
Terminal 2
554
What was terminal C formerly known as?
5acd64d007355d001abf4087
True
authority tripled the size of its Terminal 2
520
What happened at the airport in January 2001?
5acd64d007355d001abf4088
True
passengers
422
What are there 20 million of each year at the airport?
5acd64d007355d001abf4089
True
Raleigh-Durham International Airport, the region's primary airport and the second-largest in North Carolina, located northwest of downtown Raleigh via Interstate-40 between Raleigh and Durham, serves the city and greater Research Triangle metropolitan region, as well as much of eastern North Carolina. The airport offers service to more than 35 domestic and international destinations and serves approximately 10 million passengers a year. The airport also offers facilities for cargo and general aviation. The airport authority tripled the size of its Terminal 2 (formerly Terminal C) in January 2011.
What was Triangle Transit called before?
5726bc975951b619008f7c8b
Triangle Transit Authority,
66
False
What does Triangle Transit offer?
5726bc975951b619008f7c8c
scheduled, fixed-route regional and commuter bus service
127
False
Where else does Triangle Transit go to?
5726bc975951b619008f7c8d
Raleigh-Durham International Airport, Research Triangle Park
300
False
Does Triangle Transit have a van service?
5726bc975951b619008f7c8e
Triangle Transit also coordinates an extensive vanpool
418
False
Are employers connected with Triangle Transit?
5726bc975951b619008f7c8f
rideshare program that serves the region's larger employers
477
False
Triangle Transit Authority
66
What is the new name for Triangle Transit?
5acd653907355d001abf40a0
True
scheduled, fixed-route regional and commuter bus service
127
What does Triangle Transit not offer?
5acd653907355d001abf40a1
True
commuter bus service
163
What is the square transit?
5acd653907355d001abf40a2
True
Triangle Transit
103
What doesn't go between Raleigh and other cities?
5acd653907355d001abf40a3
True
Raleigh is also served by Triangle Transit (known formerly as the Triangle Transit Authority, or TTA). Triangle Transit offers scheduled, fixed-route regional and commuter bus service between Raleigh and the region's other principal cities of Durham, Cary and Chapel Hill, as well as to and from the Raleigh-Durham International Airport, Research Triangle Park and several of the region's larger suburban communities. Triangle Transit also coordinates an extensive vanpool and rideshare program that serves the region's larger employers and commute destinations.
Nutrition
What does RDN stand for?
5726abdb5951b619008f7999
Registered dietitian nutritionists
0
False
Who offers dietary advice on the role of nutrition in chronic diseases?
5726abdb5951b619008f799a
Certified Clinical Nutritionists
365
False
For which health professional is Governmental regulation more universal?
5726abdb5951b619008f799b
RDN
741
False
Who typically specializes in obesity and chronic disease?
5726abdb5951b619008f799c
Certified Nutrition Specialist
791
False
Registered dietitian nutritionists (RDs or RDNs) are health professionals qualified to provide safe, evidence-based dietary advice which includes a review of what is eaten, a thorough review of nutritional health, and a personalized nutritional treatment plan. They also provide preventive and therapeutic programs at work places, schools and similar institutions. Certified Clinical Nutritionists or CCNs, are trained health professionals who also offer dietary advice on the role of nutrition in chronic disease, including possible prevention or remediation by addressing nutritional deficiencies before resorting to drugs. Government regulation especially in terms of licensing, is currently less universal for the CCN than that of RD or RDN. Another advanced Nutrition Professional is a Certified Nutrition Specialist or CNS. These Board Certified Nutritionists typically specialize in obesity and chronic disease. In order to become board certified, potential CNS candidate must pass an examination, much like Registered Dieticians. This exam covers specific domains within the health sphere including; Clinical Intervention and Human Health.
In which time period did the study of nutrition begin?
5726ac5b5951b619008f79a9
6th century BC
78
False
What is the European equivalent of "Qi"?
5726ac5b5951b619008f79aa
pneuma
199
False
What kind of food classification does ginger belong to?
5726ac5b5951b619008f79ab
hot
233
False
What nationality was Alcmaeon of Croton?
5726ac5b5951b619008f79ac
Greek
648
False
Other than obesity, what else would trademark an imbalance in nutrition?
5726ac5b5951b619008f79ad
emaciation
802
False
According to Walter Gratzer, the study of nutrition probably began during the 6th century BC. In China, the concept of Qi developed, a spirit or "wind" similar to what Western Europeans later called pneuma. Food was classified into "hot" (for example, meats, blood, ginger, and hot spices) and "cold" (green vegetables) in China, India, Malaya, and Persia. Humours developed perhaps first in China alongside qi. Ho the Physician concluded that diseases are caused by deficiencies of elements (Wu Xing: fire, water, earth, wood, and metal), and he classified diseases as well as prescribed diets. About the same time in Italy, Alcmaeon of Croton (a Greek) wrote of the importance of equilibrium between what goes in and what goes out, and warned that imbalance would result disease marked by obesity or emaciation.
What does the Book of Daniel contain?
5726acfcf1498d1400e8e6d4
first recorded nutritional experiment with human subjects
4
False
Which country was being invaded when Daniel and his friends were captured?
5726acfcf1498d1400e8e6d5
Israel
184
False
What occupation were Daniel and his friends originally meant to have?
5726acfcf1498d1400e8e6d6
court servants
204
False
How long did the trial diet last?
5726acfcf1498d1400e8e6d7
10 days
491
False
What is another term for vegetables that was used?
5726acfcf1498d1400e8e6d8
pulses
316
False
The first recorded nutritional experiment with human subjects is found in the Bible's Book of Daniel. Daniel and his friends were captured by the king of Babylon during an invasion of Israel. Selected as court servants, they were to share in the king's fine foods and wine. But they objected, preferring vegetables (pulses) and water in accordance with their Jewish dietary restrictions. The king's chief steward reluctantly agreed to a trial. Daniel and his friends received their diet for 10 days and were then compared to the king's men. Appearing healthier, they were allowed to continue with their diet.
How long was the doctrines of Galen in use for?
5726adf95951b619008f7a0b
1500 years
151
False
Which famous emperor did Galen serve as a physician to?
5726adf95951b619008f7a0c
Marcus Aurelius
236
False
Who resided at the School of Salerno in Regimen sanitatis Salernitanum?
5726adf95951b619008f7a0d
Benedictine monks
375
False
What did Galen believe that pneuma was?
5726adf95951b619008f7a0e
the source of life
578
False
What did each pair of attributes supposedly consist of?
5726adf95951b619008f7a0f
four humours
897
False
One mustn't overlook the doctrines of Galen: In use from his life in the 1st century AD until the 17th century, it was heresy to disagree with him for 1500 years. Galen was physician to gladiators in Pergamon, and in Rome, physician to Marcus Aurelius and the three emperors who succeeded him. Most of Galen's teachings were gathered and enhanced in the late 11th century by Benedictine monks at the School of Salerno in Regimen sanitatis Salernitanum, which still had users in the 17th century. Galen believed in the bodily humours of Hippocrates, and he taught that pneuma is the source of life. Four elements (earth, air, fire and water) combine into "complexion", which combines into states (the four temperaments: sanguine, phlegmatic, choleric, and melancholic). The states are made up of pairs of attributes (hot and moist, cold and moist, hot and dry, and cold and dry), which are made of four humours: blood, phlegm, green (or yellow) bile, and black bile (the bodily form of the elements). Galen thought that for a person to have gout, kidney stones, or arthritis was scandalous, which Gratzer likens to Samuel Butler's Erehwon (1872) where sickness is a crime.
Who criticized Galen in the 1500s?
5726aefadd62a815002e8cec
Paracelsus
14
False
What was a burning candle comparable to?
5726aefadd62a815002e8ced
metabolism
151
False
Which famous artist did not agree with Galen's theories?
5726aefadd62a815002e8cee
Leonardo da Vinci
124
False
Which well known gas did Jan Baptist van Helmont discover?
5726aefadd62a815002e8cef
carbon dioxide
652
False
Which scientist was able to create a model for the digestive process?
5726aefadd62a815002e8cf0
Herman Boerhaave
789
False
In the 1500s, Paracelsus was probably the first to criticize Galen publicly. Also in the 16th century, scientist and artist Leonardo da Vinci compared metabolism to a burning candle. Leonardo did not publish his works on this subject, but he was not afraid of thinking for himself and he definitely disagreed with Galen. Ultimately, 16th century works of Andreas Vesalius, sometimes called the father of modern medicine, overturned Galen's ideas. He was followed by piercing thought amalgamated with the era's mysticism and religion sometimes fueled by the mechanics of Newton and Galileo. Jan Baptist van Helmont, who discovered several gases such as carbon dioxide, performed the first quantitative experiment. Robert Boyle advanced chemistry. Sanctorius measured body weight. Physician Herman Boerhaave modeled the digestive process. Physiologist Albrecht von Haller worked out the difference between nerves and muscles.
When was the first nutrition experiment performed?
5726b2725951b619008f7add
1747
138
False
What was the name of the overlooked physician that served in the British Navy?
5726b2725951b619008f7ade
James Lind
38
False
The juice of which fruit was determined to have helped sailors from contracting scurvy?
5726b2725951b619008f7adf
lime
165
False
How many sailors died from scurvy between the years 1500 and 1800?
5726b2725951b619008f7ae0
two million
310
False
Which nickname was given to the British sailors?
5726b2725951b619008f7ae1
limeys
438
False
Sometimes overlooked during his life, James Lind, a physician in the British navy, performed the first scientific nutrition experiment in 1747. Lind discovered that lime juice saved sailors that had been at sea for years from scurvy, a deadly and painful bleeding disorder. Between 1500 and 1800, an estimated two million sailors had died of scurvy. The discovery was ignored for forty years, after which British sailors became known as "limeys." The essential vitamin C within citrus fruits would not be identified by scientists until 1932.
Which dietary component was not fed to dogs resulting in their death?
5726b33af1498d1400e8e7ee
protein
185
False
Who first began dividing foods into categories?
5726b33af1498d1400e8e7ef
William Prout
228
False
Who did Justus von Liebig argue with over the belief that animals get protein from plants?
5726b33af1498d1400e8e7f0
Jean-Baptiste Dumas
350
False
Which credientials did Liebig lack despite being a leading organic chemist?
5726b33af1498d1400e8e7f1
animal physiology
656
False
What can be synthesized using carbohydrates and proteins?
5726b33af1498d1400e8e7f2
body fat
858
False
In 1816, François Magendie discovered that dogs fed only carbohydrates (sugar), fat (olive oil), and water died evidently of starvation, but dogs also fed protein survived, identifying protein as an essential dietary component. William Prout in 1827 was the first person to divide foods into carbohydrates, fat, and protein. During the 19th century, Jean-Baptiste Dumas and Justus von Liebig quarrelled over their shared belief that animals get their protein directly from plants (animal and plant protein are the same and that humans do not create organic compounds). With a reputation as the leading organic chemist of his day but with no credentials in animal physiology, Liebig grew rich making food extracts like beef bouillon and infant formula that were later found to be of questionable nutritious value. In the 1860s, Claude Bernard discovered that body fat can be synthesized from carbohydrate and protein, showing that the energy in blood glucose can be stored as fat or as glycogen.
What was the main component of Japanese sailor's diet?
5726b410708984140094ce4b
white rice
109
False
What is the scientific term for beriberi?
5726b410708984140094ce4c
endemic neuritis
144
False
What major symptom other than heart problems did beriberi cause?
5726b410708984140094ce4d
paralysis
199
False
Who made the observation that the Japanese sailor's diet was the cause for them developing beriberi?
5726b410708984140094ce4e
Kanehiro Takaki
20
False
What was introduced to the diet on a molecular level that prevented the sailors from contracting the disease?
5726b410708984140094ce4f
thiamine
479
False
In the early 1880s, Kanehiro Takaki observed that Japanese sailors (whose diets consisted almost entirely of white rice) developed beriberi (or endemic neuritis, a disease causing heart problems and paralysis), but British sailors and Japanese naval officers did not. Adding various types of vegetables and meats to the diets of Japanese sailors prevented the disease, (not because of the increased protein as Takaki supposed but because it introduced a few parts per million of thiamine to the diet, later understood as a cure).
What element can be found in thyroid glands?
5726b4a9f1498d1400e8e828
iodine
32
False
What group of natives suffered from beriberi?
5726b4a9f1498d1400e8e829
Java
109
False
Who worked with the natives to help solve their dietary issues?
5726b4a9f1498d1400e8e82a
Christiaan Eijkman
67
False
What simple alternative food prevented the development of beriberi in chickens?
5726b4a9f1498d1400e8e82b
unprocessed brown rice with the outer bran intact
278
False
How long after the natives were cured did it take for people to figure out the reason that brown rice cured them?
5726b4a9f1498d1400e8e82c
two decades
428
False
In 1896, Eugen Baumann observed iodine in thyroid glands. In 1897, Christiaan Eijkman worked with natives of Java, who also suffered from beriberi. Eijkman observed that chickens fed the native diet of white rice developed the symptoms of beriberi but remained healthy when fed unprocessed brown rice with the outer bran intact. Eijkman cured the natives by feeding them brown rice, discovering that food can cure disease. Over two decades later, nutritionists learned that the outer rice bran contains vitamin B1, also known as thiamine.
What was measured in the early 20th century?
5726b672dd62a815002e8daa
caloric energy expenditure
79
False
What did Carl von Voit and Max Rubner apply to nutrition in order to receive their results?
5726b672dd62a815002e8dab
principles of physics
148
False
Which amino acid can assist with the well - being of mice but not necessarily their growth?
5726b672dd62a815002e8dac
tryptophan
260
False
What did Hopkins believe was required other than calories, protein and minerals to help prevent deficiency diseases?
5726b672dd62a815002e8dad
unsuspected dietetic factors
431
False
Which experiment related to diet was conducted that required four years to complete?
5726b672dd62a815002e8dae
single-grain experiment
609
False
In the early 20th century, Carl von Voit and Max Rubner independently measured caloric energy expenditure in different species of animals, applying principles of physics in nutrition. In 1906, Edith G. Willcock and Frederick Hopkins showed that the amino acid tryptophan aids the well-being of mice but it did not assure their growth. In the middle of twelve years of attempts to isolate them, Hopkins said in a 1906 lecture that "unsuspected dietetic factors," other than calories, protein, and minerals, are needed to prevent deficiency diseases. In 1907, Stephen M. Babcock and Edwin B. Hart conducted the single-grain experiment, which took nearly four years to complete.
What was notable about the discovered vitamin A?
5726b763708984140094ced3
fat-soluble
55
False
Which property was vitamin B found to have?
5726b763708984140094ced4
water-soluble
82
False
Which disease was vitamin C claimed to help prevent?
5726b763708984140094ced5
scurvy
238
False
What was cod liver oil able to help cure in dogs?
5726b763708984140094ced6
rickets
386
False
What was referred to as "food factor X"?
5726b763708984140094ced7
vitamin E
622
False
In 1913, Elmer McCollum discovered the first vitamins, fat-soluble vitamin A, and water-soluble vitamin B (in 1915; now known to be a complex of several water-soluble vitamins) and named vitamin C as the then-unknown substance preventing scurvy. Lafayette Mendel and Thomas Osborne also performed pioneering work on vitamins A and B. In 1919, Sir Edward Mellanby incorrectly identified rickets as a vitamin A deficiency because he could cure it in dogs with cod liver oil. In 1922, McCollum destroyed the vitamin A in cod liver oil, but found that it still cured rickets. Also in 1922, H.M. Evans and L.S. Bishop discover vitamin E as essential for rat pregnancy, originally calling it "food factor X" until 1925.
Who claims that the list of nutrients that humans require is incomplete?
5726b8785951b619008f7bc9
Marion Nestle
75
False
What is the other category of nutrients that people require other than micronutrients?
5726b8785951b619008f7bca
macro-nutrients
175
False
What is notable about cellulose in humans?
5726b8785951b619008f7bcb
non-digestible
340
False
What else, other than antioxidants, helps protect body systems?
5726b8785951b619008f7bcc
phytochemicals
530
False
In which year were nutrients categorized into their two respective categories?
5726b8785951b619008f7bcd
2014
127
False
The list of nutrients that people are known to require is, in the words of Marion Nestle, "almost certainly incomplete". As of 2014, nutrients are thought to be of two types: macro-nutrients which are needed in relatively large amounts, and micronutrients which are needed in smaller quantities. A type of carbohydrate, dietary fiber, i.e. non-digestible material such as cellulose, is required, for both mechanical and biochemical reasons, although the exact reasons remain unclear. Other micronutrients include antioxidants and phytochemicals, which are said to influence (or protect) some body systems. Their necessity is not as well established as in the case of, for instance, vitamins.
Which category is represented by carbohydrates and fats among other nutrients?
5726b9d05951b619008f7be7
macronutrients
4
False
What other significant aspect do macronutrients provide other than energy?
5726b9d05951b619008f7be8
structural material
119
False
What unit other than calories is used to measure the energy generated by nutrients?
5726b9d05951b619008f7be9
Joules
384
False
Which nutrient generally provides around 37 kJ per gram?
5726b9d05951b619008f7bea
fats
598
False
Although vitamins are important for many reasons, which role do they not play in the human body?
5726b9d05951b619008f7beb
provide energy
826
False
The macronutrients are carbohydrates, fats, protein, and water. The macronutrients (excluding fiber and water) provide structural material (amino acids from which proteins are built, and lipids from which cell membranes and some signaling molecules are built) and energy. Some of the structural material can be used to generate energy internally, and in either case it is measured in Joules or kilocalories (often called "Calories" and written with a capital C to distinguish them from little 'c' calories). Carbohydrates and proteins provide 17 kJ approximately (4 kcal) of energy per gram, while fats provide 37 kJ (9 kcal) per gram, though the net energy from either depends on such factors as absorption and digestive effort, which vary substantially from instance to instance. Vitamins, minerals, fiber, and water do not provide energy, but are required for other reasons.
Other than fats, what else consists of atoms of carbon, hydrogen and oxygen?
5726bc56708984140094cfa1
carbohydrates
13
False
If a carbohydrate is not a simple monosaccharide, what else could it be?
5726bc56708984140094cfa2
complex polysaccharides
165
False
What do fatty acid monomers that are bound to glycerol backbones make up?
5726bc56708984140094cfa3
triglycerides
208
False
What characteristic about fatty acids requires them to be an essential component in a diet?
5726bc56708984140094cfa4
cannot be synthesized in the body
353
False
Which element do the amino acids that make up the core component of protein have in common?
5726bc56708984140094cfa5
nitrogen
516
False
Molecules of carbohydrates and fats consist of carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen atoms. Carbohydrates range from simple monosaccharides (glucose, fructose, galactose) to complex polysaccharides (starch). Fats are triglycerides, made of assorted fatty acid monomers bound to a glycerol backbone. Some fatty acids, but not all, are essential in the diet: they cannot be synthesized in the body. Protein molecules contain nitrogen atoms in addition to carbon, oxygen, and hydrogen. The fundamental components of protein are nitrogen-containing amino acids, some of which are essential in the sense that humans cannot make them internally. Some of the amino acids are convertible (with the expenditure of energy) to glucose and can be used for energy production, just as ordinary glucose, in a process known as gluconeogenesis. By breaking down existing protein, the carbon skeleton of the various amino acids can be metabolized to intermediates in cellular respiration; the remaining ammonia is discarded primarily as urea in urine. This occurs normally only during prolonged starvation.
What was traditionally believed to be absorbed quickly causing blood - glucose levels to rapidly rise?
5726bdb2708984140094cfe5
simple carbohydrates
15
False
What is an example of a simple carbohydrate?
5726bdb2708984140094cfe6
fructose
223
False
When simple carbohydrates undergo metabolic pathways, what do they result in after partial catabolism?
5726bdb2708984140094cfe7
glucose
333
False
What is glucose able to stimulate that is required in the human body?
5726bdb2708984140094cfe8
production of insulin
469
False
Where are beta cells that attach to insulin located?
5726bdb2708984140094cfe9
pancreas
572
False
Traditionally, simple carbohydrates are believed to be absorbed quickly, and therefore to raise blood-glucose levels more rapidly than complex carbohydrates. This, however, is not accurate. Some simple carbohydrates (e.g., fructose) follow different metabolic pathways (e.g., fructolysis) that result in only a partial catabolism to glucose, while, in essence, many complex carbohydrates may be digested at the same rate as simple carbohydrates. Glucose stimulates the production of insulin through food entering the bloodstream, which is grasped by the beta cells in the pancreas.
What example of a carbohydrate is unable to be fully absorbed in humans?
5726bee05951b619008f7cd9
Dietary fiber
0
False
How many kilocalories of energy per gram is dietary fiber able to produce when successfully metabolized?
5726bee05951b619008f7cda
four
155
False
What is the main component that makes up dietary fiber?
5726bee05951b619008f7cdb
cellulose
352
False
What is an example of a gastrointestinal problem other than diarrhea?
5726bee05951b619008f7cdc
constipation
771
False
What does soluble fiber do to help lower blood glucose levels?
5726bee05951b619008f7cdd
slow the absorption of sugar
1292
False
Dietary fiber is a carbohydrate that is incompletely absorbed in humans and in some animals. Like all carbohydrates, when it is metabolized it can produce four Calories (kilocalories) of energy per gram. However, in most circumstances it accounts for less than that because of its limited absorption and digestibility. Dietary fiber consists mainly of cellulose, a large carbohydrate polymer which is indigestible as humans do not have the required enzymes to disassemble it. There are two subcategories: soluble and insoluble fiber. Whole grains, fruits (especially plums, prunes, and figs), and vegetables are good sources of dietary fiber. There are many health benefits of a high-fiber diet. Dietary fiber helps reduce the chance of gastrointestinal problems such as constipation and diarrhea by increasing the weight and size of stool and softening it. Insoluble fiber, found in whole wheat flour, nuts and vegetables, especially stimulates peristalsis – the rhythmic muscular contractions of the intestines, which move digesta along the digestive tract. Soluble fiber, found in oats, peas, beans, and many fruits, dissolves in water in the intestinal tract to produce a gel that slows the movement of food through the intestines. This may help lower blood glucose levels because it can slow the absorption of sugar. Additionally, fiber, perhaps especially that from whole grains, is thought to possibly help lessen insulin spikes, and therefore reduce the risk of type 2 diabetes. The link between increased fiber consumption and a decreased risk of colorectal cancer is still uncertain.
Dietary fat can be said to consist of fatty acids bonded to which molecule?
5726c05fdd62a815002e8f64
glycerol
135
False
How many glycerol backbones does a triglyceride contain?
5726c05fdd62a815002e8f65
one
218
False
What needs to be examined to determine whether a fat can be classified as saturated or unsaturated?
5726c05fdd62a815002e8f66
the detailed structure of the fatty acids involved
306
False
Which element is present that is bonded to all of the carbons in a saturated fat?
5726c05fdd62a815002e8f67
hydrogen
568
False
What kind of fat can a trans fat be categorized as?
5726c05fdd62a815002e8f68
unsaturated fat
933
False
A molecule of dietary fat typically consists of several fatty acids (containing long chains of carbon and hydrogen atoms), bonded to a glycerol. They are typically found as triglycerides (three fatty acids attached to one glycerol backbone). Fats may be classified as saturated or unsaturated depending on the detailed structure of the fatty acids involved. Saturated fats have all of the carbon atoms in their fatty acid chains bonded to hydrogen atoms, whereas unsaturated fats have some of these carbon atoms double-bonded, so their molecules have relatively fewer hydrogen atoms than a saturated fatty acid of the same length. Unsaturated fats may be further classified as monounsaturated (one double-bond) or polyunsaturated (many double-bonds). Furthermore, depending on the location of the double-bond in the fatty acid chain, unsaturated fatty acids are classified as omega-3 or omega-6 fatty acids. Trans fats are a type of unsaturated fat with trans-isomer bonds; these are rare in nature and in foods from natural sources; they are typically created in an industrial process called (partial) hydrogenation. There are nine kilocalories in each gram of fat. Fatty acids such as conjugated linoleic acid, catalpic acid, eleostearic acid and punicic acid, in addition to providing energy, represent potent immune modulatory molecules.
Where do saturated fats in a diet typically originate from?
5726c1ad708984140094d097
animal sources
31
False
Which kind of fat is generally considered to be healthiest?
5726c1ad708984140094d098
Unsaturated fats
104
False
Which type of fat should people attempt to avoid?
5726c1ad708984140094d099
trans fats
176
False
What kind of state of matter do unsaturated fats typically have at room temperature?
5726c1ad708984140094d09a
liquids
339
False
Although trans fats are harmful to human health, what property do they have that makes them useful in food processing?
5726c1ad708984140094d09b
rancidity resistance
550
False
Saturated fats (typically from animal sources) have been a staple in many world cultures for millennia. Unsaturated fats (e. g., vegetable oil) are considered healthier, while trans fats are to be avoided. Saturated and some trans fats are typically solid at room temperature (such as butter or lard), while unsaturated fats are typically liquids (such as olive oil or flaxseed oil). Trans fats are very rare in nature, and have been shown to be highly detrimental to human health, but have properties useful in the food processing industry, such as rancidity resistance.[citation needed]
What does it mean when it is claimed that many fatty acids are non - essential?
5726c2b4dd62a815002e8fba
the body can produce them as needed
44
False
At least how many fatty acids are essential to the human health and have to be consumed rather than produced by the body?
5726c2b4dd62a815002e8fbb
two
184
False
What does EPA stand for?
5726c2b4dd62a815002e8fbc
eicosapentaenoic acid
647
False
Outside of consumption, what would be broken down in the body to obtain DGLA and AA?
5726c2b4dd62a815002e8fbd
omega-6 linoleic acid
1195
False
What do people consume that has low amounts of the necessary essential fatty acids?
5726c2b4dd62a815002e8fbe
processed vegetable oils
1592
False
Most fatty acids are non-essential, meaning the body can produce them as needed, generally from other fatty acids and always by expending energy to do so. However, in humans, at least two fatty acids are essential and must be included in the diet. An appropriate balance of essential fatty acids—omega-3 and omega-6 fatty acids—seems also important for health, although definitive experimental demonstration has been elusive. Both of these "omega" long-chain polyunsaturated fatty acids are substrates for a class of eicosanoids known as prostaglandins, which have roles throughout the human body. They are hormones, in some respects. The omega-3 eicosapentaenoic acid (EPA), which can be made in the human body from the omega-3 essential fatty acid alpha-linolenic acid (ALA), or taken in through marine food sources, serves as a building block for series 3 prostaglandins (e.g., weakly inflammatory PGE3). The omega-6 dihomo-gamma-linolenic acid (DGLA) serves as a building block for series 1 prostaglandins (e.g. anti-inflammatory PGE1), whereas arachidonic acid (AA) serves as a building block for series 2 prostaglandins (e.g. pro-inflammatory PGE 2). Both DGLA and AA can be made from the omega-6 linoleic acid (LA) in the human body, or can be taken in directly through food. An appropriately balanced intake of omega-3 and omega-6 partly determines the relative production of different prostaglandins, which is one reason why a balance between omega-3 and omega-6 is believed important for cardiovascular health. In industrialized societies, people typically consume large amounts of processed vegetable oils, which have reduced amounts of the essential fatty acids along with too much of omega-6 fatty acids relative to omega-3 fatty acids.
What is able to prevent AA from being released from membranes?
5726c5f8f1498d1400e8ead8
Omega-3 EPA
113
False
The conversion of omega-6 DGLA to AA is able to help regulate which process?
5726c5f8f1498d1400e8ead9
the production of the prostaglandins PGE1 and PGE2
61
False
What kind of process is the conversion of DGLA to AA?
5726c5f8f1498d1400e8eada
desaturation
332
False
What is an example of a hormone other than insulin that is able to control the enzyme delta-5-desaturase?
5726c5f8f1498d1400e8eadb
glucagon
484
False
What is the scientific name for cell division?
5726c5f8f1498d1400e8eadc
mitosis
814
False
The conversion rate of omega-6 DGLA to AA largely determines the production of the prostaglandins PGE1 and PGE2. Omega-3 EPA prevents AA from being released from membranes, thereby skewing prostaglandin balance away from pro-inflammatory PGE2 (made from AA) toward anti-inflammatory PGE1 (made from DGLA). Moreover, the conversion (desaturation) of DGLA to AA is controlled by the enzyme delta-5-desaturase, which in turn is controlled by hormones such as insulin (up-regulation) and glucagon (down-regulation). The amount and type of carbohydrates consumed, along with some types of amino acid, can influence processes involving insulin, glucagon, and other hormones; therefore, the ratio of omega-3 versus omega-6 has wide effects on general health, and specific effects on immune function and inflammation, and mitosis (i.e., cell division).
What primarily makes up the enzymes in our body that regulate the chemical reactions that occur?
5726cbcddd62a815002e907c
Proteins
0
False
What is the primary component of every protein?
5726cbcddd62a815002e907d
amino acids
210
False
What is the term that refers to the body process that produces new proteins?
5726cbcddd62a815002e907e
protein retention
459
False
When the body no longer needs the amino acids that are present, through which excretion are they lost?
5726cbcddd62a815002e907f
urine
673
False
Approximately how many amino acid types does the human body generally have?
5726cbcddd62a815002e9080
twenty
876
False
Proteins are structural materials in much of the animal body (e.g. muscles, skin, and hair). They also form the enzymes that control chemical reactions throughout the body. Each protein molecule is composed of amino acids, which are characterized by inclusion of nitrogen and sometimes sulphur (these components are responsible for the distinctive smell of burning protein, such as the keratin in hair). The body requires amino acids to produce new proteins (protein retention) and to replace damaged proteins (maintenance). As there is no protein or amino acid storage provision, amino acids must be present in the diet. Excess amino acids are discarded, typically in the urine. For all animals, some amino acids are essential (an animal cannot produce them internally) and some are non-essential (the animal can produce them from other nitrogen-containing compounds). About twenty amino acids are found in the human body, and about ten of these are essential and, therefore, must be included in the diet. A diet that contains adequate amounts of amino acids (especially those that are essential) is particularly important in some situations: during early development and maturation, pregnancy, lactation, or injury (a burn, for instance). A complete protein source contains all the essential amino acids; an incomplete protein source lacks one or more of the essential amino acids.
What would be required for the human body to potentially have a chance to create a complete protein source?
5726ce98f1498d1400e8ebce
two incomplete protein sources
44
False
Other than rice, what would be another example of an incomplete protein source?
5726ce98f1498d1400e8ebcf
beans
91
False
What is taken from proteins and converted to glucose by the body?
5726ce98f1498d1400e8ebd0
Excess amino acids
336
False
What is the term for the conversion of amino acids into glucose?
5726ce98f1498d1400e8ebd1
gluconeogenesis
441
False
What happens to amino acids that are left over after the body has converted what it can to glucose?
5726ce98f1498d1400e8ebd2
discarded
510
False
It is possible with protein combinations of two incomplete protein sources (e.g., rice and beans) to make a complete protein source, and characteristic combinations are the basis of distinct cultural cooking traditions. However, complementary sources of protein do not need to be eaten at the same meal to be used together by the body. Excess amino acids from protein can be converted into glucose and used for fuel through a process called gluconeogenesis. The amino acids remaining after such conversion are discarded.
What was the early recommended amount of water that was supposedly required to keep the body hydrated?
5726cfe5708984140094d213
6–8 glasses of water daily
103
False
Who originally made a water intake recommendation in 1945?
5726cfe5708984140094d214
Food and Nutrition Board of the National Research Council
360
False
How much water should be taken in for each calorie of food that is consumed?
5726cfe5708984140094d215
1 milliliter
469
False
What does ADI stand for?
5726cfe5708984140094d216
adequate daily intakes
972
False
Where do humans get the 20% of water that does not come from the beverages we drink?
5726cfe5708984140094d217
food
1565
False
Early recommendations for the quantity of water required for maintenance of good health suggested that 6–8 glasses of water daily is the minimum to maintain proper hydration. However the notion that a person should consume eight glasses of water per day cannot be traced to a credible scientific source. The original water intake recommendation in 1945 by the Food and Nutrition Board of the National Research Council read: "An ordinary standard for diverse persons is 1 milliliter for each calorie of food. Most of this quantity is contained in prepared foods." More recent comparisons of well-known recommendations on fluid intake have revealed large discrepancies in the volumes of water we need to consume for good health. Therefore, to help standardize guidelines, recommendations for water consumption are included in two recent European Food Safety Authority (EFSA) documents (2010): (i) Food-based dietary guidelines and (ii) Dietary reference values for water or adequate daily intakes (ADI). These specifications were provided by calculating adequate intakes from measured intakes in populations of individuals with “desirable osmolarity values of urine and desirable water volumes per energy unit consumed.” For healthful hydration, the current EFSA guidelines recommend total water intakes of 2.0 L/day for adult females and 2.5 L/day for adult males. These reference values include water from drinking water, other beverages, and from food. About 80% of our daily water requirement comes from the beverages we drink, with the remaining 20% coming from food. Water content varies depending on the type of food consumed, with fruit and vegetables containing more than cereals, for example. These values are estimated using country-specific food balance sheets published by the Food and Agriculture Organisation of the United Nations. Other guidelines for nutrition also have implications for the beverages we consume for healthy hydration- for example, the World Health Organization (WHO) recommend that added sugars should represent no more than 10% of total energy intake.
Who was similar recommended intake volumes as adults?
5726d1f5f1498d1400e8ec46
the elderly
96
False
Other then breastfeeding women, who what other category of woman should have increased water intake?
5726d1f5f1498d1400e8ec47
Pregnant
273
False
How much more water should pregnant women consumed compared to an average non - pregnant woman?
5726d1f5f1498d1400e8ec48
300 mL/day
531
False
Why should lactating women increase their water consumption?
5726d1f5f1498d1400e8ec49
To compensate for additional fluid output
543
False
How much more water do lactating women need to consume in relation to the average woman?
5726d1f5f1498d1400e8ec4a
700 mL/day
628
False
The EFSA panel also determined intakes for different populations. Recommended intake volumes in the elderly are the same as for adults as despite lower energy consumption, the water requirement of this group is increased due to a reduction in renal concentrating capacity. Pregnant and breastfeeding women require additional fluids to stay hydrated. The EFSA panel proposes that pregnant women should consume the same volume of water as non-pregnant women, plus an increase in proportion to the higher energy requirement, equal to 300 mL/day. To compensate for additional fluid output, breastfeeding women require an additional 700 mL/day above the recommended intake values for non-lactating women.
What kind of element are dietary minerals?
5726d78cdd62a815002e9220
inorganic chemical elements
21
False
What was the term "mineral" originally meant to describe?
5726d78cdd62a815002e9221
the less common elements in the diet
267
False
In what form are some metals commonly found in the body?
5726d78cdd62a815002e9222
ions
399
False
In what form should minerals be to be absorbed easier?
5726d78cdd62a815002e9223
ionic forms
698
False
What is the most famous mineral that is artificially added that prevents goiter?
5726d78cdd62a815002e9224
iodine
844
False
Dietary minerals are inorganic chemical elements required by living organisms, other than the four elements carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen, and oxygen that are present in nearly all organic molecules. The term "mineral" is archaic, since the intent is to describe simply the less common elements in the diet. Some are heavier than the four just mentioned, including several metals, which often occur as ions in the body. Some dietitians recommend that these be supplied from foods in which they occur naturally, or at least as complex compounds, or sometimes even from natural inorganic sources (such as calcium carbonate from ground oyster shells). Some minerals are absorbed much more readily in the ionic forms found in such sources. On the other hand, minerals are often artificially added to the diet as supplements; the most famous is likely iodine in iodized salt which prevents goiter.
Which vitamin can be synthesized in the skin?
5726d9865951b619008f7fe3
Vitamin D
139
False
What is required for vitamin D to be synthesized?
5726d9865951b619008f7fe4
UVB radiation
221
False
What is an example of a vitamin - like compound that is not considered an essential dietary nutrient?
5726d9865951b619008f7fe5
carnitine
310
False
What has recently been discovered in the thousands, especially from examining fresh vegetables?
5726d9865951b619008f7fe6
phytochemicals
525
False
What is choline not an example of?
5726d9865951b619008f7fe7
vitamins
821
False
As with the minerals discussed above, some vitamins are recognized as organic essential nutrients, necessary in the diet for good health. (Vitamin D is the exception: it can be synthesized in the skin, in the presence of UVB radiation.) Certain vitamin-like compounds that are recommended in the diet, such as carnitine, are thought useful for survival and health, but these are not "essential" dietary nutrients because the human body has some capacity to produce them from other compounds. Moreover, thousands of different phytochemicals have recently been discovered in food (particularly in fresh vegetables), which may have desirable properties including antioxidant activity (see below); however, experimental demonstration has been suggestive but inconclusive. Other essential nutrients that are not classified as vitamins include essential amino acids (see above), choline, essential fatty acids (see above), and the minerals discussed in the preceding section.
What is another term that can be used to describe "potentially damaging" compounds?
5726e03fdd62a815002e9392
mutation causing
86
False
What are oxidizers?
5726e03fdd62a815002e9393
acceptors of electrons
182
False
In order for the body to function normally, what must be used to neutralize free radicals?
5726e03fdd62a815002e9394
antioxidant compounds
361
False
What subgroup of phytochemicals helps make up the majority of the body's antioxidants?
5726e03fdd62a815002e9395
polyphenols
898
False
Which area of the body does vitamin A protect?
5726e03fdd62a815002e9396
fat areas
1415
False
As cellular metabolism/energy production requires oxygen, potentially damaging (e.g., mutation causing) compounds known as free radicals can form. Most of these are oxidizers (i.e., acceptors of electrons) and some react very strongly. For the continued normal cellular maintenance, growth, and division, these free radicals must be sufficiently neutralized by antioxidant compounds. Recently, some researchers suggested an interesting theory of evolution of dietary antioxidants. Some are produced by the human body with adequate precursors (glutathione, Vitamin C), and those the body cannot produce may only be obtained in the diet via direct sources (Vitamin C in humans, Vitamin A, Vitamin K) or produced by the body from other compounds (Beta-carotene converted to Vitamin A by the body, Vitamin D synthesized from cholesterol by sunlight). Phytochemicals (Section Below) and their subgroup, polyphenols, make up the majority of antioxidants; about 4,000 are known. Different antioxidants are now known to function in a cooperative network. For example, Vitamin C can reactivate free radical-containing glutathione or Vitamin E by accepting the free radical itself. Some antioxidants are more effective than others at neutralizing different free radicals. Some cannot neutralize certain free radicals. Some cannot be present in certain areas of free radical development (Vitamin A is fat-soluble and protects fat areas, Vitamin C is water-soluble and protects those areas). When interacting with a free radical, some antioxidants produce a different free radical compound that is less dangerous or more dangerous than the previous compound. Having a variety of antioxidants allows any byproducts to be safely dealt with by more efficient antioxidants in neutralizing a free radical's butterfly effect.
Where could one find a large population of gut flora?
5726e48ff1498d1400e8ef00
Animal intestines
0
False
What term collectively describes "Firmicutes" and "Bacteroidetes" among others?
5726e48ff1498d1400e8ef01
phyla
88
False
What is the importance of having phyla in the body?
5726e48ff1498d1400e8ef02
essential to digestion
170
False
What role specifically in digestion do bacteria in the gut have?
5726e48ff1498d1400e8ef03
breaking down and aiding in the absorption of otherwise indigestible food
316
False
Which vitamin are the bacteria present in the gut responsible for producing?
5726e48ff1498d1400e8ef04
vitamin B12
526
False
Animal intestines contain a large population of gut flora. In humans, the four dominant phyla are Firmicutes, Bacteroidetes, Actinobacteria, and Proteobacteria. They are essential to digestion and are also affected by food that is consumed. Bacteria in the gut perform many important functions for humans, including breaking down and aiding in the absorption of otherwise indigestible food; stimulating cell growth; repressing the growth of harmful bacteria, training the immune system to respond only to pathogens; producing vitamin B12; and defending against some infectious diseases.
Heart disease and obesity are examples of what kind of disease?
5726fc1c708984140094d7b3
"Western" diseases
65
False
In which country was a study about the presence of cancer and heart disease in different regions done?
5726fc1c708984140094d7b4
China
180
False
How much of an increase in presence of "Western" diseases was there in communities that primarily had animal - based diets as opposed to vegetable diets?
5726fc1c708984140094d7b5
100-fold
292
False
Other than meat, what else is lacking from the people in China's diet compared to diets from the Western world?
5726fc1c708984140094d7b6
dairy
779
False
What disease was said to possibly be the result of diets that are high in meat and dairy products?
5726fc1c708984140094d7b7
cancers
879
False
Heart disease, cancer, obesity, and diabetes are commonly called "Western" diseases because these maladies were once rarely seen in developing countries. An international study in China found some regions had virtually no cancer or heart disease, while in other areas they reflected "up to a 100-fold increase" coincident with shifts from diets that were found to be entirely plant-based to heavily animal-based, respectively. In contrast, diseases of affluence like cancer and heart disease are common throughout the developed world, including the United States. Adjusted for age and exercise, large regional clusters of people in China rarely suffered from these "Western" diseases possibly because their diets are rich in vegetables, fruits, and whole grains, and have little dairy and meat products. Some studies show these to be, in high quantities, possible causes of some cancers. There are arguments for and against this controversial issue.
Who released a guideline that recommends that people follow a whole plant food diet?
5726fce9dd62a815002e9710
United Healthcare/Pacificare
4
False
Which magazine also recommended that people follow a whole plant food diet?
5726fce9dd62a815002e9711
National Geographic
152
False
In which year was there a cover article on the National Geographic regarding diet recommendations?
5726fce9dd62a815002e9712
2005
200
False
How many populations were studied and surveyed for the cover article?
5726fce9dd62a815002e9713
three
323
False
Other than fruits and vegetables, what other product was highly recommended to be a part of a healthy diet?
5726fce9dd62a815002e9714
whole grains
708
False
The United Healthcare/Pacificare nutrition guideline recommends a whole plant food diet, and recommends using protein only as a condiment with meals. A National Geographic cover article from November 2005, entitled The Secrets of Living Longer, also recommends a whole plant food diet. The article is a lifestyle survey of three populations, Sardinians, Okinawans, and Adventists, who generally display longevity and "suffer a fraction of the diseases that commonly kill people in other parts of the developed world, and enjoy more healthy years of life." In sum, they offer three sets of 'best practices' to emulate. The rest is up to you. In common with all three groups is to "Eat fruits, vegetables, and whole grains."
Other than nitrogen, what other element varies greatly between a carnivore and herbivore diet?
5726fdd95951b619008f8431
carbon
71
False
What percentage of nitrogen content is generally found in fungi?
5726fdd95951b619008f8432
5% to 10%
237
False
What process of breaking down cellulose do herbivores rely on for their essential nutrients?
5726fdd95951b619008f8433
bacterial fermentation
273
False
Other than sugar and fiber, what else are carbohydrates consisted of?
5726fdd95951b619008f8434
starch
735
False
Where can fatty acids be found?
5726fdd95951b619008f8435
lipids
798
False
Carnivore and herbivore diets are contrasting, with basic nitrogen and carbon proportions vary for their particular foods. "The nitrogen content of plant tissues averages about 2%, while in fungi, animals, and bacteria it averages about 5% to 10%." Many herbivores rely on bacterial fermentation to create digestible nutrients from indigestible plant cellulose, while obligate carnivores must eat animal meats to obtain certain vitamins or nutrients their bodies cannot otherwise synthesize. All animals' diets must provide sufficient amounts of the basic building blocks they need, up to the point where their particular biology can synthesize the rest. Animal tissue contains chemical compounds, such as water, carbohydrates (sugar, starch, and fiber), amino acids (in proteins), fatty acids (in lipids), and nucleic acids (DNA and RNA). These compounds in turn consist of elements such as carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, nitrogen, phosphorus, calcium, iron, zinc, magnesium, manganese, and so on. All of these chemical compounds and elements occur in various forms and combinations (e.g. hormones, vitamins, phospholipids, hydroxyapatite).
Through what part of the body are nutrients transported to feed cells?
5726ff1cf1498d1400e8f1f0
bloodstream
106
False
In which specific circumstance is the digestive system not the first system involved in nutrient processing?
5726ff1cf1498d1400e8f1f1
unborn fetus
163
False
What is able to break bonds in ingested molecules?
5726ff1cf1498d1400e8f1f2
Digestive juices
235
False
Molecules that are released from ingested foods are done so through which process?
5726ff1cf1498d1400e8f1f3
digestive processes
413
False
Through which manner are unabsorbed matter and waste products excreted?
5726ff1cf1498d1400e8f1f4
feces
572
False
Animal tissue consists of elements and compounds ingested, digested, absorbed, and circulated through the bloodstream to feed the cells of the body. Except in the unborn fetus, the digestive system is the first system involved[vague]. Digestive juices break chemical bonds in ingested molecules, and modify their conformations and energy states. Though some molecules are absorbed into the bloodstream unchanged, digestive processes release them from the matrix of foods. Unabsorbed matter, along with some waste products of metabolism, is eliminated from the body in the feces.
What needs to be compared to the waste products from humans to determine what is absorbed in the body?
57270149708984140094d855
food
253
False
It is important to examine both the feces and what other excrement when studying absorption?
57270149708984140094d856
urine
221
False
Other than time consuming, what else are nutritional studies due to their length and variable count?
57270149708984140094d857
expensive
596
False
At which rate is the science behind nutrition continuing to evolve?
57270149708984140094d858
slowly
667
False
Studies of nutritional status must take into account the state of the body before and after experiments, as well as the chemical composition of the whole diet and of all material excreted and eliminated from the body (in urine and feces). Comparing the food to the waste can help determine the specific compounds and elements absorbed and metabolized in the body. The effects of nutrients may only be discernible over an extended period, during which all food and waste must be analyzed. The number of variables involved in such experiments is high, making nutritional studies time-consuming and expensive, which explains why the science of animal nutrition is still slowly evolving.
How do plants absorb essential elements that are present in the soil?
572702dddd62a815002e979a
through their roots
47
False
Having leaves allows plants to absorb nutrients through which medium?
572702dddd62a815002e979b
air
80
False
What is the process that plants undergo in order to obtain carbohydrates?
572702dddd62a815002e979c
photosynthesis
248
False
What is the process called in which plants gather nutrients from the soil around their roots?
572702dddd62a815002e979d
cation exchange
402
False
What part of the leaf in a plant takes in carbon dioxide and releases oxygen?
572702dddd62a815002e979e
stomata
654
False
Plants uptake essential elements from the soil through their roots and from the air (consisting of mainly nitrogen and oxygen) through their leaves. Green plants obtain their carbohydrate supply from the carbon dioxide in the air by the process of photosynthesis. Carbon and oxygen are absorbed from the air, while other nutrients are absorbed from the soil. Nutrient uptake in the soil is achieved by cation exchange, wherein root hairs pump hydrogen ions (H+) into the soil through proton pumps. These hydrogen ions displace cations attached to negatively charged soil particles so that the cations are available for uptake by the root. In the leaves, stomata open to take in carbon dioxide and expel oxygen. The carbon dioxide molecules are used as the carbon source in photosynthesis.
What can environmental depletion lead to?
57270596708984140094d897
crucial nutrition-related health problems
140
False
Other than malnutrition and a spread of disease, what is an example of a health problem that arose due to environmental depletion?
57270596708984140094d898
contamination
187
False
Other than industrial chemicals, what other industry discharges chemicals that can contaminate the environment?
57270596708984140094d899
agricultural
310
False
The release and contamination of the environment affects what important system other than the human race?
57270596708984140094d89a
the ecosystem
446
False
If people's nutritional status and health changes, what could this affect in their daily routine?
57270596708984140094d89b
diet habits
677
False
Research in the field of nutrition has greatly contributed in finding out the essential facts about how environmental depletion can lead to crucial nutrition-related health problems like contamination, spread of contagious diseases, malnutrition, etc. Moreover, environmental contamination due to discharge of agricultural as well as industrial chemicals like organocholrines, heavy metal, and radionucleotides may adversely affect the human and the ecosystem as a whole. As far as safety of the human health is concerned, then these environmental contaminants can reduce people's nutritional status and health. This could directly or indirectly cause drastic changes in their diet habits. Hence, food-based remedial as well as preventive strategies are essential to address global issues like hunger and malnutrition and to enable the susceptible people to adapt themselves to all these environmental as well as socio-economic alterations.
What is the abbreviation for licensed dietitians in the US?
572706815951b619008f84d3
LD
55
False
Who do dietitians have to register with other than the American Dietetic Association in order to be recognized as such in the US?
572706815951b619008f84d4
Commission for Dietetic Registration
68
False
Which specific term is unregulated but still oft associated with professionals when it comes to food and diets?
572706815951b619008f84d5
nutritionist
555
False
Which state has started to regulate the word "nutritionist"?
572706815951b619008f84d6
Florida
666
False
What are restaurants and food manufacturers required to follow in order to assist consumers looking to follow dietary guidelines?
572706815951b619008f84d7
disclosure/labeling requirements
834
False
In the US, dietitians are registered (RD) or licensed (LD) with the Commission for Dietetic Registration and the American Dietetic Association, and are only able to use the title "dietitian," as described by the business and professions codes of each respective state, when they have met specific educational and experiential prerequisites and passed a national registration or licensure examination, respectively. In California, registered dietitians must abide by the "Business and Professions Code of Section 2585-2586.8". Anyone may call themselves a nutritionist, including unqualified dietitians, as this term is unregulated. Some states, such as the State of Florida, have begun to include the title "nutritionist" in state licensure requirements. Most governments provide guidance on nutrition, and some also impose mandatory disclosure/labeling requirements for processed food manufacturers and restaurants to assist consumers in complying with such guidance.
Nutritional standards and recommendations are produced by a joint effort between the US Department of Agriculture and which other department?
57270755708984140094d8b5
US Department of Health and Human Services
117
False
Who releases guidelines that revolve around diet and physical activity recommendations?
57270755708984140094d8b6
USDA
211
False
What is the name of the concept that has replaced the food pyramid?
57270755708984140094d8b7
MyPlate
248
False
The USDA's effort sand actions are overseen by which governmental committee?
57270755708984140094d8b8
Agriculture, Nutrition and Forestry Committee
405
False
On which channel are committee meetings often shown?
57270755708984140094d8b9
C-SPAN
494
False
In the US, nutritional standards and recommendations are established jointly by the US Department of Agriculture and US Department of Health and Human Services. Dietary and physical activity guidelines from the USDA are presented in the concept of MyPlate, which superseded the food pyramid, which replaced the Four Food Groups. The Senate committee currently responsible for oversight of the USDA is the Agriculture, Nutrition and Forestry Committee. Committee hearings are often televised on C-SPAN.
Smart Bodies is an example of an initiative that was started by what level of government?
57270821708984140094d8d1
state
16
False
What is the goal of Smart Bodies?
57270821708984140094d8d2
to promote nutrition literacy
33
False
The Blue Cross and Blue Shield of Louisiana Foundation joined together with which University to help develop Smart Bodies?
57270821708984140094d8d3
Louisiana State Agricultural Center
183
False
When was the Smart Bodies initiative first released?
57270821708984140094d8d4
2005
287
False
What does the initiative specifically target?
57270821708984140094d8d5
childhood obesity
482
False
An example of a state initiative to promote nutrition literacy is Smart Bodies, a public-private partnership between the state’s largest university system and largest health insurer, Louisiana State Agricultural Center and Blue Cross and Blue Shield of Louisiana Foundation. Launched in 2005, this program promotes lifelong healthful eating patterns and physically active lifestyles for children and their families. It is an interactive educational program designed to help prevent childhood obesity through classroom activities that teach children healthful eating habits and physical exercise.
In England and which other country is there a curricula that revolves around nutritional education?
572708fa5951b619008f84f9
Wales
65
False
What is the official name of the curricula that promotes nutritional education in schools?
572708fa5951b619008f84fa
Personal and Social Education and Food Technology curricula
76
False
What does FCS stand for?
572708fa5951b619008f84fb
Family and Consumer Science
311
False
Aside from dieting and general nutritional information, what else does the curricula in England and Wales aim to teach students?
572708fa5951b619008f84fc
how to read nutrition labels on packaging
212
False
In which type of school are kids required to take a number of health related courses?
572708fa5951b619008f84fd
American
370
False
Nutrition is taught in schools in many countries. In England and Wales, the Personal and Social Education and Food Technology curricula include nutrition, stressing the importance of a balanced diet and teaching how to read nutrition labels on packaging. In many schools, a Nutrition class will fall within the Family and Consumer Science or Health departments. In some American schools, students are required to take a certain number of FCS or Health related classes. Nutrition is offered at many schools, and, if it is not a class of its own, nutrition is included in other FCS or Health classes such as: Life Skills, Independent Living, Single Survival, Freshmen Connection, Health etc. In many Nutrition classes, students learn about the food groups, the food pyramid, Daily Recommended Allowances, calories, vitamins, minerals, malnutrition, physical activity, healthful food choices, portion sizes, and how to live a healthy life.
In which country were there no specific nutritional literacy studies on a national level that could be found?
572709f75951b619008f8517
U.S.
103
False
What does the abbreviation NAAL represent?
572709f75951b619008f8518
National Assessment of Adult Literacy
163
False
How many Americans were found to have intermediate health literacy?
572709f75951b619008f8519
44%
745
False
What percentage of Americans fell below the basics of health literacy?
572709f75951b619008f851a
14
812
False
People who had a lower health literacy rate were found to be living below what standard?
572709f75951b619008f851b
level of poverty
947
False
At the time of this entry, we were not able to identify any specific nutrition literacy studies in the U.S. at a national level. However, the findings of the 2003 National Assessment of Adult Literacy (NAAL) provide a basis upon which to frame the nutrition literacy problem in the U.S. NAAL introduced the first ever measure of "the degree to which individuals have the capacity to obtain, process and understand basic health information and services needed to make appropriate health decisions" – an objective of Healthy People 2010 and of which nutrition literacy might be considered an important subset. On a scale of below basic, basic, intermediate and proficient, NAAL found 13 percent of adult Americans have proficient health literacy, 44% have intermediate literacy, 29 percent have basic literacy and 14 percent have below basic health literacy. The study found that health literacy increases with education and people living below the level of poverty have lower health literacy than those above it.
What percentage of people were were found to have a high likelihood of low literacy skills in the Mississippi Delta region?
57270b64708984140094d901
52
120
False
What primary difference was there between the NAAL and Delta study that made comparisons difficult?
57270b64708984140094d902
methodological differences
294
False
Who was the main author of the study that suggested that the Mississippi Delta study identified a problem of health literacy?
57270b64708984140094d903
Zoellner
322
False
For how many years had the My Pyramid graphic been released at the time of the Mississippi Delta study?
57270b64708984140094d904
two
644
False
Income level was found to have a signification correlation to which outcome in the study?
57270b64708984140094d905
nutrition literacy
749
False
Another study examining the health and nutrition literacy status of residents of the lower Mississippi Delta found that 52 percent of participants had a high likelihood of limited literacy skills. While a precise comparison between the NAAL and Delta studies is difficult, primarily because of methodological differences, Zoellner et al. suggest that health literacy rates in the Mississippi Delta region are different from the U.S. general population and that they help establish the scope of the problem of health literacy among adults in the Delta region. For example, only 12 percent of study participants identified the My Pyramid graphic two years after it had been launched by the USDA. The study also found significant relationships between nutrition literacy and income level and nutrition literacy and educational attainment further delineating priorities for the region.
What did the studies show there was a lack of understanding of by the population?
57270cbadd62a815002e9850
nutritional information
302
False
The studies indicated that there was a lack of information in the area about what kind of choice?
57270cbadd62a815002e9851
food
261
False
What was found to be limited or at least difficult to get access to in the studied region?
57270cbadd62a815002e9852
healthful foods
406
False
What kind of constraint was found to have a significant effect on the nutritional literacy?
57270cbadd62a815002e9853
socioeconomic
462
False
Aside from large people living in poverty, what else is considered a socioeconomic constraint that resulted in a decrease in opportunity for healthy food choices?
57270cbadd62a815002e9854
low levels of education
496
False
These statistics point to the complexities surrounding the lack of health/nutrition literacy and reveal the degree to which they are embedded in the social structure and interconnected with other problems. Among these problems are the lack of information about food choices, a lack of understanding of nutritional information and its application to individual circumstances, limited or difficult access to healthful foods, and a range of cultural influences and socioeconomic constraints such as low levels of education and high levels of poverty that decrease opportunities for healthful eating and living.
An imbalance in the intake of nutrients by any organism can be referred by which term?
57270f6cf1498d1400e8f2dc
Malnutrition
0
False
In what kind of country is malnutrition often found as excessive consumption or as a nutritional imbalance?
57270f6cf1498d1400e8f2dd
developed
106
False
Aside from inadequate knowledge, what else is characteristic of malnutrition found in developing countries?
57270f6cf1498d1400e8f2de
poor access to a range of nutritious foods
305
False
What is the abbreviation ICRISAT short for?
57270f6cf1498d1400e8f2df
International Crops Research Institute for the Semi-Arid Tropics
385
False
What is the name of the traditional Mali recipe that equinut is a twist on?
57270f6cf1498d1400e8f2e0
di-dèguè
589
False
Malnutrition refers to insufficient, excessive, or imbalanced consumption of nutrients by an organism. In developed countries, the diseases of malnutrition are most often associated with nutritional imbalances or excessive consumption. In developing countries, malnutrition is more likely to be caused by poor access to a range of nutritious foods or inadequate knowledge. In Mali the International Crops Research Institute for the Semi-Arid Tropics (ICRISAT) and the Aga Khan Foundation, trained women's groups to make equinut, a healthy and nutritional version of the traditional recipe di-dèguè (comprising peanut paste, honey and millet or rice flour). The aim was to boost nutrition and livelihoods by producing a product that women could make and sell, and which would be accepted by the local community because of its local heritage.
What is the term that refers to a viewpoint that believes a reliance on food science is a cause of poor nutrition and ill health?
572710d0f1498d1400e8f2ec
Nutritionism
0
False
Who is originally claimed to have given birth to the concept of nutritionism?
572710d0f1498d1400e8f2ed
Gyorgy Scrinis
168
False
Although he was not the creator of the concept, who popularized the idea of nutritionism?
572710d0f1498d1400e8f2ee
Michael Pollan
207
False
Who has to rely on nutrition experts when it comes to making decisions regarding food and nutritional values?
572710d0f1498d1400e8f2ef
policy makers
254
False
Which region of the world does Pollan claim could trace their health problems back to nutritionism?
572710d0f1498d1400e8f2f0
Western World
503
False
Nutritionism is the view that excessive reliance on food science and the study of nutrition can lead to poor nutrition and to ill health. It was originally credited to Gyorgy Scrinis, and was popularized by Michael Pollan. Since nutrients are invisible, policy makers rely on nutrition experts to advise on food choices. Because science has an incomplete understanding of how food affects the human body, Pollan argues, nutritionism can be blamed for many of the health problems relating to diet in the Western World today.
What are organizations targeting with the aim of improving nutritional content or resources?
5727131c5951b619008f8581
school cafeterias
182
False
Outside of policymakers and teachers, who else is a key component to improving nutritional content in schools?
5727131c5951b619008f8582
managed foodservice contractors
71
False
What are health and nutrition shown to have a link to in terms of education?
5727131c5951b619008f8583
overall educational success
310
False
What percentage of American students report that they currently eat the recommended servings of fruits and vegetables?
5727131c5951b619008f8584
10
360
False
Which animal was shown to have a negative effect on learning behavior due to nutritional deficiencies back in 1951?
5727131c5951b619008f8585
mice
916
False
Some organizations have begun working with teachers, policymakers, and managed foodservice contractors to mandate improved nutritional content and increased nutritional resources in school cafeterias from primary to university level institutions. Health and nutrition have been proven to have close links with overall educational success. Currently, less than 10% of American college students report that they eat the recommended five servings of fruit and vegetables daily. Better nutrition has been shown to have an impact on both cognitive and spatial memory performance; a study showed those with higher blood sugar levels performed better on certain memory tests. In another study, those who consumed yogurt performed better on thinking tasks when compared to those that consumed caffeine-free diet soda or confections. Nutritional deficiencies have been shown to have a negative effect on learning behavior in mice as far back as 1951.
Which health issue is now becoming a common issue in developing countries?
572714d2708984140094d975
Cancer
0
False
Which organization did a study on cancer in developing countries?
572714d2708984140094d976
International Agency for Research on Cancer
74
False
What were cancers such as liver cancer or stomach cancer found to have a link to?
572714d2708984140094d977
consumption of carcinogenic preserved foods
223
False
The rise of lung cancer in poor nations can be attributed to the use of which product?
572714d2708984140094d978
tobacco
428
False
Obesity, lack of exercise, age and diet are risk factors attributed to cancer that are all apart of what kind of lifestyle?
572714d2708984140094d979
Western
507
False
Cancer is now common in developing countries. According to a study by the International Agency for Research on Cancer, "In the developing world, cancers of the liver, stomach and esophagus were more common, often linked to consumption of carcinogenic preserved foods, such as smoked or salted food, and parasitic infections that attack organs." Lung cancer rates are rising rapidly in poorer nations because of increased use of tobacco. Developed countries "tended to have cancers linked to affluence or a 'Western lifestyle' — cancers of the colon, rectum, breast and prostate — that can be caused by obesity, lack of exercise, diet and age."
Reduced insulin function can also go by what other term?
57271689f1498d1400e8f372
insulin resistance
106
False
Other than the reduced insulin function, what else contributes greatly to many disease states?
57271689f1498d1400e8f373
lifestyle-induced hyperinsulinemia
35
False
Arterial microinjuries and heart disease can all be linked back to which health issue that is caused by hyperinsulinemia?
57271689f1498d1400e8f374
chronic inflammation
247
False
The metabolic syndrome is a term that refers to which health issue?
57271689f1498d1400e8f375
insulin resistance
478
False
Hyperinsulinemia has a negative effect on the levels of which important molecules in the body?
57271689f1498d1400e8f376
prostaglandin PGE1/PGE2
738
False
Several lines of evidence indicate lifestyle-induced hyperinsulinemia and reduced insulin function (i.e., insulin resistance) as a decisive factor in many disease states. For example, hyperinsulinemia and insulin resistance are strongly linked to chronic inflammation, which in turn is strongly linked to a variety of adverse developments such as arterial microinjuries and clot formation (i.e., heart disease) and exaggerated cell division (i.e., cancer). Hyperinsulinemia and insulin resistance (the so-called metabolic syndrome) are characterized by a combination of abdominal obesity, elevated blood sugar, elevated blood pressure, elevated blood triglycerides, and reduced HDL cholesterol. The negative impact of hyperinsulinemia on prostaglandin PGE1/PGE2 balance may be significant.
Insulin resistance has been strongly linked to which health issue?
57271739f1498d1400e8f386
obesity
13
False
If someone struggles with insulin resistance, what kind of diabetes can develop as a result?
57271739f1498d1400e8f387
type 2
88
False
Almost all individuals who suffer from type 2 diabetes and/or obesity are found to have which trait?
57271739f1498d1400e8f388
marked insulin resistance
167
False
Appropriate exercise and reducing glycemic load are two examples of ways to stimulate which process?
57271739f1498d1400e8f389
reverse insulin resistance
505
False
The state of obesity clearly contributes to insulin resistance, which in turn can cause type 2 diabetes. Virtually all obese and most type 2 diabetic individuals have marked insulin resistance. Although the association between overweight and insulin resistance is clear, the exact (likely multifarious) causes of insulin resistance remain less clear. It is important to note that it has been demonstrated that appropriate exercise, more regular food intake, and reducing glycemic load (see below) all can reverse insulin resistance in overweight individuals (and thereby lower blood sugar levels in those with type 2 diabetes).
Obesity can cause resistance to which hormone?
572719d5dd62a815002e9900
leptin
91
False
In the so called vicious cycle, what aggravates obesity to continue the cycle?
572719d5dd62a815002e9901
insulin/leptin resistance
138
False
A characteristic of the cycle other than fat storage is a continuously high stimulation of what?
572719d5dd62a815002e9902
insulin/leptin
343
False
What function do insulin and leptin normally provide in the body?
572719d5dd62a815002e9903
satiety signals to the hypothalamus
433
False
What effect does insulin/leptin resistance have on the function of insulin/leptin?
572719d5dd62a815002e9904
reduce this signal
522
False
Obesity can unfavourably alter hormonal and metabolic status via resistance to the hormone leptin, and a vicious cycle may occur in which insulin/leptin resistance and obesity aggravate one another. The vicious cycle is putatively fuelled by continuously high insulin/leptin stimulation and fat storage, as a result of high intake of strongly insulin/leptin stimulating foods and energy. Both insulin and leptin normally function as satiety signals to the hypothalamus in the brain; however, insulin/leptin resistance may reduce this signal and therefore allow continued overfeeding despite large body fat stores. In addition, reduced leptin signalling to the brain may reduce leptin's normal effect to maintain an appropriately high metabolic rate.
The debate regarding factors influencing the development of insulin and leptin is not just about how, but also about what other factor?
57271b59f1498d1400e8f3aa
to what extent
32
False
Other than processed foods, what else was recently introduced to the human diet?
57271b59f1498d1400e8f3ab
high glycemic index
492
False
What is an example of the body's ability to maintain homeostasis being overwhelmed?
57271b59f1498d1400e8f3ac
metabolic syndrome epidemic
666
False
There is a debate about how and to what extent different dietary factors— such as intake of processed carbohydrates, total protein, fat, and carbohydrate intake, intake of saturated and trans fatty acids, and low intake of vitamins/minerals—contribute to the development of insulin and leptin resistance. In any case, analogous to the way modern man-made pollution may possess the potential to overwhelm the environment's ability to maintain homeostasis, the recent explosive introduction of high glycemic index and processed foods into the human diet may possess the potential to overwhelm the body's ability to maintain homeostasis and health (as evidenced by the metabolic syndrome epidemic).
Hyponatremia is the term that refers to which action by a human?
57271c795951b619008f8615
Excess water intake, without replenishment of sodium and potassium salts
0
False
In 2007, what kind of contest was Jennifer Strange participating in upon her death?
57271c795951b619008f8616
water-drinking
261
False
In which specific kind of events can one often find people drinking too much water?
57271c795951b619008f8617
long-distance endurance
323
False
When a human is suffering from hyponatremia, what is the main cause of damage that may occur?
57271c795951b619008f8618
swelling of the brain
581
False
Damage to the brain occurs because of the increase in which process?
57271c795951b619008f8619
osmosis
624
False
Excess water intake, without replenishment of sodium and potassium salts, leads to hyponatremia, which can further lead to water intoxication at more dangerous levels. A well-publicized case occurred in 2007, when Jennifer Strange died while participating in a water-drinking contest. More usually, the condition occurs in long-distance endurance events (such as marathon or triathlon competition and training) and causes gradual mental dulling, headache, drowsiness, weakness, and confusion; extreme cases may result in coma, convulsions, and death. The primary damage comes from swelling of the brain, caused by increased osmosis as blood salinity decreases. Effective fluid replacement techniques include water aid stations during running/cycling races, trainers providing water during team games, such as soccer, and devices such as Camel Baks, which can provide water for a person without making it too hard to drink the water.
The increase in cases of diabetes, obesity and heart disease can be traced back to an increase in the consumption of what product?
57271de4dd62a815002e9930
sugar
47
False
What has been the increase in obesity among adults in the last 30 years in the United States?
57271de4dd62a815002e9931
more than doubled
256
False
What is the current percentage of obese adults in the United States?
57271de4dd62a815002e9932
35
327
False
Within the past 30 years, how has the number of diabetes cases changed?
57271de4dd62a815002e9933
quadrupled
481
False
What does the term LDL stand for?
57271de4dd62a815002e9934
Low-density lipoprotein
755
False
The relatively recent increased consumption of sugar has been linked to the rise of some afflictions such as diabetes, obesity, and more recently heart disease. Increased consumption of sugar has been tied to these three, among others. Obesity levels have more than doubled in the last 30 years among adults, going from 15% to 35% in the United States. Obesity and diet also happen to be high risk factors for diabetes. In the same time span that obesity doubled, diabetes numbers quadrupled in America. Increased weight, especially in the form of belly fat, and high sugar intake are also high risk factors for heart disease. Both sugar intake and fatty tissue increase the probability of elevated LDL cholesterol in the bloodstream. Elevated amounts of Low-density lipoprotein (LDL) cholesterol, is the primary factor in heart disease. In order to avoid all the dangers of sugar, moderate consumption is paramount.
When did the Industrial Revolution roughly begin?
57271f3b708984140094da19
two hundred years ago
37
False
Apart from altering the state of food, what is the other main focus in technology increases for the food processing industry?
57271f3b708984140094da1a
keep foods fresh longer
135
False
Which technology is primarily responsible for helping keep food fresh?
57271f3b708984140094da1b
Cooling
219
False
Pasteurisation is an an example of a technology that aims to do what to food?
57271f3b708984140094da1c
last longer without becoming spoiled
349
False
Pasteurisation and autoclavation are examples of what kind of technique?
57271f3b708984140094da1d
heating
616
False
Since the Industrial Revolution some two hundred years ago, the food processing industry has invented many technologies that both help keep foods fresh longer and alter the fresh state of food as they appear in nature. Cooling is the primary technology used to maintain freshness, whereas many more technologies have been invented to allow foods to last longer without becoming spoiled. These latter technologies include pasteurisation, autoclavation, drying, salting, and separation of various components, all of which appearing to alter the original nutritional contents of food. Pasteurisation and autoclavation (heating techniques) have no doubt improved the safety of many common foods, preventing epidemics of bacterial infection. But some of the (new) food processing technologies have downfalls as well.
Centrifugation and pressing are prime examples of what?
57272043f1498d1400e8f3ca
Modern separation techniques
0
False
An unfortunate side effect of concentrating food components is that it causes what change in the food?
57272043f1498d1400e8f3cb
nutritional content
300
False
What kind of nutritional value do the processed foods have in comparison to their fresh variants?
57272043f1498d1400e8f3cc
reduced
565
False
What is another term other than 'fortified' that can be used to describe the addition of nutrients to processed food?
57272043f1498d1400e8f3cd
enriched
619
False
Outside of oxidized fats, what is another substance that is deemed harmful that can be found in processed foods?
57272043f1498d1400e8f3ce
trans fatty acids
1092
False
Modern separation techniques such as milling, centrifugation, and pressing have enabled concentration of particular components of food, yielding flour, oils, juices, and so on, and even separate fatty acids, amino acids, vitamins, and minerals. Inevitably, such large-scale concentration changes the nutritional content of food, saving certain nutrients while removing others. Heating techniques may also reduce food's content of many heat-labile nutrients such as certain vitamins and phytochemicals, and possibly other yet-to-be-discovered substances. Because of reduced nutritional value, processed foods are often 'enriched' or 'fortified' with some of the most critical nutrients (usually certain vitamins) that were lost during processing. Nonetheless, processed foods tend to have an inferior nutritional profile compared to whole, fresh foods, regarding content of both sugar and high GI starches, potassium/sodium, vitamins, fiber, and of intact, unoxidized (essential) fatty acids. In addition, processed foods often contain potentially harmful substances such as oxidized fats and trans fatty acids.
What did people who became ill with beri-beri have as their main food source?
5727218cdd62a815002e9944
polished rice
142
False
What vitamin is removed during the polishing of rice?
5727218cdd62a815002e9945
thiamine
244
False
Which disease became prevalent among infants in the United States as an effect of processed foods?
5727218cdd62a815002e9946
scurvy
311
False
What treatment did the milk that was fed to infants undergo to control bacterial disease?
5727218cdd62a815002e9947
Pasteurisation
532
False
What was destroyed during the pasteurisation of the milk?
5727218cdd62a815002e9948
vitamin C
600
False
A dramatic example of the effect of food processing on a population's health is the history of epidemics of beri-beri in people subsisting on polished rice. Removing the outer layer of rice by polishing it removes with it the essential vitamin thiamine, causing beri-beri. Another example is the development of scurvy among infants in the late 19th century in the United States. It turned out that the vast majority of sufferers were being fed milk that had been heat-treated (as suggested by Pasteur) to control bacterial disease. Pasteurisation was effective against bacteria, but it destroyed the vitamin C.
What is undoubtedly a cause of the increase in obesity related diseases that are becoming prevalent?
5727236a5951b619008f865f
widespread application of some modern food processing technologies
156
False
Aside from agricultural subsidizing, what else does the food processing industry influence in terms of political decisions?
5727236a5951b619008f8660
nutritional recommendations
384
False
What is perceived as the general priority of the food processing industry in this sort of economy?
5727236a5951b619008f8661
effective production of cheap foods with a long shelf-life
521
False
The more expensive fresh foods have what nutritional value in relation to processed food?
5727236a5951b619008f8662
superior
825
False
Other than being cheaper, what is another main draw of processed foods?
5727236a5951b619008f8663
more convenient
958
False
As mentioned, lifestyle- and obesity-related diseases are becoming increasingly prevalent all around the world. There is little doubt that the increasingly widespread application of some modern food processing technologies has contributed to this development. The food processing industry is a major part of modern economy, and as such it is influential in political decisions (e.g., nutritional recommendations, agricultural subsidising). In any known profit-driven economy, health considerations are hardly a priority; effective production of cheap foods with a long shelf-life is more the trend. In general, whole, fresh foods have a relatively short shelf-life and are less profitable to produce and sell than are more processed foods. Thus, the consumer is left with the choice between more expensive, but nutritionally superior, whole, fresh foods, and cheap, usually nutritionally inferior, processed foods. Because processed foods are often cheaper, more convenient (in both purchasing, storage, and preparation), and more available, the consumption of nutritionally inferior foods has been increasing throughout the world along with many nutrition-related health complications.
Crimean_War
What year did the Crimean War begin?
5726ad55f1498d1400e8e6e4
1853
63
False
What year did the Crimean War end?
5726ad55f1498d1400e8e6e5
1856
76
False
Who controlled the rights of Christian minorities in the Holy Land?
5726ad55f1498d1400e8e6e6
Ottoman Empire
292
False
Who promoted the rights of the Catholic people?
5726ad55f1498d1400e8e6e7
The French
308
False
Who promoted the rights of the Eastern Orthodox Christians?
5726ad55f1498d1400e8e6e8
Russia
359
False
The Crimean War was a military conflict fought between October 1853 – March 1856 in which Russia lost to an alliance of France, the United Kingdom, the Ottoman Empire, and Sardinia. The immediate cause involved the rights of Christian minorities in the Holy Land, which was controlled by the Ottoman Empire. The French promoted the rights of Catholics, while Russia promoted those of the Eastern Orthodox Christians. The longer-term causes involved the decline of the Ottoman Empire and the unwillingness of the United Kingdom and France to allow Russia to gain territory and power at Ottoman expense. It has widely been noted that the causes, in one case involving an argument over a key, have never revealed a "greater confusion of purpose", yet led to a war noted for its "notoriously incompetent international butchery."
Which two figures refused to back down after the churches worked out their disagreements?
5726b004f1498d1400e8e750
Nicholas I of Russia and Napoleon III
98
False
Who wanted the Orthodox subjects to be placed under their protection?
5726b004f1498d1400e8e751
Nicholas
158
False
Who arranged the compromise that Nicholas agreed to?
5726b004f1498d1400e8e752
Britain
260
False
Who demanded the changes that Nicholas later refused?
5726b004f1498d1400e8e753
Ottomans
350
False
What month did the Ottomans declare war on Russia?
5726b004f1498d1400e8e754
October
527
False
While the churches eventually worked out their differences and came to an initial agreement, both Nicholas I of Russia and Napoleon III refused to back down. Nicholas issued an ultimatum that the Orthodox subjects of the Empire be placed under his protection. Britain attempted to mediate, and arranged a compromise that Nicholas agreed to. When the Ottomans demanded changes, Nicholas refused and prepared for war. Having obtained promises of support from France and Britain, the Ottomans officially declared war on Russia in October 1853.
Where did the war begin?
5726b245dd62a815002e8d24
Balkans
22
False
Russian troops took over which provinces first?
5726b245dd62a815002e8d25
modern Romania
72
False
Who were the Ottomans led by?
5726b245dd62a815002e8d26
Omar Pasha
125
False
When the Turkish tried to provide reinforcements, where were they stopped at?
5726b245dd62a815002e8d27
Sinop
381
False
Who hurried their forces to Gallipoli when they feared the Ottoman for would collapse?
5726b245dd62a815002e8d28
France and the UK
417
False
The war opened in the Balkans when Russian troops occupied provinces in modern Romania and began to cross the Danube. Led by Omar Pasha, the Ottomans fought a strong defensive battle and stopped the advance at Silistra. A separate action on the fort town of Kars in eastern Turkey led to a siege, and a Turkish attempt to reinforce the garrison was destroyed by a Russian fleet at Sinop. Fearing an Ottoman collapse, France and the UK rushed forces to Gallipoli. They then moved north to Varna in June, arriving just in time for the Russians to abandon Silistra. Aside from a minor skirmish at Constanța there was little for the allies to do. Karl Marx quipped that "there they are, the French doing nothing and the British helping them as fast as possible".
Near what sea did the allies decide to attack the Russians?
5726b475dd62a815002e8d7a
Black Sea
155
False
In what year did the allies land on the Crimean peninsula?
5726b475dd62a815002e8d7b
1854
282
False
The battle of Battle of Balaclava took place in what month?
5726b475dd62a815002e8d7c
October
412
False
Who defeated Nicholas's second counter strike at the Battle of Balaclava?
5726b475dd62a815002e8d7d
Omar Pasha
614
False
The Crimean peninsula is located in what city?
5726b475dd62a815002e8d7e
Sevastopol
168
False
Frustrated by the wasted effort, and with demands for action from their citizens, the allied force decided to attack the center of Russian strength in the Black Sea at Sevastopol on the Crimean peninsula. After extended preparations, the forces landed on the peninsula in September 1854 and fought their way to a point south of Sevastopol after a series of successful battles. The Russians counterattacked on 25 October in what became the Battle of Balaclava and were repulsed, but at the cost of seriously depleting the British Army forces. A second counterattack, ordered personally by Nicholas, was defeated by Omar Pasha. The front settled into a siege and led to horrible conditions for troops on both sides. Smaller actions were carried out in the Baltic, the Caucasus, the White Sea and in the North Pacific.
How long did it take for Sevastopol to fall?
5726b702f1498d1400e8e8a6
eleven months
22
False
Who wanted peace when they feared of being invaded from the west?
5726b702f1498d1400e8e8a7
Russia
185
False
What was the name of the treaty that ended the war?
5726b702f1498d1400e8e8a8
Treaty of Paris
380
False
When was the Treaty of Paris signed?
5726b702f1498d1400e8e8a9
30 March 1856
407
False
Who regained control of the Christian churches after the war was over?
5726b702f1498d1400e8e8aa
Orthodox church
644
False
Sevastopol fell after eleven months, and formerly neutral countries began to join the allied cause. Isolated and facing a bleak prospect of invasion from the west if the war continued, Russia sued for peace in March 1856. This was welcomed by France and the UK, where the citizens began to turn against their governments as the war dragged on. The war was officially ended by the Treaty of Paris, signed on 30 March 1856. Russia lost the war, and was forbidden from hosting warships in the Black Sea. The Ottoman vassal states of Wallachia and Moldavia became largely independent. Christians were granted a degree of official equality, and the Orthodox church regained control of the Christian churches in dispute.:415
What modern technologies were first used during the Crimean War?
5726b882dd62a815002e8e20
explosive naval shells, railways, and telegraphs
82
False
Who was recognized for treating the wounded while pioneering modern nursing?
5726b882dd62a815002e8e21
Florence Nightingale
491
False
The war was one of the first to be documented in what two ways?
5726b882dd62a815002e8e22
written reports and photographs
202
False
The Crimean War was one of the first conflicts to use modern technologies such as explosive naval shells, railways, and telegraphs.(Preface) The war was one of the first to be documented extensively in written reports and photographs. As the legend of the "Charge of the Light Brigade" demonstrates, the war quickly became an iconic symbol of logistical, medical and tactical failures and mismanagement. The reaction in the UK was a demand for professionalization, most famously achieved by Florence Nightingale, who gained worldwide attention for pioneering modern nursing while treating the wounded.
In what year did The Greek Uprising take place?
5726ba18708984140094cf4f
1821
152
False
Who disbanded the Janissary corps?
5726ba18708984140094cf50
Sultan Mahmud II
351
False
In what year was the Janissary corp disbanded?
5726ba18708984140094cf51
1826
379
False
Who destroyed most of the Ottoman's naval forces during the Battle of Navarino?
5726ba18708984140094cf52
the allied Anglo-Franco-Russian fleet
543
False
In what year did Greece finally become an independent state?
5726ba18708984140094cf53
1830
661
False
In 1820-1830’s the Ottoman Empire endured a number of strikes which challenged the existence of the country. The Greek Uprising (began in the spring of 1821) evidenced internal and military weakness of Ottoman Empire and caused severe atrocities by Ottoman military forces (see Chios massacre). The disbandment of the centuries-old Janissary corps by Sultan Mahmud II on 15 June 1826 (Auspicious Incident) was a good deed for the country in the longer term, but it has deprived the country from its army forces for the nearest future. In 1827 the allied Anglo-Franco-Russian fleet destroyed almost all the Ottoman naval forces during the Battle of Navarino. In 1830 Greece becomes an independent state after 10 years of independence war and the Russo-Turkish War of 1828–1829. According to the Treaty of Adrianople (1829) Russian and European commercial ships were authorized to freely pass through Black Sea straits, Serbia received autonomy, and Danubian Principalities (Moldavia and Walachia) became the territories under Russian protection.
In what year did France move into Alger?
5726bbb8dd62a815002e8e9c
1830
51
False
In 1831, who was the strongest vassal of the Ottoman Empire?
5726bbb8dd62a815002e8e9d
Muhammad Ali of Egypt
65
False
Who wanted to take over Constantinople?
5726bbb8dd62a815002e8e9e
Egyptians
223
False
What military force did Mahmud II ask for aid?
5726bbb8dd62a815002e8e9f
Russian
317
False
How many Russians troops were sent to the Bosphorus shores?
5726bbb8dd62a815002e8ea0
10 000
339
False
France used the right moment and occupied Alger in 1830. In 1831 Muhammad Ali of Egypt, who was the most powerful vassal of the Ottoman Empire, claimed independence. Ottoman forces were defeated in a number of battles, and Egyptians were ready to capture Constantinople, which forced the sultan Mahmud II to seek for Russian military aid. 10 000 Russian army corps landed on the Bosphorus shores in 1833 and helped to prevent the capture of Constantinople, thus the possible disappearance of the Ottoman Empire was prevented.
In 1838, who was not pleased of their lack of power in Syria?
5726bdf7dd62a815002e8f06
Muhammad Ali of Egypt
56
False
Who did the Ottomans lose to at the Battle of Nezib?
5726bdf7dd62a815002e8f07
Egyptians
192
False
In what year did the Battle of Nezib take place?
5726bdf7dd62a815002e8f08
1839
237
False
Who helped save the Ottomans by signing a convention in London?
5726bdf7dd62a815002e8f09
Great Britain, Austria, Prussia and Russia
275
False
In what year did Muhammad Ali  finally accept the terms of the London convention?
5726bdf7dd62a815002e8f0a
1840
834
False
In 1838 the situation was slightly the same as in 1831. Muhammad Ali of Egypt was not happy about lack of his control and power in Syria, he resumed military actions. The Ottoman army lost to Egyptians at the Battle of Nezib on June 24, 1839. The Ottoman Empire was saved by Great Britain, Austria, Prussia and Russia by signing a convention in London in July 15, 1840 to grant Muhammad Ali and his descendants the right to inherit power in Egypt in exchange for removal of Egyptian military forces from Syria and Lebanon. Moreover, Muhammad Ali had to admit a formal dependence from the Ottoman sultan. After Muhammad Ali refused to obey the requirements of the London convention, the allied Anglo-Austrian fleet blocked the Delta, bombarded Beirut and captured Acre. Muhammad Ali accepted the conditions of the London convention in 1840.
Who operated as the "police of Europe"?
5726bf8b708984140094d04d
Russia
0
False
What treaty was signing in 1815?
5726bf8b708984140094d04e
Treaty of Vienna
148
False
In what year did the Hungarian Revolution take place?
5726bf8b708984140094d04f
1848
255
False
Who did Russia help during the Hungarian Revolution?
5726bf8b708984140094d050
Austria
194
False
In exchange for helping Austria, Russia wanted to be freely able to handle any issues they had with who?
5726bf8b708984140094d051
Ottoman Empire
341
False
Russia, as a member of the Holy Alliance, had operated as the "police of Europe", maintaining the balance of power that had been established in the Treaty of Vienna in 1815. Russia had assisted Austria's efforts in suppressing the Hungarian Revolution of 1848, and expected gratitude; it wanted a free hand in settling its problems with the Ottoman Empire — the "sick man of Europe". The United Kingdom could not tolerate Russian dominance of Ottoman affairs, as that would challenge the British domination of the eastern Mediterranean.
For 200 years, Russia been expanding across what area?
5726c2625951b619008f7d71
Wild Fields
88
False
Why did Russia move towards the warmer ports of the Black Sea?
5726c2625951b619008f7d72
to promote year-round trade and a year-round navy
240
False
Who did Russia first have issues with when moving towards the warmer ports in the Black Sea?
5726c2625951b619008f7d73
Ukrainian Cossacks
373
False
Who was treated as second class citizens under the Ottomans?
5726c2625951b619008f7d74
Orthodox Christians
840
False
During the Russian imperial times, what other name was southern Ukraine known by?
5726c2625951b619008f7d75
New Russia
544
False
For over 200 years, Russia had been expanding southwards across the sparsely populated "Wild Fields" toward the warm water ports of the Black Sea that did not freeze over like the handful of other ports available in the north. The goal was to promote year-round trade and a year-round navy.:11 Pursuit of this goal brought the emerging Russian state into conflict with the Ukrainian Cossacks and then with the Tatars of the Crimean Khanate and Circassians. When Russia conquered these groups and gained possession of southern Ukraine, known as New Russia during Russian imperial times, the Ottoman Empire lost its buffer zone against Russian expansion, and Russia and the Ottoman Empire fell into direct conflict. The conflict with the Ottoman Empire also presented a religious issue of importance, as Russia saw itself as the protector of Orthodox Christians, many of whom lived under Ottoman control and were treated as second-class citizens.(ch 1)
What did Russia fail to build south?
5726c4785951b619008f7d95
railroad network
177
False
What did some feel the Russian army was only good for?
5726c4785951b619008f7d96
parades
436
False
What did Russian colonels due to the men who served under them?
5726c4785951b619008f7d97
pocketed their men's pay
472
False
It is often said that Russia was militarily weak, technologically backward, and administratively incompetent. Despite its grand ambitions toward the south, it had not built its railroad network in that direction, and communications were poor. The bureaucracy was riddled with graft, corruption and inefficiency and was unprepared for war. Its navy was weak and technologically backward; its army, although very large, was good only for parades, suffered from colonels who pocketed their men's pay, poor morale, and was out of touch with the latest technology developed by Britain and France. By the war's end, everyone realized the profound weaknesses of the Russian military, and the Russian leadership was determined to reform it.
In what year did France and the U.K declare war on Russia?
5726c641708984140094d121
1854
114
False
What individual was responsible for France and the U.K declaring war on Russia?
5726c641708984140094d122
Napoleon III
164
False
Who demanded protection for Roman Catholic rights in sacred places in Palestine?
5726c641708984140094d123
Charles de La Valette
337
False
Charles de La Valette was a devoted and leading member of what party?
5726c641708984140094d124
clerical party
411
False
What position did Napoleon III appoint to La Valette?
5726c641708984140094d125
ambassador to the Porte
573
False
The immediate chain of events leading to France and the United Kingdom declaring war on Russia on 27 and 28 March 1854 came from the ambition of the French emperor Napoleon III to restore the grandeur of France. He wanted Catholic support that would come his way if he attacked Eastern Orthodoxy, as sponsored by Russia.:103 The Marquis Charles de La Valette was a zealous Catholic and a leading member of the "clerical party," which demanded French protection of the Roman Catholic rights to the holy places in Palestine. In May 1851, Napoleon appointed La Valette as his ambassador to the Porte (the Ottoman Empire).:7–9 The appointment was made with the intent of forcing the Ottomans to recognise France as the "sovereign authority" over the Christian population.:19 Russia disputed this attempted change in authority. Pointing to two more treaties, one in 1757 and the 1774 Treaty of Küçük Kaynarca, the Ottomans reversed their earlier decision, renouncing the French treaty and insisting that Russia was the protector of the Orthodox Christians in the Ottoman Empire.
What was the name of the ship that Napoleon sent to the Black Sea?
5726c8615951b619008f7dfb
Charlemagne
74
False
Sending a ship to the Black Sea violated the terms made during what agreement?
5726c8615951b619008f7dfc
London Straits Convention
139
False
Who felt threaten by France's force and ended up signing a new treaty?
5726c8615951b619008f7dfd
Sultan Abdülmecid I
302
False
Who previously held the keys to the Church of the Nativity?
5726c8615951b619008f7dfe
Greek Orthodox Church
559
False
Who held authority over Roman Catholic holy places after Sultan Abdülmecid I agreed to the new treaty?
5726c8615951b619008f7dff
France and the Roman Catholic Church
357
False
Napoleon III responded with a show of force, sending the ship of the line Charlemagne to the Black Sea. This action was a violation of the London Straits Convention.:104:19 Thus, France's show of force presented a real threat, and when combined with aggressive diplomacy and money, induced the Ottoman Sultan Abdülmecid I to accept a new treaty, confirming France and the Roman Catholic Church as the supreme Christian authority with control over the Roman Catholic holy places and possession of the keys to the Church of the Nativity, previously held by the Greek Orthodox Church.:20
Who was the British ambassador in 1853?
5726ca375951b619008f7e27
George Hamilton Seymour
87
False
Who declared they no longer wanted to spread Imperial Russian?
5726ca375951b619008f7e28
Nicholas
146
False
Who did the Tsar send on a mission to Ottoman Sublime Porte?
5726ca375951b619008f7e29
Prince Menshikov
359
False
In what year was Prince Menshikov sent to the Ottoman Sublime Porte?
5726ca375951b619008f7e2a
1853
439
False
Who wanted to ruled over the 12 million Orthodox Christians in the Empire?
5726ca375951b619008f7e2b
Menshikov
565
False
Nicholas began courting Britain by means of conversations with the British ambassador, George Hamilton Seymour, in January and February 1853.:105 Nicholas insisted that he no longer wished to expand Imperial Russia:105 but that he had an obligation to the Christian communities in the Ottoman Empire.:105  The Tsar next dispatched a highly abrasive diplomat, Prince Menshikov, on a special mission to the Ottoman Sublime Porte in February 1853. By previous treaties, the sultan was committed "to protect the (Eastern Orthodox) Christian religion and its churches." Menshikov demanded a Russian protectorate over all 12 million Orthodox Christians in the Empire, with control of the Orthodox Church's hierarchy. A compromise was reached regarding Orthodox access to the Holy Land, but the Sultan, strongly supported by the British ambassador, rejected the more sweeping demands.
Who was the Prime Minister of the British Government in 1853?
5726cbd0708984140094d191
Lord Aberdeen
44
False
Who did Aberdeen appoint the position of British ambassador to the Ottoman Empire to?
5726cbd0708984140094d192
Stratford Canning
92
False
Who replaced Stratford Canning after he first resigned as British ambassador to the Ottoman Empire ?
5726cbd0708984140094d193
Colonel Rose
230
False
After resigning where did Stratford Canning sail off to?
5726cbd0708984140094d194
Constantinople
318
False
Who did Stratford Canning convince to turn down the treaty proposal?
5726cbd0708984140094d195
Sultan
389
False
In February 1853, the British government of Lord Aberdeen, the prime minister, re-appointed Stratford Canning as British ambassador to the Ottoman Empire.:110 Having resigned the ambassadorship in January, he had been replaced by Colonel Rose as chargé d'affaires. Lord Stratford then turned around and sailed back to Constantinople, arriving there on 5 April 1853. There he convinced the Sultan to reject the Russian treaty proposal, as compromising the independence of the Turks. The Leader of the Opposition in the British House of Commons, Benjamin Disraeli, blamed Aberdeen and Stratford's actions for making war inevitable, thus starting the process which would eventually force the Aberdeen government to resign in January 1855, over the war.
Who sent armies across the Pruth River?
5726cd33f1498d1400e8eb9e
the Tsar
94
False
Who commanded the armies across the Pruth River?
5726cd33f1498d1400e8eb9f
Field Marshal Ivan Paskevich and General Mikhail Gorchakov
137
False
Who was in control of the Danubian Principalities?
5726cd33f1498d1400e8eba0
Ottoman
228
False
In what year did Russian soldiers cross the Pruth River?
5726cd33f1498d1400e8eba1
1853
370
False
How did most Russians die when crossing the Pruth River?
5726cd33f1498d1400e8eba2
sickness
430
False
Shortly after he learned of the failure of Menshikov's diplomacy toward the end of June 1853, the Tsar sent armies under the commands of Field Marshal Ivan Paskevich and General Mikhail Gorchakov across the Pruth River into the Ottoman-controlled Danubian Principalities of Moldavia and Wallachia. Fewer than half of the 80,000 Russian soldiers who crossed the Pruth in 1853 survived. By far, most of the deaths would result from sickness rather than combat,:118–119 for the Russian army still suffered from medical services that ranged from bad to none.
Who was given the special role of guardian over the Orthodox Christians in Moldavia and Wallachia?
5726ceaa5951b619008f7e93
Russia
0
False
Who recognized and gave Russia the special guardian role?
5726ceaa5951b619008f7e94
Ottoman Empire of the Tsar's
52
False
Who felt Europe would not object to the joining of neighboring Ottoman provinces?
5726ceaa5951b619008f7e95
Nicholas
341
False
Russia had previously obtained recognition from the Ottoman Empire of the Tsar's role as special guardian of the Orthodox Christians in Moldavia and Wallachia. Now Russia used the Sultan's failure to resolve the issue of the protection of the Christian sites in the Holy Land as a pretext for Russian occupation of these Danubian provinces. Nicholas believed that the European powers, especially Austria, would not object strongly to the annexation of a few neighbouring Ottoman provinces, especially considering that Russia had assisted Austria's efforts in suppressing the Hungarian Revolution in 1849.
What European powers met in Vienna for a conference?
5726df6d708984140094d43b
United Kingdom, France, Austria and Prussia
117
False
Who delivered the peace terms of the Vienna Conference to the Russians?
5726df6d708984140094d43c
Count Karl von Buol
412
False
In what year did Count Karl von Buol deliver the Vienna Conference news to the Russians?
5726df6d708984140094d43d
1853
446
False
Who rejected the proposal due to poor word phrasing?
5726df6d708984140094d43e
Abdülmecid I
507
False
Who approved the proposal given by Count Karl von Buol ?
5726df6d708984140094d43f
Nicholas I
486
False
The European powers continued to pursue diplomatic avenues. The representatives of the four neutral Great Powers—the United Kingdom, France, Austria and Prussia—met in Vienna, where they drafted a note that they hoped would be acceptable to both the Russians and the Ottomans. The peace terms arrived at by the four powers at the Vienna Conference were delivered to the Russians by the Austrian Foreign Minister Count Karl von Buol on 5 December 1853. The note met with the approval of Nicholas I; however, Abdülmecid I rejected the proposal, feeling that the document's poor phrasing left it open to many different interpretations. The United Kingdom, France, and Austria united in proposing amendments to mollify the Sultan, but the court of St. Petersburg ignored their suggestions.:143 The UK and France then set aside the idea of continuing negotiations, but Austria and Prussia did not believe that the rejection of the proposed amendments justified the abandonment of the diplomatic process.
What battle took place on November 30, 1853?
5726e159708984140094d491
Battle of Sinop
64
False
What did the Russian send to Sinop?
5726e159708984140094d492
a fleet
18
False
While anchored in the port, what did the Russians destroy?
5726e159708984140094d493
a patrol squadron of Ottoman frigates and corvettes
115
False
What did Battle of Sinop provide for France and the U.K?
5726e159708984140094d494
cause for war
336
False
When did the Russia disregard the ultimatum to leave the Danubian Principalities?
5726e159708984140094d495
28 March 1854
389
False
The Russians sent a fleet to Sinop in northern Anatolia. In the Battle of Sinop on 30 November 1853 they destroyed a patrol squadron of Ottoman frigates and corvettes while they were anchored in port. Public opinion in the UK and France was outraged and demanded war. Sinop provided the United Kingdom and France with the casus belli ("cause for war") for declaring war against Russia. On 28 March 1854, after Russia ignored an Anglo-French ultimatum to withdraw from the Danubian Principalities, the UK and France formally declared war.
Who was concerned with Russia  capturing Constantinople?
5726e7d3f1498d1400e8ef84
Britain
0
False
Who sent men to the Dardanelles?
5726e7d3f1498d1400e8ef85
The Corps of Royal Engineers
281
False
As men were sent to the Dardanelles, where did Burgoyne go?
5726e7d3f1498d1400e8ef86
Paris
361
False
Who was Burgoyne visiting in Paris?
5726e7d3f1498d1400e8ef87
British Ambassador and the French Emperor
380
False
Who wrote to Burgoyne on February 8th?
5726e7d3f1498d1400e8ef88
Lord Cowley
427
False
Britain was concerned about Russian activity and Sir John Burgoyne senior advisor to Lord Aberdeen urged that the Dardanelles should be occupied and throw up works of sufficient strength to block any Russian move to capture Constantinople and gain access to the Mediterranean Sea. The Corps of Royal Engineers sent men to the Dardanelles while Burgoyne went to Paris, meeting the British Ambassador and the French Emperor. The Lord Cowley wrote on 8 February to Burgoyne "Your visit to Paris has produced a visible change in the Emperor's views, and he is making every preparation for a land expedition in case the last attempt at negotiation should break down.":411
In what year did the Hungarian revolution take place?
5726e9415951b619008f8233
1848
93
False
Who felt Austria would side with him due to the Hungarian revolution outcome?
5726e9415951b619008f8234
Nicholas
0
False
Who did Austria feel threatened by?
5726e9415951b619008f8235
Russian troops in the Balkans
206
False
Who wanted the Russian forces to leave the principalities?
5726e9415951b619008f8236
the United Kingdom and France
258
False
Why did the U.K and France get involved with the war against the Russia?
5726e9415951b619008f8237
Russia's rejection of the ultimatum
464
False
Nicholas felt that, because of Russian assistance in suppressing the Hungarian revolution of 1848, Austria would side with him, or at the very least remain neutral. Austria, however, felt threatened by the Russian troops in the Balkans. On 27 February 1854, the United Kingdom and France demanded the withdrawal of Russian forces from the principalities; Austria supported them and, though it did not declare war on Russia, it refused to guarantee its neutrality. Russia's rejection of the ultimatum caused the UK and France to enter the war.
The Ottoman ultimatum took place in what year?
5726eae8dd62a815002e952a
1853
45
False
What general crossed across the Danube at Vidin?
5726eae8dd62a815002e952b
Omar Pasha
84
False
After crossing the Danube at Vidin, what city did General Omar Pasha take control over?
5726eae8dd62a815002e952c
Calafat
136
False
After crossing the Danube at Silistra, in what city did the Ottomans attack the Russians?
5726eae8dd62a815002e952d
Oltenița
263
False
What is the name of the village 9 miles north of Calafat where the Ottoman forces attacked the Russians?
5726eae8dd62a815002e952e
Chetatea or Cetate
503
False
Following the Ottoman ultimatum in September 1853, forces under the Ottoman general Omar Pasha crossed the Danube at Vidin and captured Calafat in October 1853. Simultaneously, in the east, the Ottomans crossed the Danube at Silistra and attacked the Russians at Oltenița. The resulting Battle of Oltenița was the first engagement following the declaration of war. The Russians counterattacked, but were beaten back. On 31 December 1853, the Ottoman forces at Calafat moved against the Russian force at Chetatea or Cetate, a small village nine miles north of Calafat, and engaged them on 6 January 1854. The battle began when the Russians made a move to recapture Calafat. Most of the heavy fighting, however, took place in and around Chetatea until the Russians were driven out of the village. Despite the setback at Chetatea, on 28 January 1854, Russian forces laid siege to Calafat. The siege would continue until May 1854 when the Russians lifted the siege. The Ottomans would also later beat the Russians in battle at Caracal.:130–43
Who advanced on Dobruja in the spring of 1854?
5726ec36708984140094d62b
the Russians
22
False
What river did the Russians cross to get to Dobruja?
5726ec36708984140094d62c
Danube River
64
False
How man troops did the Russians have when they attacked Silistra ?
5726ec36708984140094d62d
60,000 troops
313
False
When did the siege of Silistra end?
5726ec36708984140094d62e
23 June 1854
413
False
Why couldn't the French and English take control of the field?
5726ec36708984140094d62f
lack of equipment
504
False
In the spring of 1854 the Russians again advanced, crossing the Danube River into the Turkish province of Dobruja. By April 1854, the Russians had reached the lines of Trajan's Wall where they were finally halted. In the center, the Russian forces crossed the Danube and laid siege to Silistra from 14 April with 60,000 troops, the defenders with 15,000 had supplies for three months.:415 The siege was lifted on 23 June 1854. The English and French forces at this time were unable to take the field for lack of equipment.:415
Who stopped the Russians from attacking Vidin?
5726edba5951b619008f8299
Austrian forces
85
False
How man men did the Austrian forces have when stopping the attack on Vidin?
5726edba5951b619008f829a
280,000
123
False
What river did the Russians crossed when they entered the city of Moldavia?
5726edba5951b619008f829b
River Pruth
416
False
Who didn't show any signs of rising up against the Turks?
5726edba5951b619008f829c
Orthodox Christians
447
False
After the settlement between Russia and Turkey, who did the Austrians decide to join?
5726edba5951b619008f829d
Turkey
813
False
In the west, the Russians were dissuaded from attacking Vidin by the presence of the Austrian forces, which had swelled to 280,000 men. On 28 May 1854 a protocol of the Vienna Conference was signed by Austria and Russia. One of the aims of the Russian advance had been to encourage the Orthodox Christian Serbs and Bulgarians living under Ottoman rule to rebel. However, when the Russian troops actually crossed the River Pruth into Moldavia, the Orthodox Christians still showed no interest in rising up against the Turks.:131, 137 Adding to the worries of Nicholas I was the concern that Austria would enter the war against the Russians and attack his armies on the western flank. Indeed, after attempting to mediate a peaceful settlement between Russia and Turkey, the Austrians entered the war on the side of Turkey with an attack against the Russians in the Principalities which threatened to cut off the Russian supply lines. Accordingly, the Russians were forced to raise the siege of Silistra on 23 June 1854, and begin abandoning the Principalities.:185 The lifting of the siege reduced the threat of a Russian advance into Bulgaria.
The city of Varna is located on what coast of the Black Sea?
5726eef8f1498d1400e8f054
western coast
88
False
Who lead the Turks when crossing the Danube into Wallachia ?
5726eef8f1498d1400e8f055
Omar Pasha
207
False
In what year did the Turks cross the Danube into Wallachia ?
5726eef8f1498d1400e8f056
1854
266
False
In what city did Omar Pasha attack the Russians after crossing the Danube into Wallachia ?
5726eef8f1498d1400e8f057
Giurgiu
308
False
The ordered the Russian troops to leave the Principalities?
5726eef8f1498d1400e8f058
Tsar Nicholas I
469
False
In June 1854, the Allied expeditionary force landed at Varna, a city on the Black Sea's western coast (now in Bulgaria). They made little advance from their base there.:175–176 In July 1854, the Turks under Omar Pasha crossed the Danube into Wallachia and on 7 July 1854, engaged the Russians in the city of Giurgiu and conquered it. The capture of Giurgiu by the Turks immediately threatened Bucharest in Wallachia with capture by the same Turk army. On 26 July 1854, Tsar Nicholas I ordered the withdrawal of Russian troops from the Principalities. Also, in late July 1854, following up on the Russian retreat, the French staged an expedition against the Russian forces still in Dobruja, but this was a failure.:188–190
At what harbor did a Russian fleet attacked a Ottoman force?
5726f1425951b619008f8301
harbour at Sinop
317
False
What was the name of the ship that was attacked outside of the Odessa harbor?
5726f1425951b619008f8302
Furious
542
False
Who attacked the port after the attack outside of Odessa harbor?
5726f1425951b619008f8303
an Anglo-French fleet
599
False
After the battle of Sinop, what steamship approached the Port of Sevastopol to show support for Turkey?
5726f1425951b619008f8304
HMS Retribution
824
False
During this period, the Russian Black Sea Fleet was operating against Ottoman coastal traffic between Constantinople (currently named Istanbul) and the Caucasus ports, while the Ottoman fleet sought to protect this supply line. The clash came on 30 November 1853 when a Russian fleet attacked an Ottoman force in the harbour at Sinop, and destroyed it at the Battle of Sinop. The battle outraged opinion in UK, which called for war. There was little additional naval action until March 1854 when on the declaration of war the British frigate Furious was fired on outside Odessa harbour. In response an Anglo-French fleet bombarded the port, causing much damage to the town. To show support for Turkey after the battle of Sinop, on the 22th of December 1853, the Anglo-French squadron entered the Black Sea and the steamship HMS Retribution approached the Port of Sevastopol, the commander of which received an ultimatum not to allow any ships in the Black Sea.
Where was the port where most of the Black Sea fleet was located?
5726f2d65951b619008f8335
Sevastopol
334
False
What did the Russians turn their warships into?
5726f2d65951b619008f8336
blockships
484
False
Why did the Russians strip their warships of their guns?
5726f2d65951b619008f8337
to reinforce batteries on shore
539
False
How many 60-gun frigates did the Russians lose in the Black Sea?
5726f2d65951b619008f8338
four
692
False
How many 84-gun two-deckers did the Russians lose in the Black Sea?
5726f2d65951b619008f8339
twelve
662
False
In June, the fleets transported the Allied expeditionary forces to Varna, in support of the Ottoman operations on the Danube; in September they again transported the armies, this time to the Crimea. The Russian fleet during this time declined to engage the allies, preferring to maintain a "fleet in being"; this strategy failed when Sevastopol, the main port and where most of the Black Sea fleet was based, came under siege. The Russians were reduced to scuttling their warships as blockships, after stripping them of their guns and men to reinforce batteries on shore. During the siege, the Russians lost four 110- or 120-gun, three-decker ships of the line, twelve 84-gun two-deckers and four 60-gun frigates in the Black Sea, plus a large number of smaller vessels. During the rest of the campaign the allied fleets remained in control of the Black Sea, ensuring the various fronts were kept supplied.
In what year did the Russians leave Wallachia and Moldavia?
5726f4505951b619008f8359
1854
59
False
War fever from what two countries caused the war to continue on?
5726f4505951b619008f835a
UK and France
253
False
Who voted to have a committee investigate the mismanagement during the war?
5726f4505951b619008f835b
Parliament
541
False
The Russians evacuated Wallachia and Moldavia in late July 1854. With the evacuation of the Danubian Principalities, the immediate cause of war was withdrawn and the war might have ended at this time.:192 However, war fever among the public in both the UK and France had been whipped up by the press in both countries to the degree that politicians found it untenable to propose ending the war at this point. Indeed, the coalition government of George Hamilton-Gordon, 4th Earl of Aberdeen fell on 30 January 1855 on a no-confidence vote as Parliament voted to appoint a committee to investigate mismanagement of the war.:311
In what year did the Crimean campaign open?
5726f606708984140094d705
1854
41
False
360 ships landed in what bay?
5726f606708984140094d706
bay of Eupatoria
158
False
How many Marines cause Eupatoria to surrender?
5726f606708984140094d707
500 Marines
201
False
What is the name of the bay located at the south west coast of the Crimean Peninsula?
5726f606708984140094d708
Calamita Bay
417
False
The Russians were surprised because they were expecting the fleet to land where?
5726f606708984140094d709
Katcha
556
False
The Crimean campaign opened in September 1854. 360 ships sailed in seven columns, each steamer towing two sailing ships.:422 Anchoring on 13 September in the bay of Eupatoria, the town surrendered and 500 Marines landed to occupy it. This town and bay would provide a fall back position in case of disaster.:201 The ships then sailed east to make the landing of the allied expeditionary force on the sandy beaches of Calamita Bay on the south west coast of the Crimean Peninsula. The landing surprised the Russians, as they had been expecting a landing at Katcha; the last minute change proving that Russia had known the original battle plan. There was no sign of the enemy and the men were all landed on 14 September. It took another four days to land all the stores, equipment, horses and artillery.
How many men did the Russians lose after three hours?
5726fa88708984140094d781
6000 men
360
False
Which river did the allies come across the Russian Army?
5726fa88708984140094d782
Alma river
181
False
How many hours did it take to force the Russians away during the attack?
5726fa88708984140094d783
three hours
255
False
How many allies were lost during the battle?
5726fa88708984140094d784
3,300
397
False
Which way did the Russians believe they should have traveled?
5726fa88708984140094d785
south
568
False
The landing was north of Sevastopol, so the Russians had arrayed their army in expectation of a direct attack. The allies advanced and on the morning of 20 September came up to the Alma river and the whole Russian army. The position was strong, but after three hours,:424 the frontal attack had driven the Russians out of their dug in positions with losses of 6000 men. The Battle of the Alma had 3,300 Allied losses. Failing to pursue the retreating forces was one of many strategic errors made during the war, and the Russians themselves noted that had they pressed south that day they would have easily captured Sevastopol.
When did the army march to the southeast?
5726fd0f5951b619008f8423
25 September
384
False
Where did the Russians retreat to?
5726fd0f5951b619008f8424
into the city.
583
False
Who was the engineer adviser?
5726fd0f5951b619008f8425
Sir John Burgoyne
211
False
Who were the joint commanders?
5726fd0f5951b619008f8426
Raglan and St Arnaud
355
False
Believing the northern approaches to the city too well defended, especially due to the presence of a large star fort and because Sevastopol was on the south side of the inlet from the sea that made the harbour, Sir John Burgoyne, the engineer advisor, recommended that the allies attack Sevastopol from the south. This was agreed by the joint commanders, Raglan and St Arnaud.:426 On 25 September the whole army marched southeast and encircled the city to the south. This let them set up a new supply center in a number of protected inlets on the south coast. The Russians retreated into the city.
When did the continuous attack start?
5726fe7ddd62a815002e9728
17 October
199
False
When the continuous attack started, how many guns were firing?
5726fe7ddd62a815002e9729
126 guns
241
False
Who was not ready to start the attack?
5726fe7ddd62a815002e972a
the French
613
False
Who was outgunned due to heavy guns at a southern defense?
5726fe7ddd62a815002e972b
the allies
744
False
Who wanted to commence with the attack during the afternoon?
5726fe7ddd62a815002e972c
The British
478
False
The Allied army relocated without problems to the south and the heavy artillery was brought ashore with batteries and connecting trenches built so that by 10 October some batteries were ready and by 17 October—when the bombardment commenced—126 guns were firing, 53 of them French.:430 The fleet at the same time engaged the shore batteries. The British bombardment worked better than the French, who had smaller caliber guns. The fleet suffered high casualties during the day. The British wanted to attack that afternoon, but the French wanted to defer the attack. A postponement was agreed, but on the next day the French were still not ready. By 19 October the Russians had transferred some heavy guns to the southern defenses and outgunned the allies.:431
Who did the Russians attack at the beginning off the Battle of Balaclava?
5726ffd8dd62a815002e9756
93rd Highlanders
280
False
Near what village were the 93rd Highlanders posted at?
5726ffd8dd62a815002e9757
Kadikoi
338
False
Who led the 93rd Highlanders?
5726ffd8dd62a815002e9758
Sir Colin Campbell
367
False
What weapon did Sir Colin Campbell troops use during the Battle of Alma?
5726ffd8dd62a815002e9759
Minie rifles
597
False
What risky maneuver did Sir Colin Campbell have the 93rd Highlanders form?
5726ffd8dd62a815002e975a
a single line, two men deep
521
False
A large Russian assault on the allied supply base to the southeast, at Balaclava was rebuffed on 25 October 1854.:521–527 The Battle of Balaclava is remembered in the UK for the actions of two British units. At the start of the battle, a large body of Russian cavalry charged the 93rd Highlanders, who were posted north of the village of Kadikoi. Commanding them was Sir Colin Campbell. Rather than 'form square', the traditional method of repelling cavalry, Campbell took the risky decision to have his Highlanders form a single line, two men deep. Campbell had seen the effectiveness of the new Minie rifles, with which his troops were armed, at the Battle of the Alma a month before, and was confident his men could beat back the Russians. His tactics succeeded. From up on the ridge to the west, Times correspondent William Howard Russell saw the Highlanders as a 'thin red streak topped with steel', a phrase which soon became the 'Thin Red Line.'
Who countered the Russian cavalry's movement?
5727011b708984140094d843
Heavy Brigade
60
False
Who failed to take advantage of the retreat?
5727011b708984140094d844
local commanders
242
False
Who sent the order to have them advance their position?
5727011b708984140094d845
Lord Raglan
300
False
Who ignored Lord Raglan's advice to advance?
5727011b708984140094d846
The local commanders
340
False
Soon after, a Russian cavalry movement was countered by the Heavy Brigade, who charged and fought hand-to-hand until the Russians retreated. This caused a more widespread Russian retreat, including a number of their artillery units. When the local commanders failed to take advantage of the retreat, Lord Raglan sent out orders to move up. The local commanders ignored the demands, leading to the British aide-de-camp personally delivering a quickly written and confusing order to attack the artillery. When the Earl of Cardigan questioned what they referred to, the aide-de-camp pointed to the first Russian battery he could see – the wrong one.
Who led the charge on the Valley of Balaclava?
5727024e708984140094d867
Cardigan
0
False
Who was Cardigan under fire from when advancing on the Valley of Balaclava?
5727024e708984140094d868
Russian batteries
99
False
How many people did Cardigan lose during the Light Brigade?
5727024e708984140094d869
278
170
False
Who wrote the famous poem about the Light Brigade?
5727024e708984140094d86a
Alfred Lord Tennyson
263
False
What was the name of the poem that memorialized the Light Brigade?
5727024e708984140094d86b
The Charge of the Light Brigade
286
False
Cardigan formed up his unit and charged the length of the Valley of the Balaclava, under fire from Russian batteries in the hills. The charge of the Light Brigade caused 278 casualties of the 700-man unit. The Light Brigade was memorialized in the famous poem by Alfred Lord Tennyson, "The Charge of the Light Brigade." Although traditionally the charge of the Light Brigade was looked upon as a glorious but wasted sacrifice of good men and horses, recent historians say that the charge of the Light Brigade did succeed in at least some of its objectives. The aim of any cavalry charge is to scatter the enemy lines and frighten the enemy off the battlefield. The charge of the Light Brigade had so unnerved the Russian cavalry, which had previously been routed by the Heavy Brigade, that the Russian Cavalry was set to full-scale flight by the subsequent charge of the Light Brigade.:252
What stopped ground operations during the winter?
572703995951b619008f8491
a deteriorating supply situation
12
False
What caused the HMS Prince to sink?
572703995951b619008f8492
a storm
254
False
What was the HMS Prince carrying when it sunk?
572703995951b619008f8493
a cargo of winter clothing
337
False
What arrived in January with an engineering crew?
572703995951b619008f8494
A tramroad
565
False
What caused the electrical telegraph to be delayed for some time?
572703995951b619008f8495
the frozen ground
784
False
Winter, and a deteriorating supply situation on both sides of troops and materiel, led to a halt in ground operations. Sevastopol remained invested by the allies, while the allied armies were hemmed in by the Russian army in the interior. On 14 November a storm sank thirty allied transport ships including HMS Prince which was carrying a cargo of winter clothing.:435 The storm and heavy traffic caused the road from the coast to the troops to disintegrate into a quagmire, requiring engineers to devote most of their time to its repair including quarrying stone. A tramroad was ordered. It arrived in January with a civilian engineering crew, however it was March before it was sufficiently advanced to be of any appreciable value.:439 An Electrical telegraph was also ordered, but the frozen ground delayed its installation until March, when communications from the base port of Balaklava to the British HQ was established. The Pipe-and-cable-laying plough failed because of the hard frozen soil, but even so 21 miles of cable were laid.:449
What did the French believe was instrumental in their defense?
572704d8dd62a815002e97c0
the Malakoff
122
False
Where was the Russians building a new fort?
572704d8dd62a815002e97c1
Mamelon
468
False
Mamelon is found on a hill in front of what suburban commune?
572704d8dd62a815002e97c2
Malakoff
387
False
After fighting for weeks, what did the Russians continue to have control over?
572704d8dd62a815002e97c3
the Mamelon
464
False
The Allies had had time to consider the problem. The French being brought around to agree that the key to the defence was the Malakoff.:441 Emphasis of the siege at Sevastopol shifted to the British left, against the fortifications on Malakoff hill.:339 In March, there was fighting by the French over a new fort being built by the Russians at Mamelon, located on a hill in front of the Malakoff. Several weeks of fighting saw little change in the front line, and the Mamelon remained in Russian hands.
Who was the garrison commander that died on June 30th 1855?
57270653dd62a815002e97e6
Admiral Nakhimov
271
False
What figure died on June 28th 1855?
57270653dd62a815002e97e7
Raglan
314
False
What did the Russians try to attack during the month of August?
57270653dd62a815002e97e8
the base at Balaclava
407
False
Who defended the base at Balaclava?
57270653dd62a815002e97e9
newly arrived Sardinian and Ottoman troops
454
False
Who was defeated at the battle of Tchernaya?
57270653dd62a815002e97ea
the Russians
553
False
Many more artillery pieces had arrived and been dug into batteries. In June, a third bombardment was followed after two days by a successful attack on the Mamelon, but a follow-up assault on the Malakoff failed with heavy losses. During this time the garrison commander, Admiral Nakhimov fell on 30 June 1855.:378 Raglan having also died on 28 June.:460 In August, the Russians again made an attack towards the base at Balaclava, defended by the French, newly arrived Sardinian and Ottoman troops.:461 The resulting battle of Tchernaya was a defeat for the Russians, who suffered heavy casualties.
What was being built that caused unpremeditated fighting on each side?
572707be5951b619008f84ef
forward rifle pits and defensive positions
39
False
What month did the capture of Malakoff take place?
572707be5951b619008f84f0
September
227
False
Who captured Malakoff?
572707be5951b619008f84f1
the French
382
False
Who failed to take back Malakoff?
572707be5951b619008f84f2
the Russian defences
452
False
Who took control of the Great Redan?
572707be5951b619008f84f3
the British
485
False
For months each side had been building forward rifle pits and defensive positions, which resulted in many skirmishes. Artillery fire aiming to gain superiority over the enemy guns.:450–462 September saw the final assault. On 5 September, another French bombardment (the sixth) was followed by an assault by the French Army on 8 September resulting in the capture of the Malakoff by the French, and following their failure to retake it, the collapse of the Russian defences. Meanwhile, the British captured the Great Redan, just south of the city of Sevastopol. The Russians retreated to the north, blowing up their magazines and the city fell on 9 September 1855 after a 337-day-long siege.:106
What did the British-French commanders send to disrupt Russian communications and supplies?
5727094fdd62a815002e982c
Anglo-French naval squadron
72
False
What sea was the Anglo-French naval squadron sent to?
5727094fdd62a815002e982d
Azov Sea
109
False
Where did British-French warships enter on May 12th 1855?
5727094fdd62a815002e982e
the Kerch Strait
239
False
What seaport did the British-French attack with steamers and gunboats?
5727094fdd62a815002e982f
the seaport of Taganrog
369
False
The seaport of Taganrog is near what port city?
5727094fdd62a815002e9830
Rostov on Don
422
False
In spring 1855, the allied British-French commanders decided to send an Anglo-French naval squadron into the Azov Sea to undermine Russian communications and supplies to besieged Sevastopol. On 12 May 1855, British-French warships entered the Kerch Strait and destroyed the coast battery of the Kamishevaya Bay. On 21 May 1855, the gunboats and armed steamers attacked the seaport of Taganrog, the most important hub near Rostov on Don. The vast amounts of food, especially bread, wheat, barley, and rye that were amassed in the city after the outbreak of war were prevented from being exported.
What caused the HMS Jasper to get stuck in shallow water?
57270aeaf1498d1400e8f27e
a fisherman who moved buoys
185
False
Who blew up the HMS Jasper?
57270aeaf1498d1400e8f27f
The Cossacks
233
False
During what days did the allied squadron third siege attempt take place?
57270aeaf1498d1400e8f280
19–31 August
337
False
The allied fleet departed the Gulf of Taganrog on what date?
57270aeaf1498d1400e8f281
2nd September
514
False
Why did the third siege attempt fail?
57270aeaf1498d1400e8f282
the city was already fortified
360
False
In July 1855, the allied squadron tried to go past Taganrog to Rostov on Don, entering the Don River through the Mius River. On 12 July 1855 HMS Jasper grounded near Taganrog thanks to a fisherman who moved buoys into shallow water. The Cossacks captured the gunboat with all of its guns and blew it up. The third siege attempt was made 19–31 August 1855, but the city was already fortified and the squadron could not approach close enough for landing operations. The allied fleet left the Gulf of Taganrog on the 2nd September 1855, with minor military operations along the Azov Sea coast continuing until late autumn 1855.
Who captured the border front of Saint Nicholas during a night attack?
57270ca95951b619008f8535
the Turks
51
False
How many troops did the Turks have when crossing the Cholok River?
57270ca95951b619008f8536
20000 troops
171
False
After giving up their position at Poti and Redut Kale, where did the Russians retreat to?
57270ca95951b619008f8537
Marani
294
False
How many troops did the Turks send to Gyumri?
57270ca95951b619008f8538
30000
589
False
What were the Turks waiting for when positioned near Akhaltsike?
57270ca95951b619008f8539
reinforcements
458
False
1853: There were four main events. 1. In the north the Turks captured the border fort of Saint Nicholas in a surprise night attack (27/28 October). They then pushed about 20000 troops across the Cholok River border. Being outnumbered the Russians abandoned Poti and Redut Kale and drew back to Marani. Both sides remained immobile for the next seven months. 2. In the center the Turks moved north from Ardahan to within cannon-shot of Akhaltsike and awaited reinforcements (13 November). The Russians routed them. The claimed losses were 4000 Turks and 400 Russians. 3. In the south about 30000 Turks slowly moved east to the main Russian concentration at Gyumri or Alexandropol (November). They crossed the border and set up artillery south of town. Prince Orbeliani tried to drive them off and found himself trapped. The Turks failed to press their advantage, the remaining Russians rescued Orbeliani and the Turks retired west. Orbeliani lost about 1000 men out of 5000. The Russians now decided to advance, the Turks took up a strong position on the Kars road and attacked. They were defeated in the battle of Başgedikler, losing 6000 men, half their artillery and all their supply train. The Russians lost 1300, including Prince Orbeliani. This was Prince Ellico Orbeliani whose wife was later kidnaped by Shamyl at Tsinandali. 4. At sea the Turks sent a fleet east which was destroyed by Admiral Nakhimov at Sinope.
Who make the Turks retreat back to Batum?
57270e82708984140094d915
Eristov
13
False
Who occupied Bayazit?
57270e82708984140094d916
Wrangel
194
False
Where did the main forces stand?
57270e82708984140094d917
Kars and Gyumri
292
False
On August 4th, who thought the other side was withdrawing?
57270e82708984140094d918
the Russians
517
False
Who made a secret agreement to remain neutral?
57270e82708984140094d919
the Persians
734
False
In the north Eristov pushed southwest, fought two battles, forced the Turks back to Batum, retired behind the Cholok River and suspended action for the rest of the year (June). In the far south Wrangel pushed west, fought a battle and occupied Bayazit. In the center the main forces stood at Kars and Gyumri. Both slowly approached along the Kars-Gyumri road and faced each other, neither side choosing to fight (June–July). On 4 August Russian scouts saw a movement which they thought was the start of a withdrawal, the Russians advanced and the Turks attacked first. They were defeated, losing 8000 men to the Russian 3000. 10000 irregulars deserted to their villages. Both sides withdrew to their former positions. About this time the Persians made a semi-secret agreement to remain neutral in exchange for the cancellation of the indemnity from the previous war.
What caused the number of Turkish soldiers to decrease?
57271015dd62a815002e9894
disease
112
False
How man troops were the Turks forces in the east reduced to?
57271015dd62a815002e9895
75,000
94
False
Who kept Muravyev informed about the Turks at Kar?
57271015dd62a815002e9896
The local Armenian population
121
False
What did Muravyev attend to do to the Turks in order to defeat them?
57271015dd62a815002e9897
starve them out
327
False
What city did Muravyev decide not to take control over?
57271015dd62a815002e9898
Erzerum
472
False
1855:Kars: In the year up to May 1855 Turkish forces in the east were reduced from 120,000 to 75,000, mostly by disease. The local Armenian population kept Muravyev well-informed about the Turks at Kars and he judged they had about five months of supplies. He therefore decided to control the surrounding area with cavalry and starve them out. He started in May and by June was south and west of the town. A relieving force fell back and there was a possibility of taking Erzerum, but Muravyev chose not to. In late September he learned of the fall of Sevastopol and a Turkish landing at Batum. This led him to reverse policy and try a direct attack. It failed, the Russians losing 8000 men and the Turks 1500 (29 September). The blockade continued and Kars surrendered on 8 November.
Who vetoed Omar Pasha from landing in Georgia?
57271173dd62a815002e989e
the western powers
106
False
In September of 1855, how many Turks could be found at Batum?
57271173dd62a815002e989f
8000
219
False
When landing at Batum, what were the Turks primary focus?
57271173dd62a815002e98a0
Sukhum Kale
281
False
What river divides Abkhazia from Georgia?
57271173dd62a815002e98a1
the Ingur River
407
False
What did Omar Pasha finally reach on December 2nd 1855?
57271173dd62a815002e98a2
the Tskhenis-dzqali
600
False
1855: Georgian coast: Omar Pasha, the Turkish commander at Crimea had long wanted to land in Georgia, but the western powers vetoed it. When they relented in August most of the campaigning season was lost. In September 8000 Turks landed at Batum, but the main concentration was at Sukhum Kale. This required a 100-mile march south through a country with poor roads. The Russians planned to hold the line of the Ingur River which separates Abkhazia from Georgia proper. Omar crossed the Ingur on 7 November and then wasted a great deal of time, the Russians doing little. By 2 December he had reached the Tskhenis-dzqali, the rainy season had started, his camps were submerged in mud and there was no bread. Learning of the fall of Kars he withdrew to the Ingur. The Russians did nothing and he evacuated to Batum in February of the following year.
What is the Russian capital?
57271342f1498d1400e8f338
Saint Petersburg
163
False
Which theater was next to Saint Petersburg?
57271342f1498d1400e8f339
The Baltic
0
False
Which fleet joined the Baltic attack?
57271342f1498d1400e8f33a
Anglo-French fleet
219
False
When did the Anglo-French fleet join the Baltic attack?
57271342f1498d1400e8f33b
April 1854
205
False
Which two fleets returned to Kronstadt?
57271342f1498d1400e8f33c
British and French fleet
370
False
The Baltic was[when?] a forgotten theatre of the Crimean War. Popularisation of events elsewhere overshadowed the significance of this theatre, which was close to Saint Petersburg, the Russian capital. In April 1854 an Anglo-French fleet entered the Baltic to attack the Russian naval base of Kronstadt and the Russian fleet stationed there. In August 1854 the combined British and French fleet returned to Kronstadt for another attempt. The outnumbered Russian Baltic Fleet confined its movements to the areas around its fortifications. At the same time, the British and French commanders Sir Charles Napier and Alexandre Ferdinand Parseval-Deschenes—although they led the largest fleet assembled since the Napoleonic Wars—considered the Sveaborg fortress too well-defended to engage. Thus, shelling of the Russian batteries was limited to two attempts in the summers of 1854 and 1855, and initially, the attacking fleets limited their actions to blockading Russian trade in the Gulf of Finland. Naval attacks on other ports, such as the ones in the island of Hogland in the Gulf of Finland, proved more successful. Additionally, allies conducted raids on less fortified sections of the Finnish coast. These battles are known in Finland as the Åland war.
When did the French and British capture the Russian Bomarsund fortress?
572714e2dd62a815002e98c6
August 1855
3
False
Where was the Russian Bomarsund fortress at?
572714e2dd62a815002e98c7
Åland Islands
101
False
Who led the ship Rossiya?
572714e2dd62a815002e98c8
Captain Viktor Poplonsky
395
False
What was captain Viktor Poplonsky defending?
572714e2dd62a815002e98c9
entrance to the harbor
434
False
In August 1855 a Franco-British naval force captured and destroyed the Russian Bomarsund fortress on Åland Islands. In the same month, the Western Allied Baltic Fleet tried to destroy heavily defended Russian dockyards at Sveaborg outside Helsinki. More than 1000 enemy guns tested the strength of the fortress for two days. Despite the shelling, the sailors of the 120-gun ship Rossiya, led by Captain Viktor Poplonsky, defended the entrance to the harbor. The Allies fired over 20,000 shells but failed to defeat the Russian batteries. A massive new fleet of more than 350 gunboats and mortar vessels was prepared[by whom?], but before the attack was launched, the war ended.
What greatly benefited the Russian resistance?
572716f05951b619008f85b3
newly invented blockade mines
75
False
Who contributed the most to developing naval mining?
572716f05951b619008f85b4
Immanuel Nobel
246
False
Immanuel Noble had expensive knowledge in what field?
572716f05951b619008f85b5
industrial explosives
365
False
Who named the torpedo mines?
572716f05951b619008f85b6
Fulton
533
False
What was Immanuel Nobel son's name?
572716f05951b619008f85b7
Alfred Nobel
276
False
Part of the Russian resistance was credited[by whom?] to the deployment of newly invented blockade mines. Perhaps the most influential contributor to the development of naval mining was a Swede resident in Russia, the inventor and civil engineer Immanuel Nobel (the father of Alfred Nobel). Immanuel Nobel helped the Russian war effort by applying his knowledge of industrial explosives, such as nitroglycerin and gunpowder. One account dates modern naval mining from the Crimean War: "Torpedo mines, if I may use this name given by Fulton to self-acting mines underwater, were among the novelties attempted by the Russians in their defences about Cronstadt and Sevastopol", as one American officer put it in 1860.
Who was in charge of the HMS Pique?
572718265951b619008f85d9
Rear Admiral David Price
167
False
The Russians escaped under the cover of what in 1855?
572718265951b619008f85da
snow
478
False
Petropavlovsk is located on what peninsula?
572718265951b619008f85db
the Kamchatka Peninsula
80
False
Minor naval skirmishes also occurred in the Far East, where at Petropavlovsk on the Kamchatka Peninsula a British and French Allied squadron including HMS Pique under Rear Admiral David Price and a French force under Counter-Admiral Auguste Febvrier Despointes besieged a smaller Russian force under Rear Admiral Yevfimy Putyatin. In September 1854, an Allied landing force was beaten back with heavy casualties, and the Allies withdrew. The Russians escaped under the cover of snow in early 1855 after Allied reinforcements arrived in the region.
Who gave Camillo di Cavour the orders to send soldiers to aid the French and British forces?
57271960708984140094d9ad
Victor Emmanuel II
35
False
Camillo di Cavour sent how many troops to aid the French and British forces?
57271960708984140094d9ae
15,000
107
False
Who commanded the soldiers sent by Camillo di Cavour?
57271960708984140094d9af
General Alfonso La Marmora
137
False
The Battle of the Chernaya took place in what year?
57271960708984140094d9b0
1855
482
False
Where was Victor Emmanuel II from?
57271960708984140094d9b1
Piedmont-Sardinia
57
False
Camillo di Cavour, under orders of Victor Emmanuel II of Piedmont-Sardinia, sent an expeditionary corps of 15,000 soldiers, commanded by General Alfonso La Marmora, to side with French and British forces during the war.:111–12 This was an attempt at gaining the favour of the French, especially when the issue of uniting Italy would become an important matter. The deployment of Italian troops to the Crimea, and the gallantry shown by them in the Battle of the Chernaya (16 August 1855) and in the siege of Sevastopol, allowed the Kingdom of Sardinia to be among the participants at the peace conference at the end of the war, where it could address the issue of the Risorgimento to other European powers.
When Russia attacked the Ottoman Empire who glimpsed an opportunity to advance North and South?
57271ad5708984140094d9cb
King Otto of Greece
93
False
When the Ottoman forces were busy, who did Greece invade?
57271ad5708984140094d9cc
Thessaly and Epirus
614
False
From April 1854 to February 1857, what port did the British and French lock down?
57271ad5708984140094d9cd
Greek port at Piraeus
706
False
In what year did the Epirus Revolt take place?
57271ad5708984140094d9ce
1854
886
False
Who stirred up the Epirus Revolt of 1854?
57271ad5708984140094d9cf
Greeks
806
False
Greece played a peripheral role in the war. When Russia attacked the Ottoman Empire in 1853, King Otto of Greece saw an opportunity to expand North and South into Ottoman areas that had large Greek Christian majorities. However, Greece did not coordinate its plans with Russia, did not declare war, and received no outside military or financial support. Greece, an Orthodox nation, had considerable support in Russia, but the Russian government decided it was too dangerous to help Greece expand its holdings.:32–40 When the Russians invaded the Principalities, the Ottoman forces were tied down so Greece invaded Thessaly and Epirus. To block further Greek moves, the British and French occupied the main Greek port at Piraeus from April 1854 to February 1857, and effectively neutralized the Greek army. Greeks, gambling on a Russian victory, incited the large-scale Epirus Revolt of 1854 as well as uprisings in Crete. The insurrections were failures that were easily crushed by the Ottoman army. Greece was not invited to the peace conference and made no gains out of the war.:139 The frustrated Greek leadership blamed the King for failing to take advantage of the situation; his popularity plunged and he was later forced to abdicate.
On January 21 1855, where did people protest the war?
57271ca2dd62a815002e9926
Trafalgar Square
295
False
How did troops stop the riot?
57271ca2dd62a815002e9927
with truncheons
579
False
What were the people using during the protest?
57271ca2dd62a815002e9928
snowballs
488
False
Who resigned as Prime Minister on January 30, 1855?
57271ca2dd62a815002e9929
Aberdeen
949
False
What position did Lord Palmerston previously hold before becoming a Prime Minister?
57271ca2dd62a815002e992a
Foreign Secretary
1069
False
Dissatisfaction with the conduct of the war was growing with the public in the UK and in other countries, aggravated by reports of fiascos, especially the humiliating defeat of the Charge of the Light Brigade at the Battle of Balaclava. On Sunday, 21 January 1855, a "snowball riot" occurred in Trafalgar Square near St. Martin-in-the-Field in which 1,500 people gathered to protest against the war by pelting buses, cabs, and pedestrians with snow balls. When the police intervened, the snowballs were directed at them. The riot was finally put down by troops and police acting with truncheons. In Parliament, Tories demanded an accounting of all soldiers, cavalry and sailors sent to the Crimea and accurate figures as to the number of casualties that had been sustained by all British armed forces in the Crimea; they were especially concerned with the Battle of Balaclava. When Parliament passed a bill to investigate by the vote of 305 to 148, Aberdeen said he had lost a vote of no confidence and resigned as prime minister on 30 January 1855. The veteran former Foreign Secretary Lord Palmerston became prime minister. Palmerston took a hard line; he wanted to expand the war, foment unrest inside the Russian Empire, and permanently reduce the Russian threat to Europe. Sweden and Prussia were willing to join the UK and France, and Russia was isolated.:400–402, 406–408
Where was the Treaty of Paris signed?
57271de2708984140094da05
the Congress of Paris
22
False
What year was the Treaty of Paris signed?
57271de2708984140094da06
1856
103
False
Who agreed to not have any military arsenal on the Black Sea coast?
57271de2708984140094da07
the Tsar and the Sultan
668
False
Who were the principalities of Moldavia and Wallachia later return to?
57271de2708984140094da08
the Ottoman Empire
936
False
Who returned towns and seaports to Russia?
57271de2708984140094da09
The United Kingdom, France, Sardinia and Turkey
404
False
Peace negotiations at the Congress of Paris resulted in the signing of the Treaty of Paris on 30 March 1856. In compliance with article III, Russia restored to the Ottoman Empire the city and citadel of Kars in common with "all other parts of the Ottoman territory of which the Russian troop were in possession". Russia ceded some land in Bessarabia at the mouth of the Danube to Moldavia. By article IV The United Kingdom, France, Sardinia and Turkey restored to Russia "the towns and ports of Sevastopol, Balaklava, Kamish, Eupatoria, Kerch, Jenikale, Kinburn, as well as all other territories occupied by the allied troops". In conformity with article XI and XIII, the Tsar and the Sultan agreed not to establish any naval or military arsenal on the Black Sea coast. The Black Sea clauses weakened Russia, and it no longer posed a naval threat to the Ottomans. The principalities of Moldavia and Wallachia were nominally returned to the Ottoman Empire; in practice they became independent. The Great Powers pledged to respect the independence and territorial integrity of the Ottoman Empire.:432–33
What year did the Treaty of Paris fall?
57271f22dd62a815002e993a
1871
32
False
In what war was France defeated by Prussia?
57271f22dd62a815002e993b
Franco-Prussian War
81
False
Between what years did the  Franco-Prussian War take place?
57271f22dd62a815002e993c
1870–1871
104
False
Napoleon III was removed to form what?
57271f22dd62a815002e993d
a Third French Republic
282
False
Who renounced the Black Sea clause?
57271f22dd62a815002e993e
Russia
736
False
The Treaty of Paris stood until 1871, when France was defeated by Prussia in the Franco-Prussian War of 1870–1871. While Prussia and several other German states united to form a powerful German Empire, the Emperor of the French, Napoleon III, was deposed to permit the formation of a Third French Republic. During his reign, Napoleon III, eager for the support of the United Kingdom, had opposed Russia over the Eastern Question. Russian interference in the Ottoman Empire, however, did not in any significant manner threaten the interests of France. Thus, France abandoned its opposition to Russia after the establishment of a republic. Encouraged by the decision of the French, and supported by the German minister Otto von Bismarck, Russia renounced the Black Sea clauses of the treaty agreed to in 1856. As the United Kingdom alone could not enforce the clauses, Russia once again established a fleet in the Black Sea.
Who lost the most due to the Crimean War?
572720a2f1498d1400e8f3da
Austria
85
False
Russia failed to help Austria during what war that took place in 1866?
572720a2f1498d1400e8f3db
Austro-Prussian War
630
False
Who became diplomatically isolated after the war?
572720a2f1498d1400e8f3dc
Kingdom of Sardinia
403
False
Although it was Russia that was punished by the Paris Treaty, in the long run it was Austria that lost the most from the Crimean War despite having barely taken part in it.:433 Having abandoned its alliance with Russia, Austria was diplomatically isolated following the war,:433 which contributed to its disastrous defeats in the 1859 Franco-Austrian War that resulted in the cession of Lombardy to the Kingdom of Sardinia, and later in the loss of the Habsburg rule of Tuscany and Modena, which meant the end of Austrian influence in Italy. Furthermore, Russia did not do anything to assist its former ally, Austria, in the 1866 Austro-Prussian War:433 with its loss of Venetia and more important than that, its influence in most German-speaking lands. The status of Austria as a great power, with the unifications of Germany and Italy was now severely questioned. It had to compromise with Hungary, the two countries shared the Danubian Empire and Austria slowly became a little more than a German satellite. With France now hostile to Germany, allied with Russia, and Russia competing with the newly renamed Austro-Hungarian Empire for an increased role in the Balkans at the expense of the Ottoman Empire, the foundations were in place for creating the diplomatic alliances that would lead to World War I.
France rose to power after what war?
572721d3dd62a815002e994e
The Crimean War
0
False
What empire declined after the Crimean War?
572721d3dd62a815002e994f
the Ottoman Empire
132
False
The Crimean war marked the end of what dominant European power?
572721d3dd62a815002e9950
Concert of Europe
435
False
The Crimean War marked the ascendancy of France to the position of pre-eminent power on the Continent,:411 the continued decline of the Ottoman Empire, and the beginning of a decline for Tsarist Russia. As Fuller notes, "Russia had been beaten on the Crimean peninsula, and the military feared that it would inevitably be beaten again unless steps were taken to surmount its military weakness." The Crimean War marks the demise of the Concert of Europe, the balance of power that had dominated Europe since the Congress of Vienna in 1815, and which had included France, Russia, Austria and the United Kingdom.
Who made the view of diplomatic drift popular?
572722e65951b619008f8659
A. W, Kinglake
81
False
What did A.W Kinglake make the British out to be?
572722e65951b619008f865a
as victims
123
False
Who believed Britain was following a strategy when trying to destroy Russian Navy?
572722e65951b619008f865b
Andrew Lambert and Winfried Baumgart
238
False
This view of 'diplomatic drift' as the cause of the war was first popularised by A. W, Kinglake, who portrayed the British as victims of newspaper sensationalism and duplicitous French and Ottoman diplomacy. More recently, the historians Andrew Lambert and Winfried Baumgart have argued that, first, Britain was following a geopolitical strategy in aiming to destroy a fledgling Russian Navy which might challenge the Royal Navy for control of the seas, and second that the war was a joint European response to a century of Russian expansion not just southwards but also into western Europe.
What did the Russians fear losing without compensation?
57272435f1498d1400e8f3ea
British Columbia
187
False
What province became more popular and saw a increase in population after the war?
57272435f1498d1400e8f3eb
British Columbia
187
False
Who made the call to sell Alaska?
57272435f1498d1400e8f3ec
Alexander II
301
False
Who did the Russians offer to sell Alaska to?
57272435f1498d1400e8f3ed
the United States
393
False
Who is Russia's largest regional rival?
57272435f1498d1400e8f3ee
the United Kingdom
511
False
Russia feared losing Russian America without compensation in some future conflict, especially to the British. While Alaska attracted little interest at the time, the population of nearby British Columbia started to increase rapidly a few years after hostilities ended. Therefore, the Russian emperor, Alexander II, decided to sell Alaska. In 1859 the Russians offered to sell the territory to the United States, hoping that its presence in the region would offset the plans of Russia's greatest regional rival, the United Kingdom.
Who provided notable documentation of the war?
5727257bf1498d1400e8f402
William Howard Russell
49
False
William Howard Russell wrote for what newspaper at the time?
5727257bf1498d1400e8f403
The Times
85
False
Who's photographs accompanied William Howard Russell documentation?
5727257bf1498d1400e8f404
Roger Fenton
129
False
Who extended the telegraph to the coast of the Black Sea?
5727257bf1498d1400e8f405
the French
482
False
After the telegraph was extended to the coast of the Black Sea, how long did it take news of the war to reach London?
5727257bf1498d1400e8f406
two days
600
False
Notable documentation of the war was provided by William Howard Russell (writing for The Times newspaper) and the photographs of Roger Fenton.:306–309 News from war correspondents reached all nations involved in the war and kept the public citizenry of those nations better informed of the day-to-day events of the war than had been the case in any other war to that date. The British public was very well informed regarding the day-to-day realities of the war in the Crimea. After the French extended the telegraph to the coast of the Black Sea during the winter of 1854, the news reached London in two days. When the British laid an underwater cable to the Crimean peninsula in April 1855, news reached London in a few hours. The daily news reports energised public opinion, which brought down the Aberdeen government and carried Lord Palmerston into office as prime minister.:304–11
Who demanded drastic reforms after the war?
5727266ff1498d1400e8f416
the newspapers
250
False
The outbreak of the Indian Revolution took place in what year?
5727266ff1498d1400e8f417
1857
600
False
What poem demonstrates that the war became a symbol of failures?
5727266ff1498d1400e8f418
Charge of the Light Brigade
22
False
As the memory of the "Charge of the Light Brigade" demonstrates, the war became an iconic symbol of logistical, medical and tactical failures and mismanagement. Public opinion in the UK was outraged at the logistical and command failures of the war; the newspapers demanded drastic reforms, and parliamentary investigations demonstrated the multiple failures of the Army. However, the reform campaign was not well organized, and the traditional aristocratic leadership of the Army pulled itself together, and blocked all serious reforms. No one was punished. The outbreak of the Indian Revolution in 1857 shifted attention to the heroic defense of British interest by the army, and further talk of reform went nowhere. The demand for professionalization was, however, achieved by Florence Nightingale, who gained worldwide attention for pioneering and publicizing modern nursing while treating the wounded.:469–71
The tactical use of railways was first used during what war?
5727279cf1498d1400e8f426
The Crimean War
0
False
Who gave the first live war report?
5727279cf1498d1400e8f427
William Howard Russell
173
False
Due to his reporting skills, some give Russell credit for doing what?
5727279cf1498d1400e8f428
prompting the resignation of the sitting British government
222
False
What reduced the independence of British overseas possessions from their commanders in London?
5727279cf1498d1400e8f429
the telegraph
384
False
What was the first European war to be photographed?
5727279cf1498d1400e8f42a
The Crimean War
0
False
The Crimean War also saw the first tactical use of railways and other modern inventions, such as the electric telegraph, with the first "live" war reporting to The Times by William Howard Russell. Some credit Russell with prompting the resignation of the sitting British government through his reporting of the lacklustre condition of British forces deployed in Crimea. Additionally, the telegraph reduced the independence of British overseas possessions from their commanders in London due to such rapid communications. Newspaper readership informed public opinion in the United Kingdom and France as never before. It was the first European war to be photographed.
Nonprofit_organization
What is the definition of a non-profit organization?
5726aebf708984140094cdc7
purposes are other than making a profit
93
False
What is an NPO also known as?
5726aebf708984140094cdc8
non-business entity
47
False
What is the purpose of an NPO?
5726aebf708984140094cdc9
furthering a particular social cause or advocating for a particular point of view
181
False
What does a non-profit do with the money it takes in, instead of using it for a profit?
5726aebf708984140094cdca
further achieve its purpose or mission, rather than distributing its surplus income to the organization's shareholders (or equivalents) as profit
337
False
What is it called when a non-profit uses it's money as it should?
5726aebf708984140094cdcb
distribution constraint
518
False
other than making a profit
106
What is the purpose of the organization's shareholders?
5a454fcd19a820001a1eda16
True
to further achieve its purpose or mission
334
What does a group of shareholders do with surplus income?
5a454fcd19a820001a1eda17
True
the distribution constraint
514
What is the constraint on how shareholders distribute funds called?
5a454fcd19a820001a1eda18
True
a non-business entity
45
What is a nonprofit legal structure also known as?
5a454fcd19a820001a1eda19
True
furthering a particular social cause or advocating for a particular point of view
181
What does charitable status mean you are dedicated to?
5a454fcd19a820001a1eda1a
True
A nonprofit organization (NPO, also known as a non-business entity) is an organization whose purposes are other than making a profit. A nonprofit organization is often dedicated to furthering a particular social cause or advocating for a particular point of view. In economic terms, a nonprofit organization uses its surplus revenues to further achieve its purpose or mission, rather than distributing its surplus income to the organization's shareholders (or equivalents) as profit or dividends. This is known as the distribution constraint. The decision to adopt a nonprofit legal structure is one that will often have taxation implications, particularly where the nonprofit seeks income tax exemption, charitable status and so on.
What types of organizations are NPOs usually associated with?
5726b51e708984140094ce73
charitable
96
False
Who does an NPO usually serve?
5726b51e708984140094ce74
member-serving or community-serving
282
False
What do NPOs that center around community usually focus on?
5726b51e708984140094ce75
providing services to the community in general, either globally or locally
651
False
What are member serving NPOs really focused on?
5726b51e708984140094ce76
by directly supporting them
1143
False
What are community serving NPOs focused on?
5726b51e708984140094ce77
a helping service for fellow citizens
1224
False
charitable organizations
96
What have people come to associate the broader community with?
5a4556fd19a820001a1eda20
True
an often high profile or visible aspect of the sector
153
What elements make up human service programs?
5a4556fd19a820001a1eda21
True
either member-serving or community-serving
275
What are the two main types of health services?
5a4556fd19a820001a1eda22
True
in general, either globally or locally
687
How do credit unions serve the community?
5a4556fd19a820001a1eda23
True
benefit a particular group of people i.e. the members of the organization
518
How does medical research benefit credit unions?
5a4556fd19a820001a1eda24
True
The nonprofit landscape is highly varied, although many people have come to associate NPOs with charitable organizations. Although charities do comprise an often high profile or visible aspect of the sector, there are many other types of nonprofits. Overall, they tend to be either member-serving or community-serving. Member-serving organizations include mutual societies, cooperatives, trade unions, credit unions, industry associations, sports clubs, retired serviceman's clubs and peak bodies – organizations that benefit a particular group of people i.e. the members of the organization. Typically, community-serving organizations are focused on providing services to the community in general, either globally or locally: organizations delivering human services programs or projects, aid and development programs, medical research, education and health services, and so on. It could be argued many nonprofits sit across both camps, at least in terms of the impact they make. For example, the grassroots support group that provides a lifeline to those with a particular condition or disease could be deemed to be serving both its members (by directly supporting them) and the broader community (through the provision of a helping service for fellow citizens).
How does an NPO have to handle surplus money?
5726b75add62a815002e8dd0
they must be retained by the organization for its self-preservation, expansion, or plans
58
False
Who makes most of the decisions for an NPO?
5726b75add62a815002e8dd1
controlling members or a board of directors
158
False
How do NPOs handle staffing?
5726b75add62a815002e8dd2
Many have paid staff including management, whereas others employ unpaid volunteers and even executives who work with or without compensation
203
False
What are token fees used for?
5726b75add62a815002e8dd3
to meet legal requirements for establishing a contract between the executive and the organization
437
False
controlling members or a board of directors
158
What control does management have in an NPO?
5a45597219a820001a1eda2a
True
to meet legal requirements for establishing a contract between the executive and the organization.
437
What do NPO's use their surplus fees for?
5a45597219a820001a1eda2b
True
Many have paid staff including management, whereas others employ unpaid volunteers and even executives who work with or without compensation
203
How do members meet the legal requirements for staffing?
5a45597219a820001a1eda2c
True
a token fee
402
How do some countries members maintain self-preservation?
5a45597219a820001a1eda2d
True
surplus revenues
40
What are paid staff permitted to generate?
5a45597219a820001a1eda2e
True
Although NPOs are permitted to generate surplus revenues, they must be retained by the organization for its self-preservation, expansion, or plans. NPOs have controlling members or a board of directors. Many have paid staff including management, whereas others employ unpaid volunteers and even executives who work with or without compensation (occasionally nominal). In some countries, where there is a token fee, in general it is used to meet legal requirements for establishing a contract between the executive and the organization.
How are charity or service NPOs usually organized?
572761df5951b619008f8911
profit corporation or as a trust, a cooperative, or they exist informally
84
False
What type of organization behaves much like a foundation?
572761df5951b619008f8912
a supporting organization
202
False
What is a major function of a foundation?
572761df5951b619008f8913
giving value to the groups of people they administer to
460
False
a charity or service organization
22
What are foundations also allowed to be?
5a455bae19a820001a1eda34
True
a foundation
242
What other organization do NPO's also operate like?
5a455bae19a820001a1eda35
True
more favorable tax status
306
What kind of tax status do NPO's have?
5a455bae19a820001a1eda36
True
in terms of giving value to the groups of people they administer to
448
What model do NPO's follow instead of being financially successful?
5a455bae19a820001a1eda37
True
as a profit corporation or as a trust, a cooperative, or they exist informally
79
How are groups that focus on financial success organized?
5a455bae19a820001a1eda38
True
Some NPOs may also be a charity or service organization; they may be organized as a profit corporation or as a trust, a cooperative, or they exist informally. A very similar type of organization termed a supporting organization operates like a foundation, but they are more complicated to administer, hold more favorable tax status and are restricted in the public charities they support. Their mole is not to be successful in terms of wealth, but in terms of giving value to the groups of people they administer to.
What are the two top types of NPOs?
57276d82dd62a815002e9ca8
membership and board-only
50
False
How is a membership organization run?
57276d82dd62a815002e9ca9
elects the board and has regular meetings and the power to amend the bylaws
103
False
How is a board only organization run?
57276d82dd62a815002e9caa
self-selected board, and a membership whose powers are limited to those delegated to it by the board
222
False
What is a further constraint of an NPO, depending on their legal structure?
57276d82dd62a815002e9cab
financial benefit as far as distribution of profit to its members/directors is concerned
1638
False
What should one be aware of when dealing with a board run NPO?
57276d82dd62a815002e9cac
Board members who decide what percentage of your donations will increase their personal wealth are rampant in abusing this designation
1852
False
Fairvote and the National Organization for the Reform of Marijuana Laws
560
What are two examples of a membership organization?
5a455dc119a820001a1eda3e
True
many complexities and requirements
677
What does the organization's literature impose on membership decision making?
5a455dc119a820001a1eda3f
True
board-only
807
What kind of structures have The National Association of Parliamentarians formed?
5a455dc119a820001a1eda40
True
the implications of this trend for the future of openness, accountability, and understanding of public concerns
904
What concerns do The National Association of Parliamentarians have about self-selected boards?
5a455dc119a820001a1eda41
True
market discipline for products and shareholder discipline of their capital
1147
What do they note that an organizations bylaws are not subject to?
5a455dc119a820001a1eda42
True
The two major types of nonprofit organization are membership and board-only. A membership organization elects the board and has regular meetings and the power to amend the bylaws. A board-only organization typically has a self-selected board, and a membership whose powers are limited to those delegated to it by the board. A board-only organization's bylaws may even state that the organization does not have any membership, although the organization's literature may refer to its donors or service recipients as "members"; examples of such organizations are Fairvote and the National Organization for the Reform of Marijuana Laws. The Model Nonprofit Corporation Act imposes many complexities and requirements on membership decision-making. Accordingly, many organizations, such as Wikimedia, have formed board-only structures. The National Association of Parliamentarians has generated concerns about the implications of this trend for the future of openness, accountability, and understanding of public concerns in nonprofit organizations. Specifically, they note that nonprofit organizations, unlike business corporations, are not subject to market discipline for products and shareholder discipline of their capital; therefore, without membership control of major decisions such as election of the board, there are few inherent safeguards against abuse. A rebuttal to this might be that as nonprofit organizations grow and seek larger donations, the degree of scrutiny increases, including expectations of audited financial statements. A further rebuttal might be that NPOs are constrained, by their choice of legal structure, from financial benefit as far as distribution of profit to its members/directors is concerned. Beware of board-only organizations- review the board members annual income before donating, such as the Clinton Foundation. Board members who decide what percentage of your donations will increase their personal wealth are rampant in abusing this designation of an NPO, and this is why they attempt to avoid audits and use a double bottom line for taxing.
How are NPOs classified in Canada?
572772c3708984140094ddd1
incorporated or unincorporated
31
False
How has Canada's government kept up with the changing forms of NPOs?
572772c3708984140094ddd2
nonprofit legislation has not kept pace with legislation that governs for-profit corporations
284
False
How do NPOs change their by-laws, if they had to apply for incorporation by Letters Permit, in Canada?
572772c3708984140094ddd3
formal approval by the appropriate government
597
False
How does Alberta handle NPOs filing for incorporation?
572772c3708984140094ddd4
by the filing of Articles of Incorporation or Articles of Association
734
False
How is incorporation handled in Ontario?
572772c3708984140094ddd5
Letters Patent
507
False
incorporated or unincorporated
31
How does Alberta classify provincial legislation?
5a4563f819a820001a1eda52
True
by the filing of Articles of Incorporation or Articles of Association
734
How are by-law changes handled in Alberta?
5a4563f819a820001a1eda53
True
incorporated or unincorporated
31
What does Canada allow by-law changes to be?
5a4563f819a820001a1eda54
True
formal approval by the appropriate government
597
What kind of approval do for-profit corporations need to incorporate as of right in Ontario?
5a4563f819a820001a1eda55
True
Articles of Incorporation or Articles of Association
751
What do corporations have to file in Alberta if they want to change their name?
5a4563f819a820001a1eda56
True
Canada allows nonprofits to be incorporated or unincorporated. Nonprofits may incorporate either federally, under Part II of the Canada Business Corporations Act or under provincial legislation. Many of the governing Acts for Canadian nonprofits date to the early 1900s, meaning that nonprofit legislation has not kept pace with legislation that governs for-profit corporations; particularly with regards to corporate governance. Federal, and in some provinces (such as Ontario), incorporation is by way of Letters Patent, and any change to the Letters Patent (even a simple name change) requires formal approval by the appropriate government, as do by-law changes. Other provinces (such as Alberta) permit incorporation as of right, by the filing of Articles of Incorporation or Articles of Association.
When was the Canada Corporations Act, Part II repealed?
572774545951b619008f8a41
2009
7
False
What did the creation of the Canada Not-for-Profit Corporations Act mean for NPOs?
572774545951b619008f8a42
incorporation as of right, by Articles of Incorporation
255
False
When did Ontario adopt the Canada Not-for-Profit Corporations Act?
572774545951b619008f8a43
2010
572
False
When does Ontario expect the Canada Not-for-Profits Corpaoations Act to go into effect?
572774545951b619008f8a44
1 July 2013
704
False
When was the Canada Not-for-Profit corporations Act last ammended?
572774545951b619008f8a45
10 October 2011
182
False
the Canada Corporations Act, Part II - the Canada Not-for-Profit Corporations Act
70
On October 10, 2011 what was repealed?
5a4565b519a820001a1eda5c
True
Canada Corporations Act, Part II - the Canada Not-for-Profit Corporations Act
74
What act was amended in 2009?
5a4565b519a820001a1eda5d
True
the Ontario Not-for-Profit Corporations Act
521
What act did Ontario adopt in 2009?
5a4565b519a820001a1eda5e
True
incorporation as of right, by Articles of Incorporation
255
What two things did the anticipated election in 2009 mean for NPO's?
5a4565b519a820001a1eda5f
True
2009
7
When did Ontario repeal the Canada Corporations Act?
5a4565b519a820001a1eda60
True
During 2009, the federal government enacted new legislation repealing the Canada Corporations Act, Part II - the Canada Not-for-Profit Corporations Act. This Act was last amended on 10 October 2011 and the act was current till 4 March 2013. It allows for incorporation as of right, by Articles of Incorporation; does away with the ultra vires doctrine for nonprofits; establishes them as legal persons; and substantially updates the governance provisions for nonprofits. Ontario also overhauled its legislation, adopting the Ontario Not-for-Profit Corporations Act during 2010; pending the outcome of an anticipated election during October 2011,[dated info] the new Act is expected to be in effect as of 1 July 2013.
Who grants a charitable status to an NPO in Canada?
5727752b708984140094de21
Canada Revenue Agency (CRA)
123
False
What are donors to receive from a NPO?
5727752b708984140094de22
income tax receipts
215
False
How does an NPO keep their charitable status?
5727752b708984140094de23
file annual reports
345
False
How does the Canada Revenue Agency decide who can have a charitable status?
5727752b708984140094de24
a common law test to its stated objects and activities
484
False
What kinds of assets must the NPO spend in order to keep it's charitable status?
5727752b708984140094de25
cash, investments and fixed assets
305
False
file annual reports
345
How do donors keep their assets?
5a45694f19a820001a1eda66
True
income tax receipts
215
What is the CRA allowed to issue to donors?
5a45694f19a820001a1eda67
True
CRA applies a common law test to its stated objects and activities
472
How do fixed assets determine an NPO's status?
5a45694f19a820001a1eda68
True
a certain percentage of their assets (including cash, investments and fixed assets)
257
What are donors required to spend in Canada?
5a45694f19a820001a1eda69
True
a common law test
484
What test must be taken for a NPO to keep its status?
5a45694f19a820001a1eda6a
True
Canada also permits a variety of charities (including public and private foundations). Charitable status is granted by the Canada Revenue Agency (CRA) upon application by a nonprofit; charities are allowed to issue income tax receipts to donors, must spend a certain percentage of their assets (including cash, investments and fixed assets) and file annual reports in order to maintain their charitable status. In determining whether an organization can become a charity, CRA applies a common law test to its stated objects and activities. These must be:
What do NPOs in South Africa give to their donors?
5727761c5951b619008f8a6f
a tax certificate
33
False
What can a tax certificate issued by a South Africian NPO be used for?
5727761c5951b619008f8a70
a tax deduction by the donor
97
False
Where are South Africian NPOs registered?
5727761c5951b619008f8a71
Companies and Intellectual Property Commission as Nonprofit Companies (NPCs)
173
False
Who keeps track of the trusts of South Africian NPOs?
5727761c5951b619008f8a72
Master of the High Court
350
False
Who would a South Africian NPO register with if they were a voluntary organization?
5727761c5951b619008f8a73
South Africa Revenue Services "SARS"
519
False
a tax certificate
33
What does Master of the High Court issue to donors?
5a4579da19a820001a1eda70
True
the South Africa Revenue Services "SARS"
515
What group must all donors be registered with?
5a4579da19a820001a1eda71
True
a tax deduction
97
What can a tax certificate be used for when requested by the Master of the High Court?
5a4579da19a820001a1eda72
True
The Nonprofit Companies Directorate
284
What are trusts able to voluntarily register with?
5a4579da19a820001a1eda73
True
the donor
116
Who can use a tax certificate when its issued by the Master of the High Court?
5a4579da19a820001a1eda74
True
In South Africa, charities issue a tax certificate when requested by donors which can be used as a tax deduction by the donor. Non Profit Organisations are registered under Companies and Intellectual Property Commission as Nonprofit Companies (NPCs) but may voluntarily register with The Nonprofit Companies Directorate. Trusts are registered by the Master of the High Court. Section 21 Companies are registered under the Company's Act. All are classified as Voluntary Organisations and all must be registered with the South Africa Revenue Services "SARS".[citation needed]
What is the definition of a charity?
57277993708984140094dea7
nonprofit organisation that meets stricter criteria regarding its purpose and the method in which it makes decisions and reports its finances
15
False
Where are charity organizations registered in England and Wales?
57277993708984140094dea8
Charity Commission
286
False
Where would an NPO or charity organization register in Scotland?
57277993708984140094dea9
Office of the Scottish Charity Regulator
323
False
What is one of the contraints of an NPO with regards to assets?
57277993708984140094deaa
generally not allowed to pay its Trustees
184
False
Is a trade union governed by the Office of the Scottish Charity Regulator?
57277993708984140094deab
not regarded as "charities" in the technical sense
536
False
a nonprofit organisation that meets stricter criteria regarding its purpose and the method in which it makes decisions and reports its finances
13
What is the definition of a trade union?
5a457b0d19a820001a1eda7a
True
the Charity Commission
282
Where are trade unions registered in England and Wales?
5a457b0d19a820001a1eda7b
True
the Office of the Scottish Charity Regulator
319
Where are trade unions registered in Scotland?
5a457b0d19a820001a1eda7c
True
Trustees
217
Who is the Charity Commission not allowed to pay?
5a457b0d19a820001a1eda7d
True
separate regulations
506
What are trustees subject to that other groups aren't?
5a457b0d19a820001a1eda7e
True
A charity is a nonprofit organisation that meets stricter criteria regarding its purpose and the method in which it makes decisions and reports its finances. For example, a charity is generally not allowed to pay its Trustees. In England and Wales, charities may be registered with the Charity Commission. In Scotland, the Office of the Scottish Charity Regulator serves the same function. Other organizations which are classified as nonprofit organizations elsewhere, such as trade unions, are subject to separate regulations, and are not regarded as "charities" in the technical sense.
How does a US NPO apply for tax exempt status?
57277a635951b619008f8ad3
applying to the Internal Revenue Service (IRS)
193
False
What are some things the IRS looks at in a charity applying for tax exempt status?
57277a635951b619008f8ad4
purpose, limitations on spending, and internal safeguards for a charity
471
False
Does this tax exempt status apply to other taxes?
57277a635951b619008f8ad5
must pay federal tax on income that is unrelated to their exempt purpose
804
False
What happens if an NPO does not abide by the tax laws?
57277a635951b619008f8ad6
losing its tax exempt status
965
False
Who has the final say on whether or not an NPO is granted tax exempt status?
57277a635951b619008f8ad7
Internal Revenue Service (IRS)
209
False
the organization may seek recognition of tax exempt status
67
What can a nonprofit do after it pays employment taxes?
5a457e6419a820001a1eda84
True
by applying to the Internal Revenue Service (IRS)
190
How does a nonprofit ensure limits on spending?
5a457e6419a820001a1eda85
True
statutory exemptions
250
What exists for limited types of deductibility purposes?
5a457e6419a820001a1eda86
True
the purpose, limitations on spending, and internal safeguards
467
What conditions must an authorization letter meet to show income?
5a457e6419a820001a1eda87
True
U.S. federal income tax
142
What type of tax can a company that is federally formed be exempt from?
5a457e6419a820001a1eda88
True
After a nonprofit organization has been formed at the state level, the organization may seek recognition of tax exempt status with respect to U.S. federal income tax. That is done typically by applying to the Internal Revenue Service (IRS), although statutory exemptions exist for limited types of nonprofit organizations. The IRS, after reviewing the application to ensure the organization meets the conditions to be recognized as a tax exempt organization (such as the purpose, limitations on spending, and internal safeguards for a charity), may issue an authorization letter to the nonprofit granting it tax exempt status for income tax payment, filing, and deductibility purposes. The exemption does not apply to other Federal taxes such as employment taxes. Additionally, a tax-exempt organization must pay federal tax on income that is unrelated to their exempt purpose. Failure to maintain operations in conformity to the laws may result in an organization losing its tax exempt status.
What can states or cities offer to NPOs?
57277c08708984140094dee3
exemptions from other taxes such as sales tax or property tax
50
False
What form must an NPO make available to the public?
57277c08708984140094dee4
990 forms
495
False
Are the state requirements to be tax exempt the same as the Federal requirements?
57277c08708984140094dee5
generally have separate applications and their requirements may differ from the IRS requirements
229
False
What financial form must be filed with both the state and federal governments each year?
57277c08708984140094dee6
IRS Form 990
421
False
What is one example of an NPO in the United States?
57277c08708984140094dee7
Project Vote Smart
610
False
annual financial reports (IRS Form 990)
395
What must a company file if they pay sales tax?
5a457ff419a820001a1eda8e
True
at the state and federal level
435
At what level does a company need to file if they pay sales tax?
5a457ff419a820001a1eda8f
True
exemption from state and local taxes
158
What does paying property tax not guarantee?
5a457ff419a820001a1eda90
True
separate applications
244
What does a company need to use to show payment of sales tax?
5a457ff419a820001a1eda91
True
public scrutiny
543
What must IRS 990 forms be available for?
5a457ff419a820001a1eda92
True
Individual states and localities offer nonprofits exemptions from other taxes such as sales tax or property tax. Federal tax-exempt status does not guarantee exemption from state and local taxes, and vice versa. These exemptions generally have separate applications and their requirements may differ from the IRS requirements. Furthermore, even a tax exempt organization may be required to file annual financial reports (IRS Form 990) at the state and federal level. A tax exempt organization's 990 forms are required to be made available for public scrutiny. An example of nonprofit organization in the US is Project Vote Smart.
Who is in control of the organization?
57277db8708984140094df13
board of directors
4
False
Who does the board hire to help with running the organization?
57277db8708984140094df14
executive director
84
False
How is the board of directors most often chosen?
57277db8708984140094df15
self-perpetuating
206
False
How is a board of directors less commonly chosen?
57277db8708984140094df16
elected by a membership
141
False
Where, on Form 990, does an organization have to list what type of board they have?
57277db8708984140094df17
Part VI, section A, question 7a
345
False
the organization
49
What does the executive director have ultimate control of?
5a45824019a820001a1eda98
True
by a membership
149
How is the executive director commonly elected?
5a45824019a820001a1eda99
True
nominate new members and vote on their fellow directors nominations
276
What do board members do when they have an executive director?
5a45824019a820001a1eda9a
True
self-perpetuating
206
What is the job status of an executive director?
5a45824019a820001a1eda9b
True
Part VI, section A, question 7a of the Form 990
345
Where does the executive director need to list what type of board the organization has?
5a45824019a820001a1eda9c
True
The board of directors has ultimate control over the organization, but typically an executive director is hired. In some cases, the board is elected by a membership, but commonly, the board of directors is self-perpetuating. In these "board-only" organizations, board members nominate new members and vote on their fellow directors nominations. Part VI, section A, question 7a of the Form 990 asks "members, stockholders, or other persons who had the power to elect or appoint one or more members of the governing body?".
What are ways that a charitable foundation receives money for it's cause?
57277f5e708984140094df33
government funds, grants from charitable foundations, direct donations
116
False
What type of funding do charitable organizations typically rely on?
57277f5e708984140094df34
external funding
98
False
What are some problems that affect employee retention and volunteers?
57277f5e708984140094df35
unreliable funding, long hours and low pay
544
False
What legislation did the US introduce to try and help the NPOs?
57277f5e708984140094df36
Nonprofit Capacity Building Program
717
False
When was the Nonprofit Sector and Community Solutions Act adopted?
57277f5e708984140094df37
2010
965
False
NPOs
55
Who is external funding an ongoing problem for?
5a458afa19a820001a1edaa2
True
Capacity building
0
What problem did NPO's have in 2010?
5a458afa19a820001a1edaa3
True
unreliable funding, long hours and low pay
544
What are some things that affect government funds and grants?
5a458afa19a820001a1edaa4
True
the Nonprofit Sector and Community Solutions Act
899
What did organizations take part in proposing in 2009?
5a458afa19a820001a1edaa5
True
retain staff, sustain facilities
346
What are two areas that experience problems when Community Solutions has a change in funding?
5a458afa19a820001a1edaa6
True
Capacity building is an ongoing problem experienced by NPOs for a number of reasons. Most rely on external funding (government funds, grants from charitable foundations, direct donations) to maintain their operations and changes in these sources of revenue may influence the reliability or predictability with which the organization can hire and retain staff, sustain facilities, create programs, or maintain tax-exempt status. For example, a university that sells research to for-profit companies may have tax exemption problems. In addition, unreliable funding, long hours and low pay can result in employee retention problems. During 2009, the US government acknowledged this critical need by the inclusion of the Nonprofit Capacity Building Program in the Serve America Act. Further efforts to quantify the scope of the sector and propose policy solutions for community benefit were included in the Nonprofit Sector and Community Solutions Act, proposed during 2010.
What is the biggest concern of non-profits in Australia?
57278080708984140094df49
a purpose relating to a public good
1019
False
When was the Commonwealth Aboriginal Councils and Associations Act adopted?
57278080708984140094df4a
1976
857
False
When was the Associations Incorporation Act adopted?
57278080708984140094df4b
1985
750
False
What does the Associations Incorporation Act cover?
57278080708984140094df4c
incorporated association
686
False
Who covers incorporated associations or councils?
57278080708984140094df4d
Commonwealth Aboriginal Councils and Associations Act
803
False
a purpose relating to a public good
1019
What are the Commonwealth Aboriginal Councils most concerned with?
5a45603519a820001a1eda48
True
a nonprofit legal structure
1097
What are health services not bound to since 1976?
5a45603519a820001a1eda49
True
1976
857
In what year was the Commonwealth Aboriginal Council formed?
5a45603519a820001a1eda4a
True
a number of legal forms
531
What can the employment industry in Australia choose from depending on their needs?
5a45603519a820001a1eda4b
True
a sub-set of the nonprofit sector
944
What are religious groups considered by the Aboriginal Council?
5a45603519a820001a1eda4c
True
In Australia, nonprofit organisations include trade unions, charitable entities, co-operatives, universities and hospitals, mutual societies, grass-root and support groups, political parties, religious groups, incorporated associations, not-for-profit companies, trusts and more. Furthermore, they operate across a multitude of domains and industries, from health, employment, disability and other human services to local sporting clubs, credit unions and research institutes. A nonprofit organisation in Australia can choose from a number of legal forms depending on the needs and activities of the organisation: co-operative, company limited by guarantee, unincorporated association, incorporated association (by the Associations Incorporation Act 1985) or incorporated association or council (by the Commonwealth Aboriginal Councils and Associations Act 1976). From an academic perspective, social enterprise is for the most part considered a sub-set of the nonprofit sector as typically they too are concerned with a purpose relating to a public good, however these are not bound to adhere to a nonprofit legal structure and many incorporate and operate as for-profit entities.
What kind of marketing budgets do NPOs usually have?
572781ed5951b619008f8b91
minimal or nonexistent
150
False
Why is marketing harder for NPOs?
572781ed5951b619008f8b92
taboo word that NPOs or others don't like to associate with such community benefit organizations
203
False
What does an NPO need to have in order to begin thinking about expansion or rebranding?
572781ed5951b619008f8b93
an outreach strategy which includes a financial plan to execute that outreach/marketing strategy
489
False
What is a moer low-key way that NPOs can get access to marketing and word of mouth?
572781ed5951b619008f8b94
leverage their access to various community stakeholders to get their name and cause recognized by the public
350
False
consistent messaging that resonates with their various stakeholders
57
What do financial plans make it hard to create?
5a458cd019a820001a1edaac
True
a taboo word
201
What is strategy considered in many cases by NPO's?
5a458cd019a820001a1edaad
True
minimal or nonexistent
150
What is the status of NPO's financial plans usually?
5a458cd019a820001a1edaae
True
strategic ways
311
What do NPO's use to have their financial plan be recognized by stakeholders?
5a458cd019a820001a1edaaf
True
an outreach strategy
489
What do stakeholders use to implement a marketing strategy?
5a458cd019a820001a1edab0
True
Many nonprofit organizations find it difficult to create consistent messaging that resonates with their various stakeholders as marketing budgets are minimal or nonexistent. Marketing is in many cases a taboo word that NPOs or others don't like to associate with such community benefit organizations. There are strategic ways in which nonprofits can leverage their access to various community stakeholders to get their name and cause recognized by the public, but it is imperative to have an outreach strategy which includes a financial plan to execute that outreach/marketing strategy, particularly if the organization has plans to rebrand or expand their initiaives.
What is a major hurdle of the financial aspect of an NPO?
572782e0dd62a815002e9f36
Resource mismanagement
0
False
How is resource mismanagement allowed to happen so easily?
572782e0dd62a815002e9f37
employees are not accountable to anybody with a direct stake in the organization
69
False
How can an NPO help to prevent financial problems?
572782e0dd62a815002e9f38
strict controls
629
False
What can constitute accounting fraud when nothing is recorded?
572782e0dd62a815002e9f39
Liabilities promised on the full faith and credit of the organization
367
False
What can a large influx of money from a for-profit company do to an organization?
572782e0dd62a815002e9f3a
alter the NPO's functions
779
False
the employees are not accountable to anybody with a direct stake in the organization
65
Why is making employees happy a problem with NPO's?
5a458e9219a820001a1edab6
True
start a new program
180
What can an employee do with the organization's reputation without disclosing donors?
5a458e9219a820001a1edab7
True
improving the NPO's reputation, making other employees happy, and attracting new donors
278
What are three ways a commentator is rewarded?
5a458e9219a820001a1edab8
True
strict controls
629
How can a for-profit organization prevent financial problems?
5a458e9219a820001a1edab9
True
alter the NPO's functions
779
What can large corporations attracting donors do to a NPO?
5a458e9219a820001a1edaba
True
Resource mismanagement is a particular problem with NPOs because the employees are not accountable to anybody with a direct stake in the organization. For example, an employee may start a new program without disclosing its complete liabilities. The employee may be rewarded for improving the NPO's reputation, making other employees happy, and attracting new donors. Liabilities promised on the full faith and credit of the organization but not recorded anywhere constitute accounting fraud. But even indirect liabilities negatively affect the financial sustainability of the NPO, and the NPO will have financial problems unless strict controls are instated. Some commentators have also argued that receiving significant funding from large for-profit corporations can ultimately alter the NPO's functions.
What problems with employment do Non Profits face?
57278c025951b619008f8d0d
Competition for employees with the public and private sector
0
False
What are positions that employees really want, but there are never enough of?
57278c025951b619008f8d0e
management
148
False
How important do NPOs consider hiring?
57278c025951b619008f8d0f
secondary priority
328
False
What is a primary interest to prospective NPO employees?
57278c025951b619008f8d10
wage and benefits package
674
False
How do employees that are no longer with NPOs feel about the time that they worked there?
57278c025951b619008f8d11
stressful work environments and implacable work that drove them away
785
False
Competition for employees with the public and private sector
0
What is another problem public sector competitors face?
5a45a19119a820001a1edac0
True
management
148
In what area does the public sector need employees?
5a45a19119a820001a1edac1
True
major talent shortages
191
What kind of shortage is there in public companies today?
5a45a19119a820001a1edac2
True
a secondary priority
326
What kind of priority do NPO's give to changing stressful work environments?
5a45a19119a820001a1edac3
True
stressful work environments and implacable work
785
What problems do public sector competitors have that drive away workers?
5a45a19119a820001a1edac4
True
Competition for employees with the public and private sector is another problem that Nonprofit organizations will inevitably face, particularly for management positions. There are reports of major talent shortages in the nonprofit sector today regarding newly graduated workers, and NPOs have for too long relegated hiring to a secondary priority, which could be why they find themselves in the position many do. While many established NPO's are well-funded and comparative to their public sector competetitors, many more are independent and must be creative with which incentives they use to attract and maintain vibrant personalities. The initial interest for many is the wage and benefits package, though many who have been questioned after leaving an NPO have reported that it was stressful work environments and implacable work that drove them away.
What can the public and private sector offer employers that NPOs usually cannot?
57278dbd5951b619008f8d59
higher wages, more comprehensive benefit packages, or less tedious work
176
False
What types of employees do NPOs usually attract?
57278dbd5951b619008f8d5a
mission-driven individuals who want to assist their chosen cause
376
False
What is something that causes a huge problem with employment in NPOs?
57278dbd5951b619008f8d5b
do not operate in a manner similar to most businesses, or only seasonally
482
False
Where are young grads looking for that NPOs?
57278dbd5951b619008f8d5c
more stable employment
627
False
higher wages, more comprehensive benefit packages, or less tedious work
176
What do NPO's have to offer employees that is better than the public sector?
5a45a2c619a820001a1edaca
True
attracting employees
307
What have NPO's enjoyed an advantage in over the public and private sector?
5a45a2c619a820001a1edacb
True
mission-driven individuals who want to assist their chosen cause
376
What kind of employee does the private sector attract?
5a45a2c619a820001a1edacc
True
do not operate in a manner similar to most businesses, or only seasonally
482
What are operational issues that the private sector has that hurts hiring?
5a45a2c619a820001a1edacd
True
more stable employment
627
Where to many young employees choose to look for instead of private employment?
5a45a2c619a820001a1edace
True
Public and private sector employment has, for the most part, been able to offer more for their employees than most nonprofit agencies throughout history. Either in the form of higher wages, more comprehensive benefit packages, or less tedious work, the public and private sector has enjoyed an advantage in attracting employees over NPOs. Traditionally, the NPO has attracted mission-driven individuals who want to assist their chosen cause. Compounding the issue is that some NPOs do not operate in a manner similar to most businesses, or only seasonally. This leads many young and driven employees to forego NPOs in favor of more stable employment. Today however, Nonprofit organizations are adopting methods used by their competitors and finding new means to retain their employees and attract the best of the newly minted workforce.
Can Npos match the wages of public and private sector employers?
57278f075951b619008f8d7b
will never be able to match the pay
43
False
What should NPOs focus on offering employees instead of high wages?
57278f075951b619008f8d7c
benefits packages, incentives and implementing pleasurable work environments
147
False
What is better than having high pay at an NPO?
57278f075951b619008f8d7d
Pleasurable work conditions
225
False
How much should an NPO pay employees?
57278f075951b619008f8d7e
as much as they are able
356
False
What are other incentives that NPO emplotees can be offered instead of higher wages?
57278f075951b619008f8d7f
generous vacation allowances or flexible work hours
534
False
benefits packages, incentives and implementing pleasurable work environments
147
What benefits should the private sector focus on offering?
5a45a3e619a820001a1edad4
True
Pleasurable work conditions
225
What benefit is voted higher than flexible hours and vacation?
5a45a3e619a820001a1edad5
True
as much as they are able
356
How much are private companies encouraged to pay?
5a45a3e619a820001a1edad6
True
a low stress work environment that the employee can associate him or herself positively with
392
What type of environment do private sector workers look for?
5a45a3e619a820001a1edad7
True
the pay
71
What will the private sector never be able to match compared to NPO's
5a45a3e619a820001a1edad8
True
It has been mentioned that most nonprofits will never be able to match the pay of the private sector and therefore should focus their attention on benefits packages, incentives and implementing pleasurable work environments. Pleasurable work conditions are ranked as being more preferable than a high salary and implacable work. NPOs are encouraged to pay as much as they are able, and offer a low stress work environment that the employee can associate him or herself positively with. Other incentives that should be implemented are generous vacation allowances or flexible work hours.
What is one of the wealthiest nonprofit organizations in America?
572793ed5951b619008f8e01
Bill and Melinda Gates Foundation
76
False
What NPO was origionally funded by Hughes Aircraft?
572793ed5951b619008f8e02
Howard Hughes Medical Institute
160
False
How much is the Bill and Melinda Gates Foundation worth?
572793ed5951b619008f8e03
US$38 billion
137
False
How much is the Howard Hughes Medical Institute worth?
572793ed5951b619008f8e04
$14.8 billion
291
False
What is one of the largest NPOs outside of the United States?
572793ed5951b619008f8e05
British Wellcome Trust
358
False
Bill and Melinda Gates Foundation
76
What is one of the wealthiest university endowments in the US?
5a45a5ff19a820001a1edade
True
Howard Hughes Medical Institute
160
What group was funded by the British Wellcome Trust before divestiture?
5a45a5ff19a820001a1edadf
True
a "charity"
391
What is the Bill and Melinda Gates Foundation considered by British usage?
5a45a5ff19a820001a1edae0
True
$14.8 billion
291
What is the Howard Hughes university funded by the British Wellcome Trust, worth?
5a45a5ff19a820001a1edae1
True
Hughes Aircraft
213
What was the British Welcome Trust originally funded by?
5a45a5ff19a820001a1edae2
True
In the United States, two of the wealthiest nonprofit organizations are the Bill and Melinda Gates Foundation, which has an endowment of US$38 billion, and the Howard Hughes Medical Institute originally funded by Hughes Aircraft prior to divestiture, which has an endowment of approximately $14.8 billion. Outside the United States, another large NPO is the British Wellcome Trust, which is a "charity" by British usage. See: List of wealthiest foundations. Note that this assessment excludes universities, at least a few of which have assets in the tens of billions of dollars. For example; List of U.S. colleges and universities by endowment.
What is a well known NPO that helps people from low incomes become homeowners?
5727951d708984140094e183
Habitat for Humanity
434
False
What is a international NPO that works on local levels to help communities thrive?
5727951d708984140094e184
Rotary International
185
False
What is a national charite that helps to bring food and health care to low income families?
5727951d708984140094e185
United Way
401
False
Which NPO is on the fore front of help when national disasters strike?
5727951d708984140094e186
Red Cross and Red Crescent
479
False
Which organization is a leader in promoting nature and preserving the enviornment?
5727951d708984140094e187
World Wide Fund for Nature
543
False
defunct
424
What has happened to Teach for America now that its non functional?
5a45a7c419a820001a1edae8
True
United Way
401
What charity brings food and health care to mine cleaners?
5a45a7c419a820001a1edae9
True
Red Cross and Red Crescent
479
Which groups help UNESCO with management?
5a45a7c419a820001a1edaea
True
World Wide Fund for Nature
543
Which fund helps OXFAM provide donations to families?
5a45a7c419a820001a1edaeb
True
Habitat for Humanity
434
What group helps German mine cleaners fix homes?
5a45a7c419a820001a1edaec
True
Some NPOs which are particularly well known, often for the charitable or social nature of their activities performed during a long period of time, include Amnesty International, Oxfam, Rotary International, Kiwanis International, Carnegie Corporation of New York, Nourishing USA, DEMIRA Deutsche Minenräumer (German Mine Clearers), FIDH International Federation for Human Rights, Goodwill Industries, United Way, ACORN (now defunct), Habitat for Humanity, Teach For America, the Red Cross and Red Crescent organizations, UNESCO, IEEE, INCOSE, World Wide Fund for Nature, Heifer International, Translators Without Borders and SOS Children's Villages.
What does .org on a URL mean?
572797ce5951b619008f8e47
organizations that didn't fit anywhere else
58
False
Are only NPOs allowed to use .org?
572797ce5951b619008f8e48
not designated specifically for charitable organizations or any specific organizational or tax-law status
299
False
What is included in the list of organizations allowed to use .org?
572797ce5951b619008f8e49
encompasses anything that is not classifiable as another category
418
False
Is there an agency that decides if someone is using the domain designation incorrectly?
572797ce5951b619008f8e4a
Currently, no restrictions are enforced on registration of .com or .org
485
False
What new domain designation should a museum use?
572797ce5951b619008f8e4b
.museum
761
False
"organizations that didn't fit anywhere else"
57
What does tld in a URL mean?
5a45a9d619a820001a1edaf2
True
charitable organizations
331
What group is .org designated specifically for?
5a45a9d619a820001a1edaf3
True
non-commercial organizations if they are not governmental, educational, or one of the other types
174
What other groups fit into the domain tld?
5a45a9d619a820001a1edaf4
True
no restrictions
496
What restrictions are there enforced on tld?
5a45a9d619a820001a1edaf5
True
the appropriate country code
845
What can governments register by in their country?
5a45a9d619a820001a1edaf6
True
In the traditional domain noted in RFC 1591, .org is for "organizations that didn't fit anywhere else" in the naming system, which implies that it is the proper category for non-commercial organizations if they are not governmental, educational, or one of the other types with a specific TLD. It is not designated specifically for charitable organizations or any specific organizational or tax-law status, however; it encompasses anything that is not classifiable as another category. Currently, no restrictions are enforced on registration of .com or .org, so one can find organizations of all sorts in either of these domains, as well as other top-level domains including newer, more specific ones which may apply to particular sorts of organizations such as .museum for museums or .coop for cooperatives. Organizations might also register by the appropriate country code top-level domain for their country.
What type of language has it been suggested that NPOs should begin to get away from?
57279954708984140094e1e7
"non" words
28
False
What type of language are organizations being directed towards?
57279954708984140094e1e8
new, positive-sounding terminology
75
False
What is a new term for NPOs that has started to see more use?
57279954708984140094e1e9
civil society organization
144
False
What is a term being used for organizations that are for the citizens, by the citizens?
57279954708984140094e1ea
citizen sector organization
295
False
What would a group like Crowdfund, GoFundMe or Kickstarter possibly belong to?
57279954708984140094e1eb
Social Benefit Organization
507
False
new, positive-sounding terminology
75
What do some innovators want to be defined by instead of non-words?
5a45ae7c19a820001a1edafc
True
terminology by a nonprofit of self-descriptive language that is not legally compliant
768
What type of descriptive definition confuses the Study of Global Governance?
5a45ae7c19a820001a1edafd
True
"Social Benefit Organization"
506
What term does Ashoka: Innovators for the Public support as more broadly used?
5a45ae7c19a820001a1edafe
True
in its own terms, without relying on terminology used for the government or business sectors
658
How do these non words describe business capabilities and limitations?
5a45ae7c19a820001a1edaff
True
nonprofit abilities, capabilities and limitations
887
What might the new terminology used confuse advocates about?
5a45ae7c19a820001a1edb00
True
Instead of being defined by "non" words, some organizations are suggesting new, positive-sounding terminology to describe the sector. The term "civil society organization" (CSO) has been used by a growing number of organizations, such as the Center for the Study of Global Governance. The term "citizen sector organization" (CSO) has also been advocated to describe the sector – as one of citizens, for citizens – by organizations such as Ashoka: Innovators for the Public. A more broadly applicable term, "Social Benefit Organization" (SBO) has been advocated for by organizations such as MiniDonations. Advocates argue that these terms describe the sector in its own terms, without relying on terminology used for the government or business sectors. However, use of terminology by a nonprofit of self-descriptive language that is not legally compliant risks confusing the public about nonprofit abilities, capabilities and limitations.
Literature
What two key elements that distinguish literature as a written form of art?
5726aef75951b619008f7a33
deemed to have artistic or intellectual value
70
False
What are two major divisions of literature?
5726aef75951b619008f7a34
fiction or non-fiction
469
False
Besides this major division, what are two other sub-divisions to describe literature?
5726aef75951b619008f7a35
poetry or prose
510
False
Prose literature can be sub-divided into what formats?
5726aef75951b619008f7a36
the novel, short story or drama
592
False
What words are the Latin roots of the word "literature?"
5726aef75951b619008f7a37
literatura/litteratura
132
False
Its Latin root literatura/litteratura
117
What are the two Greek roots for "literature?"
5a7a304717ab25001a8a0384
True
fiction or non-fiction
469
What are two major divisions of English?
5a7a304717ab25001a8a0386
True
written productions, often restricted to those deemed to have artistic or intellectual value.
23
What does art consist of?
5a7a304717ab25001a8a0387
True
literariness
398
What is it called when literature often uses different languages?
5a7a304717ab25001a8a0388
True
learning or cultivation
302
What is the Italian concept of cultura?
5a7cf915e8bc7e001a9e20f3
True
genre
755
What is it called when works are not categorized by historical periods?
5a7cf915e8bc7e001a9e20f5
True
short story or drama
603
Other than novella, what is the other subdivisions of prose literature?
5a7cf915e8bc7e001a9e20f6
True
those deemed to have artistic or intellectual value
64
What is literature as written productions always restricted to?
5a7d1ea870df9f001a874fb3
True
literatura/litteratura
132
What is the Roman root for "literature?"
5a7d1ea870df9f001a874fb4
True
learning or cultivation
302
What is the Latin concept of cultura?
5a7d1ea870df9f001a874fb5
True
their adherence to certain aesthetic features or expectations (genre).
692
Besides historical genres, how are works often categorized?
5a7d1ea870df9f001a874fb6
True
Literature consists of written productions, often restricted to those deemed to have artistic or intellectual value. Its Latin root literatura/litteratura (derived itself from littera, letter or handwriting) was used to refer to all written accounts, but intertwined with the roman concept of cultura: learning or cultivation. Literature often uses language differently than ordinary language (see literariness). Literature can be classified according to whether it is fiction or non-fiction and whether it is poetry or prose; it can be further distinguished according to major forms such as the novel, short story or drama; and works are often categorised according to historical periods or their adherence to certain aesthetic features or expectations (genre).
The changing nature of the meaning of the term "literature" can be described as what?
5726b1a8dd62a815002e8d14
a "culturally relative definition"
55
False
In Western Europe until the 1700s, literature was a term used to describe what?
5726b1a8dd62a815002e8d15
all books and writing
173
False
During what literary movement did the definition of literature begin to narrow?
5726b1a8dd62a815002e8d16
the Romantic period
247
False
During that 18th century period, literature began to be applied how?
5726b1a8dd62a815002e8d17
it began to demarcate "imaginative" literature
277
False
literature
15
What term has a "socially relative definition?"
5a7a326d17ab25001a8a0398
True
all books and writing
173
Prior to the seventeenth century, literature as a term included what too things?
5a7a326d17ab25001a8a0399
True
Romantic period
251
During what period did a more broad sense of the "literature" emerge?
5a7a326d17ab25001a8a039a
True
writing
187
In Eastern Europe, literature included all books and what else?
5a7a326d17ab25001a8a039b
True
popular and minority genres, in addition to canonical works
542
What do social studies take as its subject and analysis?
5a7a326d17ab25001a8a039c
True
culturally relative definition
58
Due to the unvarying definition of literature, what can the term "literature' be described as?
5a7cfbcee8bc7e001a9e20fb
True
all books and writing
173
What did literature refer to in Eastern Europe prior to the eighteenth century?
5a7cfbcee8bc7e001a9e20fc
True
Romantic period
251
What period brought a term that was more unrestricted to describe literature?
5a7cfbcee8bc7e001a9e20fd
True
popular and minority genres, in addition to canonical works
542
What do social studies take as its subjects of analysis?
5a7cfbcee8bc7e001a9e20fe
True
can be seen as returning to the older, more inclusive notion of what constitutes literature
379
What has been the result of modern debates over what constitutes literature?
5a7cfbcee8bc7e001a9e20ff
True
culturally relative definition
58
What is literature referred to because definitions have varied very little over time?
5a7d208870df9f001a874fbb
True
all books and writing
173
What did "literature" include in Western Europe prior to the seventeenth century?
5a7d208870df9f001a874fbc
True
Romantic period
251
When did a more unrestricted sense of the term "literature" emerge?
5a7d208870df9f001a874fbd
True
popular and minority genres, in addition to canonical works.
542
What does cultural studies take as its only subjects of analysis?
5a7d208870df9f001a874fbe
True
Definitions of literature have varied over time; it is a "culturally relative definition". In Western Europe prior to the eighteenth century, literature as a term indicated all books and writing. A more restricted sense of the term emerged during the Romantic period, in which it began to demarcate "imaginative" literature. Contemporary debates over what constitutes literature can be seen as returning to the older, more inclusive notion of what constitutes literature. Cultural studies, for instance, takes as its subject of analysis both popular and minority genres, in addition to canonical works.
What is the main component of the qualitative judgment definition of literature?
5726b597f1498d1400e8e84e
writing that possesses high quality or distinction
81
False
What French term for value-based literature literally translates as "fine writing?"
5726b597f1498d1400e8e84f
belles-lettres
163
False
Encyclopedia Britannica defined literature in its 1911 editions how?
5726b597f1498d1400e8e850
"the best expression of the best thought reduced to writing."
325
False
What effect does the evolving definition of literature have?
5726b597f1498d1400e8e851
anything which is universally regarded as literature has the potential to be excluded
520
False
fine writing
180
What is the meaning of the Spanish term, "belles-lettres?"
5a7a34d717ab25001a8a03a2
True
the best expression of the best thought reduced to writing.
326
How does the Encyclopedia Britannia Tenth Edition classify literature?
5a7a34d717ab25001a8a03a3
True
change
634
Value-decisions can do what over time?
5a7a34d717ab25001a8a03a4
True
(1910–11
282
What years does the Encyclopedia Brittanica Tenth Edition cover?
5a7a34d717ab25001a8a03a5
True
The value judgement definition of literature considers it to exclusively include writing that possesses high quality or distinction
0
What forms part of the so-called belles-lettres law?
5a7a34d717ab25001a8a03a6
True
belles-lettres
163
What Italian term means "fine writing?"
5a7cfda9e8bc7e001a9e2105
True
the best expression of the best thought reduced to writing
326
How does the 1901 Encyclopedia Britannica define "literature?"
5a7cfda9e8bc7e001a9e2106
True
over time
641
In what way can value-judgments not change?
5a7cfda9e8bc7e001a9e2107
True
Eleventh Edition
265
Which edition of the World Book Encyclopedia uses the value judgment definition of "literature?"
5a7cfda9e8bc7e001a9e2108
True
(1910–11)
282
When was the definition of value judgement first used?
5a7d25d970df9f001a874fe1
True
belles-lettres ('fine writing') tradition
163
What tradition does the value judgement definition form all of?
5a7d25d970df9f001a874fe2
True
1910
283
What year was the Eleventh Edition of Encyclopedia Britannica written?
5a7d25d970df9f001a874fe3
True
over time
641
How often do value-judgments change?
5a7d25d970df9f001a874fe4
True
The value judgement definition of literature considers it to exclusively include writing that possesses high quality or distinction, forming part of the so-called belles-lettres ('fine writing') tradition. This is the definition used in the Encyclopædia Britannica Eleventh Edition (1910–11) when it classifies literature as "the best expression of the best thought reduced to writing." However, this has the result that there is no objective definition of what constitutes "literature"; anything can be literature, and anything which is universally regarded as literature has the potential to be excluded, since value-judgements can change over time.
A definition of literature that incorporates style and the poetic nature of prose is what?
5726ba47dd62a815002e8e60
formalist
4
False
What is one example of writing that the formalist definition distinguishes literature from?
5726ba47dd62a815002e8e61
journalism
219
False
What element of the formalist definition makes it difficult to apply?
5726ba47dd62a815002e8e62
"ordinary language"
652
False
What part of ordinary language makes it difficult to apply the formalist definition?
5726ba47dd62a815002e8e63
an unstable category, differing according to social categories and across history
675
False
The formalist definition when applied to industry writing allows it to be called literature when it does what?
5726ba47dd62a815002e8e64
must use language according to particular standards
413
False
"literariness" or "poeticity" of literature
99
What does the normalist definition of "literature" say distinguishes it from ordinary speech?
5a7a38ea17ab25001a8a03b6
True
scientific literature
372
The term referring to unpublished material in a particular field includes what type of literature as one example?
5a7a38ea17ab25001a8a03b7
True
language according to particular standards
422
Tim Meyer says scientific literature, for example, must use what?
5a7a38ea17ab25001a8a03b8
True
social categories
720
Ordinary language is an unstable category that is the same according to what?
5a7a38ea17ab25001a8a03b9
True
in order to say that literature deviates from ordinary uses of language, those uses must first be identified;
516
What is the problem Jim Meyer states with the formalist definition?
5a7a38ea17ab25001a8a03ba
True
it is the "literariness" or "poeticity" of literature that distinguishes it from ordinary speech or other kinds of writing
89
What does the formalistic definition of literature state?
5a7d034a70df9f001a874eed
True
journalism
219
What is one type of writing not included in the formalistic definition of literature?
5a7d034a70df9f001a874eee
True
is an unstable category
672
What is the difficulty with "ordinary language" according to cultural categories?
5a7d034a70df9f001a874eef
True
scientific literature
372
What is an example of unpublished material in a certain field?
5a7d034a70df9f001a874ef0
True
it is the "literariness" or "poeticity" of literature that distinguishes it from ordinary speech or other kinds of writing
89
What is the formalist definition of history?
5a7d34ef70df9f001a875011
True
formalist
4
Jim Meyer considers what term to be useful in explaining scientific literature?
5a7d34ef70df9f001a875012
True
unstable category
678
What is "ordinary language" considered according to social history and differing categories?
5a7d34ef70df9f001a875013
True
The formalist definition is that the history of "literature" foregrounds poetic effects; it is the "literariness" or "poeticity" of literature that distinguishes it from ordinary speech or other kinds of writing (e.g., journalism). Jim Meyer considers this a useful characteristic in explaining the use of the term to mean published material in a particular field (e.g., "scientific literature"), as such writing must use language according to particular standards. The problem with the formalist definition is that in order to say that literature deviates from ordinary uses of language, those uses must first be identified; this is difficult because "ordinary language" is an unstable category, differing according to social categories and across history.
What elements of language make for poetic literature?
5726be28f1498d1400e8e9dc
aesthetic and rhythmic qualities
44
False
Poetry is usually differentiated from prose by what factor?
5726be28f1498d1400e8e9dd
verse
242
False
If prose uses sentences, what is the equivalent in poetry?
5726be28f1498d1400e8e9de
lines
290
False
Poetry was considered to need lines and meter until when?
5726be28f1498d1400e8e9df
the nineteenth century
429
False
The structure of poetry may have existed before what?
5726be28f1498d1400e8e9e0
literacy
856
False
aesthetic and rhythmic
44
What two qualities are used in rhyming literary art?
5a7a3c8817ab25001a8a03e6
True
by its being set in verse;[a] prose is cast in sentences, poetry in lines
222
How has poetry been non-traditionally distinguished from prose?
5a7a3c8817ab25001a8a03e7
True
something set in metrical lines
490
Prior to the eighteenth century, poetry was commonly understood to be what?
5a7a3c8817ab25001a8a03e8
True
"any kind of subject consisting of Rythm or Verses".
570
In 1657, what was the definition used for "poetry?"
5a7a3c8817ab25001a8a03e9
True
by an oral tradition
926
Poetry constitutes the second earliest example of literature and was sustained how?
5a7a3c8817ab25001a8a03ea
True
Poetry
0
What is a type of lyric art that uses aesthetic and rhythmic qualities?
5a7d062570df9f001a874eff
True
verse
242
What has non-traditionally been the distinguishing factor between poetry and prose?
5a7d062570df9f001a874f00
True
in metrical lines
504
How was poetry set prior to the eighteenth century?
5a7d062570df9f001a874f01
True
any kind of subject consisting of Rythm or Verses
571
What is the 1558 definition of poetry?
5a7d062570df9f001a874f02
True
literature
993
What is poetry the latest example of?
5a7d062570df9f001a874f03
True
aesthetic and rhythmic
44
What qualities does prosaic use to evoke meanings?
5a7d395370df9f001a875021
True
lines
290
What is prose cast in if poetry is cast in sentences?
5a7d395370df9f001a875022
True
any kind of subject consisting of Rythm or Verses
571
What is the 1568 definition of poetry?
5a7d395370df9f001a875023
True
the nineteenth century
429
Until when was prose considered to need metrical lines?
5a7d395370df9f001a875024
True
literacy
856
What has poetry been confirmed to pre-date?
5a7d395370df9f001a875025
True
Poetry is a form of literary art which uses aesthetic and rhythmic qualities of language to evoke meanings in addition to, or in place of, prosaic ostensible meaning. Poetry has traditionally been distinguished from prose by its being set in verse;[a] prose is cast in sentences, poetry in lines; the syntax of prose is dictated by meaning, whereas that of poetry is held across metre or the visual aspects of the poem. Prior to the nineteenth century, poetry was commonly understood to be something set in metrical lines; accordingly, in 1658 a definition of poetry is "any kind of subject consisting of Rythm or Verses". Possibly as a result of Aristotle's influence (his Poetics), "poetry" before the nineteenth century was usually less a technical designation for verse than a normative category of fictive or rhetorical art. As a form it may pre-date literacy, with the earliest works being composed within and sustained by an oral tradition; hence it constitutes the earliest example of literature.
Literature intended for performance is what?
5726bfe0f1498d1400e8ea28
Drama
0
False
Drama is sometimes blended with what other elements?
5726bfe0f1498d1400e8ea29
music and dance
78
False
What are two types of drama that incorporate music or dance?
5726bfe0f1498d1400e8ea2a
opera and musical theatre
101
False
Drama meant to be performed in a theater is what?
5726bfe0f1498d1400e8ea2b
A play
128
False
What do we call the author of a play?
5726bfe0f1498d1400e8ea2c
a playwright
203
False
performance
33
Drama is literature that is not intended for what?
5a7a3eed17ab25001a8a040e
True
opera and musical theatre
101
Poetry is often combined with music and dance, as in what two things?
5a7a3eed17ab25001a8a040f
True
comparatively recently.
614
Nearly all drama took prose form until what general time frame?
5a7a3eed17ab25001a8a0410
True
A play
128
What is comprised chiefly of dialogue between two characters?
5a7a3eed17ab25001a8a0411
True
performed
475
A closet drama refers to a a play written to be sang instead of what?
5a7a3eed17ab25001a8a0412
True
Drama
0
What is literature not intended for performance?
5a7d08bf70df9f001a874f13
True
A play
128
What is the oral dramatic work of a playwright called?
5a7d08bf70df9f001a874f14
True
a play written to be read rather than to be performed
431
What does a closest drama refer to?
5a7d08bf70df9f001a874f15
True
comparatively recently
614
Until when did very little drama take verse form?
5a7d08bf70df9f001a874f16
True
opera and musical theatre
101
What forms of drama combine with music and motion?
5a7d08bf70df9f001a874f17
True
comparatively recently
614
Until when did all musical theater take verse form?
5a7d3e2970df9f001a875035
True
playwright
205
What is the composer of an opera called?
5a7d3e2970df9f001a875036
True
Drama
0
What is a closet drama a subset of?
5a7d3e2970df9f001a875037
True
Drama is literature intended for performance. The form is often combined with music and dance, as in opera and musical theatre. A play is a subset of this form, referring to the written dramatic work of a playwright that is intended for performance in a theatre; it comprises chiefly dialogue between characters, and usually aims at dramatic or theatrical performance rather than at reading. A closet drama, by contrast, refers to a play written to be read rather than to be performed; hence, it is intended that the meaning of such a work can be realized fully on the page. Nearly all drama took verse form until comparatively recently.
The earliest form of drama we know of was part of what culture?
5726c2c4f1498d1400e8ea7c
Greek
0
False
Tragedy was a dramatic style that evolved from what?
5726c2c4f1498d1400e8ea7d
performance associated with religious and civic festivals
136
False
A tragedy typically involved what subject matter?
5726c2c4f1498d1400e8ea7e
historical or mythological themes
244
False
What media was the play War Of The Worlds written for?
5726c2c4f1498d1400e8ea7f
radio
454
False
In what year was War Of The Worlds originally presented?
5726c2c4f1498d1400e8ea80
1938
464
False
Greek
0
The earliest form of drama we know about is from the Roman and what other culture?
5a7a41d717ab25001a8a042c
True
civic festivals
178
Tragedy was a style that developed and evolved from performances associated with nonreligious festivals and what other type of festival?
5a7a41d717ab25001a8a042d
True
radio broadcast,
510
War of the Worlds, written in 1838, was written for what medium?
5a7a41d717ab25001a8a042e
True
film or television.
573
Many works of tragedy have been adapted for what?
5a7a41d717ab25001a8a042f
True
printed or electronic media.
665
Television, film, and podcast literature have been adapted to what?
5a7a41d717ab25001a8a0430
True
Greek
0
The latest form of drama we are aware of is from what culture?
5a7d0a7370df9f001a874f1d
True
Tragedy
91
What genre emerged from performances associated with nonreligious and civic festivals?
5a7d0a7370df9f001a874f1e
True
very serious
309
Comedies generally present what type of themes?
5a7d0a7370df9f001a874f1f
True
War of the Worlds
435
What was written for radio broadcast in 1838?
5a7d0a7370df9f001a874f20
True
film or television
573
What have many works of horror been adapted for?
5a7d0a7370df9f001a874f21
True
War of the Worlds
435
What was broadcast on radio in 1983?
5a7d418570df9f001a875059
True
Tragedy
91
What is the genre associated with religious themes and mythological festivals?
5a7d418570df9f001a87505a
True
1938
464
When was War of the Worlds originally written?
5a7d418570df9f001a87505b
True
Greek drama exemplifies the earliest form of drama of which we have substantial knowledge. Tragedy, as a dramatic genre, developed as a performance associated with religious and civic festivals, typically enacting or developing upon well-known historical or mythological themes. Tragedies generally presented very serious themes. With the advent of newer technologies, scripts written for non-stage media have been added to this form. War of the Worlds (radio) in 1938 saw the advent of literature written for radio broadcast, and many works of Drama have been adapted for film or television. Conversely, television, film, and radio literature have been adapted to printed or electronic media.
Literature, regardless of how the definition is applied, can be interpreted as what?
5726c60d5951b619008f7db9
written records
135
False
We can learn what by carefully examining our literature?
5726c60d5951b619008f7dba
our history
621
False
Who wrote "Childe Harold's Pilgrimage: Canto I"?
5726c60d5951b619008f7dbb
Lord Byron
1355
False
Passing information down through generations was made easier when our society did what?
5726c60d5951b619008f7dbc
once we began to write it down
1735
False
Authors of literature frequently reference what antecedents?
5726c60d5951b619008f7dbd
Greek mythology and other old religious texts or historical moments
931
False
written records
135
Literature in most forms can be seen as what?
5a7a441717ab25001a8a0436
True
entertainment purposes;
399
The plot is only for what purpose?
5a7a441717ab25001a8a0437
True
old religious texts or historical moments
957
What do authors also reference besides Roman mythology?
5a7a441717ab25001a8a0438
True
‘‘Childe Harold’s Pilgrimage: Canto I’’
1408
What did Lord Bryon write?
5a7a441717ab25001a8a0439
True
Spanish and the French
1382
In "Childe Harold's Pilgimage: Cano I," Lord Byron talks about the Portuguese and what other groups?
5a7a441717ab25001a8a043a
True
Literature in all its forms
92
What can be seen as written logs?
5a7d0d9e70df9f001a874f3b
True
economics, psychology, science, religions, politics, cultures, and social depth.
456
Besides entertainment and philosophy, what information is in a plot?
5a7d0d9e70df9f001a874f3c
True
modern
872
In what type of literature do authors make reference to Roman mythology and other old texts?
5a7d0d9e70df9f001a874f3d
True
Lord Byron
1355
Who talks about the Spanish and Portuguese in "Childe Harold's Pilgrimage: Canto I?"
5a7d0d9e70df9f001a874f3e
True
Childe Harold
1497
Who is the main character in "Childe Harold's: Canto I?"
5a7d0d9e70df9f001a874f3f
True
literature
560
What do we learn about from studying and analyzing history?
5a7e3c5c70df9f001a8755f3
True
Lord Byron
1355
Who wrote Childe Harold?
5a7e3c5c70df9f001a8755f4
True
the French
1394
Who does Lord Bryon talk about besides the Greek and Spanish in "Childe Harold's Pilgrimige: Canto I?"
5a7e3c5c70df9f001a8755f5
True
literature
1520
What are we able to continuously able to uncover new information about through history?
5a7e3c5c70df9f001a8755f6
True
“The roots of all our modern academic fields can be found within the pages of literature.”  Literature in all its forms can be seen as written records, whether the literature itself be factual or fictional, it is still quite possible to decipher facts through things like characters’ actions and words or the authors’ style of writing and the intent behind the words. The plot is for more than just entertainment purposes; within it lies information about economics, psychology, science, religions, politics, cultures, and social depth. Studying and analyzing literature becomes very important in terms of learning about our history. Through the study of past literature we are able to learn about how society has evolved and about the societal norms during each of the different periods all throughout history. This can even help us to understand references made in more modern literature because authors often make references to Greek mythology and other old religious texts or historical moments. Not only is there literature written on each of the aforementioned topics themselves, and how they have evolved throughout history (like a book about the history of economics or a book about evolution and science, for example) but we can also learn about these things in fictional works. Authors often include historical moments in their works, like when Lord Byron talks about the Spanish and the French in ‘‘Childe Harold’s Pilgrimage: Canto I’’ and expresses his opinions through his character Childe Harold. Through literature we are able to continuously uncover new information about history. It is easy to see how all academic fields have roots in literature. Information became easier to pass down from generation to generation once we began to write it down. Eventually everything was written down, from things like home remedies and cures for illness, or how to build shelter to traditions and religious practices. From there people were able to study literature, improve on ideas, further our knowledge, and academic fields such as the medical field or trades could be started. In much the same way as the literature that we study today continue to be updated as we continue to evolve and learn more and more.
What are some classical societies whose literature is still studied today?
5726c8c3708984140094d149
Ancient China, Ancient India, Persia and Ancient Greece and Rome
192
False
Besides entertainment or informational value, classic literature also possessed what quality?
5726c8c3708984140094d14a
a covert moral or didactic purpose
317
False
What societal evolution helped to develop drama and satire by providing a ready audience?
5726c8c3708984140094d14b
urban culture
452
False
From what settings did lyric poetry derive?
5726c8c3708984140094d14c
courts and aristocratic circles
617
False
What is an example of a collection of classic Chinese lyric poetry?
5726c8c3708984140094d14d
the Shijing or Book of Songs
763
False
Ancient Greece and Rome
233
Literature from Ancient China, Cambodia, Ancient India, Persia and what other two societies are still studied today?
5a7a45fa17ab25001a8a0440
True
Sanskrit Panchatantra or the Metamorphoses of Ovid.
365
Two works that had either overt moral or didactic purpose are what?
5a7a45fa17ab25001a8a0441
True
Drama and satire
417
What genres developed as rural culture grew and provided a larger audience?
5a7a45fa17ab25001a8a0442
True
courts and aristocratic circles,
617
Epic poetry was a specialty of what?
5a7a45fa17ab25001a8a0443
True
Chinese aristocracy
710
In West Asia, songs were collected by what people as poems?
5a7a45fa17ab25001a8a0444
True
a means of transmission for speculative and philosophical literature in early civilizations
54
What did academies provide when a more suburban culture developed?
5a7d0f8a70df9f001a874f45
True
Ancient China, Ancient India, Persia and Ancient Greece and Rome
192
Besides Ancient Japan, what classical societies have literature that is still studied today?
5a7d0f8a70df9f001a874f46
True
Drama and satire
417
What genres developed as suburban culture provided a bigger audience?
5a7d0f8a70df9f001a874f47
True
Chinese aristocracy
710
Who collected songs as poems from West Asia?
5a7d0f8a70df9f001a874f48
True
courts and aristocratic circles
617
What was epic poetry the specialty of?
5a7e3ecd70df9f001a875637
True
a larger public audience
475
What did urban culture provide that helped poetry and satire?
5a7e3ecd70df9f001a875638
True
songs
682
What were poems in East Asia collected as?
5a7e3ecd70df9f001a875639
True
Chinese aristocracy
710
Who collected songs in Ancient Asia?
5a7e3ecd70df9f001a87563a
True
As a more urban culture developed, academies provided a means of transmission for speculative and philosophical literature in early civilizations, resulting in the prevalence of literature in Ancient China, Ancient India, Persia and Ancient Greece and Rome. Many works of earlier periods, even in narrative form, had a covert moral or didactic purpose, such as the Sanskrit Panchatantra or the Metamorphoses of Ovid. Drama and satire also developed as urban culture provided a larger public audience, and later readership, for literary production. Lyric poetry (as opposed to epic poetry) was often the speciality of courts and aristocratic circles, particularly in East Asia where songs were collected by the Chinese aristocracy as poems, the most notable being the Shijing or Book of Songs. Over a long period, the poetry of popular pre-literate balladry and song interpenetrated and eventually influenced poetry in the literary medium.
Subjects featured in Ancient Chinese literature include what?
5726ca9b5951b619008f7e3b
philosophy, historiography, military science, agriculture, and poetry
60
False
What two inventions helped make Chinese literature especially important and portable?
5726ca9b5951b619008f7e3c
modern paper making and woodblock printing
152
False
What historic period was the foundry for classic Chinese literature in the ancient world?
5726ca9b5951b619008f7e3d
the Hundred Schools of Thought period
289
False
What classic work of war science originated during this period?
5726ca9b5951b619008f7e3e
The Art of War
542
False
Who wrote The Art Of War?
5726ca9b5951b619008f7e3f
Sun Tzu
532
False
military science, agriculture, and poetry
88
The early literature of ancient China was primarily focused on psychology, historiography, philosophy, and what other three things?
5a7a47e417ab25001a8a0454
True
woodblock printing
176
Japan is the origin of modern paper making and what type of printing?
5a7a47e417ab25001a8a0455
True
769-269 BCE
374
The Western Zhou Dynasty was present during what years?
5a7a47e417ab25001a8a0456
True
court records.
721
Ancient Chinese literature placed little emphasis on historiography, which had detailed what?
5a7a47e417ab25001a8a0457
True
Zuo Zhuan
801
What was complied in 388 BCE?
5a7a47e417ab25001a8a0458
True
philosophy, historiography, military science, agriculture, and poetry
60
What was early literature focused on in ancient Asia?
5a7d116470df9f001a874f57
True
China
131
What country is the origin of primitive paper making and woodblock printing?
5a7d116470df9f001a874f58
True
Eastern Zhou Dynasty
352
What do the years 759-259 BCE mark the existence of?
5a7d116470df9f001a874f59
True
historiography
680
What did Ancient Asian literature put heavy emphasis on?
5a7d116470df9f001a874f5a
True
Zuo Zhuan
801
What was compiled no later than 289 BCE?
5a7d116470df9f001a874f5b
True
Hundred Schools of Thought
293
What period occurred from 796-896 BCE?
5a7e405170df9f001a87563f
True
military science
509
What genre is Sima Qian's The Art of War?
5a7e405170df9f001a875640
True
Chinese history
562
What genre is Sun Tzu's Record of the Grand Historian?
5a7e405170df9f001a875641
True
Ancient Chinese literature
629
What literature had a heavy emphasis on philosophy with very detailed court records?
5a7e405170df9f001a875642
True
389 BCE
845
What year was the Zuo Zhuan written and released?
5a7e405170df9f001a875643
True
In ancient China, early literature was primarily focused on philosophy, historiography, military science, agriculture, and poetry. China, the origin of modern paper making and woodblock printing, produced one of the world's first print cultures. Much of Chinese literature originates with the Hundred Schools of Thought period that occurred during the Eastern Zhou Dynasty (769-269 BCE). The most important of these include the Classics of Confucianism, of Daoism, of Mohism, of Legalism, as well as works of military science (e.g. Sun Tzu's The Art of War) and Chinese history (e.g. Sima Qian's Records of the Grand Historian). Ancient Chinese literature had a heavy emphasis on historiography, with often very detailed court records. An exemplary piece of narrative history of ancient China was the Zuo Zhuan, which was compiled no later than 389 BCE, and attributed to the blind 5th century BCE historian Zuo Qiuming.
What were some different genres that emerged from ancient India's oral literary traditions?
5726ccdd708984140094d1b7
drama, fables, sutras and epic poetry
116
False
An important language for ancient Indian literature is what?
5726ccdd708984140094d1b8
Sanskrit
155
False
What ancient religious scriptures were among the first examples of Indian literature?
5726ccdd708984140094d1b9
The Vedas
285
False
The Vedic Period refers to what expanse of time?
5726ccdd708984140094d1ba
the mid 2nd to mid 1st millennium BCE
529
False
The Vedic Period began in the Late Bronze Age and extended until when?
5726ccdd708984140094d1bb
the Iron Age
595
False
Vedas
191
Sanskrit literature begins with what that dates back to 1300-1100 BCE?
5a7a49f217ab25001a8a047c
True
sutras and epic poetry
131
The early genres of Ancient India included drama, tragedy, fables, and what other two genres?
5a7a49f217ab25001a8a047d
True
Sanskrit Epics
251
What literature follows the Vedas in Iron Range India?
5a7a49f217ab25001a8a047e
True
the Late Bronze Age and the Iron Age
571
The Vedic period spans the mid 3rd to mid 1st millennium BCE, also known as what?
5a7a49f217ab25001a8a047f
True
the Mahabharata and the Ramayana
746
The time between the 6th and 5th centuries BC saw the composition and redaction of what?
5a7a49f217ab25001a8a0480
True
from stories that were originally orally transmitted
40
How did literature originate in ancient China?
5a7d12b070df9f001a874f61
True
the Vedas
187
What does Sanskrit literature end with?
5a7d12b070df9f001a874f62
True
The Samhitas
330
What dates to 1530-1030 BCE?
5a7d12b070df9f001a874f63
True
1000-500 BCE
477
When does the redirection of the Samhitas date to?
5a7d12b070df9f001a874f64
True
the Vedas
187
What dates back to the years 1005-100 BCE?
5a7e43ed70df9f001a87565d
True
the redaction of the Samhitas
435
What dates to c. 1000-1500 BCE?
5a7e43ed70df9f001a87565e
True
Vedic period
506
What period spans the late 2nd to mid 1st millennium BCE?
5a7e43ed70df9f001a87565f
True
the composition and redaction of the two most influential Indian epics, the Mahabharata and the Ramayana
674
What did the period between the 2nd and 1st centuries BC see?
5a7e43ed70df9f001a875660
True
In ancient India, literature originated from stories that were originally orally transmitted. Early genres included drama, fables, sutras and epic poetry. Sanskrit literature begins with the Vedas, dating back to 1500–1000 BCE, and continues with the Sanskrit Epics of Iron Age India. The Vedas are among the oldest sacred texts. The Samhitas (vedic collections) date to roughly 1500–1000 BCE, and the "circum-Vedic" texts, as well as the redaction of the Samhitas, date to c. 1000-500 BCE, resulting in a Vedic period, spanning the mid 2nd to mid 1st millennium BCE, or the Late Bronze Age and the Iron Age. The period between approximately the 6th to 1st centuries BC saw the composition and redaction of the two most influential Indian epics, the Mahabharata and the Ramayana, with subsequent redaction progressing down to the 4th century AD.
What two epic narratives were written by Homer?
5726cdcbdd62a815002e90c6
the Iliad and the Odyssey
49
False
Who wrote Works and Days and Theogony?
5726cdcbdd62a815002e90c7
Hesiod
80
False
Plato and Aristotle wrote what type of literature?
5726cdcbdd62a815002e90c8
philosophical texts
322
False
Who were two important Classic Greek lyric poets?
5726cdcbdd62a815002e90c9
Sappho and Pindar
389
False
The two great ancient Greek historians were?
5726cdcbdd62a815002e90ca
Herodotus and Thucydides
441
False
the Iliad and the Odyssey
49
In ancient Rome, Homer wrote what two epics?
5a7a4b5117ab25001a8a0486
True
historiography, comedies and dramas.
256
Modern Greek genres include philosophy, poetry, and what other three genres?
5a7a4b5117ab25001a8a0487
True
philosophical texts that are the foundation of Western philosophy,
322
Plato and Socrates authored what?
5a7a4b5117ab25001a8a0488
True
Aeschylus, Sophocles, and Euripides.
679
The three Roman authors whose plays still exist are who?
5a7a4b5117ab25001a8a0489
True
Aristophanes
729
Which playwright  provided the only real examples of the genre of New Comedy?
5a7a4b5117ab25001a8a048a
True
the Iliad and the Odyssey
49
What two epics did Homer write in ancient Rome?
5a7d14de70df9f001a874f73
True
Hesiod
80
Who wrote Works end Days and Theology?
5a7d14de70df9f001a874f74
True
philosophical texts
322
What types of texts did Plato and Socrates author?
5a7d14de70df9f001a874f75
True
Herodotus and Thucydides
441
Who were two early Roman historians?
5a7d14de70df9f001a874f76
True
Aristophanes
729
Whose plays give examples of New Comedy?
5a7d14de70df9f001a874f77
True
Homer
32
Who wrote both the Iliad and Theogony?
5a7e45c470df9f001a875665
True
philosophical texts
322
What type of texts did Plato and Sappho author that were so important to the West?
5a7e45c470df9f001a875666
True
Sappho and Pindar
389
What Westerners were influential lyric poets?
5a7e45c470df9f001a875667
True
plays
643
What still exists written by Aeschylus, Sophocles, and Plato?
5a7e45c470df9f001a875668
True
In ancient Greece, the epics of Homer, who wrote the Iliad and the Odyssey, and Hesiod, who wrote Works and Days and Theogony, are some of the earliest, and most influential, of Ancient Greek literature. Classical Greek genres included philosophy, poetry, historiography, comedies and dramas. Plato and Aristotle authored philosophical texts that are the foundation of Western philosophy, Sappho and Pindar were influential lyric poets, and Herodotus and Thucydides were early Greek historians. Although drama was popular in Ancient Greece, of the hundreds of tragedies written and performed during the classical age, only a limited number of plays by three authors still exist: Aeschylus, Sophocles, and Euripides. The plays of Aristophanes provide the only real examples of a genre of comic drama known as Old Comedy, the earliest form of Greek Comedy, and are in fact used to define the genre.
Much medieval literature was influenced by the works of what classic culture?
5726cf505951b619008f7e99
Roman
0
False
What form of literature enjoyed the most widespread popularity during the Middle Ages?
5726cf505951b619008f7e9a
the romance
181
False
What element is characteristic of a medieval romance?
5726cf505951b619008f7e9b
an adventurous and sometimes magical narrative
194
False
What helped cause the widespread appearance of multiple forms of literature in the Renaissance?
5726cf505951b619008f7e9c
the invention of printing
385
False
What is an early example of the novel form of literature from Europe?
5726cf505951b619008f7e9d
the German Faust books
591
False
mediaeval literature
58
Greek classic literature influenced what genre of literature?
5a7a4d6417ab25001a8a04a4
True
romance
185
What genre was the most characteristic form of the Bronze Ages?
5a7a4d6417ab25001a8a04a5
True
Controversial, religious, political and instructional literature
269
What literature proliferated during the Revival?
5a7a4d6417ab25001a8a04a6
True
the novel
515
Modern romance developed into what type of narrative?
5a7a4d6417ab25001a8a04a7
True
Chinese Monkey and the German Faust books.
572
What are two late important examples of the novel?
5a7a4d6417ab25001a8a04a8
True
mediaeval literature
58
What type of literature did Greek culture influenced?
5a7d16fc70df9f001a874f87
True
romance
185
What form of literature had limited popularity during the Middle Ages?
5a7d16fc70df9f001a874f88
True
Controversial, religious, political and instructional literature
269
What types of literature emerged during the Revival?
5a7d16fc70df9f001a874f89
True
the German Faust books
591
What is an early example of the novel from Russia?
5a7d16fc70df9f001a874f8a
True
Controversial, religious, political and instructional literature
269
What proliferated during the Middle Ages as a result of the printing invention?
5a7e48e570df9f001a875681
True
the novel
515
What is German Monkey an important example of?
5a7e48e570df9f001a875682
True
the novel
515
What is the Chinese Faust books an example of?
5a7e48e570df9f001a875683
True
Roman histories and biographies anticipated the extensive mediaeval literature of lives of saints and miraculous chronicles, but the most characteristic form of the Middle Ages was the romance, an adventurous and sometimes magical narrative with strong popular appeal. Controversial, religious, political and instructional literature proliferated during the Renaissance as a result of the invention of printing, while the mediaeval romance developed into a more character-based and psychological form of narrative, the novel, of which early and important examples are the Chinese Monkey and the German Faust books.
What literary movement in the 1700s recalled the fantastical literature of medieval times?
5726df19708984140094d431
Romanticism
194
False
What elements in 19th century European literature were a reaction to the romanticism movement?
5726df19708984140094d432
realism and naturalism
450
False
What are two elements prevalent among characters at the center of romanticism works?
5726df19708984140094d433
individual experience and emotion
349
False
How did naturalism effect the greater world?
5726df19708984140094d434
influenced social and political change
598
False
20th century literature reacted to the objectivity of naturalism in the 19th century to what?
5726df19708984140094d435
the subjective
692
False
Romanticism
194
What literary genre exploded in thee early 18th century?
5a7a4f4017ab25001a8a04c2
True
realism and naturalism
450
As the 18th century went on, European fiction evolved toward what?
5a7a4f4017ab25001a8a04c3
True
social and political change,
609
What did realism influence prior to the 20th century?
5a7a4f4017ab25001a8a04c4
True
the subjective, emphasising unconscious motivations and social and environmental pressures on the individual. W
692
What did 21st century fiction and drama move back toward?
5a7a4f4117ab25001a8a04c5
True
the trend of documenting internal rather than external realities.
871
Proust, Eliot, Joy, Kafka and Pirand examplified what trend?
5a7a4f4117ab25001a8a04c6
True
philosophical tracts and speculations on history and human nature integrated literature with social and political developments
21
What happened during the Age of Reasoning?
5a7d181170df9f001a874f8f
True
realism and naturalism
450
During the 18th century, what did European fiction evolve toward?
5a7d181170df9f001a874f91
True
emphasising unconscious motivations and social and environmental pressures on the individual
708
What effect did 20th century fiction and tragedy have on the world?
5a7d181170df9f001a874f92
True
the explosion of Romanticism
177
What was the reaction to the Age of Reason in the later 19th century?
5a7e4a4d70df9f001a8756a5
True
realism and naturalism
450
In the 18th century, what did European fiction evolve toward?
5a7e4a4d70df9f001a8756a6
True
the subjective
692
What did 20th century realism and drama move back toward?
5a7e4a4d70df9f001a8756a7
True
Proust, Eliot, Joyce, Kafka and Pirandello
818
Which writers documented the external rather than the internal?
5a7e4a4d70df9f001a8756a8
True
In the Age of Reason philosophical tracts and speculations on history and human nature integrated literature with social and political developments. The inevitable reaction was the explosion of Romanticism in the later 18th century which reclaimed the imaginative and fantastical bias of old romances and folk-literature and asserted the primacy of individual experience and emotion. But as the 19th-century went on, European fiction evolved towards realism and naturalism, the meticulous documentation of real life and social trends. Much of the output of naturalism was implicitly polemical, and influenced social and political change, but 20th century fiction and drama moved back towards the subjective, emphasising unconscious motivations and social and environmental pressures on the individual. Writers such as Proust, Eliot, Joyce, Kafka and Pirandello exemplify the trend of documenting internal rather than external realities.
What sub-group of literature emerged in the 20th century?
5726e03b708984140094d463
Genre fiction
0
False
Alternative reality genre fiction is also known as what?
5726e03b708984140094d464
science fiction
193
False
Who were two 20th century writers who blurred the lines between journalism and literature?
5726e03b708984140094d465
William Burroughs, in his early works, and Hunter S. Thompson
339
False
By what means did these two writers create and emergent convergence of literature and journalism?
5726e03b708984140094d466
strong subjective statements
437
False
Critics based in what movement find fault in objective realism?
5726e03b708984140094d467
post-modern
498
False
Genre fiction
0
What sub-group of literature emerged in the 21st century?
5a7a51ac17ab25001a8a04f4
True
documentary reporting
410
Hunter S. Thompson expanded what after the first World War?
5a7a51ac17ab25001a8a04f5
True
disparaged
523
Pre-modern critics have done what regarding the idea of objective realism?
5a7a51ac17ab25001a8a04f6
True
journalism
270
William Burroughs continued to define the lines between literature and what?
5a7a51ac17ab25001a8a04f7
True
science fiction
193
Alternative fantasies are also know as what?
5a7a51ac17ab25001a8a04f8
True
William Burroughs, in his early works, and Hunter S. Thompson
339
What two writers defined the lines between journalism and literature?
5a7d1c3670df9f001a874fa1
True
Genre fiction
0
What genre of fiction developed in the 21st century?
5a7d1c3670df9f001a874fa2
True
science fiction
193
What genre does skeptical realities and alternative detective refer to?
5a7d1c3670df9f001a874fa3
True
objective realism
546
What idea have modern critics disparaged?
5a7d1c3670df9f001a874fa4
True
expanded documentary reporting into strong subjective statements
401
What are William Thompson and Hunter S. Burroughs known for?
5a7e506b70df9f001a8756f7
True
post-modern critics
498
Who has disparaged the idea of objective journalism?
5a7e506b70df9f001a8756f8
True
Genre fiction
0
What major form of literature appeared in the 20th century?
5a7e506b70df9f001a8756f9
True
science fiction
193
What is skeptical detective fiction also known as?
5a7e506b70df9f001a8756fa
True
Genre fiction also showed it could question reality in its 20th century forms, in spite of its fixed formulas, through the enquiries of the skeptical detective and the alternative realities of science fiction. The separation of "mainstream" and "genre" forms (including journalism) continued to blur during the period up to our own times. William Burroughs, in his early works, and Hunter S. Thompson expanded documentary reporting into strong subjective statements after the second World War, and post-modern critics have disparaged the idea of objective realism in general.
What two elements have reduced the literary nature of scientific journals?
5726e16df1498d1400e8ee86
advances and specialization
3
False
The segregation of science writing means that articles in those subjects primarily appear where?
5726e16df1498d1400e8ee87
journals
225
False
The work of what classical scientists is caught between being outdated and of literary importance?
5726e16df1498d1400e8ee88
Aristotle, Copernicus, and Newton
255
False
In what coursework is one still likely to encounter the works of these classic scientists?
5726e16df1498d1400e8ee89
"history of science" programmes
516
False
over the last two centuries
165
The literary nature of science writing has become more pronounced during what time period?
5a7a53d021c2de001afe9b6a
True
the science in them has largely become outdated
326
The science of Aristotle, Galileo, and Newton no longer serve for scientific instruction why?
5a7a53d021c2de001afe9b6b
True
"history of science"
516
Students often read classical scientists outside what programmes?
5a7a53d021c2de001afe9b6c
True
advances and specialization
3
What has made new scientific research accessible to most audiences?
5a7a53d021c2de001afe9b6d
True
science writing
122
What do students rarely study outside programmes of literary study?
5a7e522f70df9f001a875727
True
Scientific works
235
What are too technical to sit well in "history of science" programs?
5a7e522f70df9f001a875728
True
Aristotle, Copernicus, and Newton
255
The scientific works of which scientists are still studied regularly?
5a7e522f70df9f001a875729
True
As advances and specialization have made new scientific research inaccessible to most audiences, the "literary" nature of science writing has become less pronounced over the last two centuries. Now, science appears mostly in journals. Scientific works of Aristotle, Copernicus, and Newton still exhibit great value, but since the science in them has largely become outdated, they no longer serve for scientific instruction. Yet, they remain too technical to sit well in most programmes of literary study. Outside of "history of science" programmes, students rarely read such works.
What classic area of study is now mostly reserved for academic consideration?
5726e302f1498d1400e8eea8
Philosophy
0
False
Most serious studies in philosophy are segregated to what publications?
5726e302f1498d1400e8eea9
academic journals
189
False
Who are some of the most important philosophers in history?
5726e302f1498d1400e8eeaa
Plato, Aristotle, Socrates, Augustine, Descartes, Kierkegaard, Nietzsche
243
False
What aspect of modern academic philosophy is less literary than technical in nature?
5726e302f1498d1400e8eeab
logic
479
False
Serious studies in logic tend to resemble what discipline, moreso than literature?
5726e302f1498d1400e8eeac
mathematics
549
False
an increasingly academic discipline
22
Psychology has become what?
5a7a553c21c2de001afe9b72
True
in academic journals
186
Most new pychologic work appears where?
5a7a553c21c2de001afe9b73
True
Descartes, Kierkegaard, Nietzsche
282
Besides Plato, Achilles, Socrates, and Augustine, who are other noted major philosophers in history?
5a7a553c21c2de001afe9b74
True
logic
479
What is considered more literary and less technical?
5a7a553c21c2de001afe9b75
True
Plato, Aristotle, Socrates, Augustine, Descartes, Kierkegaard, Nietzsche
243
Who are the major practitioners through history?
5a7e59cc48f7d9001a063515
True
philosophy
369
What have recent literature works argued to the merit the title of?
5a7e59cc48f7d9001a063516
True
mathematics
549
Logic is technical and similar to what field of study?
5a7e59cc48f7d9001a063517
True
Philosophy has become an increasingly academic discipline. More of its practitioners lament this situation than occurs with the sciences; nonetheless most new philosophical work appears in academic journals. Major philosophers through history—Plato, Aristotle, Socrates, Augustine, Descartes, Kierkegaard, Nietzsche—have become as canonical as any writers. Some recent philosophy works are argued to merit the title "literature", but much of it does not, and some areas, such as logic, have become extremely technical to a degree similar to that of mathematics.
Literature gives the reader insights into what areas of its characters?
5726e512f1498d1400e8ef14
intimate emotional aspects
36
False
How does literary fiction aid the person who reads it?
5726e512f1498d1400e8ef15
It benefits the psychological development and understanding
124
False
What writer's entry in "The English Journal" was concerned with young adult fiction?
5726e512f1498d1400e8ef16
D. Mitchell
334
False
Why did this author embrace young adult literature as a grownup?
5726e512f1498d1400e8ef17
to re-experience the emotional psychology she experienced as a child
447
False
How did the writer refer to this psychological state experienced as a youth?
5726e512f1498d1400e8ef18
“wonder”
550
False
Literature
0
What gives readers access to physical aspects of a character?
5a7a571321c2de001afe9b84
True
‘‘The English Journal’’
358
D. Michael wrote an entry about young adult fiction in what publication?
5a7a571321c2de001afe9b85
True
understanding of the reader
170
Accessing emotional aspects of a character benefits the philosophical development and what else?
5a7a571321c2de001afe9b86
True
the author utilized young adult literature in order to re-experience the emotional psychology she experienced as a child
395
What did D. Michael explain in "The English Journal?"
5a7a571321c2de001afe9b87
True
D. Mitchell
334
Who wrote an entry in "The Journal English?"
5a7e5cf148f7d9001a063557
True
D. Mitchell
334
Who utilized adult literature to access an emotional experience?
5a7e5cf148f7d9001a063558
True
It benefits the psychological development and understanding of the reader
124
How does literature benefit emotional states?
5a7e5cf148f7d9001a063559
True
Literature allows readers to access intimate emotional aspects of a person’s character that would not be obvious otherwise. It benefits the psychological development and understanding of the reader. For example, it allows a person to access emotional states from which the person has distanced himself or herself. An entry written by D. Mitchell featured in ‘‘The English Journal’’ explains how the author utilized young adult literature in order to re-experience the emotional psychology she experienced as a child which she describes as a state of “wonder”.
How does literature unite members of a society?
5726e7725951b619008f81ed
by provoking universal emotions
297
False
How does literature expand the horizons of its readers?
5726e7725951b619008f81ee
allows readers to access cultural aspects that they are not exposed to
338
False
What determines what literary structure a literary author uses for expression of ideas?
5726e7725951b619008f81ef
what psychological emotion he or she is attempting to describe
495
False
What are the levers an author uses in literature to describe a psychological emotion?
5726e7725951b619008f81f0
literary devices
572
False
temporal and emotional amount
29
Logan says what two things explain what a person devotes to understanding a character's situation?
5a7a591a21c2de001afe9b9b
True
by provoking universal emotions.
297
How does literature unite small communities?
5a7a591a21c2de001afe9b9c
True
cultural aspects that they are not exposed to
363
What do readers access that provokes new physical experiences?
5a7a591a21c2de001afe9b9d
True
describe
549
Authors choose literary devices based on what philosophical emotion they are trying to what?
5a7a591a21c2de001afe9b9e
True
Hogan
0
Who explains that literature is a valid study of emotion because it unites a large community?
5a7e5f2348f7d9001a063677
True
what psychological emotion he or she is attempting to describe
495
What do characters choose literary device according to?
5a7e5f2348f7d9001a063678
True
emotionally
598
In what way are certain cultural devices more effective than others?
5a7e5f2348f7d9001a063679
True
Hogan also explains that the temporal and emotional amount which a person devotes to understanding a character’s situation in literature allows literature to be considered “ecological[ly] valid in the study of emotion”. This can be understood in the sense that literature unites a large community by provoking universal emotions. It also allows readers to access cultural aspects that they are not exposed to thus provoking new emotional experiences. Authors choose literary device according to what psychological emotion he or she is attempting to describe, thus certain literary devices are more emotionally effective than others.
Who conceived of "The Third Force Psychology Theory?"
5726ea42708984140094d5c1
Maslow
0
False
The theory states that at the center of humans beings is what?
5726ea42708984140094d5c2
a nature within them that demonstrates their true “self”
340
False
The theory suggests that the quest for this nature represents what?
5726ea42708984140094d5c3
the reason for living
452
False
What causes a person to become separated from their "true self"?
5726ea42708984140094d5c4
neurological development
497
False
What author espoused the theory of the "pristine unconscious?"
5726ea42708984140094d5c5
D.H Lawrence
773
False
Maslow
0
Who came up with the "Fourth Force Psychology Theory?'
5a7a5aba21c2de001afe9ba4
True
human beings possess a nature within them that demonstrates their true “self” and it suggests that the fulfillment of this nature is the reason for living.
319
What does the Law suggest about human beings?
5a7a5aba21c2de001afe9ba5
True
Paris
759
Who says that D.H. Lawrence's "pristine unconscious" is a metaphor for the fake self?"
5a7a5aba21c2de001afe9ba6
True
develop and apply critical reasoning to the nature of emotions.
904
It is said that literature is not a reputable tool to allow readers to do what?
5a7a5aba21c2de001afe9ba7
True
Paris
759
Who is responsible for "Fourth Force Psychology and the Study of Literature?"
5a7a5aba21c2de001afe9ba8
True
Maslow
0
Who wrote "Third Force Theory?"
5a7e634b48f7d9001a063697
True
Paris
759
Who wrote "Third Force Psychology Theory and the Study of Literature?"
5a7e634b48f7d9001a063698
True
develop and apply critical reasoning to the nature of emotions.
904
What does literature as a critical tool allow readers to do?
5a7e634b48f7d9001a063699
True
a nature within them that demonstrates their true “self”
340
What does the theory suggest characters possess?
5a7e634b48f7d9001a06369a
True
Maslow’s ‘‘Third Force Psychology Theory’’ even allows literary analysts to critically understand how characters reflect the culture and the history in which they are contextualized. It also allows analysts to understand the author’s intended message and to understand the author’s psychology. The theory suggests that human beings possess a nature within them that demonstrates their true “self” and it suggests that the fulfillment of this nature is the reason for living. It also suggests that neurological development hinders actualizing the nature because a person becomes estranged from his or her true self. Therefore, literary devices reflect a characters’s and an author’s natural self. In his ‘‘Third Force Psychology and the Study of Literature’’, Paris argues “D.H Lawrence’s “pristine unconscious” is a metaphor for the real self”. Thus Literature is a reputable tool that allows readers to develop and apply critical reasoning to the nature of emotions.
What is literary historical writing sometimes called?
5726ebab708984140094d5fd
creative nonfiction
97
False
Reporting that attempts a creative or literary bent is sometimes called what?
5726ebab708984140094d5fe
literary journalism
161
False
What is the main function of journalism or historical documentation?
5726ebab708984140094d5ff
to record data or convey immediate information
280
False
Who are some classic historians regarded as literary historians?
5726ebab708984140094d600
Herodotus, Thucydides and Procopius
499
False
literature
53
A small portion of historical writings are considered what?
5a7a5c0521c2de001afe9bae
True
creative nonfiction, as can a great deal of journalism, such as literary journalism.
97
What genres of modern writing rank as literature?
5a7a5c0521c2de001afe9baf
True
Procopius
525
Three main literary historians include Hercules, Thucydides, and who else?
5a7a5c0521c2de001afe9bb0
True
to record data or convey immediate information.
280
The secondary functions of historical documentations are what?
5a7a5c0521c2de001afe9bb1
True
historical writing
25
What does a significant amount of literature rank as?
5a7e668548f7d9001a0636a7
True
Herodotus, Thucydides and Procopius
499
Who are the major utilitarian historians?
5a7e668548f7d9001a0636a8
True
to record data or convey immediate information
280
What is the primary purpose of creative fiction?
5a7e668548f7d9001a0636a9
True
A significant portion of historical writing ranks as literature, particularly the genre known as creative nonfiction, as can a great deal of journalism, such as literary journalism. However, these areas have become extremely large, and often have a primarily utilitarian purpose: to record data or convey immediate information. As a result, the writing in these fields often lacks a literary quality, although it often(and in its better moments)has that quality. Major "literary" historians include Herodotus, Thucydides and Procopius, all of whom count as canonical literary figures.
What Babylonian ruler created formal law tables?
5726ecae708984140094d63b
Hammurabi
83
False
What religious scripture can be fit into a large, loose definition of legal literature?
5726ecae708984140094d63c
the Bible
132
False
Roman civil law was written and codified into a unified system by what group?
5726ecae708984140094d63d
the Corpus Juris Civilis
208
False
Under what Emperor did this group sit?
5726ecae708984140094d63e
Justinian I
253
False
What empire did Justinian preside over?
5726ecae708984140094d63f
the Byzantine Empire
268
False
the law tables
65
Harambe of Babylon created what?
5a7a5f1921c2de001afe9bb6
True
legal literature
159
Late parts of the Bible could be seen as what?
5a7a5f1921c2de001afe9bb7
True
Corpus Juris Civilis
212
What was Roman National Law referred to?
5a7a5f1921c2de001afe9bb8
True
Constitutions and Law Codes
385
Many founding documents are called literature like Supreme Count Briefings and what else?
5a7a5f1921c2de001afe9bb9
True
Babylon
96
What location were Plato and Aristotle from?
5a7e6dce48f7d9001a0636df
True
Justinian I
253
Who reigned during the Roman Empire?
5a7e6dce48f7d9001a0636e0
True
Corpus Juris Civilis
212
What was Babylonian civil law codified in?
5a7e6dce48f7d9001a0636e1
True
more ambiguity
11
What does Samuel Dean say law offers?
5a7e6dce48f7d9001a0636e2
True
Law offers more ambiguity. Some writings of Plato and Aristotle, the law tables of Hammurabi of Babylon, or even the early parts of the Bible could be seen as legal literature. Roman civil law as codified in the Corpus Juris Civilis during the reign of Justinian I of the Byzantine Empire has a reputation as significant literature. The founding documents of many countries, including Constitutions and Law Codes, can count as literature; however, most legal writings rarely exhibit much literary merit, as they tend to be rather Written by Samuel Dean.
Literary devices are employed for what reason?
5726ef205951b619008f82bd
produce specific effects
135
False
What is one form of narration in literature?
5726ef205951b619008f82be
first-person
268
False
What are two types of narrative structure in literature?
5726ef205951b619008f82bf
linear narrative or a nonlinear narrative
339
False
Why would an author utilize experimental narratives in literature?
5726ef205951b619008f82c0
to surprise the reader
654
False
In what type of writing would a more familiar, standard literary narrative structure be employed?
5726ef205951b619008f82c1
a conventional murder-mystery novel
556
False
written framework
87
Literary techniques are used to disenhance the what of a piece of literature?
5a7a60b221c2de001afe9bbe
True
crafting a work: whether a work is narrated in first-person or from another perspective
221
Literary techniques cover a slim range of what?
5a7a60b221c2de001afe9bbf
True
first-person or from another perspective, whether to use a traditional linear narrative or a nonlinear nar
268
What are examples of poetic technique?
5a7a60b221c2de001afe9bc0
True
choose to experiment with their technique
612
What might the author do to bore the reader?
5a7a60b221c2de001afe9bc1
True
enhance the written framework of a piece of literature, and produce specific effects
75
What do literary techniques specifically accomplish?
5a7e6efe48f7d9001a0636e7
True
to surprise the reader
654
Why do all authors experiment with their technique?
5a7e6efe48f7d9001a0636e8
True
literary technique
435
What is a familiar structure is an example of?
5a7e6efe48f7d9001a0636e9
True
A literary technique or literary device can be used by authors in order to enhance the written framework of a piece of literature, and produce specific effects. Literary techniques encompass a wide range of approaches to crafting a work: whether a work is narrated in first-person or from another perspective, whether to use a traditional linear narrative or a nonlinear narrative, or the choice of literary genre, are all examples of literary technique. They may indicate to a reader that there is a familiar structure and presentation to a work, such as a conventional murder-mystery novel; or, the author may choose to experiment with their technique to surprise the reader.
Avicenna
What was the term used to describe the age in which Ibn Sina created a big body of work?
5726b5a9f1498d1400e8e856
the Islamic Golden Age
79
False
What is one example of the type of translations done in the Islamic Golden Age?
5726b5a9f1498d1400e8e857
Persian
145
False
What school translated Greco-Roman texts during the Islamic Golden Age?
5726b5a9f1498d1400e8e858
the Kindi school
271
False
What was one dynasty that provided a great atmosphere for cultural development?
5726b5a9f1498d1400e8e859
the Buyid dynasty
571
False
What city was known as a cultural capital of the Islamic world?
5726b5a9f1498d1400e8e85a
Baghdad
735
False
Islamic Golden Age
83
What age was Ibn Sina born in?
5ace1a7c32bba1001ae49ac9
True
Kindi school
275
What school did Ibn Sina attend?
5ace1a7c32bba1001ae49aca
True
Persian and Indian
387
Who built on Islamic mathmatical systems?
5ace1a7c32bba1001ae49acb
True
The Samanid dynasty
475
What dynasty supressed cultural development
5ace1a7c32bba1001ae49acc
True
Baghdad
735
What city was the cultural capital of the world?
5ace1a7c32bba1001ae49acd
True
Islamic Golden Age
83
What was the term used to describe the age in which Ibn Sina destroyed a big body of work?
5ace979a32bba1001ae4ab89
True
Persian
145
What is one example of the type of translations done in the Muslim Golden Age?
5ace979a32bba1001ae4ab8a
True
the Kindi school
271
What school translated Greco-Roman texts before the Islamic Golden Age?
5ace979a32bba1001ae4ab8b
True
the Buyid dynasty
571
What was one dynasty that provided a poor atmosphere for cultural development?
5ace979a32bba1001ae4ab8c
True
Baghdad
735
What country was known as a cultural capital of the Islamic world?
5ace979a32bba1001ae4ab8d
True
Ibn Sina created an extensive corpus of works during what is commonly known as the Islamic Golden Age, in which the translations of Greco-Roman, Persian, and Indian texts were studied extensively. Greco-Roman (Mid- and Neo-Platonic, and Aristotelian) texts translated by the Kindi school were commented, redacted and developed substantially by Islamic intellectuals, who also built upon Persian and Indian mathematical systems, astronomy, algebra, trigonometry and medicine. The Samanid dynasty in the eastern part of Persia, Greater Khorasan and Central Asia as well as the Buyid dynasty in the western part of Persia and Iraq provided a thriving atmosphere for scholarly and cultural development. Under the Samanids, Bukhara rivaled Baghdad as a cultural capital of the Islamic world.
What was one subject that Avicenna further developed?
5726b81fdd62a815002e8e04
theology
99
False
Who is another philosopher during this Islamic Golden Age?
5726b81fdd62a815002e8e05
Al-Farabi
200
False
What is the name of one library that Avicenna had access to?
5726b81fdd62a815002e8e06
Hamadan
365
False
Who was the famous astronomer that Avicenna met before he left Khwarezm?
5726b81fdd62a815002e8e07
Al-Biruni
576
False
What text was proof that Avicenna debated philosophy with some of the greatest scholars of the time?
5726b81fdd62a815002e8e08
the 'Ahd with Bahmanyar
397
False
in such a scholarly atmosphere
46
Where did the study of all religious texts thrive?
5ace27fb32bba1001ae49be7
True
Philosophy, Fiqh and theology
78
What studies were suppresed by Avicenna's opponents?
5ace27fb32bba1001ae49be8
True
Al-Razi and Al-Farabi
188
who provided methodology and knowledge in theology?
5ace27fb32bba1001ae49be9
True
Hamadan
365
What library did Avicenna found?
5ace27fb32bba1001ae49bea
True
Al-Biruni
576
Who was the famous astronomer that Avicenna met after leaving Khwarezm?
5ace27fb32bba1001ae49beb
True
theology
99
What was one subject that Avicenna never developed?
5ace980932bba1001ae4abb1
True
Al-Farabi
200
Who is another philosopher during this Islamic Silver Age?
5ace980932bba1001ae4abb2
True
Hamadan
365
What is the name of one library that Avicenna didn't have access to?
5ace980932bba1001ae4abb3
True
Al-Biruni
576
Who was the famous astrologer that Avicenna met before he left Khwarezm?
5ace980932bba1001ae4abb4
True
the 'Ahd with Bahmanyar
397
What text was proof that Avicenna debated philosophy with some of the unknown scholars of the time?
5ace980932bba1001ae4abb5
True
The study of the Quran and the Hadith thrived in such a scholarly atmosphere. Philosophy, Fiqh and theology (kalaam) were further developed, most noticeably by Avicenna and his opponents. Al-Razi and Al-Farabi had provided methodology and knowledge in medicine and philosophy. Avicenna had access to the great libraries of Balkh, Khwarezm, Gorgan, Rey, Isfahan and Hamadan. Various texts (such as the 'Ahd with Bahmanyar) show that he debated philosophical points with the greatest scholars of the time. Aruzi Samarqandi describes how before Avicenna left Khwarezm he had met Al-Biruni (a famous scientist and astronomer), Abu Nasr Iraqi (a renowned mathematician), Abu Sahl Masihi (a respected philosopher) and Abu al-Khayr Khammar (a great physician).
What present-day country was Avicenna born in?
5726ba3f708984140094cf61
Uzbekistan
75
False
What Samanid dynasty capital was Avicenna born near?
5726ba3f708984140094cf62
Bukhara
51
False
What present-day country is Avicenna's father thought to have come from?
5726ba3f708984140094cf63
Afghanistan
358
False
What was Avicenna's mother's name?
5726ba3f708984140094cf64
Setareh
191
False
By what age had Avicenna learned the entire Quran?
5726ba3f708984140094cf65
ten
659
False
Avicenna
0
Who was born in the 9th century?
5ace2be032bba1001ae49c8b
True
Uzbekistan
75
What present day city was the capital of Persia?
5ace2be032bba1001ae49c8c
True
Samanid
456
What government did Acicenna work in?
5ace2be032bba1001ae49c8d
True
the Quran and literature
603
What did Avicenna begin to study when he was 10 years old?
5ace2be032bba1001ae49c8e
True
Uzbekistan
75
What modern city in Eastern Asia was Avicenna born?
5ace2be032bba1001ae49c8f
True
Uzbekistan
75
What present-day country did Avicenna die in?
5ace988432bba1001ae4abcf
True
Bukhara
51
What Samanid dynasty capital was Avicenna born far away from?
5ace988432bba1001ae4abd0
True
Afghanistan
358
What olden day country is Avicenna's father thought to have come from?
5ace988432bba1001ae4abd1
True
Setareh
191
What was Avicenna's grandmother's name?
5ace988432bba1001ae4abd2
True
ten
659
By what age had Avicenna learned some of the Quran?
5ace988432bba1001ae4abd3
True
Avicenna was born c. 980 in Afšana, a village near Bukhara (in present-day Uzbekistan), the capital of the Samanids, a Persian dynasty in Central Asia and Greater Khorasan. His mother, named Setareh, was from Bukhara; his father, Abdullah, was a respected Ismaili scholar from Balkh, an important town of the Samanid Empire, in what is today Balkh Province, Afghanistan, although this is not universally agreed upon. His father worked in the government of Samanid in the village Kharmasain, a Sunni regional power. After five years, his younger brother, Mahmoud, was born. Avicenna first began to learn the Quran and literature in such a way that when he was ten years old he had essentially learned all of them.
What secret society was Avicenna considered to be a follower of?
5726bc7cf1498d1400e8e988
the Brethren of Purity
211
False
Who thought that Avicenna was a Brethren of Purity follower?
5726bc7cf1498d1400e8e989
Medieval historian Ẓahīr al-dīn al-Bayhaqī
118
False
What Islamic denomination was Avicenna thought to be a member of?
5726bc7cf1498d1400e8e98a
Sunni
345
False
Who thought Avicenna was a Shia?
5726bc7cf1498d1400e8e98b
Nurullah Shushtari
396
False
What was the name of one man who thought Avicenna was Sunni?
5726bc7cf1498d1400e8e98c
Jules J. Janssens
294
False
madhab
61
What type of Islamic school did Avicenna invent?
5ace3c2732bba1001ae49fb9
True
Brethren of Purity
215
What group did Avicenna found?
5ace3c2732bba1001ae49fba
True
Avicenna
182
Who did Zahir al-Bayhai belove belonged to the Sunni Hanafi?
5ace3c2732bba1001ae49fbb
True
Avicenna
616
Who's family is considered Sunni by modern writers?
5ace3c2732bba1001ae49fbc
True
Sunni Governor Sultan Mahmoud Ghazanavi
573
Who's court did Avicenna join?
5ace3c2732bba1001ae49fbd
True
the Brethren of Purity
211
What secret society was Avicenna considered to be followed by?
5ace993e32bba1001ae4ac1f
True
Medieval historian Ẓahīr al-dīn al-Bayhaqī
118
Who thought that Avicenna was a Brethren of Impurity follower?
5ace993e32bba1001ae4ac20
True
Sunni Hanafi
345
What Islamic denomination was Avicenna thought to be a rejecter of?
5ace993e32bba1001ae4ac21
True
Nurullah Shushtari
396
Who knew Avicenna was a Shia?
5ace993e32bba1001ae4ac22
True
Jules J. Janssens
294
What was the name of one woman who thought Avicenna was Sunni?
5ace993e32bba1001ae4ac23
True
A number of theories have been proposed regarding Avicenna's madhab (school of thought within Islamic jurisprudence). Medieval historian Ẓahīr al-dīn al-Bayhaqī (d. 1169) considered Avicenna to be a follower of the Brethren of Purity. On the other hand, Dimitri Gutas along with Aisha Khan and Jules J. Janssens demonstrated that Avicenna was a Sunni Hanafi. However, the 14th cenutry Shia faqih Nurullah Shushtari according to Seyyed Hossein Nasr, maintained that he was most likely a Twelver Shia. Conversely, Sharaf Khorasani, citing a rejection of an invitation of the Sunni Governor Sultan Mahmoud Ghazanavi by Avicenna to his court, believes that Avicenna was an Ismaili. Similar disagreements exist on the background of Avicenna's family, whereas some writers considered them Sunni, some more recent writers contested that they were Shia.
What had Avicenna memorized by the age of 10?
5726bdcf708984140094cfef
Quran
66
False
Who did Avicenna learn Indian arithmetic from?
5726bdcf708984140094cff0
ءMahmoud Massahi
146
False
What did Avicenna learn from the Sunni scholar Ismail al-Zahid?
5726bdcf708984140094cff1
Fiqh (Islamic jurisprudence)
298
False
What was one philosophy book that Avicenna was taught from?
5726bdcf708984140094cff2
Euclid's Elements
484
False
What unpopular philosopher's text did Avicenna learn from?
5726bdcf708984140094cff3
Abu Abdullah Nateli
551
False
Avicenna
32
Who learned arithmatic by the age of 10?
5ace3e6532bba1001ae4a01f
True
ءMahmoud Massahi
146
Who did AVicenna teach arithmatic to?
5ace3e6532bba1001ae4a020
True
the age of 10
75
When did Avicenna start studying the Quran?
5ace3e6532bba1001ae4a021
True
Avicenna
32
Who did Abu Abdullah Nateli teach Fiqh to.
5ace3e6532bba1001ae4a022
True
Abu Abdullah Nateli
551
Who wrote Euclid's Elements?
5ace3e6532bba1001ae4a023
True
Quran
66
What had Avicenna memorized by the age of 12?
5ace99ba32bba1001ae4ac3b
True
ءMahmoud Massahi
146
Who did Avicenna teach Indian arithmetic to?
5ace99ba32bba1001ae4ac3c
True
Fiqh (Islamic jurisprudence)
298
What did Avicenna learn from the Shia scholar Ismail al-Zahid?
5ace99ba32bba1001ae4ac3d
True
Euclid's Elements
484
What was one biology book that Avicenna was taught from?
5ace99ba32bba1001ae4ac3e
True
Abu Abdullah Nateli
551
What popular philosopher's text did Avicenna learn from?
5ace99ba32bba1001ae4ac3f
True
According to his autobiography, Avicenna had memorised the entire Quran by the age of 10. He learned Indian arithmetic from an Indian greengrocer,ءMahmoud Massahi and he began to learn more from a wandering scholar who gained a livelihood by curing the sick and teaching the young. He also studied Fiqh (Islamic jurisprudence) under the Sunni Hanafi scholar Ismail al-Zahid. Avicenna was taught some extent of philosophy books such as Introduction (Isagoge)'s Porphyry (philosopher), Euclid's Elements, Ptolemy's Almagest by an unpopular philosopher, Abu Abdullah Nateli, who claimed philosophizing.
What text could Avicenna not understand?
5726bf32708984140094d02f
the Metaphysics of Aristotle
42
False
What helped Avicenna understand the Metaphysics of Aristotle?
5726bf32708984140094d030
al-Farabi's commentary
116
False
How long did Avicenna study philosophy?
5726bf32708984140094d031
year and a half
165
False
How many times did Avicenna read through the Metaphysics of Aristotle?
5726bf32708984140094d032
Forty times
557
False
How much did Avicenna pay for the book that helped him understand the Aristotle text?
5726bf32708984140094d033
three dirhams
844
False
Metaphysics of Aristotle
46
What text did Avicenna embrace as a teenager?
5ace418f32bba1001ae4a0bd
True
Metaphysics of Aristotle
602
What helped Avicenna understand al Farabi's commentary?
5ace418f32bba1001ae4a0be
True
year and a half,
165
How long did Avicenna study Mathmatics
5ace418f32bba1001ae4a0bf
True
Forty times
557
How many times did Acicenna read al Farabi's commentary?
5ace418f32bba1001ae4a0c0
True
the Metaphysics of Aristotle
42
What text could Avicenna understand?
5ace9a6132bba1001ae4ac5f
True
al-Farabi's commentary
116
What helped Avicenna forget the Metaphysics of Aristotle?
5ace9a6132bba1001ae4ac60
True
year and a half
165
How long did Avicenna teach philosophy?
5ace9a6132bba1001ae4ac61
True
Forty times
557
How many times did Avicenna teach the Metaphysics of Aristotle?
5ace9a6132bba1001ae4ac62
True
three dirhams
844
How much did Avicenna sell the book that helped him understand the Aristotle text?
5ace9a6132bba1001ae4ac63
True
As a teenager, he was greatly troubled by the Metaphysics of Aristotle, which he could not understand until he read al-Farabi's commentary on the work. For the next year and a half, he studied philosophy, in which he encountered greater obstacles. In such moments of baffled inquiry, he would leave his books, perform the requisite ablutions, then go to the mosque, and continue in prayer till light broke on his difficulties. Deep into the night, he would continue his studies, and even in his dreams problems would pursue him and work out their solution. Forty times, it is said, he read through the Metaphysics of Aristotle, till the words were imprinted on his memory; but their meaning was hopelessly obscure, until one day they found illumination, from the little commentary by Farabi, which he bought at a bookstall for the small sum of three dirhams. So great was his joy at the discovery, made with the help of a work from which he had expected only mystery, that he hastened to return thanks to God, and bestowed alms upon the poor.
At what age did Avicenna turn to away from philosophy?
5726bff8708984140094d06b
16
25
False
What subject did Avicenna start studying at 16?
5726bff8708984140094d06c
medicine
13
False
Avicenna became a qualified physician at what age?
5726bff8708984140094d06d
18
250
False
Avicenna found medicine to be much easier than what subject?
5726bff8708984140094d06e
mathematics
315
False
physician
233
What did Avicenna become at the age of 16?
5ace45e232bba1001ae4a14d
True
mathematics and metaphysics
315
What study did Avicenna give up at the age of 18?
5ace45e232bba1001ae4a14e
True
Medicine
270
What did Avicenna find more challanging than mathmatics and metaphysics?
5ace45e232bba1001ae4a14f
True
16
25
At what age did Avicenna reject philosophy?
5ace9aea32bba1001ae4ac8f
True
medicine
13
What subject did Avicenna start studying at 61?
5ace9aea32bba1001ae4ac90
True
18
250
Avicenna became a qualified biologist at what age?
5ace9aea32bba1001ae4ac91
True
mathematics
315
Avicenna found medicine to be much harder than what subject?
5ace9aea32bba1001ae4ac92
True
medicine
13
What subject did Avicenna stop studying at 16?
5ace9aea32bba1001ae4ac93
True
He turned to medicine at 16, and not only learned medical theory, but also by gratuitous attendance of the sick had, according to his own account, discovered new methods of treatment. The teenager achieved full status as a qualified physician at age 18, and found that "Medicine is no hard and thorny science, like mathematics and metaphysics, so I soon made great progress; I became an excellent doctor and began to treat patients, using approved remedies." The youthful physician's fame spread quickly, and he treated many patients without asking for payment.
Who was Ibn Sina's first appontment?
5726c11ef1498d1400e8ea44
the emir, Nuh II
54
False
What did Ibn Sina receive as payment for helping the emir?
5726c11ef1498d1400e8ea45
access to the royal library of the Samanids
175
False
Why did some accuse Ibn Sina of burning down the royal library?
5726c11ef1498d1400e8ea46
to conceal the sources of his knowledge
392
False
Who did Ibn Sina assist in his financial labors?
5726c11ef1498d1400e8ea47
his father
456
False
What year did the emir Null II recover from his illness?
5726c11ef1498d1400e8ea48
997
124
False
emir, Nuh II
58
Who helped Ibn Sina recover from an illness?
5ace470832bba1001ae4a16f
True
emir, Nuh II
58
who dit Ibn Sina treat in the 9th century?
5ace470832bba1001ae4a170
True
the royal library of the Samanids
185
What library did Ibn Sina found?
5ace470832bba1001ae4a171
True
in order for ever to conceal the sources of his knowledge
374
Why did Ibn Sina burn the library?
5ace470832bba1001ae4a172
True
his father
456
Who did Ibn Sina help to write some of their earliest work.
5ace470832bba1001ae4a173
True
the emir, Nuh II
54
Who was Ibn Sina's last appontment?
5ace9b6832bba1001ae4acb7
True
access to the royal library of the Samanids
175
What did Ibn Sina receive as payment for hurting the emir?
5ace9b6832bba1001ae4acb8
True
to conceal the sources of his knowledge
392
Why did some accuse Ibn Sina of burning down the royal church?
5ace9b6832bba1001ae4acb9
True
his father
456
Who did Ibn Sina assist in his physical labors?
5ace9b6832bba1001ae4acba
True
997
124
What year did the emir Null II die from his illness?
5ace9b6832bba1001ae4acbb
True
Ibn Sina's first appointment was that of physician to the emir, Nuh II, who owed him his recovery from a dangerous illness (997). Ibn Sina's chief reward for this service was access to the royal library of the Samanids, well-known patrons of scholarship and scholars. When the library was destroyed by fire not long after, the enemies of Ibn Sina accused him of burning it, in order for ever to conceal the sources of his knowledge. Meanwhile, he assisted his father in his financial labors, but still found time to write some of his earliest works.
At what age did Avicenna lose his father?
5726c248f1498d1400e8ea72
22
18
False
What dynasty ended in December 1004?
5726c248f1498d1400e8ea73
The Samanid dynasty
52
False
What modern country did Ibn Sina travel to after the end of the Samanid dynasty?
5726c248f1498d1400e8ea74
Turkmenistan
215
False
What is one district that Ibn Sina traveled through in search of more work?
5726c248f1498d1400e8ea75
Nishapur
409
False
Who did Ibn Sina turn down in order to travel westwards after the Samanid dynasty ended?
5726c248f1498d1400e8ea76
Mahmud of Ghazni
152
False
22 years old
18
How old was Ibn Sina when his mother died?
5ace48f432bba1001ae4a1a3
True
Samanid dynasty
56
What dynasty ended in the 10th century?
5ace48f432bba1001ae4a1a4
True
Mahmud of Ghazni
152
Who did Ibn Sina head westward with?
5ace48f432bba1001ae4a1a5
True
the vizier
235
Who invited Ibn Sina to travel wesward?
5ace48f432bba1001ae4a1a6
True
Canon of Medicine
1005
What did Ibn Sina write while in Urgench?
5ace48f432bba1001ae4a1a7
True
22
18
At what age did Avicenna lose his mother?
5ace9c8a32bba1001ae4acd5
True
The Samanid dynasty
52
What dynasty began in December 1004?
5ace9c8a32bba1001ae4acd6
True
Turkmenistan
215
What modern country did Ibn Sina travel to before the end of the Samanid dynasty?
5ace9c8a32bba1001ae4acd7
True
Nishapur
409
What is one district that Ibn Sina never traveled through in search of more work?
5ace9c8a32bba1001ae4acd8
True
Mahmud of Ghazni
152
Who did Ibn Sina turn down in order to travel eastwards after the Samanid dynasty ended?
5ace9c8a32bba1001ae4acd9
True
When Ibn Sina was 22 years old, he lost his father. The Samanid dynasty came to its end in December 1004. Ibn Sina seems to have declined the offers of Mahmud of Ghazni, and proceeded westwards to Urgench in modern Turkmenistan, where the vizier, regarded as a friend of scholars, gave him a small monthly stipend. The pay was small, however, so Ibn Sina wandered from place to place through the districts of Nishapur and Merv to the borders of Khorasan, seeking an opening for his talents. Qabus, the generous ruler of Tabaristan, himself a poet and a scholar, with whom Ibn Sina had expected to find asylum, was on about that date (1012) starved to death by his troops who had revolted. Ibn Sina himself was at this time stricken by a severe illness. Finally, at Gorgan, near the Caspian Sea, Ibn Sina met with a friend, who bought a dwelling near his own house in which Ibn Sina lectured on logic and astronomy. Several of Ibn Sina's treatises were written for this patron; and the commencement of his Canon of Medicine also dates from his stay in Hyrcania.
What city did Ibn Sina settle in?
5726c716dd62a815002e8ffe
Rey
33
False
What modern city of today was Rey in the vicinity of?
5726c716dd62a815002e8fff
Tehran
64
False
How many of Ibn Sina's shorter works were said to have been created in Rey?
5726c717dd62a815002e9000
thirty
225
False
Ibn Sina left Rey and moved southwards to what city?
5726c717dd62a815002e9001
Hamadãn
487
False
What office did Ibn Sina receive in Hamadan?
5726c717dd62a815002e9002
office of vizier
785
False
Rey
33
Where did Ibn Sina write his first thirty works?
5ace4f4032bba1001ae4a247
True
the regent and her second son
334
Who did Ibn Sina feud with while at the palace?
5ace4f4032bba1001ae4a248
True
Shams al-Daula
501
Who was emir of Qazvin?
5ace4f4032bba1001ae4a249
True
Ahmed Fadhel's
925
Who did Ibn Sina hide for forty days?
5ace4f4032bba1001ae4a24a
True
the emir
1240
Who's death made Ibn Sani a vizier?
5ace4f4032bba1001ae4a24b
True
Rey
33
What city did Ibn Sina decide not to settle in?
5ace9d1232bba1001ae4ace9
True
Tehran
64
What ancient city of today was Rey in the vicinity of?
5ace9d1232bba1001ae4acea
True
thirty
225
How many of Ibn Sina's longer works were said to have been created in Rey?
5ace9d1232bba1001ae4aceb
True
Hamadãn
487
Ibn Sina left Rey and moved northwards to what city?
5ace9d1232bba1001ae4acec
True
office of vizier
785
What office did Ibn Sina lose in Hamadan?
5ace9d1232bba1001ae4aced
True
Ibn Sina subsequently settled at Rey, in the vicinity of modern Tehran, the home town of Rhazes; where Majd Addaula, a son of the last Buwayhid emir, was nominal ruler under the regency of his mother (Seyyedeh Khatun). About thirty of Ibn Sina's shorter works are said to have been composed in Rey. Constant feuds which raged between the regent and her second son, Shams al-Daula, however, compelled the scholar to quit the place. After a brief sojourn at Qazvin he passed southwards to Hamadãn where Shams al-Daula, another Buwayhid emir, had established himself. At first, Ibn Sina entered into the service of a high-born lady; but the emir, hearing of his arrival, called him in as medical attendant, and sent him back with presents to his dwelling. Ibn Sina was even raised to the office of vizier. The emir decreed that he should be banished from the country. Ibn Sina, however, remained hidden for forty days in sheikh Ahmed Fadhel's house, until a fresh attack of illness induced the emir to restore him to his post. Even during this perturbed time, Ibn Sina persevered with his studies and teaching. Every evening, extracts from his great works, the Canon and the Sanatio, were dictated and explained to his pupils. On the death of the emir, Ibn Sina ceased to be vizier and hid himself in the house of an apothecary, where, with intense assiduity, he continued the composition of his works.
Where did Ibn Sina hope to flee to after Hamadan?
5726c8445951b619008f7df1
city of Isfahan
68
False
What two cities were at war during this time?
5726c8445951b619008f7df2
Isfahan and Hamadãn
285
False
What year did Isfahan gain victory over Hamadan?
5726c8445951b619008f7df3
1024
309
False
What mercenaries were expelled after Isfahan's victory over Hamadan?
5726c8445951b619008f7df4
the Tajik
367
False
How did Ibn Sina escape from Hamadan?
5726c8445951b619008f7df5
in the dress of a Sufi ascetic
606
False
Abu Ya'far
29
What prefect wrote to Ibn Sani offering him a position?
5ace50e432bba1001ae4a277
True
incarcerated him in a fortress
207
What did Abu Ya'far do when he found out where Ibn Sani was hiding?
5ace50e432bba1001ae4a278
True
Hamadan and its towns
334
What was captured in the 10th century?
5ace50e432bba1001ae4a279
True
Ibn Sina
417
Who was given an honorable welcome in Hamadan?
5ace50e432bba1001ae4a27a
True
Tajik mercenaries
371
What mercenaries captured Hamadan in the 10th century?
5ace50e432bba1001ae4a27b
True
Isfahan
76
Where did Ibn Sina hope to flee from after Hamadan?
5ace9dda32bba1001ae4ad1b
True
Isfahan and Hamadãn
285
What two cities were at peace during this time?
5ace9dda32bba1001ae4ad1c
True
1024
309
What year did Isfahan lose to Hamadan?
5ace9dda32bba1001ae4ad1d
True
the Tajik
367
What mercenaries were accepted after Isfahan's victory over Hamadan?
5ace9dda32bba1001ae4ad1e
True
in the dress of a Sufi ascetic
606
How did Ibn Sina escape from Ramadan?
5ace9dda32bba1001ae4ad1f
True
Meanwhile, he had written to Abu Ya'far, the prefect of the dynamic city of Isfahan, offering his services. The new emir of Hamadan, hearing of this correspondence and discovering where Ibn Sina was hiding, incarcerated him in a fortress. War meanwhile continued between the rulers of Isfahan and Hamadãn; in 1024 the former captured Hamadan and its towns, expelling the Tajik mercenaries. When the storm had passed, Ibn Sina returned with the emir to Hamadan, and carried on his literary labors. Later, however, accompanied by his brother, a favorite pupil, and two slaves, Ibn Sina escaped from the city in the dress of a Sufi ascetic. After a perilous journey, they reached Isfahan, receiving an honorable welcome from the prince.
In what language was most of Ibn Sina's works written in?
5726cd215951b619008f7e73
Arabic
195
False
What is one subject that Ibn SIna specialized in?
5726cd215951b619008f7e74
ethics
87
False
Ibn Sina also wrote some of his works in what other language?
5726cd215951b619008f7e75
Persian
266
False
What famous philosopher did Ibn Sina criticize heavily?
5726cd215951b619008f7e76
Aristotle
480
False
What is one of the subjects of a treatise by Ibn Sina?
5726cd215951b619008f7e77
Metaphysics
148
False
Ibn Sīnā
0
Who composed most of their works in Greek?
5ace531532bba1001ae4a2b1
True
Middle East
240
Where was Greek the language of science?
5ace531532bba1001ae4a2b2
True
Aristotle
480
Who did Ibn Sina oftenpraise in his commentaries?
5ace531532bba1001ae4a2b3
True
Ibn Sīnā
0
Who's wrote many books in pure Persian language?
5ace531532bba1001ae4a2b4
True
Arabic
195
In what language was none of Ibn Sina's works written in?
5ace9e5b32bba1001ae4ad43
True
ethics
87
What is one subject that Ibn SIna never specialized in?
5ace9e5b32bba1001ae4ad44
True
Persian
266
Ibn Sina also wrote all of his works in what other language?
5ace9e5b32bba1001ae4ad45
True
Aristotle
480
What famous philosopher did Ibn Sina idolize heavily?
5ace9e5b32bba1001ae4ad46
True
Metaphysics
148
What is one of the objects of a treatise by Ibn Sina?
5ace9e5b32bba1001ae4ad47
True
Ibn Sīnā wrote extensively on early Islamic philosophy, especially the subjects logic, ethics, and metaphysics, including treatises named Logic and Metaphysics. Most of his works were written in Arabic – then the language of science in the Middle East – and some in Persian. Of linguistic significance even to this day are a few books that he wrote in nearly pure Persian language (particularly the Danishnamah-yi 'Ala', Philosophy for Ala' ad-Dawla'). Ibn Sīnā's commentaries on Aristotle often criticized the philosopher,[citation needed] encouraging a lively debate in the spirit of ijtihad.
Ibn Sina's Book of Healing was partially available in what language?
5726ce2fdd62a815002e90da
Latin
58
False
How many years did it take for Ibn Sina's Book of Healing to be available in Latin?
5726ce2fdd62a815002e90db
fifty
81
False
On what continent was the Book of Healing finally available fifty years after its composition?
5726ce2fdd62a815002e90dc
Europe
40
False
What was the title of Ibn Sina's Book of Healing?
5726ce2fdd62a815002e90dd
Sufficientia
132
False
Who did Avicenna's metaphysics works have an influence on?
5726ce2fdd62a815002e90de
Thomas Aquinas
506
False
Sufficientia
132
What book of healing did Ibn Sina write in Latin?
5ace548832bba1001ae4a2cd
True
"Latin Avicennism"
181
What did the 12th century Parisian decrees suppresse?
5ace548832bba1001ae4a2ce
True
Latin Averroism
263
What did Latin Avicennism replace in Europe?
5ace548832bba1001ae4a2cf
True
Thomas Aquinas
506
Who impacted Ibn Sina's thoughts on metaphysics?
5ace548832bba1001ae4a2d0
True
William of Auvergne, Bishop of Paris
394
What  Bishop studied under Ibn Sina?
5ace548832bba1001ae4a2d1
True
Latin
58
Ibn Sina's Book of Healing was fully available in what language?
5ace9ecd32bba1001ae4ad57
True
fifty
81
How many months did it take for Ibn Sina's Book of Healing to be available in Latin?
5ace9ecd32bba1001ae4ad58
True
Europe
40
On what continent was the Book of Healing finally available forty years after its composition?
5ace9ecd32bba1001ae4ad59
True
Sufficientia
132
What was the title of Ibn Sina's Tape of Healing?
5ace9ecd32bba1001ae4ad5a
True
Thomas Aquinas
506
Who did Avicenna's metaphysics works have no influence on?
5ace9ecd32bba1001ae4ad5b
True
His Book of Healing became available in Europe in partial Latin translation some fifty years after its composition, under the title Sufficientia, and some authors have identified a "Latin Avicennism" as flourishing for some time, paralleling the more influential Latin Averroism, but suppressed by the Parisian decrees of 1210 and 1215. Avicenna's psychology and theory of knowledge influenced William of Auvergne, Bishop of Paris and Albertus Magnus, while his metaphysics had an impact on the thought of Thomas Aquinas.
What does Islamic philosophy more clearly explain than Aristotelianism?
5726cf40dd62a815002e90f6
essence and existence
145
False
Who does Ibn Sina's philosophy owe much to?
5726cf40dd62a815002e90f7
al-Farabi
381
False
What is early Islamic metaphysics imbued with?
5726cf40dd62a815002e90f8
Islamic theology
71
False
essence and existence
145
What does Muslim philosophy more clearly explain than Aristotelianism?
5ace9f4732bba1001ae4ad7d
True
essence and existence
145
What does Islamic philosophy less clearly explain than Aristotelianism?
5ace9f4732bba1001ae4ad7e
True
al-Farabi
381
Who does Ibn Sina's philosophy owe nothing to?
5ace9f4732bba1001ae4ad7f
True
Islamic theology
71
What is late Islamic metaphysics imbued with?
5ace9f4732bba1001ae4ad80
True
Islamic theology
71
What is early Muslim metaphysics imbued with?
5ace9f4732bba1001ae4ad81
True
Early Islamic philosophy and Islamic metaphysics, imbued as it is with Islamic theology, distinguishes more clearly than Aristotelianism between essence and existence. Whereas existence is the domain of the contingent and the accidental, essence endures within a being beyond the accidental. The philosophy of Ibn Sīnā, particularly that part relating to metaphysics, owes much to al-Farabi. The search for a definitive Islamic philosophy separate from Occasionalism can be seen in what is left of his work.
What did Avicenna start an inquiry into?
5726d382708984140094d28d
the question of being
75
False
What two points did he write about?
5726d382708984140094d28e
essence (Mahiat) and existence (Wujud)
132
False
Who also began an inquiry into the question of being?
5726d382708984140094d28f
al-Farabi
10
False
What is the Arabic term for existence?
5726d382708984140094d290
Wujud
164
False
Mahiat is Arabic for what?
5726d382708984140094d291
essence
132
False
al-Farabi
10
Who followed Avicenna's leadand investigated the question of being?
5ace56ec32bba1001ae4a313
True
essence (Mahiat) and existence (Wujud)
132
What to parts of being did Avicenna merge?
5ace56ec32bba1001ae4a314
True
Mahiat
141
What is the Latin word for essence?
5ace56ec32bba1001ae4a315
True
the cause
567
What can not coexist with its effect?
5ace56ec32bba1001ae4a316
True
the question of being
75
What did Avicenna stop an inquiry into?
5ace9ff032bba1001ae4adad
True
essence (Mahiat) and existence (Wujud)
132
What two points did he read about?
5ace9ff032bba1001ae4adae
True
al-Farabi
10
Who also began an inquiry into the answer of being?
5ace9ff032bba1001ae4adaf
True
Wujud
164
What is the Arabic term for resistance?
5ace9ff032bba1001ae4adb0
True
essence
132
Mahiat is Muslim for what?
5ace9ff032bba1001ae4adb1
True
Following al-Farabi's lead, Avicenna initiated a full-fledged inquiry into the question of being, in which he distinguished between essence (Mahiat) and existence (Wujud). He argued that the fact of existence can not be inferred from or accounted for by the essence of existing things, and that form and matter by themselves cannot interact and originate the movement of the universe or the progressive actualization of existing things. Existence must, therefore, be due to an agent-cause that necessitates, imparts, gives, or adds existence to an essence. To do so, the cause must be an existing thing and coexist with its effect.
What is one modality of being that Avicenna analyzed?
5726d521f1498d1400e8ec8a
necessity
182
False
According to Avicenna, what could eventually be actualized by an external cause?
5726d521f1498d1400e8ec8b
contingency-in-itself
521
False
What is the necessary according to Avicenna?
5726d521f1498d1400e8ec8c
the source of its own being without borrowed existence
908
False
According to Avicenna, what always exists?
5726d521f1498d1400e8ec8d
The necessary
891
False
If necessary being is true in itself, what is contingent?
5726d521f1498d1400e8ec8e
false in itself
822
False
necessity
182
What is one modality of being that Avicenna did not analyze?
5ace5f6b32bba1001ae4a453
True
Avicenna
193
Who argued that the impossible thing could exist?
5ace5f6b32bba1001ae4a454
True
contingent in itself
273
What did Avicenna believe could never be actualized by an external cause?
5ace5f6b32bba1001ae4a455
True
its own being
922
What is the necessary not a source of?
5ace5f6b32bba1001ae4a456
True
necessity
182
What is one modality of being that Avicenna never analyzed?
5acea0d232bba1001ae4adcb
True
contingency-in-itself
521
According to Avicenna, what could eventually be actualized by an internal cause?
5acea0d232bba1001ae4adcc
True
the source of its own being without borrowed existence
908
What is the unnecessary according to Avicenna?
5acea0d232bba1001ae4adcd
True
The necessary
891
According to Avicenna, what never exists?
5acea0d232bba1001ae4adce
True
false in itself
822
If necessary being is false in itself, what is contingent?
5acea0d232bba1001ae4adcf
True
Avicenna's consideration of the essence-attributes question may be elucidated in terms of his ontological analysis of the modalities of being; namely impossibility, contingency, and necessity. Avicenna argued that the impossible being is that which cannot exist, while the contingent in itself (mumkin bi-dhatihi) has the potentiality to be or not to be without entailing a contradiction. When actualized, the contingent becomes a 'necessary existent due to what is other than itself' (wajib al-wujud bi-ghayrihi). Thus, contingency-in-itself is potential beingness that could eventually be actualized by an external cause other than itself. The metaphysical structures of necessity and contingency are different. Necessary being due to itself (wajib al-wujud bi-dhatihi) is true in itself, while the contingent being is 'false in itself' and 'true due to something else other than itself'. The necessary is the source of its own being without borrowed existence. It is what always exists.
The necessary exists due to what?
5726d6abdd62a815002e91ee
Its-Self
29
False
What is something that the necessary does not have?
5726d6abdd62a815002e91ef
a definition
653
False
What is the Arabic for situation?
5726d6abdd62a815002e91f0
wad
823
False
What is one thing that the Necessary is detached from?
5726d6abdd62a815002e91f1
time
833
False
The Necessary
0
What has many existences?
5ace606232bba1001ae4a48d
True
a counterpart
678
What does the necessary have?
5ace606232bba1001ae4a48e
True
matter
751
What is the necessary attached to?
5ace606232bba1001ae4a48f
True
Its-Self
29
The necessary exists despite what?
5acea15032bba1001ae4add5
True
a definition
653
What is something that the necessary has?
5acea15032bba1001ae4add6
True
wad
823
What is the Islamic for situation?
5acea15032bba1001ae4add7
True
time
833
What is one thing that the Necessary is attached to?
5acea15032bba1001ae4add8
True
time
833
What is one thing that the Unnecessary is detached from?
5acea15032bba1001ae4add9
True
The Necessary exists 'due-to-Its-Self', and has no quiddity/essence (mahiyya) other than existence (wujud). Furthermore, It is 'One' (wahid ahad) since there cannot be more than one 'Necessary-Existent-due-to-Itself' without differentia (fasl) to distinguish them from each other. Yet, to require differentia entails that they exist 'due-to-themselves' as well as 'due to what is other than themselves'; and this is contradictory. However, if no differentia distinguishes them from each other, then there is no sense in which these 'Existents' are not one and the same. Avicenna adds that the 'Necessary-Existent-due-to-Itself' has no genus (jins), nor a definition (hadd), nor a counterpart (nadd), nor an opposite (did), and is detached (bari) from matter (madda), quality (kayf), quantity (kam), place (ayn), situation (wad), and time (waqt).
What religion was Avicenna?
5726e2bf708984140094d4c3
Muslim
22
False
What did Avicenna want to reconcile with Islamic theology?
5726e2bf708984140094d4c4
rational philosophy
53
False
What did Avicenna hope to do through his work?
5726e2bf708984140094d4c5
prove the existence of God
111
False
Up until what century was Avicenna's work highly influential?
5726e2bf708984140094d4c6
19th century
378
False
Who did Avicenna view as inspired philosophers?
5726e2bf708984140094d4c7
the prophets
494
False
Avicenna
0
Who used philosophy to challange Islamic theology?
5ace618b32bba1001ae4a4cd
True
God
134
Who's existance was Avicenna trying to disprove?
5ace618b32bba1001ae4a4ce
True
Avicenna
0
Who wrote the curriculum at Islamic religious schools?
5ace618b32bba1001ae4a4cf
True
Avicenna's views on Islamic theology (and philosophy)
213
What was highly influental up until the 1900's?
5ace618b32bba1001ae4a4d0
True
the prophets
494
Who was inspired by Avicenna's work?
5ace618b32bba1001ae4a4d1
True
Muslim
22
What region was Avicenna?
5acea21632bba1001ae4ae19
True
rational philosophy
53
What did Avicenna not want to reconcile with Islamic theology?
5acea21632bba1001ae4ae1a
True
prove the existence of God
111
What did Avicenna hope not to do through his work?
5acea21632bba1001ae4ae1b
True
19th century
378
Up until what century was Avicenna's work slightly influential?
5acea21632bba1001ae4ae1c
True
the prophets
494
Who did Avicenna view as uninspired philosophers?
5acea21632bba1001ae4ae1d
True
Avicenna was a devout Muslim and sought to reconcile rational philosophy with Islamic theology. His aim was to prove the existence of God and His creation of the world scientifically and through reason and logic. Avicenna's views on Islamic theology (and philosophy) were enormously influential, forming part of the core of the curriculum at Islamic religious schools until the 19th century. Avicenna wrote a number of short treatises dealing with Islamic theology. These included treatises on the prophets (whom he viewed as "inspired philosophers"), and also on various scientific and philosophical interpretations of the Quran, such as how Quranic cosmology corresponds to his own philosophical system. In general these treatises linked his philosophical writings to Islamic religious ideas; for example, the body's afterlife.
What did Avicenna consider to be the only way to distinguish real philosophy from illusion?
5726e3e2f1498d1400e8eef2
philosophy
100
False
What did Avicenna fear about stating his theories on philosophy more clearly?
5726e3e2f1498d1400e8eef3
the political implications of such a theory
226
False
What did Avicenna not consider when explaining his theories on philosophy?
5726e3e2f1498d1400e8eef4
epistemological matters
480
False
prophecy
156
What did Avicenna consider an illusion?
5ace627932bba1001ae4a4fd
True
Avicenna
80
Who wrote about distinguishing philosophy from prophecy?
5ace627932bba1001ae4a4fe
True
the political implications
226
Why did Avercenna not explain his theories to others?
5ace627932bba1001ae4a4ff
True
philosophy
100
What did Avicenna consider to be the only way to distinguish fake prophecy from illusion?
5acea28132bba1001ae4ae37
True
philosophy
100
What did Avicenna consider to be the only way to distinguish real philosophy from illusion?
5acea28132bba1001ae4ae38
True
the political implications of such a theory
226
What did Avicenna love about stating his theories on philosophy more clearly?
5acea28132bba1001ae4ae39
True
the political implications of such a theory
226
What did Avicenna fear about stating his theories on biology more clearly?
5acea28132bba1001ae4ae3a
True
epistemological matters
480
What did Avicenna consider when explaining his theories on philosophy?
5acea28132bba1001ae4ae3b
True
There are occasional brief hints and allusions in his longer works however that Avicenna considered philosophy as the only sensible way to distinguish real prophecy from illusion. He did not state this more clearly because of the political implications of such a theory, if prophecy could be questioned, and also because most of the time he was writing shorter works which concentrated on explaining his theories on philosophy and theology clearly, without digressing to consider epistemological matters which could only be properly considered by other philosophers.
Which interpretation of Avicenna's work was more taught in Islamic schools?
5726e53df1498d1400e8ef1e
al-Razi
582
False
Interpretations of Avicenna's work split into how many different schools?
5726e53df1498d1400e8ef1f
three
58
False
Who used only parts of Avicenna's works to support their own great spiritual insights?
5726e53df1498d1400e8ef20
al-Ghazali
357
False
Who used Avicenna's work to help understand future political events?
5726e53df1498d1400e8ef21
al-Tusi
98
False
What are Islamic schools also known as?
5726e53df1498d1400e8ef22
madrasahs
634
False
Avicenna's
25
Who's philosophy was spilt into 4 different schools?
5ace639232bba1001ae4a549
True
al-Razi)
233
Which interpretation of Avicenna's work was banned in Islamic schools?
5ace639232bba1001ae4a54a
True
his wider philosophical concerns
304
What did al-Tusi believe Avicenna's theological works were isolated from?
5ace639232bba1001ae4a54b
True
al-Ghazali
357
Who's philosophy did Avicenna use to gain greater spiritual insight?
5ace639232bba1001ae4a54c
True
al-Razi
233
Which interpretation of Avicenna's work was less taught in Islamic schools?
5acea2fa32bba1001ae4ae53
True
three
58
Misinterpretations of Avicenna's work split into how many different schools?
5acea2fa32bba1001ae4ae54
True
al-Ghazali
357
Who used only parts of Avicenna's works to reject their own great spiritual insights?
5acea2fa32bba1001ae4ae55
True
al-Tusi
98
Who used Avicenna's work to help understand past political events?
5acea2fa32bba1001ae4ae56
True
madrasahs
634
What are Islamic schools not known as?
5acea2fa32bba1001ae4ae57
True
Later interpretations of Avicenna's philosophy split into three different schools; those (such as al-Tusi) who continued to apply his philosophy as a system to interpret later political events and scientific advances; those (such as al-Razi) who considered Avicenna's theological works in isolation from his wider philosophical concerns; and those (such as al-Ghazali) who selectively used parts of his philosophy to support their own attempts to gain greater spiritual insights through a variety of mystical means. It was the theological interpretation championed by those such as al-Razi which eventually came to predominate in the madrasahs.
Where was Avicenna once imprisoned?
5726e9c5f1498d1400e8efb0
the castle of Fardajan
27
False
What did Avicenna write while he was imprisoned?
5726e9c5f1498d1400e8efb1
"Floating Man"
91
False
What was the soul according to Avicenna?
5726e9c5f1498d1400e8efb2
a substance
327
False
How is the soul perceived according to Avicenna's work "Floating Man"?
5726e9c5f1498d1400e8efb3
intellectually
1097
False
How did Avicenna want man to think of themselves as?
5726e9c5f1498d1400e8efb4
suspended in the air, isolated from all sensations
543
False
"Floating Man"
91
What did Avicenna write after being released from a castle near Hamahhan?
5ace652832bba1001ae4a587
True
Floating Man"
92
What did Avicenna believe proved the soal had no substance?
5ace652832bba1001ae4a588
True
Avicenna
241
Who believe existance required sensory data input?
5ace652832bba1001ae4a589
True
the soul
938
What is dependant on the body?
5ace652832bba1001ae4a58a
True
active intellect
1235
How did Avicenna believe humans communicated with God?
5ace652832bba1001ae4a58b
True
the castle of Fardajan
27
Where was Avicenna twice imprisoned?
5acea55132bba1001ae4aec1
True
"Floating Man"
91
What did Avicenna read while he was imprisoned?
5acea55132bba1001ae4aec2
True
intellectually
1097
How is the soul perceived according to Avicenna's work "Floating Woman"?
5acea55132bba1001ae4aec3
True
imagine themselves created all at once while suspended in the air, isolated from all sensations, which includes no sensory contact with even their own bodies.
498
How did Avicenna want woman to think of themselves as?
5acea55132bba1001ae4aec4
True
While he was imprisoned in the castle of Fardajan near Hamadhan, Avicenna wrote his famous "Floating Man" – literally falling man – thought experiment to demonstrate human self-awareness and the substantiality and immateriality of the soul. Avicenna believed his "Floating Man" thought experiment demonstrated that the soul is a substance, and claimed humans cannot doubt their own consciousness, even in a situation that prevents all sensory data input. The thought experiment told its readers to imagine themselves created all at once while suspended in the air, isolated from all sensations, which includes no sensory contact with even their own bodies. He argued that, in this scenario, one would still have self-consciousness. Because it is conceivable that a person, suspended in air while cut off from sense experience, would still be capable of determining his own existence, the thought experiment points to the conclusions that the soul is a perfection, independent of the body, and an immaterial substance. The conceivability of this "Floating Man" indicates that the soul is perceived intellectually, which entails the soul's separateness from the body. Avicenna referred to the living human intelligence, particularly the active intellect, which he believed to be the hypostasis by which God communicates truth to the human mind and imparts order and intelligibility to nature. Following is an English translation of the argument:
Where did reason interact with sensation according to Avicenna?
5726ebec708984140094d60f
the brain
26
False
What is the universal agent?
5726ebec708984140094d610
Intellect
170
False
In Avicenna's work "Floating Man", what is the core of a human being?
5726ebec708984140094d611
the knowledge that "I am"
361
False
What is the body's perfection?
5726ebec708984140094d612
the soul
689
False
In Avicenna's "Floating Man", what could the essence of a person not be?
5726ebec708984140094d613
the body
295
False
the brain
26
Where did Avicenna claim the soul and sensation interacted?
5ace667d32bba1001ae4a5a3
True
Sensation
88
What prepares the brain to recieve rational thought?
5ace667d32bba1001ae4a5a4
True
no sensation
341
Why couldn't the flying persons soul be their essence?
5ace667d32bba1001ae4a5a5
True
the idea of the self
481
What is dependent on a physical thing?
5ace667d32bba1001ae4a5a6
True
The body
645
What is necessary in relation to the soul?
5ace667d32bba1001ae4a5a7
True
the brain
26
Where did treason interact with sensation according to Avicenna?
5acea5d732bba1001ae4aed3
True
Intellect
170
What is the local agent?
5acea5d732bba1001ae4aed4
True
the knowledge that "I am"
361
In Avicenna's work "Floating Man", what is the perimeter of a human being?
5acea5d732bba1001ae4aed5
True
the soul
689
What is the body's imperfection?
5acea5d732bba1001ae4aed6
True
the body
295
In Avicenna's "Floating Man", what could the essence of a person be?
5acea5d732bba1001ae4aed7
True
However, Avicenna posited the brain as the place where reason interacts with sensation. Sensation prepares the soul to receive rational concepts from the universal Agent Intellect. The first knowledge of the flying person would be "I am," affirming his or her essence. That essence could not be the body, obviously, as the flying person has no sensation. Thus, the knowledge that "I am" is the core of a human being: the soul exists and is self-aware. Avicenna thus concluded that the idea of the self is not logically dependent on any physical thing, and that the soul should not be seen in relative terms, but as a primary given, a substance. The body is unnecessary; in relation to it, the soul is its perfection. In itself, the soul is an immaterial substance.
What philosopher did Avicenna discuss in his The Book of Healing text?
5726ee9ff1498d1400e8f04e
Aristotle
179
False
What work of Aristotle's does Avicenna focus on?
5726ee9ff1498d1400e8f04f
Posterior Analytics
191
False
What method did Avicenna criticize as not leading to absolute certainty?
5726ee9ff1498d1400e8f050
Aristotelian induction
938
False
scientific method of inquiry
136
What kind of inquiry did Avicenna discover?
5ace67c732bba1001ae4a5bf
True
Posterior Analytics
191
What work of Aristotle's did Avicenna closely follow?
5ace67c732bba1001ae4a5c0
True
Aristotelian induction
938
What method did Avucenna claim led to absolute certainty?
5ace67c732bba1001ae4a5c1
True
method of experimentation as a means for scientific inquiry
1101
What method was replaced by Aristotelian method of induction?
5ace67c732bba1001ae4a5c2
True
Aristotle
179
What philosopher did Avicenna not discuss in his The Book of Healing text?
5acea6ad32bba1001ae4aef7
True
Posterior Analytics
191
What work of Aristotle's does Avicenna not focus on?
5acea6ad32bba1001ae4aef8
True
Aristotelian induction
938
What method did Avicenna support as leading to absolute certainty?
5acea6ad32bba1001ae4aef9
True
Aristotelian induction
938
What method didn't Avicenna criticize as not leading to absolute certainty?
5acea6ad32bba1001ae4aefa
True
Posterior Analytics
191
What work of Socrate's does Avicenna focus on?
5acea6ad32bba1001ae4aefb
True
In the Al-Burhan (On Demonstration) section of The Book of Healing, Avicenna discussed the philosophy of science and described an early scientific method of inquiry. He discusses Aristotle's Posterior Analytics and significantly diverged from it on several points. Avicenna discussed the issue of a proper methodology for scientific inquiry and the question of "How does one acquire the first principles of a science?" He asked how a scientist would arrive at "the initial axioms or hypotheses of a deductive science without inferring them from some more basic premises?" He explains that the ideal situation is when one grasps that a "relation holds between the terms, which would allow for absolute, universal certainty." Avicenna then adds two further methods for arriving at the first principles: the ancient Aristotelian method of induction (istiqra), and the method of examination and experimentation (tajriba). Avicenna criticized Aristotelian induction, arguing that "it does not lead to the absolute, universal, and certain premises that it purports to provide." In its place, he develops a "method of experimentation as a means for scientific inquiry."
What was a subject that Avicenna studied, but did not develop a theory on?
5726f04add62a815002e95ce
temporal logic
26
False
Who expanded on Avicenna's work in temporal logic?
5726f04add62a815002e95cf
Najm al-Dīn al-Qazwīnī al-Kātibī
245
False
What became the dominant system of Islamic logic?
5726f04add62a815002e95d0
Avicennian logic
346
False
What European logician was greatly influenced by Avicenna?
5726f04add62a815002e95d1
Albertus Magnus
420
False
Whose law of noncontradiction did Avicenna endorse?
5726f04add62a815002e95d2
Aristotle
517
False
Avicenna
56
who studied and developed theories on temporal logic?
5ace68d832bba1001ae4a5ed
True
Najm al-Dīn al-Qazwīnī al-Kātibī
245
Who's system of logic did Avicenna further develop?
5ace68d832bba1001ae4a5ee
True
Najm al-Dīn al-Qazwīnī al-Kātibī
245
Who's system of logic is dominant in modern times?
5ace68d832bba1001ae4a5ef
True
Albertus Magnus and William of Ockham.
420
What European logicians did Avicennian logic borrow from?
5ace68d832bba1001ae4a5f0
True
Avicenna
459
Whorefuted the law of noncontradiction?
5ace68d832bba1001ae4a5f1
True
temporal logic
26
What was a subject that Avicenna studied, and developed a theory on?
5acea73b32bba1001ae4af0b
True
Najm al-Dīn al-Qazwīnī al-Kātibī
245
Who expanded on Avicenna's work in permanent logic?
5acea73b32bba1001ae4af0c
True
Avicennian logic
346
What became the nondominant system of Islamic logic?
5acea73b32bba1001ae4af0d
True
Albertus Magnus
420
What European magician was greatly influenced by Avicenna?
5acea73b32bba1001ae4af0e
True
Aristotle
517
Whose law of contradiction did Avicenna endorse?
5acea73b32bba1001ae4af0f
True
An early formal system of temporal logic was studied by Avicenna. Although he did not develop a real theory of temporal propositions, he did study the relationship between temporalis and the implication. Avicenna's work was further developed by Najm al-Dīn al-Qazwīnī al-Kātibī and became the dominant system of Islamic logic until modern times. Avicennian logic also influenced several early European logicians such as Albertus Magnus and William of Ockham. Avicenna endorsed the law of noncontradiction proposed by Aristotle, that a fact could not be both true and false at the same time and in the same sense of the terminology used. He stated, "Anyone who denies the law of noncontradiction should be beaten and burned until he admits that to be beaten is not the same as not to be beaten, and to be burned is not the same as not to be burned."
What is Avicenna's Book of Healing referred to in Arabic?
5726f2815951b619008f8319
Kitab al-shifa
98
False
What subject is seen throughout Avicenna's Book of Healing?
5726f2815951b619008f831a
classical psychology
21
False
In an argument by Avicenna, the soul is without what?
5726f2815951b619008f831b
quantitative extension
434
False
Whose argument is similar to Avicenna's that the soul is without quantitative extension?
5726f2815951b619008f831c
Descartes
485
False
What is the Latin for Avicenna's psychology parts in his Book of Healing?
5726f2815951b619008f831d
De Anima
223
False
Kitab al-nafs
71
What text embodies Avicenna's legacy in philosophy?
5ace69ac32bba1001ae4a609
True
quantitative
434
What kind of extension does Avicenna say the soul has?
5ace69ac32bba1001ae4a60a
True
Descartes's
485
Who's agrument disagrees with Avicenna's argument on the soul?
5ace69ac32bba1001ae4a60b
True
Kitab al-shifa
98
What is Avicenna's Book of Healing referred to in Muslim?
5acea7e632bba1001ae4af1f
True
classical psychology
21
What subject is never seen throughout Avicenna's Book of Healing?
5acea7e632bba1001ae4af20
True
quantitative extension
434
In an argument by Avicenna, the soul is with what?
5acea7e632bba1001ae4af21
True
Descartes
485
Whose argument is similar to Avicenna's that the soul is with quantitative extension?
5acea7e632bba1001ae4af22
True
De Anima
223
What is the Latin for Avicenna's philosophy parts in his Book of Healing?
5acea7e632bba1001ae4af23
True
Avicenna's legacy in classical psychology is primarily embodied in the Kitab al-nafs parts of his Kitab al-shifa (The Book of Healing) and Kitab al-najat (The Book of Deliverance). These were known in Latin under the title De Anima (treatises "on the soul").[dubious – discuss] Notably, Avicenna develops what is called the "flying man" argument in the Psychology of The Cure I.1.7 as defense of the argument that the soul is without quantitative extension, which has an affinity with Descartes's cogito argument (or what phenomenology designates as a form of an "epoche").
What does Avicenna ground his psychology on?
5726f4315951b619008f834f
physiology
207
False
According to Avicenna, the body and soul must be what in order to ensure the soul's individuation?
5726f4315951b619008f8350
strong enough
76
False
How does Avicenna  explain the connection between body and soul?
5726f4315951b619008f8351
his understanding of perception
452
False
How does man first perceive features of an object?
5726f4315951b619008f8352
external senses
683
False
The body and soul's interaction takes place where?
5726f4315951b619008f8353
the physical body
1221
False
physiology
207
What does Avicenna not ground his psychology on?
5acea8e732bba1001ae4af3d
True
strong enough
76
According to Avicenna, the body and soul must not be what in order to ensure the soul's individuation?
5acea8e732bba1001ae4af3e
True
his understanding of perception
452
How does Avicenna explain the disconnection between body and soul?
5acea8e732bba1001ae4af3f
True
external senses
683
How does man first perceive features of an subject?
5acea8e732bba1001ae4af40
True
the physical body
1221
The body and soul's interaction takes place when?
5acea8e732bba1001ae4af41
True
Avicenna's psychology requires that connection between the body and soul be strong enough to ensure the soul's individuation, but weak enough to allow for its immortality. Avicenna grounds his psychology on physiology, which means his account of the soul is one that deals almost entirely with the natural science of the body and its abilities of perception. Thus, the philosopher's connection between the soul and body is explained almost entirely by his understanding of perception; in this way, bodily perception interrelates with the immaterial human intellect. In sense perception, the perceiver senses the form of the object; first, by perceiving features of the object by our external senses. This sensory information is supplied to the internal senses, which merge all the pieces into a whole, unified conscious experience. This process of perception and abstraction is the nexus of the soul and body, for the material body may only perceive material objects, while the immaterial soul may only receive the immaterial, universal forms. The way the soul and body interact in the final abstraction of the universal from the concrete particular is the key to their relationship and interaction, which takes place in the physical body.
What Muslim astronomer did Avicenna influence?
5726f5565951b619008f8369
Al-Biruni
150
False
What subject did Avicenna consider to be a separate discipline from astrology?
5726f5565951b619008f836a
mathematical astronomy
219
False
What philosopher thought the stars received their light from the sun?
5726f5565951b619008f836b
Aristotle
295
False
What planet did Aristotle think was a spot on the sun?
5726f5565951b619008f836c
Venus
485
False
Where did Avicenna think Venus was in relation to the sun?
5726f5565951b619008f836d
below the Sun
865
False
Al-Biruni
150
What Muslim astrologer did Avicenna influence?
5acea9b232bba1001ae4af57
True
mathematical astronomy
219
What subject did Avicenna consider to be a separate discipline from astronomy?
5acea9b232bba1001ae4af58
True
Aristotle
295
What philosopher thought the stars received their light from the moon?
5acea9b232bba1001ae4af59
True
Venus
485
What planet did Aristotle think was a spot on the moon?
5acea9b232bba1001ae4af5a
True
below the Sun
865
Where did Avicenna think Venus was in relation to the moon?
5acea9b232bba1001ae4af5b
True
Avicenna's astronomical writings had some influence on later writers, although in general his work could be considered less developed than Alhazen or Al-Biruni. One important feature of his writing is that he considers mathematical astronomy as a separate discipline to astrology. He criticized Aristotle's view of the stars receiving their light from the Sun, stating that the stars are self-luminous, and believed that the planets are also self-luminous. He claimed to have observed Venus as a spot on the Sun. This is possible, as there was a transit on May 24, 1032, but Avicenna did not give the date of his observation, and modern scholars have questioned whether he could have observed the transit from his location at that time; he may have mistaken a sunspot for Venus. He used his transit observation to help establish that Venus was, at least sometimes, below the Sun in Ptolemaic cosmology, i.e. the sphere of Venus comes before the sphere of the Sun when moving out from the Earth in the prevailing geocentric model.
What work by Avicenna is thought to be a fake?
5726f649708984140094d717
Liber Aboali Abincine de Anima in arte Alchemiae
0
False
What is another work of Avicenna that is said to not be his creation?
5726f649708984140094d718
the Declaratio
261
False
What is definitely seen as being written by Avicenna?
5726f649708984140094d719
The Book of Minerals
336
False
What is the kitab al-Shifa?
5726f649708984140094d71a
Book of the Remedy
427
False
What did Ibn Sina classify into stones?
5726f649708984140094d71b
minerals
468
False
Liber Aboali Abincine de Anima in arte Alchemiae
0
What work by Avicenna is thought to be a real?
5aceaa2032bba1001ae4af61
True
the Declaratio
261
What is another work of Avicenna that is said to be his creation?
5aceaa2032bba1001ae4af62
True
The Book of Minerals
336
What is definitely seen as being read by Avicenna?
5aceaa2032bba1001ae4af63
True
Book of the Remedy
427
What isn't the kitab al-Shifa?
5aceaa2032bba1001ae4af64
True
minerals
468
What didn't Ibn Sina classify into stones?
5aceaa2032bba1001ae4af65
True
Liber Aboali Abincine de Anima in arte Alchemiae was the most influential, having influenced later medieval chemists and alchemists such as Vincent of Beauvais. However Anawati argues (following Ruska) that the de Anima is a fake by a Spanish author. Similarly the Declaratio is believed not to be actually by Avicenna. The third work (The Book of Minerals) is agreed to be Avicenna's writing, adapted from the Kitab al-Shifa (Book of the Remedy). Ibn Sina classified minerals into stones, fusible substances, sulfurs, and salts, building on the ideas of Aristotle and Jabir. The epistola de Re recta is somewhat less sceptical of alchemy; Anawati argues that it is by Avicenna, but written earlier in his career when he had not yet firmly decided that transmutation was impossible.
Who said that Ibn Sina was one of the greatest thinkers?
5726f74fdd62a815002e9668
George Sarton
0
False
What did George Sarton write?
5726f74fdd62a815002e9669
The History of Science
29
False
Ibn Sina was described as the most famous scientist in what religion?
5726f74fdd62a815002e966a
Islam
183
False
Who is another leading Islamic figure in medicine?
5726f74fdd62a815002e966b
Abulcasis
345
False
During what centuries was Ibn Sina ranked among such medical greats as Hippocrates?
5726f74fdd62a815002e966c
early fourteenth to the mid-sixteenth centuries
1364
False
George Sarton
0
Who said that Ibn Sina was one of the weakest thinkers?
5aceaae532bba1001ae4af7f
True
The History of Science
29
What did George Sarton read?
5aceaae532bba1001ae4af80
True
Islamic
268
Ibn Sina was described as the least famous scientist in what religion?
5aceaae532bba1001ae4af81
True
Abulcasis
345
Who is another unimportant Islamic figure in medicine?
5aceaae532bba1001ae4af82
True
early fourteenth to the mid-sixteenth centuries
1364
During what centuries was Ibn Sina not ranked among such medical greats as Hippocrates?
5aceaae532bba1001ae4af83
True
George Sarton, the author of The History of Science, described Ibn Sīnā as "one of the greatest thinkers and medical scholars in history" and called him "the most famous scientist of Islam and one of the most famous of all races, places, and times." He was one of the Islamic world's leading writers in the field of medicine. Along with Rhazes, Abulcasis, Ibn al-Nafis, and al-Ibadi, Ibn Sīnā is considered an important compiler of early Muslim medicine. He is remembered in the Western history of medicine as a major historical figure who made important contributions to medicine and the European Renaissance. His medical texts were unusual in that where controversy existed between Galen and Aristotle's views on medical matters (such as anatomy), he preferred to side with Aristotle, where necessary updating Aristotle's position to take into account post-Aristotelian advances in anatomical knowledge. Aristotle's dominant intellectual influence among medieval European scholars meant that Avicenna's linking of Galen's medical writings with Aristotle's philosophical writings in the Canon of Medicine (along with its comprehensive and logical organisation of knowledge) significantly increased Avicenna's importance in medieval Europe in comparison to other Islamic writers on medicine. His influence following translation of the Canon was such that from the early fourteenth to the mid-sixteenth centuries he was ranked with Hippocrates and Galen as one of the acknowledged authorities, princeps medicorum ("prince of physicians").
In what modern country is Avicenna considered an icon?
5726f847f1498d1400e8f15c
Iran
10
False
Where is a monument located that honors Avicenna?
5726f847f1498d1400e8f15d
the Bukhara museum
155
False
Where is the Avicenna Mausoleum and Museum located?
5726f847f1498d1400e8f15e
Hamadan
225
False
In what European school does Avicenna's portrait hang in their hall of medicine?
5726f847f1498d1400e8f15f
the University of Paris
847
False
What plant genus is named after Avicenna?
5726f847f1498d1400e8f160
Avicennia
940
False
Iran
10
In what ancient country is Avicenna considered an icon?
5aceab9232bba1001ae4afb1
True
the Bukhara museum
155
Where is a monument located that dishonors Avicenna?
5aceab9232bba1001ae4afb2
True
Hamadan
225
Where is the Avicenna Mausoleum and Museum not located?
5aceab9232bba1001ae4afb3
True
Avicenna
815
In what European hospital does Avicenna's portrait hang in their hall of medicine?
5aceab9232bba1001ae4afb4
True
Avicennia
940
What plant genus is not named after Avicenna?
5aceab9232bba1001ae4afb5
True
In modern Iran, he is considered a national icon, and is often regarded as one of the greatest Persians to have ever lived. A monument was erected outside the Bukhara museum[year needed]. The Avicenna Mausoleum and Museum in Hamadan was built in 1952. Bu-Ali Sina University in Hamadan (Iran), Avicenna Research Institute in Tehran (Iran), the ibn Sīnā Tajik State Medical University in Dushanbe, Ibn Sina Academy of Medieval Medicine and Sciences at Aligarh, India, Avicenna School in Karachi and Avicenna Medical College in Lahore, Pakistan Ibne Sina Balkh Medical School in his native province of Balkh in Afghanistan, Ibni Sina Faculty Of Medicine of Ankara University Ankara, Turkey and Ibn Sina Integrated School in Marawi City (Philippines) are all named in his honour. His portrait hangs in the Hall of the Avicenna Faculty of Medicine in the University of Paris. There is also a crater on the Moon named Avicenna and a plant genus Avicennia.
What superpower in 1980 created a stamp in honor of Avicenna?
5726f9b0dd62a815002e96a2
the Soviet Union
9
False
What was Avicenna's birthplace?
5726f9b0dd62a815002e96a3
Bukhara
59
False
A medical staff training college named in his honor is how many miles away from his birthplace?
5726f9b0dd62a815002e96a4
16
357
False
In 1980, how many years had it been since Avicenna's birth?
5726f9b0dd62a815002e96a5
thousand
83
False
Besides stamps, what did the Soviet Union also create in Avicenna's honor?
5726f9b0dd62a815002e96a6
a bust
215
False
the Soviet Union
9
What superpower in 1908 created a stamp in honor of Avicenna?
5aceac4a32bba1001ae4afbb
True
Bukhara
59
What was Avicenna's death place?
5aceac4a32bba1001ae4afbc
True
16 mi
357
A medical staff training college named in his honor is how many kilometers away from his birthplace?
5aceac4a32bba1001ae4afbd
True
thousand
83
In 1980, how many years had it been since Avicenna's death?
5aceac4a32bba1001ae4afbe
True
a bust
215
Besides stamps, what did the Soviet Union also destroy in Avicenna's honor?
5aceac4a32bba1001ae4afbf
True
In 1980, the Soviet Union, which then ruled his birthplace Bukhara, celebrated the thousandth anniversary of Avicenna's birth by circulating various commemorative stamps with artistic illustrations, and by erecting a bust of Avicenna based on anthropological research by Soviet scholars.[citation needed] Near his birthplace in Qishlak Afshona, some 25 km (16 mi) north of Bukhara, a training college for medical staff has been named for him.[year needed] On the grounds is a museum dedicated to his life, times and work.[citation needed]
When was it announced that Avicenna would have medical directories named after him?
5726faa45951b619008f8401
March 2008
3
False
What does the Avicenna Directories contain?
5726faa45951b619008f8402
where doctors, public health practitioners, pharmacists and others, are educated
215
False
What was Avicenna known for?
5726faa45951b619008f8403
his synthesis of knowledge from both east and west
367
False
What is Avicenna's name needed for?
5726faa45951b619008f8404
worldwide partnership
544
False
March 2008
3
When was it not announced that Avicenna would have medical directories named after him?
5aceacca32bba1001ae4afe3
True
March 2008
3
When was it announced that Avicenna would have medical directories named after his father?
5aceacca32bba1001ae4afe4
True
where doctors, public health practitioners, pharmacists and others, are educated
215
What does the Avicenna Directories exclude?
5aceacca32bba1001ae4afe5
True
his synthesis of knowledge from both east and west.
367
What was Avicenna not known for?
5aceacca32bba1001ae4afe6
True
worldwide partnership
544
What is Avicenna's name not needed for?
5aceacca32bba1001ae4afe7
True
In March 2008, it was announced that Avicenna's name would be used for new Directories of education institutions for health care professionals, worldwide. The Avicenna Directories will list universities and schools where doctors, public health practitioners, pharmacists and others, are educated. The project team stated "Why Avicenna? Avicenna ... was ... noted for his synthesis of knowledge from both east and west. He has had a lasting influence on the development of medicine and health sciences. The use of Avicenna's name symbolises the worldwide partnership that is needed for the promotion of health services of high quality."
What movie was made about Avicenna's younger years?
5726fae6f1498d1400e8f1ba
Youth of Genius
17
False
Youth of Genius
17
What movie was made about Avicenna's older years?
5acead8732bba1001ae4b001
True
Youth of Genius
17
What movie was made in 1928?
5acead8732bba1001ae4b002
True
Louis L'Amour's
532
Who wrote the 1895 novel The Walking Drum?
5acead8732bba1001ae4b003
True
Avicenna
941
who wasn't played by Ben Kingsley
5acead8732bba1001ae4b004
True
The soviet film "Youth of Genius" (1982), filmed and studios Uzbekfilm and Tajikfilm, dedicated to children and youth years Avicenna. The film's director Elyor Ishmuhamedov. Romantic and stormy, performed works, danger and irresistible thirst of knowledge was the youth of Al-Husayn ibn Abdallah ibn al-Hasan ibn Ali ibn Sina, which will be known around the world under the name of Avicenna – a great physician, scientist and educator X-XI centuries. The film is set in the ancient city of Bukhara at the turn of the millennium. In Louis L'Amour's 1985 historical novel The Walking Drum, Kerbouchard studies and discusses Avicenna's The Canon of Medicine. In his book The Physician (1988) Noah Gordon tells the story of a young English medical apprentice who disguises himself as a Jew to travel from England to Persia and learn from Avicenna, the great master of his time. The novel was adapted into a feature film, The Physician, in 2013. Avicenna was played by Ben Kingsley.
What is a rare discipline that Avicenna worked on?
5726fc4bdd62a815002e96fe
alchemy
40
False
On what subject is one of Avicenna's treatise based on?
5726fc4bdd62a815002e96ff
Physics
129
False
What doctrine is some of Avicenna's works based around?
5726fc4bdd62a815002e9700
Aristotelian doctrine
192
False
According to some, what was Ibn Sina trying to do regarding his works?
5726fc4bdd62a815002e9701
"re-Aristotelianise" Muslim philosophy
443
False
alchemy
40
What is an unrare discipline that Avicenna worked on?
5aceae3e32bba1001ae4b013
True
Physics
129
On what object is one of Avicenna's treatise based on?
5aceae3e32bba1001ae4b014
True
Aristotelian doctrine,
192
What doctrine is some of Avicenna's works not based around?
5aceae3e32bba1001ae4b015
True
"re-Aristotelianise" Muslim philosophy
443
According to all, what was Ibn Sina trying to do regarding his works?
5aceae3e32bba1001ae4b016
True
"re-Aristotelianise" Muslim philosophy
443
According to some, what was Ibn Sina trying not to do regarding his works?
5aceae3e32bba1001ae4b017
True
Ibn Sīnā wrote at least one treatise on alchemy, but several others have been falsely attributed to him. His Logic, Metaphysics, Physics, and De Caelo, are treatises giving a synoptic view of Aristotelian doctrine, though Metaphysics demonstrates a significant departure from the brand of Neoplatonism known as Aristotelianism in Ibn Sīnā's world; Arabic philosophers[who?][year needed] have hinted at the idea that Ibn Sīnā was attempting to "re-Aristotelianise" Muslim philosophy in its entirety, unlike his predecessors, who accepted the conflation of Platonic, Aristotelian, Neo- and Middle-Platonic works transmitted into the Muslim world.
Who published Avicenna's poem on logic?
5726fd98708984140094d7d1
Schmoelders
222
False
What is the name of Avicenna's larger encyclopedic treatise?
5726fd98708984140094d7d2
Al-Shifa'
348
False
Where is Avicenna's Al-Shifa manuscript located?
5726fd98708984140094d7d3
the Bodleian Library
409
False
What is the shorter form of Al-Shifa called?
5726fd98708984140094d7d4
the An-najat
732
False
What two subjects of Avicenna's have been reprinted extensively?
5726fd98708984140094d7d5
Logic and Metaphysics
4
False
Schmoelders
222
Who published Avicenna's song on logic?
5aceaec232bba1001ae4b027
True
Al-Shifa
348
What is not the name of Avicenna's larger encyclopedic treatise?
5aceaec232bba1001ae4b028
True
Bodleian Library
413
Where is Avicenna's Al-Shifa manuscript not located?
5aceaec232bba1001ae4b029
True
An-najat
736
What is the longer form of Al-Shifa called?
5aceaec232bba1001ae4b02a
True
Logic and Metaphysics
4
What two subjects of Avicenna's have been reprinted a little bit?
5aceaec232bba1001ae4b02b
True
The Logic and Metaphysics have been extensively reprinted, the latter, e.g., at Venice in 1493, 1495, and 1546. Some of his shorter essays on medicine, logic, etc., take a poetical form (the poem on logic was published by Schmoelders in 1836).[citation needed] Two encyclopaedic treatises, dealing with philosophy, are often mentioned. The larger, Al-Shifa' (Sanatio), exists nearly complete in manuscript in the Bodleian Library and elsewhere; part of it on the De Anima appeared at Pavia (1490) as the Liber Sextus Naturalium, and the long account of Ibn Sina's philosophy given by Muhammad al-Shahrastani seems to be mainly an analysis, and in many places a reproduction, of the Al-Shifa'. A shorter form of the work is known as the An-najat (Liberatio). The Latin editions of part of these works have been modified by the corrections which the monastic editors confess that they applied. There is also a حكمت مشرقيه (hikmat-al-mashriqqiyya, in Latin Philosophia Orientalis), mentioned by Roger Bacon, the majority of which is lost in antiquity, which according to Averroes was pantheistic in tone.
Chinese_characters
What are logograms used in the writing of Chinese?
5726b6e6f1498d1400e8e896
Chinese characters
0
False
What are Chinese characters called in standard Chinese?
5726b6e6f1498d1400e8e897
Hanzi
132
False
What have been adapted to write in a number of other languages?
5726b6e6f1498d1400e8e898
Chinese characters
0
False
Chinese characters are logograms used in the writing of Chinese and some other Asian languages. In Standard Chinese they are called Hanzi (simplified Chinese: 汉字; traditional Chinese: 漢字). They have been adapted to write a number of other languages including: Japanese, where they are known as kanji, Korean, where they are known as hanja, and Vietnamese in a system known as chữ Nôm. Collectively, they are known as CJKV characters. In English, they are sometimes called Han characters. Chinese characters constitute the oldest continuously used system of writing in the world. By virtue of their widespread current use in East Asia, and historic use throughout the Sinosphere, Chinese characters are among the most widely adopted writing systems in the world.
What number in the tens of thousands?
5726b794708984140094cedd
Chinese characters
0
False
What requires a knowledge of three to four thousand characters?
5726b794708984140094cede
literacy in written Chinese
181
False
Which are identical to Chinese forms?
5726b794708984140094cedf
kyūjitai
903
False
Chinese characters number in the tens of thousands, though most of them are minor graphic variants encountered only in historical texts. Studies in China have shown that functional literacy in written Chinese requires a knowledge of between three and four thousand characters. In Japan, 2,136 are taught through secondary school (the Jōyō kanji); hundreds more are in everyday use. There are various national standard lists of characters, forms, and pronunciations. Simplified forms of certain characters are used in China, Singapore, and Malaysia; the corresponding traditional characters are used in Taiwan, Hong Kong, Macau, and to a limited extent in South Korea. In Japan, common characters are written in post-WWII Japan-specific simplified forms (shinjitai), which are closer to traditional forms than Chinese simplifications, while uncommon characters are written in Japanese traditional forms (kyūjitai), which are virtually identical to Chinese traditional forms. In South Korea, when Chinese characters are used they are of the traditional variant and are almost identical to those used in places like Taiwan and Hong Kong. Teaching of Chinese characters in South Korea starts in the 7th grade and continues until the 12th grade where 1,800 total characters are taught albeit these characters are only used in certain cases (on signs, academic papers, historical writings, etc.) and are slowly declining in use.
What use the traditional radical-based character index?
5726ba5f708984140094cf6b
modern Chinese dictionaries
5
False
What will have the character's pronunciation in pinyin?
5726ba5f708984140094cf6c
character's entry
485
False
What is at the front of most modern Chinese dictionaries?
5726ba5f708984140094cf6d
traditional radical-based character index
91
False
Most modern Chinese dictionaries and Chinese dictionaries sold to English speakers use the traditional radical-based character index in a section at the front, while the main body of the dictionary arranges the main character entries alphabetically according to their pinyin spelling. To find a character with unknown sound using one of these dictionaries, the reader finds the radical and stroke number of the character, as before, and locates the character in the radical index. The character's entry will have the character's pronunciation in pinyin written down; the reader then turns to the main dictionary section and looks up the pinyin spelling alphabetically.
What are most words in Old Chinese?
5726bb01f1498d1400e8e936
monosyllabic
57
False
What almost always corresponds to a single syllable?
5726bb01f1498d1400e8e937
character
391
False
What is written with two characters?
5726bb01f1498d1400e8e938
bisyllabic morphemes
551
False
In Old Chinese, (e.g. Classical Chinese) most words were monosyllabic and there was a close correspondence between characters and words. In modern Chinese (esp. Mandarin Chinese), characters do not necessarily correspond to words; indeed the majority of Chinese words today consist of two or more characters due to the merging and loss of sounds in the Chinese language over time. Rather, a character almost always corresponds to a single syllable that is also a morpheme. However, there are a few exceptions to this general correspondence, including bisyllabic morphemes (written with two characters), bimorphemic syllables (written with two characters) and cases where a single character represents a polysyllabic word or phrase.
What has many homophones?
5726bb7e5951b619008f7c4f
Modern Chinese
0
False
What may have a wide range of meanings?
5726bb7e5951b619008f7c50
single character
129
False
What have been beneficial in the reconstruction of Middle Chinese?
5726bb7e5951b619008f7c51
Sino-Xenic pronunciations
845
False
Modern Chinese has many homophones; thus the same spoken syllable may be represented by many characters, depending on meaning. A single character may also have a range of meanings, or sometimes quite distinct meanings; occasionally these correspond to different pronunciations. Cognates in the several varieties of Chinese are generally written with the same character. They typically have similar meanings, but often quite different pronunciations. In other languages, most significantly today in Japanese and sometimes in Korean, characters are used to represent Chinese loanwords, to represent native words independent of the Chinese pronunciation, and as purely phonetic elements based on their pronunciation in the historical variety of Chinese from which they were acquired. These foreign adaptations of Chinese pronunciation are known as Sino-Xenic pronunciations, and have been useful in the reconstruction of Middle Chinese.
What represent words of the language using several strategies?
5726bd02dd62a815002e8ed4
Chinese characters
0
False
What are some words expressed in?
5726bd02dd62a815002e8ed5
compound ideograms
300
False
What were most words written in?
5726bd02dd62a815002e8ed6
rebus principle
365
False
Chinese characters represent words of the language using several strategies. A few characters, including some of the most commonly used, were originally pictograms, which depicted the objects denoted, or simple ideograms, in which meaning was expressed iconically. Some other words were expressed by compound ideograms, but the vast majority were written using the rebus principle, in which a character for a similarly sounding word was either simply borrowed or (more commonly) extended with a disambiguating semantic marker to form a phono-semantic compound character.
What are the most numerous characters?
5726bd86f1498d1400e8e9b0
Semantic-phonetic compounds
0
False
What is the radical under which the character is listed in dictionaries?
5726bd86f1498d1400e8e9b1
semantic indicator
431
False
What suggests the general meaning of a compound character?
5726bd86f1498d1400e8e9b2
semantic indicator
180
False
Semantic-phonetic compounds or pictophonetic compounds are by far the most numerous characters. These characters are composed of two parts: one of a limited set of characters (the semantic indicator, often graphically simplified) which suggests the general meaning of the compound character, and another character (the phonetic indicator) whose pronunciation suggests the pronunciation of the compound character. In most cases the semantic indicator is also the radical under which the character is listed in dictionaries.
What side is a phonetic indicator located on?
5726be17708984140094d001
right-hand side
319
False
What is the process of historical phonetic change?
5726be17708984140094d002
phonetic indicator
628
False
What process can sometimes seem arbitrary today?
5726be17708984140094d003
phonetic change
674
False
Examples are 河 hé "river", 湖 hú "lake", 流 liú "stream", 沖 chōng "riptide" (or "flush"), 滑 huá "slippery". All these characters have on the left a radical of three short strokes (氵), which is a reduced form of the character 水 shuǐ meaning "water", indicating that the character has a semantic connection with water. The right-hand side in each case is a phonetic indicator. For example, in the case of 沖 chōng (Old Chinese *ɡ-ljuŋ), the phonetic indicator is 中 zhōng (Old Chinese *k-ljuŋ), which by itself means "middle". In this case it can be seen that the pronunciation of the character is slightly different from that of its phonetic indicator; the process of historical phonetic change means that the composition of such characters can sometimes seem arbitrary today.
What is occasionally written with two characters that contain the same radical?
5726cac25951b619008f7e45
bisyllabic word
15
False
What is also a fruit?
5726cac25951b619008f7e46
pipa
191
False
What may share a radical without being meaningful?
5726cac25951b619008f7e47
compound word
543
False
Occasionally a bisyllabic word is written with two characters that contain the same radical, as in 蝴蝶 húdié "butterfly", where both characters have the insect radical 虫. A notable example is pipa (a Chinese lute, also a fruit, the loquat, of similar shape) – originally written as 批把 with the hand radical, referring to the down and up strokes when playing this instrument, which was then changed to 枇杷 (tree radical), which is still used for the fruit, while the character was changed to 琵琶 when referring to the instrument. In other cases a compound word may coincidentally share a radical without this being meaningful.
What may have been found at Neolithic sites in China in recent decades?
5726cb77708984140094d18b
series of inscribed graphs and pictures
21
False
What has demonstrated a history of sign use in the Yellow River valley?
5726cb77708984140094d18c
Chinese characters
621
False
What color was the famous valley during the Neolithic through to the Shang period?
5726cb77708984140094d18d
Yellow
699
False
In recent decades, a series of inscribed graphs and pictures have been found at Neolithic sites in China, including Jiahu (c. 6500 BC), Dadiwan and Damaidi from the 6th millennium BC, and Banpo (5th millennium BC). Often these finds are accompanied by media reports that push back the purported beginnings of Chinese writing by thousands of years. However, because these marks occur singly, without any implied context, and are made crudely and simply, Qiu Xigui concluded that "we do not have any basis for stating that these constituted writing nor is there reason to conclude that they were ancestral to Shang dynasty Chinese characters." They do however demonstrate a history of sign use in the Yellow River valley during the Neolithic through to the Shang period.
What was the earliest confirmed evidence of the Chinese script?
5726d6265951b619008f7f7d
oracle bones
100
False
Where were the symbols carved on?
5726d6265951b619008f7f7e
pieces of bone and turtle shell
185
False
Where was the source of Oracle bones traced to?
5726d6265951b619008f7f7f
village near Anyang in Henan Province
387
False
The earliest confirmed evidence of the Chinese script yet discovered is the body of inscriptions on oracle bones from the late Shang dynasty (c. 1200–1050 BC). These symbols, carved on pieces of bone and turtle shell being sold as "dragon bones" for medicinal purposes, were identified as Chinese writing by scholars in 1899. By 1928, the source of the oracle bones had been traced to a village near Anyang in Henan Province, which was excavated by the Academia Sinica between 1928 and 1937. Over 150,000 fragments have been found.
What existed as early as the Shang dynasty?
5726d6b4708984140094d2ef
oracle-bone script
394
False
What did the oracle-bone script coexist alongside?
5726d6b4708984140094d2f0
bamboo books
475
False
What were preserved in typical bronze inscriptions?
5726d6b4708984140094d2f1
bamboo books
475
False
The traditional picture of an orderly series of scripts, each one invented suddenly and then completely displacing the previous one, has been conclusively demonstrated to be fiction by the archaeological finds and scholarly research of the later 20th and early 21st centuries. Gradual evolution and the coexistence of two or more scripts was more often the case. As early as the Shang dynasty, oracle-bone script coexisted as a simplified form alongside the normal script of bamboo books (preserved in typical bronze inscriptions), as well as the extra-elaborate pictorial forms (often clan emblems) found on many bronzes.
What has evolved over time?
5726d7d4708984140094d32b
scripts
363
False
What type of forms are bird and insect scripts considered?
5726d7d4708984140094d32c
decorative
644
False
What is guwen considered as?
5726d7d4708984140094d32d
ancient forms
505
False
Based on studies of these bronze inscriptions, it is clear that, from the Shang dynasty writing to that of the Western Zhou and early Eastern Zhou, the mainstream script evolved in a slow, unbroken fashion, until assuming the form that is now known as seal script in the late Eastern Zhou in the state of Qin, without any clear line of division. Meanwhile, other scripts had evolved, especially in the eastern and southern areas during the late Zhou dynasty, including regional forms, such as the gǔwén ("ancient forms") of the eastern Warring States preserved as variant forms in the Han dynasty character dictionary Shuowen Jiezi, as well as decorative forms such as bird and insect scripts.
What has evolved slowly in the State of of Qin?
5726d8815951b619008f7fc3
Seal script
0
False
What script runs counter to the traditional belief that the Qin dynasty had one script only?
5726d8815951b619008f7fc4
clerical
1118
False
What was invented in the early Han dynasty from the small seal script?
5726d8815951b619008f7fc5
clerical script
1118
False
Seal script, which had evolved slowly in the state of Qin during the Eastern Zhou dynasty, became standardized and adopted as the formal script for all of China in the Qin dynasty (leading to a popular misconception that it was invented at that time), and was still widely used for decorative engraving and seals (name chops, or signets) in the Han dynasty period. However, despite the Qin script standardization, more than one script remained in use at the time. For example, a little-known, rectilinear and roughly executed kind of common (vulgar) writing had for centuries coexisted with the more formal seal script in the Qin state, and the popularity of this vulgar writing grew as the use of writing itself became more widespread. By the Warring States period, an immature form of clerical script called "early clerical" or "proto-clerical" had already developed in the state of Qin based upon this vulgar writing, and with influence from seal script as well. The coexistence of the three scripts – small seal, vulgar and proto-clerical, with the latter evolving gradually in the Qin to early Han dynasties into clerical script – runs counter to the traditional belief that the Qin dynasty had one script only, and that clerical script was suddenly invented in the early Han dynasty from the small seal script.
Were multiple scripts used during the Han period?
5726d94d708984140094d379
there were in fact multiple scripts in use
74
False
What was one of the more dominant scripts during the time?
5726d94d708984140094d37a
bāfēn
189
False
What name stood for "orderly"?
5726d94d708984140094d37b
zhāng
735
False
Contrary to the popular belief of there being only one script per period, there were in fact multiple scripts in use during the Han period. Although mature clerical script, also called 八分 (bāfēn) script, was dominant at that time, an early type of cursive script was also in use by the Han by at least as early as 24 BC (during the very late Western Han period),[b] incorporating cursive forms popular at the time, well as many elements from the vulgar writing of the Warring State of Qin. By around the time of the Eastern Jin dynasty, this Han cursive became known as 章草 zhāngcǎo (also known as 隶草 / 隸草 lìcǎo today), or in English sometimes clerical cursive, ancient cursive, or draft cursive. Some believe that the name, based on 章 zhāng meaning "orderly", arose because the script was a more orderly form of cursive than the modern form, which emerged during the Eastern Jin dynasty and is still in use today, called 今草 jīncǎo or "modern cursive".
What appeared at the end of the late Eastern Han period?
5726da9b708984140094d3a5
early form of semi-cursive script
35
False
What script was traditionally attributed to Liu Desheng?
5726da9b708984140094d3a6
semi-cursive
173
False
Who showed examples of early semi-cursive script?
5726da9b708984140094d3a7
Qiu
414
False
By the late Eastern Han period, an early form of semi-cursive script appeared, developing out of a cursively written form of neo-clerical script[c] and simple cursive. This semi-cursive script was traditionally attributed to Liu Desheng c. 147–188 AD,[d] although such attributions refer to early masters of a script rather than to their actual inventors, since the scripts generally evolved into being over time. Qiu gives examples of early semi-cursive script, showing that it had popular origins rather than being purely Liu’s invention.
What had been linked to Zhong Yao?
5726db305951b619008f8027
Regular script
0
False
What was Zhong Yao known for?
5726db305951b619008f8028
father of regular script
128
False
Who was the son of Wang Zishi?
5726db305951b619008f8029
Wang Xianzhi
1038
False
Regular script has been attributed to Zhong Yao, of the Eastern Han to Cao Wei period (c. 151–230 AD), who has been called the "father of regular script". However, some scholars postulate that one person alone could not have developed a new script which was universally adopted, but could only have been a contributor to its gradual formation. The earliest surviving pieces written in regular script are copies of Yao's works, including at least one copied by Wang Xizhi. This new script, which is the dominant modern Chinese script, developed out of a neatly written form of early semi-cursive, with addition of the pause (頓/顿 dùn) technique to end horizontal strokes, plus heavy tails on strokes which are written to the downward-right diagonal. Thus, early regular script emerged from a neat, formal form of semi-cursive, which had itself emerged from neo-clerical (a simplified, convenient form of clerical script). It then matured further in the Eastern Jin dynasty in the hands of the "Sage of Calligraphy", Wang Xizhi, and his son Wang Xianzhi. It was not, however, in widespread use at that time, and most writers continued using neo-clerical, or a somewhat semi-cursive form of it, for daily writing, while the conservative bafen clerical script remained in use on some stelae, alongside some semi-cursive, but primarily neo-clerical.
What were the North and South considered as?
5726db92708984140094d3cf
dynasties
43
False
What continued to evolve stylistically?
5726db92708984140094d3d0
regular script
118
False
What script saw no more stages of evolution?
5726db92708984140094d3d1
mainstream
492
False
It was not until the Northern and Southern dynasties that regular script rose to dominant status. During that period, regular script continued evolving stylistically, reaching full maturity in the early Tang dynasty. Some call the writing of the early Tang calligrapher Ouyang Xun (557–641) the first mature regular script. After this point, although developments in the art of calligraphy and in character simplification still lay ahead, there were no more major stages of evolution for the mainstream script.
What contains four strokes?
5726dc26708984140094d3e5
right half of the character
645
False
What do some dictionaries have?
5726dc26708984140094d3e6
sub-index
885
False
What gives remaining stroke numbers?
5726dc26708984140094d3e7
sub-index
536
False
For instance, to look up the character where the sound is not known, e.g., 松 (pine tree), the user first determines which part of the character is the radical (here 木), then counts the number of strokes in the radical (four), and turns to the radical index (usually located on the inside front or back cover of the dictionary). Under the number "4" for radical stroke count, the user locates 木, then turns to the page number listed, which is the start of the listing of all the characters containing this radical. This page will have a sub-index giving remainder stroke numbers (for the non-radical portions of characters) and page numbers. The right half of the character also contains four strokes, so the user locates the number 4, and turns to the page number given. From there, the user must scan the entries to locate the character he or she is seeking. Some dictionaries have a sub-index which lists every character containing each radical, and if the user knows the number of strokes in the non-radical portion of the character, he or she can locate the correct page directly.
What often allow users to locate entries in several ways?
5726dc90dd62a815002e931a
Chinese character dictionaries
0
False
What lists Chinese characters in radical order?
5726dc90dd62a815002e931b
Korean dictionaries
112
False
What is grouped together by radicals?
5726dc90dd62a815002e931c
characters
188
False
Chinese character dictionaries often allow users to locate entries in several ways. Many Chinese, Japanese, and Korean dictionaries of Chinese characters list characters in radical order: characters are grouped together by radical, and radicals containing fewer strokes come before radicals containing more strokes (radical-and-stroke sorting). Under each radical, characters are listed by their total number of strokes. It is often also possible to search for characters by sound, using pinyin (in Chinese dictionaries), zhuyin (in Taiwanese dictionaries), kana (in Japanese dictionaries) or hangul (in Korean dictionaries). Most dictionaries also allow searches by total number of strokes, and individual dictionaries often allow other search methods as well.
What can be easily coined by writing on paper?
5726dd13f1498d1400e8edb8
characters
10
False
What can be difficult to represent on a computer?
5726dd13f1498d1400e8edb9
characters
10
False
What has their been a prominent supply of in the 20th century?
5726dd13f1498d1400e8edba
symbols
285
False
While new characters can be easily coined by writing on paper, they are difficult to represent on a computer – they must generally be represented as a picture, rather than as text – which presents a significant barrier to their use or widespread adoption. Compare this with the use of symbols as names in 20th century musical albums such as Led Zeppelin IV (1971) and Love Symbol Album (1993); an album cover may potentially contain any graphics, but in writing and other computation these symbols are difficult to use.
What can be coined at any time?
5726dd7fdd62a815002e9334
New characters
0
False
What may not be adopted?
5726dd7fdd62a815002e9335
new words
63
False
What are also known as Japanese-coinages?
5726dd7fdd62a815002e9336
kokuji
569
False
New characters can in principle be coined at any time, just as new words can be, but they may not be adopted. Significant historically recent coinages date to scientific terms of the 19th century. Specifically, Chinese coined new characters for chemical elements – see chemical elements in East Asian languages – which continue to be used and taught in schools in China and Taiwan. In Japan, in the Meiji era (specifically, late 19th century), new characters were coined for some (but not all) SI units, such as 粁 (米 "meter" + 千 "thousand, kilo-") for kilometer. These kokuji (Japanese-coinages) have found use in China as well – see Chinese characters for SI units for details.
What are not used in formal written Chinese?
5726ddf1f1498d1400e8edfe
dialect characters
35
False
What contains a block of characters used to showcase Hokkien Chinese?
5726ddf1f1498d1400e8edff
Taiwan
389
False
What was the preference for all mainland regions?
5726ddf1f1498d1400e8ee00
Mandarin
763
False
In addition, there are a number of dialect characters (方言字) that are not used in formal written Chinese but represent colloquial terms in non-Mandarin varieties of Chinese. One such variety is Written Cantonese, in widespread use in Hong Kong even for certain formal documents, due to the former British colonial administration's recognition of Cantonese for use for official purposes. In Taiwan, there is also an informal body of characters used to represent Hokkien Chinese. Many varieties have specific characters for words exclusive to them. For example, the vernacular character 㓾, pronounced cii11 in Hakka, means "to kill". Furthermore, Shanghainese and Sichuanese also have their own series of written text, but these are not widely used in actual texts, Mandarin being the preference for all mainland regions.
What supports 48,027 characters?
5726def0f1498d1400e8ee34
the official national encoding standard
433
False
What supports 13,053 characters?
5726def0f1498d1400e8ee35
BIG-5
545
False
What area uses traditional Chinese characters?
5726def0f1498d1400e8ee36
Taiwan
26
False
In the Republic of China (Taiwan), which uses traditional Chinese characters, the Ministry of Education's Chángyòng Guózì Biāozhǔn Zìtǐ Biǎo (常用國字標準字體表, Chart of Standard Forms of Common National Characters) lists 4,808 characters; the Cì Chángyòng Guózì Biāozhǔn Zìtǐ Biǎo (次常用國字標準字體表, Chart of Standard Forms of Less-Than-Common National Characters) lists another 6,341 characters. The Chinese Standard Interchange Code (CNS11643)—the official national encoding standard—supports 48,027 characters, while the most widely used encoding scheme, BIG-5, supports only 13,053.
What country uses simplified Chinese characters?
5726dfbbf1498d1400e8ee40
China
3
False
What lists 2,500 common characters?
5726dfbbf1498d1400e8ee41
Chart of Common Characters of Modern Chinese
98
False
What is an early version of the national encoding standard used in the people's public of China?
5726dfbbf1498d1400e8ee42
GB2312
399
False
In China, which uses simplified Chinese characters, the Xiàndài Hànyǔ Chángyòng Zìbiǎo (现代汉语常用字表, Chart of Common Characters of Modern Chinese) lists 2,500 common characters and 1,000 less-than-common characters, while the Xiàndài Hànyǔ Tōngyòng Zìbiǎo (现代汉语通用字表, Chart of Generally Utilized Characters of Modern Chinese) lists 7,000 characters, including the 3,500 characters already listed above. GB2312, an early version of the national encoding standard used in the People's Republic of China, has 6,763 code points. GB18030, the modern, mandatory standard, has a much higher number. The New Hànyǔ Shuǐpíng Kǎoshì (汉语水平考试, Chinese Proficiency Test) covers approximately 2,600 characters at its highest level (level six).
What is written in modern usage?
5726e058f1498d1400e8ee4c
new characters
557
False
What is one consequence of modifying radicals?
5726e058f1498d1400e8ee4d
fossilization
831
False
What combines "grain radical" with the "mouth radical"?
5726e058f1498d1400e8ee4e
"harmony, peace"
958
False
Modified radicals and new variants are two common reasons for the ever-increasing number of characters. There are about 300 radicals and 100 are in common use. Creating a new character by modifying the radical is an easy way to disambiguate homographs among xíngshēngzì pictophonetic compounds. This practice began long before the standardization of Chinese script by Qin Shi Huang and continues to the present day. The traditional 3rd-person pronoun tā (他 "he, she, it"), which is written with the "person radical", illustrates modifying significs to form new characters. In modern usage, there is a graphic distinction between tā (她 "she") with the "woman radical", tā (牠 "it") with the "animal radical", tā (它 "it") with the "roof radical", and tā (祂 "He") with the "deity radical", One consequence of modifying radicals is the fossilization of rare and obscure variant logographs, some of which are not even used in Classical Chinese. For instance, he 和 "harmony, peace", which combines the "grain radical" with the "mouth radical", has infrequent variants 咊 with the radicals reversed and 龢 with the "flute radical".
What does not include characters in the Chinese family?
5726e0b8f1498d1400e8ee5c
Zhonghua Zihai
9
False
What is formed by Chinese principles?
5726e0b8f1498d1400e8ee5d
Characters
129
False
What created over 5,000 characters with similar strokes?
5726e0b8f1498d1400e8ee5e
Tangut script
481
False
Even the Zhonghua Zihai does not include characters in the Chinese family of scripts created to represent non-Chinese languages. Characters formed by Chinese principles in other languages include the roughly 1,500 Japanese-made kokuji given in the Kokuji no Jiten, the Korean-made gukja, the over 10,000 Sawndip characters still in use in Guangxi, and the almost 20,000 Nôm characters formerly used in Vietnam.[citation needed] More divergent descendents of Chinese script include Tangut script, which created over 5,000 characters with similar strokes but different formation principles to Chinese characters.
What remains unknowable?
5726e1275951b619008f8137
The total number of Chinese characters from past to present
0
False
What becomes developed all the time?
5726e1275951b619008f8138
Chinese characters
20
False
What is the best means of estimating the historical growth of character inventory?
5726e1275951b619008f8139
number of entries in major Chinese dictionaries
397
False
The total number of Chinese characters from past to present remains unknowable because new ones are developed all the time – for instance, brands may create new characters when none of the existing ones allow for the intended meaning. Chinese characters are theoretically an open set and anyone can create new characters, though such inventions are rarely included in official character sets. The number of entries in major Chinese dictionaries is the best means of estimating the historical growth of character inventory.
What is one of the most complex characters in modern Chinese dictionaries?
5726e1b9dd62a815002e93be
U+9F49
81
False
What features 33 strokes?
5726e1b9dd62a815002e93bf
xiān
914
False
What are among the most complex characters in modern dictionaries?
5726e1b9dd62a815002e93c0
yù
641
False
One of the most complex characters found in modern Chinese dictionaries[g] is 齉 (U+9F49) (nàng,  listen (help·info), pictured below, middle image), meaning "snuffle" (that is, a pronunciation marred by a blocked nose), with "just" thirty-six strokes. However, this is not in common use. The most complex character that can be input using the Microsoft New Phonetic IME 2002a for traditional Chinese is 龘 (dá, "the appearance of a dragon flying"). It is composed of the dragon radical represented three times, for a total of 16 × 3 = 48 strokes. Among the most complex characters in modern dictionaries and also in frequent modern use are 籲 (yù, "to implore"), with 32 strokes; 鬱 (yù, "luxuriant, lush; gloomy"), with 29 strokes, as in 憂鬱 (yōuyù, "depressed"); 豔 (yàn, "colorful"), with 28 strokes; and 釁 (xìn, "quarrel"), with 25 strokes, as in 挑釁 (tiǎoxìn, "to pick a fight"). Also in occasional modern use is 鱻 (xiān "fresh"; variant of 鮮 xiān) with 33 strokes.
What have become more rare?
5726e208f1498d1400e8ee92
complex characters
30
False
What is the most complex Chinese character?
5726e208f1498d1400e8ee93
zhé
182
False
What is one 64-stroke character?
5726e208f1498d1400e8ee94
zhèng
621
False
There are also some extremely complex characters which have understandably become rather rare. According to Joël Bellassen (1989), the most complex Chinese character is /𪚥 (U+2A6A5) zhé  listen (help·info), meaning "verbose" and containing sixty-four strokes; this character fell from use around the 5th century. It might be argued, however, that while containing the most strokes, it is not necessarily the most complex character (in terms of difficulty), as it simply requires writing the same sixteen-stroke character 龍 lóng (lit. "dragon") four times in the space for one. Another 64-stroke character is /𠔻 (U+2053B) zhèng composed of 興 xīng/xìng (lit. "flourish") four times.
Who is a Taiwanese politician?
5726e27e708984140094d4bd
Yu Shyi-kun
65
False
What will often add bopomofo phonetic symbols?
5726e27e708984140094d4be
movie posters
503
False
What may render certain names in katakana instead of kanji?
5726e27e708984140094d4bf
Japanese newspapers
593
False
One man who has encountered this problem is Taiwanese politician Yu Shyi-kun, due to the rarity of the last character in his name. Newspapers have dealt with this problem in varying ways, including using software to combine two existing, similar characters, including a picture of the personality, or, especially as is the case with Yu Shyi-kun, simply substituting a homophone for the rare character in the hope that the reader would be able to make the correct inference. Taiwanese political posters, movie posters etc. will often add the bopomofo phonetic symbols next to such a character. Japanese newspapers may render such names and words in katakana instead of kanji, and it is accepted practice for people to write names for which they are unsure of the correct kanji in katakana instead.
What have been constantly found in religious or ritual use?
5726e2fcf1498d1400e8eea2
Chinese characters
42
False
What seeks to limit the use of polysyllabic characters?
5726e2fcf1498d1400e8eea3
CPC
575
False
What is sometimes written as a single character?
5726e2fcf1498d1400e8eea4
bodhisattva
362
False
The use of such contractions is as old as Chinese characters themselves, and they have frequently been found in religious or ritual use. In the Oracle Bone script, personal names, ritual items, and even phrases such as 受又(祐) shòu yòu "receive blessings" are commonly contracted into single characters. A dramatic example is that in medieval manuscripts 菩薩 púsà "bodhisattva" (simplified: 菩萨) is sometimes written with a single character formed of a 2×2 grid of four 十 (derived from the grass radical over two 十). However, for the sake of consistency and standardization, the CPC seeks to limit the use of such polysyllabic characters in public writing to ensure that every character only has one syllable.
What are disyllabic and usually written with two characters?
5726e382708984140094d4e7
SI units
60
False
What is a less systematic example?
5726e382708984140094d4e8
túshūguǎn
580
False
What is commonly written with a single character formed by combining the last character with the radical of the first?
5726e382708984140094d4e9
socialism
664
False
Modern examples particularly include Chinese characters for SI units. In Chinese these units are disyllabic and standardly written with two characters, as 厘米 límǐ "centimeter" (厘 centi-, 米 meter) or 千瓦 qiānwǎ "kilowatt". However, in the 19th century these were often written via compound characters, pronounced disyllabically, such as 瓩 for 千瓦 or 糎 for 厘米 – some of these characters were also used in Japan, where they were pronounced with borrowed European readings instead. These have now fallen out of general use, but are occasionally seen. Less systematic examples include 圕 túshūguǎn "library", a contraction of 圖書館, A four-morpheme word, 社会主义 shèhuì zhǔyì "socialism", is commonly written with a single character formed by combining the last character, 义, with the radical of the first, 社, yielding roughly 礻义.
What characters are often non-standard?
5726e42b5951b619008f81a3
polysyllabic
704
False
What is a commonly seen example?
5726e42b5951b619008f81a4
double happiness symbol
31
False
What is formed as a ligature?
5726e42b5951b619008f81a5
double happiness symbol
31
False
A commonly seen example is the double happiness symbol 囍, formed as a ligature of 喜喜 and referred to by its disyllabic name (simplified Chinese: 双喜; traditional Chinese: 雙喜; pinyin: shuāngxǐ). In handwriting, numbers are very frequently squeezed into one space or combined – common ligatures include 廿 niàn, "twenty", normally read as 二十 èrshí, 卅 sà, "thirty", normally read as 三十 sānshí, and 卌 xì "forty", normally read as 四十 "sìshí". In some cases counters are also merged into one character, such as 七十人 qīshí rén "seventy people". Another common abbreviation is 门 with a "T" written inside it, for 問題, 问题, wèntí ("question; problem"), where the "T" is from pinyin for the second syllable tí 题. Since polysyllabic characters are often non-standard, they are often excluded incharcter dictionaries.
What may be contracted into single characters?
5726e48f5951b619008f81a9
compound words and set phrases
17
False
What can be considered as set phrases?
5726e48f5951b619008f81aa
single characters
71
False
What are logograms?
5726e48f5951b619008f81ab
characters represent whole words rather than syllable-morphemes
139
False
In certain cases compound words and set phrases may be contracted into single characters. Some of these can be considered logograms, where characters represent whole words rather than syllable-morphemes, though these are generally instead considered ligatures or abbreviations (similar to scribal abbreviations, such as & for "et"), and as non-standard. These do see use, particularly in handwriting or decoration, but also in some cases in print. In Chinese, these ligatures are called héwén (合文), héshū (合書) or hétǐzì (合体字), and in the special case of combining two characters, these are known as "two-syllable Chinese characters" (双音节汉字, 雙音節漢字).
What are primarily morphosyllabic?
5726e540dd62a815002e9442
Chinese characters
0
False
What are written with a single character?
5726e540dd62a815002e9443
Chinese morphemes
67
False
What have the same phonetic, but different radicals?
5726e540dd62a815002e9444
蝴 hú of húdié and the 瑚 hú of shānhú
690
False
Chinese characters are primarily morphosyllabic, meaning that most Chinese morphemes are monosyllabic and are written with a single character, though in modern Chinese most words are disyllabic and dimorphemic, consisting of two syllables, each of which is a morpheme. In modern Chinese 10% of morphemes only occur as part of a given compound. However, a few morphemes are disyllabic, some of them dating back to Classical Chinese. Excluding foreign loan words, these are typically words for plants and small animals. They are usually written with a pair of phono-semantic compound characters sharing a common radical. Examples are 蝴蝶 húdié "butterfly" and 珊瑚 shānhú "coral". Note that the 蝴 hú of húdié and the 瑚 hú of shānhú have the same phonetic, 胡, but different radicals ("insect" and "jade", respectively). Neither exists as an independent morpheme except as a poetic abbreviation of the disyllabic word.
What are written with very precise rules?
5726e5ab5951b619008f81bf
Chinese characters
55
False
What has standardized character forms?
5726e5ab5951b619008f81c0
Chinese characters
231
False
What are also written with different stroke orders due to character simplification?
5726e5ab5951b619008f81c1
characters
546
False
In addition to strictness in character size and shape, Chinese characters are written with very precise rules. The most important rules regard the strokes employed, stroke placement, and stroke order. Just as each region that uses Chinese characters has standardized character forms, each also has standardized stroke orders, with each standard being different. Most characters can be written with just one correct stroke order, though some words also have many valid stroke orders, which may occasionally result in different stroke counts. Some characters are also written with different stroke orders due to character simplification.
What have a characteristic shape?
5726e604708984140094d52f
Roman letters
8
False
What occupy a more or less space area?
5726e604708984140094d530
Chinese characters
148
False
What can sometimes be translated as tetragraph?
5726e604708984140094d531
Square-Block Characters
496
False
Just as Roman letters have a characteristic shape (lower-case letters mostly occupying the x-height, with ascenders or descenders on some letters), Chinese characters occupy a more or less square area in which the components of every character are written to fit in order to maintain a uniform size and shape, especially with small printed characters in Ming and sans-serif styles. Because of this, beginners often practise writing on squared graph paper, and the Chinese sometimes use the term "Square-Block Characters" (方块字 / 方塊字, fāngkuàizì), sometimes translated as tetragraph, in reference to Chinese characters.
What are commonly used?
5726e667f1498d1400e8ef56
Regular script typefaces
0
False
What are often used to teach students Chinese characters?
5726e667f1498d1400e8ef57
Regular script typefaces
114
False
What resembles an actual person's handwriting?
5726e667f1498d1400e8ef58
handwriting of Ouyang Xun
406
False
Regular script typefaces are also commonly used, but not as common as Ming or sans-serif typefaces for body text. Regular script typefaces are often used to teach students Chinese characters, and often aim to match the standard forms of the region where they are meant to be used. Most typefaces in the Song dynasty were regular script typefaces which resembled a particular person's handwriting (e.g. the handwriting of Ouyang Xun, Yan Zhenqing, or Liu Gongquan), while most modern regular script typefaces tend toward anonymity and regularity.
What is the art of writing Chinese characters?
5726e6dff1498d1400e8ef64
Chinese calligraphy
48
False
What is one of the Four Arts of the Chinese Scholars?
5726e6dff1498d1400e8ef65
Chinese calligraphy
124
False
What is not required?
5726e6dff1498d1400e8ef66
strict regularity
560
False
The art of writing Chinese characters is called Chinese calligraphy. It is usually done with ink brushes. In ancient China, Chinese calligraphy is one of the Four Arts of the Chinese Scholars. There is a minimalist set of rules of Chinese calligraphy. Every character from the Chinese scripts is built into a uniform shape by means of assigning it a geometric area in which the character must occur. Each character has a set number of brushstrokes; none must be added or taken away from the character to enhance it visually, lest the meaning be lost. Finally, strict regularity is not required, meaning the strokes may be accentuated for dramatic effect of individual style. Calligraphy was the means by which scholars could mark their thoughts and teachings for immortality, and as such, represent some of the more precious treasures that can be found from ancient China.
What script is used informally?
5726e74b708984140094d559
cursive
4
False
What are suggested, rather than explicitly realized?
5726e74b708984140094d55a
basic character shapes
85
False
What script is derived from the cursive script?
5726e74b708984140094d55b
Japanese hiragana script
616
False
The cursive script (草書(书), cǎoshū, literally "grass script") is used informally. The basic character shapes are suggested, rather than explicitly realized, and the abbreviations are sometimes extreme. Despite being cursive to the point where individual strokes are no longer differentiable and the characters often illegible to the untrained eye, this script (also known as draft) is highly revered for the beauty and freedom that it embodies. Some of the simplified Chinese characters adopted by the People's Republic of China, and some simplified characters used in Japan, are derived from the cursive script. The Japanese hiragana script is also derived from this script.
What script is only used in artistic seals?
5726e7c5dd62a815002e949e
seal
370
False
What script is the oldest and still in use today?
5726e7c5dd62a815002e949f
Seal
175
False
Who work in the style of carving a traditional seal in the script?
5726e7c5dd62a815002e94a0
calligraphers
579
False
The Shang dynasty oracle bone script and the Zhou dynasty scripts found on Chinese bronze inscriptions are no longer used; the oldest script that is still in use today is the Seal Script (篆書(书), zhuànshū). It evolved organically out of the Spring and Autumn period Zhou script, and was adopted in a standardized form under the first Emperor of China, Qin Shi Huang. The seal script, as the name suggests, is now used only in artistic seals. Few people are still able to read it effortlessly today, although the art of carving a traditional seal in the script remains alive; some calligraphers also work in this style.
What are also known as "traditional"?
5726e8765951b619008f821b
characters in the Hong Kong standard and the Kangxi Dictionary
637
False
What is usually more similar to traditional Chinese characters?
5726e8765951b619008f821c
jōyō kanji
334
False
What is commonly used in Taiwan?
5726e8765951b619008f821d
Table of General Standard Chinese Characters
155
False
The following is a comparison of Chinese characters in the Standard Form of National Characters, a common traditional Chinese standard used in Taiwan, the Table of General Standard Chinese Characters, the standard for Mainland Chinese simplified Chinese characters, and the jōyō kanji, the standard for Japanese kanji. Generally, the jōyō kanji are more similar to traditional Chinese characters than simplified Chinese characters are to traditional Chinese characters. "Simplified" refers to having significant differences from the Taiwan standard, not necessarily being a newly created character or a newly performed substitution. The characters in the Hong Kong standard and the Kangxi Dictionary are also known as "Traditional," but are not shown.
What did the Japanese government institute?
5726e90c708984140094d591
series of orthographic reforms
75
False
What was restricted?
5726e90c708984140094d592
The number of characters in common use
283
False
When was the 2136 character reformed?
5726e90c708984140094d593
2010
592
False
In the years after World War II, the Japanese government also instituted a series of orthographic reforms. Some characters were given simplified forms called shinjitai 新字体 (lit. "new character forms", the older forms were then labelled the kyūjitai 旧字体, lit. "old character forms"). The number of characters in common use was restricted, and formal lists of characters to be learned during each grade of school were established, first the 1850-character tōyō kanji 当用漢字 list in 1945, the 1945-character jōyō kanji 常用漢字 list in 1981, and a 2136-character reformed version of the jōyō kanji in 2010. Many variant forms of characters and obscure alternatives for common characters were officially discouraged. This was done with the goal of facilitating learning for children and simplifying kanji use in literature and periodicals. These are simply guidelines, hence many characters outside these standards are still widely known and commonly used, especially those used for personal and place names (for the latter, see jinmeiyō kanji),[citation needed] as well as for some common words such as "dragon" (Japanese kana: たつ, Rōmaji: tatsu) in which both the shinjitai 竜 and the kyūjitai 龍 forms of the kanji are both acceptable and widely known amongst native Japanese speakers.
What are drawn from conventional abbreviated forms?
5726e991708984140094d59f
majority of simplified characters
4
False
What was written with the structure in the clerical script?
5726e991708984140094d5a0
orthodox character
129
False
What script uses one fewer stroke?
5726e991708984140094d5a1
clerical script
203
False
The majority of simplified characters are drawn from conventional abbreviated forms, or ancient standard forms. For example, the orthodox character 來 lái ("come") was written with the structure 来 in the clerical script (隶书 / 隸書, lìshū) of the Han dynasty. This clerical form uses one fewer stroke, and was thus adopted as a simplified form. The character 雲 yún ("cloud") was written with the structure 云 in the oracle bone script of the Shang dynasty, and had remained in use later as a phonetic loan in the meaning of "to say" while the 雨 radical was added to differentiate meanings. The simplified form adopts the original structure.
Who issued its first round of character simplifications in two documents?
5726e9e75951b619008f8251
The People's Republic of China
0
False
When was a second round announced?
5726e9e75951b619008f8252
1977
274
False
How was the second round received?
5726e9e75951b619008f8253
poorly
287
False
The People's Republic of China issued its first round of official character simplifications in two documents, the first in 1956 and the second in 1964. A second round of character simplifications (known as erjian, or "second round simplified characters") was promulgated in 1977. It was poorly received, and in 1986 the authorities rescinded the second round completely, while making six revisions to the 1964 list, including the restoration of three traditional characters that had been simplified: 叠 dié, 覆 fù, 像 xiàng.
What almost always includes character simplification?
5726ea59dd62a815002e9514
Caoshu
130
False
What is Caoshu?
5726ea59dd62a815002e9515
cursive written text
138
False
When did discussions of character simplification take place?
5726ea59dd62a815002e9516
In the 1930s and 1940s
298
False
Although most often associated with the People's Republic of China, character simplification predates the 1949 communist victory. Caoshu, cursive written text, almost always includes character simplification, and simplified forms have always existed in print, albeit not for the most formal works. In the 1930s and 1940s, discussions on character simplification took place within the Kuomintang government, and a large number of Chinese intellectuals and writers have long maintained that character simplification would help boost literacy in China. Indeed, this desire by the Kuomintang to simplify the Chinese writing system (inherited and implemented by the Communist Party of China) also nursed aspirations of some for the adoption of a phonetic script based on the Latin script, and spawned such inventions as the Gwoyeu Romatzyh.
What varies greatly?
5726eac8dd62a815002e9524
The use of traditional Chinese characters versus simplified Chinese characters
0
False
What were mandatory in printed works?
5726eac8dd62a815002e9525
Orthodox variants
308
False
What were adopted for use in mainland China?
5726eac8dd62a815002e9526
Chinese characters
590
False
The use of traditional Chinese characters versus simplified Chinese characters varies greatly, and can depend on both the local customs and the medium. Before the official reform, character simplifications were not officially sanctioned and generally adopted vulgar variants and idiosyncratic substitutions. Orthodox variants were mandatory in printed works, while the (unofficial) simplified characters would be used in everyday writing or quick notes. Since the 1950s, and especially with the publication of the 1964 list, the People's Republic of China has officially adopted simplified Chinese characters for use in mainland China, while Hong Kong, Macau, and the Republic of China (Taiwan) were not affected by the reform. There is no absolute rule for using either system, and often it is determined by what the target audience understands, as well as the upbringing of the writer.
Who is John Gulick?
5726eb3e708984140094d5ed
Rev
17
False
Who constantly selected unaspirated characters?
5726eb3e708984140094d5ee
Mongols, Manchu, and Japanese
308
False
Who have followed this method?
5726eb3e708984140094d5ef
Muslims from Arabia and Persia
245
False
According to the Rev. John Gulick: "The inhabitants of other Asiatic nations, who have had occasion to represent the words of their several languages by Chinese characters, have as a rule used unaspirated characters for the sounds, g, d, b. The Muslims from Arabia and Persia have followed this method … The Mongols, Manchu, and Japanese also constantly select unaspirated characters to represent the sounds g, d, b, and j of their languages. These surrounding Asiatic nations, in writing Chinese words in their own alphabets, have uniformly used g, d, b, & c., to represent the unaspirated sounds."
What is now limited to ceremonial uses?
5726ec1cf1498d1400e8efec
Chinese characters in Vietnam
9
False
What were once in widespread use?
5726ec1cf1498d1400e8efed
Chinese characters in Vietnam
9
False
What was used in schooling?
5726ec1cf1498d1400e8efee
Literary Chinese
139
False
Although Chinese characters in Vietnam are now limited to ceremonial uses, they were once in widespread use. Until the early 20th century, Literary Chinese was used in Vietnam for all official and scholarly writing. Around the 13th century the Nôm script was developed to record folk literature in the Vietnamese language. The script used Chinese characters to represent both borrowed Sino-Vietnamese vocabulary and native words with similar pronunciation or meaning. In addition thousands of new compound characters were created to write Vietnamese words. This process resulted in a highly complex system that was never mastered by more than 5% of the population. Both Literary Chinese and Nôm were replaced in the early 20th century by Vietnamese written with the Latin-based Vietnamese alphabet.
When did the second ruler of North Korea pass away?
5726ec71708984140094d635
December 2011
60
False
Who stepped up after 2011?
5726ec71708984140094d636
Kim Jong Un
75
False
Who began moderating the use of Hanja?
5726ec71708984140094d637
Kim Jong Un
75
False
After Kim Jong Il, the second ruler of North Korea, died in December 2011, Kim Jong Un stepped up and began mandating the use of Hanja as a source of definition for the Korean language. Currently, it is said that North Korea teaches around 3,000 Hanja characters to North Korean students, and in some cases, the characters appear within advertisements and newspapers. However, it is also said that the authorities implore students not to use the characters in public. Due to North Korea's strict isolationism, accurate reports about hanja use in North Korea are hard to obtain.
What are students taught to memorize?
5726ecd2dd62a815002e956c
native Korean pronunciation for the hanja's meaning
70
False
What is name of the hanja?
5726ecd2dd62a815002e956d
mul-su
383
False
What is the Korean pronunciation of water?
5726ecd2dd62a815002e956e
mul
403
False
When learning how to write hanja, students are taught to memorize the native Korean pronunciation for the hanja's meaning and the Sino-Korean pronunciations (the pronunciation based on the Chinese pronunciation of the characters) for each hanja respectively so that students know what the syllable and meaning is for a particular hanja. For example, the name for the hanja 水 is 물 수 (mul-su) in which 물 (mul) is the native Korean pronunciation for "water", while 수 (su) is the Sino-Korean pronunciation of the character. The naming of hanja is similar to if "water" were named "water-aqua", "horse-equus", or "gold-aurum" based on a hybridization of both the English and the Latin names. Other examples include 사람 인 (saram-in) for 人 "person/people", 큰 대 (keun-dae) for 大 "big/large//great", 작을 소 (jakeul-so) for 小 "small/little", 아래 하 (arae-ha) for 下 "underneath/below/low", 아비 부 (abi-bu) for 父 "father", and 나라이름 한 (naraimreum-han) for 韓 "Han/Korea".
What is still being used according to experts?
5726ed3ddd62a815002e9572
Hanja
94
False
What is used in situations where ambiguity must be avoided?
5726ed3ddd62a815002e9573
Hanja
283
False
What is considered a location with a high level of ambiguity?
5726ed3ddd62a815002e9574
weddings
159
False
There is a clear trend toward the exclusive use of hangul in day-to-day South Korean society. Hanja are still used to some extent, particularly in newspapers, weddings, place names and calligraphy (although it is nowhere near the extent of kanji use in day-to-day Japanese society). Hanja is also extensively used in situations where ambiguity must be avoided,[citation needed] such as academic papers, high-level corporate reports, government documents, and newspapers; this is due to the large number of homonyms that have resulted from extensive borrowing of Chinese words.
What was the dominant form of written communication?
5726eda2f1498d1400e8f016
Literary Chinese
49
False
What is treated as being conservative and confucian?
5726eda2f1498d1400e8f017
Chinese characters
877
False
What comes directly from China?
5726eda2f1498d1400e8f018
science and sociology
220
False
In times past, until the 15th century, in Korea, Literary Chinese was the dominant form of written communication, prior to the creation of hangul, the Korean alphabet. Much of the vocabulary, especially in the realms of science and sociology, comes directly from Chinese, comparable to Latin or Greek root words in European languages. However, due to the lack of tones in Korean,[citation needed] as the words were imported from Chinese, many dissimilar characters took on identical sounds, and subsequently identical spelling in hangul.[citation needed] Chinese characters are sometimes used to this day for either clarification in a practical manner, or to give a distinguished appearance, as knowledge of Chinese characters is considered a high class attribute and an indispensable part of a classical education.[citation needed] It is also observed that the preference for Chinese characters is treated as being conservative and Confucian.
What also includes a pair of syllabaries?
5726edf5f1498d1400e8f02c
Written Japanese
0
False
Why do the syllabaries differ?
5726edf5f1498d1400e8f02d
they sometimes selected different characters for a syllable
186
False
What uses a composite system?
5726edf5f1498d1400e8f02e
Modern Japanese writing
481
False
Written Japanese also includes a pair of syllabaries known as kana, derived by simplifying Chinese characters selected to represent syllables of Japanese. The syllabaries differ because they sometimes selected different characters for a syllable, and because they used different strategies to reduce these characters for easy writing: the angular katakana were obtained by selecting a part of each character, while hiragana were derived from the cursive forms of whole characters. Modern Japanese writing uses a composite system, using kanji for word stems, hiragana for inflexional endings and grammatical words, and katakana to transcribe non-Chinese loanwords as well as serve as a method to emphasize native words (similar to how italics are used in Romance languages).
What has been promoted as a justification for spelling reforms?
5726ee93708984140094d65f
literacy
791
False
Character simplification predated the republic's formation in what year?
5726ee93708984140094d660
1949
238
False
Who issued the first round of official characters?
5726ee93708984140094d661
The People's Republic of China
859
False
Although most of the simplified Chinese characters in use today are the result of the works moderated by the government of the People's Republic of China in the 1950s and 60s, character simplification predates the republic's formation in 1949. One of the earliest proponents of character simplification was Lufei Kui, who proposed in 1909 that simplified characters should be used in education. In the years following the May Fourth Movement in 1919, many anti-imperialist Chinese intellectuals sought ways to modernise China. In the 1930s and 1940s, discussions on character simplification took place within the Kuomintang government, and many Chinese intellectuals and writers have long maintained that character simplification would help boost literacy in China. In many world languages, literacy has been promoted as a justification for spelling reforms. The People's Republic of China issued its first round of official character simplifications in two documents, the first in 1956 and the second in 1964. In the 1950s and 1960s, while confusion about simplified characters was still rampant, transitional characters that mixed simplified parts with yet-to-be simplified parts of characters together appeared briefly, then disappeared.
Bermuda
The first known European explorer to reach Bermuda was of what nationality?
5726b9e55951b619008f7bfb
Spanish
55
False
What is the name of the first European explorer to reach Bermuda?
5726b9e55951b619008f7bfc
Juan de Bermúdez
75
False
What animal did the Spaniards or other Europeans bring to the island that then became wild inhabitants?
5726b9e55951b619008f7bfd
pigs
561
False
What company permanently settled Bermuda?
5726b9e55951b619008f7bfe
the English Virginia Company
671
False
Who was the first known European explorer to reach Bermuda?
572907353f37b31900477fa1
Juan de Bermúdez
75
False
In what year did Jaun de Bermudez first reach Bermuda?
572907353f37b31900477fa2
1503
95
False
How many times did Bermudez visit the archipelago?
572907353f37b31900477fa3
two
212
False
What animal are European parties responsible for releasing in Bermuda?
572907353f37b31900477fa4
pigs
561
False
In what year did the English Virginia Company settle permanently in Bermuda?
572907353f37b31900477fa5
1609
665
False
Juan de Bermúdez
75
Who first reached Bermuda in 1305?
5ad3dcbf604f3c001a3ff415
True
Juan de Bermúdez
75
Who landed on the archipelago in 1503?
5ad3dcbf604f3c001a3ff416
True
Portuguese mariners
347
Who was responsible for the 1534 inscription in Portuguese Rock?
5ad3dcbf604f3c001a3ff417
True
English Virginia Company,
675
Who settled in Bermuda in 1690?
5ad3dcbf604f3c001a3ff418
True
English Virginia Company
675
Who settled in Jamestown in 1609?
5ad3dcbf604f3c001a3ff419
True
The first known European explorer to reach Bermuda was Spanish sea captain Juan de Bermúdez in 1503, after whom the islands are named. He claimed the apparently uninhabited islands for the Spanish Empire. Paying two visits to the archipelago, Bermúdez never landed on the islands, but did create a recognisable map of the archipelago. Shipwrecked Portuguese mariners are now thought to have been responsible for the 1543 inscription in Portuguese Rock (previously called Spanish Rock). Subsequent Spanish or other European parties are believed to have released pigs there, which had become feral and abundant on the island by the time European settlement began. In 1609, the English Virginia Company, which had established Jamestown in Virginia (a term originally applied to all of the North American continent) two years earlier, permanently settled Bermuda in the aftermath of a hurricane, when the crew and passengers of the Sea Venture steered the ship onto the surrounding reef to prevent its sinking, then landed ashore.
What is the capital of Bermuda?
5726bc235951b619008f7c69
St. George's
668
False
What spin-off company took over operations in Bermuda in 1615?
5726bc235951b619008f7c6a
Somers Isles Company
101
False
In what year did Bermuda enter British rule?
5726bc235951b619008f7c6b
1707
323
False
What is the name of the company that managed the colony from 1615-1684?
5729083a3f37b31900477fb5
the Somers Isles Company
97
False
In what year did the islands become a British colony?
5729083a3f37b31900477fb6
1707
323
False
What event occured that automatically ranked Bermuda as the oldest remaining British Overseas Territory?
5729083a3f37b31900477fb7
Newfoundland became part of Canada
445
False
What was Bermuda's first capital?
5729083a3f37b31900477fb8
St. George
668
False
Virginia
47
What company was the spin-off of Somers Isles Company?
5ad3e11b604f3c001a3ff4fb
True
Somers Isles Company
101
Who took over the colony from Virginia in 1614?
5ad3e11b604f3c001a3ff4fc
True
Somers Isles Company
101
Who managed the colony until 1648?
5ad3e11b604f3c001a3ff4fd
True
The islands became a British colony
273
What happened in 1770?
5ad3e11b604f3c001a3ff4fe
True
1997
608
When was China returned to Hong Kong?
5ad3e11b604f3c001a3ff4ff
True
The island was administered as an extension of Virginia by the Company until 1614. Its spin-off, the Somers Isles Company, took over in 1615 and managed the colony until 1684. At that time, the company's charter was revoked, and the English Crown took over administration. The islands became a British colony following the 1707 unification of the parliaments of Scotland and England, which created the Kingdom of Great Britain. After 1949, when Newfoundland became part of Canada, Bermuda was automatically ranked as the oldest remaining British Overseas Territory. Since the return of Hong Kong to China in 1997, it is the most populous Territory. Its first capital, St. George's, was established in 1612 and is the oldest continuously inhabited English town in the New World.
What two business drive Bermuda's economy?
5726bd08dd62a815002e8eda
offshore insurance and reinsurance, and tourism
30
False
What type of climate does Bermuda have?
5726bd08dd62a815002e8edb
subtropical
304
False
Bermuda stands as a northern point in what susposed area of strange activity and disappearances?
5726bd08dd62a815002e8edc
Bermuda Triangle
366
False
What protects the island from storms?
5726bd08dd62a815002e8edd
coral reef that surrounds the island
688
False
What are Bermuda's largest economic sectors?
572909451d04691400778fab
insurance and reinsurance, and tourism
39
False
What occurance is the greatest factor affecting Bermuda's economy?
572909451d04691400778fac
global recession
277
False
Why is the Bermuda Triangle an area of interest?
572909451d04691400778fad
a number of aircraft and surface vessels have disappeared under supposedly unexplained or mysterious circumstances.
431
False
Why is the island safe from full hurricane devastation?
572909451d04691400778fae
protected from the full force of a hurricane by the coral reef that surrounds the island.
636
False
What is the climate of Bermuda?
572909451d04691400778faf
subtropical
304
False
Bermuda
113
Who had the highest GDP per capita during the 20th century?
5ad3e4e5604f3c001a3ff58f
True
Bermuda
325
What is the Bermuda Triangle the northernmost point of?
5ad3e4e5604f3c001a3ff590
True
number of aircraft and surface vessels have disappeared under supposedly unexplained or mysterious circumstances.
433
What is the legend associated with Bermuda?
5ad3e4e5604f3c001a3ff591
True
insurance and reinsurance,
39
What is Bermuda's economy based on in addition to offshore tourism?
5ad3e4e5604f3c001a3ff592
True
Bermuda's economy is based on offshore insurance and reinsurance, and tourism, the two largest economic sectors. Bermuda had one of the world's highest GDP per capita for most of the 20th century and several years beyond. Recently, its economic status has been affected by the global recession. It has a subtropical climate. Bermuda is the northernmost point of the Bermuda Triangle, a region of sea in which, according to legend, a number of aircraft and surface vessels have disappeared under supposedly unexplained or mysterious circumstances. The island is in the hurricane belt and prone to severe weather. However, it is somewhat protected from the full force of a hurricane by the coral reef that surrounds the island.
Bermuda is located in what ocean?
5726be76f1498d1400e8e9e6
Atlantic Ocean
59
False
Bermuda is on the western fringe of what Sea?
5726be76f1498d1400e8e9e7
Sargasso Sea
104
False
Travel from Puerto Rico to Bermuda would be in which direction?
5726be76f1498d1400e8e9e8
north
578
False
Travel from Portugal to Bermuda would be in which direction?
5726be76f1498d1400e8e9e9
west
557
False
Travel from South Carolina to Bermuda would be in which direction?
5726be76f1498d1400e8e9ea
due east
515
False
What natural features compose Bermuda?
57290ad81d04691400778fbf
low-forming volcanoes
22
False
In what major ocean is Bermuda located?
57290ad81d04691400778fc0
Atlantic Ocean
59
False
Bermuda is located 898 nautical miles from what US city?
57290ad81d04691400778fc1
Miami
392
False
Bermuda is closest (in nautical miles) to which US state?
57290ad81d04691400778fc2
North Carolina
219
False
Atlantic Ocean
59
What ocean formed Bermuda?
5ad3e5ce604f3c001a3ff5ab
True
Sargasso Sea
104
What sea does Bermuda lie in?
5ad3e5ce604f3c001a3ff5ac
True
578
126
How many nautical kilomteters is Bermuda from Cape Hatteras?
5ad3e5ce604f3c001a3ff5ad
True
898
338
How many nautical kilometers is Bermuda from Miami, Florida?
5ad3e5ce604f3c001a3ff5ae
True
Fripp Island
527
What do the islands lie due west of?
5ad3e5ce604f3c001a3ff5af
True
Bermuda is a group of low-forming volcanoes located in the Atlantic Ocean, near the western edge of the Sargasso Sea, roughly 578 nautical miles (1,070 km (665 mi)) east-southeast of Cape Hatteras on the Outer Banks of North Carolina and about 594 nautical miles (1,100 km (684 mi)) southeast of Martha's Vineyard of Massachusetts. It is 898 nautical miles (1,664 km (1,034 mi)) northeast of Miami, Florida, and 667 nautical miles (1,236 km (768 mi)) from Cape Sable Island, in Nova Scotia, Canada. The islands lie due east of Fripp Island, South Carolina, west of Portugal and north of Puerto Rico.
What is the limestone cap of the seamount made from?
5726c1825951b619008f7d51
marine organisms
378
False
During the ice age, what area of land was above water?
5726c1825951b619008f7d52
approximately two hundred square miles
481
False
Has the seamount always been above sealevel?
5726c1825951b619008f7d53
The top of the seamount has gone through periods of complete submergence
259
False
What type of volcano forms the archipelago?
572931113f37b319004780c9
a submarine volcano
70
False
Why is the top of the seamount formed by marine organisms?
572931113f37b319004780ca
periods of complete submergence,
300
False
What was the result of the whole cladera being above sea level during the Ice Ages?
572931113f37b319004780cb
an island
468
False
The submarine volcano was formed as part of the same proces as what two things?
572931113f37b319004780cc
the floor of the Atlantic, and the Mid-Atlantic Ridge
204
False
during the Ice Ages
400
When was the caldera partially above sea level?
5ad3e9c6604f3c001a3ff6a3
True
the Mid-Atlantic Ridge
235
What is the volcano part of?
5ad3e9c6604f3c001a3ff6a4
True
the caldera
55
What did the Mid-Atlantic Ridge form?
5ad3e9c6604f3c001a3ff6a5
True
archipelago
4
What does the seamount form?
5ad3e9c6604f3c001a3ff6a6
True
The archipelago is formed by high points on the rim of the caldera of a submarine volcano that forms a seamount. The volcano is one part of a range that was formed as part of the same process that formed the floor of the Atlantic, and the Mid-Atlantic Ridge. The top of the seamount has gone through periods of complete submergence, during which its limestone cap was formed by marine organisms, and during the Ice Ages the entire caldera was above sea level, forming an island of approximately two hundred square miles.
In the Bermuda land mass, how many islands are named "Long Island"?
5726c54d708984140094d0fb
two
79
False
In the Bermuda land mass, how many bays are named "Horseshoe Bay"?
5726c54d708984140094d0fc
two
179
False
In the Bermuda land mass, how many bays are named "Long Bay"?
5726c54d708984140094d0fd
three
110
False
Where can St. George's Town be found?
5726c54d708984140094d0fe
St George's Island within St George's Parish
438
False
What are three of the bays named?
572932133f37b319004780e5
Long Bay
127
False
What name do the bays in Southampton and Morgan's Point share?
572932133f37b319004780e6
Horseshoe
183
False
St. George's Town, St. George's Island and St. George's Parish are all referred to as what?
572932133f37b319004780e7
St George's
498
False
What is the name of the Parish located in the City of Hamilton?
572932133f37b319004780e8
Hamilton Parish
523
False
two islands
79
How many islands are named Bay Island?
5ad3ec02604f3c001a3ff751
True
three bays
110
How many bays are named Island Bay?
5ad3ec02604f3c001a3ff752
True
two
179
How many bays are named Khyber Bay?
5ad3ec02604f3c001a3ff753
True
two
305
How many roads are named Horseshoe Pass?
5ad3ec02604f3c001a3ff754
True
Despite the small land mass, place names are repeated; there are, for example, two islands named Long Island, three bays named Long Bay (on Somerset, Main, and Cooper's islands), two Horseshoe Bays (one in Southampton, on the Main Island, the other at Morgan's Point, formerly Tucker's Island), there are two roads through cuttings called Khyber Pass (one in Warwick, the other in St. George's Parish), and St George's Town is located on St George's Island within St George's Parish (each known as St George's). There is a Hamilton Parish in addition to the City of Hamilton (which is in Pembroke Parish).
What directional shore of Bermuda is home to the majority of its hotels?
5726c6f1dd62a815002e8ff6
the south shore of the island
136
False
Bermuda's coral reefs, shipwrecks, and shallow waters are great for what activity in particular?
5726c6f1dd62a815002e8ff7
Scuba
300
False
Historic St. George's has been given what distinction?
5726c6f1dd62a815002e8ff8
World Heritage Site
279
False
What odd color of sand draws tourists to Bermuda's beaches?
5726c6f1dd62a815002e8ff9
pink
10
False
What makes Bermuda a popular tourist destination?
572932f2af94a219006aa17b
pink sand beaches and clear, cerulean blue ocean waters
10
False
Where are the majority of Bermuda's hotels?
572932f2af94a219006aa17c
south shore of the island
140
False
What has St. George been designated as?
572932f2af94a219006aa17d
World Heritage Site
279
False
Why are divers attracted to Bermuda?
572932f2af94a219006aa17e
numerous wrecks and coral reefs in relatively shallow water
325
False
Why is Bermuda a great place for snorkellers?
572932f2af94a219006aa17f
Many nearby reefs are readily accessible from shore
463
False
Many of Bermuda's hotels
93
What are located along the shore of the coral reefs?
5ad3f3fd604f3c001a3ff923
True
World Heritage Site
279
What is Bermuda designated as?
5ad3f3fd604f3c001a3ff924
True
numerous wrecks and coral reefs
325
What can be explored in 9-12 ft of water?
5ad3f3fd604f3c001a3ff925
True
numerous wrecks and coral reefs
325
What can be explored in 30-40 m of water?
5ad3f3fd604f3c001a3ff926
True
Bermuda's pink sand beaches and clear, cerulean blue ocean waters are popular with tourists. Many of Bermuda's hotels are located along the south shore of the island. In addition to its beaches, there are a number of sightseeing attractions. Historic St George's is a designated World Heritage Site. Scuba divers can explore numerous wrecks and coral reefs in relatively shallow water (typically 30–40 ft or 9–12 m in depth), with virtually unlimited visibility. Many nearby reefs are readily accessible from shore by snorkellers, especially at Church Bay.
The only indigenous mammals of Bermuda are five species of what animal?
5726c788dd62a815002e9008
bats
59
False
What is the national bird of Bermuda?
5726c788dd62a815002e9009
Bermuda petrel or cahow
302
False
What animal was believe to be the only land vertebrate of Bermuda?
5726c788dd62a815002e900a
Bermuda rock skink
549
False
What animal was found, through DNA testing, to pre-date the arrival of humans to the archipelago?
5726c788dd62a815002e900b
diamondback terrapin
808
False
What are the only native mammals found in Bermuda?
5729340aaf94a219006aa185
bats
59
False
What is the national bird of Bermuda?
5729340aaf94a219006aa186
Bermuda petrel or cahow
302
False
Why is the National bird of importance?
5729340aaf94a219006aa187
example of a Lazarus species
428
False
What animal has held the title of Bermuda's only native land vertabrate?
5729340aaf94a219006aa188
Bermuda rock skink
549
False
Why is there a debate as to dubbing the diamondback terrapin the oldest indigenous land vertebrate?
5729340aaf94a219006aa189
this species spends most of its time in brackish ponds
929
False
bats,
59
What is one of five indigenous mammals of Bermuda?
5ad3f5a5604f3c001a3ff999
True
eastern
100
What portion of Bermuda are bats found?
5ad3f5a5604f3c001a3ff99a
True
1951
350
When was Bermuda's national bird first discovered?
5ad3f5a5604f3c001a3ff99b
True
Bermuda petrel
302
What went extinct in 1620?
5ad3f5a5604f3c001a3ff99c
True
diamondback terrapin
808
What species of turtle was introduced in Bermuda?
5ad3f5a5604f3c001a3ff99d
True
The only indigenous mammals of Bermuda are five species of bats, all of which are also found in the eastern United States: Lasionycteris noctivagans, Lasiurus borealis, Lasiurus cinereus, Lasiurus seminolus and Perimyotis subflavus. Other commonly known fauna of Bermuda include its national bird, the Bermuda petrel or cahow. It was rediscovered in 1951 after having been thought extinct since the 1620s. It is important as an example of a Lazarus species. The government has a programme to protect it, including restoration of a habitat area. The Bermuda rock skink was long thought to have been the only indigenous land vertebrate of Bermuda, discounting the marine turtles that lay their eggs on its beaches. Recently through genetic DNA studies, scientists have discovered that a species of turtle, the diamondback terrapin, previously thought to have been introduced, pre-dated the arrival of humans in the archipelago. As this species spends most of its time in brackish ponds, some question whether it should be classified as a land vertebrate to compete with the skink's unique status.
When did Bermuda have a large amount of people immigrating to it?
572935a41d04691400779177
20th century, especially after the Second World War.
56
False
Where are the largest group of non-native people in Bermuda from?
572935a41d04691400779178
Britain
696
False
According to census result, there was the greatest decline in people claiming what ancestry?
572935a41d04691400779179
Bermudian
518
False
Which cultural group can claim 79% residency?
572935a41d0469140077917a
Portuguese
980
False
20th century
56
During what century was the diverse immigration?
5ad3f69b604f3c001a3ff9ed
True
Bermudian ancestry
518
What did 46% of the population identify as in 2000?
5ad3f69b604f3c001a3ff9ee
True
Bermudian ancestry
518
What did 51% of the population identify as in 2010?
5ad3f69b604f3c001a3ff9ef
True
those born in Britain
682
What group has 3,924 persons?
5ad3f69b604f3c001a3ff9f0
True
people born in the West Indies
876
What group of people increased by 583?
5ad3f69b604f3c001a3ff9f1
True
The island experienced large-scale immigration over the 20th century, especially after the Second World War. Bermuda has a diverse population including both those with relatively deep roots in Bermuda extending back for centuries, and newer communities whose ancestry results from recent immigration, especially from Britain, North America, the West Indies, and the Portuguese Atlantic islands (especially the Azores), although these groups are steadily merging. About 46% of the population identified themselves with Bermudian ancestry in 2010, which was a decrease from the 51% who did so in the 2000 census. Those identifying with British ancestry dropped by 1% to 11% (although those born in Britain remain the largest non-native group at 3,942 persons). The number of people born in Canada declined by 13%. Those who reported West Indian ancestry were 13%. The number of people born in the West Indies actually increased by 538. A significant segment of the population is of Portuguese ancestry (10%), the result of immigration over the past 160 years, of whom 79% have residency status.
There is no distinction between what two ethnicities of Bermudians?
57293c133f37b31900478147
black and white
182
False
Which ethnicity claimed the majority in Bermuda during the 17th century?
57293c133f37b31900478148
white Protestants of English heritage
353
False
Anyone in Bermuda that is not considered 100% of European heritage is referred to as what?
57293c133f37b31900478149
coloured
1339
False
Why is it problematic that the "coloured" population of Bermuda is now referred to as "black" or "African heritage"?
57293c133f37b3190047814a
obscures their non-African heritage
1695
False
There has been a double in the population of people born in which country?
57293c133f37b3190047814b
Asian
1921
False
black and white Bermudians
182
What groups of Bermudians is there an ethnic distinction between?
5ad3f96a604f3c001a3ffab9
True
white Protestants of English heritage
353
Who was the distinct majority for the first 17 years of the settlement?
5ad3f96a604f3c001a3ffaba
True
Irish
444
Who was the minority for the first 17 years of the settlement?
5ad3f96a604f3c001a3ffabb
True
white ethnically-English Bermudians
988
Who lost their numerical advantage by the 17th century?
5ad3f96a604f3c001a3ffabc
True
number of persons born in Asian countries
1895
What group of people doubled in population in the year 2000?
5ad3f96a604f3c001a3ffabd
True
The deeper ancestral demography of Bermuda's population has been obscured by the ethnic homogenisation of the last four centuries. There is effectively no ethnic distinction between black and white Bermudians, other than those characterising recent immigrant communities. In the 17th century, this was not so. For the first hundred years of settlement, white Protestants of English heritage were the distinct majority, with white minorities of Irish (the native language of many of whom can be assumed to have been Gaelic) and Scots sent to Bermuda after the English invasions of their homelands that followed the English Civil War. Non-white minorities included Spanish-speaking, free (indentured) blacks from the West Indies, black chattel slaves primarily captured from Spanish and Portuguese ships by Bermudian privateers, and Native Americans, primarily from the Algonquian and other tribes of the Atlantic seaboard, but possibly from as far away as Mexico. By the 19th century, the white ethnically-English Bermudians had lost their numerical advantage. Despite the banning of the importation of Irish, and the repeated attempts to force free blacks to emigrate and the owners of black slaves to export them, the merging of the various minority groups, along with some of the white English, had resulted in a new demographic group, "coloured" (which term, in Bermuda, referred to anyone not wholly of European ancestry) Bermudians, gaining a slight majority. Any child born before or since then to one coloured and one white parent has been added to the coloured statistic. Most of those historically described as "coloured" are today described as "black", or "of African heritage", which obscures their non-African heritage (those previously described as "coloured" who were not of African ancestry had been very few, though the numbers of South Asians, particularly, is now growing. The number of persons born in Asian countries doubled between the 2000 and the 2010 censuses), blacks have remained in the majority, with new white immigration from Portugal, Britain and elsewhere countered by black immigration from the West Indies.
What term is used to refer to the majority of black people in Bermuda?
57293e3baf94a219006aa1dd
Bermudian blacks
264
False
Why were so many blacks repeatedly being imported from Africa?
57293e3baf94a219006aa1de
conditions so harsh as to drop their birth rate below the death rate
570
False
Why can Bermudian blacks trace their ancestry back over centuries in Bermuda?
57293e3baf94a219006aa1df
Bermuda's black population was self-sustaining, with its growth resulting largely from natural expansion
376
False
What is one way that the ancestry of Bermudian black population differs from that of British West Indian black population?
57293e3baf94a219006aa1e0
the source of the African ancestry
1502
False
Bermuda's modern black population
0
What modern population contains one demographic group?
5ad3ff29604f3c001a3ffc77
True
the number of residents born in Africa
85
What tripled in 2000?
5ad3ff29604f3c001a3ffc78
True
slavery
359
What ended in 1843?
5ad3ff29604f3c001a3ffc79
True
Bermuda's black population
1311
What is the ancestry of the British West Indian black population?
5ad3ff29604f3c001a3ffc7a
True
the end of slavery
348
What happened in 1843?
5ad3ff29604f3c001a3ffc7b
True
Bermuda's modern black population contains more than one demographic group. Although the number of residents born in Africa is very small, it has tripled between 2000 and 2010 (this group also includes non-blacks). The majority of blacks in Bermuda can be termed "Bermudian blacks", whose ancestry dates back centuries between the 17th century and the end of slavery in 1834, Bermuda's black population was self-sustaining, with its growth resulting largely from natural expansion. This contrasts to the enslaved blacks of the plantation colonies, who were subjected to conditions so harsh as to drop their birth rate below the death rate, and slaveholders in the United States and the West Indies found it necessary to continue importing more enslaved blacks from Africa until the end of slavery (the same had been true for the Native Americans that the Africans had replaced on the New World plantations). The indigenous populations of many West Indian islands, and much of the South-East of what is now the United States that had survived the 16th- and 17th-century epidemics of European-introduced diseases then became the victims of large-scale slave raiding, with much of the region completely depopulated. When the supply of indigenous slaves ran out, the slaveholders looked to Africa). The ancestry of Bermuda's black population is distinguished from that of the British West Indian black population in two ways: firstly, the higher degree of European and Native American admixture; secondly, the source of the African ancestry.
Why is the black population in Bermuda different from that in the British West Indies and the United States?
57293faa6aef051400154be6
The first blacks to arrive in Bermuda in any numbers were free blacks from Spanish-speaking areas of the West Indies
266
False
Where did the Spanish and Portugese enslave most of their black people from?
57293faa6aef051400154be7
South-West Africa
540
False
What is one way we can show that black Bermudians are of different heritage than African Americans?
57293faa6aef051400154be8
Genetic studies
747
False
enslaved blacks brought across the Atlantic
84
Who came from Ghana?
5ad4005e604f3c001a3ffccb
True
Spanish
341
What language did the first blacks to arrive in Bermuda speak?
5ad4005e604f3c001a3ffccc
True
Spain and Portugal
487
Where did South-West Africa source most of their slaves?
5ad4005e604f3c001a3ffccd
True
black Bermudians
816
Who has ancestry very similar to that of the blacks of the United States?
5ad4005e604f3c001a3ffcce
True
black Bermudians
816
Who has ancestry that is distinctly different from the blacks of Latin America?
5ad4005e604f3c001a3ffccf
True
In the British West Indian islands (and also in the United States), the majority of enslaved blacks brought across the Atlantic came from West Africa (roughly between modern Senegal and Ghana). Very little of Bermuda's original black emigration came from this area. The first blacks to arrive in Bermuda in any numbers were free blacks from Spanish-speaking areas of the West Indies, and most of the remainder were recently enslaved Africans captured from the Spanish and Portuguese. As Spain and Portugal sourced most of their slaves from South-West Africa (the Portuguese through ports in modern-day Angola; the Spanish purchased most of their African slaves from Portuguese traders, and from Arabs whose slave trading was centred in Zanzibar). Genetic studies have consequently shown that the African ancestry of black Bermudians (other than those resulting from recent immigration from the British West Indian islands) is largely from the a band across southern Africa, from Angola to Mozambique, which is similar to what is revealed in Latin America, but distinctly different from the blacks of the West Indies and the United States.
What is one group that Bermuda's black population can link some of their ancestry to?
572940fe6aef051400154bfc
Native Americans
67
False
Residents of what particular area have awareness of this link to Native American heritage?
572940fe6aef051400154bfd
St David's Islanders
134
False
During what period were there hundreds of Native Americans shipped to Bermuda?
572940fe6aef051400154bfe
colonial period
217
False
Why was there a large population of Algonquian people in Bermuda?
572940fe6aef051400154bff
exiled from the southern New England colonies and sold into slavery
349
False
Bermuda's black population
8
Who do Native Americans trace most of their ancestry to?
5ad40102604f3c001a3ffcf9
True
colonial period
217
During what period were hundreds of St David's Islanders shipped to Bermuda?
5ad40102604f3c001a3ffcfa
True
Algonquian peoples
321
Who was exiled from the New England colonies?
5ad40102604f3c001a3ffcfb
True
Algonquian peoples
321
Who was sold into slavery during the King Philip war?
5ad40102604f3c001a3ffcfc
True
Most of Bermuda's black population trace some of their ancestry to Native Americans, although awareness of this is largely limited to St David's Islanders and most who have such ancestry are unaware of it. During the colonial period, hundreds of Native Americans were shipped to Bermuda. The best-known examples were the Algonquian peoples who were exiled from the southern New England colonies and sold into slavery in the 17th century, notably in the aftermaths of the Pequot and King Philip's wars.
What is considered the primary language of Bermuda?
572941d96aef051400154c10
English
227
False
What is a lesser spoken, secondary language in Bermuda?
572941d96aef051400154c11
Portuguese
310
False
What are the greatest influences to Bermudian culture?
572941d96aef051400154c12
British influences, together with Afro-Caribbean
484
False
Which cultures claim to be a dominant source of Bermuda's cultural heritage?
572941d96aef051400154c13
Native American, Spanish-Caribbean, English, Irish, and Scots
73
False
Bermuda's
0
Whose culture has a mix of its Spanish-American and Irish populations?
5ad4025e604f3c001a3ffd4f
True
Native American, Spanish-Caribbean, English, Irish, and Scots
73
What cultures were evident in the 16th century?
5ad4025e604f3c001a3ffd50
True
immigration from Portuguese Atlantic islands
293
What lasted for 170 years?
5ad4025e604f3c001a3ffd51
True
Portuguese
455
What do some speak because of 170 years of immigration?
5ad4025e604f3c001a3ffd52
True
Bermuda's culture is a mixture of the various sources of its population: Native American, Spanish-Caribbean, English, Irish, and Scots cultures were evident in the 17th century, and became part of the dominant British culture. English is the primary and official language. Due to 160 years of immigration from Portuguese Atlantic islands (primarily the Azores, though also from Madeira and the Cape Verde Islands), a portion of the population also speaks Portuguese. There are strong British influences, together with Afro-Caribbean ones.
What historical significance can the book The History of Mary Prince claim?
572942ed3f37b319004781c1
The first notable, and historically important, book credited to a Bermudian
0
False
What contribution to history is it believed the History of Mary Prince made?
572942ed3f37b319004781c2
thought to have contributed to the abolition of slavery in the British Empire
148
False
The majority of books published by local authors were of what nature?
572942ed3f37b319004781c3
scholarly
499
False
Which local author most recently enjoyed success for published works of fiction?
572942ed3f37b319004781c4
Angela Barry
659
False
The History of Mary Prince
80
What was the first book credited to a Bermudian?
5ad403ea604f3c001a3ffda3
True
Mary Prince
129
Who wrote The History of Prince Mary?
5ad403ea604f3c001a3ffda4
True
The History of Mary Prince
80
What is thought to have contributed to the abolition of slavery in Bermuda?
5ad403ea604f3c001a3ffda5
True
19th and 20th centuries
310
When did Graham Ernest Ingham publish books?
5ad403ea604f3c001a3ffda6
True
1931– 2010
574
During what years did Angela Barry live?
5ad403ea604f3c001a3ffda7
True
The first notable, and historically important, book credited to a Bermudian was The History of Mary Prince, a slave narrative by Mary Prince. It is thought to have contributed to the abolition of slavery in the British Empire. Ernest Graham Ingham, an expatriate author, published his books at the turn of the 19th and 20th centuries. In the 20th century, numerous books were written and published locally, though few were directed at a wider market than Bermuda. (The latter consisted primarily of scholarly works rather than creative writing). The novelist Brian Burland (1931– 2010) achieved a degree of success and acclaim internationally. More recently, Angela Barry has won critical recognition for her published fiction.
What type of painting are Bermuda artists known for?
572943d53f37b319004781d3
watercolours
8
False
What type of art work does Chesley Trott produce?
572943d53f37b319004781d4
Hand-carved cedar sculptures
77
False
What significant event does the sculpture The Arrival portray?
572943d53f37b319004781d5
the freeing of slaves from the American brig Enterprise in 1835
334
False
Who is one of Bermuda's most famous watercolourists?
572943d53f37b319004781d6
Alfred Birdsey
472
False
various galleries
58
Where are hand-carved cedar sculptures sold?
5ad404f5604f3c001a3ffdfb
True
Chesley Trott
193
Who created the 7 m sculpture installed at the airport?
5ad404f5604f3c001a3ffdfc
True
The Arrival
281
What sculpture was unveiled in 2001?
5ad404f5604f3c001a3ffdfd
True
the freeing of slaves from the American brig Enterprise
334
What 1853 does The Arrival commemorate?
5ad404f5604f3c001a3ffdfe
True
watercolourists
527
What is Birdsey Alfred's profession?
5ad404f5604f3c001a3ffdff
True
Bermuda watercolours painted by local artists are sold at various galleries. Hand-carved cedar sculptures are another speciality. One such 7 ft (2.1 m) sculpture, created by Bermudian sculptor Chesley Trott, is installed at the airport's baggage claim area. In 2010, his sculpture The Arrival was unveiled near the bay to commemorate the freeing of slaves from the American brig Enterprise in 1835. Local artwork may also be viewed at several galleries around the island. Alfred Birdsey was one of the more famous and talented watercolourists; his impressionistic landscapes of Hamilton, St George's and the surrounding sailboats, homes, and bays of Bermuda are world-renowned.
Who is credited with discovering Bermuda?
572944bbaf94a219006aa21b
Juan de Bermúdez
51
False
What did Spanish and Portugese ships use the islands for?
572944bbaf94a219006aa21c
a replenishment spot to take on fresh meat and water
273
False
What did early visitors attribute the noises of the islands to?
572944bbaf94a219006aa21d
spirits and devils,
344
False
Crazy noises from indigenous animals, frequent storms and hazardous reefs earned the islands what name?
572944bbaf94a219006aa21e
Isle of Devils
630
False
Bermuda
0
What was discovered in 1305?
5ad406fa604f3c001a3ffe87
True
Juan de Bermúdez
51
Who discovered Bermuda in 1305?
5ad406fa604f3c001a3ffe88
True
Legatio Babylonica
88
What was published in 1511 by Angleria de Pedro Martir?
5ad406fa604f3c001a3ffe89
True
Legatio Babylonica
88
When was Legatio Babylonica published by Pedro Angleria de Martir?
5ad406fa604f3c001a3ffe8a
True
Bermuda was discovered in 1503 by Spanish explorer Juan de Bermúdez. It is mentioned in Legatio Babylonica, published in 1511 by historian Pedro Mártir de Anglería, and was also included on Spanish charts of that year. Both Spanish and Portuguese ships used the islands as a replenishment spot to take on fresh meat and water. Legends arose of spirits and devils, now thought to have stemmed from the calls of raucous birds (most likely the Bermuda petrel, or Cahow) and the loud noise heard at night from wild hogs. Combined with the frequent storm-wracked conditions and the dangerous reefs, the archipelago became known as the Isle of Devils. Neither Spain nor Portugal tried to settle it.
Sir George Somers embarked on a mission to do what?
572946053f37b319004781eb
relieve the colony of Jamestown
266
False
The devastating wreck of the flotilla is said to have inspired what playwrite?
572946053f37b319004781ec
William Shakespeare
610
False
How long did Sommer's settlers stay in Bermuda?
572946053f37b319004781ed
10 months
825
False
Who did Sommer's claim the island for?
572946053f37b319004781ee
the English Crown
940
False
a colony at Jamestown, Virginia
15
What was established in 1706?
5ad407aa604f3c001a3ffeb1
True
Jamestown, Virginia
27
Where was a colony established in 1706?
5ad407aa604f3c001a3ffeb2
True
Governor of Jamestown
173
Who was Sir Thomas Somers?
5ad407aa604f3c001a3ffeb3
True
Company's Admiral
123
Who was Sir George Gates?
5ad407aa604f3c001a3ffeb4
True
flotilla was broken up by a storm
394
What did 229 passengers and a dog survive?
5ad407aa604f3c001a3ffeb5
True
It established a colony at Jamestown, Virginia, in 1607. Two years later, a flotilla of seven ships left England under the Company's Admiral, Sir George Somers, and the new Governor of Jamestown, Sir Thomas Gates, with several hundred settlers, food and supplies to relieve the colony of Jamestown. Somers had previous experience sailing with both Sir Francis Drake and Sir Walter Raleigh. The flotilla was broken up by a storm. As the flagship, the Sea Venture, was taking on water, Somers drove it onto Bermuda's reef and gained the shores safely with smaller boats – all 150 passengers and a dog survived. (William Shakespeare's play The Tempest, in which the character Ariel refers to the "still-vex'd Bermoothes" (I.ii.229), is thought to have been inspired by William Strachey's account of this shipwreck.) They stayed 10 months, starting a new settlement and building two small ships to sail to Jamestown. The island was claimed for the English Crown, and the charter of the Virginia Company was later extended to include it.
Who was one of the original survivor's to sail on to Jamestown.
572947026aef051400154c4c
John Rolfe
98
False
What is one of the main things John Rolfe is known for?
572947026aef051400154c4d
married Pocahontas
186
False
When did the English begin their intentional settlement of Bermuda?
572947026aef051400154c4e
1612,
338
False
What is St. George credited with?
572947026aef051400154c50
oldest continually inhabited English town in the New World.
521
False
all but three of the survivors of the Sea Venture sailed on to Jamestown
9
What happened in 1601?
5ad40858604f3c001a3ffee1
True
all but three of the survivors of the Sea Venture
9
Who sailed to Jamestown in 1601?
5ad40858604f3c001a3ffee2
True
Pocahontas,
194
Who did Rolfe John marry?
5ad40858604f3c001a3ffee3
True
the English began intentional settlement of Bermuda with the arrival of the ship Plough
344
What happened in 1621?
5ad40858604f3c001a3ffee4
True
English
348
Who began intentional settlement of Bermuda in 1621?
5ad40858604f3c001a3ffee5
True
In 1610, all but three of the survivors of the Sea Venture sailed on to Jamestown. Among them was John Rolfe, whose wife and child died and were buried in Bermuda. Later in Jamestown he married Pocahontas, a daughter of the powerful Powhatan, leader of a large confederation of about 30 Algonquian-speaking tribes in coastal Virginia. In 1612, the English began intentional settlement of Bermuda with the arrival of the ship Plough. St. George's was settled that year and designated as Bermuda's first capital. It is the oldest continually inhabited English town in the New World.
What is a major reason that Bermuda has problems with overpopulation?
572947c26aef051400154c60
limited land area,
15
False
What does Bermuda rely on to counteract overpopulation?
572947c26aef051400154c61
steady human emigration
138
False
Where did a large number of Bermudians emigrate to before the American Revolution?
572947c26aef051400154c62
the Southern United States
367
False
Why does a third of the population spend time at sea?
572947c26aef051400154c63
seafaring the only real industry
572
False
more than ten thousand
245
How many Bermudians emigrated during the American Revolution?
5ad40959604f3c001a3fff3d
True
Southern
371
What area of Great Britain did more than ten thousand Bermudians emigrate to?
5ad40959604f3c001a3fff3e
True
Great Britain
398
Who did Spain displace as the dominant European imperial power?
5ad40959604f3c001a3fff3f
True
seafaring
572
What was the main industry in the 18th century?
5ad40959604f3c001a3fff40
True
Because of its limited land area, Bermuda has had difficulty with over-population. In the first two centuries of settlement, it relied on steady human emigration to keep the population manageable.[citation needed] Before the American Revolution more than ten thousand Bermudians (over half of the total population through the years) gradually emigrated, primarily to the Southern United States. As Great Britain displaced Spain as the dominant European imperial power, it opened up more land for colonial development. A steady trickle of outward migration continued. With seafaring the only real industry in the early decades, by the end of the 18th century, at least a third of the island's manpower was at sea at any one time.
Why did the Somers Isles Company decide to surpress shipbuilding?
572948b7af94a219006aa25b
needed Bermudians to farm to generate income from the land
77
False
Why wasn't agriculture successful?
572948b7af94a219006aa25c
colony of Virginia far surpassed Bermuda in both quality and quantity of tobacco produced
321
False
What did Bermudians do when agriculture failed?
572948b7af94a219006aa25d
turn to maritime trades
432
False
Why was the Somers Isles Company's charter revoked?
572948b7af94a219006aa25e
islanders demanding
618
False
shipbuilding
57
What did the Somers Isles Company press in the 17th century?
5ad40a15604f3c001a3fff83
True
Virginia
331
What colony did Bermuda surpass in quantity of tobacco produced?
5ad40a15604f3c001a3fff84
True
Virginia
331
What colony did Bermuda surpass in quality of tobacco produced?
5ad40a15604f3c001a3fff85
True
Somers Isles Company
502
What company was dissolved in 1648?
5ad40a15604f3c001a3fff86
True
In the 17th century, the Somers Isles Company suppressed shipbuilding, as it needed Bermudians to farm to generate income from the land. Agricultural production met with limited success, however. The Bermuda cedar boxes used to ship tobacco to England were reportedly worth more than their contents.[citation needed] The colony of Virginia far surpassed Bermuda in both quality and quantity of tobacco produced. Bermudians began to turn to maritime trades relatively early in the 17th century, but the Somers Isles Company used all its authority to suppress turning away from agriculture. This interference led to the islanders demanding, and receiving, the revocation of the Company's charter in 1684, and the Company was dissolved.
What event caused major changes in Bermuda?
57294a001d0469140077925b
end of the war
4
False
Why did defence infrastructure become the major source of Bermuda's economy?
57294a001d0469140077925c
buildup of Naval and military forces in Bermuda,
162
False
How does the British crown view Bermuda?
57294a001d0469140077925d
a base more than a colony
376
False
What happened to Bermuda's independance due to British importance on them for military reasons?
57294a001d0469140077925e
the colony's independence on the world stage was diminished
474
False
Bermuda,
61
What colony caused profound change to the end of the war?
5ad40ad0604f3c001a3fffd1
True
defence
259
What infrastructure was built up in the 19th century?
5ad40ad0604f3c001a3fffd2
True
a base
376
What did Bermuda consider London to be more than a colony?
5ad40ad0604f3c001a3fffd3
True
The end of the war, however, was to cause profound change in Bermuda, though some of those changes would take decades to crystallise. Following the war, with the buildup of Naval and military forces in Bermuda, the primary leg of the Bermudian economy became defence infrastructure. Even after tourism began later in the 19th century, Bermuda remained, in the eyes of London, a base more than a colony. The Crown strengthened its political and economic ties to Bermuda, and the colony's independence on the world stage was diminished.
Who was Bermuda's main trading partner before the war?
57294ab76aef051400154c70
American colonies
60
False
What is a factor that hurt Bermuda's merchant shipping?
57294ab76aef051400154c71
deforestation
187
False
Why didn't Bermuda produce metal ships?
57294ab76aef051400154c72
it did not have raw materials
282
False
Why did the need for Bermuda's salt diminish?
57294ab76aef051400154c73
Americans developed their own sources
418
False
salt
394
What was the primary market for Bermuda following the War of 1812?
5ad40c8c604f3c001a400075
True
the Turks
468
Who did control of the Bahamas pass to in 1819?
5ad40c8c604f3c001a400076
True
Control of the Turks had passed to the Bahamas
457
What happened in 1918?
5ad40c8c604f3c001a400077
True
During the course of the following War of 1812
313
When did America's market for salt disappear?
5ad40c8c604f3c001a400078
True
The war had removed Bermuda's primary trading partners, the American colonies, from the empire, and dealt a harsh blow to Bermuda's merchant shipping trade. This also suffered due to the deforestation of Bermuda, as well as the advent of metal ships and steam propulsion, for which it did not have raw materials. During the course of the following War of 1812, the primary market for Bermuda's salt disappeared as the Americans developed their own sources. Control of the Turks had passed to the Bahamas in 1819.
Why is Captain Fritz Joubert Duquesne famous?
57294b846aef051400154c78
most famous escapee
4
False
After Duquesne made his way to St. George, what did he do?
57294b846aef051400154c79
stowed away on a boat heading to Baltimore, Maryland
573
False
After settling in the US, what did Duquesne do?
57294b846aef051400154c7a
became a spy for Germany in both World Wars
658
False
conspiracy against the British government and on (the charge of) espionage
121
What was Captain Joubert Fritz Duquesne serving a sentence for?
5ad41060604f3c001a4001a9
True
life sentence
102
What sentence was Captain Joubert Fritz Duquesne serving?
5ad41060604f3c001a4001aa
True
Duquesne
229
Who escaped on 25 June 1942?
5ad41060604f3c001a4001ab
True
Col. Duquesne was arrested by the FBI for leading the Duquesne Spy Ring
712
What happened in 1924?
5ad41060604f3c001a4001ac
True
The most famous escapee was the Boer prisoner of war Captain Fritz Joubert Duquesne who was serving a life sentence for "conspiracy against the British government and on (the charge of) espionage.". On the night of 25 June 1902, Duquesne slipped out of his tent, worked his way over a barbed-wire fence, swam 1.5 miles (2.4 km) past patrol boats and bright spot lights, through storm-wracked, shark infested waters, using a distant lighthouse for navigation until he arrived ashore on the main island. From there he escaped to the port of St. George's and a week later, he stowed away on a boat heading to Baltimore, Maryland. He settled in the US and later became a spy for Germany in both World Wars. In 1942, Col. Duquesne was arrested by the FBI for leading the Duquesne Spy Ring, which still to this day the largest espionage case in the history of the United States.
When did the first aeroplane reach Bermuda?
57294c541d04691400779263
1930
34
False
Why did the plane have to land twice before reaching Bermuda?
57294c541d04691400779264
once because of darkness and again to refuel
162
False
What improved thanks to the Royal Air Force in 1933?
57294c541d04691400779265
Navigation and weather forecasting
208
False
Who began experimenting with flights from Berlin to New York, stopping in the azores?
57294c541d04691400779266
Luft Hansa
498
False
first aeroplane
43
What reached Bermuda in 1903?
5ad41116604f3c001a4001e3
True
seaplane
96
What is Detroiter Stinson a type of?
5ad41116604f3c001a4001e4
True
Navigation and weather forecasting
208
What improved in 1936 because of the Royal Air Force?
5ad41116604f3c001a4001e5
True
Luft Hansa
498
Who began to experiment with seaplane flights in 1933?
5ad41116604f3c001a4001e6
True
After several failed attempts, in 1930 the first aeroplane reached Bermuda. A Stinson Detroiter seaplane flying from New York, it had to land twice in the ocean: once because of darkness and again to refuel. Navigation and weather forecasting improved in 1933 when the Royal Air Force (then responsible for providing equipment and personnel for the Royal Navy's Fleet Air Arm) established a station at the Royal Naval Dockyard to repair (and supply replacement) float planes for the fleet. In 1936 Luft Hansa began to experiment with seaplane flights from Berlin via the Azores with continuation to New York City.
What did Imperial Airways and Pan American begin scheduling in 1937?
57294d293f37b31900478219
flying-boat airline services from New York and Baltimore to Darrell's Island, Bermuda
83
False
What helped tourism grow to new heights in the 1960-1970's?
57294d293f37b3190047821a
regularly scheduled commercial airline service by land-based aeroplanes
179
False
What became the main source of Bermuda's economy in the 1970's?
57294d293f37b3190047821b
international business
392
False
Imperial Airways and Pan American World Airways
9
Who began operating scheduled services in 1973?
5ad41209604f3c001a400223
True
began operating scheduled flying-boat airline services from New York and Baltimore to Darrell's Island, Ber
57
What did Imperial World Airways and Pan American Airways begin doing in 1937?
5ad41209604f3c001a400224
True
Kindley Field
260
What is now known as F.L. Wade International Airport?
5ad41209604f3c001a400225
True
tourism
321
What reached a peak in 1960?
5ad41209604f3c001a400226
True
In 1937, Imperial Airways and Pan American World Airways began operating scheduled flying-boat airline services from New York and Baltimore to Darrell's Island, Bermuda. In 1948, regularly scheduled commercial airline service by land-based aeroplanes began to Kindley Field (now L.F. Wade International Airport), helping tourism to reach its peak in the 1960s–1970s. By the end of the 1970s, international business had supplanted tourism as the dominant sector of Bermuda's economy (see Economy of Bermuda).
The Governor of Bermuda gets his authority from whom?
57294dda1d0469140077926b
the monarch
44
False
Who appoints the Governor of Bermuda?
57294dda1d0469140077926c
the Queen on the advice of the British Government.
133
False
Who is currently the governor of Bermuda?
57294dda1d0469140077926d
George Fergusson
208
False
Who is responsible for defence and foreign affairs?
57294dda1d0469140077926e
United Kingdom
370
False
What is Bermuda officially classified as?
57294dda1d0469140077926f
British Overseas Territory
534
False
the monarch
44
Who exercises executive authority on behalf of the Governor?
5ad414ce604f3c001a4002b7
True
The governor
104
Who is the Queen appointed by?
5ad414ce604f3c001a4002b8
True
governor
196
What title does George Arkely currently hold?
5ad414ce604f3c001a4002b9
True
Deputy Governor
274
What title does David Fergusson currently hold?
5ad414ce604f3c001a4002ba
True
a Royal Assent granted Bermuda limited self-governance
608
What happened in 1602?
5ad414ce604f3c001a4002bb
True
Executive authority in Bermuda is vested in the monarch and is exercised on her behalf by the Governor. The governor is appointed by the Queen on the advice of the British Government. The current governor is George Fergusson; he was sworn in on 23 May 2012. There is also a Deputy Governor (currently David Arkley JP). Defence and foreign affairs are carried out by the United Kingdom, which also retains responsibility to ensure good government. It must approve any changes to the Constitution of Bermuda. Bermuda is classified as a British Overseas Territory, but it is the oldest British colony. In 1620, a Royal Assent granted Bermuda limited self-governance; its Parliament is the fifth oldest in the world, behind the Parliament of the United Kingdom, the Tynwald of the Isle of Man, the Althing of Iceland, and Sejm of Poland. Of these, only Bermuda's and the Isle of Man's Tynwald have been in continuous existence since 1620.
When was the Constitution of Bermuda enforced?
57294e7a6aef051400154c92
1 June 1967
47
False
Has Bermuda's constitution ever been amended?
57294e7a6aef051400154c93
it was amended in 1989 and 2003
60
False
What is the head of Bermuda's government referred to as?
57294e7a6aef051400154c94
the premier
119
False
What is the legislative branch of Bermuda modeled after?
57294e7a6aef051400154c95
Westminster system.
286
False
What does the population get to vote for?
57294e7a6aef051400154c96
The House of Assembly, or lower house
451
False
The Constitution of Bermuda
0
What came into force on 7 June 1961?
5ad41570604f3c001a4002f9
True
The Constitution of Bermuda
0
What was amended in 1983 and 2009?
5ad41570604f3c001a4002fa
True
A cabinet
132
What is nominated by the governor and appointed by the premier?
5ad41570604f3c001a4002fb
True
The Senate
306
What is the upper house called, consisting of 36 members?
5ad41570604f3c001a4002fc
True
The House of Assembly
451
What is the lower house called, consisting of 11 members?
5ad41570604f3c001a4002fd
True
The Constitution of Bermuda came into force on 1 June 1967; it was amended in 1989 and 2003. The head of government is the premier. A cabinet is nominated by the premier and appointed officially by the governor. The legislative branch consists of a bicameral parliament modelled on the Westminster system. The Senate is the upper house, consisting of 11 members appointed by the governor on the advice of the premier and the leader of the opposition. The House of Assembly, or lower house, has 36 members, elected by the eligible voting populace in secret ballot to represent geographically defined constituencies.
Who has the largest accredited diplomats in Bermuda?
57294f071d0469140077927b
The United States
47
False
Who is the current US Consul General?
57294f071d0469140077927c
Robert Settje
285
False
Why is the US so important to Bermuda?
57294f071d0469140077927d
The United States is Bermuda's largest trading partner
332
False
What percentage of Bermuda's residents are US citizens?
57294f071d0469140077927e
5%
560
False
largest diplomatic mission
79
What does Bermuda maintain in the United States?
5ad416c5604f3c001a400351
True
United States Consulate and the US Customs and Border Protection Services at the L.F. Wade International Airport.
138
What is the Bermuda diplomatic mission comprised of?
5ad416c5604f3c001a400352
True
current US Consul General
256
Who is Robert Wade?
5ad416c5604f3c001a400353
True
August 2012.
319
When did Robert Wade take office?
5ad416c5604f3c001a400354
True
5%
560
What percentage do the 14% US citizen residents of Bermuda represent as foreign born persons?
5ad416c5604f3c001a400355
True
There are few accredited diplomats in Bermuda. The United States maintains the largest diplomatic mission in Bermuda, comprising both the United States Consulate and the US Customs and Border Protection Services at the L.F. Wade International Airport. The current US Consul General is Robert Settje, who took office in August 2012. The United States is Bermuda's largest trading partner (providing over 71% of total imports, 85% of tourist visitors, and an estimated $163 billion of US capital in the Bermuda insurance/re-insurance industry), and an estimated 5% of Bermuda residents are US citizens, representing 14% of all foreign-born persons. The American diplomatic presence is an important element in the Bermuda political landscape.
Where were the Uyghurs transferred from?
57294fa6af94a219006aa285
United States Guantánamo Bay detention camp
55
False
What were the Uyghurs claiming to be?
57294fa6af94a219006aa286
refugees, who were captured in 2001 in Pakistan
191
False
What were the Ugyhurs accused of?
57294fa6af94a219006aa287
training to assist the Taliban's military.
322
False
Why weren't the Ugyhurs deported back to China?
57294fa6af94a219006aa288
the US government determined that China was likely to violate their human rights.
535
False
four Uyghurs who had been held in the United States Guantánamo Bay detention camp, in Cuba, were transferred to Bermuda.
17
What happened on 9 June 2011?
5ad417d2604f3c001a4003b7
True
four
17
How many Uyghurs were transferred to Bermuda on 9 June 2011?
5ad417d2604f3c001a4003b8
True
2001
222
What year were the Uyghurs captured fleeing America?
5ad417d2604f3c001a4003b9
True
Uyghurs
165
Who was cleared safe for release from Guantanamo in 2005?
5ad417d2604f3c001a4003ba
True
On 11 June 2009, four Uyghurs who had been held in the United States Guantánamo Bay detention camp, in Cuba, were transferred to Bermuda. The four men were among 22 Uyghurs who claimed to be refugees, who were captured in 2001 in Pakistan after fleeing the American aerial bombardment of Afghanistan. They were accused of training to assist the Taliban's military. They were cleared as safe for release from Guantánamo in 2005 or 2006, but US domestic law prohibited deporting them back to China, their country of citizenship, because the US government determined that China was likely to violate their human rights.
When was homosexuality legalized in Bermuda?
572950423f37b3190047822d
May 1994.
83
False
What occurred in February of 2016?
572950423f37b3190047822e
The OBA government simultaneously introduced a bill to permit Civil Unions
271
False
What did the Chief Justice decide?
572950423f37b3190047822f
same sex spouses of Bermuda citizens could not be denied basic Human Rights.
475
False
Homosexuality was decriminalised in Bermuda
0
What happened due to the Stubbs Bill in February 1994?
5ad418a2604f3c001a400415
True
amend the Human Rights Act of Bermuda to disallow Same Sex Marriage under the Act
171
What did Wayne Kawaley wish to do in 2016?
5ad418a2604f3c001a400416
True
simultaneously introduced a bill to permit Civil Unions
290
What did the OAB government do in 2016?
5ad418a2604f3c001a400417
True
that same sex spouses of Bermuda citizens could not be denied basic Human Rights
470
What did Hon Mr. Justice Ian Furbert's earlier ruling state?
5ad418a2604f3c001a400418
True
Homosexuality was decriminalised in Bermuda with the passage of the Stubbs Bill in May 1994. Legislation was introduced by Private Members Bill by PLP MP Wayne Furbert to amend the Human Rights Act of Bermuda to disallow Same Sex Marriage under the Act in February 2016. The OBA government simultaneously introduced a bill to permit Civil Unions. Both measures were in response to a decision by His Hon Mr. Justice Ian Kawaley, Chief Justice of Bermuda's earlier ruling that same sex spouses of Bermuda citizens could not be denied basic Human Rights.
Who has "observer status" to CARICOM?
572950c96aef051400154cbc
US Commonwealth of Puerto Rico
496
False
What did the Virgin Islands announce in 2007?
572950c96aef051400154cbd
they would seek ties with CARICOM
603
False
Why did Bermuda join CARICOM?
572950c96aef051400154cbe
primarily to strengthen cultural links.
786
False
Co-operative Republic of Guyana and the Republic of Suriname in South America, along with Belize in Central America
112
What other member states belong to the Caribbean?
5ad419a1604f3c001a400471
True
CARICOM
629
What did Bermuda join to strengthen their economy?
5ad419a1604f3c001a400472
True
observer status
531
What status do the United States Virgin Islands have with CARICOM?
5ad419a1604f3c001a400473
True
Puerto Rico
515
What commonwealth announced it would seek ties with CARICOM in 2007?
5ad419a1604f3c001a400474
True
This is a socio-economic bloc of nations in or near the Caribbean Sea. Other outlying member states include the Co-operative Republic of Guyana and the Republic of Suriname in South America, along with Belize in Central America. The Turks and Caicos Islands, an associate member of CARICOM, and the Commonwealth of The Bahamas, a full member of CARICOM, are in the Atlantic, but near to the Caribbean. Other nearby nations or territories, such as the United States, are not members (although the US Commonwealth of Puerto Rico has observer status, and the United States Virgin Islands announced in 2007 they would seek ties with CARICOM). Bermuda, at roughly a thousand miles from the Caribbean Sea, has little trade with, and little economically in common with, the region, and joined primarily to strengthen cultural links.
Why did the English originally colonize Bermuda?
572951d81d0469140077928d
an extension of Virginia
40
False
What two areas have provided a constant stream of immigration to Bermuda since the 20th century?
572951d81d0469140077928e
West Indies, as well as continued immigration from Portuguese Atlantic islands
339
False
Why have these recent immigrants had trouble becoming permanent residents?
572951d81d0469140077928f
they lacked British citizenship
564
False
When did Bermuda ease up on its immigration laws?
572951d81d04691400779290
1950s
704
False
Why were Black politicians upset about the change in immigration laws?
572951d81d04691400779291
accused the government of using this device to counter the West Indian immigration of previous decades.
836
False
Bermuda
0
Who were the English colonised by?
5ad41aaa604f3c001a4004d5
True
US Atlantic Seaboard and Canadian Maritimes as well as the UK
102
What has Virginia long had close ties with?
5ad41aaa604f3c001a4004d6
True
African slavery
185
What did Virginia have a history of?
5ad41aaa604f3c001a4004d7
True
20th century,
265
During what century was there considerable immigration to Bermuda from the West Indies?
5ad41aaa604f3c001a4004d8
True
1950s
704
During what year did Bermuda relax its immigration laws?
5ad41aaa604f3c001a4004d9
True
Bermuda was colonised by the English as an extension of Virginia and has long had close ties with the US Atlantic Seaboard and Canadian Maritimes as well as the UK. It had a history of African slavery, although Britain abolished it decades before the US. Since the 20th century, there has been considerable immigration to Bermuda from the West Indies, as well as continued immigration from Portuguese Atlantic islands. Unlike immigrants from British colonies in the West Indies, the latter immigrants have had greater difficulty in becoming permanent residents as they lacked British citizenship, mostly spoke no English, and required renewal of work permits to remain beyond an initial period. From the 1950s onwards, Bermuda relaxed its immigration laws, allowing increased immigration from Britain and Canada. Some Black politicians accused the government of using this device to counter the West Indian immigration of previous decades.
What cultural group has dominated the PLP?
572952851d04691400779297
West Indians and their descendants.
111
False
Who are two prominent members of the PLP?
572952851d04691400779298
Dame Lois Browne-Evans, and her Trinidadian-born husband, John Evans
333
False
What are Dame Lois Browne-Evans and her husband putting an emphasis on?
572952851d04691400779299
Bermuda's cultural connections with the West Indies
526
False
Why are some Bermudians against the emphasis of West Indies cultural connections?
572952851d0469140077929a
Many Bermudians, both black and white, who lack family connections to the West Indies
579
False
West Indians and their descendants.
111
Who had dominated CARICOM?
5ad41d22604f3c001a4005b7
True
late PLP leader
316
Who was Dame Lois Evans-Browne?
5ad41d22604f3c001a4005b8
True
Dame Lois Browne-Evans
333
Whose husband was Evan Johns?
5ad41d22604f3c001a4005b9
True
The PLP, the party in government when the decision to join CARICOM was made, has been dominated for decades by West Indians and their descendants. (The prominent roles of West Indians among Bermuda's black politicians and labour activists predated party politics in Bermuda, as exemplified by Dr. E. F. Gordon). The late PLP leader, Dame Lois Browne-Evans, and her Trinidadian-born husband, John Evans (who co-founded the West Indian Association of Bermuda in 1976), were prominent members of this group. They have emphasised Bermuda's cultural connections with the West Indies. Many Bermudians, both black and white, who lack family connections to the West Indies have objected to this emphasis.
Due to the British goverment's defense forces, what are two nicknames for bermuda?
572953656aef051400154cf2
the Gibraltar of the West" and "Fortress Bermuda"
15
False
What did Bermuda's merchant shipping fleet do whenever it had the chance?
572953656aef051400154cf3
turned to privateering
262
False
What was Bermuda established as after the American Revolutionary War?
572953656aef051400154cf4
Western Atlantic headquarters of the Royal Navy.
427
False
When were the militias in Bermuda disbanded?
572953656aef051400154cf5
following the War of 1812
595
False
How did the colony form a military garrison in the 19th century?
572953656aef051400154cf6
raised volunteer units to form a reserve
665
False
Bermuda
66
What was known as the Fortress of the West and Gibraltar Bermuda?
5ad41e15604f3c001a400611
True
Bermuda
66
Who is the British government defended by?
5ad41e15604f3c001a400612
True
a local militia
341
What did he British government maintain?
5ad41e15604f3c001a400613
True
1812
616
What year were the militias disbanded?
5ad41e15604f3c001a400614
True
Once known as "the Gibraltar of the West" and "Fortress Bermuda", Bermuda today is defended by forces of the British government. For the first two centuries of settlement, the most potent armed force operating from Bermuda was its merchant shipping fleet, which turned to privateering at every opportunity. The Bermuda government maintained a local militia. After the American Revolutionary War, Bermuda was established as the Western Atlantic headquarters of the Royal Navy. Once the Royal Navy established a base and dockyard defended by regular soldiers, however, the militias were disbanded following the War of 1812. At the end of the 19th century, the colony raised volunteer units to form a reserve for the military garrison.
What did the US ask of Britain in May 1940?
57295432af94a219006aa2b5
base rights in Bermuda
30
False
What did the Destroyers for Bases Agreement do?
57295432af94a219006aa2b6
granted the US base rights in Bermuda
291
False
What was one thing the UK wanted in return for granting access to Bermuda?
57295432af94a219006aa2b7
the airfield the US Army built would be used jointly by the US and the UK
525
False
Who was the Prime Minister who reached this agreement with the US?
57295432af94a219006aa2b8
Winston Churchill
105
False
May 1940
3
When did the US request base rights from Bermuda?
5ad41ff9604f3c001a4006cf
True
British Prime Minister
82
Who was Darrell Churchill?
5ad41ff9604f3c001a4006d0
True
the UK granted the US base rights in Bermuda
284
What happened in September 1904?
5ad41ff9604f3c001a4006d1
True
RAF Transport Command
647
What relocated in 1934?
5ad41ff9604f3c001a4006d2
True
Darrell's Island
691
Where did RAF Transport Command relocate from in 1934?
5ad41ff9604f3c001a4006d3
True
In May 1940, the US requested base rights in Bermuda from the United Kingdom, but British Prime Minister Winston Churchill was initially unwilling to accede to the American request without getting something in return. In September 1940, as part of the Destroyers for Bases Agreement, the UK granted the US base rights in Bermuda. Bermuda and Newfoundland were not originally included in the agreement, but both were added to it, with no war material received by the UK in exchange. One of the terms of the agreement was that the airfield the US Army built would be used jointly by the US and the UK (which it was for the duration of the war, with RAF Transport Command relocating there from Darrell's Island in 1943).
What did the US begin building in 1941?
572955023f37b31900478267
two airbases
30
False
Who primarily used the bases in Bermuda?
572955023f37b31900478268
US Air Force transport and refuelling aircraft and by US Navy aircraft
163
False
What was the navy patrolling for?
572955023f37b31900478269
enemy submarines, first German and, later, Soviet
262
False
What was the Naval Air Station Bermuda originally?
572955023f37b3190047826a
Kindley Air Force Base
341
False
What is the Naval Air Station used for?
572955023f37b3190047826b
host both transient and deployed USN and USAF aircraft, as well as transitioning or deployed Royal Air Force and Canadian Forces aircraft.
515
False
Construction
0
What began in 1914?
5ad421e9604f3c001a400793
True
two airbases
30
What consisted of 5.8 sq mi of land?
5ad421e9604f3c001a400794
True
eastern coast
371
Where was Air Force Base Kindley located?
5ad421e9604f3c001a400795
True
Kindley Air Force Base
341
What was transferred to the US Navy in 1907?
5ad421e9604f3c001a400796
True
Construction began in 1941 of two airbases consisting of 5.8 km2 (2.2 sq mi) of land, largely reclaimed from the sea. For many years, Bermuda's bases were used by US Air Force transport and refuelling aircraft and by US Navy aircraft patrolling the Atlantic for enemy submarines, first German and, later, Soviet. The principal installation, Kindley Air Force Base on the eastern coast, was transferred to the US Navy in 1970 and redesignated Naval Air Station Bermuda. As a naval air station, the base continued to host both transient and deployed USN and USAF aircraft, as well as transitioning or deployed Royal Air Force and Canadian Forces aircraft.
What was the NAS primarily a base for?
5729559d3f37b3190047827b
seaplane
59
False
What did the NAS Bermuda offer once designated Annex?
5729559d3f37b3190047827c
anchorage and/or dockage facilities for transiting US Navy, US Coast Guard and NATO vessels
170
False
What is located west of the NAS Annex?
5729559d3f37b3190047827d
additional US Navy compound known as Naval Facility Bermuda
285
False
What happened at the end of the Cold War?
5729559d3f37b3190047827e
US forces withdrew
495
False
The original NAS Bermuda
0
What was built in 1960?
5ad422af604f3c001a4007df
True
Naval Air Station Bermuda Annex
116
What became the NAS Bermuda?
5ad422af604f3c001a4007e0
True
US forces withdrew
495
What did US forces do in 1999?
5ad422af604f3c001a4007e1
True
Naval Facility Bermuda (NAVFAC Bermuda)
322
What was leased for 95 years?
5ad422af604f3c001a4007e2
True
The original NAS Bermuda on the west side of the island, a seaplane base until the mid-1960s, was designated as the Naval Air Station Bermuda Annex. It provided optional anchorage and/or dockage facilities for transiting US Navy, US Coast Guard and NATO vessels, depending on size. An additional US Navy compound known as Naval Facility Bermuda (NAVFAC Bermuda), a SOSUS station, was located to the west of the Annex near a Canadian Forces communications facility. Although leased for 99 years, US forces withdrew in 1995, as part of the wave of base closures following the end of the Cold War.
When did Bermudians serve in the British Armed forces?
572956496aef051400154d12
World War I and World War II
58
False
Who was key to establishing Bermuda's Regiment?
572956496aef051400154d13
Major-General Glyn Charles Anglim Gilbert
106
False
Who was the youngest Royal Marine Brigadier?
572956496aef051400154d14
Brigadier Harvey
403
False
What is the site for Bermuda's Remembrance Day?
572956496aef051400154d15
Cenotaph in front of the Cabinet Building
565
False
Bermuda's highest-ranking soldier
149
Who was Major-General Charles Glyn Gilbert Anglim?
5ad423a1604f3c001a40084b
True
developing the Bermuda Regiment
204
What was Major-General Charles Glyn Gilbert Anglim instrumental in?
5ad423a1604f3c001a40084c
True
Major-General Glyn Charles Anglim Gilbert
106
Who did Admiral Lord Gambier and Marines Brigadier Royal Harvey precede?
5ad423a1604f3c001a40084d
True
Harvey
505
Who became the youngest-ever Marine Royal Brigadier?
5ad423a1604f3c001a40084e
True
Bermudians served in the British armed forces during both World War I and World War II. After the latter, Major-General Glyn Charles Anglim Gilbert, Bermuda's highest-ranking soldier, was instrumental in developing the Bermuda Regiment. A number of other Bermudians and their descendants had preceded him into senior ranks, including Bahamian-born Admiral Lord Gambier, and Bermudian-born Royal Marines Brigadier Harvey. When promoted to Brigadier at age 39, following his wounding at the Anzio landings, Harvey became the youngest-ever Royal Marine Brigadier. The Cenotaph in front of the Cabinet Building (in Hamilton) was erected in tribute to Bermuda's Great War dead (the tribute was later extended to Bermuda's Second World War dead) and is the site of the annual Remembrance Day commemoration.
What was the new currency in Bermuda as of 1970?
572957101d046914007792c5
Bermudian dollar
74
False
The Bermudian dollar is equal to what other currency and can be used interchangeably?
572957101d046914007792c6
US dollar
124
False
Who is pictured on Bermudian dollars?
572957101d046914007792c7
Queen Elizabeth II.
389
False
Who regulates all financial institutions as well as the issuing of money?
572957101d046914007792c8
Bermuda Monetary Authority
413
False
Where can you see a permanent exhibition of Bermuda currency?
572957101d046914007792c9
Royal Naval Dockyard Museum
536
False
currency
33
What did the country switch in 1907?
5ad425dd604f3c001a4008fd
True
Bermudian dollar
74
What currency did Bermuda switch to in 1907?
5ad425dd604f3c001a4008fe
True
Queen Elizabeth II
389
Who do the US notes carry the image of?
5ad425dd604f3c001a4008ff
True
Bermuda notes and coins
596
What does the Naval Dockyard Royal Museum hold a permanent collection of?
5ad425dd604f3c001a400900
True
In 1970 the country switched its currency from the Bermudian pound to the Bermudian dollar, which is pegged at par with the US dollar. US notes and coins are used interchangeably with Bermudian notes and coins within the islands for most practical purposes; however, banks levy an exchange rate fee for the purchase of US dollars with Bermudian dollars. Bermudian notes carry the image of Queen Elizabeth II. The Bermuda Monetary Authority is the issuing authority for all banknotes and coins, and regulates financial institutions. The Royal Naval Dockyard Museum holds a permanent exhibition of Bermuda notes and coins.
Why is Bermuda considered an offshore financial center?
572957d1af94a219006aa2e7
minimal standards of business regulation/laws and direct taxation on personal or corporate income
64
False
What does it do in place of an income tax system?
572957d1af94a219006aa2e8
taxes all imports
224
False
What does Bermuda use the consumption tax for?
572957d1af94a219006aa2e9
funds government and infrastructure expenditures
359
False
What three things does the tax system depend on?
572957d1af94a219006aa2ea
import duties, payroll taxes and consumption taxes
443
False
What is Bermuda's legal system derived from?
572957d1af94a219006aa2eb
United Kingdom, with recourse to English courts of final appeal
540
False
Bermuda
0
What country uses an income tax in lieu of an import tax?
5ad4272d604f3c001a400919
True
government and infrastructure expenditures
365
What is Bermuda's income tax used to fund?
5ad4272d604f3c001a40091a
True
The legal system
495
What is derived from the English courts?
5ad4272d604f3c001a40091b
True
open bank accounts or subscribe to mobile phone or internet services.
647
What can foreign private individuals easily do?
5ad4272d604f3c001a40091c
True
Bermuda is an offshore financial centre, which results from its minimal standards of business regulation/laws and direct taxation on personal or corporate income. It has one of the highest consumption taxes in the world and taxes all imports in lieu of an income tax system. Bermudas's consumption tax is equivalent to local income tax to local residents and funds government and infrastructure expenditures. The local tax system depends upon import duties, payroll taxes and consumption taxes. The legal system is derived from that of the United Kingdom, with recourse to English courts of final appeal. Foreign private individuals cannot easily open bank accounts or subscribe to mobile phone or internet services.
What does the Exchange specialize in?
5729587baf94a219006aa2f7
listing and trading of capital market instruments such as equities, debt issues, funds
226
False
What is the BSX a member of?
5729587baf94a219006aa2f8
the World Federation of Exchanges
410
False
Where is the BSX located?
5729587baf94a219006aa2f9
an OECD member nation
462
False
Which foreign country offers the BSX Approved Stock Exchange Status?
5729587baf94a219006aa2fa
Australia
534
False
on the stock exchange
41
Where are there 300 securities listed?
5ad428f1604f3c001a400921
True
World Federation of Exchanges
414
What is the BXS a full member of?
5ad428f1604f3c001a400922
True
OECD member nation.
465
Where is the BXS located?
5ad428f1604f3c001a400923
True
Australia's Foreign Investment Fund
534
What does FFI stand for?
5ad428f1604f3c001a400924
True
There are four hundred securities listed on the stock exchange, of which almost three hundred are offshore funds and alternative investment structures attracted by Bermuda's regulatory environment. The Exchange specialises in listing and trading of capital market instruments such as equities, debt issues, funds (including hedge fund structures) and depository receipt programmes. The BSX is a full member of the World Federation of Exchanges and is located in an OECD member nation. It also has Approved Stock Exchange status under Australia's Foreign Investment Fund (FIF) taxation rules and Designated Investment Exchange status by the UK's Financial Services Authority.
Who created and popularized many of the sports that we love today?
572959183f37b31900478297
British Public schools and universities in the 19th century
45
False
Why were sports important in these schools?
572959183f37b31900478298
sports were considered a vital tool for training their students to think and act as part of a team
240
False
Who founded organizations like the FA?
572959183f37b31900478299
Former public schoolboys
340
False
What changed in 1885 due to the FA changing rules?
572959183f37b3190047829a
association of football with the working classes
476
False
Football Association
441
What does AF stand for?
5ad42975604f3c001a400929
True
Today's association of football with the working classes
468
What began in 1858?
5ad42975604f3c001a40092a
True
Many sports popular today
0
What did the British Empire formalise in the 19th century?
5ad42975604f3c001a40092b
True
Many sports popular today were formalised by British Public schools and universities in the 19th century. These schools produced the civil servants and military and naval officers required to build and maintain the British empire, and team sports were considered a vital tool for training their students to think and act as part of a team. Former public schoolboys continued to pursue these activities, and founded organisations such as the Football Association (FA). Today's association of football with the working classes began in 1885 when the FA changed its rules to allow professional players.
What happened to the Public schoolboys in these sports?
572959aaaf94a219006aa2ff
professionals soon displaced the amateur ex-Public schoolboys
4
False
How were sports introduced in Bermuda?
572959aaaf94a219006aa300
Bermuda's role as the primary Royal Navy base in the Western Hemisphere,
67
False
Which sport did not transfer well to Bermuda?
572959aaaf94a219006aa301
rowing
341
False
Which sport was quickly adopted?
572959aaaf94a219006aa302
sail racing
449
False
cricket, football, Rugby football, and even tennis and rowing
286
What sports did schoolboys introduce to Bermuda?
5ad42b72604f3c001a40092f
True
naval and military officers
189
Who founded the Bermuda Royal Yacht Club?
5ad42b72604f3c001a400930
True
rowing
349
What sport adapted well from British Rivers to the Atlantic?
5ad42b72604f3c001a400931
True
sail racing
449
What sport took place at the Bermuda Royal Yacht Club?
5ad42b72604f3c001a400932
True
professionals
4
Who did schoolboys displace?
5ad42b72604f3c001a400933
True
The professionals soon displaced the amateur ex-Public schoolboys. Bermuda's role as the primary Royal Navy base in the Western Hemisphere, with an army garrison to match, ensured that the naval and military officers quickly introduced the newly formalised sports to Bermuda, including cricket, football, Rugby football, and even tennis and rowing (rowing did not adapt well from British rivers to the stormy Atlantic. The officers soon switched to sail racing, founding the Royal Bermuda Yacht Club). Once these sports reached Bermuda, they were eagerly adopted by Bermudians.
What Bermuda sport team participated in the 2007 world cup?
57295a761d04691400779301
national cricket team
10
False
Who is Bermuda's most popular Cricket player?
57295a761d04691400779302
Dwayne Leverock
169
False
Who defeated Bermuda?
57295a761d04691400779303
India
190
False
What began in 1872 when the game of cricket was introduced to Bermuda?
57295a761d04691400779304
annual "Cup Match"
421
False
Why is there an East End/West End rivalry?
57295a761d04691400779305
rivalry resulted from the locations
795
False
Bermuda's national cricket team
0
What team participated in the 2007 World Cup Cricket?
5ad42c3c604f3c001a400941
True
Their most famous player
95
Who is 130 lb Dwayne Leverock to the cricket team?
5ad42c3c604f3c001a400942
True
police officer
148
What job title does Dwayne Hemp hold?
5ad42c3c604f3c001a400943
True
a former captain of Glamorgan in English first class cricket.
355
Who is David Leverock?
5ad42c3c604f3c001a400944
True
The annual "Cup Match" cricket tournament
417
What began in 1827?
5ad42c3c604f3c001a400945
True
Bermuda's national cricket team participated in the Cricket World Cup 2007 in the West Indies. Their most famous player is a 130 kilograms (290 lb) police officer named Dwayne Leverock. But India defeated Bermuda and set a record of 413 runs in a One-Day International (ODI). Bermuda were knocked out of the World Cup. Also very well-known is David Hemp, a former captain of Glamorgan in English first class cricket. The annual "Cup Match" cricket tournament between rival parishes St George's in the east and Somerset in the west is the occasion for a popular national holiday. This tournament began in 1872 when Captain Moresby of the Royal Navy introduced the game to Bermuda, holding a match at Somerset to mark forty years since the unjust thraldom of slavery. The East End versus West End rivalry resulted from the locations of the St. George's Garrison (the original army headquarters in Bermuda) on Barrack Hill, St. George's, and the Royal Naval Dockyard at Ireland Island. Moresby founded the Somerset Cricket Club which plays the St. George's Cricket Club in this game (the membership of both clubs has long been mostly civilian).
What events did Bermuda compete in at the 2004 Summer Olympics?
57295b726aef051400154d56
sailing, athletics, swimming, diving, triathlon and equestrian events
49
False
What did Katura Horton-Perinchief do?
57295b726aef051400154d57
made history by becoming the first black female diver to compete in the Olympic Games.
174
False
What is the only medal Bermuda has ever won?
57295b726aef051400154d58
bronze medal in boxing.
325
False
What is the Olympic tradition for Bermuda, regardless of season?
57295b726aef051400154d59
march in the Opening Ceremony in Bermuda shorts
584
False
sailing, athletics, swimming, diving, triathlon and equestrian events.
49
What events did Bermuda participate in during the 2004 winter olympics?
5ad42d05604f3c001a40094b
True
made history by becoming the first black female diver to compete in the Olympic Games.
174
What did Katura Perinchief-Horton do?
5ad42d05604f3c001a40094c
True
Men's Skeleton
374
What event did Bermuda participate in during the 2006 summer olympics?
5ad42d05604f3c001a40094d
True
Jillian Teceira
495
Who competed at the Beijing Olympics in 213?
5ad42d05604f3c001a40094e
True
biennial Island Games
718
What games did Bermuda host in 2008?
5ad42d05604f3c001a40094f
True
At the 2004 Summer Olympics, Bermuda competed in sailing, athletics, swimming, diving, triathlon and equestrian events. In those Olympics, Bermuda's Katura Horton-Perinchief made history by becoming the first black female diver to compete in the Olympic Games. Bermuda has had one Olympic medallist, Clarence Hill, who won a bronze medal in boxing. Bermuda also competed in Men's Skeleton at the 2006 Winter Olympics in Turin, Italy. Patrick Singleton placed 19th, with a final time of 1:59.81. Jillian Teceira competed in the Beijing Olympics in 2008. It is tradition for Bermuda to march in the Opening Ceremony in Bermuda shorts, regardless of the summer or winter Olympic celebration. Bermuda also competes in the biennial Island Games, which it hosted in 2013.
Who won the 2011 Caribbean championships?
57295c05af94a219006aa319
The Bermuda Rugby Union team
53
False
How many clubs are on the island?
57295c05af94a219006aa31a
There are four clubs on the island
391
False
Who are the reigning league champions?
57295c05af94a219006aa31b
Police (Men)
549
False
Where are the Women's games played?
57295c05af94a219006aa31c
Warwick Academy.
672
False
What did the Bermuda u/19 team win?
57295c05af94a219006aa31d
2010 Caribbean Championships
715
False
Bermuda
0
What country has a proud Union Rugby community?
5ad42ddc604f3c001a400955
True
The Bermuda Rugby Union team
53
Who won the 2011 Guyana Championships?
5ad42ddc604f3c001a400956
True
the Mexican team
373
Who did Bermuda 7's team defeat in 2010?
5ad42ddc604f3c001a400957
True
Games
642
What are played at the Academy of Warwick?
5ad42ddc604f3c001a400958
True
Bermuda u/19
689
Who won the 1990 Caribbean Championships?
5ad42ddc604f3c001a400959
True
Bermuda has developed a proud Rugby Union community. The Bermuda Rugby Union team won the 2011 Caribbean championships, defeating Guyana in the final. They previously beat The Bahamas and Mexico to take the crown. Rugby 7's is also played, with four rounds scheduled to take place in the 2011–2012 season. The Bermuda 7's team competed in the 2011 Las Vegas 7's, defeating the Mexican team. There are four clubs on the island: (1) Police (2) Mariners (3) Teachers (4) Renegades. There is a men's and women's competition–current league champions are Police (Men) (winning the title for the first time since the 1990s) and Renegades (women's). Games are currently played at Warwick Academy. Bermuda u/19 team won the 2010 Caribbean Championships.
Nigeria
When did the Southern and Northern Nigeria Protectorates merge?
5726bcd95951b619008f7c95
1914
272
False
Which empire ruled Nigeria as a colony?
5726bcd95951b619008f7c96
British
129
False
When did Nigeria become independent from Britain?
5726bcd95951b619008f7c97
1960
448
False
When did a Nigerian Civil War begin?
5726bcd95951b619008f7c98
1967
488
False
When did Nigeria have a fair presidential election?
5726bcd95951b619008f7c99
2011
661
False
Modern-day Nigeria has been the site of numerous kingdoms and tribal states over the millennia. The modern state originated from British colonial rule beginning in the 19th century, and the merging of the Southern Nigeria Protectorate and Northern Nigeria Protectorate in 1914. The British set up administrative and legal structures whilst practising indirect rule through traditional chiefdoms. Nigeria became a formally independent federation in 1960, and plunged into a civil war from 1967 to 1970. It has since alternated between democratically-elected civilian governments and military dictatorships, until it achieved a stable democracy in 1999, with its 2011 presidential elections being viewed as the first to be conducted reasonably freely and fairly.
Which country is called the 'Giant of Africa'?
5726bd64dd62a815002e8eea
Nigeria
0
False
How many people live in Nigeria?
5726bd64dd62a815002e8eeb
182 million
117
False
How does Nigeria rank among the largest-population countries in the world?
5726bd64dd62a815002e8eec
seventh
197
False
How many languages are spoken by Nigerians?
5726bd64dd62a815002e8eed
over 500
486
False
What is Nigeria's official language?
5726bd64dd62a815002e8eee
English
591
False
Nigeria is often referred to as the "Giant of Africa", owing to its large population and economy. With approximately 182 million inhabitants, Nigeria is the most populous country in Africa and the seventh most populous country in the world. Nigeria has one of the largest populations of youth in the world. The country is viewed as a multinational state, as it is inhabited by over 500 ethnic groups, of which the three largest are the Hausa, Igbo and Yoruba; these ethnic groups speak over 500 different languages, and are identified with wide variety of cultures. The official language is English. Nigeria is divided roughly in half between Christians, who live mostly in the southern part of the country, and Muslims in the northern part. A minority of the population practise religions indigenous to Nigeria, such as those native to Igbo and Yoruba peoples.
What is Nigeria's 2015 GDP?
5726bdd3dd62a815002e8efc
$500 billion
81
False
What is Nigeria's 2015 purchasing power parity?
5726bdd3dd62a815002e8efd
$1 trillion
98
False
When did Nigeria's economy become larger than South Africa's?
5726bdd3dd62a815002e8efe
2014
239
False
What is the largest economy in Africa?
5726bdd3dd62a815002e8eff
Nigeria
20
False
What is Nigeria's debt-to-GDP ratio?
5726bdd3dd62a815002e8f00
11 percent
281
False
As of 2015[update], Nigeria is the world's 20th largest economy, worth more than $500 billion and $1 trillion in terms of nominal GDP and purchasing power parity respectively. It overtook South Africa to become Africa's largest economy in 2014. Also, the debt-to-GDP ratio is only 11 percent, which is 8 percent below the 2012 ratio. Nigeria is considered to be an emerging market by the World Bank; It has been identified as a regional power on the African continent, a middle power in international affairs, and has also been identified as an emerging global power. Nigeria is a member of the MINT group of countries, which are widely seen as the globe's next "BRIC-like" economies. It is also listed among the "Next Eleven" economies set to become among the biggest in the world. Nigeria is a founding member of the Commonwealth of Nations, the African Union, OPEC, and the United Nations amongst other international organisations.
When did Boko Haram become active in Nigeria?
5726be4ddd62a815002e8f23
2002
6
False
Who is the President of Nigeria?
5726be4ddd62a815002e8f24
Goodluck Jonathan
206
False
How many people had Boko Haram killed by May 2014?
5726be4ddd62a815002e8f25
at least 12,000
278
False
How many schoolgirls did Boko Haram kidnap?
5726be4ddd62a815002e8f26
276
522
False
Since 2002, the North East of the country has seen sectarian violence by Boko Haram, an Islamist movement that seeks to abolish the secular system of government and establish Sharia law. Nigerian President Goodluck Jonathan in May 2014 claimed that Boko Haram attacks have left at least 12,000 people dead and 8,000 people crippled. At the same time, neighbouring countries, Benin, Chad, Cameroon and Niger joined Nigeria in a united effort to combat Boko Haram in the aftermath of a world media highlighted kidnapping of 276 schoolgirls and the spread of Boko Haram attacks to these countries.
What is Nigeria named after?
5726bee5f1498d1400e8e9f0
the Niger River
32
False
Who came up with the name Nigeria in the 19th century?
5726bee5f1498d1400e8e9f1
Flora Shaw
155
False
What was Nigeria's region called by the British before the name Nigeria?
5726bee5f1498d1400e8e9f2
Central Sudan
242
False
What language does the name of the Niger River come from?
5726bee5f1498d1400e8e9f3
Tuareg
376
False
Which river reaches Timbuktu?
5726bee5f1498d1400e8e9f4
Niger
319
False
The name Nigeria was taken from the Niger River running through the country. This name was allegedly coined in the late 19th century by British journalist Flora Shaw, she was inspired by the name of the river, in preference to terms such as "Central Sudan". The origin of the name ''Nigeria'' came from the name of the Niger River. The word ( Niger )  is an alteration of the Tuareg name egerew n-igerewen used by inhabitants along the middle reaches of the river around Timbuktu prior to 19th-century European colonialism. Egerew n-igerewen means River of the Rivers.
Which tribe ran the city of Nri?
5726bffb5951b619008f7d2d
Igbo
227
False
When was Nri taken over by the British?
5726bffb5951b619008f7d2e
1911
133
False
Igbo Ukwu made the oldest bronze art using which process?
5726bffb5951b619008f7d2f
lost-wax
472
False
Who ruled Nri?
5726bffb5951b619008f7d30
the Eze Nri
156
False
Which clan is Nri in the territory of?
5726bffb5951b619008f7d31
Umeuri
327
False
The Kingdom of Nri of the Igbo people consolidated in the 10th century and continued until it lost its sovereignty to the British in 1911. Nri was ruled by the Eze Nri, and the city of Nri is considered to be the foundation of Igbo culture. Nri and Aguleri, where the Igbo creation myth originates, are in the territory of the Umeuri clan. Members of the clan trace their lineages back to the patriarchal king-figure Eri. In West Africa, the oldest bronzes made using the lost-wax process were from Igbo Ukwu, a city under Nri influence.
What region has Nigeria traded with for centuries?
5726c29a5951b619008f7d7b
North Africa
87
False
Which countries' explorers were the first Europeans to trade with Nigeria?
5726c29a5951b619008f7d7c
Spanish and Portuguese
251
False
Calabar is on which historical Bight?
5726c29a5951b619008f7d7d
Biafra
607
False
What is the current name of the Bight of Biafra?
5726c29a5951b619008f7d7e
Bight of Bonny
647
False
Who were the major slave traders through Nigeria from the southwest?
5726c29a5951b619008f7d7f
Oyo Empire
1345
False
For centuries, various peoples in modern-day Nigeria traded overland with traders from North Africa. Cities in the area became regional centres in a broad network of trade routes that spanned western, central and northern Africa. In the 16th century, Spanish and Portuguese explorers were the first Europeans to begin significant, direct trade with peoples of modern-day Nigeria, at the port they named Lagos and in Calabar. Europeans traded goods with peoples at the coast; coastal trade with Europeans also marked the beginnings of the Atlantic slave trade. The port of Calabar on the historical Bight of Biafra (now commonly referred to as the Bight of Bonny) become one of the largest slave trading posts in West Africa in the era of the transatlantic slave trade. Other major slaving ports in Nigeria were located in Badagry, Lagos on the Bight of Benin and on Bonny Island on the Bight of Biafra. The majority of those enslaved and taken to these ports were captured in raids and wars. Usually the captives were taken back to the conquerors' territory as forced labour; after time, they were sometimes acculturated and absorbed into the conquerors' society. A number of slave routes were established throughout Nigeria linking the hinterland areas with the major coastal ports. Some of the more prolific slave traders were linked with the Oyo Empire in the southwest, the Aro Confederacy in the southeast and the Sokoto Caliphate in the north.
When did Britain outlaw slave trade?
5726d26fdd62a815002e9158
1807
330
False
After which war did Britain establish its West Africa Squadron?
5726d26fdd62a815002e9159
Napoleonic Wars
350
False
Where did Britain take slaves it seized from traders?
5726d26fdd62a815002e915a
Freetown
592
False
Where did Britain intervene in a power struggle?
5726d26fdd62a815002e915b
Lagos
770
False
Which Lagos king had supported the slave trade?
5726d26fdd62a815002e915c
Oba Kosoko
819
False
The slave trade was engaged in by European state and non-state actors such as Great Britain, the Netherlands, Portugal and private companies, as well as various African states and non-state actors. With rising anti-slavery sentiment at home and changing economic realities, Great Britain outlawed the international slave trade in 1807. Following the Napoleonic Wars, Great Britain established the West Africa Squadron in an attempt to halt the international traffic in slaves. It stopped ships of other nations that were leaving the African coast with slaves; the seized slaves were taken to Freetown, a colony in West Africa originally established for the resettlement of freed slaves from Britain. Britain intervened in the Lagos Kingship power struggle by bombarding Lagos in 1851, deposing the slave trade friendly Oba Kosoko, helping to install the amenable Oba Akitoye, and signing the Treaty between Great Britain and Lagos on 1 January 1852. Britain annexed Lagos as a Crown Colony in August 1861 with the Lagos Treaty of Cession. British missionaries expanded their operations and travelled further inland. In 1864, Samuel Ajayi Crowther became the first African bishop of the Anglican Church.
Where was Britain's claim to West Africa recognized in 1885?
5726d331f1498d1400e8ec6e
the Berlin Conference
114
False
What company was led by Sir George Taubman Goldie?
5726d331f1498d1400e8ec6f
Royal Niger Company
174
False
When did the British government take over the Royal Niger Company's territory?
5726d331f1498d1400e8ec70
1900
248
False
When did Nigeria become a British protectorate?
5726d331f1498d1400e8ec71
1 January 1901
399
False
Which country did Britain conquer in 1897?
5726d331f1498d1400e8ec72
Benin
741
False
In 1885, British claims to a West African sphere of influence received recognition from other European nations at the Berlin Conference. The following year, it chartered the Royal Niger Company under the leadership of Sir George Taubman Goldie. In 1900 the company's territory came under the control of the British government, which moved to consolidate its hold over the area of modern Nigeria. On 1 January 1901, Nigeria became a British protectorate, and part of the British Empire, the foremost world power at the time. In the late 19th and early 20th centuries the independent kingdoms of what would become Nigeria fought a number of conflicts against the British Empire's efforts to expand its territory. By war, the British conquered Benin in 1897, and, in the Anglo-Aro War (1901–1902), defeated other opponents. The restraint or conquest of these states opened up the Niger area to British rule.
What religion built Western schools in Nigeria?
5726d4895951b619008f7f5f
Christian
0
False
Britain discouraged building Christian missions in which part of Nigeria?
5726d4895951b619008f7f60
northern
234
False
What religion was the majority in the northern part of Nigeria?
5726d4895951b619008f7f61
Islamic
244
False
When did Nigeria receive independence?
5726d4895951b619008f7f62
1960
378
False
When did northern Nigeria ban slavery?
5726d4895951b619008f7f63
1936
660
False
Christian missions established Western educational institutions in the Protectorates. Under Britain's policy of indirect rule and validation of Islamic tradition, the Crown did not encourage the operation of Christian missions in the northern, Islamic part of the country. Some children of the southern elite went to Great Britain to pursue higher education. By independence in 1960, regional differences in modern educational access were marked. The legacy, though less pronounced, continues to the present-day. Imbalances between North and South were expressed in Nigeria's political life as well. For instance, northern Nigeria did not outlaw slavery until 1936 whilst in other parts of Nigeria slavery was abolished soon after colonialism.
What was Nigeria's status after independence from the UK?
5726d58cf1498d1400e8ec94
a Commonwealth Realm
55
False
Which Nigerian political party was mostly Islamic?
5726d58cf1498d1400e8ec95
Nigerian People's Congress
161
False
Which Nigerian political party was mostly Christian?
5726d58cf1498d1400e8ec96
National Council of Nigeria and the Cameroons
297
False
Who led the NCNC party?
5726d58cf1498d1400e8ec97
Nnamdi Azikiwe
357
False
Which Nigerian political party was mostly Yoruba?
5726d58cf1498d1400e8ec98
Obafemi Awolowo
554
False
Nigeria gained independence from the United Kingdom as a Commonwealth Realm on 1 October 1960. Nigeria's government was a coalition of conservative parties: the Nigerian People's Congress (NPC), a party dominated by Northerners and those of the Islamic faith, and the Igbo and Christian-dominated National Council of Nigeria and the Cameroons (NCNC) led by Nnamdi Azikiwe. Azikiwe became Nigeria's maiden Governor-General in 1960. The opposition comprised the comparatively liberal Action Group (AG), which was largely dominated by the Yoruba and led by Obafemi Awolowo. The cultural and political differences between Nigeria's dominant ethnic groups – the Hausa ('Northerners'), Igbo ('Easterners') and Yoruba ('Westerners') – were sharp.
In what year were there two military coups in Nigeria?
5726d6995951b619008f7f83
1966
90
False
Which group led the first 1966 coup?
5726d6995951b619008f7f84
Igbo soldiers
178
False
Which Prime Minister was murdered in the Igbo coup?
5726d6995951b619008f7f85
Abubakar Tafawa Balewa
308
False
Which Northern Premier was murdered in the Igbo coup?
5726d6995951b619008f7f86
Ahmadu Bello
340
False
Which Western Premier was murdered in the Igbo coup?
5726d6995951b619008f7f87
Ladoke Akintola
388
False
The disquilibrium and perceived corruption of the electoral and political process led, in 1966, to back-to-back military coups. The first coup was in January 1966 and was led by Igbo soldiers under Majors Emmanuel Ifeajuna and Chukwuma Kaduna Nzeogwu. The coup plotters succeeded in murdering Prime Minister Abubakar Tafawa Balewa, Premier Ahmadu Bello of the Northern Region and Premier Ladoke Akintola of the Western Region. But, the coup plotters struggled to form a central government. President Nwafor Orizu handed over government control to the Army, then under the command of another Igbo officer, General JTU Aguiyi-Ironsi.
What did Eastern Nigeria want to call itself as an independent nation?
5726d77f708984140094d321
Republic of Biafra
76
False
When did Eastern Nigeria declare its independence?
5726d77f708984140094d322
May 1967
3
False
Who led Eastern Nigeria during the Nigerian Civil War?
5726d77f708984140094d323
Lt. Colonel Emeka Ojukwu
120
False
How many months did the Nigerian Civil War last?
5726d77f708984140094d324
30
328
False
How many people died during the Nigerian Civil War?
5726d77f708984140094d325
between 1 and 3 million
501
False
In May 1967, the Eastern Region declared independence as a state called the Republic of Biafra, under the leadership of Lt. Colonel Emeka Ojukwu. The Nigerian Civil War began as the official Nigerian government side (predominated by soldiers from the North and West) attacked Biafra (Southeastern) on 6 July 1967 at Garkem. The 30 month war, with a long siege of Biafra and its isolation from trade and supplies, ended in January 1970. Estimates of the number of dead in the former Eastern Region are between 1 and 3 million people, from warfare, disease, and starvation, during the 30-month civil war.
Which oil group did Nigeria join?
5726d830f1498d1400e8ece4
OPEC
49
False
Who failed to use the oil revenues to invest in infrastructure?
5726d830f1498d1400e8ece5
the military administration
162
False
Overdependence on oil income led to the fall of what form of government in Nigeria?
5726d830f1498d1400e8ece6
federalism
766
False
During the oil boom of the 1970s, Nigeria joined OPEC and the huge revenue generated made the economy richer. Despite huge revenues from oil production and sale, the military administration did little to improve the standard of living of the population, help small and medium businesses, or invest in infrastructure. As oil revenues fuelled the rise of federal subventions to states, the federal government became the centre of political struggle and the threshold of power in the country. As oil production and revenue rose, the Nigerian government became increasingly dependent on oil revenues and the international commodity markets for budgetary and economic concerns. It did not develop other sources of the economy for economic stability. That spelled doom to federalism in Nigeria.
Which Nigerian leader transferred power in 1979?
5726d8e9f1498d1400e8ecfc
Olusegun Obasanjo
78
False
Which Nigerian leader received power in 1979?
5726d8e9f1498d1400e8ecfd
Shehu Shagari
140
False
How did Nigerians view the Shagari administration?
5726d8e9f1498d1400e8ecfe
corrupt and incompetent
195
False
Who led a military coup against Shagari?
5726d8e9f1498d1400e8ecff
Muhammadu Buhari
286
False
When did another military coup overthrow Buhari?
5726d8e9f1498d1400e8ed00
1985
555
False
Beginning in 1979, Nigerians participated in a brief return to democracy when Olusegun Obasanjo transferred power to the civilian regime of Shehu Shagari. The Shagari government became viewed as corrupt and incompetent by virtually all sectors of Nigerian society. The military coup of Muhammadu Buhari shortly after the regime's fraudulent re-election in 1984 was generally viewed as a positive development. Buhari promised major reforms, but his government fared little better than its predecessor. His regime was overthrown by another military coup in 1985.
Which Nigerian leader decided Nigeria would return to democracy in 1990?
5726d9d5dd62a815002e928e
Ibrahim Babangida
23
False
What did Babangida set up to help pay Nigeria's national debt?
5726d9d5dd62a815002e928f
International Monetary Fund's Structural Adjustment Program
312
False
What was most of Nigeria's federal income being spent on?
5726d9d5dd62a815002e9290
debt
442
False
What controversial religious group did Nigeria join?
5726d9d5dd62a815002e9291
Organisation of the Islamic Conference
530
False
The new head of state, Ibrahim Babangida, declared himself president and commander in chief of the armed forces and the ruling Supreme Military Council. He set 1990 as the official deadline for a return to democratic governance. Babangida's tenure was marked by a flurry of political activity: he instituted the International Monetary Fund's Structural Adjustment Program (SAP) to aid in the repayment of the country's crushing international debt, which most federal revenue was dedicated to servicing. He enrolled Nigeria in the Organisation of the Islamic Conference, which aggravated religious tensions in the country.
To when did Babangida delay the return to democracy?
5726db26f1498d1400e8ed56
1992
94
False
When did Nigeria finally hold a fair election?
5726db26f1498d1400e8ed57
12 June 1993
145
False
Who won the 1993 Nigerian election?
5726db26f1498d1400e8ed58
Moshood Kashimawo Olawale Abiola
191
False
Babangida's reaction to the election results caused violent protests for how long?
5726db26f1498d1400e8ed59
weeks
345
False
Who did Babangida appoint as head of an interim government when he finally stepped down?
5726db26f1498d1400e8ed5a
Ernest Shonekan
464
False
After Babangida survived an abortive coup, he pushed back the promised return to democracy to 1992. Free and fair elections were finally held on 12 June 1993, with a presidential victory for Moshood Kashimawo Olawale Abiola. Babangida annulled the elections, leading to mass civilian violent protests which effectively shut down the country for weeks. Babangida finally kept his promise to relinquish office to a civilian-run government, but not before appointing Ernest Shonekan as head of the interim government. Babangida's regime has been considered the most corrupt, and responsible for creating a culture of corruption in Nigeria.
When did Nigeria regain democracy?
5726dbeadd62a815002e92ee
1999
30
False
Who won the 1999 Nigerian election?
5726dbeadd62a815002e92ef
Olusegun Obasanjo
51
False
Nigeria was under military rule for how long?
5726dbeadd62a815002e92f0
almost 33 years
149
False
How was the 1999 election regarded?
5726dbeadd62a815002e92f1
unfree and unfair
508
False
How was the 2003 election regarded?
5726dbeadd62a815002e92f2
unfree and unfair
508
False
Nigeria regained democracy in 1999 when it elected Olusegun Obasanjo, the former military head of state, as the new President of Nigeria. This ended almost 33 years of military rule (from 1966 until 1999), excluding the short-lived second republic (between 1979 and 1983) by military dictators who seized power in coups d'état and counter-coups during the Nigerian military juntas of 1966–1979 and 1983–1998. Although the elections which brought Obasanjo to power in 1999 and again in 2003 were condemned as unfree and unfair, Nigeria has shown marked improvements in attempts to tackle government corruption and to hasten development.
Who won the 2011 election?
5726dcbf708984140094d3fb
Goodluck Jonathan
0
False
How many votes did Goodluck get in 2011?
5726dcbf708984140094d3fc
22,495,187
229
False
What was the main opposition political party in 2011?
5726dcbf708984140094d3fd
Congress for Progressive Change
341
False
Who was the CPC's 2011 candidate?
5726dcbf708984140094d3fe
Muhammadu Buhari
288
False
How many votes did Buhari get?
5726dcbf708984140094d3ff
12,214,853
390
False
Goodluck Jonathan served as Nigeria's president till 16 April 2011, when a new presidential election in Nigeria was conducted. Jonathan of the PDP was declared the winner on 19 April 2011, having won the election with a total of 22,495,187 of the 39,469,484 votes cast, to stand ahead of Muhammadu Buhari from the main opposition party, the Congress for Progressive Change (CPC), which won 12,214,853 of the total votes cast. The international media reported the elections as having run smoothly with relatively little violence or voter fraud, in contrast to previous elections.
What is Nigeria's form of government?
5726dda25951b619008f8089
Federal Republic
13
False
What houses does the Nigerian legislature have?
5726dda25951b619008f808a
upper and lower
220
False
How many times can a Nigerian president be elected?
5726dda25951b619008f808b
two 4-year terms
408
False
Who won the 2015 Nigerian presidential election?
5726dda25951b619008f808c
General Muhammadu Buhari
471
False
Who lost the 2015 Nigerian presidential election?
5726dda25951b619008f808d
Goodluck Jonathan
584
False
Nigeria is a Federal Republic modelled after the United States, with executive power exercised by the president. It is influenced by the Westminster System model[citation needed] in the composition and management of the upper and lower houses of the bicameral legislature. The president presides as both Head of State and head of the national executive; the leader is elected by popular vote to a maximum of two 4-year terms. In the March 28, 2015 presidential election, General Muhammadu Buhari emerged victorious to become the Federal President of Nigeria, defeating then incumbent Goodluck Jonathan.
What are Nigeria's 3 biggest ethnic groups?
5726dea95951b619008f80b5
Hausa, Igbo and Yoruba
549
False
When did Nigeria get independence?
5726dea95951b619008f80b6
1960
143
False
What major secession movement has Nigeria had?
5726dea95951b619008f80b7
MASSOB
382
False
What major nationalist movement has Nigeria had?
5726dea95951b619008f80b8
Oodua Peoples Congress
420
False
Ethnocentrism, tribalism, religious persecution, and prebendalism have affected Nigerian politics both prior and subsequent to independence in 1960. Kin-selective altruism has made its way into Nigerian politics, resulting in tribalist efforts to concentrate Federal power to a particular region of their interests. Nationalism has also led to active secessionist movements such as MASSOB, Nationalist movements such as Oodua Peoples Congress, Movement for the Emancipation of the Niger Delta and a civil war. Nigeria's three largest ethnic groups (Hausa, Igbo and Yoruba) have maintained historical preeminence in Nigerian politics; competition amongst these three groups has fuelled corruption and graft.
How many seats does the People's Democratic Party of Nigeria have in the House?
5726df8edd62a815002e9376
223
307
False
How many seats does the People's Democratic Party of Nigeria have in the Senate?
5726df8edd62a815002e9377
76
334
False
How many seats does the  All Progressives Congress have in the House?
5726df8edd62a815002e9378
96
468
False
How many seats does the  All Progressives Congress have in the Senate?
5726df8edd62a815002e9379
27
487
False
How many minor opposition parties does Nigeria have?
5726df8edd62a815002e937a
About twenty
523
False
Because of the above issues, Nigeria's political parties are pan-national and secular in character (though this does not preclude the continuing preeminence of the dominant ethnicities). The major political parties at that time included the then ruling People's Democratic Party of Nigeria, which maintains 223 seats in the House and 76 in the Senate (61.9% and 69.7% respectively); the opposition formerly All Nigeria People's Party now All Progressives Congress has 96 House seats and 27 in the Senate (26.6% and 24.7%). About twenty minor opposition parties are registered.
What group did Nigeria support against white governments in Southern Africa?
5726e060708984140094d477
African National Congress
218
False
What group was Nigeria a founding member of?
5726e060708984140094d478
Organisation for African Unity
416
False
What is the Organisation for African Unity now known as?
5726e060708984140094d479
the African Union
452
False
Nigeria is a 'standard-bearer' in what international group?
5726e060708984140094d47a
the Economic Community of West African States
654
False
Nigeria's foreign policy was tested in the 1970s after the country emerged united from its own civil war. It supported movements against white minority governments in the Southern Africa sub-region. Nigeria backed the African National Congress (ANC) by taking a committed tough line with regard to the South African government and their military actions in southern Africa. Nigeria was also a founding member of the Organisation for African Unity (now the African Union), and has tremendous influence in West Africa and Africa on the whole. Nigeria has additionally founded regional cooperative efforts in West Africa, functioning as standard-bearer for the Economic Community of West African States (ECOWAS) and ECOMOG, economic and military organisations, respectively.
How many inches of rain does southern Nigeria get each year?
5726e11bf1498d1400e8ee76
60 to 80 inches
118
False
What type of climate is southern Nigeria?
5726e11bf1498d1400e8ee77
tropical rainforest
64
False
What part of Nigeria is the Obudu Plateau in?
5726e11bf1498d1400e8ee78
southeast
169
False
What is Nigeria's northernmost climate?
5726e11bf1498d1400e8ee79
rain forest
548
False
Nigeria has a varied landscape. The far south is defined by its tropical rainforest climate, where annual rainfall is 60 to 80 inches (1,500 to 2,000 mm) a year. In the southeast stands the Obudu Plateau. Coastal plains are found in both the southwest and the southeast. This forest zone's most southerly portion is defined as "salt water swamp," also known as a mangrove swamp because of the large amount of mangroves in the area. North of this is fresh water swamp, containing different vegetation from the salt water swamp, and north of that is rain forest.
What does the Cross River State area of Nigeria have the world's largest variety of?
5726e1f45951b619008f8151
butterflies
421
False
Southern Nigeria is turning from a forest to what type of environment?
5726e1f45951b619008f8152
grassland
619
False
What type of monkey is only found in parts of Nigeria and Cameroon?
5726e1f45951b619008f8153
the drill monkey
195
False
What ecoregion is in Nigeria near the Cameroon border?
5726e1f45951b619008f8154
Cross-Sanaga-Bioko coastal forests
93
False
Why is southern Nigeria losing its forests?
5726e1f45951b619008f8155
development and harvesting by increased population
541
False
The area near the border with Cameroon close to the coast is rich rainforest and part of the Cross-Sanaga-Bioko coastal forests ecoregion, an important centre for biodiversity. It is habitat for the drill monkey, which is found in the wild only in this area and across the border in Cameroon. The areas surrounding Calabar, Cross River State, also in this forest, are believed to contain the world's largest diversity of butterflies. The area of southern Nigeria between the Niger and the Cross Rivers has lost most of its forest because of development and harvesting by increased population, with it being replaced by grassland (see Cross-Niger transition forests).
What type of vegetation is in central Nigeria?
5726e30ddd62a815002e93f8
savannah
57
False
How many inches of rain does central Nigeria get each year?
5726e30ddd62a815002e93f9
between 500 and 1,500 millimetres (20 and 60 in)
171
False
How many subregions are there of Nigeria's savannah zone?
5726e30ddd62a815002e93fa
three
250
False
How much rain does the Sahel savannah area get per year?
5726e30ddd62a815002e93fb
less than 500 millimetres (20 in)
591
False
Which desert is encroaching into northeastern Nigeria?
5726e30ddd62a815002e93fc
Sahara
642
False
Everything in between the far south and the far north is savannah (insignificant tree cover, with grasses and flowers located between trees). Rainfall is more limited, to between 500 and 1,500 millimetres (20 and 60 in) per year. The savannah zone's three categories are Guinean forest-savanna mosaic, Sudan savannah, and Sahel savannah. Guinean forest-savanna mosaic is plains of tall grass interrupted by trees. Sudan savannah is similar but with shorter grasses and shorter trees. Sahel savannah consists of patches of grass and sand, found in the northeast. In the Sahel region, rain is less than 500 millimetres (20 in) per year and the Sahara Desert is encroaching. In the dry north-east corner of the country lies Lake Chad, which Nigeria shares with Niger, Chad and Cameroon.
What is the largest Nigerian city?
5726e3bd5951b619008f819b
Lagos
246
False
What type of groups have been failing to keep up with waste management in Nigeria?
5726e3bd5951b619008f819c
municipal councils
367
False
What Nigerian community has the worst unsustainable waste management?
5726e3bd5951b619008f819d
Kubwa Community
561
False
What territory is Kubwa Community in?
5726e3bd5951b619008f819e
Federal Capital Territory
584
False
Waste management including sewage treatment, the linked processes of deforestation and soil degradation, and climate change or global warming are the major environmental problems in Nigeria. Waste management presents problems in a mega city like Lagos and other major Nigerian cities which are linked with economic development, population growth and the inability of municipal councils to manage the resulting rise in industrial and domestic waste. This huge waste management problem is also attributable to unsustainable environmental management lifestyles of Kubwa Community in the Federal Capital Territory, where there are habits of indiscriminate disposal of waste, dumping of waste along or into the canals, sewerage systems that are channels for water flows, etc.
How many states does Nigeria have?
5726e4e2708984140094d509
thirty-six
24
False
What non-state area does Nigeria have?
5726e4e2708984140094d50a
Federal Capital Territory
50
False
How many smaller areas are the Nigerian states divided into?
5726e4e2708984140094d50b
774
112
False
What are the Nigerian states' sub-divisions called?
5726e4e2708984140094d50c
Local Government Areas
116
False
How many geopolitical zones do people consider the Nigerian states to be in?
5726e4e2708984140094d50d
six
408
False
Nigeria is divided into thirty-six states and one Federal Capital Territory, which are further sub-divided into 774 Local Government Areas (LGAs). The plethora of states, of which there were only three at independence, reflect the country's tumultuous history and the difficulties of managing such a heterogeneous national entity at all levels of government. In some contexts, the states are aggregated into six geopolitical zones: North West, North East, North Central, South East, South South, and South West.
Where did Nigeria's 2012 GDP rank?
5726e613dd62a815002e9450
30th in the world
19
False
Which sub-Saharan African nation does the most trade with the US?
5726e613dd62a815002e9451
Nigeria
68
False
How much of the US's oil comes from Nigeria?
5726e613dd62a815002e9452
a fifth
157
False
How much of the US's oil imports come from Nigeria?
5726e613dd62a815002e9453
11%
177
False
How much growth did the IMF expect Nigeria's economy to have in 2009?
5726e613dd62a815002e9454
8.3%
525
False
Nigeria was ranked 30th in the world in terms of GDP (PPP) in 2012. Nigeria is the United States' largest trading partner in sub-Saharan Africa and supplies a fifth of its oil (11% of oil imports). It has the seventh-largest trade surplus with the US of any country worldwide. Nigeria is the 50th-largest export market for US goods and the 14th-largest exporter of goods to the US. The United States is the country's largest foreign investor. The International Monetary Fund (IMF) projected economic growth of 9% in 2008 and 8.3% in 2009. The IMF further projects an 8% growth in the Nigerian economy in 2011.
When was the Niger Delta Nembe Creek Oil field found?
5726e6d6f1498d1400e8ef5c
1973
56
False
What is the depth of the Niger Delta Nembe Creek Oil field?
5726e6d6f1498d1400e8ef5d
2–4 km
164
False
What type of geology is the Niger Delta Nembe Creek Oil field?
5726e6d6f1498d1400e8ef5e
middle Miocene deltaic sandstone-shale in an anticline structural trap
79
False
How long have international oil companies been in Nigeria?
5726e6d6f1498d1400e8ef5f
decades
359
False
The Niger Delta Nembe Creek Oil field was discovered in 1973 and produces from middle Miocene deltaic sandstone-shale in an anticline structural trap at a depth of 2–4 km. In June 2013, the company announced a strategic review of its operations in Nigeria, hinting that assets could be divested. While many international oil companies have operated there for decades, by 2014 most were making moves to divest their interests, citing a range of issues including oil theft. In August 2014, Shell Oil Company said it was finalising its interests in four Nigerian oil fields.
How much money did overseas Nigerians send home in 2004?
5726e773dd62a815002e948c
USD 2.3 billion
158
False
How much money did overseas Nigerians send home in 2007?
5726e773dd62a815002e948d
17.9 billion
185
False
Which country has Nigerians sending the most money home?
5726e773dd62a815002e948e
United States
211
False
Which country has Nigerians sending the second-most money home?
5726e773dd62a815002e948f
United Kingdom
299
False
Which Asian country has Nigerians sending the most money home?
5726e773dd62a815002e9490
China
498
False
According to the International Organization for Migration, Nigeria witnessed a dramatic increase in remittances sent home from overseas Nigerians, going from USD 2.3 billion in 2004 to 17.9 billion in 2007. The United States accounts for the largest portion of official remittances, followed by the United Kingdom, Italy, Canada, Spain and France. On the African continent, Egypt, Equatorial Guinea, Chad, Libya and South Africa are important source countries of remittance flows to Nigeria, while China is the biggest remittance-sending country in Asia.
What is Nigeria's local vehicle manufacturer?
5726e8285951b619008f8211
Innoson Motors
124
False
What is Nigeria's branded electronics manufacturer?
5726e8285951b619008f8212
Zinox
286
False
When did Nigeria change its import policies to encourage local manufacturers?
5726e8285951b619008f8213
2013
388
False
What city is Nigeria's main industrial area?
5726e8285951b619008f8214
Ogun
657
False
What city is Nigeria's secondary industrial area?
5726e8285951b619008f8215
Lagos
807
False
Nigeria in recent years has been embracing industrialisation. It currently has an indigenous vehicle manufacturing company, Innoson Motors, which manufactures Rapid Transit Buses, Trucks and SUVs with an upcoming introduction of Cars. Nigeria also has few Electronic manufacturers like Zinox, the first Branded Nigerian Computer and Electronic gadgets (like tablet PCs) manufacturers. In 2013, Nigeria introduced a policy regarding import duty on vehicles to encourage local manufacturing companies in the country. In this regard, some foreign vehicle manufacturing companies like Nissan have made known their plans to have manufacturing plants in Nigeria. Ogun is considered to be the current Nigeria's industrial hub, as most factories are located in Ogun and more companies are moving there, followed by Lagos.
When did Nigeria launch its first satellite?
5726e8e4708984140094d581
27 September 2003
234
False
What was Nigeria's first satellite called?
5726e8e4708984140094d582
Nigeriasat-1
100
False
Where did Nigeria launch its first satellite?
5726e8e4708984140094d583
Russia
224
False
How many satellites has the Nigerian government commissioned?
5726e8e4708984140094d584
four
79
False
The Nigerian government has commissioned the overseas production and launch of four satellites. The Nigeriasat-1 was the first satellite to be built under the Nigerian government sponsorship. The satellite was launched from Russia on 27 September 2003. Nigeriasat-1 was part of the world-wide Disaster Monitoring Constellation System. The primary objectives of the Nigeriasat-1 were: to give early warning signals of environmental disaster; to help detect and control desertification in the northern part of Nigeria; to assist in demographic planning; to establish the relationship between malaria vectors and the environment that breeds malaria and to give early warning signals on future outbreaks of meningitis using remote sensing technology; to provide the technology needed to bring education to all parts of the country through distant learning; and to aid in conflict resolution and border disputes by mapping out state and International borders.
What was Nigeria's second satellite called?
5726e93cdd62a815002e94c6
NigeriaSat-2
0
False
Who manufactured Nigeria's second satellite?
5726e93cdd62a815002e94c7
Surrey Space Technology Limited
92
False
Where was Nigeria's second satellite manufactured?
5726e93cdd62a815002e94c8
United Kingdom
127
False
Where is Nigeria's second satellite's ground receiving station?
5726e93cdd62a815002e94c9
Abuja
436
False
Where was Nigeria's second satellite launched?
5726e93cdd62a815002e94ca
China
581
False
NigeriaSat-2, Nigeria's second satellite, was built as a high-resolution earth satellite by Surrey Space Technology Limited, a United Kingdom-based satellite technology company. It has 2.5-metre resolution panchromatic (very high resolution), 5-metre multispectral (high resolution, NIR red, green and red bands), and 32-metre multispectral (medium resolution, NIR red, green and red bands) antennas, with a ground receiving station in Abuja. The NigeriaSat-2 spacecraft alone was built at a cost of over £35 million. This satellite was launched into orbit from a military base in China.
What was Nigeria's third satellite called?
5726e9d2dd62a815002e94f6
NigComSat-1
0
False
When was Nigeria's third satellite built?
5726e9d2dd62a815002e94f7
2004
43
False
When was Nigeria's third satellite launched?
5726e9d2dd62a815002e94f8
13 May 2007
142
False
When did Nigeria's third satellite run out of power?
5726e9d2dd62a815002e94f9
11 November 2008
336
False
where was Nigeria's third satellite launched?
5726e9d2dd62a815002e94fa
China
246
False
NigComSat-1, a Nigerian satellite built in 2004, was Nigeria's third satellite and Africa's first communication satellite. It was launched on 13 May 2007, aboard a Chinese Long March 3B carrier rocket, from the Xichang Satellite Launch Centre in China. The spacecraft was operated by NigComSat and the Nigerian Space Agency, NASRDA. On 11 November 2008, NigComSat-1 failed in orbit after running out of power because of an anomaly in its solar array. It was based on the Chinese DFH-4 satellite bus, and carries a variety of transponders: 4 C-band; 14 Ku-band; 8 Ka-band; and 2 L-band. It was designed to provide coverage to many parts of Africa, and the Ka-band transponders would also cover Italy.
When was Nigeria's fourth satellite launched?
5726ea8d708984140094d5d1
December 19, 2011
329
False
Where was Nigeria's fourth satellite launched?
5726ea8d708984140094d5d2
China
309
False
What paid for Nigeria's fourth satellite?
5726ea8d708984140094d5d3
the insurance policy on NigComSat-1
439
False
What was Nigeria's fourth satellite called?
5726ea8d708984140094d5d4
NigComSat-1R
157
False
What satellite did Nigeria's fourth satellite replace?
5726ea8d708984140094d5d5
NigComSat-1
257
False
On 24 March 2009, the Nigerian Federal Ministry of Science and Technology, NigComSat Ltd. and CGWIC signed another contract for the in-orbit delivery of the NigComSat-1R satellite. NigComSat-1R was also a DFH-4 satellite, and the replacement for the failed NigComSat-1 was successfully launched into orbit by China in Xichang on December 19, 2011. The satellite according to then-Nigerian President Goodluck Jonathan which was paid for by the insurance policy on NigComSat-1 which de-orbited in 2009, would have a positive impact on national development in various sectors such as communications, internet services, health, agriculture, environmental protection and national security.
What was Nigeria's population in 2009?
5726eb29dd62a815002e9534
154,729,000
64
False
How much of Nigeria's population in 2009 was rural?
5726eb29dd62a815002e9535
51.7%
92
False
How much of Nigeria's population in 2009 was urban?
5726eb29dd62a815002e9536
48.3%
108
False
What was Nigeria's population density in 2009?
5726eb29dd62a815002e9537
167.5 people per square kilometre
154
False
When did President Goodluck Jonathan advocate limiting childbirth?
5726eb29dd62a815002e9538
June 2012
466
False
The United Nations estimates that the population in 2009 was at 154,729,000, distributed as 51.7% rural and 48.3% urban, and with a population density of 167.5 people per square kilometre. National census results in the past few decades have been disputed. The results of the most recent census were released in December 2006 and gave a population of 140,003,542. The only breakdown available was by gender: males numbered 71,709,859, females numbered 68,293,08. On June 2012, President Goodluck Jonathan said that Nigerians should limit their number of children.
What is the official language of Nigeria?
5726ebfc708984140094d619
English
77
False
How much of Nigeria uses English as a first language?
5726ebfc708984140094d61a
a small minority of the country's urban elite
233
False
What is the most popular language in Nigeria?
5726ebfc708984140094d61b
Hausa
329
False
What are the top 3 languages in Nigeria?
5726ebfc708984140094d61c
Igbo, Hausa and Yoruba
411
False
Even though most ethnic groups prefer to communicate in their own languages, English as the official language is widely used for education, business transactions and for official purposes. English as a first language is used only by a small minority of the country's urban elite, and it is not spoken at all in some rural areas. Hausa is the most widely spoken of the 3 main languages spoken in Nigeria itself (Igbo, Hausa and Yoruba) but unlike the Yorubas and Igbos, the Hausas tend not to travel far outside Nigeria itself.[citation needed]
What is Nigerian Pidgin English often called?
5726ed805951b619008f8291
'Pidgin' or 'Broken'
361
False
What regions is Nigerian English commonly spoken in?
5726ed805951b619008f8292
Niger Delta Regions
562
False
What type of region does a majority of Nigerians live in?
5726ed805951b619008f8293
rural
47
False
What type of languages are the most popular in Nigeria?
5726ed805951b619008f8294
indigenous
119
False
With the majority of Nigeria's populace in the rural areas, the major languages of communication in the country remain indigenous languages. Some of the largest of these, notably Yoruba and Igbo, have derived standardised languages from a number of different dialects and are widely spoken by those ethnic groups. Nigerian Pidgin English, often known simply as 'Pidgin' or 'Broken' (Broken English), is also a popular lingua franca, though with varying regional influences on dialect and slang. The pidgin English or Nigerian English is widely spoken within the Niger Delta Regions, predominately in Warri, Sapele, Port Harcourt, Agenebode, Ewu, and Benin City.
What are the most popular religions in Nigeria?
5726edf05951b619008f82a3
Islam and Christianity
47
False
What religions does Nigeria have besides the top two?
5726edf05951b619008f82a4
a tiny minority of adherents of Animism and other religions
184
False
How much of Nigeria's population is Muslim?
5726edf05951b619008f82a5
over 40%
279
False
How much of Nigeria's population is Christian?
5726edf05951b619008f82a6
58%
407
False
How much of Nigeria's population is Animist and other religions?
5726edf05951b619008f82a7
1.4%
566
False
Nigeria is a religiously diverse society, with Islam and Christianity being the most widely professed religions. Nigerians are nearly equally divided into Christians and Muslims, with a tiny minority of adherents of Animism and other religions. According to one recent estimate, over 40% of Nigeria's population adheres to Islam (mainly Sunni, other branches are also present). Christianity is practised by 58% of the population (among them 74% are Protestant, 25% Roman Catholic, 1% other Christian). Adherents of Animism and other religions collectively represent 1.4% of the population.
What type of Islam is most common in Nigeria?
5726ef16708984140094d665
Sunni
44
False
What school of Sunni Islam is most common in Nigeria?
5726ef16708984140094d666
Maliki school of jurisprudence
63
False
What Islamic law is being used in some Nigerian states?
5726ef16708984140094d667
Sharia
392
False
What Nigerian state is trying to make Sharia law part of its constitution?
5726ef16708984140094d668
Kano
490
False
The vast majority of Muslims in Nigeria are Sunni belonging to Maliki school of jurisprudence; however, a sizeable minority also belongs to Shafi madhhab. A large number of Sunni Muslims are members of Sufi brotherhoods. Most Sufis follow the Qadiriyya, Tijaniyyah and/or the Mouride movements. A significant Shia minority exists (see Shia in Nigeria). Some northern states have incorporated Sharia law into their previously secular legal systems, which has brought about some controversy. Kano State has sought to incorporate Sharia law into its constitution. The majority of Quranists follow the Kalo Kato or Quraniyyun movement. There are also Ahmadiyya and Mahdiyya minorities.
In 2001, what percent of Nigeria's population was Muslim?
5726efd8708984140094d681
about 50%
59
False
In 2001, what percent of Nigeria's population was Christian?
5726efd8708984140094d682
40%
104
False
In 2001, what percent of Nigeria's population followed local religions?
5726efd8708984140094d683
10%
127
False
According to Pew, in 2010, what percent of Nigeria's population was Muslim?
5726efd8708984140094d684
48.8 percent
415
False
According to Pew, in 2010, what percent of Nigeria's population was Christian?
5726efd8708984140094d685
49.3 percent
363
False
According to a 2001 report from The World Factbook by CIA, about 50% of Nigeria's population is Muslim, 40% are Christians and 10% adhere to local religions. But in some recent report, the Christian population is now sightly larger than the Muslim population. An 18 December 2012 report on religion and public life by the Pew Research Center stated that in 2010, 49.3 percent of Nigeria's population was Christian, 48.8 percent was Muslim, and 1.9 percent were followers of indigenous and other religions, or unaffiliated. Additionally, the 2010s census of Association of Religion Data Archives has reported that 46.5 percent of the total population is Christian, slightly bigger than the Muslim population of 45.5 percent, and that 7.7 percent are members of other religious groups.
How many Nigerian Christians are Protestant?
5726f0b3f1498d1400e8f086
74%
53
False
How many Nigerian Christians are Catholic?
5726f0b3f1498d1400e8f087
25%
74
False
How many Nigerian Christians are Orthodox and other sects?
5726f0b3f1498d1400e8f088
1%
97
False
Which Nigerian tribe is 95% Muslim?
5726f0b3f1498d1400e8f089
Hausa
238
False
Which Eastern Nigerian tribe is 98% Christian?
5726f0b3f1498d1400e8f08a
Igbos
450
False
Among Christians, the Pew Research survey found that 74% were Protestant, 25% were Catholic, and 1% belonged to other Christian denominations, including a small Orthodox Christian community. In terms of Nigeria's major ethnic groups, the Hausa ethnic group (predominant in the north) was found to be 95% Muslim and 5% Christian, the Yoruba tribe (predominant in the west) was 55% Muslim, 35% Christian and 10% adherents of other religions, while the Igbos (predominant in the east) and the Ijaw (south) were 98% Christian, with 2% practising traditional religions. The middle belt of Nigeria contains the largest number of minority ethnic groups in Nigeria, who were found to be mostly Christians and members of traditional religions, with a small proportion of Muslims.
When did many newer churches start growing in Nigeria?
5726f1f85951b619008f8309
Since the 1990s
203
False
What is the largest Anglican church in Nigeria?
5726f1f85951b619008f830a
the Church of Nigeria of the Anglican Communion
51
False
What is the largest Baptist church in Nigeria?
5726f1f85951b619008f830b
the Nigerian Baptist Convention
130
False
Leading Protestant churches in the country include the Church of Nigeria of the Anglican Communion, the Assemblies of God Church, the Nigerian Baptist Convention and The Synagogue, Church Of All Nations Since the 1990s, there has been significant growth in many other churches, particularly the evangelical Protestant ones. These include the Redeemed Christian Church of God, Winners' Chapel, Christ Apostolic Church (the first Aladura Movement in Nigeria), Deeper Christian Life Ministry, Evangelical Church of West Africa, Mountain of Fire and Miracles, Christ Embassy and The Synagogue Church Of All Nations. In addition, The Church of Jesus Christ of Latter-day Saints, the Aladura Church, the Seventh-day Adventist and various indigenous churches have also experienced growth.
When did the Bamako Initiative begin?
5726f391dd62a815002e9608
1987
215
False
Nigeria is adding what kind of costs to its healthcare system?
5726f391dd62a815002e9609
user fees
374
False
When did Nigeria start reorganizing its healthcare system?
5726f391dd62a815002e960a
1987
215
False
Health care delivery in Nigeria is a concurrent responsibility of the three tiers of government in the country, and the private sector. Nigeria has been reorganising its health system since the Bamako Initiative of 1987, which formally promoted community-based methods of increasing accessibility of drugs and health care services to the population, in part by implementing user fees. The new strategy dramatically increased accessibility through community-based healthcare reform, resulting in more efficient and equitable provision of services. A comprehensive approach strategy was extended to all areas of health care, with subsequent improvement in the health care indicators and improvement in health care efficiency and cost.
How much of Nigeria has HIV as of 2012?
5726f434708984140094d6d7
3.1 percent
246
False
What is Nigeria's life expectancy?
5726f434708984140094d6d8
52.62 years
309
False
How much of the Nigerian population has access to clean water?
5726f434708984140094d6d9
just over half
354
False
What was Nigeria's infant mortality rate as of 2010?
5726f434708984140094d6da
8.4 deaths per 1000 live births
485
False
HIV/AIDS rate in Nigeria is much lower compared to the other African nations such as Kenya or South Africa whose prevalence (percentage) rates are in the double digits. As of 2012[update], the HIV prevalence rate among adults ages 15–49 was just 3.1 percent. As of 2014[update], Life expectancy in Nigeria is 52.62 years on average according to CIA, and just over half the population have access to potable water and appropriate sanitation; As of 2010[update], the Infant mortality is 8.4 deaths per 1000 live births.
What was the last African country to still have significant Polio problems?
5726f52bdd62a815002e9642
Nigeria
0
False
When had Nigeria not had a reported polio case in 6 months for the first time?
5726f52bdd62a815002e9643
December 2014
209
False
When did Nigeria launch a bone marrow donation program?
5726f52bdd62a815002e9644
2012
346
False
Which entity runs Nigeria's bone marrow donation program?
5726f52bdd62a815002e9645
the University of Nigeria
400
False
Nigeria was the second African country to perform which medical procedure?
5726f52bdd62a815002e9646
bone marrow transplant
535
False
Nigeria was the only country in Africa to have never eradicated polio, which it periodically exported to other African countries; Polio was cut 98% between 2009 and 2010. However, a major breakthrough came in December 2014, when it was reported that Nigeria hadn't recorded a polio case in 6 months, and on its way to be declared Polio free.  In 2012, a new bone marrow donor program was launched by the University of Nigeria to help people with leukaemia, lymphoma, or sickle cell disease to find a compatible donor for a life-saving bone marrow transplant, which cures them of their conditions. Nigeria became the second African country to have successfully carried out this surgery. In the 2014 ebola outbreak, Nigeria was the first country to effectively contain and eliminate the Ebola threat that was ravaging three other countries in the West African region, the Nigerian unique method of contact tracing employed by Nigeria became an effective method later used by countries, such as the united States, when ebola threats were discovered.
What department runs Nigeria's schools?
5726f649dd62a815002e965e
the Ministry of Education
36
False
When did Nigeria improve its tertiary education?
5726f649dd62a815002e965f
After the 1970s oil boom
316
False
How much of Nigeria's population can read?
5726f649dd62a815002e9660
68%
425
False
How much of Nigeria's male population can read?
5726f649dd62a815002e9661
75.7%
491
False
How much of Nigeria's female population can read?
5726f649dd62a815002e9662
60.6%
529
False
Education in Nigeria is overseen by the Ministry of Education. Local authorities take responsibility for implementing policy for state-controlled public education and state schools at a regional level. The education system is divided into Kindergarten, primary education, secondary education and tertiary education. After the 1970s oil boom, tertiary education was improved so that it would reach every subregion of Nigeria. 68% of the Nigerian population is literate, and the rate for men (75.7%) is higher than that for women (60.6%).
What is Nigeria's most popular organized-crime activity?
5726f729f1498d1400e8f12c
drug trafficking
82
False
What drug does Nigeria ship from Asia to Europe and America?
5726f729f1498d1400e8f12d
heroin
176
False
What drug does Nigeria ship from South America to Europe and South Africa?
5726f729f1498d1400e8f12e
cocaine
231
False
How many civilians were killed in Lagos in Aug 2000-May 2001?
5726f729f1498d1400e8f12f
273
952
False
How many police were killed in Lagos in Aug 2000-May 2001?
5726f729f1498d1400e8f130
84
970
False
Nigeria is home to a substantial network of organised crime, active especially in drug trafficking. Nigerian criminal groups are heavily involved in drug trafficking, shipping heroin from Asian countries to Europe and America; and cocaine from South America to Europe and South Africa. . The various Nigerian Confraternities or "campus cults" are active in both organised crime and in political violence as well as providing a network of corruption within Nigeria. As confraternities have extensive connections with political and military figures, they offer excellent alumni networking opportunities. The Supreme Vikings Confraternity, for example, boasts that twelve members of the Rivers State House of Assembly are cult members. On lower levels of society, there are the "area boys", organised gangs mostly active in Lagos who specialise in mugging and small-scale drug dealing. According to official statistics, gang violence in Lagos resulted in 273 civilians and 84 policemen killed in the period of August 2000 to May 2001.
What law is the Nigerian 419 scam nicknamed after?
5726f7b0708984140094d749
Section 419 of the Nigerian Penal Code
115
False
What organization was created to combat the 419 scams?
5726f7b0708984140094d74a
the Nigerian Economic and Financial Crimes Commission
732
False
When was the Nigerian EFCC created?
5726f7b0708984140094d74b
2003
726
False
What type of scam is the 419 scam?
5726f7b0708984140094d74c
advance fee fraud
84
False
What type of entity is complicit in the 419 scams?
5726f7b0708984140094d74d
bank
305
False
Internationally, Nigeria is infamous for a form of bank fraud dubbed 419, a type of advance fee fraud (named after Section 419 of the Nigerian Penal Code) along with the "Nigerian scam", a form of confidence trick practised by individuals and criminal syndicates. These scams involve a complicit Nigerian bank (the laws being set up loosely to allow it) and a scammer who claims to have money he needs to obtain from that bank. The victim is talked into exchanging bank account information on the premise that the money will be transferred to him, and then he'll get to keep a cut. In reality, money is taken out instead, and/or large fees (which seem small in comparison with the imaginary wealth he awaits) are deducted. In 2003, the Nigerian Economic and Financial Crimes Commission (or EFCC) was created, ostensibly to combat this and other forms of organised financial crime.
In 2011 rankings, how bad was Nigeria's corruption ranking?
5726f8b75951b619008f83b3
143 out of 182 countries
70
False
In 2014 rankings, how bad was Nigeria's corruption ranking?
5726f8b75951b619008f83b4
136th position
186
False
How much was embezzled from the Nigerian government in 1960-1999?
5726f8b75951b619008f83b5
More than $400 billion
210
False
The state oil company NNPC was initially thought to owe how much to the government?
5726f8b75951b619008f83b6
US$20 billion
462
False
In a corrected audit, the state oil company NNPC was found to only owe how much to the government?
5726f8b75951b619008f83b7
US$1.48billion
827
False
Nigeria has also been pervaded by political corruption. It was ranked 143 out of 182 countries in Transparency International's 2011 Corruption Perceptions Index; however, it improved to 136th position in 2014. More than $400 billion were stolen from the treasury by Nigeria's leaders between 1960 and 1999. In late 2013, Nigeria's then central bank governor Lamido Sanusi informed President Goodluck Jonathan that the state oil company, NNPC had failed to remit US$20 billion of oil revenues, which it owed the state. Jonathan however dismissed the claim and replaced Sanusi for his mismanagement of the central bank's budget. A Senate committee also found Sanusi’s account to be lacking substance. After the conclusion of the NNPC's account Audit, it was announced in January 2015 that NNPC's non-remitted revenue is actually US$1.48billion, which it needs to refund back to the Government.
When did the Nigerian film industry begin?
5726f9365951b619008f83d1
the 1960s
437
False
Which African country has the continent's largest movie industry?
5726f9365951b619008f83d2
Nigerian
270
False
Which cities are Nigeria's movie studios located in?
5726f9365951b619008f83d3
Lagos, Kano and Enugu
185
False
What is the nickname for Nigeria's movie industry?
5726f9365951b619008f83d4
Nollywood
39
False
Where does Nigeria's movie industry rank worldwide?
5726f9365951b619008f83d5
2nd-largest
105
False
The Nigerian film industry is known as Nollywood (a portmanteau of Nigeria and Hollywood) and is now the 2nd-largest producer of movies in the world. Nigerian film studios are based in Lagos, Kano and Enugu, forming a major portion of the local economy of these cities. Nigerian cinema is Africa's largest movie industry in terms of both value and the number of movies produced per year. Although Nigerian films have been produced since the 1960s, the country's film industry has been aided by the rise of affordable digital filming and editing technologies.
Which years did Nigeria win the African Cup of Nations?
5726f9e05951b619008f83e5
1980, 1994, and 2013
439
False
When did Nigeria win a Summer Olympics gold medal?
5726f9e05951b619008f83e6
1996
553
False
What did Nigeria win a Summer Olympics gold medal for?
5726f9e05951b619008f83e7
football
537
False
What country did Nigeria beat to win a Summer Olympics gold medal?
5726f9e05951b619008f83e8
Argentina
594
False
What is Nigeria's national football team called?
5726f9e05951b619008f83e9
Super Eagles
164
False
Football is largely considered the Nigeria's national sport and the country has its own Premier League of football. Nigeria's national football team, known as the "Super Eagles", has made the World Cup on five occasions 1994, 1998, 2002, 2010, and most recently in 2014. In April 1994, the Super Eagles ranked 5th in the FIFA World Rankings, the highest ranking achieved by an African football team. They won the African Cup of Nations in 1980, 1994, and 2013, and have also hosted the U-17 & U-20 World Cup. They won the gold medal for football in the 1996 Summer Olympics (in which they beat Argentina) becoming the first African football team to win gold in Olympic Football.
Nwankwo Kanu won what honor twice?
5726fa66dd62a815002e96b6
African Footballer of the year
108
False
Nwankwo Kanu won in what championship league?
5726fa66dd62a815002e96b7
European Champions League
151
False
What team did Nwankwo Kanu go on to play on?
5726fa66dd62a815002e96b8
Inter Milan, Arsenal
219
False
The nation's cadet team from Japan '93 produced some international players notably Nwankwo Kanu, a two-time African Footballer of the year who won the European Champions League with Ajax Amsterdam and later played with Inter Milan, Arsenal, West Bromwich Albion and Portsmouth. Other players that graduated from the junior teams are Nduka Ugbade, Jonathan Akpoborie, Victor Ikpeba, Celestine Babayaro, Wilson Oruma and Taye Taiwo. Some other famous Nigerian footballers include John Obi Mikel, Obafemi Martins, Vincent Enyeama, Yakubu Aiyegbeni, Rashidi Yekini, Peter Odemwingie and Jay-Jay Okocha.
How are Nigerian prisoners mistreated?
5726fadfdd62a815002e96c6
rape, torture and other cruel, inhuman or degrading treatment
327
False
What are the conditions like in Nigerian prisons?
5726fadfdd62a815002e96c7
harsh and life‑threatening
427
False
How are children mistreated in Nigeria?
5726fadfdd62a815002e96c8
child labour, child abuse and child sexual exploitation
605
False
What types of discrimination are common in Nigeria?
5726fadfdd62a815002e96c9
sex, ethnicity, region and religion
738
False
Nigeria's human rights record remains poor; According to the US Department of State, the most significant human rights problems are: use of excessive force by security forces; impunity for abuses by security forces; arbitrary arrests; prolonged pretrial detention; judicial corruption and executive influence on the judiciary; rape, torture and other cruel, inhuman or degrading treatment of prisoners, detainees and suspects; harsh and life‑threatening prison and detention centre conditions; human trafficking for the purpose of prostitution and forced labour; societal violence and vigilante killings; child labour, child abuse and child sexual exploitation; female genital mutilation (FGM); domestic violence; discrimination based on sex, ethnicity, region and religion.
Utrecht
How far back does evidence of inhabitation date back
5726bd56708984140094cfd1
inhabitation in the region of Utrecht, dating back to the Stone Age (app. 2200 BCE)
43
False
What did the Roman emperor Claudius decide
5726bd56708984140094cfd2
Claudius decided the empire should not expand north.
380
False
What was built along the Rhine
5726bd56708984140094cfd3
To consolidate the border the limes Germanicus defense line was constructed  along the main branch of the river Rhine
433
False
How many soldiers did the fortress hold
5726bd56708984140094cfd4
These fortresses were designed to house a cohort of about 500 Roman soldiers
655
False
Who settled near the fort
5726bd56708984140094cfd5
Near the fort settlements would grow housing artisans, traders and soldiers' wives and children
733
False
Utrecht
73
What area area was first settled in the Stone Age?
5a57a32b770dc0001aeefca8
True
Utrecht
73
What area was first inhabited during the Bronze age?
5a57a32b770dc0001aeefca9
True
Roman fortification
253
What was first built in 50 BCE
5a57a32b770dc0001aeefcaa
True
the limes Germanicus defense line
459
What was built to expand the borders durng the reign of Claudius?
5a57a32b770dc0001aeefcab
True
fortresses
661
Where were the soldiers and their wives housed?
5a57a32b770dc0001aeefcac
True
Although there is some evidence of earlier inhabitation in the region of Utrecht, dating back to the Stone Age (app. 2200 BCE) and settling in the Bronze Age (app. 1800–800 BCE), the founding date of the city is usually related to the construction of a Roman fortification (castellum), probably built in around 50 CE. A series of such fortresses was built after the Roman emperor Claudius decided the empire should not expand north. To consolidate the border the limes Germanicus defense line was constructed  along the main branch of the river Rhine, which at that time flowed through a more northern bed compared to today (what is now the Kromme Rijn). These fortresses were designed to house a cohort of about 500 Roman soldiers. Near the fort settlements would grow housing artisans, traders and soldiers' wives and children.
Who raided German territories regularly
5726c1e7708984140094d0a1
Germanic tribes regularly invaded the Roman territories.
35
False
When did the Romans leave Utrecht
5726c1e7708984140094d0a2
Around 275 the Romans could no longer maintain the northern border and Utrecht was abandoned
92
False
What happens between 275 and 650
5726c1e7708984140094d0a3
Little is known about the next period 270–650.
186
False
What was built in the 7th century
5726c1e7708984140094d0a4
a church was built within the walls of the Roman fortress
410
False
How was the the church destroyed
5726c1e7708984140094d0a5
In ongoing border conflicts with the Frisians this first church was destroyed.
469
False
Germanic tribes
35
Who started invading Roman territories during the mid 300's?
5a57aa22770dc0001aeefcbc
True
the Romans
103
Who abandoned Utrecht in the 2nd century?
5a57aa22770dc0001aeefcbd
True
Dagobert I
371
Who ruled the Franks in the 700's?
5a57aa22770dc0001aeefcbe
True
a church
410
Wat was built inside the Roman fortress in the 700's?
5a57aa22770dc0001aeefcbf
True
From the middle of the 3rd century Germanic tribes regularly invaded the Roman territories. Around 275 the Romans could no longer maintain the northern border and Utrecht was abandoned. Little is known about the next period 270–650. Utrecht is first spoken of again several centuries after the Romans left. Under the influence of the growing realms of the Franks, during Dagobert I's reign in the 7th century, a church was built within the walls of the Roman fortress. In ongoing border conflicts with the Frisians this first church was destroyed.
Who tried to convert Frisians
5726c38bdd62a815002e8fce
English and Irish missionaries set out to convert the Frisians
24
False
Who did the pope appoint Bishop
5726c38bdd62a815002e8fcf
The pope appointed their leader, Willibrordus, bishop of the Frisians
88
False
What did Charles Martel do
5726c38bdd62a815002e8fd0
Frankish leader Charles Martel bestowed the fortress in Utrecht and the surrounding lands as the base of the bishops
271
False
What year did Utrecht gain in power
5726c38bdd62a815002e8fd1
After the fall of Dorestad around 850, Utrecht became one of the most important cities in the Netherlands
695
False
What showed the importance of Utrecht
5726c38bdd62a815002e8fd2
Utrecht as a centre of Christianity is illustrated by the election of the Utrecht-born Adriaan Florenszoon Boeyens as pope in 1522
820
False
English and Irish missionaries
24
Who tried to convert the Frisians in the 700's?
5a57b26b770dc0001aeefcd8
True
Charles Martel
287
Who gave the fortress at Utrecht to the bishops?
5a57b26b770dc0001aeefcd9
True
Dorestad
685
What city fell in the 8th century?
5a57b26b770dc0001aeefcda
True
By the mid-7th century, English and Irish missionaries set out to convert the Frisians. The pope appointed their leader, Willibrordus, bishop of the Frisians. The tenure of Willibrordus is generally considered to be the beginning of the Bishopric of Utrecht. In 723, the Frankish leader Charles Martel bestowed the fortress in Utrecht and the surrounding lands as the base of the bishops. From then on Utrecht became one of the most influential seats of power for the Roman Catholic Church in the Netherlands. The archbishops of Utrecht were based at the uneasy northern border of the Carolingian Empire. In addition, the city of Utrecht had competition from the nearby trading centre Dorestad. After the fall of Dorestad around 850, Utrecht became one of the most important cities in the Netherlands. The importance of Utrecht as a centre of Christianity is illustrated by the election of the Utrecht-born Adriaan Florenszoon Boeyens as pope in 1522 (the last non-Italian pope before John Paul II).
What hapend when Frankish rulers established the system of feudalism
5726c774f1498d1400e8eb0c
the Bishops of Utrecht came to exercise worldly power as prince-bishops
62
False
What was part of the territory of bishopric
5726c774f1498d1400e8eb0d
not only included the modern province of Utrecht (Nedersticht, 'lower Sticht'), but also extended to the northeast
166
False
What conflict affected Utrecht
5726c774f1498d1400e8eb0e
The feudal conflict of the Middle Ages heavily affected Utrecht
282
False
Who was in conflict with the prince bishopric
5726c774f1498d1400e8eb0f
the Counts of Holland and the Dukes of Guelders
417
False
What region was seized
5726c774f1498d1400e8eb10
The Veluwe region was seized by Guelders
466
False
feudalism
51
What system ended the prince-bishops?
5a57b523770dc0001aeefce8
True
lower Sticht
230
Who's territory extended to the west?
5a57b523770dc0001aeefce9
True
The feudal conflict of the Middle Ages
282
What conflicts did Utrecht manage to stay out of?
5a57b523770dc0001aeefcea
True
Counts of Holland and the Dukes of Guelders.
421
Who were the allies of the prince-bishopric?
5a57b523770dc0001aeefceb
True
When the Frankish rulers established the system of feudalism, the Bishops of Utrecht came to exercise worldly power as prince-bishops. The territory of the bishopric not only included the modern province of Utrecht (Nedersticht, 'lower Sticht'), but also extended to the northeast. The feudal conflict of the Middle Ages heavily affected Utrecht. The prince-bishopric was involved in almost continuous conflicts with the Counts of Holland and the Dukes of Guelders. The Veluwe region was seized by Guelders, but large areas in the modern province of Overijssel remained as the Oversticht.
What was the Most dominant Cathedral in Utrecht
5726c907dd62a815002e9020
The most dominant of these was the Cathedral of Saint Martin, inside the old Roman fortress
86
False
What began in 1254
5726c907dd62a815002e9021
The construction of the present Gothic building was begun in 1254 after an earlier romanesque construction had been badly damaged by fire
179
False
Was the cathedral finished
5726c907dd62a815002e9022
the age of the great cathedrals had come to an end and declining finances prevented the ambitious project from being finished
504
False
How many collegiate churches existed in Utecht besides the cathedral
5726c907dd62a815002e9023
Besides the cathedral there were four collegiate churches in Utrecht
740
False
What else was housed in the city
5726c907dd62a815002e9024
the city housed St. Paul's Abbey, the 15th-century beguinage of St. Nicholas, and a 14th-century chapter house of the Teutonic Knights.
1140
False
churches and monasteries
8
What was Utrecht built around?
5a57bbd9770dc0001aeefd22
True
Cathedral of Saint Martin
121
construction on what church began in the 12th century?
5a57bbd9770dc0001aeefd23
True
The choir and transept
318
What part of the Chathedral of Saint Martin was finished in the 13th century?
5a57bbd9770dc0001aeefd24
True
1420
475
When was construction completed on the Cathedral of Saint Martin?
5a57bbd9770dc0001aeefd25
True
St. Salvator's Church
810
What church were demolished in the 1600's
5a57bbd9770dc0001aeefd26
True
Several churches and monasteries were built inside, or close to, the city of Utrecht. The most dominant of these was the Cathedral of Saint Martin, inside the old Roman fortress. The construction of the present Gothic building was begun in 1254 after an earlier romanesque construction had been badly damaged by fire. The choir and transept were finished from 1320 and were followed then by the ambitious Dom tower. The last part to be constructed was the central nave, from 1420. By that time, however, the age of the great cathedrals had come to an end and declining finances prevented the ambitious project from being finished, the construction of the central nave being suspended before the planned flying buttresses could be finished. Besides the cathedral there were four collegiate churches in Utrecht: St. Salvator's Church (demolished in the 16th century), on the Dom square, dating back to the early 8th century. Saint John (Janskerk), originating in 1040; Saint Peter, building started in 1039 and Saint Mary's church building started around 1090 (demolished in the early 19th century, cloister survives). Besides these churches the city housed St. Paul's Abbey, the 15th-century beguinage of St. Nicholas, and a 14th-century chapter house of the Teutonic Knights.
What did Utrecht's location allow
5726ca95f1498d1400e8eb54
allowed Utrecht to become an important trade centre in the Northern Netherlands.
45
False
Who granted Utrecht city rights
5726ca95f1498d1400e8eb55
Henry V in 1122
178
False
What was the relationship with the bishop like for citizens of Utrecht
5726ca95f1498d1400e8eb56
the bishop, who controlled many lands outside of the city, and the citizens of Utrecht was not always easy
693
False
What Industry did the bishop hurt
5726ca95f1498d1400e8eb57
The bishop, for example dammed the Kromme Rijn at Wijk bij Duurstede to protect his estates from flooding
801
False
The location on the banks of the river Rhine
0
What allowed Utrecht to become a major global trading center?
5a57bda2770dc0001aeefd36
True
1122
189
When Henry the VII grant Utrecht city rights
5a57bda2770dc0001aeefd37
True
city rights
163
What was Utrecht granted in the 11th century?
5a57bda2770dc0001aeefd38
True
the Kromme Rijn at Wijk bij Duurstede
832
What river did merchants dam?
5a57bda2770dc0001aeefd39
True
The location on the banks of the river Rhine allowed Utrecht to become an important trade centre in the Northern Netherlands. The growing town Utrecht was granted city rights by Henry V in 1122. When the main flow of the Rhine moved south, the old bed, which still flowed through the heart of the town became evermore canalized; and the wharf system was built as an inner city harbour system. On the wharfs storage facilities (werfkelders) were built, on top of which the main street, including houses was constructed. The wharfs and the cellars are accessible from a platform at water level with stairs descending from the street level to form a unique structure.[nb 2] The relations between the bishop, who controlled many lands outside of the city, and the citizens of Utrecht was not always easy. The bishop, for example dammed the Kromme Rijn at Wijk bij Duurstede to protect his estates from flooding. This threatened shipping for the city and led the city of Utrecht to commission a canal to ensure access to the town for shipping trade: the Vaartse Rijn, connecting Utrecht to the Hollandse IJssel at IJsselstein.
What year did the bishop lose power
5726cbd25951b619008f7e55
In 1528 the bishop lost secular power over both Neder- and Oversticht – which included the city of Utrecht – to Charles V, Holy Roman Emperor
0
False
What did Charles V combine
5726cbd25951b619008f7e56
Charles V combined the Seventeen Provinces (the current Benelux and the northern parts of France) as a personal union
143
False
What did the loss of power end
5726cbd25951b619008f7e57
the prince-bishopric Utrecht, as the secular rule was now the lordship of Utrecht, with the religious power remaining with the bishop
273
False
What was the bishop of Utrecht raised to
5726cbd25951b619008f7e58
In 1559 the bishopric of Utrecht was raised to archbishopric to make it the religious center of the Northern ecclesiastical province in the Seventeen provinces
472
False
the bishop
8
Who lost power in the 15th century?
5a57e0fb770dc0001aeefe5e
True
Charles V, Holy Roman Emperor
112
Who replaced the bishop?
5a57e0fb770dc0001aeefe5f
True
bishopric of Utrecht
484
What bishopric was raised archbishopric in the 15th century?
5a57e0fb770dc0001aeefe60
True
Utrecht
497
What was the religious center of Norther Europe?
5a57e0fb770dc0001aeefe61
True
In 1528 the bishop lost secular power over both Neder- and Oversticht – which included the city of Utrecht – to Charles V, Holy Roman Emperor. Charles V combined the Seventeen Provinces (the current Benelux and the northern parts of France) as a personal union. This ended the prince-bishopric Utrecht, as the secular rule was now the lordship of Utrecht, with the religious power remaining with the bishop, although Charles V had gained the right to appoint new bishops. In 1559 the bishopric of Utrecht was raised to archbishopric to make it the religious center of the Northern ecclesiastical province in the Seventeen provinces.
Why was the transition to a new union difficult
5726cded5951b619008f7e83
Charles V was struggling to exert his power over the citizens of the city, who had struggled to gain a certain level of independence from the bishops
122
False
What was the purpose of the castle
5726cded5951b619008f7e84
The heavily fortified castle Vredenburg was built to house a large garrison whose main task was to maintain control over the city
325
False
How long did the castle last
5726cded5951b619008f7e85
The castle would last less than 50 years before it was demolished in an uprising in the early stages of the Dutch Revolt
456
False
not easily accepted
82
How was the transition from part of a large union to independence taken?
5a57e25f770dc0001aeefe70
True
Charles V
122
Who tried to exert power over the bishop?
5a57e25f770dc0001aeefe71
True
the citizens of the city
171
Who prefered the authority of the bishop to Charles V?
5a57e25f770dc0001aeefe72
True
50 years
488
How long did it take to build the castle?
5a57e25f770dc0001aeefe73
True
The transition from independence to a relatively minor part of a larger union was not easily accepted. To quell uprisings Charles V was struggling to exert his power over the citizens of the city, who had struggled to gain a certain level of independence from the bishops and were not willing to cede this to their new lord. The heavily fortified castle Vredenburg was built to house a large garrison whose main task was to maintain control over the city. The castle would last less than 50 years before it was demolished in an uprising in the early stages of the Dutch Revolt.
What was signed in 1579
5726ced3dd62a815002e90e4
the northern seven provinces signed the Union of Utrecht, in which they decided to join forces against Spanish rule
8
False
What is this union seen as
5726ced3dd62a815002e90e5
The Union of Utrecht is seen as the beginning of the Dutch Republic
125
False
What became the dominant province
5726ced3dd62a815002e90e6
towards its dominant province Holland
486
False
What was the state of Utrecht
5726ced3dd62a815002e90e7
Utrecht remained an atypical city in the new republic with about 40% Catholic in the mid-17th century, and even more among the elite groups
612
False
the northern seven provinces
8
Who signed the Union of Utrecht in the 15th century?
5a57eb39770dc0001aeefebc
True
the northern seven provinces
8
Who opposed Spanish rule in the 15th century?
5a57eb39770dc0001aeefebd
True
The Union of Utrecht
125
What union ended the Dutch Republic?
5a57eb39770dc0001aeefebe
True
the Dutch Republic
174
What did the bishopric abolish?
5a57eb39770dc0001aeefebf
True
In 1579 the northern seven provinces signed the Union of Utrecht, in which they decided to join forces against Spanish rule. The Union of Utrecht is seen as the beginning of the Dutch Republic. In 1580 the new and predominantly Protestant state abolished the bishoprics, including the archbishopric of Utrecht. The stadtholders disapproved of the independent course of the Utrecht bourgeoisie and brought the city under much more direct control of the republic; which shifted the power towards its dominant province Holland. This was the start of a long period of stagnation of trade and development in Utrecht. Utrecht remained an atypical city in the new republic with about 40% Catholic in the mid-17th century, and even more among the elite groups, who included many rural nobility and gentry with town houses there.
Who did the fortified city fall to in 1672
5726d36b708984140094d283
temporarily fell to the French invasion in 1672 (the Disaster Year); where the French invasion was only stopped west of Utrecht
19
False
In 1674 what hit Utrecht
5726d36b708984140094d284
the centre of Utrecht was struck by a tornado
226
False
What collapsed during the tornado
5726d36b708984140094d285
The halt to building before construction of flying buttresses in the 15th century now proved to be the undoing of the central section of the cathedral
273
False
What did Utrecht host in 1713
5726d36b708984140094d286
In 1713, Utrecht hosted one of the first international peace negotiations when the Treaty of Utrecht settled the War of the Spanish Succession
522
False
Since 1723 what has Utrecht become
5726d36b708984140094d287
Utrecht became the centre of the non-Roman Old Catholic Churches in the world
677
False
the French invasion
39
Who did the city fall to in the 16th century?
5a57ec9d770dc0001aeefec4
True
the French
94
Who left the city in 1674?
5a57ec9d770dc0001aeefec5
True
a tornado
262
What natural disaister struck in the late 16th century?
5a57ec9d770dc0001aeefec6
True
the first international peace negotiations
553
What did Utrecht host in the 17th century?
5a57ec9d770dc0001aeefec7
True
the non-Roman Old Catholic Churches in the world
706
What did Uterecht become the center of in the 17th century?
5a57ec9d770dc0001aeefec8
True
The fortified city temporarily fell to the French invasion in 1672 (the Disaster Year); where the French invasion was only stopped west of Utrecht at the Old Hollandic Waterline. In 1674, only two years after the French left, the centre of Utrecht was struck by a tornado. The halt to building before construction of flying buttresses in the 15th century now proved to be the undoing of the central section of the cathedral of St Martin church which collapsed; creating the current Dom square between the tower and choir. In 1713, Utrecht hosted one of the first international peace negotiations when the Treaty of Utrecht settled the War of the Spanish Succession. Since 1723 Utrecht became the centre of the non-Roman Old Catholic Churches in the world.
What hapend in the early 19th century
5726d8065951b619008f7fbb
the role of Utrecht as a fortified town had become obsolete
27
False
In 1843 what brought growth to Utrecht
5726d8065951b619008f7fbc
a railway connecting Utrecht to Amsterdam was opened
427
False
What was reinstated in 1853
5726d8065951b619008f7fbd
the Dutch government allowed the bishopric of Utrecht to be reinstated by Rome, and Utrecht became the centre of Dutch Catholicism
727
False
what was built in the 1920's and 1930's
5726d8065951b619008f7fbe
New middle class residential areas, such as Tuindorp and Oog in Al, were built
1002
False
the role of Utrecht as a fortified town
27
What became obsolete in the 1900's?
5a57ee06770dc0001aeefece
True
The fortifications of the Nieuwe Hollandse Waterlinie
88
What was moved to allow for expansion?
5a57ee06770dc0001aeefecf
True
a railway
427
What connected Utrecht to Amsterdam in the 18th century?
5a57ee06770dc0001aeefed0
True
a railway connecting Utrecht to Amsterdam
427
What made Amsterdam the main hub of the Dutch railway?
5a57ee06770dc0001aeefed1
True
the Rietveld Schröder House
1215
What did Rietveld build in the 19th century?
5a57ee06770dc0001aeefed2
True
In the early 19th century, the role of Utrecht as a fortified town had become obsolete. The fortifications of the Nieuwe Hollandse Waterlinie were moved east of Utrecht. The town walls could now be demolished to allow for expansion. The moats remained intact and formed an important feature of the Zocher plantsoen, an English style landscape park that remains largely intact today. Growth of the city increased when, in 1843, a railway connecting Utrecht to Amsterdam was opened. After that, Utrecht gradually became the main hub of the Dutch railway network. With the industrial revolution finally gathering speed in the Netherlands and the ramparts taken down, Utrecht began to grow far beyond the medieval centre. In 1853, the Dutch government allowed the bishopric of Utrecht to be reinstated by Rome, and Utrecht became the centre of Dutch Catholicism once more. From the 1880s onward neighbourhoods such as Oudwijk, Wittevrouwen, Vogelenbuurt to the East, and Lombok to the West were developed. New middle class residential areas, such as Tuindorp and Oog in Al, were built in the 1920s and 1930s. During this period, several Jugendstil houses and office buildings were built, followed by Rietveld who built the Rietveld Schröder House (1924), and Dudok's construction of the city theater (1941).
What was railway area developed into
5726db2a5951b619008f8021
were developed following modernist ideas of the 1960s, in a brutalist style
77
False
What mall was constructed
5726db2a5951b619008f8022
the shopping mall Hoog Catharijne
186
False
What happened in the early 21 st century
5726db2a5951b619008f8023
In the early 21st century the whole area is being redeveloped
471
False
modernist
102
Who's ideas were used to develop Central Utrecht?
5a57f2c0770dc0001aeefeec
True
Hoog Catharijne
204
What mall was built over part of the old canal system?
5a57f2c0770dc0001aeefeed
True
Protest against further modernisation of the city centre
358
What followed the completion of the new center city buildings?
5a57f2c0770dc0001aeefeee
True
redeveloped music centre
544
What opened in the 20th century?
5a57f2c0770dc0001aeefeef
True
The area surrounding Utrecht Centraal railway station and the station itself were developed following modernist ideas of the 1960s, in a brutalist style. This led to the construction of the shopping mall Hoog Catharijne (nl), music centre Vredenburg (Hertzberger, 1979), and conversion of part of the ancient canal structure into a highway (Catherijnebaan). Protest against further modernisation of the city centre followed even before the last buildings were finalised. In the early 21st century the whole area is being redeveloped. The music redeveloped music centre opened in 2014 where the original Vredenburg concert and rock and jazz halls are brought together in a single building.
What Socio economic problems does Utrecht face
5726dbef5951b619008f8037
About 38% percent of its population either earns a minimum income or is dependent on social welfare
527
False
percentage of population that's dutch
5726dbef5951b619008f8038
About 69% of the population is of Dutch ancestry
0
False
What boroughs are known for high crime
5726dbef5951b619008f8039
Kanaleneiland, Overvecht and Hoograven consist primarily of high-rise housing developments, and are known for relatively high poverty and crime rate
669
False
69%
6
What percentage of the Netherland's population is of Dutch ancestory?
5a57f473770dc0001aeefef4
True
10%
64
What percentage of the the Netherlands population id immigrants from Western countries?
5a57f473770dc0001aeefef5
True
social welfare
612
What is 17% of the population dependdent on?
5a57f473770dc0001aeefef6
True
Kanaleneiland, Overvecht and Hoograven
669
What boroughs are known for development and low crime?
5a57f473770dc0001aeefef7
True
About 69% of the population is of Dutch ancestry. Approximately 10% of the population consists of immigrants from Western countries, while 21% of the population is of non-Western origin (9% Moroccan, 5% Turkish, 3% Surinamese and Dutch Caribbean and 5% of other countries). Some of the city's boroughs have a relatively high percentage of originally non-Dutch inhabitants – i.e. Kanaleneiland 83% and Overvecht 57%. Like Rotterdam, Amsterdam, The Hague and other large Dutch cities, Utrecht faces some socio-economic problems. About 38% percent of its population either earns a minimum income or is dependent on social welfare (17% of all households). Boroughs such as Kanaleneiland, Overvecht and Hoograven consist primarily of high-rise housing developments, and are known for relatively high poverty and crime rate.
What does the dense population make difficult
5726dcb95951b619008f8047
which makes concise definitions of its agglomeration difficult, and somewhat arbitrary.
51
False
Least populates areas of Utrecht
5726dcb95951b619008f8048
smaller Utrecht agglomeration of continuously built up areas counts some 420,000 inhabitants and includes Nieuwegein, IJsselstein and Maarssen
143
False
More populated areas include
5726dcb95951b619008f8049
The larger region, including slightly more remote towns such as Woerden and Amersfoort counts up to 820,000 inhabitants
532
False
420,000
216
What is the population of the original bishopric?
5a58032e770dc0001aeeff40
True
640,000
511
What is the population of near by municipalities?
5a58032e770dc0001aeeff41
True
820,000
632
What is the population of the Netherlands?
5a58032e770dc0001aeeff42
True
Utrecht is the centre of a densely populated area, which makes concise definitions of its agglomeration difficult, and somewhat arbitrary. The smaller Utrecht agglomeration of continuously built up areas counts some 420,000 inhabitants and includes Nieuwegein, IJsselstein and Maarssen. It is sometimes argued that the close by municipalities De Bilt, Zeist, Houten, Vianen, Driebergen-Rijsenburg (Utrechtse Heuvelrug), and Bunnik should also be counted towards the Utrecht agglomeration, bringing the total to 640,000 inhabitants. The larger region, including slightly more remote towns such as Woerden and Amersfoort counts up to 820,000 inhabitants.
what dominates the cityscape
5726de0c5951b619008f80a3
Utrecht's cityscape is dominated by the Dom Tower, the tallest belfry in the Netherlands and originally part of the Cathedral of Saint Martin
0
False
What is being debated in Utrecht
5726de0c5951b619008f80a4
An ongoing debate is over whether any building in or near the centre of town should surpass the Dom Tower in height (112 m)
143
False
What is the name of the stadium
5726de0c5951b619008f80a5
the Nieuw Galgenwaard stadium (2007)
600
False
Dom Tower
40
What is the tallest building in the Netherlands?
5a580485770dc0001aeeff50
True
Dom Tower
239
what tower is 112 ft tall?
5a580485770dc0001aeeff51
True
Rabobank-tower
422
What tower was completed int he 20th century?
5a580485770dc0001aeeff52
True
antennas
499
What addition to the Dom Towerwill make increase its height to 120m?
5a580485770dc0001aeeff53
True
Utrecht's cityscape is dominated by the Dom Tower, the tallest belfry in the Netherlands and originally part of the Cathedral of Saint Martin. An ongoing debate is over whether any building in or near the centre of town should surpass the Dom Tower in height (112 m). Nevertheless, some tall buildings are now being constructed that will become part of the skyline of Utrecht. The second tallest building of the city, the Rabobank-tower, was completed in 2010 and stands 105 m (344.49 ft) tall. Two antennas will increase that height to 120 m (393.70 ft). Two other buildings were constructed around the Nieuw Galgenwaard stadium (2007). These buildings, the 'Kantoortoren Galghenwert' and 'Apollo Residence', stand 85.5 and 64.5 metres high respectively.
What is a landmark in the city
5726deca5951b619008f80bd
the old centre and the canal structure in the inner city
20
False
What does the inner city look like
5726deca5951b619008f80be
The inner city has largely retained its Medieval structure, and the moat ringing the old town is largely intact
270
False
What surrounds the mid-evil inner city
5726deca5951b619008f80bf
Surrounding the medieval core there is a ring of late 19th- and early 20th-century neighbourhoods, with newer neighbourhoods positioned farther out
534
False
What part of the city remains open
5726deca5951b619008f80c0
The eastern part of Utrecht remains fairly open
683
False
The Oudegracht
78
What canal parralels the course of the Rhine?
5a5806ac770dc0001aeeff58
True
wharf-basement structures
195
What creates multilevel canal?
5a5806ac770dc0001aeeff59
True
the moat ringing
334
What Medieval structure has largely collapsed?
5a5806ac770dc0001aeeff5a
True
The Dutch Water Line
732
what was moved east in the 1900's?
5a5806ac770dc0001aeeff5b
True
Another landmark is the old centre and the canal structure in the inner city. The Oudegracht is a curved canal, partly following the ancient main branch of the Rhine. It is lined with the unique wharf-basement structures that create a two-level street along the canals. The inner city has largely retained its Medieval structure, and the moat ringing the old town is largely intact. Because of the role of Utrecht as a fortified city, construction outside the medieval centre and its city walls was restricted until the 19th century. Surrounding the medieval core there is a ring of late 19th- and early 20th-century neighbourhoods, with newer neighbourhoods positioned farther out. The eastern part of Utrecht remains fairly open. The Dutch Water Line, moved east of the city in the early 19th century required open lines of fire, thus prohibiting all permanent constructions until the middle of the 20th century on the east side of the city.
What is the main railway station
5726e0f3dd62a815002e93a6
Utrecht Centraal is the main railway station of Utrecht
0
False
Does the rail station provide 24 hour service
5726e0f3dd62a815002e93a7
Utrecht Centraal is a station on the night service, providing 7 days a week an all night service
158
False
Are there rail services to Germany
5726e0f3dd62a815002e93a8
International InterCityExpress (ICE) services to Germany (and further) through Arnhem call at Utrecht Centraal
316
False
where to regular local trains provide service
5726e0f3dd62a815002e93a9
local trains to all areas surrounding Utrecht also depart from Utrecht Centraal; and service several smaller stations
436
False
Utrecht Centraal
0
What is the main railway station of the Netherlands?
5a580827770dc0001aeeff60
True
1939
730
When did the Dutch Railway Museum open?
5a580827770dc0001aeeff61
True
Utrecht Maliebaan
702
What station opened in 1939?
5a580827770dc0001aeeff62
True
Utrecht Centraal is the main railway station of Utrecht. There are regular intercity services to all major Dutch cities; direct services to Schiphol Airport. Utrecht Centraal is a station on the night service, providing 7 days a week an all night service to (among others) Schiphol Airport, Amsterdam and Rotterdam. International InterCityExpress (ICE) services to Germany (and further) through Arnhem call at Utrecht Centraal. Regular local trains to all areas surrounding Utrecht also depart from Utrecht Centraal; and service several smaller stations: Utrecht Lunetten, Utrecht Vaartsche Rijn, Utrecht Overvecht, Utrecht Leidsche Rijn, Utrecht Terwijde, Utrecht Zuilen and Vleuten. A former station Utrecht Maliebaan closed in 1939 and has since been converted into the Dutch Railway Museum.
Where is the bus station located
5726e1ce708984140094d4a1
The main local and regional bus station of Utrecht is located adjacent to Utrecht Centraal railway station, at the East and West entrances
0
False
renovations are causing what changes
5726e1ce708984140094d4a2
large scale renovation and construction works at the railway station, the station's bus stops are changing frequently
147
False
what is qbuzz
5726e1ce708984140094d4a3
Local buses in Utrecht are operated by Qbuzz – its services include a high-frequency service to the Uithof university district
391
False
What is one of Europes cleanest
5726e1ce708984140094d4a4
The local bus fleet is one of Europe's cleanest, using only buses compliant with the Euro-VI standard as well as electric buses for inner city transport
519
False
The main local and regional bus station of Utrecht
0
What is located across from Utrecht Central railway station?
5a580978770dc0001aeeff70
True
the station's bus stops are changing frequently
217
What has renvation on the bus station caused?
5a580978770dc0001aeeff71
True
Qbuzz
430
Who uses electric buses for all local bus routes?
5a580978770dc0001aeeff72
True
electric buses
632
What type of bus does Arriva use for inner city transport?
5a580978770dc0001aeeff73
True
The main local and regional bus station of Utrecht is located adjacent to Utrecht Centraal railway station, at the East and West entrances. Due to large scale renovation and construction works at the railway station, the station's bus stops are changing frequently. As a general rule, westbound buses depart from the bus station on the west entrance, other buses from the east side station. Local buses in Utrecht are operated by Qbuzz – its services include a high-frequency service to the Uithof university district. The local bus fleet is one of Europe's cleanest, using only buses compliant with the Euro-VI standard as well as electric buses for inner city transport. Regional buses from the city are operated by Arriva and Connexxion.
What does Utrecht provide for cyclist
5726e2d35951b619008f816b
Utrecht has an extensive network of cycle paths, making cycling safe and popular. 33% of journeys within the city are by bicycle
24
False
What is a barrow bikes use
5726e2d35951b619008f816c
There are also barrow bikes, for carrying shopping or small children
399
False
utrecht built the worlds largest what ?
5726e2d35951b619008f816d
in 2014 to build the world's largest bicycle parking station, near the Central Railway Station
602
False
33%
106
What percentage of journey's Dutch cities are by bicycle?
5a580ac8770dc0001aeeff82
True
Cars
194
What accounts for 30% of trips in Dutch cities?
5a580ac8770dc0001aeeff83
True
the world's largest bicycle parking station
619
What will construction begin on in 2018?
5a580ac8770dc0001aeeff84
True
2014
605
When did the city council decide to prohibit parking bikes in the city center?
5a580ac8770dc0001aeeff85
True
Like most Dutch cities, Utrecht has an extensive network of cycle paths, making cycling safe and popular. 33% of journeys within the city are by bicycle, more than any other mode of transport. (Cars, for example, account for 30% of trips). Bicycles are used by young and old people, and by individuals and families. They are mostly traditional, upright, steel-framed bicycles, with few or no gears. There are also barrow bikes, for carrying shopping or small children. As thousands of bicycles are parked haphazardly in town, creating an eyesore but also impeding pedestrians, the City Council decided in 2014 to build the world's largest bicycle parking station, near the Central Railway Station. This 3-floor construction will cost an estimated 48 million Euro and will hold 12,500 bicycles. Completion is foreseen in 2018.
Is Utrecht connected to the Dutch road system
5726e3a8f1498d1400e8eeec
well-connected to the Dutch road network. Two of the most important major roads serve the city of Utrecht:
11
False
What countries do the A12 and A2 connect
5726e3a8f1498d1400e8eeed
A12 and A2 motorways connect Amsterdam, Arnhem, The Hague and Maastricht, as well as Belgium and Germany
122
False
What does traffic elevate
5726e3a8f1498d1400e8eeee
increasing traffic and the ancient city plan, traffic congestion is a common phenomenon in and around Utrecht, causing elevated levels of air pollutants
329
False
A12 and A2
122
What two roads connect Utrecht to the rest of Europe?
5a580b8a770dc0001aeeff8a
True
ancient city plan
356
What limits the amount of traffic in the city?
5a580b8a770dc0001aeeff8b
True
Utrecht is well-connected to the Dutch road network. Two of the most important major roads serve the city of Utrecht: the A12 and A2 motorways connect Amsterdam, Arnhem, The Hague and Maastricht, as well as Belgium and Germany. Other major motorways in the area are the Almere–Breda A27 and the Utrecht–Groningen A28. Due to the increasing traffic and the ancient city plan, traffic congestion is a common phenomenon in and around Utrecht, causing elevated levels of air pollutants. This has led to a passionate debate in the city about the best way to improve the city's air quality.
What does Utrecht's economy  depend on
5726e490dd62a815002e941e
The economy of Utrecht depends for a large part on the several large institutions located in the city
72
False
what is centered in Utrecht
5726e490dd62a815002e941f
It is the centre of the Dutch railroad network and the location of the head office of Nederlandse Spoorwegen
175
False
What bank is head quartered in Utrecht
5726e490dd62a815002e9420
Rabobank, a large bank, has its headquarters in Utrecht.
464
False
Utrecht
87
For what city is the production industry a large part of the economy?
5a580ce1770dc0001aeeff8e
True
Utrecht
87
Where is the center of the EU railway located?
5a580ce1770dc0001aeeff8f
True
The De Inktpot
313
What is the largest brick building in Europe?
5a580ce1770dc0001aeeff90
True
an art program
439
What resulted in a UFO on the side of The De Inktpot in the 20th century?
5a580ce1770dc0001aeeff91
True
Production industry constitutes a small part of the economy of Utrecht. The economy of Utrecht depends for a large part on the several large institutions located in the city. It is the centre of the Dutch railroad network and the location of the head office of Nederlandse Spoorwegen. ProRail is headquartered in The De Inktpot (nl) (The Inkpot) – the largest brick building in the Netherlands (the "UFO" featured on its façade stems from an art program in 2000). Rabobank, a large bank, has its headquarters in Utrecht.
What is the name of the large shopping center
5726e581f1498d1400e8ef28
Hoog Catharijne
31
False
how are the shopping center corridors treated
5726e581f1498d1400e8ef29
The corridors are treated as public places like streets, and the route between the station and the city centre is open all night
125
False
What is being recreated
5726e581f1498d1400e8ef2a
Parts of the city's network of canals, which were filled to create the shopping center and central station area, will be recreated
377
False
what is located on the west side of the rail station
5726e581f1498d1400e8ef2b
The Jaarbeurs, one of the largest convention centres in the Netherlands, is located at the west side of the central railway station
509
False
Hoog Catharijne
31
What shopping center is located in the city center?
5a580e33770dc0001aeeffa0
True
route between the station and the city centre
190
What streets are open all night?
5a580e33770dc0001aeeffa1
True
parts of Hoog Catharijne
278
What is planned to be renovated every 20 years?
5a580e33770dc0001aeeffa2
True
The Jaarbeurs,
509
What is one of the largest convention centres in Europe?
5a580e33770dc0001aeeffa3
True
A large indoor shopping centre Hoog Catharijne (nl) is located between Utrecht Centraal railway station and the city centre. The corridors are treated as public places like streets, and the route between the station and the city centre is open all night. In 20 years from 2004, parts of Hoog Catharijne will be redeveloped as part of the renovation of the larger station area. Parts of the city's network of canals, which were filled to create the shopping center and central station area, will be recreated. The Jaarbeurs, one of the largest convention centres in the Netherlands, is located at the west side of the central railway station.
What is the largest University in the city
5726e671708984140094d545
The most prominent of these is Utrecht University (est. 1636), the largest university of the Netherlands with 30,449 students
62
False
what is shanghai jiaotong rated
5726e671708984140094d546
According to Shanghai Jiaotong University's university ranking in 2014 it is the 57th best university in the world
317
False
What smaller university is in Utrecht
5726e671708984140094d547
Utrecht also houses the much smaller University of Humanistic Studies, which houses about 400 students.
433
False
Utrecht University
93
What university was established in the 16th century?
5a580f56770dc0001aeeffa8
True
Utrecht University
93
What is the largest University in Europe?
5a580f56770dc0001aeeffa9
True
30,449
172
How many university students were in the Netherlands in 2012?
5a580f56770dc0001aeeffaa
True
57th best university in the world
398
What was Shanghai Jiaotong University ranked in 2014?
5a580f56770dc0001aeeffab
True
Utrecht hosts several large institutions of higher education. The most prominent of these is Utrecht University (est. 1636), the largest university of the Netherlands with 30,449 students (as of 2012). The university is partially based in the inner city as well as in the Uithof campus area, to the east of the city. According to Shanghai Jiaotong University's university ranking in 2014 it is the 57th best university in the world. Utrecht also houses the much smaller University of Humanistic Studies, which houses about 400 students.
Cultural life in Utrecht is second to
5726e77d5951b619008f81f5
Utrecht city has an active cultural life, and in the Netherlands is second only to Amsterdam
0
False
What music festival does Utrecht host
5726e77d5951b619008f81f6
Utrecht is host to the international Early Music Festival (Festival Oude Muziek, for music before 1800) and the Netherlands Film Festival
277
False
What is the name of the music hall
5726e77d5951b619008f81f7
The city has an important classical music hall Vredenburg
416
False
Where are music students educated
5726e77d5951b619008f81f8
Young musicians are educated in the conservatory, a department of the Utrecht School of the Arts
893
False
cultural life
27
Ultrecht has the most active what in the Netherlannds?
5a581030770dc0001aeeffb0
True
Dudok
184
Who built the main city theater in the 19th century?
5a581030770dc0001aeeffb1
True
Festival Oude Muziek
336
What festival is held for music of the 1800's
5a581030770dc0001aeeffb2
True
Vredenburg
463
What music hall has the best acoustics in the world?
5a581030770dc0001aeeffb3
True
Utrecht city has an active cultural life, and in the Netherlands is second only to Amsterdam. There are several theatres and theatre companies. The 1941 main city theatre was built by Dudok. Besides theatres there is a large number of cinemas including three arthouse cinemas. Utrecht is host to the international Early Music Festival (Festival Oude Muziek, for music before 1800) and the Netherlands Film Festival. The city has an important classical music hall Vredenburg (1979 by Herman Hertzberger). Its acoustics are considered among the best of the 20th-century original music halls.[citation needed] The original Vredenburg music hall has been redeveloped as part of the larger station area redevelopment plan and in 2014 has gained additional halls that allowed its merger with the rock club Tivoli and the SJU jazzpodium. There are several other venues for music throughout the city. Young musicians are educated in the conservatory, a department of the Utrecht School of the Arts. There is a specialised museum of automatically playing musical instruments.
Where are young artist trained
5726e8a9dd62a815002e94ae
Training of artists is done at the Utrecht School of the Arts
104
False
Is street art legal
5726e8a9dd62a815002e94af
Although street art is illegal in Utrecht
371
False
What is considered landmark Architecture
5726e8a9dd62a815002e94b0
1924 Rietveld Schröder House, which is listed on UNESCO's world heritage sites
575
False
street art
380
What form of art became legal in 2004?
5a5810fe770dc0001aeeffc2
True
Rietveld Schröder House
580
What house was built in the 19th century?
5a5810fe770dc0001aeeffc3
True
Dick Bruna
299
What illistrator is famouse for creating a gnome with a red hat?
5a5810fe770dc0001aeeffc4
True
There are many art galleries in Utrecht. There are also several foundations to support art and artists. Training of artists is done at the Utrecht School of the Arts. The Centraal Museum has many exhibitions on the arts, including a permanent exhibition on the works of Utrecht resident illustrator Dick Bruna, who is best known for creating Miffy ("Nijntje", in Dutch). Although street art is illegal in Utrecht, the Utrechtse Kabouter, a picture of a gnome with a red hat, became a common sight in 2004. Utrecht also houses one of the landmarks of modern architecture, the 1924 Rietveld Schröder House, which is listed on UNESCO's world heritage sites.
What does the city host on Sundays
5726e95b708984140094d597
To promote culture Utrecht city organizes cultural Sundays
0
False
What happens on Cultural Sunday
5726e95b708984140094d598
thematic Sunday several organisations create a program, which is open to everyone without, or with a very much reduced, admission fee
69
False
What does the city subsidise
5726e95b708984140094d599
an organisation for amateur education in arts aimed at all inhabitants (Utrechts Centrum voor de Kunsten
272
False
What type of coupon does the city provide the poor
5726e95b708984140094d59a
The city council provides coupons for discounts to inhabitants who receive welfare to be used with many of the initiatives.
487
False
cultural Sundays
42
What does the city host for visitors.
5a581222770dc0001aeeffc8
True
admission fee
189
What does the city subsidize for tourists?
5a581222770dc0001aeeffc9
True
coupons for discounts
513
What does the city coucil provide to students?
5a581222770dc0001aeeffca
True
amateur education in arts
292
what education does the national government subsidize?
5a581222770dc0001aeeffcb
True
To promote culture Utrecht city organizes cultural Sundays. During a thematic Sunday several organisations create a program, which is open to everyone without, or with a very much reduced, admission fee. There are also initiatives for amateur artists. The city subsidises an organisation for amateur education in arts aimed at all inhabitants (Utrechts Centrum voor de Kunsten), as does the university for its staff and students. Additionally there are also several private initiatives. The city council provides coupons for discounts to inhabitants who receive welfare to be used with many of the initiatives.
What football team is Utrecht home to
5726ea77f1498d1400e8efc4
Utrecht is home to the premier league (professional) football club FC Utrecht
0
False
What Utrecht waterways host to
5726ea77f1498d1400e8efc5
Utrecht's waterways are used by several rowing clubs
543
False
What is kampong
5726ea77f1498d1400e8efc6
Kampong, the largest (amateur) sportsclub in the Netherlands (4,500 members)
144
False
What sports does Kampong support
5726ea77f1498d1400e8efc7
Kampong features fieldhockey, soccer, cricket, tennis, squash and jeu de boules.
234
False
Kampong
144
What is the largest amature sportsclub in Europe?
5a581305770dc0001aeeffda
True
fieldhockey, soccer, cricket, tennis, squash and jeu de boules.
251
What sports are offered at Europes largest sportsclub?
5a581305770dc0001aeeffdb
True
Orca and Triton
670
What student clubs are open to the general public?
5a581305770dc0001aeeffdc
True
Stadium Nieuw Galgenwaard
94
What stadium does the varsity football team play at?
5a581305770dc0001aeeffdd
True
Utrecht is home to the premier league (professional) football club FC Utrecht, which plays in Stadium Nieuw Galgenwaard. It is also the home of Kampong, the largest (amateur) sportsclub in the Netherlands (4,500 members), SV Kampong. Kampong features fieldhockey, soccer, cricket, tennis, squash and jeu de boules. Kampong's men and women top hockey squads play in the highest Dutch hockey league, the Rabohoofdklasse.Utrecht is also home to the baseball and Sofball club: UVV which plays in the highest Dutch baseball league: de Hoofdklasse. Utrecht's waterways are used by several rowing clubs. Viking is a large club open to the general public, and the student clubs Orca and Triton compete in the Varsity each year.
Molotov%E2%80%93Ribbentrop_Pact
The agreement between the Nazis and the Soviets split what countries up?
5726d013dd62a815002e910c
Romania, Poland, Lithuania, Latvia, Estonia, and Finland
344
False
Who invaded Poland after the Nazi’s?
5726d013dd62a815002e910d
Soviet
1078
False
Which countries were taken over by the Soviets?
5726d013dd62a815002e910e
Estonia, Latvia, Lithuania, and parts of Romania
881
False
Who broke the agreement with the invasion of Bukovina?
5726d013dd62a815002e910f
Stalin
1105
False
Salla is located in what country?
5726d013dd62a815002e9110
Finland
775
False
Romania, Poland, Lithuania, Latvia, Estonia, and Finland
344
he disagreement between the Nazis and the Soviets split what countries up?
5ad27a11d7d075001a4295d4
True
Romania, Poland, Lithuania, Latvia, Estonia, and Finland
344
he agreement between the Nazis and the Soviets split what cities up?
5ad27a11d7d075001a4295d5
True
Soviet
1078
Who invaded Poland before the Nazi’s?
5ad27a11d7d075001a4295d6
True
Estonia, Latvia, Lithuania, and parts of Romania
881
Which countries weren't taken over by the Soviets?
5ad27a11d7d075001a4295d7
True
Finland
775
Salla isn't located in what country?
5ad27a11d7d075001a4295d8
True
The stated clauses of the Nazi-Soviet non-aggression pact were a guarantee of non-belligerence by each party towards the other, and a written commitment that neither party would ally itself to, or aid, an enemy of the other party. In addition to stipulations of non-aggression, the treaty included a secret protocol that divided territories of Romania, Poland, Lithuania, Latvia, Estonia, and Finland into German and Soviet "spheres of influence", anticipating potential "territorial and political rearrangements" of these countries. Thereafter, Germany invaded Poland on 1 September 1939. After the Soviet–Japanese ceasefire agreement took effect on 16 September, Stalin ordered his own invasion of Poland on 17 September. Part of southeastern (Karelia) and Salla region in Finland were annexed by the Soviet Union after the Winter War. This was followed by Soviet annexations of Estonia, Latvia, Lithuania, and parts of Romania (Bessarabia, Northern Bukovina, and the Hertza region). Concern about ethnic Ukrainians and Belarusians had been proffered as justification for the Soviet invasion of Poland. Stalin's invasion of Bukovina in 1940 violated the pact, as it went beyond the Soviet sphere of influence agreed with the Axis.
The regions of Białystok, Galicia and Przemyśl were returned to what country after world war II?
5726d0795951b619008f7ed5
Polish state
195
False
What regions remained part of the Soviet Union?
5726d0795951b619008f7ed6
(Karelia, Petsamo), Estonia (Ingrian area and Petseri County) and Latvia (Abrene) remained part of the Russian Federation
324
False
After World War II, what regions remain part of Ukraine?
5726d0795951b619008f7ed7
Northern Bukovina, Southern Bessarabia and Hertza
500
False
Polish state
195
The regions of Białystok, Galicia and Przemyśl were kept from what country after world war II?
5ad27a68d7d075001a4295e8
True
Polish state
195
The regions of Białystok, Galicia and Przemyśl were returned to what country before world war II?
5ad27a68d7d075001a4295e9
True
Finland (Karelia, Petsamo), Estonia (Ingrian area and Petseri County) and Latvia (Abrene)
316
What regions never remained part of the Soviet Union?
5ad27a68d7d075001a4295ea
True
Northern Bukovina, Southern Bessarabia and Hertza
500
Before World War II, what regions remain part of Ukraine?
5ad27a68d7d075001a4295eb
True
Northern Bukovina, Southern Bessarabia and Hertza remain part of Ukraine
500
After World War I, what regions remain part of Ukraine?
5ad27a68d7d075001a4295ec
True
Of the territories of Poland annexed by the Soviet Union between 1939 and 1940, the region around Białystok and a minor part of Galicia east of the San river around Przemyśl were returned to the Polish state at the end of World War II. Of all other territories annexed by the USSR in 1939–40, the ones detached from Finland (Karelia, Petsamo), Estonia (Ingrian area and Petseri County) and Latvia (Abrene) remained part of the Russian Federation, the successor state of the Soviet Union, after 1991. Northern Bukovina, Southern Bessarabia and Hertza remain part of Ukraine.
Lenin acknowledged the independence of which countries?
5726d0bef1498d1400e8ec1a
Finland, Estonia, Latvia, Lithuania and Poland.
235
False
What agreement gave Germany many regions of Russia in the first world war?
5726d0bef1498d1400e8ec1b
Treaty of Brest-Litovsk
375
False
When did the russian civil war take place?
5726d0bef1498d1400e8ec1c
1917–22
565
False
Finland, Estonia, Latvia, Lithuania and Poland
235
Lenin never acknowledged the independence of which countries?
5ad27ab8d7d075001a429620
True
Finland, Estonia, Latvia, Lithuania and Poland
235
Lenin acknowledged the dependence of which countries?
5ad27ab8d7d075001a429621
True
Treaty of Brest-Litovsk
375
What agreement gave Germany many regions of Russia in the second world war?
5ad27ab8d7d075001a429622
True
Treaty of Brest-Litovsk
375
What agreement gave Germany no of Russia in the first world war?
5ad27ab8d7d075001a429623
True
1917–22
565
When did the russian civil war not take place?
5ad27ab8d7d075001a429624
True
The outcome of the First World War was disastrous for both the German Reich and the Russian Soviet Federative Socialist Republic. During the war, the Bolsheviks struggled for survival, and Vladimir Lenin recognised the independence of Finland, Estonia, Latvia, Lithuania and Poland. Moreover, facing a German military advance, Lenin and Trotsky were forced to enter into the Treaty of Brest-Litovsk, which ceded massive western Russian territories to the German Empire. After Germany's collapse, a multinational Allied-led army intervened in the Russian Civil War (1917–22).
Who was to blame for communism and capitalism?
5726d14f5951b619008f7eef
ethnic Jews
290
False
What reduced Germany’s need for Soviet goods?
5726d14f5951b619008f7ef0
Treaty of Versailles
1076
False
Which political group created problems between the Soviet and German governments?
5726d14f5951b619008f7ef1
Nazi Party
35
False
ethnic Jews
290
Who wasn't to blame for communism and capitalism?
5ad27b50d7d075001a42963e
True
Treaty of Versailles
1076
What increased Germany’s need for Soviet goods?
5ad27b50d7d075001a42963f
True
Treaty of Versailles
1076
What reduced Germany’s need for American tanks?
5ad27b50d7d075001a429640
True
Nazi Party
35
Which political group removed problems between the Soviet and German governments?
5ad27b50d7d075001a429641
True
Nazi Party
35
Which political group created an alliance between the Soviet and German governments?
5ad27b50d7d075001a429642
True
At the beginning of the 1930s, the Nazi Party's rise to power increased tensions between Germany and the Soviet Union along with other countries with ethnic Slavs, who were considered "Untermenschen" (inferior) according to Nazi racial ideology. Moreover, the anti-Semitic Nazis associated ethnic Jews with both communism and financial capitalism, both of which they opposed. Consequently, Nazi theory held that Slavs in the Soviet Union were being ruled by "Jewish Bolshevik" masters. In 1934, Hitler himself had spoken of an inescapable battle against both Pan-Slavism and Neo-Slavism, the victory in which would lead to "permanent mastery of the world", though he stated that they would "walk part of the road with the Russians, if that will help us." The resulting manifestation of German anti-Bolshevism and an increase in Soviet foreign debts caused German–Soviet trade to dramatically decline.[b] Imports of Soviet goods to Germany fell to 223 million Reichsmarks in 1934 as the more isolationist Stalinist regime asserted power and the abandonment of post–World War I Treaty of Versailles military controls decreased Germany's reliance on Soviet imports.[clarification needed]
What countries prevented the Soviets from joining the Munich Conference?
5726d198dd62a815002e9144
UK and France
68
False
Who was the English politician who appeased Germany with the take over of Czechoslovakia
5726d198dd62a815002e9145
Chamberlain
418
False
The soviets suspected that Nazi-Soviet conflicts would result in what?
5726d198dd62a815002e9146
put an end to both the Soviet Union and Nazi Germany
804
False
UK and France
68
What countries helped the Soviets from joining the Munich Conference?
5ad27bb7d7d075001a429666
True
UK and France
68
What countries prevented the Germans from joining the Munich Conference?
5ad27bb7d7d075001a429667
True
Chamberlain
418
Who was the English politician who opposed Germany with the take over of Czechoslovakia
5ad27bb7d7d075001a429668
True
Chamberlain
418
Who was the French politician who appeased Germany with the take over of Czechoslovakia
5ad27bb7d7d075001a429669
True
an end to both the Soviet Union and Nazi Germany
808
The soviets suspected that Nazi-Soviet conflicts would never result in what?
5ad27bb7d7d075001a42966a
True
Hitler's fierce anti-Soviet rhetoric was one of the reasons why the UK and France decided that Soviet participation in the 1938 Munich Conference regarding Czechoslovakia would be both dangerous and useless. The Munich Agreement that followed marked a partial German annexation of Czechoslovakia in late 1938 followed by its complete dissolution in March 1939, which as part of the appeasement of Germany conducted by Chamberlain's and Daladier's cabinets. This policy immediately raised the question of whether the Soviet Union could avoid being next on Hitler's list. The Soviet leadership believed that the West wanted to encourage German aggression in the East and that France and Britain might stay neutral in a war initiated by Germany, hoping that the warring states would wear each other out and put an end to both the Soviet Union and Nazi Germany.
During conflict, what would prevent transport of materials?
5726d25e5951b619008f7f11
British blockade
239
False
Between german and the soviet union which country needed military machinery?
5726d25e5951b619008f7f12
military machinery
459
False
Who believed they needed a supply line from the Soviet Union to sustain another war?
5726d25e5951b619008f7f13
Germany
740
False
British blockade
239
During conflict, what wouldn't prevent transport of materials?
5ad27cfdd7d075001a4296a0
True
British blockade
239
During non-conflict, what would prevent transport of materials?
5ad27cfdd7d075001a4296a1
True
military machinery
459
Between german and the soviet union which country never needed what?
5ad27cfdd7d075001a4296a2
True
Germany
740
Who believed they never needed a supply line from the Soviet Union to sustain another war?
5ad27cfdd7d075001a4296a3
True
Germany
740
Who believed they needed a supply line from the Soviet Union to avoid another war?
5ad27cfdd7d075001a4296a4
True
For Germany, because an autarkic economic approach or an alliance with Britain were impossible, closer relations with the Soviet Union to obtain raw materials became necessary, if not just for economic reasons alone. Moreover, an expected British blockade in the event of war would create massive shortages for Germany in a number of key raw materials. After the Munich agreement, the resulting increase in German military supply needs and Soviet demands for military machinery, talks between the two countries occurred from late 1938 to March 1939. The third Soviet Five Year Plan required new infusions of technology and industrial equipment.[clarification needed] German war planners had estimated serious shortfalls of raw materials if Germany entered a war without Soviet supply.
Why did the Soviet government fear the governments of France and Britain?
5726d2bedd62a815002e9162
capitalist encirclements
70
False
Why did western power believe that the soviet government wouldn’t partake in another world war?
5726d2bedd62a815002e9163
Great Purge
522
False
What country was at war with Japan in China prior to World War II?
5726d2bedd62a815002e9164
Soviet Union
492
False
Who was afraid of a pact between Germany and the Soviet governments?
5726d2bedd62a815002e9165
France
723
False
capitalist encirclements
70
Why didn't the Soviet government fear the governments of France and Britain?
5ad27d5fd7d075001a4296c6
True
capitalist encirclements
70
Why did the Soviet government embrace the governments of France and Britain?
5ad27d5fd7d075001a4296c7
True
Great Purge
522
Why did eastern power believe that the soviet government wouldn’t partake in another world war?
5ad27d5fd7d075001a4296c8
True
Soviet Union
492
What country was at war with Japan in China prior to World War I?
5ad27d5fd7d075001a4296c9
True
France
723
Who embraced of a pact between Germany and the Soviet governments?
5ad27d5fd7d075001a4296ca
True
The Soviet Union, which feared Western powers and the possibility of "capitalist encirclements", had little faith either that war could be avoided, or faith in the Polish army, and wanted nothing less than an ironclad military alliance with France and Britain that would provide a guaranteed support for a two-pronged attack on Germany; thus, Stalin's adherence to the collective security line was purely conditional. Britain and France believed that war could still be avoided, and that the Soviet Union, weakened by the Great Purge, could not be a main military participant, a point that many military sources were at variance with, especially Soviet victories over the Japanese Kwantung army on the Manchurian frontier. France was more anxious to find an agreement with the USSR than was Britain; as a continental power, it was more willing to make concessions, more fearful of the dangers of an agreement between the USSR and Germany. These contrasting attitudes partly explain why the USSR has often been charged with playing a double game in 1939: carrying on open negotiations for an alliance with Britain and France while secretly considering propositions from Germany.
Who predicted soviet aggression in the Baltic region?
5726d3275951b619008f7f1f
Britain
387
False
What month did the Tripartite discussions begin between Britain, USSR and France?
5726d3275951b619008f7f20
mid-June
54
False
Which country is blamed for the Tripartite discussion to stagnate and fail?
5726d3275951b619008f7f21
the Soviets
871
False
Britain
387
Who never predicted soviet aggression in the Baltic region?
5ad27de2d7d075001a4296d8
True
Britain
387
Who predicted soviet aggression in the Atlantic region?
5ad27de2d7d075001a4296d9
True
mid-June
54
What month didn't the Tripartite discussions begin between Britain, USSR and France?
5ad27de2d7d075001a4296da
True
mid-June
54
What month did the Tripartite discussions end between Britain, USSR and France?
5ad27de2d7d075001a4296db
True
the Soviets
871
Which country is blamed for the Tripartite discussion to thrive?
5ad27de2d7d075001a4296dc
True
By the end of May, drafts were formally presented. In mid-June, the main Tripartite negotiations started. The discussion was focused on potential guarantees to central and east European countries should a German aggression arise. The USSR proposed to consider that a political turn towards Germany by the Baltic states would constitute an "indirect aggression" towards the Soviet Union. Britain opposed such proposals, because they feared the Soviets' proposed language could justify a Soviet intervention in Finland and the Baltic states, or push those countries to seek closer relations with Germany. The discussion about a definition of "indirect aggression" became one of the sticking points between the parties, and by mid-July, the tripartite political negotiations effectively stalled, while the parties agreed to start negotiations on a military agreement, which the Soviets insisted must be entered into simultaneously with any political agreement.
Which Soviet Foreign Minister lost his job because of his favorable attitude towards the west?
5726d35edd62a815002e917c
Maxim Litvinov
546
False
Which two countries positioned themselves to broker a deal returning to a pre-1930’s treaty with each other?
5726d35edd62a815002e917d
Soviet and German
17
False
Which two countries positioned themselves to broker an new trade agreement?
5726d35edd62a815002e917e
Germany and the Soviet Union
256
False
Maxim Litvinov
546
Which Soviet Foreign Minister kept his job because of his favorable attitude towards the west?
5ad27e33d7d075001a429708
True
Maxim Litvinov
546
Which Soviet Foreign Minister lost his job because of his unfavorable attitude towards the west?
5ad27e33d7d075001a429709
True
Soviet and German
17
Which two countries positioned themselves to broker a deal returning to a pre-1920’s treaty with each other?
5ad27e33d7d075001a42970a
True
Soviet and German
17
Which three countries positioned themselves to broker a deal returning to a pre-1930’s treaty with each other?
5ad27e33d7d075001a42970b
True
Germany and the Soviet Union
256
Which two countries positioned themselves to broker an old trade agreement?
5ad27e33d7d075001a42970c
True
From April–July, Soviet and German officials made statements regarding the potential for the beginning of political negotiations, while no actual negotiations took place during that time period. The ensuing discussion of a potential political deal between Germany and the Soviet Union had to be channeled into the framework of economic negotiations between the two countries, because close military and diplomatic connections, as was the case before the mid-1930s, had afterward been largely severed. In May, Stalin replaced his Foreign Minister Maxim Litvinov, who was regarded as pro-western and who was also Jewish, with Vyacheslav Molotov, allowing the Soviet Union more latitude in discussions with more parties, not only with Britain and France.
Why did Poland deny the proposal of the Soviet Union protecting them from a German Attack?
5726d39add62a815002e9194
once the Red Army entered their territories, it might never leave.
678
False
In what city did the tripartite military talks occur during the month of August?
5726d39add62a815002e9195
Moscow
118
False
Who did not want their country protected by the Soviet military?
5726d39add62a815002e9196
Poland
376
False
once the Red Army entered their territories, it might never leave
678
Why did Poland accept the proposal of the Soviet Union protecting them from a German Attack?
5ad27e9ad7d075001a42971a
True
once the Red Army entered their territories, it might never leave
678
Why did Poland deny the proposal of the Soviet Union protecting them from a English Attack?
5ad27e9ad7d075001a42971b
True
Moscow
118
In what city did the bipartite military talks occur during the month of August?
5ad27e9ad7d075001a42971c
True
Moscow
118
In what city did the tripartite military talks occur during the month of July?
5ad27e9ad7d075001a42971d
True
Poland
376
Who wanted their country protected by the Soviet military?
5ad27e9ad7d075001a42971e
True
At the same time, British, French, and Soviet negotiators scheduled three-party talks on military matters to occur in Moscow in August 1939, aiming to define what the agreement would specify should be the reaction of the three powers to a German attack. The tripartite military talks, started in mid-August, hit a sticking point regarding the passage of Soviet troops through Poland if Germans attacked, and the parties waited as British and French officials overseas pressured Polish officials to agree to such terms. Polish officials refused to allow Soviet troops into Polish territory if Germany attacked; as Polish foreign minister Józef Beck pointed out, they feared that once the Red Army entered their territories, it might never leave.
What was the German-Soviet dividing line in regards to annexing Poland?
5726d6b55951b619008f7f8d
Vistula river
334
False
How many days after the German-Soviet agreement were the Tripartite discussions ceased?
5726d6b55951b619008f7f8e
2
542
False
What other countries did the Soviet government agree to annex through the agreement with Germany?
5726d6b55951b619008f7f8f
Latvia, Estonia, Finland, and Bessarabia
350
False
Vistula river
334
What was the German-Soviet dividing line in regards to leaving Poland?
5ad27f00d7d075001a429738
True
Vistula river
334
What was the Russian-Soviet dividing line in regards to leaving Poland?
5ad27f00d7d075001a429739
True
Latvia, Estonia, Finland, and Bessarabia
350
What other countries didn't the Soviet government agree to annex through the agreement with Germany?
5ad27f00d7d075001a42973a
True
Latvia, Estonia, Finland, and Bessarabia
350
What other countries did the Soviet government disagree to annex through the agreement with Germany?
5ad27f00d7d075001a42973b
True
Latvia, Estonia, Finland, and Bessarabia
350
What other countries did the Soviet government agree to annex through the disagreement with Germany?
5ad27f00d7d075001a42973c
True
On August 19, the 1939 German–Soviet Commercial Agreement was finally signed. On 21 August, the Soviets suspended Tripartite military talks, citing other reasons. That same day, Stalin received assurance that Germany would approve secret protocols to the proposed non-aggression pact that would place half of Poland (border along the Vistula river), Latvia, Estonia, Finland, and Bessarabia in the Soviets' sphere of influence. That night, Stalin replied that the Soviets were willing to sign the pact and that he would receive Ribbentrop on 23 August.
Which Foreign Minister would agree to meet with Stalin on to sign a secret agreement?
5726d6eaf1498d1400e8eca8
Ribbentrop
95
False
How long was the secret agreement between Germany and the Soviets?
5726d6eaf1498d1400e8eca9
10-year
371
False
Part of the secret agreement between the Germans and the Soviets included a neutral diplomatic approach when?
5726d6eaf1498d1400e8ecaa
either went to war against a third power
508
False
Ribbentrop
95
Which Foreign Minister wouldn't agree to meet with Stalin on to sign a secret agreement?
5ad27f69d7d075001a429766
True
Ribbentrop
95
Which Foreign Minister would disagree to meet with Stalin on to sign a secret agreement?
5ad27f69d7d075001a429767
True
10-year
371
How long was the public agreement between Germany and the Soviets?
5ad27f69d7d075001a429768
True
either went to war against a third power
508
Part of the public agreement between the Germans and the Soviets included a neutral diplomatic approach when?
5ad27f69d7d075001a429769
True
either went to war against a third power
508
Part of the secret agreement between the Germans and the Soviets excluded a neutral diplomatic approach when?
5ad27f69d7d075001a42976a
True
On 22 August, one day after the talks broke down with France and Britain, Moscow revealed that Ribbentrop would visit Stalin the next day. This happened while the Soviets were still negotiating with the British and French missions in Moscow. With the Western nations unwilling to accede to Soviet demands, Stalin instead entered a secret Nazi–Soviet pact. On 24 August a 10-year non-aggression pact was signed with provisions that included: consultation, arbitration if either party disagreed, neutrality if either went to war against a third power, no membership of a group "which is directly or indirectly aimed at the other".
What country held the city Vilnius prior to the inter-war period?
5726d756f1498d1400e8ecb8
Lithuania
842
False
What country would reclaim the city of Vilnius?
5726d756f1498d1400e8ecb9
Lithuania
842
False
What rivers would the soviet union claim as their own during the invasion of poland?
5726d756f1498d1400e8ecba
Pisa, Narev, Vistula and San rivers
516
False
Who would claim Lithuania under their political umbrella?
5726d756f1498d1400e8ecbb
German
668
False
Bessarabia eventually became under the control of which country?
5726d756f1498d1400e8ecbc
Soviet Union
1050
False
Lithuania
842
What country held the city Vilnius after to the inter-war period?
5ad27fd7d7d075001a429794
True
Lithuania
842
What country wouldn't reclaim the city of Vilnius?
5ad27fd7d7d075001a429795
True
Pisa, Narev, Vistula and San rivers
516
What rivers wouldn't the soviet union claim as their own during the invasion of poland?
5ad27fd7d7d075001a429796
True
German
668
Who wouldn't claim Lithuania under their political umbrella?
5ad27fd7d7d075001a429797
True
Soviet Union
1050
Bessarabia eventually never became under the control of which country?
5ad27fd7d7d075001a429798
True
Most notably, there was also a secret protocol to the pact, revealed only after Germany's defeat in 1945, although hints about its provisions were leaked much earlier, e.g., to influence Lithuania. According to said protocol Romania, Poland, Lithuania, Latvia, Estonia and Finland were divided into German and Soviet "spheres of influence". In the north, Finland, Estonia and Latvia were assigned to the Soviet sphere. Poland was to be partitioned in the event of its "political rearrangement"—the areas east of the Pisa, Narev, Vistula and San rivers going to the Soviet Union while Germany would occupy the west. Lithuania, adjacent to East Prussia, would be in the German sphere of influence, although a second secret protocol agreed to in September 1939 reassigned the majority of Lithuania to the USSR. According to the secret protocol, Lithuania would be granted the city of Vilnius – its historical capital, which was under Polish control during the inter-war period. Another clause of the treaty was that Germany would not interfere with the Soviet Union's actions towards Bessarabia, then part of Romania; as the result, Bessarabia was joined to the Moldovan ASSR, and become the Moldovan SSR under control of Moscow.
Which diplomat leaked information about the secret agreements?
5726d7aaf1498d1400e8ecca
Hans von Herwarth
615
False
Which ally of Germany was most surprised by the signing of the agreement?
5726d7aaf1498d1400e8eccb
Japan
482
False
How long had the tripartite discussions been taking place?
5726d7aaf1498d1400e8eccc
place for months
378
False
Hans von Herwarth
615
Which diplomat never leaked information about the secret agreements?
5ad28049d7d075001a4297ae
True
Hans von Herwarth
615
Which diplomat leaked information about the public agreements?
5ad28049d7d075001a4297af
True
Japan
482
Which ally of Germany was least surprised by the signing of the agreement?
5ad28049d7d075001a4297b0
True
Japan
482
Which ally of Germany was most surprised by the scrapping of the agreement?
5ad28049d7d075001a4297b1
True
taken place for months
372
How long hadn't the tripartite discussions been taking place?
5ad28049d7d075001a4297b2
True
On 24 August, Pravda and Izvestia carried news of the non-secret portions of the Pact, complete with the now infamous front-page picture of Molotov signing the treaty, with a smiling Stalin looking on. The news was met with utter shock and surprise by government leaders and media worldwide, most of whom were aware only of the British–French–Soviet negotiations that had taken place for months. The Molotov–Ribbentrop Pact was received with shock by Nazi Germany's allies, notably Japan, by the Comintern and foreign communist parties, and by Jewish communities all around the world. So, that day, German diplomat Hans von Herwarth, whose grandmother was Jewish, informed Guido Relli, an Italian diplomat, and American chargé d'affaires Charles Bohlen on the secret protocol regarding vital interests in the countries' allotted "spheres of influence", without revealing the annexation rights for "territorial and political rearrangement".
Who downplayed the contrast and recent past history between German and the Soviets?
5726d7e25951b619008f7fab
Molotov
229
False
How long did the anti-Nazi propaganda machine run before the pact-signing?
5726d7e25951b619008f7fac
a decade
170
False
A war with the USSR was considered certain according to whom?
5726d7e25951b619008f7fad
Hitler
474
False
Molotov
229
Who up-played the contrast and recent past history between German and the Soviets?
5ad280c1d7d075001a4297cc
True
Molotov
229
Who downplayed the contrast and recent past history between England and the Soviets?
5ad280c1d7d075001a4297cd
True
a decade
170
How long did the anti-Soviet propaganda machine run before the pact-signing?
5ad280c1d7d075001a4297ce
True
Hitler
474
A war with the USSR wasn't considered certain according to whom?
5ad280c1d7d075001a4297cf
True
Hitler
474
A war with the USSR was considered uncertain according to whom?
5ad280c1d7d075001a4297d0
True
Soviet propaganda and representatives went to great lengths to minimize the importance of the fact that they had opposed and fought against the Nazis in various ways for a decade prior to signing the Pact. Upon signing the pact, Molotov tried to reassure the Germans of his good intentions by commenting to journalists that "fascism is a matter of taste". For its part, Nazi Germany also did a public volte-face regarding its virulent opposition to the Soviet Union, though Hitler still viewed an attack on the Soviet Union as "inevitable".[citation needed]
What was the response of  Kliment Voroshilov in regards to further conversations with Britain and France?
5726d819dd62a815002e923e
no useful purpose
253
False
Who should accept the annexation of Poland?
5726d819dd62a815002e923f
Britain
519
False
By accepting the deal with the USSR, Hitler admitted that it prevented what?
5726d819dd62a815002e9240
facing a two front war
427
False
no useful purpose
253
What was the response of Kliment Voroshilov in regards to no further conversations with Britain and France?
5ad28121d7d075001a4297e8
True
no useful purpose
253
What was the response of Kliment Voroshilov in regards to further conversations without Britain and France?
5ad28121d7d075001a4297e9
True
Britain
519
Who shouldn't accept the annexation of Poland?
5ad28121d7d075001a4297ea
True
Britain
519
Who should deny the annexation of Poland?
5ad28121d7d075001a4297eb
True
facing a two front war
427
By rejecting the deal with the USSR, Hitler admitted that it prevented what?
5ad28121d7d075001a4297ec
True
The day after the Pact was signed, the French and British military negotiation delegation urgently requested a meeting with Soviet military negotiator Kliment Voroshilov. On August 25, Voroshilov told them "[i]n view of the changed political situation, no useful purpose can be served in continuing the conversation." That day, Hitler told the British ambassador to Berlin that the pact with the Soviets prevented Germany from facing a two front war, changing the strategic situation from that in World War I, and that Britain should accept his demands regarding Poland.
How did the Russians communicate to the Germans in regards to bombing civilians trying to flee cities?
5726d859dd62a815002e924e
signals broadcast by the Soviet radio
453
False
What day did German invade Poland?
5726d859dd62a815002e924f
1 September
3
False
How long did the Germans massacre Polish and Jewish civilians?
5726d859dd62a815002e9250
month
244
False
signals broadcast by the Soviet radio
453
How didn't the Russians communicate to the Germans in regards to bombing civilians trying to flee cities?
5ad281a2d7d075001a429802
True
signals broadcast by the Soviet radio
453
How did the Russians communicate to the Germans in regards to bombing soldiers trying to flee cities?
5ad281a2d7d075001a429803
True
1 September
3
What day did German leave Poland?
5ad281a2d7d075001a429804
True
1 September
3
What day did German invade France?
5ad281a2d7d075001a429805
True
first month of German occupation
238
How long didn't the Germans massacre Polish and Jewish civilians?
5ad281a2d7d075001a429806
True
On 1 September, Germany invaded Poland from the west. Within the first few days of the invasion, Germany began conducting massacres of Polish and Jewish civilians and POWs. These executions took place in over 30 towns and villages in the first month of German occupation. The Luftwaffe also took part by strafing fleeing civilian refugees on roads and carrying out a bombing campaign. The Soviet Union assisted German air forces by allowing them to use signals broadcast by the Soviet radio station at Minsk allegedly "for urgent aeronautical experiments".
Why did Soviets create fake elections in Poland?
5726d883708984140094d343
legitimization of Soviet annexation of eastern Poland
618
False
Where did the Nazi and Russian leaders meet to discuss what to do with Poland?
5726d883708984140094d344
Brest-Litovsk
198
False
Where were cooperative military parades held?
5726d883708984140094d345
Lvov and Brest-Litovsk
189
False
a legitimization of Soviet annexation of eastern Poland
616
Why did Soviets create real elections in Poland?
5ad28243d7d075001a429828
True
a legitimization of Soviet annexation of eastern Poland
616
Why didn't Soviets create fake elections in Poland?
5ad28243d7d075001a429829
True
Brest-Litovsk
198
Where did the Nazi and Russian leaders meet to discuss what not to do with Poland?
5ad28243d7d075001a42982a
True
Lvov and Brest-Litovsk
189
Where weren't cooperative military parades held?
5ad28243d7d075001a42982b
True
Lvov and Brest-Litovsk
189
Where were cooperative military parades not held?
5ad28243d7d075001a42982c
True
On 21 September, the Soviets and Germans signed a formal agreement coordinating military movements in Poland, including the "purging" of saboteurs. A joint German–Soviet parade was held in Lvov and Brest-Litovsk, while the countries commanders met in the latter location. Stalin had decided in August that he was going to liquidate the Polish state, and a German–Soviet meeting in September addressed the future structure of the "Polish region". Soviet authorities immediately started a campaign of Sovietization of the newly acquired areas. The Soviets organized staged elections, the result of which was to become a legitimization of Soviet annexation of eastern Poland.
After amending the joint agreement, who received the larger portion of Lithuania?
5726d8c75951b619008f7fd3
Germany
206
False
What was the amended joint agreement called?
5726d8c75951b619008f7fd4
German–Soviet Treaty of Friendship, Cooperation and Demarcation
130
False
How long after the annexation of Kresy was the amendment made?
5726d8c75951b619008f7fd5
Eleven days
0
False
Germany
206
After amending the joint agreement, who received the smaller portion of Lithuania?
5ad282fed7d075001a42983c
True
Germany
206
After amending the joint agreement, who never received the larger portion of Lithuania?
5ad282fed7d075001a42983d
True
German–Soviet Treaty of Friendship, Cooperation and Demarcation
130
What was the amended joint agreement not called?
5ad282fed7d075001a42983e
True
Eleven days
0
How long after the annexation of Kresy wasn't the amendment made?
5ad282fed7d075001a42983f
True
Eleven days
0
How long before the annexation of Kresy was the amendment made?
5ad282fed7d075001a429840
True
Eleven days after the Soviet invasion of the Polish Kresy, the secret protocol of the Molotov–Ribbentrop Pact was modified by the German–Soviet Treaty of Friendship, Cooperation and Demarcation,) allotting Germany a larger part of Poland and transferring Lithuania's territory (with the exception of left bank of river Scheschupe, the "Lithuanian Strip") from the envisioned German sphere to the Soviets. On 28 September 1939, the Soviet Union and German Reich issued a joint declaration in which they declared:
The Soviets took over and setup a fake government in what country?
5726d90bf1498d1400e8ed06
Finnish Democratic Republic
548
False
How long did the Finnish military last during the invasion by the soviets?
5726d90bf1498d1400e8ed07
over three months
893
False
Although officially, the number of soviets wounded during the invasion of finland was around 200,000, who said the real numbers may have been closer to a million?
5726d90bf1498d1400e8ed08
Soviet Premier Nikita Khrushchev
1243
False
How many Finnish people lost their homes?
5726d90bf1498d1400e8ed09
422,000
1105
False
Finnish Democratic Republic
548
The Soviets took over and setup a real government in what country?
5ad283a5d7d075001a429846
True
over three months
893
How long did the Finnish military last before the invasion by the soviets?
5ad283a5d7d075001a429847
True
over three months
893
How long didn't the Finnish military last during the invasion by the soviets?
5ad283a5d7d075001a429848
True
Soviet Premier Nikita Khrushchev
1243
Although unofficially, the number of soviets wounded during the invasion of finland was around 200,000, who said the real numbers may have been closer to a million?
5ad283a5d7d075001a429849
True
422,000
1105
How many Finnish people kept their homes?
5ad283a5d7d075001a42984a
True
After the Baltic states were forced to accept treaties, Stalin turned his sights on Finland, confident that Finnish capitulation could be attained without great effort. The Soviets demanded territories on the Karelian Isthmus, the islands of the Gulf of Finland and a military base near the Finnish capital Helsinki, which Finland rejected. The Soviets staged the shelling of Mainila and used it as a pretext to withdraw from the non-aggression pact. The Red Army attacked in November 1939. Simultaneously, Stalin set up a puppet government in the Finnish Democratic Republic.[clarification needed] The leader of the Leningrad Military District Andrei Zhdanov commissioned a celebratory piece from Dmitri Shostakovich, entitled "Suite on Finnish Themes" to be performed as the marching bands of the Red Army would be parading through Helsinki. After Finnish defenses surprisingly held out for over three months while inflicting stiff losses on Soviet forces, the Soviets settled for an interim peace. Finland ceded southeastern areas of Karelia (10% of Finnish territory), which resulted in approximately 422,000 Karelians (12% of Finland's population) losing their homes. Soviet official casualty counts in the war exceeded 200,000, although Soviet Premier Nikita Khrushchev later claimed the casualties may have been one million.
Who invaded the countries of Lithuania, Estonia and Latvia?
5726d965f1498d1400e8ed0e
Soviet NKVD
93
False
What region of Lithuania was to be turned over to the Nazis?
5726d965f1498d1400e8ed0f
Scheschupe area
590
False
Of the three countries invaded, which lost the least amount of people through deportation or loss of life?
5726d965f1498d1400e8ed10
Latvia
158
False
How did these countries become part of the USSR?
5726d965f1498d1400e8ed11
Elections were held with single pro-Soviet candidates
333
False
Soviet NKVD
93
Who left the countries of Lithuania, Estonia and Latvia?
5ad28416d7d075001a429862
True
Scheschupe area
590
What region of Lithuania wasn't to be turned over to the Nazis?
5ad28416d7d075001a429863
True
Scheschupe area
590
What region of Lithuania was to be turned over to the French?
5ad28416d7d075001a429864
True
Latvia
158
Of the three countries invaded, which lost the most amount of people through deportation or loss of life?
5ad28416d7d075001a429865
True
Elections were held with single pro-Soviet candidates listed for many positions
333
How didn't these countries become part of the USSR?
5ad28416d7d075001a429866
True
In mid-June 1940, when international attention was focused on the German invasion of France, Soviet NKVD troops raided border posts in Lithuania, Estonia and Latvia. State administrations were liquidated and replaced by Soviet cadres, in which 34,250 Latvians, 75,000 Lithuanians and almost 60,000 Estonians were deported or killed. Elections were held with single pro-Soviet candidates listed for many positions, with resulting peoples assemblies immediately requesting admission into the USSR, which was granted by the Soviet Union. The USSR annexed the whole of Lithuania, including the Scheschupe area, which was to be given to Germany.
How many days after France sued for peace did the Romanians meet the requests of the USSR?
5726d9dcdd62a815002e9296
6
13
False
What month did France sue for peace?
5726d9dcdd62a815002e9297
June
15
False
How many days did it take for the Romanians give into the Soviets requests?
5726d9dcdd62a815002e9298
Two days
197
False
Two
197
How many days after France sued for peace did the Romanians reject the requests of the USSR?
5ad284bbd7d075001a42987e
True
June
15
What month didn't France sue for peace?
5ad284bbd7d075001a42987f
True
June
15
What month did France sue for war?
5ad284bbd7d075001a429880
True
Two days
197
How many days didn't it take for the Romanians give into the Soviets requests?
5ad284bbd7d075001a429881
True
Two days
197
How many days did it take for the Romanians reject the Soviets requests?
5ad284bbd7d075001a429882
True
Finally, on 26 June, four days after France sued for an armistice with the Third Reich, the Soviet Union issued an ultimatum demanding Bessarabia and, unexpectedly, Northern Bukovina from Romania. Two days later, the Romanians caved to the Soviet demands and the Soviets occupied the territory. The Hertza region was initially not requested by the USSR but was later occupied by force after the Romanians agreed to the initial Soviet demands. The subsequent waves of deportations began in Bessarabia and Northern Bukovina.
Who were the “intelligentia?”
5726da10dd62a815002e929c
Polish nobles, teachers, social workers, priests, judges and political activists
343
False
How long did liquidation occur?
5726da10dd62a815002e929d
fall of 1939 till spring of 1940
241
False
How many intelligentia were killed during operation AB-Akiton?
5726da10dd62a815002e929e
16,000 members
509
False
Polish nobles, teachers, social workers, priests, judges and political activists
343
Who weren't the “intelligentia?”
5ad28515d7d075001a429888
True
fall of 1939 till spring of 1940
241
How long didn't liquidation occur?
5ad28515d7d075001a429889
True
fall of 1939 till spring of 1940
241
How long did liquidation stop?
5ad28515d7d075001a42988a
True
16,000 members
509
How many intelligentia were saved during operation AB-Akiton?
5ad28515d7d075001a42988b
True
16,000 members
509
How many intelligentia were killed during operation BA-Akiton?
5ad28515d7d075001a42988c
True
Elimination of Polish elites and intelligentia was part of Generalplan Ost. The Intelligenzaktion, a plan to eliminate the Polish intelligentsia, Poland's 'leadership class', took place soon after the German invasion of Poland, lasting from fall of 1939 till spring of 1940. As the result of this operation in 10 regional actions about 60,000 Polish nobles, teachers, social workers, priests, judges and political activists were killed. It was continued in May 1940 when Germany launched AB-Aktion, More than 16,000 members of the intelligentsia were murdered in Operation Tannenberg alone.
How many Jews were forced to live within the Warsaw Ghetto?
5726da7d708984140094d39b
380,000
580
False
How many Jews died in the Warsa Ghetto?
5726da7d708984140094d39c
43,000
686
False
Which group of people were considered inferior?
5726da7d708984140094d39d
Poles and other Slavs
67
False
How many Polish people were used in labor camps?
5726da7d708984140094d39e
Between 1 and 2.5 million Polish citizens
170
False
How many people are believed to have died in Auschwitz?
5726da7d708984140094d39f
1.1 million people
917
False
380,000
580
How many Jews were forced to live outside of the Warsaw Ghetto?
5ad2858fd7d075001a4298a4
True
43,000
686
How many Jews survived in the Warsa Ghetto?
5ad2858fd7d075001a4298a5
True
Poles and other Slavs
67
Which group of people were considered superior?
5ad2858fd7d075001a4298a6
True
Between 1 and 2.5 million Polish citizens
170
How many Polish people weren't used in labor camps?
5ad2858fd7d075001a4298a7
True
1.1 million people died
917
How many people are believed to have lived in Auschwitz?
5ad2858fd7d075001a4298a8
True
Although Germany used forced labourers in most occupied countries, Poles and other Slavs were viewed as inferior by Nazi propaganda, thus, better suited for such duties. Between 1 and 2.5 million Polish citizens were transported to the Reich for forced labour, against their will. All Polish males were required to perform forced labour. While ethnic Poles were subject to selective persecution, all ethnic Jews were targeted by the Reich. In the winter of 1939–40, about 100,000 Jews were thus deported to Poland. They were initially gathered into massive urban ghettos, such as 380,000 held in the Warsaw Ghetto, where large numbers died under the harsh conditions therein, including 43,000 in the Warsaw Ghetto alone. Poles and ethnic Jews were imprisoned in nearly every camp of the extensive concentration camp system in German-occupied Poland and the Reich. In Auschwitz, which began operating on 14 June 1940, 1.1 million people died.
How much did the transfer of the Lithuanian Strip cost the Soviet Union?
5726dad6708984140094d3ab
7.5 million dollars (31.5 million Reichsmark)
300
False
How long did germans have to relocate from the baltic states after the amendment of secret protocols?
5726dad6708984140094d3ac
two and a half months
866
False
How long did the Russians have to relocate from the german occupied regions?
5726dad6708984140094d3ad
two and a half months
866
False
How long did the amendment extend the trade agreements?
5726dad6708984140094d3ae
until August 1, 1942
548
False
7.5 million dollars (31.5 million Reichsmark)
300
How much didn't the transfer of the Lithuanian Strip cost the Soviet Union?
5ad28656d7d075001a4298dc
True
two and a half months
866
How long didn't germans have to relocate from the baltic states after the amendment of secret protocols?
5ad28656d7d075001a4298dd
True
two and a half months
866
How long did germans have to relocate from the baltic states before the amendment of secret protocols?
5ad28656d7d075001a4298de
True
two and a half months
866
How long didn't the Russians have to relocate from the german occupied regions?
5ad28656d7d075001a4298df
True
until August 1, 1942
548
How long did the amendment reject the trade agreements?
5ad28656d7d075001a4298e0
True
On 10 January 1941, Germany and the Soviet Union signed an agreement settling several ongoing issues. Secret protocols in the new agreement modified the "Secret Additional Protocols" of the German–Soviet Boundary and Friendship Treaty, ceding the Lithuanian Strip to the Soviet Union in exchange for 7.5 million dollars (31.5 million Reichsmark). The agreement formally set the border between Germany and the Soviet Union between the Igorka river and the Baltic Sea. It also extended trade regulation of the 1940 German–Soviet Commercial Agreement until August 1, 1942, increased deliveries above the levels of year one of that agreement, settled trading rights in the Baltics and Bessarabia, calculated the compensation for German property interests in the Baltic States now occupied by the Soviets and other issues. It also covered the migration to Germany within two and a half months of ethnic Germans and German citizens in Soviet-held Baltic territories, and the migration to the Soviet Union of Baltic and "White Russian" "nationals" in German-held territories.
Who was part of Hollywood Ten?
5726db02dd62a815002e92ce
Herbert Biberman
133
False
Who was the leader of the American communist party?
5726db02dd62a815002e92cf
Earl Browder
192
False
Who protested the involvement of Britain and France in a war with Germany?
5726db02dd62a815002e92d0
Western Communists
579
False
Herbert Biberman
133
Who wasn't part of Hollywood Ten?
5ad286a9d7d075001a4298ec
True
Herbert Biberman
133
Who was part of Hollywood Nine?
5ad286a9d7d075001a4298ed
True
Earl Browder
295
Who was the follower of the American communist party?
5ad286a9d7d075001a4298ee
True
Western Communists
579
Who accepted the involvement of Britain and France in a war with Germany?
5ad286a9d7d075001a4298ef
True
Western Communists
579
Who protested the involvement of Britain and France in a treaty with Germany?
5ad286a9d7d075001a4298f0
True
Before the pact's announcement, Communists in the West denied that such a treaty would be signed. Future member of the Hollywood Ten Herbert Biberman denounced rumors as "Fascist propaganda". Earl Browder, head of the Communist Party USA, stated that "there is as much chance of agreement as of Earl Browder being elected president of the Chamber of Commerce." Beginning in September 1939, the Soviet Comintern suspended all anti-Nazi and anti-fascist propaganda, explaining that the war in Europe was a matter of capitalist states attacking each other for imperialist purposes. Western Communists acted accordingly; while before they supported protecting collective security, now they denounced Britain and France going to war.
The western communists new rhetoric was that the war was?
5726db50708984140094d3bd
the war was unjust and imperialist
437
False
The western communists claimed the war was what?
5726db50708984140094d3be
the war was unjust and imperialist
437
False
French communists voted for what?
5726db50708984140094d3bf
war credits
726
False
Where did Maurice Thorez go after deserting the Army?
5726db50708984140094d3c0
fled to Russia
1090
False
the war was unjust and imperialist
437
The eastern communists new rhetoric was that the war was?
5ad287dbd7d075001a429924
True
that the war was unjust and imperialist
432
The western communists old rhetoric was that the war was?
5ad287dbd7d075001a429925
True
war credits
642
French communists voted against what?
5ad287dbd7d075001a429926
True
fled to Russia
1090
Where didn't Maurice Thorez go after deserting the Army?
5ad287dbd7d075001a429927
True
Russia
1098
Where did Maurice Thorez go after joining the Army?
5ad287dbd7d075001a429928
True
When anti-German demonstrations erupted in Prague, Czechoslovakia, the Comintern ordered the Czech Communist Party to employ all of its strength to paralyze "chauvinist elements." Moscow soon forced the Communist Parties of France and Great Britain to adopt an anti-war position. On 7 September, Stalin called Georgi Dimitrov,[clarification needed] and the latter sketched a new Comintern line on the war. The new line—which stated that the war was unjust and imperialist—was approved by the secretariat of the Communist International on 9 September. Thus, the various western Communist parties now had to oppose the war, and to vote against war credits. Although the French Communists had unanimously voted in Parliament for war credits on 2 September and on 19 September declared their "unshakeable will" to defend the country, on 27 September the Comintern formally instructed the party to condemn the war as imperialist. By 1 October the French Communists advocated listening to German peace proposals, and Communist leader Maurice Thorez deserted from the French Army on 4 October and fled to Russia. Other Communists also deserted from the army.
Who wanted war with the Soviet Union?
5726db87dd62a815002e92de
English–French war bloc
363
False
Who publicly wanted peace with Soviet Union
5726db87dd62a815002e92df
German government
265
False
The British army was considered to be what by Walter Ulbricbht?
5726db87dd62a815002e92e0
the most reactionary force in the world
206
False
English–French war bloc
363
Who rejected war with the Soviet Union?
5ad2886ed7d075001a429948
True
English–French war bloc
363
Who wanted war with the Nazis?
5ad2886ed7d075001a429949
True
German government
265
Who privately wanted peace with Soviet Union
5ad2886ed7d075001a42994a
True
German government
265
Who publicly wanted war with Soviet Union
5ad2886ed7d075001a42994b
True
the most reactionary force in the world
206
The British army wasn't considered to be what by Walter Ulbricbht?
5ad2886ed7d075001a42994c
True
The Communist Party of Germany featured similar attitudes. In Die Welt, a communist newspaper published in Stockholm[e] the exiled communist leader Walter Ulbricht opposed the allies (Britain representing "the most reactionary force in the world") and argued: "The German government declared itself ready for friendly relations with the Soviet Union, whereas the English–French war bloc desires a war against the socialist Soviet Union. The Soviet people and the working people of Germany have an interest in preventing the English war plan."
Who refused a German-Soviet peace plan?
5726dbd5f1498d1400e8ed7e
Britain and France
60
False
Why was the west creating a war?
5726dbd5f1498d1400e8ed7f
to maintain the Versailles system.
497
False
Who provides rhetoric points for the Soviet propaganda?
5726dbd5f1498d1400e8ed80
Molotov
248
False
Britain and France
60
Who refused a German-Soviet war plan?
5ad288c3d7d075001a429966
True
Britain and France
60
Who accepted a German-Soviet peace plan?
5ad288c3d7d075001a429967
True
to maintain the Versailles system
497
Why was the east creating a war?
5ad288c3d7d075001a429968
True
to maintain the Versailles system
497
Why was the west creating peace?
5ad288c3d7d075001a429969
True
Molotov
248
Who provides rhetoric points against the Soviet propaganda?
5ad288c3d7d075001a42996a
True
When a joint German–Soviet peace initiative was rejected by Britain and France on 28 September 1939, Soviet foreign policy became critical of the Allies and more pro-German in turn. During the fifth session of the Supreme Soviet on 31 October 1939 Molotov analysed the international situation thus giving the direction for Communist propaganda. According to Molotov Germany had a legitimate interest in regaining its position as a great power and the Allies had started an aggressive war in order to maintain the Versailles system.
What was the title of Molotov’s report called?
5726dc09dd62a815002e92f8
On the Foreign Policy of the Soviet Union
41
False
According to Molotov, what was the goal of the west?
5726dc09dd62a815002e92f9
extermination of Hitlerism
362
False
Under what guise does the west perform their international policing?
5726dc09dd62a815002e92fa
defending democracy
247
False
On the Foreign Policy of the Soviet Union
41
What wasn't the title of Molotov’s report called?
5ad28932d7d075001a429978
True
On the Foreign Policy of the Soviet Union
41
What was the title of Stalin’s report called?
5ad28932d7d075001a429979
True
extermination of Hitlerism
362
According to Molotov, what wasn't the goal of the west?
5ad28932d7d075001a42997a
True
extermination of Hitlerism
362
According to Molotov, what was the goal of the east?
5ad28932d7d075001a42997b
True
defending democracy
247
Under what guise does the east perform their international policing?
5ad28932d7d075001a42997c
True
Molotov declared in his report entitled "On the Foreign Policy of the Soviet Union" (31 October 1939) held on the fifth (extraordinary) session of the Supreme Soviet, that the Western "ruling circles" disguise their intentions with the pretext of defending democracy against Hitlerism, declaring "their aim in war with Germany is nothing more, nothing less than extermination of Hitlerism. [...] There is absolutely no justification for this kind of war. The ideology of Hitlerism, just like any other ideological system, can be accepted or rejected, this is a matter of political views. But everyone grasps, that an ideology can not be exterminated by force, must not be finished off with a war."
How much more expansive was the newest trade agreement?
5726dc6d708984140094d3eb
was over four times larger
88
False
What was the trade route between german and the soviet union?
5726dc6d708984140094d3ec
occupied Polish territories
623
False
Where were the soybeans coming from?
5726dc6d708984140094d3ed
Manchuria
528
False
What famous ship was the soviet union getting the plans for?
5726dc6d708984140094d3ee
the battleship Bismarck
710
False
How many new airplanes were the soviets getting in this agreement?
5726dc6d708984140094d3ef
thirty
774
False
over four times larger
92
How much more expansive was the oldest trade agreement?
5ad289a4d7d075001a42998a
True
occupied Polish territories
623
What wasn't the trade route between german and the soviet union?
5ad289a4d7d075001a42998b
True
Manchuria
528
Where weren't the soybeans coming from?
5ad289a4d7d075001a42998c
True
the battleship Bismarck
710
What unknown ship was the soviet union getting the plans for?
5ad289a4d7d075001a42998d
True
thirty
774
How many old airplanes were the soviets getting in this agreement?
5ad289a4d7d075001a42998e
True
Germany and the Soviet Union entered an intricate trade pact on February 11, 1940, that was over four times larger than the one the two countries had signed in August 1939. The trade pact helped Germany to surmount a British blockade of Germany. In the first year, Germany received one million tons of cereals, half a million tons of wheat, 900,000 tons of oil, 100,000 tons of cotton, 500,000 tons of phosphates and considerable amounts of other vital raw materials, along with the transit of one million tons of soybeans from Manchuria.[citation needed] These and other supplies were being transported through Soviet and occupied Polish territories. The Soviets were to receive a naval cruiser, the plans to the battleship Bismarck, heavy naval guns, other naval gear and thirty of Germany's latest warplanes, including the Me-109 and Me-110 fighters and Ju-88 bomber. The Soviets would also receive oil and electric equipment, locomotives, turbines, generators, diesel engines, ships, machine tools and samples of German artillery, tanks, explosives, chemical-warfare equipment and other items.
What did the Germans use to avoid British blockades?
5726dc97708984140094d3f5
a submarine base
78
False
Where was the sub base located?
5726dc97708984140094d3f6
northern Soviet Union near Murmansk
115
False
Which oceans did the sub base provide access to?
5726dc97708984140094d3f7
both the Atlantic and the Pacific
505
False
a submarine base
78
What didn't the Germans use to avoid British blockades?
5ad28a70d7d075001a4299b8
True
northern Soviet Union near Murmansk
115
Where wasn't the sub base located?
5ad28a70d7d075001a4299b9
True
Soviet Union near Murmansk
124
Where was the plane base located?
5ad28a70d7d075001a4299ba
True
both the Atlantic and the Pacific
505
Which oceans didn't the sub base provide access to?
5ad28a70d7d075001a4299bb
True
both the Atlantic and the Pacific
505
Which oceans did the sub base restrict access to?
5ad28a70d7d075001a4299bc
True
The Soviets also helped Germany to avoid British naval blockades by providing a submarine base, Basis Nord, in the northern Soviet Union near Murmansk. This also provided a refueling and maintenance location, and a takeoff point for raids and attacks on shipping. In addition, the Soviets provided Germany with access to the Northern Sea Route for both cargo ships and raiders (though only the commerce raider Komet used the route before the German invasion), which forced Britain to protect sea lanes in both the Atlantic and the Pacific.
Who wanted to know the moment an anti-german bloc was to form?
5726dd42f1498d1400e8edc8
Ribbentrop
483
False
Why did the Germans distrust the soviet agenda?
5726dd42f1498d1400e8edc9
Stalin's invasions were a severe irritant
101
False
What caused distrust between the German and Soviet governments?
5726dd42f1498d1400e8edca
Stalin's invasions were a severe irritant to Berlin
101
False
Ribbentrop
483
Who wanted to know the moment an pro-german bloc was to form?
5ad28abdd7d075001a4299c2
True
Ribbentrop
483
Who never wanted to know the moment an anti-german bloc was to form?
5ad28abdd7d075001a4299c3
True
Stalin's invasions were a severe irritant
101
Why didn't the Germans distrust the soviet agenda?
5ad28abdd7d075001a4299c4
True
Stalin's invasions were a severe irritant
101
Why did the Germans trust the soviet agenda?
5ad28abdd7d075001a4299c5
True
Stalin's invasions were a severe irritant to Berlin
101
What brought trust between the German and Soviet governments?
5ad28abdd7d075001a4299c6
True
The Finnish and Baltic invasions began a deterioration of relations between the Soviets and Germany. Stalin's invasions were a severe irritant to Berlin, as the intent to accomplish these was not communicated to the Germans beforehand, and prompted concern that Stalin was seeking to form an anti-German bloc. Molotov's reassurances to the Germans, and the Germans' mistrust, intensified. On June 16, as the Soviets invaded Lithuania, but before they had invaded Latvia and Estonia, Ribbentrop instructed his staff "to submit a report as soon as possible as to whether in the Baltic States a tendency to seek support from the Reich can be observed or whether an attempt was made to form a bloc."
Who stopped the trade because of a disagreement involving Romania?
5726dd735951b619008f8083
Soviet Union
20
False
What regions were redrawn in effort to improve relations between Germany and the Soviets?
5726dd735951b619008f8084
Hungarian and Romanian borders
530
False
Who started refining Romanian oil?
5726dd735951b619008f8085
Germany
857
False
Soviet Union
20
Who started the trade because of a disagreement involving Romania?
5ad28b30d7d075001a4299de
True
Soviet Union
20
Who stopped the trade because of an agreement involving Romania?
5ad28b30d7d075001a4299df
True
Hungarian and Romanian borders
530
What regions weren't redrawn in effort to improve relations between Germany and the Soviets?
5ad28b30d7d075001a4299e0
True
Hungarian and Romanian borders
530
What regions were redrawn in effort to deteriorate relations between Germany and the Soviets?
5ad28b30d7d075001a4299e1
True
Germany
857
Who ended refining Romanian oil?
5ad28b30d7d075001a4299e2
True
In August 1940, the Soviet Union briefly suspended its deliveries under their commercial agreement after their relations were strained following disagreement over policy in Romania, the Soviet war with Finland, Germany falling behind in its deliveries of goods under the pact and with Stalin worried that Hitler's war with the West might end quickly after France signed an armistice. The suspension created significant resource problems for Germany. By the end of August, relations improved again as the countries had redrawn the Hungarian and Romanian borders, settled some Bulgarian claims and Stalin was again convinced that Germany would face a long war in the west with Britain's improvement in its air battle with Germany and the execution of an agreement between the United States and Britain regarding destroyers and bases. However, in late August, Germany arranged its own occupation of Romania, targeting oil fields. The move raised tensions with the Soviets, who responded that Germany was supposed to have consulted with the Soviet Union under Article III of the Molotov–Ribbentrop Pact.
What countries agreed to a tripartisan agreement?
5726dda0dd62a815002e933a
Germany entered a Tripartite Pact with Japan and Italy
6
False
Which Foreign Minister proposed that the Soviets should join this agreement of axis powers?
5726dda0dd62a815002e933b
Ribbentrop
62
False
Who would the axis powers oppose in the new agreement?
5726dda0dd62a815002e933c
Britain and the USA
227
False
Germany entered a Tripartite Pact with Japan and Italy
6
What countries disagreed to a tripartisan agreement?
5ad28ba5d7d075001a4299e8
True
Germany entered a Tripartite Pact with Japan and Italy
6
What countries agreed to a bipartisan agreement?
5ad28ba5d7d075001a4299e9
True
Ribbentrop
62
Which Foreign Minister proposed that the Soviets should reject this agreement of axis powers?
5ad28ba5d7d075001a4299ea
True
Ribbentrop
62
Which Foreign Minister proposed that the Soviets should join this disagreement of axis powers?
5ad28ba5d7d075001a4299eb
True
Britain and the USA
227
Who would the axis powers approve in the new agreement?
5ad28ba5d7d075001a4299ec
True
After Germany entered a Tripartite Pact with Japan and Italy, Ribbentrop wrote to Stalin, inviting Molotov to Berlin for negotiations aimed to create a 'continental bloc' of Germany, Italy, Japan and the USSR that would oppose Britain and the USA. Stalin sent Molotov to Berlin to negotiate the terms for the Soviet Union to join the Axis and potentially enjoy the spoils of the pact. After negotiations during November 1940 on where to extend the USSR's sphere of influence, Hitler broke off talks and continued planning for the eventual attempts to invade the Soviet Union.
Who was planning an invasion of the Soviet Union?
5726ddd95951b619008f8093
Hitler
568
False
Who did the Soviet Union agree to remain neutral with when they signed a treaty on the 13th of April?
5726ddd95951b619008f8094
Japan
175
False
Why did Stalin sign the pact?
5726ddd95951b619008f8095
reinforce a public affection for Germany
277
False
Hitler
472
Who wasn't planning an invasion of the Soviet Union?
5ad28c20d7d075001a4299f2
True
Hitler
472
Who was openly planning an invasion of the Soviet Union?
5ad28c20d7d075001a4299f3
True
Japan
135
Who did the Soviet Union disagree to remain neutral with when they signed a treaty on the 13th of April?
5ad28c20d7d075001a4299f4
True
Japan
135
Who did the Soviet Union agree to remain neutral with when they rejected a treaty on the 13th of April?
5ad28c20d7d075001a4299f5
True
to reinforce a public affection for Germany
274
Why didn't Stalin sign the pact?
5ad28c20d7d075001a4299f6
True
In an effort to demonstrate peaceful intentions toward Germany, on 13 April 1941, the Soviets signed a neutrality pact with Axis power Japan. While Stalin had little faith in Japan's commitment to neutrality, he felt that the pact was important for its political symbolism, to reinforce a public affection for Germany. Stalin felt that there was a growing split in German circles about whether Germany should initiate a war with the Soviet Union. Stalin did not know that Hitler had been secretly discussing an invasion of the Soviet Union since summer 1940, and that Hitler had ordered his military in late 1940 to prepare for war in the east regardless of the parties' talks of a potential Soviet entry as a fourth Axis Power.
Where did the German attack on Soviet forces occur?
5726de31708984140094d419
Soviet positions in eastern Poland
114
False
How many Soviet military members died within the first six months of the war between the two countries?
5726de31708984140094d41a
4.3 million casualties
608
False
How many Soviet prisoners did german take within the first six months of war between the two countries?
5726de31708984140094d41b
three million Soviet prisoners
657
False
How long did it take to capture regions of the world that were once occupied by soviets once the initial attack occurred?
5726de31708984140094d41c
matter of weeks
539
False
Soviet positions in eastern Poland
114
Where did the German attack on Soviet forces not occur?
5ad28cbcd7d075001a429a16
True
Soviet positions in eastern Poland
114
Where did the German attack on British forces occur?
5ad28cbcd7d075001a429a17
True
4.3 million
608
How many Soviet military members died within the first nine months of the war between the two countries?
5ad28cbcd7d075001a429a18
True
three million
657
How many Soviet prisoners did german take within the first nine months of war between the two countries?
5ad28cbcd7d075001a429a19
True
matter of weeks
539
How long did it take to capture regions of the world that were once occupied by soviets once the final attack occurred?
5ad28cbcd7d075001a429a1a
True
Nazi Germany terminated the Molotov–Ribbentrop Pact at 03:15 on 22 June 1941 by launching a massive attack on the Soviet positions in eastern Poland which marked the beginning of the invasion of the Soviet Union known as Operation Barbarossa. Stalin had ignored several warnings that Germany was likely to invade, and ordered no 'full-scale' mobilization of forces although the mobilization was ongoing. After the launch of the invasion, the territories gained by the Soviet Union as a result of the Molotov–Ribbentrop Pact were lost in a matter of weeks. Within six months, the Soviet military had suffered 4.3 million casualties, and Germany had captured three million Soviet prisoners. The lucrative export of Soviet raw materials to Nazi Germany over the course of the Nazi–Soviet economic relations (1934–41) continued uninterrupted until the outbreak of hostilities. The Soviet exports in several key areas enabled Germany to maintain its stocks of rubber and grain from the first day of the invasion until October 1941.
How many pages of secret documents were microfilmed?
5726de80dd62a815002e9350
9,800 pages
227
False
Near the end of the war, where the did some of the german command flee to?
5726de80dd62a815002e9351
Thuringia
335
False
What did Wendell B. Blancke investigate at the end of the war?
5726de80dd62a815002e9352
Exploitation German Archives
1389
False
Why did Karl von Loesch bury the microfilm?
5726de80dd62a815002e9353
personal insurance for his future well-being
631
False
Where was Karl von Löesch transferred to after he turned over the documents?
5726de80dd62a815002e9354
the American zone
1077
False
9,800 pages
227
How many pages of public documents were microfilmed?
5ad28d34d7d075001a429a20
True
Thuringia
335
Near the start of the war, where the did some of the german command flee to?
5ad28d34d7d075001a429a21
True
Exploitation German Archives
1389
What did Wendell B. Blancke investigate at the start of the war?
5ad28d34d7d075001a429a22
True
personal insurance for his future well-being
631
Why did Karl von Loesch destroy the microfilm?
5ad28d34d7d075001a429a23
True
Marburg in the American zone
1066
Where was Karl von Löesch transferred to after he destoyed over the documents?
5ad28d34d7d075001a429a24
True
The German original of the secret protocols was presumably destroyed in the bombing of Germany, but in late 1943, Ribbentrop had ordered that the most secret records of the German Foreign Office from 1933 on, amounting to some 9,800 pages, be microfilmed. When the various departments of the Foreign Office in Berlin were evacuated to Thuringia at the end of the war, Karl von Loesch, a civil servant who had worked for the chief interpreter Paul Otto Schmidt, was entrusted with these microfilm copies. He eventually received orders to destroy the secret documents but decided to bury the metal container with the microfilms as a personal insurance for his future well-being. In May 1945, von Loesch approached the British Lt. Col. Robert C. Thomson with the request to transmit a personal letter to Duncan Sandys, Churchill's son-in-law. In the letter, von Loesch revealed that he had knowledge of the documents' whereabouts but expected preferential treatment in return. Colonel Thomson and his American counterpart Ralph Collins agreed to transfer von Loesch to Marburg in the American zone if he would produce the microfilms. The microfilms contained a copy of the Non-Aggression Treaty as well as the Secret Protocol. Both documents were discovered as part of the microfilmed records in August 1945 by the State Department employee Wendell B. Blancke, head of a special unit called "Exploitation German Archives" (EGA).
Who printed the secret German-Soviet treaty in Britain?
5726dee0f1498d1400e8ee2a
the Manchester Guardian
127
False
Which world leader favored the publication of Nazi-Soviet Relations to be printed?
5726dee0f1498d1400e8ee2b
President Truman
547
False
What was the description of the Soviet government in the world press in regards to the treaty and subsequent breaking of the treaty by germany?
5726dee0f1498d1400e8ee2c
flat-footed
962
False
Where was the Foreign Ministers conference held?
5726dee0f1498d1400e8ee2d
London
668
False
Who put the Nazi-Soviet Relations publication together?
5726dee0f1498d1400e8ee2e
Raymond J. Sontag and James S. Beddie
257
False
the Manchester Guardian
127
Who printed the public German-Soviet treaty in Britain?
5ad28dcdd7d075001a429a34
True
President Truman
547
Which world leader hated the publication of Nazi-Soviet Relations to be printed?
5ad28dcdd7d075001a429a35
True
flat-footed
962
What wasn't the description of the Soviet government in the world press in regards to the treaty and subsequent breaking of the treaty by germany?
5ad28dcdd7d075001a429a36
True
London
668
Where wasn't the Foreign Ministers conference held?
5ad28dcdd7d075001a429a37
True
Raymond J. Sontag and James S. Beddie
257
Who destroyed the Nazi-Soviet Relations publication?
5ad28dcdd7d075001a429a38
True
The treaty was published in the United States for the first time by the St. Louis Post-Dispatch on May 22, 1946, in Britain by the Manchester Guardian. It was also part of an official State Department publication, Nazi–Soviet Relations 1939–1941, edited by Raymond J. Sontag and James S. Beddie in January 1948. The decision to publish the key documents on German–Soviet relations, including the treaty and protocol, had been taken already in spring 1947. Sontag and Beddie prepared the collection throughout the summer of 1947. In November 1947, President Truman personally approved the publication but it was held back in view of the Foreign Ministers Conference in London scheduled for December. Since negotiations at that conference did not prove constructive from an American point of view, the document edition was sent to press. The documents made headlines worldwide. State Department officials counted it as a success: "The Soviet Government was caught flat-footed in what was the first effective blow from our side in a clear-cut propaganda war."
What year was Joseph Stalin’s version of the pact published?
5726df215951b619008f80d9
1948
161
False
What was the Soviet response to the Nazi-Soviet Relations publication
5726df215951b619008f80da
Falsifiers of History
185
False
How long did Stalins version of what happened between the Germans and the Soviets last?
5726df215951b619008f80db
until the Soviet Union's dissolution
527
False
1948
161
What year wasn't Joseph Stalin’s version of the pact published?
5ad28e3cd7d075001a429a3e
True
1948
161
What year was Joseph Stalin’s version of the pact unpublished?
5ad28e3cd7d075001a429a3f
True
Falsifiers of History
185
What wasn't the Soviet response to the Nazi-Soviet Relations publication
5ad28e3cd7d075001a429a40
True
until the Soviet Union's dissolution
527
How long didn't Stalins version of what happened between the Germans and the Soviets last?
5ad28e3cd7d075001a429a41
True
until the Soviet Union's dissolution
527
How long did Stalins version of what happened between the British and the Soviets last?
5ad28e3cd7d075001a429a42
True
In response to the publication of the secret protocols and other secret German–Soviet relations documents in the State Department edition Nazi–Soviet Relations (1948), Stalin published Falsifiers of History, which included the claim that, during the Pact's operation, Stalin rejected Hitler's claim to share in a division of the world, without mentioning the Soviet offer to join the Axis. That version persisted, without exception, in historical studies, official accounts, memoirs and textbooks published in the Soviet Union until the Soviet Union's dissolution.
Who created an investigation into whether or not the Soviet-German Pact happened?
5726df55f1498d1400e8ee3a
Mikhail Gorbachev, Alexander Nikolaevich Yakovlev
149
False
Which states have argued that the Soviet-German Pact was invalid from the inception?
5726df55f1498d1400e8ee3b
Both successor-states of the pact parties
555
False
Which government agency received the news that the Soviet-German Pact had existed?
5726df55f1498d1400e8ee3c
Congress of People's Deputies of the Soviet Union
373
False
Mikhail Gorbachev, Alexander Nikolaevich Yakovlev
149
Who rejected an investigation into whether or not the Soviet-German Pact happened?
5ad28eddd7d075001a429a5a
True
Both successor-states of the pact parties
555
Which states have argued that the Soviet-German Pact was valid from the inception?
5ad28eddd7d075001a429a5b
True
Both successor-states of the pact parties
555
Which states have argued that the Japan-German Pact was invalid from the inception?
5ad28eddd7d075001a429a5c
True
Congress of People's Deputies of the Soviet Union
373
Which non-government agency received the news that the Soviet-German Pact had existed?
5ad28eddd7d075001a429a5d
True
Congress of People's Deputies of the Soviet Union
373
Which government agency received the news that the Soviet-German Pact had never existed?
5ad28eddd7d075001a429a5e
True
For decades, it was the official policy of the Soviet Union to deny the existence of the secret protocol to the Soviet–German Pact. At the behest of Mikhail Gorbachev, Alexander Nikolaevich Yakovlev headed a commission investigating the existence of such a protocol. In December 1989, the commission concluded that the protocol had existed and revealed its findings to the Congress of People's Deputies of the Soviet Union. As a result, the Congress passed the declaration confirming the existence of the secret protocols, condemning and denouncing them. Both successor-states of the pact parties have declared the secret protocols to be invalid from the moment they were signed. The Federal Republic of Germany declared this on September 1, 1989 and the Soviet Union on December 24, 1989, following an examination of the microfilmed copy of the German originals.
Who was ordered to remove the Jews from the Ministry?
5726dfa9708984140094d44b
Molotov
247
False
Who gave the order to remove the Jews from the Ministry?
5726dfa9708984140094d44c
Stalin
219
False
Who believed that the firing of Litvinov allowed the Soviets to quicker negotiations with Germany?
5726dfa9708984140094d44d
Derek Watson
1535
False
Who believed that the hiring of Molotov would result in a better deal with the western countries?
5726dfa9708984140094d44e
Geoffrey Roberts
1720
False
Molotov
247
Who was ordered to keep the Jews from the Ministry?
5ad28f6fd7d075001a429a6e
True
Stalin
219
Who gave the order to keep the Jews from the Ministry?
5ad28f6fd7d075001a429a6f
True
Stalin
219
Who never gave the order to remove the Jews from the Ministry?
5ad28f6fd7d075001a429a70
True
Derek Watson
1535
Who believed that the hiring of Litvinov allowed the Soviets to quicker negotiations with Germany?
5ad28f6fd7d075001a429a71
True
Geoffrey Roberts
1720
Who believed that the firing of Molotov would result in a better deal with the western countries?
5ad28f6fd7d075001a429a72
True
Regarding the timing of German rapprochement, many historians agree that the dismissal of Maxim Litvinov, whose Jewish ethnicity was viewed unfavorably by Nazi Germany, removed an obstacle to negotiations with Germany. Stalin immediately directed Molotov to "purge the ministry of Jews." Given Litvinov's prior attempts to create an anti-fascist coalition, association with the doctrine of collective security with France and Britain, and pro-Western orientation by the standards of the Kremlin, his dismissal indicated the existence of a Soviet option of rapprochement with Germany.[f] Likewise, Molotov's appointment served as a signal to Germany that the USSR was open to offers. The dismissal also signaled to France and Britain the existence of a potential negotiation option with Germany. One British official wrote that Litvinov's disappearance also meant the loss of an admirable technician or shock-absorber, while Molotov's "modus operandi" was "more truly Bolshevik than diplomatic or cosmopolitan." Carr argued that the Soviet Union's replacement of Foreign Minister Litvinov with Molotov on May 3, 1939 indicated not an irrevocable shift towards alignment with Germany, but rather was Stalin's way of engaging in hard bargaining with the British and the French by appointing a proverbial hard man, namely Molotov, to the Foreign Commissariat. Historian Albert Resis stated that the Litvinov dismissal gave the Soviets freedom to pursue faster-paced German negotiations, but that they did not abandon British–French talks. Derek Watson argued that Molotov could get the best deal with Britain and France because he was not encumbered with the baggage of collective security and could negotiate with Germany. Geoffrey Roberts argued that Litvinov's dismissal helped the Soviets with British–French talks, because Litvinov doubted or maybe even opposed such discussions.
Edward Carr believes that in a war between Germany and the Soviet Union, who else would have been participating?
5726dffd708984140094d45d
the Western Powers would already be involved
433
False
Who believes that the Soviet Unions was afraid of Germany?
5726dffd708984140094d45e
Historian Werner Maser
556
False
The pact according to Edward Carr’s view was to provide what between Germany and the Soviet Union?
5726dffd708984140094d45f
a line of defense against
267
False
the Western Powers would already be involved
433
Edward Carr believes that in a war between Germany and the Soviet Union, who else wouldn't have been participating?
5ad29006d7d075001a429a82
True
the Western Powers would already be involved.
433
Edward Carr doesn't believe that in a war between Germany and the Soviet Union, who else would have been participating?
5ad29006d7d075001a429a83
True
Werner Maser
566
Who never believed that the Soviet Unions were afraid of Germany?
5ad29006d7d075001a429a84
True
Werner Maser
566
Who believes that the Soviet Unions was friends of Germany?
5ad29006d7d075001a429a85
True
a line of defense
267
The pact according to Edward Carr’s view wasn't to provide what between Germany and the Soviet Union?
5ad29006d7d075001a429a86
True
Edward Hallett Carr, a frequent defender of Soviet policy, stated: "In return for 'non-intervention' Stalin secured a breathing space of immunity from German attack."[page needed] According to Carr, the "bastion" created by means of the Pact, "was and could only be, a line of defense against potential German attack."[page needed] According to Carr, an important advantage was that "if Soviet Russia had eventually to fight Hitler, the Western Powers would already be involved."[page needed] However, during the last decades, this view has been disputed. Historian Werner Maser stated that "the claim that the Soviet Union was at the time threatened by Hitler, as Stalin supposed ... is a legend, to whose creators Stalin himself belonged. In Maser's view, "neither Germany nor Japan were in a situation [of] invading the USSR even with the least perspective  [sic] of success," and this could not have been unknown to Stalin. Carr further stated that, for a long time, the primary motive of Stalin's sudden change of course was assumed to be the fear of German aggressive intentions.
Who was skeptical of Stalin’s policies?
5726e0415951b619008f80f5
Viktor Suvorov
60
False
What is the claim the pact promoted, purported by the The Black Book of Communism?
5726e0415951b619008f80f6
a "conspiracy to conduct war of aggression."
640
False
Who doesn’t believe that Joseph Stalin had plans to invade Germany?
5726e0415951b619008f80f7
David Glantz
461
False
Viktor Suvorov
60
Who wasn't skeptical of Stalin’s policies?
5ad29069d7d075001a429a94
True
conspiracy to conduct war of aggression
643
What isn't the claim the pact promoted, purported by the The Black Book of Communism?
5ad29069d7d075001a429a95
True
conspiracy to conduct war of aggression
643
What is the claim the pact promoted, purported by the The White Book of Communism?
5ad29069d7d075001a429a96
True
David Glantz
461
Who believed that Joseph Stalin had plans to invade Germany?
5ad29069d7d075001a429a97
True
David Glantz
461
Who doesn’t believe that Joseph Stalin had plans to invade France?
5ad29069d7d075001a429a98
True
Some critics of Stalin's policy, such as the popular writer Viktor Suvorov, claim that Stalin's primary motive for signing the Soviet–German non-aggression treaty was his calculation that such a pact could result in a conflict between the capitalist countries of Western Europe.[citation needed] This idea is supported by Albert L. Weeks.[page needed] Claims by Suvorov that Stalin planned to invade Germany in 1941 are debated by historians with, for example, David Glantz opposing such claims, while Mikhail Meltyukhov supports them.[citation needed] The authors of The Black Book of Communism consider the pact a crime against peace and a "conspiracy to conduct war of aggression."
Capacitor
What was a capacitor originally known as?
5726d89c708984140094d349
a condenser
33
False
How many electrical conductors, or plates, do all capacitors contain at a minimum?
5726d89c708984140094d34a
two electrical conductors
231
False
What is the name of the insulator in all capacitors that can store energy by becoming polarized?
5726d89c708984140094d34b
a dielectric
279
False
In what form does a capacitor store energy?
5726d89c708984140094d34c
the form of an electrostatic field
853
False
Where is the energy stored by a capacitor located?
5726d89c708984140094d34d
between its plates
888
False
capacitor
2
What was a condenser originally known as?
5acf550877cf76001a684ba0
True
A capacitor
0
What has three terminal electrical components?
5acf550877cf76001a684ba1
True
dielectric
281
What is the name of the insulator in all capacitors that can't store energy by becoming polarized?
5acf550877cf76001a684ba2
True
the form of an electrostatic field
853
In what form does a capacitor never store energy?
5acf550877cf76001a684ba3
True
between its plates
888
Where is the energy released by a capacitor located?
5acf550877cf76001a684ba4
True
A capacitor (originally known as a condenser) is a passive two-terminal electrical component used to store electrical energy temporarily in an electric field. The forms of practical capacitors vary widely, but all contain at least two electrical conductors (plates) separated by a dielectric (i.e. an insulator that can store energy by becoming polarized). The conductors can be thin films, foils or sintered beads of metal or conductive electrolyte, etc. The nonconducting dielectric acts to increase the capacitor's charge capacity. Materials commonly used as dielectrics include glass, ceramic, plastic film, air, vacuum, paper, mica, and oxide layers. Capacitors are widely used as parts of electrical circuits in many common electrical devices. Unlike a resistor, an ideal capacitor does not dissipate energy. Instead, a capacitor stores energy in the form of an electrostatic field between its plates.
When does an electric field develop across the dielectric?
5726dfe9708984140094d453
When there is a potential difference across the conductors
0
False
Under what condition can a displacement current flow in a capacitor?
5726dfe9708984140094d454
if a time-varying voltage is applied across the leads
400
False
What is an example of when there exists a potential difference across the conductors?
5726dfe9708984140094d455
when a capacitor is attached across a battery
66
False
What happens to the current when a battery has been attached to a capacitor for an adequate amount of time?
5726dfe9708984140094d456
no current can flow through the capacitor
348
False
How do charges accumulate on each plate of a capacitor after an electric field has developed across the dielectric?
5726dfe9708984140094d457
positive charge +Q to collect on one plate and negative charge −Q to collect on the other
172
False
When there is a potential difference across the conductors
0
When does an electric field not develop across the dielectric?
5acf573d77cf76001a684bb4
True
a time-varying voltage is applied across the leads
403
Under what condition does a displacement current never flow in a capacitor?
5acf573d77cf76001a684bb5
True
when a capacitor is attached across a battery
66
What is an example of when there exists a similarity across the conductors?
5acf573d77cf76001a684bb6
True
positive charge +Q to collect on one plate and negative charge −Q to collect on the other plate
172
How do charges stop accumulating on each plate of a capacitor after an electric field has developed across the dielectric?
5acf573d77cf76001a684bb7
True
no current can flow through the capacitor
348
hat happens to the current when a battery has been attached to a capacitor for an inadequate amount of time?
5acf573d77cf76001a684bb8
True
When there is a potential difference across the conductors (e.g., when a capacitor is attached across a battery), an electric field develops across the dielectric, causing positive charge +Q to collect on one plate and negative charge −Q to collect on the other plate. If a battery has been attached to a capacitor for a sufficient amount of time, no current can flow through the capacitor. However, if a time-varying voltage is applied across the leads of the capacitor, a displacement current can flow.
Who first discovered the basic properties of capacitors?
5726e1755951b619008f813d
Ewald Georg von Kleist
17
False
When were the basic properties of capacitors first discovered?
5726e1755951b619008f813e
In October 1745
0
False
In the original experiment in which the properties of capacitors were discovered, what component acted as the dielectric?
5726e1755951b619008f813f
a hand-held glass jar
184
False
Besides the scientist's hand, what other component of the experiment in which the basic properties of capacitors were discovered acted as the second conductor?
5726e1755951b619008f8140
the water acted as conductors
229
False
What was the name of the Dutch physicist who invented the Leyden Jar?
5726e1755951b619008f8141
Pieter van Musschenbroek
543
False
Ewald Georg von Kleist
17
Who did not discover the basic properties of capacitors?
5acf57a177cf76001a684bbe
True
Ewald Georg von Kleist of Pomerania, Germany, found that charge could be stored
17
What happened on November 1745?
5acf57a177cf76001a684bbf
True
hand-held glass jar
186
In the original experiment in which the properties of capacitors were discovered, what component didn't act as the dielectric?
5acf57a177cf76001a684bc0
True
Pieter van Musschenbroek
543
What was the name of the French physicist who invented the Leyden Jar?
5acf57a177cf76001a684bc1
True
Pieter van Musschenbroek
543
Who said: "I would take a second shock for the kingdom of France."
5acf57a177cf76001a684bc2
True
In October 1745, Ewald Georg von Kleist of Pomerania, Germany, found that charge could be stored by connecting a high-voltage electrostatic generator by a wire to a volume of water in a hand-held glass jar. Von Kleist's hand and the water acted as conductors, and the jar as a dielectric (although details of the mechanism were incorrectly identified at the time). Von Kleist found that touching the wire resulted in a powerful spark, much more painful than that obtained from an electrostatic machine. The following year, the Dutch physicist Pieter van Musschenbroek invented a similar capacitor, which was named the Leyden jar, after the University of Leiden where he worked. He also was impressed by the power of the shock he received, writing, "I would not take a second shock for the kingdom of France."
Who was the first person to connect several Leyden jars in parallel?
5726e2c1dd62a815002e93e8
Daniel Gralath
0
False
Where did Benjamin Franklin believe the charge was stored in Leyden jars?
5726e2c1dd62a815002e93e9
stored on the glass
216
False
Who coined the term "battery"?
5726e2c1dd62a815002e93ea
Benjamin Franklin
123
False
How many nanofarads did the earliest unit of capacitance equate to?
5726e2c1dd62a815002e93eb
1.11 nanofarads
698
False
Why was a gap left at the mouth of Leyden jars?
5726e2c1dd62a815002e93ec
to prevent arcing between the foils
578
False
Daniel Gralath
0
Who was the second person to connect several Leyden jars in parallel?
5acf57ff77cf76001a684bc8
True
stored on the glass
216
Where did Benjamin Franklin believe the charge was released in Leyden jars?
5acf57ff77cf76001a684bc9
True
Benjamin Franklin
123
Who coined the term "electrochemical"?
5acf57ff77cf76001a684bca
True
1.11 nanofarads
698
How many nanofarads did the earliest unit of capacitance subtract?
5acf57ff77cf76001a684bcb
True
to prevent arcing between the foils
578
Why was the mouth of Leyden jars closed?
5acf57ff77cf76001a684bcc
True
Daniel Gralath was the first to combine several jars in parallel into a "battery" to increase the charge storage capacity. Benjamin Franklin investigated the Leyden jar and came to the conclusion that the charge was stored on the glass, not in the water as others had assumed. He also adopted the term "battery", (denoting the increasing of power with a row of similar units as in a battery of cannon), subsequently applied to clusters of electrochemical cells. Leyden jars were later made by coating the inside and outside of jars with metal foil, leaving a space at the mouth to prevent arcing between the foils.[citation needed] The earliest unit of capacitance was the jar, equivalent to about 1.11 nanofarads.
Besides porcelain, paper and mica, what other non conductive material was used as an insulator?
5726e48b708984140094d4ff
glass
78
False
For what use were non conductive materials used in the first capacitors?
5726e48b708984140094d500
as the dielectric
214
False
What was layered between strips of metal in order to create paper capacitors?
5726e48b708984140094d501
strip of impregnated paper
297
False
When were paper capacitors first manufactured?
5726e48b708984140094d502
in 1876
456
False
What other use did paper capacitors serve in the telecommunications industry?
5726e48b708984140094d503
as decoupling capacitors
512
False
glass
78
Besides porcelain, paper and mica, what other conductive material was used as an insulator?
5acf588577cf76001a684bd2
True
the dielectric
217
For what use were conductive materials used in the first capacitors?
5acf588577cf76001a684bd3
True
strip of impregnated paper
297
What was layered between strips of plastic in order to create paper capacitors?
5acf588577cf76001a684bd4
True
their manufacture started
430
What happened in 1877?
5acf588577cf76001a684bd5
True
decoupling capacitors
515
What other use did metal capacitors serve in the telecommunications industry?
5acf588577cf76001a684bd6
True
Since the beginning of the study of electricity non conductive materials like glass, porcelain, paper and mica have been used as insulators. These materials some decades later were also well-suited for further use as the dielectric for the first capacitors. Paper capacitors made by sandwiching a strip of impregnated paper between strips of metal, and rolling the result into a cylinder were commonly used in the late 19century; their manufacture started in 1876, and they were used from the early 20th century as decoupling capacitors in telecommunications (telephony).
Who invented the first electrolytic capacitor?
5726e5c9f1498d1400e8ef3a
Charles Pollak
0
False
In what sort of electrolyte does the oxide layer on an aluminum anode remain stable?
5726e5c9f1498d1400e8ef3b
a neutral or alkaline electrolyte
158
False
In what year was the patent filed for an electric liquid capacitor?
5726e5c9f1498d1400e8ef3c
In 1896
231
False
What sort of capacitors were created by Bell Labs in the 1950's?
5726e5c9f1498d1400e8ef3d
Solid electrolyte tantalum capacitors
318
False
Why did Bell labs create their new type of capacitor?
5726e5c9f1498d1400e8ef3e
to complement their newly invented transistor
476
False
Charles Pollak
0
Who invented the second electrolytic capacitor?
5acf58ec77cf76001a684be6
True
neutral or alkaline electrolyte
160
In what sort of electrolyte does the oxide layer on an aluminum anode remain unstable?
5acf58ec77cf76001a684be7
True
patent for an "Electric liquid capacitor with aluminum electrodes."
250
What happened in 1899?
5acf58ec77cf76001a684be8
True
Solid electrolyte tantalum capacitors
318
What sort of capacitors were created by Bell Labs in the 1940's?
5acf58ec77cf76001a684be9
True
to complement their newly invented transistor
476
Why did Mell labs create their new type of capacitor?
5acf58ec77cf76001a684bea
True
Charles Pollak (born Karol Pollak), the inventor of the first electrolytic capacitors, found out that the oxide layer on an aluminum anode remained stable in a neutral or alkaline electrolyte, even when the power was switched off. In 1896 he filed a patent for an "Electric liquid capacitor with aluminum electrodes." Solid electrolyte tantalum capacitors were invented by Bell Laboratories in the early 1950s as a miniaturized and more reliable low-voltage support capacitor to complement their newly invented transistor.
What are electric double-layer capacitors called today?
5726e7cc5951b619008f81fd
Supercapacitors
60
False
When were low voltage electrolytic capacitors with porous carbon electrodes invented?
5726e7cc5951b619008f81fe
In 1957
92
False
Who invented low voltage electrolytic capacitors with porous carbon electrodes?
5726e7cc5951b619008f81ff
H. Becker
100
False
In what part of the capacitor did Becker believe the charge was being stored?
5726e7cc5951b619008f8200
in the carbon pores
241
False
In what component of electrolytic capacitors did Becker believe was similar to the porous carbon electrodes?
5726e7cc5951b619008f8201
the pores of the etched foils
289
False
Supercapacitors
60
What are electric triple-layer capacitors called today?
5acf594b77cf76001a684bf0
True
In 1957
92
When were high voltage electrolytic capacitors with porous carbon electrodes invented?
5acf594b77cf76001a684bf1
True
H. Becker
100
Who invented high voltage electrolytic capacitors with porous carbon electrodes?
5acf594b77cf76001a684bf2
True
carbon pores
248
In what part of the capacitor did Becker believe the charge was not being stored?
5acf594b77cf76001a684bf3
True
the pores of the etched foils
289
In what component of electrolytic capacitors did Becker believe was different from the porous carbon electrodes?
5acf594b77cf76001a684bf4
True
Last but not least the electric double-layer capacitor (now Supercapacitors) were invented. In 1957 H. Becker developed a "Low voltage electrolytic capacitor with porous carbon electrodes". He believed that the energy was stored as a charge in the carbon pores used in his capacitor as in the pores of the etched foils of electrolytic capacitors. Because the double layer mechanism was not known by him at the time, he wrote in the patent: "It is not known exactly what is taking place in the component if it is used for energy storage, but it leads to an extremely high capacity.".
What type of area is between the two conductors in a capacitor?
5726e9badd62a815002e94e4
a non-conductive region
52
False
What is the name given to the area between two conductors in a capacitor?
5726e9badd62a815002e94e5
the dielectric
113
False
What net electric charge are capacitors assumed to have?
5726e9badd62a815002e94e6
no net electric charge
400
False
What type of charges do conductors hold on their facing surfaces?
5726e9badd62a815002e94e7
equal and opposite charges
499
False
What region within a capacitor develops an electric field?
5726e9badd62a815002e94e8
the dielectric
556
False
non-conductive region
81
What type of area is between the three conductors in a capacitor?
5acf59a177cf76001a684bfa
True
dielectric
207
What is the name given to the area between three conductors in a capacitor?
5acf59a177cf76001a684bfb
True
no net electric charge
400
What net electric charge are capacitors assumed to never have?
5acf59a177cf76001a684bfc
True
equal and opposite charges
499
What type of charges do conductors release on their facing surfaces?
5acf59a177cf76001a684bfd
True
dielectric
207
What region outside of a capacitor develops an electric field?
5acf59a177cf76001a684bfe
True
A capacitor consists of two conductors separated by a non-conductive region. The non-conductive region is called the dielectric. In simpler terms, the dielectric is just an electrical insulator. Examples of dielectric media are glass, air, paper, vacuum, and even a semiconductor depletion region chemically identical to the conductors. A capacitor is assumed to be self-contained and isolated, with no net electric charge and no influence from any external electric field. The conductors thus hold equal and opposite charges on their facing surfaces, and the dielectric develops an electric field. In SI units, a capacitance of one farad means that one coulomb of charge on each conductor causes a voltage of one volt across the device.
What is the definition of the current I(t) through any component in an electric circuit?
5726fca8f1498d1400e8f1c2
the rate of flow of a charge Q(t) passing through it
76
False
For each electron that departs the positive plate, how many electrons build up on the negative plate?
5726fca8f1498d1400e8f1c3
one electron accumulates on the negative plate
224
False
To what is the charge on the electrodes of a capacitor equal to?
5726fca8f1498d1400e8f1c4
the integral of the current
521
False
To what is the charge on the electrodes of a capacitor proportional to?
5726fca8f1498d1400e8f1c5
proportional to the voltage
560
False
When calculating the integral to determine the charge on the electrodes of a capacitor, what does the constant of integration that must be added represent?
5726fca8f1498d1400e8f1c6
the initial voltage V(t0)
685
False
rate of flow of a charge Q(t) passing through it,
80
What is the definition of the current P(t) through any component in an electric circuit?
5acf5a1477cf76001a684c04
True
one electron accumulates on the negative plate
224
For each electron that departs the negative plate, how many electrons build up on the negative plate?
5acf5a1477cf76001a684c05
True
integral of the current
525
To what is the charge on the electrodes of a capacitor not equal to?
5acf5a1477cf76001a684c06
True
the voltage
576
To what is the charge on the electrodes of a capacitor disproportional to?
5acf5a1477cf76001a684c07
True
initial voltage V(t0)
689
what does the constant of integration that must never be added represent?
5acf5a1477cf76001a684c08
True
The current I(t) through any component in an electric circuit is defined as the rate of flow of a charge Q(t) passing through it, but actual charges—electrons—cannot pass through the dielectric layer of a capacitor. Rather, one electron accumulates on the negative plate for each one that leaves the positive plate, resulting in an electron depletion and consequent positive charge on one electrode that is equal and opposite to the accumulated negative charge on the other. Thus the charge on the electrodes is equal to the integral of the current as well as proportional to the voltage, as discussed above. As with any antiderivative, a constant of integration is added to represent the initial voltage V(t0). This is the integral form of the capacitor equation:
In an ideal model of a capacitor, what is the value that describes the permittivity of the dielectric?
5726fe74708984140094d7f7
permittivity ε
108
False
What equation describes the charge density for an ideal model of a capacitor?
5726fe74708984140094d7f8
±ρ = ±Q/A
296
False
In an ideal model of a capacitor, what must be assumed about the size of the plates?
5726fe74708984140094d7f9
much greater than their separation d
384
False
Close to the middle of the capacitor, what equation describes the magnitude of the electric field?
5726fe74708984140094d7fa
E = ρ/ε
506
False
What does the line integral of the electric field between the plates of a capacitor represent?
5726fe74708984140094d7fb
The voltage
515
False
permittivity ε
108
In an ideal model of a capacitor, what is the value that does not describe the permittivity of the dielectric?
5acf5b8177cf76001a684c22
True
±ρ = ±Q/A
296
What equation describes the charge density for an unideal model of a capacitor?
5acf5b8177cf76001a684c23
True
much greater than their separation d
384
In an ideal model of a capacitor, what must never be assumed about the size of the plates?
5acf5b8177cf76001a684c24
True
E = ρ/ε
506
Close to the outside of the capacitor, what equation describes the magnitude of the electric field?
5acf5b8177cf76001a684c25
True
The voltage
515
What does the line integral of the electric field between the plates of a capacitor fail to represent?
5acf5b8177cf76001a684c26
True
The simplest model capacitor consists of two thin parallel conductive plates separated by a dielectric with permittivity ε . This model may also be used to make qualitative predictions for other device geometries. The plates are considered to extend uniformly over an area A and a charge density ±ρ = ±Q/A exists on their surface. Assuming that the length and width of the plates are much greater than their separation d, the electric field near the centre of the device will be uniform with the magnitude E = ρ/ε. The voltage is defined as the line integral of the electric field between the plates
What is a function of the amount of dielectric, the strength of dielectric and its permittivity?
572700fe708984140094d839
The maximum energy
0
False
If the plate area and separation distance are altered while keeping the amount of dielectric the same, what effect is had on the maximum energy of the capacitor?
572700fe708984140094d83a
no change of the maximum amount of energy
197
False
In a realistic model of a capacitor, where else besides between the dielectric between the conductors might an electric field be found?
572700fe708984140094d83b
fringing fields outside the dielectric
519
False
When an electric field exists between the sides of the plates as well as in within the dielectric, what effect is had on the effective capacitance of the capacitor?
572700fe708984140094d83c
will increase the effective capacitance
620
False
When the ratios of plate length and width to separation distance are large, what size is the parasitic capacitance?
572700fe708984140094d83d
negligibly small
839
False
The maximum energy
0
What is a function of the amount of dielectric, the strength of dielectric and its permittivity?
5acf5c7f77cf76001a684c2c
True
the distance between plates remains much smaller than both the length and width of the plates
280
What happens when there is a change of the maximum amount of energy
5acf5c7f77cf76001a684c2d
True
fringing fields outside the dielectric
519
In a realistic model of a capacitor, where else besides between the dielectric between the conductors will an electric field never be found?
5acf5c7f77cf76001a684c2e
True
will increase the effective capacitance
620
When an electric field exists between the sides of the plates as well as in within the dielectric, what effect is had on the lack of effective capacitance of the capacitor?
5acf5c7f77cf76001a684c2f
True
negligibly small
839
When the ratios of plate length and width to separation distance are small, what size is the parasitic capacitance?
5acf5c7f77cf76001a684c30
True
The maximum energy is a function of dielectric volume, permittivity, and dielectric strength. Changing the plate area and the separation between the plates while maintaining the same volume causes no change of the maximum amount of energy that the capacitor can store, so long as the distance between plates remains much smaller than both the length and width of the plates. In addition, these equations assume that the electric field is entirely concentrated in the dielectric between the plates. In reality there are fringing fields outside the dielectric, for example between the sides of the capacitor plates, which will increase the effective capacitance of the capacitor. This is sometimes called parasitic capacitance. For some simple capacitor geometries this additional capacitance term can be calculated analytically. It becomes negligibly small when the ratios of plate width to separation and length to separation are large.
What characteristic can leakage current and parasitic effects be assumed to have in the equation for a realistic capacitor?
572702f4708984140094d879
can be assumed to be linear
151
False
What sort of components can be added to the equivalent circuit of a capacitor in order to deal with leakage current and parasitic effects?
572702f4708984140094d87a
virtual components
212
False
Upon dealing with leakage current and parasitic effects in a realistic model of a capacitor, what sort of methods can then be applied?
572702f4708984140094d87b
The usual methods of network analysis
275
False
What sort of analysis cannot be used in cases of voltage breakdown in modelling a capacitor?
572702f4708984140094d87c
normal (i.e., linear) network analysis cannot be used
411
False
What causes the assumption of constant capacitance to fail even if the effect is linear in nature?
572702f4708984140094d87d
temperature dependence
653
False
can be assumed to be linear
151
What characteristic do leakage current and parasitic effects never be assumed to have in the equation for a realistic capacitor?
5acf5ce077cf76001a684c40
True
virtual components
212
What sort of components will never be added to the equivalent circuit of a capacitor in order to deal with leakage current and parasitic effects?
5acf5ce077cf76001a684c41
True
The usual methods of network analysis
275
Upon dealing with leakage current and parasitic effects in a realistic model of a capacitor, what sort of methods will never be applied?
5acf5ce077cf76001a684c42
True
normal (i.e., linear) network analysis
411
What sort of analysis will always be used in cases of voltage breakdown in modelling a capacitor?
5acf5ce077cf76001a684c43
True
temperature dependence
653
What causes the assumption of constant capacitance to succeed even if the effect is linear in nature?
5acf5ce077cf76001a684c44
True
Capacitors deviate from the ideal capacitor equation in a number of ways. Some of these, such as leakage current and parasitic effects are linear, or can be assumed to be linear, and can be dealt with by adding virtual components to the equivalent circuit of the capacitor. The usual methods of network analysis can then be applied. In other cases, such as with breakdown voltage, the effect is non-linear and normal (i.e., linear) network analysis cannot be used, the effect must be dealt with separately. There is yet another group, which may be linear but invalidate the assumption in the analysis that capacitance is a constant. Such an example is temperature dependence. Finally, combined parasitic effects such as inherent inductance, resistance, or dielectric losses can exhibit non-uniform behavior at variable frequencies of operation.
What order is the breakdown field strength for air dielectric capacitors of?
572704df5951b619008f84ad
of the order 2 to 5 MV/m
62
False
Of what order is the breakdown field strength for mica dielectric capacitors?
572704df5951b619008f84ae
100 to 300 MV/m
114
False
In what way is the dielectric used in order to cause the absolute breakdown voltage of capacitors to be limited?
572704df5951b619008f84af
The dielectric is used in very thin layers
225
False
What is one factor that critically affects the breakdown voltage of the capacitor?
572704df5951b619008f84b0
the geometry of the capacitor conductive parts
646
False
What is the difference in the physical attributes of the dielectric used in high voltage capacitors compared to low voltage capacitors?
572704df5951b619008f84b1
the dielectric must be thicker
459
False
the order 2 to 5 MV/m
65
What order is the breakdown field weakness for air dielectric capacitors of?
5acf5def77cf76001a684c54
True
100 to 300 MV/m
114
Of what order is the breakdown field weakness for mica dielectric capacitors?
5acf5def77cf76001a684c55
True
very thin layers
251
In what way is the dielectric never used in order to cause the absolute breakdown voltage of capacitors to be limited?
5acf5def77cf76001a684c56
True
the geometry of the capacitor conductive parts
646
What is one factor that does not affect the breakdown voltage of the capacitor?
5acf5def77cf76001a684c57
True
must be thicker
474
What is the difference in the physical attributes of the dielectric used in high voltage capacitors compared to even higher voltage capacitors?
5acf5def77cf76001a684c58
True
For air dielectric capacitors the breakdown field strength is of the order 2 to 5 MV/m; for mica the breakdown is 100 to 300 MV/m; for oil, 15 to 25 MV/m; it can be much less when other materials are used for the dielectric. The dielectric is used in very thin layers and so absolute breakdown voltage of capacitors is limited. Typical ratings for capacitors used for general electronics applications range from a few volts to 1 kV. As the voltage increases, the dielectric must be thicker, making high-voltage capacitors larger per capacitance than those rated for lower voltages. The breakdown voltage is critically affected by factors such as the geometry of the capacitor conductive parts; sharp edges or points increase the electric field strength at that point and can lead to a local breakdown. Once this starts to happen, the breakdown quickly tracks through the dielectric until it reaches the opposite plate, leaving carbon behind and causing a short (or relatively low resistance) circuit. The results can be explosive as the short in the capacitor draws current from the surrounding circuitry and dissipates the energy.
What name is given to the AC component of an applied source having either constant or alternating frequency?
57270731dd62a815002e97fa
Ripple current
0
False
What is one cause of dielectric losses in a capacitor?
57270731dd62a815002e97fb
changing field strength
244
False
What is another cause of dielectric losses in a capacitor?
57270731dd62a815002e97fc
current flow across the slightly resistive supply lines or the electrolyte
286
False
What is the name given to the amount of internal series resistance needed to add to an ideal capacitor model in order to represent the heat generated by dielectric losses?
57270731dd62a815002e97fd
equivalent series resistance (ESR)
383
False
What is one type of capacitor that has a specified rating value for maximum ripple current?
57270731dd62a815002e97fe
aluminum electrolytic capacitors
563
False
Ripple current
0
What name is given to the AC component of an applied source having no constant or alternating frequency?
5acf5e4377cf76001a684c68
True
changing field strength
244
What is one cause of dielectric gains in a capacitor?
5acf5e4377cf76001a684c69
True
current flow across the slightly resistive supply lines
286
What is another cause of dielectric gains in a capacitor?
5acf5e4377cf76001a684c6a
True
equivalent series resistance
383
What does ESS stand for?
5acf5e4377cf76001a684c6b
True
aluminum electrolytic capacitors
563
What is one type of capacitor that has no specified rating value for maximum ripple current?
5acf5e4377cf76001a684c6c
True
Ripple current is the AC component of an applied source (often a switched-mode power supply) whose frequency may be constant or varying. Ripple current causes heat to be generated within the capacitor due to the dielectric losses caused by the changing field strength together with the current flow across the slightly resistive supply lines or the electrolyte in the capacitor. The equivalent series resistance (ESR) is the amount of internal series resistance one would add to a perfect capacitor to model this. Some types of capacitors, primarily tantalum and aluminum electrolytic capacitors, as well as some film capacitors have a specified rating value for maximum ripple current.
What value of some capacitors decreases with age?
57270870dd62a815002e9822
The capacitance
0
False
What causes the decrease of capacitance in ceramic capacitors as they age?
57270870dd62a815002e9823
degradation of the dielectric
112
False
What is one of the most important aging factors in capacitors?
57270870dd62a815002e9824
The type of dielectric
143
False
What is another important factor which governs how a capacitor ages?
57270870dd62a815002e9825
ambient operating and storage temperatures
167
False
At what point can the aging effect of a capacitor be reversed if the component is heated beyond?
57270870dd62a815002e9826
the Curie point
365
False
The capacitance
0
What value of some capacitors increases with age?
5acf5e9177cf76001a684c86
True
degradation of the dielectric
112
What causes the increase of capacitance in ceramic capacitors as they age?
5acf5e9177cf76001a684c87
True
The type of dielectric
143
What is one of the least important aging factors in capacitors?
5acf5e9177cf76001a684c88
True
ambient operating and storage temperatures
167
What is the least important factor which governs how a capacitor ages?
5acf5e9177cf76001a684c89
True
the Curie point
365
At what point can the aging effect of a capacitor never be reversed if the component is heated beyond?
5acf5e9177cf76001a684c8a
True
The capacitance of certain capacitors decreases as the component ages. In ceramic capacitors, this is caused by degradation of the dielectric. The type of dielectric, ambient operating and storage temperatures are the most significant aging factors, while the operating voltage has a smaller effect. The aging process may be reversed by heating the component above the Curie point. Aging is fastest near the beginning of life of the component, and the device stabilizes over time. Electrolytic capacitors age as the electrolyte evaporates. In contrast with ceramic capacitors, this occurs towards the end of life of the component.
What is the effect called when capacitors absorb sound waves?
57270a05708984140094d8e3
microphonic effect
125
False
What value of a capacitor is varied when vibration moves the conducting plates?
57270a05708984140094d8e4
the capacitance
181
False
What sort of current is induced when the capacitance of a capacitor is altered?
57270a05708984140094d8e5
AC current
223
False
In what type of applications is piezeoelectricity especially problematic?
57270a05708984140094d8e6
audio applications
340
False
What is it called when a changing electric field existing between the conductive plates of a capacitor physically moves them?
57270a05708984140094d8e7
the reverse microphonic effect
417
False
microphonic effect
125
What is the effect called when capacitors don't absorb sound waves?
5acf659277cf76001a684d58
True
capacitance
185
What value of a capacitor is not varied when vibration moves the conducting plates?
5acf659277cf76001a684d59
True
AC current
223
What sort of current is induced when the capacitance of a capacitor is unaltered?
5acf659277cf76001a684d5a
True
audio applications
340
In what type of applications is piezeoelectricity never problematic?
5acf659277cf76001a684d5b
True
reverse microphonic effect
421
What is it called when a changing electric field existing between the conductive plates of a capacitor keeps them still?
5acf659277cf76001a684d5c
True
Capacitors, especially ceramic capacitors, and older designs such as paper capacitors, can absorb sound waves resulting in a microphonic effect. Vibration moves the plates, causing the capacitance to vary, in turn inducing AC current. Some dielectrics also generate piezoelectricity. The resulting interference is especially problematic in audio applications, potentially causing feedback or unintended recording. In the reverse microphonic effect, the varying electric field between the capacitor plates exerts a physical force, moving them as a speaker. This can generate audible sound, but drains energy and stresses the dielectric and the electrolyte, if any.
What is one type of circuit in which voltage and current reversal are affected by damping?
57270b515951b619008f852b
DC circuits
3
False
What is another type of circuit in which voltage and current reversal are affected by damping?
57270b515951b619008f852c
pulsed circuits
19
False
Under what condition does voltage reversal occur in RLC circuits?
57270b515951b619008f852d
under-damped
165
False
What is formed between the inductance and the capacitance when the current and the voltage switch direction?
57270b515951b619008f852e
a harmonic oscillator
230
False
When a system is over-damped, what does it typically not experience?
57270b515951b619008f852f
a voltage reversal
587
False
In DC circuits and pulsed circuits, current and voltage reversal are affected by the damping of the system. Voltage reversal is encountered in RLC circuits that are under-damped. The current and voltage reverse direction, forming a harmonic oscillator between the inductance and capacitance. The current and voltage will tend to oscillate and may reverse direction several times, with each peak being lower than the previous, until the system reaches an equilibrium. This is often referred to as ringing. In comparison, critically damped or over-damped systems usually do not experience a voltage reversal. Reversal is also encountered in AC circuits, where the peak current will be equal in each direction.
What percentage of voltage reversal does an AC circuit experience?
57270c73f1498d1400e8f29c
100% voltage reversal
155
False
What does voltage reversal create in the dielectric of a capacitor?
57270c73f1498d1400e8f29d
excess electric fields
258
False
What percentage of voltage reversal will an under damped DC circuit experience?
57270c73f1498d1400e8f29e
less than 100%
225
False
What does excess electric field present in the dielectric lead to?
57270c73f1498d1400e8f29f
heating of both the dielectric and the conductors
314
False
When designing a capacitor, what is an important rating to consider?
57270c73f1498d1400e8f2a0
Reversal ratings
432
False
100% voltage reversal
155
What percentage of voltage reversal does an AC circuit never experience?
5acf66ba77cf76001a684d6c
True
excess electric fields
258
What does voltage reversal never create in the dielectric of a capacitor?
5acf66ba77cf76001a684d6d
True
less than 100%
225
What percentage of voltage reversal will an over damped DC circuit experience?
5acf66ba77cf76001a684d6e
True
Reversal creates
241
When designing a capacitor, what is an unimportant rating to consider?
5acf66ba77cf76001a684d6f
True
heating of both the dielectric and the conductors
314
What does excess electric field not present in the dielectric lead to?
5acf66ba77cf76001a684d70
True
For maximum life, capacitors usually need to be able to handle the maximum amount of reversal that a system will experience. An AC circuit will experience 100% voltage reversal, while under-damped DC circuits will experience less than 100%. Reversal creates excess electric fields in the dielectric, causes excess heating of both the dielectric and the conductors, and can dramatically shorten the life expectancy of the capacitor. Reversal ratings will often affect the design considerations for the capacitor, from the choice of dielectric materials and voltage ratings to the types of internal connections used.
After discharging and disconnecting a capacitor, what causes it to develop a voltage?
57270e2b708984140094d90b
hysteresis in the dielectric
215
False
What does the process of dielectric absorption in a capacitor depend on?
57270e2b708984140094d90c
time-dependent
477
False
What level of dielectric absorption would a tantalum electrolytic capacitor display?
57270e2b708984140094d90d
very high absorption
634
False
What level of dielectric absorption would a Teflon capacitor exhibit?
57270e2b708984140094d90e
very small levels of absorption
690
False
What amount of energy must a capacitor contain in order to be generally considered dangerous?
57270e2b708984140094d90f
over 10 joules of energy
988
False
hysteresis in the dielectric
215
After discharging and disconnecting a capacitor, what causes it to underdevelop a voltage?
5acf670e77cf76001a684d76
True
time-dependent
477
What does the process of dielectric absorption in a capacitor not depend on?
5acf670e77cf76001a684d77
True
very high absorption
634
What level of dielectric absorption would a tantalum electrolytic capacitor never display?
5acf670e77cf76001a684d78
True
very small levels of absorption
690
What level of dielectric absorption would a Teflon capacitor never exhibit?
5acf670e77cf76001a684d79
True
10 joules of energy
993
What amount of energy must a capacitor contain in order to never be considered dangerous?
5acf670e77cf76001a684d7a
True
Capacitors made with any type of dielectric material will show some level of "dielectric absorption" or "soakage". On discharging a capacitor and disconnecting it, after a short time it may develop a voltage due to hysteresis in the dielectric. This effect can be objectionable in applications such as precision sample and hold circuits or timing circuits. The level of absorption depends on many factors, from design considerations to charging time, since the absorption is a time-dependent process. However, the primary factor is the type of dielectric material. Capacitors such as tantalum electrolytic or polysulfone film exhibit very high absorption, while polystyrene or Teflon allow very small levels of absorption. In some capacitors where dangerous voltages and energies exist, such as in flashtubes, television sets, and defibrillators, the dielectric absorption can recharge the capacitor to hazardous voltages after it has been shorted or discharged. Any capacitor containing over 10 joules of energy is generally considered hazardous, while 50 joules or higher is potentially lethal. A capacitor may regain anywhere from 0.01 to 20% of its original charge over a period of several minutes, allowing a seemingly safe capacitor to become surprisingly dangerous.
With what value is a resistor in parallel with a capacitor equal to?
57270fc9dd62a815002e988a
Leakage
0
False
What can cause excessive leakage in a capacitor?
57270fc9dd62a815002e988b
Constant exposure to heat
68
False
What sort of capacitors are used to carry a varying signal from the conductive plate of one tube to the grid circuit of the next stage?
57270fc9dd62a815002e988c
interstage coupling capacitors
292
False
What type of capacitor can cause signal distortion in the downstream tube?
57270fc9dd62a815002e988d
A leaky capacitor
426
False
If the grid circuit voltage is increased beyond its regular bias setting, what can happen to the conductive plates in power amplifiers?
57270fc9dd62a815002e988e
cause the plates to glow red
622
False
Leakage
0
With what value is a resistor in parallel with a capacitor not equal to?
5acf675677cf76001a684d80
True
Constant exposure to heat
68
What will never cause excessive leakage in a capacitor?
5acf675677cf76001a684d81
True
interstage coupling capacitors
292
What sort of capacitors are never used to carry a varying signal from the conductive plate of one tube to the grid circuit of the next stage?
5acf675677cf76001a684d82
True
A leaky capacitor
426
What type of capacitor will never cause signal distortion in the downstream tube?
5acf675677cf76001a684d83
True
cause the plates to glow red
622
If the grid circuit voltage is increased beyond its regular bias setting, what doesn't happen to the conductive plates in power amplifiers?
5acf675677cf76001a684d84
True
Leakage is equivalent to a resistor in parallel with the capacitor. Constant exposure to heat can cause dielectric breakdown and excessive leakage, a problem often seen in older vacuum tube circuits, particularly where oiled paper and foil capacitors were used. In many vacuum tube circuits, interstage coupling capacitors are used to conduct a varying signal from the plate of one tube to the grid circuit of the next stage. A leaky capacitor can cause the grid circuit voltage to be raised from its normal bias setting, causing excessive current or signal distortion in the downstream tube. In power amplifiers this can cause the plates to glow red, or current limiting resistors to overheat, even fail. Similar considerations apply to component fabricated solid-state (transistor) amplifiers, but owing to lower heat production and the use of modern polyester dielectric barriers this once-common problem has become relatively rare.
What do many capacitors contain that raises the capacitance?
572710e05951b619008f8577
a dielectric spacer
32
False
What sort of dielectric is used in low capacitance devices?
572710e05951b619008f8578
a vacuum
185
False
What sort of capacitors have traditionally been used in radio tuning circuits?
572710e05951b619008f8579
Variable capacitors
278
False
How did the capacitor traditionally used in radio tuning circuits change over time?
572710e05951b619008f857a
use polymer foil dielectric between the moving and stationary plates
398
False
What did the later designs of capacitors used in radio tuning circuits no longer have?
572710e05951b619008f857b
no significant air space
473
False
dielectric spacer
34
What do many capacitors contain that lower the capacitance?
5acf67a277cf76001a684d8a
True
a vacuum
185
What sort of dielectric is never used in low capacitance devices?
5acf67a277cf76001a684d8b
True
Variable capacitors
278
What sort of capacitors have not traditionally been used in radio tuning circuits?
5acf67a277cf76001a684d8c
True
use polymer foil dielectric between the moving and stationary plates
398
How did the capacitor traditionally used in radio tuning circuits stay the same over time?
5acf67a277cf76001a684d8d
True
no significant air space
473
What did the later designs of capacitors used in radio tuning circuits still have?
5acf67a277cf76001a684d8e
True
Most types of capacitor include a dielectric spacer, which increases their capacitance. These dielectrics are most often insulators. However, low capacitance devices are available with a vacuum between their plates, which allows extremely high voltage operation and low losses. Variable capacitors with their plates open to the atmosphere were commonly used in radio tuning circuits. Later designs use polymer foil dielectric between the moving and stationary plates, with no significant air space between them.
What benefit is offered by solid state paper capacitors?
572711cff1498d1400e8f30a
relatively high voltage performance
157
False
What type of capacitor has mostly replaced solid state paper capacitors?
572711cff1498d1400e8f30b
plastic film capacitors
275
False
What sort of circuit are plastic capacitors especially useful for?
572711cff1498d1400e8f30c
timer circuits
383
False
What is one type of reliable capacitor that is resistant to temperature and voltage changes?
572711cff1498d1400e8f30d
Glass
821
False
What is another type of reliable capacitor that is resistant to temperature and voltage changes?
572711cff1498d1400e8f30e
mica capacitors
831
False
relatively high voltage performance
157
What benefit is never offered by solid state paper capacitors?
5acf67fb77cf76001a684d94
True
plastic film capacitors
275
What type of capacitor has not replaced solid state paper capacitors?
5acf67fb77cf76001a684d95
True
timer circuits
383
What sort of circuit are plastic capacitors not useful for?
5acf67fb77cf76001a684d96
True
Glass
821
What is one type of reliable capacitor that is non-resistant to temperature and voltage changes?
5acf67fb77cf76001a684d97
True
mica capacitors
831
What is another type of reliable capacitor that is not resistant to temperature and voltage changes?
5acf67fb77cf76001a684d98
True
Several solid dielectrics are available, including paper, plastic, glass, mica and ceramic materials. Paper was used extensively in older devices and offers relatively high voltage performance. However, it is susceptible to water absorption, and has been largely replaced by plastic film capacitors. Plastics offer better stability and ageing performance, which makes them useful in timer circuits, although they may be limited to low operating temperatures and frequencies. Ceramic capacitors are generally small, cheap and useful for high frequency applications, although their capacitance varies strongly with voltage and they age poorly. They are broadly categorized as class 1 dielectrics, which have predictable variation of capacitance with temperature or class 2 dielectrics, which can operate at higher voltage. Glass and mica capacitors are extremely reliable, stable and tolerant to high temperatures and voltages, but are too expensive for most mainstream applications. Electrolytic capacitors and supercapacitors are used to store small and larger amounts of energy, respectively, ceramic capacitors are often used in resonators, and parasitic capacitance occurs in circuits wherever the simple conductor-insulator-conductor structure is formed unintentionally by the configuration of the circuit layout.
What is one type of metal which the conducting plates in electrolytic capacitors are commonly made of?
5727133cdd62a815002e98bc
aluminum
31
False
What type of dielectric layer is used in electrolytic capacitors?
5727133cdd62a815002e98bd
an oxide dielectric layer
63
False
What happens to the conductivity of the electrolyte at low temperatures?
5727133cdd62a815002e98be
drops at low temperatures
502
False
How can electrolytic capacitors be safely used after having been stored unused for a long time?
5727133cdd62a815002e98bf
by gradually applying the operating voltage
1045
False
Why might the method gradually applying the operating voltage not be suitable to protect electrolytic capacitors in modern devices?
5727133cdd62a815002e98c0
these produce full output voltage even with reduced input
1534
False
aluminum
31
What is one type of metal which the conducting plates in electrolytic capacitors are never made of?
5acf688377cf76001a684d9e
True
oxide dielectric layer
66
What type of dielectric layer is never used in electrolytic capacitors?
5acf688377cf76001a684d9f
True
drops
502
What happens to the conductivity of the electrolyte at high temperatures?
5acf688377cf76001a684da0
True
gradually applying the operating voltage
1048
How can electrolytic capacitors be safely used after having been used for a long time?
5acf688377cf76001a684da1
True
these produce full output voltage even with reduced input
1534
Why might the method gradually applying the operating voltage not be suitable to protect electrolytic capacitors in ancient devices?
5acf688377cf76001a684da2
True
Electrolytic capacitors use an aluminum or tantalum plate with an oxide dielectric layer. The second electrode is a liquid electrolyte, connected to the circuit by another foil plate. Electrolytic capacitors offer very high capacitance but suffer from poor tolerances, high instability, gradual loss of capacitance especially when subjected to heat, and high leakage current. Poor quality capacitors may leak electrolyte, which is harmful to printed circuit boards. The conductivity of the electrolyte drops at low temperatures, which increases equivalent series resistance. While widely used for power-supply conditioning, poor high-frequency characteristics make them unsuitable for many applications. Electrolytic capacitors will self-degrade if unused for a period (around a year), and when full power is applied may short circuit, permanently damaging the capacitor and usually blowing a fuse or causing failure of rectifier diodes (for instance, in older equipment, arcing in rectifier tubes). They can be restored before use (and damage) by gradually applying the operating voltage, often done on antique vacuum tube equipment over a period of 30 minutes by using a variable transformer to supply AC power. Unfortunately, the use of this technique may be less satisfactory for some solid state equipment, which may be damaged by operation below its normal power range, requiring that the power supply first be isolated from the consuming circuits. Such remedies may not be applicable to modern high-frequency power supplies as these produce full output voltage even with reduced input.
What is the main feature of a supercapacitor?
57271452f1498d1400e8f34c
Supercapacitors store large amounts of energy
76
False
What is one type of material with which a supercapacitor may be constructed?
57271452f1498d1400e8f34d
carbon nanotubes
165
False
As of 2010, what is the highest capacitance a supercapacitor has achieved?
57271452f1498d1400e8f34e
up to 5 kF
255
False
What type of capacitor is commonly used in electric motor circuits?
57271452f1498d1400e8f34f
Alternating current capacitors
358
False
How many times the maximum AC voltage are AC capacitors designed to withstand?
57271452f1498d1400e8f350
at least five times the maximum AC voltage
761
False
store large amounts of energy
92
What is the main feature of a non-supercapacitor?
5acf68cf77cf76001a684da8
True
carbon nanotubes
165
What is one type of material with which a supercapacitor may not be constructed?
5acf68cf77cf76001a684da9
True
5 kF
261
As of 2010, what is the lowest capacitance a supercapacitor has achieved?
5acf68cf77cf76001a684daa
True
Alternating current capacitors
358
What type of capacitor is never used in electric motor circuits?
5acf68cf77cf76001a684dab
True
at least five times the maximum AC
761
How many times the minimum AC voltage are AC capacitors designed to withstand?
5acf68cf77cf76001a684dac
True
Several other types of capacitor are available for specialist applications. Supercapacitors store large amounts of energy. Supercapacitors made from carbon aerogel, carbon nanotubes, or highly porous electrode materials, offer extremely high capacitance (up to 5 kF as of 2010[update]) and can be used in some applications instead of rechargeable batteries. Alternating current capacitors are specifically designed to work on line (mains) voltage AC power circuits. They are commonly used in electric motor circuits and are often designed to handle large currents, so they tend to be physically large. They are usually ruggedly packaged, often in metal cases that can be easily grounded/earthed. They also are designed with direct current breakdown voltages of at least five times the maximum AC voltage.
Under what condition might the polarization of the dielectric be unable to follow the voltage?
572715c2708984140094d989
driven with a time-varying voltage that changes rapidly
18
False
What type of dipoles which add to the dielectric constant cannot move instantly if a rapidly changing time varying voltage is driving the capacitor?
572715c2708984140094d98a
the internal microscopic dipoles
209
False
What is it called when a dielectric constant changes with frequency?
572715c2708984140094d98b
dielectric dispersion
505
False
What regulates dielectric dispersion?
572715c2708984140094d98c
dielectric relaxation processes
547
False
What is an example of a dielectric relaxation process?
572715c2708984140094d98d
Debye relaxation
588
False
driven with a time-varying voltage that changes rapidly enough
18
Under what condition might the polarization of the dielectric be able to follow the voltage?
5acf695777cf76001a684db2
True
internal microscopic dipoles
213
What type of dipoles which add to the dielectric constant cannot move instantly if a slowly changing time varying voltage is driving the capacitor?
5acf695777cf76001a684db3
True
dielectric dispersion
505
What is it called when a dielectric constant stays the same with frequency?
5acf695777cf76001a684db4
True
dielectric relaxation processes
547
What deregulates dielectric dispersion?
5acf695777cf76001a684db5
True
Debye relaxation
588
What is an example of an undielectric relaxation process?
5acf695777cf76001a684db6
True
If a capacitor is driven with a time-varying voltage that changes rapidly enough, at some frequency the polarization of the dielectric cannot follow the voltage. As an example of the origin of this mechanism, the internal microscopic dipoles contributing to the dielectric constant cannot move instantly, and so as frequency of an applied alternating voltage increases, the dipole response is limited and the dielectric constant diminishes. A changing dielectric constant with frequency is referred to as dielectric dispersion, and is governed by dielectric relaxation processes, such as Debye relaxation. Under transient conditions, the displacement field can be expressed as (see electric susceptibility):
How is the complex impedance with dielectric represented mathematically?
572717315951b619008f85bd
Z(ω)
82
False
How is the complex capacitance without dielectric represented mathematically?
572717315951b619008f85be
C0
221
False
Why is the value of C0 unattainable in reality?
572717315951b619008f85bf
even the quantum vacuum is predicted to exhibit nonideal behavior
384
False
Under what condition is the approximation C0 sufficiently accurate for calculation purposes?
572717315951b619008f85c0
in terrestrial vacuum
562
False
How is the complex capacitance mathematically represented with the dielectric present?
572717315951b619008f85c1
Ccmplx(ω)
141
False
Z(ω)
82
How is the non-complex impedance with dielectric represented mathematically?
5acf735477cf76001a684e46
True
C0
221
How is the complex capacitance with dielectric represented mathematically?
5acf735477cf76001a684e47
True
even the quantum vacuum is predicted to exhibit nonideal behavior
384
Why isn't the value of C0 unattainable in reality?
5acf735477cf76001a684e48
True
terrestrial vacuum
565
Under what condition is the approximation C0 sufficiently inaccurate for calculation purposes?
5acf735477cf76001a684e49
True
Ccmplx(ω)
141
How is the complex capacitance mathematically unrepresented with the dielectric present?
5acf735477cf76001a684e4a
True
where a single prime denotes the real part and a double prime the imaginary part, Z(ω) is the complex impedance with the dielectric present, Ccmplx(ω) is the so-called complex capacitance with the dielectric present, and C0 is the capacitance without the dielectric. (Measurement "without the dielectric" in principle means measurement in free space, an unattainable goal inasmuch as even the quantum vacuum is predicted to exhibit nonideal behavior, such as dichroism. For practical purposes, when measurement errors are taken into account, often a measurement in terrestrial vacuum, or simply a calculation of C0, is sufficiently accurate.)
What order of magnitude of capacitance is suitable for capacitors comprised of ceramic disks with metallic coatings?
57271883dd62a815002e98ec
microfarads and less
145
False
How are larger value capacitors often constructed?
57271883dd62a815002e98ed
multiple stacks of plates and disks
273
False
What do larger value capacitors often use as the dielectric medium?
57271883dd62a815002e98ee
impregnated paper or plastic – these are rolled up to save space
470
False
Why are the plates and dielectrics often staggered in larger value capacitors?
57271883dd62a815002e98ef
To reduce the series resistance and inductance
536
False
How are the conductive plates often made for larger value capacitors?
57271883dd62a815002e98f0
metal film layer deposited on the surface of a dielectric film
362
False
microfarads and less
145
What order of magnitude of capacitance is suitable for capacitors comprised of ceramic disks without metallic coatings?
5acf742d77cf76001a684e50
True
multiple stacks of plates and disks
273
How are smaller value capacitors often constructed?
5acf742d77cf76001a684e51
True
impregnated paper or plastic
470
What do smaller value capacitors often use as the dielectric medium?
5acf742d77cf76001a684e52
True
To reduce the series resistance and inductance for long plates
536
Why are the plates and dielectrics often staggered in smaller value capacitors?
5acf742d77cf76001a684e53
True
metal film layer deposited on the surface of a dielectric film
362
How are the conductive plates never made for larger value capacitors?
5acf742d77cf76001a684e54
True
The arrangement of plates and dielectric has many variations depending on the desired ratings of the capacitor. For small values of capacitance (microfarads and less), ceramic disks use metallic coatings, with wire leads bonded to the coating. Larger values can be made by multiple stacks of plates and disks. Larger value capacitors usually use a metal foil or metal film layer deposited on the surface of a dielectric film to make the plates, and a dielectric film of impregnated paper or plastic – these are rolled up to save space. To reduce the series resistance and inductance for long plates, the plates and dielectric are staggered so that connection is made at the common edge of the rolled-up plates, not at the ends of the foil or metalized film strips that comprise the plates.
What is one type of configuration in which a capacitor may have its connecting leads organized?
572719a45951b619008f85f7
axially
88
False
What is another type of configuration in which a capacitor may have its connecting leads arranged?
572719a45951b619008f85f8
radially
99
False
Which type of configuration is often manufactured with the leads parallel to the body of the capacitor?
572719a45951b619008f85f9
Radial
254
False
How are the leads of an axially configured capacitor arranged?
572719a45951b619008f85fa
on a common axis
142
False
How could radial leads be more correctly described?
572719a45951b619008f85fb
as tandem
304
False
axially
88
What is one type of configuration in which a capacitor not have its connecting leads organized?
5acf762a77cf76001a684e64
True
radially
99
What is another type of configuration in which a capacitor will never have its connecting leads arranged?
5acf762a77cf76001a684e65
True
Radial
254
Which type of configuration is never manufactured with the leads parallel to the body of the capacitor?
5acf762a77cf76001a684e66
True
on a common axis
142
How are the leads of an axially configured capacitor not arranged?
5acf762a77cf76001a684e67
True
tandem
307
How could radial leads be less correctly described?
5acf762a77cf76001a684e68
True
Capacitors may have their connecting leads arranged in many configurations, for example axially or radially. "Axial" means that the leads are on a common axis, typically the axis of the capacitor's cylindrical body – the leads extend from opposite ends. Radial leads might more accurately be referred to as tandem; they are rarely actually aligned along radii of the body's circle, so the term is inexact, although universal. The leads (until bent) are usually in planes parallel to that of the flat body of the capacitor, and extend in the same direction; they are often parallel as manufactured.
Since when have inexpensive ceramic disc capacitors existed?
57271a90dd62a815002e990c
the 1930s
61
False
Since when have surface mount packages for capacitors been commonly in use?
57271a90dd62a815002e990d
the 1980s
108
False
What do surface mount packages lack that allows their use on the surface of printed circuit boards?
57271a90dd62a815002e990e
connecting leads
224
False
What is one benefit of using surface mount components?
57271a90dd62a815002e990f
simplify automated assembly
411
False
What is one difficulty when using surface mount components?
57271a90dd62a815002e9910
manual handling is made difficult due to their small size
449
False
Small, cheap discoidal ceramic capacitors have existed
0
What happened since the 1940s?
5acf76e677cf76001a684e82
True
surface mount packages for capacitors
119
What has been in use since the 1990s?
5acf76e677cf76001a684e83
True
connecting leads
224
What do surface mount packages have that allows their use on the surface of printed circuit boards?
5acf76e677cf76001a684e84
True
simplify automated assembly
411
What is one inconvenience of using surface mount components?
5acf76e677cf76001a684e85
True
manual handling
449
What is one easy part when using surface mount components?
5acf76e677cf76001a684e86
True
Small, cheap discoidal ceramic capacitors have existed since the 1930s, and remain in widespread use. Since the 1980s, surface mount packages for capacitors have been widely used. These packages are extremely small and lack connecting leads, allowing them to be soldered directly onto the surface of printed circuit boards. Surface mount components avoid undesirable high-frequency effects due to the leads and simplify automated assembly, although manual handling is made difficult due to their small size.
What do mechanically controlled variable capacitors enable to be modified?
57271bd3f1498d1400e8f3b0
the plate spacing
50
False
How do cheap variable capacitors vary the separation distance between layers of a plastic and aluminum?
57271bd3f1498d1400e8f3b1
with a screw
280
False
Of what type of diodes are varactors or varicaps comprised?
57271bd3f1498d1400e8f3b2
reverse-biased semiconductor diodes
382
False
What varies as a function of voltage in varactors?
57271bd3f1498d1400e8f3b3
depletion region
424
False
What is an application of varactors?
57271bd3f1498d1400e8f3b4
phase-locked loops
493
False
plate spacing
54
What do mechanically controlled variable capacitors disable to be modified?
5acf774677cf76001a684e8c
True
with a screw
280
How do cheap variable capacitors vary the separation distance against layers of a plastic and aluminum?
5acf774677cf76001a684e8d
True
reverse-biased semiconductor
382
Of what type of diodes are varactors or varicaps uncomprised?
5acf774677cf76001a684e8e
True
depletion region
424
What doesn't vary as a function of voltage in varactors?
5acf774677cf76001a684e8f
True
phase-locked loops
493
What is not an application of varactors?
5acf774677cf76001a684e90
True
Mechanically controlled variable capacitors allow the plate spacing to be adjusted, for example by rotating or sliding a set of movable plates into alignment with a set of stationary plates. Low cost variable capacitors squeeze together alternating layers of aluminum and plastic with a screw. Electrical control of capacitance is achievable with varactors (or varicaps), which are reverse-biased semiconductor diodes whose depletion region width varies with applied voltage. They are used in phase-locked loops, amongst other applications.
How do larger capacitors present their electrical characteristics?
57271d8b708984140094d9fb
display the actual capacitance together with the unit (for example, 220 μF)
144
False
What does the abbreviated electrical characteristics of smaller capacitors consist of?
57271d8b708984140094d9fc
three numeric digits and a letter
294
False
What part of the electrical characteristics of smaller capacitors do the digits of the abbreviated notation represent ?
57271d8b708984140094d9fd
the digits indicate the capacitance
335
False
What does the letter of the abbreviated notation for the electrical characteristics of smaller capacitors represent?
57271d8b708984140094d9fe
the letter indicates the tolerance
421
False
In what SI unit is the capacitance reported on smaller capacitors?
57271d8b708984140094d9ff
in pF
371
False
220 μF
212
How do larger capacitors hide their electrical characteristics?
5acf796b77cf76001a684ed8
True
three numeric digits and a letter
294
What does the abbreviated electrical characteristics of larger capacitors consist of?
5acf796b77cf76001a684ed9
True
digits indicate the capacitance
339
What part of the electrical characteristics of larger capacitors do the digits of the abbreviated notation represent ?
5acf796b77cf76001a684eda
True
the letter indicates the tolerance
421
What does the letter of the abbreviated notation for the electrical characteristics of larger capacitors represent?
5acf796b77cf76001a684edb
True
in pF
371
In what SI unit is the capacitance reported on larger capacitors?
5acf796b77cf76001a684edc
True
Most capacitors have numbers printed on their bodies to indicate their electrical characteristics. Larger capacitors like electrolytics usually display the actual capacitance together with the unit (for example, 220 μF). Smaller capacitors like ceramics, however, use a shorthand consisting of three numeric digits and a letter, where the digits indicate the capacitance in pF (calculated as XY × 10Z for digits XYZ) and the letter indicates the tolerance (J, K or M for ±5%, ±10% and ±20% respectively).
Why are capacitors connected in parallel with the power circuits of many devices and large systems?
57271f0a708984140094da0f
to provide a "clean" power supply for signal or control circuits
204
False
How do the capacitors connected in parallel act with currents from the power supply?
57271f0a708984140094da10
as a local reserve for the DC power source
427
False
What is one value a stiffening capacitor accounts for when used in for car audio purposes?
57271f0a708984140094da11
the inductance
601
False
What is another value a stiffening capacitor accounts for when used in for car audio purposes?
57271f0a708984140094da12
resistance
620
False
What do parallel capacitors do to fluctuating current in order to deliver "clean" power for control circuits?
57271f0a708984140094da13
conceal current fluctuations
145
False
to provide a "clean" power supply for signal or control circuits
204
Why are capacitors connected in parallel without the power circuits of many devices and large systems?
5acf7a0977cf76001a684ef4
True
as a local reserve for the DC power source
427
How do the capacitors connected perpendicullarly act with currents from the power supply?
5acf7a0977cf76001a684ef5
True
the inductance
601
What is one value a stiffening capacitor accounts for when used in for a plane audio purposes?
5acf7a0977cf76001a684ef6
True
resistance
620
What is another value a stiffening capacitor accounts for when used in for boat audio purposes?
5acf7a0977cf76001a684ef7
True
conceal current fluctuations from the primary power source
145
What do parallel capacitors do to fluctuating current in order to deliver "dirty" power for control circuits?
5acf7a0977cf76001a684ef8
True
Capacitors are connected in parallel with the power circuits of most electronic devices and larger systems (such as factories) to shunt away and conceal current fluctuations from the primary power source to provide a "clean" power supply for signal or control circuits. Audio equipment, for example, uses several capacitors in this way, to shunt away power line hum before it gets into the signal circuitry. The capacitors act as a local reserve for the DC power source, and bypass AC currents from the power supply. This is used in car audio applications, when a stiffening capacitor compensates for the inductance and resistance of the leads to the lead-acid car battery.
In what scenario are capacitors used for power factor correction?
57272081708984140094da2b
In electric power distribution
0
False
How are capacitors used for for power factor correction prepared?
57272081708984140094da2c
as three capacitors connected as a three phase load
108
False
In what what unit is the capacitance reported for capacitors used in power factor correction?
57272081708984140094da2d
reactive power in volt-amperes reactive (var)
241
False
What is the reason for using capacitors in power factor correction?
57272081708984140094da2e
to counteract inductive loading
303
False
How are power factor correction capacitors sometimes installed?
57272081708984140094da2f
at a load center within a building
609
False
In electric power distribution
0
In what scenario are capacitors never used for power factor correction?
5acf7a8f77cf76001a684f14
True
as three capacitors connected as a three phase load
108
How are capacitors never used for power factor correction prepared?
5acf7a8f77cf76001a684f15
True
reactive power in volt-amperes reactive
241
In what what unit is the capacitance reported for capacitors never used in power factor correction?
5acf7a8f77cf76001a684f16
True
to counteract inductive loading
303
What is the reason for never using capacitors in power factor correction?
5acf7a8f77cf76001a684f17
True
at a load center within a building
609
How are power factor correction capacitors never installed?
5acf7a8f77cf76001a684f18
True
In electric power distribution, capacitors are used for power factor correction. Such capacitors often come as three capacitors connected as a three phase load. Usually, the values of these capacitors are given not in farads but rather as a reactive power in volt-amperes reactive (var). The purpose is to counteract inductive loading from devices like electric motors and transmission lines to make the load appear to be mostly resistive. Individual motor or lamp loads may have capacitors for power factor correction, or larger sets of capacitors (usually with automatic switching devices) may be installed at a load center within a building or in a large utility substation.
What happens to the current when an inductive circuit is opened?
572721a4708984140094da49
the current through the inductance collapses quickly
37
False
What happens to the voltage when an inductive circuit is opened?
572721a4708984140094da4a
a large voltage across the open circuit of the switch
100
False
What type of capacitor is used to make a path to bypass the contact points?
572721a4708984140094da4b
A snubber capacitor
349
False
What is a typical system in which a snubber capacitor is found?
572721a4708984140094da4c
contact breaker ignition systems
523
False
What type of capacitor absorbs radio frequency interference?
572721a4708984140094da4d
a filter capacitor
735
False
inductance collapses quickly
61
What happens to the current when an inductive circuit is closed?
5acf7dab77cf76001a684f70
True
large voltage across the open circuit of the switch
102
What happens to the voltage when an inductive circuit is closed?
5acf7dab77cf76001a684f71
True
A snubber capacitor
349
What type of capacitor is used to make a path to not bypass the contact points?
5acf7dab77cf76001a684f72
True
contact breaker ignition systems
523
What is a typical system in which a snubber capacitor is not found?
5acf7dab77cf76001a684f73
True
filter capacitor absorbs
737
What type of capacitor dispenses radio frequency interference?
5acf7dab77cf76001a684f74
True
When an inductive circuit is opened, the current through the inductance collapses quickly, creating a large voltage across the open circuit of the switch or relay. If the inductance is large enough, the energy will generate a spark, causing the contact points to oxidize, deteriorate, or sometimes weld together, or destroying a solid-state switch. A snubber capacitor across the newly opened circuit creates a path for this impulse to bypass the contact points, thereby preserving their life; these were commonly found in contact breaker ignition systems, for instance. Similarly, in smaller scale circuits, the spark may not be enough to damage the switch but will still radiate undesirable radio frequency interference (RFI), which a filter capacitor absorbs. Snubber capacitors are usually employed with a low-value resistor in series, to dissipate energy and minimize RFI. Such resistor-capacitor combinations are available in a single package.
What is the main winding on a squirrel cage motor capable of withstanding?
572722c0708984140094da53
a rotational motion on the rotor
110
False
What sort of capacitors are used on the second winding of a squirrel cage motor?
572722c0708984140094da54
series non-polarized starting capacitor
232
False
What does the capacitor on the second winding of a squirrel cage motor do?
572722c0708984140094da55
introduce a lead in the sinusoidal current
275
False
What does the centrifugal switch do the capacitor when the rotor achieves operating speed?
572722c0708984140094da56
disconnects the capacitor
684
False
Where is the start capacitor commonly mounted?
572722c0708984140094da57
to the side of the motor housing
752
False
rotational motion on the rotor
112
What is the main winding on a squirrel cage motor capable of withstanding?
5acf8ff377cf76001a685276
True
series non-polarized starting capacitor
232
What sort of capacitors are never used on the second winding of a squirrel cage motor?
5acf8ff377cf76001a685277
True
capacitor-start motors
803
What doesn't the capacitor on the second winding of a squirrel cage motor do?
5acf8ff377cf76001a685278
True
the side of the motor
755
Where is the start capacitor commonly mounted?
5acf8ff377cf76001a685279
True
In single phase squirrel cage motors, the primary winding within the motor housing is not capable of starting a rotational motion on the rotor, but is capable of sustaining one. To start the motor, a secondary "start" winding has a series non-polarized starting capacitor to introduce a lead in the sinusoidal current. When the secondary (start) winding is placed at an angle with respect to the primary (run) winding, a rotating electric field is created. The force of the rotational field is not constant, but is sufficient to start the rotor spinning. When the rotor comes close to operating speed, a centrifugal switch (or current-sensitive relay in series with the main winding) disconnects the capacitor. The start capacitor is typically mounted to the side of the motor housing. These are called capacitor-start motors, that have relatively high starting torque. Typically they can have up-to four times as much starting torque than a split-phase motor and are used on applications such as compressors, pressure washers and any small device requiring high starting torques.
How much energy could a capacitor in a disposable camera contain?
572723b8dd62a815002e9954
over 15 joules of energy
326
False
To what voltage could a capacitor from a disposable camera be charged to?
572723b8dd62a815002e9955
over 300 volts
369
False
What device can be used to discharge large voltage capacitors?
572723b8dd62a815002e9956
a Brinkley stick
568
False
How are the terminals of high voltage capacitors stored?
572723b8dd62a815002e9957
with the terminals shorted
763
False
What type of charge could a capacitor pick up a transient charge from?
572723b8dd62a815002e9958
from static charges
923
False
over 15 joules of energy
326
How much energy could a capacitor in a disposable camera release?
5acf922c77cf76001a6852c2
True
over 300 volts
369
To what voltage could a capacitor from a disposable camera be never charged to?
5acf922c77cf76001a6852c3
True
Brinkley stick
570
What device can't be used to discharge large voltage capacitors?
5acf922c77cf76001a6852c4
True
terminals shorted
772
How aren't the terminals of high voltage capacitors stored?
5acf922c77cf76001a6852c5
True
static charges
928
What type of charge couldn't a capacitor pick up a transient charge from?
5acf922c77cf76001a6852c6
True
Capacitors may retain a charge long after power is removed from a circuit; this charge can cause dangerous or even potentially fatal shocks or damage connected equipment. For example, even a seemingly innocuous device such as a disposable-camera flash unit, powered by a 1.5 volt AA battery, has a capacitor which may contain over 15 joules of energy and be charged to over 300 volts. This is easily capable of delivering a shock. Service procedures for electronic devices usually include instructions to discharge large or high-voltage capacitors, for instance using a Brinkley stick. Capacitors may also have built-in discharge resistors to dissipate stored energy to a safe level within a few seconds after power is removed. High-voltage capacitors are stored with the terminals shorted, as protection from potentially dangerous voltages due to dielectric absorption or from transient voltages the capacitor may pick up from static charges or passing weather events.
What could cause the failure of a capacitor?
5727247c5951b619008f8669
when subjected to voltages or currents beyond their rating
37
False
What can happen to capacitors used in high current applications?
5727247c5951b619008f866a
overheat
363
False
What can happen to capacitors used in high energy capacitor banks?
5727247c5951b619008f866b
violently explode
477
False
What type of capacitors can generate soft x-rays?
5727247c5951b619008f866c
High voltage vacuum capacitors
611
False
What is one way to help minimize capacitor dangers?
5727247c5951b619008f866d
preventive maintenance
729
False
when subjected to voltages or currents beyond their rating
37
What couldn't cause the failure of a capacitor?
5acf928b77cf76001a6852de
True
overheat
363
What can't happen to capacitors used in high current applications?
5acf928b77cf76001a6852df
True
violently explode
477
What can happen to capacitors used in low energy capacitor banks?
5acf928b77cf76001a6852e0
True
High voltage vacuum capacitors
611
What type of capacitors can generate hard x-rays?
5acf928b77cf76001a6852e1
True
preventive maintenance
729
What is one way to help maximize capacitor dangers?
5acf928b77cf76001a6852e2
True
Capacitors may catastrophically fail when subjected to voltages or currents beyond their rating, or as they reach their normal end of life. Dielectric or metal interconnection failures may create arcing that vaporizes the dielectric fluid, resulting in case bulging, rupture, or even an explosion. Capacitors used in RF or sustained high-current applications can overheat, especially in the center of the capacitor rolls. Capacitors used within high-energy capacitor banks can violently explode when a short in one capacitor causes sudden dumping of energy stored in the rest of the bank into the failing unit. High voltage vacuum capacitors can generate soft X-rays even during normal operation. Proper containment, fusing, and preventive maintenance can help to minimize these hazards.
History_of_science
What are natural and social sciences a subcategory of?
5726eab6f1498d1400e8efcc
The history of science
0
False
What is the history of arts and humanities called?
5726eab6f1498d1400e8efcd
the history of scholarship
202
False
What kind of phenomena does science study?
5726eab6f1498d1400e8efce
real world
410
False
Intellectual history and social history are used in what?
5726eab6f1498d1400e8efcf
Historiography of science
432
False
The history of science is the study of the development of science and scientific knowledge, including both the natural sciences and social sciences. (The history of the arts and humanities is termed as the history of scholarship.) Science is a body of empirical, theoretical, and practical knowledge about the natural world, produced by scientists who emphasize the observation, explanation, and prediction of real world phenomena. Historiography of science, in contrast, often draws on the historical methods of both intellectual history and social history.
Who coined the word "scientist"?
5726ebefdd62a815002e9550
William Whewell
64
False
When was the word "scientist" created?
5726ebefdd62a815002e9551
19th century
87
False
What are people who study nature called?
5726ebefdd62a815002e9552
natural philosophers
159
False
Ibn al-Haytham and Roger Bacon were scientists in which time period?
5726ebefdd62a815002e9553
the Middle Ages
376
False
When was the beginning of modern science considered to be?
5726ebefdd62a815002e9554
the scientific revolution
539
False
The English word scientist is relatively recent—first coined by William Whewell in the 19th century. Previously, people investigating nature called themselves natural philosophers. While empirical investigations of the natural world have been described since classical antiquity (for example, by Thales, Aristotle, and others), and scientific methods have been employed since the Middle Ages (for example, by Ibn al-Haytham, and Roger Bacon), the dawn of modern science is often traced back to the early modern period and in particular to the scientific revolution that took place in 16th- and 17th-century Europe. Scientific methods are considered to be so fundamental to modern science that some consider earlier inquiries into nature to be pre-scientific. Traditionally, historians of science have defined science sufficiently broadly to include those inquiries.
What replaced false beliefs?
5726ee62dd62a815002e9582
true theories
181
False
Who depicts the history of science in a wider matrix?
5726ee62dd62a815002e9583
Thomas Kuhn
276
False
What time period did the history of science begin to take a progressive narrative?
5726ee62dd62a815002e9584
the 18th century
5
False
Thomas Kuhn used conceptual systems and what other term to define the history of science?
5726ee62dd62a815002e9585
competing paradigms
364
False
From the 18th century through late 20th century, the history of science, especially of the physical and biological sciences, was often presented in a progressive narrative in which true theories replaced false beliefs. More recent historical interpretations, such as those of Thomas Kuhn, tend to portray the history of science in different terms, such as that of competing paradigms or conceptual systems in a wider matrix that includes intellectual, cultural, economic and political themes outside of science.
The advancement of agriculture made what possible?
5726f0765951b619008f82db
a surplus of food
186
False
Having a surplus of food allowed farmers and hunter-gatherers to spend less time working on what?
5726f0765951b619008f82dc
food production
327
False
Before agriculture advancements, what were farmers having to do?
5726f0765951b619008f82dd
work towards bare survival
492
False
What advancement aided in spreading knowledge across generations?
5726f0765951b619008f82de
The development of writing
0
False
Who was able to support the people who were adding to the written knowledge of nature?
5726f0765951b619008f82df
community
433
False
The development of writing enabled knowledge to be stored and communicated across generations with much greater fidelity. Combined with the development of agriculture, which allowed for a surplus of food, it became possible for early civilizations to develop, because more time and effort could be devoted to tasks (other than food production) than hunter-gatherers or early subsistence farmers had available. This surplus allowed a community to support individuals who did things other than work towards bare survival. These other tasks included systematic studies of nature, study of written information gathered and recorded by others, and often of adding to that body of information.
Which civilization advanced in astronomy, mathematics, and medicine?
5726f1c9f1498d1400e8f0a8
Ancient Egypt
0
False
What did Egyptians use to better organize their farmland?
5726f1c9f1498d1400e8f0a9
geometry
101
False
What theory did the Egyptians use to build rectilinear structures?
5726f1c9f1498d1400e8f0aa
The 3-4-5 right triangle
245
False
What research was Egypt known for?
5726f1c9f1498d1400e8f0ab
alchemy
412
False
What is the name of the earliest medical document?
5726f1c9f1498d1400e8f0ac
The Edwin Smith papyrus
459
False
Ancient Egypt made significant advances in astronomy, mathematics and medicine. Their development of geometry was a necessary outgrowth of surveying to preserve the layout and ownership of farmland, which was flooded annually by the Nile river. The 3-4-5 right triangle and other rules of thumb were used to build rectilinear structures, and the post and lintel architecture of Egypt. Egypt was also a center of alchemy research for much of the Mediterranean.The Edwin Smith papyrus is one of the first medical documents still extant, and perhaps the earliest document that attempts to describe and analyse the brain: it might be seen as the very beginnings of modern neuroscience. However, while Egyptian medicine had some effective practices, it was not without its ineffective and sometimes harmful practices. Medical historians believe that ancient Egyptian pharmacology, for example, was largely ineffective. Nevertheless, it applies the following components to the treatment of disease: examination, diagnosis, treatment, and prognosis, which display strong parallels to the basic empirical method of science and according to G. E. R. Lloyd played a significant role in the development of this methodology. The Ebers papyrus (c. 1550 BC) also contains evidence of traditional empiricism.
Where did the Mesopotamian people originate from?
5726f3eef1498d1400e8f0c6
Sumer
25
False
How far back do the Mesopotamian people go?
5726f3eef1498d1400e8f0c7
3500 BC
49
False
What did the Mesopotamian use to record data about the world around them?
5726f3eef1498d1400e8f0c8
numerical data
145
False
What was the earliest recording of Pythagoras' law?
5726f3eef1498d1400e8f0c9
18th century BC
348
False
Which tablet had Pythagorean triplets on it?
5726f3eef1498d1400e8f0ca
Plimpton 322
399
False
From their beginnings in Sumer (now Iraq) around 3500 BC, the Mesopotamian people began to attempt to record some observations of the world with numerical data. But their observations and measurements were seemingly taken for purposes other than for elucidating scientific laws. A concrete instance of Pythagoras' law was recorded, as early as the 18th century BC: the Mesopotamian cuneiform tablet Plimpton 322 records a number of Pythagorean triplets (3,4,5) (5,12,13). ..., dated 1900 BC, possibly millennia before Pythagoras,  but an abstract formulation of the Pythagorean theorem was not.
Who wrote on the clay tablets in Babylonian astronomy?
5726f50add62a815002e9630
scribes
133
False
Where are Mesopotamian astronomical periods still used?
5726f50add62a815002e9631
in Western calendars
241
False
Who was Kidinnu?
5726f50add62a815002e9632
a Chaldean astronomer and mathematician
602
False
Who believes that the Hellenistic world relies on Babylonian astronomy?
5726f50add62a815002e9633
A. Aaboe
877
False
Where can Kidinnu's solar year be found in use?
5726f50add62a815002e9634
today's calendars
692
False
In Babylonian astronomy, records of the motions of the stars, planets, and the moon are left on thousands of clay tablets created by scribes. Even today, astronomical periods identified by Mesopotamian proto-scientists are still widely used in Western calendars such as the solar year and the lunar month. Using these data they developed arithmetical methods to compute the changing length of daylight in the course of the year and to predict the appearances and disappearances of the Moon and planets and eclipses of the Sun and Moon. Only a few astronomers' names are known, such as that of Kidinnu, a Chaldean astronomer and mathematician. Kiddinu's value for the solar year is in use for today's calendars. Babylonian astronomy was "the first and highly successful attempt at giving a refined mathematical description of astronomical phenomena." According to the historian A. Aaboe, "all subsequent varieties of scientific astronomy, in the Hellenistic world, in India, in Islam, and in the West—if not indeed all subsequent endeavour in the exact sciences—depend upon Babylonian astronomy in decisive and fundamental ways."
Which era was marked by investigating the universe?
5726f67cf1498d1400e8f110
Classical Antiquity
3
False
What type of science are making a calendar and finding cures for diseases a part of?
5726f67cf1498d1400e8f111
natural philosophy
266
False
What is an example of skilled professionals?
5726f67cf1498d1400e8f112
physicians
456
False
What is an example of religious devotee?
5726f67cf1498d1400e8f113
temple healers
524
False
What would the first scientists have been considered?
5726f67cf1498d1400e8f114
natural philosophers
379
False
In Classical Antiquity, the inquiry into the workings of the universe took place both in investigations aimed at such practical goals as establishing a reliable calendar or determining how to cure a variety of illnesses and in those abstract investigations known as natural philosophy. The ancient people who are considered the first scientists may have thought of themselves as natural philosophers, as practitioners of a skilled profession (for example, physicians), or as followers of a religious tradition (for example, temple healers).
What are early Greek philosophers known as?
5726f75ddd62a815002e9672
pre-Socratics
46
False
What question were Greek philosophers trying to answer?
5726f75ddd62a815002e9673
How did the ordered cosmos in which we live come to be?
144
False
Who was named "the father of science"?
5726f75ddd62a815002e9674
Thales
230
False
Which religious deity did Thales undermine with his scientific theories?
5726f75ddd62a815002e9675
Poseidon
512
False
Who was the first person to determine that the Earth is round?
5726f75ddd62a815002e9676
Samos
552
False
The earliest Greek philosophers, known as the pre-Socratics, provided competing answers to the question found in the myths of their neighbors: "How did the ordered cosmos in which we live come to be?" The pre-Socratic philosopher Thales (640-546 BC), dubbed the "father of science", was the first to postulate non-supernatural explanations for natural phenomena, for example, that land floats on water and that earthquakes are caused by the agitation of the water upon which the land floats, rather than the god Poseidon. Thales' student Pythagoras of Samos founded the Pythagorean school, which investigated mathematics for its own sake, and was the first to postulate that the Earth is spherical in shape. Leucippus (5th century BC) introduced atomism, the theory that all matter is made of indivisible, imperishable units called atoms. This was greatly expanded by his pupil Democritus.
Plato and Aristotle are known for systematically discussing what?
5726f8735951b619008f83a1
natural philosophy
79
False
What discussion technique are Plato and Aristotle responsible for?
5726f8735951b619008f83a2
deductive reasoning
176
False
What year was the Platonic Academy founded?
5726f8735951b619008f83a3
387 BC
307
False
Aristotle introduced what theory?
5726f8735951b619008f83a4
empiricism
454
False
How many species of animals were classified by Aristotle?
5726f8735951b619008f83a5
540
895
False
Subsequently, Plato and Aristotle produced the first systematic discussions of natural philosophy, which did much to shape later investigations of nature. Their development of deductive reasoning was of particular importance and usefulness to later scientific inquiry. Plato founded the Platonic Academy in 387 BC, whose motto was "Let none unversed in geometry enter here", and turned out many notable philosophers. Plato's student Aristotle introduced empiricism and the notion that universal truths can be arrived at via observation and induction, thereby laying the foundations of the scientific method. Aristotle also produced many biological writings that were empirical in nature, focusing on biological causation and the diversity of life. He made countless observations of nature, especially the habits and attributes of plants and animals in the world around him, classified more than 540 animal species, and dissected at least 50. Aristotle's writings profoundly influenced subsequent Islamic and European scholarship, though they were eventually superseded in the Scientific Revolution.
Anatomy, zoology, geography, and studies like them are considered what?
5726f997f1498d1400e8f188
factual knowledge
69
False
What era utilized Greek theories?
5726f997f1498d1400e8f189
the Hellenistic age
445
False
What scientific theory was created by the Greeks?
5726f997f1498d1400e8f18a
the Socratic method
941
False
Who employed logic, geometry, and natural sciences?
5726f997f1498d1400e8f18b
the Ancient Greeks
917
False
Greek thought is predominately applying mathematics and what other method?
5726f997f1498d1400e8f18c
deliberate empirical research
580
False
The important legacy of this period included substantial advances in factual knowledge, especially in anatomy, zoology, botany, mineralogy, geography, mathematics and astronomy; an awareness of the importance of certain scientific problems, especially those related to the problem of change and its causes; and a recognition of the methodological importance of applying mathematics to natural phenomena and of undertaking empirical research. In the Hellenistic age scholars frequently employed the principles developed in earlier Greek thought: the application of mathematics and deliberate empirical research, in their scientific investigations. Thus, clear unbroken lines of influence lead from ancient Greek and Hellenistic philosophers, to medieval Muslim philosophers and scientists, to the European Renaissance and Enlightenment, to the secular sciences of the modern day. Neither reason nor inquiry began with the Ancient Greeks, but the Socratic method did, along with the idea of Forms, great advances in geometry, logic, and the natural sciences. According to Benjamin Farrington, former Professor of Classics at Swansea University:
Who created the sun-centered model of the solar system?
5726fa9cdd62a815002e96bc
Aristarchus of Samos
15
False
Who was able to determine the circumference of the Earth?
5726fa9cdd62a815002e96bd
Eratosthenes
137
False
Who made the first catalog of stars?
5726fa9cdd62a815002e96be
Hipparchus
204
False
What was used to determine the position of planets within the solar system?
5726fa9cdd62a815002e96bf
the Antikythera mechanism
371
False
When was the Antikythera mechanism used?
5726fa9cdd62a815002e96c0
150-100 BC
398
False
The astronomer Aristarchus of Samos was the first known person to propose a heliocentric model of the solar system, while the geographer Eratosthenes accurately calculated the circumference of the Earth. Hipparchus (c. 190 – c. 120 BC) produced the first systematic star catalog. The level of achievement in Hellenistic astronomy and engineering is impressively shown by the Antikythera mechanism (150-100 BC), an analog computer for calculating the position of planets. Technological artifacts of similar complexity did not reappear until the 14th century, when mechanical astronomical clocks appeared in Europe.
Who wrote the book Elements?
5726fb48dd62a815002e96d6
Euclid
40
False
What was contained within the book Elements?
5726fb48dd62a815002e96d7
the foundations of mathematical rigor
57
False
Who was able to determine the the area under a parabola?
5726fb48dd62a815002e96d8
Archimedes
254
False
What method did Archimedes employ to determine the area under a parabola?
5726fb48dd62a815002e96d9
exhaustion
362
False
Which mathematical figure did Archimedes approximate?
5726fb48dd62a815002e96da
Pi
513
False
In Hellenistic Egypt, the mathematician Euclid laid down the foundations of mathematical rigor and introduced the concepts of definition, axiom, theorem and proof still in use today in his Elements, considered the most influential textbook ever written. Archimedes, considered one of the greatest mathematicians of all time, is credited with using the method of exhaustion to calculate the area under the arc of a parabola with the summation of an infinite series, and gave a remarkably accurate approximation of Pi. He is also known in physics for laying the foundations of hydrostatics, statics, and the explanation of the principle of the lever.
What classification guide did Theophrastus create?
5726fe6af1498d1400e8f1de
the first taxonomy
89
False
In what year did Pliny the Elder publish the largest encyclopedia?
5726fe6af1498d1400e8f1df
77 AD
269
False
What did Pliny the Elder observe about diamonds?
5726fe6af1498d1400e8f1e0
the octahedral shape
377
False
Who do engravers use diamond dust for?
5726fe6af1498d1400e8f1e1
to cut and polish other gems
477
False
What characteristic was Pliny the Elder the first to recognize about amber?
5726fe6af1498d1400e8f1e2
was a fossilized resin
887
False
Theophrastus wrote some of the earliest descriptions of plants and animals, establishing the first taxonomy and looking at minerals in terms of their properties such as hardness. Pliny the Elder produced what is one of the largest encyclopedias of the natural world in 77 AD, and must be regarded as the rightful successor to Theophrastus. For example, he accurately describes the octahedral shape of the diamond, and proceeds to mention that diamond dust is used by engravers to cut and polish other gems owing to its great hardness. His recognition of the importance of crystal shape is a precursor to modern crystallography, while mention of numerous other minerals presages mineralogy. He also recognises that other minerals have characteristic crystal shapes, but in one example, confuses the crystal habit with the work of lapidaries. He was also the first to recognise that amber was a fossilized resin from pine trees because he had seen samples with trapped insects within them.
The Indus Valley Civilization was the first to have traces of what?
5727026e5951b619008f8487
mathematical knowledge
36
False
What proportional size were the bricks that the civilization used?
5727026e5951b619008f8488
4:2:1
259
False
What characteristic determined the proportions of the bricks?
5727026e5951b619008f8489
stability
295
False
What was the name of the ruler that they created?
5727026e5951b619008f848a
the Mohenjo-daro ruler
432
False
How long were the units in inches of the Mohenjo-daro ruler?
5727026e5951b619008f848b
1.32 inches
491
False
Mathematics: The earliest traces of mathematical knowledge in the Indian subcontinent appear with the Indus Valley Civilization (c. 4th millennium BC ~ c. 3rd millennium BC). The people of this civilization made bricks whose dimensions were in the proportion 4:2:1, considered favorable for the stability of a brick structure. They also tried to standardize measurement of length to a high degree of accuracy. They designed a ruler—the Mohenjo-daro ruler—whose unit of length (approximately 1.32 inches or 3.4 centimetres) was divided into ten equal parts. Bricks manufactured in ancient Mohenjo-daro often had dimensions that were integral multiples of this unit of length.
When did Aryabhata live?
572703e65951b619008f849b
476-550
47
False
What were the trigonometric functions that Aryabhata discovered?
572703e65951b619008f849c
sine, versine, cosine and inverse sine
140
False
What theory did Brahmagupta suggest in 628 AD?
572703e65951b619008f849d
gravity was a force of attraction
283
False
What did Brahmagupta use the number zero for?
572703e65951b619008f849e
a placeholder and a decimal digit
368
False
What language did the work of Brahmagupta and Aryabhata have to be translated from?
572703e65951b619008f849f
Arabic
489
False
Indian astronomer and mathematician Aryabhata (476-550), in his Aryabhatiya (499) introduced a number of trigonometric functions (including sine, versine, cosine and inverse sine), trigonometric tables, and techniques and algorithms of algebra. In 628 AD, Brahmagupta suggested that gravity was a force of attraction. He also lucidly explained the use of zero as both a placeholder and a decimal digit, along with the Hindu-Arabic numeral system now used universally throughout the world. Arabic translations of the two astronomers' texts were soon available in the Islamic world, introducing what would become Arabic numerals to the Islamic World by the 9th century. During the 14th–16th centuries, the Kerala school of astronomy and mathematics made significant advances in astronomy and especially mathematics, including fields such as trigonometry and analysis. In particular, Madhava of Sangamagrama is considered the "founder of mathematical analysis".
Which text was the first to have concepts of astronomy in it?
572705155951b619008f84b7
the Vedas
73
False
Who wrote the first 12 chapters of the Siddhanta Shiromani?
572705155951b619008f84b8
Bhāskara
487
False
In what time period was the Siddhanta Shiromani written?
572705155951b619008f84b9
12th century
503
False
The second section of the Siddhanta Shiromani has how many chapters?
572705155951b619008f84ba
13
888
False
What topic does the second part of the Siddhanta Shiromani contain?
572705155951b619008f84bb
the nature of the sphere
925
False
Astronomy: The first textual mention of astronomical concepts comes from the Vedas, religious literature of India. According to Sarma (2008): "One finds in the Rigveda intelligent speculations about the genesis of the universe from nonexistence, the configuration of the universe, the spherical self-supporting earth, and the year of 360 days divided into 12 equal parts of 30 days each with a periodical intercalary month.". The first 12 chapters of the Siddhanta Shiromani, written by Bhāskara in the 12th century, cover topics such as: mean longitudes of the planets; true longitudes of the planets; the three problems of diurnal rotation; syzygies; lunar eclipses; solar eclipses; latitudes of the planets; risings and settings; the moon's crescent; conjunctions of the planets with each other; conjunctions of the planets with the fixed stars; and the patas of the sun and moon. The 13 chapters of the second part cover the nature of the sphere, as well as significant astronomical and trigonometric calculations based on it.
Where are the Neolithic graveyards?
57271234f1498d1400e8f31e
Pakistan
60
False
What do the findings in the graveyards show evidence of?
57271234f1498d1400e8f31f
proto-dentistry
86
False
What kind of medicine was practiced in India before 2500 BC?
57271234f1498d1400e8f320
Ayurveda
134
False
What is the name of the text that has information regarding Ayurveda?
57271234f1498d1400e8f321
Suśrutasamhitā of Suśruta
340
False
What information is in the Susrutasamhita of Susruta?
57271234f1498d1400e8f322
surgical procedures
568
False
Medicine: Findings from Neolithic graveyards in what is now Pakistan show evidence of proto-dentistry among an early farming culture. Ayurveda is a system of traditional medicine that originated in ancient India before 2500 BC, and is now practiced as a form of alternative medicine in other parts of the world. Its most famous text is the Suśrutasamhitā of Suśruta, which is notable for describing procedures on various forms of surgery, including rhinoplasty, the repair of torn ear lobes, perineal lithotomy, cataract surgery, and several other excisions and other surgical procedures.
What method did early Chinese mathematicians use to calculate?
572713ce708984140094d965
a positional decimal system on counting boards
48
False
One rod in the second box from the right is what number?
572713ce708984140094d966
10
129
False
When did negative numbers and decimals start being used?
572713ce708984140094d967
1st century BC
318
False
What text includes Horner's method?
572713ce708984140094d968
The Nine Chapters on the Mathematical Art
389
False
What advanced mathematical methods did the Tang dynasty have?
572713ce708984140094d969
Cubic equations
558
False
Mathematics: From the earliest the Chinese used a positional decimal system on counting boards in order to calculate. To express 10, a single rod is placed in the second box from the right. The spoken language uses a similar system to English: e.g. four thousand two hundred seven. No symbol was used for zero. By the 1st century BC, negative numbers and decimal fractions were in use and The Nine Chapters on the Mathematical Art included methods for extracting higher order roots by Horner's method and solving linear equations and by Pythagoras' theorem. Cubic equations were solved in the Tang dynasty and solutions of equations of order higher than 3 appeared in print in 1245 AD by Ch'in Chiu-shao. Pascal's triangle for binomial coefficients was described around 1100 by Jia Xian.
What observations in astronomy did China record?
5727d383ff5b5019007d962c
sunspots
136
False
What kind of predictions were made during the 12th century?
5727d383ff5b5019007d962d
eclipses
291
False
Who made predictions in 1601?
5727d383ff5b5019007d962e
Jesuit Matteo Ricci
373
False
What year did Chinese astronomers start to observe comets?
5727d383ff5b5019007d962f
635
443
False
How many records of sunspots are there?
5727d383ff5b5019007d9630
112
146
False
Astronomy: Astronomical observations from China constitute the longest continuous sequence from any civilisation and include records of sunspots (112 records from 364 BC), supernovas (1054), lunar and solar eclipses. By the 12th century, they could reasonably accurately make predictions of eclipses, but the knowledge of this was lost during the Ming dynasty, so that the Jesuit Matteo Ricci gained much favour in 1601 by his predictions. By 635 Chinese astronomers had observed that the tails of comets always point away from the sun.
What was invented in 132 CE?
5727d51bff5b5019007d9658
a seismometer
66
False
What occurrence is measured by a seismometer?
5727d51bff5b5019007d9659
an earthquake
424
False
What is the Chinese name for a seismometer?
5727d51bff5b5019007d965a
Houfeng didong yi
649
False
What did the Chinese caused earthquakes?
5727d51bff5b5019007d965b
enormous compression of trapped air
762
False
What was Luoyang renamed to?
5727d51bff5b5019007d965c
Gansu
535
False
Seismology: To better prepare for calamities, Zhang Heng invented a seismometer in 132 CE which provided instant alert to authorities in the capital Luoyang that an earthquake had occurred in a location indicated by a specific cardinal or ordinal direction. Although no tremors could be felt in the capital when Zhang told the court that an earthquake had just occurred in the northwest, a message came soon afterwards that an earthquake had indeed struck 400 km (248 mi) to 500 km (310 mi) northwest of Luoyang (in what is now modern Gansu). Zhang called his device the 'instrument for measuring the seasonal winds and the movements of the Earth' (Houfeng didong yi 候风地动仪), so-named because he and others thought that earthquakes were most likely caused by the enormous compression of trapped air. See Zhang's seismometer for further details.
Who discovered the idea of true north?
5727e5aa3acd2414000def39
Shen Kuo
123
False
When was Shen Kuo alive?
5727e5aa3acd2414000def3a
1031–1095
133
False
What are drydocks used for?
5727e5aa3acd2414000def3b
to repair boats
424
False
What did silt and marine fossils teach Shen Kuo?
5727e5aa3acd2414000def3c
geomorphology
651
False
What did Shen Kuo study to discover climate change?
5727e5aa3acd2414000def3d
petrified bamboo
755
False
There are many notable contributors to the field of Chinese science throughout the ages. One of the best examples would be Shen Kuo (1031–1095), a polymath scientist and statesman who was the first to describe the magnetic-needle compass used for navigation, discovered the concept of true north, improved the design of the astronomical gnomon, armillary sphere, sight tube, and clepsydra, and described the use of drydocks to repair boats. After observing the natural process of the inundation of silt and the find of marine fossils in the Taihang Mountains (hundreds of miles from the Pacific Ocean), Shen Kuo devised a theory of land formation, or geomorphology. He also adopted a theory of gradual climate change in regions over time, after observing petrified bamboo found underground at Yan'an, Shaanxi province. If not for Shen Kuo's writing, the architectural works of Yu Hao would be little known, along with the inventor of movable type printing, Bi Sheng (990-1051). Shen's contemporary Su Song (1020–1101) was also a brilliant polymath, an astronomer who created a celestial atlas of star maps, wrote a pharmaceutical treatise with related subjects of botany, zoology, mineralogy, and metallurgy, and had erected a large astronomical clocktower in Kaifeng city in 1088. To operate the crowning armillary sphere, his clocktower featured an escapement mechanism and the world's oldest known use of an endless power-transmitting chain drive.
Who was the Needham Research Institute named after?
5727e7003acd2414000def59
Joseph Needham
370
False
What type of bridge originated in China?
5727e7003acd2414000def5a
suspension
842
False
What type of map originated in China?
5727e7003acd2414000def5b
raised-relief
940
False
What type of fan originated in China?
5727e7003acd2414000def5c
rotary
888
False
What type of globe did Zhang Heng invent?
5727e7003acd2414000def5d
water-powered celestial
585
False
The Jesuit China missions of the 16th and 17th centuries "learned to appreciate the scientific achievements of this ancient culture and made them known in Europe. Through their correspondence European scientists first learned about the Chinese science and culture." Western academic thought on the history of Chinese technology and science was galvanized by the work of Joseph Needham and the Needham Research Institute. Among the technological accomplishments of China were, according to the British scholar Needham, early seismological detectors (Zhang Heng in the 2nd century), the water-powered celestial globe (Zhang Heng), matches, the independent invention of the decimal system, dry docks, sliding calipers, the double-action piston pump, cast iron, the blast furnace, the iron plough, the multi-tube seed drill, the wheelbarrow, the suspension bridge, the winnowing machine, the rotary fan, the parachute, natural gas as fuel, the raised-relief map, the propeller, the crossbow, and a solid fuel rocket, the multistage rocket, the horse collar, along with contributions in logic, astronomy, medicine, and other fields.
What was a consequence of the Roman Empire being divided?
5727e7cdff5b5019007d9804
the Western Roman Empire lost contact with much of its past
39
False
Where was support found for Greek philosophy?
5727e7cdff5b5019007d9805
Arab Empire
191
False
What time period was marked by the spreading of Islam?
5727e7cdff5b5019007d9806
the 7th and 8th centuries
232
False
How long did the Islamic Golden Age last?
5727e7cdff5b5019007d9807
until the 13th century
331
False
What language did Muslim philosophers speak?
5727e7cdff5b5019007d9808
Arabic
432
False
With the division of the Roman Empire, the Western Roman Empire lost contact with much of its past. In the Middle East, Greek philosophy was able to find some support under the newly created Arab Empire. With the spread of Islam in the 7th and 8th centuries, a period of Muslim scholarship, known as the Islamic Golden Age, lasted until the 13th century. This scholarship was aided by several factors. The use of a single language, Arabic, allowed communication without need of a translator. Access to Greek texts from the Byzantine Empire, along with Indian sources of learning, provided Muslim scholars a knowledge base to build upon.
What method did Muslim scientists use more than the Greeks?
5727e88cff5b5019007d9824
experiment
49
False
What book did Ibn al-Haytham write?
5727e88cff5b5019007d9825
Book of Optics
299
False
What law did the Persians know of?
5727e88cff5b5019007d9826
The law of refraction of light
315
False
What was Ibn al-Haytham's nickname?
5727e88cff5b5019007d9827
the father of optics
627
False
What theory did Ibn al-Haytham have proof for?
5727e88cff5b5019007d9828
the intromission theory of light
687
False
Muslim scientists placed far greater emphasis on experiment than had the Greeks. This led to an early scientific method being developed in the Muslim world, where significant progress in methodology was made, beginning with the experiments of Ibn al-Haytham (Alhazen) on optics from c. 1000, in his Book of Optics. The law of refraction of light was known to the Persians. The most important development of the scientific method was the use of experiments to distinguish between competing scientific theories set within a generally empirical orientation, which began among Muslim scientists. Ibn al-Haytham is also regarded as the father of optics, especially for his empirical proof of the intromission theory of light. Some have also described Ibn al-Haytham as the "first scientist" for his development of the modern scientific method.
What was Muhammad ibn Musa al-Khwarizmi's profession?
5727ea142ca10214002d9994
mathematician
28
False
Where does the word "algebra" come from?
5727ea142ca10214002d9995
al-jabr
159
False
Where did Arabic numerals originate?
5727ea142ca10214002d9996
India
281
False
What did Muslim mathematicians add to Arabic numerals?
5727ea142ca10214002d9997
decimal point notation
393
False
What area of science did Al-Razi contribute to?
5727ea142ca10214002d9998
chemistry and medicine
546
False
In mathematics, the Persian mathematician Muhammad ibn Musa al-Khwarizmi gave his name to the concept of the algorithm, while the term algebra is derived from al-jabr, the beginning of the title of one of his publications. What is now known as Arabic numerals originally came from India, but Muslim mathematicians did make several refinements to the number system, such as the introduction of decimal point notation. Sabian mathematician Al-Battani (850-929) contributed to astronomy and mathematics, while Persian scholar Al-Razi contributed to chemistry and medicine.
Whose work did Al-Battani improve?
5727ee784b864d1900164044
Hipparchus
54
False
What does He Megale Syntaxis mean?
5727ee784b864d1900164045
The great treatise
128
False
Which measurement did Al-Battani improve upon?
5727ee784b864d1900164046
the Earth's axis
251
False
The geocentric model is similar to what other model?
5727ee784b864d1900164047
Copernican heliocentric model
464
False
In astronomy, Al-Battani improved the measurements of Hipparchus, preserved in the translation of Ptolemy's Hè Megalè Syntaxis (The great treatise) translated as Almagest. Al-Battani also improved the precision of the measurement of the precession of the Earth's axis. The corrections made to the geocentric model by al-Battani, Ibn al-Haytham, Averroes and the Maragha astronomers such as Nasir al-Din al-Tusi, Mo'ayyeduddin Urdi and Ibn al-Shatir are similar to Copernican heliocentric model. Heliocentric theories may have also been discussed by several other Muslim astronomers such as Ja'far ibn Muhammad Abu Ma'shar al-Balkhi, Abu-Rayhan Biruni, Abu Said al-Sijzi, Qutb al-Din al-Shirazi, and Najm al-Dīn al-Qazwīnī al-Kātibī.
Who was most influential in Islamic philosophy?
5727ef6f2ca10214002d99fc
Ibn Sina
0
False
What method did Ibn Sina introduce?
5727ef6f2ca10214002d99fd
clinical trials
167
False
What does Kitab al-shifa mean?
5727ef6f2ca10214002d99fe
Book of Healing
249
False
The Kitab al-shifa and The Canon of Medicine are considered what?
5727ef6f2ca10214002d99ff
standard medicinal texts
321
False
What characteristic did Ibn Sina find out about infectious diseases?
5727ef6f2ca10214002d9a00
contagious
469
False
Ibn Sina (Avicenna) is regarded as the most influential philosopher of Islam. He pioneered the science of experimental medicine and was the first physician to conduct clinical trials. His two most notable works in medicine are the Kitāb al-shifāʾ ("Book of Healing") and The Canon of Medicine, both of which were used as standard medicinal texts in both the Muslim world and in Europe well into the 17th century. Amongst his many contributions are the discovery of the contagious nature of infectious diseases, and the introduction of clinical pharmacology.
When were medieval universities created?
5727f0a62ca10214002d9a06
the 12th century
92
False
Who sponsored the Toledo School of Translators?
5727f0a62ca10214002d9a07
Raymond of Toledo
442
False
At the Toledo School of Translators, what language was Arabic text translated into?
5727f0a62ca10214002d9a08
Latin
536
False
Which translator learned Arabic to be able to study the Arabic texts directly?
5727f0a62ca10214002d9a09
Michael Scotus
566
False
An intellectual revitalization of Europe started with the birth of medieval universities in the 12th century. The contact with the Islamic world in Spain and Sicily, and during the Reconquista and the Crusades, allowed Europeans access to scientific Greek and Arabic texts, including the works of Aristotle, Ptolemy, Jābir ibn Hayyān, al-Khwarizmi, Alhazen, Avicenna, and Averroes. European scholars had access to the translation programs of Raymond of Toledo, who sponsored the 12th century Toledo School of Translators from Arabic to Latin. Later translators like Michael Scotus would learn Arabic in order to study these texts directly. The European universities aided materially in the translation and propagation of these texts and started a new infrastructure which was needed for scientific communities. In fact, European university put many works about the natural world and the study of nature at the center of its curriculum, with the result that the "medieval university laid far greater emphasis on science than does its modern counterpart and descendent."
What language did the important scientific works get translated into for universities and monasteries?
5727f2f53acd2414000df09b
Latin
69
False
Who favored empirical methods?
5727f2f53acd2414000df09c
Bacon
667
False
Who favored mathematics?
5727f2f53acd2414000df09d
Grosseteste
557
False
Who wrote the Catholic Church's Condemnation of 1277?
5727f2f53acd2414000df09e
Pierre Duhem
706
False
What era was important for scientific advancements?
5727f2f53acd2414000df09f
the Middle Ages
992
False
At the beginning of the 13th century, there were reasonably accurate Latin translations of the main works of almost all the intellectually crucial ancient authors, allowing a sound transfer of scientific ideas via both the universities and the monasteries. By then, the natural philosophy contained in these texts began to be extended by notable scholastics such as Robert Grosseteste, Roger Bacon, Albertus Magnus and Duns Scotus. Precursors of the modern scientific method, influenced by earlier contributions of the Islamic world, can be seen already in Grosseteste's emphasis on mathematics as a way to understand nature, and in the empirical approach admired by Bacon, particularly in his Opus Majus. Pierre Duhem's provocative thesis of the Catholic Church's Condemnation of 1277 led to the study of medieval science as a serious discipline, "but no one in the field any longer endorses his view that modern science started in 1277". However, many scholars agree with Duhem's view that the Middle Ages were a period of important scientific developments.
Who pioneered parsimony?
5727f4004b864d190016408a
William of Ockham
174
False
What theory is based off of projectiles' motion?
5727f4004b864d190016408b
impetus
618
False
What theory did impetus pave the way for?
5727f4004b864d190016408c
inertia
723
False
What did the Oxford Calculators measure?
5727f4004b864d190016408d
the kinematics of motion
787
False
The first half of the 14th century saw much important scientific work being done, largely within the framework of scholastic commentaries on Aristotle's scientific writings. William of Ockham introduced the principle of parsimony: natural philosophers should not postulate unnecessary entities, so that motion is not a distinct thing but is only the moving object and an intermediary "sensible species" is not needed to transmit an image of an object to the eye. Scholars such as Jean Buridan and Nicole Oresme started to reinterpret elements of Aristotle's mechanics. In particular, Buridan developed the theory that impetus was the cause of the motion of projectiles, which was a first step towards the modern concept of inertia. The Oxford Calculators began to mathematically analyze the kinematics of motion, making this analysis without considering the causes of motion.
What year did the Black Death occur?
5727f4f84b864d19001640aa
1348
3
False
What caused ancient texts to be rediscovered by Byzantine scholars?
5727f4f84b864d19001640ab
the Fall of Constantinople in 1453
196
False
The invention of printing improved which society?
5727f4f84b864d19001640ac
European
361
False
Printed word enabled what?
5727f4f84b864d19001640ad
a faster propagation of new ideas
463
False
What type of mathematics aided in developing European science?
5727f4f84b864d19001640ae
Algebra
614
False
In 1348, the Black Death and other disasters sealed a sudden end to the previous period of massive philosophic and scientific development. Yet, the rediscovery of ancient texts was improved after the Fall of Constantinople in 1453, when many Byzantine scholars had to seek refuge in the West. Meanwhile, the introduction of printing was to have great effect on European society. The facilitated dissemination of the printed word democratized learning and allowed a faster propagation of new ideas. New ideas also helped to influence the development of European science at this point: not least the introduction of Algebra. These developments paved the way for the Scientific Revolution, which may also be understood as a resumption of the process of scientific inquiry, halted at the start of the Black Death.
The focus on learning in the 12th century is referred to as what?
5727f5f53acd2414000df0d7
Scholasticism
64
False
What began at the same time Scholasticism ended?
5727f5f53acd2414000df0d8
the Black Death
112
False
Which era came after Scholasticism?
5727f5f53acd2414000df0d9
Italian Renaissance
170
False
What was the focus of the Northern Renaissance?
5727f5f53acd2414000df0da
chemistry and the biological sciences
361
False
Which scientist was known for working on human cadavers?
5727f5f53acd2414000df0db
Vesalius
1067
False
The renewal of learning in Europe, that began with 12th century Scholasticism, came to an end about the time of the Black Death, and the initial period of the subsequent Italian Renaissance is sometimes seen as a lull in scientific activity. The Northern Renaissance, on the other hand, showed a decisive shift in focus from Aristoteleian natural philosophy to chemistry and the biological sciences (botany, anatomy, and medicine). Thus modern science in Europe was resumed in a period of great upheaval: the Protestant Reformation and Catholic Counter-Reformation; the discovery of the Americas by Christopher Columbus; the Fall of Constantinople; but also the re-discovery of Aristotle during the Scholastic period presaged large social and political changes. Thus, a suitable environment was created in which it became possible to question scientific doctrine, in much the same way that Martin Luther and John Calvin questioned religious doctrine. The works of Ptolemy (astronomy) and Galen (medicine) were found not always to match everyday observations. Work by Vesalius on human cadavers found problems with the Galenic view of anatomy.
What was the Scientific Revolution?
5727f6d83acd2414000df0f9
a period of major scientific advancements
90
False
What year is considered to be the beginning of the Scientific Revolution?
5727f6d83acd2414000df0fa
1543
257
False
What book by Andreas Vesalius was published in 1543?
5727f6d83acd2414000df0fb
De humani corporis fabrica (On the Workings of the Human Body)
278
False
What was the focus of De Revolutionibus by Nicolaus Copernicus?
5727f6d83acd2414000df0fc
the Earth moved around the Sun
489
False
What book was printed by Isaac Newton in 1687?
5727f6d83acd2414000df0fd
Philosophiæ Naturalis Principia Mathematica
571
False
The willingness to question previously held truths and search for new answers resulted in a period of major scientific advancements, now known as the Scientific Revolution. The Scientific Revolution is traditionally held by most historians to have begun in 1543, when the books De humani corporis fabrica (On the Workings of the Human Body) by Andreas Vesalius, and also De Revolutionibus, by the astronomer Nicolaus Copernicus, were first printed. The thesis of Copernicus' book was that the Earth moved around the Sun. The period culminated with the publication of the Philosophiæ Naturalis Principia Mathematica in 1687 by Isaac Newton, representative of the unprecedented growth of scientific publications throughout Europe.
The Age of Reason made way for which movement?
5727f7e32ca10214002d9a6c
Age of Enlightenment
188
False
What event is considered to be the start of political modernity?
5727f7e32ca10214002d9a6d
the French Revolution of 1789
859
False
What book did Denis Diderot write?
5727f7e32ca10214002d9a6e
Encyclopédie
567
False
The Age of Enlightenment was a European affair. The 17th century "Age of Reason" opened the avenues to the decisive steps towards modern science, which took place during the 18th century "Age of Enlightenment". Directly based on the works of Newton, Descartes, Pascal and Leibniz, the way was now clear to the development of modern mathematics, physics and technology by the generation of Benjamin Franklin (1706–1790), Leonhard Euler (1707–1783), Mikhail Lomonosov (1711–1765) and Jean le Rond d'Alembert (1717–1783), epitomized in the appearance of Denis Diderot's Encyclopédie between 1751 and 1772. The impact of this process was not limited to science and technology, but affected philosophy (Immanuel Kant, David Hume), religion (the increasingly significant impact of science upon religion), and society and politics in general (Adam Smith, Voltaire), the French Revolution of 1789 setting a bloody cesura indicating the beginning of political modernity[citation needed]. The early modern period is seen as a flowering of the European Renaissance, in what is often known as the Scientific Revolution, viewed as a foundation of modern science.
Which movement took place during the 19th century?
5727f8783acd2414000df115
The Romantic Movement
0
False
What theory did Darwin introduce?
5727f8783acd2414000df116
theory of evolution
213
False
Which physics subject was affected by The Romantic Movement?
5727f8783acd2414000df117
electromagnetism
254
False
What caused Romanticism to end?
5727f8783acd2414000df118
Positivism
419
False
What year did Positivism end?
5727f8783acd2414000df119
1880
519
False
The Romantic Movement of the early 19th century reshaped science by opening up new pursuits unexpected in the classical approaches of the Enlightenment. Major breakthroughs came in biology, especially in Darwin's theory of evolution, as well as physics (electromagnetism), mathematics (non-Euclidean geometry, group theory) and chemistry (organic chemistry). The decline of Romanticism occurred because a new movement, Positivism, began to take hold of the ideals of the intellectuals after 1840 and lasted until about 1880.
Which movement is considered to be a dividing line between ancient thought and classical physics?
5727f92b4b864d19001640f8
The scientific revolution
0
False
Who made the heliocentric model popular?
5727f92b4b864d19001640f9
Nicolaus Copernicus
98
False
Johannes Kepler created a model of what?
5727f92b4b864d19001640fa
planetary motion
250
False
What did Johannes Kepler's model suggest about the planets?
5727f92b4b864d19001640fb
the planets follow elliptical orbits
339
False
What was Galileo's nickname?
5727f92b4b864d19001640fc
Father of Modern Physics
429
False
The scientific revolution is a convenient boundary between ancient thought and classical physics. Nicolaus Copernicus revived the heliocentric model of the solar system described by Aristarchus of Samos. This was followed by the first known model of planetary motion given by Johannes Kepler in the early 17th century, which proposed that the planets follow elliptical orbits, with the Sun at one focus of the ellipse. Galileo ("Father of Modern Physics") also made use of experiments to validate physical theories, a key element of the scientific method.
What work was printed by Isaac Newton in 1687?
5727f9a33acd2414000df12f
the Principia Mathematica
32
False
How many theories were included within the Principia Mathematica?
5727f9a33acd2414000df130
two
69
False
What concept did the Law of Gravitation deal with?
5727f9a33acd2414000df131
the fundamental force of gravity
229
False
What are Maxwell's equations about?
5727f9a33acd2414000df132
electromagnetism
458
False
In 1687, Isaac Newton published the Principia Mathematica, detailing two comprehensive and successful physical theories: Newton's laws of motion, which led to classical mechanics; and Newton's Law of Gravitation, which describes the fundamental force of gravity. The behavior of electricity and magnetism was studied by Faraday, Ohm, and others during the early 19th century. These studies led to the unification of the two phenomena into a single theory of electromagnetism, by James Clerk Maxwell (known as Maxwell's equations).
What science subject explains anomalous results?
5727faabff5b5019007d99c6
quantum theories
244
False
What year did Einstein discover the theory of general relativity?
5727faabff5b5019007d99c7
1915
527
False
Quantum theories became which subject in 1925?
5727faabff5b5019007d99c8
quantum mechanics
724
False
Which scientist noticed the relationship between the speed and distance of galaxies?
5727faabff5b5019007d99c9
Edwin Hubble
810
False
Edwin Hubble's discovery about galaxies allowed for which theory by Georges Lemaitre?
5727faabff5b5019007d99ca
the Big Bang theory
994
False
The beginning of the 20th century brought the start of a revolution in physics. The long-held theories of Newton were shown not to be correct in all circumstances. Beginning in 1900, Max Planck, Albert Einstein, Niels Bohr and others developed quantum theories to explain various anomalous experimental results, by introducing discrete energy levels. Not only did quantum mechanics show that the laws of motion did not hold on small scales, but even more disturbingly, the theory of general relativity, proposed by Einstein in 1915, showed that the fixed background of spacetime, on which both Newtonian mechanics and special relativity depended, could not exist. In 1925, Werner Heisenberg and Erwin Schrödinger formulated quantum mechanics, which explained the preceding quantum theories. The observation by Edwin Hubble in 1929 that the speed at which galaxies recede positively correlates with their distance, led to the understanding that the universe is expanding, and the formulation of the Big Bang theory by Georges Lemaître.
Who discovered nuclear fission?
5727fb6b4b864d190016413e
Otto Hahn and Fritz Strassmann
8
False
Who edited the first paper about nuclear fission?
5727fb6b4b864d190016413f
Niels Bohr and John A. Wheeler
237
False
What event was going on during the creation of the atomic bomb?
5727fb6b4b864d1900164140
World War II
308
False
The atomic bomb was a part of which movement?
5727fb6b4b864d1900164141
Big Science
602
False
What is the problem with general relativity and quantum mechanics?
5727fb6b4b864d1900164142
inconsistent with each other
981
False
In 1938 Otto Hahn and Fritz Strassmann discovered nuclear fission with radiochemical methods, and in 1939 Lise Meitner and Otto Robert Frisch wrote the first theoretical interpretation of the fission process, which was later improved by Niels Bohr and John A. Wheeler. Further developments took place during World War II, which led to the practical application of radar and the development and use of the atomic bomb. Though the process had begun with the invention of the cyclotron by Ernest O. Lawrence in the 1930s, physics in the postwar period entered into a phase of what historians have called "Big Science", requiring massive machines, budgets, and laboratories in order to test their theories and move into new frontiers. The primary patron of physics became state governments, who recognized that the support of "basic" research could often lead to technologies useful to both military and industrial applications. Currently, general relativity and quantum mechanics are inconsistent with each other, and efforts are underway to unify the two.
When did modern chemistry come into existence?
572803c92ca10214002d9b84
the sixteenth through the eighteenth centuries
30
False
Who decided that chemistry and alchemy were different?
572803c92ca10214002d9b85
Robert Boyle
252
False
What book was written by Robert Boyle in 1661?
572803c92ca10214002d9b86
The Sceptical Chymist
277
False
What was Antoine Lavoisier's nickname?
572803c92ca10214002d9b87
Father of Modern Chemistry
586
False
Which theory did the law of conservation of mass disagree with?
572803c92ca10214002d9b88
phlogiston theory
675
False
Modern chemistry emerged from the sixteenth through the eighteenth centuries through the material practices and theories promoted by alchemy, medicine, manufacturing and mining. A decisive moment came when 'chymistry' was distinguished from alchemy by Robert Boyle in his work The Sceptical Chymist, in 1661; although the alchemical tradition continued for some time after his work. Other important steps included the gravimetric experimental practices of medical chemists like William Cullen, Joseph Black, Torbern Bergman and Pierre Macquer and through the work of Antoine Lavoisier (Father of Modern Chemistry) on oxygen and the law of conservation of mass, which refuted phlogiston theory. The theory that all matter is made of atoms, which are the smallest constituents of matter that cannot be broken down without losing the basic chemical and physical properties of that matter, was provided by John Dalton in 1803, although the question took a hundred years to settle as proven. Dalton also formulated the law of mass relationships. In 1869, Dmitri Mendeleev composed his periodic table of elements on the basis of Dalton's discoveries.
What scientific act is Friedrich Wohler known for?
57282636ff5b5019007d9e0a
The synthesis of urea
0
False
What scientific field did Wohler discover?
57282636ff5b5019007d9e0b
organic chemistry
71
False
Late 19th century is marked by what event?
57282636ff5b5019007d9e0c
the exploitation of the Earth's petrochemicals
231
False
Mixing organic chemistry with living organisms created what early form of biochemistry?
57282636ff5b5019007d9e0d
physiological chemistry
635
False
Who wrote The Nature of the Chemical Bond?
57282636ff5b5019007d9e0e
Linus Pauling
849
False
The synthesis of urea by Friedrich Wöhler opened a new research field, organic chemistry, and by the end of the 19th century, scientists were able to synthesize hundreds of organic compounds. The later part of the 19th century saw the exploitation of the Earth's petrochemicals, after the exhaustion of the oil supply from whaling. By the 20th century, systematic production of refined materials provided a ready supply of products which provided not only energy, but also synthetic materials for clothing, medicine, and everyday disposable resources. Application of the techniques of organic chemistry to living organisms resulted in physiological chemistry, the precursor to biochemistry. The 20th century also saw the integration of physics and chemistry, with chemical properties explained as the result of the electronic structure of the atom. Linus Pauling's book on The Nature of the Chemical Bond used the principles of quantum mechanics to deduce bond angles in ever-more complicated molecules. Pauling's work culminated in the physical modelling of DNA, the secret of life (in the words of Francis Crick, 1953). In the same year, the Miller–Urey experiment demonstrated in a simulation of primordial processes, that basic constituents of proteins, simple amino acids, could themselves be built up from simpler molecules.
What was the work of Theophrastus on rocks called?
572826eeff5b5019007d9e1e
Peri lithōn
167
False
When were Theophrastus' ideas about fossils proven false?
572826eeff5b5019007d9e1f
the Scientific Revolution
279
False
When did Shen Kua live?
572826eeff5b5019007d9e20
1031–1095
333
False
What science did Shen Kua observe?
572826eeff5b5019007d9e21
land formation
391
False
Geology existed as a cloud of isolated, disconnected ideas about rocks, minerals, and landforms long before it became a coherent science. Theophrastus' work on rocks, Peri lithōn, remained authoritative for millennia: its interpretation of fossils was not overturned until after the Scientific Revolution. Chinese polymath Shen Kua (1031–1095) first formulated hypotheses for the process of land formation. Based on his observation of fossils in a geological stratum in a mountain hundreds of miles from the ocean, he deduced that the land was formed by erosion of the mountains and by deposition of silt.
What happened to geology during the Scientific Revolution?
572827c62ca10214002d9f66
individual theorists made important contributions
87
False
What did Robert Hooke study?
572827c62ca10214002d9f67
earthquakes
188
False
What theory did Nicholas Steno discover?
572827c62ca10214002d9f68
the theory of superposition
230
False
What book did Thomas Burnet right in 1681?
572827c62ca10214002d9f69
Sacred Theory of the Earth
356
False
What text did Burnet base his work off of?
572827c62ca10214002d9f6a
the Bible
564
False
Geology did not undergo systematic restructuring during the Scientific Revolution, but individual theorists made important contributions. Robert Hooke, for example, formulated a theory of earthquakes, and Nicholas Steno developed the theory of superposition and argued that fossils were the remains of once-living creatures. Beginning with Thomas Burnet's Sacred Theory of the Earth in 1681, natural philosophers began to explore the idea that the Earth had changed over time. Burnet and his contemporaries interpreted Earth's past in terms of events described in the Bible, but their work laid the intellectual foundations for secular interpretations of Earth history.
How old did biblical scholars think the Earth was?
572829073acd2414000df5d7
6,000 years
178
False
Jean-Etienne Guettard and NIcolas Desmarest went to France and recorded what?
572829073acd2414000df5d8
the first geological maps
331
False
In the 18th century, what changed geology drastically?
572829073acd2414000df5d9
comprehensive classification systems for rocks and minerals
500
False
What are used to create geological maps?
572829073acd2414000df5da
index fossils
1002
False
What geological theory was applied to the Paris Basin?
572829073acd2414000df5db
layers of rock could be dated by the fossils they contained
869
False
Modern geology, like modern chemistry, gradually evolved during the 18th and early 19th centuries. Benoît de Maillet and the Comte de Buffon saw the Earth as much older than the 6,000 years envisioned by biblical scholars. Jean-Étienne Guettard and Nicolas Desmarest hiked central France and recorded their observations on some of the first geological maps. Aided by chemical experimentation, naturalists such as Scotland's John Walker, Sweden's Torbern Bergman, and Germany's Abraham Werner created comprehensive classification systems for rocks and minerals—a collective achievement that transformed geology into a cutting edge field by the end of the eighteenth century. These early geologists also proposed a generalized interpretations of Earth history that led James Hutton, Georges Cuvier and Alexandre Brongniart, following in the steps of Steno, to argue that layers of rock could be dated by the fossils they contained: a principle first applied to the geology of the Paris Basin. The use of index fossils became a powerful tool for making geological maps, because it allowed geologists to correlate the rocks in one locality with those of similar age in other, distant localities. Over the first half of the 19th century, geologists such as Charles Lyell, Adam Sedgwick, and Roderick Murchison applied the new technique to rocks throughout Europe and eastern North America, setting the stage for more detailed, government-funded mapping projects in later decades.
What changed about the way geology was implemented during the 19th century?
57282a294b864d190016462e
shifted from description and classification to attempts to understand how the surface of the Earth had changed
54
False
The idea of an ice-age that completely covered a continent was suggested by whom?
57282a294b864d190016462f
Louis Agassiz
318
False
What group did Andrew Crombie Ramsay belong to?
57282a294b864d1900164630
fluvialists
404
False
What did Ramsay believe about river valleys?
57282a294b864d1900164631
were formed, over millions of years by the rivers that flow through them
470
False
What happened after radioactivity was realized?
57282a294b864d1900164632
radiometric dating methods were developed
582
False
Midway through the 19th century, the focus of geology shifted from description and classification to attempts to understand how the surface of the Earth had changed. The first comprehensive theories of mountain building were proposed during this period, as were the first modern theories of earthquakes and volcanoes. Louis Agassiz and others established the reality of continent-covering ice ages, and "fluvialists" like Andrew Crombie Ramsay argued that river valleys were formed, over millions of years by the rivers that flow through them. After the discovery of radioactivity, radiometric dating methods were developed, starting in the 20th century. Alfred Wegener's theory of "continental drift" was widely dismissed when he proposed it in the 1910s, but new data gathered in the 1950s and 1960s led to the theory of plate tectonics, which provided a plausible mechanism for it. Plate tectonics also provided a unified explanation for a wide range of seemingly unrelated geological phenomena. Since 1970 it has served as the unifying principle in geology.
What was Ignac Fulop Semmelweis' profession?
57282afc4b864d1900164646
physician
19
False
How did Semmelweis reduce puerperal fever?
57282afc4b864d1900164647
requiring physicians to wash their hands
117
False
What came after the realization that physicians should was their hands before childbirth?
57282afc4b864d1900164648
the germ theory of disease
223
False
What did Joseph Lister prove?
57282afc4b864d1900164649
antisepsis
435
False
Who did Joseph Lister base his work off of?
57282afc4b864d190016464a
Louis Pasteur
517
False
In 1847, Hungarian physician Ignác Fülöp Semmelweis dramatically reduced the occurrency of puerperal fever by simply requiring physicians to wash their hands before attending to women in childbirth. This discovery predated the germ theory of disease. However, Semmelweis' findings were not appreciated by his contemporaries and came into use only with discoveries by British surgeon Joseph Lister, who in 1865 proved the principles of antisepsis. Lister's work was based on the important findings by French biologist Louis Pasteur. Pasteur was able to link microorganisms with disease, revolutionizing medicine. He also devised one of the most important methods in preventive medicine, when in 1880 he produced a vaccine against rabies. Pasteur invented the process of pasteurization, to help prevent the spread of disease through milk and other foods.
Which scientist championed the idea of evolution?
57282bca3acd2414000df61f
Charles Darwin
176
False
What was the name of the book that Darwin wrote about evolution?
57282bca3acd2414000df620
On the Origin of Species
203
False
What was the reception of Darwin's ideas about evolution?
57282bca3acd2414000df621
both opposition and support from different parts of society
524
False
Who rediscovered the laws of inheritance?
57282bca3acd2414000df622
Moravian monk Gregor Mendel
823
False
What was the major break through for the study of genetics?
57282bca3acd2414000df623
the basic structure of DNA
1078
False
Perhaps the most prominent, controversial and far-reaching theory in all of science has been the theory of evolution by natural selection put forward by the British naturalist Charles Darwin in his book On the Origin of Species in 1859. Darwin proposed that the features of all living things, including humans, were shaped by natural processes over long periods of time. The theory of evolution in its current form affects almost all areas of biology. Implications of evolution on fields outside of pure science have led to both opposition and support from different parts of society, and profoundly influenced the popular understanding of "man's place in the universe". In the early 20th century, the study of heredity became a major investigation after the rediscovery in 1900 of the laws of inheritance developed by the Moravian monk Gregor Mendel in 1866. Mendel's laws provided the beginnings of the study of genetics, which became a major field of research for both scientific and industrial research. By 1953, James D. Watson, Francis Crick and Maurice Wilkins clarified the basic structure of DNA, the genetic material for expressing life in all its forms. In the late 20th century, the possibilities of genetic engineering became practical for the first time, and a massive international effort began in 1990 to map out an entire human genome (the Human Genome Project).
The discipline of ecology is a combination of what two subjects?
57282cbb2ca10214002d9fe6
Darwinian evolution and Humboldtian biogeography
74
False
What did the work of Louis Pasteur and Ferdinand Cohn focus on?
57282cbb2ca10214002d9fe7
the cycle of life concept
266
False
Who came up with the word "ecology"?
57282cbb2ca10214002d9fe8
Ernst Haeckel
380
False
When was the Gaia hypothesis discovered?
57282cbb2ca10214002d9fe9
in the 1960s
868
False
What movement occurred during the 1970s?
57282cbb2ca10214002d9fea
Deep Ecology
965
False
The discipline of ecology typically traces its origin to the synthesis of Darwinian evolution and Humboldtian biogeography, in the late 19th and early 20th centuries. Equally important in the rise of ecology, however, were microbiology and soil science—particularly the cycle of life concept, prominent in the work Louis Pasteur and Ferdinand Cohn. The word ecology was coined by Ernst Haeckel, whose particularly holistic view of nature in general (and Darwin's theory in particular) was important in the spread of ecological thinking. In the 1930s, Arthur Tansley and others began developing the field of ecosystem ecology, which combined experimental soil science with physiological concepts of energy and the techniques of field biology. The history of ecology in the 20th century is closely tied to that of environmentalism; the Gaia hypothesis, first formulated in the 1960s, and spreading in the 1970s, and more recently the scientific-religious movement of Deep Ecology have brought the two closer together.
What larger group does political science belong to?
57282d29ff5b5019007d9e98
social sciences
48
False
Where did the ideas of political science begin?
57282d29ff5b5019007d9e99
prehistory
404
False
In history, where could you find someone studying politics?
57282d29ff5b5019007d9e9a
in almost every geographic area
444
False
Political science is a late arrival in terms of social sciences[citation needed]. However, the discipline has a clear set of antecedents such as moral philosophy, political philosophy, political economy, history, and other fields concerned with normative determinations of what ought to be and with deducing the characteristics and functions of the ideal form of government. The roots of politics are in prehistory. In each historic period and in almost every geographic area, we can find someone studying politics and increasing political understanding.
Where did studying politics originate?
57282ded2ca10214002da000
Ancient Greece
60
False
What did Plato study?
57282ded2ca10214002da001
political systems
278
False
What method did Plato use to understand political systems?
57282ded2ca10214002da002
philosophy
430
False
What did Aristotle add to Plato's work?
57282ded2ca10214002da003
historical empirical evidence
502
False
In Western culture, the study of politics is first found in Ancient Greece. The antecedents of European politics trace their roots back even earlier than Plato and Aristotle, particularly in the works of Homer, Hesiod, Thucydides, Xenophon, and Euripides. Later, Plato analyzed political systems, abstracted their analysis from more literary- and history- oriented studies and applied an approach we would understand as closer to philosophy. Similarly, Aristotle built upon Plato's analysis to include historical empirical evidence in his analysis.
Who are Kautilya and Vishnugupta usually grouped with?
57282e763acd2414000df675
Chāṇakya
147
False
What did the Arthasastra say a king must use?
57282e763acd2414000df676
brutal measures
616
False
When was Chanakya alive?
57282e763acd2414000df677
350–-283 BCE
160
False
An ancient Indian treatise on statecraft, economic policy and military strategy by Kautilya and Viṣhṇugupta, who are traditionally identified with Chāṇakya (c. 350–-283 BCE). In this treatise, the behaviors and relationships of the people, the King, the State, the Government Superintendents, Courtiers, Enemies, Invaders, and Corporations are analysed and documented. Roger Boesche describes the Arthaśāstra as "a book of political realism, a book analysing how the political world does work and not very often stating how it ought to work, a book that frequently discloses to a king what calculating and sometimes brutal measures he must carry out to preserve the state and the common good."
What allowed political studies to spread?
57282f40ff5b5019007d9eb4
the fall of the Western Roman Empire
5
False
What new idea caused politics to cover a larger spectrum?
57282f40ff5b5019007d9eb5
monotheism
111
False
Where did politics touch in the Middle Ages?
57282f40ff5b5019007d9eb6
churches and courts
330
False
Who wrote The City of God?
57282f40ff5b5019007d9eb7
Augustine of Hippo
365
False
What did The City of God change?
57282f40ff5b5019007d9eb8
the borders between what was religious and what was political
499
False
With the fall of the Western Roman Empire, there arose a more diffuse arena for political studies. The rise of monotheism and, particularly for the Western tradition, Christianity, brought to light a new space for politics and political action[citation needed]. During the Middle Ages, the study of politics was widespread in the churches and courts. Works such as Augustine of Hippo's The City of God synthesized current philosophies and political traditions with those of Christianity, redefining the borders between what was religious and what was political. Most of the political questions surrounding the relationship between Church and State were clarified and contested in this period.
What new subject surface at the end of the 18th century?
57282fda2ca10214002da01e
Historical linguistics
0
False
Who realized that languages like Sanskrit, Persian, and Greek share the same foundation?
57282fda2ca10214002da01f
Sir William Jones
96
False
What did Sir William Jones do to document his work?
57282fda2ca10214002da020
catalog all languages of the world
242
False
What did Noam Chomsky add to the study of linguistics?
57282fda2ca10214002da021
the development of generative linguistics
702
False
What method did Chomsky use to develop generative linguistics?
57282fda2ca10214002da022
a mathematical model of language
783
False
Historical linguistics emerged as an independent field of study at the end of the 18th century. Sir William Jones proposed that Sanskrit, Persian, Greek, Latin, Gothic, and Celtic languages all shared a common base. After Jones, an effort to catalog all languages of the world was made throughout the 19th century and into the 20th century. Publication of Ferdinand de Saussure's Cours de linguistique générale created the development of descriptive linguistics. Descriptive linguistics, and the related structuralism movement caused linguistics to focus on how language changes over time, instead of just describing the differences between languages. Noam Chomsky further diversified linguistics with the development of generative linguistics in the 1950s. His effort is based upon a mathematical model of language that allows for the description and prediction of valid syntax. Additional specialties such as sociolinguistics, cognitive linguistics, and computational linguistics have emerged from collaboration between linguistics and other disciplines.
Who wrote An Inquiry into the Nature and Causes of the Wealth of Nations?
572830584b864d19001646b4
Adam Smith
40
False
What did Adam Smith's work cover?
572830584b864d19001646b5
The basis for classical economics
0
False
What idea did Adam Smith disagree with?
572830584b864d19001646b6
mercantilism
153
False
What idea did Adam Smith propose?
572830584b864d19001646b7
an "invisible hand"
240
False
Who is Marxian economics named after?
572830584b864d19001646b8
Karl Marx
340
False
The basis for classical economics forms Adam Smith's An Inquiry into the Nature and Causes of the Wealth of Nations, published in 1776. Smith criticized mercantilism, advocating a system of free trade with division of labour. He postulated an "invisible hand" that regulated economic systems made up of actors guided only by self-interest. Karl Marx developed an alternative economic theory, called Marxian economics. Marxian economics is based on the labor theory of value and assumes the value of good to be based on the amount of labor required to produce it. Under this assumption, capitalism was based on employers not paying the full value of workers labor to create profit. The Austrian school responded to Marxian economics by viewing entrepreneurship as driving force of economic development. This replaced the labor theory of value by a system of supply and demand.
What did John Maynard Keynes want to separate?
572830f74b864d19001646cc
microeconomics and macroeconomics
62
False
What concept did Milton Friedman propose after World War II?
572830f74b864d19001646cd
monetarism
357
False
How did monaterism aim to control the economy?
572830f74b864d19001646ce
using the supply and demand of money
391
False
In the 1970s, what did monaterism turn into?
572830f74b864d19001646cf
supply-side economics
517
False
How did supply-side economics try to increase the amount of money in the market?
572830f74b864d19001646d0
reducing taxes
555
False
In the 1920s, John Maynard Keynes prompted a division between microeconomics and macroeconomics. Under Keynesian economics macroeconomic trends can overwhelm economic choices made by individuals. Governments should promote aggregate demand for goods as a means to encourage economic expansion. Following World War II, Milton Friedman created the concept of monetarism. Monetarism focuses on using the supply and demand of money as a method for controlling economic activity. In the 1970s, monetarism has adapted into supply-side economics which advocates reducing taxes as a means to increase the amount of money available for economic expansion.
When was Wealth of Nations written?
57283167ff5b5019007d9ec6
1776
297
False
How present was Smith's invisible hand intended to be?
57283167ff5b5019007d9ec7
frequently
418
False
What happens in a market when there is competition?
57283167ff5b5019007d9ec8
lower prices
521
False
What is the most important part of "Wealth"?
57283167ff5b5019007d9ec9
the division of labour
871
False
The above "history of economics" reflects modern economic textbooks and this means that the last stage of a science is represented as the culmination of its history (Kuhn, 1962). The "invisible hand" mentioned in a lost page in the middle of a chapter in the middle of the to "Wealth of Nations", 1776, advances as Smith's central message.[clarification needed] It is played down that this "invisible hand" acts only "frequently" and that it is "no part of his [the individual's] intentions" because competition leads to lower prices by imitating "his" invention. That this "invisible hand" prefers "the support of domestic to foreign industry" is cleansed—often without indication that part of the citation is truncated. The opening passage of the "Wealth" containing Smith's message is never mentioned as it cannot be integrated into modern theory: "Wealth" depends on the division of labour which changes with market volume and on the proportion of productive to Unproductive labor.
What was the beginning of psychology classified as?
572831f64b864d19001646e6
a scientific enterprise
61
False
What year is most commonly referred to as the beginning of psychology?
572831f64b864d19001646e7
1879
95
False
Who has the first lab completely dedicated to psychology?
572831f64b864d19001646e8
Wilhelm Wundt
191
False
What did Hermann Ebbinghaus study?
572831f64b864d19001646e9
memory studies
385
False
What was Ivan Pavlov known for?
572831f64b864d19001646ea
classical conditioning
430
False
The end of the 19th century marks the start of psychology as a scientific enterprise. The year 1879 is commonly seen as the start of psychology as an independent field of study. In that year Wilhelm Wundt founded the first laboratory dedicated exclusively to psychological research (in Leipzig). Other important early contributors to the field include Hermann Ebbinghaus (a pioneer in memory studies), Ivan Pavlov (who discovered classical conditioning), William James, and Sigmund Freud. Freud's influence has been enormous, though more as cultural icon than a force in scientific psychology.
What is the group that human psychology belongs to?
5728327a2ca10214002da066
cognitive science
145
False
What is investigated in cognitive science?
5728327a2ca10214002da067
the mind
198
False
What inventions advanced the study of cognitive science?
5728327a2ca10214002da068
PET scans and CAT scans
393
False
What new technology could be created as a result of studying cognitive science?
5728327a2ca10214002da069
artificial intelligence
736
False
The final decades of the 20th century have seen the rise of a new interdisciplinary approach to studying human psychology, known collectively as cognitive science. Cognitive science again considers the mind as a subject for investigation, using the tools of psychology, linguistics, computer science, philosophy, and neurobiology. New methods of visualizing the activity of the brain, such as PET scans and CAT scans, began to exert their influence as well, leading some researchers to investigate the mind by investigating the brain, rather than cognition. These new forms of investigation assume that a wide understanding of the human mind is possible, and that such an understanding may be applied to other research domains, such as artificial intelligence.
What was Ibn Khaldun's profession?
572832faff5b5019007d9ee6
scientific systematic sociologist
44
False
When did modern sociology surface?
572832faff5b5019007d9ee7
early 19th century
116
False
What is the main goal of sociology?
572832faff5b5019007d9ee8
understanding the cohesion of social groups
292
False
How did Max Weber view rationalization?
572832faff5b5019007d9ee9
he believed would trap individuals in an "iron cage"
496
False
Ibn Khaldun can be regarded as the earliest scientific systematic sociologist. The modern sociology, emerged in the early 19th century as the academic response to the modernization of the world. Among many early sociologists (e.g., Émile Durkheim), the aim of sociology was in structuralism, understanding the cohesion of social groups, and developing an "antidote" to social disintegration. Max Weber was concerned with the modernization of society through the concept of rationalization, which he believed would trap individuals in an "iron cage" of rational thought. Some sociologists, including Georg Simmel and W. E. B. Du Bois, utilized more microsociological, qualitative analyses. This microlevel approach played an important role in American sociology, with the theories of George Herbert Mead and his student Herbert Blumer resulting in the creation of the symbolic interactionism approach to sociology.
Who was the major proponent of American sociology?
5728339a2ca10214002da096
Talcott Parsons
67
False
What did Parsons believe made a functional society?
5728339a2ca10214002da097
structural integration
133
False
What was the problem with the views of Parsons?
5728339a2ca10214002da098
inequalities present in the status quo
327
False
What idea from Karl Marx was used to combat the problems with structural integration?
5728339a2ca10214002da099
conflict theory
380
False
What is the main belief of conflict theory?
5728339a2ca10214002da09a
different groups compete for control over resources
521
False
American sociology in the 1940s and 1950s was dominated largely by Talcott Parsons, who argued that aspects of society that promoted structural integration were therefore "functional". This structural functionalism approach was questioned in the 1960s, when sociologists came to see this approach as merely a justification for inequalities present in the status quo. In reaction, conflict theory was developed, which was based in part on the philosophies of Karl Marx. Conflict theorists saw society as an arena in which different groups compete for control over resources. Symbolic interactionism also came to be regarded as central to sociological thinking. Erving Goffman saw social interactions as a stage performance, with individuals preparing "backstage" and attempting to control their audience through impression management. While these theories are currently prominent in sociological thought, other approaches exist, including feminist theory, post-structuralism, rational choice theory, and postmodernism.
What science is based on linguistics, mathematics, and engineering?
57283431ff5b5019007d9ef8
Computer science
0
False
How has computer science helped science as a whole?
57283431ff5b5019007d9ef9
by facilitating large-scale archiving of scientific data
424
False
What is the differing characteristic of contemporary computer science?
57283431ff5b5019007d9efa
emphasising mathematical 'theory'
546
False
Computer science, built upon a foundation of theoretical linguistics, discrete mathematics, and electrical engineering, studies the nature and limits of computation. Subfields include computability, computational complexity, database design, computer networking, artificial intelligence, and the design of computer hardware. One area in which advances in computing have contributed to more general scientific development is by facilitating large-scale archiving of scientific data. Contemporary computer science typically distinguishes itself by emphasising mathematical 'theory' in contrast to the practical emphasis of software engineering.
What text is the foundation of the study of the history of science?
572834e03acd2414000df6ef
History of the Inductive Sciences
89
False
Who wrote a more professional version of History of the Inductive Sciences?
572834e03acd2414000df6f0
George Sarton's
241
False
What was the history of science during the 20th century?
572834e03acd2414000df6f1
the history of great men and great ideas
433
False
How could Sarton's ideas be described?
572834e03acd2414000df6f2
Whiggish
519
False
Who studied the history of science?
572834e03acd2414000df6f3
interested scientists and physicians
740
False
As an academic field, history of science began with the publication of William Whewell's History of the Inductive Sciences (first published in 1837). A more formal study of the history of science as an independent discipline was launched by George Sarton's publications, Introduction to the History of Science (1927) and the Isis journal (founded in 1912). Sarton exemplified the early 20th-century view of the history of science as the history of great men and great ideas. He shared with many of his contemporaries a Whiggish belief in history as a record of the advances and delays in the march of progress. The history of science was not a recognized subfield of American history in this period, and most of the work was carried out by interested scientists and physicians rather than professional historians. With the work of I. Bernard Cohen at Harvard, the history of science became an established subdiscipline of history after 1945.
What is the large question that the history of science answers?
5728355f4b864d1900164728
what science is
90
False
What did sociology in science explain?
5728355f4b864d1900164729
the ways in which scientists work
236
False
What was the most popular method in the 1960s regarding science studies?
5728355f4b864d190016472a
to emphasize the "human component" of scientific knowledge
473
False
Much of the study of the history of science has been devoted to answering questions about what science is, how it functions, and whether it exhibits large-scale patterns and trends. The sociology of science in particular has focused on the ways in which scientists work, looking closely at the ways in which they "produce" and "construct" scientific knowledge. Since the 1960s, a common trend in science studies (the study of the sociology and history of science) has been to emphasize the "human component" of scientific knowledge, and to de-emphasize the view that scientific data are self-evident, value-free, and context-free. The field of Science and Technology Studies, an area that overlaps and often informs historical studies of science, focuses on the social context of science in both contemporary and historical periods.
What did Humboldtian science aim to do?
572835be2ca10214002da0d6
combining scientific field work with the age of Romanticism sensitivity, ethics and aesthetic ideals
65
False
Who was the model for Humboldtian science?
572835be2ca10214002da0d7
Alexander von Humboldt
317
False
What idea did positivism provide?
572835be2ca10214002da0d8
the only valid knowledge is scientific
479
False
Humboldtian science refers to the early 19th century approach of combining scientific field work with the age of Romanticism sensitivity, ethics and aesthetic ideals. It helped to install natural history as a separate field, gave base for ecology and was based on the role model of scientist, naturalist and explorer Alexander von Humboldt. The later 19th century positivism asserted that all authentic knowledge allows verification and that all authentic knowledge assumes that the only valid knowledge is scientific.
Where did the social aspect of science originate?
5728364e4b864d1900164748
Thomas Kuhn's The Structure of Scientific Revolutions in 1962
111
False
What idea did social science add to science as a whole?
5728364e4b864d1900164749
positivism did not explain the actual interactions and strategies of the human participants in science
315
False
How did Kuhn view the history of science?
5728364e4b864d190016474a
competing paradigms or conceptual systems
516
False
The mid 20th century saw a series of studies relying to the role of science in a social context, starting from Thomas Kuhn's The Structure of Scientific Revolutions in 1962. It opened the study of science to new disciplines by suggesting that the evolution of science was in part sociologically determined and that positivism did not explain the actual interactions and strategies of the human participants in science. As Thomas Kuhn put it, the history of science may be seen in more nuanced terms, such as that of competing paradigms or conceptual systems in a wider matrix that includes intellectual, cultural, economic and political themes outside of science. "Partly by selection and partly by distortion, the scientists of earlier ages are implicitly presented as having worked upon the same set of fixed problems and in accordance with the same set of fixed canons that the most recent revolution in scientific theory and method made seem scientific."
What did Scientific Knowledge and its Social Problems describe the scientific community as?
572837282ca10214002da0ec
a social construct
139
False
What was the era called when scientists were rejecting the notion of objectivity of science?
572837282ca10214002da0ed
The Science wars
219
False
What was positivism called after it was revived?
572837282ca10214002da0ee
scientism
502
False
What did scientism aim to do?
572837282ca10214002da0ef
settling enduring metaphysical and moral controversies
625
False
Further studies, e.g. Jerome Ravetz 1971 Scientific Knowledge and its Social Problems referred to the role of the scientific community, as a social construct, in accepting or rejecting (objective) scientific knowledge. The Science wars of the 1990 were about the influence of especially French philosophers, which denied the objectivity of science in general or seemed to do so. They described as well differences between the idealized model of a pure science and the actual scientific practice; while scientism, a revival of the positivism approach, saw in precise measurement and rigorous calculation the basis for finally settling enduring metaphysical and moral controversies. However, more recently some of the leading critical theorists have recognized that their postmodern deconstructions have at times been counter-productive, and are providing intellectual ammunition for reactionary interests. Bruno Latour noted that "dangerous extremists are using the very same argument of social construction to destroy hard-won evidence that could save our lives. Was I wrong to participate in the invention of this field known as science studies? Is it enough to say that we did not really mean what we meant?"
Digimon
What does Digimon stand for?
5726f3ccdd62a815002e960e
Digital Monsters
35
False
What forms of entertainment does the Digimon franchise include?
5726f3ccdd62a815002e960f
virtual pet toys, anime, manga, video games, films and a trading card game
177
False
What is the Digital World in which the Digimon creatures live?
5726f3ccdd62a815002e9610
a parallel universe that originated from Earth's various communication networks
345
False
What are the people who raise Digimon called?
5726f3ccdd62a815002e9611
"Digidestined" or "Tamers"
484
False
What are the Digimon villians main goals?
5726f3ccdd62a815002e9612
trying to destroy the fabric of the Digital world
579
False
Digital Monsters
35
What does Digi Monster stand for?
5a10f33e06e79900185c347f
True
DIGIMON)
65
What term refers to the Chinese media franchise?
5a10f33e06e79900185c3480
True
team up to defeat evil Digimon and human villains
521
What you Digi tamers do?
5a10f33e06e79900185c3481
True
the fabric of the Digital world
597
What are digidestined trying to destroy?
5a10f33e06e79900185c3482
True
Digital World
329
What is a world far from Earth?
5a10f33e06e79900185c3483
True
(デジモン Dejimon, branded as Digimon: Digital Monsters, stylized as DIGIMON), short for "Digital Monsters" (デジタルモンスター Dejitaru Monsutā), is a Japanese media franchise encompassing virtual pet toys, anime, manga, video games, films and a trading card game. The franchise focuses on Digimon creatures, which are monsters living in a "Digital World", a parallel universe that originated from Earth's various communication networks. In many incarnations, Digimon are raised by humans called "Digidestined" or "Tamers", and they team up to defeat evil Digimon and human villains who are trying to destroy the fabric of the Digital world.
When did Digimon first appear?
5727456add62a815002e9a46
1997
35
False
Name the original Digimon anime.
5727456add62a815002e9a47
Digimon Adventure
406
False
Name the Digimon video game that was released in 1999.
5727456add62a815002e9a48
Digimon World
450
False
Name two types of toys the original Digimon bore a close resemblence to.
5727456add62a815002e9a49
Tamagotchi or nano Giga Pet toys
121
False
When was the Digimon series created?
572a19286aef05140015526c
1997
35
False
What influenced the look of the Digimons?
572a19286aef05140015526d
Tamagotchi or nano Giga Pet toys
121
False
In what year was the Digimon video game released?
572a19286aef05140015526e
1999
482
False
The franchise
0
What started with a series of real pets?
5a10f49f06e79900185c3489
True
its first anime incarnation
377
What cause the franchise to lose momentum?
5a10f49f06e79900185c348a
True
an early video game
429
What was released in 1990
5a10f49f06e79900185c348b
True
anime
511
What is aired for several seasons based on the films?
5a10f49f06e79900185c348c
True
American comics
325
What American media for the original did you mom based on?
5a10f49f06e79900185c348d
True
The franchise was first created in 1997 as a series of virtual pets, akin to—and influenced in style by—the contemporary Tamagotchi or nano Giga Pet toys. The creatures were first designed to look cute and iconic even on the devices' small screens; later developments had them created with a harder-edged style influenced by American comics. The franchise gained momentum with its first anime incarnation, Digimon Adventure, and an early video game, Digimon World, both released in 1999. Several seasons of the anime and films based on them have aired, and the video game series has expanded into genres such as role-playing, racing, fighting, and MMORPGs. Other media forms have also been released.
What kind of toy were the original Digimon?
57274b1df1498d1400e8f5ca
virtual pet toy
33
False
What kind of creatures where the early digimon patterned after?
57274b1df1498d1400e8f5cb
dinosaurs
390
False
What properties of american comics were the later generations of digimon trying to capture?
57274b1df1498d1400e8f5cc
stronger and "cool."
704
False
Who was the designer responsible for the westernization of Digimon character design?
57274b1df1498d1400e8f5cd
Kenji Watanabe
438
False
What was the name of the original Digimon character?
57274b1df1498d1400e8f5ce
Tyrannomon
337
False
What was the screen size of the Digimon toy?
572a1f1c6aef0514001552c8
16 by 16 pixels
179
False
What animals were the digimon based off of?
572a1f1c6aef0514001552c9
dinosaurs
390
False
Who was the designer of the Digimon card game?
572a1f1c6aef0514001552ca
Kenji Watanabe
438
False
How did Watanabe get his influence?
572a1f1c6aef0514001552cb
American comics
591
False
Digimon
0
What was originally based on an actual pet?
5a10f78906e79900185c3493
True
dinosaurs
390
Many of the most popular Digimon on?
5a10f78906e79900185c3494
True
American comics
591
What American media influenced the first Digimon?
5a10f78906e79900185c3495
True
American comics
591
What were becoming unpopular in Japan?
5a10f78906e79900185c3496
True
character creation
729
What has mostly been in individual process throughout the franchise history?
5a10f78906e79900185c3497
True
Digimon was first conceived as a virtual pet toy in the vein of Tamagotchis and, as such, took influence from Tamagotchis' cute and round designs. The small areas of the screens (16 by 16 pixels) meant that character designers had to create monsters whose forms would be easily recognizable. As such, many of the early Digimon—including Tyrannomon, the first one ever created—were based on dinosaurs. Many further designs were created by Kenji Watanabe, who was brought in to help with the "X-Antibody" creatures and art for the Digimon collectible card game. Watanabe was one influenced by American comics, which were beginning to gain popularity in Japan, and as such began to make his characters look stronger and "cool." The character creation process, however, has for most of the franchise's history been collaborative and reliant on conversation and brainstorming.
How do digimon evolve?
572796f7f1498d1400e8fcf4
Digimental
251
False
How are digimon born?
572796f7f1498d1400e8fcf5
Digimon hatch from types of eggs which are called Digi-Eggs
0
False
What is the process of aging called for digimon?
572796f7f1498d1400e8fcf6
Digivolution
512
False
What effect does digivolution have on digimon?
572796f7f1498d1400e8fcf7
changes their appearance and increases their powers
532
False
Are digimon all mindless monsters?
572796f7f1498d1400e8fcf8
Some Digimon act feral. Most, however, are capable of intelligence and human speech
835
False
What were the eggs called that the Digimon were hatched from?
572a21651d046914007797bb
Digi-Eggs
50
False
What is the second type of Digi-Eggs called?
572a21651d046914007797bc
Digimental
251
False
What is the process called of how Digi-Eggs age?
572a21651d046914007797bd
Digivolution
512
False
What items were used to help the Digimon evolve?
572a21651d046914007797be
Digivices
961
False
Digi-Eggs
50
Did you birds hatched from what?
5a10f99606e79900185c349d
True
Digimental
251
What kind of egg do Digimon use to evolve mentally?
5a10f99606e79900185c349e
True
Digivolution,
599
How do Digi eggs evolve
5a10f99606e79900185c349f
True
their powers
571
What permanently increases when Digimon evolve?
5a10f99606e79900185c34a0
True
feral
852
How do most Digimon act?
5a10f99606e79900185c34a1
True
Digimon hatch from types of eggs which are called Digi-Eggs (デジタマ, Dejitama?). In the English iterations of the franchise there is another type of Digi-Egg that can be used to digivolve, or transform, Digimon. This second type of Digi-Egg is called a Digimental (デジメンタル, Dejimentaru?) in Japanese. (This type of Digi-Egg was also featured as a major object throughout season 2 as a way of Digivolution available only to certain characters at certain points throughout the season.) They age via a process called "Digivolution" which changes their appearance and increases their powers. The effect of Digivolution, however, is not permanent in the partner Digimon of the main characters in the anime, and Digimon who have digivolved will most of the time revert to their previous form after a battle or if they are too weak to continue. Some Digimon act feral. Most, however, are capable of intelligence and human speech. They are able to digivolve by the use of Digivices that their human partners have. In some cases, as in the first series, the DigiDestined (known as the 'Chosen Children' in the original Japanese) had to find some special items such as crests and tags so the Digimon could digivolve into further stages of evolution known as Ultimate and Mega in the dub.
Are there any circumstances under which a digimon cannot be reborn?
572798dddd62a815002ea188
if a Digimon's data is completely destroyed, they will die
580
False
What typically happens when digimon are killed?
572798dddd62a815002ea189
Any Digimon that receives a fatal wound will dissolve into infinitesimal bits of data
235
False
What are digimon made of?
572798dddd62a815002ea18a
reconfigurable data
175
False
How is a digimon reborn?
572798dddd62a815002ea18b
The data then recomposes itself as a Digi-Egg, which will hatch when rubbed gently
322
False
When was the digimon life cycle first described?
572798dddd62a815002ea18c
The first Digimon anime
0
False
What was introduced during the first Digimon anime?
572a24fe3f37b3190047873f
Digimon life cycle
39
False
What happened to a digimon that receives a fatal wound?
572a24fe3f37b31900478740
dissolve into infinitesimal bits of data
280
False
What happens to a digimon after it dissolves?
572a24fe3f37b31900478741
goes through its life cycle again
422
False
What happens if a Digimons data is completely destroyed?
572a24fe3f37b31900478742
they will die
625
False
if a Digimon's data is completely destroyed
580
Under what conditions must Digimon be reborn?
5a10fb8c06e79900185c34a7
True
dissolve into infinitesimal bits of data
280
What happens when a Digimon receives a nonfatal wound?
5a10fb8c06e79900185c34a8
True
the Digimon life cycle
35
What did the first Digimon game introduce?
5a10fb8c06e79900185c34a9
True
rubbed gently,
391
Doing what to the causes the Digimon to be reborn?
5a10fb8c06e79900185c34aa
True
Digimon
10
What is made of a set configuration of data?
5a10fb8c06e79900185c34ab
True
The first Digimon anime introduced the Digimon life cycle: They age in a similar fashion to real organisms, but do not die under normal circumstances because they are made of reconfigurable data, which can be seen throughout the show. Any Digimon that receives a fatal wound will dissolve into infinitesimal bits of data. The data then recomposes itself as a Digi-Egg, which will hatch when rubbed gently, and the Digimon goes through its life cycle again. Digimon who are reincarnated in this way will sometimes retain some or all their memories of their previous life. However, if a Digimon's data is completely destroyed, they will die.
What companies were responsible for the creation and subsequent release of the original digimon?
57279ce7708984140094e245
planned by WiZ and released by Bandai
118
False
What made digimon different from similar digital pets?
57279ce7708984140094e246
being more difficult and being able to fight other Digimon v-pets
308
False
What year was the second generation of digimon released?
57279ce7708984140094e247
1997
168
False
What was involved in the original digimon virtual pet gameplay?
57279ce7708984140094e248
Every owner would start with a Baby Digimon, train it, evolve it, take care of it, and then have battles with other Digimon owners
375
False
Who was the main market for the original digimon?
57279ce7708984140094e249
mainly for boys
226
False
What did the Digimon pets originally start out as?
572a26116aef05140015530a
Digital Monsters
44
False
When was the Digimon released by WiZ?
572a26116aef05140015530b
June 26, 1997
159
False
In what month was the second generation of the Digital Monsters Released?
572a26116aef05140015530c
December
642
False
What year was the third edition released?
572a26116aef05140015530d
1998
738
False
planned by WiZ and released by Bandai
118
What companies were responsible for the re-release Digimon
5a10fcfd06e79900185c34b1
True
Digital Monsters
44
What was originally intended for mainly girls?
5a10fcfd06e79900185c34b2
True
V-Pet
247
What predecessor's a Digimon similar to?
5a10fcfd06e79900185c34b3
True
The Digimon pet had several evolution capabilities and abilities
531
What do many owners have the same Digimon?
5a10fcfd06e79900185c34b4
True
Digimon started out as digital pets called "Digital Monsters", similar in style and concept to the Tamagotchi. It was planned by WiZ and released by Bandai on June 26, 1997. The toy began as the simple concept of a Tamagotchi mainly for boys. The V-Pet is similar to its predecessors, with the exceptions of being more difficult and being able to fight other Digimon v-pets. Every owner would start with a Baby Digimon, train it, evolve it, take care of it, and then have battles with other Digimon owners to see who was stronger. The Digimon pet had several evolution capabilities and abilities too, so many owners had different Digimon. In December, the second generation of Digital Monster was released, followed by a third edition in 1998.
What is the world in which the digimon live?
5727a40bff5b5019007d91ae
a manifestation of Earth's communication network
101
False
What happens to a digimon after they evolve?
5727a40bff5b5019007d91af
the Digimon change appearance and become much stronger, often changing in personality as well
439
False
Who accompanies the digimon as they work to save their world?
5727a40bff5b5019007d91b0
a group of mostly pre-teens
171
False
Are the children who accompany the digimon always the same?
5727a40bff5b5019007d91b1
The group of children who come in contact with the Digital World changes from series to series
534
False
What is the world of the digimon called?
5727a40bff5b5019007d91b2
DigiWorld
89
False
Where are Digimon the inhabitants of?
572a277e1d046914007797ed
DigiWorld
89
False
What group of kids are in charge of the Digimons?
572a277e1d046914007797ee
mostly pre-teens
182
False
What is the process called when Digimon get stronger?
572a277e1d046914007797ef
Digivolve
411
False
DigiWorld
89
What is a manifestation of a world far from work?
5a10ff0106e79900185c34b9
True
various evil forces.
273
What are specially trained Digimon defending the world from?
5a10ff0106e79900185c34ba
True
Digimon
1
Who accompanies special humans born to save the world?
5a10ff0106e79900185c34bb
True
The group of children who come in contact with the Digital World
534
What children stay the same from series to series?
5a10ff0106e79900185c34bc
True
personality
513
What stays the same as Digimon become stronger?
5a10ff0106e79900185c34bd
True
"Digimon" are "Digital Monsters". According to the stories, they are inhabitants of the "DigiWorld", a manifestation of Earth's communication network. The stories tell of a group of mostly pre-teens, who accompany special Digimon born to defend their world (and ours) from various evil forces. To help them surmount the most difficult obstacles found within both realms, the Digimon have the ability to evolve (Digivolve) In this process, the Digimon change appearance and become much stronger, often changing in personality as well. The group of children who come in contact with the Digital World changes from series to series.
How many series have aired since 2011?
572a28356aef051400155318
six series
28
False
What is the name of the second Digimon series?
572a28356aef051400155319
Digimon Adventure 02
81
False
When was the movie Digital Monster X-Evolution released?
572a28356aef05140015531a
January 3, 2005
1159
False
When did Digimon Xros Wars begin airing?
572a28356aef05140015531b
2010
1395
False
six series
28
How many series of aired as of 2001?
5a1100a806e79900185c34c3
True
same fictional universe
215
What world the first 5 Series Take Pl. in?
5a1100a806e79900185c34c4
True
storyline
361
What is unique in each series?
5a1100a806e79900185c34c5
True
the fifth series, Digimon Savers
1221
What was announced in December 2006?
5a1100a806e79900185c34c6
True
A sixth television series, Digimon Xros Wars
1333
Which series began in 2011
5a1100a806e79900185c34c7
True
As of 2011, there have been six series — Digimon Adventure, the follow-up sequel Digimon Adventure 02, Digimon Tamers, Digimon Frontier, Digimon Data Squad and Digimon Fusion. The first two series take place in the same fictional universe, but the third, fourth, fifth and sixth each occupy their own unique world. Each series is commonly based on the original storyline but things are added to make them unique. However, in Tamers, the Adventure universe is referred to as a commercial enterprise — a trading card game in Japan, plus a show-within-a-show in the English dub. It also features an appearance by a character from the Adventure universe. In addition, each series has spawned assorted feature films. Digimon still shows popularity, as new card series, video games, and movies are still being produced and released: new card series include Eternal Courage, Hybrid Warriors, Generations, and Operation X; the video game, Digimon Rumble Arena 2; and the previously unreleased movies Revenge of Diaboromon, Runaway Locomon, Battle of Adventurers, and Island of Lost Digimon. In Japan, Digital Monster X-Evolution, the eighth TV movie, was released on January 3, 2005, and on December 23, 2005 at Jump Festa 2006, the fifth series, Digimon Savers was announced for Japan to begin airing after a three-year hiatus of the show. A sixth television series, Digimon Xros Wars, began airing in 2010, and was followed by a second season, which started on October 2, 2011 as a direct sequel to Digimon Xros Wars.
When did the first digimon series begin airing in japan?
572a2927af94a219006aa847
March 7, 1999 in Japan
59
False
When did Digimon begin airing in America?
572a2927af94a219006aa848
August 14, 1999
117
False
What was the premise of Digimon?
572a2927af94a219006aa849
travel to the Digital World
296
False
How many people are in the original Digimon?
572a2927af94a219006aa84a
seven original characters
1508
False
March 7, 1999
59
When did the first Digimon series air in United States?
5a1101c606e79900185c34cd
True
first Digimon television series
4
What aired on Japanese TV in August 1999?
5a1101c606e79900185c34ce
True
Digivices
832
What keeps the Digimon from evolving into stronger creatures?
5a1101c606e79900185c34cf
True
Digivice
549
What did each kid select?
5a1101c606e79900185c34d0
True
The first Digimon television series, which began airing on March 7, 1999 in Japan on Fuji TV and Kids Station and on August 14, 1999 in the United States on Fox Kids dubbed by Saban Entertainment for the North American English version. Its premise is a group of 7 kids who, while at summer camp, travel to the Digital World, inhabited by creatures known as Digital Monsters, or Digimon, learning they are chosen to be "DigiDestined" ("Chosen Children" in the Japanese version) to save both the Digital and Real World from evil. Each Kid was given a Digivice which selected them to be transported to the DigiWorld and was destined to be paired up with a Digimon Partner, such as Tai being paired up with Agumon and Matt with Gabumon. The children are helped by a mysterious man/digimon named Gennai, who helps them via hologram. The Digivices help their Digimon allies to Digivolve into stronger creatures in times of peril. The Digimon usually reached higher forms when their human partners are placed in dangerous situations, such as fighting the evil forces of Devimon, Etemon and Myotismon in their Champion forms. Later, each character discovered a crest that each belonged to a person; Tai the Crest of Courage, Matt the Crest of Friendship, Sora the Crest of Love, Izzy the Crest of Knowledge, Mimi the Crest of Sincerity, Joe the Crest of Reliability, T.K. the Crest of Hope, and later Kari the Crest of Light which allowed their Digimon to digivolve into their Ultimate forms. The group consisted of seven original characters: Taichi "Tai" Kamiya, Yamato "Matt" Ishida, Sora Takenouchi, Koushiro "Izzy" Izumi, Mimi Tachikawa, Joe Kido, and Takeru "T.K." Takaishi. Later on in the series, an eighth character was introduced: Hikari "Kari" Kamiya (who is Taichi's younger sister).
When did the second series of Digimon air?
572a2a293f37b31900478765
April 2, 2000
87
False
What age are the original DigiDestined now that they are in High School?
572a2a293f37b31900478766
fourteen
186
False
Who is the new evil force that has been enslaving people?
572a2a293f37b31900478767
Digimon Kaiser
319
False
What did Ken do in order to atone for his mistakes?
572a2a293f37b31900478768
joins the DigiDestined
1208
False
The second Digimon series
0
What aired in April 2010?
5a1103d606e79900185c34d5
True
a new evil
259
Who is the Digimon Empress?
5a1103d606e79900185c34d6
True
enslaving Digimon
438
What has the Emperor been doing with dark spires and control rings?
5a1103d606e79900185c34d7
True
Digimon partner
1612
What do all the people on earth lose in the end?
5a1103d606e79900185c34d8
True
France and Australia
1353
What countries are lost to the controls spires?
5a1103d606e79900185c34d9
True
The second Digimon series is direct continuation of the first one, and began airing on April 2, 2000. Three years later, with most of the original DigiDestined now in high school at age fourteen, the Digital World was supposedly secure and peaceful. However, a new evil has appeared in the form of the Digimon Emperor (Digimon Kaiser) who as opposed to previous enemies is a human just like the DigiDestined. The Digimon Emperor has been enslaving Digimon with Dark Rings and Control Spires and has somehow made regular Digivolution impossible. However, five set Digi-Eggs with engraved emblems had been appointed to three new DigiDestined along with T.K. and Kari, two of the DigiDestined from the previous series. This new evolutionary process, dubbed Armor Digivolution helps the new DigiDestined to defeat evil lurking in the Digital World. Eventually, the DigiDestined defeat the Digimon Emperor, more commonly known as Ken Ichijouji on Earth, only with the great sacrifice of Ken's own Digimon, Wormmon. Just when things were thought to be settled, new Digimon enemies made from the deactivated Control Spires start to appear and cause trouble in the Digital World. To atone for his past mistakes, Ken joins the DigiDestined, being a DigiDestined himself, with his Partner Wormmon revived to fight against them. They soon save countries including France and Australia from control spires and defeat MaloMyotismon (BelialVamdemon), the digivolved form of Myotismon (Vamdemon) from the previous series. They stop the evil from destroying the two worlds, and at the end, every person on Earth gains their own Digimon partner.
When did the third Digimon series begin?
572a2b011d046914007797fb
April 1, 2001
48
False
What can tamers do in order to give their partners advantages?
572a2b011d046914007797fc
slide game cards through their "Digivices
979
False
What is the act called of giving partners advantages in Digimon?
572a2b011d046914007797fd
Digi-Modify
1115
False
The third Digimon series
0
Which series beginning April 2000?
5a1105a106e79900185c34df
True
Digimon game merchandise
172
What is not needed to provide power boost to Digimon
5a1105a106e79900185c34e0
True
the Lovecraftian nature of the last arc
1713
Why is the card game controversial?
5a1105a106e79900185c34e1
True
by sliding a mysterious blue card through his card reader
440
Howdy Henry create his own Digimon partner?
5a1105a106e79900185c34e2
True
a new Digimon
575
What did Rika sketch?
5a1105a106e79900185c34e3
True
The third Digimon series, which began airing on April 1, 2001, is set largely in a "real world" where the Adventure and Adventure 02 series are television shows, and where Digimon game merchandise (based on actual items) become key to providing power boosts to real Digimon which appear in that world. The plot revolves around three Tamers, Takato Matsuki, Rika Nonaka, and Henry Wong. It began with Takato creating his own Digimon partner by sliding a mysterious blue card through his card reader, which then became a D-Power. Guilmon takes form from Takato's sketchings of a new Digimon. (Tamers’ only human connection to the Adventure series is Ryo Akiyama, a character featured in some of the Digimon video games and who made an appearance in some occasions of the Adventure story-line.) Some of the changes in this series include the way the Digimon digivolve with the introduction of Biomerge-Digivolution and the way their "Digivices" work. In this series, the Tamers can slide game cards through their "Digivices" and give their Digimon partners certain advantages, as in the card game. This act is called "Digi-Modify" (Card Slash in the Japanese version). The same process was often used to Digivolve the Digimon, but as usual, emotions play a big part in the digivolving process. Unlike the two seasons before it and most of the seasons that followed, Digimon Tamers takes a darker and more realistic approach to its story featuring Digimon who do not reincarnate after their deaths and more complex character development in the original Japanese. The anime has become controversial over the decade, with debates about how appropriate this show actually is for its "target" audience, especially due to the Lovecraftian nature of the last arc. The English dub is more lighthearted dialogue-wise, though still not as much as previous series.
When did the fourth series of Digimon begin?
572a2ba8af94a219006aa861
April 7, 2002
49
False
What was the main focus surrounding the fourth series?
572a2ba8af94a219006aa862
Spirit Evolution
165
False
What did the characters use to transform themselves into special Digimons?
572a2ba8af94a219006aa863
D-Tectors
223
False
After the characters transformed into special Digimons, what were they called?
572a2ba8af94a219006aa864
Legendary Warriors
309
False
The fourth Digimon series
0
What began in August 2002?
5a1106b606e79900185c34e9
True
The fourth
0
What season spirit power the focus of?
5a1106b606e79900185c34ea
True
D-Tectors
223
What device transformed regular Digimon into special Digimon?
5a1106b606e79900185c34eb
True
Legendary Warriors
309
What were special humans called?
5a1106b606e79900185c34ec
True
Lucemon
1404
To the Digidestined stop from reawakening?
5a1106b606e79900185c34ed
True
The fourth Digimon series, which began airing on April 7, 2002, radically departs from the previous three by focusing on a new and very different kind of evolution, Spirit Evolution, in which the human characters use their D-Tectors (this series' Digivice) to transform themselves into special Digimon called Legendary Warriors, detracting from the customary formula of having digital partners. After receiving unusual phone messages from Ophanimon (one of the three ruling Digimon alongside Seraphimon and Cherubimon) Takuya Kanbara, Koji Minamoto, Junpei Shibayama, Zoe Orimoto, Tommy Himi, and Koichi Kimura go to a subway station and take a train to the Digital World. Summoned by Ophanimon, the Digidestined realize that they must find the ten legendary spirits and stop the forces of Cherubimon from physically destroying the Digital World. After finding the ten spirits of the Legendary Warriors and defeating Mercurymon, Grumblemon, Ranamon, and Arbormon, they finally end up fighting Cherubimon hoping to foil his effort to dominate the Digital World. After the defeat of Cherubimon, the Digidestined find they must face an even greater challenge as they try to stop the Royal Knights—Dynasmon and Crusadermon—from destroying the Digital World and using the collected data to revive the original ruler of the Digital World: the tyrannical Lucemon. Ultimately the Digidestined fail in preventing Lucemon from reawakening but they do manage to prevent him from escaping into the Real World. In the final battle, all of the legendary spirits the digidestined have collected thus far merge and create Susanoomon. With this new form, the digidestined are able to effectively defeat Lucemon and save the Digital World. In general, Frontier has a much lighter tone than that of Tamers, yet remains darker than Adventure and Adventure 02.
How long did Digimon stay off the air before returning?
572a2c616aef051400155338
three-year hiatus
8
False
What year did the fifth  series start?
572a2c616aef051400155339
April 2, 2006
66
False
What was the main focus of the 5th season?
572a2c616aef05140015533a
D.A.T.S. ("Digital Accident Tactics Squad")
364
False
What age group did the season target with its darker theme?
572a2c616aef05140015533b
ages 16 to 21
1530
False
What was the original target age for the Digimon series?
572a2c616aef05140015533c
children aged 6 to 10
1741
False
fifth Digimon
29
What season followed a four year break?
5a1107e006e79900185c34f3
True
drastic change in character designs and story-line
214
How did they attempt to reconnect with her old audience?
5a1107e006e79900185c34f4
True
6 to 10
1755
What age group was targeted with the seasons lighter theme?
5a1107e006e79900185c34f5
True
16 to 21
1535
The darker themed English dubbed version was aimed at what order age group?
5a1107e006e79900185c34f6
True
Well Go USA
2791
What was released on Disney instead of DVD?
5a1107e006e79900185c34f7
True
After a three-year hiatus, a fifth Digimon series began airing on April 2, 2006. Like Frontier, Savers has no connection with the previous installments, and also marks a new start for the Digimon franchise, with a drastic change in character designs and story-line, in order to reach a broader audience. The story focuses on the challenges faced by the members of D.A.T.S. ("Digital Accident Tactics Squad"), an organization created to conceal the existence of the Digital World and Digimon from the rest of mankind, and secretly solve any Digimon-related incidents occurring on Earth. Later the D.A.T.S. is dragged into a massive conflict between Earth and the Digital World, triggered by an ambitious human scientist named Akihiro Kurata, determined to make use of the Digimon for his own personal gains. The English version was dubbed by Studiopolis and it premiered on the Jetix block on Toon Disney on October 1, 2007. Digivolution in Data Squad requires the human partner's DNA ("Digital Natural Ability" in the English version and "Digisoul" in the Japanese version) to activate, a strong empathy with their Digimon and a will to succeed. 'Digimon Savers' also introduces a new form of digivolving called Burst Mode which is essentially the level above Mega (previously the strongest form a digimon could take). Like previously in Tamers, this plot takes on a dark tone throughout the story and the anime was aimed, originally in Japan, at an older audience consisting of late teens and people in their early twenties from ages 16 to 21. Because of that, along with the designs, the anime being heavily edited and localized for western US audiences like past series, and the English dub being aimed mostly toward younger audiences of children aged 6 to 10 and having a lower TV-Y7-FV rating just like past dubs, Studiopolis dubbed the anime on Jetix with far more edits, changes, censorship, and cut footage. This included giving the Japanese characters full Americanized names and American surnames as well as applying far more Americanization (Marcus Damon as opposed to the Japanese Daimon Masaru), cultural streamlining and more edits to their version similar to the changes 4Kids often made (such as removal of Japanese text for the purpose of cultural streamlining). Despite all that, the setting of the country was still in Japan and the characters were Japanese in the dub. This series was the first to show any Japanese cultural concepts that were unfamiliar with American audiences (such as the manju), which were left unedited and used in the English dub. Also despite the heavy censorship and the English dub aimed at young children, some of the Digimon's attacks named after real weapons such as RizeGreymon's Trident Revolver are not edited and used in the English dub. Well Go USA released it on DVD instead of Disney. The North American English dub was televised on Jetix in the U.S. and on the Family Channel in Canada.
How long after the 5th season did the next one start?
572a2d423f37b31900478773
Three and a quarter years
0
False
When did the sixth season of Digimon begin airing?
572a2d423f37b31900478774
July 6, 2010
283
False
Who is the main character in the sixth Digimon series?
572a2d423f37b31900478775
Mikey Kudō
504
False
Who did the Fusion fighters find themselves in battle with?
572a2d423f37b31900478776
Blue Flare
1267
False
When did the English dub for the sixth season start airing?
572a2d423f37b31900478777
September 7, 2013
1907
False
July 6, 2010
283
Wendy did a fifth season begin airing in the United States?
5a1108e506e79900185c34fd
True
the plot taking on the younger, lighter tone
371
How did the six season differ from the first four seasons?
5a1108e506e79900185c34fe
True
multiple Digimon
739
What was Shotmon able to combine
5a1108e506e79900185c34ff
True
The English dub of the series
1846
What did Nickelodeon refuse to air?
5a1108e506e79900185c3500
True
Three and a quarter years after the end of the fifth series, a new sixth series was confirmed by Bandai for the Digimon anime, its official name of the series revealed in the June issue of Shueisha's V Jump magazine being Digimon Xros Wars. It began airing in Japan on TV Asahi from July 6, 2010 onwards. Reverting to the design style of the first four series as well as the plot taking on the younger, lighter tone present in series one, two and four throughout the story. The story follows a boy named Mikey Kudō (Taiki Kudo in Japan) who, along with his friends, ends up in the Digital World where they meet Shoutmon and his Digimon friends. Wielding a digivice known as a Fusion Loader (Xros Loader in Japan), Mikey is able to combine multiple Digimon onto one to enhance his power, Shoutmon being the usual core of the combination, using a technique known as 'DigiFuse' (Digi-Xros in Japan). Forming Team Fusion Fighters (Team Xros Heart in Japan), Mikey, Shoutmon and their friends travel through the Digital World to liberate it from the evil Bagra Army, led by Bagramon(Lord Bagra in English), and Midnight, a shady group led by AxeKnightmon with Nene as a figurehead before joining the Fusion Fighters. The Fusion Fighters also finds themselves at odds with Blue Flare, led by Christopher Aonuma (Kiriha Anouma in Japan). The second arc of Xros Wars was subtitled The Evil Death Generals and the Seven Kingdoms. It saw the main cast reshuffled with a new wardrobe while Angie (Akari in Japan) and Jeremy (Zenjiro in Japan) stay behind in the Human World; thus making Mikey, Christopher and Nene the lead protagonists as they set off to face the Seven Death Generals of the Bagra Army and AxeKnightmon's new pawn: Nene's brother Ewan (Yuu in Japan). A new evolution known as Super Digivolution was introduced at the end of the first arc. The English dub of the series began airing on Nickelodeon on September 7, 2013, which is produced by Saban Brands.
When was the sequel announcement for the third arc?
572a2dee6aef051400155342
August 17, 2011
3
False
What was the original run of the third arc of Digimon?
572a2dee6aef051400155343
October 2, 2011 to March 25, 2012
180
False
Who was the main character in the third arc series?
572a2dee6aef051400155344
Tagiru Akashi and his partner Gumdramon
284
False
What is the dimension called between the human world and digital world?
572a2dee6aef051400155345
DigiQuartz
552
False
a sequel set one year later
57
What was announced in October 2011
5a1109b106e79900185c3505
True
October 2, 2011 to March 25, 2012
180
When was the third season aired?
5a1109b106e79900185c3506
True
DigiQuartz
552
What lies between the digital world?
5a1109b106e79900185c3507
True
a tear in Space and Time
760
What causes all the Digimon universe to scatter?
5a1109b106e79900185c3508
True
On August 17, 2011, Shueisha's V-Jump magazine announced a sequel set one year later, a third arc of Xros Wars subtitled The Young Hunters Who Leapt Through Time, which aired from October 2, 2011 to March 25, 2012, following on from the previous arc. It focuses on a new protagonist, Tagiru Akashi and his partner Gumdramon who embark on a new journey with an older Mikey, Shoutmon, an older Ewan and the revived Damemon, along with other new comrades as they deal with a hidden dimension that lies between the Human World and the Digital World called DigiQuartz. The series finale reintroduces the heroes of the previous five seasons as they all come together and help the current heroes in the final battle due to the fact that the DigiQuartz is essentially a tear in Space and Time, allowing all of the Digimon universes to converge.
How long after Digimon Fusion was a new series announced?
572a2eb21d04691400779827
30 months
35
False
When was the 15th year anniversary held for Digimon?
572a2eb21d04691400779828
August 2014
146
False
Rather than a TV series, What kind of series would the Digimon become?
572a2eb21d04691400779829
6-part theatrical film series
713
False
Where are you able to watch the new series when it is released?
572a2eb21d0469140077982a
Crunchyroll and Hulu
809
False
May 6, 2015
626
When was it announced a tri would be a television series?
5a110aab06e79900185c350d
True
Hulu
825
Is streaming the television series the same day that premieres
5a110aab06e79900185c350e
True
A new Digimon series
0
What was announced thirty months after the franchises fifteenth anniversary?
5a110aab06e79900185c350f
True
the protagonists from the original Digimon Adventure series
194
Who were now in middle school?
5a110aab06e79900185c3510
True
A new Digimon series was announced 30 months after the end of Digimon Fusion at a 15th anniversary concert and theater event for the franchise in August 2014. The series announced the return of the protagonists from the original Digimon Adventure series, most of them now as high school students. A countdown clicking game was posted on the show's official website, offering news when specific clicks were met. On December 13, 2014 the series title and a key visual featuring character designs by Atsuya Uki were revealed with Keitaro Motonaga announced as director with a tentative premiere date of Spring, 2015. However, on May 6, 2015, it was announced that tri. would not be a television series, but rather a 6-part theatrical film series. The films are being streamed in episodic format outside Japan by Crunchyroll and Hulu from the same day they premiere on Japanese theaters.
How soon after did another series start after the Digimon Adventure 02?
572a303f3f37b31900478797
three years
18
False
Whats the name of the group that defeats Cody and Ken?
572a303f3f37b31900478798
Alphamon
392
False
What happened for the first time to the DigiDestined in the film series?
572a303f3f37b31900478799
the Mega level
781
False
The series is set three years after the events of Digimon Adventure 02, when Digimon who turn rogue by a mysterious infection appear to wreak havoc in the Human World. Tai and the other DigiDestined from the original series reunite with their partners and start fighting back with support from the Japanese government, while Davis, Yolei, Cody and Ken are defeated by a powerful enemy called Alphamon and disappear without a trace. Tai and the others also meet another DigiDestined called Meiko Mochizuki and her partner Meicoomon who become their friends, until Meicoomon turns hostile as well and flees after an encounter with Ken, who reappears suddenly, once again as the Digimon Emperor. The film series also feature several DigiDestined having their partners Digivolve up to the Mega level for the first time, a feat only Tai and Matt had achieved previously.
How many Digimon movies have been released in Japan?
572a31481d0469140077982f
nine Digimon movies
16
False
How many movies were directly connected to the anime series?
572a31481d04691400779830
seven
65
False
What year was Digimon: The movie released in the US/Canada?
572a31481d04691400779831
October 6, 2000
437
False
nine
16
How many Digimon movies have been released in the United States?
5a110ff906e79900185c3515
True
their respective anime series
98
What were the first seven not connected to?
5a110ff906e79900185c3516
True
October 6, 2000,
437
What were the first three Japanese movies released in the United States and Canada?
5a110ff906e79900185c3517
True
X-Evolution and Ultimate Power! Activate Burst Mode
231
What were the only two movies distributed internationally?
5a110ff906e79900185c3518
True
There have been nine Digimon movies released in Japan. The first seven were directly connected to their respective anime series; Digital Monster X-Evolution originated from the Digimon Chronicle merchandise line. All movies except X-Evolution and Ultimate Power! Activate Burst Mode have been released and distributed internationally. Digimon: The Movie, released in the U.S. and Canada territory by Fox Kids through 20th Century Fox on October 6, 2000, consists of the union of the first three Japanese movies.
What magazine were given their own original stories of Digimon?
572a31ecaf94a219006aa87f
UK comics
304
False
What series did the UK magazine storyline follow?
572a31ecaf94a219006aa880
Adventure 02
531
False
What happened to the magazines after their run of Digimon?
572a31ecaf94a219006aa881
both magazines were cancelled
1072
False
episodes
149
What did the UK create the adaptations of?
5a11111906e79900185c351d
True
the Dark Horse titles
193
What did Germany retreat?
5a11111906e79900185c351e
True
UK comics
304
What words that replicas of adventure 02?
5a11111906e79900185c351f
True
movies
850
What remains unloved until 2008?
5a11111906e79900185c3520
True
The European publishing company, Panini, approached Digimon in different ways in different countries. While Germany created their own adaptations of episodes, the United Kingdom (UK) reprinted the Dark Horse titles, then translated some of the German adaptations of Adventure 02 episodes. Eventually the UK comics were given their own original stories, which appeared in both the UK's official Digimon Magazine and the official UK Fox Kids companion magazine, Wickid. These original stories only roughly followed the continuity of Adventure 02. When the comic switched to the Tamers series the storylines adhered to continuity more strictly; sometimes it would expand on subject matter not covered by the original Japanese anime (such as Mitsuo Yamaki's past) or the English adaptations of the television shows and movies (such as Ryo's story or the movies that remained undubbed until 2005). In a money saving venture, the original stories were later removed from Digimon Magazine, which returned to printing translated German adaptations of Tamers episodes. Eventually, both magazines were cancelled.
What did the Digimon series end up having lots of during the series?
572a326f6aef05140015535e
video games
41
False
What were the first two North American games released?
572a326f6aef05140015535f
Digimon World, Digimon World 2
400
False
Name one of the genres from any of the Digimon video games?
572a326f6aef051400155360
strategy
282
False
video games
41
What did the Digimon series only have a few of?
5a11120a06e79900185c3525
True
video games
41
What usually follows the anime storyline?
5a11120a06e79900185c3526
True
Digimon World, Digimon World 2
400
Over the first two Japanese games released?
5a11120a06e79900185c3527
True
life simulation, adventure, video card game, strategy and racing games
237
The card games included what genre
5a11120a06e79900185c3528
True
The Digimon series has a large number of video games which usually have their own independent storylines with a few sometimes tying into the stories of the anime series or manga series. The games consists of a number of genres including life simulation, adventure, video card game, strategy and racing games, though they are mainly action role-playing games. The games released in North America are: Digimon World, Digimon World 2, Digimon World 3, Digimon World 4, Digimon Digital Card Battle, Digimon Rumble Arena, Digimon Rumble Arena 2, Digimon Battle Spirit, Digimon Battle Spirit 2, Digimon Racing, Digimon World DS, Digimon World Data Squad, Digimon World Dawn and Dusk, Digimon World Championship, and Digimon Masters.
In what year did Bandai post information about a reboot on his website?
572a32e16aef051400155364
2011
3
False
What year is the video game Digimon Story: Cyber Sleuth set to be released?
572a32e16aef051400155365
2015
359
False
When was the Nintendo 3DS Digimon World Re:Digitize released?
572a32e16aef051400155366
2013
265
False
posted a countdown on a teaser site
16
What did bandai do in 2012?
5a11132706e79900185c352d
True
countdown
25
What revealed a real release of the Digimon series?
5a11132706e79900185c352e
True
Digimon World Re:Digitize
229
What did Sony release enhanced version of
5a11132706e79900185c352f
True
Another role-playing game by the name Digimon Story: Cyber Sleuth
271
What release was canceled for 2015
5a11132706e79900185c3530
True
Digimon Story: Cyber Sleuth
309
What's been released in North America with Japanese subtitles?
5a11132706e79900185c3531
True
In 2011, Bandai posted a countdown on a teaser site. Once the countdown was finished, it revealed a reboot of the Digimon World series titled Digimon World Re:Digitize. An enhanced version of the game released on Nintendo 3DS as Digimon World Re:Digitize Decode in 2013. Another role-playing game by the name Digimon Story: Cyber Sleuth is set for release in 2015 for PlayStation Vita. It is part of the Digimon Story sub-series, originally on Nintendo DS and has also been released with English subtitles in North America.
Glacier
How long does it take glaciers to form?
5726f7fe5951b619008f8397
many years, often centuries
216
False
Do glaciers form on land, in the sea, or a combination of both?
5726f7fe5951b619008f8398
only on land
499
False
Which types of ice form on a body of water's surface?
5726f7fe5951b619008f8399
sea ice and lake ice
551
False
What causes glaciers to deform and flow?
5726f7fe5951b619008f839a
stresses induced by their weight
284
False
What are some distinguishing glacial features?
5726f7fe5951b619008f839b
crevasses, seracs
327
False
glacier
2
What is a semi-permanent body of ice that moves under its own weight?
5a356ecd788daf001a5f85ee
True
glacier
2
What forms were ice accumulates?
5a356ecd788daf001a5f85ef
True
their weight
304
What causes glaciers to remain smooth in uniform?
5a356ecd788daf001a5f85f0
True
sea ice and lake ice
551
What other kinds of ice are thicker than glaciers?
5a356ecd788daf001a5f85f1
True
A glacier (US /ˈɡleɪʃər/ or UK /ˈɡlæsiə/) is a persistent body of dense ice that is constantly moving under its own weight; it forms where the accumulation of snow exceeds its ablation (melting and sublimation) over many years, often centuries. Glaciers slowly deform and flow due to stresses induced by their weight, creating crevasses, seracs, and other distinguishing features. They also abrade rock and debris from their substrate to create landforms such as cirques and moraines. Glaciers form only on land and are distinct from the much thinner sea ice and lake ice that form on the surface of bodies of water.
How much glacial ice is found surrounding the poles?
5726f8e35951b619008f83bd
99%
10
False
Glaciers are found in mountain ranges on every continent except for which outlier?
5726f8e35951b619008f83be
Australia
158
False
How much of Earth's land surface do glaciers cover?
5726f8e35951b619008f83bf
about 10 percent
394
False
What is the average thickness of an Antartican glacier?
5726f8e35951b619008f83c0
2,100 m (7,000 ft)
598
False
What percent of Antartica's land is covered by glaciers?
5726f8e35951b619008f83c1
98 percent
509
False
ice sheets in the polar regions
54
Where is 99% of the world snow contained?
5a35712a788daf001a5f85f6
True
glaciers
91
What can be found on every continent of the world?
5a35712a788daf001a5f85f7
True
10 percent
400
What percentage of the polar regions land surface is covered with glaciers?
5a35712a788daf001a5f85f8
True
Antarctica's
523
What Connie Is Covered by 13,000,000 mi.² of glaciers?
5a35712a788daf001a5f85f9
True
35°N and 35°S,
221
Between what one want to latitudes or glaciers only found in valleys?
5a35712a788daf001a5f85fa
True
On Earth, 99% of glacial ice is contained within vast ice sheets in the polar regions, but glaciers may be found in mountain ranges on every continent except Australia, and on a few high-latitude oceanic islands. Between 35°N and 35°S, glaciers occur only in the Himalayas, Andes, Rocky Mountains, a few high mountains in East Africa, Mexico, New Guinea and on Zard Kuh in Iran. Glaciers cover about 10 percent of Earth's land surface. Continental glaciers cover nearly 13,000,000 km2 (5×10^6 sq mi) or about 98 percent of Antarctica's 13,200,000 km2 (5.1×10^6 sq mi), with an average thickness of 2,100 m (7,000 ft). Greenland and Patagonia also have huge expanses of continental glaciers.
Do Earth's lakes or glaciers hold the most freshwater?
5726f9ba708984140094d76f
glaciers
66
False
What causes glaciers to release meltwater?
5726f9ba708984140094d770
warmer summer temperatures
220
False
In which area are summer temperatures not high enough to release meltwater from glaciers?
5726f9ba708984140094d771
Antarctic environments
420
False
Under what circumstances would humans require water from a glacier?
5726f9ba708984140094d772
when other sources may be scant
362
False
Glacial ice
0
Where is all the fresh water on earth contained?
5a35755b788daf001a5f8600
True
glaciers from temperate, alpine and seasonal polar climates
66
What glaciers often release place during warm periods?
5a35755b788daf001a5f8601
True
meltwater
207
What creates in important water source for many plants and animals but not humans?
5a35755b788daf001a5f8602
True
plants, animals and human
331
Who benefits from the Antarctic's meltwater?
5a35755b788daf001a5f8603
True
Glacial ice is the largest reservoir of freshwater on Earth. Many glaciers from temperate, alpine and seasonal polar climates store water as ice during the colder seasons and release it later in the form of meltwater as warmer summer temperatures cause the glacier to melt, creating a water source that is especially important for plants, animals and human uses when other sources may be scant. Within high altitude and Antarctic environments, the seasonal temperature difference is often not sufficient to release meltwater.
At what dimensions are glaciers called ice sheets or continental glaciers?
5726fb79dd62a815002e96e0
50,000 km2 (19,000 sq mi)
27
False
How many extant ice sheets exist?
5726fb79dd62a815002e96e1
two
244
False
How much would global sea levels rise if Greenland and Antartica's glaciers were to melt?
5726fb79dd62a815002e96e2
70 m (230 ft)
403
False
What is the term for ice that protrude's from a glacier's surface?
5726fb79dd62a815002e96e3
nunataks
170
False
Narrow, fast-moving pathways on an ice sheet are called what?
5726fb79dd62a815002e96e4
ice streams
618
False
ice sheets or continental glaciers.
64
What are glaciers smaller it in 50,000 km² called?
5a357645788daf001a5f8608
True
underlying topography
142
What can often be seen beneath the sheets?
5a357645788daf001a5f8609
True
Antarctica and Greenland
267
Where a sheets now extinct?
5a357645788daf001a5f860a
True
ice shelves
484
What are ice sheets that cover the sea called?
5a357645788daf001a5f860b
True
ice streams
618
What you shelves become is a melt?
5a357645788daf001a5f860c
True
Glacial bodies larger than 50,000 km2 (19,000 sq mi) are called ice sheets or continental glaciers. Several kilometers deep, they obscure the underlying topography. Only nunataks protrude from their surfaces. The only extant ice sheets are the two that cover most of Antarctica and Greenland. They contain vast quantities of fresh water, enough that if both melted, global sea levels would rise by over 70 m (230 ft). Portions of an ice sheet or cap that extend into water are called ice shelves; they tend to be thin with limited slopes and reduced velocities. Narrow, fast-moving sections of an ice sheet are called ice streams. In Antarctica, many ice streams drain into large ice shelves. Some drain directly into the sea, often with an ice tongue, like Mertz Glacier.
What are glaciers called that end in the sea?
5726fc9f5951b619008f8419
Tidewater glaciers
0
False
Most glaciers from Greenland, Antarctica, and Southeast Alaska are of which type?
5726fc9f5951b619008f841a
Tidewater glaciers
0
False
Are tidewater glaciers more or less affected by climate change than other glaciers?
5726fc9f5951b619008f841b
much less
509
False
Do tidewater glaciers calve above or below sea level?
5726fc9f5951b619008f841c
above
334
False
How are icebergs formed?
5726fc9f5951b619008f841d
As the ice reaches the sea, pieces break off, or calve
230
False
glaciers that terminate in the sea
23
What are tidal glaciers?
5a3584be788daf001a5f8612
True
pieces break off
258
Hetero icebergs form glaciers?
5a3584be788daf001a5f8613
True
climate change
535
What affects tidewater glaciers more than others?
5a3584be788daf001a5f8614
True
Tidewater
428
What type of glaciers have been retreating for centuries?
5a3584be788daf001a5f8615
True
Tidewater glaciers are glaciers that terminate in the sea, including most glaciers flowing from Greenland, Antarctica, Baffin and Ellesmere Islands in Canada, Southeast Alaska, and the Northern and Southern Patagonian Ice Fields. As the ice reaches the sea, pieces break off, or calve, forming icebergs. Most tidewater glaciers calve above sea level, which often results in a tremendous impact as the iceberg strikes the water. Tidewater glaciers undergo centuries-long cycles of advance and retreat that are much less affected by the climate change than those of other glaciers.
From where is the temperature of a glacier measured?
5726fdb1f1498d1400e8f1d4
base alone
492
False
Which type of glacier is above or at freezing at it's interface and is able to slide?
5726fdb1f1498d1400e8f1d5
warm-based glacier
622
False
What temperature makes a glacier polythermal?
5726fdb1f1498d1400e8f1d6
partly cold-based and partly warm-based
913
False
What temperature determines a polar glacier?
5726fdb1f1498d1400e8f1d7
always below freezing point from the surface to its base
132
False
What temperature characteristic determines a temperate glacier?
5726fdb1f1498d1400e8f1d8
melting point throughout the year, from its surface to its base
37
False
freezing point
145
What temperature is a polar glacier always above?
5a358613788daf001a5f861a
True
melting point
37
What temperature is a temperate glacier always above?
5a358613788daf001a5f861b
True
temperate and polar ice
287
What two types of ice are contained in a polar glacier?
5a358613788daf001a5f861c
True
above or at freezing at the interface
644
Why are warm based glaciers not able to slide?
5a358613788daf001a5f861d
True
frozen to the underlying substrate
584
Why is it cold basically sure able to slide?
5a358613788daf001a5f861e
True
Thermally, a temperate glacier is at melting point throughout the year, from its surface to its base. The ice of a polar glacier is always below freezing point from the surface to its base, although the surface snowpack may experience seasonal melting. A sub-polar glacier includes both temperate and polar ice, depending on depth beneath the surface and position along the length of the glacier. In a similar way, the thermal regime of a glacier is often described by the temperature at its base alone. A cold-based glacier is below freezing at the ice-ground interface, and is thus frozen to the underlying substrate. A warm-based glacier is above or at freezing at the interface, and is able to slide at this contact. This contrast is thought to a large extent to govern the ability of a glacier to effectively erode its bed, as sliding ice promotes plucking at rock from the surface below. Glaciers which are partly cold-based and partly warm-based are known as polythermal.
Under what circumstances do glaciers form?
5726fec6dd62a815002e973c
where the accumulation of snow and ice exceeds ablation
14
False
What is a cirque?
5726fec6dd62a815002e973d
The area in which a glacier forms
71
False
What shape is a cirque, generally?
5726fec6dd62a815002e973e
armchair-shaped
154
False
How much ice and snow is minimally necessary to begin to slide on steep glaciers?
5726fec6dd62a815002e973f
15 m (50 ft)
855
False
Glaciers
0
What forms were snow and ice accumulation is equal to its melting
5a358b22788daf001a5f8624
True
cirque
117
What geological features formed by glaciers?
5a358b22788daf001a5f8625
True
it begins to move
724
What happens in a minimum of 15 feet of snow?
5a358b22788daf001a5f8626
True
a combination of surface slope, gravity and pressure.
749
What causes a glaciers stop moving?
5a358b22788daf001a5f8627
True
Glaciers form where the accumulation of snow and ice exceeds ablation. The area in which a glacier forms is called a cirque (corrie or cwm) - a typically armchair-shaped geological feature (such as a depression between mountains enclosed by arêtes) - which collects and compresses through gravity the snow which falls into it. This snow collects and is compacted by the weight of the snow falling above it forming névé. Further crushing of the individual snowflakes and squeezing the air from the snow turns it into 'glacial ice'. This glacial ice will fill the cirque until it 'overflows' through a geological weakness or vacancy, such as the gap between two mountains. When the mass of snow and ice is sufficiently thick, it begins to move due to a combination of surface slope, gravity and pressure. On steeper slopes, this can occur with as little as 15 m (50 ft) of snow-ice.
What characteristics determine glacial zones?
5726ffac5951b619008f844f
surface snowpack and melt conditions
40
False
Which glacial zone area reports a net-loss in glacial mass?
5726ffac5951b619008f8450
ablation zone
82
False
What is the name of the line seperating the ablation zone from the accumulation zone?
5726ffac5951b619008f8451
equilibrium line
157
False
How much glacial surface area is typically considered accumulation zone?
5726ffac5951b619008f8452
60–70%
499
False
zones
25
What is based on suface ice and melt conditions?
5a359966788daf001a5f862c
True
equilibrium line
157
Wht line marks the center of the glacier?
5a359966788daf001a5f862d
True
the glacier's surface area
509
What does the abilation zone cover 60-70% of?
5a359966788daf001a5f862e
True
downward force
629
What forces underlying rock upward?
5a359966788daf001a5f862f
True
Great Lakes
808
What lakes where formed from a mountain depression
5a359966788daf001a5f8630
True
Glaciers are broken into zones based on surface snowpack and melt conditions. The ablation zone is the region where there is a net loss in glacier mass. The equilibrium line separates the ablation zone and the accumulation zone; it is the altitude where the amount of new snow gained by accumulation is equal to the amount of ice lost through ablation. The upper part of a glacier, where accumulation exceeds ablation, is called the accumulation zone. In general, the accumulation zone accounts for 60–70% of the glacier's surface area, more if the glacier calves icebergs. Ice in the accumulation zone is deep enough to exert a downward force that erodes underlying rock. After a glacier melts, it often leaves behind a bowl- or amphitheater-shaped depression that ranges in size from large basins like the Great Lakes to smaller mountain depressions known as cirques.
Why are the tops of glaciers rigid?
57270035708984140094d81b
they are under low pressure
53
False
Which zone is the top of the glaciers?
57270035708984140094d81c
fracture zone
117
False
Why are glacial crevices formed?
57270035708984140094d81d
differences in glacier velocity
333
False
What are seracs?
57270035708984140094d81e
isolated peaks in the ice
723
False
Most crevices are no deeper than what measure?
57270035708984140094d81f
46 m (150 ft)
533
False
they are under low pressure
53
Why is the lower 50m of a glacier rigid?
5a359abb788daf001a5f8636
True
fracture zone
117
What is the free flowing upper section known as?
5a359abb788daf001a5f8637
True
cracks called crevasses
257
what forms where glaciers are unable to move?
5a359abb788daf001a5f8638
True
shear forces cause them to break apart
442
What happens when two ridgid sections of a glacier collide?
5a359abb788daf001a5f8639
True
46 m (150 ft) deep but in some cases can be 300 m (1,000 ft)
533
What point do sercas form above?
5a359abb788daf001a5f863a
True
The top 50 m (160 ft) of a glacier are rigid because they are under low pressure. This upper section is known as the fracture zone and moves mostly as a single unit over the plastically flowing lower section. When a glacier moves through irregular terrain, cracks called crevasses develop in the fracture zone. Crevasses form due to differences in glacier velocity. If two rigid sections of a glacier move at different speeds and directions, shear forces cause them to break apart, opening a crevasse. Crevasses are seldom more than 46 m (150 ft) deep but in some cases can be 300 m (1,000 ft) or even deeper. Beneath this point, the plasticity of the ice is too great for cracks to form. Intersecting crevasses can create isolated peaks in the ice, called seracs.
Which crevasses form on the edge of the glacier?
57270105dd62a815002e9772
Marginal crevasses
236
False
Why do marginal crevasses form on the edge of a glacier?
57270105dd62a815002e9773
reduction in speed caused by friction of the valley walls
301
False
What do bergschrunds resemble?
57270105dd62a815002e9774
crevasses
531
False
How are bergschrunds different than crevasses?
57270105dd62a815002e9775
singular features at a glacier's margins
549
False
Where do transverse crevasses form?
57270105dd62a815002e9776
where steeper slopes cause a glacier to accelerate
99
False
Transverse
46
What kind of crevasses form where steep slopes cause glaciers to deccelerate?
5a35aa71788daf001a5f8640
True
Longitudinal
151
What kind of crevasses form where glaciers contract laterally?
5a35aa71788daf001a5f8641
True
Marginal
236
What kind of crevasses form at the edge of a glacier due to an increase in speed?
5a35aa71788daf001a5f8642
True
bergschrund
496
What is formed when moving ice seperates from sragnant ice below?
5a35aa71788daf001a5f8643
True
glacier's
572
What margins to crevasses form at?
5a35aa71788daf001a5f8644
True
Crevasses can form in several different ways. Transverse crevasses are transverse to flow and form where steeper slopes cause a glacier to accelerate. Longitudinal crevasses form semi-parallel to flow where a glacier expands laterally. Marginal crevasses form from the edge of the glacier, due to the reduction in speed caused by friction of the valley walls. Marginal crevasses are usually largely transverse to flow. Moving glacier ice can sometimes separate from stagnant ice above, forming a bergschrund. Bergschrunds resemble crevasses but are singular features at a glacier's margins.
In what area of Greenland can glaciers move 20-30m per day?
572702ec708984140094d871
Jakobshavn Isbræ
303
False
Increasing slope, thickness, snowfall, longitudinal confinement, basal temperature, and meltwater production result in increased what?
572702ec708984140094d872
Velocity
352
False
How far do glaciers generally move per day?
572702ec708984140094d873
1 m (3 ft)
50
False
Why are some glaciers stagnant in Alaska?
572702ec708984140094d874
trees can establish themselves on surface sediment deposits
145
False
glaciers
222
What typically moves at around 3 meters a day?
5a35bbcb788daf001a5f864a
True
trees
145
What grows on moving glaciers in Alaska?
5a35bbcb788daf001a5f864b
True
trees
145
What makes some glaciers stagnant?
5a35bbcb788daf001a5f864c
True
Velocity increases
352
What causes increased thickness?
5a35bbcb788daf001a5f864d
True
Mean speeds vary greatly, but is typically around 1 m (3 ft) per day. There may be no motion in stagnant areas; for example, in parts of Alaska, trees can establish themselves on surface sediment deposits. In other cases, glaciers can move as fast as 20–30 m (70–100 ft) per day, such as in Greenland's Jakobshavn Isbræ (Greenlandic: Sermeq Kujalleq). Velocity increases with increasing slope, increasing thickness, increasing snowfall, increasing longitudinal confinement, increasing basal temperature, increasing meltwater production and reduced bed hardness.
What is a glacial surge?
5727044ef1498d1400e8f246
periods of very rapid advancement
20
False
What failure causes surges?
5727044ef1498d1400e8f247
failure of the underlying bedrock
292
False
At what rate have glaciers travelled during surges?
5727044ef1498d1400e8f248
90 m (300 ft) per day
518
False
surges
61
What is the term for a gradual increase in a glaciers speed?
5a35be5b788daf001a5f8652
True
surges
190
What is caused by underground water?
5a35be5b788daf001a5f8653
True
surges
190
What does accumulaion of rock under the glacier cause?
5a35be5b788daf001a5f8654
True
A few glaciers have periods of very rapid advancement called surges. These glaciers exhibit normal movement until suddenly they accelerate, then return to their previous state. During these surges, the glacier may reach velocities far greater than normal speed. These surges may be caused by failure of the underlying bedrock, the pooling of meltwater at the base of the glacier — perhaps delivered from a supraglacial lake — or the simple accumulation of mass beyond a critical "tipping point". Temporary rates up to 90 m (300 ft) per day have occurred when increased temperature or overlying pressure caused bottom ice to melt and water to accumulate beneath a glacier.
How far does a glacier have to move to cause glacial earthquakes?
57270585708984140094d88d
one km per year
55
False
How high can the seismic magnitude be of a glacial earthquake?
57270585708984140094d88e
6.1
170
False
Are Greenland's glacial earthquakes increasing or decreasing as time goes on?
57270585708984140094d88f
increasing
276
False
During which months do glacial earthquakes peak in Greenland?
57270585708984140094d890
July, August and September
242
False
In what year were twice as many glacial earthquakes seen than in any other year in Greenland?
57270585708984140094d891
2005
451
False
glacial earthquakes
72
What occurs where glaciers are moving slower than 1 km per day?
5a35bfd5788daf001a5f8658
True
The number of glacial earthquakes
175
What peaks Every July in Iceland?
5a35bfd5788daf001a5f8659
True
glacial earthquakes
521
What is causing a decrease in Greenlands glacial earthquakes?
5a35bfd5788daf001a5f865a
True
The number of glacial earthquakes in Greenland
175
What has been decreasing over time?
5a35bfd5788daf001a5f865b
True
In glaciated areas where the glacier moves faster than one km per year, glacial earthquakes occur. These are large scale temblors that have seismic magnitudes as high as 6.1. The number of glacial earthquakes in Greenland peaks every year in July, August and September and is increasing over time. In a study using data from January 1993 through October 2005, more events were detected every year since 2002, and twice as many events were recorded in 2005 as there were in any other year. This increase in the numbers of glacial earthquakes in Greenland may be a response to global warming.
What are ogives?
572765695951b619008f8959
alternating wave crests and valleys that appear as dark and light bands of ice on glacier surfaces
11
False
What does the width of one dark and one light band measure?
572765695951b619008f895a
annual movement of the glacier
221
False
How are ogives formed?
572765695951b619008f895b
when ice from an icefall is severely broken up, increasing ablation surface area during summer
271
False
Under what conditions are ogives called wave or band ogives?
572765695951b619008f895c
consist only of undulations or color bands
483
False
Ogives
0
what is the term for crests of ice on the glaciers surface?
5a35c193788daf001a5f8660
True
Ogives
253
What is formed when an icefall is covered up?
5a35c193788daf001a5f8661
True
snow
402
What do ogives prevent from accumulating?
5a35c193788daf001a5f8662
True
ogives
476
What is made of both undulations and color bands?
5a35c193788daf001a5f8663
True
Ogives are alternating wave crests and valleys that appear as dark and light bands of ice on glacier surfaces. They are linked to seasonal motion of glaciers; the width of one dark and one light band generally equals the annual movement of the glacier. Ogives are formed when ice from an icefall is severely broken up, increasing ablation surface area during summer. This creates a swale and space for snow accumulation in the winter, which in turn creates a ridge. Sometimes ogives consist only of undulations or color bands and are described as wave ogives or band ogives.
How many countries contain glaciers?
57276ed9f1498d1400e8f7fe
fifty
58
False
Which continent contains glaciers?
57276ed9f1498d1400e8f7ff
every continent
24
False
Which mountain ranges contain glaciers?
57276ed9f1498d1400e8f800
Andes, the Himalayas, the Rocky Mountains, the Caucasus, and the Alps
327
False
Where are glaciers in Africa located?
57276ed9f1498d1400e8f801
Mount Kilimanjaro in Tanzania, on Mount Kenya and in the Rwenzori Mountains
666
False
Which sub-antarctic islands have glaciers?
57276ed9f1498d1400e8f802
Marion, Heard, Grande Terre (Kerguelen) and Bouvet
856
False
Glaciers
0
What are found on every coninant including Australia?
5a35c60c788daf001a5f8668
True
Marion, Heard, Grande Terre (Kerguelen) and Bouvet
856
What sub-arctic islands do not have glaciers?
5a35c60c788daf001a5f8669
True
Mount Kosciuszko
477
What Australian mountain has a glacier?
5a35c60c788daf001a5f866a
True
glaciers
577
What are spreading rapidly in New Guinea?
5a35c60c788daf001a5f866b
True
Glaciers are present on every continent and approximately fifty countries, excluding those (Australia, South Africa) that have glaciers only on distant subantarctic island territories. Extensive glaciers are found in Antarctica, Chile, Canada, Alaska, Greenland and Iceland. Mountain glaciers are widespread, especially in the Andes, the Himalayas, the Rocky Mountains, the Caucasus, and the Alps. Mainland Australia currently contains no glaciers, although a small glacier on Mount Kosciuszko was present in the last glacial period. In New Guinea, small, rapidly diminishing, glaciers are located on its highest summit massif of Puncak Jaya. Africa has glaciers on Mount Kilimanjaro in Tanzania, on Mount Kenya and in the Rwenzori Mountains. Oceanic islands with glaciers occur on Iceland, Svalbard, New Zealand, Jan Mayen and the subantarctic islands of Marion, Heard, Grande Terre (Kerguelen) and Bouvet. During glacial periods of the Quaternary, Taiwan, Hawaii on Mauna Kea and Tenerife also had large alpine glaciers, while the Faroe and Crozet Islands were completely glaciated.
Do glaciers require permanent snow or only temporary coverage?
57276fe9f1498d1400e8f810
permanent snow cover
4
False
Between which north latitudes are glaciers not found?
57276fe9f1498d1400e8f811
20° to 27° north
206
False
Between which latitudes to mountains tend to have permanent snow?
57276fe9f1498d1400e8f812
19˚N and 19˚S
423
False
Why do mountains between 19N and 19S tend to have snow?
57276fe9f1498d1400e8f813
precipitation is higher
447
False
degree of slope on the land, amount of snowfall and the winds.
92
What affects the perminant ice layer needed for glaciers to form?
5a35ca66788daf001a5f8670
True
Glaciers
155
What can be found in every country from 20 degrees to 27 degess north and south of the equator?
5a35ca66788daf001a5f8671
True
20° to 27° north and south
206
At what lattitudes does the Hadley circulation rais percipitation?
5a35ca66788daf001a5f8672
True
19˚N and 19˚S,
423
At what latitudes does low percipitation lead to permanent snow?
5a35ca66788daf001a5f8673
True
The permanent snow cover necessary for glacier formation is affected by factors such as the degree of slope on the land, amount of snowfall and the winds. Glaciers can be found in all latitudes except from 20° to 27° north and south of the equator where the presence of the descending limb of the Hadley circulation lowers precipitation so much that with high insolation snow lines reach above 6,500 m (21,330 ft). Between 19˚N and 19˚S, however, precipitation is higher and the mountains above 5,000 m (16,400 ft) usually have permanent snow.
Which areas in Antartica are considered polar deserts?
57277b4c708984140094ded3
Banks Island, and the McMurdo Dry Valleys
90
False
Why can't glaciers form in polar deserts?
57277b4c708984140094ded4
they receive little snowfall
210
False
Does cold or warm air facilitate the transport of water vapor?
57277b4c708984140094ded5
warm air
281
False
glacier formation
24
What is inevitable at hight latitudes?
5a35ccc8788daf001a5f8678
True
polar deserts
161
What kind of deserts do glaciers form in?
5a35ccc8788daf001a5f8679
True
water vapor
319
What does cold air transport?
5a35ccc8788daf001a5f867a
True
glaciers
498
What formed in central and north Alaska during the last ice age due to the extreme cold?
5a35ccc8788daf001a5f867b
True
Even at high latitudes, glacier formation is not inevitable. Areas of the Arctic, such as Banks Island, and the McMurdo Dry Valleys in Antarctica are considered polar deserts where glaciers cannot form because they receive little snowfall despite the bitter cold. Cold air, unlike warm air, is unable to transport much water vapor. Even during glacial periods of the Quaternary, Manchuria, lowland Siberia, and central and northern Alaska, though extraordinarily cold, had such light snowfall that glaciers could not form.
What cause glacial stiations?
57277c82708984140094def7
large boulders that carve long scratches in the bedrock
107
False
What can scientists deduct from the direction of the striations?
57277c82708984140094def8
direction of the glacier's movement
238
False
What are chatter marks?
57277c82708984140094def9
lines of crescent-shape depressions in the rock underlying a glacier
316
False
How are chatter marks formed?
57277c82708984140094defa
abrasion when boulders in the glacier are repeatedly caught and released
405
False
Glacial abrasion
0
What charactrerizes glacial striations?
5a35cf0b788daf001a5f8680
True
Glacial abrasion
0
What is formed when glaciers lack boulders?
5a35cf0b788daf001a5f8681
True
the direction of the striations,
175
What helps scientists determine the speed of a glacier?
5a35cf0b788daf001a5f8682
True
chatter marks
301
What is formed when glaciers crush boulders?
5a35cf0b788daf001a5f8683
True
Glacial abrasion is commonly characterized by glacial striations. Glaciers produce these when they contain large boulders that carve long scratches in the bedrock. By mapping the direction of the striations, researchers can determine the direction of the glacier's movement. Similar to striations are chatter marks, lines of crescent-shape depressions in the rock underlying a glacier. They are formed by abrasion when boulders in the glacier are repeatedly caught and released as they are dragged along the bedrock.
When are glacial moraines visible?
57277d55f1498d1400e8f99a
after the glacier has retreated
89
False
How are glacial moraines formed?
57277d55f1498d1400e8f99b
deposition of material from a glacier
35
False
Where are lateral moraines found?
57277d55f1498d1400e8f99c
sides of the glacier
375
False
How are medial moraines formed?
57277d55f1498d1400e8f99d
when two different glaciers merge and the lateral moraines of each coalesce to form a moraine in the middle of the combined glacier
424
False
What are ground moraines also called?
57277d55f1498d1400e8f99e
glacial drift
604
False
Glacial moraines
0
What are no longer visable after a glacier retreats?
5a35d139788daf001a5f8688
True
Terminal or end moraines
262
What type of moraines are formed at the begining of the glacier?
5a35d139788daf001a5f8689
True
Medial moraines
397
What mraines are formed when two ice sheets meet?
5a35d139788daf001a5f868a
True
ground moraines
575
What blankets the surface of a glacier?
5a35d139788daf001a5f868b
True
ground moraines,
575
What are upslope from the equilibrium line?
5a35d139788daf001a5f868c
True
Glacial moraines are formed by the deposition of material from a glacier and are exposed after the glacier has retreated. They usually appear as linear mounds of till, a non-sorted mixture of rock, gravel and boulders within a matrix of a fine powdery material. Terminal or end moraines are formed at the foot or terminal end of a glacier. Lateral moraines are formed on the sides of the glacier. Medial moraines are formed when two different glaciers merge and the lateral moraines of each coalesce to form a moraine in the middle of the combined glacier. Less apparent are ground moraines, also called glacial drift, which often blankets the surface underneath the glacier downslope from the equilibrium line.
What shape do mountain valleys have pre-glacation?
57277eb7dd62a815002e9ebe
characteristic "V" shape
43
False
What gives mountain vallys their characteristic "V" shape before glacation?
57277eb7dd62a815002e9ebf
eroding water
81
False
How is a fjord formed?
57277eb7dd62a815002e9ec0
a glacial valley runs into a large body of water
484
False
What shape do glacial valleys have after being widened by glacation?
57277eb7dd62a815002e9ec1
"U"-shaped
176
False
mountain valleys
19
What has a V shape after a glacier recedes?
5a35d292788daf001a5f8692
True
mountain valleys
19
What are U shaped before glaciation?
5a35d292788daf001a5f8693
True
lakes,
448
What fills depressions to form fjord?
5a35d292788daf001a5f8694
True
a large body of water
511
What do glacial valleys run into to form paternoster lakes?
5a35d292788daf001a5f8695
True
Before glaciation, mountain valleys have a characteristic "V" shape, produced by eroding water. During glaciation, these valleys are widened, deepened, and smoothed, forming a "U"-shaped glacial valley. The erosion that creates glacial valleys eliminates the spurs of earth that extend across mountain valleys, creating triangular cliffs called truncated spurs. Within glacial valleys, depressions created by plucking and abrasion can be filled by lakes, called paternoster lakes. If a glacial valley runs into a large body of water, it forms a fjord.
On which side is a cirque opened?
57277f55f1498d1400e8f9e8
the side that descends into the valley
121
False
Where does ice start accululating in a glacier?
57277f55f1498d1400e8f9e9
Cirques
161
False
What is a narrow ridge formed by two cirques eroding back to back called?
57277f55f1498d1400e8f9ea
arête
323
False
What are extremely steep cirques called?
57277f55f1498d1400e8f9eb
horns
508
False
How many sides are closed in a typical cirque?
57277f55f1498d1400e8f9ec
three sides
94
False
Cirques
161
What is on the side that ascends out of a valley?
5a35d570788daf001a5f869a
True
mountain pass
369
What do cirques gorm in mountains?
5a35d570788daf001a5f869b
True
horns
508
What are shallow cirques called?
5a35d570788daf001a5f869c
True
At the start of a classic valley glacier is a bowl-shaped cirque, which has escarped walls on three sides but is open on the side that descends into the valley. Cirques are where ice begins to accumulate in a glacier. Two glacial cirques may form back to back and erode their backwalls until only a narrow ridge, called an arête is left. This structure may result in a mountain pass. If multiple cirques encircle a single mountain, they create pointed pyramidal peaks; particularly steep examples are called horns.
What is another name for roche moutonnee?
57277fdcf1498d1400e8f9f8
"sheepback" rock
103
False
What are roche moutonnee?
57277fdcf1498d1400e8f9f9
elongated, rounded, and asymmetrical bedrock knobs that can be produced by glacier erosion
141
False
How large are roche moutonnee?
57277fdcf1498d1400e8f9fa
less than a meter to several hundred meters long
259
False
What shape do roche moutonnee have on their "up" side?
57277fdcf1498d1400e8f9fb
gentle slope
332
False
What shape do roche moutonnee have on their "down" side?
57277fdcf1498d1400e8f9fc
steep to vertical face
377
False
"sheepback"
103
what are ice formations made by glaciers called?
5a35d653788daf001a5f86a0
True
Roche moutonnée
121
What are short round bedrock knobs?
5a35d653788daf001a5f86a1
True
. Roche moutonnée
307
What are steep on their upside and and gentle on their down side?
5a35d653788daf001a5f86a2
True
glacier abrades
433
What is smooth on the downstream side?
5a35d653788daf001a5f86a3
True
Some rock formations in the path of a glacier are sculpted into small hills called roche moutonnée, or "sheepback" rock. Roche moutonnée are elongated, rounded, and asymmetrical bedrock knobs that can be produced by glacier erosion. They range in length from less than a meter to several hundred meters long. Roche moutonnée have a gentle slope on their up-glacier sides and a steep to vertical face on their down-glacier sides. The glacier abrades the smooth slope on the upstream side as it flows along, but tears loose and carries away rock from the downstream side via plucking.
Where is post-glacial rebound occuring most?
572780e8f1498d1400e8fa14
Scandinavia and the Great Lakes region of North America.
448
False
What has the ability to depress the crust of the Earth into the mantle?
572780e8f1498d1400e8fa15
Large masses, such as ice sheets or glaciers
0
False
With what speed does post-glacial rebound occur?
572780e8f1498d1400e8fa16
very slowly
341
False
How much of a glacier's thickness is usually involved during crust depression into the mantle?
572780e8f1498d1400e8fa17
a third of the ice sheet or glacier's thickness
128
False
Scandinavia and the Great Lakes region of North America.
448
Where has post-glacial rebound stopped occuring?
5a35d763788daf001a5f86a8
True
The depression
98
What totals a thirs of the glaciers length?
5a35d763788daf001a5f86a9
True
post-glacial rebound
304
What happens quickly after the ice sheet melts?
5a35d763788daf001a5f86aa
True
Large masses, such as ice sheets or glaciers,
0
What pushes up the mantle of the Earth?
5a35d763788daf001a5f86ab
True
Large masses, such as ice sheets or glaciers, can depress the crust of the Earth into the mantle. The depression usually totals a third of the ice sheet or glacier's thickness. After the ice sheet or glacier melts, the mantle begins to flow back to its original position, pushing the crust back up. This post-glacial rebound, which proceeds very slowly after the melting of the ice sheet or glacier, is currently occurring in measurable amounts in Scandinavia and the Great Lakes region of North America.
Comcast
What is the largest cable company in the world by revenue?
5727009f5951b619008f8469
Comcast Corporation
0
False
What merged companies are the largest pay TV entity in the world?
5727009f5951b619008f846a
AT&T-DirecTV
251
False
Comcast is also the largest media company in the United States in what broadband area?
5727009f5951b619008f846b
Internet service provider
319
False
In what areas of the US does Comcast operate?
5727009f5951b619008f846c
40 states and the District of Columbia
493
False
Where is Comcast company headquarters?
5727009f5951b619008f846d
Philadelphia, Pennsylvania
575
False
Comcast Holdings
44
What did Comcast Corporation change its name to?
5a732bc553a187001ae63127
True
40
493
How many states does AT&T serve?
5a732bc553a187001ae63128
True
Philadelphia, Pennsylvania
575
Where is the AT&T headquarters?
5a732bc553a187001ae63129
True
DirecTV
256
What company merged with Comcast, making it the largest TV company?
5a732bc553a187001ae6312a
True
Comcast Corporation
0
What is the largest home internet provider in the world?
5a732bc553a187001ae6312b
True
Comcast Corporation, formerly registered as Comcast Holdings,[note 1] is an American multinational mass media company and is the largest broadcasting and largest cable company in the world by revenue. It is the second largest pay-TV company after the AT&T-DirecTV acquisition, largest cable TV company and largest home Internet service provider in the United States, and the nation's third largest home telephone service provider. Comcast services U.S. residential and commercial customers in 40 states and the District of Columbia. The company's headquarters are located in Philadelphia, Pennsylvania.
What are some of the cable TV networks owned by Comcast?
5727017bf1498d1400e8f20a
E! Entertainment Television, the Golf Channel, and NBCSN
57
False
What two national over-the-air broadcast entities are owned by Comcast?
5727017bf1498d1400e8f20b
NBC and Telemundo
166
False
Comcast owns what movie studio?
5727017bf1498d1400e8f20c
Universal Pictures
213
False
What company did Comcast propose a merger with?
5727017bf1498d1400e8f20d
Time Warner Cable
648
False
What date did Comcast drop their proposed merger agreement with Time Warner?
5727017bf1498d1400e8f20e
April 24, 2015
805
False
U.A.E., South Korea, Russia and China
395
What countries is Comcast planning to open new attractions in?
5a732ca953a187001ae63131
True
April 24, 2015
805
When did the deal with Time Warner officially go through?
5a732ca953a187001ae63132
True
E! Entertainment Television, the Golf Channel, and NBCSN
57
What are the names of the cable-only channels by Time Warner?
5a732ca953a187001ae63133
True
200
294
How many entertainment venues does Time Warner have?
5a732ca953a187001ae63134
True
$45.2 billion
695
How much is Comcast worth?
5a732ca953a187001ae63135
True
Comcast operates multiple cable-only channels (including E! Entertainment Television, the Golf Channel, and NBCSN), over-the-air national broadcast network channels (NBC and Telemundo), the film production studio Universal Pictures, and Universal Parks & Resorts, with a global total of nearly 200 family entertainment locations and attractions in the U.S. and several other countries including U.A.E., South Korea, Russia and China, with several new locations reportedly planned and being developed for future operation. Comcast also has significant holding in digital distribution (thePlatform). In February 2014 the company agreed to merge with Time Warner Cable in an equity swap deal worth $45.2 billion. Under the terms of the agreement Comcast was to acquire 100% of Time Warner Cable. However, on April 24, 2015, Comcast terminated the agreement.
What is the largest criticism leveled by consumers against Comcast
572702fcf1498d1400e8f21e
customer satisfaction
64
False
It has been alleged that Comcast's internet service has done what to customers?
572702fcf1498d1400e8f21f
has violated net neutrality practices
146
False
What monopolistic practice draws criticism of Comcast?
572702fcf1498d1400e8f220
a lack of competition in the vast majority of Comcast's service area
430
False
What dubious distinction has Comcast earned twice from The Consumerist?
572702fcf1498d1400e8f221
"The Worst Company in America"
909
False
How does Comcast's customer service stack up against its competition?
572702fcf1498d1400e8f222
often ranks among the lowest in the cable industry
86
False
2010
971
What year did Comcast first violate net neutrality?
5a732e8753a187001ae6313b
True
The Worst Company in America
910
What title was The Consumerist given in 2010 and 2014?
5a732e8753a187001ae6313c
True
Comcast
0
What company has the highest customer satisfaction in the US?
5a732e8753a187001ae6313d
True
NBCUniversal
762
Antitrust concerns have been dismissed because COmcast does not own what company?
5a732e8753a187001ae6313e
True
narrow
236
What type of definition does The Consumerist use?
5a732e8753a187001ae6313f
True
Comcast has been criticized for multiple reasons. The company's customer satisfaction often ranks among the lowest in the cable industry. Comcast has violated net neutrality practices in the past; and, despite Comcast's commitment to a narrow definition of net neutrality, critics advocate a definition of which precludes distinction between Comcast's private network services and the rest of the Internet. Critics also point out a lack of competition in the vast majority of Comcast's service area; there is limited competition among cable providers. Given Comcast's negotiating power as a large ISP, some suspect that Comcast could leverage paid peering agreements to unfairly influence end-user connection speeds. Its ownership of both content production (in NBCUniversal) and content distribution (as an ISP) has raised antitrust concerns. These issues, in addition to others, led to Comcast being dubbed "The Worst Company in America" by The Consumerist in 2014 and 2010.
Who is the current head of Comcast?
57270465f1498d1400e8f24c
Brian L. Roberts
53
False
Who co-founded Comcast?
57270465f1498d1400e8f24d
Ralph Roberts
133
False
In what year was Roberts ranked as the country's highest-paid executive?
57270465f1498d1400e8f24e
2010
430
False
What was Roberts' yearly salary in that year?
57270465f1498d1400e8f24f
about $31 million
527
False
What is Roberts power on the Comcast board?
57270465f1498d1400e8f250
"undilutable 33% voting power over the company"
270
False
Ralph Roberts
133
Who is Brian L. Robert's son?
5a732f0b53a187001ae63145
True
33%
283
What percentage of voting power does Susan P. Crawford have?
5a732f0b53a187001ae63146
True
about $31 million
527
What is Susan P. Crawford's salary?
5a732f0b53a187001ae63147
True
2010
430
When did Roberts become the CEO of Comcast?
5a732f0b53a187001ae63148
True
Class B
223
What type of supervoting shares does Robert not have?
5a732f0b53a187001ae63149
True
Comcast is sometimes described as a family business. Brian L. Roberts, Chairman, President, and CEO of Comcast, is son of co-founder Ralph Roberts. Roberts owns or controls just over 1% of all Comcast shares but all of the Class B supervoting shares, which gives him an "undilutable 33% voting power over the company". Legal expert Susan P. Crawford has said this gives him "effective control over its [Comcast's] every step". In 2010, he was one of the highest-paid executives in the United States, with total compensation of about $31 million.
Besides customer problems, what other area is Comcast often criticized over?
5727058fdd62a815002e97d2
employee relations
111
False
What online media outlet ran an investigative series on Comcast in 2014?
5727058fdd62a815002e97d3
The Verge
370
False
How many Comcast employees were interviewed for that investigative report?
5727058fdd62a815002e97d4
150
405
False
What online publication ran a feature from a Comcast employee in 2014 that received attention?
5727058fdd62a815002e97d5
Cracked
1008
False
What was this 2014 article anonymously penned by a Comcast Employee called?
5727058fdd62a815002e97d6
"Five Nightmares You Live While Working For America's Worst Company,"
1024
False
interviews with 150 of Comcast's employees
389
What did the Huffington post in 2014?
5a732fdf53a187001ae6314f
True
Reddit
138
What social media platform interviewed Comcast employees?
5a732fdf53a187001ae63150
True
Five Nightmares You Live While Working For America's Worst Company
1025
What was the name of The Verge's investigative series?
5a732fdf53a187001ae63151
True
150
405
How many publications picked up the 2012 Reddit post?
5a732fdf53a187001ae63152
True
customer service
708
What has Comcast replaced its obsession with sales with?
5a732fdf53a187001ae63153
True
The company is often criticized by both the media and its own staff for its less upstanding policies regarding employee relations. A 2012 Reddit post written by an anonymous Comcast call center employee eager to share their negative experiences with the public received attention from publications including The Huffington Post. A 2014 investigative series published by The Verge involved interviews with 150 of Comcast's employees. It sought to examine why the company has become so widely criticized by its customers, the media and even members of its own staff. The series claimed part of the problem is internal and that Comcast's staff endures unreasonable corporate policies. According to the report: "customer service has been replaced by an obsession with sales; technicians are understaffed while tech support is poorly trained; and the company is hobbled by internal fragmentation." A widely read article penned by an anonymous call center employee working for Comcast appeared in November 2014 on Cracked. Titled "Five Nightmares You Live While Working For America's Worst Company," the article also claimed that Comcast is obsessed with sales, doesn't train its employees properly and concluded that "the system makes good customer service impossible."
What is Comcast's stance on organized labor?
572706d9f1498d1400e8f26a
anti-union
47
False
A 2004 labor dispute in what city highlighted Comcast's anti-labor stance?
572706d9f1498d1400e8f26b
Beaverton, Oregon
324
False
What was one anti-union thing that workers in Beaverton were required to do?
572706d9f1498d1400e8f26c
attend anti-union meetings
416
False
What creative union aired grievances against Comcast in 2011?
572706d9f1498d1400e8f26d
Writers Guild of America
539
False
In what internal publication was Comcast's union stance formally enumerated?
572706d9f1498d1400e8f26e
one of the company's training manuals
72
False
Beaverton, Oregon
324
Where are the offices for the Writers Guild of America?
5a7330e253a187001ae63159
True
Writers Guild of America
539
What does the initialism CWA stand for?
5a7330e253a187001ae6315a
True
union representation
134
What does Comcast believe is best for its employees?
5a7330e253a187001ae6315b
True
anti-union meetings
423
What type of meetings did the Writers Guild of America protest?
5a7330e253a187001ae6315c
True
CWA
249
What company represented Comcast's policies in 2004?
5a7330e253a187001ae6315d
True
Comcast has also earned a reputation for being anti-union. According to one of the company's training manuals, "Comcast does not feel union representation is in the best interest of its employees, customers, or shareholders". A dispute in 2004 with CWA, a labor union that represented many employees at Comcast's offices in Beaverton, Oregon, led to allegations of management intimidating workers, requiring them to attend anti-union meetings and unwarranted disciplinary action for union members. In 2011, Comcast received criticism from Writers Guild of America for its policies in regards to unions.
What magazine listed Comcast as one of its top places to work?
572707a75951b619008f84e5
CableFAX
115
False
What is Comcast's affiliated entity in Philadelphia?
572707a75951b619008f84e6
Comcast-Spectacor
386
False
What newspaper named Comcast it's top place to work?
572707a75951b619008f84e7
The Boston Globe
405
False
In what year did this newspaper confer this honor on Comcast?
572707a75951b619008f84e8
2009
475
False
On what aspect did Black Enterprise Magazine name Comcast a top 15 employer?
572707a75951b619008f84e9
workforce diversity
643
False
CableFAX
115
What magazine was determined as one of the best places to work in 2009?
5a7334fc53a187001ae63163
True
Comcast
532
What company lacks employee diversity?
5a7334fc53a187001ae63164
True
The Boston Globe
405
What newspaper was deemed the best place to work?
5a7334fc53a187001ae63165
True
scale, savvy and vision
186
What is CableFAX known for?
5a7334fc53a187001ae63166
True
Philadelphia
321
The Washington Post mentioned the Comcast organization in which city?
5a7334fc53a187001ae63167
True
Despite these criticisms, Comcast has appeared on multiple "top places to work" lists. In 2009, it was included on CableFAX magazine's "Top 10 Places to Work in Cable", which cited its "scale, savvy and vision". Similarly, the Philadelphia Business Journal awarded Comcast the silver medal among extra-large companies in Philadelphia, with the gold medal going to partner organization, Comcast-Spectacor. The Boston Globe found Comcast to be that city's top place to work in 2009. Employee diversity is also an attribute upon which Comcast receives strong marks. In 2008, Black Enterprise magazine rated Comcast among the top 15 companies for workforce diversity. Comcast was also named a "Top 2014 Workplace" by the Washington Post in their annual feature.
What was Comcast's share value in 1999?
57270869f1498d1400e8f274
$8.19
50
False
What was Comcast's share value in 2009?
57270869f1498d1400e8f275
$15
75
False
Comcast's revenues in 2009 were how much?
57270869f1498d1400e8f276
$36 billion
151
False
What was Comcast's profit margin in 2009?
57270869f1498d1400e8f277
8.4%
216
False
What caused a 2012 spike in Comcast profits?
57270869f1498d1400e8f278
increase in high-speed internet customers
479
False
$15
75
What were shares worth in 2012?
5a73416a53a187001ae6316d
True
Sochi
617
Where were the Olympics in 2012?
5a73416a53a187001ae6316e
True
1.1
558
How much revenue (in billions) did Comcast generate due to high-speed internet customers?
5a73416a53a187001ae6316f
True
30%
468
What percentage of new customers did Comcast increase by in 2012?
5a73416a53a187001ae63170
True
Sochi Olympics
617
What sports event caused revenues to double from 1999 to 2009?
5a73416a53a187001ae63171
True
The book value of the company nearly doubled from $8.19 a share in 1999 to $15 a share in 2009. Revenues grew sixfold from 1999's $6 billion to almost $36 billion in 2009. Net profit margin rose from 4.2% in 1999 to 8.4% in 2009, with operating margins improving 31 percent and return on equity doubling to 6.7 percent in the same time span. Between 1999 and 2009, return on capital nearly tripled to 7 percent. Comcast reported first quarter 2012 profit increases of 30% due to increase in high-speed internet customers. In February 2014, Comcast generated 1.1 billion in revenue during the first quarter due to the Sochi Olympics,.
What was Comcast's lobbying budget in 2013?
572709b0dd62a815002e9836
$18.8 million
5
False
Where did this lobbying budget place the company among all entities in the country?
572709b0dd62a815002e9837
seventh largest
50
False
What is the name of the industry association that represents all cable companies in Washington?
572709b0dd62a815002e9838
The National Cable & Telecommunications Association
207
False
What is the name of Comcast's affiliated political action committee?
572709b0dd62a815002e9839
Comcast Corporation and NBCUniversal Political Action Committee
850
False
How much did this PAC raise for candidates in US elections from 2011 through 2012?
572709b0dd62a815002e983a
$3.7 million
970
False
Comcast
34
What is the seventh largest lobbying company in the world?
5a7342b453a187001ae63177
True
David Cohen
558
Who is the vice president of the National Cable & Telecommunications Association?
5a7342b453a187001ae63178
True
$18.8 million
5
How much did Comcast spend on lobbying efforts in 2012?
5a7342b453a187001ae63179
True
the time he spends lobbying falls short of the 20%
742
Why is Barack Obama no longer a registered lobbyist?
5a7342b453a187001ae6317a
True
Stop Online Piracy and PROTECT IP
1315
What bills has Comcast opposed?
5a7342b453a187001ae6317b
True
With $18.8 million spent in 2013, Comcast has the seventh largest lobbying budget of any individual company or organization in the United States. Comcast employs multiple former US Congressmen as lobbyists. The National Cable & Telecommunications Association, which has multiple Comcast executives on its board, also represents Comcast and other cable companies as the fifth largest lobbying organization in the United States, spending $19.8 million in 2013. Comcast was among the top backers of Barack Obama's presidential runs, with Comcast vice president David Cohen raising over $2.2 million from 2007 to 2012. Cohen has been described by many sources as influential in the US government, though he is no longer a registered lobbyist, as the time he spends lobbying falls short of the 20% which requires official registration. Comcast's PAC, the Comcast Corporation and NBCUniversal Political Action Committee, is the among the largest PACs in the US, raising about $3.7 million from 2011-2012 for the campaigns of various candidates for office in the United States Federal Government. Comcast is also a major backer of the National Cable and Telecommunications Association Political Action Committee, which raised $2.6 million from 2011-2012. Comcast spent the most money of any organization in support of the Stop Online Piracy and PROTECT IP bills, spending roughly $5 million to lobby for their passage.
When did Ralph Roberts get into the cable TV business?
57270a67dd62a815002e9846
1963
3
False
Who were Roberts' business partners in this purchase?
57270a67dd62a815002e9847
Daniel Aaron and Julian A. Brodsky
73
False
What company did this partnership purchase?
57270a67dd62a815002e9848
American Cable Systems
119
False
What city did American Cable Systems do business in?
57270a67dd62a815002e9849
Tupelo, Mississippi
279
False
How many customers did ACS have when Roberts and his partners purchased it?
57270a67dd62a815002e984a
12,000
323
False
US $500,000
208
How much was Jerrold Electronics?
5a73438253a187001ae63181
True
Daniel Aaron and Julian A. Brodsky
73
Which two partners owned Jerrold Electronics?
5a73438253a187001ae63182
True
12,000
323
How many customers did Storecast Corporation of America have in 1963?
5a73438253a187001ae63183
True
American Cable Systems
119
What did Ralph J. Roberts sell in 1963?
5a73438253a187001ae63184
True
Jerrold Electronics
183
American Cable Systems was the parent company of what spin-off?
5a73438253a187001ae63185
True
In 1963, Ralph J. Roberts in conjunction with his two business partners, Daniel Aaron and Julian A. Brodsky, purchased American Cable Systems as a corporate spin-off from its parent, Jerrold Electronics, for US $500,000. At the time, American Cable was a small cable operator in Tupelo, Mississippi, with five channels and 12,000 customers. Storecast Corporation of America, a product placement supermarket specialist marketing firm, was purchased by American Cable in 1965. With Storecast being a Muzak client, American Cable purchased its first Muzak franchise of many in Orlando, Florida.
How many paying customers did Comcast have in 1994?
57270bb5f1498d1400e8f288
3.5 million
90
False
Comcast's customer base in 1994 was good enough for what national ranking among its competition?
57270bb5f1498d1400e8f289
third largest
28
False
What sports network was Comcast a founding investor of?
57270bb5f1498d1400e8f28a
The Golf Channel
394
False
In what year did Comcast take over a majority interest in QVC?
57270bb5f1498d1400e8f28b
1994
431
False
What company did Comcast sell its interest in QVC to in 2004?
57270bb5f1498d1400e8f28c
Liberty Media
621
False
3.5 million
90
How many additional subscribers did Comcast receive by merging with Maclean-Hunter?
5a73551253a187001ae6318b
True
$1.27 billion
179
How much was the Comcast UK branch purchased for?
5a73551253a187001ae6318c
True
15.5%
498
What percentage of CBS did Comcast own?
5a73551253a187001ae6318d
True
2004
613
When did Comcast buy Liberty Media?
5a73551253a187001ae6318e
True
$7.9 billion
639
How much did Comcast sell the Golf Channel for in 2004?
5a73551253a187001ae6318f
True
In 1994, Comcast became the third largest cable operator in the United States with around 3.5 million subscribers following its purchase of Maclean-Hunter's American division for $1.27 billion. The company's UK branch, Comcast UK Cable Partners, goes public while constructing a cable telecommunications network. With five other media companies, the corporation becomes an original investor in The Golf Channel. Following a bid in 1994 for $2.1 billion, Comcast increased its ownership of QVC from 15.5% of stock to a majority, in a move to prevent QVC from merging with CBS. Comcast later sold its QVC shares in 2004 to Liberty Media for $7.9 billion.
What was Comcast's telecommunication business prior to 1999?
57270cbef1498d1400e8f2a6
Comcast Cellular
13
False
What company did Comcast sell their telecommunications company to?
57270cbef1498d1400e8f2a7
SBC Communications
33
False
How much was ComCast Cellular sold for in 1999?
57270cbef1498d1400e8f2a8
$400 million
64
False
What internet commerce company did Comcast invest in?
57270cbef1498d1400e8f2a9
VeriSign
492
False
MediaOne merged with what telecommunications company?
57270cbef1498d1400e8f2aa
AT&T Corporation
280
False
$400 million
64
How much did Comcast pay to purchase Greater Philadelphia Cablvision?
5a73563b53a187001ae63195
True
MediaOne
253
What company turned down AT&T's offer?
5a73563b53a187001ae63196
True
March
183
What month did VeriSign start?
5a73563b53a187001ae63197
True
$1.27 billion
98
How much debt did SBC Communications have?
5a73563b53a187001ae63198
True
SBC Communications
33
Who sold Comcast Cellular to Comcast?
5a73563b53a187001ae63199
True
Comcast sold Comcast Cellular to SBC Communications in 1999 for $400 million, releasing them from $1.27 billion in debt. Comcast acquired Greater Philadelphia Cablevision in 1999. In March 1999, Comcast offered to buy MediaOne for $60 billion. However, MediaOne decided to accept AT&T Corporation's offer of $62 billion instead. Comcast University started in 1999 as well as Comcast Interactive Capital Group to make technology and Internet related investments taking its first investment in VeriSign.
When did Comcast acquire the cable assets of AT&T Broadband?
57270deaf1498d1400e8f2b0
2001
3
False
What did Comcast pay for this subsidiary?
57270deaf1498d1400e8f2b1
$44.5 billion
131
False
What was the original name of AT&T Broadband and Comcast going to be?
57270deaf1498d1400e8f2b2
AT&T Comcast
192
False
When Comcast purchased AT&T Broadband, how many customers did they service?
57270deaf1498d1400e8f2b3
22 million
419
False
Comcast's advertising and commercial production branch was called what?
57270deaf1498d1400e8f2b4
Comcast Spotlight
555
False
22 million
419
How many customers did AT&T Broadband bring to Comcast?
5a7356c553a187001ae6319f
True
Comcast Advertising Sales
474
What was Comcast Spotlight renamed as?
5a7356c553a187001ae631a0
True
2001
3
What year was Comcast Advertising Sales renamed?
5a7356c553a187001ae631a1
True
Centennial, Colorado
667
What city is Comcast Spotlight located in?
5a7356c553a187001ae631a2
True
US$44.5 billion
129
How much did AT&T purchase Comcast for?
5a7356c553a187001ae631a3
True
In 2001, Comcast announced it would acquire the assets of the largest cable television operator at the time, AT&T Broadband, for US$44.5 billion. The proposed name for the merged company was "AT&T Comcast", but the companies ultimately decided to keep only the Comcast name. In 2002, Comcast acquired all assets of AT&T Broadband, thus making Comcast the largest cable television company in the United States with over 22 million subscribers. This also spurred the start of Comcast Advertising Sales (using AT&T's groundwork) which would later be renamed Comcast Spotlight. As part of this acquisition, Comcast also acquired the National Digital Television Center in Centennial, Colorado as a wholly owned subsidiary, which is today known as the Comcast Media Center.
What media conglomerate did Comcast try to buy in 2004?
57270eb35951b619008f8549
The Walt Disney Company
62
False
How much money did Comcast offer for this company?
57270eb35951b619008f854a
$54 billion
42
False
What month in 2004 did Comcast drop it's bid for this company?
57270eb35951b619008f854b
April
315
False
Comcast dropped their bid to focus on acquiring what sports network?
57270eb35951b619008f854c
ESPN
424
False
Besides offering money, what else did Comcast include in their proposal to buy Disney?
57270eb35951b619008f854d
taking on $12 billion of Disney's debt
98
False
$12 billion
108
How much debt did Comcast have in 2004?
5a73576653a187001ae631a9
True
80 percent
404
What percent of ESPN does Comcast own?
5a73576653a187001ae631aa
True
Disney
508
What is the most important asset ESPN owns?
5a73576653a187001ae631ab
True
$54 billion
42
How much did Comcast bid for ESPN?
5a73576653a187001ae631ac
True
April
315
During what month did Disney accept Comcast's bid?
5a73576653a187001ae631ad
True
On February 11, 2004, Comcast announced a $54 billion bid for The Walt Disney Company, as well as taking on $12 billion of Disney's debt. The deal would have made Comcast the largest media conglomerate in the world. However, after rejection by Disney and uncertain response from investors, the bid was abandoned in April. The main reason for the buyout attempt was so that Comcast could acquire Disney's 80 percent stake in ESPN, which a Comcast executive called "the most important and valuable asset" that Disney owned.
Comcast joined with what media company to acquire a movie studio in 2005?
57270fc85951b619008f8565
Sony Pictures Entertainment
51
False
What movie studios did Comcast and their partner buy?
57270fc85951b619008f8566
MGM and its affiliate studio, United Artists
107
False
What Pennsylvania cable provider did Comcast buy controlling interest in during 2005?
57270fc85951b619008f8567
Susquehanna Communications
320
False
When did Comcast formally announce its purchase of this cable provider?
57270fc85951b619008f8568
October 31, 2005
252
False
How much did Comcast pay for this cable tv provider?
57270fc85951b619008f8569
$775 million cash
493
False
Sony Pictures Entertainment
51
What did Comcast and MGM buy in 2005?
5a736fc553a187001ae631b3
True
South Central Pennsylvania
349
Where is MGM located?
5a736fc553a187001ae631b4
True
$775 million
493
How much did Comcast purchase MGM for?
5a736fc553a187001ae631b5
True
30 percent
700
How much of Lenfest did Comcast own?
5a736fc553a187001ae631b6
True
86,000
623
How many internet customers did the partnership with Sony Pictures garner Comcast?
5a736fc553a187001ae631b7
True
On April 8, 2005, a partnership led by Comcast and Sony Pictures Entertainment finalized a deal to acquire MGM and its affiliate studio, United Artists, and create an additional outlet to carry MGM/UA's material for cable and Internet distribution. On October 31, 2005, Comcast officially announced that it had acquired Susquehanna Communications a South Central Pennsylvania, -based cable television and broadband services provider and unit of the former Susquehanna Pfaltzgraff company, for $775 million cash. In this deal Comcast acquired approximately 230,000 basic cable customers, 71,000 digital cable customers, and 86,000 high-speed Internet customers. Comcast previously owned approximately 30 percent of Susquehanna Communications through affiliate company Lenfest. In December 2005, Comcast announced the creation of Comcast Interactive Media, a new division focused on online media.
What was the name of the interface front-end introduced by Comcast in 2007?
572710e9f1498d1400e8f2f6
a dashboard called SmartZone
61
False
What company designed this interface?
572710e9f1498d1400e8f2f7
Hewlett-Packard
91
False
Smartzone used what company's antivirus protection?
572710e9f1498d1400e8f2f8
Trend Micro
536
False
The contacts and address book for Smartzone was called what?
572710e9f1498d1400e8f2f9
Comcast Plaxo software
579
False
When was Smartzone rolled out to customers?
572710e9f1498d1400e8f2fa
September 2008
46
False
May 2007
21
When did Comcast team up with Hewlett-Packard?
5a73707753a187001ae631bd
True
September 2008
46
When did Comcast launch Zimbra?
5a73707753a187001ae631be
True
merge their contacts into one address book
434
What did Zimbra allow users to do with their contacts?
5a73707753a187001ae631bf
True
Comcast Plaxo
579
What is SmartZone's email called?
5a73707753a187001ae631c0
True
Trend Micro
536
What was the name of the Hewlett-Packard antivirus software?
5a73707753a187001ae631c1
True
Comcast announced in May 2007 and launched in September 2008 a dashboard called SmartZone. Hewlett-Packard led "design, creation and management". Collaboration and unified messaging technology came from open-source vendor Zimbra. "SmartZone users will be able to send and receive e-mail, listen to their voicemail messages online and forward that information via e-mail to others, send instant messages and video instant messages and merge their contacts into one address book". There is also Cloudmark spam and phishing protection and Trend Micro antivirus. The address book is Comcast Plaxo software.
What bankrupt company did Comcast partner with another broadband provider to acquire in 2005?
572711e9f1498d1400e8f314
Adelphia Cable
93
False
Who was Comcast's partner in the deal for Adelphia?
572711e9f1498d1400e8f315
Time Warner Cable
27
False
What was the price to take over Adelphia?
572711e9f1498d1400e8f316
$17.6 billion
143
False
What government organization investigated details of this acquisition?
572711e9f1498d1400e8f317
the U.S. Federal Communications Commission
224
False
When was this deal finalized?
572711e9f1498d1400e8f318
second quarter of 2006
195
False
seven-month
285
How long did it take for Adelphia Cable to go bankrupt?
5a7371a353a187001ae631c7
True
Adelphia Cable
93
Who partnered with Comcast to buy out Time Warner?
5a7371a353a187001ae631c8
True
$17.6 billion
143
How much did the FCC charge Comcast and Time Warner for the investigation?
5a7371a353a187001ae631c9
True
the second quarter of 2006
191
When did the FCC object to the deal?
5a7371a353a187001ae631ca
True
April 2005
3
When did Comcast bankrupt?
5a7371a353a187001ae631cb
True
In April 2005, Comcast and Time Warner Cable announced plans to buy the assets of bankrupted Adelphia Cable. The two companies paid a total of $17.6 billion in the deal that was finalized in the second quarter of 2006—after the U.S. Federal Communications Commission (FCC) completed a seven-month investigation without raising an objection. Time Warner Cable became the second largest cable provider in the U.S., ranking behind Comcast. As part of the deal, Time Warner and Comcast traded existing subscribers in order to consolidate them into larger geographic clusters.
What media conglomerate did Comcast begin preliminary talks to buy in 2009?
57271305f1498d1400e8f32e
NBCUniversal
86
False
What was NBC's parent company in 2009?
57271305f1498d1400e8f32f
General Electric
221
False
What ownership stake did Ccomcast get in this deal?
57271305f1498d1400e8f330
51%
510
False
What company was forced to sell its interest in NBCUniversal as part of the purchase deal?
57271305f1498d1400e8f331
Vivendi
515
False
What other cable company was reputed to have an interest in NBCUniversal?
57271305f1498d1400e8f332
Time Warner
700
False
October 1
206
When did CNBC announce Comcast had bought NBCUniversal?
5a73735353a187001ae631d1
True
51%
510
How much of NBCUniversal did CNBC announce Time Warner would own?
5a73735353a187001ae631d2
True
20%
535
How much stock was Vivendi forced to buy?
5a73735353a187001ae631d3
True
Jeffrey L. Bewkes
760
Who is the CEO of Comcast?
5a73735353a187001ae631d4
True
The New York Times
858
Who reported that Time Warner was placing a bid in November 2009?
5a73735353a187001ae631d5
True
Media outlets began reporting in late September 2009 that Comcast was in talks to buy NBCUniversal. Comcast denied the rumors at first, while NBC would not comment on them. However, CNBC itself reported on October 1 that General Electric was considering spinning NBCUniversal off into a separate company that would merge the NBC television network and its cable properties such as USA Network, Syfy and MSNBC with Comcast's content assets. GE would maintain 49% control of the new company, while Comcast owned 51%. Vivendi, which owns 20%, would have to sell its stake to GE. It was reported that under the current deal with GE that it would happen in November or December. It was also reported that Time Warner would be interested in placing a bid, until CEO Jeffrey L. Bewkes directly denied interest, leaving Comcast the sole bidder. On November 1, 2009, The New York Times reported Comcast had moved closer to a deal to purchase NBCUniversal and that a formal announcement could be made sometime the following week.
On what date was Comcast's purchase of controlling interest in NBCUniversal reported?
572713e6f1498d1400e8f342
December 3, 2009
53
False
What did Comcast pay for their stake in NBC?
572713e6f1498d1400e8f343
$6.5 billion in cash and $7.3 billion in programming
160
False
How did the FCC vote approval of the Comcast-NBC deal?
572713e6f1498d1400e8f344
4 to 1
410
False
On what date was the sale finally completed?
572713e6f1498d1400e8f345
January 28, 2011
444
False
On what date did Comcast buy out the remaining stake of General Electric in NBC?
572713e6f1498d1400e8f346
March 19, 2013
698
False
$5.8 billion
280
How much did Comcast pay to Vivendi?
5a73746653a187001ae631db
True
4 to 1
410
The FCC denied the deal by what vote?
5a73746653a187001ae631dc
True
the NBC peacock symbol
499
What did GE add to their logo in December?
5a73746653a187001ae631dd
True
February 12, 2013
544
When did GE announce it planned to buy out Comcast's interest?
5a73746653a187001ae631de
True
$6.5 billion in cash and $7.3 billion in programming
160
How much did Comcast pay for the remaining 49%?
5a73746653a187001ae631df
True
Following a tentative agreement on by December 1, on December 3, 2009, the parties announced that Comcast would buy a controlling 51% stake in NBCUniversal for $6.5 billion in cash and $7.3 billion in programming. GE would take over the remaining 49% stake in NBCUniversal, using $5.8 billion to buy out Vivendi's 20% minority stake in NBCUniversal. On January 18, 2011, the FCC approved the deal by a vote of 4 to 1. The sale was completed on January 28, 2011. In late December 2012, Comcast added the NBC peacock symbol to their new logo. On February 12, 2013, Comcast announced an intention to acquire the remaining 49% of General Electric's interest in NBCUniversal, which Comcast completed on March 19, 2013.
What publication originally reported a potential deal between Comcast and Time Warner?
572714a4708984140094d96f
the Los Angeles Times
22
False
What was the value of the deal reported to be at the time?
572714a4708984140094d970
$45.2 billion
122
False
When did Comcast hope to complete its deal for Time Warner?
572714a4708984140094d971
by the end of 2014
477
False
$45.2 billion
122
How much was Time Warner going to pay Comcast?
5a7375a953a187001ae631e5
True
the Los Angeles Times
22
Who reported Time Warner had agreed to the deal?
5a7375a953a187001ae631e6
True
New York City, Los Angeles, Dallas-Fort Worth, Cleveland, Columbus, Cincinnati, Charlotte, San Diego, and San Antonio
296
What metropolitan areas did Comcast give Time Warner?
5a7375a953a187001ae631e7
True
Comcast
58
What was Time Warner Cable attempting to buy?
5a7375a953a187001ae631e8
True
by the end of 2014
477
When do Time Warner and Comcast plan to begin the merger?
5a7375a953a187001ae631e9
True
On February 12, 2014, the Los Angeles Times reported that Comcast sought to acquire Time Warner Cable in a deal valued at $45.2 billion. On February 13, it was reported that Time Warner Cable agreed to the acquisition. This was to add several metropolitan areas to the Comcast portfolio, such as New York City, Los Angeles, Dallas-Fort Worth, Cleveland, Columbus, Cincinnati, Charlotte, San Diego, and San Antonio. Time Warner Cable and Comcast aimed to merge into one company by the end of 2014 and both have praised the deal, emphasizing the increased capabilities of a combined telecommunications network, and to "create operating efficiencies and economies of scale".
Who was the head of the FCC at the time of Comcast's proposed purchase of Time Warner Cable?
572716baf1498d1400e8f37c
Tom Wheeler
27
False
What two organizations had Wheeler headed prior to joining the FCC?
572716baf1498d1400e8f37d
National Cable & Telecommunications Association, and as largest wireless lobby, CTIA – The Wireless Association
164
False
What Senate group held hearings on the purchase?
572716baf1498d1400e8f37e
US Senate Judiciary Committee
390
False
What group sought to investigate the purchase on anti-trust grounds?
572716baf1498d1400e8f37f
United States Department of Justice Antitrust Division
541
False
Who was the general counsel of the FCC in 2015?
572716baf1498d1400e8f380
Jonathan Sallet
883
False
Tom Wheeler
27
Who is the current head of the National Cable and Telecommunications Association?
5a7376ae53a187001ae631ef
True
2013
17
When was Tom Wheeler the head of the CTIA?
5a7376ae53a187001ae631f0
True
April 9, 2014
450
What day did the House Judiciary Committee have its hearing?
5a7376ae53a187001ae631f1
True
Tom Wheeler
27
Who is the head of Politico?
5a7376ae53a187001ae631f2
True
William Baer
677
Who is the chairman of the House Judiciary Committee?
5a7376ae53a187001ae631f3
True
Critics noted in 2013 that Tom Wheeler, the head of the FCC, which has to approve the deal, is the former head of both the largest cable lobbying organization, the National Cable & Telecommunications Association, and as largest wireless lobby, CTIA – The Wireless Association. According to Politico, Comcast "donated to almost every member of Congress who has a hand in regulating it." The US Senate Judiciary Committee held a hearing on the deal on April 9, 2014. The House Judiciary Committee planned its own hearing. On March 6, 2014 the United States Department of Justice Antitrust Division confirmed it was investigating the deal. In March 2014, the division's chairman, William Baer, recused himself because he was involved in a prior Comcast NBCUniversal acquisition. Several states' attorneys general have announced support for the federal investigation. On April 24, 2015, Jonathan Sallet, general counsel of the F.C.C., said that he was going to recommend a hearing before an administrative law judge, equivalent to a collapse of the deal.
Disney and Comcast joined forces to allow Comcast to air what sports networks?
572717be5951b619008f85d1
ESPNU and ESPN3
571
False
What network was proposed by Comcast and the US Olympic Committee?
572717be5951b619008f85d2
The U.S. Olympic Network
657
False
What city hosted the 2010 Winter Olympics?
572717be5951b619008f85d3
Vancouver
725
False
What happened to the U.S. Olympic Network?
572717be5951b619008f85d4
The U.S. Olympic Committee and Comcast have ended the plans
815
False
ESPNU and ESPN3
571
Which ESPN channels are unavailable for Comcast?
5a73790853a187001ae631f9
True
after the 2010 Vancouver Olympic Games
710
When did the Olympic Committee and Comcast officially launch their combined network?
5a73790853a187001ae631fa
True
Vancouver
725
What city is the US Olympic Committee located?
5a73790853a187001ae631fb
True
The U.S. Olympic Network
657
What did Comcast put on hold?
5a73790853a187001ae631fc
True
May 19, 2009
467
When did Comcast and Disney reach an agreement?
5a73790853a187001ae631fd
True
Comcast delivers third-party television programming content to its own customers, and also produces its own first-party content both for subscribers and customers of other competing television services. Fully or partially owned Comcast programming includes Comcast Newsmakers, Comcast Network, Comcast SportsNet, SportsNet New York, MLB Network, Comcast Sports Southeast/Charter Sports Southeast, NBC Sports Network, The Golf Channel, AZN Television, and FEARnet. On May 19, 2009, Disney and ESPN announced an agreement to allow Comcast Corporation to carry the channels ESPNU and ESPN3. The U.S. Olympic Committee and Comcast intended to team up to create The U.S. Olympic Network, which was slated to launch after the 2010 Vancouver Olympic Games. These plans were then put on hold by the U.S. Olympic Committee. The U.S. Olympic Committee and Comcast have ended the plans to create The U.S. Olympic Network.
What is the name of Comcast's channel available to subscribers in east coast markets?
572719235951b619008f85e7
Comcast Network
83
False
What is the name of Comcast's subscriber channel in Colorado?
572719235951b619008f85e8
Comcast Entertainment Television
415
False
In what year did Comcast Entertainment take over operation of Colorado's Emergency Alert System?
572719235951b619008f85e9
2006
679
False
What New York area sports channel did Comcast help found in 2006
572719235951b619008f85ea
SportsNet New York
822
False
What baseball team was Comcast's partner in their New York sports network?
572719235951b619008f85eb
New York Mets
909
False
August 2004
369
When did the channel become available in New York, Pittsburgh, and Richmond?
5a73859a53a187001ae6320d
True
January 2006
671
When did Comcast partner with Altitude Sports & Entertainment?
5a73859a53a187001ae6320e
True
CET
685
What is the name of the Emergency Alert System in Philadelphia?
5a73859a53a187001ae6320f
True
SportsNet New York
822
What did Comcast and the Mets creat in 2004?
5a73859a53a187001ae63210
True
Comcast Network
83
What is the name of Time Warner Cable's variety network?
5a73859a53a187001ae63211
True
Comcast also owns many local channels. Comcast also has a variety network known as Comcast Network, available exclusively to Comcast and Cablevision subscribers. The channel shows news, sports, and entertainment and places emphasis in Philadelphia and the Baltimore/Washington, D.C. areas, though the channel is also available in New York, Pittsburgh, and Richmond. In August 2004, Comcast started a channel called Comcast Entertainment Television, for Colorado Comcast subscribers, and focusing on life in Colorado. It also carries some National Hockey League and National Basketball Association games when Altitude Sports & Entertainment is carrying the NHL or NBA. In January 2006, CET became the primary channel for Colorado's Emergency Alert System in the Denver Metro Area. In 2006, Comcast helped found the channel SportsNet New York, acquiring a minority stake. The other partners in the project were New York Mets and Time Warner Cable.
Who was the founder of Philadelphia sports corporation Spectator?
57271a2e708984140094d9c1
Ed Snider
85
False
Comcast's purchase of Spectator gave them what sports teams in Philadelphia?
57271a2e708984140094d9c2
the Philadelphia Flyers NHL hockey team, the Philadelphia 76ers National Basketball Association basketball team
135
False
What was the original name of NBCSN?
57271a2e708984140094d9c3
Outdoor Life Network
422
False
What was the second name NBCSN was known as?
57271a2e708984140094d9c4
Versus
449
False
Comcast bought naming rights for what college's basketball arena?
57271a2e708984140094d9c5
the University of Maryland
480
False
Ed Snider
85
Who founded the Philadelphia Flyers?
5a73865253a187001ae63217
True
controlling stake
26
What did Spectacor buy from Comcast?
5a73865253a187001ae63218
True
Outdoor Life Network
422
What was the original name of the Golf Channel?
5a73865253a187001ae63219
True
$25 million
507
How much did Comcast pay Spectacor for the controlling stake?
5a73865253a187001ae6321a
True
XFINITY Center
673
What did Comcast rename the Philadelphia 76ers basketball arena in 2014?
5a73865253a187001ae6321b
True
In 1996, Comcast bought a controlling stake in Spectacor from the company's founder, Ed Snider. Comcast-Spectacor holdings now include the Philadelphia Flyers NHL hockey team, the Philadelphia 76ers National Basketball Association basketball team and two large multipurpose arenas in Philadelphia. Over a number of years, Comcast became majority owner of Comcast SportsNet, as well as Golf Channel and NBCSN (formerly the Outdoor Life Network, then Versus). In 2002, Comcast paid the University of Maryland $25 million for naming rights to the new basketball arena built on the College Park campus, the XFINITY Center. Before it was renamed for Comcast's cable subsidiary, XFINITY Center was called Comcast Center from its opening in 2002 through July 2014.
What organization rated Comcast's customer service the worst in the country in 2004 and 2007?
57271b17708984140094d9d5
American Customer Satisfaction Index (ACSI)
22
False
Comcast's customer service was rated worse than what government organization?
57271b17708984140094d9d6
the Internal Revenue Service
197
False
When did the ACSI begin doing customer satisfaction surveys?
57271b17708984140094d9d7
2001
548
False
When Comcast's customer service rating fell 7%, what happened to its revenues?
57271b17708984140094d9d8
increased by 12%
717
False
What prime factor did the ACSI use to explain this anomaly?
57271b17708984140094d9d9
most cable companies have little competition at the local level
879
False
American Customer Satisfaction Index (ACSI)
22
Who listed the IRS as the company with the worst customer service rating?
5a73877453a187001ae63221
True
cable
347
What is the only industry to score above a 60?
5a73877453a187001ae63222
True
7%
686
How much did customer satisfaction increase by?
5a73877453a187001ae63223
True
Comcast
84
What company was given the worst customer satisfaction rating in 2001?
5a73877453a187001ae63224
True
increased by 12%
717
What has happened to the revenue of the Internal Revenue Service?
5a73877453a187001ae63225
True
In 2004 and 2007, the American Customer Satisfaction Index (ACSI) survey found that Comcast had the worst customer satisfaction rating of any company or government agency in the country, including the Internal Revenue Service. The ACSI indicates that almost half of all cable customers (regardless of company) have registered complaints, and that cable is the only industry to score below 60 in the ACSI. Comcast's Customer Service Rating by the ACSI surveys indicate that the company's customer service has not improved since the surveys began in 2001. Analysis of the surveys states that "Comcast is one of the lowest scoring companies in ACSI. As its customer satisfaction eroded by 7% over the past year, revenue increased by 12%." The ACSI analysis also addresses this contradiction, stating that "Such pricing power usually comes with some level of monopoly protection and most cable companies have little competition at the local level. This also means that a cable company can do well financially even though its customers are not particularly satisfied."
What organization gave Comcast an "F" rating in 2010?
57271bf2dd62a815002e9916
Corporate Library
76
False
In issuing the grade, the Corporate Library found that a third of Comcast's board was how old?
57271bf2dd62a815002e9917
over 70 years of age
475
False
How much did Comcast pay for flights of its company jet in 2010?
57271bf2dd62a815002e9918
$40 million
580
False
What conflict did Corporate Library note with Comcast's Board?
57271bf2dd62a815002e9919
several of the directors either worked for the company or had business ties to it
309
False
Brian Roberts
681
Who is the CEO of the Wall Street Journal?
5a73890b53a187001ae63235
True
F
22
What rating was the Corporate Library given?
5a73890b53a187001ae63236
True
$40 million
580
How much was the cost of the NBCU acquisition?
5a73890b53a187001ae63237
True
over 70
475
What is the average age of Comcast's board of directors?
5a73890b53a187001ae63238
True
Corporate Library
76
What company did Comcast give an F to?
5a73890b53a187001ae63239
True
Comcast was given an "F" for its corporate governance practices in 2010, by Corporate Library, an independent shareholder-research organization. According to Corporate Library, Comcast's board of directors ability to oversee and control management was severely compromised (at least in 2010) by the fact that several of the directors either worked for the company or had business ties to it (making them susceptible to management pressure), and a third of the directors were over 70 years of age. According to the Wall Street Journal nearly two-thirds of the flights of Comcast's $40 million corporate jet purchased for business travel related to the NBCU acquisition, were to CEO Brian Roberts' private homes or to resorts.
What name was listed on Comcast customer Ricardo Brown's invoice in January, 2015?
57271d57708984140094d9f1
"Asshole Brown"
102
False
What consumer advocate took over the Brown's case?
57271d57708984140094d9f2
Christopher Elliott
620
False
What was the amount of disputed money that Comcast eventually returned to the Browns?
57271d57708984140094d9f3
$60
818
False
Comcast eventually refunded how much service time to the Browns?
57271d57708984140094d9f4
two years
1015
False
Comcast also told the Browns they would do what to correct the situation with the name change?
57271d57708984140094d9f5
promise to track down and fire the responsible employee
836
False
Christopher Elliott
620
What was the name of the Comcast employee that changed Ricardo's name?
5a738a2d53a187001ae63249
True
January 2015
3
When did Comcast rectify the situation?
5a738a2d53a187001ae6324a
True
$60
818
How much did the Browns pay Elliott?
5a738a2d53a187001ae6324b
True
the facts of the incident, along with a copy of the bill
656
What did Lisa post on her blog?
5a738a2d53a187001ae6324c
True
two
1015
How many years did it take Comcast to rectify the situation?
5a738a2d53a187001ae6324d
True
In January 2015, a customer named Ricardo Brown received a bill from Comcast with his name changed to "Asshole Brown". Brown's wife, Lisa, believed a Comcast employee changed the name in response to the Browns' request to cancel their cable service, an incident in which she was refused a cancellation unless she paid a $60 fee and instead was routed to a retention specialist. Comcast refused to correct the name on their bill after bringing it to the attention of numerous customer service outlets for the company by explaining that Ricardo is the legal name of the customer, so the Browns turned to consumer advocate Christopher Elliott. Elliott posted the facts of the incident, along with a copy of the bill, on his blog. Shortly thereafter, Elliott contacted Comcast and Comcast offered the Browns an apology, a $60 refund, and a promise to track down and fire the responsible employee. The Browns instead requested a full refund for their negative experience and Comcast agreed to refund the family the last two years of service and provide the next two years of service at no charge. Comcast released a statement explaining: "We have spoken with our customer and apologized for this completely unacceptable and inappropriate name change. We have zero tolerance for this type of disrespectful behavior and are conducting a thorough investigation to determine what happened. We are working with our customer to make this right and will take appropriate steps to prevent this from happening again."
Tuberculosis
What bacterium causes tuberculosis infection?
572709795951b619008f850d
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
75
False
What primary body part is affected by tuberculosis?
572709795951b619008f850e
lungs
144
False
Roughly, what percentage of latent tuberculosis infections result in active tuberculosis?
572709795951b619008f850f
10%
270
False
What name has been used to refer to tuberculosis because of associated weight loss?
572709795951b619008f8510
consumption
527
False
Along with cough, weight loss, and night sweats, what's the fourth classic symptom of the disease?
572709795951b619008f8511
fever
468
False
bacterium Mycobacterium tuberculosis (MTB)
65
What disease is caused by TB?
5a86ee5f1d3cee001a6a1030
True
10%
270
What percentage of infections do not have symptoms?
5a86ee5f1d3cee001a6a1031
True
Tuberculosis
0
What was consumption originally called?
5a86ee5f1d3cee001a6a1032
True
latent tuberculosis
243
What is an infection with symptoms called?
5a86ee5f1d3cee001a6a1033
True
half
360
What percentage of patients with latent TB die?
5a86ee5f1d3cee001a6a1034
True
Tuberculosis (TB) is an infectious disease usually caused by the bacterium Mycobacterium tuberculosis (MTB). Tuberculosis generally affects the lungs, but can also affect other parts of the body. Most infections do not have symptoms, known as latent tuberculosis. About 10% of latent infections progress to active disease which, if left untreated, kills about half of those infected. The classic symptoms of active TB are a chronic cough with blood-containing sputum, fever, night sweats, and weight loss. The historical term "consumption" came about due to the weight loss. Infection of other organs can cause a wide range of symptoms.
How much of the entire population of the planet is estimated to be carrying tuberculosis?
57270b235951b619008f8521
One-third
0
False
How many cases of tuberculosis were active over the course of 2014?
57270b235951b619008f8522
9.6 million
153
False
In 2014, how many people died from TB?
57270b235951b619008f8523
1.5 million
202
False
Does the majority of fatalities from TB occur in developing countries or industrialized nations?
57270b235951b619008f8524
developing countries
258
False
Has TB infection increased or decreased worldwide since the start of the 21st century?
57270b235951b619008f8525
decreased
318
False
95%
232
What percentage of deaths worldwide died from TB in 2014?
5a86efa61d3cee001a6a103a
True
1.5 million
202
How many people died from TB in 2000?
5a86efa61d3cee001a6a103b
True
9.6 million
153
How many new cases of TB occurred in 2014?
5a86efa61d3cee001a6a103c
True
2000
334
When did deaths begin increasing?
5a86efa61d3cee001a6a103d
True
United States
439
Which Asian country has an 80% infection rate?
5a86efa61d3cee001a6a103e
True
One-third of the world's population is thought to be infected with TB. New infections occur in about 1% of the population each year. In 2014, there were 9.6 million cases of active TB which resulted in 1.5 million deaths. More than 95% of deaths occurred in developing countries. The number of new cases each year has decreased since 2000. About 80% of people in many Asian and African countries test positive while 5–10% of people in the United States population tests positive by the tuberculin test. Tuberculosis has been present in humans since ancient times.
Which lobes of the lungs are more often affected by TB?
57270d33dd62a815002e985a
upper lung lobes
560
False
What symptom will result if TB infection causes a Rasmussen's aneurysm?
57270d33dd62a815002e985b
massive bleeding
434
False
What percentage of tuberculosis infections don't ever manifest in symptoms of the disease?
57270d33dd62a815002e985c
25%
187
False
If TB becomes chronic, what lasting effect might it have on the lung's upper lobes?
57270d33dd62a815002e985d
scarring
514
False
Approximately what percentage of active TB cases affect the lungs?
57270d33dd62a815002e985e
90%
94
False
90%
94
What percentage of cases include chest pain?
5a86f02b1d3cee001a6a1044
True
asymptomatic
246
What is it called when people have symptoms?
5a86f02b1d3cee001a6a1045
True
25%
187
What percentage of cases erode into the pulmonary artery?
5a86f02b1d3cee001a6a1046
True
Rasmussen's
399
What kind of aneurysm does chest pain in TB patients sometimes result in?
5a86f02b1d3cee001a6a1047
True
tuberculosis
609
What are lower lobes in the lungs often more affected by?
5a86f02b1d3cee001a6a1048
True
If a tuberculosis infection does become active, it most commonly involves the lungs (in about 90% of cases). Symptoms may include chest pain and a prolonged cough producing sputum. About 25% of people may not have any symptoms (i.e. they remain "asymptomatic"). Occasionally, people may cough up blood in small amounts, and in very rare cases, the infection may erode into the pulmonary artery or a Rasmussen's aneurysm, resulting in massive bleeding. Tuberculosis may become a chronic illness and cause extensive scarring in the upper lobes of the lungs. The upper lung lobes are more frequently affected by tuberculosis than the lower ones. The reason for this difference is not clear. It may be due either to better air flow, or to poor lymph drainage within the upper lungs.
What's the medical term for TB when it spreads from the lungs to other parts of the body?
57270f27708984140094d929
extrapulmonary tuberculosis
130
False
At least what percentage of HIV-positive patients who contract TB will experience extrapulmonary infection?
57270f27708984140094d92a
50%
291
False
Along with people with diminished immune function, like HIV patients, what group of people is more likely to develop extrapulmonary TB?
57270f27708984140094d92b
young children
231
False
If TB infection spreads to the central nervous system, what is it called?
57270f27708984140094d92c
tuberculous meningitis
421
False
What's the other name for "disseminated tuberculosis"?
57270f27708984140094d92d
miliary tuberculosis
1034
False
15–20%
3
What percentage of young children get Extrapulmonary TB?
5a86f0d51d3cee001a6a104e
True
a tubercular abscess through skin
742
What does a tuberculous ulcer result in?
5a86f0d51d3cee001a6a104f
True
wash leather
916
What does disseminated tuberculosis look like?
5a86f0d51d3cee001a6a1050
True
osteomyelitis
704
What is another name for osseous tuberculosis?
5a86f0d51d3cee001a6a1051
True
10%
1082
What percentage of HIV positive cases also get Military TB?
5a86f0d51d3cee001a6a1052
True
In 15–20% of active cases, the infection spreads outside the lungs, causing other kinds of TB. These are collectively denoted as "extrapulmonary tuberculosis". Extrapulmonary TB occurs more commonly in immunosuppressed persons and young children. In those with HIV, this occurs in more than 50% of cases. Notable extrapulmonary infection sites include the pleura (in tuberculous pleurisy), the central nervous system (in tuberculous meningitis), the lymphatic system (in scrofula of the neck), the genitourinary system (in urogenital tuberculosis), and the bones and joints (in Pott disease of the spine), among others. When it spreads to the bones, it is also known as "osseous tuberculosis", a form of osteomyelitis. Sometimes, bursting of a tubercular abscess through skin results in tuberculous ulcer. An ulcer originating from nearby infected lymph nodes is painless, slowly enlarging and has an appearance of "wash leather". A potentially more serious, widespread form of TB is called "disseminated tuberculosis", also known as miliary tuberculosis. Miliary TB makes up about 10% of extrapulmonary cases.
The uniqueness of Mycobacterium tuberculosis is due to its high level of what type of molecule?
57271144f1498d1400e8f300
lipid
99
False
Is the division rate of the TB bacterium fast or slow relative to other bacteria?
57271144f1498d1400e8f301
slow
243
False
In nature, what "helper" does the MTB bacterium require to grow?
57271144f1498d1400e8f302
a host organism
683
False
How long is the period between division of MTB cells?
57271144f1498d1400e8f303
16 to 20 hours
205
False
How much time does it take most bacteria to divide?
57271144f1498d1400e8f304
less than an hour
307
False
TB
18
What is the main cause of Mycobacterium tuberculosis?
5a86f15c1d3cee001a6a1058
True
weeks
617
How long can a Gram stain last?
5a86f15c1d3cee001a6a1059
True
M. tuberculosis
704
What grows outside of the cells of a host organism?
5a86f15c1d3cee001a6a105a
True
every 16 to 20 hours
199
How often do lipids divide?
5a86f15c1d3cee001a6a105b
True
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
24
What divides faster than other bacteria?
5a86f15c1d3cee001a6a105c
True
The main cause of TB is Mycobacterium tuberculosis, a small, aerobic, nonmotile bacillus. The high lipid content of this pathogen accounts for many of its unique clinical characteristics. It divides every 16 to 20 hours, which is an extremely slow rate compared with other bacteria, which usually divide in less than an hour. Mycobacteria have an outer membrane lipid bilayer. If a Gram stain is performed, MTB either stains very weakly "Gram-positive" or does not retain dye as a result of the high lipid and mycolic acid content of its cell wall. MTB can withstand weak disinfectants and survive in a dry state for weeks. In nature, the bacterium can grow only within the cells of a host organism, but M. tuberculosis can be cultured in the laboratory.
What's another word for "sputum"?
5727629fdd62a815002e9bea
phlegm
55
False
One of the two standard acid-fast staining techniques is the Kinyoun stain; what's the other?
5727629fdd62a815002e9beb
Ziehl–Neelsen stain
311
False
What color will acid-fast bacilli become when stained?
5727629fdd62a815002e9bec
bright red
384
False
What's the term for bacillus that can be exposed to acidic solutions without losing their stains?
5727629fdd62a815002e9bed
acid-fast
237
False
If a scientist didn't want to use an acid-fast staining technique, what type of microscopy could they use instead?
5727629fdd62a815002e9bee
fluorescence
470
False
sputum
76
What is another name for an expectorated sample?
5a86f1de1d3cee001a6a1062
True
acidic solution
197
What removes all stains from MTB?
5a86f1de1d3cee001a6a1063
True
Ziehl–Neelsen
311
What is another name for the Kinyoun stain?
5a86f1de1d3cee001a6a1064
True
acid-fast bacilli
364
What become blue when stained?
5a86f1de1d3cee001a6a1065
True
bright red
384
What color is Auramine-rhodamine staining?
5a86f1de1d3cee001a6a1066
True
Using histological stains on expectorated samples from phlegm (also called "sputum"), scientists can identify MTB under a microscope. Since MTB retains certain stains even after being treated with acidic solution, it is classified as an acid-fast bacillus. The most common acid-fast staining techniques are the Ziehl–Neelsen stain and the Kinyoun stain, which dye acid-fast bacilli a bright red that stands out against a blue background. Auramine-rhodamine staining and fluorescence microscopy are also used.
Which mycobacterium that causes TB can often be found in unpasteurized milk?
572764c9f1498d1400e8f754
M. bovis
230
False
Which one of the tuberculosis mycobacteria is associated with the Horn of Africa?
572764c9f1498d1400e8f755
M. canetti
410
False
Which of the four TB-causing bacteria do scientists think might be more common than we know?
572764c9f1498d1400e8f756
M. microti
534
False
What bacterium has the name of the country it affects most in its name?
572764c9f1498d1400e8f757
M. africanum
132
False
four
44
How many M. tuberculosis complexes are there?
5a86f28a1d3cee001a6a106c
True
Horn of Africa
460
Which parts of Africa is M. africanum most common in?
5a86f28a1d3cee001a6a106d
True
M. canetti
410
African emigrants are not likely to get what disease in the Horn of Africa?
5a86f28a1d3cee001a6a106e
True
M. bovis
230
What form of tuberculosis has pasteurized milk caused?
5a86f28a1d3cee001a6a106f
True
M. microti
534
Which bacterium has likely been overestimated?
5a86f28a1d3cee001a6a1070
True
The M. tuberculosis complex (MTBC) includes four other TB-causing mycobacteria: M. bovis, M. africanum, M. canetti, and M. microti. M. africanum is not widespread, but it is a significant cause of tuberculosis in parts of Africa. M. bovis was once a common cause of tuberculosis, but the introduction of pasteurized milk has almost completely eliminated this as a public health problem in developed countries. M. canetti is rare and seems to be limited to the Horn of Africa, although a few cases have been seen in African emigrants. M. microti is also rare and is seen almost only in immunodeficient people, although its prevalence may be significantly underestimated.
If you're around someone with active TB, what's the chance you'll contract it expressed as a percentage?
5727691df1498d1400e8f78a
22%
140
False
Left untreated, about how many people could contract tuberculosis from an active TB patient in a year?
5727691df1498d1400e8f78b
10–15
219
False
About how long will a TB patient receiving effective treatment stay contagious?
5727691df1498d1400e8f78c
two weeks
863
False
If you contracted tuberculosis today, what's the estimated gestation period before you could spread the infection to others?
5727691df1498d1400e8f78d
three to four weeks
1040
False
What term is interchangeable with "active" when talking about tuberculosis infection?
5727691df1498d1400e8f78e
overt
797
False
22%
140
What is the infection rate for people not in close contact with TB?
5a8708c71d3cee001a6a1076
True
10–15
219
How many people does a person whose TB is being treated infect per year?
5a8708c71d3cee001a6a1077
True
latent
329
Which type of TB is more infectious than active TB?
5a8708c71d3cee001a6a1078
True
anti-TB
828
Uninfected people are treated with what regimens?
5a8708c71d3cee001a6a1079
True
three to four weeks
1040
How long is someone contagious if they are recently infected?
5a8708c71d3cee001a6a107a
True
People with prolonged, frequent, or close contact with people with TB are at particularly high risk of becoming infected, with an estimated 22% infection rate. A person with active but untreated tuberculosis may infect 10–15 (or more) other people per year. Transmission should occur from only people with active TB – those with latent infection are not thought to be contagious. The probability of transmission from one person to another depends upon several factors, including the number of infectious droplets expelled by the carrier, the effectiveness of ventilation, the duration of exposure, the virulence of the M. tuberculosis strain, the level of immunity in the uninfected person, and others. The cascade of person-to-person spread can be circumvented by segregating those with active ("overt") TB and putting them on anti-TB drug regimens. After about two weeks of effective treatment, subjects with nonresistant active infections generally do not remain contagious to others. If someone does become infected, it typically takes three to four weeks before the newly infected person becomes infectious enough to transmit the disease to others.
What specific part of the lungs marks the start of tuberculosis infection?
57276d92708984140094dd47
pulmonary alveoli
52
False
What's the process by which macrophages try to get rid of the TB bacterium?
57276d92708984140094dd48
phagocytosis
222
False
What do you get when you combine a lysosome and a phagosome?
57276d92708984140094dd49
a phagolysosome
427
False
What does the M. tuberculosis bacterium have that protects it from being affected by toxins?
57276d92708984140094dd4a
mycolic acid capsule
590
False
What vesicle is the temporary holding room for the M. tuberculosis bacterium during phagocytosis?
57276d92708984140094dd4b
phagosome
362
False
mycobacteria
29
What replicates inside the pulmonary alveoli?
5a8709981d3cee001a6a1080
True
TB infection
0
What begins when the endosomes reach the pulmonary alveoli?
5a8709981d3cee001a6a1081
True
Macrophages
145
What do the bacterium identify?
5a8709981d3cee001a6a1082
True
bacterium
261
What envelopes the macrophage?
5a8709981d3cee001a6a1083
True
phagosome
377
What does the combination of a lysosome and a phagolysosome create?
5a8709981d3cee001a6a1084
True
TB infection begins when the mycobacteria reach the pulmonary alveoli, where they invade and replicate within endosomes of alveolar macrophages. Macrophages identify the bacterium as foreign and attempt to eliminate it by phagocytosis. During this process, the bacterium is enveloped by the macrophage and stored temporarily in a membrane-bound vesicle called a phagosome. The phagosome then combines with a lysosome to create a phagolysosome. In the phagolysosome, the cell attempts to use reactive oxygen species and acid to kill the bacterium. However, M. tuberculosis has a thick, waxy mycolic acid capsule that protects it from these toxic substances. M. tuberculosis is able to reproduce inside the macrophage and will eventually kill the immune cell.
What two-word phrase is used for the main part of the lungs infected by TB?
5727713d708984140094dda9
Ghon focus
58
False
If the lungs are infected by TB via bloodstream, what's the type of focus?
5727713d708984140094ddaa
Simon focus
270
False
In what general area of the lungs is SImon focus usually located?
5727713d708984140094ddab
the top
308
False
What is the term that describes a blood-borne infection, like TB when it travels through the blood to the kidneys or brain?
5727713d708984140094ddac
hematogenous
334
False
Four areas of the body are usually safe from TB infection, including skeletal muscles, heart, and thyroid; what's the fourth?
5727713d708984140094ddad
pancreas
608
False
Ghon focus
58
What is the section of lung not affected by TB called?
5a870c111d3cee001a6a108a
True
Simon focus
270
What is another name for Ghon focus?
5a870c111d3cee001a6a108b
True
hematogenous
334
What is type of transmission is found in the lungs?
5a870c111d3cee001a6a108c
True
the kidneys
441
Where are the peripheral lymph nodes?
5a870c111d3cee001a6a108d
True
Tuberculosis
173
What disease often affects the heart, skeletal muscles, pancreas, or thyroid?
5a870c111d3cee001a6a108e
True
The primary site of infection in the lungs, known as the "Ghon focus", is generally located in either the upper part of the lower lobe, or the lower part of the upper lobe. Tuberculosis of the lungs may also occur via infection from the blood stream. This is known as a Simon focus and is typically found in the top of the lung. This hematogenous transmission can also spread infection to more distant sites, such as peripheral lymph nodes, the kidneys, the brain, and the bones. All parts of the body can be affected by the disease, though for unknown reasons it rarely affects the heart, skeletal muscles, pancreas, or thyroid.
What specific type of disease is TB?
572773e9f1498d1400e8f882
granulomatous inflammatory
41
False
What type of cells gather around infected macrophages in a person infected with TB?
572773e9f1498d1400e8f883
lymphocytes
172
False
What type of cell forms when macrophages clump together trying to kill off the TB infection?
572773e9f1498d1400e8f884
multinucleated
312
False
What's the technical term for abnormal cell death?
572773e9f1498d1400e8f885
necrosis
914
False
What natural defensive response is hindered by cells in granulomas that can't send antigen to lymphocytes?
572773e9f1498d1400e8f886
immune response
725
False
macrophages
209
What surrounds the lymphocytes?
5a870cc71d3cee001a6a1094
True
a giant multinucleated cell
304
What do infected macrophages form?
5a870cc71d3cee001a6a1095
True
granulomas
559
What is used by bacteria to destroy the host's immune system?
5a870cc71d3cee001a6a1096
True
Macrophages and dendritic
620
Which cells serve as antigen to lymphocytes?
5a870cc71d3cee001a6a1097
True
caseous necrosis
1027
What is the texture of cheese called?
5a870cc71d3cee001a6a1098
True
Tuberculosis is classified as one of the granulomatous inflammatory diseases. Macrophages, T lymphocytes, B lymphocytes, and fibroblasts aggregate to form granulomas, with lymphocytes surrounding the infected macrophages. When other macrophages attack the infected macrophage, they fuse together to form a giant multinucleated cell in the alveolar lumen. The granuloma may prevent dissemination of the mycobacteria and provide a local environment for interaction of cells of the immune system. However, more recent evidence suggests that the bacteria use the granulomas to avoid destruction by the host's immune system. Macrophages and dendritic cells in the granulomas are unable to present antigen to lymphocytes; thus the immune response is suppressed. Bacteria inside the granuloma can become dormant, resulting in latent infection. Another feature of the granulomas is the development of abnormal cell death (necrosis) in the center of tubercles. To the naked eye, this has the texture of soft, white cheese and is termed caseous necrosis.
What process replaces tissue damaged by TB?
57277506708984140094de19
scarring
154
False
What material can sometimes be expelled by coughing if the cavities it's stored in connect to bronchi?
57277506708984140094de1a
caseous necrotic material
188
False
What type of bacteria-attacking medicine will treat tuberculosis?
57277506708984140094de1b
antibiotics
422
False
Are the bacteria in caseous necrotic material living or dead?
57277506708984140094de1c
living
349
False
Affected tissue
123
What replaces scarring?
5a870d941d3cee001a6a109e
True
caseous necrotic material
188
What is affected tissue filled with?
5a870d941d3cee001a6a109f
True
air passages bronchi
279
What do cavities join with in the waning period?
5a870d941d3cee001a6a10a0
True
antibiotics
422
What medicine treats scar tissue?
5a870d941d3cee001a6a10a1
True
cavities
252
What joins with air passages to prevent material from being coughed up?
5a870d941d3cee001a6a10a2
True
In many people, the infection waxes and wanes. Tissue destruction and necrosis are often balanced by healing and fibrosis. Affected tissue is replaced by scarring and cavities filled with caseous necrotic material. During active disease, some of these cavities are joined to the air passages bronchi and this material can be coughed up. It contains living bacteria, so can spread the infection. Treatment with appropriate antibiotics kills bacteria and allows healing to take place. Upon cure, affected areas are eventually replaced by scar tissue.
Is active TB difficult or easy to diagnose by patients' symptoms alone?
572777ca708984140094de67
difficult
67
False
If a patient has some symptoms associated with TB, after what time period should tuberculosis be diagnostically considered?
572777ca708984140094de68
two weeks
274
False
What part of the body would be X-rayed to check for TB?
572777ca708984140094de69
chest
287
False
What sign of TB infection would a lab be looking for in a sputum culture?
572777ca708984140094de6a
acid-fast bacilli
332
False
Along with interferon-y release essays, what other tests aren't useful in TB diagnosis in developing countries?
572777ca708984140094de6b
tuberculin skin tests
428
False
active tuberculosis
11
What is usually diagnosed using just signs and symptoms?
5a870e411d3cee001a6a10a8
True
longer than two weeks
262
How long do symptoms in someone who is immunosuppressed last?
5a870e411d3cee001a6a10a9
True
multiple sputum
303
What kind of cultures test for HIV?
5a870e411d3cee001a6a10aa
True
Interferon-γ release assays and tuberculin skin tests
396
What kind of tests are common in developing countries?
5a870e411d3cee001a6a10ab
True
acid-fast
332
What type of bacilli do interferon-y release assays look for?
5a870e411d3cee001a6a10ac
True
Diagnosing active tuberculosis based only on signs and symptoms is difficult, as is diagnosing the disease in those who are immunosuppressed. A diagnosis of TB should, however, be considered in those with signs of lung disease or constitutional symptoms lasting longer than two weeks. A chest X-ray and multiple sputum cultures for acid-fast bacilli are typically part of the initial evaluation. Interferon-γ release assays and tuberculin skin tests are of little use in the developing world. IGRA have similar limitations in those with HIV.
What result might someone who has received a TB vaccination get from the Mantoux test?
57277a72f1498d1400e8f936
false-positive
137
False
What does "IGRAs" stand for?
57277a72f1498d1400e8f937
Interferon gamma release assays
298
False
In combination with skin tests, are IGRAs associated with an increase or decrease in sensitivity?
57277a72f1498d1400e8f938
increase
624
False
Which test has fewer false positives: IGRAs or the Mantoux skin test?
57277a72f1498d1400e8f939
IGRAs
331
False
What liquid would you need from a patient to perform IGRAs?
57277a72f1498d1400e8f93a
blood
344
False
Mantoux tuberculin skin test
4
What is used to test for sarcoidosis?
5a870ff61d3cee001a6a10b2
True
false-positive
137
What incorrect result may someone who has not gotten the TB vaccination get?
5a870ff61d3cee001a6a10b3
True
mycobacteria
482
What environmental substance are IGRAs affected by?
5a870ff61d3cee001a6a10b4
True
IGRAs
331
What has more false-positives than the Mantoux tuberculin test?
5a870ff61d3cee001a6a10b5
True
The Mantoux tuberculin skin test is often used to screen people at high risk for TB. Those who have been previously immunized may have a false-positive test result. The test may be falsely negative in those with sarcoidosis, Hodgkin's lymphoma, malnutrition, and most notably, active tuberculosis. Interferon gamma release assays (IGRAs), on a blood sample, are recommended in those who are positive to the Mantoux test. These are not affected by immunization or most environmental mycobacteria, so they generate fewer false-positive results. However, they are affected by M. szulgai, M. marinum, and M. kansasii. IGRAs may increase sensitivity when used in addition to the skin test, but may be less sensitive than the skin test when used alone.
For about how long does full immunity from the TB vaccine last?
57277c575951b619008f8b13
ten years
145
False
What percentage of kids in the whole world get the BCG vaccine?
57277c575951b619008f8b14
90%
61
False
Is TB common or uncommon in the United States?
57277c575951b619008f8b15
uncommon
175
False
In addition to the U.S. and Canada, what European country sees very few tuberculosis infections?
57277c575951b619008f8b16
the United Kingdom
203
False
What segment of the population gets the TB vaccine in countries like Canada with a very low incidence of infection?
57277c575951b619008f8b17
high risk
290
False
more than 90%
51
What percentage of children have TB?
5a87110c1d3cee001a6a10ba
True
tuberculosis
159
What disease is common in the UK?
5a87110c1d3cee001a6a10bb
True
about ten years
139
How long do you have to wait to get the TB vaccine?
5a87110c1d3cee001a6a10bc
True
BCG
246
What is not given to high risk people?
5a87110c1d3cee001a6a10bd
True
Canada, the United Kingdom, and the United States
195
Which three countries have a high risk of tuberculosis?
5a87110c1d3cee001a6a10be
True
It is the most widely used vaccine worldwide, with more than 90% of all children being vaccinated. The immunity it induces decreases after about ten years. As tuberculosis is uncommon in most of Canada, the United Kingdom, and the United States, BCG is administered only to those people at high risk. Part of the reasoning against the use of the vaccine is that it makes the tuberculin skin test falsely positive, reducing the test's use in screening. A number of new vaccines are currently in development.
What group heads up the Global Plan to Stop Tuberculosis?
5727a85fff5b5019007d920e
Stop TB Partnership
96
False
In what year did the WHO say tuberculosis was a "global health emergency"?
5727a85fff5b5019007d920f
1993
73
False
How many lives did the Stop TB Partnership vow to save in the nine years between its start and 2015?
5727a85fff5b5019007d9210
14 million
179
False
Drug-resistant TB is one of the barriers to success of the Stop TB Partnership's initiative; what's the other other?
5727a85fff5b5019007d9211
HIV-associated tuberculosis
328
False
What organization created a system to classify various types of TB?
5727a85fff5b5019007d9212
American Thoracic Society
469
False
a Global Plan to Stop Tuberculosis
126
What did the World Health Organization create in 2006?
5a87184d1d3cee001a6a10c4
True
14 million
179
How many lives has Stop TB Partnership saved?
5a87184d1d3cee001a6a10c5
True
1993
73
When was the World Health Organization founded?
5a87184d1d3cee001a6a10c6
True
American Thoracic Society
469
Who developed the classification of HIV-associated TB?
5a87184d1d3cee001a6a10c7
True
2006
86
When was the tuberculosis classification system created?
5a87184d1d3cee001a6a10c8
True
The World Health Organization declared TB a "global health emergency" in 1993, and in 2006, the Stop TB Partnership developed a Global Plan to Stop Tuberculosis that aims to save 14 million lives between its launch and 2015. A number of targets they have set are not likely to be achieved by 2015, mostly due to the increase in HIV-associated tuberculosis and the emergence of multiple drug-resistant tuberculosis. A tuberculosis classification system developed by the American Thoracic Society is used primarily in public health programs.
What part of the mycobacterial cell makes tuberculosis more difficult to treat?
5727ae4dff5b5019007d9270
wall
172
False
Isoniazid is one of the two most popular drugs for TB treatment; what's the other one?
5727ae4dff5b5019007d9271
rifampicin
308
False
What complication does the use of combinations of antibiotics for active TB prevent?
5727ae4dff5b5019007d9272
antibiotic resistance
560
False
What's the three-word name for the method where a health care worker watches their patient take their medication?
5727ae4dff5b5019007d9273
Directly observed therapy
699
False
What organization recommends directly observed therapy to make sure people take their antibiotics correctly?
5727ae4dff5b5019007d9274
WHO
825
False
bacteria
45
What is used to kill antibiotics?
5a871acf1d3cee001a6a10ce
True
the mycobacterial cell wall
149
The chemical composition of what wall makes TB easy to treat?
5a871acf1d3cee001a6a10cf
True
isoniazid and rifampicin
294
Which two drugs are used simultaneously to treat latent TB?
5a871acf1d3cee001a6a10d0
True
several months
360
How long are antibiotics ineffective?
5a871acf1d3cee001a6a10d1
True
WHO
825
What health care provider watches the person take their medications?
5a871acf1d3cee001a6a10d2
True
Treatment of TB uses antibiotics to kill the bacteria. Effective TB treatment is difficult, due to the unusual structure and chemical composition of the mycobacterial cell wall, which hinders the entry of drugs and makes many antibiotics ineffective. The two antibiotics most commonly used are isoniazid and rifampicin, and treatments can be prolonged, taking several months. Latent TB treatment usually employs a single antibiotic, while active TB disease is best treated with combinations of several antibiotics to reduce the risk of the bacteria developing antibiotic resistance. People with latent infections are also treated to prevent them from progressing to active TB disease later in life. Directly observed therapy, i.e., having a health care provider watch the person take their medications, is recommended by the WHO in an effort to reduce the number of people not appropriately taking antibiotics. The evidence to support this practice over people simply taking their medications independently is poor. Methods to remind people of the importance of treatment do, however, appear effective.
If a person has TB that's resistant to rifampicin and isoniazid, which type of the disease do they have?
5727b0c23acd2414000de9db
MDR-TB
462
False
What's the minimum number of second-line medication classes your TB would have to resist to make it count as "extensively drug-resistant"?
5727b0c23acd2414000de9dc
three
618
False
In what country was the first case of totally drug-resistant tuberculosis?
5727b0c23acd2414000de9dd
Italy
774
False
What's the only antibiotic that might be effective against totally drug-resistant TB?
5727b0c23acd2414000de9de
Bedaquiline
860
False
Cases of totally drug-resistant TB have been found in what country in addition to Italy and India?
5727b0c23acd2414000de9df
Iran
844
False
secondary (acquired) resistance
136
Someone who is not susceptible to MTP develops what?
5a871d531d3cee001a6a10d8
True
compliance
273
What is low-quality medication an example of a lack of?
5a871d531d3cee001a6a10d9
True
Totally drug-resistant TB
673
What was first reported in Iran?
5a871d531d3cee001a6a10da
True
2003
766
When was MDR-TB first observed?
5a871d531d3cee001a6a10db
True
Italy
774
Where was bedaquiline created?
5a871d531d3cee001a6a10dc
True
Primary resistance occurs when a person becomes infected with a resistant strain of TB. A person with fully susceptible MTB may develop secondary (acquired) resistance during therapy because of inadequate treatment, not taking the prescribed regimen appropriately (lack of compliance), or using low-quality medication. Drug-resistant TB is a serious public health issue in many developing countries, as its treatment is longer and requires more expensive drugs. MDR-TB is defined as resistance to the two most effective first-line TB drugs: rifampicin and isoniazid. Extensively drug-resistant TB is also resistant to three or more of the six classes of second-line drugs. Totally drug-resistant TB is resistant to all currently used drugs. It was first observed in 2003 in Italy, but not widely reported until 2012, and has also been found in Iran and India. Bedaquiline is tentatively supported for use in multiple drug-resistant TB.
As immunosuppression goes up in tuberculosis cases, what risk rises with it?
5727b2e53acd2414000dea15
reactivation
12
False
What disease has a similar relationship as TB does between reactivation and immunosuppression?
5727b2e53acd2414000dea16
HIV
97
False
If you'd been diagnosed with tuberculosis in 1995, how great a chance would you have faced of dying from it?
5727b2e53acd2414000dea17
8%
547
False
In what year did the risk of dying from TB reach half what it was in 1995?
5727b2e53acd2414000dea18
2008
531
False
New studies have found that half of reactivation cases of tuberculosis might actually be due to what other "re-" word?
5727b2e53acd2414000dea19
reinfection
276
False
HIV
97
Reactivation is caused by what disease?
5a871df11d3cee001a6a10e2
True
10% per year
191
What is the risk of reactivation in someone who only has M. tuberculosis?
5a871df11d3cee001a6a10e3
True
4%
522
What was the chance of death from HIV in 2008?
5a871df11d3cee001a6a10e4
True
2008
531
When did scientists begin to suspect reinfection was worse than previously thought?
5a871df11d3cee001a6a10e5
True
DNA fingerprinting
219
What methods have recent studies used to examine HIV strains?
5a871df11d3cee001a6a10e6
True
The risk of reactivation increases with immunosuppression, such as that caused by infection with HIV. In people coinfected with M. tuberculosis and HIV, the risk of reactivation increases to 10% per year. Studies using DNA fingerprinting of M. tuberculosis strains have shown reinfection contributes more substantially to recurrent TB than previously thought, with estimates that it might account for more than 50% of reactivated cases in areas where TB is common. The chance of death from a case of tuberculosis is about 4% as of 2008, down from 8% in 1995.
At any given time, about how much of all the people in the world has M. tuberculosis?
5727b4f53acd2414000dea3d
one-third
8
False
Approximately how many active TB cases were there in 2012?
5727b4f53acd2414000dea3e
8.6 million
294
False
How many patients were diagnosed with tuberculosis in 2010?
5727b4f53acd2414000dea3f
8.8 million
342
False
About how many people died in 2010 carrying both HIV and TB?
5727b4f53acd2414000dea40
0.35 million
510
False
What percentage of the world's total population gets infected with tuberculosis every year?
5727b4f53acd2414000dea41
1%
123
False
8.6 million
294
How many people died from TB in 2012?
5a871ebd1d3cee001a6a10ec
True
90–95%
230
What percentage of TB deaths result in death?
5a871ebd1d3cee001a6a10ed
True
1.20–1.45 million
390
How many people died in developing countries from TB?
5a871ebd1d3cee001a6a10ee
True
1%
123
What percentage of the population is infected by HIV each year?
5a871ebd1d3cee001a6a10ef
True
8.8 million
342
How many chronic cases of TB were there total in 2012?
5a871ebd1d3cee001a6a10f0
True
Roughly one-third of the world's population has been infected with M. tuberculosis, with new infections occurring in about 1% of the population each year. However, most infections with M. tuberculosis do not cause TB disease, and 90–95% of infections remain asymptomatic. In 2012, an estimated 8.6 million chronic cases were active. In 2010, 8.8 million new cases of TB were diagnosed, and 1.20–1.45 million deaths occurred, most of these occurring in developing countries. Of these 1.45 million deaths, about 0.35 million occur in those also infected with HIV.
What infectious disease causes more deaths than tuberculosis?
5727b8ad2ca10214002d94c2
HIV/AIDS
98
False
When did new cases of TB infection start going down?
5727b8ad2ca10214002d94c3
2002
217
False
What country has had the most success reducing the TB mortality rate?
5727b8ad2ca10214002d94c4
China
223
False
In what decade did some strains of drug-resistant TB start showing up?
5727b8ad2ca10214002d94c5
1980s
974
False
How much did China reduce its rate of death from TB in the 20 years leading up to 2010?
5727b8ad2ca10214002d94c6
80%
288
False
Tuberculosis
0
What infections disease causes more deaths than HIV?
5a871fcb1d3cee001a6a10f6
True
80%
288
How much has the US reduced its TB mortality rate by?
5a871fcb1d3cee001a6a10f7
True
China
223
What country has reduced its HIV mortality rate the most?
5a871fcb1d3cee001a6a10f8
True
1980s
974
When did HIV-associated tuberculosis become more common?
5a871fcb1d3cee001a6a10f9
True
China
223
Which named country tests positive for TB in about 80% of its population?
5a871fcb1d3cee001a6a10fa
True
Tuberculosis is the second-most common cause of death from infectious disease (after those due to HIV/AIDS). The total number of tuberculosis cases has been decreasing since 2005, while new cases have decreased since 2002. China has achieved particularly dramatic progress, with about an 80% reduction in its TB mortality rate between 1990 and 2010. The number of new cases has declined by 17% between 2004–2014. Tuberculosis is more common in developing countries; about 80% of the population in many Asian and African countries test positive in tuberculin tests, while only 5–10% of the US population test positive. Hopes of totally controlling the disease have been dramatically dampened because of a number of factors, including the difficulty of developing an effective vaccine, the expensive and time-consuming diagnostic process, the necessity of many months of treatment, the increase in HIV-associated tuberculosis, and the emergence of drug-resistant cases in the 1980s.
Out of every 100,000 people in Swaziland in 2007, how many were infected with tuberculosis?
5727bd804b864d1900163c18
1,200
89
False
What country had a record-setting 2 million new cases of TB in 2007?
5727bd804b864d1900163c19
India
121
False
What people in Australia and Canada have a much higher risk of TB infection than other residents?
5727bd804b864d1900163c1a
aboriginal
560
False
What indigenous people in the U.S. are five times more likely to die from TB?
5727bd804b864d1900163c1b
Native Americans
629
False
What percentage of TB cases in America are diagnosed in minority groups?
5727bd804b864d1900163c1c
84%
736
False
84%
736
What percentage of TB cases worldwide are minorities?
5a8720c81d3cee001a6a1100
True
2.0
178
How many new cases in millions did Swaziland have in 2007?
5a8720c81d3cee001a6a1101
True
tuberculosis
225
What is mostly found in remote areas in developed countries?
5a8720c81d3cee001a6a1102
True
1,200
89
What was the rate of TB cases per 100,000 people in Swaziland in 2010?
5a8720c81d3cee001a6a1103
True
fivefold
653
How much greater is the mortality rate from TB for racial and ethnic minorities?
5a8720c81d3cee001a6a1104
True
In 2007, the country with the highest estimated incidence rate of TB was Swaziland, with 1,200 cases per 100,000 people. India had the largest total incidence, with an estimated 2.0 million new cases. In developed countries, tuberculosis is less common and is found mainly in urban areas. Rates per 100,000 people in different areas of the world were: globally 178, Africa 332, the Americas 36, Eastern Mediterranean 173, Europe 63, Southeast Asia 278, and Western Pacific 139 in 2010. In Canada and Australia, tuberculosis is many times more common among the aboriginal peoples, especially in remote areas. In the United States Native Americans have a fivefold greater mortality from TB, and racial and ethnic minorities accounted for 84% of all reported TB cases.
What animal was found with 17,000-year-old damage from tuberculosis?
5727c461ff5b5019007d94ae
bison
162
False
What does MTBC stand for?
5727c461ff5b5019007d94af
M. tuberculosis complex
396
False
During what time period do some scientist believe the first human could have contracted TB from an ancestor they shared with animals?
5727c461ff5b5019007d94b0
Neolithic Revolution
679
False
In which U.S. state was the oldest definitive evidence of TB found?
5727c461ff5b5019007d94b1
Wyoming
171
False
17,000 years ago
195
When was Wyoming discovered?
5a872ddc1d3cee001a6a110a
True
MTBC
488
Which gene was concluded to come from animals?
5a872ddc1d3cee001a6a110b
True
the Neolithic Revolution
675
What period did the bison live in?
5a872ddc1d3cee001a6a110c
True
humans
465
What did animals get TB from?
5a872ddc1d3cee001a6a110d
True
bovines
257
What species have we definitively traced the origin of TB to?
5a872ddc1d3cee001a6a110e
True
Tuberculosis has been present in humans since antiquity. The earliest unambiguous detection of M. tuberculosis involves evidence of the disease in the remains of bison in Wyoming dated to around 17,000 years ago. However, whether tuberculosis originated in bovines, then was transferred to humans, or whether it diverged from a common ancestor, is currently unclear. A comparison of the genes of M. tuberculosis complex (MTBC) in humans to MTBC in animals suggests humans did not acquire MTBC from animals during animal domestication, as was previously believed. Both strains of the tuberculosis bacteria share a common ancestor, which could have infected humans as early as the Neolithic Revolution.
Who discovered M. tuberculosis?
5727c7343acd2414000dec23
Robert Koch
101
False
What year was Koch awarded a Nobel Prize?
5727c7343acd2414000dec24
1905
171
False
Koch's conviction that human and bovine strains of TB were unrelated meant more people were exposed by drinking what?
5727c7343acd2414000dec25
milk
325
False
What did Koch call the ineffective treatment for TB he came up with in 1890?
5727c7343acd2414000dec26
tuberculin
589
False
What event is celebrated on March 24th to recognize the test for latent TB?
5727c7343acd2414000dec27
World Tuberculosis Day
738
False
Robert Koch
101
Who started World Tuberculosis Day?
5a87300c1d3cee001a6a1114
True
human tuberculosis
241
What did Koch believe was similar to bovine tuberculosis?
5a87300c1d3cee001a6a1115
True
1890
571
What year did World Tuberculosis Day start?
5a87300c1d3cee001a6a1116
True
tuberculin
589
What remedy did Koch win a Nobel prize for?
5a87300c1d3cee001a6a1117
True
24 March 1882
84
When did Koch describe the connection between TB and infected milk?
5a87300c1d3cee001a6a1118
True
The bacillus causing tuberculosis, M. tuberculosis, was identified and described on 24 March 1882 by Robert Koch. He received the Nobel Prize in physiology or medicine in 1905 for this discovery. Koch did not believe the bovine (cattle) and human tuberculosis diseases were similar, which delayed the recognition of infected milk as a source of infection. Later, the risk of transmission from this source was dramatically reduced by the invention of the pasteurization process. Koch announced a glycerine extract of the tubercle bacilli as a "remedy" for tuberculosis in 1890, calling it "tuberculin". While it was not effective, it was later successfully adapted as a screening test for the presence of pre-symptomatic tuberculosis. The World Tuberculosis Day was established on 24 March for this reason.
What was tuberculosis called in 19th-century England?
5727cbf64b864d1900163d44
consumption
184
False
How many deaths out of every six in France during 1918 were attributed to tuberculosis?
5727cbf64b864d1900163d45
one
207
False
In what decade was TB's communicability finally realized?
5727cbf64b864d1900163d46
1880s
308
False
What did Britain try to get people to stop doing to reduce the spread of TB in public?
5727cbf64b864d1900163d47
spitting
410
False
What were the "treatment" facilities for poor people with TB in the early 1900s called?
5727cbf64b864d1900163d48
sanatoria
693
False
one in four
142
How many deaths in France were caused by TB in 1815?
5a87323e1d3cee001a6a111e
True
1918
201
When were deaths from TB in England reduced to one in six?
5a87323e1d3cee001a6a111f
True
1880s
308
When did France put TB on the notifiable disease list?
5a87323e1d3cee001a6a1120
True
50%
736
What percent of people who contracted TB died?
5a87323e1d3cee001a6a1121
True
sanatoria
486
Where did poor people get excellent healthcare?
5a87323e1d3cee001a6a1122
True
Tuberculosis caused the most widespread public concern in the 19th and early 20th centuries as an endemic disease of the urban poor. In 1815, one in four deaths in England was due to "consumption". By 1918, one in six deaths in France was still caused by TB. After TB was determined to be contagious, in the 1880s, it was put on a notifiable disease list in Britain; campaigns were started to stop people from spitting in public places, and the infected poor were "encouraged" to enter sanatoria that resembled prisons (the sanatoria for the middle and upper classes offered excellent care and constant medical attention). Whatever the (purported) benefits of the "fresh air" and labor in the sanatoria, even under the best conditions, 50% of those who entered died within five years (circa 1916).
When did the incidence of TB in Europe reach its highest point?
5727d82a3acd2414000dede9
1800s
89
False
When tuberculosis was at its worst in Europe, what percentage of deaths was TB-related?
5727d82a3acd2414000dedea
25%
118
False
What British health organization made tuberculosis its top priority at its start?
5727d82a3acd2414000dedeb
Medical Research Council
418
False
What year was the Medical Research Council created?
5727d82a3acd2414000dedec
1913
468
False
About how much had the death rate from TB been reduced in Europe by the midpoint of the 20th century?
5727d82a3acd2414000deded
90%
182
False
25%
118
What percentage of deaths were caused by TB in the 1950s?
5a8733c71d3cee001a6a1128
True
the arrival of streptomycin and other antibiotics
280
What reduced rates of mortality in the 1950s?
5a8733c71d3cee001a6a1129
True
Medical Research Council
418
What organization brought antibiotics to Britain?
5a8733c71d3cee001a6a112a
True
1913
468
What year did streptomycin arrive?
5a8733c71d3cee001a6a112b
True
In Europe, rates of tuberculosis began to rise in the early 1600s to a peak level in the 1800s, when it caused nearly 25% of all deaths. By the 1950s, mortality had decreased nearly 90%. Improvements in public health began significantly reducing rates of tuberculosis even before the arrival of streptomycin and other antibiotics, although the disease remained a significant threat to public health such that when the Medical Research Council was formed in Britain in 1913, its initial focus was tuberculosis research.
What member of leadership at the Global Fund to Fight AIDS, Tuberculosis and Malaria called TB a "pandemic"?
5727dae42ca10214002d981c
Mark Dybul
131
False
What country covers treatment for tuberculosis for its citizens?
5727dae42ca10214002d981d
Brazil
630
False
What organization said some countries might be spending as much as $150 billion each year on TB?
5727dae42ca10214002d981e
World Bank
943
False
What population segment in China struggles to get follow-up care for TB infection?
5727dae42ca10214002d981f
rural migrants
1132
False
What do some people think we need more of to prevent for-profit providers of TB treatment from over-prescribing?
5727dae42ca10214002d9820
regulations
599
False
Slow progress has led to frustration, expressed by executive director of the Global Fund to Fight AIDS, Tuberculosis and Malaria – Mark Dybul: "we have the tools to end TB as a pandemic and public health threat on the planet, but we are not doing it." Several international organizations are pushing for more transparency in treatment, and more countries are implementing mandatory reporting of cases to the government, although adherence is often sketchy. Commercial treatment-providers may at times overprescribe second-line drugs as well as supplementary treatment, promoting demands for further regulations. The government of Brazil provides universal TB-care, which reduces this problem. Conversely, falling rates of TB-infection may not relate to the number of programs directed at reducing infection rates, but may be tied to increased level of education, income and health of the population. Costs of the disease, as calculated by the World Bank in 2009 may exceed 150 billion USD per year in "high burden" countries. Lack of progress eradicating the disease may also be due to lack of patient follow-up – as among the 250M rural migrants in China.
What groups might help tuberculosis patients share with and support each other?
5727e9e0ff5b5019007d984e
TB clubs
60
False
Education about TB seems to decrease the stigma of the disease and lead to what other positive effect?
5727e9e0ff5b5019007d984f
increasing treatment adherence
269
False
What do some people say is even worse than the effects of tuberculosis itself?
5727e9e0ff5b5019007d9850
the stigma
505
False
What group of people can add to the TB stigma by treating patients as troublesome or unwanted?
5727e9e0ff5b5019007d9851
healthcare providers
550
False
As recently as what year were there no studies on how TB mortality is connected to stigma?
5727e9e0ff5b5019007d9852
2010
394
False
2010
394
When did studies begin linking mortality to stigma?
5a873e5c1d3cee001a6a1130
True
the disease
533
What have studies claimed are worse than the stigma?
5a873e5c1d3cee001a6a1131
True
difficult or otherwise undesirable
649
How are people with AIDS perceived?
5a873e5c1d3cee001a6a1132
True
the social and cultural dimensions
712
What will stigma reduction result in in regards to understanding?
5a873e5c1d3cee001a6a1133
True
TB clubs
60
Who have been performing studies on the relationship between stigma and mortality?
5a873e5c1d3cee001a6a1134
True
One way to decrease stigma may be through the promotion of "TB clubs", where those infected may share experiences and offer support, or through counseling. Some studies have shown TB education programs to be effective in decreasing stigma, and may thus be effective in increasing treatment adherence. Despite this, studies on relationship between reduced stigma and mortality are lacking as of 2010, and similar efforts to decrease stigma surrounding AIDS have been minimally effective. Some have claimed the stigma to be worse than the disease, and healthcare providers may unintentionally reinforce stigma, as those with TB are often perceived as difficult or otherwise undesirable. A greater understanding of the social and cultural dimensions of tuberculosis may also help with stigma reduction.
What vaccine are researchers trying to improve on?
5727ec2c3acd2414000deff7
BCG
4
False
What phase of clinical trials have some new vaccine options reached?
5727ec2c3acd2414000deff8
I and II
141
False
What does one option propose adding to the existing BCG vaccine?
5727ec2c3acd2414000deff9
subunit vaccine
291
False
What's the name of the subunit vaccine being studied in South Africa?
5727ec2c3acd2414000deffa
MVA85A
394
False
What genetically modified virus was used to develop MVA85A?
5727ec2c3acd2414000deffb
vaccinia
507
False
BCG
4
What candidate is in phase I and II?
5a873f7f1d3cee001a6a113a
True
BCG
310
What is added to a subunit vaccine?
5a873f7f1d3cee001a6a113b
True
South Africa
458
Where is BCG in trials?
5a873f7f1d3cee001a6a113c
True
Two
167
How many main limitations does the BCG vaccine have?
5a873f7f1d3cee001a6a113d
True
vaccinia
507
What virus is BCG based on?
5a873f7f1d3cee001a6a113e
True
The BCG vaccine has limitations, and research to develop new TB vaccines is ongoing. A number of potential candidates are currently in phase I and II clinical trials. Two main approaches are being used to attempt to improve the efficacy of available vaccines. One approach involves adding a subunit vaccine to BCG, while the other strategy is attempting to create new and better live vaccines. MVA85A, an example of a subunit vaccine, currently in trials in South Africa, is based on a genetically modified vaccinia virus. Vaccines are hoped to play a significant role in treatment of both latent and active disease.
What organization did the Bill and Melinda Gates Foundation donate $280 million to?
5727edd32ca10214002d99dc
Aeras Global TB Vaccine Foundation
380
False
Policymakers believe tax incentives, market commitments, and what third incentive will speed up vaccine development?
5727edd32ca10214002d99dd
prizes
129
False
What group with the initials SATVI is researching TB vaccines?
5727edd32ca10214002d99de
South African Tuberculosis Vaccine Initiative
244
False
What nonprofit tuberculosis research foundation has a verb in its name?
5727edd32ca10214002d99df
Stop TB Partnership
219
False
Aeras Global TB Vaccine Foundation
380
Who gave the Bill and Melinda Gates Foundation $280 mil?
5a8740e61d3cee001a6a1144
True
$280 million
444
What is the prize for vaccine development set at?
5a8740e61d3cee001a6a1145
True
the Bill and Melinda Gates Foundation
467
Who gifted Stop TB Partnership a large amount of money for improving vaccinations?
5a8740e61d3cee001a6a1146
True
high burden countries
580
Where is Stop TB Partnership working?
5a8740e61d3cee001a6a1147
True
To encourage further discovery, researchers and policymakers are promoting new economic models of vaccine development, including prizes, tax incentives, and advance market commitments. A number of groups, including the Stop TB Partnership, the South African Tuberculosis Vaccine Initiative, and the Aeras Global TB Vaccine Foundation, are involved with research. Among these, the Aeras Global TB Vaccine Foundation received a gift of more than $280 million (US) from the Bill and Melinda Gates Foundation to develop and license an improved vaccine against tuberculosis for use in high burden countries.
What drug in the running to treat multi drug resistant TB has already gotten FDA approval?
5727f3a63acd2414000df0b9
Bedaquiline
118
False
What year did the U.S. Food and Drug Administration approve bedaquiline?
5727f3a63acd2414000df0ba
2012
196
False
Despite FDA approval, how much more likely to die are patients who take bedaquiline in addition to the standard TB regimen?
5727f3a63acd2414000df0bb
five times
444
False
Opposition to the use of bedaquiline think what providers were influenced by a connection with the drug company?
5727f3a63acd2414000df0bc
physicians
694
False
What type of publication has put out articles questioning bedaquiline's safety?
5727f3a63acd2414000df0bd
medical journal
529
False
bedaquiline and delamanid
91
What are the names of the multi-drug resistant strains of tuberculosis?
5a87418c1d3cee001a6a114c
True
late 2012
191
When did delamind receive FDA approval?
5a87418c1d3cee001a6a114d
True
five times more likely to die
444
What happens to the death rate for people taking delamind?
5a87418c1d3cee001a6a114e
True
standard TB therapy
420
What is delamind taken alongside of?
5a87418c1d3cee001a6a114f
True
U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA)
139
Who approved the drug delamanid?
5a87418c1d3cee001a6a1150
True
A number of medications are being studied for multi drug resistant tuberculosis including: bedaquiline and delamanid. Bedaquiline received U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) approval in late 2012. The safety and effectiveness of these new agents are still uncertain, because they are based on the results of a relatively small studies. However, existing data suggest that patients taking bedaquiline in addition to standard TB therapy are five times more likely to die than those without the new drug, which has resulted in medical journal articles raising health policy questions about why the FDA approved the drug and whether financial ties to the company making bedaquiline influenced physicians' support for its use
Affirmative_action_in_the_United_States
Outside of employment, what is the other main issue that affirmative action focuses on?
572724fef1498d1400e8f3fa
education
73
False
Affirmative action attempts to ask institutions to grant extra consideration to what group of people outside of Native Americans and women?
572724fef1498d1400e8f3fb
racial minorities
146
False
Studies showed that discrimination in both business sectors and education resulted in advantages for what group of people?
572724fef1498d1400e8f3fc
whites and males
415
False
Affirmative action does not only attempt to remove disadvantages, but also to ensure what about the number of people in a field?
572724fef1498d1400e8f3fd
are more representative of the populations they serve
691
False
education
73
Outside of employment, what is the other lesser issue that affirmative action focuses on?
5ad40e6f604f3c001a400113
True
racial minorities
146
Affirmative action attempts to ask institutions to grant extra consideration to what group of people outside of Native Americans and men?
5ad40e6f604f3c001a400114
True
whites and males
415
Studies showed that discrimination in both business sectors and education resulted in disadvantages for what group of people?
5ad40e6f604f3c001a400115
True
more representative of the populations they serve
695
Affirmative action does attempts to remove disadvantages, but also to ensure what about the number of people in a field?
5ad40e6f604f3c001a400116
True
Affirmative action in the United States tends to focus on issues such as education and employment, specifically granting special consideration to racial minorities, Native Americans, and women who have been historically excluded groups in America. Reports have shown that minorities and women have faced discrimination in schools and businesses for many years and this discrimination produced unfair advantages for whites and males in education and employment. The impetus toward affirmative action is redressing the disadvantages associated with past and present discrimination. Further impetus is a desire to ensure public institutions, such as universities, hospitals, and police forces, are more representative of the populations they serve.
What is another example aside from racial quotes of affirmative action for collegiate admissions?
572725fbdd62a815002e995e
gender quotas
118
False
Having quotas regarding admissions or employment has been criticized and said to be what kind of discrimination?
572725fbdd62a815002e995f
reverse
192
False
What case determined that some implementation of affirmative action was unconstitutional?
572725fbdd62a815002e9960
Gratz v. Bollinger
321
False
In which time period did discrimination policies originate from?
572725fbdd62a815002e9961
Reconstruction Era
557
False
What do critics of affirmative action believe should be the main factor in hiring?
572725fbdd62a815002e9962
achievement
961
False
gender quotas
118
What is another example aside from racial quotes of non-affirmative action for collegiate admissions?
5ad40ec3604f3c001a400125
True
reverse
851
Not having quotas regarding admissions or employment has been criticized and said to be what kind of discrimination?
5ad40ec3604f3c001a400126
True
Gratz v. Bollinger
321
What case determined that some implementation of affirmative action was constitutional?
5ad40ec3604f3c001a400127
True
Reconstruction Era
557
In which time period did discrimination policies not originate from?
5ad40ec3604f3c001a400128
True
achievement
961
What do critics of affirmative action believe should not be the main factor in hiring?
5ad40ec3604f3c001a400129
True
Affirmative action is a subject of controversy. Some policies adopted as affirmative action, such as racial quotas or gender quotas for collegiate admission, have been criticized as a form of reverse discrimination, and such implementation of affirmative action has been ruled unconstitutional by the majority opinion of Gratz v. Bollinger. Affirmative action as a practice was upheld by the Supreme Court's decision in Grutter v. Bollinger in 2003. Affirmative action policies were developed in order to correct decades of discrimination stemming from the Reconstruction Era by granting disadvantaged minorities opportunities. Many believe that the diversity of current American society suggests that affirmative action policies succeeded and are no longer required. Opponents of affirmative action argue that these policies are outdated and lead to reverse discrimination which entails favoring one group over another based upon racial preference rather than achievement.
When did the Reconstruction Era end?
572726a2f1498d1400e8f41c
1877
75
False
Who proposed that land be divided and split up among families of color?
572726a2f1498d1400e8f41d
General William Tecumseh Sherman
181
False
What was the policy of dividing land among families of color referred to as?
572726a2f1498d1400e8f41e
Forty acres and a mule
317
False
Which part of the constitution was the basis for policies that were developed during the Civil Rights Movement?
572726a2f1498d1400e8f41f
Equal Protection Clause of the 14th Amendment
614
False
Who was the first person to utilize the term "affirmative action"?
572726a2f1498d1400e8f420
President John F. Kennedy
953
False
1877
75
When did the Deconstruction Era end?
5ad40ef3604f3c001a400143
True
1865
70
When did the Deconstruction Era start?
5ad40ef3604f3c001a400144
True
William Tecumseh Sherman
189
Who proposed that land be divided and split up among white families?
5ad40ef3604f3c001a400145
True
President John F. Kennedy
953
Who was the last person to utilize the term "affirmative action"?
5ad40ef3604f3c001a400146
True
Ideas for affirmative action came as early as the Reconstruction Era (1865-1877) in which a former slave population lacked the skills and resources for sustainable living. In 1865, General William Tecumseh Sherman proposed to divide the land and goods from Georgia and grant it to families of color which became the "Forty acres and a mule" policy. The proposal was never widely adopted due to strong political opposition. Nearly a century later (1950s-1960s), policies to assist classes of individuals reemerged during the Civil Rights Movement. The civil rights guarantees came through the interpretation of the Equal Protection Clause of the 14th Amendment. The decisions came to be known as affirmative action in which mandatory, as well as voluntary programs, affirmed the civil rights of people of color. Furthermore, these affirmative action programs protected people of color from the present effects stemming from past discrimination. In 1961, President John F. Kennedy became the first to utilize the term "affirmative action" in Executive Order 10925 to ensure that government contractors "take affirmative action to ensure that applicants are employed, and employees are treated during employment, without regard to their race, creed, color, or national origin." This executive order realized the government's intent to create equal opportunities for all qualified people. This executive order was eventually amended and superseded by Lyndon B. Johnson's Executive Order 11246 which prevented discrimination based on race, color, religion, and national origin by organizations which received federal contracts and subcontracts. In 1967, the order was amended to include sex as well. The Reagan administration was opposed to the affirmative action requirements of Executive Order 11246, but these contemplated changes[which?] faced bi-partisan opposition in Congress.
In which document did the term "affirmative action" first appear?
572727b8708984140094da83
National Labor Relations Act
65
False
Who was the author of the National Labor Relations Act?
572727b8708984140094da84
Senator Robert F. Wagner
171
False
Who did employers routinely blacklist of fire?
572727b8708984140094da85
employees associated with unions
418
False
Who was able to review complaints about possible worker discrimination?
572727b8708984140094da86
National Labor Relations Board
556
False
Which group of people did the Wagner Act fail to protect?
572727b8708984140094da87
minorities
840
False
National Labor Relations Act
65
In which document did the term "non-affirmative action" first appear?
5ad40f32604f3c001a400153
True
U.S. Senator Robert F. Wagner
166
Who was the author of the National Non-Labor Relations Act?
5ad40f32604f3c001a400154
True
employees associated with unions
418
Who did employers routinely hire?
5ad40f32604f3c001a400155
True
National Labor Relations Board
556
Who wasn't able to review complaints about possible worker discrimination?
5ad40f32604f3c001a400156
True
minorities
840
Which group of people did the Wagner Act protect?
5ad40f32604f3c001a400157
True
The first appearance of the term 'affirmative action' was in the National Labor Relations Act, better known as the Wagner Act, of 1935.:15 Proposed and championed by U.S. Senator Robert F. Wagner of New York, the Wagner Act was in line with President Roosevelt's goal of providing economic security to workers and other low-income groups. During this time period it was not uncommon for employers to blacklist or fire employees associated with unions. The Wagner Act allowed workers to unionize without fear of being discriminated against, and empowered a National Labor Relations Board to review potential cases of worker discrimination. In the event of discrimination, employees were to be restored to an appropriate status in the company through 'affirmative action'. While the Wagner Act protected workers and unions it did not protect minorities, who, exempting the Congress of Industrial Organizations, were often barred from union ranks.:11 This original coining of the term therefore has little to do with affirmative action policy as it is seen today, but helped set the stage for all policy meant to compensate or address an individual's unjust treatment.[citation needed]
Who was the true backer of the cause of affirmative action?
572728d1f1498d1400e8f430
Harold L. Ickes
233
False
What position of power did Harold L. Ickes hold?
572728d1f1498d1400e8f431
Interior Secretary
201
False
The first introduction of a quota system mandated that contractors had to do what?
572728d1f1498d1400e8f432
employ a fixed percentage of Black workers
431
False
Which piece of legislation prevented any discrimination in the defense industry and government?
572728d1f1498d1400e8f433
Executive Order 8802
648
False
What does the FEPC stand for?
572728d1f1498d1400e8f434
Fair Employment Practices Committee
982
False
Harold L. Ickes
233
Who was the true backer of the cause of non-affirmative action?
5ad40f9c604f3c001a400171
True
Interior Secretary
201
What position of power did Clark L. Ickes hold?
5ad40f9c604f3c001a400172
True
employ a fixed percentage of Black workers
431
The first introduction of a quota system mandated that contractors can't do what?
5ad40f9c604f3c001a400173
True
Executive Order 8802
648
Which piece of legislation didn't prevent any discrimination in the defense industry and government?
5ad40f9c604f3c001a400174
True
Fair Employment Practices Committee
982
What does the FPPC stand for?
5ad40f9c604f3c001a400175
True
FDR's New Deal programs often contained equal opportunity clauses stating "no discrimination shall be made on account of race, color or creed",:11 but the true forerunner to affirmative action was the Interior Secretary of the time, Harold L. Ickes. Ickes prohibited discrimination in hiring for Public Works Administration funded projects and oversaw not only the institution of a quota system, where contractors were required to employ a fixed percentage of Black workers, by Robert C. Weaver and Clark Foreman,:12 but also the equal pay of women proposed by Harry Hopkins.:14FDR's largest contribution to affirmative action, however, lay in his Executive Order 8802 which prohibited discrimination in the defense industry or government.:22 The executive order promoted the idea that if taxpayer funds were accepted through a government contract, then all taxpayers should have an equal opportunity to work through the contractor.:23–4 To enforce this idea, Roosevelt created the Fair Employment Practices Committee (FEPC) with the power to investigate hiring practices by government contractors.:22
What group was established in response to Executive Order 9808?
57272aa45951b619008f8679
President's Committee on Civil Rights
160
False
What was the Executive Order 9808 issued in response to?
57272aa45951b619008f867a
Sergeant Isaac Woodard incident
14
False
In which year were the "To Secure These Rights" findings published?
57272aa45951b619008f867b
1947
441
False
What was the committee especially disturbed by as indicated in their report?
57272aa45951b619008f867c
the state of race relations
940
False
Who in the generation following the "To Secure These Rights" findings sign legislation for affirmative action into law?
57272aa45951b619008f867d
Lyndon B. Johnson
1643
False
President's Committee on Civil Rights
160
What group was established in response to Executive Order 9108?
5ad40ff5604f3c001a400185
True
Sergeant Isaac Woodard incident
14
What was the Executive Order 988 issued in response to?
5ad40ff5604f3c001a400186
True
1947
441
In which year were the "Don't Secure These Rights" findings published?
5ad40ff5604f3c001a400187
True
Lyndon B. Johnson
1643
What was the committee not at all disturbed by as indicated in their report?
5ad40ff5604f3c001a400188
True
Following the Sergeant Isaac Woodard incident, President Harry S. Truman, himself a combat veteran of World War I, issued Executive Order 9808 establishing the President's Committee on Civil Rights to examine the violence and recommend appropriate federal legislation. Hearing of the incident, Truman turned to NAACP leader Walter Francis White and declared, "My God! I had no idea it was as terrible as that. We've got to do something." In 1947 the committee published its findings, To Secure These Rights. The book was widely read, influential, and considered utopian for the times: "In our land men are equal, but they are free to be different. From these very differences among our people has come the great human and national strength of America." The report discussed and demonstrated racial discrimination in basic freedoms, education, public facilities, personal safety, and employment opportunities. The committee was disturbed by the state of race relations, and included the evacuation of Americans of Japanese descent during the war "made without a trial or any sort of hearing…Fundamental to our whole system of law is the belief that guilt is personal and not a matter of heredity or association." The recommendations were radical, calling for federal policies and laws to end racial discrimination and bring about equality: "We can tolerate no restrictions upon the individual which depend upon irrelevant factors such as his race, his color, his religion, or the social position to which he is born." To Secure These Rights set the liberal legislative agenda for the next generation that eventually would be signed into law by Lyndon B. Johnson.:35–36
The "To Secure These Rights" findings wanted desegregation of which institution?
57272c57708984140094daa1
Armed Forces
60
False
Which risk associated with serving was specifically highlighted by the findings?
57272c57708984140094daa2
death
191
False
What did the findings say occurred to an individual when he enters the armed services?
57272c57708984140094daa3
surrenders some of the rights and privileges
325
False
Discrimination that prevented minorities from serving their country to the best of their abilities was seen as what?
57272c57708984140094daa4
a humiliating badge of inferiority
696
False
Armed Forces
60
The "To Secure These Rights" findings did not want desegregation of which institution?
5ad41029604f3c001a40018d
True
death
191
Which risk associated with serving wasn't specifically highlighted by the findings?
5ad41029604f3c001a40018e
True
surrenders some of the rights and privileges
325
What did the findings say occurred to an individual when he leaves the armed services?
5ad41029604f3c001a40018f
True
humiliating badge of inferiority
698
Discrimination that prevented minorities from serving their country to the best of their abilities wasn't seen as what?
5ad41029604f3c001a400190
True
To Secure These Rights also called for desegregation of the Armed Forces. "Prejudice in any area is an ugly, undemocratic phenomenon, but in the armed services, where all men run the risk of death, it is especially repugnant." The rationale was fairness: "When an individual enters the service of the country, he necessarily surrenders some of the rights and privileges which are inherent in American citizenship." In return, the government "undertakes to protect his integrity as an individual." Yet that was not possible in the segregated Army, since "any discrimination which…prevents members of the minority groups from rendering full military service in defense of their country is for them a humiliating badge of inferiority." The report called for an end to "all discrimination and segregation based on race, color, creed, or national origins in…all branches of the Armed Services.":38–39
Who was the first President to address the NAACP?
57272cf65951b619008f868d
Truman
9
False
How many people were present at the speech that Truman made?
57272cf65951b619008f868e
10,000
170
False
Where did Truman's historic speech take place?
57272cf65951b619008f868f
Lincoln Memorial
191
False
During the speech, Truman made the statement that each man should be guaranteed what?
57272cf65951b619008f8690
equality of opportunity
458
False
Who's authority did Truman want to increase throughout the states?
57272cf65951b619008f8691
federal
559
False
Truman
9
Who was the first President to address the NICP?
5ad4105d604f3c001a40019f
True
10,000
170
How many people left the speech that Truman made?
5ad4105d604f3c001a4001a0
True
Lincoln Memorial
191
Where did Truman's historic speech end?
5ad4105d604f3c001a4001a1
True
equality
401
During the speech, Truman made the statement that each man shouldn't be guaranteed what?
5ad4105d604f3c001a4001a2
True
federal
559
Who's authority did Truman want to decrease throughout the states?
5ad4105d604f3c001a4001a3
True
In June, Truman became the first president to address the NAACP. His speech was a significant departure from traditional race relations in the United States. In front of 10,000 people at the Lincoln Memorial, the president left no doubt where he stood on civil rights. According to his speech, America had "reached a turning point in the long history of our country's efforts to guarantee freedom and equality to all our citizens…Each man must be guaranteed equality of opportunity." He proposed what black citizens had been calling for - an enhanced role of federal authority through the states. "We must make the Federal government a friendly, vigilant defender of the rights and equalities of all Americans. And again I mean all Americans.":40
What day did Truman mandate the end of discrimination in the federal government?
57272e44f1498d1400e8f444
July 26
3
False
How many executive orders were issued to help prevent discrimination?
57272e44f1498d1400e8f445
two
149
False
What was the name given to Executive Order 9980?
57272e44f1498d1400e8f446
Regulations Governing for Employment Practices within the Federal Establishment
263
False
Which position was formulated as a result of Executive Order 9980?
57272e44f1498d1400e8f447
Fair Employment Officer
467
False
What name was given to Executive Order 9981?
57272e44f1498d1400e8f448
Establishing the President's Committee on Equality of Treatment and Opportunity in the Armed Services
632
False
July 26
173
What day did Truman mandate the beginning of discrimination in the federal government?
5ad41097604f3c001a4001b1
True
two
149
How many executive orders were issued to help provide discrimination?
5ad41097604f3c001a4001b2
True
Regulations Governing for Employment Practices within the Federal Establishment
263
What was the name given to Executive Order 9180?
5ad41097604f3c001a4001b3
True
Fair Employment Officer
467
Which position was formulated as a result of Executive Order 9?
5ad41097604f3c001a4001b4
True
Establishing the President's Committee on Equality of Treatment and Opportunity in the Armed Services
632
What name was given to Executive Order 9181?
5ad41097604f3c001a4001b5
True
On July 26, Truman mandated the end of hiring and employment discrimination in the federal government, reaffirming FDR's order of 1941.:40 He issued two executive orders on July 26, 1948: Executive Order 9980 and Executive Order 9981. Executive Order 9980, named Regulations Governing for Employment Practices within the Federal Establishment, instituted fair employment practices in the civilian agencies of the federal government. The order created the position of Fair Employment Officer. The order "established in the Civil Service Commission a Fair Employment Board of not less than seven persons." Executive Order 9981, named Establishing the President's Committee on Equality of Treatment and Opportunity in the Armed Services, called for the integration of the Armed Forces and the creation of the National Military Establishment to carry out the executive order.
Which year was Eisenhower elected President?
57272f7e708984140094dab3
1952
41
False
Who did Eisenhower believe should be allowed to decide the nature of discrimination laws?
57272f7e708984140094dab4
the states
126
False
What was established in 1953?
57272f7e708984140094dab5
Government Contract Committee
284
False
What was the main purpose of the Government Contract Committee?
57272f7e708984140094dab6
conducted surveys of the racial composition of federal employees and tax-supported contractors
330
False
Who was the chairman of the newly established committee?
57272f7e708984140094dab7
Vice President Richard Nixon
459
False
1952
41
Which year was Eisenhower elected vice-President?
5ad410c7604f3c001a4001c5
True
the states
126
Who did Eisenhower believe should be disallowed to decide the nature of discrimination laws?
5ad410c7604f3c001a4001c6
True
Government Contract Committee
284
What was established in 1913?
5ad410c7604f3c001a4001c7
True
conducted surveys of the racial composition of federal employees and tax-supported contractors
330
What was the last purpose of the Government Contract Committee?
5ad410c7604f3c001a4001c8
True
Vice President Richard Nixon
459
Who was the chairman of the old committee?
5ad410c7604f3c001a4001c9
True
When Eisenhower was elected President in 1952, he believed hiring practices and anti-discrimination laws should be decided by the states, although the administration gradually continued to desegregate the Armed Forces and the federal government.:50 The President also established the Government Contract Committee in 1953, which "conducted surveys of the racial composition of federal employees and tax-supported contractors".:50–51 The committee, chaired by Vice President Richard Nixon, had minimal outcomes in that they imposed the contractors with the primary responsibility of desegregation within their own companies and corporations.:51
Who criticized President Eisenhower during the 1960 presidential election?
5727324f708984140094dad9
John F. Kennedy
77
False
What was John F. Kennedy's criticism of the President based on?
5727324f708984140094dada
not ending discrimination in federally supported housing
130
False
Which order was issued soon after Kennedy took office?
5727324f708984140094dadb
Executive Order 10925
301
False
What does PCEEO stand for?
5727324f708984140094dadc
President's Committee on Equal Employment Opportunity
785
False
What was the immediate penalty for a federal contractor for not obeying the executive order?
5727324f708984140094dadd
contract cancellation
983
False
John F. Kennedy
77
Who criticized President Eisenhower during the 1930 presidential election?
5ad410fa604f3c001a4001d9
True
federally supported housing
159
What was John F. Kennedy's support of the President based on?
5ad410fa604f3c001a4001da
True
10925
317
Which order was issued soon after Kennedy lost office?
5ad410fa604f3c001a4001db
True
President's Committee on Equal Employment Opportunity
785
What does PELCO stand for?
5ad410fa604f3c001a4001dc
True
contract cancellation
983
What was the immediate penalty for a federal contractor for obeying the executive order?
5ad410fa604f3c001a4001dd
True
In the 1960 presidential election, Democratic candidate and future President John F. Kennedy "criticized President Eisenhower for not ending discrimination in federally supported housing" and "advocated a permanent Fair Employment Practices Commission".:59 Shortly after taking office, Kennedy issued Executive Order 10925 in March 1961, requiring government contractors to "consider and recommend additional affirmative steps which should be taken by executive departments and agencies to realize more fully the national policy of nondiscrimination…. The contractor will take affirmative action to ensure that applicants are employed, and that employees are treated during employment, without regard to their race, creed, color, or national origin".:60 The order also established the President's Committee on Equal Employment Opportunity (PCEEO), chaired by Vice President Lyndon B. Johnson. Federal contractors who failed to comply or violated the executive order were punished by contract cancellation and the possible debarment from future government contracts. The administration was "not demanding any special preference or treatment or quotas for minorities" but was rather "advocating racially neutral hiring to end job discrimination".:61 Turning to issues of women's rights, Kennedy initiated a Commission on the Status of Women in December 1961. The commission was charged with "examining employment policies and practices of the government and of contractors" with regard to sex.:66
When did President Kennedy issue Executive Order 11114?
57273326f1498d1400e8f47c
June 1963
3
False
What was the main aim of Executive Order 11114?
57273326f1498d1400e8f47d
elimination of discrimination in employment
275
False
What was anyone who received federal funding of any sort required to do under the Executive Order?
57273326f1498d1400e8f47e
comply to the government's policies on affirmative action
525
False
June 1963
3
When did President Kennedy issue Executive Order 13?
5ad41120604f3c001a4001eb
True
elimination of discrimination
275
What was the main aim of Executive Order 14?
5ad41120604f3c001a4001ec
True
comply to the government's policies
525
What was anyone who received federal funding of any sort required to do without the Executive Order?
5ad41120604f3c001a4001ed
True
In June 1963, President Kennedy continued his policy of affirmative action by issuing another mandate, Executive Order 11114. The order supplemented to his previous 1961 executive order declaring it was the "policy of the United States to encourage by affirmative action the elimination of discrimination in employment".:72 Through this order, all federal funds, such as "grants, loans, unions and employers who accepted taxpayer funds, and other forms of financial assistance to state and local governments," were forced to comply to the government's policies on affirmative action in employment practices.:72
Which Executive Order first contained the phrase "affirmative action"?
572733c0dd62a815002e9984
Executive Order 10925
120
False
Who chaired the committee created by Executive Order 10925?
572733c0dd62a815002e9985
Vice President Johnson
164
False
Who co - authored the executive order?
572733c0dd62a815002e9986
Hobart Taylor Jr.
260
False
What was the alternative phrase to "affirmative action" that was being considered?
572733c0dd62a815002e9987
positive action
451
False
What was the main reason that "affirmative action" was chosen over "positive action"?
572733c0dd62a815002e9988
alliterative quality
528
False
Executive Order 10925
120
Which Executive Order didn't contain the phrase "affirmative action"?
5ad41158604f3c001a4001fb
True
Vice President Johnson
164
Who chaired the committee destroyed by Executive Order 10925?
5ad41158604f3c001a4001fc
True
Hobart Taylor Jr
260
Who co - authored the non-executive order?
5ad41158604f3c001a4001fd
True
positive action
451
What was the alternative phrase to "non-affirmative action" that was being considered?
5ad41158604f3c001a4001fe
True
alliterative quality
528
What was the main reason that "non-affirmative action" was chosen over "positive action"?
5ad41158604f3c001a4001ff
True
The first time "affirmative action" is used by the federal government concerning race is in President John F. Kennedy's Executive Order 10925, which was chaired by Vice President Johnson. At Johnson's inaugural ball in Texas, he met with a young black lawyer, Hobart Taylor Jr., and gave him the task to co-author the executive order. He wanted a phrase that "gave a sense of positivity to performance under the order." He was torn between the words "positive action" and "affirmative action," and selected the later due to its alliterative quality. The term "active recruitment" started to be used as well. This order, albeit heavily worked up as a significant piece of legislation, in reality carried little actual power. The scope was limited to a couple hundred defense contractors, leaving nearly $7.5 billion in federal grants and loans unsupervised.:60
Who had issues with JFK's proposal?
57273572dd62a815002e998e
NAACP
0
False
Who filed complaints quickly after the Executive Order was implemented?
57273572dd62a815002e998f
NAACP labor secretary Herbert Hill
109
False
Which company was targeted by the NAACP for not having fair practices?
57273572dd62a815002e9990
Lockheed Aircraft Corporation
207
False
Who did Lockheed sign an agreement with to seek out more minority workers?
57273572dd62a815002e9991
Vice President Johnson
530
False
Which laws did the corporations in the South associate with in order to ignore the federal recommendations?
57273572dd62a815002e9992
Jim Crow
1022
False
NAACP
0
Who had issues with JFK's rejection?
5ad4124d604f3c001a400235
True
Herbert Hill
131
Who filed complaints quickly before the Executive Order was implemented?
5ad4124d604f3c001a400236
True
Lockheed Aircraft Corporation
207
Which company was targeted by the NAACP for having fair practices?
5ad4124d604f3c001a400237
True
Vice President Johnson
530
Who did Lockheed sign an agreement with to seek out more minority workers?
5ad4124d604f3c001a400238
True
Jim Crow
1022
Which laws did the corporations in the North associate with in order to ignore the federal recommendations?
5ad4124d604f3c001a400239
True
NAACP had many problem's with JFK's "token" proposal. They wanted jobs. One day after the order took effect, NAACP labor secretary Herbert Hill filed complaints against the hiring and promoting practices of Lockheed Aircraft Corporation. Lockheed was doing business with the Defense Department on the first billion-dollar contract. Due to taxpayer-funding being 90% of Lockheed's business, along with disproportionate hiring practices, black workers charged Lockheed with "overt discrimination." Lockheed signed an agreement with Vice President Johnson that pledged an "aggressive seeking out for more qualified minority candidates for technical and skill positions.:63–64 This agreement was the administration's model for a "plan of progress." Johnson and his assistants soon pressured other defense contractors, including Boeing and General Electric, to sign similar voluntary agreements indicating plans for progress. However, these plans were just that, voluntary. Many corporations in the South, still afflicted with Jim Crow laws, largely ignored the federal recommendations.:63–64
Which piece of legislation quickly followed President Kennedy's assassination?
5727364f708984140094daf3
Civil Rights Act
29
False
Outside of the private business regulations, what was the other aim of the Civil Rights Act?
5727364f708984140094daf4
integrate public facilities
234
False
Which other Executive Order did the Civil Right's Act work closely with?
5727364f708984140094daf5
11114
515
False
What was the purpose of Title VII of the Civil Rights Act?
5727364f708984140094daf6
to end discrimination in all firms with 25 or more employees
753
False
What was the goal of the Equal Employment Opportunity C omission?
5727364f708984140094daf7
ending discrimination in the nation's workplace
916
False
Civil Rights Act
29
Which piece of legislation quickly followed Vice-President Kennedy's assassination?
5ad41292604f3c001a400249
True
integrate public facilities
234
Outside of the private business regulations, what was the other aim of the Non-Civil Rights Act?
5ad41292604f3c001a40024a
True
11114
515
Which other Executive Order did the Civil Right's Act not work closely with?
5ad41292604f3c001a40024b
True
end discrimination
756
What was the purpose of Title VII of the Non-Civil Rights Act?
5ad41292604f3c001a40024c
True
This eventually led to LBJ's Civil Rights Act, which came shortly after President Kennedy's assassination. This document was more holistic than any President Kennedy had offered, and therefore more controversial. It aimed not only to integrate public facilities, but also private businesses that sold to the public, such as motels, restaurants, theaters, and gas stations. Public schools, hospitals, libraries, parks, among other things, were included in the bill as well. It also worked with JFK's executive order 11114 by prohibiting discrimination in the awarding of federal contracts and holding the authority of the government to deny contracts to businesses who discriminate. Maybe most significant of all, Title VII of the Civil Rights Act aimed to end discrimination in all firms with 25 or more employees. Another provision established the Equal Employment Opportunity Commission as the agency charged with ending discrimination in the nation's workplace.:74
Which section of the legislation was considered the most controversial?
572736f0dd62a815002e9998
Title VII
0
False
What did critics claim that Title VII advocate?
572736f0dd62a815002e9999
a de facto quota system
109
False
Which Senator fought back against the criticism of Title VII?
572736f0dd62a815002e999a
Hubert Humphrey
226
False
Who was one of the key members that Humphrey managed to convince to support the bill?
572736f0dd62a815002e999b
Everett Dirksen
782
False
What position of importance other than Senator did Everett Dirksen hold?
572736f0dd62a815002e999c
Senate Minority Leader
759
False
Title VII
287
Which section of the legislation was considered the least controversial?
5ad41313604f3c001a40025b
True
de facto quota system
111
What did supporters claim that Title VII advocate?
5ad41313604f3c001a40025c
True
Hubert Humphrey
226
Which Mayor fought back against the criticism of Title VII?
5ad41313604f3c001a40025d
True
Everett Dirksen
782
Who was one of the key members that Humphrey managed to convince to reject the bill?
5ad41313604f3c001a40025e
True
Senate Minority Leader
759
What position of importance other than Mayor did Everett Dirksen hold?
5ad41313604f3c001a40025f
True
Title VII was perhaps the most controversial of the entire bill. Many conservatives accused it of advocating a de facto quota system, and claimed unconstitutionality as it attempts to regulate the workplace. Minnesota Senator Hubert Humphrey corrected this notion: "there is nothing in [Title VII] that will give power to the Commission to require hiring, firing, and promotion to meet a racial 'quota.' [. . .] Title VII is designed to encourage the hiring on basis of ability and qualifications, not race or religion." Title VII prohibits discrimination. Humphrey was the silent hero of the bill's passing through Congress. He pledged that the bill required no quotas, just nondiscrimination. Doing so, he convinced many pro-business Republicans, including Senate Minority Leader Everett Dirksen (IL) to support Title VII.:78–80
Who followed in Johnson's footsteps in terms of ensuring equal opportunity?
572738b0dd62a815002e99aa
his successor Nixon
118
False
Which piece of legislation was begun in 1969?
572738b0dd62a815002e99ab
Philadelphia Order
187
False
Which industry of jobs did the legislation target?
572738b0dd62a815002e99ac
construction
297
False
Aside from the construction industry, which other group was one of the main offenders against equal opportunity laws?
572738b0dd62a815002e99ad
craft unions
432
False
Who held the position of Assistant Secretary of Labor?
572738b0dd62a815002e99ae
Arthur Fletcher
400
False
Nixon
132
Who followed in Johnson's footsteps in terms of ensuring unequal opportunity?
5ad41396604f3c001a40026f
True
Philadelphia Order
187
Which piece of legislation was ended in 1969?
5ad41396604f3c001a400270
True
construction
297
Which industry of jobs did the legislation not target?
5ad41396604f3c001a400271
True
craft unions
432
Aside from the construction industry, which other group was one of the main offenders against unequal opportunity laws?
5ad41396604f3c001a400272
True
Arthur Fletcher
400
Who held the position of Secretary of Labor?
5ad41396604f3c001a400273
True
The strides that the Johnson presidency made in ensuring equal opportunity in the workforce were further picked up by his successor Nixon. In 1969 the Nixon administration initiated the "Philadelphia Order". It was regarded as the most forceful plan thus far to guarantee fair hiring practices in construction jobs. Philadelphia was selected as the test case because, as Assistant Secretary of Labor Arthur Fletcher explained, "The craft unions and the construction industry are among the most egregious offenders against equal opportunity laws . . . openly hostile toward letting blacks into their closed circle." The order included definite "goals and timetables." As President Nixon asserted, "We would not impose quotas, but would require federal contractors to show 'affirmative action' to meet the goals of increasing minority employment."
In terms of advancement, what happened to the progression of affirmative action after the Nixon administration?
57273936dd62a815002e99b4
became less prevalent
67
False
What was one of the primary reasons that the issue of affirmative action lost its momentum?
57273936dd62a815002e99b5
there were other areas that needed focus
413
False
Which administration allowed affirmative action to take a backseat to other issues?
57273936dd62a815002e99b6
Ford
108
False
became less prevalent
67
In terms of advancement, what happened to the progression of non-affirmative action after the Nixon administration?
5ad41426604f3c001a40028d
True
there were other areas that needed focus
413
What was one of the primary reasons that the issue of non-affirmative action lost its momentum?
5ad41426604f3c001a40028e
True
Ford
108
Which administration allowed affirmative action to take a frontseat to other issues?
5ad41426604f3c001a40028f
True
After the Nixon administration, advancements in affirmative action became less prevalent. "During the brief Ford administration, affirmative action took a back seat, while enforcement stumbled along.":145 Equal rights was still an important subject to many Americans, yet the world was changing and new issues were being raised. People began to look at affirmative action as a glorified issue of the past and now there were other areas that needed focus. "Of all the triumphs that have marked this as America's Century –...none is more inspiring, if incomplete, than our pursuit of racial justice."
What kind of classification was subject to strict scrutiny?
572739b6dd62a815002e99ba
racial
18
False
What was the only situation in which a racial classification could be considered acceptable?
572739b6dd62a815002e99bb
necessary to promote a compelling governmental interest
164
False
Who later confirmed that racial classifications were only to be upheld if they were necessary?
572739b6dd62a815002e99bc
U.S. Supreme Court
231
False
What is an example case that can help display where upholding a racial classification is beneficial?
572739b6dd62a815002e99bd
Richmond v. J.A. Croson Co.
418
False
racial
18
What kind of classification was not subject to strict scrutiny?
5ad41473604f3c001a40029d
True
necessary to promote a compelling governmental interest
164
What was the only situation in which a racial classification could be considered unacceptable?
5ad41473604f3c001a40029e
True
U.S. Supreme Court
231
Who later confirmed that racial classifications were only to be upheld if they were unnecessary?
5ad41473604f3c001a40029f
True
Richmond v. J.A. Croson Co
418
What is an example case that can help display where upholding a racial classification is not beneficial?
5ad41473604f3c001a4002a0
True
In the beginning, racial classifications that identified race were inherently suspect and subject to strict scrutiny. These classifications would only be upheld if necessary to promote a compelling governmental interest. Later the U.S. Supreme Court decided that racial classifications that benefited underrepresented minorities were to only be upheld if necessary and promoted a compelling governmental purpose. (See Richmond v. J.A. Croson Co.) There is no clear guidance about when government action is not "compelling", and such rulings are rare.
Which case concerning White and Hispanic firefighters was heard by the Supreme Court in 2009?
57273a5e708984140094db15
Ricci v. DeStefano
0
False
Where was the issue of White and Hispanic firefighters heard in the case based out of?
57273a5e708984140094db16
New Haven, Connecticut
126
False
How many whites were given the possibility of immediate promotion as a result of taking the controversial test?
57273a5e708984140094db17
17
318
False
What percentage of those people taking the test were African American?
57273a5e708984140094db18
23
395
False
What was the final vote count for the Supreme Court over the issue?
57273a5e708984140094db19
5-4
658
False
Ricci v. DeStefano
0
Which case concerning White and Hispanic firefighters was heard by the Supreme Court in 2019?
5ad414a1604f3c001a4002a5
True
New Haven, Connecticut
126
Where was the issue of White and Black firefighters heard in the case based out of?
5ad414a1604f3c001a4002a6
True
17
318
How many whites were given the possibility of immediate firing as a result of taking the controversial test?
5ad414a1604f3c001a4002a7
True
23
395
What percentage of those people taking the test were Asian American?
5ad414a1604f3c001a4002a8
True
Ricci v. DeStefano was heard by the United States Supreme Court in 2009. The case concerns White and Hispanic firefighters in New Haven, Connecticut, who upon passing their test for promotions to management were denied the promotions, allegedly because of a discriminatory or at least questionable test. The test gave 17 whites and two Hispanics the possibility of immediate promotion. Although 23% of those taking the test were African American, none scored high enough to qualify. Because of the possibility the tests were biased in violation of Title VII of the Civil Rights Act, no candidates were promoted pending outcome of the controversy. In a split 5-4 vote, the Supreme Court ruled that New Haven had engaged in impermissible racial discrimination against the White and Hispanic majority.
Which President declared that discrimination is contrary to the Constitutional principles of the United States?
57273bf15951b619008f871b
Kennedy
10
False
Which piece of legislation did President Kennedy use to claim that discrimination was a violation of the Constitution?
57273bf15951b619008f871c
Executive Order 10925
28
False
What were the affected industries in terms of regulation as a result of Executive Order 10925?
57273bf15951b619008f871d
Federal Government and on government contracts
445
False
Kennedy
10
Which President declared that discrimination is contrary to the Constitutional principles of the UK?
5ad414d2604f3c001a4002c1
True
Executive Order 10925
28
Which piece of legislation did President Kennedy use to claim that discrimination was not a violation of the Constitution?
5ad414d2604f3c001a4002c2
True
Federal Government and on government contracts
445
What were the affected industries in terms of deregulation as a result of Executive Order 10925?
5ad414d2604f3c001a4002c3
True
President Kennedy stated in Executive Order 10925 that "discrimination because of race, creed, color, or national origin is contrary to the Constitutional principles and policies of the United States"; that "it is the plain and positive obligation of the United States Government to promote and ensure equal opportunity for all qualified persons, without regard to race, creed, color, or national origin, employed or seeking employment with the Federal Government and on government contracts"; that "it is the policy of the executive branch of the Government to encourage by positive measures equal opportunity for all qualified persons within the Government"; and that "it is in the general interest and welfare of the United States to promote its economy, security, and national defense through the most efficient and effective utilization of all available manpower".
Other than being race and gender based, what did believers in affirmative action also feel that the system discriminated against?
57273ce15951b619008f8729
class
98
False
Which organization believed in the class based argument?
57273ce15951b619008f872a
African American Policy Forum
215
False
What group of people did the AAPF claim affirmative action created?
57273ce15951b619008f872b
African American middle class
655
False
What does the AAPF believe the foundation for the class based argument is?
57273ce15951b619008f872c
non-poor minorities do not experience racial and gender based discrimination
310
False
What does the AAPF believe the goal of affirmative action should be?
57273ce15951b619008f872d
to address race-based obstacles that block the path to success
464
False
class
98
Other than being race and gender based, what did believers in affirmative action also feel that the system did not discriminate against
5ad41512604f3c001a4002db
True
African American Policy
215
Which organization believed in the non-class based argument?
5ad41512604f3c001a4002dc
True
African American middle class
655
What group of people did the AAPF claim affirmative action did not create?
5ad41512604f3c001a4002dd
True
non-poor minorities do not experience racial and gender based discrimination
310
What does the AAPF believe the foundation for the class based agreement is?
5ad41512604f3c001a4002de
True
to address race-based obstacles that block the path to success of countless people of color of all classes
464
What does the AAPF believe the goal of non-affirmative action should be?
5ad41512604f3c001a4002df
True
Proponents of affirmative action argue that by nature the system is not only race based, but also class and gender based. To eliminate two of its key components would undermine the purpose of the entire system. The African American Policy Forum believes that the class based argument is based on the idea that non-poor minorities do not experience racial and gender based discrimination. The AAPF believes that "Race-conscious affirmative action remains necessary to address race-based obstacles that block the path to success of countless people of color of all classes". The groups goes on to say that affirmative action is responsible for creating the African American middle class, so it does not make sense to say that the system only benefits the middle and upper classes.
What major event preceded the growth of the divide in education between White and Black Americans?
57273da05951b619008f8733
end of World War II
14
False
What was considered to be a major cause of the increase in educational gap?
57273da15951b619008f8734
Dwight D. Eisenhower's GI Bill
103
False
What did returning black veterans not receive?
57273da15951b619008f8735
loans at the same rate as whites
282
False
How many servicemen and women were educated as a result of the GI Bill?
57273da15951b619008f8736
Nearly 8 million
457
False
What opportunities were few for black veterans?
57273da15951b619008f8737
higher educational
588
False
World War II
21
What major event preceded the growth of the divide in education between White and Asian Americans?
5ad41549604f3c001a4002ef
True
Dwight D. Eisenhower's GI Bill
103
What was not considered to be a major cause of the increase in educational gap?
5ad41549604f3c001a4002f0
True
loans at the same rate as whites
282
What did returning white veterans not receive?
5ad41549604f3c001a4002f1
True
8 million
464
How many servicemen and women weren't educated as a result of the GI Bill?
5ad41549604f3c001a4002f2
True
higher educational opportunities
588
What opportunities were few for hispanic veterans?
5ad41549604f3c001a4002f3
True
Following the end of World War II the educational gap between White and Black Americans was widened by Dwight D. Eisenhower's GI Bill. This piece of legislation paved the way for white GIs to attend college. Despite their veteran status returning black servicemen were not afforded loans at the same rate as whites. Furthermore, at the time of its introduction, segregation was still the law of the land barring blacks from the best institutions. Overall, "Nearly 8 million servicemen and servicewomen were educated under the provisions of the GI Bill after World War II. But for blacks, higher educational opportunities were so few that the promise of the GI Bill went largely unfulfilled."
Who conducted a study about the origins of "Latinos"?
57273ea85951b619008f873d
Dr. Paul Brest
24
False
How much of the Latino population did Mexican Americans, Puerto Ricans and Cuban Americans make up in 1991?
57273ea85951b619008f873e
80%
244
False
In relation to other major ethnic groups, what is the education level of Latinos?
57273ea85951b619008f873f
least well educated
402
False
What was the percentage increase of the high school completion rate for African Americans between 1975 and 1990?
57273ea85951b619008f8740
12%
533
False
How many of the total bachelor degrees awarded in 1990 went to Latinos?
57273ea85951b619008f8741
3.1%
631
False
Dr. Paul Brest
24
Who conducted a study about the origins of "Blacks"?
5ad41573604f3c001a400303
True
80%
244
How much of the Latino population did Mexican Americans, Puerto Ricans and Cuban Americans make up in 1911?
5ad41573604f3c001a400304
True
12
533
In relation to other major ethnic groups, what is the education level of Blacks?
5ad41573604f3c001a400305
True
3.1%
631
How many of the total bachelor degrees awarded in 1992 went to Latinos?
5ad41573604f3c001a400306
True
According to a study by Dr. Paul Brest, Hispanics or "Latinos" include immigrants who are descendants of immigrants from the countries comprising Central and South America. In 1991, Mexican Americans, Puerto Ricans, and Cuban Americans made up 80% of the Latino population in the United States. Latinos are disadvantaged compared to White Americans and are more likely to live in poverty. They are the least well educated major ethnic group and suffered a 3% drop in high school completion rate while African Americans experienced a 12% increase between 1975-1990. In 1990, they constituted 9% of the population, but only received 3.1% of the bachelors's degrees awarded. At times when it is favorable to lawmakers, Latinos were considered "white" by the Jim Crow laws during the Reconstruction. In other cases, according to Paul Brest, Latinos have been classified as an inferior race and a threat to white purity. Latinos have encountered considerable discrimination in areas such as employment, housing, and education. Brest finds that stereotypes continue to be largely negative and many perceive Latinos as "lazy, unproductive, and on the dole." Furthermore, native-born Latino-Americans and recent immigrants are seen as identical since outsiders tend not to differentiate between Latino groups.
Which groups can be categorized as Native Americans?
57273f6b5951b619008f8761
people who lived in North America before European settlement
64
False
When did the Native Americans lose their land?
57273f6b5951b619008f8762
During the U.S. government's westward expansion
126
False
Where were Native Americans forced to live after they lost their land?
57273f6b5951b619008f8763
reservations
295
False
How much land did the Native Americans own in 1934?
57273f6b5951b619008f8764
52 million acres
453
False
In relation to whites, what was the poverty rate for Native Americans in 1990?
57273f6b5951b619008f8765
more than triple
530
False
people who lived in North America before European settlement
64
Which groups can be categorized as Non-Native Americans?
5ad4159d604f3c001a400315
True
government's westward expansion
142
When did the Native Americans win their land?
5ad4159d604f3c001a400316
True
reservations
295
Where were Native Americans forced to live after they won their land?
5ad4159d604f3c001a400317
True
52 million acres
453
How much land did the Native Americans own in 1914?
5ad4159d604f3c001a400318
True
The category of Native American applies to the diverse group of people who lived in North America before European settlement. During the U.S. government's westward expansion, Native Americans were displaced from their land which had been their home for centuries. Instead, they were forced onto reservations which were far smaller and less productive. According to Brest, land belonging to Native Americans was reduced from 138 million acres in 1887 to 52 million acres in 1934. In 1990, the poverty rate for Native Americans was more than triple that of the whites and only 9.4% of Native Americans have completed a bachelor's degree as opposed to 25.2% of whites and 12.2% of African Americans.
What form of discrimination did early Asian immigrants experience?
572740665951b619008f876b
not having the ability to become naturalized citizens
80
False
What law type did Asian immigrants struggle with?
572740665951b619008f876c
school segregation
177
False
Which piece of legislature marked the start of discrimination against Asians?
572740665951b619008f876d
Chinese Exclusion Act of 1882
401
False
Which bill was passed in an attempt to limit or prevent Asian immigration?
572740665951b619008f876e
Immigration Act of 1924
571
False
According to studies, what are Asians perceived to be lacking?
572740665951b619008f876f
communication skills and personality
1032
False
not having the ability to become naturalized citizens
80
m of discrimination did early African immigrants experience?
5ad4160b604f3c001a400331
True
school segregation
177
What law type did African immigrants struggle with?
5ad4160b604f3c001a400332
True
Immigration Act of 1924
571
Which bill was passed in an attempt to provide for Asian immigration?
5ad4160b604f3c001a400333
True
Early Asian immigrants experienced prejudice and discrimination in the forms of not having the ability to become naturalized citizens. They also struggled with many of the same school segregation laws that African Americans faced. Particularly, during World War II, Japanese Americans were interned in camps and lost their property, homes, and businesses. Discrimination against Asians began with the Chinese Exclusion Act of 1882 and then continued with the Scott Act of 1888 and the Geary Act of 1892. At the beginning of the 20th century, the United States passed the Immigration Act of 1924 to prevent Asian immigration out of fear that Asians were stealing white jobs and lowering the standard for wages. In addition, whites and non-Asians do not differentiate among the different Asian groups and perpetuate the "model minority" stereotype. According to a 2010 article by Professor Qin Zhang of Fairfield University, Asians are characterized as one dimensional in having great work ethic and valuing education, but lacking in communication skills and personality. A negative outcome of this stereotype is that Asians have been portrayed as having poor leadership and interpersonal skills. This has contributing to the "glass ceiling" phenomenon in which although there are many qualified Asian Americans, they occupy a disproportionately small number of executive positions in businesses. Furthermore, the model minority stereotype has led to resentment of Asian success and several universities and colleges have limited or have been accused of limiting Asian matriculation.
What is one of the issues with affirmative action?
57274163708984140094db6d
inherently unequal
62
False
How do people who are in favor of affirmative action view it?
57274163708984140094db6e
an effort towards inclusion rather than a discriminatory practice
333
False
What does affirmative action supposedly aim to do?
57274163708984140094db6f
overcome prejudicial treatment through inclusion
503
False
What do proponents of affirmative action believe is the best way to combat exclusionary practices?
57274163708984140094db70
make special efforts at inclusion
624
False
inherently unequal
62
What is one of the issues with non-affirmative action?
5ad4168b604f3c001a400349
True
effort towards inclusion
336
How do people who aren't in favor of affirmative action view it?
5ad4168b604f3c001a40034a
True
overcome prejudicial treatment through inclusion
503
What does affirmative action supposedly not aim to do?
5ad4168b604f3c001a40034b
True
make special efforts at inclusion
624
What do proponents of affirmative action believe is the worst way to combat exclusionary practices?
5ad4168b604f3c001a40034c
True
Proponents of affirmative action recognize that the policy is inherently unequal; however, minding the inescapable fact that historic inequalities exist in America, they believe the policy is much more fair than one in which these circumstances are not taken into account. Furthermore, those in favor of affirmative action see it as an effort towards inclusion rather than a discriminatory practice. "Job discrimination is grounded in prejudice and exclusion, whereas affirmative action is an effort to overcome prejudicial treatment through inclusion. The most effective way to cure society of exclusionary practices is to make special efforts at inclusion, which is exactly what affirmative action does."
Which President made their stance on affirmative action clear in 1995?
57274387f1498d1400e8f560
Bill Clinton
266
False
How long after his inauguration was Bill Clinton's speech?
57274387f1498d1400e8f561
two and a half years
375
False
Which speech did Bill Clinton's speech draw parallels to?
57274387f1498d1400e8f562
President Lyndon B. Johnson's "Freedom is not Enough"
598
False
What did President Clinton claim would not be enough to give everyone in American equality?
57274387f1498d1400e8f563
just outlawing discrimination
678
False
What was President Clinton's response to the claim that affirmative action was hurting the white middle class.
57274387f1498d1400e8f564
the policy was not the source of their problems
874
False
Bill Clinton
266
Which President made their stance on non-affirmative action clear in 1995?
5ad416d9604f3c001a40035b
True
two and a half years
375
How soon after his inauguration was Bill Clinton's speech?
5ad416d9604f3c001a40035c
True
Lyndon B. Johnson's "Freedom is not Enough"
608
Which speech did Bill Clinton's speech draw differences from?
5ad416d9604f3c001a40035d
True
outlawing discrimination
683
What did President Clinton claim would be enough to give everyone in American equality?
5ad416d9604f3c001a40035e
True
policy was not the source of their problems
878
What was President Clinton's response to the claim that affirmative action was not hurting the white middle class.?
5ad416d9604f3c001a40035f
True
There are a multitude of supporters as well as opponents to the policy of affirmative action. Many presidents throughout the last century have failed to take a very firm stance on the policy, and the public has had to discern the president's opinion for themselves. Bill Clinton, however, made his stance on affirmative action very clear in a speech on July 19, 1995, nearly two and a half years after his inauguration. In his speech, he discussed the history in the United States that brought the policy into fruition: slavery, Jim Crow, and segregation. Clinton also mentioned a point similar to President Lyndon B. Johnson's "Freedom is not Enough" speech, and declared that just outlawing discrimination in the country would not be enough to give everyone in America equality. He addressed the arguments that affirmative action hurt the white middle class and said that the policy was not the source of their problems. Clinton plainly outlined his stance on affirmative action, saying:
Where was the National Conference of State Legislatures held in 2014?
572745d8f1498d1400e8f590
Washington D.C.
54
False
What did proponents of affirmative action claim some of the effects of policies that support affirmative action had done?
572745d8f1498d1400e8f591
help to open doors for historically excluded groups in workplace settings and higher education
193
False
What has the concept of workplace diversity caused employers to do?
572745d8f1498d1400e8f592
actively seek to promote an inclusive workplace
369
False
Having a diverse workplace allows for employers to do what?
572745d8f1498d1400e8f593
draw in talent and ideas from all segments of the population
585
False
Which organization claims that private sector employers believe having a diverse workplace is beneficial?
572745d8f1498d1400e8f594
U.S. Equal Employment Opportunity Commission
794
False
Washington D.C.
54
Where was the National Conference of State Legislatures held in 2024?
5ad4171c604f3c001a400377
True
help to open doors for historically excluded groups
193
What did proponents of affirmative action claim some of the effects of policies that reject affirmative action had done?
5ad4171c604f3c001a400378
True
actively seek to promote an inclusive workplace
369
What has the concept of workplace diversity caused employers not to do?
5ad4171c604f3c001a400379
True
draw in talent and ideas from all segments of the population
585
Having a diverse workplace allows for employers to not do what?
5ad4171c604f3c001a40037a
True
The National Conference of State Legislatures held in Washington D.C. stated in a 2014 overview that many supporters for affirmative action argue that policies stemming from affirmative action help to open doors for historically excluded groups in workplace settings and higher education. Workplace diversity has become a business management concept in which employers actively seek to promote an inclusive workplace. By valuing diversity, employers have the capacity to create an environment in which there is a culture of respect for individual differences as well as the ability to draw in talent and ideas from all segments of the population. By creating this diverse workforce, these employers and companies gain a competitive advantage in an increasingly global economy. According to the U.S. Equal Employment Opportunity Commission, many private sector employers have concluded that a diverse workforce makes a "company stronger, more profitable, and a better place to work." Therefore, these diversity promoting policies are implemented for competitive reasons rather than as a response to discrimination, but have shown the value in having diversity.
What does AAUP stand for?
572747fddd62a815002e9a78
American Association of University Professors
42
False
What were the effects of affirmative action on universities according to the study done by the AAUP?
572747fddd62a815002e9a79
positive effects on the educational outcomes and experiences of college students
196
False
What did a study claim about the beliefs of faculty members on increased diversity?
572747fddd62a815002e9a7a
helps students to reach the essential goals of a college education
442
False
Who supposedly suffers no detrimental effects from classroom diversity?
572747fddd62a815002e9a7b
Caucasian students
510
False
In which year did the AAUP release their study?
572747fddd62a815002e9a7c
2000
12
False
American Association of University Professors
42
What does ADUP stand for?
5ad4175f604f3c001a400393
True
positive effects on the educational outcomes and experiences of college students as well as the teaching of faculty members
196
What were the effects of affirmative action on universities according to the study done by the AALP?
5ad4175f604f3c001a400394
True
helps students to reach the essential goals of a college education
442
What did a study claim about the beliefs of faculty members on decreased diversity?
5ad4175f604f3c001a400395
True
Caucasian students
510
Who supposedly suffers a lot of detrimental effects from classroom diversity?
5ad4175f604f3c001a400396
True
2000
1486
In which year did the ALUP release their study?
5ad4175f604f3c001a400397
True
In the year 2000, according to a study by American Association of University Professors (AAUP), affirmative action promoted diversity within colleges and universities. This has been shown to have positive effects on the educational outcomes and experiences of college students as well as the teaching of faculty members. According to a study by Geoffrey Maruyama and José F. Moreno, the results showed that faculty members believed diversity helps students to reach the essential goals of a college education, Caucasian students suffer no detrimental effects from classroom diversity, and that attention to multicultural learning improves the ability of colleges and universities to accomplish their missions. Furthermore, a diverse population of students offers unique perspectives in order to challenge preconceived notions through exposure to the experiences and ideas of others. According to Professor Gurin of the University of Michigan, skills such as "perspective-taking, acceptance of differences, a willingness and capacity to find commonalities among differences, acceptance of conflict as normal, conflict resolution, participation in democracy, and interest in the wider social world" can potentially be developed in college while being exposed to heterogeneous group of students. In addition, broadening perspectives helps students confront personal and substantive stereotypes and fosters discussion about racial and ethnic issues in a classroom setting. Furthermore, the 2000 AAUP study states that having a diversity of views leads to a better discussion and greater understanding among the students on issues of race, tolerance, fairness, etc.
Who claims that artificially raising minority students into schools has a negative effect on them?
572749b4708984140094dbc3
Richard Sander
0
False
What was a negative effect of affirmative action according to Richard Sander?
572749b4708984140094dbc4
high dropout rates
190
False
Where do half of the black college students rank in terms of their performance relative to the rest of their class?
572749b4708984140094dbc5
bottom 20 percent
291
False
What is the failure rate for black law school graduates compared to whites for the bar exam?
572749b4708984140094dbc6
four times
358
False
Richard Sander
0
Who claims that artificially raising minority students into schools has a positive effect on them?
5ad417a0604f3c001a4003a7
True
high dropout rates
190
What was a postive effect of affirmative action according to Richard Sander?
5ad417a0604f3c001a4003a8
True
bottom 20 percent
291
Where do half of the white college students rank in terms of their performance relative to the rest of their class?
5ad417a0604f3c001a4003a9
True
four times
358
What is the failure rate for black law school graduates compared to asians for the bar exam?
5ad417a0604f3c001a4003aa
True
Richard Sander claims that by artificially elevating minority students into schools they otherwise would not be capable of attending, this discourages them and tends to engender failure and high dropout rates for these students. For example, about half of black college students rank in the bottom 20 percent of their classes, black law school graduates are four times as likely to fail bar exams as are whites, and interracial friendships are more likely to form among students with relatively similar levels of academic preparation; thus, blacks and Hispanics are more socially integrated on campuses where they are less academically mismatched. He claims that the supposed "beneficiaries" of affirmative action – minorities – do not actually benefit and rather are harmed by the policy. Sander's claims have been disputed, and his empirical analyses have been subject to substantial criticism. A group including some of the country's lead statistical methodologists told the Supreme Court that Sander's analyses were sufficiently flawed that the Court would be wise to ignore them entirely. At the same time many scholars have found that minorities gain substantially from affirmative action.
Which idea is the controversy of affirmative action primarily based upon?
57274a8c5951b619008f87c3
class inequality
87
False
Other than African Americans, who do detractors of affirmative action claim benefit most from affirmative action?
57274a8c5951b619008f87c4
Hispanic Americans
231
False
At who's expense other than Asian Americans are upper-class African Americans and Hispanic Americans supposedly benefiting?
57274a8c5951b619008f87c5
lower-class European Americans
268
False
What do some people believe should be the basis for affirmative action instead of race based legislation?
57274a8c5951b619008f87c6
class-based affirmative action
455
False
Who primarily makes up America's poor group?
57274a8c5951b619008f87c7
people of color
435
False
class inequality
87
Which idea is the controversy of non-affirmative action primarily based upon?
5ad417da604f3c001a4003bf
True
Hispanic
231
Other than Asian Americans, who do detractors of affirmative action claim benefit most from affirmative action?
5ad417da604f3c001a4003c0
True
lower-class European Americans
268
At whose expense other than African Americans are upper-class African Americans and Hispanic Americans supposedly benefiting?
5ad417da604f3c001a4003c1
True
class-based affirmative action
455
What do some people believe should be the basis for affirmative action instead of religion based legislation?
5ad417da604f3c001a4003c2
True
people of color
675
Who primarily makes up America's rich group?
5ad417da604f3c001a4003c3
True
The controversy surrounding affirmative action's effectiveness is based on the idea of class inequality. Opponents of racial affirmative action argue that the program actually benefits middle- and upper-class African Americans and Hispanic Americans at the expense of lower-class European Americans and Asian Americans. This argument supports the idea of class-based affirmative action. America's poor is disproportionately made up of people of color, so class-based affirmative action would disproportionately help people of color. This would eliminate the need for race-based affirmative action as well as reducing any disproportionate benefits for middle- and upper-class people of color.
Where were the Italian American professors employed that asked to be added as an affirmative action category?
57274c69f1498d1400e8f5ec
City University of New York
51
False
Which year did the Italian American Professors make their request?
57274c69f1498d1400e8f5ed
1976
3
False
What category of race do Italian Americans normally fall under?
57274c69f1498d1400e8f5ee
white
198
False
What was the title of the book written by Thomas Sowell?
57274c69f1498d1400e8f5ef
Affirmative Action Around the World: An Empirical Study
385
False
Why would Italian Americans want to get themselves designated as members of a preferred group?
57274c69f1498d1400e8f5f0
to take advantage of group preference policies
613
False
City University of New York
51
Where were the Irish American professors employed that asked to be added as an affirmative action category?
5ad4180c604f3c001a4003d3
True
1976
3
Which year did the Irish American Professors make their request?
5ad4180c604f3c001a4003d4
True
white
198
What category of race do Irish Americans normally fall under?
5ad4180c604f3c001a4003d5
True
Affirmative Action Around the World: An Empirical Study
385
What was the title of the song written by Thomas Sowell?
5ad4180c604f3c001a4003d6
True
take advantage of group preference policies
616
Why would Italian Americans want to get themselves designated as members of a non-preferred group?
5ad4180c604f3c001a4003d7
True
In 1976, a group of Italian American professors at City University of New York asked to be added as an affirmative action category for promotion and hiring. Italian Americans are usually considered white in the US and would not be covered under affirmative action policies, but the professors believed they were underrepresented. Libertarian economist Thomas Sowell wrote in his book, Affirmative Action Around the World: An Empirical Study, that affirmative action policies encourage non-preferred groups to designate themselves as members of preferred groups [i.e., primary beneficiaries of affirmative action] to take advantage of group preference policies.
What book did Frederick Lynch author?
572750baf1498d1400e8f632
Invisible Victims: White Males and the Crisis of Affirmative Action
31
False
What did white males feel was happening to them as a result of affirmative action?
572750baf1498d1400e8f633
reverse discrimination
158
False
What moral position does Shelby Steele hold?
572750baf1498d1400e8f634
against affirmative action
311
False
What does Shelby Steele believe that the true concept of affirmative action is?
572750baf1498d1400e8f635
enforcing equal opportunity
407
False
Invisible Victims: White Males and the Crisis of Affirmative Action
31
What book did Frederick Lynch burn?
5ad41831604f3c001a4003e7
True
reverse discrimination
158
What did black males feel was happening to them as a result of affirmative action?
5ad41831604f3c001a4003e8
True
reverse discrimination
158
What moral position does Shelby Steele disagree with?
5ad41831604f3c001a4003e9
True
enforcing equal opportunity
407
What does Shelby Steele believe that the false concept of affirmative action is?
5ad41831604f3c001a4003ea
True
Frederick Lynch, the author of Invisible Victims: White Males and the Crisis of Affirmative Action, did a study on white males that said they were victims of reverse discrimination. Lynch explains that these white men felt frustrated and unfairly victimized by affirmative action. Shelby Steele, another author against affirmative action, wanted to see affirmative action go back to its original meaning of enforcing equal opportunity. He argued that blacks had to take full responsibility in their education and in maintaining a job. Steele believes that there is still a long way to go in America to reach our goals of eradicating discrimination.
Which book did Terry Eastland write?
572751dc5951b619008f8849
From Ending Affirmative Action: The Case for Colorblind Justice
37
False
Outside of promoting diversity, was does Eastland believe the other reason to be in favor of affirmative action is?
572751dc5951b619008f884a
remedying past discrimination
174
False
What did Eastland believe the founders of affirmative action did not consider?
572751dc5951b619008f884b
how the benefits of affirmative action would go to those who did not need it
307
False
Why does Sowell believe that there is little to no incentive for the preferred minority groups to perform at their best?
572751dc5951b619008f884c
because doing so is unnecessary
1469
False
What argument does Sowell make in his claim that non - preferred minorities have less incentive to perform at their best?
572751dc5951b619008f884d
because it can prove futile
1516
False
From Ending Affirmative Action: The Case for Colorblind Justice
37
Which song did Terry Eastland write?
5ad41874604f3c001a4003f9
True
remedying past discrimination
174
Outside of promoting diversity, was does Eastland believe the other reason to be against affirmative action is?
5ad41874604f3c001a4003fa
True
how the benefits of affirmative action would go to those who did not need it, mostly middle class minorities
307
What did Westland believe the founders of affirmative action did not consider?
5ad41874604f3c001a4003fb
True
because doing so is unnecessary
1469
Why does Sowell believe that there is a lot of incentive for the preferred minority groups to perform at their best?
5ad41874604f3c001a4003fc
True
it can prove futile
1524
What argument does Sowell make in his claim that preferred minorities have less incentive to perform at their best?
5ad41874604f3c001a4003fd
True
Terry Eastland, the author who wrote From Ending Affirmative Action: The Case for Colorblind Justice states, "Most arguments for affirmative action fall into two categories: remedying past discrimination and promoting diversity". Eastland believes that the founders of affirmative action did not anticipate how the benefits of affirmative action would go to those who did not need it, mostly middle class minorities. Additionally, she argues that affirmative action carries with it a stigma that can create feelings of self-doubt and entitlement in minorities. Eastland believes that affirmative action is a great risk that only sometimes pays off, and that without it we would be able to compete more freely with one another. Libertarian economist Thomas Sowell identified what he says are negative results of affirmative action in his book, Affirmative Action Around the World: An Empirical Study. Sowell writes that affirmative action policies encourage non-preferred groups to designate themselves as members of preferred groups [i.e., primary beneficiaries of affirmative action] to take advantage of group preference policies; that they tend to benefit primarily the most fortunate among the preferred group (e.g., upper and middle class blacks), often to the detriment of the least fortunate among the non-preferred groups (e.g., poor white or Asian); that they reduce the incentives of both the preferred and non-preferred to perform at their best – the former because doing so is unnecessary and the latter because it can prove futile – thereby resulting in net losses for society as a whole; and that they engender animosity toward preferred groups as well.:115–147
What is a definition of reverse discrimination?
5727547df1498d1400e8f64c
a policy or practice in which members of a majority are discriminated against in favor of a historically disadvantaged group or minority
57
False
What do some commentators claim the irony of policies resulting from affirmative action is?
5727547df1498d1400e8f64d
these policies are just another form of discrimination
311
False
Who is an example of someone that states that affirmative action is another form of discrimination?
5727547df1498d1400e8f64e
Ward Connerly
418
False
What does the opposition of affirmative action believe should be the main key in determining acceptance in employment or education?
5727547df1498d1400e8f64f
merit
1413
False
An argument against affirmative action is that it encourages what?
5727547df1498d1400e8f650
mediocrity and incompetence
710
False
policy or practice in which members of a majority are discriminated against in favor of a historically disadvantaged group or minority
59
What is a definition of discrimination?
5ad418c5604f3c001a40041d
True
these policies are just another form of discrimination
311
What do some commentators reject the irony of policies resulting from affirmative action is?
5ad418c6604f3c001a40041e
True
Ward Connerly
418
Who is an example of someone that states that affirmative action is not another form of discrimination?
5ad418c6604f3c001a40041f
True
merit
1327
What does the opposition of affirmative action believe should be the main key in determining acceptance in unemployment?
5ad418c6604f3c001a400420
True
mediocrity and incompetence
710
An argument against affirmative action is that it discourages what?
5ad418c6604f3c001a400421
True
Some commentators have defined reverse discrimination as a policy or practice in which members of a majority are discriminated against in favor of a historically disadvantaged group or minority.[non-primary source needed] Many argue that reverse discrimination results from affirmative action policies and that these policies are just another form of discrimination no different from examples in the past. People like Ward Connerly assert that affirmative action requires the very discrimination it is seeking to eliminate. According to these opponents, this contradiction might make affirmative action counter-productive. One argument for reverse discrimination is the idea that affirmative action encourages mediocrity and incompetence. Job positions would not be offered to the applicants who are the most qualified, but to applicants with a special trait such as a certain race, ethnicity, or gender. For example, opponents say affirmative action causes unprepared applicants to be accepted in highly demanding educational institutions or jobs which result in eventual failure (see, for example, Richard Sander's study of affirmative action in Law School, bar exam and eventual performance at law firms). Other opponents say that affirmative action lowers the bar and so denies those who strive for excellence on their own merit and the sense of real achievement. Opponents of affirmative action suggest that merit should be the primary factor considered in applying for job positions, college, graduate school, etc.
What is a typical argument in favor of affirmative action?
57275571dd62a815002e9b4a
compensation argument
55
False
In the compensation argument, who should supposedly have to make up for past discrimination against blacks?
57275571dd62a815002e9b4b
society today should compensate for the injuries
171
False
Which argument is being made by those who oppose affirmative action in relation to the compensation argument?
57275571dd62a815002e9b4c
preferential treatment for this same trait is illogical
497
False
In terms of whites, what is an argument that is used to try and refute the benefits of affirmative action as it relates to the compensation argument?
57275571dd62a815002e9b4d
whites today who innocently benefited from past injustices should not be punished for something they had no control over
591
False
According to opposition believers, who should be punished for discrimination?
57275571dd62a815002e9b4e
people who willingly and knowingly benefited from discriminatory practices
835
False
compensation argument
55
What is a typical argument against affirmative action?
5ad41909604f3c001a40043b
True
society today should compensate for the injuries
171
In the compensation argument, who should supposedly have to make up for past discrimination against whites?
5ad41909604f3c001a40043c
True
preferential treatment for this same trait is illogical
497
Which argument is being made by those who support affirmative action in relation to the compensation argument?
5ad41909604f3c001a40043d
True
whites today who innocently benefited from past injustices should not be punished for something they had no control over
591
In terms of blacks, what is an argument that is used to try and refute the benefits of affirmative action as it relates to the compensation argument?
5ad41909604f3c001a40043e
True
Another popular argument for affirmative action is the compensation argument. Blacks were mistreated in the past for a morally irrelevant characteristic of being black so society today should compensate for the injuries. This causes reverse discrimination in the form of preferential hirings, contracts, and scholarships as a means to ameliorate past wrongs. Many opponents argue that this form of reparation is morally indefensible because if blacks were harmed for being black in the past, then preferential treatment for this same trait is illogical. In addition, arguments are made that whites today who innocently benefited from past injustices should not be punished for something they had no control over. Therefore, they are being reverse discriminated against because they are receiving the punishment that should be given to people who willingly and knowingly benefited from discriminatory practices
Other than failing to achieve its goal, what else do opponents to affirmative action claim it has?
57275c29dd62a815002e9bb0
undesirable side-effects
57
False
Other than benefiting more privileged people within minority groups, what is another argument against affirmative action?
57275c29dd62a815002e9bb1
may increase racial tension
333
False
When was there a vote regarding affirmative action in Michigan?
57275c29dd62a815002e9bb2
2006
736
False
How many Michigan voters elected to ban affirmative action for university admissions?
57275c29dd62a815002e9bb3
60%
749
False
Which court case featured an unprecedented and controversial decision?
57275c29dd62a815002e9bb4
Grutter v. Bollinger
711
False
undesirable side-effects
57
Other than failing to achieve its goal, what else do people who agree with affirmative action claim it has?
5ad4194f604f3c001a400455
True
may increase racial tension
333
Other than benefiting more privileged people outside of minority groups, what is another argument against affirmative action?
5ad4194f604f3c001a400456
True
2006
736
When was there a vote not regarding affirmative action in Michigan?
5ad4194f604f3c001a400457
True
60%
749
How many Michigan voters elected to support affirmative action for university admissions?
5ad4194f604f3c001a400458
True
Grutter v. Bollinger
711
Which court case featured an uncontroversial decision?
5ad4194f604f3c001a400459
True
Some opponents further claim that affirmative action has undesirable side-effects and that it fails to achieve its goals. They argue that it hinders reconciliation, replaces old wrongs with new wrongs, undermines the achievements of minorities, and encourages groups to identify themselves as disadvantaged, even if they are not. It may increase racial tension and benefit the more privileged people within minority groups at the expense of the disenfranchised within better-off groups (such as lower-class whites and Asians).There has recently been a strong push among American states to ban racial or gender preferences in university admissions, in reaction to the controversial and unprecedented decision in Grutter v. Bollinger. In 2006, nearly 60% of Michigan voters decided to ban affirmative action in university admissions. Michigan joined California, Florida, Texas, and Washington in banning the use of race or sex in admissions considerations. Some opponents believe, among other things, that affirmative action devalues the accomplishments of people who belong to a group it's supposed to help, therefore making affirmative action counter-productive. Furthermore, opponents of affirmative action claim that these policies dehumanize individuals and applicants to jobs or school are judged as members of a group without consideration for the individual person.
Where are racial preferences highlighted the most in the United States?
57275cf15951b619008f88c3
admission to universities and other forms of higher education
95
False
What is another term for kids who get preferential treatment due to their parents attending the same university?
57275cf15951b619008f88c4
legacy admissions
278
False
Which case that went to the Supreme Court resulted in a decision regarding public universities and affirmative action?
57275cf15951b619008f88c5
Bakke v. Regents
552
False
What are public universities not allowed to do?
57275d295951b619008f88c9
set specific numerical targets based on race for admissions or employment
640
False
Instead of being allowed to set numerical targets, what did the Court rule that universities are allowed to do?
57275d295951b619008f88ca
"goals" and "timetables" for diversity could be set
735
False
admission to universities and other forms of higher education
95
Where are racial preferences highlighted the most in the UK?
5ad41984604f3c001a400469
True
legacy admissions
278
What is another term for kids who don't get preferential treatment due to their parents attending the same university?
5ad41984604f3c001a40046a
True
Bakke v. Regents
552
Which case that went to the Supreme Court resulted in a decision regarding private universities and affirmative action?
5ad41984604f3c001a40046b
True
set specific numerical targets based on race for admissions or employment
640
What are public universities allowed to do?
5ad41984604f3c001a40046c
True
In the US, a prominent form of racial preferences relates to access to education, particularly admission to universities and other forms of higher education. Race, ethnicity, native language, social class, geographical origin, parental attendance of the university in question (legacy admissions), and/or gender are sometimes taken into account when the university assesses an applicant's grades and test scores. Individuals can also be awarded scholarships and have fees paid on the basis of criteria listed above. In 1978, the Supreme Court ruled in Bakke v. Regents that public universities (and other government institutions) could not set specific numerical targets based on race for admissions or employment. The Court said that "goals" and "timetables" for diversity could be set instead.
What does the racial preferences debate indicate about universities and colleges?
57276006708984140094dcb5
competing notions of the mission of colleges
92
False
What claim did Ronald Dworkin make about the expectations that a college application should not have?
57276006708984140094dcb6
a right to expect that a university will design its admissions policies in a way that prizes any particular set of qualities
344
False
What does Ronald Dworkin believe admission should represent?
57276006708984140094dcb7
a way to advance the mission as each university defines it
555
False
When can affirmative action be judged to be acceptable in terms of admissions?
57276006708984140094dcb8
If diversity is a goal of the university and their racial preferences do not discriminate
615
False
competing notions of the mission of colleges:
92
What does the racial preferences debate not indicate about universities and colleges?
5ad419c7604f3c001a400479
True
a right to expect that a university will design its admissions policies in a way that prizes any particular set of qualities
344
What claim did Ronald Dworkin make about the expectations that a college application should have?
5ad419c7604f3c001a40047a
True
diversity is a goal of the university and their racial preferences do not discriminate against applicants
618
When can affirmative action be judged to be unacceptable in terms of admissions?
5ad419c7604f3c001a40047b
True
The racial preferences debate related to admission to US colleges and universities reflects competing notions of the mission of colleges: "To what extent should they pursue scholarly excellence, to what extent civic goods, and how should these purposes be balanced?". Scholars such as Ronald Dworkin have asserted that no college applicant has a right to expect that a university will design its admissions policies in a way that prizes any particular set of qualities. In this view, admission is not an honor bestowed to reward superior merit but rather a way to advance the mission as each university defines it. If diversity is a goal of the university and their racial preferences do not discriminate against applicants based on hatred or contempt, then affirmative action can be judged acceptable based on the criteria related to the mission the university sets for itself.
What did the ruling in Hopwood v Texas set a precedent for in terms of admission policies?
57276203f1498d1400e8f722
banning any use of race in school admissions
46
False
What did the law passed by the State of Texas guarantee?
57276203f1498d1400e8f723
entry to any state university if a student finished in the top 10% of their graduating class
137
False
Other than Texas and Florida, which other state replaced racial quotas?
57276203f1498d1400e8f724
California
243
False
What is one example of what racial quotas were replaced with?
57276203f1498d1400e8f725
class rank
292
False
After the state passed the top 10% rule, what happened to minority enrollment?
57276203f1498d1400e8f726
returned minority enrollment to pre-1996 levels
1189
False
banning any use of race in school admissions
46
What didn't the ruling in Hopwood v Texas set a precedent for in terms of admission policies?
5ad419f5604f3c001a400489
True
entry to any state university if a student finished in the top 10% of their graduating class
137
What did the law passed by the State of Texas not guarantee?
5ad419f5604f3c001a40048a
True
California
243
Other than Texas and Florida, which other state did not replace racial quotas?
5ad419f5604f3c001a40048b
True
class rank
630
What is one example of what racial quotas were not replaced with?
5ad419f5604f3c001a40048c
True
To accommodate the ruling in Hopwood v. Texas banning any use of race in school admissions, the State of Texas passed a law guaranteeing entry to any state university if a student finished in the top 10% of their graduating class. Florida and California have also replaced racial quotas with class rank and other criteria. Class rank tends to benefit top students at less competitive high schools, to the detriment of students at more competitive high schools. This effect, however, may be intentional since less-funded, less competitive schools are more likely to be schools where minority enrollment is high. Critics argue that class rank is more a measure of one's peers than of one's self. The top 10% rule adds racial diversity only because schools are still highly racially segregated because of residential patterns. The class rank rule has the same consequence as traditional affirmative action: opening schools to students who would otherwise not be admitted had the given school used a holistic, merit-based approach. From 1996 to 1998, Texas had merit-based admission to its state universities, and minority enrollment dropped. The state's adoption of the "top 10 percent" rule returned minority enrollment to pre-1996 levels.
What was going on at Harvard University during the 2003 - 04 academic year?
5727659a5951b619008f8961
a panel discussion
7
False
What did two prominent black professors point out at the panel discussion?
5727659a5951b619008f8962
an unintended effect of affirmative action policies at Harvard
217
False
What portion of black Harvard undergraduates came from families in which all four grandparents were born into the African American community?
5727659a5951b619008f8963
a third
309
False
What did the African American students at Harvard that could trace their lineage back multiple generations begin calling themselves?
5727659a5951b619008f8964
the descendants
871
False
Other than the reasons for the under representation of African Americans, what else is still up for debate?
5727659a5951b619008f8965
possible remedies
1004
False
panel discussion
9
What was going on at Harvard University during the 2007 - 08 academic year?
5ad41a2c604f3c001a4004ad
True
unintended effect of affirmative action policies at Harvard
220
What did two prominent white professors point out at the panel discussion?
5ad41a2c604f3c001a4004ae
True
third
311
What portion of black Harvard undergraduates came from families in which all four grandparents were born into the Asian American community?
5ad41a2c604f3c001a4004af
True
the descendants
871
What did the Asian American students at Harvard that could trace their lineage back multiple generations begin calling themselves?
5ad41a2c604f3c001a4004b0
True
possible remedies
1004
Other than the reasons for the under representation of Asian Americans, what else is still up for debate?
5ad41a2c604f3c001a4004b1
True
During a panel discussion at Harvard University's reunion for African American alumni during the 2003–04 academic year, two prominent black professors at the institution—Lani Guinier and Henry Louis Gates—pointed out an unintended effect of affirmative action policies at Harvard. They stated that only about a third of black Harvard undergraduates were from families in which all four grandparents were born into the African American community. The majority of black students at Harvard were Caribbean and African immigrants or their children, with some others the mixed-race children of biracial couples. One Harvard student, born in the South Bronx to a black family whose ancestors have been in the United States for multiple generations, said that there were so few Harvard students from the historic African American community that they took to calling themselves "the descendants" (i.e., descendants of American slaves). The reasons for this underrepresentation of historic African Americans, and possible remedies, remain a subject of debate.
To which university does Richard H. Sander belong?
57276815dd62a815002e9c58
UCLA
0
False
In which publication did Sander publish an article questioning racial preferences in law schools?
57276815dd62a815002e9c59
Stanford Law Review
88
False
What did Sander's study show in terms of black law students rankings?
57276815dd62a815002e9c5a
half of all black law students rank near the bottom of their class after the first year of law school
338
False
How much does the article estimate the black lawyer population would potentially grow if affirmative action was ended?
57276815dd62a815002e9c5b
eight percent
652
False
Which legislative work prohibited the use of racial preferences for admissions in the state of California?
57276815dd62a815002e9c5c
Proposition 209
1031
False
UCLA
0
To which university does Richard H. Sander not belong?
5ad41a64604f3c001a4004b7
True
Stanford Law Review
88
In which publication did Sander publish an article not questioning racial preferences in law schools?
5ad41a64604f3c001a4004b8
True
half of all black law students rank near the bottom of their class after the first year of law school
338
What did Sander's study show in terms of white law students rankings?
5ad41a64604f3c001a4004b9
True
eight percent
652
How much does the article estimate the black lawyer population would potentially grow if affirmative action started?
5ad41a64604f3c001a4004ba
True
Proposition 209
1031
Which legislative work did not prohibit the use of racial preferences for admissions in the state of California?
5ad41a64604f3c001a4004bb
True
UCLA professor Richard H. Sander published an article in the November 2004 issue of the Stanford Law Review that questioned the effectiveness of racial preferences in law schools. He noted that, prior to his article, there had been no comprehensive study on the effects of affirmative action. The article presents a study that shows that half of all black law students rank near the bottom of their class after the first year of law school and that black law students are more likely to drop out of law school and to fail the bar exam. The article offers a tentative estimate that the production of new black lawyers in the United States would grow by eight percent if affirmative action programs at all law schools were ended. Less qualified black students would attend less prestigious schools where they would be more closely matched in abilities with their classmates and thus perform relatively better. Sander helped to develop a socioeconomically-based affirmative action plan for the UCLA School of Law after the passage of Proposition 209 in 1996, which prohibited the use of racial preferences by public universities in California. This change occurred after studies showed that the graduation rate of blacks at UCLA was 41%, compared to 73% for whites.
What area of study did professor Mark Long have a degree in?
572769c2dd62a815002e9c76
economics
33
False
In which year did Long publish his study?
572769c2dd62a815002e9c77
2007
11
False
How were rebounds of minority enrollment explained in Long's report?
572769c2dd62a815002e9c78
increasing minority enrollment in high schools
345
False
Who would supposedly be the beneficiaries of a class-based style affirmative action?
572769c2dd62a815002e9c79
white students
485
False
What percentage of the black population thought affirmative action should be abolished?
572769c2dd62a815002e9c7a
14
626
False
economics
33
What area of study did professor Mark Long have a job in?
5ad41aa1604f3c001a4004cb
True
2007
11
In which year did Long reject his study?
5ad41aa1604f3c001a4004cc
True
increasing minority enrollment in high schools of those states
345
How were rebounds of minority enrollment rejected in Long's report?
5ad41aa1604f3c001a4004cd
True
white students
485
Who would supposedly be the beneficiaries of a not class-based style affirmative action?
5ad41aa1604f3c001a4004ce
True
14
626
What percentage of the black population thought affirmative action should not be abolished?
5ad41aa1604f3c001a4004cf
True
A study in 2007 by Mark Long, an economics professor at the University of Washington, demonstrated that the alternatives of affirmative action proved ineffective in restoring minority enrollment in public flagship universities in California, Texas, and Washington. More specifically, apparent rebounds of minority enrollment can be explained by increasing minority enrollment in high schools of those states, and the beneficiaries of class-based (not race) affirmative action would be white students. At the same time, affirmative action itself is both morally and materially costly: 52 percent of white populace (compared to 14 percent of black) thought it should be abolished, implying white distaste of using racial identity, and full-file review is expected to cost the universities an additional $1.5 million to $2 million per year, excluding possible cost of litigation.
With which organization did Li file a civil rights complaint?
57276ad1dd62a815002e9c8a
Office for Civil Rights
102
False
Which university was Li alleging racial discrimination against?
57276ad1dd62a815002e9c8b
Princeton University
134
False
Who was the Dean of Admissions at Princeton University at the time of the complaint?
57276ad1dd62a815002e9c8c
Janet Rapelye
477
False
What did Princeton claim the real reasons for the rejection of Li's application was?
57276ad1dd62a815002e9c8d
many others had far better qualifications
679
False
Even though Li did not get accepted, what was done instead of a straight rejection?
57276ad1dd62a815002e9c8e
placement on the waitlist
843
False
Office for Civil Rights against
102
With which organization did Li not file a civil rights complaint?
5ad41add604f3c001a4004f1
True
Princeton University
134
Which university was Li allegingn non-racial discrimination against?
5ad41add604f3c001a4004f2
True
Janet Rapelye
477
Who wasn't the Dean of Admissions at Princeton University at the time of the complaint?
5ad41add604f3c001a4004f3
True
many others had far better qualifications
679
What did Princeton claim the real reasons for the approval of Li's application was?
5ad41add604f3c001a4004f4
True
waitlisted
922
Even though Li did not get rejected, what was done instead of a straight rejection?
5ad41add604f3c001a4004f5
True
In 2006, Jian Li, a Chinese undergraduate at Yale University, filed a civil rights complaint with the Office for Civil Rights against Princeton University, claiming that his race played a role in their decision to reject his application for admission and seeking the suspension of federal financial assistance to the university until it "discontinues discrimination against Asian Americans in all forms" by eliminating race and legacy preferences. Princeton Dean of Admissions Janet Rapelye responded to the claims in the November 30, 2006, issue of the Daily Princetonian by stating that "the numbers don't indicate [discrimination]." She said that Li was not admitted because "many others had far better qualifications." Li's extracurricular activities were described as "not all that outstanding". Li countered in an email, saying that his placement on the waitlist undermines Rapelye's claim. "Princeton had initially waitlisted my application," Li said. "So if it were not for a yield which was higher than expected, the admissions office very well may have admitted a candidate whose "outside activities were not all that outstanding".
Which University had a lawsuit filed against it?
57276e8cf1498d1400e8f7f4
University of Texas
193
False
What did the plaintiffs claim the university had for an admissions policy?
57276e8cf1498d1400e8f7f5
race-conscious policy
252
False
What did the admissions policy of the University of Texas supposedly violate?
57276e8cf1498d1400e8f7f6
their civil and constitutional rights
290
False
Who concluded that the University maintained a "holistic" approach to affirmative action?
57276e8cf1498d1400e8f7f7
US Court of Appeals for the Fifth Circuit
1096
False
When will the Supreme Court likely hear the case for the second time?
57276e8cf1498d1400e8f7f8
June 2016
1591
False
University of Texas
193
Which University had a lawsuit not filed against it?
5ad41b1b604f3c001a400505
True
race-conscious policy
252
What did the plaintiffs claim the university didn't have for an admissions policy?
5ad41b1b604f3c001a400506
True
civil and constitutional
296
What did the admissions policy of the University of Texas supposedly not violate?
5ad41b1b604f3c001a400507
True
US Court of Appeals for the Fifth Circuit
1096
Who concluded that the University did not maintain a "holistic" approach to affirmative action?
5ad41b1b604f3c001a400508
True
June 2016
1591
When will the Supreme Court likely hear the case for the third time?
5ad41b1b604f3c001a400509
True
In 2012, Abigail Fisher, an undergraduate student at Louisiana State University, and Rachel Multer Michalewicz, a law student at Southern Methodist University, filed a lawsuit to challenge the University of Texas admissions policy, asserting it had a "race-conscious policy" that "violated their civil and constitutional rights". The University of Texas employs the "Top Ten Percent Law", under which admission to any public college or university in Texas is guaranteed to high school students who graduate in the top ten percent of their high school class. Fisher has brought the admissions policy to court because she believes that she was denied acceptance to the University of Texas based on her race, and thus, her right to equal protection according to the 14th Amendment was violated. The Supreme Court heard oral arguments in Fisher on October 10, 2012, and rendered an ambiguous ruling in 2013 that sent the case back to the lower court, stipulating only that the University must demonstrate that it could not achieve diversity through other, non-race sensitive means. In July 2014, the US Court of Appeals for the Fifth Circuit concluded that U of T maintained a "holistic" approach in its application of affirmative action, and could continue the practice. On February 10, 2015, lawyers for Fisher filed a new case in the Supreme Court. It is a renewed complaint that the U.S. Court of Appeals for the Fifth Circuit got the issue wrong — on the second try as well as on the first. The Supreme Court agreed in June 2015 to hear the case a second time. It will likely be decided by June 2016.
On which date were lawsuits filed against Harvard and Chapel Hill?
572772165951b619008f8a11
November 17, 2014
3
False
Who filed the lawsuits against the Universities?
572772165951b619008f8a12
Students for Fair Admissions
22
False
Other than Asian students, who else was allegedly being discriminated against?
572772165951b619008f8a13
white
315
False
What is the Students for Fair Admissions an offshoot of?
572772165951b619008f8a14
Project on Fair Representation
71
False
What are the Universities waiting for before proceeding with the lawsuit?
572772165951b619008f8a15
until the U.S. Supreme Court provides clarification of relevant law
478
False
November 17, 2014
3
On which date were lawsuits filed with Harvard and Chapel Hill?
5ad41b58604f3c001a400519
True
Students for Fair Admissions
22
Who filed the lawsuits with the Universities?
5ad41b58604f3c001a40051a
True
white
315
Other than African students, who else was allegedly being discriminated against?
5ad41b58604f3c001a40051b
True
Project on Fair Representation
71
What is the Students for Fair Admissions not an offshoot of?
5ad41b58604f3c001a40051c
True
until the U.S. Supreme Court provides clarification of relevant law by ruling
478
What are the Universities waiting for after proceeding with the lawsuit?
5ad41b58604f3c001a40051d
True
On November 17, 2014, Students for Fair Admissions, an offshoot of the Project on Fair Representation, filed lawsuits in federal district court challenging the admissions practices of Harvard University and the University of North Carolina at Chapel Hill. The UNC-Chapel Hill lawsuit alleges discrimination against white and Asian students, while the Harvard lawsuit focuses on discrimination against Asian applicants. Both universities requested the court to halt the lawsuits until the U.S. Supreme Court provides clarification of relevant law by ruling in Fisher v. University of Texas at Austin for the second time. This Supreme Court case will likely be decided in June 2016 or slightly earlier.
How many Asian organizations were involved in filing the federal complaints?
572772ab708984140094ddc7
more than 60
28
False
Who did the organizations file the complaints with?
572772ab708984140094ddc8
Education and Justice Departments
104
False
Who was the target of the filing?
572772ab708984140094ddc9
Harvard University
146
False
What grade average do some students have that are being rejected?
572772ab708984140094ddca
top-one-percent grade point averages
566
False
Why was the lawsuit eventually dismissed?
572772ab708984140094ddcb
the Students for Fair Admissions lawsuit makes similar allegations
849
False
more than 60
28
How many Asian organizations weren't involved in filing the federal complaints?
5ad41b7f604f3c001a40052d
True
Education and Justice Departments
104
Who did the organizations not file the complaints with?
5ad41b7f604f3c001a40052e
True
Harvard University
146
Who was not the target of the filing?
5ad41b7f604f3c001a40052f
True
top-one-percent
566
What grade average do some students have that aren't being rejected?
5ad41b7f604f3c001a400530
True
In May 2015, a coalition of more than 60 Asian-American organizations filed federal complaints with the Education and Justice Departments against Harvard University. The coalition asked for a civil rights investigation into what they described as Harvard's discriminatory admission practices against Asian-American applicants. The complaint asserts that recent studies indicate that Harvard has engaged in systematic and continuous discrimination against Asian Americans in its "holistic" admissions process. Asian-American applicants with near-perfect test scores, top-one-percent grade point averages, academic awards, and leadership positions are allegedly rejected by Harvard because the university uses racial stereotypes, racially differentiated standards, and de facto racial quotas. This federal complaint was dismissed in July 2015 because the Students for Fair Admissions lawsuit makes similar allegations.
FA_Cup
Who is the competition open too?
57273039f1498d1400e8f456
any eligible club
27
False
How many clubs competed in 20011-12?
57273039f1498d1400e8f457
763 clubs
300
False
How many rounds in the tournament?
57273039f1498d1400e8f458
12
358
False
How many games are needed to win?
57273039f1498d1400e8f459
six to fourteen
621
False
What league can compete?
57273039f1498d1400e8f45a
Premier League and Football League
136
False
any eligible club
27
Who is the competition not open to?
5a8c7792fd22b3001a8d885f
True
763
300
How many clubs competed before 2011?
5a8c7792fd22b3001a8d8860
True
Premier League and Football League
136
What leagues cannot compete in the competition?
5a8c7792fd22b3001a8d8861
True
fourteen
628
What is the maximum number of games needed to win?
5a8c7792fd22b3001a8d8862
True
12
358
How many non-random rounds are in the tournament?
5a8c7792fd22b3001a8d8863
True
The competition is open to any eligible club down to Levels 10 of the English football league system - all 92 professional clubs in the Premier League and Football League (Levels 1 to 4), and several hundred "non-league" teams in Steps 1 to 6 of the National League System (Levels 5 to 10). A record 763 clubs competed in 2011–12. The tournament consists of 12 randomly drawn rounds followed by the semi-finals and the final. Entrants are not seeded, although a system of byes based on league level ensures higher ranked teams enter in later rounds - the minimum number of games needed to win the competition ranges from six to fourteen.
What rounds are the qualifiers?
57273164708984140094dac5
first six rounds
4
False
How many teams in the first round?
57273164708984140094dac6
92 professional teams.
153
False
What league enters in the third round?
57273164708984140094dac7
Premier League and Championship clubs
202
False
In the modern era, has any non-league team reached the quarter finals??
57273164708984140094dac8
never reached the quarter finals
324
False
Has a level 2 club reached the finals ever?
57273164708984140094dac9
Level 2 have never reached the final.
374
False
32
64
How many teams do not progress to the first round of the Competition Proper?
5a8c7a93fd22b3001a8d88b0
True
never reached the quarter finals
324
In past eras, has a non-league team reached the quarter finals?
5a8c7a93fd22b3001a8d88b1
True
92
153
How many teams are in the second round?
5a8c7a94fd22b3001a8d88b2
True
the modern era
286
In what time period did a non-league team get to the quarter finals?
5a8c7a94fd22b3001a8d88b3
True
the Qualifying Competition
25
What are the last six rounds called?
5a8c7a94fd22b3001a8d88b4
True
The first six rounds are the Qualifying Competition, from which 32 teams progress to the first round of the Competition Proper, meeting the first of the 92 professional teams. The last entrants are the Premier League and Championship clubs, into the draw for the Third Round Proper. In the modern era, non-league teams have never reached the quarter finals, and teams below Level 2 have never reached the final.[note 1] As a result, as well as who wins, significant focus is given to those "minnows" (smaller teams) who progress furthest, especially if they achieve an unlikely "giant-killing" victory.
What do winners receive?
5727323c708984140094dacf
the FA Cup trophy
16
False
How many FA cup designs have there been?
5727323c708984140094dad0
two
60
False
How many FA cups have there been?
5727323c708984140094dad1
five actual cups
76
False
When was the latest design intoduced?
5727323c708984140094dad2
2014 replica of the second design, introduced in 1911
110
False
the FA Cup trophy
16
What do the losers receive?
5a8c7ba2fd22b3001a8d88e6
True
1911
159
When was the earliest design introduced?
5a8c7ba2fd22b3001a8d88e7
True
Arsenal
427
Who is the least successful club?
5a8c7ba2fd22b3001a8d88e8
True
4–0
313
What was Arsenal's score against Manchester United in the 2015 final?
5a8c7ba2fd22b3001a8d88e9
True
five
76
How many FA Cup Trophy replicas have been made?
5a8c7ba2fd22b3001a8d88ea
True
Winners receive the FA Cup trophy, of which there have been two designs and five actual cups; the latest is a 2014 replica of the second design, introduced in 1911. Winners also qualify for European football and a place in the FA Community Shield match. Arsenal are the current holders, having beaten Aston Villa 4–0 in the 2015 final to win the cup for the second year in a row. It was their 12th FA Cup title overall, making Arsenal the FA Cup's most successful club ahead of Manchester United on 11.
When was the laws of the Game of Asscociation Football published?
572733abf1498d1400e8f482
1863
3
False
Who was the FA secretary in 1871?
572733abf1498d1400e8f483
C. W. Alcock
247
False
When did the inaugural  FA cup tournament take place?
572733abf1498d1400e8f484
November 1871
515
False
Who won the first and second cups?
572733abf1498d1400e8f485
Wanderers were crowned the winners
559
False
When was the modern cup established?
572733abf1498d1400e8f486
modern cup was beginning to be established by the 1888–89 season,
680
False
C. W. Alcock
247
Who was the FA secretary during the 1888-89 season?
5a8c7d6ffd22b3001a8d8922
True
Wanderers
559
Who lost the first and second cups?
5a8c7d6ffd22b3001a8d8923
True
the 1888–89 season
726
What season were qualifying rounds taken out of the tournament?
5a8c7d6ffd22b3001a8d8924
True
the following year
656
When did the Wanderers lose the trophy?
5a8c7d6ffd22b3001a8d8925
True
the offices of The Sportsman newspaper
190
Where were the Laws of the Game of Association Football published?
5a8c7d6ffd22b3001a8d8926
True
In 1863, the newly founded Football Association (the FA) published the Laws of the Game of Association Football, unifying the various different rules in use before then. On 20 July 1871, in the offices of The Sportsman newspaper, the FA Secretary C. W. Alcock proposed to the FA committee that "it is desirable that a Challenge Cup should be established in connection with the Association for which all clubs belonging to the Association should be invited to compete". The inaugural FA Cup tournament kicked off in November 1871. After thirteen games in all, Wanderers were crowned the winners in the final, on 16 March 1872. Wanderers retained the trophy the following year. The modern cup was beginning to be established by the 1888–89 season, when qualifying rounds were introduced.
Was competition suspended due to the first world war?
572734eb5951b619008f86b5
competition was suspended due to the First World War
35
False
what year did competition resume after world war 1?
572734eb5951b619008f86b6
1919–20.
113
False
When did Wembly stadium open?
572734eb5951b619008f86b7
1922–23
126
False
What was Webly stadium called at that time?
572734eb5951b619008f86b8
Empire Stadium
241
False
When did the competition celebrate its centennial?
572734eb5951b619008f86b9
didn't celebrate its centenary year until 1980–81
410
False
Ricky Villa
500
Who replaced the goal scored by Steven Gerrard?
5a8c802dfd22b3001a8d8954
True
1980–81
452
What season did Steven Gerrard score a goal?
5a8c802dfd22b3001a8d8955
True
1922–23
126
Which season did Wembly stadium close?
5a8c802dfd22b3001a8d8956
True
1938–39
337
What season did the Empire Stadium become Wembly Stadium?
5a8c802dfd22b3001a8d8957
True
Due to the outbreak of World War II
258
Why was the Empire Stadium renamed to Wembly Stadium?
5a8c802dfd22b3001a8d8958
True
Following the 1914–15 edition, the competition was suspended due to the First World War, and didn't resume until 1919–20. The 1922–23 competition saw the first final to be played in the newly opened Wembley Stadium (known at the time as the Empire Stadium). Due to the outbreak of World War II, the competition wasn't played between the 1938–39 and 1945–46 editions. Due to the wartime breaks, the competition didn't celebrate its centenary year until 1980–81; fittingly the final featured a goal by Ricky Villa which was later voted the greatest goal ever scored at Wembley Stadium, but has since been replaced by Steven Gerrard.
Is the competition open to anyone?
57273647f1498d1400e8f4aa
The competition is open to any club down to Level 10 of the English football league system
0
False
Is there anyone automatically eligible?
57273647f1498d1400e8f4ab
. All clubs in the top four levels (the Premier League and the three divisions of the Football League) are automatically eligible
127
False
Who else can play?
57273647f1498d1400e8f4ac
Clubs in the next six levels (non-league football) are also eligible provided they have played in either the FA Cup, FA Trophy or FA Vase competitions
258
False
Can new clubs play too?
57273647f1498d1400e8f4ad
Newly formed clubs, such as F.C. United of Manchester in 2005–06 and also 2006–07, may not therefore play in the FA Cup in their first season.
433
False
Do I need a stadium to compete?
57273647f1498d1400e8f4ae
All clubs entering the competition must also have a suitable stadium.
576
False
any club down to Level 10 of the English football league system
27
Who is the competition closed to?
5a8c81c9fd22b3001a8d898e
True
All clubs in the top four levels
129
Who is not automatically eligible?
5a8c81c9fd22b3001a8d898f
True
their first season
556
What season can newly formed clubs start playing in?
5a8c81c9fd22b3001a8d8990
True
a suitable stadium
626
What does a club not need in order to play?
5a8c81c9fd22b3001a8d8991
True
the FA Cup, FA Trophy or FA Vase
363
Which competitions do not make a team eligible if the team has played in them in the previous season?
5a8c81c9fd22b3001a8d8992
True
The competition is open to any club down to Level 10 of the English football league system which meets the eligibility criteria. All clubs in the top four levels (the Premier League and the three divisions of the Football League) are automatically eligible. Clubs in the next six levels (non-league football) are also eligible provided they have played in either the FA Cup, FA Trophy or FA Vase competitions in the previous season. Newly formed clubs, such as F.C. United of Manchester in 2005–06 and also 2006–07, may not therefore play in the FA Cup in their first season. All clubs entering the competition must also have a suitable stadium.
Does anyone ever miss a tournament?
57273b78708984140094db1f
It is very rare for top clubs to miss the competition
0
False
What clubs have missed the competition?
57273b78708984140094db20
Manchester United did not enter the 1999–2000 FA Cup,
126
False
Why did they miss that competition?
57273b78708984140094db21
The club claimed that they did not want to devalue the FA Cup by fielding a weaker side.
418
False
How did people feel about Manchester's decision?
57273b78708984140094db22
drew considerable criticism as this weakened the tournament's prestige
750
False
Did the club later regret their choice?
57273b78708984140094db23
Sir Alex Ferguson later admitted his regret regarding their handling of the situation.
825
False
1999–2000
162
What FA Cup season did Manchester United enter?
5a8c8cd0fd22b3001a8d8a9c
True
Champions League and Premiership
377
What titles did Machester United not want to defend by pulling out of the FA Cup?
5a8c8cd0fd22b3001a8d8a9d
True
18-point
608
By what margin did Manchester United win the Club World Championship?
5a8c8cd0fd22b3001a8d8a9e
True
Sir Alex Ferguson later admitted his regret regarding their handling of the situation
825
Did the club later regret pulling out of the Club World Championship?
5a8c8cd0fd22b3001a8d8a9f
True
overload their fixture schedule and make it more difficult to defend their Champions League and Premiership titles
302
What would entering both tournaments not do?
5a8c8cd0fd22b3001a8d8aa0
True
It is very rare for top clubs to miss the competition, although it can happen in exceptional circumstances. Defending holders Manchester United did not enter the 1999–2000 FA Cup, as they were already in the inaugural Club World Championship, with the club stating that entering both tournaments would overload their fixture schedule and make it more difficult to defend their Champions League and Premiership titles. The club claimed that they did not want to devalue the FA Cup by fielding a weaker side. The move benefited United as they received a two-week break and won the 1999–2000 league title by an 18-point margin, although they did not progress past the group stage of the Club World Championship. The withdrawal from the FA Cup, however, drew considerable criticism as this weakened the tournament's prestige and Sir Alex Ferguson later admitted his regret regarding their handling of the situation.
May Welsh clubs enter the competition?
57273cd8f1498d1400e8f4ec
Welsh sides that play in English leagues are eligible,
0
False
Has a Welsh team ever won a competition?
57273cd8f1498d1400e8f4ed
Cardiff City (the only non-English team to win the tournament, in 1927)
142
False
Have any other countries ever competed?
57273cd8f1498d1400e8f4ee
other teams from Wales, Ireland and Scotland also took part in the competition,
302
False
Why can't those countries compete?
57273cd8f1498d1400e8f4ef
barred from entering by the Scottish Football Association.
480
False
Has any other  country been allowed to enter the competition since?
57273cd8f1498d1400e8f4f0
Channel Island club entered the competition when Guernsey F.C. competed for the first time.
571
False
1927
208
When was the League of Wales created?
5a8c8ee4fd22b3001a8d8ae8
True
Cardiff City
142
What Welsh team has lost a tournament?
5a8c8ee4fd22b3001a8d8ae9
True
Wales, Ireland and Scotland
319
Which countries have never had a team compete?
5a8c8ee4fd22b3001a8d8aea
True
1885
462
What year were teams from Scotland, Wales, and Ireland barred from entering?
5a8c8ee4fd22b3001a8d8aeb
True
2013–14
546
What season did the Channel Island club play for the last time?
5a8c8ee4fd22b3001a8d8aec
True
Welsh sides that play in English leagues are eligible, although since the creation of the League of Wales there are only six clubs remaining: Cardiff City (the only non-English team to win the tournament, in 1927), Swansea City, Newport County, Wrexham, Merthyr Town and Colwyn Bay. In the early years other teams from Wales, Ireland and Scotland also took part in the competition, with Glasgow side Queen's Park losing the final to Blackburn Rovers in 1884 and 1885 before being barred from entering by the Scottish Football Association. In the 2013–14 season the first Channel Island club entered the competition when Guernsey F.C. competed for the first time.
Has the number of entrants stayed the same?
57274f575951b619008f8809
The number of entrants has increased greatly in recent years
0
False
How many clubs entered in 2004-05?
57274f575951b619008f880a
660 clubs entered the competition
85
False
How many clubs entered in 2005-06?
57274f575951b619008f880b
674
214
False
How many clubs entered in 2006-07?
57274f575951b619008f880c
687
242
False
How many clubs entered in 2007-08?
57274f575951b619008f880d
731
261
False
greatly
37
How much has the number of entrants decreased in recent years?
5a8c92eafd22b3001a8d8b6a
True
The number of entrants has increased greatly in recent years
0
How has the number of entrants changed in the League Cup?
5a8c92eafd22b3001a8d8b6b
True
The number has varied slightly but remained roughly stable since
333
How has the amount of members in the Premier League and Football League changed?
5a8c92eafd22b3001a8d8b6c
True
2004–05
69
In what season did the League Cup beat its long standing record?
5a8c92eafd22b3001a8d8b6d
True
The number of entrants has increased greatly in recent years. In the 2004–05 season, 660 clubs entered the competition, beating the long-standing record of 656 from the 1921–22 season. In 2005–06 this increased to 674 entrants, in 2006–07 to 687, in 2007–08 to 731 clubs, and for the 2008–09 and 2009–10 competitions it reached 762. The number has varied slightly but remained roughly stable since then, with 759 clubs participating in 2010–11, a record 763 in 2011–12, 758 for 2012–13, 737 for 2013–14 and 736 for 2014–15. By comparison, the other major English domestic cup, the League Cup, involves only the 92 members of the Premier League and Football League.
When is the final?
57275002dd62a815002e9adc
May
146
False
When do clubs above 9 enter?
57275002dd62a815002e9add
clubs above Level 9 and 10 enter the competition at later stages
176
False
Is there seeding?
57275002dd62a815002e9ade
There is no seeding,
242
False
What happens in the event of a tie?
57275002dd62a815002e9adf
fixtures ending in a tie are replayed once only
351
False
What are the first 6 rounds?
57275002dd62a815002e9ae0
The first six rounds are qualifiers
400
False
May
146
What month is the semi-final in?
5a8c95adfd22b3001a8d8b90
True
A system of byes
151
What ensures that clubs below Level 9 and 10 enter the competition at later stages?
5a8c95adfd22b3001a8d8b91
True
clubs above Level 9 and 10
176
What enters the competition in early stages?
5a8c95adfd22b3001a8d8b92
True
the fixtures in each round
263
What is not determined by a random draw?
5a8c95adfd22b3001a8d8b93
True
fixtures ending in a tie are replayed once only
351
What happens when there is a tie after the semi-finals?
5a8c95adfd22b3001a8d8b94
True
Beginning in August, the competition proceeds as a knockout tournament throughout, consisting of twelve rounds, a semi-final and then a final, in May. A system of byes ensures clubs above Level 9 and 10 enter the competition at later stages. There is no seeding, the fixtures in each round being determined by a random draw. Prior to the semi-finals, fixtures ending in a tie are replayed once only. The first six rounds are qualifiers, with the draws organised on a regional basis. The next six rounds are the "proper" rounds where all clubs are in one draw.
When does the final take place?
5727512f5951b619008f8835
The final is normally held the Saturday after the Premier League season finishes in May.
0
False
Was there a time this was not the case?
5727512f5951b619008f8836
in recent times when this pattern was not followed were 1999–2000
106
False
Why was that?
5727512f5951b619008f8837
most rounds were played a few weeks earlier than normal as an experiment
178
False
Did that ever happen again?
5727512f5951b619008f8838
2010–11 and 2012–13
256
False
What happened during those years?
5727512f5951b619008f8839
the FA Cup Final was played before the Premier League season had finished, to allow Wembley Stadium to be ready for the UEFA Champions League final
281
False
the Saturday after the Premier League season finishes in May
27
When does the final never take place?
5a8c972afd22b3001a8d8ba4
True
the Saturday after the Premier League season finishes in May
27
When is the UEFA Champions League normally held?
5a8c972afd22b3001a8d8ba5
True
1999–2000
162
In what season was the UEFA Champions League not held on the normal day?
5a8c972afd22b3001a8d8ba6
True
2011–12
444
When was the final played early so that England could prepare for the UEFA Champions League?
5a8c972afd22b3001a8d8ba7
True
1999–2000
162
What season were the European Championships played early as an experiment?
5a8c972afd22b3001a8d8ba8
True
The final is normally held the Saturday after the Premier League season finishes in May. The only seasons in recent times when this pattern was not followed were 1999–2000, when most rounds were played a few weeks earlier than normal as an experiment, and 2010–11 and 2012–13 when the FA Cup Final was played before the Premier League season had finished, to allow Wembley Stadium to be ready for the UEFA Champions League final, as well as in 2011–12 to allow England time to prepare for that summer's European Championships.
Do clubs replay each other?
5727597d708984140094dc79
Until the 1990s further replays would be played until one team was victorious.
0
False
What is the most games played a team to reach the final?
5727597d708984140094dc7a
12 games over six rounds, which remains the most games played by a team to reach a final
177
False
When are replays played?
5727597d708984140094dc7b
. Replays were traditionally played three or four days after the original game, but from 1991–92 they were staged at least 10 days later on police advice.
265
False
When was the first penalty kick?
5727597d708984140094dc7c
penalty shoot-outs being introduced, the first of which came on 26 November 1991
432
False
What clubs were playing during the first penalty?
5727597d708984140094dc7d
Rotherham United eliminated Scunthorpe United.
518
False
12
177
What is the least amount of games played by a team to reach a final?
5a8c9999fd22b3001a8d8bb8
True
26 November 1991
496
When did Scunthorpe United eliminate Rotherham United?
5a8c9999fd22b3001a8d8bb9
True
26 November 1991
496
When was the last penalty shoot-out?
5a8c9999fd22b3001a8d8bba
True
on police advice
402
Why were replays traditionally played three or four days after the original game?
5a8c9999fd22b3001a8d8bbb
True
until one team was victorious
48
How much did clubs replay each other after the 1990s?
5a8c9999fd22b3001a8d8bbc
True
Until the 1990s further replays would be played until one team was victorious. Some ties took as many as six matches to settle; in their 1975 campaign, Fulham played a total of 12 games over six rounds, which remains the most games played by a team to reach a final. Replays were traditionally played three or four days after the original game, but from 1991–92 they were staged at least 10 days later on police advice. This led to penalty shoot-outs being introduced, the first of which came on 26 November 1991 when Rotherham United eliminated Scunthorpe United.
Do the FA Cup winners qualify for anything?
572782d45951b619008f8bb7
The FA Cup winners qualify for the following season's UEFA Europa League
0
False
Did that used to have a different name?
572782d45951b619008f8bb8
formerly named the UEFA Cup; until 1998
74
False
What is the cup called now?
572782d45951b619008f8bb9
Cup Winners' Cup
131
False
Does the loser of the cup gain anything?
572782d45951b619008f8bba
the losing FA Cup finalist was given the Europa League place
405
False
what about the FA Cup winner?
572782d45951b619008f8bbb
FA Cup winners enter the Europa League at the group stage.
475
False
the following season's UEFA Europa League
31
What do FA Cup losers qualify for?
5a8c9b1bfd22b3001a8d8bc2
True
The FA Cup
0
What do UEFA Europa League winners qualify for?
5a8c9b1bfd22b3001a8d8bc3
True
the UEFA Cup
89
What was the FA Cup's former name?
5a8c9b1bfd22b3001a8d8bc4
True
at the group stage
514
When do FA Cup winners exit the Europa League?
5a8c9b1bfd22b3001a8d8bc5
True
2015–16
660
In what season did UEFA allow runners-up to qualify for the Europa League?
5a8c9b1bfd22b3001a8d8bc6
True
The FA Cup winners qualify for the following season's UEFA Europa League (formerly named the UEFA Cup; until 1998 they entered the Cup Winners' Cup instead). This European place applies even if the team is relegated or is not in the English top flight. In the past, if the FA Cup winning team also qualified for the following season's Champions League or Europa League through their league position, then the losing FA Cup finalist was given the Europa League place instead. FA Cup winners enter the Europa League at the group stage. Losing finalists, if they entered the Europa League, began earlier, at the play-off or third qualifying round stage. From the 2015–16 UEFA Europa League season, however, UEFA will not allow the runners-up to qualify for the Europa League through the competition.
Where are the semi finals played?
572783c7f1498d1400e8fa60
e semi-finals have been played exclusively at the rebuilt Wembley Stadium
2
False
Is there a name for the specific venue?
572783c7f1498d1400e8fa61
Kennington Oval was used as the semi-final venue
209
False
Where did the semi finals take place before then?
572783c7f1498d1400e8fa62
semi-finals were played at high-capacity neutral venues around England
329
False
What was the top most used venue?
572783c7f1498d1400e8fa63
Villa Park in Birmingham (55 times)
598
False
Where was the cup held in 2005?
572783c7f1498d1400e8fa64
In 2005, both were held at the Millennium Stadium.
883
False
Wembley Stadium
60
Where are the semi-finals never played?
5a8c9c73fd22b3001a8d8bd6
True
the first
168
In which decade was The Kennington Oval not used as a semi-final venue?
5a8c9c73fd22b3001a8d8bd7
True
Villa Park in Birmingham (55 times), Hillsborough in Sheffield (34 times) and Old Trafford in Manchester (23 times)
598
What were the three least used venues?
5a8c9c73fd22b3001a8d8bd8
True
seven
758
How many times was The Kennington Oval used for semi-finals between 1991 and 2000?
5a8c9c73fd22b3001a8d8bd9
True
chosen to be roughly equidistant between the two teams for fairness of travel
468
How were stadiums chosen from 1991 to 2000?
5a8c9c73fd22b3001a8d8bda
True
The semi-finals have been played exclusively at the rebuilt Wembley Stadium since 2008, one year after it opened and after it had already hosted a final (in 2007). For the first decade of the competition, the Kennington Oval was used as the semi-final venue. In the period between this first decade and the reopening of Wembley, semi-finals were played at high-capacity neutral venues around England; usually the home grounds of teams not involved in that semi-final, chosen to be roughly equidistant between the two teams for fairness of travel. The top three most used venues in this period were Villa Park in Birmingham (55 times), Hillsborough in Sheffield (34 times) and Old Trafford in Manchester (23 times). The original Wembley Stadium was also used seven times for semi-final, between 1991 and 2000 (the last held there), but not always for fixtures featuring London teams. In 2005, both were held at the Millennium Stadium.
Where is the FA cup held today?
5727849df1498d1400e8fa86
In 2003 the FA took the decision to permanently use the new Wembley for semi-finals
0
False
Why is it held at Webly Stadium?
5727849df1498d1400e8fa87
to recoup debts in financing the new stadium.
84
False
Do the people of London agree with this action?
5727849df1498d1400e8fa88
the move seen as both unfair to fans of teams located far from London
159
False
Has the game ever fail to sell out?
5727849df1498d1400e8fa89
the 2013 fixture between Millwall and Wigan led to the unprecedented step of placing 6,000 tickets on sale to neutral fans after the game failed to sell out.
385
False
Do people oppose of using the new Webly Stadium?
5727849df1498d1400e8fa8a
86% opposition to Wembley semi-finals.
584
False
to recoup debts in financing the new stadium
84
Why did the FA decide to not use the new Wembley in 2003?
5a8c9db6fd22b3001a8d8be0
True
2003
3
When did the FA decide to stop using Wembley?
5a8c9db6fd22b3001a8d8be1
True
86%
584
What percent of people were in favor of Wembley semi-finals?
5a8c9db6fd22b3001a8d8be2
True
the extra capacity Wembley offers
341
What has the FA not cited as a reason to use Wembley?
5a8c9db6fd22b3001a8d8be3
True
fans of teams located far from London
191
Who was the move seen as fair to?
5a8c9db6fd22b3001a8d8be4
True
In 2003 the FA took the decision to permanently use the new Wembley for semi-finals to recoup debts in financing the new stadium. This was controversial, with the move seen as both unfair to fans of teams located far from London, as well as taking some of the prestige away from a Wembley final. In defending the move, the FA has also cited the extra capacity Wembley offers, although the 2013 fixture between Millwall and Wigan led to the unprecedented step of placing 6,000 tickets on sale to neutral fans after the game failed to sell out. A fan poll by The Guardian in 2013 found 86% opposition to Wembley semi-finals.
Where is the final played now?
5727855e5951b619008f8c31
The final has been played at the rebuilt Wembley Stadium
0
False
When did this stadium open?
5727855e5951b619008f8c32
it opened, in 2007.
63
False
Where was the FA cup held while this stadium was built?
5727855e5951b619008f8c33
between 2001 and 2006 they were hosted at the Millennium Stadium
117
False
Where is Millennium Stadium located?
5727855e5951b619008f8c34
Cardiff in Wales
185
False
Was it always held in Millennium Stadium?
5727855e5951b619008f8c35
Prior to rebuilding, the final was hosted by the original Wembley Stadium
203
False
Wembley Stadium
41
Where has the final never been played after 2007?
5a8c9f9afd22b3001a8d8bf4
True
2007
77
When did Millennium Stadium open?
5a8c9f9afd22b3001a8d8bf5
True
in Cardiff in Wales
182
Where is Wembley Stadium located?
5a8c9f9afd22b3001a8d8bf6
True
1923
296
When did Old Trafford open?
5a8c9f9afd22b3001a8d8bf7
True
the Empire Stadium
325
What was the Millennium Stadium originally named?
5a8c9f9afd22b3001a8d8bf8
True
The final has been played at the rebuilt Wembley Stadium since it opened, in 2007. The rebuilding process meant that between 2001 and 2006 they were hosted at the Millennium Stadium in Cardiff in Wales. Prior to rebuilding, the final was hosted by the original Wembley Stadium since it opened in 1923 (being originally named the Empire Stadium). One exception to this 78 year series of Empire Stadium finals (including five replays) was the 1970 replay between Leeds and Chelsea, held at Old Trafford in Manchester.
Where do the majority of FA cup finals take place?
5727862f5951b619008f8c4f
predominantly in London, and mainly at the Kennington Oval and then Crystal Palace.
121
False
How many times was the FA cup playing in the Oval ?
5727862f5951b619008f8c50
. It was played 22 times in the Oval
203
False
What was the first year the Oval hosted the FA cup?
5727862f5951b619008f8c51
1872
270
False
How many times has Crystal Palce hosted the FA cup?
5727862f5951b619008f8c52
21
354
False
How many replays took place at the Oval?
5727862f5951b619008f8c53
8 replays
74
False
predominantly in London, and mainly at the Kennington Oval and then Crystal Palace
121
Where do the least amount of FA cup finals take place?
5a8ca135fd22b3001a8d8c30
True
22 times
219
How many times was the FA cup not played in the Oval?
5a8ca135fd22b3001a8d8c31
True
22
219
How many times was the FA cup final played outside of London?
5a8ca135fd22b3001a8d8c32
True
1895 to 1914
369
In what time period was the FA cup final played outside of London?
5a8ca135fd22b3001a8d8c33
True
the Kennington Oval
160
Where was the final played after the Empire Stadium opening?
5a8ca135fd22b3001a8d8c34
True
In the 51 years prior to the Empire Stadium opening, the final (including 8 replays) was held in a variety of locations, predominantly in London, and mainly at the Kennington Oval and then Crystal Palace. It was played 22 times in the Oval (the inaugural competition in 1872, and then all but two times until 1892). After the Oval, Crystal Palace hosted 21 finals from 1895 to 1914, broken up by 4 four replays elsewhere. The other London venues were Stamford Bridge from 1920 to 1922 (the last three finals before the move to Empire Stadium); and Oxford University's Lillie Bridge in Fulham for the second ever final, in 1873. The other venues used sparingly in this period were all outside of London, as follows:
Is the use of artificial turf allowed?
57278730f1498d1400e8fae8
The FA permitted artificial turf (3G) pitches in all rounds of the competition from the 2014–15 edition and beyond.
0
False
What is the required quality of the pitch?
57278730f1498d1400e8fae9
the pitch must be of FIFA One Star quality, or Two Star for ties if they involve one of the 92 professional clubs.
141
False
How many professional clubs are there?
57278730f1498d1400e8faea
92
233
False
What happens if the pitch is not up to par?
57278730f1498d1400e8faeb
they had to switch their tie to the ground of another eligible entrant with a natural grass pitch.
410
False
Where was the first #G surface game played?
57278730f1498d1400e8faec
first match in the proper rounds to be played on a 3G surface was a televised first round replay at Maidstone United's Gallagher Stadium on 20 November 2015.
559
False
2014–15
88
What season did the FA ban artificial turf?
5a8ca265fd22b3001a8d8c58
True
Two Star
188
What was the required quality of the pitch before 2015-16?
5a8ca265fd22b3001a8d8c59
True
20 November 2015
699
When was the last match with a 3G surface televised?
5a8ca265fd22b3001a8d8c5a
True
Gallagher Stadium
678
Where was the last match with a 3G surface played?
5a8ca265fd22b3001a8d8c5b
True
they had to switch their tie to the ground of another eligible entrant with a natural grass pitch
410
What happens if a team with a 3G pitch does not progress to the competition proper?
5a8ca265fd22b3001a8d8c5c
True
The FA permitted artificial turf (3G) pitches in all rounds of the competition from the 2014–15 edition and beyond. Under the 2015-16 rules, the pitch must be of FIFA One Star quality, or Two Star for ties if they involve one of the 92 professional clubs. This followed approval two years previously for their use in the qualifying rounds only - if a team with a 3G pitch progressed to the competition proper, they had to switch their tie to the ground of another eligible entrant with a natural grass pitch. Having been strong proponents of the surface, the first match in the proper rounds to be played on a 3G surface was a televised first round replay at Maidstone United's Gallagher Stadium on 20 November 2015.
How many parts does the trophy come in?
57278a24708984140094e04d
The trophy comes in three parts
0
False
What is the  parts of the trophy?
57278a24708984140094e04e
- the cup itself, plus a lid and a base
32
False
How many trophy designs have there bee?
57278a24708984140094e04f
There have been two designs of trophy in use
73
False
How many physical trophies have been presented?
57278a24708984140094e050
five physical trophies have been presented
123
False
When was the first design changed?
57278a24708984140094e051
. The FA decided to change the design after the 1909 winners, Manchester United, made their own replica,
369
False
1895
287
When was the original trophy created?
5a8ca3bcfd22b3001a8d8c8a
True
the "little tin idol"
197
What was the new, larger design known as?
5a8ca3bcfd22b3001a8d8c8b
True
Messers Fattorini and Sons
563
Who designed the third replica?
5a8ca3bcfd22b3001a8d8c8c
True
18 inches high
224
How tall was the third replica?
5a8ca3bcfd22b3001a8d8c8d
True
2014
869
When was the third replica last used?
5a8ca3bcfd22b3001a8d8c8e
True
The trophy comes in three parts - the cup itself, plus a lid and a base. There have been two designs of trophy in use, but five physical trophies have been presented. The original trophy, known as the "little tin idol", was 18 inches high and made by Martin, Hall & Co. It was stolen in 1895 and never recovered, and so was replaced by an exact replica, used until 1910. The FA decided to change the design after the 1909 winners, Manchester United, made their own replica, leading the FA to realise they did not own the copyright. This new, larger design was by Messers Fattorini and Sons, and was used from 1911. In order to preserve this original, from 1992 it was replaced by an exact replica, although this had to be replaced after just over two decades, after showing wear and tear from being handled more than in previous eras. This third replica, first used in 2014, was built heavier to withstand the increased handling. Of the four surviving trophies, only the 1895 replica has entered private ownership.
Is the cup engraved for the winner?
57278af2dd62a815002e9fcc
The name of the winning team is engraved on the silver band around the base
0
False
When does the engraving take place?
57278af2dd62a815002e9fcd
as soon as the final has finished, in order to be ready in time for the presentation ceremony.
76
False
how long does the engraved have from start to finish?
57278af2dd62a815002e9fce
the engraver has just five minutes to perform a task which would take twenty under normal conditions,
182
False
Is the trophy decorated?
57278af2dd62a815002e9fcf
the trophy wears is decorated with ribbons in the colours of both finalists, with the loser's ribbons being removed at the end of the game.
403
False
Where is he cup presentation made?
57278af2dd62a815002e9fd0
, the presentation is made at the Royal Box
575
False
on the silver band around the base
41
Where is the name of the losing team engraved?
5a8ca5d5fd22b3001a8d8cb2
True
twenty
252
How many minutes does the engraver have to perform a task that would take five minutes under normal conditions?
5a8ca5d5fd22b3001a8d8cb3
True
at the end of the game
519
When are the winner's ribbons removed?
5a8ca5d5fd22b3001a8d8cb4
True
the Royal Box
605
Where is the cup presentation never made?
5a8ca5d5fd22b3001a8d8cb5
True
a gangway
678
What is behind the Royal Box?
5a8ca5d5fd22b3001a8d8cb6
True
The name of the winning team is engraved on the silver band around the base as soon as the final has finished, in order to be ready in time for the presentation ceremony. This means the engraver has just five minutes to perform a task which would take twenty under normal conditions, although time is saved by engraving the year on during the match, and sketching the presumed winner. During the final, the trophy wears is decorated with ribbons in the colours of both finalists, with the loser's ribbons being removed at the end of the game. Traditionally, at Wembley finals, the presentation is made at the Royal Box, with players, led by the captain, mounting a staircase to a gangway in front of the box and returning by a second staircase on the other side of the box. At Cardiff the presentation was made on a podium on the pitch.
When did people start presenting the trophy after the game?
57278c17708984140094e071
The tradition of presenting the trophy immediately after the game did not start until the 1882 final
0
False
when was the first trophy presented?
57278c17708984140094e072
the trophy was not presented to the winners, Wanderers, until a reception held four weeks later
132
False
Where was the first trophy presented?
57278c17708984140094e073
the Pall Mall Restaurant in London
231
False
What happens to multiple cup winners?
57278c17708984140094e074
the trophy was to be permanently presented to any club which won the competition three times,
293
False
Did that ever happen?
57278c17708984140094e075
inaugural winners Wanderers achieved this feat by the 1876 final
401
False
1882
90
When did the tradition of presenting the trophy right after the game stop?
5a8ca6fffd22b3001a8d8cc6
True
the Pall Mall Restaurant in London
231
Where was the last trophy presented?
5a8ca6fffd22b3001a8d8cc7
True
the trophy was to be permanently presented
293
What was supposed to happen to a club that lost the competition three times?
5a8ca6fffd22b3001a8d8cc8
True
Wanderers
419
Who lost the 1876 final?
5a8ca6fffd22b3001a8d8cc9
True
CW Alcock
506
Who was the captain of Wanderers during their first loss?
5a8ca6fffd22b3001a8d8cca
True
The tradition of presenting the trophy immediately after the game did not start until the 1882 final; after the first final in 1872 the trophy was not presented to the winners, Wanderers, until a reception held four weeks later in the Pall Mall Restaurant in London. Under the original rules, the trophy was to be permanently presented to any club which won the competition three times, although when inaugural winners Wanderers achieved this feat by the 1876 final, the rules were changed by FA Secretary CW Alcock (who was also captain of Wanderers in their first victory).
How claims to have stolen the FA cup?
57278d03dd62a815002ea030
80 year old career criminal Henry (Harry) James Burge claimed to have committed the theft
23
False
Did he act alone?
57278d03dd62a815002ea031
He claimed to have carried out the robbery with two other men
227
False
How long go did this crime take place?
57278d03dd62a815002ea032
60 years
7
False
What did Burge do with the cup?
57278d03dd62a815002ea033
the cup had been melted down to make counterfeit half-crown coins
596
False
What did they do with those coins?
57278d03dd62a815002ea034
stolen silver was being used to forge coins which were then laundered through betting shops at a local racecourse
718
False
Henry (Harry) James Burge
51
Who returned the FA cup?
5a8ca838fd22b3001a8d8cda
True
23 February 1958
209
When did Henry James Burge commit the theft?
5a8ca838fd22b3001a8d8cdb
True
23 February 1958
209
When did the Birmingham Post publish its report?
5a8ca838fd22b3001a8d8cdc
True
his account of the means of entry and other items stolen
429
What made detectives decide there was a possibility of conviction?
5a8ca838fd22b3001a8d8cdd
True
forgery
871
What crime did Burge commit that he spent 42 years in prison for?
5a8ca838fd22b3001a8d8cde
True
Almost 60 years later, 80 year old career criminal Henry (Harry) James Burge claimed to have committed the theft, confessing to a newspaper, with the story being published in the Sunday Pictorial newspaper on 23 February 1958. He claimed to have carried out the robbery with two other men, although when discrepancies with a contemporaneous report in the Birmingham Post newspaper (the crime pre-dated written police reports) in his account of the means of entry and other items stolen, detectives decided there was no realistic possibility of a conviction and the case was closed. Burge claimed the cup had been melted down to make counterfeit half-crown coins, which matched known intelligence of the time, in which stolen silver was being used to forge coins which were then laundered through betting shops at a local racecourse, although Burge had no past history of forgery in a record of 42 previous convictions for which he had spent 42 years in prison. He had been further imprisoned in 1957 for seven years for theft from cars. Released in 1961, he died in 1964.
Who was the long-serving president of the FA cup?
57278df3f1498d1400e8fbe2
Lord Kinnaird
121
False
What year did Lord Kinnard die?
57278df3f1498d1400e8fbe3
Lord Kinnaird. Kinnaird died in 1923,
121
False
Was the cup lost during that time?
57278df3f1498d1400e8fbe4
his family kept it in their possession, out of view, until putting it up for auction in 2005
163
False
Where did it sell?
57278df3f1498d1400e8fbe5
Christie's auction house on 19 May 2005 for £420,000 (£478,400 including auction fees and taxes)
277
False
Who won the bid?
57278df3f1498d1400e8fbe6
David Gold
551
False
Lord Kinnaird
121
Who owned the 1895 replica before it was obsolete?
5a8ca9bffd22b3001a8d8cee
True
David Gold
551
Who was an unsuccessful bidder?
5a8ca9bffd22b3001a8d8cef
True
Christie's auction house
277
Where was the FA cup never auctioned?
5a8ca9bffd22b3001a8d8cf0
True
the National Football Museum
832
Where was the Jules Rimet World Cup Trophy publicly displayed?
5a8ca9bffd22b3001a8d8cf1
True
2006
884
What year did the FA cup get moved to Manchester?
5a8ca9bffd22b3001a8d8cf2
True
After being rendered obsolete by the redesign, the 1895 replica was presented in 1910 to the FA's long-serving president Lord Kinnaird. Kinnaird died in 1923, and his family kept it in their possession, out of view, until putting it up for auction in 2005. It was duly sold at Christie's auction house on 19 May 2005 for £420,000 (£478,400 including auction fees and taxes). The sale price set a new world record for a piece of football memorabilia, surpassing the £254,000 paid for the Jules Rimet World Cup Trophy in 1997. The successful bidder was David Gold, the then joint chairman of Birmingham City; claiming the FA and government were doing nothing proactive to ensure the trophy remained in the country, Gold stated his purchase was motivated by wanting to save it for the nation. Accordingly, Gold presented the trophy to the National Football Museum in Preston on 20 April 2006, where it went on immediate public display. It later moved with the museum to its new location in Manchester. In November 2012, it was ceremonially presented to Royal Engineers, after they beat Wanderers 7–1 in a charity replay of the first FA Cup final.
is the Fa cup sponsered?
57278e8f708984140094e0c5
Since the start of the 1994–95 season, the FA Cup has been sponsored.
0
False
How long does the sponsor remain?
57278e8f708984140094e0c6
Sponsorship deals run for four years
315
False
Can they extend their deal?
57278e8f708984140094e0c7
one-year extensions may be agreed
387
False
Who is the current sponsor?
57278e8f708984140094e0c8
Emirates airline is the sponsor from 2015 to 2018
422
False
What is the competition called now?
57278e8f708984140094e0c9
The Emirates FA Cup
502
False
Emirates airline
422
Who was the sponsor from 1994-95?
5a8cbf6bfd22b3001a8d8df0
True
The FA Cup
163
In what competition is the sponsor's name not in the title?
5a8cbf6bfd22b3001a8d8df1
True
Budweiser
624
What company has not agreed to a one year extension?
5a8cbf6bfd22b3001a8d8df2
True
E.ON
597
What is not the sponsor from 2015 to 2018?
5a8cbf6bfd22b3001a8d8df3
True
Emirates airline
422
What company has sponsored the League Cup?
5a8cbf6bfd22b3001a8d8df4
True
Since the start of the 1994–95 season, the FA Cup has been sponsored. However, to protect the identity of the competition, the sponsored name has always included 'The FA Cup' in addition to the sponsor's name, unlike sponsorship deals for the League Cup where the word 'cup' is preceded by only the sponsor's name. Sponsorship deals run for four years, though – as in the case of E.ON – one-year extensions may be agreed. Emirates airline is the sponsor from 2015 to 2018, renaming the competition as 'The Emirates FA Cup', unlike previous editions, which included 'The FA Cup in association with E.ON' and 'The FA Cup with Budweiser'.
Do people look forward to Cinderella matches?
57278f77f1498d1400e8fc1c
where lower ranked teams beat higher placed opposition, known as "giant killings", is much anticipated by the public
80
False
What do people think about giant killers?
57278f77f1498d1400e8fc1d
is considered an integral part of the tradition and prestige of the competition
202
False
Does giant killing happen often?
57278f77f1498d1400e8fc1e
Almost every club in the League Pyramid has a fondly remembered giant-killing act in its history
339
False
Does the media showcase giant killers?
57278f77f1498d1400e8fc1f
. It is considered particularly newsworthy when a top Premier League team suffers an upset defeat, or where the giant-killer is a non-league club
435
False
What is a giant killer?
57278f77f1498d1400e8fc20
unlikely victories in the earlier rounds of the competition, where lower ranked teams beat higher placed opposition
19
False
"giant killings"
145
What is it called when a higher ranked team beats a lower ranked team?
5a8cc184fd22b3001a8d8e0e
True
The possibility of unlikely victories in the earlier rounds of the competition
0
What is not considered an important part of the tradition?
5a8cc184fd22b3001a8d8e0f
True
when a top Premier League team suffers an upset defeat
478
What is not considered newsworthy?
5a8cc184fd22b3001a8d8e10
True
giant-killing act in its history
403
What does no club in the League Pyramid remember fondly?
5a8cc184fd22b3001a8d8e11
True
The possibility of unlikely victories in the earlier rounds of the competition, where lower ranked teams beat higher placed opposition, known as "giant killings", is much anticipated by the public, and is considered an integral part of the tradition and prestige of the competition, alongside that gained by teams winning the competition. Almost every club in the League Pyramid has a fondly remembered giant-killing act in its history. It is considered particularly newsworthy when a top Premier League team suffers an upset defeat, or where the giant-killer is a non-league club, i.e. from outside the professional levels of The Football League.
When was the football league founded?
5727907c708984140094e103
The Football League was founded in 1888
0
False
Who is the only non league giant killer to win a cup?
5727907c708984140094e104
Tottenham Hotspur is the only non-league "giant-killer" to win the Cup
129
False
What year did they win the cup?
5727907c708984140094e105
1901
212
False
Who did they delete for the cup?
5727907c708984140094e106
Sheffield United
271
False
How many clubs where in the football league?
5727907c708984140094e107
36 clubs in the Football League
346
False
The Football League
0
What was founded 16 years before the first FA Cup competition?
5a8cc4e3fd22b3001a8d8e2a
True
Tottenham Hotspur
129
Who won the FA Cup in 1888?
5a8cc4e3fd22b3001a8d8e2b
True
36
346
How many clubs were in the Football League in 1920?
5a8cc4e3fd22b3001a8d8e2c
True
Sheffield Wednesday
720
Which club has never reached the final?
5a8cc4e3fd22b3001a8d8e2d
True
two
624
How many non-League clubs have not reached the final since the founding of the league?
5a8cc4e3fd22b3001a8d8e2e
True
The Football League was founded in 1888, 16 years after the first FA Cup competition. Since the creation of The Football League, Tottenham Hotspur is the only non-league "giant-killer" to win the Cup, taking the 1901 FA Cup with a victory over reigning league runners-up Sheffield United: although at that time, there were only two divisions and 36 clubs in the Football League, and Spurs were champions of the next lowest football tier - the Southern League and probably already good enough for the First Division (as was shown when they joined the Second Division in 1908 and immediately won promotion to the First.) Only two other actual non-League clubs have even reached the final since the founding of the League: Sheffield Wednesday in 1890 (champions of the Football Alliance, a rival league which was already effectively the Second Division, which it formally became in 1892 – Wednesday being let straight into the First Division), and Southampton in 1900 and 1902 (in which years they were also Southern League champions, proving the strength of that league: again, they were probably of equivalent standard to a First Division club at the time, but Southampton's form subsequently faded and they did not join the League till 1920 and the formation of the Third Division.)
Who is the lowest rank to play in the  third round proper?
57279147f1498d1400e8fc52
Chasetown
0
False
What level where they?
57279147f1498d1400e8fc53
playing at Level 8 of English football
18
False
How many teams competed that year?
57279147f1498d1400e8fc54
731 teams entered that season
164
False
What place did Chasetown come in?
57279147f1498d1400e8fc55
final 64
151
False
What FA cup season did this take place in?
57279147f1498d1400e8fc56
2007–08 competition
68
False
Chasetown
0
What is the highest rank to play in the third round proper?
5a8cc5d5fd22b3001a8d8e3e
True
731
164
How many teams chose not to compete that season?
5a8cc5d5fd22b3001a8d8e3f
True
Cardiff City
384
What team did Chasetown win against?
5a8cc5d5fd22b3001a8d8e40
True
Cardiff City
384
Who won the FA Cup that year?
5a8cc5d5fd22b3001a8d8e41
True
over £60,000
484
How much prize money did Cardiff City win?
5a8cc5d5fd22b3001a8d8e42
True
Chasetown, whilst playing at Level 8 of English football during the 2007–08 competition, are the lowest-ranked team to play in the Third Round Proper (final 64, of 731 teams entered that season). Chasetown was then a member of the Southern League Division One Midlands (a lower level within the Southern Football League), when they lost to Football League Championship (Level 2) team Cardiff City, the eventual FA Cup runners-up that year. Their success earned the lowly organisation over £60,000 in prize money.
How many clubs have won the fa cup as part of a league cup double?
57279202dd62a815002ea0b2
Seven clubs have won the FA Cup as part of a League and Cup double
0
False
Who was the first clubs have won the fa cup as part of a league cup double?
57279202dd62a815002ea0b3
Preston North End (1889)
75
False
Who was the latest clubs have won the fa cup as part of a league cup double?
57279202dd62a815002ea0b4
Chelsea (2010)
234
False
Has any club won both in a same season?
57279202dd62a815002ea0b5
Arsenal became the first side to win both the FA Cup and the League Cup in the same season
259
False
Seven
0
How many clubs have lost the FA Cup?
5a8cc7d9fd22b3001a8d8e52
True
Preston North End
75
What club has never won the FA Cup as part of a League and Cup double?
5a8cc7d9fd22b3001a8d8e53
True
Chelsea
429
Who lost to Arsenal in 1993?
5a8cc7d9fd22b3001a8d8e54
True
Liverpool
744
Who has never completed a cup treble?
5a8cc7d9fd22b3001a8d8e55
True
Liverpool (in 2001) and Chelsea (in 2007)
405
What clubs weren't able to repeat Arsenal's feat?
5a8cc7d9fd22b3001a8d8e56
True
Seven clubs have won the FA Cup as part of a League and Cup double, namely Preston North End (1889), Aston Villa (1897), Tottenham Hotspur (1961), Arsenal (1971, 1998, 2002), Liverpool (1986), Manchester United (1994, 1996, 1999) and Chelsea (2010). In 1993, Arsenal became the first side to win both the FA Cup and the League Cup in the same season when they beat Sheffield Wednesday 2–1 in both finals. Liverpool (in 2001) and Chelsea (in 2007) have since repeated this feat. In 2012, Chelsea accomplished a different cup double consisting of the FA Cup and the 2012 Champions League. In 1998–99, Manchester United added the 1999 Champions League title to their league and cup double to complete a unique Treble. Two years later, in 2000–01, Liverpool won the FA Cup, League Cup and UEFA Cup to complete a cup treble. An English Treble has never been achieved.
Has the final been played by a two clubs outside of the top divisions?
572792fdf1498d1400e8fc96
The final has never been contested by two teams from outside the top division
0
False
Has the final been won by a club outside of the top divisions?
572792fdf1498d1400e8fc97
there have only been eight winners who weren't in the top flight
82
False
Who was the first outside club to win?
572792fdf1498d1400e8fc98
Notts County
148
False
What year did that take place?
572792fdf1498d1400e8fc99
1894
162
False
How many second tier have made the finals?
572792fdf1498d1400e8fc9a
only 24 finalists have come from outside English football's top tier
640
False
eight
103
How many winners have been in the top flight?
5a8ccb6cfd22b3001a8d8e84
True
Notts County
148
What team has never won the final?
5a8ccb6cfd22b3001a8d8e85
True
24
645
How many finalists have come from inside English football's top tier?
5a8ccb6cfd22b3001a8d8e86
True
1894
162
What year did the first inside club win?
5a8ccb6cfd22b3001a8d8e87
True
Southampton
799
What was the last finalist from inside the top two tiers?
5a8ccb6cfd22b3001a8d8e88
True
The final has never been contested by two teams from outside the top division and there have only been eight winners who weren't in the top flight: Notts County (1894); Tottenham Hotspur (1901); Wolverhampton Wanderers (1908); Barnsley (1912); West Bromwich Albion (1931); Sunderland (1973), Southampton (1976) and West Ham United (1980). With the exception of Tottenham, these clubs were all playing in the second tier (the old Second Division) - Tottenham were playing in the Southern League and were only elected to the Football League in 1908, meaning they are the only non-league winners of the FA Cup. Other than Tottenham's victory, only 24 finalists have come from outside English football's top tier, with a record of 7 wins and 17 runners-up: and none at all from the third tier or lower, Southampton (1902) being the last finalist from outside the top two tiers.
Who used to brodcast the matches on the radio?
572793995951b619008f8df7
the BBC
31
False
What was the first Fa cup radio broadcast?
572793995951b619008f8df8
The first FA Cup Final on Radio was in 1926
196
False
What clubs competed in the match?
572793995951b619008f8df9
Bolton Wanderers and Manchester City
248
False
Wa the game broadcast in both cities?
572793995951b619008f8dfa
this was only broadcast in Manchester
289
False
So when was the firs national broadcast?
572793995951b619008f8dfb
the first national final on BBC Radio was between Arsenal and Cardiff in 1927
328
False
the BBC
31
Who never broadcasted the FA Cup?
5a8cccd9fd22b3001a8d8e98
True
1926
235
When was the last FA Cup Final broadcast on radio?
5a8cccd9fd22b3001a8d8e99
True
Manchester
316
What city was the first FA Cup Final on Radio not broadcast in?
5a8cccd9fd22b3001a8d8e9a
True
9 a.m
950
What was the latest time that TV networks started covering the game?
5a8cccd9fd22b3001a8d8e9b
True
two hours
1124
How long does coverage continue after kick off?
5a8cccd9fd22b3001a8d8e9c
True
In the early years of coverage the BBC had exclusive radio coverage with a picture of the pitch marked in the Radio Times with numbered squares to help the listener follow the match on the radio. The first FA Cup Final on Radio was in 1926 between Bolton Wanderers and Manchester City but this was only broadcast in Manchester, the first national final on BBC Radio was between Arsenal and Cardiff in 1927. The first final on BBC Television was in 1937 in a match which featured Sunderland and Preston North End but this was not televised in full. The following season's final between Preston and Huddersfield was covered in full by the BBC. When ITV was formed in 1955 they shared final coverage with the BBC in one of the only club matches shown live on television, during the 1970s and 1980s coverage became more elaborate with BBC and ITV trying to steal viewers from the others by starting coverage earlier and earlier some starting as early as 9 a.m. which was six hours before kick off. Nowadays, this continues with Setanta and ESPN having all-day broadcasts from Wembley, but terrestrial TV coverage usually begins two hours before kick off. The sharing of rights between BBC and ITV continued from 1955 to 1988, when ITV lost coverage to the new Sports Channel which later became Sky Sports.
Who had FA cup coverage from 1988-1997?
572794a8708984140094e173
From 1988 to 1997, the BBC and Sky Sports had coverage of the FA Cup
0
False
How are the games broadcast now?
572794a8708984140094e174
, FA Cup matches are shown live by ITV across England and Wales, with UTV broadcasting to Northern Ireland
471
False
Does anyone refuse to show them?
572794a8708984140094e175
STV refusing to show them
582
False
Has a woman ever broadcast a match?
572794a8708984140094e176
Rebecca Lowe became the first woman to host the FA Cup Final in the UK.
1644
False
What year did rebecca host the match?
572794a8708984140094e177
for the 2010–11 to 2012–13 season
1589
False
the BBC
19
What network has never covered the FA Cup?
5a8cd194fd22b3001a8d8ee8
True
ITV and Sky
193
What networks refused to share live coverage with each other?
5a8cd194fd22b3001a8d8ee9
True
STV
582
What network has never refused to show a match?
5a8cd194fd22b3001a8d8eea
True
Setanta Sports
852
What network only broadcasts outside of Scotland?
5a8cd194fd22b3001a8d8eeb
True
Rebecca Lowe
1644
Who was the last woman to host the FA Cup Final?
5a8cd194fd22b3001a8d8eec
True
From 1988 to 1997, the BBC and Sky Sports had coverage of the FA Cup, the BBC had highlights on Match of the Day and usually one match per round while Sky had the same deal. From 1997 to 2001, ITV and Sky shared live coverage with both having two matches per round and BBC continuing with highlights on Match of the Day. From 2002 to 2008, BBC and Sky again shared coverage with BBC having two or three matches per round and Sky having one or two. From 2008–09 to 2013–14, FA Cup matches are shown live by ITV across England and Wales, with UTV broadcasting to Northern Ireland but STV refusing to show them. ITV shows 16 FA Cup games per season, including the first pick of live matches from each of the first to sixth rounds of the competition, plus one semi-final exclusively live. The final is also shown live on ITV. Under the same 2008 contract, Setanta Sports showed three games and one replay in each round from round three to five, two quarter-finals, one semi-final and the final. The channel also broadcast ITV's matches exclusively to Scotland, after the ITV franchise holder in Scotland, STV, decided not to broadcast FA Cup games. Setanta entered administration in June 2009 and as a result the FA terminated Setanta's deal to broadcast FA-sanctioned competitions and England internationals. As a result of Setanta going out of business ITV showed the competition exclusively in the 2009–10 season with between three and four matches per round, all quarter finals, semi-finals and final live as the FA could not find a pay TV broadcaster in time. ESPN bought the competition for the 2010–11 to 2012–13 season and during this time Rebecca Lowe became the first woman to host the FA Cup Final in the UK.
Who took over the package from Sentana?
5727955bf1498d1400e8fcd0
ESPN took over the package Setanta
188
False
Who show the 2011 final?
5727955bf1498d1400e8fcd1
The 2011 final was also shown live on Sky 3D in addition to ESPN
268
False
Does ESPN still hold the contract?
5727955bf1498d1400e8fcd2
Following the sale of ESPN's UK and Ireland channels to BT, ESPN's rights package transferred to BT Sport
384
False
What year did this take place?
5727955bf1498d1400e8fcd3
the 2013–14 season
495
False
Who took over after ESPN?
5727955bf1498d1400e8fcd4
BT Sport
481
False
BSkyB
20
Who was expected to make a bid for the 2010-11 season?
5a8cd42afd22b3001a8d8f10
True
2011
272
What final was not shown live?
5a8cd42afd22b3001a8d8f11
True
ESPN
444
Who did BT Sport transfer the rights package to?
5a8cd42afd22b3001a8d8f12
True
ESPN
406
Who bought BT's UK and Ireland channels?
5a8cd42afd22b3001a8d8f13
True
Sky 3D
306
What channel showed the 2013-14 season live in addition to ESPN?
5a8cd42afd22b3001a8d8f14
True
Many[who?] expected BSkyB to make a bid to show some of the remaining FA Cup games for the remainder of the 2009–10 season which would include a semi-final and shared rights to the final. ESPN took over the package Setanta held for the FA Cup from the 2010–11 season. The 2011 final was also shown live on Sky 3D in addition to ESPN (who provided the 3D coverage for Sky 3D) and ITV. Following the sale of ESPN's UK and Ireland channels to BT, ESPN's rights package transferred to BT Sport from the 2013–14 season.
New_Haven,_Connecticut
In which US state is New Haven located?
5727363d5951b619008f86c7
Connecticut
67
False
New Haven Harbor is located on the northern shore of what waterway?
5727363d5951b619008f86c8
Long Island Sound
244
False
In what county is New Haven located?
5727363d5951b619008f86c9
New Haven County
265
False
What is the population of New Haven according to the 2010 United States Census?
5727363d5951b619008f86ca
129,779
458
False
New Haven County makes up the outer limits of what major metropolitan area?
5727363d5951b619008f86cb
New York metropolitan area
344
False
What is the population of New Haven City in 2010?
57293d9e1d046914007791cb
129,779
458
False
What is Connecticut's biggest city?
57293d9e1d046914007791cc
Bridgeport
424
False
In what county is New Haven located in?
57293d9e1d046914007791cd
New Haven County,
265
False
The population of the Greater New Haven in 2010?
57293d9e1d046914007791ce
862,477
164
False
What is the metropolitan next to New Haven County, Connecticut?
57293d9e1d046914007791cf
New York
344
False
New Haven (local /nuː ˈheɪvən/, noo-HAY-vən), in the U.S. state of Connecticut, is the principal municipality in Greater New Haven, which had a total population of 862,477 in 2010. It is located on New Haven Harbor on the northern shore of the Long Island Sound in New Haven County, Connecticut, which in turn comprises the outer limits of the New York metropolitan area. It is the second-largest city in Connecticut (after Bridgeport), with a population of 129,779 people as of the 2010 United States Census. According to a census of 1 July 2012, by the Census Bureau, the city had a population of 130,741.
In what year did the Puritans survey New Haven Harbor?
57273f46708984140094db47
1637
3
False
From what colony did the original 500 Puritan settlers originate?
57273f46708984140094db48
Massachusetts Bay Colony
161
False
Who was the religious leader of the original Puritan settlers?
57273f46708984140094db49
Reverend John Davenport
214
False
In what year did the original 500 Puritan settlers arrive in the New Haven harbor area?
57273f46708984140094db4a
1638
102
False
From what native tribe did the original Puritan settlers purchase land in exchange for the offer of providing protection?
57273f46708984140094db4b
Quinnipiacs
568
False
What year begin the founding of New Haven Harbor?
57293f52af94a219006aa1e5
1638
102
False
Where did the settlers came from?
57293f52af94a219006aa1e6
Massachusetts Bay Colony
161
False
What was the name of the Native Americans that sold them the land?
57293f52af94a219006aa1e7
Quinnipiacs,
568
False
In comparison to Massachusetts what where settlers hoping to establish in New Haven Harbor?
57293f52af94a219006aa1e8
better theological community
361
False
Who was the religious leader that lead the pilgrims to New Haven Harbor?
57293f52af94a219006aa1e9
Reverend John Davenport
214
False
In 1637 a small party of Puritans reconnoitered the New Haven harbor area and wintered over. In April 1638, the main party of five hundred Puritans who left the Massachusetts Bay Colony under the leadership of the Reverend John Davenport and the London merchant Theophilus Eaton sailed into the harbor. These settlers were hoping to establish a (in their mind) better theological community, with the government more closely linked to the church than the one they left in Massachusetts and sought to take advantage of the excellent port capabilities of the harbor. The Quinnipiacs, who were under attack by neighboring Pequots, sold their land to the settlers in return for protection.
What type of government did the Puritan settlers establish?
57273f5b5951b619008f8757
theocratic government
20
False
By what year did the Puritan settlers rename the area from Quinnipac to Newhaven?
57273f5b5951b619008f8758
1640
3
False
In what year was the northern area of New Haven renamed Hamden?
57273f5b5951b619008f8759
1678
197
False
What colony was located to the north of New Haven Colony, centered around the area known as Hartford?
57273f5b5951b619008f875a
Connecticut Colony
351
False
What did New Haven Colony not permit that principally distinguished it from Connecticut Colony?
57273f5b5951b619008f875b
other churches to be established
570
False
In 1678 what was  the new name of the Northern part of New Haven?
572940ea6aef051400154bf4
Hamden
223
False
New Haven Colony was separated from the Connecticut Colony which was located where?
572940ea6aef051400154bf5
Hartford
424
False
What made New Haven different from the other colonies in Connecticut?
572940ea6aef051400154bf6
an intolerant theocracy
526
False
Where was the headquarters of the New Haven Colony located?
572940ea6aef051400154bf7
Quinnipiac
122
False
By 1640, the town's theocratic government and nine-square grid plan were in place, and the town was renamed Newhaven from Quinnipiac. However, the area north of New Haven remained Quinnipiac until 1678, when it was renamed Hamden. The settlement became the headquarters of the New Haven Colony. At the time, the New Haven Colony was separate from the Connecticut Colony, which had been established to the north centering on Hartford. One of the principal differences between the two colonies was that the New Haven colony was an intolerant theocracy that did not permit other churches to be established, while the Connecticut colony permitted the establishment of other churches.
Who was the influential New Haven general that hoped to avoid conflict with the British Parliament as the American Revolution loomed closer?
5727423f708984140094db75
General David Wooster
180
False
What date is still commemorated by Powder House Day in New Haven?
5727423f708984140094db76
23 April 1775
330
False
What was the name of the Second Company in New Haven that was the first to enter the inaugural struggle with the British?
5727423f708984140094db77
Governor's Foot Guard
425
False
Under whose leadership did the Governor's Foot Guard break into the powder house to arm themselves?
5727423f708984140094db78
Captain Benedict Arnold
530
False
Toward what area did the New Haven militia march for three days following the powder house incident?
5727423f708984140094db79
Cambridge, Massachusetts
637
False
Power House Day is celebrated on what day in New Haven?
572943173f37b319004781c9
23 April
330
False
What is the name of infamous historical person who played an important role on Power House Day?
572943173f37b319004781ca
Benedict Arnold
538
False
Where was George Washington planning to go after staying in New Haven?
572943173f37b319004781cb
Cambridge
787
False
What is the name of the New Haven Militia that fought on during Powder House Day?
572943173f37b319004781cc
Governor's Foot Guard
425
False
Although the militia were mainly made of volunteers what item distinguish them from other militia companies?
572943173f37b319004781cd
uniforms.
914
False
For over a century, New Haven citizens had fought in the colonial militia alongside regular British forces, as in the French and Indian War. As the American Revolution approached, General David Wooster and other influential residents hoped that the conflict with the government in Britain could be resolved short of rebellion. On 23 April 1775, which is still celebrated in New Haven as Powder House Day, the Second Company, Governor's Foot Guard, of New Haven entered the struggle against the governing British parliament. Under Captain Benedict Arnold, they broke into the powder house to arm themselves and began a three-day march to Cambridge, Massachusetts. Other New Haven militia members were on hand to escort George Washington from his overnight stay in New Haven on his way to Cambridge. Contemporary reports, from both sides, remark on the New Haven volunteers' professional military bearing, including uniforms.
Who was the governor of New York under which the loyalist and British raid of New Haven took place?
572746c4708984140094dba3
General William Tryon
60
False
The students of what New Haven university formed an ad-hoc militia to confront the Redcoats?
572746c4708984140094dba4
Yale
179
False
Who was the professor of Yale Divinity School that led the student militia to confront the Redcoats?
572746c4708984140094dba5
Naphtali Daggett
284
False
On what date did the loyalists and Redcoats land in New Haven Harbor to commence a raid on New Haven?
572746c4708984140094dba6
July 5, 1779
3
False
Who was the president of Yale that provided diary accounts expressing disbelief over the commencement of the revolution in New Haven?
572746c4708984140094dba7
Ezra Stiles
351
False
What is the name of the general that lead British regulars to New Haven Harbor?
57294516af94a219006aa223
William Tryon
68
False
At the time what was the population of New Haven Harbor?
57294516af94a219006aa224
3,500
147
False
A group of militia from a very famous modern town in Connecticut came to fought in the Harbor, what was the name of their town?
57294516af94a219006aa225
Yale
253
False
The militia that fought in New Haven was lead by who?
57294516af94a219006aa226
Naphtali Daggett
284
False
After the battle were New Haven historical features lost or torched?
57294516af94a219006aa227
town's colonial features were preserved.
642
False
On July 5, 1779, 2,600 loyalists and British regulars under General William Tryon, governor of New York, landed in New Haven Harbor and raided the 3,500-person town. A militia of Yale students had been prepping for battle, and former Yale president and Yale Divinity School professor Naphtali Daggett rode out to confront the Redcoats. Yale president Ezra Stiles recounted in his diary that while he moved furniture in anticipation of battle, he still couldn't quite believe the revolution had begun. New Haven was not torched as the invaders did with Danbury in 1777, or Fairfield and Norwalk a week after the New Haven raid, so many of the town's colonial features were preserved.
Who is the Yale graduate, inventor, and arms manufacturer that had a large positive impact on the New Haven economy in the late 18th century?
572749fdf1498d1400e8f5aa
Eli Whitney
96
False
What invention, for which he is primarily known, did Eli Whitney develop in New Haven?
572749fdf1498d1400e8f5ab
the cotton gin
162
False
What is the area near Hamden that was renamed for Eli Whitney?
572749fdf1498d1400e8f5ac
Whitneyville
307
False
What was the nickname given to Connecticut due to the large number of arms manufacturers that arose in the state?
572749fdf1498d1400e8f5ad
"The Arsenal of America"
786
False
In 1836, who invented the automatic revolver in Eli Whitney's gun manufacturing plant?
572749fdf1498d1400e8f5ae
Samuel Colt
861
False
What is the name of the inventor that created the cotton gin in New Haven?
572948091d04691400779249
Eli Whitney
96
False
What is the name of the main road that connects New Haven to Hamden?
572948091d0469140077924a
Whitney Avenue
370
False
What was the company that was responsible Connecticut rise as a manufacturing economy?
572948091d0469140077924b
A. C. Gilbert
519
False
The rise of gun factories within Connecticut earn the state what name?
572948091d0469140077924c
The Arsenal of America
787
False
In what year was the first automatic revolver invented?
572948091d0469140077924d
1836
908
False
The city struck fortune in the late 18th century with the inventions and industrial activity of Eli Whitney, a Yale graduate who remained in New Haven to develop the cotton gin and establish a gun-manufacturing factory in the northern part of the city near the Hamden town line. That area is still known as Whitneyville, and the main road through both towns is known as Whitney Avenue. The factory is now the Eli Whitney Museum, which has a particular emphasis on activities for children and exhibits pertaining to the A. C. Gilbert Company. His factory, along with that of Simeon North, and the lively clock-making and brass hardware sectors, contributed to making early Connecticut a powerful manufacturing economy; so many arms manufacturers sprang up that the state became known as "The Arsenal of America". It was in Whitney's gun-manufacturing plant that Samuel Colt invented the automatic revolver in 1836. The Farmington Canal, created in the early 19th century, was a short-lived transporter of goods into the interior regions of Connecticut and Massachusetts, and ran from New Haven to Northampton, Massachusetts.
In what year did an important trial take place which situated New Haven among the forefront of the growing anti-slavery movement?
57274df4f1498d1400e8f600
1839
105
False
What tribesman were being transported  as slaves on a ship by the Spanish?
57274df4f1498d1400e8f601
Mende
136
False
What was the name of the Spanish slave ship used to transport the Mende tribesmen?
57274df4f1498d1400e8f602
Amistad
205
False
Who was the informal leader of the slaves to whom there is a statue dedicated beside City Hall in New Haven?
57274df4f1498d1400e8f603
Joseph Cinqué
288
False
In 1860, what notable U.S. president gave a speech on slavery in New Haven?
57274df4f1498d1400e8f604
Abraham Lincoln
398
False
What is the name of the slaveship that once sit in New Haven Harbor?
5729499d1d04691400779253
Amistad
205
False
Who was the leader of slaves during the New Haven anti slavery movement in 1839
5729499d1d04691400779254
Joseph Cinqué
288
False
What famous president made a speech in New Haven in 1860?
5729499d1d04691400779255
Abraham Lincoln
398
False
Exactly who were the slaves upon the Spanish slaveship?
5729499d1d04691400779256
Mende tribesmen
136
False
New Haven was home to one of the important early events in the burgeoning anti-slavery movement when, in 1839, the trial of mutineering Mende tribesmen being transported as slaves on the Spanish slaveship Amistad was held in New Haven's United States District Court. There is a statue of Joseph Cinqué, the informal leader of the slaves, beside City Hall. See "Museums" below for more information. Abraham Lincoln delivered a speech on slavery in New Haven in 1860, shortly before he secured the Republican nomination for President.
What major war stimulated the New Haven economy by way of industrial goods purchased through the New Haven Arms Company?
57275373f1498d1400e8f642
American Civil War
4
False
What was the New Haven Arms Company later renamed?
57275373f1498d1400e8f643
Winchester Repeating Arms Company
168
False
The increase in immigrants from what country in southern Europe had a notable impact on the population growth in New Haven in the early 20th century?
57275373f1498d1400e8f644
Italy
571
False
What ethnic group currently comprises approximately half the population of East Haven, West Haven and North Haven?
57275373f1498d1400e8f645
Italian-American
661
False
What area of New Haven was known for being the center of the Jewish community?
57275373f1498d1400e8f646
Westville
750
False
What was the original name of the famous rifle manufacturing companies in New Haven?
57294fd36aef051400154ca6
New Haven Arms Company
115
False
In modern day New Haven who makes up for majority of the demographics in terms of ethnicity?
57294fd36aef051400154ca7
Italian-American
661
False
The Civil War had many effects after the war, what was the main effect for New Haven?
57294fd36aef051400154ca8
population grew and doubled
429
False
The American Civil War boosted the local economy with wartime purchases of industrial goods, including that of the New Haven Arms Company, which would later become the Winchester Repeating Arms Company. (Winchester would continue to produce arms in New Haven until 2006, and many of the buildings that were a part of the Winchester plant are now a part of the Winchester Repeating Arms Company Historic District.) After the war, population grew and doubled by the start of the 20th century, most notably due to the influx of immigrants from southern Europe, particularly Italy. Today, roughly half the populations of East Haven, West Haven, and North Haven are Italian-American. Jewish immigration to New Haven has left an enduring mark on the city. Westville was the center of Jewish life in New Haven, though today many have fanned out to suburban communities such as Woodbridge and Cheshire.
What New Haven mayor is responsible for projects that placed the city among the forefront of urban renewal in the U.S. circa 1954?
572755c0f1498d1400e8f66a
Richard C. Lee
20
False
What major U.S. interstate runs along the Long Wharf section of New Haven?
572755c0f1498d1400e8f66b
Interstate 95
308
False
What New Haven thoroughfare runs between Interstate 95, downtown, and the neighborhood known as The Hill?
572755c0f1498d1400e8f66c
The Oak Street Connector
397
False
What area of New Haven was Route 34 originally intended to service?
572755c0f1498d1400e8f66d
the city's western suburbs
542
False
What did the western portion of Route 34 ultimately become?
572755c0f1498d1400e8f66e
a boulevard
662
False
What was the name of the mayor that lead the urban development project in New Haven 1954?
572959cb6aef051400154d3e
Richard C. Lee
20
False
What was of the major urban development that affected several New Haven neighborhood?
572959cb6aef051400154d3f
construction of Interstate 95
292
False
During this redevelopment process what happen to the West part of Route 34?
572959cb6aef051400154d40
becoming a boulevard
653
False
In 1954, then-mayor Richard C. Lee began some of the earliest major urban renewal projects in the United States. Certain sections of downtown New Haven were redeveloped to include museums, new office towers, a hotel, and large shopping complexes. Other parts of the city were affected by the construction of Interstate 95 along the Long Wharf section, Interstate 91, and the Oak Street Connector. The Oak Street Connector (Route 34), running between Interstate 95, downtown, and The Hill neighborhood, was originally intended as a highway to the city's western suburbs but was only completed as a highway to the downtown area, with the area to the west becoming a boulevard (See "Redevelopment" below).
In approximately what year did revitalization most recently begin to occur in downtown New Haven?
57275811dd62a815002e9b66
2000
20
False
What specific area of downtown New Haven enjoyed a notable increase in apartments in condominiums at the beginning of the current century?
57275811dd62a815002e9b67
the area surrounding the New Haven Green
155
False
What specific service sector has substantially increased in downtown New Haven in recent years?
57275811dd62a815002e9b68
retail
280
False
In addition to Stop & Shop, what new supermarket is located one block from the Green and is poised to serve the growing downtown population?
57275811dd62a815002e9b69
Elm City Market
653
False
In the 21st Century what has happen to most of Downtown New Haven in terms of retail?
57295be46aef051400154d68
the opening of new stores
315
False
How has the media perceive most of these changes to the Downtown area?
57295be46aef051400154d69
positive press from various periodicals.
760
False
What has happen in New Haven Green during the 2000s?
57295be46aef051400154d6a
experienced an influx of apartments
200
False
Including to the growth, what market chain have expanded nearby Downtown New Haven?
57295be46aef051400154d6b
Stop & Shop
615
False
Since approximately 2000, many parts of downtown New Haven have been revitalized, with new restaurants, nightlife, and small retail stores. In particular, the area surrounding the New Haven Green has experienced an influx of apartments and condominiums. In recent years, downtown retail options have increased with the opening of new stores such as Urban Oufitters, J Crew, Origins, American Apparel, Gant Clothing, and an Apple Store, joining older stores such as Barnes & Noble, Cutlers Records, and Raggs Clothing. In addition, downtown's growing residential population will be served by two new supermarkets, a Stop & Shop just outside downtown and Elm City Market located one block from the Green. The recent turnaround of downtown New Haven has received positive press from various periodicals.
What multi-use project in New Haven is the largest residential building in Connecticut?
572759bddd62a815002e9b8c
360 State Street
189
False
What park is anticipated to extend to downtown New Haven?
572759bddd62a815002e9b8d
Farmington Canal Trail
364
False
For what area are a new boathouse and dock being planned?
572759bddd62a815002e9b8e
New Haven Harbor
326
False
What is the city landmark demolished in 2007 that the city ultimately wish to redevelop?
572759bddd62a815002e9b8f
New Haven Coliseum
674
False
What is the name of building project is taking place in Gateway Community College downtown?
57295e513f37b319004782bb
360 State Street.
167
False
The New Haven Harbor is receiving what kind of adjustment?
57295e513f37b319004782bc
dock is planned
306
False
The city of New Haven wants to redevelop/build what sort of structure?
57295e513f37b319004782bd
New Haven Coliseum
674
False
In terms of infrastructure, what is being develop in the downtown area?
57295e513f37b319004782be
linear park Farmington Canal Trail
352
False
What type of bridge is replacing the old Q Bridge?
57295e513f37b319004782bf
an extradosed bridge
557
False
Major projects include the current construction of a new campus for Gateway Community College downtown, and also a 32-story, 500-unit apartment/retail building called 360 State Street. The 360 State Street project is now occupied and is the largest residential building in Connecticut. A new boathouse and dock is planned for New Haven Harbor, and the linear park Farmington Canal Trail is set to extend into downtown New Haven within the coming year. Additionally, foundation and ramp work to widen I-95 to create a new harbor crossing for New Haven, with an extradosed bridge to replace the 1950s-era Q Bridge, has begun. The city still hopes to redevelop the site of the New Haven Coliseum, which was demolished in 2007.
In what year did the U.S. Supreme Court entertain a lawsuit filed by 18 New Haven firefighters against the city of New Haven?
572760715951b619008f88f3
2009
9
False
What was the distinguishing issue of the lawsuit over which 18 white firefighters in New Haven sought relief from the U.S. Supreme Court?
572760715951b619008f88f4
reverse discrimination
74
False
What was the name of the case in which the U.S. Supreme Court ruled that the city of New Haven had violated the Civil Rights Act of 1964 by denying any firefighter a promotion?
572760715951b619008f88f5
Ricci v. DeStefano
410
False
In what year did low scores of black firefighters on a promotion test issued by the New Haven Fire Department ultimately halt promotions for all firefighters of any race in the city?
572760715951b619008f88f6
2003
170
False
How many of the 18 white firefighters received promotions via district court order to the city of New Haven following the U.S. Supreme Court ruling in favor of the petitioning firefighters?
572760715951b619008f88f7
14
634
False
What was the decision from the 2009 Supreme Court Case?
5729606d1d0469140077934b
to ignore the test results
484
False
The Court case was involve between which two parties?
5729606d1d0469140077934c
firefighters against the city
117
False
What did the city do after the fail test scores for promotions?
5729606d1d0469140077934d
no one would be promoted
366
False
Out of how many of the white fireman got a promotion afterwards?
5729606d1d0469140077934e
14 of the white firefighters
634
False
In April 2009, the United States Supreme Court agreed to hear a suit over reverse discrimination brought by 18 white firefighters against the city. The suit involved the 2003 promotion test for the New Haven Fire Department. After the tests were scored, no black firefighters scored high enough to qualify for consideration for promotion, so the city announced that no one would be promoted. In the subsequent Ricci v. DeStefano decision the court found 5-4 that New Haven's decision to ignore the test results violated Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964. As a result, a district court subsequently ordered the city to promote 14 of the white firefighters.
Funding was awarded to Connecticut in 2010 and 2011 to build what line with a southern terminus in New Haven?
572767f2dd62a815002e9c4e
Hartford Line
107
False
At what terminal in New Haven was the Hartford Line slated to originate?
572767f2dd62a815002e9c4f
Union Station
162
False
What location provided the northern terminus for the Hartford Line?
572767f2dd62a815002e9c50
Springfield's Union Station
203
False
What is the name of the corridor in western Massachusetts by which federal authorities sought to improve trip times and the amount of the population served in both New Haven and Springfield?
572767f2dd62a815002e9c51
Knowledge Corridor
493
False
In what year was the "Knowledge corridor high speed intercity passenger rail" slated for construction?
572767f2dd62a815002e9c52
2013
638
False
What is the name of the train line that connects Connecticut and Massachusetts together?
572962873f37b319004782eb
Hartford Line
107
False
Where is the starting point of the terminus line in New Haven?
572962873f37b319004782ec
New Haven's Union Station
150
False
The purpose of the train line is to connect Connecticut and Massachusetts to what state north?
572962873f37b319004782ed
Vermont
397
False
When does the Knowledge Corridor line begins it's construction?
572962873f37b319004782ee
in 2013
635
False
Generally how fast are these trains?
572962873f37b319004782ef
180 km/h
902
False
In 2010 and 2011, state and federal funds were awarded to Connecticut (and Massachusetts) to construct the Hartford Line, with a southern terminus at New Haven's Union Station and a northern terminus at Springfield's Union Station. According to the White House, "This corridor [currently] has one train per day connecting communities in Connecticut and Massachusetts to the Northeast Corridor and Vermont. The vision for this corridor is to restore the alignment to its original route via the Knowledge Corridor in western Massachusetts, improving trip time and increasing the population base that can be served." Set for construction in 2013, the "Knowledge Corridor high speed intercity passenger rail" project will cost approximately $1 billion, and the ultimate northern terminus for the project is reported to be Montreal in Canada. Train speeds between will reportedly exceed 110 miles per hour (180 km/h) and increase both cities' rail traffic exponentially.
In addition to the New Haven Harbor, what additional natural element is a prominent geographic feature of the area, flanking the northeast and northwest boundaries?
57276cfdf1498d1400e8f7cc
basalt trap rock ridges
86
False
Which trap rock ridge was altered to accommodate the east-west portion of the Wilbur Park Crossway?
57276cfdf1498d1400e8f7cd
West Rock
273
False
What was the name of the group that once utilized West Rock as a hideout, known colloquially as "The Three Judges?"
57276cfdf1498d1400e8f7ce
"Regicides"
482
False
What is the name of the war monument located at the peak of East Rock?
57276cfdf1498d1400e8f7cf
Soldiers and Sailors
611
False
What is the name for the popular feature that ascends the cliffside of East Rock?
57276cfdf1498d1400e8f7d0
"Great/Giant Steps"
672
False
What is New Haven best known for in terms of the main landmark and structure?
572963dcaf94a219006aa36b
large deep harbor
51
False
In terms of economy and geographic landscape what is the used for the two trop rocks ridges north nearby the city?
572963dcaf94a219006aa36c
as extensive parks
253
False
The West Rock is also used for what sort of infrastructure?
572963dcaf94a219006aa36d
highway tunnel
385
False
What does the Eastern Rocks offer as a park on the other hand?
572963dcaf94a219006aa36e
war monument
632
False
New Haven's best-known geographic features are its large deep harbor, and two reddish basalt trap rock ridges which rise to the northeast and northwest of the city core. These trap rocks are known respectively as East Rock and West Rock, and both serve as extensive parks. West Rock has been tunneled through to make way for the east-west passage of the Wilbur Cross Parkway (the only highway tunnel through a natural obstacle in Connecticut), and once served as the hideout of the "Regicides" (see: Regicides Trail). Most New Haveners refer to these men as "The Three Judges". East Rock features the prominent Soldiers and Sailors war monument on its peak as well as the "Great/Giant Steps" which run up the rock's cliffside.
By how many rivers is the city of New Haven drained?
57276f39f1498d1400e8f808
three
23
False
Which New Haven river releases into West Haven Harbor?
57276f39f1498d1400e8f809
West River
107
False
Into what local body of water do the Mill and Quinnipiac rivers discharge?
57276f39f1498d1400e8f80a
New Haven Harbor
205
False
Into what larger waterway do the West Haven Harbor and New Haven Harbor recess as embayments?
57276f39f1498d1400e8f80b
Long Island Sound
254
False
What is the name of the western river in the city of New Haven?
5729662c6aef051400154e08
the West
37
False
The eastern river bears the name of the Native American Tribes that once live in New Haven, what is the name?
5729662c6aef051400154e09
Quinnipiac
57
False
The two eastern rivers meets in which of New Haven Harbor?
5729662c6aef051400154e0a
New Haven Harbor
205
False
These two harbors are part of what estuary?
5729662c6aef051400154e0b
Long Island Sound.
254
False
Are all of New Haven's smaller stream active through all four seasons?
5729662c6aef051400154e0c
Not all of these small streams
451
False
The city is drained by three rivers; the West, Mill, and Quinnipiac, named in order from west to east. The West River discharges into West Haven Harbor, while the Mill and Quinnipiac rivers discharge into New Haven Harbor. Both harbors are embayments of Long Island Sound. In addition, several smaller streams flow through the city's neighborhoods, including Wintergreen Brook, the Beaver Ponds Outlet, Wilmot Brook, Belden Brook, and Prospect Creek. Not all of these small streams have continuous flow year-round.
Though harboring transitive properties, what Koppen climate classification does the New Haven climate more closely characterize?
572772285951b619008f8a1b
Dfa
101
False
What season is typically characterized as humid and warm in New Haven?
572772285951b619008f8a1c
Summers
254
False
What baseline temperature threshold do temperatures normally exceed throughout the summer in New Haven?
572772285951b619008f8a1d
90 °F (32 °C)
310
False
How heavy is the snowfall typically throughout the winter in New Haven?
572772285951b619008f8a1e
moderate
368
False
New Haven's climate is largely analogous to what major adjoining metropolitan area?
572772285951b619008f8a1f
New York
226
False
The New Haven's area closesly resemble which type of climate?
57296fe53f37b319004783ad
humid continental climate
43
False
Does summertime gets weather hotter than 90 degrees?
57296fe53f37b319004783ae
7–8 days per year
327
False
Due to being a coastal city, how much snow does the city gets?
57296fe53f37b319004783af
moderate snowfall
368
False
What is the main effects  in New Haven's weather due to being a coastal city?
57296fe53f37b319004783b0
differences in temperature between areas
629
False
New Haven lies in the transition between a humid continental climate (Köppen climate classification: Dfa) and humid subtropical climate (Köppen Cfa), but having more characteristics of the former, as is typical of much of the New York metropolitan area. Summers are humid and warm, with temperatures exceeding 90 °F (32 °C) on 7–8 days per year. Winters are cold with moderate snowfall interspersed with rainfall and occasionally mixed precipitation. The weather patterns that affect New Haven result from a primarily offshore direction, thus reducing the marine influence of Long Island Sound—although, like other marine areas, differences in temperature between areas right along the coastline and areas a mile or two inland can be large at times.
On what type of city plan was New Haven laid out upon the founding of the area?
57277582f1498d1400e8f8aa
grid plan of nine square blocks
227
False
For what environmental initiative is the city of New Haven known, primarily for instituting the first of its kind in America?
57277582f1498d1400e8f8ab
public tree planting program
409
False
What was the nickname given to the city of New Haven due to an indigenous tree which largely perished in the mid-20th century?
57277582f1498d1400e8f8ac
"Elm City"
520
False
What was the cause of the sudden extinction of many of the elms in New Haven?
57277582f1498d1400e8f8ad
Dutch Elm disease
571
False
What public area in New Haven was named a National Historic Landmark in 1970?
57277582f1498d1400e8f8ae
New Haven Green
635
False
What was New Haven's nickname?
572971f23f37b319004783df
Elm City"
521
False
Due to the replanting of trees the center of the city is called what?
572971f23f37b319004783e0
New Haven Green
635
False
In what year did it became recognize as a landmark?
572971f23f37b319004783e1
1970
864
False
In the original plans of the city, how many city block were designed?
572971f23f37b319004783e2
nine square blocks
240
False
Because of it's trees New Haven is known for being first to implemented what in the US?
572971f23f37b319004783e3
public tree planting program
409
False
New Haven has a long tradition of urban planning and a purposeful design for the city's layout. The city could be argued to have some of the first preconceived layouts in the country. Upon founding, New Haven was laid out in a grid plan of nine square blocks; the central square was left open, in the tradition of many New England towns, as the city green (a commons area). The city also instituted the first public tree planting program in America. As in other cities, many of the elms that gave New Haven the nickname "Elm City" perished in the mid-20th century due to Dutch Elm disease, although many have since been replanted. The New Haven Green is currently home to three separate historic churches which speak to the original theocratic nature of the city. The Green remains the social center of the city today. It was named a National Historic Landmark in 1970.
Approximately how many residents make up the population of downtown New Haven?
57277787dd62a815002e9da6
7,000
39
False
What downtown New Haven restaurant was cited by the New York Times, Esquire and Wine Spectator for its outstanding Spanish cuisine?
57277787dd62a815002e9da7
Ibiza
326
False
Downtown New Haven contributes approximately how many jobs to the city?
57277787dd62a815002e9da8
about half
137
False
Downtown New Haven contributes approximately what amount of the overall tax base for the area?
57277787dd62a815002e9da9
half
171
False
How many people live in downtown New Haven?
5729734f1d04691400779495
7,000 residents
39
False
In terms of economy the downtown portion is responsible for what?
5729734f1d04691400779496
half of the city's jobs
143
False
Of the downtown area what gets the most positive media coverage?
5729734f1d04691400779497
new upscale restaurants
245
False
What has help the most with the continuous growth within the area?
5729734f1d04691400779498
thousands of apartments and condominium
481
False
Downtown New Haven, occupied by nearly 7,000 residents, has a more residential character than most downtowns. The downtown area provides about half of the city's jobs and half of its tax base and in recent years has become filled with dozens of new upscale restaurants, several of which have garnered national praise (such as Ibiza, recognized by Esquire and Wine Spectator magazines as well as the New York Times as the best Spanish food in the country), in addition to shops and thousands of apartments and condominium units which subsequently help overall growth of the city.
What area of New Haven comprises the area centered around the business district and New Haven Green?
572779a2dd62a815002e9df8
Downtown
57
False
What is the historic water-front neighborhood located in the southern area of New Haven?
572779a2dd62a815002e9df9
City Point
272
False
What east-central neighborhood in New Haven is home to a large number of Italian-Americans?
572779a2dd62a815002e9dfa
Wooster Square
573
False
What is the name of the neighborhood in New Haven that rests between the Mill and Quinnipiac rivers, and is comprised primarily of an immigrant community?
572779a2dd62a815002e9dfb
Fair Haven
623
False
What is the name of the district nearing the harbor of the city?
572975a46aef051400154f38
Long Wharf
333
False
Though the Green is the popular center of the city, there is another district, what's the name?
572975a46aef051400154f39
central business district
83
False
If you were to go northern part of New Haven, what district would you find?
572975a46aef051400154f3a
Newhallville
481
False
Between two of it's rivers lies a district with a heavy immigrant population, the name is?
572975a46aef051400154f3b
Fair Haven
623
False
Wooster Square is known for what roots?
572975a46aef051400154f3c
Italian-American
592
False
The city has many distinct neighborhoods. In addition to Downtown, centered on the central business district and the Green, are the following neighborhoods: the west central neighborhoods of Dixwell and Dwight; the southern neighborhoods of The Hill, historic water-front City Point (or Oyster Point), and the harborside district of Long Wharf; the western neighborhoods of Edgewood, West River, Westville, Amity, and West Rock-Westhills; East Rock, Cedar Hill, Prospect Hill, and Newhallville in the northern side of town; the east central neighborhoods of Mill River and Wooster Square, an Italian-American neighborhood; Fair Haven, an immigrant community located between the Mill and Quinnipiac rivers; Quinnipiac Meadows and Fair Haven Heights across the Quinnipiac River; and facing the eastern side of the harbor, The Annex and East Shore (or Morris Cove).
What sector originally provided the largest contribution to New Haven's economy?
57277d20f1498d1400e8f990
manufacturing
44
False
What entity serves as the largest employer in New Haven?
57277d20f1498d1400e8f991
Yale
468
False
What percentage of New Haven's economy is based in services grounded in health care and education?
57277d20f1498d1400e8f992
56%
372
False
What is the second largest employer in New Haven?
57277d20f1498d1400e8f993
Yale – New Haven Hospital
517
False
What pharmaceutical company serves as a large employment provider for New Haven?
57277d20f1498d1400e8f994
Alexion
735
False
New Haven relied on what in terms of growth and economy?
5729778f6aef051400154f5a
manufacturing
44
False
Was the city the only one that suffer a decline within the manufacturing sector?
5729778f6aef051400154f5b
entire Northeast was affected
120
False
In modern day how much does New Haven depend on blue collar jobs?
5729778f6aef051400154f5c
over half (56%)
361
False
What institution has largest impact on the city's job market?
5729778f6aef051400154f5d
Yale
468
False
New Haven's economy originally was based in manufacturing, but the postwar period brought rapid industrial decline; the entire Northeast was affected, and medium-sized cities with large working-class populations, like New Haven, were hit particularly hard. Simultaneously, the growth and expansion of Yale University further affected the economic shift. Today, over half (56%) of the city's economy is now made up of services, in particular education and health care; Yale is the city's largest employer, followed by Yale – New Haven Hospital. Other large employers include St. Raphael Hospital, Smilow Cancer Hospital, Southern Connecticut State University, Assa Abloy Manufacturing, the Knights of Columbus headquarters, Higher One, Alexion Pharmaceuticals, Covidien and United Illuminating. Yale and Yale-New Haven are also among the largest employers in the state, and provide more $100,000+-salaried positions than any other employer in Connecticut.[citation needed]
What Fortune 1000 company, also the largest Catholic service organization in the world, is based in New Haven?
5727814d708984140094df65
The Knights of Columbus
0
False
What prominent producer of electrical equipment, also a Fortune 1000 company, is based in Greater New Haven?
5727814d708984140094df66
Hubbell
243
False
What publicly traded bank, also the second largest in Connecticut, is based in New Haven?
5727814d708984140094df67
NewAlliance
470
False
What is the name of the New Haven-based business faction of the infamous Skull and Bones Society?
5727814d708984140094df68
Russell Trust Association
1155
False
In what year did the Southern New England Telephone Company, formerly the District Telephone Company of New Haven, establish operations in the area?
5727814d708984140094df69
1878
1361
False
New Haven contains one of largest religious service organization in the world, it's name?
572a28b06aef051400155320
Knights of Columbus
4
False
Within the New Haven metropolitan area contain a Fortune 1000 company located in Orange, the name of the company?
572a28b06aef051400155321
Hubbell
243
False
What is the name of the second largest bank found in Connecticut?
572a28b06aef051400155322
NewAlliance Bank
470
False
As one of the oldest telephone companies, the SNET started in what year?
572a28b06aef051400155323
1878
1361
False
In modern day SNET operates as what in New Haven?
572a28b06aef051400155324
subsidiary of AT&T
1419
False
The Knights of Columbus, the world's largest Catholic fraternal service organization and a Fortune 1000 company, is headquartered in New Haven. Two more Fortune 1000 companies are based in Greater New Haven: the electrical equipment producers Hubbell, based in Orange, and Amphenol, based in Wallingford. Eight Courant 100 companies are based in Greater New Haven, with four headquartered in New Haven proper. New Haven-based companies traded on stock exchanges include NewAlliance Bank, the second largest bank in Connecticut and fourth-largest in New England (NYSE: NAL), Higher One Holdings (NYSE: ONE), a financial services firm United Illuminating, the electricity distributor for southern Connecticut (NYSE: UIL), Achillion Pharmaceuticals (NASDAQ: ACHN), Alexion Pharmaceuticals (NasdaqGS: ALXN), and Transpro Inc. (AMEX: TPR). Vion Pharmaceuticals is traded OTC (OTC BB: VIONQ.OB). Other notable companies based in the city include the Peter Paul Candy Manufacturing Company (the candy-making division of the Hershey Company), the American division of Assa Abloy (one of the world's leading manufacturers of locks), Yale University Press, and the Russell Trust Association (the business arm of the Skull and Bones Society). The Southern New England Telephone Company (SNET) began operations in the city as the District Telephone Company of New Haven in 1878; the company remains headquartered in New Haven as a subsidiary of AT&T Inc., now doing business as AT&T Connecticut, and provides telephone service for all but two municipalities in Connecticut.
How many households are located in New Haven according to the 2010 U.S. Census Bureau report?
5727835af1498d1400e8fa46
47,094
66
False
What percentage of New Haven's population is comprised by individuals identifying as White?
5727835af1498d1400e8fa47
42.6%
334
False
What percentage of New Haven's population is comprised by individuals identifying as African American?
5727835af1498d1400e8fa48
35.4%
347
False
What minority sector of the poulation in New Haven is currently experiencing rapid growth?
5727835af1498d1400e8fa49
Latino
747
False
What is the total population of New Haven as reported by the U.S. Census Bureau in 2010?
5727835af1498d1400e8fa4a
129,779
52
False
In terms of population density, what is the average person per square kilometers in New Haven?
572a2a71af94a219006aa84f
2,648.6/km²
192
False
In regards to it resident, what is the demographic for Native Americans living in the city?
572a2a71af94a219006aa850
0.5%
371
False
New Haven has a large immigrant population, what seems to be one of the main cause of it throughout the last century?
572a2a71af94a219006aa851
postwar
858
False
In modern times has the population of White/Caucasian increase or decrease since the 70s?
572a2a71af94a219006aa852
down from 69.6% in 1970
614
False
The U.S. Census Bureau reports a 2010 population of 129,779, with 47,094 households and 25,854 families within the city of New Haven. The population density is 6,859.8 people per square mile (2,648.6/km²). There are 52,941 housing units at an average density of 2,808.5 per square mile (1,084.4/km²). The racial makeup of the city is 42.6% White, 35.4% African American, 0.5% Native American, 4.6% Asian, 0.1% Pacific Islander, 12.9% from other races, and 3.9% from two or more races. Hispanic or Latino residents of any race were 27.4% of the population. Non-Hispanic Whites were 31.8% of the population in 2010, down from 69.6% in 1970. The city's demography is shifting rapidly: New Haven has always been a city of immigrants and currently the Latino population is growing rapidly. Previous influxes among ethnic groups have been African-Americans in the postwar era, and Irish, Italian and (to a lesser degree) Slavic peoples in the prewar period.
What is the most prominent religion in New Haven?
572785725951b619008f8c3b
Roman Catholic
29
False
Under what immediate jurisdiction of the Catholic Church does New Haven fall?
572785725951b619008f8c3c
Archdiocese of Hartford
194
False
How many yeshivas are located in New Haven?
572785725951b619008f8c3d
two
590
False
With what religious movement do many Puerto Ricans in New Haven associate?
572785725951b619008f8c3e
Pentecostals
352
False
In addition to Jews, what other religious community comprises a large share of the non-Catholic population of New Haven?
572785725951b619008f8c3f
Black Baptists
285
False
In terms of religious affiliation, what is the most prevalent religion in the city?
572a2c091d0469140077980b
Roman Catholic
29
False
There are several religious group that have seem rise in demographics, one of which is popular among African Americans being?
572a2c091d0469140077980c
Baptists
291
False
However Christianity can be found within the city, particularly which neighborhoods?
572a2c091d0469140077980d
working-class
506
False
New Haven is a predominantly Roman Catholic city, as the city's Dominican, Irish, Italian, Mexican, Ecuadorian, and Puerto Rican populations are overwhelmingly Catholic. The city is part of the Archdiocese of Hartford. Jews also make up a considerable portion of the population, as do Black Baptists. There is a growing number of (mostly Puerto Rican) Pentecostals as well. There are churches for all major branches of Christianity within the city, multiple store-front churches, ministries (especially in working-class Latino and Black neighborhoods), a mosque, many synagogues (including two yeshivas), and other places of worship; the level of religious diversity in the city is high.
What former U.S. president was born in New Haven?
57278c0ddd62a815002e9ffa
George W. Bush
48
False
What New Haven institution did former U.S. president Bill Clinton and Hillary Rodham Clinton both attend?
57278c0ddd62a815002e9ffb
Yale Law School
549
False
What former U.S. vice president graduated from Yale University?
57278c0ddd62a815002e9ffc
John C. Calhoun
589
False
Prior to 2008, in what year did the last election occur in which neither major party had an individual on the ticket with a connection to New Haven and Yale University?
57278c0ddd62a815002e9ffd
1968
827
False
Who was the President pro tempore of the Senate in 1801 that was native to New Haven?
57278c0ddd62a815002e9ffe
James Hillhouse
833
False
Which former U.S. president have been born in New Haven?
572a2e1aaf94a219006aa869
George W. Bush
48
False
Multiple president have studied at this popular college, you can guess the name of the university?
572a2e1aaf94a219006aa86a
Yale
173
False
Serving in President Obama's cabinet, this man has also studied at Yale, can you guess who?
572a2e1aaf94a219006aa86b
John Kerry
419
False
Yale University is heavily affiliate with our presidential candidates since what year?
572a2e1aaf94a219006aa86c
1968
827
False
New Haven is the birthplace of former president George W. Bush, who was born when his father, former president George H. W. Bush, was living in New Haven while a student at Yale. In addition to being the site of the college educations of both Presidents Bush, as Yale students, New Haven was also the temporary home of former presidents William Howard Taft, Gerald Ford, and Bill Clinton, as well as Secretary of State John Kerry. President Clinton met his wife, former U.S. Secretary of State Hillary Rodham Clinton, while the two were students at Yale Law School. Former vice presidents John C. Calhoun and Dick Cheney also studied in New Haven (although the latter did not graduate from Yale). Before the 2008 election, the last time there was not a person with ties to New Haven and Yale on either major party's ticket was 1968. James Hillhouse, a New Haven native, served as President pro tempore of the United States Senate in 1801.
What is the title of the political science book, written by a Yale professor, that explores New Haven politics and history throughout the 1950's?
57279d143acd2414000de7df
Who Governs? Democracy and Power in An American City
29
False
Who is the author of "Who Governs? Democracy an Power in An American City"
57279d143acd2414000de7e0
Robert A. Dahl
157
False
What penultimate work by Alexis de Tocqueville makes mention of New Haven's original theocratic government?
57279d143acd2414000de7e1
Democracy in America
427
False
To which prominent conservative, that authored God and Man at Yale, did New Haven provide residence in 1951?
57279d143acd2414000de7e2
William F. Buckley, Jr.
501
False
Who is the author of The Fifteenth Ward and the Great Society?
57279d143acd2414000de7e3
William Lee Miller
586
False
What is the name of popular book discussing the politics of New Haven published in the 50s?
572a2fefaf94a219006aa871
Democracy and Power in An American City
42
False
What famous french historian mention the city within his book Democracy in America?
572a2fefaf94a219006aa872
Alexis de Tocqueville
342
False
New Haven was the home to author that wrote God and Man at Yale, the writer's name was?
572a2fefaf94a219006aa873
William F. Buckley, Jr.
501
False
What is the name of the book published in 1966 that had focus on the city politics in relations with President Johnson's policies?
572a2fefaf94a219006aa874
the Great Society
630
False
New Haven was the subject of Who Governs? Democracy and Power in An American City, a very influential book in political science by preeminent Yale professor Robert A. Dahl, which includes an extensive history of the city and thorough description of its politics in the 1950s. New Haven's theocratic history is also mentioned several times by Alexis de Tocqueville in his classic volume on 19th-century American political life, Democracy in America. New Haven was the residence of conservative thinker William F. Buckley, Jr., in 1951, when he wrote his influential God and Man at Yale. William Lee Miller's The Fifteenth Ward and the Great Society (1966) similarly explores the relationship between local politics in New Haven and national political movements, focusing on Lyndon Johnson's Great Society and urban renewal.
What New Haven trial is known to be the longest in the history of Connecticut?
57279e8c4b864d19001638ae
New Haven Black Panther trials
13
False
In what year did the New Haven Black Panther trials take place in New Haven?
57279e8c4b864d19001638af
1970
3
False
Who was the co-founder of the Black Panthers that was placed on trial in New Haven?
57279e8c4b864d19001638b0
Bobby Seale
142
False
What day marked the beginning of New Haven being overwhelmed by 12,000 individuals protesting the Black Panther trials?
57279e8c4b864d19001638b1
May Day
242
False
In what central New Haven location did protesters of the Black Panther trials congregate?
57279e8c4b864d19001638b2
New Haven Green
464
False
What political movement group is known in within city among non whites?
572a31b73f37b3190047879d
Black Panther
23
False
How many attended the trials of the Black Panther in 1970?
572a31b73f37b3190047879e
12,000
291
False
The protest of trial result in what specifically?
572a31b73f37b3190047879f
Violent confrontations
538
False
The protest also initiate the start of criticizing what presidential administration?
572a31b73f37b319004787a0
the Nixon Administration
744
False
What was the name of one of the party's leader that also happen to be on trial?
572a31b73f37b319004787a1
Bobby Seale
142
False
In 1970, the New Haven Black Panther trials took place, the largest and longest trials in Connecticut history. Black Panther Party co-founder Bobby Seale and ten other Party members were tried for murdering an alleged informant. Beginning on May Day, the city became a center of protest for 12,000 Panther supporters, college students, and New Left activists (including Jean Genet, Benjamin Spock, Abbie Hoffman, Jerry Rubin, and John Froines), who amassed on the New Haven Green, across the street from where the trials were being held. Violent confrontations between the demonstrators and the New Haven police occurred, and several bombs were set off in the area by radicals. The event became a rallying point for the New Left and critics of the Nixon Administration.
In what year did the U.S. Supreme Court agree to hear a lawsuit originally filed by 20 white and Hispanic firefighters seeking relief from the city of New Haven?
5727a1232ca10214002d9258
2009
9
False
What was the primary legal issue at the center of the suit filed against New Haven by firefighters?
5727a1232ca10214002d9259
reverse discrimination
74
False
In what year did the city of New Haven deny all firefighters promotions citing the poor performance of black firefighters on performance tests ?
5727a1232ca10214002d925a
2003
183
False
What was the name of the 2009 case in which the U.S. Supreme Court awarded relief to New Haven firefighters against the city of New Haven?
5727a1232ca10214002d925b
Ricci v. DeStefano
563
False
Which Supreme Court Justice was a graduate of Yale Law School and was currently undergoing the nomination process at the time of the 2009 lawsuit filed by firefighters against the city of New Haven?
5727a1232ca10214002d925c
Sonia Sotomayor
745
False
The 2009 Supreme Court Case which had the City of New Haven versus who?
572a334d1d04691400779845
20 white and Hispanic firefighters
108
False
What was the date of the final ruling?
572a334d1d04691400779846
29 June 2009
396
False
The actual name for the case was what?
572a334d1d04691400779847
Ricci v. DeStefano
563
False
The court cast was rather popular due to which person on the case?
572a334d1d04691400779848
Sonia Sotomayor
745
False
Upon reaching a verdict the summary statement was that city denied the firefighter a promotion because of what?
572a334d1d04691400779849
because of their race
530
False
In April 2009, the United States Supreme Court agreed to hear a suit over reverse discrimination brought by 20 white and Hispanic firefighters against the city. The suit involved the 2003 promotion test for the New Haven Fire Department. After the tests were scored, no blacks scored high enough to qualify for consideration for promotion, so the city announced that no one would be promoted. On 29 June 2009, the United States Supreme Court ruled in favor of the firefighters, agreeing that they were improperly denied promotion because of their race. The case, Ricci v. DeStefano, became highly publicized and brought national attention to New Haven politics due to the involvement of then-Supreme Court nominee (and Yale Law School graduate) Sonia Sotomayor in a lower court decision.
Who is the famous comic strip author of Doonesbury that attended Yale University in New Haven?
5727a326ff5b5019007d918a
Garry Trudeau
0
False
For which long-time New Haven resident and former Yale student is Doonesbury named?
5727a326ff5b5019007d918b
Charles Pillsbury
163
False
What was the Charles Pillsbury's nickname during college?
5727a326ff5b5019007d918c
"The Doones"
316
False
What is the name of the international law theory, grounded in jurisprudence framed by a sociological normative approach?
5727a326ff5b5019007d918d
the New Haven Approach
450
False
What sitting Connecticut U.S. senator graduated from Yale University in New Haven?
5727a326ff5b5019007d918e
Richard Blumenthal
513
False
Which past U.S. senator had lived in New Haven and graduated from Yale?
572a353c3f37b319004787b1
Joe Lieberman
588
False
The term, the New Haven Approach was what exactly?
572a353c3f37b319004787b2
A theory of international law,
330
False
What is the name of the Green party member that also studied at Yale?
572a353c3f37b319004787b3
Charles Pillsbury
163
False
Garry Trudeau, creator of the political Doonesbury comic strip, attended Yale University. There he met fellow student and later Green Party candidate for Congress Charles Pillsbury, a long-time New Haven resident for whom Trudeau's comic strip is named. During his college years, Pillsbury was known by the nickname "The Doones". A theory of international law, which argues for a sociological normative approach in regards to jurisprudence, is named the New Haven Approach, after the city. Connecticut US senator Richard Blumenthal is a Yale graduate, as is former Connecticut US Senator Joe Lieberman who also was a New Haven resident for many years, before moving back to his hometown of Stamford.
Analysis by what organization detailed that municipality-based rankings may be inaccurate?
5727a4c72ca10214002d92a2
Regional Data Cooperative for Greater New Haven, Inc
28
False
What constant in two cities can create disparities in analysis by way of distribution over differing land areas?
5727a4c72ca10214002d92a3
identical population
249
False
Neighborhoods and blocks, as opposed to municipalities, are both examples of what?
5727a4c72ca10214002d92a4
standard methodologies
426
False
What research organization did an city analysis on New Haven?
572a369c3f37b319004787bf
Regional Data Cooperative for Greater New Haven, Inc
28
False
The organization stated that analysis should be based on comparison of neighborhoods within the city and not what?
572a369c3f37b319004787c0
based on municipalities
542
False
According to the institution what leads to inaccurate analysis of the city?
572a369c3f37b319004787c1
cities of identical population
239
False
However, an analysis by the Regional Data Cooperative for Greater New Haven, Inc., has shown that due to issues of comparative denominators and other factors, such municipality-based rankings can be considered inaccurate. For example, two cities of identical population can cover widely differing land areas, making such analyses irrelevant. The research organization called for comparisons based on neighborhoods, blocks, or standard methodologies (similar to those used by Brookings, DiversityData, and other established institutions), not based on municipalities.
What private university is located in downtown New Haven?
5727a6233acd2414000de8d5
Yale University
52
False
What community college is located in downtown New Haven?
5727a6233acd2414000de8d6
Gateway Community College
328
False
What state university is located in New Haven?
5727a6233acd2414000de8d7
Southern Connecticut State University
188
False
What school serves as the largest employer of New Haven?
5727a6233acd2414000de8d8
Yale University
52
False
In what year did Gateway Community College open its newly consolidated downtown campus?
5727a6233acd2414000de8d9
2012
583
False
Where is Yale University located.
572a37a3af94a219006aa8bd
heart of downtown
76
False
What the name of a state university also located in the city?
572a37a3af94a219006aa8be
Southern Connecticut State University
188
False
Other than Yale, New Haven has another private college in the city, it's name?
572a37a3af94a219006aa8bf
Albertus Magnus College
280
False
Before relocating to downtown area, New Haven has a community college that used to be located where?
572a37a3af94a219006aa8c0
Long Wharf district
414
False
When was the new Gateway Community College open?
572a37a3af94a219006aa8c1
Fall 2012
578
False
New Haven is a notable center for higher education. Yale University, at the heart of downtown, is one of the city's best known features and its largest employer. New Haven is also home to Southern Connecticut State University, part of the Connecticut State University System, and Albertus Magnus College, a private institution. Gateway Community College has a campus in downtown New Haven, formerly located in the Long Wharf district; Gateway consolidated into one campus downtown into a new state-of-the-art campus (on the site of the old Macy's building) and was open for the Fall 2012 semester.
What private school, with the notable distinction of being the fifth-oldest educational institution in the U.S., was founded in New Haven?
5727aa68ff5b5019007d9220
Hopkins School
0
False
In what year was Hopkins School founded in New Haven?
5727aa68ff5b5019007d9221
1660
49
False
What is the name of the environmental charter school located in New Haven?
5727aa68ff5b5019007d9222
Common Ground
610
False
What are the names of the two Achievement First charter schools located in New Haven?
5727aa68ff5b5019007d9223
Amistad Academy and Elm City College Prep
560
False
What magnet school in New Haven is centered around arts education?
5727aa68ff5b5019007d9224
ACES Educational Center for the Arts
356
False
As one of the oldest school which was founded in 1660, what is it's name?
572a38a73f37b319004787d7
Hopkins School
0
False
In terms of schools how old is it historically compare to others?
572a38a73f37b319004787d8
fifth-oldest
65
False
How many charters schools are available in New Haven?
572a38a73f37b319004787d9
two
521
False
Hopkins School, a private school, was founded in 1660 and is the fifth-oldest educational institution in the United States. New Haven is home to a number of other private schools as well as public magnet schools, including Metropolitan Business Academy, High School in the Community, Hill Regional Career High School, Co-op High School, New Haven Academy, ACES Educational Center for the Arts, the Foote School and the Sound School, all of which draw students from New Haven and suburban towns. New Haven is also home to two Achievement First charter schools, Amistad Academy and Elm City College Prep, and to Common Ground, an environmental charter school.
What scholarship is awarded in New Haven by Yale University to public school students meeting specified criteria?
5727abea3acd2414000de93f
New Haven Promise
20
False
What is the cumulative GPA necessary for a student to be eligible for the New Haven Promise scholarship?
5727abea3acd2414000de940
3.0
257
False
How many hours of community service must a student perform in order to be eligible for the New Haven Promise scholarship?
5727abea3acd2414000de941
40 hours
339
False
What is the minimum attendance rate for a student to be eligible for the New Haven Promise Scholarship?
5727abea3acd2414000de942
90-percent
300
False
In what year was the New Haven Promise scholarship initiated?
5727abea3acd2414000de943
2010
403
False
What is the name of the scholarship is funded by Yale?
572a398baf94a219006aa8d1
New Haven Promise
20
False
In terms of requirement what sort of service would one needs to fulfilled in order to apply?
572a398baf94a219006aa8d2
40 hours of service to the city.
339
False
When did the scholar project begin?
572a398baf94a219006aa8d3
2010
403
False
Currently how many students total have been approve by the program?
572a398baf94a219006aa8d4
more than 500 Scholars
432
False
The city is home to New Haven Promise, a scholarship funded by Yale University for students who meet the requirements. Students must be enrolled in a public high school (charters included) for four years, be a resident of the city during that time, carry a 3.0 cumulative grade-point average, have a 90-percent attendance rate and perform 40 hours of service to the city. The initiative was launched in 2010 and there are currently more than 500 Scholars enrolled in qualifying Connecticut colleges and universities. There are more than 60 cities in the country that have a Promise-type program for their students.
What distinction was afforded to New Haven in 2014 by Livability.com?
5727ac984b864d1900163a16
Best Foodie City
38
False
How many Zagat-rated restaurants are located in New Haven?
5727ac984b864d1900163a17
56
89
False
What city in Connecticut has the highest number of Zagat-rated restaurants?
5727ac984b864d1900163a18
New Haven
119
False
How many restaurants can be accessed within a two block radius of New Haven Green?
5727ac984b864d1900163a19
More than 120
218
False
What website gave critical acclaim to New Haven for the city's food?
572a3a4b6aef0514001553ac
Livability.com
0
False
How many restaurant are located in the center of New Haven's city?
572a3a4b6aef0514001553ad
More than 120 restaurants
218
False
There are about how many Zagat-rated restaurants located in the city?
572a3a4b6aef0514001553ae
56
89
False
Within the cities there are markets that focus on what sort of cuisines?
572a3a4b6aef0514001553af
various foreign foods.
390
False
Livability.com named New Haven as the Best Foodie City in the country in 2014. There are 56 Zagat-rated restaurants in New Haven, the most in Connecticut and the third most in New England (after Boston and Cambridge). More than 120 restaurants are located within two blocks of the New Haven Green. The city is home to an eclectic mix of ethnic restaurants and small markets specializing in various foreign foods. Represented cuisines include Malaysian, Ethiopian, Spanish, Belgian, French, Greek, Latin American, Mexican, Italian, Thai, Chinese, Japanese, Vietnamese, Korean, Indian, Jamaican, Cuban, Peruvian, Syrian/Lebanese, and Turkish.
What dish is commonly considered to be penultimate culinary achievement in New Haven?
5727aec04b864d1900163a4a
New Haven-style pizza
144
False
What is the colloquial term afforded to New Haven-style pizza?
5727aec04b864d1900163a4b
"apizza"
174
False
At what New Haven establishment did "apizza" make it's inaugural appearance in 1925?
5727aec04b864d1900163a4c
Frank Pepe Pizzeria Napoletana
278
False
What ingredient is notably absent from a New Haven-style pizza when ordered plain?
5727aec04b864d1900163a4d
mozzarella cheese
584
False
In what section of New Haven would one expect to find an outstanding white clam pie pizza on Wooster Street?
5727aec04b864d1900163a4e
Little Italy
753
False
New Haven, in terms of food is best known for what?
572a3b543f37b319004787ef
pizza
55
False
Where did New Haven pizza style originated from?
572a3b543f37b319004787f0
Frank Pepe Pizzeria Napoletana
278
False
In general what are "apizza" known for?
572a3b543f37b319004787f1
its thin crust
407
False
White clam pie is found in what district of New Haven?
572a3b543f37b319004787f2
Wooster Street in the Little Italy section
731
False
In what year was New Haven-style pizza found?
572a3b543f37b319004787f3
1925
330
False
New Haven's greatest culinary claim to fame may be its pizza, which has been claimed to be among the best in the country, or even in the world. New Haven-style pizza, called "apizza" (pronounced ah-BEETS, [aˈpitts] in the original Italian dialect), made its debut at the iconic Frank Pepe Pizzeria Napoletana (known as Pepe's) in 1925. Apizza is baked in coal- or wood-fired brick ovens, and is notable for its thin crust. Apizza may be red (with a tomato-based sauce) or white (with a sauce of garlic and olive oil), and pies ordered "plain" are made without the otherwise customary mozzarella cheese (originally smoked mozzarella, known as "scamorza" in Italian). A white clam pie is a well-known specialty of the restaurants on Wooster Street in the Little Italy section of New Haven, including Pepe's and Sally's Apizza (which opened in 1938). Modern Apizza on State Street, which opened in 1934, is also well-known.
What landmark New Haven fast food establishment is located on Crown Street?
5727afea2ca10214002d93cc
Louis' Lunch
50
False
In what year did Louis' Lunch begin serving fast food in New Haven?
5727afea2ca10214002d93cd
1895
160
False
Who is the founder of Louis' Lunch in New Haven?
5727afea2ca10214002d93ce
Louis Lassen
216
False
What body of the federal government credits New Haven resident Louis Lassen with inventing the hamburger and steak sandwich?
5727afea2ca10214002d93cf
Library of Congress
248
False
Which New Haven resident patented a cast iron stove using grid irons in 1939?
5727afea2ca10214002d93d0
Luigi Pieragostini
476
False
Louis' Lunch is popular for serving what?
572a3c136aef0514001553c0
the hamburger
283
False
What specifically how does Louis' Lunch cooks its' food?
572a3c136aef0514001553c1
1898 cast iron stoves using gridirons
410
False
When was Louis's Lunch found?
572a3c136aef0514001553c2
1895
160
False
A second New Haven gastronomical claim to fame is Louis' Lunch, which is located in a small brick building on Crown Street and has been serving fast food since 1895. Though fiercely debated, the restaurant's founder Louis Lassen is credited by the Library of Congress with inventing the hamburger and steak sandwich. Louis' Lunch broils hamburgers, steak sandwiches and hot dogs vertically in original antique 1898 cast iron stoves using gridirons, patented by local resident Luigi Pieragostini in 1939, that hold the meat in place while it cooks.
At what cross streets, marking the center of the Hospital Green of Yale - New Haven Hospital, do food carts congregate on weekdays?
5727b27d4b864d1900163aa6
Cedar and York streets
264
False
What college of Yale is located at Elm and York Streets in New Haven?
5727b27d4b864d1900163aa7
Trumbull College
299
False
What school of Yale is located nearest the intersection of Prospect and Sachem streets?
5727b27d4b864d1900163aa8
Yale School of Management
402
False
What New Haven non-profit manages the farmer's markets that service various neighborhoods weekly throughout the area?
5727b27d4b864d1900163aa9
CitySeed
487
False
How many lunch carts are there in Yale's Campus during lunchtime?
572a3cf63f37b3190047880b
over 150
26
False
Who manages New Haven's farmers' market?
572a3cf63f37b3190047880c
Fair Haven,
577
False
New Haven Hospital is located at where in Hospital Green?
572a3cf63f37b3190047880d
Cedar and York streets
264
False
During weekday lunchtime, over 150 lunch carts and food trucks from neighborhood restaurants cater to different student populations throughout Yale's campus. The carts cluster at three main points: by Yale – New Haven Hospital in the center of the Hospital Green (Cedar and York streets), by Yale's Trumbull College (Elm and York streets), and on the intersection of Prospect and Sachem streets by the Yale School of Management. Popular farmers' markets, managed by the local non-profit CitySeed, set up shop weekly in several neighborhoods, including Westville/Edgewood Park, Fair Haven, Upper State Street, Wooster Square, and Downtown/New Haven Green.
In addition to Yale Reparatory Theatre, what are two additional major theatre houses located in New Haven?
5727b42d4b864d1900163aca
Long Wharf Theatre, and the Shubert Theatre
98
False
What is the name of the student-run group at Yale University provides theatrical productions in New Haven?
5727b42d4b864d1900163acb
Yale Cabaret
273
False
What New Haven performance venue is hosted by Southern Connecticut State University?
5727b42d4b864d1900163acc
Lyman Center for the Performing Arts
335
False
What was the original name of the College Street Music Hall?
5727b42d4b864d1900163acd
Palace Theatre
387
False
In what year did the newly renovated College Street Music Hall reopen?
5727b42d4b864d1900163ace
2015
509
False
What theater sits on Yale's campus?
572a43916aef0514001553e2
Yale University Theatre
229
False
The Southern Connecticut State University has it own theater as while, it's name?
572a43916aef0514001553e3
Lyman Center
335
False
What theater is currently under renovation in the city?
572a43916aef0514001553e4
The shuttered Palace Theatre
373
False
What school in New Haven is known for it's theater being used by both students and church?
572a43916aef0514001553e5
Cooperative Arts and Humanities High School
578
False
Yale also has a theater managed by its' own student, then name?
572a43916aef0514001553e6
Yale Cabaret.
273
False
The city hosts numerous theatres and production houses, including the Yale Repertory Theatre, the Long Wharf Theatre, and the Shubert Theatre. There is also theatre activity from the Yale School of Drama, which works through the Yale University Theatre and the student-run Yale Cabaret. Southern Connecticut State University hosts the Lyman Center for the Performing Arts. The shuttered Palace Theatre (opposite the Shubert Theatre) is being renovated and will reopen as the College Street Music Hall in May, 2015. Smaller theatres include the Little Theater on Lincoln Street. Cooperative Arts and Humanities High School also boasts a state-of-the-art theatre on College Street. The theatre is used for student productions as well as the home to weekly services to a local non-denominational church, the City Church New Haven.
At what New Haven museum is an original copy of the Gutenberg Bible housed?
5727b5f02ca10214002d9488
Beinecke Rare Book and Manuscript Library
75
False
What New Haven landmark serves as the nation's oldest college art museum?
5727b5f02ca10214002d9489
Yale University Art Gallery
585
False
What New Haven museum offers the largest collection of British art available outside of the UK?
5727b5f02ca10214002d948a
Yale Center for British Art
479
False
What museum is located in Hamden on Whitney Street and dedicated to a notable New Haven inventor?
5727b5f02ca10214002d948b
Eli Whitney Museum
390
False
With what major university are the majority of museums in New Haven associated?
5727b5f02ca10214002d948c
Yale
65
False
Which museum feature the original copy of the Gutenberg Bible?
572a470efed8de19000d5b65
The Beinecke Rare Book and Manuscript
71
False
Yale claim to have the oldest college art museum in the United States, what is the name of the place?
572a470efed8de19000d5b66
Yale University Art Gallery
585
False
There is a museum on Whitney Avenue that contain a variety of historical treasure, what is its' name?
572a470efed8de19000d5b67
New Haven Museum and Historical Society
701
False
What is the name of the museum that specifically focus on a single inventor located the city?
572a470efed8de19000d5b68
the Eli Whitney Museum
386
False
New Haven has a variety of museums, many of them associated with Yale. The Beinecke Rare Book and Manuscript Library features an original copy of the Gutenberg Bible. There is also the Connecticut Children's Museum; the Knights of Columbus museum near that organization's world headquarters; the Peabody Museum of Natural History; the Yale University Collection of Musical Instruments; the Eli Whitney Museum (across the town line in Hamden, Connecticut, on Whitney Avenue); the Yale Center for British Art, which houses the largest collection of British art outside the U.K., and the Yale University Art Gallery, the nation's oldest college art museum.[citation needed] New Haven is also home to the New Haven Museum and Historical Society on Whitney Avenue, which has a library of many primary source treasures dating from Colonial times to the present.
What is the name of a prominent contemporary art gallery on Orange Street in New Haven?
5727b7823acd2414000dea73
Artspace
0
False
What are two contemporary art galleries located in downtown New Haven?
5727b7823acd2414000dea74
City Gallery and A. Leaf Gallery
170
False
In what area of New Haven are Kehler Liddel, Jennider Jane Gallery, and The Hungry Eye Gallery located?
5727b7823acd2414000dea75
Westville
225
False
What New Haven gallery is housed in the Erector Square complex located in the Fair Haven neighborhood?
5727b7823acd2414000dea76
Parachute Factory
381
False
For what annual New Haven art event, held in early October, is the Erector Square complex used?
5727b7823acd2414000dea77
City-Wide Open Studios
498
False
What is the name of the art gallery that hosts multiple artist locally and around the world?
572a48aefed8de19000d5b6d
Artspace
0
False
This gallery contains works of artist such as The Hungry Eye, what is name of the place?
572a48affed8de19000d5b6e
Westville galleries
225
False
The Erector Square complex is a gallery that is located where?
572a48affed8de19000d5b6f
Fair Haven neighborhood houses
346
False
During which month is the complex particularly active?
572a48affed8de19000d5b70
October
536
False
Artspace on Orange Street is one of several contemporary art galleries around the city, showcasing the work of local, national, and international artists. Others include City Gallery and A. Leaf Gallery in the downtown area. Westville galleries include Kehler Liddell, Jennifer Jane Gallery, and The Hungry Eye. The Erector Square complex in the Fair Haven neighborhood houses the Parachute Factory gallery along with numerous artist studios, and the complex serves as an active destination during City-Wide Open Studios held yearly in October.
What public area in New Haven is home to free concerts in the summer?
5727b8ae3acd2414000dea8f
New Haven Green
4
False
What musical festival was initiated in 1982 in New Haven?
5727b8ae3acd2414000dea90
New Haven Jazz Festival
205
False
In what year was the New Haven Jazz Festival cancelled, thereby precluding it from being one of the longest running free outdoor festivals in the U.S.?
5727b8ae3acd2414000dea91
2007
372
False
Who sponsors the New Haven Jazz Festival?
5727b8ae3acd2414000dea92
Jazz Haven
624
False
What is the name for the concerts held on New Haven Green throughout the month of July?
5727b8ae3acd2414000dea93
July Free Concerts
156
False
What popular events that place in New Haven Green area?
572a4a2a1d046914007798cb
free music concerts
40
False
When did the first Jazz Festival made it debut?
572a4a2a1d046914007798cc
1982
274
False
In general how many people attend these music concerts?
572a4a2a1d046914007798cd
30,000 to 50,000 fans
477
False
After being cancel in 2007, what organization currently support New Haven Jazz Festival?
572a4a2a1d046914007798ce
Jazz Haven
624
False
The New Haven Green is the site of many free music concerts, especially during the summer months. These have included the New Haven Symphony Orchestra, the July Free Concerts on the Green in July, and the New Haven Jazz Festival in August. The Jazz Festival, which began in 1982, is one of the longest-running free outdoor festivals in the U.S., until it was canceled for 2007. Headliners such as The Breakfast, Dave Brubeck, Ray Charles and Celia Cruz have historically drawn 30,000 to 50,000 fans, filling up the New Haven Green to capacity. The New Haven Jazz Festival was revived in 2008 and has been sponsored since by Jazz Haven.
To what annual art festival is the city of New Haven home?
5727bcdfff5b5019007d93d2
International Festival of Arts and Ideas
100
False
What was the inaugural year of the New Haven St. Patrick's Day parade?
5727bcdfff5b5019007d93d3
1842
197
False
In what historic New Haven neighborhood does the St. Andrew the Apostle Italian festival take place?
5727bcdfff5b5019007d93d4
Wooster Square
402
False
What annual festival, celebrated on New Haven Green, memorializes the New Haven's passage into the Revolutionary War?
5727bcdfff5b5019007d93d5
Powder House Day
600
False
In what year did Film Fest New Haven begin?
5727bcdfff5b5019007d93d6
1995
1067
False
What international event celebrating art is hosted in New Haven?
572b8670be1ee31400cb83fb
International Festival of Arts and Ideas
100
False
As one of the oldest and largest traditions, how long have the city been celebrating Saint Patrick's Day?
572b8670be1ee31400cb83fc
1842
197
False
Which event takes place every year in Wooster Square since the beginning of the 20th century?
572b8670be1ee31400cb83fd
St. Andrew the Apostle Italian Festival
330
False
What organization was responsible for the planting of several cherry blossom trees in 1973?
572b8670be1ee31400cb83fe
New Haven Historic Commission
847
False
In general how many people attend  the yearly Wooster Square Cheery Blossom Festival?
572b8670be1ee31400cb83ff
over 5,000 visitors
993
False
In addition to the Jazz Festival (described above), New Haven serves as the home city of the annual International Festival of Arts and Ideas. New Haven's Saint Patrick's Day parade, which began in 1842, is New England's oldest St. Patty's Day parade and draws the largest crowds of any one-day spectator event in Connecticut. The St. Andrew the Apostle Italian Festival has taken place in the historic Wooster Square neighborhood every year since 1900. Other parishes in the city celebrate the Feast of Saint Anthony of Padua and a carnival in honor of St. Bernadette Soubirous. New Haven celebrates Powder House Day every April on the New Haven Green to commemorate the city's entrance into the Revolutionary War. The annual Wooster Square Cherry Blossom Festival commemorates the 1973 planting of 72 Yoshino Japanese Cherry Blossom trees by the New Haven Historic Commission in collaboration with the New Haven Parks Department and residents of the neighborhood. The Festival now draws well over 5,000 visitors. The Film Fest New Haven has been held annually since 1995.
What is the name of the major daily editorial newspaper for the city of New Haven?
5727be76ff5b5019007d9414
New Haven Register
33
False
What is the civic news forum that specifically reports on downtown New Haven?
5727be76ff5b5019007d9415
Design New Haven
320
False
What weekly entertainment print news source for New Haven is backed by The Register?
5727be76ff5b5019007d9416
PLAY magazine
362
False
Channel 65 is New Haven's home to what PBS affiliate?
5727be76ff5b5019007d9417
Connecticut Public Television
673
False
What weekly publication in New Haven is issued by Yale University?
5727be76ff5b5019007d9418
Yale Herald
510
False
What is the main newspaper company for New Haven?
572b881ebe1ee31400cb840f
New Haven Register
33
False
The other newspaper, New Haven Advocate is run by which company?
572b881ebe1ee31400cb8410
Tribune
114
False
There is newspaper company within the city that runs monthly, it's name ?
572b881ebe1ee31400cb8411
Grand News Community Newspaper
225
False
What is the name of the tabloid that is run by mainly college students?
572b881ebe1ee31400cb8412
Rumpus Magazine
543
False
In terms of news and sports does New Haven receive television broadcasting from other cities?
572b881ebe1ee31400cb8413
All New York City news and sports
771
False
New Haven is served by the daily New Haven Register, the weekly "alternative" New Haven Advocate (which is run by Tribune, the corporation owning the Hartford Courant), the online daily New Haven Independent, and the monthly Grand News Community Newspaper. Downtown New Haven is covered by an in-depth civic news forum, Design New Haven. The Register also backs PLAY magazine, a weekly entertainment publication. The city is also served by several student-run papers, including the Yale Daily News, the weekly Yale Herald and a humor tabloid, Rumpus Magazine. WTNH Channel 8, the ABC affiliate for Connecticut, WCTX Channel 59, the MyNetworkTV affiliate for the state, and Connecticut Public Television station WEDY channel 65, a PBS affiliate, broadcast from New Haven. All New York City news and sports team stations broadcast to New Haven County.
What NFL team played at the Yale Bowl from 1973-1974?
5727bfa5ff5b5019007d9432
New York Giants
199
False
In what year was the New Haven Arena demolished?
5727bfa5ff5b5019007d9433
1972
476
False
At what currently defunct New Haven venues did minor league hockey and baseball teams play throughout the latter half of the 20th century?
5727bfa5ff5b5019007d9434
New Haven Arena (built in 1926, demolished in 1972), New Haven Coliseum (1972–2002)
430
False
In what year was Yale field established in New Haven?
5727bfa5ff5b5019007d9435
1928
531
False
The city of New Haven has been known for it various sport teams for how long?
572b8ba1be1ee31400cb842b
19th century
77
False
What famous NFL team played in New Haven own stadium in the 70s?
572b8ba1be1ee31400cb842c
New York Giants
199
False
The city has couple of sport stadium which one of them was torn down in 20th century?
572b8ba1be1ee31400cb842d
New Haven Arena
430
False
In modern day which of the stadiums have continue to host minor sport leagues?
572b8ba1be1ee31400cb842e
Yale Field
519
False
How long has  Yale Field been open and active?
572b8ba1be1ee31400cb842f
1928–present
531
False
New Haven has a history of professional sports franchises dating back to the 19th century and has been the home to professional baseball, basketball, football, hockey, and soccer teams—including the New York Giants of the National Football League from 1973 to 1974, who played at the Yale Bowl. Throughout the second half of the 20th century, New Haven consistently had minor league hockey and baseball teams, which played at the New Haven Arena (built in 1926, demolished in 1972), New Haven Coliseum (1972–2002), and Yale Field (1928–present).
What 1995 mayor of New Haven sought to reinvent the area into a northeastern hub of art and culture?
5727c17c3acd2414000debc5
John DeStefano, Jr.
5
False
What sports complex was shuttered in New Haven by the DeStefano administration in 2002?
5727c17c3acd2414000debc6
New Haven Coliseum
304
False
What was New Haven's last professional sports team?
5727c17c3acd2414000debc7
New Haven County Cutters
541
False
What indoor sporting complex in New Haven was constructed by the DeStefano administration in 1998?
5727c17c3acd2414000debc8
New Haven Athletic Center
652
False
What is the approximate seating capacity of the New Haven Athletic Center?
5727c17c3acd2414000debc9
over 3,000
771
False
Who was the mayor for the city in the late 90s?
572b8e48be1ee31400cb8435
John DeStefano, Jr
5
False
Due to the heavy upkeep, DeStefano decided to close what major infrastructure in the city?
572b8e48be1ee31400cb8436
New Haven Coliseum
304
False
When was the last time New Haven had a professional sport team?
572b8e48be1ee31400cb8437
2009
575
False
In terms of capacity how big was the new constructed New Haven Athletic Center?
572b8e48be1ee31400cb8438
over 3,000
771
False
When John DeStefano, Jr., became mayor of New Haven in 1995, he outlined a plan to transform the city into a major cultural and arts center in the Northeast, which involved investments in programs and projects other than sports franchises. As nearby Bridgeport built new sports facilities, the brutalist New Haven Coliseum rapidly deteriorated. Believing the upkeep on the venue to be a drain of tax dollars, the DeStefano administration closed the Coliseum in 2002; it was demolished in 2007. New Haven's last professional sports team, the New Haven County Cutters, left in 2009. The DeStefano administration did, however, see the construction of the New Haven Athletic Center in 1998, a 94,000-square-foot (8,700 m2) indoor athletic facility with a seating capacity of over 3,000. The NHAC, built adjacent to Hillhouse High School, is used for New Haven public schools athletics, as well as large-scale area and state sporting events; it is the largest high school indoor sports complex in the state.
In what year did New Haven host the Special Olympic Summer World Games?
5727c28c3acd2414000debdf
1995
30
False
What major tennis event take place annually every August in New Haven?
5727c28c3acd2414000debe0
Pilot Pen International
157
False
What is the name of the tennis complex, cited as one of the largest worldwide, located in New Haven?
5727c28c3acd2414000debe1
Connecticut Tennis Center
233
False
What is the nickname of the historic football rivalry between Yale and Harvard hosted annually in New Haven?
5727c28c3acd2414000debe2
"The Game"
334
False
What year did New Haven became a host for the Specials Olympics?
572b91a4f75d5e190021fe4a
1995
30
False
The city also host a large international tennis event, when does it usually take place?
572b91a4f75d5e190021fe4b
every August
213
False
"The Game" is a special event that focus on what sort of rivalry between the colleges?
572b91a4f75d5e190021fe4c
college football
399
False
What is the name of major road race that places within the city?
572b91a4f75d5e190021fe4d
USA 20K Championship
484
False
New Haven was the host of the 1995 Special Olympics World Summer Games; then-President Bill Clinton spoke at the opening ceremonies. The city is home to the Pilot Pen International tennis event, which takes place every August at the Connecticut Tennis Center, one of the largest tennis venues in the world. New Haven biannually hosts "The Game" between Yale and Harvard, the country's second-oldest college football rivalry. Numerous road races take place in New Haven, including the USA 20K Championship during the New Haven Road Race.
New Haven served as home to what two notable 19th century architects?
5727c5c42ca10214002d95f6
Ithiel Town and Henry Austin
249
False
What division of Yale University is credited with nurturing the architectural component of New Havens economy?
5727c5c42ca10214002d95f7
The Yale School of Architecture
390
False
Who is the notable artist of the Beaux-Arts school responsible for designing both New Haven's Union Station and New Haven Public Library?
5727c5c42ca10214002d95f8
Cass Gilbert
483
False
In what year did New Haven commission the City Beautiful plan?
5727c5c42ca10214002d95f9
1919
651
False
Who is responsible for designing Ingalls Rink at Yale University in New Haven?
5727c5c42ca10214002d95fa
Eero Saarinen
986
False
New Haven is also known for a very notable architecture institution, it's name?
572b93c834ae481900deaea9
Yale School of Architecture
394
False
Who was the architect that design the New Haven Free Public Library?
572b93c834ae481900deaeaa
Cass Gilbert
483
False
What was the name of the building that was feature in America's Favorite Architecture list of 2007?
572b93c834ae481900deaeab
Ingalls Rink
960
False
New Haven has many architectural landmarks dating from every important time period and architectural style in American history. The city has been home to a number of architects and architectural firms that have left their mark on the city including Ithiel Town and Henry Austin in the 19th century and Cesar Pelli, Warren Platner, Kevin Roche, Herbert Newman and Barry Svigals in the 20th. The Yale School of Architecture has fostered this important component of the city's economy. Cass Gilbert, of the Beaux-Arts school, designed New Haven's Union Station and the New Haven Free Public Library and was also commissioned for a City Beautiful plan in 1919. Frank Lloyd Wright, Marcel Breuer, Alexander Jackson Davis, Philip C. Johnson, Gordon Bunshaft, Louis Kahn, James Gamble Rogers, Frank Gehry, Charles Willard Moore, Stefan Behnisch, James Polshek, Paul Rudolph, Eero Saarinen and Robert Venturi all have designed buildings in New Haven. Yale's 1950s-era Ingalls Rink, designed by Eero Saarinen, was included on the America's Favorite Architecture list created in 2007.
How many properties in New Haven are featured on the National Register of Historic Places?
5727c7ed2ca10214002d9614
59
59
False
In 1868, which famous author is reported to have declared New Haven's Hillhouse Avenue to be "the most beautiful street in America?"
5727c7ed2ca10214002d9615
Charles Dickens
1007
False
Of the three churches flanking New Haven Green, which is home to a notorious 17th century crypt?
5727c7ed2ca10214002d9616
Center Church on-the-Green
377
False
What famous American traitor has a first wife buried in a 17th century crypt in a New Haven church flanking New Haven Green?
5727c7ed2ca10214002d9617
Benedict Arnold
517
False
What structure of Yale University, listed on the National Register of Historic Places, holds the distinction of being the oldest building on campus?
5727c7ed2ca10214002d9618
Connecticut Hall
722
False
According to the National Register of Historic Places how many historical sites are there in New Haven?
572b9576be1ee31400cb8455
59
59
False
In what year was the famous The New Haven Green founded?
572b9576be1ee31400cb8456
1638
281
False
What tourist spot can be found directly underneath the New Haven Green?
572b9576be1ee31400cb8457
a 17th-century crypt
410
False
Yale University also contains a historical site within it campus, the name of it?
572b9576be1ee31400cb8458
Hillhouse Avenue
801
False
Many historical sites exist throughout the city, including 59 properties listed on the National Register of Historic Places. Of these, nine are among the 60 U.S. National Historic Landmarks in Connecticut. The New Haven Green, one of the National Historic Landmarks, was formed in 1638, and is home to three 19th-century churches. Below one of the churches (referred to as the Center Church on-the-Green) lies a 17th-century crypt, which is open to visitors. Some of the more famous burials include the first wife of Benedict Arnold and the aunt and grandmother of President Rutherford B. Hayes; Hayes visited the crypt while President in 1880. The Old Campus of Yale University is located next to the Green, and includes Connecticut Hall, Yale's oldest building and a National Historic Landmark. The Hillhouse Avenue area, which is listed on the National Register of Historic Places and is also a part of Yale's campus, has been called a walkable museum, due to its 19th-century mansions and street scape; Charles Dickens is said to have called Hillhouse Avenue "the most beautiful street in America" when visiting the city in 1868.
What structure was ordered to be built in New Haven in 1776 to protect the port at the outset of the Revolutionary War?
5727ca06ff5b5019007d9554
Black Rock Fort
120
False
In what year was Black Rock Fort captured by the British in New Haven and incinerated?
5727ca06ff5b5019007d9555
1779
224
False
After which revolutionary war hero and New Haven native was Black Rock Fort rechristened upon reconstruction in 1807?
5727ca06ff5b5019007d9556
Nathan Hale
480
False
What two fortifications distinguished the second Fort Hale built in New Haven during the Civil War?
5727ca06ff5b5019007d9557
bomb-resistant bunkers and a moat
751
False
In what year did the U.S. Congress afford Connecticut the deed to the site at Fort Hale in New Haven?
5727ca06ff5b5019007d9558
1921
918
False
Black Rock Fort was built in response to what event in the 18th century?
572b97b734ae481900deaeb5
the American Revolutionary War
6
False
The fort was destroy during the fighting only to be rebuilt in what year?
572b97b734ae481900deaeb6
1807
373
False
Why exactly was the fort rename to Fort Nathan Hale?
572b97b734ae481900deaeb7
Revolutionary War hero
503
False
During the Civil War, New Haven needed to be further fortify incase of another invasion, what structure did the city built?
572b97b734ae481900deaeb8
a second Fort Hale was built
686
False
The federal government pass the ownership of the fort to the state of Connecticut, what year was this?
572b97b734ae481900deaeb9
1921
918
False
After the American Revolutionary War broke out in 1776, the Connecticut colonial government ordered the construction of Black Rock Fort (to be built on top of an older 17th-century fort) to protect the port of New Haven. In 1779, during the Battle of New Haven, British soldiers captured Black Rock Fort and burned the barracks to the ground. The fort was reconstructed in 1807 by the federal government (on orders from the Thomas Jefferson administration), and rechristened Fort Nathan Hale, after the Revolutionary War hero who had lived in New Haven. The cannons of Fort Nathan Hale were successful in defying British war ships during the War of 1812. In 1863, during the Civil War, a second Fort Hale was built next to the original, complete with bomb-resistant bunkers and a moat, to defend the city should a Southern raid against New Haven be launched. The United States Congress deeded the site to the state in 1921, and all three versions of the fort have been restored. The site is now listed on the National Register of Historic Places and receives thousands of visitors each year.
What cemetery in New Haven is situated next to the campus of Yale University and has been designated a National Historic Landmark?
5727cbba3acd2414000dec91
Grove Street
0
False
In what architectural style is the gateway of Grove Street Cemetery notably designed?
5727cbba3acd2414000dec92
Egyptian Revival
276
False
What Beaux Arts structure on New Haven's Chapel Street was built on the site believed to formerly feature the home of Roger Sherman?
5727cbba3acd2414000dec93
The Union League Club of New Haven building
302
False
What former U.S. president is believed to have stayed in New Haven at the home of Roger Sherman?
5727cbba3acd2414000dec94
George Washington
504
False
Which notable New Haven resident inventor, credited with the cotton gin, is buried in Grove Street Cemetery?
5727cbba3acd2414000dec95
Eli Whitney
128
False
What is the name of the historical site that site next to Yale's campus?
572b995234ae481900deaebf
Grove Street Cemetery
0
False
What is Grove Street Cemetery famously known for?
572b995234ae481900deaec0
Egyptian Revival gateway
276
False
Roger Sherman once lived in Chapel Street, in modern day what is the name building that sit in its' place?
572b995234ae481900deaec1
Union League Club
306
False
George Washington once paid visit to Sherman's house, what year was this?
572b995234ae481900deaec2
1789
590
False
Grove Street Cemetery, a National Historic Landmark which lies adjacent to Yale's campus, contains the graves of Roger Sherman, Eli Whitney, Noah Webster, Josiah Willard Gibbs, Charles Goodyear and Walter Camp, among other notable burials. The cemetery is known for its grand Egyptian Revival gateway. The Union League Club of New Haven building, located on Chapel Street, is notable for not only being a historic Beaux-Arts building, but also is built on the site where Roger Sherman's home once stood; George Washington is known to have stayed at the Sherman residence while President in 1789 (one of three times Washington visited New Haven throughout his lifetime).
Throughout the Roaring Twenties, what public beach in New Haven was a favored destination for tourists?
5727cedf2ca10214002d96fa
Lighthouse Point Park
0
False
Which famed professional baseball player is known to have visited at Lighthouse Point Park in New Haven during the 1920's?
5727cedf2ca10214002d96fb
Babe Ruth
162
False
What notable New Haven attraction constructed in 1847 was located at Lighthouse Point Park?
5727cedf2ca10214002d96fc
Five Mile Point Lighthouse
249
False
In what year was New Haven's Lighthouse Point carousel constructed?
5727cedf2ca10214002d96fd
1916
348
False
In what year was Five Mile Point Lighthouse decommissioned upon construction of Southwest Ledge Lighthouse?
5727cedf2ca10214002d96fe
1877
398
False
What popular tourist site was particularly active during the 20s?
572b9b14be1ee31400cb845d
Lighthouse Point Park
0
False
In 1847, a new landmark was constructed at the park, what exactly was it?
572b9b14be1ee31400cb845e
Lighthouse
265
False
After 1877 another lighthouse was build to replace File Mile Point, what was its' name?
572b9b14be1ee31400cb845f
Southwest Ledge Light
433
False
Is Southwest Ledge Light still active today?
572b9b14be1ee31400cb8460
in service to this day
500
False
Lighthouse Point Park, a public beach run by the city, was a popular tourist destination during the Roaring Twenties, attracting luminaries of the period such as Babe Ruth and Ty Cobb. The park remains popular among New Haveners, and is home to the Five Mile Point Lighthouse, constructed in 1847, and the Lighthouse Point Carousel, constructed in 1916. Five Mile Point Light was decommissioned in 1877 following the construction of Southwest Ledge Light at the entrance of the harbor, which remains in service to this day. Both of the lighthouses and the carousel are listed on the National Register of Historic Places.
How many Amtrak lines service Union Station?
5727d1343acd2414000ded23
four
35
False
Which transit lines out of Union Station are ranked as the busiest routes in the U.S.?
5727d1343acd2414000ded24
Northeast Regional and the high-speed Acela Express
58
False
Which transit line out of Union Station provides service to Hartford and Springfield, Massachusetts?
5727d1343acd2414000ded25
New Haven–Springfield Line
236
False
With what airline does Amtrak codeshare for transit to Newark Airport that originates or terminates at Union Station?
5727d1343acd2414000ded26
United Airlines
469
False
Which transit line out of Union Station provides service between Vermont and Washington D.C.?
5727d1343acd2414000ded27
the Vermonter
328
False
What is the name of the train station within New Haven?
572ba73dbe1ee31400cb8483
Union Station
0
False
The train line that connects Connecticut, Massachusetts and Vermont together is known as what?
572ba73dbe1ee31400cb8484
New Haven–Springfield Line
236
False
In additions, the train line is also connected with which airline services?
572ba73dbe1ee31400cb8485
United Airlines
469
False
Union Station is further served by four Amtrak lines: the Northeast Regional and the high-speed Acela Express provide service to New York, Washington, D.C. and Boston, and rank as the first and second busiest routes in the country; the New Haven–Springfield Line provides service to Hartford and Springfield, Massachusetts; and the Vermonter provides service to both Washington, D.C., and Vermont, 15 miles (24 km) from the Canadian border. Amtrak also codeshares with United Airlines for travel to any airport serviced by United Airlines, via Newark Airport (EWR) originating from or terminating at Union Station, (IATA: ZVE).
What form of public transportation preceded the current New Haven Division bus routes?
5727d28c4b864d1900163df0
trolley service
79
False
What decade ushered in the operation of horse-drawn carriages in New Haven?
5727d28c4b864d1900163df1
the 1860s
150
False
What advancement was made to New Haven trolley lines in the mid 1890's?
5727d28c4b864d1900163df2
all the lines had become electric
182
False
What mode of public transportation in New Haven phased out the trolley service in the 1920's and 1930's?
5727d28c4b864d1900163df3
bus lines
291
False
In what year was the final trolley route in New Haven converted to a bus line?
5727d28c4b864d1900163df4
1948
350
False
Buses in New Haven uses what kind of route for their service?
572bad4734ae481900deaed7
trolley
79
False
Before 20th century, what was the form of public transportation in the city?
572bad4734ae481900deaed8
Horse-drawn steetcars
96
False
In what year were trolleys finally replaced completely by buses?
572bad4734ae481900deaed9
1948
350
False
What further ideas for public transportation is the city currently considering?
572bad4734ae481900deaeda
streetcar (light-rail) service
440
False
The New Haven Division buses follow routes that had originally been covered by trolley service. Horse-drawn steetcars began operating in New Haven in the 1860s, and by the mid-1890s all the lines had become electric. In the 1920s and 1930s, some of the trolley lines began to be replaced by bus lines, with the last trolley route converted to bus in 1948. The City of New Haven is in the very early stages of considering the restoration of streetcar (light-rail) service, which has been absent since the postwar period.
What rail trail is slated to run between downtown New Haven and Northampton, Massachusetts?
5727d5234b864d1900163e1c
The Farmington Canal Trail
0
False
What historic trail does the Farmington Canal Trail follow?
5727d5234b864d1900163e1d
New Haven and Northampton Company
186
False
What canal lies adjacent to the Historic New Haven and Northamption company trail?
5727d5234b864d1900163e1e
Farmington Canal
228
False
What proposed bike path, projected connect every major city on the eastern seaboard, is part of the Farmington Canal Trail?
5727d5234b864d1900163e1f
East Coast Greenway
461
False
What is the name of the trail that runs from to New Haven all the way to Eastern Massachusetts?
572baec6111d821400f38f44
Farmington Canal Trail
4
False
Part of the rail trail is also accessible by what form of transportation?
572baec6111d821400f38f45
bicycle
372
False
Segments of the Farmington Canal is also part of which bicycle trail?
572baec6111d821400f38f46
East Coast Greenway
461
False
In terms of length, how long is the East Coast Greenway trail if it stretches from Maine to Florida?
572baec6111d821400f38f47
3,000-mile
493
False
The Farmington Canal Trail is a rail trail that will eventually run continuously from downtown New Haven to Northampton, Massachusetts. The scenic trail follows the path of the historic New Haven and Northampton Company and the Farmington Canal. Currently, there is a continuous 14-mile (23 km) stretch of the trail from downtown, through Hamden and into Cheshire, making bicycle commuting between New Haven and those suburbs possible. The trail is part of the East Coast Greenway, a proposed 3,000-mile (4,800 km) bike path that would link every major city on the East Coast from Florida to Maine.
In what year did Orange Street receive the first bike lane in New Haven?
5727d6cf2ca10214002d97ca
2004
3
False
For which New Haven neighborhood did the Orange Street bike lane provide a connection to downtown?
5727d6cf2ca10214002d97cb
East Rock
103
False
In addition to Orange Street, what is a bike route recommended for use by the city of New Haven?
5727d6cf2ca10214002d97cc
Canal Trail
377
False
In what year were bike lanes added on Dixwell Avenue and Howard Avenue?
5727d6cf2ca10214002d97cd
2012
524
False
When was the first bicycle lane created in New Haven?
572baff7f75d5e190021fe9c
2004
3
False
The lane stretch from East Rock park to what part of the city?
572baff7f75d5e190021fe9d
downtown
129
False
What year did New Haven finally integrated bike lanes to most of the city?
572baff7f75d5e190021fe9e
end of 2012
517
False
How is it possible to located the direction of bike lanes within the city?
572baff7f75d5e190021fe9f
bike map of the city
419
False
In 2004, the first bike lane in the city was added to Orange Street, connecting East Rock Park and the East Rock neighborhood to downtown. Since then, bike lanes have also been added to sections of Howard Ave, Elm St, Dixwell Avenue, Water Street, Clinton Avenue and State Street. The city has created recommended bike routes for getting around New Haven, including use of the Canal Trail and the Orange Street lane. A bike map of the city entire can be seen here , and bike maps broken down by area here . As of the end of 2012, bicycle lanes have also been added in both directions on Dixwell Avenue along most of the street from downtown to the Hamden town line, as well as along Howard Avenue from Yale New Haven Hospital to City Point.
What major interstate provides access between New Haven and New York City?
5727d90c2ca10214002d97f8
Interstate 95
38
False
What major interstate in New Haven provides access northward into Massachusetts, Vermont, and eventually reaches the Canadian border?
5727d90c2ca10214002d97f9
Interstate 91
269
False
Over which New Haven river does 1-95 cross on the east side?
5727d90c2ca10214002d97fa
Quinnipiac River
503
False
What is the nickname given to the Pearl Harbor Memorial?
5727d90c2ca10214002d97fb
"Q Bridge"
554
False
Which New Haven interstate is less congested throughout times designated as peak travel?
5727d90c2ca10214002d97fc
I-91
618
False
New Haven is adjacent to what part of the national highway?
572bb136f75d5e190021fea4
Interstate 95
38
False
Which of the nearby highway would take you north to Massachusetts?
572bb136f75d5e190021fea5
Interstate 91
269
False
Interstate 95 is also infamous for what exactly?
572bb136f75d5e190021fea6
traffic jams
397
False
What river crosses path with I-95?
572bb136f75d5e190021fea7
Quinnipiac River
503
False
Is I-91 similar to I-95 in terms of bad traffic?
572bb136f75d5e190021fea8
is relatively less congested
633
False
New Haven lies at the intersection of Interstate 95 on the coast—which provides access southwards and/or westwards to the western coast of Connecticut and to New York City, and eastwards to the eastern Connecticut shoreline, Rhode Island, and eastern Massachusetts—and Interstate 91, which leads northward to the interior of Massachusetts and Vermont and the Canadian border. I-95 is infamous for traffic jams increasing with proximity to New York City; on the east side of New Haven it passes over the Quinnipiac River via the Pearl Harbor Memorial, or "Q Bridge", which often presents a major bottleneck to traffic. I-91, however, is relatively less congested, except at the intersection with I-95 during peak travel times.
What downtown New Haven expressway spur intersects at exit 1 of 1-91?
5727dd2d3acd2414000dee53
The Oak Street Connector
0
False
What is another name for Connecticut Route 15, which provides an alternate route from traveling on 1-95/1/91?
5727dd2d3acd2414000dee54
The Wilbur Cross Parkway
224
False
What thoroughfare in New Haven features the only highway tunnel in Connecticut?
5727dd2d3acd2414000dee55
Route 15
535
False
What is the name of the highway tunnel on Route 15 in New Haven?
5727dd2d3acd2414000dee56
Heroes Tunnel
635
False
Through what neighborhood in New Haven does Route 15 run?
5727dd2d3acd2414000dee57
West Rock
667
False
Oak Street Connect crosses which interstate highway?
572bb385111d821400f38f4c
I-91 at exit 1
59
False
Connecticut Route 15 is next to which highway?
572bb385111d821400f38f4d
I-95 west of New Haven,
289
False
What is the name of the only highway tunnel in Connecticut?
572bb385111d821400f38f4e
Route 15
535
False
The Oak Street Connector (Connecticut Route 34) intersects I-91 at exit 1, just south of the I-95/I-91 interchange, and runs northwest for a few blocks as an expressway spur into downtown before emptying onto surface roads. The Wilbur Cross Parkway (Connecticut Route 15) runs parallel to I-95 west of New Haven, turning northwards as it nears the city and then running northwards parallel to I-91 through the outer rim of New Haven and Hamden, offering an alternative to the I-95/I-91 journey (restricted to non-commercial vehicles). Route 15 in New Haven is the site of the only highway tunnel in the state (officially designated as Heroes Tunnel), running through West Rock, home to West Rock Park and the Three Judges Cave.
What east-west artery in New Haven serves Union Station?
5727dee74b864d1900163eee
U.S. Route 1
50
False
What road leading northwest from downtown New Haven comprises both Route 10 and Route 63 at various points?
5727dee74b864d1900163eef
Whalley Avenue
321
False
What two major thoroughfares lie to the north of New Haven towards Hamden?
5727dee74b864d1900163ef0
Dixwell Avenue and Whitney Avenue
479
False
What northeast avenue in New Haven is signed as Route 17?
5727dee74b864d1900163ef1
Middletown
535
False
What western road provides access from New Haven to the city of Derby?
5727dee74b864d1900163ef2
Route 34
747
False
Where does U.S. Route 1 runs in terms of direction within the city?
572bb58f111d821400f38f52
east-west direction
135
False
What is the name of the route that heads north of downtown?
572bb58f111d821400f38f53
Whalley Avenue
321
False
What city does the western route 34 leads to?
572bb58f111d821400f38f54
Derby
784
False
What is another surface arteries that is located west of downtown New Haven?
572bb58f111d821400f38f55
Ella Grasso Boulevard
826
False
The city also has several major surface arteries. U.S. Route 1 (Columbus Avenue, Union Avenue, Water Street, Forbes Avenue) runs in an east-west direction south of downtown serving Union Station and leading out of the city to Milford, West Haven, East Haven and Branford. The main road from downtown heading northwest is Whalley Avenue (partly signed as Route 10 and Route 63) leading to Westville and Woodbridge. Heading north towards Hamden, there are two major thoroughfares, Dixwell Avenue and Whitney Avenue. To the northeast are Middletown Avenue (Route 17), which leads to the Montowese section of North Haven, and Foxon Boulevard (Route 80), which leads to the Foxon section of East Haven and to the town of North Branford. To the west is Route 34, which leads to the city of Derby. Other major intracity arteries are Ella Grasso Boulevard (Route 10) west of downtown, and College Street, Temple Street, Church Street, Elm Street, and Grove Street in the downtown area.
In what harbor is the Port of New Haven located?
5727e04eff5b5019007d974a
New Haven Harbor
0
False
How many trucks does the Port of New Haven have the daily capacity to load?
5727e04eff5b5019007d974b
200
225
False
In addition to ground service, what other function is available at the Port of New Haven for offloading truck cargo?
5727e04eff5b5019007d974c
loading docks
265
False
Approximately how many square feet of interior storage is available at the Port of New Haven?
5727e04eff5b5019007d974d
400,000
429
False
Approximately how many acres of outside storage does the Port of New Haven offer?
5727e04eff5b5019007d974e
50
483
False
The name of New Haven harbor?
572bb6bc34ae481900deaedf
Port of New Haven
32
False
In terms of scale how big is the harbor?
572bb6bc34ae481900deaee0
400,000 square feet
429
False
How many forklift are available for use in it everyday production?
572bb6bc34ae481900deaee1
26
597
False
How many transport vehicle can the harbor actually hold?
572bb6bc34ae481900deaee2
200
225
False
New Haven Harbor is home to the Port of New Haven, a deep-water seaport with three berths capable of hosting vessels and barges as well as the facilities required to handle break bulk cargo. The port has the capacity to load 200 trucks a day from the ground or via loading docks. Rail transportation access is available, with a private switch engine for yard movements and private siding for loading and unloading. Approximately 400,000 square feet (40,000 m2) of inside storage and 50 acres (200,000 m2) of outside storage are available at the site. Five shore cranes with a 250-ton capacity and 26 forklifts, each with a 26-ton capacity, are also available.
How many major medical centers are located in downtown New Haven?
5727e1cfff5b5019007d9770
two
128
False
What overarching New Haven medical center is the Smilow Cancer Hospital a part of?
5727e1cfff5b5019007d9771
Yale – New Haven Hospital
164
False
What hospital in New Haven provides notable cardiac emergency care?
5727e1cfff5b5019007d9772
Hospital of Saint Raphael
297
False
How many pavilions comprise Yale -- New Haven Hospital?
5727e1cfff5b5019007d9773
four
194
False
What is the mental health facility is located in New Haven?
5727e1cfff5b5019007d9774
Connecticut Mental Health Center
504
False
How many pavilion are part of New Haven Hospital?
572bb90c34ae481900deaee7
four pavilions
194
False
What hospital is located nearby a working class district within the city?
572bb90c34ae481900deaee8
Hill Health Center,
577
False
What is the hospital located north of New Haven in Meriden?
572bb90c34ae481900deaee9
MidState Medical Center
798
False
What is the name of the well known hospital specializes in young children patients?
572bb90c34ae481900deaeea
New Haven Children's Hospital
231
False
What nearby city would you go to for war related injuries?
572bb90c34ae481900deaeeb
West Haven
707
False
The New Haven area supports several medical facilities that are considered some of the best hospitals in the country. There are two major medical centers downtown: Yale – New Haven Hospital has four pavilions, including the Yale – New Haven Children's Hospital and the Smilow Cancer Hospital; the Hospital of Saint Raphael is several blocks north, and touts its excellent cardiac emergency care program. Smaller downtown health facilities are the Temple Medical Center located downtown on Temple Street, Connecticut Mental Health Center/ across Park Street from Y-NHH, and the Hill Health Center, which serves the working-class Hill neighborhood. A large Veterans Affairs hospital is located in neighboring West Haven. To the west in Milford is Milford Hospital, and to the north in Meriden is the MidState Medical Center.
Yale and New Haven are conjointly attempting to build the area into a research hub for what two industries?
5727e3874b864d1900163f4c
medical and biotechnology
42
False
What large site is run by Yale, in conjunction with New Haven and the state, situated three blocks away from Yale's Science hill campus?
5727e3874b864d1900163f4d
Science Park
213
False
To what corporation did the multi-block site comprising Science Park formerly belong?
5727e3874b864d1900163f4e
Winchester's and Olin
420
False
In addition to Yale employees and financial services, companies in what industry can currently be found in the functioning areas Science Park?
5727e3874b864d1900163f4f
biotech
740
False
What is the name of the collaborated project between Yale University, Connecticut and New Haven city?
572bbb82111d821400f38f62
Science Park
213
False
The area of Science Park was originally filled with what?
572bbb82111d821400f38f63
45 large-scale factory buildings
456
False
Although some of the Science Park area is used by multiple institutions and groups, what remains left over Winchester's and Olin company?
572bbb82111d821400f38f64
parking lots or abandoned structures
538
False
Yale and New Haven are working to build a medical and biotechnology research hub in the city and Greater New Haven region, and are succeeding to some extent.[citation needed] The city, state and Yale together run Science Park, a large site three blocks northwest of Yale's Science Hill campus. This multi-block site, approximately bordered by Mansfield Street, Division Street, and Shelton Avenue, is the former home of Winchester's and Olin Corporation's 45 large-scale factory buildings. Currently, sections of the site are large-scale parking lots or abandoned structures, but there is also a large remodeled and functioning area of buildings (leased primarily by a private developer) with numerous Yale employees, financial service and biotech companies.
On the median strip of what road is New Haven planning to create a secondary biotechnology district?
5727e50a2ca10214002d98f4
Frontage
73
False
What was originally slated to be built at the site of the proposed area for the secondary biotechnology district?
5727e50a2ca10214002d98f5
Route 34 extension
124
False
What major pharmaceutical company is currently operating a drug clinic in New Haven within the new biotechnology corridor?
5727e50a2ca10214002d98f6
Pfizer
163
False
What is the former SNET building in New Haven currently being converted for in the effort of attracting new medical or biotechnology firms?
5727e50a2ca10214002d98f7
lab space
446
False
Where will the second planned biotechnology district located?
572bc198be1ee31400cb8493
Frontage Road
73
False
What was the former name of the place now serving as a biotech building on 300 George Street?
572bc198be1ee31400cb8494
SNET telephone building
377
False
When was the opening of first building in the second biotech district?
572bc198be1ee31400cb8495
late 2009
150
False
A second biotechnology district is being planned for the median strip on Frontage Road, on land cleared for the never-built Route 34 extension. As of late 2009, a Pfizer drug-testing clinic, a medical laboratory building serving Yale – New Haven Hospital, and a mixed-use structure containing parking, housing and office space, have been constructed on this corridor. A former SNET telephone building at 300 George Street is being converted into lab space, and has been so far quite successful in attracting biotechnology and medical firms.
What static inverter plant lies near New Haven?
5727e83f3acd2414000def7f
HVDC Cross Sound Cable
57
False
How many PureCell Model 400 fuel cells can be found in New Haven?
5727e83f3acd2414000def80
three
91
False
How much money is each PureCell Model 400 fuel cell projected to save the city of New Haven in energy costs over the course of a decade?
5727e83f3acd2414000def81
$1 million
418
False
What company provided New Haven with the fuel cells currently in place throughout the city?
5727e83f3acd2414000def82
ClearEdge Power
492
False
The Cross Sound Cable company has what sort of structure located near New Haven?
572bc33134ae481900deaefd
static inverter plant
28
False
How many Model 400 fuel cell lies within New Haven?
572bc33134ae481900deaefe
three
91
False
What was the former name of the company that provided the fuel cells to the city?
572bc33134ae481900deaeff
UTC Power
518
False
In terms of budget, what is the estimated savings from using the fuel cell system?
572bc33134ae481900deaf00
$1 million in energy costs
418
False
Near New Haven there is the static inverter plant of the HVDC Cross Sound Cable. There are three PureCell Model 400 fuel cells placed in the city of New Haven—one at the New Haven Public Schools and newly constructed Roberto Clemente School, one at the mixed-use 360 State Street building, and one at City Hall. According to Giovanni Zinn of the city's Office of Sustainability, each fuel cell may save the city up to $1 million in energy costs over a decade. The fuel cells were provided by ClearEdge Power, formerly UTC Power.
At what former lodging facility in New Haven were scenes from the 1950's classic, All About Eve, filmed?
5727ea07ff5b5019007d9860
Taft Hotel
106
False
What Fred Astaire film depicts the reported history of New Haven theaters as "tryouts" for Broadway?
5727ea07ff5b5019007d9861
The Band Wagon
281
False
What Spielberg movie provided a fictional account of the slave ship mutiny trials that took place in New Haven?
5727ea07ff5b5019007d9862
Amistad
369
False
What movie produced in 2000 investigated conspiracy theories surrounding the notorious Skull and Bone Society in New Haven?
5727ea07ff5b5019007d9863
The Skulls
511
False
What is currently located at the site of the old Taft Hotel in New Haven?
5727ea07ff5b5019007d9864
Taft Apartments
122
False
What was the name of the movie that once film in the corner of College and Chapel streets?
572bc4b234ae481900deaf05
All About Eve (1950)
70
False
The fim Amistad uses references to New Haven in the movie, who was the director of Amistad?
572bc4b234ae481900deaf06
Steven Spielberg
346
False
New Haven was feature in what movie regarding secret society and conspiracy theories?
572bc4b234ae481900deaf07
The Skulls (2000)
511
False
New Haven has been depicted in a number of movies. Scenes in the film All About Eve (1950) are set at the Taft Hotel (now Taft Apartments) on the corner of College and Chapel streets, and the history of New Haven theaters as Broadway "tryouts" is depicted in the Fred Astaire film The Band Wagon (1953). The city was fictionally portrayed in the Steven Spielberg movie Amistad (1997) concerning the events around the mutiny trial of that ship's rebelling captives. New Haven was also fictionalized in the movie The Skulls (2000), which focused on conspiracy theories surrounding the real-life Skull and Bones secret society which is located in New Haven.
What 2003 movie featuring Julia Roberts was filmed in New Haven?
5727eb704b864d190016402e
Mona Lisa Smile
63
False
What Spielberg franchise was filmed in New Haven in 2008?
5727eb704b864d190016402f
Indiana Jones and the Kingdom of the Crystal Skull
162
False
What year were the streets of downtown New Haven redesigned to resemble for the filming of the Crystal Skull?
5727eb704b864d1900164030
1957
508
False
How many New Haven locals were cast as extras throughout filming of the Crystal Skull?
5727eb704b864d1900164031
500
536
False
In what New Haven landmark was the 2009 Robert De Niro movie, Everybody's Fine, filmed?
5727eb704b864d1900164032
Union Station
734
False
What was the name of popular movie film in New Haven featuring Julia Roberts?
572bcc46111d821400f38f82
Mona Lisa Smile (2003)
63
False
The recent Indiana Jones movie feature how many of the local citizen in film?
572bcc46111d821400f38f83
500
536
False
Union Station was as a part of a set on a film, what was the name of the movie?
572bcc46111d821400f38f84
Everybody's Fine (2009)
584
False
Several recent movies have been filmed in New Haven, including Mona Lisa Smile (2003), with Julia Roberts, The Life Before Her Eyes (2007), with Uma Thurman, and Indiana Jones and the Kingdom of the Crystal Skull (2008) directed by Steven Spielberg and starring Harrison Ford, Cate Blanchett and Shia LaBeouf. The filming of Crystal Skull involved an extensive chase sequence through the streets of New Haven. Several downtown streets were closed to traffic and received a "makeover" to look like streets of 1957, when the film is set. 500 locals were cast as extras for the film. In Everybody's Fine (2009), Robert De Niro has a close encounter in what is supposed to be the Denver train station; the scene was filmed in New Haven's Union Station.
In what Fitzgerald classic does the fictional protagonist make repeated references to New Haven?
5727ed00ff5b5019007d98a2
The Great Gatsby
94
False
Who is the fictional Yale University alumnus, and ostensible former resident of New Haven, featured on The Simpsons?
5727ed00ff5b5019007d98a3
C. Montgomery Burns
156
False
What fictional New Haven resident is featured in the novella, The Odd Saga of the American and a Curious Iceland Flock?
5727ed00ff5b5019007d98a4
Alex Welch
259
False
At what New Haven university is The Gilmore Girls hypothetically set, at least in part?
5727ed00ff5b5019007d98a5
Yale
418
False
The city of New Haven was often referenced several time by a character in a very popular novel which name was?
572bcd9b111d821400f38f88
The Great Gatsby
94
False
The Simpson has a character that was set to graduated from Yale University, can you guess his name?
572bcd9b111d821400f38f89
Montgomery Burns
159
False
What relations does the television show Gilmore Girls have to New Haven city?
572bcd9b111d821400f38f8a
is set (but not filmed) in New Haven
374
False
New Haven is repeatedly referenced by Nick Carraway in F. Scott Fitzgerald's literary classic The Great Gatsby, as well as by fellow fictional Yale alumnus C. Montgomery Burns, a character from The Simpsons television show. A fictional native of New Haven is Alex Welch from the novella, The Odd Saga of the American and a Curious Icelandic Flock. The TV show Gilmore Girls is set (but not filmed) in New Haven and at Yale University, as are scenes in the film The Sisterhood of the Traveling Pants 2 (2008).
What infamous Doors frontman was once arrested in New Haven?
5727ee2a2ca10214002d99e4
Jim Morrison
37
False
At what venue was Jim Morrison arrested in New Haven?
5727ee2a2ca10214002d99e5
New Haven Arena
163
False
What Morrison song pays homage to his New Haven arrest while mentioning the town by name?
5727ee2a2ca10214002d99e6
"Peace Frog"
225
False
What 1991 film depicts the 1979 Morrison arrest in New Haven?
5727ee2a2ca10214002d99e7
The Doors
440
False
A popular 70s rock band group once played in New Haven, which result in an accident with one of it member, the man name was?
572bcf17be1ee31400cb8499
Jim Morrison
37
False
What was the song sung that lead to the arrest of Morrison?
572bcf17be1ee31400cb849a
"Peace Frog"
225
False
The event in 1967 later lead to inspiration of what movie in 1991?
572bcf17be1ee31400cb849b
The Doors
440
False
The movie The Doors however did not film at New Haven, instead where did they film the reenactment?
572bcf17be1ee31400cb849c
Los Angeles
514
False
New Haven was the location of one of Jim Morrison's infamous arrests while he fronted the rock group The Doors. The near-riotous concert and arrest in 1967 at the New Haven Arena was commemorated by Morrison in the lyrics to "Peace Frog" which include the line "...blood in the streets in the town of New Haven..." This was the first time a rock star had ever been arrested in concert.[citation needed] This event is portrayed in the movie The Doors (1991), starring Val Kilmer as Morrison, with a concert hall in Los Angeles used to depict the New Haven Arena.
Alsace
When did Stadtrepublik become a part of Alsace?
5727570ddd62a815002e9b54
4 January 1798
320
False
What years did Germany hold possession over Lorrain-Alscace?
5727570ddd62a815002e9b55
1871–1918
549
False
Which other country had control over Alsace?
5727570ddd62a815002e9b56
France
606
False
How many times did Germany and France switched and had control of Alscace?
5727570ddd62a815002e9b57
four times
683
False
17th century
116
When did the Holy Roman Empire begin?
5a6fb1d08abb0b001a675f51
True
4 January 1798
320
When was Lorraine voted into Alsace?
5a6fb1d08abb0b001a675f52
True
Lorraine
420
What was the former duchy of Alsace?
5a6fb1d08abb0b001a675f53
True
four
683
How many times did Germany and the Holy Roman Empire exchange Lorraine?
5a6fb1d08abb0b001a675f54
True
Stadtrepublik Mülhausen
239
What is another name for Alsace?
5a6fb1d08abb0b001a675f55
True
The region, as part of Lorraine, was part of the Holy Roman Empire, and then was gradually annexed by France in the 17th century, and formalized as one of the provinces of France. The Calvinist manufacturing republic of Mulhouse, known as Stadtrepublik Mülhausen, became a part of Alsace after a vote by its citizens on 4 January 1798. Alsace is frequently mentioned with and as part of Lorraine and the former duchy of Lorraine, since it was a vital part of the duchy, and later because German possession as the imperial province (Alsace-Lorraine, 1871–1918) was contested in the 19th and 20th centuries; France and Germany exchanged control of parts of Lorraine (including Alsace) four times in 75 years.
Which three territories make up the Upper Rhine?
57275a0f5951b619008f8897
Alsatian, Alemannian, Swabian, Swiss
229
False
Who forced Christianity upon the Alsace people?
57275a0f5951b619008f8898
Clovis' Merovingian
437
False
What occurred at the treaty of Verdun?
57275a0f5951b619008f8899
Oaths of Strasbourg of 842, was formally dissolved in 843
583
False
In what year did Lothar past away?
57275a0f5951b619008f889a
855
845
False
Alsatian, Alemannian, Swabian, Swiss
229
What languages were common in the Roman Empire?
5a6fb2cc8abb0b001a675f5b
True
5th century AD
323
When did the Alemanni conquer the Franks?
5a6fb2cc8abb0b001a675f5c
True
the Franks
279
Who did Alemanni ally with to defeat Clovis?
5a6fb2cc8abb0b001a675f5d
True
Merovingian
445
Who was the leader of the Franks?
5a6fb2cc8abb0b001a675f5e
True
855
845
When was Lothar I born?
5a6fb2cc8abb0b001a675f5f
True
With the decline of the Roman Empire, Alsace became the territory of the Germanic Alemanni. The Alemanni were agricultural people, and their Germanic language formed the basis of modern-day dialects spoken along the Upper Rhine (Alsatian, Alemannian, Swabian, Swiss). Clovis and the Franks defeated the Alemanni during the 5th century AD, culminating with the Battle of Tolbiac, and Alsace became part of the Kingdom of Austrasia. Under Clovis' Merovingian successors the inhabitants were Christianized. Alsace remained under Frankish control until the Frankish realm, following the Oaths of Strasbourg of 842, was formally dissolved in 843 at the Treaty of Verdun; the grandsons of Charlemagne divided the realm into three parts. Alsace formed part of the Middle Francia, which was ruled by the youngest grandson Lothar I. Lothar died early in 855 and his realm was divided into three parts. The part known as Lotharingia, or Lorraine, was given to Lothar's son. The rest was shared between Lothar's brothers Charles the Bald (ruler of the West Frankish realm) and Louis the German (ruler of the East Frankish realm). The Kingdom of Lotharingia was short-lived, however, becoming the stem duchy of Lorraine in Eastern Francia after the Treaty of Ribemont in 880. Alsace was united with the other Alemanni east of the Rhine into the stem duchy of Swabia.
What was considered a common practice in during the Holy Roman Empire?
57275caa5951b619008f88b9
fragmentation and reincorporations among a number of feudal secular and ecclesiastical lordships
63
False
Under who's rule did Alsace thrive under?
57275caa5951b619008f88ba
Hohenstaufen emperors
281
False
Was was the name given to the Alsace provincinal court?
57275caa5951b619008f88bb
Landgericht
614
False
What was the name of the route that linked Germany,Switzerland , Netherlands, and England
57275caa5951b619008f88bc
Paris-Vienna-Orient trade route
1112
False
Which other two cities also started to grow economically?
57275caa5951b619008f88bd
Colmar and Hagenau
1342
False
Hohenstaufen
281
What emperors were responsible for the increased fragmentation?
5a6fb4b28abb0b001a675f65
True
the 12th
247
During which century did Frederick I make Alsace a province?
5a6fb4b28abb0b001a675f66
True
ministeriales
391
What noble class ruled Alsace?
5a6fb4b28abb0b001a675f67
True
Landgericht
614
What was the name of the central administration at Hagenau?
5a6fb4b28abb0b001a675f68
True
the Bishop of Strasbourg
706
Who questioned the authority of Count Rudolf?
5a6fb4b28abb0b001a675f69
True
At about this time the surrounding areas experienced recurring fragmentation and reincorporations among a number of feudal secular and ecclesiastical lordships, a common process in the Holy Roman Empire. Alsace experienced great prosperity during the 12th and 13th centuries under Hohenstaufen emperors. Frederick I set up Alsace as a province (a procuratio, not a provincia) to be ruled by ministeriales, a non-noble class of civil servants. The idea was that such men would be more tractable and less likely to alienate the fief from the crown out of their own greed. The province had a single provincial court (Landgericht) and a central administration with its seat at Hagenau. Frederick II designated the Bishop of Strasbourg to administer Alsace, but the authority of the bishop was challenged by Count Rudolf of Habsburg, who received his rights from Frederick II's son Conrad IV. Strasbourg began to grow to become the most populous and commercially important town in the region. In 1262, after a long struggle with the ruling bishops, its citizens gained the status of free imperial city. A stop on the Paris-Vienna-Orient trade route, as well as a port on the Rhine route linking southern Germany and Switzerland to the Netherlands, England and Scandinavia, it became the political and economic center of the region. Cities such as Colmar and Hagenau also began to grow in economic importance and gained a kind of autonomy within the "Decapole" or "Dekapolis", a federation of ten free towns.
About when did Alsace lose its prosperity?
57277e9df1498d1400e8f9c4
14th century
69
False
Why did Alsace decline has a prospering territory?
57277e9df1498d1400e8f9c5
harsh winters, bad harvests, and the Black Death
97
False
Which group of people were wrongly blamed for all the disasters that struck the region?
57277e9df1498d1400e8f9c6
blamed on Jews
168
False
What were the jewish people accused of in Alsace?
57277e9df1498d1400e8f9c7
accused of poisoning the wells with plague
254
False
When did the Rhine Rift earthquake occur?
57277e9df1498d1400e8f9c8
1356,
493
False
1349
228
During what year were Jews blamed for the poor harvest?
5a6fb5868abb0b001a675f6f
True
Habsburg
584
What administration brought ruin to Alsace at the end of the 14th century?
5a6fb5868abb0b001a675f70
True
1356
493
When was the Basel rebuilt?
5a6fb5868abb0b001a675f71
True
the Rhine rift earthquake
464
What earthquake occured in 1336?
5a6fb5868abb0b001a675f72
True
Jews
373
Who was aquitted of guilt for the Rhine rift earthquake?
5a6fb5868abb0b001a675f73
True
As in much of Europe, the prosperity of Alsace came to an end in the 14th century by a series of harsh winters, bad harvests, and the Black Death. These hardships were blamed on Jews, leading to the pogroms of 1336 and 1339. In 1349, Jews of Alsace were accused of poisoning the wells with plague, leading to the massacre of thousands of Jews during the Strasbourg pogrom. Jews were subsequently forbidden to settle in the town. An additional natural disaster was the Rhine rift earthquake of 1356, one of Europe's worst which made ruins of Basel. Prosperity returned to Alsace under Habsburg administration during the Renaissance.
What were the names of the first two rivers France aggressively went to while expanding eastward?
572780475951b619008f8b7b
Rhône and Meuse
278
False
The French proposed a marriage between which two people?
572780475951b619008f8b7c
Blanche and Albert
440
False
What was the name of the period when France was crushed military?
572780475951b619008f8b7d
the Hundred Years' War
694
False
In what year did the French reach Alsace?
572780475951b619008f8b7e
1444
889
False
Holy Roman Empire
0
Who was Western Europe giving up their land to?
5a6fc41b8abb0b001a675f79
True
Rhône and Meuse
278
What rivers did Italy reach first?
5a6fc41b8abb0b001a675f7a
True
Philip IV of France's sister Blanche and Albert I of Germany's son Rudolf
411
Who was successfully wed in 1299?
5a6fc41b8abb0b001a675f7b
True
1307
552
When was Alsace charted by the Counts?
5a6fc41b8abb0b001a675f7c
True
1444
889
When did the French reach the Rhine?
5a6fc41b8abb0b001a675f7d
True
Holy Roman Empire central power had begun to decline following years of imperial adventures in Italian lands, often ceding hegemony in Western Europe to France, which had long since centralized power. France began an aggressive policy of expanding eastward, first to the rivers Rhône and Meuse, and when those borders were reached, aiming for the Rhine. In 1299, the French proposed a marriage alliance between Philip IV of France's sister Blanche and Albert I of Germany's son Rudolf, with Alsace to be the dowry; however, the deal never came off. In 1307, the town of Belfort was first chartered by the Counts of Montbéliard. During the next century, France was to be militarily shattered by the Hundred Years' War, which prevented for a time any further tendencies in this direction. After the conclusion of the war, France was again free to pursue its desire to reach the Rhine and in 1444 a French army appeared in Lorraine and Alsace. It took up winter quarters, demanded the submission of Metz and Strasbourg and launched an attack on Basel.
In what year was Upper Alsace sold to the Archduke Sigismund?
572783a4f1498d1400e8fa5a
1469
3
False
Why did Frederick III use a tax and a marriage in Upper Alsace?
572783a4f1498d1400e8fa5b
to gain back full control of Upper Alsace
311
False
When did Mulhouse join the Swiss Confederation?
572783a4f1498d1400e8fa5c
1515
562
False
Upper Alsace
43
What did Charles the Bold sell to Archduke Sigismund?
5a6fd4f28abb0b001a675f83
True
1469
3
When did Frederick III become the Holy Emperor?
5a6fd4f28abb0b001a675f84
True
Belfort
395
What is the name of one of the free towns?
5a6fd4f28abb0b001a675f85
True
the Swiss Confederation
535
What did the town of Mulhouse join in 1798?
5a6fd4f28abb0b001a675f86
True
1515
562
When did Belfort join the Swiss Confederation?
5a6fd4f28abb0b001a675f87
True
In 1469, following the Treaty of St. Omer, Upper Alsace was sold by Archduke Sigismund of Austria to Charles the Bold, Duke of Burgundy. Although Charles was the nominal landlord, taxes were paid to Frederick III, Holy Roman Emperor. The latter was able to use this tax and a dynastic marriage to his advantage to gain back full control of Upper Alsace (apart from the free towns, but including Belfort) in 1477 when it became part of the demesne of the Habsburg family, who were also rulers of the empire. The town of Mulhouse joined the Swiss Confederation in 1515, where it was to remain until 1798.
When did Strasbourg accept Protestantism?
572786705951b619008f8c59
1523
148
False
Who was known as a reformer in Strasbourg?
572786705951b619008f8c5a
Martin Bucer
154
False
What were the names given for the two groups that heavily dominated Alsace during this time?
572786705951b619008f8c5b
Catholic and Protestant
377
False
1523
148
When was Martin Bucer born?
5a6fd5978abb0b001a675f8d
True
1523
148
When did Strasbourg convert to Catholicism?
5a6fd5978abb0b001a675f8e
True
Alsace
478
What is southwest of Mompelgard?
5a6fd5978abb0b001a675f8f
True
Martin Bucer
154
What famous reformer was from Mompelgard?
5a6fd5978abb0b001a675f90
True
Protestantism
131
What was Alsace's predominant religion?
5a6fd5978abb0b001a675f91
True
By the time of the Protestant Reformation in the 16th century, Strasbourg was a prosperous community, and its inhabitants accepted Protestantism in 1523. Martin Bucer was a prominent Protestant reformer in the region. His efforts were countered by the Roman Catholic Habsburgs who tried to eradicate heresy in Upper Alsace. As a result, Alsace was transformed into a mosaic of Catholic and Protestant territories. On the other hand, Mömpelgard (Montbéliard) to the southwest of Alsace, belonging to the Counts of Württemberg since 1397, remained a Protestant enclave in France until 1793.
When did the Habsburgs  sell the Sundgau territory to France?
572787eb708984140094e021
1646
380
False
How much did France pay for Sundgau?
572787eb708984140094e022
1.2 million Thalers
424
False
In 1685 Edict Fontainebleau by way of the French King ordered what to be done?
572787eb708984140094e023
the suppression of French Protestantism
1207
False
1639
31
When did the Spanish conquer Alsace?
5a6fd6378abb0b001a675f97
True
1.2 million Thalers
424
How much did the Habsburgs buy Sundgau for?
5a6fd6388abb0b001a675f98
True
1685
1145
When was the University of Strasbourg founded?
5a6fd6388abb0b001a675f99
True
the Treaty of Westphalia
490
What was the name of the treaty between the French and the Germans?
5a6fd6388abb0b001a675f9a
True
1524
1384
When was Strasbourg Cathedral built?
5a6fd6388abb0b001a675f9b
True
This situation prevailed until 1639, when most of Alsace was conquered by France so as to keep it out of the hands of the Spanish Habsburgs, who wanted a clear road to their valuable and rebellious possessions in the Spanish Netherlands. Beset by enemies and seeking to gain a free hand in Hungary, the Habsburgs sold their Sundgau territory (mostly in Upper Alsace) to France in 1646, which had occupied it, for the sum of 1.2 million Thalers. When hostilities were concluded in 1648 with the Treaty of Westphalia, most of Alsace was recognized as part of France, although some towns remained independent. The treaty stipulations regarding Alsace were complex; although the French king gained sovereignty, existing rights and customs of the inhabitants were largely preserved. France continued to maintain its customs border along the Vosges mountains where it had been, leaving Alsace more economically oriented to neighbouring German-speaking lands. The German language remained in use in local administration, in schools, and at the (Lutheran) University of Strasbourg, which continued to draw students from other German-speaking lands. The 1685 Edict of Fontainebleau, by which the French king ordered the suppression of French Protestantism, was not applied in Alsace. France did endeavour to promote Catholicism; Strasbourg Cathedral, for example, which had been Lutheran from 1524 to 1681, was returned to the Catholic Church. However, compared to the rest of France, Alsace enjoyed a climate of religious tolerance.
In what year did the division of Alsace take place?
57278bb15951b619008f8d07
1789
9
False
Which song was played for the first time in Strasbourg that would later become the French national anthem?
57278bb15951b619008f8d08
La Marseillaise
610
False
Who led the armies of the French Republic in Vendee and Westermann?
57278bb15951b619008f8d09
Kellermann
835
False
Haut
110
What department was Rouget de Lisle part of?
5a6fd6dd8abb0b001a675fa1
True
La Marseillaise
610
What song did Philippe-Frederic de Dietrich compose?
5a6fd6dd8abb0b001a675fa2
True
Philippe-Frédéric de Dietrich
715
What was the name of the city administrator that had to flee in July 1789?
5a6fd6dd8abb0b001a675fa3
True
Kellermann
835
Who led the crowd of people storming Strasburg city?
5a6fd6dd8abb0b001a675fa4
True
Vendée and Westermann
921
Where did Rouget de Lisle lead the French Republic armies to victory?
5a6fd6dd8abb0b001a675fa5
True
The year 1789 brought the French Revolution and with it the first division of Alsace into the départements of Haut- and Bas-Rhin. Alsatians played an active role in the French Revolution. On 21 July 1789, after receiving news of the Storming of the Bastille in Paris, a crowd of people stormed the Strasbourg city hall, forcing the city administrators to flee and putting symbolically an end to the feudal system in Alsace. In 1792, Rouget de Lisle composed in Strasbourg the Revolutionary marching song "La Marseillaise" (as Marching song for the Army of the Rhine), which later became the anthem of France. "La Marseillaise" was played for the first time in April of that year in front of the mayor of Strasbourg Philippe-Frédéric de Dietrich. Some of the most famous generals of the French Revolution also came from Alsace, notably Kellermann, the victor of Valmy, Kléber, who led the armies of the French Republic in Vendée and Westermann, who also fought in the Vendée.
Which two countries sought to crush the nascent republic?
57278cbd5951b619008f8d35
Austria and Prussia
110
False
What had happened to most of the people who fled Sungau during the war when they were allowed to return home?
57278cbd5951b619008f8d36
lands and homes had been confiscated
538
False
What was the name of the poem by Goethe?
57278cbd5951b619008f8d37
Hermann and Dorothea
819
False
some Alsatians
18
Who was sympathetic to the Jacobins?
5a6fd77e8abb0b001a675fab
True
Mariastein Abbey,
257
Where did the Austrian and Prussian armies make pilgrimages to?
5a6fd77e8abb0b001a675fac
True
1799
499
When was the French Revolutionary Army victorious?
5a6fd77e8abb0b001a675fad
True
1808
702
When was Hermann and Dorothea published?
5a6fd77e8abb0b001a675fae
True
tens of thousands
394
How many residents made pilgrimages?
5a6fd77e8abb0b001a675faf
True
At the same time, some Alsatians were in opposition to the Jacobins and sympathetic to the invading forces of Austria and Prussia who sought to crush the nascent revolutionary republic. Many of the residents of the Sundgau made "pilgrimages" to places like Mariastein Abbey, near Basel, in Switzerland, for baptisms and weddings. When the French Revolutionary Army of the Rhine was victorious, tens of thousands fled east before it. When they were later permitted to return (in some cases not until 1799), it was often to find that their lands and homes had been confiscated. These conditions led to emigration by hundreds of families to newly vacant lands in the Russian Empire in 1803–4 and again in 1808. A poignant retelling of this event based on what Goethe had personally witnessed can be found in his long poem Hermann and Dorothea.
What was the population of Alsace in 1846?
57278dcf708984140094e0b7
1,067,000
73
False
What were the reasons for people to begin leaving Alsace?
57278dcf708984140094e0b8
hunger, housing shortages and a lack of work for young people
151
False
Between what years did Alatians begin to sail towards the United States?
57278dcf708984140094e0b9
1820 to 1850
760
False
1,067,000
73
What was the population of Paris in 1846?
5a6fd9668abb0b001a675fb5
True
1846
86
When did Baron Haussmann move to Paris?
5a6fd9668abb0b001a675fb6
True
Baron Haussmann
361
What famous Alsatian member lived in Russia?
5a6fd9668abb0b001a675fb7
True
Sully
992
What was the name of the ship that brought Alsatians to the US in 1820?
5a6fd9668abb0b001a675fb8
True
economic development
1190
What were the settlers in Canada known for?
5a6fd9668abb0b001a675fb9
True
The population grew rapidly, from 800,000 in 1814 to 914,000 in 1830 and 1,067,000 in 1846. The combination of economic and demographic factors led to hunger, housing shortages and a lack of work for young people. Thus, it is not surprising that people left Alsace, not only for Paris – where the Alsatian community grew in numbers, with famous members such as Baron Haussmann – but also for more distant places like Russia and the Austrian Empire, to take advantage of the new opportunities offered there: Austria had conquered lands in Eastern Europe from the Ottoman Empire and offered generous terms to colonists as a way of consolidating its hold on the new territories. Many Alsatians also began to sail to the United States, settling in many areas from 1820 to 1850. In 1843 and 1844, sailing ships bringing immigrant families from Alsace arrived at the port of New York. Some settled in Illinois, many to farm or to seek success in commercial ventures: for example, the sailing ships Sully (in May 1843) and Iowa (in June 1844) brought families who set up homes in northern Illinois and northern Indiana. Some Alsatian immigrants were noted for their roles in 19th-century American economic development. Others ventured to Canada to settle in southwestern Ontario, notably Waterloo County.
What was the population of Alsace in 1790?
57278f23708984140094e0d7
22,500
59
False
Jews were banned from cities in Alsace, where were they forced to settle?
57278f23708984140094e0d8
in villages
405
False
in 1791 Jews were granted what by the French?
57278f23708984140094e0d9
full emancipation
604
False
Which country was Alsace merged into during  1871-1918
57278f23708984140094e0da
Germany
1144
False
Napoleon
678
Who decreased antisemitism in 1806?
5a6fdbdd8abb0b001a675fbf
True
22,500
59
What was the Jewish population in 1831?
5a6fdbdd8abb0b001a675fc0
True
3%
73
What percentage of the population was anti-Jewish in 1790?
5a6fdbdd8abb0b001a675fc1
True
Germany
1144
Who did Alsace separate from in 1871?
5a6fdbdd8abb0b001a675fc2
True
trade, services, and especially in money lending
439
What was the primary job of rabbis?
5a6fdbdd8abb0b001a675fc3
True
By 1790, the Jewish population of Alsace was approximately 22,500, about 3% of the provincial population. They were highly segregated and subject to long-standing anti-Jewish regulations. They maintained their own customs, Yiddish language, and historic traditions within the tightly-knit ghettos; they adhered to Talmudic law enforced by their rabbis. Jews were barred from most cities and instead lived in villages. They concentrated in trade, services, and especially in money lending. They financed about a third of the mortgages in Alsace. Official tolerance grew during the French Revolution, with full emancipation in 1791. However, local antisemitism also increased and Napoleon turned hostile in 1806, imposing a one-year moratorium on all debts owed to Jews.[citation needed] In the 1830-1870 era most Jews moved to the cities, where they integrated and acculturated, as antisemitism sharply declined. By 1831, the state began paying salaries to official rabbis, and in 1846 a special legal oath for Jews was discontinued. Antisemitic local riots occasionally occurred, especially during the Revolution of 1848. Merger of Alsace into Germany in 1871-1918 lessened antisemitic violence.
Which country defeated the French in 1871?
57279021708984140094e0f3
Kingdom of Prussia
74
False
The end of the war led to which companies unification?
57279021708984140094e0f4
Germany
163
False
Who annexed Alsace to the new German Empire in 1871?
57279021708984140094e0f5
Otto von Bismarck
172
False
the Franco-Prussian War
15
What war did Prussia start in 1870?
5a6fdc978abb0b001a675fc9
True
Prussia
85
Who allied with France against Germany?
5a6fdc978abb0b001a675fca
True
a million and a half
571
What was the population of Lorraine?
5a6fdc978abb0b001a675fcb
True
Otto von Bismarck
172
Who granted Alsace-Lorraine autonomy in 1911?
5a6fdc978abb0b001a675fcc
True
the Saverne Affair
884
What did Elsässisches Fahnenlied mean in French?
5a6fdc978abb0b001a675fcd
True
France started the Franco-Prussian War (1870–71), and was defeated by the Kingdom of Prussia and other German states. The end of the war led to the unification of Germany. Otto von Bismarck annexed Alsace and northern Lorraine to the new German Empire in 1871; unlike other members states of the German federation, which had governments of their own, the new Imperial territory of Alsace-Lorraine was under the sole authority of the Kaiser, administered directly by the imperial government in Berlin. Between 100,000 and 130,000 Alsatians (of a total population of about a million and a half) chose to remain French citizens and leave Reichsland Elsaß-Lothringen, many of them resettling in French Algeria as Pieds-Noirs. Only in 1911 was Alsace-Lorraine granted some measure of autonomy, which was manifested also in a flag and an anthem (Elsässisches Fahnenlied). In 1913, however, the Saverne Affair (French: Incident de Saverne) showed the limits of this new tolerance of the Alsatian identity.
What did Aslations do to avoid conflict amongst themselves during the first World War?
57279d0aff5b5019007d9106
served as sailors
84
False
Who was the mayor that proclaimed independence from the German Empire for  Alsace-Lorraine?
57279d0aff5b5019007d9107
Jacques Peirotes
346
False
Who entered Alsace just two weeks after they declared independence?
57279d0aff5b5019007d9108
French
649
False
What was the name of the treaty that allowed Germany to ceded the land to France?
57279d0aff5b5019007d9109
Treaty of Versailles
1506
False
the First World War
7
During what war were Alsatians primarily ground units?
5a6fdd4c8abb0b001a675fd3
True
Jacques Peirotes
346
What was the name of the Kaiser in 1918?
5a6fdd4c8abb0b001a675fd4
True
less than two weeks
678
How long did it take the US to enter Alsace?
5a6fdd4c8abb0b001a675fd5
True
Woodrow Wilson
1055
Who was in charge of the League of Nations?
5a6fdd4c8abb0b001a675fd6
True
Treaty of Versailles
1506
What treaty gave Alsace to Germany?
5a6fdd4c8abb0b001a675fd7
True
During the First World War, to avoid ground fights between brothers, many Alsatians served as sailors in the Kaiserliche Marine and took part in the Naval mutinies that led to the abdication of the Kaiser in November 1918, which left Alsace-Lorraine without a nominal head of state. The sailors returned home and tried to found a republic. While Jacques Peirotes, at this time deputy at the Landrat Elsass-Lothringen and just elected mayor of Strasbourg, proclaimed the forfeiture of the German Empire and the advent of the French Republic, a self-proclaimed government of Alsace-Lorraine declared independence as the "Republic of Alsace-Lorraine". French troops entered Alsace less than two weeks later to quash the worker strikes and remove the newly established Soviets and revolutionaries from power. At the arrival of the French soldiers, many Alsatians and local Prussian/German administrators and bureaucrats cheered the re-establishment of order (which can be seen and is described in detail in the reference video below). Although U.S. President Woodrow Wilson had insisted that the région was self-ruling by legal status, as its constitution had stated it was bound to the sole authority of the Kaiser and not to the German state, France tolerated no plebiscite, as granted by the League of Nations to some eastern German territories at this time, because Alsatians were considered by the French public as fellow Frenchmen liberated from German rule. Germany ceded the region to France under the Treaty of Versailles.
What year was Alsace-Lorraine occupied by Germany?
57279ec2ff5b5019007d9134
1940
43
False
Approximately how many Alsace and Lorraine men were forced into the German army during World War II?
57279ec2ff5b5019007d9135
130,000
346
False
Which group of people were released by the Russians to Algiers?
57279ec2ff5b5019007d9136
malgré-nous
713
False
1940
43
When did Germany officially annex Alsace?
5a6fddda8abb0b001a675fdd
True
Reichsgaue
218
Baden and Saarland were merged to form what?
5a6fddda8abb0b001a675fde
True
130,000
346
How many men from Alsace alone were conscripted into the German army?
5a6fddda8abb0b001a675fdf
True
the Oradour-sur-Glane
546
130,000 men were involved in what massacre?
5a6fddda8abb0b001a675fe0
True
1500
708
How many soldiers managed to join the resistance?
5a6fddda8abb0b001a675fe1
True
Alsace-Lorraine was occupied by Germany in 1940 during the Second World War. Although Germany never formally annexed Alsace-Lorraine, it was incorporated into the Greater German Reich, which had been restructured into Reichsgaue. Alsace was merged with Baden, and Lorraine with the Saarland, to become part of a planned Westmark. During the war, 130,000 young men from Alsace and Lorraine were inducted into the German army against their will (malgré-nous) and in some cases, the Waffen SS. Some of the latter were involved in war crimes such as the Oradour-sur-Glane massacre. Most of them perished on the eastern front. The few that could escape fled to Switzerland or joined the resistance. In July 1944, 1500 malgré-nous were released from Soviet captivity and sent to Algiers, where they joined the Free French Forces.
Which conservative leader in 2007 received the best score during the second round of elections?
5727a11cff5b5019007d9154
Nicolas Sarkozy
237
False
Who is the president of the regional counsel?
5727a11cff5b5019007d9155
Philippe Richert
400
False
Alsace was one of the few to vote for this measure from France, what was it?
5727a11cff5b5019007d9156
European Constitution in 2005
789
False
over 65%
283
What was Philippe Richert's score in Alsace?
5a6fe0258abb0b001a675fe7
True
European Constitution
789
What constitution was voted on in 2010?
5a6fe0258abb0b001a675fe8
True
Alsace
671
What was one of the few regions to vote against the European Constitution?
5a6fe0258abb0b001a675fe9
True
EU
706
Alsace is anti- what?
5a6fe0258abb0b001a675fea
True
Nicolas Sarkozy
237
Who was elected head of the Alsace Regional Council in 2007?
5a6fe0258abb0b001a675feb
True
Alsace is one of the most conservative régions of France. It is one of just two régions in metropolitan France where the conservative right won the 2004 région elections and thus controls the Alsace Regional Council. Conservative leader Nicolas Sarkozy got his best score in Alsace (over 65%) in the second round of the French presidential elections of 2007. The president of the Regional Council is Philippe Richert, a member of the Union for a Popular Movement, elected in the 2010 regional election. The frequently changing status of the région throughout history has left its mark on modern day politics in terms of a particular interest in national identity issues. Alsace is also one of the most pro-EU regions of France. It was one of the few French regions that voted 'yes' to the European Constitution in 2005.
Which group or religion dominates the Aslatian population?
5727a226ff5b5019007d916a
Roman Catholic
35
False
Which other large religion also exist in Alsace due to the once German presence?
5727a226ff5b5019007d916b
Protestant
119
False
What is the name of the Union created by France's second largest Protestant church?
5727a226ff5b5019007d916c
UEPAL
275
False
EPCAAL
164
What is the name of the second largest Roman Catholic church?
5a6fe0cc8abb0b001a675ff1
True
1801
430
When was the Calvinist EPRAL formed?
5a6fe0cc8abb0b001a675ff2
True
Jewish synagogues
564
What religious faith does not get public subsidies?
5a6fe0cc8abb0b001a675ff3
True
1905
774
When did Alsace split from Imperial Germany?
5a6fe0cc8abb0b001a675ff4
True
law separating the French church and state
779
What did Germany enact in 1905?
5a6fe0cc8abb0b001a675ff5
True
Most of the Alsatian population is Roman Catholic, but, largely because of the region's German heritage, a significant Protestant community also exists: today, the EPCAAL (a Lutheran church) is France's second largest Protestant church, also forming an administrative union (UEPAL) with the much smaller Calvinist EPRAL. Unlike the rest of France, the Local law in Alsace-Moselle still provides for to the Napoleonic Concordat of 1801 and the organic articles, which provides public subsidies to the Roman Catholic, Lutheran, and Calvinist churches, as well as to Jewish synagogues; religion classes in one of these faiths is compulsory in public schools. This divergence in policy from the French majority is due to the region having been part of Imperial Germany when the 1905 law separating the French church and state was instituted (for a more comprehensive history, see: Alsace-Lorraine). Controversy erupts periodically on the appropriateness of this legal disposition, as well as on the exclusion of other religions from this arrangement.
What were landowners also known as that had a right to decide which religion was allowed on their property?
5727a3e23acd2414000de8a7
local lords
226
False
Which groups or religions were greatly accepted in Alsace?
5727a3e23acd2414000de8a8
Catholics, Lutherans, Calvinists, Jews and Anabaptists
447
False
Which group did Louis XIV tried push out of Alsace?
5727a3e23acd2414000de8a9
Amish
742
False
1693
810
When did the Anabaptists split?
5a6fe1888abb0b001a675ffb
True
Louis XIV
864
Who tried to remove Jews from Alsace?
5a6fe1888abb0b001a675ffc
True
Catholic
855
What was Napoleon's primary religion?
5a6fe1888abb0b001a675ffd
True
Martin Bucer
65
What was the name of the Amish reformer?
5a6fe1888abb0b001a675ffe
True
military conscription without religious exception
937
What edict by Louis XIV caused many to move to the US?
5a6fe1888abb0b001a675fff
True
Following the Protestant Reformation, promoted by local reformer Martin Bucer, the principle of cuius regio, eius religio led to a certain amount of religious diversity in the highlands of northern Alsace. Landowners, who as "local lords" had the right to decide which religion was allowed on their land, were eager to entice populations from the more attractive lowlands to settle and develop their property. Many accepted without discrimination Catholics, Lutherans, Calvinists, Jews and Anabaptists. Multiconfessional villages appeared, particularly in the region of Alsace bossue. Alsace became one of the French regions boasting a thriving Jewish community, and the only region with a noticeable Anabaptist population. The schism of the Amish under the lead of Jacob Amman from the Mennonites occurred in 1693 in Sainte-Marie-aux-Mines. The strongly Catholic Louis XIV tried in vain to drive them from Alsace. When Napoleon imposed military conscription without religious exception, most emigrated to the American continent.
What is the name of the historical flag of Alsace?
5727a539ff5b5019007d91da
Rot-un-Wiss
103
False
What was the German flag that was similar to the Rot-un-Wiss replaced by?
5727a539ff5b5019007d91db
Union jack-like" flag
429
False
What does the "Union jack-like" flag represent?
5727a539ff5b5019007d91dc
the union of the two déprtements
464
False
Which French city did not recognize the Rot-un-Wiss flag?
5727a539ff5b5019007d91dd
Paris
736
False
Gérard de Lorraine
884
Who created the Union-jack-like flag?
5a6fe2658abb0b001a676005
True
(Strasbourg, Mulhouse
189
The Union Jack flag represented the union of what two departments?
5a6fe2658abb0b001a676006
True
Paris
736
Who has not recognized the Union-jack-like flag?
5a6fe2658abb0b001a676007
True
the Rot-un-Wiss
99
What flag has French origins?
5a6fe2658abb0b001a676008
True
1949
414
When did protests against the super-region occur?
5a6fe2658abb0b001a676009
True
There is controversy around the recognition of the Alsacian flag. The authentic historical flag is the Rot-un-Wiss ; Red and White are commonly found on the coat of arms of Alsacian cities (Strasbourg, Mulhouse, Sélestat...) and of many Swiss cites, especially in Basel's region. The German region Hesse uses a flag similar to the Rot-un-Wiss. As it underlines the Germanic roots of the region, it was replaced in 1949 by a new "Union jack-like" flag representing the union of the two déprtements. It has, however, no real historical relevance. It has been since replaced again by a slightly different one, also representing the two départements. With the purpose of "Frenchizing" the region, the Rot-un-Wiss has not been recognized by Paris. Some overzealous statesmen have called it a Nazi invention - while its origins date back to the XIth century and the Red and White banner of Gérard de Lorraine (aka. d'Alsace). The Rot-un-Wiss flag is still known as the real historical emblem of the region by most of the population and the departments' parliaments and has been widely used during protests against the creation of a new "super-region" gathering Champagne-Ardennes, Lorraine and Alsace, namely on Colmar's statue of liberty.
Around when did the Annexation of Alsace occur?
5727a5fe4b864d1900163964
17th century
47
False
With education reforms in the 19th century what did this lead to in Alsace?
5727a5fe4b864d1900163965
middle classes began to speak and write French
227
False
What is now the German dialects of speech now referred as to?
5727a5fe4b864d1900163966
standard German
468
False
1870
115
When did French become the most common language?
5a6fe2ed8abb0b001a67600f
True
the 17th century
43
When did Germany annex Alsace?
5a6fe2ed8abb0b001a676010
True
the 19th century
205
When did writing French in the middle class fall out of fashion?
5a6fe2ed8abb0b001a676011
True
the French Revolution
87
Standard Germany became policy during what revolution?
5a6fe2ed8abb0b001a676012
True
education reforms
184
What helped German literacy in the 19th century?
5a6fe2ed8abb0b001a676013
True
From the annexation of Alsace by France in the 17th century and the language policy of the French Revolution up to 1870, knowledge of French in Alsace increased considerably. With the education reforms of the 19th century, the middle classes began to speak and write French well. The French language never really managed, however, to win over the masses, the vast majority of whom continued to speak their German dialects and write in German (which we would now call "standard German").[citation needed]
Between what time period did the reannexation of Germany occur?
5727a7132ca10214002d92ee
1940–1945
34
False
What were French families forced to do during the German reannexation?
5727a7132ca10214002d92ef
names were Germanized.
165
False
When did the suspension of German teaching in  schools happen?
5727a7132ca10214002d92f0
1927
224
False
1946
479
When did teaching German cease to be an issue?
5a6fe4268abb0b001a676019
True
Germanized
176
What did the French government force French family names to become?
5a6fe4268abb0b001a67601a
True
High German
46
1927 made what the language of education?
5a6fe4268abb0b001a67601b
True
suppress the use of German
600
What did the French do contrary to their typical language policy?
5a6fe4268abb0b001a67601c
True
1940–1945
34
What years did the Francization campaign run?
5a6fe4268abb0b001a67601d
True
During a reannexation by Germany (1940–1945), High German was reinstated as the language of education. The population was forced to speak German and 'French' family names were Germanized. Following the Second World War, the 1927 regulation was not reinstated and the teaching of German in primary schools was suspended by a provisional rectorial decree, which was supposed to enable French to regain lost ground. The teaching of German became a major issue, however, as early as 1946. Following World War II, the French government pursued, in line with its traditional language policy, a campaign to suppress the use of German as part of a wider Francization campaign.
What was the name of the Memorandum that allowed German teaching in Alsace schools to become more official?
5727a82f4b864d19001639a8
Circulaire sur la langue et la culture régionales en Alsace
39
False
What is the name of the memorandum that past on June 21, 1982?
5727a82f4b864d19001639a9
Circulaire Savary
376
False
What did the Circulair Savary introduce?
5727a82f4b864d19001639aa
introduced financial support, over three years, for the teaching of regional languages in schools and universities
395
False
21 June 1982
349
When was the Vice-Chancellor elected?
5a6fe5818abb0b001a676023
True
three years
430
How long did it take to introduce the Circulair Savary?
5a6fe5818abb0b001a676024
True
Pierre Deyon
201
Who wrote the Circulaire Savary?
5a6fe5818abb0b001a676025
True
The Ministerial Memorandum
319
What was implemented with strict expectations?
5a6fe5818abb0b001a676026
True
Memorandum on regional language and culture in Alsace
100
What was another name for the Vice-Chancellor of the Academie?
5a6fe5818abb0b001a676027
True
It was not until 9 June 1982, with the Circulaire sur la langue et la culture régionales en Alsace (Memorandum on regional language and culture in Alsace) issued by the Vice-Chancellor of the Académie Pierre Deyon, that the teaching of German in primary schools in Alsace really began to be given more official status. The Ministerial Memorandum of 21 June 1982, known as the Circulaire Savary, introduced financial support, over three years, for the teaching of regional languages in schools and universities. This memorandum was, however, implemented in a fairly lax manner.
Which two dialects were banned from public life?
5727a9562ca10214002d9318
Alsatian and Standard German
5
False
What did the banning of the two dialects  include?
5727a9562ca10214002d9319
street and city names, official administration, and educational system
85
False
Although Aslation is rarely used today, which region still uses their mother language of Aslation?
5727a9562ca10214002d931a
Sundgau region
396
False
What other language besides French and German are part of the Aslation-French dialect of today?
5727a9562ca10214002d931b
Yiddish
777
False
Alsatian and Standard German
5
Which language is currently banned?
5a6fe7618abb0b001a67602d
True
Sundgau
396
What is the name of the region where Yiddish is primarily spoken?
5a6fe7618abb0b001a67602e
True
Alsace-Lorraine
238
What area is primarily Standard German in culture?
5a6fe7618abb0b001a67602f
True
Standard
18
Most young people speak what form of German?
5a6fe7618abb0b001a676030
True
German
743
What is Yiddish primarily influenced by?
5a6fe7618abb0b001a676031
True
Both Alsatian and Standard German were for a time banned from public life (including street and city names, official administration, and educational system). Though the ban has long been lifted and street signs today are often bilingual, Alsace-Lorraine is today very French in language and culture. Few young people speak Alsatian today, although there do still exist one or two enclaves in the Sundgau region where some older inhabitants cannot speak French, and where Alsatian is still used as the mother tongue. A related Alemannic German survives on the opposite bank of the Rhine, in Baden, and especially in Switzerland. However, while French is the major language of the region, the Alsatian dialect of French is heavily influenced by German and other languages such a Yiddish in phonology and vocabulary.
What does the French constitution state for the language in Aslace?
5727aa682ca10214002d9338
French alone is the official language
51
False
How many adult speakers speak Alsatian according the 1999 INSEE survey?
5727aa682ca10214002d9339
548,000
275
False
With Alsatian language on the decline, what is the ration of children using the language regularly today?
5727aa682ca10214002d933a
one in ten children
607
False
The constitution of the Fifth Republic
0
What states that Alsatian is the official language?
5a6fe7e38abb0b001a676037
True
548,000
275
How many adult speakers of Occitan are there?
5a6fe7e38abb0b001a676038
True
39%
506
What percentage of adults could not speak Alsatian in 1999?
5a6fe7e38abb0b001a676039
True
one in four
566
How many children speak French?
5a6fe7e38abb0b001a67603a
True
Alsatian
301
There are 548,000 child speakers of what language?
5a6fe7e38abb0b001a67603b
True
The constitution of the Fifth Republic states that French alone is the official language of the Republic. However, Alsatian, along with other regional languages, are recognized by the French government in the official list of languages of France. A 1999 INSEE survey counted 548,000 adult speakers of Alsatian in France, making it the second most-spoken regional language in the country (after Occitan). Like all regional languages in France, however, the transmission of Alsatian is on the decline. While 39% of the adult population of Alsace speaks Alsatian, only one in four children speaks it, and only one in ten children uses it regularly.
In Alsatian, what does Sauerkraut mean?
5727ab472ca10214002d9348
sour cabbage
211
False
What can Sauerkraut be served with?
5727ab472ca10214002d9349
poultry, pork, sausage or even fish
466
False
What is Sauerkraut typically served with in Alsace?
5727ab472ca10214002d934a
Strasbourg sausage or frankfurters, bacon, smoked pork or smoked Morteau or Montbéliard sausages
535
False
sûrkrût
144
What word does Choucroute come from?
5a6fe8a58abb0b001a676041
True
southwestern German
170
What dialect is the Alsatian word for sauerkraut different from?
5a6fe8a58abb0b001a676042
True
poultry, pork, sausage or even fish
466
What meats is sauerkraut not served alongside of?
5a6fe8a58abb0b001a676043
True
sour cabbage
211
What does choucroute mean?
5a6fe8a58abb0b001a676044
True
wooden barrels
420
Pork products are left to ferment in what?
5a6fe8a58abb0b001a676045
True
The gastronomic symbol of the région is undoubtedly the Choucroute, a local variety of Sauerkraut. The word Sauerkraut in Alsatian has the form sûrkrût, same as in other southwestern German dialects, and means "sour cabbage" as its Standard German equivalent. This word was included into the French language as choucroute. To make it, the cabbage is finely shredded, layered with salt and juniper and left to ferment in wooden barrels. Sauerkraut can be served with poultry, pork, sausage or even fish. Traditionally it is served with Strasbourg sausage or frankfurters, bacon, smoked pork or smoked Morteau or Montbéliard sausages, or a selection of other pork products. Served alongside are often roasted or steamed potatoes or dumplings.
What is the meaning of the name Aslatia in English?
5727acde3acd2414000de95d
a lawless place" or "a place under no jurisdiction
119
False
What was the meaning or term used for Aslace that was used by english people in the 20th century?
5727acde3acd2414000de95e
ramshackle marketplace
280
False
Which nationalities still refer it to Alslace "ramshackle marketplace" as of 2007?
5727acde3acd2414000de95f
English and Australian
420
False
Australian
432
What is Lord Justice Sedley's nationality?
5a6fe93f8abb0b001a67604b
True
Alsatia
1
Who coined the word "Alsatia"?
5a6fe93f8abb0b001a67604c
True
Alsace's name
29
Alsatia is the English form of what?
5a6fe93f8abb0b001a67604d
True
2007
379
When did the use of the word Alsatia fall out of practice?
5a6fe93f8abb0b001a67604e
True
Serious Organised Crime Agency
530
What does UMBS stand for?
5a6fe93f8abb0b001a67604f
True
"Alsatia", the Latin form of Alsace's name, has long ago entered the English language with the specialized meaning of "a lawless place" or "a place under no jurisdiction" - since Alsace was conceived by English people to be such. It was used into the 20th century as a term for a ramshackle marketplace, "protected by ancient custom and the independence of their patrons". As of 2007, the word is still in use among the English and Australian judiciaries with the meaning of a place where the law cannot reach: "In setting up the Serious Organised Crime Agency, the state has set out to create an Alsatia - a region of executive action free of judicial oversight," Lord Justice Sedley in UMBS v SOCA 2007.
What is currently being planed west of Strasbourg?
5727ae744b864d1900163a42
new dual carriageway
54
False
What would the use of a new carriageway do in Alsace?
5727ae744b864d1900163a43
reduce the buildup of traffic in that area
107
False
What is the name the German Highway  that would of been crossed with the French Truck road?
5727ae744b864d1900163a44
Karlsruhe-Basel Autobahn
816
False
The new line is (carriageway) would link which other intersections?
5727ae744b864d1900163a45
Hœrdt to the north of Strasbourg, with Innenheim in the southwest
290
False
building a new dual carriageway west of Strasbourg
43
What plans have been canceled?
5a6fea3b8abb0b001a676055
True
Hœrdt
290
The dual carriageway would link what interchange to the left of the Rhine?
5a6fea3b8abb0b001a676056
True
Karlsruhe-Basel Autobahn
816
What is the name of the new carriageway?
5a6fea3b8abb0b001a676057
True
10%
592
What percentage of traffic used the Karlsruhe-Basel Autobahn?
5a6fea3b8abb0b001a676058
True
41,000
427
How many vehicles crossed teh Karlsruhe-Basel Autobahn per day in 1950?
5a6fea3b8abb0b001a676059
True
At present, plans are being considered for building a new dual carriageway west of Strasbourg, which would reduce the buildup of traffic in that area by picking up north and southbound vehicles and getting rid of the buildup outside Strasbourg. The line plans to link up the interchange of Hœrdt to the north of Strasbourg, with Innenheim in the southwest. The opening is envisaged at the end of 2011, with an average usage of 41,000 vehicles a day. Estimates of the French Works Commissioner however, raised some doubts over the interest of such a project, since it would pick up only about 10% of the traffic of the A35 at Strasbourg. Paradoxically, this reversed the situation of the 1950s. At that time, the French trunk road left of the Rhine not been built, so that traffic would cross into Germany to use the Karlsruhe-Basel Autobahn.
Carnival
What's the name of the Christian festive season that occurs before the season of Lent?
57275858f1498d1400e8f6a4
Carnival
0
False
When do the main events of the Christian festival occur?
57275858f1498d1400e8f6a5
February
159
False
Who is the Carnival open to?
57275858f1498d1400e8f6a6
public
280
False
What do participants of the Carnival experience a heightened sense of?
57275858f1498d1400e8f6a7
social unity
531
False
What is consumed in excessive amounts during Lent?
57275858f1498d1400e8f6a8
alcohol
570
False
Carnival (see other spellings and names) is a Christian festive season that occurs before the Christian season of Lent. The main events typically occur during February or early March, during the period historically known as Shrovetide (or Pre-Lent). Carnival typically involves a public celebration and/or parade combining some elements of a circus, masks and public street party. People wear masks and costumes during many such celebrations, allowing them to lose their everyday individuality and experience a heightened sense of social unity. Excessive consumption of alcohol, meat, and other foods proscribed during Lent is extremely common. Other common features of carnival include mock battles such as food fights; social satire and mockery of authorities; the grotesque body displaying exaggerated features especially large noses, bellies, mouths, and phalli or elements of animal bodies; abusive language and degrading acts; depictions of disease and gleeful death; and a general reversal of everyday rules and norms.
The term Carnival is very common in areas with a large presence of which religious sect?
5727594add62a815002e9b82
Catholic
62
False
What country no longer celebrates Carnival?
5727594add62a815002e9b83
the Philippines
90
False
The Manila Carnival was dissolved after what year?
5727594add62a815002e9b84
1939
234
False
What is the Carnival known as in countries which are mostly Lutheran?
5727594add62a815002e9b85
Fastelavn
338
False
What is the name of the festival celebrated in Eastern Orthodox nations during the last week before Great Lent?
5727594add62a815002e9b86
Maslenitsa
532
False
The term Carnival is traditionally used in areas with a large Catholic presence. However, the Philippines, a predominantly Roman Catholic country, does not celebrate Carnival anymore since the dissolution of the Manila Carnival after 1939, the last carnival in the country. In historically Lutheran countries, the celebration is known as Fastelavn, and in areas with a high concentration of Anglicans and Methodists, pre-Lenten celebrations, along with penitential observances, occur on Shrove Tuesday. In Eastern Orthodox nations, Maslenitsa is celebrated during the last week before Great Lent. In German-speaking Europe and the Netherlands, the Carnival season traditionally opens on 11/11 (often at 11:11 a.m.). This dates back to celebrations before the Advent season or with harvest celebrations of St. Martin's Day.
Why was the carnival feast typically the last opportunity to eat well?
57275a2bdd62a815002e9b9c
food shortage at the end of the winter
87
False
What was one limited to during the winter?
57275a2bdd62a815002e9b9d
the minimum necessary
158
False
What does "vastenavond" mean?
57275a2bdd62a815002e9b9e
the days before fasting)
221
False
Why would all the remaining stores of lard, butter and meat left at vastenavond be eaten?
57275a2bdd62a815002e9b9f
it would soon start to rot and decay
339
False
When would new food sources be available for those who survived the winter?
57275a2bdd62a815002e9ba0
spring
619
False
Traditionally a carnival feast was the last opportunity to eat well before the time of food shortage at the end of the winter during which one was limited to the minimum necessary. On what nowadays is called vastenavond (the days before fasting) all the remaining winter stores of lard, butter and meat which were left would be eaten, for it would soon start to rot and decay. The selected livestock had in fact already been slaughtered in November and the meat would be no longer preservable. All the food that had survived the winter had to be eaten to assure that everyone was fed enough to survive until the coming spring would provide new food sources.
What did a bunch of Germanic tribes celebrate?
57275b6edd62a815002e9ba6
the returning of the daylight
35
False
How was the ship carrying a predominant deity moved around during the jubilee?
57275b6edd62a815002e9ba7
on wheels
156
False
Why was the winter driven out?
57275b6edd62a815002e9ba8
to make sure that fertility could return in spring
199
False
What is Nerthus the goddess of?
57275b6edd62a815002e9ba9
fertility
285
False
How would the marriage of a man and woman on the ship serve as a fertility ritual?
57275b6edd62a815002e9baa
be consummated
556
False
Several Germanic tribes celebrated the returning of the daylight. A predominant deity was during this jubilee driven around in a noisy procession on a ship on wheels. The winter would be driven out, to make sure that fertility could return in spring. A central figure was possibly the fertility goddess Nerthus. Also there are some indications that the effigy of Nerthus or Freyr was placed on a ship with wheels and accompanied by a procession of people in animal disguise and men in women's clothes. Aboard the ship would the marriage of a man and woman be consummated as a fertility ritual.
Who wrote the Germania?
57275d775951b619008f88cd
Tacitus
0
False
What do the Germans feel it inconsistent to confine gods within?
57275d775951b619008f88ce
walls
285
False
Germans do not liken the gods to whose countenance?
57275d775951b619008f88cf
human
328
False
When is the car used in the ritual purified?
57275d775951b619008f88d0
Afterwards
444
False
Where is the divinity herself purified?
57275d775951b619008f88d1
a secret lake
549
False
Tacitus wrote in his Germania: Germania 9.6: Ceterum nec cohibere parietibus deos neque in ullam humani oris speciem adsimulare ex magnitudine caelestium arbitrator – "The Germans, however, do not consider it consistent with the grandeur of celestial beings to confine the gods within walls, or to liken them to the form of any human countenance." Germania 40: mox vehiculum et vestis et, si credere velis, numen ipsum secreto lacu abluitur – "Afterwards the car, the vestments, and, if you like to believe it, the divinity herself, are purified in a secret lake."
What desires were expected to be suppressed during the fasting period?
57275eab5951b619008f88df
sexual
40
False
All rich food and drink were consumed before what named event?
57275eab5951b619008f88e0
Lent
130
False
The giant celebration that involved the whole community is thought to be the origin of what festivity?
57275eab5951b619008f88e1
Carnival
285
False
How long is the Lenten period of the Liturgical calendar?
57275eab5951b619008f88e2
six weeks
345
False
What type of rich foods did people refrain from eating during Lent?
57275eab5951b619008f88e3
meat, dairy, fat and sugar
558
False
Traditionally the feast also applied to sexual desires, which were supposed to be suppressed during the following fasting. Before Lent began, all rich food and drink were consumed in what became a giant celebration that involved the whole community, and is thought to be the origin of Carnival. The Lenten period of the Liturgical calendar, the six weeks directly before Easter, was originally marked by fasting and other pious or penitential practices. During Lent, no parties or celebrations were held, and people refrained from eating rich foods, such as meat, dairy, fat and sugar.
What was one of the festivals sanctioned by the church?
57276074f1498d1400e8f718
corpus christi
34
False
Carnival was also a result of what area's folk culture?
57276074f1498d1400e8f719
European
123
False
How many days is Jesus traditionally said to have fasted in the desert?
57276074f1498d1400e8f71a
40
207
False
What pagan midwinter festival did the church find easier to subvert than eliminate?
57276074f1498d1400e8f71b
Christmas
366
False
Why were multiple holidays seized by the Catholic population?
57276074f1498d1400e8f71c
outlet for their daily frustrations
785
False
While christian festivals such as corpus christi were church-sanctioned celebrations, Carnival was also a manifestation of European folk culture. In the Christian tradition the fasting is to commemorate the 40 days that Jesus fasted in the desert according to the New Testament and also to reflect on Christian values. As with many other Christian festivals such as Christmas which was originally a pagan midwinter festival, the Christian church has found it easier to turn the pagan Carnaval in a catholic tradition than to eliminate it.  Unlike today, carnival in the Middle Ages took not just a few days, but it covered almost the entire period between Christmas and the beginning of Lent. In those two months, several Catholic holidays were seized by the Catholic population as an outlet for their daily frustrations.
In what year did the synod in Leptines rant against the excesses of the festival?
5727617f708984140094dcbd
743
12
False
In what month did the excesses occur?
5727617f708984140094dcbe
February
140
False
What type of books from around 800 contain more information of people's traditions during this period?
5727617f708984140094dcbf
Confession
311
False
What was it a sin with no small penance to dress up as?
5727617f708984140094dcc0
an animal or old woman
401
False
What would some people in Spain go out disguised as?
5727617f708984140094dcc1
the opposite gender
668
False
In the year 743 the synod in Leptines (Leptines is located near Binche in Belgium) spoke out furiously against the excesses in the month of February. Also from the same period dates the phrase: "Whoever in February by a variety of less honorable acts tries to drive out winter is not a Christian, but a pagan." Confession books from around 800 contain more information about how people would dress as an animal or old woman during the festivities in January and February, even though this was a sin with no small penance. Also in Spain, San Isidoro de Sevilla is written complaint in the seventh century that people coming out into the streets disguised in many cases the opposite gender.
Many Carnival traditions form an integral part of whose calendar?
5727645a5951b619008f8947
Christian
38
False
What two ancient Roman festivals is Carnival thought to stem from?
5727645a5951b619008f8948
Saturnalia and Bacchanalia
245
False
The Saturnalia is potentially based on what Greek festival?
5727645a5951b619008f8949
Dionysia
324
False
On which month and day did Saturnalia start?
5727645a5951b619008f894a
December 17
399
False
What happened to the men and women chosen to represent the Lord of Misrule?
5727645a5951b619008f894b
horribly murdered
605
False
While forming an integral part of the Christian calendar, particularly in Catholic regions, many Carnival traditions resemble those antedating Christianity. Italian Carnival is sometimes thought to be derived from the ancient Roman festivals of Saturnalia and Bacchanalia. The Saturnalia, in turn, may be based on the Greek Dionysia and Oriental festivals. For the start of the Roman Saturnalia, on December 17 authorities chose an enemy of the Roman people to represent the Lord of Misrule in each community. These men and women were forced to indulge in food and physical pleasures throughout the week, horribly murdered on December 25th: "destroying the forces of darkness".
What is insufficient to establish a direct origin from ancient festivals to Carnival?
57276669f1498d1400e8f76e
evidence
323
False
What festival did no complete accounts describing survive?
57276669f1498d1400e8f76f
Saturnalia
445
False
How do both Jesus and King Carnival make a gift to the people?
57276669f1498d1400e8f770
with their deaths
1120
False
What is the gift of King Carnival?
57276669f1498d1400e8f771
acknowledgement that death is a necessary part of the cycle of life
1234
False
Who was forced to race naked through the streets of Rom by Pope Paul II?
57276669f1498d1400e8f772
Jews
1968
False
While medieval pageants and festivals such as Corpus Christi were church-sanctioned, Carnival was also a manifestation of medieval folk culture. Many local Carnival customs are claimed to derive from local pre-Christian rituals, such as elaborate rites involving masked figures in the Swabian–Alemannic Fastnacht. However, evidence is insufficient to establish a direct origin from Saturnalia or other ancient festivals. No complete accounts of Saturnalia survive and the shared features of feasting, role reversals, temporary social equality, masks and permitted rule-breaking do not necessarily constitute a coherent festival or link these festivals. These similarities may represent a reservoir of cultural resources that can embody multiple meanings and functions. For example, Easter begins with the resurrection of Jesus, followed by a liminal period and ends with rebirth. Carnival reverses this as King Carnival comes to life, a liminal period follows before his death. Both feasts are calculated by the lunar calendar. Both Jesus and King Carnival may be seen as expiatory figures who make a gift to the people with their deaths. In the case of Jesus, the gift is eternal life in heaven and in the case of King Carnival, the acknowledgement that death is a necessary part of the cycle of life. Besides Christian anti-Judaism, the commonalities between church and Carnival rituals and imagery suggest a common root. Christ's passion is itself grotesque: Since early Christianity Christ is figured as the victim of summary judgement, is tortured and executed by Romans before a Jewish mob ("His blood is on us and on our children!" Matthew 27:24–25). Holy Week processions in Spain include crowds who vociferously insult the figure of Jesus. Irreverence, parody, degradation and laughter at a tragicomic effigy God can be seen as intensifications of the sacred order. In 1466, the Catholic Church under Pope Paul II revieved customs of the Saturnalia carnival: Jews were forced to race naked through the streets of the city of Rome. “Before they were to run, the Jews were richly fed, so as to make the race more difficult for them and at the same time more amusing for spectators. They ran… amid Rome’s taunting shrieks and peals of laughter, while the Holy Father stood upon a richly ornamented balcony and laughed heartily”, an eyewitness reports.
Where were some of the best-known traditions first recorded?
572767ee5951b619008f897b
Italy
114
False
What city's carnival was the most famous for a long time?
572767ee5951b619008f897c
Venice
137
False
What was the first place in North America with a Carnival tradition?
572767ee5951b619008f897d
New France
365
False
What were rabbis from the ghettos forced to march through the city streets wearing?
572767ee5951b619008f897e
foolish guise
790
False
Who dismissed the petition of the Jewish community to stop the abuse of them?
572767ee5951b619008f897f
Pope Gregory XVI
928
False
Some of the best-known traditions, including carnal parades and masquerade balls, were first recorded in medieval Italy. The carnival of Venice was, for a long time, the most famous carnival (although Napoleon abolished it in 1797 and only in 1979 was the tradition restored). From Italy, Carnival traditions spread to Spain, Portugal and France and from France to New France in North America. From Spain and Portugal it spread with colonization to the Caribbean and Latin America. In the early 19th century in the German Rhineland and Southern Netherlands, the weakened medieval tradition also revive. Continuously in the 18th and 19th centuries CE, as part of the annual Saturnalia abuse of the carnival in Rome, rabbis of the ghetto were forced to march through the city streets wearing foolish guise, jeered upon and pelted by a variety of missiles from the crowd. A petition of the Jewish community of Rome sent in 1836 to Pope Gregory XVI to stop the annual anti-semitic Saturnalia abuse got a negation: “It is not opportune to make any innovation.”
What nationality were the settlers from who introduced Carnival?
572768c8dd62a815002e9c62
Portuguese
27
False
How many of the inhabited islands is Carnival celebrated on?
572768c8dd62a815002e9c63
nine
107
False
What do groups in Mindelo challenge each other for?
572768c8dd62a815002e9c64
a yearly prize
187
False
Three groups in São Nicolau make use of fire in the construction of what conveyance?
572768c8dd62a815002e9c65
a painted float
547
False
Over how many days is São Nicolau's Carnival celebrated?
572768c8dd62a815002e9c66
three
672
False
Carnival was introduced by Portuguese settlers. The celebration is celebrated on each of the archipelago's nine inhabited islands. In Mindelo, São Vicente groups challenge each other for a yearly prize. It has imported various Brazilian carnival traditions. The celebration in SãoNicolau is more traditional, where established groups parade through the Ribeira Brava, gathering in the town square, although it has adopted drums, floats and costumes from Brazil. In São Nicolau three groups, Copa Cabana, Estrela Azul and Brilho Da Zona constructs a painted float using fire, newspaper for the mold, iron and steel to for structure. Carnival São Nicolau is celebrated over three days: dawn Saturday, Sunday afternoon, and Tuesday.
What is the only state in India in which Carnival is celebrated?
57276a08f1498d1400e8f79e
Goa
54
False
What does the Indian word "Intruz" mean?
57276a08f1498d1400e8f79f
swindler
130
False
The largest Carnival celebration takes place in which city?
57276a08f1498d1400e8f7a0
Panjim
254
False
What is eaten on Fat Tuesday to partake in the celebration?
57276a08f1498d1400e8f7a1
crepes
550
False
What legendary king eventually takes over the state?
57276a08f1498d1400e8f7a2
Momo
894
False
In India, Carnival is celebrated only in the state of Goa and a Roman Catholic tradition, where it is known as Intruz which means swindler while Entrudo, the appropriate word in Portuguese for Carnival. The largest celebration takes place in the city of Panjim which was part of Velha Conquista, Goa, but now is celebrate throughout the state. The tradition was introduced by the Portuguese who ruled Goa for over four centuries. On Tuesday preceding Ash Wednesday, the European Tradition of Fat Tuesday is celebrated with the partaking of eating of crepes also called as "AleBelle." The crepes are filled with freshly grated coconut and heat condensed coconut sap that sequentially converts it into a brown sweet molasses and additional heat concentration solidifies it to jaggery. The celebrations of Carnival peak for three days and nights and precede Ash Wednesday. When the legendary King Momo takes over the state. All-night parades occur throughout the state with bands, dances and floats and grand balls are held in the evenings.
Whose Carnival is known local as Cwarmê?
57276b96dd62a815002e9c94
Malmedy
16
False
Despite being located in East Belgium, Malmedy's Carnival harks purely to what area?
57276b96dd62a815002e9c95
Latin
162
False
How many days does Malmedy's festival take place before Shrove Tuesday?
57276b96dd62a815002e9c96
4
213
False
Where can all the traditional costumes be seen parading on the Sunday of the festival?
57276b96dd62a815002e9c97
in the street
352
False
What do disguised people pass through during the festival?
57276b96dd62a815002e9c98
the crowd
465
False
The Carnival of Malmedy is locally called Cwarmê. Even if Malmedy is located in the east Belgium, near the German-speaking area, the Cwarmê is a pure walloon and Latin carnival. The celebration takes place during 4 days before the Shrove Tuesday. The Cwarmê Sunday is the most important and insteresting to see. All the old traditional costumes parade in the street. The Cwarmê is a "street carnival" and is not only a parade. People who are disguised pass through the crowd and perform a part of the traditional costume they wear. The famous traditional costumes at the Cwarmê of Malmedy are the Haguète, the Longuès-Brèsses and the Long-Né.
What do some Belgian cities hold during Lent?
572774e65951b619008f8a5b
Carnivals
25
False
What Carnival takes place on Laetare Sunday?
572774e65951b619008f8a5c
the Carnival de la Laetare
89
False
What group of participants attack bystanders with confetti and dried pig bladders?
572774e65951b619008f8a5d
Blancs-Moussis
203
False
What day does the town of Halle engage in its celebration?
572774e65951b619008f8a5e
Laetare Sunday
380
False
What's the name of Belgium's oldest parade?
572774e65951b619008f8a5f
Carnival Parade of Maaseik
427
False
Some Belgian cities hold Carnivals during Lent. One of the best-known is Stavelot, where the Carnival de la Laetare takes place on Laetare Sunday, the fourth Sunday of Lent. The participants include the Blancs-Moussis, who dress in white, carry long red noses and parade through town attacking bystanders with confetti and dried pig bladders. The town of Halle also celebrates on Laetare Sunday. Belgium's oldest parade is the Carnival Parade of Maaseik, also held on Laetare Sunday, which originated in 1865.
Many towns in what region of Croatia observe the Carnival period?
57277595708984140094de35
Kvarner
24
False
What does every Kvarner town burn just before the end of the Carnival?
57277595708984140094de36
a man-like doll
224
False
Who is blamed for all the strife of the previous year?
57277595708984140094de37
Jure Piškanac
250
False
What does the head regalia of the bell-ringers represent?
57277595708984140094de38
their areas of origin
399
False
What is the traditional Carnival food?
57277595708984140094de39
fritule
531
False
Many towns in Croatia's Kvarner region (and in other parts of the country) observe the Carnival period, incorporating local traditions and celebrating local culture. Just before the end of Carnival, every Kvarner town burns a man-like doll called a "Jure Piškanac", who is blamed for all the strife of the previous year. The Zvončari, or bell-ringers, wear bells and large head regalia representing their areas of origin (for example, those from Halubje wear regalia in the shape of animal heads). The traditional Carnival food is fritule, a pastry. This festival can also be called Poklade.
How long has Carnival been celebrated?
57277618dd62a815002e9d6e
centuries
33
False
Under whose rule was Carnival established in the 16th century?
57277618dd62a815002e9d6f
Venetian
87
False
Dionysus was a deity in whose tradition?
57277618dd62a815002e9d70
Greek
157
False
In what century did the Carnival become an organized event?
57277618dd62a815002e9d71
twentieth
335
False
What city almost exclusively celebrates the Carnival?
57277618dd62a815002e9d72
Limassol
526
False
Carnival has been celebrated for centuries. The tradition was likely established under Venetian rule around the 16th century. It may have been influenced by Greek traditions, such as festivities for deities such as Dionysus. The celebration originally involved dressing in costumes and holding masked balls or visiting friends. In the twentieth century it became an organized event held during the 10 days preceding Lent (according to the Greek Orthodox calendar). The festival is celebrated almost exclusively in the city of Limassol.
How many parades take place during Carnival?
572779e05951b619008f8ac1
Three
0
False
Who rides through the city on a carriage?
572779e05951b619008f8ac2
the "Carnival King
96
False
Which of the festivals is comprised of participants who are mainly children?
572779e05951b619008f8ac3
The second
198
False
What do people walk along the town's longest avenue in?
572779e05951b619008f8ac4
costume
400
False
Who are the last two parades open for participation by?
572779e05951b619008f8ac5
anyone who wishes to participate
476
False
Three main parades take place during Carnival. The first is held on the first day, during which the "Carnival King" (either a person in costume or an effigy) rides through the city on his carriage. The second is held on the first Sunday of the festival and the participants are mainly children. The third and largest takes place on the last day of Carnival and involves hundreds of people walking in costume along the town's longest avenue. The latter two parades are open to anyone who wishes to participate.
Where did students in Norway originally see the celebrations?
57277b0fdd62a815002e9e18
Paris
48
False
Where did the artist federation hold their annual balls?
57277b0fdd62a815002e9e19
in the old Freemasons lodge
236
False
Who composed the song "Karneval in Paris"?
57277b0fdd62a815002e9e1a
Johan Svendsens
280
False
What organization has produced annual masquerade balls in Oslo since 1988?
57277b0fdd62a815002e9e1b
Tårnseilerne
559
False
When do the processions occur after?
57277b0fdd62a815002e9e1c
an opera performance
671
False
In Norway, students having seen celebrations in Paris introduced Carnival processions, masked balls and Carnival balls to Christiana in the 1840s and 1850s. From 1863, the artist federation kunstnerforeningen held annual Carnival balls in the old Freemasons lodge, which inspired Johan Svendsens compositions "Norsk Kunstnerkarneval" and "Karneval in Paris". The following year, Svendsens Festpolonaise was written for the opening procession. Edvard Grieg attended and wrote "aus dem Karneval" (folkelivsbilleder Op. 19). Since 1988, the student organization Tårnseilerne has produced annual masquerade balls in Oslo, with masks, costumes and processions after attending an opera performance. The Carnival season also includes Fastelavens søndag (with cream buns) and fastelavensris with decorated branches.
Which Carnival is held in Germany's west?
57277bf6f1498d1400e8f96c
The "Rheinische"
0
False
Cologne Carnival is one of the largest Carnivals and also is the most what?
57277bf6f1498d1400e8f96d
famous
402
False
What is colloquially known as Old Women Day?
57277bf6f1498d1400e8f96e
Nürnberg. On Carnival Thursday
630
False
Who revolted in 1824?
57277bf6f1498d1400e8f96f
washer-women
745
False
What are the women who stormy city halls allowed to do to any passing man?
57277bf6f1498d1400e8f970
kiss
818
False
The "Rheinische" Carnival is held in the west of Germany, mainly in the states of North Rhine-Westphalia or Nordrhein-Westfalen, Rhineland Palatinate or Rheinland-Pfalz, but also in Hessen [including Oberhessen], Bavaria and other states. Some cities are more famous for celebrations such as parades and costume balls. Köln or Cologne Carnival, as well as Mainz and Düsseldorf are the largest and most famous. Other cities have their own, often less well-known celebrations, parades and parties such as Worms am Rhein, Speyer, Kaiserslautern, Frankfurt, Darmstadt, Mannheim, Ludwigshafen, Stuttgart, Augsburg and München [Munich] Nürnberg. On Carnival Thursday (called "Old Women Day" or "The Women's Day") in commemoration of an 1824 revolt by washer-women, women storm city halls, cut men's ties, and are allowed to kiss any passing man.
What is the Greece Carnival also called?
57277c965951b619008f8b27
the Apokriés
36
False
What does the Opening of the Triodion derive from?
57277c965951b619008f8b28
the liturgical book used by the church
157
False
What is one of the festival season's high points?
57277c965951b619008f8b29
Tsiknopempti
258
False
What types of dinners do people enjoy during the season's high point?
57277c965951b619008f8b2a
roast beef
294
False
What do people engage in after they've disguised themselves?
57277c965951b619008f8b2b
pranks and revelry
677
False
In Greece Carnival is also known as the Apokriés (Greek: Αποκριές, "saying goodbye to meat"), or the season of the "Opening of the Triodion", so named after the liturgical book used by the church from then until Holy Week. One of the season's high points is Tsiknopempti, when celebrants enjoy roast beef dinners; the ritual is repeated the following Sunday. The following week, the last before Lent, is called Tyrinē (Greek: Τυρινή, "cheese [week]") because meat is forbidden, although dairy products are not. Lent begins on "Clean Monday", the day after "Cheese Sunday". Throughout the Carnival season, people disguise themselves as maskarádes ("masqueraders") and engage in pranks and revelry.
Who holds an annual Phallus festival?
57277db4dd62a815002e9e92
Tyrnavos
226
False
What are the giant, gaudily painted effigies of phalluses made of?
57277db4dd62a815002e9e93
papier maché
365
False
What are women rewarded with for kissing the giant phalluses?
57277db4dd62a815002e9e94
a shot of the famous local tsipouro alcohol spirit
464
False
What is the ancient celebration for?
57277db4dd62a815002e9e95
nature's rebirth
940
False
In what square do the bands all play at once?
57277db4dd62a815002e9e96
Ntoltso
1075
False
Other regions host festivities of smaller extent, focused on the reenactment of traditional carnevalic customs, such as Tyrnavos (Thessaly), Kozani (West Macedonia), Rethymno (Crete) and in Xanthi (East Macedonia and Thrace). Tyrnavos holds an annual Phallus festival, a traditional "phallkloric" event in which giant, gaudily painted effigies of phalluses made of papier maché are paraded, and which women are asked to touch or kiss. Their reward for so doing is a shot of the famous local tsipouro alcohol spirit. Every year, from 1 to 8 January, mostly in regions of Western Macedonia, Carnival fiestas and festivals erupt. The best known is the Kastorian Carnival or "Ragoutsaria" (Gr. "Ραγκουτσάρια") [tags: Kastoria, Kastorian Carnival, Ragoutsaria, Ραγκουτσαρια, Καστοριά]. It takes place from 6 to 8 January with mass participation serenaded by brass bands, pipises, Macedonian and grand casa drums. It is an ancient celebration of nature's rebirth (fiestas for Dionysus (Dionysia) and Kronos (Saturnalia)), which ends the third day in a dance in the medieval square Ntoltso where the bands play at the same time.
In what provinces is the Carnival mainly celebrated in the Netherlands?
57277e4edd62a815002e9eb4
southern
149
False
Dutch Carnaval is celebrated until which Wednesday?
57277e4edd62a815002e9eb5
Ash
275
False
What vary from town to town in regards to the Carnival?
57277e4edd62a815002e9eb6
traditions
299
False
What is consumed on Ash Wednesday?
57277e4edd62a815002e9eb7
herring
508
False
What is dutch for "Peasant Wedding"?
57277e4edd62a815002e9eb8
boerenbruiloft
480
False
Carnival in the Netherlands is called Carnaval, Vastenavond or Vastelaovend(j), and is most celebrated in traditionally Catholic regions, mainly the southern provinces North Brabant and Limburg. Dutch Carnaval is officially celebrated on the Sunday through Tuesday preceding Ash Wednesday. Although traditions vary from town to town, some common characteristics of Dutch Carnaval include a parade, a "prince" plus cortège ("Jester/adjutant and Council of 11"), a Peasant Wedding (boerenbruiloft), and eating herring (haring happen) on Ash Wednesday.
How long has the Strumica Carnival been going on?
57277f0af1498d1400e8f9d8
since at least 1670
101
False
What nationality was Evlija Chelebija?
57277f0af1498d1400e8f9d9
Turkish
131
False
Who ran from house to house, laughing, screaming, and singing?
57277f0af1498d1400e8f9da
masked people
283
False
What day is the main Carnival Night observed on?
57277f0af1498d1400e8f9db
Tuesday
650
False
What year was the Festival of Caricatures and Aphorisms added to Strumica's Carnival celebrations?
57277f0af1498d1400e8f9dc
2000
750
False
The Strumica Carnival (Macedonian: Струмички Карневал, translated Strumichki Karneval) has been held since at least 1670, when the Turkish author Evlija Chelebija wrote while staying there, "I came into a town located in the foothills of a high hillock and what I saw that night was masked people running house–to–house, with laughter, scream and song." The Carnival took an organized form in 1991; in 1994, Strumica became a member of FECC and in 1998 hosted the XVIII International Congress of Carnival Cities. The Strumica Carnival opens on a Saturday night at a masked ball where the Prince and Princess are chosen; the main Carnival night is on Tuesday, when masked participants (including groups from abroad) compete in various subjects. As of 2000, the Festival of Caricatures and Aphorisms has been held as part of Strumica's Carnival celebrations.
What countryside has multiple groups and individuals in disguise?
57277f9d5951b619008f8b67
Slovenian
4
False
Kurent is monstrous and demon-like, but also what?
57277f9d5951b619008f8b68
fluffy
204
False
Where is the most significant Slovenian festival held?
57277f9d5951b619008f8b69
Ptuj
260
False
Who are magical creatures from another world?
57277f9d5951b619008f8b6a
the Kurents
310
False
What do the Kurents try to banish?
57277f9d5951b619008f8b6b
winter
440
False
The Slovenian countryside displays a variety of disguised groups and individual characters among which the most popular and characteristic is the Kurent (plural: Kurenti), a monstrous and demon-like, but fluffy figure. The most significant festival is held in Ptuj (see: Kurentovanje). Its special feature are the Kurents themselves, magical creatures from another world, who visit major events throughout the country, trying to banish the winter and announce spring's arrival, fertility, and new life with noise and dancing. The origin of the Kurent is a mystery, and not much is known of the times, beliefs, or purposes connected with its first appearance. The origin of the name itself is obscure.
The chirigotas, choirs and comparsas are the most famous of what?
57278033dd62a815002e9ede
groups
16
False
What do the chirigotas sing about?
57278033dd62a815002e9edf
politics, new times and household topics
140
False
How long does it take for a chirigota to prepare their costume?
57278033dd62a815002e9ee0
the whole year
231
False
Which group rides around in open carts through the streets?
57278033dd62a815002e9ee1
The Choirs
247
False
Who has the most elaborated polyphony?
57278033dd62a815002e9ee2
The comparsas
463
False
The most famous groups are the chirigotas, choirs and comparsas. The chirigotas are well known witty, satiric popular groups who sing about politics, new times and household topics, wearing the same costume, which they prepare for the whole year. The Choirs (coros) are wider groups that go on open carts through the streets singing with an orchestra of guitars and lutes. Their signature piece is the "Carnival Tango", alternating comical and serious repertory. The comparsas are the serious counterpart of the chirigota in Cádiz, and the poetic lyrics and the criticism are their main ingredients. They have a more elaborated polyphony that is easily recognizable by the typical countertenor voice.
Where do people dress in masks and costume?
572781a9708984140094df83
Catalonia
3
False
What are raced as part of the festivities?
572781a9708984140094df84
bed
154
False
What is Cantalonian for Eternal Prince of Cuckoldry?
572781a9708984140094df85
Princep etern de Cornudella
400
False
Who has a lovely breast?
572781a9708984140094df86
Marquès
520
False
Who is upon the bed?
572781a9708984140094df87
the Artist of Honor
850
False
In Catalonia people dress in masks and costume (often in themed groups) and organize a week-long series of parties, pranks, outlandish activities such as bed races, street dramas satirizing public figures and raucous processions to welcome the arrival of Sa Majestat el Rei Carnestoltes (His Majesty King Carnival), known by various titles, including el Rei dels poca-soltes (King of the Crackpots), Princep etern de Cornudella (Eternal Prince of Cuckoldry), Duc de ximples i corrumputs (Duke of Fools and the Corrupt), Marquès de la bona mamella (Marquis of the lovely breast), Comte de tots els barruts (Count of the Insolent), Baró de les Calaverades (Baron of Nocturnal Debaucheries), and Senyor de l'alt Plàtan florit, dels barraquers i gamberrades i artista d'honor dalt del llit (Lord of the Tall Banana in Bloom, of the Voyeurs and Punks and the Artist of Honor upon the Bed).
When may conventional social rules be broken?
57278281708984140094df99
a period of misrule
23
False
Who oversees the period of reckless behavior?
57278281708984140094df9a
The King
0
False
What is the ritual procession through the town to call everyone to attendance called?
57278281708984140094df9b
cercavila
184
False
Fat Thursday is also known as what day?
57278281708984140094df9c
omelette day
371
False
Who is typically burned on a pyre?
57278281708984140094df9d
King Carnival
570
False
The King presides over a period of misrule in which conventional social rules may be broken and reckless behavior is encouraged. Festivities are held in the open air, beginning with a cercavila, a ritual procession throughout the town to call everyone to attend. Rues of masked revelers dance alongside. On Thursday Dijous Gras (Fat Thursday) is celebrated, also called 'omelette day' (el dia de la truita), coques (de llardons, butifarra d'ou, butifarra) and omelettes are eaten. The festivities end on Ash Wednesday with elaborate funeral rituals marking the death of King Carnival, who is typically burned on a pyre in what is called the burial of the sardine (enterrament de la sardina), or, in Vilanova, as l'enterro.
What city's carnival has documented history from 1790?
572783585951b619008f8bcb
Vilanova i la Geltrú
16
False
What do the Vilanovins mock the media friendly Carnivals as being about?
572783585951b619008f8bcc
"thighs and feathers"
396
False
In what dance do the participants lob more than 75 tons of hard candy at each other?
572783585951b619008f8bcd
Les Comparses
440
False
What do dancers lampoon in the ritual heralding the coming of King Carnival?
572783585951b619008f8bce
current events or public figures
918
False
What's the name of the day-long agenda of eating and fighting with meringue?
572783585951b619008f8bcf
Merengada
1104
False
The Carnival of Vilanova i la Geltrú has documented history from 1790 and is one of the richest in the variety of its acts and rituals. It adopts an ancient style in which satire, the grotesque body (particularly cross-dressing and displays of exaggerated bellies, noses and phalli) and above all, active participation are valued over glamorous, media-friendly spectacles that Vilanovins mock as "thighs and feathers". It is best known for Les Comparses (held on Sunday), a tumultuous dance in which 12,000 or more dancers organized into rival groups throw 75 tons of hard candies at one other. The women protect their faces with Mantons de Manila (Manila shawls) but eye-patches and slings for broken arms are common the following week. Vilanovins organize an elaborate ritual for the arrival of King Carnival called l'Arrivo that changes every year. It includes a raucous procession of floats and dancers lampooning current events or public figures and a bitingly satiric sermon (el sermo) delivered by the King himself. On Dijous Gras, Vilanovin children are excused from school to participate in the Merengada, a day-long scene of eating and fighting with sticky, sweet meringue.
What sort of battle do the adults have at midnight?
572785ddf1498d1400e8fabc
meringue
14
False
Who throws insults at the crowd?
572785ddf1498d1400e8fabd
the Xerraire
171
False
What behavior scandalizes the town?
572785ddf1498d1400e8fabe
sexual
296
False
Who creates sparks and explosions?
572785ddf1498d1400e8fabf
ritual crew of devils
431
False
Who is the children's King?
572785ddf1498d1400e8fac0
Caramel
725
False
Adults have a meringue battle at midnight at the historic Plaça de les Cols. In the mysterious sortida del Moixo Foguer (the outing of Little-Bird-Bonfire) accompanied by the Xerraire (jabberer) who insults the crowd. In the King's precession he and his concubines scandalize the town with their sexual behavior. A correfoc (fire run) or Devil's dance (Ball de diables, features dancing youth amid the sparks and explosions of the ritual crew of devils. Other items includes bed races in the streets, the debauched Nit dels Mascarots, Karaoke sausage roasts, xatonades, the children's party, Vidalet, the last night of revelry, Vidalot, the talking-dance of the Mismatched Couples (Ball de Malcasats) and the children's King Caramel whose massive belly, long nose and sausage-like hair hint at his insatiable appetites.
What do people dress in for the King's funeral?
572787e6dd62a815002e9f96
elaborate mourning costume
40
False
Who carries floral arrangements of penis-like veggies?
572787e6dd62a815002e9f97
cross-dressing men
81
False
Who weeps around the body of the King?
572787e6dd62a815002e9f98
concubines
229
False
What type of eulogy is provided for the King?
572787e6dd62a815002e9f99
satiric
368
False
What ritual suggests symbolic cannibalism?
572787e6dd62a815002e9f9a
communion
509
False
For the King's funeral, people dress in elaborate mourning costume, many of them cross-dressing men who carry bouquets of phallic vegetables. In the funeral house, the body of the King is surrounded by an honor guard and weeping concubines, crying over the loss of sexual pleasure brought about by his death. The King's body is carried to the Plaça de la Vila where a satiric eulogy is delivered while the townspeople eat salty grilled sardines with bread and wine, suggesting the symbolic cannibalism of the communion ritual. Finally, amid rockets and explosions, the King's body is burned in a massive pyre.
What is one of the longest free events in the streets?
57278c84dd62a815002ea01e
Carnaval de Solsona
0
False
How long can the nightly concerts run for?
57278c84dd62a815002ea01f
more than a week
135
False
What was a donkey hung from according to local legend?
57278c84dd62a815002ea020
the tower bell
227
False
How does the donkey piss on the crowd below?
57278c84dd62a815002ea021
water pump
432
False
What does "matarrucs" mean?
57278c84dd62a815002ea022
donkey killers
570
False
Carnaval de Solsona takes place in Solsona, Lleida. It is one of the longest; free events in the streets, and nightly concerts run for more than a week. The Carnival is known for a legend that explains how a donkey was hung at the tower bell − because the animal wanted to eat grass that grew on the top of the tower. To celebrate this legend, locals hang a stuffed donkey at the tower that "pisses" above the excited crowd using a water pump. This event is the most important and takes place on Saturday night. For this reason, the inhabitants are called "matarrucs" ("donkey killers").
Who has one of the most complete ritual agendas?
57278d02f1498d1400e8fbc6
Tarragona
0
False
What do the events of Tarragona start with?
57278d02f1498d1400e8fbc7
building of a huge barrel
92
False
On what day does the main parade take place?
57278d02f1498d1400e8fbc8
Saturday
188
False
What are the clothing of the Carnival groups full of?
57278d02f1498d1400e8fbc9
elegance
425
False
About how many people are members of the various parade groups?
57278d02f1498d1400e8fbca
5,000
522
False
Tarragona has one of the region's most complete ritual sequences. The events start with the building of a huge barrel and ends with its burning with the effigies of the King and Queen. On Saturday, the main parade takes place with masked groups, zoomorphic figures, music and percussion bands, and groups with fireworks (the devils, the dragon, the ox, the female dragon). Carnival groups stand out for their clothes full of elegance, showing brilliant examples of fabric crafts, at the Saturday and Sunday parades. About 5,000 people are members of the parade groups.
What contagiously throbs during the week of events?
57278dc7f1498d1400e8fbd8
music
95
False
How long does Aruba's biggest celebration last?
57278dc7f1498d1400e8fbd9
a month
334
False
What type of costumes play a central role in the Queen elections?
57278dc7f1498d1400e8fbda
flamboyant
458
False
What continues in various districts throughout the month of the Carnival?
57278dc7f1498d1400e8fbdb
Street parades
545
False
When is King Mom symbolically burnt?
57278dc7f1498d1400e8fbdc
On the evening before Lent
661
False
Carnival means weeks of events that bring colourfully decorated floats, contagiously throbbing music, luxuriously costumed groups of celebrants of all ages, King and Queen elections, electrifying jump-ups and torchlight parades, the Jouvert morning: the Children's Parades and finally the Grand Parade. Aruba's biggest celebration is a month-long affair consisting of festive "jump-ups" (street parades), spectacular parades and creative contests. Music and flamboyant costumes play a central role, from the Queen elections to the Grand Parade. Street parades continue in various districts throughout the month, with brass band, steel drum and roadmarch tunes. On the evening before Lent, Carnival ends with the symbolic burning of King Momo.
What is the Carnival known as in Barbados?
57278e51f1498d1400e8fbf6
Crop Over
21
False
Where did the festival in Barbados originate from?
57278e51f1498d1400e8fbf7
sugar cane plantations
100
False
What year did Crop Over begin?
57278e51f1498d1400e8fbf8
1688
170
False
What activity is done using a greased pole?
57278e51f1498d1400e8fbf9
climbing
334
False
What is the finale of Crop Over called?
57278e51f1498d1400e8fbfa
The Grand Kadooment
673
False
Carnival is known as Crop Over and is Barbados's biggest festival. Its early beginnings were on the sugar cane plantations during the colonial period. Crop over began in 1688, and featured singing, dancing and accompaniment by shak-shak, banjo, triangle, fiddle, guitar, bottles filled with water and bones. Other traditions included climbing a greased pole, feasting and drinking competitions. Originally signaling the end of the yearly cane harvest, it evolved into a national festival. In the late 20th century, Crop Over began to closely mirror the Trinidad Carnival. Beginning in June, Crop Over runs until the first Monday in August when it culminates in the finale, The Grand Kadooment.
What type of competition is a major feature of the festival?
5727904df1498d1400e8fc30
calypso
23
False
Where did Calypso music originate?
5727904df1498d1400e8fc31
Trinidad
74
False
Who perform biting social commentaries?
5727904df1498d1400e8fc32
musicians
276
False
What do the musical groups compete for?
5727904df1498d1400e8fc33
the Calypso Monarch Award
437
False
What is the climax of the festival called?
5727904df1498d1400e8fc34
Kadooment Day
806
False
A major feature is the calypso competition. Calypso music, originating in Trinidad, uses syncopated rhythm and topical lyrics. It offers a medium in which to satirise local politics, amidst the general bacchanal. Calypso tents, also originating in Trinidad, feature cadres of musicians who perform biting social commentaries, political exposés or rousing exhortations to "wuk dah waistline" and "roll dat bumper". The groups compete for the Calypso Monarch Award, while the air is redolent with the smells of Bajan cooking during the Bridgetown Market Street Fair. The Cohobblopot Festival blends dance, drama and music with the crowning of the King and Queen of costume bands. Every evening the "Pic-o-de-Crop" Show is performed after the King of Calypso is finally crowned. The climax of the festival is Kadooment Day celebrated with a national holiday when costume bands fill the streets with pulsating Barbadian rhythms and fireworks.
What's the name of the vehicle where the musicians play?
572790d25951b619008f8da3
a Carrosa
129
False
What do devotees follow during a particular religious celebration?
572790d25951b619008f8da4
a given saint or deity
261
False
Who are usually included the group comparsa?
572790d25951b619008f8da5
notable men from the community
432
False
What is used in some of the festive fights?
572790d25951b619008f8da6
flour
608
False
What is the goal of the Carnival painters?
572790d25951b619008f8da7
to paint as many people as you can
825
False
Comparsas are held throughout the week, consisting of large groups "of dancers dancing and traveling on the streets, followed by a Carrosa (carriage) where the musicians play. The Comparsa is a development of African processions where groups of devotees follow a given saint or deity during a particular religious celebration". One of the most popular comparsas of Fiesta de Carnaval is the male group comparsa, usually composed of notable men from the community who dress up in outlandish costumes or cross-dress and dance to compete for money and prizes. Other popular activities include body painting and flour fighting. "On the last day of Carnival painters flood the street to paint each other. This simply means that a mixture of water paint and water or raw eggs is used to paint people on the streets, the goal being to paint as many people as you can".
What year did the Carnival start in Haiti?
572791465951b619008f8dc1
1804
29
False
What event precipitated the Carnival starting in Haiti?
572791465951b619008f8dc2
declaration of independence
74
False
What is the Carnival known as in the Creole language?
572791465951b619008f8dc3
Kanaval
186
False
What type of bands play for dancers in the streets?
572791465951b619008f8dc4
kompa
544
False
What type of annual competition takes place during Kanavel?
572791465951b619008f8dc5
song
768
False
Carnival in Haiti started in 1804 in the capital Port-au-Prince after the declaration of independence. The Port-au-Prince Carnival is one of the largest in North America. It is known as Kanaval in the Creole language. It starts in January, known as "Pre-Kanaval", while the main carnival activities begin in February. In July 2012, Haiti had another carnival called Kanaval de Fleur. Beautiful costumes, floats, Rara parades, masks, foods, and popular rasin music (like Boukman Eksperyans, Foula Vodoule, Tokay, Boukan Ginen, Eritaj, etc.) and kompa bands (such as T-Vice, Djakout No. 1, Sweet Micky, Kreyòl La, D.P. Express, Mizik Mizik, Ram, T-Micky, Carimi, Djakout Mizik, and Scorpio Fever) play for dancers in the streets of the plaza of Champ-de-Mars. An annual song competition takes place.
When does  Dirty Mas take place on the Monday before Ash Wednesday?
572791e0f1498d1400e8fc66
before dawn
38
False
What do the costumes worn by the revelers pun about?
572791e0f1498d1400e8fc67
current affairs,
190
False
What is "Clean Mud"?
572791e0f1498d1400e8fc68
clay
260
False
What are "jab-jabs"?
572791e0f1498d1400e8fc69
devils
360
False
How are the King and Queen of J'ouvert chosen?
572791e0f1498d1400e8fc6a
based on their witty political/social messages
479
False
J'ouvert, or "Dirty Mas", takes place before dawn on the Monday (known as Carnival Monday) before Ash Wednesday. It means ""opening of the day". Revelers dress in costumes embodying puns on current affairs, especially political and social events. "Clean Mud" (clay mud), oil paint and body paint are familiar during J'ouvert. A common character is "Jab-jabs" (devils, blue, black or red) complete with pitchfork, pointed horns and tails. A King and Queen of J'ouvert are chosen, based on their witty political/social messages.
On what day is full costume worn?
572797715951b619008f8e3d
Carnival Tuesday
0
False
What is usually worn on the feet to compliment the costumes?
572797715951b619008f8e3e
"Mas Boots"
118
False
What does each band base their costume presentation on?
572797715951b619008f8e3f
theme
232
False
What do the mas bands eventually converge on?
572797715951b619008f8e40
the Queen's Park Savannah
435
False
Who gets to be crowned Road March King or Queen?
572797715951b619008f8e41
The singer of the most played song
497
False
Carnival Tuesday hosts the main events. Full costume is worn, complete with make-up and body paint/adornment. Usually "Mas Boots" that complement the costumes are worn. Each band has their costume presentation based on a particular theme, and contains various sections (some consisting of thousands of revelers) that reflect these themes. The street parade and band costume competition take place. The mas bands eventually converge on the Queen's Park Savannah to pass on "The Stage" for judging. The singer of the most played song is crowned Road March King or Queen earning prize money and usually a vehicle.
About how many cities and towns in Mexico is Carnival celebrated in?
5727983ddd62a815002ea16a
225
43
False
What contributes to the variations of the celebrations in the rural areas?
5727983ddd62a815002ea16b
level of European influence
326
False
Where do people take part in mock combat with blank shooting rifles?
5727983ddd62a815002ea16c
Huejotzingo, Puebla
414
False
What is the mock combat roughly based on?
5727983ddd62a815002ea16d
the Battle of Puebla
528
False
Morelos, Oaxaca, Tlaxcala and Chiapas are important states which also have their own what?
5727983ddd62a815002ea16e
local traditions
578
False
In Mexico, Carnival is celebrated in about 225 cities and towns. The largest is in Mazatlán and the city of Veracruz with others in Baja California and Yucatán. The larger city Carnivals employ costumes, elected queens and parades with floats, but Carnival celebrations in smaller and rural areas vary widely depending on the level of European influence during Mexico's colonial period. The largest of these is in Huejotzingo, Puebla where most townspeople take part in mock combat with rifles shooting blanks, roughly based on the Battle of Puebla. Other important states with local traditions include Morelos, Oaxaca, Tlaxcala and Chiapas.
What does Mardi Gras translate to in French?
572798f0dd62a815002ea192
Fat Tuesday
58
False
Where was Mardi Gras first celebrated?
572798f0dd62a815002ea193
Gulf Coast area
111
False
What originated in the onetime French colonial capitals?
572798f0dd62a815002ea194
Customs
158
False
What has been part of the celebrations for many years?
572798f0dd62a815002ea195
street parades and masked balls
344
False
Washington, D.C. and Galveston, Texas are some major American cities which have what?
572798f0dd62a815002ea196
celebrations
410
False
Carnival celebrations, usually referred to as Mardi Gras (Fat Tuesday in French), were first celebrated in the Gulf Coast area, but now occur in many states. Customs originated in the onetime French colonial capitals of Mobile (now in Alabama), New Orleans (Louisiana) and Biloxi (Mississippi), all of which have celebrated for many years with street parades and masked balls. Other major American cities with celebrations include Washington, DC; St. Louis, Missouri; San Francisco; San Diego; Galveston, Texas; and Miami, Pensacola, Tampa, and Orlando in Florida.
Which borough of New York City is Carnival celebrated in?
572799ee708984140094e1f1
Brooklyn
43
False
What American holiday is Carnival celebrated on?
572799ee708984140094e1f2
Labor Day
145
False
What country has one of the largest Caribbean Carnivals?
572799ee708984140094e1f3
Trinidad
301
False
Over how many people typically attend New York's version of the Carnival?
572799ee708984140094e1f4
one million
563
False
What neighborhood as the privilege of bearing the brunt of the festivities?
572799ee708984140094e1f5
Crown Heights
732
False
Carnival is celebrated in New York City in Brooklyn. As in the UK, the timing of Carnival split from the Christian calendar and is celebrated on Labor Day Monday, in September. It is called the Labor Day Carnival, West Indian Day Parade or West Indian Day Carnival, and was founded by immigrants from Trinidad. That country has one of the largest Caribbean Carnivals. In the mid twentieth century, West Indians moved the event from the beginning of Lent to the Labor Day weekend. Carnival is one of the largest parades and street festivals in New York, with over one million attending. The parade, which consists of steel bands, floats, elaborate Carnival costumes and sound trucks, proceeds along Brooklyn's Eastern Parkway in the Crown Heights neighborhood.
Which Carnival in Argentina is the most representative of the nature of the Carnival?
57279a875951b619008f8e69
Murga
74
False
What city in the east of Entre Rios province is considered the most important one for the Carnival?
57279a875951b619008f8e6a
Gualeguaychú
188
False
What kind of tradition does the city of Corrientes have?
57279a875951b619008f8e6b
Carnival
417
False
What is Chamame?
57279a875951b619008f8e6c
popular musical style.
450
False
Where is Carnival celebrated?
57279a875951b619008f8e6d
In all major cities and many towns throughout the country
473
False
In Argentina, the most representative Carnival performed is the so-called Murga, although other famous Carnivals, more like Brazil's, are held in Argentine Mesopotamia and the North-East. Gualeguaychú in the east of Entre Ríos province is the most important Carnival city and has one of the largest parades. It adopts a musical background similar to Brazilian or Uruguayan Carnival. Corrientes is another city with a Carnival tradition. Chamame is a popular musical style. In all major cities and many towns throughout the country, Carnival is celebrated.
Which Carnival takes place in Oruro in Bolivia?
57279bef708984140094e217
La Diablada
0
False
Who is the miners' patron saint?
57279bef708984140094e218
Vírgen de Socavon
117
False
Over how many parade groups participate in the festivities?
57279bef708984140094e219
50
169
False
How many hours a day does the parade run?
57279bef708984140094e21a
18
417
False
What does the tropical weather on the east side of Bolivia allow?
57279bef708984140094e21b
a Brazilian-type Carnival
746
False
La Diablada Carnival takes place in Oruro in central Bolivia. It is celebrated in honor of the miners' patron saint, Vírgen de Socavon (the Virgin of the Tunnels). Over 50 parade groups dance, sing and play music over a five kilometre-long course. Participants dress up as demons, devils, angels, Incas and Spanish conquistadors. Dances include caporales and tinkus. The parade runs from morning until late at night, 18 hours a day, 3 days before Ash Wednesday. It was declared the 2001 "Masterpieces of Oral Heritage and Intangible Heritage of Humanity" for UNESCO. Throughout the country celebrations are held involving traditional rhythms and water parties. In Santa Cruz de la Sierra, on the east side of the country, tropical weather allows a Brazilian-type Carnival, with Comparsas dancing traditional songs in matching uniforms.
How many members do Samba Schools have?
57279cea3acd2414000de7cb
thousands
46
False
How much does a Samba costume typically run an average tourist to buy?
57279cea3acd2414000de7cc
$500–950
476
False
What's the name for small, somewhat random groups of people with a definite theme in their samba?
57279cea3acd2414000de7cd
Blocos
560
False
About how many Samba schools are in Rio?
57279cea3acd2414000de7ce
30
681
False
How much money in US dollars did the Carnival industry make in 2012?
57279cea3acd2414000de7cf
1 billion
973
False
Samba Schools are large, social entities with thousands of members and a theme for their song and parade each year. In Rio Carnival, samba schoolsparade in the Sambadrome ("sambódromo" in Portuguese). Some of the most famous include GRES Estação Primeira de Mangueira, GRES Portela, GRES Imperatriz Leopoldinense, GRES Beija-Flor de Nilópolis, GRES Mocidade Independente de Padre Miguel, and recently, Unidos da Tijuca and GRES União da Ilha do Governador. Local tourists pay $500–950, depending on the costume, to buy a Samba costume and dance in the parade. Blocos are small informal groups with a definite theme in their samba, usually satirizing the political situation. About 30 schools in Rio gather hundreds of thousands of participants. More than 440 blocos operate in Rio. Bandas are samba musical bands, also called "street carnival bands", usually formed within a single neighborhood or musical back-ground. The Carnival industry chain amassed in 2012 almost US$1 billion in revenues.
Where did the Carnival gestate out of the purview of rules?
5727a11d4b864d19001638d8
in small/unimportant towns
37
False
The uninterrupted celebration of Carnival festivals in Barranquilla is now recognized as what?
5727a11d4b864d19001638d9
one of the Masterpieces of the Oral and Intangible Heritage of Humanity
222
False
How many days does the non-stop festival go?
5727a11d4b864d19001638da
six
418
False
Who rejected attempts to introduce the Carnival in Bogotá?
5727a11d4b864d19001638db
the government
781
False
The Carnival continued its evolution in small/unimportant towns out of view of the rulers. The result was the uninterrupted celebration of Carnival festivals in Barranquilla (see Barranquilla's Carnival) now recognized as one of the Masterpieces of the Oral and Intangible Heritage of Humanity. The Barranquilla Carnival includes several parades on Friday and Saturday nights beginning on 11 January and ending with a six-day non-stop festival, beginning the Wednesday prior to Ash Wednesday and ending Tuesday midnight. Other celebrations occur in villages along the lower Magdalena River in northern Colombia, and in Pasto, Nariño (see Blacks and Whites' Carnival) in the south of the country. In the early 20th century, attempts to introduce Carnival in Bogotá were rejected by the government. The Bogotá Carnival was renewed in the 21st century.
Where are the most famed Carnival festivities?
5727a1eeff5b5019007d9160
Guaranda (Bolivar province) and Ambato (Tungurahua province
43
False
What are the festivities known as in Ambato?
5727a1eeff5b5019007d9161
Fiesta de las Flores y las Frutas
143
False
Where has a celebration recently gained acclaim?
5727a1eeff5b5019007d9162
Imbabura
517
False
What is there a large population of in the Chota Valley?
5727a1eeff5b5019007d9163
afro-Ecuadorian
554
False
What music is the Carnival celebrated with in the Chota Valley?
5727a1eeff5b5019007d9164
bomba del chota
620
False
The most famed Carnival festivities are in Guaranda (Bolivar province) and Ambato (Tungurahua province). In Ambato, the festivities are called Fiesta de las Flores y las Frutas (Festival of the Flowers and Fruits). Other cities have revived Carnival traditions with colorful parades, such as in Azogues (Cañar Province). In Azogues and the Southern Andes in general, Taita Carnival is always an indigenous Cañari. Recently a celebration has gained prominence in the northern part of the Sierra in the Chota Valley in Imbabura which is a zone of a strong afro-Ecuadorian population and so the Carnival is celebrated with bomba del chota music.
What is a tradition unique to the Creole people?
5727a4574b864d1900163924
touloulous
35
False
Why are Touloulous given free condoms?
5727a4574b864d1900163925
in the interest of the sexual health
411
False
What do men have to do to be allowed into the balls?
5727a4574b864d1900163926
pay admittance
497
False
What are the touloulous' dance partners not allowed to do?
5727a4574b864d1900163927
refuse
589
False
Why do the women drink through a straw?
5727a4574b864d1900163928
protect their anonymity
977
False
A uniquely Creole tradition is the touloulous. These women wear decorative gowns, gloves, masks and headdresses that cover them completely, making them unrecognisable, even to the colour of their skin. On Friday and Saturday nights of Carnival, touloulou balls are held in so-called universities; in reality, large dance halls that open only at Carnival time. Touloulous get in free, and are even given condoms in the interest of the sexual health of the community. Men attend the balls, but they pay admittance and are not disguised. The touloulous pick their dance partners, who may not refuse. The setup is designed to make it easy for a woman to create a temporary liaison with a man in total anonymity. Undisguised women are not welcomed. By tradition, if such a woman gets up to dance, the orchestra stops playing. Alcohol is served at bars – the disguised women whisper to the men "touloulou thirsty", at which a round of drinks is expected, to be drunk through a straw protect their anonymity.
What does the Peruvian Carnival incorporate elements of?
5727a5273acd2414000de8c1
violence
43
False
Why are the festivals in Peru held when they are?
5727a5273acd2414000de8c2
because it is the rainy season
224
False
When did the festivities acquire their violent tendencies?
5727a5273acd2414000de8c3
second half of the 20th century
424
False
What is an element of Peruvian's Carnival not found in any other country's celebrations?
5727a5273acd2414000de8c4
sexual assaults on women
840
False
How many years in prison can someone expect for being violent during the fun and games?
5727a5273acd2414000de8c5
eight
1038
False
Peruvian Carnival incorporates elements of violence and reflects the urban violence in Peruvian society following the internal conflict in Peru. Traditionally, Peruvian Andean festivities were held on this period every year because it is the rainy season. It was already violent during the 19th century, but the government limited the practice. During the early 20th century it consisted partying and parading, while in the second half of the 20th century it acquired violent characteristics that continued. It was banned, first from the streets in 1958 and altogether in 1959 by the Prado government. It consisted basically of water battles in a traditional way,[clarification needed] while in later years it included playing with dirty water, mud, oil and colorants -and also including fighting and sometimes looting private property and sexual assaults on women. It has become an excuse for criminal gangs to rob people while pretending to celebrate. As of 2010, it had become so violent that the government imposed penalties of up to eight years in prison for violence during the games (the games themselves are not forbidden, but using violence during the games or coercing others to participate is).
How many days does the Carnival in Uruguay last for?
5727a5dd2ca10214002d92d0
more than 40
31
False
What parade style does Uruguay's festival ape?
5727a5dd2ca10214002d92d1
European
205
False
What were the stylistic elements of the parade imported with in colonial times?
5727a5dd2ca10214002d92d2
slaves
296
False
What are the main attractions of the Uruguayan Carnival?
5727a5dd2ca10214002d92d3
two colorful parades
373
False
What is summoned by the Desfile de Llamadas parade?
5727a5dd2ca10214002d92d4
candombe
480
False
The Carnival in Uruguay covers more than 40 days, generally beginning towards the end of January and running through mid March. Celebrations in Montevideo are the largest. The festival is performed in the European parade style with elements from Bantu and Angolan Benguela cultures imported with slaves in colonial times. The main attractions of Uruguayan Carnival include two colorful parades called Desfile de Carnaval (Carnival Parade) and Desfile de Llamadas (Calls Parade, a candombe-summoning parade).
What are built in many places through the cities?
5727a6bf2ca10214002d92e4
tablados
40
False
What do the different Carnival groups perform together?
5727a6bf2ca10214002d92e5
opera
277
False
What do the topics of the shows put on at the tablados typically relate to?
5727a6bf2ca10214002d92e6
the social and political situation
351
False
What type of rhythmic figures are performed by the drummers playing the tamboril?
5727a6bf2ca10214002d92e7
candombe
466
False
What sort of touch do the vedettes provide to the parades?
5727a6bf2ca10214002d92e8
sensual
634
False
During the celebration, theaters called tablados are built in many places throughout the cities, especially in Montevideo. Traditionally formed by men and now starting to be open to women, the different Carnival groups (Murgas, Lubolos or Parodistas) perform a kind of popular opera at the tablados, singing and dancing songs that generally relate to the social and political situation. The 'Calls' groups, basically formed by drummers playing the tamboril, perform candombe rhythmic figures. Revelers wear their festival clothing. Each group has its own theme. Women wearing elegant, bright dresses are called vedettes and provide a sensual touch to parades.
Baptists
What individuals subscribe to a doctrine that baptism should be performed only for professing believers?
572759d8f1498d1400e8f6d2
Baptists
0
False
Soul competency (liberty), salvation through faith alone, Scripture alone as the rule of faith and practice, and the autonomy of the local congregation what examples of what?
572759d8f1498d1400e8f6d3
tenets of Baptist churches
323
False
What two ministerial offices do Baptists recognize?
572759d8f1498d1400e8f6d4
elders and deacons
555
False
Baptist churches are widely considered to be what?
572759d8f1498d1400e8f6d5
Protestant churches
620
False
Baptists
0
What individuals subscribe to a doctrine that baptism should be performed only for non-believers?
5a3161e4e4dcb1001abb22a0
True
elders and deacons
555
What two ministerial offices do Baptists no longer recognize?
5a3161e4e4dcb1001abb22a1
True
Protestant churches
620
Baptist churches are rarely considered to be what?
5a3161e4e4dcb1001abb22a2
True
Baptists
511
Which group never visits Protestant churches?
5a3161e4e4dcb1001abb22a3
True
Baptist churches
333
What church includes salvation through faith and reason?
5a3161e4e4dcb1001abb22a4
True
Baptists are individuals who comprise a group of Christian denominations and churches that subscribe to a doctrine that baptism should be performed only for professing believers (believer's baptism, as opposed to infant baptism), and that it must be done by complete immersion (as opposed to affusion or sprinkling). Other tenets of Baptist churches include soul competency (liberty), salvation through faith alone, Scripture alone as the rule of faith and practice, and the autonomy of the local congregation. Baptists recognize two ministerial offices, elders and deacons. Baptist churches are widely considered to be Protestant churches, though some Baptists disavow this identity.
When was the earliest church labeled "Baptist" traced to?
57278bfcf1498d1400e8fb8e
1609
63
False
Where was the earliest church labeled "Baptist" traced to?
57278bfcf1498d1400e8fb8f
Amsterdam
71
False
Who was the pastor of the earliest church labeled "Baptist"?
57278bfcf1498d1400e8fb90
John Smyth
106
False
Who believed Christ's atonement only extended to the elect?
57278bfcf1498d1400e8fb91
Particular Baptists
393
False
When did Roger Williams established the first Baptist congregation in the North American colonies?
57278bfcf1498d1400e8fb92
1638
461
False
1609
63
When was the earliest church labeled "Christian" traced to?
5a3162b1e4dcb1001abb22aa
True
Amsterdam
71
Where was the earliest church labeled "Christian" traced to?
5a3162b1e4dcb1001abb22ab
True
John Smyth
106
Who was the pastor of the earliest church labeled "Christian"?
5a3162b1e4dcb1001abb22ac
True
Particular Baptists
393
Who believed Christ's atonement extended to all of life?
5a3162b1e4dcb1001abb22ad
True
1638
461
When did Roger Williams establish the first Baptist congregation in South America?
5a3162b1e4dcb1001abb22ae
True
Historians trace the earliest church labeled "Baptist" back to 1609 in Amsterdam, with English Separatist John Smyth as its pastor. In accordance with his reading of the New Testament, he rejected baptism of infants and instituted baptism only of believing adults. Baptist practice spread to England, where the General Baptists considered Christ's atonement to extend to all people, while the Particular Baptists believed that it extended only to the elect. In 1638, Roger Williams established the first Baptist congregation in the North American colonies. In the mid-18th century, the First Great Awakening increased Baptist growth in both New England and the South. The Second Great Awakening in the South in the early 19th century increased church membership, as did the preachers' lessening of support for abolition and manumission of slavery, which had been part of the 18th-century teachings. Baptist missionaries have spread their church to every continent.
Who outlined the four main views of Baptist origins?
57278cd2dd62a815002ea028
Bruce Gourley
18
False
Baptist origins were viewed as an outgrowth of what?
57278cd2dd62a815002ea029
Anabaptist traditions
238
False
What does the perpetuity view assume?
57278cd2dd62a815002ea02a
that the Baptist faith and practice has existed since the time of Christ
299
False
What does the successionist view assume?
57278cd2dd62a815002ea02b
that Baptist churches actually existed in an unbroken chain since the time of Christ.
446
False
Bruce Gourley
18
Who outlined the three main views of Baptist origins?
5a316427e4dcb1001abb22b4
True
Anabaptist traditions
238
Baptist origins were viewed as an extension of what?
5a316427e4dcb1001abb22b5
True
Baptist successionism
409
What view argues that Baptist churches existed in a broken chain since the time of Christ?
5a316427e4dcb1001abb22b6
True
Baptist
60
What movement traces its origin to the 16th century via the English Separatists?
5a316427e4dcb1001abb22b7
True
Baptist historian Bruce Gourley outlines four main views of Baptist origins: (1) The modern scholarly consensus that the movement traces its origin to the 17th century via the English Separatists, (2) the view that it was an outgrowth of Anabaptist traditions, (3) the perpetuity view which assumes that the Baptist faith and practice has existed since the time of Christ, and (4) the successionist view, or "Baptist successionism", which argues that Baptist churches actually existed in an unbroken chain since the time of Christ.
Modern Baptist churches trace their history to what movement?
57278f89708984140094e0df
English Separatist movement
51
False
Adherents to this position consider the influence of Anabaptists upon early Baptists to be what?
57278f89708984140094e0e0
minimal
336
False
Modern Baptist churches trace their history to the English Separatist movement in the century after the rise of what?
57278f89708984140094e0e1
original Protestant denominations
116
False
English Separatist movement
51
Modern Christian churches trace their history to what movement?
5a3165aee4dcb1001abb22bc
True
Baptist
164
The view of what origins has little historical support?
5a3165aee4dcb1001abb22bd
True
churches
429
Who was never willing to give up their theological roots?
5a3165aee4dcb1001abb22be
True
individuals and churches
413
Who was convinced there was no biblical "truth"?
5a3165aee4dcb1001abb22bf
True
Modern Baptist churches trace their history to the English Separatist movement in the century after the rise of the original Protestant denominations. This view of Baptist origins has the most historical support and is the most widely accepted. Adherents to this position consider the influence of Anabaptists upon early Baptists to be minimal. It was a time of considerable political and religious turmoil. Both individuals and churches were willing to give up their theological roots if they became convinced that a more biblical "truth" had been discovered.[page needed]
When did the Church of England separate from the Roman Catholic Church?
57279112708984140094e117
During the Protestant Reformation
0
False
Who separated from the Roman Catholic Church during the Protestant Reformation?
57279112708984140094e118
the Church of England
35
False
During the Protestant Reformation, the Church of England (Anglicans) separated from who?
57279112708984140094e119
the Roman Catholic Church
84
False
Puritans are described by Gourley as what?
57279112708984140094e11a
cousins of the English Separatists
576
False
Others decided they must leave the Church because of their dissatisfaction and became known as what?
57279112708984140094e11b
Separatists
711
False
During the Protestant Reformation
0
When did the Church of England merge with the Roman Catholic Church?
5a31674ae4dcb1001abb22c4
True
the Church of England
35
Who merged with the Roman Catholic Church during the Protestant Reformation?
5a31674ae4dcb1001abb22c5
True
Puritans
534
Who was described by Gourley as brothers of the English Separatists?
5a31674ae4dcb1001abb22c6
True
Christians
239
Which group was never disappointed in the Church of England?
5a31674ae4dcb1001abb22c7
True
During the Protestant Reformation, the Church of England (Anglicans) separated from the Roman Catholic Church. There were some Christians who were not content with the achievements of the mainstream Protestant Reformation. There also were Christians who were disappointed that the Church of England had not made corrections of what some considered to be errors and abuses. Of those most critical of the Church's direction, some chose to stay and try to make constructive changes from within the Anglican Church. They became known as "Puritans" and are described by Gourley as cousins of the English Separatists. Others decided they must leave the Church because of their dissatisfaction and became known as the Separatists.
Historians trace the earliest Baptist church back to when?
572792345951b619008f8ddb
1609
53
False
Historians trace the earliest Baptist church back to where?
572792345951b619008f8ddc
Amsterdam
61
False
Who was the pastor of the earliest Baptist church?
572792345951b619008f8ddd
John Smyth
77
False
John Smyth broke his ties with what church?
572792345951b619008f8dde
Church of England
236
False
Where did John Smyth go into exile?
572792345951b619008f8ddf
Amsterdam
551
False
John Smyth
77
Who was the pastor of the earliest Christian church?
5a3168b7e4dcb1001abb22cc
True
Amsterdam
61
Where was the first Christian church with John Smyth as the pastor located?
5a3168b7e4dcb1001abb22cd
True
1609
880
In what year did Smyth baptize himself for the second time?
5a3168b7e4dcb1001abb22ce
True
England
246
Where did John Smyth retire?
5a3168b7e4dcb1001abb22cf
True
Amsterdam
61
Historians trace the oldest Protestant church to where?
5a3168b7e4dcb1001abb22d0
True
Historians trace the earliest Baptist church back to 1609 in Amsterdam, with John Smyth as its pastor. Three years earlier, while a Fellow of Christ's College, Cambridge, he had broken his ties with the Church of England. Reared in the Church of England, he became "Puritan, English Separatist, and then a Baptist Separatist," and ended his days working with the Mennonites. He began meeting in England with 60–70 English Separatists, in the face of "great danger." The persecution of religious nonconformists in England led Smyth to go into exile in Amsterdam with fellow Separatists from the congregation he had gathered in Lincolnshire, separate from the established church (Anglican). Smyth and his lay supporter, Thomas Helwys, together with those they led, broke with the other English exiles because Smyth and Helwys were convinced they should be baptized as believers. In 1609 Smyth first baptized himself and then baptized the others.
Smyth wrote a tract titled what?
57279338708984140094e14f
"The Character of the Beast," or "The False Constitution of the Church."
55
False
What was his first proposition?
57279338708984140094e150
infants are not to be baptized
172
False
What was his second proposition?
57279338708984140094e151
Antichristians converted are to be admitted into the true Church by baptism
217
False
Smyth believed a scriptural church should consist only of regenerate believers who have been what?
57279338708984140094e152
baptized on a personal confession of faith
404
False
What is paedobaptism?
57279338708984140094e153
infant baptism
498
False
"The Character of the Beast," or "The False Constitution of the Church."
55
Smyth read a tract titled what?
5a316b4fe4dcb1001abb22d6
True
Smyth
28
Who proposed all infants to be baptized?
5a316b4fe4dcb1001abb22d7
True
1611
660
In what year did Smyth join the chuch with Thomas Helwys?
5a316b4fe4dcb1001abb22d8
True
paedobaptism
514
Which movement think infants should never be baptized?
5a316b4fe4dcb1001abb22d9
True
In 1609, while still there, Smyth wrote a tract titled "The Character of the Beast," or "The False Constitution of the Church." In it he expressed two propositions: first, infants are not to be baptized; and second, "Antichristians converted are to be admitted into the true Church by baptism." Hence, his conviction was that a scriptural church should consist only of regenerate believers who have been baptized on a personal confession of faith. He rejected the Separatist movement's doctrine of infant baptism (paedobaptism). Shortly thereafter, Smyth left the group, and layman Thomas Helwys took over the leadership, leading the church back to England in 1611. Ultimately, Smyth became committed to believers' baptism as the only biblical baptism. He was convinced on the basis of his interpretation of Scripture that infants would not be damned should they die in infancy.
Who thought their self-baptism was invalid?
5727da802ca10214002d9812
Smyth
0
False
Smyth applied for membership with who?
5727da802ca10214002d9813
the Mennonites
65
False
What is an outgrowth of Smyth's movement?
5727da802ca10214002d9814
The modern Baptist denomination
254
False
What name did Baptists reject?
5727da802ca10214002d9815
Anabaptist
350
False
Who wrote that Baptists referred to themselves as "the Christians commonly—though falsely—called Anabaptists?"
5727da802ca10214002d9816
McBeth
414
False
Smyth
0
Who thought their self-baptism was valid?
5a316c04e4dcb1001abb22e6
True
the Mennonites
65
Smyth was denied membership with who?
5a316c04e4dcb1001abb22e7
True
Anabaptist
350
What name did Baptist change to?
5a316c04e4dcb1001abb22e8
True
Smyth
0
Who died after becoming a member of the Mennonites?
5a316c04e4dcb1001abb22e9
True
Thomas Helwys
179
Who lost their Baptist commitments?
5a316c04e4dcb1001abb22ea
True
Smyth, convinced that his self-baptism was invalid, applied with the Mennonites for membership. He died while waiting for membership, and some of his followers became Mennonites. Thomas Helwys and others kept their baptism and their Baptist commitments. The modern Baptist denomination is an outgrowth of Smyth's movement. Baptists rejected the name Anabaptist when they were called that by opponents in derision. McBeth writes that as late as the 18th century, many Baptists referred to themselves as "the Christians commonly—though falsely—called Anabaptists."
When did John Spilsbury promote the strict practice of immersion?
5727db044b864d1900163ea4
1638
70
False
Who promoted strict immersion baptism?
5727db044b864d1900163ea5
John Spilsbury
80
False
Tom Nettles was a professor at what seminary?
5727db044b864d1900163ea6
Southern Baptist Theological Seminary
259
False
What was Tom Nettles a professor of?
5727db044b864d1900163ea7
historical theology
236
False
1638
70
When did John Spilsbury create the strict practice of immersion?
5a316d78e4dcb1001abb22f0
True
John Spilsbury
80
Who destroyed strict immersion baptism?
5a316d78e4dcb1001abb22f1
True
Southern Baptist Theological Seminary
259
Tom Nettles was a student at what seminary?
5a316d78e4dcb1001abb22f2
True
historical theology
236
What was Tom Nettles a student of?
5a316d78e4dcb1001abb22f3
True
Another milestone in the early development of Baptist doctrine was in 1638 with John Spilsbury, a Calvinistic minister who helped to promote the strict practice of believer's baptism by immersion. According to Tom Nettles, professor of historical theology at Southern Baptist Theological Seminary, "Spilsbury's cogent arguments for a gathered, disciplined congregation of believers baptized by immersion as constituting the New Testament church gave expression to and built on insights that had emerged within separatism, advanced in the life of John Smyth and the suffering congregation of Thomas Helwys, and matured in Particular Baptists."
Who was thought to be influenced by continental Anabaptists?
5727dbdf3acd2414000dee39
early seventeenth-century Baptists
24
False
Early seventeenth-century Baptists were thought to be influenced by who?
5727dbdf3acd2414000dee3a
continental Anabaptists
110
False
General Baptists shared similarities with who?
5727dbdf3acd2414000dee3b
Dutch Waterlander Mennonites
205
False
Who are two representative writers?
5727dbdf3acd2414000dee3c
A.C. Underwood and William R. Estep. Gourley
451
False
What were the Dutch Waterlander Mennonites?
5727dbdf3acd2414000dee3d
one of many Anabaptist groups
235
False
early seventeenth-century Baptists
24
Who was thought to be controlled by continental Anabaptists?
5a317223e4dcb1001abb2302
True
continental Anabaptists
110
Early sixteenth-century Baptists were thought to be influenced by who?
5a317223e4dcb1001abb2303
True
Dutch Waterlander Mennonites
205
Anabaptists shared similarities with who?
5a317223e4dcb1001abb2304
True
Anabaptist groups
247
Who did the Dutch Waterlander Mennonites avoid?
5a317223e4dcb1001abb2305
True
Anabaptist influence theory
612
What theory lost credibility?
5a317223e4dcb1001abb2306
True
A minority view is that early seventeenth-century Baptists were influenced by (but not directly connected to) continental Anabaptists. According to this view, the General Baptists shared similarities with Dutch Waterlander Mennonites (one of many Anabaptist groups) including believer's baptism only, religious liberty, separation of church and state, and Arminian views of salvation, predestination and original sin. Representative writers including A.C. Underwood and William R. Estep. Gourley wrote that among some contemporary Baptist scholars who emphasize the faith of the community over soul liberty, the Anabaptist influence theory is making a comeback.
Who founded the earliest Baptist church in North America?
5727dcc53acd2414000dee49
Roger Williams and John Clarke
5
False
When was the first American Baptist church established?
5727dcc53acd2414000dee4a
1639
172
False
Where did Roger Williams establish a Baptist church?
5727dcc53acd2414000dee4b
Providence, Rhode Island
219
False
Where did John Clarke establish a Baptist church?
5727dcc53acd2414000dee4c
Newport, Rhode Island
282
False
Clarke was what to Williams?
5727dcc53acd2414000dee4d
his compatriot and coworker for religious freedom
37
False
Roger Williams and John Clarke
5
Who founded the earliest Baptist church in South America?
5a3172cce4dcb1001abb230c
True
Providence, Rhode Island
219
Where did Roger Williams lose a Baptist church?
5a3172cce4dcb1001abb230d
True
Newport, Rhode Island
282
Where did John Clarke establish an Anabaptist church?
5a3172cce4dcb1001abb230e
True
1639
172
When was the last American Anabaptist church established?
5a3172cce4dcb1001abb230f
True
Both Roger Williams and John Clarke, his compatriot and coworker for religious freedom, are variously credited as founding the earliest Baptist church in North America. In 1639, Williams established a Baptist church in Providence, Rhode Island, and Clarke began a Baptist church in Newport, Rhode Island. According to a Baptist historian who has researched the matter extensively, "There is much debate over the centuries as to whether the Providence or Newport church deserved the place of 'first' Baptist congregation in America. Exact records for both congregations are lacking."
Missionary work began in what Canadian colony?
5727dd584b864d1900163ec2
Nova Scotia
65
False
When did missionary work begin in Canada?
5727dd584b864d1900163ec3
1760s
128
False
What was the first Baptist church in Canada?
5727dd584b864d1900163ec4
Horton Baptist Church
207
False
Where was the first Baptist church located in Canada?
5727dd584b864d1900163ec5
Wolfville, Nova Scotia
248
False
When was the first Canadian Baptist church established?
5727dd584b864d1900163ec6
29 October 1778
274
False
Nova Scotia
65
Missionary work began in what American colony?
5a3173c3e4dcb1001abb2314
True
1760s
128
When did missionary work begin in America?
5a3173c3e4dcb1001abb2315
True
Horton Baptist Church
207
What was the first church of any kind in Canada?
5a3173c3e4dcb1001abb2316
True
Wolfville, Nova Scotia
248
Where was the first Anabaptist church located in Canada?
5a3173c3e4dcb1001abb2317
True
29 October 1778
274
When was the first American Baptist church established?
5a3173c3e4dcb1001abb2318
True
Baptist missionary work in Canada began in the British colony of Nova Scotia (present day Nova Scotia and New Brunswick) in the 1760s. The first official record of a Baptist church in Canada was that of the Horton Baptist Church (now Wolfville) in Wolfville, Nova Scotia on 29 October 1778. The church was established with the assistance of the New Light evangelist Henry Alline. Many of Alline's followers, after his death, would convert and strengthen the Baptist presence in the Atlantic region.[page needed] Two major groups of Baptists formed the basis of the churches in the Maritimes. These were referred to as Regular Baptist (Calvinistic in their doctrine) and Free Will Baptists.
When did Baptist congregations split over slavery?
5727de03ff5b5019007d9716
May 1845
3
False
Why did American Baptist congregations split?
5727de03ff5b5019007d9717
over slavery and missions
66
False
Slaveholders were prevented from being appointed as what?
5727de03ff5b5019007d9718
missionaries
165
False
Who prevented slaveholders from being appointed missionaries?
5727de03ff5b5019007d9719
Home Mission Society
97
False
Northern congregations formed what organization?
5727de03ff5b5019007d971a
American Baptist Churches USA (ABC-USA)
317
False
May 1845
3
When did Baptist congregations combine efforts over slavery?
5a31745be4dcb1001abb231e
True
over slavery and missions
66
Why did American Baptist congregations work together?
5a31745be4dcb1001abb231f
True
missionaries
165
Slaveholders were typically appointed as what?
5a31745be4dcb1001abb2320
True
Home Mission Society
97
Who encouraged slaveholders to be appointed missionaries?
5a31745be4dcb1001abb2321
True
American Baptist Churches USA
317
Southern congregations formed what organization?
5a31745be4dcb1001abb2322
True
In May 1845, the Baptist congregations in the United States split over slavery and missions. The Home Mission Society prevented slaveholders from being appointed as missionaries. The split created the Southern Baptist Convention, while the northern congregations formed their own umbrella organization now called the American Baptist Churches USA (ABC-USA). The Methodist Episcopal Church, South had recently separated over the issue of slavery, and southern Presbyterians would do so shortly thereafter.
What is the largest fellowship without control?
5727ded9ff5b5019007d9732
Southern Baptist Convention
140
False
It has been suggested that a primary Baptist principle is that local Baptist Churches are what?
5727ded9ff5b5019007d9733
independent and self-governing
462
False
What term is considered somewhat incongrous is a self-governing church?
5727ded9ff5b5019007d9734
Baptist denomination
514
False
Southern Baptist Convention
140
What is the smallest fellowship without control?
5a3175a5e4dcb1001abb2328
True
Baptist
255
What churches never become autonomous?
5a3175a5e4dcb1001abb2329
True
local Baptist Churches are independent and self-governing
435
What has never been suggested as a primary Baptist principle?
5a3175a5e4dcb1001abb232a
True
Baptist denomination
514
What term is not considered to be incongruous?
5a3175a5e4dcb1001abb232b
True
Many Baptist churches choose to affiliate with organizational groups that provide fellowship without control. The largest such group is the Southern Baptist Convention. There also are a substantial number of smaller cooperative groups. Finally, there are Baptist churches that choose to remain autonomous and independent of any denomination, organization, or association. It has been suggested that a primary Baptist principle is that local Baptist Churches are independent and self-governing, and if so the term 'Baptist denomination' may be considered somewhat incongruous.
Baptists are defined by what?
5727df9eff5b5019007d9738
doctrine
48
False
Baptists have issued what without considering them to be creeds?
5727df9eff5b5019007d9739
confessions of faith
215
False
Most Baptists are what in doctrine?
5727df9eff5b5019007d973a
evangelical
421
False
Baptists have played a key role in what?
5727df9eff5b5019007d973b
encouraging religious freedom and separation of church and state.
626
False
Baptists
0
Which group of Christians are not defined by doctrine?
5a31766ae4dcb1001abb2330
True
confessions of faith
215
Baptists have issued what while considering them to be creeds?
5a31766ae4dcb1001abb2331
True
evangelical
421
Most Baptists exclude what doctrine?
5a31766ae4dcb1001abb2332
True
encouraging religious freedom and separation of church and state
626
Baptists have played a small role in what?
5a31766ae4dcb1001abb2333
True
Baptists, like other Christians, are defined by doctrine—some of it common to all orthodox and evangelical groups and a portion of it distinctive to Baptists. Through the years, different Baptist groups have issued confessions of faith—without considering them to be creeds—to express their particular doctrinal distinctions in comparison to other Christians as well as in comparison to other Baptists. Most Baptists are evangelical in doctrine, but Baptist beliefs can vary due to the congregational governance system that gives autonomy to individual local Baptist churches. Historically, Baptists have played a key role in encouraging religious freedom and separation of church and state.
Beliefs about one God; the virgin birth; miracles; atonement for sins through the death, burial, and bodily resurrection of Jesus are examples of what?
5727e0212ca10214002d9890
Shared doctrines
0
False
When was the London Baptist Confession of Faith created?
5727e0212ca10214002d9891
1689
611
False
When was the Philadelphia Baptist Confession created?
5727e0212ca10214002d9892
1742
652
False
When was the New Hampshire Baptist Confession of Faith created?
5727e0212ca10214002d9893
1833
694
False
1689
611
When was the London Baptist Confession of Faith removed?
5a3177afe4dcb1001abb2338
True
1742
652
When was the Philadelphia Baptist Confession removed?
5a3177afe4dcb1001abb2339
True
one God
45
What belief was not shared by doctrines?
5a3177afe4dcb1001abb233a
True
Jesus Christ
217
Who was seen as the father of God?
5a3177afe4dcb1001abb233b
True
Shared doctrines would include beliefs about one God; the virgin birth; miracles; atonement for sins through the death, burial, and bodily resurrection of Jesus; the Trinity; the need for salvation (through belief in Jesus Christ as the son of God, his death and resurrection, and confession of Christ as Lord); grace; the Kingdom of God; last things (eschatology) (Jesus Christ will return personally and visibly in glory to the earth, the dead will be raised, and Christ will judge everyone in righteousness); and evangelism and missions. Some historically significant Baptist doctrinal documents include the 1689 London Baptist Confession of Faith, 1742 Philadelphia Baptist Confession, the 1833 New Hampshire Baptist Confession of Faith, the Southern Baptist Convention's Baptist Faith and Message, and written church covenants which some individual Baptist churches adopt as a statement of their faith and beliefs.
"Crisis" comes from a Greek word meaning what?
5727e0d93acd2414000deebf
to decide
195
False
Who wrote that some controversies reach a crisis level may actually be "positive and highly productive?"
5727e0d93acd2414000deec0
Walter Shurden
122
False
What did Shurden claim was never ideal, has often produced positive results?
5727e0d93acd2414000deec1
controversies that have shaped Baptists
559
False
What are some controversies that have shaped Baptists?
5727e0d93acd2414000deec2
"missions crisis", the "slavery crisis", the "landmark crisis", and the "modernist crisis"
611
False
to decide
195
"Crisis" comes from a Latin word meaning what?
5a31797be4dcb1001abb2348
True
Walter Shurden
122
Who wrote that some controversies reach a crisis level may actually be "negative and least productive?"
5a31797be4dcb1001abb2349
True
Baptists
0
Which group has faced many controversies in their 300-year history?
5a31797be4dcb1001abb234a
True
controversies
559
What has never helped shape Baptists?
5a31797be4dcb1001abb234b
True
Baptists have faced many controversies in their 400-year history, controversies of the level of crises. Baptist historian Walter Shurden says the word "crisis" comes from the Greek word meaning "to decide." Shurden writes that contrary to the presumed negative view of crises, some controversies that reach a crisis level may actually be "positive and highly productive." He claims that even schism, though never ideal, has often produced positive results. In his opinion crises among Baptists each have become decision-moments that shaped their future. Some controversies that have shaped Baptists include the "missions crisis", the "slavery crisis", the "landmark crisis", and the "modernist crisis".
When did Baptists become embroiled in the controversy over slavery in the United States?
5727e2263acd2414000deee3
Leading up to the American Civil War
0
False
When did Methodist and Baptist preachers oppose slavery and urge manumission?
5727e2263acd2414000deee4
the First Great Awakening
129
False
They worked with slaveholders in the South to urge what?
5727e2263acd2414000deee5
paternalistic institution
358
False
What denomination allowed blacks active roles in the congregation?
5727e2263acd2414000deee6
The Baptists
466
False
What refused to appoint a slaveholder as a missionary?
5727e2263acd2414000deee7
the Home Mission Society
636
False
Leading up to the American Civil War
0
When did Baptists become excluded from the controversy over slavery in the United States?
5a317af1e4dcb1001abb2350
True
the First Great Awakening
129
When did Methodist and Baptist preachers promote slavery and urge manumission?
5a317af1e4dcb1001abb2351
True
paternalistic institution
358
What was urged by Baptists working with slaveholders in the North?
5a317af1e4dcb1001abb2352
True
Baptists
38
What denomination disallowed blacks active roles in the congregation?
5a317af1e4dcb1001abb2353
True
1844
631
In what year did Home Mission Society appoint a slaveholder as a missionary?
5a317af1e4dcb1001abb2354
True
Leading up to the American Civil War, Baptists became embroiled in the controversy over slavery in the United States. Whereas in the First Great Awakening, Methodist and Baptist preachers had opposed slavery and urged manumission, over the decades they made more of an accommodation with the institution. They worked with slaveholders in the South to urge a paternalistic institution. Both denominations made direct appeals to slaves and free blacks for conversion. The Baptists particularly allowed them active roles in congregations. By the mid-19th century, northern Baptists tended to oppose slavery. As tensions increased, in 1844 the Home Mission Society refused to appoint a slaveholder as a missionary who had been proposed by Georgia. It noted that missionaries could not take servants with them, and also that the Board did not want to appear to condone slavery.
When did black Baptists began to organize separate churches, associations and mission agencies?
5727e2e5ff5b5019007d978e
As early as the late 18th century
0
False
Who separated from white congregations and associations after the war?
5727e2e5ff5b5019007d978f
freedmen
259
False
Who wanted to be free from white submission?
5727e2e5ff5b5019007d9790
freedmen
259
False
What states setup black conventions?
5727e2e5ff5b5019007d9791
Alabama, Arkansas, Virginia, North Carolina, and Kentucky
571
False
What percentage of all African-Americans identify with Baptist denominations?
5727e2e5ff5b5019007d9792
45%
1186
False
As early as the late 18th century
0
When did black Baptists began to organize combined churches, associations and mission agencies?
5a317cbee4dcb1001abb2362
True
freedmen
259
Who separated from black congregations and associations after the war?
5a317cbee4dcb1001abb2363
True
freedmen
259
Who wanted to be free from black supervision?
5a317cbee4dcb1001abb2364
True
Alabama, Arkansas, Virginia, North Carolina, and Kentucky
571
What states setup white conventions?
5a317cbee4dcb1001abb2365
True
45%
1186
What percentage of all Americans identify with Baptist denominations?
5a317cbee4dcb1001abb2366
True
As early as the late 18th century, black Baptists began to organize separate churches, associations and mission agencies, especially in the northern states. Not only did blacks set up some independent congregations in the South before the American Civil War, freedmen quickly separated from white congregations and associations after the war. They wanted to be free of white supervision. In 1866 the Consolidated American Baptist Convention, formed from black Baptists of the South and West, helped southern associations set up black state conventions, which they did in Alabama, Arkansas, Virginia, North Carolina, and Kentucky. In 1880 black state conventions united in the national Foreign Mission Convention, to support black Baptist missionary work. Two other national black conventions were formed, and in 1895 they united as the National Baptist Convention. This organization later went through its own changes, spinning off other conventions. It is the largest black religious organization and the second largest Baptist organization in the world. Baptists are numerically most dominant in the Southeast. In 2007, the Pew Research Center's Religious Landscape Survey found that 45% of all African-Americans identify with Baptist denominations, with the vast majority of those being within the historically black tradition.
Where did Baptist missionaries take an active role in the anti-slavery movement?
5727e36dff5b5019007d97ac
the Caribbean
30
False
Who was a prominent British Baptist missionary in Jamaica?
5727e36dff5b5019007d97ad
William Knibb
155
False
Where did William Knibb work toward the emancipation of slaves?
5727e36dff5b5019007d97ae
the British West Indies
254
False
Knibb also protagonised the creation of what?
5727e36dff5b5019007d97af
Free Villages
347
False
What was named after the slave port of Calabar?
5727e36dff5b5019007d97b0
Jamaica's Calabar High School
553
False
the Caribbean
30
Where did Baptist missionaries not take a role in the anti-slavery movement?
5a317f23e4dcb1001abb2376
True
William Knibb
155
Who was a prominent British Baptist missionary in America?
5a317f23e4dcb1001abb2377
True
Jamaica's Calabar High School
553
What was the slave port of Calabar named after?
5a317f23e4dcb1001abb2378
True
Free Villages
347
William Knibb protagonised the destruction of what?
5a317f23e4dcb1001abb2379
True
Elsewhere in the Americas, in the Caribbean in particular, Baptist missionaries took an active role in the anti-slavery movement. In Jamaica, for example, William Knibb, a prominent British Baptist missionary, worked toward the emancipation of slaves in the British West Indies (which took place in 1838). Knibb also protagonised the creation of "Free Villages"; rural communities centred around a Baptist church where emancipated slaves could farm their own land. Baptists were likewise active in promoting the education of former slaves; for example, Jamaica's Calabar High School, named after the slave port of Calabar, was formed by Baptist missionaries. At the same time, during and after slavery, slaves and free formed their own Spiritual Baptist movements - breakaway spiritual movements which often expressed resistance to oppression.
When did the Southern Baptist Convention vote to adopt a resolution renouncing its racist roots?
5727e3d54b864d1900163f5e
20 June 1995
3
False
How many Baptists registered for the meeting in Atlanta?
5727e3d54b864d1900163f5f
More than 20,000
154
False
SBC delegates are called what?
5727e3d54b864d1900163f60
messengers
257
False
20 June 1995
3
When did the Southern Baptist Convention vote to adopt a resolution announcing its racist roots?
5a317fafe4dcb1001abb237e
True
More than 20,000
154
How many Baptists unregistered for the meeting in Atlanta?
5a317fafe4dcb1001abb237f
True
messengers
257
SBC delegates are never called what?
5a317fafe4dcb1001abb2380
True
Southern Baptists
715
Who had not condemned racism in the past?
5a317fafe4dcb1001abb2381
True
On 20 June 1995, the Southern Baptist Convention voted to adopt a resolution renouncing its racist roots and apologizing for its past defense of slavery. More than 20,000 Southern Baptists registered for the meeting in Atlanta. The resolution declared that messengers, as SBC delegates are called, "unwaveringly denounce racism, in all its forms, as deplorable sin" and "lament and repudiate historic acts of evil such as slavery from which we continue to reap a bitter harvest." It offered an apology to all African-Americans for "condoning and/or perpetuating individual and systemic racism in our lifetime" and repentance for "racism of which we have been guilty, whether consciously or unconsciously." Although Southern Baptists have condemned racism in the past, this was the first time the predominantly white convention had dealt specifically with the issue of slavery.
What sought to reset the ecclesiastical separation which had characterized the old Baptist churches?
5727e4514b864d1900163f6a
Southern Baptist Landmarkism
0
False
Who was an influential Baptist of the 19th century and the primary leader of this movement?
5727e4514b864d1900163f6b
James Robinson Graves
203
False
When did the Southern Baptist International Mission Board forbade its missionaries to receive alien immersions for baptism?
5727e4514b864d1900163f6c
In 2005
531
False
Southern Baptist Landmarkism
0
What sought to include the ecclesiastical separation which had characterized the old Baptist churches?
5a318122e4dcb1001abb2386
True
James Robinson Graves
203
Who was an influential Baptist of the 18th century and the primary leader of this movement?
5a318122e4dcb1001abb2387
True
2005
534
When did the Southern Baptist International Mission Board encourage its missionaries to receive alien immersions for baptism?
5a318122e4dcb1001abb2388
True
Southern Baptist Landmarkism
0
What influence no longer continues to affect convention policies?
5a318122e4dcb1001abb2389
True
Southern Baptist Landmarkism sought to reset the ecclesiastical separation which had characterized the old Baptist churches, in an era when inter-denominational union meetings were the order of the day. James Robinson Graves was an influential Baptist of the 19th century and the primary leader of this movement. While some Landmarkers eventually separated from the Southern Baptist Convention, the influence of the movement on the Convention continued into the 20th century. Its influence continues to affect convention policies. In 2005, the Southern Baptist International Mission Board forbade its missionaries to receive alien immersions for baptism.
The Southern Baptist Convention adhered to what as its official position?
5727e4f42ca10214002d98e0
conservative theology
87
False
What groups were formed by moderate Southern Baptists?
5727e4f42ca10214002d98e1
the Alliance of Baptists in 1987 and the Cooperative Baptist Fellowship in 1991
287
False
When was the Alliance of Baptists formed?
5727e4f42ca10214002d98e2
1987
315
False
When was the Cooperative Baptist Fellowship formed?
5727e4f42ca10214002d98e3
1991
362
False
Conservative theology was the official position of what?
5727e4f42ca10214002d98e4
Southern Baptist Convention
48
False
conservative theology
87
The Southern Baptist Convention never adhered to what as its official position?
5a3181d0e4dcb1001abb238e
True
1987
315
When did the Alliance of Baptists end?
5a3181d0e4dcb1001abb238f
True
1991
362
When was the Cooperative Baptist Fellowship destroyed?
5a3181d0e4dcb1001abb2390
True
Southern Baptist Convention
48
Conservative theology was never the official position of what?
5a3181d0e4dcb1001abb2391
True
Southern Baptist Convention
48
Which Baptist group embraced modernism?
5a3181d0e4dcb1001abb2392
True
Following similar conflicts over modernism, the Southern Baptist Convention adhered to conservative theology as its official position. Two new Baptist groups were formed by moderate Southern Baptists who disagreed with the direction in which the Southern Baptist Convention was heading: the Alliance of Baptists in 1987 and the Cooperative Baptist Fellowship in 1991. Members of both groups originally identified as Southern Baptist, but over time the groups "became permanent new families of Baptists."
Child_labour
What does child labour deprive children of?
57275b0a5951b619008f88a7
deprives children of their childhood
67
False
Are child artists an exception to the laws with regards to child labour?
57275b0a5951b619008f88a8
exceptions include work by child artists
433
False
Is work done by Amish children an exception?
57275b0a5951b619008f88a9
work such as those by Amish children
533
False
Where is there legislation that prohibits child labour?
57275b0a5951b619008f88aa
Legislation across the world
316
False
Is all work done by children considered to be child labour?
57275b0a5951b619008f88ab
These laws do not consider all work by children as child labour
368
False
Child labour refers to the employment of children in any work that deprives children of their childhood, interferes with their ability to attend regular school, and that is mentally, physically, socially or morally dangerous and harmful. This practice is considered exploitative by many international organisations. Legislation across the world prohibit child labour. These laws do not consider all work by children as child labour; exceptions include work by child artists, family duties, supervised training, certain categories of work such as those by Amish children, some forms of child work common among indigenous American children, and others.
What year did sub-saharan Africa have the highest rates of child labour?
57275c0c5951b619008f88b1
2010
113
False
What is the largest employer of child labour?
57275c0c5951b619008f88b2
agriculture
284
False
Who are children predominantly employed by?
57275c0c5951b619008f88b3
their parents
461
False
Lack of school and this are the primary causes of child labour
57275c0c5951b619008f88b4
Poverty
499
False
In developing countries, with high poverty and poor schooling opportunities, child labour is still prevalent. In 2010, sub-saharan Africa had the highest incidence rates of child labour, with several African nations witnessing over 50 percent of children aged 5–14 working. Worldwide agriculture is the largest employer of child labour. Vast majority of child labour is found in rural settings and informal urban economy; children are predominantly employed by their parents, rather than factories. Poverty and lack of schools are considered as the primary cause of child labour.
Was there a period when child labour was essential?
57275cfcf1498d1400e8f6ec
pre-industrial societies
38
False
Was there a great need for childhood education in a pre-industrial society?
57275cfcf1498d1400e8f6ed
little need for children to attend school
419
False
Who taught the skills needed for the children to work?
57275cfcf1498d1400e8f6ee
competent adults
636
False
Were peopel in pre-industrial societies considered to have long or short lifespans?
57275cfcf1498d1400e8f6ef
short life expectancy
219
False
The work of children was important in pre-industrial societies, as children needed to provide their labour for their survival and that of their group. Pre-industrial societies were characterised by low productivity and short life expectancy, preventing children from participating in productive work would be more harmful to their welfare and that of their group in the long run. In pre-industrial societies, there was little need for children to attend school. This is especially the case in non literate societies. Most pre-industrial skill and knowledge were amenable to being passed down through direct mentoring or apprenticing by competent adults.
On average how many weekly hours did a domestic servant put in?
57275ec9dd62a815002e9bba
80
750
False
Mid-18th century London had how many domestic servants?
57275ec9dd62a815002e9bbb
over 120,000
567
False
What was the youngest age of a child working in a factory?
57275ec9dd62a815002e9bbc
four
125
False
How many hours did builders work in the winter?
57275ec9dd62a815002e9bbd
52
705
False
Were children able to take on apprenticeships?
57275ec9dd62a815002e9bbe
Some children undertook work as apprentices to respectable trades
447
False
The Victorian era in particular became notorious for the conditions under which children were employed. Children as young as four were employed in production factories and mines working long hours in dangerous, often fatal, working conditions. In coal mines, children would crawl through tunnels too narrow and low for adults. Children also worked as errand boys, crossing sweepers, shoe blacks, or selling matches, flowers and other cheap goods. Some children undertook work as apprentices to respectable trades, such as building or as domestic servants (there were over 120,000 domestic servants in London in the mid-18th century). Working hours were long: builders worked 64 hours a week in summer and 52 in winter, while domestic servants worked 80 hour weeks.
How many families were without a bread winner?
57276019dd62a815002e9bc4
one-third
234
False
How many water-powered cotton mills used child labour in 1788 England and Scotland?
57276019dd62a815002e9bc5
143
437
False
Was it a low amount or high amount of children that also worked in prostitution?
57276019dd62a815002e9bc6
high number
498
False
Where was Charles Dickens employed as a child?
57276019dd62a815002e9bc7
blacking factory
606
False
During the Industrial Revolution what was the main driving force behind child labour?
57276019dd62a815002e9bc8
economic hardship
107
False
Child labour played an important role in the Industrial Revolution from its outset, often brought about by economic hardship. The children of the poor were expected to contribute to their family income. In 19th-century Great Britain, one-third of poor families were without a breadwinner, as a result of death or abandonment, obliging many children to work from a young age. In England and Scotland in 1788, two-thirds of the workers in 143 water-powered cotton mills were described as children. A high number of children also worked as prostitutes. The author Charles Dickens worked at the age of 12 in a blacking factory, with his family in debtor's prison.
During the 19th century was there any advocates for the working children?
572761fe5951b619008f8917
Lord Shaftesbury
961
False
In 1833 at what age was the limit to working in a textile industry factory?
572761fe5951b619008f8918
children under the age of nine
733
False
What year were both adults and children only able to work 10 hours a day?
572761fe5951b619008f8919
1847
897
False
In the 19th century was there an increase or decreased need to child labour?
572761fe5951b619008f891a
child labour began to decline
48
False
What year did Britain first inact legislation with regards to child labour?
572761fe5951b619008f891b
1803
300
False
Throughout the second half of the 19th century, child labour began to decline in industrialised societies due to regulation and economic factors. The regulation of child labour began from the earliest days of the Industrial revolution. The first act to regulate child labour in Britain was passed in 1803. As early as 1802 and 1819 Factory Acts were passed to regulate the working hours of workhouse children in factories and cotton mills to 12 hours per day. These acts were largely ineffective and after radical agitation, by for example the "Short Time Committees" in 1831, a Royal Commission recommended in 1833 that children aged 11–18 should work a maximum of 12 hours per day, children aged 9–11 a maximum of eight hours, and children under the age of nine were no longer permitted to work. This act however only applied to the textile industry, and further agitation led to another act in 1847 limiting both adults and children to 10-hour working days. Lord Shaftesbury was an outspoken advocate of regulating child labour.
When were young boys employed in the glass making industries?
57276683dd62a815002e9c34
early 20th century
7
False
Under glass making conditions were the children exposed to any heating elements?
57276683dd62a815002e9c35
they are exposed to this heat
277
False
Were the boys in glass making industry paid by the hour?
57276683dd62a815002e9c36
paid by the piece
405
False
Did the glass industry have a preference for older working boys?
57276683dd62a815002e9c37
factory owners preferred boys under 16 years of age
580
False
In the early 20th century, thousands of boys were employed in glass making industries. Glass making was a dangerous and tough job especially without the current technologies. The process of making glass includes intense heat to melt glass (3133 °F). When the boys are at work, they are exposed to this heat. This could cause eye trouble, lung ailments, heat exhaustion, cut, and burns. Since workers were paid by the piece, they had to work productively for hours without a break. Since furnaces had to be constantly burning, there were night shifts from 5:00 pm to 3:00 am. Many factory owners preferred boys under 16 years of age.
Where was photographer Lewis Hine employed?
5727672bf1498d1400e8f782
National Child Labor Committee
472
False
What year were over 2 million children employed in the US?
5727672bf1498d1400e8f783
1910
3
False
What did children roll in a factory?
5727672bf1498d1400e8f784
cigarettes
125
False
What did child do in textile mills in the US?
5727672bf1498d1400e8f785
bobbin doffers
172
False
In 1910, over 2 million children in the same age group were employed in the United States. This included children who rolled cigarettes, engaged in factory work, worked as bobbin doffers in textile mills, worked in coal mines and were employed in canneries. Lewis Hine's photographs of child labourers in the 1910s powerfully evoked the plight of working children in the American south. Hines took these photographs between 1908 and 1917 as the staff photographer for the National Child Labor Committee.
Why would families perfer labour done at the home as opposed to the factory?
57276917708984140094dd1b
because it allowed them to generate income while taking care of household duties.
469
False
Early 20th century states began to have a responsiblity to take care of whom?
57276917708984140094dd1c
poor
324
False
Children were employed in the home, factories and were else in the 20th century?
57276917708984140094dd1d
mines
14
False
Factories and mines were not the only places where child labour was prevalent in the early 20th century. Home-based manufacturing across the United States and Europe employed children as well. Governments and reformers argued that labour in factories must be regulated and the state had an obligation to provide welfare for poor. Legislation that followed had the effect of moving work out of factories into urban homes. Families and women, in particular, preferred it because it allowed them to generate income while taking care of household duties.
What time were home manufactoring activities for children taking place?
57276a47708984140094dd21
year round
48
False
Who did the children work beside?
57276a47708984140094dd22
parents
595
False
Where were rural children employed?
57276a47708984140094dd23
agriculture
778
False
What were the working conditions described as for the children employed at home?
57276a47708984140094dd24
unhealthy and insanitary
993
False
In 1946 who was the Director of the United States Department of Labour?
57276a47708984140094dd25
Frieda Miller
800
False
Home-based manufacturing operations were active year round. Families willingly deployed their children in these income generating home enterprises. In many cases, men worked from home. In France, over 58 percent of garment workers operated out of their homes; in Germany, the number of full-time home operations nearly doubled between 1882 and 1907; and in the United States, millions of families operated out of home seven days a week, year round to produce garments, shoes, artificial flowers, feathers, match boxes, toys, umbrellas and other products. Children aged 5–14 worked alongside the parents. Home-based operations and child labour in Australia, Britain, Austria and other parts of the world was common. Rural areas similarly saw families deploying their children in agriculture. In 1946, Frieda Miller - then Director of United States Department of Labour - told the International Labour Organisation that these home-based operations offered, "low wages, long hours, child labour, unhealthy and insanitary working conditions."
Does child labour exist in the 21st century?
57276ccff1498d1400e8f7c4
Child labour is still common
0
False
Where does child labour currently occur the most?
57276ccff1498d1400e8f7c5
rural areas
1182
False
How many children in today's world work beside their parents?
57276ccff1498d1400e8f7c6
Two out of three child
931
False
Some child work as guides for whom?
57276ccff1498d1400e8f7c7
tourists
1059
False
Child labour is still common in many parts of the world. Estimates for child labour vary. It ranges between 250 and 304 million, if children aged 5–17 involved in any economic activity are counted. If light occasional work is excluded, ILO estimates there were 153 million child labourers aged 5–14 worldwide in 2008. This is about 20 million less than ILO estimate for child labourers in 2004. Some 60 percent of the child labour was involved in agricultural activities such as farming, dairy, fisheries and forestry. Another 25 percent of child labourers were in service activities such as retail, hawking goods, restaurants, load and transfer of goods, storage, picking and recycling trash, polishing shoes, domestic help, and other services. The remaining 15 percent laboured in assembly and manufacturing in informal economy, home-based enterprises, factories, mines, packaging salt, operating machinery, and such operations. Two out of three child workers work alongside their parents, in unpaid family work situations. Some children work as guides for tourists, sometimes combined with bringing in business for shops and restaurants. Child labour predominantly occurs in the rural areas (70%) and informal urban sector (26%).
What country has the highest percentage of child labour?
57276ed9708984140094dd65
Africa
63
False
In Asia how many millions of children are employed?
57276ed9708984140094dd66
114
472
False
Right now what percentage of children are employed in the US?
57276ed9708984140094dd67
1%
93
False
Caribean and where else is there a low population of child workers?
57276ed9708984140094dd68
Latin America
485
False
Child labour accounts for 22% of the workforce in Asia, 32% in Africa, 17% in Latin America, 1% in the US, Canada, Europe and other wealthy nations. The proportion of child labourers varies greatly among countries and even regions inside those countries. Africa has the highest percentage of children aged 5–17 employed as child labour, and a total of over 65 million. Asia, with its larger population, has the largest number of children employed as child labour at about 114 million. Latin America and Caribbean region have lower overall population density, but at 14 million child labourers has high incidence rates too.
Where is present day child labour stats unclear?
57276fdb5951b619008f89d7
China
272
False
When did the U.S. produce a list of goods primarily made by child labour in China?
57276fdb5951b619008f89d8
2014
622
False
What is the cause of diagreements in child labour numbers for present day?
57276fdb5951b619008f89d9
data sources
102
False
Chinese children have been known to make electronics, toys and what else?
57276fdb5951b619008f89da
garments
875
False
Accurate present day child labour information is difficult to obtain because of disagreements between data sources as to what constitutes child labour. In some countries, government policy contributes to this difficulty. For example, the overall extent of child labour in China is unclear due to the government categorizing child labour data as “highly secret”. China has enacted regulations to prevent child labour; still, the practice of child labour is reported to be a persistent problem within China, generally in agriculture and low-skill service sectors as well as small workshops and manufacturing enterprises. In 2014, the U.S. Department of Labor issued a List of Goods Produced by Child Labor or Forced Labor where China was attributed 12 goods the majority of which were produced by both underage children and indentured labourers. The report listed electronics, garments, toys and coal among other goods.
According to the Maplecroft Child Labour Index how many countries post risks for child labour?
5727708f708984140094dd9b
76
50
False
What country is the second on the list for child labour in accordance to the Maplecroft Child Labour Index?
5727708f708984140094dd9c
North Korea
224
False
What was the Phillipines ranked as?
5727708f708984140094dd9d
25th
379
False
Was Brazil on the list?
5727708f708984140094dd9e
Brazil 54th
453
False
Maplecroft Child Labour Index 2012 survey reports 76 countries pose extreme child labour complicity risks for companies operating worldwide. The ten highest risk countries in 2012, ranked in decreasing order, were: Myanmar, North Korea, Somalia, Sudan, DR Congo, Zimbabwe, Afghanistan, Burundi, Pakistan and Ethiopia. Of the major growth economies, Maplecroft ranked Philippines 25th riskiest, India 27th, China 36th, Viet Nam 37th, Indonesia 46th, and Brazil 54th - all of them rated to involve extreme risks of child labour uncertainties, to corporations seeking to invest in developing world and import products from emerging markets.
What is the main reason for children today to be in the work force?
572772395951b619008f8a25
nothing better to do
193
False
Do the poor families put a value on education?
572772395951b619008f8a26
parents wonder if going to school is really worth it.
495
False
What community has the most prevalency for child labour?
572772395951b619008f8a27
rural areas
246
False
Lack of meaningful alternatives, such as affordable schools and quality education, according to ILO, is another major factor driving children to harmful labour. Children work because they have nothing better to do. Many communities, particularly rural areas where between 60–70% of child labour is prevalent, do not possess adequate school facilities. Even when schools are sometimes available, they are too far away, difficult to reach, unaffordable or the quality of education is so poor that parents wonder if going to school is really worth it.
Throughout European history was child labour seen as a positive?
572774cedd62a815002e9d38
Some view that work is good for the character-building and skill development of children
190
False
Are boys or girls more likely in some cultures to be thrown into child labour?
572774cedd62a815002e9d39
girls
671
False
For working parents what is the value of having their children work by their side?
572774cedd62a815002e9d3a
learn and practice that trade from a very early age
483
False
Do many cultures place value of the education of a young girl?
572774cedd62a815002e9d3b
education of girls is less valued
568
False
In European history when child labour was common, as well as in contemporary child labour of modern world, certain cultural beliefs have rationalised child labour and thereby encouraged it. Some view that work is good for the character-building and skill development of children. In many cultures, particular where the informal economy and small household businesses thrive, the cultural tradition is that children follow in their parents' footsteps; child labour then is a means to learn and practice that trade from a very early age. Similarly, in many cultures the education of girls is less valued or girls are simply not expected to need formal schooling, and these girls pushed into child labour such as providing domestic services.
Biggeri and Mehrotra studied primarily Asia nations including India, Pakistan, Indonesia, Philippines and what other country?
57277611708984140094de3f
Thailand
172
False
Is child labour a new issue in these Asian countries?
57277611708984140094de40
not a new problem
273
False
Supply and what else causes child labour to still exist today?
57277611708984140094de41
demand
457
False
What encourages child labour across the globe?
57277611708984140094de42
Macroeconomic
292
False
Biggeri and Mehrotra have studied the macroeconomic factors that encourage child labour. They focus their study on five Asian nations including India, Pakistan, Indonesia, Thailand and Philippines. They suggest that child labour is a serious problem in all five, but it is not a new problem. Macroeconomic causes encouraged widespread child labour across the world, over most of human history. They suggest that the causes for child labour include both the demand and the supply side. While poverty and unavailability of good schools explain the child labour supply side, they suggest that the growth of low-paying informal economy rather than higher paying formal economy is amongst the causes of the demand side. Other scholars too suggest that inflexible labour market, sise of informal economy, inability of industries to scale up and lack of modern manufacturing technologies are major macroeconomic factors affecting demand and acceptability of child labour.
How many children were employed on colonial plantations?
57277a21f1498d1400e8f922
Millions
254
False
Were young apprentices hired for pay?
57277a21f1498d1400e8f923
without pay
484
False
Was child labour common in European colonies?
57277a21f1498d1400e8f924
child labour was common place in the colonies of European
18
False
What was the age range of colonial child workers?
57277a21f1498d1400e8f925
5–14
451
False
What century did apprenticeships begin to take place?
57277a21f1498d1400e8f926
19th
590
False
Systematic use of child labour was common place in the colonies of European powers between 1650 and 1950. In Africa, colonial administrators encouraged traditional kin-ordered modes of production, that is hiring a household for work not just the adults. Millions of children worked in colonial agricultural plantations, mines and domestic service industries. Sophisticated schemes were promulgated where children in these colonies between the ages of 5–14 were hired as an apprentice without pay in exchange for learning a craft. A system of Pauper Apprenticeship came into practice in the 19th century where the colonial master neither needed the native parents' nor child's approval to assign a child to labour, away from parents, at a distant farm owned by a different colonial master. Other schemes included 'earn-and-learn' programs where children would work and thereby learn. Britain for example passed a law, the so-called Masters and Servants Act of 1899, followed by Tax and Pass Law, to encourage child labour in colonies particularly in Africa. These laws offered the native people the legal ownership to some of the native land in exchange for making labour of wife and children available to colonial government's needs such as in farms and as picannins.
Where did the British turn a blind eye to child labour?
57277af45951b619008f8aef
Hong Kong
37
False
What schools required child labour?
57277af45951b619008f8af0
Christian mission schools
305
False
Did the child workers receive anything from the christian mission schools?
57277af45951b619008f8af1
provided religious education
425
False
What did the Canadians do to children that did not wish to work?
57277af45951b619008f8af2
stipulated jail terms
567
False
In southeast Asian colonies, such as Hong Kong, child labour such as the Mui Tsai (妹仔), was rationalised as a cultural tradition and ignored by British authorities. The Dutch East India Company officials rationalised their child labour abuses with, "it is a way to save these children from a worse fate." Christian mission schools in regions stretching from Zambia to Nigeria too required work from children, and in exchange provided religious education, not secular education. Elsewhere, the Canadian Dominion Statutes in form of so-called Breaches of Contract Act, stipulated jail terms for uncooperative child workers.
Where do African children find their first jobs?
57277c3a708984140094deed
home
120
False
What do African children do primarily while working at home?
57277c3a708984140094deee
help their parents run the family farm
128
False
How many children in Africa are working in the arigucultural sector?
57277c3a708984140094deef
estimated five million
460
False
How many children in Africa pick coffee?
57277c3a708984140094def0
30 percent
610
False
How many children work year round in Africa?
57277c3a708984140094def1
estimated 25,000
670
False
Children working at a young age has been a consistent theme throughout Africa. Many children began first working in the home to help their parents run the family farm. Children in Africa today are often forced into exploitative labour due to family debt and other financial factors, leading to ongoing poverty. Other types of domestic child labour include working in commercial plantations, begging, and other sales such as boot shining. In total, there is an estimated five million children who are currently working in the field of agriculture which steadily increases during the time of harvest. Along with 30 percent of children who are picking coffee, there are an estimated 25,000 school age children who work year round.
Where did children from urban areas primarily work?
57277eae708984140094df25
street vendors, washing cars, helping in construction sites, weaving clothing, and sometimes even working as exotic dancers
167
False
Where did children from rural areas work?
57277eae708984140094df26
farms
348
False
When was the United Nations Conventions on the Rights of the Child Act implemented?
57277eae708984140094df27
1959
708
False
What was the most serious aftereffects of child labour?
57277eae708984140094df28
physical and emotional abuse
527
False
What industries children work in depends on if they grew up in a rural area or an urban area. Children who were born in urban areas often found themselves working for street vendors, washing cars, helping in construction sites, weaving clothing, and sometimes even working as exotic dancers. While children who grew up in rural areas would work on farms doing physical labour, working with animals, and selling crops. Of all the child workers, the most serious cases involved street children and trafficked children due to the physical and emotional abuse they endured by their employers. To address the issue of child labour, the United Nations Conventions on the Rights of the Child Act was implemented in 1959. Yet due to poverty, lack of education and ignorance, the legal actions were not/are not wholly enforced or accepted in Africa.
What country is still an issue today with regards to child labour?
57277fbedd62a815002e9ed0
Africa
404
False
What is an issue in Africa with child labour definitions?
57277fbedd62a815002e9ed1
unclear definition of adolescence
446
False
In Africa what is a cultural acceptance with regards to child labour?
57277fbedd62a815002e9ed2
children helping run the family business.
734
False
Other legal factors that have been implemented to end and reduce child labour includes the global response that came into force in 1979 by the declaration of the International Year of the Child. Along with the Human Rights Committee of the United Nations, these two declarations worked on many levels to eliminate child labour. Although many actions have been taken to end this epidemic, child labour in Africa is still an issue today due to the unclear definition of adolescence and how much time is needed for children to engage in activities that are crucial for their development. Another issue that often comes into play is the link between what constitutes as child labour within the household due to the cultural acceptance of children helping run the family business. In the end, there is a consistent challenge for the national government to strengthen its grip politically on child labour, and to increase education and awareness on the issue of children working below the legal age limit. With children playing an important role in the African economy, child labour still plays an important role for many in the 20th century.
In 1888 what country were child convicts sent to the most?
57278094708984140094df53
Australia
75
False
What restricted the 1870s Child labour in Australia?
57278094708984140094df54
compulsorry schooling
549
False
Was child labour rampagnt in Australia?
57278094708984140094df55
Child labour was not as excessive in Australia
115
False
When did industrailization take off in Australia?
57278094708984140094df56
20th century
395
False
From European settlement in 1888, child convicts were occasionally sent to Australia where they were made to work. Child labour was not as excessive in Australia as in Britain. With a low population, agricultural productivity was higher and families did not face starvation as in established industrialised countries. Australia also did not have significant industry until the later part of the 20th century when child labour laws, and compulsory schooling had developed under the influence of Britain. From the 1870s Child labour was restricted by compulsorry schooling.
When was Brazil colonized?
57278262dd62a815002e9f1c
April 22, 1550
107
False
Who colonized Brazil?
57278262dd62a815002e9f1d
Pedro Álvares Cabral
125
False
Who were the victims of industrial accidents?
57278262dd62a815002e9f1e
Boys and girls
1065
False
When was child labour first documented in Brazil?
57278262dd62a815002e9f1f
during the time of indigenous societies
737
False
How did Armando Dias die?
57278262dd62a815002e9f20
electric shock
998
False
Child labour has been a consistent struggle for children in Brazil ever since the country was colonized on April 22, 1550 by Pedro Álvares Cabral. Work that many children took part in was not always visible, legal, or paid. Free or slave labour was a common occurrence for many youths and was a part of their everyday lives as they grew into adulthood. Yet due to there being no clear definition of how to classify what a child or youth is, there has been little historical documentation of child labour during the colonial period. Due to this lack of documentation, it is hard to determine just how many children were used for what kinds of work before the nineteenth century. The first documentation of child labour in Brazil occurred during the time of indigenous societies and slave labour where it was found that children were forcibly working on tasks that exceeded their emotional and physical limits. Armando Dias, for example, died in November 1913 whilst still very young, a victim of an electric shock when entering the textile industry where he worked. Boys and girls were victims of industrial accidents on a daily basis.
What is the min working age in Brazil?
572783acdd62a815002e9f4a
fourteen
58
False
What year was hazardous working conditions limited to children in Brazil?
572783acdd62a815002e9f4b
1998
468
False
Is there underage children working in Brazil?
572783acdd62a815002e9f4c
there is still a high number of children and adolescents working under the age of fourteen in Brazil
727
False
In the 80's how many children were working illegally in Brazil?
572783acdd62a815002e9f4d
almost nine million
895
False
In Brazil, the minimum working age has been identified as fourteen due to continuous constitutional amendments that occurred in 1934, 1937, and 1946. Yet due to a change in the dictatorship by the military in the 80’s, the minimum age restriction was reduced to the age of twelve but was reviewed due to reports of dangerous and hazardous working conditions in 1988. This led to the minimum age being raised once again to 14. Another set of restrictions was passed in 1998 that restricted the kinds of work youth could partake in, such as work that was considered hazardous like running construction equipment, or certain kinds of factory work. Although many steps were taken to reduce the risk and occurrence of child labour, there is still a high number of children and adolescents working under the age of fourteen in Brazil. It was not until recently in the 80’s that it was discovered that almost nine million children in Brazil were working illegally and not partaking in traditional childhood activities that help to develop important life experiences.
In 1999 how many children were working illegally in Brazil?
572785c8dd62a815002e9f6c
2.55 million
49
False
What do drug cartels do with child workers?
572785c8dd62a815002e9f6d
sell and carry drugs, guns, and other illegal substances
556
False
What are the risks of child labour in drug cartels?
572785c8dd62a815002e9f6e
physical and psychological implications
732
False
Has these dangers caused and increase or decrease in child labour with drug cartels?
572785c8dd62a815002e9f6f
an increase
880
False
Brazilian census data (PNAD, 1999) indicate that 2.55 million 10-14 year-olds were illegally holding jobs. They were joined by 3.7 million 15-17 year-olds and about 375,000 5-9 year-olds. Due to the raised age restriction of 14, at least half of the recorded young workers had been employed illegally which lead to many not being protect by important labour laws. Although substantial time has passed since the time of regulated child labour, there is still a large number of children working illegally in Brazil. Many children are used by drug cartels to sell and carry drugs, guns, and other illegal substances because of their perception of innocence. This type of work that youth are taking part in is very dangerous due to the physical and psychological implications that come with these jobs. Yet despite the hazards that come with working with drug dealers, there has been an increase in this area of employment throughout the country.
If not forced why did children work?
57278650708984140094dfed
to help feed and support the family
443
False
What was the age of the majority of child workers in Britain?
57278650708984140094dfee
between the ages of ten and fourteen
920
False
Why was this age range important?
57278650708984140094dfef
they were first helping to provide for their families; while also transitioning to save for their own future families
1014
False
How were the work oppurtunies for parents during this time period?
57278650708984140094dff0
poor
328
False
Many factors played a role in Britain’s long-term economic growth, such as the industrial revolution in the late 1700s and the prominent presence of child labour during the industrial age. Children who worked at an early age were often not forced; but did so because they needed to help their family survive financially. Due to poor employment opportunities for many parents, sending their children to work on farms and in factories was a way to help feed and support the family. Child Labour first started to occur in England when household businesses were turned into local labour markets that mass-produced the once homemade goods. Because children often helped produce the goods out of their homes, working in a factory to make those same goods was a simple change for many of these youths. Although there are many counts of children under the age of ten working for factories, the majority of children workers were between the ages of ten and fourteen. This age range was an important time for many youths as they were first helping to provide for their families; while also transitioning to save for their own future families.
What type of support did child give to their families by working?
5727877df1498d1400e8fb06
financially
73
False
What type of factories saw an increased need for child labour?
5727877df1498d1400e8fb07
cotton textiles
571
False
Was there an increase or decrease in the field of agriculture?
5727877df1498d1400e8fb08
large numbers of children working in the field of agriculture
611
False
Besides the obligation, many children had to help support their families financially; another factor that influenced child labour was the demographic changes that occurred in the eighteenth century. By the end of the eighteenth century, 20 percent of the population was made up of children between the ages of 5 and 14. Due to this substantial shift in available workers, and the development of the industrial revolution, children began to work earlier in life in companies outside of the home. Yet, even though there was an increase of child labour in factories such as cotton textiles, there consistently was large numbers of children working in the field of agriculture and domestic production.
What became an issue for the working child?
57278848dd62a815002e9faa
illiteracy
63
False
Was illiteracy a factor in changing the minds of parents of child labourers?
57278848dd62a815002e9fab
many parents developed a change of opinion
227
False
What are the reasons that lead to a decline of child labour?
57278848dd62a815002e9fac
financial changes in the economy, changes in the development of technology, raised wages, and continuous regulations on factory legislation
395
False
With such a high percentage of children working, the rising of illiteracy, and the lack of a formal education became a widespread issue for many children who worked to provide for their families. Due to this problematic trend, many parents developed a change of opinion when deciding whether or not to send their children to work. Other factors that lead to the decline of child labour included financial changes in the economy, changes in the development of technology, raised wages, and continuous regulations on factory legislation.
When was the UN General Assembly of the International Covenant on Economic, Social and Cultural Rights enacted?
57278a02f1498d1400e8fb48
1966
108
False
What did this act due?
57278a02f1498d1400e8fb49
legally limited the minimum age for when children could start work at the age of 14
237
False
When were safe working environments legislation adopted for child labourers?
57278a02f1498d1400e8fb4a
1989
344
False
What did it help do to?
57278a02f1498d1400e8fb4b
helped to reduce the exploitation of children
406
False
The first legal steps taken to end the occurrence of child labour was enacted more than fifty years ago. In 1966, the nation adopted the UN General Assembly of the International Covenant on Economic, Social and Cultural Rights. This act legally limited the minimum age for when children could start work at the age of 14. But 23 years later in 1989 the Convention on the Rights of Children was adopted and helped to reduce the exploitation of children and demanded safe working environments. They all worked towards the goal of ending the most problematic forms of child labour.
When did the English East India Company defeat Siraj-ud-Daula?
57278b525951b619008f8ced
23 June 1757
3
False
Who was the master of the east of India?
57278b525951b619008f8cee
British
124
False
Why were many children employed?
57278b525951b619008f8cef
increasing need of cheap labour
339
False
What was the primary reason for India children being employed?
57278b525951b619008f8cf0
lack knowledge of their basic rights
623
False
How did India child workers act?
57278b525951b619008f8cf1
they did not cause trouble or complain
661
False
On 23 June 1757, the English East India Company defeated Siraj-ud-Daula, the Nawab of Bengal, in the Battle of Plassey. The British thus became masters of east India (Bengal, Bihar, Orissa) – a prosperous region with a flourishing agriculture, industry and trade. This led to a large amount of children being forced into labour due to the increasing need of cheap labour to produce large numbers of goods. Many multinationals often employed children because that they can be recruited for less pay, and have more endurance to utilise in factory environments. Another reason many Indian children were hired was because they lack knowledge of their basic rights, they did not cause trouble or complain, and they were often more trustworthy. The innocence that comes with childhood was utilised to make a profit by many and was encouraged by the need for family income.
How much of the world's child labour does India's workers contribute to?
57278c04f1498d1400e8fb98
one-fourth
251
False
How many Asian child workers are from India?
57278c04f1498d1400e8fb99
one-third
214
False
Did the India goverment take any actions against child labour?
57278c04f1498d1400e8fb9a
extensive actions to reduce the number of children working, and to focus on the importance of facilitating the proper growth and development of children.
387
False
A variety of Indian social scientists as well as the Non-Governmental Organization (NGOs) have done extensive research on the numeric figures of child labour found in India and determined that India contributes to one-third of Asia’s child labour and one-fourth of the world's child labour. Due to a large number of children being illegally employed, the Indian government began to take extensive actions to reduce the number of children working, and to focus on the importance of facilitating the proper growth and development of children.
When did the Geneva Declaration of the Right of Children Act pass?
57278c79dd62a815002ea00c
1924
153
False
What did the international acts do?
57278c79dd62a815002ea00d
encouraged major changes to the workforce
384
False
What is the age limit now in India for child workers?
57278c79dd62a815002ea00e
14
593
False
What child working conditions are they protected from?
57278c79dd62a815002ea00f
hazardous conditions
617
False
International influences help to encourage legal actions to be taken in India, such as the Geneva Declaration of the Right of Children Act was passed in 1924. This act was followed by The Universal Declaration of Human Rights in 1948 to which incorporated the basic human rights and needs of children for proper progression and growth in their younger years. These international acts encouraged major changes to the workforce in India which occurred in 1986 when the Child Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Act was put into place. This act prohibited hiring children younger than the age of 14, and from working in hazardous conditions.
When were students used as workers?
57278e045951b619008f8d6b
1950s
9
False
For Russian student workers how many summer days were devoted to work?
57278e045951b619008f8d6c
21 days
184
False
Did they need parental consent?
57278e045951b619008f8d6d
this is only allowed as part of specialized occupational training and with the students' and parents' permission
264
False
What year were students killed as part of a road cleanup project?
57278e045951b619008f8d6e
2012
422
False
From the 1950s on, the students were also used for unpaid work at schools, where they cleaned and performed repairs. This practice has continued in the Russian Federation, where up to 21 days of the summer holidays is sometimes set aside for school works. By law, this is only allowed as part of specialized occupational training and with the students' and parents' permission, but those provisions are widely ignored. In 2012 there was an accident near city of Nalchik where a car killed several pupils cleaning up a highway shoulder during their "holiday work" as well as their teacher who was supervising them.
What former Soviet Union continued child labour programs?
572792e1708984140094e13f
Uzbekistan
37
False
What was the main source of income for Islam Karimov?
572792e1708984140094e140
cotton harvesting
185
False
Did they have daily quotas for cotton?
572792e1708984140094e141
daily quotas of 20 to 60 kg of raw cotton
346
False
What are the 2016 estimates for child labour in regards to cotton picking?
572792e1708984140094e142
2.7 million
526
False
Out of former Soviet Union republics Uzbekistan continued and expanded the program of child labour on industrial scale to increase profits on the main source of Islam Karimov's income, cotton harvesting. In September, when school normally starts, the classes are suspended and children are sent to cotton fields for work, where they are assigned daily quotas of 20 to 60 kg of raw cotton they have to collect. This process is repeated in spring, when collected cotton needs to be hoed and weeded. In 2006 it is estimated that 2.7 million children were forced to work this way.
What is Kaminfegerkinder?
5727934b708984140094e159
chimney sweep children
104
False
What types of child labour did Switzerland employ?
5727934b708984140094e15a
spinning mills, factories and in agriculture
157
False
Where did the children go to work primarily in Switzerland?
5727934b708984140094e15b
poor farmers who needed cheap labour
591
False
As in many other countries, child labour in Switzerland affected among the so-called Kaminfegerkinder ("chimney sweep children") and chidren working p.e. in spinning mills, factories and in agriculture in 19th-century Switzerland, but also to the 1960s so-called Verdingkinder (literally: "contract children" or "indentured child laborers") were children who were taken from their parents, often due to poverty or moral reasons – usually mothers being unmarried, very poor citizens, of Gypsy–Yeniche origin, so-called Kinder der Landstrasse, etc. – and sent to live with new families, often poor farmers who needed cheap labour.
What happened at Verdingkinder auctions?
572795a6dd62a815002ea12e
children were handed over to the farmer asking the least amount of money
45
False
In 1930s how many indentured children were there?
572795a6dd62a815002ea12f
35,000
652
False
How many Swiss citizen signatures were collected?
572795a6dd62a815002ea130
100,000
963
False
There were even Verdingkinder auctions where children were handed over to the farmer asking the least amount of money from the authorities, thus securing cheap labour for his farm and relieving the authority from the financial burden of looking after the children. In the 1930s 20% of all agricultural labourers in the Canton of Bern were children below the age of 15. Swiss municipality guardianship authorities acted so, commonly tolerated by federal authorities, to the 1960s, not all of them of course, but usually communities affected of low taxes in some Swiss cantons Swiss historian Marco Leuenberger investigated, that in 1930 there were some 35,000 indentured children, and between 1920 and 1970 more than 100,000 are believed to have been placed with families or homes. 10,000 Verdingkinder are still alive. Therefore, the so-called Wiedergutmachungsinitiative was started in April 2014. In April 2014 the collection of targeted at least authenticated 100,000 signatures of Swiss citizens has started, and still have to be collected to October 2015.
How many countries have signed the Worst Forms Convention 183 (C182)?
5727965f708984140094e197
151
127
False
What types of child labour does this prohibit?
5727965f708984140094e198
all forms of slavery
243
False
What other international laws deal with child labour?
5727965f708984140094e199
Minimum Age Convention (C138)
653
False
In 1999, ILO helped lead the Worst Forms Convention 182 (C182), which has so far been signed upon and domestically ratified by 151 countries including the United States. This international law prohibits worst forms of child labour, defined as all forms of slavery and slavery-like practices, such as child trafficking, debt bondage, and forced labour, including forced recruitment of children into armed conflict. The law also prohibits the use of a child for prostitution or the production of pornography, child labour in illicit activities such as drug production and trafficking; and in hazardous work. Both the Worst Forms Convention (C182) and the Minimum Age Convention (C138) are examples of international labour standards implemented through the ILO that deal with child labour.
What did the United Nations take charge of with regards to child labour?
5727972a708984140094e1a7
International Program on the Elimination of Child Labour (IPEC)
75
False
What is the aim of this?
5727972a708984140094e1a8
progressively eliminate child labour
172
False
What are some of the target countries?
5727972a708984140094e1a9
Bangladesh, Brazil, China, Egypt
609
False
What do they want to do with regards to schooling of young children?
5727972a708984140094e1aa
universal primary school
504
False
In addition to setting the international law, the United Nations initiated International Program on the Elimination of Child Labour (IPEC) in 1992. This initiative aims to progressively eliminate child labour through strengthening national capacities to address some of the causes of child labour. Amongst the key initiative is the so-called time-bounded programme countries, where child labour is most prevalent and schooling opportunities lacking. The initiative seeks to achieve amongst other things, universal primary school availability. The IPEC has expanded to at least the following target countries: Bangladesh, Brazil, China, Egypt, India, Indonesia, Mexico, Nigeria, Pakistan, Democratic Republic of Congo, El Salvador, Nepal, Tanzania, Dominican Republic, Costa Rica, Philippines, Senegal, South Africa and Turkey.
What did the United States pass in 2004?
57279793dd62a815002ea158
amendment to the Fair Labour Standards Act of 1938
37
False
What is the age of US children allowed to work outside of the home?
57279793dd62a815002ea159
aged 14–18
127
False
What culture in the US benefits from this Act?
57279793dd62a815002ea15a
Amish
276
False
What grade do Amish children need to pass in order to be able to work for their families?
57279793dd62a815002ea15b
eighth grade
486
False
In 2004, the United States passed an amendment to the Fair Labour Standards Act of 1938. The amendment allows certain children aged 14–18 to work in or outside a business where machinery is used to process wood. The law aims to respect the religious and cultural needs of the Amish community of the United States. The Amish believe that one effective way to educate children is on the job. The new law allows Amish children the ability to work with their families, once they are passed eighth grade in school.
What happened in the European Union in 1996?
5727985b708984140094e1c1
agreed to a number of exceptions for young people in its child labour laws
84
False
What age were children allowed to do light labour?
5727985b708984140094e1c2
13
339
False
What age were children able to take part in European training programs?
5727985b708984140094e1c3
aged 14 years or over
536
False
What is the most common occupation for Dutch youth to have?
5727985b708984140094e1c4
babysitting
968
False
Similarly, in 1996, member countries of the European Union, per Directive 94/33/EC, agreed to a number of exceptions for young people in its child labour laws. Under these rules, children of various ages may work in cultural, artistic, sporting or advertising activities if authorised by the competent authority. Children above the age of 13 may perform light work for a limited number of hours per week in other economic activities as defined at the discretion of each country. Additionally, the European law exception allows children aged 14 years or over to work as part of a work/training scheme. The EU Directive clarified that these exceptions do not allow child labour where the children may experience harmful exposure to dangerous substances. Nonetheless, many children under the age of 13 do work, even in the most developed countries of the EU. For instance, a recent study showed over a third of Dutch twelve-year-old kids had a job, the most common being babysitting.
What does child labour do for adults?
57279aacdd62a815002ea1c2
leads to poor labour standards
211
False
What happens to the wages of adults?
57279aacdd62a815002ea1c3
depresses the wages of adults in developing countries as well as the developed countries
254
False
What are the implications for third world countries with regards to child labour?
57279aacdd62a815002ea1c4
low-skill jobs only capable of producing poor quality cheap exports
383
False
Does ending child labour have a global value?
57279aacdd62a815002ea1c5
there are moral and economic reasons that justify a blanket ban on labour
580
False
Some scholars[who?] suggest any labour by children aged 18 years or less is wrong since this encourages illiteracy, inhumane work and lower investment in human capital. Child labour, claim these activists, also leads to poor labour standards for adults, depresses the wages of adults in developing countries as well as the developed countries, and dooms the third world economies to low-skill jobs only capable of producing poor quality cheap exports. More children that work in poor countries, the fewer and worse-paid are the jobs for adults in these countries. In other words, there are moral and economic reasons that justify a blanket ban on labour from children aged 18 years or less, everywhere in the world.
What do some scholars agress is the "disease" of child labour?
57279b10ff5b5019007d90d4
poverty
202
False
Do these scholars argue for or against ending child labour?
57279b10ff5b5019007d90d5
These will increase abuse of the children. In poor countries with very high incidence rates of child labour
350
False
What do these scholars argue for keeping child labour as a practice?
57279b10ff5b5019007d90d6
only option for survival
800
False
Other scholars[who?] suggest that these arguments are flawed, ignores history and more laws will do more harm than good. According to them, child labour is merely the symptom of a greater disease named poverty. If laws ban all lawful work that enables the poor to survive, informal economy, illicit operations and underground businesses will thrive. These will increase abuse of the children. In poor countries with very high incidence rates of child labour - such as Ethiopia, Chad, Niger and Nepal - schools are not available, and the few schools that exist offer poor quality education or are unaffordable. The alternatives for children who currently work, claim these studies, are worse: grinding subsistence farming, militia or prostitution. Child labour is not a choice, it is a necessity, the only option for survival. It is currently the least undesirable of a set of very bad choices.
What caused child labour to decrease in the 20th century?
57279bc6708984140094e20f
economic development
180
False
What caused child labour to decrease in Vietnam?
57279bc6708984140094e210
economic reforms
448
False
What do these scholars suggest with regards to child labour reductions?
57279bc6708984140094e211
emphasis on opening quality schools rather than more laws and expanding economically relevant skill development opportunities in the third world
525
False
What do international actions do according to these scholars?
57279bc6708984140094e212
increase child labour
724
False
These scholars suggest, from their studies of economic and social data, that early 20th-century child labour in Europe and the United States ended in large part as a result of the economic development of the formal regulated economy, technology development and general prosperity. Child labour laws and ILO conventions came later. Edmonds suggests, even in contemporary times, the incidence of child labour in Vietnam has rapidly reduced following economic reforms and GDP growth. These scholars suggest economic engagement, emphasis on opening quality schools rather than more laws and expanding economically relevant skill development opportunities in the third world. International legal actions, such as trade sanctions increase child labour.
Who reported Ivory Coast farmers usage of child labour?
57279c323acd2414000de7c5
UNICEF
9
False
What do child labourers work on in West Africa?
57279c323acd2414000de7c6
production of cocoa
184
False
How many child slaves were reported in cocoa, coffee and cotton farms?
57279c323acd2414000de7c7
15,000
417
False
In 1998, UNICEF reported that Ivory Coast farmers used enslaved children – many from surrounding countries. In late 2000 a BBC documentary reported the use of enslaved children in the production of cocoa—the main ingredient in chocolate— in West Africa. Other media followed by reporting widespread child slavery and child trafficking in the production of cocoa. In 2001, the US State Department estimated there were 15,000 child slaves cocoa, cotton and coffee farms in the Ivory Coast, and the Chocolate Manufacturers Association acknowledged that child slavery is used in the cocoa harvest.[not in citation given][better source needed]
What migrants worked on the Ivory Coast?
57279cf2708984140094e24f
Malian
0
False
After a 10 year low in prices what did some farmers resort to?
57279cf2708984140094e250
stopped paying their employees
139
False
Where did the children mainly come from?
57279cf2708984140094e251
slums
470
False
Where were begging children often targeted for being sold into slavery?
57279cf2708984140094e252
bus stations
729
False
Malian migrants have long worked on cocoa farms in the Ivory Coast, but in 2000 cocoa prices had dropped to a 10-year low and some farmers stopped paying their employees. The Malian counsel had to rescue some boys who had not been paid for five years and who were beaten if they tried to run away. Malian officials believed that 15,000 children, some as young as 11 years old, were working in the Ivory Coast in 2001. These children were often from poor families or the slums and were sold to work in other countries. Parents were told the children would find work and send money home, but once the children left home, they often worked in conditions resembling slavery. In other cases, children begging for food were lured from bus stations and sold as slaves. In 2002, the Ivory Coast had 12,000 children with no relatives nearby, which suggested they were trafficked, likely from neighboring Mali, Burkina Faso and Togo.
What industry was accused of profiting from child labour?
57279dae4b864d19001638a6
cocoa industry
4
False
Who dismissed the allegations?
57279dae4b864d19001638a7
European Cocoa Association
84
False
What are the figures for cocoa farmers using child labour?
57279dae4b864d19001638a8
700,000
557
False
Who claimed these reports as being inaccurate?
57279dae4b864d19001638a9
ambassador for Ivory Coast to the United Kingdom
444
False
The cocoa industry was accused of profiting from child slavery and trafficking. The European Cocoa Association dismissed these accusations as "false and excessive" and the industry said the reports were not representative of all areas. Later the industry acknowledged the working conditions for children were unsatisfactory and children's rights were sometimes violated and acknowledged the claims could not be ignored. In a BBC interview, the ambassador for Ivory Coast to the United Kingdom called these reports of widespread use of slave child labour by 700,000 cocoa farmers as absurd and inaccurate.
What type of agreement was the 2001 Harkin-Engel Protocol?
57279e5bff5b5019007d912c
voluntary
11
False
What was the foundation that was the direct result of the agreement?
57279e5bff5b5019007d912d
International Cocoa Initiative
268
False
How many active programs does the foundation have?
57279e5bff5b5019007d912e
290
369
False
What happened to the 2005 deadlines?
57279e5bff5b5019007d912f
have not yet been met
626
False
In 2001, a voluntary agreement called the Harkin-Engel Protocol, was accepted by the international cocoa and chocolate industry to eliminate the worst forms of child labour, as defined by ILO's Convention 182, in West Africa. This agreement created a foundation named International Cocoa Initiative in 2002. The foundation claims it has, as of 2011, active programs in 290 cocoa growing communities in Côte d'Ivoire and Ghana, reaching a total population of 689,000 people to help eliminate the worst forms of child labour in cocoa industry. Other organisations claim progress has been made, but the protocol's 2005 deadlines have not yet been met.
Who was the supplier of copper and cobalt to China?
57279ecd4b864d19001638b8
Congo
102
False
What are child creuseurs?
57279ecd4b864d19001638b9
they dig the ore by hand, carry sacks of ores on their backs
145
False
What percent of materials go to China?
57279ecd4b864d19001638ba
90 percent
333
False
What is the cobalt used for?
57279ecd4b864d19001638bb
lithium-ion batteries powering electric cars and mobile devices worldwide
692
False
In 2008, Bloomberg claimed child labour in copper and cobalt mines that supplied Chinese companies in Congo. The children are creuseurs, that is they dig the ore by hand, carry sacks of ores on their backs, and these are then purchased by these companies. Over 60 of Katanga's 75 processing plants are owned by Chinese companies and 90 percent of the region's minerals go to China. An African NGO report claimed 80,000 child labourers under the age of 15, or about 40% of all miners, were supplying ore to Chinese companies in this African region. Amnesty International alleged in 2016 that some cobalt sold by Congo Dongfang Mining was produced by child labor, and that it was being used in lithium-ion batteries powering electric cars and mobile devices worldwide.
What did the BBC say that Glencore used child labour for in 2012?
5727a0b22ca10214002d9252
mining and smelting operations of Africa
60
False
What did Glencore say in regards to the allegations?
5727a0b22ca10214002d9253
denied
111
False
What did Glencore admit to with regards to child labor?
5727a0b22ca10214002d9254
being aware of child miners
364
False
BBC, in 2012, accused Glencore of using child labour in its mining and smelting operations of Africa. Glencore denied it used child labour, and said it has strict policy of not using child labour. The company claimed it has a strict policy whereby all copper was mined correctly, placed in bags with numbered seals and then sent to the smelter. Glencore mentioned being aware of child miners who were part of a group of artisanal miners who had without authorisation raided the concession awarded to the company since 2010; Glencore has been pleading with the government to remove the artisanal miners from the concession.
What is another source of mining dangerous to children workers?
5727a1343acd2414000de851
gold
32
False
What is the third largest exporter of gold in Africa?
5727a1343acd2414000de852
Mali
382
False
Why is gold vital to the people of Mali?
5727a1343acd2414000de853
it is the second largest earner of its export revenue
1014
False
What is the gold production income of poor families in Mali?
5727a1343acd2414000de854
primary and sometimes the only source of income
1117
False
Small-scale artisanal mining of gold is another source of dangerous child labour in poor rural areas in certain parts of the world. This form of mining uses labour-intensive and low-tech methods. It is informal sector of the economy. Human Rights Watch group estimates that about 12 percent of global gold production comes from artisanal mines. In west Africa, in countries such as Mali - the third largest exporter of gold in Africa - between 20,000 and 40,000 children work in artisanal mining. Locally known as orpaillage, children as young as 6 years old work with their families. These children and families suffer chronic exposure to toxic chemicals including mercury, and do hazardous work such as digging shafts and working underground, pulling up, carrying and crushing the ore. The poor work practices harm the long term health of children, as well as release hundreds of tons of mercury every year into local rivers, ground water and lakes. Gold is important to the economy of Mali and Ghana. For Mali, it is the second largest earner of its export revenue. For many poor families with children, it is the primary and sometimes the only source of income.
How many minors did Agriprocessors employ?
5727a1a64b864d19001638e0
57
245
False
What did Agriprocessors say in regards to the allegations?
5727a1a64b864d19001638e1
claimed that it was at a loss to understand the allegations
611
False
When did the CEO go on trial?
5727a1a64b864d19001638e2
4 May 2010
741
False
What was the verdict?
5727a1a64b864d19001638e3
not guilty of all 57 charges of child labour violations by the Black Hawk County District Court jury in Waterloo, Iowa, on 7 June 2010.
790
False
In early August 2008, Iowa Labour Commissioner David Neil announced that his department had found that Agriprocessors, a kosher meatpacking company in Postville which had recently been raided by Immigration and Customs Enforcement, had employed 57 minors, some as young as 14, in violation of state law prohibiting anyone under 18 from working in a meatpacking plant. Neil announced that he was turning the case over to the state Attorney General for prosecution, claiming that his department's inquiry had discovered "egregious violations of virtually every aspect of Iowa's child labour laws." Agriprocessors claimed that it was at a loss to understand the allegations. Agriprocessors' CEO went to trial on these charges in state court on 4 May 2010. After a five-week trial he was found not guilty of all 57 charges of child labour violations by the Black Hawk County District Court jury in Waterloo, Iowa, on 7 June 2010.
Who accused H&M of using products made by child labours?
5727a29e4b864d1900163900
Anti-Slavery International and the Environmental Justice Foundation (EJF)
165
False
Who else did they accuse of using child labor products?
5727a29e4b864d1900163901
Zara
255
False
What country did the cotton come from that was picked by children?
5727a29e4b864d1900163902
Bangladesh
289
False
What are activists trying to get implemented?
5727a29e4b864d1900163903
"track and trace" systems
514
False
In December 2009, campaigners in the UK called on two leading high street retailers to stop selling clothes made with cotton which may have been picked by children. Anti-Slavery International and the Environmental Justice Foundation (EJF) accused H&M and Zara of using cotton suppliers in Bangladesh. It is also suspected that many of their raw materials originates from Uzbekistan, where children aged 10 are forced to work in the fields. The activists were calling to ban the use of Uzbek cotton and implement a "track and trace" systems to guarantee an ethical responsible source of the material.
Who did the BBC in 2008 report as using child labor?
5727a3013acd2414000de885
Primark
43
False
What does Primark produce?
5727a3013acd2414000de886
clothing
95
False
What did the BBC program make their viewers question?
5727a3013acd2414000de887
"Why am I only paying £4 for a hand embroidered top?
274
False
What else did the BBC expose?
5727a3013acd2414000de888
the violent side of the child labour industry
413
False
In 2008, the BBC reported that the company Primark was using child labor in the manufacture of clothing. In particular, a £4 hand-embroidered shirt was the starting point of a documentary produced by BBC's Panorama programme. The programme asks consumers to ask themselves, "Why am I only paying £4 for a hand embroidered top? This item looks handmade. Who made it for such little cost?", in addition to exposing the violent side of the child labour industry in countries where child exploitation is prevalent.
How many years was Primark investigated for?
5727a35c3acd2414000de88d
three years
53
False
What did they claim about the BBC report?
5727a35c3acd2414000de88e
fake
99
False
What did the BBC do?
5727a35c3acd2414000de88f
apologised for faking footage
425
False
What happened to the reward the BBC received?
5727a35c3acd2414000de890
returned the television award
460
False
Primark continued to investigate the allegations for three years, concluding that BBC report was a fake. In 2011, following an investigation by the BBC Trust’s Editorial Standards Committee, the BBC announced, "Having carefully scrutinised all of the relevant evidence, the committee concluded that, on the balance of probabilities, it was more likely than not that the Bangalore footage was not authentic." BBC subsequently apologised for faking footage, and returned the television award for investigative reporting.
What do some feel may happen if child labour products were completely rejected by society as a whole?
5727a3d0ff5b5019007d919e
may force these children to turn to more dangerous or strenuous professions, such as prostitution
272
False
What happened to the 50,000 children in the UNICEF study?
5727a3d0ff5b5019007d919f
stone-crushing, street hustling, and prostitution"
621
False
What does the study say in regards to boycotts?
5727a3d0ff5b5019007d91a0
that can actually harm rather than help the children involved."
831
False
Concerns have often been raised over the buying public's moral complicity in purchasing products assembled or otherwise manufactured in developing countries with child labour. However, others have raised concerns that boycotting products manufactured through child labour may force these children to turn to more dangerous or strenuous professions, such as prostitution or agriculture. For example, a UNICEF study found that after the Child Labour Deterrence Act was introduced in the US, an estimated 50,000 children were dismissed from their garment industry jobs in Bangladesh, leaving many to resort to jobs such as "stone-crushing, street hustling, and prostitution", jobs that are "more hazardous and exploitative than garment production". The study suggests that boycotts are "blunt instruments with long-term consequences, that can actually harm rather than help the children involved."
Where did children work prior to the Industrial Revolution?
5727a440ff5b5019007d91b8
agriculture
96
False
How many children worked?
5727a440ff5b5019007d91b9
virtually all
63
False
Where did children go to work after doing farm work for so long?
5727a440ff5b5019007d91ba
factory work
189
False
What did parents do when the wages were finally raised?
5727a440ff5b5019007d91bb
send their children to school instead of work
267
False
According to Milton Friedman, before the Industrial Revolution virtually all children worked in agriculture. During the Industrial Revolution many of these children moved from farm work to factory work. Over time, as real wages rose, parents became able to afford to send their children to school instead of work and as a result child labour declined, both before and after legislation. Austrian School economist Murray Rothbard said that British and American children of the pre- and post-Industrial Revolution lived and suffered in infinitely worse conditions where jobs were not available for them and went "voluntarily and gladly" to work in factories.
Where is Thomas DeGregori from?
5727a4f1ff5b5019007d91ca
University of Houston
61
False
What country does he argue needs child labor to survive?
5727a4f1ff5b5019007d91cb
Bangladesh
432
False
What are the obstacles he claims are to ending child labor?
5727a4f1ff5b5019007d91cc
political obstacles
705
False
According to Thomas DeGregori, an economics professor at the University of Houston, in an article published by the Cato Institute, a libertarian think-tank operating in Washington D.C., "it is clear that technological and economic change are vital ingredients in getting children out of the workplace and into schools. Then they can grow to become productive adults and live longer, healthier lives. However, in poor countries like Bangladesh, working children are essential for survival in many families, as they were in our own heritage until the late 19th century. So, while the struggle to end child labour is necessary, getting there often requires taking different routes—and, sadly, there are many political obstacles.
What is benefical work for children?
5727a7103acd2414000de8e3
Domestic work
232
False
What can children do in countries were trading is involved?
5727a7103acd2414000de8e4
children can start trading in small items at an early age, often in the company of family members or of peers
592
False
All but what type of children must learn to clean?
5727a7103acd2414000de8e5
rich
282
False
The term child labour can be misleading when it confuses harmful work with employment that may be beneficial to children. It can also ignore harmful work outside employment and any benefits children normally derive from their work. Domestic work is an example: all families but the rich must work at cleaning, cooking, caring, and more to maintain their homes. In most families in the world, this process extends to productive activities, especially herding and various types of agriculture, and to a variety of small family businesses. Where trading is a significant feature of social life, children can start trading in small items at an early age, often in the company of family members or of peers.
What is a natural process of child development?
5727a766ff5b5019007d91f6
Work
0
False
What is an escape for the young that live in poverty?
5727a766ff5b5019007d91f7
Work
488
False
What are children able to do during intense work situations?
5727a766ff5b5019007d91f8
children often find ways to combine their work with play
771
False
Work is undertaken from an early age by vast numbers of children in the world and may have a natural place in growing up. Work can contribute to the well-being of children in a variety of ways; children often choose to work to improve their lives, both in the short- and long-term. At the material level, children’s work often contributes to producing food or earning income that benefits themselves and their families; and such income is especially important when the families are poor. Work can provide an escape from debilitating poverty, sometimes by allowing a young person to move away from an impoverished environment. Young people often enjoy their work, especially paid work, or when work involves the company of peers. Even when work is intensive and enforced, children often find ways to combine their work with play.
What hinders schooling for child labourers?
5727a8aa2ca10214002d9312
full-time work
6
False
What can relieve tension for children at work?
5727a8aa2ca10214002d9313
Good relations with a supervisor
369
False
What can schools do to help children led to better work lives?
5727a8aa2ca10214002d9314
school may impede the learning of skills
821
False
While full-time work hinders schooling, empirical evidence is varied on the relationship between part-time work and school. Sometimes even part-time work may hinder school attendance or performance. On the other hand, many poor children work for resources to attend school. Children who are not doing well at school sometimes seek more satisfactory experience in work. Good relations with a supervisor at work can provide relief from tensions that children feel at school and home. In the modern world, school education has become so central to society that schoolwork has become the dominant work for most children, often replacing participation in productive work. If school curricula or quality do not provide children with appropriate skills for available jobs or if children do nor have the aptitude for schoolwork, school may impede the learning of skills, such as agriculture, which will become necessary for future livelihood.
North_Carolina
How many main geographical sections make up North Carolina?
5727605b5951b619008f88e9
three
27
False
What section of North carolina makes up 45% of the state?
5727605b5951b619008f88ea
Atlantic Coastal Plain
63
False
What is the section in the middle 35% of North Carolina called?
5727605b5951b619008f88eb
the Piedmont region
132
False
Tha Appalacian mountains and foothills make up a region of what state?
5727605b5951b619008f88ec
North Carolina
0
False
The extreme eastern section of North Carolina is called what?
5727605b5951b619008f88ed
Outer Banks
283
False
North Carolina consists of three main geographic sections: the Atlantic Coastal Plain, which occupies the eastern 45% of the state; the Piedmont region, which contains the middle 35%; and the Appalachian Mountains and foothills. The extreme eastern section of the state contains the Outer Banks, a string of sandy, narrow barrier islands between the Atlantic Ocean and two inland waterways or "sounds": Albemarle Sound in the north and Pamlico Sound in the south. They are the two largest landlocked sounds in the United States.
What do you call the line that marks the elevation that waterfalls first appear on rivers?
5727623ef1498d1400e8f72c
Atlantic Seaboard fall line
63
False
At what point does the coastal plin transition to the Piedmont region?
5727623ef1498d1400e8f72d
along the Atlantic Seaboard fall line
53
False
What section of Central North Carolina has the most dense population?
5727623ef1498d1400e8f72e
The Piedmont region
181
False
Pilot Mountain and South Mountains are located in what region of North Carolina?
5727623ef1498d1400e8f72f
Piedmont
461
False
What is the average elevation in the west Piedmont region?
5727623ef1498d1400e8f730
1,000 feet
724
False
The coastal plain transitions to the Piedmont region along the Atlantic Seaboard fall line, a line which marks the elevation at which waterfalls first appear on streams and rivers. The Piedmont region of central North Carolina is the state's most urbanized and densely populated section. It consists of gently rolling countryside frequently broken by hills or low mountain ridges. Small, isolated, and deeply eroded mountain ranges and peaks are located in the Piedmont, including the Sauratown Mountains, Pilot Mountain, the Uwharrie Mountains, Crowder's Mountain, King's Pinnacle, the Brushy Mountains, and the South Mountains. The Piedmont ranges from about 300 to 400 feet (91 to 122 m) in elevation in the east to over 1,000 feet (300 m) in the west. Because of the rapid population growth in the Piedmont, a significant part of the rural area in this region is being transformed into suburbs with shopping centers, housing, and corporate offices. Agriculture is steadily declining in importance. The major rivers of the Piedmont, such as the Yadkin and Catawba, tend to be fast-flowing, shallow, and narrow.
The weatern part of North Carolina is part of what mountain range?
5727634f5951b619008f8933
Appalachian Mountain range
48
False
The Great Smokey Mountains and the Black Moutains are subranges of what mountains?
5727634f5951b619008f8934
Appalachians
103
False
What mountains are the highest in the eastern United States?
5727634f5951b619008f8935
The Black Mountains
235
False
What is the name of the highest point east of the Mississippi river?
5727634f5951b619008f8936
Mount Mitchell
318
False
How high is Mt. Mitchell?
5727634f5951b619008f8937
6,684 feet
336
False
The western section of the state is part of the Appalachian Mountain range. Among the subranges of the Appalachians located in the state are the Great Smoky Mountains, Blue Ridge Mountains, Great Balsam Mountains, and Black Mountains. The Black Mountains are the highest in the eastern United States, and culminate in Mount Mitchell at 6,684 feet (2,037 m) the highest point east of the Mississippi River. Although agriculture still remains important, tourism has become a dominant industry in the mountains. Growing Christmas trees has recently become an important industry as well. Because of the higher altitude, the climate in the mountains often differs markedly from that of the rest of the state. Winter in western North Carolina typically features high snowfall and subfreezing temperatures more akin to those of a midwestern state than of a southern state.
What ocean influinces the climate of North Carolinas coastal plain?
57276456708984140094dced
Atlantic
54
False
What is the climate of the coastal plain in the winter?
57276456708984140094dcee
mild
93
False
What is the climate of North Carolinas coastal plain in the summer?
57276456708984140094dcef
moderate, although humid
112
False
What is the average high North Carolina coastal temperature on the plains in the summer?
57276456708984140094dcf0
89 °F
209
False
How often do temperatures on the coastal plain of NC drop below freezing at night?
57276456708984140094dcf1
occasionally
477
False
The climate of the coastal plain is influenced by the Atlantic Ocean, which keeps conditions mild in winter and moderate, although humid, in summer. The highest coastal, daytime temperature averages less than 89 °F (32 °C) during summer months. The coast has mild temperatures in winter, with daytime highs rarely below 40 °F (4 °C). The average daytime temperature in the coastal plain is usually in the mid-50s °F (11–14 °C) in winter. Temperatures in the coastal plain only occasionally drop below the freezing point at night. The coastal plain averages only around 1 inch (2.5 cm) of snow or ice annually, and in many years, there may be no snow or ice at all.
What region of North Carolina has hotter summers and colder winters than the coast?
572765a95951b619008f896b
Piedmont
60
False
In summer, daytime highs often reach what temperature in the Piedmont region?
572765a95951b619008f896c
90 °F
187
False
Temperatures over 100 degrees will typically be found in what elevation of the Piedmont?
572765a95951b619008f896d
.
584
False
What type of influence of the Atlantic Ocean makes the temperatures fluctuate more than on the coast?
572765a95951b619008f896e
weaker
455
False
The Atlantic Ocean has less influence on the climate of the Piedmont region, which has hotter summers and colder winters than in the coast. Daytime highs in the Piedmont often reach over 90 °F (32 °C) in the summer. While it is not common for the temperature to reach over 100 °F (38 °C) in the state, such temperatures, when they occur, typically are found only in the lower-elevation areas of the Piedmont and far-inland areas of the coastal plain. The weaker influence of the Atlantic Ocean also means that temperatures in the Piedmont often fluctuate more widely than in the coast.
The Piedmont is colder than the coast in what season?
572766c4dd62a815002e9c3c
winter
3
False
What is the average winter daytime temperature in the Piedmont?
572766c4dd62a815002e9c3d
upper 40s–lower 50s °F
93
False
What do the temperatures often drop to at night in the piedmont region in the winter?
572766c4dd62a815002e9c3e
below the freezing point
160
False
What is the average snowfall per year in Charlotte?
572766c4dd62a815002e9c3f
3–5 in
222
False
What type of precipitation is the Piedmont known for?
572766c4dd62a815002e9c40
sleet and freezing rain
376
False
In winter, the Piedmont is colder than the coast, with temperatures usually averaging in the upper 40s–lower 50s °F (8–12 °C) during the day and often dropping below the freezing point at night. The region averages around 3–5 in (8–13 cm) of snowfall annually in the Charlotte area, and slightly more north toward the Virginia border. The Piedmont is especially notorious for sleet and freezing rain. Freezing rain can be heavy enough to snarl traffic and break down trees and power lines. Annual precipitation and humidity are lower in the Piedmont than in the mountains or the coast, but even at its lowest, the average is 40 in (1,020 mm) per year.
What mountain range makes up the coolest part of North Carolina?
57276b0a708984140094dd2b
The Appalachian Mountains
0
False
What are the average high winter temperatures in the Appalachians?
57276b0a708984140094dd2c
low 40s and upper 30s °F
96
False
What are the low winter temperatures in the Appalachians?
57276b0a708984140094dd2d
low 20s °F (−5 °C) or lower
175
False
Temperatures rarely go higher than what temperature in the Appalachians?
57276b0a708984140094dd2e
80 °F
283
False
Average snowfall in the Appalachians can exceed how many inches?
57276b0a708984140094dd2f
30
337
False
The Appalachian Mountains are the coolest area of the state, with temperatures averaging in the low 40s and upper 30s °F (6–3 °C) for highs in the winter and falling into the low 20s °F (−5 °C) or lower on winter nights. Relatively cool summers have temperatures rarely rising above 80 °F (27 °C). Average snowfall in many areas exceeds 30 in (76 cm) per year, and can be heavy at the higher elevations; for example, during the Blizzard of 1993 more than 60 in (152 cm) of snow fell on Mount Mitchell over a period of three days. Mount Mitchell has received snow in every month of the year.
Hoe often do hurricanes hit North Carolina?
57276c415951b619008f899d
once a decade
94
False
Floyd, Fran, and Hazel are examples of what that hit the state of North Carolina?
57276c415951b619008f899e
hurricanes
121
False
What was the strongest storm to make landfall in North Carolina?
57276c415951b619008f899f
Hurricane Hazel
204
False
What category of hurricane was Hazel?
57276c415951b619008f89a0
4
286
False
What year did Hurrican Hazel hit North Carolina?
57276c415951b619008f89a1
1954
291
False
Severe weather occurs regularly in North Carolina. On the average, a hurricane hits the state once a decade. Destructive hurricanes that have struck the state include Hurricane Fran, Hurricane Floyd, and Hurricane Hazel, the strongest storm to make landfall in the state, as a Category 4 in 1954. Hurricane Isabel stands out as the most damaging of the 21st century. Tropical storms arrive every 3 or 4 years. In addition, many hurricanes and tropical storms graze the state. In some years, several hurricanes or tropical storms can directly strike the state or brush across the coastal areas. Only Florida and Louisiana are hit by hurricanes more often. Although many people believe that hurricanes menace only coastal areas, the rare hurricane which moves inland quickly enough can cause severe damage; for example, in 1989, Hurricane Hugo caused heavy damage in Charlotte and even as far inland as the Blue Ridge Mountains in the northwestern part of the state. On the average, North Carolina has 50 days of thunderstorm activity per year, with some storms becoming severe enough to produce hail, flash floods, and damaging winds.
How many tornadoes does North Carolina have per year?
57276d2ff1498d1400e8f7d6
fewer than 20
24
False
Houuricanes and tropical stors can produce what across the coastal plain?
57276d2ff1498d1400e8f7d7
tornadoes
38
False
What part of the state holds the highest risk for tornadoes?
57276d2ff1498d1400e8f7d8
eastern
197
False
What protects the western piedmont from tornadoes?
57276d2ff1498d1400e8f7d9
mountains
271
False
What weather phenomenom can weaken storms but cause major ice events in NW North Carolina?
57276d2ff1498d1400e8f7da
cold air damming
419
False
North Carolina averages fewer than 20 tornadoes per year, many of them produced by hurricanes or tropical storms along the coastal plain. Tornadoes from thunderstorms are a risk, especially in the eastern part of the state. The western Piedmont is often protected by the mountains, which tend to break up storms as they try to cross over; the storms will often re-form farther east. Also a weather phenomenon known as "cold air damming" often occurs in the northwestern part of the state, which can also weaken storms but can also lead to major ice events in winter.
During what time period did people buid earth mounds used for religious and ceremonial purposes?
57276f4e708984140094dd77
Before A.D. 200
0
False
By 1000 AD, what culture of people settled in the Piedmont?
57276f4e708984140094dd78
ancient Mississippian culture
157
False
About how many years before European contact did ancient Mississippian culture build large cities?
57276f4e708984140094dd79
500–700 years
280
False
Pamlico and Cape fear indians are examples of what?
57276f4e708984140094dd7a
Algonquian-speaking tribes
510
False
Where did the Algonquin speaking tribes of North Carolina live?
57276f4e708984140094dd7b
the coastal areas
540
False
Before A.D. 200, residents were building earthwork mounds, which were used for ceremonial and religious purposes. Succeeding peoples, including those of the ancient Mississippian culture established by A.D. 1000 in the Piedmont, continued to build or add onto such mounds. In the 500–700 years preceding European contact, the Mississippian culture built large, complex cities and maintained far-flung regional trading networks. Historically documented tribes in the North Carolina region included the Carolina Algonquian-speaking tribes of the coastal areas, such as the Chowanoke, Roanoke, Pamlico, Machapunga, Coree, Cape Fear Indians, and others, who were the first to encounter the English; Iroquoian-speaking Meherrin, Cherokee and Tuscarora of the interior; and Southeastern Siouan tribes, such as the Cheraw, Waxhaw, Saponi, Waccamaw, and Catawba.[citation needed]
What was another name for Blackbeard?
572770475951b619008f89e9
Edward Teach
29
False
What was the name of blackbeards ship?
572770475951b619008f89ea
the Queen Anne's Revenge
61
False
Where in North Carolina did Blackbeards ship crash?
572770475951b619008f89eb
Beaufort Inlet
98
False
What year did Blackbeard run his ship aground in North Carolina?
572770475951b619008f89ec
1718
8
False
What year were the remains of the Queen Anne's Revenge discovered?
572770475951b619008f89ed
1996
242
False
In June 1718 Blackbeard, aka Edward Teach, ran his flagship, the Queen Anne's Revenge, aground at Beaufort Inlet, North Carolina, in present-day Carteret County. After the grounding her crew and supplies were transferred to smaller ships. In 1996 Intersal, Inc., a private firm, discovered the remains of a vessel likely to be the Queen Anne's Revenge, which was added to the US National Register of Historic Places. In November, after losing his ship and appealing to the governor of North Carolina who promised safe-haven and a pardon, the notorious pirate, Blackbeard (Edward Teach) was killed in an ambush by troops from Virginia.
North carolina and Sounth Carolina together were known as what?
5727716bdd62a815002e9cf2
the Province of Carolina
124
False
What year were the northern and southern carolinas seperated?
5727716bdd62a815002e9cf3
1729
220
False
What was the profession of most of the settlers in the Province of Carolina?
5727716bdd62a815002e9cf4
small farmers
248
False
What people were a menace to the coastal areas of the Province of carolina?
5727716bdd62a815002e9cf5
Pirates
379
False
By what year had all of the pirates in the NC Province been captured or killed?
5727716bdd62a815002e9cf6
1718
427
False
North Carolina became one of the English Thirteen Colonies and with the territory of South Carolina was originally known as the Province of Carolina. The northern and southern parts of the original province separated in 1729. Originally settled by small farmers, sometimes having a few slaves, who were oriented toward subsistence agriculture, the colony lacked cities or towns. Pirates menaced the coastal settlements, but by 1718 the pirates had been captured and killed. Growth was strong in the middle of the 18th century, as the economy attracted Scots-Irish, Quaker, English and German immigrants. The colonists generally supported the American Revolution, as the number of Loyalists was smaller than in some other colonies.
What was the state capital of North Carolina in 1722?
5727728e708984140094ddbd
Edenton
23
False
What city became the capital of North Carolina in 1766?
5727728e708984140094ddbe
New Bern
82
False
Who was the governor of North carolina in 1767?
5727728e708984140094ddbf
William Tryon
227
False
What was the name of the offices and residence built for William Tryon?
5727728e708984140094ddc0
Tryon Palace
144
False
What central North carolina cuty was chosen for the capital in 1788?
5727728e708984140094ddc1
Raleigh
291
False
During colonial times, Edenton served as the state capital beginning in 1722, and New Bern was selected as the capital in 1766. Construction of Tryon Palace, which served as the residence and offices of the provincial governor William Tryon, began in 1767 and was completed in 1771. In 1788 Raleigh was chosen as the site of the new capital, as its central location protected it from attacks from the coast. Officially established in 1792 as both county seat and state capital, the city was named after Sir Walter Raleigh, sponsor of Roanoke, the "lost colony" on Roanoke Island.
What state made the smallest contribution to the revolutionary war of any state?
572773b65951b619008f8a31
North Carolina
0
False
How many men from NC joined the continental army?
572773b65951b619008f8a32
7,800
90
False
Who led the continental army?
572773b65951b619008f8a33
General George Washington
134
False
What years were the highest concentration of military action in NC during the revolutionary war?
572773b65951b619008f8a34
1780–81
306
False
Frontiersmen from the Carolinas moved west into what area that is now known as Tennessee?
572773b65951b619008f8a35
Washington District
388
False
North Carolina made the smallest per-capita contribution to the war of any state, as only 7,800 men joined the Continental Army under General George Washington; an additional 10,000 served in local militia units under such leaders as General Nathanael Greene. There was some military action, especially in 1780–81. Many Carolinian frontiersmen had moved west over the mountains, into the Washington District (later known as Tennessee), but in 1789, following the Revolution, the state was persuaded to relinquish its claim to the western lands. It ceded them to the national government so that the Northwest Territory could be organized and managed nationally.
After what year did cotton and tobacco become important crops in North Carolina?
57277607f1498d1400e8f8ba
After 1800
0
False
The Tidewater region was in what half of North Carolina?
57277607f1498d1400e8f8bb
eastern
66
False
What region of North Carolina used slave labor and developed a slave society?
57277607f1498d1400e8f8bc
the Tidewater region
104
False
Where did free black people migrate to because of the looser social system?
57277607f1498d1400e8f8bd
the frontier
236
False
By 1810, what percentage of the free population was black?
57277607f1498d1400e8f8be
3
347
False
After 1800, cotton and tobacco became important export crops. The eastern half of the state, especially the Tidewater region, developed a slave society based on a plantation system and slave labor. Many free people of color migrated to the frontier along with their European-American neighbors, where the social system was looser. By 1810, nearly 3 percent of the free population consisted of free people of color, who numbered slightly more than 10,000. The western areas were dominated by white families, especially Scots-Irish, who operated small subsistence farms. In the early national period, the state became a center of Jeffersonian and Jacksonian democracy, with a strong Whig presence, especially in the West. After Nat Turner's slave uprising in 1831, North Carolina and other southern states reduced the rights of free blacks. In 1835 the legislature withdrew their right to vote.
What year was the confederacy defeated?
5727772ff1498d1400e8f8dc
1865
38
False
What Era began following the defeat of the confederacy?
5727772ff1498d1400e8f8dd
Reconstruction Era
48
False
The US abolished slavery without giving what to slave owners?
5727772ff1498d1400e8f8de
compensation
118
False
When did white Democrats regain control of the state legislature?
5727772ff1498d1400e8f8df
1870
389
False
What did the KKK target with violence and terrorism at the polls?
5727772ff1498d1400e8f8e0
black voting
468
False
With the defeat of the Confederacy in 1865, the Reconstruction Era began. The United States abolished slavery without compensation to slaveholders or reparations to freedmen. A Republican Party coalition of black freedmen, northern carpetbaggers and local scalawags controlled state government for three years. The white conservative Democrats regained control of the state legislature in 1870, in part by Ku Klux Klan violence and terrorism at the polls, to suppress black voting. Republicans were elected to the governorship until 1876, when the Red Shirts, a paramilitary organization that arose in 1874 and was allied with the Democratic Party, helped suppress black voting. More than 150 black Americans were murdered in electoral violence in 1876.
What political party was elected to the legislature and Governors office?
5727784ff1498d1400e8f900
Democrats
0
False
What political group attracted voters displeased with Democrats?
5727784ff1498d1400e8f901
Populists
73
False
What year did a biracial Populist fusion gain the Governors office?
5727784ff1498d1400e8f902
1896
125
False
What year did the Democrats regain control of the governors office from the biracial Populists?
5727784ff1498d1400e8f903
1896
265
False
In the 19th century, how many african american congressmen were elected?
5727784ff1498d1400e8f904
four
423
False
Democrats were elected to the legislature and governor's office, but the Populists attracted voters displeased with them. In 1896 a biracial, Populist-Republican Fusionist coalition gained the governor's office. The Democrats regained control of the legislature in 1896 and passed laws to impose Jim Crow and racial segregation of public facilities. Voters of North Carolina's 2nd congressional district elected a total of four African-American congressmen through these years of the late 19th century.
What did the NC state legislature pass in 1899?
5727796c708984140094de9d
a new constitution
37
False
What type of taxes were required by the new NC constitution?
5727796c708984140094de9e
poll taxes
79
False
What did the new constitution require for voter registration?
5727796c708984140094de9f
literacy tests
94
False
Being excluded from doing what, made it so that black people could not serve on juries or in public office?
5727796c708984140094dea0
voting
202
False
What year was the Federal Civil Rights Act?
5727796c708984140094dea1
1964
528
False
In 1899 the state legislature passed a new constitution, with requirements for poll taxes and literacy tests for voter registration which disfranchised most black Americans in the state. Exclusion from voting had wide effects: it meant that black Americans could not serve on juries or in any local office. After a decade of white supremacy, many people forgot that North Carolina had ever had thriving middle-class black Americans. Black citizens had no political voice in the state until after the federal Civil Rights Act of 1964 and Voting Rights Act of 1965 were passed to enforce their constitutional rights. It was not until 1992 that another African American was elected as a US Representative from North Carolina.
What political party Dominated NC after the confederacy?
57277abc5951b619008f8ae5
Democratic
104
False
What was the economy of North Carolina based on after the confederacy?
57277abc5951b619008f8ae6
tobacco, cotton and agriculture
198
False
When did a major industrial base appear in North Carolina?
57277abc5951b619008f8ae7
late 19th century
313
False
Where did the major industrial base appear in North Carolina?
57277abc5951b619008f8ae8
western counties of the Piedmont
338
False
What was the emergence of the industrial base of North carolina based on?
57277abc5951b619008f8ae9
cotton mills
381
False
As in the rest of the former Confederacy, North Carolina had become a one-party state, dominated by the Democratic Party. Impoverished by the Civil War, the state continued with an economy based on tobacco, cotton and agriculture. Towns and cities remained few in the east. A major industrial base emerged in the late 19th century in the western counties of the Piedmont, based on cotton mills established at the fall line. Railroads were built to connect the new industrializing cities. The state was the site of the first successful controlled, powered and sustained heavier-than-air flight, by the Wright brothers, near Kitty Hawk on December 17, 1903. In the first half of the 20th century, many African Americans left the state to go North for better opportunities, in the Great Migration. Their departure changed the demographic characteristics of many areas.
What programs created by FDR helped North Carolina during the Great Depression?
57277bce5951b619008f8aff
New Deal programs
61
False
Who did the new deal programs benefit?
57277bce5951b619008f8b00
farmers
152
False
What crops was the New Deal Program made for?
57277bce5951b619008f8b01
cotton and tobacco
108
False
After what war did the states economy improve?
57277bce5951b619008f8b02
World War II
167
False
In the 1990's what NC city became a national banking center?
57277bce5951b619008f8b03
Charlotte
459
False
North Carolina was hard hit by the Great Depression, but the New Deal programs of Franklin D. Roosevelt for cotton and tobacco significantly helped the farmers. After World War II, the state's economy grew rapidly, highlighted by the growth of such cities as Charlotte, Raleigh, and Durham in the Piedmont. Raleigh, Durham, and Chapel Hill form the Research Triangle, a major area of universities and advanced scientific and technical research. In the 1990s, Charlotte became a major regional and national banking center. Tourism has also been a boon for the North Carolina economy as people flock to the Outer Banks coastal area and the Appalachian Mountains anchored by Asheville.
What inhibited North Carolina for thousands of years?
57277cf8708984140094deff
prehistoric indigenous cultures
78
False
Before 200 AD, people built what kind of mounds for religious purposes?
57277cf9708984140094df00
earthwork
145
False
Who continued to build on to the religious mounds?
57277cf9708984140094df01
Succeeding peoples
218
False
Before European contact, who built large cities and regional trading networks?
57277cf9708984140094df02
Mississippian culture
429
False
What was the largest city in the Piedmont before European contact?
57277cf9708984140094df03
Cahokia
552
False
North Carolina was inhabited for thousands of years by succeeding cultures of prehistoric indigenous cultures. Before 200 AD, they were building earthwork mounds, which were used for ceremonial and religious purposes. Succeeding peoples, including those of the ancient Mississippian culture established by 1000 AD in the Piedmont, continued to build or add on to such mounds. In the 500–700 years preceding European contact, the Mississippian culture built large, complex cities and maintained far-flung regional trading networks. Its largest city was Cahokia, located in present-day Illinois near the Mississippi River.
In the 16th century, where did Spanish explorers meet Mississipian cultureal people?
57278177708984140094df6f
Joara
91
False
What is Joara?
57278177708984140094df70
a regional chiefdom
98
False
Where would present day Joara be?
57278177708984140094df71
near present-day Morganton
118
False
What was the name of the Spanish man that met the people in Joara?
57278177708984140094df72
Hernando de Soto
157
False
What year did hernando de Soto arrive in Joara?
57278177708984140094df73
1540
211
False
Spanish explorers traveling inland in the 16th century met Mississippian culture people at Joara, a regional chiefdom near present-day Morganton. Records of Hernando de Soto attested to his meeting with them in 1540. In 1567 Captain Juan Pardo led an expedition to claim the area for the Spanish colony and to establish another route to protect silver mines in Mexico. Pardo made a winter base at Joara, which he renamed Cuenca. His expedition built Fort San Juan and left a contingent of 30 men there, while Pardo traveled further, and built and garrisoned five other forts. He returned by a different route to Santa Elena on Parris Island, South Carolina, then a center of Spanish Florida. In the spring of 1568, natives killed all but one of the soldiers and burned the six forts in the interior, including the one at Fort San Juan. Although the Spanish never returned to the interior, this effort marked the first European attempt at colonization of the interior of what became the United States. A 16th-century journal by Pardo's scribe Bandera and archaeological findings since 1986 at Joara have confirmed the settlement.
Who is the North Carolina state capital named for?
572782705951b619008f8bad
Sir Walter Raleigh
42
False
Who granted the charter for Sir Walter Raleigh to travel to present day North Carolina?
572782705951b619008f8bae
Elizabeth I
9
False
What year did Elizabeth I grant the charter to Raleigh to travel to North Carolina?
572782705951b619008f8baf
1584
3
False
What was the second american territory the English attempted to colonize?
572782705951b619008f8bb0
North Carolina
123
False
How many colonies did Raleigh establish on the coast of carolina in 1580?
572782705951b619008f8bb1
two
278
False
In 1584, Elizabeth I granted a charter to Sir Walter Raleigh, for whom the state capital is named, for land in present-day North Carolina (then part of the territory of Virginia). It was the second American territory which the English attempted to colonize. Raleigh established two colonies on the coast in the late 1580s, but both failed. The fate of the "Lost Colony" of Roanoke Island remains one of the most widely debated mysteries of American history. Virginia Dare, the first English child to be born in North America, was born on Roanoke Island on August 18, 1587; Dare County is named for her.
In 1650, settlers from what colony moved in to Albemarie Sound?
572783b05951b619008f8bef
Virginia
36
False
What year did King Charles II grant a charter to North America?
572783b05951b619008f8bf0
1663
95
False
What did King Charles II's charter establish?
572783b05951b619008f8bf1
North Carolina's borders
226
False
Carolina was named after King Charles iI's father, what was his name?
572783b05951b619008f8bf2
Charles I
296
False
What year was a second charter made to establish the borders of Carolina?
572783b05951b619008f8bf3
1665
310
False
As early as 1650, settlers from the Virginia colony moved into the area of Albemarle Sound. By 1663, King Charles II of England granted a charter to start a new colony on the North American continent; it generally established North Carolina's borders. He named it Carolina in honor of his father Charles I. By 1665, a second charter was issued to attempt to resolve territorial questions. In 1710, owing to disputes over governance, the Carolina colony began to split into North Carolina and South Carolina. The latter became a crown colony in 1729.
After the Spanish, who were the first Europeans to settle North Carolina?
5727849e5951b619008f8c1d
English colonists
100
False
Where did the English colonists that settle North carolina come from?
5727849e5951b619008f8c1e
Virginia
142
False
The English colonist  left virginia because of what issue with the land there?
5727849e5951b619008f8c1f
less available
194
False
Who was one of the first Virginian migrants to reach the carolinas?
5727849e5951b619008f8c20
Nathaniel Batts
210
False
What year did Nathaniel Battes settle in North Carolina?
5727849e5951b619008f8c21
1655
365
False
After the Spanish in the 16th century, the first permanent European settlers of North Carolina were English colonists who migrated south from Virginia. The latter had grown rapidly and land was less available. Nathaniel Batts was documented as one of the first of these Virginian migrants. He settled south of the Chowan River and east of the Great Dismal Swamp in 1655. By 1663, this northeastern area of the Province of Carolina, known as the Albemarle Settlements, was undergoing full-scale English settlement. During the same period, the English monarch Charles II gave the province to the Lords Proprietors, a group of noblemen who had helped restore Charles to the throne in 1660. The new province of "Carolina" was named in honor and memory of King Charles I (Latin: Carolus). In 1712, North Carolina became a separate colony. Except for the Earl Granville holdings, it became a royal colony seventeen years later. A large revolt happened in the state in 1711 known as Cary's Rebellion.
Eastern North Carolina is also known as what?
57278604708984140094dfe3
Low Country
85
False
Western North carolina is also known as what?
57278604708984140094dfe4
uplands
101
False
Where was The Tidewater located?
57278604708984140094dfe5
eastern North Carolina
228
False
Where did immigrants from England and the Scottish Highlands settle?
57278604708984140094dfe6
The Tidewater
211
False
Who did the Tidewater settlers remain loyal to during the American revolution?
57278604708984140094dfe7
the British Crown
852
False
Differences in the settlement patterns of eastern and western North Carolina, or the Low Country and uplands, affected the political, economic, and social life of the state from the 18th until the 20th century. The Tidewater in eastern North Carolina was settled chiefly by immigrants from rural England and the Scottish Highlands. The upcountry of western North Carolina was settled chiefly by Scots-Irish, English, and German Protestants, the so-called "cohee". Arriving during the mid- to late 18th century, the Scots-Irish from what is today Northern Ireland were the largest non-English immigrant group before the Revolution; English indentured servants were overwhelmingly the largest immigrant group before the Revolution. During the American Revolutionary War, the English and Highland Scots of eastern North Carolina tended to remain loyal to the British Crown, because of longstanding business and personal connections with Great Britain. The English, Welsh, Scots-Irish, and German settlers of western North Carolina tended to favor American independence from Britain.
Most English colonists arrived as what?
5727871b708984140094dfff
indentured servants
45
False
Indentured servants hired theirselves out as what?
5727871b708984140094e000
laborers
91
False
What did the English settlers get in return for their labor?
5727871b708984140094e001
passage
136
False
Indentured servants were similar to what people in the early days?
5727871b708984140094e002
African slaves
205
False
As indentured servants improved the economy, there became a greater need to import more what?
5727871b708984140094e003
slaves
804
False
Most of the English colonists had arrived as indentured servants, hiring themselves out as laborers for a fixed period to pay for their passage. In the early years the line between indentured servants and African slaves or laborers was fluid. Some Africans were allowed to earn their freedom before slavery became a lifelong status. Most of the free colored families formed in North Carolina before the Revolution were descended from unions or marriages between free white women and enslaved or free African or African-American men. Because the mothers were free, their children were born free. Many had migrated or were descendants of migrants from colonial Virginia. As the flow of indentured laborers to the colony decreased with improving economic conditions in Great Britain, planters imported more slaves, and the state's legal delineations between free and slave status tightened, effectively hardening the latter into a racial caste. The economy's growth and prosperity was based on slave labor, devoted first to the production of tobacco.
What year did North Carolina instruct its delegates to vote for independence?
5727884e708984140094e027
1776
13
False
Who was north carolina seeking independence from in 1776?
5727884e708984140094e028
the British Crown
131
False
What year was Americas Victory at King's Mountain?
5727884e708984140094e029
1780
652
False
How many North Carolina mountain men fought at King's Mountain?
5727884e708984140094e02a
1000
669
False
How many British troops fought at king's Mountain?
5727884e708984140094e02b
1000
814
False
On April 12, 1776, the colony became the first to instruct its delegates to the Continental Congress to vote for independence from the British Crown, through the Halifax Resolves passed by the North Carolina Provincial Congress. The dates of both of these events are memorialized on the state flag and state seal. Throughout the Revolutionary War, fierce guerrilla warfare erupted between bands of pro-independence and pro-British colonists. In some cases the war was also an excuse to settle private grudges and rivalries. A major American victory in the war took place at King's Mountain along the North Carolina–South Carolina border; on October 7, 1780, a force of 1000 mountain men from western North Carolina (including what is today the state of Tennessee)and Southwest Virginia overwhelmed a force of some 1000 British troops led by Major Patrick Ferguson. Most of the soldiers fighting for the British side in this battle were Carolinians who had remained loyal to the Crown (they were called "Tories" or Loyalists). The American victory at Kings Mountain gave the advantage to colonists who favored American independence, and it prevented the British Army from recruiting new soldiers from the Tories.
Who met the British army as they moved north?
57278955dd62a815002e9fb8
the Southern Division of the Continental Army and local militia
184
False
Who lost the battle of Cowpens?
57278955dd62a815002e9fb9
the British Cavalry
318
False
Who led the British calvary at Cowpen?
57278955dd62a815002e9fba
Commander Banastre Tarleton
338
False
What was the date of the battle of Cowpens?
57278955dd62a815002e9fbb
January 17, 1781
394
False
What is another name for the race to the Dan?
57278955dd62a815002e9fbc
The Race for the River
649
False
The road to Yorktown and America's independence from Great Britain led through North Carolina. As the British Army moved north from victories in Charleston and Camden, South Carolina, the Southern Division of the Continental Army and local militia prepared to meet them. Following General Daniel Morgan's victory over the British Cavalry Commander Banastre Tarleton at the Battle of Cowpens on January 17, 1781, southern commander Nathanael Greene led British Lord Charles Cornwallis across the heartland of North Carolina, and away from the latter's base of supply in Charleston, South Carolina. This campaign is known as "The Race to the Dan" or "The Race for the River."
The Battle of Cowan's Ford was fought on the banks of what river?
57278aa6f1498d1400e8fb62
Catawba
80
False
What year was the battle of Cowans Ford?
57278aa6f1498d1400e8fb63
1781
125
False
What is the present day name of the city that the Battle of Guilford Courthouse was fought at?
57278aa6f1498d1400e8fb64
Greensboro
412
False
After losing the battle of Guilford Courthouse, Cornawallis moved his troops where?
57278aa6f1498d1400e8fb65
Virginia coastline
668
False
What did Cornwallis move to the coastline after losing the battle of Guilford Courthouse?
57278aa6f1498d1400e8fb66
to get reinforcements
687
False
In the Battle of Cowan's Ford, Cornwallis met resistance along the banks of the Catawba River at Cowan's Ford on February 1, 1781, in an attempt to engage General Morgan's forces during a tactical withdrawal. Morgan had moved to the northern part of the state to combine with General Greene's newly recruited forces. Generals Greene and Cornwallis finally met at the Battle of Guilford Courthouse in present-day Greensboro on March 15, 1781. Although the British troops held the field at the end of the battle, their casualties at the hands of the numerically superior Continental Army were crippling. Following this "Pyrrhic victory", Cornwallis chose to move to the Virginia coastline to get reinforcements, and to allow the Royal Navy to protect his battered army. This decision would result in Cornwallis' eventual defeat at Yorktown, Virginia, later in 1781. The Patriots' victory there guaranteed American independence.
North Carolina was the twelth state to ratify what document?
57278f03f1498d1400e8fc12
the Constitution
72
False
What date did North Carolina ratify the constitution?
57278f03f1498d1400e8fc13
November 21, 1789
3
False
What year was the state capitol building of North Carolina completed?
57278f03f1498d1400e8fc14
1840
93
False
Where was the capitol building completed in 1840?
57278f03f1498d1400e8fc15
Raleigh
142
False
What part of the state were most slave and plantation owners concentrated in?
57278f03f1498d1400e8fc16
eastern
253
False
On November 21, 1789, North Carolina became the twelfth state to ratify the Constitution. In 1840, it completed the state capitol building in Raleigh, still standing today. Most of North Carolina's slave owners and large plantations were located in the eastern portion of the state. Although North Carolina's plantation system was smaller and less cohesive than that of Virginia, Georgia, or South Carolina, significant numbers of planters were concentrated in the counties around the port cities of Wilmington and Edenton, as well as suburban planters around the cities of Raleigh, Charlotte, and Durham in the Piedmont. Planters owning large estates wielded significant political and socio-economic power in antebellum North Carolina, which was a slave society. They placed their interests above those of the generally non-slave-holding "yeoman" farmers of western North Carolina. In mid-century, the state's rural and commercial areas were connected by the construction of a 129-mile (208 km) wooden plank road, known as a "farmer's railroad", from Fayetteville in the east to Bethania (northwest of Winston-Salem).
Some of the free people of color migrated from what state during the 18th century?
572790105951b619008f8d97
Virginia
165
False
After the revolution Quakers and mennonited encouraged slaveholders to do what?
572790105951b619008f8d98
free their slaves
440
False
What happened to the number of free colored people for the first few decades after the war?
572790105951b619008f8d99
rose
609
False
Besides slaves, there were a number of free people of color in the state. Most were descended from free African Americans who had migrated along with neighbors from Virginia during the 18th century. The majority were the descendants of unions in the working classes between white women, indentured servants or free, and African men, indentured, slave or free. After the Revolution, Quakers and Mennonites worked to persuade slaveholders to free their slaves. Some were inspired by their efforts and the language of the Revolution to arrange for manumission of their slaves. The number of free people of color rose markedly in the first couple of decades after the Revolution.
What was the name of the railroad that began construction in 1836?
572791415951b619008f8db7
Wilmington and Raleigh Railroad
47
False
The Wilmington and Raleigh Railroad was going to connect Wilmington to what city?
572791415951b619008f8db8
Raleigh
144
False
In 1849, what railroad was created?
572791415951b619008f8db9
North Carolina Railroad
165
False
What direction did the North carolina railroad extend?
572791415951b619008f8dba
west
251
False
What stretch of the railroad was vital to the confederates in the civil war?
572791415951b619008f8dbb
Wilmington-to-Raleigh stretch
324
False
On October 25, 1836, construction began on the Wilmington and Raleigh Railroad to connect the port city of Wilmington with the state capital of Raleigh. In 1849 the North Carolina Railroad was created by act of the legislature to extend that railroad west to Greensboro, High Point, and Charlotte. During the Civil War, the Wilmington-to-Raleigh stretch of the railroad would be vital to the Confederate war effort; supplies shipped into Wilmington would be moved by rail through Raleigh to the Confederate capital of Richmond, Virginia.
In 1860, what percent of the North Carolina population were slaves?
5727921f708984140094e135
33
139
False
Where were most of the slaves in North Carolina located?
5727921f708984140094e136
eastern Tidewater
258
False
What type of land did the slaves live on?
5727921f708984140094e137
plantations
239
False
How many free people of color lived in NC in 1860?
5727921f708984140094e138
30,463
290
False
Where were the free people of color located in north carolina in 1860?
5727921f708984140094e139
eastern coastal plain
373
False
While slaveholding was slightly less concentrated than in some Southern states, according to the 1860 census, more than 330,000 people, or 33% of the population of 992,622, were enslaved African Americans. They lived and worked chiefly on plantations in the eastern Tidewater. In addition, 30,463 free people of color lived in the state. They were also concentrated in the eastern coastal plain, especially at port cities such as Wilmington and New Bern, where a variety of jobs were available. Free African Americans were allowed to vote until 1835, when the state revoked their suffrage in restrictions following the slave rebellion of 1831 led by Nat Turner. Southern slave codes criminalized willful killing of a slave in most cases.
What fraction of the population of North Carolina was enslaved in 1860?
572793615951b619008f8ded
one-third
52
False
North Carolina did not vote to join the confederacy until they were ordered to invade what state?
572793615951b619008f8dee
South Carolina
274
False
When was North Carolinas official secession?
572793615951b619008f8def
May 20
535
False
When was Tennessees informal secession?
572793615951b619008f8df0
May 7, 1861
474
False
When did Tennessee officially vote to secede?
572793615951b619008f8df1
June 8, 1861
607
False
In 1860, North Carolina was a slave state, in which one-third of the population was enslaved. This was a smaller proportion than in many Southern states. The state did not vote to join the Confederacy until President Abraham Lincoln called on it to invade its sister state, South Carolina, becoming the last or second-to-last state to officially join the Confederacy. The title of "last to join the Confederacy" has been disputed; although Tennessee's informal secession on May 7, 1861, preceded North Carolina's official secession on May 20, the Tennessee legislature did not formally vote to secede until June 8, 1861.
Some North Carolinians still refused to support what after secession?
5727948af1498d1400e8fcb2
the Confederacy
59
False
Some of what farmers remained neutral during the civil war?
5727948af1498d1400e8fcb3
yeoman
88
False
Where were the yoeman farmers that remained neutral during the civil war located?
5727948af1498d1400e8fcb4
in the state's mountains and western Piedmont region
103
False
How many North Carolinians from the west fought for the union Army?
5727948af1498d1400e8fcb5
2,000
276
False
When did union forces occupy coastal areas of North carolina?
5727948af1498d1400e8fcb6
1862 and 1863
514
False
After secession, some North Carolinians refused to support the Confederacy. Some of the yeoman farmers in the state's mountains and western Piedmont region remained neutral during the Civil War, while some covertly supported the Union cause during the conflict. Approximately 2,000 North Carolinians from western North Carolina enlisted in the Union Army and fought for the North in the war. Two additional Union Army regiments were raised in the coastal areas of the state, which were occupied by Union forces in 1862 and 1863. Numerous slaves escaped to Union lines, where they became essentially free.
What was the name of the Confederacys most famous army?
572796f5dd62a815002ea13e
Army of Northern Virginia
101
False
How many battles of the army of Northern Virginia did confederate troops from north Carolina fight in?
572796f5dd62a815002ea13f
virtually all
62
False
What was the name of the largest battle fought in North Carolina?
572796f5dd62a815002ea140
Bentonville
215
False
What was the name of the confederate general that fought in Bentonville?
572796f5dd62a815002ea141
General Joseph Johnston
270
False
What was the name of the Union General that fought in Bentonville?
572796f5dd62a815002ea142
General William Tecumseh Sherman
308
False
Confederate troops from all parts of North Carolina served in virtually all the major battles of the Army of Northern Virginia, the Confederacy's most famous army. The largest battle fought in North Carolina was at Bentonville, which was a futile attempt by Confederate General Joseph Johnston to slow Union General William Tecumseh Sherman's advance through the Carolinas in the spring of 1865. In April 1865, after losing the Battle of Morrisville, Johnston surrendered to Sherman at Bennett Place, in what is today Durham. North Carolina's port city of Wilmington was the last Confederate port to fall to the Union, in February 1865, after the Union won the nearby Second Battle of Fort Fisher, its major defense downriver.
Who was the first confederate soldier to be killed in the civil war?
572798e7708984140094e1d3
Private Henry Wyatt
64
False
Where was henry Wyatt from?
572798e7708984140094e1d4
North Carolina
89
False
What battle did Private Henry Wyatt die in?
572798e7708984140094e1d5
in the Battle of Big Bethel
105
False
When did Henry Wyatt die?
572798e7708984140094e1d6
June 1861
136
False
When was the battle of Gettysburg?
572798e7708984140094e1d7
July 1863
178
False
The first Confederate soldier to be killed in the Civil War was Private Henry Wyatt from North Carolina, in the Battle of Big Bethel in June 1861. At the Battle of Gettysburg in July 1863, the 26th North Carolina Regiment participated in Pickett/Pettigrew's Charge and advanced the farthest into the Northern lines of any Confederate regiment. During the Battle of Chickamauga, the 58th North Carolina Regiment advanced farther than any other regiment on Snodgrass Hill to push back the remaining Union forces from the battlefield. At Appomattox Court House in Virginia in April 1865, the 75th North Carolina Regiment, a cavalry unit, fired the last shots of the Confederate Army of Northern Virginia in the Civil War. For many years, North Carolinians proudly boasted that they had been "First at Bethel, Farthest at Gettysburg and Chickamauga, and Last at Appomattox."
What is the religious name given to the part of the country that includes the Carolinas?
57279c29708984140094e22b
Bible Belt
133
False
What religion holds the majority in the Bible Belt?
57279c29708984140094e22c
Baptists
10
False
What was the largest denomination in North Carolina in 2010?
57279c29708984140094e22d
Southern Baptist
288
False
What was the second largest denomination in North carolina in 2010?
57279c29708984140094e22e
United Methodist Church
412
False
What was the third largest denomination in North carolina in 2010?
57279c29708984140094e22f
Roman Catholic
496
False
While the Baptists in total (counting both blacks and whites) have maintained the majority in this part of the country (known as the Bible Belt), the population in North Carolina practices a wide variety of faiths, including Judaism, Islam, Baha'i, Buddhism, and Hinduism. As of 2010 the Southern Baptist Church was the biggest denomination, with 4,241 churches and 1,513,000 members; the second largest was the United Methodist Church, with 660,000 members and 1,923 churches. The third was the Roman Catholic Church, with 428,000 members in 190 congregations. The fourth greatest was the Presbyterian Church (USA), with 186,000 members and 710 congregations; this denomination was brought by Scots-Irish immigrants who settled the backcountry in the colonial era.
Immigrants from latin America coming to North Carolina is increasing what?
57279d804b864d190016389c
ethnic and religious diversity
100
False
What has happened to the number of Roman Catholics and Jews in North Carolina?
57279d804b864d190016389d
increased
188
False
Religious diversity in North Carolina has generally what?
57279d804b864d190016389e
increased
188
False
What is the second largest Protestant denomination in North Carolina?
57279d804b864d190016389f
Methodism
328
False
What county in Piedmont is methodism especially strong in?
57279d804b864d19001638a0
Guilford
404
False
Currently, the rapid influx of northerners and immigrants from Latin America is steadily increasing ethnic and religious diversity: the number of Roman Catholics and Jews in the state has increased, as well as general religious diversity. The second-largest Protestant denomination in North Carolina after Baptist traditions is Methodism, which is strong in the northern Piedmont, especially in populous Guilford County. There are also a substantial number of Quakers in Guilford County and northeastern North Carolina. Many universities and colleges in the state have been founded on religious traditions, and some currently maintain that affiliation, including:
What is the Nickname given to North Carolina?
5727a28c3acd2414000de871
Old North State
65
False
Science, Technology, energy, and math industries have risen what percent since 2001?
5727a28c3acd2414000de872
17.9
279
False
What is raleigh-Cary ranked among the 51 largest metro areas in the country?
5727a28c3acd2414000de873
5
332
False
What was North Carolinas gross state product in 2010?
5727a28c3acd2414000de874
$424.9 billion
466
False
What was North Carolinas state debt in 2012?
5727a28c3acd2414000de875
$2.4bn
557
False
According to a Forbes article written in 2013 Employment in the "Old North State" has gained many different industry sectors. See the following article summary: science, technology, energy and math, or STEM, industries in the area surrounding North Carolina's capital have grown 17.9 percent since 2001, placing Raleigh-Cary at No. 5 among the 51 largest metro areas in the country where technology is booming. In 2010 North Carolina's total gross state product was $424.9 billion, while the state debt in November 2012, according to one source, totalled US$2.4bn, while according to another, was in 2012 US$57.8bn. In 2011 the civilian labor force was at around 4.5 million with employment near 4.1 million. The working population is employed across the major employment sectors. The economy of North Carolina covers 15 metropolitan areas. In 2010, North Carolina was chosen as the third-best state for business by Forbes Magazine, and the second-best state by Chief Executive Officer Magazine.
North carolina voters have leaned republican since what year?
5727a3f62ca10214002d9290
1976
384
False
What year did North Carolina voters once again vote for a Democrat?
5727a3f62ca10214002d9291
2008
515
False
What year did Bill Clinton win North Carolina?
5727a3f62ca10214002d9292
1992
601
False
What year did Bill Clinton lose North Carolina?
5727a3f62ca10214002d9293
1996
647
False
Where was the 2012 democratic national Convention held?
5727a3f62ca10214002d9294
Charlotte
1195
False
North Carolina's party loyalties have undergone a series of important shifts in the last few years: While the 2010 midterms saw Tar Heel voters elect a bicameral Republican majority legislature for the first time in over a century, North Carolina has also become a Southern swing state in presidential races. Since Southern Democrat Jimmy Carter's comfortable victory in the state in 1976, the state had consistently leaned Republican in presidential elections until Democrat Barack Obama narrowly won the state in 2008. In the 1990s, Democrat Bill Clinton came within a point of winning the state in 1992 and also only narrowly lost the state in 1996. In the early 2000s, Republican George W. Bush easily won the state by over 12 points, but by 2008, demographic shifts, population growth, and increased liberalization in heavily populated areas such as the Research Triangle, Charlotte, Greensboro, Winston-Salem, Fayetteville, and Asheville, propelled Barack Obama to victory in North Carolina, the first Democrat to win the state since 1976. In 2012, North Carolina was again considered a competitive swing state, with the Democrats even holding their 2012 Democratic National Convention in Charlotte. However, Republican Mitt Romney ultimately eked out a 2-point win in North Carolina, the only 2012 swing state that Obama lost, and one of only two states (along with Indiana) to flip from Obama in 2008 to the GOP in 2012.
Who was elected Governor of North Carolina in 2012?
5727a5473acd2414000de8cb
Pat McCrory
50
False
What political party does Pat McCrory belong to?
5727a5473acd2414000de8cc
Republican
29
False
Who ws elected Lieutenant Governor of North Carolina in 2012?
5727a5473acd2414000de8cd
Dan Forest
88
False
What political party does Dan Forest belong to?
5727a5473acd2414000de8ce
Republican
29
False
Who won North Carolinas 7th congressional district seat in 2014?
5727a5473acd2414000de8cf
David Rouzer
439
False
In 2012, the state elected a Republican Governor (Pat McCrory) and Lieutenant Governor (Dan Forest) for the first time in more than two decades, while also giving the Republicans veto-proof majorities in both the State House of Representatives and the State Senate. Several U.S. House of Representatives seats also flipped control, with the Republicans holding nine seats to the Democrats' four. In the 2014 mid-term elections, Republican David Rouzer won the state's Seventh Congressional District seat, increasing the congressional delegation party split to 10-3 in favor of the GOP.
What agency oversees public schools in North Carolina?
5727a70e4b864d190016397e
North Carolina Department of Public Instruction
60
False
Who holds most legal authority for making education policy?
5727a70e4b864d190016397f
the board
234
False
What year did the boards chairman become the Chief Executive officer of public schools?
5727a70e4b864d1900163980
2009
350
False
How many public school systems does North Carolina have?
5727a70e4b864d1900163981
115
469
False
What is the largest school system in North Carolina?
5727a70e4b864d1900163982
Wake County Public School System
649
False
Elementary and secondary public schools are overseen by the North Carolina Department of Public Instruction. The North Carolina Superintendent of Public Instruction is the secretary of the North Carolina State Board of Education, but the board, rather than the superintendent, holds most of the legal authority for making public education policy. In 2009, the board's chairman also became the "chief executive officer" for the state's school system. North Carolina has 115 public school systems, each of which is overseen by a local school board. A county may have one or more systems within it. The largest school systems in North Carolina are the Wake County Public School System, Charlotte-Mecklenburg Schools, Guilford County Schools, Winston-Salem/Forsyth County Schools, and Cumberland County Schools. In total there are 2,425 public schools in the state, including 99 charter schools. North Carolina Schools were segregated until the Brown v. Board of Education trial and the release of the Pearsall Plan.
What state opened the first public university in the United States?
5727a7f84b864d190016399e
North Carolina
9
False
What year was the first public university opened in the United States?
5727a7f84b864d190016399f
1795
3
False
What was the name of the first public university to open in the US?
5727a7f84b864d19001639a0
University of North Carolina
84
False
What is the largest University in North Carolina?
5727a7f84b864d19001639a1
North Carolina State University
1029
False
How many students does North Carolina State University enroll?
5727a7f84b864d19001639a2
34,000
1077
False
In 1795, North Carolina opened the first public university in the United States—the University of North Carolina (now named the University of North Carolina at Chapel Hill). More than 200 years later, the University of North Carolina system encompasses 17 public universities including North Carolina State University, North Carolina A&T State University, North Carolina Central University, the University of North Carolina at Chapel Hill, the University of North Carolina at Greensboro, East Carolina University, Western Carolina University, Winston-Salem State University, the University of North Carolina at Asheville, the University of North Carolina at Charlotte, the University of North Carolina at Pembroke, UNC Wilmington, Elizabeth City State University, Appalachian State University, Fayetteville State University, and UNC School of the Arts, and . Along with its public universities, North Carolina has 58 public community colleges in its community college system.The largest university in North Carolina is currently North Carolina State University, with more than 34,000 students. North Carolina is home to many excellent universities as well as dozens of community colleges and private universities.
Duke University and Shaw University are examples of what type of colleges that are in North Carolina?
5727a9b94b864d19001639dc
private
47
False
What was the first black college in the south?
5727a9b94b864d19001639dd
Shaw University
312
False
What is the name of the only Catholic college in the Carolinas?
5727a9b94b864d19001639de
Belmont Abbey College
454
False
What is the name of the only Lutheran University in North Carolina?
5727a9b94b864d19001639df
Lenoir-Rhyne University
611
False
North Carolina is also home to many well-known private colleges and universities, including Duke University, Wake Forest University, Pfeiffer University, Lees-McRae College, Davidson College, Barton College, North Carolina Wesleyan College, Elon University, Guilford College, Livingstone College, Salem College, Shaw University (the first historically black college or university in the South), Laurel University, Meredith College, Methodist University, Belmont Abbey College (the only Catholic college in the Carolinas), Campbell University, University of Mount Olive, Montreat College, High Point University, Lenoir-Rhyne University (the only Lutheran university in North Carolina) and Wingate University.
How many major league sports franchises make North carolina home?
5727aabd3acd2414000de935
three
26
False
The Caroli8na panthers belong to what league?
5727aabd3acd2414000de936
National Football League
93
False
The Charlotte Hornets belong to what league?
5727aabd3acd2414000de937
National Basketball Association
151
False
The Carolina Hurricanes belong to what league?
5727aabd3acd2414000de938
National Hockey League
263
False
What is the only professional team from North carolina to have won a league championship?
5727aabd3acd2414000de939
The Hurricanes
455
False
North Carolina is home to three major league sports franchises: the Carolina Panthers of the National Football League and the Charlotte Hornets of the National Basketball Association are based in Charlotte, while the Raleigh-based Carolina Hurricanes play in the National Hockey League. The Panthers and Hurricanes are the only two major professional sports teams that have the same geographical designation while playing in different metropolitan areas. The Hurricanes are the only major professional team from North Carolina to have won a league championship, having captured the Stanley Cup in 2006. North Carolina is also home to Charlotte Hounds of the Major League Lacrosse.
What Speedway in North Carolina hosts two Sprint cupseries races each year?
5727aba14b864d19001639fe
Charlotte Motor Speedway
120
False
Where is Charlotte motor Speedway located?
5727aba14b864d19001639ff
Concord
148
False
What North Carolina city hosts the NASCAR Hall of Fame?
5727aba14b864d1900163a00
Charlotte
204
False
What North carolina city is home to several top racing teams?
5727aba14b864d1900163a01
Concord
256
False
In addition to professional team sports, North Carolina has a strong affiliation with NASCAR and stock-car racing, with Charlotte Motor Speedway in Concord hosting two Sprint Cup Series races every year. Charlotte also hosts the NASCAR Hall of Fame, while Concord is the home of several top-flight racing teams, including Hendrick Motorsports, Roush Fenway Racing, Richard Petty Motorsports, Stewart-Haas Racing, and Chip Ganassi Racing. Numerous other tracks around North Carolina host races from low-tier NASCAR circuits as well.
How many colleges compete at the Division 1 level in North Carolina?
5727acd3ff5b5019007d9256
18
56
False
Where is the ACC headquarters?
5727acd3ff5b5019007d9257
Greensboro
158
False
Where were the ACC football and basketball championships recently held?
5727acd3ff5b5019007d9258
North Carolina
306
False
What stadium host the ACC championship game and the Belk Bowl each year?
5727acd3ff5b5019007d9259
Charlotte's Bank of America Stadium
543
False
How many times has North Carolina hosted the NCAA final four?
5727acd3ff5b5019007d925a
two
717
False
College sports are also popular in North Carolina, with 18 schools competing at the Division I level. The Atlantic Coast Conference (ACC) is headquartered in Greensboro, and both the ACC Football Championship Game (Charlotte) and the ACC Men's Basketball Tournament (Greensboro) were most recently held in North Carolina. College basketball in particular is very popular, buoyed by the Tobacco Road rivalries between Duke, North Carolina, North Carolina State, and Wake Forest. The ACC Championship Game and The Belk Bowl are held annually in Charlotte's Bank of America Stadium, featuring teams from the ACC and the Southeastern Conference. Additionally, the state has hosted the NCAA Men's Basketball Final Four on two occasions, in Greensboro in 1974 and in Charlotte in 1994.
How many people go to see the Appalachian Mountains each year?
5727ae422ca10214002d938a
several million
45
False
What part of the state are the Appalachian Mountains in?
5727ae422ca10214002d938b
Western
77
False
Great Smoky mountain and Blue Ridge Parkway are located in what mountain range?
5727ae422ca10214002d938c
Appalachian
15
False
How many tourists visited the Smoky Mountains and Blue Ridge parkway in 2013?
5727ae422ca10214002d938d
over 25 million
288
False
What North Carolina City is consistently voted one of the top places to live in the United States?
5727ae422ca10214002d938e
Asheville
334
False
Every year the Appalachian Mountains attract several million tourists to the Western part of the state, including the historic Biltmore Estate. The scenic Blue Ridge Parkway and Great Smoky Mountains National Park are the two most visited national park and unit in the United States with over 25 million visitors in 2013. The City of Asheville is consistently voted as one of the top places to visit and live in the United States, known for its rich art deco architecture, mountain scenery and outdoor activities, and liberal and happy residents.
What Hockey team is located in Raleigh?
5727af682ca10214002d93ba
Carolina Hurricanes
473
False
What league do the Carolina Hurricanes belong to?
5727af682ca10214002d93bb
NHL
493
False
What Hall of Fame is located in Raleigh?
5727af682ca10214002d93bc
North Carolina Sports Hall of Fame
311
False
What arboretum is located in Raleigh?
5727af682ca10214002d93bd
J. C. Raulston Arboretum
368
False
In Raleigh many tourists visit the Capital, African American Cultural Complex, Contemporary Art Museum of Raleigh, Gregg Museum of Art & Design at NCSU, Haywood Hall House & Gardens, Marbles Kids Museum, North Carolina Museum of Art, North Carolina Museum of History, North Carolina Museum of Natural Sciences, North Carolina Sports Hall of Fame, Raleigh City Museum, J. C. Raulston Arboretum, Joel Lane House, Mordecai House, Montfort Hall, and the Pope House Museum. The Carolina Hurricanes NHL hockey team is also located in the city.
What is the center of North Carolina called?
5727b0493acd2414000de9c1
The Piedmont Triad
0
False
Where is the Krispy kreme headquarters located?
5727b0493acd2414000de9c2
The Piedmont Triad
0
False
What city is the North Carolina Zoo in?
5727b0493acd2414000de9c3
Asheboro
198
False
How many miles of shaded pathways does the Nort Carolina Zoo have?
5727b0493acd2414000de9c4
five
285
False
What North Carolina City hosts the Merlefest?
5727b0493acd2414000de9c5
Wilkesboro
489
False
The Piedmont Triad, or center of the state, is home to Krispy Kreme, Mayberry, Texas Pete, the Lexington Barbecue Festival, and Moravian cookies. The internationally acclaimed North Carolina Zoo in Asheboro attracts visitors to its animals, plants, and a 57-piece art collection along five miles of shaded pathways in the world's largest-land-area natural-habitat park. Seagrove, in the central portion of the state, attracts many tourists along Pottery Highway (NC Hwy 705). MerleFest in Wilkesboro attracts more than 80,000 people to its four-day music festival; and Wet 'n Wild Emerald Pointe water park in Greensboro is another attraction.
Fishing, hunting, and birdwatching are what kind of activities that are provided in North Carolina?
5727b0e53acd2414000de9e5
recreational
41
False
In the Fall, people go to North Carolina to see what?
5727b0e53acd2414000de9e6
fall colors
143
False
What is another name for caving?
5727b0e53acd2414000de9e7
spelunking
337
False
North Carolina provides a large range of recreational activities, from swimming at the beach to skiing in the mountains. North Carolina offers fall colors, freshwater and saltwater fishing, hunting, birdwatching, agritourism, ATV trails, ballooning, rock climbing, biking, hiking, skiing, boating and sailing, camping, canoeing, caving (spelunking), gardens, and arboretums. North Carolina has theme parks, aquariums, museums, historic sites, lighthouses, elegant theaters, concert halls, and fine dining.
Howmany state parks are in North Carolina?
5727b1c23acd2414000de9ed
34
80
False
How many national parks are in North Carolina?
5727b1c23acd2414000de9ee
14
100
False
Where is the Uwharrie national Forest located?
5727b1c23acd2414000de9ef
central North Carolina
802
False
Where is Croatan National Forest located?
5727b1c23acd2414000de9f0
Eastern North Carolina
853
False
Where is the Guilford Courthouse National Military Park?
5727b1c23acd2414000de9f1
Greensboro
469
False
North Carolinians enjoy outdoor recreation utilizing numerous local bike paths, 34 state parks, and 14 national parks. National Park Service units include the Appalachian National Scenic Trail, the Blue Ridge Parkway, Cape Hatteras National Seashore, Cape Lookout National Seashore, Carl Sandburg Home National Historic Site at Flat Rock, Fort Raleigh National Historic Site at Manteo, Great Smoky Mountains National Park, Guilford Courthouse National Military Park in Greensboro, Moores Creek National Battlefield near Currie in Pender County, the Overmountain Victory National Historic Trail, Old Salem National Historic Site in Winston-Salem, the Trail of Tears National Historic Trail, and Wright Brothers National Memorial in Kill Devil Hills. National Forests include Uwharrie National Forest in central North Carolina, Croatan National Forest in Eastern North Carolina, Pisgah National Forest in the northern mountains, and Nantahala National Forest in the southwestern part of the state.
What industry generates 1.2 billion in economic activity each year for North carolina?
5727b2d43acd2414000dea0b
nonprofit arts and culture
67
False
How many full time jobs are held by those in the non profit arts and culture industry?
5727b2d43acd2414000dea0c
43,600
194
False
How much money does the nonprofit arts and culture industry raise for government?
5727b2d43acd2414000dea0d
$119 million
242
False
What was the first museum in the country to be formed by legislature?
5727b2d43acd2414000dea0e
North Carolina Museum of Art
352
False
How much money does the North Carolina Museum of art generate?
5727b2d43acd2414000dea0f
millions
502
False
North Carolina has rich traditions in art, music, and cuisine. The nonprofit arts and culture industry generates $1.2 billion in direct economic activity in North Carolina, supporting more than 43,600 full-time equivalent jobs and generating $119 million in revenue for local governments and the state of North Carolina. North Carolina established the North Carolina Museum of Art as the first major museum collection in the country to be formed by state legislation and funding and continues to bring millions into the NC economy. Also see this list of museums in North Carolina.
Where is SouthPark Mall located?
5727b3883acd2414000dea1f
Charlotte
68
False
What is the largest mall in the carolinas?
5727b3883acd2414000dea20
SouthPark Mall
50
False
How big is SouthPark Mall?
5727b3883acd2414000dea21
2.0 million square feet
133
False
Where is the hanes Mall located?
5727b3883acd2414000dea22
Winston-Salem
325
False
Where is the Four Seasons Town Center located?
5727b3883acd2414000dea23
Greensboro
465
False
North Carolina has a variety of shopping choices. SouthPark Mall in Charlotte is currently the largest in the Carolinas, with almost 2.0 million square feet. Other major malls in Charlotte include Northlake Mall and Carolina Place Mall in nearby suburb Pineville. Other major malls throughout the state include Hanes Mall in Winston-Salem; Crabtree Valley Mall, North Hills Mall, and Triangle Town Center in Raleigh; Friendly Center and Four Seasons Town Centre in Greensboro; Oak Hollow Mall in High Point; Concord Mills in Concord; Valley Hills Mall in Hickory; and The Streets at Southpoint and Northgate Mall in Durham and Independence Mall in Wilmington, NC, and Tanger Outlets in Charlotte, Nags Head, Blowing Rock, and Mebane, NC.
What is a culinary staple of North Carolina?
5727b47d2ca10214002d945a
pork barbecue
39
False
What cut of pork do those in western North carolina prefer for BBQ?
5727b47d2ca10214002d945b
Boston butt
238
False
What cut of pork do those in Western North Carolina prefer for BBQ?
5727b47d2ca10214002d945c
pork shoulder
328
False
What is another name for Western North Carolina Barbecue?
5727b47d2ca10214002d945d
Lexington barbecue
422
False
How many people visit the lexington Barbecue festival each year?
5727b47d2ca10214002d945e
over 100,000
541
False
A culinary staple of North Carolina is pork barbecue. There are strong regional differences and rivalries over the sauces and methods used in making the barbecue. The common trend across Western North Carolina is the use of premium grade Boston butt. Western North Carolina pork barbecue uses a tomato-based sauce, and only the pork shoulder (dark meat) is used. Western North Carolina barbecue is commonly referred to as Lexington barbecue after the Piedmont Triad town of Lexington, home of the Lexington Barbecue Festival, which attracts over 100,000 visitors each October. Eastern North Carolina pork barbecue uses a vinegar-and-red-pepper-based sauce and the "whole hog" is cooked, thus integrating both white and dark meat.
Krispy kreme is a chain of what kind of stores?
5727b52d2ca10214002d9474
doughnut
40
False
Where is the Krispy kreme headquarters?
5727b52d2ca10214002d9475
Winston-Salem
122
False
When was pepsi-Cola first produced?
5727b52d2ca10214002d9476
1898
170
False
Where was pepsi first produced?
5727b52d2ca10214002d9477
New Bern
178
False
What city was Cheerwine created and based in?
5727b52d2ca10214002d9478
Salisbury
268
False
Krispy Kreme, an international chain of doughnut stores, was started in North Carolina; the company's headquarters are in Winston-Salem. Pepsi-Cola was first produced in 1898 in New Bern. A regional soft drink, Cheerwine, was created and is still based in the city of Salisbury. Despite its name, the hot sauce Texas Pete was created in North Carolina; its headquarters are also in Winston-Salem. The Hardee's fast-food chain was started in Rocky Mount. Another fast-food chain, Bojangles', was started in Charlotte, and has its corporate headquarters there. A popular North Carolina restaurant chain is Golden Corral. Started in 1973, the chain was founded in Fayetteville, with headquarters located in Raleigh. Popular pickle brand Mount Olive Pickle Company was founded in Mount Olive in 1926. Fast casual burger chain Hwy 55 Burgers, Shakes & Fries also makes its home in Mount Olive. Cook Out, a popular fast-food chain featuring burgers, hot dogs, and milkshakes in a wide variety of flavors, was founded in Greensboro in 1989 and has begun expanding outside of North Carolina. In 2013, Southern Living named Durham - Chapel Hill the South's "Tastiest City."
What international prize winning winery is located in North Carolina?
5727b6423acd2414000dea59
Noni Bacca Winery
119
False
What prized cheeses are made in North Carolina?
5727b6423acd2414000dea5a
Ashe County
171
False
Much tobacco land has been transformed into what kind of orchards?
5727b6423acd2414000dea5b
grape
395
False
North carolina state law allowed a jump in alcohol volume from 6% to what percent?
5727b6423acd2414000dea5c
15%.
495
False
What city was named Beer City USA?
5727b6423acd2414000dea5d
Asheville
594
False
Over the last decade, North Carolina has become a cultural epicenter and haven for internationally prize-winning wine (Noni Bacca Winery), internationally prized cheeses (Ashe County), "L'institut International aux Arts Gastronomiques: Conquerront Les Yanks les Truffes, January 15, 2010" international hub for truffles (Garland Truffles), and beer making, as tobacco land has been converted to grape orchards while state laws regulating alcohol content in beer allowed a jump in ABV from 6% to 15%. The Yadkin Valley in particular has become a strengthening market for grape production, while Asheville recently won the recognition of being named 'Beer City USA.' Asheville boasts the largest breweries per capita of any city in the United States. Recognized and marketed brands of beer in North Carolina include Highland Brewing, Duck Rabbit Brewery, Mother Earth Brewery, Weeping Radish Brewery, Big Boss Brewing, Foothills Brewing, Carolina Brewing Company, Lonerider Brewing, and White Rabbit Brewing Company.
What was one of the first growing industries to develope after the civil war?
5727b70a2ca10214002d94a4
Tobacco
0
False
The invention of cigarettes made what popular?
5727b70a2ca10214002d94a5
Tobacco
0
False
Winston Salem is the headquarters of what tobacco Company?
5727b70a2ca10214002d94a6
R. J. Reynolds Tobacco Company
217
False
What year was RJ Reynolds Tobacco Company founded?
5727b70a2ca10214002d94a7
1874
284
False
How many packs of camel cigarettes were sold per year in 1914?
5727b70a2ca10214002d94a8
425 million
356
False
Tobacco was one of the first major industries to develop after the Civil War. Many farmers grew some tobacco, and the invention of the cigarette made the product especially popular. Winston-Salem is the birthplace of R. J. Reynolds Tobacco Company (RJR), founded by R. J. Reynolds in 1874 as one of 16 tobacco companies in the town. By 1914 it was selling 425 million packs of Camels a year. Today it is the second-largest tobacco company in the U.S. (behind Altria Group). RJR is an indirect wholly owned subsidiary of Reynolds American Inc., which in turn is 42% owned by British American Tobacco.
Where is Camp Lejeune located?
5727b8033acd2414000dea7d
Jacksonville
11
False
What is Camp Lejeune?
5727b8033acd2414000dea7e
Marine Corps Base Camp
25
False
Bases making up the larges concentration of marines and sailors in the world is located in what NC city?
5727b8033acd2414000dea7f
Jacksonville
11
False
Where is Seymour johnson air force base located?
5727b8033acd2414000dea80
Goldsboro
345
False
Where is the military Ocean Terminal Sunny Point stationed?
5727b8033acd2414000dea81
Southport
654
False
Located in Jacksonville, Marine Corps Base Camp Lejeune, combined with nearby bases Marine Corps Air Station (MCAS) Cherry Point, MCAS New River, Camp Geiger, Camp Johnson, Stone Bay and Courthouse Bay, makes up the largest concentration of Marines and sailors in the world. MCAS Cherry Point is home of the 2nd Marine Aircraft Wing. Located in Goldsboro, Seymour Johnson Air Force Base is home of the 4th Fighter Wing and 916th Air Refueling Wing. One of the busiest air stations in the United States Coast Guard is located at the Coast Guard Air Station in Elizabeth City. Also stationed in North Carolina is the Military Ocean Terminal Sunny Point in Southport.
Heian_period
What is the name of the last period of classical Japanese history?
57276b5b708984140094dd35
Heian
4
False
The Heian period is named after what city?
57276b5b708984140094dd36
Heian-kyō
162
False
What does heian mean in Japanese?
57276b5b708984140094dd37
peace
708
False
What was the name of the prominent clan during the Heian period?
57276b5b708984140094dd38
Fujiwara
535
False
The Heian period was known for what types of art?
57276b5b708984140094dd39
poetry and literature
410
False
Heian period
4
What period marks the end of Japanese history?
5a3baf813ff257001ab8445f
True
The Heian
0
What Japanese dynasty was named after the city of Heian-kyo?
5a3baf813ff257001ab84460
True
Buddhism, Taoism
232
What Chinese influences where waning in the Heian period?
5a3baf813ff257001ab84461
True
art, especially poetry and literature
394
What was declining along with the imperial court?
5a3baf813ff257001ab84462
True
Fujiwara
672
What family did many Japanese Emperors belong to?
5a3baf813ff257001ab84463
True
The Heian period (平安時代, Heian jidai?) is the last division of classical Japanese history, running from 794 to 1185. The period is named after the capital city of Heian-kyō, or modern Kyōto. It is the period in Japanese history when Buddhism, Taoism and other Chinese influences were at their height. The Heian period is also considered the peak of the Japanese imperial court and noted for its art, especially poetry and literature. Although the Imperial House of Japan had power on the surface, the real power was in the hands of the Fujiwara clan, a powerful aristocratic family who had intermarried with the imperial family. Many emperors actually had mothers from the Fujiwara family. Heian (平安?) means "peace" in Japanese.
What was the name of the period before the Heian era?
57276c565951b619008f89a7
Nara
37
False
The Heian period began in what year?
57276c565951b619008f89a8
794 A.D
62
False
What warrior class rose during the Heian era?
57276c565951b619008f89a9
samurai
506
False
Heian-kyo is now what present-day city?
57276c565951b619008f89aa
Kyōto
139
False
What was the name of the emperor who moved Japan's capital to Heian?
57276c565951b619008f89ab
Kanmu
178
False
794 A.D
62
When did the Nara period begin?
5a3bb3df3ff257001ab84469
True
Nara
37
Where was the capital of Japan prior to 794 A.D.?
5a3bb3df3ff257001ab8446a
True
Nagaoka-kyō
226
Where did Emperor Kanmu try to move the capital after Heian-kyo?
5a3bb3df3ff257001ab8446b
True
considered a high point in Japanese culture
373
Why have later generations always admired the Nara period?
5a3bb3df3ff257001ab8446c
True
samurai class,
506
What class declined in the Heian-kyo period?
5a3bb3df3ff257001ab8446d
True
The Heian period was preceded by the Nara period and began in 794 A.D after the movement of the capital of Japan to Heian-kyō (present day Kyōto京都), by the 50th emperor, Emperor Kanmu. Kanmu first tried to move the capital to Nagaoka-kyō, but a series of disasters befell the city, prompting the emperor to relocate the capital a second time, to Heian. The Heian Period is considered a high point in Japanese culture that later generations have always admired. The period is also noted for the rise of the samurai class, which would eventually take power and start the feudal period of Japan.
What noble family wielded power during the Heian period?
57276d6add62a815002e9c9e
Fujiwara
79
False
Who threatened the authority of Japan's central government?
57276d6add62a815002e9c9f
Taira no Masakado
324
False
Masakado led an uprising in what province?
57276d6add62a815002e9ca0
Hitachi
441
False
What member of the Fujiwara family rebelled in western Japan?
57276d6add62a815002e9ca1
Fujiwara no Sumitomo
477
False
In what year did Masakado begin his rebellion?
57276d6add62a815002e9ca2
939 A.D
315
False
the emperor
30
Who ruled the Fujiwara family in Japan?
5a3bba523ff257001ab84473
True
the Fujiwara and other noble families
152
Who needed guards and soldiers to protect their interests in the imperial court?
5a3bba523ff257001ab84474
True
The warrior class
228
Who's political power declined during the Heian period?
5a3bba523ff257001ab84475
True
Taira no Masakado
324
Who threatened the central governments authourity during the 9th century A.D.?
5a3bba523ff257001ab84476
True
an uprising
402
What did Fujiwara no Sumitoma lead in the east?
5a3bba523ff257001ab84477
True
Nominally, sovereignty lay in the emperor but in fact power was wielded by the Fujiwara nobility. However, to protect their interests in the provinces, the Fujiwara and other noble families required guards, police and soldiers. The warrior class made steady political gains throughout the Heian period. As early as 939 A.D, Taira no Masakado threatened the authority of the central government, leading an uprising in the eastern province of Hitachi, and almost simultaneously, Fujiwara no Sumitomo rebelled in the west. Still, a true military takeover of the Japanese government was centuries away, when much of the strength of the government would lie within the private armies of the shogunate.
Heian was Japan's capital for how many years?
57276e51708984140094dd5b
1,000
108
False
Nara was the former capital for how many years?
57276e51708984140094dd5c
70
262
False
What religion was gaining popularity in Nara?
57276e51708984140094dd5d
Buddhist
351
False
What time period was the early Heian era?
57276e51708984140094dd5e
784–967
507
False
Kanmu modeled his government after what Chinese capital?
57276e51708984140094dd5f
Tang
587
False
not only to strengthen imperial authority but also to improve his seat of government geopolitically
131
Why did Emperor Kammu move the capital to Heian0kyo after a 1,000 years?
5a3bc83c3ff257001ab8447d
True
the ascendancy of Dōkyō and the encroaching secular power of the Buddhist institutions there
286
Why was Nara maintained as the capital for 70 years?
5a3bc83c3ff257001ab8447e
True
could be reached by land routes from the eastern provinces
423
What did Nara have besides good river acess?
5a3bc83c3ff257001ab8447f
True
ritsuryō
756
Which system did the Tang imperium recreate?
5a3bc83c3ff257001ab84480
True
When Emperor Kammu moved the capital to Heian-kyō (Kyōto), which remained the imperial capital for the next 1,000 years, he did so not only to strengthen imperial authority but also to improve his seat of government geopolitically. Nara was abandoned after only 70 years in part due to the ascendancy of Dōkyō and the encroaching secular power of the Buddhist institutions there. Kyōto had good river access to the sea and could be reached by land routes from the eastern provinces. The early Heian period (784–967) continued Nara culture; the Heian capital was patterned on the Chinese Tang capital at Chang'an, as was Nara, but on a larger scale than Nara. Kammu endeavoured to improve the Tang-style administrative system which was in use. Known as the ritsuryō, this system attempted to recreate the Tang imperium in Japan, despite the "tremendous differences in the levels of development between the two countries". Despite the decline of the Taika-Taihō reforms, imperial government was vigorous during the early Heian period. Indeed, Kammu's avoidance of drastic reform decreased the intensity of political struggles, and he became recognized as one of Japan's most forceful emperors.
What was the name of the possible descendants of Jōmon?
57276f50708984140094dd81
Emishi
118
False
What was the name of the new commander Kanmu appointed in the year 797?
57276f50708984140094dd82
Sakanoue no Tamuramaro
286
False
What was Tamuramaro's military title?
57276f50708984140094dd83
Sei-i Taishōgun
326
False
The Emishi were defeated in what year?
57276f50708984140094dd84
801
381
False
The imperial capital extended to the eastern edge of which Japanese island?
57276f50708984140094dd85
Honshū
480
False
universal conscription
29
What did the Emishi abandon in 793?
5a3bd79ccc5d22001a521bbe
True
Jōmon
164
Who was Kammu descended from?
5a3bd79ccc5d22001a521bbf
True
Sakanoue no Tamuramaro,
286
Who did Kammu appoint as commander in 794?
5a3bd79ccc5d22001a521bc0
True
Sei-i Taishōgun
326
Who did the Emishi defeat in 801?
5a3bd79ccc5d22001a521bc1
True
the imperial family
795
Who had firm control of the provinces?
5a3bd79ccc5d22001a521bc2
True
Although Kammu had abandoned universal conscription in 792, he still waged major military offensives to subjugate the Emishi, possible descendants of the displaced Jōmon, living in northern and eastern Japan. After making temporary gains in 794, in 797 Kammu appointed a new commander, Sakanoue no Tamuramaro, under the title Sei-i Taishōgun (Barbarian-subduing generalissimo). By 801 the shogun had defeated the Emishi and had extended the imperial domains to the eastern end of Honshū. Imperial control over the provinces was tenuous at best, however. In the ninth and tenth centuries, much authority was lost to the great families, who disregarded the Chinese-style land and tax systems imposed by the government in Kyoto. Stability came to Japan, but, even though succession was ensured for the imperial family through heredity, power again concentrated in the hands of one noble family, the Fujiwara which also helped Japan develop more.
In what year did Emperor Kanmu die?
57277029dd62a815002e9ce2
806
27
False
What office replaced the imperial guards?
57277029dd62a815002e9ce3
Metropolitan Police Board
323
False
What new office allowed government to issue administrative orders faster?
57277029dd62a815002e9ce4
Emperor's Private Office
187
False
Tang China's influence over Japan ended in what year?
57277029dd62a815002e9ce5
838
563
False
Kammu's
10
who's sons died in 806?
5a3bda68cc5d22001a521bc8
True
Taika-Taihō
133
What administative structure was abolished in 806?
5a3bda68cc5d22001a521bc9
True
Emperor's Private Office
187
What office eliminatedthe need for the emorer to issue administrative edicts?
5a3bda68cc5d22001a521bca
True
Metropolitan Police Board
323
Who did the imperial guard replace
5a3bda68cc5d22001a521bcb
True
China
619
Who's influence began to increase in 630?
5a3bda68cc5d22001a521bcc
True
Following Kammu's death in 806 and a succession struggle among his sons, two new offices were established in an effort to adjust the Taika-Taihō administrative structure. Through the new Emperor's Private Office, the emperor could issue administrative edicts more directly and with more self-assurance than before. The new Metropolitan Police Board replaced the largely ceremonial imperial guard units. While these two offices strengthened the emperor's position temporarily, soon they and other Chinese-style structures were bypassed in the developing state. In 838 the end of the imperial-sanctioned missions to Tang China, which had begun in 630, marked the effective end of Chinese influence. Tang China was in a state of decline, and Chinese Buddhists were severely persecuted, undermining Japanese respect for Chinese institutions. Japan began to turn inward.
In what century did the Soga family take the throne?
572770c1dd62a815002e9cea
sixth
56
False
A member of what clan became the head of the Emperor's Private Office?
572770c1dd62a815002e9ceb
Fujiwara
75
False
Which emperor suspended the Fujiwara clan's power?
572770c1dd62a815002e9cec
Daigo
488
False
Emperor Daigo ruled during what years?
572770c1dd62a815002e9ced
897-930
495
False
Soga clan
7
What family took control of the throne in the 600's?
5a3bdb9ecc5d22001a521bd2
True
Fujiwara
233
What family usurped the throne in the 9th century?
5a3bdb9ecc5d22001a521bd3
True
Daigo
488
Which emperor gave the Fujiware more power?
5a3bdb9ecc5d22001a521bd4
True
Daigo
488
Who was the first Japanese Emperor to rule directly?
5a3bdb9ecc5d22001a521bd5
True
As the Soga clan had taken control of the throne in the sixth century, the Fujiwara by the ninth century had intermarried with the imperial family, and one of their members was the first head of the Emperor's Private Office. Another Fujiwara became regent, Sesshō for his grandson, then a minor emperor, and yet another was appointed Kampaku. Toward the end of the ninth century, several emperors tried, but failed, to check the Fujiwara. For a time, however, during the reign of Emperor Daigo (897-930), the Fujiwara regency was suspended as he ruled directly.
What type of property obtained legal status during the early Heian period?
5727728edd62a815002e9d0e
shōen
337
False
Farm laborers traded titles to shoen holders in exchange for what?
5727728edd62a815002e9d0f
a share of the harvest
629
False
The Fujiwara and other noble families became richer during which century?
5727728edd62a815002e9d10
early tenth century
285
False
Fujiwara
18
Who was demoted during the reign of Deigo?
5a3be161cc5d22001a521bec
True
Japan
119
Where was central control growing?
5a3be161cc5d22001a521bed
True
Fujiwara, along with other great families and religious foundations,
159
Who's shoen and wealth were declining?
5a3be161cc5d22001a521bee
True
Taika Reform
768
What reform moved control of people and land from the central government?
5a3be161cc5d22001a521bef
True
early Heian period,
313
when did religious establishments obtain legal status?
5a3be161cc5d22001a521bf0
True
Nevertheless, the Fujiwara were not demoted by Daigo but actually became stronger during his reign. Central control of Japan had continued to decline, and the Fujiwara, along with other great families and religious foundations, acquired ever larger shōen and greater wealth during the early tenth century. By the early Heian period, the shōen had obtained legal status, and the large religious establishments sought clear titles in perpetuity, waiver of taxes, and immunity from government inspection of the shōen they held. Those people who worked the land found it advantageous to transfer title to shōen holders in return for a share of the harvest. People and lands were increasingly beyond central control and taxation, a de facto return to conditions before the Taika Reform.
What script was developed with parts of Chinese characters?
5727738edd62a815002e9d2e
katakana
278
False
What was the name of the cursive script that gave expression to spoken words?
5727738edd62a815002e9d2f
hiragana
384
False
Who is the author of The Pillow Book?
5727738edd62a815002e9d30
Sei Shōnagon
888
False
Who is the author of The Tale of Genji?
5727738edd62a815002e9d31
Murasaki Shikibu
926
False
What was the name of the brightly colored paintings depicting court life?
5727738edd62a815002e9d32
yamato-e
1054
False
cultural
87
What declined while the Fujiwara controled the imperial court?
5a3be402cc5d22001a521c00
True
Chinese characters
345
Where did Japan borrow the writting style of hiragana from?
5a3be402cc5d22001a521c01
True
Hiragana
473
What writting style led to a decline in Japan's vernacular literature?
5a3be402cc5d22001a521c02
True
Japan's famous vernacular literature
554
What was written by court women trained in Chinese?
5a3be402cc5d22001a521c03
True
Japanese style paintings of court life and stories about temples and shrines
1064
What still influences Chinese art today?
5a3be402cc5d22001a521c04
True
Despite their usurpation of imperial authority, the Fujiwara presided over a period of cultural and artistic flowering at the imperial court and among the aristocracy. There was great interest in graceful poetry and vernacular literature. Two types of phonetic Japanese script: katakana, a simplified script that was developed by using parts of Chinese characters, was abbreviated to hiragana, a cursive syllabary with a distinct writing method that was uniquely Japanese. Hiragana gave written expression to the spoken word and, with it, to the rise in Japan's famous vernacular literature, much of it written by court women who had not been trained in Chinese as had their male counterparts. Three late tenth century and early eleventh century women presented their views of life and romance at the Heian court in Kagerō Nikki by "the mother of Fujiwara Michitsuna", The Pillow Book by Sei Shōnagon and The Tale of Genji by Murasaki Shikibu. Indigenous art also flourished under the Fujiwara after centuries of imitating Chinese forms. Vividly colored yamato-e, Japanese style paintings of court life and stories about temples and shrines became common in the mid- and late Heian periods, setting patterns for Japanese art to this day.
What became the aristocracy's primary occupation?
572774bf708984140094de11
Land management
936
False
What grew during the second phase of shoen development?
572774bf708984140094de12
"house governments,"
280
False
What governmental reorganization lapsed during the period of shoen development?
572774bf708984140094de13
Taihō Code
537
False
Succession to the throne was determined by what clan?
572774bf708984140094de14
Fujiwara
696
False
culture
3
What flourished along with centralization?
5a3beef2cc5d22001a521c32
True
Land management
936
What became the primary occupation as a result of declining control by the central government?
5a3beef2cc5d22001a521c33
True
The Taihō Code
533
What code moved beyond its cerimonial functions?
5a3beef2cc5d22001a521c34
True
Family administrations
608
What did public institutions become?
5a3beef2cc5d22001a521c35
True
imperial family
1044
Who saw Japan as a single nation?
5a3beef2cc5d22001a521c36
True
As culture flourished, so did decentralization. Whereas the first phase of shōen development in the early Heian period had seen the opening of new lands and the granting of the use of lands to aristocrats and religious institutions, the second phase saw the growth of patrimonial "house governments," as in the old clan system. (In fact, the form of the old clan system had remained largely intact within the great old centralized government.) New institutions were now needed in the face of social, economic, and political changes. The Taihō Code lapsed, its institutions relegated to ceremonial functions. Family administrations now became public institutions. As the most powerful family, the Fujiwara governed Japan and determined the general affairs of state, such as succession to the throne. Family and state affairs were thoroughly intermixed, a pattern followed among other families, monasteries, and even the imperial family. Land management became the primary occupation of the aristocracy, not so much because direct control by the imperial family or central government had declined but more from strong family solidarity and a lack of a sense of Japan as a single nation.
The early courts' military conscription broke down around what year?
5727756af1498d1400e8f8a2
792
197
False
Warriors appointed to a province were called what?
5727756af1498d1400e8f8a3
oryoshi
523
False
Warriors appointed for specific tasks were called what?
5727756af1498d1400e8f8a4
tsuibushi
583
False
Where did final authority over the military lie?
5727756af1498d1400e8f8a5
imperial court
752
False
military affairs
82
What was in the hands of the provincial aristocracy in he early courts?
5a3bf824cc5d22001a521c76
True
a process of trial-and-error
356
What process allowed provincial aristocracy to take control slowly?
5a3bf824cc5d22001a521c77
True
oryoshi
523
Who made up the imerial courts army?
5a3bf824cc5d22001a521c78
True
final authority
720
What authority rested with the Japanese military class?
5a3bf824cc5d22001a521c79
True
Under the early courts, when military conscription had been centrally controlled, military affairs had been taken out of the hands of the provincial aristocracy. But as the system broke down after 792, local power holders again became the primary source of military strength. The re-establishment of an efficient military system was made gradually through a process of trial-and-error. At that time the imperial court did not possess an army but rather relied on an organization of professional warriors composed mainly of oryoshi, which were appointed to an individual province and tsuibushi, which were appointed over imperial circuits or for specific tasks. This gave rise to the Japanese military class. Nonetheless final authority rested with the imperial court.
Who had increased access to better military technology?
572777c4708984140094de5f
Shōen holders
0
False
Which institutions also hired private guards for protection?
572777c4708984140094de60
civil and religious
306
False
Which class became a new military elite?
572777c4708984140094de61
provincial upper class
404
False
What does the word "bushi" mean?
572777c4708984140094de62
warrior
503
False
Shōen
0
What did Shoen lack access to?
5a3bfa0acc5d22001a521c88
True
improved military technology
59
What deprived the Shoen of manpower?
5a3bfa0acc5d22001a521c89
True
military service
234
What was nolonger part of the Shoen life after the ninth century?
5a3bfa0acc5d22001a521c8a
True
civil and religious institutions
306
What institutions were forbidden to form private guards?
5a3bfa0acc5d22001a521c8b
True
the provincial upper class
400
Whom comprised most of the ordinary military?
5a3bfa0acc5d22001a521c8c
True
Shōen holders had access to manpower and, as they obtained improved military technology (such as new training methods, more powerful bows, armor, horses, and superior swords) and faced worsening local conditions in the ninth century, military service became part of shōen life. Not only the shōen but also civil and religious institutions formed private guard units to protect themselves. Gradually, the provincial upper class was transformed into a new military elite based on the ideals of the bushi (warrior) or samurai (literally, one who serves).
Bushi formed new associations in what century?
572778285951b619008f8aa7
tenth
98
False
How did military families gain prestige?
572778285951b619008f8aa8
connections to the imperial court
422
False
Who were the three prominent families during the rise of the warrior classes?
572778285951b619008f8aa9
Fujiwara family, Taira clan, and Minamoto clan
518
False
Bushi
0
Who had limited intrests in the tenth century?
5a3bfb9bcc5d22001a521ca6
True
military groups
184
What groups became part of the centraladministration?
5a3bfb9bcc5d22001a521ca7
True
large regional military families
252
What formed around provincial aristocracy?
5a3bfb9bcc5d22001a521ca8
True
military titles and access to manpower
474
What did provincial aristocracy grant to the imperial court?
5a3bfb9bcc5d22001a521ca9
True
Bushi interests were diverse, cutting across old power structures to form new associations in the tenth century. Mutual interests, family connections, and kinship were consolidated in military groups that became part of family administration. In time, large regional military families formed around members of the court aristocracy who had become prominent provincial figures. These military families gained prestige from connections to the imperial court and court-granted military titles and access to manpower. The Fujiwara family, Taira clan, and Minamoto clan were among the most prominent families supported by the new military class.
Who was the first non-Fujiwara emperor since the ninth century?
572779a3f1498d1400e8f912
Go-Sanjō
62
False
Who implemented reforms to reduce the Fujiwara's influence on government?
572779a3f1498d1400e8f913
Go-Sanjō
62
False
What term was used for behind the scenes governance?
572779a3f1498d1400e8f914
insei
722
False
Go-Sanjō
62
Who was the last emperor born to a Fujiwara mother?
5a3bfcfecc5d22001a521cc0
True
Fujiwara
4
Who's influence grew under Go-Sanjo?
5a3bfcfecc5d22001a521cc1
True
estate records
338
What did the Fjiware try to compile and validate?
5a3bfcfecc5d22001a521cc2
True
shōen
403
Who felt threatened by the Fujiware attempt to validate estate records?
5a3bfcfecc5d22001a521cc3
True
Office of the Cloistered Emperor
573
What office did the emperor rule through?
5a3bfcfecc5d22001a521cc4
True
The Fujiwara controlled the throne until the reign of Emperor Go-Sanjō (1068-1073), the first emperor not born of a Fujiwara mother since the ninth century. Go-Sanjo, determined to restore imperial control through strong personal rule, implemented reforms to curb Fujiwara influence. He also established an office to compile and validate estate records with the aim of reasserting central control. Many shōen were not properly certified, and large landholders, like the Fujiwara, felt threatened with the loss of their lands. Go-Sanjo also established the In-no-cho (ja:院庁 Office of the Cloistered Emperor), which was held by a succession of emperors who abdicated to devote themselves to behind-the-scenes governance, or insei.
The decline of the Fujiwara's governmental power was filled by what?
57277a50dd62a815002e9e00
In-no-cho
4
False
The members of what clan gradually replaced the Fujiwaras?
57277a50dd62a815002e9e01
Minamoto
317
False
What allowed the paternal line of the imperial family to gain influence over royal succession?
57277a50dd62a815002e9e02
insei system
436
False
The In-no-cho was prominent during what years?
57277a50dd62a815002e9e03
1086 to 1156
549
False
The In-no-cho
0
Who left a void for the Fujiwara to fill?
5a3bfef3cc5d22001a521cde
True
Fujiwara
101
Who did the emperor banish?
5a3bfef3cc5d22001a521cdf
True
Fujiwara
101
Who was sought out in decision making?
5a3bfef3cc5d22001a521ce0
True
Minamoto family
317
What other family was replaced by the Fujiwara?
5a3bfef3cc5d22001a521ce1
True
The In-no-cho filled the void left by the decline of Fujiwara power. Rather than being banished, the Fujiwara were mostly retained in their old positions of civil dictator and minister of the center while being bypassed in decision making. In time, many of the Fujiwara were replaced, mostly by members of the rising Minamoto family. While the Fujiwara fell into disputes among themselves and formed northern and southern factions, the insei system allowed the paternal line of the imperial family to gain influence over the throne. The period from 1086 to 1156 was the age of supremacy of the In-no-cho and of the rise of the military class throughout the country. Military might rather than civil authority dominated the government.
What member of the Fujiwara attempted to rebel in the mid-twelfth century?
57277bc0f1498d1400e8f962
Fujiwara no Yorinaga
116
False
What battle resulted in the destruction of the Fujiwara?
57277bc0f1498d1400e8f963
Hōgen Rebellion
268
False
What clans fought during the Heiji Rebellion?
57277bc0f1498d1400e8f964
Taira and Minamoto
502
False
In what year did the Heiji Rebellion occur?
57277bc0f1498d1400e8f965
1159
492
False
After the Heiji Rebellion, what clan grew in power?
57277bc0f1498d1400e8f966
Taira
576
False
A struggle for succession
0
What struggle occured in the 1200's?
5a3c00a4cc5d22001a521cf0
True
the Fujiwara
58
Who had the opportunity to regain their former power in the 1200's?
5a3c00a4cc5d22001a521cf1
True
1156
191
In what year did no Yorinaga side with the emerors heir apparent?
5a3c00a4cc5d22001a521cf2
True
no Yorinaga
125
Who supported the retired emperor in the 11th century?
5a3c00a4cc5d22001a521cf3
True
Hōgen Rebellion
268
What rebellion occured in the 11th century?
5a3c00a4cc5d22001a521cf4
True
A struggle for succession in the mid-twelfth century gave the Fujiwara an opportunity to regain their former power. Fujiwara no Yorinaga sided with the retired emperor in a violent battle in 1156 against the heir apparent, who was supported by the Taira and Minamoto (Hōgen Rebellion). In the end, the Fujiwara were destroyed, the old system of government supplanted, and the insei system left powerless as bushi took control of court affairs, marking a turning point in Japanese history. In 1159, the Taira and Minamoto clashed (Heiji Rebellion), and a twenty-year period of Taira ascendancy began.
What military commander gained power after the fall of the Minamoto clan?
57277d075951b619008f8b39
Taira Kiyomori
0
False
How old was Emperor Takakura when he died?
57277d075951b619008f8b3a
19
230
False
What was the name of Takakura's successor?
57277d075951b619008f8b3b
Antoku
259
False
Kiyomori removed how many court officials to protect his power?
57277d075951b619008f8b3c
45
529
False
What were the names of the temples that Kiyomori destroyed?
57277d075951b619008f8b3d
Todai-ji and Kofuku-ji
591
False
Taira Kiyomori
0
Who's destruction led to Minamoto emering as the real power in Japan?
5a3c0190cc5d22001a521d04
True
Tokuko
163
What was the name of Minamato's daughter?
5a3c0190cc5d22001a521d05
True
Taira Kiyomori
0
Whose daughter died at 19?
5a3c0190cc5d22001a521d06
True
Taira Kiyomori
0
Who discouraged trade with Sung China?
5a3c0190cc5d22001a521d07
True
Taira Kiyomori
0
Who buildt two temples during their time in power?
5a3c0190cc5d22001a521d08
True
Taira Kiyomori emerged as the real power in Japan following the Minamoto's destruction, and he would remain in command for the next 20 years. He gave his daughter Tokuko in marriage to the young emperor Takakura, who died at only 19, leaving their infant son Antoku to succeed to the throne. Kiyomori filled no less than 50 government posts with his relatives, rebuilt the Inland Sea, and encouraged trade with Sung China. He also took aggressive actions to safeguard his power when necessary, including the removal and exile of 45 court officials and the razing of two troublesome temples, Todai-ji and Kofuku-ji.
What was the term used to describe military governors?
57277d9df1498d1400e8f9a4
daimyos
155
False
What was the term used to describe supervisors of estates?
57277d9df1498d1400e8f9a5
jito
209
False
What was the name of the emperor that Yoritomo removed from the throne?
57277d9df1498d1400e8f9a6
Go-Toba
519
False
bakufu system
38
What system did Yoritomo end?
5a3c02cbcc5d22001a521d18
True
provinces,
181
What areas did stewards rule over?
5a3c02cbcc5d22001a521d19
True
jito
209
Who supervised the imerial court?
5a3c02cbcc5d22001a521d1a
True
Yoritomo
5
Who strengthened the Fujiwara family during their rule?
5a3c02cbcc5d22001a521d1b
True
the teenage emperor Go-Toba
499
Who did Yoshitsune remove from the throne?
5a3c02cbcc5d22001a521d1c
True
With Yoritomo firmly established, the bakufu system that would govern Japan for the next seven centuries was in place. He appointed military governors, or daimyos, to rule over the provinces, and stewards, or jito to supervise public and private estates. Yoritomo then turned his attention to the elimination of the powerful Fujiwara family, which sheltered his rebellious brother Yoshitsune. Three years later, he was appointed shogun in Kyoto. One year before his death in 1199, Yoritomo expelled the teenage emperor Go-Toba from the throne. Two of Go-Toba's sons succeeded him, but they would also be removed by Yoritomo's successors to the shogunate.
What religion spread during the Heian period?
57277e54f1498d1400e8f9bc
Buddhism
0
False
What were the two Japanese sects of Buddhism?
57277e54f1498d1400e8f9bd
Tendai and Shingon
111
False
Who brought Shingon Buddhism to Japan?
57277e54f1498d1400e8f9be
Kūkai
398
False
Tendai Buddhism suggested that enlightenment was accessible to who?
57277e54f1498d1400e8f9bf
every creature
684
False
Buddhism
0
What philosophy had little influence during the Haian period?
5a3c041bcc5d22001a521d32
True
Tendai and Shingon.
111
What were the two Chinese sects of Buddhism?
5a3c041bcc5d22001a521d33
True
Japan
36
Where did Kukai bring Tendai Buddhism to?
5a3c041bcc5d22001a521d34
True
Saichō
701
Who thought all Buddist monks should be ordinated together?
5a3c041bcc5d22001a521d35
True
imperial court
851
What court did Shingon develop a close relationship with?
5a3c041bcc5d22001a521d36
True
Buddhism began to spread throughout Japan during the Heian period, primarily through two major esoteric sects, Tendai and Shingon. Tendai originated in China and is based on the Lotus Sutra, one of the most important sutras of Mahayana Buddhism; Saichō was key to its transmission to Japan. Shingon is the Japanese transmission of the Chinese Chen Yen school. Shingon, brought to Japan by the monk Kūkai, emphasizes Esoteric Buddhism. Both Kūkai and Saichō aimed to connect state and religion and establish support from the aristocracy, leading to the notion of 'aristocratic Buddhism'. An important element of Tendai doctrine was the suggestion that enlightenment was accessible to "every creature". Saichō also sought independent ordination for Tendai monks. A close relationship developed between the Tendai monastery complex on Mount Hiei and the imperial court in its new capital at the foot of the mountain. As a result, Tendai emphasized great reverence for the emperor and the nation. Kammu himself was a notable patron of the otherworldly Tendai sect, which rose to great power over the ensuing centuries. Kūkai greatly impressed the emperors who succeeded Emperor Kammu, and also generations of Japanese, not only with his holiness but also with his poetry, calligraphy, painting, and sculpture. Shingon, through its use of "rich symbols, rituals and mandalas" held a wide-ranging appeal.
What artform became a mark of status in the courts?
57277f26f1498d1400e8f9e2
poetry
134
False
During the Heian period, what did the Japanese think could reflect one's soul?
57277f26f1498d1400e8f9e3
handwriting
546
False
What was said to show low status or "poor breeding"?
57277f26f1498d1400e8f9e4
poor or hasty writing
617
False
Nobles and ladies-in-waiting
51
Who was expected to be able to read poetry?
5a3c0535cc5d22001a521d3c
True
condition of a person's soul
576
What were verses believed to reflect?
5a3c0535cc5d22001a521d3d
True
poor or hasty writing
617
What was a sign of good breeding?
5a3c0535cc5d22001a521d3e
True
Sadako
955
Who rebuked the empress for poor writing?
5a3c0535cc5d22001a521d3f
True
Poetry, in particular, was a staple of court life. Nobles and ladies-in-waiting were expected to be well versed in the art of writing poetry as a mark of their status. Every occasion could call for the writing of a verse, from the birth of a child to the coronation of an emperor, or even a pretty scene of nature. A well-written poem or haiku could easily make or break one's reputation, and often was a key part of social interaction.Almost as important was the choice of calligraphy, or handwriting, used. The Japanese of this period believed handwriting could reflect the condition of a person's soul: therefore, poor or hasty writing could be considered a sign of poor breeding. Whether the script was Chinese or Japanese, good writing and artistic skill was paramount to social reputation when it came to poetry. Sei Shonagon mentions in her Pillow Book that when a certain courtesan tried to ask her advice about how to write a poem to the empress Sadako, she had to politely rebuke him because his writing was so poor.
What is the name of the Japanese national anthem?
572781abf1498d1400e8fa26
Kimi ga Yo
51
False
What famous poem with an unknown author was written during the Heian period?
572781abf1498d1400e8fa27
Iroha
623
False
The Pillow Book was a collection of whose observations of the imperial court?
572781abf1498d1400e8fa28
Sei Shōnagon
223
False
the Heian period,
79
When were the lyrics of the ancient japanese anthem written.
5a3c071dcc5d22001a521d4c
True
The Pillow Book
341
What was the title of the forst ever novel written by Sei Shonagon?
5a3c071dcc5d22001a521d4d
True
the Heian period
79
When did Fujiwara no Teika write Iroha?
5a3c071dcc5d22001a521d4e
True
The lyrics of the modern Japanese national anthem, Kimi ga Yo, were written in the Heian period, as was The Tale of Genji by Murasaki Shikibu, one of the first novels ever written. Murasaki Shikibu's contemporary and rival Sei Shōnagon's revealing observations and musings as an attendant in the Empress' court were recorded collectively as The Pillow Book in the 990s, which revealed the quotidian capital lifestyle. The Heian period produced a flowering of poetry including works of Ariwara no Narihira, Ono no Komachi, Izumi Shikibu, Murasaki Shikibu, Saigyō and Fujiwara no Teika. The famous Japanese poem known as the Iroha (いろは), of uncertain authorship, was also written during the Heian period.
What crop was a primary source of income during the Heian period?
5727824bdd62a815002e9f14
rice
217
False
What was the name of the beneficiaries of Heian culture?
5727824bdd62a815002e9f15
Ryōmin
393
False
Currency gradually disappeared around what year?
5727824bdd62a815002e9f16
1000
627
False
What crop became the primary unit of exchange?
5727824bdd62a815002e9f17
rice
779
False
Heian period
22
What was a short period of peace?
5a3c0860cc5d22001a521d52
True
economically
127
How was Japan strengthened during the Heian period?
5a3c0860cc5d22001a521d53
True
poverty
151
What could average people avoid by acessing rice fields?
5a3c0860cc5d22001a521d54
True
the ruling nobility
539
Who provided to be compitent at ruling the provinces?
5a3c0860cc5d22001a521d55
True
messengers
929
Who were paid fees for theiir services?
5a3c0860cc5d22001a521d56
True
While on one hand the Heian period was an unusually long period of peace, it can also be argued that the period weakened Japan economically and led to poverty for all but a tiny few of its inhabitants. The control of rice fields provided a key source of income for families such as the Fujiwara and were a fundamental base for their power. The aristocratic beneficiaries of Heian culture, the Ryōmin (良民 "Good People") numbered about five thousand in a land of perhaps five million. One reason the samurai were able to take power was that the ruling nobility proved incompetent at managing Japan and its provinces. By the year 1000 the government no longer knew how to issue currency and money was gradually disappearing. Instead of a fully realised system of money circulation, rice was the primary unit of exchange. The lack of a solid medium of economic exchange is implicitly illustrated in novels of the time. For instance, messengers were rewarded with useful objects, e.g., an old silk kimono, rather than paid a fee.
Buddhist temples in which two cities made use of the shoen system?
57278381708984140094dfb7
Heian-kyō and Nara
434
False
Why were travelers often robbed under Fujiwara rule?
57278381708984140094dfb8
The Fujiwara rulers failed to maintain adequate police forces
0
False
The integration of Shinto shrines into government branches reflected a greater what?
57278381708984140094dfb9
organizational dynamism
607
False
The Fujiwara
0
Who always maintained adequate police forces?
5a3c09b8cc5d22001a521d5c
True
The shōen system
215
What system kept the aristocrates from accumulating too much wealth?
5a3c09b8cc5d22001a521d5d
True
Buddhist temples
414
What was integrated into Shinto shrines?
5a3c09b8cc5d22001a521d5e
True
police forces
48
What kept travelers safe during the Heian period?
5a3c09b8cc5d22001a521d5f
True
The Fujiwara rulers failed to maintain adequate police forces, which left robbers free to prey on travelers. This is implicitly illustrated in novels by the terror that night travel inspired in the main characters. The shōen system enabled the accumulation of wealth by an aristocratic elite; the economic surplus can be linked to the cultural developments of the Heian period and the "pursuit of arts". The major Buddhist temples in Heian-kyō and Nara also made use of the shōen. The establishment of branches rurally and integration of some Shinto shrines within these temple networks reflects a greater "organizational dynamism".
Which Total War game has an expansion set during the Heian period?
572784b4f1498d1400e8fa90
Shogun 2
20
False
What families are playable characters in Total War: Shogun 2?
572784b4f1498d1400e8fa91
Taira, Minamoto or Fujiwara
292
False
The Rise of the Samurai expansion for Total War: Shogun 2 depicts which war during the Heian period?
572784b4f1498d1400e8fa92
Gempei War
152
False
Total War: Shogun 2
9
What popular game from the Heian period had an expanson pack?
5a3c0aabcc5d22001a521d64
True
The expansion pack
390
Wich part of the game has no multiplayer mode?
5a3c0aabcc5d22001a521d65
True
the Taira, Minamoto or Fujiwara
288
What three families are added with the expanson pack?
5a3c0aabcc5d22001a521d66
True
The game Total War: Shogun 2 has the Rise of the Samurai expansion pack as downloadable campaign. It allows the player to make their own version of the Gempei War which happened during the Heian period. The player is able to choose one of the most powerful families of Japan at the time, the Taira, Minamoto or Fujiwara; each family fielding two branches for a total of six playable clans. The expansion pack features a different set of land units, ships and buildings and is also playable in the multiplayer modes.
On_the_Origin_of_Species
When was the Origin of Species published?
57276da85951b619008f89b9
24 November 1859
39
False
Who wrote The Origin of Species?
57276da85951b619008f89ba
Charles Darwin
95
False
What branch of biology was The Origin of Species founded on?
57276da85951b619008f89bb
evolutionary biology
154
False
What was the expedition called that Charles Darwin discovered some of his evidence?
57276da85951b619008f89bc
Beagle expedition
496
False
How do populations evolve according to Charles Darwin's theory?
57276da85951b619008f89bd
through a process of natural selection
278
False
On the Origin of Species, published on 24 November 1859, is a work of scientific literature by Charles Darwin which is considered to be the foundation of evolutionary biology. Darwin's book introduced the scientific theory that populations evolve over the course of generations through a process of natural selection. It presented a body of evidence that the diversity of life arose by common descent through a branching pattern of evolution. Darwin included evidence that he had gathered on the Beagle expedition in the 1830s and his subsequent findings from research, correspondence, and experimentation.
Which group of scientists began to support evolutionary ideas?
57276f32708984140094dd6d
dissident anatomists
136
False
Which powerful religious institution was a big part of scientific study in the 19th century?
57276f32708984140094dd6e
the Church of England
284
False
What was the general opinion about transmutation of species in the 19th century?
57276f32708984140094dd6f
Ideas about the transmutation of species were controversial
351
False
How did the majority of science see humanity in relation to animals in the 19th century?
57276f32708984140094dd70
that humans were unique, unrelated to other animals.
510
False
Which theology did everyone agree science was a part of in the 19th century?
57276f32708984140094dd71
natural theology
333
False
Various evolutionary ideas had already been proposed to explain new findings in biology. There was growing support for such ideas among dissident anatomists and the general public, but during the first half of the 19th century the English scientific establishment was closely tied to the Church of England, while science was part of natural theology. Ideas about the transmutation of species were controversial as they conflicted with the beliefs that species were unchanging parts of a designed hierarchy and that humans were unique, unrelated to other animals. The political and theological implications were intensely debated, but transmutation was not accepted by the scientific mainstream.
What section of the population was Darwin's book written for?
5727707df1498d1400e8f822
non-specialist readers
25
False
Who attempted to secularize science during the debate over Darwin's book?
5727707df1498d1400e8f823
T. H. Huxley
323
False
What was T.H. Huxley promoting?
5727707df1498d1400e8f824
scientific naturalism
408
False
What was the growing change in opinion about evolution called?
5727707df1498d1400e8f825
"the eclipse of Darwinism"
674
False
When did Darwin's concept of evolution become widely believed and central to the modern theory of evolution?
5727707df1498d1400e8f826
in the 1930s and 1940s
850
False
The book was written for non-specialist readers and attracted widespread interest upon its publication. As Darwin was an eminent scientist, his findings were taken seriously and the evidence he presented generated scientific, philosophical, and religious discussion. The debate over the book contributed to the campaign by T. H. Huxley and his fellow members of the X Club to secularise science by promoting scientific naturalism. Within two decades there was widespread scientific agreement that evolution, with a branching pattern of common descent, had occurred, but scientists were slow to give natural selection the significance that Darwin thought appropriate. During "the eclipse of Darwinism" from the 1880s to the 1930s, various other mechanisms of evolution were given more credit. With the development of the modern evolutionary synthesis in the 1930s and 1940s, Darwin's concept of evolutionary adaptation through natural selection became central to modern evolutionary theory, and it has now become the unifying concept of the life sciences.
To what ancient philosopher did Darwin trace some of his evolutionary ideas?
572771fcdd62a815002e9cfc
Aristotle
79
False
Whose ideas were summarized by Aristotle in the work Darwin studied?
572771fcdd62a815002e9cfd
Greek philosopher Empedocles
162
False
How did medieval scholars view the Genesis creation story?
572771fcdd62a815002e9cfe
allegorically
297
False
What kind of births did the Christian Church fathers believe occurred in nature?
572771fcdd62a815002e9cff
monstrous births from union between species, and spontaneous generation of life.
527
False
In later editions of the book, Darwin traced evolutionary ideas as far back as Aristotle; the text he cites is a summary by Aristotle of the ideas of the earlier Greek philosopher Empedocles. Early Christian Church Fathers and Medieval European scholars interpreted the Genesis creation narrative allegorically rather than as a literal historical account; organisms were described by their mythological and heraldic significance as well as by their physical form. Nature was widely believed to be unstable and capricious, with monstrous births from union between species, and spontaneous generation of life.
Which group wanted to assuage fears that science was a threat to religious stability?
5727740ff1498d1400e8f88c
the Royal Society
325
False
Whose theory claimed that species were unchanging and designed by God?
5727740ff1498d1400e8f88d
John Ray
423
False
Who created a biological classification in 1735?
5727740ff1498d1400e8f88e
Carl Linnaeus
834
False
When did the Ussher chronology state that creation began?
5727740ff1498d1400e8f88f
4004 BC
1149
False
Who proposed that life is a self-maintaining, infinite cycle?
5727740ff1498d1400e8f890
James Hutton
1279
False
The Protestant Reformation inspired a literal interpretation of the Bible, with concepts of creation that conflicted with the findings of an emerging science seeking explanations congruent with the mechanical philosophy of René Descartes and the empiricism of the Baconian method. After the turmoil of the English Civil War, the Royal Society wanted to show that science did not threaten religious and political stability. John Ray developed an influential natural theology of rational order; in his taxonomy, species were static and fixed, their adaptation and complexity designed by God, and varieties showed minor differences caused by local conditions. In God's benevolent design, carnivores caused mercifully swift death, but the suffering caused by parasitism was a puzzling problem. The biological classification introduced by Carl Linnaeus in 1735 also viewed species as fixed according to the divine plan. In 1766, Georges Buffon suggested that some similar species, such as horses and asses, or lions, tigers, and leopards, might be varieties descended from a common ancestor. The Ussher chronology of the 1650s had calculated creation at 4004 BC, but by the 1780s geologists assumed a much older world. Wernerians thought strata were deposits from shrinking seas, but James Hutton proposed a self-maintaining infinite cycle, anticipating uniformitarianism.
What was the name of Charles Darwin's grandfather?
5727758f5951b619008f8a65
Erasmus Darwin
29
False
What theory did Erasmus Darwin outline in the 1790s?
5727758f5951b619008f8a66
hypothesis of transmutation of species
55
False
What was the name of the scientist who developed and published a more complex version of Erasmus Darwin's theory in 1809?
5727758f5951b619008f8a67
Jean-Baptiste Lamarck
112
False
What is the process of adapting to the environment and inheriting changes through use or disuse called?
5727758f5951b619008f8a68
Lamarckism
414
False
Whose paleontology work in the 1790s established the reality of extinction?
5727758f5951b619008f8a69
Georges Cuvier
832
False
Charles Darwin's grandfather Erasmus Darwin outlined a hypothesis of transmutation of species in the 1790s, and Jean-Baptiste Lamarck published a more developed theory in 1809. Both envisaged that spontaneous generation produced simple forms of life that progressively developed greater complexity, adapting to the environment by inheriting changes in adults caused by use or disuse. This process was later called Lamarckism. Lamarck thought there was an inherent progressive tendency driving organisms continuously towards greater complexity, in parallel but separate lineages with no extinction. Geoffroy contended that embryonic development recapitulated transformations of organisms in past eras when the environment acted on embryos, and that animal structures were determined by a constant plan as demonstrated by homologies. Georges Cuvier strongly disputed such ideas, holding that unrelated, fixed species showed similarities that reflected a design for functional needs. His palæontological work in the 1790s had established the reality of extinction, which he explained by local catastrophes, followed by repopulation of the affected areas by other species.
Whose work considered adaptation to be evidence of God's design?
5727774b5951b619008f8a89
William Paley's
12
False
What was the name of William Paley's book claiming divine beneficial design?
5727774b5951b619008f8a8a
Natural Theology
28
False
What religion were all naturalists working at the two English universities?
5727774b5951b619008f8a8b
Church of England
215
False
How did most naturalists view the concept of transmutation of species?
5727774b5951b619008f8a8c
a threat to divinely appointed social order.
642
False
How did geologists explain the creation of new species in keeping with their belief in divine creation?
5727774b5951b619008f8a8d
adapted catastrophism to show repeated worldwide annihilation and creation of new fixed species adapted to a changed environment
299
False
In Britain, William Paley's Natural Theology saw adaptation as evidence of beneficial "design" by the Creator acting through natural laws. All naturalists in the two English universities (Oxford and Cambridge) were Church of England clergymen, and science became a search for these laws. Geologists adapted catastrophism to show repeated worldwide annihilation and creation of new fixed species adapted to a changed environment, initially identifying the most recent catastrophe as the biblical flood. Some anatomists such as Robert Grant were influenced by Lamarck and Geoffroy, but most naturalists regarded their ideas of transmutation as a threat to divinely appointed social order.
When did Darwin begin attending university?
572777f5708984140094de71
1825
39
False
What university did Darwin attend?
572777f5708984140094de72
Edinburgh University
15
False
What was Darwin originally studying at university?
572777f5708984140094de73
medicine
53
False
Who did Darwin assist in researching marine invertebrates?
572777f5708984140094de74
Robert Grant
167
False
With whom did Darwin study about catastrophic geology?
572777f5708984140094de75
Adam Sedgwick
553
False
Darwin went to Edinburgh University in 1825 to study medicine. In his second year he neglected his medical studies for natural history and spent four months assisting Robert Grant's research into marine invertebrates. Grant revealed his enthusiasm for the transmutation of species, but Darwin rejected it. Starting in 1827, at Cambridge University, Darwin learnt science as natural theology from botanist John Stevens Henslow, and read Paley, John Herschel and Alexander von Humboldt. Filled with zeal for science, he studied catastrophist geology with Adam Sedgwick.
What expedition did Darwin join in 1831?
5727790a708984140094de93
Beagle expedition
32
False
Who wrote The Principles of Geology?
5727790a708984140094de94
Charles Lyell
99
False
Where was the first stop of the Beagle Expedition?
5727790a708984140094de95
St. Jago
172
False
What did some of the fossils Darwin found on St. Jago resemble?
5727790a708984140094de96
huge armadillos
298
False
What caused Darwin to change his mind about the unbridgeable gap between animals and humans?
5727790a708984140094de97
their relatives on the island seemed "miserable, degraded savages"
538
False
In December 1831, he joined the Beagle expedition as a gentleman naturalist and geologist. He read Charles Lyell's Principles of Geology and from the first stop ashore, at St. Jago, found Lyell's uniformitarianism a key to the geological history of landscapes. Darwin discovered fossils resembling huge armadillos, and noted the geographical distribution of modern species in hope of finding their "centre of creation". The three Fuegian missionaries the expedition returned to Tierra del Fuego were friendly and civilised, yet to Darwin their relatives on the island seemed "miserable, degraded savages", and he no longer saw an unbridgeable gap between humans and animals. As the Beagle neared England in 1836, he noted that species might not be fixed.
Who showed that extinct South American fossils were related to living species?
57277a07f1498d1400e8f918
Richard Owen
0
False
What did John Gould announce in 1837?
57277a07f1498d1400e8f919
Darwin's rhea was a separate species from the previously described rhea
190
False
How many species of mockingbirds were found to be present on the Galapagos Islands?
57277a07f1498d1400e8f91a
three separate species
366
False
What type of scientist was John Gould?
57277a07f1498d1400e8f91b
ornithologist
150
False
Which animal did Darwin see at a zoo that made him further consider evolution?
57277a07f1498d1400e8f91c
an ape
951
False
Richard Owen showed that fossils of extinct species Darwin found in South America were allied to living species on the same continent. In March 1837, ornithologist John Gould announced that Darwin's rhea was a separate species from the previously described rhea (though their territories overlapped), that mockingbirds collected on the Galápagos Islands represented three separate species each unique to a particular island, and that several distinct birds from those islands were all classified as finches. Darwin began speculating, in a series of notebooks, on the possibility that "one species does change into another" to explain these findings, and around July sketched a genealogical branching of a single evolutionary tree, discarding Lamarck's independent lineages progressing to higher forms. Unconventionally, Darwin asked questions of fancy pigeon and animal breeders as well as established scientists. At the zoo he had his first sight of an ape, and was profoundly impressed by how human the orangutan seemed.
Which book did Darwin begin reading in 1838?
57277dec708984140094df1d
An Essay on the Principle of Population
60
False
What did Thomas Malthus' book theorize would happen to human populations if they were unrestrained?
57277dec708984140094df1e
breed beyond their means and struggle to survive
171
False
Which species did Darwin compare with the human struggle to survive?
57277dec708984140094df1f
plants
341
False
What concept was de Candolle considering as he studied plants?
57277dec708984140094df20
"warring of the species"
313
False
In late September 1838, he started reading Thomas Malthus's An Essay on the Principle of Population with its statistical argument that human populations, if unrestrained, breed beyond their means and struggle to survive. Darwin related this to the struggle for existence among wildlife and botanist de Candolle's "warring of the species" in plants; he immediately envisioned "a force like a hundred thousand wedges" pushing well-adapted variations into "gaps in the economy of nature", so that the survivors would pass on their form and abilities, and unfavourable variations would be destroyed. By December 1838, he had noted a similarity between the act of breeders selecting traits and a Malthusian Nature selecting among variants thrown up by "chance" so that "every part of newly acquired structure is fully practical and perfected".
What was the name of Darwin's 35-page writing of his theory?
57277ee9f1498d1400e8f9ce
"Pencil Sketch"
252
False
Which botanist did Darwin begin a correspondence with about his theories?
57277ee9f1498d1400e8f9cf
Joseph Dalton Hooker
350
False
How many pages had Darwin's sketch grown to in 1844?
57277ee9f1498d1400e8f9d0
230-page
436
False
What information was Darwin's essay based on?
57277ee9f1498d1400e8f9d1
scientific results of the Beagle voyage
113
False
Who did Darwin write his ideas to in 1842?
57277ee9f1498d1400e8f9d2
Lyell
191
False
Darwin continued to research and extensively revise his theory while focusing on his main work of publishing the scientific results of the Beagle voyage. He tentatively wrote of his ideas to Lyell in January 1842; then in June he roughed out a 35-page "Pencil Sketch" of his theory. Darwin began correspondence about his theorising with the botanist Joseph Dalton Hooker in January 1844, and by July had rounded out his "sketch" into a 230-page "Essay", to be expanded with his research results and published if he died prematurely.
What was the name of the anonymously published science book?
57277fec5951b619008f8b71
Vestiges of the Natural History of Creation
65
False
What kind of progression did Vestiges of the Natural History of Creation propose?
57277fec5951b619008f8b72
a linear progression
405
False
Who wrote Vestiges of the Natural History of Creation?
57277fec5951b619008f8b73
Robert Chambers
141
False
What was the evidence in Vestiges of the Natural History of Creation used to support?
57277fec5951b619008f8b74
that living things had progressed from the simple to the more complex over time.
308
False
Which scientist was in favor of Lamarckism in the 1850s?
57277fec5951b619008f8b75
Herbert Spencer
1047
False
In November 1844, the anonymously published popular science book Vestiges of the Natural History of Creation, written by Scottish journalist Robert Chambers, widened public interest in the concept of transmutation of species. Vestiges used evidence from the fossil record and embryology to support the claim that living things had progressed from the simple to the more complex over time. But it proposed a linear progression rather than the branching common descent theory behind Darwin's work in progress, and it ignored adaptation. Darwin read it soon after publication, and scorned its amateurish geology and zoology, but he carefully reviewed his own arguments after leading scientists, including Adam Sedgwick, attacked its morality and scientific errors. Vestiges had significant influence on public opinion, and the intense debate helped to pave the way for the acceptance of the more scientifically sophisticated Origin by moving evolutionary speculation into the mainstream. While few naturalists were willing to consider transmutation, Herbert Spencer became an active proponent of Lamarckism and progressive development in the 1850s.
What creatures did Darwin study that made him believe variation arose constantly?
57278126708984140094df5b
barnacle
9
False
In what year did Darwin begin to work on his evolution theory full-time?
57278126708984140094df5c
1854
126
False
Which bird species did Darwin become extremely interested in studying?
57278126708984140094df5d
fancy pigeon
712
False
By which year had Darwin's theory become more complex and supported by a lot of evidence?
57278126708984140094df5e
1856
885
False
What species did Darwin study for dispersal across oceans>
57278127708984140094df5f
plant seeds and animals
800
False
Darwin's barnacle studies convinced him that variation arose constantly and not just in response to changed circumstances. In 1854, he completed the last part of his Beagle-related writing and began working full-time on evolution. His thinking changed from the view that species formed in isolated populations only, as on islands, to an emphasis on speciation without isolation; that is, he saw increasing specialisation within large stable populations as continuously exploiting new ecological niches. He conducted empirical research focusing on difficulties with his theory. He studied the developmental and anatomical differences between different breeds of many domestic animals, became actively involved in fancy pigeon breeding, and experimented (with the help of his son Francis) on ways that plant seeds and animals might disperse across oceans to colonise distant islands. By 1856, his theory was much more sophisticated, with a mass of supporting evidence.
When was the "Introduction of Species" paper written?
5727825e5951b619008f8ba3
1855
3
False
Who wrote the "Introduction of Species" paper?
5727825e5951b619008f8ba4
Alfred Russel Wallace
59
False
How did Wallace claim that patterns in the distribution of species could be explained?
5727825e5951b619008f8ba5
if every new species always came into existence near an already existing, closely related species
185
False
Which scientist recognized the possible validity and implications of Wallace's paper?
5727825e5951b619008f8ba6
Charles Lyell
284
False
When did Lyell ask Darwin to publish his theory to give it priority?
5727825e5951b619008f8ba7
1–2 May 1856
443
False
An 1855 paper on the "introduction" of species, written by Alfred Russel Wallace, claimed that patterns in the geographical distribution of living and fossil species could be explained if every new species always came into existence near an already existing, closely related species. Charles Lyell recognised the implications of Wallace's paper and its possible connection to Darwin's work, although Darwin did not, and in a letter written on 1–2 May 1856 Lyell urged Darwin to publish his theory to establish priority. Darwin was torn between the desire to set out a full and convincing account and the pressure to quickly produce a short paper. He met Lyell, and in correspondence with Joseph Dalton Hooker affirmed that he did not want to expose his ideas to review by an editor as would have been required to publish in an academic journal. He began a "sketch" account on 14 May 1856, and by July had decided to produce a full technical treatise on species. His theory including the principle of divergence was complete by 5 September 1857 when he sent Asa Gray a brief but detailed abstract of his ideas.
Which book was Darwin working on when he received a package from Wallace?
5727839a5951b619008f8be5
"big book" on Natural Selection,
31
False
What was in the packages Darwin received from Wallace?
5727839a5951b619008f8be6
twenty pages describing an evolutionary mechanism
187
False
Who wrote the paper, On the Tendency of Species to form Varieties?
5727839a5951b619008f8be8
Darwin
1043
False
What do some historians think made Wallace's concept of natural selection different from Darwin's?
5727839a5951b619008f8be9
Some historians have suggested that Wallace was actually discussing group selection rather than selection acting on individual variation.
1542
False
Darwin was hard at work on his "big book" on Natural Selection, when on 18 June 1858 he received a parcel from Wallace, who stayed on the Maluku Islands (Ternate and Gilolo). It enclosed twenty pages describing an evolutionary mechanism, a response to Darwin's recent encouragement, with a request to send it on to Lyell if Darwin thought it worthwhile. The mechanism was similar to Darwin's own theory. Darwin wrote to Lyell that "your words have come true with a vengeance, ... forestalled" and he would "of course, at once write and offer to send [it] to any journal" that Wallace chose, adding that "all my originality, whatever it may amount to, will be smashed". Lyell and Hooker agreed that a joint publication putting together Wallace's pages with extracts from Darwin's 1844 Essay and his 1857 letter to Gray should be presented at the Linnean Society, and on 1 July 1858, the papers entitled On the Tendency of Species to form Varieties; and on the Perpetuation of Varieties and Species by Natural Means of Selection, by Wallace and Darwin respectively, were read out but drew little reaction. While Darwin considered Wallace's idea to be identical to his concept of natural selection, historians have pointed out differences. Darwin described natural selection as being analogous to the artificial selection practised by animal breeders, and emphasised competition between individuals; Wallace drew no comparison to selective breeding, and focused on ecological pressures that kept different varieties adapted to local conditions. Some historians have suggested that Wallace was actually discussing group selection rather than selection acting on individual variation.
What did Darwin decide to write in July, 1858?
5727842bdd62a815002e9f52
"an abstract of my whole work".
43
False
Which publisher did Lyell convince to arrange publication of Darwin's work?
5727842bdd62a815002e9f53
John Murray III
216
False
What did the publisher offer Darwin in payment for the book?
5727842bdd62a815002e9f54
2⁄3 of the profits
432
False
What edition was the book in by the time of Darwin's death?
5727842bdd62a815002e9f55
6th edition
561
False
How much had the book earned Darwin by the time he died?
5727842bdd62a815002e9f56
nearly £3000
589
False
After the meeting, Darwin decided to write "an abstract of my whole work". He started work on 20 July 1858, while on holiday at Sandown, and wrote parts of it from memory. Lyell discussed arrangements with publisher John Murray III, of the publishing house John Murray, who responded immediately to Darwin's letter of 31 March 1859 with an agreement to publish the book without even seeing the manuscript, and an offer to Darwin of 2⁄3 of the profits. (eventually Murray paid £180 to Darwin for the 1st edition and by Darwin's death in 1882 the book was in its 6th edition, earning Darwin nearly £3000.)
What title did Darwin's book ultimately have?
572784e7f1498d1400e8faa0
On the Origin of Species
214
False
What had Darwin wanted to name his book?
572784e7f1498d1400e8faa1
An abstract of an Essay on the Origin of Species and Varieties Through natural selection
46
False
Who convinced Darwin that his book needed a shorter, more compelling title?
572784e7f1498d1400e8faa2
Murray
145
False
What does the word "races" mean as referenced in Darwin's book?
572784e7f1498d1400e8faa3
an alternative for "varieties" and does not carry the modern connotation of human races
395
False
What is the extended name of The Origin of Species that is written on the title page?
572784e7f1498d1400e8faa4
by Means of Natural Selection, or the Preservation of Favoured Races in the Struggle for Life
267
False
Darwin had initially decided to call his book An abstract of an Essay on the Origin of Species and Varieties Through natural selection, but with Murray's persuasion it was eventually changed to the snappier title: On the Origin of Species, with the title page adding by Means of Natural Selection, or the Preservation of Favoured Races in the Struggle for Life. Here the term "races" is used as an alternative for "varieties" and does not carry the modern connotation of human races—the first use in the book refers to "the several races, for instance, of the cabbage" and proceeds to a discussion of "the hereditary varieties or races of our domestic animals and plants".
By which year did Darwin have the basic premise of his natural selection theory?
572785c5f1498d1400e8fab4
1838
80
False
Why might Darwin have postponed publishing his theory of evolution for over 20 years?
572785c5f1498d1400e8fab5
fear of religious persecution or social disgrace
343
False
Which paper did Darwin write that was incorrect?
572785c5f1498d1400e8fab6
Glen Roy
567
False
Who might Darwin have feared upsetting by publishing his work?
572785c5f1498d1400e8fab7
his clergymen naturalist friends or his pious wife Emma.
448
False
Darwin had his basic theory of natural selection "by which to work" by December 1838, yet almost twenty years later, when Wallace's letter arrived on 18 June 1858, Darwin was still not ready to publish his theory. It was long thought that Darwin avoided or delayed making his ideas public for personal reasons. Reasons suggested have included fear of religious persecution or social disgrace if his views were revealed, and concern about upsetting his clergymen naturalist friends or his pious wife Emma. Charles Darwin's illness caused repeated delays. His paper on Glen Roy had proved embarrassingly wrong, and he may have wanted to be sure he was correct. David Quammen has suggested all these factors may have contributed, and notes Darwin's large output of books and busy family life during that time.
What did Darwin's contemporaries think of the long delays on his publishing?
572786b5dd62a815002e9f88
Darwin's contemporaries thought the time he took was reasonable
150
False
What was Darwin's process on writing his books?
572786b5dd62a815002e9f89
Darwin always finished one book before starting another
215
False
What was Darwin's original estimate for the amount of time his book would take to write?
572786b5dd62a815002e9f8a
five years
534
False
Which scientist's study theorized that the idea of Darwin's work being delayed dates to the 1940s?
572786b5dd62a815002e9f8b
John van Wyhe
41
False
A more recent study by science historian John van Wyhe has determined that the idea that Darwin delayed publication only dates back to the 1940s, and Darwin's contemporaries thought the time he took was reasonable. Darwin always finished one book before starting another. While he was researching, he told many people about his interest in transmutation without causing outrage. He firmly intended to publish, but it was not until September 1854 that he could work on it full-time. His estimate that writing his "big book" would take five years was optimistic.
What was the cost for the first published copies of On the Origin of Species?
572788c6f1498d1400e8fb2a
fifteen shillings
85
False
How many copies of On the Origin of Species were created in the first printing?
572788c6f1498d1400e8fb2b
1250 copies
128
False
Where was the book, On the Origin of Species first offered for sale?
572788c6f1498d1400e8fb2c
Murray's autumn sale
185
False
How many editions did On the Origin of Species go through during Darwin's lifetime?
572788c6f1498d1400e8fb2d
six editions
949
False
Which institution bought 500 copies of the book, ensuring that a large number of people would have access to it?
572788c6f1498d1400e8fb2e
Mudie's Library
493
False
On the Origin of Species was first published on Thursday 24 November 1859, priced at fifteen shillings with a first printing of 1250 copies. The book had been offered to booksellers at Murray's autumn sale on Tuesday 22 November, and all available copies had been taken up immediately. In total, 1,250 copies were printed but after deducting presentation and review copies, and five for Stationers' Hall copyright, around 1,170 copies were available for sale. Significantly, 500 were taken by Mudie's Library, ensuring that the book promptly reached a large number of subscribers to the library. The second edition of 3,000 copies was quickly brought out on 7 January 1860, and incorporated numerous corrections as well as a response to religious objections by the addition of a new epigraph on page ii, a quotation from Charles Kingsley, and the phrase "by the Creator" added to the closing sentence. During Darwin's lifetime the book went through six editions, with cumulative changes and revisions to deal with counter-arguments raised. The third edition came out in 1861, with a number of sentences rewritten or added and an introductory appendix, An Historical Sketch of the Recent Progress of Opinion on the Origin of Species, while the fourth in 1866 had further revisions. The fifth edition, published on 10 February 1869, incorporated more changes and for the first time included the phrase "survival of the fittest", which had been coined by the philosopher Herbert Spencer in his Principles of Biology (1864).
What did On the Genesis of Species argue against natural selection?
57278c42708984140094e07b
claimed it included false metaphysics
124
False
Who wrote On the Genesis of Species?
57278c42708984140094e07c
George Jackson Mivart
17
False
When did Charles Darwin first use the word "evolution" in On the Origin of Species?
57278c42708984140094e07d
the sixth edition
198
False
What did Charles Darwin do to address Mivart's arguments?
57278c42708984140094e07e
added a new chapter VII,
423
False
What was chapter VII entitled?
57278c42708984140094e07f
Miscellaneous objections
448
False
In January 1871, George Jackson Mivart's On the Genesis of Species listed detailed arguments against natural selection, and claimed it included false metaphysics. Darwin made extensive revisions to the sixth edition of the Origin (this was the first edition in which he used the word "evolution" which had commonly been associated with embryological development, though all editions concluded with the word "evolved"), and added a new chapter VII, Miscellaneous objections, to address Mivart's arguments.
Why couldn't Asa Gray use a Boston publisher for an American version of On the Origin of Species?
57278d495951b619008f8d45
two New York publishing firms were already planning to exploit the absence of international copyright to print Origin
174
False
How much of a royalty was Gray able to negotiate with a New York publisher for On the Origin of Species?
57278d495951b619008f8d46
a 5% royalty
407
False
When was the first American edition of On the Origin of Species published?
57278d495951b619008f8d47
mid January 1860
478
False
What did Darwin decide to do with the profits of the American version of On the Origin of Species?
57278d495951b619008f8d48
asked Gray to keep any profits
349
False
What was the print run that Darwin mentioned for On the Origin of Species?
57278d495951b619008f8d49
2,500 copies
573
False
In the United States, botanist Asa Gray an American colleague of Darwin negotiated with a Boston publisher for publication of an authorised American version, but learnt that two New York publishing firms were already planning to exploit the absence of international copyright to print Origin. Darwin was delighted by the popularity of the book, and asked Gray to keep any profits. Gray managed to negotiate a 5% royalty with Appleton's of New York, who got their edition out in mid January 1860, and the other two withdrew. In a May letter, Darwin mentioned a print run of 2,500 copies, but it is not clear if this referred to the first printing only as there were four that year.
Who was the German translator that Darwin welcomed for On the Origin of Species?
57278e79f1498d1400e8fc08
Heinrich Georg Bronn,
440
False
What did Bronn do in his translation that went completely against what Darwin wanted in On the Origin of Species?
57278e79f1498d1400e8fc09
the German translation published in 1860 imposed Bronn's own ideas, adding controversial themes that Darwin had deliberately omitted.
466
False
What did Bronn change "Favoured Races" to in his translated edition of On the Origin of Species?
57278e79f1498d1400e8fc0a
"perfected races"
637
False
Who published an improved translation of On the Origin of Species in 1867?
57278e79f1498d1400e8fc0b
Julius Victor Carus
1000
False
Why was Darwin unhappy with the first French translation of On the Origins of Species?
57278e79f1498d1400e8fc0c
numerous explanatory notes giving her own answers to doubts that Darwin expressed
1350
False
The book was widely translated in Darwin's lifetime, but problems arose with translating concepts and metaphors, and some translations were biased by the translator's own agenda. Darwin distributed presentation copies in France and Germany, hoping that suitable applicants would come forward, as translators were expected to make their own arrangements with a local publisher. He welcomed the distinguished elderly naturalist and geologist Heinrich Georg Bronn, but the German translation published in 1860 imposed Bronn's own ideas, adding controversial themes that Darwin had deliberately omitted. Bronn translated "favoured races" as "perfected races", and added essays on issues including the origin of life, as well as a final chapter on religious implications partly inspired by Bronn's adherence to Naturphilosophie. In 1862, Bronn produced a second edition based on the third English edition and Darwin's suggested additions, but then died of a heart attack. Darwin corresponded closely with Julius Victor Carus, who published an improved translation in 1867. Darwin's attempts to find a translator in France fell through, and the translation by Clémence Royer published in 1862 added an introduction praising Darwin's ideas as an alternative to religious revelation and promoting ideas anticipating social Darwinism and eugenics, as well as numerous explanatory notes giving her own answers to doubts that Darwin expressed. Darwin corresponded with Royer about a second edition published in 1866 and a third in 1870, but he had difficulty getting her to remove her notes and was troubled by these editions. He remained unsatisfied until a translation by Edmond Barbier was published in 1876. A Dutch translation by Tiberius Cornelis Winkler was published in 1860. By 1864, additional translations had appeared in Italian and Russian. In Darwin's lifetime, Origin was published in Swedish in 1871, Danish in 1872, Polish in 1873, Hungarian in 1873–1874, Spanish in 1877 and Serbian in 1878. By 1977, it had appeared in an additional 18 languages.
What was Isaac Newton's belief about God  on the theory of natural law?
57278fa6708984140094e0e5
a rational God who established a law-abiding cosmos
175
False
Whose epigraph did Darwin add to On the Origin of Species harmonizing God with science and miracles together?
57278fa6708984140094e0e6
Joseph Butler
281
False
Whose letter does the introduction to On the Origin of Species refer?
57278fa6708984140094e0e7
John Herschel
529
False
In which edition of On the Origin of Species was the epigraph from Joseph Butler added?
57278fa6708984140094e0e8
the second edition
231
False
Page ii contains quotations by William Whewell and Francis Bacon on the theology of natural laws, harmonising science and religion in accordance with Isaac Newton's belief in a rational God who established a law-abiding cosmos. In the second edition, Darwin added an epigraph from Joseph Butler affirming that God could work through scientific laws as much as through miracles, in a nod to the religious concerns of his oldest friends. The Introduction establishes Darwin's credentials as a naturalist and author, then refers to John Herschel's letter suggesting that the origin of species "would be found to be a natural in contradistinction to a miraculous process":
How far back does Chapter One of On the Origin of Species go in its coverage of animal and plant species?
57279071dd62a815002ea08e
ancient Egypt
68
False
What does Darwin use to illustrate the effects of artificial selection?
57279071dd62a815002ea08f
fancy pigeon breeding
315
False
From what does Darwin assert all pigeons are descended?
57279071dd62a815002ea090
one species of rock pigeon
436
False
Which evolutionary changes were the most important to Darwin?
57279071dd62a815002ea091
the small changes
780
False
Chapter I covers animal husbandry and plant breeding, going back to ancient Egypt. Darwin discusses contemporary opinions on the origins of different breeds under cultivation to argue that many have been produced from common ancestors by selective breeding. As an illustration of artificial selection, he describes fancy pigeon breeding, noting that "[t]he diversity of the breeds is something astonishing", yet all were descended from one species of rock pigeon. Darwin saw two distinct kinds of variation: (1) rare abrupt changes he called "sports" or "monstrosities" (example: ancon sheep with short legs), and (2) ubiquitous small differences (example: slightly shorter or longer bill of pigeons). Both types of hereditary changes can be used by breeders. However, for Darwin the small changes were most important in evolution.
What does Darwin believe about the differences between species and varieties?
57279206f1498d1400e8fc70
is arbitrary
83
False
What does Darwin theorize about different species with regard to variety?
57279206f1498d1400e8fc71
"species are only strongly marked and permanent varieties"
271
False
What did Darwin and Wallace make central to understanding the natural world?
57279206f1498d1400e8fc72
variation among individuals of the same species
703
False
What did Darwin say that a "well marked variety" could be called?
57279206f1498d1400e8fc73
incipient species"
243
False
What did historians say that naturalists generally thought about the differences in variations in a species?
57279206f1498d1400e8fc74
generally considered such variations to be limited and unimportant deviations from the archetype of each species
510
False
In Chapter II, Darwin specifies that the distinction between species and varieties is arbitrary, with experts disagreeing and changing their decisions when new forms were found. He concludes that "a well-marked variety may be justly called an incipient species" and that "species are only strongly marked and permanent varieties". He argues for the ubiquity of variation in nature. Historians have noted that naturalists had long been aware that the individuals of a species differed from one another, but had generally considered such variations to be limited and unimportant deviations from the archetype of each species, that archetype being a fixed ideal in the mind of God. Darwin and Wallace made variation among individuals of the same species central to understanding the natural world.
What is the struggle that Darwin describes about population likened to?
5727a5574b864d1900163940
doctrine of Malthus
484
False
Within what frame of reference does Darwin use the phrase "Struggle for Existence?"
5727a5574b864d1900163941
"a large and metaphorical sense
190
False
What was Charles Lyell's perception of what organisms are exposed to in their struggle for survival?
5727a5574b864d1900163942
all organisms are exposed to severe competition
71
False
When is competition strongest in the natural world?
5727a5574b864d1900163943
competition is most severe between closely related forms
677
False
Why is competition so fierce between related species?
5727a5574b864d1900163944
fill nearly the same place in the economy of nature".
741
False
He notes that both A. P. de Candolle and Charles Lyell had stated that all organisms are exposed to severe competition. Darwin emphasizes that he used the phrase "struggle for existence" in "a large and metaphorical sense, including dependence of one being on another"; he gives examples ranging from plants struggling against drought to plants competing for birds to eat their fruit and disseminate their seeds. He describes the struggle resulting from population growth: "It is the doctrine of Malthus applied with manifold force to the whole animal and vegetable kingdoms." He discusses checks to such increase including complex ecological interdependencies, and notes that competition is most severe between closely related forms "which fill nearly the same place in the economy of nature".
What did Darwin say that artificial selection by animal breeders often causes?
5727af44ff5b5019007d928a
sharp divergence in character between breeds,
501
False
What did Darwin say could happen somewhere if there is a change in conditions?
5727af44ff5b5019007d928b
extinction of some species
258
False
What can happen if species immigrate to a new location?
5727af44ff5b5019007d928c
descendants of some species became adapted to new conditions
349
False
Chapter IV details natural selection under the "infinitely complex and close-fitting ... mutual relations of all organic beings to each other and to their physical conditions of life". Darwin takes as an example a country where a change in conditions led to extinction of some species, immigration of others and, where suitable variations occurred, descendants of some species became adapted to new conditions. He remarks that the artificial selection practised by animal breeders frequently produced sharp divergence in character between breeds, and suggests that natural selection might do the same, saying:
What does Darwin say can explain diverse feature such as antlers on deer and bright feathers on certain male birds?
5727b0412ca10214002d93e0
sexual selection, driven by competition between males for mates
16
False
Which of Darwin's written works has more in depth information about sexual selection?
5727b0412ca10214002d93e1
The Descent of Man, and Selection in Relation to Sex
267
False
What did Darwin expect to see between species with the addition of artificial selection?
5727b0412ca10214002d93e2
no limit to the amount of change, to the beauty and infinite complexity of the coadaptations between all organic beings
470
False
What did Darwin use to illustrate the way that original species change and adapt into new ones?
5727b0412ca10214002d93e3
a tree diagram and calculations
740
False
Darwin proposes sexual selection, driven by competition between males for mates, to explain sexually dimorphic features such as lion manes, deer antlers, peacock tails, bird songs, and the bright plumage of some male birds. He analysed sexual selection more fully in The Descent of Man, and Selection in Relation to Sex (1871). Natural selection was expected to work very slowly in forming new species, but given the effectiveness of artificial selection, he could "see no limit to the amount of change, to the beauty and infinite complexity of the coadaptations between all organic beings, one with another and with their physical conditions of life, which may be effected in the long course of time by nature's power of selection". Using a tree diagram and calculations, he indicates the "divergence of character" from original species into new species and genera. He describes branches falling off as extinction occurred, while new branches formed in "the great Tree of life ... with its ever branching and beautiful ramifications".
What is the theory that is based on acquired characteristics within a species?
5727b1adff5b5019007d92c0
Lamarckism
258
False
What did Darwin learn about about the characteristics of domestic animals?
5727b1adff5b5019007d92c1
use in our domestic animals strengthens and enlarges certain parts, and disuse diminishes them
398
False
What did Darwin speculate might be how inheritable variations might come about in a species?
5727b1adff5b5019007d92c2
environmental factors
993
False
What did Darwin admit about acquired characteristics in chapter one of On the Origin of Species?
5727b1adff5b5019007d92c3
"The laws governing inheritance are quite unknown."
91
False
What did Darwin learn about variations by observing breeders?
5727b1adff5b5019007d92c4
breeders were able to select such variations and produce huge differences in many generations of selection
1151
False
In Darwin's time there was no agreed-upon model of heredity; in Chapter I Darwin admitted, "The laws governing inheritance are quite unknown." He accepted a version of the inheritance of acquired characteristics (which after Darwin's death came to be called Lamarckism), and Chapter V discusses what he called the effects of use and disuse; he wrote that he thought "there can be little doubt that use in our domestic animals strengthens and enlarges certain parts, and disuse diminishes them; and that such modifications are inherited", and that this also applied in nature. Darwin stated that some changes that were commonly attributed to use and disuse, such as the loss of functional wings in some island dwelling insects, might be produced by natural selection. In later editions of Origin, Darwin expanded the role attributed to the inheritance of acquired characteristics. Darwin also admitted ignorance of the source of inheritable variations, but speculated they might be produced by environmental factors. However, one thing was clear: whatever the exact nature and causes of new variations, Darwin knew from observation and experiment that breeders were able to select such variations and produce huge differences in many generations of selection. The observation that selection works in domestic animals is not destroyed by lack of understanding of the underlying hereditary mechanism.
When was The Variation of Animals and Plants under Domestication by Charles Darwin published?
5727b63c3acd2414000dea4f
1868
34
False
What was the hypothesis that attempted to explain heredity?
5727b63c3acd2414000dea50
hypothesis of pangenesis.
148
False
While Darwin wasn't sure about blending inherited traits, what was his opinion about utilizing inherited variation?
5727b63c3acd2414000dea51
Darwin's concept of selection working on a population with a range of small variations was workable
402
False
When did a model of heredity begin to be integrated with that of variation?
5727b63c3acd2414000dea52
in the 1930s and 1940s
554
False
What was the modern evolutionary synthesis named?
5727b63c3acd2414000dea53
Neo Darwinian Evolution
709
False
More detail was given in Darwin's 1868 book on The Variation of Animals and Plants under Domestication, which tried to explain heredity through his hypothesis of pangenesis. Although Darwin had privately questioned blending inheritance, he struggled with the theoretical difficulty that novel individual variations would tend to blend into a population. However, inherited variation could be seen, and Darwin's concept of selection working on a population with a range of small variations was workable. It was not until the modern evolutionary synthesis in the 1930s and 1940s that a model of heredity became completely integrated with a model of variation. This modern evolutionary synthesis had been dubbed Neo Darwinian Evolution because it encompasses Charles Darwin's theories of evolution with Gregor Mendel's theories of genetic inheritance.
What is one possible objection to the theory of integrated variation?
5727b6e5ff5b5019007d9338
often no intermediate forms between closely related species are found
121
False
Why did Darwin wonder why all of nature isn't chaotic and random?
5727b6e5ff5b5019007d9339
why, if species have descended from other species by insensibly fine gradations, do we not everywhere see innumerable transitional forms?
275
False
What did Darwin ultimately decide was the reason that nature is not a chaos of variation?
5727b6e5ff5b5019007d933a
the competition between different forms, combined with the small number of individuals of intermediate forms, often leading to extinction of such forms.
536
False
Chapter VI begins by saying the next three chapters will address possible objections to the theory, the first being that often no intermediate forms between closely related species are found, though the theory implies such forms must have existed. As Darwin noted, "Firstly, why, if species have descended from other species by insensibly fine gradations, do we not everywhere see innumerable transitional forms? Why is not all nature in confusion, instead of the species being, as we see them, well defined?" Darwin attributed this to the competition between different forms, combined with the small number of individuals of intermediate forms, often leading to extinction of such forms. This difficulty can be referred to as the absence or rarity of transitional varieties in habitat space.
What are some flying animals that Darwin thought might have evolved from bats?
5727b7e24b864d1900163b52
flying squirrels, and flying lemurs
111
False
What example did Darwin give of eyes evolving?
5727b7e24b864d1900163b53
simple eyes found in invertebrates, starting with nothing more than an optic nerve coated with pigment
238
False
How did Darwin justify his theory not breaking down?
5727b7e24b864d1900163b54
any complex organ existed, which could not possibly have been formed by numerous, successive, slight modifications, my theory would absolutely break down.
452
False
His answer was that in many cases animals exist with intermediate structures that are functional. He presented flying squirrels, and flying lemurs as examples of how bats might have evolved from non-flying ancestors. He discussed various simple eyes found in invertebrates, starting with nothing more than an optic nerve coated with pigment, as examples of how the vertebrate eye could have evolved. Darwin concludes: "If it could be demonstrated that any complex organ existed, which could not possibly have been formed by numerous, successive, slight modifications, my theory would absolutely break down. But I can find out no such case."
How does Darwin theorize that instincts have evolved in slave-making ants?
5727b8b3ff5b5019007d936a
He thought it reasonable that species with an extreme dependency on slave workers had evolved in incremental steps.
400
False
How does Darwin theorize that instincts have evolved in bees?
5727b8b3ff5b5019007d936b
He suggested that bees that make hexagonal cells evolved in steps from bees that made round cells, under pressure from natural selection to economise wax
516
False
What did Darwin notice specifically about slave-making ants?
5727b8b3ff5b5019007d936c
some species of slave-making ants were more dependent on slaves than others
226
False
Chapter VII (of the first edition) addresses the evolution of instincts. His examples included two he had investigated experimentally: slave-making ants and the construction of hexagonal cells by honey bees. Darwin noted that some species of slave-making ants were more dependent on slaves than others, and he observed that many ant species will collect and store the pupae of other species as food. He thought it reasonable that species with an extreme dependency on slave workers had evolved in incremental steps. He suggested that bees that make hexagonal cells evolved in steps from bees that made round cells, under pressure from natural selection to economise wax. Darwin concluded:
Why would hybrids have characteristics that keep them from being fertile?
5727b9d23acd2414000deaa9
in order to preserve separately created species
115
False
What are Darwin's thoughts on producing hybrids of related species?
5727b9d23acd2414000deaaa
the viability and fertility of the hybrids, varied greatly, especially among plants
267
False
What conclusion did Darwin come to after realizing that some diverse species were able to create variations easily, while other species thought to be closely related had difficulty?
5727b9d23acd2414000deaab
support the view, that there is no fundamental distinction between species and varieties
698
False
Chapter VIII addresses the idea that species had special characteristics that prevented hybrids from being fertile in order to preserve separately created species. Darwin said that, far from being constant, the difficulty in producing hybrids of related species, and the viability and fertility of the hybrids, varied greatly, especially among plants. Sometimes what were widely considered to be separate species produced fertile hybrid offspring freely, and in other cases what were considered to be mere varieties of the same species could only be crossed with difficulty. Darwin concluded: "Finally, then, the facts briefly given in this chapter do not seem to me opposed to, but even rather to support the view, that there is no fundamental distinction between species and varieties."
Why did Darwin introduce a new chapter in On the Origin of Species in the sixth edition?
5727bb0e4b864d1900163bba
to respond to criticisms of earlier editions
93
False
What was one of the objections that Darwin addressed in his new chapter in On the Origin of Species?
5727bb0e4b864d1900163bbb
that many features of organisms were not adaptive and could not have been produced by natural selection
163
False
Which of Darwin's books featured a plant whose elaborate structure aided with fertilization by insects?
5727bb0e4b864d1900163bbc
Fertilisation of Orchids
466
False
Which scientist was addressed the most often in the new chapter of On the Origin of Species?
5727bb0e4b864d1900163bbd
George Jackson Mivart
605
False
What was Darwin's response to the claims that certain animals could not have evolved through natural selection?
5727bb0e4b864d1900163bbe
Darwin proposed scenarios for the incremental evolution of each feature.
888
False
In the sixth edition Darwin inserted a new chapter VII (renumbering the subsequent chapters) to respond to criticisms of earlier editions, including the objection that many features of organisms were not adaptive and could not have been produced by natural selection. He said some such features could have been by-products of adaptive changes to other features, and that often features seemed non-adaptive because their function was unknown, as shown by his book on Fertilisation of Orchids that explained how their elaborate structures facilitated pollination by insects. Much of the chapter responds to George Jackson Mivart's criticisms, including his claim that features such as baleen filters in whales, flatfish with both eyes on one side and the camouflage of stick insects could not have evolved through natural selection because intermediate stages would not have been adaptive. Darwin proposed scenarios for the incremental evolution of each feature.
Whose argument did Darwin borrow that geological record is very imperfect, because fossilization is rare?
5727bd4c2ca10214002d951c
Charles Lyell
196
False
Which book written by Charles Lyell contains the argument that fossils are too rare to be used as proof of life suddenly arising?
5727bd4c2ca10214002d951d
Principles of Geology
224
False
What did Darwin hope to find as he continued to explore new geologic discoveries?
5727bd4c2ca10214002d951e
that new finds would occasionally reveal transitional forms
756
False
How long did Darwin estimate the erosion of the Weald to be?
5727bd4c2ca10214002d951f
300 million years
1049
False
What is the name of the group of well-developed organisms that were discovered within fossil-bearing layers?
5727bd4d2ca10214002d9520
the Cambrian explosion
1186
False
Chapter IX deals with the fact that the geologic record appears to show forms of life suddenly arising, without the innumerable transitional fossils expected from gradual changes. Darwin borrowed Charles Lyell's argument in Principles of Geology that the record is extremely imperfect as fossilisation is a very rare occurrence, spread over vast periods of time; since few areas had been geologically explored, there could only be fragmentary knowledge of geological formations, and fossil collections were very poor. Evolved local varieties which migrated into a wider area would seem to be the sudden appearance of a new species. Darwin did not expect to be able to reconstruct evolutionary history, but continuing discoveries gave him well founded hope that new finds would occasionally reveal transitional forms. To show that there had been enough time for natural selection to work slowly, he again cited Principles of Geology and other observations based on sedimentation and erosion, including an estimate that erosion of The Weald had taken 300 million years. The initial appearance of entire groups of well developed organisms in the oldest fossil-bearing layers, now known as the Cambrian explosion, posed a problem. Darwin had no doubt that earlier seas had swarmed with living creatures, but stated that he had no satisfactory explanation for the lack of fossils. Fossil evidence of pre-Cambrian life has since been found, extending the history of life back for billions of years.
How did Darwin expect species to change and evolve?
5727be744b864d1900163c4e
slowly, but not at the same rate
231
False
What did Darwin believe were the key things needed for variation of species to form?
5727be744b864d1900163c4f
variability and change in the environment
386
False
Which scientist theorized that the earliest members of a class in a species were simple and generalized?
5727be744b864d1900163c50
Richard Owen
671
False
What did Darwin discover about more recently extinct species?
5727be744b864d1900163c51
Recently extinct species were more similar to living species than those from earlier eras
1097
False
Chapter X examines whether patterns in the fossil record are better explained by common descent and branching evolution through natural selection, than by the individual creation of fixed species. Darwin expected species to change slowly, but not at the same rate – some organisms such as Lingula were unchanged since the earliest fossils. The pace of natural selection would depend on variability and change in the environment. This distanced his theory from Lamarckian laws of inevitable progress. It has been argued that this anticipated the punctuated equilibrium hypothesis, but other scholars have preferred to emphasise Darwin's commitment to gradualism. He cited Richard Owen's findings that the earliest members of a class were a few simple and generalised species with characteristics intermediate between modern forms, and were followed by increasingly diverse and specialised forms, matching the branching of common descent from an ancestor. Patterns of extinction matched his theory, with related groups of species having a continued existence until extinction, then not reappearing. Recently extinct species were more similar to living species than those from earlier eras, and as he had seen in South America, and William Clift had shown in Australia, fossils from recent geological periods resembled species still living in the same area.
Why couldn't differences in flora and fauna be explained by differences in regions alone?
5727bfec2ca10214002d955e
South America, Africa, and Australia all have regions with similar climates at similar latitudes, but those regions have very different plants and animals
194
False
What did Darwin consider that could explain why different regions could have such different species when they are close together?
5727bfec2ca10214002d955f
barriers to migration played an important role in the differences between the species of different regions.
539
False
What was the combination of effects that Darwin considered the most important in determining the differences in species that evolved separately in similar environments?
5727bfec2ca10214002d9560
His explanation was a combination of migration and descent with modification.
814
False
Chapter XI deals with evidence from biogeography, starting with the observation that differences in flora and fauna from separate regions cannot be explained by environmental differences alone; South America, Africa, and Australia all have regions with similar climates at similar latitudes, but those regions have very different plants and animals. The species found in one area of a continent are more closely allied with species found in other regions of that same continent than to species found on other continents. Darwin noted that barriers to migration played an important role in the differences between the species of different regions. The coastal sea life of the Atlantic and Pacific sides of Central America had almost no species in common even though the Isthmus of Panama was only a few miles wide. His explanation was a combination of migration and descent with modification. He went on to say: "On this principle of inheritance with modification, we can understand how it is that sections of genera, whole genera, and even families are confined to the same areas, as is so commonly and notoriously the case." Darwin explained how a volcanic island formed a few hundred miles from a continent might be colonised by a few species from that continent. These species would become modified over time, but would still be related to species found on the continent, and Darwin observed that this was a common pattern. Darwin discussed ways that species could be dispersed across oceans to colonise islands, many of which he had investigated experimentally.
What theory does Darwin discuss that is related to the importance of homologous structures?
5727c1064b864d1900163c84
morphology
17
False
What are some examples that Darwin gives of species whose basic form of limbs is similar, but who have vastly different uses for them?
5727c1064b864d1900163c85
the hand of a man, formed for grasping, that of a mole for digging, the leg of the horse, the paddle of the porpoise, and the wing of the bat
125
False
What does Darwin note about the embryos of many different species in the same class?
5727c1064b864d1900163c86
animals of the same class often have extremely similar embryos
397
False
What are some examples of rudimentary organs that Darwin discusses in the chapter?
5727c1064b864d1900163c87
e wings of flightless birds and the rudiments of pelvis and leg bones found in some snakes
508
False
Darwin discusses morphology, including the importance of homologous structures. He says, "What can be more curious than that the hand of a man, formed for grasping, that of a mole for digging, the leg of the horse, the paddle of the porpoise, and the wing of the bat, should all be constructed on the same pattern, and should include the same bones, in the same relative positions?" He notes that animals of the same class often have extremely similar embryos. Darwin discusses rudimentary organs, such as the wings of flightless birds and the rudiments of pelvis and leg bones found in some snakes. He remarks that some rudimentary organs, such as teeth in baleen whales, are found only in embryonic stages.
What hopes does Darwin have for his theory in the natural history fields?
5727c1aeff5b5019007d9480
that his theory might produce revolutionary changes
87
False
Why did Darwin avoid the topic of the origins of humans in most of his book?
5727c1aeff5b5019007d9481
so as not to prejudice readers against his theory
258
False
What does Darwin allude to hoping in the final chapter of On the Origin of Species about humans?
5727c1aeff5b5019007d9482
that psychology would be put on a new foundation and that "Light will be thrown on the origin of man"
342
False
The final chapter reviews points from earlier chapters, and Darwin concludes by hoping that his theory might produce revolutionary changes in many fields of natural history. Although he avoids the controversial topic of human origins in the rest of the book so as not to prejudice readers against his theory, here he ventures a cautious hint that psychology would be put on a new foundation and that "Light will be thrown on the origin of man". Darwin ends with a passage that became well known and much quoted:
What were Darwin's two important aims about evolution?
5727c29e2ca10214002d959c
to show that species had not been separately created, and to show that natural selection had been the chief agent of change
28
False
What did heknow his readers were already familiar with from Vestiges?
5727c29e2ca10214002d959d
the concept of transmutation of species
205
False
How did Darwin view Vestiges in the introduction to On the Origin of Species?
5727c29e2ca10214002d959e
his introduction ridicules that work as failing to provide a viable mechanism.
264
False
What is Darwin's belief about the accumulation of adaptive variations?
5727c29e2ca10214002d959f
the accumulation of adaptive variations provides a scientifically testable mechanism for evolutionary speciation.
533
False
Darwin's aims were twofold: to show that species had not been separately created, and to show that natural selection had been the chief agent of change. He knew that his readers were already familiar with the concept of transmutation of species from Vestiges, and his introduction ridicules that work as failing to provide a viable mechanism. Therefore, the first four chapters lay out his case that selection in nature, caused by the struggle for existence, is analogous to the selection of variations under domestication, and that the accumulation of adaptive variations provides a scientifically testable mechanism for evolutionary speciation.
What does Darwin do to show that his theory can support many theories that could not be explained by individual creation of species?
5727c69b4b864d1900163cec
Darwin presents supporting facts drawn from many disciplines
172
False
Whose scientific philosophy argued that a mechanism could be called a vera causa if three things could be shown as true?
5727c69b4b864d1900163ced
John Herschel
487
False
What are the three things John Herschel maintains need to be shown to allow for a mechanism be called a true cause?
5727c69b4b864d1900163cee
its existence in nature, its ability to produce the effects of interest, and its ability to explain a wide range of observations
639
False
Later chapters provide evidence that evolution has occurred, supporting the idea of branching, adaptive evolution without directly proving that selection is the mechanism. Darwin presents supporting facts drawn from many disciplines, showing that his theory could explain a myriad of observations from many fields of natural history that were inexplicable under the alternate concept that species had been individually created. The structure of Darwin's argument showed the influence of John Herschel, whose philosophy of science maintained that a mechanism could be called a vera causa (true cause) if three things could be demonstrated: its existence in nature, its ability to produce the effects of interest, and its ability to explain a wide range of observations.
What element of On the Origin of Species ensured that the book would be taken seriously by scientists?
5727c82c3acd2414000dec3f
its dryness ensured that it was seen as aimed at specialist scientists and could not be dismissed as mere journalism or imaginative fiction.
44
False
What did On Origin of Species avoid in order to raise its chance of being taken seriously?
5727c82c3acd2414000dec40
it avoided the narrative style of the historical novel and cosmological speculation
220
False
What reason did David Quammen believe that On the Origin of Species was weakened in later editions?
5727c82c3acd2414000dec41
Darwin making concessions and adding details to address his critics
838
False
Why did James T. Costa think that On the Origin of Species was more likely to draw interest than a larger book that Darwin had been working on?
5727c82c3acd2414000dec42
because the book was an abstract produced in haste in response to Wallace's essay
967
False
Why did James T. Costa think the larger, abandoned book would not have been as successful?
5727c82c3acd2414000dec43
would have been encumbered by scholarly footnotes and much more technical detail
1148
False
While the book was readable enough to sell, its dryness ensured that it was seen as aimed at specialist scientists and could not be dismissed as mere journalism or imaginative fiction. Unlike the still-popular Vestiges, it avoided the narrative style of the historical novel and cosmological speculation, though the closing sentence clearly hinted at cosmic progression. Darwin had long been immersed in the literary forms and practices of specialist science, and made effective use of his skills in structuring arguments. David Quammen has described the book as written in everyday language for a wide audience, but noted that Darwin's literary style was uneven: in some places he used convoluted sentences that are difficult to read, while in other places his writing was beautiful. Quammen advised that later editions were weakened by Darwin making concessions and adding details to address his critics, and recommended the first edition. James T. Costa said that because the book was an abstract produced in haste in response to Wallace's essay, it was more approachable than the big book on natural selection Darwin had been working on, which would have been encumbered by scholarly footnotes and much more technical detail. He added that some parts of Origin are dense, but other parts are almost lyrical, and the case studies and observations are presented in a narrative style unusual in serious scientific books, which broadened its audience.
Why did On the Origin of Species likely raise so much interest and debate?
5727c9733acd2414000dec61
no sharp line between scientific issues and ideological, social and religious implications
70
False
Why was the book taken seriously even though much of the response was hostile?
5727c9733acd2414000dec62
Darwin had to be taken seriously as a prominent and respected name in science
208
False
What field of ideas latched onto On the Origin of Species when it became a widespread success?
5727c9733acd2414000dec63
social reform
627
False
What did Darwin's book do for the field of scientific study of evolution?
5727c9733acd2414000dec64
Darwin's book legitimised scientific discussion of evolutionary mechanisms
860
False
What was the term used to not only describe Darwin's theories, but the whole spectrum of evolution-ism after his book met with success?
5727c9733acd2414000dec65
Darwinism
962
False
The book aroused international interest and a widespread debate, with no sharp line between scientific issues and ideological, social and religious implications. Much of the initial reaction was hostile, but Darwin had to be taken seriously as a prominent and respected name in science. There was much less controversy than had greeted the 1844 publication Vestiges of Creation, which had been rejected by scientists, but had influenced a wide public readership into believing that nature and human society were governed by natural laws. The Origin of Species as a book of wide general interest became associated with ideas of social reform. Its proponents made full use of a surge in the publication of review journals, and it was given more popular attention than almost any other scientific work, though it failed to match the continuing sales of Vestiges. Darwin's book legitimised scientific discussion of evolutionary mechanisms, and the newly coined term Darwinism was used to cover the whole range of evolutionism, not just his own ideas. By the mid-1870s, evolutionism was triumphant.
What was the general response from scientific readers to Lamarck's written work?
5727ccc72ca10214002d96a8
the transmutational ideas of Lamarck and the vague "law of development" of Vestiges had not found scientific favour
131
False
What was the likely reason that Darwin's ideas were accepted more readily than Lamarck's?
5727ccc72ca10214002d96a9
natural selection as a scientifically testable mechanism while accepting that other mechanisms such as inheritance of acquired characters were possible.
265
False
Which school did opponents to Darwin's method support?
5727ccc72ca10214002d96aa
the idealist school of William Whewell's Philosophy of the Inductive Sciences
780
False
Where did early support for Darwin's findings come from?
5727ccc72ca10214002d96ab
the findings of field naturalists studying biogeography and ecology, including Joseph Dalton Hooker in 1860, and Asa Gray in 1862
1013
False
Who authored research supporting insect mimicry  using natural selection?
5727ccc72ca10214002d96ac
Henry Walter Bates
1144
False
Scientific readers were already aware of arguments that species changed through processes that were subject to laws of nature, but the transmutational ideas of Lamarck and the vague "law of development" of Vestiges had not found scientific favour. Darwin presented natural selection as a scientifically testable mechanism while accepting that other mechanisms such as inheritance of acquired characters were possible. His strategy established that evolution through natural laws was worthy of scientific study, and by 1875, most scientists accepted that evolution occurred but few thought natural selection was significant. Darwin's scientific method was also disputed, with his proponents favouring the empiricism of John Stuart Mill's A System of Logic, while opponents held to the idealist school of William Whewell's Philosophy of the Inductive Sciences, in which investigation could begin with the intuitive truth that species were fixed objects created by design. Early support for Darwin's ideas came from the findings of field naturalists studying biogeography and ecology, including Joseph Dalton Hooker in 1860, and Asa Gray in 1862. Henry Walter Bates presented research in 1861 that explained insect mimicry using natural selection. Alfred Russel Wallace discussed evidence from his Malay archipelago research, including an 1864 paper with an evolutionary explanation for the Wallace line.
Who supported Darwin's theories on evolution despite it having little impact on his own research?
5727ce204b864d1900163d88
Thomas Henry Huxley
131
False
What did Huxley's 1860 article in the Westminster Review promote?
5727ce204b864d1900163d89
scientific naturalism over natural theology
530
False
Why did Huxley coin the name "Darwinism?"
5727ce204b864d1900163d8a
as part of his efforts to secularise and professionalise science
736
False
What did the morphologist Ernst Haeckel convince Huxley of about comparative anatomy and paleontology?
5727ce204b864d1900163d8b
that comparative anatomy and palaeontology could be used to reconstruct evolutionary genealogies
1027
False
Evolution had less obvious applications to anatomy and morphology, and at first had little impact on the research of the anatomist Thomas Henry Huxley. Despite this, Huxley strongly supported Darwin on evolution; though he called for experiments to show whether natural selection could form new species, and questioned if Darwin's gradualism was sufficient without sudden leaps to cause speciation. Huxley wanted science to be secular, without religious interference, and his article in the April 1860 Westminster Review promoted scientific naturalism over natural theology, praising Darwin for "extending the domination of Science over regions of thought into which she has, as yet, hardly penetrated" and coining the term "Darwinism" as part of his efforts to secularise and professionalise science. Huxley gained influence, and initiated the X Club, which used the journal Nature to promote evolution and naturalism, shaping much of late Victorian science. Later, the German morphologist Ernst Haeckel would convince Huxley that comparative anatomy and palaeontology could be used to reconstruct evolutionary genealogies.
Who was the leading naturalist in Britain?
5727cf924b864d1900163dae
Richard Owen,
52
False
How did Owen respond to On the Origin of Species with his review?
5727cf924b864d1900163daf
bitterly attacked Huxley, Hooker and Darwin, but also signalled acceptance of a kind of evolution as a teleological plan in a continuous "ordained becoming"
251
False
What was the debate between Huxley and Owen concerning humans and apes?
5727cf924b864d1900163db0
Huxley had emphasised anatomical similarities between apes and humans, contesting Owen's view that humans were a separate sub-class
612
False
What was the primary debate at the British Association for the Advancement of Science meeting of 1860?
5727cf924b864d1900163db1
legendary 1860 Oxford evolution debate
880
False
When did Darwin publish his own explanation of the question of the evolution of man and ape?
5727cf924b864d1900163db2
Darwin published his own explanation in the Descent of Man (1871)
1410
False
The leading naturalist in Britain was the anatomist Richard Owen, an idealist who had shifted to the view in the 1850s that the history of life was the gradual unfolding of a divine plan. Owen's review of the Origin in the April 1860 Edinburgh Review bitterly attacked Huxley, Hooker and Darwin, but also signalled acceptance of a kind of evolution as a teleological plan in a continuous "ordained becoming", with new species appearing by natural birth. Others that rejected natural selection, but supported "creation by birth", included the Duke of Argyll who explained beauty in plumage by design. Since 1858, Huxley had emphasised anatomical similarities between apes and humans, contesting Owen's view that humans were a separate sub-class. Their disagreement over human origins came to the fore at the British Association for the Advancement of Science meeting featuring the legendary 1860 Oxford evolution debate. In two years of acrimonious public dispute that Charles Kingsley satirised as the "Great Hippocampus Question" and parodied in The Water-Babies as the "great hippopotamus test", Huxley showed that Owen was incorrect in asserting that ape brains lacked a structure present in human brains. Others, including Charles Lyell and Alfred Russel Wallace, thought that humans shared a common ancestor with apes, but higher mental faculties could not have evolved through a purely material process. Darwin published his own explanation in the Descent of Man (1871).
While evolutionary ideas were accepted by German biologists, what was not?
5727d08a2ca10214002d9734
natural selection
33
False
What led to more misgivings of conservative scientists when Bronn's German translation of On the Origin of Species was published?
5727d08a2ca10214002d9735
Bronn's alterations in his German translation added to the misgivings of conservatives
225
False
Which group of people was excited by the German translation of On the Origin of Species?
5727d08a2ca10214002d9736
political radicals
326
False
Why were political radicals such as Ernst Haekel so interested in On the Origin of Species?
5727d08a2ca10214002d9737
aiming to synthesise Darwin's ideas with those of Lamarck and Goethe while still reflecting the spirit of Naturphilosophie
385
False
Evolutionary ideas, although not natural selection, were accepted by German biologists accustomed to ideas of homology in morphology from Goethe's Metamorphosis of Plants and from their long tradition of comparative anatomy. Bronn's alterations in his German translation added to the misgivings of conservatives, but enthused political radicals. Ernst Haeckel was particularly ardent, aiming to synthesise Darwin's ideas with those of Lamarck and Goethe while still reflecting the spirit of Naturphilosophie. Their ambitious programme to reconstruct the evolutionary history of life was joined by Huxley and supported by discoveries in palaeontology. Haeckel used embryology extensively in his recapitulation theory, which embodied a progressive, almost linear model of evolution. Darwin was cautious about such histories, and had already noted that von Baer's laws of embryology supported his idea of complex branching.
What was the general feeling toward Darwin's ideas in France?
5727d1caff5b5019007d960a
Darwin's ideas had little impact in France, where any scientists supporting evolutionary ideas opted for a form of Lamarckism
132
False
What people in what country had embraced the idea of evolution for many years before Darwin published his theory?
5727d1caff5b5019007d960b
The intelligentsia in Russia
259
False
Which aspects of evolution theory were thought to be unimportant by many who read Darwin's work?
5727d1caff5b5019007d960c
the Malthusian aspects
455
False
Which author voiced his displeasure of the morality of Darwin's views in a novel?
5727d1caff5b5019007d960d
Leo Tolstoy
611
False
French-speaking naturalists in several countries showed appreciation of the much modified French translation by Clémence Royer, but Darwin's ideas had little impact in France, where any scientists supporting evolutionary ideas opted for a form of Lamarckism. The intelligentsia in Russia had accepted the general phenomenon of evolution for several years before Darwin had published his theory, and scientists were quick to take it into account, although the Malthusian aspects were felt to be relatively unimportant. The political economy of struggle was criticised as a British stereotype by Karl Marx and by Leo Tolstoy, who had the character Levin in his novel Anna Karenina voice sharp criticism of the morality of Darwin's views.
What justification for his objections to the process of natural selection did Karl von Nägel give?
5727d5053acd2414000ded97
insistence that a trivial characteristic with no adaptive advantage could not be developed by selection
140
False
What was Darwin's concession to Karl von Nägel's objections?
5727d5053acd2414000ded98
Darwin conceded that these could be linked to adaptive characteristics
245
False
Who disputed Darwin's estimate that the age of the earth allowed gradual evolution of species?
5727d5053acd2414000ded99
William Thomson
398
False
What were William Thomson's reasons for disputing Darwin's estimate?
5727d5053acd2414000ded9a
calculated that it had cooled in less than 100 million years
457
False
When were the problems of the earth and heredity resolved?
5727d5053acd2414000ded9b
in the 20th century
970
False
There were serious scientific objections to the process of natural selection as the key mechanism of evolution, including Karl von Nägeli's insistence that a trivial characteristic with no adaptive advantage could not be developed by selection. Darwin conceded that these could be linked to adaptive characteristics. His estimate that the age of the Earth allowed gradual evolution was disputed by William Thomson (later awarded the title Lord Kelvin), who calculated that it had cooled in less than 100 million years. Darwin accepted blending inheritance, but Fleeming Jenkin calculated that as it mixed traits, natural selection could not accumulate useful traits. Darwin tried to meet these objections in the 5th edition. Mivart supported directed evolution, and compiled scientific and religious objections to natural selection. In response, Darwin made considerable changes to the sixth edition. The problems of the age of the Earth and heredity were only resolved in the 20th century.
Why did most scientists accept the validity of evolution by the 1870s, but considered natural selection a minor part of it?
5727d633ff5b5019007d967c
they believed evolution was purposeful and progressive.
105
False
What was meant by the term saltationism?
5727d633ff5b5019007d967d
new species were thought to arise through "jumps" rather than gradual adaptation
272
False
What is the term for the belief that species have a tendency to change and adapt in a certain direction?
5727d633ff5b5019007d967e
orthogenesis
363
False
What was the minority view on evolution that was believed by August Weismann?
5727d633ff5b5019007d967f
neo-Darwinism
650
False
What rediscovered inheritance was thought to invalidate Darwin's views on evolution?
5727d633ff5b5019007d9680
Mendelian inheritance
704
False
By the mid-1870s, most scientists accepted evolution, but relegated natural selection to a minor role as they believed evolution was purposeful and progressive. The range of evolutionary theories during "the eclipse of Darwinism" included forms of "saltationism" in which new species were thought to arise through "jumps" rather than gradual adaptation, forms of orthogenesis claiming that species had an inherent tendency to change in a particular direction, and forms of neo-Lamarckism in which inheritance of acquired characteristics led to progress. The minority view of August Weismann, that natural selection was the only mechanism, was called neo-Darwinism. It was thought that the rediscovery of Mendelian inheritance invalidated Darwin's views.
Who believed that action needed to be taken to level out the social and economic playing field before natural selection could occur to improve humanity?
5727d7e3ff5b5019007d96b6
Alfred Russel Wallace
163
False
Which political commentary attempted to widen the idea of natural selection to include competition between different races of people and countries?
5727d7e3ff5b5019007d96b7
Walter Bagehot's Physics and Politics (1872)
381
False
Why were some political commentaries attempting to attach natural selection to human races?
5727d7e3ff5b5019007d96b8
to provide scientific evidence for the superiority of Caucasians over non white races and justify European imperialism
634
False
What uses of his ideology did Darwin object to being used?
5727d7e3ff5b5019007d96b9
to justify military aggression and unethical business practices
1101
False
What theory about humanity did Darwin oppose?
5727d7e3ff5b5019007d96ba
he opposed polygenism, the idea that human races were fundamentally distinct and did not share a recent common ancestry.
1224
False
While some, like Spencer, used analogy from natural selection as an argument against government intervention in the economy to benefit the poor, others, including Alfred Russel Wallace, argued that action was needed to correct social and economic inequities to level the playing field before natural selection could improve humanity further. Some political commentaries, including Walter Bagehot's Physics and Politics (1872), attempted to extend the idea of natural selection to competition between nations and between human races. Such ideas were incorporated into what was already an ongoing effort by some working in anthropology to provide scientific evidence for the superiority of Caucasians over non white races and justify European imperialism. Historians write that most such political and economic commentators had only a superficial understanding of Darwin's scientific theory, and were as strongly influenced by other concepts about social progress and evolution, such as the Lamarckian ideas of Spencer and Haeckel, as they were by Darwin's work. Darwin objected to his ideas being used to justify military aggression and unethical business practices as he believed morality was part of fitness in humans, and he opposed polygenism, the idea that human races were fundamentally distinct and did not share a recent common ancestry.
What view did Louis Agassiz have of On the Origin of Species?
5727db08ff5b5019007d96f2
strongly opposed to the ideas in the book
87
False
What view did some clergymen in the Church of England take of the theory of natural selection?
5727db08ff5b5019007d96f3
interpreted natural selection as an instrument of God's design
253
False
What did Darwin do to show that he admired the cleric Charles Kingsley?
5727db08ff5b5019007d96f4
Darwin quoted Kingsley as "a celebrated cleric", and added the phrase "by the Creator" to the closing sentence,
441
False
What did some commentators think about Darwin changing the phrasing in his book?
5727db08ff5b5019007d96f5
some commentators have taken this as a concession to religion that Darwin later regretted
693
False
What were Darwin's views on the part of God in his theory?
5727db08ff5b5019007d96f6
Darwin's view at the time was of God creating life through the laws of nature
784
False
Natural theology was not a unified doctrine, and while some such as Louis Agassiz were strongly opposed to the ideas in the book, others sought a reconciliation in which evolution was seen as purposeful. In the Church of England, some liberal clergymen interpreted natural selection as an instrument of God's design, with the cleric Charles Kingsley seeing it as "just as noble a conception of Deity". In the second edition of January 1860, Darwin quoted Kingsley as "a celebrated cleric", and added the phrase "by the Creator" to the closing sentence, which from then on read "life, with its several powers, having been originally breathed by the Creator into a few forms or into one". While some commentators have taken this as a concession to religion that Darwin later regretted, Darwin's view at the time was of God creating life through the laws of nature, and even in the first edition there are several references to "creation".
What was Baden Powell's opinion of On the Origin of Species?
5727dc042ca10214002d982e
Baden Powell praised "Mr Darwin's masterly volume [supporting] the grand principle of the self-evolving powers of nature"
0
False
What did the pamphlet that Asa Gray published defend?
5727dc042ca10214002d982f
defending the book in terms of theistic evolution, Natural Selection is not inconsistent with Natural Theology.
263
False
What was a way that theologians compromised with the information in Darwin's book?
5727dc042ca10214002d9830
Theistic evolution became a popular compromise
375
False
What was later realized that caused naturalistic mechanisms such as neo-Lamarckism to be embraced?
5727dc042ca10214002d9831
supernatural intervention could not be a scientific explanation
568
False
Baden Powell praised "Mr Darwin's masterly volume [supporting] the grand principle of the self-evolving powers of nature". In America, Asa Gray argued that evolution is the secondary effect, or modus operandi, of the first cause, design, and published a pamphlet defending the book in terms of theistic evolution, Natural Selection is not inconsistent with Natural Theology. Theistic evolution became a popular compromise, and St. George Jackson Mivart was among those accepting evolution but attacking Darwin's naturalistic mechanism. Eventually it was realised that supernatural intervention could not be a scientific explanation, and naturalistic mechanisms such as neo-Lamarckism were favoured over natural selection as being more compatible with purpose.
How did people attempt to rationalize or reconcile the concept of natural selection?
5727dd4d3acd2414000dee5d
by supposing there was some supernatural intervention on the path leading to humans
285
False
Which scientist argued that Darwinism was atheism?
5727dd4d3acd2414000dee5e
Charles Hodge
531
False
What controversy around Darwin's book began in the 1920s?
5727dd4d3acd2414000dee5f
the American creation–evolution controversy
967
False
What official position did the Vatican take on the subject of evolution in 1950?
5727dd4d3acd2414000dee60
The Vatican stated its official position in a 1950 papal encyclical, which held that evolution was not inconsistent with Catholic teaching.
1300
False
Even though the book had barely hinted at human evolution, it quickly became central to the debate as mental and moral qualities were seen as spiritual aspects of the immaterial soul, and it was believed that animals did not have spiritual qualities. This conflict could be reconciled by supposing there was some supernatural intervention on the path leading to humans, or viewing evolution as a purposeful and progressive ascent to mankind's position at the head of nature. While many conservative theologians accepted evolution, Charles Hodge argued in his 1874 critique "What is Darwinism?" that "Darwinism", defined narrowly as including rejection of design, was atheism though he accepted that Asa Gray did not reject design. Asa Gray responded that this charge misrepresented Darwin's text. By the early 20th century, four noted authors of The Fundamentals were explicitly open to the possibility that God created through evolution, but fundamentalism inspired the American creation–evolution controversy that began in the 1920s. Some conservative Roman Catholic writers and influential Jesuits opposed evolution in the late 19th and early 20th century, but other Catholic writers, starting with Mivart, pointed out that early Church Fathers had not interpreted Genesis literally in this area. The Vatican stated its official position in a 1950 papal encyclical, which held that evolution was not inconsistent with Catholic teaching.
What branching common descent theory has become the most unifying one of the life sciences?
5727de2c4b864d1900163edc
Darwin's theory of evolution
49
False
What does the theory of evolution explain about living organisms?
5727de2c4b864d1900163edd
The theory explains the diversity of living organisms and their adaptation to the environment.
207
False
In what fields has Darwin's theory of evolution become particularly essential?
5727de2c4b864d1900163ede
medicine and agriculture
564
False
What kind of controversy has begun within school systems about Darwin's theory?
5727de2c4b864d1900163edf
a religion-based political controversy
624
False
Modern evolutionary theory continues to develop. Darwin's theory of evolution by natural selection, with its tree-like model of branching common descent, has become the unifying theory of the life sciences. The theory explains the diversity of living organisms and their adaptation to the environment. It makes sense of the geologic record, biogeography, parallels in embryonic development, biological homologies, vestigiality, cladistics, phylogenetics and other fields, with unrivalled explanatory power; it has also become essential to applied sciences such as medicine and agriculture. Despite the scientific consensus, a religion-based political controversy has developed over how evolution is taught in schools, especially in the United States.
What kinds of things have been done by scholars interested in Darwin's work?
5727df293acd2414000dee91
scholars have generated an extensive literature, the Darwin Industry, about his life and work.
45
False
What has been created in 1959 and filled with information about changes in every edition of On the Origin of Species?
5727df293acd2414000dee92
a variorum
210
False
What was done on the 150th anniversary of the publication of On the Origin of Species?
5727df293acd2414000dee93
Worldwide commemorations
359
False
What were the celebrants honoring with their commemorations?
5727df293acd2414000dee94
They celebrated the ideas which "over the last 150 years have revolutionised our understanding of nature and our place within it".
519
False
Interest in Darwin's writings continues, and scholars have generated an extensive literature, the Darwin Industry, about his life and work. The text of Origin itself has been subject to much analysis including a variorum, detailing the changes made in every edition, first published in 1959, and a concordance, an exhaustive external index published in 1981. Worldwide commemorations of the 150th anniversary of the publication of On the Origin of Species and the bicentenary of Darwin's birth were scheduled for 2009. They celebrated the ideas which "over the last 150 years have revolutionised our understanding of nature and our place within it".
Dissolution_of_the_Soviet_Union
On what date did the Soviet Union dissolve?
57276dd7708984140094dd51
December 26, 1991
60
False
What entity was created in place of the Soviet Union?
57276dd7708984140094dd52
Commonwealth of Independent States
287
False
Who was president of the Soviet Union when it came to an end?
57276dd7708984140094dd53
Mikhail Gorbachev,
438
False
Who became president of Russia after Gorbachev left office?
57276dd7708984140094dd54
Boris Yeltsin
660
False
Which flag replaced the Soviet flag at the Kremlin?
57276dd7708984140094dd55
pre-revolutionary Russian flag.
787
False
The dissolution of the Soviet Union was formally enacted on December 26, 1991, as a result of the declaration no. 142-Н of the Soviet of the Republics of the Supreme Soviet of the Soviet Union. The declaration acknowledged the independence of the former Soviet republics and created the Commonwealth of Independent States (CIS), although five of the signatories ratified it much later or not at all. On the previous day, Soviet President Mikhail Gorbachev, the eighth and last leader of the Soviet Union, resigned, declared his office extinct, and handed over its powers – including control of the Soviet nuclear missile launching codes – to Russian President Boris Yeltsin. That evening at 7:32 p.m., the Soviet flag was lowered from the Kremlin for the last time and replaced with the pre-revolutionary Russian flag.
Who was General Secretary prior to Mikhail Gorbachev?
57276ef15951b619008f89c3
Konstantin Chernenko
114
False
What caused Chernenko to leave office?
57276ef15951b619008f89c4
death
137
False
How old was Gorbachev when he was elected as the General Secretary?
57276ef15951b619008f89c5
54
170
False
What entity was responsible for Gorbachev's being elected?
57276ef15951b619008f89c6
Politburo
205
False
To which two people did Gorbachev grant membership into the Politburo for his own reasons?
57276ef15951b619008f89c7
Yegor Ligachev and Nikolai Ryzhkov,
559
False
Mikhail Gorbachev was elected General Secretary by the Politburo on March 11, 1985, three hours after predecessor Konstantin Chernenko's death at age 73. Gorbachev, aged 54, was the youngest member of the Politburo. His initial goal as general secretary was to revive the Soviet economy, and he realized that doing so would require reforming underlying political and social structures. The reforms began with personnel changes of senior Brezhnev-era officials who would impede political and economic change. On April 23, 1985, Gorbachev brought two protégés, Yegor Ligachev and Nikolai Ryzhkov, into the Politburo as full members. He kept the "power" ministries happy by promoting KGB Head Viktor Chebrikov from candidate to full member and appointing Minister of Defence Marshal Sergei Sokolov as a Politburo candidate.
What were some of the downsides of the more liberal Soviet Union?
57277a72708984140094deb1
nationalist movements and ethnic disputes
39
False
In which country did Warsaw Pact regime remain in place?
57277a72708984140094deb2
Romania
243
False
What party did Gorbachev belong to?
57277a72708984140094deb3
Communist Party
432
False
What was the name of the legislative body that was brought into existance in 1989?
57277a72708984140094deb4
Congress of People's Deputies
551
False
When were opposition parties first allowed in the Soviet Union?
57277a72708984140094deb5
1990
647
False
This liberalization, however, fostered nationalist movements and ethnic disputes within the Soviet Union. It also led indirectly to the revolutions of 1989, in which Soviet-imposed communist regimes of the Warsaw Pact were peacefully toppled (Romania excepted), which in turn increased pressure on Gorbachev to introduce greater democracy and autonomy for the Soviet Union's constituent republics. Under Gorbachev's leadership, the Communist Party of the Soviet Union in 1989 introduced limited competitive elections to a new central legislature, the Congress of People's Deputies (although the ban on other political parties was not lifted until 1990).
When was Gorbachev's speech addressing alcohol abuse?
57277b69dd62a815002e9e28
May 1985
3
False
Other than increasing pricing what was another measure that was introduced to decrease alcohol consumption?
57277b69dd62a815002e9e29
rationing
282
False
What was censored?
57277b69dd62a815002e9e2a
drinking scenes from old movies
558
False
Whose anti-alcohol program did Gorbachev's remind people of?
57277b69dd62a815002e9e2b
Tsar Nicholas II
641
False
When did Tsar Nicholas II ban alcohol?
57277b69dd62a815002e9e2c
during World War I,
681
False
In May 1985, Gorbachev delivered a speech in Leningrad advocating reforms and an anti-alcohol campaign to tackle widespread alcoholism. Prices on vodka, wine, and beer were raised in order to make these drinks more expensive and a disincentive to consumers, and the introduction of rationing. Unlike most forms of rationing intended to conserve scarce goods, this was done to restrict sales with the overt goal of curtailing drunkenness. Gorbachev's plan also included billboards promoting sobriety, increased penalties for public drunkenness, and to censor drinking scenes from old movies. Although this program was not a direct copycat of Tsar Nicholas II's outright prohibition during World War I, Gorbachev faced the same adverse economic reaction as did the last Tsar. The disincentivization of alcohol consumption was a serious blow to the state budget according to Alexander Yakovlev, who noted annual collections of alcohol taxes decreased by 100 billion rubles. Alcohol production migrated to the black market, or through moonshining as some made "bathtub vodka" with homegrown potatoes. Poorer, less educated Russians resorted to drinking unhealthy substitutes such as nail polish, rubbing alcohol or men's cologne, which only served to be an additional burden on Russia's healthcare sector due to the subsequent poisoning cases. The purpose of these reforms, however, was to prop up the existing centrally planned economy, unlike later reforms, which tended toward market socialism.
When did Eduard Shevardnadze gain full membership in the Politburo?
57277c5ef1498d1400e8f976
July 1, 1985
3
False
Who was responsible for Shevardnadze's membership?
57277c5ef1498d1400e8f977
Gorbachev
17
False
Who was minister of foreign affairs prior to Shevardnadze?
57277c5ef1498d1400e8f978
Andrei Gromyko
240
False
What was Gromyko's western nickname?
57277c5ef1498d1400e8f979
"Mr Nyet"
282
False
Which person did Gorbachev kick out of the Politburo on the first of July?
57277c5ef1498d1400e8f97a
Grigory Romanov
631
False
On July 1, 1985, Gorbachev promoted Eduard Shevardnadze, First Secretary of the Georgian Communist Party, to full member of the Politburo, and the following day appointed him minister of foreign affairs, replacing longtime Foreign Minister Andrei Gromyko. The latter, disparaged as "Mr Nyet" in the West, had served for 28 years as Minister of Foreign Affairs. Gromyko was relegated to the largely ceremonial position of Chairman of the Presidium of the Supreme Soviet (officially Soviet Head of State), as he was considered an "old thinker." Also on July 1, Gorbachev took the opportunity to dispose of his main rival by removing Grigory Romanov from the Politburo, and brought Boris Yeltsin and Lev Zaikov into the CPSU Central Committee Secretariat.
Who became Chairman of the Council of Ministers in 1985?
572786a8708984140094dff5
Nikolai Ryzhkov
115
False
Who was Chairman of the Council of Ministers prior to Ryzhkov?
572786a8708984140094dff6
Nikolai Tikhonov
152
False
How old was Tikhonov when he stopped being Chairman?
572786a8708984140094dff7
79-year-old
140
False
What is an analogous office to Chairman of the Council of Ministers?
572786a8708984140094dff8
chairman of the State Planning Committee
313
False
Who was the new chairman of the State Planning Committee in 1985?
572786a8708984140094dff9
Nikolai Talyzin
268
False
In the fall of 1985, Gorbachev continued to bring younger and more energetic men into government. On September 27, Nikolai Ryzhkov replaced 79-year-old Nikolai Tikhonov as Chairman of the Council of Ministers, effectively the Soviet prime minister, and on October 14, Nikolai Talyzin replaced Nikolai Baibakov as chairman of the State Planning Committee (GOSPLAN). At the next Central Committee meeting on October 15, Tikhonov retired from the Politburo and Talyzin became a candidate. Finally, on December 23, 1985, Gorbachev appointed Yeltsin First Secretary of the Moscow Communist Party replacing Viktor Grishin.
Who created the CTAG?
57278722dd62a815002e9f90
Linards Grantiņš, Raimonds Bitenieks, and Mārtiņš Bariss.
171
False
What group was the first to oppose the Soviet government publicly?
57278722dd62a815002e9f91
Helsinki-86
301
False
What party was Helsinki-86 in disagreement with?
57278722dd62a815002e9f92
Communist
339
False
The CTAG (Latvian: Cilvēktiesību aizstāvības grupa, Human Rights Defense Group) Helsinki-86 was founded in July 1986 in the Latvian port town of Liepāja by three workers: Linards Grantiņš, Raimonds Bitenieks, and Mārtiņš Bariss. Its name refers to the human-rights statements of the Helsinki Accords. Helsinki-86 was the first openly anti-Communist organization in the U.S.S.R., and the first openly organized opposition to the Soviet regime, setting an example for other ethnic minorities' pro-independence movements.[citation needed]
What is the English translation of the word Jeltoqsan?
57278815f1498d1400e8fb16
December
29
False
Who was fired by Gorbachev causing riots?
57278815f1498d1400e8fb17
Dinmukhamed Konayev
120
False
What position did Konayev hold in Kazakhstan prior to his removal?
57278815f1498d1400e8fb18
First Secretary of the Communist Party
145
False
Who took the place of Konayev?
57278815f1498d1400e8fb19
Gennady Kolbin
242
False
When were the first demonstrations in Kazakhstan to protest the removal and replacement of Konayev?
57278815f1498d1400e8fb1a
December 17, 1986
334
False
The "Jeltoqsan" (Kazakh for "December") of 1986 were riots in Alma-Ata, Kazakhstan, sparked by Gorbachev's dismissal of Dinmukhamed Konayev, the First Secretary of the Communist Party of Kazakhstan and an ethnic Kazakh, who was replaced with Gennady Kolbin, an outsider from the Russian SFSR. Demonstrations started in the morning of December 17, 1986, with 200 to 300 students in front of the Central Committee building on Brezhnev Square protesting Konayev's dismissal and replacement by a Russian. Protesters swelled to 1,000 to 5,000 as other students joined the crowd. The CPK Central Committee ordered troops from the Ministry of Internal Affairs, druzhiniki (volunteers), cadets, policemen, and the KGB to cordon the square and videotape the participants. The situation escalated around 5 p.m., as troops were ordered to disperse the protesters. Clashes between the security forces and the demonstrators continued throughout the night in Almaty.
Who was demonstrating?
5727891b708984140094e031
Kazakh students
122
False
How many people were estimated by authorities to have attended the riots?
5727891b708984140094e032
3,000
421
False
What were the attendance estimates from non governmental groups?
5727891b708984140094e033
30,000 to 40,000
467
False
How did the Kazakh SSR government say the two protesters were killed?
5727891b708984140094e034
blows to the head
796
False
Who wrote about the KGB officer's testimony?
5727891b708984140094e035
Mukhtar Shakhanov
1093
False
On the next day, December 18, protests turned into civil unrest as clashes between troops, volunteers, militia units, and Kazakh students turned into a wide-scale confrontation. The clashes could only be controlled on the third day. The Almaty events were followed by smaller protests and demonstrations in Shymkent, Pavlodar, Karaganda, and Taldykorgan. Reports from Kazakh SSR authorities estimated that the riots drew 3,000 people. Other estimates are of at least 30,000 to 40,000 protestors with 5,000 arrested and jailed, and an unknown number of casualties. Jeltoqsan leaders say over 60,000 Kazakhs participated in the protests. According to the Kazakh SSR government, there were two deaths during the riots, including a volunteer police worker and a student. Both of them had died due to blows to the head. About 100 others were detained and several others were sentenced to terms in labor camps. Sources cited by the Library of Congress claimed that at least 200 people died or were summarily executed soon thereafter; some accounts estimate casualties at more than 1,000. The writer Mukhtar Shakhanov claimed that a KGB officer testified that 168 protesters were killed, but that figure remains unconfirmed.
Whose support did Gorbachev seek in order to increase liberties?
57278b875951b619008f8d01
the people's
366
False
What party was Gorbachev in charge of?
57278b875951b619008f8d02
Communist
282
False
What group wanted to stop reforms?
57278b875951b619008f8d03
"conservatives."
531
False
Gorbachev also radically expanded the scope of Glasnost, stating that no subject was off-limits for open discussion in the media. Even so, the cautious Soviet intelligentsia took almost a year to begin pushing the boundaries to see if he meant what he said. For the first time, the Communist Party leader had appealed over the heads of Central Committee members for the people's support in exchange for expansion of liberties. The tactic proved successful: Within two years political reform could no longer be sidetracked by Party "conservatives." An unintended consequence was that having saved reform, Gorbachev's move ultimately killed the very system it was designed to save.
When were the prisoners set free?
57278c7b5951b619008f8d21
February 7, 1987,
3
False
What sort of prisoners were released?
57278c7b5951b619008f8d22
political
31
False
Who demonstrated close to the Kremlin in July of 1978?
57278c7b5951b619008f8d23
Crimean Tatars
506
False
Prior to 1987 when was the last large release of prisoners?
57278c7b5951b619008f8d24
mid-1950s.
122
False
Who released the prisoners in the 1950s?
57278c7b5951b619008f8d25
Khrushchev's
95
False
On February 7, 1987, dozens of political prisoners were freed in the first group release since Khrushchev's "thaw" in the mid-1950s. On May 6, 1987, Pamyat, a Russian nationalist group, held an unsanctioned demonstration in Moscow. The authorities did not break up the demonstration and even kept traffic out of the demonstrators' way while they marched to an impromptu meeting with Boris Yeltsin, head of the Moscow Communist Party and at the time one of Gorbachev's closest allies. On July 25, 1987, 300 Crimean Tatars staged a noisy demonstration near the Kremlin Wall for several hours, calling for the right to return to their homeland, from which they were deported in 1944; police and soldiers merely looked on.
Who disagreed vocally about the demonstrations being permitted?
572790d55951b619008f8dad
Yegor Ligachev
54
False
Who resigned in September of 1987?
572790d55951b619008f8dae
Boris Yeltsin
148
False
What was Gorbachev's reaction to Yeltsin's resignation?
572790d55951b619008f8daf
stunned
262
False
What did Yeltsin dislike about the reforms?
572790d55951b619008f8db0
slow pace
518
False
Who took Yeltsin's side?
572790d55951b619008f8db1
No one
870
False
On September 10, 1987, after a lecture from hardliner Yegor Ligachev at the Politburo for allowing these two unsanctioned demonstrations in Moscow, Boris Yeltsin wrote a letter of resignation to Gorbachev, who had been holidaying on the Black Sea. Gorbachev was stunned – no one had ever voluntarily resigned from the Politburo. At the October 27, 1987, plenary meeting of the Central Committee, Yeltsin, frustrated that Gorbachev had not addressed any of the issues outlined in his resignation letter, criticized the slow pace of reform, servility to the general secretary, and opposition from Ligachev that had led to his (Yeltsin's) resignation. No one had ever addressed the Party leader so brazenly in front of the Central Committee since Leon Trotsky in the 1920s. In his reply, Gorbachev accused Yeltsin of "political immaturity" and "absolute irresponsibility." No one backed Yeltsin.
Where did the demonstrators meet in June of 1987?
572791e9dd62a815002ea0a8
Freedom Monument
55
False
Where is Freedom Monument?
572791e9dd62a815002ea0a9
Riga
75
False
What did the protesters do?
572791e9dd62a815002ea0aa
laid flowers
85
False
Who were the protesters remembering?
572791e9dd62a815002ea0ab
Latvians
161
False
Where did further protests take place?
572791e9dd62a815002ea0ac
Baltic States
438
False
On June 14, 1987, about 5,000 people gathered again at Freedom Monument in Riga, and laid flowers to commemorate the anniversary of Stalin's mass deportation of Latvians in 1941. This was the first large demonstration in the Baltic republics to commemorate the anniversary of an event contrary to official Soviet history. The authorities did not crack down on demonstrators, which encouraged more and larger demonstrations throughout the Baltic States. The next major anniversary after the August 23 Molotov Pact demonstration was on November 18, the date of Latvia’s independence in 1918. On November 18, 1987, hundreds of police and civilian militiamen cordoned off the central square to prevent any demonstration at Freedom Monument, but thousands lined the streets of Riga in silent protest regardless.
What was being protested in Estonia?
572792e6dd62a815002ea0d0
new phosphate mines
49
False
When did the phosphate mine protests begin?
572792e6dd62a815002ea0d1
spring 1987
3
False
What group was started by ex-political prisoners?
572792e6dd62a815002ea0d2
MRP-AEG group
385
False
Who was in charge of the MRP-AEG group?
572792e6dd62a815002ea0d3
Tiit Madisson
489
False
What was requested for Estonia in the proposal printed by the Edasi newspaper in 1987?
572792e6dd62a815002ea0d4
autonomy
658
False
In spring 1987, a protest movement arose against new phosphate mines in Estonia. Signatures were collected in Tartu, and students assembled in the university's main hall to express lack of confidence in the government. At a demonstration on May 1, 1987, young people showed up with banners and slogans despite an official ban. On August 15, 1987, former political prisoners formed the MRP-AEG group (Estonians for the Public Disclosure of the Molotov-Ribbentrop Pact), which was headed by Tiit Madisson. In September 1987, the Edasi newspaper published a proposal by Edgar Savisaar, Siim Kallas, Tiit Made, and Mikk Titma calling for Estonia's transition to autonomy. Initially geared toward economic independence, then toward a certain amount of political autonomy, the project, Isemajandav Eesti ("A Self-Managing Estonia") became known according to its Estonian acronym, IME, which means "miracle". On October 21, a demonstration dedicated to those who gave their lives in the 1918–1920 Estonian War of Independence took place in Võru, which culminated in a conflict with the militia. For the first time in years, the blue, black, and white national tricolor was publicly displayed.
When was the Yerevan demonstration?
572794d5dd62a815002ea110
October 17, 1987
3
False
How many people demonstrated?
572794d5dd62a815002ea111
about 3,000
21
False
What was the demonstrators' nationality?
572794d5dd62a815002ea112
Armenians
33
False
The protesters were unhappy with the pollution in what body of water?
572794d5dd62a815002ea113
Lake Sevan
102
False
Where did the protest march start?
572794d5dd62a815002ea114
Opera Plaza
491
False
On October 17, 1987, about 3,000 Armenians demonstrated in Yerevan complaining about the condition of Lake Sevan, the Nairit chemicals plant, and the Metsamor Nuclear Power Plant, and air pollution in Yerevan. Police tried to prevent the protest but took no action to stop it once the march was underway. The demonstration was led by Armenian writers such as Silva Kaputikian, Zori Balayan, and Maro Margarian and leaders from the National Survival organization. The march originated at the Opera Plaza after speakers, mainly intellectuals, addressed the crowd.
What ws the final day of the 19th Party Conference?
57279587708984140094e18d
July 1, 1988
3
False
What did Gorbachev hope to create?
57279587708984140094e18e
new supreme legislative body
168
False
What was Gorbachev trying to separate?
57279587708984140094e18f
party and state
354
False
What was the proposed legislative body called?
57279587708984140094e190
Congress of People's Deputies
456
False
What was the ideology of Gorbachev's opponents?
57279587708984140094e191
conservative
395
False
On July 1, 1988, the fourth and last day of a bruising 19th Party Conference, Gorbachev won the backing of the tired delegates for his last-minute proposal to create a new supreme legislative body called the Congress of People's Deputies. Frustrated by the old guard's resistance, Gorbachev embarked on a set of constitutional changes to try to separate party and state, and thereby isolate his conservative Party opponents. Detailed proposals for the new Congress of People's Deputies were published on October 2, 1988, and to enable the creation of the new legislature the Supreme Soviet, during its November 29–December 1, 1988, session, implemented amendments to the 1977 Soviet Constitution, enacted a law on electoral reform, and set the date of the election for March 26, 1989.
Whose laws would take precedence according to the declaration of national sovereignty?
5727965bf1498d1400e8fce4
Estonian
383
False
Who claimed Estonia's national resources?
5727965bf1498d1400e8fce5
Estonia's parliament
451
False
What was the name of the group that made its platform known on October 2?
5727965bf1498d1400e8fce6
the Popular Front
14
False
On October 2, the Popular Front formally launched its political platform at a two-day congress. Väljas attended, gambling that the front could help Estonia become a model of economic and political revival, while moderating separatist and other radical tendencies. On November 16, 1988, the Supreme Soviet of the Estonian SSR adopted a declaration of national sovereignty under which Estonian laws would take precedence over those of the Soviet Union. Estonia's parliament also laid claim to the republic's natural resources including land, inland waters, forests, mineral deposits, and to the means of industrial production, agriculture, construction, state banks, transportation, and municipal services within the territory of Estonia's borders.
How many Azerbaijanis died in the Askeran clash?
572798b8708984140094e1c9
two
524
False
When was the Askeran clash?
572798b8708984140094e1ca
February 22, 1988
460
False
Who killed the two Azerbaijanis?
572798b8708984140094e1cb
Karabakh police.
556
False
What was triggered by the radio broadcast of the deaths?
572798b8708984140094e1cc
Sumgait Pogrom
624
False
How many were killed in the ensuing riots?
572798b8708984140094e1cd
32
753
False
In February 20, 1988, after a week of growing demonstrations in Stepanakert, capital of the Nagorno-Karabakh Autonomous Oblast (the Armenian majority area within Azerbaijan Soviet Socialist Republic), the Regional Soviet voted to secede and join with the Soviet Socialist Republic of Armenia. This local vote in a small, remote part of the Soviet Union made headlines around the world; it was an unprecedented defiance of republic and national authorities. On February 22, 1988, in what became known as the "Askeran clash", two Azerbaijanis were killed by Karabakh police. These deaths, announced on state radio, led to the Sumgait Pogrom. Between February 26 and March 1, the city of Sumgait (Azerbaijan) saw violent anti-Armenian rioting during which 32 people were killed. The authorities totally lost control and occupied the city with paratroopers and tanks; nearly all of the 14,000 Armenian residents of Sumgait fled.
Who did Gorbachev make First Secretary of the Azerbaijan Communist Party in 1988?
57279998dd62a815002ea1a4
Abdulrahman Vezirov
223
False
Who was First Secretary prior to Vezirov?
57279998dd62a815002ea1a5
Kamran Baghirov
191
False
How many soldiers died on September 17?
57279998dd62a815002ea1a6
two
589
False
People of what ethnicity were thrown out of Shusha?
57279998dd62a815002ea1a7
Armenian
800
False
How long did the Lenin Square protest last?
57279998dd62a815002ea1a8
18 days
1013
False
Gorbachev refused to make any changes to the status of Nagorno Karabakh, which remained part of Azerbaijan. He instead sacked the Communist Party Leaders in both Republics – on May 21, 1988, Kamran Baghirov was replaced by Abdulrahman Vezirov as First Secretary of the Azerbaijan Communist Party. From July 23 to September 1988, a group of Azerbaijani intellectuals began working for a new organization called the Popular Front of Azerbaijan, loosely based on the Estonian Popular Front. On September 17, when gun battles broke out between the Armenians and Azerbaijanis near Stepanakert, two soldiers were killed and more than two dozen injured. This led to almost tit-for-tat ethnic polarization in Nagorno-Karabakh's two main towns: The Azerbaijani minority was expelled from Stepanakert, and the Armenian minority was expelled from Shusha. On November 17, 1988, in response to the exodus of tens of thousands of Azerbaijanis from Armenia, a series of mass demonstrations began in Baku's Lenin Square, lasting 18 days and attracting half a million demonstrators. On December 5, 1988, the Soviet militia finally moved in, cleared the square by force, and imposed a curfew that lasted ten months.
Where were the first demonstrations in Armenia?
57279a47708984140094e1fb
Yerevan
155
False
What is the capitol of Armenia?
57279a47708984140094e1fc
Yerevan
155
False
How many people protested on February 23?
57279a47708984140094e1fd
300,000,
421
False
What sort of strike was called?
57279a47708984140094e1fe
transport
436
False
What percentage of Armenia's total population protested on February 25?
57279a47708984140094e1ff
about a quarter
529
False
The rebellion of fellow Armenians in Nagorno-Karabakh had an immediate effect in Armenia itself. Daily demonstrations, which began in the Armenian capital Yerevan on February 18, initially attracted few people, but each day the Nagorno-Karabakh issue became increasingly prominent and numbers swelled. On February 20, a 30,000-strong crowd demonstrated in Theater Square, by February 22, there were 100,000, the next day 300,000, and a transport strike was declared, by February 25, there were close to 1 million demonstrators – about a quarter of Armenia's population. This was the first of the large, peaceful public demonstrations that would become a feature of communism's overthrow in Prague, Berlin, and, ultimately, Moscow. Leading Armenian intellectuals and nationalists, including future first President of independent Armenia Levon Ter-Petrossian, formed the eleven-member Karabakh Committee to lead and organize the new movement.
How many protesters died in the airport violence?
57279dfb2ca10214002d922a
one
891
False
Who banned the Azerbaijani people from Armenia?
57279dfb2ca10214002d922b
Nationalists
1124
False
Who had been previously removed from Azerbaijan?
57279dfb2ca10214002d922c
Armenians
1310
False
Who took charge of Yerevan in November of 1988?
57279dfb2ca10214002d922d
a military commandant
1359
False
Gorbachev again refused to make any changes to the status of Nagorno Karabakh, which remained part of Azerbaijan. Instead he sacked both Republics' Communist Party Leaders: On May 21, 1988, Karen Demirchian was replaced by Suren Harutyunyan as First Secretary of the Communist Party of Armenia. However, Harutyunyan quickly decided to run before the nationalist wind and on May 28, allowed Armenians to unfurl the red-blue-gold First Armenian Republic flag for the first time in almost 70 years. On June 15, 1988, the Armenian Supreme Soviet adopted a resolution formally approving the idea of Nagorno Karabakh joining Armenia. Armenia, formerly one of the most loyal Republics, had suddenly turned into the leading rebel republic. On July 5, 1988, when a contingent of troops was sent in to remove demonstrators by force from Yerevan's Zvartnots International Airport, shots were fired and one student protester was killed. In September, further large demonstrations in Yerevan led to the deployment of armored vehicles. In the autumn of 1988 almost all the 200,000 Azerbaijani minority in Armenia was expelled by Armenian Nationalists, with over 100 killed in the process – this, after the Sumgait pogrom earlier that year carried out by Azerbaijanis against ethnic Armenians and subsequent expulsion of all Armenians from Azerbaijan. On November 25, 1988, a military commandant took control of Yerevan as the Soviet government moved to prevent further ethnic violence.
When did the Democratic Movement of Moldova start operating?
5727ccf12ca10214002d96b2
February 1988
13
False
Which monument was a popular meeting place?
5727ccf12ca10214002d96b3
Stephen the Great Monument
250
False
Where was the Stephen the Great Monument located?
5727ccf12ca10214002d96b4
Chişinău
280
False
What did the movement seek to make the official language of Moldova?
5727ccf12ca10214002d96b5
Romanian
706
False
What was Moldova's previous name?
5727ccf12ca10214002d96b6
Moldavia
73
False
Beginning in February 1988, the Democratic Movement of Moldova (formerly Moldavia) organized public meetings, demonstrations, and song festivals, which gradually grew in size and intensity. In the streets, the center of public manifestations was the Stephen the Great Monument in Chişinău, and the adjacent park harboring Aleea Clasicilor (The "Alee of the Classics [of the Literature]"). On January 15, 1988, in a tribute to Mihai Eminescu at his bust on the Aleea Clasicilor, Anatol Şalaru submitted a proposal to continue the meetings. In the public discourse, the movement called for national awakening, freedom of speech, revival of Moldavian traditions, and for attainment of official status for the Romanian language and return to the Latin alphabet. The transition from "movement" (an informal association) to "front" (a formal association) was seen as a natural "upgrade" once a movement gained momentum with the public, and the Soviet authorities no longer dared to crack down on it.
What group was responsible for the April 25, 1988 protest?
5727ce414b864d1900163d90
Ukrainian Cultural Club
77
False
Where did the march happen?
5727ce414b864d1900163d91
Kiev's Khreschatyk Street
104
False
What did the marchers wish to commemorate?
5727ce414b864d1900163d92
Chernobyl nuclear disaster,
168
False
Which group held secret Milleneum of Christianity celebrations?
5727ce414b864d1900163d93
Ukrainian Catholics
296
False
In what city did the Ukrainian Cultural Club have its Millennium celebration?
5727ce414b864d1900163d94
Kiev
623
False
On April 26, 1988, about 500 people participated in a march organized by the Ukrainian Cultural Club on Kiev's Khreschatyk Street to mark the second anniversary of the Chernobyl nuclear disaster, carrying placards with slogans like "Openness and Democracy to the End." Between May and June 1988, Ukrainian Catholics in western Ukraine celebrated the Millennium of Christianity in Kievan Rus' in secret by holding services in the forests of Buniv, Kalush, Hoshiv, and Zarvanytsia. On June 5, 1988, as the official celebrations of the Millennium were held in Moscow, the Ukrainian Cultural Club hosted its own observances in Kiev at the monument to St. Volodymyr the Great, the grand prince of Kievan Rus'.
How many people attended the Lviv rally?
5727cf6dff5b5019007d95b0
50,000
226
False
Where was the dispersal attempt made?
5727cf6dff5b5019007d95b1
in front of Druzhba Stadium
329
False
Who tried to stop the rally?
5727cf6dff5b5019007d95b2
Authorities
285
False
Who led the Millennium celebration in Zarvanytsia?
5727cf6dff5b5019007d95b3
Pavlo Vasylyk
598
False
Who wanted to break up the celebration?
5727cf6dff5b5019007d95b4
militia
617
False
On June 16, 1988, 6,000 to 8,000 people gathered in Lviv to hear speakers declare no confidence in the local list of delegates to the 19th Communist Party conference, to begin on June 29. On June 21, a rally in Lviv attracted 50,000 people who had heard about a revised delegate list. Authorities attempted to disperse the rally in front of Druzhba Stadium. On July 7, 10,000 to 20,000 people witnessed the launch of the Democratic Front to Promote Perestroika. On July 17, a group of 10,000 gathered in the village Zarvanytsia for Millennium services celebrated by Ukrainian Greek-Catholic Bishop Pavlo Vasylyk. The militia tried to disperse attendees, but it turned out to be the largest gathering of Ukrainian Catholics since Stalin outlawed the Church in 1946. On August 4, which came to be known as "Bloody Thursday," local authorities violently suppressed a demonstration organized by the Democratic Front to Promote Perestroika. Forty-one people were detained, fined, or sentenced to 15 days of administrative arrest. On September 1, local authorities violently displaced 5,000 students at a public meeting lacking official permission at Ivan Franko State University.
What is the English translation of Zelenyi Svit?
5727e149ff5b5019007d9768
Green World
238
False
What sort of issues were Zenlenyi Svit and Noosfera concerned with?
5727e149ff5b5019007d9769
ecological
278
False
What sort of organization is Spadschnyna?
5727e149ff5b5019007d976a
cultural heritage
109
False
What did people gather to observe on December 10th?
5727e149ff5b5019007d976b
International Human Rights Day
644
False
On November 13, 1988, approximately 10,000 people attended an officially sanctioned meeting organized by the cultural heritage organization Spadschyna, the Kyiv University student club Hromada, and the environmental groups Zelenyi Svit ("Green World") and Noosfera, to focus on ecological issues. From November 14–18, 15 Ukrainian activists were among the 100 human-, national- and religious-rights advocates invited to discuss human rights with Soviet officials and a visiting delegation of the U.S. Commission on Security and Cooperation in Europe (also known as the Helsinki Commission). On December 10, hundreds gathered in Kiev to observe International Human Rights Day at a rally organized by the Democratic Union. The unauthorized gathering resulted in the detention of local activists.
When did The Partyja BDF start?
5727e3e82ca10214002d98b6
1988
62
False
Who found mass graves?
5727e3e82ca10214002d98b7
Zianon Pazniak
253
False
What is Pazniak's occupation?
5727e3e82ca10214002d98b8
historian
243
False
Where were the graves found?
5727e3e82ca10214002d98b9
Kurapaty
217
False
In addition to the police who did the BDF often have conflicts with?
5727e3e82ca10214002d98ba
KGB
604
False
The Partyja BPF (Belarusian Popular Front) was established in 1988 as a political party and cultural movement for democracy and independence, à la the Baltic republics’ popular fronts. The discovery of mass graves in Kurapaty outside Minsk by historian Zianon Pazniak, the Belarusian Popular Front’s first leader, gave additional momentum to the pro-democracy and pro-independence movement in Belarus. It claimed that the NKVD performed secret killings in Kurapaty. Initially the Front had significant visibility because its numerous public actions almost always ended in clashes with the police and the KGB.
What was elected in 1989?
5727e4a64b864d1900163f70
new Congress of People's Deputies
148
False
Who was questioned on live TV?
5727e4a64b864d1900163f71
Communist leadership
318
False
Where was the Communist government overthrown first?
5727e4a64b864d1900163f72
Warsaw
510
False
When did the Berlin Wall get torn down?
5727e4a64b864d1900163f73
1989
646
False
What did Eastern European people want to do with communism?
5727e4a64b864d1900163f74
abandon it
842
False
Spring 1989 saw the people of the Soviet Union exercising a democratic choice, albeit limited, for the first time since 1917, when they elected the new Congress of People's Deputies. Just as important was the uncensored live TV coverage of the legislature's deliberations, where people witnessed the previously feared Communist leadership being questioned and held accountable. This example fueled a limited experiment with democracy in Poland, which quickly led to the toppling of the Communist government in Warsaw that summer – which in turn sparked uprisings that overthrew communism in the other five Warsaw Pact countries before the end of 1989, the year the Berlin Wall fell. These events showed that the people of Eastern Europe and the Soviet Union did not support Gorbachev's drive to modernize Communism; rather, they preferred to abandon it altogether.
What percentage of people voted on March 26?
5727e58b4b864d1900163f84
89.8%
73
False
How many constituencies had run-off elections?
5727e58b4b864d1900163f85
76
209
False
How many CPSU endorsement having candidates lost to independents?
5727e58b4b864d1900163f86
more than 300
450
False
In the March 26 general elections, voter participation was an impressive 89.8%, and 1,958 (including 1,225 district seats) of the 2,250 CPD seats were filled. In district races, run-off elections were held in 76 constituencies on April 2 and 9 and fresh elections were organized on April 20 and 14 to May 23, in the 199 remaining constituencies where the required absolute majority was not attained. While most CPSU-endorsed candidates were elected, more than 300 lost to independent candidates such as Yeltsin, physicist Andrei Sakharov and lawyer Anatoly Sobchak.
Who used the legislative session to debate and criticize?
57280f144b864d190016435a
reformers
118
False
Who made up the Inter-Regional Deputies Group?
57280f144b864d190016435b
Russian nationalists and liberals.
505
False
When did Yeltsin acquire a seat on the Supreme Soviet?
57280f144b864d190016435c
May 29
344
False
In the first session of the new Congress of People's Deputies, from May 25 to June 9, hardliners retained control but reformers used the legislature as a platform for debate and criticism – which was broadcast live and uncensored. This transfixed the population; nothing like this freewheeling debate had ever been witnessed in the U.S.S.R. On May 29, Yeltsin managed to secure a seat on the Supreme Soviet, and in the summer he formed the first opposition, the Inter-Regional Deputies Group, composed of Russian nationalists and liberals. Composing the final legislative group in the Soviet Union, those elected in 1989 played a vital part in reforms and the eventual breakup of the Soviet Union during the next two years.
What did the Communist Party lose on October 25, 1989 with regards to elections?
57280fdc3acd2414000df36d
special seats
59
False
Who voted to get rid of the special seats?
57280fdc3acd2414000df36e
the Supreme Soviet
21
False
When did congress meet to ratify the amendment to remove special election seats?
57280fdc3acd2414000df36f
December 12–25
438
False
On October 25, 1989, the Supreme Soviet voted to eliminate special seats for the Communist Party and other official organizations in national and local elections, responding to sharp popular criticism that such reserved slots were undemocratic. After vigorous debate, the 542-member Supreme Soviet passed the measure 254-85 (with 36 abstentions). The decision required a constitutional amendment, ratified by the full congress, which met December 12–25. It also passed measures that would allow direct elections for presidents of each of the 15 constituent republics. Gorbachev strongly opposed such a move during debate but was defeated.
What year did the Prague Spring take place?
572811a7ff5b5019007d9c50
1968
491
False
What happened to Prague and Hungary's attempts at independence?
572811a7ff5b5019007d9c51
suppressed by military force
399
False
Under what doctrine was the Soviet Union required to intervene in the Warsaw Pact states?
572811a7ff5b5019007d9c52
Brezhnev Doctrine
546
False
Other than being expensive what was wrong with the Brezhnev Doctrine?
572811a7ff5b5019007d9c53
oppressive
521
False
What is the nickname for Gorbachev's new doctrine?
572811a7ff5b5019007d9c54
Sinatra Doctrine
705
False
The six Warsaw Pact countries of Eastern Europe, while nominally independent, were widely recognized in the international community as the Soviet satellite states. All had been occupied by the Soviet Red Army in 1945, had Soviet-style socialist states imposed upon them, and had very restricted freedom of action in either domestic or international affairs. Any moves towards real independence were suppressed by military force – in the Hungarian Revolution of 1956 and the Prague Spring in 1968. Gorbachev abandoned the oppressive and expensive Brezhnev Doctrine, which mandated intervention in the Warsaw Pact states, in favor of non-intervention in the internal affairs of allies – jokingly termed the Sinatra Doctrine in a reference to the Frank Sinatra song "My Way".
How many people were involved in the Baltic Chain?
57281249ff5b5019007d9c6c
estimated 2 million
217
False
How long was the chain?
57281249ff5b5019007d9c6d
600 kilometres
289
False
What states did the chain extend over?
57281249ff5b5019007d9c6e
Estonia, Latvia and Lithuania
320
False
What anniversary did the chain take place on?
57281249ff5b5019007d9c6f
50th anniversary of the Molotov–Ribbentrop Pact
459
False
What part of Europe was split up by the pact?
57281249ff5b5019007d9c70
Eastern
520
False
The Baltic Way or Baltic Chain (also Chain of Freedom Estonian: Balti kett, Latvian: Baltijas ceļš, Lithuanian: Baltijos kelias, Russian: Балтийский путь) was a peaceful political demonstration on August 23, 1989. An estimated 2 million people joined hands to form a human chain extending 600 kilometres (370 mi) across Estonia, Latvia and Lithuania, which had been forcibly reincorporated into the Soviet Union in 1944. The colossal demonstration marked the 50th anniversary of the Molotov–Ribbentrop Pact that divided Eastern Europe into spheres of influence and led to the occupation of the Baltic states in 1940.
Who was in charge of Lithuania's Communist Party in 1989
57281338ff5b5019007d9c8a
Algirdas Brazauskas
78
False
What party did  Lithuania's Communist Party break apart from?
57281338ff5b5019007d9c8b
Communist Party of the Soviet Union
114
False
Who was in charge of the loyalist faction?
57281338ff5b5019007d9c8c
Mykolas Burokevičius,
298
False
What place's control was the Communist Party of Lithuania out from under after the split?
57281338ff5b5019007d9c8d
Moscow's
452
False
Who visited with the hope of bringing back the Communist Party of Lithuania to the Soviet Party?
57281338ff5b5019007d9c8e
Gorbachev
541
False
On December 7, 1989, the Communist Party of Lithuania under the leadership of Algirdas Brazauskas, split from the Communist Party of the Soviet Union and abandoned its claim to have a constitutional "leading role" in politics. A smaller loyalist faction of the Communist Party, headed by hardliner Mykolas Burokevičius, was established and remained affiliated with the CPSU. However, Lithuania’s governing Communist Party was formally independent from Moscow's control – a first for Soviet Republics and a political earthquake that prompted Gorbachev to arrange a visit to Lithuania the following month in a futile attempt to bring the local party back under control.
When was Abulfaz Elchibey elected to Chairman of the Popular Front?
572813b63acd2414000df3dd
July 16, 1989
3
False
How many protesters filled Lenin Square on August 19th?
572813b63acd2414000df3de
600,000
163
False
What did the protesters want?
572813b63acd2414000df3df
release of political prisoners
244
False
On July 16, 1989, the Popular Front of Azerbaijan held its first congress and elected Abulfaz Elchibey, who would become President, as its Chairman. On August 19, 600,000 protesters jammed Baku’s Lenin Square (now Azadliq Square) to demand the release of political prisoners. In the second half of 1989, weapons were handed out in Nagorno-Karabakh. When Karabakhis got hold of small arms to replace hunting rifles and crossbows, casualties began to mount; bridges were blown up, roads were blockaded, and hostages were taken.
What did the Popular Front do to Armenian railways?
572814fa3acd2414000df407
blockade
65
False
What shortages were caused by the blockade?
572814fa3acd2414000df408
petrol and food
99
False
How much freight into Armenia originated in Azerbaijan?
572814fa3acd2414000df409
85 percent
133
False
When was the sovereignty law passed?
572814fa3acd2414000df40a
September 25
296
False
What in Jalilibad was taken over by the Popular Front?
572814fa3acd2414000df40b
local party offices
663
False
In a new and effective tactic, the Popular Front launched a rail blockade of Armenia, which caused petrol and food shortages because 85 percent of Armenia's freight came from Azerbaijan. Under pressure from the Popular Front the Communist authorities in Azerbaijan started making concessions. On September 25, they passed a sovereignty law that gave precedence to Azerbaijani law, and on October 4, the Popular Front was permitted to register as a legal organization as long as it lifted the blockade. Transport communications between Azerbaijan and Armenia never fully recovered. Tensions continued to escalate and on December 29, Popular Front activists seized local party offices in Jalilabad, wounding dozens.
What did the protesters want Georgia to leave?
572815a13acd2414000df419
Soviet Union
218
False
What did the protesters hope to see become a part of Georgia?
572815a13acd2414000df41a
Abkhazia
239
False
How many people died in the April 9 attack?
572815a13acd2414000df41c
20
343
False
What happened to Georgian politics as a result of the attack?
572815a13acd2414000df41d
radicalized
403
False
On April 7, 1989, Soviet troops and armored personnel carriers were sent to Tbilisi after more than 100,000 people protested in front of Communist Party headquarters with banners calling for Georgia to secede from the Soviet Union and for Abkhazia to be fully integrated into Georgia. On April 9, 1989, troops attacked the demonstrators; some 20 people were killed and more than 200 wounded. This event radicalized Georgian politics, prompting many to conclude that independence was preferable to continued Soviet rule. On April 14, Gorbachev removed Jumber Patiashvili as First Secretary of the Georgian Communist Party and replaced him with former Georgian KGB chief Givi Gumbaridze.
What is commemorated on January 22 in Ukraine?
572816302ca10214002d9d98
Ukrainian Independence Day
37
False
What is a moleben?
572816302ca10214002d9d99
religious service
141
False
Where was the moleben held?
572816302ca10214002d9d9a
in front of St. George's Cathedral.
160
False
In Ukraine, Lviv and Kiev celebrated Ukrainian Independence Day on January 22, 1989. Thousands gathered in Lviv for an unauthorized moleben (religious service) in front of St. George's Cathedral. In Kiev, 60 activists met in a Kiev apartment to commemorate the proclamation of the Ukrainian People's Republic in 1918. On February 11–12, 1989, the Ukrainian Language Society held its founding congress. On February 15, 1989, the formation of the Initiative Committee for the Renewal of the Ukrainian Autocephalous Orthodox Church was announced. The program and statutes of the movement were proposed by the Writers Association of Ukraine and were published in the journal Literaturna Ukraina on February 16, 1989. The organization heralded Ukrainian dissidents such as Vyacheslav Chornovil.
What were people protesting in Kiev during the last part of February?
572816e43acd2414000df439
election laws
73
False
Who did the protesters want to resign?
572816e43acd2414000df43a
Volodymyr Scherbytsky
258
False
What was Scherbytsky's nickname?
572816e43acd2414000df43b
the mastodon of stagnation
295
False
Who visited the Ukraine while the protests were taking place?
572816e43acd2414000df43c
Gorbachev
397
False
How many people attended the service in Lviv?
572816e43acd2414000df43d
between 20,000 and 30,000
430
False
In late February, large public rallies took place in Kiev to protest the election laws, on the eve of the March 26 elections to the USSR Congress of People's Deputies, and to call for the resignation of the first secretary of the Communist Party of Ukraine, Volodymyr Scherbytsky, lampooned as "the mastodon of stagnation." The demonstrations coincided with a visit to Ukraine by Soviet President Gorbachev. On February 26, 1989, between 20,000 and 30,000 people participated in an unsanctioned ecumenical memorial service in Lviv, marking the anniversary of the death of 19th Century Ukrainian artist and nationalist Taras Shevchenko.
What ideology's victims were being honored by the Memorial Society?
572817dbff5b5019007d9d10
Stalinism
77
False
How many people from the pre-election meeting in Lviv were detained?
572817dbff5b5019007d9d11
nearly 300
351
False
Members of what ideology were more heavily elected to the union Congress of People's Deputies?
572817dbff5b5019007d9d12
conservatives
560
False
How many deputies were elected?
572817dbff5b5019007d9d13
225
526
False
On March 4, 1989, the Memorial Society, committed to honoring the victims of Stalinism and cleansing society of Soviet practices, was founded in Kiev. A public rally was held the next day. On March 12, A pre-election meeting organized in Lviv by the Ukrainian Helsinki Union and the Marian Society Myloserdia (Compassion) was violently dispersed, and nearly 300 people were detained. On March 26, elections were held to the union Congress of People's Deputies; by-elections were held on April 9, May 14, and May 21. Among the 225 Ukrainian deputies, most were conservatives, though a handful of progressives made the cut.
How many people attended the Lviv pre-election meetings?
572818a9ff5b5019007d9d20
25,000
115
False
How long did the warning strike last?
572818a9ff5b5019007d9d21
one-hour
146
False
Where did the strike take place?
572818a9ff5b5019007d9d22
eight local factories and institutions
173
False
Prior to the warning strike when was the last labor strike in Lviv?
572818a9ff5b5019007d9d23
1944
257
False
At what sight was the Bykivnia meeting held?
572818a9ff5b5019007d9d24
mass grave
399
False
From April 20–23, 1989, pre-election meetings were held in Lviv for four consecutive days, drawing crowds of up to 25,000. The action included an one-hour warning strike at eight local factories and institutions. It was the first labor strike in Lviv since 1944. On May 3, a pre-election rally attracted 30,000 in Lviv. On May 7, The Memorial Society organized a mass meeting at Bykivnia, site of a mass grave of Ukrainian and Polish victims of Stalinist terror. After a march from Kiev to the site, a memorial service was staged.
What were the hunger strikers hoping to draw attention to?
572819323acd2414000df47f
plight of their Church.
132
False
When did the Lviv regional Memorial Society have its first conference?
572819323acd2414000df480
May 27, 1989
325
False
How many people attended the services in western Ukraine?
572819323acd2414000df481
an estimated 100,000
429
False
From mid-May to September 1989, Ukrainian Greek-Catholic hunger strikers staged protests on Moscow's Arbat to call attention to the plight of their Church. They were especially active during the July session of the World Council of Churches held in Moscow. The protest ended with the arrests of the group on September 18. On May 27, 1989, the founding conference of the Lviv regional Memorial Society was held. On June 18, 1989, an estimated 100,000 faithful participated in public religious services in Ivano-Frankivsk in western Ukraine, responding to Cardinal Myroslav Lubachivsky's call for an international day of prayer.
What were the protesters on September 2 demonstrating against?
572820d23acd2414000df517
draft election law
220
False
How many protesters were there in Lviv?
572820d23acd2414000df518
50,000
329
False
Who was put in charge of the People's Movement of Ukraine?
572820d23acd2414000df519
Ivan Drach
486
False
Where did the People's Movement hold its founding congress?
572820d23acd2414000df51a
Kiev
585
False
On August 19, 1989, the Russian Orthodox Parish of Saints Peter and Paul announced it would be switching to the Ukrainian Autocephalous Orthodox Church. On September 2, 1989, tens of thousands across Ukraine protested a draft election law that reserved special seats for the Communist Party and for other official organizations: 50,000 in Lviv, 40,000 in Kiev, 10,000 in Zhytomyr, 5,000 each in Dniprodzerzhynsk and Chervonohrad, and 2,000 in Kharkiv. From September 8–10, 1989, writer Ivan Drach was elected to head Rukh, the People's Movement of Ukraine, at its founding congress in Kiev. On September 17, between 150,000 and 200,000 people marched in Lviv, demanding the legalization of the Ukrainian Greek Catholic Church. On September 21, 1989, exhumation of a mass grave begins in Demianiv Laz, a nature preserve south of Ivano-Frankivsk. On September 28, First Secretary of the Communist Party of the Ukraine Volodymyr Shcherbytsky, a holdover from the Brezhnev era, was replaced by Vladimir Ivashko.
How many people demonstrated on October 1?
572821923acd2414000df531
10,000 to 15,000
48
False
Who attacked the protest?
572821923acd2414000df532
militia
103
False
Where did the attack occur?
572821923acd2414000df533
in front of Lviv's Druzhba Stadium
111
False
What was happening in the stadium at the time?
572821923acd2414000df534
concert
155
False
Prior to the October 20 synod, when was the last one held in Lviv?
572821923acd2414000df535
1930s
664
False
On October 1, 1989, a peaceful demonstration of 10,000 to 15,000 people was violently dispersed by the militia in front of Lviv's Druzhba Stadium, where a concert celebrating the Soviet "reunification" of Ukrainian lands was being held. On October 10, Ivano-Frankivsk was the site of a pre-election protest attended by 30,000 people. On October 15, several thousand people gathered in Chervonohrad, Chernivtsi, Rivne, and Zhytomyr; 500 in Dnipropetrovsk; and 30,000 in Lviv to protest the election law. On October 20, faithful and clergy of the Ukrainian Autocephalous Orthodox Church participated in a synod in Lviv, the first since its forced liquidation in the 1930s.
How many factories had strikes on October 26?
572821f52ca10214002d9e9e
twenty
165
False
Where were the strikes?
572821f52ca10214002d9e9f
Lviv
185
False
What were the strikes in protest against?
572821f52ca10214002d9ea0
police brutality
231
False
On October 24, the union Supreme Soviet passed a law eliminating special seats for Communist Party and other official organizations' representatives. On October 26, twenty factories in Lviv held strikes and meetings to protest the police brutality of October 1 and the authorities' unwillingness to prosecute those responsible. From October 26–28, the Zelenyi Svit (Friends of the Earth – Ukraine) environmental association held its founding congress, and on October 27 the Ukrainian Supreme Soviet passed a law eliminating the special status of party and other official organizations.
What was made Ukraine's official language in 1990?
572822be2ca10214002d9ea4
Ukrainian
90
False
Who decided Ukraine's official language?
572822be2ca10214002d9ea5
Ukrainian Supreme Soviet
25
False
For what reason would the Russian be spoken?
572822be2ca10214002d9ea6
communication between ethnic groups
175
False
Where was the January 2 memorial service?
572822be2ca10214002d9ea7
Demianiv Laz
442
False
On October 28, 1989, the Ukrainian Supreme Soviet decreed that effective January 1, 1990, Ukrainian would be the official language of Ukraine, while Russian would be used for communication between ethnic groups. On the same day The Congregation of the Church of the Transfiguration in Lviv left the Russian Orthodox Church and proclaimed itself the Ukrainian Greek Catholic Church. The following day, thousands attended a memorial service at Demianiv Laz, and a temporary marker was placed to indicate that a monument to the "victims of the repressions of 1939–1941" soon would be erected.
When was The Shevchenko Ukrainian Language Society made official?
572826324b864d19001645aa
mid-November
3
False
The three human rights activists reburied November 19th were prisoners where?
572826324b864d19001645ab
Gulag Camp No. 36
246
False
Where was Gulag Camp No. 36 located?
572826324b864d19001645ac
Perm in the Ural Mountains
267
False
Where were the activists reburied?
572826324b864d19001645ad
Baikove Cemetery.
396
False
Who met with Gorbachev on November 22?
572826324b864d19001645ae
Pope John Paul II
621
False
In mid-November The Shevchenko Ukrainian Language Society was officially registered. On November 19, 1989, a public gathering in Kiev attracted thousands of mourners, friends and family to the reburial in Ukraine of three inmates of the infamous Gulag Camp No. 36 in Perm in the Ural Mountains: human-rights activists Vasyl Stus, Oleksiy Tykhy, and Yuriy Lytvyn. Their remains were reinterred in Baikove Cemetery. On November 26, 1989, a day of prayer and fasting was proclaimed by Cardinal Myroslav Lubachivsky, thousands of faithful in western Ukraine participated in religious services on the eve of a meeting between Pope John Paul II and Soviet President Gorbachev. On November 28, 1989, the Ukrainian SSR's Council for Religious Affairs issued a decree allowing Ukrainian Catholic congregations to register as legal organizations. The decree was proclaimed on December 1, coinciding with a meeting at the Vatican between the pope and the Soviet president.
What did the Belorussians wish to be cleaned up?
572827feff5b5019007d9e3a
Chernobyl disaster site
139
False
Where did the Chernobyl Disaster occur?
572827feff5b5019007d9e3b
Ukraine
166
False
When did the Chernobyl disaster happen?
572827feff5b5019007d9e3c
1986
134
False
What symbol did the protesters wear on their arms?
572827feff5b5019007d9e3d
radioactivity symbols
224
False
How was the weather during the protest?
572827feff5b5019007d9e3e
torrential rain
324
False
On September 30, 1989, thousands of Belorussians, denouncing local leaders, marched through Minsk to demand additional cleanup of the 1986 Chernobyl disaster site in Ukraine. Up to 15,000 protesters wearing armbands bearing radioactivity symbols and carrying the banned red-and-white Belorussian national flag filed through torrential rain in defiance of a ban by local authorities. Later, they gathered in the city center near the government's headquarters, where speakers demanded resignation of Yefrem Sokolov, the republic's Communist Party leader, and called for the evacuation of half a million people from the contaminated zones.
Who went to the Fergana Valley to restore order?
57282967ff5b5019007d9e4e
Soviet troops
13
False
Where is the Fergana Valley located?
57282967ff5b5019007d9e4f
southeast of the Uzbek capital
60
False
Who were targeted by the local Uzbeks?
57282967ff5b5019007d9e50
members of the Meskhetian minority
171
False
Who was fired from First Secretary position by Gorbachev?
57282967ff5b5019007d9e51
Rafiq Nishonov
324
False
Who replaced Nishonov?
57282967ff5b5019007d9e52
Karimov
420
False
Thousands of Soviet troops were sent to the Fergana Valley, southeast of the Uzbek capital Tashkent, to re-establish order after clashes in which local Uzbeks hunted down members of the Meskhetian minority in several days of rioting between June 4–11, 1989; about 100 people were killed. On June 23, 1989, Gorbachev removed Rafiq Nishonov as First Secretary of the Communist Party of the Uzbek SSR and replaced him with Karimov, who went on to lead Uzbekistan as a Soviet Republic and subsequently as an independent state.
Where was the fatal June 19th riots?
57282a062ca10214002d9fac
Zhanaozen
99
False
Who were the rioters?
57282a062ca10214002d9fad
young men
32
False
What did the rioters try to take over?
57282a062ca10214002d9fae
police station and a water-supply station
166
False
How many towns had riots of their own following the initial riots?
57282a062ca10214002d9faf
five
336
False
What was attacked in Mangishlak?
57282a062ca10214002d9fb0
police station
455
False
In Kazakhstan on June 19, 1989, young men carrying guns, firebombs, iron bars and stones rioted in Zhanaozen, causing a number of deaths. The youths tried to seize a police station and a water-supply station. They brought public transportation to a halt and shut down various shops and industries. By June 25, the rioting had spread to five other towns near the Caspian Sea. A mob of about 150 people armed with sticks, stones and metal rods attacked the police station in Mangishlak, about 90 miles from Zhanaozen, before they were dispersed by government troops flown in by helicopters. Mobs of young people also rampaged through Yeraliev, Shepke, Fort-Shevchenko and Kulsary, where they poured flammable liquid on trains housing temporary workers and set them on fire.
Which two groups saw increasing ethnic conflicts in 1988?
57282af42ca10214002d9fca
Armenians and Azerbaijanis
42
False
Who was killed in the January 9 riots?
57282af42ca10214002d9fcb
four Soviet soldiers
252
False
How many people died in the Soviet response to the clashes?
57282af42ca10214002d9fcc
more than 130
855
False
What were the January incidents called?
57282af42ca10214002d9fcd
Black January
518
False
How many Soviet troops occupied Baku?
57282af42ca10214002d9fce
26,000
647
False
Ethnic tensions had escalated between the Armenians and Azerbaijanis in spring and summer 1988. On January 9, 1990, after the Armenian parliament voted to include Nagorno-Karabakh within its budget, renewed fighting broke out, hostages were taken, and four Soviet soldiers were killed. On January 11, Popular Front radicals stormed party buildings and effectively overthrew the communist powers in the southern town of Lenkoran. Gorbachev resolved to regain control of Azerbaijan; the events that ensued are known as "Black January." Late on January 19, 1990, after blowing up the central television station and cutting the phone and radio lines, 26,000 Soviet troops entered the Azerbaijani capital Baku, smashing barricades, attacking protesters, and firing into crowds. On that night and during subsequent confrontations (which lasted until February), more than 130 people died – the majority of whom were civilians. More than 700 civilians were wounded, hundreds were detained, but only a few were actually tried for alleged criminal offenses.
What party's candidates were murdered in the September 30 elections?
57282dc02ca10214002d9ff8
Popular Front
137
False
How many members were from opposition parties?
57282dc02ca10214002d9ff9
45
393
False
How many total members were there?
57282dc02ca10214002d9ffa
350
349
False
Who was elected to be Chairman in May?
57282dc02ca10214002d9ffb
Mutalibov
536
False
Following the hardliners' takeover, the September 30, 1990 elections (runoffs on October 14) were characterized by intimidation; several Popular Front candidates were jailed, two were murdered, and unabashed ballot stuffing took place even in the presence of Western observers. The election results reflected the threatening environment; out of the 350 members, 280 were Communists, with only 45 opposition candidates from the Popular Front and other non-communist groups, who together formed a Democratic Bloc ("Dembloc"). In May 1990 Mutalibov was elected Chairman of the Supreme Soviet unopposed.
How many miles long was the human chain?
57282ec23acd2414000df67b
300
38
False
Who organized this chain?
57282ec23acd2414000df67c
Rukh
21
False
What country's independence were the chain members celebrating?
57282ec23acd2414000df67d
Ukrainian
179
False
When had the Ukrainian Greek-Catholic Church been broken up by the Soviets?
57282ec23acd2414000df67e
1946
408
False
In 1990 which party had most of the election victories?
57282ec23acd2414000df67f
the Democratic Bloc
774
False
On January 21, 1990, Rukh organized a 300-mile (480 km) human chain between Kiev, Lviv, and Ivano-Frankivsk. Hundreds of thousands joined hands to commemorate the proclamation of Ukrainian independence in 1918 and the reunification of Ukrainian lands one year later (1919 Unification Act). On January 23, 1990, the Ukrainian Greek-Catholic Church held its first synod since its liquidation by the Soviets in 1946 (an act which the gathering declared invalid). On February 9, 1990, the Ukrainian Ministry of Justice officially registered Rukh. However, the registration came too late for Rukh to stand its own candidates for the parliamentary and local elections on March 4. At the 1990 elections of people's deputies to the Supreme Council (Verkhovna Rada), candidates from the Democratic Bloc won landslide victories in western Ukrainian oblasts. A majority of the seats had to hold run-off elections. On March 18, Democratic candidates scored further victories in the run-offs. The Democratic Bloc gained about 90 out of 450 seats in the new parliament.
Who was voted to get their cathedral back in 1990?
572838743acd2414000df741
Ukrainian Greek Catholic Church
84
False
What party was formed from the dissolved Ukrainian Helsinki Union?
572838743acd2414000df742
Ukrainian Republican Party
236
False
What was the first day that the new parliament met?
572838743acd2414000df743
May 15
267
False
Who became the new patriarch of the UAOC in 1990?
572838743acd2414000df744
Metropolitan Mstyslav
716
False
On April 6, 1990, the Lviv City Council voted to return St. George Cathedral to the Ukrainian Greek Catholic Church. The Russian Orthodox Church refused to yield. On April 29–30, 1990, the Ukrainian Helsinki Union disbanded to form the Ukrainian Republican Party. On May 15 the new parliament convened. The bloc of conservative communists held 239 seats; the Democratic Bloc, which had evolved into the National Council, had 125 deputies. On June 4, 1990, two candidates remained in the protracted race for parliament chair. The leader of the Communist Party of Ukraine (CPU), Volodymyr Ivashko, was elected with 60 percent of the vote as more than 100 opposition deputies boycotted the election. On June 5–6, 1990, Metropolitan Mstyslav of the U.S.-based Ukrainian Orthodox Church was elected patriarch of the Ukrainian Autocephalous Orthodox Church (UAOC) during that Church's first synod. The UAOC declared its full independence from the Moscow Patriarchate of the Russian Orthodox Church, which in March had granted autonomy to the Ukrainian Orthodox church headed by Metropolitan Filaret.
Who was elected to be the new deputy general secretary of the Communist Part of the Soviet Union in July?
572839322ca10214002da10a
Volodymyr Ivashko
18
False
How long did it take Parliament to accept Ivashko's resignation?
572839322ca10214002da10b
a week
418
False
How many Parliament members voted against the Declaration on State Sovereignty of Ukraine?
572839322ca10214002da10c
four
573
False
On June 22, 1990, Volodymyr Ivashko withdrew his candidacy for leader of the Communist Party of Ukraine in view of his new position in parliament. Stanislav Hurenko was elected first secretary of the CPU. On July 11, Ivashko resigned from his post as chairman of the Ukrainian Parliament after he was elected deputy general secretary of the Communist Party of the Soviet Union. The Parliament accepted the resignation a week later, on July 18. On July 16 Parliament overwhelmingly approved the Declaration on State Sovereignty of Ukraine - with a vote of 355 in favour and four against. The people's deputies voted 339 to 5 to proclaim July 16 a Ukrainian national holiday.
Who would succeed Ivashko as the chairman of Parliament?
57283abb4b864d19001647ae
Leonid Kravchuk
18
False
What did Parliament vote to shut down in August?
57283abb4b864d19001647af
Chernobyl Nuclear Power Plant
342
False
Where was the August 9 liturgy held?
57283abb4b864d19001647b0
St. George Cathedral.
539
False
Prior to the September 8th rally when was the last Youth for Christ rally held?
57283abb4b864d19001647b1
1933
715
False
How many people attended the Youth for Christ rally?
57283abb4b864d19001647b2
40,000
750
False
On July 23, 1990, Leonid Kravchuk was elected to replace Ivashko as parliament chairman. On July 30, Parliament adopted a resolution on military service ordering Ukrainian soldiers "in regions of national conflict such as Armenia and Azerbaijan" to return to Ukrainian territory. On August 1, Parliament voted overwhelmingly to shut down the Chernobyl Nuclear Power Plant. On August 3, it adopted a law on the economic sovereignty of the Ukrainian republic. On August 19, the first Ukrainian Catholic liturgy in 44 years was celebrated at St. George Cathedral. On September 5–7, the International Symposium on the Great Famine of 1932–1933 was held in Kiev. On September 8, The first "Youth for Christ" rally since 1933 took place held in Lviv, with 40,000 participants. In September 28–30, the Green Party of Ukraine held its founding congress. On September 30, nearly 100,000 people marched in Kiev to protest against the new union treaty proposed by Gorbachev.
Where was the UAOC protest held?
57283b36ff5b5019007d9f9e
near St. Sophia’s Cathedral
223
False
Who were in the cathedral at the time of the protest?
57283b36ff5b5019007d9f9f
Russian Orthodox Church Patriarch Aleksei and Metropolitan Filaret
268
False
What had Aleksei and Filaret been up to at the time of the protest?
57283b36ff5b5019007d9fa0
liturgy
346
False
On October 25–28, 1990, Rukh held its second congress and declared that its principal goal was the "renewal of independent statehood for Ukraine". On October 28 UAOC faithful, supported by Ukrainian Catholics, demonstrated near St. Sophia’s Cathedral as newly elected Russian Orthodox Church Patriarch Aleksei and Metropolitan Filaret celebrated liturgy at the shrine. On November 1, the leaders of the Ukrainian Greek Catholic Church and of the Ukrainian Autocephalous Orthodox Church, respectively, Metropolitan Volodymyr Sterniuk and Patriarch Mstyslav, met in Lviv during anniversary commemorations of the 1918 proclamation of the Western Ukrainian National Republic.
What was attacked by Soviet troops on January 13?
57283caa3acd2414000df77d
Vilnius TV Tower
89
False
Where was the TV Tower located?
57283caa3acd2414000df77e
Lithuania
109
False
What were the Soviets hoping to stop?
57283caa3acd2414000df77f
independence movement
135
False
How many civilians died in the attack?
57283caa3acd2414000df780
Fourteen
158
False
What was attacked by Russians on July 31?
57283caa3acd2414000df781
Lithuanian border post in Medininkai
342
False
On January 13, 1991, Soviet troops, along with the KGB Spetsnaz Alpha Group, stormed the Vilnius TV Tower in Lithuania to suppress the independence movement. Fourteen unarmed civilians were killed and hundreds more injured. On the night of July 31, 1991, Russian OMON from Riga, the Soviet military headquarters in the Baltics, assaulted the Lithuanian border post in Medininkai and killed seven Lithuanian servicemen. This event further weakened the Soviet Union's position internationally and domestically, and stiffened Lithuanian resistance.
What was Gorbachev attempting to decentralize?
57283d0e2ca10214002da156
Soviet Union
67
False
What was supposed to be signed on August 20?
57283d0e2ca10214002da157
New Union Treaty
172
False
Who supported the treaty?
57283d0e2ca10214002da158
Central Asian republics,
362
False
What would have maintained power if the treaty was signed?
57283d0e2ca10214002da159
Communist Party
509
False
Faced with growing separatism, Gorbachev sought to restructure the Soviet Union into a less centralized state. On August 20, 1991, the Russian SFSR was scheduled to sign a New Union Treaty that would have converted the Soviet Union into a federation of independent republics with a common president, foreign policy and military. It was strongly supported by the Central Asian republics, which needed the economic advantages of a common market to prosper. However, it would have meant some degree of continued Communist Party control over economic and social life.
What did radicals want to change the economy to?
57283dd4ff5b5019007d9fd0
market economy
81
False
What were they prepared to have happen to the Soviet Union in order to get a market economy?
57283dd4ff5b5019007d9fd1
disintegration
149
False
What was Yeltsin president of?
57283dd4ff5b5019007d9fd2
the Russian Federation,
283
False
Whose control were regional authorities hoping to do away with?
57283dd4ff5b5019007d9fd3
Moscow’s
372
False
More radical reformists were increasingly convinced that a rapid transition to a market economy was required, even if the eventual outcome meant the disintegration of the Soviet Union into several independent states. Independence also accorded with Yeltsin's desires as president of the Russian Federation, as well as those of regional and local authorities to get rid of Moscow’s pervasive control. In contrast to the reformers' lukewarm response to the treaty, the conservatives, "patriots," and Russian nationalists of the USSR – still strong within the CPSU and the military – were opposed to weakening the Soviet state and its centralized power structure.
Who arrived to protect the White House?
57283e793acd2414000df7ab
Muscovites
13
False
Who did the organizers want to arrest?
57283e793acd2414000df7ac
Yeltsin
226
False
Where was Yeltsin during the coup?
57283e793acd2414000df7ad
atop a tank
289
False
What was Yeltsin doing on the tank?
57283e793acd2414000df7ae
speech-making
275
False
What TV channel carried the broadcast of the coup?
57283e793acd2414000df7af
CNN
555
False
Thousands of Muscovites came out to defend the White House (the Russian Federation's parliament and Yeltsin's office), the symbolic seat of Russian sovereignty at the time. The organizers tried but ultimately failed to arrest Yeltsin, who rallied opposition to the coup with speech-making atop a tank. The special forces dispatched by the coup leaders took up positions near the White House, but members refused to storm the barricaded building. The coup leaders also neglected to jam foreign news broadcasts, so many Muscovites watched it unfold live on CNN. Even the isolated Gorbachev was able to stay abreast of developments by tuning into BBC World Service on a small transistor radio.
Where was the secret meeting of the leaders?
57283ef9ff5b5019007d9fe8
Belarus
109
False
What was signed at the secret meeting in Balarus?
57283ef9ff5b5019007d9fe9
Belavezha Accords
133
False
When was the meeting held?
57283ef9ff5b5019007d9fea
December 8
3
False
What was formed to replace the Soviet Union?
57283ef9ff5b5019007d9feb
the Commonwealth of Independent States
233
False
What was coming to an end?
57283ef9ff5b5019007d9fec
the USSR
527
False
On December 8, the leaders of Russia, Ukraine, and Belarus secretly met in Belavezhskaya Pushcha, in western Belarus, and signed the Belavezha Accords, which proclaimed the Soviet Union had ceased to exist and announced formation of the Commonwealth of Independent States (CIS) as a looser association to take its place. They also invited other republics to join the CIS. Gorbachev called it an unconstitutional coup. However, by this time there was no longer any reasonable doubt that, as the preamble of the Accords put it, "the USSR, as a subject of international law and a geopolitical reality, is ceasing its existence."
When were the Belavezha Accords ratified?
57283f713acd2414000df7b5
December 12
3
False
Who ratified the Accords?
57283f713acd2414000df7b6
the Supreme Soviet of the Russian SFSR
16
False
Who was recalled?
57283f713acd2414000df7b7
Russian deputies
136
False
Who showed signs that he was considering resigning his position?
57283f713acd2414000df7b8
Gorbachev
639
False
On December 12, the Supreme Soviet of the Russian SFSR formally ratified the Belavezha Accords and renounced the 1922 Union Treaty. The Russian deputies were also recalled from the Supreme Soviet of the USSR. The legality of this action was questionable, since Soviet law did not allow a republic to unilaterally recall its deputies. However, no one in either Russia or the Kremlin objected. Any objections from the latter would have likely had no effect, since the Soviet government had effectively been rendered impotent long before December. In effect, the largest and most powerful republic had seceded from the Union. Later that day, Gorbachev hinted for the first time that he was considering stepping down.
Which republic did not sign the Alma-Ata Protocol?
572840282ca10214002da18a
Georgia
230
False
How many of the former republics had representatives sign the Protocol?
572840282ca10214002da18b
11
187
False
What did the Protocol establish?
572840282ca10214002da18c
CIS
533
False
What was dissolved by the Protocol?
572840282ca10214002da18d
Union
309
False
Which news organization did Gorbachev talk to about his resignation plans?
572840282ca10214002da18e
CBS
476
False
Doubts remained over the authority of the Belavezha Accords to disband the Soviet Union, since they were signed by only three republics. However, on December 21, 1991, representatives of 11 of the 12 former republics – all except Georgia – signed the Alma-Ata Protocol, which confirmed the dissolution of the Union and formally established the CIS. They also "accepted" Gorbachev's resignation. While Gorbachev hadn't made any formal plans to leave the scene yet, he did tell CBS News that he would resign as soon as he saw that the CIS was indeed a reality.
When did Gorbachev resign?
572840c42ca10214002da198
December 25, 1991
57
False
Who was given control after Gorbachev left?
572840c42ca10214002da199
Yeltsin
355
False
What was Russia's new legal name?
572840c42ca10214002da19a
Russian Federation
637
False
What was the Russian Federations previous legal name?
572840c42ca10214002da19b
Russian Soviet Federative Socialist Republic
587
False
In a nationally televised speech early in the morning of December 25, 1991, Gorbachev resigned as president of the USSR – or, as he put it, "I hereby discontinue my activities at the post of President of the Union of Soviet Socialist Republics." He declared the office extinct, and all of its powers (such as control of the nuclear arsenal) were ceded to Yeltsin. A week earlier, Gorbachev had met with Yeltsin and accepted the fait accompli of the Soviet Union's dissolution. On the same day, the Supreme Soviet of the Russian SFSR adopted a statute to change Russia's legal name from "Russian Soviet Federative Socialist Republic" to "Russian Federation," showing that it was now a sovereign state.
What went down after Gorbachev departed from the Kremlin?
572841874b864d1900164818
Soviet flag
99
False
What replaced the Soviet flag?
572841874b864d1900164819
Russian tricolor
150
False
When did Gorbachev make his final Kremlin exit?
572841874b864d190016481a
December 25, 1991, at 7:32 p.m. Moscow time
16
False
What was declared as having ceased to exist?
572841874b864d190016481b
the Soviet Union
503
False
What body also stopped existing following a vote by itself to end itself?
572841874b864d190016481c
upper chamber of the Union's Supreme Soviet,
305
False
On the night of December 25, 1991, at 7:32 p.m. Moscow time, after Gorbachev left the Kremlin, the Soviet flag was lowered for the last time, and the Russian tricolor was raised in its place, symbolically marking the end of the Soviet Union. The next day, December 26, 1991, the Council of Republics, the upper chamber of the Union's Supreme Soviet, issued a formal Declaration recognizing that the Soviet Union had ceased to exist as a state and subject of international law, and voted both itself and the Soviet Union out of existence (the other chamber of the Supreme Soviet, the Council of the Union, had been unable to work since December 12, 1991, when the recall of the Russian deputies left it without a quorum). The following day Yeltsin moved into Gorbachev's former office, though the Russian authorities had taken over the suite two days earlier. By December 31, 1991, the few remaining Soviet institutions that had not been taken over by Russia ceased operation, and individual republics assumed the central government's role.
Which country took over the Soviet Union's UN membership?
5728431b4b864d190016483e
Russia
85
False
What made Russia the successor state to the USSR?
5728431b4b864d190016483f
Alma-Ata Protocol
381
False
Who wrote the letter to the UN secretary general informing them that Russia would be replacing the USSR?
5728431b4b864d1900164840
Yeltsin
284
False
What was the date on the Yeltsin letter?
5728431b4b864d1900164841
December 24, 1991
326
False
When did the UN accept the statement?
5728431b4b864d1900164842
December 31, 1991
592
False
The Alma-Ata Protocol also addressed other issues, including UN membership. Notably, Russia was authorized to assume the Soviet Union's UN membership, including its permanent seat on the Security Council. The Soviet Ambassador to the UN delivered a letter signed by Russian President Yeltsin to the UN Secretary-General dated December 24, 1991, informing him that by virtue of the Alma-Ata Protocol, Russia was the successor state to the USSR. After being circulated among the other UN member states, with no objection raised, the statement was declared accepted on the last day of the year, December 31, 1991.
Who was set up as Patriarch of Kiev and all Ukraine on the 18th of November?
572843344b864d1900164852
Mstyslav
76
False
Who gave Mstyslav this title?
572843344b864d1900164853
Ukrainian Autocephalous Orthodox Church
26
False
Who was the Canadian consul-general to Kiev?
572843344b864d1900164854
Nestor Gayowsky
267
False
What country made John Stepanchuk its consul-general to Kiev?
572843344b864d1900164855
United States
304
False
How long lasting was the pact between Kravchuk and Yeltsin?
572843344b864d1900164856
10-year
513
False
On November 18, 1990, the Ukrainian Autocephalous Orthodox Church enthroned Mstyslav as Patriarch of Kiev and all Ukraine during ceremonies at Saint Sophia's Cathedral. Also on November 18, Canada announced that its consul-general to Kiev would be Ukrainian-Canadian Nestor Gayowsky. On November 19, the United States announced that its consul to Kiev would be Ukrainian-American John Stepanchuk. On November 19, the chairmen of the Ukrainian and Russian parliaments, respectively, Kravchuk and Yeltsin, signed a 10-year bilateral pact. In early December 1990 the Party of Democratic Rebirth of Ukraine was founded; on December 15, the Democratic Party of Ukraine was founded.
Crucifixion_of_Jesus
Who was the person that tried Jesus?
57276e1af1498d1400e8f7ea
Pontius Pilate
159
False
How long was Jesus hung for?
57276e1af1498d1400e8f7eb
six hours
350
False
What did the sign say on top of Jesus' cross?
57276e1af1498d1400e8f7ec
Jesus of Nazareth, King of the Jews
499
False
What was done to make sure Jesus was dead?
57276e1af1498d1400e8f7ed
they pierced his side with a spear
655
False
How many statements did Jesus make on the cross?
57276e1af1498d1400e8f7ee
seven statements
740
False
the Messiah
99
Who did Pontius Pilate believe that he was?
5a8c6b60fd22b3001a8d8757
True
crucified
202
What did soldiers do to Christians as a punishment?
5a8c6b60fd22b3001a8d8758
True
wine mixed with gall
274
What is one thing that Pilate used to drink?
5a8c6b60fd22b3001a8d8759
True
his seamless robe
617
What did Pilate take from Jesus after winning a bet?
5a8c6b60fd22b3001a8d875a
True
seven
740
How many statements did the Romans make about Christians?
5a8c6b60fd22b3001a8d875b
True
According to the canonical gospels, Jesus, whom Christians believe to be the Son of God as well as the Messiah (Christ), was arrested, tried, and sentenced by Pontius Pilate to be scourged, and finally crucified by the Romans. Jesus was stripped of his clothing and offered wine mixed with gall to drink, before being crucified. He was then hung for six hours (according to Mark's Gospel) between two convicted thieves. During this time, the soldiers affixed a sign to the top of the cross stating "Jesus of Nazareth, King of the Jews" in three languages. They then divided his garments among them, but cast lots for his seamless robe. After Jesus' death they pierced his side with a spear to be certain that he had died. The Bible records seven statements that Jesus made while he was on the cross, as well as several supernatural events that occurred.
What is one of the historical certain facts about Jesus?
57276ff85951b619008f89df
baptism of Jesus
4
False
Do non-Christians agree that the Crucifixion happened?
57276ff85951b619008f89e0
the crucifixion of Jesus is as certain as any historical fact can be
521
False
Is the exact reason known that Jesus got Crucified for?
57276ff85951b619008f89e1
the exact reasons for the death of Jesus are hard to determine
886
False
Who said the Crucifixion of Jesus is firmly established.
57276ff85951b619008f89e2
Eddy
591
False
Who said the Baptism of Jesus was Univeral Assent?
57276ff85951b619008f89e3
James Dunn
106
False
non-Christian
661
What kind of confirmation is there about the life of Pontius Pilate?
5a8c6e36fd22b3001a8d879c
True
indisputable
827
What do Eddy and Boyd believe about Pilate and and how he shaped the life of the Jewish people?
5a8c6e36fd22b3001a8d879d
True
one
950
How many trials had Pilate presided over before Jesus?
5a8c6e36fd22b3001a8d879e
True
often the starting points
303
What does the crucifixion of Jesus mean for understanding the life of Pilate?
5a8c6e36fd22b3001a8d879f
True
hard to determine
931
Why did Pilate decide to turn Jesus over to the Jews?
5a8c6e36fd22b3001a8d87a0
True
The baptism of Jesus and his crucifixion are considered to be two historically certain facts about Jesus. James Dunn states that these "two facts in the life of Jesus command almost universal assent" and "rank so high on the 'almost impossible to doubt or deny' scale of historical facts" that they are often the starting points for the study of the historical Jesus. Bart Ehrman states that the crucifixion of Jesus on the orders of Pontius Pilate is the most certain element about him. John Dominic Crossan states that the crucifixion of Jesus is as certain as any historical fact can be. Eddy and Boyd state that it is now "firmly established" that there is non-Christian confirmation of the crucifixion of Jesus. Craig Blomberg states that most scholars in the third quest for the historical Jesus consider the crucifixion indisputable. Christopher M. Tuckett states that, although the exact reasons for the death of Jesus are hard to determine, one of the indisputable facts about him is that he was crucified.
Are all sources of the crucification literary?
572770dd5951b619008f89fd
almost all ancient sources relating to crucifixion are literary
9
False
What evidence was found that Crucifixion did happen?
572770dd5951b619008f89fe
the 1968 archeological discovery
74
False
Who was the crucified man discovered in an archaeological find?
572770dd5951b619008f89ff
ben Hagkol
419
False
When was Ben Hagkol crucified?
572770dd5951b619008f8a00
about 70 AD
448
False
What institution holds a heel bone with a spike inserted?
572770dd5951b619008f8a01
Israel Museum
819
False
1st century AD
658
When did the Romans first take the city of Hagkol?
5a8c6f68fd22b3001a8d87b0
True
1968
78
What year was the Israel Museum established?
5a8c6f68fd22b3001a8d87b1
True
the body of a crucified man
138
What discovery was made northeast of the city of Hagkol?
5a8c6f68fd22b3001a8d87b2
True
20s
591
What was the average age of Roman soldiers?
5a8c6f68fd22b3001a8d87b3
True
heel bone with a spike
693
What did the Romans keep as a deterrent to others who would revolt?
5a8c6f68fd22b3001a8d87b4
True
Although almost all ancient sources relating to crucifixion are literary, the 1968 archeological discovery just northeast of Jerusalem of the body of a crucified man dated to the 1st century provided good confirmatory evidence that crucifixions occurred during the Roman period roughly according to the manner in which the crucifixion of Jesus is described in the gospels. The crucified man was identified as Yehohanan ben Hagkol and probably died about 70 AD, around the time of the Jewish revolt against Rome. The analyses at the Hadassah Medical School estimated that he died in his late 20s. Another relevant archaeological find, which also dates to the 1st century AD, is an unidentified heel bone with a spike discovered in a Jerusalem gravesite, now held by the Israel Antiquities Authority and displayed in the Israel Museum.
What holds the records of the death of Jesus?
57277195708984140094ddb3
four canonical gospels
74
False
What part of the Bible references the death of Jesus?
57277195708984140094ddb4
New Testament epistles
147
False
How many times did Jesus predict his own death?
57277195708984140094ddb5
three
224
False
What part of Jesus' life is detailed in these gospels?
57277195708984140094ddb6
Jesus' arrest, trial, crucifixion, burial, and accounts of resurrection
305
False
How detailed is the description of Jesus' death?
57277195708984140094ddb7
hour-by-hour account
569
False
New Testament
147
What part of the Bible was written later than the Old Testament?
5a8c70f0fd22b3001a8d87d3
True
five
399
How many scholars did it take to translate the New Testament?
5a8c70f0fd22b3001a8d87d4
True
hour-by-hour
569
How quickly were scholars able to interpret and translate the Bible?
5a8c70f0fd22b3001a8d87d5
True
narrative
509
What do scholars have to overcome when meeting bias about discussing Jesus?
5a8c70f0fd22b3001a8d87d6
True
with more intense detail
444
How did scholars treat the Bible when trying to accurately translate it?
5a8c70f0fd22b3001a8d87d7
True
The earliest detailed accounts of the death of Jesus are contained in the four canonical gospels. There are other, more implicit references in the New Testament epistles. In the synoptic gospels, Jesus predicts his death in three separate episodes. All four Gospels conclude with an extended narrative of Jesus' arrest, trial, crucifixion, burial, and accounts of resurrection. In each Gospel these five events in the life of Jesus are treated with more intense detail than any other portion of that Gospel's narrative. Scholars note that the reader receives an almost hour-by-hour account of what is happening.:p.91
Where was Jesus arrested?
5727721ef1498d1400e8f84e
Gethsemane
100
False
What did Jesus do before he was arrested?
5727721ef1498d1400e8f84f
the Last Supper
121
False
How many Apostles were there at the Last Supper?
5727721ef1498d1400e8f850
Twelve Apostles
146
False
How was Jesus tortured before he was crucified?
5727721ef1498d1400e8f851
flogged
418
False
What was placed on Jesus' head?
5727721ef1498d1400e8f852
crowned with thorns
515
False
Judaea
268
What city was the Sanhedrin located in?
5a8c72c8fd22b3001a8d87f4
True
Rome
324
Who appointed the Sanhedrin to office to form a judicial body?
5a8c72c8fd22b3001a8d87f5
True
Sanhedrin
195
In front of what judicial body did the twelve apostles stand trial?
5a8c72c8fd22b3001a8d87f6
True
the chief priests
375
What group handed the twelve apostles over for crucifixion?
5a8c72c8fd22b3001a8d87f7
True
flogged
418
What was a punishment given to the twelve apostles?
5a8c72c8fd22b3001a8d87f8
True
Combining statements in the canonical Gospels produces the following account: Jesus was arrested in Gethsemane following the Last Supper with the Twelve Apostles, and then stood trial before the Sanhedrin (a Jewish judicial body), Pontius Pilate (a Roman authority in Judaea), and Herod Antipas (king of Judea, appointed by Rome), before being handed over for crucifixion by the chief priests of the Jews. After being flogged, Jesus was mocked by Roman soldiers as the "King of the Jews", clothed in a purple robe, crowned with thorns, beaten and spat on. Jesus then had to make his way to the place of his crucifixion.
What was Jesus offered to drink after his arrest?
572772c2f1498d1400e8f866
wine mixed with gall
36
False
How many hours did Jesus endure Crucifixion?
572772c2f1498d1400e8f868
six hours
370
False
How many accounts are there of Jesus' last words?
572772c2f1498d1400e8f869
seven statements altogether
879
False
Who removed Jesus from the cross?
572772c2f1498d1400e8f86a
Joseph of Arimathea
1131
False
wine mixed with gall
36
What was offered to the two thieves to drink?
5a8c740cfd22b3001a8d8808
True
refused
111
Did the two thieves drink the wine or refuse it?
5a8c740cfd22b3001a8d8809
True
seven
879
How many statements did the two thieves make after being crucified?
5a8c740cfd22b3001a8d880a
True
in a rock-hewn tomb
1162
Where were the two thieves buried after they died from crucifixion?
5a8c740cfd22b3001a8d880b
True
Nicodemus
1188
Who was related to the two thieves that were crucified?
5a8c740cfd22b3001a8d880c
True
Once at Golgotha, Jesus was offered wine mixed with gall to drink. Matthew's and Mark's Gospels record that he refused this. He was then crucified and hung between two convicted thieves. According to some translations from the original Greek, the thieves may have been bandits or Jewish rebels. According to Mark's Gospel, he endured the torment of crucifixion for some six hours from the third hour, at approximately 9 am, until his death at the ninth hour, corresponding to about 3 pm. The soldiers affixed a sign above his head stating "Jesus of Nazareth, King of the Jews" in three languages, divided his garments and cast lots for his seamless robe. The Roman soldiers did not break Jesus' legs, as they did to the other two men crucified (breaking the legs hastened the crucifixion process), as Jesus was dead already. Each gospel has its own account of Jesus' last words, seven statements altogether. In the Synoptic Gospels, various supernatural events accompany the crucifixion, including darkness, an earthquake, and (in Matthew) the resurrection of saints. Following Jesus' death, his body was removed from the cross by Joseph of Arimathea and buried in a rock-hewn tomb, with Nicodemus assisting.
What detail of Jesus's Crucifiction was only found in Matthew's Gospel?
57277589dd62a815002e9d5a
an earthquake
122
False
Which gospel mentioned the time of Crucifiction?
57277589dd62a815002e9d5b
Mark
240
False
Who did Jesus talk to in the Gospel of Luke?
57277589dd62a815002e9d5c
words to the women who were mourning
449
False
What gospel talks about breaking Jesus' legs?
57277589dd62a815002e9d5d
John
664
False
What prophecy was fulfilled by the piercing of Jesus' side?
57277589dd62a815002e9d5e
Old Testament prophecy
810
False
the third hour, or 9 am
306
What time did the Romans decide to guard the tomb of Jesus?
5a8c753efd22b3001a8d8820
True
the women
458
Who did the Roman soldiers speak to when they were in mourning?
5a8c753efd22b3001a8d8821
True
rebuke
502
What did one Roman soldier do to chastise the other?
5a8c753efd22b3001a8d8822
True
"beating their breasts"
563
What did the Roman soldiers do to celebrate their victory?
5a8c753efd22b3001a8d8823
True
spices and ointments
612
What did the Romans use when one of their soldiers had an injury?
5a8c753efd22b3001a8d8824
True
There are several details that are only found in one of the gospel accounts. For instance, only Matthew's gospel mentions an earthquake, resurrected saints who went to the city and that Roman soldiers were assigned to guard the tomb, while Mark is the only one to state the actual time of the crucifixion (the third hour, or 9 am) and the centurion's report of Jesus' death. The Gospel of Luke's unique contributions to the narrative include Jesus' words to the women who were mourning, one criminal's rebuke of the other, the reaction of the multitudes who left "beating their breasts", and the women preparing spices and ointments before resting on the Sabbath. John is also the only one to refer to the request that the legs be broken and the soldier's subsequent piercing of Jesus' side (as fulfillment of Old Testament prophecy), as well as that Nicodemus assisted Joseph with burial.
Which Epistle details the raising of Jesus?
57277778dd62a815002e9d9c
First Epistle to the Corinthians
17
False
Which writing detailed Jesus' appearance before ascension?
57277778dd62a815002e9d9d
canonical Gospels
183
False
How long did Jesus stay with the Apostles per the Acts of the Apostles?
57277778dd62a815002e9d9e
forty days
370
False
What day is accounted in the Gospel of Luke as the ascension?
57277778dd62a815002e9d9f
Easter Sunday
495
False
Who wrote both accounts of the Crucifixion and ascension?
57277778dd62a815002e9da0
St. Luke
571
False
heaven
271
Where did St. Luke go after he died?
5a8c773cfd22b3001a8d884d
True
forty days
370
How many days had Luke been an apostle?
5a8c773cfd22b3001a8d884e
True
forty
370
How many people saw Jesus when he was first seen after his crucifixion?
5a8c773cfd22b3001a8d884f
True
Luke
434
Who was the first apostle to see Jesus afte he was raised from the dead?
5a8c773cfd22b3001a8d8850
True
on different occasions
228
How often do scholars need to revise what they have written about the Bible?
5a8c773cfd22b3001a8d8851
True
According to the First Epistle to the Corinthians (1 Cor. 15:4), Jesus was raised from the dead ("on the third day" counting the day of crucifixion as the first) and according to the canonical Gospels, appeared to his disciples on different occasions before ascending to heaven. The account given in Acts of the Apostles, which says Jesus remained with the apostles for forty days, appears to differ from the account in the Gospel of Luke, which makes no clear distinction between the events of Easter Sunday and the Ascension. However, most biblical scholars agree that St. Luke also wrote the Acts of the Apostles as a follow-up volume to his Gospel account, and the two works must be considered as a whole.
Who was crucified with Jesus per Mark?
5727784d708984140094de7b
two rebels
39
False
How does Mark say Jesus' life ends?
5727784d708984140094de7c
Jesus calls out to God, then gives a shout and dies
90
False
what natural disaster is mention when Jesus died?
5727784d708984140094de7d
an earthquake
214
False
What does Luke say one of the rebels does?
5727784d708984140094de7e
promises that he (Jesus) and the criminal will be together in paradise
375
False
How does Luke make Jesus seem at his Crucifixion?
5727784d708984140094de7f
impassive
470
False
three hours
77
How long were the two rebels hanging on crosses?
5a8c7850fd22b3001a8d8873
True
differently
603
How was one criminal treated when crucified compared to the other?
5a8c7850fd22b3001a8d8874
True
gives a shout
119
What did one of the criminals do before he died from being crucified?
5a8c7850fd22b3001a8d8875
True
torn in two
172
What happened to the clothes one of the criminals was wearing?
5a8c7850fd22b3001a8d8876
True
impassive
470
How did the criminals react to their own crucifixion?
5a8c7850fd22b3001a8d8877
True
In Mark, Jesus is crucified along with two rebels, and the day goes dark for three hours. Jesus calls out to God, then gives a shout and dies. The curtain of the Temple is torn in two. Matthew follows Mark, adding an earthquake and the resurrection of saints. Luke also follows Mark, though he describes the rebels as common criminals, one of whom defends Jesus, who in turn promises that he (Jesus) and the criminal will be together in paradise. Luke portrays Jesus as impassive in the face of his crucifixion. John includes several of the same elements as those found in Mark, though they are treated differently.
Where can an early non-Christian reference be found to the Crucifixion?
57277938dd62a815002e9dda
Mara Bar-Serapion's letter to his son
77
False
What is the author of the letter assumed to be?
57277938dd62a815002e9ddb
pagan
251
False
What does the letter reference?
57277938dd62a815002e9ddc
retributions that followed the unjust treatment of three wise men
283
False
Other than Jesus, who was one of the wisemen?
57277938dd62a815002e9ddd
Socrates
350
False
Does everyone agree with the content of the letter?
57277938dd62a815002e9dde
others place less value in the letter
539
False
his son
107
Who did Socrates write a letter to about the crucifixion?
5a8c7970fd22b3001a8d8894
True
after AD 73 but before the 3rd century AD
133
When did Socrates write a letter to his son about the crucifixion?
5a8c7970fd22b3001a8d8895
True
pagan
251
What religion is Socrates presumed to follow?
5a8c7970fd22b3001a8d8896
True
the crucifixion of Jesus
507
Who was Socrates referring to in his letter according to Pythagoras?
5a8c7970fd22b3001a8d8897
True
less value
552
How much value did Pythagoras place in the crucifixion?
5a8c7970fd22b3001a8d8898
True
An early non-Christian reference to the crucifixion of Jesus is likely to be Mara Bar-Serapion's letter to his son, written sometime after AD 73 but before the 3rd century AD. The letter includes no Christian themes and the author is presumed to be a pagan. The letter refers to the retributions that followed the unjust treatment of three wise men: Socrates, Pythagoras, and "the wise king" of the Jews. Some scholars see little doubt that the reference to the execution of the "king of the Jews" is about the crucifixion of Jesus, while others place less value in the letter, given the possible ambiguity in the reference.
What day is presumed the Crucifixion happened?
57277c0add62a815002e9e4e
Friday
110
False
Why do some scholars propose a Thursday is possible?
57277c0add62a815002e9e4f
a "double sabbath" caused by an extra Passover sabbath
237
False
Why do some other scholars argue that it happened on a Wednesday?
57277c0add62a815002e9e50
on the grounds of the mention of "three days and three nights" in Matthew
442
False
How long was Jesus said to be in the tomb?
57277c0add62a815002e9e51
three days and three nights
476
False
Was Jesus in the tomb exactly 72 hours?
57277c0add62a815002e9e52
references to a resurrection on the third day do not require three literal nights
816
False
Friday
110
On what day is it thought the first part of the New Testament was written?
5a8c7ac0fd22b3001a8d88c4
True
Thursday or Wednesday
124
What other two days could the New Testament could have been written?
5a8c7ac0fd22b3001a8d88c5
True
based on a "double sabbath"
228
Why would some scholars believe the beginning of the New Testament was written on Thursday?
5a8c7ac0fd22b3001a8d88c6
True
Wednesday
419
What other day is believed the first part of the New Testament was written on instead of Friday?
5a8c7ac0fd22b3001a8d88c7
True
a 24-hour period
682
During what period was the beginning of the New Testament written?
5a8c7ac0fd22b3001a8d88c8
True
The consensus of modern scholarship is that the New Testament accounts represent a crucifixion occurring on a Friday, but a Thursday or Wednesday crucifixion have also been proposed. Some scholars explain a Thursday crucifixion based on a "double sabbath" caused by an extra Passover sabbath falling on Thursday dusk to Friday afternoon, ahead of the normal weekly Sabbath. Some have argued that Jesus was crucified on Wednesday, not Friday, on the grounds of the mention of "three days and three nights" in Matthew before his resurrection, celebrated on Sunday. Others have countered by saying that this ignores the Jewish idiom by which a "day and night" may refer to any part of a 24-hour period, that the expression in Matthew is idiomatic, not a statement that Jesus was 72 hours in the tomb, and that the many references to a resurrection on the third day do not require three literal nights.
What time was the crucifiction per Mark?
57277e3cf1498d1400e8f9b2
9 a.m.
57
False
What time did Jesus die per Mark?
57277e3cf1498d1400e8f9b3
3 p.m.
101
False
Why do scholars say the times are different depending on the gospel it's written in?
57277e3cf1498d1400e8f9b4
based on the use of Roman timekeeping in John but not in Mark
291
False
What is another reason the times differ so much?
57277e3cf1498d1400e8f9b5
no standardization of timepieces, or exact recording of hours and minutes was available
557
False
How close was time guessed in the day of the Gospels?
57277e3cf1498d1400e8f9b6
approximated to the closest three-hour period
665
False
(9 a.m.)
56
What time did Pilate hold court in the morning?
5a8c819efd22b3001a8d8984
True
standardization of timepieces
560
What did Pilate call for to make it easier to tell time?
5a8c819efd22b3001a8d8985
True
three-hour period
693
During what time period was Pilate avaliable to be seen?
5a8c819efd22b3001a8d8986
True
a reconciliation
267
What did Pilate want with the Roman empire?
5a8c819efd22b3001a8d8987
True
the arguments
379
What was rejected by Rome when Pilate brought reconciliation to the table?
5a8c819efd22b3001a8d8988
True
In Mark 15:25 crucifixion takes place at the third hour (9 a.m.) and Jesus' death at the ninth hour (3 p.m.). However, in John 19:14 Jesus is still before Pilate at the sixth hour. Scholars have presented a number of arguments to deal with the issue, some suggesting a reconciliation, e.g., based on the use of Roman timekeeping in John but not in Mark, yet others have rejected the arguments. Several notable scholars have argued that the modern precision of marking the time of day should not be read back into the gospel accounts, written at a time when no standardization of timepieces, or exact recording of hours and minutes was available, and time was often approximated to the closest three-hour period.
Who described an interaction between Jesus on the cross and women?
572781c65951b619008f8b89
Luke's gospel
0
False
What did Jesus say to women in the crowd?
572781c65951b619008f8b8a
do not weep for me
164
False
Where are the words found in the Gospel?
572781c65951b619008f8b8b
Lk. 23:28-31
549
False
What followed Jesus around?
572781c65951b619008f8b8c
crowd of mourners
82
False
dry
543
What was the ground like where Jesus was crucified?
5a8c8349fd22b3001a8d89c4
True
wood
500
What did the women gather to keep themselves warm?
5a8c8349fd22b3001a8d89c5
True
green
508
What color did some women in Jerusalem like to wear?
5a8c8349fd22b3001a8d89c6
True
weep
171
What did Jesus do when he felt sorrow for Jerusalem?
5a8c8349fd22b3001a8d89c7
True
hills
444
What high area is usually green when new grass grows?
5a8c8349fd22b3001a8d89c8
True
Luke's gospel also describes an interaction between Jesus and the women among the crowd of mourners following him, quoting Jesus as saying "Daughters of Jerusalem, do not weep for me, but weep for yourselves and for your children. For behold, the days are coming when they will say, 'Blessed are the barren and the wombs that never bore and the breasts that never nursed!' Then they will begin to say to the mountains, 'Fall on us,' and to the hills, 'Cover us.' For if they do these things when the wood is green, what will happen when it is dry?"[Lk. 23:28-31]
Where was Jesus Crucified?
572782fadd62a815002e9f40
Calvary
0
False
Where was the location of the Crucifixion detailed?
572782fadd62a815002e9f41
all four Gospels
183
False
What was one reason Calvary was chosen?
572782fadd62a815002e9f42
a place of public execution
400
False
What is rumored to be found in Calvary?
572782fadd62a815002e9f43
skulls of abandoned victims
467
False
What is a reason the place was called Calvary?
572782fadd62a815002e9f44
the name was derived from the physical contour
700
False
Aramaic
207
What language did most Romans know how to speak?
5a8c858dfd22b3001a8d89f0
True
public
411
Where did the Romans usually speak Aramaic?
5a8c858dfd22b3001a8d89f1
True
abandoned
477
What did Romans do with Aramaic after they began speaking Latin?
5a8c858dfd22b3001a8d89f2
True
a small hill
907
On top of what formation was the Roman empire located?
5a8c858dfd22b3001a8d89f3
True
execution
418
What type of punishment did most people suffer who were buried in a nearby cemetery?
5a8c858dfd22b3001a8d89f4
True
Calvary as an English name for the place is derived from the Latin word for skull (calvaria), which is used in the Vulgate translation of "place of a skull", the explanation given in all four Gospels of the Aramaic word Gûlgaltâ which was the name of the place where Jesus was crucified. The text does not indicate why it was so designated, but several theories have been put forward. One is that as a place of public execution, Calvary may have been strewn with the skulls of abandoned victims (which would be contrary to Jewish burial traditions, but not Roman). Another is that Calvary is named after a nearby cemetery (which is consistent with both of the proposed modern sites). A third is that the name was derived from the physical contour, which would be more consistent with the singular use of the word, i.e., the place of "a skull". While often referred to as "Mount Calvary", it was more likely a small hill or rocky knoll.
Matthew described that who was present at the Crucifixion?
572783925951b619008f8bdb
many women
32
False
The three gospels speak of the presence of which priests?
572783925951b619008f8bdc
the chief priests
187
False
How many people were crucified with Jesus?
572783925951b619008f8bdd
two robbers crucified, one on Jesus' right and one on his left
236
False
Who kept watch over Jesus?
572783925951b619008f8bde
the soldiers
382
False
Name one other group present at the Crucifixion?
572783925951b619008f8bdf
acquaintances
555
False
Jesus
460
Who were the women keeping watch over according to his acquanitances?
5a8c8707fd22b3001a8d8a0e
True
three
130
How many acquaintances are named in the Gospels?
5a8c8707fd22b3001a8d8a0f
True
this spectacle
529
What had the scribes and elders been assembled for according to the women?
5a8c8707fd22b3001a8d8a10
True
one on Jesus' right and one on his left
259
Where were the elders standing when Jesus was crucified?
5a8c8707fd22b3001a8d8a11
True
impenitent
363
What was the attidude of the scribes when watching the crucifixion?
5a8c8707fd22b3001a8d8a12
True
The Gospel of Matthew describes many women at the crucifixion, some of whom are named in the Gospels. Apart from these women, the three Synoptic Gospels speak of the presence of others: "the chief priests, with the scribes and elders"; two robbers crucified, one on Jesus' right and one on his left, whom the Gospel of Luke presents as the penitent thief and the impenitent thief; "the soldiers", "the centurion and those who were with him, keeping watch over Jesus"; passers-by; "bystanders", "the crowds that had assembled for this spectacle"; and "his acquaintances"
What kind of cross is generally believed that Jesus was crucified on?
5727846ef1498d1400e8fa74
traditional two-beamed cross
79
False
What cross do Jehovah Witnesses claim Jesus was crucified on?
5727846ef1498d1400e8fa75
single upright stake
154
False
What causes the different accounts of the cross used?
5727846ef1498d1400e8fa76
The Greek and Latin words used in the earliest Christian writings are ambiguous
185
False
What latin word was used to describe the cross used?
5727846ef1498d1400e8fa77
crux
576
False
Why was there doubt about the Latin word?
5727846ef1498d1400e8fa78
crux was also applied to objects other than a cross
576
False
stauros (σταυρός) and xylon (ξύλον)
318
What terms did Jehovah's Witnesses use to describe a cross?
5a8c89b3fd22b3001a8d8a40
True
(a live tree, timber or an object constructed of wood)
377
What is the definition of koine?
5a8c89b3fd22b3001a8d8a41
True
objects other than a cross
601
What objects were the word gibbet also applied to?
5a8c89b3fd22b3001a8d8a42
True
ambiguous
255
What is the nature of the words Jehovah's Witnesses use to describe wood?
5a8c89b3fd22b3001a8d8a43
True
Latin
565
What language did Jehovah's Witnesses base their religious writings on?
5a8c89b3fd22b3001a8d8a44
True
Whereas most Christians believe the gibbet on which Jesus was executed was the traditional two-beamed cross, the Jehovah's Witnesses hold the view that a single upright stake was used. The Greek and Latin words used in the earliest Christian writings are ambiguous. The Koine Greek terms used in the New Testament are stauros (σταυρός) and xylon (ξύλον). The latter means wood (a live tree, timber or an object constructed of wood); in earlier forms of Greek, the former term meant an upright stake or pole, but in Koine Greek it was used also to mean a cross. The Latin word crux was also applied to objects other than a cross.
What Epistle described the cross?
57278529f1498d1400e8faaa
Epistle of Barnabas
166
False
Who says with certainty that the cross was made out of two beams?
57278529f1498d1400e8faab
Justin Martyr
480
False
Why was that type of cross important?
57278529f1498d1400e8faac
a symbol of the suffering
619
False
How many ends did the cross supposedly have?
57278529f1498d1400e8faad
five extremities
1003
False
How is one attached to the cross?
57278529f1498d1400e8faae
fixed by the nails
1115
False
1st century AD
250
In what year was Barnabas born?
5a8c8b43fd22b3001a8d8a78
True
300
417
What numeric value did the significance of the lamb have?
5a8c8b43fd22b3001a8d8a79
True
(100–165)
494
For how long was the Greek alphabet used?
5a8c8b43fd22b3001a8d8a7a
True
nails
1128
What did Barnabas use to build a cross with?
5a8c8b43fd22b3001a8d8a7b
True
135
220
How many times had Irenaeus seen a roasted lamb?
5a8c8b43fd22b3001a8d8a7c
True
However, early Christian writers who speak of the shape of the particular gibbet on which Jesus died invariably describe it as having a cross-beam. For instance, the Epistle of Barnabas, which was certainly earlier than 135, and may have been of the 1st century AD, the time when the gospel accounts of the death of Jesus were written, likened it to the letter T (the Greek letter tau, which had the numeric value of 300), and to the position assumed by Moses in Exodus 17:11–12. Justin Martyr (100–165) explicitly says the cross of Christ was of two-beam shape: "That lamb which was commanded to be wholly roasted was a symbol of the suffering of the cross which Christ would undergo. For the lamb, which is roasted, is roasted and dressed up in the form of the cross. For one spit is transfixed right through from the lower parts up to the head, and one across the back, to which are attached the legs of the lamb." Irenaeus, who died around the end of the 2nd century, speaks of the cross as having "five extremities, two in length, two in breadth, and one in the middle, on which [last] the person rests who is fixed by the nails."
How many nails were suggested they used for the crucifixion?
57278649f1498d1400e8fac6
three nails
137
False
According to some sources, what is theorized to be the maximum nails used?
57278649f1498d1400e8fac7
14 nails
278
False
What adds to the confusion of the number of nails used?
57278649f1498d1400e8fac8
artistic depictions of the crucifixion
329
False
What do all artworks have in common regarding the crucifixion?
57278649f1498d1400e8fac9
Nails are almost always depicted
571
False
Jesuits claim how many nails were used?
57278649f1498d1400e8faca
three nails
744
False
14
278
How many paintings have been made about the crucifixion?
5a8c8dcafd22b3001a8d8ab8
True
side by side
467
Before the Renaissance where did Jesuits usually place their art?
5a8c8dcafd22b3001a8d8ab9
True
art
607
What artistic medium was appreciated by Romans?
5a8c8dcafd22b3001a8d8aba
True
the Renaissance
399
There were 14 western churches before what period?
5a8c8dcafd22b3001a8d8abb
True
art
607
What are Romans usually depicted in?
5a8c8dcafd22b3001a8d8abc
True
The assumption of the use of a two-beamed cross does not determine the number of nails used in the crucifixion and some theories suggest three nails while others suggest four nails. However, throughout history larger numbers of nails have been hypothesized, at times as high as 14 nails. These variations are also present in the artistic depictions of the crucifixion. In the Western Church, before the Renaissance usually four nails would be depicted, with the feet side by side. After the Renaissance most depictions use three nails, with one foot placed on the other. Nails are almost always depicted in art, although Romans sometimes just tied the victims to the cross. The tradition also carries to Christian emblems, e.g. the Jesuits use three nails under the IHS monogram and a cross to symbolize the crucifixion.
Where were the nails placed?
572787275951b619008f8c69
the hands, or the wrists
28
False
Who claims the hands were pierced?
572787275951b619008f8c6a
the Greek
99
False
The Romans tried to affix by avoiding what?
572787275951b619008f8c6b
without fracturing any bones
276
False
What other location is offered by the Greek?
572787275951b619008f8c6c
forearm
377
False
What other way to affix to the cross is there?
572787275951b619008f8c6d
Ropes
457
False
uncertain
61
Do theories say if Destot's bones were fractured?
5a8c93b2fd22b3001a8d8b86
True
the capitate and lunate bones
245
What bones are the radius and ulna located between?
5a8c93b2fd22b3001a8d8b87
True
Ropes
457
What did Destot use instead of nails to avoid fracturing bones?
5a8c93b2fd22b3001a8d8b88
True
Greek
103
What was the nationality of Destot?
5a8c93b2fd22b3001a8d8b89
True
forearm
448
What other location does Destot believe was used for crucifixion?
5a8c93b2fd22b3001a8d8b8a
True
The placing of the nails in the hands, or the wrists is also uncertain. Some theories suggest that the Greek word cheir (χειρ) for hand includes the wrist and that the Romans were generally trained to place nails through Destot's space (between the capitate and lunate bones) without fracturing any bones. Another theory suggests that the Greek word for hand also includes the forearm and that the nails were placed near the radius and ulna of the forearm. Ropes may have also been used to fasten the hands in addition to the use of nails.
What was said to be used as a platform for crucifixion?
57278a8b5951b619008f8cdb
a hypopodium
34
False
Why was a platform used?
57278a8b5951b619008f8cdc
the hands may not have been able to support the weight
102
False
Who considered this topic in the 17th century?
57278a8b5951b619008f8cdd
Rasmus Bartholin
178
False
Who performed crucifixion experiments in the 20th century to test theories?
57278a8b5951b619008f8cde
Frederick Zugibe
296
False
Who also used suspension as a form of punishment?
57278a8b5951b619008f8cdf
Nazis
628
False
20th century
261
In what century did Rasmos Bartholin perform crucifixion experiments?
5a8c96d5fd22b3001a8d8b9a
True
forensic pathologist
275
What was the occupation of Rasmus Bartholin?
5a8c96d5fd22b3001a8d8b9b
True
a standing platform
50
What was an aufbinden used for to support the feet in crucifixion?
5a8c96d5fd22b3001a8d8b9c
True
human subjects
382
Who did Bartholin hang in his experiments on crucifixion in the 20th century?
5a8c96d5fd22b3001a8d8b9d
True
ropes
368
What did Bartholin use to hang human subjects during crucifixion experiments?
5a8c96d5fd22b3001a8d8b9e
True
Another issue has been the use of a hypopodium as a standing platform to support the feet, given that the hands may not have been able to support the weight. In the 17th century Rasmus Bartholin considered a number of analytical scenarios of that topic. In the 20th century, forensic pathologist Frederick Zugibe performed a number of crucifixion experiments by using ropes to hang human subjects at various angles and hand positions. His experiments support an angled suspension, and a two-beamed cross, and perhaps some form of foot support, given that in an Aufbinden form of suspension from a straight stake (as used by the Nazis in the Dachau concentration camp during World War II), death comes rather quickly.
What Psalm gives the words of Jesus on the cross?
57278b4fdd62a815002e9fd6
Psalm 22
94
False
What contradiction is found in this Psalm?
57278b4fdd62a815002e9fd7
verse is cited in Aramaic rather than the Hebrew
282
False
What was the psalm said to be in Jesus' time?
57278b4fdd62a815002e9fd8
a proverbial saying in common usage
439
False
How do the other gospels describe Jesus' last words?
57278b4fdd62a815002e9fd9
theologically correct and reassuring
546
False
How does the sentence appear to historians?
57278b4fdd62a815002e9fda
a genuine cry
721
False
literary and theological
205
What kind of writing did Geza Vermes usually produce?
5a8c9919fd22b3001a8d8bae
True
Aramaic
300
What language did Geza Vermes study while in school?
5a8c9919fd22b3001a8d8baf
True
Hebrew
324
What language was learned by Geza Vermes when he was a child?
5a8c9919fd22b3001a8d8bb0
True
unexpected, disquieting
611
How did Raymond Brown describe the effect Jesus had on society?
5a8c9919fd22b3001a8d8bb1
True
no persuasive argument
784
Does Geza Vermes believe that there is a valid argument against the existence of Jesus?
5a8c9919fd22b3001a8d8bb2
True
The only words of Jesus on the cross in the Mark and Matthew accounts, this is a quotation of Psalm 22. Since other verses of the same Psalm are cited in the crucifixion accounts, it is often considered a literary and theological creation. Geza Vermes, however, points out that the verse is cited in Aramaic rather than the Hebrew in which it usually would have been recited, and suggests that by the time of Jesus, this phrase had become a proverbial saying in common usage. Compared to the accounts in the other Gospels, which he describes as 'theologically correct and reassuring', he considers this phrase 'unexpected, disquieting and in consequence more probable'. He describes it as bearing 'all the appearances of a genuine cry'. Raymond Brown likewise comments that he finds 'no persuasive argument against attributing to the Jesus of Mark/Matt the literal sentiment of feeling forsaken expressed in the Psalm quote'.
As what was the event mistaken by some pagans?
57279471708984140094e169
a solar eclipse
122
False
Why was a solar eclipse impossible?
57279471708984140094e16a
the full moon
223
False
Which Greek historian wrote about these natural occurrences?
57279471708984140094e16b
Greek historian Phlegon
337
False
Who reigned Rome during the Crucifixion of Jesus?
57279471708984140094e16c
Tiberius Caesar
456
False
What other event supposedly took place that shook people?
57279471708984140094e16d
earthquakes
540
False
2nd century AD
379
In what year was the first known solar eclipse?
5a8c9c14fd22b3001a8d8bcc
True
a solar eclipse
122
During what event was Phlegon born?
5a8c9c14fd22b3001a8d8bcd
True
Passover
192
What Jewish feast day was first celebrated in the 2nd century AD?
5a8c9c14fd22b3001a8d8bce
True
eclipse
433
What did Origen believe he witnessed when he wrote about it in the 2nd century AD?
5a8c9c14fd22b3001a8d8bcf
True
Tiberius Caesar
456
During who's rule did Origen write about an eclipse?
5a8c9c14fd22b3001a8d8bd0
True
Some Christian writers considered the possibility that pagan commentators may have mentioned this event, mistaking it for a solar eclipse - although this would have been impossible during the Passover, which takes place at the full moon. Christian traveller and historian Sextus Julius Africanus and Christian theologian Origen refer to Greek historian Phlegon, who lived in the 2nd century AD, as having written "with regard to the eclipse in the time of Tiberius Caesar, in whose reign Jesus appears to have been crucified, and the great earthquakes which then took place"
Which historian was referenced for the reports?
572794e2dd62a815002ea11a
Thallus
68
False
What event did Thallus describe?
572794e2dd62a815002ea11b
an eclipse of the sun
175
False
What day do Hebrews celebrate Passover?
572794e2dd62a815002ea11c
the 14th day
240
False
When does the passion of Jesus fall?
572794e2dd62a815002ea11d
the day before the passover
316
False
Where were these events documented?
572794e2dd62a815002ea11e
the Roman archives
492
False
14
244
For how many years had the Romans kept archives?
5a8c9ea4fd22b3001a8d8bea
True
the Roman archives
492
Where did Africanus believe that the recording of the date of Passover was documented?
5a8c9ea4fd22b3001a8d8beb
True
historian
58
What was the occupation of Africanus?
5a8c9ea4fd22b3001a8d8bec
True
third
108
His book of History was Tertullian's what in a series of books written?
5a8c9ea4fd22b3001a8d8bed
True
the day before the passover
316
When did the Romans begin their rule of Jerusalem?
5a8c9ea4fd22b3001a8d8bee
True
Sextus Julius Africanus further refers to the writings of historian Thallus: "This darkness Thallus, in the third book of his History, calls, as appears to me without reason, an eclipse of the sun. For the Hebrews celebrate the passover on the 14th day according to the moon, and the passion of our Saviour falls on the day before the passover; but an eclipse of the sun takes place only when the moon comes under the sun." Christian apologist Tertullian believed the event was documented in the Roman archives.
What is recently considered the type of eclipse that occurred?
572795755951b619008f8e1f
lunar
92
False
How long would a lunar eclipse be visible?
572795755951b619008f8e20
thirty minutes
215
False
What person possibly made a mistake while copying text?
572795755951b619008f8e21
a scribe wrongly amending a text
318
False
Which historian says this opinion is indefensible?
572795755951b619008f8e22
David Henige
362
False
What inconsistency would be found in this explanation?
572795755951b619008f8e23
the lunar eclipse would not have been visible during daylight hours
468
False
Oxford University
40
What university is David Henige employed by?
5a8ca048fd22b3001a8d8c12
True
lunar
92
What event did David Henige believe might have happened instead of a solar eclipse?
5a8ca048fd22b3001a8d8c13
True
thirty minutes
215
For how many minutes did David Henige belive the lunar eclipse would be visible?
5a8ca048fd22b3001a8d8c14
True
Jerusalem
236
What city was Henige originally from?
5a8ca048fd22b3001a8d8c15
True
'indefensible'
405
What does Colin Humphreys dismiss the explanation as?
5a8ca048fd22b3001a8d8c16
True
Colin Humphreys and W. G. Waddington of Oxford University considered the possibility that a lunar, rather than solar, eclipse might have taken place. They concluded that such an eclipse would have been visible, for thirty minutes, from Jerusalem and suggested the gospel reference to a solar eclipse was the result of a scribe wrongly amending a text. Historian David Henige dismisses this explanation as 'indefensible' and astronomer Bradley Schaefer points out that the lunar eclipse would not have been visible during daylight hours.
Who created the account of Jesus?
5727a3762ca10214002d9286
author of the Mark Gospel
101
False
Who amended the account at a later date?
5727a3762ca10214002d9287
Luke
143
False
What prompts darkness over the land in old literary works?
5727a3762ca10214002d9288
the death of kings and other major figures
425
False
What ethnicity are these literary works mostly?
5727a3762ca10214002d9289
Jewish
596
False
Who describes the idea of an eclipse as totally wrong?
5727a3762ca10214002d928a
Géza Vermes
538
False
"barking up the wrong tree"
712
What does Philo believe those who take the image of darkness literally are doing?
5a8ca27cfd22b3001a8d8c62
True
a theologically significant event
226
What prompted Philo to become a writer?
5a8ca27cfd22b3001a8d8c63
True
to be taken literally
278
What did Philo not intend to happen after someone read his writings?
5a8ca27cfd22b3001a8d8c64
True
Jewish
596
What nationality was Dio Cassius?
5a8ca27cfd22b3001a8d8c65
True
ancient readers
368
What group of readers would have read works by Geza Vermes?
5a8ca27cfd22b3001a8d8c66
True
Modern biblical scholarship treats the account in the synoptic gospels as a literary creation by the author of the Mark Gospel, amended in the Luke and Matthew accounts, intended to heighten the importance of what they saw as a theologically significant event, and not intended to be taken literally. This image of darkness over the land would have been understood by ancient readers, a typical element in the description of the death of kings and other major figures by writers such as Philo, Dio Cassius, Virgil, Plutarch and Josephus. Géza Vermes describes the darkness account as typical of "Jewish eschatological imagery of the day of the Lord", and says that those interpreting it as a datable eclipse are "barking up the wrong tree".
Who wrote The Crucifixion of Jesus?
5727a3fcff5b5019007d91a4
Frederick Zugibe
73
False
What did Frederick Zugibe study in detail for this book?
5727a3fcff5b5019007d91a5
the likely circumstances of the death of Jesus
98
False
How did Zugibe try to prove his theories?
5727a3fcff5b5019007d91a6
carried out a number of experiments over several years
169
False
What kind of experiments did Zugibe run?
5727a3fcff5b5019007d91a7
experiments in which volunteers with specific weights were hanging
301
False
What specifics were recorded in his experiments?
5727a3fcff5b5019007d91a8
amount of pull and the corresponding pain
506
False
The Crucifixion of Jesus
12
What book was written by volunteers?
5a8ca959fd22b3001a8d8ce4
True
the likely circumstances of the death of Jesus
98
What did volunteers study to write the book about Jesus' crucifixion?
5a8ca959fd22b3001a8d8ce5
True
in great detail
145
How did volunteers study how Jesus died?
5a8ca959fd22b3001a8d8ce6
True
at specific angles
368
In what way did volunteers hang Zugibe during the experiments?
5a8ca959fd22b3001a8d8ce7
True
the amount of pull and the corresponding pain
502
What did volunteers find increased in Zugibe depending on if his feet were secured?
5a8ca959fd22b3001a8d8ce8
True
In his book The Crucifixion of Jesus, physician and forensic pathologist Frederick Zugibe studied the likely circumstances of the death of Jesus in great detail. Zugibe carried out a number of experiments over several years to test his theories while he was a medical examiner. These studies included experiments in which volunteers with specific weights were hanging at specific angles and the amount of pull on each hand was measured, in cases where the feet were also secured or not. In these cases the amount of pull and the corresponding pain was found to be significant.
What do Christians believe regarding Jesus' death?
5727a4ee3acd2414000de8b7
instrumental in restoring humankind to relationship with God
41
False
How are people united with God?
5727a4ee3acd2414000de8b8
through faith in Jesus’ substitutionary death
127
False
What specific fact do Christians believe about death?
5727a4ee3acd2414000de8b9
eternal life in heaven after the body’s death
284
False
Jesus's Resurrection fills believer with what?
5727a4ee3acd2414000de8ba
confidence of eternal life
478
False
What feeling usually fills a believer regarding the resurrection?
5727a4ee3acd2414000de8bb
joy
246
False
confidence
478
What is one thing people need to have to gain employment?
5a8cae39fd22b3001a8d8d20
True
instrumental
41
What kind of music do Christians often have during church service?
5a8cae39fd22b3001a8d8d21
True
God
98
Who do Christians believe created the universe?
5a8cae39fd22b3001a8d8d22
True
death
324
What is one thing that people are afraid of?
5a8cae39fd22b3001a8d8d23
True
power
254
What is one thing you need to have in your house to see at night?
5a8cae39fd22b3001a8d8d24
True
Christians believe that Jesus’ death was instrumental in restoring humankind to relationship with God. Christians believe that through faith in Jesus’ substitutionary death and triumphant resurrection people are reunited with God and receive new joy and power in this life as well as eternal life in heaven after the body’s death. Thus the crucifixion of Jesus along with his resurrection restores access to a vibrant experience of God’s presence, love and grace as well as the confidence of eternal life.
What book details the submission of Jesus to being crucified?
5727a584ff5b5019007d91e2
agent Christology
14
False
Why did Jesus accept Crucifixion.
5727a584ff5b5019007d91e3
sake of eventual victory
138
False
What theme is central is the Gospel of John in resurrection?
5727a584ff5b5019007d91e4
salvific theme
183
False
How is Resurrection detailed in the book of Revelations?
5727a584ff5b5019007d91e5
lamb slain but standing
420
False
What is another name for Jesus given?
5727a584ff5b5019007d91e6
The Lamb of God
285
False
for the sake of eventual victory
130
Why did Johannine accept who would be saved?
5a8cb110fd22b3001a8d8d48
True
"agent Christology"
13
What book was written by John the Baptist?
5a8cb110fd22b3001a8d8d49
True
God
107
What sacrifice did John the Baptist make as an agent of?
5a8cb110fd22b3001a8d8d4a
True
the sins of the world
316
What did John the Baptist want to take away?
5a8cb110fd22b3001a8d8d4b
True
worthy
461
What did Johannine believe he was not?
5a8cb110fd22b3001a8d8d4c
True
In Johannine "agent Christology" the submission of Jesus to crucifixion is a sacrifice made as an agent of God or servant of God, for the sake of eventual victory. This builds on the salvific theme of the Gospel of John which begins in John 1:29 with John the Baptist's proclamation: "The Lamb of God who takes away the sins of the world". Further reinforcement of the concept is provided in Revelation 21:14 where the "lamb slain but standing" is the only one worthy of handling the scroll (i.e. the book) containing the names of those who are to be saved.
Who's Christology focuses on the death and Resurrection?
5727a6e64b864d1900163974
Paul's Christology
0
False
How is the crucifixion related to the resurrection per Paul?
5727a6e64b864d1900163975
directly related
118
False
What term does Paul use for the Gospels?
5727a6e64b864d1900163976
the cross of Christ
169
False
Paul claims the Resurrection was needed for what reason?
5727a6e64b864d1900163977
based on the plan of God
557
False
How does Paul view the Resurrection of Jesus?
5727a6e64b864d1900163978
power of the cross
597
False
at the right time
524
At what time is it believed Paul wrote 1 Corinthians?
5a8cb426fd22b3001a8d8d70
True
the plan of God
566
By what plan did Paul write some of the Gospels?
5a8cb426fd22b3001a8d8d71
True
in history
339
When have cosmic events usually happened?
5a8cb426fd22b3001a8d8d72
True
an isolated event
321
What is the birth of Jesus thought to be in history?
5a8cb426fd22b3001a8d8d73
True
the plan of God
566
Why is it believed that Paul was born?
5a8cb426fd22b3001a8d8d74
True
Paul's Christology has a specific focus on the death and resurrection of Jesus. For Paul, the crucifixion of Jesus is directly related to his resurrection and the term "the cross of Christ" used in Galatians 6:12 may be viewed as his abbreviation of the message of the gospels. For Paul, the crucifixion of Jesus was not an isolated event in history, but a cosmic event with significant eschatological consequences, as in 1 Corinthians 2:8. In the Pauline view, Jesus, obedient to the point of death (Philippians 2:8) died "at the right time" (Romans 4:25) based on the plan of God. For Paul the "power of the cross" is not separable from the Resurrection of Jesus.
What did John Calvin claim Jesus could have done?
5727a8684b864d19001639ae
successfully argued for his innocence
117
False
Why did Jesus submit to crucifixion?
5727a8684b864d19001639af
obedience to the Father
196
False
The Eastern Church believes what regarding the death and ressurection?
5727a8684b864d19001639b0
"pre-eternally" determined by the Father
401
False
What did Jesus's death accomplish per the Eastern Church?
5727a8684b864d19001639b1
redeem humanity from the disgrace caused by the fall of Adam
479
False
What is the blood of the lamb?
5727a8684b864d19001639b2
had a cleansing nature, similar to baptismal water
699
False
"agent of God"
26
What kind of Christology was supported by Karl Rahner?
5a8cb61ffd22b3001a8d8d8e
True
his innocence
141
What did Karl Rahner believe Jesus could have successfully argued for?
5a8cb61ffd22b3001a8d8d8f
True
in obedience to the Father
193
According to Rahner how did Jesus submit during his trial?
5a8cb61ffd22b3001a8d8d90
True
"pre-eternally"
401
How did John Calvin believe the crucifixion was determined?
5a8cb61ffd22b3001a8d8d91
True
baptismal water
734
What was the blood of Jesus similar to according to John Calvin?
5a8cb61ffd22b3001a8d8d92
True
John Calvin supported the "agent of God" Christology and argued that in his trial in Pilate's Court Jesus could have successfully argued for his innocence, but instead submitted to crucifixion in obedience to the Father. This Christological theme continued into the 20th century, both in the Eastern and Western Churches. In the Eastern Church Sergei Bulgakov argued that the crucifixion of Jesus was "pre-eternally" determined by the Father before the creation of the world, to redeem humanity from the disgrace caused by the fall of Adam. In the Western Church, Karl Rahner elaborated on the analogy that the blood of the Lamb of God (and the water from the side of Jesus) shed at the crucifixion had a cleansing nature, similar to baptismal water.
What does Jesus' death and Resurrection support?
5727a9314b864d19001639c2
how salvation is granted to humanity
86
False
How important is Jesus' death to modern theology?
5727a9314b864d19001639c3
central importance
306
False
Did Jesus sacrifice himself without fighting?
5727a9314b864d19001639c4
Jesus willingly sacrificed himself
330
False
Why did Jesus sacrifice himself?
5727a9314b864d19001639c5
an act of perfect obedience
368
False
What church is the sacrifice important to?
5727a9314b864d19001639c6
the Roman Catholic church
954
False
of central importance
303
According to the moral influence theory, Jesus death is how important?
5a8cbcd7fd22b3001a8d8dbe
True
perfect obedience
378
What kind of obedience do those believe in moral influence theory believe Jesus went to his death in?
5a8cbcd7fd22b3001a8d8dbf
True
pleased
425
What do moral influence theorists believe God thought of Jesus's sacrifice?
5a8cbcd7fd22b3001a8d8dc0
True
Middle Ages
597
Since what period in time has the Roman Catholic Church existed?
5a8cbcd7fd22b3001a8d8dc1
True
penal substitution
788
What kind of substitution do moral influence theorists believe Jesus's death particularly was?
5a8cbcd7fd22b3001a8d8dc2
True
Jesus' death and resurrection underpin a variety of theological interpretations as to how salvation is granted to humanity. These interpretations vary widely in how much emphasis they place on the death of Jesus as compared to his words. According to the substitutionary atonement view, Jesus' death is of central importance, and Jesus willingly sacrificed himself as an act of perfect obedience as a sacrifice of love which pleased God. By contrast the moral influence theory of atonement focuses much more on the moral content of Jesus' teaching, and sees Jesus' death as a martyrdom. Since the Middle Ages there has been conflict between these two views within Western Christianity. Evangelical Protestants typically hold a substitutionary view and in particular hold to the theory of penal substitution. Liberal Protestants typically reject substitutionary atonement and hold to the moral influence theory of atonement. Both views are popular within the Roman Catholic church, with the satisfaction doctrine incorporated into the idea of penance.
Who was present under the cross?
5727aa092ca10214002d932e
Virgin Mary
20
False
What symbol is popular in Marian Art?
5727aa092ca10214002d932f
Marian Cross
218
False
Which pope claims Mary was present at Jesus' Crucifixion?
5727aa092ca10214002d9330
Pope John Paul II
328
False
Who painted the Mond Crucifixion.
5727aa092ca10214002d9331
Raphael
452
False
Who was responsible for the art names "His Entombment"?
5727aa092ca10214002d9332
Caravaggio
494
False
Miraculous Medal
154
What kind of medal did Raphael put in one of his paintings?
5a8cbd6dfd22b3001a8d8dc8
True
Pope John Paul II
175
What pope did Caravaggio crate a portrait of?
5a8cbd6dfd22b3001a8d8dc9
True
Coat of Arms
195
What was Pope John Paul II wearing in his portrait?
5a8cbd6dfd22b3001a8d8dca
True
Jesus
378
Who did Caravaggio believe Mary was united to on the cross?
5a8cbd6dfd22b3001a8d8dcb
True
Caravaggio
494
What famous artist worked for Pope John Paul II?
5a8cbd6dfd22b3001a8d8dcc
True
The presence of the Virgin Mary under the cross[Jn. 19:26-27] has in itself been the subject of Marian art, and well known Catholic symbolism such as the Miraculous Medal and Pope John Paul II's Coat of Arms bearing a Marian Cross. And a number of Marian devotions also involve the presence of the Virgin Mary in Calvary, e.g., Pope John Paul II stated that "Mary was united to Jesus on the Cross". Well known works of Christian art by masters such as Raphael (e.g., the Mond Crucifixion), and Caravaggio (e.g., his Entombment) depict the Virgin Mary as part of the crucifixion scene.
Supreme_court
What kinds of governed nations may not have a specific, individual high court?
5727722af1498d1400e8f858
Civil law states
51
False
What is an example of a highest court not being specifically called a Supreme Court?
5727722af1498d1400e8f859
the High Court of Australia
214
False
To which body can decisions made by this specific high court be appealed?
5727722af1498d1400e8f85a
the Privy Council
317
False
What Canadian courts also are not specifically the highest courts in that country?
5727722af1498d1400e8f85b
the Supreme Courts of several Canadian provinces/territories
485
False
Supreme Court
185
What is the highest court in all jurisdictions named?
5a7f79a448f7d9001a06378b
True
singular highest courts
88
What do civil law states tend to have?
5a7f79a448f7d9001a06378c
True
High Court
276
Where can decisions from the Privy Council be appealed to?
5a7f79a448f7d9001a06378d
True
Supreme Court of Judicature of England and Wales
561
What is the Courts of Appeal superseded by in England?
5a7f79a448f7d9001a06378e
True
However, not all highest courts are named as such. Civil law states do not tend to have singular highest courts. Additionally, the highest court in some jurisdictions is not named the "Supreme Court", for example, the High Court of Australia; this is because decisions by the High Court could formerly be appealed to the Privy Council. On the other hand, in some places the court named the "Supreme Court" is not in fact the highest court; examples include the New York Supreme Court, the Supreme Courts of several Canadian provinces/territories and the former Supreme Court of Judicature of England and Wales, which are all superseded by higher Courts of Appeal.
Countries with more than one supreme court may divide their primacy by what factors?
5727737f708984140094dddb
different geographical extents, or which are restricted to particular areas of law
82
False
What is an example of the highest court in a federal system of government?
5727737f708984140094dddc
the Supreme Court of the United States
297
False
What are some countries that have a separate supreme court to decide constitutional matters?
5727737f708984140094dddd
Austria, France, Germany, Luxemburg, Portugal, Spain and South Africa
892
False
A court system with a hierarchy of different administrative courts occurs in what kind of legal system?
5727737f708984140094ddde
a civil law system
574
False
have different geographical extents, or which are restricted to particular areas of law
77
How are some of the "federal court" jurisdictions divided?
5a7f7df448f7d9001a063793
True
federal supreme court (such as the Supreme Court of the United States), and supreme courts for each member state (such as the Supreme Court of Nevada)
266
What types of supreme courts to countries with a civil system of government have?
5a7f7df448f7d9001a063794
True
Czechoslovak Constitution
848
What document was written in 1902?
5a7f7df448f7d9001a063795
True
a hierarchy of administrative courts separate from the ordinary courts, headed by a supreme administrative court
604
What do jurisdictions with a federal law system often have?
5a7f7df448f7d9001a063796
True
Some countries have multiple "supreme courts" whose respective jurisdictions have different geographical extents, or which are restricted to particular areas of law. In particular, countries with a federal system of government typically[citation needed] have both a federal supreme court (such as the Supreme Court of the United States), and supreme courts for each member state (such as the Supreme Court of Nevada), with the former having jurisdiction over the latter only to the extent that the federal constitution extends federal law over state law. Jurisdictions with a civil law system often have a hierarchy of administrative courts separate from the ordinary courts, headed by a supreme administrative court as it the case in the Netherlands. A number of jurisdictions also maintain a separate constitutional court (first developed in the Czechoslovak Constitution of 1920), such as Austria, France, Germany, Luxemburg, Portugal, Spain and South Africa.
What term describes a system where the supreme court's decisions are binding over the lower courts?
57277532dd62a815002e9d46
stare decisis
60
False
What jurisdictions does this system not apply to?
57277532dd62a815002e9d47
civil law jurisdictions
272
False
In a civil law jurisdiction, rulings by a supreme court are only binding for which decisions?
57277532dd62a815002e9d48
the immediate case before it
437
False
Even in civil law jurisdictions, decisions by supreme courts establish what?
57277532dd62a815002e9d49
a very strong precedent
539
False
What is the legal term for the precedence established by multiple court rulings?
57277532dd62a815002e9d4a
jurisprudence constante
567
False
doctrine of stare decisis
48
What doctrine applies in jurisdictions that have a supreme court system?
5a7f8b8348f7d9001a06379b
True
its decisions are binding
138
What does stare decisis say about decisions made by lower courts in regard the supreme court?
5a7f8b8348f7d9001a06379c
True
jurisprudence constante
567
What is the civil court precedent also known as?
5a7f8b8348f7d9001a06379d
True
decisions of the supreme court
371
What are not necessarily binding in common law jurisdictions?
5a7f8b8348f7d9001a06379e
True
In jurisdictions using a common law system, the doctrine of stare decisis applies, whereby the principles applied by the supreme court in its decisions are binding upon all lower courts; this is intended to apply a uniform interpretation and implementation of the law. In civil law jurisdictions the doctrine of stare decisis is not generally considered to apply, so the decisions of the supreme court are not necessarily binding beyond the immediate case before it; however, in practice the decisions of the supreme court usually provide a very strong precedent, or jurisprudence constante, for both itself and all lower courts.
When was Canada's Supreme Court first established?
5727785fdd62a815002e9dc0
1875
58
False
Canada's Supreme Court didn't actually become that country's highest court until when?
5727785fdd62a815002e9dc1
1949
115
False
If a provincial case is appealed, how is the Supreme Court's decision applied?
5727785fdd62a815002e9dc2
The court's decisions are final and binding
367
False
Before 1949, Supreme Court decisions in Canada could be appealed to what body?
5727785fdd62a815002e9dc3
the Judicial Committee of the Privy Council
148
False
Supreme Court of Canada
15
What was established in 1785?
5a7f8ed348f7d9001a0637a3
True
the right of appeal to the Judicial Committee of the Privy Council
125
What was abolished in 1499?
5a7f8ed348f7d9001a0637a4
True
appeals of decisions made by courts of appeal from the provinces and territories and appeals of decisions made by the Federal Court of Appeal
224
What does the Judicial Committee of the Privy Council hear?
5a7f8ed348f7d9001a0637a5
True
for example, The Supreme Court of British Columbia does not have the final say and controversial cases heard there often get appealed in higher courts
530
Why can the title "Supreme Court" be confusing?
5a7f8ed348f7d9001a0637a6
True
In Canada, the Supreme Court of Canada was established in 1875 but only became the highest court in the country in 1949 when the right of appeal to the Judicial Committee of the Privy Council was abolished. This court hears appeals of decisions made by courts of appeal from the provinces and territories and appeals of decisions made by the Federal Court of Appeal. The court's decisions are final and binding on the federal courts and the courts from all provinces and territories. The title "Supreme" can be confusing because, for example, The Supreme Court of British Columbia does not have the final say and controversial cases heard there often get appealed in higher courts - it is in fact one of the lower courts in such a process.
When did Britain formally surrender sovreignty over Hong Kong?
57277a57f1498d1400e8f92c
1997
188
False
When Hong Kong was a colony of Great Britain, which body was the highest court of appeal?
57277a57f1498d1400e8f92d
the Judicial Committee of the Privy Council (JCPC)
270
False
Where is the JCPC located?
57277a57f1498d1400e8f92e
London, United Kingdom
324
False
When was the Court of Final Appeal established?
57277a57f1498d1400e8f92f
1997
434
False
The Standing Committee of the National People's Congress is seated in what city?
57277a57f1498d1400e8f930
Beijing
865
False
transfer of sovereignty
161
What event occurred in Hong Kong in 1979?
5a7f90fe48f7d9001a0637ab
True
Judicial Committee of the Privy Council
274
What is also known as the CJPC?
5a7f90fe48f7d9001a0637ac
True
Court of Final Appeal
401
What was created in 1979?
5a7f90fe48f7d9001a0637ad
True
judges from other common law jurisdictions (including England and Wales) can be recruited and continue to serve in the judiciary
542
What does Article 29 of the Basic Law state?
5a7f90fe48f7d9001a0637ae
True
the courts are authorised to interpret the Basic Law when trying cases
907
What does Article 185 of the Basic Law state?
5a7f90fe48f7d9001a0637af
True
In Hong Kong, the Supreme Court of Hong Kong (now known as the High Court of Hong Kong) was the final court of appeal during its colonial times which ended with transfer of sovereignty in 1997. The final adjudication power, as in any other British Colonies, rested with the Judicial Committee of the Privy Council (JCPC) in London, United Kingdom. Now the power of final adjudication is vested in the Court of Final Appeal created in 1997. Under the Basic Law, its constitution, the territory remains a common law jurisdiction. Consequently, judges from other common law jurisdictions (including England and Wales) can be recruited and continue to serve in the judiciary according to Article 92 of the Basic Law. On the other hand, the power of interpretation of the Basic Law itself is vested in the Standing Committee of the National People's Congress (NPCSC) in Beijing (without retroactive effect), and the courts are authorised to interpret the Basic Law when trying cases, in accordance with Article 158 of the Basic Law. This arrangement became controversial in light of the right of abode issue in 1999, raising concerns for judicial independence.
On what date was India's Supreme Court established?
57277b8ddd62a815002e9e32
January 28, 1950
52
False
What article of India's Constitution makes decisions by their Supreme Court binding on lower courts?
57277b8ddd62a815002e9e33
Article 141
105
False
India's Supreme Court has ultimate power to determine interpretations of what?
57277b8ddd62a815002e9e34
the Constitution
336
False
When the Supreme Court ensures that lower courts have properly applied the law it is called what?
57277b8ddd62a815002e9e35
judicial review
467
False
In addition to national laws, India's Supreme Court may also interpret what regulations?
57277b8ddd62a815002e9e36
local bylaws
401
False
Supreme Court of India
14
What was created on January 29, 1850?
5a7f934a48f7d9001a0637b5
True
the Constitution
87
What was adopted after the creation of the Supreme Court of India?
5a7f934a48f7d9001a0637b6
True
the law declared by Supreme Court is to be binding on all Courts within the territory of India
158
What does Article 414 of the Constitution of India say?
5a7f934a48f7d9001a0637b7
True
to ensure the application of the rule of law
483
Why is the Supreme Court vested with the power of judicial authority?
5a7f934a48f7d9001a0637b8
True
In India, the Supreme Court of India was created on January 28, 1950 after adoption of the Constitution. Article 141 of the Constitution of India states that the law declared by Supreme Court is to be binding on all Courts within the territory of India. It is the highest court in India and has ultimate judicial authority to interpret the Constitution and decide questions of national law (including local bylaws). The Supreme Court is also vested with the power of judicial review to ensure the application of the rule of law.
What is the highest ranking court in Ireland?
57278245f1498d1400e8fa2c
The Supreme Court
0
False
Ireland's highest court has the power to determine whether laws are allowed by what document?
57278245f1498d1400e8fa2d
the constitution
81
False
Who is the highest judge in Ireland's Supreme Court?
57278245f1498d1400e8fa2e
the Chief Justice
457
False
Besides chief justice, how many other judges sit on Ireland's Supreme Court?
57278245f1498d1400e8fa2f
seven other judges
480
False
Where is Ireland's Supreme Court seated?
57278245f1498d1400e8fa30
the Four Courts in Dublin
642
False
seven
480
The lower courts are made of a Chief Justice and how many other judges?
5a7f96c048f7d9001a0637bd
True
the Government
600
What organization's advice does the Chief Justice take when appointing Supreme Court Judges?
5a7f96c048f7d9001a0637be
True
Four Courts
646
Where does the appellate court sit in Dublin?
5a7f96c048f7d9001a0637bf
True
The Supreme Court is the highest court in Ireland. It has authority to interpret the constitution, and strike down laws and activities of the state that it finds to be unconstitutional. It is also the highest authority in the interpretation of the law. Constitutionally it must have authority to interpret the constitution but its further appellate jurisdiction from lower courts is defined by law. The Irish Supreme Court consists of its presiding member, the Chief Justice, and seven other judges. Judges of the Supreme Court are appointed by the President in accordance with the binding advice of the Government. The Supreme Court sits in the Four Courts in Dublin.
Where is Israel's Supreme Court located?
5727846af1498d1400e8fa6a
Jerusalem
145
False
Israel's Supreme Court fulfills what two major functions?
5727846af1498d1400e8fa6b
both an appellate court and the high court of justice
331
False
Israel's legislative body is called what?
5727846af1498d1400e8fa6c
the Knesset
1183
False
Israel's Supreme court has uses what internal method to review its own decisions?
5727846af1498d1400e8fa6d
a panel of three or more justices
1749
False
A retrial is also called what?
5727846af1498d1400e8fa6e
"trial de novo"
2147
False
in Jerusalem
142
Where does the Israeli appellate court sit?
5a7f992b48f7d9001a0637c3
True
both criminal and civil
454
What types of cases does the appeals court hear?
5a7f992b48f7d9001a0637c4
True
relief through orders such as injunction, mandamus and Habeas Corpus, as well as through declaratory judgments
1444
What does the Supreme Court of Jusice grant?
5a7f992b48f7d9001a0637c5
True
a retrial
2164
What is an "order trial de novo" also known as?
5a7f992b48f7d9001a0637c6
True
Israel's Supreme Court is at the head of the court system in the State of Israel. It is the highest judicial instance. The Supreme Court sits in Jerusalem. The area of its jurisdiction is the entire State. A ruling of the Supreme Court is binding upon every court, other than the Supreme Court itself. The Israeli supreme court is both an appellate court and the high court of justice. As an appellate court, the Supreme Court considers cases on appeal (both criminal and civil) on judgments and other decisions of the District Courts. It also considers appeals on judicial and quasi-judicial decisions of various kinds, such as matters relating to the legality of Knesset elections and disciplinary rulings of the Bar Association. As the High Court of Justice (Hebrew: Beit Mishpat Gavoha Le'Zedek בית משפט גבוה לצדק; also known by its initials as Bagatz בג"ץ), the Supreme Court rules as a court of first instance, primarily in matters regarding the legality of decisions of State authorities: Government decisions, those of local authorities and other bodies and persons performing public functions under the law, and direct challenges to the constitutionality of laws enacted by the Knesset. The court has broad discretionary authority to rule on matters in which it considers it necessary to grant relief in the interests of justice, and which are not within the jurisdiction of another court or tribunal. The High Court of Justice grants relief through orders such as injunction, mandamus and Habeas Corpus, as well as through declaratory judgments. The Supreme Court can also sit at a further hearing on its own judgment. In a matter on which the Supreme Court has ruled - whether as a court of appeals or as the High Court of Justice - with a panel of three or more justices, it may rule at a further hearing with a panel of a larger number of justices. A further hearing may be held if the Supreme Court makes a ruling inconsistent with a previous ruling or if the Court deems that the importance, difficulty or novelty of a ruling of the Court justifies such hearing. The Supreme Court also holds the unique power of being able to order "trial de novo" (a retrial).
When did New Zealand's Supreme Court come into being?
57278778f1498d1400e8fafc
2004
84
False
What is the role of New Zealand's highest court?
57278778f1498d1400e8fafd
purely appellate
239
False
What court's decisions may be appealed to New Zealand's supreme court?
57278778f1498d1400e8fafe
Court of Appeal of New Zealand
296
False
New Zealand's second ranking court is known as what?
57278778f1498d1400e8faff
the High Court
521
False
Local decisions by what judicial body may remain within the jurisdiction of local courts?
57278778f1498d1400e8fb00
the District Court
476
False
new Supreme Court of New Zealand
4
What was officially established at the beginning of 1980?
5a7f9dca48f7d9001a0637cb
True
The High Court of New Zealand
142
What was the Supreme Court known as until 2004?
5a7f9dca48f7d9001a0637cc
True
Supreme Court
384
Where are appeals always moved to from the High Court?
5a7f9dca48f7d9001a0637cd
True
lower court
498
What are the District Court and Court of Appeal considered to be?
5a7f9dca48f7d9001a0637ce
True
The new Supreme Court of New Zealand was officially established at the beginning of 2004, although it did not come into operation until July. The High Court of New Zealand was until 1980 known as the Supreme Court. The Supreme Court has a purely appellate jurisdiction and hears appeals from the Court of Appeal of New Zealand. In some cases, an appeal may be removed directly to the Supreme Court from the High Court. For certain cases, particularly cases which commenced in the District Court, a lower court (typically the High Court or the Court of Appeal) may be the court of final jurisdiction.
What are some of the territories within Pakistan?
572788535951b619008f8c8f
FATA, Azad Kashmir, Northern Areas and Islamabad Capital Territory (ICT)
45
False
What type of cases may Pakistan's Supreme Court hear from FATA?
572788535951b619008f8c90
appeals only of a constitutional nature
222
False
What Pakistani territory's own courts retain supremacy?
572788535951b619008f8c91
Azad Kashmir
345
False
What is the relationship between Pakistan's Constitution and Azad Kashmir?
572788535951b619008f8c92
does not apply to it
417
False
ICT
113
What is the Islamabad Territory Capital also known as?
5a7fa1c048f7d9001a0637d3
True
Pakistan's territories
16
What are FATA, Azad Northern, Kashmir Areas, and ICT?
5a7fa1c048f7d9001a0637d4
True
Azad Kashmir
345
Which province has its own courts system?
5a7fa1c048f7d9001a0637d5
True
With respect to Pakistan's territories (i.e. FATA, Azad Kashmir, Northern Areas and Islamabad Capital Territory (ICT)) the Supreme Court's jurisdiction is rather limited and varies from territory to territory; it can hear appeals only of a constitutional nature from FATA and Northern Areas, while ICT generally functions the same as provinces. Azad Kashmir has its own courts system and the constitution of Pakistan does not apply to it as such; appeals from Azad Kashmir relate to its relationship with Pakistan.
The Supreme Court of the United Kingdom holds Supremacy in what jurisdictions?
5727897ff1498d1400e8fb34
England, Wales and Northern Ireland and for civil matters in Scotland
96
False
What is the high court in Scotland that has supremacy on criminal matters?
5727897ff1498d1400e8fb35
the High Court of Justiciary
222
False
What legislation established the Supremacy of the Supreme Court of the UK?
5727897ff1498d1400e8fb36
Constitutional Reform Act 2005
294
False
When did this act go into affect?
5727897ff1498d1400e8fb37
1 October 2009
342
False
What body previously had judicial supremacy in the UK prior to this?
5727897ff1498d1400e8fb38
House of Lords
411
False
The Supreme Court
253
The Constitutional Reform Act of 2009 established what?
5a7fa67948f7d9001a0637d9
True
The Supreme Court
253
What went into effect in 2005?
5a7fa67948f7d9001a0637da
True
Devolution issues
427
What issues were addressed under the Scotland Act of 1989?
5a7fa67948f7d9001a0637db
True
House of Lords
411
What was the first judicial body in the United Kingdom?
5a7fa67948f7d9001a0637dc
True
England, Wales and Northern Ireland
96
Where is the Supreme court the ultimate court for criminal and judicial matters?
5a7fa67948f7d9001a0637dd
True
The Supreme Court of the United Kingdom is the ultimate court for criminal and civil matters in England, Wales and Northern Ireland and for civil matters in Scotland. (The supreme court for criminal matters in Scotland is the High Court of Justiciary.) The Supreme Court was established by the Constitutional Reform Act 2005 with effect from 1 October 2009, replacing and assuming the judicial functions of the House of Lords. Devolution issues under the Scotland Act 1998, Government of Wales Act and Northern Ireland Act were also transferred to the new Supreme Court by the Constitutional Reform Act, from the Judicial Committee of the Privy Council.
What may cause some confusion in the US regarding state supreme courts?
57278aac708984140094e057
titles of state supreme court vary
4
False
The Court of Appeals is the high court in which US States or territories?
57278aac708984140094e058
New York, Maryland, and the District of Columbia
183
False
What is West Virginia's highest court called?
57278aac708984140094e059
Supreme Court of Appeals
580
False
What state's supreme court is the oldest appellate court body in the western hemisphere?
57278aac708984140094e05a
Massachusetts
619
False
Supreme Courts in New York serve what function?
57278aac708984140094e05b
trial courts of general jurisdiction
359
False
Supreme Court of Appeals
580
What is the highest court in Virginia?
5a7faa8348f7d9001a0637e3
True
Massachusetts
619
What state has the oldest judicial court of continuous operation in the Western Hemisphere?
5a7faa8348f7d9001a0637e4
True
Supreme Court, Appellate Division
489
In New York, what is the intermediate judicial court called?
5a7faa8348f7d9001a0637e5
True
The titles of state supreme court vary, which can cause confusion between jurisdictions because one state may use a name for its highest court that another uses for a lower court. In New York, Maryland, and the District of Columbia the highest court is called the Court of Appeals, a name used by many states for their intermediate appellate courts. Further, trial courts of general jurisdiction in New York are called the Supreme Court, and the intermediate appellate court is called the Supreme Court, Appellate Division. In West Virginia, the highest court of the state is the Supreme Court of Appeals. In Maine and Massachusetts the highest court is styled the "Supreme Judicial Court"; the last is the oldest appellate court of continuous operation in the Western Hemisphere.
What document established judicial oversight of legislation in Austria?
57278be3dd62a815002e9ff0
the Austrian Constitution of 1920
12
False
What court is charged with the responsibility of deciding the constitutionality of laws in Austria?
57278be3dd62a815002e9ff1
Constitutional Court
190
False
What is the German word for this constitutional high court?
57278be3dd62a815002e9ff2
Verfassungsgerichtshof
212
False
What is the Constitutional Court's power over the executive branch of Austrian government?
57278be3dd62a815002e9ff3
the review of administrative acts on whether they violate constitutionally guaranteed rights
264
False
The Supreme Court of Austria is known by what German name?
57278be3dd62a815002e9ff4
Oberste Gerichtshof (OGH)
481
False
the Austrian Constitution
12
What was drafted in 1902?
5a7fabd548f7d9001a0637e9
True
Hans Kelsen
67
Who wrote the Austrian Constitution?
5a7fabd548f7d9001a0637ea
True
Verfassungsgerichtshof
212
What is the Austrian term for Administrative Court?
5a7fabd548f7d9001a0637eb
True
Verfassungsgerichtshof
212
What is the Austrian term for Constitutional Court?
5a7fabd548f7d9001a0637ec
True
Oberste Gerichtshof (OGH)
481
What is the Austrian term for "ordinary courts?"
5a7fabd548f7d9001a0637ed
True
In Austria, the Austrian Constitution of 1920 (based on a draft by Hans Kelsen) introduced judicial review of legislative acts for their constitutionality. This function is performed by the Constitutional Court (Verfassungsgerichtshof), which is also charged with the review of administrative acts on whether they violate constitutionally guaranteed rights. Other than that, administrative acts are reviewed by the Administrative Court (Verwaltungsgerichtshof). The Supreme Court (Oberste Gerichtshof (OGH)), stands at the top of Austria's system of "ordinary courts" (ordentliche Gerichte) as the final instance in issues of private law and criminal law.
What is the highest court in Brazil?
57278cb9f1498d1400e8fbb2
Supreme Federal Tribunal (Supremo Tribunal Federal)
15
False
What are the two areas this court has supremacy over?
57278cb9f1498d1400e8fbb3
cases that may be unconstitutional or final habeas corpus pleads for criminal cases
188
False
Which legislative bodies does this court sit in cases over?
57278cb9f1498d1400e8fbb4
cases involving members of congress, senators
315
False
What other government officials are subject to judgments of Brazil's highest court?
57278cb9f1498d1400e8fbb5
ministers of state, members of the high courts and the President and Vice-President of the Republic
362
False
What is Brazil's high court for labor law?
57278cb9f1498d1400e8fbb6
The Superior Labour Tribunal (Tribunal Superior do Trabalho)
667
False
general elections
890
The Superior Labour Tribunal oversees what type of elections?
5a7fb0f18f0597001ac0007b
True
cases that may be unconstitutional or final habeas corpus pleads for criminal cases
188
What two types of cases does the Superior Military Tribunal only review?
5a7fb0f18f0597001ac0007c
True
rulings
658
What conflicting outcomes does the Superior Electoral Tribunal deal with?
5a7fb0f18f0597001ac0007d
True
Supremo Tribunal Federal
41
What is the Brazilian name for the Supreme Court?
5a7fb0f18f0597001ac0007e
True
In Brazil, the Supreme Federal Tribunal (Supremo Tribunal Federal) is the highest court. It is both the constitutional court and the court of last resort in Brazilian law. It only reviews cases that may be unconstitutional or final habeas corpus pleads for criminal cases. It also judges, in original jurisdiction, cases involving members of congress, senators, ministers of state, members of the high courts and the President and Vice-President of the Republic. The Superior Court of Justice (Tribunal Superior de Justiça) reviews State and Federal Circuit courts decisions for civil law and criminal law cases, when dealing with federal law or conflicting rulings. The Superior Labour Tribunal (Tribunal Superior do Trabalho) reviews cases involving labour law. The Superior Electoral Tribunal (Tribunal Superior Eleitoral) is the court of last resort of electoral law, and also oversees general elections. The Superior Military Tribunal (Tribunal Superior Militar) is the highest court in matters of federal military law.
What is Germany's constitution called?
57278d70708984140094e0a3
the Grundgesetz
67
False
What German high court has the responsibility for interpreting this document?
57278d70708984140094e0a4
Bundesverfassungsgericht
103
False
The english translation of this court and its duties is what?
57278d70708984140094e0a5
Federal Constitutional Court
129
False
What unique electoral power does this German high court possess?
57278d70708984140094e0a6
the power and authority to outlaw political parties
459
False
Under what circumstances may the court enact this responsibility?
57278d70708984140094e0a7
it is deemed that these parties have repeatedly violated articles of the Constitution
515
False
Bundesverfassungsgericht
103
What is the German term for the German Constitutional Court?
5a7fb2f28f0597001ac00083
True
Grundgesetz
71
What is the German term for Federal Constitution?
5a7fb2f28f0597001ac00084
True
outlaw political parties
486
What can happen to a political party if it has repeatedly violated the German Court System?
5a7fb2f28f0597001ac00085
True
overrule decisions of
291
What can the German Court declare in regard to legislation?
5a7fb2f28f0597001ac00086
True
Final interpretation of and amendments to the German Constitution, the Grundgesetz, is the task of the Bundesverfassungsgericht (Federal Constitutional Court), which is the de facto highest German court, as it can declare both federal and state legislation ineffective, and has the power to overrule decisions of all other federal courts, despite not being a regular court of appeals on itself in the German court system. It is also the only court possessing the power and authority to outlaw political parties, if it is deemed that these parties have repeatedly violated articles of the Constitution.
The German high court has jurisdiction over what two areas of law?
57278e85dd62a815002ea046
civil and criminal cases
17
False
What court has supremacy for matters of social security?
57278e85dd62a815002ea047
Bundessozialgericht
238
False
What court sits in supremacy for cases related to employment and labor law in Germany?
57278e85dd62a815002ea048
Bundesarbeitsgericht
294
False
Germany's Joint Senate of the Supreme Courts is also known by what name?
57278e85dd62a815002ea049
Gemeinsamer Senat der Obersten Gerichtshöfe
468
False
financial issues
379
What else does Bundesgerichtshof deal with besides taxation?
5a7fb6be8f0597001ac0008b
True
the hierarchy of courts
82
What is the Bundessozialgericht at the top of?
5a7fb6be8f0597001ac0008c
True
administrative
434
What type of law is Bundesarbeitsgericht for?
5a7fb6be8f0597001ac0008d
True
Gemeinsamer Senat der Obersten Gerichtshöfe
468
What is the German term for the Senate of the Supreme Courts?
5a7fb6be8f0597001ac0008e
True
very infrequently
899
How often does the Joint Supreme Court gather?
5a7fb6be8f0597001ac0008f
True
When it comes to civil and criminal cases, the Bundesgerichtshof is at the top of the hierarchy of courts. The other branches of the German judicial system each have their own appellate systems, each topped by a high court; these are the Bundessozialgericht for matters of social security, the Bundesarbeitsgericht for employment and labour, the Bundesfinanzhof for taxation and financial issues, and the Bundesverwaltungsgericht for administrative law. The so-called Gemeinsamer Senat der Obersten Gerichtshöfe (Joint Senate of the Supreme Courts) is not a supreme court in itself, but an ad-hoc body that is convened in only when one supreme court intends to diverge from another supreme court's legal opinion or when a certain case exceeds the authority of one court. As the courts have well-defined areas of responsibility, situations like these are rather rare and so, the Joint Senate gathers very infrequently, and only to consider matters which are mostly definitory.
Decisions of the Dutch Supreme Court are called what?
57278f7edd62a815002ea060
arresten
98
False
The Supreme Court of the Netherlands cannot interpret what?
57278f7edd62a815002ea061
legislation against the constitution
164
False
What areas of interpretative oversight does the supreme court have?
57278f7edd62a815002ea062
legislation against some treaties
299
False
Holland's regular court system does not handle cases related to what area of law?
57278f7edd62a815002ea063
administrative law
422
False
The high court for administrative law is also known as what?
57278f7edd62a815002ea064
Council of State (Raad van State)
525
False
arresten
98
What is another term for the Supreme Court of the Netherlands?
5a7fba588f0597001ac00095
True
testing legislation against the constitution
156
What is the court banned from according to the principle of the States-General?
5a7fba588f0597001ac00096
True
Raad van State
543
What is the term for the Council of States-General?
5a7fba588f0597001ac00097
True
Hoge Raad
394
What is the name of a court that deals with administrative law?
5a7fba588f0597001ac00098
True
In the Netherlands, the Supreme Court of the Netherlands is the highest. Its decisions, known as "arresten", are absolutely final. The court is banned from testing legislation against the constitution, pursuant to the principle of the sovereignty of the States-General; the court can, however, test legislation against some treaties. Also, the ordinary courts in the Netherlands, including the Hoge Raad, do not deal with administrative law, which is dealt with in separate administrative courts, the highest of which is the Council of State (Raad van State)
What type of legal system is the Philippines officially?
57279048708984140094e0f9
a civil law nation
46
False
The high court in The Philippines is modeled after what judicial body?
57279048708984140094e0fa
the American Supreme Court
110
False
What document grants the Philippines Supreme Court the right of judicial review?
57279048708984140094e0fb
1987 Philippine Constitution
582
False
How many justices make up the Philippines Supreme Court?
57279048708984140094e0fc
1 Chief Justice and 14 Associate Justices
750
False
When all judges of a court hear a case at once it is called?
57279048708984140094e0fd
en banc
815
False
Philippines
10
What nation's court is the American Supreme Court heavily modeled after?
5a7fbfe88f0597001ac0009d
True
United States
230
In addition to the Philippines, what country was Spain colonized by?
5a7fbfe88f0597001ac0009e
True
Philippine Constitution
587
What was written in 1897?
5a7fbfe88f0597001ac0009f
True
"form part of the law of the land"
501
What does the Philippine Statute Code state about the decisions of the Supreme Court?
5a7fbfe88f0597001ac000a0
True
While the Philippines is generally considered a civil law nation, its Supreme Court is heavily modelled after the American Supreme Court. This can be attributed to the fact that the Philippines was colonized by both Spain and the United States, and the system of laws of both nations strongly influenced the development of Philippine laws and jurisprudence. Even as the body of Philippine laws remain mostly codified, the Philippine Civil Code expressly recognizes that decisions of the Supreme Court "form part of the law of the land", belonging to the same class as statutes. The 1987 Philippine Constitution also explicitly grants to the Supreme Court the power of judicial review over laws and executive actions. The Supreme Court is composed of 1 Chief Justice and 14 Associate Justices. The court sits either en banc or in divisions, depending on the nature of the case to be decided.
The Spanish Supreme Court hears all cases related to law in what areas?
5727911add62a815002ea09e
private and public
72
False
What types of cases can be appealed to Spain's Constitutional Court?
5727911add62a815002ea09f
those cases related to human rights
98
False
What is the other power of this latter court?
5727911add62a815002ea0a0
decides about acts accordance with Spanish Constitution
190
False
High courts in Spain do not establish what for lower court rulings?
5727911add62a815002ea0a1
binding precedents
284
False
In practicality, how do lower courts typically view the rulings of higher courts?
5727911add62a815002ea0a2
lower rank courts usually observe Supreme Court interpretations
313
False
to appeal at the Supreme Court.
464
What are five Supreme Court judgement supporting a claim needed for?
5a7fc1f48f0597001ac000a5
True
Supreme Court interpretations
347
What do lower rank courts always observe?
5a7fc1f48f0597001ac000a6
True
appealed
141
What action does the Supreme Court only allow for cases related to human rights?
5a7fc1f48f0597001ac000a7
True
Spanish Supreme Court is the highest court for all cases in Spain (both private and public). Only those cases related to human rights can be appealed at the Constitutional Court (which also decides about acts accordance with Spanish Constitution). In Spain, high courts cannot create binding precedents; however, lower rank courts usually observe Supreme Court interpretations. In most private law cases, two Supreme Court judgements supporting a claim are needed to appeal at the Supreme Court. Five sections form the Spanish Supreme court:
Sweden's two high courts are what?
572791fb708984140094e12b
the Supreme Court and the Supreme Administrative Court
11
False
What is a type of case heard by the Supreme Administrative Court?
572791fb708984140094e12c
cases concerning disputes between individuals and administrative organs
166
False
The Supreme Court hears what?
572791fb708984140094e12d
all other cases
322
False
How are judges placed on Sweden's high courts?
572791fb708984140094e12e
appointed by the Government
354
False
The ability to appeal a case provided by Sweden's court system is called what?
572791fb708984140094e12f
prövningstillstånd
457
False
prövningstillstånd
457
What is the Swedish term for government?
5a7fc52a8f0597001ac000ab
True
disputes among administrative organs,
250
What other cases does the Supreme Court consider besides disputes between individuals and administrative organs?
5a7fc52a8f0597001ac000ac
True
the Supreme Court and the Supreme Administrative Court
11
What two courts are equally the highest courts of the land?
5a7fc52a8f0597001ac000ad
True
judges
343
The Supreme Court appoints what position?
5a7fc52a8f0597001ac000ae
True
In Sweden, the Supreme Court and the Supreme Administrative Court respectively function as the highest courts of the land. The Supreme Administrative Court considers cases concerning disputes between individuals and administrative organs, as well as disputes among administrative organs, while the Supreme Court considers all other cases. The judges are appointed by the Government. In most cases, the Supreme Courts will only grant leave to appeal a case (prövningstillstånd) if the case involves setting a precedent in the interpretation of the law. Exceptions are issues where the Supreme Court is the court of first instance. Such cases include an application for a retrial of a criminal case in the light of new evidence, and prosecutions made against an incumbent minister of the Government for severe neglect of duty. If a lower court has to try a case which involves a question where there is no settled interpretation of the law, it can also refer the question to the relevant Supreme Court for an answer.
When was the Supreme Court of Sri Lanka created?
572792f95951b619008f8de5
1972
60
False
The Sri Lankan Supreme Court's decisions override what?
572792f95951b619008f8de6
all lower Courts
302
False
Sri Lankan law mixes what two categories of jurisprudence?
572792f95951b619008f8de7
common-law and civil-law
375
False
What majority is necessary in the Sri Lankan Parliament to dismiss a president and the Court?
572792f95951b619008f8de8
2/3
553
False
the Supreme Court of Sri Lanka
14
What was created in 1927?
5a7fc64b8f0597001ac000b3
True
new Constitution.
89
What was adopted before 1972?
5a7fc64b8f0597001ac000b4
True
The Sri Lanka judicial system
320
What do capital-law and civil-law blend together to make?
5a7fc64b8f0597001ac000b5
True
capital punishment
423
The president of the country may play a role in what type of cases?
5a7fc64b8f0597001ac000b6
True
In Sri Lanka, the Supreme Court of Sri Lanka was created in 1972 after the adoption of a new Constitution. The Supreme Court is the highest and final superior court of record and is empowered to exercise its powers, subject to the provisions of the Constitution. The court rulings take precedence over all lower Courts. The Sri Lanka judicial system is complex blend of both common-law and civil-law. In some cases such as capital punishment, the decision may be passed on to the President of the Republic for clemency petitions. However, when there is 2/3 majority in the parliament in favour of president (as with present), the supreme court and its judges' powers become nullified as they could be fired from their positions according to the Constitution, if the president wants. Therefore, in such situations, Civil law empowerment vanishes.
South Africa used what type of system to determine it's high courts until 2013?
572793a7dd62a815002ea0ea
"two apex"
19
False
When was the Supreme Court of Appeal created?
572793a7dd62a815002ea0eb
1994
113
False
What court in South Africa has authority over the SCA?
572793a7dd62a815002ea0ec
the Constitutional Court
279
False
When did the Constitutional Court become the highest court in South Africa in all matters?
572793a7dd62a815002ea0ed
August 2013
416
False
a "two apex" system
17
What existed from 1993 to 2014?
5a7fc8148f0597001ac000bb
True
The Supreme Court of Appeal (SCA)
64
What was created in 2013 to replace the Appellate Division of the Supreme Court of South Africa?
5a7fc8148f0597001ac000bc
True
the Constitution
428
What was amended in August 1994?
5a7fc8148f0597001ac000bd
True
The SCA
253
What is the Constitutional Court subordinate to?
5a7fc8148f0597001ac000be
True
In South Africa, a "two apex" system existed from 1994 to 2013. The Supreme Court of Appeal (SCA) was created in 1994 and replaced the Appellate Division of the Supreme Court of South Africa as the highest court of appeal in non-constitutional matters. The SCA is subordinate to the Constitutional Court, which is the highest court in matters involving the interpretation and application of the Constitution. But in August 2013 the Constitution was amended to make the Constitutional Court the country's single apex court, superior to the SCA in all matters, both constitutional and non-constitutional.
What nation's model gives the power of the high court to the legistlature?
572794ac5951b619008f8e0b
Soviet Union
54
False
What is the name of China's high court which sits as a legislative committee?
572794ac5951b619008f8e0c
Standing Committee of the National People's Congress (NPCSC)
228
False
Current decisions by the NPCSC do not affect what?
572794ac5951b619008f8e0d
cases which have already been decided
638
False
Hong Kong's legal system was traditionally based on what?
572794ac5951b619008f8e0e
common law
453
False
Macau's legal system comes from what tradition?
572794ac5951b619008f8e0f
Portuguese-based legal system
468
False
Standing Committee of the National People's Congress
228
What is the NCPSC also known as?
5a7fca3f8f0597001ac000cd
True
Hong Kong
351
What country can interpret the laws of Macau and China?
5a7fca3f8f0597001ac000ce
True
Soviet Union
54
What country is the Chinese legal system based on?
5a7fca3f8f0597001ac000cf
True
In most nations with constitutions modelled after the Soviet Union, the legislature was given the power of being the court of last resort. In the People's Republic of China, the final power to interpret the law is vested in the Standing Committee of the National People's Congress (NPCSC). This power includes the power to interpret the basic laws of Hong Kong and Macau, the constitutional documents of the two special administrative regions which are common law and Portuguese-based legal system jurisdictions respectively. This power is a legislative power and not a judicial one in that an interpretation by the NPCSC does not affect cases which have already been decided.
Textual_criticism
What type of documents does a textual critic usually analyze?
572773f6708984140094dded
a manuscript copy, several or many copies, but not the original document
263
False
What is the proper name for textual scholarship?
572773f6708984140094ddef
philology
54
False
Why are there differences in ancient copies of the same text?
572773f6708984140094ddf0
Ancient scribes made alterations when copying manuscripts by hand
190
False
What do textual critics call a revised edition of a text?
572773f6708984140094ddf1
recensions
536
False
critical edition
663
What type of edition does a textual critic usually analyze?
5a8c75a2fd22b3001a8d8839
True
reconstruct the original text
370
What is the goal of the textual author?
5a8c75a2fd22b3001a8d883a
True
the archetype
401
What is the proper name for textual profession?
5a8c75a2fd22b3001a8d883b
True
the textual critic might seek to reconstruct the original text
337
Why are there differences in modern copies of the same text?
5a8c75a2fd22b3001a8d883c
True
autograph
418
What do textual critics call a perfectly translated edition of a text?
5a8c75a2fd22b3001a8d883d
True
Textual criticism is a branch of textual scholarship, philology, and literary criticism that is concerned with the identification of textual variants in either manuscripts or printed books. Ancient scribes made alterations when copying manuscripts by hand. Given a manuscript copy, several or many copies, but not the original document, the textual critic might seek to reconstruct the original text (the archetype or autograph) as closely as possible. The same processes can be used to attempt to reconstruct intermediate versions, or recensions, of a document's transcription history. The ultimate objective of the textual critic's work is the production of a "critical edition" containing a scholarly curated text.
Interest in an analysis of what text has arose in the early 1970's?
572775a9dd62a815002e9d64
Qur'an
592
False
Why are scholars concerned with analysis of the Gospels over the letters?
572775a9dd62a815002e9d65
biblical books that are letters, like Greek plays, presumably had one original
356
False
Why is it important for textual critics to analyze the Gospels?
572775a9dd62a815002e9d66
the question of whether some biblical books, like the Gospels, ever had just one original has been discussed
436
False
What manuscripts prompted a textual analysis of the Qur'an
572775a9dd62a815002e9d67
Sana'a manuscripts
645
False
When were the Sana'a manuscripts probably written?
572775a9dd62a815002e9d68
possibly date back to the 7–8th centuries.
679
False
Greek tragedies
46
Interest in an analysis of what text has arose in the early 8th century?
5a8c7669fd22b3001a8d8843
True
which sources are most closely derived from the original
221
Why are scholars concerned with analysis of plays?
5a8c7669fd22b3001a8d8844
True
the original may be unclear
148
Why is it important for textual critics to analyze plays?
5a8c7669fd22b3001a8d8845
True
the Bible and the Greek tragedies
28
What books prompted a textual analysis of modern work?
5a8c7669fd22b3001a8d8846
True
Sana'a manuscripts
645
Which manuscript was written in 1972?
5a8c7669fd22b3001a8d8847
True
Many ancient works, such as the Bible and the Greek tragedies,[citation needed] survive in hundreds of copies, and the relationship of each copy to the original may be unclear. Textual scholars have debated for centuries which sources are most closely derived from the original, hence which readings in those sources are correct.[citation needed] Although biblical books that are letters, like Greek plays, presumably had one original, the question of whether some biblical books, like the Gospels, ever had just one original has been discussed. Interest in applying textual criticism to the Qur'an has also developed after the discovery of the Sana'a manuscripts in 1972, which possibly date back to the 7–8th centuries.
What is one reasons Shakespeare is a good place to focus on textual criticism?
57277778708984140094de55
the texts, as transmitted, contain a considerable amount of variation,
125
False
Aside from Shakespeare, what is another book that is a major focus of textual criticism?
57277778708984140094de56
Bible
428
False
Name two of the oldest civilizations that textual criticism has focused on.
57277778708984140094de57
Mesopotamia and Egypt
566
False
Why is there opposition to textual criticism of Jewish and Muslim religious books?
57277778708984140094de58
is, to the devout, taboo.
872
False
Over approximately what expanse of time can textual criticism be applied to written works?
57277778708984140094de59
a period of about five millennia
588
False
texts, as transmitted, contain a considerable amount of variation
129
Why do critics hate focusing on Shakespeare?
5a8c775dfd22b3001a8d8857
True
the Bible
424
What book did Shakespeare write?
5a8c775dfd22b3001a8d8858
True
Mesopotamia and Egypt
566
When were the most recent documents in criticism?
5a8c775dfd22b3001a8d8859
True
Christianity
742
It's too taboo to criticize the Torah, Qur'an, and what other religion?
5a8c775dfd22b3001a8d885a
True
In the English language, the works of Shakespeare have been a particularly fertile ground for textual criticism—both because the texts, as transmitted, contain a considerable amount of variation, and because the effort and expense of producing superior editions of his works have always been widely viewed as worthwhile. The principles of textual criticism, although originally developed and refined for works of antiquity, the Bible, and Shakespeare, have been applied to many works, extending backwards from the present to the earliest known written documents, in Mesopotamia and Egypt—a period of about five millennia. However, the application of textual criticism to non-religious works does not antedate the invention of printing. While Christianity has been relatively receptive to textual criticism, application of it to the Jewish (Masoretic) Torah and the Qur'an is, to the devout, taboo.[citation needed]
What is the first goal when attempting to analyze a new text?
57277836f1498d1400e8f8f8
identification of the first exemplar
258
False
Why is finding the first exemplar important in textual criticism?
57277836f1498d1400e8f8f9
split in the tradition
306
False
The exemplar is otherwise known as what?
57277836f1498d1400e8f8fa
the archetype
356
False
The final product of reconstruction is known as what?
57277836f1498d1400e8f8fb
the constitutio
431
False
establishing the text of [the archetype]
389
What is the second goal when attempting to analyze a new text?
5a8c77bffd22b3001a8d8869
True
the constitutio (reconstruction of the original) is considerably advanced.
431
Why is finding the last exemplar important in textual criticism?
5a8c77bffd22b3001a8d886a
True
constitutio
435
The first product of reconstruction is known as what?
5a8c77bffd22b3001a8d886b
True
constitutio
435
The middle product of reconstruction is known as what?
5a8c77bffd22b3001a8d886c
True
autograph
134
The final product of reconstruction is known as what?
5a8c77bffd22b3001a8d886d
True
Maas comments further that "A dictation revised by the author must be regarded as equivalent to an autograph manuscript". The lack of autograph manuscripts applies to many cultures other than Greek and Roman. In such a situation, a key objective becomes the identification of the first exemplar before any split in the tradition. That exemplar is known as the archetype. "If we succeed in establishing the text of [the archetype], the constitutio (reconstruction of the original) is considerably advanced.
What is included in or accompanies in "critical edition"?
572778c3708984140094de8f
apparatus criticus or critical apparatus
219
False
What is the purpose of the critical apparatus?
572778c3708984140094de90
presents the author's work in three parts
284
False
What is the goal of the textual critic?
57277992dd62a815002e9dee
a "critical edition"
61
False
A critical edition of a text is accompanied by what?
57277992dd62a815002e9def
apparatus criticus or critical apparatus.
219
False
What is included in the first part of the critical apparatus?
57277992dd62a815002e9df0
a list or description of the evidence that the editor used (names of manuscripts, or abbreviations called sigla)
334
False
What is included in the second part of the critical apparatus?
57277992dd62a815002e9df1
the editor's analysis of that evidence (sometimes a simple likelihood rating)
456
False
What is included in the final part of the critical apparatus?
57277992dd62a815002e9df2
a record of rejected variants of the text (often in order of preference)
564
False
the original
180
What is included in "ultimate edition"?
5a8c7889fd22b3001a8d887d
True
presents the author's work in three parts
284
What is the purpose of the rejected apparatus?
5a8c7889fd22b3001a8d887e
True
three
314
How many parts is in the textual apparatus?
5a8c7889fd22b3001a8d887f
True
the original
180
What is the fourth part in the critical apparatus?
5a8c7889fd22b3001a8d8880
True
The textual critic's ultimate objective is the production of a "critical edition".[citation needed] This contains the text that the author has determined most closely approximates the original, and is accompanied by an apparatus criticus or critical apparatus. The critical apparatus presents the author's work in three parts: first, a list or description of the evidence that the editor used (names of manuscripts, or abbreviations called sigla); second, the editor's analysis of that evidence (sometimes a simple likelihood rating),[citation needed]; and third, a record of rejected variants of the text (often in order of preference).[citation needed]
Why are there multiple variations of texts before the advent of the printing press?
57277a85708984140094debb
literature was copied by hand
28
False
Are printed editions immune to variation?
57277a85708984140094debc
not immune to introducing variations from an author's autograph
315
False
How do differences in works arise when using a printing press?
57277a85708984140094debd
a compositor or a printing shop may read or typeset a work in a way that differs from the autograph
423
False
An edited text compiled through many sources is known as what?
57277a85708984140094debe
eclectic.
744
False
mechanical printing
7
How did they copy literature before they did it by hand?
5a8c7a01fd22b3001a8d889e
True
by hand
50
How did they copy literature after mechanical printing?
5a8c7a01fd22b3001a8d889f
True
reconstruction of the lost original is often aided by a selection of readings taken from many sources
579
How do printing presses provide identical copies?
5a8c7a01fd22b3001a8d88a0
True
text that draws from multiple sources is said to be eclectic
692
Why do textual critics prefer to use multiple sources?
5a8c7a01fd22b3001a8d88a1
True
Before mechanical printing, literature was copied by hand, and many variations were introduced by copyists. The age of printing made the scribal profession effectively redundant. Printed editions, while less susceptible to the proliferation of variations likely to arise during manual transmission, are nonetheless not immune to introducing variations from an author's autograph. Instead of a scribe miscopying his source, a compositor or a printing shop may read or typeset a work in a way that differs from the autograph. Since each scribe or printer commits different errors, reconstruction of the lost original is often aided by a selection of readings taken from many sources. An edited text that draws from multiple sources is said to be eclectic. In contrast to this approach, some textual critics prefer to identify the single best surviving text, and not to combine readings from multiple sources.
Different documents that represent the same original text are called what?
57277c05dd62a815002e9e44
witnesses
40
False
What are the variations in the text of witnesses known as?
57277c05dd62a815002e9e45
variant readings, or simply variants or readings.
116
False
How or why do variations enter a witness text?
57277c05dd62a815002e9e46
either by accident (duplication or omission) or intention (harmonization or censorship)
346
False
As well as representing the original text, a critical text must also do what?
57277c05dd62a815002e9e47
document variant readings
788
False
Why is it important to document variations in witness texts when compiling a critical text?
57277c05dd62a815002e9e48
so the relation of extant witnesses to the reconstructed original is apparent to a reader of the critical edition.
815
False
witnesses
40
Identical documents that represent different text are called what?
5a8c7aaafd22b3001a8d88ba
True
duplication
366
What are the similarities in the text of witnesses known as?
5a8c7aaafd22b3001a8d88bb
True
When comparing different documents
0
When do variations enter a witness text?
5a8c7aaafd22b3001a8d88bc
True
"external" evidence
999
What is the fourth way the textual critic considers evidence?
5a8c7aaafd22b3001a8d88bd
True
physical
1093
What is the fifth way the textual critic considers evidence?
5a8c7aaafd22b3001a8d88be
True
When comparing different documents, or "witnesses", of a single, original text, the observed differences are called variant readings, or simply variants or readings. It is not always apparent which single variant represents the author's original work. The process of textual criticism seeks to explain how each variant may have entered the text, either by accident (duplication or omission) or intention (harmonization or censorship), as scribes or supervisors transmitted the original author's text by copying it. The textual critic's task, therefore, is to sort through the variants, eliminating those most likely to be un-original, hence establishing a "critical text", or critical edition, that is intended to best approximate the original. At the same time, the critical text should document variant readings, so the relation of extant witnesses to the reconstructed original is apparent to a reader of the critical edition. In establishing the critical text, the textual critic considers both "external" evidence (the age, provenance, and affiliation of each witness) and "internal" or "physical" considerations (what the author and scribes, or printers, were likely to have done).
What is a variorum?
57277e13f1498d1400e8f9aa
The collation of all known variants of a text
0
False
What is the purpose of a variorum?
57277e13f1498d1400e8f9ab
so that a reader can track how textual decisions have been made in the preparation of a text for publication
171
False
Name one author who is less frequently the subject of a variorum.
57277e13f1498d1400e8f9ac
Edward Fitzgerald
533
False
Name two works that are often the subject of a variorum.
57277e13f1498d1400e8f9ad
The Bible and the works of William Shakespeare
281
False
variorum
66
What is the name for the collation of all unknown variants of a text?
5a8c7b39fd22b3001a8d88dc
True
variorum
66
What is it called when the variations are texts are read separately?
5a8c7b39fd22b3001a8d88dd
True
Bible
285
What book wasn't a product of variorum?
5a8c7b39fd22b3001a8d88de
True
William Shakespeare
308
What author wasn't part of a variorum?
5a8c7b39fd22b3001a8d88df
True
variorum
360
Leaves of Grass did not undergo what process?
5a8c7b39fd22b3001a8d88e0
True
The collation of all known variants of a text is referred to as a variorum, namely a work of textual criticism whereby all variations and emendations are set side by side so that a reader can track how textual decisions have been made in the preparation of a text for publication. The Bible and the works of William Shakespeare have often been the subjects of variorum editions, although the same techniques have been applied with less frequency to many other works, such as Walt Whitman's Leaves of Grass, and the prose writings of Edward Fitzgerald.
What is often included in an eclectic reading?
57277f03708984140094df2d
an impression of the number of witnesses
37
False
Why would someone prefer a second edition to a first edition?
57277f03708984140094df2e
a second edition of a Shakespeare play may include an addition alluding to an event known to have happened between the two editions
237
False
Do textual critics always include additions found in the majority of subsequent versions of a work?
57277f03708984140094df2f
textual critics may reconstruct the original without the addition.
445
False
impression of the number of witnesses
40
What do eclectic readings not do?
5a8c7ba9fd22b3001a8d88f0
True
may include an addition alluding to an event known to have happened between the two editions
276
Why do people prefer a first edition Shakespeare play?
5a8c7ba9fd22b3001a8d88f1
True
second
239
Which edition did not include an addition alluding to an event?
5a8c7ba9fd22b3001a8d88f2
True
the addition
498
Textual critics may reconstruct the last edition of a work without what?
5a8c7ba9fd22b3001a8d88f3
True
Eclectic readings also normally give an impression of the number of witnesses to each available reading. Although a reading supported by the majority of witnesses is frequently preferred, this does not follow automatically. For example, a second edition of a Shakespeare play may include an addition alluding to an event known to have happened between the two editions. Although nearly all subsequent manuscripts may have included the addition, textual critics may reconstruct the original without the addition.
What is external evidence?
57278046f1498d1400e8fa0c
evidence of each physical witness, its date, source, and relationship to other known witnesses.
21
False
Why are older manuscripts preferred?
57278046f1498d1400e8fa0d
Since errors tend to accumulate, older manuscripts should have fewer errors.
191
False
What characteristic of a compilation of witnesses is the most beneficial to a textual critic?
57278046f1498d1400e8fa0e
geographically diverse
444
False
What characteristic of a single witness is the most beneficial to a textual critic?
57278046f1498d1400e8fa0f
more than one prior copy (exemplar) was consulted in producing the current one
660
False
errors
197
External evidence is evidence of each physical witness, its date, source, relationship to other known witnesses, and what else?
5a8c7c73fd22b3001a8d88f8
True
fewer errors
254
Why do critics prefer the newest witnesses?
5a8c7c73fd22b3001a8d88f9
True
less likely to reflect accidents or individual biases
358
Why do critics prefer minority of witnesses?
5a8c7c73fd22b3001a8d88fa
True
particular care was taken in their composition
528
Why do critics prefer geographically similar witnesses?
5a8c7c73fd22b3001a8d88fb
True
later copies
965
There are more early copies than what type of copies?
5a8c7c73fd22b3001a8d88fc
True
External evidence is evidence of each physical witness, its date, source, and relationship to other known witnesses. Critics will often prefer the readings supported by the oldest witnesses. Since errors tend to accumulate, older manuscripts should have fewer errors. Readings supported by a majority of witnesses are also usually preferred, since these are less likely to reflect accidents or individual biases. For the same reasons, the most geographically diverse witnesses are preferred. Some manuscripts show evidence that particular care was taken in their composition, for example, by including alternative readings in their margins, demonstrating that more than one prior copy (exemplar) was consulted in producing the current one. Other factors being equal, these are the best witnesses. The role of the textual critic is necessary when these basic criteria are in conflict. For instance, there will typically be fewer early copies, and a larger number of later copies. The textual critic will attempt to balance these criteria, to determine the original text.
Define "lectio brevior"
57278182dd62a815002e9f04
shorter reading
63
False
Define "lectio difficilior"
57278182dd62a815002e9f05
more difficult reading
104
False
What is the main principle of lectio brevior?
57278182dd62a815002e9f06
scribes tended to add words, for clarification or out of habit
171
False
What is the main principle of lectio difficilior?
57278182dd62a815002e9f07
the tendency for harmonization—resolving apparent inconsistencies in the text.
353
False
Is a lectio brevrio or lectio difficilior approach more akin to the original text?
57278182dd62a815002e9f08
Applying this principle leads to taking the more difficult (unharmonized) reading as being more likely to be the original.
432
False
lectio brevior
47
What's the term for "longer reading"?
5a8c7cd4fd22b3001a8d8910
True
lectio difficilior
84
What's the term for "easier reading"?
5a8c7cd4fd22b3001a8d8911
True
lectio brevior
47
What is the term for when words are deducted for clarification?
5a8c7cd4fd22b3001a8d8912
True
lectio difficilior
282
What is the term for when there are consistencies in the text?
5a8c7cd4fd22b3001a8d8913
True
Two common considerations have the Latin names lectio brevior (shorter reading) and lectio difficilior (more difficult reading). The first is the general observation that scribes tended to add words, for clarification or out of habit, more often than they removed them. The second, lectio difficilior potior (the harder reading is stronger), recognizes the tendency for harmonization—resolving apparent inconsistencies in the text. Applying this principle leads to taking the more difficult (unharmonized) reading as being more likely to be the original. Such cases also include scribes simplifying and smoothing texts they did not fully understand.
How many rules were proposed in the 1881 publication of the New Testament in Greek?
572782e0708984140094dfa3
They proposed nine critical rules
127
False
What is Bengel's rule?
572782e0708984140094dfa4
The reading is less likely to be original that shows a disposition to smooth away difficulties.
201
False
Does ease of reading correlate to accuracy in relation to the original text?
572782e0708984140094dfa5
"The reading is to be preferred that most fitly explains the existence of the others."
442
False
What is more important for a textual critic: quality or quantity?
572782e0708984140094dfa6
Readings are approved or rejected by reason of the quality, and not the number, of their supporting witnesses
321
False
What is the criteria needed to include or dismiss a reading when critiquing texts?
572782e0708984140094dfa7
The reading is to be preferred that most fitly explains the existence of the others.
443
False
1901
27
When did Westcott and Hort meet?
5a8c7d6bfd22b3001a8d8918
True
1881
121
When did Westcott and Hort go into business together?
5a8c7d6bfd22b3001a8d8919
True
1892
61
When did they propose Bengel's rule?
5a8c7d6bfd22b3001a8d891a
True
approved or rejected
334
The number of supporting witnesses explains why readings are what?
5a8c7d6bfd22b3001a8d891b
True
most fitly explains the existence of the others.
479
Which reading is less preferred?
5a8c7d6bfd22b3001a8d891c
True
Brooke Foss Westcott (1825–1901) and Fenton J. A. Hort (1828–1892) published an edition of the New Testament in Greek in 1881. They proposed nine critical rules, including a version of Bengel's rule, "The reading is less likely to be original that shows a disposition to smooth away difficulties." They also argued that "Readings are approved or rejected by reason of the quality, and not the number, of their supporting witnesses", and that "The reading is to be preferred that most fitly explains the existence of the others."
Is textual criticism immune to bias on the part of the critic?
57278440708984140094dfcd
justify a result that fits the textual critic's aesthetic or theological agenda
137
False
When did scientists begin searching for a more defined guideline for textual criticism?
57278440708984140094dfce
19th century
234
False
What inclusion helps readers and critics understand the motivation behind the compiler?
57278440708984140094dfcf
The citing of sources used, and alternate readings, and the use of original text and images
660
False
What is a further benefit of including sources, texts and original images in a critique?
57278440708984140094dfd0
the depth of research of the critic
807
False
criticism
20
What canons are not susceptible to interpretation?
5a8c7df1fd22b3001a8d892c
True
criticism
20
What canons are not contradictory?
5a8c7df1fd22b3001a8d892d
True
19th century
234
When did scholars stop looking for more rigorous methods?
5a8c7df1fd22b3001a8d892e
True
establishing one or a few witnesses presumably as being favored by "objective" criteria
554
The editor sought to raise subjectivity by what?
5a8c7df1fd22b3001a8d892f
True
the editor
467
Who was only permitted to select one reading?
5a8c7df1fd22b3001a8d8930
True
Since the canons of criticism are highly susceptible to interpretation, and at times even contradict each other, they may be employed to justify a result that fits the textual critic's aesthetic or theological agenda. Starting in the 19th century, scholars sought more rigorous methods to guide editorial judgment. Best-text editing (a complete rejection of eclecticism) became one extreme. Stemmatics and copy-text editing – while both eclectic, in that they permit the editor to select readings from multiple sources – sought to reduce subjectivity by establishing one or a few witnesses presumably as being favored by "objective" criteria.[citation needed] The citing of sources used, and alternate readings, and the use of original text and images helps readers and other critics determine to an extent the depth of research of the critic, and to independently verify their work.
What is stemmatics?
57278d085951b619008f8d3b
a rigorous approach to textual criticism
42
False
What is a cladogram?
57278d085951b619008f8d3c
The family tree is also referred to as a cladogram.
504
False
What is implied when two witnesses have a number of errors in common?
57278d085951b619008f8d3d
it may be presumed that they were derived from a common intermediate source
708
False
What is a hyparchetype?
57278d085951b619008f8d3e
a common intermediate source
755
False
What is recension?
57278d085951b619008f8d3f
The process of constructing the stemma
986
False
Stemmatics
0
A loose approach to textual criticism is called what?
5a8c7e7dfd22b3001a8d8940
True
1793
99
When did Karl Lachmann contribute to making stemmatics famous?
5a8c7e7dfd22b3001a8d8941
True
placing all extant manuscripts in a family tree or stemma codicum descended from a single archetype
885
How did Lachmann make stemmatics famous?
5a8c7e7dfd22b3001a8d8942
True
recension
1035
The final stage of the stemma is called what?
5a8c7e7dfd22b3001a8d8943
True
stemma codicum
936
Recension and Latin recensio is latin for what?
5a8c7e7dfd22b3001a8d8944
True
Stemmatics, stemmology or stemmatology is a rigorous approach to textual criticism. Karl Lachmann (1793–1851) greatly contributed to making this method famous, even though he did not invent it. The method takes its name from the word stemma. The Ancient Greek word στέμματα and its loanword in classical Latin stemmata may refer to "family trees". This specific meaning shows the relationships of the surviving witnesses (the first known example of such a stemma, albeit with the name, dates from 1827). The family tree is also referred to as a cladogram. The method works from the principle that "community of error implies community of origin." That is, if two witnesses have a number of errors in common, it may be presumed that they were derived from a common intermediate source, called a hyparchetype. Relations between the lost intermediates are determined by the same process, placing all extant manuscripts in a family tree or stemma codicum descended from a single archetype. The process of constructing the stemma is called recension, or the Latin recensio.
Which steps most closely resembles copy-text editing?
57278dd1dd62a815002ea040
examinatio and emendatio
138
False
What process is best used when only one manuscript is viable?
57278dd1dd62a815002ea041
copy text editing
417
False
What process is best used when there are a number of viable manuscripts available?
57278dd1dd62a815002ea042
eclecticism
510
False
eclectic
34
The process of selectio does not resemble what type of criticism?
5a8c7f23fd22b3001a8d894a
True
selectio
15
Eclectic criticism is not similar to what type of process?
5a8c7f23fd22b3001a8d894b
True
examinatio and emendatio
138
Which steps do not resemble copy-text editing?
5a8c7f23fd22b3001a8d894c
True
eclecticism
510
What process is not used when there are a number of viable manuscripts available?
5a8c7f23fd22b3001a8d894d
True
eclecticism
510
When manuscripts are bad, what process gets used?
5a8c7f23fd22b3001a8d894e
True
The process of selectio resembles eclectic textual criticism, but applied to a restricted set of hypothetical hyparchetypes. The steps of examinatio and emendatio resemble copy-text editing. In fact, the other techniques can be seen as special cases of stemmatics in which a rigorous family history of the text cannot be determined but only approximated. If it seems that one manuscript is by far the best text, then copy text editing is appropriate, and if it seems that a group of manuscripts are good, then eclecticism on that group would be proper.
What was Joseph Bédier's main criticism of the stemmatic method?
57278fcaf1498d1400e8fc26
critics tended overwhelmingly to produce trees divided into just two branches.
216
False
Why is a methos that only produces two branches seen as inferior?
57278fcaf1498d1400e8fc27
the method was tending to produce bipartite stemmas regardless of the actual history of the witnesses.
387
False
To what did Joseph Bédier attribute the prevalence of the stemmatic method?
57278fcaf1498d1400e8fc28
editors tended to favor trees with two branches
508
False
Why would editors only want two alternative branches when analyzing a text?
57278fcaf1498d1400e8fc29
this would maximize the opportunities for editorial judgment
560
False
What was the final implication of Joseph Bédier's analysis of the stemmatic method?
57278fcaf1498d1400e8fc2a
the method was not as rigorous or as scientific as its proponents had claimed.
815
False
textual critics tended overwhelmingly to produce trees divided into just two branches
208
Why did Joseph Bédier prefer stemmatics?
5a8c8067fd22b3001a8d895e
True
to produce bipartite stemmas
410
Why is a method that only produces two branches seen as the best?
5a8c8067fd22b3001a8d895f
True
editorial judgment
602
Trees with two branches minimized opportunities for that?
5a8c8067fd22b3001a8d8960
True
break the tie
660
When witnesses agree, what did the third branch do?
5a8c8067fd22b3001a8d8961
True
stemma
771
Which method was more rigorous than originally claimed?
5a8c8067fd22b3001a8d8962
True
The critic Joseph Bédier (1864–1938) launched a particularly withering attack on stemmatics in 1928. He surveyed editions of medieval French texts that were produced with the stemmatic method, and found that textual critics tended overwhelmingly to produce trees divided into just two branches. He concluded that this outcome was unlikely to have occurred by chance, and that therefore, the method was tending to produce bipartite stemmas regardless of the actual history of the witnesses. He suspected that editors tended to favor trees with two branches, as this would maximize the opportunities for editorial judgment (as there would be no third branch to "break the tie" whenever the witnesses disagreed). He also noted that, for many works, more than one reasonable stemma could be postulated, suggesting that the method was not as rigorous or as scientific as its proponents had claimed.
What is the last step in the stemmatic method?
572790c15951b619008f8d9d
emendatio
37
False
At what point can a critic using the stemmatic become less concerned with critical analysis?
572790c15951b619008f8d9e
the critic employs conjecture at every step of the process
117
False
Why may the dominant reading may be the weaker reading?
572790c15951b619008f8d9f
, it may be no more than fortuitous that more witnesses have survived that present a particular reading
459
False
conjectural emendation
79
What is the first step in the stemmatic method?
5a8c8114fd22b3001a8d8972
True
editorial judgment
248
What judgement produces the correct result?
5a8c8114fd22b3001a8d8973
True
the dominant reading
430
Which reading does the critic select when there are only two witnesses at the same tree?
5a8c8114fd22b3001a8d8974
True
the correct one
629
A reading that occurs left often is always considered what?
5a8c8114fd22b3001a8d8975
True
The stemmatic method's final step is emendatio, also sometimes referred to as "conjectural emendation." But in fact, the critic employs conjecture at every step of the process. Some of the method's rules that are designed to reduce the exercise of editorial judgment do not necessarily produce the correct result. For example, where there are more than two witnesses at the same level of the tree, normally the critic will select the dominant reading. However, it may be no more than fortuitous that more witnesses have survived that present a particular reading. A plausible reading that occurs less often may, nevertheless, be the correct one.
When was the term copy-text introduced?
572791ab5951b619008f8dcb
1904
74
False
What was the initial definition of copy-text?
572791ab5951b619008f8dcc
the text used in each particular case as the basis of mine
133
False
Explain the process used by McKerrow as an alternative to the stemmaic method
572791ab5951b619008f8dcd
choose one particular text that was thought to be particularly reliable, and then to emend it only where the text was obviously corrupt.
293
False
1904
74
When was Ronald B. McKerrow born?
5a8c817cfd22b3001a8d897a
True
1904
74
What year did Thomas Nashe introduce the term copy-text?
5a8c817cfd22b3001a8d897b
True
Ronald B. McKerrow
18
Thomas Nash is a bibliographer who published whose works?
5a8c817cfd22b3001a8d897c
True
stemmatic method
239
Nashe was aware of limitations of which method?
5a8c817cfd22b3001a8d897d
True
stemmatic method
500
Ronald B. McKerror was a french critic who did like which method?
5a8c817cfd22b3001a8d897e
True
The bibliographer Ronald B. McKerrow introduced the term copy-text in his 1904 edition of the works of Thomas Nashe, defining it as "the text used in each particular case as the basis of mine." McKerrow was aware of the limitations of the stemmatic method, and believed it was more prudent to choose one particular text that was thought to be particularly reliable, and then to emend it only where the text was obviously corrupt. The French critic Joseph Bédier likewise became disenchanted with the stemmatic method, and concluded that the editor should choose the best available text, and emend it as little as possible.
Why did McKerrow alter his previous method of criticism?
572792ee708984140094e147
deviate more widely than the earliest print from the author's original manuscript."
195
False
How did McKerrow alter his approach to copy-text analysis?
572792ee708984140094e148
inserting into it, from the first edition which contains them, such corrections as appear to us to be derived from the author."
400
False
What did McKerrow concede about his new copy-text method?
572792ee708984140094e149
we must accept all the alterations of that edition, saving any which seem obvious blunders or misprints
702
False
What work was the first to see McKerrow use his new method?
572792ee708984140094e14a
Prolegomena for the Oxford Shakespeare
16
False
Prolegomena
16
What book did Shakespeare publish in 1939?
5a8c820dfd22b3001a8d89a2
True
if it contained authorial corrections – would "deviate more widely than the earliest print from the author's original manuscript
148
McKerrow stayed firm in which opinion?
5a8c820dfd22b3001a8d89a3
True
substantive
651
How many revisions did early editions have?
5a8c820dfd22b3001a8d89a4
True
saving any which seem obvious blunders or misprints
754
McKerrow thinks we should only accept one revision for what reason?
5a8c820dfd22b3001a8d89a5
True
By 1939, in his Prolegomena for the Oxford Shakespeare, McKerrow had changed his mind about this approach, as he feared that a later edition – even if it contained authorial corrections – would "deviate more widely than the earliest print from the author's original manuscript." He therefore concluded that the correct procedure would be "produced by using the earliest "good" print as copy-text and inserting into it, from the first edition which contains them, such corrections as appear to us to be derived from the author." But, fearing the arbitrary exercise of editorial judgment, McKerrow stated that, having concluded that a later edition had substantive revisions attributable to the author, "we must accept all the alterations of that edition, saving any which seem obvious blunders or misprints."
Are there times when an editor's judgement should be deferred?
57279701dd62a815002ea148
the claims of two readings ... appear to be exactly balanced
185
False
What should one do when two readings are contradictory but balanced?
57279701dd62a815002ea149
if there is no reason for altering its reading, the obvious thing seems to be to let it stand.
357
False
What do editors call variants that are exactly balanced?
57279701dd62a815002ea14a
indifferent
500
False
Greg
9
Who argued that an editor should not be free to use their own judgement?
5a8c8277fd22b3001a8d89aa
True
indifferent
500
What do editors call variants that are not balanced?
5a8c8277fd22b3001a8d89ab
True
indifferent
500
What is the term for variants that are somewhat balanced?
5a8c8277fd22b3001a8d89ac
True
copy-text
169
An editor should not defer to what when variants are balanced?
5a8c8277fd22b3001a8d89ad
True
Although Greg argued that an editor should be free to use his judgment to choose between competing substantive readings, he suggested that an editor should defer to the copy-text when "the claims of two readings ... appear to be exactly balanced. ... In such a case, while there can be no logical reason for giving preference to the copy-text, in practice, if there is no reason for altering its reading, the obvious thing seems to be to let it stand." The "exactly balanced" variants are said to be indifferent.
Is the idea formed by Greg limited to a specific time period?
57279800708984140094e1b9
The principle is sound without regard for the literary period.
367
False
What will an editor do in the case where an author's work was not wiped out?
57279800708984140094e1ba
the manuscript should generally serve as copy-text
536
False
What where the limitations of Greg's analyses?
57279800708984140094e1bb
English Renaissance drama
54
False
What is the main criticism of Greg's work?
57279800708984140094e1bc
works where an author's manuscript survived
435
False
Greg
8
Who limited their examples to French Renaissance drama?
5a8c82ecfd22b3001a8d89bc
True
English Renaissance
54
Greg was a novice in which period of drama?
5a8c82ecfd22b3001a8d89bd
True
copy-text
577
According to Bowers, the manuscript should not serve as what?
5a8c82ecfd22b3001a8d89be
True
literary period
413
The principle of copy-text is sound with regard to what?
5a8c82ecfd22b3001a8d89bf
True
Whereas Greg had limited his illustrative examples to English Renaissance drama, where his expertise lay, Bowers argued that the rationale was "the most workable editorial principle yet contrived to produce a critical text that is authoritative in the maximum of its details whether the author be Shakespeare, Dryden, Fielding, Nathaniel Hawthorne, or Stephen Crane. The principle is sound without regard for the literary period." For works where an author's manuscript survived – a case Greg had not considered – Bowers concluded that the manuscript should generally serve as copy-text. Citing the example of Nathaniel Hawthorne, he noted:
What are editors trying to ultimately accomplish?
57279967dd62a815002ea19c
our ideal of an author's fair copy of his work in its final state
63
False
If an editor can't achieve an exact reproduction of an authors work, what should be the goal?
57279967dd62a815002ea19d
approximate as nearly as possible an inferential authorial fair copy
335
False
What did Bower's say about Greg's method?
57279967dd62a815002ea19e
represent the nearest approximation in every respect of the author's final intentions
193
False
What did Tanselle say about textual criticism?
57279967dd62a815002ea19f
has generally been undertaken with a view to reconstructing, as accurately as possible, the text finally intended by the author
450
False
fair copy
88
What are editors trying to ultimately stop?
5a8c838bfd22b3001a8d89ce
True
textual criticism
25
What happens when an editor achieves an exact reproduction of an authors work?
5a8c838bfd22b3001a8d89cf
True
represent the nearest approximation in every respect of the author's final intentions
193
What did Tanselle say about modern authors?
5a8c838bfd22b3001a8d89d0
True
the author's final intentions
249
Bowers asserted that editions founded on Greg's method would not represent what?
5a8c838bfd22b3001a8d89d1
True
McKerrow had articulated textual criticism's goal in terms of "our ideal of an author's fair copy of his work in its final state". Bowers asserted that editions founded on Greg's method would "represent the nearest approximation in every respect of the author's final intentions." Bowers stated similarly that the editor's task is to "approximate as nearly as possible an inferential authorial fair copy." Tanselle notes that, "Textual criticism ... has generally been undertaken with a view to reconstructing, as accurately as possible, the text finally intended by the author".
Who argued against works where the author listens to input from others?
57279ae4dd62a815002ea1ca
Bowers and Tanselle
0
False
Who wanted to determine why an author made changes to a work?
57279ae4dd62a815002ea1cb
Tanselle
265
False
Does Greg believe a later work can be substituted for a earlier one?
57279ae4dd62a815002ea1cc
a later reading "is one that the author can reasonably be supposed to have substituted for the former
453
False
What idea did Tanselle champion?
57279ae4dd62a815002ea1cd
unconstrained authorial intention
285
False
Bowers and Tanselle
0
Who argued for works where the author listens to input from others?
5a8c89eafd22b3001a8d8a54
True
Tanselle
11
Who didn't want to determine why an author made changes to a work?
5a8c89eafd22b3001a8d8a55
True
Greg
390
Who believes an earlier work can be substituted for a later one?
5a8c89eafd22b3001a8d8a56
True
Tanselle
11
Constrained authorial intention was whose idea?
5a8c89eafd22b3001a8d8a57
True
Bowers and Tanselle argue for rejecting textual variants that an author inserted at the suggestion of others. Bowers said that his edition of Stephen Crane's first novel, Maggie, presented "the author's final and uninfluenced artistic intentions." In his writings, Tanselle refers to "unconstrained authorial intention" or "an author's uninfluenced intentions." This marks a departure from Greg, who had merely suggested that the editor inquire whether a later reading "is one that the author can reasonably be supposed to have substituted for the former", not implying any further inquiry as to why the author had made the change.
What alterations did Crane make to secure commercial publication?
57279c33708984140094e235
remove profanity, but he also made stylistic revisions
174
False
What was Bower's first step in editing multiple works into a single product?
57279c33708984140094e236
to preserve the stylistic and literary changes of 1896
252
False
What was Bower's second step in editing multiple works into a single product?
57279c33708984140094e237
to revert to the 1893 readings where he believed that Crane was fulfilling the publisher's intention rather than his own
312
False
What was one of the criticisms Bowers faced after editing Maggie?
57279c33708984140094e238
his judgment
596
False
I what year was Maggie printed for commercial use?
57279d21ff5b5019007d910e
1896
152
False
What was the first step Bowers took in editing a single work with two versions?
57279d21ff5b5019007d910f
to preserve the stylistic and literary changes of 1896,
252
False
What was the second step Bowers took in editing a single work with two versions?
57279d21ff5b5019007d9110
to revert to the 1893 readings where he believed that Crane was fulfilling the publisher's intention
312
False
What changes were made for the commercial publication of Maggie?
57279d21ff5b5019007d9111
to remove profanity, but he also made stylistic revisions
171
False
When was Maggie first published?
57279d21ff5b5019007d9112
1893
110
False
remove profanity
174
What changes did Maggie make to secure commercial publication?
5a8c8ad7fd22b3001a8d8a6e
True
1893
110
When did Maggie publish her edition of Bowers?
5a8c8ad7fd22b3001a8d8a6f
True
preserve the stylistic and literary changes
255
What was Bower's final step in editing a single work into multiple versions?
5a8c8ad7fd22b3001a8d8a70
True
1893
110
When was the third version of Maggie published?
5a8c8ad7fd22b3001a8d8a71
True
1896
302
When was the fifth and final version of Maggie published?
5a8c8ad7fd22b3001a8d8a72
True
Bowers confronted a similar problem in his edition of Maggie. Crane originally printed the novel privately in 1893. To secure commercial publication in 1896, Crane agreed to remove profanity, but he also made stylistic revisions. Bowers's approach was to preserve the stylistic and literary changes of 1896, but to revert to the 1893 readings where he believed that Crane was fulfilling the publisher's intention rather than his own. There were, however, intermediate cases that could reasonably have been attributed to either intention, and some of Bowers's choices came under fire – both as to his judgment, and as to the wisdom of conflating readings from the two different versions of Maggie.
Are appendices easy to use for the average reader?
57279e583acd2414000de7f9
appendices that are difficult to use,
124
False
Can a reader be certain of the validity of information found in a clear-text edition?
57279e583acd2414000de7fa
suggesting a greater sense of certainty about the established text than it deserves
166
False
How do most editors work around the reference problems of clear-text editing?
57279e583acd2414000de7fb
notes at the foot of the text page
322
False
Where can a reader find more information on text variants after noticing a footnote?
57279e583acd2414000de7fc
appendices
124
False
critics
5
Who believes that clear-text doesn't give enough prominence?
5a8c8c47fd22b3001a8d8a94
True
appendices
124
What are generally easy to use?
5a8c8c47fd22b3001a8d8a95
True
English scholarly editions
276
Shillingsburg says which editions don't use notes at the bottom of the page?
5a8c8c47fd22b3001a8d8a96
True
notes at the foot
322
What does not draw attention to alternative forms of text?
5a8c8c47fd22b3001a8d8a97
True
Some critics believe that a clear-text edition gives the edited text too great a prominence, relegating textual variants to appendices that are difficult to use, and suggesting a greater sense of certainty about the established text than it deserves. As Shillingsburg notes, "English scholarly editions have tended to use notes at the foot of the text page, indicating, tacitly, a greater modesty about the "established" text and drawing attention more forcibly to at least some of the alternative forms of the text".
What is the biological basis for Cladistics?
57279f9f3acd2414000de825
to determine the evolutionary relationships between different species
155
False
How is evolution applied to textual criticism?
57279f9f3acd2414000de826
manuscripts are then grouped according to their shared characteristics
393
False
How is cladistics similar to the stemmatic method?
57279f9f3acd2414000de827
cladistics assumes that they are part of a branching family tree
664
False
What is the main difference between cladistics and stemmatics?
57279f9f3acd2414000de828
does not indicate which branch of the tree is the "root"
984
False
Cladistics
0
What is a technique borrowed from physics?
5a8c8d2cfd22b3001a8d8aa6
True
Cladistics
0
Phylogenetic systematics was originally called what?
5a8c8d2cfd22b3001a8d8aa7
True
they are part of a branching family tree
688
How is cladistics the opposite of the stemmatic method?
5a8c8d2cfd22b3001a8d8aa8
True
phylogenetic systematics
79
What is the mathmatical basis for Cladistics?
5a8c8d2cfd22b3001a8d8aa9
True
Cladistics is a technique borrowed from biology, where it was originally named phylogenetic systematics by Willi Hennig. In biology, the technique is used to determine the evolutionary relationships between different species. In its application in textual criticism, the text of a number of different manuscripts is entered into a computer, which records all the differences between them. The manuscripts are then grouped according to their shared characteristics. The difference between cladistics and more traditional forms of statistical analysis is that, rather than simply arranging the manuscripts into rough groupings according to their overall similarity, cladistics assumes that they are part of a branching family tree and uses that assumption to derive relationships between them. This makes it more like an automated approach to stemmatics. However, where there is a difference, the computer does not attempt to decide which reading is closer to the original text, and so does not indicate which branch of the tree is the "root"—which manuscript tradition is closest to the original. Other types of evidence must be used for that purpose.
When did textual criticism applied to the Book of Mormon?
5727a0d9ff5b5019007d914a
the early 1970s
71
False
What was one portion of preparing a new edition of the Holy Scriptures?
5727a0d9ff5b5019007d914b
digitizing the text and preparing appropriate footnotes
334
False
How was the most reliable version of the Holy Scriptures determined?
5727a0d9ff5b5019007d914c
applying modern text critical standards to the manuscripts
533
False
When did Larson finish his project?
5727a0d9ff5b5019007d914d
1974
679
False
Whose observations were included in the 1981 publication of the Book of Mormon?
5727a0d9ff5b5019007d914e
Larson
1092
False
1970s
81
What year did true textual criticism stop being applied?
5a8c8e01fd22b3001a8d8aca
True
BYU
158
What school did Ellis Rasmussen not teach at?
5a8c8e01fd22b3001a8d8acb
True
LDS Church
225
What church did not want a new edition of the holy scriptures?
5a8c8e01fd22b3001a8d8acc
True
modern text critical standards
542
What class did Larson teach at Rasmussen?
5a8c8e01fd22b3001a8d8acd
True
1974
679
When did Larson begin his thesis project?
5a8c8e01fd22b3001a8d8ace
True
Although some earlier unpublished studies had been prepared, not until the early 1970s was true textual criticism applied to the Book of Mormon. At that time BYU Professor Ellis Rasmussen and his associates were asked by the LDS Church to begin preparation for a new edition of the Holy Scriptures. One aspect of that effort entailed digitizing the text and preparing appropriate footnotes, another aspect required establishing the most dependable text. To that latter end, Stanley R. Larson (a Rasmussen graduate student) set about applying modern text critical standards to the manuscripts and early editions of the Book of Mormon as his thesis project – which he completed in 1974. To that end, Larson carefully examined the Original Manuscript (the one dictated by Joseph Smith to his scribes) and the Printer’s Manuscript (the copy Oliver Cowdery prepared for the Printer in 1829–1830), and compared them with the 1st, 2nd, and 3rd editions of the Book of Mormon to determine what sort of changes had occurred over time and to make judgments as to which readings were the most original. Larson proceeded to publish a useful set of well-argued articles on the phenomena which he had discovered. Many of his observations were included as improvements in the 1981 LDS edition of the Book of Mormon.
What is FARMS?
5727a527ff5b5019007d91d0
Foundation for Ancient Research and Mormon Studies
39
False
Who spearheaded the Critical Text of the Book of Mormon project?
5727a527ff5b5019007d91d1
Robert F. Smith
164
False
How many years did it take to publish all three volumes of the Book of Mormon Critical Text?
5727a527ff5b5019007d91d2
the first volume of the 3-volume Book of Mormon Critical Text in 1984. The third volume of that first edition was published in 1987
340
False
Was the third volume of the first edition deemed sufficient?
5727a527ff5b5019007d91d3
The third volume of that first edition was published in 1987, but was already being superseded by a second, revised edition of the entire work
411
False
Who is the head of FARMS?
5727a527ff5b5019007d91d4
Professor John W. Welch
673
False
1979
3
When did FARMS stop existing?
5a8c8edefd22b3001a8d8ade
True
1984
405
When was the fifth volume of Critical Text Project published?
5a8c8edefd22b3001a8d8adf
True
Book of Mormon Critical Text
373
What book did Grant Hardy publish in 1987?
5a8c8edefd22b3001a8d8ae0
True
Foundation for Ancient Research and Mormon Studies
39
Larson begin the research for what project?
5a8c8edefd22b3001a8d8ae1
True
Robert F. Smith
164
FARMS was funded by whom?
5a8c8edefd22b3001a8d8ae2
True
By 1979, with the establishment of the Foundation for Ancient Research and Mormon Studies (FARMS) as a California non-profit research institution, an effort led by Robert F. Smith began to take full account of Larson’s work and to publish a Critical Text of the Book of Mormon. Thus was born the FARMS Critical Text Project which published the first volume of the 3-volume Book of Mormon Critical Text in 1984. The third volume of that first edition was published in 1987, but was already being superseded by a second, revised edition of the entire work, greatly aided through the advice and assistance of then Yale doctoral candidate Grant Hardy, Dr. Gordon C. Thomasson, Professor John W. Welch (the head of FARMS), Professor Royal Skousen, and others too numerous to mention here. However, these were merely preliminary steps to a far more exacting and all-encompassing project.
When was phase one completed?
5727a65f4b864d190016396a
1988
3
False
Who took over after the preliminary phase?
5727a65f4b864d190016396b
Professor Skousen
63
False
Why did Professor Skousen gather fragments and have them analyzed?
5727a65f4b864d190016396c
to obtain fine readings
319
False
What process what used to study the gathered fragments?
5727a65f4b864d190016396d
advanced photographic techniques
278
False
On what did Skousen analyze ink and pencil remnants?
5727a65f4b864d190016396e
Printer’s Manuscript
419
False
1988
3
What year was the final phase of the project completed?
5a8c8fa5fd22b3001a8d8b04
True
editor and head of the FARMS
94
Professor Skousen left what position in 1988?
5a8c8fa5fd22b3001a8d8b05
True
RLDS Church
474
Who sold the community of christ church?
5a8c8fa5fd22b3001a8d8b06
True
Printer’s Manuscript
419
What did Skousen delete ink and pencil remnants from?
5a8c8fa5fd22b3001a8d8b07
True
In 1988, with that preliminary phase of the project completed, Professor Skousen took over as editor and head of the FARMS Critical Text of the Book of Mormon Project and proceeded to gather still scattered fragments of the Original Manuscript of the Book of Mormon and to have advanced photographic techniques applied to obtain fine readings from otherwise unreadable pages and fragments. He also closely examined the Printer’s Manuscript (owned by the Community of Christ—RLDS Church in Independence, Missouri) for differences in types of ink or pencil, in order to determine when and by whom they were made. He also collated the various editions of the Book of Mormon down to the present to see what sorts of changes have been made through time.
How common are variations in text that alter the meaning of the Urtext of the Hebrew Bible?
5727a7474b864d1900163988
extremely rare
188
False
To what degree do variations in the Old Testament alter the meaning?
5727a7474b864d1900163989
hardly affect any doctrine
337
False
Who claims that the Old Testament is essentially the same throughout all variations?
5727a7474b864d190016398a
Professor Douglas Stuart
365
False
How many variations of the Old Testament offer the same meaning?
5727a7474b864d190016398b
virtually every possible alternative reading
569
False
Bible
461
What book did Douglas Stuart summarize?
5a8c906afd22b3001a8d8b18
True
almost all
273
How many of the textual variants are significant?
5a8c906afd22b3001a8d8b19
True
almost all
273
How many variants change the doctrine considerably?
5a8c906afd22b3001a8d8b1a
True
English translations
660
Stuart thought the Bible is largely different because of what?
5a8c906afd22b3001a8d8b1b
True
Shemaryahu Talmon, who summarized the amount of consensus and genetic relation to the Urtext of the Hebrew Bible, concluded that major divergences which intrinsically affect the sense are extremely rare. As far as the Hebrew Bible referenced by Old Testament is concerned, almost all of the textual variants are fairly insignificant and hardly affect any doctrine. Professor Douglas Stuart states: "It is fair to say that the verses, chapters, and books of the Bible would read largely the same, and would leave the same impression with the reader, even if one adopted virtually every possible alternative reading to those now serving as the basis for current English translations."
Does the Bible or Plato's Republic have more witnesses?
5727a8e9ff5b5019007d9218
There are far fewer witnesses to classical texts than to the Bible
233
False
What's the gap between original Christian texts and subsequent editions of the same works?
5727a8e9ff5b5019007d9219
within 200 years
438
False
What's the gap between original classical texts and subsequent editions of the same works?
5727a8e9ff5b5019007d921a
about a millennium after their composition
543
False
How does the expanse of time correlate to authenticity with regard to original and subsequent versions of texts?
5727a8e9ff5b5019007d921b
a larger time gap between an original and a manuscript means more changes in the text.
640
False
Bible
104
Plato's Republic has more witnesses than what?
5a8c9192fd22b3001a8d8b38
True
classic texts
192
The Bible has fewer witnesses than what types of work?
5a8c9192fd22b3001a8d8b39
True
within 200 years of the original
438
When were the latest witnesses of the New Testament?
5a8c9192fd22b3001a8d8b3a
True
manuscript
684
Textual scholars expect there to be a smaller time gap between an original and what?
5a8c9192fd22b3001a8d8b3b
True
larger time gap
642
There are fewer changes in a text when there is a larger what?
5a8c9192fd22b3001a8d8b3c
True
While textual criticism developed into a discipline of thorough analysis of the Bible — both the Hebrew Bible and the New Testament — scholars also use it to determine the original content of classic texts, such as Plato's Republic. There are far fewer witnesses to classical texts than to the Bible, so scholars can use stemmatics and, in some cases, copy text editing. However, unlike the New Testament where the earliest witnesses are within 200 years of the original, the earliest existing manuscripts of most classical texts were written about a millennium after their composition. All things being equal, textual scholars expect that a larger time gap between an original and a manuscript means more changes in the text.
What is the criteria for copyright?
5727a9f72ca10214002d9326
if enough creativity/originality is provided
86
False
What minor things can be included and not invalidate a copyright?
5727a9f72ca10214002d9327
The mere addition of a word, or substitution of a term with another one believed to be more correct
132
False
Are footnotes included in the copyright of the original work?
5727a9f72ca10214002d9328
All the notes accounting for the analysis and why and how such changes have been made represent a different work autonomously copyrightable
296
False
What rights do scientific publications in the EU enjoy?
5727a9f72ca10214002d9329
the relevant neighboring right that protects critical and scientific publications of public domain works
557
False
creativity/originality is provided
96
What does not matter in order to be copyrighted?
5a8c9243fd22b3001a8d8b4c
True
The mere addition of a word, or substitution of a term with another one believed to be more correct
132
What minor things can be included and validate a copyright?
5a8c9243fd22b3001a8d8b4d
True
copyright
53
Non-scientific editions can be protected by what?
5a8c9243fd22b3001a8d8b4e
True
Scientific and critical editions
0
What are not protected by copyright?
5a8c9243fd22b3001a8d8b4f
True
art. 5
763
All EU member states have transposed what into law?
5a8c9243fd22b3001a8d8b50
True
Scientific and critical editions can be protected by copyright as works of authorship if enough creativity/originality is provided. The mere addition of a word, or substitution of a term with another one believed to be more correct, usually does not achieve such level of originality/creativity. All the notes accounting for the analysis and why and how such changes have been made represent a different work autonomously copyrightable if the other requirements are satisfied. In the European Union critical and scientific editions may be protected also by the relevant neighboring right that protects critical and scientific publications of public domain works as made possible by art. 5 of the Copyright Term Directive. Not all EU member States have transposed art. 5 into national law.
Gramophone_record
What does LP stand for when it comes to time capacity?
57277660dd62a815002e9d82
long playing
582
False
What are common diameters found in phonograph records?
57277660dd62a815002e9d83
12", 10", 7"
409
False
What is a gramophone or 'vinyl' record?
57277660dd62a815002e9d84
analogue sound storage medium
113
False
Where does the groove on a vinyl record typically start?
57277660dd62a815002e9d85
near the periphery
280
False
In what method is the rotational speed measured in?
57277660dd62a815002e9d86
rpm
448
False
A gramophone record (phonograph record in American English) or vinyl record, commonly known as a "record", is an analogue sound storage medium in the form of a flat polyvinyl chloride (previously shellac) disc with an inscribed, modulated spiral groove. The groove usually starts near the periphery and ends near the center of the disc. Phonograph records are generally described by their diameter in inches (12", 10", 7"), the rotational speed in rpm at which they are played (16 2⁄3, 33 1⁄3, 45, 78), and their time capacity resulting from a combination of those parameters (LP – long playing 33 1⁄3 rpm, SP – 78 rpm single, EP – 12-inch single or extended play, 33 or 45 rpm); their reproductive quality or level of fidelity (high-fidelity, orthophonic, full-range, etc.), and the number of audio channels provided (mono, stereo, quad, etc.).
What was the primary use of a phonographic disc record?
57277777f1498d1400e8f8e6
music reproduction
59
False
Which year did vinyl records leave the main steam media market?
57277777f1498d1400e8f8e7
1991
494
False
From the 1990s to 2010s who was the primary consumer of vinyl records?
57277777f1498d1400e8f8e8
disc jockeys (DJ)s
628
False
Approximately how many phonograph records were sold in 2014?
57277777f1498d1400e8f8e9
9.2 million
812
False
What is the niche market of phonograph record fans known as?
57277777f1498d1400e8f8ea
audiophiles
721
False
The phonograph disc record was the primary medium used for music reproduction until late in the 20th century, replacing the phonograph cylinder record–with which it had co-existed from the late 1880s through to the 1920s–by the late 1920s. Records retained the largest market share even when new formats such as compact cassette were mass-marketed. By the late 1980s, digital media, in the form of the compact disc, had gained a larger market share, and the vinyl record left the mainstream in 1991. From the 1990s to the 2010s, records continued to be manufactured and sold on a much smaller scale, and were especially used by disc jockeys (DJ)s, released by artists in some genres, and listened to by a niche market of audiophiles. The phonograph record has made a niche resurgence in the early 21st century – 9.2 million records were sold in the U.S. in 2014, a 260% increase since 2009. Likewise, in the UK sales have increased five-fold from 2009 to 2014.
What was the original intent of the phonautograph?
572778755951b619008f8ab7
visual analysis
166
False
In what years where phonautograms converted to audible sound?
572778755951b619008f8ab8
2000s
234
False
What year were the earliest known recordings of sound?
572778755951b619008f8ab9
1857
529
False
By whom was the phonautograms patented?
572778755951b619008f8aba
Léon Scott
31
False
In what year was phonautograms patented?
572778755951b619008f8abb
1857
45
False
The phonautograph, patented by Léon Scott in 1857, used a vibrating diaphragm and stylus to graphically record sound waves as tracings on sheets of paper, purely for visual analysis and without any intent of playing them back. In the 2000s, these tracings were first scanned by audio engineers and digitally converted into audible sound. Phonautograms of singing and speech made by Scott in 1860 were played back as sound for the first time in 2008. Along with a tuning fork tone and unintelligible snippets recorded as early as 1857, these are the earliest known recordings of sound.
In what year did Thomas Edison invent the phonograph?
57277b12708984140094decb
1877
3
False
How did the phonograph differ from the phonautograph?
57277b12708984140094decc
capable of both recording and reproducing sound
81
False
What was unique about Einsteins invention?
57277b12708984140094decd
reproducing sound
1078
False
At what era was the recorded sound market introduced?
57277b12708984140094dece
1880s
1678
False
In 1877, Thomas Edison invented the phonograph. Unlike the phonautograph, it was capable of both recording and reproducing sound. Despite the similarity of name, there is no documentary evidence that Edison's phonograph was based on Scott's phonautograph. Edison first tried recording sound on a wax-impregnated paper tape, with the idea of creating a "telephone repeater" analogous to the telegraph repeater he had been working on. Although the visible results made him confident that sound could be physically recorded and reproduced, his notes do not indicate that he actually reproduced sound before his first experiment in which he used tinfoil as a recording medium several months later. The tinfoil was wrapped around a grooved metal cylinder and a sound-vibrated stylus indented the tinfoil while the cylinder was rotated. The recording could be played back immediately. The Scientific American article that introduced the tinfoil phonograph to the public mentioned Marey, Rosapelly and Barlow as well as Scott as creators of devices for recording but, importantly, not reproducing sound. Edison also invented variations of the phonograph that used tape and disc formats. Numerous applications for the phonograph were envisioned, but although it enjoyed a brief vogue as a startling novelty at public demonstrations, the tinfoil phonograph proved too crude to be put to any practical use. A decade later, Edison developed a greatly improved phonograph that used a hollow wax cylinder instead of a foil sheet. This proved to be both a better-sounding and far more useful and durable device. The wax phonograph cylinder created the recorded sound market at the end of the 1880s and dominated it through the early years of the 20th century.
What is the name of lateral cut disc records?
572789cd708984140094e043
gramophone
106
False
What was an issue found with Berliner's records initially?
572789cd708984140094e044
poor sound quality
740
False
Where were lateral cut disc records developed?
572789cd708984140094e045
United States
47
False
What is 'Victor Talking Machine now known as?
572789cd708984140094e046
RCA Victor
1193
False
Where is the museum dedicated to Berliner located?
572789cd708984140094e047
Montreal
1250
False
Lateral-cut disc records were developed in the United States by Emile Berliner, who named his system the "gramophone", distinguishing it from Edison's wax cylinder "phonograph" and Columbia's wax cylinder "graphophone". Berliner's earliest discs, first marketed in 1889, but only in Europe, were 5 inches (13 cm) in diameter, and were played with a small hand-propelled machine. Both the records and the machine were adequate only for use as a toy or curiosity, due to the limited sound quality. In the United States in 1894, under the Berliner Gramophone trademark, Berliner started marketing records with somewhat more substantial entertainment value, along with somewhat more substantial gramophones to play them. Berliner's records had poor sound quality compared to wax cylinders, but his manufacturing associate Eldridge R. Johnson eventually improved the sound quality. Abandoning Berliner's "Gramophone" trademark for legal reasons, in 1901 Johnson's and Berliner's separate companies reorganized to form the Victor Talking Machine Company, whose products would come to dominate the market for many years. Emile Berliner moved his company to Montreal in 1900. The factory which became RCA Victor stills exists. There is a dedicated museum in Montreal for Berliner.
What was the name of the discs Edison introduced in 1909?
57278b575951b619008f8cf7
Blue Amberol cylinders
641
False
What year did the patent for lateral cut discs expire?
57278b575951b619008f8cf8
1919
723
False
What format dominated the market in the late 1980s?
57278b575951b619008f8cf9
digital compact disc
962
False
What disc format was the least fragile prior to 1919?
57278b575951b619008f8cfa
Amberol cylinder
288
False
What was the playing surface of the blue amerbol cylinder discs made of?
57278b575951b619008f8cfb
celluloid
461
False
In 1901, 10-inch disc records were introduced, followed in 1903 by 12-inch records. These could play for more than three and four minutes respectively, while contemporary cylinders could only play for about two minutes. In an attempt to head off the disc advantage, Edison introduced the Amberol cylinder in 1909, with a maximum playing time of 4½ minutes (at 160 rpm), which in turn were superseded by Blue Amberol Records, which had a playing surface made of celluloid, a plastic, which was far less fragile. Despite these improvements, during the 1910s discs decisively won this early format war, although Edison continued to produce new Blue Amberol cylinders for an ever-dwindling customer base until late in 1929. By 1919 the basic patents for the manufacture of lateral-cut disc records had expired, opening the field for countless companies to produce them. Analog disc records would dominate the home entertainment market until they were outsold by the digital compact disc in the late 1980s (which was in turn supplanted by digital audio recordings distributed via online music stores and Internet file sharing).
What were two drawback of early recordings?
57278ca1708984140094e099
Sensitivity and frequency range were poor
147
False
How would one make to early recordings?
57278ca1708984140094e09a
face in the recording horn
344
False
What types of violins worked best with early recordings?
57278ca1708984140094e09b
Stroh violins
585
False
What instruments did not record well?
57278ca1708984140094e09c
Lower-pitched orchestral instruments
372
False
How was the frequency response in early recordings?
57278ca1708984140094e09d
very irregular
217
False
Early recordings were made entirely acoustically, the sound being collected by a horn and piped to a diaphragm, which vibrated the cutting stylus. Sensitivity and frequency range were poor, and frequency response was very irregular, giving acoustic recordings an instantly recognizable tonal quality. A singer practically had to put his or her face in the recording horn. Lower-pitched orchestral instruments such as cellos and double basses were often doubled (or replaced) by louder wind instruments, such as tubas. Standard violins in orchestral ensembles were commonly replaced by Stroh violins, which became popular with recording studios.
What tool was used to improve sound quality in early recordings for special effects?
57278d8e5951b619008f8d4f
moveable platform
697
False
Where were loud instruments best placed for good sound quality?
57278d8e5951b619008f8d50
farthest away from the collecting horn
238
False
How far away has a trumpeter been known to stand?
57278d8e5951b619008f8d51
fifteen feet
555
False
Were drums heard on early jazz recordings?
57278d8e5951b619008f8d52
drums could be effectively used
65
False
What was the item called that recorded the sounds?
57278d8e5951b619008f8d53
collecting horn
261
False
Contrary to popular belief, if placed properly and prepared-for, drums could be effectively used and heard on even the earliest jazz and military band recordings. The loudest instruments such as the drums and trumpets were positioned the farthest away from the collecting horn. Lillian Hardin Armstrong, a member of King Oliver's Creole Jazz Band, which recorded at Gennett Records in 1923, remembered that at first Oliver and his young second trumpet, Louis Armstrong, stood next to each other and Oliver's horn could not be heard. "They put Louis about fifteen feet over in the corner, looking all sad." For fading instrumental parts in and out while recording, some performers were placed on a moveable platform, which could draw the performer(s) nearer or further away as required.[citation needed]
What was an early took used to amplify sounds?
57278ed7dd62a815002ea04e
vacuum tubes
202
False
What company was vital in progression of quality sound recordings?
57278ed7dd62a815002ea04f
Western Electric
292
False
How early were electrically recorded discs made available for purchase?
57278ed7dd62a815002ea050
1925
811
False
What was new about the way Western Electrics method of capturing sound?
57278ed7dd62a815002ea051
microphone
171
False
How could the sounds produced by Western Electric be described?
57278ed7dd62a815002ea052
fuller, clearer and more natural
412
False
During the first half of the 1920s, engineers at Western Electric, as well as independent inventors such as Orlando Marsh, developed technology for capturing sound with a microphone, amplifying it with vacuum tubes, then using the amplified signal to drive an electromagnetic recording head. Western Electric's innovations resulted in a greatly expanded and more even frequency response, creating a dramatically fuller, clearer and more natural-sounding recording. Distant or less strong sounds that were impossible to record by the old methods could now be captured. Volume was now limited only by the groove spacing on the record and the limitations of the intended playback device. Victor and Columbia licensed the new electrical system from Western Electric and began issuing electrically recorded discs in 1925. The first classical recording was of Chopin impromptus and Schubert's Litanei by Alfred Cortot for Victor.
What was a drawback of early home recording systems?
5727903ddd62a815002ea084
high cost
82
False
What was the initial cost range of early recording devices?
5727903ddd62a815002ea085
US$95 to US$300
402
False
What year  was the  Victor Orthophonic Victrola released?
5727903ddd62a815002ea086
1925
114
False
What was the typical weekly pay of a worker in 1925?
5727903ddd62a815002ea087
$20
569
False
What options were available that effected the cost of the Victor Orthophonic Victorla?
5727903ddd62a815002ea088
cabinetry
432
False
Electrical recording preceded electrical home reproduction because of the initial high cost of the new system. In 1925, the Victor company introduced the Victor Orthophonic Victrola, an acoustical record player that was specifically designed to play electrically recorded discs, as part of a line that also included electrically reproducing Electrolas. The acoustical Orthophonics ranged in price from US$95 to US$300, depending on cabinetry; by comparison, the cheapest Electrola cost US$650, the price of a new Ford automobile in an era when clerical jobs paid about $20 a week.
What materials were discs made of in 1889-1894?
572792d6dd62a815002ea0c6
hard rubber
79
False
What was the standard material for discs around 1895?
572792d6dd62a815002ea0c7
a shellac-based compound
105
False
What company was known for laminate construction of discs?
572792d6dd62a815002ea0c8
Columbia Records
714
False
What material give the vinyl records their known black color?
572792d6dd62a815002ea0c9
carbon
470
False
What material is used in order to release the vinyl records from their molds?
572792d6dd62a815002ea0ca
lubricant
636
False
The earliest disc records (1889–1894) were made of various materials including hard rubber. Around 1895, a shellac-based compound was introduced and became standard. Exact formulas for this compound varied by manufacturer and over the course of time, but it was typically composed of about one-third shellac and about two-thirds mineral filler, which meant finely pulverized rock, usually slate and limestone, with an admixture of cotton fibers to add tensile strength, carbon black for color (without this, it tended to be a "dirty" gray or brown color that most record companies considered unattractive), and a very small amount of a lubricant to facilitate mold release during manufacture. Some makers, notably Columbia Records, used a laminated construction with a core disc of coarser material or fiber. The production of shellac records continued until the end of the 78 rpm format (i.e., the late 1950s in most developed countries, but well into the 1960s in some other places), but increasingly less abrasive formulations were used during its declining years and very late examples in truly like-new condition can have as low noise levels as vinyl.
What was a major downfall of the success of Durium records?
57279468dd62a815002ea106
Great Depression
1356
False
What year were Durium records no longer released in the US?
57279468dd62a815002ea107
1932
1407
False
What are most 78 rpm records made of?
57279468dd62a815002ea108
shellac compounds
1675
False
What was a common problem found in early flexible records?
57279468dd62a815002ea109
surface noise
361
False
What was the thin translucent plastic most successfully used to make discs called?
57279468dd62a815002ea10a
Durium
1105
False
Flexible or so-called "unbreakable" records made of unusual materials were introduced by a number of manufacturers at various times during the 78 rpm era. In the UK, Nicole records, made of celluloid or a similar substance coated onto a cardboard core disc, were produced for a few years beginning in 1904, but they suffered from an exceptionally high level of surface noise. In the United States, Columbia Records introduced flexible, fiber-cored "Marconi Velvet Tone Record" pressings in 1907, but the advantages and longevity of their relatively noiseless surfaces depended on the scrupulous use of special gold-plated Marconi Needles and the product was not a success. Thin, flexible plastic records such as the German Phonycord and the British Filmophone and Goodson records appeared around 1930 but also did not last long. The contemporary French Pathé Cellodiscs, made of a very thin black plastic, which uncannily resembles the vinyl "sound sheet" magazine inserts of the 1965–1985 era, were similarly short-lived. In the US, Hit of the Week records, made of a patented translucent plastic called Durium coated on a heavy brown paper base, were introduced in early 1930. A new issue came out every week and they were sold at newsstands like a weekly magazine. Although inexpensive and commercially successful at first, they soon fell victim to the Great Depression and production in the US ended in 1932. Related Durium records continued to be made somewhat later in the UK and elsewhere, and as remarkably late as 1950 in Italy, where the name "Durium" survived far into the LP era as a trademark on ordinary vinyl records. Despite all these attempts at innovation, shellac compounds continued to be used for the overwhelming majority of commercial 78 rpm records during the lifetime of the format.
What material was used by RCA Victor for special purpose records?
5727973bf1498d1400e8fcfe
vinyl-based Victrolac compound
37
False
What was Metrolite and Sav-o-flex materials primarily used for?
5727973bf1498d1400e8fcff
children's records
1335
False
What year was the Victrolac compound released?
5727973bf1498d1400e8fd00
1931
3
False
What were advantages of vinyl in the 1930's?
5727973bf1498d1400e8fd01
light weight, relative unbreakability and low surface noise
181
False
What was a downfall of ordinary 78 rpm vinyls in household house?
5727973bf1498d1400e8fd02
higher cost
402
False
In 1931, RCA Victor introduced their vinyl-based Victrolac compound as a material for some unusual-format and special-purpose records. By the end of the 1930s vinyl's advantages of light weight, relative unbreakability and low surface noise had made it the material of choice for prerecorded radio programming and other critical applications. When it came to ordinary 78 rpm records, however, the much higher cost of the raw material, as well as its vulnerability to the heavy pickups and crudely mass-produced steel needles still commonly used in home record players, made its general substitution for shellac impractical at that time. During the Second World War, the United States Armed Forces produced thousands of 12-inch vinyl 78 rpm V-Discs for use by the troops overseas. After the war, the wider use of vinyl became more practical as new record players with relatively lightweight crystal pickups and precision-ground styli made of sapphire or an exotic osmium alloy proliferated. In late 1945, RCA Victor began offering special transparent red vinyl De Luxe pressings of some classical 78s, at a de luxe price. Later, Decca Records introduced vinyl Deccalite 78s, while other record companies came up with vinyl concoctions such as Metrolite, Merco Plastic and Sav-o-flex, but these were mainly used to produce "unbreakable" children's records and special thin vinyl DJ pressings for shipment to radio stations.
What was the most popular sized disc by 1910?
572798b8dd62a815002ea17e
10-inch
212
False
How long could a recording be on a 10 inch disc in the 1903?
572798b8dd62a815002ea17f
four to five minutes of music per side
475
False
How small were the earliest discs released?
572798b8dd62a815002ea180
12.5 cm
76
False
What was one requirement issue with discs popular in Britain?
572798b8dd62a815002ea181
modification of the equipment
897
False
Which disc could hold about three minutes of recording on either side?
572798b8dd62a815002ea182
10-inch
212
False
In the 1890s, the recording formats of the earliest (toy) discs were mainly 12.5 cm (nominally five inches) in diameter; by the mid-1890s, the discs were usually 7 in (nominally 17.5 cm) in diameter. By 1910 the 10-inch (25.4 cm) record was by far the most popular standard, holding about three minutes of music or other entertainment on a side. From 1903 onwards, 12-inch records (30.5 cm) were also sold commercially, mostly of classical music or operatic selections, with four to five minutes of music per side. Victor, Brunswick and Columbia also issued 12-inch popular medleys, usually spotlighting a Broadway show score. However, other sizes did appear. Eight-inch discs with a 2-inch-diameter (51 mm) label became popular for about a decade in Britain, but they cannot be played in full on most modern record players because the tone arm cannot play far enough in toward the center without modification of the equipment.
What factors would effect playing time of a phonograph?
572799a9dd62a815002ea1ae
turntable speed and the groove spacing
56
False
What was the playing time common in the early 20th century?
572799a9dd62a815002ea1af
two minutes
161
False
How many recordings did Kind Oliver's Creole Jazz band require?
572799a9dd62a815002ea1b0
13
645
False
What was the normal size disc for popular music?
572799a9dd62a815002ea1b1
10-inch
324
False
What was the recording time available on a 12 inch disc?
572799a9dd62a815002ea1b2
three and a half minutes
288
False
The playing time of a phonograph record depended on the turntable speed and the groove spacing. At the beginning of the 20th century, the early discs played for two minutes, the same as early cylinder records. The 12-inch disc, introduced by Victor in 1903, increased the playing time to three and a half minutes. Because a 10-inch 78 rpm record could hold about three minutes of sound per side and the 10-inch size was the standard size for popular music, almost all popular recordings were limited to around three minutes in length. For example, when King Oliver's Creole Jazz Band, including Louis Armstrong on his first recordings, recorded 13 sides at Gennett Records in Richmond, Indiana, in 1923, one side was 2:09 and four sides were 2:52–2:59.
On which label did Frank Sinatra release his recording of Soliloquy?
57279b65ff5b5019007d90da
Columbia's Masterwork label
1645
False
What was a typical recording time of a song in 1948?
57279b65ff5b5019007d90db
about 3:30
1319
False
What was a way musicians got sounds such short recording times?
57279b65ff5b5019007d90dc
release a set of records
832
False
How many sides of a disc commonly held a recording?
57279b65ff5b5019007d90dd
two sides
736
False
In January 1938, Milt Gabler started recording for his new label, Commodore Records, and to allow for longer continuous performances, he recorded some 12-inch records. Eddie Condon explained: "Gabler realized that a jam session needs room for development." The first two 12-inch recordings did not take advantage of the extra length: "Carnegie Drag" was 3:15; "Carnegie Jump", 2:41. But at the second session, on April 30, the two 12-inch recordings were longer: "Embraceable You" was 4:05; "Serenade to a Shylock", 4:32. Another way around the time limitation was to issue a selection on both sides of a single record. Vaudeville stars Gallagher and Shean recorded "Mr. Gallagher and Mr. Shean", written by Irving and Jack Kaufman, as two sides of a 10-inch 78 in 1922 for Cameo. An obvious workaround for longer recordings was to release a set of records. An early multi-record release was in 1903, when HMV in England made the first complete recording of an opera, Verdi's Ernani, on 40 single-sided discs. In 1940, Commodore released Eddie Condon and his Band's recording of "A Good Man Is Hard to Find" in four parts, issued on both sides of two 12-inch 78s. This limitation on the duration of recordings persisted from 1910 until the invention of the LP record, in 1948. In popular music, this time limitation of about 3:30 on a 10-inch 78 rpm record meant that singers usually did not release long pieces on record. One exception is Frank Sinatra's recording of Rodgers and Hammerstein's "Soliloquy", from Carousel, made on May 28, 1946. Because it ran 7:57, longer than both sides of a standard 78 rpm 10-inch record, it was released on Columbia's Masterwork label (the classical division) as two sides of a 12-inch record. The same was true of John Raitt's performance of the song on the original cast album of Carousel, which had been issued on a 78-rpm album set by American Decca in 1945.
What was unique about Odeon's 1909 release of the Nutcracker Suite?
57279cc0708984140094e23d
4 double-sided discs in a specially designed package
134
False
What was one of the first releases with a photo on the cover?
57279cc0708984140094e23e
The Mikado (Gilbert & Sullivan)
555
False
When were albums said to be pioneered?
57279cc0708984140094e23f
1909
73
False
What was one of the very first albums released?
57279cc0708984140094e240
Nutcracker Suite by Tchaikovsky
99
False
German record company Odeon is often said to have pioneered the album in 1909 when it released the Nutcracker Suite by Tchaikovsky on 4 double-sided discs in a specially designed package. (It is not indicated what size the records are.) However, Deutsche Grammophon had produced an album for its complete recording of the opera Carmen in the previous year. The practice of issuing albums does not seem to have been widely taken up by other record companies for many years; however, HMV provided an album, with a pictorial cover, for the 1917 recording of The Mikado (Gilbert & Sullivan).
When could record album covers first be found?
57279d66ff5b5019007d9118
1910
9
False
What were early record album covers made of?
57279d66ff5b5019007d9119
empty sleeves with a paperboard or leather cover
44
False
What sizes were record album covers available in?
57279d66ff5b5019007d911a
10-inch and 12-inch sizes
280
False
How were record album covers intended to be stored?
57279d66ff5b5019007d911b
upright
436
False
What was the purpose of record album covers?
57279d66ff5b5019007d911c
protecting them
509
False
By about 1910,[note 1] bound collections of empty sleeves with a paperboard or leather cover, similar to a photograph album, were sold as record albums that customers could use to store their records (the term "record album" was printed on some covers). These albums came in both 10-inch and 12-inch sizes. The covers of these bound books were wider and taller than the records inside, allowing the record album to be placed on a shelf upright, like a book, suspending the fragile records above the shelf and protecting them.
When were albums as we currently know them widely released?
57279e2cff5b5019007d9122
1930s
7
False
What is typically found on the front cover of an album?
57279e2cff5b5019007d9123
artwork
162
False
How may records were commonly found in an album?
57279e2cff5b5019007d9124
three or four
255
False
When did the vinyl LP records Era begin?
57279e2cff5b5019007d9125
1949
375
False
How many songs did most albums contain?
57279e2cff5b5019007d9126
six or eight
306
False
In the 1930s, record companies began issuing collections of 78 rpm records by one performer or of one type of music in specially assembled albums, typically with artwork on the front cover and liner notes on the back or inside cover. Most albums included three or four records, with two sides each, making six or eight tunes per album. When the 12-inch vinyl LP era began in 1949, the single record often had the same or similar number of tunes as a typical album of 78s, and was still often referred to as an "album".
What are reasons for recent releases of 78 rpm speed vinyls?
57279f213acd2414000de811
collectable or nostalgia purposes
4
False
What is a benefit of newer releases of 78 rpm speed vinyls?
57279f213acd2414000de812
higher-quality audio playback
61
False
Who released 7" microgrooved records in the 1950s?
57279f213acd2414000de813
Bell Records
965
False
What benefits to vinyl have been found in the 1950s?
57279f213acd2414000de814
wider range of audio
906
False
Who founded Audiophile Records?
57279f213acd2414000de815
Ewing Dunbar Nunn
343
False
For collectable or nostalgia purposes, or for the benefit of higher-quality audio playback provided by the 78 rpm speed with newer vinyl records and their lightweight stylus pickups, a small number of 78 rpm records have been released since the major labels ceased production. One of the first attempts at this was in the 1950s, when inventor Ewing Dunbar Nunn founded the label Audiophile Records, which released, in addition to standard 33 1/3 rpm LPs, 78 rpm-mastered albums that were microgroove and pressed on vinyl (as opposed to traditional 78s, with their shellac composition and wider 3-mil sized grooves). This was done by the label mainly to take advantage of the wider audio frequency response that faster speeds like 78 rpm can provide for vinyl microgroove records, hence the label's name (obviously catering to the audiophiles of the 1950s "hi-fi" era, when stereo gear could provide a much wider range of audio than before). Also in the late 1950s, Bell Records released a few budget-priced 7" microgrooved records at 78 rpm.
In what year did Reprise plan to release a series of 78 rpm singles?
5727a043ff5b5019007d9140
1968
3
False
Which disc did Reprise release in 78 rpm format?
5727a043ff5b5019007d9141
Think It's Going to Rain Today
196
False
What two songs were featured on the 1978 release by Leon Redbone in 78 rpm format?
5727a043ff5b5019007d9142
Alabama Jubilee and Please Don't Talk About Me When I'm Gone
545
False
What record company released recordings of 'Buena' and 'Tuff Enuff' in 1980?
5727a043ff5b5019007d9143
Stiff Records
649
False
Why did Reprise only release one 78 rpm vinyl?
5727a043ff5b5019007d9144
lack of sales for the single, and a lack of general interest
368
False
In 1968, Reprise planned to release a series of 78 rpm singles from their artists on their label at the time, called the Reprise Speed Series. Only one disc actually saw release, Randy Newman's I Think It's Going to Rain Today, a track from his self-titled debut album (with The Beehive State on the flipside). Reprise did not proceed further with the series due to a lack of sales for the single, and a lack of general interest in the concept. Guitarist & vocalist Leon Redbone released a promotional 78 rpm record in 1978 featuring two songs (Alabama Jubilee and Please Don't Talk About Me When I'm Gone) from his Champagne Charlie album. In 1980 Stiff Records in the United Kingdom issued a 78 by Joe "King" Carrasco containing the songs Buena (Spanish for "good," with the alternate spelling "Bueno" on the label) and Tuff Enuff. Underground comic cartoonist and 78 rpm record collector Robert Crumb released three discs with his Cheap Suit Serenaders in the 1980s.
When was the release by Rhino Records of 78 rpm for jukebox owners?
5727a1a43acd2414000de859
1990s
7
False
What was the result of the use of this release of 78 rpm vinyl when used in vintage jukeboxes?
5727a1a43acd2414000de85a
they were destroyed
478
False
What was needed to successfully play the newer released 79 rpm vinyl?
5727a1a43acd2414000de85b
lightweight tone arms and jewel needles
603
False
For whom was the 1990 release of 78 rpm intended?
5727a1a43acd2414000de85c
owners of vintage jukeboxes
118
False
How did the 1990 release of 78 rpm effect Rhino Records?
5727a1a43acd2414000de85d
bad reputation
442
False
In the 1990s Rhino Records issued a series of boxed sets of 78 rpm reissues of early rock and roll hits, intended for owners of vintage jukeboxes. This was a disaster because Rhino did not warn customers that their records were made of vinyl, and that the vintage 78 RPM juke boxes were designed with heavy tone arms and steel needles to play the hard shellac records of their time. This failure to warn customers gave the Rhino 78 records a bad reputation,[citation needed] as they were destroyed by old juke boxes and old record players but played very well on newer 78-capable turntables with modern lightweight tone arms and jewel needles.
What was the playing time of program-transcription discs?
5727a6242ca10214002d92da
ten minutes playing time per side
277
False
How successful was RCA Victor's program-transcription discs?
5727a6242ca10214002d92db
commercial failure
370
False
When did RCA Victor release long play discs?
5727a6242ca10214002d92dc
1931
3
False
Who released the first commercial long play discs?
5727a6242ca10214002d92dd
RCA Victor
312
False
By when were long play records discontinued?
5727a6242ca10214002d92de
early 1933
702
False
In 1931, RCA Victor launched the first commercially available vinyl long-playing record, marketed as program-transcription discs. These revolutionary discs were designed for playback at 33 1⁄3 rpm and pressed on a 30 cm diameter flexible plastic disc, with a duration of about ten minutes playing time per side. RCA Victor's early introduction of a long-play disc was a commercial failure for several reasons including the lack of affordable, reliable consumer playback equipment and consumer wariness during the Great Depression. Because of financial hardships that plagued the recording industry during that period (and RCA's own parched revenues), Victor's long-playing records were discontinued by early 1933.
What was a benefit of using vinyl over shellac?
5727a8062ca10214002d9308
lower surface noise
8
False
By the mid 1940s what was the primary material records were made of?
5727a8062ca10214002d9309
vinyl
324
False
What was a factor in shellac availability?
5727a8062ca10214002d930a
World War II
397
False
Which material was more durable,  shellac or vinyl?
5727a8062ca10214002d930b
vinyl
211
False
What material were most mailed records made of?
5727a8062ca10214002d930c
vinyl
211
False
Vinyl's lower surface noise level than shellac was not forgotten, nor was its durability. In the late 1930s, radio commercials and pre-recorded radio programs being sent to disc jockeys started being stamped in vinyl, so they would not break in the mail. In the mid-1940s, special DJ copies of records started being made of vinyl also, for the same reason. These were all 78 rpm. During and after World War II, when shellac supplies were extremely limited, some 78 rpm records were pressed in vinyl instead of shellac, particularly the six-minute 12-inch (30 cm) 78 rpm records produced by V-Disc for distribution to United States troops in World War II. In the 1940s, radio transcriptions, which were usually on 16-inch records, but sometimes 12-inch, were always made of vinyl, but cut at 33 1⁄3 rpm. Shorter transcriptions were often cut at 78 rpm.
What caused a delay in the production of high quality records?
5727a8cf3acd2414000de903
World War II
321
False
Who released the 12 inch LP?
5727a8cf3acd2414000de904
Columbia Record Company
437
False
On what date was the 12 inch LP released?
5727a8cf3acd2414000de905
June 18, 1948
495
False
In what city was the 12 in LP released?
5727a8cf3acd2414000de906
New York
466
False
How long did it take Columbia to produce a consumer friendly long play record?
5727a8cf3acd2414000de907
about eight years
253
False
Beginning in 1939, Dr. Peter Goldmark and his staff at Columbia Records and at CBS Laboratories undertook efforts to address problems of recording and playing back narrow grooves and developing an inexpensive, reliable consumer playback system. It took about eight years of study, except when it was suspended because of World War II. Finally, the 12-inch (30 cm) Long Play (LP) 33 1⁄3 rpm microgroove record album was introduced by the Columbia Record Company at a New York press conference on June 18, 1948.
What did RCA release to complete against Columbia's LP?
5727ac6aff5b5019007d924e
The 45 rpm player
225
False
What materials were 45 rpm records made of?
5727ac6aff5b5019007d924f
vinyl or polystyrene
669
False
What was the play time of a 45 rpm
5727ac6aff5b5019007d9250
eight minutes
718
False
What was the size of a RCA Victor 45 rpm?
5727ac6aff5b5019007d9251
7 inches
178
False
Unwilling to accept and license Columbia's system, in February 1949 RCA Victor, in cooperation of its parent, the Radio Corporation of America, released the first 45 rpm single, 7 inches in diameter with a large center hole. The 45 rpm player included a changing mechanism that allowed multiple disks to be stacked, much as a conventional changer handled 78s. The short playing time of a single 45 rpm side meant that long works, such as symphonies, had to be released on multiple 45s instead of a single LP, but RCA claimed that the new high-speed changer rendered side breaks so brief as to be inaudible or inconsequential. Early 45 rpm records were made from either vinyl or polystyrene. They had a playing time of eight minutes.
Who had made an attempt in the 1920s to release a long play time recording?
5727ad89ff5b5019007d9260
World Records
117
False
What caused the constant linear velocity?
5727ad89ff5b5019007d9261
Noel Pemberton Billing's patented add-on governor device
206
False
What was a unique feature of World Records records?
5727ad89ff5b5019007d9262
played from the outside to the inside
278
False
What currently utilized item was World Records CLV similar to?
5727ad89ff5b5019007d9263
Philips Laser Disc
515
False
One early attempt at lengthening the playing time should be mentioned. At least one manufacturer in the early 1920s, World Records, produced records that played at a constant linear velocity, controlled by Noel Pemberton Billing's patented add-on governor device. As these were played from the outside to the inside, the rotational speed of the records increased as reproduction progressed. This action is similar (although in reverse) to that on the modern compact disc and the CLV version of its predecessor, the Philips Laser Disc.
What gear ration creates 78.26 rpm?
5727ae913acd2414000de97f
46:1
171
False
In what year was 78.26 rpm chosen as standard?
5727ae913acd2414000de980
1925
3
False
How many rpm did the electrically powered synchronous turanable motor run at?
5727ae913acd2414000de981
3600 rpm
149
False
Why are these records known as '78s'?
5727ae913acd2414000de982
to distinguish them from other newer disc record formats
502
False
In 1925, 78.26 rpm was chosen as the standard because of the introduction of the electrically powered synchronous turntable motor. This motor ran at 3600 rpm, such that a 46:1 gear ratio would produce 78.26 rpm. In parts of the world that used 50 Hz current, the standard was 77.92 rpm (3,000 rpm with a 77:2 ratio), which was also the speed at which a strobe disc with 77 lines would "stand still" in 50 Hz light (92 lines for 60 Hz). After World War II these records were retroactively known as 78s, to distinguish them from other newer disc record formats. Earlier they were just called records, or when there was a need to distinguish them from cylinders, disc records.
When did the 45 rpm gain popularity over the 78 rpm
5727b0292ca10214002d93d6
1950s
652
False
With which crowd did the 45 rpm gain popularity?
5727b0292ca10214002d93d7
teenagers
662
False
At which time were the 79 rpm no longer mass produced?
5727b0292ca10214002d93d8
about 1960
104
False
On which date did Columbia release it's last 78?
5727b0292ca10214002d93d9
November 1, 1954.
361
False
What was the last country to phase out the 78 rpm?
5727b0292ca10214002d93da
United Kingdom
467
False
The older 78 format continued to be mass-produced alongside the newer formats using new materials until about 1960 in the U.S., and in a few countries, such as India (where some Beatles recordings were issued on 78), into the 1960s. For example, Columbia Records' last reissue of Frank Sinatra songs on 78 rpm records was an album called Young at Heart, issued November 1, 1954. As late as the 1970s, some children's records were released at the 78 rpm speed. In the United Kingdom, the 78 rpm single lasted longer than in the United States and the 45 rpm took longer to become popular. The 78 rpm was overtaken in popularity by the 45 rpm in the late 1950s, as teenagers became increasingly affluent.
What percentage of Elvis Presley's single sales were of 78s?
5727b186ff5b5019007d92b6
less than 10%
403
False
What was the last 78 released in the UK by RCA?
5727b186ff5b5019007d92b7
A Mess Of Blues/Girl Of My Best Friend
663
False
Why did Elvis sales of 78s perform so well in the Southern States?
5727b186ff5b5019007d92b8
45 rpm player was a luxury few could afford at the time
282
False
On which label did Elvis release his early singles?
5727b186ff5b5019007d92b9
Sun Records
41
False
What was the last Elvis Presley single released on 78?
5727b186ff5b5019007d92ba
I Got Stung/One Night
591
False
Some of Elvis Presley's early singles on Sun Records might have sold more copies on 78 than on 45. This is because the majority of those sales in 1954–55 were to the "hillbilly" market in the South and Southwestern United States, where replacing the family 78 rpm player with a new 45 rpm player was a luxury few could afford at the time. By the end of 1957, RCA Victor announced that 78s accounted for less than 10% of Presley's singles sales, essentially announcing the death throes of the 78 rpm format. The last Presley single released on 78 in the United States was RCA Victor 20-7410, I Got Stung/One Night (1958), while the last 78 in the UK was RCA 1194, A Mess Of Blues/Girl Of My Best Friend (1960).
What two formats replaced the 78?
5727b3ab4b864d1900163ab8
33 1⁄3 rpm (often just referred to as the 33 rpm), and the 45 rpm
113
False
Who developed the 33 1/3 rpm LP?
5727b3ab4b864d1900163ab9
Columbia Records
252
False
When did the 33 1/3 rpm hit the market?
5727b3ab4b864d1900163aba
June 1948
285
False
When did RCA release their 45 rpm format?
5727b3ab4b864d1900163abb
March 1949
354
False
When were RIAA standards established?
5727b3ab4b864d1900163abc
mid-1950s
633
False
After World War II, two new competing formats came onto the market and gradually replaced the standard "78": the 33 1⁄3 rpm (often just referred to as the 33 rpm), and the 45 rpm (see above). The 33 1⁄3 rpm LP (for "long-play") format was developed by Columbia Records and marketed in June 1948. RCA Victor developed the 45 rpm format and marketed it in March 1949, each pursuing their own r&d in secret. Both types of new disc used narrower grooves, intended to be played with smaller stylus—typically 0.001 inches (25 µm) wide, compared to 0.003 inches (76 µm) for a 78—so the new records were sometimes called Microgroove. In the mid-1950s all record companies agreed to a common recording standard called RIAA equalization. Prior to the establishment of the standard each company used its own preferred standard, requiring discriminating listeners to use pre-amplifiers with multiple selectable equalization curves.
What was 16 2/3 rpm speed used for?
5727bb282ca10214002d94fc
narrated publications
551
False
Who developed the 33 1/3 rpm speed record?
5727bb282ca10214002d94fd
Peter Goldmark
229
False
What record format was created for use in Chrysler automobiles?
5727bb282ca10214002d94fe
Highway Hi-Fi 16 2⁄3 rpm record
304
False
Why did Chrysler discontinue use of the Hifi 16 2/3 rpm record?
5727bb282ca10214002d94ff
poor performance
378
False
To the end of which era could you find 16 rpm setting on record players?
5727bb282ca10214002d9500
1970s
759
False
Some recordings, such as books for the blind, were pressed at 16 2⁄3 rpm. Prestige Records released jazz records in this format in the late 1950s; for example, two of their Miles Davis albums were paired together in this format. Peter Goldmark, the man who developed the 33 1⁄3 rpm record, developed the Highway Hi-Fi 16 2⁄3 rpm record to be played in Chrysler automobiles, but poor performance of the system and weak implementation by Chrysler and Columbia led to the demise of the 16 2⁄3 rpm records. Subsequently, the 16 2⁄3 rpm speed was used for narrated publications for the blind and visually impaired, and were never widely commercially available, although it was common to see new turntable models with a 16 rpm speed setting produced as late as the 1970s.
Which two companies were involved in the "War of the Speeds"?
5727bc0b3acd2414000deaed
RCA Victor and Columbia Records
31
False
Over which years did the "War of the Speeds" last?
5727bc0b3acd2414000deaee
1948 to 1950
212
False
Which company lost the "War of the Speeds"?
5727bc0b3acd2414000deaef
RCA
453
False
What speed ultimantly ended up winning the war of the speeds?
5727bc0b3acd2414000deaf0
45 rpm
510
False
By 1945 what was the total sale of 45s?
5727bc0b3acd2414000deaf1
200 million
615
False
The commercial rivalry between RCA Victor and Columbia Records led to RCA Victor's introduction of what it had intended to be a competing vinyl format, the 7-inch (175 mm) 45 rpm disc. For a two-year period from 1948 to 1950, record companies and consumers faced uncertainty over which of these formats would ultimately prevail in what was known as the "War of the Speeds". (See also format war.) In 1949 Capitol and Decca adopted the new LP format and RCA gave in and issued its first LP in January 1950. The 45 rpm size was gaining in popularity, too, and Columbia issued its first 45s in February 1951. By 1954, 200 million 45s had been sold.
What format of LPs was discontinued?
5727bd22ff5b5019007d93dc
10-inch
106
False
What was the significance of October 26th, 1956?
5727bd22ff5b5019007d93dd
The last Columbia Records reissue of any Frank Sinatra songs on a 10-inch LP
141
False
In which country did the 10 in LP exist the longest?
5727bd22ff5b5019007d93de
United Kingdom
468
False
Which format offered up to 1/2 an hour of recordings per side?
5727bd22ff5b5019007d93df
12-inch LP
886
False
Did the 45 rpm or 12 inch disc offer longer playing time?
5727bd22ff5b5019007d93e0
12-inch LP
886
False
Eventually the 12-inch (300 mm) 33 1⁄3 rpm LP prevailed as the predominant format for musical albums, and 10-inch LPs were no longer issued. The last Columbia Records reissue of any Frank Sinatra songs on a 10-inch LP record was an album called Hall of Fame, CL 2600, issued on October 26, 1956, containing six songs, one each by Tony Bennett, Rosemary Clooney, Johnnie Ray, Frank Sinatra, Doris Day, and Frankie Laine. The 10-inch LP however had a longer life in the United Kingdom, where important early British rock and roll albums such as Lonnie Donegan's Lonnie Donegan Showcase and Billy Fury's The Sound of Fury were released in that form. The 7-inch (175 mm) 45 rpm disc or "single" established a significant niche for shorter duration discs, typically containing one item on each side. The 45 rpm discs typically emulated the playing time of the former 78 rpm discs, while the 12-inch LP discs eventually provided up to one half-hour of recorded material per side.
What do the initials EP stand for?
5727be4c3acd2414000deb31
extended play
49
False
Why were 45s more popular with jukeboxes?
5727be4c3acd2414000deb32
The large center hole
528
False
What format was phased out by the end of the 1950s?
5727be4c3acd2414000deb33
EPs
607
False
What was a benefit of EPs over LPs?
5727be4c3acd2414000deb34
EP discs were cheaper
220
False
The 45 rpm discs also came in a variety known as extended play (EP), which achieved up to 10–15 minutes play at the expense of attenuating (and possibly compressing) the sound to reduce the width required by the groove. EP discs were cheaper to produce, and were used in cases where unit sales were likely to be more limited or to reissue LP albums on the smaller format for those people who had only 45 rpm players. LP albums could be purchased 1 EP at a time, with four items per EP, or in a boxed set with 3 EPs or 12 items. The large center hole on 45s allows for easier handling by jukebox mechanisms. EPs were generally discontinued by the late 1950s in the U.S. as three- and four-speed record players replaced the individual 45 players. One indication of the decline of the 45 rpm EP is that the last Columbia Records reissue of Frank Sinatra songs on 45 rpm EP records, called Frank Sinatra (Columbia B-2641) was issued on December 7, 1959. The EP lasted considerably longer in Europe, and was a popular format during the 1960s for recordings by artists such as Serge Gainsbourg and the Beatles.
What three speeds were sound on most home stereos in the mid 1950's?
5727bf733acd2414000deb61
78, 45, 33 1⁄3
209
False
What feature of 45s required an adapter in most home stereos?
5727bf733acd2414000deb62
larger center hole.
556
False
What feature was found on more home stereos that allowed continuous play between records?
5727bf733acd2414000deb63
changer
257
False
What format was less common but could sometimes be found on home stereos?
5727bf733acd2414000deb64
16 2⁄3 rpm
239
False
From the mid-1950s through the 1960s, in the U.S. the common home record player or "stereo" (after the introduction of stereo recording) would typically have had these features: a three- or four-speed player (78, 45, 33 1⁄3, and sometimes 16 2⁄3 rpm); with changer, a tall spindle that would hold several records and automatically drop a new record on top of the previous one when it had finished playing, a combination cartridge with both 78 and microgroove styli and a way to flip between the two; and some kind of adapter for playing the 45s with their larger center hole. The adapter could be a small solid circle that fit onto the bottom of the spindle (meaning only one 45 could be played at a time) or a larger adaptor that fit over the entire spindle, permitting a stack of 45s to be played.
Wy did records outside of the US often have small holes with the ability to punch out the center?
5727c0a73acd2414000deb97
for use in jukeboxes
635
False
What were the plastic inserts which would adapt 45s to the smaller spindle of an LP player called?
5727c0a73acd2414000deb98
spider
107
False
What invention did Thomas Hutchinson introduce?
5727c0a73acd2414000deb99
spider
107
False
Whom were the adaptable inserts for 45s to LPs commissioned by?
5727c0a73acd2414000deb9a
RCA president David Sarnoff
147
False
How many spiders were sold in the 45 rpm heydays?
5727c0a73acd2414000deb9b
tens of millions per year
262
False
RCA 45s were also adapted to the smaller spindle of an LP player with a plastic snap-in insert known as a "spider". These inserts, commissioned by RCA president David Sarnoff and invented by Thomas Hutchison, were prevalent starting in the 1960s, selling in the tens of millions per year during the 45 rpm heyday. In countries outside the U.S., 45s often had the smaller album-sized holes, e.g., Australia and New Zealand, or as in the United Kingdom, especially before the 1970s, the disc had a small hole within a circular central section held only by three or four lands so that it could be easily punched out if desired (typically for use in jukeboxes).
What term was coined to differentiate better sounding products in the 1920s?
5727c39d2ca10214002d95b0
high fidelity
10
False
What magazines provided reviews for audio equipment?
5727c39d2ca10214002d95b1
High Fidelity and Audio
620
False
What happened in 1958 that changed the home music scene?
5727c39d2ca10214002d95b2
variety of improvements in recording and playback technologies
311
False
During what years did the term HiFi take off with engineers?
5727c39d2ca10214002d95b3
1930s and 1940s
281
False
What term would be used when one said they produced perfect sound reproduction?
5727c39d2ca10214002d95b4
high fidelity
10
False
The term "high fidelity" was coined in the 1920s by some manufacturers of radio receivers and phonographs to differentiate their better-sounding products claimed as providing "perfect" sound reproduction. The term began to be used by some audio engineers and consumers through the 1930s and 1940s. After 1949 a variety of improvements in recording and playback technologies, especially stereo recordings, which became widely available in 1958, gave a boost to the "hi-fi" classification of products, leading to sales of individual components for the home such as amplifiers, loudspeakers, phonographs, and tape players. High Fidelity and Audio were two magazines that hi-fi consumers and engineers could read for reviews of playback equipment and recordings.
What did Alan Blumlein event?
5727c4faff5b5019007d94c4
stereophonic record system
310
False
When did EMI create the first stereo discs?
5727c4faff5b5019007d94c5
1933
466
False
What was the benefit of 45/45 stereo sound?
5727c4faff5b5019007d94c6
more natural listening experience
58
False
What year was stereo sound patented?
5727c4faff5b5019007d94c7
1931
377
False
How was the commercial success of stereo sound in the 1930s?
5727c4faff5b5019007d94c8
was not exploited commercially until much later.
534
False
Stereophonic sound recording, which attempts to provide a more natural listening experience by reproducing the spatial locations of sound sources in the horizontal plane, was the natural extension to monophonic recording, and attracted various alternative engineering attempts. The ultimately dominant "45/45" stereophonic record system was invented by Alan Blumlein of EMI in 1931 and patented the same year. EMI cut the first stereo test discs using the system in 1933 (see Bell Labs Stereo Experiments of 1933) although the system was not exploited commercially until much later.
What did quadraphonic recording feature?
5727c5ccff5b5019007d94d4
recorded four separate sound signals.
69
False
What was the newest break through in home sound systems in 1971?
5727c5ccff5b5019007d94d5
development of quadraphonic records
4
False
How would the commercial success of quadraphonic records be defined?
5727c5ccff5b5019007d94d6
commercially unsuccessful
510
False
What did developments in quadraphonic recordings inspire?
5727c5ccff5b5019007d94d7
later surround-sound systems
572
False
The development of quadraphonic records was announced in 1971. These recorded four separate sound signals. This was achieved on the two stereo channels by electronic matrixing, where the additional channels were combined into the main signal. When the records were played, phase-detection circuits in the amplifiers were able to decode the signals into four separate channels. There were two main systems of matrixed quadraphonic records produced, confusingly named SQ (by CBS) and QS (by Sansui). They proved commercially unsuccessful, but were an important precursor to later surround-sound systems, as seen in SACD and home cinema today.
What was a major issue with CD-4 technology?
5727c6c9ff5b5019007d94e0
no cutting heads were available that could handle the HF information
351
False
How widespread was the success of CD-4 format?
5727c6c9ff5b5019007d94e1
even less successful than the two matrixed formats
271
False
What format was less successful than quadraphonic?
5727c6c9ff5b5019007d94e2
CD-4
20
False
What were potential benefits of the CD-4 format?
5727c6c9ff5b5019007d94e3
reduced distortion and greater headroom
604
False
Who created the CD-4 format?
5727c6c9ff5b5019007d94e4
RCA
68
False
A different format, CD-4 (not to be confused with compact disc), by RCA, encoded the front-rear difference information on an ultrasonic carrier, which required a special wideband cartridge to capture it on carefully calibrated pickup arm/turntable combinations. CD-4 was even less successful than the two matrixed formats. (A further problem was that no cutting heads were available that could handle the HF information. That was remedied by cutting at half the speed. Later, the special half-speed cutting heads and equalization techniques were employed to get a wider frequency response in stereo with reduced distortion and greater headroom.)
For which company did C. Robert Fine work for?
5727c860ff5b5019007d9532
Mercury Records
58
False
What benefits were found in using the 35mm magnetic film?
5727c860ff5b5019007d9533
prevented tape layer print-through and pre-echo and gained extended frequency range and transient response
1009
False
Who developed the 3-to-2 mix to create lifelike recordings?
5727c860ff5b5019007d9534
Mercury
1121
False
Which microphone hold the most importance in 3 microphone recording?
5727c860ff5b5019007d9535
The center
545
False
In which year did Mercury begin 3 channel stereo recording?
5727c860ff5b5019007d9536
1955
437
False
Under the direction of recording engineer C. Robert Fine, Mercury Records initiated a minimalist single microphone monaural recording technique in 1951. The first record, a Chicago Symphony Orchestra performance of Pictures at an Exhibition, conducted by Rafael Kubelik, was described as "being in the living presence of the orchestra" by The New York Times music critic. The series of records was then named Mercury Living Presence. In 1955, Mercury began three-channel stereo recordings, still based on the principle of the single microphone. The center (single) microphone was of paramount importance, with the two side mics adding depth and space. Record masters were cut directly from a three-track to two-track mixdown console, with all editing of the master tapes done on the original three-tracks. In 1961, Mercury enhanced this technique with three-microphone stereo recordings using 35 mm magnetic film instead of half-inch tape for recording. The greater thickness and width of 35 mm magnetic film prevented tape layer print-through and pre-echo and gained extended frequency range and transient response. The Mercury Living Presence recordings were remastered to CD in the 1990s by the original producer, Wilma Cozart Fine, using the same method of 3-to-2 mix directly to the master recorder.
What technique were used to reduce inner-groove distortion?
5727c9d34b864d1900163d1e
CBS DisComputer and Teldec Direct Metal Mastering
204
False
Who developed the Dynagroove format?
5727c9d34b864d1900163d1f
RCA Victor
300
False
Why did some music lovers frown upon diaphragming?
5727c9d34b864d1900163d20
unnatural side effects
701
False
What did closer groove spacing result in?
5727c9d34b864d1900163d21
Lower recorded volume
966
False
What would be found with higher recorded volumes?
5727c9d34b864d1900163d22
wider spacing
1037
False
Through the 1960s, 1970s, and 1980s, various methods to improve the dynamic range of mass-produced records involved highly advanced disc cutting equipment. These techniques, marketed, to name two, as the CBS DisComputer and Teldec Direct Metal Mastering, were used to reduce inner-groove distortion. RCA Victor introduced another system to reduce dynamic range and achieve a groove with less surface noise under the commercial name of Dynagroove. Two main elements were combined: another disk material with less surface noise in the groove and dynamic compression for masking background noise. Sometimes this was called "diaphragming" the source material and not favoured by some music lovers for its unnatural side effects. Both elements were reflected in the brandname of Dynagroove, described elsewhere in more detail. It also used the earlier advanced method of forward-looking control on groove spacing with respect to volume of sound and position on the disk. Lower recorded volume used closer spacing; higher recorded volume used wider spacing, especially with lower frequencies. Also, the higher track density at lower volumes enabled disk recordings to end farther away from the disk center than usual, helping to reduce endtrack distortion even further.
How did Disco Eye-Cued system benefit DJs?
5727cb3f2ca10214002d966c
visual cue to DJs mixing the records
601
False
How did Disco Eye-Cued sysems differ from LPs?
5727cb3f2ca10214002d966d
only contain one track each side
701
False
When was the Disco Eye-Cued System developed?
5727cb3f2ca10214002d966e
late 1970s
371
False
What were direct to disc recordings expected to product?
5727cb3f2ca10214002d966f
a "purist" transcription
164
False
When were 'half speed' and 'digitally remastered' recordings being released?
5727cb3f2ca10214002d9670
late 1970s
12
False
Also in the late 1970s, "direct-to-disc" records were produced, aimed at an audiophile niche market. These completely bypassed the use of magnetic tape in favor of a "purist" transcription directly to the master lacquer disc. Also during this period, half-speed mastered and "original master" records were released, using expensive state-of-the-art technology. A further late 1970s development was the Disco Eye-Cued system used mainly on Motown 12-inch singles released between 1978 and 1980. The introduction, drum-breaks, or choruses of a track were indicated by widely separated grooves, giving a visual cue to DJs mixing the records. The appearance of these records is similar to an LP, but they only contain one track each side.
What was required for quality playback of DBX recordings?
5727cc4f2ca10214002d9694
automatic gain control
476
False
When were DBX recordings released?
5727cc4f2ca10214002d9695
mid-1970s
4
False
How compatible were DBX encoded recordings with prior technologies?
5727cc4f2ca10214002d9696
completely incompatible with
109
False
What was the intention of DBX encoded recordings?
5727cc4f2ca10214002d9697
reduced the effect of surface noise on quiet passages
531
False
What did CBS develop in order to reduce outside noise?
5727cc4f2ca10214002d9698
"CX" noise reduction
658
False
The mid-1970s saw the introduction of dbx-encoded records, again for the audiophile niche market. These were completely incompatible with standard record playback preamplifiers, relying on the dbx compandor encoding/decoding scheme to greatly increase dynamic range (dbx encoded disks were recorded with the dynamic range compressed by a factor of two in dB: quiet sounds were meant to be played back at low gain and loud sounds were meant to be played back at high gain, via automatic gain control in the playback equipment; this reduced the effect of surface noise on quiet passages). A similar and very short-lived scheme involved using the CBS-developed "CX" noise reduction encoding/decoding scheme.
What company out of Japan offered laser turntables that read vinyl discs optically?
5727cd6e2ca10214002d96c6
ELPJ
0
False
What was a benedit of laser read discs?
5727cd6e2ca10214002d96c7
eliminates record wear
151
False
What was a drawback of laser read discs?
5727cd6e2ca10214002d96c8
degrade the sound
225
False
What was the primary use of laser read discs?
5727cd6e2ca10214002d96c9
archiving of analog records
292
False
What was a major issue for laser read discs?
5727cd6e2ca10214002d96ca
dust
544
False
ELPJ, a Japanese-based company, sells a laser turntable that uses a laser to read vinyl discs optically, without physical contact. The laser turntable eliminates record wear and the possibility of accidental scratches, which degrade the sound, but its expense limits use primarily to digital archiving of analog records, and the laser does not play back colored vinyl or picture discs. Various other laser-based turntables were tried during the 1990s, but while a laser reads the groove very accurately, since it does not touch the record, the dust that vinyl attracts due to static electric charge is not mechanically pushed out of the groove, worsening sound quality in casual use compared to conventional stylus playback.
Who is Irene?
5727ce6e3acd2414000decdd
scanning machine for disc records
57
False
Where was IRENE developed?
5727ce6e3acd2414000decde
Lawrence Berkeley Laboratories
182
False
What is the primary use of IRENE?
5727ce6e3acd2414000decdf
retrieve the information
225
False
Can IRENE read vertically modulated information?
5727ce6e3acd2414000dece0
cannot read vertically modulated information
347
False
Does IRENE require the  ability to touch the media?
5727ce6e3acd2414000dece1
without touching the medium
307
False
In some ways similar to the laser turntable is the IRENE scanning machine for disc records, which images with microphotography in two dimensions, invented by a team of physicists at Lawrence Berkeley Laboratories. IRENE will retrieve the information from a laterally modulated monaural grooved sound source without touching the medium itself, but cannot read vertically modulated information. This excludes grooved recordings such as cylinders and some radio transcriptions that feature a hill-and-dale format of recording, and stereophonic or quadraphonic grooved recordings, which utilize a combination of the two as well as supersonic encoding for quadraphonic.
What terms are used for recording with more than one track?
5727cf9c3acd2414000decf5
long-play" (LP) and "extended-play" (EP
15
False
What is a typical max playing time of an LP?
5727cf9c3acd2414000decf6
forty-five minutes
368
False
Which format is cheaper, LP or EP?
5727cf9c3acd2414000decf7
LPs
770
False
Which format held recordings ranging from 10 to 15 minutes?
5727cf9c3acd2414000decf8
7-inch EP
521
False
What was a normal play time per side for LPs?
5727cf9c3acd2414000decf9
22 minutes
280
False
Terms such as "long-play" (LP) and "extended-play" (EP) describe multi-track records that play much longer than the single-item-per-side records, which typically do not go much past four minutes per side. An LP can play for up to 30 minutes per side, though most played for about 22 minutes per side, bringing the total playing time of a typical LP recording to about forty-five minutes. Many pre-1952 LPs, however, played for about 15 minutes per side. The 7-inch 45 rpm format normally contains one item per side but a 7-inch EP could achieve recording times of 10 to 15 minutes at the expense of attenuating and compressing the sound to reduce the width required by the groove. EP discs were generally used to make available tracks not on singles including tracks on LPs albums in a smaller, less expensive format for those who had only 45 rpm players. The large center hole on 7-inch 45 rpm records allows for easier handling by jukebox mechanisms. The term "album", originally used to mean a "book" with liner notes, holding several 78 rpm records each in its own "page" or sleeve, no longer has any relation to the physical format: a single LP record, or nowadays more typically a compact disc.
Which colors of 45 were available as late as 1952 before being discontinued?
5727d0992ca10214002d973c
yellow and deep red
667
False
PeeWee the Piccolo was what?
5727d0992ca10214002d973d
The first 45 rpm record created for sale
720
False
What significance does Dec 7/ 1948 hold?
5727d0992ca10214002d973e
The first 45 rpm record created for sale
720
False
How many colors were 45s available in when first released?
5727d0992ca10214002d973f
seven colors
304
False
When did RCA release the 45?
5727d0992ca10214002d9740
March 1949
3
False
In March 1949, as RCA released the 45, Columbia released several hundred 7 inch 33 1/3 rpm small spindle hole singles. This format was soon dropped as it became clear that the RCA 45 was the single of choice and the Columbia 12 inch LP would be the 'album' of choice. The first release of the 45 came in seven colors: black 47-xxxx popular series, yellow 47-xxxx juvenile series, green (teal) 48-xxxx country series, deep red 49-xxxx classical series, bright red (cerise) 50-xxxx blues/spiritual series, light blue 51-xxxx international series, dark blue 52-xxxx light classics. All colors were soon dropped in favor of black because of production problems. However, yellow and deep red were continued until about 1952. The first 45 rpm record created for sale was "PeeWee the Piccolo" RCA 47-0147 pressed in yellow translucent vinyl at the Sherman Avenue plant, Indianapolis Dec. 7, 1948, R.O. Price, plant manager.
In which direction does the groove in a normal disc run?
5727d399ff5b5019007d9636
outside edge towards the center
124
False
How is sound encoded on a commercial disc?
5727d399ff5b5019007d9637
by fine variations
246
False
Does it matter at which speed a disc is spun?
5727d399ff5b5019007d9638
correct speed
401
False
Do all grooves bear data?
5727d399ff5b5019007d9639
no
472
False
The normal commercial disc is engraved with two sound-bearing concentric spiral grooves, one on each side, running from the outside edge towards the center. The last part of the spiral meets an earlier part to form a circle. The sound is encoded by fine variations in the edges of the groove that cause a stylus (needle) placed in it to vibrate at acoustic frequencies when the disc is rotated at the correct speed. Generally, the outer and inner parts of the groove bear no intended sound (an exception is Split Enz's Mental Notes).
What is a 'lead out'?
5727d616ff5b5019007d9672
wide-pitched section
63
False
What is the center where the data joins to complete a circle?
5727d616ff5b5019007d9673
lock groove
201
False
Do turntables play music on lock grooves?
5727d616ff5b5019007d9674
most automatic turntables are incapable
744
False
What do most automatic turn tables do when they meet a lock groove?
5727d616ff5b5019007d9675
lift the arm
841
False
Where do you find a lead out?
5727d616ff5b5019007d9676
Towards the center, at the end of the groove
0
False
Towards the center, at the end of the groove, there is another wide-pitched section known as the lead-out. At the very end of this section the groove joins itself to form a complete circle, called the lock groove; when the stylus reaches this point, it circles repeatedly until lifted from the record. On some recordings (for example Sgt. Pepper's Lonely Hearts Club Band by The Beatles, Super Trouper by Abba and Atom Heart Mother by Pink Floyd), the sound continues on the lock groove, which gives a strange repeating effect. Automatic turntables rely on the position or angular velocity of the arm, as it reaches the wider spacing in the groove, to trigger a mechanism that lifts the arm off the record. Precisely because of this mechanism, most automatic turntables are incapable of playing any audio in the lock groove, since they will lift the arm before it reaches that groove.
Where were records made with raised label areas?
5727d7343acd2414000dede1
reducing the risk of damage
238
False
Are longer recordings, as found in operas, made for use with auto-changing systems?
5727d7343acd2414000dede2
interleaved across several 10-inch or 12-inch discs for use with auto-changing mechanisms
505
False
Do grooves on records touch when stacked?
5727d7343acd2414000dede3
allowing records to be stacked onto each other without the delicate grooves coming into contact
141
False
Do records touch when in auto changers?
5727d7343acd2414000dede4
Auto-changers included a mechanism to support a stack
267
False
When auto-changing turntables were commonplace, records were typically pressed with a raised (or ridged) outer edge and a raised label area, allowing records to be stacked onto each other without the delicate grooves coming into contact, reducing the risk of damage. Auto-changers included a mechanism to support a stack of several records above the turntable itself, dropping them one at a time onto the active turntable to be played in order. Many longer sound recordings, such as complete operas, were interleaved across several 10-inch or 12-inch discs for use with auto-changing mechanisms, so that the first disk of a three-disk recording would carry sides 1 and 6 of the program, while the second disk would carry sides 2 and 5, and the third, sides 3 and 4, allowing sides 1, 2, and 3 to be played automatically; then the whole stack reversed to play sides 4, 5, and 6.
What is the most used material for modern audiophile vinyl releases?
5727de793acd2414000dee83
New or "virgin" heavy/heavyweight (180–220 g) vinyl
0
False
What is the material preference of collectors?
5727de793acd2414000dee84
heavyweight vinyl
152
False
How does the manufacturing process differ between heavyweight and normal vinyl?
5727de793acd2414000dee85
Manufacturing processes are identical
393
False
Would would a non filled area in a vinyl press cause when listening to a record?
5727de793acd2414000dee86
grinding or scratching sound
783
False
Which pressing of vinyl require more attention to detail, lightweight or heavyweight?
5727de793acd2414000dee87
lightweight records requires more care
471
False
New or "virgin" heavy/heavyweight (180–220 g) vinyl is commonly used for modern audiophile vinyl releases in all genres. Many collectors prefer to have heavyweight vinyl albums, which have been reported to have better sound than normal vinyl because of their higher tolerance against deformation caused by normal play. 180 g vinyl is more expensive to produce only because it uses more vinyl. Manufacturing processes are identical regardless of weight. In fact, pressing lightweight records requires more care. An exception is the propensity of 200 g pressings to be slightly more prone to non-fill, when the vinyl biscuit does not sufficiently fill a deep groove during pressing (percussion or vocal amplitude changes are the usual locations of these artifacts). This flaw causes a grinding or scratching sound at the non-fill point.
What is an effect of using worn molds when casting records?
5727e0dbff5b5019007d975e
The "orange peel" effect
0
False
What is the expected finish of a vinyl record?
5727e0dbff5b5019007d975f
mirror-like
97
False
What is the effect on a copy if a master as an orange peel effect?
5727e0dbff5b5019007d9760
there is no ill effect
525
False
On what frequencies is an orange peel effect most noticeable?
5727e0dbff5b5019007d9761
lower frequency range
251
False
What material is on a direct metal mastering disc?
5727e0dbff5b5019007d9762
copper
337
False
The "orange peel" effect on vinyl records is caused by worn molds. Rather than having the proper mirror-like finish, the surface of the record will have a texture that looks like orange peel. This introduces noise into the record, particularly in the lower frequency range. With direct metal mastering (DMM), the master disc is cut on a copper-coated disc, which can also have a minor "orange peel" effect on the disc itself. As this "orange peel" originates in the master rather than being introduced in the pressing stage, there is no ill effect as there is no physical distortion of the groove.
What is the two step process?
5727e311ff5b5019007d9798
"father" is removed of its silver and converted into a stamper
2659
False
What is the limitation of the two step process?
5727e311ff5b5019007d9799
limited to a few hundred vinyl pressings
2963
False
Which is preferred the two step or three step process?
5727e311ff5b5019007d979a
three-step
3126
False
Which have stronger structures the father or son mold?
5727e311ff5b5019007d979b
sons
3105
False
What can increase the output of a stamper mold?
5727e311ff5b5019007d979c
quality of the vinyl is high
3070
False
Original master discs are created by lathe-cutting: a lathe is used to cut a modulated groove into a blank record. The blank records for cutting used to be cooked up, as needed, by the cutting engineer, using what Robert K. Morrison describes as a "metallic soap," containing lead litharge, ozokerite, barium sulfate, montan wax, stearin and paraffin, among other ingredients. Cut "wax" sound discs would be placed in a vacuum chamber and gold-sputtered to make them electrically conductive for use as mandrels in an electroforming bath, where pressing stamper parts were made. Later, the French company Pyral invented a ready-made blank disc having a thin nitro-cellulose lacquer coating (approximately 7 mils thickness on both sides) that was applied to an aluminum substrate. Lacquer cuts result in an immediately playable, or processable, master record. If vinyl pressings are wanted, the still-unplayed sound disc is used as a mandrel for electroforming nickel records that are used for manufacturing pressing stampers. The electroformed nickel records are mechanically separated from their respective mandrels. This is done with relative ease because no actual "plating" of the mandrel occurs in the type of electrodeposition known as electroforming, unlike with electroplating, in which the adhesion of the new phase of metal is chemical and relatively permanent. The one-molecule-thick coating of silver (that was sprayed onto the processed lacquer sound disc in order to make its surface electrically conductive) reverse-plates onto the nickel record's face. This negative impression disc (having ridges in place of grooves) is known as a nickel master, "matrix" or "father." The "father" is then used as a mandrel to electroform a positive disc known as a "mother". Many mothers can be grown on a single "father" before ridges deteriorate beyond effective use. The "mothers" are then used as mandrels for electroforming more negative discs known as "sons". Each "mother" can be used to make many "sons" before deteriorating. The "sons" are then converted into "stampers" by center-punching a spindle hole (which was lost from the lacquer sound disc during initial electroforming of the "father"), and by custom-forming the target pressing profile. This allows them to be placed in the dies of the target (make and model) record press and, by center-roughing, to facilitate the adhesion of the label, which gets stuck onto the vinyl pressing without any glue. In this way, several million vinyl discs can be produced from a single lacquer sound disc. When only a few hundred discs are required, instead of electroforming a "son" (for each side), the "father" is removed of its silver and converted into a stamper. Production by this latter method, known as the "two-step-process" (as it does not entail creation of "sons" but does involve creation of "mothers," which are used for test playing and kept as "safeties" for electroforming future "sons") is limited to a few hundred vinyl pressings. The pressing count can increase if the stamper holds out and the quality of the vinyl is high. The "sons" made during a "three-step" electroforming make better stampers since they don't require silver removal (which reduces some high fidelity because of etching erasing part of the smallest groove modulations) and also because they have a stronger metal structure than "fathers".
What was a known issue of using shellac to make records?
5727e41d2ca10214002d98ca
Breakage was very common
0
False
In which novel does 'Whiteman's Lady of the Evening" record get broken?
5727e41d2ca10214002d98cb
John O'Hara novel, Appointment in Samarra
57
False
In Blackboard Jungle what record breaking mention is made?
5727e41d2ca10214002d98cc
teacher's collection of 78 rpm jazz records is smashed
485
False
Breakage was very common in the shellac era. In the 1934 John O'Hara novel, Appointment in Samarra, the protagonist "broke one of his most favorites, Whiteman's Lady of the Evening ... He wanted to cry but could not." A poignant moment in J. D. Salinger's 1951 novel The Catcher in the Rye occurs after the adolescent protagonist buys a record for his younger sister but drops it and "it broke into pieces ... I damn-near cried, it made me feel so terrible." A sequence where a school teacher's collection of 78 rpm jazz records is smashed by a group of rebellious students is a key moment in the film Blackboard Jungle.
What causes clicks and pops on vinyl records?
5727e4fd2ca10214002d98ea
Dust and scratches
174
False
What is the cause of lock grooves on vinyl records?
5727e4fd2ca10214002d98eb
Dust and scratches
174
False
Where does the saying "Like a broken record" originate?
5727e4fd2ca10214002d98ec
locked groove
362
False
How easily do vinyl records break?
5727e4fd2ca10214002d98ed
Vinyl records do not break easily
0
False
What is a common damage to vinyl records?
5727e4fd2ca10214002d98ee
easily scratched.
60
False
Vinyl records do not break easily, but the soft material is easily scratched. Vinyl readily acquires a static charge, attracting dust that is difficult to remove completely. Dust and scratches cause audio clicks and pops. In extreme cases, they can cause the needle to skip over a series of grooves, or worse yet, cause the needle to skip backwards, creating a "locked groove" that repeats over and over. This is the origin of the phrase "like a broken record" or "like a scratched record", which is often used to describe a person or thing that continually repeats itself. Locked grooves are not uncommon and were even heard occasionally in radio broadcasts.
What causes warping in vinyl records?
5727e6212ca10214002d9906
heat, improper storage, exposure to sunlight, or manufacturing defects
31
False
What is a cause of once per revolution pitch variation?
5727e6212ca10214002d9907
warp, or from a spindle hole that was not precisely centered
337
False
What method was used to protect a vinyl record?
5727e6212ca10214002d9908
place the LP in a paper or plastic inner cover
432
False
What were often found with a paper outter cover and no inner cover?
5727e6212ca10214002d9909
Singles
646
False
What happens if a vinyl comes with a bit of warp?
5727e6212ca10214002d990a
A small degree of warp was common,
167
False
Vinyl records can be warped by heat, improper storage, exposure to sunlight, or manufacturing defects such as excessively tight plastic shrinkwrap on the album cover. A small degree of warp was common, and allowing for it was part of the art of turntable and tonearm design. "wow" (once-per-revolution pitch variation) could result from warp, or from a spindle hole that was not precisely centered. Standard practice for LPs was to place the LP in a paper or plastic inner cover. This, if placed within the outer cardboard cover so that the opening was entirely within the outer cover, was said to reduce ingress of dust onto the record surface. Singles, with rare exceptions, had simple paper covers with no inner cover.
When is distortion most common on a gramophone record?
5727e6df2ca10214002d991a
Distortion towards the end of the side
505
False
What happens as a record wears?
5727e6df2ca10214002d991b
Distortion
505
False
What is a drawback of using gramophones?
5727e6df2ca10214002d991c
fidelity steadily declines as playback progresses
54
False
How much vinyl can be found at the start of an LP?
5727e6df2ca10214002d991d
510 mm
344
False
Where can you find only 200-210mm of vinyl?
5727e6df2ca10214002d991e
ending of the groove
407
False
A further limitation of the gramophone record is that fidelity steadily declines as playback progresses; there is more vinyl per second available for fine reproduction of high frequencies at the large-diameter beginning of the groove than exist at the smaller-diameters close to the end of the side. At the start of a groove on an LP there are 510 mm of vinyl per second traveling past the stylus while the ending of the groove gives 200–210 mm of vinyl per second — less than half the linear resolution. Distortion towards the end of the side is likely to become more apparent as record wear increases.*
What would be a cause of low frequency sounds when listening?
5727e84f2ca10214002d9940
warped disk
880
False
What is a feature many stereos contain to fight back against unwanted noises?
5727e84f2ca10214002d9941
subsonic filter
1067
False
What is a sounds commonly heard when listening to a vinyl that is unintentional.
5727e84f2ca10214002d9942
Tonearm skating
0
False
Which frequencies are you most likely to hear tonearm skating?
5727e84f2ca10214002d9943
frequencies below about 20 Hz
263
False
Are there any visual signs of tracking when listening to a record?
5727e84f2ca10214002d9944
cones can sometimes be seen to vibrate with the subsonic tracking
593
False
Tonearm skating forces and other perturbations are also picked up by the stylus. This is a form of frequency multiplexing as the control signal (restoring force) used to keep the stylus in the groove is carried by the same mechanism as the sound itself. Subsonic frequencies below about 20 Hz in the audio signal are dominated by tracking effects, which is one form of unwanted rumble ("tracking noise") and merges with audible frequencies in the deep bass range up to about 100 Hz. High fidelity sound equipment can reproduce tracking noise and rumble. During a quiet passage, woofer speaker cones can sometimes be seen to vibrate with the subsonic tracking of the stylus, at frequencies as low as just above 0.5 Hz (the frequency at which a 33 1⁄3 rpm record turns on the turntable; 5⁄9 Hz exactly on an ideal turntable). Another reason for very low frequency material can be a warped disk: its undulations produce frequencies of only a few hertz and present day amplifiers have large power bandwidths. For this reason, many stereo receivers contained a switchable subsonic filter. Some subsonic content is directly out of phase in each channel. If played back on a mono subwoofer system, the noise will cancel, significantly reducing the amount of rumble that is reproduced.
What is a limitation of low frequency recordings?
5727e92d2ca10214002d9952
limiting the playing time
286
False
What kinds of unwanted sounds are often heard at high frequencies?
5727e92d2ca10214002d9953
hiss, pops, and ticks
348
False
What is done during recordings to help reduce unwanted sounds?
5727e92d2ca10214002d9954
amplitude of low frequencies is reduced
483
False
What is a benefit of using equalization devices?
5727e92d2ca10214002d9955
problems can be reduced
393
False
What is done to high frequency  sounds to lessen sound issues?
5727e92d2ca10214002d9956
amplitude at high frequencies is increased
573
False
Due to recording mastering and manufacturing limitations, both high and low frequencies were removed from the first recorded signals by various formulae. With low frequencies, the stylus must swing a long way from side to side, requiring the groove to be wide, taking up more space and limiting the playing time of the record. At high frequencies, hiss, pops, and ticks are significant. These problems can be reduced by using equalization to an agreed standard. During recording the amplitude of low frequencies is reduced, thus reducing the groove width required, and the amplitude at high frequencies is increased. The playback equipment boosts bass and cuts treble so as to restore the tonal balance in the original signal; this also reduces the high frequency noise. Thus more music will fit on the record, and noise is reduced.
Whom found that they can make musical instruments sound more natural with an amplifier boost at the turnover point?
5727ea572ca10214002d999e
G. H. Miller
825
False
What is found when a complementary boost is used at the bass turnover point?
5727ea572ca10214002d999f
reproduction was more realistic
952
False
When frequency in the treble increases what happens to the recording amplitude?
5727ea572ca10214002d99a0
recording amplitude decreased
271
False
What happens when frequency decreases in the bass?
5727ea572ca10214002d99a1
recording amplitude increased
350
False
In 1926 Joseph P. Maxwell and Henry C. Harrison from Bell Telephone Laboratories disclosed that the recording pattern of the Western Electric "rubber line" magnetic disc cutter had a constant velocity characteristic. This meant that as frequency increased in the treble, recording amplitude decreased. Conversely, in the bass as frequency decreased, recording amplitude increased. Therefore, it was necessary to attenuate the bass frequencies below about 250 Hz, the bass turnover point, in the amplified microphone signal fed to the recording head. Otherwise, bass modulation became excessive and overcutting took place into the next record groove. When played back electrically with a magnetic pickup having a smooth response in the bass region, a complementary boost in amplitude at the bass turnover point was necessary. G. H. Miller in 1934 reported that when complementary boost at the turnover point was used in radio broadcasts of records, the reproduction was more realistic and many of the musical instruments stood out in their true form.
Whom found Wente-style condenser microphones helpful?
5727eb443acd2414000defe5
P. G. A. H. Voigt
23
False
How were Wente-Style condenser microphones helpful?
5727eb443acd2414000defe6
pre-emphasis in the recording
154
False
When was a pre-emphasis most useful?
5727eb443acd2414000defe7
above 1,000 Hz
604
False
On which recording types were pre-emphasis used most in the 1920s?
5727eb443acd2414000defe8
78 rpm and 33 1⁄3 rpm
622
False
In which Era was this finding most significant?
5727eb443acd2414000defe9
1925 era
345
False
West in 1930 and later P. G. A. H. Voigt (1940) showed that the early Wente-style condenser microphones contributed to a 4 to 6 dB midrange brilliance or pre-emphasis in the recording chain. This meant that the electrical recording characteristics of Western Electric licensees such as Columbia Records and Victor Talking Machine Company in the 1925 era had a higher amplitude in the midrange region. Brilliance such as this compensated for dullness in many early magnetic pickups having drooping midrange and treble response. As a result, this practice was the empirical beginning of using pre-emphasis above 1,000 Hz in 78 rpm and 33 1⁄3 rpm records.
What was the industry standard in Europe for record equalization?
5727ec41ff5b5019007d988e
there was no industry standard
70
False
In which country was the treble roll off greater?
5727ec41ff5b5019007d988f
US
282
False
Which country prefers a bass turnover setting of 250-300 Hz?
5727ec41ff5b5019007d9890
Europe
118
False
What was the industry standard on equalization practices?
5727ec41ff5b5019007d9891
there was no industry standard
70
False
Which country used the most varied equalization practices?
5727ec41ff5b5019007d9892
US
282
False
Over the years a variety of record equalization practices emerged and there was no industry standard. For example, in Europe recordings for years required playback with a bass turnover setting of 250–300 Hz and a treble roll-off at 10,000 Hz ranging from 0 to −5 dB or more. In the US there were more varied practices and a tendency to use higher bass turnover frequencies such as 500 Hz as well as a greater treble rolloff like −8.5 dB and even more to record generally higher modulation levels on the record.
How far back did records show the art of sound recordings?
5727ee154b864d190016403e
1925
346
False
How was standardization prior to 1942?
5727ee154b864d190016403f
considered a proprietary art
293
False
Around what time period was there an attempt made to standardize recordings?
5727ee154b864d1900164040
1942–1949
111
False
Evidence from the early technical literature concerning electrical recording suggests that it wasn't until the 1942–1949 period that there were serious efforts to standardize recording characteristics within an industry. Heretofore, electrical recording technology from company to company was considered a proprietary art all the way back to the 1925 Western Electric licensed method used by Columbia and Victor. For example, what Brunswick-Balke-Collender (Brunswick Corporation) did was different from the practices of Victor.
Who made the move to standardize recordings?
5727eef54b864d1900164056
National Association of Broadcasters
314
False
When were recording standards officially released?
5727eef54b864d1900164057
1949
502
False
Which recording types were effected by the imposed industry standards?
5727eef54b864d1900164058
laterally and vertically cut records, principally transcriptions.
511
False
What was one issue of a lack of industry standards?
5727eef54b864d1900164059
Broadcasters were faced with having to adapt daily to the varied recording
0
False
What is the NAB?
5727eef54b864d190016405a
National Association of Broadcasters
314
False
Broadcasters were faced with having to adapt daily to the varied recording characteristics of many sources: various makers of "home recordings" readily available to the public, European recordings, lateral-cut transcriptions, and vertical-cut transcriptions. Efforts were started in 1942 to standardize within the National Association of Broadcasters (NAB), later known as the National Association of Radio and Television Broadcasters (NARTB). The NAB, among other items, issued recording standards in 1949 for laterally and vertically cut records, principally transcriptions. A number of 78 rpm record producers as well as early LP makers also cut their records to the NAB/NARTB lateral standard.
What was a benefit to broadcasters of recording standards?
5727f18cff5b5019007d98fc
programming sounded more lifelike.
743
False
How did the NBC Othacoustic curve relate to the NAB curve?
5727f18cff5b5019007d98fd
remarkably similar
30
False
What bass settings were needed to eliminate hum?
5727f18cff5b5019007d98fe
below 100 Hz
261
False
What helped cause the most life like sound?
5727f18cff5b5019007d98ff
using a complementary inverse curve
663
False
The lateral cut NAB curve was remarkably similar to the NBC Orthacoustic curve that evolved from practices within the National Broadcasting Company since the mid-1930s. Empirically, and not by any formula, it was learned that the bass end of the audio spectrum below 100 Hz could be boosted somewhat to override system hum and turntable rumble noises. Likewise at the treble end beginning at 1,000 Hz, if audio frequencies were boosted by 16 dB at 10,000 Hz the delicate sibilant sounds of speech and high overtones of musical instruments could survive the noise level of cellulose acetate, lacquer/aluminum, and vinyl disc media. When the record was played back using a complementary inverse curve, signal-to-noise ratio was improved and the programming sounded more lifelike.
How far back could these recording practices be traced?
5727f310ff5b5019007d990a
1925
198
False
What were the recording standards based off from?
5727f310ff5b5019007d990b
long-held recording practices
241
False
What became the predecessor to the RIAA curve?
5727f310ff5b5019007d990c
New Orthophonic curve
16
False
Who developed the New Orthophonic curve?
5727f310ff5b5019007d990d
RCA Victor
86
False
Whom wrote the publication outlining the New Orthophonic curve?
5727f310ff5b5019007d990e
R.C. Moyer
72
False
Ultimately, the New Orthophonic curve was disclosed in a publication by R.C. Moyer of RCA Victor in 1953. He traced RCA Victor characteristics back to the Western Electric "rubber line" recorder in 1925 up to the early 1950s laying claim to long-held recording practices and reasons for major changes in the intervening years. The RCA Victor New Orthophonic curve was within the tolerances for the NAB/NARTB, Columbia LP, and AES curves. It eventually became the technical predecessor to the RIAA curve.
What was the quality of sound recordings made with horns at the end of the acoustic era?
5727f4704b864d19001640a0
many fine examples
600
False
What were issues facing play back and recording mechanics?
5727f4704b864d19001640a1
acoustic limitations
165
False
Why do photos show take on horns?
5727f4704b864d19001640a2
help mute these resonances
335
False
How would a record recorded with a horn sound played through modern equipment?
5727f4704b864d19001640a3
like it was recorded through a horn
442
False
What was the cause of delicate and fine sound loss?
5727f4704b864d19001640a4
took a lot of sound energy
64
False
Delicate sounds and fine overtones were mostly lost, because it took a lot of sound energy to vibrate the recording horn diaphragm and cutting mechanism. There were acoustic limitations due to mechanical resonances in both the recording and playback system. Some pictures of acoustic recording sessions show horns wrapped with tape to help mute these resonances. Even an acoustic recording played back electrically on modern equipment sounds like it was recorded through a horn, notwithstanding a reduction in distortion because of the modern playback. Toward the end of the acoustic era, there were many fine examples of recordings made with horns.
What technique offered realistic sounds during playback?
5727f56fff5b5019007d993e
Western Electric licensed recording method
609
False
At at time was radio gaining popularity?
5727f56fff5b5019007d993f
1925
90
False
What type of microphones were losing popularity in the 1920s?
5727f56fff5b5019007d9940
carbon microphones used,
378
False
What benefit did the use of the Wente style condenser microphone offer?
5727f56fff5b5019007d9941
brilliant midrange
658
False
What was a benefit of early radio recordings?
5727f56fff5b5019007d9942
microphones and amplifiers
115
False
Electric recording which developed during the time that early radio was becoming popular (1925) benefited from the microphones and amplifiers used in radio studios. The early electric recordings were reminiscent tonally of acoustic recordings, except there was more recorded bass and treble as well as delicate sounds and overtones cut on the records. This was in spite of some carbon microphones used, which had resonances that colored the recorded tone. The double button carbon microphone with stretched diaphragm was a marked improvement. Alternatively, the Wente style condenser microphone used with the Western Electric licensed recording method had a brilliant midrange and was prone to overloading from sibilants in speech, but generally it gave more accurate reproduction than carbon microphones.
What is one example of an acoustic phonograph on which one would listen to electric recordings?
5727f6c94b864d19001640bc
Victor Orthophonic phonograph
90
False
What allowed better sounds inside the cabinet of the orthoponic phonograph?
5727f6c94b864d19001640bd
folded horn with an exponential taper
338
False
What adjustments were made to the orthophonic  to accommodate electric recordings?
5727f6c94b864d19001640be
mechanical pickup head was redesigned with lower resonance than the traditional mica type
239
False
Was it common to hear electric recordings on phonographs?
5727f6c94b864d19001640bf
not unusual
7
False
How similar was the sound of a orthodontic  record to a radio?
5727f6c94b864d19001640c0
sounded like
507
False
It was not unusual for electric recordings to be played back on acoustic phonographs. The Victor Orthophonic phonograph was a prime example where such playback was expected. In the Orthophonic, which benefited from telephone research, the mechanical pickup head was redesigned with lower resonance than the traditional mica type. Also, a folded horn with an exponential taper was constructed inside the cabinet to provide better impedance matching to the air. As a result, playback of an Orthophonic record sounded like it was coming from a radio.
What are two examples of high quality microphones?
5727f7ee4b864d19001640c6
moving coil microphone was introduced around 1930 and the velocity or ribbon microphone
403
False
What was used to dampen resonances in recordings?
5727f7ee4b864d19001640c7
Magnetic pickups
179
False
When would you have first found the moving coil microphone?
5727f7ee4b864d19001640c8
around 1930
441
False
What was a more economical option to magnetic pickups?
5727f7ee4b864d19001640c9
Crystal pickups
323
False
In what years would you find electronic recordings played electronically?
5727f7ee4b864d19001640ca
1930s and 1940s
98
False
Eventually, when it was more common for electric recordings to be played back electrically in the 1930s and 1940s, the overall tone was much like listening to a radio of the era. Magnetic pickups became more common and were better designed as time went on, making it possible to improve the damping of spurious resonances. Crystal pickups were also introduced as lower cost alternatives. The dynamic or moving coil microphone was introduced around 1930 and the velocity or ribbon microphone in 1932. Both of these high quality microphones became widespread in motion picture, radio, recording, and public address applications.
What was a benefit of the use of magnetic pickup cartridge?
5727f8d7ff5b5019007d998e
high quality cuts
313
False
In what era could you find good quality recordings and playbacks at home?
5727f8d7ff5b5019007d998f
1940s
302
False
What was a unique feature of the Capeart radio phonographs?
5727f8d7ff5b5019007d9990
large diameter electrodynamic loudspeakers
422
False
How similar were live and recorded versions?
5727f8d7ff5b5019007d9991
harder to tell the difference
80
False
Over time, fidelity, dynamic and noise levels improved to the point that it was harder to tell the difference between a live performance in the studio and the recorded version. This was especially true after the invention of the variable reluctance magnetic pickup cartridge by General Electric in the 1940s when high quality cuts were played on well-designed audio systems. The Capehart radio/phonographs of the era with large diameter electrodynamic loudspeakers, though not ideal, demonstrated this quite well with "home recordings" readily available in the music stores for the public to buy.
When was the Western Electric System introduced?
5727f9a14b864d190016410c
early 1930s
98
False
What two companies worked together to develop the Western Electric System?
5727f9a14b864d190016410d
Bell Telephone Laboratories and Western Electric
110
False
What system was used by Warner Brothers?
5727f9a14b864d190016410e
Western Electric system
299
False
What speed was used in the Western Electric System?
5727f9a14b864d190016410f
33 1⁄3 rpm
414
False
What was the Western Electric System believed to do?
5727f9a14b864d1900164110
improve the overall quality
330
False
There were important quality advances in recordings specifically made for radio broadcast. In the early 1930s Bell Telephone Laboratories and Western Electric announced the total reinvention of disc recording: the Western Electric Wide Range System, "The New Voice of Action". The intent of the new Western Electric system was to improve the overall quality of disc recording and playback. The recording speed was 33 1⁄3 rpm, originally used in the Western Electric/ERPI movie audio disc system implemented in the early Warner Brothers' Vitaphone "talkies" of 1927.
What was a benefit of vertical groove cuts?
5727fb064b864d1900164134
longer playback time
537
False
What could be avoided by using vertical groove cuts?
5727fb064b864d1900164135
inner groove distortion
588
False
How was the moving coil microphone unique to the Wente type?
5727fb064b864d1900164136
didn't require electronics installed in the microphone housing
181
False
How was sound improved using the moving coil microphone?
5727fb064b864d1900164137
override noise in playback
326
False
How was wax used to improve recordings?
5727fb064b864d1900164138
avoiding the microscopic irregularities
759
False
The newly invented Western Electric moving coil or dynamic microphone was part of the Wide Range System. It had a flatter audio response than the old style Wente condenser type and didn't require electronics installed in the microphone housing. Signals fed to the cutting head were pre-emphasized in the treble region to help override noise in playback. Groove cuts in the vertical plane were employed rather than the usual lateral cuts. The chief advantage claimed was more grooves per inch that could be crowded together, resulting in longer playback time. Additionally, the problem of inner groove distortion, which plagued lateral cuts, could be avoided with the vertical cut system. Wax masters were made by flowing heated wax over a hot metal disc thus avoiding the microscopic irregularities of cast blocks of wax and the necessity of planing and polishing.
What were used to make vinyl pressings?
5727fbd42ca10214002d9aac
master cuts
45
False
What were the top licensees of the Western Electric system in the 1930s?
5727fbd42ca10214002d9aad
World Broadcasting System and Associated Music Publishers
415
False
Who was responsible for 2/3 of all recordings in the 1930s?
5727fbd42ca10214002d9aae
World Broadcasting System and Associated Music Publishers
415
False
How was gold spluttering used in vinyl creation?
5727fbd42ca10214002d9aaf
cuts that were electroplated in vacuo by means of gold sputtering
52
False
Vinyl pressings were made with stampers from master cuts that were electroplated in vacuo by means of gold sputtering. Audio response was claimed out to 8,000 Hz, later 13,000 Hz, using light weight pickups employing jeweled styli. Amplifiers and cutters both using negative feedback were employed thereby improving the range of frequencies cut and lowering distortion levels. Radio transcription producers such as World Broadcasting System and Associated Music Publishers (AMP) were the dominant licensees of the Western Electric wide range system and towards the end of the 1930s were responsible for two-thirds of the total radio transcription business. These recordings use a bass turnover of 300 Hz and a 10,000 Hz rolloff of −8.5 dB.
When was the business booming for do it yourself sound fanatics?
5727fc802ca10214002d9abe
1949
119
False
What kind of recordings worked best for pop music?
5727fc802ca10214002d9abf
45 rpm
463
False
What was used for longer recordings?
5727fc802ca10214002d9ac0
LP record
435
False
What opened doors for long recordings?
5727fc802ca10214002d9ac1
The complete technical disclosure of the Columbia LP by Peter C. Goldmark, Rene' Snepvangers and William S. Bachman
0
False
What aided in records sales in the 1950s?
5727fc802ca10214002d9ac2
Radio listeners heard recordings broadcast
546
False
The complete technical disclosure of the Columbia LP by Peter C. Goldmark, Rene' Snepvangers and William S. Bachman in 1949 made it possible for a great variety of record companies to get into the business of making long playing records. The business grew quickly and interest spread in high fidelity sound and the do-it-yourself market for pickups, turntables, amplifier kits, loudspeaker enclosure plans, and AM/FM radio tuners. The LP record for longer works, 45 rpm for pop music, and FM radio became high fidelity program sources in demand. Radio listeners heard recordings broadcast and this in turn generated more record sales. The industry flourished.
What is generally the lowest sound a human can hear?
5727fd484b864d1900164174
20 Hz
658
False
What is believed to better offer sounds of higher frequencies, compact discs or records?
5727fd484b864d1900164175
vinyl records
23
False
What is the higher end of typical human hearing?
5727fd484b864d1900164176
20,000 Hz
687
False
Does the hearing range of the human vary?
5727fd484b864d1900164177
The upper and lower frequency limits of human hearing vary per person
698
False
There is a theory that vinyl records can audibly represent higher frequencies than compact discs. According to Red Book specifications, the compact disc has a frequency response of 20 Hz up to 22,050 Hz, and most CD players measure flat within a fraction of a decibel from at least 20 Hz to 20 kHz at full output. Turntable rumble obscures the low-end limit of vinyl but the upper end can be, with some cartridges, reasonably flat within a few decibels to 30 kHz, with gentle roll-off. Carrier signals of Quad LPs popular in the 1970s were at 30 kHz to be out of the range of human hearing. The average human auditory system is sensitive to frequencies from 20 Hz to a maximum of around 20,000 Hz. The upper and lower frequency limits of human hearing vary per person.
Who would engrave the master disc of a vinyl record?
5727fdec4b864d1900164186
record cutter
381
False
What was used in first recordings of vinyl records?
5727fdec4b864d1900164187
soft wax
485
False
What was used in final recordings of vinyl records?
5727fdec4b864d1900164188
harder lacquer
507
False
After the 1950s  what was a typical recording process?
5727fdec4b864d1900164189
first recorded on audio tape, which could then be processed and/or edited, and then dubbed on to the master disc
265
False
Where were sound recordings originally made to?
5727fdec4b864d190016418a
master disc
99
False
For the first several decades of disc record manufacturing, sound was recorded directly on to the "master disc" at the recording studio. From about 1950 on (earlier for some large record companies, later for some small ones) it became usual to have the performance first recorded on audio tape, which could then be processed and/or edited, and then dubbed on to the master disc. A record cutter would engrave the grooves into the master disc. Early versions of these master discs were soft wax, and later a harder lacquer was used. The mastering process was originally something of an art as the operator had to manually allow for the changes in sound which affected how wide the space for the groove needed to be on each rotation.
Should alcohol be used to clean gramophone recordings?
5727fe954b864d19001641aa
alcohol should only be used on PVC or optical media
346
False
Is gramophone equipment readily available?
5727fe954b864d19001641ab
manufactured only in small quantities
499
False
What is the recommendation of gramophone recordings to preserve integrity?
5727fe954b864d19001641ac
transferring them onto other media
109
False
What is a drawback of gramophone use?
5727fe954b864d19001641ad
gradual degradation
44
False
How are gramophones best stored?
5727fe954b864d19001641ae
on edge
214
False
As the playing of gramophone records causes gradual degradation of the recording, they are best preserved by transferring them onto other media and playing the records as rarely as possible. They need to be stored on edge, and do best under environmental conditions that most humans would find comfortable. The medium needs to be kept clean, but alcohol should only be used on PVC or optical media, not on 78s.[citation needed] The equipment for playback of certain formats (e.g., 16 and 78 rpm) is manufactured only in small quantities, leading to increased difficulty in finding equipment to play the recordings.
Is it difficult to transfer recording from historic interest to newer technologies?
5727ff933acd2414000df1bd
Anyone can do this
447
False
What would offer the highest quality transfers of historic interest?
5727ff933acd2414000df1be
professional archivists
617
False
What would a hobbiest need to transfer historic recordings to digital formats?
5727ff933acd2414000df1bf
standard record player with a suitable pickup, a phono-preamp (pre-amplifier) and a typical personal computer
474
False
Is an original destroyed when transferred to digital format?
5727ff933acd2414000df1c0
without any further damage to the source recording
308
False
What is one benefit of transferring an older format to a newer format?
5727ff933acd2414000df1c1
manipulated to remove analog flaws
273
False
Where old disc recordings are considered to be of artistic or historic interest, from before the era of tape or where no tape master exists, archivists play back the disc on suitable equipment and record the result, typically onto a digital format, which can be copied and manipulated to remove analog flaws without any further damage to the source recording. For example, Nimbus Records uses a specially built horn record player to transfer 78s. Anyone can do this using a standard record player with a suitable pickup, a phono-preamp (pre-amplifier) and a typical personal computer. However, for accurate transfer, professional archivists carefully choose the correct stylus shape and diameter, tracking weight, equalisation curve and other playback parameters and use high-quality analogue-to-digital converters.
What was a major cause of declined vinyl sales?
572800793acd2414000df1e7
major label distributors restricted their return policies
385
False
Which allows for more profits, vinyl or compact discs?
572800793acd2414000df1e8
CDs, which were more profitable for the record companies
1235
False
When did vinyl record sales decline?
572800793acd2414000df1e9
between 1988 and 1991
353
False
When did compact disc popularity take hold?
572800793acd2414000df1ea
1988
226
False
When were groove recordings developed?
572800793acd2414000df1eb
final quarter of the 19th century,
41
False
Groove recordings, first designed in the final quarter of the 19th century, held a predominant position for nearly a century—withstanding competition from reel-to-reel tape, the 8-track cartridge, and the compact cassette. In 1988, the compact disc surpassed the gramophone record in unit sales. Vinyl records experienced a sudden decline in popularity between 1988 and 1991, when the major label distributors restricted their return policies, which retailers had been relying on to maintain and swap out stocks of relatively unpopular titles. First the distributors began charging retailers more for new product if they returned unsold vinyl, and then they stopped providing any credit at all for returns. Retailers, fearing they would be stuck with anything they ordered, only ordered proven, popular titles that they knew would sell, and devoted more shelf space to CDs and cassettes. Record companies also deleted many vinyl titles from production and distribution, further undermining the availability of the format and leading to the closure of pressing plants. This rapid decline in the availability of records accelerated the format's decline in popularity, and is seen by some as a deliberate ploy to make consumers switch to CDs, which were more profitable for the record companies.
Are records generally out of print as of date?
57280150ff5b5019007d9ac6
Vinyl records continue to be manufactured and sold today
102
False
Are albums ever reproduced?
57280150ff5b5019007d9ac7
Many popular new albums are given releases
441
False
What types of vinyl hold the most popularity?
57280150ff5b5019007d9ac8
Old records and out-of-print recordings
313
False
Does vinyl record maintain any popularity?
57280150ff5b5019007d9ac9
records still have enthusiastic supporters
58
False
In spite of their flaws, such as the lack of portability, records still have enthusiastic supporters. Vinyl records continue to be manufactured and sold today, especially by independent rock bands and labels, although record sales are considered to be a niche market composed of audiophiles, collectors, and DJs. Old records and out-of-print recordings in particular are in much demand by collectors the world over. (See Record collecting.) Many popular new albums are given releases on vinyl records and older albums are also given reissues, sometimes on audiophile-grade vinyl.
What is a reason a DJ would prefer vinyl to CD?
572802332ca10214002d9b50
direct manipulation
215
False
In what techniques would a DJ require a vinyl record?
572802332ca10214002d9b51
slip-cueing, beatmatching, and scratching
272
False
Are all turn tables capable of DJ manipulation of vinyl records?
572802332ca10214002d9b52
provided the stylus, record player, and record itself are built to withstand it
613
False
What is commonly preferred by DJs vinyl or CD?
572802332ca10214002d9b53
any electronic dance music and hip hop releases today are still preferred on vinyl
1
False
Had vinyl technology ceased expanding?
572802332ca10214002d9b54
However, many CDJ and DJ advances, such as DJ software and time-encoded vinyl, now have these capabilities and more.
694
False
Many electronic dance music and hip hop releases today are still preferred on vinyl; however, digital copies are still widely available. This is because for disc jockeys ("DJs"), vinyl has an advantage over the CD: direct manipulation of the medium. DJ techniques such as slip-cueing, beatmatching, and scratching originated on turntables. With CDs or compact audio cassettes one normally has only indirect manipulation options, e.g., the play, stop, and pause buttons. With a record one can place the stylus a few grooves farther in or out, accelerate or decelerate the turntable, or even reverse its direction, provided the stylus, record player, and record itself are built to withstand it. However, many CDJ and DJ advances, such as DJ software and time-encoded vinyl, now have these capabilities and more.
Whom set the most recent sales record of vinyl records since 1991?
572803754b864d1900164224
Jack White
15
False
What medium has seen the biggest fall in sales as of late?
572803754b864d1900164225
compact discs
490
False
What was unique to vinyl sales in 2014?
572803754b864d1900164226
was the only physical music medium with increasing sales with relation to the previous year
318
False
Who sold 34,000 vinyl records in 1994?
572803754b864d1900164227
Pearl Jam
214
False
Prior to 2014 when was the most recent large sale of vinyl records?
572803754b864d1900164228
1991
168
False
In 2014 artist Jack White sold 40,000 copies of his second solo release, Lazaretto, on vinyl. The sales of the record beat the largest sales in one week on vinyl since 1991. The sales record was previously held by Pearl Jam's, Vitalogy, which sold 34,000 copies in one week in 1994. In 2014, the sale of vinyl records was the only physical music medium with increasing sales with relation to the previous year. Sales of other mediums including individual digital tracks, digital albums and compact discs have fallen, the latter having the greatest drop-in-sales rate.
Turner_Classic_Movies
Warner Bros. pictures before what year are part of the Turner Entertainment library?
57277739dd62a815002e9d8c
1950
239
False
Up until what month and year of release are films from Metro-Goldwyn-Mayer part of the Turner Entertainment library?
57277739dd62a815002e9d8d
May 1986
301
False
What company owns TCM and Warner Bros.?
57277739dd62a815002e9d8e
Time Warner
398
False
What is Turner Classic Movies called in France?
57277739dd62a815002e9d8f
TCM Cinéma
669
False
What is the Spanish version of Turner Classic Movies?
57277739dd62a815002e9d90
TCM España
689
False
1950
239
Warner Bros. pictures before what year are part of the TCM?
5a82319f31013a001a3352af
True
May 1986
301
Up until what month and year of release are films from TCM part of the Turner Entertainment Library?
5a82319f31013a001a3352b0
True
TCM Cinéma
669
What is Turner Classic Movies called in Africa?
5a82319f31013a001a3352b1
True
Turner Classic Movies
560
What is a dedicated licensing channel?
5a82319f31013a001a3352b2
True
TCM
321
Who has licensing deals with libraries?
5a82319f31013a001a3352b3
True
Historically, the channel's programming consisted mainly of featured classic theatrically released feature films from the Turner Entertainment film library – which comprises films from Warner Bros. Pictures (covering films released before 1950) and Metro-Goldwyn-Mayer (covering films released before May 1986). However, TCM now has licensing deals with other Hollywood film studios as well as its Time Warner sister company, Warner Bros. (which now controls the Turner Entertainment library and its own later films), and occasionally shows more recent films. Turner Classic Movies is a dedicated film channel and is available in United States, United Kingdom, France (TCM Cinéma), Spain (TCM España), Nordic countries, Middle East and Africa.
How much did Ted Turner pay for Metro-Goldwyn Mayer?
572777c7dd62a815002e9dae
$1.5 billion
125
False
In what year did Ted Turner buy Metro-Goldwyn-Mayer?
572777c7dd62a815002e9daf
1986
3
False
Who did Ted Turner sell Metro-Goldwyn-Mayer to?
572777c7dd62a815002e9db0
Kirk Kerkorian
255
False
Who did Ted Turner buy Metro-Goldwyn-Mayer from?
572777c7dd62a815002e9db1
Kirk Kerkorian
255
False
Up to what date of release did Turner retain ownership of the MGM film library?
572777c7dd62a815002e9db2
May 9, 1986
440
False
$1.5 billion
125
How much did Ted Turner pay for UA?
5a82325a31013a001a3352c3
True
1986
3
In what year did Ted Turner buy UA?
5a82325a31013a001a3352c4
True
Kirk Kerkorian
255
Who did Ted Turner sell UA to?
5a82325a31013a001a3352c5
True
Kirk Kerkorian
255
Who did Ted Turner buy UA from?
5a82325a31013a001a3352c6
True
May 9, 1986
440
Up to what date of release did Kerkorian retain ownership of the MGM film library?
5a82325a31013a001a3352c7
True
In 1986, eight years before the launch of Turner Classic Movies, Ted Turner acquired the Metro-Goldwyn-Mayer film studio for $1.5 billion. Concerns over Turner Entertainment's corporate debt load resulted in Turner selling the studio that October back to Kirk Kerkorian, from whom Turner had purchased the studio less than a year before. As part of the deal, Turner Entertainment retained ownership of MGM's library of films released up to May 9, 1986. Turner Broadcasting System was split into two companies; Turner Broadcasting System and Metro-Goldwyn-Mayer and reincorporated as MGM/UA Communications Co.
On what network did Turner Entertainment's film library air prior to the creation of TCM?
57277a725951b619008f8add
TNT
281
False
What was a notable film that Turner colorized?
57277a725951b619008f8ade
The Maltese Falcon
353
False
Who did Turner ink a deal with to distribute Warner Bros. films from before 1950?
57277a725951b619008f8adf
MGM/UA
405
False
The MGM/UA-Turner deal concerned MGM films released prior to what date?
57277a725951b619008f8ae0
May 1986
471
False
TNT
281
On what network did Turner Entertainment's film library air prior to the creation of MGM/UA?
5a82338e31013a001a3352cd
True
The Maltese Falcon
353
What was a notable film that Warner Bros. colorized?
5a82338e31013a001a3352ce
True
MGM/UA
405
Who did Warner Bros. ink a deal with to distribute Warner Bros. films from before 1950?
5a82338e31013a001a3352cf
True
May 1986
471
The MGM/UA-Turner deal concerned TCM films released prior to what date?
5a82338e31013a001a3352d0
True
The film library of Turner Entertainment
0
What would serve as the base form of programming for MGM?
5a82338e31013a001a3352d1
True
The film library of Turner Entertainment would serve as the base form of programming for TCM upon the network's launch. Before the creation of Turner Classic Movies, films from Turner's library of movies aired on the Turner Broadcasting System's advertiser-supported cable network TNT – along with colorized versions of black-and-white classics such as The Maltese Falcon. After the library was acquired, MGM/UA signed a deal with Turner to continue distributing the pre-May 1986 MGM and to begin distributing the pre-1950 Warner Bros. film libraries for video release (the rest of the library went to Turner Home Entertainment).
How many subscribers had access to TCM upon it launch?
57277ad5f1498d1400e8f954
one million
62
False
When TCM premiered, what was AMC called?
57277ad5f1498d1400e8f955
American Movie Classics
191
False
What sorts of films did American Movie Classics primarily show?
57277ad5f1498d1400e8f956
released prior to 1970
310
False
By what year was AMC showing commercials?
57277ad5f1498d1400e8f957
2002
483
False
one million
62
How many subscribers had access to AMC upon its launch?
5a82378231013a001a3352eb
True
American Movie Classics
191
When TCM ended, what was AMC called?
5a82378231013a001a3352ec
True
released prior to 1970
310
What sorts of films did TCM primarily show?
5a82378231013a001a3352ed
True
2002
483
By what year was TCM showing commercials?
5a82378231013a001a3352ee
True
TCM
27
Who originally served as a free format to AMC?
5a82378231013a001a3352ef
True
At the time of its launch, TCM was available to approximately one million cable television subscribers. The network originally served as a competitor to AMC – which at the time was known as "American Movie Classics" and maintained a virtually identical format to TCM, as both networks largely focused on films released prior to 1970 and aired them in an uncut, uncolorized, and commercial-free format. AMC had broadened its film content to feature colorized and more recent films by 2002 and abandoned its commercial-free format, leaving TCM as the only movie-oriented cable channel to devote its programming entirely to classic films without commercial interruption.
With what company did Turner Broadcasting Systems merge in 1996?
57277ba9f1498d1400e8f95c
Time Warner
48
False
Along with Lorimar and National General Pictures, what library was included in the Warner Bros. library?
57277ba9f1498d1400e8f95d
Saul Zaentz
314
False
When did MGM give Warner Home Video the rights to MGM/UA's films on home video?
57277ba9f1498d1400e8f95e
March 1999
544
False
Time Warner
48
With what company did Turner Broadcasting Systems merge in 1999?
5a823a4831013a001a3352ff
True
Saul Zaentz
314
Along with Lorimar and National General Pictures, what library was included in the Time Warner library?
5a823a4831013a001a335300
True
March 1999
544
When did MGM give Warner Home Video the rights to Turner Broadcasting's films on home video?
5a823a4831013a001a335301
True
1996
3
When did Warner Home Video merge with Time Warner?
5a823a4831013a001a335302
True
Turner Broadcasting System merged with Time Warner
9
What placed Warner Bros. Entertainment and Warner Home Video under the same corporate umbrella?
5a823a4831013a001a335303
True
In 1996, Turner Broadcasting System merged with Time Warner, which besides placing Turner Classic Movies and Warner Bros. Entertainment under the same corporate umbrella, also gave TCM access to Warner Bros.' library of films released after 1949 (which itself includes other acquired entities such as the Lorimar, Saul Zaentz and National General Pictures libraries); incidentally, TCM had already been running select Warner Bros. film titles through a licensing agreement with the studio that was signed prior to the launch of the channel. In March 1999, MGM paid Warner Bros. and gave up the home video rights to the MGM/UA films owned by Turner to Warner Home Video.
In what year did TCM begin the Young Composers Film Competition?
57277c1fdd62a815002e9e58
2000
3
False
How often is the Young Composers Film Competition?
57277c1fdd62a815002e9e59
annual
25
False
What is the grand prize in the Young Composers Film Competition?
57277c1fdd62a815002e9e5a
score a restored, feature-length silent film
202
False
In what year was Laugh, Clown, Laugh released?
57277c1fdd62a815002e9e5b
1928
500
False
Who starred in The Temptress?
57277c1fdd62a815002e9e5c
Greta Garbo
532
False
2000
3
In what year did TCM end the Young Composers Film Competition?
5a823dc331013a001a335323
True
annual
25
How often is the TCM?
5a823dc331013a001a335324
True
score a restored, feature-length silent film
202
What is the grand prize in the TCM?
5a823dc331013a001a335325
True
1928
500
In what year was TCM realeased?
5a823dc331013a001a335326
True
Greta Garbo
532
Who starred in he Ace of Hearts?
5a823dc331013a001a335327
True
In 2000, TCM started the annual Young Composers Film Competition, inviting aspiring composers to participate in a judged competition that offers the winner of each year's competition the opportunity to score a restored, feature-length silent film as a grand prize, mentored by a well-known composer, with the new work subsequently premiering on the network. As of 2006, films that have been rescored include the 1921 Rudolph Valentino film Camille, two Lon Chaney films: 1921's The Ace of Hearts and 1928's Laugh, Clown, Laugh, and Greta Garbo's 1926 film The Temptress.
In what year did TCM receive a Peabody Award?
57277c71dd62a815002e9e62
2008
3
False
For what reason is a Peabody Award granted?
57277c71dd62a815002e9e63
excellence in broadcasting
37
False
When did the inaugural TCM Classic Film Festival take place?
57277c71dd62a815002e9e64
April 2010
68
False
In addition to the Grauman's Chinese Theater, where did the first TCM Classic Film Festival take place?
57277c71dd62a815002e9e65
Grauman's Egyptian Theater
216
False
Where is Grauman's Chinese Theater located?
57277c71dd62a815002e9e66
Hollywood
246
False
2008
3
In what year did TCM receive a film legacy?
5a823f0331013a001a33534b
True
excellence in broadcasting
37
For what reason is a film legacy granted?
5a823f0331013a001a33534c
True
April 2010
68
When did the inaugural TCM film legacy take place?
5a823f0331013a001a33534d
True
Grauman's Chinese Theater
182
In addition to the Grauman's Chinese Theater, where did the first film legacy take place?
5a823f0331013a001a33534e
True
Hollywood
246
Where is the film legacy located?
5a823f0331013a001a33534f
True
In 2008, TCM won a Peabody Award for excellence in broadcasting. In April 2010, Turner Classic Movies held the first TCM Classic Film Festival, an event – now held annually – at the Grauman's Chinese Theater and the Grauman's Egyptian Theater in Hollywood. Hosted by Robert Osborne, the four-day long annual festival celebrates Hollywood and its movies, and features celebrity appearances, special events, and screenings of around 50 classic movies including several newly restored by the Film Foundation, an organization devoted to preserving Hollywood's classic film legacy.
What were TCM Extras previously known as?
57277cf85951b619008f8b31
One Reel Wonders
710
False
When did short films from TCM begin to stream on TCM's website?
57277cf95951b619008f8b32
2007
732
False
Along with The Passing Parade, Crime Does Not Pay and Pete Smith Specialties, what short subjects feature on TCM?
57277cf95951b619008f8b33
Robert Benchley
649
False
Along with :45, :30 and :15 past the hour, at what time do TCM features begin?
57277cf95951b619008f8b34
top of the hour
931
False
One Reel Wonders
710
What were TCM products previously known as?
5a82491e31013a001a33539b
True
2007
732
When did short films from TCM begin to stream on Passing Parade's website?
5a82491e31013a001a33539c
True
Robert Benchley
649
What short subjects feature on primetime hours along with The Passing Parade, Crime Does Not Pay and Pete Smith Specialties?
5a82491e31013a001a33539d
True
top of the hour
931
Along with :35, :30, and :15 past the hour, at what time does Benchley begin?
5a82491e31013a001a33539e
True
features
470
What are filled with theatricallly released banner names?
5a82491e31013a001a33539f
True
Turner Classic Movies essentially operates as a commercial-free service, with the only advertisements on the network being shown between features – which advertise TCM products, network promotions for upcoming special programs and the original trailers for films that are scheduled to be broadcast on TCM (particularly those that will air during the primetime hours), and featurettes about classic film actors and actresses. In addition to this, extended breaks between features are filled with theatrically released movie trailers and classic short subjects – from series such as The Passing Parade, Crime Does Not Pay, Pete Smith Specialties, and Robert Benchley – under the banner name TCM Extras (formerly One Reel Wonders). In 2007, some of the short films featured on TCM were made available for streaming on TCM's website. Partly to allow these interstitials, Turner Classic Movies schedules its feature films either at the top of the hour or at :15, :30 or :45 minutes past the hour, instead of in timeslots of varying five-minute increments.
In what year did the Motion Picture Association of America introduce its rating system?
57277d935951b619008f8b43
1968
249
False
In what year did the Motion Picture Production Code cease?
57277d935951b619008f8b44
1968
249
False
What rating system is often used by TCM?
57277d935951b619008f8b45
TV Parental Guidelines
764
False
1968
249
In what year did TCM introduce its rating system?
5a824b3831013a001a3353af
True
1968
249
In what year did the TCM cease?
5a824b3831013a001a3353b0
True
TV Parental Guidelines
764
What rating system is often used by the Motion Picture Association of America?
5a824b3831013a001a3353b1
True
TCM
0
Whose content has remained mostly cut?
5a824b3831013a001a3353b2
True
those made from the 1960s onward
505
What bumpers were particularly formatted?
5a824b3831013a001a3353b3
True
TCM's film content has remained mostly uncut and uncolorized (with films natively filmed or post-produced in the format being those only ones presented in color), depending upon the original content of movies, particularly movies released after the 1968 implementation of the Motion Picture Association of America's ratings system and the concurrent disestablishment of the Motion Picture Production Code. Because of this, TCM is formatted similarly to a premium channel with certain films – particularly those made from the 1960s onward – sometimes featuring nudity, sexual content, violence and/or strong profanity; the network also features rating bumpers prior to the start of a program (most programs on TCM, especially films, are rated for content using the TV Parental Guidelines, in lieu of the MPAA's rating system).
What retrospective of the Oscars is shown yearly on TCM?
57277e145951b619008f8b49
31 Days of Oscar
173
False
When does TCM's programming season begin?
57277e145951b619008f8b4a
February
43
False
On its standard definition broadcast, what format does TCM use to preserve the original aspect ratio?
57277e145951b619008f8b4b
letterboxed
693
False
Along with Cary Grant, who is a notable actor whose career a viewer might follow on TCM?
57277e145951b619008f8b4c
Humphrey Bogart
395
False
31 Days of Oscar
173
What retrospective of the Oscars is shown yearly on letterbox?
5a824cb731013a001a3353c1
True
February
43
When does the letterbox's programming season begin?
5a824cb731013a001a3353c2
True
letterboxed
693
ON its standard definition broadcast, what format does Bogart use to preserve the original aspect ratio?
5a824cb731013a001a3353c3
True
Humphrey Bogart
395
Along with Cary Grant, who is a notable actor whose career a viewer might follow on Grant?
5a824cb731013a001a3353c4
True
March
72
When is a retrospective of Oscar-winning and Oscar-nominated actors shown?
5a824cb731013a001a3353c5
True
The network's programming season runs from February until the following March of each year when a retrospective of Oscar-winning and Oscar-nominated movies is shown, called 31 Days of Oscar. As a result of its devoted format to classic feature films, viewers that are interested in tracing the career development of actresses such as Barbara Stanwyck or Greta Garbo or actors like Cary Grant or Humphrey Bogart have the unique opportunity to see most of the films that were made during their careers, from beginning to end. Turner Classic Movies presents many of its features in their original aspect ratio (widescreen or full screen) whenever possible – widescreen films broadcast on TCM are letterboxed on the network's standard definition feed. TCM also regularly presents widescreen presentations of films not available in the format on any home video release.
Who owns the Selznick International Pictures library?
5727824e708984140094df93
Walt Disney Studios
329
False
Who is the owner of Columbia Pictures content?
5727824e708984140094df94
Sony Pictures Entertainment
465
False
How many films are present in the TCM library?
5727824e708984140094df95
thousands
68
False
Walt Disney Studios
329
Who owns the Seiznick International Pictures film?
5a824e8131013a001a3353cb
True
Sony Pictures Entertainment
465
Who is the owner of Janus Films?
5a824e8131013a001a3353cc
True
thousands
68
How many films are present in the Janus library?
5a824e8131013a001a3353cd
True
TCM's library of films
0
What spans several decades of agreements?
5a824e8131013a001a3353ce
True
TCM's library of films
0
What includes thousands of Janus Films?
5a824e8131013a001a3353cf
True
TCM's library of films spans several decades of cinema and includes thousands of film titles. Besides its deals to broadcast film releases from Metro-Goldwyn-Mayer and Warner Bros. Entertainment, Turner Classic Movies also maintains movie licensing rights agreements with Universal Studios, Paramount Pictures, 20th Century Fox, Walt Disney Studios (primarily film content from Walt Disney Pictures, as well as most of the Selznick International Pictures library), Sony Pictures Entertainment (primarily film content from Columbia Pictures), StudioCanal, and Janus Films.
Who owns the majority of pre-1950 Paramount sound releases?
572782aff1498d1400e8fa36
EMKA, Ltd./NBCUniversal Television Distribution
62
False
Who owns Paramount?
572782aff1498d1400e8fa37
Viacom
147
False
Who holds TV distribution rights to Paramount's post-1949 releases?
572782aff1498d1400e8fa38
Trifecta Entertainment & Media
239
False
Who owns Walt Disney Studios?
572782aff1498d1400e8fa39
The Walt Disney Company
511
False
Who manages the TV distribution of Walt Disney Studios?
572782aff1498d1400e8fa3a
Disney-ABC Domestic Television
590
False
EMKA, Ltd./NBCUniversal Television Distribution
62
Who owns the majority of 1950 Paramount sound releases?
5a82510831013a001a3353dd
True
Trifecta Entertainment & Media
239
Who holds TV distribution rights to Paramount's 1949 releases?
5a82510831013a001a3353de
True
The Walt Disney Company
511
Who owns Walt Disney Fox?
5a82510831013a001a3353df
True
Disney-ABC Domestic Television
590
Who manages the TV distribution of Walt Disney Fox?
5a82510831013a001a3353e0
True
Sony
306
What is Disney's film output owned by?
5a82510831013a001a3353e1
True
Most Paramount sound releases made prior to 1950 are owned by EMKA, Ltd./NBCUniversal Television Distribution, while Paramount (currently owned by Viacom) holds on to most of its post-1949 releases, which are distributed for television by Trifecta Entertainment & Media. Columbia's film output is owned by Sony (through Sony Pictures Television); distribution of 20th Century Fox's film library is handled for television by its 21st Century Fox subsidiary 20th Television, and the Walt Disney Studios (owned by The Walt Disney Company) has its library film output handled for television by Disney-ABC Domestic Television. Classic films released by 20th Century Fox, Paramount Pictures, Universal Studios, and Columbia Pictures are licensed individually for broadcast on Turner Classic Movies.
What is the time period covered by prime time and the early overnight?
5727862fdd62a815002e9f7e
8:00 p.m. to 2:30 a.m. Eastern Time
75
False
Who presents films on TCM on Wednesday nights?
5727862fdd62a815002e9f7f
Robert Osborne
144
False
What is Robert Osborne by profession?
5727862fdd62a815002e9f80
film historian
129
False
Why did Robert Osborne stop presenting films on TCM for several months?
5727862fdd62a815002e9f81
medical leave
237
False
Who presents Silent Sunday Nights?
5727862fdd62a815002e9f82
Ben Mankiewicz
428
False
Robert Osborne
144
Who presents films on Eastern on Wednesday nights?
5a8253d031013a001a335401
True
film historian
129
What is Eastern by profession?
5a8253d031013a001a335402
True
medical leave
237
Why did Robert Osbourne stop presenting films on Eastern for several months?
5a8253d031013a001a335403
True
Ben Mankiewicz
428
Who presents Silent Sunday Nights?
5a8253d031013a001a335404
True
July to December 2011
256
When was Ben Mankiewicz on medical leave?
5a8253d031013a001a335405
True
Most feature movies shown during the prime time and early overnight hours (8:00 p.m. to 2:30 a.m. Eastern Time) are presented by film historian Robert Osborne (who has been with the network since its 1994 launch, except for a five-month medical leave from July to December 2011, when guest hosts presented each night's films) on Sunday through Wednesday evenings – with Osborne only presenting primetime films on weekends – and Ben Mankiewicz presenting only late evening films on Thursdays, and the "Silent Sunday Nights" and "TCM Imports" blocks on Sundays.
On what day of the week are Star of the Month films aired?
57278768708984140094e009
Wednesdays
64
False
Who hosts the Star of the Month films?
57278768708984140094e00a
Robert Osbourne
227
False
During what month and year did TCM Guest Programmer feature TCM employees as guests?
57278768708984140094e00b
February 2011
1052
False
In what year did Spike Lee appear as a TCM Guest Programmer?
57278768708984140094e00c
2012
855
False
Wednesdays
64
On what day of the week are Star of the Year films aired?
5a8254cf31013a001a335419
True
Robert Osbourne
227
Who hosts the Star of the Year films?
5a8254cf31013a001a33541a
True
February 2011
1052
During what month and year did Lehrer Guest Programmer feature Lehrer employees as guests?
5a8254cf31013a001a33541b
True
2012
855
In what year did Spike Lee appear as a Lehrer Guest Programmer?
5a8254cf31013a001a33541c
True
8:00 p.m. Eastern Time
87
What time does "Stars of the Year" air?
5a8254cf31013a001a33541d
True
TCM regularly airs a "Star of the Month" throughout the year on Wednesdays starting at 8:00 p.m. Eastern Time, in which most, if not all, feature films from a classic film star are shown during that night's schedule. Hosted by Robert Osbourne, the network also marks the occurrence of a film actor's birthday (either antemortem or posthumously) or recent death with day- or evening-long festivals showcasting several of that artist's best, earliest or least-known pictures; by effect, marathons scheduled in honor of an actor's passing (which are scheduled within a month after their death) pre-empt films originally scheduled to air on that date. TCM also features a monthly program block called the "TCM Guest Programmer", in which Osborne is joined by celebrity guests responsible for choosing that evening's films (examples of such programmers during 2012 include Jules Feiffer, Anthony Bourdain, Debra Winger, Ellen Barkin, Spike Lee, Regis Philbin and Jim Lehrer); an offshoot of this block featuring Turner Classic Movies employees aired during February 2011.
When does 31 Days of Oscar occur?
572787c4f1498d1400e8fb0c
month preceding the Academy Awards
216
False
When does the Summer Under the Stars event take place?
572787c4f1498d1400e8fb0d
August
298
False
As of 2015, who hosted The Essentials along with Robert Osborne?
572787c4f1498d1400e8fb0e
Sally Field
476
False
On what day does The Essentials have its first airing each week?
572787c4f1498d1400e8fb0f
Saturday
544
False
On what day are repeats of The Essentials shown?
572787c4f1498d1400e8fb10
Sunday
594
False
month preceding the Academy Awards
216
When does 15 Days of Oscar occur?
5a82571531013a001a33542b
True
August
298
When does the Essentials Under the Stars event take place?
5a82571531013a001a33542c
True
Sally Field
476
As of 2015, who hosted 31 Days of Oscar along with Robert Osbourne?
5a82571531013a001a33542d
True
Saturday
544
On what day does 31 Days of Oscar have its first airing each week?
5a82571531013a001a33542e
True
Sunday
594
On what day are repeats of 31 Days of Oscar shown?
5a82571531013a001a33542f
True
Turner Classic Movies also airs regularly scheduled weekly film blocks, which are periodically preempted for special themed month-long or seasonal scheduling events, such as the "31 Days of Oscar" film series in the month preceding the Academy Awards and the month-long "Summer Under the Stars" in August; all featured programming has their own distinctive feature presentation bumper for the particular scheduled presentation. The Essentials, currently hosted by Osborne and Sally Field as of 2015[update], is a weekly film showcase airing on Saturday evenings (with a replay on the following Sunday at 6:00 p.m. Eastern Time), which spotlights a different movie and contains a special introduction and post-movie discussion.
What movie block shows silent films?
57278b2df1498d1400e8fb74
Silent Sunday Nights
89
False
What movie block shows foreign films?
57278b2df1498d1400e8fb75
TCM Imports
254
False
When did TCM Underground first appear?
57278b2df1498d1400e8fb76
October 2006
443
False
On what day is TCM Underground shown?
57278b2df1498d1400e8fb77
Friday
463
False
Who was the first host of TCM Underground?
57278b2df1498d1400e8fb78
Rob Zombie
568
False
Silent Sunday Nights
89
What movie block shows musicals?
5a825849e60761001a2eb1df
True
TCM Imports
254
What movie block shows foreign hosts?
5a825849e60761001a2eb1e0
True
October 2006
443
When did TCM Imports first appear?
5a825849e60761001a2eb1e1
True
Friday
463
On what day is TCM Imports shown?
5a825849e60761001a2eb1e2
True
Rob Zombie
568
Who was the first host of TCM Imports?
5a825849e60761001a2eb1e3
True
The channel also broadcasts two movie blocks during the late evening hours each Sunday: "Silent Sunday Nights", which features silent films from the United States and abroad, usually in the latest restored version and often with new musical scores; and "TCM Imports" (which previously ran on Saturdays until the early 2000s[specify]), a weekly presentation of films originally released in foreign countries. TCM Underground – which debuted in October 2006 – is a Friday late night block which focuses on cult films, the block was originally hosted by rocker/filmmaker Rob Zombie until December 2006 (though as of 2014[update], it is the only regular film presentation block on the channel that does not have a host).
In what month does the Summer Under the Stars event take place?
57278b76f1498d1400e8fb86
August
5
False
Who hosted Funday Night at the Movies?
57278b76f1498d1400e8fb87
Tom Kenny
376
False
What character was Tom Kenny best known for portraying?
57278b76f1498d1400e8fb88
SpongeBob SquarePants
414
False
In what year did Funday Night at the Movies first appear?
57278b76f1498d1400e8fb89
2007
296
False
August
5
In what month does the Funday Night at the Movies event take place?
5a825a45e60761001a2eb1f1
True
Tom Kenny
376
Who hosted Summer Under the Stars?
5a825a45e60761001a2eb1f2
True
SpongeBob SquarePants
414
What character was Smith known for portraying?
5a825a45e60761001a2eb1f3
True
2007
296
In what year did Summer Under the Stars first appear?
5a825a45e60761001a2eb1f4
True
Turner Classic Movies
13
Who suspends its regular schedule every night?
5a825a45e60761001a2eb1f5
True
Each August, Turner Classic Movies suspends its regular schedule for a special month of film marathons called "Summer Under the Stars", which features entire daily schedules devoted to the work of a particular actor, with movies and specials that pertain to the star of the day. In the summer of 2007, the channel debuted "Funday Night at the Movies", a block hosted by actor Tom Kenny (best known as the voice of SpongeBob SquarePants). This summer block featured classic feature films (such as The Wizard of Oz, Sounder, Bringing Up Baby, Singin' in the Rain, Mr. Smith Goes to Washington, The Adventures of Robin Hood and 20,000 Leagues Under the Sea) aimed at introducing these movies to new generations of children and their families.
What series replaced Funday Night at the Movies?
57278bc7708984140094e067
Essentials Jr.
54
False
Along with Chris O'Donnell, who was the original host of Essentials Jr.?
57278bc7708984140094e068
Abigail Breslin
161
False
Who hosted Essentials Jr. between 2009 and 2011?
57278bc7708984140094e069
John Lithgow
206
False
Who began to host Essentials Jr. in 2011?
57278bc7708984140094e06a
Bill Hader
250
False
In what year did Essentials Jr. replace Funday Night at the Movies?
57278bc7708984140094e06b
2008
45
False
Essentials Jr.
54
What series replaced Sherlock Jr. at the Movies?
5a825c52e60761001a2eb20b
True
Abigail Breslin
161
Who along with Chris O'Donnell was the original host of Sherlock Jr.?
5a825c52e60761001a2eb20c
True
John Lithgow
206
Who hosted Sherlock Jr. between 2009 and 2011?
5a825c52e60761001a2eb20d
True
Bill Hader
250
Who began to host Sherlock Jr. in 2011?
5a825c52e60761001a2eb20e
True
2008
45
In what year did Sherlock Jr. replace  Funday Night at the Movies?
5a825c52e60761001a2eb20f
True
"Funday Night at the Movies" was replaced in 2008 by "Essentials Jr.", a youth-oriented version of its weekly series The Essentials (originally hosted by actors Abigail Breslin and Chris O'Donnell, then by John Lithgow from 2009 to 2011, and then by Bill Hader starting with the 2011 season), which included such family-themed films as National Velvet, Captains Courageous and Yours, Mine and Ours, as well as more eclectic selections as Sherlock, Jr., The Music Box, Harvey, Mutiny on the Bounty and The Man Who Knew Too Much.
In what year did Screened Out appear?
57279273f1498d1400e8fc82
2007
766
False
What year saw the debut of Religion on Film?
57279273f1498d1400e8fc83
2005
849
False
What series premiered in 2011?
57279273f1498d1400e8fc84
AFI's Master Class: The Art of Collaboration
898
False
In what year did Arab Images on Film first appear?
57279273f1498d1400e8fc85
2011
642
False
What was the topic of Screened Out?
57279273f1498d1400e8fc86
history and depiction of homosexuality in film
715
False
2007
766
In what year did Screened Images appear?
5a825e80e60761001a2eb215
True
2005
849
What year saw the debut of Religion and Images?
5a825e80e60761001a2eb216
True
AFI's Master Class: The Art of Collaboration
898
What series premiered in 2012?
5a825e80e60761001a2eb217
True
2011
642
In what year did Arab Images off Film first appear?
5a825e80e60761001a2eb218
True
history and depiction of homosexuality in film
715
What was the topic of Black Images on Film?
5a825e80e60761001a2eb219
True
In addition to films, Turner Classic Movies also airs original content, mostly documentaries about classic movie personalities, the world of filmmaking and particularly notable films. An occasional month-long series, Race and Hollywood, showcases films by and about people of non-white races, featuring discussions of how these pictures influenced white people's image of said races, as well as how people of those races viewed themselves. Previous installments have included "Asian Images on Film" in 2008, "Native American Images on Film" in 2010, "Black Images on Film" in 2006 "Latino Images on Film" in 2009 and "Arab Images on Film" in 2011. The network aired the film series Screened Out (which explored the history and depiction of homosexuality in film) in 2007 and Religion on Film (focusing on the role of religion in cinematic works) in 2005. In 2011, TCM debuted a new series entitled AFI's Master Class: The Art of Collaboration.
In what month and year did TCM Remembers premiere?
572792f3f1498d1400e8fc8c
December 1994
3
False
Along with individual tributes, what form did TCM Remembers occur in?
572792f3f1498d1400e8fc8d
end-of-year compilation
318
False
In what month of the year does a longer version of TCM Remembers appear?
572792f3f1498d1400e8fc8e
December
553
False
In what year did Badly Drawn Boy provide a soundtrack for TCM Remembers?
572792f3f1498d1400e8fc8f
2007
974
False
Who provided the soundtrack for the longer TCM Remembers episode in 2009?
572792f3f1498d1400e8fc90
Steve Earle
983
False
December 1994
3
In what month and year did TCM Boy premiere?
5a826083e60761001a2eb21f
True
end-of-year compilation
318
Along with individual tributes, what form did Badly Drawn Boy occur in?
5a826083e60761001a2eb220
True
December
553
In what month of the year does a longer version of Badly Drawn Boy appear?
5a826083e60761001a2eb221
True
2007
974
In what year did Steve Earle provide a soundtrack for TCM Remembers?
5a826083e60761001a2eb222
True
Steve Earle
983
Who provided the soundtrack for the longer Badly Drawn Boy episode in 2009?
5a826083e60761001a2eb223
True
In December 1994, TCM debuted "TCM Remembers", a tribute to recently deceased notable film personalities (including actors, producers, composers, directors, writers and cinematographers) that occasionally airs during promotional breaks between films. The segments appear in two forms: individual tributes and a longer end-of-year compilation. Following the recent death of an especially famous classic film personality (usually an actor, producer, filmmaker or director), the segment will feature a montage of select shots of the deceased's work. Every December, a longer, more inclusive "TCM Remembers" interstitial is produced that honors all of the noted film personalities who died during the past year, interspersed with scenes from settings such as an abandoned drive-in (2012) or a theatre which is closing down and is being dismantled (2013). Since 2001, the soundtracks for these clipreels have been introspective melodies by indie artists such as Badly Drawn Boy (2007) or Steve Earle (2009).
Through what company is the TCM Vault Collection released?
57279345dd62a815002ea0e4
Warner Home Video
193
False
What do the TCM Vault Collection bonus discs feature in addition to documentaries?
57279345dd62a815002ea0e5
shorts
401
False
After the initial batch of TCM Vault Collection DVDs are printed, how are they made afterwards?
57279345dd62a815002ea0e6
on-demand
522
False
Warner Home Video
193
Through what company is the MOD released?
5a8262dde60761001a2eb229
True
shorts
401
What do the DVD Vault Collection bonus discs feature in addition to documentaries?
5a8262dde60761001a2eb22a
True
on-demand
522
How are the Initial batch of VHS Vault Collection DVDs made after the initial batch?
5a8262dde60761001a2eb22b
True
TCM Vault Collection
4
What consists of several VHS collections?
5a8262dde60761001a2eb22c
True
sets
342
What often includes bonus documentaries?
5a8262dde60761001a2eb22d
True
The TCM Vault Collection consists of several different DVD collections of rare classic films that have been licensed, remastered and released by Turner Classic Movies (through corporate sister Warner Home Video). These boxed set releases are of films by notable actors, directors or studios that were previously unreleased on DVD or VHS. The sets often include bonus discs including documentaries and shorts from the TCM library. The initial batch of DVDs are printed in limited quantities and subsequent batches are made-on-demand (MOD).
What month and year saw the introduction of the TCM Wineclub?
57279399708984140094e15f
October 2015
3
False
Who was TCM's partner in the TCM Wineclub?
57279399708984140094e160
Laithwaite
92
False
The winery of what notable director provided wines for TCM Wineclub?
57279399708984140094e161
Francis Ford Coppola
202
False
Who starred in True Grit?
57279399708984140094e162
John Wayne
468
False
How long do TCM Wineclub subscriptions last?
57279399708984140094e163
3 month
256
False
October 2015
3
What month and year saw the introduction of True Grit?
5a8263fae60761001a2eb233
True
Laithwaite
92
Who was TCM's partner in True Grit?
5a8263fae60761001a2eb234
True
Francis Ford Coppola
202
The winery of what notable director provided wines for True Grit?
5a8263fae60761001a2eb235
True
John Wayne
468
Who starred in TCM Wineclub?
5a8263fae60761001a2eb236
True
3 month
256
How long do True Grit subscriptions last?
5a8263fae60761001a2eb237
True
In October 2015, TCM announced the launch of the TCM Wineclub, in which they teamed up with Laithwaite to provide a line of mail-order wines from famous vineyards such as famed writer-director-producer Francis Ford Coppola's winery. Wines are available in 3 month subscriptions, and can be selected as reds, whites, or a mixture of both. From the wines chosen, TCM also includes recommended movies to watch with each, such as a "True Grit" wine, to be paired with the John Wayne film of the same name.
What Canadian cable provider first carried Turner Classic Movies?
572793f2dd62a815002ea0f2
Shaw Cable
115
False
In what year did Turner Classic Movies appear on Canadian cable television?
572793f2dd62a815002ea0f3
2005
164
False
In what year did Rogers Cable begin to include TCM?
572793f2dd62a815002ea0f4
2006
216
False
What is the name of the TCM spinoff channel operated in the UK?
572793f2dd62a815002ea0f5
TCM 2
753
False
In what month and year did Rogers Cable add TCM to its analog broadcasts?
572793f2dd62a815002ea0f6
February 2007
320
False
Shaw Cable
115
What Australian cable provider first carried Turner Classic Movies?
5a8264d7e60761001a2eb23d
True
2005
164
In what year did Turner Classic Movies appear on Australian cable television?
5a8264d7e60761001a2eb23e
True
2006
216
In what year did Australia begin to include TCM?
5a8264d7e60761001a2eb23f
True
TCM 2
753
What is the name of the TCM spinoff channel operated in South Africa?
5a8264d7e60761001a2eb240
True
February 2007
320
In what month and year did France add TCM to its analog broadcasts?
5a8264d7e60761001a2eb241
True
Turner Classic Movies is available in many other countries around the world. In Canada, TCM began to be carried on Shaw Cable and satellite provider Shaw Direct in 2005. Rogers Cable started offering TCM in December 2006 as a free preview for subscribers of its digital cable tier, and was added to its analogue tier in February 2007. While the schedule for the Canadian feed is generally the same as that of the U.S. network, some films are replaced for broadcast in Canada due to rights issues and other reasons. Other versions of TCM are available in Australia, France, Middle East, South Africa, Cyprus, Spain, Asia, Latin America, Scandinavia, the United Kingdom, Ireland and Malta. The UK version operates two channels, including a spinoff called TCM 2.
Hindu_philosophy
What was the origin of Hindu philosophy?
57277b03dd62a815002e9e0e
ancient India
102
False
How many main systems of Hindu philosophy are there?
57277b03dd62a815002e9e0f
six
158
False
What are the main orthodox systems of Hindu philosophy called?
57277b03dd62a815002e9e10
Astika
267
False
What is the accepted source of knowledge in the Astika system?
57277b03dd62a815002e9e11
Vedas
340
False
What are the non-orthodox Indian philosophies that do not accept Vedas called?
57277b03dd62a815002e9e12
nāstika
559
False
six
158
How many darsanas are there?
5a5e19bf5bc9f4001a75ae21
True
Vedas
340
What philosophy does Astika reject?
5a5e19bf5bc9f4001a75ae22
True
Vedas
525
Which philosophy do both nastika and Astika philosophies accept?
5a5e19bf5bc9f4001a75ae23
True
heterodox
568
What does Carvaka mean?
5a5e19bf5bc9f4001a75ae24
True
Hindu philosophy refers to a group of darśanas (philosophies, world views, teachings) that emerged in ancient India. The mainstream Hindu philosophy includes six systems (ṣaḍdarśana) – Samkhya, Yoga, Nyaya, Vaisheshika, Mimamsa and Vedanta. These are also called the Astika (orthodox) philosophical traditions and are those that accept the Vedas as authoritative, important source of knowledge.[note 1][note 2] Ancient and medieval India was also the source of philosophies that share philosophical concepts but rejected the Vedas, and these have been called nāstika (heterodox or non-orthodox) Indian philosophies. Nāstika Indian philosophies include Buddhism, Jainism, Cārvāka, Ājīvika, and others.
What have scholars argued about with regards to nastika and astika philosophies?
57277d93708984140094df09
relationship and differences
26
False
In what centuries the writings of scholars been used to debate the philosophies?
57277d93708984140094df0a
18th and 19th
179
False
What are Buddhism and Jainism regarded as in relation to religion and philosophy?
57277d93708984140094df0b
distinct
562
False
What are other schools regarded as within Hindu philosophy?
57277d93708984140094df0c
distinct schools
665
False
How available are the sources of knowledge on Indian philosophy?
57277d93708984140094df0d
limited
239
False
the 18th and 19th centuries
175
When were the astika and nastika philosophies written?
5a5e1d035bc9f4001a75ae33
True
Indologists and Orientalists
143
What are the two sibling traditions?
5a5e1d035bc9f4001a75ae34
True
history and concepts, same textual resources, similar ontological and soteriological focus, and cosmology
413
What differentiates the various sibling traditions?
5a5e1d035bc9f4001a75ae35
True
the relationship and differences
22
What do scholars agree on within the astika and nastika philosophies?
5a5e1d035bc9f4001a75ae36
True
Buddhism and Jainism
526
Which two named philosophies are considered to be the same?
5a5e1d035bc9f4001a75ae37
True
Scholars have debated the relationship and differences within āstika philosophies and with nāstika philosophies, starting with the writings of Indologists and Orientalists of the 18th and 19th centuries, which were themselves derived from limited availability of Indian literature and medieval doxographies. The various sibling traditions included in Hindu philosophies are diverse, and they are united by shared history and concepts, same textual resources, similar ontological and soteriological focus, and cosmology. While Buddhism and Jainism are considered distinct philosophies and religions, some heterodox traditions such as Cārvāka are often considered as distinct schools within Hindu philosophy.
How many orthodox philosophies are in Hindu?
572787165951b619008f8c5f
six
121
False
Which orthodox Hindu philosophy concerns realism?
572787165951b619008f8c60
Nyāya
175
False
What Hindu philosophy is about naturalism?
572787165951b619008f8c61
Vaiśeṣika
204
False
Which Hindu philosophy concerns dualism?
572787165951b619008f8c62
Sāṅkhya
234
False
What Hindu philosophy stresses self knowledge?
572787165951b619008f8c63
Advaita
306
False
six
121
How many subschools does Hindu philosophy have?
5a5e3ace5bc9f4001a75ae6f
True
Vaiśeṣika
204
Which school rejects naturalism?
5a5e3ace5bc9f4001a75ae70
True
theistic philosophies that integrate ideas from two or more of the six orthodox philosophies
54
What tradition is Buddhism rooted in?
5a5e3ace5bc9f4001a75ae71
True
Buddhist traditions
560
What are Tantric ideas founded in?
5a5e3ace5bc9f4001a75ae72
True
sub-schools
39
What is a combination of ideas from multiple heterodox philosophies called?
5a5e3ace5bc9f4001a75ae73
True
Hindu philosophy also includes several sub-schools of theistic philosophies that integrate ideas from two or more of the six orthodox philosophies, such as the realism of the Nyāya, the naturalism of the Vaiśeṣika, the dualism of the Sāṅkhya, the monism and knowledge of Self as essential to liberation of Advaita, the self-discipline of yoga and the asceticism and elements of theistic ideas. Examples of such schools include Pāśupata Śaiva, Śaiva siddhānta, Pratyabhijña, Raseśvara and Vaiṣṇava. Some sub-schools share Tantric ideas with those found in some Buddhist traditions. The ideas of these sub-schools are found in the Puranas and Āgamas.
What do ancient Hindu writings identify as the means to knowledge and truth?
5727889c5951b619008f8c97
pramāṇas
46
False
How many pramanas are there in Hindu philosophy?
5727889c5951b619008f8c98
six
42
False
What is the pramanas for perception?
5727889c5951b619008f8c99
pratyakṣa
106
False
What Hindu philosohy is concerned with inference?
5727889d5951b619008f8c9a
anumāṇa
130
False
Which pramanas is understanding of experts?
5727889d5951b619008f8c9b
śabda
300
False
perception
117
What does pramanas mean?
5a5e3c2c5bc9f4001a75ae79
True
how many of these six are valid paths of knowledge
522
What do the various schools agree on?
5a5e3c2c5bc9f4001a75ae7a
True
perception
639
What does Carvaka nastika mean?
5a5e3c2c5bc9f4001a75ae7b
True
Mīmāṃsā and Advaita
784
What school believes none of the pramanas are correct?
5a5e3c2c5bc9f4001a75ae7c
True
Cārvāka nāstika
591
Which school believes only postulation is a valid form of knowledge?
5a5e3c2c5bc9f4001a75ae7d
True
Ancient and medieval Hindu texts identify six pramāṇas as correct means of accurate knowledge and truths: pratyakṣa (perception), anumāṇa (inference), upamāṇa (comparison and analogy), arthāpatti (postulation, derivation from circumstances), anupalabdi (non-perception, negative/cognitive proof) and śabda (word, testimony of past or present reliable experts) Each of these are further categorized in terms of conditionality, completeness, confidence and possibility of error, by each school . The various schools vary on how many of these six are valid paths of knowledge. For example, the Cārvāka nāstika philosophy holds that only one (perception) is an epistemically reliable means of knowledge, the Samkhya school holds three are (perception, inference and testimony), while the Mīmāṃsā and Advaita schools hold all six are epistemically useful and reliable means to knowledge.
Which Hindu school stresses dualism between consciousness and matter?
57278a2af1498d1400e8fb50
Samkhya
0
False
How does Samkhya view the universe?
57278a2af1498d1400e8fb51
two realities
107
False
What is the Samkhya name for consciousness?
57278a2af1498d1400e8fb52
Puruṣa
122
False
What is the Samkhya school word for matter?
57278a2af1498d1400e8fb53
prakriti
149
False
What does the joining of Purusa and Prakriti produce?
57278a2af1498d1400e8fb54
buddhi
321
False
Samkhya
0
What school rejects dualism?
5a5e42ab5bc9f4001a75ae93
True
Jiva
168
What is the state of prakriti splitting from purusa?
5a5e42ab5bc9f4001a75ae94
True
that state in which puruṣa is bonded to prakriti
193
What did the emergence of buddhi create?
5a5e42ab5bc9f4001a75ae95
True
The universe
411
Who created the Purusa-Prakriti entities?
5a5e42ab5bc9f4001a75ae96
True
consciousness
130
What does Samkhya mean?
5a5e42ab5bc9f4001a75ae97
True
Samkhya school espouses dualism between consciousness and matter. It regards the universe as consisting of two realities; Puruṣa (consciousness) and prakriti (matter). Jiva (a living being) is that state in which puruṣa is bonded to prakriti in some form. This fusion, state the Samkhya scholars, led to the emergence of buddhi (awareness, intellect) and ahankara (individualized ego consciousness, “I-maker”). The universe is described by this school as one created by Purusa-Prakriti entities infused with various permutations and combinations of variously enumerated elements, senses, feelings, activity and mind.
How many types of Guna exist in Hindu philosophy?
57278c185951b619008f8d17
three
110
False
Which state of guna is that of compassion, positiveness, and goodness?
57278c185951b619008f8d18
Sattva
123
False
Which type of guna is concened with passion and activity?
57278c185951b619008f8d19
Rajas
199
False
What is the focus of the guna for negativeness and destruction?
57278c185951b619008f8d1a
Tamas
288
False
What is the interpretation of classical  of Samkhya?
57278c185951b619008f8d1b
atheist / non-theistic
772
False
three
110
How many types of Sattva are there?
5a5e43bf5bc9f4001a75ae9d
True
three gunas
450
What do all life forms have in equal proportion?
5a5e43bf5bc9f4001a75ae9e
True
denies the existence of Ishvara (God)
698
Why is Samkhya considered theistic?
5a5e43bf5bc9f4001a75ae9f
True
atheist / non-theistic
772
The fact that Samkhya denies the existence of a soul makes it what?
5a5e43bf5bc9f4001a75aea0
True
the character of someone or something
530
What does Ishvara determine in a person's life?
5a5e43bf5bc9f4001a75aea1
True
Samkhya philosophy includes a theory of gunas (qualities, innate tendencies, psyche). Guna, it states, are of three types: Sattva being good, compassionate, illuminating, positive, and constructive; Rajas guna is one of activity, chaotic, passion, impulsive, potentially good or bad; and Tamas being the quality of darkness, ignorance, destructive, lethargic, negative. Everything, all life forms and human beings, state Samkhya scholars, have these three gunas, but in different proportions. The interplay of these gunas defines the character of someone or something, of nature and determines the progress of life. Samkhya theorises a pluralism of souls (Jeevatmas) who possess consciousness, but denies the existence of Ishvara (God). Classical Samkhya is considered an atheist / non-theistic Hindu philosophy.
Of what is yoga a part  in Indian philosophy?
57278de35951b619008f8d61
philosophical schools
84
False
To what school of Hindu philosophy is yoga aligned?
57278de35951b619008f8d62
Samkhya
184
False
What concept does yoga accept the differentiates it from Samkhya?
57278de35951b619008f8d63
personal god
326
False
How many of the six pramanas does yoga accept?
57278de35951b619008f8d64
three
429
False
Unlike other schools of Samkhya, what attitude makes yoga different?
57278de35951b619008f8d65
theistic
282
False
Samkhya
184
What philosophy is Yoga antithetical to?
5a5e44e15bc9f4001a75aea7
True
the concept of "personal god"
310
What does Samkhya accept that yoga does not?
5a5e44e15bc9f4001a75aea8
True
the Samkhya psychology and metaphysics
224
Which parts of Samkhya does Yoga reject?
5a5e44e15bc9f4001a75aea9
True
pratyakṣa
495
Which pramana does Yoga reject?
5a5e44e15bc9f4001a75aeaa
True
personal god
326
What does Yoga mean?
5a5e44e15bc9f4001a75aeab
True
In Indian philosophy, Yoga is among other things, the name of one of the six āstika philosophical schools. The Yoga philosophical system is closely allied with the dualism premises of Samkhya school. The Yoga school accepts the Samkhya psychology and metaphysics, but is considered theistic because it accepts the concept of "personal god", unlike Samkhya. The epistemology of the Yoga school, like the Sāmkhya school, relies on three of six prāmaṇas as the means of gaining reliable knowledge: pratyakṣa (perception), anumāṇa (inference) and śabda (āptavacana, word/testimony of reliable sources).
What principle does yoga use from Samkhya?
57278fba5951b619008f8d8d
jñāna
57
False
What is the meaning of jnana?
57278fba5951b619008f8d8e
knowledge
64
False
To what does yoga say personal experimentation and knowledge lead?
57278fba5951b619008f8d8f
moksha
244
False
To what school does yoga share central ideas?
57278fba5951b619008f8d90
Advaita Vedanta
291
False
What state in life does yoga believe is achievable?
57278fba5951b619008f8d91
liberation/freedom
501
False
knowledge
64
What is moksha?
5a5e45695bc9f4001a75aeb1
True
experimental mysticism
351
What central idea do Yoga and Advaita Vendata share?
5a5e45695bc9f4001a75aeb2
True
liberation/freedom in this life
501
What does Yoga state is unachievable?
5a5e45695bc9f4001a75aeb3
True
soul, self
640
What is Brahaman?
5a5e45695bc9f4001a75aeb4
True
Advaita Vedanta
291
What school is Yoga most dissimilar to?
5a5e45695bc9f4001a75aeb5
True
The Yoga school builds on the Samkhya school theory that jñāna (knowledge) is a sufficient means to moksha. It suggests that systematic techniques/practice (personal experimentation) combined with Samkhya's approach to knowledge is the path to moksha. Yoga shares several central ideas with Advaita Vedanta, with the difference that Yoga is a form of experimental mysticism while Advaita Vedanta is a form of monistic personalism. Like Advaita Vedanta, the Yoga school of Hindu philosophy states that liberation/freedom in this life is achievable, and this occurs when an individual fully understands and realizes the equivalence of Atman (soul, self) and Brahman.
What philosophy is a naturalist school?
57279185f1498d1400e8fc5c
Vaiśeṣika
4
False
What is the definition of paramanu in Hindu philosophy?
57279185f1498d1400e8fc5d
atoms
179
False
By understanding what does Vaisesika school believe one gains knowledge and liberation?
57279185f1498d1400e8fc5e
world of experience
454
False
Who is credited with the Vaisesika darsana?
57279185f1498d1400e8fc5f
Kaṇāda Kaśyapa
544
False
When was the Vaisesika darsana  produced?
57279185f1498d1400e8fc60
first millennium BCE
587
False
Vaiśeṣika
4
What theory postulates that objects cannot be reduced?
5a5e497a5bc9f4001a75aebb
True
atoms
179
What does Vaisesika mean?
5a5e497a5bc9f4001a75aebc
True
Kaṇāda Kaśyapa
544
Who coined the term paramanu?
5a5e497a5bc9f4001a75aebd
True
complete understanding of the world of experience
424
What does Vaisesika say prevents knowledge and liberation?
5a5e497a5bc9f4001a75aebe
True
Kaṇāda Kaśyapa
544
Who discredited the idea of Vaisesika?
5a5e497a5bc9f4001a75aebf
True
The Vaiśeṣika philosophy is a naturalist school; it is a form of atomism in natural philosophy. It postulated that all objects in the physical universe are reducible to paramāṇu (atoms), and one's experiences are derived from the interplay of substance (a function of atoms, their number and their spatial arrangements), quality, activity, commonness, particularity and inherence. Knowledge and liberation was achievable by complete understanding of the world of experience, according to Vaiśeṣika school . The Vaiśeṣika darśana is credited to Kaṇāda Kaśyapa from the second half of the first millennium BCE. The foundational text, the Vaiśeṣika Sūtra, opens as follows,
According to Vaisesika philosophy, how many substances comprise reality?
57279345f1498d1400e8fca0
four
98
False
What are the substances of Vaisesika reality?
57279345f1498d1400e8fca1
earth, water, air, fire
115
False
Of what does Vaisesika philosophy say the things are made ?
57279345f1498d1400e8fca2
atoms
450
False
According to Vaisesika what is divisible into atoms?
57279345f1498d1400e8fca3
composite
369
False
What form are atoms in Vaisesika?
57279345f1498d1400e8fca4
invisible
518
False
four
98
How many realities are there?
5a5e50095bc9f4001a75aec5
True
An atom
211
What does Vaisesika teach is able to be destroyed?
5a5e50095bc9f4001a75aec6
True
Whatever human beings perceive
457
What is not a function of atoms?
5a5e50095bc9f4001a75aec7
True
aṇu
361
What is the name of a substance's special dimension?
5a5e50095bc9f4001a75aec8
True
composite
200
What are atoms divided into?
5a5e50095bc9f4001a75aec9
True
Vaiśeṣika metaphysical premises are founded on a form of atomism, that the reality is composed of four substances (earth, water, air, fire). Each of these four are of two types: atomic (paramāṇu) and composite. An atom is, according to Vaiśeṣika scholars, that which is indestructible (anitya), indivisible, and has a special kind of dimension, called “small” (aṇu). A composite, in this philosophy, is defined to be anything which is divisible into atoms. Whatever human beings perceive is composite, while atoms are invisible. The Vaiśeṣikas stated that size, form, truths and everything that human beings experience as a whole is a function of atoms, their number and their spatial arrangements, their guṇa (quality), karma (activity), sāmānya (commonness), viśeṣa (particularity) and amavāya (inherence, inseparable connectedness of everything).
What school of thought is closest to Vaisesika school?
572794d6f1498d1400e8fcbc
Nyāya
20
False
What does Nyaya say causes human suffering?
572794d6f1498d1400e8fcbd
mistakes/defects
123
False
What state is achieved through knowledge?
572794d6f1498d1400e8fcbe
Moksha
208
False
What is moksha in Hindu philosophy?
572794d6f1498d1400e8fcbf
liberation
216
False
Besides ignorance, what does false knowledge include in Nyaya?
572794d6f1498d1400e8fcc0
delusion
484
False
Vaiśeṣika
50
What school is Nyaya most dissimilar to?
5a5e50f45bc9f4001a75aed7
True
epistemology
321
What is Nyaya uninterested in?
5a5e50f45bc9f4001a75aed8
True
Naiyayikas
460
What are practitioners of Vaisesika called?
5a5e50f45bc9f4001a75aed9
True
False knowledge
417
What is merely ignorance in Nyaya?
5a5e50f45bc9f4001a75aeda
True
Moksha
208
What philosophy produces human suffering?
5a5e50f45bc9f4001a75aedb
True
In its metaphysics, Nyāya school is closer to the Vaiśeṣika school than others. It holds that human suffering results from mistakes/defects produced by activity under wrong knowledge (notions and ignorance). Moksha (liberation), it states, is gained through right knowledge. This premise led Nyāya to concern itself with epistemology, that is the reliable means to gain correct knowledge and to remove wrong notions. False knowledge is not merely ignorance to Naiyayikas, it includes delusion. Correct knowledge is discovering and overcoming one's delusions, and understanding true nature of soul, self and reality. The Nyāya Sūtras begin:
How many ways does the Mimamsa separate into subschools?
57279c2edd62a815002ea1ee
several
23
False
How many ways does the Prabhakara subschool of Mimamsa say there are to gain knowledge?
57279c2edd62a815002ea1ef
five
114
False
How is pratyaksa defined in the Prabhakara subschool?
57279c2edd62a815002ea1f0
perception
181
False
What is the word for inference in the Prabhakara subschool?
57279c2edd62a815002ea1f1
anumāṇa
194
False
What is comparison and analogy in the Prabhakara school?
57279c2edd62a815002ea1f2
upamāṇa
215
False
Mīmāṃsā
4
Which school has no subschools?
5a5e51b25bc9f4001a75aee1
True
anupalabdi
465
What means did the Kumarila Bhatta remove from its canon?
5a5e51b25bc9f4001a75aee2
True
Prābhākara
71
What subschool only uses four reliable means?
5a5e51b25bc9f4001a75aee3
True
anupalabdi
465
What does Mimamsa mean?
5a5e51b25bc9f4001a75aee4
True
several
23
How many Mimamsa subschools are not defined by epistemology?
5a5e51b25bc9f4001a75aee5
True
The Mīmāṃsā school has several subschools defined by epistemology. The Prābhākara subschool of Mīmāṃsā considered five epistemically reliable means to gaining knowledge: pratyakṣa (perception), anumāṇa (inference), upamāṇa (comparison and analogy), arthāpatti (postulation, derivation from circumstances), and śabda (word, testimony of past or present reliable experts). The Kumārila Bhaṭṭa sub-school of Mīmāṃsā added sixth to its canon of reliable epistemology - anupalabdi (non-perception, negative/cognitive proof).
What type of doctrines are contained in the Mimamsa  school?
5727a2bbff5b5019007d9176
atheistic and theistic
51
False
How did the Mimamsa school view the soul?
5727a2bbff5b5019007d9177
eternal
206
False
What was the focus of the Mimamsa school of philosophy?
5727a2bbff5b5019007d9178
dharma
317
False
How did the Mimamsa school consider dharma?
5727a2bbff5b5019007d9179
rituals and duties
347
False
What school disagreed with the principles of the Mimamsa school?
5727a2bbff5b5019007d917a
Vedanta school
779
False
both atheistic and theistic
46
What type of doctrine does Mimamsa not have?
5a5e529b5bc9f4001a75aef3
True
Mīmāṃsā
19
What school focuses on the existence of God?
5a5e529b5bc9f4001a75aef4
True
dharma
317
Mimamsa rejected the epistemology and metaphysics of what?
5a5e529b5bc9f4001a75aef5
True
Vedanta
779
What school agreed with the Mimamsa's understanding of Upanishads?
5a5e529b5bc9f4001a75aef6
True
Upanishads
654
What did Mimamsakas consider as of equal importance as the rituals?
5a5e529b5bc9f4001a75aef7
True
The metaphysics in Mīmāṃsā school consists of both atheistic and theistic doctrines and the school showed little interest in systematic examination of the existence of God. Rather, it held that the soul is eternal omnipresent, inherently active spiritual essence, then focussed on the epistemology and metaphysics of dharma. To them, dharma meant rituals and duties, not devas (gods), because devas existed only in name. The Mīmāṃsākas held that the Vedas are "eternal authorless infallible", that Vedic vidhi (injunctions) and mantras in rituals are prescriptive karya (actions), and the rituals are of primary importance and merit. They considered the Upanishads and other self-knowledge, spirituality-related texts to be of secondary importance, a philosophical view that the Vedanta school disagreed with.
To what study did Mimamsa give rise?
5727ac723acd2414000de949
philology
34
False
What did the Mimamsa school think that language was meant to describe?
5727ac723acd2414000de94a
proper, correct and right
280
False
What school thought that language was supposed to be widened to describe and develop?
5727ac723acd2414000de94b
Vedantins
320
False
What parts of the Vedas did the Mimamsa school emphasize?
5727ac723acd2414000de94c
early parts
829
False
What sections of the Vedas did the Verdanta school favor?
5727ac723acd2414000de94d
latter parts
986
False
the study of philology and the philosophy of language
21
What study did Mimamsa thwart?
5a5e596a5bc9f4001a75af13
True
their views
156
What did Mimamsakas and Vedantins agree on?
5a5e596a5bc9f4001a75af14
True
divine (theistic) sustenance
546
What did Mimamsakas believe was the purpose of an orderly life?
5a5e596a5bc9f4001a75af15
True
the Vedanta school
649
What school was foundational to the Mimamsa school?
5a5e596a5bc9f4001a75af16
True
the early parts
825
Which part of the Vedas did both the Vedanta and the Mimamsa schools emphasize?
5a5e596a5bc9f4001a75af17
True
Mīmāṃsā gave rise to the study of philology and the philosophy of language. While their deep analysis of language and linguistics influenced other schools, their views were not shared by others. Mīmāṃsākas considered the purpose and power of language was to clearly prescribe the proper, correct and right. In contrast, Vedantins extended the scope and value of language as a tool to also describe, develop and derive. Mīmāṃsākas considered orderly, law-driven, procedural life as central purpose and noblest necessity of dharma and society, and divine (theistic) sustenance means to that end. The Mimamsa school was influential and foundational to the Vedanta school, with the difference that Mīmāṃsā school developed and emphasized karmakāṇḍa (that part of the śruti which relates to ceremonial acts and sacrificial rites, the early parts of the Vedas), while the Vedanta school developed and emphasized jñānakāṇḍa (that portion of the Vedas which relates to knowledge of monism, the latter parts of the Vedas).
On which sutras did the Vedanta school focus?
5727ae3e2ca10214002d9380
Upanishads and Brahma
51
False
In what time did the Vedanta school become active?
5727ae3e2ca10214002d9381
first millennium BCE
89
False
Which is the most developed and well known of the Hindu schools?
5727ae3e2ca10214002d9382
Vedānta
4
False
How many ways did the Vedantins have of gaining knowledge?
5727ae3e2ca10214002d9383
five or six methods
246
False
On what was dependent for the choice of methods in gaining knowledge?
5727ae3e2ca10214002d9384
sub-school
234
False
The Vedānta school
0
What is the least developed Hindu school?
5a5e5a285bc9f4001a75af1d
True
Upanishads and Brahma
51
Which sutras did the Vedanta reject?
5a5e5a285bc9f4001a75af1e
True
the first millennium BCE
85
When did the Vedanta school end?
5a5e5a285bc9f4001a75af1f
True
śabda
523
Which method of gaining knowledge is not included in the Vedanta school?
5a5e5a285bc9f4001a75af20
True
further categorized
608
What are sub-schools not allowed to do with the epistemologies?
5a5e5a285bc9f4001a75af21
True
The Vedānta school built upon the teachings of the Upanishads and Brahma Sutras from the first millennium BCE and is the most developed and well-known of the Hindu schools. The epistemology of the Vedantins included, depending on the sub-school, five or six methods as proper and reliable means of gaining any form of knowledge: pratyakṣa (perception), anumāṇa (inference), upamāṇa (comparison and analogy), arthāpatti (postulation, derivation from circumstances), anupalabdi (non-perception, negative/cognitive proof) and śabda (word, testimony of past or present reliable experts). Each of these have been further categorized in terms of conditionality, completeness, confidence and possibility of error, by each sub-school of Vedanta.
What did the Vedanta school represent in Hindu philosophy?
5727b049ff5b5019007d929e
knowledge-centered understanding
65
False
On what aspects of Vedic did the Vedanta understanding focus?
5727b049ff5b5019007d929f
jnana
133
False
On what did the Vedanta school lessen focus?
5727b049ff5b5019007d92a0
ritualism
369
False
Due to differences in text interpretations,into  what did the Vedanta school separate?
5727b049ff5b5019007d92a1
many sub-schools
509
False
What metaphysical concepts were included in the Vedanta school?
5727b049ff5b5019007d92a2
ātman and Brahman
252
False
The emergence of Vedanta school
0
What represented the lack of knowledge-centered study?
5a5e5ad15bc9f4001a75af27
True
jnana
133
Which Vedic did Vedanta ignore?
5a5e5ad15bc9f4001a75af28
True
knowledge
140
What does Vedic mean?
5a5e5ad15bc9f4001a75af29
True
ancient and medieval era
425
During what era did knowledge-centered understanding emerge?
5a5e5ad15bc9f4001a75af2a
True
the Vedic religion
169
Who created the concepts of atman and Brahman?
5a5e5ad15bc9f4001a75af2b
True
The emergence of Vedanta school represented a period when a more knowledge-centered understanding began to emerge. These focussed on jnana (knowledge) driven aspects of the Vedic religion and the Upanishads. This included metaphysical concepts such as ātman and Brahman, and emphasized meditation, self-discipline, self-knowledge and abstract spirituality, rather than ritualism. The Upanishads were variously interpreted by ancient and medieval era Vedanta scholars. Consequently, the Vedanta separated into many sub-schools, ranging from theistic dualism to non-theistic monism, each interpreting the texts in its own way and producing its own series of sub-commentaries.
What means
5727b1c13acd2414000de9eb
Advaita
0
False
Advaita
0
What means two?
5a5e5b755bc9f4001a75af39
True
Advaita
0
What is the youngest Vedantic School?
5a5e5b755bc9f4001a75af3a
True
Adi Shankara
466
Who coined the term Advaita?
5a5e5b755bc9f4001a75af3b
True
Adi Shankara
466
Who was Gaudapada's teacher?
5a5e5b755bc9f4001a75af3c
True
Gaudapada
577
What is the name of the author of the Vedantic scriptures?
5a5e5b755bc9f4001a75af3d
True
Advaita literally means "not two, sole, unity". It is a sub-school of Vedanta, and asserts spiritual and universal non-dualism. Its metaphysics is a form of absolute monism, that is all ultimate reality is interconnected oneness. This is the oldest and most widely acknowledged Vedantic school. The foundational texts of this school are the Brahma Sutras and the early Upanishads from the 1st millennium BCE. Its first great consolidator was the 8th century scholar Adi Shankara, who continued the line of thought of the Upanishadic teachers, and that of his teacher's teacher Gaudapada. He wrote extensive commentaries on the major Vedantic scriptures and is celebrated as one of the major Hindu philosophers from whose doctrines the main currents of modern Indian thought are derived.
According to a school of Vedanta, what is all reality?
5727b4653acd2414000dea33
Brahman
52
False
What concepts of metaphysics are included in Vedanta?
5727b4653acd2414000dea34
māyā and ātman
159
False
How is the reality of maya viewed in Vedanta?
5727b4653acd2414000dea35
always changing
308
False
To what does the concept of atman refer?
5727b4653acd2414000dea36
soul
433
False
To what do Advaita Vedantins view atman as the same?
5727b4653acd2414000dea37
Brahman
530
False
Māyā
175
Which metaphysic concept is never changing?
5a5e5c895bc9f4001a75af4d
True
Brahman
548
What is not within human beings?
5a5e5c895bc9f4001a75af4e
True
Jīvanmukti
845
What is the opposite of Brahman?
5a5e5c895bc9f4001a75af4f
True
ātman is same as Brahman
513
What do non-Advaita Vedantins say about atman and Brahman?
5a5e5c895bc9f4001a75af50
True
The empirical reality
269
What is unchanging and what it appears to be?
5a5e5c895bc9f4001a75af51
True
According to this school of Vedanta, all reality is Brahman, and there exists nothing whatsoever which is not Brahman. Its metaphysics includes the concept of māyā and ātman. Māyā connotes "that which exists, but is constantly changing and thus is spiritually unreal". The empirical reality is considered as always changing and therefore "transitory, incomplete, misleading and not what it appears to be". The concept of ātman is of soul, self within each person, each living being. Advaita Vedantins assert that ātman is same as Brahman, and this Brahman is within each human being and all life, all living beings are spiritually interconnected, and there is oneness in all of existence. They hold that dualities and misunderstanding of māyā as the spiritual reality that matters is caused by ignorance, and are the cause of sorrow, suffering. Jīvanmukti (liberation during life) can be achieved through Self-knowledge, the understanding that ātman within is same as ātman in another person and all of Brahman – the eternal, unchanging, entirety of cosmic principles and true reality.
What is the philosophy of dualism?
5727b61fff5b5019007d9320
Viśiṣṭādvaita
72
False
Who was the leader in pushing the philosophy of Visistadvaita?
5727b61fff5b5019007d9321
Ramanuja
0
False
When did Ramanuja live?
5727b61fff5b5019007d9322
c. 1037–1137
10
False
For the existence of what did the Visistadvaita philosophy argue?
5727b61fff5b5019007d9323
Supreme Being
153
False
What being did Ramanuja believe was the personification of Brahman
5727b61fff5b5019007d9324
Vishnu
676
False
Ramanuja
0
Who opposed Visistadvaita?
5a5e5d875bc9f4001a75af57
True
1037
13
When was Visistadvaita first proposed?
5a5e5d875bc9f4001a75af58
True
Brahman as an impersonal empty oneness
265
What did Visistadvaitins and Advaitins agree on?
5a5e5d875bc9f4001a75af59
True
Viśiṣṭādvaita
72
What was the philosophy of qualified dualism?
5a5e5d875bc9f4001a75af5a
True
Vishnu
676
Who did Advaitins believe was a personification of Brahman?
5a5e5d875bc9f4001a75af5b
True
Ramanuja (c. 1037–1137) was the foremost proponent of the philosophy of Viśiṣṭādvaita or qualified non-dualism. Viśiṣṭādvaita advocated the concept of a Supreme Being with essential qualities or attributes. Viśiṣṭādvaitins argued against the Advaitin conception of Brahman as an impersonal empty oneness. They saw Brahman as an eternal oneness, but also as the source of all creation, which was omnipresent and actively involved in existence. To them the sense of subject-object perception was illusory and a sign of ignorance. However, the individual's sense of self was not a complete illusion since it was derived from the universal beingness that is Brahman. Ramanuja saw Vishnu as a personification of Brahman.
Of what does Dvaita Vedanta theorize the existence?
5727b8d84b864d1900163b68
two separate realities
107
False
To what entity is the Vedanta Vishnu similar in other religions?
5727b8d84b864d1900163b69
monotheistic God
282
False
How is the God of Dvaita different from that of Advaita in actions?
5727b8d84b864d1900163b6a
takes on a personal role
425
False
As what did the Dvaita school view dualism?
5727b8d84b864d1900163b6b
permanent
830
False
Who did the Dvaita school identify as the Supreme Being?
5727b8d84b864d1900163b6c
Vishnu
682
False
Dvaita Vedanta
0
What theory claims there is one reality?
5a5e5f385bc9f4001a75af75
True
Vishnu is the supreme Self
231
How is the Dvaita Vedanta Vishnu different from other religions?
5a5e5f385bc9f4001a75af76
True
God
421
Who has an impersonal role according to Dvaita?
5a5e5f385bc9f4001a75af77
True
dualism
808
What in Dvaita is only temporary?
5a5e5f385bc9f4001a75af78
True
God takes on a personal role and is seen as a real eternal entity
421
What distinguishes Advaita Vedanta from Dvaita?
5a5e5f385bc9f4001a75af79
True
Dvaita Vedanta is a dualistic interpretation of the Vedas, espouses dualism by theorizing the existence of two separate realities. The first and the only independent reality, states the Dvaita school, is that of Vishnu or Brahman. Vishnu is the supreme Self, in a manner similar to monotheistic God in other major religions. The distinguishing factor of Dvaita philosophy, as opposed to monistic Advaita Vedanta, is that God takes on a personal role and is seen as a real eternal entity that governs and controls the universe. Like Vishishtadvaita Vedanta subschool, Dvaita philosophy also embraced Vaishnavism, with the metaphysical concept of Brahman in the Vedas identified with Vishnu and the one and only Supreme Being. However, unlike Vishishtadvaita which envisions ultimate qualified nondualism, the dualism of Dvaita was permanent.
What early philosopher proposed Dvaitadvaita?
5727ba9f4b864d1900163ba2
Nimbarka
29
False
In what century did Nimbarka live?
5727ba9f4b864d1900163ba3
13th-century
41
False
How many categories of existence are there in Dvaitadvaita?
5727ba9f4b864d1900163ba4
three
139
False
What are the categories of existence in Dvaitadvaita?
5727ba9f4b864d1900163ba5
Brahman, soul, and matter
170
False
Who is named as the highest entity worshiped in Dvaitadvaita?
5727ba9f4b864d1900163ba6
Krishna
574
False
soul and matter
344
Which two categories are independent?
5a5e608c5bc9f4001a75af87
True
Krishna
574
Who is Radha's consort?
5a5e608c5bc9f4001a75af88
True
thousands
617
How many gopis attended Nimbarka?
5a5e608c5bc9f4001a75af89
True
Krishna
574
Who is not worshiped in Dvaitadvaita?
5a5e608c5bc9f4001a75af8a
True
Soul and matter
197
What controls Brahman?
5a5e608c5bc9f4001a75af8b
True
Dvaitādvaita was proposed by Nimbarka, a 13th-century Vaishnava Philosopher from the Andhra region. According to this philosophy there are three categories of existence: Brahman, soul, and matter. Soul and matter are different from Brahman in that they have attributes and capacities different from Brahman. Brahman exists independently, while soul and matter are dependent. Thus soul and matter have an existence that is separate yet dependent. Further, Brahman is a controller, the soul is the enjoyer, and matter the thing enjoyed. Also, the highest object of worship is Krishna and his consort Radha, attended by thousands of gopis; of the Vrindavan; and devotion consists in self-surrender.
In what text is Shaivism recounted?
5727bce03acd2414000deb01
Śvetāśvatara Upanishad
66
False
When was the text on Shaivism written?
5727bce03acd2414000deb02
400 – 200 BCE
90
False
Who reported the major schools of Shaivism?
5727bce03acd2414000deb03
Vidyaranya
360
False
How many major schools of Shaivism did Vidyaranya mention?
5727bce03acd2414000deb04
three
393
False
What is the Kashmir Shaivism mentioned by Vidyaranya?
5727bce03acd2414000deb05
Pratyabhijña
473
False
Early history
0
What is easy to determine of Shaivism?
5a5e61305bc9f4001a75af91
True
400 – 200 BCE
90
When did Shaivism first begin?
5a5e61305bc9f4001a75af92
True
Vidyaranya
360
Who created Shaivism?
5a5e61305bc9f4001a75af93
True
abheda
278
What philosophical school is Shaivism not represented by?
5a5e61305bc9f4001a75af94
True
Vidyaranya
360
Who wrote the Svetasvatara Upanishad?
5a5e61305bc9f4001a75af95
True
Early history of Shaivism is difficult to determine. However, the Śvetāśvatara Upanishad (400 – 200 BCE) is considered to be the earliest textual exposition of a systematic philosophy of Shaivism. Shaivism is represented by various philosophical schools, including non-dualist (abheda), dualist (bheda), and non-dualist-with-dualist (bhedābheda) perspectives. Vidyaranya in his works mentions three major schools of Shaiva thought— Pashupata Shaivism, Shaiva Siddhanta and Pratyabhijña (Kashmir Shaivism).
What is the oldest school of Shaivism?
5727bed92ca10214002d954c
Pāśupata Shaivism
0
False
Who organized the Pasupata philosophy?
5727bed92ca10214002d954d
Lakulish
140
False
When did Lakulish systematize the Pasupata Shaivism?
5727bed92ca10214002d954e
2nd century CE
156
False
What school of philosophy did the Pasupatas dislike?
5727bed92ca10214002d954f
Vaishnava theology
458
False
What aspect of Vaishnava was unpalatable for the Pasupatas?
5727bed92ca10214002d9550
servitude of souls
501
False
Pāśupata Shaivism
0
What is the youngest major Shaiva school?
5a5e61eb5bc9f4001a75af9f
True
Lakulish
140
Who created Pasupata Shaivism?
5a5e61eb5bc9f4001a75afa0
True
Vaishnava
458
Which theology did Pashupatas prefer?
5a5e61eb5bc9f4001a75afa1
True
2nd century CE
156
When was the Pasupata Shaivism school started?
5a5e61eb5bc9f4001a75afa2
True
because they still depend upon something other than themselves
758
Why did Pashupatas believe servitude of souls was necessary?
5a5e61eb5bc9f4001a75afa3
True
Pāśupata Shaivism (Pāśupata, "of Paśupati") is the oldest of the major Shaiva schools. The philosophy of Pashupata sect was systematized by Lakulish in the 2nd century CE. Paśu in Paśupati refers to the effect (or created world), the word designates that which is dependent on something ulterior. Whereas, Pati means the cause (or principium), the word designates the Lord, who is the cause of the universe, the pati, or the ruler. Pashupatas disapproved of Vaishnava theology, known for its doctrine servitude of souls to the Supreme Being, on the grounds that dependence upon anything could not be the means of cessation of pain and other desired ends. They recognised that those depending upon another and longing for independence will not be emancipated because they still depend upon something other than themselves. According to Pāśupatas, soul possesses the attributes of the Supreme Deity when it becomes liberated from the 'germ of every pain'.
What group divided the world into two parts?
5727c075ff5b5019007d945c
Pāśupatas
0
False
Into what parts did the Pasupatas divide the world?
5727c075ff5b5019007d945d
insentient and the sentient
45
False
In what staet was the insentient considered to be?
5727c075ff5b5019007d945e
unconscious
97
False
How was the sentient seen as being?
5727c075ff5b5019007d945f
conscious
147
False
For the Pasupatas, how was the union of the soul with God achieved?
5727c075ff5b5019007d9460
through the intellect
647
False
the insentient
41
What was the sentient dependent on?
5a5e63da5bc9f4001a75afb7
True
God through the intellect
643
Salvation required the soul separating from what?
5a5e63da5bc9f4001a75afb8
True
effects and causes
198
What was the sentient broken up into?
5a5e63da5bc9f4001a75afb9
True
ten
238
How many effects made up the sentient?
5a5e63da5bc9f4001a75afba
True
the illusive identification of Self with non-Self
534
What were the effects responsible for?
5a5e63da5bc9f4001a75afbb
True
Pāśupatas divided the created world into the insentient and the sentient. The insentient was the unconscious and thus dependent on the sentient or conscious. The insentient was further divided into effects and causes. The effects were of ten kinds, the earth, four elements and their qualities, colour etc. The causes were of thirteen kinds, the five organs of cognition, the five organs of action, the three internal organs, intellect, the ego principle and the cognising principle. These insentient causes were held responsible for the illusive identification of Self with non-Self. Salvation in Pāśupata involved the union of the soul with God through the intellect.
What type of philosophy does both Kasmir Shaivism and Advaita Vedanta share?
5727c3243acd2414000debf9
non-dual
59
False
What aspect do non-dual philosophies give to the highest order of worship?
5727c3243acd2414000debfa
Universal Consciousness
103
False
As what does Kashmir Shaivism view the conscious world?
5727c3243acd2414000debfb
real
338
False
Which group sees the world as illusion?
5727c3243acd2414000debfc
Advaita
410
False
According to Kashmir Shaivism, what is the goal in belief?
5727c3243acd2414000debfd
merge in Shiva
574
False
Kashmir Shaivism and Advaita Vedanta
18
What are dual philosophies?
5a5e651e5bc9f4001a75afcf
True
Universal Consciousness
592
What is the opposite of Shiva?
5a5e651e5bc9f4001a75afd0
True
wisdom, yoga and grace
687
What are the means of understanding maya according to Kashmir Shaivism?
5a5e651e5bc9f4001a75afd1
True
Consciousness
229
Advaita says all things are a manifestation of what?
5a5e651e5bc9f4001a75afd2
True
to merge in Shiva or Universal Consciousness
571
What do believers of Advaita believe is the point of human life?
5a5e651e5bc9f4001a75afd3
True
Even though, both Kashmir Shaivism and Advaita Vedanta are non-dual philosophies which give primacy to Universal Consciousness (Chit or Brahman), in Kashmir Shavisim, as opposed to Advaita, all things are a manifestation of this Consciousness. This implies that from the point of view of Kashmir Shavisim, the phenomenal world (Śakti) is real, and it exists and has its being in Consciousness (Chit). Whereas, Advaita holds that Brahman is inactive (niṣkriya) and the phenomenal world is an illusion (māyā). The objective of human life, according to Kashmir Shaivism, is to merge in Shiva or Universal Consciousness, or to realize one's already existing identity with Shiva, by means of wisdom, yoga and grace.
Political_party
What are the two most powerful political parties in the United States?
57277ff9dd62a815002e9ed6
Democratic Party and the Republican Party
631
False
Name a nation that has a one-party political system.
57277ff9dd62a815002e9ed7
China
538
False
How are political parties elected in democracies?
57277ff9dd62a815002e9ed8
the electorate
370
False
What are some countries that have multiple powerful political parties?
57277ff9dd62a815002e9ed9
Germany and India
471
False
international commonality
20
What did China have when its government was first founded?
5a737bea53a187001ae63203
True
significant
163
What are the differences in the way people vote in China compared to other countries?
5a737bea53a187001ae63204
True
the electorate
370
Where does the ideology of China's main political parties come from?
5a737bea53a187001ae63205
True
to run a government
385
What is the main purpose changing an ideology after a government is founded?
5a737bea53a187001ae63206
True
ideologies
276
What is one thing Germany and India have changed after their governments were founded?
5a737bea53a187001ae63207
True
While there is some international commonality in the way political parties are recognized, and in how they operate, there are often many differences, and some are significant. Many political parties have an ideological core, but some do not, and many represent very different ideologies than they did when first founded. In democracies, political parties are elected by the electorate to run a government. Many countries have numerous powerful political parties, such as Germany and India and some nations have one-party systems, such as China. The United States is a two-party system, with its two most powerful parties being the Democratic Party and the Republican Party.
Around what time did the first political factions start to emerge?
5727817ddd62a815002e9efc
late-17th-century England
144
False
Who was the dominate political party for the first half of the 18th century?
5727817ddd62a815002e9efd
Whigs
453
False
Who was the leader if the Whigs?
5727817ddd62a815002e9efe
Robert Walpole
820
False
In what year did the jacobite rising fail?
5727817ddd62a815002e9eff
1715
786
False
The first political factions
0
What groups first formed in 1715 when the Whigs were dominant?
5a73877f53a187001ae6322b
True
a basic, if fluid, set of principles
46
What beliefs did the Tories unite behind during the Glorious Revolution in 1715?
5a73877f53a187001ae6322c
True
1715
592
In what year did the Exclusion Crisis end?
5a73877f53a187001ae6322d
True
1721–1742
891
How long did the English Civil War last?
5a73877f53a187001ae6322e
True
Robert Walpole
820
Who was the leader of the Hanoverian succession?
5a73877f53a187001ae6322f
True
The first political factions, cohering around a basic, if fluid, set of principles emerged from the Exclusion Crisis and Glorious Revolution in late-17th-century England. The Whigs supported Protestant constitutional monarchy against absolute rule and the Tories, originating in the Royalist (or "Cavalier") faction of the English Civil War, were conservative royalist supporters of a strong monarchy as a counterbalance to the republican tendencies of Whigs, who were the dominant political faction for most of the first half of the 18th century; they supported the Hanoverian succession of 1715 against the Jacobite supporters of the deposed Roman Catholic Stuart dynasty and were able to purge Tory politicians from important government positions after the failed Jacobite rising of 1715. The leader of the Whigs was Robert Walpole, who maintained control of the government in the period 1721–1742; his protégé was Henry Pelham (1743–1754).
Who's liberal political ideas influenced the Whigs?
57278788708984140094e011
John Locke
612
False
Name the two people who's concepts of universal rights influenced the Whigs.
57278788708984140094e012
Locke and Algernon Sidney
673
False
Did the Whigs want to limit the monarch's power?
57278788708984140094e013
championing constitutional monarchy with strict limits on the monarch's power
316
False
Did the Whigs support or oppose the Catholic king?
57278788708984140094e014
the Whigs adamantly opposed a Catholic king as a threat to liberty
395
False
liberty
454
What was Algernon Sidney considered a threat to?
5a73893f53a187001ae6323f
True
nonconformist Protestants
503
Who did Algernon Sidney want to be tolerant towards?
5a73893f53a187001ae63240
True
Locke and Algernon Sidney
673
Who's concepts of universal rights influenced wealthy merchants?
5a73893f53a187001ae63241
True
the monarch's power
374
What did wealthy merchants want to put strict limits on?
5a73893f53a187001ae63242
True
liberal
585
What kind of political ideas did a Catholic king support?
5a73893f53a187001ae63243
True
As the century wore on, the factions slowly began to adopt more coherent political tendencies as the interests of their power bases began to diverge. The Whig party's initial base of support from the great aristocratic families, widened to include the emerging industrial interests and wealthy merchants. As well as championing constitutional monarchy with strict limits on the monarch's power, the Whigs adamantly opposed a Catholic king as a threat to liberty, and believed in extending toleration to nonconformist Protestants, or dissenters. A major influence on the Whigs were the liberal political ideas of John Locke, and the concepts of universal rights employed by Locke and Algernon Sidney.
Who did the Tories oppose?
572789855951b619008f8cb5
Whigs
473
False
Who did the Tories occasionally cooperate with?
572789855951b619008f8cb6
the "Opposition Whigs"
457
False
When did the Tories regain power?
572789855951b619008f8cb7
1760
721
False
For how long were the Tories dismissed from office?
572789855951b619008f8cb8
half a century
51
False
Why could the Tories and the Opposition Whigs never form a single party?
572789855951b619008f8cb9
ideological gap
547
False
1742
334
When was the downfall of George II?
5a73953053a187001ae63253
True
for half a century
47
For how long was Lord Bute dismissed from office?
5a73953053a187001ae63254
True
corruption and scandals
402
What type of behavior was Lord Bute known for when in power?
5a73953053a187001ae63255
True
coalescing as a single party
627
What did differing beliefs prevent Lord Bute and George II from doing?
5a73953053a187001ae63256
True
power
679
What did Sir William Wyndham regain in 1760?
5a73953053a187001ae63257
True
Although the Tories were dismissed from office for half a century, for most of this period (at first under the leadership of Sir William Wyndham), the Tories retained party cohesion, with occasional hopes of regaining office, particularly at the accession of George II (1727) and the downfall of the ministry of Sir Robert Walpole in 1742. They acted as a united, though unavailing, opposition to Whig corruption and scandals. At times they cooperated with the "Opposition Whigs", Whigs who were in opposition to the Whig government; however, the ideological gap between the Tories and the Opposition Whigs prevented them from coalescing as a single party. They finally regained power with the accession of George III in 1760 under Lord Bute.
Who was the first distinctive Whig party that emerged from the chaos?
57278ab15951b619008f8ce5
the Rockingham Whigs
325
False
Who was the leader of the Rockingham Whigs?
57278ab15951b619008f8ce6
Charles Watson-Wentworth
370
False
What was the description for the basic framework of the Rockingham Whigs party?
57278ab15951b619008f8ce7
"a body of men united for promoting by their joint endeavours the national interest, upon some particular principle in which they are all agreed"
557
False
Did the Rockingham Whigs ever regain power as a opposition to the government?
57278ab15951b619008f8ce8
remained out of power as a united opposition to government.
908
False
a particular leader
784
Who was the Bedfordite faction tied to that made them unstable?
5a7397c453a187001ae6325d
True
a decade
61
How long did Edmund Burke remain a philosopher?
5a7397c453a187001ae6325e
True
Rockingham Whigs
329
What group was lead by Edmund Burke?
5a7397c453a187001ae6325f
True
factional chaos
73
What happened when Edmund Burke was removed from power?
5a7397c453a187001ae63260
True
"a body of men united for promoting by their joint endeavours the national interest, upon some particular principle in which they are all agreed".
557
What description was the basic framework for government created by Chathamite factions?
5a7397c453a187001ae63261
True
When they lost power, the old Whig leadership dissolved into a decade of factional chaos with distinct "Grenvillite", "Bedfordite", "Rockinghamite", and "Chathamite" factions successively in power, and all referring to themselves as "Whigs". Out of this chaos, the first distinctive parties emerged. The first such party was the Rockingham Whigs under the leadership of Charles Watson-Wentworth and the intellectual guidance of the political philosopher Edmund Burke. Burke laid out a philosophy that described the basic framework of the political party as "a body of men united for promoting by their joint endeavours the national interest, upon some particular principle in which they are all agreed". As opposed to the instability of the earlier factions, which were often tied to a particular leader and could disintegrate if removed from power, the party was centred around a set of core principles and remained out of power as a united opposition to government.
What was the modern Conservative party created from?
57278d79f1498d1400e8fbd0
the 'Pittite' Tories
49
False
Who Issued the Tamworth manifesto?
57278d79f1498d1400e8fbd1
Robert Peel
277
False
Which party did the Whigs, along with others form?
57278d79f1498d1400e8fbd2
the Liberal Party
700
False
In what year was the Tamworth manifesto introduced?
57278d79f1498d1400e8fbd3
1834
375
False
Tamworth Manifesto
353
What was created by the modern Conservative Party in 1859 to define basic Conservative principles?
5a73994042eae6001a38992c
True
disputes over political reform
115
What event broke up the Liberal Party?
5a73994042eae6001a38992d
True
amidst dire election results
223
Why did the government led by Willian Ewart Gladstone collapse?
5a73994042eae6001a38992e
True
set about assembling a new coalition of forces
289
What did the PIttite Tories do after the Duke's government collapsed?
5a73994042eae6001a38992f
True
the early 19th century
73
When did Lord Palmerston create the Pittite Tories?
5a73994042eae6001a389930
True
The modern Conservative Party was created out of the 'Pittite' Tories of the early 19th century. In the late 1820s disputes over political reform broke up this grouping. A government led by the Duke of Wellington collapsed amidst dire election results. Following this disaster Robert Peel set about assembling a new coalition of forces. Peel issued the Tamworth Manifesto in 1834 which set out the basic principles of Conservatism; – the necessity in specific cases of reform in order to survive, but an opposition to unnecessary change, that could lead to "a perpetual vortex of agitation". Meanwhile, the Whigs, along with free trade Tory followers of Robert Peel, and independent Radicals, formed the Liberal Party under Lord Palmerston in 1859, and transformed into a party of the growing urban middle-class, under the long leadership of William Ewart Gladstone.
What were the two proto-political parties?
57278e57f1498d1400e8fc00
the Federalist Party and the Democratic-Republican Party
253
False
In which year did the period known as the "Era of Good Feelings" begin?
57278e57f1498d1400e8fc01
1816
465
False
What did the founding fathers not intend American politics to become?
57278e57f1498d1400e8fc02
partisan
105
False
Who were the leaders of the Federalist and Democratic-Republican parties?
57278e57f1498d1400e8fc03
Framers Alexander Hamilton and James Madison
336
False
partisan
105
What did James Madison intend the mindset of the Federalist Party to be?
5a739ee142eae6001a389936
True
1790s
152
In what year was the Federalist Party founded?
5a739ee142eae6001a389937
True
1816
465
In what year did the Democratic-Republican Party split?
5a739ee142eae6001a389938
True
the Era of Good Feelings
511
What was the period called after the Federalist Party was created?
5a739ee142eae6001a389939
True
a decade
474
How long was James Madison involved with the Federalist Party?
5a739ee142eae6001a38993a
True
Although the Founding Fathers of the United States did not originally intend for American politics to be partisan, early political controversies in the 1790s over the extent of federal government powers saw the emergence of two proto-political parties- the Federalist Party and the Democratic-Republican Party, which were championed by Framers Alexander Hamilton and James Madison, respectively. However, a consensus reached on these issues ended party politics in 1816 for a decade, a period commonly known as the Era of Good Feelings.
Who was the leader of the Irish political party in the 1880s?
57278fabdd62a815002ea06a
Charles Stewart Parnell
338
False
What did Charles Stewart Parnell change his parties name to in 1882?
57278fabdd62a815002ea06b
Irish Parliamentary Party
420
False
Did the Irish Parliamentary Party ever adopt the Parnellite model?
57278fabdd62a815002ea06c
they soon came to model themselves on the Parnellite model.
1028
False
in the 1880s
362
When was the use of a party whip first implemented?
5a73a0a942eae6001a389940
True
the Irish Parliamentary Party
416
What did the party whip change the party name to in 1884?
5a73a0a942eae6001a389941
True
"ad hoc" informal groupings
532
What was the Parnellite model replaced with in government?
5a73a0a942eae6001a389942
True
a new selection procedure
572
What did the British Parties create to ensure committed members were selected?
5a73a0a942eae6001a389943
True
a firm 'party pledge'
711
What was imposed by the British Parties in 1884?
5a73a0a942eae6001a389944
True
At the same time, the political party reached its modern form, with a membership disciplined through the use of a party whip and the implementation of efficient structures of control. The Home Rule League Party, campaigning for Home Rule for Ireland in the British Parliament was fundamentally changed by the great Irish political leader Charles Stewart Parnell in the 1880s. In 1882, he changed his party's name to the Irish Parliamentary Party and created a well-organized grass roots structure, introducing membership to replace "ad hoc" informal groupings. He created a new selection procedure to ensure the professional selection of party candidates committed to taking their seats, and in 1884 he imposed a firm 'party pledge' which obliged MPs to vote as a bloc in parliament on all occasions. The creation of a strict party whip and a formal party structure was unique at the time. His party's efficient structure and control contrasted with the loose rules and flexible informality found in the main British parties; – they soon came to model themselves on the Parnellite model.
Do political parties have a Party leader?
572790c7f1498d1400e8fc3a
A political party is typically led by a party leader
0
False
Who maintains the daily work and records of party meetings?
572790c7f1498d1400e8fc3b
party secretary
123
False
Who is responsible for the membership fees and expenses?
572790c7f1498d1400e8fc3c
party treasurer
201
False
Who is responsible for recruiting and maintaining party members?
572790c7f1498d1400e8fc3d
party chair
262
False
a party leader
38
Who is a fund-raiser usually lead by?
5a73a27c42eae6001a38994a
True
the most powerful member and spokesperson representing the party
54
What is the definition of a fund-raiser?
5a73a27c42eae6001a38994b
True
forms strategies for recruiting and retaining party members, and also chairs party meetings
279
What are the duties of a national committee?
5a73a27c42eae6001a38994c
True
sets policy for the entire party at the national level
473
What does a state governor do?
5a73a27c42eae6001a38994d
True
president
879
What role do most spokesmen aspire to?
5a73a27c42eae6001a38994e
True
A political party is typically led by a party leader (the most powerful member and spokesperson representing the party), a party secretary (who maintains the daily work and records of party meetings), party treasurer (who is responsible for membership dues) and party chair (who forms strategies for recruiting and retaining party members, and also chairs party meetings). Most of the above positions are also members of the party executive, the leading organization which sets policy for the entire party at the national level. The structure is far more decentralized in the United States because of the separation of powers, federalism and the multiplicity of economic interests and religious sects. Even state parties are decentralized as county and other local committees are largely independent of state central committees. The national party leader in the U.S. will be the president, if the party holds that office, or a prominent member of Congress in opposition (although a big-state governor may aspire to that role). Officially, each party has a chairman for its national committee who is a prominent spokesman, organizer and fund-raiser, but without the status of prominent elected office holders.
When does a party form an official opposition?
57279453f1498d1400e8fcaa
When a party becomes the largest party not part of the Government
419
False
What type of parties allow leaders to form frontbench teams?
57279453f1498d1400e8fcab
Westminster-based parties
235
False
When does a party's frontbench become the Cabinet of government ministers?
57279453f1498d1400e8fcac
When a party achieves enough seats in an election to form a majority
652
False
If a party is represented by members from the lower house of parliament, what other position can the party leader serve?
57279453f1498d1400e8fcad
leader of the parliamentary group of that full party representation
121
False
Westminster-based parties
235
What type of parties allow leaders to form a Shadow cabinet?
5a73a89c42eae6001a389954
True
the leader of the parliamentary group
117
What does the party leader serve as when the party is represented by the Shadow cabinet?
5a73a89c42eae6001a389955
True
to serve as critics of aspects of government policy
366
What is the main role of the Cabinet of government ministers?
5a73a89c42eae6001a389956
True
the Official Opposition
524
What is formed when a party becomes the largest party not part of the Cabinet of government ministers?
5a73a89c42eae6001a389957
True
the Cabinet of government ministers
753
What  does the Official Opposition Shadow cabinet become when it can form a majority with enough seats?
5a73a89c42eae6001a389958
True
When the party is represented by members in the lower house of parliament, the party leader simultaneously serves as the leader of the parliamentary group of that full party representation; depending on a minimum number of seats held, Westminster-based parties typically allow for leaders to form frontbench teams of senior fellow members of the parliamentary group to serve as critics of aspects of government policy. When a party becomes the largest party not part of the Government, the party's parliamentary group forms the Official Opposition, with Official Opposition frontbench team members often forming the Official Opposition Shadow cabinet. When a party achieves enough seats in an election to form a majority, the party's frontbench becomes the Cabinet of government ministers.
What is considered a measurement of a state's support to liberal democracy?
5727950d708984140094e17d
The freedom to form, declare membership in, or campaign for
0
False
How are parties regulated?
5727950d708984140094e17e
a crackdown on or repression of all opposition parties
223
False
Will parties that hold a counter belief to the general beliefs of the state's incumbents be repressed?
5727950d708984140094e17f
to the repression of certain parties which hold or promote ideals which run counter to the general ideology of the state's incumbents
317
False
legally unenforceable
492
How are government crackdowns categorized by democracies?
5a73acce42eae6001a38995e
True
The freedom to form, declare membership in, or campaign for candidates from a political party
0
What rights threaten the formation of a liberal democracy?
5a73acce42eae6001a38995f
True
a crackdown on or repression of all opposition parties
223
After what event do opposition parties usually form?
5a73acce42eae6001a389960
True
declare membership
21
What is the first thing authoritarian governments want citizens to do to show loyalty to the party?
5a73acce42eae6001a389961
True
freedom
4
What is one right that is not the norm for authoritarian governments?
5a73acce42eae6001a389962
True
The freedom to form, declare membership in, or campaign for candidates from a political party is considered a measurement of a state's adherence to liberal democracy as a political value. Regulation of parties may run from a crackdown on or repression of all opposition parties, a norm for authoritarian governments, to the repression of certain parties which hold or promote ideals which run counter to the general ideology of the state's incumbents (or possess membership by-laws which are legally unenforceable).
Will mainstream political parties not cooperate towards outsider parties if they are too extream?
572798635951b619008f8e51
mainstream political parties may form an informal cordon sanitarian which applies a policy of non-cooperation towards those "Outsider Parties"
131
False
which  outsider parties considered unacceptable to work with?
572798635951b619008f8e52
far-right, far-left and regionalism
28
False
What has been increasingly abandoned in the past two decades?
572798635951b619008f8e53
Cordon Sanitarian
377
False
the pressure to construct broad coalitions
494
What has caused far-right parties to be abandoned over the past two decades?
5a73aeab42eae6001a389968
True
multi-party
467
What kind of democracies were created after the formation of the EU?
5a73aeab42eae6001a389969
True
far-right, far-left and regionalism parties
28
What groups have Outsider Parties not wanted to cooperate with recently?
5a73aeab42eae6001a38996a
True
cordon sanitarian
181
What did Outsider Parties form because they didn't want to cooperate with government?
5a73aeab42eae6001a38996b
True
a policy of non-cooperation
213
What kind of policy do Outsider Parties usually have towards the government?
5a73aeab42eae6001a38996c
True
Furthermore, in the case of far-right, far-left and regionalism parties in the national parliaments of much of the European Union, mainstream political parties may form an informal cordon sanitarian which applies a policy of non-cooperation towards those "Outsider Parties" present in the legislature which are viewed as 'anti-system' or otherwise unacceptable for government. Cordon Sanitarian, however, have been increasingly abandoned over the past two decades in multi-party democracies as the pressure to construct broad coalitions in order to win elections – along with the increased willingness of outsider parties themselves to participate in government – has led to many such parties entering electoral and government coalitions.
Do official political parties exist in a nonpartisan system?
57279977f1498d1400e8fd08
In a nonpartisan system, no official political parties exist
0
False
Was the administration of George Washington nonpartisan?
57279977f1498d1400e8fd09
The administration of George Washington and the first few sessions of the United States Congress were nonpartisan.
314
False
What did Washington warn against during his farewell address?
57279977f1498d1400e8fd0a
political parties
460
False
What do factions within nonpartisan systems evolve into?
57279977f1498d1400e8fd0b
political parties
1047
False
legal restrictions
83
What restrictions are there on candidates when there are no political parties?
5a73b10442eae6001a389972
True
warned against
445
What attitude did George Washington have on legal restrictions in office?
5a73b10442eae6001a389973
True
is elected
587
How does the legislature take office in Tokelau?
5a73b10442eae6001a389974
True
votes
602
What is another action the legislature of Tokelau is able to do?
5a73b10442eae6001a389975
True
Nonpartisan elections and modes of governance
842
What does the Northwest Territories warn against?
5a73b10442eae6001a389976
True
In a nonpartisan system, no official political parties exist, sometimes reflecting legal restrictions on political parties. In nonpartisan elections, each candidate is eligible for office on his or her own merits. In nonpartisan legislatures, there are no typically formal party alignments within the legislature. The administration of George Washington and the first few sessions of the United States Congress were nonpartisan. Washington also warned against political parties during his Farewell Address. In the United States, the unicameral legislature of Nebraska is nonpartisan but is elected and votes on informal party lines. In Canada, the territorial legislatures of the Northwest Territories and Nunavut are nonpartisan. In New Zealand, Tokelau has a nonpartisan parliament. Many city and county governments[vague] are nonpartisan. Nonpartisan elections and modes of governance are common outside of state institutions. Unless there are legal prohibitions against political parties, factions within nonpartisan systems often evolve into political parties.
In what systems is the political party allowed to legally hold effective power?
57279ae5ff5b5019007d90cc
one-party systems
3
False
What are North Korea and China examples of?
57279ae5ff5b5019007d90cd
positions within the party may in fact be more important than positions within the government
286
False
What is the one-party system often compared with?
57279ae5ff5b5019007d90ce
dictatorships and tyranny
550
False
When was Nazi Germany in a one-party system?
57279ae5ff5b5019007d90cf
1934 and 1945
485
False
minor parties
95
What kind of leadership must the dominant party accept in China?
5a73b29142eae6001a38997c
True
between 1934 and 1945
477
During what years did North Korea move to a one party system?
5a73b29142eae6001a38997d
True
dictatorships and tyranny
550
What are minor parties often compared to due to their influence?
5a73b29142eae6001a38997e
True
the government
251
What are minor parties usually identical to?
5a73b29142eae6001a38997f
True
China
397
In what country were minor party positions more important?
5a73b29142eae6001a389980
True
In one-party systems, one political party is legally allowed to hold effective power. Although minor parties may sometimes be allowed, they are legally required to accept the leadership of the dominant party. This party may not always be identical to the government, although sometimes positions within the party may in fact be more important than positions within the government. North Korea and China are examples; others can be found in Fascist states, such as Nazi Germany between 1934 and 1945. The one-party system is thus usually equated with dictatorships and tyranny.
When are opposition parties allowed?
57279c7cff5b5019007d90f2
In dominant-party systems
0
False
What are some of the reasons for a party's failure?
57279c7cff5b5019007d90f3
political, social and economic circumstances, and public opinion
216
False
What are some ways a dominant party can stay in power?
57279c7cff5b5019007d90f4
patronage and sometimes by voting fraud
473
False
What are some examples of dominant party systems?
57279c7cff5b5019007d90f5
African National Congress in South Africa, the Cambodian People's Party in Cambodia
698
False
For how long did the dominant one-party system last in mexico?
57279c7cff5b5019007d90f6
1990s
970
False
no real chance
172
How likely is it that there was voting fraud in the 1998 election?
5a73b3ec42eae6001a389986
True
political, social and economic circumstances, and public opinion
216
What were the reasons for the Democratic Parties failure in 1990?
5a73b3ec42eae6001a389987
True
patronage and sometimes by voting fraud
473
What were two things that the Liberal Democratic Party in Japan used in the 1970's to try and win an election?
5a73b3ec42eae6001a389988
True
the People's Action Party in Singapore, the African National Congress in South Africa, the Cambodian People's Party in Cambodia
654
What are some parties that were guilty of using voter fraud?
5a73b3ec42eae6001a389989
True
until the 1990s
960
How long did the People's Action Party in Singapore last?
5a73b3ec42eae6001a38998a
True
In dominant-party systems, opposition parties are allowed, and there may be even a deeply established democratic tradition, but other parties are widely considered to have no real chance of gaining power. Sometimes, political, social and economic circumstances, and public opinion are the reason for others parties' failure. Sometimes, typically in countries with less of an established democratic tradition, it is possible the dominant party will remain in power by using patronage and sometimes by voting fraud. In the latter case, the definition between dominant and one-party system becomes rather blurred. Examples of dominant party systems include the People's Action Party in Singapore, the African National Congress in South Africa, the Cambodian People's Party in Cambodia, the Liberal Democratic Party in Japan, and the National Liberation Front in Algeria. One-party dominant system also existed in Mexico with the Institutional Revolutionary Party until the 1990s, in the southern United States with the Democratic Party from the late 19th century until the 1970s, in Indonesia with the Golkar from the early 1970s until 1998.
What type of party system is the United States?
57279d752ca10214002d921a
two-party system
43
False
What were the first parties in the united States called?
57279d752ca10214002d921b
Federalist and Republican
250
False
For how long did the Whigs survive?
57279d752ca10214002d921c
two decades
514
False
What are challenged to an unpopular political party?
57279d752ca10214002d921d
tremendous land area and large population of the country
1618
False
Which party was anti-slavery?
57279d752ca10214002d921e
Democratic Party
667
False
1912
978
In what year did National and Democratic Republicans split?
5a73b82742eae6001a389990
True
the spread of slavery
549
What topic caused Teddy Roosevelt to lose the election in 1912?
5a73b82742eae6001a389991
True
two decades
514
For how long did the Federalist Party exist?
5a73b82742eae6001a389992
True
siphoning votes
870
What was Teddy Roosevelt guilty of in 1912?
5a73b82742eae6001a389993
True
weak support
1341
What kind of support did Teddy Roosevelt have outside the South?
5a73b82742eae6001a389994
True
The United States has become essentially a two-party system. Since a conservative (such as the Republican Party) and liberal (such as the Democratic Party) party has usually been the status quo within American politics. The first parties were called Federalist and Republican, followed by a brief period of Republican dominance before a split occurred between National Republicans and Democratic Republicans. The former became the Whig Party and the latter became the Democratic Party. The Whigs survived only for two decades before they split over the spread of slavery, those opposed becoming members of the new Republican Party, as did anti-slavery members of the Democratic Party. Third parties (such as the Libertarian Party) often receive little support and are very rarely the victors in elections. Despite this, there have been several examples of third parties siphoning votes from major parties that were expected to win (such as Theodore Roosevelt in the election of 1912 and George Wallace in the election of 1968). As third party movements have learned, the Electoral College's requirement of a nationally distributed majority makes it difficult for third parties to succeed. Thus, such parties rarely win many electoral votes, although their popular support within a state may tip it toward one party or the other. Wallace had weak support outside the South. More generally, parties with a broad base of support across regions or among economic and other interest groups, have a great chance of winning the necessary plurality in the U.S.'s largely single-member district, winner-take-all elections. The tremendous land area and large population of the country are formidable challenges to political parties with a narrow appeal.
What has the UK political system functioned as?
57279f3d2ca10214002d9232
a two-party (sometimes called a "two-and-a-half party") system
93
False
What are the two largest political parties in the UK?
57279f3d2ca10214002d9233
Conservative Party and the Labour Party
221
False
What was the other major party before the Labour party?
57279f3d2ca10214002d9234
Liberal Party
315
False
What is Duveger's Law?
57279f3d2ca10214002d9235
A plurality voting system usually leads to a two-party system
726
False
a two-party (sometimes called a "two-and-a-half party") system
93
What system was created by Maurice Duverger in the UK?
5a73b9f042eae6001a38999a
True
the 1920s
163
When was Duverger's Law passed in the UK?
5a73b9f042eae6001a38999b
True
a number
925
How many seats has Maurice Duverger held in Parliament?
5a73b9f042eae6001a38999c
True
the Labour Party
269
What was the only party that helped pass Duverger's Law?
5a73b9f042eae6001a38999d
True
a two-party system
769
What does allowing Conservatives in government usually lead to?
5a73b9f042eae6001a38999e
True
The UK political system, while technically a multi-party system, has functioned generally as a two-party (sometimes called a "two-and-a-half party") system; since the 1920s the two largest political parties have been the Conservative Party and the Labour Party. Before the Labour Party rose in British politics the Liberal Party was the other major political party along with the Conservatives. Though coalition and minority governments have been an occasional feature of parliamentary politics, the first-past-the-post electoral system used for general elections tends to maintain the dominance of these two parties, though each has in the past century relied upon a third party to deliver a working majority in Parliament. (A plurality voting system usually leads to a two-party system, a relationship described by Maurice Duverger and known as Duverger's Law.) There are also numerous other parties that hold or have held a number of seats in Parliament.
In which case are parties not likely to gain power on their own?
5727a2d2ff5b5019007d9180
in cases where there are three or more parties
15
False
Is Ireland ever not led by a coalition Government?
5727a2d2ff5b5019007d9181
since the forming of the Republic of Iceland there has never been a government not led by a coalition
395
False
Since what date has Ireland not been led by a single power?
5727a2d2ff5b5019007d9182
1989
647
False
When is political change easier?
5727a2d2ff5b5019007d9183
Political change is often easier with a coalition government
840
False
What are prime examples coalition governments that struggle to change policy?
5727a2d2ff5b5019007d9184
post World War II France and Italy
1313
False
coalition governments
148
What do parties work to form when one party gains power?
5a73bc4242eae6001a3899a4
True
since the 1980s
246
How long as the Republic of Ireland had a dominant party?
5a73bc4242eae6001a3899a5
True
Germany
295
What country usually has a dominant party at the national and state level?
5a73bc4242eae6001a3899a6
True
the Republic of Iceland
416
What country has always had a dominant party in power since it was formed?
5a73bc4242eae6001a3899a7
True
France and Italy
1331
What two countries have usually been able to make swift policy changes since WW II?
5a73bc4242eae6001a3899a8
True
More commonly, in cases where there are three or more parties, no one party is likely to gain power alone, and parties work with each other to form coalition governments. This has been an emerging trend in the politics of the Republic of Ireland since the 1980s and is almost always the case in Germany on national and state level, and in most constituencies at the communal level. Furthermore, since the forming of the Republic of Iceland there has never been a government not led by a coalition (usually of the Independence Party and one other (often the Social Democratic Alliance). A similar situation exists in the Republic of Ireland; since 1989, no one party has held power on its own. Since then, numerous coalition governments have been formed. These coalitions have been exclusively led by one of either Fianna Fáil or Fine Gael. Political change is often easier with a coalition government than in one-party or two-party dominant systems.[dubious – discuss] If factions in a two-party system are in fundamental disagreement on policy goals, or even principles, they can be slow to make policy changes, which appears to be the case now in the U.S. with power split between Democrats and Republicans. Still coalition governments struggle, sometimes for years, to change policy and often fail altogether, post World War II France and Italy being prime examples. When one party in a two-party system controls all elective branches, however, policy changes can be both swift and significant. Democrats Woodrow Wilson, Franklin Roosevelt and Lyndon Johnson were beneficiaries of such fortuitous circumstances, as were Republicans as far removed in time as Abraham Lincoln and Ronald Reagan. Barack Obama briefly had such an advantage between 2009 and 2011.
What are called factions by some people?
5727a5812ca10214002d92be
Political parties
0
False
What are political parties lobbied by?
5727a5812ca10214002d92bf
organizations, businesses and special interest groups
124
False
What are traditional sources of funding for parties?
5727a5812ca10214002d92c0
Money and gifts
200
False
Around which time was the mass membership party started?
5727a5812ca10214002d92c1
19th century
403
False
factions
32
What do some people still call trade unions?
5a73bfed42eae6001a3899ae
True
Money and gifts
200
What do special interest groups receive for paying membership dues?
5a73bfed42eae6001a3899af
True
organizations, businesses and special interest groups
124
What groups support having to pay trade unions?
5a73bfed42eae6001a3899b0
True
19th century
403
During what time were lobbyists the most prevalent in government?
5a73bfed42eae6001a3899b1
True
left-of-centre workers' parties
464
What newly founded party opposed all government?
5a73bfed42eae6001a3899b2
True
Political parties, still called factions by some, especially those in the governmental apparatus, are lobbied vigorously by organizations, businesses and special interest groups such as trade unions. Money and gifts-in-kind to a party, or its leading members, may be offered as incentives. Such donations are the traditional source of funding for all right-of-centre cadre parties. Starting in the late 19th century these parties were opposed by the newly founded left-of-centre workers' parties. They started a new party type, the mass membership party, and a new source of political fundraising, membership dues.
Why did parties that relied on donations or subscriptions run into problems?
5727a68c3acd2414000de8df
increased scrutiny of donations there has been a long-term decline in party memberships
160
False
When did parties that relied on donations start to run into problems?
5727a68c3acd2414000de8e0
second half of the 20th century
9
False
less than an 1/8 of what it was
416
What was the population of Australia in the 20th century compared to 1950?
5a73c19342eae6001a3899b8
True
2006
408
In what year did western democracies start to decline?
5a73c19342eae6001a3899b9
True
mounting problems
126
What did the government of the UK have happen in 1950 due to lack of funding?
5a73c19342eae6001a3899ba
True
significant increases
465
What had happened to funding for the Australian government in 1950?
5a73c19342eae6001a3899bb
True
1950
451
In what year did Australia adopt a democratic government?
5a73c19342eae6001a3899bc
True
From the second half of the 20th century on parties which continued to rely on donations or membership subscriptions ran into mounting problems. Along with the increased scrutiny of donations there has been a long-term decline in party memberships in most western democracies which itself places more strains on funding. For example, in the United Kingdom and Australia membership of the two main parties in 2006 is less than an 1/8 of what it was in 1950, despite significant increases in population over that period.
In the United Kingdom, what is awarded to people who help fund the parties?
5727a7852ca10214002d92fe
peerages
48
False
Who was discovered to be selling peerages?
5727a7852ca10214002d92ff
Lloyd George
232
False
What act did parliament put into place to stop such corruptions?
5727a7852ca10214002d9300
Honours (Prevention of Abuses) Act
350
False
What did the Honours act do?
5727a7852ca10214002d9301
outright sale of peerages and similar honours became a criminal act
409
False
How did people attempt to overcome this law?
5727a7852ca10214002d9302
cloaking their contributions as loans
556
False
'Cash for Peerages'
614
What scandal took place in 1925?
5a73c32442eae6001a3899c2
True
peerages
48
What is awarded to people in the UK who manage loans for a living?
5a73c32442eae6001a3899c3
True
loans
588
What did Lloyd George help people acquire in his earlier profession?
5a73c32442eae6001a3899c4
True
the House of Lords
143
What do people become a member of if they help people get approved for a loan?
5a73c32442eae6001a3899c5
True
legislating
209
What can people who approve loans for a living take part in in government?
5a73c32442eae6001a3899c6
True
In the United Kingdom, it has been alleged that peerages have been awarded to contributors to party funds, the benefactors becoming members of the House of Lords and thus being in a position to participate in legislating. Famously, Lloyd George was found to have been selling peerages. To prevent such corruption in the future, Parliament passed the Honours (Prevention of Abuses) Act 1925 into law. Thus the outright sale of peerages and similar honours became a criminal act. However, some benefactors are alleged to have attempted to circumvent this by cloaking their contributions as loans, giving rise to the 'Cash for Peerages' scandal.
What are the two categories of public funding?
5727ac44ff5b5019007d9244
direct, which entails a monetary transfer to a party, and indirect
50
False
Which percentage of nations provide no direct or indirect public funding?
5727ac44ff5b5019007d9245
25%
317
False
What percentage of nations provide direct funding?
5727ac44ff5b5019007d9246
58%
378
False
Are parties required to reveal their funding?
5727ac44ff5b5019007d9247
required to disclose their finances to the Election management body.
762
False
What percentage of nations provide indirect funding?
5727ac44ff5b5019007d9248
60%
416
False
direct
50
What is one type of political party?
5a73c52d42eae6001a3899cc
True
on state media
151
Where do you have to broadcast on if you are a member of a direct party?
5a73c52d42eae6001a3899cd
True
58%
378
How many people know about the ACE Electoral Knowledge network?
5a73c52d42eae6001a3899ce
True
over 180
299
How many known political parties are there worldwide?
5a73c52d42eae6001a3899cf
True
their finances
783
What type of information do over 180 parties disclose to the ACE Electoral Knowledge Network?
5a73c52d42eae6001a3899d0
True
There are two broad categories of public funding, direct, which entails a monetary transfer to a party, and indirect, which includes broadcasting time on state media, use of the mail service or supplies. According to the Comparative Data from the ACE Electoral Knowledge Network, out of a sample of over 180 nations, 25% of nations provide no direct or indirect public funding, 58% provide direct public funding and 60% of nations provide indirect public funding. Some countries provide both direct and indirect public funding to political parties. Funding may be equal for all parties or depend on the results of previous elections or the number of candidates participating in an election. Frequently parties rely on a mix of private and public funding and are required to disclose their finances to the Election management body.
What can also be provided by foreign aid?
5727ada7ff5b5019007d9268
funding
25
False
What do international donors do to promote democracy?
5727ada7ff5b5019007d9269
provide financing to political parties in developing countries
91
False
What is another common occurrence of international support for a party?
5727ada7ff5b5019007d926a
Developing links between ideologically linked parties
405
False
What does the overseas development institute want to do?
5727ada7ff5b5019007d926b
to increase support to political parties
975
False
foreign aid
57
What funding does the Overseas Development Institute like to offer to support democracies?
5a73c75242eae6001a3899d6
True
development of party manifestos, party constitutions and campaigning skills
328
What was used during the Rose Revolution to make it successful?
5a73c75242eae6001a3899d7
True
support to political parties
987
What does the Georgian party want to increase?
5a73c75242eae6001a3899d8
True
to improve governance
1102
Why does the Georgian party want to increase support to political parties?
5a73c75242eae6001a3899d9
True
democracy and good governance
176
What did the Georgian party want to promote by financing political parties in developing countries?
5a73c75242eae6001a3899da
True
In fledgling democracies funding can also be provided by foreign aid. International donors provide financing to political parties in developing countries as a means to promote democracy and good governance. Support can be purely financial or otherwise. Frequently it is provided as capacity development activities including the development of party manifestos, party constitutions and campaigning skills. Developing links between ideologically linked parties is another common feature of international support for a party. Sometimes this can be perceived as directly supporting the political aims of a political party, such as the support of the US government to the Georgian party behind the Rose Revolution. Other donors work on a more neutral basis, where multiple donors provide grants in countries accessible by all parties for various aims defined by the recipients. There have been calls by leading development think-tanks, such as the Overseas Development Institute, to increase support to political parties as part of developing the capacity to deal with the demands of interest-driven donors to improve governance.
What parties is the color green for?
5727aec94b864d1900163a54
Islamist parties, Nordic agrarian parties and Irish republican parties
38
False
What was purple considered the color for?
5727aec94b864d1900163a55
royalty
356
False
What parties is the color black associated with?
5727aec94b864d1900163a56
fascist parties
805
False
Brown is associated with what parties?
5727aec94b864d1900163a57
Nazism
939
False
What color is orange associated with?
5727aec94b864d1900163a58
nationalism
141
False
tan
978
What uniforms do storm troopers wear in Islamist parties?
5a73c9d742eae6001a3899e0
True
royalty
356
What was green considered the color of in the past?
5a73c9d742eae6001a3899e1
True
Orange
110
What color is the Centrist Party in Israel?
5a73c9d742eae6001a3899e2
True
a highly idealistic "peace and love" party
682
What party is similar to Irish republican parties?
5a73c9d742eae6001a3899e3
True
Benito Mussolini's blackshirts
836
What group is similar to the Ulster Loyalists?
5a73c9d742eae6001a3899e4
True
Green is the color for green parties, Islamist parties, Nordic agrarian parties and Irish republican parties. Orange is sometimes a color of nationalism, such as in the Netherlands, in Israel with the Orange Camp or with Ulster Loyalists in Northern Ireland; it is also a color of reform such as in Ukraine. In the past, Purple was considered the color of royalty (like white), but today it is sometimes used for feminist parties. White also is associated with nationalism. "Purple Party" is also used as an academic hypothetical of an undefined party, as a Centrist party in the United States (because purple is created from mixing the main parties' colors of red and blue) and as a highly idealistic "peace and love" party—in a similar vein to a Green Party, perhaps. Black is generally associated with fascist parties, going back to Benito Mussolini's blackshirts, but also with Anarchism. Similarly, brown is sometimes associated with Nazism, going back to the Nazi Party's tan-uniformed storm troopers.
What is the color red associated with?
5727af4f3acd2414000de99b
right-wing Republican Party
126
False
What political party is the color blue associated with?
5727af4f3acd2414000de99c
left-wing Democratic Party
172
False
Did the political parties choose those colors?
5727af4f3acd2414000de99d
unlike political color schemes of other countries, the parties did not choose those colors
209
False
In what year did the occurrence of using different color schemes for the parties stop?
5727af4f3acd2414000de99e
2000
428
False
blue
158
What color was chosen by the Democratic Party before 2000?
5a73cdc442eae6001a3899ea
True
red
91
Before 2000 what color did the Republican party choose to be associated with?
5a73cdc442eae6001a3899eb
True
color schemes
226
What have international political parties not chosen for themselves since 2000?
5a73cdc442eae6001a3899ec
True
ensuing legal battle
362
What happened when other countries violated political color scheme norms in 2000?
5a73cdc442eae6001a3899ed
True
which color represented which party
473
What did parties in other countries alternate to avoid confusion in 2000?
5a73cdc442eae6001a3899ee
True
Political color schemes in the United States diverge from international norms. Since 2000, red has become associated with the right-wing Republican Party and blue with the left-wing Democratic Party. However, unlike political color schemes of other countries, the parties did not choose those colors; they were used in news coverage of 2000 election results and ensuing legal battle and caught on in popular usage. Prior to the 2000 election the media typically alternated which color represented which party each presidential election cycle. The color scheme happened to get inordinate attention that year, so the cycle was stopped lest it cause confusion the following election.
When did political parties organize themselves into international organizations?
5727affd4b864d1900163a68
19th and 20th century
11
False
What are some examples of this?
5727affd4b864d1900163a69
The Universal Party, International Workingmen's Association
169
False
Name an example of an administration that outlaws links between local and foreign political organizations.
5727affd4b864d1900163a6a
Hong Kong
994
False
1945
633
In what year was the Universal Party organized in Italy?
5a73ceb842eae6001a3899f4
True
Florence
702
Where has The Universal Party headquarters been located since 1974?
5a73ceb842eae6001a3899f5
True
six
727
How many countries does The Universal Party operate in?
5a73ceb842eae6001a3899f6
True
national political parties
39
What groups organized in Hong Kong in the 19th and 20th century?
5a73ceb842eae6001a3899f7
True
international political parties
1101
What was outlawed in Italy in 1945?
5a73ceb842eae6001a3899f8
True
During the 19th and 20th century, many national political parties organized themselves into international organizations along similar policy lines. Notable examples are The Universal Party, International Workingmen's Association (also called the First International), the Socialist International (also called the Second International), the Communist International (also called the Third International), and the Fourth International, as organizations of working class parties, or the Liberal International (yellow), Hizb ut-Tahrir, Christian Democratic International and the International Democrat Union (blue). Organized in Italy in 1945, the International Communist Party, since 1974 headquartered in Florence has sections in six countries.[citation needed] Worldwide green parties have recently established the Global Greens. The Universal Party, The Socialist International, the Liberal International, and the International Democrat Union are all based in London. Some administrations (e.g. Hong Kong) outlaw formal linkages between local and foreign political organizations, effectively outlawing international political parties.
Who drew a difference between cadre parties and mass parties?
5727b09f4b864d1900163a6e
Maurice Duverger
27
False
What are cadre parties?
5727b09f4b864d1900163a6f
political elites that were concerned with contesting elections and restricted the influence of outsiders
122
False
What are mass parties?
5727b09f4b864d1900163a70
Mass parties tried to recruit new members who were a source of party income and were often expected to spread party ideology
284
False
What is an example of a mass party?
5727b09f4b864d1900163a71
Socialist parties
440
False
What type of parties are the two major parties in the United States?
5727b09f4b864d1900163a72
cadre parties
651
False
Maurice Duverger
27
What German political scientist drew a distinction between party ideology and elections?
5a73d07a42eae6001a3899fe
True
new members
314
Who was the focus of recruitment by cadre parties?
5a73d07a42eae6001a3899ff
True
party ideology
394
What did cadre parties expect new members to spread?
5a73d07a42eae6001a389a00
True
elections
430
What did cadre parties expect new members to give assistance for?
5a73d07a42eae6001a389a01
True
cadre parties
651
What are the two major parties in France?
5a73d07a42eae6001a389a02
True
French political scientist Maurice Duverger drew a distinction between cadre parties and mass parties. Cadre parties were political elites that were concerned with contesting elections and restricted the influence of outsiders, who were only required to assist in election campaigns. Mass parties tried to recruit new members who were a source of party income and were often expected to spread party ideology as well as assist in elections.Socialist parties are examples of mass parties, while the British Conservative Party and the German Christian Democratic Union are examples of hybrid parties. In the United States, where both major parties were cadre parties, the introduction of primaries and other reforms has transformed them so that power is held by activists who compete over influence and nomination of candidates.
A_cappella
What does A cappella mean in the Italian language?
572782eb5951b619008f8bc1
in the manner of the chapel
39
False
What is another term occasionally used to refer to A cappella?
572782eb5951b619008f8bc2
alla breve
649
False
At what point did Renaissance polyphony become popular again?
572782eb5951b619008f8bc3
19th century
385
False
How is A cappella currently defined?
572782eb5951b619008f8bc4
group or solo singing without instrumental accompaniment
91
False
A cappella was originally used to tell the difference between which two styles?
572782eb5951b619008f8bc5
Renaissance polyphony and Baroque concertato
326
False
A cappella
0
What is group or solo music called?
5a2e852ca83784001a7d2403
True
instrumental accompaniment
121
What does cantata music lack that Acappella has?
5a2e852ca83784001a7d2404
True
alla breve
649
What is a synonym for cantata?
5a2e852ca83784001a7d2405
True
interest in Renaissance polyphony
408
What was renewed in the 1900's?
5a2e852ca83784001a7d2406
True
Renaissance polyphony and Baroque concertato style
326
What did cantata origionally differerntiate between?
5a2e852ca83784001a7d2407
True
A cappella
0
What term is also used as a synonym for concertato?
5a302d44f1f7c7001ab92ca4
True
Renaissance polyphony and Baroque concertato
326
Alla breve was originally used to tell the difference between what styles?
5a302d44f1f7c7001ab92ca5
True
a renewed interest in Renaissance polyphony coupled with an ignorance of the fact that vocal parts were often doubled by instrumentalists
398
What led to alla breve meaning unaccompanied vocal music?
5a302d44f1f7c7001ab92ca6
True
"in the manner of the chapel"
38
What does Baroque concertato mean in Italian?
5a302d44f1f7c7001ab92ca7
True
cantata
216
What does Renaissance polyphony contrast with that means accompanied singing?
5a302d44f1f7c7001ab92ca8
True
A cappella [a kapˈpɛlla] (Italian for "in the manner of the chapel") music is specifically group or solo singing without instrumental accompaniment, or a piece intended to be performed in this way. It contrasts with cantata, which is accompanied singing. The term "a cappella" was originally intended to differentiate between Renaissance polyphony and Baroque concertato style. In the 19th century a renewed interest in Renaissance polyphony coupled with an ignorance of the fact that vocal parts were often doubled by instrumentalists led to the term coming to mean unaccompanied vocal music. The term is also used, albeit rarely, as a synonym for alla breve.
What form of music was A cappella predominately used for in its early years?
572784ba708984140094dfd5
religious music
40
False
What was considered part of A cappella until the Baroque period?
572784ba708984140094dfd6
The madrigal
231
False
The madrigal became what type of form that prevented it from being accompanied with A cappella?
572784ba708984140094dfd7
instrumentally-accompanied
299
False
In what era was most of the vocal music considered A cappella?
572784ba708984140094dfd8
Renaissance
218
False
A cappella
0
What was originally used in Renaissance secular vocal music?
5a2e9838a83784001a7d240d
True
madrigal
235
What was considered part of a cappella following the Baroque period?
5a2e9838a83784001a7d240e
True
Jewish and Christian
368
What religions later incoperated a cappella into their traditions?
5a2e9838a83784001a7d240f
True
Renaissance
218
uring what period was a cappella losinging popularity as religious music?
5a2e9838a83784001a7d2410
True
in religious music
37
How was Islamic music originally used?
5a302f6cf1f7c7001ab92cae
True
the majority of secular vocal music
173
What other type of music was considered A capella from the madrigal?
5a302f6cf1f7c7001ab92caf
True
The madrigal
231
What was considered a form of A capella until the Jewish period?
5a302f6cf1f7c7001ab92cb0
True
Gregorian chant
114
What is an example of instrumentally accompanied singing?
5a302f6cf1f7c7001ab92cb1
True
the Renaissance
214
In what practice what most of the vocal music A capella?
5a302f6cf1f7c7001ab92cb2
True
A cappella music was originally used in religious music, especially church music as well as anasheed and zemirot. Gregorian chant is an example of a cappella singing, as is the majority of secular vocal music from the Renaissance. The madrigal, up until its development in the early Baroque into an instrumentally-accompanied form, is also usually in a cappella form. Jewish and Christian music were originally a cappella,[citation needed] and this practice has continued in both of these religions as well as in Islam.
Who was a known composer of A cappella music in the 15th century?
5727876f5951b619008f8c7b
Josquin des Prez
122
False
Bach was influenced by a popular A cappella composer heavily for what composition?
5727876f5951b619008f8c7c
Mass in B Minor
885
False
How many of Schutz's Easter pieces were in the A cappella style?
5727876f5951b619008f8c7d
three
1664
False
Lagrime d'amante al sepolcro dell'amata's well known A cappella composition was written in what year?
5727876f5951b619008f8c7e
1610
1137
False
Some compositions were found after which composer's death?
5727876f5951b619008f8c7f
Andrea Gabrieli
1147
False
The polyphony of Christian a cappella music
0
What began to develop in Europe during the 1500"s
5a2ecf6fa83784001a7d24bb
True
Josquin des Prez
122
Who's compositions marked the begining of secular a cappella music
5a2ecf6fa83784001a7d24bc
True
cantata
387
What did the a cappella form take the place of during the 16th century?
5a2ecf6fa83784001a7d24bd
True
Palestrina
803
What piece was heavily influenced by Bach's Mass in B MInor?
5a2ecf6fa83784001a7d24be
True
an organ
728
What accompanied the voices in Palestrina?
5a2ecf6fa83784001a7d24bf
True
The polyphony of Christian a cappella music began to develop in Europe
0
What happened to Christian music in Europe the 16th Century?
5a303122f1f7c7001ab92cb8
True
accompanied by an organ "doubling" some or all of the voices
713
How was the early piece by Josquin des Prez intended to be played?
5a303122f1f7c7001ab92cb9
True
Bach
844
What composer was Josquin des Prez a major influence on?
5a303122f1f7c7001ab92cba
True
1610
1137
When was Bach's Mass in B Minor composed?
5a303122f1f7c7001ab92cbb
True
in the oratorio style
1410
How were the pieces written by Josquin des Prez performed during Easter week?
5a303122f1f7c7001ab92cbc
True
The polyphony of Christian a cappella music began to develop in Europe around the late 15th century, with compositions by Josquin des Prez. The early a cappella polyphonies may have had an accompanying instrument, although this instrument would merely double the singers' parts and was not independent. By the 16th century, a cappella polyphony had further developed, but gradually, the cantata began to take the place of a cappella forms. 16th century a cappella polyphony, nonetheless, continued to influence church composers throughout this period and to the present day. Recent evidence has shown that some of the early pieces by Palestrina, such as what was written for the Sistine Chapel was intended to be accompanied by an organ "doubling" some or all of the voices. Such is seen in the life of Palestrina becoming a major influence on Bach, most notably in the aforementioned Mass in B Minor. Other composers that utilized the a cappella style, if only for the occasional piece, were Claudio Monteverdi and his masterpiece, Lagrime d'amante al sepolcro dell'amata (A lover's tears at his beloved's grave), which was composed in 1610, and Andrea Gabrieli when upon his death it was discovered many choral pieces, one of which was in the unaccompanied style. Learning from the preceding two composeres, Heinrich Schütz utilized the a cappella style in numerous pieces, chief among these were the pieces in the oratorio style, which were traditionally performed during the Easter week and dealt with the religious subject matter of that week, such as Christ's suffering and the Passion. Five of Schutz's Historien were Easter pieces, and of these the latter three, which dealt with the passion from three different viewpoints, those of Matthew, Luke and John, were all done a cappella style. This was a near requirement for this type of piece, and the parts of the crowd were sung while the solo parts which were the quoted parts from either Christ or the authors were performed in a plainchant.
When did Russian musika show up?
572789a1708984140094e03b
khorovïye kontsertï
668
False
khorovïye kontsertï were typically done similar to what pieces?
572789a1708984140094e03c
Venetian-styled
738
False
What bible passage gave rise to certain a cappella attitudes?
572789a1708984140094e03d
Psalms 150
447
False
Who composed a popular Venetian-styled piece in 1675?
572789a1708984140094e03e
Nikolai Diletsky
819
False
a cappella behavior
390
What is based on a brad interpritation of the Psalms?
5a2edf9ba83784001a7d250b
True
musika
590
What started appearing in Russia in the 1700's?
5a2edf9ba83784001a7d250c
True
khorovïye kontsertï
668
What was a copy of Venetian a cappella?
5a2edf9ba83784001a7d250d
True
Grammatika musikiyskaya
784
What was written by NIkolai Diletsky in the 16th century?
5a2edf9ba83784001a7d250e
True
exclusively sung without instrumental accompaniment
128
How are liturgies sung in Russian musika?
5a303316f1f7c7001ab92cc2
True
strict interpretation of Psalms 150
422
What motivates the way instrumental music is composed in the church?
5a303316f1f7c7001ab92cc3
True
the late 17th century
624
When did the Byzantine Rite of the Eastern Orothdox Church appear?
5a303316f1f7c7001ab92cc4
True
khorovïye kontsertï (choral concertos)
668
What type of music made a cappella versions of instrumental accompaniment?
5a303316f1f7c7001ab92cc5
True
Nikolai Diletsky
819
What Bishop composed Grammatika musikiyskaya in 1675?
5a303316f1f7c7001ab92cc6
True
In the Byzantine Rite of the Eastern Orthodox Church and the Eastern Catholic Churches, the music performed in the liturgies is exclusively sung without instrumental accompaniment. Bishop Kallistos Ware says, "The service is sung, even though there may be no choir... In the Orthodox Church today, as in the early Church, singing is unaccompanied and instrumental music is not found." This a cappella behavior arises from strict interpretation of Psalms 150, which states, Let every thing that hath breath praise the Lord. Praise ye the Lord. In keeping with this philosophy, early Russian musika which started appearing in the late 17th century, in what was known as khorovïye kontsertï (choral concertos) made a cappella adaptations of Venetian-styled pieces, such as the treatise, Grammatika musikiyskaya (1675), by Nikolai Diletsky. Divine Liturgies and Western Rite masses composed by famous composers such as Peter Tchaikovsky, Sergei Rachmaninoff, Alexander Arkhangelsky, and Mykola Leontovych are fine examples of this.
What is the name of the religious a cappella style used with shape notes?
57278b02708984140094e061
Sacred Harp
690
False
A cappella exists in some liturgical churches as an influence from what era?
57278b02708984140094e062
apostolic times
593
False
In the modern day, what broad religious group is most known to implement a cappella?
57278b02708984140094e063
Christian religious bodies
12
False
Old Regular Baptists, Primitive Baptists, Plymouth Brethren, Churches of Christ, the Old German Baptist Brethren
196
What are some present day Christian churces nolonger use the a capella form?
5a2ee0d6a83784001a7d2513
True
apostolic times.
593
what era influences todays secular a capella?
5a2ee0d6a83784001a7d2514
True
Sacred Harp
690
What is a secular folk music song in a capella.
5a2ee0d6a83784001a7d2515
True
Sacred Harp
690
What is the name of the Mennonite style of singing used with shape notes?
5a303543f1f7c7001ab92ccc
True
from apostolic times
588
From what time does harp folk music exist in some churches?
5a303543f1f7c7001ab92ccd
True
Old Regular Baptists, Primitive Baptists, Plymouth Brethren, Churches of Christ, the Old German Baptist Brethren,
196
What are some examples of present-day Christian churches that use instruments during worship services?
5a303543f1f7c7001ab92cce
True
the Roman Catholic Mass and the Lutheran Divine Service
491
What church services use Sacred Harp, that is a practice from apostolic times?
5a303543f1f7c7001ab92ccf
True
Christian religious bodies
12
In present times, which group is know to use shape notes in religious services?
5a303543f1f7c7001ab92cd0
True
Present-day Christian religious bodies known for conducting their worship services without musical accompaniment include some Presbyterian churches devoted to the regulative principle of worship, Old Regular Baptists, Primitive Baptists, Plymouth Brethren, Churches of Christ, the Old German Baptist Brethren, Doukhobors the Byzantine Rite and the Amish, Old Order Mennonites and Conservative Mennonites. Certain high church services and other musical events in liturgical churches (such as the Roman Catholic Mass and the Lutheran Divine Service) may be a cappella, a practice remaining from apostolic times. Many Mennonites also conduct some or all of their services without instruments. Sacred Harp, a type of folk music, is an a cappella style of religious singing with shape notes, usually sung at singing conventions.
Why were instruments more unwelcome to Christians?
57278c6cdd62a815002ea004
They were considered a Catholic innovation
76
False
What was the name of the book in which Jeanie Deans is the protagonist?
57278c6cdd62a815002ea005
The Heart of Midlothian
466
False
Who is quoted for saying instruments in religious services are like "A cow bell in a concert"
57278c6cdd62a815002ea006
Alexander Campbell
347
False
Who authored The Heart of the Midlothian?
57278c6cdd62a815002ea007
Sir Walter Scott
447
False
Instruments
0
What divides the worlds religions?
5a2ee6eea83784001a7d252d
True
Instruments
0
What was considered an Easter Catholic inovation?
5a2ee6eea83784001a7d252e
True
Instruments
0
What was first use introduced into worship in the 1800's?
5a2ee6eea83784001a7d252f
True
Protestant Reformers
219
Who opposed a capella music in worship during the 18th century?
5a2ee6eea83784001a7d2530
True
the use of an instrument in worship
378
What did Luther refer to as "a cow bell in a concert"?
5a2ee6eea83784001a7d2531
True
Instruments
0
What has divided Catholics since they have been used in worship?
5a3036ebf1f7c7001ab92cd6
True
Instruments
0
What did Catholics oppose to be used in worship?
5a3036ebf1f7c7001ab92cd7
True
referred to the use of an instrument in worship as "a cow bell in a concert"
366
What did Martin Luther mention about using instruments during church worship?
5a3036ebf1f7c7001ab92cd8
True
The Heart of Midlothian
466
What did Ulrich Zwingli write that had Jeanie Deans as the heroine?
5a3036ebf1f7c7001ab92cd9
True
Scottish Presbyterian
520
What type of religion is John Calvin a member of in the book?
5a3036ebf1f7c7001ab92cda
True
Instruments have divided Christendom since their introduction into worship. They were considered a Catholic innovation, not widely practiced until the 18th century, and were opposed vigorously in worship by a number of Protestant Reformers, including Martin Luther (1483–1546), Ulrich Zwingli, John Calvin (1509–1564) and John Wesley (1703–1791). Alexander Campbell referred to the use of an instrument in worship as "a cow bell in a concert". In Sir Walter Scott's The Heart of Midlothian, the heroine, Jeanie Deans, a Scottish Presbyterian, writes to her father about the church situation she has found in England (bold added):
What does the rejection of instruments in Christian music likely stem from?
57279bfadd62a815002ea1e6
an interpretation of history
211
False
During what time is there no record of Christians using instruments for worship?
57279bfadd62a815002ea1e7
33 AD to 180AD
365
False
At what point did instruments begin to receive condemnation from Christians?
57279bfadd62a815002ea1e8
the 2nd century
486
False
For what reason do modern Christians continue to oppose the use of instruments?
57279bfadd62a815002ea1e9
Church Fathers had a better understanding of God's desire for the church
608
False
Christian
66
What scriptures make negative judgments about instruments?
5a2ee886a83784001a7d254b
True
Christian scriptures
66
What scriptures does opposition to instruments come from?
5a2ee886a83784001a7d254c
True
33 AD to 180AD
365
During what time is there evidence of Christians using instruments for worship?
5a2ee886a83784001a7d254d
True
instruments themselves
535
What did Christians condone starting in the 2nd century?
5a2ee886a83784001a7d254e
True
Church Fathers
768
Whose teachings are in line with today's opposition to instruments?
5a2ee886a83784001a7d254f
True
(33 AD to 180AD)
364
During what time period was opposition to instruments being used in all settings discovered?
5a3038f8f1f7c7001ab92ce0
True
an interpretation of history
211
Where does rejection of using instruments according to God's will come from?
5a3038f8f1f7c7001ab92ce1
True
(33 AD to 180AD)
364
When is information about the use of instruments for Christian worship written?
5a3038f8f1f7c7001ab92ce2
True
the instruments themselves
531
What did Christians condemn from 33 AD to 180 AD?
5a3038f8f1f7c7001ab92ce3
True
a better understanding of God's desire for the church
627
What do Church Fathers believe today about using instruments?
5a3038f8f1f7c7001ab92ce4
True
Those who subscribe to this interpretation believe that since the Christian scriptures never counter instrumental language with any negative judgment on instruments, opposition to instruments instead comes from an interpretation of history. There is no written opposition to musical instruments in any setting in the first century and a half of Christian churches (33 AD to 180AD). The use of instruments for Christian worship during this period is also undocumented. Toward the end of the 2nd century, Christians began condemning the instruments themselves. Those who oppose instruments today believe these Church Fathers had a better understanding of God's desire for the church,[citation needed] but there are significant differences between the teachings of these Church Fathers and Christian opposition to instruments today.
On what day is using musical instruments not allowed?
5727a03f3acd2414000de837
Sabbath
357
False
In what style do Jewish families typically sing Sabbath songs?
5727a03f3acd2414000de838
a cappella
738
False
What is a cappella music occasionally called among those of Jewish faith?
5727a03f3acd2414000de839
sefirah music
1180
False
How many days are counted between Passover and Shavuot?
5727a03f3acd2414000de83a
49
954
False
What is part of the time between Passover and Shavuot thought to be?
5727a03f3acd2414000de83b
a time of semi-mourning
1031
False
Temple in Jerusalem
21
What Temple forbade the use of instruments?
5a2eeab2a83784001a7d255f
True
musical instruments
225
What was included in tradition Jewish services in synagogues?
5a2eeab2a83784001a7d2560
True
The use of musical instruments
292
What is forbidden on the Sabbath because it was considered work?
5a2eeab2a83784001a7d2561
True
The use of musical instruments
292
What prhabition has been relaxed in many traditional Jewish congregations?
5a2eeab2a83784001a7d2562
True
instrumental music
1059
What type of music is forbidden during Passover?
5a2eeab2a83784001a7d2563
True
musical instruments
50
What did traditional Jewish religious services in the Synagogue include?
5a303a45f1f7c7001ab92cea
True
The use of musical instruments
292
What is forbidden in Jerusalem?
5a303a45f1f7c7001ab92ceb
True
outside the context of formal religious services
669
When do Jewish families use musical instruments when singing Sabbath songs?
5a303a45f1f7c7001ab92cec
True
During the Three Weeks
859
During what time is zemirot prohibited?
5a303a45f1f7c7001ab92ced
True
a cappella ensembles
837
What kind of entertainment happens on the Sabbath for zemirot?
5a303a45f1f7c7001ab92cee
True
While worship in the Temple in Jerusalem included musical instruments (2 Chronicles 29:25–27), traditional Jewish religious services in the Synagogue, both before and after the last destruction of the Temple, did not include musical instruments given the practice of scriptural cantillation. The use of musical instruments is traditionally forbidden on the Sabbath out of concern that players would be tempted to repair (or tune) their instruments, which is forbidden on those days. (This prohibition has been relaxed in many Reform and some Conservative congregations.) Similarly, when Jewish families and larger groups sing traditional Sabbath songs known as zemirot outside the context of formal religious services, they usually do so a cappella, and Bar and Bat Mitzvah celebrations on the Sabbath sometimes feature entertainment by a cappella ensembles. During the Three Weeks musical instruments are prohibited. Many Jews consider a portion of the 49-day period of the counting of the omer between Passover and Shavuot to be a time of semi-mourning and instrumental music is not allowed during that time. This has led to a tradition of a cappella singing sometimes known as sefirah music.
What is the name of the philosopher who praised music without instruments?
5727a4444b864d190016391a
Philo
94
False
What did Philo's views on the absence of instruments clash with?
5727a4444b864d190016391b
Jewish scriptures
305
False
What is the one instrument still in use today by the synagogue?
5727a4444b864d190016391c
shofar
416
False
The shofar stops being used at the end of what Jewish event?
5727a4444b864d190016391d
Yom Kippur
556
False
How is the shofar used?
5727a4444b864d190016391e
by itself, without any vocal accompaniment
587
False
Philo
94
Who popularized Greek chant?
5a2eec15a83784001a7d2573
True
praise without instruments
172
What did Philo promote in 20 BCE?
5a2eec15a83784001a7d2574
True
Philo
157
Who taught that a capella was the best form of whorship?
5a2eec15a83784001a7d2575
True
God's
372
Who commanded Christians to offer praise with instruments?
5a2eec15a83784001a7d2576
True
vocal
610
What kind of accompaniment is used with the shofar?
5a2eec15a83784001a7d2577
True
20 BCE
106
When was the Greek philosopher Philo born?
5a303d02f1f7c7001ab92cf4
True
The shofar
412
What Jewish chant is still being used today in the synagogue?
5a303d02f1f7c7001ab92cf5
True
from Rosh Chodesh Elul through the end of Yom Kippur
514
During what periods of time is silent singing used in the synagogue?
5a303d02f1f7c7001ab92cf6
True
by itself, without any vocal accompaniment
587
How is silent singing used when practiced in a synagogue service?
5a303d02f1f7c7001ab92cf7
True
the Jewish chant
22
What did Rosh Chodesh Elul write about that became popular?
5a303d02f1f7c7001ab92cf8
True
The popularization of the Jewish chant may be found in the writings of the Jewish philosopher Philo, born 20 BCE. Weaving together Jewish and Greek thought, Philo promoted praise without instruments, and taught that "silent singing" (without even vocal chords) was better still. This view parted with the Jewish scriptures, where Israel offered praise with instruments by God's own command (2 Chronicles 29:25). The shofar is the only temple instrument still being used today in the synagogue, and it is only used from Rosh Chodesh Elul through the end of Yom Kippur. The shofar is used by itself, without any vocal accompaniment, and is limited to a very strictly defined set of sounds and specific places in the synagogue service.
When did a cappella begin to take hold in the United States?
5727a9504b864d19001639cc
1911
98
False
What was the name of the choir F. Mellus Christiansen used?
5727a9504b864d19001639cd
The St. Olaf College Choir
199
False
How many singers are typically in the choirs?
5727a9504b864d19001639ce
40 to 80
909
False
Who did the St. Olaf Choir influence?
5727a9504b864d19001639cf
other regional conductors
468
False
a cappella
23
What tradition was started in the western US?
5a2eeeb0a83784001a7d2591
True
F. Melius Christiansen
106
Who spoke against a cappella in 1911?
5a2eeeb0a83784001a7d2592
True
The success of the ensemble
424
What was emulated by other conductors across the country?
5a2eeeb0a83784001a7d2593
True
blend, intonation, phrasing and pitch
974
What do a capella choirs struggle to perfect in a large choral setting?
5a2eeeb0a83784001a7d2594
True
F. Melius Christiansen
106
Who started a prominent choir in 1911?
5a303fbff1f7c7001ab92cfe
True
St. Olaf College
156
At what college was F. Melius Christiansen a student?
5a303fbff1f7c7001ab92cff
True
the local St. John's Lutheran Church
261
What church was Augsburg College connected to?
5a303fbff1f7c7001ab92d00
True
other regional conductors
468
Who did Wartburg College influence?
5a303fbff1f7c7001ab92d01
True
40 to 80
909
How many singers are in a cappella?
5a303fbff1f7c7001ab92d02
True
A strong and prominent a cappella tradition was begun in the midwest part of the United States in 1911 by F. Melius Christiansen, a music faculty member at St. Olaf College in Northfield, Minnesota. The St. Olaf College Choir was established as an outgrowth of the local St. John's Lutheran Church, where Christiansen was organist and the choir was composed, at least partially, of students from the nearby St. Olaf campus. The success of the ensemble was emulated by other regional conductors, and a rich tradition of a cappella choral music was born in the region at colleges like Concordia College (Moorhead, Minnesota), Augustana College (Rock Island, Illinois), Wartburg College (Waverly, Iowa), Luther College (Decorah, Iowa), Gustavus Adolphus College (St. Peter, Minnesota), Augustana College (Sioux Falls, South Dakota), and Augsburg College (Minneapolis, Minnesota). The choirs typically range from 40 to 80 singers and are recognized for their efforts to perfect blend, intonation, phrasing and pitch in a large choral setting.
What a cappella group rose to popularity in 1943?
5727ac192ca10214002d9358
The Song Spinners
126
False
What was boycotted by American musicians in 1943?
5727ac192ca10214002d9359
US recording studios
77
False
Who is credited for first introducing elements of Jazz into a cappella?
5727ac192ca10214002d935a
The Hi-Los and the Four Freshmen
250
False
What number one song was covered by an a cappella group in 1983?
5727ac192ca10214002d935b
"Only You"
599
False
During and after the 80's, what helped a cappella music rise in popularity?
5727ac192ca10214002d935c
the success of Top 40 recordings
695
False
the American Federation of Musicians
29
Who boycotted concerts in 1943?
5a2eefe2a83784001a7d25a3
True
The Hi-Los and the Four Freshmen
250
Who introduced jazz harmonies to a capella in the 40's?
5a2eefe2a83784001a7d25a4
True
Only You
600
What number one hit did Yazoo have in 1983?
5a2eefe2a83784001a7d25a5
True
A cappella music
611
What gained renewed intrest the 1950's?
5a2eefe2a83784001a7d25a6
True
a best-seller
148
What did The Song Spinners have in the 1950's?
5a3040d2f1f7c7001ab92d08
True
"Comin' In On A Wing And A Prayer"
167
What was the name of The Song Spinners best seller in the 1950's?
5a3040d2f1f7c7001ab92d09
True
In the 1950s
203
When did the American Federation of Musicians introduce jazz to a cappella?
5a3040d2f1f7c7001ab92d0a
True
interest in small-group a cappella performances
393
In 1983 what did The King's Singers promote?
5a3040d2f1f7c7001ab92d0b
True
renewed prominence
637
What did A cappella gain in July 1943?
5a3040d2f1f7c7001ab92d0c
True
In July 1943, as a result of the American Federation of Musicians boycott of US recording studios, the a cappella vocal group The Song Spinners had a best-seller with "Comin' In On A Wing And A Prayer". In the 1950s several recording groups, notably The Hi-Los and the Four Freshmen, introduced complex jazz harmonies to a cappella performances. The King's Singers are credited with promoting interest in small-group a cappella performances in the 1960s. In 1983 an a cappella group known as The Flying Pickets had a Christmas 'number one' in the UK with a cover of Yazoo's (known in the US as Yaz) "Only You". A cappella music attained renewed prominence from the late 1980s onward, spurred by the success of Top 40 recordings by artists such as The Manhattan Transfer, Bobby McFerrin, Huey Lewis and the News, All-4-One, The Nylons, Backstreet Boys and Boyz II Men.[citation needed]
In place of instruments, what do some modern a cappella groups implement?
5727ae364b864d1900163a1e
vocal percussion
69
False
Where does a cappella still maintain a heavy presence?
5727ae364b864d1900163a1f
Christian music
370
False
In a cappella, what do the voices not contributing lead vocals or a bass line contribute?
5727ae364b864d1900163a20
chordal or polyphonic accompaniment
703
False
vocal percussion or beatboxing
69
What has been added to contemporary instrumental music?
5a2ef0e3a83784001a7d25ab
True
Straight No Chaser, Pentatonix, The House Jacks, Rockapella, Mosaic, and M-pact.
234
What are examples of instrumental bands?
5a2ef0e3a83784001a7d25ac
True
a cappella
343
What has maintained a strong presence in all types of worship?
5a2ef0e3a83784001a7d25ad
True
one voice singing the lead melody, one singing a rhythmic bass line, and the remaining voices contributing chordal or polyphonic accompaniment
596
What do arrangments for popular secular music include?
5a2ef0e3a83784001a7d25ae
True
Contemporary a cappella
0
What music type includes bands who add instruments to create a pop/rock/gospel sound?
5a304406f1f7c7001ab92d12
True
some denominations
390
In Christian music who uses beatboxing during worship?
5a304406f1f7c7001ab92d13
True
vocal percussion or beatboxing
69
What do some a cappella groups use instead of chordal accompanyment?
5a304406f1f7c7001ab92d14
True
within Christian music
363
Where does one voice singing still remain strong?
5a304406f1f7c7001ab92d15
True
some denominations
390
What groups don't use vocal percussion during worship?
5a304406f1f7c7001ab92d16
True
Contemporary a cappella includes many vocal groups and bands who add vocal percussion or beatboxing to create a pop/rock/gospel sound, in some cases very similar to bands with instruments. Examples of such professional groups include Straight No Chaser, Pentatonix, The House Jacks, Rockapella, Mosaic, and M-pact. There also remains a strong a cappella presence within Christian music, as some denominations purposefully do not use instruments during worship. Examples of such groups are Take 6, Glad and Acappella. Arrangements of popular music for small a cappella ensembles typically include one voice singing the lead melody, one singing a rhythmic bass line, and the remaining voices contributing chordal or polyphonic accompaniment.
How many works of a cappella in musical theater have been successful in Off-Broadway productions?
5727af6c3acd2414000de9a3
four
186
False
What was the name of the a cappella musical that first opened 28 January 1994?
5727af6c3acd2414000de9a4
Avenue X
212
False
What time period was Avenue X set in?
5727af6c3acd2414000de9a5
the 1960s
492
False
What was the final number of performances in Avenue X's original run?
5727af6c3acd2414000de9a6
77
265
False
Who was responsible for the lyrics of Avenue X?
5727af6c3acd2414000de9a7
Ray Leslee
367
False
A cappella
0
What has been used in musical theater on Broadway?
5a2ef1b8a83784001a7d25bd
True
Avenue X
212
What performance was the first to use a cappella on Broadway?
5a2ef1b8a83784001a7d25be
True
Avenue X
212
What show had 77 performances on Broadway?
5a2ef1b8a83784001a7d25bf
True
Avenue X
212
What did John Jiler write the lyrics for?
5a304548f1f7c7001ab92d1c
True
Avenue X
212
What did Ray Leslee produce?
5a304548f1f7c7001ab92d1d
True
28 January 1994
237
When Playwrights Horizons first open in an Off-Broadway theater?
5a304548f1f7c7001ab92d1e
True
77
265
For how many performances did Playwrights Horizons run?
5a304548f1f7c7001ab92d1f
True
Doo-Wop
431
What was the musical style of Playwrights Horizon's score?
5a304548f1f7c7001ab92d20
True
A cappella has been used as the sole orchestration for original works of musical theater that have had commercial runs Off-Broadway (theaters in New York City with 99 to 500 seats) only four times. The first was Avenue X which opened on 28 January 1994 and ran for 77 performances. It was produced by Playwrights Horizons with book by John Jiler, music and lyrics by Ray Leslee. The musical style of the show's score was primarily Doo-Wop as the plot revolved around Doo-Wop group singers of the 1960s.
What Off-Broadway theater did Perfect Harmony open at?
5727b0c94b864d1900163a78
Theatre Row’s Acorn Theatre
160
False
Before coming to New York, at what theater had Perfect Harmony previously been successful?
5727b0c94b864d1900163a79
Stoneham Theatre
279
False
Perfect Harmony has been called a combination of which two musicals?
5727b0c94b864d1900163a7a
Altar Boyz and The 25th Annual Putnam County Spelling Bee.
611
False
In what month was Perfect Harmony's Off-Brodway debut?
5727b0c94b864d1900163a7b
October
223
False
What genre best describes Perfect Harmony?
5727b0c94b864d1900163a7c
comedy
42
False
Theatre Row’s Acorn Theatre
160
What Broadway theater did Perfect Harmony open at?
5a2ef31fa83784001a7d25cd
True
Perfect Harmony
23
What drama was based on two a cappella groups?
5a2ef31fa83784001a7d25ce
True
The Jackson 5, Pat Benatar, Billy Idol, Marvin Gaye, Scandal, Tiffany, The Romantics, The Pretenders,
367
Who's music influenced Perfect Harmoney
5a2ef31fa83784001a7d25cf
True
a cross between Altar Boyz and The 25th Annual Putnam County Spelling Bee
595
What have The Romantics been compared to?
5a30468ef1f7c7001ab92d26
True
Theatre Row’s Acorn Theatre
160
What Off-Broadway theater did Pat Benatar open at?
5a30468ef1f7c7001ab92d27
True
Stoneham Theatre
279
Before New York, at what other theater was Billy Idol successful?
5a30468ef1f7c7001ab92d28
True
October, 2010
223
When was The Jackson 5's debut Off-Broadway?
5a30468ef1f7c7001ab92d29
True
comedy
42
What type of genre describes The Partridge Family?
5a30468ef1f7c7001ab92d2a
True
The a cappella musical Perfect Harmony, a comedy about two high school a cappella groups vying to win the National championship, made its Off Broadway debut at Theatre Row’s Acorn Theatre on 42nd Street in New York City in October, 2010 after a successful out-of-town run at the Stoneham Theatre, in Stoneham, Massachusetts. Perfect Harmony features the hit music of The Jackson 5, Pat Benatar, Billy Idol, Marvin Gaye, Scandal, Tiffany, The Romantics, The Pretenders, The Temptations, The Contours, The Commodores, Tommy James & the Shondells and The Partridge Family, and has been compared to a cross between Altar Boyz and The 25th Annual Putnam County Spelling Bee.
What is the name of the a cappella musical that debuted Off-Broadway in the same year as Perfect Harmony?
5727b2003acd2414000de9f7
In Transit
54
False
Where does most of In Transit take place?
5727b2003acd2414000de9f8
the New York City subway system
251
False
What a cappella vocal style is implemented in many of In Transit's songs?
5727b2003acd2414000de9f9
beat boxing
419
False
How many Lucille Lortel Awards was In Transit nominated for?
5727b2003acd2414000de9fa
four
766
False
What is the name of the actor who played the subway beat boxer?
5727b2003acd2414000de9fb
Chesney Snow
548
False
In Transit
54
What role is set in the NY subway system?
5a304865f1f7c7001ab92d30
True
5 October 2010
76
When did Chesney Snow premier Off-Broadway?
5a304865f1f7c7001ab92d31
True
Kristen Anderson-Lopez, James-Allen Ford, Russ Kaplan, and Sara Wordsworth
158
Who were involved in the production of Primary Stages?
5a304865f1f7c7001ab92d32
True
vocal beat boxing
413
What does Russ Kaplan incorporate in his performance?
5a304865f1f7c7001ab92d33
True
in the Fall of 2011
713
When is Primary Stages set to reopen according to the website?
5a304865f1f7c7001ab92d34
True
The fourth a cappella musical to appear Off-Broadway, In Transit, premiered 5 October 2010 and was produced by Primary Stages with book, music, and lyrics by Kristen Anderson-Lopez, James-Allen Ford, Russ Kaplan, and Sara Wordsworth. Set primarily in the New York City subway system its score features an eclectic mix of musical genres (including jazz, hip hop, Latin, rock, and country). In Transit incorporates vocal beat boxing into its contemporary a cappella arrangements through the use of a subway beat boxer character. Beat boxer and actor Chesney Snow performed this role for the 2010 Primary Stages production. According to the show's website, it is scheduled to reopen for an open-ended commercial run in the Fall of 2011. In 2011 the production received four Lucille Lortel Award nominations including Outstanding Musical, Outer Critics Circle and Drama League nominations, as well as five Drama Desk nominations including Outstanding Musical and won for Outstanding Ensemble Performance.
What type of a cappella music is specific to American culture?
5727b6c44b864d1900163b1a
Barbershop music
0
False
What did the a cappella organization founded in 1938 change its name to in 2004?
5727b6c44b864d1900163b1b
Barbershop Harmony Society
470
False
How many people currently have membership to the BHS?
5727b6c44b864d1900163b1c
over 22,000
522
False
What racial group was primarily involved in babershop a cappella in its earliest days?
5727b6c44b864d1900163b1d
African Americans
128
False
What were the initials of the BHS before it changes its name in 2004?
5727b6c44b864d1900163b1e
S.P.E.B.S.Q.S.A
377
False
Barbershop music
0
What is one uniquely African art form?
5a3049aaf1f7c7001ab92d3a
True
in barbershops
190
In 1938 where did documented quartets begin?
5a3049aaf1f7c7001ab92d3b
True
the first formal men's barbershop organization
215
What group was formed in 2004?
5a3049aaf1f7c7001ab92d3c
True
the Society for the Preservation and Encouragement of Barber Shop Quartet Singing in America (S.P.E.B.S.Q.S.A)
283
What is the name of the barbershop group formed in 2004?
5a3049aaf1f7c7001ab92d3d
True
the Barbershop Harmony Society (BHS)
466
What did the barbershop group change its name to officially in 1938?
5a3049aaf1f7c7001ab92d3e
True
Barbershop music is one of several uniquely American art forms. The earliest reports of this style of a cappella music involved African Americans. The earliest documented quartets all began in barbershops. In 1938, the first formal men's barbershop organization was formed, known as the Society for the Preservation and Encouragement of Barber Shop Quartet Singing in America (S.P.E.B.S.Q.S.A), and in 2004 rebranded itself and officially changed its public name to the Barbershop Harmony Society (BHS). Today the BHS has over 22,000 members in approximately 800 chapters across the United States, and the barbershop style has spread around the world with organizations in many other countries. The Barbershop Harmony Society provides a highly organized competition structure for a cappella quartets and choruses singing in the barbershop style.
What is the name of the first female barbershop organization?
5727b82e4b864d1900163b58
Sweet Adelines
59
False
When did the Sweet Adelines change their name to acknowledge their international reach?
5727b82e4b864d1900163b59
1991
221
False
How many women are members of the Sweet Adelines?
5727b82e4b864d1900163b5a
nearly 25,000
245
False
Where is the Sweet Adelines HQ?
5727b82e4b864d1900163b5b
Tulsa, Oklahoma
494
False
In what year did the Sweet Adelines become an international group?
5727b82e4b864d1900163b5c
1953
90
False
Sweet Adelines
59
What group was formed in 1953?
5a304ac6f1f7c7001ab92d44
True
Sweet Adelines International
186
In 1945 what did Sweet Adelines change its name to?
5a304ac6f1f7c7001ab92d45
True
25,000
252
How many women from Japan are members of the Sweet Adelines?
5a304ac6f1f7c7001ab92d46
True
600
580
How many Australian choruses are registered with the organization?
5a304ac6f1f7c7001ab92d47
True
1953
90
In what year did Sweet Adelines become a German organization?
5a304ac6f1f7c7001ab92d48
True
In 1945, the first formal women's barbershop organization, Sweet Adelines, was formed. In 1953 Sweet Adelines became an international organization, although it didn't change its name to Sweet Adelines International until 1991. The membership of nearly 25,000 women, all singing in English, includes choruses in most of the fifty United States as well as in Australia, Canada, England, Finland, Germany, Ireland, Japan, New Zealand, Scotland, Sweden, Wales and the Netherlands. Headquartered in Tulsa, Oklahoma, the organization encompasses more than 1,200 registered quartets and 600 choruses.
What is the name of the Swedish man known for being a large influence to a cappella across the world?
5727ba1bff5b5019007d938e
Eric Ericson
275
False
Which music school began the implementation of high musical standards?
5727ba1bff5b5019007d938f
Adolf Fredrik's Music School
650
False
What portion of the Swedish population engages in a cappella singing?
5727ba1bff5b5019007d9390
5%
202
False
Who describes the many reasons for Sweden's heavy involvement in a cappella?
5727ba1bff5b5019007d9391
Richard Sparks
65
False
there is a long-standing tradition, an unsusually large proportion of the populations (5% is often cited) regularly sing in choirs
115
What does Eric Erickson explain about Swedish dominance in choirs?
5a304cb2f1f7c7001ab92d4e
True
a cappella choral development
314
What did Richard Sparks influence in Sweden and world wide?
5a304cb2f1f7c7001ab92d4f
True
a large number of very popular primary and secondary schools
407
What has high admission standards based on tradition?
5a304cb2f1f7c7001ab92d50
True
Adolf Fredrik's Music School
650
What a cappella group began implementing high music standards?
5a304cb2f1f7c7001ab92d51
True
5%
202
What percentage of the world takes part in a cappella singing?
5a304cb2f1f7c7001ab92d52
True
The reasons for the strong Swedish dominance are as explained by Richard Sparks manifold; suffice to say here that there is a long-standing tradition, an unsusually large proportion of the populations (5% is often cited) regularly sing in choirs, the Swedish choral director Eric Ericson had an enormous impact on a cappella choral development not only in Sweden but around the world, and finally there are a large number of very popular primary and secondary schools (music schools) with high admission standards based on auditions that combine a rigid academic regimen with high level choral singing on every school day, a system that started with Adolf Fredrik's Music School in Stockholm in 1939 but has spread over the country.
What is the previous name of oldest recorded college a cappella group?
5727bd833acd2414000deb1d
RPI Glee Club
135
False
What prominent composer was once a member of The Whiffenpoofs?
5727bd833acd2414000deb1e
Cole Porter
384
False
What is the name of the a capella group that was a parody of The Whiffenpoofs?
5727bd833acd2414000deb1f
the Smiffenpoofs of Smith College
999
False
What is the name of the college a capella event that's been held since 1975?
5727bd833acd2414000deb20
Georgetown Chimes' Cherry Tree Massacre
1561
False
What well-known musician was once part of the college a capella group The Counterparts?
5727bd833acd2414000deb21
John Legend
1916
False
Cole Porter
384
Who was formerly a member of The Rensselyrics of Rensselaer Polytechnic Institute?
5a304eb5f1f7c7001ab92d58
True
The Whiffenpoofs of Yale University
304
What group was formed in 1873 and is is the longest continually singing group?
5a304eb5f1f7c7001ab92d59
True
throughout the 20th century
443
During what time period did continuously-singing groups grow?
5a304eb5f1f7c7001ab92d5a
True
the men's groups
981
What were The Whiffenpoofs of Yale University often a parody of?
5a304eb5f1f7c7001ab92d5b
True
beginning in the 1990s
1196
When did women's groups popularity explode?
5a304eb5f1f7c7001ab92d5c
True
It is not clear exactly where collegiate a cappella began. The Rensselyrics of Rensselaer Polytechnic Institute (formerly known as the RPI Glee Club), established in 1873 is perhaps the oldest known collegiate a cappella group.[citation needed] However the longest continuously-singing group is probably The Whiffenpoofs of Yale University, which was formed in 1909 and once included Cole Porter as a member. Collegiate a cappella groups grew throughout the 20th century. Some notable historical groups formed along the way include Princeton University's Tigertones (1946), Colgate University's The Colgate 13 (1942), Dartmouth College's Aires (1946), Cornell University's Cayuga's Waiters (1949) and The Hangovers (1968), the University of Maine Maine Steiners (1958), the Columbia University Kingsmen (1949), the Jabberwocks of Brown University (1949), and the University of Rochester YellowJackets (1956). All-women a cappella groups followed shortly, frequently as a parody of the men's groups: the Smiffenpoofs of Smith College (1936), The Shwiffs of Connecticut College (The She-Whiffenpoofs, 1944), and The Chattertocks of Brown University (1951). A cappella groups exploded in popularity beginning in the 1990s, fueled in part by a change in style popularized by the Tufts University Beelzebubs and the Boston University Dear Abbeys. The new style used voices to emulate modern rock instruments, including vocal percussion/"beatboxing". Some larger universities now have multiple groups. Groups often join one another in on-campus concerts, such as the Georgetown Chimes' Cherry Tree Massacre, a 3-weekend a cappella festival held each February since 1975, where over a hundred collegiate groups have appeared, as well as International Quartet Champions The Boston Common and the contemporary commercial a cappella group Rockapella. Co-ed groups have produced many up-and-coming and major artists, including John Legend, an alumnus of the Counterparts at the University of Pennsylvania, and Sara Bareilles, an alumna of Awaken A Cappella at University of California, Los Angeles. Mira Sorvino is an alumna of the Harvard-Radcliffe Veritones of Harvard College where she had the solo on Only You by Yaz.
Whas is the name of the ethnic a capella group founded at the University of Pennsylvania in 1996?
5727bf0c3acd2414000deb4b
Penn Masala
157
False
Among which group is a capella becoming more prominent?
5727bf0c3acd2414000deb4c
South Asians
39
False
What is the name of the first South Asian a capella group to accept both men and women?
5727bf0c3acd2414000deb4d
Anokha
332
False
What a capella competition is hosted at UC Berkeley?
5727bf0c3acd2414000deb4e
Anahat
457
False
What group hosts the a capella competition "Sa Re Ga Ma Pella"?
5727bf0c3acd2414000deb4f
Maize Mirchi
529
False
A cappella
0
What is gaining in popularity among Anokha?
5a3051dbf1f7c7001ab92d62
True
Penn Masala
157
What was the first Midwest a cappella group?
5a3051dbf1f7c7001ab92d63
True
Hindi-English College groups
84
What kind of groups are emerging among various groups from the Midwest?
5a3051dbf1f7c7001ab92d64
True
2001
383
When was the first Maize Mirchi formed from the University of Maryland?
5a3051dbf1f7c7001ab92d65
True
Dil se
395
Who hosts the Penn Masala competition at the University of California?
5a3051dbf1f7c7001ab92d66
True
A cappella is gaining popularity among South Asians with the emergence of primarily Hindi-English College groups. The first South Asian a cappella group was Penn Masala, founded in 1996 at the University of Pennsylvania. Co-ed South Asian a cappella groups are also gaining in popularity. The first co-ed south Asian a cappella was Anokha, from the University of Maryland, formed in 2001. Also, Dil se, another co-ed a cappella from UC Berkeley, hosts the "Anahat" competition at the University of California, Berkeley annually. Maize Mirchi, the co-ed a cappella group from the University of Michigan hosts "Sa Re Ga Ma Pella", an annual South Asian a cappella invitational with various groups from the Midwest.
What popular a capella competition is not specific to college groups?
5727c0a83acd2414000deba1
Harmony Sweepstakes
324
False
Aside from the monetary reward, what was offered to the winner of The Sing-Off?
5727c0a83acd2414000deba2
a recording contract with Epic Records/Sony Music
565
False
What is the name of the group that won The Sing-Off?
5727c0a83acd2414000deba3
Nota
746
False
Who won The Sing-Off final season?
5727c0a83acd2414000deba4
Pentatonix
822
False
In The Sing-Off, where did the groups not from the United States come from?
5727c0a83acd2414000deba5
Puerto Rico
517
False
December 2009
363
When did the  A Cappella Recording Awards air on NBC?
5a305c33f1f7c7001ab92d6c
True
$100,000 and a recording contract with Epic Records/Sony Music
552
What prize did Ben Folds win on The Sing-Off tv competition series?
5a305c33f1f7c7001ab92d6d
True
The Sing-Off
421
What show was judged by Harmony Sweepstakes?
5a305c33f1f7c7001ab92d6e
True
eight
466
How many groups were competing for the prize from the Contemporary A Cappella Recording Awards?
5a305c33f1f7c7001ab92d6f
True
Pentatonix
822
Who won the Contemporary A Cappella Society final season?
5a305c33f1f7c7001ab92d70
True
Increased interest in modern a cappella (particularly collegiate a cappella) can be seen in the growth of awards such as the Contemporary A Cappella Recording Awards (overseen by the Contemporary A Cappella Society) and competitions such as the International Championship of Collegiate A Cappella for college groups and the Harmony Sweepstakes for all groups. In December 2009, a new television competition series called The Sing-Off aired on NBC. The show featured eight a cappella groups from the United States and Puerto Rico vying for the prize of $100,000 and a recording contract with Epic Records/Sony Music. The show was judged by Ben Folds, Shawn Stockman, and Nicole Scherzinger and was won by an all-male group from Puerto Rico called Nota. The show returned for a second and third season, won by Committed and Pentatonix, respectively.
What do some a capella groups do other than sing words?
5727c2794b864d1900163ca4
emulate instrumentation
59
False
What a capella group is credited for being one of the earliest to adapt instrumental emulation?
5727c2794b864d1900163ca5
The Mills Brothers
219
False
What types of music did the Swingle Singers implement instrumental emulation for?
5727c2794b864d1900163ca6
Baroque and Classical music
819
False
What is the name of the ABC Family show whose theme is entirely a capella?
5727c2794b864d1900163ca7
The New Addams Family
586
False
The Mills Brothers
219
What groups recordings in the 1960's stated all instruments were done vocally?
5a307be3f1f7c7001ab92d76
True
Tompkins Square
466
On what series did the Swingle Singers sing Twilight Zone in a cappella?
5a307be3f1f7c7001ab92d77
True
the theme song for The New Addams Family series
567
What is another example of emulating Bobby McFerrin without singing the words?
5a307be3f1f7c7001ab92d78
True
Vocal Sampling and Undivided
670
What early recordings emulate Latin rhythms in a cappella?
5a307be3f1f7c7001ab92d79
True
his instrumental emulation
890
In the 1930's what was Bobby McFerrin famous for?
5a307be3f1f7c7001ab92d7a
True
In addition to singing words, some a cappella singers also emulate instrumentation by reproducing instrumental sounds with their vocal cords and mouth. One of the earliest 20th century practitioners of this method were The Mills Brothers whose early recordings of the 1930s clearly stated on the label that all instrumentation was done vocally. More recently, "Twilight Zone" by 2 Unlimited was sung a cappella to the instrumentation on the comedy television series Tompkins Square. Another famous example of emulating instrumentation instead of singing the words is the theme song for The New Addams Family series on Fox Family Channel (now ABC Family). Groups such as Vocal Sampling and Undivided emulate Latin rhythms a cappella. In the 1960s, the Swingle Singers used their voices to emulate musical instruments to Baroque and Classical music. Vocal artist Bobby McFerrin is famous for his instrumental emulation. A cappella group Naturally Seven recreates entire songs using vocal tones for every instrument.
What did the Swingle Singers primarily use to emulate musical instruments?
5727c4324b864d1900163cc2
nonsense words
25
False
What is another term for beatboxing?
5727c4324b864d1900163cc3
vocal percussion
251
False
What was used to make an a capella recording of The Who Sell Out?
5727c4324b864d1900163cc4
a four-track recorder
540
False
What car manufacturer hired Petra Haden to perform a capella songs in commercials for their car?
5727c4324b864d1900163cc5
Toyota
880
False
On what website can many a capella groups' music be listened to?
5727c4324b864d1900163cc6
YouTube
205
False
nonsense words
25
What did the Beach Boys use so they would sound like instruments?
5a308bcaf1f7c7001ab92dbc
True
vocal percussion
407
What added new dimensions to nonsense words?
5a308bcaf1f7c7001ab92dbd
True
Michael Jackson's "Thriller"
841
What is one song version The Swingle Singers released in 2005?
5a308bcaf1f7c7001ab92dbe
True
the third-generation Toyota Prius
960
What did Toyota hire The Bellamy Brothers to advertise in their commercials?
5a308bcaf1f7c7001ab92dbf
True
a four-track recorder
540
What was used by Journey to make an a cappella recording of The Who Sells Out?
5a308bcaf1f7c7001ab92dc0
True
The Swingle Singers used nonsense words to sound like instruments, but have been known to produce non-verbal versions of musical instruments. Like the other groups, examples of their music can be found on YouTube. Beatboxing, more accurately known as vocal percussion, is a technique used in a cappella music popularized by the hip-hop community, where rap is often performed a cappella also. The advent of vocal percussion added new dimensions to the a cappella genre and has become very prevalent in modern arrangements. Petra Haden used a four-track recorder to produce an a cappella version of The Who Sell Out including the instruments and fake advertisements on her album Petra Haden Sings: The Who Sell Out in 2005. Haden has also released a cappella versions of Journey's "Don't Stop Believin'", The Beach Boys' "God Only Knows" and Michael Jackson's "Thriller". In 2009, Toyota commissioned Haden to perform three songs for television commercials for the third-generation Toyota Prius, including an a cappella version of The Bellamy Brothers' 1970s song "Let Your Love Flow".[citation needed]
Dominican_Order
What is the Latin for Order of Preachers?
572783e85951b619008f8bf9
Ordo Praedicatorum
31
False
What Pope approved of the Order of Preachers?
572783e85951b619008f8bfa
Pope Honorius III
292
False
After the 15th century, what was the Order of Preachers known as?
572783e85951b619008f8bfb
the Dominican Order
141
False
What religion does the Dominican Order belong to?
572783e85951b619008f8bfc
Roman Catholic
181
False
What Spanish Priest founded the Order of Preachers?
572783e85951b619008f8bfd
Saint Dominic de Guzman
242
False
Dominican Order or Dominicans
145
What was the Order of Preachers more commonly known as after the 16th century?
5ad2402ad7d075001a428922
True
Ordo Praedicatorum
31
What is not the Latin term for the Order of Preachers?
5ad2402ad7d075001a428923
True
Dominican Order or Dominicans
145
What religious order was founded by French priest Saint Dominic de Guzman?
5ad2402ad7d075001a428924
True
Honorius III
297
Which pope did not approve the Dominican order?
5ad2402ad7d075001a428925
True
friars, nuns, active sisters, and lay or secular Dominicans (formerly known as tertiaries
387
What did the Dominican Order's membership not include?
5ad2402ad7d075001a428926
True
The Order of Preachers (Latin: Ordo Praedicatorum, hence the abbreviation OP used by members), more commonly known after the 15th century as the Dominican Order or Dominicans, is a Roman Catholic religious order founded by the Spanish priest Saint Dominic de Guzman in France and approved by Pope Honorius III (1216–27) on 22 December 1216. Membership in this "mendicant" order includes friars, nuns, active sisters, and lay or secular Dominicans (formerly known as tertiaries, though recently there has been a growing number of Associates, who are unrelated to the tertiaries) affiliated with the order.
During what time period did the Dominican Order do its best work?
572784efdd62a815002e9f5c
the Middle Ages
184
False
What was one reason why the Dominican Order was established?
572784efdd62a815002e9f5d
to combat heresy
33
False
The head of the Dominican Order is known as what?
572784efdd62a815002e9f5e
Master of the Order
348
False
Who is the current Master of the Order?
572784efdd62a815002e9f5f
Bruno Cadoré
386
False
What is the Order of Preachers known for?
572784efdd62a815002e9f60
its intellectual tradition
224
False
to preach the Gospel and to combat heresy
8
What  was the order not founded to do?
5ad24257d7d075001a428992
True
the teaching activity of the order and its scholastic organization
51
What did not place the Preachers in the forefront of the intellectual life of the Middle Ages?
5ad24257d7d075001a428993
True
its intellectual tradition, having produced many leading theologians and philosophers.
224
What was the order not famed for?
5ad24257d7d075001a428994
True
Bruno Cadoré
386
Who headed the Dominican order in 1980?
5ad24257d7d075001a428995
True
Ordinis Praedicatorum, meaning of the Order of Preachers
468
What does O.P. not stand for>
5ad24257d7d075001a428996
True
Founded to preach the Gospel and to combat heresy, the teaching activity of the order and its scholastic organization placed the Preachers in the forefront of the intellectual life of the Middle Ages. The order is famed for its intellectual tradition, having produced many leading theologians and philosophers. The Dominican Order is headed by the Master of the Order, who is currently Bruno Cadoré. Members of the order generally carry the letters O.P., standing for Ordinis Praedicatorum, meaning of the Order of Preachers, after their names.
During the Middle Ages, who was no longer expected to stay behind walls away from the common man?
5727a7df3acd2414000de8f3
Men of God
118
False
How many orders of mendicant friars came out of the Middle Ages?
5727a7df3acd2414000de8f4
two
324
False
Who led the Friars Minor order at this time?
5727a7df3acd2414000de8f5
Francis of Assisi
390
False
Dominic of Guzman led what order of mendicant friars?
5727a7df3acd2414000de8f6
the Friars Preachers
420
False
What two groups grew quickly during the Middle Ages?
5727a7df3acd2414000de8f7
the Dominicans and Franciscans
573
False
when religion began to be contemplated in a new way
65
What was not occurring when the Dominican Order came into being in the Middle Ages?
5ad243e7d7d075001a428a20
True
walls of a cloister
172
What were Men of God expected to stay behind?
5ad243e7d7d075001a428a21
True
two
324
How many orders of mendicant friars did not come out of the Middle Ages?
5ad243e7d7d075001a428a22
True
Francis of Assisi
390
Who led the Friars Major order at this time?
5ad243e7d7d075001a428a23
True
Dominic of Guzman
445
Who led the Friars Teachers order at this time?
5ad243e7d7d075001a428a24
True
The Dominican Order came into being in the Middle Ages at a time when religion began to be contemplated in a new way. Men of God were no longer expected to stay behind the walls of a cloister. Instead, they travelled among the people, taking as their examples the apostles of the primitive Church. Out of this ideal emerged two orders of mendicant friars: one, the Friars Minor, was led by Francis of Assisi; the other, the Friars Preachers, by Dominic of Guzman. Like his contemporary, Francis, Dominic saw the need for a new type of organization, and the quick growth of the Dominicans and Franciscans during their first century of existence confirms that the orders of mendicant friars met a need.
The Dominican Order received influence from what monastic order?
5727a7e54b864d1900163996
the Benedictines
144
False
What type of order was the Dominican Order?
5727a7e54b864d1900163997
a preaching order
357
False
What did previous religious orders do for a living?
5727a7e54b864d1900163998
farms
464
False
How did the Dominican Order earn money?
5727a7e54b864d1900163999
by begging
528
False
to establish a new kind of order, one that would bring the dedication and systematic education of the older monastic orders
15
What did Dominic not seek to do?
5ad244d3d7d075001a428a72
True
the Benedictines
144
What order did not influence the Dominican Order?
5ad244d3d7d075001a428a73
True
a preaching order, trained to preach in the vernacular languages
357
What did the Dominican Order not seek to be?
5ad244d3d7d075001a428a74
True
earning their living on vast farms
435
How did previous religious orders not do for a living?
5ad244d3d7d075001a428a75
True
Dominic sought to establish a new kind of order, one that would bring the dedication and systematic education of the older monastic orders like the Benedictines to bear on the religious problems of the burgeoning population of cities, but with more organizational flexibility than either monastic orders or the secular clergy. Dominic's new order was to be a preaching order, trained to preach in the vernacular languages. Rather than earning their living on vast farms as the monasteries had done, the new friars would survive by begging, "selling" themselves through persuasive preaching.
How did Dominic inspire his followers?
5727a844ff5b5019007d9206
with loyalty to learning and virtue
31
False
What group especially benefited from the Dominican Order's mystical spirituality?
5727a844ff5b5019007d9207
nuns
572
False
In what country did Dominican Order nuns thrive in?
5727a844ff5b5019007d9208
England
669
False
What type of spirituality did Dominic want his followers to learn?
5727a844ff5b5019007d9209
a "mixed" spirituality
276
False
with loyalty to learning and virtue
31
How did Dominic not inspire his followers?
5ad2463dd7d075001a428ae4
True
highly developed
164
What type of governmental structure did Dominic not inspire his followers to form?
5ad2463dd7d075001a428ae5
True
Dominic
223
Who developed an order where its members had a homogeneous spirituality?
5ad2463dd7d075001a428ae6
True
Dominican Order
407
What order was rural and ignorant?
5ad2463dd7d075001a428ae7
True
England
669
What country did Benedictine Order nuns thrive?
5ad2463dd7d075001a428ae8
True
Dominic inspired his followers with loyalty to learning and virtue, a deep recognition of the spiritual power of worldly deprivation and the religious state, and a highly developed governmental structure. At the same time, Dominic inspired the members of his order to develop a "mixed" spirituality. They were both active in preaching, and contemplative in study, prayer and meditation. The brethren of the Dominican Order were urban and learned, as well as contemplative and mystical in their spirituality. While these traits had an impact on the women of the order, the nuns especially absorbed the latter characteristics and made those characteristics their own. In England, the Dominican nuns blended these elements with the defining characteristics of English Dominican spirituality and created a spirituality and collective personality that set them apart.
What subject did Dominic particularly love?
5727a90d3acd2414000de90d
theology
46
False
Why did Dominic sell his books?
5727a90d3acd2414000de90e
to help his neighbors
261
False
In what country did Dominic experience a great famine?
5727a90d3acd2414000de90f
Spain
149
False
At around what age was Dominic ordained as a Priest?
5727a90d3acd2414000de910
twenty-five
552
False
After completing his studies, under whose rule did he become a regular canon?
5727a90d3acd2414000de911
St. Augustine
453
False
theology
46
What subject did Dominic particularly hate?
5ad246f8d7d075001a428b10
True
he experienced a dreadful famine
156
What happened to Dominic during his studies in Paris, France?
5ad246f8d7d075001a428b11
True
to help his neighbors
261
Why did Dominic refuse to sell his beloved books?
5ad246f8d7d075001a428b12
True
the cathedral chapter
383
Where did Bishop Martin Bazan and Prior Diego d'Achebes refuse to appoint Dominic to?
5ad246f8d7d075001a428b13
True
Dominic
372
Who entered the priesthood at the age of 30?
5ad246f8d7d075001a428b14
True
As an adolescent, he had a particular love of theology and the Scriptures became the foundation of his spirituality. During his studies in Palencia, Spain, he experienced a dreadful famine, prompting Dominic to sell all of his beloved books and other equipment to help his neighbors. After he completed his studies, Bishop Martin Bazan and Prior Diego d'Achebes appointed Dominic to the cathedral chapter and he became a regular canon under the Rule of St. Augustine and the Constitutions for the cathedral church of Osma. At the age of twenty-four or twenty-five, he was ordained to the priesthood.
With whom did Dominic travel with to Denmark?
5727b1e32ca10214002d9410
Prior Diego de Acebo
24
False
Who requested that Dominic travel to Denmark?
5727b1e32ca10214002d9411
monarchy of Spain
78
False
In 1203, what area was a stronghold of the Cathar?
5727b1e32ca10214002d9412
south of France
230
False
During what time period did the Albigensian Crusade occur?
5727b1e32ca10214002d9413
1209–1229
405
False
Why did Dominic travel to Denmark in 1203?
5727b1e32ca10214002d9414
to arrange the marriage between the son of King Alfonso VIII of Castile and a niece of King Valdemar II of Denmark
97
False
In 1203, Dominic joined Prior Diego de Acebo on an embassy to Denmark for the monarchy of Spain, to arrange the marriage between the son of King Alfonso VIII of Castile and a niece of King Valdemar II of Denmark. At that time the south of France was the stronghold of the Cathar or Albigensian heresy, named after the Duke of Albi, a Cathar sympathiser and opponent to the subsequent Albigensian Crusade (1209–1229). Dominic was fired by a reforming zeal after they encountered Albigensian Christians at Toulouse.
How did Prior Diego think the members of the Holy Church acted?
5727b304ff5b5019007d92e6
with an offensive amount of pomp and ceremony
155
False
Who did Prior Diego admire more than the Holy Church?
5727b304ff5b5019007d92e7
the Cathars
221
False
How did the Cathars live?
5727b304ff5b5019007d92e8
in a state of self-sacrifice
239
False
In order to change to a better way of life, what did the legates request of Diego?
5727b304ff5b5019007d92e9
a strong leader
448
False
Who did Diego and Dominic try to convert?
5727b304ff5b5019007d92ea
the Albigensians
621
False
Prior Diego
0
Who did not immediately see one of the paramount reasons for the spread of the unorthodox movement?
5ad2487cd7d075001a428b66
True
the representatives of the Holy Church
100
Who did not act or move with an offensive amount of pomp and ceremony?
5ad2487cd7d075001a428b67
True
the Cathars
221
Who did Dominic admire more than the Holy Church?
5ad2487cd7d075001a428b68
True
in a state of self-sacrifice
239
What state did the Cathers not live in?
5ad2487cd7d075001a428b69
True
winning the Albigensians over by persuasion Dominic
613
What was meet with much success?
5ad2487cd7d075001a428b6a
True
Prior Diego saw immediately one of the paramount reasons for the spread of the unorthodox movement: the representatives of the Holy Church acted and moved with an offensive amount of pomp and ceremony. On the other hand, the Cathars lived in a state of self-sacrifice that was widely appealing. For these reasons, Prior Diego suggested that the papal legates begin to live a reformed apostolic life. The legates agreed to change if they could find a strong leader. The prior took up the challenge, and he and Dominic dedicated themselves to the conversion of the Albigensians. Despite this particular mission, in winning the Albigensians over by persuasion Dominic met limited success, "for though in his ten years of preaching a large number of converts were made, it has to be said that the results were not such as had been hoped for."
In what year did Dominic establish a convent?
5727b40a3acd2414000dea29
1206
104
False
What women did Dominic convert for his convent?
5727b40a3acd2414000dea2a
Albigensian
47
False
What group are older than the Dominican Friars?
5727b40a3acd2414000dea2b
Dominican nuns
235
False
Why did families send their girls to Diego's monastery?
5727b40a3acd2414000dea2c
too poor
432
False
How long after his mission did Prior Diego die?
5727b40a3acd2414000dea2d
two years
582
False
Dominic
0
Who became the spiritual father of several Albigensian women?
5ad24939d7d075001a428b94
True
a convent in Prouille
132
What did Dominic establish in 1306?
5ad24939d7d075001a428b95
True
convent
134
What would become a foundation of the Benedictine nuns?
5ad24939d7d075001a428b96
True
The monastery
471
What later became the Benedictine headquarters for Dominic's missionary effort?
5ad24939d7d075001a428b97
True
too poor
432
Why did families not send their girls to Diego's monastery?
5ad24939d7d075001a428b98
True
Dominic became the spiritual father to several Albigensian women he had reconciled to the faith, and in 1206 he established them in a convent in Prouille. This convent would become the foundation of the Dominican nuns, thus making the Dominican nuns older than the Dominican friars. Prior Diego sanctioned the building of a monastery for girls whose parents had sent them to the care of the Albigensians because their families were too poor to fulfill their basic needs. The monastery was at Prouille would later become Dominic's headquarters for his missionary effort there. After two years on the mission field, Prior Diego died while traveling back to Spain. When his preaching companions heard of his death, all save Dominic and a very small number of others returned to their homes.
What framework did Dominic use in order to build his institution?
5727b4f54b864d1900163ae4
Rule of St. Augustine
340
False
In what year did Dominic order his followers into an institutional life?
5727b4f54b864d1900163ae5
1215
8
False
Who was the successor to Dominic?
5727b4f54b864d1900163ae6
Jordan of Saxony
443
False
What did the Rule of St. Augustine believe in?
5727b4f54b864d1900163ae7
the "salvation of souls through preaching"
487
False
What were the Dominican Brothers?
5727b4f54b864d1900163ae8
canons-regular
616
False
Rule of St. Augustine
340
What framework did Dominic not use in order to stifle his institution?
5ad249dcd7d075001a428ba4
True
1215
8
What year did Diego order his followers into an institutional life?
5ad249dcd7d075001a428ba5
True
the "salvation of souls through preaching
487
What did the Rule of St. Augustine not believe in?
5ad249dcd7d075001a428ba6
True
canons-regular
616
What were the Dominican Brothers not?
5ad249dcd7d075001a428ba7
True
Dominican brothers
560
Who could not practice ministry and common life while existing in poverty?
5ad249dcd7d075001a428ba8
True
In July 1215, with the approbation of Bishop Foulques of Toulouse, Dominic ordered his followers into an institutional life. Its purpose was revolutionary in the pastoral ministry of the Catholic Church. These priests were organized and well trained in religious studies. Dominic needed a framework—a rule—to organize these components. The Rule of St. Augustine was an obvious choice for the Dominican Order, according to Dominic's successor, Jordan of Saxony, because it lent itself to the "salvation of souls through preaching". By this choice, however, the Dominican brothers designated themselves not monks, but canons-regular. They could practice ministry and common life while existing in individual poverty.
Dominic studied in what city?
5727bded4b864d1900163c32
Palencia
23
False
Dominic's education helped him to overcome who?
5727bded4b864d1900163c33
the Manicheans
77
False
What helps define the work of the Dominican Order?
5727bded4b864d1900163c34
charity
98
False
In what city did Dominic establish a school?
5727bded4b864d1900163c35
Paris
624
False
Who did Dominic entrust to start his school?
5727bded4b864d1900163c36
Matthew of Paris
562
False
Palencia
23
What city did Dominic not study in?
5ad24a73d7d075001a428bc2
True
the knowledge he needed to overcome the Manicheans
41
What did the city of Palencia not give Dominic?
5ad24a73d7d075001a428bc3
True
study
183
What method was not used by the Dominicans in working to defend the Church against peril?
5ad24a73d7d075001a428bc4
True
charity
98
What did not help define the work of the Dominican Order?
5ad24a73d7d075001a428bc5
True
Paris
573
What city did Dominic not establish a school?
5ad24a73d7d075001a428bc6
True
Dominic's education at Palencia gave him the knowledge he needed to overcome the Manicheans. With charity, the other concept that most defines the work and spirituality of the order, study became the method most used by the Dominicans in working to defend the Church against the perils that hounded it, and also of enlarging its authority over larger areas of the known world. In Dominic's thinking, it was impossible for men to preach what they did not or could not understand. When the brethren left Prouille, then, to begin their apostolic work, Dominic sent Matthew of Paris to establish a school near the University of Paris. This was the first of many Dominican schools established by the brethren, some near large universities throughout Europe.
Where did Dominic and his followers live during early 1220?
5727bfb63acd2414000deb69
the ancient Roman basilica of Santa Sabina
91
False
Who invited Dominic to stay in the Roman Basilica of Santa Sabina?
5727bfb63acd2414000deb6a
Pope Honorius III
8
False
What was required of each new priory?
5727bfb63acd2414000deb6b
its own studium conventuale
521
False
When did Pope Honorius III transfer property to the Order of Preachers?
5727bfb63acd2414000deb6c
June 5, 1222
840
False
The College of Saint Thomas became what institution of learning in the 20th Century?
5727bfb63acd2414000deb6d
the Pontifical University of Saint Thomas Aquinas, Angelicum
1300
False
the ancient Roman basilica of Santa Sabina
91
Where did Dominic and his followers live in during early 1320?
5ad24b15d7d075001a428bd4
True
Honorius III
13
What pope did not invite Dominic to stay in the Roman basilica of Santa Sabina?
5ad24b15d7d075001a428bd5
True
June 5, 1222
840
When did Pope John Paul II transfer property to the Order of Preachers?
5ad24b15d7d075001a428bd6
True
In 1219 Pope Honorius III invited Saint Dominic and his companions to take up residence at the ancient Roman basilica of Santa Sabina, which they did by early 1220. Before that time the friars had only a temporary residence in Rome at the convent of San Sisto Vecchio which Honorius III had given to Dominic circa 1218 intending it to become a convent for a reformation of nuns at Rome under Dominic's guidance. In May 1220 at Bologna the order's first General Chapter mandated that each new priory of the order maintain its own studium conventuale thus laying the foundation of the Dominican tradition of sponsoring widespread institutions of learning. The official foundation of the Dominican convent at Santa Sabina with its studium conventuale occurred with the legal transfer of property from Honorius III to the Order of Preachers on June 5, 1222. This studium was transformed into the order's first studium provinciale by Saint Thomas Aquinas in 1265. Part of the curriculum of this studium was relocated in 1288 at the studium of Santa Maria sopra Minerva which in the 16th century world be transformed into the College of Saint Thomas (Latin: Collegium Divi Thomæ). In the 20th century the college would be relocated to the convent of Saints Dominic and Sixtus and would be transformed into the Pontifical University of Saint Thomas Aquinas, Angelicum.
What European country did the Dominican Friars quickly expand to?
5727c1892ca10214002d9574
England
50
False
What British university did the Dominican Friars appear in?
5727c1892ca10214002d9575
Oxford
82
False
What did the Dominican Order fight against?
5727c1892ca10214002d9576
paganism
197
False
What is one branch of knowledge that the Dominican Order created works in?
5727c1892ca10214002d9577
Thomas Aquinas
500
False
Who appointed the Dominican Order to begin the inquisition?
5727c1892ca10214002d9578
Pope Gregory IX
717
False
Dominican friars
4
What order did not quickly spread through England?
5ad24c15d7d075001a428bf8
True
reached all classes of Christian society, fought heresy, schism, and paganism by word and book, and by its missions to the north of Europe, to Africa, and Asia
128
What happened to the order in the 14th century?
5ad24c15d7d075001a428bf9
True
Oxford
82
What French university did the Dominican friars appear in?
5ad24c15d7d075001a428bfa
True
Albertus Magnus and Thomas Aquinas
480
What are the three branches of knowledge that the Dominican Order created works in?
5ad24c15d7d075001a428bfb
True
Pope Gregory IX
717
Who appointed the Benedictine Order to begin the inquisition?
5ad24c15d7d075001a428bfc
True
The Dominican friars quickly spread, including to England, where they appeared in Oxford in 1221. In the 13th century the order reached all classes of Christian society, fought heresy, schism, and paganism by word and book, and by its missions to the north of Europe, to Africa, and Asia passed beyond the frontiers of Christendom. Its schools spread throughout the entire Church; its doctors wrote monumental works in all branches of knowledge, including the extremely important Albertus Magnus and Thomas Aquinas. Its members included popes, cardinals, bishops, legates, inquisitors, confessors of princes, ambassadors, and paciarii (enforcers of the peace decreed by popes or councils). The order was appointed by Pope Gregory IX the duty to carry out the Inquisition. In his Papal Bull Ad extirpanda of 1252, Pope Innocent IV authorised the Dominicans' use of torture under prescribed circumstances.
The term "Dominican mysticism" is also knows as what?
5727c2c23acd2414000debe7
German mysticism
361
False
In what European countries did the Dominican Order experience changes to how they thought?
5727c2c23acd2414000debe8
Germany and Italy
199
False
What saint is associated with the new Dominican mysticism?
5727c2c23acd2414000debe9
St. Catherine of Siena
317
False
Dominican mysticism also spread to what European country?
5727c2c23acd2414000debea
the Netherlands
646
False
What friar helped to spread Dominican mysticism to Italy?
5727c2c23acd2414000debeb
Savonarola
685
False
expansion
4
What did not produce change within the order?
5ad24d0cd7d075001a428c14
True
German mysticism
361
What is the term "Dominican mysticism" not known as?
5ad24d0cd7d075001a428c15
True
the mystical movement
218
What sprang up in Switzerland and Monaco?
5ad24d0cd7d075001a428c16
True
St. Catherine of Siena
317
What saint is associated with the new Benedictine mysticism?
5ad24d0cd7d075001a428c17
True
Savonarola
685
What nun helped to spread Dominican mysticism to Italy?
5ad24d0cd7d075001a428c18
True
The expansion of the order produced changes. A smaller emphasis on doctrinal activity favoured the development here and there of the ascetic and contemplative life and there sprang up, especially in Germany and Italy, the mystical movement with which the names of Meister Eckhart, Heinrich Suso, Johannes Tauler, and St. Catherine of Siena are associated. (See German mysticism, which has also been called "Dominican mysticism.") This movement was the prelude to the reforms undertaken, at the end of the century, by Raymond of Capua, and continued in the following century. It assumed remarkable proportions in the congregations of Lombardy and the Netherlands, and in the reforms of Savonarola in Florence.
What historical period gave the Dominican Order a challenge?
5727c80b2ca10214002d961e
the Renaissance
58
False
What was it about the Renaissance that gave the Dominican Order problems?
5727c80b2ca10214002d961f
pagan tendencies
96
False
The theologians of what German city gave the Dominican Order resistance?
5727c80b2ca10214002d9620
Cologne
218
False
What writer fused humanism with the Dominican Order teachings?
5727c80b2ca10214002d9621
Matteo Bandello
364
False
What Dominican friar celebrated the arts of the Renaissance age?
5727c80b2ca10214002d9622
Fra Angelico and Fra Bartolomeo
469
False
the Renaissance
58
What did the order not find itself faced with?
5ad24de0d7d075001a428c28
True
It struggled against pagan tendencies
75
What did the order embrace during the the Renaissance?
5ad24de0d7d075001a428c29
True
Cologne
218
What theologians of what English city gave the Dominican Order resistance?
5ad24de0d7d075001a428c2a
True
artistic activity of the age
414
What did many Benedictines take part in?
5ad24de0d7d075001a428c2b
True
Fra Angelico and Fra Bartolomeo
469
Which friars were celebrated in the science of the Renaissance age?
5ad24de0d7d075001a428c2c
True
At the same time the order found itself face to face with the Renaissance. It struggled against pagan tendencies in Renaissance humanism, in Italy through Dominici and Savonarola, in Germany through the theologians of Cologne but it also furnished humanism with such advanced writers as Francesco Colonna (probably the writer of the Hypnerotomachia Poliphili) and Matteo Bandello. Many Dominicans took part in the artistic activity of the age, the most prominent being Fra Angelico and Fra Bartolomeo.
In 1876, how many preachers were expelled from the Dominican Order?
5727c9543acd2414000dec57
500
127
False
In 1910, how many Dominicans were actively engaged in Order work?
5727c9543acd2414000dec58
4,472
250
False
How many Dominican friars were there in 2013?
5727c9543acd2414000dec59
6058
456
False
In what year were there 4,470 priests in the Dominican Order?
5727c9543acd2414000dec5a
2013
440
False
How many student brothers were there in the year 2000?
5727c9543acd2414000dec5b
917
389
False
500
127
How many preachers were expelled from the Dominican Order in 1867?
5ad24e6bd7d075001a428c44
True
4,472
250
How many Dominicans were actively engages in Order work in 1867?
5ad24e6bd7d075001a428c45
True
6058
456
How many Dominican friars were there in 2018?
5ad24e6bd7d075001a428c46
True
2013
440
What year were there 5,570 priests in the Dominican Order?
5ad24e6bd7d075001a428c47
True
917
389
How many students were there in the year 2001?
5ad24e6bd7d075001a428c48
True
During this critical period, the number of Preachers seems never to have sunk below 3,500. Statistics for 1876 show 3,748, but 500 of these had been expelled from their convents and were engaged in parochial work. Statistics for 1910 show a total of 4,472 nominally or actually engaged in proper activities of the order. In the year 2000, there were 5,171 Dominican friars in solemn vows, 917 student brothers, and 237 novices. By the year 2013 there were 6058 Dominican friars, including 4,470 priests.
What country held a prominent place in the revival movement?
5727cd7a3acd2414000deccb
France
24
False
What orator was very famous during the revival movement?
5727cd7a3acd2414000deccc
Jean-Baptiste Henri Lacordaire
114
False
When was the province of France canonically erected?
5727cd7a3acd2414000deccd
1850
266
False
What title did Pere Vincent Jandel hold during this time?
5727cd7a3acd2414000decce
master general
543
False
France
24
What country held a minor place in the revival movement?
5ad24f24d7d075001a428c7e
True
Jean-Baptiste Henri Lacordaire
114
What orator was not well known during the revival movement?
5ad24f24d7d075001a428c7f
True
1839
205
What year did Jean-Baptiste Henri Lacordaire take the habit of a Friar Preacher in Paris?
5ad24f24d7d075001a428c80
True
1850
266
When was the province of England canonically erected?
5ad24f24d7d075001a428c81
True
master general
543
What title did Pere Vincent Jandel not hold during this time?
5ad24f24d7d075001a428c82
True
In the revival movement France held a foremost place, owing to the reputation and convincing power of the orator, Jean-Baptiste Henri Lacordaire (1802–1861). He took the habit of a Friar Preacher at Rome (1839), and the province of France was canonically erected in 1850. From this province were detached the province of Lyon, called Occitania (1862), that of Toulouse (1869), and that of Canada (1909). The French restoration likewise furnished many laborers to other provinces, to assist in their organization and progress. From it came the master general who remained longest at the head of the administration during the 19th century, Père Vincent Jandel (1850–1872). Here should be mentioned the province of St. Joseph in the United States. Founded in 1805 by Edward Fenwick, afterwards first Bishop of Cincinnati, Ohio (1821–1832), this province has developed slowly, but now ranks among the most flourishing and active provinces of the order. In 1910 it numbered seventeen convents or secondary houses. In 1905, it established a large house of studies at Washington, D.C., called the Dominican House of Studies. There are now four Dominican provinces in the United States.
What country has produced a large number of preachers?
5727ce76ff5b5019007d959c
France
16
False
What Dominican Friar inugurated the conferences of Notre Dame of Paris?
5727ce76ff5b5019007d959d
Père Lacordaire
124
False
What is the name of another French Dominican friar during this time?
5727ce76ff5b5019007d959e
Thomas Etourneau
298
False
What is one of the leading international centers for biblical research?
5727ce76ff5b5019007d959f
the École Biblique et Archéologique française de Jérusalem
705
False
What was prepared at the Ecole Biblique?
5727ce76ff5b5019007d95a0
Jerusalem Bible
935
False
France
16
What country has produced a large number of nuns?
5ad24fedd7d075001a428c9a
True
Père Lacordaire
124
What Benedictine Friar inaugurated the conference of Notre Dame of Paris?
5ad24fedd7d075001a428c9b
True
Thomas Etourneau
298
What is the name of another English Benedictine friar during this time?
5ad24fedd7d075001a428c9c
True
the École Biblique et Archéologique française de Jérusalem
705
What did English Dominican found and administer?
5ad24fedd7d075001a428c9d
True
Jerusalem Bible
935
What was not prepared at the Ecole Biblique?
5ad24fedd7d075001a428c9e
True
The province of France has produced a large number of preachers. The conferences of Notre-Dame-de-Paris were inaugurated by Père Lacordaire. The Dominicans of the province of France furnished Lacordaire (1835–1836, 1843–1851), Jacques Monsabré (1869–1870, 1872–1890), Joseph Ollivier (1871, 1897), Thomas Etourneau (1898–1902).[citation needed] Since 1903 the pulpit of Notre Dame has been occupied by a succession of Dominicans. Père Henri Didon (d. 1900) was a Dominican. The house of studies of the province of France publishes L'Année Dominicaine (founded 1859), La Revue des Sciences Philosophiques et Theologiques (1907), and La Revue de la Jeunesse (1909). French Dominicans founded and administer the École Biblique et Archéologique française de Jérusalem founded in 1890 by Père Marie-Joseph Lagrange O.P. (1855–1938), one of the leading international centres for Biblical research. It is at the École Biblique that the famed Jerusalem Bible (both editions) was prepared.
What school publishes the Revue Biblique?
5727cfe42ca10214002d9720
Biblical school at Jerusalem
177
False
How many students does the University of Fribourg have?
5727cfe42ca10214002d9721
250
435
False
When was the University of Fribourg put into the Dominican Order's care?
5727cfe42ca10214002d9722
1890
399
False
What is the name of one Dominican Order institution of learning?
5727cfe42ca10214002d9723
Pontifical University of Saint Thomas Aquinas
512
False
What Dominican founded the Revue Thomiste?
5727cfe42ca10214002d9724
Père Thomas Coconnier
773
False
Biblical school at Jerusalem
177
What school does not publish the Reve Biblique?
5ad2508ed7d075001a428cb8
True
250
435
How many students does the Monastery of Fribourg have?
5ad2508ed7d075001a428cb9
True
1890
399
What year was the University of Fribourg put into the Benedictine Order's care?
5ad2508ed7d075001a428cba
True
Pontifical University of Saint Thomas
512
What is the name of one Benedictine Order institute of learning?
5ad2508ed7d075001a428cbb
True
Père Thomas Coconnier
773
What Benedictine founded the Revue Thomiste?
5ad2508ed7d075001a428cbc
True
Doctrinal development has had an important place in the restoration of the Preachers. Several institutions, besides those already mentioned, played important parts. Such is the Biblical school at Jerusalem, open to the religious of the order and to secular clerics, which publishes the Revue Biblique. The faculty of theology at the University of Fribourg, confided to the care of the Dominicans in 1890, is flourishing, and has about 250 students. The Pontificium Collegium Internationale Angelicum, the future Pontifical University of Saint Thomas Aquinas, Angelicum established at Rome in 1908 by Master Hyacinth Cormier, opened its doors to regulars and seculars for the study of the sacred sciences. In addition to the reviews above are the Revue Thomiste, founded by Père Thomas Coconnier (d. 1908), and the Analecta Ordinis Prædicatorum (1893). Among numerous writers of the order in this period are: Cardinals Thomas Zigliara (d. 1893) and Zephirin González (d. 1894), two esteemed philosophers; Alberto Guillelmotti (d. 1893), historian of the Pontifical Navy, and Heinrich Denifle, one of the most famous writers on medieval history (d. 1905).[citation needed]
What do present day Dominican Order associates do?
5727d0d5ff5b5019007d95d6
share the mission and charism of the Dominican Family
447
False
What is an example of a modern Dominican Order follower?
5727d0d5ff5b5019007d95d7
Christian women and men
105
False
What draws many people into following the Dominican Order?
5727d0d5ff5b5019007d95d8
charism
71
False
Present day members continue to do what for the Dominican Order?
5727d0d5ff5b5019007d95d9
to praise, to bless, to preach
315
False
share the mission and charism of the Dominican Family
447
What do present day Benedictine Order associates do?
5ad25138d7d075001a428ccc
True
Associates
36
What is there not a growing number of?
5ad25138d7d075001a428ccd
True
Associates
36
Who does not share the Dominican charism?
5ad25138d7d075001a428cce
True
Christian women and men;
105
What is not an example of a modern Dominican Order follower?
5ad25138d7d075001a428ccf
True
praise, to bless, to preach
318
What do present day members continue to do for the Dominican Order?
5ad25138d7d075001a428cd0
True
Today, there is a growing number of Associates who share the Dominican charism. Dominican Associates are Christian women and men; married, single, divorced, and widowed; clergy members and lay persons who were first drawn to and then called to live out the charism and continue the mission of the Dominican Order - to praise, to bless, to preach. Associates do not take vows, but rather make a commitment to be partners with vowed members, and to share the mission and charism of the Dominican Family in their own lives, families, churches, neighborhoods, workplaces, and cities.
The tradition of the Dominican Order includes what?
5727d1c94b864d1900163dde
charity
69
False
What is one area the Dominican Order puts emphasis on?
5727d1c94b864d1900163ddf
learning
166
False
What is one way that the Dominican Order differentiates itself from other religious orders?
5727d1c94b864d1900163de0
charity
182
False
In what country did some of the Dominican Order attributes change?
5727d1c94b864d1900163de1
England
495
False
charity, study and preaching
69
What is the spiritual tradition of Dominic's order not only punctuated by?
5ad251e0d7d075001a428cf0
True
Dominic's Order
27
What order does not include mystical union?
5ad251e0d7d075001a428cf1
True
Dominican
144
What order was first developed on the Asian continent?
5ad251e0d7d075001a428cf2
True
England
495
What country did some of the Dominican Order not attribute change to?
5ad251e0d7d075001a428cf3
True
for a deeply personal, intimate relationship with God.
417
What did the friars and sisters in Christ not struggle with?
5ad251e0d7d075001a428cf4
True
The spiritual tradition of Dominic's Order is punctuated not only by charity, study and preaching, but also by instances of mystical union. The Dominican emphasis on learning and on charity distinguishes it from other monastic and mendicant orders. As the order first developed on the European continent, learning continued to be emphasized by these friars and their sisters in Christ. These religious also struggled for a deeply personal, intimate relationship with God. When the order reached England, many of these attributes were kept, but the English gave the order additional, specialized characteristics. This topic is discussed below.
What did Dominic greatly struggle with?
5727d3462ca10214002d9768
relationship with God
29
False
Who remembered Dominic as a cheerful fellow?
5727d3462ca10214002d9769
St. Cecilia
213
False
What did Dominic enjoy doing?
5727d3462ca10214002d976a
sing
320
False
Who did Dominic pray for?
5727d3462ca10214002d976b
poor sinners
482
False
What did Dominic refuse to do?
5727d3462ca10214002d976c
carry money
533
False
a close relationship with God
21
What did Dominic not struggle with?
5ad25659d7d075001a428d62
True
St. Cecilia
213
Who remembered Dominic as a sour fellow?
5ad25659d7d075001a428d63
True
singing
320
What did Dominic not like to greatly do?
5ad25659d7d075001a428d64
True
'poor sinners
481
Who did Dominic not pray for?
5ad25659d7d075001a428d65
True
Dominic
376
Who owned multiple habits?
5ad25659d7d075001a428d66
True
Dominic's search for a close relationship with God was determined and unceasing. He rarely spoke, so little of his interior life is known. What is known about it comes from accounts written by people near to him. St. Cecilia remembered him as cheerful, charitable and full of unceasing vigor. From a number of accounts, singing was apparently one of Dominic's great delights. Dominic practiced self-scourging and would mortify himself as he prayed alone in the chapel at night for 'poor sinners.' He owned a single habit, refused to carry money, and would allow no one to serve him.
What spirit did Dominic give to his followers?
5727d4514b864d1900163e0c
to assist those searching for the truth
370
False
Where did Dominic want his followers to look for truth?
5727d4514b864d1900163e0d
gospel of Christ
423
False
What type of man was Dominic?
5727d4514b864d1900163e0e
a man of prayer
248
False
spirituality
4
What was not evidenced throughout all the branches of the order?
5ad25727d7d075001a428d86
True
the spirit and intentions of its founder
80
What did the spirituality not reflect?
5ad25727d7d075001a428d87
True
to assist those searching for the truth
370
What spirit did Dominic not give to his followers?
5ad25727d7d075001a428d88
True
a man of prayer
248
What type of man was Dominic not?
5ad25727d7d075001a428d89
True
resources of the learning
286
What did Dominic not fully utilize?
5ad25727d7d075001a428d8a
True
The spirituality evidenced throughout all of the branches of the order reflects the spirit and intentions of its founder, though some of the elements of what later developed might have surprised the Castilian friar. Fundamentally, Dominic was "... a man of prayer who utilized the full resources of the learning available to him to preach, to teach, and even materially to assist those searching for the truth found in the gospel of Christ. It is that spirit which [Dominic] bequeathed to his followers".
Who was the Master general of the Dominican Order during the mid 1200s?
5727d5252ca10214002d9784
Humbert of Romans
0
False
What years was Humbert of Rome the Master General?
5727d5252ca10214002d9785
1254 to 1263
56
False
What did Humbert do that was very significant during his time as Master general?
5727d5252ca10214002d9786
the sisters in the order were given official membership
176
False
What did subject did Humbert love very much?
5727d5252ca10214002d9787
languages
262
False
What language did Humbert want the Dominican Order members to learn?
5727d5252ca10214002d9788
Arabic
339
False
Humbert of Romans
0
Who was the Master general of the Dominican order during the early 1200s?
5ad257e8d7d075001a428d9e
True
Humbert of Romans
0
During whose tenure was the sisters of the order not given official membership?
5ad257e8d7d075001a428d9f
True
Humbert
233
Who did not have a great love of languages?
5ad257e8d7d075001a428da0
True
excellence in their preaching
511
What did Hobart not want the friars to reach?
5ad257e8d7d075001a428da1
True
growth of the spirituality of young preachers
603
What was not Hobart's first priority?
5ad257e8d7d075001a428da2
True
Humbert of Romans, the master general of the order from 1254 to 1263, was a great administrator, as well as preacher and writer. It was under his tenure as master general that the sisters in the order were given official membership. Humbert was a great lover of languages, and encouraged linguistic studies among the Dominicans, primarily Arabic, because of the missionary work friars were pursuing amongst those led astray or forced to convert by Muslims in the Middle East. He also wanted his friars to reach excellence in their preaching, and this was his most lasting contribution to the order. The growth of the spirituality of young preachers was his first priority. He once cried to his students: "... consider how excellent this office [of preaching] is, because it is apostolic; how useful, because it is directly ordained for the salvation of souls; how perilous, because few have in them, or perform, what the office requires, for it is not without great danger ... , vol. xxv. (Lyon, 1677)
What did Humbert use to teach even weak members of the Dominican Order?
5727d70d3acd2414000dedd9
uncomplicated language
194
False
What did Humbert tell Dominican students to not concentrate on?
5727d70d3acd2414000dedda
miracles
373
False
According to Humbert, what is all that God regards?
5727d70d3acd2414000deddb
good will
881
False
What did Humbert instruct the students not to be?
5727d70d3acd2414000deddc
sad
569
False
Humbert
0
Who was not at the center of ascetic writers in the Dominican Order?
5ad258b4d7d075001a428dd0
True
Humbert
0
Who did not significantly add to the order's spirituality?
5ad258b4d7d075001a428dd1
True
religious good sense
159
What did Hobart's writing's not permeate with?
5ad258b4d7d075001a428dd2
True
do good in which salvation consists
494
What were young Dominicans encouraged not to do?
5ad258b4d7d075001a428dd3
True
sad
569
What did Humbert instruct the students to be?
5ad258b4d7d075001a428dd4
True
Humbert is at the center of ascetic writers in the Dominican Order. In this role, he added significantly to its spirituality. His writings are permeated with "religious good sense," and he used uncomplicated language that could edify even the weakest member. Humbert advised his readers, "[Young Dominicans] are also to be instructed not to be eager to see visions or work miracles, since these avail little to salvation, and sometimes we are fooled by them; but rather they should be eager to do good in which salvation consists. Also, they should be taught not to be sad if they do not enjoy the divine consolations they hear others have; but they should know the loving Father for some reason sometimes withholds these. Again, they should learn that if they lack the grace of compunction or devotion they should not think they are not in the state of grace as long as they have good will, which is all that God regards".
The Dominican Order was also greatly helped by what German friar?
5727d8773acd2414000dedf3
Albertus Magnus
74
False
Albert Magnus was also known as "Albert the what"?
5727d8773acd2414000dedf4
Great
150
False
What was a discipline of Albert the Great?
5727d8773acd2414000dedf5
ecumenist
319
False
Who did Albert Magnus introduce to Dominican Order students?
5727d8773acd2414000dedf6
Aristotle
464
False
Who helped Albert Magnus bring Aristotelian curriculum to Dominican classrooms?
5727d8773acd2414000dedf7
Thomas Aquinas
595
False
Albertus Magnus
74
Who did not greatly help the Dominican Order?
5ad259d1d7d075001a428e14
True
Great
150
What was Albert Magnus not also known as "Albert the what?
5ad259d1d7d075001a428e15
True
scientist, philosopher, astrologer, theologian, spiritual writer, ecumenist, and diplomat
253
What was not a discipline of Albert the Great?
5ad259d1d7d075001a428e16
True
Dominican students
433
Whose curriculum did Albert not mold?
5ad259d1d7d075001a428e17
True
Aristotle
464
Who did Albert Magnus not introduce to Dominican Order students?
5ad259d1d7d075001a428e18
True
Another who contributed significantly to the spirituality of the order is Albertus Magnus, the only person of the period to be given the appellation "Great". His influence on the brotherhood permeated nearly every aspect of Dominican life. Albert was a scientist, philosopher, astrologer, theologian, spiritual writer, ecumenist, and diplomat. Under the auspices of Humbert of Romans, Albert molded the curriculum of studies for all Dominican students, introduced Aristotle to the classroom and probed the work of Neoplatonists, such as Plotinus. Indeed, it was the thirty years of work done by Thomas Aquinas and himself (1245–1274) that allowed for the inclusion of Aristotelian study in the curriculum of Dominican schools.
Albert Magnus studied Dionysus during what historical period?
5727d9b5ff5b5019007d96d4
medieval
148
False
What was one of Albert the Great's biggest contributions during the medieval period?
5727d9b5ff5b5019007d96d5
his study of Dionysus the Areopagite
43
False
Who was Dionysus?
5727d9b5ff5b5019007d96d6
a mystical theologian
81
False
What refers to the conviction that all believers are capable of experiencing God's love?
5727d9b5ff5b5019007d96d7
Mysticism
351
False
Albert magnus' writings contributed greatly to what?
5727d9b5ff5b5019007d96d8
German mysticism
217
False
his study of Dionysus the Areopagite
43
What was not one of Albert's great contributions?
5ad25af2d7d075001a428e5c
True
the medieval period
144
When did Dionysus the Areopagite words not leave an indelible imprint?
5ad25af2d7d075001a428e5d
True
writings
173
What of Magnus' did not make a significant contribution to German mysticism?
5ad25af2d7d075001a428e5e
True
Dionysus
56
Who was not a mystical theologian?
5ad25af2d7d075001a428e5f
True
mysticism
224
What refers to the conviction that all non-believers are capable of experiencing God's love?
5ad25af2d7d075001a428e60
True
One of Albert's greatest contributions was his study of Dionysus the Areopagite, a mystical theologian whose words left an indelible imprint in the medieval period. Magnus' writings made a significant contribution to German mysticism, which became vibrant in the minds of the Beguines and women such as Hildegard of Bingen and Mechthild of Magdeburg. Mysticism, for the purposes of this study, refers to the conviction that all believers have the capability to experience God's love. This love may manifest itself through brief ecstatic experiences, such that one may be engulfed by God and gain an immediate knowledge of Him, which is unknowable through the intellect alone.
What idea did Albertus champion?
5727da824b864d1900163e94
positive knowledge of God is possible
63
False
Who influenced Magnus at this time?
5727da824b864d1900163e95
Dionysus
48
False
What is it easier to do regarding God?
5727da824b864d1900163e96
state what God is not
137
False
How do we deny things of God?
5727da824b864d1900163e97
absolutely
282
False
Albertus Magnus
0
Who did not champion the idea drawn from Dionysus?
5ad25bd3d7d075001a428e8a
True
Albertus Magnus
0
Who believed that negative knowledge of God is possible, but obsure?
5ad25bd3d7d075001a428e8b
True
state what God is not
137
What is not easier to do regarding God?
5ad25bd3d7d075001a428e8c
True
absolutely
282
How do we accept things of God?
5ad25bd3d7d075001a428e8d
True
a relative affirmation and an absolute negation
382
What is there contradiction between?
5ad25bd3d7d075001a428e8e
True
Albertus Magnus championed the idea, drawn from Dionysus, that positive knowledge of God is possible, but obscure. Thus, it is easier to state what God is not, than to state what God is: "... we affirm things of God only relatively, that is, casually, whereas we deny things of God absolutely, that is, with reference to what He is in Himself. And there is no contradiction between a relative affirmation and an absolute negation. It is not contradictory to say that someone is white-toothed and not white".
What enhances man's faith in God according to Albertus Magnus?
5727dd912ca10214002d9856
wisdom
28
False
What is a tool that God uses to speak to the average man?
5727dd912ca10214002d9857
understanding
39
False
How can man obtain understanding of God?
5727dd912ca10214002d9858
Contemplation
351
False
If someone contemplates God forever, what type of knowledge will they obtain?
5727dd912ca10214002d9859
imperfect
645
False
What cannot see God itself?
5727dd912ca10214002d985a
The soul
673
False
Albert the Great
0
Who did not write the wisdom and understanding enhance one's faith in God?
5ad25d49d7d075001a428ee2
True
understanding
414
What does God not use to speak with an average man?
5ad25d49d7d075001a428ee3
True
Love in the soul
166
What is not the cause or result of true understanding and judgment?
5ad25d49d7d075001a428ee4
True
God
745
What can the soul see in perfect clarity?
5ad25d49d7d075001a428ee5
True
Contemplation
351
How does one not obtain a goal of understanding?
5ad25d49d7d075001a428ee6
True
Albert the Great wrote that wisdom and understanding enhance one's faith in God. According to him, these are the tools that God uses to commune with a contemplative. Love in the soul is both the cause and result of true understanding and judgement. It causes not only an intellectual knowledge of God, but a spiritual and emotional knowledge as well. Contemplation is the means whereby one can obtain this goal of understanding. Things that once seemed static and unchanging become full of possibility and perfection. The contemplative then knows that God is, but she does not know what God is. Thus, contemplation forever produces a mystified, imperfect knowledge of God. The soul is exalted beyond the rest of God's creation but it cannot see God Himself.
What virtue guides Christians in their understanding of God?
5727e1d64b864d1900163f2c
Meekness
156
False
According to Christianity, who is the "One"?
5727e1d64b864d1900163f2d
God/Christ
248
False
What is Charity to a Christian?
5727e1d64b864d1900163f2e
manifestation of the pure love of Christ
488
False
What should man's nature be centered on?
5727e1d64b864d1900163f2f
the One
435
False
he learns to rely less on an intellectual pursuit of virtue and more on an affective pursuit of charity and meekness
38
What happened within a man as the image of God decreases?
5ad25df6d7d075001a428f08
True
Meekness and charity
156
What does not guide Christians to acknowledge that are are nothing without God?
5ad25df6d7d075001a428f09
True
God/Christ
248
Who do Christians not consider to the "One"?
5ad25df6d7d075001a428f0a
True
God/Christ
248
Who did not create, sustain, or guide man?
5ad25df6d7d075001a428f0b
True
the One
435
What should man;s nature not be centered on?
5ad25df6d7d075001a428f0c
True
As the image of God grows within man, he learns to rely less on an intellectual pursuit of virtue and more on an affective pursuit of charity and meekness. Meekness and charity guide Christians to acknowledge that they are nothing without the One (God/Christ) who created them, sustains them, and guides them. Thus, man then directs his path to that One, and the love for, and of, Christ guides man's very nature to become centered on the One, and on his neighbor as well. Charity is the manifestation of the pure love of Christ, both for and by His follower.
What did the Europeans of the Dominican Order bring to the group?
5727e3574b864d1900163f42
ecstatic mysticism
172
False
What did the English Dominicans hope to do within the Order?
5727e3574b864d1900163f43
to emulate the moral life of Christ more completely
384
False
What group of nuns are used all aspects of the Dominican Order for their work?
5727e3574b864d1900163f44
Dartford
441
False
The Dartford Nuns are similar to what group?
5727e3574b864d1900163f45
mystics
566
False
What do ecstatic mystics hope to achieve?
5727e3574b864d1900163f46
a union with the Creator
222
False
The Dominican Order
0
What was not affected by a number of elemental influences?
5ad25ec8d7d075001a428f38
True
a mysticism and learning
110
What did later members imbue the order with?
5ad25ec8d7d075001a428f39
True
ecstatic mysticism on a grand scale and looked to a union with the Creator
172
What did the Europeans of the order not embrace?
5ad25ec8d7d075001a428f3a
True
ecstatic
338
What of type of experiences were English Dominicans entirely focused on?
5ad25ec8d7d075001a428f3b
True
emulate the moral life of Christ more completely
387
What did the English Dominicans not hope to do within the order?
5ad25ec8d7d075001a428f3c
True
The Dominican Order was affected by a number of elemental influences. Its early members imbued the order with a mysticism and learning. The Europeans of the order embraced ecstatic mysticism on a grand scale and looked to a union with the Creator. The English Dominicans looked for this complete unity as well, but were not so focused on ecstatic experiences. Instead, their goal was to emulate the moral life of Christ more completely. The Dartford nuns were surrounded by all of these legacies, and used them to create something unique. Though they are not called mystics, they are known for their piety toward God and their determination to live lives devoted to, and in emulation of, Him.
The search for mysticism in the Dominican Order goes back to what?
5727e46c2ca10214002d98d8
Hebrew Bible
123
False
What is the Holy Writ?
5727e46c2ca10214002d98d9
Bible
130
False
Who wanted to put mysticism into the Dominican Order?
5727e46c2ca10214002d98da
Albertus Magnus
9
False
Whose writings introduced the idea of 'unknowing' to the Order of Preachers?
5727e46c2ca10214002d98db
Jewish and early Christian writings
316
False
mysticism
45
What concept does not reach back to the Hebrew Bible?
5ad25fdbd7d075001a428f9e
True
tradition of Holy Writ
144
What tradition believed that it was possible to come face to face with God?
5ad25fdbd7d075001a428f9f
True
graven images
269
What does the commandment of Exodus 20.4-5 allow?
5ad25fdbd7d075001a428fa0
True
Albertus Magnus
9
Who did not want to instill mysticism in the Dominican order?
5ad25fdbd7d075001a428fa1
True
Jewish and early Christian
316
What writings introduced the idea of "knowing" to the Order of Preachers?
5ad25fdbd7d075001a428fa2
True
Although Albertus Magnus did much to instill mysticism in the Order of Preachers, it is a concept that reaches back to the Hebrew Bible. In the tradition of Holy Writ, the impossibility of coming face to face with God is a recurring motif, thus the commandment against graven images (Exodus 20.4-5). As time passed, Jewish and early Christian writings presented the idea of 'unknowing,' where God's presence was enveloped in a dark cloud. These images arose out of a confusing mass of ambiguous and ambivalent statements regarding the nature of God and man's relationship to Him.
Who did some early Dominican followers have trouble reconciling?
5727e5a4ff5b5019007d97da
female Dominican houses
55
False
Where was one female Dominican house located?
5727e5a4ff5b5019007d97db
Prouille
82
False
How many female Dominican houses were there in Germany?
5727e5a4ff5b5019007d97dc
seventy-four
416
False
Who were an order of religious women who later converted to Dominican?
5727e5a4ff5b5019007d97dd
Beguines
673
False
How many Dominican nunneries were there by 1358?
5727e5a4ff5b5019007d97de
one hundred and fifty-seven
934
False
female Dominican houses
55
Who did some early Dominican followers not have trouble reconciling?
5ad260fbd7d075001a428fe2
True
about the necessity of female religious establishments in an order whose major purpose was preaching
166
What did some of the brethren not have issues with?
5ad260fbd7d075001a428fe3
True
Prouille
82
Where in England was one female Dominican house located?
5ad260fbd7d075001a428fe4
True
women's houses
348
What dotted the countryside throughout Asia?
5ad260fbd7d075001a428fe5
True
nine
485
How many female Benedictine houses  were in France?
5ad260fbd7d075001a428fe6
True
Although Dominic and the early brethren had instituted female Dominican houses at Prouille and other places by 1227, some of the brethren of the order had misgivings about the necessity of female religious establishments in an order whose major purpose was preaching, a duty in which women could not traditionally engage. In spite of these doubts, women's houses dotted the countryside throughout Europe. There were seventy-four Dominican female houses in Germany, forty-two in Italy, nine in France, eight in Spain, six in Bohemia, three in Hungary, and three in Poland. Many of the German religious houses that lodged women had been home to communities of women, such as Beguines, that became Dominican once they were taught by the traveling preachers and put under the jurisdiction of the Dominican authoritative structure. A number of these houses became centers of study and mystical spirituality in the 14th century. There were one hundred and fifty-seven nunneries in the order by 1358. In that year, the number lessened due to disasters like the Black Death.
How did female Dominican houses differ from male ones?
5727e65a3acd2414000def43
lack of apostolic work
55
False
What did the sisters do instead of apostolic work?
5727e65a3acd2414000def44
chanted the Divine Office
114
False
What did the sisters not have?
5727e65a3acd2414000def45
government of their own
266
False
Who were the nunneries under the jurisdiction of?
5727e65a3acd2414000def46
friars
558
False
What is one role that the friars served as to the nuns?
5727e65a3acd2414000def47
teachers
614
False
in a lack of apostolic work
50
How did female house not differ from male Dominican houses?
5ad261c0d7d075001a429058
True
chanted the Divine Office
114
What did the Benedictine sisters do instead of apostolic work?
5ad261c0d7d075001a429059
True
no government of their own
263
What did the sisters have?
5ad261c0d7d075001a42905a
True
general and provincial chapters of the order
328
Whose authority did the sisters not live under?
5ad261c0d7d075001a42905b
True
confessors, priests, teachers and spiritual mentors.
593
What roles did the friars not serve as to the nuns?
5ad261c0d7d075001a42905c
True
Female houses differed from male Dominican houses in a lack of apostolic work for the women. Instead, the sisters chanted the Divine Office and kept all the monastic observances. Their lives were often much more strict than their brothers' lives. The sisters had no government of their own, but lived under the authority of the general and provincial chapters of the order. They were compelled to obey all the rules and shared in all the applicable privileges of the order. Like the Priory of Dartford, all Dominican nunneries were under the jurisdiction of friars. The friars served as their confessors, priests, teachers and spiritual mentors.
After what age could women become members of the Dominican Order?
5727e7654b864d1900163fac
thirteen
79
False
What type of veil must the sisters wear?
5727e7654b864d1900163fad
black
462
False
The formula for profession into the Dominican Order is presented in what text?
5727e7654b864d1900163fae
the Constitutions of Montargis Priory
129
False
What were the nuns allowed to minimally do?
5727e7654b864d1900163faf
Speak
829
False
What were the nuns tested on?
5727e7654b864d1900163fb0
intellectual abilities
614
False
thirteen
79
What age could women become members of the Benedictine order?
5ad26321d7d075001a4290ec
True
obedience to God, the Blessed Virgin, their prioress and her successors
199
What did the Constitutions of Montargis not demand of the nuns?
5ad26321d7d075001a4290ed
True
black
462
What type of veil did the sisters not have to wear?
5ad26321d7d075001a4290ee
True
white tunic and scapular, a leather belt, a black mantle, and a black veil
398
What was not required of the sisters to wear?
5ad26321d7d075001a4290ef
True
reveal whether they were actually married women who had merely separated from their husbands
514
What were candidates to profession not tested to do?
5ad26321d7d075001a4290f0
True
Women could not be professed to the Dominican religious life before the age of thirteen. The formula for profession contained in the Constitutions of Montargis Priory (1250) demands that nuns pledge obedience to God, the Blessed Virgin, their prioress and her successors according to the Rule of St. Augustine and the institute of the order, until death. The clothing of the sisters consisted of a white tunic and scapular, a leather belt, a black mantle, and a black veil. Candidates to profession were tested to reveal whether they were actually married women who had merely separated from their husbands. Their intellectual abilities were also tested. Nuns were to be silent in places of prayer, the cloister, the dormitory, and refectory. Silence was maintained unless the prioress granted an exception for a specific cause. Speaking was allowed in the common parlor, but it was subordinate to strict rules, and the prioress, subprioress or other senior nun had to be present.
What did the nuns not do in the Dominican Order?
5727f480ff5b5019007d9922
preach among the people
38
False
What was one of the activities the nuns enjoyed?
5727f480ff5b5019007d9923
embroidery
235
False
Who was expelled from a nunnery for not wanting to learn?
5727f480ff5b5019007d9924
Margarette Reglerin
503
False
Where was Margarette Reglerin from?
5727f480ff5b5019007d9925
Nuremberg
548
False
What monastery did the nuns belong to who could speak Latin fluently?
5727f480ff5b5019007d9926
Strassburg monastery of St. Margaret
335
False
preach
38
What did the nuns of the Dominican order do among people?
5ad26420d7d075001a42912c
True
the need to engage in study
63
What was immediate or intense for the nuns as it was for men?
5ad26420d7d075001a42912d
True
sewing and embroidery, nuns often engaged in reading and discussing correspondence from Church leaders
224
What activities did the nuns not have to do?
5ad26420d7d075001a42912e
True
St. Margaret
359
What Strasbourg monastery did some nuns not converse fluently in Latin?
5ad26420d7d075001a42912f
True
Because the nuns of the order did not preach among the people, the need to engage in study was not as immediate or intense as it was for men. They did participate, however, in a number of intellectual activities. Along with sewing and embroidery, nuns often engaged in reading and discussing correspondence from Church leaders. In the Strassburg monastery of St. Margaret, some of the nuns could converse fluently in Latin. Learning still had an elevated place in the lives of these religious. In fact, Margarette Reglerin, a daughter of a wealthy Nuremberg family, was dismissed from a convent because she did not have the ability or will to learn.
The Dartford sisters were heirs of what priory?
5727f5d22ca10214002d9a4e
priory of Poissy
26
False
Where was the priory of Poissy located?
5727f5d22ca10214002d9a4f
France
46
False
What book could be found in The Dartford sister's library?
5727f5d22ca10214002d9a50
Suso's Little Book of Eternal Wisdom
216
False
What did the Dartford nunnery have in common with the priory of Poissy?
5727f5d22ca10214002d9a51
a religious house founded by a royal house
466
False
priory of Poissy
26
What priory were the Dartford sisters not heirs to?
5ad2650ed7d075001a42918e
True
France
46
What country in Asia was the priory of Poissy located?
5ad2650ed7d075001a42918f
True
Suso's Little Book of Eternal Wisdom and Laurent du Bois' Somme le Roi
216
What book could not be found in the Dartford's sister's library?
5ad2650ed7d075001a429190
True
Little Book of Eternal Wisdom and Laurent du Bois' Somme le Roi
223
What does not show that a "ghoostli" link to Europe was not lost in the Channel crossing?
5ad2650ed7d075001a429191
True
this heritage
541
What were the French nuns proud of?
5ad2650ed7d075001a429192
True
As heirs of the Dominican priory of Poissy in France, the Dartford sisters were also heirs to a tradition of profound learning and piety. Sections of translations of spiritual writings in Dartford's library, such as Suso's Little Book of Eternal Wisdom and Laurent du Bois' Somme le Roi, show that the "ghoostli" link to Europe was not lost in the crossing of the Channel. It survived in the minds of the nuns. Also, the nuns shared a unique identity with Poissy as a religious house founded by a royal house. The English nuns were proud of this heritage, and aware that many of them shared in England's great history as members of the noble class, as seen in the next chapter.
The Dominican Order in England was controlled by who?
5727f7cbff5b5019007d9974
Englishmen
159
False
The national side of the Order was influenced by what other side?
5727f7cbff5b5019007d9975
international
528
False
Why was the English order of the Dominicans so successful in England?
5727f7cbff5b5019007d9976
Its direct supervisors were from England
171
False
Englishmen
159
Who was the Benedictine Order in England controlled by?
5ad26647d7d075001a4291e2
True
international order
44
What component of the French Province was it influenced by?
5ad26647d7d075001a4291e3
True
English cities, towns, villages, and roadways
274
Where did members of the French province dwell and labor?
5ad26647d7d075001a4291e4
True
English and European ingredients
321
What did not constantly come into contact?
5ad26647d7d075001a4291e5
True
international side
386
What did not influence the national side of the Order?
5ad26647d7d075001a4291e6
True
The English Province was a component of the international order from which it obtained its laws, direction, and instructions. It was also, however, a group of Englishmen. Its direct supervisors were from England, and the members of the English Province dwelt and labored in English cities, towns, villages, and roadways. English and European ingredients constantly came in contact. The international side of the province's existence influenced the national, and the national responded to, adapted, and sometimes constrained the international.
What famous school was home to the first English Dominican Order?
5727f89cff5b5019007d9984
Oxford
43
False
Who did the friars build an oratory in honor of?
5727f89cff5b5019007d9985
the Blessed Virgin Mary
130
False
What was a subject that all Dominican students had to learn?
5727f89cff5b5019007d9986
natural philosophy
858
False
What was the most important subject for Dominican students?
5727f89cff5b5019007d9987
theology
932
False
By what year was the school in Oxford completed?
5727f89cff5b5019007d9988
1265
161
False
England
28
Where was the first Benedictine site in England?
5ad26801d7d075001a429250
True
an oratory to the Blessed Virgin Mary
116
What did Benedictine friars build?
5ad26801d7d075001a429251
True
a school
237
What did the Dominican friars build in 1260?
5ad26801d7d075001a429252
True
grammar, old and new logic, natural philosophy and theology
830
What were the subjects that all Benedictine students had to learn?
5ad26801d7d075001a429253
True
theology
932
What was the most important subject that all Benedictine students had to learn?
5ad26801d7d075001a429254
True
The first Dominican site in England was at Oxford, in the parishes of St. Edward and St. Adelaide. The friars built an oratory to the Blessed Virgin Mary and by 1265, the brethren, in keeping with their devotion to study, began erecting a school. Actually, the Dominican brothers likely began a school immediately after their arrival, as priories were legally schools. Information about the schools of the English Province is limited, but a few facts are known. Much of the information available is taken from visitation records. The "visitation" was a section of the province through which visitors to each priory could describe the state of its religious life and its studies to the next chapter. There were four such visits in England and Wales—Oxford, London, Cambridge and York. All Dominican students were required to learn grammar, old and new logic, natural philosophy and theology. Of all of the curricular areas, however, theology was the most important. This is not surprising when one remembers Dominic's zeal for it.
What did European mysticism concentrate on that English mysticism didn't?
5727fa1aff5b5019007d99be
ecstatic experiences of union with the divine
164
False
English mysticism was composed of how many elements?
5727fa1aff5b5019007d99bf
four
526
False
What is one element of English Dominican mysticism?
5727fa1aff5b5019007d99c0
it emulated the moral essence of Christ's life
560
False
What was the focus of English Dominican mysticism?
5727fa1aff5b5019007d99c1
one's personal relationship with God
284
False
ecstatic experiences of union with the divine
164
What did European mysticism and English mysticism both concentrate on?
5ad268fbd7d075001a4292a6
True
on a crucial dynamic in one's personal relationship with God
260
What was not a focus for English Dominican mysticism?
5ad268fbd7d075001a4292a7
True
English Dominican
211
Which mysticism was composed of 5 elements?
5ad268fbd7d075001a4292a8
True
the means for reformation of humanity's nature
415
What was not an image of divinity?
5ad268fbd7d075001a4292a9
True
the supreme aspiration of this mysticism
864
What was not ethical or an actual union of God?
5ad268fbd7d075001a4292aa
True
English Dominican mysticism in the late medieval period differed from European strands of it in that, whereas European Dominican mysticism tended to concentrate on ecstatic experiences of union with the divine, English Dominican mysticism's ultimate focus was on a crucial dynamic in one's personal relationship with God. This was an essential moral imitation of the Savior as an ideal for religious change, and as the means for reformation of humanity's nature as an image of divinity. This type of mysticism carried with it four elements. First, spiritually it emulated the moral essence of Christ's life. Second, there was a connection linking moral emulation of Christ's life and humanity's disposition as images of the divine. Third, English Dominican mysticism focused on an embodied spirituality with a structured love of fellow men at its center. Finally, the supreme aspiration of this mysticism was either an ethical or an actual union with God.
What was so important to English mystics?
5727fb092ca10214002d9aa4
the journey of, or process of, faith
129
False
The process of faith leads one to what?
5727fb092ca10214002d9aa5
knowledge of divinity
242
False
What did the English Dominican mystics not require in their work?
5727fb092ca10214002d9aa6
visions and voices
380
False
What did the English Order of Dominicans believe was the only thing they needed?
5727fb092ca10214002d9aa7
faith
599
False
the journey of, or process of, faith
129
What was not important to English mystics?
5ad269b0d7d075001a4292e8
True
knowledge of divinity
242
What does the process of faith not led one to?
5ad269b0d7d075001a4292e9
True
to pursue mystical life without the visions and voices that are usually associated with such a relationship with God
344
What was not possible for English Dominican mystics?
5ad269b0d7d075001a4292ea
True
a mystical process that allowed them, in the end, to experience what they had already gained knowledge of through their faith only.
479
What did English Dominican mystics not experience?
5ad269b0d7d075001a4292eb
True
faith
160
What the one thing that the English Order of Dominican believe they did not need?
5ad269b0d7d075001a4292ec
True
For English Dominican mystics, the mystical experience was not expressed just in one moment of the full knowledge of God, but in the journey of, or process of, faith. This then led to an understanding that was directed toward an experiential knowledge of divinity. It is important to understand, however, that for these mystics it was possible to pursue mystical life without the visions and voices that are usually associated with such a relationship with God. They experienced a mystical process that allowed them, in the end, to experience what they had already gained knowledge of through their faith only.
How did the English order hope to gain knowledge of Christ?
5727fc3cff5b5019007d9a20
through an imitation of His life
122
False
Who is at the center of all mystical experiences?
5727fc3cff5b5019007d9a21
Christ
53
False
What is the most significant way to know Christ?
5727fc3cff5b5019007d9a22
emulation of the moral actions and attitudes that Jesus demonstrated in His earthly ministry
522
False
What did English mystics tend to focus on in their studies?
5727fc3cff5b5019007d9a23
the moral values that the events in Christ's life exemplified
204
False
What type of understanding of scripture did the English Order subscribe to?
5727fc3cff5b5019007d9a24
progressive
282
False
Christ
53
What was not at the center of all mystical experiences?
5ad26a5bd7d075001a42930e
True
a full knowledge of Christ through an imitation of His life.
95
What did English Dominicans not seek to gain?
5ad26a5bd7d075001a42930f
True
the moral values that the events in Christ's life exemplified.
204
What did English mystics of all types not focus on?
5ad26a5bd7d075001a429310
True
an emulation of the moral actions and attitudes that Jesus demonstrated in His earthly ministry
519
What is the least significant way to know Christ?
5ad26a5bd7d075001a429311
True
progressive
282
What type of understanding of scripture did the French Order subscribe to?
5ad26a5bd7d075001a429312
True
The center of all mystical experience is, of course, Christ. English Dominicans sought to gain a full knowledge of Christ through an imitation of His life. English mystics of all types tended to focus on the moral values that the events in Christ's life exemplified. This led to a "progressive understanding of the meanings of Scripture--literal, moral, allegorical, and anagogical"—that was contained within the mystical journey itself. From these considerations of Scripture comes the simplest way to imitate Christ: an emulation of the moral actions and attitudes that Jesus demonstrated in His earthly ministry becomes the most significant way to feel and have knowledge of God.
The English Dominican Order focused primarily on what?
5727fe574b864d19001641a0
the events of Christ's life
42
False
What did the English Order not care about?
5727fe574b864d19001641a1
the stigmata
152
False
The English Dominican Order wanted to put what at the center of their study of Christ?
5727fe574b864d19001641a2
love
370
False
What does Christ's love reveal to humanity?
5727fe574b864d19001641a3
the mercy of God
458
False
What does love lead to according to English mystics?
5727fe574b864d19001641a4
spiritual growth
594
False
the events of Christ's life
42
What did the French Dominican order focus primarily on?
5ad26b41d7d075001a429344
True
the stigmata
152
What did the English Dominican Order expect and seek the appearance of?
5ad26b41d7d075001a429345
True
that environment that allowed Jesus to fulfill His divine mission
238
What did the English Dominican Order not want to create in themselves?
5ad26b41d7d075001a429346
True
love
552
What did the French Dominican Order want to put at the the center of their study of Christ?
5ad26b41d7d075001a429347
True
spiritual growth
594
What does love lead to according to French mystics?
5ad26b41d7d075001a429348
True
The English concentrated on the spirit of the events of Christ's life, not the literality of events. They neither expected nor sought the appearance of the stigmata or any other physical manifestation. They wanted to create in themselves that environment that allowed Jesus to fulfill His divine mission, insofar as they were able. At the center of this environment was love: the love that Christ showed for humanity in becoming human. Christ's love reveals the mercy of God and His care for His creation. English Dominican mystics sought through this love to become images of God. Love led to spiritual growth that, in turn, reflected an increase in love for God and humanity. This increase in universal love allowed men's wills to conform to God's will, just as Christ's will submitted to the Father's will.
What is man always seen as?
5727ff4d2ca10214002d9af8
an image of God
461
False
What did the English Dominicans like to concentrate on?
5727ff4d2ca10214002d9af9
moral implications of image-bearing
95
False
What amends humanity to God's life?
5727ff4d2ca10214002d9afa
The process of Christ's life
191
False
The idea of the image of God allows man to do what?
5727ff4d2ca10214002d9afb
move toward God
358
False
the moral implications of image-bearing
91
What did French Dominican spirituality concentrate on?
5ad26c14d7d075001a429374
True
image of God
304
What is man never seen as?
5ad26c14d7d075001a429375
True
both the ability of man to move toward God (as partakers in Christ's redeeming sacrifice), and that, on some level, man is always an image of God.
331
What does the the "image of God" not demonstrate for man?
5ad26c14d7d075001a429376
True
the image of God within man becomes ever more bright and clear.
562
What happens when man's love and knowledge of God decreases?
5ad26c14d7d075001a429377
True
Concerning humanity as the image of Christ, English Dominican spirituality concentrated on the moral implications of image-bearing rather than the philosophical foundations of the imago Dei. The process of Christ's life, and the process of image-bearing, amends humanity to God's image. The idea of the "image of God" demonstrates both the ability of man to move toward God (as partakers in Christ's redeeming sacrifice), and that, on some level, man is always an image of God. As their love and knowledge of God grows and is sanctified by faith and experience, the image of God within man becomes ever more bright and clear.
Eton_College
How many public schools are regulated by the 1868 Public Schools Act?
572784155951b619008f8c03
ten
15
False
Which type of school requires students to live at the school?
572784155951b619008f8c04
boarding school
181
False
How many all-male boarding schools exist in the UK?
572784155951b619008f8c05
four
258
False
How much does Eton College charge per term?
572784155951b619008f8c06
up to £11,478
566
False
How does Eton College rate expense-wise with the other HMC boarding schools in the UK?
572784155951b619008f8c07
sixth most expensive
655
False
Eton
0
Which one of the ten English HMC schools is a day school rather than a boarding school?
5ad20117d7d075001a4281e6
True
Radley
358
Which one of the ten English HMC schools is girls only?
5ad20117d7d075001a4281e7
True
Harrow
350
What is the most expensive HMC boarding school in the UK?
5ad20117d7d075001a4281e8
True
19
427
How many British prime ministers has Radley educated?
5ad20117d7d075001a4281e9
True
£11,478
572
How expensive is Harrow per term?
5ad20117d7d075001a4281ea
True
Eton is one of ten English HMC schools, commonly referred to as "public schools", regulated by the Public Schools Act of 1868. Following the public school tradition, Eton is a full boarding school, which means all pupils live at the school, and it is one of four such remaining single-sex boys' public schools in the United Kingdom (the others being Harrow, Radley, and Winchester) to continue this practice. Eton has educated 19 British prime ministers and generations of the aristocracy and has been referred to as the chief nurse of England's statesmen. Charging up to £11,478 per term (there are three terms per academic year) in 2014/15, Eton is the sixth most expensive HMC boarding school in the UK.
How many British prime ministers attended Eton?
572785035951b619008f8c27
19
74
False
Which college in Newham does Eton College co-sponsor?
572785035951b619008f8c28
London Academy of Excellence
327
False
How does London Academy of Excellence vary in cost from Eton College?
572785035951b619008f8c29
free of charge
382
False
Where will Holyport College be located?
572785035951b619008f8c2a
Maidenhead in Berkshire
639
False
How much is construction of Holyport College predicted to cost?
572785035951b619008f8c2b
around £15 million
690
False
David Cameron
53
who was the 19th British Prime Minister?
5ad202ead7d075001a4281f0
True
500
606
How many students attend Newham each year?
5ad202ead7d075001a4281f1
True
500
606
How many students attend Eton each year?
5ad202ead7d075001a4281f2
True
Maidenhead in Berkshire
639
Where is Eton located?
5ad202ead7d075001a4281f3
True
£15 million
697
How much did the London Academy of Excellence cost to build?
5ad202ead7d075001a4281f4
True
Eton has a long list of distinguished former pupils. David Cameron is the 19th British prime minister to have attended the school, and has recommended that Eton set up a school in the state sector to help drive up standards. Eton now co-sponsors a state sixth-form college in Newham, a deprived area of East London, called the London Academy of Excellence, opened in 2012, which is free of charge and aims to get all its students into higher education. In September 2014, Eton opened, and became the sole educational sponsor for, a new purpose-built co-educational state boarding and day school for around 500 pupils, Holyport College, in Maidenhead in Berkshire, with construction costing around £15 million, in which a fifth of places for day pupils will be set aside for children from poor homes, 21 boarding places will go to youngsters on the verge of being taken into care, and a further 28 boarders will be funded or part-funded through bursaries.
How many students receive financial aid at Eton?
5727865cf1498d1400e8fad0
20%
6
False
How many students attended Eton free of charge in 2014?
5727865cf1498d1400e8fad1
63
469
False
What are the goals of the Independent and State School Partnership?
5727865cf1498d1400e8fad2
raise pupil achievement, improve pupil self-esteem, raise pupil aspirations and improve professional practice across the schools
1643
False
What are some courses Eton offers in the summer months?
5727865cf1498d1400e8fad3
choral and English language courses
1801
False
63
469
How many Eton students attended Eton free of charge in 2011?
5ad2043fd7d075001a4281fa
True
Tony Little
126
Who was the Head Master of Eton in 1982?
5ad2043fd7d075001a4281fb
True
40-50
1270
How many students went to the Brent-Eton Summer School in 2008?
5ad2043fd7d075001a4281fc
True
40-50
1270
How many students attend the Eton, Slough, Windsor and Hounslow Independent and State School Partnership in 2008?
5ad2043fd7d075001a4281fd
True
Tony Little
126
Who was the Head Master of the Eton, Slough, Windsor and Hounslow Independent and State School Partnership in 2008?
5ad2043fd7d075001a4281fe
True
About 20% of pupils at Eton receive financial support, through a range of bursaries and scholarships. The recent Head Master, Tony Little, said that Eton is developing plans to allow any boy to attend the school whatever his parents' income and, in 2011, said that around 250 boys received "significant" financial help from the school. In early 2014, this figure had risen to 263 pupils receiving the equivalent of around 60% of school fee assistance, whilst a further 63 received their education free of charge. Little said that, in the short term, he wanted to ensure that around 320 pupils per year receive bursaries, and that 70 were educated free of charge, with the intention that the number of pupils receiving financial assistance would continue to increase. These comparatively new developments will run alongside long-established courses that Eton has provided for pupils from state schools, most of them in the summer holidays (July and August). Launched in 1982, the Universities Summer School is an intensive residential course open to boys and girls throughout the UK who attend state schools, are at the end of their first year in the Sixth Form, and are about to begin their final year of schooling. The Brent-Eton Summer School, started in 1994, offers 40-50 young people from the London Borough of Brent, an area of inner-city deprivation, an intensive one-week residential course, free of charge, designed to help bridge the gap between GCSE and A-level. In 2008, Eton helped found the Eton, Slough, Windsor and Hounslow Independent and State School Partnership (ISSP), with six local state schools. The ISSP's aims are "to raise pupil achievement, improve pupil self-esteem, raise pupil aspirations and improve professional practice across the schools". Eton also runs a number of choral and English language courses during the summer months.
What purpose did Eton Dorney have to the London Olympic games?
5727873b5951b619008f8c73
training facilities
274
False
How many visitors attended Eton Dorney during the 2012 Olympics?
5727873b5951b619008f8c74
400,000 visitors during the Games period (around 30,000 per day)
469
False
What did 2012 Olympic spectators vote Eton Dorney to be?
5727873b5951b619008f8c75
best 2012 Olympic venue
549
False
How much does it cost to attend Eton Dorney throughout the year?
5727873b5951b619008f8c76
free of charge
674
False
2012
65
In what year was Dorney Lake built?
5ad205ffd7d075001a428204
True
400,000
469
In an average year how many members of the public make use of Dorney Lake?
5ad205ffd7d075001a428205
True
400-acre
196
How much property does Eton own?
5ad205ffd7d075001a428206
True
400,000
469
How many spectators were there for the 2012 Olympic Canoe Sprint event in total?
5ad205ffd7d075001a428207
True
30,000
518
How many spectators were there on average for the Paralympic Rowing competitions?
5ad205ffd7d075001a428208
True
In the run-up to the London 2012 Summer Olympic Games and London 2012 Summer Paralympic Games, Eton's purpose-built Dorney Lake, a permanent, eight-lane, 2,200 metre course (about 1.4 miles) in a 400-acre park, officially known throughout the Games as Eton Dorney, provided training facilities for Olympic and Paralympic competitors, and during the Games, hosted the Olympic and Paralympic Rowing competitions as well as the Olympic Canoe Sprint event, attracting over 400,000 visitors during the Games period (around 30,000 per day), and voted the best 2012 Olympic venue by spectators. Access to the 400-acre parkland around the Lake is provided to members of the public, free of charge, almost all the year round.
Who was Eton's first Headmaster?
572789c15951b619008f8cc7
William Waynflete
271
False
How old are the wall paintings in the Chapel and School Yard?
572789c15951b619008f8cc8
1480s
545
False
Between what years was College Hall built?
572789c15951b619008f8cc9
1441 and 1460
634
False
How many bays was the chapel originially intended to have?
572789c15951b619008f8cca
eighteen - or possibly seventeen
88
False
How many bays does the chapel have today?
572789c15951b619008f8ccb
eight
139
False
1441
634
In what year was Henry Vi deposed?
5ad207a7d7d075001a42820e
True
William Waynflete
271
Who was the first Headmaster of Magdalen College?
5ad207a7d7d075001a42820f
True
1460
643
In what year did William Waynflete die?
5ad207a7d7d075001a428210
True
1441
634
In what year was Magdalen College founded?
5ad207a7d7d075001a428211
True
1460
643
In what year was Winchester College established?
5ad207a7d7d075001a428212
True
Construction of the chapel, originally intended to be slightly over twice as long, with eighteen - or possibly seventeen - bays (there are eight today) was stopped when Henry VI was deposed. Only the Quire of the intended building was completed. Eton's first Headmaster, William Waynflete, founder of Magdalen College, Oxford and previously Head Master of Winchester College, built the ante-chapel that finishes the Chapel today. The important wall paintings in the Chapel and the brick north range of the present School Yard also date from the 1480s; the lower storeys of the cloister, including College Hall, had been built between 1441 and 1460.
Around what year did construction continue after a period of financial struggle?
57278ba7dd62a815002e9fe8
1517
236
False
Whose name is on the gate-house fronting School Yard?
57278ba7dd62a815002e9fe9
Roger Lupton
203
False
Where are 18th century "leaving portraits" kept at Eton?
57278ba7dd62a815002e9fea
Parlour, Election Hall, and Election Chamber
436
False
What is the most famous image of Eton College?
57278ba7dd62a815002e9feb
the big gate-house in the west range of the cloisters, fronting School Yard
263
False
1517
236
In what year did Eton's Roger Lupton die?
5ad20877d7d075001a428218
True
1517
236
In what year was Election Hall built?
5ad20877d7d075001a428219
True
Roger Lupton
203
Which Provost had Election Hall built?
5ad20877d7d075001a42821a
True
1517
236
In what year was Eton founded?
5ad20877d7d075001a42821b
True
Roger Lupton
203
Who was the first Provost of Eton?
5ad20877d7d075001a42821c
True
As the school suffered reduced income while still under construction, the completion and further development of the school has since depended to some extent on wealthy benefactors. Building resumed when Roger Lupton was Provost, around 1517. His name is borne by the big gate-house in the west range of the cloisters, fronting School Yard, perhaps the most famous image of the school. This range includes the important interiors of the Parlour, Election Hall, and Election Chamber, where most of the 18th century "leaving portraits" are kept.
Who was incorrctly quoted in saying "The Battle of Waterloo was won on the playing-fields of Eton"?
57278d87dd62a815002ea03a
Duke of Wellington
4
False
During what years was the Duke of Wellington at Eton?
57278d87dd62a815002ea03b
1781 to 1784
158
False
What "stuff" won Waterloo, according to Wellington?
57278d87dd62a815002ea03c
the manly character induced by games and sport
436
False
1781 to 1784
158
What years did Nevill attend Eton?
5ad20969d7d075001a428222
True
1781 to 1784
158
For what years did Sir William Fraser attend Eton?
5ad20969d7d075001a428223
True
Edward Creasy
249
Who was the Duke of Wellington?
5ad20969d7d075001a428224
True
1784
166
In what year was Charles de Montalembert made a Duke?
5ad20969d7d075001a428225
True
1781
158
In what year was Edward Creasy made a Sir?
5ad20969d7d075001a428226
True
The Duke of Wellington is often incorrectly quoted as saying that "The Battle of Waterloo was won on the playing-fields of Eton". Wellington was at Eton from 1781 to 1784 and was to send his sons there. According to Nevill (citing the historian Sir Edward Creasy), what Wellington said, while passing an Eton cricket match many decades later, was, "There grows the stuff that won Waterloo", a remark Nevill construes as a reference to "the manly character induced by games and sport" amongst English youth generally, not a comment about Eton specifically. In 1889, Sir William Fraser conflated this uncorroborated remark with the one attributed to him by Count Charles de Montalembert's "C'est ici qu'a été gagné la bataille de Waterloo" ("It is here that the Battle of Waterloo was won.")
Which club at Eaton is for motorcyclists?
57278fc7dd62a815002ea070
59 Club
673
False
What was the purpose for creating an Eton Mission?
57278fc7dd62a815002ea071
familiarize privileged schoolboys with social conditions in deprived areas
90
False
Why did construction of Eton Mission cease in 1971?
57278fc7dd62a815002ea072
it was decided that a more local project (at Dorney) would be more realistic
332
False
What is Eton's rowing club called?
57278fc7dd62a815002ea073
Eton Manor Boys' Club
581
False
Where was the Eton Mission originally to be located?
57278fc7dd62a815002ea074
district of Hackney Wick in east London
227
False
1880
299
In what year was the Eton Manor Boys' Club established?
5ad20a18d7d075001a42822c
True
1971
322
In what year was the 59 Club started?
5ad20a18d7d075001a42822d
True
59
673
How many students are in Eton's rowing club each year?
5ad20a18d7d075001a42822e
True
59
673
How many children attended the Eton Mission each year?
5ad20a18d7d075001a42822f
True
1880
299
In what year was G.F. Bodley's church built?
5ad20a18d7d075001a428230
True
As with other public schools, a scheme was devised towards the end of the 19th century to familiarize privileged schoolboys with social conditions in deprived areas. The project of establishing an 'Eton Mission' in the crowded district of Hackney Wick in east London was started at the beginning of 1880, and lasted until 1971 when it was decided that a more local project (at Dorney) would be more realistic. However over the years much money was raised for the Eton Mission, a fine church by G. F. Bodley was erected, many Etonians visited, and stimulated among other things the Eton Manor Boys' Club, a notable rowing club which has survived the Mission itself, and the 59 Club for motorcyclists.
To whom were School Hall and School Library erected in memoriam of?
57279105f1498d1400e8fc42
Etonians who had died in the Boer War
161
False
What destroyed part of the Upper School and Chapel in WWII?
57279105f1498d1400e8fc43
A bomb
305
False
Who was hired to replace windows in the Chapel from 1949-1952?
57279105f1498d1400e8fc44
Evie Hone
442
False
1906-8
88
In what years was Upper School built?
5ad20f0bd7d075001a4282c2
True
L K. Hall
61
Who designed Upper School?
5ad20f0bd7d075001a4282c3
True
1906-8
88
In what years was the Boer War fought?
5ad20f0bd7d075001a4282c4
True
Patrick Reyntiens
484
Who was one of the prominent Etonians who died in the Great War?
5ad20f0bd7d075001a4282c5
True
John Piper
469
Who was one of the prominent Etonians who died in the Boer War?
5ad20f0bd7d075001a4282c6
True
The very large and ornate School Hall and School Library (by L K. Hall) were erected in 1906-8 across the road from Upper School as the school's memorial to the Etonians who had died in the Boer War. Many tablets in the cloisters and chapel commemorate the large number of dead Etonians of the Great War. A bomb destroyed part of Upper School in World War Two and blew out many windows in the Chapel. The college commissioned replacements by Evie Hone (1949–52) and by John Piper and Patrick Reyntiens (1959 onwards).
What were new students once called by others?
57279242f1498d1400e8fc7a
'Jews'
114
False
What stipulation did the school base entrance on in 1945?
57279242f1498d1400e8fc7b
applicant's father being British by birth
227
False
For what reason as the 1945 entrance stipulation removed?
57279242f1498d1400e8fc7c
"suspected a whiff of anti-semitism"
487
False
Who decided to remove the 1945 entrance stipulation?
57279242f1498d1400e8fc7d
A. J. Ayer
436
False
1945
151
In what year did A.J. Ayer become a Professor of Logic at Oxford's Wykeham?
5ad20facd7d075001a4282cc
True
1945
151
In what year did Harold Macmillan become the British Prime Minister?
5ad20facd7d075001a4282cd
True
1945
151
In what year did Eton remove the rule where a student's father had to be British by birth?
5ad20facd7d075001a4282ce
True
1945
151
In what year did A.J. Ayer graduate from Eton?
5ad20facd7d075001a4282cf
True
In the past, people at Eton have occasionally been guilty of antisemitism. For a time, new admissions were called 'Jews' by their fellow Collegers. In 1945, the school introduced a nationality statute conditioning entry on the applicant's father being British by birth. The statute was removed after the intervention of Prime Minister Harold Macmillan in the 1960s after it came to the attention of Oxford's Wykeham Professor of Logic, A. J. Ayer, himself Jewish and an Old Etonian, who "suspected a whiff of anti-semitism".
The College boarding house is reserved for whom?
5727a4112ca10214002d929a
King's Scholars
53
False
Where do "King's Scholars" get their name?
5727a4112ca10214002d929b
the school was founded by King Henry VI
364
False
How many original Scholars were there in the original School?
5727a4112ca10214002d929c
seventy
450
False
How many students receive some form of financial aid?
5727a4112ca10214002d929d
up to a third
267
False
1440
407
In what year was King Henry VI deposed?
5ad210c3d7d075001a4282d4
True
seventy
450
How many commoners attended Eton in 1440?
5ad210c3d7d075001a4282d5
True
College
20
In 1440 where did commoners attending Eton stay?
5ad210c3d7d075001a4282d6
True
up to a third
267
How many regular students at Eton receive a scholarship but not a bursary?
5ad210c3d7d075001a4282d7
True
1440
407
In what year did King Henry VI's reign begin?
5ad210c3d7d075001a4282d8
True
One boarding house, College, is reserved for seventy King's Scholars, who attend Eton on scholarships provided by the original foundation and awarded by examination each year; King's Scholars pay up to 90% of full fees, depending on their means. Of the other pupils, up to a third receive some kind of bursary or scholarship. The name "King's Scholars" is because the school was founded by King Henry VI in 1440. The original School consisted of the seventy Scholars (together with some Commensals) and the Scholars were educated and boarded at the foundation's expense.
What is the term given to students who lived in town, but not on the campus of Eton?
5727b502ff5b5019007d930e
Oppidans
192
False
Oppidan residences were generally cared after by women known as what?
5727b502ff5b5019007d930f
"dames"
428
False
What is a House Master?
5727b502ff5b5019007d9310
the teacher who lives in the house and manages the pupils in it
765
False
About how many students are in a typical Oppidan house?
5727b502ff5b5019007d9311
fifty
466
False
Oppidans
192
What is the term for boys who live on Eton's campus?
5ad21352d7d075001a428332
True
18
370
How many Houses are there?
5ad21352d7d075001a428333
True
Oppidans
192
What is one of the House's names?
5ad21352d7d075001a428334
True
Houses
249
Where do boys on Eton's campus live?
5ad21352d7d075001a428335
True
oppidum
222
What is the Latin term for "school"?
5ad21352d7d075001a428336
True
As the School grew, more students were allowed to attend provided that they paid their own fees and lived in the town, outside the College's original buildings. These students became known as Oppidans, from the Latin word oppidum, meaning town. The Houses developed over time as a means of providing residence for the Oppidans in a more congenial manner, and during the 18th and 19th centuries were mostly run by women known as "dames". They typically contain about fifty boys. Although classes are organised on a School basis, most boys spend a large proportion of their time in their House. Each House has a formal name, mainly used for post and people outside the Eton community. It is generally known by the boys by the initials or surname of the House Master, the teacher who lives in the house and manages the pupils in it.
If a boy elects to live in an Oppidan house instead of the College house, what are they called?
5727ba063acd2414000deaaf
Oppidan Scholars
173
False
Which students are allowed to use the letters OS after their name?
5727ba063acd2414000deab0
Oppidan Scholar
450
False
How many Oppidan houses are at Eaton?
5727ba063acd2414000deab1
24
136
False
Under what circumstances are Oppidan Scholarships awarded?
5727ba063acd2414000deab2
consistently performing with distinction in School and external examinations
236
False
How many distinguishments does a student need for an Oppidan Scholarship?
5727ba063acd2414000deab3
either three distinctions in a row or four throughout his career
362
False
three distinctions in a row
369
What is one of the requirements to be a King's Scholar?
5ad21429d7d075001a428378
True
OS
497
What is  a King's Scholar entitled to put after their name?
5ad21429d7d075001a428379
True
24
136
Typically how many students each year decide to become a Oppidan Scholar instead of a King's Scholar?
5ad21429d7d075001a42837a
True
consistently performing with distinction in School and external examinations
236
How do King's Scholars get awarded with scholarships?
5ad21429d7d075001a42837b
True
Not all boys who pass the College election examination choose to become King's Scholars. If they choose instead to belong to one of the 24 Oppidan Houses, they are known as Oppidan Scholars. Oppidan scholarships may also be awarded for consistently performing with distinction in School and external examinations. To gain an Oppidan Scholarship, a boy must have either three distinctions in a row or four throughout his career. Within the school, an Oppidan Scholar is entitled to use the letters OS after his name.
Which Oppidan Houses did not change from their original 1720 names?
5727bad64b864d1900163bac
Godolphin House, Jourdelay's
29
False
Which two houses were built as student population increased 1845?
5727bad64b864d1900163bad
Hawtrey House, Durnford House
89
False
Which two Oppidan Houses are the oldest?
5727bad64b864d1900163bae
Godolphin House, Jourdelay's
29
False
the Provost and Fellows
152
Who built Godolphin House?
5ad21617d7d075001a4283ba
True
1845
177
In what year was Hopgarden built?
5ad21617d7d075001a4283bb
True
1720
82
In what year was South Lawn built?
5ad21617d7d075001a4283bc
True
the Provost and Fellows
152
Who built Villiers House?
5ad21617d7d075001a4283bd
True
The Timbralls
502
What is the newest House?
5ad21617d7d075001a4283be
True
The Oppidan Houses are named Godolphin House, Jourdelay's, (both built as such c. 1720), Hawtrey House, Durnford House, (the first two built as such by the Provost and Fellows, 1845, when the school was increasing in numbers and needed more centralised control), The Hopgarden, South Lawn, Waynflete, Evans's, Keate House, Warre House, Villiers House, Common Lane House, Penn House, Walpole House, Cotton Hall, Wotton House, Holland House, Mustians, Angelo's, Manor House, Farrer House, Baldwin's Bec, The Timbralls, and Westbury.
What term was given to juniors who acted as servants to older students?
5727bbbe4b864d1900163bde
"fags"
54
False
What were common duties of younger servant students?
5727bbbe4b864d1900163bdf
cleaning, cooking, and running errands
112
False
What words were yelled by Librarians that required first year students to come?
5727bbbe4b864d1900163be0
"Boy, Up!" or "Boy, Queue!"
222
False
Which first year student was given the task yelled for by the Librarian?
5727bbbe4b864d1900163be1
The last boy to arrive
296
False
What year was "fagging" phased out of most houses?
5727bbbe4b864d1900163be2
1970s
422
False
the 1970s
418
When was fagging mostly eliminated from all Houses?
5ad21705d7d075001a4283d6
True
fags
55
What were older students known as?
5ad21705d7d075001a4283d7
True
fags
55
What was the Captain of House and Captain of Games called?
5ad21705d7d075001a4283d8
True
"Boy, Up!"
222
What would junior boys yell at older students?
5ad21705d7d075001a4283d9
True
fags
55
What were Library members known as?
5ad21705d7d075001a4283da
True
For much of Eton's history, junior boys had to act as "fags", or servants, to older boys. Their duties included cleaning, cooking, and running errands. A Library member was entitled to yell at any time and without notice, "Boy, Up!" or "Boy, Queue!", and all first-year boys had to come running. The last boy to arrive was given the task. These practices, known as fagging, were partially phased out of most houses in the 1970s. Captains of House and Games still sometimes give tasks to first-year boys, such as collecting the mail from School Office.[citation needed]
There is false belief that the current uniforms were first worn for what event?
5727bc802ca10214002d950c
mourning for the death of George III
67
False
What are Beaks?
5727bc802ca10214002d950d
Members of the teaching staff
521
False
When are Beaks required to wear a form of school dress?
5727bc802ca10214002d950e
when teaching
612
False
What are classes at Eaton known as today?
5727bc802ca10214002d950f
"divisions", or "divs"
374
False
19th
198
In what century did George III die?
5ad217acd7d075001a4283e0
True
19th
198
What number of king of Britain was George III?
5ad217acd7d075001a4283e1
True
Beaks
561
What are students known as at Eton?
5ad217acd7d075001a4283e2
True
black
438
What color top-hats did Eton students originally wear?
5ad217acd7d075001a4283e3
True
black
438
What color are King's Scholars tailcoats?
5ad217acd7d075001a4283e4
True
The long-standing claim that the present uniform was first worn as mourning for the death of George III is unfounded. "Eton dress" has undergone significant changes since its standardisation in the 19th century. Originally (along with a top-hat and walking-cane), Etonian dress was reserved for formal occasions, but boys wear it today for classes, which are referred to as "divisions", or "divs". As stated above, King's Scholars wear a black gown over the top of their tailcoats, and occasionally a surplice in Chapel. Members of the teaching staff (known as Beaks) are required to wear a form of school dress when teaching.
How many current students take Chinese courses at Eaton?
5727bd3d4b864d1900163c00
more than 100
252
False
Is Chinese a required or non-curriculum course?
5727bd3d4b864d1900163c01
non-curriculum
298
False
How many computers were at Eaton in the 1970s?
5727bd3d4b864d1900163c02
just one
345
False
Which subject was only studied by boys with sufficient ability?
5727bd3d4b864d1900163c03
Classical Greek
124
False
classical studies
26
Was was the emphasis early on?
5ad21856d7d075001a4283fe
True
1970s
328
In what decade was learning Chinese introduced to Eton?
5ad21856d7d075001a4283ff
True
than 100
257
How many students at Eton now learn Latin each year?
5ad21856d7d075001a428400
True
more than 100
252
In the past how many students each year learned Classical Greek?
5ad21856d7d075001a428401
True
Later the emphasis was on classical studies, dominated by Latin and Ancient History, and, for boys with sufficient ability, Classical Greek. From the latter part of the 19th century this curriculum has changed and broadened: for example, there are now more than 100 students of Chinese, which is a non-curriculum course. In the 1970s, there was just one school computer, in a small room attached to the science buildings. It used paper tape to store programs. Today, all boys must have laptop computers, and the school fibre-optic network connects all classrooms and all boys' bedrooms to the internet.
What other term is given to the director of studies?
5727be06ff5b5019007d93fc
tutor
143
False
With whom does the primary responsibility for a student's leaning lie?
5727be06ff5b5019007d93fd
House Master
61
False
Who designed the learning buildings at Eton?
5727be06ff5b5019007d93fe
Henry Woodyer
386
False
Are living houses and classrooms seperate or conjoined?
5727be06ff5b5019007d93ff
separate
253
False
Henry Woodyer
386
Who was one of the first House Master's?
5ad219ded7d075001a42841a
True
1861
410
In what year were tutor's introduced to Eton?
5ad219ded7d075001a42841b
True
every decade or so
336
How often have new buildings for housing appeared at Eton?
5ad219ded7d075001a42841c
True
divs
182
What is New Schools colloquially known as?
5ad219ded7d075001a42841d
True
The primary responsibility for a boy's studies lies with his House Master, but he is assisted by an additional director of studies, known as a tutor. Classes, colloquially known as "divs" (divisions), are organised on a School basis; the classrooms are separate from the houses. New school buildings have appeared for teaching purposes every decade or so since New Schools, designed by Henry Woodyer and built 1861-3. Despite the introduction of modern technology, the external appearance and locations of many of the classrooms have remained unchanged for a long time.
Which Eton society is dedicated to philosophy?
5727bf482ca10214002d9556
Wine and Wotton’s
856
False
Which Eton society is centered around horses?
5727bf482ca10214002d9557
Rous
704
False
What is the name of the Eton club for musical interests?
5727bf482ca10214002d9558
Rock
690
False
What is the interest of the Savile club at Eton?
5727bf482ca10214002d9559
Rare Books and Manuscripts
755
False
Debating
385
What was one of the first society's created at Eton?
5ad21aa6d7d075001a428422
True
Aeronautical
213
What was the latest society started at Eton?
5ad21aa6d7d075001a428423
True
Parry
634
What in one of the societies that dates to the 1400s?
5ad21aa6d7d075001a428424
True
Theatre
824
What is one of the societies started in the 15th century?
5ad21aa6d7d075001a428425
True
Tech Club
813
What is the modern-day largest society?
5ad21aa6d7d075001a428426
True
Societies tend to come and go, of course, depending on the special enthusiasms of the masters and boys in the school at the time, but some have been in existence many years. Those in existence at present include: Aeronautical, African, Alexander Cozens (Art), Amnesty, Archeological, Architectural, Astronomy, Banks (conservation), Caledonian, Cheese, Classical, Comedy, Cosmopolitan, Debating, Design, Entrepreneurship, Geographical, Henry Fielding, Hispanic, History, Keynes (economics), Law, Literary, Mathematical, Medical, Middle Eastern, Model United Nations, Modern Languages, Oriental, Orwell (left-wing), Simeon (Christian), Parry (music), Photographic, Political, Praed (poetry), Rock (music), Rous (equestrian), Salisbury (diplomatic), Savile (Rare Books and Manuscripts), Shelley, Scientific, Sports, Tech Club, Theatre, Wellington (military), Wine and Wotton’s (philosophy).
For what is the Huxley prize awarded?
5727c2d93acd2414000debf1
a project on a scientific subject
551
False
Which two prizes are dedicated to mathematics?
5727c2d93acd2414000debf2
Tomline and Russell
846
False
What artistic accomplishments can earn students a prize?
5727c2d93acd2414000debf3
painting, sculpture, ceramics, playing musical instruments, musical composition, declamation, silverwork, and design
1131
False
Are trials considered internal or external exams?
5727c2d93acd2414000debf4
internal
45
False
GCSE
62
What are generally the hardest internal exams at Eton?
5ad21b77d7d075001a428436
True
Gladstone Memorial Prize
405
What was the first prize to be awarded at Eton?
5ad21b77d7d075001a428437
True
Huxley Prize
525
What is the name of the prize for silverwork?
5ad21b77d7d075001a428438
True
Sotheby Prize
893
What is the prize for musical composition?
5ad21b77d7d075001a428439
True
Coutts Prize
438
What is the prize for design?
5ad21b77d7d075001a42843a
True
Prizes are awarded on the results of trials (internal exams), GCSE and AS-levels. In addition, many subjects and activities have specially endowed prizes, several of which are awarded by visiting experts. The most prestigious is the Newcastle Scholarship, awarded on the strength of an examination, consisting of two papers in philosophical theology, moral theory and applied ethics. Also of note are the Gladstone Memorial Prize and the Coutts Prize, awarded on the results of trials and AS-level examinations in C; and the Huxley Prize, awarded for a project on a scientific subject. Other specialist prizes include the Newcastle Classical Prize; the Rosebery Exhibition for History; the Queen’s Prizes for French and German; the Duke of Newcastle’s Russian Prize; the Beddington Spanish Prize; the Strafford and Bowman Shakespeare Prizes; the Tomline and Russell Prizes in Mathematics; the Sotheby Prize for History of Art; the Waddington Prize for Theology and Philosophy; the Birley Prize for History; The Lower Boy Rosebery Prize and the Wilder Prize for Theology. Prizes are awarded too for excellence in such activities as painting, sculpture, ceramics, playing musical instruments, musical composition, declamation, silverwork, and design.
What does the Busk Fund support?
5727c3af3acd2414000dec0d
individual ventures that show particular initiative
188
False
Which Fund is dedicated for travel to non-English speaking countries?
5727c3af3acd2414000dec0e
Marsden Fund
428
False
Which Fund supports travel to classical lands?
5727c3af3acd2414000dec0f
the C.M. Wells Memorial Trust Fund
241
False
Marsden Fund
428
What grant is given for boys who want to travel to countries where English is the main language?
5ad21c21d7d075001a42844a
True
C.M. Wells Memorial Trust Fund
245
What grant is given to boys who want to enter the teaching profession?
5ad21c21d7d075001a42844b
True
Busk Fund
162
What fund is for boys who want to travel to Africa?
5ad21c21d7d075001a42844c
True
C.M. Wells Memorial Trust Fund
245
What fund is for boys who want to travel to Asia?
5ad21c21d7d075001a42844d
True
Various benefactions make it possible to give grants each year to boys who wish, for educational or cultural reasons, to work or travel abroad. These include the Busk Fund, which supports individual ventures that show particular initiative; the C.M. Wells Memorial Trust Fund, for the promotion of visits to classical lands; the Sadler Fund, which supports, amongst others, those intending to enter the Foreign Service; and the Marsden Fund, for travel in countries where the principal language is not English.
What action results in something being "Sent Up For Good?"
5727c9f23acd2414000dec6b
If any boy produces an outstanding piece of work
0
False
What does a student receive when work is Sent Up For Good?
5727c9f23acd2414000dec6c
a card
518
False
When a student has work Sent Up For Good, who signs the card that they receive?
5727c9f23acd2414000dec6d
House Master, tutor and division master
541
False
Where is work that has been Sent Up For Good stored?
5727c9f23acd2414000dec6e
College Archives
106
False
18
175
How many pieces of work are Sent Up For Good each decade on average?
5ad21d30d7d075001a42845c
True
18
175
How many Head of Department are there at Eton?
5ad21d30d7d075001a42845d
True
Sent Up For Good
61
What process at Eton is as clear as day to most Eton boys?
5ad21d30d7d075001a42845e
True
House Master
541
Who takes the Sending Up For Good piece of work to the College Archives?
5ad21d30d7d075001a42845f
True
If any boy produces an outstanding piece of work, it may be "Sent Up For Good", storing the effort in the College Archives for posterity. This award has been around since the 18th century. As Sending Up For Good is fairly infrequent, the process is rather mysterious to many of Eton's boys. First, the master wishing to Send Up For Good must gain the permission of the relevant Head of Department. Upon receiving his or her approval, the piece of work will be marked with Sent Up For Good and the student will receive a card to be signed by House Master, tutor and division master.
What is the opposite of a Show Up?
5727cab93acd2414000dec73
a "Rip"
29
False
Who must sign a Rip?
5727cab93acd2414000dec74
the boy's housemaster
147
False
Who must sign a White Ticket?
5727cab93acd2414000dec75
all his teachers
274
False
Who must sign an "info"?
5727cab93acd2414000dec76
the boy's housemaster and tutor
551
False
What punishment term is "info" short for?
5727cab93acd2414000dec77
sign for information
445
False
torn at the top of the page/sheet
88
What action is colloquially known as a Show Up?
5ad21ea2d7d075001a428480
True
White Ticket
235
What are boys who accumulate Show Up's liable to receive?
5ad21ea2d7d075001a428481
True
doing domestic chores or writing lines
354
What are some of the consequences of earning a Show Up?
5ad21ea2d7d075001a428482
True
boy's housemaster and tutor
555
Who must sign a Show Up?
5ad21ea2d7d075001a428483
True
The opposite of a Show Up is a "Rip". This is for sub-standard work, which is sometimes torn at the top of the page/sheet and must be submitted to the boy's housemaster for signature. Boys who accumulate rips are liable to be given a "White Ticket", which must be signed by all his teachers and may be accompanied by other punishments, usually involving doing domestic chores or writing lines. In recent times,[when?] a milder form of the rip, 'sign for information', colloquially known as an "info", has been introduced, which must also be signed by the boy's housemaster and tutor.
What term is used if a master is more than 15 minutes late to a class?
5727d0feff5b5019007d95e8
a "run"
672
False
Where is the "Tardy Book" kept?
5727d0feff5b5019007d95e9
School Office
117
False
How long is the typical punishment for being tardy?
5727d0feff5b5019007d95ea
typically three days
207
False
When a boy is summoned to the Head Master, what is the experience called?
5727d0feff5b5019007d95eb
the "Bill"
467
False
What is another term for rustication?
5727d0feff5b5019007d95ec
suspension
546
False
three days
217
What is the longest duration a student must sign the Tardy Book?
5ad21fd6d7d075001a4284ac
True
three days
217
What is the shortest duration a student would need to sign the Tardy Book?
5ad21fd6d7d075001a4284ad
True
Tardy Book
81
What must a student sign if the commit a serious misdeed?
5ad21fd6d7d075001a4284ae
True
Head Master
344
Who do students meet with if the commit the most serious misdeeds?
5ad21fd6d7d075001a4284af
True
A boy who is late for any division or other appointment may be required to sign "Tardy Book", a register kept in the School Office, between 7.35am and 7.45am, every morning for the duration of his sentence (typically three days). Tardy Book may also be issued for late work. For more serious misdeeds, a boy is summoned from his lessons to the Head Master, or Lower Master if the boy is in the lower two years, to talk personally about his misdeeds. This is known as the "Bill". The most serious misdeeds may result in expulsion, or rustication (suspension). Conversely, should a master be more than 15 minutes late for a class, traditionally the pupils might claim it as a "run" and absent themselves for the rest of its duration.
The birch was abolished and replaced with what?
5727d2703acd2414000ded57
caning
186
False
What was the most severe form of physical punishment at Eton referred to as?
5727d2703acd2414000ded58
"Pop-Tanning"
676
False
Why was a subject ordered to appear to Pop-Tanning in old trousers?
5727d2703acd2414000ded59
the caning would cut the cloth to shreds
951
False
Which Head Master abolished corporal punishment by peers?
5727d2703acd2414000ded5a
Chenevix-Trench
277
False
Who administered caning privately in his office?
5727d2703acd2414000ded5b
Anthony Chenevix-Trench
89
False
John Keate
0
Who started the practice of using a birch to discipline students?
5ad220b5d7d075001a4284be
True
John Keate
0
Who started allowing senior boys to apply corporal punishment?
5ad220b5d7d075001a4284bf
True
over the seat of the trousers
418
How were students hit with the birch by Head Masters?
5ad220b5d7d075001a4284c0
True
Anthony Chenevix-Trench
89
Who was one of the President's of Pop?
5ad220b5d7d075001a4284c1
True
John Keate
0
Who came up with the term "Pop-Tanning"?
5ad220b5d7d075001a4284c2
True
John Keate, Head Master from 1809 to 1834, took over at a time when discipline was poor. Anthony Chenevix-Trench, Head Master from 1964 to 1970, abolished the birch and replaced it with caning, also applied to the bare posterior, which he administered privately in his office. Chenevix-Trench also abolished corporal punishment administered by senior boys. Previously, House Captains were permitted to cane miscreants over the seat of the trousers. This was a routine occurrence, carried out privately with the boy bending over with his head under the edge of a table. Less common but more severe were the canings administered by Pop (see Eton Society below) in the form of a "Pop-Tanning", in which a large number of hard strokes were inflicted by the President of Pop in the presence of all Pop members (or, in earlier times, each member of Pop took it in turns to inflict a stroke). The culprit was summoned to appear in a pair of old trousers, as the caning would cut the cloth to shreds. This was the most severe form of physical punishment at Eton.
What term is given to the Head of Music?
5727d32a3acd2414000ded61
"Precentor"
12
False
What is an example of a lesser-known instrument taught at Eton?
5727d32a3acd2414000ded62
didgeridoo
324
False
Who is the current Precentor?
5727d32a3acd2414000ded63
Tim Johnson
43
False
How many organs does Eton house?
5727d32a3acd2414000ded64
eight
78
False
Tim Johnson
43
Who is the current Headmaster?
5ad2213dd7d075001a4284d2
True
Tim Johnson
43
Who currently guides the National Youth Orchestra?
5ad2213dd7d075001a4284d3
True
Ralph Allwood
552
Who now organizes the Eton Choral Courses?
5ad2213dd7d075001a4284d4
True
Tim Johnson
43
Who designed the Farrer Theatre?
5ad2213dd7d075001a4284d5
True
Ralph Allwood
552
Who designed Parry Hall?
5ad2213dd7d075001a4284d6
True
The current "Precentor" (Head of Music) is Tim Johnson, and the School boasts eight organs and an entire building for music (performance spaces include the School Hall, the Farrer Theatre and two halls dedicated to music, the Parry Hall and the Concert Hall). Many instruments are taught, including obscure ones such as the didgeridoo. The School participates in many national competitions; many pupils are part of the National Youth Orchestra, and the School gives scholarships for dedicated and talented musicians. A former Precentor of the college, Ralph Allwood set up and organised Eton Choral Courses, which run at the School every summer.
How many people can sit in the audience at Eton's main theatre?
5727d3e4ff5b5019007d9646
400
108
False
What is the name of Eton's largest theatre?
5727d3e4ff5b5019007d9647
Farrer
92
False
How many house productions does Eton run each year?
5727d3e4ff5b5019007d9648
about 8 or 9
221
False
What are "independent" theatre productions at Eton?
5727d3e4ff5b5019007d9649
not confined solely to one house, produced, directed and funded by Etonians
298
False
Do the plays sport high attendance rates?
5727d3e4ff5b5019007d964a
fully booked every night
543
False
90
186
How many people can sit in College Chapel?
5ad221e7d7d075001a4284dc
True
400
108
How many people can sit in Upper School?
5ad221e7d7d075001a4284dd
True
Caccia Studio
147
What Studio theatre was built first?
5ad221e7d7d075001a4284de
True
8
227
How many plays are held in Caccia Studio each year?
5ad221e7d7d075001a4284df
True
9
232
How many plays are held in Empty Space each year?
5ad221e7d7d075001a4284e0
True
Numerous plays are put on every year at Eton College; there is one main theatre, called the Farrer (seating 400) and 2 Studio theatres, called the Caccia Studio and Empty Space (seating 90 and 80 respectively). There are about 8 or 9 house productions each year, around 3 or 4 "independent" plays (not confined solely to one house, produced, directed and funded by Etonians) and three school plays, one specifically for boys in the first two years, and two open to all years. The School Plays have such good reputations that they are normally fully booked every night. Productions also take place in varying locations around the School, varying from the sports fields to more historic buildings such as Upper School and College Chapel.
Who are cast in Eton's female roles in their productions?
5727d52c3acd2414000deda9
girls from surrounding schools
421
False
Who is responsible for stage hand duties, lighting, sound, and management?
5727d52c3acd2414000dedaa
Boys from the School
586
False
Which Shakespearean play did the School put on in October 2012?
5727d52c3acd2414000dedab
Macbeth
264
False
What are somefemale schools close to Eton?
5727d52c3acd2414000dedac
St George's, Ascot, St Mary's School Ascot, Windsor Girls' School and Heathfield St Mary's School
461
False
A Funny Thing Happened on the Way to the Forum
113
What Eton production did the girls from St. George's recently appear in?
5ad22491d7d075001a42851e
True
The Cherry Orchard
172
Girls from St Mary's School Ascot appeared in which recent Eton production?
5ad22491d7d075001a42851f
True
Macbeth
264
Girls from Windsor Girls' School appeared in Which recent Eton production?
5ad22491d7d075001a428520
True
A Midsummer Night's Dream
387
What Eton production did the girls from Heathfield St Mary's School recently appear in?
5ad22491d7d075001a428521
True
St Mary's School Ascot
481
What girl's school was featured in October 2011's Macbeth?
5ad22491d7d075001a428522
True
In recent years, the School has put on a musical version of The Bacchae (October 2009) as well as productions of A Funny Thing Happened on the Way to the Forum (May 2010), The Cherry Orchard (February 2011), Joseph K (October 2011), Cyrano de Bergerac (May 2012), Macbeth (October 2012), London Assurance (May 2013) and Jerusalem (October 2013). Upcoming in May 2014 was a production of A Midsummer Night's Dream . Often girls from surrounding schools, such as St George's, Ascot, St Mary's School Ascot, Windsor Girls' School and Heathfield St Mary's School, are cast in female roles. Boys from the School are also responsible for the lighting, sound and stage management of all the productions, under the guidance of several professional full-time theatre staff.
What is Eton's best-known holiday?
5727d66c3acd2414000dedc9
"Fourth of June"
55
False
What does the "Fourth of June" celebrate?
5727d66c3acd2414000dedca
the birthday of King George III
90
False
When is the Fourth of June celebrated?
5727d66c3acd2414000dedcb
the Wednesday before the first weekend of June
400
False
Which event is held on the Fourth of June?
5727d66c3acd2414000dedcc
Procession of Boats
179
False
Fourth of June
56
On what day of the year did King George III die?
5ad22568d7d075001a42853c
True
Fourth of June
56
On what date is the Queen's Official Birthday celebrated?
5ad22568d7d075001a42853d
True
4 June
385
On what date is St. Andrew's Day?
5ad22568d7d075001a42853e
True
Eton wall game
498
How is the Queen's birthday celebrated?
5ad22568d7d075001a42853f
True
Wednesday before the first weekend of June
404
When is St. Andrew's Day actually observed?
5ad22568d7d075001a428540
True
Eton's best-known holiday takes place on the so-called "Fourth of June", a celebration of the birthday of King George III, Eton's greatest patron. This day is celebrated with the Procession of Boats, in which the top rowing crews from the top four years row past in vintage wooden rowing boats. Similar to the Queen's Official Birthday, the "Fourth of June" is no longer celebrated on 4 June, but on the Wednesday before the first weekend of June. Eton also observes St. Andrew's Day, on which the Eton wall game is played.[citation needed]
Why is being a charity beneficial to Eton?
5727d7d84b864d1900163e4e
substantial tax breaks
328
False
What service does Eton provide to the local community free of charge?
5727d7d84b864d1900163e4f
use of its facilities
990
False
What was the full price of Eton per student in 2010-2011?
5727d7d84b864d1900163e50
£29,862 (approximately US$48,600 or €35,100
1153
False
How much did estimated tax breaks save per student in 1992?
5727d7d84b864d1900163e51
£1,945 per pupil per year
477
False
Eton College
24
What is the largest charity in the UK?
5ad2265bd7d075001a428546
True
992
434
In what year did David Jewell become the Master of Haileybury?
5ad2265bd7d075001a428547
True
2010
18
In what year did Tony Little retire as Head Master?
5ad2265bd7d075001a428548
True
£29,862
1153
How much did it cost to attend Eton in 2006?
5ad2265bd7d075001a428549
True
US$48,600
1176
How much was the fee to attend Eton in 2010?
5ad2265bd7d075001a42854a
True
Until 18 December 2010, Eton College was an exempt charity under English law (Charities Act 1993, Schedule 2). Under the provisions of the Charities Act 2006, it is now an excepted charity, and fully registered with the Charities Commission, and is now one of the 100 largest charities in the UK. As a charity, it benefits from substantial tax breaks. It was calculated by the late David Jewell, former Master of Haileybury, that in 1992 such tax breaks saved the School about £1,945 per pupil per year, although he had no direct connection with the School. This subsidy has declined since the 2001 abolition by the Labour Government of state-funded scholarships (formerly known as "assisted places") to independent schools. However, no child attended Eton on this scheme, meaning that the actual level of state assistance to the School has always been lower. Eton's retiring Head Master, Tony Little, has claimed that the benefits that Eton provides to the local community free of charge (use of its facilities, etc.) have a higher value than the tax breaks it receives as a result of its charitable status. The fee for the academic year 2010–2011 was £29,862 (approximately US$48,600 or €35,100 as of March 2011), although the sum is considerably lower for those pupils on bursaries and scholarships.
Who granted money to Eton for a sports complex in 1995?
5727d8cc4b864d1900163e6e
the National Lottery
8
False
When did the Thames Valley Athletics Centre open?
5727d8cc4b864d1900163e6f
April 1999
1002
False
For what did the college pay a substancial sum and donate 4.5 hectres of land?
5727d8cc4b864d1900163e70
in return for exclusive use of the facilities during the daytime only
263
False
How many cricket squares does Eton have?
5727d8cc4b864d1900163e71
30
131
False
How many swimming pools are located within Eton?
5727d8cc4b864d1900163e72
two
111
False
1995
3
In what year was the National Lottery established?
5ad22892d7d075001a428560
True
1995
3
When was Safe Neighbourhoods Unit founded?
5ad22892d7d075001a428561
True
£4.6m
49
How much do UK councils spend on youth services each year?
5ad22892d7d075001a428562
True
Steve Osborn
642
Who led the National Lottery in 1995?
5ad22892d7d075001a428563
True
Steve Osborn
642
Who led the UK Sports Council in 1995?
5ad22892d7d075001a428564
True
In 1995 the National Lottery granted money for a £4.6m sports complex, to add to Eton's existing facilities of two swimming pools, 30 cricket squares, 24 football, rugby and hockey pitches and a gym. The College paid £200,000 and contributed 4.5 hectares of land in return for exclusive use of the facilities during the daytime only. The UK Sports Council defended the deal on the grounds that the whole community would benefit, while the bursar claimed that Windsor, Slough and Eton Athletic Club was "deprived" because local people (who were not pupils at the College) did not have a world-class running track and facilities to train with. Steve Osborn, director of the Safe Neighbourhoods Unit, described the decision as "staggering" given the background of a substantial reduction in youth services by councils across the country, a matter over which, however, neither the College nor the UK Sports Council, had any control. The facility, which became the Thames Valley Athletics Centre, opened in April 1999.
Who claimed she had been unfairly fired by Eton and won her case?
5727d9892ca10214002d9802
Sarah Forsyth
17
False
What did Sarah Forsyth provide as evidence to her unfair termination and job duties?
5727d9892ca10214002d9803
secretly recorded conversations with both Prince Harry and her Head of Department, Ian Burke
266
False
For what was Eton criticized in its handling of the Forsyth case?
5727d9892ca10214002d9804
failing to produce its capability procedures
550
False
Who was criticized for not handling the Forsyth case independently?
5727d9892ca10214002d9805
the Head Master
610
False
Ian Burke
349
Who was the Head Master of Eton in 2004?
5ad2294dd7d075001a428586
True
Head of Department
329
What position did Sarah Forsyth have at Eton in 2004?
5ad2294dd7d075001a428587
True
2005
391
In what year did Prince Harry graduate from Eton?
5ad2294dd7d075001a428588
True
2004
11
In what year did Prince Harry start attending Eton?
5ad2294dd7d075001a428589
True
2004
11
In what year did Ian Burke become a Head of Department at Eton?
5ad2294dd7d075001a42858a
True
In October 2004, Sarah Forsyth claimed that she had been dismissed unfairly by Eton College and had been bullied by senior staff. She also claimed she was instructed to do some of Prince Harry's coursework to enable him to pass AS Art. As evidence, Forsyth provided secretly recorded conversations with both Prince Harry and her Head of Department, Ian Burke. An employment tribunal in July 2005 found that she had been unfairly dismissed and criticised Burke for bullying her and for repeatedly changing his story. It also criticised the school for failing to produce its capability procedures and criticised the Head Master for not reviewing the case independently.
The School dismissed claims that Prince Harry was cheating by saying the claims were what?
5727dce22ca10214002d9850
unfounded and irrelevant
566
False
What was potentially considered abuse of teacher-student confidentiality?
5727dce22ca10214002d9851
Forsyth's decision to record a conversation with Harry
14
False
The tribunal denied responsibility for what concerning Harry's recording in the Forsyth case?
5727dce22ca10214002d9852
determine whether or not it was legitimate
333
False
Mr Burke
189
Who was the spokesperson for Clarence House?
5ad22a32d7d075001a4285be
True
Prince Harry
229
Who wrote the text for Prince Harry's expressive art project?
5ad22a32d7d075001a4285bf
True
Forsyth
14
Who was one of the members of the tribunal?
5ad22a32d7d075001a4285c0
True
Mr Burke
189
Who issued the statement for the school?
5ad22a32d7d075001a4285c1
True
It criticised Forsyth's decision to record a conversation with Harry as an abuse of teacher–student confidentiality and said "It is clear whichever version of the evidence is accepted that Mr Burke did ask the claimant to assist Prince Harry with text for his expressive art project ... It is not part of this tribunal's function to determine whether or not it was legitimate." In response to the tribunal's ruling concerning the allegations about Prince Harry, the School issued a statement, saying Forsyth's claims "were dismissed for what they always have been - unfounded and irrelevant." A spokesperson from Clarence House said, "We are delighted that Harry has been totally cleared of cheating."
Who defended fifty schools accused of price-sharing, stating they were unaware the laws had changed?
5727dea1ff5b5019007d972a
Jean Scott
736
False
In what year was a group of independent schools found guilty of price-sharing?
5727dea1ff5b5019007d972b
2005
3
False
How much did each school have to pay as punishment for price-sharing?
5727dea1ff5b5019007d972c
£70,000, totalling around £3.5 million
386
False
What did the schools elect to contribute money towards, in light of their allegations?
5727dea1ff5b5019007d972d
a new charitable educational fund
547
False
2005
3
In what year did Sevenoaks School open its doors to students?
5ad22d60d7d075001a428632
True
£70,000
386
How much was Eton fined by the Office of Fair Trading in 2005?
5ad22d60d7d075001a428633
True
£70,000
386
How much did Eton agree to contribute to the new charitable education fund?
5ad22d60d7d075001a428634
True
Jean Scott
736
How was the head of the Office of Fair Trading in 2005?
5ad22d60d7d075001a428635
True
£70,000
386
How much does Eaton give to the Independent Schools Council each year?
5ad22d60d7d075001a428636
True
In 2005, the Office of Fair Trading found fifty independent schools, including Eton, to have breached the Competition Act by "regularly and systematically" exchanging information about planned increases in school fees, which was collated and distributed among the schools by the bursar at Sevenoaks School. Following the investigation by the OFT, each school was required to pay around £70,000, totalling around £3.5 million, significantly less than the maximum possible fine. In addition, the schools together agreed to contribute another £3m to a new charitable educational fund. The incident raised concerns over whether the charitable status of independent schools such as Eton should be reconsidered, and perhaps revoked. However, Jean Scott, the head of the Independent Schools Council, said that independent schools had always been exempt from anti-cartel rules applied to business, were following a long-established procedure in sharing the information with each other, and that they were unaware of the change to the law (on which they had not been consulted). She wrote to John Vickers, the OFT director-general, saying, "They are not a group of businessmen meeting behind closed doors to fix the price of their products to the disadvantage of the consumer. They are schools that have quite openly continued to follow a long-established practice because they were unaware that the law had changed."
How much had Eton received in farming subsidies in 2005?
5727df542ca10214002d9878
£2,652
73
False
Under what policy was Eton able to receive funds without farming?
5727df542ca10214002d9879
Common Agricultural Policy
119
False
What did Panorama say was the documented reason Eton was eligible for farming subsidies?
5727df542ca10214002d987a
environmental improvements
475
False
2002
379
In what year was the Taxpayers' Alliance established?
5ad22e4dd7d075001a428662
True
2002
379
In what year was the Common Agricultural Policy established?
5ad22e4dd7d075001a428663
True
2007
388
In what year was Panorama established?
5ad22e4dd7d075001a428664
True
£5,300
347
How much in farming subsidies did Eton receive in 2012?
5ad22e4dd7d075001a428665
True
A Freedom of Information request in 2005 revealed that Eton had received £2,652 in farming subsidies in 2004 under the Common Agricultural Policy. Asked to explain under what grounds it was eligible to receive farming subsidies, Eton admitted that it was 'a bit of a mystery'. The TaxPayers' Alliance also stated that Eton had received a total of £5,300 in CAP subsidies between 2002 and 2007. Panorama revealed in March 2012 that farming subsidies were granted to Eton for 'environmental improvements', in effect 'being paid without having to do any farming at all'.
How many outreach events were held at Eton by Oxford University in 2010?
5727f7872ca10214002d9a64
nine
511
False
Which independent school had more hosted outreach events than Eton?
5727f7872ca10214002d9a65
Wellington College
663
False
Who described outreach events at Eton as "unfair and indefensible?"
5727f7872ca10214002d9a66
Labour MP David Lammy
404
False
In 2010, how many applicants from Eton were accepted to Oxford?
5727f7872ca10214002d9a67
37
68
False
nine
511
How many Eton "outreach events" were held at Wellington College in 2010?
5ad22f61d7d075001a428688
True
2010
62
In what year did David Lammy become a Labour MP?
5ad22f61d7d075001a428689
True
2011
395
In what year did The Economist print an article about how Oxford accepted more students from Eton than all the UK's students who qualify for free school meals?
5ad22f61d7d075001a42868a
True
April
389
In what month in 2010 did The Daily Telegraph publish a report about Oxford's acceptance standards?
5ad22f61d7d075001a42868b
True
Figures obtained by The Daily Telegraph had revealed that, in 2010, 37 applicants from Eton were accepted by Oxford whilst state schools had difficulty obtaining entry even for pupils with the country's most impressive exam results. According to The Economist, Oxford and Cambridge admit more Etonians each year than applicants from the whole country who qualify for free school meals. In April 2011 the Labour MP David Lammy described as unfair and 'indefensible' the fact that Oxford University had organised nine 'outreach events' at Eton in 2010, although he admitted that it had, in fact, held fewer such events for Eton than for another independent school, Wellington College.
When was an accidental email sent to potential students of Eton that warranted a personal apology to each family?
5727f8004b864d19001640d0
July 2015
3
False
How many prospective students received a mistaken email in July 2015?
5727f8004b864d19001640d1
400
47
False
For how many students was the email mistake originally intended?
5727f8004b864d19001640d2
nine
168
False
Tony Little
608
Who was the tutor for admissions at Eton in 2015?
5ad23055d7d075001a4286c0
True
the tutor for admissions
631
Who at Eton issued the statement about the erroneous emails?
5ad23055d7d075001a4286c1
True
2015
8
In what year did Tony Little become the Headmaster of Eton?
5ad23055d7d075001a4286c2
True
400
47
How many students does Eton accept each year?
5ad23055d7d075001a4286c3
True
In July 2015, Eton accidentally sent emails to 400 prospective students, offering them conditional entrance to the school in September 2017. The email was intended for nine students, but an IT glitch caused the email to be sent to 400 additional families, who didn't necessarily have a place. In response, the school issued the following statement: "This error was discovered within minutes and each family was immediately contacted to notify them that it should be disregarded and to apologise. We take this type of incident very seriously indeed and so a thorough investigation, overseen by the headmaster Tony Little and led by the tutor for admissions, is being carried out to find out exactly what went wrong and ensure it cannot happen again. Eton College offers its sincere apologies to those boys concerned and their families. We deeply regret the confusion and upset this must have caused."
What was Eton's beagle club accused of in January 2016?
5727f98a2ca10214002d9a90
an illegal hare hunt
110
False
What evidence was brought forth of a potential hare hunt?
5727f98a2ca10214002d9a91
a video
168
False
Did Eton's official statement say that they took the matter seriously or frivilously?
5727f98a2ca10214002d9a92
extremely seriously
413
False
2016
11
In what year did Eaton establish the beagling club?
5ad230dcd7d075001a4286e4
True
2016
11
In what year was the League Against Cruel Sports founded?
5ad230dcd7d075001a4286e5
True
2016
11
When was hunting hare's made illegal in the UK?
5ad230dcd7d075001a4286e6
True
January
3
What is the best month to hunt hares in the UK?
5ad230dcd7d075001a4286e7
True
League Against Cruel Sports
67
Who taped the Eton Beagles illegally hunting a hare?
5ad230dcd7d075001a4286e8
True
In January 2016, the Eton College beagling club was accused by the League Against Cruel Sports of undertaking an illegal hare hunt. The allegations were accompanied by a video of the Eton Beagles chasing a hare, as 'the hunt staff urge the beagles on and make no efforts to call the dogs off.' A spokesman representing Eton College released the following statement: "Eton College takes its legal responsibilities extremely seriously and expects all school activities to comply with the law. We are investigating this allegation as a matter of urgency and will be co-operating fully with the relevant authorities."
Which male private school in Boston, USA has Eton formed a relationship with?
5727fa593acd2414000df13f
Roxbury Latin School
616
False
Where do Hennessy Scholars typically reside?
5727fa593acd2414000df140
Wotton house
1202
False
In which year was the Hennessy Scholarship founded?
5727fa593acd2414000df141
2005
1092
False
What is the G20 School's Group?
5727fa593acd2414000df142
a collection of college preparatory boarding schools from around the world
208
False
2005
1092
In what year was Robert College founded in Turkey?
5ad231aed7d075001a42871e
True
2005
1092
In what year did F. Washington Jarvis retire from Roxbury Latin at their headmaster?
5ad231aed7d075001a42871f
True
2005
1092
In what year did Singapore's Raffles Institution open their doors?
5ad231aed7d075001a428720
True
2005
1092
In what year was the G20 Schools Group established?
5ad231aed7d075001a428721
True
Eric Anderson
731
Who was Switzerland's International School of Geneva's headmaster in 2005?
5ad231aed7d075001a428722
True
Eton College has links with some private schools in India today, maintained from the days of the British Raj, such as The Doon School and Mayo College. Eton College is also a member of the G20 Schools Group, a collection of college preparatory boarding schools from around the world, including Turkey's Robert College, the United States' Phillips Academy and Phillips Exeter Academy, Australia's Scotch College, Melbourne Grammar School and Launceston Church Grammar School, Singapore's Raffles Institution, and Switzerland's International School of Geneva. Eton has recently fostered[when?] a relationship with the Roxbury Latin School, a traditional all-boys private school in Boston, USA. Former Eton headmaster and provost Sir Eric Anderson shares a close friendship with Roxbury Latin Headmaster emeritus F. Washington Jarvis; Anderson has visited Roxbury Latin on numerous occasions, while Jarvis briefly taught theology at Eton after retiring from his headmaster post at Roxbury Latin. The headmasters' close friendship spawned the Hennessy Scholarship, an annual prize established in 2005 and awarded to a graduating RL senior for a year of study at Eton. Hennessy Scholars generally reside in Wotton house.
Which Duke of Gloucester attended Eton?
5727fb69ff5b5019007d99ec
Prince Richard
117
False
Where is Prince Richard's son, Alexander Windsor, Earl of?
5727fb69ff5b5019007d99ed
Ulster
191
False
Which 7th Earl of Harewood attended Eton?
5727fb69ff5b5019007d99ee
George Lascelles
599
False
Who was George Lascelles' mother?
5727fb69ff5b5019007d99ef
Princess Mary, Princess Royal
646
False
1942
561
In what year did Prince Richard, Duke of Gloucester graduate from Eton?
5ad2326ed7d075001a428762
True
1972
566
In what year did Prince Edward, Duke of Kent start attending Eton?
5ad2326ed7d075001a428763
True
George Lascelles, 7th Earl of Harewood
599
Who is Lord Downpatrick's grandson?
5ad2326ed7d075001a428764
True
Eton
586
What school did Princess Mary, Princess Royal attend?
5ad2326ed7d075001a428765
True
Nicholas Windsor
350
Who was the 6th Earl of Harewood?
5ad2326ed7d075001a428766
True
Besides Prince William and Prince Harry, members of the extended British Royal Family who have attended Eton include Prince Richard, Duke of Gloucester and his son Alexander Windsor, Earl of Ulster; Prince Edward, Duke of Kent, his eldest son George Windsor, Earl of St Andrews and grandson Edward Windsor, Lord Downpatrick and his youngest son Lord Nicholas Windsor; Prince Michael of Kent and his son Lord Frederick Windsor; James Ogilvy, son of Princess Alexandra and the Right Honourable Angus Ogilvy, himself an Eton alumnus. Prince William of Gloucester (1942-1972) also attended Eton, as did George Lascelles, 7th Earl of Harewood, son of Princess Mary, Princess Royal.
Which 2012 Nobel Prize winner attended Eton?
5727fc123acd2414000df175
John Gurdon
173
False
Which Antarctic explorer attended Eton?
5727fc123acd2414000df176
Lawrence Oates
271
False
Where did adventurer Bear Grylls attend school?
5727fc123acd2414000df177
Eton
18
False
2012
122
In what year did Hubert Parry write the song Jerusalem?
5ad23306d7d075001a428780
True
Antarctic explorer
252
What does George Butterworth do for a living?
5ad23306d7d075001a428781
True
cricket commentator
379
What is Roger Quilter's occupation?
5ad23306d7d075001a428782
True
2012
122
In what year did Alan Clark meet Adele?
5ad23306d7d075001a428783
True
politician
287
What occupation does Thomas Dunhill do?
5ad23306d7d075001a428784
True
Other notable Old Etonians include scientists Robert Boyle, John Maynard Smith, J. B. S. Haldane, Stephen Wolfram and the 2012 Nobel Prize in Physiology or Medicine winner, John Gurdon; Beau Brummell; economists John Maynard Keynes and Richard Layard; Antarctic explorer Lawrence Oates; politician Alan Clark; entrepreneur, charity organiser and partner of Adele, Simon Konecki; cricket commentator Henry Blofeld; explorer Sir Ranulph Fiennes; adventurer Bear Grylls; composers Thomas Arne, George Butterworth, Roger Quilter, Frederick Septimus Kelly, Donald Tovey, Thomas Dunhill, Lord Berners, Victor Hely-Hutchinson, and Peter Warlock (Philip Heseltine); Hubert Parry, who wrote the song Jerusalem and the coronation anthem I was glad; and musicians Frank Turner and Humphrey Lyttelton.
Which current BBC Deputy Political Editor attended Eton?
5728047c4b864d1900164244
James Landale
155
False
Which former Editor of the Daily Telegraph attended Eton?
5728047c4b864d1900164245
Charles Moore
684
False
Who is a former Eton alumn and current Editor of The Mail on Sunday?
5728047c4b864d1900164246
Geordie Greig
798
False
1960s
567
In what decade did Julian Haviland graduate from Eton?
5ad23391d7d075001a4287a8
True
1950s
542
In what decade did BBC World News get its start?
5ad23391d7d075001a4287a9
True
1960s
605
In what decade did David Shukam attend Eton?
5ad23391d7d075001a4287aa
True
1950s
542
In what decade did David Jessel attend Eton?
5ad23391d7d075001a4287ab
True
1960s
605
When did David Shukman go to Eton?
5ad23391d7d075001a4287ac
True
Notable Old Etonians in the media include the former Political Editor of both ITN and The Times, Julian Haviland; the current BBC Deputy Political Editor, James Landale, and the BBC Science Editor, David Shukman; the current President of Conde Nast International and Managing Director of Conde Nast UK, Nicholas Coleridge; the former ITN newscaster and BBC Panorama presenter, Ludovic Kennedy; current BBC World News and BBC Rough Justice current affairs presenter David Jessel; former chief ITV and Channel 4 racing commentator John Oaksey; 1950s BBC newsreader and 1960s ITN newscaster Timothy Brinton; 1960s BBC newsreader Corbet Woodall; the former Editor of The Daily Telegraph, Charles Moore; the former Editor of The Spectator, Ferdinand Mount; and the current Editor of The Mail on Sunday, Geordie Greig.
According to actor Dominic Wes, would he send his children to Eton?
572805952ca10214002d9bba
Yes, I would.
265
False
According to actor Tom Hiddleston, that is special about Eton?
572805962ca10214002d9bbb
They champion the talent of the individual
746
False
Which actor states there are widespread misconceptions about Eton?
572805962ca10214002d9bbc
Tom Hiddleston
433
False
Dominic West
6
Who was one of Tom Hiddleston's classmates at Eton?
5ad23450d7d075001a4287ce
True
Yes, I would. It’s an extraordinary place
265
What did Tom Hiddleston say about sending any potential kids to Eton?
5ad23450d7d075001a4287cf
True
It isn’t true... It's actually one of the most broadminded places I’ve ever been
559
What did Dominic West say about the perception of Eton being full of braying toffs?
5ad23450d7d075001a4287d0
True
Tom Hiddleston
433
Who was in the same House as Dominic West?
5ad23450d7d075001a4287d1
True
Actor Dominic West has been unenthusiastic about the career benefits of being an Old Etonian, saying it "is a stigma that is slightly above 'paedophile' in the media in a gallery of infamy", but asked whether he would consider sending his own children there, said "Yes, I would. It’s an extraordinary place... It has the facilities and the excellence of teaching and it will find what you’re good at and nurture it", while the actor Tom Hiddleston says there are widespread misconceptions about Eton, and that "People think it's just full of braying toffs... It isn’t true... It's actually one of the most broadminded places I’ve ever been. The reason it’s a good school is that it encourages people to find the thing they love and to go for it. They champion the talent of the individual and that’s what’s special about it".
Cork_(city)
Who was thought to have founded Cork?
57279c1aff5b5019007d90e8
Saint Finbarr
64
False
When was Cork believed to have been founded?
57279c1aff5b5019007d90e9
6th century
85
False
When did Viking travelers establish a trading post in Cork?
57279c1aff5b5019007d90ea
some point between 915 and 922
134
False
What kind of settlement was Cork?
57279c1aff5b5019007d90eb
ecclesiastical
344
False
What did the Norsemen provide to the monastery?
57279c1aff5b5019007d90ec
otherwise unobtainable trade goods
493
False
Saint Finbarr
64
Who founded Cork in the 600's?
5a5d0b835e8782001a9d5e70
True
achieved an urban character
103
What happened to Cork in the 9th century?
5a5d0b835e8782001a9d5e71
True
Norseman
170
Who did the monastery need protection from?
5a5d0b835e8782001a9d5e72
True
Norsemen
474
Who did the monastery provide religious services for?
5a5d0b835e8782001a9d5e73
True
Saint Finbarr
64
Who was the founder of Dublin?
5a7e45da70df9f001a87566d
True
the 6th century
81
In what century was Dublin founded?
5a7e45da70df9f001a87566e
True
a monastic settlement
20
What kind of settlement was Dublin originally?
5a7e45da70df9f001a87566f
True
an urban character
112
What did Dublin achieve between 915 and 922?
5a7e45da70df9f001a875670
True
when Norseman (Viking) settlers founded a trading port
165
What caused Dublin to become urbanized?
5a7e45da70df9f001a875671
True
Cork was originally a monastic settlement, reputedly founded by Saint Finbarr in the 6th century. Cork achieved an urban character at some point between 915 and 922 when Norseman (Viking) settlers founded a trading port. It has been proposed that, like Dublin, Cork was an important trading centre in the global Scandinavian trade network. The ecclesiastical settlement continued alongside the Viking longphort, with the two developing a type of symbiotic relationship; the Norsemen providing otherwise unobtainable trade goods for the monastery, and perhaps also military aid.
Who granted Cork's charter?
5727a9b13acd2414000de917
Prince John
34
False
What kind of protection did Cork have?
5727a9b13acd2414000de918
fully walled
94
False
What parts of Cork's defense remain today?
5727a9b13acd2414000de919
some wall sections and gates
112
False
What would citizens of Cork pay to neighboring lords in order to prevent them from attacking their city?
5727a9b13acd2414000de91a
Black Rent
413
False
Where is the present city of Cork located geographically?
5727a9b13acd2414000de91b
between the Barony of Barrymore to the east, Muskerry East to the west and Kerrycurrihy to the south
671
False
Ireland
58
What was Prince John Lord of in the 11th century?
5a5d19175e8782001a9d5e78
True
Prince John
34
Who granted Cork's charter in the 11th century?
5a5d19175e8782001a9d5e79
True
Middle Ages
171
When was Cork a Gaelic outpost?
5a5d19175e8782001a9d5e7a
True
Neighbouring Gaelic and Hiberno-Norman lords
358
Who payed "Black Rent" to the citizens of Cork?
5a5d19175e8782001a9d5e7b
True
fully walled
94
What kind of protection did the hostile Gaelic countryside have?
5a7e47de70df9f001a875677
True
Prince John
34
Who granted the Barony of Barrymore's charter?
5a7e47de70df9f001a875678
True
some wall sections and gates
112
What parts of Barony of Barrymore still remain today?
5a7e47de70df9f001a875679
True
"Black Rent"
412
What were citizens expected to pay to Prince John since he was Lord of Ireland?
5a7e47de70df9f001a87567a
True
between the Barony of Barrymore to the east, Muskerry East to the west and Kerrycurrihy to the south
671
Where is Dublin located?
5a7e47de70df9f001a87567b
True
The city's charter was granted by Prince John, as Lord of Ireland, in 1185. The city was once fully walled, and some wall sections and gates remain today. For much of the Middle Ages, Cork city was an outpost of Old English culture in the midst of a predominantly hostile Gaelic countryside and cut off from the English government in the Pale around Dublin. Neighbouring Gaelic and Hiberno-Norman lords extorted "Black Rent" from the citizens to keep them from attacking the city. The present extent of the city has exceeded the medieval boundaries of the Barony of Cork City; it now takes in much of the neighbouring Barony of Cork. Together, these baronies are located between the Barony of Barrymore to the east, Muskerry East to the west and Kerrycurrihy to the south.
Who controlled Cork's municipal government?
5727aa7c3acd2414000de92b
12–15 merchant families, whose wealth came from overseas trade with continental Europe
55
False
How many citizens were origionally in Cork?
5727aa7c3acd2414000de92c
about 2,100
262
False
What caused the deaths of half of Cork's citizens?
5727aa7c3acd2414000de92d
Black Death
373
False
When did the plague hit Cork?
5727aa7c3acd2414000de92e
1349
311
False
Who tried to recruit citizens of Cork to overthrow Henry VII?
5727aa7c3acd2414000de92f
Perkin Warbeck
472
False
12–15
55
How many aristocratic families dominated the government?
5a5d206c5e8782001a9d5e80
True
merchant families
61
Who exported salt, iron and wine to continental Europe?
5a5d206c5e8782001a9d5e81
True
continental Europe
123
Who did Cork import wool and hides from?
5a5d206c5e8782001a9d5e82
True
plague
357
What killed half the people in the 13th century?
5a5d206c5e8782001a9d5e83
True
English Wars of the Roses
441
What war did Cork take part in in the 1400's?
5a5d206c5e8782001a9d5e84
True
2,100 people
268
What was the medieval population of England?
5a7e490e70df9f001a875691
True
almost half the townspeople
321
How many people died in England from the Black Death in 1349?
5a7e490e70df9f001a875692
True
Perkin Warbeck
472
Who did Henry VII want to overthrow in 1491?
5a7e490e70df9f001a875693
True
recruit support
554
What did Henry VII try to do for a plot to overthrow Perkin Warbeck?
5a7e490e70df9f001a875694
True
following the knighthood of the incumbent Mayor
886
Why did Henry VII change the title of Mayor of Cork to Lord Mayor in 1491?
5a7e490e70df9f001a875695
True
The city's municipal government was dominated by about 12–15 merchant families, whose wealth came from overseas trade with continental Europe — in particular the export of wool and hides and the import of salt, iron and wine. The medieval population of Cork was about 2,100 people. It suffered a severe blow in 1349 when almost half the townspeople died of plague when the Black Death arrived in the town. In 1491, Cork played a part in the English Wars of the Roses when Perkin Warbeck a pretender to the English throne, landed in the city and tried to recruit support for a plot to overthrow Henry VII of England. The then mayor of Cork and several important citizens went with Warbeck to England but when the rebellion collapsed they were all captured and executed. The title of Mayor of Cork was established by royal charter in 1318, and the title was changed to Lord Mayor in 1900 following the knighthood of the incumbent Mayor by Queen Victoria on her Royal visit to the city.
What is the weather like in Cork?
5727ab6e2ca10214002d934e
mild and changeable with abundant rainfall and a lack of temperature extremes
50
False
Who keeps a weather station in Cork?
5727ab6e2ca10214002d934f
Met Éireann
167
False
Why can temperatures differ so much between the city of Cork and the weather station maintained at the airport?
5727ab6e2ca10214002d9350
the airport is at an altitude of 151 metres (495 ft)
299
False
Where are some weather stations near Cork?
5727ab6e2ca10214002d9351
UCC and Clover Hill
496
False
If you are going to farm in Cork, what should you be aware of?
5727ab6e2ca10214002d9352
lies in plant Hardiness zone 9b
134
False
mild and changeable with abundant rainfall and a lack of temperature extremes
50
How is the rest of Ireland climate different than Cork's?
5a5d24015e8782001a9d5e8a
True
Met Éireann
167
Who maintains a weather station in the city of Cork?
5a5d24015e8782001a9d5e8b
True
Cork Airport,
225
What is at an altitude of 495 meters?
5a5d24015e8782001a9d5e8c
True
UCC and Clover Hill
496
Where is the larger synoptic weather station located?
5a5d24015e8782001a9d5e8d
True
plant Hardiness zone 9b
142
In what zone does Clover Hill lie?
5a7e4a1670df9f001a87569b
True
a climatological weather station
189
What does Met Eireann maintain at Clover Hill?
5a7e4a1670df9f001a87569c
True
a few kilometres south of the city
239
Where is UCC located?
5a7e4a1670df9f001a87569d
True
by a few degrees
386
By how much does the temperature differ at UCC compared to Clover Hill?
5a7e4a1670df9f001a87569e
True
151 metres (495 ft)
332
What altitude is Clover Hill located at?
5a7e4a1670df9f001a87569f
True
The climate of Cork, like the rest of Ireland, is mild and changeable with abundant rainfall and a lack of temperature extremes. Cork lies in plant Hardiness zone 9b. Met Éireann maintains a climatological weather station at Cork Airport, a few kilometres south of the city. It should be noted that the airport is at an altitude of 151 metres (495 ft) and temperatures can often differ by a few degrees between the airport and the city itself. There are also smaller synoptic weather stations at UCC and Clover Hill.
How much precipitation does Cork usually receive?
5727aca43acd2414000de953
1,227.9 millimetres (4.029 ft)
100
False
What is usually the type of precipitation that Cork receives?
5727aca43acd2414000de954
rain
175
False
How long does snow hang around in Cork?
5727aca43acd2414000de955
2 days
305
False
What is the atmosphere typically like in Cork?
5727aca43acd2414000de956
foggy
652
False
How many foggy days does Cork usually have per year?
5727aca43acd2414000de957
average of 97
672
False
Temperatures
0
What is rarely below 25 degrees C?
5a5d280f5e8782001a9d5e92
True
Cork Airport
65
Who records an average of 1,227.9 cm of precipitation a year?
5a5d280f5e8782001a9d5e93
True
Cork Airport
65
Where is there an annual average of 4.029 ft of rain recorded?
5a5d280f5e8782001a9d5e94
True
Cork
627
What is one of Ireland's foggiest cities?
5a5d280f5e8782001a9d5e95
True
The low altitude of the city
325
What causes lying snow in the city?
5a5d280f5e8782001a9d5e96
True
1,227.9 millimetres (4.029 ft)
100
How much precipitation does Ireland have annually?
5a7e4b1870df9f001a8756b7
True
7
215
How many days of hail does Ireland have a year?
5a7e4b1870df9f001a8756b8
True
moderating
359
What influence does the harbor have on Ireland's lack of lying snow?
5a7e4b1870df9f001a8756b9
True
204
478
How many rainy days a year are there in Ireland?
5a7e4b1870df9f001a8756ba
True
97
683
How many days of fog are there in Ireland a year?
5a7e4b1870df9f001a8756bb
True
Temperatures below 0 °C (32 °F) or above 25 °C (77 °F) are rare. Cork Airport records an average of 1,227.9 millimetres (4.029 ft) of precipitation annually, most of which is rain. The airport records an average of 7 days of hail and 11 days of snow or sleet a year; though it only records lying snow for 2 days of the year. The low altitude of the city, and moderating influences of the harbour, mean that lying snow very rarely occurs in the city itself. There are on average 204 "rainy" days a year (over 0.2 millimetres (0.0079 in) of rainfall), of which there are 73 days with "heavy rain" (over 5 millimetres (0.20 in)). Cork is also a generally foggy city, with an average of 97 days of fog a year, most common during mornings and during winter. Despite this, however, Cork is also one of Ireland's sunniest cities, with an average of 3.9 hours of sunshine every day and only having 67 days where there is no "recordable sunshine", mostly during and around winter.
Where is a good place to find dramatic plays all year in Cork?
5727add53acd2414000de96b
The Everyman Palace Theatre (capacity c.650) and the Granary Theatre (capacity c.150)
706
False
Which Hollywood actress first began in Cork at the Corcadorca Theatre Company?
5727add53acd2414000de96c
Cillian Murphy
249
False
What is a major dance venue in Cork?
5727add53acd2414000de96d
the Firkin Crane (capacity c.240)
521
False
What are someplaces that you could study drama and therter in Cork?
5727add53acd2414000de96e
Cork Academy of Dramatic Art (CADA) and Graffiti Theatre Company
560
False
WHat are some festivals or events of note in Cork?
5727add53acd2414000de96f
the Cork Jazz Festival, Cork Film Festival, and Live at the Marquee
630
False
Cillian Murphy
249
What star left Hollywood to join the Corcadorca Theater Company?
5a5d42ea5e8782001a9d5e9c
True
the Institute for Choreography and Dance
309
What institute is a regional dance resource?
5a5d42ea5e8782001a9d5e9d
True
Cillian Murphy
249
Who was a member of the Graffiti Theatre Company before they became famous in Hollywood?
5a7e4cdd70df9f001a8756c9
True
The Everyman Palace Theatre (capacity c.650) and the Granary Theatre (capacity c.150)
706
What two theatres are located close to Hollywood?
5a7e4cdd70df9f001a8756ca
True
the Firkin Crane
521
What is a major dance venue popular in Hollywood?
5a7e4cdd70df9f001a8756cb
True
Triskel Christchurch independent cinema
468
What cinema  is included at the Graffiti Theatre Company?
5a7e4cdd70df9f001a8756cc
True
a throughput of new blood
76
What is provided by CADA?
5a7e4cdd70df9f001a8756cd
True
The Cork School of Music and the Crawford College of Art and Design provide a throughput of new blood, as do the active theatre components of several courses at University College Cork (UCC). Highlights include: Corcadorca Theatre Company, of which Cillian Murphy was a troupe member prior to Hollywood fame; the Institute for Choreography and Dance, a national contemporary dance resource;[citation needed] the Triskel Arts Centre (capacity c.90), which includes the Triskel Christchurch independent cinema; dance venue the Firkin Crane (capacity c.240); the Cork Academy of Dramatic Art (CADA) and Graffiti Theatre Company; and the Cork Jazz Festival, Cork Film Festival, and Live at the Marquee events. The Everyman Palace Theatre (capacity c.650) and the Granary Theatre (capacity c.150) both play host to dramatic plays throughout the year.
Which group members of The High Llamas are from Cork?
5727ae872ca10214002d939e
Cathal Coughlan and Sean O'Hagan
225
False
Which major opera singers were born in Cork?
5727ae872ca10214002d939f
Cara O'Sullivan, Mary Hegarty, Brendan Collins, and Sam McElroy
316
False
Who runs the underground music scene in Cork?
5727ae872ca10214002d93a0
Plugd Records
649
False
What are the main attractions in Cork?
5727ae872ca10214002d93a1
Cork Opera House (capacity c.1000), Cyprus Avenue, Triskel Christchurch, the Roundy, the Savoy and Coughlan's
480
False
Which famous quartet calls Cork it's home?
5727ae872ca10214002d93a2
RTÉ Vanbrugh Quartet
20
False
Cara O'Sullivan, Mary Hegarty, Brendan Collins, and Sam McElroy
316
What Opera singers currently lives in Cork?
5a5d4b0e5e8782001a9d5ea0
True
Plugd Records
649
Who invented the underground music scene in Cork?
5a5d4b0e5e8782001a9d5ea1
True
Cork
0
What city are the High Llamas from?
5a5d4b0e5e8782001a9d5ea2
True
Cork's underground scene
608
What does the RTE Vanbrugh Quartet support?
5a7e4e0b70df9f001a8756db
True
Cara O'Sullivan, Mary Hegarty, Brendan Collins, and Sam McElroy
316
What four opera singers have a contract with Plugd Records?
5a7e4e0b70df9f001a8756dc
True
capacity c.1000
498
What is the maximum capacity of the Savoy in Cork?
5a7e4e0b70df9f001a8756dd
True
Sultans of Ping
116
What group regularly performs at Cyprus Avenue?
5a7e4e0b70df9f001a8756de
True
John Spillane, The Frank And Walters
78
What two groups are supported by Triskel Christchurch?
5a7e4e0b70df9f001a8756df
True
Cork is home to the RTÉ Vanbrugh Quartet, and to many musical acts, including John Spillane, The Frank And Walters, Sultans of Ping, Simple Kid, Microdisney, Fred, Mick Flannery and the late Rory Gallagher. Singer songwriter Cathal Coughlan and Sean O'Hagan of The High Llamas also hail from Cork. The opera singers Cara O'Sullivan, Mary Hegarty, Brendan Collins, and Sam McElroy are also Cork born. Ranging in capacity from 50 to 1,000, the main music venues in the city are the Cork Opera House (capacity c.1000), Cyprus Avenue, Triskel Christchurch, the Roundy, the Savoy and Coughlan's.[citation needed] Cork's underground scene is supported by Plugd Records.[citation needed]
What are 2 major cultural influences of Cork?
5727afa43acd2414000de9ad
Huguenot communities in the 17th century, through to Eastern European communities
54
False
What things show Corks diverse culural background?
5727afa43acd2414000de9ae
multi-cultural restaurants and shops
246
False
When did Cork begin to see people from Russia and Lithuania immigrating to their city?
5727afa43acd2414000de9af
late 19th century
518
False
What types of religions can be found in Cork?
5727afa43acd2414000de9b0
various Christian churches, as well as a mosque
851
False
How do the Catholic churches handle the diverse languages of Cork?
5727afa43acd2414000de9b1
masses around the city are said in Polish, Filipino, Lithuanian, Romanian and other languages, in addition to the traditional Latin and local Irish and English
914
False
Huguenot
54
What community came to Cork in the 1700's?
5a5d4d5d5e8782001a9d5ea6
True
Lithuania and Russia
490
Where did Jews immigrate from in the 1900's?
5a5d4d5d5e8782001a9d5ea7
True
the Jewish community
716
t large community of Cork has its own quarter and a synagogue?
5a5d4d5d5e8782001a9d5ea8
True
20th century
690
When was David Marcus mayor of Cork?
5a5d4d5d5e8782001a9d5ea9
True
20th and 21st
196
In what centuries did Thai restauraunts become a part of Romania?
5a7e4fc870df9f001a8756ed
True
French patisseries
383
What kind of patisseries are located in Romania?
5a7e4fc870df9f001a8756ee
True
in the late 19th century
511
When did Romania see Jewish immigration?
5a7e4fc870df9f001a8756ef
True
relatively small
740
What is the size of the Jewish community in Romania?
5a7e4fc870df9f001a8756f0
True
various Christian churches, as well as a mosque
851
What kind of houses of worship are located in Romania?
5a7e4fc870df9f001a8756f1
True
Cork has been culturally diverse for many years, from Huguenot communities in the 17th century, through to Eastern European communities and a smaller numbers from African and Asian nations in the 20th and 21st centuries. This is reflected in the multi-cultural restaurants and shops, including specialist shops for East-European or Middle-Eastern food, Chinese and Thai restaurants, French patisseries, Indian buffets, and Middle Eastern kebab houses. Cork saw some Jewish immigration from Lithuania and Russia in the late 19th century. Jewish citizens such as Gerald Goldberg (several times Lord Mayor), David Marcus (novelist) and Louis Marcus (documentary maker) played notable roles in 20th century Cork. Today, the Jewish community is relatively small in population, although the city still has a Jewish quarter and synagogue. Cork also features various Christian churches, as well as a mosque. Some Catholic masses around the city are said in Polish, Filipino, Lithuanian, Romanian and other languages, in addition to the traditional Latin and local Irish and English language services.
What sets the Cork accent apart from other Irish accents?
5727b636ff5b5019007d932a
Patterns of tone and intonation often rise and fall, with the overall tone tending to be more high-pitched
143
False
What is the name of the English dialects that are written and spoken in Cork?
5727b636ff5b5019007d932b
rhoticity
589
False
Where did Cork get pieces of its language from?
5727b636ff5b5019007d932c
at home and abroad
525
False
What is the pronunciation of the Irish "r" called?
5727b636ff5b5019007d932d
rhoticity
589
False
Cork accent,
4
What accent is part of the Southwest dialect of British English?
5a5d501c5e8782001a9d5eae
True
other Irish accents
255
What does the Cork accent have a lower-pitch than?
5a5d501c5e8782001a9d5eaf
True
Hiberno-English
387
What type of English does the Cork dialect borrow words from?
5a5d501c5e8782001a9d5eb0
True
the social-class of the speaker
621
What influences the exact vocabulary of a person from Cork?
5a5d501c5e8782001a9d5eb1
True
the social-class of the speaker
621
What causes a foreign accent to vary?
5a7e522270df9f001a875711
True
Hiberno-English
387
Where did languages from overseas get some of their words from?
5a7e522270df9f001a875712
True
Patterns of tone and intonation often rise and fall, with the overall tone tending to be more high-pitched
143
What makes other languages easier to understand?
5a7e522270df9f001a875713
True
peculiar
338
What describes other languages spoken in Ireland?
5a7e522270df9f001a875714
True
rhoticity
589
What aspect do foreign accents not native to Cork have depending on the speaker's social class?
5a7e522270df9f001a875715
True
The Cork accent, part of the Southwest dialect of Hiberno-English, displays various features which set it apart from other accents in Ireland. Patterns of tone and intonation often rise and fall, with the overall tone tending to be more high-pitched than other Irish accents. English spoken in Cork has a number of dialect words that are peculiar to the city and environs. Like standard Hiberno-English, some of these words originate from the Irish language, but others through other languages Cork's inhabitants encountered at home and abroad. The Cork accent displays varying degrees of rhoticity, usually depending on the social-class of the speaker.
Is there a Christian radio station in Cork?
5727b8482ca10214002d94b8
Life 93.1FM
320
False
What are some pirate radio stations that were based in Cork?
5727b8482ca10214002d94b9
South Coast Radio and ERI
551
False
What nearby radio stations can be picked up in Cork?
5727b8482ca10214002d94ba
Radio Kerry at 97.0 and WLR FM on 95.1
727
False
When were South Coast Radio and ERI running their pirate stations out of Cork?
5727b8482ca10214002d94bb
1980s
584
False
What did Cork Campus Radio change to?
5727b8482ca10214002d94bc
UCC 98.3FM
245
False
Cork
266
In what city is 98.3FM a Christian Radio Station?
5a5d55d05e8782001a9d5eb6
True
South Coast Radio and ERI
551
What pirate stations where running out of Cork in the 19th century?
5a5d55d05e8782001a9d5eb7
True
Cork Campus Radio 97.4fm
266
What did UCC 98.3FM change its name to?
5a5d55d05e8782001a9d5eb8
True
Cork FM Community Radio' on 100.5FM,
397
What Radio station only airs on Sundays?
5a5d55d05e8782001a9d5eb9
True
Saturdays and Sundays only
463
What days is Spirit Radio on the air?
5a7e53b470df9f001a875737
True
1980s
584
In what year did Life 93.1FM go on the air in Cork?
5a7e53b470df9f001a875738
True
Cork Campus Radio
266
What was Cork Fm Community Radio on 100.5FM formerly known as?
5a7e53b470df9f001a875739
True
temporary
349
What kind of license does South Coast Radio have?
5a7e53b470df9f001a87573a
True
pirate
518
What kind of station is Cork's Red FM that has been broadcasting since the 1980's?
5a7e53b470df9f001a87573b
True
The city's FM radio band features RTÉ Radio 1, RTÉ 2fm, RTÉ lyric fm, RTÉ Raidió na Gaeltachta, Today FM, 4fm, Newstalk and the religious station Spirit Radio. There are also local stations such as Cork's 96FM, Cork's Red FM, C103, CUH 102.0FM, UCC 98.3FM (formerly Cork Campus Radio 97.4fm) and Christian radio station Life 93.1FM. Cork also has a temporary licensed city-wide community station 'Cork FM Community Radio' on 100.5FM, which is currently on-air on Saturdays and Sundays only. Cork has also been home to pirate radio stations, including South Coast Radio and ERI in the 1980s. Today some small pirates stations remain. A number of neighbouring counties radio stations can be heard in parts of Cork City including Radio Kerry at 97.0 and WLR FM on 95.1.
WHich Irish newspaper has it's homebase in Cork, Ireland?
5727bb46ff5b5019007d939c
the Irish Examiner
59
False
What was the Irish Examiner's previous identity?
5727bb46ff5b5019007d939d
Cork Examiner
92
False
Who are the Echo Boys?
5727bb46ff5b5019007d939e
poor and often homeless children who sold the newspaper
205
False
What newspaper did the Echo Boys sell?
5727bb46ff5b5019007d939f
Evening Echo
127
False
What publications are put out by the UCC?
5727bb46ff5b5019007d93a0
UCC Express and Motley magazine
476
False
Cork Examiner
92
What did the Irish Examiner change its name to?
5a5d57f95e8782001a9d5ebe
True
Irish Examiner
63
Who prints the Echo Boys?
5a5d57f95e8782001a9d5ebf
True
Evening Echo
127
What paper is still sold by poor and homeless boys?
5a5d57f95e8782001a9d5ec0
True
Cork Independent
422
What is Corks only free newspaper?
5a5d57f95e8782001a9d5ec1
True
the Cork Examiner
88
What was the UCC Express formerly called?
5a7e564570df9f001a875753
True
the Evening Echo
123
What does the Motley magazine print?
5a7e564570df9f001a875754
True
decades
151
For how long has the Cork Independent been connected to the Echo Boys?
5a7e564570df9f001a875755
True
poor and often homeless children
205
Who are the UCC Express Boys?
5a7e564570df9f001a875756
True
sold the newspaper
242
What did the UCC Express Boys do?
5a7e564570df9f001a875757
True
Cork is home to one of Ireland's main national newspapers, the Irish Examiner (formerly the Cork Examiner). It also prints the Evening Echo, which for decades has been connected to the Echo Boys, who were poor and often homeless children who sold the newspaper. Today, the shouts of the vendors selling the Echo can still be heard in various parts of the city centre. One of the biggest free newspapers in the city is the Cork Independent. The city's University publishes the UCC Express and Motley magazine.
From which periods are the buildings in Cork from?
5727bd0a4b864d1900163bf6
Medieval to Modern
69
False
What is so special about the Red Abbey in Cork?
5727bd0a4b864d1900163bf7
only notable remnant of the Medieval era
101
False
How many cathedrals does Cork host?
5727bd0a4b864d1900163bf8
two
170
False
What is the Catholic cathedral of Cork?
5727bd0a4b864d1900163bf9
St Mary's Cathedral
252
False
What else is St. Mary's known as?
5727bd0a4b864d1900163bfa
North Cathedral
298
False
architecturally notable buildings
14
What originated mostly in the Medieval and Modern Period?
5a5d5a495e8782001a9d5ec6
True
Red Abbey
149
What is the only building left from the Medieval period?
5a5d5a495e8782001a9d5ec7
True
St Mary's Cathedral
252
What cathedral was started in the 18th century?
5a5d5a495e8782001a9d5ec8
True
distinctive tower
380
What was added to St. Mary's Cathedral in the late 18th century?
5a5d5a495e8782001a9d5ec9
True
St Fin Barre's
422
What 18th century cathedral now serves Protestants?
5a5d5a495e8782001a9d5eca
True
the Red Abbey
145
What is the only remnant of the 1879 period?
5a7e580c70df9f001a875797
True
on the foundations of an earlier cathedral
531
On what foundations is St. Mary's Cathedral built?
5a7e580c70df9f001a875798
True
1808
370
In what year was Saint Fin Barre's Cathedral referred to as the North Cathedral?
5a7e580c70df9f001a875799
True
in the 1860s
408
When was the tower added to the Saint Fin Barre's Cathedral?
5a7e580c70df9f001a87579a
True
1879
607
When did work end on the Red Abbey under the direction of William Burges?
5a7e580c70df9f001a87579b
True
Cork features architecturally notable buildings originating from the Medieval to Modern periods. The only notable remnant of the Medieval era is the Red Abbey. There are two cathedrals in the city; St. Mary's Cathedral and Saint Fin Barre's Cathedral. St Mary's Cathedral, often referred to as the North Cathedral, is the Catholic cathedral of the city and was begun in 1808. Its distinctive tower was added in the 1860s. St Fin Barre's Cathedral serves the Protestant faith and is possibly the more famous of the two. It is built on the foundations of an earlier cathedral. Work began in 1862 and ended in 1879 under the direction of architect William Burges.
What is main street Cork?
5727bdcd4b864d1900163c28
St. Patrick's Street
0
False
When was St. Patrick's Street remodeled?
5727bdcd4b864d1900163c29
mid-2000s
78
False
What is St. Patrick's Street curved?
5727bdcd4b864d1900163c2a
it originally was a channel of the River Lee that was built over on arches
251
False
When did the Theatre Royal burn?
5727bdcd4b864d1900163c2b
1840
485
False
What was built on the site of the old Theatre Royal?
5727bdcd4b864d1900163c2c
General Post Office
655
False
St. Patrick's Street
0
What street was remodeled in the 20th century?
5a5d5d025e8782001a9d5ed0
True
the Theatre Royal
424
What Theater was built in the 17th century?
5a5d5d025e8782001a9d5ed1
True
Pablo Fanque
521
Who built an amphitheater in 1850?
5a5d5d025e8782001a9d5ed2
True
General Post Office
655
What built on the site of the old Theater Royal in the 18th century?
5a5d5d025e8782001a9d5ed3
True
Allied Irish Bank
897
What bank has an exterior dating to the 19th century?
5a5d5d025e8782001a9d5ed4
True
1840
485
When was St. Patrick's Street damaged by fire?
5a7e592670df9f001a8757a1
True
Pablo Fanque
521
Who built the Allied Irish Bank in 1850?
5a7e592670df9f001a8757a2
True
a theatre
619
What was the Allied Irish Bank transformed into?
5a7e592670df9f001a8757a3
True
the present General Post Office
643
What was the Allied Irish Bank turned into in 1877?
5a7e592670df9f001a8757a4
True
it originally was a channel of the River Lee that was built over on arches
251
Why does the General Post Office have a curved shape?
5a7e592670df9f001a8757a5
True
St. Patrick's Street, the main street of the city which was remodelled in the mid-2000s, is known for the architecture of the buildings along its pedestrian-friendly route and is the main shopping thoroughfare. The reason for its curved shape is that it originally was a channel of the River Lee that was built over on arches. The General Post Office, with its limestone façade, is on Oliver Plunkett Street, on the site of the Theatre Royal which was built in 1760 and burned down in 1840. The English circus proprietor Pablo Fanque rebuilt an amphitheatre on the spot in 1850, which was subsequently transformed into a theatre and then into the present General Post Office in 1877.  The Grand Parade is a tree-lined avenue, home to offices, shops and financial institutions. The old financial centre is the South Mall, with several banks whose interior derive from the 19th century, such as the Allied Irish Bank's which was once an exchange.
What style does most of the city's architecture belong to?
5727c0314b864d1900163c74
Georgian
40
False
WHat is the tallest building in Cork?
5727c0314b864d1900163c75
The Elysian
263
False
What is the longest building in Cork?
5727c0314b864d1900163c76
Our Lady's Psychiatric Hospital
367
False
What has the old Psychiatric Hospital been turned into?
5727c0314b864d1900163c77
Atkins Hall
478
False
What is Atkin's Hall?
5727c0314b864d1900163c78
a residential housing complex
441
False
County Hall tower
135
What tower is built in the Georgian style?
5a5d5e9e5e8782001a9d5eda
True
Our Lady's Psychiatric Hospital
367
What was Atkins Hall turned into?
5a5d5e9e5e8782001a9d5edb
True
William Atkins
511
Who was the architect of Atkins Hall?
5a5d5e9e5e8782001a9d5edc
True
County Hall tower
135
What replaced The Elysian as Ireland's tallest building?
5a5d5e9e5e8782001a9d5edd
True
County Hall tower
135
What tower was built by William Atkins?
5a7e5a0848f7d9001a06351b
True
Georgian
40
What building style was a favorite of William Atkins?
5a7e5a0848f7d9001a06351c
True
the tallest building in Ireland
177
What did Atkins Hall used to be before it was overtaken by another building?
5a7e5a0848f7d9001a06351d
True
a residential housing complex
441
What was The Elysian converted into?
5a7e5a0848f7d9001a06351e
True
Atkins Hall
478
What is the name of the building that The Elysian was converted into?
5a7e5a0848f7d9001a06351f
True
Many of the city's buildings are in the Georgian style, although there are a number of examples of modern landmark structures, such as County Hall tower, which was, at one time the tallest building in Ireland until being superseded by another Cork City building: The Elysian. Across the river from County Hall is Ireland's longest building; built in Victorian times, Our Lady's Psychiatric Hospital has now been renovated and converted into a residential housing complex called Atkins Hall, after its architect William Atkins.
What is the name of the college in Cork?
5727c12a2ca10214002d956a
University College Cork
365
False
Which river runs through the university's campus?
5727c12a2ca10214002d956b
River Lee
408
False
How old is the building holding the covered market?
5727c12a2ca10214002d956c
present building dates from 1786
567
False
Where is St Mary's Dominican Church?
5727c12a2ca10214002d956d
Popes Quay
211
False
Where is the Cork Public Museum?
5727c12a2ca10214002d956e
Fitzgerald's Park
226
False
the English Market.
486
What market has origins from the 16th century?
5a5d5f935e8782001a9d5ee2
True
the English Market
486
What market has a building from the 17th century?
5a5d5f935e8782001a9d5ee3
True
Fitzgerald's Park
226
What park does the River Lee flow through?
5a5d5f935e8782001a9d5ee4
True
the Triskel Arts Centre
107
What was the Cork Opera House converted into?
5a7e5b8548f7d9001a06354d
True
early Hiberno-Norse church
152
What is the Cork Opera House the original site of?
5a7e5b8548f7d9001a06354e
True
to the west
244
On what side of the city is University College Cork located?
5a7e5b8548f7d9001a06354f
True
the River Lee
404
What river flows near the Cork Public Museum?
5a7e5b8548f7d9001a063550
True
a heritage centre
463
What has the Cork Public Museum been declared?
5a7e5b8548f7d9001a063551
True
Other notable places include Elizabeth Fort, the Cork Opera House, Christ Church on South Main Street (now the Triskel Arts Centre and original site of early Hiberno-Norse church), St Mary's Dominican Church on Popes Quay and Fitzgerald's Park to the west of the city, which contains the Cork Public Museum. Other popular tourist attractions include the grounds of University College Cork, through which the River Lee flows, the Women's Gaol at Sundays Well (now a heritage centre) and the English Market. This covered market traces its origins back to 1610, and the present building dates from 1786.
Who takes care of roads and sanitation in Cork?
5727c845ff5b5019007d9528
local government
6
False
How many wards make up Cork?
5727c845ff5b5019007d9529
six electoral wards
285
False
What is the most well represented ward in Cork?
5727c845ff5b5019007d952a
Fianna Fáil (10 members)
392
False
Which party has the least amount of members?
5727c845ff5b5019007d952b
Workers' Party
478
False
How is a mayor chosen in Cork?
5727c845ff5b5019007d952c
vote by the elected members of the council under a D'Hondt system count
664
False
local government
6
What government has more power than in other countries?
5a5d60e05e8782001a9d5ee8
True
Cork City Council
231
Who has 31 appointed members?
5a5d60e05e8782001a9d5ee9
True
Fianna Fáil
392
What ward has 10 members?
5a5d60e05e8782001a9d5eea
True
a D'Hondt system count
713
What voting system is used to elect council members?
5a5d60e05e8782001a9d5eeb
True
limited
38
What kind of power does D'Hondt have compared to other countries?
5a7e6ce048f7d9001a0636d5
True
six
285
How many electoral wards are in D'Hondt?
5a7e6ce048f7d9001a0636d6
True
Fianna Fáil (10 members)
392
What ward has the most members in D'Hondt?
5a7e6ce048f7d9001a0636d7
True
Workers' Party
478
What party is the Lord Mayor not affiliated with?
5a7e6ce048f7d9001a0636d8
True
at the South-West Regional Authority
586
Where does the Worker's Party represent the city?
5a7e6ce048f7d9001a0636d9
True
While local government in Ireland has limited powers in comparison with other countries, the council has responsibility for planning, roads, sanitation, libraries, street lighting, parks, and a number of other important functions. Cork City Council has 31 elected members representing six electoral wards. The members are affiliated to the following political parties: Fine Gael (5 members), Fianna Fáil (10 members), Sinn Féin (8 members), Anti-Austerity Alliance (3 members), Workers' Party (1 member), Independents (4 members). Certain councillors are co-opted to represent the city at the South-West Regional Authority. A new Lord Mayor of Cork is chosen in a vote by the elected members of the council under a D'Hondt system count.
What types of retail offerings are found in Cork?
5727c9e62ca10214002d9640
state of the art shopping centres and family owned local shops
61
False
What happened after the economy dropped off around 2008?
5727c9e62ca10214002d9641
many retail spaces available for let
1037
False
What major department stores gottheir starts in Cork?
5727c9e62ca10214002d9642
Dunnes Stores and the former Roches Stores
1285
False
When will work on the Grand Parade begin?
5727c9e62ca10214002d9643
2016
807
False
How large is the retail space in the Grand Parade proposed to be?
5727c9e62ca10214002d9644
60,000 square feet (5,600 m2)
736
False
The retail trade
0
What is mostly a mix of family owned shops?
5a5d67e95e8782001a9d5ef0
True
Department stores
125
What mostly caters to expensive boutiques?
5a5d67e95e8782001a9d5ef1
True
Blackpool, Ballincollig, Douglas, Ballyvolane, Wilton and Mahon Point
323
What nearby suburbs need to come to cork for shopping centers?
5a5d67e95e8782001a9d5ef2
True
St. Patrick's Street
844
What area was effected by the economic growth of 2008?
5a5d67e95e8782001a9d5ef3
True
The Cornmarket Centre
510
What large mall is located in Ballyvolane?
5a7e703248f7d9001a0636ed
True
the site of the former Capitol Cineplex
669
What site was Ballincollig built on?
5a7e703248f7d9001a0636ee
True
60,000 square feet (5,600 m2)
736
How much retail space was Mahon Point approved for?
5a7e703248f7d9001a0636ef
True
2016
807
In what year will work begin on Mahon Point?
5a7e703248f7d9001a0636f0
True
the most expensive street in the country per sq. metre
872
What is Opera Lane considered after Dublin Grafton Street?
5a7e703248f7d9001a0636f1
True
The retail trade in Cork city includes a mix of both modern, state of the art shopping centres and family owned local shops. Department stores cater for all budgets, with expensive boutiques for one end of the market and high street stores also available. Shopping centres can be found in many of Cork's suburbs, including Blackpool, Ballincollig, Douglas, Ballyvolane, Wilton and Mahon Point. Others are available in the city centre. These include the recently[when?] completed development of two large malls The Cornmarket Centre on Cornmarket Street, and new the retail street called "Opera Lane" off St. Patrick's Street/Academy Street. The Grand Parade scheme, on the site of the former Capitol Cineplex, was planning-approved for 60,000 square feet (5,600 m2) of retail space, with work commencing in 2016. Cork's main shopping street is St. Patrick's Street and is the most expensive street in the country per sq. metre after Dublin's Grafton Street. As of 2015[update] this area has been impacted by the post-2008 downturn, with many retail spaces available for let.[citation needed] Other shopping areas in the city centre include Oliver Plunkett St. and Grand Parade. Cork is also home to some of the country's leading department stores with the foundations of shops such as Dunnes Stores and the former Roches Stores being laid in the city. Outside the city centre is Mahon Point Shopping Centre.
What is the main industry in Cork?
5727cace3acd2414000dec7d
pharmaceuticals
92
False
Who are the two major industry employers in Cork?
5727cace3acd2414000dec7e
Pfizer Inc. and Swiss company Novartis
114
False
What is the most famous pharmaceutical company in Cork?
5727cace3acd2414000dec7f
Viagra
251
False
What major computing company calls Cork it's European Headquarters?
5727cace3acd2414000dec80
Apple
301
False
Who are important industrial technology companies in Cork?
5727cace3acd2414000dec81
Logitech and EMC Corporation
392
False
Cork City
0
Where is the main area of industry in the north of Ireland?
5a5d6b095e8782001a9d5ef8
True
Apple Inc
301
What company has its international headquarters in Cork?
5a5d6b095e8782001a9d5ef9
True
pharmaceutical
224
What type of company is Viagra?
5a5d6b095e8782001a9d5efa
True
Pfizer Inc. and Swiss company Novartis
114
What are the 2 main pharmaceutical companies in Switzerland?
5a5d6b095e8782001a9d5efb
True
pharmaceuticals
92
What is the main industry in Europe?
5a7e741848f7d9001a0636ff
True
over 3,000
318
How many employees at Pfizer Inc. are employed in Europe?
5a7e741848f7d9001a063700
True
manufacturing, R&D and customer support
351
What are the staff of EMC Corp. involved in in Europe?
5a7e741848f7d9001a063701
True
Viagra
251
What is the most famous product by Novartis manufactured in Europe?
5a7e741848f7d9001a063702
True
Swiss
130
What kind of company was EMC Corporation originally when founded?
5a7e741848f7d9001a063703
True
Cork City is at the heart of industry in the south of Ireland. Its main area of industry is pharmaceuticals, with Pfizer Inc. and Swiss company Novartis being big employers in the region. The most famous product of the Cork pharmaceutical industry is Viagra. Cork is also the European headquarters of Apple Inc. where over 3,000 staff are involved in manufacturing, R&D and customer support. Logitech and EMC Corporation are also important IT employers in the area. Three hospitals are also among the top ten employers in the city (see table below).
Cork is home to which internationally famous brewery?
5727cbac4b864d1900163d3a
Heineken
29
False
What is the Ferro Factory known for producing?
5727cbac4b864d1900163d3b
45% of the world's Tic Tac sweets
200
False
Which car company closed the doors on it's Cork operations in 1984?
5727cbac4b864d1900163d3c
Ford Motor Company
319
False
What online retail giant has operations at the Cork Airport Business Park?
5727cbac4b864d1900163d3d
Amazon.com
708
False
Why was it natural to have Ford Motor Company based in Cork?
5727cbac4b864d1900163d3e
Henry Ford's grandfather was from West Cork
422
False
Beamish and Crawford brewery
93
What brewery took over Heineken in 2008?
5a5d6c615e8782001a9d5f00
True
Ferrero factory.
265
Where are most of the world's Tic Tacs made?
5a5d6c615e8782001a9d5f01
True
Ford Motor Company
319
What car manufacturer came to Cork in 1984?
5a5d6c615e8782001a9d5f02
True
Henry Ford
422
What businessman was from Cork?
5a5d6c615e8782001a9d5f03
True
Heineken
137
What did Beamish and Crawford brewery take over in 1984?
5a7e755348f7d9001a063709
True
45%
200
How many people in the city drink Heineken?
5a7e755348f7d9001a06370a
True
2008
149
In what year did Ford open its first factory in Beamish?
5a7e755348f7d9001a06370b
True
Henry Ford's
422
What famous company owner's grandfather was from Beamish?
5a7e755348f7d9001a06370c
True
Cork Airport Business Park
761
Where has the Heineken Brewery set up its main location?
5a7e755348f7d9001a06370d
True
The city is also home to the Heineken Brewery that brews Murphy's Irish Stout and the nearby Beamish and Crawford brewery (taken over by Heineken in 2008) which have been in the city for generations. 45% of the world's Tic Tac sweets are manufactured at the city's Ferrero factory. For many years, Cork was the home to Ford Motor Company, which manufactured cars in the docklands area before the plant was closed in 1984. Henry Ford's grandfather was from West Cork, which was one of the main reasons for opening up the manufacturing facility in Cork. But technology has replaced the old manufacturing businesses of the 1970s and 1980s, with people now working in the many I.T. centres of the city – such as Amazon.com, the online retailer, which has set up in Cork Airport Business Park.
Who runs the public busses in Cork?
5727cd664b864d1900163d78
Bus Éireann
78
False
Besides busses, what kinds of public transportation are offered in Cork?
5727cd664b864d1900163d79
shuttles to Cork Airport, and a park and ride facility in the south suburbs only
558
False
What do the routes consist of?
5727cd664b864d1900163d7a
connect the city centre to the principal suburbs, colleges, shopping centres and places of interest
144
False
City routes
91
What connects the suburbs to shopping centers and places of interest?
5a5d6daa5e8782001a9d5f08
True
Two
245
How many routes offer service to both Northern and Southern Ireland?
5a5d6daa5e8782001a9d5f09
True
park and ride facility
590
What is offered for the north suburbs?
5a5d6daa5e8782001a9d5f0a
True
Bus Éireann
78
Who runs the public colleges in Cork?
5a7e77b148f7d9001a06371d
True
from 201 through to 219
116
How are shuttles to Cork Airport numbered?
5a7e77b148f7d9001a06371e
True
the principal suburbs, colleges, shopping centres and places of interest
171
What does Glanmire connect the city centre to?
5a7e77b148f7d9001a06371f
True
orbital services
277
What do shuttles provide to Glanmire?
5a7e77b148f7d9001a063720
True
a park and ride facility
588
What is used for transportation and only available in Midleton?
5a7e77b148f7d9001a063721
True
Public bus services within the city are provided by the national bus operator Bus Éireann. City routes are numbered from 201 through to 219 and connect the city centre to the principal suburbs, colleges, shopping centres and places of interest. Two of these bus routes provide orbital services across the Northern and Southern districts of the city respectively. Buses to the outer suburbs, such as Ballincollig, Glanmire, Midleton and Carrigaline are provided from the city's bus terminal at Parnell Place in the city centre. Suburban services also include shuttles to Cork Airport, and a park and ride facility in the south suburbs only.
When was the Cork South Link dual carriageway built?
5727d12dff5b5019007d95f2
1980s
149
False
What was the purpose of the dual carriageway?
5727d12dff5b5019007d95f3
to link the Kinsale Road roundabout with the city centre
156
False
What was the purpose of the Kinsale Road flyover?
5727d12dff5b5019007d95f4
remove a bottleneck for traffic heading to Cork Airport or Killarney
514
False
What was a beneficial improvement made to Patrick Street?
5727d12dff5b5019007d95f5
pedestrian focus
940
False
1980s,
149
When was Kinsale Road built?
5a5d6f4d5e8782001a9d5f0e
True
city centre
201
What was linked to The Kinsale Road roundabout in the 1990's?
5a5d6f4d5e8782001a9d5f0f
True
Jack Lynch Tunnel
396
What tunnel passes over the Lee River?
5a5d6f4d5e8782001a9d5f10
True
M8 motorway
962
What Links Patrick Street with Dublin?
5a5d6f4d5e8782001a9d5f11
True
the early 1980s
139
In what year was the Kinsale Road roundabout built?
5a7e798048f7d9001a063727
True
to remove a bottleneck
511
Why did the N25 South Ring Road open in 2006?
5a7e798048f7d9001a063728
True
for traffic heading to Cork Airport or Killarney
534
From who would the N25 South Ring Road help remove the bottleneck?
5a7e798048f7d9001a063729
True
Dublin
990
What does the Jack Lynch Tunnel link Mallow with?
5a7e798048f7d9001a06372a
True
pedestrian focus
940
What improvement was made to N20 Blackpool bypass to make it safer?
5a7e798048f7d9001a06372b
True
The Cork area has seen improvements in road infrastructure in recent years. For example, the Cork South Link dual carriageway was built in the early 1980s, to link the Kinsale Road roundabout with the city centre. Shortly afterwards, the first sections of the South Ring dual carriageway were opened. Work continued through the 1990s on extending the N25 South Ring Road, with the opening of the Jack Lynch Tunnel under the River Lee being a significant addition. The Kinsale Road flyover opened in August 2006 to remove a bottleneck for traffic heading to Cork Airport or Killarney. Other projects completed at this time include the N20 Blackpool bypass and the N20 Cork to Mallow road projects. The N22 Ballincollig dual carriageway bypass, which links to the Western end of the Cork Southern Ring road was opened in September 2004. City Centre road improvements include the Patrick Street project - which reconstructed the street with a pedestrian focus. The M8 motorway links Cork with Dublin.
How many rail stations has cork had over the years?
5727ddb73acd2414000dee6f
eight
68
False
What connects Cobh and Midleton to Cork?
5727ddb73acd2414000dee70
the line through Kent
336
False
Where does the main rail originate?
5727ddb73acd2414000dee71
Dublin Heuston
152
False
Where was the original end of the line?
5727ddb73acd2414000dee72
Blackpool
218
False
What was Ireland's most rail-centric city?
5727ddb73acd2414000dee73
Cork
0
False
Cork
0
What is one or the most rail oriented cities in Europe?
5a5d70315e8782001a9d5f16
True
the line through Kent
336
What has connected to Youghal since the 1980's?
5a5d70315e8782001a9d5f17
True
The main route
101
What route now ends in Blackpool?
5a5d70315e8782001a9d5f18
True
eight
68
How many rail stations are there in Youghal?
5a7e7aba48f7d9001a063731
True
The main route
101
What from Youghal is still the same today as when it began?
5a7e7aba48f7d9001a063732
True
the route
229
What originally terminated at Kent?
5a7e7aba48f7d9001a063733
True
via Glanmire tunnel
292
How does the route reach the city centre terminus of Youghal Station?
5a7e7aba48f7d9001a063734
True
a through station
317
What is Youghal considered now that it connects Cobh and Midleton?
5a7e7aba48f7d9001a063735
True
Cork was one of the most rail-oriented cities in Ireland, featuring eight stations at various times. The main route, still much the same today, is from Dublin Heuston. Originally terminating on the city's outskirts at Blackpool, the route now reaches the city centre terminus of Kent Station via Glanmire tunnel. Now a through station, the line through Kent connects the towns of Cobh and Midleton east of the city. This also connected to the seaside town of Youghal, until the 1980s.[citation needed]
How many tram systems were in Cork?
5727de8b4b864d1900163ee4
two
32
False
Who wanted to develop a horse drawn tram system?
5727de8b4b864d1900163ee5
George Francis Train
163
False
When did the Cork Tramway Company start a horse driven tram system?
5727de8b4b864d1900163ee6
1872
217
False
Why did the Cork Tramway Company stop operations?
5727de8b4b864d1900163ee7
Cork Corporation refused permission to extend the line
301
False
Why did the cab operators not like the tracks?
5727de8b4b864d1900163ee8
protruded from the road surface
509
False
George Francis Train
163
Who opposed a horse drawn tram in the 18th century?
5a5d71815e8782001a9d5f1c
True
horse-drawn
88
What type of tram was built in the 18th century?
5a5d71815e8782001a9d5f1d
True
the Cork Tramway Company
225
Who built the horse drawn tram in the 18th century?
5a5d71815e8782001a9d5f1e
True
to extend the line,
337
What did the Cork Corporation give permission for in 1875?
5a5d71815e8782001a9d5f1f
True
the Cork Tramway Company
225
What company did George Francis Train work for in 1872?
5a7e7c8a48f7d9001a06373b
True
1875
290
When did George Francis Train arrive in Cork?
5a7e7c8a48f7d9001a06373c
True
5 ft 3in
498
How tall was George Francis Train?
5a7e7c8a48f7d9001a06373d
True
because of objections from cab operators to the type of tracks
364
Why did George Francis Train refuse to extend the line?
5a7e7c8a48f7d9001a06373e
True
protruded from the road surface
509
Where did the attachment sit when the horses were hitched to the tram?
5a7e7c8a48f7d9001a06373f
True
Within the city there have been two tram networks in operation. A proposal to develop a horse-drawn tram (linking the city's railway termini) was made by American George Francis Train in the 1860s, and implemented in 1872 by the Cork Tramway Company. However, the company ceased trading in 1875 after Cork Corporation refused permission to extend the line, mainly because of objections from cab operators to the type of tracks which – although they were laid to the Irish national railway gauge of 5 ft 3in – protruded from the road surface.[citation needed]
Which line was reopened in 2009?
5727e0834b864d1900163f10
Glounthaune to Midleton
199
False
What new stations were added to the Glounthaune to Midleton line?
5727e0834b864d1900163f11
Carrigtwohill and Midleton
263
False
What station is going to be available to the Northern Suburbs?
5727e0834b864d1900163f12
Kilbarry Railway Station
442
False
Where are the Little Island Railway Station routes?
5727e0834b864d1900163f13
Cork's Eastern Suburbs
412
False
What system are Little Island, Mallow, Midleton, Fota and Cobh stations of?
5727e0834b864d1900163f14
The Cork Suburban Rail
0
False
Glounthaune to Midleton
199
What line was close in July of 2009?
5a5d72bf5e8782001a9d5f24
True
Cork Suburban Rail system
4
What rail system has connections arriving in Kent?
5a5d72bf5e8782001a9d5f25
True
Kilbarry Railway Station
442
What Railway station serves the Northern Suburbs?
5a5d72bf5e8782001a9d5f26
True
reopened
232
What happened to the Little Island to Mallow line in July 2009?
5a7e845848f7d9001a063745
True
Northern Suburbs
491
What area is Midelton Railway Station planned to serve?
5a7e845848f7d9001a063746
True
parts of Metropolitan Cork
89
Where does the Glounthaune Rail system that departs from Kent Station connect to?
5a7e845848f7d9001a063747
True
future stations
296
What is planned for Little Island, Mallow and Cobh?
5a7e845848f7d9001a063748
True
2009
190
What year was the cork Suburban Rail system opened?
5a7e845848f7d9001a063749
True
The Cork Suburban Rail system also departs from Kent Station and provides connections to parts of Metropolitan Cork. Stations include Little Island, Mallow, Midleton, Fota and Cobh. In July 2009 the Glounthaune to Midleton line was reopened, with new stations at Carrigtwohill and Midleton (with future stations planned for Kilbarry, Monard, Carrigtwohill West and Blarney). Little Island Railway Station serves Cork's Eastern Suburbs, while Kilbarry Railway Station is planned to serve the Northern Suburbs.
Where can one study nautical and marine subjects in Cork?
5727e7d23acd2414000def6d
The National Maritime College of Ireland
0
False
What liberal arts type colleges are in Cork?
5727e7d23acd2414000def6e
Cork School of Music and Crawford College of Art and Design
194
False
Who provides vocational training in Cork?
5727e7d23acd2414000def6f
The Cork College of Commerce
278
False
Who offers post-secondary education in Cork?
5727e7d23acd2414000def70
Griffith College Cork
516
False
The National Maritime College of Ireland
0
What is the only college in Europe for Nautical Studies?
5a5d73865e8782001a9d5f2a
True
The Cork College of Commerce
278
What is the largest college in Ireland?
5a5d73865e8782001a9d5f2b
True
The Cork College of Commerce
278
What is the biggest provider of Vocational Training in Europe?
5a5d73865e8782001a9d5f2c
True
Nautical Studies and Marine Engineering
109
Griffith College Cork is the only college in Ireland where you can study what?
5a7e892948f7d9001a06374f
True
Vocational Preparation and Training courses
402
What is the Cork School of Music the largest provider of in the country?
5a7e892948f7d9001a063750
True
Cork School of Music and Crawford College of Art and Design
194
What constituent schools are incorporated into Griffith College Cork?
5a7e892948f7d9001a063751
True
post-Leaving
322
What kind of Certificate does Crawford College of Art and Design offer?
5a7e892948f7d9001a063752
True
3rd level
485
What level institution is the Cork School of Music?
5a7e892948f7d9001a063753
True
The National Maritime College of Ireland is also located in Cork and is the only college in Ireland in which Nautical Studies and Marine Engineering can be undertaken. CIT also incorporates the Cork School of Music and Crawford College of Art and Design as constituent schools. The Cork College of Commerce is the largest post-Leaving Certificate college in Ireland and is also the biggest provider of Vocational Preparation and Training courses in the country.[citation needed] Other 3rd level institutions include Griffith College Cork, a private institution, and various other colleges.
What is the biggest conglomeration of start-up companies in Cork?
5727e8b02ca10214002d994a
The Rubicon Centre
515
False
Where is a good source of marine research in Cork?
5727e8b02ca10214002d994b
IMERC (Marine Energy)
209
False
What is a good source for business start-ups in Cork?
5727e8b02ca10214002d994c
the IGNITE Graduate Business Innovation Centre
415
False
How many start-ups are associated with the Rubicon Center?
5727e8b02ca10214002d994d
57
579
False
Research institutes linked to the third level colleges
0
What supports the research and innovation of Europe?
5a5d746a5e8782001a9d5f30
True
57
579
How many start ups are associated with UCC?
5a5d746a5e8782001a9d5f31
True
the third level colleges in the city
30
What is the Rubicon Centre linked to?
5a7e8fe748f7d9001a063759
True
the research and innovation capacity of the city and region
75
What does the Environmental Research Institute support in Cork?
5a7e8fe748f7d9001a06375a
True
57
579
How may start ups are associated with the Environmental Research Institute?
5a7e8fe748f7d9001a06375b
True
knowledge based
582
What kind of start up companies are associated with the Environmental Research Institute?
5a7e8fe748f7d9001a06375c
True
entrepreneurship
489
What does the Environmental Research Institute want to support for new business?
5a7e8fe748f7d9001a06375d
True
Research institutes linked to the third level colleges in the city support the research and innovation capacity of the city and region. Examples include the Tyndall National Institute (ICT hardware research), IMERC (Marine Energy), Environmental Research Institute, NIMBUS (Network Embedded Systems); and CREATE (Advanced Therapeutic Engineering). UCC and CIT also have start-up company incubation centres. In UCC, the IGNITE Graduate Business Innovation Centre aims to foster and support entrepreneurship. In CIT, The Rubicon Centre is a business innovation hub that is home to 57 knowledge based start-up companies.
What are the biggest sports draws in Cork?
5727e9773acd2414000def9f
Hurling and football
0
False
How many All-Ireland Championships has Cork won?
5727e9773acd2414000defa0
30
143
False
How many All-Ireland Senior Football Championship titles have been won by Cork?
5727e9773acd2414000defa1
7
223
False
What kind of hurling do the women of Cork play?
5727e9773acd2414000defa2
Camogie
558
False
What sport has been gaining steam as more and more women play?
5727e9773acd2414000defa3
gaelic football
599
False
city and county
107
What does  football have a strong identity with?
5a5d75395e8782001a9d5f34
True
30
143
How many football championships has Cork won?
5a5d75395e8782001a9d5f35
True
Hurling and football
0
What are the most popular sports in Ireland?
5a5d75395e8782001a9d5f36
True
in the city
59
Where are camogie and women's gaelic football the most popular?
5a7e939748f7d9001a063763
True
30
143
How many All-Ireland Championships have the Nemo Rangers won?
5a7e939748f7d9001a063764
True
7
223
How many Senior Football Championship titles has Pairc Ui Chaoimh won?
5a7e939748f7d9001a063765
True
popularity
633
What is Pairc Ui Rinn increasing in as more women join?
5a7e939748f7d9001a063766
True
Camogie
558
What is another name for women's gaelic football?
5a7e939748f7d9001a063767
True
Hurling and football are the most popular spectator sports in the city. Hurling has a strong identity with city and county – with Cork winning 30 All-Ireland Championships. Gaelic football is also popular, and Cork has won 7 All-Ireland Senior Football Championship titles. There are many Gaelic Athletic Association clubs in Cork City, including Blackrock National Hurling Club, St. Finbarr's, Glen Rovers, Na Piarsaigh and Nemo Rangers. The main public venues are Páirc Uí Chaoimh and Páirc Uí Rinn (named after the noted Glen Rovers player Christy Ring). Camogie (hurling for ladies) and women's gaelic football are increasing in popularity.
What kinds of sea faring sports are available in Cork?
5727eaf0ff5b5019007d987c
rowing and sailing
54
False
How many rowing clubs are in Cork?
5727eaf0ff5b5019007d987d
five
84
False
Where is the world's oldest yahct club?
5727eaf0ff5b5019007d987e
The Royal Cork Yacht Club located in Crosshaven
689
False
What is one of the more popular sailing events in Cork?
5727eaf0ff5b5019007d987f
Cork Week
795
False
What annual rowing event has been happening in Cork since 2005?
5727eaf0ff5b5019007d9880
Ocean to City
306
False
rowing and sailing.
54
What watersports are available in Ireland?
5a5d75f35e8782001a9d5f3a
True
The "Ocean to City"
301
What race was held until 2005
5a5d75f35e8782001a9d5f3b
True
The decision to move the National Rowing Center to Inniscarra
493
What has reduced numbers involved rowing?
5a5d75f35e8782001a9d5f3c
True
since 2005
349
How long has The Royal Cork Yacht Club trained on the Lee?
5a7e969448f7d9001a06376d
True
numbers involved in the sport
567
What did moving Shandon BC to Crosshaven help improve?
5a7e969448f7d9001a06376e
True
in Crosshaven
723
What city is Naomhoga Chorcai located in?
5a7e969448f7d9001a06376f
True
the world's oldest yacht club
759
What title does Naomhoga Chorcai hold as the oldest?
5a7e969448f7d9001a063770
True
Inniscarra
544
What city has Cork Week been moved to since 2005?
5a7e969448f7d9001a063771
True
There are a variety of watersports in Cork, including rowing and sailing. There are five rowing clubs training on the river Lee, including Shandon BC, UCC RC, Pres RC, Lee RC, and Cork BC. Naomhóga Chorcaí is a rowing club whose members row traditional naomhóga on the Lee in occasional competitions. The "Ocean to City" race has been held annually since 2005, and attracts teams and boats from local and visiting clubs who row the 24 kilometres (15 mi) from Crosshaven into Cork city centre. The decision to move the National Rowing Center to Inniscarra has boosted numbers involved in the sport.[citation needed] Cork's maritime sailing heritage is maintained through its sailing clubs. The Royal Cork Yacht Club located in Crosshaven (outside the city) is the world's oldest yacht club, and "Cork Week" is a notable sailing event.
What's the most famous cricket club in Cork?
5727ec402ca10214002d99c0
Cork County Cricket Club
41
False
When was the Cork County Cricket Club established?
5727ec402ca10214002d99c1
1874
87
False
Which league does the Cork County Cricket Club belong to?
5727ec402ca10214002d99c2
Leinster Senior League
165
False
Which first-class matches were hosted at Mardyke?
5727ec402ca10214002d99c3
1947, 1961 and 1973
275
False
Which teams played in the three first class matches?
5727ec402ca10214002d99c4
Ireland playing Scotland
315
False
Cork County Cricket Club
41
What Cricket club was formed in the 18th century?
5a5d76665e8782001a9d5f40
True
1947, 1961 and 1973
275
When did The Cricket club host matches?
5a5d76665e8782001a9d5f41
True
1874
87
In what year was Harlequins Cricket Club formed?
5a7e994048f7d9001a063777
True
Munster
121
What jurisdiction is the Harlequins Cricket Club located in?
5a7e994048f7d9001a063778
True
Leinster Senior League
165
What league does the Harlequins Cricket Club play in?
5a7e994048f7d9001a063779
True
1947, 1961 and 1973
275
In what years were first class matches held close to Cork Airport?
5a7e994048f7d9001a06377a
True
schools in the city and county
440
Where does the Harlequins Cricket Club want to introduce the sport to?
5a7e994048f7d9001a06377b
True
The most notable cricket club in Cork is Cork County Cricket Club, which was formed in 1874. Although located within the Munster jurisdiction, the club plays in the Leinster Senior League. The club plays at the Mardyke, a ground which has hosted three first-class matches in 1947, 1961 and 1973. All three involved Ireland playing Scotland. The Cork Cricket Academy operates within the city, with the stated aim of introducing the sport to schools in the city and county. Cork's other main cricket club, Harlequins Cricket Club, play close to Cork Airport.
Which Australian Rules Football team is Cork home to?
5727ed1cff5b5019007d98aa
Leeside Lions
421
False
How many times have the Leeside Lions won the Australian Rules Football League of Ireland Premiership?
5727ed1cff5b5019007d98ab
four
509
False
When did the Leeside Lions win the Australian Rules Football League of Ireland Premiership?
5727ed1cff5b5019007d98ac
2002, 2003, 2005 and 2007
524
False
Which inline roller sports translate well to winter in Cork?
5727ed1cff5b5019007d98ad
hockey and figure skating
597
False
What Martial Arts can be found within Cork?
5727ed1cff5b5019007d98ae
Brazilian jiu-jitsu, Karate, Muay Thai and Taekwondo
157
False
road bowling,
29
what is played in the east suburbs?
5a5d77825e8782001a9d5f44
True
four times
509
How many times have the Leeside Lions lost the Australian Rules Football League?
5a5d77825e8782001a9d5f45
True
2002, 2003, 2005 and 2007
524
When did he Leeside Lions loose the Australian Rules Football League
5a5d77825e8782001a9d5f46
True
Cork Racing
228
Who raced the Formula Ford Championship until 2005?
5a5d77825e8782001a9d5f47
True
in the north-side and south-west suburbs
59
In what area is hockey played in Cork?
5a7ea02948f7d9001a063781
True
four times
509
How many times has the Muay Thai club won the Ireland Premiership?
5a7ea02948f7d9001a063782
True
2002, 2003, 2005 and 2007
524
In what years did the Muay Thai club win the Ireland Premiership?
5a7ea02948f7d9001a063783
True
since 2005
323
How long has road bowling been played in Cork?
5a7ea02948f7d9001a063784
True
the winter season
655
During what season is road bowling played inside?
5a7ea02948f7d9001a063785
True
The city is also the home of road bowling, which is played in the north-side and south-west suburbs. There are also boxing and martial arts clubs (including Brazilian jiu-jitsu, Karate, Muay Thai and Taekwondo) within the city. Cork Racing, a motorsport team based in Cork, has raced in the Irish Formula Ford Championship since 2005. Cork also hosts one of Ireland's most successful Australian Rules Football teams, the Leeside Lions, who have won the Australian Rules Football League of Ireland Premiership four times (in 2002, 2003, 2005 and 2007). There are also inline roller sports, such as hockey and figure skating, which transfer to the ice over the winter season.[citation needed]
Galicia_(Spain)
Which country is Galicia in?
5727a5a64b864d190016394a
Spain
229
False
Where is its geographic location?
5727a5a64b864d190016394b
North-West of the Iberian Peninsula
294
False
Which large body of water does Galicia border?
5727a5a64b864d190016394c
Atlantic Ocean
531
False
What is its largest island?
5727a5a64b864d190016394d
Arousa
854
False
Galicia (English i/ɡəˈlɪsiə/, /ɡəˈlɪʃə/; Galician: [ɡaˈliθja] ( listen), [ħaˈliθja], or [ħaˈlisja]; Spanish: [ɡaˈliθja]; Galician and Portuguese: Galiza, [ɡaˈliθa] ( listen), [ħaˈliθa] or [ħaˈlisa]) is an autonomous community of Spain and historic nationality under Spanish law. Located in the North-West of the Iberian Peninsula, it comprises the provinces of A Coruña, Lugo, Ourense and Pontevedra, being bordered by Portugal to the south, the Spanish autonomous communities of Castile and León and Asturias to the east, and the Atlantic Ocean to the west and the north. It had a population of 2,765,940 in 2013 and has a total area of 29,574 km2 (11,419 sq mi). Galicia has over 1,660 km (1,030 mi) of coastline, including its offshore islands and islets, among them Cíes Islands, Ons, Sálvora, Cortegada, and—the largest and most populated—A Illa de Arousa.
During which period did humans first inhabit Galicia?
5727a5a82ca10214002d92c6
Middle Paleolithic
69
False
Where does its name come from?
5727a5a82ca10214002d92c7
Gallaeci, the Celtic peoples
127
False
Which empire turned Galicia into one of its provinces the 3rd century AD?
5727a5a82ca10214002d92c8
Roman Empire
334
False
What was the name of the assembly of representatives that began in the 16th century?
5727a5a82ca10214002d92c9
the Cortes or Junta
1485
False
Which year was the current Statute of Autonomy enacted?
5727a5a82ca10214002d92ca
1981
1902
False
The area now called Galicia was first inhabited by humans during the Middle Paleolithic period, and it takes its name from the Gallaeci, the Celtic peoples living north of the Douro river during the last millennium BC, in a region largely coincidental with that of the Iron Age local Castro culture. Galicia was incorporated into the Roman Empire at the end of the Cantabrian Wars in 19 BC, being turned into a Roman province in the 3rd century AD. In 410, the Germanic Suebi established a kingdom with its capital in Braga (Portugal) which was incorporated into that of the Visigoths in 585. In 711, the Arabs invaded the Iberian Peninsula, taking the Visigoth kingdom, but soon in 740 Galicia was incorporated into the Christian kingdom of Asturias. During the Middle Ages, the kingdom of Galicia was occasionally ruled by its own kings, but most of the time it was leagued to the kingdom of Leon and later to that of Castile, while maintaining its own legal and customary practices and personality. From the 13th century on, the kings of Castile, as kings of Galicia, appointed an Adiantado-mór, whose attributions passed to the Governor and Captain General of the Kingdom of Galiza from the last years of the 15th century. The Governor also presided the Real Audiencia do Reino de Galicia, a royal tribunal and government body. From the 16th century, the representation and voice of the kingdom was held by an assembly of deputies and representatives of the cities of the kingdom, the Cortes or Junta of the Kingdom of Galicia, an institution which was forcibly discontinued in 1833 when the kingdom was divided into four administrative provinces with no legal mutual links. During the 19th and 20th centuries, demand grew for self-government and for the recognition of the personality of Galicia, a demand which led to the frustrated Statute of Autonomy of 1936, and to the Statute of Autonomy of 1981, currently in force.
How high does Galicia's mountain ranges rise?
5727a5aa4b864d1900163952
2,000 m (6,600 ft)
98
False
What have been its two primary sources of wealth?
5727a5aa4b864d1900163953
animal husbandry and farming
517
False
Name its northwestern coastal area.
5727a5aa4b864d1900163954
Ferrol to A Coruña
1012
False
Name its political capital.
5727a5aa4b864d1900163955
Santiago de Compostela
1241
False
Which province is this capital in?
5727a5aa4b864d1900163956
A Coruña
1284
False
The interior of Galicia is characterized by its hilly landscape, although mountain ranges rise to 2,000 m (6,600 ft) in the east and south. The coastal areas are mostly an alternate series of rías (submerged valleys where the sea penetrates tens of kilometres inland) and cliffs. The climate of Galicia is temperate and rainy, but it is also markedly drier in the summer, being usually classified as Oceanic in the west and north, and Mediterranean in the southeast. Its topographic and climatic conditions have made animal husbandry and farming the primary source of Galicia's wealth for most of its history. With the exception of shipbuilding and food processing, Galicia was largely a semi-subsistence farming and fishing economy and did not experience significant industrialization until after the mid-20th century. In 2012, the gross domestic product at purchasing power parity was €56,000 million, with a nominal GDP per capita of €20,700. The population is largely concentrated in two coastal areas: from Ferrol to A Coruña in the northwest and from Pontevedra to Vigo in the southwest. To a lesser extent, there are smaller populations around the interior cities of Lugo, Ourense and Santiago de Compostela. The political capital is Santiago de Compostela, in the province of A Coruña. Vigo, in the province of Pontevedra, is the most populous municipality with 294,997 (2014), while A Coruña is the most populous city with 215.227 (2014).
What is one variation of Gallicia's name used during the Middle Ages?
5727a76e2ca10214002d92f4
Galletia
74
False
Which spelling was the most common spelling during the 13th century?
5727a76e2ca10214002d92f5
Galiza
171
False
When did it get its modern spelling?
5727a76e2ca10214002d92f6
15th and 16th centuries
267
False
What is the name of the local government?
5727a76e2ca10214002d92f7
Xunta de Galicia
567
False
Which group regulates the Galician language?
5727a76e2ca10214002d92f8
The Royal Galician Academy
616
False
The name evolved during the Middle Ages from Gallaecia, sometimes written Galletia, to Gallicia. In the 13th century, with the written emergence of the Galician language, Galiza became the most usual written form of the name of the country, being replaced during the 15th and 16th centuries by the current form, Galicia, which coincides with the Castilian Spanish name. The historical denomination Galiza became popular again during the end of the 19th and the first three-quarters of the 20th century, being still used with some frequency today, although not by the Xunta de Galicia, the local devolved government. The Royal Galician Academy, the institution responsible for regulating the Galician language, whilst recognizing it as a legitimate current denomination, has stated that the only official name of the country is Galicia.
Which author wrote that "Galicians are called so, because of their fair skin, as the Gauls"?
5727a7714b864d1900163990
Isidore
90
False
Which original ethnic name is "Galicia" derived from?
5727a7714b864d1900163991
Kallaikói
571
False
What does Galicia's name mean?
5727a7714b864d1900163992
the land of the Galicians
594
False
Although the etymology of the name has been studied since the 7th century by authors like Isidore of Seville —who wrote that "Galicians are called so, because of their fair skin, as the Gauls", relating the name to the Greek word for milk—, currently scholars derive the name of the ancient Callaeci either from Proto-Indo-European *kal-n-eH2 'hill', through a local relational suffix -aik-, so meaning 'the hill (people)'; or either from Proto-Celtic *kallī- 'forest', so meaning 'the forest (people)'. In any case, Galicia, being per se a derivation of the ethnic name Kallaikói, would mean 'the land of the Galicians'.
Where in Galicia has the oldest evidence of humans been found?
5727a97b4b864d19001639d4
Eirós Cave
74
False
Which municipality is this in?
5727a97b4b864d19001639d5
Triacastela
109
False
What is the oldest culture whose structures have been found?
5727a97b4b864d19001639d6
Megalithic
290
False
Which two minerals found in abundance in Galicia were used during Bronze Age?
5727a97b4b864d19001639d7
tin and gold
716
False
The oldest attestation of human presence in Galicia has been found in the Eirós Cave, in the municipality of Triacastela, which has preserved animal remains and Neanderthal stone objects from the Middle Paleolithic. The earliest culture to have left significant architectural traces is the Megalithic culture which expanded along the western European coasts during the Neolithic and Calcolithic eras. Thousands of Megalithic tumuli are distributed throughout the country, but mostly along the coastal areas. Within each tumulus is a stone burial chamber known locally as anta (dolmen), frequently preceded by a corridor. Galicia was later fully affected by the Bell Beaker culture. While its rich mineral deposits - tin and gold - led to the development of Bronze Age metallurgy, and to the commerce of bronze and gold items all along the Atlantic façade of Western Europe, where a common elite's culture evolved during the Atlantic Bronze Age.
What does the Castro culture's name mean?
5727aa364b864d19001639ec
Culture of the Castles
21
False
When did the Castro culture flourish?
5727aa364b864d19001639ed
second half of the first millennium BC.
103
False
Who mentioned the ancient Galician's "warlike spirit"?
5727aa364b864d19001639ee
Appian
619
False
Who was it that described people living on the coast as "Celtic"?
5727aa364b864d19001639ef
Pomponius Mela
782
False
The Castro culture ('Culture of the Castles') developed during the Iron Age, and flourished during the second half of the first millennium BC. It is usually considered a local evolution of the Atlantic Bronze Age, with later developments and influences and overlapping into the Roman era. Geographically, it corresponds to the people Roman called Gallaeci, which were composed by a large series of nations or tribes, among them the Artabri, Bracari, Limici, Celtici, Albiones and Lemavi. They were capable fighters: Strabo described them as the most difficult foes the Romans encountered in conquering Lusitania, while Appian mentions their warlike spirit, noting that the women bore their weapons side by side with their men, frequently preferring death to captivity. According to Pomponius Mela all the inhabitants of the coastal areas were Celtic people.
What were the forts that the Gallaeci lived in called?
5727abe34b864d1900163a06
castros
18
False
Where were these forts commonly built?
5727abe34b864d1900163a07
hills
181
False
Where is one place where one of the inland forts can be found?
5727abe34b864d1900163a08
Borneiro
360
False
Statues have been made in whose likeness?
5727abe34b864d1900163a09
warrior
465
False
Gallaeci lived in castros. These were usually annular forts, with one or more concentric earthen or stony walls, with a trench in front of each one. They were frequently located at hills, or in seashore cliffs and peninsulas. Some well known castros can be found, in the seashore, at Fazouro, Santa Tegra, Baroña and O Neixón, and inland at San Cibrao de Lás, Borneiro, Castromao, and Viladonga. Some other distinctive features, such as temples, baths, reservoirs, warrior statues and decorative carvings have been found associated to this culture, together with rich gold and metalworking traditions.
Though the Muslims couldn't take full control of Galicia, when was it that they invaded Spain?
5727b0db2ca10214002d93ee
711
33
False
Which kingdom did Galicia later become a part of?
5727b0db2ca10214002d93ef
Asturias
185
False
As a result, what became the religion of Galician society?
5727b0db2ca10214002d93f0
Christian
360
False
Ancient Galicians took control of which city in northern Portugal?
5727b0db2ca10214002d93f1
Coimbra
487
False
Later the Muslims invaded Spain (711), but the Arabs and Moors never managed to have any real control over Galicia, which was later incorporated into the expanding Christian Kingdom of Asturias, usually known as Gallaecia or Galicia (Yillīqiya and Galīsiya) by Muslim Chroniclers, as well as by many European contemporaries. This era consolidated Galicia as a Christian society which spoke a Romance language. During the next century Galician noblemen took northern Portugal, conquering Coimbra in 871, thus freeing what were considered the southernmost city of ancient Galicia.
Under whom did Roman legions first enter Galicia?
5727b0de2ca10214002d93f6
Decimus Junius Brutus
47
False
Galicia was incorporated into the Roman Empire under whose rule?
5727b0de2ca10214002d93f7
Augustus
159
False
Which mineral found in Galicia were the Romans interested in?
5727b0de2ca10214002d93f8
gold
270
False
Which language did the Romans introduce to Galicia?
5727b0de2ca10214002d93f9
latin
540
False
The Romans used which lighthouse located in Corunna as part of its effort to establish control the area?
5727b0de2ca10214002d93fa
Tower of Hercules
739
False
The Roman legions first entered the area under Decimus Junius Brutus in 137–136 BC, but the country was only incorporated into the Roman Empire by the time of Augustus (29 BC – 19 BC). The Romans were interested in Galicia mainly for its mineral resources, most notably gold. Under Roman rule, most Galician hillforts began to be – sometimes forcibly – abandoned, and Gallaeci served frequently in the Roman army as auxiliary troops. Romans brought new technologies, new travel routes, new forms of organizing property, and a new language; latin. The Roman Empire established its control over Galicia through camps (castra) as Aquis Querquennis, Ciadella camp or Lucus Augusti (Lugo), roads (viae) and monuments as the lighthouse known as Tower of Hercules, in Corunna, but the remoteness and lesser interest of the country since the 2nd century of our era, when the gold mines stopped being productive, led to a lesser degree of Romanization. In the 3rd century it was made a province, under the name Gallaecia, which included also northern Portugal, Asturias, and a large section of what today is known as Castile and León.
At the end of which year did Central Europe tribes invade the Roman Empire?
5727b0de4b864d1900163a82
406
203
False
Which tribe did the Romans subsequently make a treaty with?
5727b0de4b864d1900163a83
Suebi
324
False
What was the name of the Briton colony formed in Northern Galicia?
5727b0de4b864d1900163a84
Britonia
717
False
Which Visigothic king took over control of Galicia from the Suebi?
5727b0de4b864d1900163a85
Leovigild
803
False
In which year did this happen?
5727b0de4b864d1900163a86
585
778
False
In the early 5th century, the deep crisis suffered by the Roman Empire allowed different tribes of Central Europe (Suebi, Vandals and Alani) to cross the Rhine and penetrate into the rule on 31 December 406. Its progress towards the Iberian Peninsula forced the Roman authorities to establish a treaty (foedus) by which the Suebi would settle peacefully and govern Galicia as imperial allies. So, from 409 Galicia was taken by the Suebi, forming the first medieval kingdom to be created in Europe, in 411, even before the fall of the Roman Empire, being also the first Germanic kingdom to mint coinage in Roman lands. During this period a Briton colony and bishopric (see Mailoc) was established in Northern Galicia (Britonia), probably as foederati and allies of the Suebi. In 585, the Visigothic King Leovigild invaded the Suebic kingdom of Galicia and defeated it, bringing it under Visigoth control.
Which cult arose in Galicia during the 9th century?
5727b23d3acd2414000dea01
Apostle James
48
False
Where was this cult based in?
5727b23d3acd2414000dea02
Santiago de Compostela
65
False
Name the road that lead there.
5727b23d3acd2414000dea03
Way of Saint James
288
False
What did Galicians call the Vikings?
5727b23d3acd2414000dea04
Leodemanes or Lordomanes
636
False
To stop the Vikings from raiding, what did the Galicians build as a defense system?
5727b23d3acd2414000dea05
Towers of Catoira
698
False
In the 9th century, the rise of the cult of the Apostle James in Santiago de Compostela gave Galicia a particular symbolic importance among Christians, an importance it would hold throughout the Reconquista. As the Middle Ages went on, Santiago became a major pilgrim destination and the Way of Saint James (Camiño de Santiago) a major pilgrim road, a route for the propagation of Romanesque art and the words and music of the troubadors. During the 10th and 11th centuries, a period during which Galician nobility become related to the royal family, Galicia was at times headed by its own native kings, while Vikings (locally known as Leodemanes or Lordomanes) occasionally raided the coasts. The Towers of Catoira (Pontevedra) were built as a system of fortifications to prevent and stop the Viking raids on Santiago de Compostela.
Who was it that in 1063 gave rule over Galicia to his son?
5727b460ff5b5019007d9304
Ferdinand I
9
False
What was the name of this son?
5727b460ff5b5019007d9305
Garcia II
108
False
Who was the brother who later took control for himself?
5727b460ff5b5019007d9306
Alfonso VI
183
False
Galicia then became part of which Kingdom?
5727b460ff5b5019007d9307
Kingdom of León
246
False
Who standardized Castillan and made it the government's official language?
5727b460ff5b5019007d9308
Alfonso X
307
False
In 1063, Ferdinand I of Castile divided his realm among his sons, and the Kingdom of Galicia was granted to Garcia II of Galicia. In 1072, it was forcibly annexed by Garcia's brother Alfonso VI of León; from that time Galicia was united with the Kingdom of León under the same monarchs. In the 13th century Alfonso X of Castile standardized the Castilian language and made it the language of court and government. Nevertheless, in his Kingdom of Galicia the Galician language was the only language spoken, and the most used in government and legal uses, as well as in literature.
Social turmoil led to conflict?
5727b6123acd2414000dea47
Guerras Irmandiñas
120
False
Which two royals were part of the dynastic conflict of the 15th century?
5727b6123acd2414000dea48
Isabella I of Castile and Joanna La Beltraneja
486
False
The subsequent reforms were coined as "doma del Reino de Galicia" by who?
5727b6123acd2414000dea49
Jeronimo Zurita
685
False
What was the name of the local government and tribunal?
5727b6123acd2414000dea4a
Real Audiencia del Reino de Galicia
996
False
On the other hand, the lack of an effective royal justice system in the Kingdom led to the social conflict known as the Guerras Irmandiñas ('Wars of the brotherhoods'), when leagues of peasants and burghers, with the support of a number of knights, noblemen, and under legal protection offered by the remote king, toppled many of the castles of the Kingdom and briefly drove the noblemen into Portugal and Castile. Soon after, in the late 15th century, in the dynastic conflict between Isabella I of Castile and Joanna La Beltraneja, part of the Galician aristocracy supported Joanna. After Isabella's victory, she initiated an administrative and political reform which the chronicler Jeronimo Zurita defined as "doma del Reino de Galicia": 'It was then when the taming of Galicia began, because not just the local lords and knights, but all the people of that nation were the ones against the others very bold and warlike'. These reforms, while establishing a local government and tribunal (the Real Audiencia del Reino de Galicia) and bringing the nobleman under submission, also brought most Galician monasteries and institutions under Castilian control, in what has been criticized as a process of centralisation. At the same time the kings began to call the Xunta or Cortes of the Kingdom of Galicia, an assembly of deputies or representatives of the cities of the Kingdom, to ask for monetary and military contributions. This assembly soon developed into the voice and legal representation of the Kingdom, and the depositary of its will and laws.
Castillan armies invaded Galicia between which years?
5727b73b4b864d1900163b24
1480 and 1486
280
False
Which powerful Galician lords did they murder?
5727b73b4b864d1900163b25
Pedro Madruga, and Rodrigo Henriquez Osorio
164
False
Which Castillan ruler then consolidated control over Galicia?
5727b73b4b864d1900163b26
Isabella I
295
False
The modern period of the kingdom of Galicia began with the murder or defeat of some of the most powerful Galician lords, such as Pedro Álvarez de Sotomayor, called Pedro Madruga, and Rodrigo Henriquez Osorio, at the hands of the Castilian armies sent to Galicia between the years 1480 and 1486. Isabella I of Castile, considered a usurper by many Galician nobles, eradicated all armed resistance and definitively established the royal power of the Castilian monarchy. Fearing a general revolt, the monarchs ordered the banishing of the rest of the great lords like Pedro de Bolaño, Diego de Andrade or Lope Sánchez de Moscoso, among others.
Which government body was formed in 1480?
5727bb132ca10214002d94f4
Santa Hermandad
25
False
Which body was formed in 1500?
5727bb132ca10214002d94f5
Real Audiencia del Reino de Galicia
61
False
What percentage of Castille's total earnings was Galicia responsible for?
5727bb132ca10214002d94f6
10%
407
False
Which other countries was Spain at war with during the 16 century?
5727bb132ca10214002d94f7
Netherlands, France and England
638
False
In spite of these wars, which exports did Galicia's Atlantic trade consist of?
5727bb2a3acd2414000deacf
sardines, wood, and some cattle and wine
753
False
The establishment of the Santa Hermandad in 1480, and of the Real Audiencia del Reino de Galicia in 1500—a tribunal and executive body directed by the Governor-Captain General as a direct representative of the King—implied initially the submission of the Kingdom to the Crown, after a century of unrest and fiscal insubordination. As a result, from 1480 to 1520 the Kingdom of Galicia contributed more than 10% of the total earnings of the Crown of Castille, including the Americas, well over its economic relevance. Like the rest of Spain, the 16th century was marked by population growth up to 1580, when the simultaneous wars with the Netherlands, France and England hampered Galicia's Atlantic commerce, which consisted mostly in the exportation of sardines, wood, and some cattle and wine.
Where did Sir Francis Drake attack in 1585 and again in 1589?
5727bfe94b864d1900163c70
Vigo
444
False
Who attacked Cangas in 1617?
5727bfe94b864d1900163c71
Barbary pirates
593
False
From that moment Galicia, which participated to a minor extent in the American expansion of the Spanish Empire, found itself at the center of the Atlantic wars fought by Spain against the French and the Protestant powers of England and the Netherlands, whose privateers attacked the coastal areas, but major assaults were not common as the coastline was difficult and the harbors easily defended. The most famous assaults were upon the city of Vigo by Sir Francis Drake in 1585 and 1589, and the siege of A Coruña in 1589 by the English Armada. Galicia also suffered occasional slave raids by Barbary pirates, but not as frequently as the Mediterranean coastal areas. The most famous Barbary attack was the bloody sack of the town of Cangas in 1617. At the time, the king's petitions for money and troops became more frequent, due to the human and economic exhaustion of Castile; the Junta of the Kingdom of Galicia (the local Cortes or representative assembly) was initially receptive to these petitions, raising large sums, accepting the conscription of the men of the kingdom, and even commissioning a new naval squadron which was sustained with the incomes of the Kingdom.
War broke out with which other countries?
5727c1123acd2414000debb5
Portugal and Catalonia
35
False
When did the Galician Junta more often stand up to requests from the monarch?
5727c1123acd2414000debb6
second half of the 17th century
369
False
In what way was the tension between the monarch and Galicia similar to the wars it was fighting?
5727c1123acd2414000debb7
there were frequent urban mutinies
578
False
After the rupture of the wars with Portugal and Catalonia, the Junta changed its attitude, this time due to the exhaustion of Galicia, now involved not just in naval or oversea operations, but also in an exhausting war with the Portuguese, war which produced thousands of casualties and refugees and was heavily disturbing to the local economy and commerce. So, in the second half of the 17th century the Junta frequently denied or considerably reduced the initial petitions of the monarch, and though the tension didn't rise to the levels experienced in Portugal or Catalonia, there were frequent urban mutinies and some voices even asked for the secession of the Kingdom of Galicia.
Which nationalist movement arose in the early 20th century?
5727c2564b864d1900163c9c
Solidaridad Gallega
77
False
Which other movement was it modeled after?
5727c2564b864d1900163c9d
Solidaritat Catalana
120
False
Which political group arose in 1916?
5727c2564b864d1900163c9e
Irmandades da Fala
195
False
Which magazine advocated for Galician nationalism?
5727c2564b864d1900163c9f
Nós
440
False
In the early 20th century came another turn toward nationalist politics with Solidaridad Gallega (1907–1912) modeled on Solidaritat Catalana in Catalonia. Solidaridad Gallega failed, but in 1916 Irmandades da Fala (Brotherhood of the Language) developed first as a cultural association but soon as a full-blown nationalist movement. Vicente Risco and Ramón Otero Pedrayo were outstanding cultural figures of this movement, and the magazine Nós ('Us'), founded 1920, its most notable cultural institution, Lois Peña Novo the outstanding political figure.
Along with Galicia's, which other two province's autonomy was annulled?
5727c45a2ca10214002d95ca
Catalonia and the Basque provinces
498
False
Under the control of whose army was Galicia under during this war?
5727c45a2ca10214002d95cb
Franco's
186
False
Which prominent journalist was victim of the killings?
5727c45a2ca10214002d95cc
Manuel Lustres Rivas
1483
False
Which admiral who hadn't joined the rebellion was also a victim?
5727c45a2ca10214002d95cd
Antonio Azarola
1316
False
Galicia was spared the worst of the fighting in that war: it was one of the areas where the initial coup attempt at the outset of the war was successful, and it remained in Nationalist (Franco's army's) hands throughout the war. While there were no pitched battles, there was repression and death: all political parties were abolished, as were all labor unions and Galician nationalist organizations as the Seminario de Estudos Galegos. Galicia's statute of autonomy was annulled (as were those of Catalonia and the Basque provinces once those were conquered). According to Carlos Fernández Santander, at least 4,200 people were killed either extrajudicially or after summary trials, among them republicans, communists, Galician nationalists, socialists and anarchists. Victims included the civil governors of all four Galician provinces; Juana Capdevielle, the wife of the governor of A Coruña; mayors such as Ánxel Casal of Santiago de Compostela, of the Partido Galeguista; prominent socialists such as Jaime Quintanilla in Ferrol and Emilio Martínez Garrido in Vigo; Popular Front deputies Antonio Bilbatúa, José Miñones, Díaz Villamil, Ignacio Seoane, and former deputy Heraclio Botana); soldiers who had not joined the rebellion, such as Generals Rogelio Caridad Pita and Enrique Salcedo Molinuevo and Admiral Antonio Azarola; and the founders of the PG, Alexandre Bóveda and Víctor Casas, as well as other professionals akin to republicans and nationalists, as the journalist Manuel Lustres Rivas or physician Luis Poza Pastrana. Many others were forced to escape into exile, or were victims of other reprisals and removed from their jobs and positions.
Francisco Franco was himself a Galician from which city?
5727c5172ca10214002d95e6
Ferrol
51
False
When did his reign end?
5727c5182ca10214002d95e7
1975
116
False
What was Guerrilla fighter José Castro Veiga's nickname?
5727c5182ca10214002d95e8
El Piloto
415
False
And what was Benigno Andrade's?
5727c5182ca10214002d95e9
Foucellas
449
False
General Francisco Franco — himself a Galician from Ferrol — ruled as dictator from the civil war until his death in 1975. Franco's centralizing regime suppressed any official use of the Galician language, including the use of Galician names for newborns, although its everyday oral use was not forbidden. Among the attempts at resistance were small leftist guerrilla groups such as those led by José Castro Veiga ("El Piloto") and Benigno Andrade ("Foucellas"), both of whom were ultimately captured and executed. In the 1960s, ministers such as Manuel Fraga Iribarne introduced some reforms allowing technocrats affiliated with Opus Dei to modernize administration in a way that facilitated capitalist economic development. However, for decades Galicia was largely confined to the role of a supplier of raw materials and energy to the rest of Spain, causing environmental havoc and leading to a wave of migration to Venezuela and to various parts of Europe. Fenosa, the monopolistic supplier of electricity, built hydroelectric dams, flooding many Galician river valleys.
Which form of government did Galicia start using in 1975
5727c607ff5b5019007d94dc
democracy
29
False
Which modern group now works to attain Galicia status as a nation?
5727c607ff5b5019007d94dd
Bloque Nacionalista Galego
479
False
As part of the transition to democracy upon the death of Franco in 1975, Galicia regained its status as an autonomous region within Spain with the Statute of Autonomy of 1981, which begins, "Galicia, historical nationality, is constituted as an Autonomous Community to access to its self-government, in agreement with the Spanish Constitution and with the present Statute (...)". Varying degrees of nationalist or independentist sentiment are evident at the political level. The Bloque Nacionalista Galego or BNG, is a conglomerate of left-wing parties and individuals that claims Galician political status as a nation.
Which former minister under Franco's rule headed the autonomous government  from 1990 to 2005?
5727c829ff5b5019007d9520
Manuel Fraga
19
False
Which political party did he belong to?
5727c829ff5b5019007d9521
Partido Popular
191
False
The sinking of which oil tanker precipitated the downfall of that party's rule?
5727c829ff5b5019007d9522
Prestige
317
False
Power then passed a political coalition headed by who?
5727c829ff5b5019007d9523
Anxo Quintana
1111
False
From 1990 to 2005, Manuel Fraga, former minister and ambassador in the Franco dictature, presided over the Galician autonomous government, the Xunta de Galicia. Fraga was associated with the Partido Popular ('People's Party', Spain's main national conservative party) since its founding. In 2002, when the oil tanker Prestige sank and covered the Galician coast in oil, Fraga was accused by the grassroots movement Nunca Mais ("Never again") of having been unwilling to react. In the 2005 Galician elections, the 'People's Party' lost its absolute majority, though remaining (barely) the largest party in the parliament, with 43% of the total votes. As a result, power passed to a coalition of the Partido dos Socialistas de Galicia (PSdeG) ('Galician Socialists' Party'), a federal sister-party of Spain's main social-democratic party, the Partido Socialista Obrero Español (PSOE, 'Spanish Socialist Workers Party') and the nationalist Bloque Nacionalista Galego (BNG). As the senior partner in the new coalition, the PSdeG nominated its leader, Emilio Perez Touriño, to serve as Galicia's new president, with Anxo Quintana, the leader of BNG, as its vice president.
What is Galicia's surface area in sq/km?
5727c88fff5b5019007d953c
29,574
30
False
What is its northernmost point?
5727c88fff5b5019007d953d
Estaca de Bares
110
False
And its southernmost?
5727c88fff5b5019007d953e
Baixa Limia-Serra do Xurés
231
False
Galicia has a surface area of 29,574 square kilometres (11,419 sq mi). Its northernmost point, at 43°47′N, is Estaca de Bares (also the northernmost point of Spain); its southernmost, at 41°49′N, is on the Portuguese border in the Baixa Limia-Serra do Xurés Natural Park. The easternmost longitude is at 6°42′W on the border between the province of Ourense and the Castilian-Leonese province of Zamora) its westernmost at 9°18′W, reached in two places: the A Nave Cape in Fisterra (also known as Finisterre), and Cape Touriñán, both in the province of A Coruña.
What are estuaries called in Galicia?
5727c9d22ca10214002d963a
rías
195
False
What does Rías Altas mean?
5727c9d22ca10214002d963b
High Rías
246
False
WWhat does Rías Baixas mean?
5727c9d22ca10214002d963c
Low Rías
288
False
Topographically, a remarkable feature of Galicia is the presence of many firth-like inlets along the coast, estuaries that were drowned with rising sea levels after the ice age. These are called rías and are divided into the smaller Rías Altas ("High Rías"), and the larger Rías Baixas ("Low Rías"). The Rías Altas include Ribadeo, Foz, Viveiro, Barqueiro, Ortigueira, Cedeira, Ferrol, Betanzos, A Coruña, Corme e Laxe and Camariñas. The Rías Baixas, found south of Fisterra, include Corcubión, Muros e Noia, Arousa, Pontevedra and Vigo. The Rías Altas can sometimes refer only to those east of Estaca de Bares, with the others being called Rías Medias ("Intermediate Rías").
The Galician coast is estimated to have about how many archipelagos, islets, and freestanding rocks?
5727cb4d4b864d1900163d36
316
238
False
Which island is part of Atlantic Islands of Galicia National Park?
5727cb4d4b864d1900163d37
Cortegada
384
False
All along the Galician coast are various archipelagos near the mouths of the rías. These archipelagos provide protected deepwater harbors and also provide habitat for seagoing birds. A 2007 inventory estimates that the Galician coast has 316 archipelagos, islets, and freestanding rocks. Among the most important of these are the archipelagos of Cíes, Ons, and Sálvora. Together with Cortegada Island, these make up the Atlantic Islands of Galicia National Park. Other significant islands are Islas Malveiras, Islas Sisargas, and, the largest and holding the largest population, Arousa Island.
What is Galicia's main mountain range?
5727cee23acd2414000decf1
Macizo Galaico
172
False
Its southern mountain ranges are on the border with which country?
5727cee23acd2414000decf2
Portugal
885
False
Galicia is quite mountainous, a fact which has contributed to isolate the rural areas, hampering communications, most notably in the inland. The main mountain range is the Macizo Galaico (Serra do Eixe, Serra da Lastra, Serra do Courel), also known as Macizo Galaico-Leonés, located in the eastern parts, bordering with Castile and León. Noteworthy mountain ranges are O Xistral (northern Lugo), the Serra dos Ancares (on the border with León and Asturias), O Courel (on the border with León), O Eixe (the border between Ourense and Zamora), Serra de Queixa (in the center of Ourense province), O Faro (the border between Lugo and Pontevedra), Cova da Serpe (border of Lugo and A Coruña), Montemaior (A Coruña), Montes do Testeiro, Serra do Suído, and Faro de Avión (between Pontevedra and Ourense); and, to the south, A Peneda, O Xurés and O Larouco, all on the border of Ourense and Portugal.
What is Galicia is poetically known as?
5727cf524b864d1900163daa
country of the thousand rivers
36
False
What is its longest river?
5727cf524b864d1900163dab
Minho
147
False
Galicia is poetically known as the "country of the thousand rivers" ("o país dos mil ríos"). The largest and most important of these rivers is the Minho, known as O Pai Miño (Father Minho), 307.5 km (191.1 mi) long and discharging 419 m3 (548 cu yd) per second, with its affluent the Sil, which has created a spectacular canyon. Most of the rivers in the inland are tributaries of this fluvial system, which drains some 17,027 km2 (6,574 sq mi). Other rivers run directly into the Atlantic Ocean as Lérez or the Cantabrian Sea, most of them having short courses. Only the Navia, Ulla, Tambre, and Limia have courses longer than 100 km (62 mi).
Which tree species has become a problem for Galicia?
5727d3a53acd2414000ded6f
eucalyptus tree
94
False
What kind of development on rivers are conservationists concerned about?
5727d3a53acd2414000ded70
Hydroelectric
827
False
Deforestation and forest fires are a problem in many areas, as is the continual spread of the eucalyptus tree, a species imported from Australia, actively promoted by the paper industry since the mid-20th century. Galicia is one of the more forested areas of Spain, but the majority of Galicia's plantations, usually growing eucalyptus or pine, lack any formal management. Massive eucalyptus, especially Eucalyptus globulus plantation, began in the Francisco Franco era, largely on behalf of the paper company Empresa Nacional de Celulosas de España (ENCE) in Pontevedra, which wanted it for its pulp. Wood products figure significantly in Galicia's economy. Apart from tree plantations Galicia is also notable for the extensive surface occupied by meadows used for animal husbandry, especially cattle , an important activity. Hydroelectric development in most rivers has been a serious concern for local conservationists during the last decades.
Which cow species is native to Galicia?
5727d597ff5b5019007d9662
Galician Blond
150
False
Which fowl species is native to the area?
5727d597ff5b5019007d9663
galiña de Mos
204
False
One of the Special Protection Areas for birds is in which area?
5727d597ff5b5019007d9664
Ría de Ribadeo
620
False
The animals most often thought of as being "typical" of Galicia are the livestock raised there. The Galician horse is native to the region, as is the Galician Blond cow and the domestic fowl known as the galiña de Mos. The latter is an endangered species, although it is showing signs of a comeback since 2001. Galicia's woodlands and mountains are home to rabbits, hares, wild boars, and roe deer, all of which are popular with hunters. Several important bird migration routes pass through Galicia, and some of the community's relatively few environmentally protected areas are Special Protection Areas (such as on the Ría de Ribadeo) for these birds. From a domestic point of view, Galicia has been credited for author Manuel Rivas as the "land of one million cows". Galician Blond and Holstein cattle coexist on meadows and farms.
Where is Galicia's warmest coastal station?
5727dbb1ff5b5019007d9704
Pontevedra
396
False
What about inland?
5727dbb1ff5b5019007d9705
Ourense
459
False
Being located on the Atlantic coastline, Galicia has a very mild climate for the latitude and the marine influence affects most of the province to various degrees. In comparison to similar latitudes on the other side of the Atlantic, winters are exceptionally mild, with consistently heavy rainfall. Snow is rare due to temperatures rarely dropping below freezing. The warmest coastal station of Pontevedra has a yearly mean temperature of 14.8 °C (58.6 °F). Ourense located somewhat inland is only slightly warmer with 14.9 °C (58.8 °F). Due to its exposed north-westerly location, the climate is still very cool by Spanish standards. In coastal areas summers are temperered, averaging around 25 °C (77 °F) in Vigo. Temperatures are further cooler in A Coruña, with a subdued 22.8 °C (73.0 °F) normal. Temperatures do however soar in inland areas such as Ourense, where days above 30 °C (86 °F) are very regular.
What is the southern area's climate classified as?
5727dc4b4b864d1900163eac
Mediterranean
231
False
What about the climate of its coastal areas?
5727dc4b4b864d1900163ead
Oceanic
438
False
The lands of Galicia are ascribed to two different areas in the Köppen climate classification: a south area (roughly, the province of Ourense and Pontevedra) with tendencies to have some summer drought, classified as a warm-summer Mediterranean climate (Csb), with mild temperatures and rainfall usual throughout the year; and the western and northern coastal regions, the provinces of Lugo and A Coruña, which are characterized by their Oceanic climate (Cfb), with a more uniform precipitation distribution along the year, and milder summers. However, precipitation in southern coastal areas are often classified as oceanic since the averages remain significantly higher than a typical mediterranean climate.
What is the political capital city?
5727dce34b864d1900163eb0
Santiago de Compostela
15
False
How many rainy days does it typically have?
5727dce34b864d1900163eb1
129
85
False
How many days with frosts?
5727dce34b864d1900163eb2
6
239
False
A colder city like Lugo has how many days with frosts?
5727dce34b864d1900163eb3
40
441
False
Its sunniest city, Pontevedra, gets how may hours of sunlight per year?
5727dce34b864d1900163eb4
2,223
627
False
As an example, Santiago de Compostela, the political capital city, has an average of 129 rainy days and 1,362 millimetres (53.6 in) per year (with just 17 rainy days in the three summer months) and 2,101 sunlight hours per year, with just 6 days with frosts per year. But the colder city of Lugo, to the east, has an average of 1,759 sunlight hours per year, 117 days with precipitations (> 1 mm) totalling 901.54 millimetres (35.5 in), and 40 days with frosts per year. The more mountainous parts of the provinces of Ourense and Lugo receive significant snowfall during the winter months. The sunniest city is Pontevedra with 2,223 sunny hours per year.
How many comarcas does Galicia consist of?
5727ddbe4b864d1900163ed4
53
32
False
How many municipalities?
5727ddbe4b864d1900163ed5
315
45
False
How many parishes?
5727ddbe4b864d1900163ed6
3,778
130
False
How many of its numerous named locations are communities?
5727ddbe4b864d1900163ed7
40,000
553
False
Galicia is further divided into 53 comarcas, 315 municipalities (93 in A Coruña, 67 in Lugo, 92 in Ourense, 62 in Pontevedra) and 3,778 parishes. Municipalities are divided into parishes, which may be further divided into aldeas ("hamlets") or lugares ("places"). This traditional breakdown into such small areas is unusual when compared to the rest of Spain. Roughly half of the named population entities of Spain are in Galicia, which occupies only 5.8 percent of the country's area. It is estimated that Galicia has over a million named places, over 40,000 of them being communities.
Which industry is Galicia's main money maker?
5727de8e3acd2414000dee8d
fishing
90
False
What are the landholdings that the farming industry uses called?
5727de8e3acd2414000dee8e
minifundios
445
False
In comparison to the other regions of Spain, the major economic benefit of Galicia is its fishing Industry. Galicia is a land of economic contrast. While the western coast, with its major population centers and its fishing and manufacturing industries, is prosperous and increasing in population, the rural hinterland — the provinces of Ourense and Lugo — is economically dependent on traditional agriculture, based on small landholdings called minifundios. However, the rise of tourism, sustainable forestry and organic and traditional agriculture are bringing other possibilities to the Galician economy without compromising the preservation of the natural resources and the local culture.
Which two coastal regions are now major tourist destinations?
5727df082ca10214002d9868
Rías Baixas and Santiago de Compostela
123
False
How many tourists visited Galicia in 2007?
5727df082ca10214002d9869
5.7 million
325
False
What percentage of its GDP is tourism responsible for?
5727df082ca10214002d986a
12%
542
False
Galicia was late to catch the tourism boom that has swept Spain in recent decades, but the coastal regions (especially the Rías Baixas and Santiago de Compostela) are now significant tourist destinations and are especially popular with visitors from other regions in Spain, where the majority of tourists come from. In 2007, 5.7 million tourists visited Galicia, an 8% growth over the previous year, and part of a continual pattern of growth in this sector. 85% of tourists who visit Galicia visit Santiago de Compostela. Tourism constitutes 12% of Galician GDP and employs about 12% of the regional workforce.
Which port is Galicia's most important?
5727dfb93acd2414000deead
Vigo
56
False
Which Japanese fishing port is Galicia's second to?
5727dfb93acd2414000deeae
Tokyo
125
False
Aside from the larger ports, roughly how many other organized ports are there?
5727dfb93acd2414000deeaf
120
573
False
The most important Galician fishing port is the Port of Vigo; It is one of the world's leading fishing ports, second only to Tokyo, with an annual catch worth 1,500 million euros. In 2007 the port took in 732,951 metric tons (721,375 long tons; 807,940 short tons) of fish and seafood, and about 4,000,000 metric tons (3,900,000 long tons; 4,400,000 short tons) of other cargoes. Other important ports are Ferrol, A Coruña, and the smaller ports of Marín and Vilagarcía de Arousa, as well as important recreational ports in Pontevedra and Burela. Beyond these, Galicia has 120 other organized ports.
The Autopista AP-53 was originally built by whom?
5727e08f4b864d1900163f1a
Xunta de Galicia
142
False
Name another road they responsible for.
5727e08f4b864d1900163f1b
AG-41
469
False
Within Galicia are the Autopista AP-9 from Ferrol to Vigo and the Autopista AP-53 (also known as AG-53, because it was initially built by the Xunta de Galicia) from Santiago to Ourense. Additional roads under construction include Autovía A-54 from Santiago de Compostela to Lugo, and Autovía A-56 from Lugo to Ourense. The Xunta de Galicia has built roads connecting comarcal capitals, such as the aforementioned AG-53, Autovía AG-55 connecting A Coruña to Carballo or AG-41 connecting Pontevedra to Sanxenxo.
In which year did Galicia's first railway line open?
5727e0f14b864d1900163f1e
1873
63
False
What is the name of its only electrified railway?
5727e0f14b864d1900163f1f
Ponferrada-Monforte de Lemos-Ourense-Vigo
658
False
The first railway line in Galicia was inaugurated 15 September 1873. It ran from O Carril, Vilagarcía de Arousa to Cornes, Conxo, Santiago de Compostela. A second line was inaugurated in 1875, connecting A Coruña and Lugo. In 1883, Galicia was first connected by rail to the rest of Spain, by way of O Barco de Valdeorras. Galicia today has roughly 1,100 kilometres (680 mi) of rail lines. Several 1,668 mm (5 ft 5 21⁄32 in) Iberian gauge lines operated by Adif and Renfe Operadora connect all the important Galician cities. A 1,000 mm (3 ft 3 3⁄8 in) metre gauge line operated by FEVE connects Ferrol to Ribadeo and Oviedo. The only electrified line is the Ponferrada-Monforte de Lemos-Ourense-Vigo line. Several high-speed rail lines are under construction. Among these are the Olmedo-Zamora-Galicia high-speed rail line that opened partly in 2011, and the AVE Atlantic Axis route, which will connect all of the major Galician Atlantic coast cities A Coruña, Santiago de Compostela, Pontevedra and Vigo to Portugal. Another projected AVE line will connect Ourense to Pontevedra and Vigo.
A rapid population growth after occurred after which war?
5727e2c4ff5b5019007d978a
Spanish Civil War
189
False
What are two reasons for which Galicia's rural areas have been largely abandoned?
5727e2c4ff5b5019007d978b
Economic development and mechanization of agriculture
395
False
The rapid increase of population of A Coruña, Vigo and to a lesser degree other major Galician cities, like Ourense, Pontevedra or Santiago de Compostela during the years that followed the Spanish Civil War during the mid-20th century occurred as the rural population declined: many villages and hamlets of the four provinces of Galicia disappeared or nearly disappeared during the same period. Economic development and mechanization of agriculture resulted in the fields being abandoned, and most of the population has moving to find jobs in the main cities. The number of people working in the Tertiary and Quaternary sectors of the economy has increased significantly.
For how long was Spanish the official language of Galicia?
5727e6f53acd2414000def53
more than four centuries
66
False
In modern times, from which year have children attended school in Galician?
5727e6f53acd2414000def54
1983
351
False
What was the name of the law that enacted this?
5727e6f53acd2414000def55
Lei de Normalización Lingüística ("Law of Linguistic Normalization"
276
False
Spanish was nonetheless the only official language in Galicia for more than four centuries. Over the many centuries of Castilian domination, Galician faded from day-to-day use in urban areas. The period since the re-establishment of democracy in Spain—in particular since the Lei de Normalización Lingüística ("Law of Linguistic Normalization", Ley 3/1983, 15 June 1983)—represents the first time since the introduction of mass education that a generation has attended school in Galician (Spanish is also still taught in Galician schools).
Roughly what percentage of the population actually speaks Galician?
5727e75cff5b5019007d97fe
91
189
False
What percentage read it?
5727e75cff5b5019007d97ff
68
213
False
What percentage write it?
5727e75cff5b5019007d9800
57
239
False
Nowadays, Galician is resurgent, though in the cities it remains a "second language" for most. According to a 2001 census, 99.16 percent of the populace of Galicia understand the language, 91.04 percent speak it, 68.65 percent read it and 57.64 percent write it. The first two numbers (understanding and speaking) remain roughly the same as a decade earlier; the latter two (reading and writing) both show enormous gains: a decade earlier, only 49.3 percent of the population could read Galician, and only 34.85 percent could write it. This fact can be easily explained because of the impossibility of teaching Galician during the Francisco Franco era, so older people speak the language but have no written competence. Galician is the highest-percentage spoken language in its region among the regional languages of Spain.
The earliest Galician-Portuguese documents date back to which year?
5727e8484b864d1900163fc8
1228
62
False
During what era did Galician literature emerge?
5727e8484b864d1900163fc9
Middle Ages
295
False
The earliest known document in Galician-Portuguese dates from 1228. The Foro do bo burgo do Castro Caldelas was granted by Alfonso IX of León to the town of Burgo, in Castro Caldelas, after the model of the constitutions of the town of Allariz. A distinct Galician Literature emerged during the Middle Ages: In the 13th century important contributions were made to the romance canon in Galician-Portuguese, the most notable those by the troubadour Martín Codax, the priest Airas Nunes, King Denis of Portugal and King Alfonso X of Castile, Alfonso O Sabio ("Alfonso the Wise"), the same monarch who began the process of establishing the hegemony of Castilian. During this period, Galician-Portuguese was considered the language of love poetry in the Iberian Romance linguistic culture. The names and memories of Codax and other popular cultural figures are well preserved in modern Galicia and, despite the long period of Castilian linguistic domination, these names are again household words.
What is Galicia's most widespread religion?
5727e84aff5b5019007d9816
Christianity
0
False
What percentage of Galicians identify with this religion?
5727e84aff5b5019007d9817
73%
207
False
Christianity is the most widely practised religion in Galicia, as it has been since its introduction in Late Antiquity, although it lived alongside the old Gallaeci religion for a few centuries. Today about 73% of Galicians identify themselves as Christians. The largest form of Christianity practised in the present day is Catholicism, though only 20% of the population described themselves as active members. The Catholic Church in Galicia has had its primatial seat in Santiago de Compostela since the 12th century.
Which church has had a large influence over Galicia since the Middle Ages?
5727e8ddff5b5019007d982e
Catholic Church
36
False
Which five positions are held by church leaders?
5727e8ddff5b5019007d982f
one archbishop and four bishops
359
False
Since the Middle Ages, the Galician Catholic Church has been organized into five ecclesiastical dioceses (Lugo, Ourense, Santiago de Compostela, Mondoñedo-Ferrol and Tui-Vigo). While these may have coincided with contemporary 15th-century civil provinces, they no longer have the same boundaries as the modern civil provincial divisions. The church is led by one archbishop and four bishops. Moreover, of five dioceses, Galicia is divided between 163 districts and 3,792 parishes, a few of which are governed by administrators, the remainder by parish priests.
Which civilization was it that founded some of the first Galician cities?
5727e99aff5b5019007d9840
Romans
661
False
Name two of these cities.
5727e99aff5b5019007d9841
Lugo and Ourense
721
False
Hundreds of ancient standing stone monuments like dolmens, menhirs and megalithics Tumulus were erected during the prehistoric period in Galicia, amongst the best-known are the dolmens of Dombate, Corveira, Axeitos of Pedra da Arca, menhirs like the "Lapa de Gargñáns". From the Iron Age, Galicia has a rich heritage based mainly on a great number of Hill forts, few of them excavated like Baroña, Sta. Tegra, San Cibrao de Lás and Formigueiros among others. With the introduction of Ancient Roman architecture there was a development of basilicas, castra, city walls, cities, villas, Roman temples, Roman roads, and the Roman bridge of Ponte Vella. It was the Romans who founded some of the first cities in Galicia like Lugo and Ourense. Perhaps the best-known examples are the Roman Walls of Lugo and the Tower of Hercules in A Coruña.
Who is Galicia's patron saint?
5727e9ca4b864d1900163fde
Saint James the Greater
31
False
Name another saint associated with Galicia.
5727e9ca4b864d1900163fdf
Saint Senorina
491
False
The patron saint of Galicia is Saint James the Greater, whose body was discovered – according to the Catholic tradition – in 814 near Compostela. After that date, the relics of Saint James became an extraordinary centre of pilgrimage and from the 9th century have been kept in the heart of the church – the modern-day cathedral – dedicated to him. There are many other Galician and associated saints; some of the best-known are: Saint Ansurius, Saint Rudesind, Saint Mariña of Augas Santas, Saint Senorina, Trahamunda and Froilan.
Which metro area is largest in terms of population?
5727e9cf2ca10214002d995c
A Coruña-Ferrol
25
False
What was it's total population back in 1900?
5727e9cf2ca10214002d995d
653,556
303
False
In northern Galicia, the A Coruña-Ferrol metropolitan area has become increasingly dominant in terms of population. The population of the city of A Coruña in 1900 was 43,971. The population of the rest of the province including the City and Naval Station of nearby Ferrol and Santiago de Compostela was 653,556. A Coruña's growth occurred after the Spanish Civil War at the same speed as other major Galician cities, but it was the arrival of democracy in Spain after the death of Francisco Franco when A Coruña left all the other Galician cities behind.
What to Galician's call themselves in their language?
5727e9d04b864d1900163fe2
galegos
56
False
Aside from Spain, where have Galicians emigrated to?
5727e9d04b864d1900163fe3
Latin America
192
False
Galicia's inhabitants are known as Galicians (Galician: galegos, Spanish: gallegos). For well over a century Galicia has grown more slowly than the rest of Spain, due largely to emigration to Latin America and to other parts of Spain. Sometimes Galicia has lost population in absolute terms. In 1857, Galicia had Spain's densest population and constituted 11.5% of the national population. As of 2007, only 6.1% of the Spanish population resides in the autonomous community. This is due to an exodus of Galician people since the 19th century, first to South America and later to Central Europe.
Which Spanish city does the Autovía A-6 lead to?
5727e9d12ca10214002d9960
Madrid
209
False
The Autovía A-8 enters Galicia on which coast?
5727e9d12ca10214002d9961
Cantabrian
428
False
The Galician road network includes autopistas and autovías connecting the major cities, as well as national and secondary roads to the rest of the municipalities. The Autovía A-6 connects A Coruña and Lugo to Madrid, entering Galicia at Pedrafita do Cebreiro. The Autovía A-52 connects O Porriño, Ourense and Benavente, and enters Galicia at A Gudiña. Two more autovías are under construction. Autovía A-8 enters Galicia on the Cantabrian coast, and ends in Baamonde (Lugo province). Autovía A-76 enters Galicia in Valdeorras; it is an upgrade of the existing N-120 to Ourense and Vigo.
USB
What was designed to standardize the connection of computer peripherals?
5727abedff5b5019007d923e
USB
0
False
USB has become what on other devices?
5727abedff5b5019007d923f
commonplace
283
False
What has USB effectively replaced?
5727abedff5b5019007d9240
a variety of earlier interfaces
393
False
USB was designed to standardize the connection of computer peripherals (including keyboards, pointing devices, digital cameras, printers, portable media players, disk drives and network adapters) to personal computers, both to communicate and to supply electric power. It has become commonplace on other devices, such as smartphones, PDAs and video game consoles. USB has effectively replaced a variety of earlier interfaces, such as serial and parallel ports, as well as separate power chargers for portable devices.
What are the different kinds of USB connectors?
5727ad6a3acd2414000de963
Type-A or a Type-B
111
False
Why were the designs for different USB connectors made?
5727ad6a3acd2414000de964
to prevent electrical overloads and damaged equipment
162
False
The Type-A connector is usually what size?
5727ad6a3acd2414000de965
the Type-A connector is usually the full size
578
False
What size is the Type-B connector?
5727ad6a3acd2414000de966
the Type-B side can vary as needed
629
False
Unlike other data cables (e.g., Ethernet, HDMI), each end of a USB cable uses a different kind of connector; a Type-A or a Type-B. This kind of design was chosen to prevent electrical overloads and damaged equipment, as only the Type-A socket provides power. There are cables with Type-A connectors on both ends, but they should be used carefully. Therefore, in general, each of the different "sizes" requires four different connectors; USB cables have the Type-A and Type-B plugs, and the corresponding receptacles are on the computer or electronic device. In common practice, the Type-A connector is usually the full size, and the Type-B side can vary as needed.
What size is the most durable from the point of designed insertion lifetime?
5727aeb02ca10214002d93a8
the "micro" size
21
False
What was designed for less daily connections?
5727aeb02ca10214002d93a9
The standard and mini connectors
105
False
What has reached 5,000-cycle lifetimes?
5727aeb02ca10214002d93aa
Improved mini-B connectors
244
False
What was designed with frequent charging of portable devices in mind?
5727aeb02ca10214002d93ab
Micro connectors
308
False
Counter-intuitively, the "micro" size is the most durable from the point of designed insertion lifetime. The standard and mini connectors were designed for less than daily connections, with a design lifetime of 1,500 insertion-removal cycles. (Improved mini-B connectors have reached 5,000-cycle lifetimes.) Micro connectors were designed with frequent charging of portable devices in mind; not only is design lifetime of the connector improved to 10,000 cycles, but it was also redesigned to place the flexible contacts, which wear out sooner, on the easily replaced cable, while the more durable rigid contacts are located in the micro-USB receptacles. Likewise, the springy part of the retention mechanism (parts that provide required gripping force) were also moved into plugs on the cable side.
USB connections come in what?
5727afbeff5b5019007d9298
five data transfer modes
29
False
What is High Speed only supported by?
5727afbeff5b5019007d9299
specifically designed USB 2.0 High Speed interfaces
201
False
SuperSpeed is only supported by?
5727afbeff5b5019007d929a
USB 3.0 and newer interfaces
414
False
USB connections also come in five data transfer modes, in ascending order: Low Speed (1.0), Full Speed (1.0), High Speed (2.0), SuperSpeed (3.0), and SuperSpeed+ (3.1). High Speed is supported only by specifically designed USB 2.0 High Speed interfaces (that is, USB 2.0 controllers without the High Speed designation do not support it), as well as by USB 3.0 and newer interfaces. SuperSpeed is supported only by USB 3.0 and newer interfaces, and requires a connector and cable with extra pins and wires, usually distinguishable by the blue inserts in connectors.
When did the seven companies begin developing USB's?
5727b0ccff5b5019007d92a8
1994
59
False
How many companies developed USB's?
5727b0ccff5b5019007d92a9
seven
11
False
What was the goal for USB's?
5727b0ccff5b5019007d92aa
to make it fundamentally easier to connect external devices to PCs
131
False
Who was included in a team that worked on the standard at Intel?
5727b0ccff5b5019007d92ab
Ajay Bhatt
467
False
A group of seven companies began the development of USB in 1994: Compaq, DEC, IBM, Intel, Microsoft, NEC, and Nortel. The goal was to make it fundamentally easier to connect external devices to PCs by replacing the multitude of connectors at the back of PCs, addressing the usability issues of existing interfaces, and simplifying software configuration of all devices connected to USB, as well as permitting greater data rates for external devices. A team including Ajay Bhatt worked on the standard at Intel; the first integrated circuits supporting USB were produced by Intel in 1995.
When was the original USB 1.0 Specification introduced?
5727b2612ca10214002d9424
January 1996
60
False
How fast was the slowest data transfer rate of the USB 1.0?
5727b2612ca10214002d9425
1.5 Mbit/s "Low Speed"
105
False
What was the fastest data transfer rate of the USB 1.0?
5727b2612ca10214002d9426
12 Mbit/s "Full Speed"
132
False
1.1 was the first widely used version of what?
5727b2612ca10214002d9427
USB
257
False
When was the first widely used version of USB released?
5727b2612ca10214002d9428
September 1998
292
False
The original USB 1.0 specification, which was introduced in January 1996, defined data transfer rates of 1.5 Mbit/s "Low Speed" and 12 Mbit/s "Full Speed". Microsoft Windows 95, OSR 2.1 provided OEM support for the devices. The first widely used version of USB was 1.1, which was released in September 1998. The 12 Mbit/s data rate was intended for higher-speed devices such as disk drives, and the lower 1.5 Mbit/s rate for low data rate devices such as joysticks. Apple Inc.'s iMac was the first mainstream product with USB and the iMac's success popularized USB itself. Following Apple's design decision to remove all legacy ports from the iMac, many PC manufacturers began building legacy-free PCs, which led to the broader PC market using USB as a standard.
What provides a fourth transfer mode?
5727b3352ca10214002d9442
The new SuperSpeed bus
0
False
How fast is the new SuperSpeed bus data signaling rate?
5727b3352ca10214002d9443
5.0 Gbit/s
85
False
What is full-duplex in SuperSpeed transfer mode?
5727b3352ca10214002d9444
Communication
408
False
The new SuperSpeed bus provides a fourth transfer mode with a data signaling rate of 5.0 Gbit/s, in addition to the modes supported by earlier versions. The payload throughput is 4 Gbit/s[citation needed] (due to the overhead incurred by 8b/10b encoding), and the specification considers it reasonable to achieve around 3.2 Gbit/s (0.4 GB/s or 400 MB/s), which should increase with future hardware advances. Communication is full-duplex in SuperSpeed transfer mode; in the modes supported previously, by 1.x and 2.0, communication is half-duplex, with direction controlled by the host.
What are the power variants in USB 3.0 ports?
5727b47e2ca10214002d9464
low-power and high-power
53
False
What do the power variants provide?
5727b47e2ca10214002d9465
150 mA and 900 mA respectively
98
False
What does the Battery Charging Specification do?
5727b47e2ca10214002d9466
increases the power handling capability to 1.5 A
283
False
What is a downfall of the Battery Charging Specification?
5727b47e2ca10214002d9467
does not allow concurrent data transmission
336
False
As with previous USB versions, USB 3.0 ports come in low-power and high-power variants, providing 150 mA and 900 mA respectively, while simultaneously transmitting data at SuperSpeed rates. Additionally, there is a Battery Charging Specification (Version 1.2 – December 2010), which increases the power handling capability to 1.5 A but does not allow concurrent data transmission. The Battery Charging Specification requires that the physical ports themselves be capable of handling 5 A of current[citation needed] but limits the maximum current drawn to 1.5 A.
When were the plans to update USB 3.0 to 10 Gbit/s revealed?
5727b6a42ca10214002d949c
January 2013
2
False
What actually happened whenever USB 3.0 was updated?
5727b6a42ca10214002d949d
The group ended up creating a new USB version
95
False
When was USB 3.1 released?
5727b6a42ca10214002d949e
31 July 2013
173
False
What does the USB 3.1 standard increase?
5727b6a42ca10214002d949f
the data signaling rate to 10 Gbit/s in the USB 3.1 Gen2 mode
436
False
A January 2013 press release from the USB group revealed plans to update USB 3.0 to 10 Gbit/s. The group ended up creating a new USB version, USB 3.1, which was released on 31 July 2013, introducing a faster transfer mode called SuperSpeed USB 10 Gbit/s, putting it on par with a single first-generation Thunderbolt channel. The new mode's logo features a "Superspeed+" caption (stylized as SUPERSPEED+). The USB 3.1 standard increases the data signaling rate to 10 Gbit/s in the USB 3.1 Gen2 mode, double that of USB 3.0 (referred to as USB 3.1 Gen1) and reduces line encoding overhead to just 3% by changing the encoding scheme to 128b/132b. The first USB 3.1 implementation demonstrated transfer speeds of 7.2 Gbit/s.
When was the Type-C Specification 1.0 finalized?
5727b7a1ff5b5019007d9348
August 2014
137
False
What defined a new reversible-plug connector for USB devices?
5727b7a1ff5b5019007d9349
USB Type-C Specification 1.0
91
False
What does Type-C connect to?
5727b7a1ff5b5019007d934a
both hosts and devices
244
False
What connector provides four power/ground pairs?
5727b7a1ff5b5019007d934b
The 24-pin double-sided connector
412
False
Developed at roughly the same time as the USB 3.1 specification, but distinct from it, the USB Type-C Specification 1.0 was finalized in August 2014 and defines a new small reversible-plug connector for USB devices. The Type-C plug connects to both hosts and devices, replacing various Type-A and Type-B connectors and cables with a standard meant to be future-proof, similar to Apple Lightning and Thunderbolt. The 24-pin double-sided connector provides four power/ground pairs, two differential pairs for USB 2.0 data bus (though only one pair is implemented in a Type-C cable), four pairs for high-speed data bus, two "sideband use" pins, and two configuration pins for cable orientation detection, dedicated biphase mark code (BMC) configuration data channel, and VCONN +5 V power for active cables. Type-A and Type-B adaptors and cables are required for older devices to plug into Type-C hosts. Adapters and cables with a Type-C receptacle are not allowed.[citation needed]
What kind of cables does the fully featured USB Type-C contain?
5727bb19ff5b5019007d9396
active, electronically marked cables
36
False
Electronically marked cables have a chip that contains what?
5727bb19ff5b5019007d9397
an ID function based on the configuration data channel and vendor-defined messages
98
False
What is the shortened version of vendor-defined messages?
5727bb19ff5b5019007d9398
(VDMs)
181
False
Full-featured USB Type-C cables are active, electronically marked cables that contain a chip with an ID function based on the configuration data channel and vendor-defined messages (VDMs) from the USB Power Delivery 2.0 specification. USB Type-C devices also support power currents of 1.5 A and 3.0 A over the 5 V power bus in addition to baseline 900 mA; devices can either negotiate increased USB current through the configuration line, or they can support the full Power Delivery specification using both BMC-coded configuration line and legacy BFSK-coded VBUS line.
The design of USB is asymmetrical in what?
5727bba54b864d1900163bd6
its topology
50
False
How many devices may be connected to a host controller?
5727bba54b864d1900163bd7
127 devices
429
False
How are USB devices linked?
5727bba54b864d1900163bd8
in series through hubs
545
False
What HUB is built into the host controller?
5727bba54b864d1900163bd9
the root hub
611
False
The design of the USB is asymmetrical in its what?
5727bdeeff5b5019007d93f2
topology
54
False
How many devices can be connected to a host controller?
5727bdeeff5b5019007d93f3
Up to 127 devices
423
False
What hub is built into the host controller?
5727bdeeff5b5019007d93f4
the root hub
611
False
A USB host may implement how many host controllers?
5727bdeeff5b5019007d93f5
multiple
337
False
How many USB ports may a host controller provide?
5727bdeeff5b5019007d93f6
one or more USB ports
400
False
The design architecture of USB is asymmetrical in its topology, consisting of a host, a multitude of downstream USB ports, and multiple peripheral devices connected in a tiered-star topology. Additional USB hubs may be included in the tiers, allowing branching into a tree structure with up to five tier levels. A USB host may implement multiple host controllers and each host controller may provide one or more USB ports. Up to 127 devices, including hub devices if present, may be connected to a single host controller. USB devices are linked in series through hubs. One hub—built into the host controller—is the root hub.
What are logical sub-devices referred to as?
5727bf494b864d1900163c60
device functions
89
False
A single device can provide an audio device function such as?
5727bf494b864d1900163c61
built-in microphone
207
False
A single device can provide a video device function such as?
5727bf494b864d1900163c62
a webcam
167
False
A physical USB device may consist of several logical sub-devices that are referred to as device functions. A single device may provide several functions, for example, a webcam (video device function) with a built-in microphone (audio device function). This kind of device is called a composite device. An alternative to this is compound device, in which the host assigns each logical device a distinctive address and all logical devices connect to a built-in hub that connects to the physical USB cable.
What is a pipe?
5727c090ff5b5019007d9466
a connection from the host controller to a logical entity
73
False
A USB connection is based on what?
5727c090ff5b5019007d9467
pipes (logical channels)
37
False
What is a pipe named at?
5727c090ff5b5019007d9468
an endpoint
161
False
Where do pipes correspond?
5727c090ff5b5019007d9469
1-to-1 to endpoints
199
False
How many endpoints can a USB device have?
5727c090ff5b5019007d946a
up to 32 endpoints
290
False
USB device communication is based on pipes (logical channels). A pipe is a connection from the host controller to a logical entity, found on a device, and named an endpoint. Because pipes correspond 1-to-1 to endpoints, the terms are sometimes used interchangeably. A USB device could have up to 32 endpoints (16 IN, 16 OUT), though it's rare to have so many. An endpoint is defined and numbered by the device during initialization (the period after physical connection called "enumeration") and so is relatively permanent, whereas a pipe may be opened and closed.
If the direction of the data transfer is from the device to the host, what does the host send?
5727c2da2ca10214002d95aa
the host sends an IN packet
451
False
What does a bi-directional endpoint accept?
5727c2da2ca10214002d95ab
both IN and OUT packets
859
False
What is sent if the direction of the data transfer is from host to endpoint?
5727c2da2ca10214002d95ac
an OUT packet
255
False
An endpoint of a pipe is addressable with a tuple (device_address, endpoint_number) as specified in a TOKEN packet that the host sends when it wants to start a data transfer session. If the direction of the data transfer is from the host to the endpoint, an OUT packet (a specialization of a TOKEN packet) having the desired device address and endpoint number is sent by the host. If the direction of the data transfer is from the device to the host, the host sends an IN packet instead. If the destination endpoint is a uni-directional endpoint whose manufacturer's designated direction does not match the TOKEN packet (e.g. the manufacturer's designated direction is IN while the TOKEN packet is an OUT packet), the TOKEN packet is ignored. Otherwise, it is accepted and the data transaction can start. A bi-directional endpoint, on the other hand, accepts both IN and OUT packets.
What is started when a USB is first connected to a host?
5727c3aa4b864d1900163cb8
enumeration process
67
False
What does the enumeration process start by doing?
5727c3aa4b864d1900163cb9
sending a reset signal to the USB device
125
False
What id the data rate determined during?
5727c3aa4b864d1900163cba
the reset signaling
220
False
When is the device assigned a unique 7-bit address?
5727c3aa4b864d1900163cbb
After reset
241
False
What happens whenever a USB host is restarted?
5727c3aa4b864d1900163cbc
the enumeration process is repeated for all connected devices.
540
False
When a USB device is first connected to a USB host, the USB device enumeration process is started. The enumeration starts by sending a reset signal to the USB device. The data rate of the USB device is determined during the reset signaling. After reset, the USB device's information is read by the host and the device is assigned a unique 7-bit address. If the device is supported by the host, the device drivers needed for communicating with the device are loaded and the device is set to a configured state. If the USB host is restarted, the enumeration process is repeated for all connected devices.
What do transaction translators do?
5727c707ff5b5019007d94ea
convert between high-speed USB 2.0 buses and full and low speed buses
76
False
When does a USB 2.0 hub operate in high speed mode?
5727c707ff5b5019007d94eb
When a high-speed USB 2.0 hub is plugged into a high-speed USB host or hub
147
False
What kind of devices do High speed USB 2.0's contain?
5727c707ff5b5019007d94ec
transaction translators
47
False
High-speed USB 2.0 hubs contain devices called transaction translators that convert between high-speed USB 2.0 buses and full and low speed buses. When a high-speed USB 2.0 hub is plugged into a high-speed USB host or hub, it operates in high-speed mode. The USB hub then uses either one transaction translator per hub to create a full/low-speed bus routed to all full and low speed devices on the hub, or uses one transaction translator per port to create an isolated full/low-speed bus per port on the hub.
What do USB's implement connections to?
5727c7f5ff5b5019007d9518
storage devices
30
False
What are the standards called that implement connections to storage devices?
5727c7f5ff5b5019007d9519
the USB mass storage device class (MSC or UMS)
78
False
What is the process of making a novel device look like a familiar device?
5727c7f5ff5b5019007d951a
extension
497
False
Why is the ability to boot write-locked SD cards with a USB adapter advantageous for?
5727c7f5ff5b5019007d951b
maintaining the integrity and non-corruptible, pristine state of the booting medium.
603
False
USB implements connections to storage devices using a set of standards called the USB mass storage device class (MSC or UMS). This was at first intended for traditional magnetic and optical drives and has been extended to support flash drives. It has also been extended to support a wide variety of novel devices as many systems can be controlled with the familiar metaphor of file manipulation within directories. The process of making a novel device look like a familiar device is also known as extension. The ability to boot a write-locked SD card with a USB adapter is particularly advantageous for maintaining the integrity and non-corruptible, pristine state of the booting medium.
Since when can most computers boot from USB mass storage devices?
5727c8a0ff5b5019007d9542
since mid-2004
22
False
What is USB not intended for?
5727c8a0ff5b5019007d9543
a primary bus for a computer's internal storage
100
False
What is an important advantage of USB?
5727c8a0ff5b5019007d9544
it is possible to install and remove devices without rebooting the computer
309
False
Buses such as Parallel ATA fulfill what role in PC computers?
5727c8a0ff5b5019007d9545
a computer's internal storage
118
False
Though most computers since mid-2004 can boot from USB mass storage devices, USB is not intended as a primary bus for a computer's internal storage. Buses such as Parallel ATA (PATA or IDE), Serial ATA (SATA), or SCSI fulfill that role in PC class computers. However, USB has one important advantage, in that it is possible to install and remove devices without rebooting the computer (hot-swapping), making it useful for mobile peripherals, including drives of various kinds (given SATA or SCSI devices may or may not support hot-swapping).
Several manufacturers offer what?
5727c9722ca10214002d9632
external portable USB hard disk drives
129
False
What do external portable USB hard drive disks offer?
5727c9722ca10214002d9633
performance comparable to internal drives
218
False
What is the most recent standard for external drive connectivity?
5727c9722ca10214002d9634
Thunderbolt
784
False
What do the external drives typically include?
5727c9722ca10214002d9635
a "translating device"
496
False
Firstly conceived and still used today for optical storage devices (CD-RW drives, DVD drives, etc.), several manufacturers offer external portable USB hard disk drives, or empty enclosures for disk drives. These offer performance comparable to internal drives, limited by the current number and types of attached USB devices, and by the upper limit of the USB interface (in practice about 30 MB/s for USB 2.0 and potentially 400 MB/s or more for USB 3.0). These external drives typically include a "translating device" that bridges between a drive's interface to a USB interface port. Functionally, the drive appears to the user much like an internal drive. Other competing standards for external drive connectivity include eSATA, ExpressCard, FireWire (IEEE 1394), and most recently Thunderbolt.
Media Transfer Protocol was designed by who?
5727caa02ca10214002d965e
Microsoft
46
False
Why was Media Transfer Protocol designed?
5727caa02ca10214002d965f
to give higher-level access to a device's filesystem
56
False
What was MTP originally designed for?
5727caa02ca10214002d9660
use with portable media players
235
False
Why has MTP become the primary storage access protocol of the Android operating system?
5727caa02ca10214002d9661
MTP does not require exclusive access to the storage device the way UMS does
548
False
Media Transfer Protocol (MTP) was designed by Microsoft to give higher-level access to a device's filesystem than USB mass storage, at the level of files rather than disk blocks. It also has optional DRM features. MTP was designed for use with portable media players, but it has since been adopted as the primary storage access protocol of the Android operating system from the version 4.1 Jelly Bean as well as Windows Phone 8 (Windows Phone 7 devices had used the Zune protocol which was an evolution of MTP). The primary reason for this is that MTP does not require exclusive access to the storage device the way UMS does, alleviating potential problems should an Android program request the storage while it is attached to a computer. The main drawback is that MTP is not as well supported outside of Windows operating systems.
What do older computers have to have in order for USB mice and keyboards to be used?
5727d0e74b864d1900163dca
PS/2 connectors with the aid of a small USB-to-PS/2 adapter
74
False
What is the hardware designed to detect in USB mice and keyboards?
5727d0e74b864d1900163dcb
whether it is connected to a USB or PS/2 port
307
False
USB keyboards and mice may communicate using what?
5727d0e74b864d1900163dcc
appropriate protocol
380
False
What connects PS/2 keyboards and mice to a USB port?
5727d0e74b864d1900163dcd
Converters
402
False
What performs bidirectional data translation between two standards?
5727d0e74b864d1900163dce
a microcontroller
560
False
USB mice and keyboards can usually be used with older computers that have PS/2 connectors with the aid of a small USB-to-PS/2 adapter. For mice and keyboards with dual-protocol support, an adaptor that contains no logic circuitry may be used: the hardware in the USB keyboard or mouse is designed to detect whether it is connected to a USB or PS/2 port, and communicate using the appropriate protocol. Converters also exist that connect PS/2 keyboards and mice (usually one of each) to a USB port. These devices present two HID endpoints to the system and use a microcontroller to perform bidirectional data translation between the two standards.
What is difficult to do with a USB plug?
5727d2173acd2414000ded4f
to insert a USB plug into its receptacle incorrectly
27
False
The USB specification states that the required USB icon must be what?
5727d2173acd2414000ded50
embossed on the "topside" of the USB plug
145
False
How is the USB icon located to each receptacle?
5727d2173acd2414000ded51
adjacent
520
False
Receptacles should be oriented to allow the icon on the plug to what?
5727d2173acd2414000ded52
to be visible during the mating process
610
False
By design, it is difficult to insert a USB plug into its receptacle incorrectly. The USB specification states that the required USB icon must be embossed on the "topside" of the USB plug, which "...provides easy user recognition and facilitates alignment during the mating process." The specification also shows that the "recommended" "Manufacturer's logo" ("engraved" on the diagram but not specified in the text) is on the opposite side of the USB icon. The specification further states, "The USB Icon is also located adjacent to each receptacle. Receptacles should be oriented to allow the icon on the plug to be visible during the mating process." However, the specification does not consider the height of the device compared to the eye level height of the user, so the side of the cable that is "visible" when mated to a computer on a desk can depend on whether the user is standing or kneeling.
What do Type-A receptacles do on host devices?
5727d4e63acd2414000ded8f
supply power
142
False
What do Type-b receptacles do on target devices?
5727d4e63acd2414000ded90
draw power
201
False
What do the receptacles prevent user from doing?
5727d4e63acd2414000ded91
from accidentally connecting two USB power supplies to each other
233
False
What networks do USB not support?
5727d4e63acd2414000ded92
cyclic networks
419
False
The standard connectors were deliberately intended to enforce the directed topology of a USB network: Type-A receptacles on host devices that supply power and Type-B receptacles on target devices that draw power. This prevents users from accidentally connecting two USB power supplies to each other, which could lead to short circuits and dangerously high currents, circuit failures, or even fire. USB does not support cyclic networks and the standard connectors from incompatible USB devices are themselves incompatible.
Standard connectors were designed to be what?
5727d5c02ca10214002d97a2
robust
44
False
Why were standard connectors designed to be so robust?
5727d5c02ca10214002d97a3
the connectors would be used more frequently
82
False
What as a drawback of previous connectors?
5727d5c02ca10214002d97a4
Many previous connector designs were fragile
179
False
How are the electrical contents of a USB connector protected?
5727d5c02ca10214002d97a5
by an adjacent plastic tongue
386
False
How is the entire connecting assembly of a USB connector protected?
5727d5c02ca10214002d97a6
by an enclosing metal sheath
473
False
The standard connectors were designed to be robust. Because USB is hot-pluggable, the connectors would be used more frequently, and perhaps with less care, than other connectors. Many previous connector designs were fragile, specifying embedded component pins or other delicate parts that were vulnerable to bending or breaking. The electrical contacts in a USB connector are protected by an adjacent plastic tongue, and the entire connecting assembly is usually protected by an enclosing metal sheath.
Where is the external metallic sheet connected?
5727d9003acd2414000dedfd
typically connected to system ground
230
False
What provides a degree of protection from interference with the USB signal?
5727d9003acd2414000dedfe
This enclosure design
310
False
This type of stage make-break timing allows for what?
5727d9003acd2414000dedff
electrically safe hot-swapping.
749
False
The connector construction always ensures that the external sheath on the plug makes contact with its counterpart in the receptacle before any of the four connectors within make electrical contact. The external metallic sheath is typically connected to system ground, thus dissipating damaging static charges. This enclosure design also provides a degree of protection from electromagnetic interference to the USB signal while it travels through the mated connector pair (the only location when the otherwise twisted data pair travels in parallel). In addition, because of the required sizes of the power and common connections, they are made after the system ground but before the data connections. This type of staged make-break timing allows for electrically safe hot-swapping.
What are the newer micro-USB receptacles designed for?
5727d9dc2ca10214002d980a
a minimum rated lifetime of 10,000 cycles of insertion
49
False
What is the minimum rated lifetime for the standard USB receptacle?
5727d9dc2ca10214002d980b
1,500
161
False
After a leaf-spring was moved from jack to the plug, the most stressed part was found where?
5727d9dc2ca10214002d980c
on the cable side of the connection
386
False
Why was the change made for the USB device?
5727d9dc2ca10214002d980d
so that the connector on the less expensive cable would bear the most wear
444
False
The newer micro-USB receptacles are designed for a minimum rated lifetime of 10,000 cycles of insertion and removal between the receptacle and plug, compared to 1,500 for the standard USB and 5,000 for the mini-USB receptacle. Features intended to accomplish include, a locking device was added and the leaf-spring was moved from the jack to the plug, so that the most-stressed part is on the cable side of the connection. This change was made so that the connector on the less expensive cable would bear the most wear instead of the more expensive micro-USB device. However the idea that these changes did in fact make the connector more durable in real world use has been widely disputed, with many contending that they are in fact, much less durable.
What type of tolerances does the USB standard specify for compliant USB connectors?
5727dad64b864d1900163e9c
loose tolerances
38
False
Why were loose tolerances allowed for compliant USB connectors?
5727dad64b864d1900163e9d
to minimize physical incompatibilities in connectors from different vendors
84
False
How is a weakness addressed in some other connector standards?
5727dad64b864d1900163e9e
the USB specification also defines limits to the size of a connecting device
226
False
Due to size restrictions compliant devices must what?
5727dad64b864d1900163e9f
fit within the size restrictions or support a compliant extension cable that does
555
False
The USB standard specifies relatively loose tolerances for compliant USB connectors to minimize physical incompatibilities in connectors from different vendors. To address a weakness present in some other connector standards, the USB specification also defines limits to the size of a connecting device in the area around its plug. This was done to prevent a device from blocking adjacent ports due to the size of the cable strain relief mechanism (usually molding integral with the cable outer insulation) at the connector. Compliant devices must either fit within the size restrictions or support a compliant extension cable that does.
USB cables and device have only what on their ends?
5727db6f2ca10214002d9826
plugs
33
False
Hosts and devices only have what in terms of connecting to a USB device?
5727db6f2ca10214002d9827
receptacles
88
False
Devices usually have what type of receptacle?
5727db6f2ca10214002d9828
one or another Type-B variety
170
False
Hosts almost always have what type of receptacle?
5727db6f2ca10214002d9829
Type-A receptacles
131
False
In general, USB cables have only plugs on their ends, while hosts and devices have only receptacles. Hosts almost universally have Type-A receptacles, while devices have one or another Type-B variety. Type-A plugs mate only with Type-A receptacles, and the same applies to their Type-B counterparts; they are deliberately physically incompatible. However, an extension to the USB standard specification called USB On-The-Go (OTG) allows a single port to act as either a host or a device, which is selectable by the end of the cable that plugs into the receptacle on the OTG-enabled unit. Even after the cable is hooked up and the units are communicating, the two units may "swap" ends under program control. This capability is meant for units such as PDAs in which the USB link might connect to a PC's host port as a device in one instance, yet connect as a host itself to a keyboard and mouse device in another instance.
What has been used to connect digital cameras. smartphones and other devices to tablet computers?
5727dc2c2ca10214002d9836
Various connectors
0
False
What was standard for transferring data to and from the earlier type of smartphones?
5727dc2c2ca10214002d9837
The mini-B USB connector
317
False
How large are both mini-A and mini-B plugs?
5727dc2c2ca10214002d9838
approximately 3 by 7 mm
454
False
When were the mini-A connector and and the mini-AB receptacle connector depreceated?
5727dc2c2ca10214002d9839
23 May 2007
556
False
Various connectors have been used for smaller devices such as digital cameras, smartphones, and tablet computers. These include the now-deprecated (i.e. de-certified but standardized) mini-A and mini-AB connectors; mini-B connectors are still supported, but are not OTG-compliant (On The Go, used in mobile devices). The mini-B USB connector was standard for transferring data to and from the early smartphones and PDAs. Both mini-A and mini-B plugs are approximately 3 by 7 mm; the mini-A connector and the mini-AB receptacle connector were deprecated on 23 May 2007.
What is the micro connector designed for?
5727e6e13acd2414000def4d
to reduce the mechanical wear on the device
156
False
What is the easier-to-replace cable designed for?
5727e6e13acd2414000def4e
to bear the mechanical wear of connection and disconnection
249
False
What is the micro-plug rated for?
5727e6e13acd2414000def4f
10,000 connect-disconnect cycles
44
False
The micro plug design is rated for at least 10,000 connect-disconnect cycles, which is more than the mini plug design. The micro connector is also designed to reduce the mechanical wear on the device; instead the easier-to-replace cable is designed to bear the mechanical wear of connection and disconnection. The Universal Serial Bus Micro-USB Cables and Connectors Specification details the mechanical characteristics of micro-A plugs, micro-AB receptacles (which accept both micro-A and micro-B plugs), and micro-B plugs and receptacles, along with a standard-A receptacle to micro-A plug adapter.
In 2007 who endorsed micro-USB as the standard connector for data and power on mobile devices?
5727e97bff5b5019007d983a
The cellular phone carrier group Open Mobile Terminal Platform
0
False
When did the ITU announce that it had embraced micro-USB as the Universal Charging Solution?
5727e97bff5b5019007d983b
22 October 2009
176
False
What has energy-efficient one-charger-fits-all new mobile phone solution?
5727e97bff5b5019007d983c
micro-USB
280
False
The cellular phone carrier group Open Mobile Terminal Platform (OMTP) in 2007 endorsed micro-USB as the standard connector for data and power on mobile devices In addition, on 22 October 2009 the International Telecommunication Union (ITU) has also announced that it had embraced micro-USB as the Universal Charging Solution its "energy-efficient one-charger-fits-all new mobile phone solution," and added: "Based on the Micro-USB interface, UCS chargers also include a 4-star or higher efficiency rating—​​up to three times more energy-efficient than an unrated charger."
Who defined a common External Power Supply for use with smartphones sold?
5727eae94b864d1900164014
The European Standardisation Bodies CEN, CENELEC and ETSI
0
False
How many mobile phone manufacturers signed the EU's common EPS (MoU)?
5727eae94b864d1900164015
14
203
False
Who was one of the original MoU signers?
5727eae94b864d1900164016
Apple
318
False
The European Standardisation Bodies CEN, CENELEC and ETSI (independent of the OMTP/GSMA proposal) defined a common External Power Supply (EPS) for use with smartphones sold in the EU based on micro-USB. 14 of the world's largest mobile phone manufacturers signed the EU's common EPS Memorandum of Understanding (MoU). Apple, one of the original MoU signers, makes micro-USB adapters available – as permitted in the Common EPS MoU – for its iPhones equipped with Apple's proprietary 30-pin dock connector or (later) Lightning connector.
What are all USB On-The-Go devices required to have?
5727ee4e2ca10214002d99f6
one, and only one, USB connector
61
False
Non-OTG compliant devices are not allowed to use what?
5727ee4e2ca10214002d99f7
the micro-AB receptacle
167
False
Why are the Non-OTG compliant devices not allowed to use the micro-AB receptacle?
5727ee4e2ca10214002d99f8
power supply shorting hazards on the VBUS line
199
False
All current USB On-The-Go (OTG) devices are required to have one, and only one, USB connector: a micro-AB receptacle. Non-OTG compliant devices are not allowed to use the micro-AB receptacle, due to power supply shorting hazards on the VBUS line. The micro-AB receptacle is capable of accepting both micro-A and micro-B plugs, attached to any of the legal cables and adapters as defined in revision 1.01 of the micro-USB specification. Prior to the development of micro-USB, USB On-The-Go devices were required to use mini-AB receptacles to perform the equivalent job.
The OTG device with the B-plug inserted is called what?
5727f05aff5b5019007d98ec
B-device
222
False
What does an OTG device default to with no plug inserted?
5727f05aff5b5019007d98ed
to acting as a B-device
323
False
What is the A-device responsible for?
5727f05aff5b5019007d98ee
powering the USB interface when required
86
False
The OTG device with the A-plug inserted is called the A-device and is responsible for powering the USB interface when required and by default assumes the role of host. The OTG device with the B-plug inserted is called the B-device and by default assumes the role of peripheral. An OTG device with no plug inserted defaults to acting as a B-device. If an application on the B-device requires the role of host, then the Host Negotiation Protocol (HNP) is used to temporarily transfer the host role to the B-device.
What is USB?
5727f1f23acd2414000df077
a serial bus
7
False
What kind of wires does the USB 2.0 variant use?
5727f1f23acd2414000df078
four shielded wires
27
False
What are the four shielded wires in the USB 2.0 variant used for?
5727f1f23acd2414000df079
two for power (VBUS and GND), and two for differential data signals
72
False
USB is a serial bus, using four shielded wires for the USB 2.0 variant: two for power (VBUS and GND), and two for differential data signals (labelled as D+ and D− in pinouts). Non-Return-to-Zero Inverted (NRZI) encoding scheme is used for transferring data, with a sync field to synchronize the host and receiver clocks. D+ and D− signals are transmitted on a twisted pair, providing half-duplex data transfers for USB 2.0. Mini and micro connectors have their GND connections moved from pin #4 to pin #5, while their pin #4 serves as an ID pin for the On-The-Go host/client identification.
How long is the maximum cable length the USB 2.0 provides?
5727f2a54b864d190016407c
5 meters for devices running at Hi Speed
47
False
What is the maximum acceptable delay per cable?
5727f2a54b864d190016407d
26 ns
480
False
What does theUSB 2.0 specification require?
5727f2a54b864d190016407e
cable delay be less than 5.2 ns per meter
527
False
USB 2.0 provides for a maximum cable length of 5 meters for devices running at Hi Speed (480 Mbit/s). The primary reason for this limit is the maximum allowed round-trip delay of about 1.5 μs. If USB host commands are unanswered by the USB device within the allowed time, the host considers the command lost. When adding USB device response time, delays from the maximum number of hubs added to the delays from connecting cables, the maximum acceptable delay per cable amounts to 26 ns. The USB 2.0 specification requires that cable delay be less than 5.2 ns per meter (192 000 km/s, which is close to the maximum achievable transmission speed for standard copper wire).
What is a unit load defined as?
5727f4544b864d1900164098
100 mA in USB 1.x and 2.0
26
False
How much is a unit load in USB 3.0?
5727f4544b864d1900164099
150 mA
57
False
What is the maximum amount of load a USB 1. and 2.0 device may draw?
5727f4544b864d190016409a
five unit loads
107
False
What is the maximum amount of load a USB 3.0 device may draw?
5727f4544b864d190016409b
six unit loads
167
False
A unit load is defined as 100 mA in USB 1.x and 2.0, and 150 mA in USB 3.0. A device may draw a maximum of five unit loads from a port in USB 1.x and 2.0 (500 mA), or six unit loads in USB 3.0 (900 mA). There are two types of devices: low-power and high-power. A low-power device (such as a USB HID) draws at most one-unit load, with minimum operating voltage of 4.4 V in USB 2.0, and 4 V in USB 3.0. A high-power device draws, at most, the maximum number of unit loads the standard permits. Every device functions initially as low-power (including high-power functions during their low-power enumeration phases), but may request high-power, and get it if available on the providing bus.
What is an example of a device that requires more than 500 mA of current?
5727f5cdff5b5019007d9948
high-speed external disk drives
22
False
What is an issue that may occur if a high-speed external disk drive is powered from just one USB 2.0 port.
5727f5cdff5b5019007d9949
may have power issues
105
False
What does USB compliance specification prohibit?
5727f5cdff5b5019007d994a
"use of a 'Y' cable (a cable with two A-plugs)
543
False
Some devices, such as high-speed external disk drives, require more than 500 mA of current and therefore may have power issues if powered from just one USB 2.0 port: erratic function, failure to function, or overloading/damaging the port. Such devices may come with an external power source or a Y-shaped cable that has two USB connectors (one for power and data, the other for power only) to plug into a computer. With such a cable, a device can draw power from two USB ports simultaneously. However, USB compliance specification states that "use of a 'Y' cable (a cable with two A-plugs) is prohibited on any USB peripheral", meaning that "if a USB peripheral requires more power than allowed by the USB specification to which it is designed, then it must be self-powered."
What defines a new type of USB port, called the charging port?
5727f8424b864d19001640e0
The USB Battery Charging Specification Revision 1.1
0
False
When was the USB Battery Charging Specification Revision 1.1 released?
5727f8424b864d19001640e1
in 2007
62
False
What was the USB Battery Charging Specification Revision 1.1 called?
5727f8424b864d19001640e2
the charging port
110
False
What does a charging port supply?
5727f8424b864d19001640e3
up to 500 mA at 5 V
415
False
The USB Battery Charging Specification Revision 1.1 (released in 2007) defines a new type of USB port, called the charging port. Contrary to the standard downstream port, for which current draw by a connected portable device can exceed 100 mA only after digital negotiation with the host or hub, a charging port can supply currents between 500 mA and 1.5 A without the digital negotiation. A charging port supplies up to 500 mA at 5 V, up to the rated current at 3.6 V or more, and drops its output voltage if the portable device attempts to draw more than the rated current. The charger port may shut down if the load is too high.
How many types of charging ports exist?
5727f96d3acd2414000df129
Two types
0
False
What can a portable device recognize?
5727f96d3acd2414000df12a
the type of USB port
198
False
What are the D+ and D- shortened with?
5727f96d3acd2414000df12b
a resistance not exceeding 200 ohms
286
False
Two types of charging port exist: the charging downstream port (CDP), supporting data transfers as well, and the dedicated charging port (DCP), without data support. A portable device can recognize the type of USB port; on a dedicated charging port, the D+ and D− pins are shorted with a resistance not exceeding 200 ohms, while charging downstream ports provide additional detection logic so their presence can be determined by attached devices. (see ref pg. 2, Section 1.4.5, & Table 5-3 "Resistances"—pg. 29).
What does the USB Battery Charging Specification Revision 1.2 make clear of?
5727fa2a2ca10214002d9a96
there are safety limits to the rated current at 5 A coming from USB 2.0
88
False
What does revision 1.2 remove?
5727fa2a2ca10214002d9a97
USB ports type detection via resistive detection mechanisms
459
False
When was USB Battery Charging Specification Revision 1.2 released?
5727fa2a2ca10214002d9a98
in 2010
62
False
The USB Battery Charging Specification Revision 1.2 (released in 2010) makes clear that there are safety limits to the rated current at 5 A coming from USB 2.0. On the other hand, several changes are made and limits are increasing including allowing 1.5 A on charging downstream ports for unconfigured devices, allowing high speed communication while having a current up to 1.5 A, and allowing a maximum current of 5 A. Also, revision 1.2 removes support for USB ports type detection via resistive detection mechanisms.
When did the USB Promoters Group announce the finalization of the USB Power Delivery specification?
5727fb1b3acd2414000df165
In July 2012
0
False
What can devices request?
5727fb1b3acd2414000df166
higher currents and supply voltages from compliant hosts
328
False
In all cases, both host-to-device and device-to-host configurations are what?
5727fb1b3acd2414000df167
supported
605
False
In July 2012, the USB Promoters Group announced the finalization of the USB Power Delivery ("PD") specification, an extension that specifies using certified "PD aware" USB cables with standard USB Type-A and Type-B connectors to deliver increased power (more than 7.5 W) to devices with larger power demand. Devices can request higher currents and supply voltages from compliant hosts –  up to 2 A at 5 V (for a power consumption of up to 10 W), and optionally up to 3 A or 5 A at either 12 V (36 W or 60 W) or 20 V (60 W or 100 W). In all cases, both host-to-device and device-to-host configurations are supported.
The USB Power Delivery revision 2.0 specification has been released as part of what?
5727fbbe4b864d1900164152
USB 3.1
83
False
What does the USB Power Delivery revision 2.0 specification cover?
5727fbbe4b864d1900164153
Type-C cable and connector with four power/ground pairs and a separate configuration channel
112
False
Power delivery protocols have been updated to facilitate what?
5727fbbe4b864d1900164154
Type-C features
381
False
The USB Power Delivery revision 2.0 specification has been released as part of the USB 3.1 suite. It covers the Type-C cable and connector with four power/ground pairs and a separate configuration channel, which now hosts a DC coupled low-frequency BMC-coded data channel that reduces the possibilities for RF interference. Power Delivery protocols have been updated to facilitate Type-C features such as cable ID function, Alternate Mode negotiation, increased VBUS currents, and VCONN-powered accessories.
What can sleep-and-charge USB ports be used to do?
5727fc32ff5b5019007d9a12
charge electronic devices even when the computer is switched off
42
False
What is normally powered off whenever the computer is off?
5727fc32ff5b5019007d9a13
USB ports
153
False
What remain powered even whenever the computer is powered off?
5727fc32ff5b5019007d9a14
Sleep-and-charge USB ports
232
False
Sleep-and-charge USB ports can be used to charge electronic devices even when the computer is switched off. Normally, when a computer is powered off the USB ports are powered down, preventing phones and other devices from charging. Sleep-and-charge USB ports remain powered even when the computer is off. On laptops, charging devices from the USB port when it is not being powered from AC drains the laptop battery faster; most laptops have a facility to stop charging if their own battery charge level gets too low.
On what laptops are the USB ports marked with a USB symbol with an added lightening bolt icon?
5727fcccff5b5019007d9a34
On Dell and Toshiba laptops
0
False
What does dell call the feature that lets USB drives to remain powered when the computer is off?
5727fcccff5b5019007d9a35
PowerShare
154
False
On what laptops are the sleep-and-charge marked with a non-standard symbol?
5727fcccff5b5019007d9a36
On Acer Inc. and Packard Bell laptops
211
False
On Dell and Toshiba laptops, the port is marked with the standard USB symbol with an added lightning bolt icon on the right side. Dell calls this feature PowerShare, while Toshiba calls it USB Sleep-and-Charge. On Acer Inc. and Packard Bell laptops, sleep-and-charge USB ports are marked with a non-standard symbol (the letters USB over a drawing of a battery); the feature is simply called Power-off USB. On some laptops such as Dell and Apple MacBook models, it is possible to plug a device in, close the laptop (putting it into sleep mode) and have the device continue to charge.[citation needed]
When did the GSM Association follow suit?
5727fe1c4b864d190016419a
17 February 2009
44
False
When was this further endorsed by the CTIA?
5727fe1c4b864d190016419b
22 April 2009
69
False
UCS chargers will also include what?
5727fe1c4b864d190016419c
a 4-star or higher efficiency rating
442
False
The GSM Association (GSMA) followed suit on 17 February 2009, and on 22 April 2009, this was further endorsed by the CTIA – The Wireless Association, with the International Telecommunication Union (ITU) announcing on 22 October 2009 that it had also embraced the Universal Charging Solution as its "energy-efficient one-charger-fits-all new mobile phone solution," and added: "Based on the Micro-USB interface, UCS chargers will also include a 4-star or higher efficiency rating—up to three times more energy-efficient than an unrated charger."
When did many of the largest mobile phone manufacturers sign an EC-sponsored MoU?
5727fecbff5b5019007d9a78
June 2009
3
False
What did the MoU make the manufacturers agree to do?
5727fecbff5b5019007d9a79
to make most data-enabled mobile phones marketed in the European Union compatible with a common External Power Supply
136
False
When did the IEC release its version of the common EPS standard as IEC 62684:2011?
5727fecbff5b5019007d9a7a
January 2011
423
False
In June 2009, many of the world's largest mobile phone manufacturers signed an EC-sponsored Memorandum of Understanding (MoU), agreeing to make most data-enabled mobile phones marketed in the European Union compatible with a common External Power Supply (EPS). The EU's common EPS specification (EN 62684:2010) references the USB Battery Charging standard and is similar to the GSMA/OMTP and Chinese charging solutions. In January 2011, the International Electrotechnical Commission (IEC) released its version of the (EU's) common EPS standard as IEC 62684:2011.
Some USB devices require what?
5727ff9cff5b5019007d9a84
more power than is permitted by the specifications for a single port.
25
False
Some devices such as an external hard and optical disk drive can use what?
5727ff9cff5b5019007d9a85
an external power supply
222
False
What is another alternative for power for an external hard and optical disk drive?
5727ff9cff5b5019007d9a86
a dual-input USB cable
289
False
What is the purpose of a dual-input USB cable?
5727ff9cff5b5019007d9a87
one input of which is used for power and data transfer, the other solely for power
313
False
Some USB devices require more power than is permitted by the specifications for a single port. This is common for external hard and optical disc drives, and generally for devices with motors or lamps. Such devices can use an external power supply, which is allowed by the standard, or use a dual-input USB cable, one input of which is used for power and data transfer, the other solely for power, which makes the device a non-standard USB device. Some USB ports and external hubs can, in practice, supply more power to USB devices than required by the specification but a standard-compliant device may not depend on this.
What does the USB specification limit?
572800942ca10214002d9b14
the inrush current
97
False
When is the inrush current affected by the USB specification?
572800942ca10214002d9b15
when the device is first connected
177
False
What are USB devices required to enter?
572800942ca10214002d9b16
ultra low-power suspend mode when the USB host is suspended
350
False
Many USB host interfaces do not what?
572800942ca10214002d9b17
cut off the power supply to USB devices when they are suspended
457
False
In addition to limiting the total average power used by the device, the USB specification limits the inrush current (i.e., that used to charge decoupling and filter capacitors) when the device is first connected. Otherwise, connecting a device could cause problems with the host's internal power. USB devices are also required to automatically enter ultra low-power suspend mode when the USB host is suspended. Nevertheless, many USB host interfaces do not cut off the power supply to USB devices when they are suspended.
What do some non-standard USB devices use?
572801402ca10214002d9b30
the 5 V power supply without participating in a proper USB network
34
False
What Negotiates power draw with the host interface?
572801402ca10214002d9b31
the 5 V power supply
34
False
What does the USB specification require prior to the Battery Charging Specification?
572801402ca10214002d9b32
that devices connect in a low-power mode (100 mA maximum) and communicate their current requirements to the host
651
False
Some non-standard USB devices use the 5 V power supply without participating in a proper USB network, which negotiates power draw with the host interface. These are usually called USB decorations.[citation needed] Examples include USB-powered keyboard lights, fans, mug coolers and heaters, battery chargers, miniature vacuum cleaners, and even miniature lava lamps. In most cases, these items contain no digital circuitry, and thus are not standard compliant USB devices. This may cause problems with some computers, such as drawing too much current and damaging circuitry. Prior to the Battery Charging Specification, the USB specification required that devices connect in a low-power mode (100 mA maximum) and communicate their current requirements to the host, which then permits the device to switch into high-power mode.
How is the USB data transmitted?
572801e6ff5b5019007d9ad6
by toggling the data lines between the J state and the opposite K state
24
False
What does USB use to encode data?
572801e6ff5b5019007d9ad7
the NRZI line coding
120
False
To ensure a minimum density of signal transitions  remains in the bitsream, what does USB use?
572801e6ff5b5019007d9ad8
bit stuffing
366
False
USB data is transmitted by toggling the data lines between the J state and the opposite K state. USB encodes data using the NRZI line coding; a 0 bit is transmitted by toggling the data lines from J to K or vice versa, while a 1 bit is transmitted by leaving the data lines as-is. To ensure a minimum density of signal transitions remains in the bitstream, USB uses bit stuffing; an extra 0 bit is inserted into the data stream after any appearance of six consecutive 1 bits. Seven consecutive received 1 bits is always an error. USB 3.0 has introduced additional data transmission encodings.
What is a USB packet's end called?
572802ac2ca10214002d9b64
EOP (end-of-packet)
27
False
What can skew due to hubs add?
572802ac2ca10214002d9b65
as much as one bit time before the SE0 of the end of packet
329
False
What can this extra bit result in?
572802ac2ca10214002d9b66
"bit stuff violation
426
False
A USB packet's end, called EOP (end-of-packet), is indicated by the transmitter driving 2 bit times of SE0 (D+ and D− both below max.) and 1 bit time of J state. After this, the transmitter ceases to drive the D+/D− lines and the aforementioned pull up resistors hold it in the J (idle) state. Sometimes skew due to hubs can add as much as one bit time before the SE0 of the end of packet. This extra bit can also result in a "bit stuff violation" if the six bits before it in the CRC are 1s. This bit should be ignored by receiver.
What type of protocol is used for USB 2.0 devices during a reset?
5728037eff5b5019007d9aee
a special protocol
20
False
What is the special protocol during a USB 2.0 device reset called?
5728037eff5b5019007d9aef
chirping
60
False
A device that is HS capable first connects as a what?
5728037eff5b5019007d9af0
an FS device (D+ pulled high)
172
False
USB 2.0 devices use a special protocol during reset, called chirping, to negotiate the high bandwidth mode with the host/hub. A device that is HS capable first connects as an FS device (D+ pulled high), but upon receiving a USB RESET (both D+ and D− driven LOW by host for 10 to 20 ms) it pulls the D− line high, known as chirp K. This indicates to the host that the device is high bandwidth. If the host/hub is also HS capable, it chirps (returns alternating J and K states on D− and D+ lines) letting the device know that the hub operates at high bandwidth. The device has to receive at least three sets of KJ chirps before it changes to high bandwidth terminations and begins high bandwidth signaling. Because USB 3.0 uses wiring separate and additional to that used by USB 2.0 and USB 1.x, such bandwidth negotiation is not required.
Write operations to typical Hi-Speed hard drives can what?
572804212ca10214002d9b8e
sustain rates of 25–30 MB/s,
111
False
For USB 3.0, typical write speed is what?
572804212ca10214002d9b8f
70–90 MB/s
267
False
What is the read speed for USB 3.0?
572804212ca10214002d9b90
90–110 MB/s
299
False
According to routine testing performed by CNet, write operations to typical Hi-Speed (USB 2.0) hard drives can sustain rates of 25–30 MB/s, while read operations are at 30–42 MB/s; this is 70% of the total available bus bandwidth. For USB 3.0, typical write speed is 70–90 MB/s, while read speed is 90–110 MB/s. Mask Tests, also known as Eye Diagram Tests, are used to determine the quality of a signal in the time domain. They are defined in the referenced document as part of the electrical test description for the high-speed (HS) mode at 480 Mbit/s.
After the sync field, all packets are made of how many bit bytes?
5728046cff5b5019007d9b04
8-bit bytes
46
False
How are the bit bytes transmitted?
5728046cff5b5019007d9b05
least-significant bit first
71
False
The first byte is what?
5728046cff5b5019007d9b06
a packet identifier (PID) byte
118
False
After the sync field, all packets are made of 8-bit bytes, transmitted least-significant bit first. The first byte is a packet identifier (PID) byte. The PID is actually 4 bits; the byte consists of the 4-bit PID followed by its bitwise complement. This redundancy helps detect errors. (Note also that a PID byte contains at most four consecutive 1 bits, and thus never needs bit-stuffing, even when combined with the final 1 bit in the sync byte. However, trailing 1 bits in the PID may require bit-stuffing within the first few bits of the payload.)
Handshake packets consist of only a single what?
572804e7ff5b5019007d9b0a
PID byte
43
False
When are handshake packets generally sent?
572804e7ff5b5019007d9b0b
in response to data packets
76
False
What is provided by transmitting four bits that represent the packet type twice, in a single PID byte using complemented form?
572804e7ff5b5019007d9b0c
Error detection
105
False
Handshake packets consist of only a single PID byte, and are generally sent in response to data packets. Error detection is provided by transmitting four bits that represent the packet type twice, in a single PID byte using complemented form. Three basic types are ACK, indicating that data was successfully received, NAK, indicating that the data cannot be received and should be retried, and STALL, indicating that the device has an error condition and cannot transfer data until some corrective action (such as device initialization) occurs.
IN and OUT tokens contain what?
5728052d4b864d190016424a
a seven-bit device number and four-bit function number
26
False
An IN token expects what?
5728052d4b864d190016424b
a response from a device
233
False
An OUT token is followed immediately by a what?
5728052d4b864d190016424c
DATAx frame
433
False
IN and OUT tokens contain a seven-bit device number and four-bit function number (for multifunction devices) and command the device to transmit DATAx packets, or receive the following DATAx packets, respectively. An IN token expects a response from a device. The response may be a NAK or STALL response, or a DATAx frame. In the latter case, the host issues an ACK handshake if appropriate. An OUT token is followed immediately by a DATAx frame. The device responds with ACK, NAK, NYET, or STALL, as appropriate.
a larger three-byte SPLIT token with a seven-bit hub number, 12 bits of control flags, and a five-bit CRC were created to do what?
572805c04b864d1900164258
to perform split transactions
139
False
Rather than tie up the high-bandwidth USB bus sending data to a slower USB device, what happens?
572805c04b864d1900164259
the nearest high-bandwidth capable hub receives a SPLIT token followed by one or two USB packets at high bandwidth
253
False
How many bits of control flags did USB 2.0 add?
572805c04b864d190016425a
12 bits
80
False
USB 2.0 also added a larger three-byte SPLIT token with a seven-bit hub number, 12 bits of control flags, and a five-bit CRC. This is used to perform split transactions. Rather than tie up the high-bandwidth USB bus sending data to a slower USB device, the nearest high-bandwidth capable hub receives a SPLIT token followed by one or two USB packets at high bandwidth, performs the data transfer at full or low bandwidth, and provides the response at high bandwidth when prompted by a second SPLIT token.
There are two basic forms of data packet, what are they?
572806052ca10214002d9bd2
DATA0 and DATA1
42
False
A data packet must always be preceded by what?
572806052ca10214002d9bd3
an address token
100
False
What is a data packet usually followed by?
572806052ca10214002d9bd4
a handshake token from the receiver back to the transmitter
145
False
There are two basic forms of data packet, DATA0 and DATA1. A data packet must always be preceded by an address token, and is usually followed by a handshake token from the receiver back to the transmitter. The two packet types provide the 1-bit sequence number required by Stop-and-wait ARQ. If a USB host does not receive a response (such as an ACK) for data it has transmitted, it does not know if the data was received or not; the data might have been lost in transit, or it might have been received but the handshake response was lost.
Low-bandwidth devices are supported with what?
572806764b864d190016426e
a special PID value, PRE
41
False
All PID bytes include how many 0 bits?
572806764b864d190016426f
four 0 bits
242
False
Full-bandwidth devices other than hubs can what?
572806764b864d1900164270
simply ignore the PRE packet and its low-bandwidth contents
635
False
Low-bandwidth devices are supported with a special PID value, PRE. This marks the beginning of a low-bandwidth packet, and is used by hubs that normally do not send full-bandwidth packets to low-bandwidth devices. Since all PID bytes include four 0 bits, they leave the bus in the full-bandwidth K state, which is the same as the low-bandwidth J state. It is followed by a brief pause, during which hubs enable their low-bandwidth outputs, already idling in the J state. Then a low-bandwidth packet follows, beginning with a sync sequence and PID byte, and ending with a brief period of SE0. Full-bandwidth devices other than hubs can simply ignore the PRE packet and its low-bandwidth contents, until the final SE0 indicates that a new packet follows.
These and other differences reflect the differing design goals of what?
572806d64b864d1900164274
two buses
70
False
USB was designed for what?
572806d64b864d1900164275
simplicity and low cost
102
False
FireWire was designed for what?
572806d64b864d1900164276
high performance, particularly in time-sensitive applications such as audio and video
159
False
FireWire 400 is faster than what?
572806d64b864d1900164277
USB 2.0 Hi-Bandwidth in real-use
329
False
These and other differences reflect the differing design goals of the two buses: USB was designed for simplicity and low cost, while FireWire was designed for high performance, particularly in time-sensitive applications such as audio and video. Although similar in theoretical maximum transfer rate, FireWire 400 is faster than USB 2.0 Hi-Bandwidth in real-use, especially in high-bandwidth use such as external hard-drives. The newer FireWire 800 standard is twice as fast as FireWire 400 and faster than USB 2.0 Hi-Bandwidth both theoretically and practically. However, Firewire's speed advantages rely on low-level techniques such as direct memory access (DMA), which in turn have created opportunities for security exploits such as the DMA attack.
The IEEE 802.3af Power over Ethernet (PoE) standard specifies a what?
5728073c3acd2414000df297
more elaborate power negotiation scheme than powered USB
64
False
Is USB cheaper or more expensive than PoE?
5728073c3acd2414000df298
cheaper
463
False
What keeps USB cheaper than PoE?
5728073c3acd2414000df299
the distance is short, and power demand is low.
494
False
The IEEE 802.3af Power over Ethernet (PoE) standard specifies a more elaborate power negotiation scheme than powered USB. It operates at 48 V DC and can supply more power (up to 12.95 W, PoE+ 25.5 W) over a cable up to 100 meters compared to USB 2.0, which provides 2.5 W with a maximum cable length of 5 meters. This has made PoE popular for VoIP telephones, security cameras, wireless access points and other networked devices within buildings. However, USB is cheaper than PoE provided that the distance is short, and power demand is low.
USB  was designed for peripherals to be what?
572807b82ca10214002d9c02
closely associated with a host computer
231
False
USB connects what?
572807b82ca10214002d9c03
the peripheral and host grounds
296
False
Ethernet standards require what?
572807b82ca10214002d9c04
isolation between the networked device (computer, phone, etc.) and the network cable up to 1500 V AC or 2250 V DC for 60 seconds
38
False
Ethernet standards require electrical isolation between the networked device (computer, phone, etc.) and the network cable up to 1500 V AC or 2250 V DC for 60 seconds. USB has no such requirement as it was designed for peripherals closely associated with a host computer, and in fact it connects the peripheral and host grounds. This gives Ethernet a significant safety advantage over USB with peripherals such as cable and DSL modems connected to external wiring that can assume hazardous voltages under certain fault conditions.
eSATA does not supply power to what?
572808053acd2414000df2bb
external devices
31
False
Even though USB 3.0's 4.5 W is sometimes insufficient to power external hard drives, technology is what?
572808053acd2414000df2bc
advancing and external drives gradually need less power
200
False
On a notebook eSATAp usually supplies how much power?
572808053acd2414000df2bd
5 V to power a 2.5-inch HDD/SSD
493
False
eSATA does not supply power to external devices. This is an increasing disadvantage compared to USB. Even though USB 3.0's 4.5 W is sometimes insufficient to power external hard drives, technology is advancing and external drives gradually need less power, diminishing the eSATA advantage. eSATAp (power over eSATA; aka ESATA/USB) is a connector introduced in 2009 that supplies power to attached devices using a new, backward compatible, connector. On a notebook eSATAp usually supplies only 5 V to power a 2.5-inch HDD/SSD; on a desktop workstation it can additionally supply 12 V to power larger devices including 3.5-inch HDD/SSD and 5.25-inch optical drives.
USB 2.0 High-Speed Inter-Chip (HSIC) is a what?
5728089f2ca10214002d9c12
chip-to-chip variant of USB 2.0
42
False
What does USB 2.0 High-Speed Inter-Chip eliminate?
5728089f2ca10214002d9c13
the conventional analog transceivers found in normal USB
90
False
When was the USB 2.0 High-Speed Inter-Chip adopted as the standard by the USB Implementers Forum
5728089f2ca10214002d9c14
2007
210
False
USB 2.0 High-Speed Inter-Chip (HSIC) is a chip-to-chip variant of USB 2.0 that eliminates the conventional analog transceivers found in normal USB. It was adopted as a standard by the USB Implementers Forum in 2007. The HSIC physical layer uses about 50% less power and 75% less board area compared to traditional USB 2.0. HSIC uses two signals at 1.2 V and has a throughput of 480 Mbit/s. Maximum PCB trace length for HSIC is 10 cm. It does not have low enough latency to support RAM memory sharing between two chips.
Sichuan
What was Sichuan referred to as by ancient Chinese sources?
5727ad322ca10214002d936c
Ba-Shu
334
False
How far back can civilizations in the Yangtze region be dated?
5727ad322ca10214002d936d
at least the 15th century BC
167
False
Where were the kingdoms of Ba and Shu located?
5727ad322ca10214002d936e
within the Sichuan Basin
407
False
What land was included in the kingdom of Ba?
5727ad322ca10214002d936f
Chongqing and the land in eastern Sichuan along the Yangtze and some tributary streams
445
False
What land was included in the kingdom of Shu?
5727ad322ca10214002d9370
Chengdu, its surrounding plain and adjacent territories in western Sichuan
560
False
unique local civilizations
113
What dates bsck to the 1500's BC on the Yangtze region?
5a51195cce860b001aa3fb9d
True
Yangtze region was the cradle of unique local civilizations
80
What dates to the early Shang and Zhou dynasties?
5a51195cce860b001aa3fb9e
True
Shang and Zhou
239
What dynasties ruled in the Central China Yangtze region?
5a51195cce860b001aa3fb9f
True
Sichuan
280
What was Ba-Shu referred to in ancient Chinese?
5a51195cce860b001aa3fba0
True
Ba-Shu
334
What was the Zhou dynasty referred to as by Chinese sources?
5a68dd728476ee001a58a7fc
True
at least the 15th century BC
167
How far back can civilizations in the Changdu region be dated?
5a68dd728476ee001a58a7fd
True
within the Sichuan Basin
407
Where were the kingdoms of Shang and Zhou located?
5a68dd728476ee001a58a7fe
True
Chengdu, its surrounding plain and adjacent territories in western Sichuan
560
What ancient Chinese history was included in the kindgom of Shu?
5a68dd728476ee001a58a7ff
True
Chongqing and the land in eastern Sichuan along the Yangtze and some tributary streams
445
What ancient Chinese history was included in the kingdom of Ba?
5a68dd728476ee001a58a800
True
Throughout its prehistory and early history, the region and its vicinity in the Yangtze region was the cradle of unique local civilizations which can be dated back to at least the 15th century BC and coinciding with the later years of the Shang and Zhou dynasties in North China. Sichuan was referred to in ancient Chinese sources as Ba-Shu (巴蜀), an abbreviation of the kingdoms of Ba and Shu which existed within the Sichuan Basin. Ba included Chongqing and the land in eastern Sichuan along the Yangtze and some tributary streams, while Shu included today's Chengdu, its surrounding plain and adjacent territories in western Sichuan.
What did Emperor  Duyu transform himself into after his death?
5727ae5f4b864d1900163a38
a cuckoo
481
False
What does the name Shu refer to?
5727ae5f4b864d1900163a39
Sichuan in subsequent periods in Chinese history up to the present day.
1377
False
When was the site believed to be ancient city of Shu discovered, and by whom?
5727ae5f4b864d1900163a3a
a local farmer in 1929
805
False
The Shu were an ally of who, according to the Book of Documents?
5727ae5f4b864d1900163a3b
the Zhou
169
False
When were the Chronicles of Huayang compiled?
5727ae5f4b864d1900163a3c
the Jin dynasty (265–420)
339
False
Shu
36
What civilization is well documented in China's historical records?
5a511f39ce860b001aa3fba5
True
the Book of Documents
133
What book is one of the only written refrences to Zhou?
5a511f39ce860b001aa3fba6
True
Chronicles of Huayang
305
What local annual refers to Zhou in a mixture of myths and historical legends?
5a511f39ce860b001aa3fba7
True
Shu
772
What iron age city was discovered in 1986?
5a511f39ce860b001aa3fba8
True
Yellow River valley
1287
What civilization was Sichuan less developed than?
5a511f39ce860b001aa3fba9
True
The existence of the early state of Shu was poorly recorded in the main historical records of China. It was, however, referred to in the Book of Documents as an ally of the Zhou. Accounts of Shu exist mainly as a mixture of mythological stories and historical legends recorded in local annals such as the Chronicles of Huayang compiled in the Jin dynasty (265–420), with folk stories such as that of Emperor Duyu (杜宇) who taught the people agriculture and transformed himself into a cuckoo after his death. The existence of a highly developed civilization with an independent bronze industry in Sichuan eventually came to light with an archaeological discovery in 1986 at a small village named Sanxingdui in Guanghan, Sichuan. This site, believed to be an ancient city of Shu, was initially discovered by a local farmer in 1929 who found jade and stone artefacts. Excavations by archaeologists in the area yielded few significant finds until 1986 when two major sacrificial pits were found with spectacular bronze items as well as artefacts in jade, gold, earthenware, and stone. This and other discoveries in Sichuan contest the conventional historiography that the local culture and technology of Sichuan were undeveloped in comparison to the technologically and culturally "advanced" Yellow River valley of north-central China. The name Shu continues to be used to refer to Sichuan in subsequent periods in Chinese history up to the present day.
What surrounds the Sichuan basin to the west?
5727aee02ca10214002d93b0
the Himalayas
252
False
What mountains surround the Sichuan basin to the North?
5727aee02ca10214002d93b1
Qin Mountains
283
False
What river flows through the Sichuan basin?
5727aee02ca10214002d93b2
Yangtze
367
False
Where was the Qin dynasty based?
5727aee02ca10214002d93b3
present-day Gansu and Shaanxi
53
False
What surrounds the Sichuan basin to the South?
5727aee02ca10214002d93b4
mountainous areas of Yunnan
315
False
Himalayas
256
What mountain range surrounds the entire Sichuan Basin?
5a512139ce860b001aa3fbb7
True
Qin dynasty
31
What dynasty was based in the Himalayas?
5a512139ce860b001aa3fbb8
True
Yangtze
367
What river flows south of the Sichuan basin?
5a512139ce860b001aa3fbb9
True
Himalayas
256
What mountain range was a staging area for military forces?
5a512139ce860b001aa3fbba
True
Himalayas
256
What surrounds the Sichuan basin to the east?
5a68e15a8476ee001a58a824
True
Qin Mountains
283
What mountains surround the China basin to the North?
5a68e15a8476ee001a58a825
True
Yangtze
367
What river flows through the China basin?
5a68e15a8476ee001a58a826
True
present-day Gansu and Shaanxi
53
Where was the Yangtze dynasty based?
5a68e15a8476ee001a58a827
True
mountainous areas of Yunnan
315
What surrounds the China basin to the South?
5a68e15a8476ee001a58a828
True
The rulers of the expansionist Qin dynasty, based in present-day Gansu and Shaanxi, were only the first strategists to realize that the area's military importance matched its commercial and agricultural significance. The Sichuan basin is surrounded by the Himalayas to the west, the Qin Mountains to the north, and mountainous areas of Yunnan to the south. Since the Yangtze flows through the basin and then through the perilous Yangzi Gorges to eastern and southern China, Sichuan was a staging area for amphibious military forces and a refuge for political refugees.[citation needed]
By what year did the Qin armies finish their conquest of Shu and Ba?
5727af8b4b864d1900163a5e
316 BC
68
False
What did Qin administrators introduce to Shu and Ba?
5727af8b4b864d1900163a5f
improved agricultural technology.
185
False
Who engineered the Dujiangyan irrigation system to control the Min River?
5727af8b4b864d1900163a60
Li Bing
219
False
The Min River is a major tributary of what river?
5727af8b4b864d1900163a61
Yangtze
323
False
The Dujiangyan irrigation system was used for what purpose?
5727af8b4b864d1900163a62
to either provide irrigation or prevent floods.
471
False
Qin armies
0
Who began their conquest of Shu and Ba in 316 BC?
5a51224bce860b001aa3fbbf
True
written records and civil achievements of earlier kingdoms
80
What was preserved during the Qin conquest?
5a51224bce860b001aa3fbc0
True
Li Bing
219
Who tried to control the Yangtze river?
5a51224bce860b001aa3fbc1
True
Dujiangyan irrigation system
243
What was built to control the Yangtze river?
5a51224bce860b001aa3fbc2
True
Min
287
The Yantze is a major tributary of what river?
5a51224bce860b001aa3fbc3
True
316 BC
68
By what year did the Quin armies finish their conquest of Yangtze?
5a68e6518476ee001a58a856
True
improved agricultural technology
185
What did Qin administrators introduce to Yangtze?
5a68e6518476ee001a58a857
True
Li Bing
219
Who engineered the Dujangyan irrigation sytem to control China?
5a68e6518476ee001a58a858
True
Yangtze
323
The Qin River is a major tributary of what river?
5a68e6518476ee001a58a859
True
provide irrigation or prevent floods
481
The Min irrigation system was used for what purpose?
5a68e6518476ee001a58a85a
True
Qin armies finished their conquest of the kingdoms of Shu and Ba by 316 BC. Any written records and civil achievements of earlier kingdoms were destroyed. Qin administrators introduced improved agricultural technology. Li Bing, engineered the Dujiangyan irrigation system to control the Min River, a major tributary of the Yangtze. This innovative hydraulic system was composed of movable weirs which could be adjusted for high or low water flow according to the season, to either provide irrigation or prevent floods. The increased agricultural output and taxes made the area a source of provisions and men for Qin's unification of China.
During which dynasty did Sichuan regain its political and cultural prominence for which it was known during the Han?
5727b0563acd2414000de9cb
Tang dynasty
125
False
Who was known as China's greatest poet and lived in Chengdu?
5727b0563acd2414000de9cc
Du Fu
319
False
What was Chengu known to supply the country with?
5727b0563acd2414000de9cd
armies
296
False
Which years saw the An Lushan Rebellion?
5727b0563acd2414000de9ce
755-763
405
False
Which empire ravished the Chengdu region with constant warfare and economic distress?
5727b0563acd2414000de9cf
the Tibetan Empire
555
False
Sichuan
0
Who regained their prominence under the Sui dynasty?
5a512d7dce860b001aa3fbed
True
Sichuan
0
Who came under tight control during the Tang dynasty?
5a512d7dce860b001aa3fbee
True
An Lushan Rebellion (
384
What revolt took place in the 7th century?
5a512d7dce860b001aa3fbef
True
Emperor Xuanzong
415
Who fled from Sichuan to Chang'an?
5a512d7dce860b001aa3fbf0
True
Sichuan
0
What region was liberated by the Tibetan Empire?
5a512d7dce860b001aa3fbf1
True
Tang dynasty
125
During which dynasty did Sichuan regain its political and cultural prominence for which it was known during the Tibetan Empire?
5a68e9e48476ee001a58a87e
True
Du Fu
319
Who was known as China's greatest poet and lived in Tang?
5a68e9e48476ee001a58a87f
True
armies
296
What was Chengu known to supply the Tibetan Empire with?
5a68e9e48476ee001a58a880
True
755-763
405
Which years saw the Han Rebellion?
5a68e9e48476ee001a58a881
True
Tibetan Empire
559
Which empire ravished the Lushan region with constant warfare and economic distress?
5a68e9e48476ee001a58a882
True
Sichuan came under the firm control of a Chinese central government during the Sui dynasty, but it was during the subsequent Tang dynasty where Sichuan regained its previous political and cultural prominence for which it was known during the Han. Chengdu became nationally known as a supplier of armies and the home of Du Fu, who is sometimes called China's greatest poet. During the An Lushan Rebellion (755-763), Emperor Xuanzong of Tang fled from Chang'an to Sichuan. The region was torn by constant warfare and economic distress as it was besieged by the Tibetan Empire.
What was the nickname rebel leader Zhang Xianzhong?
5727b1112ca10214002d9400
Yellow Tiger
128
False
Which region did Yellow Tiger conquer in the mid-17th century?
5727b1112ca10214002d9401
Sichuan
209
False
Which dynasty did Yellow Tiger declare himself the emperor of?
5727b1112ca10214002d9402
Daxi Dynasty
272
False
Which province supplied a large amount of people to the Sichuan resettlement, following years of turmoil during the Ming-Qing transition?
5727b1112ca10214002d9403
Huguang Province
575
False
Zhang Xianzhong
60
Who lead the peasant rebelion in the mid 1700's?
5a513213ce860b001aa3fc0b
True
Yan'an, Shanxi Province,
93
Where was the rebel leader born in the 16th century from?
5a513213ce860b001aa3fc0c
True
Yellow Tiger
128
What was the nickname of the man who led the rebelion in the 1700's?
5a513213ce860b001aa3fc0d
True
Yellow Tiger
128
Who conquered the Daxi Dynasty?
5a513213ce860b001aa3fc0e
True
Daxi Dynasty
272
During what dynasty did the population of Schuan rise sharply?
5a513213ce860b001aa3fc0f
True
Yellow Tiger
128
What was the nickname revel leader Daxi Dynasty?
5a68ee988476ee001a58a8b0
True
Sichuan
209
Which region did Huguang conquer in the mid-17th century?
5a68ee988476ee001a58a8b1
True
Daxi Dynasty
272
Which Dynasty did Huguang declare himself an emperor of?
5a68ee988476ee001a58a8b2
True
Huguang Province
575
Which province supplied a large amount of troops to the Sichuan resettlement, following years of turmoil during the Ming-Qing transition?
5a68ee988476ee001a58a8b3
True
the massacre as well as years of turmoil during the Ming-Qing transition
397
Why did the population of Yellow Tiger fall?
5a68ee988476ee001a58a8b4
True
In the middle of the 17th century, the peasant rebel leader Zhang Xianzhong (1606–1646) from Yan'an, Shanxi Province, nicknamed Yellow Tiger, led his peasant troop from north China to the south, and conquered Sichuan. Upon capturing it, he declared himself emperor of the Daxi Dynasty (大西王朝). In response to the resistance from local elites, he massacred a large native population. As a result of the massacre as well as years of turmoil during the Ming-Qing transition, the population of Sichuan fell sharply, requiring a massive resettlement of people from the neighboring Huguang Province (modern Hubei and Hunan) and other provinces during the Qing dynasty.
To which city was the Chinese capitol relocated to during Japanese occupation in the 20th century?
5727b1b72ca10214002d9408
Chongqing
206
False
What are some major cities occupied by the Chinese during the Second Sino-Japanese War?
5727b1b72ca10214002d9409
Beijing, Shanghai, Nanjing, and Wuhan
24
False
What are some inland provinces that began to develop modern, westernized education systems?
5727b1b72ca10214002d940a
Shaanxi, Gansu, and Guizhou
320
False
What are some reasons for the lack of accurate Japanese bombing during the Second Sino-Japanese War in the Sichuan Basin?
5727b1b72ca10214002d940b
The difficulty of accessing the region overland from the eastern part of China and the foggy climate
449
False
Beijing, Shanghai, Nanjing, and Wuhan
24
What regions where occuppied dring the first Sino-Japanese War?
5a513519ce860b001aa3fc1d
True
Chongqing
206
Where was the capital relocated to during the First Sino-Japanese War?
5a513519ce860b001aa3fc1e
True
the capital of the Republic of China had been temporary relocated to Chongqing
137
What caused inland provinces to lose Western-style universities?
5a513519ce860b001aa3fc1f
True
foggy climate
536
What made the Sichuan basin suseptable to bombing?
5a513519ce860b001aa3fc20
True
Chiang Kai-Shek's Kuomintang government
649
Who fled the area during 1938-45?
5a513519ce860b001aa3fc21
True
Chongqing
206
To which city was the Gansu capitol relocated to during Japanese occupation in the 20th century?
5a68f03f8476ee001a58a8ce
True
Beijing, Shanghai, Nanjing, and Wuhan
24
What are some major cities occupied by the Chinese during the foggy climate?
5a68f03f8476ee001a58a8cf
True
Shaanxi, Gansu, and Guizhou
320
What are some inland provinces that began to develop major cities?
5a68f03f8476ee001a58a8d0
True
The difficulty of accessing the region overland from the eastern part of China and the foggy climate
449
What are some reasons for the lack of accurate Japanese capitals the Second Sino-Japanese War in the Sichuan Basin?
5a68f03f8476ee001a58a8d1
True
1938-45
696
When was Guizhou the stronghold of Chiang Kai-Shek Koumintang's government?
5a68f03f8476ee001a58a8d2
True
In the 20th century, as Beijing, Shanghai, Nanjing, and Wuhan had all been occupied by the Japanese during the Second Sino-Japanese War, the capital of the Republic of China had been temporary relocated to Chongqing, then a major city in Sichuan. An enduring legacy of this move is that nearby inland provinces, such as Shaanxi, Gansu, and Guizhou, which previously never had modern Western-style universities, began to be developed in this regard. The difficulty of accessing the region overland from the eastern part of China and the foggy climate hindering the accuracy of Japanese bombing of the Sichuan Basin, made the region the stronghold of Chiang Kai-Shek's Kuomintang government during 1938-45, and led to the Bombing of Chongqing.
What group was the main antagonist during the Chinese Civil War?
5727b298ff5b5019007d92ca
the Communists
118
False
Who led the defense of Chongqing in November 1949?
5727b298ff5b5019007d92cb
Chiang Kai-Shek
339
False
On what date in 1949 did Chengdu fall to the communists?
5727b298ff5b5019007d92cc
10 December
507
False
Why did Sichuan see some communist activity?
5727b298ff5b5019007d92cd
it was one area on the road of the Long March
292
False
Chinese Civil War
62
What resumed after the First Sino-Japanese War?
5a513846ce860b001aa3fc2f
True
fell to the Communists
110
What happened to the cities of west China?
5a513846ce860b001aa3fc30
True
Kuomintang
156
What government fled sichuan again?
5a513846ce860b001aa3fc31
True
Chiang Kai-Shek
339
Who flew from Chongqing to Tawian to lead the defense in 1949?
5a513846ce860b001aa3fc32
True
Chongqing
450
What other city fell following the fall of Chendu?
5a513846ce860b001aa3fc33
True
the Communists
118
What group was the on the defense during the Chinese Civil War?
5a68f3838476ee001a58a8f6
True
Chiang Kai-Shek
339
Who led the defense of Burma in November 1949?
5a68f3838476ee001a58a8f7
True
10 December
507
On what date in 1949 did Changdu fall to Chiang Kai-Shek?
5a68f3838476ee001a58a8f8
True
it was one area on the road of the Long March
292
Why did Sichuan see some strongholds on the mainland?
5a68f3838476ee001a58a8f9
True
Kuomintang
156
Which government tried to make Burma its stronghold?
5a68f3838476ee001a58a8fa
True
The Second Sino-Japanese War was soon followed by the resumed Chinese Civil War, and the cities of East China fell to the Communists one after another, the Kuomintang government again tried to make Sichuan its stronghold on the mainland, although it already saw some Communist activity since it was one area on the road of the Long March. Chiang Kai-Shek himself flew to Chongqing from Taiwan in November 1949 to lead the defense. But the same month Chongqing fell to the Communists, followed by Chengdu on 10 December. The Kuomintang general Wang Sheng wanted to stay behind with his troops to continue anticommunist guerilla war in Sichuan, but was recalled to Taiwan. Many of his soldiers made their way there as well, via Burma.
What Chinese Province had the largest population until 1997?
5727b3704b864d1900163aae
Sichuan
21
False
Why did Sichuan lose its status as the most populous Province in 1997?
5727b3704b864d1900163aaf
Chongqing as well as the three surrounding prefectures of Fuling, Wanxian, and Qianjiang were split off into the new Chongqing Municipality.
200
False
Why was the Chongqing Municipality formed?
5727b3704b864d1900163ab0
to spearhead China's effort to economically develop its western provinces
373
False
Why did China need to resettle people into Chongqing?
5727b3704b864d1900163ab1
the Three Gorges Dam project.
531
False
What was the population of Sichuan in 1982?
5727b3704b864d1900163ab2
99,730,000
135
False
1955 until 1997
5
During what period was Sichuan China's most sparsley populated area?
5a513b39ce860b001aa3fc43
True
the Sub-provincial city of Chongqing as well as the three surrounding prefectures of Fuling, Wanxian, and Qianjiang
173
What provinces where combined in 1997?
5a513b39ce860b001aa3fc44
True
China
386
Who was trying to develop its eastern provinces?
5a513b39ce860b001aa3fc45
True
to coordinate the resettlement of residents from the reservoir areas of the Three Gorges Dam project.
459
Why were some municipalities eliminated?
5a513b39ce860b001aa3fc46
True
Sichuan
21
What Chinese Province had the largest population until 1955?
5a68f5468476ee001a58a90a
True
Chongqing as well as the three surrounding prefectures of Fuling, Wanxian, and Qianjiang were split off into the new Chongqing Municipality
200
Why did Sichuan lose its status as the most populous Province in 1955?
5a68f5468476ee001a58a90b
True
to spearhead China's effort to economically develop its western provinces
373
Why was the Quianjiang Municipality formed?
5a68f5468476ee001a58a90c
True
the Three Gorges Dam project
531
Why did China need to resettle people into Gorges?
5a68f5468476ee001a58a90d
True
99,730,000
135
What was the population of Sichuan in 1955?
5a68f5468476ee001a58a90e
True
From 1955 until 1997 Sichuan had been China's most populous province, hitting 100 million mark shortly after the 1982 census figure of 99,730,000. This changed in 1997 when the Sub-provincial city of Chongqing as well as the three surrounding prefectures of Fuling, Wanxian, and Qianjiang were split off into the new Chongqing Municipality. The new municipality was formed to spearhead China's effort to economically develop its western provinces, as well as to coordinate the resettlement of residents from the reservoir areas of the Three Gorges Dam project.
How many distinct parts make up Sichuan?
5727b3f5ff5b5019007d92fa
two
20
False
What makes up majority of the eastern Sichuan province?
5727b3f5ff5b5019007d92fb
Sichuan basin
122
False
Western Sichuan is delineated by what mountain range?
5727b3f5ff5b5019007d92fc
Hengduan Mountains
345
False
Which mountain range contains the highest point in the Gongga Shan province?
5727b3f5ff5b5019007d92fd
Daxue Mountains
386
False
How many feet above sea level is the highest point of the Saxue Mountains?
5727b3f5ff5b5019007d92fe
24,790 ft
476
False
Sichuan
0
What province has similar eastern and western parts?
5a514691ce860b001aa3fc9b
True
Qinghai-Tibet Plateau
291
What is formed by the mountains in eastern Sichuan?
5a514691ce860b001aa3fc9c
True
Sichuan basin
122
What basin covers most of western Sichuan?
5a514691ce860b001aa3fc9d
True
Daxue Mountains
386
What mountain range in eastern Sichuan contains the highest point of the province?
5a514691ce860b001aa3fc9e
True
two
20
How many distinct parts make up Tibet?
5a68f6648476ee001a58a91e
True
Hengduan Mountains
345
What makes up majority of the eastern Qinghai province?
5a68f6648476ee001a58a91f
True
Daxue Mountains
386
Which mountain range contains the highest point in the Chongquing province?
5a68f6648476ee001a58a920
True
Daxue Mountains
386
Which mountain range contains the highest point in the Qinghai province?
5a68f6648476ee001a58a921
True
24,790 ft
476
How many feet above sea level is the highest point of the Hangduan Mountains?
5a68f6648476ee001a58a922
True
Sichuan consists of two geographically very distinct parts. The eastern part of the province is mostly within the fertile Sichuan basin (which is shared by Sichuan with Chongqing Municipality). The western Sichuan consists of the numerous mountain ranges forming the easternmost part of the Qinghai-Tibet Plateau, which are known generically as Hengduan Mountains. One of these ranges, Daxue Mountains, contains the highest point of the province Gongga Shan, at 7,556 metres (24,790 ft) above sea level.
Which river flows through the Sichuan Basin?
5727b50e2ca10214002d946c
Yangtze River
4
False
Which tributary of the Yangtze flows through central Sichuan?
5727b50e2ca10214002d946d
Min River
334
False
What are the 4 main rivers in Sichuan?
5727b50e2ca10214002d946e
Jaling Jiang, Tuo Jiang, Yalong Jiang, and Jinsha Jiang
455
False
Name some cities downstream of the Yangtze river that are to the east of Sichuan.
5727b50e2ca10214002d946f
Chongqing, Wuhan, Nanjing and Shanghai
223
False
Yangtze
4
What river flows through eastern Sichuan?
5a51481fce860b001aa3fcad
True
Sichuan
77
What province is downstream from the large cities along the Yangtze?
5a51481fce860b001aa3fcae
True
Chongqing, Wuhan, Nanjing and Shanghai.
223
what cities are west of Sichuan?
5a51481fce860b001aa3fcaf
True
Min
334
The Yangtze is a trubutary of what river?
5a51481fce860b001aa3fcb0
True
Yangtze River
4
Which river flows through the Nanjing Basin?
5a68f70d8476ee001a58a932
True
Min River
334
Which tributary of the Yangtze flows through central Jaling Jaling?
5a68f70d8476ee001a58a933
True
Jaling Jiang, Tuo Jiang, Yalong Jiang, and Jinsha Jiang
455
What are the 4 main rivers in Chongquing?
5a68f70d8476ee001a58a934
True
Chongqing, Wuhan, Nanjing and Shanghai
223
Name some cities downstream of the Yangtze river that are to the west of Sichuan?
5a68f70d8476ee001a58a935
True
Min River
334
What joins the Wuhan at Yibin?
5a68f70d8476ee001a58a936
True
The Yangtze River and its tributaries flows through the mountains of western Sichuan and the Sichuan Basin; thus, the province is upstream of the great cities that stand along the Yangtze River further to the east, such as Chongqing, Wuhan, Nanjing and Shanghai. One of the major tributaries of the Yangtze within the province is the Min River of central Sichuan, which joins the Yangtze at Yibin. Sichuan's 4 main rivers, as Sichuan means literally, are Jaling Jiang, Tuo Jiang, Yalong Jiang, and Jinsha Jiang.
What climate classification does the Sichuan Basin hold?
5727b5b5ff5b5019007d9316
humid subtropical climate
311
False
What area of China has the least amount of sunlight?
5727b5b5ff5b5019007d9317
the Sichuan Basin
223
False
Garze County and Zoige County in Sichuan experience what kind of climate?
5727b5b5ff5b5019007d9318
subarctic climate
803
False
What is the range of average elevation in the Sichuan Basin?
5727b5b5ff5b5019007d9319
2,000 to 3,500 meters
1009
False
What is the range of average temperature in the Sichuan Basin?
5727b5b5ff5b5019007d931a
0 to 15 °C
1064
False
Sichuan Basin
227
What basin area has a humid tropical climate?
5a514a03ce860b001aa3fcb5
True
Sichuan Basin
227
What area of China has the least amount of sunlight?
5a514a03ce860b001aa3fcb6
True
Garze County and Zoige County
752
What two counties have an arctic climate?
5a514a03ce860b001aa3fcb7
True
Garze County and Zoige County
752
Whare is the average elevation 2,000 tp 3.000 miles?
5a514a03ce860b001aa3fcb8
True
humid subtropical climate
311
What climate classification does the Garze Basin hold?
5a68f8138476ee001a58a93c
True
Sichuan Basin
227
What area of China has the least amount of earthquakes?
5a68f8138476ee001a58a93d
True
subarctic climate
803
What kind of climate does Koppen County in Sichuan experience?
5a68f8138476ee001a58a93e
True
2,000 to 3,500 meters
1009
What is the range of average elevation in the Garze Basin?
5a68f8138476ee001a58a93f
True
0 to 15 °C
1064
What is the range of average temperature in the Garze Basin?
5a68f8138476ee001a58a940
True
Due to great differences in terrain, the climate of the province is highly variable. In general it has strong monsoonal influences, with rainfall heavily concentrated in the summer. Under the Köppen climate classification, the Sichuan Basin (including Chengdu) in the eastern half of the province experiences a humid subtropical climate (Köppen Cwa or Cfa), with long, hot, humid summers and short, mild to cool, dry and cloudy winters. Consequently, it has China's lowest sunshine totals. The western region has mountainous areas producing a cooler but sunnier climate. Having cool to very cold winters and mild summers, temperatures generally decrease with greater elevation. However, due to high altitude and its inland location, many areas such as Garze County and Zoige County in Sichuan exhibit a subarctic climate (Köppen Dwc)- featuring extremely cold winters down to -30 °C and even cold summer nights. The region is geologically active with landslides and earthquakes. Average elevation ranges from 2,000 to 3,500 meters; average temperatures range from 0 to 15 °C. The southern part of the province, including Panzhihua and Xichang, has a sunny climate with short, very mild winters and very warm to hot summers.
What area for the "Province of Abundance" refer to?
5727b6734b864d1900163b10
Sichuan
0
False
What are the major agricultural outputs of Sichuan?
5727b6734b864d1900163b11
rice and wheat
148
False
What kind of meat is Sichuan known to produce in abundance?
5727b6734b864d1900163b12
pork
360
False
How much of China's titanium is houses in Sichuan?
5727b6734b864d1900163b13
93%
687
False
What is often done with Sichuan's natural gas reserves?
5727b6734b864d1900163b14
transported to more developed eastern regions
858
False
Sichuan
0
What is known as the Bread Basket of China?
5a514b8cce860b001aa3fcc7
True
Sichuan
0
What area produces the most silkworm?
5a514b8cce860b001aa3fcc8
True
natural gas
811
What reserves does Sichuan send further west?
5a514b8cce860b001aa3fcc9
True
Panxi
627
What region contains 69% of the titanium  reserves?
5a514b8cce860b001aa3fcca
True
Sichuan
0
What silkworm cocoon does the "Province of Abundance" refer to?
5a68fc828476ee001a58a982
True
rice and wheat
148
What are the major agricultural outputs of Providence?
5a68fc828476ee001a58a983
True
pork
360
What kind of meat is the Providence known to produce in abundance?
5a68fc828476ee001a58a984
True
93%
687
How much of Providence's titanium is housed in Sichuan?
5a68fc828476ee001a58a985
True
transported to more developed eastern regions
858
What is often done with Sichuan's pork?
5a68fc828476ee001a58a986
True
Sichuan has been historically known as the "Province of Abundance". It is one of the major agricultural production bases of China. Grain, including rice and wheat, is the major product with output that ranked first in China in 1999. Commercial crops include citrus fruits, sugar cane, sweet potatoes, peaches and grapes. Sichuan also had the largest output of pork among all the provinces and the second largest output of silkworm cocoons in 1999. Sichuan is rich in mineral resources. It has more than 132 kinds of proven underground mineral resources including vanadium, titanium, and lithium being the largest in China. The Panxi region alone possesses 13.3% of the reserves of iron, 93% of titanium, 69% of vanadium, and 83% of the cobalt of the whole country. Sichuan also possesses China's largest proven natural gas reserves, the majority of which is transported to more developed eastern regions.
What are some major industrial outputs of Sichuan?
5727b7804b864d1900163b2a
coal, energy, iron and steel
97
False
What areas are major areas of production for textiles and electronics?
5727b7804b864d1900163b2b
Chengdu and Mianyang
261
False
How much of China's wine did Sichuan produce in 2000?
5727b7804b864d1900163b2c
21.9%
509
False
Which city in Sichuan is known for its machinery production?
5727b7804b864d1900163b2d
Deyang
348
False
Which city in Sichuan is known for its metallurgical industries?
5727b7804b864d1900163b2e
Panzhihua
356
False
Sichuan
0
What is a major industrial center of Asia?
5a514cacce860b001aa3fccf
True
21.9%
509
How much of Asia's wine did Sichuan produce in 2000?
5a514cacce860b001aa3fcd0
True
wine
449
What is produced in Chengdu besides machinery?
5a514cacce860b001aa3fcd1
True
electronics products
326
What is produced in Yibin besides textiles?
5a514cacce860b001aa3fcd2
True
coal, energy, iron and steel
97
What are some major industrial outputs of food?
5a68fe0e8476ee001a58a996
True
Chengdu and Mianyang
261
What areas are major building materials for textiles and electronics?
5a68fe0e8476ee001a58a997
True
Panzhihua
356
How much of Chinas wine did light industrial sectors produce in 2000?
5a68fe0e8476ee001a58a998
True
Deyang
348
Which city in Sichuan is known for its building materials?
5a68fe0e8476ee001a58a999
True
Panzhihua
356
Which city in Yibin is known for its metallurgical industries?
5a68fe0e8476ee001a58a99a
True
Sichuan is one of the major industrial centers of China. In addition to heavy industries such as coal, energy, iron and steel, the province has also established a light industrial sector comprising building materials, wood processing, food and silk processing. Chengdu and Mianyang are the production centers for textiles and electronics products. Deyang, Panzhihua, and Yibin are the production centers for machinery, metallurgical industries, and wine, respectively. Sichuan's wine production accounted for 21.9% of the country’s total production in 2000.
What is the largest dam ever built in the world?
5727b7c3ff5b5019007d9350
Three Gorges Dam
4
False
On which river is the Three Gorges Dam built?
5727b7c3ff5b5019007d9351
Yangtze River
78
False
What is the purpose of the Three Gorges Dam?
5727b7c3ff5b5019007d9352
to control flooding in the Sichuan Basin, neighboring Yunnan province, and downstream
117
False
What are some reasons for the opposition of the Three Gorges Dam?
5727b7c3ff5b5019007d9353
massive resettlement of residents in the reservoir areas, loss of archeological sites, and ecological damages.
429
False
The Three Gorges Dam
0
What is the second largest damn in China?
5a514e54ce860b001aa3fce1
True
The Three Gorges Dam
0
What is being built to control flooding in the Hubei province?
5a514e54ce860b001aa3fce2
True
The Three Gorges Dam
0
China improving its industrial base is a negative effect of what?
5a514e54ce860b001aa3fce3
True
The Three Gorges Dam
0
What is the largest ever built in commercial bases?
5a68fedb8476ee001a58a9a0
True
Yangtze River
78
On which river are alternative energy sources built?
5a68fedb8476ee001a58a9a1
True
to control flooding in the Sichuan Basin, neighboring Yunnan province, and downstream
117
What is the purpose of the resettlement of residents?
5a68fedb8476ee001a58a9a2
True
massive resettlement of residents in the reservoir areas, loss of archeological sites, and ecological damages
429
What are some reasons for the opposition of the alternative energy sources?
5a68fedb8476ee001a58a9a3
True
The Three Gorges Dam
0
What on the Yangtze River is being damaged?
5a68fedb8476ee001a58a9a4
True
The Three Gorges Dam, the largest dam ever constructed, is being built on the Yangtze River in nearby Hubei province to control flooding in the Sichuan Basin, neighboring Yunnan province, and downstream. The plan is hailed by some as China's efforts to shift towards alternative energy sources and to further develop its industrial and commercial bases, but others have criticised it for its potentially harmful effects, such as massive resettlement of residents in the reservoir areas, loss of archeological sites, and ecological damages.
By how much did foreign trade increase in Sichuan in 2008?
5727b8623acd2414000dea87
53.3 percent
141
False
What was the export level of Sichuan in 2008?
5727b8623acd2414000dea88
US$13.1 billion
168
False
What was the import level of Sichuan in 2008?
5727b8623acd2414000dea89
US$8.93 billion
240
False
What cities saw an increase in foreign trade of more than 40% in 2008?
5727b8623acd2414000dea8a
Chengdu, Suining, Nanchong, Dazhou, Ya'an, Abazhou, and Liangshan
567
False
Sichuan Department of Commerce
17
Who says Sichuans total forign trade is 22.04 billion CNY
5a515044ce860b001aa3fcf1
True
Exports
155
What was equal to 13.1 billion CNY?
5a515044ce860b001aa3fcf2
True
imports
227
What was equal to 8.93 billion CNY?
5a515044ce860b001aa3fcf3
True
province's total foreign trade
53
What has a decrease in production costs contributed to?
5a515044ce860b001aa3fcf4
True
53.3 percent
141
By how much did production costs increase in Sichuan in 2008?
5a69036d8476ee001a58a9be
True
US$13.1 billion
168
What were the commercial incentives for of Sichuan in 2008?
5a69036d8476ee001a58a9bf
True
US$8.93 billion
240
What production costs of Sichuan in 2008?
5a69036d8476ee001a58a9c0
True
Chengdu, Suining, Nanchong, Dazhou, Ya'an, Abazhou, and Liangshan
567
What cities saw an increase in imports of more than 40% in 2008?
5a69036d8476ee001a58a9c1
True
changes in China's foreign trade policy, acceleration of the yuan's appreciation, increase of commercial incentives and increase in production costs
353
What caused the increase in foreign counties?
5a69036d8476ee001a58a9c2
True
According to the Sichuan Department of Commerce, the province's total foreign trade was US$22.04 billion in 2008, with an annual increase of 53.3 percent. Exports were US$13.1 billion, an annual increase of 52.3 percent, while imports were US$8.93 billion, an annual increase of 54.7 percent. These achievements were accomplished because of significant changes in China's foreign trade policy, acceleration of the yuan's appreciation, increase of commercial incentives and increase in production costs. The 18 cities and counties witnessed a steady rate of increase. Chengdu, Suining, Nanchong, Dazhou, Ya'an, Abazhou, and Liangshan all saw an increase of more than 40 percent while Leshan, Neijiang, Luzhou, Meishan, Ziyang, and Yibin saw an increase of more than 20 percent. Foreign trade in Zigong, Panzhihua, Guang'an, Bazhong and Ganzi remained constant.
By how much did Sichuan increase minimum wage in December 2007?
5727b9094b864d1900163b72
12.5 percent
66
False
What was the new monthly minimum wage in Sichuan by January 2008?
5727b9094b864d1900163b73
450 yuan
153
False
What was the minimum hourly wage in Sichuan on December 28, 2007?
5727b9094b864d1900163b74
4.9 yuan
181
False
What is the national minimum monthly wage in China?
5727b9094b864d1900163b75
450 yuan per month
489
False
Sichuan government
4
Who raised the minimum wage by 1.25%
5a515157ce860b001aa3fd03
True
Sichuan
4
Where is the maximum wage 4.9 yuan per hour?
5a515157ce860b001aa3fd04
True
The government
247
who icreased the three tier minimum wage structure to four?
5a515157ce860b001aa3fd05
True
National law
399
What law sets the minimum wage across China?
5a515157ce860b001aa3fd06
True
12.5 percent
66
By how much did the top tier increase minimum wage in December 2007?
5a6904ae8476ee001a58a9c8
True
450 yuan
153
What was the new monthy minimum wage in the top tier by January 2008?
5a6904ae8476ee001a58a9c9
True
4.9 yuan
181
What was the minimum hourly wage in the top tier on December 28, 2007?
5a6904ae8476ee001a58a9ca
True
450 yuan per month
489
What was the national minimum monthly wage in the top tier?
5a6904ae8476ee001a58a9cb
True
three
315
What did the top tier reduce the four-tier minimum wage structure to?
5a6904ae8476ee001a58a9cc
True
The Sichuan government raised the minimum wage in the province by 12.5 percent at the end of December 2007. The monthly minimum wage went up from 400 to 450 yuan, with a minimum of 4.9 yuan per hour for part-time work, effective 26 December 2007. The government also reduced the four-tier minimum wage structure to three. The top tier mandates a minimum of 650 yuan per month, or 7.1 yuan per hour. National law allows each province to set minimum wages independently, but with a floor of 450 yuan per month.
When was the Chengdu Economic and Technological Development Zone approved?
5727b97a4b864d1900163b84
February 2000
160
False
What is the planned size of the Chengdu Economic and Technological Development Zone?
5727b97a4b864d1900163b85
CETDZ
333
False
How far east of Chengdu is CETDZ?
5727b97a4b864d1900163b86
8.5 mi
354
False
What is the capital city of Sichuan?
5727b97a4b864d1900163b87
Chengdu
370
False
How many countries are represented by the investors and developers of the CETDZ?
5727b97a4b864d1900163b88
20
547
False
Chengdu Economic and Technological Development Zone
0
What was approved as a national-level development zone in 2000?
5a515cd5ce860b001aa3fd3d
True
Chengdu
370
What city east of the Chengu Economic and Technological Development Zone?
5a515cd5ce860b001aa3fd3e
True
Chengdu Economic and Technological Development Zone
0
What has attracted investers from 20 other provinces?
5a515cd5ce860b001aa3fd3f
True
February 2000
160
When was the Chengdu Economic and Technological Development Zone approved in more than 20 countries?
5a69068f8476ee001a58a9d2
True
13.6 km (8.5 mi) east of Chengdu
345
Where planned food processing area lie?
5a69068f8476ee001a58a9d3
True
13.6 km
345
How far east of Chengdu is the planned food processing area?
5a69068f8476ee001a58a9d4
True
Chengdu
370
What is the capital city of China?
5a69068f8476ee001a58a9d5
True
20
547
How many cities are represented by the investors and developers of the CETDZ?
5a69068f8476ee001a58a9d6
True
Chengdu Economic and Technological Development Zone (Chinese: 成都经济技术开发区; pinyin: Chéngdū jīngjì jìshù kāifā qū) was approved as state-level development zone in February 2000. The zone now has a developed area of 10.25 km2 (3.96 sq mi) and has a planned area of 26 km2 (10 sq mi). Chengdu Economic and Technological Development Zone (CETDZ) lies 13.6 km (8.5 mi) east of Chengdu, the capital city of Sichuan Province and the hub of transportation and communication in southwest China. The zone has attracted investors and developers from more than 20 countries to carry out their projects there. Industries encouraged in the zone include mechanical, electronic, new building materials, medicine and food processing.
When was the Chengdu Hi-tech Industrial Development Zone established?
5727b9d4ff5b5019007d937e
1988
15
False
When was the Chengdu Hi-tech Industrial Development Zone approved?
5727b9d4ff5b5019007d937f
1991
205
False
The Chengdu Hi-tech Industrial Development Zone is what rank of 53 in China terms of comprehensive strength?
5727b9d4ff5b5019007d9380
5th
409
False
Chengdu Hi-tech Industrial Development Zone
21
what was approved as a hi-tech development zone in 1988?
5a515d71ce860b001aa3fd43
True
Chengdu Hi-tech Industrial Development Zone
21
Wat development zone was established in 1991?
5a515d71ce860b001aa3fd44
True
Chengdu Hi-tech Industrial Development Zone
21
What ranks number 5 in world development zones?
5a515d71ce860b001aa3fd45
True
1988
15
When was the APEC Hi-tech Industrial Development Zone established?
5a6907a88476ee001a58a9e6
True
1991
205
When was the APEC Hi-tech Industrial Development Zone approved?
5a6907a88476ee001a58a9e7
True
5th
409
The Chengdu APEC is what rank of 53 in China terms of comprehensive strength?
5a6907a88476ee001a58a9e8
True
Hi-tech Industrial Development Zone
29
What has been recognized as a pinyin?
5a6907a88476ee001a58a9e9
True
53
423
How many national APEC zones are in China?
5a6907a88476ee001a58a9ea
True
Established in 1988, Chengdu Hi-tech Industrial Development Zone (Chinese: 成都高新技术产业开发区; pinyin: Chéngdū Gāoxīn Jìshù Chǎnyè Kāifā Qū) was approved as one of the first national hi-tech development zones in 1991. In 2000, it was open to APEC and has been recognized as a national advanced hi-tech development zone in successive assessment activities held by China's Ministry of Science and Technology. It ranks 5th among the 53 national hi-tech development zones in China in terms of comprehensive strength.
Which Parks make up the Chengdu Hi-tech Development Zone?
5727ba513acd2414000deab9
South Park and the West Park
92
False
What is the focus of the South Park?
5727ba513acd2414000deaba
creating a modernized industrial park of science and technology
216
False
Which industries does West Park give priority to?
5727ba513acd2414000deabb
electronic information, biomedicine and precision machinery
758
False
What industry does South Park give priority to?
5727ba513acd2414000deabc
software industry
460
False
Chengdu Hi-tech Development Zone
0
What development zone covers 82.5 square miles?
5a515ea2ce860b001aa3fd4f
True
focusing on creating a modernized industrial park of science and technology
204
What is the West park doing by focusing on the city sub-center?
5a515ea2ce860b001aa3fd50
True
biomedicine and precision machinery.
782
BWhat industry does South Park give priority to other than electronic informatiom?
5a515ea2ce860b001aa3fd51
True
South Park and the West Park
92
Which Parks make up the incubation R&D?
5a6908a28476ee001a58a9f0
True
creating a modernized industrial park of science and technology
216
What is the focus of the tourism channel?
5a6908a28476ee001a58a9f1
True
three major industries i.e. electronic information, biomedicine and precision machinery
730
Which industries do both sides give priority to?
5a6908a28476ee001a58a9f2
True
Chengdu Hi-tech Development Zone
0
What covers and area of 31.9 Km2?
5a6908a28476ee001a58a9f3
True
the West Park
564
What targets cities with complete supportive functions?
5a6908a28476ee001a58a9f4
True
Chengdu Hi-tech Development Zone covers an area of 82.5 km2 (31.9 sq mi), consisting of the South Park and the West Park. By relying on the city sub-center, which is under construction, the South Park is focusing on creating a modernized industrial park of science and technology with scientific and technological innovation, incubation R&D, modern service industry and Headquarters economy playing leading roles. Priority has been given to the development of software industry. Located on both sides of the "Chengdu-Dujiangyan-Jiuzhaigou" golden tourism channel, the West Park aims at building a comprehensive industrial park targeting at industrial clustering with complete supportive functions. The West Park gives priority to three major industries i.e. electronic information, biomedicine and precision machinery.
What is the planned area of the Mianyang Hi-Tech Industrial Development Zone?
5727baf24b864d1900163bb2
17 sq mi
101
False
What is the distance between the Mianyang Hi-Tech Industrial Development Zone and Mianyang Airport?
5727baf24b864d1900163bb3
8 km
173
False
How much value has Mianyang Hi-Tech Industrial Development Zone  output since inception?
5727baf24b864d1900163bb4
177.4 billion yuan
261
False
How many high-tech enterprises are present in the Mianyang Hi-Tech Industrial Development Zone ?
5727baf24b864d1900163bb5
136
402
False
Mianyang Hi-Tech Industrial Development Zone
0
What zone icludes 43 square miles?
5a515f57ce860b001aa3fd55
True
Mianyang Hi-Tech Industrial Development Zone
0
What city is the zone 8 km away from?
5a515f57ce860b001aa3fd56
True
Mianyang Airport
197
What airport is 96 km from the zone?
5a515f57ce860b001aa3fd57
True
high-tech enterprises
406
What enterprises make up 90% of China's industriall outpput?
5a515f57ce860b001aa3fd58
True
17 sq mi
101
What is the planned area of the Mianyang Airport?
5a6909a08476ee001a58aa04
True
8 km
173
What is the distance between the Mianyang Airport and Chengdu?
5a6909a08476ee001a58aa05
True
177.4 billion yuan
261
How much value has the Mianyang Airport output since inception?
5a6909a08476ee001a58aa06
True
136
402
How many high-tech enterprises are present in Chengdu?
5a6909a08476ee001a58aa07
True
136
402
How many zones accounted for more than 90% of total industrial output?
5a6909a08476ee001a58aa08
True
Mianyang Hi-Tech Industrial Development Zone was established in 1992, with a planned area of 43 km2 (17 sq mi). The zone is situated 96 kilometers away from Chengdu, and is 8 km (5.0 mi) away from Mianyang Airport. Since its establishment, the zone accumulated 177.4 billion yuan of industrial output, 46.2 billion yuan of gross domestic product, fiscal revenue 6.768 billion yuan. There are more than 136 high-tech enterprises in the zone and they accounted for more than 90% of the total industrial output.
How long did it take to complete the Sui-Yu Expressway?
5727bbc1ff5b5019007d93ae
three years
111
False
After the newest expressway was completed, what was the new travel time between Chengdu and Chongqing?
5727bbc1ff5b5019007d93af
two and a half hours
501
False
What is the speed limit on the Sui-Yu Expressway?
5727bbc1ff5b5019007d93b0
80 km/h (50 mph)
591
False
What was the total cost of the Sui-Yu Expressway?
5727bbc1ff5b5019007d93b1
1.045 billion yuan
634
False
How many lanes make up the Sui-Yu Expressway?
5727bbc1ff5b5019007d93b2
four lane
550
False
Sichuan Transportation Bureau
24
What did construction begin on in Nov 2007?
5a51603ace860b001aa3fd67
True
Sui-Yu Expressway
73
What took 3 years of planning?
5a51603ace860b001aa3fd68
True
Sui-Yu Expressway
73
What was the longest espressway from Chengdu to Chongqing?
5a51603ace860b001aa3fd69
True
pre-existing road between Chengdu and Chongqing
376
What is the expressway 50 km longer than?
5a51603ace860b001aa3fd6a
True
three years
111
How long did it take to complete the total investment?
5a690a338476ee001a58aa0e
True
two and a half hours
501
After the newest expressway was completed, what was the new travel time between Chengdu and Cheng-Nan?
5a690a338476ee001a58aa0f
True
80 km/h (50 mph)
591
What is the speed limit on the Chengdu expressway?
5a690a338476ee001a58aa10
True
1.045 billion yuan
634
What was the total cost of the Chengdu expressway?
5a690a338476ee001a58aa11
True
four lane
550
How many lanes make up the Chengdu expressway?
5a690a338476ee001a58aa12
True
On 3 November 2007, the Sichuan Transportation Bureau announced that the Sui-Yu Expressway was completed after three years of construction. After completion of the Chongqing section of the road, the 36.64 km (22.77 mi) expressway connected Cheng-Nan Expressway and formed the shortest expressway from Chengdu to Chongqing. The new expressway is 50 km (31 mi) shorter than the pre-existing road between Chengdu and Chongqing; thus journey time between the two cities was reduced by an hour, now taking two and a half hours. The Sui-Yu Expressway is a four lane overpass with a speed limit of 80 km/h (50 mph). The total investment was 1.045 billion yuan.
What race is the majority of Sichuan?
5727bc74ff5b5019007d93ca
Han Chinese
45
False
What is one of the largest minorities in Chengdu?
5727bc74ff5b5019007d93cb
Tibetan
445
False
Which part of Sichuan has the worst weather and subjected to natural disasters?
5727bc74ff5b5019007d93cc
far western areas.
130
False
How many permanent Tibetan people live in Chengdu?
5727bc74ff5b5019007d93cd
30,000
428
False
Han Chinese
45
What group makes up a minority of the privinces population?
5a5160dace860b001aa3fd6f
True
Tibetan, Yi, Qiang and Nakhi
181
What groups live in the eastern province?
5a5160dace860b001aa3fd70
True
western portion
231
Where do people benefit from mild climate?
5a5160dace860b001aa3fd71
True
Tibetans
413
What population includes 200,000 perminant residents?
5a5160dace860b001aa3fd72
True
Han Chinese
45
What race is the majority of Tibet?
5a690ae78476ee001a58aa22
True
Tibetan
181
What is one of the largest minorities in Yi?
5a690ae78476ee001a58aa23
True
far western areas
130
Which part of Sichuan has the worst weather and subjected to ethnic groups?
5a690ae78476ee001a58aa24
True
30,000
428
How many permanent Tibetan people live in Eastern Lipo?
5a690ae78476ee001a58aa25
True
200,000
473
How big is the Yi floating population?
5a690ae78476ee001a58aa26
True
The majority of the province's population is Han Chinese, who are found scattered throughout the region with the exception of the far western areas. Thus, significant minorities of Tibetan, Yi, Qiang and Nakhi people reside in the western portion that are impacted by inclement weather and natural disasters, environmentally fragile, and impoverished. Sichuan's capital of Chengdu is home to a large community of Tibetans, with 30,000 permanent Tibetan residents and up to 200,000 Tibetan floating population. The Eastern Lipo, included with either the Yi or the Lisu people, as well as the A-Hmao, also are among the ethnic groups of the provinces.
What are the three most populist provinces in China?
5727bce93acd2414000deb0b
Guangdong, Shandong and Henan
151
False
What was the population of Sichuan in 1832?
5727bce93acd2414000deb0c
21 million
299
False
What is the tenth most populous sub-national entity in the world?
5727bce93acd2414000deb0d
Sichuan
0
False
How many sub-national entities have surpassed 100 million people in total?
5727bce93acd2414000deb0e
six
532
False
In what year was the Soviet Union disbanded?
5727bce93acd2414000deb0f
1991
462
False
Guangdong, Shandong and Henan
151
What are the three most populous provinces in Russia?
5a690bc48476ee001a58aa36
True
21 million
299
What was the population of Maharashtra in 1832?
5a690bc48476ee001a58aa37
True
Sichuan
194
What is the tenth most populous sub-national entity in Henan?
5a690bc48476ee001a58aa38
True
six
532
How many sub-national entities have surpassed 21 million people in total?
5a690bc48476ee001a58aa39
True
1991
462
In what year was China disbanded?
5a690bc48476ee001a58aa3a
True
Sichuan was China's most populous province before Chongqing became a directly-controlled municipality; it is currently the fourth most populous, after Guangdong, Shandong and Henan. As of 1832, Sichuan was the most populous of the 18 provinces in China, with an estimated population at that time of 21 million. It was the third most populous sub-national entity in the world, after Uttar Pradesh, India and the Russian Soviet Federative Socialist Republic until 1991, when the Soviet Union was dissolved. It is also one of the only six to ever reach 100 million people (Uttar Pradesh, Russian RSFSR, Maharashtra, Sichuan, Bihar and Punjab). It is currently 10th.
What are the largest minorities of western Sichuan?
5727bd992ca10214002d9526
Tibetans and Qiang
122
False
What languages do Tibetans in Sichuan speak?
5727bd992ca10214002d9527
Khams and Amdo Tibetan
168
False
What language do the Yi people speak?
5727bd992ca10214002d9528
Nuosu
412
False
In what year was the language of the Yi people standardized?
5727bd992ca10214002d9529
1974
535
False
Which University houses one of China's most prominent Tibetology departments?
5727bd992ca10214002d952a
Southwest University for Nationalities
545
False
Tibetan and Qiang
46
What are the largest minorities of Southwest University for Nationalities?
5a690ca88476ee001a58aa4a
True
Khams and Amdo Tibetan
168
What languages do Tibetans in Burma speak?
5a690ca88476ee001a58aa4b
True
Nuosu
412
What language do the Mandarin people speak?
5a690ca88476ee001a58aa4c
True
1974
535
In what year was the language of the Mandarin people standardized?
5a690ca88476ee001a58aa4d
True
Southwest University for Nationalities
545
Which University houses one of China's most prominent Burmese departments?
5a690ca88476ee001a58aa4e
True
Garzê Tibetan Autonomous Prefecture and Ngawa Tibetan and Qiang Autonomous Prefecture in western Sichuan are populated by Tibetans and Qiang people. Tibetans speak the Khams and Amdo Tibetan, which are Tibetic languages, as well as various Qiangic languages. The Qiang speak Qiangic languages and often Tibetic languages as well. The Yi people of Liangshan Yi Autonomous Prefecture in southern Sichuan speak the Nuosu language, which is one of the Lolo-Burmese languages; Yi is written using the Yi script, a syllabary standardized in 1974. The Southwest University for Nationalities has one of China's most prominent Tibetology departments, and the Southwest Minorities Publishing House prints literature in minority languages. In the minority inhabited regions of Sichuan, there is bi-lingual signage and public school instruction in non-Mandarin minority languages.
The Sichuanese
0
Who is proud of their chefs?
5a690d568476ee001a58aa54
True
Sichuan cuisine
357
What is popular in the whole nation of Japan?
5a690d568476ee001a58aa55
True
Chen Kenichi
493
Who is Sichuan's son?
5a690d568476ee001a58aa56
True
spicy, hot, fresh and fragrant
325
What are the most prominent traits of Japanese cuisine?
5a690d568476ee001a58aa57
True
Chen Kenmin and his son Chen Kenichi
469
Who were featured on the Chinese television series "Iron Chef"?
5a690d568476ee001a58aa58
True
The Sichuanese are proud of their cuisine, known as one of the Four Great Traditions of Chinese cuisine. The cuisine here is of "one dish, one shape, hundreds of dishes, hundreds of tastes", as the saying goes, to describe its acclaimed diversity. The most prominent traits of Sichuanese cuisine are described by four words: spicy, hot, fresh and fragrant. Sichuan cuisine is popular in the whole nation of China, so are Sichuan chefs. Two well-known Sichuan chefs are Chen Kenmin and his son Chen Kenichi, who was Iron Chef Chinese on the Japanese television series "Iron Chef".
Unicode
What was Unicode published as?
5727b28f2ca10214002d942e
The Unicode Standard
253
False
What was unicode developed in conjunction with?
5727b28f2ca10214002d942f
Universal Coded Character Set (UCS)
191
False
What is the most recent version of Unicode?
5727b28f2ca10214002d9430
Unicode 8.0
927
False
Who maintains the Unicode Standard?
5727b28f2ca10214002d9431
Unicode Consortium
974
False
Unicode contains how many thousands of characters in its repertoire?
5727b28f2ca10214002d9432
120,000 characters
340
False
The Unicode Standard
253
What is the Universal Coded Character set published as?
5acd0dff07355d001abf3290
True
120,000
340
How many characters does Arabic have?
5acd0dff07355d001abf3291
True
129
368
How many scripts does UCS cover?
5acd0dff07355d001abf3292
True
UCS
222
What is the acronym for Unicode?
5acd0dff07355d001abf3293
True
Arabic
828
What is an example of a left-to-right script?
5acd0dff07355d001abf3294
True
Unicode is a computing industry standard for the consistent encoding, representation, and handling of text expressed in most of the world's writing systems. Developed in conjunction with the Universal Coded Character Set (UCS) standard and published as The Unicode Standard, the latest version of Unicode contains a repertoire of more than 120,000 characters covering 129 modern and historic scripts, as well as multiple symbol sets. The standard consists of a set of code charts for visual reference, an encoding method and set of standard character encodings, a set of reference data files, and a number of related items, such as character properties, rules for normalization, decomposition, collation, rendering, and bidirectional display order (for the correct display of text containing both right-to-left scripts, such as Arabic and Hebrew, and left-to-right scripts). As of June 2015[update], the most recent version is Unicode 8.0. The standard is maintained by the Unicode Consortium.
What are the most commonly used encodings of Unicode?
5727b3022ca10214002d9438
UTF-8, UTF-16 and the now-obsolete UCS-2
98
False
What does UTF-8 use in terms of bytes?
5727b3022ca10214002d9439
UTF-8 uses one byte for any ASCII character
140
False
What type of code does UCS-2 use?
5727b3022ca10214002d943a
16-bit code unit
314
False
What does UTF-16 expand?
5727b3022ca10214002d943b
UCS-2
450
False
How are two 16-bit units used?
5727b3022ca10214002d943c
(4 × 8 bits
552
False
Unicode
0
What are character encodings implemented by?
5acd0ee707355d001abf32b8
True
UTF-8, UTF-16
98
Which two encodings are now obsolete?
5acd0ee707355d001abf32b9
True
UTF-16
435
What did UCS-2 expand?
5acd0ee707355d001abf32ba
True
one
151
How many ASCII characters are used to make one UTF-8?
5acd0ee707355d001abf32bb
True
UTF-8
140
What system has a minimum of four bytes?
5acd0ee707355d001abf32bc
True
Unicode can be implemented by different character encodings. The most commonly used encodings are UTF-8, UTF-16 and the now-obsolete UCS-2. UTF-8 uses one byte for any ASCII character, all of which have the same code values in both UTF-8 and ASCII encoding, and up to four bytes for other characters. UCS-2 uses a 16-bit code unit (two 8-bit bytes) for each character but cannot encode every character in the current Unicode standard. UTF-16 extends UCS-2, using one 16-bit unit for the characters that were representable in UCS-2 and two 16-bit units (4 × 8 bits) to handle each of the additional characters.
What is the aim of Unicode?
5727b3b72ca10214002d9448
transcending the limitations of traditional character encodings
32
False
Traditional character encodings don't allow what type of computer processing?
5727b3b72ca10214002d9449
multilingual computer processing
422
False
What is multilingual computer processing?
5727b3b72ca10214002d944a
(computer processing of arbitrary scripts mixed with each other
455
False
Bilingual computer processing uses what characters?
5727b3b72ca10214002d944b
usually using Latin characters
360
False
What is the major limitation of traditional character encodings?
5727b3b72ca10214002d944c
wide usage in various countries of the world but remain largely incompatible with each other
156
False
ISO 8859 standard
126
What was Unicode defined in?
5acd0faf07355d001abf32cc
True
Latin
374
What characters does multilingual processors use?
5acd0faf07355d001abf32cd
True
traditional
255
What type of encodings do not allow bilingual computer processing?
5acd0faf07355d001abf32ce
True
wide usage in various countries of the world but remain largely incompatible with each other
156
What is the limitation of unicode globally?
5acd0faf07355d001abf32cf
True
Unicode
0
What are traditional character encodings attempting to surpass?
5acd0faf07355d001abf32d0
True
Unicode has the explicit aim of transcending the limitations of traditional character encodings, such as those defined by the ISO 8859 standard, which find wide usage in various countries of the world but remain largely incompatible with each other. Many traditional character encodings share a common problem in that they allow bilingual computer processing (usually using Latin characters and the local script), but not multilingual computer processing (computer processing of arbitrary scripts mixed with each other).
What were the first 256 code points of Unicode made identical to?
5727b735ff5b5019007d933e
ISO-8859-1
64
False
Why were the first 256 code points made identical to ISO-8859-1?
5727b735ff5b5019007d933f
to make it trivial to convert existing western text
81
False
What does the "fullwidth forms" section of code points encompass?
5727b735ff5b5019007d9340
a full Latin alphabet that is separate from the main Latin alphabet
452
False
What are the CJK languages referenced?
5727b735ff5b5019007d9341
Chinese, Japanese, and Korean
539
False
The first 256 code points
0
What did ISO-8859-1 copy?
5acd10bc07355d001abf32f4
True
CJK
570
Latin is what kind of language?
5acd10bc07355d001abf32f5
True
fullwidth forms
400
What are Latin characters called when they are half width?
5acd10bc07355d001abf32f6
True
to preserve distinctions used by legacy encodings
225
Why do coders avoid duplicate characters?
5acd10bc07355d001abf32f7
True
western
120
The 256 initial points make it difficult to translate what kind of text?
5acd10bc07355d001abf32f8
True
The first 256 code points were made identical to the content of ISO-8859-1 so as to make it trivial to convert existing western text. Many essentially identical characters were encoded multiple times at different code points to preserve distinctions used by legacy encodings and therefore, allow conversion from those encodings to Unicode (and back) without losing any information. For example, the "fullwidth forms" section of code points encompasses a full Latin alphabet that is separate from the main Latin alphabet section because in Chinese, Japanese, and Korean (CJK) fonts, these Latin characters are rendered at the same width as CJK ideographs, rather than at half the width. For other examples, see Duplicate characters in Unicode.
When was a surrogate character mechanism implemented in Unicode 2.0?
5727b7c62ca10214002d94ae
1996
3
False
Why was a surrogate character mechanism implemented?
5727b7c62ca10214002d94af
so that Unicode was no longer restricted to 16 bits
73
False
What are some characters not originally intended for Unicode?
5727b7c62ca10214002d94b0
rarely used Kanji or Chinese characters
443
False
Why are some foreign characters rarely used?
5727b7c62ca10214002d94b1
many of which are part of personal and place names
484
False
Why was the Unicode 2.0 codespace increased?
5727b7c62ca10214002d94b2
allowed for the encoding of many historic scripts
200
False
1996
3
When was Unicode restricted to 16 bits?
5acd118107355d001abf3326
True
personal and place names
510
What types of egyptian hieroglyphs are rarely used?
5acd118107355d001abf3327
True
Kanji
455
What are the extra Unicode characters called?
5acd118107355d001abf3328
True
historic scripts (e.g., Egyptian Hieroglyphs) and thousands of rarely used or obsolete characters
233
What types of characters were removed with Unicode 2.0?
5acd118107355d001abf3329
True
a surrogate character mechanism
9
What was removed in 1996?
5acd118107355d001abf332a
True
In 1996, a surrogate character mechanism was implemented in Unicode 2.0, so that Unicode was no longer restricted to 16 bits. This increased the Unicode codespace to over a million code points, which allowed for the encoding of many historic scripts (e.g., Egyptian Hieroglyphs) and thousands of rarely used or obsolete characters that had not been anticipated as needing encoding. Among the characters not originally intended for Unicode are rarely used Kanji or Chinese characters, many of which are part of personal and place names, making them rarely used, but much more essential than envisioned in the original architecture of Unicode.
What are the General Categories of Unicode?
5727dfedff5b5019007d9740
Letter, Mark, Number, Punctuation, Symbol, Separator and Other
82
False
What type of use is the General Category not helpful for?
5727dfedff5b5019007d9741
not useful for every use, since legacy encodings have used multiple characteristics per single code point
219
False
What is the General Category in Unicode?
5727dfedff5b5019007d9742
Other, Control
460
False
How many General Category properties does each code point have?
5727dfedff5b5019007d9743
a single General Category property
20
False
What exists within the main Unicode categories?
5727dfedff5b5019007d9744
subdivisions
181
False
Letter, Mark, Number, Punctuation, Symbol, Separator
82
What subcategories are found in the category Other?
5acd126d07355d001abf334c
True
General
199
Which category can always be used?
5acd126d07355d001abf334d
True
legacy encodings have used multiple characteristics per single code point
251
Why is Symbol not useful for all instances?
5acd126d07355d001abf334e
True
Other, Control
460
What is the title of the Separator category in Unicode?
5acd126d07355d001abf334f
True
General Category
439
"Other, Symbol" represents what unicode category?
5acd126d07355d001abf3350
True
Each code point has a single General Category property. The major categories are: Letter, Mark, Number, Punctuation, Symbol, Separator and Other. Within these categories, there are subdivisions. The General Category is not useful for every use, since legacy encodings have used multiple characteristics per single code point. E.g., U+000A <control-000A> Line feed (LF) in ASCII is both a control and a formatting separator; in Unicode the General Category is "Other, Control". Often, other properties must be used to specify the characteristics and behaviour of a code point. The possible General Categories are:
What are code points in the range U+D800-U+DBFF known as?
5727e25f3acd2414000deef7
high-surrogate code points
72
False
What are code points in the range U+DC00-U+DFFF known as?
5727e25f3acd2414000deef8
low-surrogate code points
176
False
what is another name for a high-surrogate code point?
5727e25f3acd2414000deef9
leading surrogate
248
False
what is another name for a low-surrogate code point?
5727e25f3acd2414000deefa
trailing surrogate
323
False
What is known as a character's scalar value?
5727e25f3acd2414000deefb
the range of code points that are available for use as characters
506
False
a surrogate pair
357
What is a low-surrogate followed by a high-surrogate called?
5acd131507355d001abf3368
True
trailing surrogate
323
What is another name for a surrogate pair?
5acd131507355d001abf3369
True
1,048,576
402
How many points are represented inside of BMP?
5acd131507355d001abf336a
True
High and low
437
Which kinds of code points are valid by themselves?
5acd131507355d001abf336b
True
scalar value
738
What is the individual number of code points called?
5acd131507355d001abf336c
True
Code points in the range U+D800–U+DBFF (1,024 code points) are known as high-surrogate code points, and code points in the range U+DC00–U+DFFF (1,024 code points) are known as low-surrogate code points. A high-surrogate code point (also known as a leading surrogate) followed by a low-surrogate code point (also known as a trailing surrogate) together form a surrogate pair used in UTF-16 to represent 1,048,576 code points outside BMP. High and low surrogate code points are not valid by themselves. Thus the range of code points that are available for use as characters is U+0000–U+D7FF and U+E000–U+10FFFF (1,112,064 code points). The value of these code points (i.e., excluding surrogates) is sometimes referred to as the character's scalar value.
What is an ogonek?
5727e7e12ca10214002d992e
a dot above
495
False
How does Unicode encode characters?
5727e7e12ca10214002d992f
associating an abstract character with a particular code point
197
False
How are some abstract characters represented in Unicode?
5727e7e12ca10214002d9930
a sequence of two or more characters
403
False
ogonek
487
What is another name for an acute accent?
5acd142f07355d001abf3390
True
an ogonek, a dot above, and an acute accent
484
What does Latin require?
5acd142f07355d001abf3391
True
a particular code point
236
What are format characters associated with?
5acd142f07355d001abf3392
True
the repertoire of abstract characters
92
What do sets of graphic characters directly correspond to?
5acd142f07355d001abf3393
True
abstract characters
278
What are all encoded as singular unicode characters?
5acd142f07355d001abf3394
True
The set of graphic and format characters defined by Unicode does not correspond directly to the repertoire of abstract characters that is representable under Unicode. Unicode encodes characters by associating an abstract character with a particular code point. However, not all abstract characters are encoded as a single Unicode character, and some abstract characters may be represented in Unicode by a sequence of two or more characters. For example, a Latin small letter "i" with an ogonek, a dot above, and an acute accent, which is required in Lithuanian, is represented by the character sequence U+012F, U+0307, U+0301. Unicode maintains a list of uniquely named character sequences for abstract characters that are not directly encoded in Unicode.
What policy guaranteed that characters have a unique and immutable name?
5727e8362ca10214002d9934
Name Stability policy
185
False
What happens when a name is defective or misleading?
5727e8362ca10214002d9935
a formal alias may be defined
309
False
How long has this name immutability been guaranteed?
5727e8362ca10214002d9936
since Unicode version 2.0
152
False
Name Stability
185
What policy identified misleading characters?
5acd157607355d001abf33de
True
the official character name
408
When an error is found, what is used in place of a formal alias?
5acd157607355d001abf33df
True
Unicode version 2.0
158
When was the formal alias yi created?
5acd157607355d001abf33e0
True
U+A015 ꀕ YI SYLLABLE WU
450
What is an example of a symbol that does not use a formal alias?
5acd157607355d001abf33e1
True
graphic, format, and private use
4
Which types of characters do not have unique names?
5acd157607355d001abf33e2
True
All graphic, format, and private use characters have a unique and immutable name by which they may be identified. This immutability has been guaranteed since Unicode version 2.0 by the Name Stability policy. In cases where the name is seriously defective and misleading, or has a serious typographical error, a formal alias may be defined, and applications are encouraged to use the formal alias in place of the official character name. For example, U+A015 ꀕ YI SYLLABLE WU has the formal alias yi syllable iteration mark, and U+FE18 ︘ PRESENTATION FORM FOR VERTICAL RIGHT WHITE LENTICULAR BRAKCET (sic) has the formal alias presentation form for vertical right white lenticular bracket.
Who was Unicode developed in conjunction with?
5727e8cc4b864d1900163fcc
International Organization for Standardization
45
False
What does Unicode share a character repertoire with?
5727e8cc4b864d1900163fcd
the Universal Character Set
148
False
What includes topics like bitwise encoding, collation, and rendering?
5727e8cc4b864d1900163fce
The Unicode Standard
253
False
What do the two standards differ in?
5727e8cc4b864d1900163fcf
slightly different terminology
551
False
International Organization for Standardization
45
Who created the character repertoire for IOS/IEC 10646?
5acd15fa07355d001abf3404
True
ISO/IEC 10646
133
What is another name for Unicode?
5acd15fa07355d001abf3405
True
Unicode
0
What is developed alongside the UCS?
5acd15fa07355d001abf3406
True
implementers
309
Unicode has more information regarding what?
5acd15fa07355d001abf3407
True
Unicode and ISO/IEC 10646
177
What have different character repertoires?
5acd15fa07355d001abf3408
True
Unicode is developed in conjunction with the International Organization for Standardization and shares the character repertoire with ISO/IEC 10646: the Universal Character Set. Unicode and ISO/IEC 10646 function equivalently as character encodings, but The Unicode Standard contains much more information for implementers, covering—in depth—topics such as bitwise encoding, collation and rendering. The Unicode Standard enumerates a multitude of character properties, including those needed for supporting bidirectional text. The two standards do use slightly different terminology.
When was the Unicode Standard first published?
5727e93b4b864d1900163fd4
1991
76
False
When was the latest version, Unicode 8.0, released?
5727e93b4b864d1900163fd5
June 2015
210
False
What was the last major version of Unicode to be published in book form?
5727e93b4b864d1900163fd6
Unicode 5.0
347
False
What year was it announced that only the core specification for Unicode would be printed in physical form?
5727e93b4b864d1900163fd7
2012
479
False
What does the print on demand, core version not include?
5727e93b4b864d1900163fd8
any code charts or standard annexes
750
False
1991
76
When was the Consortium founded?
5acd1b1d07355d001abf3542
True
June
210
What month did the Consortium first publish Unicode?
5acd1b1d07355d001abf3543
True
2012
479
When was it announced that Unicode would no longer be available in book form?
5acd1b1d07355d001abf3544
True
692
597
How many pages was the original Unicode standard?
5acd1b1d07355d001abf3545
True
code charts or standard annexes
754
What extra sections are not included on the Unicode website?
5acd1b1d07355d001abf3546
True
The Consortium first published The Unicode Standard (ISBN 0-321-18578-1) in 1991 and continues to develop standards based on that original work. The latest version of the standard, Unicode 8.0, was released in June 2015 and is available from the consortium's website. The last of the major versions (versions x.0) to be published in book form was Unicode 5.0 (ISBN 0-321-48091-0), but since Unicode 6.0 the full text of the standard is no longer being published in book form. In 2012, however, it was announced that only the core specification for Unicode version 6.1 would be made available as a 692-page print-on-demand paperback. Unlike the previous major version printings of the Standard, the print-on-demand core specification does not include any code charts or standard annexes, but the entire standard, including the core specification, will still remain freely available on the Unicode website.
Michael Everson, Rick McGowan, and Ken Whistler make up what group?
5727faefff5b5019007d99d0
Unicode Roadmap Committee
4
False
What does the Unicode Roadmap Commmittee do?
5727faefff5b5019007d99d1
maintain the list of scripts that are candidates or potential candidates for encoding
80
False
What proposal has been made for the Mayan script?
5727faefff5b5019007d99d2
no proposal has yet been made
488
False
Where does the Unicode Roadmap Committee post information on these scripts?
5727faefff5b5019007d99d3
Unicode Consortium Web site
244
False
Michael Everson, Rick McGowan, and Ken Whistler
31
Who are the potential candidates for encoding?
5acd1d2407355d001abf3588
True
The Unicode Roadmap Committee
0
Who made the proposal for the Mayan script?
5acd1d2407355d001abf3589
True
character repertoire
547
What needs to be agreed upon before a script for Jurchen is proposed?
5acd1d2407355d001abf358a
True
Jurchen, Nü Shu, and Tangut
314
Which scripts are user committees no longer proposing?
5acd1d2407355d001abf358b
True
user
595
What committies have to approve proposals?
5acd1d2407355d001abf358c
True
The Unicode Roadmap Committee (Michael Everson, Rick McGowan, and Ken Whistler) maintain the list of scripts that are candidates or potential candidates for encoding and their tentative code block assignments on the Unicode Roadmap page of the Unicode Consortium Web site. For some scripts on the Roadmap, such as Jurchen, Nü Shu, and Tangut, encoding proposals have been made and they are working their way through the approval process. For others scripts, such as Mayan and Rongorongo, no proposal has yet been made, and they await agreement on character repertoire and other details from the user communities involved.
How many mapping methods does Unicode define?
5728027a4b864d1900164208
two
16
False
What are the two mapping methods that Unicode defines?
5728027a4b864d1900164209
Unicode Transformation Format (UTF) encodings, and the Universal Coded Character Set (UCS) encodings
41
False
What do numbers in the names of the encodings indicate?
5728027a4b864d190016420a
the number of bits per code value (for UTF encodings) or the number of bytes per code value
336
False
What are the most commonly used encodings?
5728027a4b864d190016420b
UTF-8 and UTF-16
449
False
What does UCS stand for?
5728027a4b864d190016420c
Universal Coded Character Set
96
False
two
16
How many mapping modes does USC have?
5acd1db907355d001abf35a6
True
the range of Unicode code points
183
What maps an encoding?
5acd1db907355d001abf35a7
True
UCS-2
513
What is the subset of UTF-8?
5acd1db907355d001abf35a8
True
UTF-16
544
What is functionally equivalent to USC-2?
5acd1db907355d001abf35a9
True
the range of Unicode code points
183
What do the sequences of values indicate?
5acd1db907355d001abf35aa
True
Unicode defines two mapping methods: the Unicode Transformation Format (UTF) encodings, and the Universal Coded Character Set (UCS) encodings. An encoding maps (possibly a subset of) the range of Unicode code points to sequences of values in some fixed-size range, termed code values. The numbers in the names of the encodings indicate the number of bits per code value (for UTF encodings) or the number of bytes per code value (for UCS encodings). UTF-8 and UTF-16 are probably the most commonly used encodings. UCS-2 is an obsolete subset of UTF-16; UCS-4 and UTF-32 are functionally equivalent.
What does BOM stand for?
572802e54b864d190016421c
Unicode Byte Order Mark
43
False
What specifies the BOM?
572802e54b864d190016421d
UCS-2 and UTF-16
4
False
what is the code point of the BOM?
572802e54b864d190016421e
U+FEFF
212
False
What is U+UFFE the result of?
572802e54b864d190016421f
byte-swapping U+FEFF
341
False
U+FEFF
212
What is the code point for BOM?
5acd209007355d001abf35ea
True
the Unicode encoding used
292
What changes the important property in BOM?
5acd209007355d001abf35eb
True
a legal character
382
U+FFFE is equated to what?
5acd209007355d001abf35ec
True
the Unicode Byte Order Mark
39
What are UCS-2 and UTF-16 specified by?
5acd209007355d001abf35ed
True
BOM
68
What is the abbreviation for UCS-2 and UTF-16?
5acd209007355d001abf35ee
True
The UCS-2 and UTF-16 encodings specify the Unicode Byte Order Mark (BOM) for use at the beginnings of text files, which may be used for byte ordering detection (or byte endianness detection). The BOM, code point U+FEFF has the important property of unambiguity on byte reorder, regardless of the Unicode encoding used; U+FFFE (the result of byte-swapping U+FEFF) does not equate to a legal character, and U+FEFF in other places, other than the beginning of text, conveys the zero-width non-break space (a character with no appearance and no effect other than preventing the formation of ligatures).
What is the UTF-8 standard?
572805f5ff5b5019007d9b1a
RFC 3629
351
False
Byte order marks are forbidden in protocols using what standard?
572805f5ff5b5019007d9b1b
UTF-8
446
False
Why is it possible to distinguish UTF-8 from other protocols?
572805f5ff5b5019007d9b1c
the large restriction on possible patterns
522
False
where the character set is unmarked
162
BOM can not replace what kind of UTF-8 text?
5acd211a07355d001abf35fe
True
BOM
111
What is used to distinguish local 8-bit code pages?
5acd211a07355d001abf35ff
True
RFC 3629
351
What is the name of the BOM standard?
5acd211a07355d001abf3600
True
lone
608
What type of bytes are required in a high bit set?
5acd211a07355d001abf3601
True
possible patterns in UTF-8
547
What type of patterns are rarely resticted?
5acd211a07355d001abf3602
True
The same character converted to UTF-8 becomes the byte sequence EF BB BF. The Unicode Standard allows that the BOM "can serve as signature for UTF-8 encoded text where the character set is unmarked". Some software developers have adopted it for other encodings, including UTF-8, in an attempt to distinguish UTF-8 from local 8-bit code pages. However RFC 3629, the UTF-8 standard, recommends that byte order marks be forbidden in protocols using UTF-8, but discusses the cases where this may not be possible. In addition, the large restriction on possible patterns in UTF-8 (for instance there cannot be any lone bytes with the high bit set) means that it should be possible to distinguish UTF-8 from other character encodings without relying on the BOM.
How is UTF-32 widely used?
57280742ff5b5019007d9b3c
internal representation of text in programs
365
False
What programming language uses UTF-32 as internal representation of characters?
57280742ff5b5019007d9b3d
Seed7
623
False
what version of python can be used with UTF-32?
57280742ff5b5019007d9b3e
2.2
763
False
endianness
128
What does not vary across platforms?
5acd21f407355d001abf361c
True
Seed7
623
What uses UCS-4 as an internal representation?
5acd21f407355d001abf361d
True
2.2
763
What is the last version of Python that can use UTF-32?
5acd21f407355d001abf361e
True
gcc compilers
501
What does Python use to generate the standard wide character encoding?
5acd21f407355d001abf361f
True
UTF-32
337
What is used to represent transmitted text?
5acd21f407355d001abf3620
True
In UTF-32 and UCS-4, one 32-bit code value serves as a fairly direct representation of any character's code point (although the endianness, which varies across different platforms, affects how the code value manifests as an octet sequence). In the other encodings, each code point may be represented by a variable number of code values. UTF-32 is widely used as an internal representation of text in programs (as opposed to stored or transmitted text), since every Unix operating system that uses the gcc compilers to generate software uses it as the standard "wide character" encoding. Some programming languages, such as Seed7, use UTF-32 as internal representation for strings and characters. Recent versions of the Python programming language (beginning with 2.2) may also be configured to use UTF-32 as the representation for Unicode strings, effectively disseminating such encoding in high-level coded software.
What combinations does unicode contain in normal use?
572808464b864d1900164292
most letter/diacritic combinations
324
False
How is the latin small letter e represented in Unicode?
572808464b864d1900164293
U+0065
597
False
How is the accent added to the small latin e?
572808464b864d1900164294
U+0301
639
False
What precomposed character represents the small latin e with an accent?
572808464b864d1900164295
U+00E9
732
False
diacritical marks
145
What are inserted before a main character?
5acd22b507355d001abf3644
True
the same character
258
What cannot have multiple instances of diacritics?
5acd22b507355d001abf3645
True
combining characters
527
What do applications have to implement?
5acd22b507355d001abf3646
True
the mechanism of canonical equivalence
888
What prevents redundancy in the ways you can make one character?
5acd22b507355d001abf3647
True
U+0065
597
How is the capital letter e indicated in unicode?
5acd22b507355d001abf3648
True
Unicode includes a mechanism for modifying character shape that greatly extends the supported glyph repertoire. This covers the use of combining diacritical marks. They are inserted after the main character. Multiple combining diacritics may be stacked over the same character. Unicode also contains precomposed versions of most letter/diacritic combinations in normal use. These make conversion to and from legacy encodings simpler, and allow applications to use Unicode as an internal text format without having to implement combining characters. For example, é can be represented in Unicode as U+0065 (LATIN SMALL LETTER E) followed by U+0301 (COMBINING ACUTE ACCENT), but it can also be represented as the precomposed character U+00E9 (LATIN SMALL LETTER E WITH ACUTE). Thus, in many cases, users have multiple ways of encoding the same character. To deal with this, Unicode provides the mechanism of canonical equivalence.
The CJK ideographs comprise simpler elements called what in English?
572809a13acd2414000df2f7
radicals
145
False
Why have ideographs been unable to be simplified like Hangul?
572809a13acd2414000df2f8
ideographs do not decompose as simply or as regularly
611
False
What would be the benefit of Unicode decomposing  ideographs?
572809a13acd2414000df2f9
greatly reduced the number of required code points
259
False
CJK
4
What ideographs do not have codes for their precomposed form yet?
5acd236507355d001abf3674
True
radicals
145
What are precomposed forms called in English?
5acd236507355d001abf3675
True
simpler elements
114
What are called radicals in Hangul?
5acd236507355d001abf3676
True
decomposed them
203
What did Unicode do to CJK ideographs?
5acd236507355d001abf3677
True
ideographs
611
What decomposes regularly in Wubi?
5acd236507355d001abf3678
True
The CJK ideographs currently have codes only for their precomposed form. Still, most of those ideographs comprise simpler elements (often called radicals in English), so in principle, Unicode could have decomposed them, as it did with Hangul. This would have greatly reduced the number of required code points, while allowing the display of virtually every conceivable ideograph (which might do away with some of the problems caused by Han unification). A similar idea is used by some input methods, such as Cangjie and Wubi. However, attempts to do this for character encoding have stumbled over the fact that ideographs do not decompose as simply or as regularly as Hangul does.
What does ACE stand for?
572809e22ca10214002d9c44
Arabic Calligraphic Engine
292
False
Who created ACE?
572809e22ca10214002d9c45
DecoType
322
False
When was ACE created?
572809e22ca10214002d9c46
1980s
338
False
Who created OpenType?
572809e22ca10214002d9c47
Adobe and Microsoft
490
False
Who created Graphite?
572809e22ca10214002d9c48
SIL International
525
False
1980s
338
When was OpenType created?
5acd23f607355d001abf3686
True
Arabic Calligraphic Engine
292
What does AAT stand for?
5acd23f607355d001abf3687
True
Apple
556
Who partnered with SIL International?
5acd23f607355d001abf3688
True
Adobe and Microsoft
490
Which two companies produced DecoType?
5acd23f607355d001abf3689
True
Arabic and Devanagari
24
What are two examples of scripts without orthographic rules?
5acd23f607355d001abf368a
True
Many scripts, including Arabic and Devanagari, have special orthographic rules that require certain combinations of letterforms to be combined into special ligature forms. The rules governing ligature formation can be quite complex, requiring special script-shaping technologies such as ACE (Arabic Calligraphic Engine by DecoType in the 1980s and used to generate all the Arabic examples in the printed editions of the Unicode Standard), which became the proof of concept for OpenType (by Adobe and Microsoft), Graphite (by SIL International), or AAT (by Apple).
where are instructions embedded to tell fonts how to output sequences?
57280b6b4b864d19001642ec
in fonts
31
False
Can real stacking be accomplished?
57280b6b4b864d19001642ed
Real stacking is impossible
598
False
what is a solution to the placement of combining marks?
57280b6b4b864d19001642ee
assigning the marks a width of zero and placing the glyph itself to the left or right of the left sidebearing
194
False
Real
598
What type of stacking is required?
5acd24b707355d001abf36aa
True
monospaced
817
Approximated stacking is not possible with what kinds of fonts?
5acd24b707355d001abf36ab
True
fonts
34
What does the operating system tell what to do?
5acd24b707355d001abf36ac
True
zero
225
What numerical value is assigned to the glyph?
5acd24b707355d001abf36ad
True
the base glyph
523
What is a mark adjust its position relative to?
5acd24b707355d001abf36ae
True
Instructions are also embedded in fonts to tell the operating system how to properly output different character sequences. A simple solution to the placement of combining marks or diacritics is assigning the marks a width of zero and placing the glyph itself to the left or right of the left sidebearing (depending on the direction of the script they are intended to be used with). A mark handled this way will appear over whatever character precedes it, but will not adjust its position relative to the width or height of the base glyph; it may be visually awkward and it may overlap some glyphs. Real stacking is impossible, but can be approximated in limited cases (for example, Thai top-combining vowels and tone marks can just be at different heights to start with). Generally this approach is only effective in monospaced fonts, but may be used as a fallback rendering method when more complex methods fail.
What subset of Unicode is used by Windows?
57280bee2ca10214002d9c96
WGL-4 with 652 characters
93
False
What are MES-1, MES-2, AND MES-3A AND MES-3B part of?
57280bee2ca10214002d9c97
Multilingual European Subsets
281
False
What subset includes every character in MES-1 and WGL-4?
57280bee2ca10214002d9c98
MES-2
474
False
How long has Microsoft Windows supported WGL-4?
57280bee2ca10214002d9c99
since Windows NT 4.0
63
False
MES-1 uses what scripts only?
57280bee2ca10214002d9c9a
Latin scripts only
319
False
Microsoft Windows
45
What system uses MES-3A?
5acd276d07355d001abf3706
True
335
339
How many Latin characters are supported in WGL-4?
5acd276d07355d001abf3707
True
1062
389
How many characters are in MES-3B?
5acd276d07355d001abf3708
True
MES-1 and WGL-4
508
MES-3A combines which two other sets?
5acd276d07355d001abf3709
True
MES-1
312
What subset only uses the Greek script?
5acd276d07355d001abf370a
True
Several subsets of Unicode are standardized: Microsoft Windows since Windows NT 4.0 supports WGL-4 with 652 characters, which is considered to support all contemporary European languages using the Latin, Greek, or Cyrillic script. Other standardized subsets of Unicode include the Multilingual European Subsets: MES-1 (Latin scripts only, 335 characters), MES-2 (Latin, Greek and Cyrillic 1062 characters) and MES-3A & MES-3B (two larger subsets, not shown here). Note that MES-2 includes every character in MES-1 and WGL-4.
What does rendering software display when it can't process a Unicode character?
57280ea3ff5b5019007d9bf6
open rectangle, or the Unicode "replacement character"
98
False
What is the code for the Unicode replacement character?
57280ea3ff5b5019007d9bf7
U+FFFD
154
False
What is the name of Apple's font?
57280ea3ff5b5019007d9bf8
Last Resort
317
False
What does SIL's Unicode Fallback font display when it can't display a character properly?
57280ea3ff5b5019007d9bf9
a box showing the hexadecimal scalar value of the character
476
False
What company uses the Unicode Fallback font?
57280ea3ff5b5019007d9bfa
SIL International
421
False
U+FFFD
154
What is the Unicode for an open rectangle?
5acd29f507355d001abf3772
True
Apple
309
What company uses U+FFFD?
5acd29f507355d001abf3773
True
�
162
What is the glyph that Apple's Last Resort font displays?
5acd29f507355d001abf3774
True
Unicode Fallback
441
What software by SIL cannot process unicode characters?
5acd29f507355d001abf3775
True
Rendering software which cannot process a Unicode character appropriately often displays it as an open rectangle, or the Unicode "replacement character" (U+FFFD, �), to indicate the position of the unrecognized character. Some systems have made attempts to provide more information about such characters. The Apple's Last Resort font will display a substitute glyph indicating the Unicode range of the character, and the SIL International's Unicode Fallback font will display a box showing the hexadecimal scalar value of the character.
What is the dominant scheme for internal processing?
57280fad3acd2414000df365
Unicode
0
False
What is Unicode available through Windows on?
57280fad3acd2414000df366
Microsoft Layer
779
False
What was the two-byte precursor to UTF-16?
57280fad3acd2414000df367
UCS-2
264
False
What is used almost exclusively for building new information processing systems?
57280fad3acd2414000df368
Unicode
151
False
building new information processing systems
190
What are legacy encodings used exclusively for?
5acd2c8407355d001abf37ce
True
UTF-16
309
What was the precursor to the UCS-2?
5acd2c8407355d001abf37cf
True
Windows 2000, Windows XP, Windows Vista and Windows 7
521
What descended from Mac OS X?
5acd2c8407355d001abf37d0
True
bytecode environments
654
What are Mac OS X and KDE called?
5acd2c8407355d001abf37d1
True
UCS-2
264
What is fixed-width one byte?
5acd2c8407355d001abf37d2
True
Unicode has become the dominant scheme for internal processing and storage of text. Although a great deal of text is still stored in legacy encodings, Unicode is used almost exclusively for building new information processing systems. Early adopters tended to use UCS-2 (the fixed-width two-byte precursor to UTF-16) and later moved to UTF-16 (the variable-width current standard), as this was the least disruptive way to add support for non-BMP characters. The best known such system is Windows NT (and its descendants, Windows 2000, Windows XP, Windows Vista and Windows 7), which uses UTF-16 as the sole internal character encoding. The Java and .NET bytecode environments, Mac OS X, and KDE also use it for internal representation. Unicode is available on Windows 95 through Microsoft Layer for Unicode, as well as on its descendants, Windows 98 and Windows ME.
What is recommended for email transmission of Unicode?
572810c62ca10214002d9d00
the UTF-8 character set and the Base64 or the Quoted-printable transfer encoding
323
False
Where are the details of the two mechanisms for email transmission specified?
572810c62ca10214002d9d01
MIME standards
557
False
How many different mechanisms does MIME define for encoding Unicode in email?
572810c62ca10214002d9d02
two different mechanisms
13
False
two
13
How many ways can ASCII characters be encoded in an email?
5acd2f3507355d001abf382e
True
Subject:
153
What is another way to refer to the text body?
5acd2f3507355d001abf382f
True
MIME standards
557
What specifications are visible to the user?
5acd2f3507355d001abf3830
True
email transmission
293
When is Base64 not recommended?
5acd2f3507355d001abf3831
True
MIME defines two different mechanisms for encoding non-ASCII characters in email, depending on whether the characters are in email headers (such as the "Subject:"), or in the text body of the message; in both cases, the original character set is identified as well as a transfer encoding. For email transmission of Unicode the UTF-8 character set and the Base64 or the Quoted-printable transfer encoding are recommended, depending on whether much of the message consists of ASCII-characters. The details of the two different mechanisms are specified in the MIME standards and generally are hidden from users of email software.
How many fonts support the majority of Unicode's character repertoire?
572812d44b864d19001643c8
fewer than a dozen fonts
44
False
What are the fonts that support Unicode referred to as?
572812d44b864d19001643c9
"pan-Unicode" fonts
92
False
Unicode-based fonts are normally focused on supporting what?
572812d44b864d19001643ca
basic ASCII and particular scripts or sets of characters or symbols
243
False
pan-Unicode
93
What are most of the fonts on the market called?
5acd309b07355d001abf3888
True
basic ASCII and particular scripts or sets of characters or symbols
243
Pan unicode fonts only support what?
5acd309b07355d001abf3889
True
applications and documents
351
What normally need more than one or two writing systems?
5acd309b07355d001abf388a
True
font substitution
663
What is another name for computing environments?
5acd309b07355d001abf388b
True
Thousands of fonts exist on the market, but fewer than a dozen fonts—sometimes described as "pan-Unicode" fonts—attempt to support the majority of Unicode's character repertoire. Instead, Unicode-based fonts typically focus on supporting only basic ASCII and particular scripts or sets of characters or symbols. Several reasons justify this approach: applications and documents rarely need to render characters from more than one or two writing systems; fonts tend to demand resources in computing environments; and operating systems and applications show increasing intelligence in regard to obtaining glyph information from separate font files as needed, i.e., font substitution. Furthermore, designing a consistent set of rendering instructions for tens of thousands of glyphs constitutes a monumental task; such a venture passes the point of diminishing returns for most typefaces.
What is the code for separating lines?
572813b04b864d19001643e2
U+2028
44
False
What is the code for separating paragraphs?
572813b04b864d19001643e3
U+2029
70
False
How is newline normalization accomplished in Mac OS X?
572813b04b864d19001643e4
Cocoa text system
602
False
How does the newliine normallization format work?
572813b04b864d19001643e5
every possible newline character is converted internally to a common newline
697
False
U+2028 LINE SEPARATOR and U+2029 PARAGRAPH SEPARATOR
44
What widely adopted solution did Unicode provide?
5acd431a07355d001abf3af0
True
Mac OS X
623
What uses HTML recommendations?
5acd431a07355d001abf3af1
True
it is an internal operation just for rendering
814
Why does it matter which newline character is chosen?
5acd431a07355d001abf3af2
True
W3C XML
646
What is the name of the Cocoa text system?
5acd431a07355d001abf3af3
True
every possible newline character
697
What are common newlines converted into?
5acd431a07355d001abf3af4
True
In terms of the newline, Unicode introduced U+2028 LINE SEPARATOR and U+2029 PARAGRAPH SEPARATOR. This was an attempt to provide a Unicode solution to encoding paragraphs and lines semantically, potentially replacing all of the various platform solutions. In doing so, Unicode does provide a way around the historical platform dependent solutions. Nonetheless, few if any Unicode solutions have adopted these Unicode line and paragraph separators as the sole canonical line ending characters. However, a common approach to solving this issue is through newline normalization. This is achieved with the Cocoa text system in Mac OS X and also with W3C XML and HTML recommendations. In this approach every possible newline character is converted internally to a common newline (which one does not really matter since it is an internal operation just for rendering). In other words, the text system can correctly treat the character as a newline, regardless of the input's actual encoding.
Why has Unicode been criticized for not separately encoding forms of kanji?
572814a54b864d190016440e
complicates the processing of ancient Japanese and uncommon Japanese names
120
False
What is TRON?
572814a54b864d190016440f
alternative encodings that preserve the stylistic differences between Chinese, Japanese, and Korean characters
580
False
What perception does the unification of glyphs cause?
572814a54b864d1900164410
the languages themselves, not just the basic character representation, are being merged
426
False
glyphs
270
What does Unicode encode instead of characters?
5acd478d07355d001abf3bf8
True
the visual representations of the basic character that often vary from one language to another
278
What are characters defined as?
5acd478d07355d001abf3bf9
True
TRON
766
What alternative has become popular in Japan?
5acd478d07355d001abf3bfa
True
Chinese, Japanese, and Korean
650
What languages do not suffer from the unification of glyphs?
5acd478d07355d001abf3bfb
True
the languages themselves
426
What are being merged alongside just the glyphs?
5acd478d07355d001abf3bfc
True
Unicode has been criticized for failing to separately encode older and alternative forms of kanji which, critics argue, complicates the processing of ancient Japanese and uncommon Japanese names. This is often due to the fact that Unicode encodes characters rather than glyphs (the visual representations of the basic character that often vary from one language to another). Unification of glyphs leads to the perception that the languages themselves, not just the basic character representation, are being merged.[clarification needed] There have been several attempts to create alternative encodings that preserve the stylistic differences between Chinese, Japanese, and Korean characters in opposition to Unicode's policy of Han unification. An example of one is TRON (although it is not widely adopted in Japan, there are some users who need to handle historical Japanese text and favor it).
what tables of OpenType allow permit the selection of alternative glyph representations?
572815a04b864d190016443a
Advanced Typographic
240
False
Where is information provided to designate which character form to select?
572815a04b864d190016443b
plain text
460
False
How does modern font technology address the issue of depicting a Han character in alternate glyph representations?
572815a04b864d190016443c
Unicode variation sequences
194
False
Modern font technology
0
What has worsened the practical aspects of unification?
5acd4aa407355d001abf3c28
True
Advanced Typographic tables
240
What prevents OpenType from having alternative glyphs?
5acd4aa407355d001abf3c29
True
plain text
460
What designates which alternate character to select?
5acd4aa407355d001abf3c2a
True
Modern font technology provides a means to address the practical issue of needing to depict a unified Han character in terms of a collection of alternative glyph representations, in the form of Unicode variation sequences. For example, the Advanced Typographic tables of OpenType permit one of a number of alternative glyph representations to be selected when performing the character to glyph mapping process. In this case, information can be provided within plain text to designate which alternate character form to select.
Unicode was designed for a round trip format conversion to and from what?
57281627ff5b5019007d9cd4
preexisting character encodings
102
False
How many encoding forms are there for Korean Hangul?
57281627ff5b5019007d9cd5
three different encoding forms
478
False
Since what version can already existing characters no longer be added to the standard?
57281627ff5b5019007d9cd6
version 3.0
534
False
preexisting character encodings
102
What is Unicode converted into?
5acd55da07355d001abf3d98
True
three
478
How many encoding forms does Unicode have?
5acd55da07355d001abf3d99
True
3.0
542
After what version did it become possible to add preexisting characters?
5acd55da07355d001abf3d9a
True
precomposed characters that can be represented by a combining sequence of already existing characters
551
What type of characters can be added in versions post 3.0?
5acd55da07355d001abf3d9b
True
interoperability
713
What does adding characters help to preserve?
5acd55da07355d001abf3d9c
True
Unicode was designed to provide code-point-by-code-point round-trip format conversion to and from any preexisting character encodings, so that text files in older character sets can be naïvely converted to Unicode, and then back and get back the same file. That has meant that inconsistent legacy architectures, such as combining diacritics and precomposed characters, both exist in Unicode, giving more than one method of representing some text. This is most pronounced in the three different encoding forms for Korean Hangul. Since version 3.0, any precomposed characters that can be represented by a combining sequence of already existing characters can no longer be added to the standard in order to preserve interoperability between software using different versions of Unicode.
What kind of mappings must be provided between characters in existing legacy character sets and those in Unicode?
572816943acd2414000df433
Injective mappings
0
False
A lack of consistency between what earlier Japanese encodings and unicode led to mismatches?
572816943acd2414000df434
Shift-JIS or EUC-JP
283
False
what is the fullwidth tilde character code in Microsoft Windows?
572816943acd2414000df435
U+FF5E
487
False
Injective mappings
0
What helps to convert characters out of Unicode?
5acd56b907355d001abf3db6
True
Microsoft Windows
516
WAVE DASH is only found in what version of OS?
5acd56b907355d001abf3db7
True
U+FF5E
487
What is the Windows code for EUC-JP?
5acd56b907355d001abf3db8
True
Shift-JIS or EUC-JP
283
What are the names of the two forms of Unicode?
5acd56b907355d001abf3db9
True
round-trip format conversion mismatches
322
What does a lack of consistency prevent?
5acd56b907355d001abf3dba
True
Injective mappings must be provided between characters in existing legacy character sets and characters in Unicode to facilitate conversion to Unicode and allow interoperability with legacy software. Lack of consistency in various mappings between earlier Japanese encodings such as Shift-JIS or EUC-JP and Unicode led to round-trip format conversion mismatches, particularly the mapping of the character JIS X 0208 '～' (1-33, WAVE DASH), heavily used in legacy database data, to either U+FF5E ～ FULLWIDTH TILDE (in Microsoft Windows) or U+301C 〜 WAVE DASH (other vendors).
How many code points are tamil and Devanagari allocated?
5728171b4b864d1900164452
128
67
False
What is another word for ligatures?
5728171b4b864d1900164453
conjuncts
267
False
What is the ISCII standard?
5728171b4b864d1900164454
128 code points
67
False
128 code
67
How many points is Arabic given?
5acd579107355d001abf3dec
True
local scholars
302
Who argued Indic scripts should follow the practice of other writing systems?
5acd579107355d001abf3ded
True
Unicode is an encoding independent of font variations
661
Why are more ligatures in Unicode likely to happen?
5acd579107355d001abf3dee
True
Chinese National Standard
786
Which organization successfully argued for the Tibetan script?
5acd579107355d001abf3def
True
visual order
220
What is the visual order transformed into?
5acd579107355d001abf3df0
True
Indic scripts such as Tamil and Devanagari are each allocated only 128 code points, matching the ISCII standard. The correct rendering of Unicode Indic text requires transforming the stored logical order characters into visual order and the forming of ligatures (aka conjuncts) out of components. Some local scholars argued in favor of assignments of Unicode code points to these ligatures, going against the practice for other writing systems, though Unicode contains some Arabic and other ligatures for backward compatibility purposes only. Encoding of any new ligatures in Unicode will not happen, in part because the set of ligatures is font-dependent, and Unicode is an encoding independent of font variations. The same kind of issue arose for Tibetan script[citation needed] (the Chinese National Standard organization failed to achieve a similar change).
What standard did Unicode inherit involving a Thai language?
572817d93acd2414000df455
Thai Industrial Standard 620
317
False
Why has Thai alphabet support been criticized?
572817d93acd2414000df456
its ordering of Thai characters
46
False
How are the Thai characters ordered incorrectly?
572817d93acd2414000df457
Thai characters. The vowels เ, แ, โ, ใ, ไ that are written to the left of the preceding consonant are in visual order instead of phonetic order
62
False
phonetic order
191
How are Thai characters written similarly to other Unicode scripts?
5acd58ac07355d001abf3e14
True
Thai Industrial Standard 620
317
What standard did Unicode create for the Thai language?
5acd58ac07355d001abf3e15
True
Thai alphabet support
0
Who criticized the order of Thai characters?
5acd58ac07355d001abf3e16
True
keyboards
434
What kind of machine was the Thai Industrial Standard 620 not implemented on?
5acd58ac07355d001abf3e17
True
The vowels เ, แ, โ, ใ, ไ
79
What are written to the right of the preceding consonant?
5acd58ac07355d001abf3e18
True
Thai alphabet support has been criticized for its ordering of Thai characters. The vowels เ, แ, โ, ใ, ไ that are written to the left of the preceding consonant are in visual order instead of phonetic order, unlike the Unicode representations of other Indic scripts. This complication is due to Unicode inheriting the Thai Industrial Standard 620, which worked in the same way, and was the way in which Thai had always been written on keyboards. This ordering problem complicates the Unicode collation process slightly, requiring table lookups to reorder Thai characters for collation. Even if Unicode had adopted encoding according to spoken order, it would still be problematic to collate words in dictionary order. E.g., the word แสดง  [sa dɛːŋ] "perform" starts with a consonant cluster "สด" (with an inherent vowel for the consonant "ส"), the vowel แ-, in spoken order would come after the ด, but in a dictionary, the word is collated as it is written, with the vowel following the ส.
How are characters with diacritical marks represented?
572818e3ff5b5019007d9d30
either as a single precomposed character or as a decomposed sequence of a base letter plus one or more non-spacing marks
63
False
What encoding does Charis SIL use?
572818e3ff5b5019007d9d31
Graphite, OpenType, or AAT technologies
905
False
What is the issue with underdots and their placement?
572818e3ff5b5019007d9d32
often be placed incorrectly
607
False
Characters with what marks can be displayed as a single character or a decomposed sequence?
572818e3ff5b5019007d9d33
diacritical marks
16
False
How should the characters with the macron and acute be displayed?
572818e3ff5b5019007d9d34
identically
340
False
one
154
What is the maximum number of non-spacing marks?
5acd59fb07355d001abf3e58
True
underdots
551
What romanization mark is rarely visually incorrect?
5acd59fb07355d001abf3e59
True
Charis SIL
884
What is the name of the rendering technology OpenType uses?
5acd59fb07355d001abf3e5a
True
Characters with diacritical marks
0
What are rendered identically in practice?
5acd59fb07355d001abf3e5b
True
romanization
579
Macrons are used only in what form of Idic?
5acd59fb07355d001abf3e5c
True
Characters with diacritical marks can generally be represented either as a single precomposed character or as a decomposed sequence of a base letter plus one or more non-spacing marks. For example, ḗ (precomposed e with macron and acute above) and ḗ (e followed by the combining macron above and combining acute above) should be rendered identically, both appearing as an e with a macron and acute accent, but in practice, their appearance may vary depending upon what rendering engine and fonts are being used to display the characters. Similarly, underdots, as needed in the romanization of Indic, will often be placed incorrectly[citation needed]. Unicode characters that map to precomposed glyphs can be used in many cases, thus avoiding the problem, but where no precomposed character has been encoded the problem can often be solved by using a specialist Unicode font such as Charis SIL that uses Graphite, OpenType, or AAT technologies for advanced rendering features.
Detroit
What city has the biggest population in Michigan?
5727b338ff5b5019007d92f0
Detroit
0
False
What is the name of the county that Detroit is a part of?
5727b338ff5b5019007d92f1
Wayne County
192
False
How many people inhabit metro Detroit?
5727b338ff5b5019007d92f2
5.3 million
309
False
What is the name of the river that runs through Detroit?
5727b338ff5b5019007d92f3
Detroit River
506
False
In what region of the country is Detroit located?
5727b338ff5b5019007d92f4
Midwest
667
False
Detroit (/dᵻˈtrɔɪt/) is the most populous city in the U.S. state of Michigan, the fourth-largest city in the Midwest and the largest city on the United States–Canada border. It is the seat of Wayne County, the most populous county in the state. Detroit's metropolitan area, known as Metro Detroit, is home to 5.3 million people, making it the fourteenth-most populous metropolitan area in the United States and the second-largest in the Midwestern United States (behind Chicago). It is a major port on the Detroit River, a strait that connects the Great Lakes system to the Saint Lawrence Seaway. The City of Detroit anchors the second-largest economic region in the Midwest, behind Chicago, and the thirteenth-largest in the United States.
How much of Michigan's population resides in the Detroit metropolitan area?
5727b4642ca10214002d9452
one-half
556
False
How big is the population of the Detroit-Windsor area?
5727b4642ca10214002d9453
5,700,000
499
False
How many square miles is is Detroit's urban area?
5727b4642ca10214002d9454
1,337 square miles
82
False
In which census are these numbers coming from?
5727b4642ca10214002d9455
2010
116
False
Detroit is the center of a three-county urban area (population 3,734,090, area of 1,337 square miles (3,460 km2), a 2010 United States Census) six-county metropolitan statistical area (2010 Census population of 4,296,250, area of 3,913 square miles [10,130 km2]), and a nine-county Combined Statistical Area (2010 Census population of 5,218,852, area of 5,814 square miles [15,060 km2]). The Detroit–Windsor area, a commercial link straddling the Canada–U.S. border, has a total population of about 5,700,000. The Detroit metropolitan region holds roughly one-half of Michigan's population.
By how much has Detroit's population fallen this century?
5727b5bb4b864d1900163b02
25
199
False
The decline of what industry has hurt Detroit?
5727b5bb4b864d1900163b03
auto
506
False
What industry has Detroit tried to revitalize in recent years?
5727b5bb4b864d1900163b04
entertainment
748
False
What is one of the problems that currently effects property values in Detroit?
5727b5bb4b864d1900163b05
abandonment of properties
1095
False
Due to industrial restructuring and loss of jobs in the auto industry, Detroit lost considerable population from the late 20th century to present. Between 2000 and 2010 the city's population fell by 25 percent, changing its ranking from the nation's 10th-largest city to 18th. In 2010, the city had a population of 713,777, more than a 60 percent drop from a peak population of over 1.8 million at the 1950 census. This resulted from suburbanization, industrial restructuring, and the decline of Detroit's auto industry. Following the shift of population and jobs to its suburbs or other states or nations, the city has focused on becoming the metropolitan region's employment and economic center. Downtown Detroit has held an increased role as an entertainment destination in the 21st century, with the restoration of several historic theatres, several new sports stadiums, and a riverfront revitalization project. More recently, the population of Downtown Detroit, Midtown Detroit, and a handful of other neighborhoods has increased. Many other neighborhoods remain distressed, with extensive abandonment of properties.
Who is the Governor in Michigan?
5727b68d2ca10214002d9492
Rick Snyder
26
False
On which date did Detroit file bankruptcy?
5727b68d2ca10214002d9493
July 18, 2013
134
False
How much debt did Detroit have when they declared bankruptcy?
5727b68d2ca10214002d9494
$18.5 billion
364
False
On which date was Detroit's bankruptcy plan approved?
5727b68d2ca10214002d9495
November 7, 2014
466
False
What type of bankruptcy did Detroit go through?
5727b68d2ca10214002d9496
Chapter 9
636
False
The Governor of Michigan, Rick Snyder, declared a financial emergency for the city in March 2013, appointing an emergency manager. On July 18, 2013, Detroit filed the largest municipal bankruptcy case in U.S. history. It was declared bankrupt by Judge Steven W. Rhodes of the Bankruptcy Court for the Eastern District of Michigan on December 3, 2013; he cited its $18.5 billion debt and declared that negotiations with its thousands of creditors were unfeasible. On November 7, 2014, Judge Rhodes approved the city's bankruptcy plan, allowing the city to begin the process of exiting bankruptcy. The City of Detroit successfully exited Chapter 9 municipal bankruptcy with all finances handed back to the city at midnight on December 11, 2014.
What was Detroit's population in 1773?
5727b78d4b864d1900163b34
1,400
545
False
What was Detroit's population in 1778?
5727b78d4b864d1900163b35
2,144
586
False
What was Detroit's population in 1765?
5727b78d4b864d1900163b36
800
405
False
Who was the French Minister of Marine in 1701?
5727b78d4b864d1900163b37
Louis Phélypeaux, comte de Pontchartrain
219
False
Which French officer led the 1701 expedition?
5727b78d4b864d1900163b38
Antoine de la Mothe Cadillac
57
False
On the shores of the strait, in 1701, the French officer Antoine de la Mothe Cadillac, along with fifty-one French people and French Canadians, founded a settlement called Fort Pontchartrain du Détroit, naming it after Louis Phélypeaux, comte de Pontchartrain, Minister of Marine under Louis XIV. France offered free land to colonists to attract families to Detroit; when it reached a total population of 800 in 1765, it was the largest city between Montreal and New Orleans, both also French settlements. By 1773, the population of Detroit was 1,400. By 1778, its population was up to 2,144 and it was the third-largest city in the Province of Quebec.
What trade was instrumental to the growth of this region?
5727b8684b864d1900163b62
fur
39
False
What is the name of the French Canadians in Detroit?
5727b8684b864d1900163b63
Muskrat French
554
False
By which group were the original French and French Canadians replaced?
5727b8684b864d1900163b64
Anglo-American settlers
352
False
The region grew based on the lucrative fur trade, in which numerous Native American people had important roles. Detroit's city flag reflects its French colonial heritage. (See Flag of Detroit). Descendants of the earliest French and French Canadian settlers formed a cohesive community who gradually were replaced as the dominant population after more Anglo-American settlers came to the area in the early 19th century. Living along the shores of Lakes St. Clair, and south to Monroe and downriver suburbs, the French Canadians of Detroit, also known as Muskrat French, remain a subculture in the region today.
In which War was Detroit captured by the British?
5727b94dff5b5019007d9376
War of 1812
159
False
In which battle did American troops suffer the highest casualties?
5727b94dff5b5019007d9377
Battle of Frenchtown
200
False
In which year was Detroit recaptured?
5727b94dff5b5019007d9378
1813
237
False
In which county is the park commemorating the Battle of Frenchtown?
5727b94dff5b5019007d9379
Monroe County
468
False
From 1805 to 1847, Detroit was the capital of Michigan (first the territory, then the state). Detroit surrendered without a fight to British troops during the War of 1812 in the Siege of Detroit. The Battle of Frenchtown (January 18–23, 1813) was part of a United States effort to retake the city, and American troops suffered their highest fatalities of any battle in the war. This battle is commemorated at River Raisin National Battlefield Park south of Detroit in Monroe County. Detroit was finally recaptured by the United States later that year.
What year was the Battle of Gettysburg?
5727ba3c2ca10214002d94cc
1863
265
False
Who led the Wolverine Brigade?
5727ba3c2ca10214002d94cd
George Armstrong Custer
421
False
What Brigade was the 24th Michigan Infantry Regiment a part of?
5727ba3c2ca10214002d94ce
Iron Brigade
161
False
How many casualties did the 24th Michigan Infantry Regiment have in Gettysburg?
5727ba3c2ca10214002d94cf
82%
219
False
Numerous men from Detroit volunteered to fight for the Union during the American Civil War, including the 24th Michigan Infantry Regiment (part of the legendary Iron Brigade), which fought with distinction and suffered 82% casualties at the Battle of Gettysburg in 1863. When the First Volunteer Infantry Regiment arrived to fortify Washington, DC, President Abraham Lincoln is quoted as saying "Thank God for Michigan!" George Armstrong Custer led the Michigan Brigade during the Civil War and called them the "Wolverines".
What was a nickname for Detroit in the late 19th century?
5727bb374b864d1900163bcc
Paris of the West
390
False
On which waterway is Detroit located?
5727bb374b864d1900163bcd
Great Lakes
679
False
What is the most famous mansion in Detroit?
5727bb374b864d1900163bce
David Whitney House
242
False
Which street became known for it's mansions?
5727bb374b864d1900163bcf
Woodward Avenue
278
False
Who electrified Detroit?
5727bb374b864d1900163bd0
Thomas Edison
518
False
During the late 19th century, several Gilded Age mansions reflecting the wealth of industry and shipping magnates were built east and west of the current downtown, along the major avenues of the Woodward plan. Most notable among them was the David Whitney House located at 4421 Woodward Avenue, which became a prime location for mansions. During this period some referred to Detroit as the Paris of the West for its architecture, grand avenues in the Paris style, and for Washington Boulevard, recently electrified by Thomas Edison. The city had grown steadily from the 1830s with the rise of shipping, shipbuilding, and manufacturing industries. Strategically located along the Great Lakes waterway, Detroit emerged as a major port and transportation hub.
Who was the labor leader of the Teamsters?
5727bc0aff5b5019007d93c2
Jimmy Hoffa
498
False
Who was the labor leader of the Autoworkers?
5727bc0aff5b5019007d93c3
Walter Reuther
531
False
How many hours did the unions push for as a maximum for a work day?
5727bc0aff5b5019007d93c4
8
306
False
How many hours did the Unions want the work week to be limited to?
5727bc0aff5b5019007d93c5
40
317
False
With the rapid growth of industrial workers in the auto factories, labor unions such as the American Federation of Labor and the United Auto Workers fought to organize workers to gain them better working conditions and wages. They initiated strikes and other tactics in support of improvements such as the 8-hour day/40-hour work week, increased wages, greater benefits and improved working conditions. The labor activism during those years increased influence of union leaders in the city such as Jimmy Hoffa of the Teamsters and Walter Reuther of the Autoworkers.
What was the name of a vigilante group in Detroit?
5727bd0e2ca10214002d9514
The Black Legion
866
False
How many people of The Black Legion were convicted of crimes?
5727bd0e2ca10214002d9515
49
1217
False
By which decade had the KKK become very active in Detroit?
5727bd0e2ca10214002d9516
1920s
732
False
What is the name of the movement of rural blacks in the early 20th century called?
5727bd0e2ca10214002d9517
The Great Migration
292
False
Detroit, like many places in the United States, developed racial conflict and discrimination in the 20th century following rapid demographic changes as hundreds of thousands of new workers were attracted to the industrial city; in a short period it became the 4th-largest city in the nation. The Great Migration brought rural blacks from the South; they were outnumbered by southern whites who also migrated to the city. Immigration brought southern and eastern Europeans of Catholic and Jewish faith; these new groups competed with native-born whites for jobs and housing in the booming city. Detroit was one of the major Midwest cities that was a site for the dramatic urban revival of the Ku Klux Klan beginning in 1915. "By the 1920s the city had become a stronghold of the KKK," whose members opposed Catholic and Jewish immigrants, as well as black Americans. The Black Legion, a secret vigilante group, was active in the Detroit area in the 1930s, when one-third of its estimated 20,000 to 30,000 members in Michigan were based in the city. It was defeated after numerous prosecutions following the kidnapping and murder in 1936 of Charles Poole, a Catholic Works Progress Administration organizer. A total of 49 men of the Black Legion were convicted of numerous crimes, with many sentenced to life in prison for murder.
How many people were killed in the race riot of 1943?
5727bdea3acd2414000deb27
34
616
False
How many people came to Detroit between 1941 and 1943?
5727bdea3acd2414000deb28
400,000
30
False
After which event did the 1943 race riot happen?
5727bdea3acd2414000deb29
Packard plant protest
562
False
What care company promoted black workers to work alongside white workers?
5727bdea3acd2414000deb2a
Packard
389
False
Jobs expanded so rapidly that 400,000 people were attracted to the city from 1941 to 1943, including 50,000 blacks in the second wave of the Great Migration, and 350,000 whites, many of them from the South. Some European immigrants and their descendants feared black competition for jobs and housing. The federal government prohibited discrimination in defense work but when in June 1943, Packard promoted three blacks to work next to whites on its assembly lines, 25,000 whites walked off the job. The Detroit race riot of 1943 took place three weeks after the Packard plant protest. Over the course of three days, 34 people were killed, of whom 25 were African American, and approximately 600 were injured, 75% black people.
In which year was the last electric streetcar line removed?
5727beae2ca10214002d9546
1956
230
False
How many seconds did a streetcar run along Woodward Ave in 1941?
5727beae2ca10214002d9547
60
523
False
What made car travel much easier?
5727beae2ca10214002d9548
highways
188
False
As in other major American cities in the postwar era, construction of an extensive highway and freeway system around Detroit and pent-up demand for new housing stimulated suburbanization; highways made commuting by car easier. In 1956, Detroit's last heavily used electric streetcar line along the length of Woodward Avenue was removed and replaced with gas-powered buses. It was the last line of what had once been a 534-mile network of electric streetcars. In 1941 at peak times, a streetcar ran on Woodward Avenue every 60 seconds.
In which year did Martin Luther King Jr. give a speech in Detroit?
5727bf844b864d1900163c66
1963
8
False
What is the name of the riot in Detroit in 1967?
5727bf844b864d1900163c67
Twelfth Street riot
434
False
Who was the Governor of Michigan in 1967?
5727bf844b864d1900163c68
George W. Romney
477
False
Who was the President of the United States in 1967?
5727bf844b864d1900163c69
President Johnson
548
False
How many people were killed in the Twelfth Street riots?
5727bf844b864d1900163c6a
43
607
False
In June 1963, Rev. Martin Luther King, Jr. gave a major speech in Detroit that foreshadowed his "I Have a Dream" speech in Washington, D.C. two months later. While the African-American Civil Rights Movement gained significant federal civil rights laws in 1964 and 1965, longstanding inequities resulted in confrontations between the police and inner city black youth wanting change. Longstanding tensions in Detroit culminated in the Twelfth Street riot in July 1967. Governor George W. Romney ordered the Michigan National Guard into Detroit, and President Johnson sent in U.S. Army troops. The result was 43 dead, 467 injured, over 7,200 arrests, and more than 2,000 buildings destroyed, mostly in black residential and business areas. Thousands of small businesses closed permanently or relocated to safer neighborhoods. The affected district lay in ruins for decades. It was the most costly riot in the United States.
Who was Governor of Michigan in 1970?
5727c0464b864d1900163c7e
William Milliken
94
False
What is the court case that ruled that schools were subject to local control?
5727c0464b864d1900163c7f
Milliken v. Bradley
821
False
In which year did the Supreme Court hear Milliken v. Bradley?
5727c0464b864d1900163c80
1974
800
False
On August 18, 1970, the NAACP filed suit against Michigan state officials, including Governor William Milliken, charging de facto public school segregation. The NAACP argued that although schools were not legally segregated, the city of Detroit and its surrounding counties had enacted policies to maintain racial segregation in public schools. The NAACP also suggested a direct relationship between unfair housing practices and educational segregation, which followed segregated neighborhoods. The District Court held all levels of government accountable for the segregation in its ruling. The Sixth Circuit Court affirmed some of the decision, holding that it was the state's responsibility to integrate across the segregated metropolitan area. The U.S. Supreme Court took up the case February 27, 1974. The subsequent Milliken v. Bradley decision had wide national influence. In a narrow decision, the Court found that schools were a subject of local control and that suburbs could not be forced to solve problems in the city's school district.
What case is cited as a reason for White people leaving Detroit?
5727c0fbff5b5019007d947a
Milliken
1
False
What school does John Mogk teach at?
5727c0fbff5b5019007d947b
Wayne State University
318
False
At which school did Myron Orfield teach?
5727c0fbff5b5019007d947c
University of Minnesota
115
False
"Milliken was perhaps the greatest missed opportunity of that period," said Myron Orfield, professor of law at the University of Minnesota. "Had that gone the other way, it would have opened the door to fixing nearly all of Detroit's current problems." John Mogk, a professor of law and an expert in urban planning at Wayne State University in Detroit, says, "Everybody thinks that it was the riots [in 1967] that caused the white families to leave. Some people were leaving at that time but, really, it was after Milliken that you saw mass flight to the suburbs. If the case had gone the other way, it is likely that Detroit would not have experienced the steep decline in its tax base that has occurred since then."
Who was the first black mayor of Detroit?
5727c20e2ca10214002d9584
Coleman Young
35
False
What did Detroit build after the failure of a larger regional transportation system?
5727c20e2ca10214002d9585
Detroit People Mover
850
False
How much did the federal government offer for a rapid transit system?
5727c20e2ca10214002d9586
$600 million
392
False
Who did Detroit argue with when trying to plane a regional transit system?
5727c20e2ca10214002d9587
suburban neighbors
523
False
In November 1973, the city elected Coleman Young as its first black mayor. After taking office, Young emphasized increasing racial diversity in the police department. Young also worked to improve Detroit's transportation system, but tension between Young and his suburban counterparts over regional matters was problematic throughout his mayoral term. In 1976, the federal government offered $600 million for building a regional rapid transit system, under a single regional authority. But the inability of Detroit and its suburban neighbors to solve conflicts over transit planning resulted in the region losing the majority of funding for rapid transit. Following the failure to reach an agreement over the larger system, the City moved forward with construction of the elevated downtown circulator portion of the system, which became known as the Detroit People Mover.
What hurt the Auto industry?
5727c2c42ca10214002d95a4
gasoline crises
4
False
What did Detroit use to build it's tax base?
5727c2c42ca10214002d95a5
eminent domain
442
False
What was one of the effects of having employers cut jobs and closing plants in Detroit?
5727c2c42ca10214002d95a6
eroding the tax base
386
False
The gasoline crises of 1973 and 1979 also affected Detroit and the U.S. auto industry. Buyers chose smaller, more fuel-efficient cars made by foreign makers as the price of gas rose. Efforts to revive the city were stymied by the struggles of the auto industry, as their sales and market share declined. Automakers laid off thousands of employees and closed plants in the city, further eroding the tax base. To counteract this, the city used eminent domain to build two large new auto assembly plants in the city.
What group of buildings opened in 1977?
5727c3744b864d1900163cb2
The Renaissance Center
110
False
What was Mayor Young criticized for not reducing?
5727c3744b864d1900163cb3
high crime rate
679
False
What area did downtown Detroit continue to lose businesses to?
5727c3744b864d1900163cb4
suburbs
486
False
As mayor, Young sought to revive the city by seeking to increase investment in the city's declining downtown. The Renaissance Center, a mixed-use office and retail complex, opened in 1977. This group of skyscrapers was an attempt to keep businesses in downtown. Young also gave city support to other large developments to attract middle and upper-class residents back to the city. Despite the Renaissance Center and other projects, the downtown area continued to lose businesses to the suburbs. Major stores and hotels closed and many large office buildings went vacant. Young was criticized for being too focused on downtown development and not doing enough to lower the city's high crime rate and improve city services.
In which year did Detroit's population peak?
5727c4424b864d1900163ccc
1950
235
False
What was the population of Detroit in 1950?
5727c4424b864d1900163ccd
1.8 million
272
False
By how much in percent has the population of Detroit declined since 1950?
5727c4424b864d1900163cce
40
427
False
What was the population of Detroit in 2010?
5727c4424b864d1900163ccf
700,000
469
False
Long a major population center and site of worldwide automobile manufacturing, Detroit has suffered a long economic decline produced by numerous factors. Like many industrial American cities, Detroit reached its population peak in the 1950 census. The peak population was 1.8 million people. Following suburbanization, industrial restructuring, and loss of jobs (as described above), by the 2010 census, the city had less than 40 percent of that number, with just over 700,000 residents. The city has declined in population in each census since 1950.
In which year was Campus Martius open?
5727c6e83acd2414000dec19
2004
94
False
What area has Detroit been trying to redevelop?
5727c6e83acd2414000dec1a
riverfront
190
False
In which year did Detroit celebrate it's 300th anniversary?
5727c6e83acd2414000dec1b
2001
305
False
What opened in 2011?
5727c6e83acd2414000dec1c
Port Authority Passenger Terminal
521
False
Which two areas were connected by the Port Authority Passenger Terminal?
5727c6e83acd2414000dec1d
Hart Plaza to the Renaissance Center
593
False
Campus Martius, a reconfiguration of downtown's main intersection as a new park was opened in 2004. The park has been cited as one of the best public spaces in the United States. The city's riverfront has been the focus of redevelopment, following successful examples of other older industrial cities. In 2001, the first portion of the International Riverfront was completed as a part of the city's 300th anniversary celebration, with miles of parks and associated landscaping completed in succeeding years. In 2011, the Port Authority Passenger Terminal opened with the river walk connecting Hart Plaza to the Renaissance Center.
How much has been invested in Detroit since 2006?
5727c7ad3acd2414000dec37
$9 billion
12
False
Which hotel is set to be renovated?
5727c7ad3acd2414000dec38
Strathmore
581
False
How much money has been invested in Detroit in 2013-2014?
5727c7ad3acd2414000dec39
$5.2 billion
84
False
How many vacant downtown buildings are there in Detroit?
5727c7ad3acd2414000dec3a
13
319
False
Since 2006, $9 billion has been invested in downtown and surrounding neighborhoods; $5.2 billion of that in has come in 2013 and 2014. Construction activity, particularly rehabilitation of historic downtown buildings, has increased markedly. The number of vacant downtown buildings has dropped from nearly 50 to around 13.[when?] Among the most notable redevelopment projects are the Book Cadillac Hotel and the Fort Shelby Hotel; the David Broderick Tower; and the David Whitney Building. Meanwhile, work is underway or set to begin on the historic, vacant Wurlitzer Building and Strathmore Hotel.[citation needed]
How many stray dogs do studies suggest are in Detroit?
5727c8943acd2414000dec51
1,000-3,000
571
False
How much in unpaid taxes did Detroit fail to collect in 2011?
5727c8943acd2414000dec52
$246 million
698
False
What is the term for when a city falls into disrepair?
5727c8943acd2414000dec53
urban decay
52
False
Detroit's protracted decline has resulted in severe urban decay and thousands of empty buildings around the city. Some parts of Detroit are so sparsely populated that the city has difficulty providing municipal services. The city has considered various solutions, such as demolishing abandoned homes and buildings; removing street lighting from large portions of the city; and encouraging the small population in certain areas to move to more populated locations. While some have estimated 20,000 stray dogs roam the city, studies have shown the true number to be around 1,000-3,000. Roughly half of the owners of Detroit's 305,000 properties failed to pay their 2011 tax bills, resulting in about $246 million in taxes and fees going uncollected, nearly half of which was due to Detroit; the rest of the money would have been earmarked for Wayne County, Detroit Public Schools, and the library system.
What is the prominent topographical feature in Detroit?
5727c96c4b864d1900163d16
Detroit Moraine
172
False
How tall is the tallest point in Detroit?
5727c96c4b864d1900163d17
675 to 680 feet
510
False
What is the lowest point in Detroit along side?
5727c96c4b864d1900163d18
Detroit River
582
False
What material is the Detroit Moraine composed of?
5727c96c4b864d1900163d19
clay
197
False
The city slopes gently from the northwest to southeast on a till plain composed largely of glacial and lake clay. The most notable topographical feature in the city is the Detroit Moraine, a broad clay ridge on which the older portions of Detroit and Windsor sit atop, rising approximately 62 feet (19 m) above the river at its highest point. The highest elevation in the city is located directly north of Gorham Playground on the northwest side approximately three blocks south of 8 Mile Road, at a height of 675 to 680 feet (206 to 207 m). Detroit's lowest elevation is along the Detroit River, at a surface height of 572 feet (174 m).
What company mines salt in Detroit?
5727ca7a2ca10214002d9654
Detroit Salt Company
475
False
How many acres is the Windsor Salt Mine?
5727ca7a2ca10214002d9655
1,500
395
False
How many routes to Canada does Detroit have?
5727ca7a2ca10214002d9656
four
12
False
What is the railway tunnel to Canada called?
5727ca7a2ca10214002d9657
Michigan Central Railway Tunnel
134
False
What it the Ferry to Canada called?
5727ca7a2ca10214002d9658
Detroit–Windsor Truck Ferry
246
False
Detroit has four border crossings: the Ambassador Bridge and the Detroit–Windsor Tunnel provide motor vehicle thoroughfares, with the Michigan Central Railway Tunnel providing railroad access to and from Canada. The fourth border crossing is the Detroit–Windsor Truck Ferry, located near the Windsor Salt Mine and Zug Island. Near Zug Island, the southwest part of the city was developed over a 1,500-acre (610 ha) salt mine that is 1,100 feet (340 m) below the surface. The Detroit Salt Company mine has over 100 miles (160 km) of roads within.
What body of water affects Detroit's climate?
5727cb4a4b864d1900163d30
Great Lakes
119
False
How many days a year does the temperature in Detroit drop below 0?
5727cb4a4b864d1900163d31
4.4
445
False
When is the warm season in Detroit?
5727cb4a4b864d1900163d32
May to September
566
False
Detroit and the rest of southeastern Michigan have a humid continental climate (Köppen Dfa) which is influenced by the Great Lakes; the city and close-in suburbs are part of USDA Hardiness zone 6b, with farther-out northern and western suburbs generally falling in zone 6a. Winters are cold, with moderate snowfall and temperatures not rising above freezing on an average 44 days annually, while dropping to or below 0 °F (−18 °C) on an average 4.4 days a year; summers are warm to hot with temperatures exceeding 90 °F (32 °C) on 12 days. The warm season runs from May to September. The monthly daily mean temperature ranges from 25.6 °F (−3.6 °C) in January to 73.6 °F (23.1 °C) in July. Official temperature extremes range from 105 °F (41 °C) on July 24, 1934 down to −21 °F (−29 °C) on January 21, 1984; the record low maximum is −4 °F (−20 °C) on January 19, 1994, while, conversely the record high minimum is 80 °F (27 °C) on August 1, 2006, the most recent of five occurrences. A decade or two may pass between readings of 100 °F (38 °C) or higher, which last occurred July 17, 2012. The average window for freezing temperatures is October 20 thru April 22, allowing a growing season of 180 days.
What is the average rainfall for summer months?
5727cc3a3acd2414000deca1
33.5 inches
151
False
How many inches of snow does Detroit get on average?
5727cc3a3acd2414000deca2
42.5
419
False
When do thunderstorms usually occur in Detroit?
5727cc3a3acd2414000deca3
spring and summer
733
False
How many days a year does Detroit get a thick snow pack?
5727cc3a3acd2414000deca4
27.5
606
False
Precipitation is moderate and somewhat evenly distributed throughout the year, although the warmer months such as May and June average more, averaging 33.5 inches (850 mm) annually, but historically ranging from 20.49 in (520 mm) in 1963 to 47.70 in (1,212 mm) in 2011. Snowfall, which typically falls in measurable amounts between November 15 through April 4 (occasionally in October and very rarely in May), averages 42.5 inches (108 cm) per season, although historically ranging from 11.5 in (29 cm) in 1881−82 to 94.9 in (241 cm) in 2013−14. A thick snowpack is not often seen, with an average of only 27.5 days with 3 in (7.6 cm) or more of snow cover. Thunderstorms are frequent in the Detroit area. These usually occur during spring and summer.
What architectural style does One Detroit Center boast?
5727cd5c2ca10214002d96bc
post modern Neo-Gothic spires
84
False
What style does the Guardian building use?
5727cd5c2ca10214002d96bd
Art Deco
312
False
What is a famous theater in Detroit?
5727cd5c2ca10214002d96be
Fox Theatre
557
False
What is a famous opera house in Detroit?
5727cd5c2ca10214002d96bf
Detroit Opera House
574
False
What university is near the New Center?
5727cd5c2ca10214002d96c0
Wayne State University
468
False
Seen in panorama, Detroit's waterfront shows a variety of architectural styles. The post modern Neo-Gothic spires of the One Detroit Center (1993) were designed to blend with the city's Art Deco skyscrapers. Together with the Renaissance Center, they form a distinctive and recognizable skyline. Examples of the Art Deco style include the Guardian Building and Penobscot Building downtown, as well as the Fisher Building and Cadillac Place in the New Center area near Wayne State University. Among the city's prominent structures are United States' largest Fox Theatre, the Detroit Opera House, and the Detroit Institute of Arts.
What areas of Detroit contain high rises?
5727ce452ca10214002d96e0
Downtown and New Center
10
False
What is the neighborhood just west of Woodward?
5727ce452ca10214002d96e1
Palmer Park
320
False
What type of neighborhood is Sherwood Forest?
5727ce452ca10214002d96e2
historic
502
False
While the Downtown and New Center areas contain high-rise buildings, the majority of the surrounding city consists of low-rise structures and single-family homes. Outside of the city's core, residential high-rises are found in upper-class neighborhoods such as the East Riverfront extending toward Grosse Pointe and the Palmer Park neighborhood just west of Woodward. The University Commons-Palmer Park district in northwest Detroit, near the University of Detroit Mercy and Marygrove College, anchors historic neighborhoods including Palmer Woods, Sherwood Forest, and the University District.
What is the large island park in Detroit?
5727cfa44b864d1900163db8
Belle Isle Park
248
False
What is Michigan's first urban park?
5727cfa44b864d1900163db9
Tri-Centennial State Park
330
False
How long is the second phase of the riverfront?
5727cfa44b864d1900163dba
two-mile
425
False
What is the total length of the Detroit International Riverfront?
5727cfa44b864d1900163dbb
five miles
507
False
The Detroit International Riverfront includes a partially completed three-and-one-half mile riverfront promenade with a combination of parks, residential buildings, and commercial areas. It extends from Hart Plaza to the MacArthur Bridge accessing Belle Isle Park (the largest island park in a U.S. city). The riverfront includes Tri-Centennial State Park and Harbor, Michigan's first urban state park. The second phase is a two-mile (3 km) extension from Hart Plaza to the Ambassador Bridge for a total of five miles (8 km) of parkway from bridge to bridge. Civic planners envision that the pedestrian parks will stimulate residential redevelopment of riverfront properties condemned under eminent domain.
What district is Lafayette Park a part of?
5727d089ff5b5019007d95ce
Ludwig Mies van der Rohe residential district
82
False
How large is Lafayette Park?
5727d089ff5b5019007d95cf
78-acre
133
False
In which part of Detroit is Mexicantown International Welcome Center?
5727d089ff5b5019007d95d0
Southwest Detroit
516
False
Who planned Lafayette Park?
5727d089ff5b5019007d95d1
Mies van der Rohe, Ludwig Hilberseimer and Alfred Caldwell
212
False
Lafayette Park is a revitalized neighborhood on the city's east side, part of the Ludwig Mies van der Rohe residential district. The 78-acre (32 ha) development was originally called the Gratiot Park. Planned by Mies van der Rohe, Ludwig Hilberseimer and Alfred Caldwell it includes a landscaped, 19-acre (7.7 ha) park with no through traffic, in which these and other low-rise apartment buildings are situated. Immigrants have contributed to the city's neighborhood revitalization, especially in southwest Detroit. Southwest Detroit has experienced a thriving economy in recent years, as evidenced by new housing, increased business openings and the recently opened Mexicantown International Welcome Center.
How many of Detroit's residential lots are are underdeveloped?
5727d17fff5b5019007d95fa
a quarter
278
False
How many of Detroit's housing is unoccupied?
5727d17fff5b5019007d95fb
10%
359
False
How many home in Detroit need minor repairs?
5727d17fff5b5019007d95fc
9%
503
False
How many of Detroit's home are in good condition?
5727d17fff5b5019007d95fd
86%
439
False
Where are most of the low density area of Detroit located?
5727d17fff5b5019007d95fe
northeast and on the city's fringes
208
False
The city has numerous neighborhoods consisting of vacant properties resulting in low inhabited density in those areas, stretching city services and infrastructure. These neighborhoods are concentrated in the northeast and on the city's fringes. A 2009 parcel survey found about a quarter of residential lots in the city to be undeveloped or vacant, and about 10% of the city's housing to be unoccupied. The survey also reported that most (86%) of the city's homes are in good condition with a minority (9%) in fair condition needing only minor repairs.
How much in stimulus money was announced in 2008?
5727d2c1ff5b5019007d9618
$300-million
139
False
Who was the Mayor of Detroit in 2011?
5727d2c1ff5b5019007d9619
Mayor Bing
702
False
What is the plan called that seeks to clear land for neighborhood construction?
5727d2c1ff5b5019007d961a
Far Eastside Plan
674
False
How many acres of land does the Far Eastside Plan seek to clear?
5727d2c1ff5b5019007d961b
1,200
565
False
How was the 2008 stimulus plan payed for?
5727d2c1ff5b5019007d961c
earmarking about 15% of the wagering tax
250
False
Public funding and private investment have also been made with promises to rehabilitate neighborhoods. In April 2008, the city announced a $300-million stimulus plan to create jobs and revitalize neighborhoods, financed by city bonds and paid for by earmarking about 15% of the wagering tax. The city's working plans for neighborhood revitalizations include 7-Mile/Livernois, Brightmoor, East English Village, Grand River/Greenfield, North End, and Osborn. Private organizations have pledged substantial funding to the efforts. Additionally, the city has cleared a 1,200-acre (490 ha) section of land for large-scale neighborhood construction, which the city is calling the Far Eastside Plan. In 2011, Mayor Bing announced a plan to categorize neighborhoods by their needs and prioritize the most needed services for those neighborhoods.
What was the median household income in 2009?
5727d3a5ff5b5019007d963e
$26,098
206
False
What was the median household income in 2000?
5727d3a5ff5b5019007d963f
$29,526
195
False
How many residents of Detroit in three live in poverty?
5727d3a5ff5b5019007d9640
one
358
False
Who said that Detroit is one of the poorest big cities in the country?
5727d3a5ff5b5019007d9641
Luke Bergmann
380
False
The loss of industrial and working-class jobs in the city has resulted in high rates of poverty and associated problems. From 2000 to 2009, the city's estimated median household income fell from $29,526 to $26,098. As of 2010[update] the mean income of Detroit is below the overall U.S. average by several thousand dollars. Of every three Detroit residents, one lives in poverty. Luke Bergmann, author of Getting Ghost: Two Young Lives and the Struggle for the Soul of an American City, said in 2010, "Detroit is now one of the poorest big cities in the country."
What is Oakland Counties rank in affluence in 2009?
5727d5254b864d1900163e24
11th
403
False
What city dominates Wayne County?
5727d5254b864d1900163e25
Detroit
431
False
What is Oakland Counties average income?
5727d5254b864d1900163e26
$62,000
548
False
What is Wayne Counties average income?
5727d5254b864d1900163e27
$38,000
510
False
Oakland County in Metro Detroit, once rated amongst the wealthiest US counties per household, is no longer shown in the top 25 listing of Forbes magazine. But internal county statistical methods – based on measuring per capita income for counties with more than one million residents – show that Oakland is still within the top 12, slipping from the 4th-most affluent such county in the U.S. in 2004 to 11th-most affluent in 2009. Detroit dominates Wayne County, which has an average household income of about $38,000, compared to Oakland County's $62,000.
What percentage of Detroit's residents where white in 1940?
5727d6c12ca10214002d97c0
90.4
267
False
Where did the population of Detroit shift to in the second half of the 20th century?
5727d6c12ca10214002d97c1
suburbs
367
False
How many blacks lived in Detroit in 1930?
5727d6c12ca10214002d97c2
120,000
449
False
What was the movement of blacks to northern cities called?
5727d6c12ca10214002d97c3
Great Migration
554
False
What industry is responsible for a large growth in Detroit's population?
5727d6c12ca10214002d97c4
automobile
225
False
The city's population increased more than sixfold during the first half of the 20th century, fed largely by an influx of European, Middle Eastern (Lebanese, Assyrian/Chaldean), and Southern migrants to work in the burgeoning automobile industry. In 1940, Whites were 90.4% of the city's population. Since 1950 the city has seen a major shift in its population to the suburbs. In 1910, fewer than 6,000 blacks called the city home; in 1930 more than 120,000 blacks lived in Detroit. The thousands of African Americans who came to Detroit were part of the Great Migration of the 20th century.
Why did Blacks move to Detroit in the middle if the 20th century?
5727d7992ca10214002d97d2
Jim Crow
160
False
What is an example of economic discrimination?
5727d7992ca10214002d97d3
redlining
335
False
What exacerbated segregation in Detroit?
5727d7992ca10214002d97d4
white migration to the suburbs
490
False
What generally declines in places that are segregated by race or class?
5727d7992ca10214002d97d5
health
631
False
Detroit remains one of the most racially segregated cities in the United States. From the 1940s to the 1970s a second wave of Blacks moved to Detroit to escape Jim Crow laws in the south and find jobs. However, they soon found themselves excluded from white areas of the city—through violence, laws, and economic discrimination (e.g., redlining). White residents attacked black homes: breaking windows, starting fires, and exploding bombs. The pattern of segregation was later magnified by white migration to the suburbs. One of the implications of racial segregation, which correlates with class segregation, may be overall worse health for some populations.
How much of Michigan's population is Black?
5727d8b22ca10214002d97ee
13 percent
46
False
How much of Detroit's population is Black?
5727d8b22ca10214002d97ef
82 percent
111
False
What was Detroit ranked as in a 2010 study on segregated cities?
5727d8b22ca10214002d97f0
four
663
False
Where have many Black people been moving to in recent years?
5727d8b22ca10214002d97f1
suburbs
1314
False
What is the 2009 population of Whites in Detroit?
5727d8b22ca10214002d97f2
13.3%
1196
False
While Blacks/African-Americans comprised only 13 percent of Michigan's population in 2010, they made up nearly 82 percent of Detroit's population. The next largest population groups were Whites, at 10 percent, and Hispanics, at 6 percent. According to the 2010 Census, segregation in Detroit has decreased in absolute and in relative terms. In the first decade of the 21st century, about two-thirds of the total black population in metropolitan area resided within the city limits of Detroit. The number of integrated neighborhoods has increased from 100 in 2000 to 204 in 2010. The city has also moved down the ranking, from number one most segregated to number four. A 2011 op-ed in The New York Times attributed the decreased segregation rating to the overall exodus from the city, cautioning that these areas may soon become more segregated. This pattern already happened in the 1970s, when apparent integration was actually a precursor to white flight and resegregation. Over a 60-year period, white flight occurred in the city. According to an estimate of the Michigan Metropolitan Information Center, from 2008 to 2009 the percentage of non-Hispanic White residents increased from 8.4% to 13.3%. Some empty nesters and many younger White people moved into the city while many African Americans moved to the suburbs.
When did Mexicantown start to grow?
5727d96a4b864d1900163e7e
1940s
289
False
What was Detroit's 2010 Hispanic population?
5727d96a4b864d1900163e7f
48,679
463
False
What was Detroit's 2010 Mexican population?
5727d96a4b864d1900163e80
36,452
491
False
What was it called when many Mexican's were forcibly repatriated?
5727d96a4b864d1900163e81
Mexican Repatriation of the 1930s
171
False
Detroit has a Mexican-American population. In the early 20th century thousands of Mexicans came to Detroit to work in agricultural, automotive, and steel jobs. During the Mexican Repatriation of the 1930s many Mexicans in Detroit were willingly repatriated or forced to repatriate. By the 1940s the Mexican community began to settle what is now Mexicantown. The population significantly increased in the 1990s due to immigration from Jalisco. In 2010 Detroit had 48,679 Hispanics, including 36,452 Mexicans. The number of Hispanics was a 70% increase from the number in 1990.
Where does most of the Bangladeshi population in Detroit live?
5727da933acd2414000dee1d
A portion of Detroit next to eastern Hamtramck
176
False
What is a word that could describe a lot of the Asian people who work or live in downtown Detroit?
5727da933acd2414000dee1e
transient
643
False
As of 2002 there are four areas in Detroit with significant Asian and Asian American populations. Northeast Detroit has population of Hmong with a smaller group of Lao people. A portion of Detroit next to eastern Hamtramck includes Bangladeshi Americans, Indian Americans, and Pakistani Americans; nearly all of the Bangladeshi population in Detroit lives in that area. Many of those residents own small businesses or work in blue collar jobs, and the population in that area is mostly Muslim. The area north of Downtown Detroit; including the region around the Henry Ford Hospital, the Detroit Medical Center, and Wayne State University; has transient Asian national origin residents who are university students or hospital workers. Few of them have permanent residency after schooling ends. They are mostly Chinese and Indian but the population also includes Filipinos, Koreans, and Pakistanis. In Southwest Detroit and western Detroit there are smaller, scattered Asian communities including an area in the westside adjacent to Dearborn and Redford Township that has a mostly Indian Asian population, and a community of Vietnamese and Laotians in Southwest Detroit.
Which company makes timepieces in Midtown?
5728c1a24b864d1900164d60
Shinola
270
False
What is the largest employer in Detroit?
5728c1a24b864d1900164d61
Detroit Medical Center
139
False
What district is Midtown north of?
5728c1a24b864d1900164d62
central business district
55
False
Other than Downtown and Midtown, what area boasts a fast growing restaurant scene?
5728c1a24b864d1900164d63
Corktown
440
False
Where is TechTown based?
5728c1a24b864d1900164d64
New Center
326
False
Thousands more employees work in Midtown, north of the central business district. Midtown's anchors are the city's largest single employer Detroit Medical Center, Wayne State University, and the Henry Ford Health System in New Center. Midtown is also home to watchmaker Shinola and an array of small and/or startup companies. New Center bases TechTown, a research and business incubator hub that’s part of the WSU system. Like downtown and Corktown, Midtown also has a fast-growing retailing and restaurant scene.
What Tech company is based in Detroit?
5728c2a2ff5b5019007da610
Compuware
207
False
What insurance company is located in downtown Detroit?
5728c2a2ff5b5019007da611
Blue Cross Blue Shield
279
False
Which company moved it's world headquarters to Detroit in 2010?
5728c2a2ff5b5019007da612
Quicken Loans
548
False
What is the name Of the U.S. Patent office in Detroit?
5728c2a2ff5b5019007da613
Elijah J. McCoy Satellite Office
772
False
A number of the city's downtown employers are relatively new, as there has been a marked trend of companies moving from satellite suburbs around Metropolitan Detroit into the downtown core.[citation needed] Compuware completed its world headquarters in downtown in 2003. OnStar, Blue Cross Blue Shield, and HP Enterprise Services are located at the Renaissance Center. PricewaterhouseCoopers Plaza offices are adjacent to Ford Field, and Ernst & Young completed its office building at One Kennedy Square in 2006. Perhaps most prominently, in 2010, Quicken Loans, one of the largest mortgage lenders, relocated its world headquarters and 4,000 employees to downtown Detroit, consolidating its suburban offices. In July 2012, the U.S. Patent and Trademark Office opened its Elijah J. McCoy Satellite Office in the Rivertown/Warehouse District as its first location outside Washington, D.C.'s metropolitan area.
Which part of Detroit has gotten billions in investment around the turn of the millennium?
5728c39e4b864d1900164d8c
downtown
861
False
What part of Detroit is Green Alleys located in?
5728c39e4b864d1900164d8d
Midtown
390
False
What type of vacant buildings have been spared destruction?
5728c39e4b864d1900164d8e
historically significant
472
False
The city of Detroit and other private-public partnerships have attempted to catalyze the region's growth by facilitating the building and historical rehabilitation of residential high-rises in the downtown, creating a zone that offers many business tax incentives, creating recreational spaces such as the Detroit RiverWalk, Campus Martius Park, Dequindre Cut Greenway, and Green Alleys in Midtown. The city itself has cleared sections of land while retaining a number of historically significant vacant buildings in order to spur redevelopment; though it has struggled with finances, the city issued bonds in 2008 to provide funding for ongoing work to demolish blighted properties. Two years earlier, downtown reported $1.3 billion in restorations and new developments which increased the number of construction jobs in the city. In the decade prior to 2006, downtown gained more than $15 billion in new investment from private and public sectors.
What part of Detroit still has high population density??
5728c4943acd2414000dfde9
Midtown
98
False
Which building's reconstruction cost $82 million?
5728c4943acd2414000dfdea
David Whitney Building
355
False
Which Downtown tower was converted to residential use?
5728c4943acd2414000dfdeb
David Broderick Tower
506
False
What was the former name of the Doubletree?
5728c4943acd2414000dfdec
Fort Shelby Hotel
624
False
What was the former name of the Westin?
5728c4943acd2414000dfded
Book Cadillac Hotel
567
False
Despite the city's recent financial issues, many developers remain unfazed by Detroit's problems. Midtown is one of the most successful areas within Detroit to have a residential occupancy rate of 96%. Numerous developments have been recently completely or are in various stages of construction. These include the $82 million reconstruction of downtown's David Whitney Building (now an Aloft Hotel and luxury residences), the Woodward Garden Block Development in Midtown, the residential conversion of the David Broderick Tower in downtown, the rehabilitation of the Book Cadillac Hotel (now a Westin and luxury condos) and Fort Shelby Hotel (now Doubletree) also in downtown, and various smaller projects.
Which bank announced an investment into Detroit in 2014?
5728c567ff5b5019007da662
JPMorgan Chase
17
False
How much of JPMorgan's investment will go to blight removal?
5728c567ff5b5019007da663
$25 million
372
False
How much of JPMorgan's investment will go to job training?
5728c567ff5b5019007da664
$12.5 million
420
False
How much did JPMorgan announce in additional investment into Detroit in 2015?
5728c567ff5b5019007da665
$32 million
636
False
On May 21, 2014, JPMorgan Chase announced that it was injecting $100 million over five years into Detroit's economy, providing development funding for a variety of projects that would increase employment. It is the largest commitment made to any one city by the nation's biggest bank.[citation needed] Of the $100 million, $50 million will go toward development projects, $25 million will go toward city blight removal, $12.5 million will go for job training, $7 million will go for small businesses in the city, and $5.5 million will go toward the M-1 light rail project. On May 19, 2015, JPMorgan Chase announced that it has invested $32 million for two redevelopment projects in the city's Capitol Park district, the Capitol Park Lofts (the former Capitol Park Building) and the Detroit Savings Bank building at 1212 Griswold. Those investments are separate from Chase's five-year, $100-million commitment.
Which city has a lower than usual drinking age?
5728c62f4b864d1900164dd0
Windsor, Ontario
186
False
How many suburban residents take in Detroit's entertainment options?
5728c62f4b864d1900164dd1
two-thirds
398
False
Who conducted a study about Detroit's walk-ability?
5728c62f4b864d1900164dd2
Walk Score
303
False
A desire to be closer to the urban scene has also attracted some young professionals to reside in inner ring suburbs such as Grosse Pointe and Royal Oak, Detroit. Detroit's proximity to Windsor, Ontario, provides for views and nightlife, along with Ontario's minimum drinking age of 19. A 2011 study by Walk Score recognized Detroit for its above average walkability among large U.S. cities. About two-thirds of suburban residents occasionally dine and attend cultural events or take in professional games in the city of Detroit.
What "Arsenal" was Detroit a part of ?
5728c740ff5b5019007da688
Arsenal of Democracy
208
False
What nickname for Detroit recognizes it's musical history?
5728c740ff5b5019007da689
Motown
400
False
What is Detroit's area code?
5728c740ff5b5019007da68a
313
689
False
Which hockey team is based in Detroit?
5728c740ff5b5019007da68b
Red Wings
616
False
What Kiss song gave Detroit the nickname Rock City?
5728c740ff5b5019007da68c
Detroit Rock City
660
False
Known as the world's automotive center, "Detroit" is a metonym for that industry. Detroit's auto industry, some of which was converted to wartime defense production, was an important element of the American "Arsenal of Democracy" supporting the Allied powers during World War II. It is an important source of popular music legacies celebrated by the city's two familiar nicknames, the Motor City and Motown. Other nicknames arose in the 20th century, including City of Champions, beginning in the 1930s for its successes in individual and team sport; The D; Hockeytown (a trademark owned by the city's NHL club, the Red Wings); Rock City (after the Kiss song "Detroit Rock City"); and The 313 (its telephone area code).
Which artist resided in Delray?
5728c8373acd2414000dfe45
John Lee Hooker
35
False
Which musician attended Cass Tech?
5728c8373acd2414000dfe46
Donald Byrd
525
False
Which musician accompanied Donald Byrd on several albums?
5728c8373acd2414000dfe47
Pepper Adams
650
False
What is the name of the jazz museum in Detroit?
5728c8373acd2414000dfe48
Graystone International Jazz Museum
733
False
What type of music is John Lee Hooker known for?
5728c8373acd2414000dfe49
blues
22
False
In the 1940s, Detroit blues artist John Lee Hooker became a long-term resident in the city's southwest Delray neighborhood. Hooker, among other important blues musicians migrated from his home in Mississippi bringing the Delta blues to northern cities like Detroit. Hooker recorded for Fortune Records, the biggest pre-Motown blues/soul label. During the 1950s, the city became a center for jazz, with stars performing in the Black Bottom neighborhood. Prominent emerging Jazz musicians of the 1960s included: trumpet player Donald Byrd who attended Cass Tech and performed with Art Blakey and the Jazz Messengers early in his career and Saxophonist Pepper Adams who enjoyed a solo career and accompanied Byrd on several albums. The Graystone International Jazz Museum documents jazz in Detroit.
Who was a big influence on Smokey Robinson?
5728c8eb2ca10214002da7be
Nolan Strong
71
False
What label operated in Third Avenue?
5728c8eb2ca10214002da7bf
Fortune
284
False
Who was Jack Brown's wife?
5728c8eb2ca10214002da7c0
Devora Brown
423
False
What label became Detroit's most famous?
5728c8eb2ca10214002da7c1
Motown
534
False
Other, prominent Motor City R&B stars in the 1950s and early 1960s was Nolan Strong, Andre Williams and Nathaniel Mayer – who all scored local and national hits on the Fortune Records label. According to Smokey Robinson, Strong was a primary influence on his voice as a teenager. The Fortune label was a family-operated label located on Third Avenue in Detroit, and was owned by the husband and wife team of Jack Brown and Devora Brown. Fortune, which also released country, gospel and rockabilly LPs and 45s, laid the groundwork for Motown, which became Detroit's most legendary record label.
Who founded Motown records?
5728c9553acd2414000dfe79
Berry Gordy, Jr.
0
False
Who did a documentary on Motown?
5728c9553acd2414000dfe7a
Paul Justman
500
False
Who wrote a book about Motown?
5728c9553acd2414000dfe7b
Allan Slutsky
581
False
Berry Gordy, Jr. founded Motown Records which rose to prominence during the 1960s and early 1970s with acts such as Stevie Wonder, The Temptations, The Four Tops, Smokey Robinson & The Miracles, Diana Ross & The Supremes, the Jackson 5, Martha and the Vandellas, The Spinners, Gladys Knight & the Pips, The Marvelettes, The Elgins, The Monitors, The Velvelettes and Marvin Gaye. Artists were backed by in-house vocalists The Andantes and The Funk Brothers, the Motown house band that was featured in Paul Justman's 2002 documentary film Standing in the Shadows of Motown, based on Allan Slutsky's book of the same name.
What music genre was big in Detroit in the 1980s?
5728ca303acd2414000dfe89
hardcore punk rock underground
394
False
What year did the movie about Kiss come out?
5728ca303acd2414000dfe8a
1999
335
False
In which decades did bands like MC5 and Rare Earth become big in Detroit?
5728ca303acd2414000dfe8b
1960s and 70s
50
False
Local artists and bands rose to prominence in the 1960s and 70s including: the MC5, The Stooges, Bob Seger, Amboy Dukes featuring Ted Nugent, Mitch Ryder and The Detroit Wheels, Rare Earth, Alice Cooper, and Suzi Quatro. The group Kiss emphasized the city's connection with rock in the song Detroit Rock City and the movie produced in 1999. In the 1980s, Detroit was an important center of the hardcore punk rock underground with many nationally known bands coming out of the city and its suburbs, such as The Necros, The Meatmen, and Negative Approach.
Which Detroit artist has the highest hip-hop sales?
5728cb174b864d1900164e3a
Eminem
110
False
Which band toured with Kid Rock?
5728cb174b864d1900164e3b
Sponge
328
False
What genre does The White Stripes fit into?
5728cb174b864d1900164e3c
garage rock
439
False
What is J Dilla's occupation?
5728cb174b864d1900164e3d
producer
180
False
In the 1990s and the new millennium, the city has produced a number of influential hip hop artists, including Eminem, the hip-hop artist with the highest cumulative sales, hip-hop producer J Dilla, rapper and producer Esham and hip hop duo Insane Clown Posse. The city is also home to rappers Big Sean and Danny Brown. The band Sponge toured and produced music, with artists such as Kid Rock and Uncle Kracker. The city also has an active garage rock genre that has generated national attention with acts such as: The White Stripes, The Von Bondies, The Detroit Cobras, The Dirtbombs, Electric Six, and The Hard Lessons.
Techno started in which city?
5728cbea3acd2414000dfeab
Detroit
0
False
What genre of music featured robotic themes?
5728cbea3acd2414000dfeac
Detroit techno
161
False
What is the Detroit Electronic Music Festival known as?
5728cbea3acd2414000dfead
Movement
487
False
When does "Movement" occur?
5728cbea3acd2414000dfeae
Memorial Day Weekend
529
False
Where does "Movement" take place?
5728cbea3acd2414000dfeaf
Hart Plaza
570
False
Detroit is cited as the birthplace of techno music in the early 1980s. The city also lends its name to an early and pioneering genre of electronic dance music, "Detroit techno". Featuring science fiction imagery and robotic themes, its futuristic style was greatly influenced by the geography of Detroit's urban decline and its industrial past. Prominent Detroit techno artists include Juan Atkins, Derrick May, and Kevin Saunderson. The Detroit Electronic Music Festival, now known as "Movement", occurs annually in late May on Memorial Day Weekend, and takes place in Hart Plaza. In the early years (2000-2002), this was a landmark event, boasting over a million estimated attendees annually, coming from all over the world to celebrate Techno music in the city of its birth.
What building does the Detroit Symphony Orchestra play in?
5728ccee3acd2414000dfecf
Orchestra Hall
314
False
What family purchased the Detroit opera House?
5728ccee3acd2414000dfed0
Nederlander
562
False
How many seats does the Fisher Theater have?
5728ccee3acd2414000dfed1
2,089
217
False
Which Detroit theater has 4,404 seats?
5728ccee3acd2414000dfed2
Masonic Temple Theatre
120
False
In what year was the Detroit Opera House purchased?
5728ccee3acd2414000dfed3
1922
550
False
Major theaters in Detroit include the Fox Theatre (5,174 seats), Music Hall (1,770 seats), the Gem Theatre (451 seats), Masonic Temple Theatre (4,404 seats), the Detroit Opera House (2,765 seats), the Fisher Theatre (2,089 seats), The Fillmore Detroit (2,200 seats), Saint Andrew's Hall, the Majestic Theater, and Orchestra Hall (2,286 seats) which hosts the renowned Detroit Symphony Orchestra. The Nederlander Organization, the largest controller of Broadway productions in New York City, originated with the purchase of the Detroit Opera House in 1922 by the Nederlander family.
What is the name of the art museum in Detroit?
5728cdc64b864d1900164e72
Detroit Institute of Arts
188
False
What is the name of the Detroit museum of African American history?
5728cdc64b864d1900164e73
Charles H. Wright Museum of African American History
246
False
Where was the birthplace of the Model T?
5728cdc64b864d1900164e74
Ford Piquette Avenue Plant
450
False
What does MOCAD stand for?
5728cdc64b864d1900164e75
Museum of Contemporary Art Detroit
695
False
What does CAID stand for?
5728cdc64b864d1900164e76
Contemporary Art Institute of Detroit
743
False
Many of the area's prominent museums are located in the historic cultural center neighborhood around Wayne State University and the College for Creative Studies. These museums include the Detroit Institute of Arts, the Detroit Historical Museum, Charles H. Wright Museum of African American History, the Detroit Science Center, as well as the main branch of the Detroit Public Library. Other cultural highlights include Motown Historical Museum, the Ford Piquette Avenue Plant museum (birthplace of the Ford Model T and the world's oldest car factory building open to the public), the Pewabic Pottery studio and school, the Tuskegee Airmen Museum, Fort Wayne, the Dossin Great Lakes Museum, the Museum of Contemporary Art Detroit (MOCAD), the Contemporary Art Institute of Detroit (CAID), and the Belle Isle Conservatory.
What is the U.S.'s largest museum complex?
5728ce8f2ca10214002da84c
The Henry Ford
163
False
Where is the Detroit Zoo?
5728ce8f2ca10214002da84d
Royal Oak
501
False
What museum is in Bloomfield Hills?
5728ce8f2ca10214002da84e
Cranbrook Art Museum
516
False
What museum is on Belle Isle?
5728ce8f2ca10214002da84f
Anna Scripps Whitcomb Conservatory
562
False
What Detroit gallery opened in 2010?
5728ce8f2ca10214002da850
G.R. N'Namdi Gallery
13
False
In 2010, the G.R. N'Namdi Gallery opened in a 16,000-square-foot (1,500 m2) complex in Midtown. Important history of America and the Detroit area are exhibited at The Henry Ford in Dearborn, the United States' largest indoor-outdoor museum complex. The Detroit Historical Society provides information about tours of area churches, skyscrapers, and mansions. Inside Detroit, meanwhile, hosts tours, educational programming, and a downtown welcome center. Other sites of interest are the Detroit Zoo in Royal Oak, the Cranbrook Art Museum in Bloomfield Hills, the Anna Scripps Whitcomb Conservatory on Belle Isle, and Walter P. Chrysler Museum in Auburn Hills.
Which market has the largest open air flowerbed in the US?
5728cf903acd2414000dff1b
Eastern Market
104
False
How big is Midtown's population?
5728cf903acd2414000dff1c
50,000
457
False
Which festival attracts over a quarter million visitors?
5728cf903acd2414000dff1d
Detroit Festival of the Arts
572
False
How many casino resorts ore in downtown?
5728cf903acd2414000dff1e
three
25
False
On which day does Eastern Market attract the most visitors?
5728cf903acd2414000dff1f
Saturdays
267
False
The city's Greektown and three downtown casino resort hotels serve as part of an entertainment hub. The Eastern Market farmer's distribution center is the largest open-air flowerbed market in the United States and has more than 150 foods and specialty businesses. On Saturdays, about 45,000 people shop the city's historic Eastern Market. The Midtown and the New Center area are centered on Wayne State University and Henry Ford Hospital. Midtown has about 50,000 residents and attracts millions of visitors each year to its museums and cultural centers; for example, the Detroit Festival of the Arts in Midtown draws about 350,000 people.
Which parks hosts the Winter Bash?
5728d0853acd2414000dff35
Campus Martius Park
224
False
Which parade started in 1924?
5728d0853acd2414000dff36
America's Thanksgiving Parade
428
False
Which festival spans five days?
5728d0853acd2414000dff37
River Days
490
False
Which festival draws up to 3 million people?
5728d0853acd2414000dff38
Windsor–Detroit International Freedom Festival
576
False
What is the country music festival in Detroit called?
5728d0853acd2414000dff39
Hoedown
162
False
Annual summer events include the Electronic Music Festival, International Jazz Festival, the Woodward Dream Cruise, the African World Festival, the country music Hoedown, Noel Night, and Dally in the Alley. Within downtown, Campus Martius Park hosts large events, including the annual Motown Winter Blast. As the world's traditional automotive center, the city hosts the North American International Auto Show. Held since 1924, America's Thanksgiving Parade is one of the nation's largest. River Days, a five-day summer festival on the International Riverfront lead up to the Windsor–Detroit International Freedom Festival fireworks, which draw super sized-crowds ranging from hundreds of thousands to over three million people.
Who sculpted the Spirit of Detroit?
5728d1552ca10214002da89c
Marshall Fredericks
70
False
When was the Joe Louis memorial dedicated?
5728d1552ca10214002da89d
October 16, 1986
383
False
Who commissioned the Joe Luis memorial?
5728d1552ca10214002da89e
Sports Illustrated
432
False
Who sculpted the Joe Louis memorial?
5728d1552ca10214002da89f
Robert Graham
467
False
How long is the Joe Louis memorial?
5728d1552ca10214002da8a0
24-foot
487
False
An important civic sculpture in Detroit is "The Spirit of Detroit" by Marshall Fredericks at the Coleman Young Municipal Center. The image is often used as a symbol of Detroit and the statue itself is occasionally dressed in sports jerseys to celebrate when a Detroit team is doing well. A memorial to Joe Louis at the intersection of Jefferson and Woodward Avenues was dedicated on October 16, 1986. The sculpture, commissioned by Sports Illustrated and executed by Robert Graham, is a 24-foot (7.3 m) long arm with a fisted hand suspended by a pyramidal framework.
How many metropolitan areas boast teams from all major US sports?
5728d223ff5b5019007da750
12
18
False
What is the name of Detroit Piston's arena?
5728d223ff5b5019007da751
The Palace of Auburn Hills
261
False
Where do the Tigers play?
5728d223ff5b5019007da752
Comerica Park
350
False
Where do the Lions play?
5728d223ff5b5019007da753
Ford Field
421
False
Where do the Red Wings play?
5728d223ff5b5019007da754
Joe Louis Arena
471
False
Detroit is one of 12 American metropolitan areas that are home to professional teams representing the four major sports in North America. All these teams but one play within the city of Detroit itself (the NBA's Detroit Pistons play in suburban Auburn Hills at The Palace of Auburn Hills). There are three active major sports venues within the city: Comerica Park (home of the Major League Baseball team Detroit Tigers), Ford Field (home of the NFL's Detroit Lions), and Joe Louis Arena (home of the NHL's Detroit Red Wings). A 1996 marketing campaign promoted the nickname "Hockeytown".
Which bowl game is held in Detroit?
5728d2c23acd2414000dff6d
Little Caesars Pizza Bowl
515
False
Where is the MAC Football Championship game played?
5728d2c23acd2414000dff6e
Ford Field
286
False
Which conference has held many of it's championships games in Detroit?
5728d2c23acd2414000dff6f
Mid-American Conference
57
False
In college sports, Detroit's central location within the Mid-American Conference has made it a frequent site for the league's championship events. While the MAC Basketball Tournament moved permanently to Cleveland starting in 2000, the MAC Football Championship Game has been played at Ford Field in Detroit since 2004, and annually attracts 25,000 to 30,000 fans. The University of Detroit Mercy has a NCAA Division I program, and Wayne State University has both NCAA Division I and II programs. The NCAA football Little Caesars Pizza Bowl is held at Ford Field each December.
What is Detroit's sports related nickname?
5728d37b4b864d1900164eea
City of Champions
70
False
What is Eddie Tolan's nickname?
5728d37b4b864d1900164eeb
The Midnight Express
388
False
Who won the boxing title in 1937?
5728d37b4b864d1900164eec
Joe Louis
511
False
Who won the Stanley Cup in 1936?
5728d37b4b864d1900164eed
Red Wings
326
False
Who won the World Series in 1935?
5728d37b4b864d1900164eee
Tigers
224
False
In the years following the mid-1930s, Detroit was referred to as the "City of Champions" after the Tigers, Lions, and Red Wings captured all three major professional sports championships in a seven-month period of time (the Tigers won the World Series in October 1935; the Lions won the NFL championship in December 1935; the Red Wings won the Stanley Cup in April 1936). In 1932, Eddie "The Midnight Express" Tolan from Detroit won the 100- and 200-meter races and two gold medals at the 1932 Summer Olympics. Joe Louis won the heavyweight championship of the world in 1937.
How many people are on the city council?
5728d4373acd2414000dff97
nine
123
False
When was Detroit's charter approved?
5728d4373acd2414000dff98
1974
245
False
Who approves Detroit's budgets?
5728d4373acd2414000dff99
The council
346
False
What is Detroit's charter called?
5728d4373acd2414000dff9a
Home Rule Charter
37
False
The city is governed pursuant to the Home Rule Charter of the City of Detroit. The city government is run by a mayor and a nine-member city council and clerk elected on an at-large nonpartisan ballot. Since voters approved the city's charter in 1974, Detroit has had a "strong mayoral" system, with the mayor approving departmental appointments. The council approves budgets but the mayor is not obligated to adhere to any earmarking. City ordinances and substantially large contracts must be approved by the council. The Detroit City Code is the codification of Detroit's local ordinances.
Where is Wayne County's Probate Court located?
5728d4d3ff5b5019007da7ba
Coleman A. Young Municipal Center
124
False
Where is the Circuit Court located?
5728d4d3ff5b5019007da7bb
Frank Murphy Hall of Justice
235
False
Which District Court is Detroit home to?
5728d4d3ff5b5019007da7bc
Thirty-Sixth
310
False
Detroit's courts are state-administered and elections are nonpartisan. The Probate Court for Wayne County is located in the Coleman A. Young Municipal Center in downtown Detroit. The Circuit Court is located across Gratiot Ave. in the Frank Murphy Hall of Justice, in downtown Detroit. The city is home to the Thirty-Sixth District Court, as well as the First District of the Michigan Court of Appeals and the United States District Court for the Eastern District of Michigan. The city provides law enforcement through the Detroit Police Department and emergency services through the Detroit Fire Department.
What was Detroit's murder rate in 2014?
5728d5b54b864d1900164f0e
43.4 per 100,000
212
False
What was Detroit's murder rate in the mid to late 80s?
5728d5b54b864d1900164f0f
58 per 100,000
136
False
What city had a higher murder rate than Detroit in 2014?
5728d5b54b864d1900164f10
St. Louis
244
False
How many murders did Detroit have in 2014?
5728d5b54b864d1900164f11
299
496
False
How many murders did Detroit have in 2015?
5728d5b54b864d1900164f12
295
453
False
Detroit has struggled with high crime for decades. Detroit held the title of murder capital between 1985-1987 with a murder rate around 58 per 100,000. Crime has since decreased and, in 2014, the murder rate was 43.4 per 100,000, lower than in St. Louis, Missouri. Although the murder rate increased by 6% during the first half of 2015, it was surpassed by St Louis and Baltimore which saw much greater spikes in violence. At year-end 2015, Detroit had 295 criminal homicides, down slightly from 299 in 2014.
What fraction of Michigan's homicides occurred in Detroit?
5728d69d4b864d1900164f22
two-thirds
7
False
What is Detroit's rate of property crime?
5728d69d4b864d1900164f23
62.18 per 1,000
344
False
What was the national rate of violent crimes in 2008?
5728d69d4b864d1900164f24
5 per 1,000
500
False
What was Detroit's rate of violent crimes in 2008?
5728d69d4b864d1900164f25
16.73 per 1,000
395
False
Nearly two-thirds of all murders in Michigan in 2011 occurred in Detroit. Although the rate of violent crime dropped 11 percent in 2008, violent crime in Detroit has not declined as much as the national average from 2007 to 2011. The violent crime rate is one of the highest in the United States. Neighborhoodscout.com reported a crime rate of 62.18 per 1,000 residents for property crimes, and 16.73 per 1,000 for violent crimes (compared to national figures of 32 per 1,000 for property crimes and 5 per 1,000 for violent crime in 2008).
When was Detroit incorporated?
5728d743ff5b5019007da7ea
1802
36
False
How many mayors has Detroit had?
5728d743ff5b5019007da7eb
74
69
False
Who was Detroit's last Republican mayor?
5728d743ff5b5019007da7ec
Louis Miriani
131
False
Who was Detroit's first black mayor?
5728d743ff5b5019007da7ed
Coleman Young
225
False
What was Dennis Archer's former occupation?
5728d743ff5b5019007da7ee
Supreme Court Justice
410
False
Beginning with its incorporation in 1802, Detroit has had a total of 74 mayors. Detroit's last mayor from the Republican Party was Louis Miriani, who served from 1957 to 1962. In 1973, the city elected its first black mayor, Coleman Young. Despite development efforts, his combative style during his five terms in office was not well received by many suburban residents. Mayor Dennis Archer, a former Michigan Supreme Court Justice, refocused the city's attention on redevelopment with a plan to permit three casinos downtown. By 2008, three major casino resort hotels established operations in the city.
Who was Michigan's governor in 2013?
5728d8182ca10214002da948
Rick Snyder
24
False
What judge declared Detroit bankrupt?
5728d8182ca10214002da949
Stephen Rhodes
999
False
What type of bankruptcy did Detroit file?
5728d8182ca10214002da94a
Chapter 9
927
False
When did Detroit file for bankruptcy?
5728d8182ca10214002da94b
July 18, 2013
882
False
How much did Detroit owe when it was declared bankrupt?
5728d8182ca10214002da94c
$18.5 billion
1038
False
In March 2013, Governor Rick Snyder declared a financial emergency in the city, stating that the city has a $327 million budget deficit and faces more than $14 billion in long-term debt. It has been making ends meet on a month-to-month basis with the help of bond money held in a state escrow account and has instituted mandatory unpaid days off for many city workers. Those troubles, along with underfunded city services, such as police and fire departments, and ineffective turnaround plans from Bing and the City Council led the state of Michigan to appoint an emergency manager for Detroit on March 14, 2013. On June 14, 2013 Detroit defaulted on $2.5 billion of debt by withholding $39.7 million in interest payments, while Emergency Manager Kevyn Orr met with bondholders and other creditors in an attempt to restructure the city's $18.5 billion debt and avoid bankruptcy. On July 18, 2013, the City of Detroit filed for Chapter 9 bankruptcy protection. It was declared bankrupt by U.S. judge Stephen Rhodes on December 3, with its $18.5 billion debt he said in accepting the city's contention that it is broke and that negotiations with its thousands of creditors were infeasible.
What research university is located in Midtown?
5728d8e3ff5b5019007da80e
Wayne State University
69
False
What Catholic university is in Detroit?
5728d8e3ff5b5019007da80f
University of Detroit Mercy
229
False
In which district is Detroit Mercy's Law School located?
5728d8e3ff5b5019007da810
Downtown
705
False
Which Catholic society is Detroit Mercy affiliated with?
5728d8e3ff5b5019007da811
Society of Jesus
391
False
Detroit is home to several institutions of higher learning including Wayne State University, a national research university with medical and law schools in the Midtown area offering hundreds of academic degrees and programs. The University of Detroit Mercy, located in Northwest Detroit in the University District, is a prominent Roman Catholic co-educational university affiliated with the Society of Jesus (the Jesuits) and the Sisters of Mercy. The University of Detroit Mercy offers more than a hundred academic degrees and programs of study including business, dentistry, law, engineering, architecture, nursing and allied health professions. The University of Detroit Mercy School of Law is located Downtown across from the Renaissance Center.
What Seminary is located in Detroit?
5728d9ff3acd2414000e0039
Sacred Heart Major Seminary
0
False
When was Sacred Heart Major Seminary founded?
5728d9ff3acd2414000e003a
1919
51
False
What University opened a satellite campus in the Detroit Medical Center?
5728d9ff3acd2414000e003b
Michigan State
498
False
When was the University of Michigan founded?
5728d9ff3acd2414000e003c
1817
698
False
When did the University of Michigan leave Detroit?
5728d9ff3acd2414000e003d
1837
746
False
Sacred Heart Major Seminary, originally founded in 1919, is affiliated with Pontifical University of Saint Thomas Aquinas, Angelicum in Rome and offers pontifical degrees as well as civil undergraduate and graduate degrees. Sacred Heart Major Seminary offers a variety of academic programs for both clerical and lay students. Other institutions in the city include the College for Creative Studies, Lewis College of Business, Marygrove College and Wayne County Community College. In June 2009, the Michigan State University College of Osteopathic Medicine which is based in East Lansing opened a satellite campus located at the Detroit Medical Center. The University of Michigan was established in 1817 in Detroit and later moved to Ann Arbor in 1837. In 1959, University of Michigan–Dearborn was established in neighboring Dearborn.
How many Catholic high schools are in Detroit?
5728dacc2ca10214002da9a8
three
191
False
How many Catholic grade schools are in Detroit?
5728dacc2ca10214002da9a9
four
159
False
On which side of the city of the city are all of the Catholic schools located?
5728dacc2ca10214002da9aa
west
274
False
Two of the three Catholic high schools are operated by which religious group?
5728dacc2ca10214002da9ab
Society of Jesus
502
False
Detroit is served by various private schools, as well as parochial Roman Catholic schools operated by the Archdiocese of Detroit. As of 2013[update] there are four Catholic grade schools and three Catholic high schools in the City of Detroit, with all of them in the city's west side. The Archdiocese of Detroit lists a number of primary and secondary schools in the metro area as Catholic education has emigrated to the suburbs. Of the three Catholic high schools in the city, two are operated by the Society of Jesus and the third is co-sponsored by the Sisters, Servants of the Immaculate Heart of Mary and the Congregation of St. Basil.
Under which agreement are Detroit's major newspapers published?
5728db933acd2414000e0071
Detroit Newspaper Partnership
169
False
When was The Metro Times founded?
5728db933acd2414000e0072
1980
557
False
In what year did Detroit's two major newspapers reduce home delivery?
5728db933acd2414000e0073
2009
341
False
The Detroit Free Press and The Detroit News are the major daily newspapers, both broadsheet publications published together under a joint operating agreement called the Detroit Newspaper Partnership. Media philanthropy includes the Detroit Free Press high school journalism program and the Old Newsboys' Goodfellow Fund of Detroit. In March 2009, the two newspapers reduced home delivery to three days a week, print reduced newsstand issues of the papers on non-delivery days and focus resources on Internet-based news delivery. The Metro Times, founded in 1980, is a weekly publication, covering news, arts & entertainment.
What newspaper was founded in 1935?
5728dc74ff5b5019007da86a
Michigan Chronicle
46
False
How is Detroit's TV market ranked?
5728dc74ff5b5019007da86b
11th largest
252
False
How often does the Michigan Chronicle publish?
5728dc74ff5b5019007da86c
weekly
122
False
What province of Canada is a large consumer of Detroit programming?
5728dc74ff5b5019007da86d
Ontario
366
False
Also founded in 1935 and based in Detroit the Michigan Chronicle is one of the oldest and most respected African-American weekly newspapers in America. Covering politics, entertainment, sports and community events. The Detroit television market is the 11th largest in the United States; according to estimates that do not include audiences located in large areas of Ontario, Canada (Windsor and its surrounding area on broadcast and cable TV, as well as several other cable markets in Ontario, such as the city of Ottawa) which receive and watch Detroit television stations.
How many major hospitals are in Detroit?
5728dd4c2ca10214002da9c8
over a dozen
38
False
What is the Detroit VA hospital called?
5728dd4c2ca10214002da9c9
John D. Dingell
173
False
How many affiliated physicians does the DMC have?
5728dd4c2ca10214002da9ca
3,000
569
False
How many beds does the DMC have?
5728dd4c2ca10214002da9cb
2,000
545
False
Who is the largest private employer in Detroit?
5728dd4c2ca10214002da9cc
DMC
109
False
Within the city of Detroit, there are over a dozen major hospitals which include the Detroit Medical Center (DMC), Henry Ford Health System, St. John Health System, and the John D. Dingell VA Medical Center. The DMC, a regional Level I trauma center, consists of Detroit Receiving Hospital and University Health Center, Children's Hospital of Michigan, Harper University Hospital, Hutzel Women's Hospital, Kresge Eye Institute, Rehabilitation Institute of Michigan, Sinai-Grace Hospital, and the Karmanos Cancer Institute. The DMC has more than 2,000 licensed beds and 3,000 affiliated physicians. It is the largest private employer in the City of Detroit. The center is staffed by physicians from the Wayne State University School of Medicine, the largest single-campus medical school in the United States, and the United States' fourth largest medical school overall.
Detroit Medical Center has become a part of what Health System?
5728de4d2ca10214002da9e6
Vanguard Health Systems
49
False
How much does Vanguard plan to invest in DMC?
5728de4d2ca10214002da9e7
$1.5 B
161
False
What is a name of a Catholic hospital in Detroit?
5728de4d2ca10214002da9e8
St. Joseph's
484
False
How much will Vanguard spend to retire debt for DMC?
5728de4d2ca10214002da9e9
$417 M
225
False
How much does Vanguard plan to spend in capital investment?
5728de4d2ca10214002da9ea
$500 M
307
False
Detroit Medical Center formally became a part of Vanguard Health Systems on December 30, 2010, as a for profit corporation. Vanguard has agreed to invest nearly $1.5 B in the Detroit Medical Center complex which will include $417 M to retire debts, at least $350 M in capital expenditures and an additional $500 M for new capital investment. Vanguard has agreed to assume all debts and pension obligations. The metro area has many other hospitals including William Beaumont Hospital, St. Joseph's, and University of Michigan Medical Center.
Who is the Transport Minister in Canada?
5728df482ca10214002da9fe
Lisa Raitt
50
False
How much is the U.S. Customs plaza expected to cost?
5728df482ca10214002da9ff
$250 million
128
False
How much is the Gordie Howe International Bridge expected to cost?
5728df482ca10214002daa00
$2.1 billion
335
False
When is the Gordie Howe International Bridge expected to open?
5728df482ca10214002daa01
2020
376
False
How much of the Gordie Howe International Bridge is Canada going to pay for?
5728df482ca10214002daa02
95 per cent
292
False
On February 18, 2015, Canadian Transport Minister Lisa Raitt announced that Canada has agreed to pay the entire cost to build a $250 million U.S. Customs plaza adjacent to the planned new Detroit–Windsor bridge, now the Gordie Howe International Bridge. Canada had already planned to pay for 95 per cent of the bridge, which will cost $2.1 billion, and is expected to open in 2020. "This allows Canada and Michigan to move the project forward immediately to its next steps which include further design work and property acquisition on the U.S. side of the border," Raitt said in a statement issued after she spoke in the House of Commons.
Which Interstate is the major north-south route?
5728dffeff5b5019007da8a4
I-75
337
False
Which of the Great Lakes does I-75 pass next to?
5728dffeff5b5019007da8a5
Lake Erie
576
False
How many major interstates are serve Detroit?
5728dffeff5b5019007da8a6
Four
120
False
Metro Detroit has an extensive toll-free network of freeways administered by the Michigan Department of Transportation. Four major Interstate Highways surround the city. Detroit is connected via Interstate 75 (I-75) and I-96 to Kings Highway 401 and to major Southern Ontario cities such as London, Ontario and the Greater Toronto Area. I-75 (Chrysler and Fisher freeways) is the region's main north–south route, serving Flint, Pontiac, Troy, and Detroit, before continuing south (as the Detroit–Toledo and Seaway Freeways) to serve many of the communities along the shore of Lake Erie.
What is I-94 called?
5728e0c02ca10214002daa08
Edsel Ford Freeway
6
False
Who built I-94?
5728e0c02ca10214002daa09
Henry Ford
275
False
A part of I-94 was an example of what type of highway?
5728e0c02ca10214002daa0a
limited-access
250
False
During which conflict was I-94 built?
5728e0c02ca10214002daa0b
World War II
351
False
I-94 (Edsel Ford Freeway) runs east–west through Detroit and serves Ann Arbor to the west (where it continues to Chicago) and Port Huron to the northeast. The stretch of the current I-94 freeway from Ypsilanti to Detroit was one of America's earlier limited-access highways. Henry Ford built it to link the factories at Willow Run and Dearborn during World War II. A portion was known as the Willow Run Expressway. The I-96 freeway runs northwest–southeast through Livingston, Oakland and Wayne counties and (as the Jeffries Freeway through Wayne County) has its eastern terminus in downtown Detroit.
Which highway is an extension of the Chrysler Freeway?
5728e2104b864d190016500e
I-375
153
False
What is I-696 called?
5728e2104b864d190016500f
Reuther Freeway
247
False
Which highway runs through the northern suburbs of Detroit?
5728e2104b864d1900165010
I-696
240
False
Michigan uses what letter to designate roads that connect major highways?
5728e2104b864d1900165011
M
492
False
Which highway runs north from I-75 to the junction of I-96 and I-696?
5728e2104b864d1900165012
I-275
0
False
I-275 runs north–south from I-75 in the south to the junction of I-96 and I-696 in the north, providing a bypass through the western suburbs of Detroit. I-375 is a short spur route in downtown Detroit, an extension of the Chrysler Freeway. I-696 (Reuther Freeway) runs east–west from the junction of I-96 and I-275, providing a route through the northern suburbs of Detroit. Taken together, I-275 and I-696 form a semicircle around Detroit. Michigan state highways designated with the letter M serve to connect major freeways.
London
As of 2011 what was the population of the core of London?
5727b5302ca10214002d947e
7,375
437
False
On what river is London situated?
5727b5302ca10214002d947f
River Thames
107
False
What was London's original name, as founded by the Romans?
5727b5302ca10214002d9480
Londinium
275
False
What bodies govern Greater London?
5727b5302ca10214002d9481
the Mayor of London and the London Assembly
688
False
What is the approximate area of the core of the City of London?
5727b5302ca10214002d9482
1.12-square-mile (2.9 km2)
349
False
London i/ˈlʌndən/ is the capital and most populous city of England and the United Kingdom. Standing on the River Thames in the south eastern part of the island of Great Britain, London has been a major settlement for two millennia. It was founded by the Romans, who named it Londinium. London's ancient core, the City of London, largely retains its 1.12-square-mile (2.9 km2) medieval boundaries and in 2011 had a resident population of 7,375, making it the smallest city in England. Since at least the 19th century, the term London has also referred to the metropolis developed around this core. The bulk of this conurbation forms Greater London,[note 1] a region of England governed by the Mayor of London and the London Assembly.[note 2] The conurbation also covers two English counties: the small district of the City of London and the county of Greater London. The latter constitutes the vast majority of London, though historically it was split between Middlesex (a now abolished county), Essex, Surrey, Kent and Hertfordshire.
Where does London rank in terms of metropolitan area GDP?
5727b7aa4b864d1900163b3e
fifth-or sixth-largest
305
False
How many times has London hosted the Summer Olympic Games?
5727b7aa4b864d1900163b3f
three
1147
False
What measurement designates London as the world's most visited city?
5727b7aa4b864d1900163b40
international arrivals
484
False
How many universities does London boast?
5727b7aa4b864d1900163b41
43
752
False
When did London most recently host the Summer Olympics?
5727b7aa4b864d1900163b42
2012
1072
False
London is a leading global city, with strengths in the arts, commerce, education, entertainment, fashion, finance, healthcare, media, professional services, research and development, tourism, and transport all contributing to its prominence. It is one of the world's leading financial centres and has the fifth-or sixth-largest metropolitan area GDP in the world depending on measurement.[note 3] London is a world cultural capital. It is the world's most-visited city as measured by international arrivals and has the world's largest city airport system measured by passenger traffic. London is one of the world's leading investment destinations, hosting more international retailers and ultra high-net-worth individuals than any other city. London's 43 universities form the largest concentration of higher education institutes in Europe, and a 2014 report placed it first in the world university rankings. According to the report London also ranks first in the world in software, multimedia development and design, and shares first position in technology readiness. In 2012, London became the first city to host the modern Summer Olympic Games three times.
From the 2011 census, London is second in population in the EU to which city?
5727baf12ca10214002d94ea
Paris
374
False
During what time did London have the world's largest population, city-wise?
5727baf12ca10214002d94eb
around 1831 to 1925
724
False
Approximately how many languages are spoken in the Greater London area?
5727baf12ca10214002d94ec
more than 300
56
False
As of mid-2014, London's population forms what percentage of the entire United Kingdom population?
5727baf12ca10214002d94ed
12.5
274
False
What is the population of metropolitan London?
5727baf12ca10214002d94ee
13,879,757
510
False
London has a diverse range of peoples and cultures, and more than 300 languages are spoken within Greater London. The Office for National Statistics estimated its mid-2014 population to be 8,538,689, the largest of any municipality in the European Union, and accounting for 12.5 percent of the UK population. London's urban area is the second most populous in the EU, after Paris, with 9,787,426 inhabitants according to the 2011 census. The city's metropolitan area is one of the most populous in Europe with 13,879,757 inhabitants,[note 4] while the Greater London Authority states the population of the city-region (covering a large part of the south east) as 22.7 million. London was the world's most populous city from around 1831 to 1925.
How many theaters does London's West End have?
5727c1c43acd2414000debcf
40
644
False
Where does Greenwich Mean Time marked?
5727c1c43acd2414000debd0
the Royal Observatory, Greenwich
220
False
What famous palace is located in London?
5727c1c43acd2414000debd1
Buckingham Palace
334
False
What is the name of the world's oldest underground railway?
5727c1c43acd2414000debd2
The London Underground
666
False
How many World Heritage Sites can be found in London?
5727c1c43acd2414000debd3
four
16
False
London contains four World Heritage Sites: the Tower of London; Kew Gardens; the site comprising the Palace of Westminster, Westminster Abbey, and St Margaret's Church; and the historic settlement of Greenwich (in which the Royal Observatory, Greenwich marks the Prime Meridian, 0° longitude, and GMT). Other famous landmarks include Buckingham Palace, the London Eye, Piccadilly Circus, St Paul's Cathedral, Tower Bridge, Trafalgar Square, and The Shard. London is home to numerous museums, galleries, libraries, sporting events and other cultural institutions, including the British Museum, National Gallery, Tate Modern, British Library and 40 West End theatres. The London Underground is the oldest underground railway network in the world.
Early consensus was that London's name originated in what language?
5727c4f12ca10214002d95dc
Celtic
57
False
What is the meaning of the later-believed pre-Celtic Old European origin of London's name?
5727c4f12ca10214002d95dd
'river too wide to ford
290
False
What is the modern Welsh form o the word London?
5727c4f12ca10214002d95de
Llundain
634
False
Who came up with an explanation of the origins of London's name that contradicted earlier assumptions
5727c4f12ca10214002d95df
Richard Coates
166
False
In what year did Richard Coates offer a differing explanation as to the origins of London's name?
5727c4f12ca10214002d95e0
1998
211
False
From 1898, it was commonly accepted that the name was of Celtic origin and meant place belonging to a man called *Londinos; this explanation has since been rejected. Richard Coates put forward an explanation in 1998 that it is derived from the pre-Celtic Old European *(p)lowonida, meaning 'river too wide to ford', and suggested that this was a name given to the part of the River Thames which flows through London; from this, the settlement gained the Celtic form of its name, *Lowonidonjon; this requires quite a serious amendment however. The ultimate difficulty lies in reconciling the Latin form Londinium with the modern Welsh Llundain, which should demand a form *(h)lōndinion (as opposed to *londīnion), from earlier *loundiniom. The possibility cannot be ruled out that the Welsh name was borrowed back in from English at a later date, and thus cannot be used as a basis from which to reconstruct the original name.
What river flows into the River Thames?
5727cc862ca10214002d969e
the River Effra
578
False
The remains of an ancient bridge found on the shore of the River Thames was dated back to what archaeological period?
5727cc862ca10214002d969f
Bronze Age
126
False
The remains of what type of structure from the mesolithic period was found on the River Thames's foreshore?
5727cc862ca10214002d96a0
not known
498
False
How many ancient structures' ruins have been found near the River Thames in recent history?
5727cc862ca10214002d96a1
Two
0
False
The remains of an unknown ancient structure found on the River Thames foreshore dated back to approximately what year?
5727cc862ca10214002d96a2
4500 BC
383
False
Two recent discoveries indicate probable very early settlements near the Thames in the London area. In 1999, the remains of a Bronze Age bridge were found on the foreshore north of Vauxhall Bridge. This bridge either crossed the Thames, or went to a now lost island in the river. Dendrology dated the timbers to 1500 BC. In 2010 the foundations of a large timber structure, dated to 4500 BC, were found on the Thames foreshore, south of Vauxhall Bridge. The function of the mesolithic structure is not known. Both structures are on South Bank, at a natural crossing point where the River Effra flows into the River Thames.
Who was the leader of the Iceni tribe?
5727cf404b864d1900163da0
Queen Boudica
219
False
What was Roman London's population in the 2nd century?
5727cf404b864d1900163da1
around 60,000
488
False
The Romans invaded what is now London and established its first major settlement in what year?
5727cf404b864d1900163da2
43 AD
150
False
What was the capital of Britannia before Londinium?
5727cf404b864d1900163da3
Colchester
352
False
Who invaded and destroyed the first major settlement of Roman London in 61 AD?
5727cf404b864d1900163da4
the Iceni tribe
196
False
Although there is evidence of scattered Brythonic settlements in the area, the first major settlement was founded by the Romans after the invasion of 43 AD. This lasted only until around 61, when the Iceni tribe led by Queen Boudica stormed it, burning it to the ground. The next, heavily planned, incarnation of Londinium prospered, and it superseded Colchester as the capital of the Roman province of Britannia in 100. At its height in the 2nd century, Roman London had a population of around 60,000.
What area continued to exist after Londinium was abandoned following the end of Roman rule?
5727dbb33acd2414000dee2f
St Martin-in-the-Fields
193
False
What was responsible for the decline of the Anglo-Saxon settlement of Lundenwic?
5727dbb33acd2414000dee30
repeated Viking invasions
553
False
How many known attacks on London did the Vikings commit?
5727dbb33acd2414000dee31
three
590
False
By the late 7th century, what was a main function of Lundenwic?
5727dbb33acd2414000dee32
a major port
426
False
Of the three recorded Viking assaults on London, how many were successful?
5727dbb33acd2414000dee33
two
632
False
With the collapse of Roman rule in the early 5th century, London ceased to be a capital and the walled city of Londinium was effectively abandoned, although Roman civilisation continued in the St Martin-in-the-Fields area until around 450. From around 500, an Anglo-Saxon settlement known as Lundenwic developed in the same area, slightly to the west of the old Roman city. By about 680, it had revived sufficiently to become a major port, although there is little evidence of large-scale production of goods. From the 820s the town declined because of repeated Viking invasions. There are three recorded Viking assaults on London; two of which were successful in 851 and 886 AD, although they were defeated during the attack of 994 AD.
According to the Anglo-Saxon chronicle, who reestablished London in 886 AD?
5727ddfc3acd2414000dee79
Alfred the Great
408
False
Danelaw, established by the Vikings, covered what  geographical area?
5727ddfc3acd2414000dee7a
London to Chester
128
False
What was the name of the Danish warlord who played a major role in establishing Danelaw?
5727ddfc3acd2414000dee7b
Guthrum
285
False
Following the Viking invasion, when did London begin to significantly grow and expand?
5727ddfc3acd2414000dee7c
about 950
597
False
What was Danelaw?
5727ddfc3acd2414000dee7d
political and geographical control imposed by the Viking incursions
165
False
The Vikings established Danelaw over much of the eastern and northern part of England with its boundary roughly stretching from London to Chester. It was an area of political and geographical control imposed by the Viking incursions which was formally agreed to by the Danish warlord, Guthrum and west-Saxon king, Alfred the Great in 886 AD. The Anglo-Saxon Chronicle recorded that London was "refounded" by Alfred the Great in 886. Archaeological research shows that this involved abandonment of Lundenwic and a revival of life and trade within the old Roman walls. London then grew slowly until about 950, after which activity increased dramatically.
Who rebuilt Westminster Abbey?
5727e856ff5b5019007d981a
King Edward the Confessor
137
False
By which century had London started becoming a prominent capital city?
5727e856ff5b5019007d981b
the 11th century
3
False
What architectural style was Westminster Abbey rebuilt in?
5727e856ff5b5019007d981c
Romanesque
117
False
What historian was quoted as saying that London had all the necessary characteristics to be a major capital city?
5727e856ff5b5019007d981d
Frank Stenton
403
False
Prior to the 11th century, what was Anglo-Saxon England's capital?
5727e856ff5b5019007d981e
Winchester
208
False
By the 11th century, London was beyond all comparison the largest town in England. Westminster Abbey, rebuilt in the Romanesque style by King Edward the Confessor, was one of the grandest churches in Europe. Winchester had previously been the capital of Anglo-Saxon England, but from this time on, London became the main forum for foreign traders and the base for defence in time of war. In the view of Frank Stenton: "It had the resources, and it was rapidly developing the dignity and the political self-consciousness appropriate to a national capital."
In what area of London was the Tower of London built?
5727eb304b864d190016401a
southeastern corner
287
False
The Palace of Westminster originated from what building?
5727eb304b864d190016401b
Westminster Hall
400
False
On what day did Duke William II of Normandy become King of England?
5727eb304b864d190016401c
Christmas Day 1066
147
False
Who built Westminster Hall?
5727eb304b864d190016401d
William II
367
False
In which famous battle did Duke William II of Normandy see victory?
5727eb304b864d190016401e
the Battle of Hastings
25
False
Following his victory in the Battle of Hastings, William, Duke of Normandy, was crowned King of England in the newly finished Westminster Abbey on Christmas Day 1066. William constructed the Tower of London, the first of the many Norman castles in England to be rebuilt in stone, in the southeastern corner of the city, to intimidate the native inhabitants. In 1097, William II began the building of Westminster Hall, close by the abbey of the same name. The hall became the basis of a new Palace of Westminster.
What was the administration which governed the City of London called?
5727ee24ff5b5019007d98c6
the Corporation of London
602
False
In the 12th century, where were the various bodies of English government centrally located for the most part?
5727ee24ff5b5019007d98c7
Westminster
251
False
Where was the royal treasury housed?
5727ee24ff5b5019007d98c8
the Tower
344
False
Before being centrally located, how was the English government handled in terms of location?
5727ee24ff5b5019007d98c9
accompanied the royal English court as it moved around the country
84
False
During the 12th century, the institutions of central government, which had hitherto accompanied the royal English court as it moved around the country, grew in size and sophistication and became increasingly fixed in one place. In most cases this was Westminster, although the royal treasury, having been moved from Winchester, came to rest in the Tower. While the City of Westminster developed into a true capital in governmental terms, its distinct neighbour, the City of London, remained England's largest city and principal commercial centre, and it flourished under its own unique administration, the Corporation of London. In 1100, its population was around 18,000; by 1300 it had grown to nearly 100,000.
In what era did the Protestant Reformation occur?
5727f0a93acd2414000df03d
the Tudor period
7
False
What event greatly boosted English shipping and commerce?
5727f0a93acd2414000df03e
the re-opening of the Netherlands to English shipping
612
False
What phenomenon did the Reformation bring about?
5727f0a93acd2414000df03f
a gradual shift to Protestantism
49
False
Typically what were the nationalities of ships that traveled to and from England via the Straight of Gibraltar?
5727f0a93acd2414000df040
Italian or Ragusan
587
False
When was England again able to ship to the Netherlands?
5727f0a93acd2414000df041
January 1565
669
False
During the Tudor period the Reformation produced a gradual shift to Protestantism, much of London passing from church to private ownership. The traffic in woollen cloths shipped undyed and undressed from London to the nearby shores of the Low Countries, where it was considered indispensable. But the tentacles of English maritime enterprise hardly extended beyond the seas of north-west Europe. The commercial route to Italy and the Mediterranean Sea normally lay through Antwerp and over the Alps; any ships passing through the Strait of Gibraltar to or from England were likely to be Italian or Ragusan. Upon the re-opening of the Netherlands to English shipping in January 1565, there ensued a strong outburst of commercial activity. The Royal Exchange was founded. Mercantilism grew, and monopoly trading companies such as the East India Company were established, with trade expanding to the New World. London became the principal North Sea port, with migrants arriving from England and abroad. The population rose from an estimated 50,000 in 1530 to about 225,000 in 1605.
What was the defensive wall that encircled London in 1642 called?
5727fb052ca10214002d9a9c
the Lines of Communication
258
False
How long did it take to build the Lines of Communication?
5727fb052ca10214002d9a9d
under two months
356
False
Who did the Lines of Communication wall fail to prevent from coming into London?
5727fb052ca10214002d9a9e
the New Model Army
421
False
Approximately how many workers did it take to build the Lines of Communication?
5727fb052ca10214002d9a9f
20,000
319
False
During the English Civil War the majority of Londoners supported the Parliamentary cause. After an initial advance by the Royalists in 1642 culminating in the battles of Brentford and Turnham Green, London was surrounded by defensive perimeter wall known as the Lines of Communication. The lines were built by an up to 20,000 people, and were completed in under two months. The fortifications failed their only test when the New Model Army entered London in 1647, and they were levelled by Parliament the same year.
What was King George II's royal residence beginning in 1762?
5727fdd3ff5b5019007d9a5e
Buckingham House
29
False
What was the name of the police force established in London in 1750?
5727fdd3ff5b5019007d9a5f
the Bow Street Runners
147
False
On average, when did children born in the City of London die?
5727fdd3ff5b5019007d9a60
before reaching their third birthday
345
False
How many crimes in 18th century London could result in the death penalty?
5727fdd3ff5b5019007d9a61
more than 200
237
False
What was the London hub of the British press?
5727fdd3ff5b5019007d9a62
Fleet Street
537
False
In 1762, George III acquired Buckingham House and it was enlarged over the next 75 years. During the 18th century, London was dogged by crime, and the Bow Street Runners were established in 1750 as a professional police force. In total, more than 200 offences were punishable by death, including petty theft. Most children born in the city died before reaching their third birthday. The coffeehouse became a popular place to debate ideas, with growing literacy and the development of the printing press making news widely available; and Fleet Street became the centre of the British press.
What was the primary cause of the cholera outbreak in 19th century London?
57280018ff5b5019007d9a96
London's overcrowded conditions
61
False
Who bombed London in both World War I and World War II?
57280018ff5b5019007d9a97
the Germans
529
False
When did London host its first Summer Olympics?
57280018ff5b5019007d9a98
1948
792
False
How many people died of cholera in London in 1848?
57280018ff5b5019007d9a99
14,000
128
False
Where did the 1948 Summer Olympics in London take place?
57280018ff5b5019007d9a9a
the original Wembley Stadium
826
False
London was the world's largest city from about 1831 to 1925. London's overcrowded conditions led to cholera epidemics, claiming 14,000 lives in 1848, and 6,000 in 1866. Rising traffic congestion led to the creation of the world's first local urban rail network. The Metropolitan Board of Works oversaw infrastructure expansion in the capital and some of the surrounding counties; it was abolished in 1889 when the London County Council was created out of those areas of the counties surrounding the capital. London was bombed by the Germans during the First World War while during the Second World War, the Blitz and other bombings by the German Luftwaffe, killed over 30,000 Londoners and destroyed large tracts of housing and other buildings across the city. Immediately after the war, the 1948 Summer Olympics were held at the original Wembley Stadium, at a time when London had barely recovered from the war.
What was the root cause of the Brixton riot in 1981?
572802612ca10214002d9b5a
Racial inequality
510
False
In what year was the Greater London Council formed?
572802612ca10214002d9b5b
1965
260
False
In what period was London a symbol of trend-setting and youth?
572802612ca10214002d9b5c
the mid-1960s
22
False
During "The Troubles", who waged assaults via bombings on London?
572802612ca10214002d9b5d
the Provisional IRA
489
False
Why was the Greater London Council established?
572802612ca10214002d9b5e
the growth of the urban area
330
False
Primarily starting in the mid-1960s, London became a centre for the worldwide youth culture, exemplified by the Swinging London subculture associated with the King's Road, Chelsea and Carnaby Street. The role of trendsetter was revived during the punk era. In 1965 London's political boundaries were expanded to take into account the growth of the urban area and a new Greater London Council was created. During The Troubles in Northern Ireland, London was subjected to bombing attacks by the Provisional IRA. Racial inequality was highlighted by the 1981 Brixton riot.
What was London's estimated population in the 1980s?
572804ec3acd2414000df263
around 6.8 million
138
False
What event preceded a substantial decrease in the average population in London?
572804ec3acd2414000df264
the Second World War
67
False
The main ports for London were relocated to where?
572804ec3acd2414000df265
Felixstowe and Tilbury
222
False
When was construction on the Thames Barrier completed?
572804ec3acd2414000df266
the 1980s
500
False
What was the primary function of the Thames Barrier?
572804ec3acd2414000df267
to protect London against tidal surges from the North Sea
510
False
Greater London's population declined steadily in the decades after the Second World War, from an estimated peak of 8.6 million in 1939 to around 6.8 million in the 1980s. The principal ports for London moved downstream to Felixstowe and Tilbury, with the London Docklands area becoming a focus for regeneration, including the Canary Wharf development. This was borne out of London's ever-increasing role as a major international financial centre during the 1980s. The Thames Barrier was completed in the 1980s to protect London against tidal surges from the North Sea.
What were the Millennium Dome, the London Eye, and the Millennium Bridge created to honor?
572806e03acd2414000df28d
the start of the 21st century
254
False
What government entity was abolished in 1986?
572806e03acd2414000df28e
The Greater London Council
0
False
London was honored with what in July, 2005?
572806e03acd2414000df28f
awarded the 2012 Summer Olympics
383
False
What replaced the long-abolished Greater London Council in 2000?
572806e03acd2414000df290
the Greater London Authority
211
False
The population of Greater London in January 2015 was its greatest since what year?
572806e03acd2414000df291
1939
589
False
The Greater London Council was abolished in 1986, which left London as the only large metropolis in the world without a central administration. In 2000, London-wide government was restored, with the creation of the Greater London Authority. To celebrate the start of the 21st century, the Millennium Dome, London Eye and Millennium Bridge were constructed. On 6 July 2005 London was awarded the 2012 Summer Olympics, making London the first city to stage the Olympic Games three times. In January 2015, Greater London's population was estimated to be 8.63 million, the highest level since 1939.
London's government administration is comprised of how many tiers?
572809233acd2414000df2e3
two
42
False
What governmental entity oversees London's city-wide administrative tier?
572809233acd2414000df2e4
the Greater London Authority (GLA)
141
False
Who is the current Mayor of London?
572809233acd2414000df2e5
Boris Johnson
533
False
How many boroughs does London consist of?
572809233acd2414000df2e6
32
708
False
What group of elected officials provides checks and balances on the Mayor's executive authority?
572809233acd2414000df2e7
the London Assembly
341
False
The administration of London is formed of two tiers—a city-wide, strategic tier and a local tier. City-wide administration is coordinated by the Greater London Authority (GLA), while local administration is carried out by 33 smaller authorities. The GLA consists of two elected components; the Mayor of London, who has executive powers, and the London Assembly, which scrutinises the mayor's decisions and can accept or reject the mayor's budget proposals each year. The headquarters of the GLA is City Hall, Southwark; the mayor is Boris Johnson. The mayor's statutory planning strategy is published as the London Plan, which was most recently revised in 2011. The local authorities are the councils of the 32 London boroughs and the City of London Corporation. They are responsible for most local services, such as local planning, schools, social services, local roads and refuse collection. Certain functions, such as waste management, are provided through joint arrangements. In 2009–2010 the combined revenue expenditure by London councils and the GLA amounted to just over £22 billion (£14.7 billion for the boroughs and £7.4 billion for the GLA).
What area of the River Thames does the Port of London Authority's jurisdiction cover?
57280c3f3acd2414000df30f
Teddington Lock to the sea
636
False
What agency provides fire fighting and rescue service in London?
57280c3f3acd2414000df310
The London Fire Brigade
0
False
Who oversees and manages the London Fire Brigade?
57280c3f3acd2414000df311
London Fire and Emergency Planning Authority
102
False
The world's largest "free-at-the-point-of-use" ambulance service is known as what?
57280c3f3acd2414000df312
the London Ambulance Service (LAS) NHS Trust
258
False
What agency operates in conjunction with the LAS as needed?
57280c3f3acd2414000df313
The London Air Ambulance charity
383
False
The London Fire Brigade is the statutory fire and rescue service for Greater London. It is run by the London Fire and Emergency Planning Authority and is the third largest fire service in the world. National Health Service ambulance services are provided by the London Ambulance Service (LAS) NHS Trust, the largest free-at-the-point-of-use emergency ambulance service in the world. The London Air Ambulance charity operates in conjunction with the LAS where required. Her Majesty's Coastguard and the Royal National Lifeboat Institution operate on the River Thames, which is under the jurisdiction of the Port of London Authority from Teddington Lock to the sea.
What is the Prime Minister of the UK's official residence?
57280f04ff5b5019007d9c08
10 Downing Street
208
False
Who first dubbed the British Parliament the "Mother of Parliaments?"
57280f04ff5b5019007d9c09
John Bright
366
False
How many Members of Parliament are from London?
57280f04ff5b5019007d9c0a
73
457
False
As of May 2015, which party holds the majority of seats in Parliament?
57280f04ff5b5019007d9c0b
the Labour Party
610
False
As of May 2015, how many Liberal Democrats sit in Parliament?
57280f04ff5b5019007d9c0c
one
654
False
London is the seat of the Government of the United Kingdom. Many government departments are based close to the Palace of Westminster, particularly along Whitehall, including the Prime Minister's residence at 10 Downing Street. The British Parliament is often referred to as the "Mother of Parliaments" (although this sobriquet was first applied to England itself by John Bright) because it has been the model for most other parliamentary systems. There are 73 Members of Parliament (MPs) from London, who correspond to local parliamentary constituencies in the national Parliament. As of May 2015, 45 are from the Labour Party, 27 are Conservatives, and one is a Liberal Democrat.
Which police force in London does not typically engage in police activity with the general public?
572812723acd2414000df3c5
the Ministry of Defence Police
455
False
What area of London does the Metropolitan Police Service cover?
572812723acd2414000df3c6
Greater London, with the exception of the City of London
12
False
What agency is responsible for policing rail services in London?
572812723acd2414000df3c7
The British Transport Police
272
False
What department runs the Metropolitan Police Service?
572812723acd2414000df3c8
the Mayor's Office for Policing and Crime (MOPAC).
148
False
What is the name of the City of London's police force?
572812723acd2414000df3c9
the City of London Police
245
False
Policing in Greater London, with the exception of the City of London, is provided by the Metropolitan Police Service, overseen by the Mayor through the Mayor's Office for Policing and Crime (MOPAC). The City of London has its own police force – the City of London Police. The British Transport Police are responsible for police services on National Rail, London Underground, Docklands Light Railway and Tramlink services. A fourth police force in London, the Ministry of Defence Police, do not generally become involved with policing the general public.
What statutory policy minimizes outward expansion of urban London?
572817584b864d1900164462
the Metropolitan Green Belt
44
False
Greater London is divided into what two groups of boroughs?
572817584b864d1900164463
Inner London and Outer London
293
False
Where is the centre of London said to be located?
572817584b864d1900164464
Eleanor Cross at Charing Cross near the junction of Trafalgar Square and Whitehall
531
False
In which directions does the River Thames divide the City of London?
572817584b864d1900164465
North and South
367
False
What metropolitan area lies beyond the Metropolitan Green Belt?
572817584b864d1900164466
London commuter belt
224
False
Outward urban expansion is now prevented by the Metropolitan Green Belt, although the built-up area extends beyond the boundary in places, resulting in a separately defined Greater London Urban Area. Beyond this is the vast London commuter belt. Greater London is split for some purposes into Inner London and Outer London. The city is split by the River Thames into North and South, with an informal central London area in its interior. The coordinates of the nominal centre of London, traditionally considered to be the original Eleanor Cross at Charing Cross near the junction of Trafalgar Square and Whitehall, are approximately 51°30′26″N 00°07′39″W﻿ / ﻿51.50722°N 0.12750°W﻿ / 51.50722; -0.12750.
What title regarding London has never been made official in law or by decree?
57281c262ca10214002d9e04
London's status as the capital of England
344
False
What areas within Greater London have city status?
57281c262ca10214002d9e05
the City of London and the City of Westminster
20
False
For what reason are the City of London and Greater London considered to be counties?
57281c262ca10214002d9e06
for the purposes of lieutenancies
161
False
Within London, both the City of London and the City of Westminster have city status and both the City of London and the remainder of Greater London are counties for the purposes of lieutenancies. The area of Greater London has incorporated areas that were once part of the historic counties of Middlesex, Kent, Surrey, Essex and Hertfordshire. London's status as the capital of England, and later the United Kingdom, has never been granted or confirmed officially—by statute or in written form.[note 6]
In the past, how much wider was the River Thames than it is today?
57281e912ca10214002d9e38
five times
880
False
What was the population density of Greater London in 2001?
57281e912ca10214002d9e39
4,542 inhabitants per square kilometre (11,760/sq mi)
160
False
In which direction does the River Thames run through the City of London?
57281e912ca10214002d9e3a
the south-west to the east
608
False
What is the population of the London Metropolitan Region?
57281e912ca10214002d9e3b
13,709,000
399
False
What is the main geographical landmark in London?
57281e912ca10214002d9e3c
the Thames
516
False
Greater London encompasses a total area of 1,583 square kilometres (611 sq mi), an area which had a population of 7,172,036 in 2001 and a population density of 4,542 inhabitants per square kilometre (11,760/sq mi). The extended area known as the London Metropolitan Region or the London Metropolitan Agglomeration, comprises a total area of 8,382 square kilometres (3,236 sq mi) has a population of 13,709,000 and a population density of 1,510 inhabitants per square kilometre (3,900/sq mi). Modern London stands on the Thames, its primary geographical feature, a navigable river which crosses the city from the south-west to the east. The Thames Valley is a floodplain surrounded by gently rolling hills including Parliament Hill, Addington Hills, and Primrose Hill. The Thames was once a much broader, shallower river with extensive marshlands; at high tide, its shores reached five times their present width.
How far from the center of London is London Heathrow Airport?
572821522ca10214002d9e8c
15 miles west
854
False
What is London's average high temperature in July?
572821522ca10214002d9e8d
24 °C (75.2 °F)
76
False
What phenomenon causes the center of London to be warmer than its suburbs?
572821522ca10214002d9e8e
urban heat island effect
671
False
Approximately how many days in a given year will London experience temperatures above 25 degrees Celsius (or 77 degrees Farenheit?
572821522ca10214002d9e8f
31
120
False
What occasional weather event causes problems for drivers in London?
572821522ca10214002d9e90
Snowfall
481
False
Summers are generally warm and sometimes hot. London's average July high is 24 °C (75.2 °F). On average London will see 31 days above 25 °C (77.0 °F) each year, and 4.2 days above 30.0 °C (86.0 °F) every year. During the 2003 European heat wave there were 14 consecutive days above 30 °C (86.0 °F) and 2 consecutive days where temperatures reached 38 °C (100.4 °F), leading to hundreds of heat related deaths. Winters are generally cool and damp with little temperature variation. Snowfall does occur from time to time, and can cause travel disruption when this happens. Spring and autumn are mixed seasons and can be pleasant. As a large city, London has a considerable urban heat island effect, making the centre of London at times 5 °C (9 °F) warmer than the suburbs and outskirts. The effect of this can be seen below when comparing London Heathrow, 15 miles west of London, with the London Weather Centre, in the city centre.
What is England's oldest standing palace from the Tudor period?
572823dc4b864d1900164556
Hampton Court Palace
587
False
Of what material is London's National Gallery made?
572823dc4b864d1900164557
Portland stone
223
False
When did the Great Fire of London occur?
572823dc4b864d1900164558
1666
427
False
The area west of London's city is characterized by what type of building?
572823dc4b864d1900164559
white stucco or whitewashed
328
False
What, in part, is the reason for London's lack of a singularly characteristic architectural style among its buildings?
572823dc4b864d190016455a
their varying ages
112
False
London's buildings are too diverse to be characterised by any particular architectural style, partly because of their varying ages. Many grand houses and public buildings, such as the National Gallery, are constructed from Portland stone. Some areas of the city, particularly those just west of the centre, are characterised by white stucco or whitewashed buildings. Few structures in central London pre-date the Great Fire of 1666, these being a few trace Roman remains, the Tower of London and a few scattered Tudor survivors in the City. Further out is, for example, the Tudor period Hampton Court Palace, England's oldest surviving Tudor palace, built by Cardinal Thomas Wolsey c.1515.
Where in London are the Albert Memorial and Royal Albert Hall located?
572825c6ff5b5019007d9e00
in Kensington
305
False
What famous monument is located in Trafalgar Square?
572825c6ff5b5019007d9e01
Nelson's Column
320
False
The Monument, located in the City of London, was erected to commemorate what event?
572825c6ff5b5019007d9e02
the Great Fire of London
94
False
What was the most common type of brick used to construct London's older buildings?
572825c6ff5b5019007d9e03
yellow London stock brick or a warm orange-red variety
494
False
Where are Marble Arch and Wellington Arch located?
572825c6ff5b5019007d9e04
at the north and south ends of Park Lane
178
False
The Monument in the City of London provides views of the surrounding area while commemorating the Great Fire of London, which originated nearby. Marble Arch and Wellington Arch, at the north and south ends of Park Lane respectively, have royal connections, as do the Albert Memorial and Royal Albert Hall in Kensington. Nelson's Column is a nationally recognised monument in Trafalgar Square, one of the focal points of central London. Older buildings are mainly brick built, most commonly the yellow London stock brick or a warm orange-red variety, often decorated with carvings and white plaster mouldings.
What are the financial districts of London known as?
572827514b864d19001645e0
the City of London and Canary Wharf
226
False
High-rise buildings may be restricted to prevent obstruction of what views?
572827514b864d19001645e1
St Paul's Cathedral and other historic buildings
356
False
What is the European Union's tallest building?
572827514b864d19001645e2
Shard London Bridge
538
False
How high does the Shard London Bridge rise?
572827514b864d19001645e3
95-storey
528
False
Most of London's skyscrapers are located where?
572827514b864d19001645e4
in the two financial districts
194
False
In the dense areas, most of the concentration is via medium- and high-rise buildings. London's skyscrapers such as 30 St Mary Axe, Tower 42, the Broadgate Tower and One Canada Square are mostly in the two financial districts, the City of London and Canary Wharf. High-rise development is restricted at certain sites if it would obstruct protected views of St Paul's Cathedral and other historic buildings. Nevertheless, there are a number of very tall skyscrapers in central London (see Tall buildings in London), including the 95-storey Shard London Bridge, the tallest building in the European Union.
How many different species of plant life are known to grow in London?
5728294a2ca10214002d9f98
2000
167
False
How many National Nature Reserves exist in the London area?
5728294a2ca10214002d9f99
two
620
False
Green space and open water comprises what percent of London?
5728294a2ca10214002d9f9a
more than 40 percent
100
False
How many species of fish live in the River Thames?
5728294a2ca10214002d9f9b
120
264
False
The London Natural History Society has document how many species of butterfly?
5728294a2ca10214002d9f9c
47
390
False
The London Natural History Society suggest that London is "one of the World's Greenest Cities" with more than 40 percent green space or open water. They indicate that 2000 species of flowering plant have been found growing there and that the tidal Thames supports 120 species of fish. They also state that over 60 species of bird nest in central London and that their members have recorded 47 species of butterfly, 1173 moths and more than 270 kinds of spider around London. London's wetland areas support nationally important populations of many water birds. London has 38 Sites of Special Scientific Interest (SSSIs), two National Nature Reserves and 76 Local Nature Reserves.
What type of animal belonging to Queen Elizabeth II was killed by an intruding fox on the Buckingham Palace grounds?
57282b75ff5b5019007d9e68
pink flamingos
497
False
What animal was seen sleeping in London's Parliament Building?
57282b75ff5b5019007d9e69
fox
45
False
Approximately how many foxes live in the City of London?
57282b75ff5b5019007d9e6a
10,000
38
False
In 2001, what organization conducted a survey of residents regarding London's fox population?
57282b75ff5b5019007d9e6b
the London-based Mammal Society
594
False
What is London's fox population density?
57282b75ff5b5019007d9e6c
16 foxes for every square mile (2.6 square kilometres)
74
False
Among other inhabitants of London are 10,000 foxes, so that there are now 16 foxes for every square mile (2.6 square kilometres) of London. These urban foxes are noticeably bolder than their country cousins, sharing the pavement with pedestrians and raising cubs in people's backyards. Foxes have even sneaked into the Houses of Parliament, where one was found asleep on a filing cabinet. Another broke into the grounds of Buckingham Palace, reportedly killing some of Queen Elizabeth II's prized pink flamingos. Generally, however, foxes and city folk appear to get along. A survey in 2001 by the London-based Mammal Society found that 80 percent of 3,779 respondents who volunteered to keep a diary of garden mammal visits liked having them around. This sample cannot be taken to represent Londoners as a whole.
Epping Forest is home for how many species of bats?
57282cb83acd2414000df647
Ten
537
False
What animal was found dead at the Highway in Wapping, near the Tower Bridge?
57282cb83acd2414000df648
otter
353
False
It appears that otters may be returning to the city of London after how long an absence?
57282cb83acd2414000df649
a hundred years
506
False
How many species of bats exist in England?
57282cb83acd2414000df64a
eighteen
554
False
Other mammals found in Greater London are hedgehogs, rats, mice, rabbit, shrew, vole, and squirrels, In wilder areas of Outer London, such as Epping Forest, a wide variety of mammals are found including hare, badger, field, bank and water vole, wood mouse, yellow-necked mouse, mole, shrew, and weasel, in addition to fox, squirrel and hedgehog. A dead otter was found at The Highway, in Wapping, about a mile from the Tower Bridge, which would suggest that they have begun to move back after being absent a hundred years from the city. Ten of England's eighteen species of bats have been recorded in Epping Forest: soprano, nathusius and common pipistrelles, noctule, serotine, barbastelle, daubenton's, brown Long-eared, natterer's and leisler's.
What rare breed of deer is protected at the Deer Sanctuary at Theydon Bois?
57282eb92ca10214002da008
melanistic, black fallow deer
304
False
When do culls to ensure sustainability of London's deer population occur?
57282eb92ca10214002da009
each November and February
105
False
Why are herds of deer starting to enter residential areas in London?
57282eb92ca10214002da00a
to take advantage of the London's green spaces
742
False
Bushy Park in Richmond is home to what herds of animals?
57282eb92ca10214002da00b
red and fallow deer
9
False
Herds of red and fallow deer also roam freely within much of Richmond and Bushy Park. A cull takes place each November and February to ensure numbers can be sustained. Epping Forest is also known for its fallow deer, which can frequently be seen in herds to the north of the Forest. A rare population of melanistic, black fallow deer is also maintained at the Deer Sanctuary near Theydon Bois. Muntjac deer, which escaped from deer parks at the turn of the twentieth century, are also found in the forest. While Londoners are accustomed to wildlife such as birds and foxes sharing the city, more recently urban deer have started becoming a regular feature, and whole herds of fallow and white-tailed deer come into residential areas at night to take advantage of the London's green spaces.
London is second only to what city in terms of its foreign population?
572830ac3acd2414000df6a7
New York City
172
False
What percentage of London residents are foreign-born?
572830ac3acd2414000df6a8
36.7%
50
False
Many German-born Londoners were British citizens by birth due to what?
572830ac3acd2414000df6a9
parents serving in the British Armed Forces in Germany
406
False
When did London see its highest population numbers?
572830ac3acd2414000df6aa
1939 immediately before the outbreak of the Second World War
718
False
What was London's estimated population at the time of the 2011 census?
572830ac3acd2414000df6ab
8,173,941
932
False
The 2011 census recorded that 2,998,264 people or 36.7% of London's population are foreign-born making London the city with the second largest immigrant population, behind New York City, in terms of absolute numbers. The table to the right shows the most common countries of birth of London residents. Note that some of the German-born population, in 18th position, are British citizens from birth born to parents serving in the British Armed Forces in Germany. With increasing industrialisation, London's population grew rapidly throughout the 19th and early 20th centuries, and it was for some time in the late 19th and early 20th centuries the most populous city in the world. Its population peaked at 8,615,245 in 1939 immediately before the outbreak of the Second World War, but had declined to 7,192,091 at the 2001 Census. However, the population then grew by just over a million between the 2001 and 2011 Censuses, to reach 8,173,941 in the latter enumeration.
With which two other cities is London named one of the most expensive in the world?
572832cb2ca10214002da06e
Tokyo and Moscow
520
False
Where does London rank in terms of the world's largest cities?
572832cb2ca10214002da06f
19th
239
False
About how many billionaires call London home?
572832cb2ca10214002da070
72
422
False
The region covers an area of 1,579 square kilometres (610 sq mi). The population density is 5,177 inhabitants per square kilometre (13,410/sq mi), more than ten times that of any other British region. In terms of population, London is the 19th largest city and the 18th largest metropolitan region in the world. As of 2014[update], London has the largest number of billionaires (British Pound Sterling) in the world, with 72 residing in the city. London ranks as one of the most expensive cities in the world, alongside Tokyo and Moscow.
What is the ratio of black and Asian schoolchildren to white schoolchildren?
572834d3ff5b5019007d9f12
about six to four
76
False
What was the approximate population of London children aged 0 to 15 years at the time of the 2011 census?
572834d3ff5b5019007d9f13
1,624,768
155
False
According to the 2011 London census, what percentage of children were black?
572834d3ff5b5019007d9f14
19 per cent
242
False
The 2011 census in London found what percentage of children to be white?
572834d3ff5b5019007d9f15
46.4
190
False
A 2005 survey indicated that how many communities comprised of non-indigenous people existed in London?
572834d3ff5b5019007d9f16
more than 50
478
False
Across London, Black and Asian children outnumber White British children by about six to four in state schools. Altogether at the 2011 census, of London's 1,624,768 population aged 0 to 15, 46.4 per cent were White, 19.8 per cent were Asian, 19 per cent were Black, 10.8 per cent were Mixed and 4 per cent represented another ethnic group. In January 2005, a survey of London's ethnic and religious diversity claimed that there were more than 300 languages spoken in London and more than 50 non-indigenous communities with a population of more than 10,000. Figures from the Office for National Statistics show that, in 2010[update], London's foreign-born population was 2,650,000 (33 per cent), up from 1,630,000 in 1997.
What percentage of the Greater London population was said to be foreign-born according to the 2011 census?
572836863acd2414000df717
36.7 per cent
28
False
What agency is responsible for compiling London's population data?
572836863acd2414000df718
the Office for National Statistics
398
False
When was the most recent UK census published?
572836863acd2414000df719
2011
4
False
The 2011 census showed that 36.7 per cent of Greater London's population were born outside the UK. The table to the right shows the 30 most common countries of birth of London residents in 2011, the date of the last published UK Census. A portion of the German-born population are likely to be British nationals born to parents serving in the British Armed Forces in Germany. Estimates produced by the Office for National Statistics indicate that the five largest foreign-born groups living in London in the period July 2009 to June 2010 were those born in India, Poland, the Republic of Ireland, Bangladesh and Nigeria.
What is the name of the largest Hindu temple in Europe?
572838884b864d1900164788
Neasden Temple
644
False
Where is London's Sikh population primarily located?
572838884b864d1900164789
Southall
769
False
Where is the East London Mosque located?
572838884b864d190016478a
Tower Hamlets
127
False
Which eastern boroughs host large Muslim populations?
572838884b864d190016478b
Tower Hamlets and Newham
477
False
How many Hindu temples exist in London?
572838884b864d190016478c
42
683
False
London is also home to sizeable Muslim, Hindu, Sikh, and Jewish communities. Notable mosques include the East London Mosque in Tower Hamlets, London Central Mosque on the edge of Regent's Park and the Baitul Futuh Mosque of the Ahmadiyya Muslim Community. Following the oil boom, increasing numbers of wealthy Hindus and Middle-Eastern Muslims have based themselves around Mayfair and Knightsbridge in West London. There are large Muslim communities in the eastern boroughs of Tower Hamlets and Newham. Large Hindu communities are in the north-western boroughs of Harrow and Brent, the latter of which is home to Europe's largest Hindu temple, Neasden Temple. London is also home to 42 Hindu temples. There are Sikh communities in East and West London, particularly in Southall, home to one of the largest Sikh populations and the largest Sikh temple outside India.
Which Jewish synagogue boasts the largest membership in Europe?
57283b4c3acd2414000df769
Stanmore and Canons Park Synagogue
388
False
The Sephardic Jewish community in London is affiliated with which Synagogue?
57283b4c3acd2414000df76a
Bevis Marks Synagogue
181
False
For how long has the Bevis Marks Synagogue in London been conducting religious services continuously?
57283b4c3acd2414000df76b
over 300 years
372
False
London's Stanmore and Canons Park Synagogue passed London's Ilford Synagogue in terms of membership in what year?
57283b4c3acd2414000df76c
1998
555
False
When was the London Jewish Forum established?
57283b4c3acd2414000df76d
2006
609
False
The majority of British Jews live in London, with significant Jewish communities in Stamford Hill, Stanmore, Golders Green, Finchley, Hampstead, Hendon and Edgware in North London. Bevis Marks Synagogue in the City of London is affiliated to London's historic Sephardic Jewish community. It is the only synagogue in Europe which has held regular services continuously for over 300 years. Stanmore and Canons Park Synagogue has the largest membership of any single Orthodox synagogue in the whole of Europe, overtaking Ilford synagogue (also in London) in 1998. The community set up the London Jewish Forum in 2006 in response to the growing significance of devolved London Government.
What is the best-known London accent known as?
572840674b864d1900164800
Cockney
140
False
An increasingly popular London accent among younger people fuses Cockney with what?
572840674b864d1900164801
'ethnic' accents
427
False
What style of accent in London is commonly used by media and other professionals?
572840674b864d1900164802
RP (Received Pronunciation)
580
False
Outside of London, where is the Cockney accent typically heard?
572840674b864d1900164803
the wider South East England region
204
False
There are many accents that are traditionally thought of as London accents. The most well known of the London accents long ago acquired the Cockney label, which is heard both in London itself, and across the wider South East England region more generally. The accent of a 21st-century 'Londoner' varies widely; what is becoming more and more common amongst the under-30s however is some fusion of Cockney with a whole array of 'ethnic' accents, in particular Caribbean, which form an accent labelled Multicultural London English (MLE). The other widely heard and spoken accent is RP (Received Pronunciation) in various forms, which can often be heard in the media and many of other traditional professions and beyond, although this accent is not limited to London and South East England, and can also be heard selectively throughout the whole UK amongst certain social groupings.
What is the name of the world-famous insurance market based in London?
572841f8ff5b5019007da01e
Lloyd's of London
737
False
What is the largest industry in London?
572841f8ff5b5019007da01f
finance
29
False
What is the UK's central bank known as?
572841f8ff5b5019007da020
the Bank of England
689
False
Prior to mid-2007, approximately how many people in London had jobs in the financial sector?
572841f8ff5b5019007da021
325,000
132
False
How many banks does London operate overseas?
572841f8ff5b5019007da022
480
225
False
London's largest industry is finance, and its financial exports make it a large contributor to the UK's balance of payments. Around 325,000 people were employed in financial services in London until mid-2007. London has over 480 overseas banks, more than any other city in the world. Over 85 percent (3.2 million) of the employed population of greater London works in the services industries. Because of its prominent global role, London's economy had been affected by the Late-2000s financial crisis. However, by 2010 the City has recovered; put in place new regulatory powers, proceeded to regain lost ground and re-established London's economic dominance. The City of London is home to the Bank of England, London Stock Exchange, and Lloyd's of London insurance market.
What is the second largest port in the UK?
572843d4ff5b5019007da048
The Port of London
456
False
Approximately how much was spent on non-food retail sales in London in 2010?
572843d4ff5b5019007da049
£64.2 billion
441
False
How much cargo does the Port of London handle annually?
572843d4ff5b5019007da04a
45 million tonnes
529
False
What is London's second most competitive industry?
572843d4ff5b5019007da04b
media distribution
85
False
What corporation is the major player in London's media distribution industry?
572843d4ff5b5019007da04c
The BBC
157
False
Along with professional services, media companies are concentrated in London and the media distribution industry is London's second most competitive sector. The BBC is a significant employer, while other broadcasters also have headquarters around the City. Many national newspapers are edited in London. London is a major retail centre and in 2010 had the highest non-food retail sales of any city in the world, with a total spend of around £64.2 billion. The Port of London is the second-largest in the United Kingdom, handling 45 million tonnes of cargo each year.
According to 2015 data, how many how many visitors gave London its ranking as the number one visited city in the world?
572873c3ff5b5019007da23c
65 million
134
False
How many US dollars are estimated to have been spent in London by visitors from other countries?
572873c3ff5b5019007da23d
$20.23 billion
239
False
As of 2003, roughly how many full time workers were employed in the tourism industry?
572873c3ff5b5019007da23e
350,000
335
False
Which travel and tourism website's user activity has indicated that London is the number one travel destination?
572873c3ff5b5019007da23f
TripAdvisor
507
False
What percentage of visitor money is estimated to be spent in London?
572873c3ff5b5019007da240
54%
396
False
London is one of the leading tourist destinations in the world and in 2015 was ranked as the most visited city in the world with over 65 million visits. It is also the top city in the world by visitor cross-border spending, estimated at US$20.23 billion in 2015 Tourism is one of London's prime industries, employing the equivalent of 350,000 full-time workers in 2003, and the city accounts for 54% of all inbound visitor spend in UK. As of 2016 London is rated as the world top ranked city destination by TripAdvisor users.
Which elected official is financially responsible for public transportation in London, except for long-distance railways?
5728782d3acd2414000dfa2f
the Mayor of London
66
False
London's public transportation is overseen by which agency?
5728782d3acd2414000dfa30
Transport for London (TfL)
430
False
Along with the London Underground, buses and trans, what form of public rail transport was added in 2007 to the Mayor's responsibilities?
5728782d3acd2414000dfa31
the London Overground network
268
False
Transport is one of the four main areas of policy administered by the Mayor of London, however the mayor's financial control does not extend to the longer distance rail network that enters London. In 2007 he assumed responsibility for some local lines, which now form the London Overground network, adding to the existing responsibility for the London Underground, trams and buses. The public transport network is administered by Transport for London (TfL) and is one of the most extensive in the world.
How many airports are affiliated with London and incorporate the word London in their names?
57287a762ca10214002da3b4
Eight
95
False
The majority of air traffic utilizes how many of the airports in and around London?
57287a762ca10214002da3b5
six
177
False
In terms of international travel, which airport is the world's busiest?
57287a762ca10214002da3b6
London Heathrow
191
False
A fifth terminal was opened in 2008 for which UK airline?
57287a762ca10214002da3b7
British Airways
358
False
In May 2010, who scrapped British Airways's plans to add a sixth terminal and another runway?
57287a762ca10214002da3b8
the Coalition Government
511
False
London is a major international air transport hub with the busiest city airspace in the world. Eight airports use the word London in their name, but most traffic passes through six of these. London Heathrow Airport, in Hillingdon, West London, is the busiest airport in the world for international traffic, and is the major hub of the nation's flag carrier, British Airways. In March 2008 its fifth terminal was opened. There were plans for a third runway and a sixth terminal; however, these were cancelled by the Coalition Government on 12 May 2010.
What is the smallest airport in the London area?
57287d434b864d1900164a32
London City Airport
169
False
London City Airport's clients are comprised chiefly of what?
57287d434b864d1900164a33
business travellers
267
False
Which local UK airport hub is located in Essex?
57287d434b864d1900164a34
Stansted Airport
0
False
London Southend Airport in Essex offers primarily what type of service?
57287d434b864d1900164a35
cheap short-haul flights
491
False
Where is London City Airport located?
57287d434b864d1900164a36
Newham, East London
232
False
Stansted Airport, north east of London in Essex, is a local UK hub and Luton Airport to the north of London in Bedfordshire, caters mostly for cheap short-haul flights. London City Airport, the smallest and most central airport, in Newham, East London, is focused on business travellers, with a mixture of full service short-haul scheduled flights and considerable business jet traffic. London Southend Airport, east of London in Essex, is a smaller, regional airport that mainly caters for cheap short-haul flights.
What is Europe's busiest rail station in terms of train activity?
57287f88ff5b5019007da27a
Clapham Junction
637
False
How many railway stations are utilized by London's railway network?
57287f88ff5b5019007da27b
366
10
False
Why does South London have such a high number of railways?
57287f88ff5b5019007da27c
it has fewer Underground lines.
185
False
What is Britain's busiest railway station in terms of passengers?
57287f88ff5b5019007da27d
Waterloo
510
False
How many travelers pass through Waterloo station yearly?
57287f88ff5b5019007da27e
over 184 million
525
False
There are 366 railway stations in the London Travelcard Zones on an extensive above-ground suburban railway network. South London, particularly, has a high concentration of railways as it has fewer Underground lines. Most rail lines terminate around the centre of London, running into eighteen terminal stations, with the exception of the Thameslink trains connecting Bedford in the north and Brighton in the south via Luton and Gatwick airports. London has Britain's busiest station by number of passengers – Waterloo, with over 184 million people using the interchange station complex (which includes Waterloo East station) each year. Clapham Junction is the busiest station in Europe by the number of trains passing.
In the 20th century the Night Ferry was a boat train that provided connections between London and which cities?
572884edff5b5019007da2a0
Paris and Brussels
180
False
London is directly connected to continental Europe through what rail service?
572884edff5b5019007da2a1
Eurostar
310
False
In what year did the Channel Tunnel open?
572884edff5b5019007da2a2
1994
237
False
St. Pancras International is linked to Paris and other popular European tourist destinations via what method of transportation?
572884edff5b5019007da2a3
high-speed trains
350
False
When did local high speed rail service that linked London and Kent begin?
572884edff5b5019007da2a4
June 2009
564
False
Some international railway services to Continental Europe were operated during the 20th century as boat trains, such as the Admiraal de Ruijter to Amsterdam and the Night Ferry to Paris and Brussels. The opening of the Channel Tunnel in 1994 connected London directly to the continental rail network, allowing Eurostar services to begin. Since 2007, high-speed trains link St. Pancras International with Lille, Paris, Brussels and European tourist destinations via the High Speed 1 rail link and the Channel Tunnel. The first high-speed domestic trains started in June 2009 linking Kent to London. There are plans for a second high speed line linking London to the Midlands, North West England, and Yorkshire.
How much revenue is generated yearly by London's public bus service?
572888132ca10214002da448
£850 million
264
False
How many buses does the London public bus network operate?
572888132ca10214002da449
more than 700
105
False
What feature added in 2007 facilitated bus travel by London' passengers with hearing and vision impairments?
572888132ca10214002da44a
audio-visual announcements
479
False
What distinct appearance identifies many buses as a landmark for London?
572888132ca10214002da44b
red double-decker
539
False
Typically, what color are London taxi cabs?
572888132ca10214002da44c
black
638
False
London's bus network is one of the largest in the world, running 24 hours a day, with about 8,500 buses, more than 700 bus routes and around 19,500 bus stops. In 2013, the network had more than 2 billion commuter trips per annum, more than the Underground. Around £850 million is taken in revenue each year. London has the largest wheelchair accessible network in the world and, from the 3rd quarter of 2007, became more accessible to hearing and visually impaired passengers as audio-visual announcements were introduced. The distinctive red double-decker buses are an internationally recognised trademark of London transport along with black cabs and the Tube.
What is the name of London' bike-for-hire operation?
57288a124b864d1900164a82
Santander Cycles
437
False
When did the single cable car operating in London begin service?
57288a124b864d1900164a83
June 2012
77
False
Who is the current sponsor of London's cable car operation?
57288a124b864d1900164a84
the airline Emirates
520
False
What was the approximate cost to build the Emirates Airline Cable Car?
57288a124b864d1900164a85
£60
304
False
Roughly how many passengers travel daily on London's cable car?
57288a124b864d1900164a86
3,500
342
False
London's first and only cable car, known as the Emirates Air Line, opened in June 2012. Crossing the River Thames, linking Greenwich Peninsula and the Royal Docks in the east of the city, the cable car is integrated with London's Oyster Card ticketing system, although special fares are charged. Costing £60 million to build, it carries over 3,500 passengers every day, although this is very much lower than its capacity. Similar to the Santander Cycles bike hire scheme, the cable car is sponsored in a 10-year deal by the airline Emirates.
What type of roadway is widely recognizable in the center of London?
57288d0aff5b5019007da2c8
The inner ring road
126
False
What failed plan to install a major network of roadways within the City of London were eventually scrapped in the 1970s?
57288d0aff5b5019007da2c9
the Ringways Plan
486
False
London is connected to Leeds, Newcastle, and Edinburgh through what motorways?
57288d0aff5b5019007da2ca
The A1 and M1
660
False
How long is the M25 motorway?
57288d0aff5b5019007da2cb
121.5 mi (195.5 km)
634
False
Automobile transportation is primarily used in what areas of London?
57288d0aff5b5019007da2cc
the suburbs
113
False
Although the majority of journeys involving central London are made by public transport, car travel is common in the suburbs. The inner ring road (around the city centre), the North and South Circular roads (in the suburbs), and the outer orbital motorway (the M25, outside the built-up area) encircle the city and are intersected by a number of busy radial routes—but very few motorways penetrate into inner London. A plan for a comprehensive network of motorways throughout the city (the Ringways Plan) was prepared in the 1960s but was mostly cancelled in the early 1970s. The M25 is the longest ring-road motorway in the world at 121.5 mi (195.5 km) long. The A1 and M1 connect London to Leeds, and Newcastle and Edinburgh.
What is the daily cost for most drivers to operate their cars within a given zone in the center of London?
57288fa83acd2414000dfb15
£10
143
False
When was the daily congestion charge in London implemented?
57288fa83acd2414000dfb16
In 2003
0
False
By what percentage did the congestion charge decrease the amount of cars traveling through the center of London?
57288fa83acd2414000dfb17
35-per-cent
725
False
Drivers who live in a given zone reduce the cost of their congestion charge by means of what?
57288fa83acd2414000dfb18
season pass
297
False
What services were anticipated to be greatly increased as a result of the congestion charge zone?
57288fa83acd2414000dfb19
Underground and bus
404
False
In 2003, a congestion charge was introduced to reduce traffic volumes in the city centre. With a few exceptions, motorists are required to pay £10 per day to drive within a defined zone encompassing much of central London. Motorists who are residents of the defined zone can buy a greatly reduced season pass. London government initially expected the Congestion Charge Zone to increase daily peak period Underground and bus users by 20,000 people, reduce road traffic by 10 to 15 per cent, increase traffic speeds by 10 to 15 per cent, and reduce queues by 20 to 30 per cent. Over the course of several years, the average number of cars entering the centre of London on a weekday was reduced from 195,000 to 125,000 cars – a 35-per-cent reduction of vehicles driven per day.
What professional services network named London the world's capital of higher education?
572891f84b864d1900164a9e
PricewaterhouseCoopers
419
False
London has the highest concentration of higher education institutions in Europe with how many universities?
572891f84b864d1900164a9f
43
82
False
What is the approximate number of international students studying in London?
572891f84b864d1900164aa0
110,000
351
False
London is a major global centre of higher education teaching and research and its 43 universities form the largest concentration of higher education institutes in Europe. According to the QS World University Rankings 2015/16, London has the greatest concentration of top class universities in the world and the international student population around 110,000 which is also more than any other city in the world. A 2014 PricewaterhouseCoopers report termed London as the global capital of higher education
In terms of teaching and research, what is the world's foremost institute of social science?
572894ce3acd2414000dfb45
London School of Economics
312
False
Where is University College London, or UCL, ranked among the world's best colleges and universities?
572894ce3acd2414000dfb46
5th
255
False
The Financial Times rated what school's MBA program 2nd-best in the world in 2015?
572894ce3acd2414000dfb47
The London Business School
440
False
What school in London shares the rank of 2nd best in the world with the famous University of Cambridge in the 2014-2015 World University Rankings?
572894ce3acd2414000dfb48
Imperial College London
115
False
A number of world-leading education institutions are based in London. In the 2014/15 QS World University Rankings, Imperial College London is ranked joint 2nd in the world (alongside The University of Cambridge), University College London (UCL) is ranked 5th, and King's College London (KCL) is ranked 16th. The London School of Economics has been described as the world's leading social science institution for both teaching and research. The London Business School is considered one of the world's leading business schools and in 2015 its MBA programme was ranked second best in the world by the Financial Times.
What school within the University of London would a student seeking a degree in the veterinary medicine likely attend?
57289825ff5b5019007da31e
the Royal Veterinary College
597
False
What major university is comprised of four multi-faculty universities and several schools specialized schools?
57289825ff5b5019007da31f
University of London
45
False
From what school in London would a student receive an MBA?
57289825ff5b5019007da320
the London Business School
419
False
What is the average student population at the University of London?
57289825ff5b5019007da321
120,000
5
False
With 120,000 students in London, the federal University of London is the largest contact teaching university in the UK. It includes four large multi-faculty universities – King's College London, Queen Mary, Royal Holloway and UCL – and a number of smaller and more specialised institutions including Birkbeck, the Courtauld Institute of Art, Goldsmiths, Guildhall School of Music and Drama, the Institute of Education, the London Business School, the London School of Economics, the London School of Hygiene & Tropical Medicine, the Royal Academy of Music, the Central School of Speech and Drama, the Royal Veterinary College and the School of Oriental and African Studies. Members of the University of London have their own admissions procedures, and some award their own degrees.
What is the student population of University of Westminster?
57289db33acd2414000dfb6b
34,000
328
False
How many international universities operate in London?
57289db33acd2414000dfb6c
three
683
False
In what suburb is the American International University in London located?
57289db33acd2414000dfb6d
Richmond
756
False
What is Europe's largest university for degrees in communication and performing arts?
57289db33acd2414000dfb6e
University of the Arts London
440
False
A number of universities in London are outside the University of London system, including Brunel University, City University London, Imperial College London, Kingston University, London Metropolitan University, Middlesex University, University of East London, University of West London and University of Westminster, (with over 34,000 students, the largest unitary university in London), London South Bank University, Middlesex University, University of the Arts London (the largest university of art, design, fashion, communication and the performing arts in Europe), University of East London, the University of West London and the University of Westminster. In addition there are three international universities in London – Regent's University London, Richmond, The American International University in London and Schiller International University.
How many major medical schools does London boast?
5728bca93acd2414000dfd6f
five
18
False
What is the largest school of medicine in Europe?
5728bca93acd2414000dfd70
King's College London School of Medicine
123
False
Barts and the London School of Dentistry if part of which university in the University of London Network?
5728bca93acd2414000dfd71
Queen Mary
110
False
How many of the United Kingdom's five health academic science centers are located in London?
5728bca93acd2414000dfd72
three
412
False
UCL Partners is the largest type of what facility in Europe?
5728bca93acd2414000dfd73
academic health science centres
435
False
London is home to five major medical schools – Barts and The London School of Medicine and Dentistry (part of Queen Mary), King's College London School of Medicine (the largest medical school in Europe), Imperial College School of Medicine, UCL Medical School and St George's, University of London – and has a large number of affiliated teaching hospitals. It is also a major centre for biomedical research, and three of the UK's five academic health science centres are based in the city – Imperial College Healthcare, King's Health Partners and UCL Partners (the largest such centre in Europe).
City University London is related to what specialized business school?
5728be124b864d1900164d30
Cass Business School
103
False
The Royal College of Art and the Royal College of Music are examples of what type of schools?
5728be124b864d1900164d31
specialist arts education institutions
333
False
There are a number of business schools in London, including the London School of Business and Finance, Cass Business School (part of City University London), Hult International Business School, ESCP Europe, European Business School London, Imperial College Business School and the London Business School. London is also home to many specialist arts education institutions, including the Academy of Live and Recorded Arts, Central School of Ballet, LAMDA, London College of Contemporary Arts (LCCA), London Contemporary Dance School, National Centre for Circus Arts, RADA, Rambert School of Ballet and Contemporary Dance, the Royal College of Art, the Royal College of Music and Trinity Laban.
Who overseas the public primary and secondary school systems in London?
5728bfe9ff5b5019007da5f0
the London boroughs
105
False
What private boys' school shares in London shares its name with a famous cathedral?
5728bfe9ff5b5019007da5f1
St Paul's School,
453
False
The majority of primary and secondary schools and further-education colleges in London are controlled by the London boroughs or otherwise state-funded; leading examples include City and Islington College, Ealing, Hammersmith and West London College, Leyton Sixth Form College, Tower Hamlets College and Bethnal Green Academy. There are also a number of private schools and colleges in London, some old and famous, such as City of London School, Harrow, St Paul's School, Haberdashers' Aske's Boys' School, University College School, The John Lyon School, Highgate School and Westminster School.
What is the entertainment center of London known as?
5728c13f2ca10214002da710
the West End
71
False
What is a prominent feature of Picadilly Circus?
5728c13f2ca10214002da711
giant electronic advertisements
203
False
London's Chinatown district is located in what area?
5728c13f2ca10214002da712
Soho
365
False
Where is London's West End located geographically?
5728c13f2ca10214002da713
the City of Westminster
7
False
What prolific composer and producer of musicals has been a major force in the West End theater district?
5728c13f2ca10214002da714
Andrew Lloyd Webber
469
False
Within the City of Westminster in London the entertainment district of the West End has its focus around Leicester Square, where London and world film premieres are held, and Piccadilly Circus, with its giant electronic advertisements. London's theatre district is here, as are many cinemas, bars, clubs and restaurants, including the city's Chinatown district (in Soho), and just to the east is Covent Garden, an area housing speciality shops. The city is the home of Andrew Lloyd Webber, whose musicals have dominated the West End theatre since the late 20th century. The United Kingdom's Royal Ballet, English National Ballet, Royal Opera and English National Opera are based in London and perform at the Royal Opera House, the London Coliseum, Sadler's Wells Theatre and the Royal Albert Hall as well as touring the country.
What street in Islington boasts more bars and restaurants than any other street in Britain?
5728c387ff5b5019007da630
Upper Street
33
False
What is the longest street for shopping,, housing many shops and department stores, in the United Kingdom?
5728c387ff5b5019007da631
Oxford Street
189
False
How long is Islington's Upper Street?
5728c387ff5b5019007da632
1 mile (1.6 km)
12
False
What famous high-end department store is located on Oxford Street?
5728c387ff5b5019007da633
Selfridges flagship store
413
False
Which world-renowned luxury department store is located in the borough of Knightsbridge?
5728c387ff5b5019007da634
Harrods
484
False
Islington's 1 mile (1.6 km) long Upper Street, extending northwards from Angel, has more bars and restaurants than any other street in the United Kingdom. Europe's busiest shopping area is Oxford Street, a shopping street nearly 1 mile (1.6 km) long, making it the longest shopping street in the United Kingdom. Oxford Street is home to vast numbers of retailers and department stores, including the world-famous Selfridges flagship store. Knightsbridge, home to the equally renowned Harrods department store, lies to the south-west.
The Lord Mayor's Show occurs annually in what month?
5728c5532ca10214002da762
November
281
False
What does the Lord Mayor's Show parade commemorate and celebrate?
5728c5532ca10214002da763
the annual appointment of a new Lord Mayor
345
False
Who participates in the military pageantry in the Trooping the Colour event every June?
5728c5532ca10214002da764
regiments of the Commonwealth and British armies
530
False
Fireworks are discharged on New Year's Eve from what contemporary London landmark?
5728c5532ca10214002da765
the London Eye
115
False
Every June, the Trooping of the Colour celebrates what event?
5728c5532ca10214002da766
the Queen's Official Birthday
592
False
There is a variety of annual events, beginning with the relatively new New Year's Day Parade, fireworks display at the London Eye, the world's second largest street party, the Notting Hill Carnival is held during the late August Bank Holiday each year. Traditional parades include November's Lord Mayor's Show, a centuries-old event celebrating the annual appointment of a new Lord Mayor of the City of London with a procession along the streets of the City, and June's Trooping the Colour, a formal military pageant performed by regiments of the Commonwealth and British armies to celebrate the Queen's Official Birthday.
Who witnessed first-hand and wrote about the Great Fire of 1666?
5728c6dbff5b5019007da67e
Samuel Pepys
233
False
What area has historically been the literary hub of London?
5728c6dbff5b5019007da67f
Hampstead
119
False
A more current, 20th century center for London's literary set is located where?
5728c6dbff5b5019007da680
Bloomsbury
164
False
Which author's novels painted a dismal portrait of Victorian London?
5728c6dbff5b5019007da681
Charles Dickens
299
False
What female writer is one of the leading literary minds of the 20th century?
5728c6dbff5b5019007da682
Virginia Woolf
481
False
London has been the setting for many works of literature. The literary centres of London have traditionally been hilly Hampstead and (since the early 20th century) Bloomsbury. Writers closely associated with the city are the diarist Samuel Pepys, noted for his eyewitness account of the Great Fire, Charles Dickens, whose representation of a foggy, snowy, grimy London of street sweepers and pickpockets has been a major influence on people's vision of early Victorian London, and Virginia Woolf, regarded as one of the foremost modernist literary figures of the 20th century.
What famous Elizabethan playwright spent much of his life in London?
5728c8e3ff5b5019007da6a0
William Shakespeare
153
False
What contemporary of Williams Shakespeare wrote a play entitled The Alchemist?
5728c8e3ff5b5019007da6a1
Ben Jonson
251
False
What author of Robinson Crusoe also wrote a fictionalized account of the Great Plague of 1665?
5728c8e3ff5b5019007da6a2
Daniel Defoe
401
False
The people in Geoffrey Chaucer's Canterbury Tales begin their pilgrimage from what London establishment?
5728c8e3ff5b5019007da6a3
the Tabard inn
126
False
Arthur Conan Doyle brought to life what famous detective in a series of novels?
5728c8e3ff5b5019007da6a4
Sherlock Holmes
598
False
The pilgrims in Geoffrey Chaucer's late 14th-century Canterbury Tales set out for Canterbury from London – specifically, from the Tabard inn, Southwark. William Shakespeare spent a large part of his life living and working in London; his contemporary Ben Jonson was also based there, and some of his work—most notably his play The Alchemist—was set in the city. A Journal of the Plague Year (1722) by Daniel Defoe is a fictionalisation of the events of the 1665 Great Plague. Later important depictions of London from the 19th and early 20th centuries are Dickens' novels, and Arthur Conan Doyle's Sherlock Holmes stories. Modern writers pervasively influenced by the city include Peter Ackroyd, author of a "biography" of London, and Iain Sinclair, who writes in the genre of psychogeography.
What major film production company calls London home?
5728cafa2ca10214002da7f8
Working Title Films
160
False
In what theater are the British Academy film awards presented?
5728cafa2ca10214002da7f9
the Royal Opera House
856
False
What popular soap opera has the BBC televised since 1985?
5728cafa2ca10214002da7fa
EastEnders
1118
False
What silent movie film star who made movies such as The Little Tramp hailed from London?
5728cafa2ca10214002da7fb
Charlie Chaplin
629
False
In what year was the stage musical My Fair Lady, set in turn-of-the-century London, made into a major motion picture?
5728cafa2ca10214002da7fc
1964
356
False
London has played a significant role in the film industry, and has major studios at Ealing and a special effects and post-production community centred in Soho. Working Title Films has its headquarters in London. London has been the setting for films including Oliver Twist (1948), Scrooge (1951), Peter Pan (1953), The 101 Dalmatians (1961), My Fair Lady (1964), Mary Poppins (1964), Blowup (1966), The Long Good Friday (1980), Notting Hill (1999), Love Actually (2003), V For Vendetta (2005), Sweeney Todd: The Demon Barber Of Fleet Street (2008) and The King's Speech (2010). Notable actors and filmmakers from London include; Charlie Chaplin, Alfred Hitchcock, Michael Caine, Helen Mirren, Gary Oldman, Christopher Nolan, Jude Law, Tom Hardy, Keira Knightley and Daniel Day-Lewis. As of 2008[update], the British Academy Film Awards have taken place at the Royal Opera House. London is a major centre for television production, with studios including BBC Television Centre, The Fountain Studios and The London Studios. Many television programmes have been set in London, including the popular television soap opera EastEnders, broadcast by the BBC since 1985.
When was the British Museum in Bloomsbury founded?
5728ccb74b864d1900164e54
1753
259
False
Which London museum is prominently located in Trafalgar Square?
5728ccb74b864d1900164e55
the National Gallery
422
False
How many artifacts from all over the world does the British Museum have on display?
5728ccb74b864d1900164e56
7 million
371
False
Besides being popular tourist destinations, London's museums play a vital role in what activity?
5728ccb74b864d1900164e57
research
166
False
The National Gallery was established in 1824 to accommodate and display what items?
5728ccb74b864d1900164e58
the British national collection of Western paintings
464
False
London is home to many museums, galleries, and other institutions, many of which are free of admission charges and are major tourist attractions as well as playing a research role. The first of these to be established was the British Museum in Bloomsbury, in 1753. Originally containing antiquities, natural history specimens and the national library, the museum now has 7 million artefacts from around the globe. In 1824 the National Gallery was founded to house the British national collection of Western paintings; this now occupies a prominent position in Trafalgar Square.
What is the National Portrait Gallery known for housing?
5728ceb32ca10214002da856
depictions of figures from British history
343
False
London's Tate Britain and Tate Modern galleries were formerly one entity known as what?
5728ceb32ca10214002da857
The Tate Gallery
590
False
What cultural and scientific hub was named in honor of Queen Victoria's husband?
5728ceb32ca10214002da858
Albertopolis
88
False
What London museum was named for an historic Queen of England and her Prince husband?
5728ceb32ca10214002da859
the Victoria and Albert Museum (for the applied arts)
178
False
What was the original purpose for the construction of the Tate Gallery?
5728ceb32ca10214002da85a
as an annexe of the National Gallery
544
False
In the latter half of the 19th century the locale of South Kensington was developed as "Albertopolis", a cultural and scientific quarter. Three major national museums are there: the Victoria and Albert Museum (for the applied arts), the Natural History Museum and the Science Museum. The National Portrait Gallery was founded in 1856 to house depictions of figures from British history; its holdings now comprise the world's most extensive collection of portraits. The national gallery of British art is at Tate Britain, originally established as an annexe of the National Gallery in 1897. The Tate Gallery, as it was formerly known, also became a major centre for modern art; in 2000 this collection moved to Tate Modern, a new gallery housed in the former Bankside Power Station.
What musical instrument is situated at Royal Albert Hall?
5728d0262ca10214002da886
The UK's largest pipe organ
559
False
London-based EMI is a corporation focused on what industry?
5728d0262ca10214002da887
music
98
False
In which facility is the London Symphony Orchestra based?
5728d0262ca10214002da888
the Barbican Arts Centre
287
False
What are the names of London's two primary opera houses?
5728d0262ca10214002da889
the Royal Opera House and the London Coliseum
512
False
Royal Academy of Music and Royal College of Music are examples of what?
5728d0262ca10214002da88a
conservatoires
696
False
London is one of the major classical and popular music capitals of the world and is home to major music corporations, such as EMI and Warner Music Group as well as countless bands, musicians and industry professionals. The city is also home to many orchestras and concert halls, such as the Barbican Arts Centre (principal base of the London Symphony Orchestra and the London Symphony Chorus), Cadogan Hall (Royal Philharmonic Orchestra) and the Royal Albert Hall (The Proms). London's two main opera houses are the Royal Opera House and the London Coliseum. The UK's largest pipe organ is at the Royal Albert Hall. Other significant instruments are at the cathedrals and major churches. Several conservatoires are within the city: Royal Academy of Music, Royal College of Music, Guildhall School of Music and Drama and Trinity Laban.
What famous chain of music-themed restaurants opened its first establishment in London?
5728d2774b864d1900164ed8
Hard Rock Cafe
463
False
In which recording studio did the Beatles do much of their recording?
5728d2774b864d1900164ed9
Abbey Road Studios
486
False
What in part inspired the sounds of many British rock bands and singers in the 60s, 70s, and 80s?
5728d2774b864d1900164eda
the streets and rhythms vibrating through London.
915
False
What London concert venue shares its first name with a famous football stadium?
5728d2774b864d1900164edb
Wembley Arena
147
False
Located in London, what is the busiest concert arena in the world?
5728d2774b864d1900164edc
the o2 arena
90
False
London has numerous venues for rock and pop concerts, including the world's busiest arena the o2 arena and other large arenas such as Earls Court, Wembley Arena, as well as many mid-sized venues, such as Brixton Academy, the Hammersmith Apollo and the Shepherd's Bush Empire. Several music festivals, including the Wireless Festival, South West Four, Lovebox, and Hyde Park's British Summer Time are all held in London. The city is home to the first and original Hard Rock Cafe and the Abbey Road Studios where The Beatles recorded many of their hits. In the 1960s, 1970s and 1980s, musicians and groups like Elton John, Pink Floyd, David Bowie, Queen, The Kinks, The Rolling Stones, The Who, Eric Clapton, Led Zeppelin, The Small Faces, Iron Maiden, Fleetwood Mac, Elvis Costello, Cat Stevens, The Police, The Cure, Madness, The Jam, Dusty Springfield, Phil Collins, Rod Stewart and Sade, derived their sound from the streets and rhythms vibrating through London.
London was a major factor in the rise of what musical genre?
5728d449ff5b5019007da7a0
punk
46
False
Musical genres that gained popularity in London and elsewhere, such as dubstep, were based on and derived from what?
5728d449ff5b5019007da7a1
the foreign genres of hip hop and reggae
555
False
Which BBC radio station focuses primarily on black and urban music?
5728d449ff5b5019007da7a2
BBC Radio 1Xtra
648
False
What rock music group led by Gavin Rossdale got its start in London's music scene?
5728d449ff5b5019007da7a3
Bush
278
False
London was instrumental in the development of punk music, with figures such as the Sex Pistols, The Clash, and Vivienne Westwood all based in the city. More recent artists to emerge from the London music scene include George Michael, Kate Bush, Seal, Siouxsie and the Banshees, Bush, the Spice Girls, Jamiroquai, Blur, The Prodigy, Gorillaz, Mumford & Sons, Coldplay, Amy Winehouse, Adele, Ed Sheeran and One Direction. London is also a centre for urban music. In particular the genres UK garage, drum and bass, dubstep and grime evolved in the city from the foreign genres of hip hop and reggae, alongside local drum and bass. Black music station BBC Radio 1Xtra was set up to support the rise of home-grown urban music both in London and in the rest of the UK.
How many royal parks are located in the center of London?
5728d611ff5b5019007da7d0
three
52
False
In which park is the London Zoo housed?
5728d611ff5b5019007da7d1
Regent's Park
268
False
What royal park shares a border with its neighbor, the park known as Kensington Gardens?
5728d611ff5b5019007da7d2
Hyde Park
183
False
What area of Regent's Park is an excellent spot to see the London skyline?
5728d611ff5b5019007da7d3
Primrose Hill
404
False
What popular tourist destination is located near Regent's Park?
5728d611ff5b5019007da7d4
Madame Tussauds Wax Museum
376
False
The largest parks in the central area of London are three of the eight Royal Parks, namely Hyde Park and its neighbour Kensington Gardens in the west, and Regent's Park to the north. Hyde Park in particular is popular for sports and sometimes hosts open-air concerts. Regent's Park contains London Zoo, the world's oldest scientific zoo, and is near the tourist attraction of Madame Tussauds Wax Museum. Primrose Hill in the northern part of Regent's Park at 256 feet (78 m) is a popular spot to view the city skyline.
What famous London gardens were named as a World Heritage Site by UNESCO in 2003?
5728d7e22ca10214002da93e
Kew Gardens
26
False
Victoria Park is located in what London district?
5728d7e22ca10214002da93f
the East End
271
False
What entity oversees both Hampstead Heath of North London and Epping Forest?
5728d7e22ca10214002da940
the City of London Corporation
545
False
What former private home hosts lake-side classical music concerts ever summer?
5728d7e22ca10214002da941
Kenwood House
606
False
People frequently engage in physical activities such as walking, biking, and golf, in what forest?
5728d7e22ca10214002da942
Epping Forest
449
False
Close to Richmond Park is Kew Gardens which has the world's largest collection of living plants. In 2003, the gardens were put on the UNESCO list of World Heritage Sites. There are also numerous parks administered by London's borough Councils, including Victoria Park in the East End and Battersea Park in the centre. Some more informal, semi-natural open spaces also exist, including the 320-hectare (790-acre) Hampstead Heath of North London, and Epping Forest, which covers 2,476 hectares (6,118.32 acres) in the east. Both are controlled by the City of London Corporation. Hampstead Heath incorporates Kenwood House, the former stately home and a popular location in the summer months where classical musical concerts are held by the lake, attracting thousands of people every weekend to enjoy the music, scenery and fireworks. Epping Forest is a popular venue for various outdoor activities, including mountain biking, walking, horse riding, golf, angling, and orienteering.
What river is a tributary of the River Thames?
5728da5d2ca10214002da996
the River Wandle
446
False
What is the London Outer Orbital Path commonly referred as?
5728da5d2ca10214002da997
"Loop"
647
False
What walking path was created as a tribute to a member of the Royal Family who died prematurely?
5728da5d2ca10214002da998
the Diana, Princess of Wales Memorial Walk
694
False
Which walking path follows the route of the body of water for which it is named?
5728da5d2ca10214002da999
the Thames Path
296
False
What recent improvements has served to enhance the walking experience?
5728da5d2ca10214002da99a
Access to canals and rivers
219
False
Walking is a popular recreational activity in London. Areas that provide for walks include Wimbledon Common, Epping Forest, Hampton Court Park, Hampstead Heath, the eight Royal Parks, canals and disused railway tracks. Access to canals and rivers has improved recently, including the creation of the Thames Path, some 28 miles (45 km) of which is within Greater London, and The Wandle Trail; this runs 12 miles (19 km) through South London along the River Wandle, a tributary of the River Thames. Other long distance paths, linking green spaces, have also been created, including the Capital Ring, the Green Chain Walk, London Outer Orbital Path ("Loop"), Jubilee Walkway, Lea Valley Walk, and the Diana, Princess of Wales Memorial Walk.
What is London's most popular athletic sport?
5728dc50ff5b5019007da860
football
31
False
How many of the football clubs in the Premier League are based in London?
5728dc50ff5b5019007da861
five
93
False
When did the Chelsea Football Club win the UEFA Champions League title?
5728dc50ff5b5019007da862
May 2012
314
False
How many professional football clubs call London their home?
5728dc50ff5b5019007da863
fourteen
51
False
Besides the Arsenal, Chelsea, and Tottenham football clubs, how many London-based football club have won a national league titie?
5728dc50ff5b5019007da864
none
438
False
London's most popular sport is football and it has fourteen League football clubs, including five in the Premier League: Arsenal, Chelsea, Crystal Palace, Tottenham Hotspur, and West Ham United. Among other professional teams based in London include Fulham, Queens Park Rangers, Millwall and Charlton Athletic. In May 2012, Chelsea became the first London club to win the UEFA Champions League. Aside from Arsenal, Chelsea and Tottenham, none of the other London clubs have ever won the national league title.
What is the name of the national rugby union stadium located in South-West London?
5728de47ff5b5019007da88a
Twickenham Stadium
390
False
What is the current spectator seating capacity of Twickenham Stadium?
5728de47ff5b5019007da88b
82,000
489
False
Of the three Aviva Premiership rugby union teams in London, which ones actually play in the Greater London Area?
5728de47ff5b5019007da88c
Harlequins and Saracens
129
False
Where do the London Scottish and London Welch rugby teams play their home games?
5728de47ff5b5019007da88d
in the RFU Championship club
236
False
Three Aviva Premiership rugby union teams are based in London, (London Irish, Saracens, and Harlequins), although currently only Harlequins and Saracens play their home games within Greater London. London Scottish and London Welsh play in the RFU Championship club and other rugby union clubs in the city include Richmond F.C., Rosslyn Park F.C., Westcombe Park R.F.C. and Blackheath F.C.. Twickenham Stadium in south-west London is the national rugby union stadium, and has a capacity of 82,000 now that the new south stand has been completed.
London's residential property value is equivalent to what nation's GDP?
5728de7fff5b5019007da892
Brazil
228
False
What is the average price of property per square meter in central London as of April 2014?
5728de7fff5b5019007da893
€24,252
455
False
A World Property Journal report has ranked London as the most expensive office market in the world for how many consecutive years?
5728de7fff5b5019007da894
three
64
False
What city has the highest prices for property in Europe?
5728de7fff5b5019007da895
London
0
False
What is the average property price per square meter in Berlin as of April 2014?
5728de7fff5b5019007da896
€3,306
561
False
London is the world's most expensive office market for the last three years according to world property journal (2015) report. As of 2015[update] the residential property in London is worth $2.2 trillion - same value as that of Brazil annual GDP. The city has the highest property prices of any European city according to the Office for National Statistics and the European Office of Statistics. On average the price per square metre in central London is €24,252 (April 2014). This is higher than the property prices in other G8 European capital cities; Berlin €3,306, Rome €6,188 and Paris €11,229.
Culture
How does the Cambridge English Dictionary define "Culture" in short?
5727b6064b864d1900163b0a
the way of life
54
False
What is the name of this theory that culture is a series of activities and world views?
5727b6064b864d1900163b0b
Terror Management Theory
170
False
What did Homo Sapiens acquire that allowed them to become aware of Culture?
5727b6064b864d1900163b0c
larger brain
518
False
the way of life
54
How does the Cambridge Swedish Dictionary define "Culture" in short?
5a396b042f14dd001ac72311
True
Terror Management Theory
170
What is the name of a theory that culture is a series of locations and world rules?
5a396b042f14dd001ac72312
True
larger brain
518
What did Homo Sapiens acquire that allowed them to become unaware of Culture?
5a396b042f14dd001ac72313
True
"the way of life, especially the general customs and beliefs, of a particular group of people at a particular time."
53
What are Homo Sapiens able to avoid as  a result of having a larger brain?
5a396b042f14dd001ac72314
True
culture
41
What is defined as "the way of life, especially the supernatural customs and beliefs, of a particular individual at a particular time?"
5a396b042f14dd001ac72315
True
Cambridge English Dictionary states that culture is, "the way of life, especially the general customs and beliefs, of a particular group of people at a particular time." Terror Management Theory posits that culture is a series of activities and worldviews that provide humans with the illusion of being individuals of value in a world meaning—raising themselves above the merely physical aspects of existence, in order to deny the animal insignificance and death that Homo Sapiens became aware of when they acquired a larger brain.
Around when were humans able to understand to some degree what culture really meant?
5727ba4b4b864d1900163b9c
50,000 years ago
430
False
Name some cultural universals that exist with humans today.
5727ba4b4b864d1900163b9d
kinship, gender and marriage
921
False
What does the term "concept material culture" cover?
5727ba4b4b864d1900163b9e
technology, architecture and art
1212
False
culture
51
What is not a defining aspect of what it means to be human?
5a3975a52f14dd001ac72341
True
50,000 years ago
430
When were humans able to understand culture fully?
5a3975a52f14dd001ac72342
True
technology, architecture and art
1212
What does the term "concept immaterial culture" cover?
5a3975a52f14dd001ac72343
True
mythology, philosophy, literature (both written and oral), and science
1404
What is excluded from the cultural heritage of a society?
5a3975a52f14dd001ac72344
True
kinship, gender and marriage
921
What cultural universals no longer exist in humans?
5a3975a52f14dd001ac72345
True
As a defining aspect of what it means to be human, culture is a central concept in anthropology, encompassing the range of phenomena that are transmitted through social learning in human societies. The word is used in a general sense as the evolved ability to categorize and represent experiences with symbols and to act imaginatively and creatively. This ability arose with the evolution of behavioral modernity in humans around 50,000 years ago.[citation needed] This capacity is often thought to be unique to humans, although some other species have demonstrated similar, though much less complex abilities for social learning. It is also used to denote the complex networks of practices and accumulated knowledge and ideas that is transmitted through social interaction and exist in specific human groups, or cultures, using the plural form. Some aspects of human behavior, such as language, social practices such as kinship, gender and marriage, expressive forms such as art, music, dance, ritual, religion, and technologies such as cooking, shelter, clothing are said to be cultural universals, found in all human societies. The concept material culture covers the physical expressions of culture, such as technology, architecture and art, whereas the immaterial aspects of culture such as principles of social organization (including, practices of political organization and social institutions), mythology, philosophy, literature (both written and oral), and science make up the intangible cultural heritage of a society.
What was sometimes used or worn by early humans to form some type of culture visibly?
5727bf163acd2414000deb55
body modification, clothing or jewelry
763
False
Around what time did Mass Culture emerge?
5727bf163acd2414000deb56
20th century
927
False
What do some schools of philosophy suggest culture is used for?
5727bf163acd2414000deb57
as a tool of the elites to manipulate the lower classes and create a false consciousness
1057
False
body modification, clothing or jewelry
763
What was sometimes used or worn by early humans to form some type of culture invisibly?
5a3977502f14dd001ac72355
True
20th century
927
Around what time did Mass Culture end?
5a3977502f14dd001ac72356
True
as a tool of the elites to manipulate the lower classes and create a false consciousness
1057
What do no schools of philosophy suggest culture is used for?
5a3977502f14dd001ac72357
True
Marxism
977
What school of philosophy argues that culture is never used politically?
5a3977502f14dd001ac72358
True
cultural materialism
1272
What perspective holds that the basis of culture is found in devolved biological dispositions?
5a3977502f14dd001ac72359
True
In the humanities, one sense of culture, as an attribute of the individual, has been the degree to which they have cultivated a particular level of sophistication, in the arts, sciences, education, or manners. The level of cultural sophistication has also sometimes been seen to distinguish civilizations from less complex societies. Such hierarchical perspectives on culture are also found in class-based distinctions between a high culture of the social elite and a low culture, popular culture or folk culture of the lower classes, distinguished by the stratified access to cultural capital. In common parlance, culture is often used to refer specifically to the symbolic markers used by ethnic groups to distinguish themselves visibly from each other such as body modification, clothing or jewelry.[dubious – discuss] Mass culture refers to the mass-produced and mass mediated forms of consumer culture that emerged in the 20th century. Some schools of philosophy, such as Marxism and critical theory, have argued that culture is often used politically as a tool of the elites to manipulate the lower classes and create a false consciousness, such perspectives common in the discipline of cultural studies. In the wider social sciences, the theoretical perspective of cultural materialism holds that human symbolic culture arises from the material conditions of human life, as humans create the conditions for physical survival, and that the basis of culture is found in evolved biological dispositions.
What does the term "Count Noun" mean?
5727c37eff5b5019007d94a0
a culture
27
False
What cultural traits fall under the term count noun?
5727c37eff5b5019007d94a1
customs, traditions and values of a society or community
53
False
What falls within the term "cultural anthropology"?
5727c37eff5b5019007d94a2
the ideology and analytical stance of cultural relativism
488
False
"a culture"
26
What can never be used as a count noun?
5a39784f2f14dd001ac72369
True
multiculturalism
161
What is a concept that values an angry coexistence and mutual disrespect between different cultures inhabiting the same territory?
5a39784f2f14dd001ac7236a
True
culture
316
What term is no longer used to describe specific practices within a subgroup of a society?
5a39784f2f14dd001ac7236b
True
cultural relativism
526
What perspective holds that cultures can be easily ranked and evaluated?
5a39784f2f14dd001ac7236c
True
When used as a count noun "a culture", is the set of customs, traditions and values of a society or community, such as an ethnic group or nation. In this sense, multiculturalism is a concept that values the peaceful coexistence and mutual respect between different cultures inhabiting the same territory. Sometimes "culture" is also used to describe specific practices within a subgroup of a society, a subculture (e.g. "bro culture"), or a counter culture. Within cultural anthropology, the ideology and analytical stance of cultural relativism holds that cultures cannot easily be objectively ranked or evaluated because any evaluation is necessarily situated within the value system of a given culture.
What is the modern term "culture" based on?
5727c8104b864d1900163cfc
term used by the Ancient Roman orator Cicero
40
False
Who took over the metaphor used by Cicero?
5727c8104b864d1900163cfd
Samuel Pufendorf
337
False
Samuel changed something that was in the old meaning of the metaphor, what was it?
5727c8104b864d1900163cfe
no longer assuming that philosophy was man's natural perfection
430
False
culture
17
What term was used by the Ancient Roman Emperor Cicero in his Tusculanae Disputationes?
5a3979992f14dd001ac7237b
True
Tusculanae Disputationes
92
What had written in it an agricultural metaphor for the destruction of a philosophical soul?
5a3979992f14dd001ac7237c
True
Samuel Pufendorf
337
Who first introduced the metaphor later used by Cicero?
5a3979992f14dd001ac7237d
True
Samuel Pufendorf
337
Who assumed that philosophy was man's natural perfection?
5a3979992f14dd001ac7237e
True
The modern term "culture" is based on a term used by the Ancient Roman orator Cicero in his Tusculanae Disputationes, where he wrote of a cultivation of the soul or "cultura animi", using an agricultural metaphor for the development of a philosophical soul, understood teleologically as the highest possible ideal for human development. Samuel Pufendorf took over this metaphor in a modern context, meaning something similar, but no longer assuming that philosophy was man's natural perfection. His use, and that of many writers after him "refers to all the ways in which human beings overcome their original barbarism, and through artifice, become fully human".
What changes do Social conflicts along with developing of technologies have on culture?
5727f325ff5b5019007d9914
social dynamics and promoting new cultural models
101
False
What is this cultural movement called that involves a shift in gender relations mainly involving women?
5727f325ff5b5019007d9915
U.S. feminist movement
302
False
Which time period was used in the example of shifts in social dynamics?
5727f325ff5b5019007d9916
ice age
557
False
social dynamics and promoting new cultural models
101
What never changes due to social conflicts along with developing of technologies?
5a397a882f14dd001ac72397
True
ice age
557
Which time period was used in the example of shifts in physical dynamics?
5a397a882f14dd001ac72398
True
U.S. feminist movement
302
What is this cultural movement called that involves a shift in gender relations mainly excluding women?
5a397a882f14dd001ac72399
True
economic
416
What structures were not changed due to the U.S. feminist movement?
5a397a882f14dd001ac7239a
True
Environmental
437
What conditions are never a factor?
5a397a882f14dd001ac7239b
True
Social conflict and the development of technologies can produce changes within a society by altering social dynamics and promoting new cultural models, and spurring or enabling generative action. These social shifts may accompany ideological shifts and other types of cultural change. For example, the U.S. feminist movement involved new practices that produced a shift in gender relations, altering both gender and economic structures. Environmental conditions may also enter as factors. For example, after tropical forests returned at the end of the last ice age, plants suitable for domestication were available, leading to the invention of agriculture, which in turn brought about many cultural innovations and shifts in social dynamics.
What may impact social dynamics and technical development?
5727f460ff5b5019007d991a
War or competition over resources
147
False
In the example given, what seemed exotic when introduced into China but is common in the United States?
5727f460ff5b5019007d991b
fast food
478
False
What does the term Stimulus diffusion mean?
5727f460ff5b5019007d991c
the sharing of ideas
574
False
Which theory consist of cultured adopting new practices,ideas, and products?
5727f460ff5b5019007d991d
Diffusion of innovations
803
False
Cultures
0
What is internally affected via contact between societies?
5a397b6a2f14dd001ac723ab
True
fast food
478
In the example given, what seemed common when introduced into China but is exotic in the United States?
5a397b6a2f14dd001ac723ac
True
the sharing of ideas
574
What does the term Stimulus infusion mean?
5a397b6a2f14dd001ac723ad
True
Direct Borrowing
684
What refers to technological or tangible infusion from one culture to another?
5a397b6a2f14dd001ac723ae
True
Diffusion of innovations theory
803
What theory presents a research-based model of why and when groups and cultures adopt old ideas, practices, and products?
5a397b6a2f14dd001ac723af
True
Cultures are externally affected via contact between societies, which may also produce—or inhibit—social shifts and changes in cultural practices. War or competition over resources may impact technological development or social dynamics. Additionally, cultural ideas may transfer from one society to another, through diffusion or acculturation. In diffusion, the form of something (though not necessarily its meaning) moves from one culture to another. For example, hamburgers, fast food in the United States, seemed exotic when introduced into China. "Stimulus diffusion" (the sharing of ideas) refers to an element of one culture leading to an invention or propagation in another. "Direct Borrowing" on the other hand tends to refer to technological or tangible diffusion from one culture to another. Diffusion of innovations theory presents a research-based model of why and when individuals and cultures adopt new ideas, practices, and products.
Who said the following statement? "Enlightenment is man's emergence from his self-incurred immaturity".
5727f60f3acd2414000df0e1
Immanuel Kant
0
False
What does the term Sapere aude mean?
5727f60f3acd2414000df0e2
Dare to be wise
378
False
Which German scholar argued that human creativity takes diverse forms and is as important as human rationality?
5727f60f3acd2414000df0e3
Johann Gottfried Herder
441
False
Immanuel Kant
0
Who said the following statement? "Enlightenment is man's emergence from his self-incurred maturity"
5a397c642f14dd001ac723bf
True
Immanuel Kant
0
Who argued that immaturity comes not from a lack of understanding, but from a lack of courage to think dependently?
5a397c642f14dd001ac723c0
True
Enlightenment
124
What term was considered man's emergence into his self-incurred immaturity?
5a397c642f14dd001ac723c1
True
Johann Gottfried Herder
441
Who argued that human creativity is not as important as human rationality?
5a397c642f14dd001ac723c2
True
Johann Gottfried Herder
441
Who proposed an individualistic form of bildung?
5a397c642f14dd001ac723c3
True
Immanuel Kant (1724–1804) has formulated an individualist definition of "enlightenment" similar to the concept of bildung: "Enlightenment is man's emergence from his self-incurred immaturity." He argued that this immaturity comes not from a lack of understanding, but from a lack of courage to think independently. Against this intellectual cowardice, Kant urged: Sapere aude, "Dare to be wise!" In reaction to Kant, German scholars such as Johann Gottfried Herder (1744–1803) argued that human creativity, which necessarily takes unpredictable and highly diverse forms, is as important as human rationality. Moreover, Herder proposed a collective form of bildung: "For Herder, Bildung was the totality of experiences that provide a coherent identity, and sense of common destiny, to a people."
Which Prussian linguist called for an anthropology?
5727f7802ca10214002d9a5e
Wilhelm von Humboldt
47
False
During which ere did scholars of Germany developed a more inclusive culture?
5727f7802ca10214002d9a5f
Romantic era
171
False
What was the German name given for the creation of this culture during the Romantic era?
5727f7802ca10214002d9a60
Weltanschauung
494
False
Wilhelm von Humboldt
47
Which Prussian linguist called for an ontology?
5a397e982f14dd001ac723db
True
Romantic era
171
Which era did scholars of Germany develop a less inclusive culture?
5a397e982f14dd001ac723dc
True
Weltanschauung
494
What was the Russian name given for the creation of this culture during the Romantic era?
5a397e982f14dd001ac723dd
True
Germany
197
Which scholars were never concerned with nationalist movements?
5a397e982f14dd001ac723de
True
In 1795, the Prussian linguist and philosopher Wilhelm von Humboldt (1767–1835) called for an anthropology that would synthesize Kant's and Herder's interests. During the Romantic era, scholars in Germany, especially those concerned with nationalist movements—such as the nationalist struggle to create a "Germany" out of diverse principalities, and the nationalist struggles by ethnic minorities against the Austro-Hungarian Empire—developed a more inclusive notion of culture as "worldview" (Weltanschauung). According to this school of thought, each ethnic group has a distinct worldview that is incommensurable with the worldviews of other groups. Although more inclusive than earlier views, this approach to culture still allowed for distinctions between "civilized" and "primitive" or "tribal" cultures.
According to Bastian, what did he believe all human societies shared?
5727f88a4b864d19001640f2
elementary ideas
276
False
What was the name of the person argued for "The psychic unity of mankind"?
5727f88a4b864d19001640f3
Adolf Bastian
9
False
Who trained under Bastian's ideas on culture?
5727f88a4b864d19001640f4
Franz Boas
493
False
elementary ideas
276
What did Adolf Bastian believe all human societies ignored?
5a397fa12f14dd001ac723ed
True
Adolf Bastian
9
Who argued for "The psychic separation of mankind"?
5a397fa12f14dd001ac723ee
True
Franz Boas
493
Who first taught Bastian's ideas on culture?
5a397fa12f14dd001ac723ef
True
Völkergedanken
362
What Hungarian term means "folk ideas"?
5a397fa12f14dd001ac723f0
True
culture
484
What view did not have a paved way for modern understanding?
5a397fa12f14dd001ac723f1
True
In 1860, Adolf Bastian (1826–1905) argued for "the psychic unity of mankind". He proposed that a scientific comparison of all human societies would reveal that distinct worldviews consisted of the same basic elements. According to Bastian, all human societies share a set of "elementary ideas" (Elementargedanken); different cultures, or different "folk ideas" (Völkergedanken), are local modifications of the elementary ideas. This view paved the way for the modern understanding of culture. Franz Boas (1858–1942) was trained in this tradition, and he brought it with him when he left Germany for the United States.
What did culture refer to in practice?
5727fa303acd2414000df137
élite ideal
36
False
What was associated with culture during this German practice?
5727fa303acd2414000df138
art, classical music, and haute cuisine
91
False
Art and music were some of these forms of  cultural related to what type of living?
5727fa303acd2414000df139
urban life
168
False
The idea of culture in Europe in the 19th century reflected what during this time period?
5727fa303acd2414000df13a
inequalities within European societies.
616
False
an élite ideal
33
What did culture never refer to in practice?
5a399c492f14dd001ac7248b
True
art, classical music, and haute cuisine
91
What was associated with culture during this American practice?
5a399c492f14dd001ac7248c
True
Romantic
273
What movement had little interest in folklore?
5a399c492f14dd001ac7248d
True
during the 18th and early 19th centuries
565
When did the idea of "culture" stop in Europe?
5a399c492f14dd001ac7248e
True
In practice, culture referred to an élite ideal and was associated with such activities as art, classical music, and haute cuisine. As these forms were associated with urban life, "culture" was identified with "civilization" (from lat. civitas, city). Another facet of the Romantic movement was an interest in folklore, which led to identifying a "culture" among non-elites. This distinction is often characterized as that between high culture, namely that of the ruling social group, and low culture. In other words, the idea of "culture" that developed in Europe during the 18th and early 19th centuries reflected inequalities within European societies.
How did Matthew Arnold view "Culture" with?
5727fdad2ca10214002d9ad2
anarchy
41
False
Which two philosophers contrasted "culture" with the state of nature?
5727fdad2ca10214002d9ad3
Thomas Hobbes and Jean-Jacques Rousseau
90
False
Which race was considered living "in a state of nature" by the Europeans?
5727fdad2ca10214002d9ad4
Native Americans
218
False
"In a state of nature" was divided into two groups, what where they?
5727fdad2ca10214002d9ad5
"civilized" and "uncivilized."
393
False
anarchy
41
Matthew Arnold blended "culture" with what?
5a399d472f14dd001ac7249b
True
Thomas Hobbes and Jean-Jacques Rousseau
90
Who combined "culture" with "the state of nature"?
5a399d472f14dd001ac7249c
True
Native Americans
218
Which race was considered living "outside of nature" by the Europeans?
5a399d472f14dd001ac7249d
True
"civilized" and "uncivilized."
393
What concept contains no contrast between it?
5a399d472f14dd001ac7249e
True
some countries and nations
478
What location is never more civilized than others?
5a399d472f14dd001ac7249f
True
Matthew Arnold contrasted "culture" with anarchy; other Europeans, following philosophers Thomas Hobbes and Jean-Jacques Rousseau, contrasted "culture" with "the state of nature". According to Hobbes and Rousseau, the Native Americans who were being conquered by Europeans from the 16th centuries on were living in a state of nature; this opposition was expressed through the contrast between "civilized" and "uncivilized." According to this way of thinking, one could classify some countries and nations as more civilized than others and some people as more cultured than others. This contrast led to Herbert Spencer's theory of Social Darwinism and Lewis Henry Morgan's theory of cultural evolution. Just as some critics have argued that the distinction between high and low cultures is really an expression of the conflict between European elites and non-elites, some critics have argued that the distinction between civilized and uncivilized people is really an expression of the conflict between European colonial powers and their colonial subjects.
What type of music did critics associate with corrupt high culture?
5727fec0ff5b5019007d9a72
folk music
298
False
Which type of music seemed superficial and decadent?
5727fec0ff5b5019007d9a73
classical music
421
False
What was another name used for the corrupted high culture of the indigenous people?
5727fec0ff5b5019007d9a74
noble savages
528
False
folk music
298
What type of music did critics associate with respected high culture?
5a399e2c2f14dd001ac724b7
True
classical
421
Which type of music is always superficial and decadent?
5a399e2c2f14dd001ac724b8
True
19th-century
6
When was there no differentiation between higher and lower culture?
5a399e2c2f14dd001ac724b9
True
noble savages
528
What was another name used for the corrupted high culture of the foreign people?
5a399e2c2f14dd001ac724ba
True
Other 19th-century critics, following Rousseau have accepted this differentiation between higher and lower culture, but have seen the refinement and sophistication of high culture as corrupting and unnatural developments that obscure and distort people's essential nature. These critics considered folk music (as produced by "the folk", i.e., rural, illiterate, peasants) to honestly express a natural way of life, while classical music seemed superficial and decadent. Equally, this view often portrayed indigenous peoples as "noble savages" living authentic and unblemished lives, uncomplicated and uncorrupted by the highly stratified capitalist systems of the West.
Who's definition of culture did anthropologist  accept?
5728004a3acd2414000df1e1
Tylor's
44
False
What four fields make up American anthropology which play a vital role on its research of culture?
5728004a3acd2414000df1e2
biological anthropology, linguistic anthropology, cultural anthropology, and archaeology.
486
False
In which century did "culture" as a central concept of American anthropology emerge?
5728004a3acd2414000df1e3
20th century
82
False
Tylor's
44
Who's definition of culture did anthropologists reject?
5a399f132f14dd001ac724d3
True
biological anthropology, linguistic anthropology, cultural anthropology, and archaeology
486
What four fields make up European anthropology which play a vital role on its research of culture?
5a399f132f14dd001ac724d4
True
20th century
82
Which century had "culture" as a secondary concept of European anthropology emerge?
5a399f132f14dd001ac724d5
True
culture
96
What commonly refers to the universal human capacity to hack human experiences symbolically, and to communicate symbolically decoded experiences socially?
5a399f132f14dd001ac724d6
True
Although anthropologists worldwide refer to Tylor's definition of culture, in the 20th century "culture" emerged as the central and unifying concept of American anthropology, where it most commonly refers to the universal human capacity to classify and encode human experiences symbolically, and to communicate symbolically encoded experiences socially.[citation needed] American anthropology is organized into four fields, each of which plays an important role in research on culture: biological anthropology, linguistic anthropology, cultural anthropology, and archaeology.
Who referred to culture as a cultivation of individuals?
572802a8ff5b5019007d9adc
Georg Simmel
143
False
What makes up the sociological parts of culture according to Simmel?
572802a8ff5b5019007d9add
ways of thinking, the ways of acting, and the material objects
369
False
What does non-material culture refer to?
572802a8ff5b5019007d9ade
non physical ideas
586
False
The term material culture is only relevant to what?
572802a8ff5b5019007d9adf
archeological and anthropological studies
902
False
Georg Simmel
143
Who referred to culture as a cultivation of groups?
5a39a5cc2f14dd001ac7251d
True
ways of thinking, the ways of acting, and the material objects
369
What detracts from the sociological parts of culture according to Simmel?
5a39a5cc2f14dd001ac7251e
True
non physical ideas
586
What does non-material culture ignore?
5a39a5cc2f14dd001ac7251f
True
archeological and anthropological studies
902
The term material culture is not relevant to what?
5a39a5cc2f14dd001ac72520
True
The sociology of culture concerns culture—usually understood as the ensemble of symbolic codes used by a society—as manifested in society. For Georg Simmel (1858–1918), culture referred to "the cultivation of individuals through the agency of external forms which have been objectified in the course of history". Culture in the sociological field can be defined as the ways of thinking, the ways of acting, and the material objects that together shape a people's way of life. Culture can be any of two types, non-material culture or material culture. Non-material culture refers to the non physical ideas that individuals have about their culture, including values, belief system, rules, norms, morals, language, organizations, and institutions. While Material culture is the physical evidence of a culture in the objects and architecture they make, or have made. The term tends to be relevant only in archeological and anthropological studies, but it specifically means all material evidence which can be attributed to culture past or present.
Where did sociology culture stem from?
5728040b4b864d1900164234
Weimar Germany
36
False
Who was the first to refer to culture as sociology?
5728040b4b864d1900164235
Alfred Weber
91
False
What do cultural  sociologist tend to reject as key attribute of culture?
5728040b4b864d1900164236
scientific methods
515
False
Weimar Germany
36
Where did sociology culture become rejected?
5a39a8772f14dd001ac72537
True
Alfred Weber
91
Who was the last to refer to culture as sociology?
5a39a8772f14dd001ac72538
True
Cultural
478
Which sociologists tend to accept scientific methods?
5a39a8772f14dd001ac72539
True
Culture
619
What has never been an important concept across many branches of sociology?
5a39a8772f14dd001ac7253a
True
Cultural sociology first emerged in Weimar Germany (1918–1933), where sociologists such as Alfred Weber used the term Kultursoziologie (cultural sociology). Cultural sociology was then "reinvented" in the English-speaking world as a product of the "cultural turn" of the 1960s, which ushered in structuralist and postmodern approaches to social science. This type of cultural sociology may loosely be regarded as an approach incorporating cultural analysis and critical theory. Cultural sociologists tend to reject scientific methods,[citation needed] instead hermeneutically focusing on words, artifacts and symbols. "Culture" has since become an important concept across many branches of sociology, including resolutely scientific fields like social stratification and social network analysis. As a result, there has been a recent influx of quantitative sociologists to the field. Thus there is now a growing group of sociologists of culture who are, confusingly, not cultural sociologists. These scholars reject the abstracted postmodern aspects of cultural sociology, and instead look for a theoretical backing in the more scientific vein of social psychology and cognitive science. "Cultural sociology" is one of the largest sections of the American Sociological Association. The British establishment of cultural studies means the latter is often taught as a loosely distinct discipline in the UK.
Which three early theorist helped shape sociology of culture?
5728071d4b864d190016427c
Marx, Durkheim, and Weber
105
False
What were the early concerns for the field of Sociology culture?
5728071d4b864d190016427d
popular culture, political control, and social class
626
False
What is most of the research into sociological culture ?
5728071d4b864d190016427e
qualitative
424
False
Marx, Durkheim, and Weber
105
Which three early theorists helped eliminate the sociology of culture?
5a39a9bc2f14dd001ac72547
True
popular culture, political control, and social class
626
What were the main elements for the field of Sociology culture?
5a39a9bc2f14dd001ac72548
True
qualitative
424
What is the least of the research into sociological culture ?
5a39a9bc2f14dd001ac72549
True
relationships between popular culture, political control, and social class
604
What were never concerns in the field?
5a39a9bc2f14dd001ac7254a
True
The sociology of culture grew from the intersection between sociology (as shaped by early theorists like Marx, Durkheim, and Weber) with the growing discipline of anthropology, where in researchers pioneered ethnographic strategies for describing and analyzing a variety of cultures around the world. Part of the legacy of the early development of the field lingers in the methods (much of cultural sociological research is qualitative), in the theories (a variety of critical approaches to sociology are central to current research communities), and in the substantive focus of the field. For instance, relationships between popular culture, political control, and social class were early and lasting concerns in the field.
Which scientist was influenced by Marxism in the United Kingdom?
572808a2ff5b5019007d9b72
Stuart Hall (1932–2014) and Raymond Williams (1921–1988)
86
False
What did Marxist like Stuart Hall and Raymond Williams  they identify culture as?
572808a2ff5b5019007d9b73
consumption goods and leisure activities
243
False
What made up Leisure activities and goods as viewed by Marxist?
572808a2ff5b5019007d9b74
art, music, film, food, sports, and clothing
293
False
What led sociologist like Stuart and Raymond to focus on class relations and the organization of production?
572808a2ff5b5019007d9b75
saw patterns of consumption and leisure
359
False
Stuart Hall
86
Which scientist created Marxism in the United Kingdom?
5a39ab532f14dd001ac7254f
True
consumption goods and leisure activities
243
What did Marxist like Stuart Hall and Raymond Williams discount culture as?
5a39ab532f14dd001ac72550
True
they saw patterns of consumption and leisure as determined by relations of production
354
What led sociologist like Stuart and Raymond to focus on individuals and the organization of destruction?
5a39ab532f14dd001ac72551
True
United Kingdom
7
Where did Marxism begin?
5a39ab532f14dd001ac72552
True
In the United Kingdom, sociologists and other scholars influenced by Marxism, such as Stuart Hall (1932–2014) and Raymond Williams (1921–1988), developed cultural studies. Following nineteenth-century Romantics, they identified "culture" with consumption goods and leisure activities (such as art, music, film, food, sports, and clothing). Nevertheless, they saw patterns of consumption and leisure as determined by relations of production, which led them to focus on class relations and the organization of production.
In the U.S what does "Cultural Studies" focus largely on in this field?
572809bfff5b5019007d9b8e
popular culture
73
False
Who first coined the term "Cultural Studies" in the United States?
572809bfff5b5019007d9b8f
Richard Hoggart
167
False
What was the name of the company founded by Hoggart in 1964?
572809bfff5b5019007d9b90
Birmingham Centre for Contemporary Cultural Studies or CCCS
227
False
The CCCS has since been associated with who?
572809bfff5b5019007d9b91
Stuart Hall
333
False
popular culture
73
In the UK what does "Cultural Studies" focus little on in this field?
5a39ac6c2f14dd001ac72557
True
Richard Hoggart
167
Who first coined the term "Cultural Studies" in the United Kingdom?
5a39ac6c2f14dd001ac72558
True
Birmingham Centre for Contemporary Cultural Studies
227
What was the name of the company founded by Hoggart in 1954?
5a39ac6c2f14dd001ac72559
True
Stuart Hall
333
The CCCS has since been disassociated with who?
5a39ac6c2f14dd001ac7255a
True
In the United States, "Cultural Studies" focuses largely on the study of popular culture, that is, on the social meanings of mass-produced consumer and leisure goods. Richard Hoggart coined the term in 1964 when he founded the Birmingham Centre for Contemporary Cultural Studies or CCCS. It has since become strongly associated with Stuart Hall, who succeeded Hoggart as Director. Cultural studies in this sense, then, can be viewed as a limited concentration scoped on the intricacies of consumerism, which belongs to a wider culture sometimes referred to as "Western Civilization" or as "Globalism."
Who did Stuart Hall work along side with?
57280c92ff5b5019007d9bc4
Paul Willis, Dick Hebdige, Tony Jefferson, and Angela McRobbie
88
False
What did Stuart and his colleagues create?
57280c92ff5b5019007d9bc5
international intellectual movement.
163
False
In the field that Stuart was working, what did he and his colleagues often concentrate on?
57280c92ff5b5019007d9bc6
matters of ideology, nationality, ethnicity, social class, and/or gender
549
False
Capitalism can be referred to as what process?
57280c92ff5b5019007d9bc7
a process called globalization
1491
False
Paul Willis, Dick Hebdige, Tony Jefferson, and Angela McRobbie
88
Who did Stuart Hall never work with?
5a39ad012f14dd001ac7255f
True
international intellectual movement
163
What did Stuart and his colleagues eliminate?
5a39ad012f14dd001ac72560
True
Globalization
1644
Capitalism can never be referred to as what process?
5a39ad012f14dd001ac72561
True
matters of ideology, nationality, ethnicity, social class, and/or gender
549
In the field that Stuart was working, what did he and his colleagues often ignore?
5a39ad012f14dd001ac72562
True
From the 1970s onward, Stuart Hall's pioneering work, along with that of his colleagues Paul Willis, Dick Hebdige, Tony Jefferson, and Angela McRobbie, created an international intellectual movement. As the field developed it began to combine political economy, communication, sociology, social theory, literary theory, media theory, film/video studies, cultural anthropology, philosophy, museum studies and art history to study cultural phenomena or cultural texts. In this field researchers often concentrate on how particular phenomena relate to matters of ideology, nationality, ethnicity, social class, and/or gender.[citation needed] Cultural studies has a concern with the meaning and practices of everyday life. These practices comprise the ways people do particular things (such as watching television, or eating out) in a given culture. This field studies the meanings and uses people attribute to various objects and practices. Specifically, culture involves those meanings and practices held independently of reason. Watching television in order to view a public perspective on a historical event should not be thought of as culture, unless referring to the medium of television itself, which may have been selected culturally; however, schoolchildren watching television after school with their friends in order to "fit in" certainly qualifies, since there is no grounded reason for one's participation in this practice. Recently, as capitalism has spread throughout the world (a process called globalization), cultural studies has begun[when?] to analyze local and global forms of resistance to Western hegemony.[citation needed] Globalization in this context can be defined as western civilization in other ways, it undermines the cultural integrity of other culture and it is therefore repressive, exploitative and harmful to most people in different places.
The idea of text in cultural studies can include what forms other than written language?
57280ddfff5b5019007d9be6
films, photographs, fashion or hairstyles
100
False
Which two practices have become the main focus in cultural studies?
57280ddfff5b5019007d9be7
high culture (the culture of ruling social groups) and popular culture
373
False
What makes up cooperative cultural studies?
57280ddfff5b5019007d9be8
based on the disciplines of comparative literature and cultural studies
621
False
films, photographs, fashion or hairstyles
100
The idea of text in cultural studies can never include what forms other than written language?
5a39adae2f14dd001ac7256d
True
high culture (the culture of ruling social groups) and popular culture
373
Which two practices have become the least focused on in cultural studies?
5a39adae2f14dd001ac7256e
True
the disciplines of comparative literature and cultural studies
630
What disregards cooperative cultural studies?
5a39adae2f14dd001ac7256f
True
Culture
300
What has never been studied by researchers?
5a39adae2f14dd001ac72570
True
In the context of cultural studies, the idea of a text includes not only written language, but also films, photographs, fashion or hairstyles: the texts of cultural studies comprise all the meaningful artifacts of culture.[citation needed] Similarly, the discipline widens the concept of "culture". "Culture" for a cultural-studies researcher not only includes traditional high culture (the culture of ruling social groups) and popular culture, but also everyday meanings and practices. The last two, in fact, have become the main focus of cultural studies. A further and recent approach is comparative cultural studies, based on the disciplines of comparative literature and cultural studies.[citation needed]
Around when did the United States and United Kingdom began to develop different versions of cultural studies?
57280eea3acd2414000df353
late 1970s
121
False
When did the British version of cultural studies emerge?
57280eea3acd2414000df354
1950s and 1960s
195
False
Who had influenced cultural studies in the U.K?
57280eea3acd2414000df355
Richard Hoggart, E. P. Thompson, and Raymond Williams, and later that of Stuart Hall
248
False
Which University did research of cultural studies take place under CCCS?
57280eea3acd2414000df356
the University of Birmingham
395
False
late 1970s
121
When did the United States and United Kingdom began to develop similar versions of cultural studies?
5a39ae6c2f14dd001ac7257d
True
1950s and 1960s
195
When did the British version of cultural studies end?
5a39ae6c2f14dd001ac7257e
True
Richard Hoggart, E. P. Thompson, and Raymond Williams, and later that of Stuart Hall
248
Who had influenced cultural studies in the United States?
5a39ae6c2f14dd001ac7257f
True
the University of Birmingham
395
Which University was not allowed to do research of cultural studies?
5a39ae6c2f14dd001ac72580
True
Scholars in the United Kingdom and the United States developed somewhat different versions of cultural studies after the late 1970s. The British version of cultural studies had originated in the 1950s and 1960s, mainly under the influence first of Richard Hoggart, E. P. Thompson, and Raymond Williams, and later that of Stuart Hall and others at the Centre for Contemporary Cultural Studies at the University of Birmingham. This included overtly political, left-wing views, and criticisms of popular culture as "capitalist" mass culture; it absorbed some of the ideas of the Frankfurt School critique of the "culture industry" (i.e. mass culture). This emerges in the writings of early British cultural-studies scholars and their influences: see the work of (for example) Raymond Williams, Stuart Hall, Paul Willis, and Paul Gilroy.
Which two wrote Cultural studies [were] grounded in a pragmatic, liberal-pluralist tradition?
57281099ff5b5019007d9c42
Lindlof and Taylor
22
False
From a Marxist view, what did they believe had to be controlled  to essentially control a culture?
57281099ff5b5019007d9c43
the economic base
1035
False
Lindlof and Taylor
22
Which two wrote Cultural studies are grounded in a rationalist, conservative-pluralist tradition?
5a39b0472f14dd001ac7258d
True
the economic base
1035
What did they believe was unnecessary to control a culture from a Marxist view?
5a39b0472f14dd001ac7258e
True
art historian Griselda Pollock
1766
Who contributed to cultural studies from viewpoints of art news and philosophy?
5a39b0472f14dd001ac7258f
True
Julia Kristeva
1891
Which writer contributed to cultural studies from the field of science and French modernism?
5a39b0472f14dd001ac72590
True
feminist cultural studies
1148
What never criticized the Marxist assumption of a single, dominant meaning, shared by all, for any cultural product?
5a39b0472f14dd001ac72591
True
In the United States, Lindlof and Taylor write, "Cultural studies [were] grounded in a pragmatic, liberal-pluralist tradition". The American version of cultural studies initially concerned itself more with understanding the subjective and appropriative side of audience reactions to, and uses of, mass culture; for example, American cultural-studies advocates wrote about the liberatory aspects of fandom.[citation needed] The distinction between American and British strands, however, has faded.[citation needed] Some researchers, especially in early British cultural studies, apply a Marxist model to the field. This strain of thinking has some influence from the Frankfurt School, but especially from the structuralist Marxism of Louis Althusser and others. The main focus of an orthodox Marxist approach concentrates on the production of meaning. This model assumes a mass production of culture and identifies power as residing with those producing cultural artifacts. In a Marxist view, those who control the means of production (the economic base) essentially control a culture.[citation needed] Other approaches to cultural studies, such as feminist cultural studies and later American developments of the field, distance themselves from this view. They criticize the Marxist assumption of a single, dominant meaning, shared by all, for any cultural product. The non-Marxist approaches suggest that different ways of consuming cultural artifacts affect the meaning of the product. This view comes through in the book Doing Cultural Studies: The Story of the Sony Walkman (by Paul du Gay et al.), which seeks to challenge the notion that those who produce commodities control the meanings that people attribute to them. Feminist cultural analyst, theorist and art historian Griselda Pollock contributed to cultural studies from viewpoints of art history and psychoanalysis. The writer Julia Kristeva is among influential voices at the turn of the century, contributing to cultural studies from the field of art and psychoanalytical French feminism.[citation needed]
How many ways did Raimon Panikkar believed cultural change can be based on?
572818dfff5b5019007d9d2a
29 ways
28
False
What is the term used to describe what Modernization could be similar or related to?
572818dfff5b5019007d9d2b
enlightenment
398
False
What type of society was seen that came from Raimon's 29 ways?
572818dfff5b5019007d9d2c
secular society
532
False
29 ways
28
How many ways did Raimon Panikkar believe cultural consistency can be based on?
5a39b12e2f14dd001ac72597
True
enlightenment
398
What is the term used to describe what Modernization could be opposite of?
5a39b12e2f14dd001ac72598
True
secular society
532
What type of society was not seen from Raimon's 29 ways?
5a39b12e2f14dd001ac72599
True
secular
532
What kind of society is very religious?
5a39b12e2f14dd001ac7259a
True
Raimon Panikkar
0
Who pointed out there are 26 ways in which cultural change can be brought about?
5a39b12e2f14dd001ac7259b
True
Raimon Panikkar pointed out 29 ways in which cultural change can be brought about. Some of these are: growth, development, evolution, involution, renovation, reconception, reform, innovation, revivalism, revolution, mutation, progress, diffusion, osmosis, borrowing, eclecticism, syncretism, modernization, indigenization, and transformation. Hence Modernization could be similar or related to the enlightenment but a 'looser' term set to ideal and values that flourish. a belief in objectivity progress. Also seen as a belief in a secular society (free from religious influences) example objective and rational, science vs religion and finally been modern means not being religious.
Sahara
What is the third hottest desert in the world?
5727b786ff5b5019007d9346
The Sahara
0
False
What is the third largest desert in the world?
5727ba822ca10214002d94dc
The Sahara
0
False
What is the surface area of the Sahara Desert?
5727ba822ca10214002d94dd
9,400,000 square kilometres (3,600,000 sq mi)
205
False
What is the hottest desert in the world?
5727ba822ca10214002d94de
Sahara
4
False
The Sahara
0
What is the largest desert in the world?
5a4bf32fbfc0e3001a15d3ce
True
The Sahara
0
What desert is larger than the Antarcti and Arctic desert?
5a4bf32fbfc0e3001a15d3cf
True
The Sahara
0
What desert is 9,400,000 sq mi?
5a4bf32fbfc0e3001a15d3d0
True
Africa
427
What continant does the Sahara cover most of?
5a4bf32fbfc0e3001a15d3d1
True
Libyan Desert
1100
What is the next largeast African desert?
5a4bf32fbfc0e3001a15d3d2
True
9,400,000 square kilometres (3,600,000 sq mi)
205
What is the surface area of the Arctic?
5a60b098e9e1cc001a33cd66
True
the Greatest Desert
59
What does Antarctica mean in Arabic?
5a60b098e9e1cc001a33cd67
True
the Libyan Desert
278
What desert is part of the United States?
5a60b098e9e1cc001a33cd68
True
the plural Arabic language word for desert
1140
What does the name Sahel come from?
5a60b098e9e1cc001a33cd69
True
the Nile Valley
552
What valley is located in the Sahara?
5a60b098e9e1cc001a33cd6a
True
The Sahara (Arabic: الصحراء الكبرى‎, aṣ-ṣaḥrāʾ al-kubrā , 'the Greatest Desert') is the largest hot desert in the world. It is the third largest desert after Antarctica and the Arctic. Its surface area of 9,400,000 square kilometres (3,600,000 sq mi)[citation needed]—including the Libyan Desert—is comparable to the respective land areas of China or the United States. The desert comprises much of the land found within North Africa, excluding the fertile coastal region situated against the Mediterranean Sea, the Atlas Mountains of the Maghreb, and the Nile Valley of Egypt and Sudan. The Sahara stretches from the Red Sea in the east and the Mediterranean in the north, to the Atlantic Ocean in the west, where the landscape gradually transitions to a coastal plain. To the south, it is delimited by the Sahel, a belt of semi-arid tropical savanna around the Niger River valley and Sudan Region of Sub-Saharan Africa. The Sahara can be divided into several regions, including the western Sahara, the central Ahaggar Mountains, the Tibesti Mountains, the Aïr Mountains, the Ténéré desert, and the Libyan Desert. Its name is derived from the plural Arabic language word for desert (صحارى ṣaḥārā  [ˈsˤɑħɑːrɑː]).
What is the central part of the Sahara Desert?
5727cb242ca10214002d9666
hyperarid
34
False
What does the Sahara have little to none of?
5727cb242ca10214002d9667
The northern and southern reaches of the desert
75
False
The northern and southern reaches of the desert are spare of what items?
5727cb242ca10214002d9668
grassland and desert shrub
171
False
What does the Sahara have little of?
5727cbd8ff5b5019007d956f
The northern and southern reaches of the desert
75
False
How often does the Sahara go without rainfall?
5727cbd8ff5b5019007d9571
years
530
False
hyperarid
34
What are the conditions in the central Nubian desert?
5a4c1ee17a6c4c001a2bbb96
True
the Sahara
20
What desert has a hyperarid northern and southern region?
5a4c1ee17a6c4c001a2bbb97
True
The northern and southern reaches
75
where are the grasslands in the Libyan Desert?
5a4c1ee17a6c4c001a2bbb98
True
absolute desert regions
453
What region goes months without rain?
5a4c1ee17a6c4c001a2bbb99
True
the Tanezrouft, the Ténéré, the Libyan Desert, the Eastern Desert, the Nubian Desert and others
350
What are the subdivisions of the northern and southern reaches?
5a60b3b5e9e1cc001a33cd70
True
absolute desert regions
453
What areas are characterized by frequent rains?
5a60b3b5e9e1cc001a33cd71
True
The central part
0
Which section of the Sahara is filled with vegetation?
5a60b3b5e9e1cc001a33cd72
True
The northern and southern reaches of the desert, along with the highlands
75
Where are grasslands and shrubs frequently found in abundance?
5a60b3b5e9e1cc001a33cd73
True
The northern and southern reaches of the desert
75
Where are the highlands located?
5a60b3b5e9e1cc001a33cd74
True
The central part of the Sahara is hyperarid, with little to no vegetation. The northern and southern reaches of the desert, along with the highlands, have areas of sparse grassland and desert shrub, with trees and taller shrubs in wadis where moisture collects. In the central, hyperarid part, there are many subdivisions of the great desert such as the Tanezrouft, the Ténéré, the Libyan Desert, the Eastern Desert, the Nubian Desert and others. These absolute desert regions are characterized by their extreme aridity, and some years can pass without any rainfall.
What sea is North of the Sahara Desert?
5727d3f54b864d1900163e0a
Mediterranean Sea
36
False
the Mediterranean
32
What ocean is North of the Sahara?
5a4c243e7a6c4c001a2bbb9e
True
Mediterranean forest
143
What forest is to the western Sahara?
5a4c243e7a6c4c001a2bbb9f
True
Mediterranean climate
236
What climate has cool and rainy summers?
5a4c243e7a6c4c001a2bbba0
True
Frank White and geographer Robert Capot-Rey
354
who claims the northern Sahara corresponds to the southern limit of date palm cultivation
5a4c243e7a6c4c001a2bbba1
True
the Mediterranean
32
What sea is located in Libya?
5a60d206e9e1cc001a33cd7a
True
northern Africa
199
Where is Frank White from?
5a60d206e9e1cc001a33cd7b
True
100 mm (3.9 in) isohyet
662
How much rain does northern Africa get?
5a60d206e9e1cc001a33cd7c
True
esparto
530
What grass is typically found in Cyrenaica?
5a60d206e9e1cc001a33cd7d
True
Robert Capot-Rey
381
Who discovered esparato?
5a60d206e9e1cc001a33cd7e
True
To the north, the Sahara skirts the Mediterranean Sea in Egypt and portions of Libya, but in Cyrenaica and the Maghreb, the Sahara borders the Mediterranean forest, woodland, and scrub ecoregions of northern Africa, all of which have a Mediterranean climate characterized by hot summers and cool and rainy winters. According to the botanical criteria of Frank White and geographer Robert Capot-Rey, the northern limit of the Sahara corresponds to the northern limit of date palm cultivation and the southern limit of the range of esparto, a grass typical of the Mediterranean climate portion of the Maghreb and Iberia. The northern limit also corresponds to the 100 mm (3.9 in) isohyet of annual precipitation.
What is to the south of the Sahara?
5727d9374b864d1900163e78
Sahel
43
False
What kind of climate does the Sahel have?
5727d9374b864d1900163e79
dry tropical
60
False
What is the long term precipitation average of the Sahara?
5727d9374b864d1900163e7a
150 mm
463
False
dry tropical
60
What type of Savanah is north and south of the Sahara
5a4c31d17a6c4c001a2bbba6
True
Cornulaca monacantha
237
What drought tolerant plant grows south of the Sahara?
5a4c31d17a6c4c001a2bbba7
True
Cenchrus biflorus
330
What type of grass grows on the northern Shara?
5a4c31d17a6c4c001a2bbba8
True
150 mm
463
How much rain does the Sahara get?
5a4c31d17a6c4c001a2bbba9
True
Sahel
43
What is to the north of the Sahara?
5a60d3a8e9e1cc001a33cd84
True
Chenopodiaceae
292
What is the Cenchrus biflorus a member of?
5a60d3a8e9e1cc001a33cd85
True
150 mm (5.9 in) isohyet
463
What is the short term southern limit of the Sahara's precipitation?
5a60d3a8e9e1cc001a33cd86
True
Sahel, a belt of dry tropical savanna
43
What extends across Africa from north to south?
5a60d3a8e9e1cc001a33cd87
True
Cenchrus biflorus
330
What type of grass is atypical to the Sahel?
5a60d3a8e9e1cc001a33cd88
True
To the south, the Sahara is bounded by the Sahel, a belt of dry tropical savanna with a summer rainy season that extends across Africa from east to west. The southern limit of the Sahara is indicated botanically by the southern limit of Cornulaca monacantha (a drought-tolerant member of the Chenopodiaceae), or northern limit of Cenchrus biflorus, a grass typical of the Sahel. According to climatic criteria, the southern limit of the Sahara corresponds to the 150 mm (5.9 in) isohyet of annual precipitation (this is a long-term average, since precipitation varies annually).
What is the world's largest low latitude hot desert?
5727dff64b864d1900163f02
Sahara
4
False
What ares is the Sahara located in?
5727dff64b864d1900163f03
horse latitudes
86
False
What makes it difficult for clouds to form?
5727dff64b864d1900163f04
sinking air
387
False
The Sahara
0
What is the largest high-latitude desert?
5a4c332b7a6c4c001a2bbbae
True
The Sahara
0
What desert is located on the subtropical ridge?
5a4c332b7a6c4c001a2bbbaf
True
prevents evaporating water from rising
399
What does the rising air do?
5a4c332b7a6c4c001a2bbbb0
True
adiabatic cooling
467
What aids cloud formation?
5a4c332b7a6c4c001a2bbbb1
True
Sahara
4
What is the largest high latitude desert?
5a60d783e9e1cc001a33cd8e
True
a warming and a drying effect
327
What does the ascending airflow cause?
5a60d783e9e1cc001a33cd8f
True
under the subtropical ridge
102
Where is the belt of permanent subtropical warm-core pressure located?
5a60d783e9e1cc001a33cd90
True
sinking air
387
What causes adiabatic cooling?
5a60d783e9e1cc001a33cd91
True
sinking air prevents evaporating water from rising and, therefore, prevents the adiabatic cooling
387
Why is cloud formation so common?
5a60d783e9e1cc001a33cd92
True
The Sahara is the world's largest low-latitude hot desert. The area is located in the horse latitudes under the subtropical ridge, a significant belt of semi-permanent subtropical warm-core high pressure where the air from upper levels of the troposphere tends to sink towards the ground. This steady descending airflow causes a warming and a drying effect in the upper troposphere. The sinking air prevents evaporating water from rising and, therefore, prevents the adiabatic cooling, which makes cloud formation extremely difficult to nearly impossible.
What allows unhindered light and thermal radiation?
5727e65b4b864d1900163f8a
dissolution of clouds
14
False
What weather is virtually non-existent?
5727e65b4b864d1900163f8b
rainfall
181
False
Where is the air the strongest?
5727e65b4b864d1900163f8c
eastern part of the Great Desert
680
False
clouds
29
What traps thermal radiation?
5a4c36e77a6c4c001a2bbbb6
True
making rainfall virtually non-existent
174
What is caused by the atmospheres in-stability?
5a4c36e77a6c4c001a2bbbb7
True
subtropical high-pressure systems
364
What combines with converging dry air masses to make conditions for rain unfavorable?
5a4c36e77a6c4c001a2bbbb8
True
air is the strongest and the most effective
627
What is strongest over the western desert?
5a4c36e77a6c4c001a2bbbb9
True
Libyan Desert
721
What part of the Sahara is the most rainless part of the planet?
5a4c36e77a6c4c001a2bbbba
True
The permanent dissolution of clouds
0
What prevents light and thermal radiation?
5a60d88be9e1cc001a33cd98
True
The stability of the atmosphere above the desert prevents any convective overturning
83
Why is there a minimal risk of sunny, dry, or stable weather?
5a60d88be9e1cc001a33cd99
True
Chile
856
Where was the Koppen climate classification created?
5a60d88be9e1cc001a33cd9a
True
The lowering of air
611
What is strongest over the northern part of the Great Desert?
5a60d88be9e1cc001a33cd9b
True
the Libyan Desert
717
What desert, located in Chile, is the sunniest, driest, and most rainless place on the planet?
5a60d88be9e1cc001a33cd9c
True
The permanent dissolution of clouds allows unhindered light and thermal radiation. The stability of the atmosphere above the desert prevents any convective overturning, thus making rainfall virtually non-existent. As a consequence, the weather tends to be sunny, dry and stable with a minimal risk of rainfall. Subsiding, diverging, dry air masses associated with subtropical high-pressure systems are extremely unfavorable for the development of convectional showers. The subtropical ridge is the predominate factor that explains the hot desert climate (Köppen climate classification BWh) of this vast region. The lowering of air is the strongest and the most effective over the eastern part of the Great Desert, in the Libyan Desert which is the sunniest, the driest and the most nearly rainless place on the planet rivaling the Atacama Desert, lying in Chile and Peru.
What section of the Sahara's cloud cover are the most   accentuated?
5728c1b12ca10214002da720
eastern
89
False
What is the air mass lying above the Sahara?
5728c1b12ca10214002da721
hot and dry
242
False
What part of the country does the air masses primarily form over?
5728c1b12ca10214002da722
North-African desert
299
False
eastern section
89
over what region is there the most cloud coverage?
5a4c3f987a6c4c001a2bbbc0
True
continental tropical
198
What is the prevailing air mass to the North of the Sahara?
5a4c3f987a6c4c001a2bbbc1
True
Hot, dry air
255
whattype of air masses form over Africa?
5a4c3f987a6c4c001a2bbbc2
True
thermal
472
What kind of low forms high above the desert?
5a4c3f987a6c4c001a2bbbc3
True
thermal
472
What type of high is strongest in the summer?
5a4c3f987a6c4c001a2bbbc4
True
The rainfall inhibition and the dissipation of cloud cover
0
What is most accentuated over the western section of the Sahara?
5a60da5ce9e1cc001a33cda2
True
during the summertime
565
When is the air mass at its weakest?
5a60da5ce9e1cc001a33cda3
True
the Azores High
652
What is the North Atlantic Ocean an extension of?
5a60da5ce9e1cc001a33cda4
True
during the coolest part of the year
769
When does the Azores High nearly reach the ground?
5a60da5ce9e1cc001a33cda5
True
a thermal low
470
What does the extreme heating process prevent?
5a60da5ce9e1cc001a33cda6
True
The rainfall inhibition and the dissipation of cloud cover are most accentuated over the eastern section of the Sahara rather than the western. The prevailing air mass lying above the Sahara is the continental tropical (cT) air mass which is hot and dry. Hot, dry air masses primarily form over the North-African desert from the heating of the vast continental land area, and it affects the whole desert during most of the year. Because of this extreme heating process, a thermal low is usually noticed near the surface, and is the strongest and the most developed during the summertime. The Sahara High represents the eastern continental extension of the Azores High, centered over the North Atlantic Ocean. The subsidence of the Sahara High nearly reaches the ground during the coolest part of the year while it limits to the upper troposphere during the hottest periods.
What is blocked due to local surface low pressure?
5728c2302ca10214002da72c
air ascent
132
False
What mountain helps enhance the aridity of the desert?
5728c2302ca10214002da72d
Atlas Mountains
424
False
Where are the Atlas Mountains located?
5728c2302ca10214002da72e
Algeria
450
False
any form of air ascent
120
what is blocked buy the surface low pressure?
5a4c43b77a6c4c001a2bbbca
True
geographical configuration and location
279
what contributes to the moisture that is present in the desert?
5a4c43b77a6c4c001a2bbbcb
True
the extreme aridity of the Sahara
328
what is explained by the subtropical low-pressure?
5a4c43b77a6c4c001a2bbbcc
True
The Atlas Mountains
420
What mountains reduce some of the aridity?
5a4c43b77a6c4c001a2bbbcd
True
subtropical high pressure
393
What is the sole cause of extreme aridity in the Sahara?
5a60dc27e9e1cc001a33cdac
True
Algeria, Morocco and Tunisia
450
Where is the Sahara located?
5a60dc27e9e1cc001a33cdad
True
The Atlas Mountains
420
What mountain range is located in the Sahara?
5a60dc27e9e1cc001a33cdae
True
upper-level subsidence
72
What limits the effects of the mountains?
5a60dc27e9e1cc001a33cdaf
True
the Sahara
351
What is to the north of the Atlas Mountains?
5a60dc27e9e1cc001a33cdb0
True
The effects of local surface low pressure are extremely limited because upper-level subsidence still continues to block any form of air ascent. Also, to be protected against rain-bearing weather systems by the atmospheric circulation itself, the desert is made even drier by his geographical configuration and location. Indeed, the extreme aridity of the Sahara can't be only explained by the subtropical high pressure. The Atlas Mountains, found in Algeria, Morocco and Tunisia also help to enhance the aridity of the northern part of the desert. These major mountain ranges act as a barrier causing a strong rain shadow effect on the leeward side by dropping much of the humidity brought by atmospheric disturbances along the polar front which affects the surrounding Mediterranean climates.
What is the primary source of rain in the Sahara?
5728c2f02ca10214002da732
low-pressure systems
84
False
What is the reason the Sahara lacks moisture?
5728c2f02ca10214002da733
lack of a precipitation-generating mechanism
300
False
What does the desert have to overcome?
5728c2f02ca10214002da734
barriers that normally prevent the production of precipitation
421
False
What is the temperature like year around in the desert?
5728c2f02ca10214002da735
high temperatures year-round
630
False
near the equator
105
Where is the low-pressure that stops rainfall in the Shara?
5a4c48f27a6c4c001a2bbbd2
True
lack of a precipitation-generating mechanism
300
Why does the Sahara lack moisture?
5a4c48f27a6c4c001a2bbbd3
True
physical and atmospheric barriers
396
What aids the production of percipitation in the Sahara?
5a4c48f27a6c4c001a2bbbd4
True
the Sahara
506
What desert has low but regelar rainfall?
5a4c48f27a6c4c001a2bbbd5
True
lack precipitation
235
What does the lack of moisture in the Sahara cause?
5a60de02e9e1cc001a33cdb6
True
the production of precipitation
452
What do physical and atmospheric barriers cause?
5a60de02e9e1cc001a33cdb7
True
the Sahara
506
What has the highest recorded humidity year round?
5a60de02e9e1cc001a33cdb8
True
year-round
648
When are high temperatures erratic?
5a60de02e9e1cc001a33cdb9
True
the equatorial low
44
What is furthest from the equator in the Sahara?
5a60de02e9e1cc001a33cdba
True
The primary source of rain in the Sahara is the equatorial low a continuous belt of low-pressure systems near the equator which bring the brief, short and irregular rainy season to the Sahel and the southern Sahara. The Sahara doesn't lack precipitation because of a lack of moisture, but due to the lack of a precipitation-generating mechanism. Rainfall in this giant desert has to overcome the physical and atmospheric barriers that normally prevent the production of precipitation. The harsh climate of the Sahara is characterized by extremely low, unreliable, highly erratic rainfall; extremely high sunshine duration values; high temperatures year-round; negligible rates of relative humidity, a significant diurnal temperature variation and extremely high levels of potential evaporation which are the highest recorded worldwide.
What is the largest hottest continuously large area   worldwide?
5728c4163acd2414000dfddf
the Great Desert
602
False
What is the value temperature of most of the desert?
5728c4163acd2414000dfde0
25 °C
2601
False
What percent of time is the sun generally over most of the   desert?
5728c4163acd2414000dfde1
82% of the time
192
False
What is the annual average direct solar irradiation?
5728c4163acd2414000dfde2
around 2,800 kWh/(m2 year)
572
False
During daytime how high can the temperatures reach?
5728c4163acd2414000dfde3
80 °C (176 °F)
2750
False
bright sunshine
159
What does the eastern desert get 3600 annual hours of?
5a4c4cfc7a6c4c001a2bbbda
True
4,300 h
411
How much bright sunlight does lower Egypt recieve?
5a4c4cfc7a6c4c001a2bbbdb
True
solar energy
656
What type of energy production is difficult due to the heat?
5a4c4cfc7a6c4c001a2bbbdc
True
the Great Desert
800
What is the second largest continuious area in the world?
5a4c4cfc7a6c4c001a2bbbdd
True
average high temperature
1711
What reaches 80 degrees F during the day?
5a4c4cfc7a6c4c001a2bbbde
True
2,800 kWh/(m2 year)
579
How much solar energy does the Sahara produce per year?
5a60df46e9e1cc001a33cdc0
True
47 °C (116.6 °F)
1165
What is the lowest temperature recorded in the Sahara?
5a60df46e9e1cc001a33cdc1
True
378 meters above sea level
1269
What is the elevation of the Nubian Desert?
5a60df46e9e1cc001a33cdc2
True
46 °C (114.8 °F)
1597
What is the average low temperature in Salah?
5a60df46e9e1cc001a33cdc3
True
13 °C (55.4 °F)
3292
What is the temperature of the sand during the night?
5a60df46e9e1cc001a33cdc4
True
The sky is usually clear above the desert and the sunshine duration is extremely high everywhere in the Sahara. Most of the desert enjoys more than 3,600 h of bright sunshine annually or over 82% of the time and a wide area in the eastern part experiences in excess of 4,000 h of bright sunshine a year or over 91% of the time, and the highest values are very close to the theoretical maximum value. A value of 4,300 h or 98% of the time would be recorded in Upper Egypt (Aswan, Luxor) and in the Nubian Desert (Wadi Halfa). The annual average direct solar irradiation is around 2,800 kWh/(m2 year) in the Great Desert. The Sahara has a huge potential for solar energy production. The constantly high position of the sun, the extremely low relative humidity, the lack of vegetation and rainfall make the Great Desert the hottest continuously large area worldwide and certainly the hottest place on Earth during summertime in some spots. The average high temperature exceeds 38 °C (100.4 °F) - 40 °C (104 °F) during the hottest month nearly everywhere in the desert except at very high mountainous areas. The highest officially recorded average high temperature was 47 °C (116.6 °F) in a remote desert town in the Algerian Desert called Bou Bernous with an elevation of 378 meters above sea level. It's the world's highest recorded average high temperature and only Death Valley, California rivals it. Other hot spots in Algeria such as Adrar, Timimoun, In Salah, Ouallene, Aoulef, Reggane with an elevation between 200 and 400 meters above sea level get slightly lower summer average highs around 46 °C (114.8 °F) during the hottest months of the year. Salah, well known in Algeria for its extreme heat, has an average high temperature of 43.8 °C (110.8 °F), 46.4 °C (115.5 °F), 45.5 (113.9 °F). Furthermore, 41.9 °C (107.4 °F) in June, July, August and September. In fact, there are even hotter spots in the Sahara, but they are located in extremely remote areas, especially in the Azalai, lying in northern Mali. The major part of the desert experiences around 3 – 5 months when the average high strictly exceeds 40 °C (104 °F). The southern central part of the desert experiences up to 6 – 7 months when the average high temperature strictly exceeds 40 °C (104 °F) which shows the constancy and the length of the really hot season in the Sahara. Some examples of this are Bilma, Niger and Faya-Largeau, Chad. The annual average daily temperature exceeds 20 °C (68 °F) everywhere and can approach 30 °C (86 °F) in the hottest regions year-round. However, most of the desert has a value in excess of 25 °C (77 °F). The sand and ground temperatures are even more extreme. During daytime, the sand temperature is extremely high as it can easily reach 80 °C (176 °F) or more. A sand temperature of 83.5 °C (182.3 °F) has been recorded in Port Sudan. Ground temperatures of 72 °C (161.6 °F) have been recorded in the Adrar of Mauritania and a value of 75 °C (167 °F) has been measured in Borkou, northern Chad. Due to lack of cloud cover and very low humidity, the desert usually features high diurnal temperature variations between days and nights. However, it's a myth that the nights are cold after extremely hot days in the Sahara. The average diurnal temperature range is typically between 13 °C (55.4 °F) and 20 °C (68 °F). The lowest values are found along the coastal regions due to high humidity and are often even lower than 10 °C (50 °F), while the highest values are found in inland desert areas where the humidity is the lowest, mainly in the southern Sahara. Still, it's true that winter nights can be cold as it can drop to the freezing point and even below, especially in high-elevation areas.
What is the reason the northern fringe receives more   cloudiness and rainfall?
5728c4ee3acd2414000dfdfb
low pressure systems
268
False
What is the average rainfall of the Sahara?
5728c4ee3acd2414000dfdfc
less than 1 mm
1156
False
How much desert land is the Sahara?
5728c4ee3acd2414000dfdfd
9,000,000 km2 of desert land
1253
False
What causes the southern fringe to receive cloudiness and   rainfall?
5728c4ee3acd2414000dfdfe
Intertropical Convergence Zone
699
False
annual rainfall
12
what is nearly non existent across the Sahara?
5a4c50d07a6c4c001a2bbbe4
True
low pressure systems over the Mediterranean Sea along the polar front
268
What contributes to the north's cloudiness and moderate rainfall??
5a4c50d07a6c4c001a2bbbe5
True
southern fringe of the desert
571
What area is cloudy and dry in the summer?
5a4c50d07a6c4c001a2bbbe6
True
the Sahara
1199
What has a land area of 9,000,000 sq mi?
5a4c50d07a6c4c001a2bbbe7
True
The thin northern fringe
162
What area receives the least amount of winter cloudiness?
5a610113e9e1cc001a33ce2e
True
The vast central hyper-arid core
897
What is drastically affected by northerly or southerly atmospheric disturbances?
5a610113e9e1cc001a33ce2f
True
31%
1335
What percentage of Niger receives and annual rainfall above 10mm?
5a610113e9e1cc001a33ce30
True
17%
1461
What percentage of Dakhla has an annual rainfall of 5mm or less?
5a610113e9e1cc001a33ce31
True
nearly non-existent
103
What is rainfall like in the western fringes of the desert?
5a610113e9e1cc001a33ce32
True
The average annual rainfall ranges from very low in the northern and southern fringes of the desert to nearly non-existent over the central and the eastern part. The thin northern fringe of the desert receives more winter cloudiness and rainfall due to the arrival of low pressure systems over the Mediterranean Sea along the polar front, although very attenuated by the rain shadow effects of the mountains and the annual average rainfall ranges from 100 mm (3,93 in) to 250 mm (9,84 in). For example, Biskra, Algeria and Ouarzazate, Morocco are found in this zone. The southern fringe of the desert along the border with the Sahel receives summer cloudiness and rainfall due to the arrival of the Intertropical Convergence Zone from the south and the annual average rainfall ranges from 100 mm (3,93 in) to 250 mm (9,84 in). For example, Timbuktu, Mali and Agadez, Niger are found in this zone. The vast central hyper-arid core of the desert is virtually never affected by northerly or southerly atmospheric disturbances and permanently remains under the influence of the strongest anticyclonic weather regime and the annual average rainfall can drop to less than 1 mm (0.04 in). In fact, most of the Sahara receives less than 20 mm (0.79 in). Of the 9,000,000 km2 of desert land in the Sahara, an area of about 2,800,000 km2 (about 31% of the total area) receives an annual average rainfall amount of 10 mm (0.39 in) or less, while some 1,500,000 km2 (about 17% of the total area) receive an average of 5 mm or less. The annual average rainfall is virtually zero over a wide area of some 1,000,000 km2 in the eastern Sahara comprising deserts of Libya, Egypt and Sudan (Tazirbu, Kufra, Dakhla, Kharga, Farafra, Siwa, Asyut, Sohag, Luxor, Aswan, Abu Simbel, Wadi Halfa) where the long-term mean approximates 0.5 mm per year. The rainfall is very unreliable and erratic in the Sahara as it may vary considerably year by year. In full contrast to the negligible annual rainfall amounts, the annual rates of potential evaporation are extraordinarily high, roughly ranging from 2,500 mm/year to more than 6,000 mm/year in the whole desert. Nowhere else on Earth has air been found as dry and evaporative as in the Sahara region. With such an evaporative power, the Sahara can only be desiccated and dried out further more and the moisture deficit is tremendous.
Which directions does the South Saharan run?
5728c5644b864d1900164dbe
east and west
74
False
What months do the summer rains happen?
5728c5644b864d1900164dbf
July and August
247
False
What is the average rainfall between the months of July and   August?
5728c5644b864d1900164dc0
100 to 200 mm
277
False
How much land does the ecoregion cover?
5728c5644b864d1900164dc1
1,101,700 km2 (425,400 mi2)
486
False
The South Saharan steppe and woodlands ecoregion
0
what ecoregion runs north and south in a norrow band?
5a4c52557a6c4c001a2bbbec
True
The South Saharan steppe and woodlands
0
Where does it not rain in July and August?
5a4c52557a6c4c001a2bbbed
True
1,101,700 km2
486
How much land does the Sahara cover?
5a4c52557a6c4c001a2bbbee
True
rains
349
What sustains the spring pastures and grasslands?
5a4c52557a6c4c001a2bbbef
True
July and August
247
When does less than 100mm of rain fall?
5a4c52557a6c4c001a2bbbf0
True
The South Saharan steppe
0
What is the name of the band running from north to south in the Sahara?
5a6103b1e9e1cc001a33ce38
True
1,101,700 km2 (425,400 mi2)
486
How long is the ICZ?
5a6103b1e9e1cc001a33ce39
True
100 to 200 mm (3.9 to 7.9 in)
277
How much rain does Algeria get?
5a6103b1e9e1cc001a33ce3a
True
July and August
247
What months are the driest?
5a6103b1e9e1cc001a33ce3b
True
the Sahel savannas
122
What is between the South Saharan steppe and the hyper-arid Sahara?
5a6103b1e9e1cc001a33ce3c
True
The South Saharan steppe and woodlands ecoregion is a narrow band running east and west between the hyper-arid Sahara and the Sahel savannas to the south. Movements of the equatorial Intertropical Convergence Zone (ITCZ) bring summer rains during July and August which average 100 to 200 mm (3.9 to 7.9 in) but vary greatly from year to year. These rains sustain summer pastures of grasses and herbs, with dry woodlands and shrublands along seasonal watercourses. This ecoregion covers 1,101,700 km2 (425,400 mi2) in Algeria, Chad, Mali, Mauritania, and Sudan.
What is the number of plants in the Central Sahara?
5728c5dd3acd2414000dfe0b
five hundred species
43
False
What do plants do in order to avoid water loss?
5728c5dd3acd2414000dfe0c
growing lower
253
False
Where do plants store their water to avoid the conditions?
5728c5dd3acd2414000dfe0d
thick stems
330
False
What helps plants in order to get as much water as   possible?
5728c5dd3acd2414000dfe0e
long roots that travel horizontally
378
False
central Sahara
4
what desert area  has 500 species of animals?
5a4c55277a6c4c001a2bbbf6
True
acacia trees, palms, succulents, spiny shrubs, and grasses
154
What type of plants have partially adapted to the arid conditions?
5a4c55277a6c4c001a2bbbf7
True
water
276
what do plants release through their stem?
5a4c55277a6c4c001a2bbbf8
True
species of plants
56
What does the central Sahara have an unusually large number of given its area?
5a611015e9e1cc001a33ce7e
True
five hundred
43
How many acacia trees are there in central Sahara?
5a611015e9e1cc001a33ce7f
True
to avoid water loss by strong winds
267
Why do many plants grow higher than normal in the Sahara?
5a611015e9e1cc001a33ce80
True
Plants such as acacia trees, palms, succulents, spiny shrubs, and grasses
139
What in the Sahara grows its roots vertically?
5a611015e9e1cc001a33ce81
True
small thick leaves or needles
496
What aspect of the plants' leaves allows them to lose water?
5a611015e9e1cc001a33ce82
True
The central Sahara is estimated to include five hundred species of plants, which is extremely low considering the huge extent of the area. Plants such as acacia trees, palms, succulents, spiny shrubs, and grasses have adapted to the arid conditions, by growing lower to avoid water loss by strong winds, by storing water in their thick stems to use it in dry periods, by having long roots that travel horizontally to reach the maximum area of water and to find any surface moisture and by having small thick leaves or needles to prevent water loss by evapo-transpiration. Plant leaves may dry out totally and then recover.
How many cheetahs remain in the Northwest Africa area?
5728c608ff5b5019007da66a
250
134
False
What months do the cheetah's avoid the sun?
5728c608ff5b5019007da66b
April to October
240
False
How many many cheetah's are left in the wild?
5728c608ff5b5019007da66c
2,000
543
False
250
134
How many immature cheetahs are there?
5a611570e9e1cc001a33ceba
True
April to October
240
What months are cheetahs most active?
5a611570e9e1cc001a33cebb
True
2,000
543
How many mature cheetahs are in Chad?
5a611570e9e1cc001a33cebc
True
unusually pale
328
What is the coloring of the northeast subspecies of cheetah?
5a611570e9e1cc001a33cebd
True
The Saharan cheetah (northwest African cheetah) lives in Algeria, Togo, Niger, Mali, Benin, and Burkina Faso. There remain fewer than 250 mature cheetahs, which are very cautious, fleeing any human presence. The cheetah avoids the sun from April to October, seeking the shelter of shrubs such as balanites and acacias. They are unusually pale. The other cheetah subspecies (northeast African cheetah) lives in Chad, Sudan and the eastern region of Niger. However, it is currently extinct in the wild of Egypt and Libya. They are approximately 2,000 mature individuals left in the wild.
What activities from these mammals will likely affect   habitat areas?
5728c675ff5b5019007da670
human activities
0
False
What underground items have lead to soil degradation?
5728c675ff5b5019007da671
irrigated water pumped
395
False
What kind of pressure can be intense in the Sahara?
5728c675ff5b5019007da672
natural resources
162
False
human activities
0
What is least likely to affect a habitat?
5a6117f1e9e1cc001a33ceea
True
local pressure
144
Why did development projects start in Algeria and Tunisia?
5a6117f1e9e1cc001a33ceeb
True
large mammals
225
Which populations have been growing?
5a6117f1e9e1cc001a33ceec
True
hunting for food and recreation
268
Why are oases being endangered?
5a6117f1e9e1cc001a33ceed
True
irrigated water pumped from underground aquifers
395
What prevents soil degradation?
5a6117f1e9e1cc001a33ceee
True
human activities are more likely to affect the habitat in areas of permanent water (oases) or where water comes close to the surface. Here, the local pressure on natural resources can be intense. The remaining populations of large mammals have been greatly reduced by hunting for food and recreation. In recent years development projects have started in the deserts of Algeria and Tunisia using irrigated water pumped from underground aquifers. These schemes often lead to soil degradation and salinization.
When did people start living on the edge of the desert?
5728c6c4ff5b5019007da676
ice age
77
False
How many river animals were thought to be found during   the ice age era?
5728c6c4ff5b5019007da677
Over 30,000 petroglyphs
144
False
What area of the Sahara is full of vegetation?
5728c6c4ff5b5019007da678
the Nile Valley
436
False
What is believed to have increased temperatures in the   Sahara?
5728c6c4ff5b5019007da679
shifts in the Earth's axis
652
False
Over 30,000
144
How many dinosaur fossils have been found?
5a6118dbe9e1cc001a33cef4
True
1600 BCE
636
When was the first dinosaur fossil found?
5a6118dbe9e1cc001a33cef5
True
7 million year old
823
What has the age of the oldest fossil be dated at?
5a6118dbe9e1cc001a33cef6
True
river animals such as crocodiles
171
What type of petroglyhps have been found in the Nile Valley?
5a6118dbe9e1cc001a33cef7
True
southeast Algeria
255
Where is the Nile Valley located?
5a6118dbe9e1cc001a33cef8
True
People lived on the edge of the desert thousands of years ago since the last ice age. The Sahara was then a much wetter place than it is today. Over 30,000 petroglyphs of river animals such as crocodiles survive, with half found in the Tassili n'Ajjer in southeast Algeria. Fossils of dinosaurs, including Afrovenator, Jobaria and Ouranosaurus, have also been found here. The modern Sahara, though, is not lush in vegetation, except in the Nile Valley, at a few oases, and in the northern highlands, where Mediterranean plants such as the olive tree are found to grow. It was long believed that the region had been this way since about 1600 BCE, after shifts in the Earth's axis increased temperatures and decreased precipitation. However, this theory has recently been called into dispute, when samples taken from several 7 million year old sand deposits led scientists to reconsider the timeline for desertification.
During what era was the central Sudan rich in environment?
5728c71f4b864d1900164dde
Neolithic Era
11
False
What kind of rock art was found in the Sudan?
5728c71f4b864d1900164ddf
cattle and herdsmen
441
False
What are examples of the first known archaeoastronomy   found in Nabta Playa?
5728c71f4b864d1900164de0
Megaliths
572
False
around 9500 BCE
63
When was the onset of desertification?
5a6119b1e9e1cc001a33cf08
True
Wadi el-Qa'ab
206
What was the barren desert Nubia once called?
5a6119b1e9e1cc001a33cf09
True
5th millennium BCE
228
When was Stonehenge created?
5a6119b1e9e1cc001a33cf0a
True
Megaliths
572
What astronomy devices were built in the Wadi el-Qa'ab?
5a6119b1e9e1cc001a33cf0b
True
a settled lifestyle with domesticated plants and animals
363
What kind of lifestyle did the people of the Old Kingdom of Egypt have?
5a6119b1e9e1cc001a33cf0c
True
During the Neolithic Era, before the onset of desertification, around 9500 BCE the central Sudan had been a rich environment supporting a large population ranging across what is now barren desert, like the Wadi el-Qa'ab. By the 5th millennium BCE, the people who inhabited what is now called Nubia, were full participants in the "agricultural revolution", living a settled lifestyle with domesticated plants and animals. Saharan rock art of cattle and herdsmen suggests the presence of a cattle cult like those found in Sudan and other pastoral societies in Africa today. Megaliths found at Nabta Playa are overt examples of probably the world's first known archaeoastronomy devices, predating Stonehenge by some 2,000 years. This complexity, as observed at Nabta Playa, and as expressed by different levels of authority within the society there, likely formed the basis for the structure of both the Neolithic society at Nabta and the Old Kingdom of Egypt.
What were Egyptians herding in the early BCE period?
5728c7763acd2414000dfe35
cattle
83
False
By what time period were the Egyptians constructing  large buildings?
5728c7763acd2414000dfe36
6000 BCE
3
False
What items replaced previously items made of stone?
5728c7763acd2414000dfe37
Metal objects
324
False
In which direction were the dead facing when they were   buried?
5728c7763acd2414000dfe38
due west
925
False
stone
361
What replaced metal objects?
5a611ac3e9e1cc001a33cf1c
True
west
929
Which direction were large buildings built to face?
5a611ac3e9e1cc001a33cf1d
True
the 6th millennium
531
By what era did occupation of the Al Fayyum end?
5a611ac3e9e1cc001a33cf1e
True
desert environments
829
What made Egyptian preservation rites difficult?
5a611ac3e9e1cc001a33cf1f
True
cereal and animal agriculture
262
What diet did Egyptians begin to move away from?
5a611ac3e9e1cc001a33cf20
True
By 6000 BCE predynastic Egyptians in the southwestern corner of Egypt were herding cattle and constructing large buildings. Subsistence in organized and permanent settlements in predynastic Egypt by the middle of the 6th millennium BCE centered predominantly on cereal and animal agriculture: cattle, goats, pigs and sheep. Metal objects replaced prior ones of stone. Tanning of animal skins, pottery and weaving were commonplace in this era also. There are indications of seasonal or only temporary occupation of the Al Fayyum in the 6th millennium BCE, with food activities centering on fishing, hunting and food-gathering. Stone arrowheads, knives and scrapers from the era are commonly found. Burial items included pottery, jewelry, farming and hunting equipment, and assorted foods including dried meat and fruit. Burial in desert environments appears to enhance Egyptian preservation rites, and dead were buried facing due west.
By What time period was the Sahara dry like it is today?
5728c8fb3acd2414000dfe69
3400 BCE
3
False
What was the main reason that the Sahara became so   dry?
5728c8fb3acd2414000dfe6a
reduced precipitation and higher temperatures
58
False
What area is known for having the majority of the trade?
5728c8fb3acd2414000dfe6b
the Nile Valley
467
False
3400 BCE
3
When did the Sahara become accessible to humans?
5a611b8ce9e1cc001a33cf26
True
several cataracts
521
What features of the Nile made it ideal for trading?
5a611b8ce9e1cc001a33cf27
True
the Nile Valley
467
Where did people trade in the Sahara before the aridification?
5a611b8ce9e1cc001a33cf28
True
reduced precipitation and higher temperatures
58
What caused the shift in the earth's orbit?
5a611b8ce9e1cc001a33cf29
True
the remaining settlements mainly being concentrated around the numerous oases
241
How did humans cause the aridification of the Sahara?
5a611b8ce9e1cc001a33cf2a
True
By 3400 BCE, the Sahara was as dry as it is today, due to reduced precipitation and higher temperatures resulting from a shift in the Earth's orbit. As a result of this aridification, it became a largely impenetrable barrier to humans, with the remaining settlements mainly being concentrated around the numerous oases that dot the landscape. Little trade or commerce is known to have passed through the interior in subsequent periods, the only major exception being the Nile Valley. The Nile, however, was impassable at several cataracts, making trade and contact by boat difficult.
Where did the Greeks established their trading colonies?
5728c930ff5b5019007da6aa
Red Sea
142
False
Which coast did the Carthaginians explore for trade?
5728c930ff5b5019007da6ab
the Atlantic coast
178
False
Who would raid the desert leaving the people in constant   fear?
5728c930ff5b5019007da6ac
nomadic Berber
463
False
turbulence of the waters and the lack of markets
220
What made the areas south of Morocco ideal for settlement?
5a611cdbe9e1cc001a33cf3a
True
the Atlantic coast of the desert
178
What area did the Berber people colonize?
5a611cdbe9e1cc001a33cf3b
True
those living on the edge of the desert
526
Who was responsible for the raids on the Berber people?
5a611cdbe9e1cc001a33cf3c
True
Greek traders
42
Who established trading colonies along the Atlantic?
5a611cdbe9e1cc001a33cf3d
True
500 BCE
3
When did the Greeks abandon the desert?
5a611cdbe9e1cc001a33cf3e
True
By 500 BCE, Greeks arrived in the desert. Greek traders spread along the eastern coast of the desert, establishing trading colonies along the Red Sea. The Carthaginians explored the Atlantic coast of the desert, but the turbulence of the waters and the lack of markets caused a lack of presence further south than modern Morocco. Centralized states thus surrounded the desert on the north and east; it remained outside the control of these states. Raids from the nomadic Berber people of the desert were a constant concern of those living on the edge of the desert.
What time period did the Garamantes arrive in?
5728c96d2ca10214002da7d0
500 BCE
52
False
What did the Garamantes do in order to bring water to   their crops?
5728c96d2ca10214002da7d1
digging tunnels
198
False
How many towns are believed to be found by   Archaeologists?
5728c96d2ca10214002da7d2
eight major towns
684
False
What was the reason for the collapse of the Garamantes   civilization?
5728c96d2ca10214002da7d3
depleted available water
832
False
500 BCE
52
When did the Garamantes name Wadi al-Ajal?
5a611dade9e1cc001a33cf44
True
eight
684
How many towns did the Greeks and Romans have in the desert?
5a611dade9e1cc001a33cf45
True
they had depleted available water in the aquifers
823
What caused the Roman civilization to collapse?
5a611dade9e1cc001a33cf46
True
The ancient Greeks and the Romans
449
What was the name of the people the Garamantes conquered?
5a611dade9e1cc001a33cf47
True
by digging tunnels far into the mountains flanking the valley to tap fossil water
195
How did the Greeks get access to water?
5a611dade9e1cc001a33cf48
True
An urban civilization, the Garamantes, arose around 500 BCE in the heart of the Sahara, in a valley that is now called the Wadi al-Ajal in Fezzan, Libya. The Garamantes achieved this development by digging tunnels far into the mountains flanking the valley to tap fossil water and bring it to their fields. The Garamantes grew populous and strong, conquering their neighbors and capturing many slaves (which were put to work extending the tunnels). The ancient Greeks and the Romans knew of the Garamantes and regarded them as uncivilized nomads. However, they traded with the Garamantes, and a Roman bath has been found in the Garamantes capital of Garama. Archaeologists have found eight major towns and many other important settlements in the Garamantes territory. The Garamantes civilization eventually collapsed after they had depleted available water in the aquifers and could no longer sustain the effort to extend the tunnels further into the mountains.
What group of people ruled the northern shoes of the   Sahara?
5728c9a54b864d1900164e28
Byzantine Empire
4
False
What time period did the Muslim conquest of North Africa   take place?
5728c9a54b864d1900164e29
mid-7th to early 8th centuries
201
False
What is the estimated number of slaves that were   transported each year?
5728c9a54b864d1900164e2a
6,000 to 7,000 slaves
486
False
the 5th
66
During what century did the Muslim conquest of Arabia begin?
5a611ee7e9e1cc001a33cf58
True
some 6,000 to 7,000
481
How many slaves did the Byzantine Empire transport per year?
5a611ee7e9e1cc001a33cf59
True
from the 10th to 19th centuries
449
How long did the Muslims control Egypt?
5a611ee7e9e1cc001a33cf5a
True
641
297
When was Egypt liberated from Muslim control?
5a611ee7e9e1cc001a33cf5b
True
Islamic influence
233
What caused trade in the desert to decrease?
5a611ee7e9e1cc001a33cf5c
True
The Byzantine Empire ruled the northern shores of the Sahara from the 5th to the 7th centuries. After the Muslim conquest of Arabia (Arabian peninsula) the Muslim conquest of North Africa began in the mid-7th to early 8th centuries, Islamic influence expanded rapidly on the Sahara. By the end of 641 all of Egypt was in Muslim hands. The trade across the desert intensified. A significant slave trade crossed the desert. It has been estimated that from the 10th to 19th centuries some 6,000 to 7,000 slaves were transported north each year.
During the 1500 who was a valued part of the Ottoman   Empire?
5728ca094b864d1900164e2e
Egypt
260
False
What did the Ottoman Empire provide to its people?
5728ca094b864d1900164e2f
freedom of movement for citizens and goods
466
False
What was the local language during this time in Egypt?
5728ca094b864d1900164e30
Arabic
671
False
1517
255
When did the Ottoman Empire disband?
5a612013e9e1cc001a33cf6a
True
control over the Nile Valley
353
What key feature made Algeria a vital part of the Ottoman empire?
5a612013e9e1cc001a33cf6b
True
Arabic
671
What was the language of Europe?
5a612013e9e1cc001a33cf6c
True
Islamic
714
What culture did Tuareg clans enforce?
5a612013e9e1cc001a33cf6d
True
semi-autonomous
179
What kind of rule did the kingdom of Algeria have?
5a612013e9e1cc001a33cf6e
True
In the 16th century the northern fringe of the Sahara, such as coastal regencies in present-day Algeria and Tunisia, as well as some parts of present-day Libya, together with the semi-autonomous kingdom of Egypt, were occupied by the Ottoman Empire. From 1517 Egypt was a valued part of the Ottoman Empire, ownership of which provided the Ottomans with control over the Nile Valley, the east Mediterranean and North Africa. The benefit of the Ottoman Empire was the freedom of movement for citizens and goods. Trade exploited the Ottoman land routes to handle the spices, gold and silk from the East, manufactures from Europe, and the slave and gold traffic from Africa. Arabic continued as the local language and Islamic culture was much reinforced. The Sahel and southern Sahara regions were home to several independent states or to roaming Tuareg clans.
What time period did the colonialism of the Sahara begin?
5728ca372ca10214002da7e0
19th century
48
False
What country conquered the Algiers from the Ottomans in   1830?
5728ca372ca10214002da7e1
France
62
False
During what time were good moved through more modern   means?
5728ca372ca10214002da7e2
20th century
379
False
1830
123
When did the Ottomans conquer France?
5a61210ee9e1cc001a33cf74
True
more modern and efficient means
471
What caused trans-Saharan trade to take off in the 20th century?
5a61210ee9e1cc001a33cf75
True
present-day Algeria, Chad, Mali then French Sudan including Timbuktu, Mauritania, Morocco (1912), Niger, and Tunisia (1881)
230
What area of the regency of Algiers was not under French control?
5a61210ee9e1cc001a33cf76
True
1912
321
When did France relinquish control of Morocco?
5a61210ee9e1cc001a33cf77
True
1881
348
What year did France conquer Niger?
5a61210ee9e1cc001a33cf78
True
European colonialism in the Sahara began in the 19th century. France conquered the regency of Algiers from the Ottomans in 1830, and French rule spread south from Algeria and eastwards from Senegal into the upper Niger to include present-day Algeria, Chad, Mali then French Sudan including Timbuktu, Mauritania, Morocco (1912), Niger, and Tunisia (1881). By the beginning of the 20th century, the trans-Saharan trade had clearly declined because goods were moved through more modern and efficient means, such as airplanes, rather than across the desert.
What is the most common dialect spoken in the Sahara?
5728ca834b864d1900164e34
Arabic
0
False
What language is mainly spoken in West Africa?
5728ca834b864d1900164e35
French
728
False
What was the traditional language of Bureaucratic affairs?
5728ca834b864d1900164e36
Arabic
0
False
Berber inhabitants of the Canary Islands
268
Who originally spoke the Beja language?
5a61224de9e1cc001a33cf92
True
the Afro-Asiatic or Hamito-Semitic
341
The French language is under what family?
5a61224de9e1cc001a33cf93
True
the French government
1176
Who does Keenan work for?
5a61224de9e1cc001a33cf94
True
inter-personal discourse and commerce within the region
546
What aspects of life is the French language important to?
5a61224de9e1cc001a33cf95
True
artificial political divisions within a hitherto isolated and porous region
881
What role did Tuareg and Berber leaders play in the Third and Fourth republics?
5a61224de9e1cc001a33cf96
True
Arabic dialects are the most widely spoken languages in the Sahara. The live in the Red Sea Hills of southeastern Egypt and eastern Sudan. Arabic, Berber and its variants now regrouped under the term Amazigh (which includes the Guanche language spoken by the original Berber inhabitants of the Canary Islands) and Beja languages are part of the Afro-Asiatic or Hamito-Semitic family.[citation needed] Unlike neighboring West Africa and the central governments of the states that comprise the Sahara, the French language bears little relevance to inter-personal discourse and commerce within the region, its people retaining staunch ethnic and political affiliations with Tuareg and Berber leaders and culture. The legacy of the French colonial era administration is primarily manifested in the territorial reorganization enacted by the Third and Fourth republics, which engendered artificial political divisions within a hitherto isolated and porous region. Diplomacy with local clients was primarily conducted in Arabic, which was the traditional language of bureaucratic affairs. Mediation of disputes and inter-agency communication was served by interpreters contracted by the French government, who, according to Keenan, "documented a space of intercultural mediation," contributing much to preserving indigenous cultural identities in the region.
Rule_of_law
Which Scottish theologian is first credited with using the phrase "rule of law"?
5727b808ff5b5019007d9358
Samuel Rutherford
432
False
Which British jurist later made the phrase "rule of law" popular in the 1800s?
5727b808ff5b5019007d9359
A. V. Dicey
595
False
What phrase Ariostle also use which is closely related to "the rule of law"?
5727b808ff5b5019007d935a
Law should govern
707
False
Samuel Rutherford used the principle of the rule of law to argue what point?
5727b808ff5b5019007d935b
against the divine right of kings
482
False
According to the rule of law, what should hold the determination for rules in a land?
5727b808ff5b5019007d935c
law
44
False
rule of law
4
What type of rule says a nation should be governed by the decisions of government officials?
5a3af1c53ff257001ab84351
True
rule of law
4
What refers to the influence and authority of society?
5a3af1c53ff257001ab84352
True
Britain
370
What country can a phrase rule of law be traced back to the 1600s?
5a3af1c53ff257001ab84353
True
Samuel Rutherford
432
What British theologian used the rule of law in his argument against the divine rights of kings?
5a3af1c53ff257001ab84354
True
A. V. Dicey
595
What jurist popularized the phrase rule of law in the 1900s?
5a3af1c53ff257001ab84355
True
The rule of law is the legal principle that law should govern a nation, as opposed to being governed by arbitrary decisions of individual government officials. It primarily refers to the influence and authority of law within society, particularly as a constraint upon behaviour, including behaviour of government officials. The phrase can be traced back to 16th century Britain, and in the following century the Scottish theologian Samuel Rutherford used the phrase in his argument against the divine right of kings. The rule of law was further popularized in the 19th century by British jurist A. V. Dicey. The concept, if not the phrase, was familiar to ancient philosophers such as Aristotle, who wrote "Law should govern".
In what forms of government are leaders not held to the same laws as ordinary citizens?
5727ba02ff5b5019007d9384
autocracy, dictatorship, or oligarchy
138
False
According to the rule of law, who must obey the laws?
5727ba02ff5b5019007d9385
every citizen
25
False
What are governments called that are created with the rule of law in mind?
5727ba02ff5b5019007d9386
nomocracy
511
False
What happens to the rule of law if a government does not have an effective system for maintenance and restoration?
5727ba02ff5b5019007d9387
decay
384
False
For what reasons might democratic societies not follow the rule of law?
5727ba02ff5b5019007d9388
neglect or ignorance of the law
316
False
law makers
72
According to rule of law who is not subject to the law?
5a3af4083ff257001ab84365
True
rulers
186
Who was held above the law in a nomocracy?
5a3af4083ff257001ab84366
True
Lack of the rule of law
217
What is often found in dictatorships but not democracies
5a3af4083ff257001ab84367
True
neglect or ignorance of the law
316
What causes rule of law to decay in a dictatorship?
5a3af4083ff257001ab84368
True
Rule of law implies that every citizen is subject to the law, including law makers themselves. In this sense, it stands in contrast to an autocracy, dictatorship, or oligarchy where the rulers are held above the law. Lack of the rule of law can be found in both democracies and dictatorships, for example because of neglect or ignorance of the law, and the rule of law is more apt to decay if a government has insufficient corrective mechanisms for restoring it. Government based upon the rule of law is called nomocracy.
On what principle did the Ancient Greeks first think was best for governance?
5727bbc63acd2414000deadd
rule by the best men
82
False
According to Plato, who was above the law?
5727bbc63acd2414000deade
king
176
False
What type of kingdom was purported by Plato?
5727bbc63acd2414000deadf
benevolent monarchy
122
False
Under what rule did Aristotle believe a nation should be led?
5727bbc63acd2414000deae0
rule of law
798
False
To what did Plato compare a government that follows laws?
5727bbc63acd2414000deae1
slave
509
False
rule by the best men
82
What form of government did the Greeks think was second only to democracy?
5a3afe343ff257001ab8438b
True
Plato
104
Who advocated ruled by a philosopher king who was subject to the law?
5a3afe343ff257001ab8438c
True
the best men
235
Who did Plato hope would be subject to the established laws?
5a3afe343ff257001ab8438d
True
philosopher king,
164
Who did Aristotle envision ruling a benevolent monarchy?
5a3afe343ff257001ab8438e
True
In the West, the ancient Greeks initially regarded the best form of government as rule by the best men. Plato advocated a benevolent monarchy ruled by an idealized philosopher king, who was above the law. Plato nevertheless hoped that the best men would be good at respecting established laws, explaining that "Where the law is subject to some other authority and has none of its own, the collapse of the state, in my view, is not far off; but if law is the master of the government and the government is its slave, then the situation is full of promise and men enjoy all the blessings that the gods shower on a state." More than Plato attempted to do, Aristotle flatly opposed letting the highest officials wield power beyond guarding and serving the laws. In other words, Aristotle advocated the rule of law:
In which book of the Bible are limitations on Jewish monarchs outlined?
5727bec13acd2414000deb41
Deuteronomy
155
False
Who was against the divine rights of kings in England during the 1500s?
5727bec13acd2414000deb42
Bishop John Ponet
563
False
What principle did the restrictions on the right of kings, as detailed in Deuteronomy, influence later opposition?
5727bec13acd2414000deb43
divine right of kings
530
False
What historical book may have a significant impact on contemporary law making practices?
5727bec13acd2414000deb44
Bible
69
False
According to the restrictions placed on Jewish kings in Deuteronomy, ownership over what was regulated?
5727bec13acd2414000deb45
horses
277
False
Deuteronomy
155
Book of the viable gives unlimited power Jewish monarchs?
5a3b07613ff257001ab8439d
True
Bishop John Ponet
563
Who was against the divine right of kings in England during the fifteenth century?
5a3b07613ff257001ab8439e
True
Deuteronomy
155
What book of the Bible supported the divine rule of kings
5a3b07613ff257001ab8439f
True
Jewish king
196
What group of ancient Jews could have as many wives and horses as they wanted?
5a3b07613ff257001ab843a0
True
There has recently been an effort to reevaluate the influence of the Bible on Western constitutional law. In the Old Testament, there was some language in Deuteronomy imposing restrictions on the Jewish king, regarding such things as how many wives he could have, and how many horses he could own for his personal use. According to Professor Bernard M. Levinson, "This legislation was so utopian in its own time that it seems never to have been implemented...." The Deuteronomic social vision may have influenced opponents of the divine right of kings, including Bishop John Ponet in sixteenth-century England.
To what did English Chief Justice Sir Edward Coke compare the law?
5727c05f3acd2414000deb83
golden met-wand
132
False
According to English Chief Justice Sir Edward Coke, what should Kings follow?
5727c05f3acd2414000deb84
God and the law
527
False
When did English Chief Justice Sir Edward Coke speak in the Case of Prohibitions?
5727c05f3acd2414000deb85
1607
3
False
How did the king feel about what was said in the Case of Prohibitions?
5727c05f3acd2414000deb86
greatly offended
272
False
What was Edward Coke's official title?
5727c05f3acd2414000deb87
Chief Justice Sir
17
False
Chief Justice Sir Edward Coke
17
Who called the law a golden met-wand during the sixteenth century?
5a3b093f3ff257001ab843af
True
God and the law.
527
According to Coke what should kings be above?
5a3b093f3ff257001ab843b0
True
Chief Justice Sir Edward Coke
17
Who spoke about the rule of law in sixteenth century England?
5a3b093f3ff257001ab843b1
True
the King
259
Who said it was treason to affirm the King was not subject to the law?
5a3b093f3ff257001ab843b2
True
In 1607, English Chief Justice Sir Edward Coke said in the Case of Prohibitions (according to his own report) "that the law was the golden met-wand and measure to try the causes of the subjects; and which protected His Majesty in safety and peace: with which the King was greatly offended, and said, that then he should be under the law, which was treason to affirm, as he said; to which I said, that Bracton saith, quod Rex non debed esse sub homine, sed sub Deo et lege (That the King ought not to be under any man but under God and the law.)."
What is another word for a thin definition?
5727c25f2ca10214002d9592
formalist
246
False
What is another word for a thick definition?
5727c25f2ca10214002d9593
substantive
284
False
Who commonly, or at least attempt to, abide by the rule of law?
5727c25f2ca10214002d9594
politicians, judges and academics
20
False
On what do aspects of the rule of law do formalist definitions focus?
5727c25f2ca10214002d9595
specific procedural attributes
491
False
What is the third and lesser referred to approach on defining the rule of law?
5727c25f2ca10214002d9596
functional
356
False
politicians, judges and academics
20
Who has spoken against the rule of law?
5a3b0aab3ff257001ab843b7
True
legal theorists,
139
Who uses a substantive or thin definition of rule of law?
5a3b0aab3ff257001ab843b8
True
legal theorists
139
Who uses a formalist or thick definition of rule of law?
5a3b0aab3ff257001ab843b9
True
the rule of law
405
What definition by formalist makes a judgment about the justness of law?
5a3b0aab3ff257001ab843ba
True
Substantive conceptions
606
What conception of the rule of law excludes substantive rights?
5a3b0aab3ff257001ab843bb
True
Despite wide use by politicians, judges and academics, the rule of law has been described as "an exceedingly elusive notion". Among modern legal theorists, one finds that at least two principal conceptions of the rule of law can be identified: a formalist or "thin" definition, and a substantive or "thick" definition; one occasionally encounters a third "functional" conception. Formalist definitions of the rule of law do not make a judgment about the "justness" of law itself, but define specific procedural attributes that a legal framework must have in order to be in compliance with the rule of law. Substantive conceptions of the rule of law go beyond this and include certain substantive rights that are said to be based on, or derived from, the rule of law.
According to legal theorists, what characteristics must the rule of law have?
5727c3d12ca10214002d95c0
generality, equality, and certainty
198
False
According to some, what is the rule of law is formed to protect?
5727c3d12ca10214002d95c1
individual rights
408
False
What system of government is considered as a component of the rule of law?
5727c3d12ca10214002d95c2
democracy
645
False
According to some legal theorists, for what are there no requirements for something to be considered a law?
5727c3d12ca10214002d95c3
content
284
False
What are the two approaches to defining the concept of the rule of law?
5727c3d12ca10214002d95c4
formal and substantive
554
False
Most legal theorists
0
Who believes that the rule of law has no formal characteristics?
5a3b16693ff257001ab843d5
True
the characteristics of generality, equality, and certainty,
175
What characteristics do most legal theorists say the rule of law cannot possess?
5a3b16693ff257001ab843d6
True
the rule of law
358
What does not protect individual rights?
5a3b16693ff257001ab843d7
True
formal and substantive
554
What two concepts defined rule without law?
5a3b16693ff257001ab843d8
True
Most legal theorists believe that the rule of law has purely formal characteristics, meaning that the law must be publicly declared, with prospective application, and possess the characteristics of generality, equality, and certainty, but there are no requirements with regard to the content of the law. Others, including a few legal theorists, believe that the rule of law necessarily entails protection of individual rights. Within legal theory, these two approaches to the rule of law are seen as the two basic alternatives, respectively labelled the formal and substantive approaches. Still, there are other views as well. Some believe that democracy is part of the rule of law.
Which interpretation of the rule of law is used on a larger scale?
5727c6252ca10214002d9600
formal
5
False
According to the formalist approach, what else, besides democracy, can laws protect?
5727c6252ca10214002d9601
individual rights
361
False
According to the formalist approach, how much notoriety must a law have?
5727c6252ca10214002d9602
well-known
136
False
How many requirements for content are there for the rule of law under the formalist approach?
5727c6252ca10214002d9603
no requirements
255
False
Which interpretation of the rule of law is less commonly used?
5727c6252ca10214002d9604
substantive
57
False
The "formal" interpretation is more widespread than the "substantive" interpretation. Formalists hold that the law must be prospective, well-known, and have characteristics of generality, equality, and certainty. Other than that, the formal view contains no requirements as to the content of the law. This formal approach allows laws that protect democracy and individual rights, but recognizes the existence of "rule of law" in countries that do not necessarily have such laws protecting democracy or individual rights.
According to the functional interpretation, what principle is opposite of the rule of man?
5727c7a7ff5b5019007d950e
rule of law
121
False
What level of discretion do governments with a high degree of the "rule of law" have?
5727c7a7ff5b5019007d950f
little
350
False
What level of discretion do governments with a low degree of the "rule of law" have?
5727c7a7ff5b5019007d9510
a great deal
236
False
What happens to those that do not follow to the rule of law?
5727c7a7ff5b5019007d9511
punishment
456
False
What fights against the rule of law?
5727c7a7ff5b5019007d9512
flexibility
627
False
"rule of law",
283
What does a Society have a high degree of if its government officers have a great deal of discretion?
5a3b309a3ff257001ab843dd
True
"rule of law",
283
What does a society have a low degree of if its government officials have little disctetion?
5a3b309a3ff257001ab843de
True
punishment
456
What is necessary for offenses that are justifiable unter statutory law but not natural law?
5a3b309a3ff257001ab843df
True
The rule of law
558
What is flexibility compatible with?
5a3b309a3ff257001ab843e0
True
The functional interpretation of the term "rule of law", consistent with the traditional English meaning, contrasts the "rule of law" with the "rule of man." According to the functional view, a society in which government officers have a great deal of discretion has a low degree of "rule of law", whereas a society in which government officers have little discretion has a high degree of "rule of law". Upholding the rule of law can sometimes require the punishment of those who commit offenses that are justifiable under natural law but not statutory law. The rule of law is thus somewhat at odds with flexibility, even when flexibility may be preferable.
For how many countries have rule of law aggregate measurements been developed?
5727cc002ca10214002d9680
more than 200 countries
545
False
What is the term that described a government based on the rule of law?
5727cc002ca10214002d9681
nomocracy
651
False
What is the Greek word for law?
5727cc002ca10214002d9682
nomos
678
False
What is the Greek word for power?
5727cc002ca10214002d9683
kratos
694
False
What is a key qualifier for determining good governance?
5727cc002ca10214002d9684
rule of law
4
False
the quality and good governance of a country
80
What is the law of man a key dimension of?
5a3b3c203ff257001ab843e5
True
the Worldwide Governance Indicators,
141
What defines a rule of law is the extent to which people agree with the rules of society?
5a3b3c203ff257001ab843e6
True
"nomocracy",
650
What is the Greek word for natural law?
5a3b3c203ff257001ab843e7
True
The rule of law has been considered as one of the key dimensions that determine the quality and good governance of a country. Research, like the Worldwide Governance Indicators, defines the rule of law as: "the extent to which agents have confidence and abide by the rules of society, and in particular the quality of contract enforcement, the police and the courts, as well as the likelihood of crime or violence." Based on this definition the Worldwide Governance Indicators project has developed aggregate measurements for the rule of law in more than 200 countries, as seen in the map below. A government based on the rule of law can be called a "nomocracy", from the Greek nomos (law) and kratos (power or rule).
What does the President and Supreme Court Justices vow to stand by?
5727ccf43acd2414000decbd
the Constitution
201
False
According to the Constitution, what is superior to the rules of man?
5727ccf43acd2414000decbe
rule of law
247
False
What do the President and Supreme Court justices vow to uphold?
5727ce98ff5b5019007d95a6
the Constitution
201
False
According to the Constitution, to what is the rule of law superior?
5727ce98ff5b5019007d95a7
the rule of any human leader
274
False
What branch of the government has prosecutorial discretion?
5727ce98ff5b5019007d95a8
executive branch
635
False
What branch of government can determine what acts it writes?
5727ce98ff5b5019007d95a9
legislative branch
378
False
Which branch of government has judicial discretion?
5727ce98ff5b5019007d95aa
judicial branch
574
False
uphold the Constitution
194
The president of the United States is the only government officer to make what pledge?
5a3b44b53ff257001ab843eb
True
to uphold the Constitution
191
What does a firm that natural law is superior to the rule of law?
5a3b44b53ff257001ab843ec
True
to decide what statutes it will write
405
What does executive branch of little discretion over?
5a3b44b53ff257001ab843ed
True
rule of law
247
According to the Constitution what is rule of human leader superior to?
5a3b44b53ff257001ab843ee
True
All government officers of the United States, including the President, the Justices of the Supreme Court, state judges and legislators, and all members of Congress, pledge first and foremost to uphold the Constitution. These oaths affirm that the rule of law is superior to the rule of any human leader. At the same time, the federal government has considerable discretion: the legislative branch is free to decide what statutes it will write, as long as it stays within its enumerated powers and respects the constitutionally protected rights of individuals. Likewise, the judicial branch has a degree of judicial discretion, and the executive branch also has various discretionary powers including prosecutorial discretion.
Who disagrees with the ideas proposed by John Harrison?
5727d1372ca10214002d9746
Law Professor Frederick Mark Gedicks
443
False
For what body of principles is it debated whether or not it was constructed according to the rule of law?
5727d1372ca10214002d9747
U.S. Constitution
40
False
According to John Harrison, through the Constitution, what is law?
5727d1372ca10214002d9748
that which is legally binding
234
False
According to Frederick Mark Gedicks, who believed that unjust laws were not really laws?
5727d1372ca10214002d9749
the framers of the U.S. Constitution
543
False
Scholars
0
Who argues over whether the U.S. Constitution adopted the rule of law?
5a3b474b3ff257001ab843f3
True
Frederick Mark Gedicks
457
What law professor says the Constitution does it meet either the formal or substantive?
5a3b474b3ff257001ab843f4
True
Thomas Aquinas, and the framers of the U.S. Constitution
523
Who believed that an unjust law was still a law?
5a3b474b3ff257001ab843f5
True
judges
342
The framers of the Constitution say did not have discretion to decide which laws submit such vague criteria?
5a3b474b3ff257001ab843f6
True
Scholars continue to debate whether the U.S. Constitution adopted a particular interpretation of the "rule of law," and if so, which one. For example, John Harrison asserts that the word "law" in the Constitution is simply defined as that which is legally binding, rather than being "defined by formal or substantive criteria," and therefore judges do not have discretion to decide that laws fail to satisfy such unwritten and vague criteria. Law Professor Frederick Mark Gedicks disagrees, writing that Cicero, Augustine, Thomas Aquinas, and the framers of the U.S. Constitution believed that an unjust law was not really a law at all.
When was a compromise reached over administrative procedures for law determination?
5727d29d2ca10214002d9760
1941
1151
False
Who can determine if a law should be approached differently?
5727d29d2ca10214002d9761
administrators
110
False
Who should be able to challenge administrative orders in court?
5727d29d2ca10214002d9762
individuals
453
False
Who was Charles Evans Hughes?
5727d29d2ca10214002d9763
a Chief Justice of the United States
1008
False
the rule of law
18
What cannot survive if administrators can't exercise discretion?
5a3b502a3ff257001ab843fb
True
A. V. Dicey
238
Who said no man is punishable or can be lawfully made to suffer except for breaching natural law?
5a3b502a3ff257001ab843fc
True
A. V. Dicey
238
Who said the individual should not be able to challenge administrative order?
5a3b502a3ff257001ab843fd
True
administrative officers
1122
Who did Dicey believe administration should be done by?
5a3b502a3ff257001ab843fe
True
Dicey's
1480
Whose rule of law was transformed by compromise in the nineteenth century?
5a3b502a3ff257001ab843ff
True
Others argue that the rule of law has survived but was transformed to allow for the exercise of discretion by administrators. For much of American history, the dominant notion of the rule of law, in this setting, has been some version of A. V. Dicey's: “no man is punishable or can be lawfully made to suffer in body or goods except for a distinct breach of law established in the ordinary legal manner before the ordinary Courts of the land.” That is, individuals should be able to challenge an administrative order by bringing suit in a court of general jurisdiction. As the dockets of worker compensation commissions, public utility commissions and other agencies burgeoned, it soon became apparent that letting judges decide for themselves all the facts in a dispute (such as the extent of an injury in a worker's compensation case) would overwhelm the courts and destroy the advantages of specialization that led to the creation of administrative agencies in the first place. Even Charles Evans Hughes, a Chief Justice of the United States, believed “you must have administration, and you must have administration by administrative officers.” By 1941, a compromise had emerged. If administrators adopted procedures that more-or-less tracked "the ordinary legal manner" of the courts, further review of the facts by "the ordinary Courts of the land" was unnecessary. That is, if you had your "day in commission," the rule of law did not require a further "day in court." Thus Dicey's rule of law was recast into a purely procedural form.
When was the Philadelphia Convention?
5727d3cf3acd2414000ded7d
1787
56
False
Who spoke at the Philadelphia Convention about the potential chaos from not having judges be able to enforce laws?
5727d3cf3acd2414000ded7e
James Wilson
0
False
What was John Marshall's title?
5727d3cf3acd2414000ded7f
Chief Justice
506
False
What did George Mason state that judges could do to a law?
5727d3cf3acd2414000ded80
declare an unconstitutional law void
274
False
James Wilson
0
Who said that laws may be just, wise or dangerous?
5a3b53383ff257001ab84405
True
Philadelphia Convention
29
What convention took place in the seventeenth century?
5a3b53383ff257001ab84406
True
"When its existence as law is denied, that existence cannot be proved by showing what are the qualities of a law."
600
What position to Chief Justice Marshall take in the eighteenth century?
5a3b53383ff257001ab84407
True
judges
260
Who did George Mason say could not declare a law unconstitutional
5a3b53383ff257001ab84408
True
James Wilson said during the Philadelphia Convention in 1787 that, "Laws may be unjust, may be unwise, may be dangerous, may be destructive; and yet not be so unconstitutional as to justify the Judges in refusing to give them effect." George Mason agreed that judges "could declare an unconstitutional law void. But with regard to every law, however unjust, oppressive or pernicious, which did not come plainly under this description, they would be under the necessity as judges to give it a free course." Chief Justice John Marshall (joined by Justice Joseph Story) took a similar position in 1827: "When its existence as law is denied, that existence cannot be proved by showing what are the qualities of a law."
What East Asian philosophy emphasized virtuous leadership?
5727d6363acd2414000dedc1
Confucianism
62
False
What East Asian philosophy emphasized unwavering rule following?
5727d6363acd2414000dedc2
Legalism
164
False
How strong is the rule of law in most Asian countries?
5727d6363acd2414000dedc3
weak or nonexistent
605
False
Which Asian countries strictly follow laws?
5727d6363acd2414000dedc4
South Korea, Singapore, Japan, Taiwan and Hong Kong
358
False
two
38
How many schools of thought influence central Asian cultures?
5a3b55bc3ff257001ab8440d
True
law
210
What did Confucianism advocate strict adherence to?
5a3b55bc3ff257001ab8440e
True
Legalism
164
What kind of leader is advocated for under legalism?
5a3b55bc3ff257001ab8440f
True
the rule of law
546
What is weak or nonexistent in South Korea, Singapore, Japan, Taiwan and Hong Kong?
5a3b55bc3ff257001ab84410
True
the rule of law
546
What is strong in Thailand, Cambodia and most of Asia?
5a3b55bc3ff257001ab84411
True
East Asian cultures are influenced by two schools of thought, Confucianism, which advocated good governance as rule by leaders who are benevolent and virtuous, and Legalism, which advocated strict adherence to law. The influence of one school of thought over the other has varied throughout the centuries. One study indicates that throughout East Asia, only South Korea, Singapore, Japan, Taiwan and Hong Kong have societies that are robustly committed to a law-bound state. According to Awzar Thi, a member of the Asian Human Rights Commission, the rule of law in Thailand, Cambodia, and most of Asia is weak or nonexistent:
Which two Asian countries have started to adopt the rule of law?
5727d747ff5b5019007d96ac
China and Vietnam
21
False
What has influenced China and Vietnam to conform to the rule of law?
5727d747ff5b5019007d96ad
the transition to a market economy
40
False
Who is debating the reliance on the rule of law in China?
5727d747ff5b5019007d96ae
legal scholars and politicians
557
False
To whom is the rule of law important to in China's trade deals?
5727d747ff5b5019007d96af
foreign investors
171
False
What values might adherence to the rule of law subsequently influence in China?
5727d747ff5b5019007d96b0
democracy and human rights
458
False
market economy
60
What type of economy has rule of law help China and Vietnam move towards?
5a3b57d33ff257001ab84417
True
foreign investors and to economic development
171
What is rule of law not important for?
5a3b57d33ff257001ab84418
True
the rule of law
245
What has already spilled over to other areas in China and Vietnam?
5a3b57d33ff257001ab84419
True
China and Vietnam
21
What two Asian countries have refused to adopt the rule of law?
5a3b57d33ff257001ab8441a
True
In countries such as China and Vietnam, the transition to a market economy has been a major factor in a move toward the rule of law, because a rule of law is important to foreign investors and to economic development. It remains unclear whether the rule of law in countries like China and Vietnam will be limited to commercial matters or will spill into other areas as well, and if so whether that spillover will enhance prospects for related values such as democracy and human rights. The rule of law in China has been widely discussed and debated by both legal scholars and politicians in China.
Where has the rule of law been more of a theory than a way of life?
5727d93fff5b5019007d96ca
Thailand
3
False
According to what principles are most laws in Thailand decided?
5727d93fff5b5019007d96cb
royalist
433
False
In Thailand, what branch of government rejected a proposal for senator selection?
5727d93fff5b5019007d96cc
executive branch
599
False
When did Thailand first try to overthrow its government run by a king?
5727d93fff5b5019007d96cd
1932
122
False
What harms the adherence to the Constitution in Thailand?
5727d93fff5b5019007d96ce
Ancient prejudices and political bias
212
False
Thailand,
3
What kingdom has not had a Constitution since 1932?
5a3b5a503ff257001ab8441f
True
the rule of law
128
What has been practiced in Thailand since 1932?
5a3b5a503ff257001ab84420
True
Ancient prejudices and political bias
212
What has been eradicated from the three branches of Thailand's government?
5a3b5a503ff257001ab84421
True
royalist principles
433
What is no longer advocated in Thailand since the twenty-first century?
5a3b5a503ff257001ab84422
True
the executive branch
595
Whose decision did the Supreme Court reject in Thailand?
5a3b5a503ff257001ab84423
True
In Thailand, a kingdom that has had a constitution since the initial attempt to overthrow the absolute monarchy system in 1932, the rule of law has been more of a principle than actual practice.[citation needed] Ancient prejudices and political bias have been present in the three branches of government with each of their foundings, and justice has been processed formally according to the law but in fact more closely aligned with royalist principles that are still advocated in the 21st century.[citation needed] In November 2013, Thailand faced still further threats to the rule of law when the executive branch rejected a supreme court decision over how to select senators.[citation needed]
What country has the longest version of a constitution?
5727daee3acd2414000dee21
India
3
False
In what year was India's constitution drafted?
5727daee3acd2414000dee22
1950
102
False
What country has the longest Constitution?
5727dc5b2ca10214002d983e
India
3
False
In Thailand, the length of the constitution impacts the judges chances to exercise what?
5727dc5b2ca10214002d9840
judicial review
343
False
What is in position to gain control over the rule of law in Thailand?
5727dc5b2ca10214002d9841
rule of judges
491
False
India
3
What country has the longest history of constitutional government?
5a3b5b163ff257001ab84429
True
India
3
What country had a Constitution until 1950?
5a3b5b163ff257001ab8442a
True
judicial review.
343
What kind of reviews are discouraged by lengthy constitutions?
5a3b5b163ff257001ab8442b
True
judicial discretion
222
What type of discretion was meant to be encouraged by India's Constitution
5a3b5b163ff257001ab8442c
True
the Constitution
432
What is threatening to replace the role of judges?
5a3b5b163ff257001ab8442d
True
In India, the longest constitutional text in the history of the world has governed that country since 1950. Although the Constitution of India may have been intended to provide details that would limit the opportunity for judicial discretion, the more text there is in a constitution the greater opportunity the judiciary may have to exercise judicial review. According to Indian journalist Harish Khare, "The rule of law or rather the Constitution [is] in danger of being supplanted by the rule of judges."
When did the Declaration of Delhi happen?
5727dd8dff5b5019007d970e
1959
3
False
How many judges participated in the Declaration of Delhi?
5727dd8dff5b5019007d970f
185
44
False
According to the Declaration of Delhi, what provides certain rights and freedoms?
5727dd8dff5b5019007d9710
rule of law
310
False
According to the Declaration of Delhi, what type of conditions are needed for human dignity?
5727dd8dff5b5019007d9711
social, economic and cultural
421
False
International Commission of Jurists
144
Who made a declaration about the principle of rule of law in the nineteenth century?
5a3b5bd73ff257001ab84433
True
the Declaration of Delhi
261
What declaration stated that the rule of law applies to certain rights and freedoms?
5a3b5bd73ff257001ab84434
True
The Declaration of Delhi
490
What suggested that the rule of law requires legislative power?
5a3b5bd73ff257001ab84435
True
the International Commission of Jurists
140
What commission has fifty-three members?
5a3b5bd73ff257001ab84436
True
In 1959, an international gathering of over 185 judges, lawyers, and law professors from 53 countries, meeting in New Delhi and speaking as the International Commission of Jurists, made a declaration as to the fundamental principle of the rule of law. This was the Declaration of Delhi. They declared that the rule of law implies certain rights and freedoms, that it implies an independent judiciary, and that it implies social, economic and cultural conditions conducive to human dignity. The Declaration of Delhi did not, however, suggest that the rule of law requires legislative power to be subject to judicial review.
When the rule of law become an agenda item for the General Assembly?
5727df564b864d1900163ef8
1992
72
False
What organization debates the rule of law?
5727df564b864d1900163ef9
The Security Council
167
False
What organization meets to discuss and determine the countries that are considered by the rule of law?
5727df564b864d1900163efa
The Peacebuilding Commission
437
False
What do the Vienna Declaration and Programme of Action require the rule of law to be used in?
5727df564b864d1900163efb
human rights education
647
False
In what year was interest renewed in the rule of law within the General Assembly?
5727df564b864d1900163efc
2006
106
False
The General Assembly
0
Who consider rule of law and agenda item since before 1992?
5a3b63a13ff257001ab8443b
True
The General Assembly
0
Who took renewed interest in the rule of law in 1992?
5a3b63a13ff257001ab8443c
True
The Security Council
167
Who has opposed the rule of law through several debates?
5a3b63a13ff257001ab8443d
True
The Security Council
167
Was argued for lovelorn protection of soldiers during war?
5a3b63a13ff257001ab8443e
True
The General Assembly has considered rule of law as an agenda item since 1992, with renewed interest since 2006 and has adopted resolutions at its last three sessions. The Security Council has held a number of thematic debates on the rule of law, and adopted resolutions emphasizing the importance of these issues in the context of women, peace and security, children in armed conflict, and the protection of civilians in armed conflict. The Peacebuilding Commission has also regularly addressed rule of law issues with respect to countries on its agenda. The Vienna Declaration and Programme of Action also requires the rule of law be included in human rights education.
What organization works to further the understanding and adherence to the rule of law?
5727e04e3acd2414000deeb3
The International Development Law Organization
0
False
What types of economies does the IDLO focus on helping?
5727e04e3acd2414000deeb4
emerging economies and middle-income
297
False
With how many countries does the IDLO work?
5727e04e3acd2414000deeb5
more than 170
588
False
The International Development Law Organization
0
What organization focuses on studying rule of law?
5a3b64473ff257001ab84443
True
The International Development Law Organization
0
Who focuses on empowering governments to establish laws?
5a3b64473ff257001ab84444
True
strengthen their legal capacity and rule of law framework for sustainable development and economic opportunity.
347
What are Third World countries encouraged to do?
5a3b64473ff257001ab84445
True
The International Development Law Organization
0
What is the only terminal organization with a mandate to enforce rule of law?
5a3b64473ff257001ab84446
True
The International Development Law Organization (IDLO) is an intergovernmental organization with a joint focus on the promotion of rule of law and development. It works to empower people and communities to claim their rights, and provides governments with the know-how to realize them. It supports emerging economies and middle-income countries to strengthen their legal capacity and rule of law framework for sustainable development and economic opportunity. It is the only intergovernmental organization with an exclusive mandate to promote the rule of law and has experience working in more than 170 countries around the world.
The impact of the rule of law on what is closely studied?
5727e2483acd2414000deeed
economic development
109
False
What doctrine seeks to study rules and their relationship with the economy?
5727e2483acd2414000deeee
Constitutional economics
320
False
In what branch of government is corruption examined?
5727e2483acd2414000deeef
executive branch
729
False
In developing countries, who makes most of the spending decisions?
5727e2483acd2414000deef0
the executive
612
False
What is the term for corruption by individuals?
5727e2483acd2414000deef1
corruption by private actors
762
False
economic development.
109
What type of development is not impacted by rule of law?
5a3b651d3ff257001ab8444b
True
Constitutional economics
320
What doctoring studies rules in your relationships with the government?
5a3b651d3ff257001ab8444c
True
Constitutional economics
320
What is this study of economics and financial decisions regardless of law?
5a3b651d3ff257001ab8444d
True
One important aspect of the rule-of-law initiatives is the study and analysis of the rule of law’s impact on economic development. The rule-of-law movement cannot be fully successful in transitional and developing countries without an answer to the question: does the rule of law matter for economic development or not? Constitutional economics is the study of the compatibility of economic and financial decisions within existing constitutional law frameworks, and such a framework includes government spending on the judiciary, which, in many transitional and developing countries, is completely controlled by the executive. It is useful to distinguish between the two methods of corruption of the judiciary: corruption by the executive branch, in contrast to corruption by private actors.
What language is spoken in most rule of law countries?
5727e339ff5b5019007d97a2
English
189
False
In what types of countries is the rule of law important to the economy?
5727e339ff5b5019007d97a3
developing and transitional
87
False
In non English speaking countries, what is the rule of law referred to as?
5727e339ff5b5019007d97a4
not yet fully clarified
227
False
What other countries have successful democracies?
5727e339ff5b5019007d97a5
Sweden, Denmark, France, Germany, or Japan
323
False
What is critically important for discussion of rules, laws, and the economy?
5727e339ff5b5019007d97a6
common language
369
False
as an influence on the economic development in developing and transitional countries.
40
Where is the rule of law least important?
5a3b659a3ff257001ab84451
True
“rule of law”
144
What term is primarily used in non-English speaking countries?
5a3b659a3ff257001ab84452
True
Sweden, Denmark, France, Germany, or Japan
323
What well-established democracies have a clear understanding of role of law?
5a3b659a3ff257001ab84453
True
research of links between the rule of law and real economy.
542
What is a common language not important for?
5a3b659a3ff257001ab84454
True
The Rule of Law is especially important as an influence on the economic development in developing and transitional countries. To date, the term “rule of law” has been used primarily in the English-speaking countries, and it is not yet fully clarified even with regard to such well-established democracies as, for instance, Sweden, Denmark, France, Germany, or Japan. A common language between lawyers of common law and civil law countries as well as between legal communities of developed and developing countries is critically important for research of links between the rule of law and real economy.
What is F.A. Hayek's profession?
5727e43a2ca10214002d98d0
economist
4
False
According to Hayek, with the rule of law in place what will help people make more wise investments?
5727e43a2ca10214002d98d1
confidence in a successful return on investment
215
False
According to Hayek, limited governemnt power through the rule of law does not do what to people?
5727e43a2ca10214002d98d2
frustrate his efforts
554
False
According to Hayek, people are free to do what within the rule of law?
5727e43a2ca10214002d98d3
pursue his personal ends and desires
445
False
F. A. Hayek
14
Who studied how the rule of law might hurt free market?
5a3b65f83ff257001ab84459
True
individual efforts
347
Under rule along whose efforts can government stifle?
5a3b65f83ff257001ab8445a
True
the individual
419
Hooters rule of law key from pursuing personal ends and desires?
5a3b65f83ff257001ab8445b
True
The economist F. A. Hayek analyzed how the Rule of Law might be beneficial to the free market. Hayek proposed that under the Rule of Law individuals would be able to make wise investments and future plans with some confidence in a successful return on investment when he stated: "under the Rule of Law the government is prevented from stultifying individual efforts by ad hoc action. Within the known rules of the game the individual is free to pursue his personal ends and desires, certain that the powers of government will not be used deliberately to frustrate his efforts."
Tibet
What is the highest elevation in Tibet?
5727b9224b864d1900163b7a
Mount Everest
459
False
Which continent contains Tibet?
5727b9224b864d1900163b7b
Asia
117
False
What is the average elevation of Tibet, in feet?
5727b9224b864d1900163b7c
16,000
413
False
How many feet above sea level does earth's highest mountain rise?
5727b9224b864d1900163b7d
29,029
515
False
Where is the traditional homeland of Monpa, Qiang, and Lhoba peoples?
5727b9224b864d1900163b7e
Tibet
0
False
Tibet
0
Where is the Asian Plateau?
5acfcff977cf76001a686156
True
Monpa, Qiang and Lhoba peoples
220
What ethnic groups live on Mount Everest?
5acfcff977cf76001a686157
True
Tibet
332
What has an average elevation of 4,900 feet?
5acfcff977cf76001a686158
True
Mount Everest
459
What rises 8,848 ft above sea level?
5acfcff977cf76001a686159
True
pinyin
63
What is he Xizang term for Tibet?
5acfcff977cf76001a68615a
True
Tibet (i/tᵻˈbɛt/; Wylie: Bod, pronounced [pʰø̀ʔ]; Chinese: 西藏; pinyin: Xīzàng) is a region on the Tibetan Plateau in Asia. It is the traditional homeland of the Tibetan people as well as some other ethnic groups such as Monpa, Qiang and Lhoba peoples and is now also inhabited by considerable numbers of Han Chinese and Hui people. Tibet is the highest region on Earth, with an average elevation of 4,900 metres (16,000 ft). The highest elevation in Tibet is Mount Everest, earth's highest mountain rising 8,848 m (29,029 ft) above sea level.
When were the current borders of Tibet established?
5727ba5d2ca10214002d94d4
18th century
802
False
When did the Tibetan empire emerge?
5727ba5d2ca10214002d94d5
7th century
34
False
Which Chinese provinces used to be the eastern part of Tibet?
5727ba5d2ca10214002d94d6
Sichuan and Qinghai
718
False
Which battle left parts of Tibet under Chinese rule?
5727ba5d2ca10214002d94d7
Battle of Chamdo
624
False
The Tibetan Empire
0
What empire emerged in the 18th century?
5acfd3c877cf76001a686218
True
Kham and Amdo
400
What central regions maintained a more decentralized indigenous political structure?
5acfd3c877cf76001a686219
True
Battle of Chamdo
624
After what battle did Tibet fall under Mongol leadership?
5acfd3c877cf76001a68621a
True
borders
751
What current feature was established in the 7th century?
5acfd3c877cf76001a68621b
True
The Tibetan Empire emerged in the 7th century, but with the fall of the empire the region soon divided into a variety of territories. The bulk of western and central Tibet (Ü-Tsang) was often at least nominally unified under a series of Tibetan governments in Lhasa, Shigatse, or nearby locations; these governments were at various times under Mongol and Chinese overlordship. The eastern regions of Kham and Amdo often maintained a more decentralized indigenous political structure, being divided among a number of small principalities and tribal groups, while also often falling more directly under Chinese rule after the Battle of Chamdo; most of this area was eventually incorporated into the Chinese provinces of Sichuan and Qinghai. The current borders of Tibet were generally established in the 18th century.
In what year was the Tibetan government abolished?
5727bb6e3acd2414000dead5
1959
527
False
In what year did Xinhai revolt against the Qing dynasty?
5727bb6e3acd2414000dead6
1912
60
False
Where is the Tibet Autonomous Region?
5727bb6e3acd2414000dead7
western and central Tibet
578
False
Which battle led to Tibet's incorporation into the People's Republic of China?
5727bb6e3acd2414000dead8
Battle of Chamdo
393
False
1912
60
What year did the Qing Revolution take place?
5acfd4a677cf76001a686252
True
Tibet Area (Ü-Tsang)
114
What region declared independence in 1912?
5acfd4a677cf76001a686253
True
People's Republic of China
446
Where did Tibet become incorporated into in 1915?
5acfd4a677cf76001a686254
True
Tibetan government
491
What was abolished in 1599?
5acfd4a677cf76001a686255
True
Following the Xinhai Revolution against the Qing dynasty in 1912, Qing soldiers were disarmed and escorted out of Tibet Area (Ü-Tsang). The region subsequently declared its independence in 1913 without recognition by the subsequent Chinese Republican government. Later, Lhasa took control of the western part of Xikang, China. The region maintained its autonomy until 1951 when, following the Battle of Chamdo, Tibet became incorporated into the People's Republic of China, and the previous Tibetan government was abolished in 1959 after a failed uprising. Today, China governs western and central Tibet as the Tibet Autonomous Region while the eastern areas are now mostly ethnic autonomous prefectures within Sichuan, Qinghai and other neighbouring provinces. There are tensions regarding Tibet's political status and dissident groups that are active in exile. It is also said that Tibetan activists in Tibet have been arrested or tortured.
What is the economy of Tibet dominated by?
5727bc683acd2414000deaf7
subsistence agriculture
37
False
What has recently become a growing industry in Tibet?
5727bc683acd2414000deaf8
tourism
69
False
What is the dominant religion in Tibet?
5727bc683acd2414000deaf9
Tibetan Buddhism
160
False
What is a staple food in Tibet?
5727bc683acd2414000deafa
yak meat
494
False
Which two cultures does Tibetan architecture reflect?
5727bc683acd2414000deafb
Chinese and Indian
421
False
The economy of Tibet
0
What is dominated by tourism?
5acfd5f277cf76001a68626e
True
religion
139
What dominant system is Bon?
5acfd5f277cf76001a68626f
True
roasted barley, yak meat, and butter tea
478
What are staple foods in Chinese areas?
5acfd5f277cf76001a686270
True
Tibetan Buddhism
303
What is the primary influence on staple foods in Tibet?
5acfd5f277cf76001a686271
True
The economy of Tibet is dominated by subsistence agriculture, though tourism has become a growing industry in recent decades. The dominant religion in Tibet is Tibetan Buddhism; in addition there is Bön, which is similar to Tibetan Buddhism, and there are also Tibetan Muslims and Christian minorities. Tibetan Buddhism is a primary influence on the art, music, and festivals of the region. Tibetan architecture reflects Chinese and Indian influences. Staple foods in Tibet are roasted barley, yak meat, and butter tea.
What is the Tibetan name for the area?
5727bd644b864d1900163c12
Bod
33
False
Which ancient people were mentioned in the first written reference to Bod "Tibet"?
5727bd644b864d1900163c13
Bautai
434
False
What area did Bod originally refer to?
5727bd644b864d1900163c14
central region around Lhasa
112
False
Bod བོད
33
What is the Egyptian name for Tibetan land?
5acfd70277cf76001a68628a
True
ancient Bautai people
426
Who made the first reference to Bod "Tibet?"
5acfd70277cf76001a68628b
True
1st century CE
517
When was the first written reference to Tibet by the Egyptian people made?
5acfd70277cf76001a68628c
True
1st century CE
517
When was Periplus of the Geographia Sea written?
5acfd70277cf76001a68628d
True
The Tibetan name for their land, Bod བོད་, means "Tibet" or "Tibetan Plateau", although it originally meant the central region around Lhasa, now known in Tibetan as Ü. The Standard Tibetan pronunciation of Bod, [pʰøʔ˨˧˨], is transcribed Bhö in Tournadre Phonetic Transcription, Bö in the THL Simplified Phonetic Transcription and Poi in Tibetan pinyin. Some scholars believe the first written reference to Bod "Tibet" was the ancient Bautai people recorded in the Egyptian Greek works Periplus of the Erythraean Sea (1st century CE) and Geographia (Ptolemy, 2nd century CE), itself from the Sanskrit form Bhauṭṭa of the Indian geographical tradition.
How is the ethnic Tibetan region referred to as a modern Standard Chinese exonym?
5727be6f3acd2414000deb39
Zangqu
68
False
How do the Chinese refer to Tibetan people, language, and culture?
5727be6f3acd2414000deb3a
Zang
352
False
During which dynasty was the term Xizang first used?
5727be6f3acd2414000deb3b
Qing
509
False
Which Chinese suffix means "area, district, region, ward"?
5727be6f3acd2414000deb3c
qū
211
False
Zangqu
68
What is the Tsang exonym for the ethnic Tibetan region?
5acfd85c77cf76001a6862ae
True
area, district, region, ward
228
What does the Chinese suffix uq mean?
5acfd85c77cf76001a6862af
True
"west"
611
What does the prefix ix mean?
5acfd85c77cf76001a6862b0
True
Tibetan
259
What people, language and culture is the term Jiaqing referring to?
5acfd85c77cf76001a6862b1
True
1796–1820
559
How long did the Qing dynasty last for?
5acfd85c77cf76001a6862b2
True
The modern Standard Chinese exonym for the ethnic Tibetan region is Zangqu (Chinese: 藏区; pinyin: Zàngqū), which derives by metonymy from the Tsang region around Shigatse plus the addition of a Chinese suffix, 区 qū, which means "area, district, region, ward". Tibetan people, language, and culture, regardless of where they are from, are referred to as Zang (Chinese: 藏; pinyin: Zàng) although the geographical term Xīzàng is often limited to the Tibet Autonomous Region. The term Xīzàng was coined during the Qing dynasty in the reign of the Jiaqing Emperor (1796–1820) through the addition of a prefix meaning "west" (西 xī) to Zang.
What is the best-known medieval Chinese name for Tibet?
5727bf403acd2414000deb5b
Tubo
50
False
When did the name for Tibet, Tubo, first appear in Chinese characters?
5727bf403acd2414000deb5c
7th century
177
False
Who reconstructed Middle Chinese spoken from the 7th century to the 10th century?
5727bf403acd2414000deb5d
William H. Baxter
403
False
Tibet
41
What is the best known Chinese name for Tubo?
5acfd9ac77cf76001a6862de
True
Old Book of Tang
229
What book describes the 680-690 emissaries from Namri Songsten?
5acfd9ac77cf76001a6862df
True
Tibetan King Namri Songtsen
281
Who else in addition to Emperor Yang Songsten does the Old Book of Tang describe?
5acfd9ac77cf76001a6862e0
True
the Middle Chinese spoken
337
What did Baxter H. William reconstruct?
5acfd9ac77cf76001a6862e1
True
The best-known medieval Chinese name for Tibet is Tubo (Chinese: 吐蕃 also written as 土蕃 or 土番; pinyin: Tǔbō or Tǔfān). This name first appears in Chinese characters as 土番 in the 7th century (Li Tai) and as 吐蕃 in the 10th-century (Old Book of Tang describing 608–609 emissaries from Tibetan King Namri Songtsen to Emperor Yang of Sui). In the Middle Chinese spoken during that period, as reconstructed by William H. Baxter, 土番 was pronounced thux-phjon and 吐蕃 was pronounced thux-pjon (with the x representing tone).
Who is an American Tibetologist?
5727bfeb3acd2414000deb7d
Elliot Sperling
318
False
What name for Tibet most clearly includes the entire Tibetan plateau?
5727bfeb3acd2414000deb7e
Tubote
559
False
What is another pre-modern Chinese name for Tibet?
5727bfeb3acd2414000deb7f
Wusiguo
49
False
American Tibetologist
296
Who was Sperling Elliot?
5acfdaa877cf76001a6862f8
True
some authors writing in Chinese
378
Who fought to revive the term Xizang?
5acfdaa877cf76001a6862f9
True
Tubote
429
What word is Xizang the modern version of?
5acfdaa877cf76001a6862fa
True
Tibet Autonomous Region.
638
What does Tubote include instead of the entire Tibetan plateau?
5acfdaa877cf76001a6862fb
True
Other pre-modern Chinese names for Tibet include Wusiguo (Chinese: 烏斯國; pinyin: Wūsīguó; cf. Tibetan dbus, Ü, [wyʔ˨˧˨]), Wusizang (Chinese: 烏斯藏; pinyin: wūsīzàng, cf. Tibetan dbus-gtsang, Ü-Tsang), Tubote (Chinese: 圖伯特; pinyin: Túbótè), and Tanggute (Chinese: 唐古忒; pinyin: Tánggǔtè, cf. Tangut). American Tibetologist Elliot Sperling has argued in favor of a recent tendency by some authors writing in Chinese to revive the term Tubote (simplified Chinese: 图伯特; traditional Chinese: 圖伯特; pinyin: Túbótè) for modern use in place of Xizang, on the grounds that Tubote more clearly includes the entire Tibetan plateau rather than simply the Tibet Autonomous Region.[citation needed]
How many people across the Tibetan Plateau speak 'greater Tibetan'?
5727c1ae2ca10214002d957e
approximately 6 million
639
False
How many people who have fled modern-day Tibet are considered to be exile speakers of Tibetan?
5727c1ae2ca10214002d957f
approximately 150,000
724
False
Why are Dzongkha, Sikkimese, Sherpa, and Ladakhi considered to be separate languages?
5727c1ae2ca10214002d9580
political reasons
470
False
India and other countries
800
Where have 6 million exiles fled to?
5acfdd5c77cf76001a686344
True
Tibetan
698
What is spoken by 156,000 people?
5acfdd5c77cf76001a686345
True
Tibetan dialects
338
What type of dialects are Dzongkha and Sherpa considered?
5acfdd5c77cf76001a686346
True
political
470
What reason do the speakers of Kham consider their language to be separate?
5acfdd5c77cf76001a686347
True
The language has numerous regional dialects which are generally not mutually intelligible. It is employed throughout the Tibetan plateau and Bhutan and is also spoken in parts of Nepal and northern India, such as Sikkim. In general, the dialects of central Tibet (including Lhasa), Kham, Amdo and some smaller nearby areas are considered Tibetan dialects. Other forms, particularly Dzongkha, Sikkimese, Sherpa, and Ladakhi, are considered by their speakers, largely for political reasons, to be separate languages. However, if the latter group of Tibetan-type languages are included in the calculation, then 'greater Tibetan' is spoken by approximately 6 million people across the Tibetan Plateau. Tibetan is also spoken by approximately 150,000 exile speakers who have fled from modern-day Tibet to India and other countries.
What is written Tibetan base on?
5727c2efff5b5019007d9490
Classical Tibetan
87
False
What influenced the consistency of the written Tibetan language?
5727c2efff5b5019007d9491
Tibetan empire
191
False
From what was the Tibetan language's script derived?
5727c2efff5b5019007d9492
ancient Indian Brāhmī script
548
False
the present Tibetan linguistic area,
262
What runs from northern Pakistan to Ladakhi?
5acfdec377cf76001a686360
True
ancient Indian Brāhmī script
548
What is Sichuan derived from?
5acfdec377cf76001a686361
True
Ladakhi and Dzongkha
496
What is the ancient Indian Brahmi script derived from?
5acfdec377cf76001a686362
True
Ladakhi and Dzongkha
496
What languages does the Indian language share script with?
5acfdec377cf76001a686363
True
Although spoken Tibetan varies according to the region, the written language, based on Classical Tibetan, is consistent throughout. This is probably due to the long-standing influence of the Tibetan empire, whose rule embraced (and extended at times far beyond) the present Tibetan linguistic area, which runs from northern Pakistan in the west to Yunnan and Sichuan in the east, and from north of Qinghai Lake south as far as Bhutan. The Tibetan language has its own script which it shares with Ladakhi and Dzongkha, and which is derived from the ancient Indian Brāhmī script.
Where did the Zhang Zhung people migrate from?
5727c4ac2ca10214002d95d2
Amdo region
105
False
Where did the Zhang Zhung people migrate to?
5727c4ac2ca10214002d95d3
western Tibet
156
False
What is considered to be the original home of the Bon religion?
5727c4ac2ca10214002d95d4
Zhang Zhung
171
False
Which Yarlung king attempted to remove the influence of the Zhang Zhung?
5727c4ac2ca10214002d95d5
Drigum Tsenpo
339
False
Who was the first factual king of Tibet?
5727c4ac2ca10214002d95d6
Songtsän Gampo
600
False
Zhang Zhung
51
What region did the Amdo culture migrate from?
5acfe48577cf76001a686398
True
the Amdo region
101
Where did the Zhang Zhung people migrate to from the region of Guge?
5acfe48577cf76001a686399
True
Bön religion
228
What is the Amdo Region considered to be the original home of?
5acfe48577cf76001a68639a
True
Songtsen Gampo
556
Who annexed the Zhuang Zhung in the 1st century BCE?
5acfe48577cf76001a68639b
True
Yarlung
301
In what valley did a kingdom arise in the 7th century?
5acfe48577cf76001a68639c
True
The earliest Tibetan historical texts identify the Zhang Zhung culture as a people who migrated from the Amdo region into what is now the region of Guge in western Tibet. Zhang Zhung is considered to be the original home of the Bön religion. By the 1st century BCE, a neighboring kingdom arose in the Yarlung valley, and the Yarlung king, Drigum Tsenpo, attempted to remove the influence of the Zhang Zhung by expelling the Zhang's Bön priests from Yarlung. He was assassinated and Zhang Zhung continued its dominance of the region until it was annexed by Songtsen Gampo in the 7th century. Prior to Songtsän Gampo, the kings of Tibet were more mythological than factual, and there is insufficient evidence of their existence.
Who founded the Tibetan Empire?
5727c5984b864d1900163cde
Songtsän Gampo
55
False
Who did Songtsan Gampo marry in 640?
5727c5984b864d1900163cdf
Princess Wencheng
448
False
Who was Songtsan Gampo's first wife?
5727c5984b864d1900163ce0
Princess of Nepal, Bhrikuti
325
False
What did Songtsan Gampo unite?
5727c5984b864d1900163ce1
parts of the Yarlung River Valley
95
False
Songtsän Gampo
55
Who ruled Tibet from 640-650 CE?
5acfe53f77cf76001a6863a2
True
The history of a unified Tibet
0
What began in the period from 640 to 650 CE?
5acfe53f77cf76001a6863a3
True
Tibetan
145
What empire did Gampo Songstan found?
5acfe53f77cf76001a6863a4
True
Songtsän Gampo
55
Who was Princess Wencheng the first wife of?
5acfe53f77cf76001a6863a5
True
Songtsän Gampo
55
Who was the Princess of Nepal the second wife of?
5acfe53f77cf76001a6863a6
True
The history of a unified Tibet begins with the rule of Songtsän Gampo (604–650 CE), who united parts of the Yarlung River Valley and founded the Tibetan Empire. He also brought in many reforms, and Tibetan power spread rapidly, creating a large and powerful empire. It is traditionally considered that his first wife was the Princess of Nepal, Bhrikuti, and that she played a great role in the establishment of Buddhism in Tibet. In 640 he married Princess Wencheng, the niece of the powerful Chinese emperor Taizong of Tang China.
When did Tibet and China sign a peace treaty?
5727c72dff5b5019007d94f0
821/822 CE
3
False
Where does a bilingual account of Tibet and China's peace treaty exist?
5727c72dff5b5019007d94f1
Jokhang temple in Lhasa
205
False
When did a civil war over succession lead to the collapse of imperial Tibet?
5727c72dff5b5019007d94f2
mid-9th century
282
False
What followed the collapse of imperial Tibet?
5727c72dff5b5019007d94f3
Era of Fragmentation
426
False
What was divided between warlords and tribes with no dominant centralized authority?
5727c72dff5b5019007d94f4
political control over Tibet
453
False
Tibet and China
14
Who signed a peace treaty in 812/822 CE?
5acfe64877cf76001a6863b6
True
a stone pillar
165
What stands outside the Lhasa temple in Jokhang?
5acfe64877cf76001a6863b7
True
collapse of imperial Tibet.
343
What did a civil war in the mid-8th century lead to?
5acfe64877cf76001a6863b8
True
a civil war
304
What did the Era of Succession follow?
5acfe64877cf76001a6863b9
True
In 821/822 CE Tibet and China signed a peace treaty. A bilingual account of this treaty, including details of the borders between the two countries, is inscribed on a stone pillar which stands outside the Jokhang temple in Lhasa. Tibet continued as a Central Asian empire until the mid-9th century, when a civil war over succession led to the collapse of imperial Tibet. The period that followed is known traditionally as the Era of Fragmentation, when political control over Tibet became divided between regional warlords and tribes with no dominant centralized authority.
Which dynasty ruled Tibet through a top-level administrative department?
5727cc684b864d1900163d58
Mongol Yuan
4
False
What was a dpon-chen?
5727cc684b864d1900163d59
great administrator
216
False
Who confirmed the dpon-chen?
5727cc684b864d1900163d5a
Mongol emperor
290
False
Who was the political authority of the region?
5727cc684b864d1900163d5b
Sakya lama
321
False
Who held administrative and military power?
5727cc684b864d1900163d5c
dpon-chen
422
False
to select a dpon-chen
192
What was one of the Mongol Yuan department's purposes?
5acfe8f777cf76001a68642c
True
Xuanzheng Yuan
80
What is the Yuan term for the Bureau of Buddhist and Tibetan Affairs?
5acfe8f777cf76001a68642d
True
a degree of autonomy
341
What did the Mongol lama retain?
5acfe8f777cf76001a68642e
True
the main provinces
516
What did Mongol rule of China remain separate from?
5acfe8f777cf76001a68642f
True
Chinese
716
What troops did the Sayka lama have the authority to send?
5acfe8f777cf76001a686430
True
The Mongol Yuan dynasty, through the Bureau of Buddhist and Tibetan Affairs, or Xuanzheng Yuan, ruled Tibet through a top-level administrative department. One of the department's purposes was to select a dpon-chen ('great administrator'), usually appointed by the lama and confirmed by the Mongol emperor in Beijing. The Sakya lama retained a degree of autonomy, acting as the political authority of the region, while the dpon-chen held administrative and military power. Mongol rule of Tibet remained separate from the main provinces of China, but the region existed under the administration of the Yuan dynasty. If the Sakya lama ever came into conflict with the dpon-chen, the dpon-chen had the authority to send Chinese troops into the region.
Who managed religious and regional political affairs?
5727d1da2ca10214002d974e
Tibet
0
False
Who managed structural and administrative rule?
5727d1da2ca10214002d974f
Mongols
86
False
Who gained temporal power in Tibet in the 1240s?
5727d1da2ca10214002d9750
Mongolian prince Khuden
311
False
Who founded the Yuan dynasty?
5727d1da2ca10214002d9751
Imperial Preceptor of Kublai Khan
501
False
religious and regional political affairs
34
What did the Mongols retain nominal power over?
5acfea6077cf76001a686480
True
structural and administrative rule
104
What did Tibet manage over the region?
5acfea6077cf76001a686481
True
the 1240s
369
When did Emperor Khuden gain temporal power in Tibet?
5acfea6077cf76001a686482
True
the 1240s
369
When did Prince Yuan gain temporal power in Tibet?
5acfea6077cf76001a686483
True
Mongolian prince Khuden
311
Who gained temporal power in the 1420s?
5acfea6077cf76001a686484
True
Tibet retained nominal power over religious and regional political affairs, while the Mongols managed a structural and administrative rule over the region, reinforced by the rare military intervention. This existed as a "diarchic structure" under the Yuan emperor, with power primarily in favor of the Mongols. Mongolian prince Khuden gained temporal power in Tibet in the 1240s and sponsored Sakya Pandita, whose seat became the capital of Tibet. Drogön Chögyal Phagpa, Sakya Pandita's nephew became Imperial Preceptor of Kublai Khan, founder of the Yuan dynasty.
When was the Phagmodrupa Dynasty founded?
5727d47eff5b5019007d9650
Between 1346 and 1354
0
False
Who founded the Gelug school?
5727d47eff5b5019007d9651
disciples of Je Tsongkhapa
201
False
Who dominated politics after 1435?
5727d47eff5b5019007d9652
minister family Rinpungpa
482
False
What sect did the Tsangpa Dynasty of Shigatse favor?
5727d47eff5b5019007d9653
Karma Kagyu
741
False
Tai Situ Changchub Gyaltsen
23
Who topped the Sakya between 1436 and 1534?
5acfeb0477cf76001a6864a6
True
the Phagmodrupa Dynasty
81
What was founded during 1436 and 1534?
5acfeb0477cf76001a6864a7
True
Tai Situ Changchub Gyaltsen
23
Who founded the Sakya Dynasty?
5acfeb0477cf76001a6864a8
True
Yellow Hats
181
What was the Tsongkhapa school also known as?
5acfeb0477cf76001a6864a9
True
The minister family Rinpungpa
478
Who dominated politics after 1453?
5acfeb0477cf76001a6864aa
True
Between 1346 and 1354, Tai Situ Changchub Gyaltsen toppled the Sakya and founded the Phagmodrupa Dynasty. The following 80 years saw the founding of the Gelug school (also known as Yellow Hats) by the disciples of Je Tsongkhapa, and the founding of the important Ganden, Drepung and Sera monasteries near Lhasa. However, internal strife within the dynasty and the strong localism of the various fiefs and political-religious factions led to a long series of internal conflicts. The minister family Rinpungpa, based in Tsang (West Central Tibet), dominated politics after 1435. In 1565 they were overthrown by the Tsangpa Dynasty of Shigatse which expanded its power in different directions of Tibet in the following decades and favoured the Karma Kagyu sect.
Who is known for unifying the Tibetan heartland?
5727d5153acd2414000deda1
5th Dalai Lama
4
False
Who helped the 5th Dalai Lama?
5727d5153acd2414000deda2
Güshi Khan
296
False
What did the 5th Dalai Lama and his intimates establish?
5727d5153acd2414000deda3
Lhasa state
513
False
What is the Tibetan goverment referred to as?
5727d5153acd2414000deda4
Ganden Phodrang
587
False
The 5th Dalai Lama
0
Who is known for unifying the Tibetan heartland under the control of Kagyu?
5acfebf877cf76001a6864e0
True
a prolonged civil war
217
What was the Gelug prince defeated after?
5acfebf877cf76001a6864e1
True
the Khoshut Khanate
328
What was Gushi Oirat the leader of?
5acfebf877cf76001a6864e2
True
Lhasa state
513
What civil administration did Gushi Khan establish?
5acfebf877cf76001a6864e3
True
The 5th Dalai Lama is known for unifying the Tibetan heartland under the control of the Gelug school of Tibetan Buddhism, after defeating the rival Kagyu and Jonang sects and the secular ruler, the Tsangpa prince, in a prolonged civil war. His efforts were successful in part because of aid from Güshi Khan, the Oirat leader of the Khoshut Khanate. With Güshi Khan as a largely uninvolved overlord, the 5th Dalai Lama and his intimates established a civil administration which is referred to by historians as the Lhasa state. This Tibetan regime or government is also referred to as the Ganden Phodrang.
When did the Qing dynasty begin to rule in Tibet?
5727d6102ca10214002d97ac
1720
44
False
When did Amdo come under Qing control?
5727d6102ca10214002d97ad
1724
149
False
When was Kham incorporated into neighboring Chinese provinces?
5727d6102ca10214002d97ae
1728
228
False
Who restored the Dalai Lama as a ruler?
5727d6102ca10214002d97af
Qing
857
False
What was the governing councel called?
5727d6112ca10214002d97b0
Kashag
937
False
Qing dynasty
0
What dynasty began their rule in 1702?
5acfed0477cf76001a68651a
True
Amdo
117
What came under Qing control in 1742?
5acfed0477cf76001a68651b
True
was incorporated into neighbouring Chinese provinces
172
What happened to eastern Kham in 1782?
5acfed0477cf76001a68651c
True
in a riot
412
How were the Ambans living in Lhasa killed in 1705?
5acfed0477cf76001a68651d
True
made changes in the political structure
773
What did the Qing commander do in 1732 and 1728?
5acfed0477cf76001a68651e
True
Qing dynasty rule in Tibet began with their 1720 expedition to the country when they expelled the invading Dzungars. Amdo came under Qing control in 1724, and eastern Kham was incorporated into neighbouring Chinese provinces in 1728. Meanwhile, the Qing government sent resident commissioners called Ambans to Lhasa. In 1750 the Ambans and the majority of the Han Chinese and Manchus living in Lhasa were killed in a riot, and Qing troops arrived quickly and suppressed the rebels in the next year. Like the preceding Yuan dynasty, the Manchus of the Qing dynasty exerted military and administrative control of the region, while granting it a degree of political autonomy. The Qing commander publicly executed a number of supporters of the rebels and, as in 1723 and 1728, made changes in the political structure and drew up a formal organization plan. The Qing now restored the Dalai Lama as ruler, leading the governing council called Kashag, but elevated the role of Ambans to include more direct involvement in Tibetan internal affairs. At the same time the Qing took steps to counterbalance the power of the aristocracy by adding officials recruited from the clergy to key posts.
When did the Qing Qianlong Emperor send a large Chinese army into Tibet?
5727d6c43acd2414000dedd1
1792
52
False
Why did the Qing Qianlong Emperor send a large Chinese army into Tibet?
5727d6c43acd2414000dedd2
push the invading Nepalese out
123
False
What was the Qing reorganization of the Tibetan called?
5727d6c43acd2414000dedd3
Twenty-Nine Regulations for Better Government in Tibet
273
False
When was Tibet dominated by the Manchus?
5727d6c43acd2414000dedd4
18th century
491
False
the Qing Qianlong Emperor sent a large Chinese army into Tibet to push the invading Nepalese out
57
What happened in 1729?
5acfef9377cf76001a686596
True
1792
52
When did the Chinese Emperor send a large army into Tibet?
5acfef9377cf76001a686597
True
"Twenty-Nine Regulations for Better Government in Tibet
272
What written plan did the Nepalese produce?
5acfef9377cf76001a686598
True
1792
545
What year was the attempt to make Tibet a Chinese province?
5acfef9377cf76001a686599
True
the Manchus
454
Who dominated Tibet during the entire 18th century?
5acfef9377cf76001a68659a
True
For several decades, peace reigned in Tibet, but in 1792 the Qing Qianlong Emperor sent a large Chinese army into Tibet to push the invading Nepalese out. This prompted yet another Qing reorganization of the Tibetan government, this time through a written plan called the "Twenty-Nine Regulations for Better Government in Tibet". Qing military garrisons staffed with Qing troops were now also established near the Nepalese border. Tibet was dominated by the Manchus in various stages in the 18th century, and the years immediately following the 1792 regulations were the peak of the Qing imperial commissioners' authority; but there was no attempt to make Tibet a Chinese province.
When did George Bogle come to Shigatse to investigate prospects of trade.
5727d7c14b864d1900163e48
1774
82
False
Who came to Tibet from Europe?
5727d7c14b864d1900163e49
Jesuits and Capuchins
40
False
When did the British and Russian empires begin encroaching on Tibet?
5727d7c14b864d1900163e4a
19th century
225
False
George Bogle
108
Who came to Shigatse in 1747?
5acff10b77cf76001a6865be
True
to investigate prospects of trade for the British East India Company
139
Why did George Bogle go to Shigatse in 1747?
5acff10b77cf76001a6865bf
True
The British Empire
294
Which empire encroached from northern India in 1774?
5acff10b77cf76001a6865c0
True
Russian Empire
404
Which empire was expanding into Asia in 1774?
5acff10b77cf76001a6865c1
True
This period also saw some contacts with Jesuits and Capuchins from Europe, and in 1774 a Scottish nobleman, George Bogle, came to Shigatse to investigate prospects of trade for the British East India Company. However, in the 19th century the situation of foreigners in Tibet grew more tenuous. The British Empire was encroaching from northern India into the Himalayas, the Emirate of Afghanistan and the Russian Empire were expanding into Central Asia and each power became suspicious of the others' intentions in Tibet.
When did a British expedition to Tibet invade the country?
5727d8bc4b864d1900163e64
1904
3
False
With whom were the British hopeing to negotiate?
5727d8bc4b864d1900163e65
13th Dalai Lama
195
False
How many Tibetan troops died at the Massacre of Chumik Shenko?
5727d8bc4b864d1900163e66
600
445
False
How many British troops died at the Massacre of Chumik Shenko?
5727d8bc4b864d1900163e67
12
505
False
Who imposed the Treaty of Lhasa?
5727d8bc4b864d1900163e68
Francis Younghusband
549
False
a British expedition
9
Who invaded Tibet in 1940?
5acff1af77cf76001a6865c6
True
British
11
Who did the 12th Dalai Lama negotiate with?
5acff1af77cf76001a6865c7
True
the Massacre of Chumik Shenko
396
What took place on December 13, 1903?
5acff1af77cf76001a6865c8
True
the Massacre of Chumik Shenko
396
What resulted in 600 British fatalities?
5acff1af77cf76001a6865c9
True
the Massacre of Chumik Shenko
396
What resulted in 12 Tibetan fatalities?
5acff1af77cf76001a6865ca
True
In 1904, a British expedition to Tibet, spurred in part by a fear that Russia was extending its power into Tibet as part of The Great Game, invaded the country, hoping that negotiations with the 13th Dalai Lama would be more effective than with Chinese representatives. When the British-led invasion reached Tibet on December 12, 1903, an armed confrontation with the ethnic Tibetans resulted in the Massacre of Chumik Shenko, which resulted in 600 fatalities amongst the Tibetan forces, compared to only 12 on the British side. Afterwards, in 1904 Francis Younghusband imposed a treaty known as the Treaty of Lhasa, which was subsequently repudiated and was succeeded by a 1906 treaty signed between Britain and China.
When did the Xinhai Revolution topple the Qing dynasty?
5727d99a3acd2414000dee0d
1911–12
29
False
Who declared himself ruler of an independent Tibet?
5727d99a3acd2414000dee0e
Dalai Lama
232
False
When did Tibet and Mongolia conclude a treaty of mutual recognition?
5727d99a3acd2414000dee0f
1913
324
False
When did the Tibetan government sign the Simla Accord with Britain?
5727d99a3acd2414000dee10
1914
672
False
Why did the Chinese goverment denounce the accord?
5727d99a3acd2414000dee11
illegal
836
False
Xinhai Revolution
10
What revolution took place in 1913?
5acff24a77cf76001a6865da
True
Qing dynasty
50
What dynasty did the 1913 Xinhai Revolution topple?
5acff24a77cf76001a6865db
True
the 13th Dalai Lama and the regents who succeeded him
414
Who governed Tibet for 63 years?
5acff24a77cf76001a6865dc
True
Simla Accord
711
What did the Tibetan government sign in 1913?
5acff24a77cf76001a6865dd
True
Britain
729
Who did Tibet sign the Simla Accord with in 1913?
5acff24a77cf76001a6865de
True
After the Xinhai Revolution (1911–12) toppled the Qing dynasty and the last Qing troops were escorted out of Tibet, the new Republic of China apologized for the actions of the Qing and offered to restore the Dalai Lama's title. The Dalai Lama refused any Chinese title and declared himself ruler of an independent Tibet. In 1913, Tibet and Mongolia concluded a treaty of mutual recognition. For the next 36 years, the 13th Dalai Lama and the regents who succeeded him governed Tibet. During this time, Tibet fought Chinese warlords for control of the ethnically Tibetan areas in Xikang and Qinghai (parts of Kham and Amdo) along the upper reaches of the Yangtze River. In 1914 the Tibetan government signed the Simla Accord with Britain, ceding the South Tibet region to British India. The Chinese government denounced the agreement as illegal.
Where did the Dalai Lama's government flee to during the 1959 Tibetan Rebellion?
5727dad9ff5b5019007d96e8
Dharamsala
42
False
How many Tibetans died during the Great Leap Forward?
5727dad9ff5b5019007d96e9
between 200,000 and 1,000,000
319
False
How many monasteries were destroyed during the Cultural Revolution?
5727dad9ff5b5019007d96ea
6,000
382
False
When did China and India fight a war over South Tibet and Aksai Chin?
5727dad9ff5b5019007d96eb
1962
450
False
To where did Chinese troops withdraw?
5727dad9ff5b5019007d96ec
north of the McMahon Line
596
False
Dharamsala
42
Where in Beijing did the Dalai Lama's government flee?
5acff32d77cf76001a6865e4
True
Tibetan Rebellion
77
What rebellion took place in 1962?
5acff32d77cf76001a6865e5
True
During the Great Leap Forward
288
When did 6,000 Tibetans die?
5acff32d77cf76001a6865e6
True
China and India
455
Who fought in a 1959 war over South Tibet and Aksai Chin regions?
5acff32d77cf76001a6865e7
True
e Cultural Revolution
424
What were 200,000 monasteries destroyed during?
5acff32d77cf76001a6865e8
True
After the Dalai Lama's government fled to Dharamsala, India, during the 1959 Tibetan Rebellion, it established a rival government-in-exile. Afterwards, the Central People's Government in Beijing renounced the agreement and began implementation of the halted social and political reforms. During the Great Leap Forward, between 200,000 and 1,000,000 Tibetans died, and approximately 6,000 monasteries were destroyed during the Cultural Revolution. In 1962 China and India fought a brief war over the disputed South Tibet and Aksai Chin regions. Although China won the war, Chinese troops withdrew north of the McMahon Line, effectively ceding South Tibet to India.
When did Hu Yaobang visit Tibet?
5727dbae3acd2414000dee25
1980
3
False
When did monks in the Drepung and Sera monasteries start protesting for independence?
5727dbae3acd2414000dee26
1989
224
False
What did the government do when it halted reforms?
5727dbae3acd2414000dee27
started an anti-separatist campaign
350
False
When was the most recent Tibetan unrest?
5727dbae3acd2414000dee28
2008
626
False
For what have the Beijing and Lhasa goverments been criticized?
5727dbae3acd2414000dee29
human rights
483
False
Hu Yaobang
41
Who visited Tibet in 1989?
5acff43f77cf76001a686602
True
monks in the Drepung and Sera monasteries
230
Who started protesting for independence in 1980?
5acff43f77cf76001a686603
True
Human rights organisations
387
What organisations have been critical of Tibet and Beijing's governments?
5acff43f77cf76001a686604
True
Tiananmen Square protests
195
What protests are the 1980 independence protests compared to?
5acff43f77cf76001a686605
True
In 1980, General Secretary and reformist Hu Yaobang visited Tibet and ushered in a period of social, political, and economic liberalization. At the end of the decade, however, analogously to the Tiananmen Square protests of 1989, monks in the Drepung and Sera monasteries started protesting for independence, and so the government halted reforms and started an anti-separatist campaign. Human rights organisations have been critical of the Beijing and Lhasa governments' approach to human rights in the region when cracking down on separatist convulsions that have occurred around monasteries and cities, most recently in the 2008 Tibetan unrest.
On which border of Tibet is Mount Everest located?
5727e0603acd2414000deeb9
Nepal
137
False
How tall, in feet, is Mount Everest?
5727e0603acd2414000deeba
29,029
165
False
Where is the source of the Yangtze river?
5727e0603acd2414000deebb
Tibetan Plateau
254
False
Mount Everest
95
What is 8,848 ft tall?
5acff5ec77cf76001a686650
True
Yellow River, Indus River, Mekong, Ganges, Salween and the Yarlung Tsangpo River (Brahmaputra River)
339
What rivers have their source in the Yangtze Plateau?
5acff5ec77cf76001a686651
True
The Yarlung Tsangpo Grand Canyon
441
What is the deepest and longest canyon in the world?
5acff5ec77cf76001a686652
True
Yarlung Tsangpo River
485
What river is the Tsangpo Yarlung Grand Canyon located along?
5acff5ec77cf76001a686653
True
some of the world's tallest mountains
10
What does Nepal have that make a top ten list?
5acff5ec77cf76001a686654
True
Tibet has some of the world's tallest mountains, with several of them making the top ten list. Mount Everest, located on the border with Nepal, is, at 8,848 metres (29,029 ft), the highest mountain on earth. Several major rivers have their source in the Tibetan Plateau (mostly in present-day Qinghai Province). These include the Yangtze, Yellow River, Indus River, Mekong, Ganges, Salween and the Yarlung Tsangpo River (Brahmaputra River). The Yarlung Tsangpo Grand Canyon, along the Yarlung Tsangpo River, is among the deepest and longest canyons in the world.
Which mountain is a holy pilgrimage for both Hindus and Tibetans?
5727e1cb3acd2414000deed1
Mount Kailash
96
False
Who do Hindus believe lives in Mount Kailash?
5727e1cb3acd2414000deed2
Lord Shiva
232
False
What is the Tibetan name for Mount Kailash?
5727e1cb3acd2414000deed3
Khang Rinpoche
280
False
Which lake is the largest in China?
5727e1cb3acd2414000deed4
Qinghai Lake
567
False
Mount Kailash
96
What mountain is a holy site for Hindus and Indus?
5acffa0d77cf76001a6866bc
True
Lord Shiva
232
Who do the Tibetans consider Mount Kailash to be the abode of?
5acffa0d77cf76001a6866bd
True
Khang Rinpoche
280
What is the Hindu name for Mt. Kailash?
5acffa0d77cf76001a6866be
True
tso or co
361
What are the Hindu words for high-altitude lakes?
5acffa0d77cf76001a6866bf
True
The Indus and Brahmaputra rivers originate from a lake (Tib: Tso Mapham) in Western Tibet, near Mount Kailash. The mountain is a holy pilgrimage site for both Hindus and Tibetans. The Hindus consider the mountain to be the abode of Lord Shiva. The Tibetan name for Mt. Kailash is Khang Rinpoche. Tibet has numerous high-altitude lakes referred to in Tibetan as tso or co. These include Qinghai Lake, Lake Manasarovar, Namtso, Pangong Tso, Yamdrok Lake, Siling Co, Lhamo La-tso, Lumajangdong Co, Lake Puma Yumco, Lake Paiku, Lake Rakshastal, Dagze Co and Dong Co. The Qinghai Lake (Koko Nor) is the largest lake in the People's Republic of China.
What is the average annual snowfall in Tibet?
5727e26aff5b5019007d9784
18 inches
92
False
What weather pattern exerts some influence on eastern TIbet?
5727e26aff5b5019007d9785
Indian monsoon
458
False
What are winters like in Tibet?
5727e26aff5b5019007d9786
intense cold
578
False
snowfall
75
What has an annual average of only 9 inches?
5acffad777cf76001a6866ce
True
The atmosphere is severely dry nine months of the year, and average annual snowfall is only 18 inches
0
What effect does the shadow rain have on Tibet?
5acffad777cf76001a6866cf
True
Indian monsoon
458
What influences the weather in northern Tibet?
5acffad777cf76001a6866d0
True
The atmosphere is severely dry nine months of the year, and average annual snowfall is only 18 inches (46 cm), due to the rain shadow effect. Western passes receive small amounts of fresh snow each year but remain traversible all year round. Low temperatures are prevalent throughout these western regions, where bleak desolation is unrelieved by any vegetation bigger than a low bush, and where wind sweeps unchecked across vast expanses of arid plain. The Indian monsoon exerts some influence on eastern Tibet. Northern Tibet is subject to high temperatures in the summer and intense cold in the winter.
Where is Tibet ranked among China's 31 provinces on the UN's Human Development Index?
5727e3254b864d1900163f3a
lowest
122
False
What has increased tourism to Tibet in recent years?
5727e3254b864d1900163f3b
increased interest in Tibetan Buddhism
255
False
What is Tibet exempt from?
5727e3254b864d1900163f3c
all taxation
630
False
From which area does tourism bring the most income?
5727e3254b864d1900163f3d
sale of handicrafts
436
False
barley, wheat, buckwheat, rye, potatoes, and assorted fruits and vegetables.
25
What are the main crops grown in China?
5acffda677cf76001a686706
True
the lowest
118
Where is Tibet ranked out of China's 13 provinces on the Human Development Index?
5acffda677cf76001a686707
True
90%
656
What percentage of Tibet's tourism comes from the sale of handicrafts?
5acffda677cf76001a686708
True
The main crops grown are barley, wheat, buckwheat, rye, potatoes, and assorted fruits and vegetables. Tibet is ranked the lowest among China’s 31 provinces on the Human Development Index according to UN Development Programme data. In recent years, due to increased interest in Tibetan Buddhism, tourism has become an increasingly important sector, and is actively promoted by the authorities. Tourism brings in the most income from the sale of handicrafts. These include Tibetan hats, jewelry (silver and gold), wooden items, clothing, quilts, fabrics, Tibetan rugs and carpets. The Central People's Government exempts Tibet from all taxation and provides 90% of Tibet's government expenditures. However most of this investment goes to pay migrant workers who do not settle in Tibet and send much of their income home to other provinces.
In what year was a national conference on Tibet held in China?
5727e4f84b864d1900163f7a
2010
20
False
Members of which committee attended the conference?
5727e4f84b864d1900163f7b
CPC Politburo Standing Committee
399
False
By when does the plan call for improvement of rural Tibetan income?
5727e4f84b864d1900163f7c
2020
613
False
What does the plan call for all rural Tibetan children to receive for free?
5727e4f84b864d1900163f7d
education
627
False
How much, in US dollars, has China invested in Tibet since 2001?
5727e4f84b864d1900163f7e
about 45.6 billion
706
False
General secretary Hu Jintao, Wu Bangguo, Wen Jiabao, Jia Qinglin, Li Changchun, Xi Jinping, Li Keqiang, He Guoqiang and Zhou Yongkang,
249
Who attended the 2018 conference on Tibet?
5ad0001b77cf76001a68673c
True
China
138
Where was the 2018 conference on Tibet held?
5ad0001b77cf76001a68673d
True
2009,
816
During what year was Tibet's GDP expected to reach 47.3 billion yuan?
5ad0001b77cf76001a68673e
True
China
669
Who has invested 310 billion U.S. dollars in Tibet?
5ad0001b77cf76001a68673f
True
310 billion yuan (about 45.6 billion U.S. dollars)
688
How much money did China invest in 2001?
5ad0001b77cf76001a686740
True
From January 18–20, 2010 a national conference on Tibet and areas inhabited by Tibetans in Sichuan, Yunnan, Gansu and Qinghai was held in China and a substantial plan to improve development of the areas was announced. The conference was attended by General secretary Hu Jintao, Wu Bangguo, Wen Jiabao, Jia Qinglin, Li Changchun, Xi Jinping, Li Keqiang, He Guoqiang and Zhou Yongkang, all members of CPC Politburo Standing Committee signaling the commitment of senior Chinese leaders to development of Tibet and ethnic Tibetan areas. The plan calls for improvement of rural Tibetan income to national standards by 2020 and free education for all rural Tibetan children. China has invested 310 billion yuan (about 45.6 billion U.S. dollars) in Tibet since 2001. "Tibet's GDP was expected to reach 43.7 billion yuan in 2009, up 170 percent from that in 2000 and posting an annual growth of 12.3 percent over the past nine years."
How are the original ancestors of the Tibetan people represented?
5727e6f8ff5b5019007d97f8
six red bands in the Tibetan flag
198
False
What has the population of Tibet primarily consisted of?
5727e6f8ff5b5019007d97f9
ethnic Tibetans
61
False
Which country has a disputed area with Tibet?
5727e6f8ff5b5019007d97fa
India
425
False
Se, Mu, Dong, Tong, Dru and Ra
242
What groups represented by the red bands in the flag of India are the original ancestors of the Tibetan people?
5ad0021777cf76001a686750
True
Bai people, Blang, Bonan, Dongxiang, Han, Hui people, Lhoba, Lisu people, Miao, Mongols, Monguor
440
What other ethnic groups live throughout all of Tibet?
5ad0021777cf76001a686751
True
ethnic Tibetans
61
What does the population of Tibet consist of?
5ad0021777cf76001a686752
True
Historically, the population of Tibet consisted of primarily ethnic Tibetans and some other ethnic groups. According to tradition the original ancestors of the Tibetan people, as represented by the six red bands in the Tibetan flag, are: the Se, Mu, Dong, Tong, Dru and Ra. Other traditional ethnic groups with significant population or with the majority of the ethnic group residing in Tibet (excluding a disputed area with India) include Bai people, Blang, Bonan, Dongxiang, Han, Hui people, Lhoba, Lisu people, Miao, Mongols, Monguor (Tu people), Menba (Monpa), Mosuo, Nakhi, Qiang, Nu people, Pumi, Salar, and Yi people.
What has a strong influence over all aspect of Tibetans lives?
5727e8e73acd2414000def87
Religion
0
False
What is the ancient religion of Tibet?
5727e8e73acd2414000def88
Bön
108
False
When were nearly all of Tibet's monasteries destroyed by the Red Guard?
5727e8e73acd2414000def89
During China's Cultural Revolution
528
False
When were 10 to 20% of Tibets males monks?
5727e8e73acd2414000def8a
Before the 1950s
964
False
Bön
108
What has Tibetan Buddhism been almost eclipsed by?
5ad0083677cf76001a6867ae
True
India
323
What country introduced Bon into Tibet?
5ad0083677cf76001a6867af
True
parts of northern India, the Buryat Republic, the Tuva Republic, and in the Republic of Kalmykia and some other parts of China
400
Where is Mongolian Buddhism practiced besides Tibet?
5ad0083677cf76001a6867b0
True
between 10 and 20%
982
How many males in Tibet were monks in 1950?
5ad0083677cf76001a6867b1
True
Religion is extremely important to the Tibetans and has a strong influence over all aspects of their lives. Bön is the ancient religion of Tibet, but has been almost eclipsed by Tibetan Buddhism, a distinctive form of Mahayana and Vajrayana, which was introduced into Tibet from the Sanskrit Buddhist tradition of northern India. Tibetan Buddhism is practiced not only in Tibet but also in Mongolia, parts of northern India, the Buryat Republic, the Tuva Republic, and in the Republic of Kalmykia and some other parts of China. During China's Cultural Revolution, nearly all Tibet's monasteries were ransacked and destroyed by the Red Guards. A few monasteries have begun to rebuild since the 1980s (with limited support from the Chinese government) and greater religious freedom has been granted – although it is still limited. Monks returned to monasteries across Tibet and monastic education resumed even though the number of monks imposed is strictly limited. Before the 1950s, between 10 and 20% of males in Tibet were monks.
What are Tibetan Muslims known as?
5727e94fff5b5019007d9832
Kachee
144
False
Where did Islamic influence in Tibet come from?
5727e94fff5b5019007d9833
Persia
352
False
In what year were all Tibetan Muslims declared Indiana citizens?
5727e94fff5b5019007d9834
1959
366
False
What is the Chinese Muslim community called?
5727e94fff5b5019007d9835
gya kachee
722
False
Muslims
0
What group of people has been living in Tibet since 1959?
5ad0097677cf76001a6867c0
True
Kachee
144
What is an Indian term for Muslims?
5ad0097677cf76001a6867c1
True
gya kachee
722
What is an Indian term for Chinese Muslims?
5ad0097677cf76001a6867c2
True
Muslims have been living in Tibet since as early as the 8th or 9th century. In Tibetan cities, there are small communities of Muslims, known as Kachee (Kache), who trace their origin to immigrants from three main regions: Kashmir (Kachee Yul in ancient Tibetan), Ladakh and the Central Asian Turkic countries. Islamic influence in Tibet also came from Persia. After 1959 a group of Tibetan Muslims made a case for Indian nationality based on their historic roots to Kashmir and the Indian government declared all Tibetan Muslims Indian citizens later on that year. Other Muslim ethnic groups who have long inhabited Tibet include Hui, Salar, Dongxiang and Bonan. There is also a well established Chinese Muslim community (gya kachee), which traces its ancestry back to the Hui ethnic group of China.
When did Roman Catholic Jesuits and Capuchins arrive in Tibet from Europe?
5727ea72ff5b5019007d9876
17th and 18th centuries
64
False
When did Portuguese missionaries first arrive in western Tibet?
5727ea72ff5b5019007d9877
1624
227
False
When was Christianity introduced to Rudok, Ladakh, and Tsang?
5727ea72ff5b5019007d9878
1626
577
False
Jesuit Father António de Andrade and Brother Manuel Marques
113
Who arrived in Western Tibet in 1642?
5ad00a9c77cf76001a6867d8
True
the kingdom of Gelu
187
Where did Father Antonio de Andrade and Brother Manuel Marques first reach in 1642?
5ad00a9c77cf76001a6867d9
True
about a hundred
334
How many converts were there by 1672?
5ad00a9c77cf76001a6867da
True
a Jesuit outpost
545
What was established in 1662?
5ad00a9c77cf76001a6867db
True
Roman Catholic Jesuits and Capuchins arrived from Europe in the 17th and 18th centuries. Portuguese missionaries Jesuit Father António de Andrade and Brother Manuel Marques first reached the kingdom of Gelu in western Tibet in 1624 and was welcomed by the royal family who allowed them to build a church later on. By 1627, there were about a hundred local converts in the Guge kingdom. Later on, Christianity was introduced to Rudok, Ladakh and Tsang and was welcomed by the ruler of the Tsang kingdom, where Andrade and his fellows established a Jesuit outpost at Shigatse in 1626.
When did Johann Grueber cross Tibet on the way to Nepal?
5727eb332ca10214002d99b0
1661
3
False
When did Jesuit Father Ippolito Desideri spend time in Tibet?
5727eb332ca10214002d99b1
1716–1721
245
False
How was Christianity used by some Tibetan monarchs?
5727eb332ca10214002d99b2
counterbalance the influence of the Gelugpa sect
482
False
Johann Grueber
24
Who crossed Nepal before heading to Tibet in 1661?
5ad00ba877cf76001a6867f2
True
Jesuit Father Ippolito Desideri
212
Who remained in Tibet after building a church in Sining from 1716-1721?
5ad00ba877cf76001a6867f3
True
all the missionaries were expelled
570
What happened in 1754?
5ad00ba877cf76001a6867f4
True
the lama
608
Who expelled the missionaries in 1754?
5ad00ba877cf76001a6867f5
True
In 1661 another Jesuit, Johann Grueber, crossed Tibet from Sining to Lhasa (where he spent a month), before heading on to Nepal. He was followed by others who actually built a church in Lhasa. These included the Jesuit Father Ippolito Desideri, 1716–1721, who gained a deep knowledge of Tibetan culture, language and Buddhism, and various Capuchins in 1707–1711, 1716–1733 and 1741–1745, Christianity was used by some Tibetan monarchs and their courts and the Karmapa sect lamas to counterbalance the influence of the Gelugpa sect in the 17th century until in 1745 when all the missionaries were expelled at the lama's insistence.
When did Protestant James Cameron bring the Gospel to the Tibetan people?
5727ebf24b864d1900164038
1877
3
False
When did a large number of Lisu people convert to Christianity?
5727ebf24b864d1900164039
Beginning in the 20th century
206
False
How were James O. Fraser, Alfred James Broomhall, and Isobel Kuhn involved with Tibet?
5727ebf24b864d190016403a
Famous earlier missionaries
371
False
Chongqing to Batang in Garzê Tibetan Autonomous Prefecture, Sichuan province
80
Where did Cameron James walk in 1877?
5ad00f0077cf76001a686834
True
the China Inland Mission
43
Where was Cameron James from?
5ad00f0077cf76001a686835
True
Protestant James Cameron
13
Who came to Tibet in 1787?
5ad00f0077cf76001a686836
True
Famous earlier missionaries
371
Who was James O. Broomhall and Alfred James Fraser?
5ad00f0077cf76001a686837
True
In 1877, the Protestant James Cameron from the China Inland Mission walked from Chongqing to Batang in Garzê Tibetan Autonomous Prefecture, Sichuan province, and "brought the Gospel to the Tibetan people." Beginning in the 20th century, in Diqing Tibetan Autonomous Prefecture in Yunnan, a large number of Lisu people and some Yi and Nu people converted to Christianity. Famous earlier missionaries include James O. Fraser, Alfred James Broomhall and Isobel Kuhn of the China Inland Mission, among others who were active in this area.
Who used to reside in the Potala Palace?
5727ec8b2ca10214002d99ca
the Dalai Lama
181
False
How many stories does the Potala Palace contain?
5727ec8b2ca10214002d99cb
thirteen
240
False
How many shrines exist in the Potala Palace?
5727ec8b2ca10214002d99cc
10,000
503
False
What is Norbulingka?
5727ec8b2ca10214002d99cd
former summer residence of the Dalai Lama
629
False
Potala Palace
86
What is 117 metres tall and 1180 metres wide?
5ad00fbf77cf76001a68685a
True
Potala Palace
86
What is 117 feet in height?
5ad00fbf77cf76001a68685b
True
Potala Palace
86
Where does the Dalai Lama live?
5ad00fbf77cf76001a68685c
True
Norbulingka
612
Where does the Dalai Lama live in the summer?
5ad00fbf77cf76001a68685d
True
Potala Palace
86
Where are there 10,000 chapels?
5ad00fbf77cf76001a68685e
True
Standing at 117 metres (384 feet) in height and 360 metres (1,180 feet) in width, the Potala Palace is the most important example of Tibetan architecture. Formerly the residence of the Dalai Lama, it contains over one thousand rooms within thirteen stories, and houses portraits of the past Dalai Lamas and statues of the Buddha. It is divided between the outer White Palace, which serves as the administrative quarters, and the inner Red Quarters, which houses the assembly hall of the Lamas, chapels, 10,000 shrines, and a vast library of Buddhist scriptures. The Potala Palace is a World Heritage Site, as is Norbulingka, the former summer residence of the Dalai Lama.
In what languages is Tibetan music often chanted in?
5727ed31ff5b5019007d98b4
Tibetan or Sanskrit
41
False
What do the chants often contain?
5727ed31ff5b5019007d98b5
recitations of sacred texts
131
False
What type of chanting is performed without metrical timing?
5727ed31ff5b5019007d98b6
Yang
199
False
What type of music comes from the popular Gelugpa school?
5727ed31ff5b5019007d98b7
classical
402
False
chanting in Tibetan or Sanskrit
29
What does Sanskrit music often involve?
5ad0111477cf76001a68688c
True
sacred texts
146
What does Yang chanting involve reciting?
5ad0111477cf76001a68688d
True
Nyingmapa, Sakyapa and Kagyupa schools
479
What other schools are romantic music associated with in addition to Gelugpa school?
5ad0111477cf76001a68688e
True
Tibetan music often involves chanting in Tibetan or Sanskrit, as an integral part of the religion. These chants are complex, often recitations of sacred texts or in celebration of various festivals. Yang chanting, performed without metrical timing, is accompanied by resonant drums and low, sustained syllables. Other styles include those unique to the various schools of Tibetan Buddhism, such as the classical music of the popular Gelugpa school, and the romantic music of the Nyingmapa, Sakyapa and Kagyupa schools.
What is worshipped during Tibet's various festibals?
5727ee1f3acd2414000df00b
Buddha
71
False
What is the Tibetan New Year Festival called?
5727ee1f3acd2414000df00c
Losar
116
False
What do Tibetan's eat on New Year's Eve?
5727ee1f3acd2414000df00d
Guthuk
362
False
When is the Monlam Prayer Festival?
5727ee1f3acd2414000df00e
between the fourth and the eleventh days of the first Tibetan month
532
False
Who established the Monlam Prayer Festival in 1049?
5727ee1f3acd2414000df00f
Tsong Khapa
722
False
The Monlam Prayer Festival
442
What prayer festival precedes Losar?
5ad0119077cf76001a68689c
True
The Monlam Prayer Festival
442
What event was established in 1094?
5ad0119077cf76001a68689d
True
The Monlam Prayer Festival
442
What event was established by Khapa Tsong?
5ad0119077cf76001a68689e
True
Losar
116
What event follows the Monlam Prayer Festival?
5ad0119077cf76001a68689f
True
Tibet has various festivals that are commonly performed to worship the Buddha[citation needed] throughout the year. Losar is the Tibetan New Year Festival. Preparations for the festive event are manifested by special offerings to family shrine deities, painted doors with religious symbols, and other painstaking jobs done to prepare for the event. Tibetans eat Guthuk (barley noodle soup with filling) on New Year's Eve with their families. The Monlam Prayer Festival follows it in the first month of the Tibetan calendar, falling between the fourth and the eleventh days of the first Tibetan month. It involves dancing and participating in sports events, as well as sharing picnics. The event was established in 1049 by Tsong Khapa, the founder of the Dalai Lama and the Panchen Lama's order.
What is the most important crop in Tibet?
5727eec64b864d190016404c
barley
36
False
What is dough made from barley flour called?
5727eec64b864d190016404d
tsampa
84
False
What are steamed dumplings called?
5727eec64b864d190016404e
momos
193
False
What is a popular drink in Tibet?
5727eec64b864d190016404f
Butter tea
512
False
What seed is cultivated in Tibet?
5727eec64b864d1900164050
Mustard
307
False
momos
193
What are meat dumplings called?
5ad0126f77cf76001a6868c2
True
tsampa
84
What are barley doughs called?
5ad0126f77cf76001a6868c3
True
in Tibet
334
Where is potato seed heavily cultivated?
5ad0126f77cf76001a6868c4
True
The most important crop in Tibet is barley, and dough made from barley flour—called tsampa—is the staple food of Tibet. This is either rolled into noodles or made into steamed dumplings called momos. Meat dishes are likely to be yak, goat, or mutton, often dried, or cooked into a spicy stew with potatoes. Mustard seed is cultivated in Tibet, and therefore features heavily in its cuisine. Yak yogurt, butter and cheese are frequently eaten, and well-prepared yogurt is considered something of a prestige item. Butter tea is very popular to drink.
Exhibition_game
What is 'a friendly' another term for?
5727b9623acd2414000dea9f
exhibition game
3
False
What is 'a scrimmage' another term for?
5727b9623acd2414000deaa0
exhibition game
3
False
What is 'a demonstration' another term for?
5727b9623acd2414000deaa1
exhibition game
3
False
What is 'a preseason game' another term for?
5727b9623acd2414000deaa2
exhibition game
3
False
What is 'a warmup match' another term for?
5727b9623acd2414000deaa3
exhibition game
3
False
An exhibition game
0
What is another name for a postseason game?
5a122c736614be00188f2487
True
An exhibition game
0
What type of game that the players rank or standing depend on?
5a122c736614be00188f2488
True
coaches and managers
368
Who does this type of game help players choose?
5a122c736614be00188f2489
True
preseason game,
78
What type of game is always between parts of the same team?
5a122c736614be00188f248a
True
select players for the competitive matches
389
What do these types of games help coaches do an individual sports?
5a122c736614be00188f248b
True
An exhibition game (also known as a friendly, a scrimmage, a demonstration, a preseason game, a warmup match, or a preparation match, depending at least in part on the sport) is a sporting event whose prize money and impact on the player's or the team's rankings is either zero or otherwise greatly reduced. In team sports, matches of this type are often used to help coaches and managers select players for the competitive matches of a league season or tournament. If the players usually play in different teams in other leagues, exhibition games offer an opportunity for the players to learn to work with each other. The games can be held between separate teams or between parts of the same team.
What type of exhibition game showcases the best players?
5727ba9f2ca10214002d94e2
all-star games
181
False
What are exhibition games in the Olympics?
5727ba9f2ca10214002d94e3
a demonstration sport
492
False
What can an exhibition game raise money for?
5727ba9f2ca10214002d94e4
charities
142
False
What can an exhibition game settle?
5727ba9f2ca10214002d94e5
a challenge
46
False
all-star games
181
What type of exhibition game showcases average players?
5a122d7e6614be00188f2491
True
exhibition games
464
What type of game do national competitions to demonstrate a sport?
5a122d7e6614be00188f2492
True
pit participants from two different leagues or countries
281
How is the official determination of who is the best in the world made?
5a122d7e6614be00188f2493
True
An exhibition game
0
What type of game is used to provide immature entertainment?
5a122d7e6614be00188f2494
True
An exhibition game may also be used to settle a challenge, to provide professional entertainment, to promote the sport, or to raise money for charities. Several sports leagues hold all-star games to showcase their best players against each other, while other exhibitions games may pit participants from two different leagues or countries to unofficially determine who would be the best in the world. International competitions like the Olympic Games may also hold exhibition games as part of a demonstration sport.
What were the most common type of matches in the early days of soccer?
5727bb1b4b864d1900163bc4
friendly matches (or "friendlies")
79
False
When did the Football League begin in England?
5727bb1b4b864d1900163bc5
1888
218
False
By what year had national football leagues been formed in nearly every country?
5727bb1b4b864d1900163bc6
2000
325
False
What did the growth of national leagues cause a serious decline in?
5727bb1b4b864d1900163bc7
the significance of friendlies
476
False
association football
21
During the early days of what sport were unfriendly matches the most common matches?
5a1233c36614be00188f2499
True
1888
218
When did the football league beginning your?
5a1233c36614be00188f249a
True
league tournaments
224
What was established in addition to brief derby in cup tournaments?
5a1233c36614be00188f249b
True
2000
325
By what year were regional leagues establish in almost every country?
5a1233c36614be00188f249c
True
local or regional leagues for lower level teams
422
What increase the significance of Friendly's since the nineteenth century?
5a1233c36614be00188f249d
True
In the early days of association football, known simply as football or soccer, friendly matches (or "friendlies") were the most common type of match. However, since the development of The Football League in England in 1888, league tournaments became established, in addition to lengthy derby and cup tournaments. By the year 2000, national leagues were established in almost every country throughout the world, as well as local or regional leagues for lower level teams, thus the significance of friendlies has seriously declined since the 19th century.
When do football clubs still play friendlies?
5727bbedff5b5019007d93b8
before the start of each season
87
False
What type of football matches are non-competitive?
5727bbedff5b5019007d93b9
friendlies
138
False
What do some friendlies change the rules to make unlimited?
5727bbedff5b5019007d93ba
substitutions
407
False
What are some examples of friendly short football tournaments?
5727bbedff5b5019007d93bb
the Emirates Cup, Teresa Herrera Trophy and the Amsterdam Tournament
717
False
What do friendly short football tournaments have little of?
5727bbedff5b5019007d93bc
prestige
925
False
before the start of each season
87
It when went to football clubs not play Friendly's?
5a1234f16614be00188f24a3
True
Friendly football matches
151
What type of football matches are considered to be competitive?
5a1234f16614be00188f24a4
True
unlimited substitutions,
397
What allows teams to play older more experienced players?
5a1234f16614be00188f24a5
True
friendlies
513
What are rarely one-off matches?
5a1234f16614be00188f24a6
True
tournaments
696
What type of games have trophies and prestige attached to them?
5a1234f16614be00188f24a7
True
Since the introduction of league football, most club sides play a number of friendlies before the start of each season (called pre-season friendlies). Friendly football matches are considered to be non-competitive and are only used to "warm up" players for a new season/competitive match. There is generally nothing competitive at stake and some rules may be changed or experimented with (such as unlimited substitutions, which allow teams to play younger, less experienced, players, and no cards). Although most friendlies are simply one-off matches arranged by the clubs themselves, in which a certain amount is paid by the challenger club to the incumbent club, some teams do compete in short tournaments, such as the Emirates Cup, Teresa Herrera Trophy and the Amsterdam Tournament. Although these events may involve sponsorship deals and the awarding of a trophy and may even be broadcast on television, there is little prestige attached to them.
What do friendlies help international teams prepare for?
5727bd203acd2414000deb15
the qualifying or final stages of major tournaments
71
False
Which type of team lacks time to prepare for tournaments?
5727bd203acd2414000deb16
national squads
149
False
What do international leagues' friendlies happen in the middle of?
5727bd203acd2414000deb17
club league seasons
362
False
What concern has caused national associations and clubs to disagree about friendlies?
5727bd203acd2414000deb18
availability of players, who could become injured or fatigued
492
False
final stages of major tournaments
89
When do international teams not qualify for Friendly's?
5a123e6c6614be00188f24ad
True
national squads generally have much less time together in which to prepare
149
Why are Friendly's nonessential for major tournaments?
5a123e6c6614be00188f24ae
True
club
274
Internationals and what other Friendly's mostly take place during club league season
5a123e6c6614be00188f24af
True
national squads
149
Which type of team has the most time to prepare for tournaments?
5a123e6c6614be00188f24b0
True
availability of players
492
What do national associations and clubs agree on when it comes to tournaments?
5a123e6c6614be00188f24b1
True
International teams also play friendlies, generally in preparation for the qualifying or final stages of major tournaments. This is essential, since national squads generally have much less time together in which to prepare. The biggest difference between friendlies at the club and international levels is that international friendlies mostly take place during club league seasons, not between them. This has on occasion led to disagreement between national associations and clubs as to the availability of players, who could become injured or fatigued in a friendly.
What do friendlies allow managers to experiment with?
5727bdc42ca10214002d9530
team selection and tactics
79
False
What can happen to players who get red or yellow cards in friendlies?
5727bdc42ca10214002d9531
suspended from future international matches
307
False
What kind of record do players' goals in friendlies count for?
5727bdc42ca10214002d9532
career
468
False
When did FIFA decide to limit substitutions in international friendlies?
5727bdc42ca10214002d9533
2004
487
False
What absurd number of substitutions had some international teams been making in friendlies before 2004?
5727bdc42ca10214002d9534
11
701
False
team selection and tactics
79
What do club Friendly's give team managers a chance to experiment with?
5a1240016614be00188f24b7
True
team managers
30
Who can use Friendly's to assess the ability of different teams and clubs?
5a1240016614be00188f24b8
True
FIFA
493
Who ruled that unlimited substitutions were allowed in international Friendly's?
5a1240016614be00188f24b9
True
managers
674
Who was making as many as eleven substitutions per tournament?
5a1240016614be00188f24ba
True
red cards or accumulated yellows
360
What color cards determine whether players can participate in league games?
5a1240016614be00188f24bb
True
International friendlies give team managers the opportunity to experiment with team selection and tactics before the tournament proper, and also allow them to assess the abilities of players they may potentially select for the tournament squad. Players can be booked in international friendlies, and can be suspended from future international matches based on red cards or accumulated yellows in a specified period. Caps and goals scored also count towards a player's career records. In 2004, FIFA ruled that substitutions by a team be limited to six per match in international friendlies, in response to criticism that such matches were becoming increasingly farcical with managers making as many as 11 substitutions per match.
Where are "exhibition match" and "friendly match" not synonymous?
5727be5c4b864d1900163c46
the UK and Ireland
3
False
What are two examples of leagues holding all-star exhibition matches?
5727be5c4b864d1900163c47
US Major League Soccer or Japan's Japanese League
235
False
What are 'friendlies' for charity usually called in the UK?
5727be5c4b864d1900163c48
charity matches
586
False
What are 'friendlies' to honor a player usually called in the UK?
5727be5c4b864d1900163c49
testimonial matches
606
False
the UK and Ireland
3
In what two countries does exhibition match and friendly match refer to the same type of game?
5a1247736614be00188f24c1
True
the UK and Ireland
3
Who calls annual All-Star matches Friendly's?
5a1247736614be00188f24c2
True
for charitable fundraising
361
What type of one-off match may be called a friendly?
5a1247736614be00188f24c3
True
annual all-star matches
185
What kind of friendly matches are held by the US major league soccer or Japan Japanese league?
5a1247736614be00188f24c4
True
In the UK and Ireland, "exhibition match" and "friendly match" refer to two different types of matches. The types described above as friendlies are not termed exhibition matches, while annual all-star matches such as those held in the US Major League Soccer or Japan's Japanese League are called exhibition matches rather than friendly matches. A one-off match for charitable fundraising, usually involving one or two all-star teams, or a match held in honor of a player for contribution to his/her club, may also be described as exhibition matches but they are normally referred to as charity matches and testimonial matches respectively.
When did the NFL limit teams to 9 preseason games?
5727beedff5b5019007d941e
1995–2004
10
False
What country's teams did US teams sometimes play exhibition games against in the 1980s?
5727beedff5b5019007d941f
Soviet Union
206
False
In what year did the NHL play against World Hockey Association teams?
5727beedff5b5019007d9420
1978
247
False
Where is Time Warner Cable Arena?
5727beedff5b5019007d9421
Charlotte
529
False
What hockey arena is in Ontario, California?
5727beedff5b5019007d9422
Citizens Business Bank Arena
596
False
National Hockey League collective bargaining agreement
20
What agreement limits teams to nine postseason games?
5a124b286614be00188f24c9
True
1975 to 1991
125
During what years did AHL teams plate exhibition games against the Soviet Union?
5a124b286614be00188f24ca
True
World Hockey Association teams
268
Who did NHL teams play against in postseason training?
5a124b286614be00188f24cb
True
cities without their own NHL teams,
390
Where did the AHL sometimes schedule exhibition games
5a124b286614be00188f24cc
True
Quebec City
724
What Canadian city got of protein in 1995?
5a124b286614be00188f24cd
True
Under the 1995–2004 National Hockey League collective bargaining agreement, teams were limited to nine preseason games. From 1975 to 1991, NHL teams sometimes played exhibition games against teams from the Soviet Union in the Super Series, and in 1978, played against World Hockey Association teams also in preseason training. Like the NFL, the NHL sometimes schedules exhibition games for cities without their own NHL teams, often at a club's minor league affiliate (e.g. Carolina Hurricanes games at Time Warner Cable Arena in Charlotte, home of their AHL affiliate; Los Angeles Kings games at Citizens Business Bank Arena in Ontario, California, home of their ECHL affiliate; Montreal Canadiens games at Colisée Pepsi in Quebec City, which has no pro hockey but used to have an NHL team until 1995; Washington Capitals at 1st Mariner Arena in the Baltimore Hockey Classic; various Western Canada teams at Credit Union Centre in Saskatoon, a potential NHL expansion venue). Since the 2000s, some preseason games have been played in Europe against European teams, as part of the NHL Challenge and NHL Premiere series. In addition to the standard preseason, there also exist prospect tournaments such as the Vancouver Canucks' YoungStars tournament and the Detroit Red Wings' training camp, in which NHL teams' younger prospects face off against each other under their parent club's banner.
What nationality is the Flying Fathers team?
5727bf6aff5b5019007d9428
Canadian
22
False
What religion is the Flying Fathers team?
5727bf6aff5b5019007d9429
Catholic
40
False
Who founded the Flying Fathers?
5727bf6aff5b5019007d942a
Les Costello
170
False
What league were most members of the Buffalo Sabres Alumni Hockey Team from?
5727bf6aff5b5019007d942b
NHL
407
False
Where are the Saores based?
5727bf6aff5b5019007d942c
Buffalo
514
False
The Flying Fathers
0
What is what is the name of the team of North American priests?
5a124e006614be00188f24d3
True
Canadian
22
What nationality with the Protestant priests of the flying fathers?
5a124e006614be00188f24d4
True
Les Costello
170
Which founder of the flying fathers was once an AHL player?
5a124e006614be00188f24d5
True
Buffalo Sabres Alumni Hockey Team,
327
What exhibition team is made up of almost all NHL players?
5a124e006614be00188f24d6
True
Buffalo Sabres Alumni Hockey Team
327
What is the name of the NHL team from Buffalo?
5a124e006614be00188f24d7
True
The Flying Fathers, a Canadian group of Catholic priests, regularly toured North America playing exhibition hockey games for charity. One of the organization's founders, Les Costello, was a onetime NHL player who was ordained as a priest after retiring from professional hockey. Another prominent exhibition hockey team is the Buffalo Sabres Alumni Hockey Team, which is composed almost entirely of retired NHL players, the majority of whom (as the name suggests) played at least a portion of their career for the Buffalo Sabres.
Which states do MLB teams do spring training in?
5727bfcf3acd2414000deb73
Arizona or Florida
121
False
What is the MLB preseason league in Arizona called?
5727bfcf3acd2414000deb74
Cactus League
174
False
What is the MLB preseason league in Florida called?
5727bfcf3acd2414000deb75
Grapefruit League
228
False
How many preseason games does each MLB team play?
5727bfcf3acd2414000deb76
about 30
263
False
What is it called when an MLB team plays two preseason games in one day with different rosters?
5727bfcf3acd2414000deb77
"split-squad" games
530
False
spring training
55
What is the minor league baseball preseason known as?
5a124f2c6614be00188f24dd
True
All MLB teams
72
Which MLB teams do spring training in Arkansas in Florida?
5a124f2c6614be00188f24de
True
30 preseason games
269
How many preseason games are played against minor league teams?
5a124f2c6614be00188f24df
True
"split-squad"
530
What is it called when a team placed two games in the same day with the same roster?
5a124f2c6614be00188f24e0
True
exhibitions
332
What type of games are sometimes played against high school or local college teams?
5a124f2c6614be00188f24e1
True
The Major League Baseball's preseason is also known as spring training. All MLB teams maintain a spring-training base in Arizona or Florida. The teams in Arizona make up the Cactus League, while the teams in Florida play in the Grapefruit League. Each team plays about 30 preseason games against other MLB teams. They may also play exhibitions against a local college team or a minor-league team from their farm system. Some days feature the team playing two games with two different rosters evenly divided up, which are known as "split-squad" games.
What development has made it unnecessary for MLB teams to play exhibition games with teams from other leagues?
5727c05eff5b5019007d9448
regular-season interleague play
124
False
What league are the Toronto Bluejays in?
5727c05eff5b5019007d9449
American League
246
False
What league are the Montreal Expos in?
5727c05eff5b5019007d944a
National League
292
False
What game do the Bluejays play against the Expos?
5727c05eff5b5019007d944b
the Pearson Cup
330
False
When did the Mayor's Trophy Game end?
5727c05eff5b5019007d944c
1983
551
False
exhibition games during the year against nearby teams in the other major league
39
What has eight regular-season interleague play unnecessary
5a12506f6614be00188f24e7
True
Montreal Expos
270
What other Canadian team did the National League Toronto Blue Jays play?
5a12506f6614be00188f24e8
True
the Toronto Blue Jays of the American League and the Montreal Expos of the National League,
217
Which Canadian teams played in the Mayor's Trophy Game
5a12506f6614be00188f24e9
True
New York Yankees
458
What major league New York team played for the piercing cup?
5a12506f6614be00188f24ea
True
Several MLB teams used to play regular exhibition games during the year against nearby teams in the other major league, but regular-season interleague play has made such games unnecessary. The two Canadian MLB teams, the Toronto Blue Jays of the American League and the Montreal Expos of the National League, met annually to play the Pearson Cup exhibition game; this tradition ended when the Expos moved to Washington DC for the 2005 season. Similarly, the New York Yankees played in the Mayor's Trophy Game against various local rivals from 1946 to 1983.
What concerns have reduced Minor League exhibition games?
5727c0d43acd2414000debab
worries of injuries to players, along with travel issues
128
False
What inter-city exhibition game did Chicago have?
5727c0d43acd2414000debac
Crosstown Classic
286
False
What inter-city exhibition game did New York have?
5727c0d43acd2414000debad
Subway Series
319
False
In what month is the MLB All-Star Game held?
5727c0d43acd2414000debae
July
478
False
What did the MLB All-Star winning team gain in the World Series?
5727c0d43acd2414000debaf
home field advantage
693
False
have a team play an exhibition against Minor League affiliates
34
What kind of exhibition game is still popular between major and minor league teams?
5a12520e6614be00188f24ef
True
worries of injuries to players, along with travel issues
128
What made these type of exhibition games more popular?
5a12520e6614be00188f24f0
True
interleague play
420
What kind of play is now for bragging rights only
5a12520e6614be00188f24f1
True
home field advantage
693
What does the loser of the All-Star game get the following year
5a12520e6614be00188f24f2
True
MLB All-Star Game
449
What game between two AL teams is considered an exhibition gave
5a12520e6614be00188f24f3
True
It also used to be commonplace to have a team play an exhibition against Minor League affiliates during the regular season, but worries of injuries to players, along with travel issues, have made this very rare. Exhibitions between inter-city teams in different leagues, like Chicago's Crosstown Classic and New York's Subway Series which used to be played solely as exhibitions for bragging rights are now blended into interleague play. The annual MLB All-Star Game, played in July between players from AL teams and players from NL teams, was long considered an exhibition match, but as of 2003 this status was questioned because the league whose team wins the All-Star game has been awarded home field advantage for the upcoming World Series.
How many preseason games do NBA teams play?
5727c1593acd2414000debbb
eight
43
False
Where are the TImberwolves based?
5727c1593acd2414000debbc
Minnesota
343
False
Where are the Suns based?
5727c1593acd2414000debbd
Phoenix
436
False
The Suns' exhibition game in Indian Wells, CA is the only time an NBA game is played in what setting?
5727c1593acd2414000debbe
an outdoor venue
603
False
What venue do the Suns play at in Indian Wells?
5727c1593acd2414000debbf
Indian Wells Tennis Garden
490
False
National Basketball Association
0
What basketball Association placed eight postseason games
5a1253506614be00188f24f9
True
NBA teams
82
Who almost always plays each other in the postseason?
5a1253506614be00188f24fa
True
NBA
82
What lead has teams play each other outside of their market areas?
5a1253506614be00188f24fb
True
Indian Wells Tennis Garden
490
What is the only NBA game that's played in an indoor venue?
5a1253506614be00188f24fc
True
National Basketball Association teams play eight preseason games per year. Today, NBA teams almost always play each other in the preseason, but mainly at neutral sites within their market areas in order to allow those who can't usually make a trip to a home team's arena during the regular season to see a game close to home; for instance the Minnesota Timberwolves will play games in arenas in North Dakota and South Dakota, while the Phoenix Suns schedule one exhibition game outdoors at Indian Wells Tennis Garden in Indian Wells, California yearly, the only such instance an NBA game takes place in an outdoor venue.
When did the NBA play preseason games against the ABA?
5727c293ff5b5019007d9486
1971 to 1975
14
False
What legendary team did the NBA sometimes formerly play against?
5727c293ff5b5019007d9487
Harlem Globetrotters
205
False
On what continents have NBA teams played preseason games outside the US?
5727c293ff5b5019007d9488
Europe and Asia
285
False
How many preseason games were NBA teams limited to in the 2011-12 season?
5727c293ff5b5019007d9489
two
583
False
What is the main European basketball club?
5727c293ff5b5019007d948a
the Euroleague
383
False
1971 to 1975
14
When did the NBA play postseason games against the ABA?
5a1254806614be00188f2501
True
Harlem Globetrotters
205
What legendary team does the NBA still play against?
5a1254806614be00188f2502
True
Europe and Asia
285
What two continents has the NBA never played a preseason gaming?
5a1254806614be00188f2503
True
1998-99 and 2011-12
527
In what two seasons the teams have unlimited preseason games due to lockouts?
5a1254806614be00188f2504
True
2006 and 2007 seasons
309
What two seasons in the NBA not playing Europe and Asia?
5a1254806614be00188f2505
True
However, from 1971 to 1975, NBA teams played preseason exhibitions against American Basketball Association teams. In the early days of the NBA, league clubs sometimes challenged the legendary barnstorming Harlem Globetrotters, with mixed success. The NBA has played preseason games in Europe and Asia. In the 2006 and 2007 seasons, the NBA and the primary European club competition, the Euroleague, conducted a preseason tournament featuring two NBA teams and the finalists from that year's Euroleague.[citation needed] In the 1998-99 and 2011-12 seasons, teams were limited to only two preseason games due to lockouts.
What is an example of a corporate sponsor of a basketball team?
5727c326ff5b5019007d9496
Marathon Oil
217
False
What is an example of a team of former college players?
5727c326ff5b5019007d9497
Athletes in Action
175
False
When did the FIBA stop allowing pros on foreign national teams?
5727c326ff5b5019007d9498
1992
250
False
When did the NCAA decide college teams could only play other college teams?
5727c326ff5b5019007d9499
2003
378
False
How often does the NCAA allow college teams to go overseas?
5727c326ff5b5019007d949a
one foreign tour every four years
779
False
with a few exhibition games
66
How did minor college basketball teams begin their season?
5a1255f16614be00188f250b
True
travelling teams
107
What kind of teams were made up of college players?
5a1255f16614be00188f250c
True
professional players on foreign national teams
274
What did the FIBA allow?
5a1255f16614be00188f250d
True
National Collegiate Athletic Association
388
Who allowed games between non-college teams in 2003?
5a1255f16614be00188f250e
True
to other countries
678
Where do minor basketball teams still travel to.
5a1255f16614be00188f250f
True
Traditionally, major college basketball teams began their seasons with a few exhibition games. They played travelling teams made up of former college players on teams such as Athletes in Action or a team sponsored by Marathon Oil. On occasion before 1992, when FIBA allowed professional players on foreign national teams, colleges played those teams in exhibitions. However, in 2003, the National Collegiate Athletic Association banned games with non-college teams. Some teams have begun scheduling exhibition games against teams in NCAA Division II and NCAA Division III, or even against colleges and universities located in Canada. Major college basketball teams still travel to other countries during the summer to play in exhibition games, although a college team is allowed one foreign tour every four years, and a maximum of ten games in each tour.
How many preseason exhibition games does an NFL team play?
5727c3953acd2414000dec03
four
119
False
What is the one exception to the NFL's 4-preseason-game limit?
5727c3953acd2414000dec04
the Pro Football Hall of Fame Game
251
False
What month are most NFL preseason games in?
5727c3953acd2414000dec05
August
350
False
How many players can an NFL team have in the off-season?
5727c3953acd2414000dec06
90
455
False
How many players can an NFL team have in the regular season?
5727c3953acd2414000dec07
53
497
False
four
119
How many postseason exhibition games doesn't NFL team play
5a1256ec6614be00188f2515
True
National Football League
35
What team sport has very unstructured preseason's?
5a1256ec6614be00188f2516
True
four pre-season exhibition games
119
What games are played to help coaches expand the roster?
5a1256ec6614be00188f2517
True
The Pro Bowl,
1816
What bowl game is traditionally played the beginning of the NFL season
5a1256ec6614be00188f2518
True
1976.
1457
What was the last year that NFL teams were only allowed to play other NFL teams?
5a1256ec6614be00188f2519
True
Compared to other team sports, the National Football League preseason is very structured. Every NFL team plays exactly four pre-season exhibition games a year, two at home and two away, with the exception of two teams each year who play a fifth game, the Pro Football Hall of Fame Game. These exhibition games, most of which are held in the month of August, are played for the purpose of helping coaches narrow down the roster from the offseason limit of 90 players to the regular-season limit of 53 players. While the scheduling formula is not as rigid for preseason games as they are for the regular season, there are numerous restrictions and traditions that limit the choices of preseason opponents; teams are also restricted on what days and times they can play these games. Split-squad games, a practice common in baseball and hockey, where a team that is scheduled to play two games on the same day splits their team into two squads, are prohibited. The NFL has played exhibition games in Europe, Japan, Canada, Australia (including the American Bowl in 1999) and Mexico to spread the league's popularity (a game of this type was proposed for China but, due to financial and logistical problems, was eventually canceled). The league has tacitly forbidden the playing of non-league opponents, with the last interleague game having come in 1972 and the last game against a team other than an NFL team (the all-NFL rookie College All-Stars) was held in 1976. Exhibition games are quite unpopular with many fans, who resent having to pay regular-season prices for two home exhibition games as part of a season-ticket package. Numerous lawsuits have been brought by fans and classes of fans against the NFL or its member teams regarding this practice, but none have been successful in halting it.[citation needed] The Pro Bowl, traditionally played after the end of the NFL season (since 2011 is played the week prior to the Super Bowl), is also considered an exhibition game.
How many exhibition games did the Arena Football League have per year in the early 2000s?
5727c5932ca10214002d95ee
two
40
False
What type of league commonly plays unstructured exhibition games?
5727c5932ca10214002d95ef
indoor American football leagues
225
False
What is a team called that is in the process of joining a league?
5727c5932ca10214002d95f0
a probational franchise
474
False
Indoor league teams sometimes play against what type of outdoor league team?
5727c5932ca10214002d95f1
semi-pro
504
False
The Arena Football League
0
Who had two-game exhibition seasons in the late 2000's
5a1257fc6614be00188f251f
True
a new television contract
122
What started this practice in 2003?
5a1257fc6614be00188f2520
True
Exhibition games outside of a structured season
149
What is relatively uncommon among indoor American football leagues?
5a1257fc6614be00188f2521
True
a probational franchise
474
What is it uncommon for small leagues to join other leagues as?
5a1257fc6614be00188f2522
True
American football leagues
232
At what level do teams not switch leagues frequently occur in a walk
5a1257fc6614be00188f2523
True
The Arena Football League briefly had a two-game exhibition season in the early 2000s, a practice that ended in 2003 with a new television contract. Exhibition games outside of a structured season are relatively common among indoor American football leagues; because teams switch leagues frequently at that level of play, it is not uncommon to see some of the smaller leagues schedule exhibition games against teams that are from another league, about to join the league as a probational franchise, or a semi-pro outdoor team to fill holes in a schedule.
What consideration is more important for college teams than exhibition games?
5727c5f44b864d1900163ce6
opinion polling
128
False
What is a game called in which a team plays against itself?
5727c5f44b864d1900163ce7
Intramural
294
False
Championships are decided by formulas for college teams below what level?
5727c5f44b864d1900163ce8
Football Bowl Subdivision
449
False
True exhibition games
0
What kind of games exist between opposing colleges at the highest level?
5a1258ea6614be00188f2529
True
opinion polling
128
What kind of polling is not important in college football?
5a1258ea6614be00188f252a
True
Intramural games
294
What is a game called in which a team plays against another team?
5a1258ea6614be00188f252b
True
objective formulas
511
How are championships decided at levels above football bowl subdivision?
5a1258ea6614be00188f252c
True
True exhibition games between opposing colleges at the highest level do not exist in college football; due to the importance of opinion polling in the top level of college football, even exhibition games would not truly be exhibitions because they could influence the opinions of those polled. Intramural games are possible because a team playing against itself leaves little ability for poll participants to make judgments, and at levels below the Football Bowl Subdivision (FBS), championships are decided by objective formulas and thus those teams can play non-league games without affecting their playoff hopes.
Major FBS teams can have lopsided victories against what kinds of lesser opponents?
5727c6af4b864d1900163cf2
lower-tier FBS, Football Championship, or Division II schools
138
False
Why do smaller schools want to play against major FBS teams?
5727c6af4b864d1900163cf3
a large appearance fee and at least one guaranteed television appearance
346
False
How many wins are required for an FBS team to be eligible for the bowl?
5727c6af4b864d1900163cf4
seven
1019
False
How many games between FBS and FCS teams count towards the FBS's bowl eligibility?
5727c6af4b864d1900163cf5
one
1070
False
When did the College Football Playoff System begin?
5727c6af4b864d1900163cf6
2014
1177
False
FBS teams
27
Who schedules early-season conference home games?
5a125a466614be00188f2531
True
early season non-conference preseason home games
55
I what provides a small appearance fee and a guaranteed television appearance for small schools?
5a125a466614be00188f2532
True
seven
1019
How many losses before FBS team is ineligible for the ball
5a125a466614be00188f2533
True
2014
1177
When did the college football playoff system and?
5a125a466614be00188f2534
True
because of a much higher emphasis on strength of schedule than in the Bowl Championship Series era
1289
Why are major teams now encouraged to schedule weaker opponents further nonconference schedule?
5a125a466614be00188f2535
True
However, most of the major FBS teams annually schedule early season non-conference preseason home games against lesser opponents that are lower-tier FBS, Football Championship, or Division II schools, which often result in lopsided victories in favor of the FBS teams and act as exhibition games in all but name, though they additionally provide a large appearance fee and at least one guaranteed television appearance for the smaller school. These games also receive the same criticism as NFL exhibition games, but instead it is targeted to schools scheduling low-quality opponents and the simplicity for a team to run up the score against a weak opponent. However, these games are susceptible to backfiring, resulting in damage in poll position and public perception, especially if the higher ranked team loses, although the mere act of scheduling a weak opponent is harmful to a team's overall strength of schedule itself. Games an FBS team schedules against lower division opponents do not count toward the minimum seven wins required for bowl eligibility, and only one game against an FCS team can be counted. With the start of the College Football Playoff system for the 2014 season, major teams are now discouraged from scheduling weaker opponents for their non-conference schedule because of a much higher emphasis on strength of schedule than in the Bowl Championship Series era.
When is the usual high school academic term?
5727c73cff5b5019007d94fa
September–June
352
False
What is the most common type of high school football exhibition game?
5727c73cff5b5019007d94fb
all-star
435
False
What year of players are in high school football all-star games?
5727c73cff5b5019007d94fc
graduating seniors
535
False
What are two examples of high school football all-star games?
5727c73cff5b5019007d94fd
U.S. Army All-American Bowl and Under Armour All-America Game
640
False
What do high school all-star players hope to be seen by?
5727c73cff5b5019007d94fe
colleges
751
False
High school football teams
0
Who frequently participate in controlled scrimmages?
5a125b556614be00188f253b
True
all-star game
435
What is the least common type of high school football exhibition game?
5a125b556614be00188f253c
True
league rules and concerns about finances, travel and player injuries
160
What makes exhibition games common?
5a125b556614be00188f253d
True
all-star game
435
What access showcases for players to be seen by pro teams?
5a125b556614be00188f253e
True
all-star game
435
What type of exhibition game do freshmen normally playing?
5a125b556614be00188f253f
True
High school football teams frequently participate in controlled scrimmages with other teams during preseason practice, but exhibition games are rare because of league rules and concerns about finances, travel and player injuries, along with enrollments not being registered until the early part of August in most school districts under the traditional September–June academic term. A more common exhibition is the high school football all-star game, which brings together top players from a region. These games are typically played by graduating seniors during the summer or at the end of the season. Many of these games, which include the U.S. Army All-American Bowl and Under Armour All-America Game, are used as showcases for players to be seen by colleges.
How many exhibition events per year does the NASCAR Sprint Cup have?
5727c79f3acd2414000dec2d
two
207
False
Where is the Sprint Unlimited held?
5727c79f3acd2414000dec2e
Daytona International Speedway
270
False
Where is the Sprint All-Star Race held?
5727c79f3acd2414000dec2f
Charlotte Motor Speedway
374
False
What does the winner of the Sprint Unlimited get?
5727c79f3acd2414000dec30
over USD $1,000,000
461
False
Where is Calder Park Thunderdome?
5727c79f3acd2414000dec31
Australia
599
False
auto racing organizations
8
What organizations don't offer prize money but do offer championship points for exhibition games?
5a125d1a6614be00188f2545
True
the Sprint Unlimited, held at Daytona International Speedway at the start of the season, and the NASCAR Sprint All-Star Race,
240
What to exhibition races don't offer a large purse
5a125d1a6614be00188f2546
True
NASCAR Sprint All-Star Race
337
What race is held at Charlottesville
5a125d1a6614be00188f2547
True
Daytona International Speedway
270
Where is the Sprint Limited held?
5a125d1a6614be00188f2548
True
Calder Park Thunderdome
572
What Australian venue is a Suzuki circuit held at?
5a125d1a6614be00188f2549
True
Various auto racing organizations hold exhibition events; these events usually award no championship points to participants, but they do offer prize money to participants. The NASCAR Sprint Cup Series holds two exhibition events annually - the Sprint Unlimited, held at Daytona International Speedway at the start of the season, and the NASCAR Sprint All-Star Race, held at Charlotte Motor Speedway midway through the season. Both events carry a hefty purse of over USD $1,000,000. NASCAR has also held exhibition races at Suzuka Circuit and Twin Ring Motegi in Japan and Calder Park Thunderdome in Australia.
Northwestern_University
What was Northwestern's founding purpose in 1851?
5727c22d4b864d1900163c94
to serve the Northwest Territory
173
False
When did instruction begin at Northwestern?
5727c22d4b864d1900163c95
1855
339
False
When were women first admitted to Northwestern?
5727c22d4b864d1900163c96
1869
368
False
How many acres is the modern-day Northwestern campus in Evanston?
5727c22d4b864d1900163c97
240
402
False
What programs are offered at Northwestern's Quatar campus?
5727c2bf4b864d1900163cac
journalism and communication
739
False
Which great lake is Northwestern located along?
5727c2bf4b864d1900163cad
Lake Michigan
459
False
What is the name of the city located 12 miles north of Northwestern?
5727c2bf4b864d1900163cae
Chicago
505
False
John Evans
36
Who rejected Northwestern University?
5ad2b57ed7d075001a429fe8
True
1851
28
What year was Northwestern destroyed?
5ad2b57ed7d075001a429fe9
True
1855
339
In what year did Northwestern University stop teaching?
5ad2b57ed7d075001a429fea
True
Education City, Doha, Qatar
694
Where did Northwestern University opened an additional campus at in 2007?
5ad2b57ed7d075001a429feb
True
1869
368
What year were men allowed to attend Northwestern University?
5ad2b57ed7d075001a429fec
True
Northwestern was founded in 1851 by John Evans, for whom the City of Evanston is named, and eight other lawyers, businessmen and Methodist leaders. Its founding purpose was to serve the Northwest Territory, an area that today includes the states of Ohio, Indiana, Illinois, Michigan, Wisconsin and parts of Minnesota. Instruction began in 1855; women were admitted in 1869. Today, the main campus is a 240-acre (97 ha) parcel in Evanston, along the shores of Lake Michigan just 12 miles north of downtown Chicago. The university's law, medical, and professional schools are located on a 25-acre (10 ha) campus in Chicago's Streeterville neighborhood. In 2008, the university opened a campus in Education City, Doha, Qatar with programs in journalism and communication.
In what environment was the foundation for Northwestern University planned on May 31, 1850?
5727cb7d3acd2414000dec87
a meeting
58
False
Who granted a charter to the Trustees of the North-Western University in January of 1851?
5727cb7d3acd2414000dec88
the Illinois General Assembly
291
False
What was the religious affiliation of all 9 founding members of Northwestern?
5727cb7d3acd2414000dec89
Methodists
487
False
How many of Northwestern's 9 founders were ministers?
5727cb7d3acd2414000dec8a
three
499
False
Which church did the 9 founders of Northwestern affiliate the university with?
5727cb7d3acd2414000dec8b
Methodist Episcopal
655
False
nine
87
How many sellers did Northwestern University have?
5ad2b649d7d075001a429ffc
True
Methodist Episcopal Church
655
What type of church is Northwestern University unassociated with?
5ad2b649d7d075001a429ffd
True
May 31, 1850
71
What was the date that lay down the foundation for Southwestern University?
5ad2b649d7d075001a429ffe
True
three
499
How many ministers founded Southwestern University?
5ad2b649d7d075001a429fff
True
Methodist
655
What denomination did the all of the founders disassociate with?
5ad2b649d7d075001a42a000
True
The foundation of Northwestern University is traceable to a meeting on May 31, 1850 of nine prominent Chicago businessmen, Methodist leaders and attorneys who had formed the idea of establishing a university to serve what had once been known as the Northwest Territory. On January 28, 1851, the Illinois General Assembly granted a charter to the Trustees of the North-Western University, making it the first chartered university in Illinois. The school's nine founders, all of whom were Methodists (three of them ministers), knelt in prayer and worship before launching their first organizational meeting. Although they affiliated the university with the Methodist Episcopal Church, they were committed to non-sectarian admissions, believing that Northwestern should serve all people in the newly developing territory.
What was the name of the first building opened in 1855?
5727ccb33acd2414000decb3
Old College
210
False
What did Northwestern sell to raise funds for it's first building?
5727ccb33acd2414000decb4
$100 "perpetual scholarships"
306
False
Who received free tuition after buying the $100 perpetual scholarships?
5727ccb33acd2414000decb5
the purchaser and his heirs
346
False
Who did Northwestern merge with in 1873?
5727ccb33acd2414000decb6
Evanston College for Ladies
625
False
Who was Northwestern's first dean of women?
5727ccb33acd2414000decb7
Frances Willard
683
False
Old College
210
What was the name of the first building opened in 1955?
5ad2b67cd7d075001a42a010
True
$100 "perpetual scholarships"
306
What did Southwestern sell to raise funds for it's first building?
5ad2b67cd7d075001a42a011
True
purchaser and his heirs
350
Who received free tuition after buying the $5600 perpetual scholarships?
5ad2b67cd7d075001a42a012
True
Evanston College for Ladies
625
Who did Northwestern merge with in 1973?
5ad2b67cd7d075001a42a013
True
Christian Temperance
781
Who was Northwestern's first dean of men?
5ad2b67cd7d075001a42a014
True
John Evans, for whom Evanston is named, bought 379 acres (153 ha) of land along Lake Michigan in 1853, and Philo Judson developed plans for what would become the city of Evanston, Illinois. The first building, Old College, opened on November 5, 1855. To raise funds for its construction, Northwestern sold $100 "perpetual scholarships" entitling the purchaser and his heirs to free tuition. Another building, University Hall, was built in 1869 of the same Joliet limestone as the Chicago Water Tower, also built in 1869, one of the few buildings in the heart of Chicago to survive the Great Chicago Fire of 1871. In 1873 the Evanston College for Ladies merged with Northwestern, and Frances Willard, who later gained fame as a suffragette and as one of the founders of the Woman's Christian Temperance Union (WCTU), became the school's first dean of women. Willard Residential College (1938) is named in her honor. Northwestern admitted its first women students in 1869, and the first woman was graduated in 1874.
What sports team did Northwestern field its first of in 1882?
5727ce8e2ca10214002d96e6
intercollegiate football
31
False
Which already existing schools did Northwestern affiliate itself with in the 1870's and 1880's?
5727ce8e2ca10214002d96e7
schools of law, medicine, and dentistry in Chicago
207
False
What is the oldest law school in Chicago?
5727ce8e2ca10214002d96e8
Northwestern University School of Law
263
False
What organization invited Northwestern to become a member in 1917?
5727ce8e2ca10214002d96e9
The Association of American Universities
658
False
What type of member was Northwestern of the Big Ten Conference?
5727ce8e2ca10214002d96ea
a founding member
85
False
intercollegiate football
31
What sports team did Northwestern field its first of in 1982?
5ad2b709d7d075001a42a01a
True
schools of law, medicine, and dentistry in Chicago
207
Which already existing schools did Southwestern affiliate itself with in the 1870's and 1880's?
5ad2b709d7d075001a42a01b
True
Association of American Universities
662
What is the youngest law school in Chicago?
5ad2b709d7d075001a42a01c
True
founding member
87
What type of member was Northwestern of the Big Eight Conference?
5ad2b709d7d075001a42a01d
True
Northwestern fielded its first intercollegiate football team in 1882, later becoming a founding member of the Big Ten Conference. In the 1870s and 1880s, Northwestern affiliated itself with already existing schools of law, medicine, and dentistry in Chicago. The Northwestern University School of Law is the oldest law school in Chicago. As the university increased in wealth and distinction, and enrollments grew, these professional schools were integrated with the undergraduate college in Evanston; the result was a modern research university combining professional, graduate, and undergraduate programs, which gave equal weight to teaching and research. The Association of American Universities invited Northwestern to become a member in 1917.
What type of campus did Northwestern begin construction of during Walter Dill Scott's presidency?
5727d0143acd2414000decff
integrated
94
False
What was the orginal name for Northwestern's Ryan Field?
5727d0143acd2414000ded00
Dyche Stadium
298
False
What merger was proposed and rejected in 1933?
5727d0143acd2414000ded01
Northwestern with the University of Chicago
398
False
What was Northwestern one of the first six universities in the U.S. to establish in the 1920's?
5727d0143acd2414000ded02
a Naval Reserve Officers Training Corps (NROTC)
555
False
What first-ever game did Northwestern host in 1939?
5727d0143acd2414000ded03
NCAA Men's Division I Basketball Championship
660
False
integrated
94
What type of campus did Northwestern begin construction of during Walter Dill Scott's vice-presidency?
5ad2bb6ad7d075001a42a08a
True
Dyche Stadium
298
What was the orginal name for Northwestern's Bryan Field?
5ad2bb6ad7d075001a42a08b
True
Northwestern with the University of Chicago
398
What merger was proposed and rejected in 1973?
5ad2bb6ad7d075001a42a08c
True
Naval Reserve Officers Training Corps (NROTC)
557
What was Northwestern one of the first seven universities in the U.S. to establish in the 1920's?
5ad2bb6ad7d075001a42a08d
True
NCAA Men's Division
660
What second-ever game did Northwestern host in 1939?
5ad2bb6ad7d075001a42a08e
True
Under Walter Dill Scott's presidency from 1920 to 1939, Northwestern began construction of an integrated campus in Chicago designed by James Gamble Rogers to house the professional schools; established the Kellogg School of Management; and built several prominent buildings on the Evanston campus, Dyche Stadium (now named Ryan Field) and Deering Library among others. In 1933, a proposal to merge Northwestern with the University of Chicago was considered but rejected. Northwestern was also one of the first six universities in the country to establish a Naval Reserve Officers Training Corps (NROTC) in the 1920s. Northwestern played host to the first-ever NCAA Men's Division I Basketball Championship game in 1939 in the original Patten Gymnasium, which was later demolished and relocated farther north along with the Dearborn Observatory to make room for the Technological Institute.
Which war transformed many colleges, including Northwestern?
5727dd873acd2414000dee65
World War II
75
False
Between 1939 and 1949, how many military officers and personnel were trained on the Evanston and Chicago campuses?
5727dd873acd2414000dee66
nearly 50,000
151
False
Under what Bill did enrollments surge after the war?
5727dd873acd2414000dee67
G.I. Bill
293
False
What center was founded by Melville J. Herskovits in 1948?
5727dd873acd2414000dee68
Program of African Studies at Northwestern
413
False
In 1978, what famous attacks occured at Northwestern?
5727dd873acd2414000dee69
first and second Unabomber
808
False
World War II
75
Which war transformed many high schools, including Northwestern?
5ad2bc07d7d075001a42a09c
True
nearly 50,000
151
Between 1939 and 1949, how many military officers and personnel weren't trained on the Evanston and Chicago campuses?
5ad2bc07d7d075001a42a09d
True
G.I. Bill
293
Under what Bill did nonenrollments surge after the war?
5ad2bc07d7d075001a42a09e
True
Program of African Studies at Northwestern
413
What center was founded by Melville J. Herskovits in 1978?
5ad2bc07d7d075001a42a09f
True
first and second Unabomber
808
In 1938, what famous attacks occured at Northwestern?
5ad2bc07d7d075001a42a0a0
True
Like other American research universities, Northwestern was transformed by World War II. Franklyn B. Snyder led the university from 1939 to 1949, when nearly 50,000 military officers and personnel were trained on the Evanston and Chicago campuses. After the war, surging enrollments under the G.I. Bill drove drastic expansion of both campuses. In 1948 prominent anthropologist Melville J. Herskovits founded the Program of African Studies at Northwestern, the first center of its kind at an American academic institution. J. Roscoe Miller's tenure as president from 1949 to 1970 was responsible for the expansion of the Evanston campus, with the construction of the lakefill on Lake Michigan, growth of the faculty and new academic programs, as well as polarizing Vietnam-era student protests. In 1978, the first and second Unabomber attacks occurred at Northwestern University. Relations between Evanston and Northwestern were strained throughout much of the post-war era because of episodes of disruptive student activism, disputes over municipal zoning, building codes, and law enforcement, as well as restrictions on the sale of alcohol near campus until 1972. Northwestern's exemption from state and municipal property tax obligations under its original charter has historically been a source of town and gown tension.
In 1999, who uncovered information that exonerated death row inmate Anthony Porter only 2 days before his scheduled death?
5727dfba2ca10214002d987e
Northwestern student journalists
498
False
What Northwestern program is responsible for exonerating more than 10 men?
5727dfba2ca10214002d987f
the Innocence Project
651
False
In 2003, where did Governor George Ryan announce that the sentences of more than 150 death row inmates would be commuted?
5727dfba2ca10214002d9880
Northwestern School of Law's Lincoln Hall
743
False
What was President Arnold R. Weber able to do with Northwestern's finances as the government's support of universities declined in the 70's and 80's?
5727dfba2ca10214002d9881
stabilize
114
False
Northwestern student journalists
498
In 1999, who uncovered information that exonerated death row inmate Anthony Porter only 4 days before his scheduled death?
5ad2be09d7d075001a42a0c2
True
Innocence Project
655
What Northwestern program is responsible for exonerating more than 15 men?
5ad2be09d7d075001a42a0c3
True
Northwestern School of Law's Lincoln Hall
743
In 2003, where did Governor George Ryan announce that the sentences of less than 10 death row inmates would be commuted?
5ad2be09d7d075001a42a0c4
True
stabilize
114
What was President Arnold R. Weber able to do with Northwestern's finances as the government's support of universities rose in the 70's and 80's?
5ad2be09d7d075001a42a0c5
True
Though government support for universities declined in the 1970s and 1980s, President Arnold R. Weber was able to stabilize university finances, leading to a revitalization of the campuses. As admissions to colleges and universities grew increasingly competitive in the 1990s and 2000s, President Henry S. Bienen's tenure saw a notable increase in the number and quality of undergraduate applicants, continued expansion of the facilities and faculty, and renewed athletic competitiveness. In 1999, Northwestern student journalists uncovered information exonerating Illinois death row inmate Anthony Porter two days before his scheduled execution, and the Innocence Project has since exonerated 10 more men. On January 11, 2003, in a speech at Northwestern School of Law's Lincoln Hall, then Governor of Illinois George Ryan announced that he would commute the sentences of more than 150 death row inmates.
What has been Northwestern's official color since 1892?
5727e1213acd2414000deec7
Purple
322
False
Why did Northwestern replace it's original official colors of black and gold?
5727e1213acd2414000deec8
too many other universities had used these colors
444
False
What is the meaning of the Latin phrase on Northwestern's seal?
5727e1213acd2414000deec9
Whatsoever things are true
63
False
What does the Greek phrase that is inscribed on the pages of an open book on the seal mean?
5727e1213acd2414000deeca
The Word full of grace and truth
287
False
What color besides purple is often considered an official color of Northwestern?
5727e1213acd2414000deecb
white
552
False
Purple
322
What has been Northwestern's official color since 1822?
5ad2c0f0d7d075001a42a0f0
True
too many other universities
444
Why did Northwestern replace it's original official colors of yellow and gold?
5ad2c0f0d7d075001a42a0f1
True
Whatsoever things are true
63
What is the meaning of the French phrase on Northwestern's seal?
5ad2c0f0d7d075001a42a0f2
True
The Word full of grace and truth
287
What does the Greek phrase that is inscribed on the pages of an closed book on the seal mean?
5ad2c0f0d7d075001a42a0f3
True
white
552
What color besides blue is often considered an official color of Northwestern?
5ad2c0f0d7d075001a42a0f4
True
The Latin phrase on Northwestern's seal, Quaecumque sunt vera (Whatsoever things are true) is drawn from the Epistle of Paul to the Philippians 4:8, while the Greek phrase inscribed on the pages of an open book is taken from the Gospel of John 1:14: ο λόγος πλήρης χάριτος και αληθείας (The Word full of grace and truth). Purple became Northwestern's official color in 1892, replacing black and gold after a university committee concluded that too many other universities had used these colors. Today, Northwestern's official color is purple, although white is something of an official color as well, being mentioned in both the university's earliest song, Alma Mater (1907) ("Hail to purple, hail to white") and in many university guidelines.
How did Northwestern create 84 additional acres in the 1960's?
5727e2e12ca10214002d98a2
by means of a lakefill in Lake Michigan
1018
False
Which campus holds the undergraduate schools, the Graduate school, and the Kellogg school of Management?
5727e2e12ca10214002d98a3
Evanston
15
False
What is noticably different between Northwestern's North and South Campuses?
5727e2e12ca10214002d98a4
atmospheres
283
False
Which campus is home to the fraternity quads?
5727e2e12ca10214002d98a5
North Campus
396
False
Which campus is home to the music and art buildings?
5727e2e12ca10214002d98a6
South Campus
768
False
lakefill in Lake Michigan
1032
How did Northwestern create 84 additional acres in the 1930's?
5ad2c3dad7d075001a42a13e
True
Evanston
15
Which campus holds the undergraduate schools, the Graduate school, and the Rice Krispie school of Management?
5ad2c3dad7d075001a42a13f
True
atmospheres
283
What is noticably similar between Northwestern's North and South Campuses?
5ad2c3dad7d075001a42a140
True
North
396
Which campus is not home to the fraternity quads?
5ad2c3dad7d075001a42a141
True
South
242
Which campus is not home to the music and art buildings?
5ad2c3dad7d075001a42a142
True
Northwestern's Evanston campus, where the undergraduate schools, the Graduate School, and the Kellogg School of Management are located, runs north-south from Lincoln Avenue to Clark Street west of Lake Michigan along Sheridan Road. North and South Campuses have noticeably different atmospheres, owing to the predominance of Science and Athletics in the one and Humanities and Arts in the other. North Campus is home to the fraternity quads, the Henry Crown Sports Pavilion and Norris Aquatics Center and other athletic facilities, the Technological Institute, Dearborn Observatory, and other science-related buildings including Patrick G. and Shirley W. Ryan Hall for Nanofabrication and Molecular Self-Assembly, and the Ford Motor Company Engineering Design Center. South Campus is home to the University's humanities buildings, Pick-Staiger Concert Hall and other music buildings, the Mary and Leigh Block Museum of Art, and the sorority quads. In the 1960s, the University created an additional 84 acres (34.0 ha) by means of a lakefill in Lake Michigan. Among some of the buildings located on these broad new acres are University Library, Norris University Center (the student union), and Pick-Staiger Concert Hall.
What is the name of the Chicago Transit Authority's elevated train through Evanston?
5727e4082ca10214002d98c0
the Purple Line
82
False
What was Chicago's Purple Line train route named after?
5727e4082ca10214002d98c1
Northwestern's school color
120
False
Which train stations are within walking distance of the southern end of campus?
5727e4082ca10214002d98c2
Foster and Davis
153
False
Which train station is close to the northern end of campus?
5727e4082ca10214002d98c3
Noyes
252
False
What is the name of Northwestern's football stadium?
5727e4082ca10214002d98c4
Ryan Field
342
False
Purple Line
86
What is the name of the Chicago Transit Authority's elevated train through Central?
5ad2c433d7d075001a42a152
True
Northwestern's school color
120
What was Chicago's Blue Line train route named after?
5ad2c433d7d075001a42a153
True
Foster and Davis
153
Which train stations are within driving distance of the southern end of campus?
5ad2c433d7d075001a42a154
True
Noyes
252
Which train station is close to the southern end of campus?
5ad2c433d7d075001a42a155
True
Ryan Field
342
What is the name of Northwestern's soccer stadium?
5ad2c433d7d075001a42a156
True
The Chicago Transit Authority's elevated train running through Evanston is called the Purple Line, taking its name from Northwestern's school color. The Foster and Davis stations are within walking distance of the southern end of the campus, while the Noyes station is close to the northern end of the campus. The Central station is close to Ryan Field, Northwestern's football stadium. The Evanston Davis Street Metra station serves the Northwestern campus in downtown Evanston and the Evanston Central Street Metra station is near Ryan Field. Pace Suburban Bus Service and the CTA have several bus routes that run through or near the Evanston campus.
In 1920, how many acres were purchased for $8 million for a new central Chicago campus?
5727e5dc2ca10214002d98fc
8.5
244
False
What style did architect James Gamble Rogers use for the principal buildings on the new Chicago campus?
5727e5dc2ca10214002d98fd
collegiate gothic
508
False
Who donated $8 million in 1923 for the construction of the Montgomery Ward Memorial Building?
5727e5dc2ca10214002d98fe
Mrs. Montgomery Ward
542
False
What two schools were housed in the Montgomery Ward Memorial Building?
5727e5dc2ca10214002d98ff
medical and dental
689
False
Which building became the first university skyscraper in the U.S.?
5727e5dc2ca10214002d9900
Montgomery Ward Memorial Building
633
False
8.5
244
In 1920, how many acres were purchased for $10 million for a new central Chicago campus?
5ad2c4bed7d075001a42a166
True
collegiate gothic
508
What style did architect James Gamble Rogers use for the principal buildings on the new LSD campus?
5ad2c4bed7d075001a42a167
True
Mrs. Montgomery Ward
542
Who donated $10 million in 1923 for the construction of the Montgomery Ward Memorial Building?
5ad2c4bed7d075001a42a168
True
medical and dental
689
What was the third schools were housed in the Montgomery Ward Memorial Building?
5ad2c4bed7d075001a42a169
True
Montgomery Ward Memorial
633
Which building became the second university skyscraper in the U.S.?
5ad2c4bed7d075001a42a16a
True
Founded at various times in the university's history, the professional schools originally were scattered throughout Chicago. In connection with a 1917 master plan for a central Chicago campus and President Walter Dill Scott's capital campaign, 8.5 acres (3.44 ha) of land were purchased at the corner of Chicago Avenue and Lake Shore Drive for $1.5 million in 1920. The architect James Gamble Rogers was commissioned to create a master plan for the principal buildings on the new campus which he designed in collegiate gothic style. In 1923, Mrs. Montgomery Ward donated $8 million to the campaign to finance the construction of the Montgomery Ward Memorial Building which would house the medical and dental schools and to create endowments for faculty chairs, research grants, scholarships, and building maintenance. The building would become the first university skyscraper in the United States. In addition to the Ward Building, Rogers designed Wieboldt Hall to house facilities for the School of Commerce and Levy Mayer Hall to house the School of Law. The new campus comprising these three new buildings was dedicated during a two-day ceremony in June 1927. The Chicago campus continued to expand with the addition of Thorne Hall in 1931 and Abbott Hall in 1939. In October 2013, Northwestern began the demolition of the architecturally significant Prentice Women's Hospital. Eric G. Neilson, dean of the medical school, penned an op-ed that equated retaining the building with loss of life.
What branch did Northwestern open in Education City, Doha, Qatar?
5727e7f83acd2414000def75
NU-Q
317
False
What bachelor's degree is offered at NU-Q through the Medill School of Journalism?
5727e7f83acd2414000def76
journalism
351
False
Who provided the funding for the construction and administrative costs for NU-Q?
5727e7f83acd2414000def77
The Qatar Foundation for Education, Science and Community Development
394
False
How long is the NU-Q branch of Northwestern scheduled to operate through an agreement in 2016?
5727e7f83acd2414000def78
through the 2027-2028 academic year
787
False
What bachelor's degree is offered at NU-Q through the School of Communication?
5727e7f83acd2414000def79
journalism
351
False
NU-Q
317
What branch did Southwestern open in Education City, Doha, Qatar?
5ad2c540d7d075001a42a180
True
Journalism
277
What non-bachelor's degree is offered at NU-Q through the Medill School of Journalism?
5ad2c540d7d075001a42a181
True
The Qatar Foundation for Education, Science and Community Development
394
Who provided the funding for the construction and administrative costs for NI-Q?
5ad2c540d7d075001a42a182
True
2027-2028 academic year
799
How long is the NU-Q branch of Northwestern scheduled to operate through an agreement in 2006?
5ad2c540d7d075001a42a183
True
journalism
351
What bachelor's degree is offered at NI-Q through the School of Communication?
5ad2c540d7d075001a42a184
True
In Fall 2008, Northwestern opened a campus in Education City, Doha, Qatar, joining five other American universities: Carnegie Mellon University, Cornell University, Georgetown University, Texas A&M University, and Virginia Commonwealth University. Through the Medill School of Journalism and School of Communication, NU-Q offers bachelor's degrees in journalism and communication respectively. The Qatar Foundation for Education, Science and Community Development provided funding for construction and administrative costs as well as support to hire 50 to 60 faculty and staff, some of whom rotate between the Evanston and Qatar campuses. In February 2016, Northwestern reached an agreement with the Qatar Foundation to extend the operations of the NU-Q branch for an additional decade, through the 2027-2028 academic year.
In 2009, who named Northwestern as one of the top 10 universities in the country in purchasing renewable energy?
5727e9803acd2414000defa9
Green Power Partnership
21
False
How much of the university's total annual electric bill is represented by the green power commitment?
5727e9803acd2414000defaa
30 percent
367
False
What grade was given to Northwestern on the 2010 College Sustainability Report Card  by The Sustainable Endowments Institute?
5727e9803acd2414000defab
B-
573
False
Which EPA club is Northwestern University included in?
5727e9803acd2414000defac
Green Power Leadership Club
464
False
Who sponsored the Green Power Partnership?
5727e9803acd2414000defad
the EPA
64
False
Green Power Partnership
21
In 2009, who named Northwestern as one of the top 5 universities in the country in purchasing renewable energy?
5ad2c578d7d075001a42a18a
True
30 percent
367
How much of the university's total annual electric bill is represented by the red power commitment?
5ad2c578d7d075001a42a18b
True
B-
573
What grade was given to Northwestern on the 2011 College Sustainability Report Card by The Sustainable Endowments Institute?
5ad2c578d7d075001a42a18c
True
Green Power Partnership
21
Which IPA club is Northwestern University included in?
5ad2c578d7d075001a42a18d
True
EPA's
458
Who sponsored the Red Power Partnership?
5ad2c578d7d075001a42a18e
True
In January 2009, the Green Power Partnership (GPP, sponsored by the EPA) listed Northwestern as one of the top 10 universities in the country in purchasing energy from renewable sources. The university matches 74 million kilowatt hours (kWh) of its annual energy use with Green-e Certified Renewable Energy Certificates (RECs). This green power commitment represents 30 percent of the university's total annual electricity use and places Northwestern in the EPA's Green Power Leadership Club. The 2010 Report by The Sustainable Endowments Institute awarded Northwestern a "B-" on its College Sustainability Report Card. The Initiative for Sustainability and Energy at Northwestern (ISEN), supporting research, teaching and outreach in these themes, was launched in 2008.
What is the required certification for all Northwestern buildings?
5727eae03acd2414000defdb
LEED
48
False
What percentage of improvement over energy code requirements will be the goal of all new construction and renovations?
5727eae03acd2414000defdc
at least a 20%
420
False
What does the Evanston Campus Framework Plan outline?
5727eae03acd2414000defdd
future development of the Evanston Campus
641
False
How many tons of waste are recycled at Northwestern yearly?
5727eae03acd2414000defde
1,500
940
False
How is all university landscape waste used?
5727eae03acd2414000defdf
composted
1090
False
LEED
323
What is the required certification for all Southwestern buildings?
5ad2c5dbd7d075001a42a1a8
True
at least a 20% improvement
420
What percentage of improvement over energy code requirements will be the goal of all old construction and renovations?
5ad2c5dbd7d075001a42a1a9
True
future development of the Evanston Campus
641
What doesn't the Evanston Campus Framework Plan outline?
5ad2c5dbd7d075001a42a1aa
True
1,500
940
How many gallons of waste are recycled at Northwestern yearly?
5ad2c5dbd7d075001a42a1ab
True
composted
1090
How is no university landscape waste used?
5ad2c5dbd7d075001a42a1ac
True
Northwestern requires that all new buildings be LEED-certified. Silverman Hall on the Evanston campus was awarded Gold LEED Certification in 2010; Wieboldt Hall on the Chicago campus was awarded Gold LEED Certification in 2007, and the Ford Motor Company Engineering Design Center on the Evanston campus was awarded Silver LEED Certification in 2006. New construction and renovation projects will be designed to provide at least a 20% improvement over energy code requirements where technically feasible. The university also released at the beginning of the 2008–09 academic year the Evanston Campus Framework Plan, which outlines plans for future development of the Evanston Campus. The plan not only emphasizes the sustainable construction of buildings, but also discusses improving transportation by optimizing pedestrian and bicycle access. Northwestern has had a comprehensive recycling program in place since 1990. Annually more than 1,500 tons are recycled at Northwestern, which represents 30% of the waste produced on campus. Additionally, all landscape waste at the university is composted.
Who governs Northwestern?
5727ee953acd2414000df01f
an appointed Board of Trustees
51
False
How many members are on Northwestern's Board of Trustees?
5727ee953acd2414000df020
70
106
False
Who does the Board of Trustees delegate it's power to?
5727ee953acd2414000df021
an elected president
197
False
How many presidents, excluding interrims, has Northwestern had?
5727ee953acd2414000df022
sixteen
298
False
Who has a staff of vice-presidents, directors, and other administrative assistants?
5727ee953acd2414000df023
the president
698
False
appointed Board of Trustees
54
Who governs Southwestern?
5ad2c6c1d7d075001a42a1bc
True
70
106
How many members are on Southwestern's Board of Trustees?
5ad2c6c1d7d075001a42a1bd
True
elected president
200
Who doesn't the Board of Trustees delegate it's power to?
5ad2c6c1d7d075001a42a1be
True
sixteen
298
How many presidents, excluding interrims, has Southwestern had?
5ad2c6c1d7d075001a42a1bf
True
the president
698
Who doesn't have a staff of vice-presidents, directors, and other administrative assistants?
5ad2c6c1d7d075001a42a1c0
True
Northwestern is privately owned and is governed by an appointed Board of Trustees. The board, composed of 70 members and as of 2011[update] chaired by William A. Osborn '69, delegates its power to an elected president to serve as the chief executive officer of the university. Northwestern has had sixteen presidents in its history (excluding interim presidents), the current president, Morton O. Schapiro, an economist, having succeeded Henry Bienen whose 14-year tenure ended on August 31, 2009. The president has a staff of vice presidents, directors, and other assistants for administrative, financial, faculty, and student matters. Daniel I. Linzer, provost since September 2007, serves under the president as the chief academic officer of the university to whom the deans of every academic school, leaders of cross-disciplinary units, and chairs of the standing faculty committee report.
How many undergraduate programs are offered by Northwestern?
5727ef71ff5b5019007d98ce
124
302
False
How many graduate and professional programs are offered by Northwestern?
5727ef71ff5b5019007d98cf
145
333
False
How many master's degrees did Northwestern confer during the 2012-2013 school term?
5727ef71ff5b5019007d98d0
3,272
422
False
How many doctoral degrees did Northwestern confer during the 2012-2013 school term?
5727ef71ff5b5019007d98d1
565
446
False
How many bachelor's degrees did Northwestern confer during the 2012-2013 school term?
5727ef71ff5b5019007d98d2
2,190
396
False
124
302
How many undergraduate programs are offered by Southwestern?
5ad2c708d7d075001a42a1c6
True
145
333
How many graduate and professional programs are offered by Southwestern?
5ad2c708d7d075001a42a1c7
True
3,272
422
How many master's degrees did Northwestern confer during the 2013-2014 school term?
5ad2c708d7d075001a42a1c8
True
565
446
How many doctoral degrees did Northwestern confer during the 2014-2015 school term?
5ad2c708d7d075001a42a1c9
True
2,190
396
How many bachelor's degrees did Southwestern confer during the 2012-2013 school term?
5ad2c708d7d075001a42a1ca
True
Northwestern is a large, residential research university. Accredited by the North Central Association of Colleges and Schools and the respective national professional organizations for chemistry, psychology, business, education, journalism, music, engineering, law, and medicine, the university offers 124 undergraduate programs and 145 graduate and professional programs. Northwestern conferred 2,190 bachelor's degrees, 3,272 master's degrees, 565 doctoral degrees, and 444 professional degrees in 2012–2013.
Which 4-year program comprises the majority of enrollments at Northwestern?
5727f1163acd2414000df051
full-time undergraduate
15
False
Who sets individual degree requirements at Northwestern?
5727f1163acd2414000df052
the faculty of each school
411
False
How many quarters are undergraduates required to complete on campus to graduate?
5727f1163acd2414000df053
at least twelve
761
False
How many courses do undergrads typically take each quarter?
5727f1163acd2414000df054
four
667
False
How many weeks is one academic quarter at Northwestern?
5727f1163acd2414000df055
approximately 10
514
False
full-time undergraduate
15
Which 4-year program comprises the minority of enrollments at Northwestern?
5ad2c7a0d7d075001a42a1da
True
the faculty
411
Who sets non-individual degree requirements at Northwestern?
5ad2c7a0d7d075001a42a1db
True
at least twelve
761
How many halves are undergraduates required to complete on campus to graduate?
5ad2c7a0d7d075001a42a1dc
True
four
667
How many courses do undergrads typically take each semester?
5ad2c7a0d7d075001a42a1dd
True
approximately 10
514
How many months is one academic quarter at Northwestern?
5ad2c7a0d7d075001a42a1de
True
The four-year, full-time undergraduate program comprises the majority of enrollments at the university and emphasizes instruction in the arts and sciences, plus the professions of engineering, journalism, communication, music, and education. Although a foundation in the liberal arts and sciences is required in all majors, there is no required common core curriculum; individual degree requirements are set by the faculty of each school. Northwestern's full-time undergraduate and graduate programs operate on an approximately 10-week academic quarter system with the academic year beginning in late September and ending in early June. Undergraduates typically take four courses each quarter and twelve courses in an academic year and are required to complete at least twelve quarters on campus to graduate. Northwestern offers honors, accelerated, and joint degree programs in medicine, science, mathematics, engineering, and journalism. The comprehensive doctoral graduate program has high coexistence with undergraduate programs.
What was the total undergrad tuition for the 2012/2013 school year?
5727f2323acd2414000df07d
$61,240
54
False
On what basis does Northwestern award financial aid?
5727f2323acd2414000df07e
need
319
False
What percentage of the June 2010 graduates received federal or private loans?
5727f2323acd2414000df07f
Approximately 44
759
False
What was the average debt for the June 2010 graduates?
5727f2323acd2414000df080
$17,200
923
False
How much financial aid did Northwestern process for the 2009-2010 academic year?
5727f2323acd2414000df081
in excess of $472 million
402
False
61,240
55
What was the total undergrad tuition for the 2015/2016 school year?
5ad2c7f1d7d075001a42a1ee
True
need
319
On what basis does Southwestern award financial aid?
5ad2c7f1d7d075001a42a1ef
True
17,20
924
What percentage of the June 2011 graduates received federal or private loans?
5ad2c7f1d7d075001a42a1f0
True
excess of $472 million
405
How much financial aid did Northwestern process for the 2019-2011 academic year?
5ad2c7f1d7d075001a42a1f1
True
Undergraduate tuition for the 2012/13 school year was $61,240; this includes the basic tuition of $43,380, fees (health $200, etc.), room and board of $13,329 (less if commuting), books and supplies $1,842, personal expenses $1,890, transportation cost of $400. Northwestern awards financial aid solely on the basis of need through loans, work-study, grants, and scholarships. The University processed in excess of $472 million in financial aid for the 2009–2010 academic year. This included $265 million in institutional funds, with the remainder coming from federal and state governments and private organizations and individuals. Northwestern scholarship programs for undergraduate students support needy students from a variety of income and backgrounds. Approximately 44 percent of the June 2010 graduates had received federal and/or private loans for their undergraduate education, graduating with an average debt of $17,200.
In the fall of 2014, which school did 40.6% of undergraduates enroll in?
5727f3593acd2414000df0af
Weinberg College of Arts and Sciences
110
False
In the fall of 2014, which school did 21.3% of undergraduates enroll in?
5727f3593acd2414000df0b0
McCormick School of Engineering and Applied Science
162
False
In the fall of 2014, which school did 14.3% of undergraduates enroll in?
5727f3593acd2414000df0b1
School of Communication
228
False
In the fall of 2014, which school did 11.7% of undergraduates enroll in?
5727f3593acd2414000df0b2
Medill School of Journalism
266
False
In the fall of 2014, which school did 5.7% of undergraduates enroll in?
5727f3593acd2414000df0b3
Bienen School of Music
307
False
Weinberg College of Arts and Sciences
110
In the fall of 2012, which school did 40.6% of undergraduates enroll in?
5ad2c833d7d075001a42a1f6
True
McCormick School of Engineering and Applied Science
162
In the fall of 2011, which school did 21.3% of undergraduates enroll in?
5ad2c833d7d075001a42a1f7
True
School of Communication
228
In the fall of 2013, which school did 14.3% of undergraduates enroll in?
5ad2c833d7d075001a42a1f8
True
Medill School of Journalism
266
In the fall of 2015, which school did 11.7% of undergraduates enroll in?
5ad2c833d7d075001a42a1f9
True
Bienen School of Music
307
In the fall of 2024, which school did 5.7% of undergraduates enroll in?
5ad2c833d7d075001a42a1fa
True
In the fall of 2014, among the six undergraduate schools, 40.6% of undergraduate students are enrolled in the Weinberg College of Arts and Sciences, 21.3% in the McCormick School of Engineering and Applied Science, 14.3% in the School of Communication, 11.7% in the Medill School of Journalism, 5.7% in the Bienen School of Music, and 6.4% in the School of Education and Social Policy. The five most commonly awarded undergraduate degrees are in economics, journalism, communication studies, psychology, and political science. While professional students are affiliated with their respective schools, the School of Professional Studies offers master's and bachelor's degree, and certificate programs tailored to the professional studies. With 2,446 students enrolled in science, engineering, and health fields, the largest graduate programs by enrollment include chemistry, integrated biology, material sciences, electrical and computer engineering, neuroscience, and economics. The Kellogg School of Management's MBA, the School of Law's JD, and the Feinberg School of Medicine's MD are the three largest professional degree programs by enrollment.
How selective are admissions at Northwestern characterized by U.S. News & World Report?
5727f4bcff5b5019007d992c
most selective
33
False
What percentage of applications were admitted for the undergraduate class entering in 2016?
5727f4bcff5b5019007d992d
10.7%
173
False
What percentage of freshman students enrolling in the class of 2019 ranked in the top 10% of their high school class?
5727f4bcff5b5019007d992e
91%
482
False
For freshman enrolling in the class of 2019, what was the interquartile range on the SAT for critical reading?
5727f4bcff5b5019007d992f
690–760
368
False
For freshman enrolling in the class of 2019, what was the interquartile range on the SAT for math?
5727f4bcff5b5019007d9930
710-800
401
False
most selective
33
How selective are admissions at Southwestern characterized by U.S. News & World Report?
5ad2c87ed7d075001a42a200
True
10.7%
173
What percentage of applications were admitted for the undergraduate class entering in 2017?
5ad2c87ed7d075001a42a201
True
91%
482
What percentage of freshman students enrolling in the class of 2009 ranked in the top 11% of their high school class?
5ad2c87ed7d075001a42a202
True
690–760
368
For freshman enrolling in the class of 2019, what was the interquartile range on the ACT for critical reading?
5ad2c87ed7d075001a42a203
True
710-800
401
For freshman enrolling in the class of 2017, what was the interquartile range on the SAT for math?
5ad2c87ed7d075001a42a204
True
Admissions are characterized as "most selective" by U.S. News & World Report. There were 35,099 applications for the undergraduate class of 2020 (entering 2016), and 3,751 (10.7%) were admitted, making Northwestern one of the most selective schools in the United States. For freshmen enrolling in the class of 2019, the interquartile range (middle 50%) on the SAT was 690–760 for critical reading and 710-800 for math, ACT composite scores for the middle 50% ranged from 31–34, and 91% ranked in the top ten percent of their high school class.
What City College initiative did Northwestern announce signing on with in 2016?
5727f604ff5b5019007d994e
the Chicago Star Partnership
59
False
Who encouraged local universities to increase opportunities for students in the public school districts?
5727f604ff5b5019007d994f
Mayor Rahm Emanuel
455
False
Through the Chicago Star Partnership, what is provided to students from Chicago public schools that meet further educational criteria?
5727f604ff5b5019007d9950
scholarships
229
False
Which mayor influenced the Chicago Star Partnership?
5727f604ff5b5019007d9951
Rahm Emanuel
461
False
Chicago Star Partnership
63
What City College initiative did Southwestern announce signing on with in 2016?
5ad2c8b1d7d075001a42a20a
True
Mayor Rahm Emanuel
455
Who encouraged local universities to decrease opportunities for students in the public school districts?
5ad2c8b1d7d075001a42a20b
True
scholarships
229
Through the Chicago Star Partnership, what is provided to students from Chicago private schools that meet further educational criteria?
5ad2c8b1d7d075001a42a20c
True
Rahm Emanuel
461
Which mayor influenced the Illinois Star Partnership?
5ad2c8b1d7d075001a42a20d
True
In April 2016, Northwestern announced that it signed on to the Chicago Star Partnership, a City Colleges initiative. Through this partnership, Northwestern is one of 15 Illinois public and private universities that will "provide scholarships to students who graduate from Chicago Public Schools, get their associate degree from one of the city's community colleges, and then get admitted to a bachelor's degree program." The partnership was influenced by Mayor Rahm Emanuel, who encouraged local universities to increase opportunities for students in the public school district. The University of Chicago, Northeastern Illinois University, the School of the Art Institute, DePaul University and Loyola University are also part of the Star Scholars partnership.
How many libraries are on the Evanston campus?
5727f926ff5b5019007d9996
four
44
False
How many volumes does the University Library contain?
5727f926ff5b5019007d9997
over 4.9 million
334
False
How does the University Library rank among North American university libraries?
5727f926ff5b5019007d9998
the 30th-largest
436
False
What does the Google Book Search project help libraries with?
5727f926ff5b5019007d9999
digitizing its collections
960
False
What is the largest African collection in the world that is part of the Northwesern library system?
5727f926ff5b5019007d999a
Melville J. Herskovits Library of African Studies
600
False
four
44
How many libraries are on the Illinois campus?
5ad2c918d7d075001a42a21c
True
4.9 million
339
How many volumes does the College Library contain?
5ad2c918d7d075001a42a21d
True
30th-largest
440
How does the University Library rank among South American university libraries?
5ad2c918d7d075001a42a21e
True
digitizing its collections
960
What does the Amazon Book Search project help libraries with?
5ad2c918d7d075001a42a21f
True
Melville J. Herskovits Library of African Studies
600
What is the largest African collection in the world that is part of the Southwesern library system?
5ad2c918d7d075001a42a220
True
The Northwestern library system consists of four libraries on the Evanston campus including the present main library, University Library and the original library building, Deering Library; three libraries on the Chicago campus; and the library affiliated with Garrett-Evangelical Theological Seminary. The University Library contains over 4.9 million volumes, 4.6 million microforms, and almost 99,000 periodicals making it (by volume) the 30th-largest university library in North America and the 10th-largest library among private universities. Notable collections in the library system include the Melville J. Herskovits Library of African Studies, the largest Africana collection in the world, an extensive collection of early edition printed music and manuscripts as well as late-modern works, and an art collection noted for its 19th and 20th-century Western art and architecture periodicals. The library system participates with 15 other universities in digitizing its collections as a part of the Google Book Search project. The Mary and Leigh Block Museum of Art is a major art museum in Chicago, containing more than 4,000 works in its permanent collection as well as dedicating a third of its space to temporary and traveling exhibitions.
When was Northwestern elected to the Association of American Universities?
5727fa854b864d190016412a
1917
72
False
Which of Northwestern's schools are among the most academically productive in the nation?
5727fa854b864d190016412b
management, engineering, and communication
173
False
In 2014, how much research funding did Northwestern receive?
5727fa854b864d190016412c
$550 million
296
False
Who discovered the drug that was ultimately marketed as Lyrica?
5727fa854b864d190016412d
chemistry professor Richard Silverman
827
False
How many companies were started through Northwestern's Innovations and New Ventures Office?
5727fa854b864d190016412e
12
652
False
1917
72
When was Southwestern elected to the Association of American Universities?
5ad2c950d7d075001a42a226
True
management, engineering, and communication
173
Which of Southwestern's schools are among the most academically productive in the nation?
5ad2c950d7d075001a42a227
True
$550 million
296
In 2012, how much research funding did Northwestern receive?
5ad2c950d7d075001a42a228
True
Richard Silverman
847
Who discovered the drug that was never marketed as Lyrica?
5ad2c950d7d075001a42a229
True
12
652
How many companies were started through Southwestern's Innovations and New Ventures Office?
5ad2c950d7d075001a42a22a
True
Northwestern was elected to the Association of American Universities in 1917 and remains a research university with "very high" research activity. Northwestern's schools of management, engineering, and communication are among the most academically productive in the nation. Northwestern received $550 million in research funding in 2014. Northwestern supports nearly 1,500 research laboratories across two campuses, predominately in the medical and biological sciences. Through the Innovation and New Ventures Office (INVO), Northwestern researchers disclosed 247 inventions, filed 270 patents applications, received 81 foreign and US patents, started 12 companies, and generated $79.8 million in licensing revenue in 2013. The bulk of revenue has come from a patent on pregabalin, a synthesized organic molecule discovered by chemistry professor Richard Silverman, which ultimately was marketed as Lyrica, a drug sold by Pfizer, to combat epilepsy, neuropathic pain, and fibromyalgia. INVO has been involved in creating a number of centers, including the Center for Developmental Therapeutics (CDT) and the Center for Device Development (CD2). It has also helped form over 50 Northwestern startup companies based on Northwestern technologies.
Where is the home of the Center for Catalysis and Surface Science?
5727fb814b864d1900164148
Northwestern
0
False
Where is the home of the International Institute for Nanotechnology?
5727fb814b864d1900164149
Northwestern
0
False
Where is the home of the Materials Research Center?
5727fb814b864d190016414a
Northwestern
0
False
Where is the home for the Institute for Policy Research?
5727fb814b864d190016414b
Northwestern
0
False
Where is the home of the Buffet Center for International and Comparative Studies?
5727fb814b864d190016414c
Northwestern
0
False
Northwestern
0
Where isn't the home of the Center for Catalysis and Surface Science?
5ad2c97fd7d075001a42a23a
True
Northwestern
0
Where is the home of the National Institute for Nanotechnology?
5ad2c97fd7d075001a42a23b
True
Northwestern
0
Where is the home of the Non-Materials Research Center?
5ad2c97fd7d075001a42a23c
True
Northwestern
0
Where is the home for the Institute for Non-Policy Research?
5ad2c97fd7d075001a42a23d
True
Northwestern
0
Where is the home of the Buffet Center for National and Comparative Studies?
5ad2c97fd7d075001a42a23e
True
Northwestern is home to the Center for Interdisciplinary Exploration and Research in Astrophysics, Northwestern Institute for Complex Systems, Nanoscale Science and Engineering Center, Materials Research Center, Institute for Policy Research, International Institute for Nanotechnology, Center for Catalysis and Surface Science, Buffet Center for International and Comparative Studies, the Initiative for Sustainability and Energy at Northwestern and the Argonne/Northwestern Solar Energy Research Center and other centers for interdisciplinary research.
How much money has the traditional Northwestern Dance Marathon raised for children's charities?
5727fd7e2ca10214002d9ac8
more than 13 million dollars
301
False
What do students do during the traditional Primal Scream event held before finals week every quarter?
5727fd7e2ca10214002d9ac9
scream
516
False
What is the popular name for Northwestern's traditional Armadillo Day?
5727fd7e2ca10214002d9aca
Dillo Day
559
False
When is Armadillo Day held every year?
5727fd7e2ca10214002d9acb
on the weekend after Memorial Day
643
False
What name is freshman orientation known as?
5727fd7e2ca10214002d9acc
Wildcat Welcome
776
False
13 million dollars
311
How much money has the traditional Southwestern Dance Marathon raised for children's charities?
5ad2c9bfd7d075001a42a244
True
scream
516
What do students do during the traditional Primal Scream event held before finals week every year?
5ad2c9bfd7d075001a42a245
True
weekend after Memorial Day
650
What is the popular name for Southwestern's traditional Armadillo Day?
5ad2c9bfd7d075001a42a246
True
Wildcat Welcome
776
What name is sophomore orientation known as?
5ad2c9bfd7d075001a42a247
True
The undergraduates have a number of traditions: Painting The Rock (originally a fountain donated by the Class of 1902) is a way to advertise, for example, campus organizations, events in Greek life, student groups, and university-wide events. Dance Marathon, a 30-hour philanthropic event, has raised more than 13 million dollars in its history for various children's charities. Primal Scream is held at 9 p.m. on the Sunday before finals week every quarter; students lean out of windows or gather in courtyards and scream. Armadillo Day, or, more popularly, Dillo Day, a day of music and food, is held on Northwestern's Lakefill every Spring on the weekend after Memorial Day. And in one of the University's newer traditions, every year during freshman orientation, known as Wildcat Welcome, freshmen and transfer students pass through Weber Arch to the loud huzzahs of upperclassmen and the music of the University Marching Band.
What do students traditionally do at the beginning of each football game kickoff?
5727ff3c4b864d19001641be
jingle keys
185
False
What football game tradition has since been discontinued?
5727ff3c4b864d19001641bf
students would throw marshmallows during games
283
False
What color does the Clock Tower glow after a winning football game?
5727ff3c4b864d19001641c0
purple
381
False
What noise do students make when the opposing team has control of the football?
5727ff3c4b864d19001641c1
growl
67
False
How long does the Clock Tower remain purple after a winning game?
5727ff3c4b864d19001641c2
until a loss or until the end of the sports season
506
False
jingle keys
185
What do students traditionally do at the beginning of each soccer game kickoff?
5ad2ca02d7d075001a42a254
True
students would throw marshmallows during games
283
What soccer game tradition has since been discontinued?
5ad2ca02d7d075001a42a255
True
purple
381
What color does the Clock Tower glow after a winning soccer game?
5ad2ca02d7d075001a42a256
True
growl
67
What noise do students make when the opposing team has control of the soccer?
5ad2ca02d7d075001a42a257
True
until a loss or until the end of the sports season.
506
How long does the Clock Tower remain white after a winning game?
5ad2ca02d7d075001a42a258
True
There are traditions long associated with football games. Students growl like wildcats when the opposing team controls the ball, while simulating a paw with their hands. They will also jingle keys at the beginning of each kickoff. In the past, before the tradition was discontinued, students would throw marshmallows during games. The Clock Tower at the Rebecca Crown Center glows purple, instead of its usual white, after a winning game, thereby proclaiming the happy news. The Clock Tower remains purple until a loss or until the end of the sports season. Whereas formerly the Clock Tower was lighted only for football victories, wins for men's basketball and women's lacrosse now merit commemoration as well; important victories in other sports may also prompt an empurpling.
What are the two most notable productions each year at Northwestern?
572800904b864d19001641d2
the Waa-Mu show, and the Dolphin show
47
False
Who is the Waa-Muu show primarily written and produced by?
572800904b864d19001641d3
students
157
False
What does StuCo stand for?
572800904b864d19001641d4
Student Theatre Coalition
286
False
How many student theatre companies does StuCo organize?
572800904b864d19001641d5
nine
333
False
Which theater company was founded by several Northwestern alumni in 1988?
572800904b864d19001641d6
Chicago's Lookingglass
563
False
Waa-Mu show, and the Dolphin show
51
What are the two most notable productions each year at Southwestern?
5ad2ca4ed7d075001a42a25e
True
students
157
Who is the Waa-Muu show primarily sung by?
5ad2ca4ed7d075001a42a25f
True
Student Theatre Coalition
286
What does StuPo stand for?
5ad2ca4ed7d075001a42a260
True
sixty
407
How many student theatre companies does StuDo organize?
5ad2ca4ed7d075001a42a261
True
Lookingglass
573
Which theater company was founded by several Southwestern alumni in 1988?
5ad2ca4ed7d075001a42a262
True
Two annual productions are especially notable: the Waa-Mu show, and the Dolphin show. Waa-Mu is an original musical, written and produced almost entirely by students. Children's theater is represented on campus by Griffin's Tale and Purple Crayon Players. Its umbrella organization—the Student Theatre Coalition, or StuCo, organizes nine student theatre companies, multiple performance groups and more than sixty independent productions each year. Many Northwestern alumni have used these productions as stepping stones to successful television and film careers. Chicago's Lookingglass Theatre Company, for example, which began life in the Great Room in Jones Residential College, was founded in 1988 by several alumni, including David Schwimmer; in 2011, it won the Regional Tony Award.
What 30 hour event raised more than a million dollars for charity in 2011?
572802ae4b864d1900164212
Dance Marathon
94
False
What is the name of the Halloween celebration to which over 800 local children are invited?
572802ae4b864d1900164213
Project Pumpkin
195
False
What is the name of the Northwestern program for students interested in community service?
572802ae4b864d1900164214
Freshman Urban Program
720
False
What is the name of the university's group service-learning expedition in Asia, Africa or Latin America?
572802ae4b864d1900164215
Global Engagement Summer Institute
871
False
What does NCDC stand for?
572802ae4b864d1900164216
Northwestern Community Development Corps
250
False
Dance Marathon
94
What 24 hour event raised more than a million dollars for charity in 2011?
5ad2ca90d7d075001a42a268
True
Project Pumpkin
195
What is the name of the Halloween celebration to which over 700 local children are invited?
5ad2ca90d7d075001a42a269
True
Freshman Urban Program
720
What is the name of the Northwestern program for teachers interested in community service?
5ad2ca90d7d075001a42a26a
True
Global Engagement Summer Institute
871
What is the name of the university's group service-learning expedition in Australia?
5ad2ca90d7d075001a42a26b
True
Northwestern Community Development Corps
250
What does ICDC stand for?
5ad2ca90d7d075001a42a26c
True
Many students are involved in community service in one form or another. Annual events include Dance Marathon, a thirty-hour event that raised more than a million dollars for charity in 2011; and Project Pumpkin, a Halloween celebration hosted by the Northwestern Community Development Corps (NCDC) to which more than 800 local children are invited for an afternoon of games and sweets. NCDC's work is to connect hundreds of student volunteers to some twenty volunteer sites in Evanston and Chicago throughout the year. Many students have assisted with the Special Olympics and have taken alternative spring break trips to hundreds of service sites across the United States. Northwestern students also participate in the Freshman Urban Program, a program for students interested in community service. A large and growing number of students participate in the university's Global Engagement Summer Institute (GESI), a group service-learning expedition in Asia, Africa, or Latin America, in conjunction with the Foundation for Sustainable Development. Several internationally recognized non-profit organizations have originated at Northwestern including the World Health Imaging, Informatics and Telemedicine Alliance, a spin-off from an engineering student's honors thesis.
What percentage of undergraduates were affiliated with a fraternity or sorority in Winter 2013?
572803c8ff5b5019007d9afa
39%
559
False
How many fraternities does Northwestern recognize?
572803c8ff5b5019007d9afb
21
652
False
How many sororities does Northwestern recognize?
572803c8ff5b5019007d9afc
18
672
False
What is the name of the Residential College that houses students with an interest in science and engineering?
572803c8ff5b5019007d9afd
Slivka
374
False
Which dorms are commonly referred to as Plex?
572803c8ff5b5019007d9afe
Foster-Walker complex
471
False
39%
559
What percentage of undergraduates were affiliated with a fraternity or sorority in Winter 2011?
5ad2cbc3d7d075001a42a28e
True
21
652
How many fraternities does Southwestern recognize?
5ad2cbc3d7d075001a42a28f
True
18
672
How many sororities does Southwestern recognize?
5ad2cbc3d7d075001a42a290
True
Slivka
374
What is the name of the Residential College that houses students with an interest in English?
5ad2cbc3d7d075001a42a291
True
Foster-Walker complex
471
Which dorms are commonly referred to as Flex?
5ad2cbc3d7d075001a42a292
True
Northwestern has several housing options, including both traditional residence halls and residential colleges which gather together students who have a particular intellectual interest in common. Among the residential colleges are the Residential College of Cultural and Community Studies (CCS), Ayers College of Commerce and Industry, Jones Residential College (Arts), and Slivka Residential College (Science and Engineering). Dorms include 1835 Hinman, Bobb-McCulloch, Foster-Walker complex (commonly referred to as Plex), and several more. In Winter 2013, 39% of undergraduates were affiliated with a fraternity or sorority. Northwestern recognizes 21 fraternities and 18 sororities.
What is the name of Northwestern's main student newspaper?
572804a92ca10214002d9ba8
The Daily Northwestern
0
False
Who is The Daily Northwestern entirely directed by?
572804a92ca10214002d9ba9
undergraduates
154
False
Who owns The Daily Northwestern?
572804a92ca10214002d9baa
the Students Publishing Company
321
False
What is the name of Northwestern's undergraduate yearbook?
572804a92ca10214002d9bab
Syllabus
694
False
What undergraduate satirical magazine was founded in 2009?
572804a92ca10214002d9bac
Northwestern Flipside
934
False
The Daily Northwestern
0
What is the name of Southwestern's main student newspaper?
5ad2ceb6d7d075001a42a2ea
True
undergraduates
154
Who is The Daily Southwestern entirely directed by?
5ad2ceb6d7d075001a42a2eb
True
Students Publishing Company
325
Who owns The Daily Southwestern?
5ad2ceb6d7d075001a42a2ec
True
Syllabus
694
What is the name of Southwestern's undergraduate yearbook?
5ad2ceb6d7d075001a42a2ed
True
Northwestern Flipside
934
What undergraduate satirical magazine was founded in 2007?
5ad2ceb6d7d075001a42a2ee
True
The Daily Northwestern is the main student newspaper. Established in 1881, and published on weekdays during the academic year, it is directed entirely by undergraduates. Although it serves the Northwestern community, the Daily has no business ties to the university, being supported wholly by advertisers. It is owned by the Students Publishing Company. North by Northwestern is an online undergraduate magazine, having been established in September 2006 by students at the Medill School of Journalism. Published on weekdays, it consists of updates on news stories and special events inserted throughout the day and on weekends. North by Northwestern also publishes a quarterly print magazine. Syllabus is the undergraduate yearbook. First published in 1885, the yearbook is an epitome of that year's events at Northwestern. Published by Students Publishing Company and edited by Northwestern students, it is distributed in late May. Northwestern Flipside is an undergraduate satirical magazine. Founded in 2009, The Flipside publishes a weekly issue both in print and online. Helicon is the university's undergraduate literary magazine. Started in 1979, it is published twice a year, a web issue in the Winter, and a print issue with a web complement in the Spring. The Protest is Northwestern's quarterly social justice magazine. The Northwestern division of Student Multicultural Affairs also supports publications such as NUAsian, a magazine and blog about Asian and Asian-American culture and the issues facing Asians and Asian-Americans, Ahora, a magazine about Hispanic and Latino/a culture and campus life, BlackBoard Magazine about African-American life, and Al Bayan published by the Northwestern Muslim-cultural Student Association.
What is the name of the scholarly legal publication at Northwestern School of Law?
5728064bff5b5019007d9b20
The Northwestern University Law Review
0
False
What type of journal does the Law Review strive to publish?
5728064bff5b5019007d9b21
a journal of broad legal scholarship
186
False
How many issues does the Law Review publish each year?
5728064bff5b5019007d9b22
four
249
False
Who publishes the Northwestern Journal of Technology and Intellectual Property?
5728064bff5b5019007d9b23
an independent student organization at Northwestern University School of Law
648
False
Who makes the editorial decisions for The Northwestern University Law Review?
5728064bff5b5019007d9b24
Student editors
272
False
Northwestern University Law Review
4
What is the name of the scholarly legal publication at Southwestern School of Law?
5ad2cf36d7d075001a42a306
True
journal of broad legal scholarship
188
What type of songs do the Law Review strive to publish?
5ad2cf36d7d075001a42a307
True
four
249
How many songs does the Law Review publish each year?
5ad2cf36d7d075001a42a308
True
Student editors
272
Who publishes the Southwestern Journal of Technology and Intellectual Property?
5ad2cf36d7d075001a42a309
True
The Northwestern University Law Review is a scholarly legal publication and student organization at Northwestern University School of Law. The Law Review's primary purpose is to publish a journal of broad legal scholarship. The Law Review publishes four issues each year. Student editors make the editorial and organizational decisions and select articles submitted by professors, judges, and practitioners, as well as student pieces. The Law Review recently extended its presence onto the web, and now publishes scholarly pieces weekly on the Colloquy. The Northwestern Journal of Technology and Intellectual Property is a law review published by an independent student organization at Northwestern University School of Law. Its Bluebook abbreviation is Nw. J. Tech. & Intell. Prop. The current editor-in-chief is Aisha Lavinier.
What journal was founded in 2008 that features articles by professors and law students?
572807ba4b864d190016428a
The Northwestern Interdisciplinary Law Review
0
False
Who funds The Northwestern Interdisciplinary Law Review?
572807ba4b864d190016428b
Buffett Center for International and Comparative Studies and the Office of the Provost
454
False
How often is The Northwestern Interdisciplinary Law Review published?
572807ba4b864d190016428c
annually
89
False
Who publishes The Northwestern Interdisciplinary Law Review?
572807ba4b864d190016428d
an editorial board of Northwestern University undergraduates
101
False
Northwestern Interdisciplinary Law Review
4
What journal was founded in 2018 that features articles by professors and law students?
5ad2cf6ad7d075001a42a30e
True
Buffett Center for International and Comparative Studies and the Office of the Provost
454
Who funds The Southwestern Interdisciplinary Law Review?
5ad2cf6ad7d075001a42a30f
True
annually
89
How often is The Southwestern Interdisciplinary Law Review published?
5ad2cf6ad7d075001a42a310
True
editorial board of Northwestern University undergraduates
104
Who publishes The Southwestern Interdisciplinary Law Review?
5ad2cf6ad7d075001a42a311
True
The Northwestern Interdisciplinary Law Review is a scholarly legal publication published annually by an editorial board of Northwestern University undergraduates. The journal's mission is to publish interdisciplinary legal research, drawing from fields such as history, literature, economics, philosophy, and art. Founded in 2008, the journal features articles by professors, law students, practitioners, and undergraduates. The journal is funded by the Buffett Center for International and Comparative Studies and the Office of the Provost.
What is the name Northwestern's humor website formed in 2011?
572808ae2ca10214002d9c18
Sherman Ave
0
False
What do many of the writers staffed by Sherman Ave write under?
572808ae2ca10214002d9c19
pseudonyms
233
False
Which website publishes the well known "Freshman Guide"?
572808ae2ca10214002d9c1a
Sherman Ave
0
False
Sherman Ave
0
What is the name Northwestern's humor website formed in 2012?
5ad2cf8fd7d075001a42a316
True
pseudonyms
233
What do many of the singers staffed by Sherman Ave write under?
5ad2cf8fd7d075001a42a317
True
Sherman Ave
0
Which website publishes the well known "Sophomore Guide"?
5ad2cf8fd7d075001a42a318
True
Sherman Ave is a humor website that formed in January 2011. The website often publishes content about Northwestern student life, and most of Sherman Ave's staffed writers are current Northwestern undergraduate students writing under pseudonyms. The publication is well known among students for its interviews of prominent campus figures, its "Freshman Guide", its live-tweeting coverage of football games, and its satiric campaign in autumn 2012 to end the Vanderbilt University football team's clubbing of baby seals.
What is the publication that is dedicated to the analysis of current events and public policy?
57280996ff5b5019007d9b84
Politics & Policy
0
False
How many college campuses does Politics & Policy reach worldwide?
57280996ff5b5019007d9b85
250
293
False
Who completely runs Politics and Policy?
57280996ff5b5019007d9b86
undergraduates
348
False
Who partially funds Politics and Policy?
57280996ff5b5019007d9b87
the Buffett Center
533
False
How often is Politics & Policy published?
57280996ff5b5019007d9b88
several times a week
392
False
Politics & Policy
0
What is the publication that is dedicated to the analysis of current events and private policy?
5ad2cfe0d7d075001a42a324
True
250
293
How many college campuses does Politics & Policy reach statewide?
5ad2cfe0d7d075001a42a325
True
undergraduates
348
Who doesn't run Politics and Policy?
5ad2cfe0d7d075001a42a326
True
Buffett Center
537
Who completely funds Politics and Policy?
5ad2cfe0d7d075001a42a327
True
several times a week
392
How often is Politics & Policy not published?
5ad2cfe0d7d075001a42a328
True
Politics & Policy was founded at Northwestern and is dedicated to the analysis of current events and public policy. Begun in 2010 by students in the Weinberg College of Arts and Sciences, School of Communication, and Medill School of Journalism, the organization reaches students on more than 250 college campuses around the world. Run entirely by undergraduates, Politics & Policy publishes several times a week with material ranging from short summaries of events to extended research pieces. The organization is funded in part by the Buffett Center.
How many men's intercollegiate athletic teams are fielded by Northwestern?
57280ae14b864d19001642d2
8
55
False
How many women's intercollegiate athletic teams are fielded by Northwestern?
57280ae14b864d19001642d3
11
67
False
How many consecutive NCAA championships did the women's larcrosse team win between 2005 and 2009?
57280ae14b864d19001642d4
five
146
False
Who recognized the men's basketball team as the 1931 National Champion?
57280ae14b864d19001642d5
Helms Athletic Foundation
423
False
How many of Northwestern's 19 varsity programs had NCAA or bowl postseason appearances?
57280ae14b864d19001642d6
12
817
False
8
55
How many women's intercollegiate athletic teams are fielded by Northwestern?
5ad2d01cd7d075001a42a32e
True
11
67
How many men's intercollegiate athletic teams are fielded by Northwestern?
5ad2d01cd7d075001a42a32f
True
five
146
How many consecutive NCAA championships did the men's larcrosse team win between 2005 and 2009?
5ad2d01cd7d075001a42a330
True
Helms Athletic Foundation
423
Who recognized the women's basketball team as the 1931 National Champion?
5ad2d01cd7d075001a42a331
True
12
552
How many of Southwestern's 19 varsity programs had NCAA or bowl postseason appearances?
5ad2d01cd7d075001a42a332
True
Northwestern fields 19 intercollegiate athletic teams (8 men's and 11 women's) in addition to numerous club sports. The women's lacrosse team won five consecutive NCAA national championships between 2005 and 2009, went undefeated in 2005 and 2009, added more NCAA championships in 2011 and 2012, giving them 7 NCAA championships in 8 years, and holds several scoring records. The men's basketball team is recognized by the Helms Athletic Foundation as the 1931 National Champion. In the 2010–11 school year, the Wildcats had one national championship, 12 teams in postseason play, 20 All-Americans, two CoSIDA Academic All-American selections, 8 CoSIDA Academic All0District selections, 1 conference Coach of the Year and Player of the Year, 53 All-Conference and a record 201 Academic All-Big Ten athletes. Overall, 12 of Northwestern's 19 varsity programs had NCAA or bowl postseason appearances.
Where do Northwestern's basketball, wrestling, and volleyball teams play?
57280be44b864d1900164306
Welsh-Ryan Arena
129
False
What is the nickname given to Northwestern's athletic teams?
57280be44b864d1900164307
Wildcats
195
False
What was the official nickname of Northwestern's athletic teams prior to 1924?
57280be44b864d1900164308
The Purple
238
False
What was the unofficial nickname of the Northwestern athletic teams prior to 1924?
57280be44b864d1900164309
The Fighting Methodists
271
False
What name did the student body unsuccessfully try to rename the Wildcats in 1972?
57280be44b864d190016430a
Purple Haze
798
False
Welsh-Ryan Arena
129
Where do Southwestern's basketball, wrestling, and volleyball teams play?
5ad2d0aad7d075001a42a338
True
Wildcats
195
What is the nickname given to Southwestern's athletic teams?
5ad2d0aad7d075001a42a339
True
Purple
242
What was the official nickname of Northwestern's athletic teams prior to 1922
5ad2d0aad7d075001a42a33a
True
The Fighting Methodists
271
What was the unofficial nickname of the Northwestern athletic teams prior to 1921?
5ad2d0aad7d075001a42a33b
True
Purple Haze
798
What name did the student body unsuccessfully try to rename the Wildcats in 1970?
5ad2d0aad7d075001a42a33c
True
The football team plays at Ryan Field (formerly known as Dyche Stadium); the basketball, wrestling, and volleyball teams play at Welsh-Ryan Arena. Northwestern's athletic teams are nicknamed the Wildcats. Before 1924, they were known as "The Purple" and unofficially as "The Fighting Methodists." The name Wildcats was bestowed upon the university in 1924 by Wallace Abbey, a writer for the Chicago Daily Tribune who wrote that even in a loss to the University of Chicago, "Football players had not come down from Evanston; wildcats would be a name better suited to [Coach Glenn] Thistletwaite's boys." The name was so popular that university board members made "wildcats" the official nickname just months later. In 1972, the student body voted to change the official nickname from "Wildcats" to "Purple Haze" but the new name never stuck.
Who is the mascot of Northwestern Athletics?
57280cfc3acd2414000df323
Willie the Wildcat
40
False
What was the first mascot of Northwestern Athletics?
57280cfc3acd2414000df324
a live, caged bear cub from the Lincoln Park Zoo
91
False
What was the name of Northwestern Athletics's bear cub mascot?
57280cfc3acd2414000df325
Furpaw
146
False
Who did the athletic team blame for it's first losing season?
57280cfc3acd2414000df326
Furpaw
281
False
What did the athletic team do with Furpaw after they lost the first season?
57280cfc3acd2414000df327
banished him from campus forever
321
False
Willie the Wildcat
40
Who is the mascot of Southwestern Athletics?
5ad2d117d7d075001a42a342
True
live, caged bear cub
93
What was the second mascot of Northwestern Athletics?
5ad2d117d7d075001a42a343
True
Furpaw
281
What was the name of Southwestern Athletics's bear cub mascot?
5ad2d117d7d075001a42a344
True
Furpaw
281
Who did the athletic team blame for it's first losing season?
5ad2d117d7d075001a42a345
True
banished him from campus forever
321
What did the athletic team do with Furpaw after they lost the third season?
5ad2d117d7d075001a42a346
True
The mascot of Northwestern Athletics is Willie the Wildcat. The first mascot, however, was a live, caged bear cub from the Lincoln Park Zoo named Furpaw who was brought to the playing field on the day of a game to greet the fans. But after a losing season, the team, deciding that Furpaw was to blame for its misfortune, banished him from campus forever. Willie the Wildcat made his debut in 1933 first as a logo, and then in three dimensions in 1947, when members of the Alpha Delta fraternity dressed as wildcats during a Homecoming Parade. The Northwestern University Marching Band (NUMB) performs at all home football games and leads cheers in the student section and performs the Alma Mater at the end of the game.
How many appearances has Northwestern's football team made in the top 10 AP poll since 1936?
57280e204b864d1900164334
73
38
False
How many consecutive games did Northwestern lose during it's longest losing streak between 1979 and 1982?
57280e204b864d1900164335
34
256
False
What was the first bowl game Northwestern appeared in after 1949?
57280e204b864d1900164336
1996 Rose Bowl
356
False
What was the first bowl won by Northwestern after the 1949 Rose Bowl?
57280e204b864d1900164337
2013 Gator Bowl
435
False
In 2006, which Northwestern linebacker became the youngest Division/FBS coach at the time?
57280e204b864d1900164338
Pat Fitzgerald
575
False
73
38
How many appearances has Southwestern's football team made in the top 10 AP poll since 1936?
5ad2d165d7d075001a42a356
True
34
256
How many consecutive games did Northwestern lose during it's longest losing streak between 1980 and 1992?
5ad2d165d7d075001a42a357
True
1996 Rose Bowl
356
What was the second bowl game Northwestern appeared in after 1949?
5ad2d165d7d075001a42a358
True
1996 Rose Bowl
356
What was the first bowl won by Northwestern after the 1950 Rose Bowl?
5ad2d165d7d075001a42a359
True
2013 Gator Bowl
435
What was the first bowl won by Northwestern after the 1990 Rose Bowl?
5ad2d165d7d075001a42a35a
True
Northwestern's football team has made 73 appearances in the top 10 of the AP poll since 1936 (including 5 at #1) and has won eight Big Ten conference championships since 1903. At one time, Northwestern had the longest losing streak in Division I-A, losing 34 consecutive games between 1979 and 1982. They did not appear in a bowl game after 1949 until the 1996 Rose Bowl. The team did not win a bowl since the 1949 Rose Bowl until the 2013 Gator Bowl. Following the sudden death of football coach Randy Walker in 2006, 31-year-old former All-American Northwestern linebacker Pat Fitzgerald assumed the position, becoming the youngest Division I FBS coach at the time.
What were 2 former Northwestern basketball players charged and convicted for in 1998?
57280fd92ca10214002d9cf6
sports bribery
83
False
What did federal prosecutors indict four former players for in a separate betting scandal?
57280fd92ca10214002d9cf7
perjury related to betting on their own games
349
False
What did an autopsy reveal was in Rashidi Wheeler's system after he died during a practice?
57280fd92ca10214002d9cf8
ephedrine
536
False
In 2006, what prompted the women's soccer team coach, Jenny Haigh,  to resign?
57280fd92ca10214002d9cf9
the release of images of alleged hazing
832
False
After the death of Rashidi Wheeler in 2001, which athletic programs were investigated for stimulants and other banned substances?
57280fd92ca10214002d9cfa
all
701
False
sports bribery
83
What were 2 former Northwestern soccer players charged and convicted for in 1998?
5ad2d1acd7d075001a42a36a
True
perjury related to betting on their own games
349
What did federal prosecutors indict eight former players for in a separate betting scandal?
5ad2d1acd7d075001a42a36b
True
ephedrine
536
What did an autopsy reveal was in Rashidi Wheeler's system after he died during a game?
5ad2d1acd7d075001a42a36c
True
release of images of alleged hazing
836
In 2006, what prompted the women's football team coach, Jenny Haigh, to resign?
5ad2d1acd7d075001a42a36d
True
all
701
After the death of Rashidi Wheeler in 2010, which athletic programs were investigated for stimulants and other banned substances?
5ad2d1acd7d075001a42a36e
True
In 1998, two former Northwestern basketball players were charged and convicted for sports bribery as a result of being paid to shave points in games against three other Big Ten schools during the 1995 season. The football team became embroiled in a different betting scandal later that year when federal prosecutors indicted four former players for perjury related to betting on their own games. In August 2001, Rashidi Wheeler, a senior safety, collapsed and died during practice from an asthma attack. An autopsy revealed that he had ephedrine, a stimulant banned by the NCAA, in his system, which prompted Northwestern to investigate the prevalence of stimulants and other banned substances across all of its athletic programs. In 2006, the Northwestern women's soccer team was suspended and coach Jenny Haigh resigned following the release of images of alleged hazing.
How many full-time faculty members does Northwestern employ?
57281100ff5b5019007d9c46
3,401
23
False
Who is Northwestern's faculty member notable for being a Holocaust denier?
57281100ff5b5019007d9c47
Arthur Butz
648
False
Who is Northwestern's faculty member notable for winning a Pulitzer Prize?
57281100ff5b5019007d9c48
historian Garry Wills
801
False
Who is Northwestern's faculty member notable for becoming a Tony Award-winning director?
57281100ff5b5019007d9c49
Mary Zimmerman
426
False
Who is Northwestern's faculty member notable for winning the Nobel Prize?
57281100ff5b5019007d9c4a
chemist John Pople
1093
False
3,401
23
How many full-time faculty members does Southwestern employ?
5ad2d256d7d075001a42a37e
True
Arthur Butz
648
Who is Southwestern's faculty member notable for being a Holocaust denier?
5ad2d256d7d075001a42a37f
True
historian Garry Wills
801
Who is Southwestern's faculty member notable for winning a Pulitzer Prize?
5ad2d256d7d075001a42a380
True
Mary Zimmerman
426
Who is Southwestern's faculty member notable for becoming a Tony Award-winning director?
5ad2d256d7d075001a42a381
True
chemist John Pople
1093
Who is Southwestern's faculty member notable for winning the Nobel Prize?
5ad2d256d7d075001a42a382
True
The university employs 3,401 full-time faculty members across its eleven schools, including 18 members of the National Academy of Sciences, 65 members of the American Academy of Arts and Sciences, 19 members of the National Academy of Engineering, and 6 members of the Institute of Medicine. Notable faculty include 2010 Nobel Prize–winning economist Dale T. Mortensen; nano-scientist Chad Mirkin; Tony Award-winning director Mary Zimmerman; management expert Philip Kotler; King Faisal International Prize in Science recipient Sir Fraser Stoddart; Steppenwolf Theatre director Anna Shapiro; sexual psychologist J. Michael Bailey; Holocaust denier Arthur Butz; Federalist Society co-founder Steven Calabresi; former Weatherman Bernardine Rae Dohrn; ethnographer Gary Alan Fine; Pulitzer Prize–winning historian Garry Wills; American Academy of Arts and Sciences fellow Monica Olvera de la Cruz and MacArthur Fellowship recipients Stuart Dybek, and Jennifer Richeson. Notable former faculty include political advisor David Axelrod, artist Ed Paschke, writer Charles Newman, Nobel Prize–winning chemist John Pople, and military sociologist and "don't ask, don't tell" author Charles Moskos.
Which of Northwestern's alumni is notable for becoming a U.S. Senator and presidential candidate?
572812233acd2414000df3b3
George McGovern
233
False
Which of Northwestern's alumni is notable for becoming The Deputy Prime Minister of Turkey?
572812233acd2414000df3b4
Ali Babacan
471
False
Which of Northwestern's alumni is notable for being the founder of the presidential prayer breakfast?
572812233acd2414000df3b5
Abraham Vereide
579
False
Which of Northwestern's alumni is notable for becoming the Governor of Illinois and a presidential candidate?
572812233acd2414000df3b6
Adlai Stevenson
798
False
Which of Northwestern's alumni is notable for becoming the Illinois Governor and convicted felon?
572812233acd2414000df3b7
Rod Blagojevich
1012
False
George McGovern
233
Which of Southwestern's alumni is notable for becoming a U.S. Senator and presidential candidate?
5ad2d2d1d7d075001a42a39a
True
Ali Babacan
471
Which of Northwestern's alumni is notable for becoming The Deputy Prime Minister of China?
5ad2d2d1d7d075001a42a39b
True
Abraham Vereide
579
hich of Southwestern's alumni is notable for being the founder of the presidential prayer breakfast?
5ad2d2d1d7d075001a42a39c
True
Adlai Stevenson
798
Which of Northwestern's alumni is notable for becoming the Governor of Chicago and a presidential candidate?
5ad2d2d1d7d075001a42a39d
True
Rod Blagojevich
1012
Which of Northwestern's alumni is notable for becoming the Texas Governor and convicted felon?
5ad2d2d1d7d075001a42a39e
True
Northwestern has roughly 225,000 alumni in all branches of business, government, law, science, education, medicine, media, and the performing arts. Among Northwestern's more notable alumni are U.S. Senator and presidential candidate George McGovern, Nobel Prize–winning economist George J. Stigler, Nobel Prize–winning novelist Saul Bellow, Pulitzer Prize–winning composer and diarist Ned Rorem, the much-decorated composer Howard Hanson, Deputy Prime Minister of Turkey Ali Babacan, the historian and novelist Wilma Dykeman, and the founder of the presidential prayer breakfast Abraham Vereide. U.S. Supreme Court Associate Justice John Paul Stevens, Supreme Court Justice and Ambassador to the United Nations Arthur Joseph Goldberg, and Governor of Illinois and Democratic presidential candidate Adlai Stevenson are among the graduates of the Northwestern School of Law. Many Northwestern alumni play or have played important roles in Chicago and Illinois, such as former Illinois governor and convicted felon Rod Blagojevich, Chicago Bulls and Chicago White Sox owner Jerry Reinsdorf, and theater director Mary Zimmerman. Northwestern alumnus David J. Skorton currently serves as president of Cornell University. Rahm Emanuel, the mayor of Chicago and former White House Chief of Staff, earned a Masters in Speech and Communication in 1985.
Who founded the Amsterdam based comedy theater Boom Chicago?
572813642ca10214002d9d5e
Northwestern alumni
1578
False
Where did actor Warren Beatty attend school?
572813642ca10214002d9d5f
Northwestern's School of Communication
0
False
Where did actor Charlton Heston attend school?
572813642ca10214002d9d60
Northwestern's School of Communication
0
False
Where did director Gerald Freedman attend school?
572813642ca10214002d9d61
Northwestern's School of Communication
0
False
Which alumni was a co-creator of "The Young and the Restless", and "The Bold and the Beautiful"?
572813642ca10214002d9d62
Lee Phillip Bell
1137
False
Alumni
180
Who founded the Amsterdam based comedy theater Boom Chicago?
5ad2d351d7d075001a42a3a4
True
Northwestern's School of Communication
0
Where didn't actor Warren Beatty attend school?
5ad2d351d7d075001a42a3a5
True
Lee Phillip Bell
1137
Which alumni was an actor on "The Young and the Restless", and "The Bold and the Beautiful"?
5ad2d351d7d075001a42a3a6
True
Northwestern's School of Communication
0
Where didn't actor Charlton Heston attend school?
5ad2d351d7d075001a42a3a8
True
Northwestern's School of Communication has been especially fruitful in the number of actors, actresses, playwrights, and film and television writers and directors it has produced. Alumni who have made their mark on film and television include Ann-Margret, Warren Beatty, Jodie Markell, Paul Lynde, David Schwimmer, Anne Dudek, Zach Braff, Zooey Deschanel, Marg Helgenberger, Julia Louis-Dreyfus, Jerry Orbach, Jennifer Jones, Megan Mullally, John Cameron Mitchell, Dermot Mulroney, Charlton Heston, Richard Kind, Ana Gasteyer, Brad Hall, Shelley Long, William Daniels, Cloris Leachman, Bonnie Bartlett, Paula Prentiss, Richard Benjamin, Laura Innes, Charles Busch, Stephanie March, Tony Roberts, Jeri Ryan, Kimberly Williams-Paisley, McLean Stevenson, Tony Randall, Charlotte Rae, Paul Lynde, Patricia Neal, Nancy Dussault, Robert Reed, Mara Brock Akil, Greg Berlanti, Bill Nuss, Dusty Kay, Dan Shor, Seth Meyers, Frank DeCaro, Zach Gilford, Nicole Sullivan, Stephen Colbert, Sandra Seacat and Garry Marshall. Directors who were graduated from Northwestern include Gerald Freedman, Stuart Hagmann, Marshall W. Mason, and Mary Zimmerman. Lee Phillip Bell hosted a talk show in Chicago from 1952 to 1986 and co-created the Daytime Emmy Award-winning soap operas The Young and the Restless in 1973 and The Bold and the Beautiful in 1987. Alumni such as Sheldon Harnick, Stephanie D'Abruzzo, Heather Headley, Kristen Schaal, Lily Rabe, and Walter Kerr have distinguished themselves on Broadway, as has designer Bob Mackie. Amsterdam-based comedy theater Boom Chicago was founded by Northwestern alumni, and the school has become a training ground for future The Second City, I.O., ComedySportz, Mad TV and Saturday Night Live talent. Tam Spiva wrote scripts for The Brady Bunch and Gentle Ben. In New York, Los Angeles, and Chicago, the number of Northwestern alumni involved in theater, film, and television is so large that a perception has formed that there's such a thing as a "Northwestern mafia."
How many Pulitzer Prize laureates attended the Medill School of Journalism?
572814b94b864d1900164414
38
99
False
Where did NBC correspondant Kelly O'Donnell attend school?
572814b94b864d1900164415
The Medill School of Journalism
0
False
Where did bestselling author George R. R. Martin earn his B.S. and M.S.?
572814b94b864d1900164416
The Medill School of Journalism
0
False
How many Emmy awards did alumni Elisabeth Leamy receive?
572814b94b864d1900164417
13
779
False
Which CBS correspondant graduated from The Medill School of Journalism?
572814b94b864d1900164418
Richard Threlkeld
387
False
38
99
How many Pulitzer Prize laureates attended the Medill School of Science?
5ad2d3d9d7d075001a42a3ae
True
The Medill School of Journalism
0
Where did ABC correspondant attend school?
5ad2d3d9d7d075001a42a3af
True
The Medill School of Journalism
0
Where did bestselling author George R. R. Martin earn his PhD?
5ad2d3d9d7d075001a42a3b0
True
13
779
How many Emmy awards didn't alumni Elisabeth Leamy receive?
5ad2d3d9d7d075001a42a3b1
True
Richard Threlkeld
387
Which CBC correspondant graduated from The Medill School of Journalism?
5ad2d3d9d7d075001a42a3b2
True
The Medill School of Journalism has produced notable journalists and political activists including 38 Pulitzer Prize laureates. National correspondents, reporters and columnists such as The New York Times's Elisabeth Bumiller, David Barstow, Dean Murphy, and Vincent Laforet, USA Today's Gary Levin, Susan Page and Christine Brennan, NBC correspondent Kelly O'Donnell, CBS correspondent Richard Threlkeld, CNN correspondent Nicole Lapin and former CNN and current Al Jazeera America anchor Joie Chen, and ESPN personalities Rachel Nichols, Michael Wilbon, Mike Greenberg, Steve Weissman, J. A. Adande, and Kevin Blackistone. The bestselling author of the A Song of Ice and Fire series, George R. R. Martin, earned a B.S. and M.S. from Medill. Elisabeth Leamy is the recipient of 13 Emmy awards  and 4 Edward R. Murrow Awards.
Which graduate of The Feinburg School of Medicine was the Roswell Park Cancer Institute named after?
572816beff5b5019007d9ce4
Mary Harris Thompson
142
False
Which graduate of The Feinburg School of Medicine performed the first successful American open heart surgery?
572816beff5b5019007d9ce5
Daniel Hale Williams
433
False
Which graduate of The Feinburg School of Medicine co-founded the Mayo Clinic?
572816beff5b5019007d9ce6
Charles Horace Mayo
593
False
Which graduate of The Feinburg School of Medicine founded the American College of Surgeons?
572816beff5b5019007d9ce7
Allen B. Kanavel
997
False
Which graduate of The Feinburg School of Medicine was the first physician in space?
572816beff5b5019007d9ce8
Joseph P. Kerwin
1506
False
Mary Harris Thompson
142
Which graduate was the Roswell UFO named after?
5ad2d4a2d7d075001a42a3dc
True
Daniel Hale Williams
433
Which graduate of The Feinburg School of Medicine performed the first successful African open heart surgery?
5ad2d4a2d7d075001a42a3dd
True
Charles Horace Mayo
593
Which graduate rejected the Mayo Clinic?
5ad2d4a2d7d075001a42a3de
True
Allen B. Kanavel
997
Which graduate of The Feinburg School of Medicine founded the African College of Surgeons?
5ad2d4a2d7d075001a42a3df
True
Joseph P. Kerwin
1506
Which graduate of The Feinburg School of Medicine was the last physician in space?
5ad2d4a2d7d075001a42a3e0
True
The Feinberg School of Medicine (previously the Northwestern University Medical School) has produced a number of notable graduates, including Mary Harris Thompson, Class of 1870, ad eundem, first female surgeon in Chicago, first female surgeon at Cook County Hospital, and founder of the Mary Thomson Hospital, Roswell Park, Class of 1876, prominent surgeon for whom the Roswell Park Cancer Institute in Buffalo, New York, is named, Daniel Hale Williams, Class of 1883, performed the first successful American open heart surgery; only black charter member of the American College of Surgeons, Charles Horace Mayo, Class of 1888, co-founder of Mayo Clinic, Carlos Montezuma, Class of 1889, one of the first Native Americans to receive a Doctor of Medicine degree from any school, and founder of the Society of American Indians, Howard T. Ricketts, Class of 1897, who discovered bacteria of the genus Rickettsia, and identified the cause and methods of transmission of rocky mountain spotted fever, Allen B. Kanavel, Class of 1899, founder, regent, and president of the American College of Surgeons, internationally recognized as founder of modern hand and peripheral nerve surgery, Robert F. Furchgott, Class of 1940, received a Lasker Award in 1996 and the 1998 Nobel Prize in Physiology or Medicine for his co-discovery of nitric oxide, Thomas E. Starzl, Class of 1952, performed the first successful liver transplant in 1967 and received the National Medal of Science in 2004 and a Lasker Award in 2012, Joseph P. Kerwin, first physician in space, flew on three skylab missions and later served as director of Space and Life Sciences at NASA, C. Richard Schlegel, Class of 1972, developed the dominant patent for a vaccine against human papillomavirus (administered as Gardasil) to prevent cervical cancer, David J. Skorton, Class of 1974, a noted cardiologist became president of Cornell University in 2006, and Andrew E. Senyei, Class of 1979, inventor, venture capitalist, and entrepreneur, founder of biotech and genetics companies, and a university trustee.
Strasbourg
What is the population of Strasbourg in 2012?
5727c9482ca10214002d9628
768,868
702
False
What is the population of the transnational Eurodistrict Strasbourg-Ortenau in 2014?
5727c9482ca10214002d9629
915,000
962
False
What is the predominant language in the region of Alace?
5727c9482ca10214002d962a
Alemannic
444
False
What is the largest city in the ACAL region of France?
5727c9482ca10214002d962b
Straßburg
104
False
Strasbourg has an official seat in what parliament?
5727c9482ca10214002d962c
European
268
False
Strasbourg has an official seat in what Parliament?
5727cc1b2ca10214002d968c
European
268
False
What is the predominant language in Asace?
5727cc1b2ca10214002d968d
Alemannic
444
False
What kind of name is Strasbourg?
5727cc1b2ca10214002d968e
Germanic
481
False
2013
499
In what year was the European Parliament put in Strasbourg?
5acd4a2507355d001abf3c1e
True
Alemannic
444
What language dominated all of France for many years?
5acd4a2507355d001abf3c1f
True
Strasbourg
719
What is the largest metropolitan area in France?
5acd4a2507355d001abf3c20
True
915,000
962
How many people live in Eurodistrict Strasbourg-Ortenau as of 2017?
5acd4a2507355d001abf3c21
True
475,934
599
How many people lived in Strasbourg as of 2014?
5acd4a2507355d001abf3c22
True
Strasbourg (/ˈstræzbɜːrɡ/, French pronunciation: ​[stʁaz.buʁ, stʁas.buʁ]; Alsatian: Strossburi; German: Straßburg, [ˈʃtʁaːsbʊɐ̯k]) is the capital and largest city of the Alsace-Champagne-Ardenne-Lorraine (ACAL) region in eastern France and is the official seat of the European Parliament. Located close to the border with Germany, it is the capital of the Bas-Rhin département. The city and the region of Alsace were historically predominantly Alemannic-speaking, hence the city's Germanic name. In 2013, the city proper had 275,718 inhabitants, Eurométropole de Strasbourg (Greater Strasbourg) had 475,934 inhabitants and the Arrondissement of Strasbourg had 482,384 inhabitants. With a population of 768,868 in 2012, Strasbourg's metropolitan area (only the part of the metropolitan area on French territory) is the ninth largest in France and home to 13% of the ACAL region's inhabitants. The transnational Eurodistrict Strasbourg-Ortenau had a population of 915,000 inhabitants in 2014.
What year was Grande Ile classified as a World Heritage site?
5727cd39ff5b5019007d9584
1988
116
False
What is the culture in Strasbourg?
5727cd39ff5b5019007d9585
Franco-German
219
False
What is the largest Islamic place of worship in France?
5727cd39ff5b5019007d9586
Strasbourg Grand Mosque
559
False
When was the Strasbourg Grand Mosque inaugurated?
5727cd39ff5b5019007d9587
27 September 2012
644
False
What is the second largest university in France?
5727cd39ff5b5019007d9588
University of Strasbourg
385
False
1988
116
In what year was University of Strasbourg established?
5acd4b1307355d001abf3c2e
True
University of Strasbourg
385
What is the largest university in France?
5acd4b1307355d001abf3c2f
True
2012
657
In what year did Manuel Valls become the French Interior Minister?
5acd4b1307355d001abf3c30
True
Islamic
519
Besides Catholics and Protestants who else attends the University of Strasbourg?
5acd4b1307355d001abf3c31
True
1988
116
When did the first Islamic people start living in Strasbourg?
5acd4b1307355d001abf3c32
True
Strasbourg's historic city centre, the Grande Île (Grand Island), was classified a World Heritage site by UNESCO in 1988, the first time such an honour was placed on an entire city centre. Strasbourg is immersed in the Franco-German culture and although violently disputed throughout history, has been a bridge of unity between France and Germany for centuries, especially through the University of Strasbourg, currently the second largest in France, and the coexistence of Catholic and Protestant culture. The largest Islamic place of worship in France, the Strasbourg Grand Mosque, was inaugurated by French Interior Minister Manuel Valls on 27 September 2012.
What river is on the border of France and Germany?
5727ce3d2ca10214002d96d8
River Rhine
98
False
The River Ill flows parallel with what river for 4 kilometres?
5727ce3d2ca10214002d96d9
Rhine
371
False
What kind of waterways connect the River Ill and River Rhine within Strasbourg?
5727ce3d2ca10214002d96da
artificial
489
False
Strasbourg is situated on what border of France and Germany?
5727ce3d2ca10214002d96db
eastern
30
False
Germany
60
What country is on the southern border of France?
5acd4bde07355d001abf3c42
True
River Rhine
98
What forms the western border of Strasbourg?
5acd4bde07355d001abf3c43
True
4 kilometres
339
How far is Strasbourg from the German town Kehl?
5acd4bde07355d001abf3c44
True
2.5 mi
353
How far downstream from Strasbourg does the River Rhine and River ILL meet?
5acd4bde07355d001abf3c45
True
River Ill
286
What is a name of one of the artificial waterways in Strasbourg?
5acd4bde07355d001abf3c46
True
Strasbourg is situated on the eastern border of France with Germany. This border is formed by the River Rhine, which also forms the eastern border of the modern city, facing across the river to the German town Kehl. The historic core of Strasbourg however lies on the Grande Île in the River Ill, which here flows parallel to, and roughly 4 kilometres (2.5 mi) from, the Rhine. The natural courses of the two rivers eventually join some distance downstream of Strasbourg, although several artificial waterways now connect them within the city.
What was Strasbourg called in 12 BC?
5727cfc5ff5b5019007d95ba
Argentoratum
255
False
What was the Roman camp destroyed by?
5727cfc5ff5b5019007d95bb
fire
508
False
Who was leading the Romans at Argentoratum?
5727cfc5ff5b5019007d95bc
Nero Claudius Drusus
17
False
After what year was the Legio VIII Augusta permanently stationed in Argentoratum?
5727cfc5ff5b5019007d95bd
year 90
810
False
How many times was Argentoratum rebuilt during the first and fifth centuries AD?
5727cfc5ff5b5019007d95be
six times
525
False
12 BC
292
In what year did the Romans establish a military outpost?
5acd4d2c07355d001abf3c70
True
355
597
In what year were the Legio XIV Gemina Roman Legions first stationed in Argentoratum?
5acd4d2c07355d001abf3c71
True
97
588
In what year was the Legio XXI Rapax Roman Legions first stationed in Argentoratum?
5acd4d2c07355d001abf3c72
True
70
584
In what year was Nero made emperor?
5acd4d2c07355d001abf3c73
True
355
597
For how many years was Argentorate made the toponym of the Gaulish settlement?
5acd4d2c07355d001abf3c74
True
The Romans under Nero Claudius Drusus established a military outpost belonging to the Germania Superior Roman province at Strasbourg's current location, and named it Argentoratum. (Hence the town is commonly called Argentina in medieval Latin.) The name "Argentoratum" was first mentioned in 12 BC and the city celebrated its 2,000th birthday in 1988. "Argentorate" as the toponym of the Gaulish settlement preceded it before being Latinized, but it is not known by how long. The Roman camp was destroyed by fire and rebuilt six times between the first and the fifth centuries AD: in 70, 97, 235, 355, in the last quarter of the fourth century, and in the early years of the fifth century. It was under Trajan and after the fire of 97 that Argentoratum received its most extended and fortified shape. From the year 90 on, the Legio VIII Augusta was permanently stationed in the Roman camp of Argentoratum. It then included a cavalry section and covered an area of approximately 20 hectares. Other Roman legions temporarily stationed in Argentoratum were the Legio XIV Gemina and the Legio XXI Rapax, the latter during the reign of Nero.
What has been found along the current Route des Romains?
5727d1683acd2414000ded2d
Roman artifacts
227
False
Where was the centre of Argentoratum situated?
5727d1683acd2414000ded2e
Grande Île
54
False
Who shattered the fragments of a grand Mithraeum?
5727d1683acd2414000ded2f
Christians
661
False
When was the Bishopric of Strasbourg made an Archbishopric?
5727d1683acd2414000ded30
1988
801
False
1956
886
How many people live in Koenighhoffen as if 2015?
5acd583707355d001abf3e0a
True
1948
877
In what year was the Bishopric of Strasbourg established?
5acd583707355d001abf3e0b
True
1948
877
In what year was the Route des Romains established?
5acd583707355d001abf3e0c
True
1988
801
How many people have been excavated from the Roman burial places?
5acd583707355d001abf3e0d
True
a church
913
What was the grand Mithraeum?
5acd583707355d001abf3e0e
True
The centre of Argentoratum proper was situated on the Grande Île (Cardo: current Rue du Dôme, Decumanus: current Rue des Hallebardes). The outline of the Roman "castrum" is visible in the street pattern in the Grande Ile. Many Roman artifacts have also been found along the current Route des Romains, the road that led to Argentoratum, in the suburb of Kœnigshoffen. This was where the largest burial places were situated, as well as the densest concentration of civilian dwelling places and commerces next to the camp. Among the most outstanding finds in Kœnigshoffen were (found in 1911–12) the fragments of a grand Mithraeum that had been shattered by early Christians in the fourth century. From the fourth century, Strasbourg was the seat of the Bishopric of Strasbourg (made an Archbishopric in 1988). Archaeological excavations below the current Église Saint-Étienne in 1948 and 1956 unearthed the apse of a church dating back to the late fourth or early fifth century, considered to be the oldest church in Alsace. It is supposed that this was the first seat of the Roman Catholic Diocese of Strasbourg.
What Empire split to create France and Germany?
5727d5992ca10214002d9798
Carolingian Empire
731
False
What language called Strasbourg Strossburi?
5727d5992ca10214002d9799
Alsatian
530
False
What is the German spelling for Strasbourg?
5727d5992ca10214002d979a
Straßburg
543
False
What was Strasbourg known as in the local language in the ninth century?
5727d5992ca10214002d979b
Strazburg
135
False
In what century was Strasbourg occupied successively by Alemanni, Huns, and Franks?
5727d5992ca10214002d979c
fifth century
7
False
France and Germany
687
What modern day area did the Carolingian Empire occupy?
5acd596407355d001abf3e30
True
842
185
When was the Alsatian language first used?
5acd596407355d001abf3e31
True
lingua romana
357
What were the Huns called in Latin?
5acd596407355d001abf3e32
True
842
185
In what year did Old French start to be used?
5acd596407355d001abf3e33
True
teudisca lingua
294
What were the Germans called in Old French?
5acd596407355d001abf3e34
True
In the fifth century Strasbourg was occupied successively by Alemanni, Huns, and Franks. In the ninth century it was commonly known as Strazburg in the local language, as documented in 842 by the Oaths of Strasbourg. This trilingual text contains, alongside texts in Latin and Old High German (teudisca lingua), the oldest written variety of Gallo-Romance (lingua romana) clearly distinct from Latin, the ancestor of Old French. The town was also called Stratisburgum or Strateburgus in Latin, from which later came Strossburi in Alsatian and Straßburg in Standard German, and then Strasbourg in French. The Oaths of Strasbourg is considered as marking the birth of the two countries of France and Germany with the division of the Carolingian Empire.
In what year did Strasbourg declare itself a free republic?
5727d6b4ff5b5019007d9686
1332
16
False
What year was the deadly bubonic plague in Strasbourg?
5727d6b4ff5b5019007d9687
1348
174
False
How many Jews were burned to death in 1349?
5727d6b4ff5b5019007d9688
over a thousand
273
False
What time were the Jews forbidden to be in town after?
5727d6b4ff5b5019007d9689
10 pm
477
False
What did the Jews need to pay to ride a horse into town?
5727d6b4ff5b5019007d968a
special tax
613
False
deadly bubonic plague
149
Why did a revolution occur in Strasbourg in 1332?
5acd5a8507355d001abf3e76
True
10 pm
477
At what time  of day were Jewish people allowed back into the city?
5acd5a8507355d001abf3e77
True
1349
207
How many Jewish people lived in Strasbourg in 1349 before the pogroms occurred?
5acd5a8507355d001abf3e78
True
1332
16
In what year was Strasbourg founded?
5acd5a8507355d001abf3e79
True
1348
174
How many Jewish people avoided being publicly burnt to death?
5acd5a8507355d001abf3e7a
True
A revolution in 1332 resulted in a broad-based city government with participation of the guilds, and Strasbourg declared itself a free republic. The deadly bubonic plague of 1348 was followed on 14 February 1349 by one of the first and worst pogroms in pre-modern history: over a thousand Jews were publicly burnt to death, with the remainder of the Jewish population being expelled from the city. Until the end of the 18th century, Jews were forbidden to remain in town after 10 pm. The time to leave the city was signalled by a municipal herald blowing the Grüselhorn (see below, Museums, Musée historique);. A special tax, the Pflastergeld (pavement money), was furthermore to be paid for any horse that a Jew would ride or bring into the city while allowed to.
Who was the political guide during the Protestant Reformation?
5727d8054b864d1900163e56
Jacob Sturm von Sturmeck
90
False
Who was the spiritual guide during the Protestant Reformation?
5727d8054b864d1900163e57
Martin Bucer
145
False
Who spent several years as a political refugee in the city?
5727d8054b864d1900163e58
John Calvin
802
False
How many other cities joined Strasbourg at the Imperial Diet of Augsburg in 1530?
5727d8054b864d1900163e59
four
1099
False
1520s
7
In what decade did Jacob Sturm von Sturmeck start offering political guidance to Strasbourg?
5acd5b6207355d001abf3eac
True
1520s
7
In what decade did Martin Luther start his religious teachings?
5acd5b6207355d001abf3ead
True
Strasbourg
875
In what city was John Calvin born?
5acd5b6207355d001abf3eae
True
1530
1240
In what year was Charles V made Holy Roman Emperor?
5acd5b6207355d001abf3eaf
True
Augsburg
391
In what city was Charle V declared Holy Roman Emperor?
5acd5b6207355d001abf3eb0
True
In the 1520s during the Protestant Reformation, the city, under the political guidance of Jacob Sturm von Sturmeck and the spiritual guidance of Martin Bucer embraced the religious teachings of Martin Luther. Their adherents established a Gymnasium, headed by Johannes Sturm, made into a University in the following century. The city first followed the Tetrapolitan Confession, and then the Augsburg Confession. Protestant iconoclasm caused much destruction to churches and cloisters, notwithstanding that Luther himself opposed such a practice. Strasbourg was a centre of humanist scholarship and early book-printing in the Holy Roman Empire, and its intellectual and political influence contributed much to the establishment of Protestantism as an accepted denomination in the southwest of Germany. (John Calvin spent several years as a political refugee in the city). The Strasbourg Councillor Sturm and guildmaster Matthias represented the city at the Imperial Diet of Speyer (1529), where their protest led to the schism of the Catholic Church and the evolution of Protestantism. Together with four other free cities, Strasbourg presented the confessio tetrapolitana as its Protestant book of faith at the Imperial Diet of Augsburg in 1530, where the slightly different Augsburg Confession was also handed over to Charles V, Holy Roman Emperor.
How many times was the Rhines bridge used during the Franco-Dutch War?
5727dbcaff5b5019007d9708
three
372
False
When did Louis surround the city with considerable force?
5727dbcaff5b5019007d9709
September 1681
486
False
When did Louis march into the city unopposed and proclaimed its annexation?
5727dbcaff5b5019007d970a
30 September 1681
662
False
1681
496
In what year did King Louis annex Alsace?
5acd5ca407355d001abf3ed2
True
30 September 168
662
On what date did the Franco-Dutch War start?
5acd5ca407355d001abf3ed3
True
1681
675
In what year was King Louis crowned?
5acd5ca407355d001abf3ed4
True
Louis' advisors believed that, as long as Strasbourg remained independent, it would endanger the King's newly annexed territories in Alsace, and, that to defend these large rural lands effectively, a garrison had to be placed in towns such as Strasbourg. Indeed, the bridge over the Rhine at Strasbourg had been used repeatedly by Imperial (Holy Roman Empire) forces, and three times during the Franco-Dutch War Strasbourg had served as a gateway for Imperial invasions into Alsace. In September 1681 Louis' forces, though lacking a clear casus belli, surrounded the city with overwhelming force. After some negotiation, Louis marched into the city unopposed on 30 September 1681 and proclaimed its annexation.
What was one of the causes of the War of the Reunions?
5727dd9c4b864d1900163ecc
annexation
5
False
When was the French annexation recognized by the Treaty of Ryswick?
5727dd9c4b864d1900163ecd
1697
197
False
What church was taken from the Lutherans and returned to the Catholics?
5727dd9c4b864d1900163ece
Strasbourg Cathedral
521
False
Who were the famous students that attended German Lutheran University?
5727dd9c4b864d1900163ecf
Goethe and Herder
894
False
1685
337
In what year did the War of the Reunions start?
5acd5db107355d001abf3f1c
True
German
791
What nationality did the French fight in the War of the Reunions?
5acd5db107355d001abf3f1d
True
1697
197
In what year did Goethe graduate from the German Lutheran University?
5acd5db107355d001abf3f1e
True
1685
337
In what year did the Lutherans take possession of Strasbourg Cathedral?
5acd5db107355d001abf3f1f
True
Catholics
603
What religion were most Germans during this time?
5acd5db107355d001abf3f20
True
This annexation was one of the direct causes of the brief and bloody War of the Reunions whose outcome left the French in possession. The French annexation was recognized by the Treaty of Ryswick (1697). The official policy of religious intolerance which drove most Protestants from France after the revocation of the Edict of Nantes in 1685 was not applied in Strasbourg and in Alsace, because both had a special status as a province à l'instar de l'étranger effectif (a kind of foreign province of the king of France). Strasbourg Cathedral, however, was taken from the Lutherans to be returned to the Catholics as the French authorities tried to promote Catholicism wherever they could (some other historic churches remained in Protestant hands). Its language also remained overwhelmingly German: the German Lutheran university persisted until the French Revolution. Famous students included Goethe and Herder.
What revoked Strasbourg's status as a free city?
5727f7313acd2414000df103
French Revolution
54
False
Who ruled the city with an iron hand?
5727f7313acd2414000df104
Eulogius Schneider
99
False
What did the cathedrals lose in April 1794?
5727f7313acd2414000df105
statues
292
False
What was the giant Phrygian cap made out of?
5727f7313acd2414000df106
tin
576
False
Who destroyed the Phrygian cap in 1870?
5727f7313acd2414000df107
Germans
695
False
1794
360
In what year did the French Revolution end?
5acd5e6207355d001abf3f3a
True
Eulogius Schneider
99
Who started the French Revolution?
5acd5e6207355d001abf3f3b
True
1870
706
In what year did the Franco-Prussian war start?
5acd5e6207355d001abf3f3c
True
1794
360
In what year did Eulogius Schneider take over rule of Strasbourg?
5acd5e6207355d001abf3f3d
True
Strasbourg's status as a free city was revoked by the French Revolution. Enragés, most notoriously Eulogius Schneider, ruled the city with an increasingly iron hand. During this time, many churches and monasteries were either destroyed or severely damaged. The cathedral lost hundreds of its statues (later replaced by copies in the 19th century) and in April 1794, there was talk of tearing its spire down, on the grounds that it was against the principle of equality. The tower was saved, however, when in May of the same year citizens of Strasbourg crowned it with a giant tin Phrygian cap. This artifact was later kept in the historical collections of the city until it was destroyed by the Germans in 1870 during the Franco-Prussian war.
Who bombarded the city of Strasbourg?
5727f8794b864d19001640e8
Prussian army
98
False
What date was the Museum of Fine Arts destroyed by fire?
5727f8794b864d19001640e9
24 and 26 August 1870
203
False
What cathedral was damaged along with the medieval church of Temple Neuf?
5727f8794b864d19001640ea
gothic
512
False
How many inhabitants were left without shelter after the siege?
5727f8794b864d19001640eb
10,000
678
False
How many civilians died during the siege?
5727f8794b864d19001640ec
261
749
False
10,000
678
How many people lived in the city before the Siege of Strasbourg?
5acd5f5607355d001abf3f66
True
1870
220
In what year was the Hortus deliciarum written?
5acd5f5607355d001abf3f67
True
1,100
797
How many soldiers were injured during the Siege of Strasbourg?
5acd5f5607355d001abf3f68
True
gothic
512
In what style was the Museum of Fine Arts built?
5acd5f5607355d001abf3f69
True
medieval
556
To what era did the Museum of Fine Arts date?
5acd5f5607355d001abf3f6a
True
During the Franco-Prussian War and the Siege of Strasbourg, the city was heavily bombarded by the Prussian army. The bombardment of the city was meant to break the morale of the people of Strasbourg. On 24 and 26 August 1870, the Museum of Fine Arts was destroyed by fire, as was the Municipal Library housed in the Gothic former Dominican church, with its unique collection of medieval manuscripts (most famously the Hortus deliciarum), rare Renaissance books, archeological finds and historical artifacts. The gothic cathedral was damaged as well as the medieval church of Temple Neuf, the theatre, the city hall, the court of justice and many houses. At the end of the siege 10,000 inhabitants were left without shelter; over 600 died, including 261 civilians, and 3200 were injured, including 1,100 civilians.
In what year was the city annexed to the German Empire?
5727f9864b864d1900164102
1871
3
False
What was the Treaty in 1871 called?
5727f9864b864d1900164103
Treaty of Frankfurt
162
False
What Historian was in charge of rebuilding the municipal archives?
5727f9864b864d1900164104
Rodolphe Reuss
377
False
What year was the university founded?
5727f9864b864d1900164105
1567
530
False
What was the new name of the university when it reopened in 1872?
5727f9864b864d1900164106
Kaiser-Wilhelms-Universität
669
False
1567
530
In what year was Rodolphe Reuss born?
5acd601707355d001abf3fa2
True
Place de la République
343
What was the name of Kaiser-Wilhelms-Universitat before it was renamed?
5acd601707355d001abf3fa3
True
German
598
Which nationalatity founded the University?
5acd601707355d001abf3fa4
True
German
598
What nationality was Rodolphe Reuss?
5acd601707355d001abf3fa5
True
1871
3
In what year did the war begin?
5acd601707355d001abf3fa6
True
In 1871, after the end of the war, the city was annexed to the newly established German Empire as part of the Reichsland Elsass-Lothringen under the terms of the Treaty of Frankfurt. As part of Imperial Germany, Strasbourg was rebuilt and developed on a grand and representative scale, such as the Neue Stadt, or "new city" around the present Place de la République. Historian Rodolphe Reuss and Art historian Wilhelm von Bode were in charge of rebuilding the municipal archives, libraries and museums. The University, founded in 1567 and suppressed during the French Revolution as a stronghold of German sentiment,[citation needed] was reopened in 1872 under the name Kaiser-Wilhelms-Universität.
What was established around the city?
5727fa644b864d1900164120
fortifications
18
False
Where is Fort Podbielski located?
5727fa644b864d1900164121
Mundolsheim
263
False
Where is Fort Bismark located?
5727fa644b864d1900164122
Wolfisheim
358
False
Where is for Kronprinz von Sachsen located?
5727fa644b864d1900164123
Holtzheim
470
False
Where is Fort Roon Located?
5727fa644b864d1900164124
Mundolsheim
263
False
fortifications
18
What was established inside the city?
5acd611d07355d001abf3fda
True
French generals
114
Was Fort Roon named after one of the French generals or classified as a Monuments historiques?
5acd611d07355d001abf3fdb
True
Monuments historiques
158
Is Fort Kronprinz a Monuments historiques or named after a French general?
5acd611d07355d001abf3fdc
True
French generals
114
Is Fort Bismark a Monuments historiques or named after one of the French generals?
5acd611d07355d001abf3fdd
True
Monuments historiques
158
Is Fort Rapp a Monuments historiques or named after a French general?
5acd611d07355d001abf3fde
True
A belt of massive fortifications was established around the city, most of which still stands today, renamed after French generals and generally classified as Monuments historiques; most notably Fort Roon (now Fort Desaix) and Fort Podbielski (now Fort Ducrot) in Mundolsheim, Fort von Moltke (now Fort Rapp) in Reichstett, Fort Bismarck (now Fort Kléber) in Wolfisheim, Fort Kronprinz (now Fort Foch) in Niederhausbergen, Fort Kronprinz von Sachsen (now Fort Joffre) in Holtzheim and Fort Großherzog von Baden (now Fort Frère) in Oberhausbergen.
In what war was the German Empire defeated?
5727fc04ff5b5019007d99f4
World War I
45
False
What kind of Republic did some insurgents declare Alsace-Lorraine?
5727fc04ff5b5019007d99f5
independent
160
False
What date was Strasbourg declared a soviet government by insurgents?
5727fc04ff5b5019007d99f6
11 November 1918
225
False
Who commanded the French troops on November 22?
5727fc04ff5b5019007d99f7
French general Henri Gouraud
433
False
What French President said "the plebiscite is done"?
5727fc04ff5b5019007d99f8
Raymond Poincaré
751
False
1918
237
In what year was Raymond Poincare made French President?
5acd62c407355d001abf4038
True
German
28
What nationality was under Soviet rule in 1918?
5acd62c407355d001abf4039
True
Kurt Eisner
353
Who was made ruler of Strasburg when it was proclaimed as a "soviet government"?
5acd62c407355d001abf403a
True
communist
259
What political persuasion was French general Henri Gouraud?
5acd62c407355d001abf403b
True
Kurt Eisner
353
who was the German Emperor who abdicated?
5acd62c407355d001abf403c
True
Following the defeat of the German empire in World War I and the abdication of the German Emperor, some revolutionary insurgents declared Alsace-Lorraine as an independent Republic, without preliminary referendum or vote. On 11 November 1918 (Armistice Day), communist insurgents proclaimed a "soviet government" in Strasbourg, following the example of Kurt Eisner in Munich as well as other German towns. French troops commanded by French general Henri Gouraud entered triumphantly in the city on 22 November. A major street of the city now bears the name of that date (Rue du 22 Novembre) which celebrates the entry of the French in the city. Viewing the massive cheering crowd gathered under the balcony of Strasbourg's town hall, French President Raymond Poincaré stated that "the plebiscite is done".
What year was it restituted to France?
5727fdb63acd2414000df18d
1919
3
False
What autonomists were pro French?
5727fdb63acd2414000df18e
Alsatian
527
False
In what year did Bismarck fall?
5727fdb63acd2414000df18f
1890
850
False
Who won the last election at Reichstag?
5727fdb63acd2414000df190
Social Democrats
1078
False
Who had vivid memories of the Saverne Affair?
5727fdb63acd2414000df191
Alsatians
1576
False
1919
3
In what year was U.S. President Woodrow Wilson first elected?
5acd644f07355d001abf406a
True
1919
3
In what year were the last Reichstag elections held in Strasbourg?
5acd644f07355d001abf406b
True
1890
850
In what year did the Saverne Affair occur?
5acd644f07355d001abf406c
True
Berlin
1220
What was the capital of France in 1919?
5acd644f07355d001abf406d
True
1871
690
In what year did the Social Democrats form?
5acd644f07355d001abf406e
True
In 1919, following the Treaty of Versailles, the city was restituted to France in accordance with U.S. President Woodrow Wilson's "Fourteen Points" without a referendum. The date of the assignment was retroactively established on Armistice Day. It is doubtful whether a referendum in Strasbourg would have ended in France's favour since the political parties striving for an autonomous Alsace or a connection to France accounted only for a small proportion of votes in the last Reichstag as well as in the local elections. The Alsatian autonomists who were pro French had won many votes in the more rural parts of the region and other towns since the annexation of the region by Germany in 1871. The movement started with the first election for the Reichstag; those elected were called "les députés protestataires", and until the fall of Bismarck in 1890, they were the only deputies elected by the Alsatians to the German parliament demanding the return of those territories to France. At the last Reichstag election in Strasbourg and its periphery, the clear winners were the Social Democrats; the city was the administrative capital of the region, was inhabited by many Germans appointed by the central government in Berlin and its flourishing economy attracted many Germans. This could explain the difference between the rural vote and the one in Strasbourg. After the war, many Germans left Strasbourg and went back to Germany; some of them were denounced by the locals or expelled by the newly appointed authorities. The Saverne Affair was vivid in the memory among the Alsatians.
Who invaded Poland on 1 September 1939?
572800502ca10214002d9b0a
German
12
False
How many people were evacuated during the invasion?
572800512ca10214002d9b0b
120,000
172
False
What troops arrived in mid-June 1940?
572800512ca10214002d9b0c
Wehrmacht troops
261
False
How long was the city completely empty?
572800512ca10214002d9b0d
ten months
311
False
Where was the University evacuated?
572800512ca10214002d9b0e
Clermont-Ferrand
493
False
120,000
172
How many garrisoned soldiers were left in Strasbourg?
5acd64f207355d001abf4098
True
120,000
172
How many Jews of Strasbourg were evacuated?
5acd64f207355d001abf4099
True
1 September 1939
41
On what date did they begin to evacuate the University?
5acd64f207355d001abf409a
True
3 September 1939
126
On what date were the Jews of Strasbourg evacuated?
5acd64f207355d001abf409b
True
Between the German invasion of Poland on 1 September 1939 and the Anglo-French declaration of War against the German Reich on 3 September 1939, the entire city (a total of 120,000 people) was evacuated, like other border towns as well. Until the arrival of the Wehrmacht troops mid-June 1940, the city was, for ten months, completely empty, with the exception of the garrisoned soldiers. The Jews of Strasbourg had been evacuated to Périgueux and Limoges, the University had been evacuated to Clermont-Ferrand.
In what year was the Fall of France?
5728016b4b864d19001641e4
1940
57
False
What country was Alsace annexed to?
5728016b4b864d19001641e5
Germany
85
False
Who imposed the rigorous policy of Germanisation?
5728016b4b864d19001641e6
Gauleiter Robert Heinrich Wagner
159
False
When were the first evacuees allowed to return?
5728016b4b864d19001641e7
July 1940
202
False
How high was the dome at the Romanesque revival building?
5728016b4b864d19001641e8
54-metre
462
False
1940
57
In what year was Robert Heinrich Wagner made Gauleiter?
5acd65d007355d001abf40b2
True
July 1940
339
In what month and year was the main synagogue set ablaze and razed?
5acd65d007355d001abf40b3
True
June 1940
52
In what month and year did the war start that resulted in the Fall of France?
5acd65d007355d001abf40b4
True
France
42
Where were the last Jews deported to?
5acd65d007355d001abf40b5
True
After the ceasefire following the Fall of France in June 1940, Alsace was annexed to Germany and a rigorous policy of Germanisation was imposed upon it by the Gauleiter Robert Heinrich Wagner. When, in July 1940, the first evacuees were allowed to return, only residents of Alsatian origin were admitted. The last Jews were deported on 15 July 1940 and the main synagogue, a huge Romanesque revival building that had been a major architectural landmark with its 54-metre-high dome since its completion in 1897, was set ablaze, then razed.
Who led the first Alsatian resistance movement?
572803362ca10214002d9b6a
Marcel Weinum
64
False
Who was the highest commander that is under Hitler?
572803362ca10214002d9b6b
Gauleiter Robert Wagner
302
False
How was Marcel Weinum executed?
572803362ca10214002d9b6c
beheaded
474
False
What was the city attacked by in 1943?
572803362ca10214002d9b6d
Allied aircraft
652
False
On what date was the city liberated?
572803362ca10214002d9b6e
23 November 1944
1016
False
September 1940
3
In what month and year was Gauleiter Robert Wagner assigned to Strasbourg?
5acd670f07355d001abf40cc
True
April 1942
503
In what month and year was Marcel Weinum captured?
5acd670f07355d001abf40cd
True
French
1079
Which nationality accidentally bombed Strasbourg?
5acd670f07355d001abf40ce
True
General Leclerc
1110
Who led the 1st French Armoured Division?
5acd670f07355d001abf40cf
True
23 November 1944
1016
On what date did the decisive Capture of Kufra occur?
5acd670f07355d001abf40d0
True
In September 1940 the first Alsatian resistance movement led by Marcel Weinum called La main noire (The black hand) was created. It was composed by a group of 25 young men aged from 14 to 18 years old who led several attacks against the German occupation. The actions culminated with the attack of the Gauleiter Robert Wagner, the highest commander of Alsace directly under the order of Hitler. In March 1942, Marcel Weinum was prosecuted by the Gestapo and sentenced to be beheaded at the age of 18 in April 1942 in Stuttgart, Germany. His last words will be: "If I have to die, I shall die but with a pure heart". From 1943 the city was bombarded by Allied aircraft. While the First World War had not notably damaged the city, Anglo-American bombing caused extensive destruction in raids of which at least one was allegedly carried out by mistake. In August 1944, several buildings in the Old Town were damaged by bombs, particularly the Palais Rohan, the Old Customs House (Ancienne Douane) and the Cathedral. On 23 November 1944, the city was officially liberated by the 2nd French Armoured Division under General Leclerc. He achieved the oath that he made with his soldiers, after the decisive Capture of Kufra. With the Oath of Kuffra, they swore to keep up the fight until the French flag flew over the Cathedral of Strasbourg.
What were the men and women sent to the eastern front against their will called?
5728110f4b864d1900164384
Malgré-nous
159
False
Who sent deserters families to concentration camps?
5728110f4b864d1900164385
Germans
390
False
Where were the freed soviet captives sent?
5728110f4b864d1900164386
Algiers
936
False
When did the liberation of Strasbourg take place?
5728110f4b864d1900164387
23 November 1944
1247
False
23 November 1944
1247
On what date was Strasbourg taken by the Germans?
5acd686707355d001abf40ea
True
1944
865
In what year were the Free French Forces established?
5acd686707355d001abf40eb
True
1500
871
How many Malgre-nous were forced to join the German forces?
5acd686707355d001abf40ec
True
1944
1259
In what year were the first memorials for Malgre-nous built?
5acd686707355d001abf40ed
True
1500
871
How many Malgre-nous were able to desert the Wehrmacht?
5acd686707355d001abf40ee
True
Many people from Strasbourg were incorporated in the German Army against their will, and were sent to the eastern front, those young men and women were called Malgré-nous. Many tried to escape from the incorporation, join the French Resistance, or desert the Wehrmacht but many couldn't because they were running the risk of having their families sent to work or concentration camps by the Germans. Many of these men, especially those who did not answer the call immediately, were pressured to "volunteer" for service with the SS, often by direct threats on their families. This threat obliged the majority of them to remain in the German army. After the war, the few that survived were often accused of being traitors or collaborationists, because this tough situation was not known in the rest of France, and they had to face the incomprehension of many. In July 1944, 1500 malgré-nous were released from Soviet captivity and sent to Algiers, where they joined the Free French Forces. Nowadays history recognizes the suffering of those people, and museums, public discussions and memorials have been built to commemorate this terrible period of history of this part of Eastern France (Alsace and Moselle). Liberation of Strasbourg took place on 23 November 1944.
What council was the city given a seat for in 1949?
572812394b864d19001643b2
Council of Europe
51
False
When did the European Parliament begin meeting in Strasbourg?
572812394b864d19001643b3
1952
143
False
When was Louise Weiss inaugurated?
572812394b864d19001643b4
1999
676
False
1949
3
In what year was the Council of Europe formed?
5acd69f607355d001abf411c
True
1992
343
In what year did nations start negotiating the Treaty of Amsterdam?
5acd69f607355d001abf411d
True
four
457
How many days each month is Council of Europe business conducted in Brussels and Luxembourg?
5acd69f607355d001abf411e
True
1992
992
In what year did the construction begin of the Immeuble Louise Weiss?
5acd69f607355d001abf411f
True
1952
143
In what year was the Palace of Europe built?
5acd69f607355d001abf4120
True
In 1949, the city was chosen to be the seat of the Council of Europe with its European Court of Human Rights and European Pharmacopoeia. Since 1952, the European Parliament has met in Strasbourg, which was formally designated its official 'seat' at the Edinburgh meeting of the European Council of EU heads of state and government in December 1992. (This position was reconfirmed and given treaty status in the 1997 Treaty of Amsterdam). However, only the (four-day) plenary sessions of the Parliament are held in Strasbourg each month, with all other business being conducted in Brussels and Luxembourg. Those sessions take place in the Immeuble Louise Weiss, inaugurated in 1999, which houses the largest parliamentary assembly room in Europe and of any democratic institution in the world. Before that, the EP sessions had to take place in the main Council of Europe building, the Palace of Europe, whose unusual inner architecture had become a familiar sight to European TV audiences. In 1992, Strasbourg became the seat of the Franco-German TV channel and movie-production society Arte.
What was partly destroyed by Allied bombings in 1944?
572813372ca10214002d9d56
Romanesque Église Saint-Étienne
162
False
What organ did Wolfgang Amadeus Mozart play on?
572813372ca10214002d9d57
Silbermann organ
319
False
Where is the Silbermann organ located?
572813372ca10214002d9d58
Église Saint-Thomas
290
False
What is the Neo-Gothic church called?
572813372ca10214002d9d59
Saint-Pierre-le-Vieux Catholique
763
False
15th-century
895
In what century was the Eglise Saint-Etienne constructed?
5acd6add07355d001abf413a
True
Romanesque
162
What style of building is the Saint-Pierre-le-View Protestant?
5acd6add07355d001abf413b
True
Gothic
651
What style of building is the Ancienne Douane?
5acd6add07355d001abf413c
True
Strasbourg
30
What city was Wolfgang Amadeus Mozart from?
5acd6add07355d001abf413d
True
stained
618
What type of glass is in the Eglise Saint-Ettienne?
5acd6add07355d001abf413e
True
In addition to the cathedral, Strasbourg houses several other medieval churches that have survived the many wars and destructions that have plagued the city: the Romanesque Église Saint-Étienne, partly destroyed in 1944 by Allied bombing raids, the part Romanesque, part Gothic, very large Église Saint-Thomas with its Silbermann organ on which Wolfgang Amadeus Mozart and Albert Schweitzer played, the Gothic Église protestante Saint-Pierre-le-Jeune with its crypt dating back to the seventh century and its cloister partly from the eleventh century, the Gothic Église Saint-Guillaume with its fine early-Renaissance stained glass and furniture, the Gothic Église Saint-Jean, the part Gothic, part Art Nouveau Église Sainte-Madeleine, etc. The Neo-Gothic church Saint-Pierre-le-Vieux Catholique (there is also an adjacent church Saint-Pierre-le-Vieux Protestant) serves as a shrine for several 15th-century wood worked and painted altars coming from other, now destroyed churches and installed there for public display. Among the numerous secular medieval buildings, the monumental Ancienne Douane (old custom-house) stands out.
How many museums does the Palais Rohan hold?
572814623acd2414000df3f7
three
310
False
What did the city hall used to be known as?
572814623acd2414000df3f8
Hôtel de Hanau
387
False
What is the largest baroque building in Strasbourg?
572814623acd2414000df3f9
Hôpital civil
773
False
Where is the Opera House located?
572814623acd2414000df3fa
Place Broglie
843
False
What did the military governors residence used to be called?
572814623acd2414000df3fb
Hôtel des Deux-Ponts
493
False
1755
515
In what year was the Chambre de commerce et d'industrie built?
5acd6b8107355d001abf4168
True
Classicism
202
What style of building is the Chambre de commerce et d'industrie?
5acd6b8107355d001abf4169
True
150 m
726
How tall is the Palais Rohan?
5acd6b8107355d001abf416a
True
490 ft
733
How tall is the  Chambre de commerce et d'industrie?
5acd6b8107355d001abf416b
True
150 m
726
How long is the Opera House on Place Broglie?
5acd6b8107355d001abf416c
True
The German Renaissance has bequeathed the city some noteworthy buildings (especially the current Chambre de commerce et d'industrie, former town hall, on Place Gutenberg), as did the French Baroque and Classicism with several hôtels particuliers (i.e. palaces), among which the Palais Rohan (1742, now housing three museums) is the most spectacular. Other buildings of its kind are the "Hôtel de Hanau" (1736, now the city hall), the Hôtel de Klinglin (1736, now residence of the préfet), the Hôtel des Deux-Ponts (1755, now residence of the military governor), the Hôtel d'Andlau-Klinglin (1725, now seat of the administration of the Port autonome de Strasbourg) etc. The largest baroque building of Strasbourg though is the 150 m (490 ft) long 1720s main building of the Hôpital civil. As for French Neo-classicism, it is the Opera House on Place Broglie that most prestigiously represents this style.
What kind of high class building does Strasbourg offer?
572817474b864d1900164458
eclecticist
34
False
What war caused severe damage to Germany?
572817474b864d1900164459
World War II
239
False
What was the former imperial palace called?
572817474b864d190016445a
Palais du Rhin
572
False
What was the former girls college called?
572817474b864d190016445b
Höhere Mädchenschule
857
False
How high were some of the buildings in urban Germany?
572817474b864d190016445c
seven stories
327
False
Neo-Egyptian
494
What style is the Palais du Rhin?
5acd6c4a07355d001abf4182
True
Neo-Babylonian
522
What building style is the Ecole Internationale des Pontonniers?
5acd6c4a07355d001abf4183
True
painted bricks, woodwork and majolica
1025
What type of facade does the Palais du Rhin have?
5acd6c4a07355d001abf4184
True
girls college
879
For what purpose was the Ecole des Arts decoratifs built?
5acd6c4a07355d001abf4185
True
seven stories
327
How high is the Palais du Rhin?
5acd6c4a07355d001abf4186
True
Strasbourg also offers high-class eclecticist buildings in its very extended German district, the Neustadt, being the main memory of Wilhelmian architecture since most of the major cities in Germany proper suffered intensive damage during World War II. Streets, boulevards and avenues are homogeneous, surprisingly high (up to seven stories) and broad examples of German urban lay-out and of this architectural style that summons and mixes up five centuries of European architecture as well as Neo-Egyptian, Neo-Greek and Neo-Babylonian styles. The former imperial palace Palais du Rhin, the most political and thus heavily criticized of all German Strasbourg buildings epitomizes the grand scale and stylistic sturdiness of this period. But the two most handsome and ornate buildings of these times are the École internationale des Pontonniers (the former Höhere Mädchenschule, girls college) with its towers, turrets and multiple round and square angles and the École des Arts décoratifs with its lavishly ornate façade of painted bricks, woodwork and majolica.
What is the fine Art Nouveau villa called?
572818b63acd2414000df46b
Villa Schutzenberger
160
False
Who lost the architectural contest?
572818b63acd2414000df46c
Le Corbusier
289
False
Who built the European Court of Human Rights building?
572818b63acd2414000df46d
Richard Rogers
527
False
What did Zaha Hadid design?
572818b63acd2414000df46e
Hoenheim-Nord
796
False
What is considered to be the finest building?
572818b63acd2414000df46f
European Court of Human Rights
484
False
Zaha Hadid
822
Who built the Palais des Fetes?
5acd6cf907355d001abf419e
True
Art Nouveau
76
What building style is the Cite Rotterdam?
5acd6cf907355d001abf419f
True
Le Corbusier
289
Who was the architect for the Hotel Brion?
5acd6cf907355d001abf41a0
True
Richard Rogers
527
Who created the Cite de la Musique et de la Danse?
5acd6cf907355d001abf41a1
True
Zaha Hadid
822
Who designed the Hotel du Departement?
5acd6cf907355d001abf41a2
True
As for modern and contemporary architecture, Strasbourg possesses some fine Art Nouveau buildings (such as the huge Palais des Fêtes and houses and villas like Villa Schutzenberger and Hôtel Brion), good examples of post-World War II functional architecture (the Cité Rotterdam, for which Le Corbusier did not succeed in the architectural contest) and, in the very extended Quartier Européen, some spectacular administrative buildings of sometimes utterly large size, among which the European Court of Human Rights building by Richard Rogers is arguably the finest. Other noticeable contemporary buildings are the new Music school Cité de la Musique et de la Danse, the Musée d'Art moderne et contemporain and the Hôtel du Département facing it, as well as, in the outskirts, the tramway-station Hoenheim-Nord designed by Zaha Hadid.
Who designed the Parc de l'Orangerie?
57281a6a2ca10214002d9de0
André le Nôtre
163
False
What park has a small zoo in it?
57281a6a2ca10214002d9de1
Parc de l'Orangerie
111
False
What park is built close to the Rhine by Vauban?
57281a6a2ca10214002d9de2
Parc de la Citadelle
338
False
What year was the Observatory of Strasbourg built?
57281a6a2ca10214002d9de3
1881
849
False
What is the oldest park in the city?
57281a6a2ca10214002d9de4
Parc des Contades
907
False
1881
849
In what year was the Parc de Pourtales laid out?
5acd6e0407355d001abf41c2
True
8,7 ha
1310
How big is the Parc de Pourtales?
5acd6e0407355d001abf41c3
True
Parc du Heyritz
1293
What is the oldest park in Strasbourg?
5acd6e0407355d001abf41c4
True
French
146
What style of park is the Parc du Heyritz?
5acd6e0407355d001abf41c5
True
André le Nôtre
163
Who designed the Parc du Heyritz?
5acd6e0407355d001abf41c6
True
Strasbourg features a number of prominent parks, of which several are of cultural and historical interest: the Parc de l'Orangerie, laid out as a French garden by André le Nôtre and remodeled as an English garden on behalf of Joséphine de Beauharnais, now displaying noteworthy French gardens, a neo-classical castle and a small zoo; the Parc de la Citadelle, built around impressive remains of the 17th-century fortress erected close to the Rhine by Vauban; the Parc de Pourtalès, laid out in English style around a baroque castle (heavily restored in the 19th century) that now houses a small three-star hotel, and featuring an open-air museum of international contemporary sculpture. The Jardin botanique de l'Université de Strasbourg (botanical garden) was created under the German administration next to the Observatory of Strasbourg, built in 1881, and still owns some greenhouses of those times. The Parc des Contades, although the oldest park of the city, was completely remodeled after World War II. The futuristic Parc des Poteries is an example of European park-conception in the late 1990s. The Jardin des deux Rives, spread over Strasbourg and Kehl on both sides of the Rhine opened in 2004 and is the most extended (60-hectare) park of the agglomeration. The most recent park is Parc du Heyritz (8,7 ha), opened in 2014 along a canal facing the hôpital civil.
Where are old master paintings from the Germanic Rhenish territories until 1681 held?
57281bdaff5b5019007d9d62
Musée de l'Œuvre Notre-Dame
251
False
Where are old master graphic arts until 1871 displayed?
57281bdaff5b5019007d9d63
Cabinet des estampes et dessins
576
False
Where are decorative arts until 1681 displayed?
57281bdaff5b5019007d9d64
Musée de l'Œuvre Notre-Dame
675
False
Where is the city's photographic library?
57281bdaff5b5019007d9d65
Musée d'art moderne et contemporain
908
False
Where is the international art since 1871 displayed?
57281bdaff5b5019007d9d66
Musée d'art moderne et contemporain
908
False
1681
225
When was the Musee de I'OEuvre Notre-Dame completed?
5acd6ed907355d001abf41f0
True
1871
883
When was the Musee d'art moderne et contemporain finished?
5acd6ed907355d001abf41f1
True
Germanic
427
What style of building is the Musee des Beaux-Arts?
5acd6ed907355d001abf41f2
True
1871
381
In what year was the Musee des art decoratifs completed?
5acd6ed907355d001abf41f3
True
Germanic
186
What style of building is the Musee des art decoratifs?
5acd6ed907355d001abf41f4
True
Unlike most other cities, Strasbourg's collections of European art are divided into several museums according not only to type and area, but also to epoch. Old master paintings from the Germanic Rhenish territories and until 1681 are displayed in the Musée de l'Œuvre Notre-Dame, old master paintings from all the rest of Europe (including the Dutch Rhenish territories) and until 1871 as well as old master paintings from the Germanic Rhenish territories between 1681 and 1871 are displayed in the Musée des Beaux-Arts. Old master graphic arts until 1871 is displayed in the Cabinet des estampes et dessins. Decorative arts until 1681 ("German period") are displayed in the Musée de l'Œuvre Notre-Dame, decorative arts from 1681 to 1871 ("French period") are displayed in the Musée des Arts décoratifs. International art (painting, sculpture, graphic arts) and decorative art since 1871 is displayed in the Musée d'art moderne et contemporain. The latter museum also displays the city's photographic library.
What is Strasbourg known as?
57281c9fff5b5019007d9d6c
centre of humanism
26
False
When was Strasbourg annexed by the Kingdom of France?
57281c9fff5b5019007d9d6d
1683
229
False
What did Montgelas study?
57281c9fff5b5019007d9d6e
law
464
False
From what empire did students come from to attend university?
57281c9fff5b5019007d9d6f
Holy Roman Empire
389
False
Kingdom of France
208
Who controlled Strasbourg prior to 1683?
5acd6f7807355d001abf4204
True
Paris
599
What city was Goethe from?
5acd6f7807355d001abf4205
True
Paris
599
Where did Montgelas go after studying law in Strasbourg?
5acd6f7807355d001abf4206
True
Strasbourg
0
Which city was Metternich from?
5acd6f7807355d001abf4207
True
German
270
What language did most people speak in Strasbourg in 1683?
5acd6f7807355d001abf4208
True
Strasbourg, well known as centre of humanism, has a long history of excellence in higher-education, at the crossroads of French and German intellectual traditions. Although Strasbourg had been annexed by the Kingdom of France in 1683, it still remained connected to the German-speaking intellectual world throughout the 18th century and the university attracted numerous students from the Holy Roman Empire, including Goethe, Metternich and Montgelas, who studied law in Strasbourg, among the most prominent. Nowadays, Strasbourg is known to offer among the best university courses in France, after Paris.
What is the second largest library in France?
57281d803acd2414000df4d1
Bibliothèque nationale et universitaire
4
False
How many titles does the library have?
57281d803acd2414000df4d2
3,000,000
87
False
Who founded the library?
57281d803acd2414000df4d3
German administration
208
False
When was the previous library destroyed?
57281d803acd2414000df4d4
1871
298
False
What was the library marked as on the map?
57281d803acd2414000df4d5
City Hall
456
False
3,000,000
87
How many books does the Bibliotheque nationale de France hold?
5acd706107355d001abf423e
True
1871
298
In what year was the previous municipal library completely destroyed?
5acd706107355d001abf423f
True
1871
298
In what year did a French map maker accidentally mark the library as "City Hall"?
5acd706107355d001abf4240
True
1871
298
In what year did the German artillery bomb the library?
5acd706107355d001abf4241
True
German administration
208
Who founded the Bibliotheque nationale de France?
5acd706107355d001abf4242
True
The Bibliothèque nationale et universitaire (BNU) is, with its collection of more than 3,000,000 titles, the second largest library in France after the Bibliothèque nationale de France. It was founded by the German administration after the complete destruction of the previous municipal library in 1871 and holds the unique status of being simultaneously a students' and a national library. The Strasbourg municipal library had been marked erroneously as "City Hall" in a French commercial map, which had been captured and used by the German artillery to lay their guns. A librarian from Munich later pointed out "...that the destruction of the precious collection was not the fault of a German artillery officer, who used the French map, but of the slovenly and inaccurate scholarship of a Frenchman."
What are incunabula's?
57281e814b864d19001644d6
documents printed before 1500
141
False
When was the library destroyed?
57281e814b864d19001644d7
1870
276
False
What kind of building holds incunabula's today?
57281e814b864d19001644d8
public and institutional libraries
374
False
1500
166
In what year did book-printing begin in Strasbourg?
5acd719107355d001abf4270
True
1870
276
In what year had the previous library been built?
5acd719107355d001abf4271
True
1870
276
In what year was Bibliotheque nationale et universitaire built?
5acd719107355d001abf4272
True
1500
166
In what year was Mediatheque protestante built?
5acd719107355d001abf4273
True
1870
276
In what year was Bibliotheque alsatique du Credit Mutuel built?
5acd719107355d001abf4274
True
As one of the earliest centers of book-printing in Europe (see above: History), Strasbourg for a long time held a large number of incunabula—documents printed before 1500—in her library as one of her most precious heritages. After the total destruction of this institution in 1870, however, a new collection had to be reassembled from scratch. Today, Strasbourg's different public and institutional libraries again display a sizable total number of incunabula, distributed as follows: Bibliothèque nationale et universitaire, ca. 2 098 Médiathèque de la ville et de la communauté urbaine de Strasbourg, 394 Bibliothèque du Grand Séminaire, 238 Médiathèque protestante, 94 and Bibliothèque alsatique du Crédit Mutuel, 5.
What year did the Strasbourg tramway open?
57281f79ff5b5019007d9d8c
1994
98
False
Who operates the Strasbourg tramway?
57281f79ff5b5019007d9d8d
regional transit company Compagnie des Transports Strasbourgeois
126
False
How many lines does the Strasbourg tramway have?
57281f79ff5b5019007d9d8e
6
212
False
What is the length of the Strasbourg tramway in total?
57281f79ff5b5019007d9d8f
55.8 km
243
False
How far do bike paths stretch in Strasbourg?
57281f79ff5b5019007d9d90
500 km
382
False
futurist-looking
47
What do the buses look like in Strasbourg?
5acd725107355d001abf4298
True
1994
98
In what year was the Compagnie des Transport Strasbourgeois established?
5acd725107355d001abf4299
True
55.8 km
243
How long is the bus network?
5acd725107355d001abf429a
True
34.7 mi
252
How long were the trolleybus routes?
5acd725107355d001abf429b
True
1994
98
In what year was Velhop established?
5acd725107355d001abf429c
True
City transportation in Strasbourg includes the futurist-looking Strasbourg tramway that opened in 1994 and is operated by the regional transit company Compagnie des Transports Strasbourgeois (CTS), consisting of 6 lines with a total length of 55.8 km (34.7 mi). The CTS also operates a comprehensive bus network throughout the city that is integrated with the trams. With more than 500 km (311 mi) of bicycle paths, biking in the city is convenient and the CTS operates a cheap bike-sharing scheme named Vélhop'. The CTS, and its predecessors, also operated a previous generation of tram system between 1878 and 1960, complemented by trolleybus routes between 1939 and 1962.
What year was the Canal de la Bruche added?
5728200fff5b5019007d9d96
1682
163
False
What kind of tourism attracts tourists yearly?
5728200fff5b5019007d9d97
Water tourism
549
False
What river is Strasbourg by?
5728200fff5b5019007d9d98
Rhine
41
False
1682
163
In what year was the Canal de la Bruche closed?
5acd72d007355d001abf42ca
True
1682
163
In what year was the Canal du Rhone au Rhine opened?
5acd72d007355d001abf42cb
True
Grand Canal d'Alsace
445
Which is newer, the Canal de la Marne au Rhin or the Grand Canal d'Alsace?
5acd72d007355d001abf42cc
True
Canal de la Marne au Rhin
415
Which canal attracts the most tourists?
5acd72d007355d001abf42cd
True
Grand Canal d'Alsace
445
Which canal attracts the fewest tourists?
5acd72d007355d001abf42ce
True
Being a city on the Ill and close to the Rhine, Strasbourg has always been an important centre of fluvial navigation, as is attested by archeological findings. In 1682 the Canal de la Bruche was added to the river navigations, initially to provide transport for sandstone from quarries in the Vosges for use in the fortification of the city. That canal has since closed, but the subsequent Canal du Rhone au Rhine, Canal de la Marne au Rhin and Grand Canal d'Alsace are still in use, as is the important activity of the Port autonome de Strasbourg. Water tourism inside the city proper attracts hundreds of thousands of tourists yearly.
What system also complements walking and biking?
572821043acd2414000df51f
tram
4
False
What kind of priority zone has the city centre been transformed into?
572821043acd2414000df520
pedestrian
141
False
What do bike paths go through to add enjoyment to the trip?
572821043acd2414000df521
public squares
762
False
What is the layout of the neighbourhoods called?
572821043acd2414000df522
Fused Grid
969
False
car
520
How do people most often get to Strasbourg from elsewhere?
5acd745d07355d001abf4310
True
biking
203
Who takes priority between pedestrians and bicyclists?
5acd745d07355d001abf4311
True
walking and biking
191
What is filtered out in the outer sections of Strausberg?
5acd745d07355d001abf4312
True
public squares and open spaces
762
What adds enjoyment to doing a trip in the outer sections of Strausberg?
5acd745d07355d001abf4313
True
the Fused Grid
965
What system is used as a comprehensive layout beyond central Strasbourg?
5acd745d07355d001abf4314
True
The tram system that now criss-crosses the historic city centre complements walking and biking in it. The centre has been transformed into a pedestrian priority zone that enables and invites walking and biking by making these active modes of transport comfortable, safe and enjoyable. These attributes are accomplished by applying the principle of "filtered permeability" to the existing irregular network of streets. It means that the network adaptations favour active transportation and, selectively, "filter out" the car by reducing the number of streets that run through the centre. While certain streets are discontinuous for cars, they connect to a network of pedestrian and bike paths which permeate the entire centre. In addition, these paths go through public squares and open spaces increasing the enjoyment of the trip. This logic of filtering a mode of transport is fully expressed in a comprehensive model for laying out neighbourhoods and districts – the Fused Grid.
What route parallels the Rhine?
572821e5ff5b5019007d9dbc
A35 autoroute
15
False
What year did the Grand contournement ouest project open?
572821e5ff5b5019007d9dbd
1999
247
False
How far is the connection between junctions A4 and the A35?
572821e5ff5b5019007d9dbe
24 km
274
False
The traffic coming west of the city is from where?
572821e5ff5b5019007d9dbf
unité urbaine
545
False
Paris
119
What does the A35 link Strasbourg with?
5acd751c07355d001abf4340
True
Karlsruhe
64
Where does the A35 link Strasbourg with?
5acd751c07355d001abf4341
True
1999
247
When was the A35 autoroute built?
5acd751c07355d001abf4342
True
24 km
274
How long is the A35?
5acd751c07355d001abf4343
True
15 mi
281
How long is the Rhine?
5acd751c07355d001abf4344
True
At present the A35 autoroute, which parallels the Rhine between Karlsruhe and Basel, and the A4 autoroute, which links Paris with Strasbourg, penetrate close to the centre of the city. The Grand contournement ouest (GCO) project, programmed since 1999, plans to construct a 24 km (15 mi) long highway connection between the junctions of the A4 and the A35 autoroutes in the north and of the A35 and A352 autoroutes in the south. This routes well to the west of the city and is meant to divest a significant portion of motorized traffic from the unité urbaine.
Oklahoma
What is the Cherokee name for Oklahoma?
5727cbc3ff5b5019007d9564
Asgaya gigageyi
36
False
What is the Pawnee name for Oklahoma?
5727cbc3ff5b5019007d9565
Uukuhuúwa
106
False
What is the Cayuga name for Oklahoma?
5727cbc3ff5b5019007d9566
Gahnawiyoˀgeh
125
False
Where does Oklahoma rank by population?
5727cbc3ff5b5019007d9567
28th
239
False
What is Oklahoma's nickname?
5727cbc3ff5b5019007d9568
The Sooner State
417
False
Oklahoma i/ˌoʊkləˈhoʊmə/ (Cherokee: Asgaya gigageyi / ᎠᏍᎦᏯ ᎩᎦᎨᏱ; or translated ᎣᎦᎳᎰᎹ (òɡàlàhoma), Pawnee: Uukuhuúwa, Cayuga: Gahnawiyoˀgeh) is a state located in the South Central United States. Oklahoma is the 20th most extensive and the 28th most populous of the 50 United States. The state's name is derived from the Choctaw words okla and humma, meaning "red people". It is also known informally by its nickname, The Sooner State, in reference to the non-Native settlers who staked their claims on the choicest pieces of land before the official opening date, and the Indian Appropriations Act of 1889, which opened the door for white settlement in America's Indian Territory. The name was settled upon statehood, Oklahoma Territory and Indian Territory were merged and Indian was dropped from the name. On November 16, 1907, Oklahoma became the 46th state to enter the union. Its residents are known as Oklahomans, or informally "Okies", and its capital and largest city is Oklahoma City.
What language does the name Oklahoma come from?
5727cc384b864d1900163d4e
Choctaw
33
False
What does Oklahoma mean?
5727cc384b864d1900163d4f
red people
78
False
When was the name Oklahoma suggested?
5727cc384b864d1900163d50
1866
139
False
Who suggested the name Oklahoma?
5727cc384b864d1900163d51
Choctaw Chief Allen Wright
90
False
When was the name Oklahoma made official?
5727cc384b864d1900163d52
1890
584
False
The name Oklahoma comes from the Choctaw phrase okla humma, literally meaning red people. Choctaw Chief Allen Wright suggested the name in 1866 during treaty negotiations with the federal government regarding the use of Indian Territory, in which he envisioned an all-Indian state controlled by the United States Superintendent of Indian Affairs. Equivalent to the English word Indian, okla humma was a phrase in the Choctaw language used to describe Native American people as a whole. Oklahoma later became the de facto name for Oklahoma Territory, and it was officially approved in 1890, two years after the area was opened to white settlers.
Where does Oklahoma rank by land area?
5727cc873acd2414000deca9
20th
16
False
How many square miles is Oklahoma?
5727cc873acd2414000decaa
69,898
77
False
How many square miles of water is in Oklahoma?
5727cc873acd2414000decab
1,281
162
False
How many states are on the Frontier Strip?
5727cc873acd2414000decac
six
216
False
Which state is north of Oklahoma?
5727cc873acd2414000decad
Kansas
411
False
Oklahoma is the 20th largest state in the United States, covering an area of 69,898 square miles (181,035 km2), with 68,667 square miles (177847 km2) of land and 1,281 square miles (3,188 km2) of water. It is one of six states on the Frontier Strip and lies partly in the Great Plains near the geographical center of the 48 contiguous states. It is bounded on the east by Arkansas and Missouri, on the north by Kansas, on the northwest by Colorado, on the far west by New Mexico, and on the south and near-west by Texas.
How far out of alignment is Oklahoma's western edge from Texas's border?
5727cd373acd2414000decc1
2.1 to 2.2 miles
129
False
When was the border between TX and NM first determined?
5727cd373acd2414000decc2
1819
260
False
When was Oklahoma's border determined?
5727cd373acd2414000decc3
1890s
315
False
Where is the NM border of both Oklahoma and Texas supposed to line up with?
5727cd373acd2414000decc4
the 103rd Meridian
288
False
Which one is more accurately placed, the TX/NM border or the OK/NM border?
5727cd373acd2414000decc5
Oklahoma/New Mexico border
766
False
The western edge of the Oklahoma panhandle is out of alignment with its Texas border. The Oklahoma/New Mexico border is actually 2.1 to 2.2 miles east of the Texas line. The border between Texas and New Mexico was set first as a result of a survey by Spain in 1819. It was then set along the 103rd Meridian. In the 1890s, when Oklahoma was formally surveyed using more accurate surveying equipment and techniques, it was discovered that the Texas line was not set along the 103rd Meridian. Surveying techniques were not as accurate in 1819, and the actual 103rd Meridian was approximately 2.2 miles to the east. It was much easier to leave the mistake as it was than for Texas to cede land to New Mexico to correct the original surveying error. The placement of the Oklahoma/New Mexico border represents the true 103rd Meridian.
What plateau is Oklahoma near?
5727cd9b3acd2414000decd3
Ozark Plateau
45
False
What watershed is Oklahoma in?
5727cd9b3acd2414000decd4
Gulf of Mexico
66
False
What is Oklahoma's tallest mountain?
5727cd9b3acd2414000decd5
Black Mesa
277
False
How many feet above sea level is Oklahoma's highest point?
5727cd9b3acd2414000decd6
4,973
292
False
How many feet above sea level is Oklahoma's lowest point?
5727cd9b3acd2414000decd7
289
522
False
Oklahoma is between the Great Plains and the Ozark Plateau in the Gulf of Mexico watershed, generally sloping from the high plains of its western boundary to the low wetlands of its southeastern boundary. Its highest and lowest points follow this trend, with its highest peak, Black Mesa, at 4,973 feet (1,516 m) above sea level, situated near its far northwest corner in the Oklahoma Panhandle. The state's lowest point is on the Little River near its far southeastern boundary near the town of Idabel, OK, which dips to 289 feet (88 m) above sea level.
How many major mountain ranges are in Oklahoma?
5727ce054b864d1900163d7e
four
13
False
Which of Oklahoma's mountain ranges are in the US Interior Highlands?
5727ce054b864d1900163d7f
the Ozark and Ouachita Mountains
192
False
What part of Oklahoma does the Flint Hills reach into?
5727ce054b864d1900163d80
north-central
358
False
What is the world's tallest hill?
5727ce054b864d1900163d81
Cavanal Hill
419
False
How high is Cavanal Hill?
5727ce054b864d1900163d82
1,999 feet
524
False
Oklahoma has four primary mountain ranges: the Ouachita Mountains, the Arbuckle Mountains, the Wichita Mountains, and the Ozark Mountains. Contained within the U.S. Interior Highlands region, the Ozark and Ouachita Mountains mark the only major mountainous region between the Rocky Mountains and the Appalachians. A portion of the Flint Hills stretches into north-central Oklahoma, and near the state's eastern border, Cavanal Hill is regarded by the Oklahoma Tourism & Recreation Department as the world's tallest hill; at 1,999 feet (609 m), it fails their definition of a mountain by one foot.
What is an example of a mesa range?
5727ce983acd2414000dece7
Glass Mountains
183
False
What part of Oklahoma is the Antelope Hills in?
5727ce983acd2414000dece8
southwestern
318
False
What part of Oklahoma has oak savannahs?
5727ce983acd2414000dece9
central
390
False
What mountains are in Oklahoma's eastern third?
5727ce983acd2414000decea
The Ozark and Ouachita Mountains
420
False
In which direction do the Ozark mountains get higher?
5727ce983acd2414000deceb
eastward
548
False
The semi-arid high plains in the state's northwestern corner harbor few natural forests; the region has a rolling to flat landscape with intermittent canyons and mesa ranges like the Glass Mountains. Partial plains interrupted by small, sky island mountain ranges like the Antelope Hills and the Wichita Mountains dot southwestern Oklahoma; transitional prairie and oak savannahs cover the central portion of the state. The Ozark and Ouachita Mountains rise from west to east over the state's eastern third, gradually increasing in elevation in an eastward direction.
How much of Oklahoma is covered in forests?
5727cf092ca10214002d9704
24 percent
14
False
What types of prairie grasslands does Oklahoma have?
5727cf092ca10214002d9705
shortgrass, mixed-grass, and tallgrass prairie
72
False
What part of Oklahoma has low rainfall?
5727cf092ca10214002d9706
western
280
False
What types of trees grow near rivers in western Oklahoma?
5727cf092ca10214002d9707
pinyon pines, red cedar (junipers), and ponderosa pines
386
False
What rare types of maples grow in southwest Oklahoma?
5727cf092ca10214002d9708
sugar maple, bigtooth maple
588
False
Forests cover 24 percent of Oklahoma and prairie grasslands composed of shortgrass, mixed-grass, and tallgrass prairie, harbor expansive ecosystems in the state's central and western portions, although cropland has largely replaced native grasses. Where rainfall is sparse in the western regions of the state, shortgrass prairie and shrublands are the most prominent ecosystems, though pinyon pines, red cedar (junipers), and ponderosa pines grow near rivers and creek beds in the far western reaches of the panhandle. Southwestern Oklahoma contains many rare, disjunct species including sugar maple, bigtooth maple, nolina and southern live oak.
What types of birds does Oklahoma have a lot of?
5727cfa22ca10214002d9716
quail, doves, cardinals, bald eagles, red-tailed hawks, and pheasants
128
False
What types of deer does Oklahoma have a lot of?
5727cfa22ca10214002d9717
white-tailed deer, mule deer
31
False
What does Oklahoma have the country's largest towns of?
5727cfa22ca10214002d9718
prairie dog
332
False
What part of Oklahoma is Cross Timbers in?
5727cfa22ca10214002d9719
Central
474
False
What part of Oklahoma does the American alligator live in?
5727cfa22ca10214002d971a
southeastern
707
False
The state holds populations of white-tailed deer, mule deer, antelope, coyotes, mountain lions, bobcats, elk, and birds such as quail, doves, cardinals, bald eagles, red-tailed hawks, and pheasants. In prairie ecosystems, American bison, greater prairie chickens, badgers, and armadillo are common, and some of the nation's largest prairie dog towns inhabit shortgrass prairie in the state's panhandle. The Cross Timbers, a region transitioning from prairie to woodlands in Central Oklahoma, harbors 351 vertebrate species. The Ouachita Mountains are home to black bear, red fox, grey fox, and river otter populations, which coexist with a total of 328 vertebrate species in southeastern Oklahoma. Also, in southeastern Oklahoma lives the American alligator.
How large is the Tallgrass Prairie Preserve?
5727d0282ca10214002d972a
39,000 acres
5
False
What part of Oklahoma is the Tallgrass Prairie Preserve in?
5727d0282ca10214002d972b
north-central
63
False
The Tallgrass Prairie Preserve is the largest protected tallgrass prairie in what area?
5727d0282ca10214002d972c
the world
140
False
How many states were originally covered by the Tallgrass Prairie Preserve?
5727d0282ca10214002d972d
14
250
False
How many national wildlife refuges are in Oklahoma?
5727d0282ca10214002d972e
nine
444
False
With 39,000 acres (158 km2), the Tallgrass Prairie Preserve in north-central Oklahoma is the largest protected area of tallgrass prairie in the world and is part of an ecosystem that encompasses only 10 percent of its former land area, once covering 14 states. In addition, the Black Kettle National Grassland covers 31,300 acres (127 km2) of prairie in southwestern Oklahoma. The Wichita Mountains Wildlife Refuge is the oldest and largest of nine national wildlife refuges in the state and was founded in 1901, encompassing 59,020 acres (238.8 km2).
What is Oklahoma's main climate region?
5727d0914b864d1900163dc0
humid subtropical
25
False
What natural-disaster-based nickname does Oklahoma's region have?
5727d0914b864d1900163dc1
Tornado Alley
295
False
How many tornadoes hit Oklahoma each year?
5727d0914b864d1900163dc2
average 62
719
False
What types of severe weather does Oklahoma get?
5727d0914b864d1900163dc3
severe thunderstorms, damaging thunderstorm winds, large hail and tornadoes
574
False
Where does Oklahoma receive hot dry air from?
5727d0914b864d1900163dc4
Mexico
408
False
Oklahoma is located in a humid subtropical region. Oklahoma lies in a transition zone between humid continental climate to the north, semi-arid climate to the west, and humid subtropical climate in the central, south and eastern portions of the state. Most of the state lies in an area known as Tornado Alley characterized by frequent interaction between cold, dry air from Canada, warm to hot, dry air from Mexico and the Southwestern U.S., and warm, moist air from the Gulf of Mexico. The interactions between these three contrasting air currents produces severe weather (severe thunderstorms, damaging thunderstorm winds, large hail and tornadoes) with a frequency virtually unseen anywhere else on planet Earth. An average 62 tornadoes strike the state per year—one of the highest rates in the world.
What is Oklahoma's record high temperature for Nov 11?
5727d11d3acd2414000ded19
83 °F
296
False
What is Oklahoma's record low temperature for Nov 11?
5727d11d3acd2414000ded1a
17 °F
492
False
What caused Oklahoma's temperature to plummet 66 degrees on Nov 11, 1911?
5727d11d3acd2414000ded1b
an Arctic cold front
365
False
How fast did the 1912 tornado outbreak make tornadoes?
5727d11d3acd2414000ded1c
one tornado per hour
850
False
How long did the 1912 tornado outbreak last?
5727d11d3acd2414000ded1d
a day
890
False
Because of Oklahoma's position between zones of differing prevailing temperature and winds, weather patterns within the state can vary widely over relatively short distances and can change drastically in a short time. As an example, on November 11, 1911, the temperature at Oklahoma City reached 83 °F (28 °C) in the afternoon (the record high for that date), then an Arctic cold front of unprecedented intensity slammed across the state, causing the temperature to crash 66 degrees, down to 17 °F (−8 °C) at midnight (the record low for that date); thus, both the record high and record low for November 11 were set on the same date. This type of phenomenon is also responsible for many of the tornadoes in the area, such as the 1912 Oklahoma tornado outbreak, when a warm front traveled along a stalled cold front, resulting in an average of about one tornado per hour over the course of a day.
What parts of Oklahoma are in a humid subtropical climate?
5727d1953acd2414000ded35
central, southern and eastern
46
False
Where do Oklahoma's winds bring moisture from?
5727d1953acd2414000ded36
Gulf of Mexico
153
False
What is Oklahoma's western climate type?
5727d1953acd2414000ded37
semi-arid
236
False
Where in Oklahoma does the semi-arid zone begin?
5727d1953acd2414000ded38
Lawton
335
False
What is the average annual temperature in southeast Oklahoma?
5727d1953acd2414000ded39
62 °F
531
False
The humid subtropical climate (Koppen Cfa) of central, southern and eastern Oklahoma is influenced heavily by southerly winds bringing moisture from the Gulf of Mexico. Traveling westward, the climate transitions progressively toward a semi-arid zone (Koppen BSk) in the high plains of the Panhandle and other western areas from about Lawton westward, less frequently touched by southern moisture. Precipitation and temperatures decline from east to west accordingly, with areas in the southeast averaging an annual temperature of 62 °F (17 °C) and an annual rainfall of generally over 40 inches (1,020 mm) and up to 56 inches (1,420 mm), while areas of the (higher-elevation) panhandle average 58 °F (14 °C), with an annual rainfall under 17 inches (430 mm).
Which season is the most dry in Oklahoma?
5727d20b2ca10214002d9756
winter
29
False
When does Oklahoma get the most rain?
5727d20b2ca10214002d9757
May
138
False
When is the second-driest season in Oklahoma?
5727d20b2ca10214002d9758
Mid-summer
358
False
What years were Oklahoma's hottest summers?
5727d20b2ca10214002d9759
1934, 1954, 1980 and 2011
611
False
How hot were Oklahoma's hottest summers?
5727d20b2ca10214002d975a
well over 100 °F
719
False
Over almost all of Oklahoma, winter is the driest season. Average monthly precipitation increases dramatically in the spring to a peak in May, the wettest month over most of the state, with its frequent and not uncommonly severe thunderstorm activity. Early June can still be wet, but most years see a marked decrease in rainfall during June and early July. Mid-summer (July and August) represents a secondary dry season over much of Oklahoma, with long stretches of hot weather with only sporadic thunderstorm activity not uncommon many years. Severe drought is common in the hottest summers, such as those of 1934, 1954, 1980 and 2011, all of which featured weeks on end of virtual rainlessness and high temperatures well over 100 °F (38 °C). Average precipitation rises again from September to mid-October, representing a secondary wetter season, then declines from late October through December.
What parts of Oklahoma rarely see below-zero temperatures?
5727d27f4b864d1900163de6
south-central and southeastern
141
False
What is the average snowfall in southern Oklahoma?
5727d27f4b864d1900163de7
less than 4 inches
217
False
What is the average snowfall in Oklahoma near the Colorado border?
5727d27f4b864d1900163de8
over 20 inches
265
False
Where is the Storm Prediction Center located?
5727d27f4b864d1900163de9
Norman
519
False
What was Oklahoma's record high temperature?
5727d27f4b864d1900163dea
120 °F
570
False
All of the state frequently experiences temperatures above 100 °F (38 °C) or below 0 °F (−18 °C), though below-zero temperatures are rare in south-central and southeastern Oklahoma. Snowfall ranges from an average of less than 4 inches (10 cm) in the south to just over 20 inches (51 cm) on the border of Colorado in the panhandle. The state is home to the Storm Prediction Center, the National Severe Storms Laboratory, and the Warning Decision Training Branch, all part of the National Weather Service and located in Norman. Oklahoma's highest recorded temperature of 120 °F (49 °C) was recorded at Tipton on June 27, 1994 and the lowest recorded temperature of −31 °F (−35 °C) was recorded at Nowata on February 10, 2011.
Ancestors of which tribes lived in Oklahoma?
5727d307ff5b5019007d9622
Wichita and Caddo
109
False
What was Spiro, Oklahoma named for?
5727d307ff5b5019007d9623
Spiro Mounds
295
False
When did Spiro Mounds flourish?
5727d307ff5b5019007d9624
between AD 850 and 1450
358
False
What Spanish explorer visited Oklahoma in 1541?
5727d307ff5b5019007d9625
Francisco Vásquez de Coronado
392
False
When did France sell Oklahoma's land to the US?
5727d307ff5b5019007d9626
1803
549
False
Evidence exists that native peoples traveled through Oklahoma as early as the last ice age. Ancestors of the Wichita and Caddo lived in what is now Oklahoma. The Panhandle culture peoples were precontact residents of the panhandle region. The westernmost center of the Mississippian culture was Spiro Mounds, in what is now Spiro, Oklahoma, which flourished between AD 850 and 1450. Spaniard Francisco Vásquez de Coronado traveled through the state in 1541, but French explorers claimed the area in the 1700s and it remained under French rule until 1803, when all the French territory west of the Mississippi River was purchased by the United States in the Louisiana Purchase.
What was the "Oil Capital of the World"?
5727d3514b864d1900163dfa
Tulsa
151
False
What type of investments were important in early Oklahoma?
5727d3514b864d1900163dfb
oil
248
False
Who was the "Father of Route 66"?
5727d3514b864d1900163dfc
Cyrus Avery
337
False
When did Route 66 begin?
5727d3514b864d1900163dfd
1927
309
False
Where was the Highway 66 Association based?
5727d3514b864d1900163dfe
Tulsa
668
False
The new state became a focal point for the emerging oil industry, as discoveries of oil pools prompted towns to grow rapidly in population and wealth. Tulsa eventually became known as the "Oil Capital of the World" for most of the 20th century and oil investments fueled much of the state's early economy. In 1927, Oklahoman businessman Cyrus Avery, known as the "Father of Route 66", began the campaign to create U.S. Route 66. Using a stretch of highway from Amarillo, Texas to Tulsa, Oklahoma to form the original portion of Highway 66, Avery spearheaded the creation of the U.S. Highway 66 Association to oversee the planning of Route 66, based in his hometown of Tulsa.
When did the Dust Bowl begin?
5727d3bb3acd2414000ded73
1930s
11
False
What mistake led to the Dust Bowl?
5727d3bb3acd2414000ded74
poor farming practices
73
False
What states were affected by the Dust Bowl?
5727d3bb3acd2414000ded75
Kansas, Texas, New Mexico and northwestern Oklahoma
163
False
How many farmers had to relocate because of the Dust Bowl?
5727d3bb3acd2414000ded76
thousands
306
False
How much did Oklahoma's population decline from 1930 to 1950?
5727d3bb3acd2414000ded77
6.9 percent
529
False
During the 1930s, parts of the state began suffering the consequences of poor farming practices, extended drought and high winds. Known as the Dust Bowl, areas of Kansas, Texas, New Mexico and northwestern Oklahoma were hampered by long periods of little rainfall and abnormally high temperatures, sending thousands of farmers into poverty and forcing them to relocate to more fertile areas of the western United States. Over a twenty-year period ending in 1950, the state saw its only historical decline in population, dropping 6.9 percent as impoverished families migrated out of the state after the Dust Bowl.
When was the Oklahoma City Bombing?
5727d4022ca10214002d9772
April 19, 1995
144
False
Who committed the Oklahoma City Bombing?
5727d4022ca10214002d9773
Timothy McVeigh and Terry Nichols
169
False
How many people died in the Oklahoma City Bombing?
5727d4022ca10214002d9774
168
283
False
How many children died in the Oklahoma City Bombing?
5727d4022ca10214002d9775
19
305
False
When was McVeigh executed?
5727d4022ca10214002d9776
June 11, 2001
434
False
In 1995, Oklahoma City was the site of one of the most destructive acts of domestic terrorism in American history. The Oklahoma City bombing of April 19, 1995, in which Timothy McVeigh and Terry Nichols detonated an explosive outside of the Alfred P. Murrah Federal Building, killed 168 people, including 19 children. The two men were convicted of the bombing: McVeigh was sentenced to death and executed by the federal government on June 11, 2001; his partner Nichols is serving a sentence of life in prison without the possibility of parole. McVeigh's army buddy, Michael Fortier, was sentenced to 12 years in federal prison and ordered to pay a $75,000 fine for his role in the bombing plot (i.e. assisting in the sale of guns to raise funds for the bombing, and examining the Murrah Federal building as a possible target before the terrorist attack). His wife, Lori Fortier, who has since died, was granted immunity from prosecution in return for her testimony in the case.
When did Oklahoma declare an official language?
5727d4703acd2414000ded85
2010
70
False
How many Oklahomans speak only English at home, as of 2000?
5727d4703acd2414000ded86
2,977,187
285
False
What percent of Oklahomans speak only English at home, as of 2000?
5727d4703acd2414000ded87
92.6%
306
False
What is the second-most-prevalent language in Oklahoma?
5727d4703acd2414000ded88
Spanish
560
False
What is the third-most-prevalent language in Oklahoma?
5727d4703acd2414000ded89
Cherokee
707
False
The English language has been official in the state of Oklahoma since 2010. The variety of North American English spoken is called Oklahoma English, and this dialect is quite diverse with its uneven blending of features of North Midland, South Midland, and Southern dialects. In 2000, 2,977,187 Oklahomans—92.6% of the resident population five years or older—spoke only English at home, a decrease from 95% in 1990. 238,732 Oklahoma residents reported speaking a language other than English in the 2000 census, about 7.4% of the total population of the state. Spanish is the second most commonly spoken language in the state, with 141,060 speakers counted in 2000. The next most commonly spoken language is Cherokee, with about 22,000 speakers living within the Cherokee Nation tribal jurisdiction area of eastern Oklahoma. Cherokee is an official language in the Cherokee Nation tribal jurisdiction area and in the United Keetoowah Band of Cherokee Indians.
What is Oklahoma's fourth most popular language?
5727d4ce4b864d1900163e12
German
0
False
How many Oklahomans speak German?
5727d4ce4b864d1900163e13
13,444
55
False
What is Oklahoma's fifth most popular language?
5727d4ce4b864d1900163e14
Vietnamese
135
False
How many Oklahomans speak Vietnamese?
5727d4ce4b864d1900163e15
11,330
157
False
How many Native American languages are used in Oklahoma?
5727d4ce4b864d1900163e16
more than 25
562
False
German is the fourth most commonly used language, with 13,444 speakers representing about 0.4% of the total state population. Fifth is Vietnamese, spoken by 11,330 people, or about 0.4% of the population, many of whom live in the Asia District of Oklahoma City. Other languages include French with 8,258 speakers (0.3%), Chinese with 6,413 (0.2%), Korean with 3,948 (0.1%), Arabic with 3,265 (0.1%), other Asian languages with 3,134 (0.1%), Tagalog with 2,888 (0.1%), Japanese with 2,546 (0.1%), and African languages with 2,546 (0.1%). In addition to Cherokee, more than 25 Native American languages are spoken in Oklahoma, second only to California (though, it should be noted that only Cherokee exhibits language vitality at present).
What is the conservative Evangelical Christian region called?
5727d53a2ca10214002d978e
the "Bible Belt"
110
False
What parts of the US are covered by the 'Bible Belt'?
5727d53a2ca10214002d978f
southern and eastern
141
False
What political party has the most members in Oklahoma?
5727d53a2ca10214002d9790
Democratic
314
False
What is Oklahoma's 2nd-largest city?
5727d53a2ca10214002d9791
Tulsa
358
False
How much of Oklahoma's population is Christian?
5727d53a2ca10214002d9792
80 percent
619
False
Oklahoma is part of a geographical region characterized by conservative and Evangelical Christianity known as the "Bible Belt". Spanning the southern and eastern parts of the United States, the area is known for politically and socially conservative views, even though Oklahoma has more voters registered with the Democratic Party than with any other party. Tulsa, the state's second largest city, home to Oral Roberts University, is sometimes called the "buckle of the Bible Belt". According to the Pew Research Center, the majority of Oklahoma's religious adherents – 85 percent – are Christian, accounting for about 80 percent of the population. The percentage of Oklahomans affiliated with Catholicism is half of the national average, while the percentage affiliated with Evangelical Protestantism is more than twice the national average – tied with Arkansas for the largest percentage of any state.
How does Oklahoma rank among US states for producing natural gas?
5727d5953acd2414000dedb1
third
241
False
How does Oklahoma rank among US states for agriculture?
5727d5953acd2414000dedb2
27th
299
False
How does Oklahoma rank among US states for producing wheat?
5727d5953acd2414000dedb3
5th
357
False
How many Fortune 500 companies are based in Oklahoma?
5727d5953acd2414000dedb4
Four
385
False
How many Fortune 1000 companies are based in Oklahoma?
5727d5953acd2414000dedb5
six
416
False
Oklahoma is host to a diverse range of sectors including aviation, energy, transportation equipment, food processing, electronics, and telecommunications. Oklahoma is an important producer of natural gas, aircraft, and food. The state ranks third in the nation for production of natural gas, is the 27th-most agriculturally productive state, and also ranks 5th in production of wheat. Four Fortune 500 companies and six Fortune 1000 companies are headquartered in Oklahoma, and it has been rated one of the most business-friendly states in the nation, with the 7th-lowest tax burden in 2007.
What is Oklahoma's rank among states producing crude oil?
5727d60cff5b5019007d9668
fifth
64
False
What is Oklahoma's rank among states by active drilling rigs?
5727d60cff5b5019007d9669
second
113
False
How does Oklahoma's crude oil reserves rank among states?
5727d60cff5b5019007d966a
fifth
171
False
How much of Oklahoma's electricity comes from non-renewable sources?
5727d60cff5b5019007d966b
94 percent
339
False
How much of Oklahoma's electricity comes from coal?
5727d60cff5b5019007d966c
25 percent
429
False
Oklahoma is the nation's third-largest producer of natural gas, fifth-largest producer of crude oil, and has the second-greatest number of active drilling rigs, and ranks fifth in crude oil reserves. While the state ranked eighth for installed wind energy capacity in 2011, it is at the bottom of states in usage of renewable energy, with 94 percent of its electricity being generated by non-renewable sources in 2009, including 25 percent from coal and 46 percent from natural gas. Oklahoma has no nuclear power. Ranking 13th for total energy consumption per capita in 2009, Oklahoma's energy costs were 8th lowest in the nation.
Which largest private oil companies are based in Oklahoma City?
5727d6782ca10214002d97b6
Devon Energy Corporation, Chesapeake Energy Corporation, and SandRidge Energy Corporation
50
False
What industry are all of the Oklahoma-based Fortune 500 companies in?
5727d6782ca10214002d97b7
energy
249
False
What is the largest company in Oklahoma?
5727d6782ca10214002d97b8
ONEOK
273
False
What is the 2nd-largest company in Oklahoma?
5727d6782ca10214002d97b9
Williams Companies
283
False
Where is ONEOK based?
5727d6782ca10214002d97ba
Tulsa
265
False
According to Forbes magazine, Oklahoma City-based Devon Energy Corporation, Chesapeake Energy Corporation, and SandRidge Energy Corporation are the largest private oil-related companies in the nation, and all of Oklahoma's Fortune 500 companies are energy-related. Tulsa's ONEOK and Williams Companies are the state's largest and second-largest companies respectively, also ranking as the nation's second and third-largest companies in the field of energy, according to Fortune magazine. The magazine also placed Devon Energy as the second-largest company in the mining and crude oil-producing industry in the nation, while Chesapeake Energy ranks seventh respectively in that sector and Oklahoma Gas & Electric ranks as the 25th-largest gas and electric utility company.
How many famous Native American ballerinas came from Oklahoma?
5727d72bff5b5019007d96a2
five
44
False
What are Oklahoma's Native American ballerinas called?
5727d72bff5b5019007d96a3
the Five Moons
230
False
What ballerina started the Oklahoma City Ballet?
5727d72bff5b5019007d96a4
Yvonne Chouteau
438
False
When did the University of Oklahoma's dance program begin?
5727d72bff5b5019007d96a5
1962
521
False
Which sisters were in the Five Moons?
5727d72bff5b5019007d96a6
Marjorie and Maria Tallchief
138
False
The state has a rich history in ballet with five Native American ballerinas attaining worldwide fame. These were Yvonne Chouteau, sisters Marjorie and Maria Tallchief, Rosella Hightower and Moscelyne Larkin, known collectively as the Five Moons. The New York Times rates the Tulsa Ballet as one of the top ballet companies in the United States. The Oklahoma City Ballet and University of Oklahoma's dance program were formed by ballerina Yvonne Chouteau and husband Miguel Terekhov. The University program was founded in 1962 and was the first fully accredited program of its kind in the United States.
Where is 'Discoveryland!'?
5727d77c4b864d1900163e3e
Sand Springs
3
False
Who starred in the Broadway production of 'Oklahoma!'?
5727d77c4b864d1900163e3f
Ridge Bond
132
False
Where is Ridge Bond from?
5727d77c4b864d1900163e40
McAlester, Oklahoma
154
False
Who did Ridge Bond play?
5727d77c4b864d1900163e41
Curly McClain
272
False
How many performances of Oklahoma! was Ridge Bond in?
5727d77c4b864d1900163e42
more than 2,600
290
False
In Sand Springs, an outdoor amphitheater called "Discoveryland!" is the official performance headquarters for the musical Oklahoma! Ridge Bond, native of McAlester, Oklahoma, starred in the Broadway and International touring productions of Oklahoma!, playing the role of "Curly McClain" in more than 2,600 performances. In 1953 he was featured along with the Oklahoma! cast on a CBS Omnibus television broadcast. Bond was instrumental in the title song becoming the Oklahoma state song and is also featured on the U.S. postage stamp commemorating the musical's 50th anniversary. Historically, the state has produced musical styles such as The Tulsa Sound and western swing, which was popularized at Cain's Ballroom in Tulsa. The building, known as the "Carnegie Hall of Western Swing", served as the performance headquarters of Bob Wills and the Texas Playboys during the 1930s. Stillwater is known as the epicenter of Red Dirt music, the best-known proponent of which is the late Bob Childers.
What major theater groups are in Oklahoma City?
5727d7f52ca10214002d97da
Oklahoma City Theatre Company, Carpenter Square Theatre, Oklahoma Shakespeare in the Park, and CityRep
70
False
What is the oldest community theater group west of the Mississippi River?
5727d7f52ca10214002d97db
Theatre Tulsa
380
False
Where is the American Theatre Company based?
5727d7f52ca10214002d97dc
Tulsa
292
False
What is the oldest resident professional theater company in Oklahoma?
5727d7f52ca10214002d97dd
American Theatre Company
350
False
Where is Heller Theatre?
5727d7f52ca10214002d97de
Tulsa
478
False
Prominent theatre companies in Oklahoma include, in the capital city, Oklahoma City Theatre Company, Carpenter Square Theatre, Oklahoma Shakespeare in the Park, and CityRep. CityRep is a professional company affording equity points to those performers and technical theatre professionals. In Tulsa, Oklahoma's oldest resident professional company is American Theatre Company, and Theatre Tulsa is the oldest community theatre company west of the Mississippi. Other companies in Tulsa include Heller Theatre and Tulsa Spotlight Theater. The cities of Norman, Lawton, and Stillwater, among others, also host well-reviewed community theatre companies.
How many museums are in Oklahoma?
5727d8792ca10214002d97e4
more than 300
109
False
How does Oklahoma's per-capita arts spending rank?
5727d8792ca10214002d97e5
17th
90
False
Where is the Philbrook Museum?
5727d8792ca10214002d97e6
Tulsa
156
False
What kind of museum is the Philbrook?
5727d8792ca10214002d97e7
fine art
194
False
Where are Thomas Gilcrease's collections housed?
5727d8792ca10214002d97e8
Gilcrease Museum of Tulsa
472
False
Oklahoma is in the nation's middle percentile in per capita spending on the arts, ranking 17th, and contains more than 300 museums. The Philbrook Museum of Tulsa is considered one of the top 50 fine art museums in the United States, and the Sam Noble Oklahoma Museum of Natural History in Norman, one of the largest university-based art and history museums in the country, documents the natural history of the region. The collections of Thomas Gilcrease are housed in the Gilcrease Museum of Tulsa, which also holds the world's largest, most comprehensive collection of art and artifacts of the American West.
Where does Oklahoma have a fine Egyptian art collection?
5727d96f3acd2414000dee03
Mabee-Gerrer Museum of Art in Shawnee
35
False
Where is the largest collection of Dale Chinuly's work?
5727d96f3acd2414000dee04
Oklahoma City Museum of Art
161
False
What kind of art did Dale Chinuly make?
5727d96f3acd2414000dee05
glass sculptures
235
False
Where is the National Cowboy and Western Heritage Museum?
5727d96f3acd2414000dee06
Oklahoma City
293
False
Where is the largest Jewish art collection in the southwest?
5727d96f3acd2414000dee07
Sherwin Miller Museum of Jewish Art of Tulsa
480
False
The Egyptian art collection at the Mabee-Gerrer Museum of Art in Shawnee is considered to be the finest Egyptian collection between Chicago and Los Angeles. The Oklahoma City Museum of Art contains the most comprehensive collection of glass sculptures by artist Dale Chihuly in the world, and Oklahoma City's National Cowboy and Western Heritage Museum documents the heritage of the American Western frontier. With remnants of the Holocaust and artifacts relevant to Judaism, the Sherwin Miller Museum of Jewish Art of Tulsa preserves the largest collection of Jewish art in the Southwest United States.
When was Oklahoma's centennial year?
5727d9f64b864d1900163e86
2007
83
False
When was the exact hundredth anniversary of Oklahoma's statehood?
5727d9f64b864d1900163e87
November 16, 2007
210
False
What organization said Oklahoma's centennial was the top event in the US that year?
5727d9f64b864d1900163e88
American Bus Association
95
False
What do ethnic festivals depict?
5727d9f64b864d1900163e89
cultural heritage or traditions
517
False
Oklahoma's centennial celebration was named the top event in the United States for 2007 by the American Bus Association, and consisted of multiple celebrations saving with the 100th anniversary of statehood on November 16, 2007. Annual ethnic festivals and events take place throughout the state such as Native American powwows and ceremonial events, and include festivals (as examples) in Scottish, Irish, German, Italian, Vietnamese, Chinese, Czech, Jewish, Arab, Mexican and African-American communities depicting cultural heritage or traditions.
How long is the State Fair of Oklahoma?
5727de82ff5b5019007d9720
10-day
9
False
Where is the State Fair of Oklahoma?
5727de82ff5b5019007d9721
Oklahoma City
23
False
How many people attend the State Fair of Oklahoma each year?
5727de82ff5b5019007d9722
roughly one million
74
False
How long is the Tulsa State Fair?
5727de82ff5b5019007d9723
10-day
375
False
How many people attend the Tulsa State Fair each year?
5727de82ff5b5019007d9724
over one million
340
False
During a 10-day run in Oklahoma City, the State Fair of Oklahoma attracts roughly one million people along with the annual Festival of the Arts. Large national pow-wows, various Latin and Asian heritage festivals, and cultural festivals such as the Juneteenth celebrations are held in Oklahoma City each year. The Tulsa State Fair attracts over one million people during its 10-day run, and the city's Mayfest festival entertained more than 375,000 people in four days during 2007. In 2006, Tulsa's Oktoberfest was named one of the top 10 in the world by USA Today and one of the top German food festivals in the nation by Bon Appetit magazine.
When did the Medieval Fair of Norman begin?
5727df132ca10214002d986e
1976
199
False
Where was Oklahoma's first medieval fair?
5727df132ca10214002d986f
Norman
112
False
Where was the Medieval Fair of Norman held for its first 2 years?
5727df132ca10214002d9870
the south oval of the University of Oklahoma campus
271
False
Where was the Medieval Fair of Norman held from 1978 to 2002?
5727df132ca10214002d9871
Duck Pond in Norman
358
False
Where has the Medieval Fair of Norman been held since 2003?
5727df132ca10214002d9872
Reaves Park
421
False
Norman plays host to the Norman Music Festival, a festival that highlights native Oklahoma bands and musicians. Norman is also host to the Medieval Fair of Norman, which has been held annually since 1976 and was Oklahoma's first medieval fair. The Fair was held first on the south oval of the University of Oklahoma campus and in the third year moved to the Duck Pond in Norman until the Fair became too big and moved to Reaves Park in 2003. The Medieval Fair of Norman is Oklahoma's "largest weekend event and the third largest event in Oklahoma, and was selected by Events Media Network as one of the top 100 events in the nation".
How many students were in Oklahoma's public schools in 2008?
5727df983acd2414000deea3
638,817
113
False
How many school districts are in Oklahoma?
5727df983acd2414000deea4
533
201
False
How many Native American students are in Oklahoma's public schools?
5727df983acd2414000deea5
126,078
325
False
What does Oklahoma spend per student in public schools as of 2008?
5727df983acd2414000deea6
$7,755
447
False
How many public schools does Oklahoma have?
5727df983acd2414000deea7
1,845
142
False
With an educational system made up of public school districts and independent private institutions, Oklahoma had 638,817 students enrolled in 1,845 public primary, secondary, and vocational schools in 533 school districts as of 2008[update]. Oklahoma has the highest enrollment of Native American students in the nation with 126,078 students in the 2009-10 school year. Ranked near the bottom of states in expenditures per student, Oklahoma spent $7,755 for each student in 2008, 47th in the nation, though its growth of total education expenditures between 1992 and 2002 ranked 22nd.
Who said Oklahoma's pre-K program is the best in the US?
5727e0032ca10214002d9886
National Institute for Early Education Research
67
False
When was Oklahoma's pre-K called 'a model for early childhood schooling'?
5727e0032ca10214002d9887
2004
230
False
What was Oklahoma's high school dropout rate in 2007?
5727e0032ca10214002d9888
3.1
326
False
What was Oklahoma's high school dropout rate in 2008?
5727e0032ca10214002d9889
2.5 percent
333
False
What percent of Oklahomans have graduated high school?
5727e0032ca10214002d988a
85.2 percent
563
False
The state is among the best in pre-kindergarten education, and the National Institute for Early Education Research rated it first in the United States with regard to standards, quality, and access to pre-kindergarten education in 2004, calling it a model for early childhood schooling. High school dropout rate decreased from 3.1 to 2.5 percent between 2007 and 2008 with Oklahoma ranked among 18 other states with 3 percent or less dropout rate. In 2004, the state ranked 36th in the nation for the relative number of adults with high school diplomas, though at 85.2 percent, it had the highest rate among southern states.
How many public universities does Oklahoma have?
5727e060ff5b5019007d9754
eleven
15
False
What is the second-oldest university west of the MS River?
5727e060ff5b5019007d9755
Northeastern State University
62
False
Within what university is Oklahoma's only optometry college?
5727e060ff5b5019007d9756
Northeastern State University
62
False
What university has the largest Native American enrollment in the US?
5727e060ff5b5019007d9757
Northeastern State University
62
False
What is Oklahoma's only HBCU?
5727e060ff5b5019007d9758
Langston University
327
False
Oklahoma holds eleven public regional universities, including Northeastern State University, the second-oldest institution of higher education west of the Mississippi River, also containing the only College of Optometry in Oklahoma and the largest enrollment of Native American students in the nation by percentage and amount. Langston University is Oklahoma's only historically black college. Six of the state's universities were placed in the Princeton Review's list of best 122 regional colleges in 2007, and three made the list of top colleges for best value. The state has 55 post-secondary technical institutions operated by Oklahoma's CareerTech program for training in specific fields of industry or trade.
How many undergrad students were in Oklahoma in 2007?
5727e0cc2ca10214002d9898
181,973
41
False
How many grad students were in Oklahoma in 2007?
5727e0cc2ca10214002d9899
20,014
73
False
How many professional degree college students were in Oklahoma in 2007?
5727e0cc2ca10214002d989a
4,395
103
False
How many of Oklahoma's 2007 undergrads completed their degree?
5727e0cc2ca10214002d989b
18,892
194
False
How many of Oklahoma's 2007 grad students completed their degree?
5727e0cc2ca10214002d989c
5,386
231
False
In the 2007–2008 school year, there were 181,973 undergraduate students, 20,014 graduate students, and 4,395 first-professional degree students enrolled in Oklahoma colleges. Of these students, 18,892 received a bachelor's degree, 5,386 received a master's degree, and 462 received a first professional degree. This means the state of Oklahoma produces an average of 38,278 degree-holders per completions component (i.e. July 1, 2007 – June 30, 2008). National average is 68,322 total degrees awarded per completions component.
Which Native American group is involved in a language preservation project?
5727e1424b864d1900163f22
Cherokee Nation
4
False
What percent of Cherokee people are desired to be fluent in Cherokee?
5727e1424b864d1900163f23
80% or more
333
False
What group runs the Cherokee language preservation project?
5727e1424b864d1900163f24
Cherokee Preservation Foundation
404
False
How much has the Cherokee Preservation Foundation spent on schools?
5727e1424b864d1900163f25
$3 million
450
False
Where is there a Cherokee immersion school?
5727e1424b864d1900163f26
Tahlequah, Oklahoma
684
False
The Cherokee Nation instigated a 10-year language preservation plan that involved growing new fluent speakers of the Cherokee language from childhood on up through school immersion programs as well as a collaborative community effort to continue to use the language at home. This plan was part of an ambitious goal that in 50 years, 80% or more of the Cherokee people will be fluent in the language. The Cherokee Preservation Foundation has invested $3 million into opening schools, training teachers, and developing curricula for language education, as well as initiating community gatherings where the language can be actively used. There is a Cherokee language immersion school in Tahlequah, Oklahoma that educates students from pre-school through eighth grade. Graduates are fluent speakers of the language. Several universities offer Cherokee as a second language, including the University of Oklahoma and Northeastern State University.
What is the only major league sports team in Oklahoma?
5727e1d23acd2414000deed9
Oklahoma City Thunder
163
False
What league is the Thunder in?
5727e1d23acd2414000deeda
National Basketball Association
192
False
What had Oklahoma's WNBA team been?
5727e1d23acd2414000deedb
Tulsa Shock
354
False
Where did Oklahoma's WNBA team move to?
5727e1d23acd2414000deedc
Dallas–Fort Worth
417
False
What was Oklahoma's WNBA team renamed to when it moved?
5727e1d23acd2414000deedd
Dallas Wings
468
False
Oklahoma has teams in basketball, football, arena football, baseball, soccer, hockey, and wrestling located in Oklahoma City, Tulsa, Enid, Norman, and Lawton. The Oklahoma City Thunder of the National Basketball Association (NBA) is the state's only major league sports franchise. The state had a team in the Women's National Basketball Association, the Tulsa Shock, from 2010 through 2015, but the team relocated to Dallas–Fort Worth after that season and became the Dallas Wings. Oklahoma supports teams in several minor leagues, including Minor League Baseball at the AAA and AA levels (Oklahoma City Dodgers and Tulsa Drillers, respectively), hockey's ECHL with the Tulsa Oilers, and a number of indoor football leagues. In the last-named sport, the state's most notable team was the Tulsa Talons, which played in the Arena Football League until 2012, when the team was moved to San Antonio. The Oklahoma Defenders replaced the Talons as Tulsa's only professional arena football team, playing the CPIFL. The Oklahoma City Blue, of the NBA Development League, relocated to Oklahoma City from Tulsa in 2014, where they were formerly known as the Tulsa 66ers. Tulsa is the base for the Tulsa Revolution, which plays in the American Indoor Soccer League. Enid and Lawton host professional basketball teams in the USBL and the CBA.
Which NBA team temporarily relocated to Oklahoma?
5727e243ff5b5019007d977a
New Orleans Hornets
10
False
Where did the temporary NBA team play in Oklahoma?
5727e243ff5b5019007d977b
Oklahoma City's Ford Center
135
False
What caused the temporary NBA team to relocate to Oklahoma?
5727e243ff5b5019007d977c
Hurricane Katrina
228
False
What was the Thunder's previous name?
5727e243ff5b5019007d977d
Seattle SuperSonics
273
False
Who owns the Thunder?
5727e243ff5b5019007d977e
Professional Basketball Club LLC
319
False
The NBA's New Orleans Hornets became the first major league sports franchise based in Oklahoma when the team was forced to relocate to Oklahoma City's Ford Center, now known as Chesapeake Energy Arena, for two seasons following Hurricane Katrina in 2005. In July 2008, the Seattle SuperSonics, a franchise owned by the Professional Basketball Club LLC, a group of Oklahoma City businessmen led by Clayton Bennett, relocated to Oklahoma City and announced that play would begin at the Ford Center as the Oklahoma City Thunder for the 2008–09 season, becoming the state's first permanent major league franchise.
How many NCAA Division I colleges does Oklahoma have?
5727e2d43acd2414000def01
four
68
False
How many colleges does Oklahoma have in the Big 12?
5727e2d43acd2414000def02
two
186
False
How many fans attend an average Oklahoma State University football game?
5727e2d43acd2414000def03
over 50,000
391
False
What is the rivalry between OSU and University of Oklahoma called?
5727e2d43acd2414000def04
Bedlam Series
672
False
Where is Oral Roberts University?
5727e2d43acd2414000def05
Tulsa
889
False
Collegiate athletics are a popular draw in the state. The state has four schools that compete at the highest level of college sports, NCAA Division I. The most prominent are the state's two members of the Big 12 Conference, one of the so-called Power Five conferences of the top tier of college football, Division I FBS. The University of Oklahoma and Oklahoma State University average well over 50,000 fans attending their football games, and Oklahoma's football program ranked 12th in attendance among American colleges in 2010, with an average of 84,738 people attending its home games. The two universities meet several times each year in rivalry matches known as the Bedlam Series, which are some of the greatest sporting draws to the state. Sports Illustrated magazine rates Oklahoma and Oklahoma State among the top colleges for athletics in the nation. Two private institutions in Tulsa, the University of Tulsa and Oral Roberts University; are also Division I members. Tulsa competes in FBS football and other sports in the American Athletic Conference, while Oral Roberts, which does not sponsor football, is a member of The Summit League. In addition, 12 of the state's smaller colleges and universities compete in NCAA Division II as members of four different conferences, and eight other Oklahoma institutions participate in the NAIA, mostly within the Sooner Athletic Conference.
What kind of tournaments does Cedar Ridge Country Club host?
5727e31e2ca10214002d98ac
LPGA
8
False
Where is Southern Hills Country Club?
5727e31e2ca10214002d98ad
Tulsa
167
False
Where is Oak Tree Country Club?
5727e31e2ca10214002d98ae
Oklahoma City
199
False
Where is Cedar Ridge Country Club?
5727e31e2ca10214002d98af
Tulsa
246
False
How many PGA championships has Southern Hills held?
5727e31e2ca10214002d98b0
four
328
False
Regular LPGA tournaments are held at Cedar Ridge Country Club in Tulsa, and major championships for the PGA or LPGA have been played at Southern Hills Country Club in Tulsa, Oak Tree Country Club in Oklahoma City, and Cedar Ridge Country Club in Tulsa. Rated one of the top golf courses in the nation, Southern Hills has hosted four PGA Championships, including one in 2007, and three U.S. Opens, the most recent in 2001. Rodeos are popular throughout the state, and Guymon, in the state's panhandle, hosts one of the largest in the nation.
How many major newspapers does Oklahoma have?
5727e3653acd2414000def0b
two
14
False
What is the largest Oklahoma newspaper?
5727e3653acd2414000def0c
The Oklahoman
38
False
How many people read the Sunday issue of The Oklahoman?
5727e3653acd2414000def0d
202,690
226
False
What is the 2nd-largest Oklahoma newspaper?
5727e3653acd2414000def0e
The Tulsa World
235
False
How many people read the Sunday issue of The Tulsa World?
5727e3653acd2414000def0f
132,969
362
False
The state has two primary newspapers. The Oklahoman, based in Oklahoma City, is the largest newspaper in the state and 54th-largest in the nation by circulation, with a weekday readership of 138,493 and a Sunday readership of 202,690. The Tulsa World, the second most widely circulated newspaper in Oklahoma and 79th in the nation, holds a Sunday circulation of 132,969 and a weekday readership of 93,558. Oklahoma's first newspaper was established in 1844, called the Cherokee Advocate, and was written in both Cherokee and English. In 2006, there were more than 220 newspapers located in the state, including 177 with weekly publications and 48 with daily publications.
How many miles of highways are in Oklahoma?
5727e3c24b864d1900163f54
More than 12,000
0
False
Oklahoma has the longest drivable stretch of what famous highway?
5727e3c24b864d1900163f55
Route 66
194
False
What is the busiest highway in Oklahoma?
5727e3c24b864d1900163f56
Interstate 44
227
False
How many bridges in Oklahoma were found to be deficient in 2010?
5727e3c24b864d1900163f57
5,212
453
False
How many national highway bridges in Oklahoma were found to be deficient in 2010?
5727e3c24b864d1900163f58
235
491
False
More than 12,000 miles (19,000 km) of roads make up the state's major highway skeleton, including state-operated highways, ten turnpikes or major toll roads, and the longest drivable stretch of Route 66 in the nation. In 2008, Interstate 44 in Oklahoma City was Oklahoma's busiest highway, with a daily traffic volume of 123,300 cars. In 2010, the state had the nation's third highest number of bridges classified as structurally deficient, with nearly 5,212 bridges in disrepair, including 235 National Highway System Bridges.
What is the largest commercial airport in Oklahoma?
5727e4173acd2414000def1b
Will Rogers World Airport
41
False
Where is Oklahoma's largest airport?
5727e4173acd2414000def1c
Oklahoma City
70
False
How many people boarded in Will Rogers World Airport in 2010?
5727e4173acd2414000def1d
1.7 million
146
False
How many different airlines operate in Oklahoma?
5727e4173acd2414000def1e
six
319
False
How many public airports does Oklahoma have?
5727e4173acd2414000def1f
over 150
518
False
Oklahoma's largest commercial airport is Will Rogers World Airport in Oklahoma City, averaging a yearly passenger count of more than 3.5 million (1.7 million boardings) in 2010. Tulsa International Airport, the state's second largest commercial airport, served more than 1.3 million boardings in 2010. Between the two, six airlines operate in Oklahoma. In terms of traffic, R. L. Jones Jr. (Riverside) Airport in Tulsa is the state's busiest airport, with 335,826 takeoffs and landings in 2008. In total, Oklahoma has over 150 public-use airports.
How many ports does Oklahoma have?
5727e47d3acd2414000def25
Two
0
False
Which port in Oklahoma handles international cargo?
5727e47d3acd2414000def26
Tulsa Port of Catoosa
156
False
Where is the furthest-inland oceangoing port in the US?
5727e47d3acd2414000def27
Tulsa
156
False
How many tons of cargo does the Tulsa Port of Catoosa ship annually?
5727e47d3acd2414000def28
over two million
238
False
What connects the two Oklahoma ports?
5727e47d3acd2414000def29
the McClellan-Kerr Arkansas River Navigation System
306
False
Two inland ports on rivers serve Oklahoma: the Port of Muskogee and the Tulsa Port of Catoosa. The only port handling international cargo in the state, the Tulsa Port of Catoosa is the most inland ocean-going port in the nation and ships over two million tons of cargo each year. Both ports are located on the McClellan-Kerr Arkansas River Navigation System, which connects barge traffic from Tulsa and Muskogee to the Mississippi River via the Verdigris and Arkansas rivers, contributing to one of the busiest waterways in the world.
How many district courts does Oklahoma have?
5727e4ca3acd2414000def2f
77
111
False
How many counties does Oklahoma have?
5727e4ca3acd2414000def30
77
111
False
What is the civil court of last resort in Oklahoma?
5727e4ca3acd2414000def31
the state Supreme Court
324
False
What is the criminal court of last resort in Oklahoma?
5727e4ca3acd2414000def32
the state Court of Criminal Appeals
371
False
What is the only other state with two courts of last resort?
5727e4ca3acd2414000def33
Texas
487
False
Oklahoma's judicial branch consists of the Oklahoma Supreme Court, the Oklahoma Court of Criminal Appeals, and 77 District Courts that each serves one county. The Oklahoma judiciary also contains two independent courts: a Court of Impeachment and the Oklahoma Court on the Judiciary. Oklahoma has two courts of last resort: the state Supreme Court hears civil cases, and the state Court of Criminal Appeals hears criminal cases (this split system exists only in Oklahoma and neighboring Texas). Judges of those two courts, as well as the Court of Civil Appeals are appointed by the Governor upon the recommendation of the state Judicial Nominating Commission, and are subject to a non-partisan retention vote on a six-year rotating schedule.
Who is in the executive branch?
5727e51fff5b5019007d97be
the Governor, their staff, and other elected officials
33
False
Who commands the Oklahoma National Guard?
5727e51fff5b5019007d97bf
the Governor
123
False
Who is responsible for submitting a state budget in Oklahoma?
5727e51fff5b5019007d97c0
the Executive branch
396
False
Who is responsible for enforcing Oklahoma's laws?
5727e51fff5b5019007d97c1
the Executive branch
396
False
The executive branch consists of the Governor, their staff, and other elected officials. The principal head of government, the Governor is the chief executive of the Oklahoma executive branch, serving as the ex officio Commander-in-Chief of the Oklahoma National Guard when not called into Federal use and reserving the power to veto bills passed through the Legislature. The responsibilities of the Executive branch include submitting the budget, ensuring that state laws are enforced, and ensuring peace within the state is preserved.
How many county commissioners does each Oklahoma county have?
5727e58aff5b5019007d97d0
three
76
False
What are the major county offices in Oklahoma?
5727e58aff5b5019007d97d1
commissioners, a tax assessor, clerk, court clerk, treasurer, and sheriff
108
False
How many counties are in Oklahoma?
5727e58aff5b5019007d97d2
77
26
False
Who can collect taxes in Oklahoma?
5727e58aff5b5019007d97d3
Both county and municipal governments
497
False
Who can hold elections in Oklahoma?
5727e58aff5b5019007d97d4
Both county and municipal governments
497
False
The state is divided into 77 counties that govern locally, each headed by a three-member council of elected commissioners, a tax assessor, clerk, court clerk, treasurer, and sheriff. While each municipality operates as a separate and independent local government with executive, legislative and judicial power, county governments maintain jurisdiction over both incorporated cities and non-incorporated areas within their boundaries, but have executive power but no legislative or judicial power. Both county and municipal governments collect taxes, employ a separate police force, hold elections, and operate emergency response services within their jurisdiction. Other local government units include school districts, technology center districts, community college districts, rural fire departments, rural water districts, and other special use districts.
How many tribal governments are in Oklahoma?
5727e60bff5b5019007d97e4
Thirty-nine
0
False
Tribes hold land in Oklahoma, but what isn't it called?
5727e60bff5b5019007d97e5
reservations
136
False
What powers do tribal governments have?
5727e60bff5b5019007d97e6
executive, judicial, and legislative powers over tribal members and functions
483
False
Who can overrule the tribal governments?
5727e60bff5b5019007d97e7
the United States Congress
598
False
Who must approve tribal constitutions?
5727e60bff5b5019007d97e8
the United States Congress
757
False
Thirty-nine Native American tribal governments are based in Oklahoma, each holding limited powers within designated areas. While Indian reservations typical in most of the United States are not present in Oklahoma, tribal governments hold land granted during the Indian Territory era, but with limited jurisdiction and no control over state governing bodies such as municipalities and counties. Tribal governments are recognized by the United States as quasi-sovereign entities with executive, judicial, and legislative powers over tribal members and functions, but are subject to the authority of the United States Congress to revoke or withhold certain powers. The tribal governments are required to submit a constitution and any subsequent amendments to the United States Congress for approval.
What political party rose to power in Oklahoma in 1948?
5727e6c44b864d1900163f98
Republican
49
False
When did registered Republicans become a majority in Oklahoma?
5727e6c44b864d1900163f99
2015
128
False
What is the one election since 1952 where a Republican presidential candidate didn't win in Oklahoma?
5727e6c44b864d1900163f9a
1964
241
False
Oklahoma was the only state where which presidential candidate won no counties twice?
5727e6c44b864d1900163f9b
Barack Obama
619
False
Who was the last Democratic presidential candidate to win any counties in Oklahoma?
5727e6c44b864d1900163f9c
Al Gore
499
False
After the 1948 election, the state turned firmly Republican. Although registered Republicans were a minority in the state until 2015, starting in 1952, Oklahoma has been carried by Republican presidential candidates in all but one election (1964). This is not to say that every election has been a landslide for Republicans: Jimmy Carter lost the state by less than 1.5% in 1976, while Michael Dukakis and Bill Clinton both won 40% or more of the state's popular vote in 1988 and 1996 respectively. Al Gore in 2000, though, was the last Democrat to even win any counties in the state. Oklahoma was the only state where Barack Obama failed to carry any of its counties in both 2008 and 2012.
How many US House reps did Oklahoma have before the 2000 census?
5727e7144b864d1900163fa2
six
105
False
How many US House reps did Oklahoma have after the 2000 census?
5727e7144b864d1900163fa3
five
112
False
How many of Oklahoma's House reps were Republican in 2012?
5727e7144b864d1900163fa4
four
280
False
Who are Oklahoma's US Senators?
5727e7144b864d1900163fa5
Jim Inhofe and Tom Coburn
380
False
What political party are Oklahoma's US Senators?
5727e7144b864d1900163fa6
Republicans
368
False
Following the 2000 census, the Oklahoma delegation to the U.S. House of Representatives was reduced from six to five representatives, each serving one congressional district. For the 112th Congress (2011–2013), there were no changes in party strength, and the delegation included four Republicans and one Democrat. In the 112th Congress, Oklahoma's U.S. senators were Republicans Jim Inhofe and Tom Coburn, and its U.S. Representatives were John Sullivan (R-OK-1), Dan Boren (D-OK-2), Frank D. Lucas (R-OK-3), Tom Cole (R-OK-4), and James Lankford (R-OK-5).
How many incorporated cities are in Oklahoma?
5727e7812ca10214002d9924
598
13
False
How many Oklahoma cities have over 100,000 people?
5727e7822ca10214002d9925
four
56
False
How many of the 50 largest US cities are in Oklahoma?
5727e7822ca10214002d9926
Oklahoma
0
False
What is the largest metro area in Oklahoma as of 2010?
5727e7822ca10214002d9927
Oklahoma City
408
False
How many people live in the Tulsa metro area?
5727e7822ca10214002d9928
937,478
579
False
Oklahoma had 598 incorporated places in 2010, including four cities over 100,000 in population and 43 over 10,000. Two of the fifty largest cities in the United States are located in Oklahoma, Oklahoma City and Tulsa, and 65 percent of Oklahomans live within their metropolitan areas, or spheres of economic and social influence defined by the United States Census Bureau as a metropolitan statistical area. Oklahoma City, the state's capital and largest city, had the largest metropolitan area in the state in 2010, with 1,252,987 people, and the metropolitan area of Tulsa had 937,478 residents. Between 2000 and 2010, the cities that led the state in population growth were Blanchard (172.4%), Elgin (78.2%), Jenks (77.0%), Piedmont (56.7%), Bixby (56.6%), and Owasso (56.3%).
What is Oklahoma's largest city?
5727e7d44b864d1900163fb6
Oklahoma City
75
False
How much did Oklahoma City's population grow from 2000 to 2010?
5727e7d44b864d1900163fb7
14.6%
100
False
How many people lived in Lawton in 2010?
5727e7d44b864d1900163fb8
96,867
197
False
How many people lived in Stillwater in 2010?
5727e7d44b864d1900163fb9
45,688
330
False
What Arkansas city's metro area extends into Oklahoma?
5727e7d44b864d1900163fba
Fort Smith
608
False
In descending order of population, Oklahoma's largest cities in 2010 were: Oklahoma City (579,999, +14.6%), Tulsa (391,906, −0.3%), Norman (110,925, +15.9%), Broken Arrow (98,850, +32.0%), Lawton (96,867, +4.4%), Edmond (81,405, +19.2%), Moore (55,081, +33.9%), Midwest City (54,371, +0.5%), Enid (49,379, +5.0%), and Stillwater (45,688, +17.0%). Of the state's ten largest cities, three are outside the metropolitan areas of Oklahoma City and Tulsa, and only Lawton has a metropolitan statistical area of its own as designated by the United States Census Bureau, though the metropolitan statistical area of Fort Smith, Arkansas extends into the state.
What state House bill would change Oklahoma's motto to 'Oklahoma - In God We Trust'?
5727e8432ca10214002d993a
HCR 1024
303
False
What was Oklahoma's state motto, before the state House bill might change it?
5727e8432ca10214002d993b
Labor Omnia Vincit
353
False
Why did the state House think they could change Oklahoma's motto?
5727e8432ca10214002d993c
no "official" vote regarding "Labor Omnia Vincit"
506
False
State law codifies Oklahoma's state emblems and honorary positions; the Oklahoma Senate or House of Representatives may adopt resolutions designating others for special events and to benefit organizations. Currently the State Senate is waiting to vote on a change to the state's motto. The House passed HCR 1024, which will change the state motto from "Labor Omnia Vincit" to "Oklahoma-In God We Trust!" The author of the resolution stated that a constituent researched the Oklahoma Constitution and found no "official" vote regarding "Labor Omnia Vincit", therefore opening the door for an entirely new motto.
History_of_India
In what geographic area was the country of India established?
5727e9b23acd2414000defb3
Indian subcontinent
79
False
What did the joining of the Indus Valley and Indo-Aryan cultures produce?
5727e9b23acd2414000defb4
Vedic Civilization
178
False
Of what is Hinduism a combination?
5727e9b23acd2414000defb5
Indian cultures and traditions
252
False
How long was the succession of powerful dynasties in the Indian subcontinent?
5727e9b23acd2414000defb6
two millennia
526
False
What movement lead to the founding of the Republic of India?
5727e9b23acd2414000defb7
independence movement
798
False
The history of India includes the prehistoric settlements and societies in the Indian subcontinent; the blending of the Indus Valley Civilization and Indo-Aryan culture into the Vedic Civilization; the development of Hinduism as a synthesis of various Indian cultures and traditions; the rise of the Śramaṇa movement; the decline of Śrauta sacrifices and the birth of the initiatory traditions of Jainism, Buddhism, Shaivism, Vaishnavism and Shaktism; the onset of a succession of powerful dynasties and empires for more than two millennia throughout various geographic areas of the subcontinent, including the growth of Muslim dynasties during the Medieval period intertwined with Hindu powers; the advent of European traders resulting in the establishment of the British rule; and the subsequent independence movement that led to the Partition of India and the creation of the Republic of India.
For how long have modern humans lived on the Indian subcontinent?
5727f86d2ca10214002d9a86
75,000 years
89
False
How long ago did earlier hominids live on the Indian subcontinent?
5727f86d2ca10214002d9a87
500,000 years ago
166
False
When did the Indus Valley Civilization thrive on the Indian subcontinent?
5727f86d2ca10214002d9a88
c. 3200 to 1300 BCE
300
False
What was the first major civilization in South Asia?
5727f86d2ca10214002d9a89
Indus Valley Civilization
189
False
What was the span of the Mature Harappan period?
5727f86d2ca10214002d9a8a
2600 to 1900 BCE
474
False
Evidence of Anatomically modern humans in the Indian subcontinent is recorded as long as 75,000 years ago, or with earlier hominids including Homo erectus from about 500,000 years ago. The Indus Valley Civilization which spread and flourished in the northwestern part of the Indian subcontinent from c. 3200 to 1300 BCE, was the first major civilization in South Asia. A sophisticated and technologically advanced urban culture developed in the Mature Harappan period, from 2600 to 1900 BCE. This civilization collapsed at the start of the second millennium BCE and was later followed by the Iron Age Vedic Civilization, which extended over much of the Indo-Gangetic plain and which witnessed the rise of major polities known as the Mahajanapadas. In one of these kingdoms, Magadha, Mahavira and Gautama Buddha propagated their Shramanic philosophies during the fifth and sixth century BCE.
What empire conquered most of the subcontinent in the 3rd and 4th centuries BC?
5727faef3acd2414000df151
Maurya Empire
46
False
After the 3rd century BC, what style of literature grew in northern area of the subcontinent?
5727faef3acd2414000df152
Prakrit and Pali
130
False
What form of metal was developed and  exported from southern India?
5727faef3acd2414000df153
Wootz steel
236
False
What was the period following 3rd century BC and extending 1500 years called?
5727faef3acd2414000df154
Golden Age of India
559
False
What was the foremost dynasty of the the Golden Age period?
5727faef3acd2414000df155
Gupta
433
False
Most of the subcontinent was conquered by the Maurya Empire during the 4th and 3rd centuries BCE. From the 3rd century BC onwards Prakrit and Pali literature in the north and the Sangam literature in southern India started to flourish. Wootz steel originated in south India in the 3rd century BC and was exported to foreign countries. Various parts of India were ruled by numerous dynasties for the next 1,500 years, among which the Gupta Empire stands out. This period, witnessing a Hindu religious and intellectual resurgence, is known as the classical or "Golden Age of India". During this period, aspects of Indian civilization, administration, culture, and religion (Hinduism and Buddhism) spread to much of Asia, while kingdoms in southern India had maritime business links with the Roman Empire from around 77 CE. Indian cultural influence spread over many parts of Southeast Asia which led to the establishment of Indianized kingdoms in Southeast Asia (Greater India).
Between what centuries was the Tripartite struggle focused on Kannauj?
5727fd36ff5b5019007d9a3a
7th and 11th
39
False
How long did the Tripartite struggle last?
5727fd36ff5b5019007d9a3b
two centuries
134
False
When did Islam begin to become a political power in India?
5727fd36ff5b5019007d9a3c
seventh century
331
False
What dynasty conquered southern India and parts of southeast Asia?
5727fd36ff5b5019007d9a3d
Chola dynasty
487
False
What facet of Indian mathematics was introduced into the Arab areas in the early Medieval period?
5727fd36ff5b5019007d9a3e
Hindu numerals
755
False
The most significant event between the 7th and 11th century was the Tripartite struggle centered on Kannauj that lasted for more than two centuries between the Pala Empire, Rashtrakuta Empire, and Gurjara Pratihara Empire. Southern India was ruled by the Chalukya, Chola, Pallava, Chera, Pandyan, and Western Chalukya Empires. The seventh century also saw the advent of Islam as a political power, though as a fringe, in the western part of the subcontinent, in modern-day Pakistan. The Chola dynasty conquered southern India and successfully invaded parts of Southeast Asia, Sri Lanka, Maldives and Bengal in the 11th century. The early medieval period Indian mathematics influenced the development of mathematics and astronomy in the Arab world and the Hindu numerals were introduced.
What group founded the Delhi Sultanate in the 13th century?
5727ff0c2ca10214002d9ae4
Central Asian Turks
119
False
When did the Delhi Sultanate decline in its rule of northern India?
5727ff0c2ca10214002d9ae5
late 14th century
246
False
What belief system began in the 15th century?
5727ff0c2ca10214002d9ae6
Sikhism
474
False
What empire covered most of India in the 16th century?
5727ff0c2ca10214002d9ae7
Mughal Empire
576
False
During what century did the Mughal empire decline?
5727ff0c2ca10214002d9ae8
early 18th century
624
False
Muslim rule started in parts of north India in the 13th century when the Delhi Sultanate was founded in 1206 CE by the Central Asian Turks. The Delhi Sultanate ruled the major part of northern India in the early 14th century, but declined in the late 14th century when several powerful Hindu states such as the Vijayanagara Empire, Gajapati Kingdom, Ahom Kingdom, as well as Rajput dynasties and states, such as Mewar dynasty, emerged. The 15th century saw the emergence of Sikhism. In the 16th century, Mughals came from Central Asia and gradually covered most of India. The Mughal Empire suffered a gradual decline in the early 18th century, which provided opportunities for the Maratha Empire, Sikh Empire and Mysore Kingdom to exercise control over large areas of the subcontinent.
What company annexed large areas of India in the 18th and 19th centuries?
572801472ca10214002d9b36
British East India Company
93
False
What effect did Company rule in India produce in 1857?
572801472ca10214002d9b37
Indian Rebellion
184
False
After the Rebellion who administered the British provinces of India?
572801472ca10214002d9b38
British Crown
287
False
The rapid development of what did British rule cause in India?
572801472ca10214002d9b39
infrastructure
353
False
What party was the leader in the Indian independence movement of the 20th century?
572801472ca10214002d9b3a
Indian National Congress
530
False
From the late 18th century to the mid-19th century, large areas of India were annexed by the British East India Company of British Empire. Dissatisfaction with Company rule led to the Indian Rebellion of 1857, after which the British provinces of India were directly administered by the British Crown and witnessed a period of both rapid development of infrastructure and economic stagnation. During the first half of the 20th century, a nationwide struggle for independence was launched with the leading party involved being the Indian National Congress which was later joined by other organizations. The subcontinent gained independence from the United Kingdom in 1947, after the British provinces were partitioned into the dominions of India and Pakistan and the princely states all acceded to one of the new states.
Who remarked Indian history is too devoted to the ranking of dynasties and invasions?
572835bb4b864d1900164738
Romila Thapar
0
False
What type of history period is often neglected in Indian histories?
572835bb4b864d1900164739
social-economic
172
False
What facet of social and economic conditions are displayed by Indian history?
572835bb4b864d190016473a
strong continuity
217
False
What type of conquests were gradual in nature?
572835bb4b864d190016473b
Muslim conquests
314
False
What part of India was never completely conquered?
572835bb4b864d190016473c
south
409
False
Romila Thapar notes that the division into Hindu-Muslim-British periods of Indian history gives too much weight to "ruling dynasties and foreign invasions", neglecting the social-economic history which often showed a strong continuity. The division into Ancient-Medieval-Modern periods overlooks the fact that the Muslim conquests occurred gradually during which time many things came and went off, while the south was never completely conquered. According to Thapar, a periodisation could also be based on "significant social and economic changes", which are not strictly related to a change of ruling powers.[note 1]
By what era was India inhabited by humans of some form?
572837574b864d1900164766
Middle Pleistocene
149
False
What type of remains were found in the Narmada Valley?
572837574b864d1900164767
Homo erectus
20
False
From how long ago do tools date in India?
572837574b864d1900164768
two million years
278
False
Where in the subcontinent is the oldest archaeological site?
572837574b864d1900164769
Soan River valley
576
False
What type of resident lived at the site in Soan River Valley?
572837574b864d190016476a
palaeolithic hominid
543
False
Isolated remains of Homo erectus in Hathnora in the Narmada Valley in central India indicate that India might have been inhabited since at least the Middle Pleistocene era, somewhere between 500,000 and 200,000 years ago. Tools crafted by proto-humans that have been dated back two million years have been discovered in the northwestern part of the subcontinent. The ancient history of the region includes some of South Asia's oldest settlements and some of its major civilisations. The earliest archaeological site in the subcontinent is the palaeolithic hominid site in the Soan River valley. Soanian sites are found in the Sivalik region across what are now India, Pakistan, and Nepal.
What geologic period came after the Mesolithic period in India?
57283f66ff5b5019007d9ff2
Neolithic
69
False
What happened in India during the Neolithic period?
57283f66ff5b5019007d9ff3
extensive settlement
97
False
How long ago did the last ice age happen in India?
57283f66ff5b5019007d9ff4
12,000 years
195
False
When did settlements appear in Madhya Pradesh?
57283f66ff5b5019007d9ff5
9,000 years ago
268
False
During what time span were there findings of habitation in India and Pakistan?
57283f66ff5b5019007d9ff6
7000–9000 BCE
476
False
The Mesolithic period in the Indian subcontinent was followed by the Neolithic period, when more extensive settlement of the subcontinent occurred after the end of the last Ice Age approximately 12,000 years ago. The first confirmed semipermanent settlements appeared 9,000 years ago in the Bhimbetka rock shelters in modern Madhya Pradesh, India. Early Neolithic culture in South Asia is represented by the Bhirrana findings (7500 BCE) in Haryana, India & Mehrgarh findings (7000–9000 BCE) in Balochistan, Pakistan.
When did the Mature Indus Civilization thrive?
572840ee4b864d190016480e
2600 to 1900 BCE
52
False
What stage of civilization did the Mature Indus represent?
572840ee4b864d190016480f
urban
95
False
What kind of organization did the Mature Indus have?
572840ee4b864d1900164810
municipal
478
False
Of what were the early cities of the Mature Indus civilization built?
572840ee4b864d1900164811
brick
380
False
How high were the buildings in the Mature Indus ?
572840ee4b864d1900164812
multistoreyed
417
False
The Mature Indus civilisation flourished from about 2600 to 1900 BCE, marking the beginning of urban civilisation on the subcontinent. The civilisation included urban centres such as Dholavira, Kalibangan, Ropar, Rakhigarhi, and Lothal in modern-day India, as well as Harappa, Ganeriwala, and Mohenjo-daro in modern-day Pakistan. The civilisation is noted for its cities built of brick, roadside drainage system, and multistoreyed houses and is thought to have had some kind of municipal organization.
For what culture is the Vedic period named?
572842553acd2414000df7e7
Indo-Aryan
36
False
Where was the Indo-Aryan culture located?
572842553acd2414000df7e8
north-west India
58
False
In what language did  the Vedic culture speak?
572842553acd2414000df7e9
Vedic Sanskrit
267
False
What sacred texts are some of the oldest in India?
572842553acd2414000df7ea
The Vedas
283
False
What was the duration of the Vedic culture?
572842553acd2414000df7eb
1750 to 500 BCE
376
False
The Vedic period is named after the Indo-Aryan culture of north-west India, although other parts of India had a distinct cultural identity during this period. The Vedic culture is described in the texts of Vedas, still sacred to Hindus, which were orally composed in Vedic Sanskrit. The Vedas are some of the oldest extant texts in India. The Vedic period, lasting from about 1750 to 500 BCE, and contributed the foundations of several cultural aspects of Indian subcontinent. In terms of culture, many regions of the subcontinent transitioned from the Chalcolithic to the Iron Age in this period.
When did the Aryan culture begin its expansion?
572843dd2ca10214002da1ec
Rigvedic period
18
False
Into what area did the Aryan culture expand?
572843dd2ca10214002da1ed
western Ganges plain
135
False
What were the Aryan social classes called?
572843dd2ca10214002da1ee
varnas
253
False
What did the Aryans label as impure in the indigenous peoples in order to exclude them from certain social classes?
572843dd2ca10214002da1ef
occupations
463
False
What groupings formed up into larger monarchical groups?
572843dd2ca10214002da1f0
small tribal units
524
False
At the end of the Rigvedic period, the Aryan society began to expand from the northwestern region of the Indian subcontinent, into the western Ganges plain. It became increasingly agricultural and was socially organised around the hierarchy of the four varnas, or social classes. This social structure was characterized both by syncretising with the native cultures of northern India, but also eventually by the excluding of indigenous peoples by labelling their occupations impure. During this period, many of the previous small tribal units and chiefdoms began to coalesce into monarchical, state-level polities.
What was the first state size society in the Vedic period?
572845efff5b5019007da094
Kuru kingdom
4
False
What is the dating of the Kuru kingdom?
572845efff5b5019007da095
1200 – 800 BCE
149
False
At the beginning of what age are the dates of the Kuru kingdom?
572845efff5b5019007da096
Iron Age
110
False
What is the first Indian text to mention iron?
572845efff5b5019007da097
Atharvaveda
204
False
When the Kuru kingdom declined, to what kingdom did Vedic culture go?
572845efff5b5019007da098
Panchala
526
False
The Kuru kingdom was the first state-level society of the Vedic period, corresponding to the beginning of the Iron Age in northwestern India, around 1200 – 800 BCE, as well as with the composition of the Atharvaveda (the first Indian text to mention iron, as śyāma ayas, literally "black metal"). The Kuru state organized the Vedic hymns into collections, and developed the orthodox srauta ritual to uphold the social order. When the Kuru kingdom declined, the center of Vedic culture shifted to their eastern neighbours, the Panchala kingdom. The archaeological Painted Grey Ware culture, which flourished in the Haryana and western Uttar Pradesh regions of northern India from about 1100 to 600 BCE, is believed to correspond to the Kuru and Panchala kingdoms.
What were the principle texts of Hinduism?
5728479e2ca10214002da232
Vedas
19
False
In what language were the Vedas ?
5728479e2ca10214002da233
Sanskrit
82
False
What were the core epics of the Vedas?
5728479e2ca10214002da234
Ramayana and Mahabharata
97
False
Which Vedic text is the longest single poem on Earth?
5728479e2ca10214002da235
Mahabharata
186
False
On what type of clash is the Mahabharata thought to have been based?
5728479e2ca10214002da236
small-scale conflict
526
False
In addition to the Vedas, the principal texts of Hinduism, the core themes of the Sanskrit epics Ramayana and Mahabharata are said to have their ultimate origins during this period. The Mahabharata remains, today, the longest single poem in the world. Historians formerly postulated an "epic age" as the milieu of these two epic poems, but now recognize that the texts (which are both familiar with each other) went through multiple stages of development over centuries. For instance, the Mahabharata may have been based on a small-scale conflict (possibly about 1000 BCE) which was eventually "transformed into a gigantic epic war by bards and poets". There is no conclusive proof from archaeology as to whether the specific events of the Mahabharat have any historical basis. The existing texts of these epics are believed to belong to the post-Vedic age, between c. 400 BCE and 400 CE. Some even attempted to date the events using methods of archaeoastronomy which have produced, depending on which passages are chosen and how they are interpreted, estimated dates ranging up to mid 2nd millennium BCE.
What philosophical movement appeared during 800-200 BCE?
57284911ff5b5019007da0e8
Shramana-movement
44
False
What was the origins of the Shramana movement?
57284911ff5b5019007da0e9
Jainism and Buddhism
92
False
During what time were the first Upanishads written?
57284911ff5b5019007da0ea
between 800 and 200 BCE
16
False
What period started after 500 BCE?
57284911ff5b5019007da0eb
Second urbanization
198
False
Where was the central location of the Muayan Empire?
57284911ff5b5019007da0ec
Central Ganges Plain
325
False
During the time between 800 and 200 BCE the Shramana-movement formed, from which originated Jainism and Buddhism. In the same period the first Upanishads were written. After 500 BCE, the so-called "Second urbanization" started, with new urban settlements arising at the Ganges plain, especially the Central Ganges plain. The Central Ganges Plain, where Magadha gained prominence, forming the base of the Mauryan Empire, was a distinct cultural area, with new states arising after 500 BC[web 1] during the so-called "Second urbanization".[note 3] It was influenced by the Vedic culture, but differed markedly from the Kuru-Panchala region. It "was the area of the earliest known cultivation of rice in South Asia and by 1800 BC was the location of an advanced neolithic population associated with the sites of Chirand and Chechar". In this region the Shramanic movements flourished, and Jainism and Buddhism originated.
By what age had many small states covered the subcontinent?
57284ab33acd2414000df8b3
later Vedic Age
7
False
How many small states covered the Ganges Plain of India?
57284ab33acd2414000df8b4
sixteen monarchies
181
False
What were the sixteen kingdoms called?
57284ab33acd2414000df8b5
Mahajanapadas
229
False
What second period did the rise of the small kingdoms show?
57284ab33acd2414000df8b6
urbanism
546
False
What was the first major urbanization in India?
57284ab33acd2414000df8b7
Indus Valley Civilisation
574
False
In the later Vedic Age, a number of small kingdoms or city states had covered the subcontinent, many mentioned in Vedic, early Buddhist and Jaina literature as far back as 500 BCE. sixteen monarchies and "republics" known as the Mahajanapadas—Kashi, Kosala, Anga, Magadha, Vajji (or Vriji), Malla, Chedi, Vatsa (or Vamsa), Kuru, Panchala, Matsya (or Machcha), Shurasena, Assaka, Avanti, Gandhara, and Kamboja—stretched across the Indo-Gangetic Plain from modern-day Afghanistan to Bengal and Maharashtra. This period saw the second major rise of urbanism in India after the Indus Valley Civilisation.
Where was the Vajji confederation located?
57284c3d4b864d19001648ec
Vaishali
273
False
How early did the small republic states exist in India?
57284c3d4b864d19001648ed
6th century BCE
307
False
Until what century did the republic states endure in India?
57284c3d4b864d19001648ee
4th century CE
361
False
In what language did the educated Indian speak?
57284c3d4b864d19001648ef
Sanskrit
414
False
What was the general population's common language ?
57284c3d4b864d19001648f0
Prakrits
507
False
Many smaller clans mentioned within early literature seem to have been present across the rest of the subcontinent. Some of these kings were hereditary; other states elected their rulers. Early "republics" such as the Vajji (or Vriji) confederation centered in the city of Vaishali, existed as early as the 6th century BCE and persisted in some areas until the 4th century CE. The educated speech at that time was Sanskrit, while the languages of the general population of northern India are referred to as Prakrits. Many of the sixteen kingdoms had coalesced to four major ones by 500/400 BCE, by the time of Gautama Buddha. These four were Vatsa, Avanti, Kosala, and Magadha. The Life of Gautam Budhha was mainly associated with these four kingdoms.
When were the earliest Upanishads composed?
57284e224b864d190016490a
7th and 6th centuries BC
4
False
Of what philosophical system do the Upanishads form the basis?
57284e224b864d190016490b
Hinduism
134
False
What are the Upanishads called in Hinduism?
57284e224b864d190016490c
Vedanta
160
False
What part of the Hinduism belief system did the Upanishads attack?
57284e224b864d190016490d
ritual
264
False
What worship system is central to Hinduism?
57284e224b864d190016490e
Self
318
False
The 7th and 6th centuries BC witnessed the composition of the earliest Upanishads. Upanishads form the theoretical basis of classical Hinduism and are known as Vedanta (conclusion of the Vedas). The older Upanishads launched attacks of increasing intensity on the ritual. Anyone who worships a divinity other than the Self is called a domestic animal of the gods in the Brihadaranyaka Upanishad. The Mundaka launches the most scathing attack on the ritual by comparing those who value sacrifice with an unsafe boat that is endlessly overtaken by old age and death.
What did the shramana movements challenge?
57284ff92ca10214002da288
orthodoxy of rituals
136
False
Who was the founder of Jainism?
57284ff92ca10214002da289
Mahavira
158
False
What prominent icon founded Buddhism?
57284ff92ca10214002da28a
Buddha
210
False
What path did Buddha find to soothe the strictness of Sramana religions?
57284ff92ca10214002da28b
Middle Way
436
False
What belief system taught the idea of samsara?
57284ff92ca10214002da28c
Shramana
299
False
Increasing urbanisation of India in 7th and 6th centuries BCE led to the rise of new ascetic or shramana movements which challenged the orthodoxy of rituals. Mahavira (c. 549–477 BC), proponent of Jainism, and Buddha (c. 563-483), founder of Buddhism were the most prominent icons of this movement. Shramana gave rise to the concept of the cycle of birth and death, the concept of samsara, and the concept of liberation. Buddha found a Middle Way that ameliorated the extreme asceticism found in the Sramana religions.
Of what was Magadha one of sixteen?
572851feff5b5019007da176
Mahā-Janapadas
50
False
How does the Sanskrit translate Maha-Janapadas?
572851feff5b5019007da177
Great Countries
77
False
Where was the center of Magadha?
572851feff5b5019007da178
Bihar
165
False
Where were there early records of the Magadha kingdom?
572851feff5b5019007da179
Vedic texts
635
False
What time do the texts locating Magadha kingdom predate?
572851feff5b5019007da17a
600 BC.
673
False
Magadha (Sanskrit: मगध) formed one of the sixteen Mahā-Janapadas (Sanskrit: "Great Countries") or kingdoms in ancient India. The core of the kingdom was the area of Bihar south of the Ganges; its first capital was Rajagriha (modern Rajgir) then Pataliputra (modern Patna). Magadha expanded to include most of Bihar and Bengal with the conquest of Licchavi and Anga respectively, followed by much of eastern Uttar Pradesh and Orissa. The ancient kingdom of Magadha is heavily mentioned in Jain and Buddhist texts. It is also mentioned in the Ramayana, Mahabharata, Puranas. A state of Magadha, possibly a tribal kingdom, is recorded in Vedic texts much earlier in time than 600 BC. Magadha Empire had great rulers like Bimbisara and Ajatshatru.
Where is the earliest mention of Magadha people?
57285a053acd2414000df93f
Atharva-Veda
59
False
In the development of which religions did Magadha participate?
57285a053acd2414000df940
Jainism and Buddhism
202
False
Where was the location origin of the Maurya and Gupta empires?
57285a053acd2414000df941
Magadha
313
False
Due to advances in science and culture, what are the Magadha region empires considered to represent?
57285a053acd2414000df942
Golden Age
462
False
What were local villages' assemblies called in the Magadha kingdoms?
57285a053acd2414000df943
Gramakas
630
False
The earliest reference to the Magadha people occurs in the Atharva-Veda where they are found listed along with the Angas, Gandharis, and Mujavats. Magadha played an important role in the development of Jainism and Buddhism, and two of India's greatest empires, the Maurya Empire and Gupta Empire, originated from Magadha. These empires saw advancements in ancient India's science, mathematics, astronomy, religion, and philosophy and were considered the Indian "Golden Age". The Magadha kingdom included republican communities such as the community of Rajakumara. Villages had their own assemblies under their local chiefs called Gramakas. Their administrations were divided into executive, judicial, and military functions.
What Persian king wanted tribute from the tribes of northern India?
57285ba53acd2414000df949
Cyrus the Great
10
False
By 520 BC what empire ruled the northwestern Indian subcontinent?
57285ba53acd2414000df94a
Persian Achaemenid Empire
376
False
What king ruled Persia in 520 BC?
57285ba53acd2414000df94b
Darius I of Persia
244
False
How long did the Persian empire control the northern India subcontinent?
57285ba53acd2414000df94c
two centuries
491
False
What did India supply to the Persian war efforts against Greece?
57285ba53acd2414000df94d
mercenaries
538
False
In 530 BC Cyrus the Great, King of the Persian Achaemenid Empire crossed the Hindu-Kush mountains to seek tribute from the tribes of Kamboja, Gandhara and the trans-India region (modern Afghanistan and Pakistan). By 520 BC, during the reign of Darius I of Persia, much of the northwestern subcontinent (present-day eastern Afghanistan and Pakistan) came under the rule of the Persian Achaemenid Empire, as part of the far easternmost territories. The area remained under Persian control for two centuries. During this time India supplied mercenaries to the Persian army then fighting in Greece.
When did Alexander the Great reach India?
57285d3a3acd2414000df95b
326 BC
3
False
Who did Alexander defeat in the area now Pakistan?
57285d3a3acd2414000df95c
King Porus
168
False
At what battle did Alexander beat King Porus?
57285d3a3acd2414000df95d
Battle of the Hydaspes
186
False
Where did Alexander's army finally mutiny?
57285d3a3acd2414000df95e
Hyphasis
508
False
The strength of what empire's army pushed Alexander to retreat?
57285d3a3acd2414000df95f
Nanda Empire
659
False
By 326 BC, Alexander the Great had conquered Asia Minor and the Achaemenid Empire and had reached the northwest frontiers of the Indian subcontinent. There he defeated King Porus in the Battle of the Hydaspes (near modern-day Jhelum, Pakistan) and conquered much of the Punjab. Alexander's march east put him in confrontation with the Nanda Empire of Magadha and the Gangaridai of Bengal. His army, exhausted and frightened by the prospect of facing larger Indian armies at the Ganges River, mutinied at the Hyphasis (modern Beas River) and refused to march further East. Alexander, after the meeting with his officer, Coenus, and learning about the might of Nanda Empire, was convinced that it was better to return.
What was the first empire to unify India?
57285ebc3acd2414000df965
Maurya Empire
4
False
What was the time span of the Mauryan Empire?
57285ebc3acd2414000df966
322–185 BCE
19
False
Who formed the Maurya Empire in Magadha?
57285ebc3acd2414000df967
Chandragupta Maurya
418
False
What dynasty did Chandragupta Maurya defeat?
57285ebc3acd2414000df968
Nanda Dynasty
489
False
In what year did Chandraguta's son come to the throne?
57285ebc3acd2414000df969
297 BC
564
False
The Maurya Empire (322–185 BCE) was the first empire to unify India into one state, and was the largest on the Indian subcontinent. At its greatest extent, the Mauryan Empire stretched to the north up to the natural boundaries of the Himalayas and to the east into what is now Assam. To the west, it reached beyond modern Pakistan, to the Hindu Kush mountains in what is now Afghanistan. The empire was established by Chandragupta Maurya in Magadha (in modern Bihar) when he overthrew the Nanda Dynasty. Chandragupta's son Bindusara succeeded to the throne around 297 BC. By the time he died in c. 272 BC, a large part of the subcontinent was under Mauryan suzerainty. However, the region of Kalinga (around modern day Odisha) remained outside Mauryan control, perhaps interfering with their trade with the south.
What are the basic written records of the Mauryans?
572860cdff5b5019007da1d2
Arthashastra and the Edicts of Ashoka
4
False
What is the archaeological period of the Mauryan Empire?
572860cdff5b5019007da1d3
Northern Black Polished Ware
148
False
What metal was developed in south India during the time of the Mauryan Empire?
572860cdff5b5019007da1d4
Wootz steel
553
False
To where was wootz steel exported?
572860cdff5b5019007da1d5
China and Arabia
620
False
What organization closely monitored business dealings in the Mauryan Empire?
572860cdff5b5019007da1d6
government
323
False
The Arthashastra and the Edicts of Ashoka are the primary written records of the Mauryan times. Archaeologically, this period falls into the era of Northern Black Polished Ware (NBPW). The Mauryan Empire was based on a modern and efficient economy and society. However, the sale of merchandise was closely regulated by the government. Although there was no banking in the Mauryan society, usury was customary. A significant amount of written records on slavery are found, suggesting a prevalence thereof. During this period, a high quality steel called Wootz steel was developed in south India and was later exported to China and Arabia.
During what period did Tamil literature thrive?
572862ab2ca10214002da2ca
Sangam period
11
False
How many Tamil dynasties ruled during the Sangam period?
572862ab2ca10214002da2cb
3
125
False
What was the extent of the Sangam period?
572862ab2ca10214002da2cc
3rd century BCE to the 4th century CE
63
False
In what part of India did the Tamil dynasties rule?
572862ab2ca10214002da2cd
southern India
211
False
How were Tamil writers different from earlier Sanskrit writers?
572862ab2ca10214002da2ce
non-Brahmins
643
False
During the Sangam period Tamil literateure flourished from the 3rd century BCE to the 4th century CE. During this period the 3 Tamil Dynasties Chera dynasty, Chola dynasty and the Pandyan Dynasty ruled parts of southern India. The Sangam literature deals with the history, politics, wars and culture of the Tamil people of this period. The scholars of the Sangam period rose from among the common people who sought the patronage of the Tamil Kings but who mainly wrote about the common people and their concerns. Unlike Sanskrit writers who were mostly Brahmins, Sangam writers came from diverse classes and social backgrounds and were mostly non-Brahmins. They belonged to different faiths and professions like farmers, artisans, merchants, monks, priests and even princes and quite few of them were even women.
What empire covered most of India from 230 BCE?
5728651f4b864d1900164980
Śātavāhana Empire
4
False
Of what were the Satavahanas patrons?
5728651f4b864d1900164981
Hinduism and Buddhism
371
False
What did the Satavahanas issue embossed with their king's head?
5728651f4b864d1900164982
coins
548
False
When was the Satavahana Empire divided into smaller states?
5728651f4b864d1900164983
3rd century CE
1278
False
From what did the Satavahana Empire protect much of India?
5728651f4b864d1900164984
foreign invaders
943
False
The Śātavāhana Empire was a royal Indian dynasty based from Amaravati in Andhra Pradesh as well as Junnar (Pune) and Prathisthan (Paithan) in Maharashtra. The territory of the empire covered much of India from 230 BCE onward. Sātavāhanas started out as feudatories to the Mauryan dynasty, but declared independence with its decline. They are known for their patronage of Hinduism and Buddhism which resulted in Buddhist monuments from Ellora (a UNESCO World Heritage Site) to Amaravati. The Sātavāhanas were one of the first Indian states to issue coins struck with their rulers embossed. They formed a cultural bridge and played a vital role in trade as well as the transfer of ideas and culture to and from the Indo-Gangetic Plain to the southern tip of India. They had to compete with the Shunga Empire and then the Kanva dynasty of Magadha to establish their rule. Later, they played a crucial role to protect a huge part of India against foreign invaders like the Sakas, Yavanas and Pahlavas. In particular their struggles with the Western Kshatrapas went on for a long time. The notable rulers of the Satavahana Dynasty Gautamiputra Satakarni and Sri Yajna Sātakarni were able to defeat the foreign invaders like the Western Kshatrapas and to stop their expansion. In the 3rd century CE the empire was split into smaller states.
What was the time span of the Shunga Empire?
572866e54b864d1900164994
187 to 78 BCE
144
False
Who founded the Shuga empire after the fall of the Maurya empire?
572866e54b864d1900164995
Pushyamitra Shunga
190
False
How long did Pushyamitra Shunga rule?
572866e54b864d1900164996
36 years
406
False
What script variant was used to write the Sanskrit language?
572866e54b864d1900164997
Brahmi
1061
False
What tradition did Shunga rulers help begin?
572866e54b864d1900164998
sponsorship of learning and art
981
False
The Shunga Empire or Shunga Empire was an ancient Indian dynasty from Magadha that controlled vast areas of the Indian subcontinent from around 187 to 78 BCE. The dynasty was established by Pushyamitra Shunga, after the fall of the Maurya Empire. Its capital was Pataliputra, but later emperors such as Bhagabhadra also held court at Besnagar, modern Vidisha in Eastern Malwa. Pushyamitra Shunga ruled for 36 years and was succeeded by his son Agnimitra. There were ten Shunga rulers. The empire is noted for its numerous wars with both foreign and indigenous powers. They fought battles with the Kalingas, Satavahanas, the Indo-Greeks, and possibly the Panchalas and Mathuras. Art, education, philosophy, and other forms of learning flowered during this period including small terracotta images, larger stone sculptures, and architectural monuments such as the Stupa at Bharhut, and the renowned Great Stupa at Sanchi. The Shunga rulers helped to establish the tradition of royal sponsorship of learning and art. The script used by the empire was a variant of Brahmi and was used to write the Sanskrit language. The Shunga Empire played an imperative role in patronizing Indian culture at a time when some of the most important developments in Hindu thought were taking place.
What Kalingan ruler brought the Chedi dynasty back into power?
572868892ca10214002da30e
Khārabēḷa
20
False
What power had previously defeated the Kalingans?
572868892ca10214002da30f
Ashoka
185
False
In what arena was Kalinga a formidable power?
572868892ca10214002da310
maritime
312
False
What maritime advantage did the Kalingans have?
572868892ca10214002da311
trade routes
332
False
What militaristic leader restored might to the Kalinga empire?
572868892ca10214002da312
Khārabēḷa
235
False
During the reign of Khārabēḷa, the Chedi dynasty of Kaḷinga ascended to eminence and restored the lost power and glory of Kaḷinga, which had been subdued since the devastating war with Ashoka. Kaḷingan military might was reinstated by Khārabēḷa: under Khārabēḷa's generalship, the Kaḷinga state had a formidable maritime reach with trade routes linking it to the then-Simhala (Sri Lanka), Burma (Myanmar), Siam (Thailand), Vietnam, Kamboja (Cambodia), Malaysia, Borneo, Bali, Samudra (Sumatra) and Jabadwipa (Java). Khārabēḷa led many successful campaigns against the states of Magadha, Anga, Satavahanas till the southern most regions of Pandyan Empire (modern Tamil Nadu).
From what area did the Kushan Empire come?
57286a254b864d19001649b8
Afghanistan
46
False
Who was the first ruler of the Kushan empire?
57286a254b864d19001649b9
Kujula Kadphises
142
False
In the middle o what century did the Kushan empire begin?
57286a254b864d19001649ba
1st century CE
184
False
What was the language base of the Kushans?
57286a254b864d19001649bb
Indo-European
216
False
What had the Kushans conquered much of by the time of Kanishka
57286a254b864d19001649bc
northern India
397
False
The Kushan Empire expanded out of what is now Afghanistan into the northwest of the subcontinent under the leadership of their first emperor, Kujula Kadphises, about the middle of the 1st century CE. They came of an Indo-European language speaking Central Asian tribe called the Yuezhi, a branch of which was known as the Kushans. By the time of his grandson, Kanishka, they had conquered most of northern India, at least as far as Saketa and Pataliputra, in the middle Ganges Valley, and probably as far as the Bay of Bengal.
By what is India under the Gupta Empire referered?
57286fe02ca10214002da350
Classical India
0
False
What was the time span of the Gupta Empire?
57286fe02ca10214002da351
c. 320–550 CE
111
False
What is the period of the Gupta Empire called?
57286fe02ca10214002da352
Golden Age of India
159
False
What philosophy  formed at the time of the Gupta Empire?
57286fe02ca10214002da353
Hindu culture
402
False
What numeral system originated in India?
57286fe02ca10214002da354
Hindu-Arabic
421
False
Classical India refers to the period when much of the Indian subcontinent was reunited under the Gupta Empire (c. 320–550 CE). This period has been called the Golden Age of India and was marked by extensive achievements in science, technology, engineering, art, dialectic, literature, logic, mathematics, astronomy, religion, and philosophy that crystallized the elements of what is generally known as Hindu culture. The Hindu-Arabic numerals, a positional numeral system, originated in India and was later transmitted to the West through the Arabs. Early Hindu numerals had only nine symbols, until 600 to 800 CE, when a symbol for zero was developed for the numeral system. The peace and prosperity created under leadership of Guptas enabled the pursuit of scientific and artistic endeavors in India.
What did the Guptas promote in their reigns?
572871a03acd2414000df9f9
Indian culture
299
False
Besides the Vedic practices, what other religion did the Guptas patronize?
572871a03acd2414000df9fa
Buddhism
404
False
What Guptas brought much of India under Gupta rule?
572871a03acd2414000df9fb
first three rulers
511
False
What business activity made the Gupta Empire prominent in India?
572871a03acd2414000df9fc
Strong trade ties
709
False
What did the Gupta Empires trade ties influence?
572871a03acd2414000df9fd
nearby kingdoms
827
False
The high points of this cultural creativity are magnificent architecture, sculpture, and painting. The Gupta period produced scholars such as Kalidasa, Aryabhata, Varahamihira, Vishnu Sharma, and Vatsyayana who made great advancements in many academic fields. The Gupta period marked a watershed of Indian culture: the Guptas performed Vedic sacrifices to legitimize their rule, but they also patronized Buddhism, which continued to provide an alternative to Brahmanical orthodoxy. The military exploits of the first three rulers – Chandragupta I, Samudragupta, and Chandragupta II - brought much of India under their leadership. Science and political administration reached new heights during the Gupta era. Strong trade ties also made the region an important cultural centre and established it as a base that would influence nearby kingdoms and regions in Burma, Sri Lanka, Maritime Southeast Asia, and Indochina. For these reasons, historian Dr.Barnett remarked:
During what time did Kadamba rule northern Karnataka?
572873c13acd2414000dfa0d
345 – 525 CE
9
False
Where did the Kadamba dynasty originate?
572873c13acd2414000dfa0e
Karnataka, India
55
False
What ruler ruled at the peak of Kadamba power?
572873c13acd2414000dfa0f
King Kakushtavarma
204
False
Who founded the Kamdamba dynasty?
572873c13acd2414000dfa10
Mayurasharma
321
False
What dynasty made military alliances with the Kamdamba?
572873c13acd2414000dfa11
Gupta Dynasty
726
False
Kadamba (345 – 525 CE) was an ancient royal dynasty of Karnataka, India that ruled northern Karnataka and the Konkan from Banavasi in present-day Uttara Kannada district. At the peak of their power under King Kakushtavarma, the Kadambas of Banavasi ruled large parts of modern Karnataka state. The dynasty was founded by Mayurasharma in 345 CE which at later times showed the potential of developing into imperial proportions, an indication to which is provided by the titles and epithets assumed by its rulers. King Mayurasharma defeated the armies of Pallavas of Kanchi possibly with help of some native tribes. The Kadamba fame reached its peak during the rule of Kakusthavarma, a notable ruler with whom even the kings of Gupta Dynasty of northern India cultivated marital alliances. The Kadambas were contemporaries of the Western Ganga Dynasty and together they formed the earliest native kingdoms to rule the land with absolute autonomy. The dynasty later continued to rule as a feudatory of larger Kannada empires, the Chalukya and the Rashtrakuta empires, for over five hundred years during which time they branched into minor dynasties known as the Kadambas of Goa, Kadambas of Halasi and Kadambas of Hangal.
What type of trib were the Hephthalites?
5728750eff5b5019007da251
nomadic confederation
72
False
Where did the White Huns roam?
5728750eff5b5019007da252
Central Asia
97
False
In what country did the White Huns settle?
5728750eff5b5019007da253
Afghanistan
196
False
What lands did the White Huns take in the 5th century?
5728750eff5b5019007da254
Pakistan and North India
323
False
The Hephthalites (or Ephthalites), also known as the White Huns, were a nomadic confederation in Central Asia during the late antiquity period. The White Huns established themselves in modern-day Afghanistan by the first half of the 5th century. Led by the Hun military leader Toramana, they overran the northern region of Pakistan and North India. Toramana's son Mihirakula, a Saivite Hindu, moved up to near Pataliputra to the east and Gwalior to the central India. Hiuen Tsiang narrates Mihirakula's merciless persecution of Buddhists and destruction of monasteries, though the description is disputed as far as the authenticity is concerned. The Huns were defeated by the Indian kings Yasodharman of Malwa and Narasimhagupta in the 6th century. Some of them were driven out of India and others were assimilated in the Indian society.
In which century did the Gupta Empire fall?
572876804b864d1900164a0a
middle of the 6th century
52
False
To what type of states did the former Gupta Empire revert?
572876804b864d1900164a0b
small
103
False
After uniting the area, what title was Harsha given?
572876804b864d1900164a0c
Maharaja
363
False
When was Harsha crowned by the states he united?
572876804b864d1900164a0d
April 606
329
False
To what religion had Harsha been converted?
572876804b864d1900164a0e
Buddhism
195
False
After the downfall of the prior Gupta Empire in the middle of the 6th century, North India reverted to small republics and small monarchical states ruled by Gupta rulers. Harsha was a convert to Buddhism. He united the small republics from Punjab to central India, and their representatives crowned Harsha king at an assembly in April 606 giving him the title of Maharaja when he was merely 16 years old. Harsha belonged to Kanojia. He brought all of northern India under his control. The peace and prosperity that prevailed made his court a center of cosmopolitanism, attracting scholars, artists and religious visitors from far and wide. The Chinese traveler Xuan Zang visited the court of Harsha and wrote a very favorable account of him, praising his justice and generosity.
What declined from the 5th to the 13th centuries
572878323acd2414000dfa35
Śrauta sacrifices
42
False
What philosophical traditions developed during the period of the 5th to the 13th centuries?
572878323acd2414000dfa36
Hinduism, Buddhism and Jainism
386
False
In what century was Harsha's rule?
572878323acd2414000dfa37
7th century
506
False
What happened to Harsha's empire after his death?
572878323acd2414000dfa38
collapsed
571
False
What area did Harsha unite during his reign?
572878323acd2414000dfa39
northern India
467
False
From the fifth century to the thirteenth, Śrauta sacrifices declined, and initiatory traditions of Buddhism, Jainism or more commonly Shaivism, Vaishnavism and Shaktism expanded in royal courts. This period produced some of India's finest art, considered the epitome of classical development, and the development of the main spiritual and philosophical systems which continued to be in Hinduism, Buddhism and Jainism. Emperor Harsha of Kannauj succeeded in reuniting northern India during his reign in the 7th century, after the collapse of the Gupta dynasty. His empire collapsed after his death.
What cults weakened Buddhism in India?
572879b54b864d1900164a1e
Vishnu and Shiva
422
False
What replaced Buddha in ruling centers?
572879b54b864d1900164a1f
Hindu gods
58
False
What kind of temples were built for Hindu Gods?
572879b54b864d1900164a20
monumental
218
False
What was the style of worship of Hindu Gods?
572879b54b864d1900164a21
elaborate
259
False
By what dentury did Buddhism disappear form much of India?
572879b54b864d1900164a22
eighth
378
False
Ronald Inden writes that by the 8th century CE symbols of Hindu gods "replaced the Buddha at the imperial centre and pinnacle of the cosmo-political system, the image or symbol of the Hindu god comes to be housed in a monumental temple and given increasingly elaborate imperial-style puja worship". Although Buddhism did not disappear from India for several centuries after the eighth, royal proclivities for the cults of Vishnu and Shiva weakened Buddhism's position within the sociopolitical context and helped make possible its decline.
How many dynasties fought for control from the 8th to the 10th century?
57287bee2ca10214002da3c6
three
34
False
When did the first Rajput kingdoms emerge in India?
57287bee2ca10214002da3c7
6th century
410
False
What Rajput ruler was known for his conflicts with the Turkic sultanates?
57287bee2ca10214002da3c8
Prithvi Raj Chauhan
525
False
In what century did the Chola Empire emerge?
57287bee2ca10214002da3c9
11th century
789
False
Who was emperor of the Kashmiri  Karkota dynasty?
57287bee2ca10214002da3ca
Lalitaditya Muktapida
803
False
From the 8th to the 10th century, three dynasties contested for control of northern India: the Gurjara Pratiharas of Malwa, the Palas of Bengal, and the Rashtrakutas of the Deccan. The Sena dynasty would later assume control of the Pala Empire, and the Gurjara Pratiharas fragmented into various states. These were the first of the Rajput states. The first recorded Rajput kingdoms emerged in Rajasthan in the 6th century, and small Rajput dynasties later ruled much of northern India. One Gurjar Rajput of the Chauhan clan, Prithvi Raj Chauhan, was known for bloody conflicts against the advancing Turkic sultanates. The Chola empire emerged as a major power during the reign of Raja Raja Chola I and Rajendra Chola I who successfully invaded parts of Southeast Asia and Sri Lanka in the 11th century. Lalitaditya Muktapida (r. 724 CE–760 CE) was an emperor of the Kashmiri Karkoṭa dynasty, which exercised influence in northwestern India from 625 CE until 1003, and was followed by Lohara dynasty. He is known primarily for his successful battles against the Muslim and Tibetan advances into Kashmiri-dominated regions. Kalhana in his Rajatarangini credits king Lalitaditya with leading an aggressive military campaign in Northern India and Central Asia. He broke into the Uttarapatha and defeated the rebellious tribes of the Kambojas, Tukharas (Turks in Turkmenistan and Tocharians in Badakhshan), Bhautas (Tibetans in Baltistan and Tibet) and Daradas (Dards). His campaign then led him to subjugate the kingdoms of Pragjyotisha, Strirajya and the Uttarakurus. The Shahi dynasty ruled portions of eastern Afghanistan, northern Pakistan, and Kashmir from the mid-7th century to the early 11th century.
When did the Chalukya Empire rule?
57287da82ca10214002da3ee
6th and the 12th centuries
146
False
What portion of India did the Chalukya Empire rule?
57287da82ca10214002da3ef
southern and central
107
False
What style of architecture developed during the Chaluka reigns?
57287da82ca10214002da3f0
Chalukyan architecture
1078
False
When did the Chalukyans rule from Badami?
57287da82ca10214002da3f1
550 and 750
1199
False
When was the second reign of Chalukyans?
57287da82ca10214002da3f2
970 and 1190
1248
False
The Chalukya Empire (Kannada: ಚಾಲುಕ್ಯರು [tʃaːɭukjə]) was an Indian royal dynasty that ruled large parts of southern and central India between the 6th and the 12th centuries. During this period, they ruled as three related yet individual dynasties. The earliest dynasty, known as the "Badami Chalukyas", ruled from Vatapi (modern Badami) from the middle of the 6th century. The Badami Chalukyas began to assert their independence at the decline of the Kadamba kingdom of Banavasi and rapidly rose to prominence during the reign of Pulakeshin II. The rule of the Chalukyas marks an important milestone in the history of South India and a golden age in the history of Karnataka. The political atmosphere in South India shifted from smaller kingdoms to large empires with the ascendancy of Badami Chalukyas. A Southern India-based kingdom took control and consolidated the entire region between the Kaveri and the Narmada rivers. The rise of this empire saw the birth of efficient administration, overseas trade and commerce and the development of new style of architecture called "Chalukyan architecture". The Chalukya dynasty ruled parts of southern and central India from Badami in Karnataka between 550 and 750, and then again from Kalyani between 970 and 1190.
When was the Rastrakuta Empire started?
57287f0f2ca10214002da402
753
29
False
In what location was the capital of the Rashtrakuta Empire?
57287f0f2ca10214002da403
Manyakheta
83
False
What was the faith of the early rulers of the Rastrakuta Empire?
57287f0f2ca10214002da404
Hindu
399
False
By what were the later kings of the Rastrakuta Empire influenced?
57287f0f2ca10214002da405
Jainism
453
False
What Rastrakuta king ruler for 64 years?
57287f0f2ca10214002da406
Amoghavarsha
577
False
Founded by Dantidurga around 753, the Rashtrakuta Empire ruled from its capital at Manyakheta for almost two centuries. At its peak, the Rashtrakutas ruled from the Ganges River and Yamuna River doab in the north to Cape Comorin in the south, a fruitful time of political expansion, architectural achievements and famous literary contributions.[citation needed] The early kings of this dynasty were Hindu but the later kings were strongly influenced by Jainism. Govinda III and Amoghavarsha were the most famous of the long line of able administrators produced by the dynasty. Amoghavarsha, who ruled for 64 years, was also an author and wrote Kavirajamarga, the earliest known Kannada work on poetics. Architecture reached a milestone in the Dravidian style, the finest example of which is seen in the Kailasanath Temple at Ellora. Other important contributions are the sculptures of Elephanta Caves in modern Maharashtra as well as the Kashivishvanatha temple and the Jain Narayana temple at Pattadakal in modern Karnataka, all of which are UNESCO World Heritage Sites. The Arab traveler Suleiman described the Rashtrakuta Empire as one of the four great Empires of the world. The Rashtrakuta period marked the beginning of the golden age of southern Indian mathematics. The great south Indian mathematician Mahāvīra (mathematician) lived in the Rashtrakuta Empire and his text had a huge impact on the medieval south Indian mathematicians who lived after him. The Rashtrakuta rulers also patronised men of letters, who wrote in a variety of languages from Sanskrit to the Apabhraṃśas.
During what span of time did the Pala Empire thrive?
572883f82ca10214002da434
750–1174 CE
127
False
What style of belief system did the Pala Empire favor?
572883f82ca10214002da435
Buddhist
179
False
What is the term used to describe the Pala Empire?
572883f82ca10214002da436
golden era of Bengal
711
False
What educational center reached it height during the Pala rule?
572883f82ca10214002da437
Nalanda
871
False
What ruler founded the Pala dynasty?
572883f82ca10214002da438
Gopala I
151
False
The Pala Empire (Bengali: পাল সাম্রাজ্য Pal Samrajyô) flourished during the Classical period of India, and may be dated during 750–1174 CE. Founded by Gopala I, it was ruled by a Buddhist dynasty from Bengal in the eastern region of the Indian subcontinent. Though the Palas were followers of the Mahayana and Tantric schools of Buddhism, they also patronised Shaivism and Vaishnavism. The morpheme Pala, meaning "protector", was used as an ending for the names of all the Pala monarchs. The empire reached its peak under Dharmapala and Devapala. Dharmapala is believed to have conquered Kanauj and extended his sway up to the farthest limits of India in the northwest. The Pala Empire can be considered as the golden era of Bengal in many ways. Dharmapala founded the Vikramashila and revived Nalanda, considered one of the first great universities in recorded history. Nalanda reached its height under the patronage of the Pala Empire. The Palas also built many viharas. They maintained close cultural and commercial ties with countries of Southeast Asia and Tibet. Sea trade added greatly to the prosperity of the Pala kingdom. The Arab merchant Suleiman notes the enormity of the Pala army in his memoirs.
What area did the Cholas unite in the 9th century?
572886723acd2414000dfa95
South India
164
False
What kind of power did the Chola dynasty become in south India?
572886723acd2414000dfa96
military, economic and cultural
445
False
In what area did the Chola Empire establish political unity?
572886723acd2414000dfa97
whole of Southern India
1337
False
In what type of architecture did the Cholas excel?
572886723acd2414000dfa98
Monumental
1652
False
From their contacts and conquests in surrounding sea areas, what did this establish the Chola empire as?
572886723acd2414000dfa99
sea power
1409
False
Medieval Cholas rose to prominence during the middle of the 9th century C.E. and established the greatest empire South India had seen. They successfully united the South India under their rule and through their naval strength extended their influence in the Southeast Asian countries such as Srivijaya. Under Rajaraja Chola I and his successors Rajendra Chola I, Rajadhiraja Chola, Virarajendra Chola and Kulothunga Chola I the dynasty became a military, economic and cultural power in South Asia and South-East Asia. Rajendra Chola I's navies went even further, occupying the sea coasts from Burma to Vietnam, the Andaman and Nicobar Islands, the Lakshadweep (Laccadive) islands, Sumatra, and the Malay Peninsula in Southeast Asia and the Pegu islands. The power of the new empire was proclaimed to the eastern world by the expedition to the Ganges which Rajendra Chola I undertook and by the occupation of cities of the maritime empire of Srivijaya in Southeast Asia, as well as by the repeated embassies to China. They dominated the political affairs of Sri Lanka for over two centuries through repeated invasions and occupation. They also had continuing trade contacts with the Arabs in the west and with the Chinese empire in the east. Rajaraja Chola I and his equally distinguished son Rajendra Chola I gave political unity to the whole of Southern India and established the Chola Empire as a respected sea power. Under the Cholas, the South India reached new heights of excellence in art, religion and literature. In all of these spheres, the Chola period marked the culmination of movements that had begun in an earlier age under the Pallavas. Monumental architecture in the form of majestic temples and sculpture in stone and bronze reached a finesse never before achieved in India.
During waht centuries did the Western Chalukya rule?
572888753acd2414000dfaa9
10th and 12th
122
False
What was the architectural style of the Chalukyas?
572888753acd2414000dfaaa
transitional
646
False
Where did the Chalukyas build most of their monuments?
572888753acd2414000dfaab
central Karnataka
852
False
What did the Chalukya kings encourage writers to use?
572888753acd2414000dfaac
native language
1199
False
Besides the language of Kannada, what other old language was used during the western Chalukya dynasty?
572888753acd2414000dfaad
Sanskrit
1231
False
The Western Chalukya Empire (Kannada:ಪಶ್ಚಿಮ ಚಾಲುಕ್ಯ ಸಾಮ್ರಾಜ್ಯ) ruled most of the western Deccan, South India, between the 10th and 12th centuries. Vast areas between the Narmada River in the north and Kaveri River in the south came under Chalukya control. During this period the other major ruling families of the Deccan, the Hoysalas, the Seuna Yadavas of Devagiri, the Kakatiya dynasty and the Southern Kalachuri, were subordinates of the Western Chalukyas and gained their independence only when the power of the Chalukya waned during the later half of the 12th century. The Western Chalukyas developed an architectural style known today as a transitional style, an architectural link between the style of the early Chalukya dynasty and that of the later Hoysala empire. Most of its monuments are in the districts bordering the Tungabhadra River in central Karnataka. Well known examples are the Kasivisvesvara Temple at Lakkundi, the Mallikarjuna Temple at Kuruvatti, the Kallesvara Temple at Bagali and the Mahadeva Temple at Itagi. This was an important period in the development of fine arts in Southern India, especially in literature as the Western Chalukya kings encouraged writers in the native language of Kannada, and Sanskrit like the philosopher and statesman Basava and the great mathematician Bhāskara II.
What group wanted to conquer India from earliest times?
57288af83acd2414000dfabd
Muslims
109
False
What empire took over parts of Afghanistan and Pakistan in 720?
57288af83acd2414000dfabe
Arab Umayyad Caliphate
205
False
Who was the final Hindu monarch of Sindh?
57288af83acd2414000dfabf
Raja Dahir
570
False
What Arab leader completed the early ambitions of Arabs by conquering parts of northern India?
57288af83acd2414000dfac0
Muhammad bin Qasim
476
False
How did the early Muslims view the possibility of conquering India?
57288af83acd2414000dfac1
difficult
161
False
The early Islamic literature indicates that the conquest of India was one of the very early ambitions of the Muslims, though it was recognized as a particularly difficult one. After conquering Persia, the Arab Umayyad Caliphate incorporated parts of what are now Afghanistan and Pakistan around 720. The book Chach Nama chronicles the Chacha Dynasty's period, following the demise of the Rai Dynasty and the ascent of Chach of Alor to the throne, down to the Arab conquest by Muhammad bin Qasim in the early 8th century AD, by defeating the last Hindu monarch of Sindh, Raja Dahir.
In what year did Muslim general Muhammad bin Qasim take over most of the Indus area?
57288d1dff5b5019007da2d2
712
3
False
Who eventually defeated the Arabs at Rajasthan?
57288d1dff5b5019007da2d3
Hindu kings
296
False
In what area did the Indian Kings contain the Arabs?
57288d1dff5b5019007da2d4
Sindh in Pakistan
416
False
When was the Arab invasion repulsed?
57288d1dff5b5019007da2d5
early 8th century
601
False
Where did the Arabs establish as the capital of the newly conquered territory?
57288d1dff5b5019007da2d6
Al-Mansurah
193
False
In 712, Arab Muslim general Muhammad bin Qasim conquered most of the Indus region in modern-day Pakistan for the Umayyad Empire, incorporating it as the "As-Sindh" province with its capital at Al-Mansurah, 72 km (45 mi) north of modern Hyderabad in Sindh, Pakistan. After several incursions, the Hindu kings east of Indus defeated the Arabs at the Battle of Rajasthan, halting their expansion and containing them at Sindh in Pakistan. The south Indian Chalukya empire under Vikramaditya II, Nagabhata I of the Pratihara dynasty and Bappa Rawal of the Guhilot dynasty repulsed the Arab invaders in the early 8th century.
In what areas of India were Islamic kingdoms formed over a period of centuries?
57288f98ff5b5019007da2f0
Afghanistan and Pakistan
149
False
What Muslim endeavors thrived on the coastal areas of south India?
57288f98ff5b5019007da2f1
trading communities
363
False
Which south Indian coast was favored by Muslim traders?
57288f98ff5b5019007da2f2
western coast
446
False
From where did the Arab traders come in order to trade on the west coast of India?
57288f98ff5b5019007da2f3
Arabian peninsula
523
False
Besides the newly introduced Islamic religion, what other Abrahamic religions were practiced in India?
57288f98ff5b5019007da2f4
Judaism and Christianity
627
False
Several Islamic kingdoms (sultanates) under both foreign and, newly converted, Rajput rulers were established across the north western subcontinent (Afghanistan and Pakistan) over a period of a few centuries. From the 10th century, Sindh was ruled by the Rajput Soomra dynasty, and later, in the mid-13th century by the Rajput Samma dynasty. Additionally, Muslim trading communities flourished throughout coastal south India, particularly on the western coast where Muslim traders arrived in small numbers, mainly from the Arabian peninsula. This marked the introduction of a third Abrahamic Middle Eastern religion, following Judaism and Christianity, often in puritanical form. Mahmud of Ghazni in the early 11th century raided mainly the north-western parts of the Indian sub-continent 17 times, but he did not seek to establish "permanent dominion" in those areas.
Until what century did the Kabul Shahi dynasties rule the Kabul Valley?
572891a0ff5b5019007da300
9th century
170
False
The decline of what empire allowed the rule of the Kabul Shahi empire?
572891a0ff5b5019007da301
Kushan
124
False
How many eras are the Shahis divided into?
572891a0ff5b5019007da302
two
222
False
When did the Shahis switch from Buddhist to Hindu?
572891a0ff5b5019007da303
870
336
False
What was the kingdom of the Shahis called?
572891a0ff5b5019007da304
Kabul Shahan
370
False
The Kabul Shahi dynasties ruled the Kabul Valley and Gandhara (modern-day Pakistan and Afghanistan) from the decline of the Kushan Empire in the 3rd century to the early 9th century. The Shahis are generally split up into two eras: the Buddhist Shahis and the Hindu Shahis, with the change-over thought to have occurred sometime around 870. The kingdom was known as the Kabul Shahan or Ratbelshahan from 565-670, when the capitals were located in Kapisa and Kabul, and later Udabhandapura, also known as Hund for its new capital.
In what id Jayapala see a danger to his dynasty?
5728939a2ca10214002da482
consolidation of the Ghaznavids
196
False
What city did Jayapala invade at least twice?
5728939a2ca10214002da483
Ghazni
262
False
Who defeated Jayapala and required an indemnity payment?
5728939a2ca10214002da484
Sebuk Tigin
396
False
What part of the area did Jayapala lose?
5728939a2ca10214002da485
Kabul Valley and Indus River
608
False
What was Jayapala's response to the indemnity payment?
5728939a2ca10214002da486
defaulted
480
False
The Hindu Shahis under Jayapala, is known for his struggles in defending his kingdom against the Ghaznavids in the modern-day eastern Afghanistan and Pakistan region. Jayapala saw a danger in the consolidation of the Ghaznavids and invaded their capital city of Ghazni both in the reign of Sebuktigin and in that of his son Mahmud, which initiated the Muslim Ghaznavid and Hindu Shahi struggles. Sebuk Tigin, however, defeated him, and he was forced to pay an indemnity. Jayapala defaulted on the payment and took to the battlefield once more. Jayapala however, lost control of the entire region between the Kabul Valley and Indus River.
In what year was Jaipal again soundly defeated by the Muslims?
5728989e3acd2414000dfb4d
1001
130
False
Where was the location of the Shahi defeat by the Muslims?
5728989e3acd2414000dfb4e
Battle of Peshawar
380
False
What was Jaipal action after his last defeat?
5728989e3acd2414000dfb4f
committed suicide
403
False
Upon what did Jaipal's subjects think he brought disaster?
5728989e3acd2414000dfb50
Shahi dynasty
494
False
Who was the ruler of Ghazni?
5728989e3acd2414000dfb51
Mahmud of Ghazni
100
False
However, the army was hopeless in battle against the western forces, particularly against the young Mahmud of Ghazni. In the year 1001, soon after Sultan Mahmud came to power and was occupied with the Qarakhanids north of the Hindu Kush, Jaipal attacked Ghazni once more and upon suffering yet another defeat by the powerful Ghaznavid forces, near present-day Peshawar. After the Battle of Peshawar, he committed suicide because his subjects thought he had brought disaster and disgrace to the Shahi dynasty.
From where did raiders come to attack the agrarian Indians?
57289abd2ca10214002da4b4
Central Asia
301
False
After a history of raiding groups, what is not remarkable in the history of the subcontinent?
57289abd2ca10214002da4b5
Muslim intrusions
334
False
Before the Muslim invasions, what did previous invaders do in the local cultures?
57289abd2ca10214002da4b6
assimilated
585
False
What did the Muslim invaders staunchly keep after invading?
57289abd2ca10214002da4b7
Islamic identity
679
False
What type of new Indian culture was formed from this mixture of cultures?
57289abd2ca10214002da4b8
mixed
1161
False
Like other settled, agrarian societies in history, those in the Indian subcontinent have been attacked by nomadic tribes throughout its long history. In evaluating the impact of Islam on the sub-continent, one must note that the northwestern sub-continent was a frequent target of tribes raiding from Central Asia. In that sense, the Muslim intrusions and later Muslim invasions were not dissimilar to those of the earlier invasions during the 1st millennium. What does however, make the Muslim intrusions and later Muslim invasions different is that unlike the preceding invaders who assimilated into the prevalent social system, the successful Muslim conquerors retained their Islamic identity and created new legal and administrative systems that challenged and usually in many cases superseded the existing systems of social conduct and ethics, even influencing the non-Muslim rivals and common masses to a large extent, though non-Muslim population was left to their own laws and customs. They also introduced new cultural codes that in some ways were very different from the existing cultural codes. This led to the rise of a new Indian culture which was mixed in nature, though different from both the ancient Indian culture and later westernized modern Indian culture. At the same time it must be noted that overwhelming majority of Muslims in India are Indian natives converted to Islam. This factor also played an important role in the synthesis of cultures.
What conquered large areas of northern India?
57289c362ca10214002da4be
Slave dynasty of Delhi
15
False
What dynasty captured most of central India?
57289c362ca10214002da4bf
Khilji dynasty
98
False
What language was created during the Delhi Sultanate?
57289c362ca10214002da4c0
Urdu
464
False
Who was the only female sultana to be enthroned in a Indo-Islamic empire?
57289c362ca10214002da4c1
Razia Sultana
836
False
By what is the fusion of Islamic and Indian cultures called?
57289c362ca10214002da4c2
Indo-Muslim
303
False
The subsequent Slave dynasty of Delhi managed to conquer large areas of northern India, while the Khilji dynasty conquered most of central India but were ultimately unsuccessful in conquering and uniting the subcontinent. The Sultanate ushered in a period of Indian cultural renaissance. The resulting "Indo-Muslim" fusion of cultures left lasting syncretic monuments in architecture, music, literature, religion, and clothing. It is surmised that the language of Urdu (literally meaning "horde" or "camp" in various Turkic dialects) was born during the Delhi Sultanate period as a result of the intermingling of the local speakers of Sanskritic Prakrits with immigrants speaking Persian, Turkic, and Arabic under the Muslim rulers. The Delhi Sultanate is the only Indo-Islamic empire to enthrone one of the few female rulers in India, Razia Sultana (1236–1240).
What Turko-Mongol attacked and defeated the Sultan of Tughlaq dynasty?
57289df84b864d1900164ad2
Timur
42
False
On what date did Timur beat the Delhi Sultan?
57289df84b864d1900164ad3
17 December 1398
201
False
In what shape did Timur leave the city of Delhi?
57289df84b864d1900164ad4
in ruins
284
False
How many prisoners of war were executed in the sack of Delhi?
57289df84b864d1900164ad5
100,000
473
False
What were exempted from death by Timur when ordering Delhi sacked?
57289df84b864d1900164ad6
sayyids
419
False
A Turco-Mongol conqueror in Central Asia, Timur (Tamerlane), attacked the reigning Sultan Nasir-u Din Mehmud of the Tughlaq Dynasty in the north Indian city of Delhi. The Sultan's army was defeated on 17 December 1398. Timur entered Delhi and the city was sacked, destroyed, and left in ruins, after Timur's army had killed and plundered for three days and nights. He ordered the whole city to be sacked except for the sayyids, scholars, and the "other Muslims" (artists); 100,000 war prisoners were put to death in one day. The Sultanate suffered significantly from the sacking of Delhi revived briefly under the Lodi Dynasty, but it was a shadow of the former.
In what year was Sangama Dynasty formed?
57289ffd4b864d1900164aec
1336
30
False
At what location are the best known monuments in the south of India?
57289ffd4b864d1900164aed
Hampi
498
False
What mathematician founded the Kerala school of astronomy?
57289ffd4b864d1900164aee
Madhava of Sangamagrama
926
False
When was the Kerala school established?
57289ffd4b864d1900164aef
14th century
1019
False
What did the Vijayanagara Empire promote to unify Indian culture?
57289ffd4b864d1900164af0
Hinduism
1573
False
The Empire was established in 1336 by Harihara I and his brother Bukka Raya I of Sangama Dynasty. The empire rose to prominence as a culmination of attempts by the southern powers to ward off Islamic invasions by the end of the 13th century. The empire is named after its capital city of Vijayanagara, whose ruins surround present day Hampi, now a World Heritage Site in Karnataka, India. The empire's legacy includes many monuments spread over South India, the best known of which is the group at Hampi. The previous temple building traditions in South India came together in the Vijayanagara Architecture style. The mingling of all faiths and vernaculars inspired architectural innovation of Hindu temple construction, first in the Deccan and later in the Dravidian idioms using the local granite. South Indian mathematics flourished under the protection of the Vijayanagara Empire in Kerala. The south Indian mathematician Madhava of Sangamagrama founded the famous Kerala school of astronomy and mathematics in the 14th century which produced a lot of great south Indian mathematicians like Parameshvara, Nilakantha Somayaji and Jyeṣṭhadeva in medieval south India. Efficient administration and vigorous overseas trade brought new technologies such as water management systems for irrigation. The empire's patronage enabled fine arts and literature to reach new heights in Kannada, Telugu, Tamil and Sanskrit, while Carnatic music evolved into its current form. The Vijayanagara Empire created an epoch in South Indian history that transcended regionalism by promoting Hinduism as a unifying factor. The empire reached its peak during the rule of Sri Krishnadevaraya when Vijayanagara armies were consistently victorious. The empire annexed areas formerly under the Sultanates in the northern Deccan and the territories in the eastern Deccan, including Kalinga, while simultaneously maintaining control over all its subordinates in the south. Many important monuments were either completed or commissioned during the time of Krishna Deva Raya. Vijayanagara went into decline after the defeat in the Battle of Talikota (1565).
From the mid 13th century, what dominated politics in northern India?
5728a1f12ca10214002da4f0
Delhi Sultanate
104
False
What empire dominated in the south of India in the 13th century?
5728a1f12ca10214002da4f1
Vijayanagar Empire
153
False
What group dominated in western and central India at the start of the 13th century?
5728a1f12ca10214002da4f2
Rajputs
338
False
Gajapati Kingdom was powerful in the east for how many centuries?
5728a1f12ca10214002da4f3
six centuries
1167
False
What empire beat the last Bahmani Sultanate?
5728a1f12ca10214002da4f4
Vijayanagara Empire
711
False
For two and a half centuries from the mid 13th, the politics in the Northern India was dominated by the Delhi Sultanate and in the Southern India by the Vijayanagar Empire which originated as a political heir of the erstwhile Hoysala Empire and Pandyan Empire. However, there were other regional powers present as well. In the North, the Rajputs were a dominant force in the Western and Central India. Their power reached to the zenith under Rana Sanga during whose time Rajput armies were constantly victorious against the Sultanate army. In the South, the Bahmani Sultanate was the chief rival of the Vijaynagara and gave Vijayanagara tough days many a times. In the early 16th century Krishnadevaraya of the Vijayanagara Empire defeated the last remnant of Bahmani Sultanate power after which the Bahmani Sultanate collapsed. It was established either by a Brahman convert or patronized by a Brahman and form that source it got the name Bahmani. In the early 16th century, it collapsed and got split into five small Deccan sultanates. In the East, the Gajapati Kingdom remained a strong regional power to reckon with, so was the Ahom Kingdom in the North-east for six centuries.
What kingdom came to power in Assam?
5728a31d4b864d1900164b14
Ahom Kingdom
0
False
What was the span of time fro the Ahom Kingdom?
5728a31d4b864d1900164b15
1228–1826
14
False
What event caused the end of Ahom rule in Assam?
5728a31d4b864d1900164b16
British rule
202
False
With what religion did the Ahom merge?
5728a31d4b864d1900164b17
Hindu
334
False
What group repeatedly tried and failed to conquer the Ahom?
5728a31d4b864d1900164b18
Muslim rulers of Delhi
427
False
Ahom Kingdom (1228–1826) was a kingdom and tribe which rose to prominence in present-day Assam early in the thirteenth century. They ruled much of Assam from the 13th century until the establishment of British rule in 1838. The Ahoms brought with them a tribal religion and a language of their own, however they later merged with the Hindu religion. From thirteenth till seventeenth century, repeated attempts were made by the Muslim rulers of Delhi to invade and subdue Ahoms, however the Ahoms managed to maintain their independence and ruled themselves for nearly 600 years.
What empire did Babur found in northern India?
5728a4d44b864d1900164b4e
Mughal Empire
157
False
Who defeated Babur's son in 1540?
5728a4d44b864d1900164b4f
Sher Shah Suri
316
False
Of what nationality was Sher Shah Suri?
5728a4d44b864d1900164b50
Afghan
301
False
At what place did Akbar's army defeat Hemu in 1556?
5728a4d44b864d1900164b51
Second Battle of Panipat
720
False
By what route did Babur enter India?
5728a4d44b864d1900164b52
Khyber Pass
125
False
In 1526, Babur, a Timurid descendant of Timur and Genghis Khan from Fergana Valley (modern day Uzbekistan), swept across the Khyber Pass and established the Mughal Empire, which at its zenith covered modern day Afghanistan, Pakistan, India and Bangladesh. However, his son Humayun was defeated by the Afghan warrior Sher Shah Suri in the year 1540, and Humayun was forced to retreat to Kabul. After Sher Shah's death, his son Islam Shah Suri and the Hindu emperor Hemu Vikramaditya, who had won 22 battles against Afghan rebels and forces of Akbar, from Punjab to Bengal and had established a secular rule in North India from Delhi till 1556 after winning Battle of Delhi. Akbar's forces defeated and killed Hemu in the Second Battle of Panipat on 6 November 1556.
By what date did the Mughal dynasty rule most of India?
5728a76a2ca10214002da534
1600
121
False
What famous monument did Shah Jahan build at Agra?
5728a76a2ca10214002da535
Taj Mahal
262
False
During whose reign did the Mughal Empire reach its greatest expanse?
5728a76a2ca10214002da536
Aurangzeb
458
False
What actions caused the decline of the Mughal Empire?
5728a76a2ca10214002da537
Maratha military resurgence
526
False
What reached it height during the reign of Shah Jehan?
5728a76a2ca10214002da538
Mughal architecture
173
False
Akbar's son, Jahangir more or less followed father's policy. The Mughal dynasty ruled most of the Indian subcontinent by 1600. The reign of Shah Jahan was the golden age of Mughal architecture. He erected several large monuments, the most famous of which is the Taj Mahal at Agra, as well as the Moti Masjid, Agra, the Red Fort, the Jama Masjid, Delhi, and the Lahore Fort. The Mughal Empire reached the zenith of its territorial expanse during the reign of Aurangzeb and also started its terminal decline in his reign due to Maratha military resurgence under Shivaji. Historian Sir. J.N. Sarkar wrote, "All seemed to have been gained by Aurangzeb now, but in reality all was lost." The same was echoed by Vincent Smith: "The Deccan proved to be the graveyard not only of Aurangzeb's body but also of his empire".
What groups invaded and damaged the Mughals?
5728a97f3acd2414000dfc3d
Marathas and Afghans
98
False
Who attacked and plundered Delhi in 1737?
5728a97f3acd2414000dfc3e
Maratha general Bajirao
284
False
Who was the final Commander-in-chief of the Mughal army?
5728a97f3acd2414000dfc3f
Nizam-ul-mulk
685
False
What was the site of the final battle for the Mughals?
5728a97f3acd2414000dfc40
Bhopal
714
False
What was the Indian Rebellion of 1857 also called?
5728a97f3acd2414000dfc41
1857 War of Independence
1164
False
The empire went into decline thereafter. The Mughals suffered several blows due to invasions from Marathas and Afghans. During the decline of the Mughal Empire, several smaller states rose to fill the power vacuum and themselves were contributing factors to the decline. In 1737, the Maratha general Bajirao of the Maratha Empire invaded and plundered Delhi. Under the general Amir Khan Umrao Al Udat, the Mughal Emperor sent 8,000 troops to drive away the 5,000 Maratha cavalry soldiers. Baji Rao, however, easily routed the novice Mughal general and the rest of the imperial Mughal army fled. In 1737, in the final defeat of Mughal Empire, the commander-in-chief of the Mughal Army, Nizam-ul-mulk, was routed at Bhopal by the Maratha army. This essentially brought an end to the Mughal Empire. In 1739, Nader Shah, emperor of Iran, defeated the Mughal army at the Battle of Karnal. After this victory, Nader captured and sacked Delhi, carrying away many treasures, including the Peacock Throne. The Mughal dynasty was reduced to puppet rulers by 1757. The remnants of the Mughal dynasty were finally defeated during the Indian Rebellion of 1857, also called the 1857 War of Independence, and the remains of the empire were formally taken over by the British while the Government of India Act 1858 let the British Crown assume direct control of India in the form of the new British Raj.
What was the richest of all the dynasties?
5728ad383acd2414000dfcb3
The Mughals
0
False
What policy made the Mughals a successful dynasty?
5728ad383acd2414000dfcb4
integration with Indian culture
397
False
Which Mughal ruler tried to form a good relationship with non-Muslims?
5728ad383acd2414000dfcb5
emperor Akbar
728
False
Which Mughal ruler tried to establish complete dominance over the Hindu populace?
5728ad383acd2414000dfcb6
Aurangazeb
862
False
With what styles did Mughal Rulers merge their Tuko-Persian culture?
5728ad383acd2414000dfcb7
ancient Indian
1292
False
The Mughals were perhaps the richest single dynasty to have ever existed. During the Mughal era, the dominant political forces consisted of the Mughal Empire and its tributaries and, later on, the rising successor states – including the Maratha Empire – which fought an increasingly weak Mughal dynasty. The Mughals, while often employing brutal tactics to subjugate their empire, had a policy of integration with Indian culture, which is what made them successful where the short-lived Sultanates of Delhi had failed. This period marked vast social change in the subcontinent as the Hindu majority were ruled over by the Mughal emperors, most of whom showed religious tolerance, liberally patronising Hindu culture. The famous emperor Akbar, who was the grandson of Babar, tried to establish a good relationship with the Hindus. However, later emperors such as Aurangazeb tried to establish complete Muslim dominance, and as a result several historical temples were destroyed during this period and taxes imposed on non-Muslims. Akbar declared "Amari" or non-killing of animals in the holy days of Jainism. He rolled back the jizya tax for non-Muslims. The Mughal emperors married local royalty, allied themselves with local maharajas, and attempted to fuse their Turko-Persian culture with ancient Indian styles, creating a unique Indo-Saracenic architecture. It was the erosion of this tradition coupled with increased brutality and centralization that played a large part in the dynasty's downfall after Aurangzeb, who unlike previous emperors, imposed relatively non-pluralistic policies on the general population, which often inflamed the majority Hindu population.
The rise of what dynasty followed the era of the Mughals?
5728af382ca10214002da5ba
Maratha suzerainty
53
False
What founding was of importance in the  decline of the Mughals?
5728af382ca10214002da5bb
Maratha confederacy
324
False
Who consolidated the Maratha kingdom?
5728af382ca10214002da5bc
Chatrapati Shivaji
397
False
What did J.N. Sarkar say of Shivaji's nation building?
5728af382ca10214002da5bd
great constructive genius
555
False
Who made the Marathas a strong power?
5728af382ca10214002da5be
Peshwa Bajirao I
715
False
The post-Mughal era was dominated by the rise of the Maratha suzerainty as other small regional states (mostly late Mughal tributary states) emerged, and also by the increasing activities of European powers. There is no doubt that the single most important power to emerge in the long twilight of the Mughal dynasty was the Maratha confederacy. The Maratha kingdom was founded and consolidated by Chatrapati Shivaji, a Maratha aristocrat of the Bhonsle clan who was determined to establish Hindavi Swarajya. Sir J.N. Sarkar described Shivaji as "the last great constructive genius and nation builder that the Hindu race has produced". However, the credit for making the Marathas formidable power nationally goes to Peshwa Bajirao I. Historian K.K. Datta wrote about Bajirao I:
By when had the Maratha kingdom become an empire?
5728b0cbff5b5019007da48e
early 18th century
7
False
Who ruled the Maratha Empire?
5728b0cbff5b5019007da48f
Peshwas
116
False
What were Peshwas?
5728b0cbff5b5019007da490
prime ministers
125
False
By what year had the Maratha Empire covered most of the subcontinent?
5728b0cbff5b5019007da491
1760
1120
False
In the end, what empire defeated the Maratha Empire?
5728b0cbff5b5019007da492
British
1436
False
By the early 18th century, the Maratha Kingdom had transformed itself into the Maratha Empire under the rule of the Peshwas (prime ministers). In 1737, the Marathas defeated a Mughal army in their capital, Delhi itself in Battle of Delhi (1737). The Marathas continued their military campaigns against Mughals, Nizam, Nawab of Bengal and Durrani Empire to further extend their boundaries. Gordon explained how the Maratha systematically took control over new regions. They would start with annual raids, followed by collecting ransom from villages and towns while the declining Mughal Empire retained nominal control and finally taking over the region. He explained it with the example of Malwa region. Marathas built an efficient system of public administration known for its attention to detail. It succeeded in raising revenue in districts that recovered from years of raids, up to levels previously enjoyed by the Mughals. For example, the cornerstone of the Maratha rule in Malwa rested on the 60 or so local tax collectors who advanced the Maratha ruler Peshwa a portion of their district revenues at interest. By 1760, the domain of the Marathas stretched across practically the entire subcontinent. The north-western expansion of the Marathas was stopped after the Third Battle of Panipat (1761). However, the Maratha authority in the north was re-established within a decade under Peshwa Madhavrao I. The defeat of Marathas by British in third Anglo-Maratha Wars brought end to the empire by 1820. The last peshwa, Baji Rao II, was defeated by the British in the Third Anglo-Maratha War. With the defeat of the Marathas, no native power represented any significant threat for the British afterwards.
Followers what religion were the rulers of the Punjabi Kingdom?
5728b2a2ff5b5019007da4b6
Sikh religion
45
False
What was the time span of the Punjabi Kingdom?
5728b2a2ff5b5019007da4b7
1799 to 1849
187
False
Who was the leader of the Punjabis?
5728b2a2ff5b5019007da4b8
Maharaja Ranjit Singh
274
False
On what was the disciplined force Singh relied?
5728b2a2ff5b5019007da4b9
Sikh army
453
False
Who finally was able to conquer the Sikh Empire?
5728b2a2ff5b5019007da4ba
British
1091
False
The Punjabi kingdom, ruled by members of the Sikh religion, was a political entity that governed the region of modern-day Punjab. The empire, based around the Punjab region, existed from 1799 to 1849. It was forged, on the foundations of the Khalsa, under the leadership of Maharaja Ranjit Singh (1780–1839) from an array of autonomous Punjabi Misls. He consolidated many parts of northern India into a kingdom. He primarily used his highly disciplined Sikh army that he trained and equipped to be the equal of a European force. Ranjit Singh proved himself to be a master strategist and selected well qualified generals for his army. In stages, he added the central Punjab, the provinces of Multan and Kashmir, the Peshawar Valley, and the Derajat to his kingdom. This came in the face of the powerful British East India Company. At its peak, in the 19th century, the empire extended from the Khyber Pass in the west, to Kashmir in the north, to Sindh in the south, running along Sutlej river to Himachal in the east. This was among the last areas of the subcontinent to be conquered by the British. The first Anglo-Sikh war and second Anglo-Sikh war marked the downfall of the Sikh Empire.
To what Kingdom did many small kingdoms pay tribute?
5728b45f3acd2414000dfd15
Marathas
191
False
What kingdom was founded in Mysore in 1400 CE?
5728b45f3acd2414000dfd16
Wodeyar
213
False
What groups was Mysore fighting in the later half of the 18th century?
5728b45f3acd2414000dfd17
British and Marathas
494
False
What country promised aid to Mysore to fight the British?
5728b45f3acd2414000dfd18
the French
602
False
Who took over rule of Mysore in the 18th century?
5728b45f3acd2414000dfd19
Hyder Ali
327
False
There were several other kingdoms which ruled over parts of India in the later medieval period prior to the British occupation. However, most of them were bound to pay regular tribute to the Marathas. The rule of Wodeyar dynasty which established the Kingdom of Mysore in southern India in around 1400 CE by was interrupted by Hyder Ali and his son Tipu Sultan in the later half of the 18th century. Under their rule, Mysore fought a series of wars sometimes against the combined forces of the British and Marathas, but mostly against the British, with Mysore receiving some aid or promise of aid from the French.
In what country was the trading base for the Dutch?
5728b6544b864d1900164c9e
Ceylon
59
False
Where did the British initially establish a trading base?
5728b6544b864d1900164c9f
port of Surat
123
False
What was the third European country to establish trading with India?
5728b6544b864d1900164ca0
French
153
False
What actions by the Indian kingdoms gave the European traders the opportunity to acquire lands and influence?
5728b6544b864d1900164ca1
internal conflicts
165
False
To whom did the foreigners lose most of their acquired lands?
5728b6544b864d1900164ca2
British
510
False
The next to arrive were the Dutch, with their main base in Ceylon. The British—who set up a trading post in the west coast port of Surat in 1619—and the French. The internal conflicts among Indian kingdoms gave opportunities to the European traders to gradually establish political influence and appropriate lands. Although these continental European powers controlled various coastal regions of southern and eastern India during the ensuing century, they eventually lost all their territories in India to the British islanders, with the exception of the French outposts of Pondichéry and Chandernagore, the Dutch port of Travancore, and the Portuguese colonies of Goa, Daman and Diu.[citation needed]
What ruler opposed the British use of permits and ended up at war?
5728b8862ca10214002da658
Nawab of Bengal Siraj Ud Daulah
4
False
What British company was heavily involved in the defeat of the Nawab's forces?
5728b8862ca10214002da659
East India Company
210
False
Who did the East India Company appoint as Governor of Bengal?
5728b8862ca10214002da65a
Robert Clive
237
False
What type of land taxation system did the East India Company instigate in Bengal?
5728b8862ca10214002da65b
feudal
1143
False
How did the East India Company handle trade in Bengal?
5728b8862ca10214002da65c
monopolized
1020
False
The Nawab of Bengal Siraj Ud Daulah, the de facto ruler of the Bengal province, opposed British attempts to use these permits. This led to the Battle of Plassey on 23 June 1757, in which the Bengal Army of the East India Company, led by Robert Clive, defeated the French-supported Nawab's forces. This was the first real political foothold with territorial implications that the British acquired in India. Clive was appointed by the company as its first 'Governor of Bengal' in 1757. This was combined with British victories over the French at Madras, Wandiwash and Pondichéry that, along with wider British successes during the Seven Years' War, reduced French influence in India. The British East India Company extended its control over the whole of Bengal. After the Battle of Buxar in 1764, the company acquired the rights of administration in Bengal from de jure Mughal Emperor Shah Alam II; this marked the beginning of its formal rule, which within the next century engulfed most of India. The East India Company monopolized the trade of Bengal. They introduced a land taxation system called the Permanent Settlement which introduced a feudal-like structure in Bengal, often with zamindars set in place.
What whole region did the East India company get control over after the Carnatic Wars?
5728ba8d4b864d1900164d00
Carnatic
112
False
During what time were the Anglo-Mysore Wars?
5728ba8d4b864d1900164d01
1766–1799
242
False
When were the Anglo-Maratha Wars fought?
5728ba8d4b864d1900164d02
1772–1818
287
False
To what dynasty was Kashmir sold in 1849?
5728ba8d4b864d1900164d03
Dogra Dynasty of Jammu
638
False
After the sale of Kashmir, what did the area become?
5728ba8d4b864d1900164d04
princely state
682
False
As a result of the three Carnatic Wars, the British East India Company gained exclusive control over the entire Carnatic region of India. The Company soon expanded its territories around its bases in Bombay and Madras; the Anglo-Mysore Wars (1766–1799) and later the Anglo-Maratha Wars (1772–1818) led to control of the vast regions of India. Ahom Kingdom of North-east India first fell to Burmese invasion and then to British after Treaty of Yandabo in 1826. Punjab, North-West Frontier Province, and Kashmir were annexed after the Second Anglo-Sikh War in 1849; however, Kashmir was immediately sold under the Treaty of Amritsar to the Dogra Dynasty of Jammu and thereby became a princely state. The border dispute between Nepal and British India, which sharpened after 1801, had caused the Anglo-Nepalese War of 1814–16 and brought the defeated Gurkhas under British influence. In 1854, Berar was annexed, and the state of Oudh was added two years later.
What did the soldiers rebel against in the Indian Rebellion of 1857?
5728bc02ff5b5019007da5a2
Company's rule
146
False
What happened to the rebels of the Rebellion?
5728bc02ff5b5019007da5a3
brutally suppressed
306
False
What force took control of the company and the situation?
5728bc02ff5b5019007da5a4
British government
334
False
What did the British government intend to keep in regards to India?
5728bc02ff5b5019007da5a5
full control
478
False
What did the British government remove that had caused the Rebellion?
5728bc02ff5b5019007da5a6
grievances
408
False
The Indian rebellion of 1857 was a large-scale rebellion by soldiers employed by the British East India in northern and central India against the Company's rule. The rebels were disorganized, had differing goals, and were poorly equipped, led, and trained, and had no outside support or funding. They were brutally suppressed and the British government took control of the Company and eliminated many of the grievances that caused it. The government also was determined to keep full control so that no rebellion of such size would ever happen again.
To what entity was all the power of the East India Company transferred?
5728bd923acd2414000dfd81
British Crown
79
False
How did Britain govern the vast area of India?
5728bd923acd2414000dfd82
provinces
149
False
Over what did Britain have direct control?
5728bd923acd2414000dfd83
Company's lands
185
False
What kind of influence did the British Crown have over the rest of India that was not under Company rule?
5728bd923acd2414000dfd84
indirect influence
231
False
How many princely states were there in India in 1947?
5728bd923acd2414000dfd85
565
366
False
In the aftermath, all power was transferred from the East India Company to the British Crown, which began to administer most of India as a number of provinces. The Crown controlled the Company's lands directly and had considerable indirect influence over the rest of India, which consisted of the Princely states ruled by local royal families. There were officially 565 princely states in 1947, but only 21 had actual state governments, and only three were large (Mysore, Hyderabad and Kashmir). They were absorbed into the independent nation in 1947–48.
What did the Colonial government expand by legal means?
5728bfa72ca10214002da6e2
infrastructure
66
False
What new law was created?
5728bfa72ca10214002da6e3
Indian Penal Code
139
False
Who insisted that schooling be a priority in India?
5728bfa72ca10214002da6e4
Thomas Babington Macaulay
188
False
When did India build the forth largest rail system in the world?
5728bfa72ca10214002da6e5
late 19th century
635
False
In what feature of management did the British invest heavily?
5728bfa72ca10214002da6e6
infrastructure
732
False
After 1857, the colonial government strengthened and expanded its infrastructure via the court system, legal procedures, and statutes. The Indian Penal Code came into being. In education, Thomas Babington Macaulay had made schooling a priority for the Raj in his famous minute of February 1835 and succeeded in implementing the use of English as the medium of instruction. By 1890 some 60,000 Indians had matriculated. The Indian economy grew at about 1% per year from 1880 to 1920, and the population also grew at 1%. However, from 1910s Indian private industry began to grow significantly. India built a modern railway system in the late 19th century which was the fourth largest in the world. The British Raj invested heavily in infrastructure, including canals and irrigation systems in addition to railways, telegraphy, roads and ports. However, historians have been bitterly divided on issues of economic history, with the Nationalist school arguing that India was poorer at the end of British rule than at the beginning and that impoverishment occurred because of the British.
What administer divided the province of Bengal in half?
5728c1bc4b864d1900164d72
Lord Curzon
9
False
What was the majority of the population of the western half of Bengal?
5728c1bc4b864d1900164d73
Hindu
71
False
What was the religion of the western half of Bengal?
5728c1bc4b864d1900164d74
Muslim
132
False
What movement did the division of Bengal start?
5728c1bc4b864d1900164d75
anti-colonial
343
False
What was the biggest and oldest political party in India?
5728c1bc4b864d1900164d76
Indian National Congress
1555
False
In 1905, Lord Curzon split the large province of Bengal into a largely Hindu western half and "Eastern Bengal and Assam", a largely Muslim eastern half. The British goal was said to be for efficient administration but the people of Bengal were outraged at the apparent "divide and rule" strategy. It also marked the beginning of the organized anti-colonial movement. When the Liberal party in Britain came to power in 1906, he was removed. Bengal was reunified in 1911. The new Viceroy Gilbert Minto and the new Secretary of State for India John Morley consulted with Congress leaders on political reforms. The Morley-Minto reforms of 1909 provided for Indian membership of the provincial executive councils as well as the Viceroy's executive council. The Imperial Legislative Council was enlarged from 25 to 60 members and separate communal representation for Muslims was established in a dramatic step towards representative and responsible government. Several socio-religious organizations came into being at that time. Muslims set up the All India Muslim League in 1906. It was not a mass party but was designed to protect the interests of the aristocratic Muslims. It was internally divided by conflicting loyalties to Islam, the British, and India, and by distrust of Hindus. The Akhil Bharatiya Hindu Mahasabha and Rashtriya Swayamsevak Sangh (RSS) sought to represent Hindu interests though the later always claimed it to be a "cultural" organization. Sikhs founded the Shiromani Akali Dal in 1920. However, the largest and oldest political party Indian National Congress, founded in 1885, is perceived to have attempted to keep a distance from the socio-religious movements and identity politics.
What was the social reform movement centered in Bengal in the 19th to early 20th century?
5728c4de4b864d1900164da2
Bengali Renaissance
4
False
What group lead the Bengali Renaissance?
5728c4de4b864d1900164da3
English educated Bengali Hindus
188
False
With whom did the Renaissance movement begin?
5728c4de4b864d1900164da4
Raja Ram Mohan Roy
277
False
With whom was it said the the movement ended?
5728c4de4b864d1900164da5
Rabindranath Tagore
323
False
From what did the Renaissance Movement mark the change?
5728c4de4b864d1900164da6
medieval' to the 'modern
731
False
The Bengali Renaissance refers to a social reform movement during the nineteenth and early twentieth centuries in the Bengal region of India during the period of British rule dominated by English educated Bengali Hindus. The Bengal Renaissance can be said to have started with Raja Ram Mohan Roy (1772–1833) and ended with Rabindranath Tagore (1861–1941), although many stalwarts thereafter continued to embody particular aspects of the unique intellectual and creative output of the region. Nineteenth century Bengal was a unique blend of religious and social reformers, scholars, literary giants, journalists, patriotic orators, and scientists, all merging to form the image of a renaissance, and marked the transition from the 'medieval' to the 'modern'.
What did the Bengali Renaissance resemble?
5728c6a52ca10214002da79a
Renaissance in Europe
98
False
What did the Movement question?
5728c6a52ca10214002da79b
existing orthodoxies
276
False
What early social movement occurred during this time of awakening?
5728c6a52ca10214002da79c
Young Bengal
469
False
What factors did the Young Bengal movement  say were needed for civil conduct?
5728c6a52ca10214002da79d
rationalism and atheism
507
False
What did the movements in Bengal serve to awaken in Indians?
5728c6a52ca10214002da79e
minds and intellect
660
False
During this period, Bengal witnessed an intellectual awakening that is in some way similar to the Renaissance in Europe during the 16th century, although Europeans of that age were not confronted with the challenge and influence of alien colonialism. This movement questioned existing orthodoxies, particularly with respect to women, marriage, the dowry system, the caste system, and religion. One of the earliest social movements that emerged during this time was the Young Bengal movement, which espoused rationalism and atheism as the common denominators of civil conduct among upper caste educated Hindus. It played an important role in reawakening Indian minds and intellect across the sub-continent.
What were said to have been caused by government policy failures?
5728c7dd2ca10214002da7ac
famines
24
False
How many people were said to have died in the Great Famine?
5728c7dd2ca10214002da7ad
6.1 million to 10.3 million
175
False
When did the Great Famine happen?
5728c7dd2ca10214002da7ae
1876–78
158
False
How many people died in the Indian Famine of 1899-1900?
5728c7dd2ca10214002da7af
1.25 to 10 million
259
False
What killed 10 million people in India?
5728c7dd2ca10214002da7b0
Third Plague Pandemic
295
False
During the British Raj, famines in India, often attributed to failed government policies, were some of the worst ever recorded, including the Great Famine of 1876–78 in which 6.1 million to 10.3 million people died and the Indian famine of 1899–1900 in which 1.25 to 10 million people died. The Third Plague Pandemic in the mid-19th century killed 10 million people in India. Despite persistent diseases and famines, the population of the Indian subcontinent, which stood at about 125 million in 1750, had reached 389 million by 1941.
What movement rose in the 19th century?
5728c9483acd2414000dfe6f
Indian nationalism
69
False
What did Indian first want as government?
5728c9483acd2414000dfe70
self-rule
120
False
What did Indians finally begin to demand?
5728c9483acd2414000dfe71
complete independence
142
False
What feature of the nationalism movement is unknown?
5728c9483acd2414000dfe72
causes
207
False
What can only be listed without absolute firmness in the nationalism movement?
5728c9483acd2414000dfe73
Probable reasons
227
False
One of the most important events of the 19th century was the rise of Indian nationalism, leading Indians to seek first "self-rule" and later "complete independence". However, historians are divided over the causes of its rise. Probable reasons include a "clash of interests of the Indian people with British interests", "racial discriminations", "the revelation of India's past", "inter-linking of the new social groups in different regions", and Indians coming in close contact with "European education".
What appointments were  the first step in Indian self-rule?
5728cab72ca10214002da7ee
councillors
62
False
When was the first Indian appointed as a Councillor?
5728cab72ca10214002da7ef
1909
150
False
What more local councils were set up?
5728cab72ca10214002da7f0
Provincial Councils
156
False
Of what nationality were the officers in the Indian Army?
5728cab72ca10214002da7f1
British
373
False
What were the troops in the British Indian Army?
5728cab72ca10214002da7f2
minority groups
415
False
The first step toward Indian self-rule was the appointment of councillors to advise the British viceroy in 1861 and the first Indian was appointed in 1909. Provincial Councils with Indian members were also set up. The councillors' participation was subsequently widened into legislative councils. The British built a large British Indian Army, with the senior officers all British and many of the troops from small minority groups such as Gurkhas from Nepal and Sikhs. The civil service was increasingly filled with natives at the lower levels, with the British holding the more senior positions.
What Indian leader said that Swaraj was his birthright?
5728cc17ff5b5019007da6e2
Bal Gangadhar Tilak
0
False
What parts of India shaped the demands of the people for nationalism?
5728cc17ff5b5019007da6e3
three big provinces
350
False
How was the Congress split in 1907?
5728cc17ff5b5019007da6e4
two factions
504
False
Which faction of the Congress did Tilak lead?
5728cc17ff5b5019007da6e5
The radicals
518
False
Which faction wanted reform within British rule?
5728cc17ff5b5019007da6e6
The moderates
669
False
Bal Gangadhar Tilak, an Indian nationalist leader, declared Swaraj as the destiny of the nation. His popular sentence "Swaraj is my birthright, and I shall have it" became the source of inspiration for Indians. Tilak was backed by rising public leaders like Bipin Chandra Pal and Lala Lajpat Rai, who held the same point of view. Under them, India's three big provinces – Maharashtra, Bengal and Punjab, India shaped the demand of the people and India's nationalism. In 1907, the Congress was split into two factions: The radicals, led by Tilak, advocated civil agitation and direct revolution to overthrow the British Empire and the abandonment of all things British. The moderates, led by leaders like Dadabhai Naoroji and Gopal Krishna Gokhale, on the other hand wanted reform within the framework of British rule.
What leader started a mass movement against British rule?
5728cd672ca10214002da826
Mahatma Gandhi
26
False
What means did Gandhi espouse to gain self-rule?
5728cd672ca10214002da827
peaceful
127
False
What group wanted to use violent means to over throw the British rule?
5728cd672ca10214002da828
Indian National Army
457
False
On what date did India gain its independence?
5728cd672ca10214002da829
15 August 1947
705
False
What action did the movements combine to produce?
5728cd672ca10214002da82a
Government of India Act 1935
539
False
From 1920 leaders such as Mahatma Gandhi began highly popular mass movements to campaign against the British Raj using largely peaceful methods. The Gandhi-led independence movement opposed the British rule using non-violent methods like non-cooperation, civil disobedience and economic resistance. However, revolutionary activities against the British rule took place throughout the Indian subcontinent and some others adopted a militant approach like the Indian National Army that sought to overthrow British rule by armed struggle. The Government of India Act 1935 was a major success in this regard. All these movements succeeded in bringing independence to the new dominions of India and Pakistan on 15 August 1947.
What position did Muslims have in the Indian population?
5728cfb7ff5b5019007da70a
minority
147
False
What effect of independence did Muslims distrust?
5728cfb7ff5b5019007da70b
Hindu rule
299
False
What did the British form in preparation to leaving India?
5728cfb7ff5b5019007da70c
interim government
575
False
How many people died in the rioting over divisions of Bengal and Punjab?
5728cfb7ff5b5019007da70d
500,000
930
False
How many people migrated between the newly created countries of India and Pakistan?
5728cfb7ff5b5019007da70e
12 million
1050
False
Along with the desire for independence, tensions between Hindus and Muslims had also been developing over the years. The Muslims had always been a minority within the subcontinent, and the prospect of an exclusively Hindu government made them wary of independence; they were as inclined to mistrust Hindu rule as they were to resist the foreign Raj, although Gandhi called for unity between the two groups in an astonishing display of leadership. The British, extremely weakened by the Second World War, promised that they would leave and participated in the formation of an interim government. The British Indian territories gained independence in 1947, after being partitioned into the Union of India and Dominion of Pakistan. Following the controversial division of pre-partition Punjab and Bengal, rioting broke out between Sikhs, Hindus and Muslims in these provinces and spread to several other parts of India, leaving some 500,000 dead. Also, this period saw one of the largest mass migrations ever recorded in modern history, with a total of 12 million Hindus, Sikhs and Muslims moving between the newly created nations of India and Pakistan (which gained independence on 15 and 14 August 1947 respectively). In 1971, Bangladesh, formerly East Pakistan and East Bengal, seceded from Pakistan.
Gamal_Abdel_Nasser
What number president of Egypt was Nasser?
5727ea812ca10214002d99a6
second
143
False
What organization attempted to assassinate Nasser?
5727ea812ca10214002d99a7
Muslim Brotherhood
354
False
In what year did Nasser become president?
5727ea812ca10214002d99a8
1956
554
False
In what year did Nasser die?
5727ea812ca10214002d99a9
1970
129
False
What type of government did Nasser overthrow?
5727ea812ca10214002d99aa
monarchy
242
False
Gamal Abdel Nasser Hussein (Arabic: جمال عبد الناصر حسين‎, IPA: [ɡæˈmæːl ʕæbdenˈnɑːsˤeɾ ħeˈseːn]; 15 January 1918 – 28 September 1970) was the second President of Egypt, serving from 1956 until his death. Nasser led the 1952 overthrow of the monarchy and introduced far-reaching land reforms the following year. Following a 1954 attempt on his life by a Muslim Brotherhood member acting on his own, he cracked down on the organization, put President Muhammad Naguib under house arrest, and assumed executive office, officially becoming president in June 1956.
How many mourners attended Nasser's funeral?
5727eb3c4b864d1900164024
five million
1185
False
What landmark water route did Nasser nationalize?
5727eb3c4b864d1900164025
Suez Canal
32
False
What organization did Nasser create with Syria?
5727eb3c4b864d1900164026
United Arab Republic
279
False
What civil war did Nasser become entangled in?
5727eb3c4b864d1900164027
North Yemen Civil War
560
False
In what year did Nasser start his second term as President?
5727eb3c4b864d1900164028
1965
630
False
Nasser's nationalization of the Suez Canal and his emergence as the political victor from the subsequent Suez Crisis substantially elevated his popularity in Egypt and the Arab world. Calls for pan-Arab unity under his leadership increased, culminating with the formation of the United Arab Republic with Syria (1958–1961). In 1962, Nasser began a series of major socialist measures and modernization reforms in Egypt. Despite setbacks to his pan-Arabist cause, by 1963 Nasser's supporters gained power in several Arab countries and he became embroiled in the North Yemen Civil War. He began his second presidential term in March 1965 after his political opponents were banned from running. Following Egypt's defeat by Israel in the 1967 Six-Day War, Nasser resigned, but he returned to office after popular demonstrations called for his reinstatement. By 1968, Nasser had appointed himself prime minister, launched the War of Attrition to regain lost territory, began a process of depoliticizing the military, and issued a set of political liberalization reforms. After the conclusion of the 1970 Arab League summit, Nasser suffered a heart attack and died. His funeral in Cairo drew five million mourners and an outpouring of grief across the Arab world.
Name two infrastructure projects Nasser spearheaded.
5727ebe03acd2414000defef
Aswan Dam and Helwan City
304
False
What century did Nasser rule in?
5727ebe03acd2414000deff0
20th
667
False
What was nasser's position toward imperialism?
5727ebe03acd2414000deff1
anti-imperialist
147
False
How did Nasser's government deal with human rights?
5727ebe03acd2414000deff2
human rights violations
400
False
Nasser remains an iconic figure in the Arab world, particularly for his strides towards social justice and Arab unity, modernization policies, and anti-imperialist efforts. His presidency also encouraged and coincided with an Egyptian cultural boom, and launched large industrial projects, including the Aswan Dam and Helwan City. Nasser's detractors criticize his authoritarianism, his government's human rights violations, his populist relationship with the citizenry, and his failure to establish civil institutions, blaming his legacy for future dictatorial governance in Egypt. Historians describe Nasser as a towering political figure of the Middle East in the 20th century.
What was Nasser's father's occupation?
5727ec5aff5b5019007d9898
postal worker
141
False
In what city was Nasser raised?
5727ec5aff5b5019007d9899
Alexandria
201
False
What year was Nasser born?
5727ec5aff5b5019007d989a
1918
42
False
What does Nasser's brother's name translate to?
5727ec5aff5b5019007d989b
Glory of the Arabs
545
False
What siblings did Nasser have?
5727ec5aff5b5019007d989c
two more boys
309
False
Gamal Abdel Nasser was born on 15 January 1918 in Bakos, Alexandria, the first son of Fahima and Abdel Nasser Hussein. Nasser's father was a postal worker born in Beni Mur in Upper Egypt and raised in Alexandria, and his mother's family came from Mallawi, el-Minya. His parents married in 1917, and later had two more boys, Izz al-Arab and al-Leithi. Nasser's biographers Robert Stephens and Said Aburish wrote that Nasser's family believed strongly in the "Arab notion of glory", since the name of Nasser's brother, Izz al-Arab, translates to "Glory of the Arabs"—a rare name in Egypt.
What elementary school did Nasser attend?
5727ecef2ca10214002d99d2
Attarin
95
False
Where did Nasser go to boarding school?
5727ecef2ca10214002d99d3
Helwan
171
False
What secondary school did Nasser attend?
5727ecef2ca10214002d99d4
Ras el-Tin
225
False
Where did young Nasser witness demonstrations?
5727ecef2ca10214002d99d5
Manshia Square
454
False
What organization organized the protests Nasser witnessed?
5727ecef2ca10214002d99d6
Young Egypt Society
581
False
In 1928, Nasser went to Alexandria to live with his maternal grandfather and attend the city's Attarin elementary school. He left in 1929 for a private boarding school in Helwan, and later returned to Alexandria to enter the Ras el-Tin secondary school and to join his father, who was working for the city's postal service. It was in Alexandria that Nasser became involved in political activism. After witnessing clashes between protesters and police in Manshia Square, he joined the demonstration without being aware of its purpose. The protest, organized by the ultranationalist Young Egypt Society, called for the end of colonialism in Egypt in the wake of the 1923 Egyptian constitution's annulment by Prime Minister Isma'il Sidqi. Nasser was arrested and detained for a night before his father bailed him out.
What school did Nasser attend in Cairo?
5727eda1ff5b5019007d98bc
al-Nahda al-Masria
81
False
What was the title of the article Nasser wrote for his school paper?
5727eda1ff5b5019007d98bd
Voltaire, the Man of Freedom
261
False
What was the issue Nasser led a protest against?
5727eda1ff5b5019007d98be
British rule
356
False
How many protestors were killed in the demonstration?
5727eda1ff5b5019007d98bf
Two
523
False
What did King Farouk restore after the demonstrations?
5727eda1ff5b5019007d98c0
constitution
838
False
When his father was transferred to Cairo in 1933, Nasser joined him and attended al-Nahda al-Masria school. He took up acting in school plays for a brief period and wrote articles for the school's paper, including a piece on French philosopher Voltaire titled "Voltaire, the Man of Freedom". On 13 November 1935, Nasser led a student demonstration against British rule, protesting against a statement made four days prior by UK foreign minister Samuel Hoare that rejected prospects for the 1923 Constitution's restoration. Two protesters were killed and Nasser received a graze to the head from a policeman's bullet. The incident garnered his first mention in the press: the nationalist newspaper Al Gihad reported that Nasser led the protest and was among the wounded. On 12 December, the new king, Farouk, issued a decree restoring the constitution.
How many days did Nasser attend classes in his senior year?
5727ee363acd2414000df015
45
109
False
What treaty did Nasser object to?
5727ee363acd2414000df016
Anglo-Egyptian Treaty
283
False
What did Nasser not want to have in Egypt?
5727ee363acd2414000df017
British military bases
353
False
What was the trajectory of political unrest after the treaty?
5727ee363acd2414000df018
declined significantly
431
False
From where did Nasser graduate?
5727ee363acd2414000df019
al-Nahda
488
False
Nasser's involvement in political activity increased throughout his school years, such that he only attended 45 days of classes during his last year of secondary school. Despite it having the almost unanimous backing of Egypt's political forces, Nasser strongly objected to the 1936 Anglo-Egyptian Treaty because it stipulated the continued presence of British military bases in the country. Nonetheless, political unrest in Egypt declined significantly and Nasser resumed his studies at al-Nahda, where he received his leaving certificate later that year.
What did Nasser do in his spare time?
5727eecd3acd2414000df029
reading
344
False
What institution did Nasser live close to in 1933?
5727eecd3acd2414000df02a
National Library of Egypt
397
False
What did Nasser observe from moving around frequently as a youth?
5727eecd3acd2414000df02b
Egyptian society's class divisions
120
False
What was Nasser's position in Egypt's society?
5727eecd3acd2414000df02c
well below the wealthy Egyptian elite
182
False
What kind of biographies did Nasser read?
5727eecd3acd2414000df02d
nationalist leaders
541
False
Aburish asserts that Nasser was not distressed by his frequent relocations, which broadened his horizons and showed him Egyptian society's class divisions. His own social status was well below the wealthy Egyptian elite, and his discontent with those born into wealth and power grew throughout his lifetime. Nasser spent most of his spare time reading, particularly in 1933 when he lived near the National Library of Egypt. He read the Qur'an, the sayings of Muhammad, the lives of the Sahaba (Muhammad's companions), and the biographies of nationalist leaders Napoleon, Ataturk, Otto von Bismarck, and Garibaldi and the autobiography of Winston Churchill.
What political theory fascinated Nasser?
5727ef92ff5b5019007d98d8
Egyptian nationalism
33
False
What politician did Nasser admire?
5727ef92ff5b5019007d98d9
Mustafa Kamel
81
False
What poet did Nasser read?
5727ef92ff5b5019007d98da
Ahmed Shawqi
101
False
What novel influenced Nasser greatly?
5727ef92ff5b5019007d98db
Return of the Spirit
339
False
Where did Nasser meet his anti-colonialist teacher?
5727ef92ff5b5019007d98dc
Royal Military Academy
158
False
Nasser was greatly influenced by Egyptian nationalism, as espoused by politician Mustafa Kamel, poet Ahmed Shawqi, and his anti-colonialist instructor at the Royal Military Academy, Aziz al-Masri, to whom Nasser expressed his gratitude in a 1961 newspaper interview. He was especially influenced by Egyptian writer Tawfiq al-Hakim's novel Return of the Spirit, in which al-Hakim wrote that the Egyptian people were only in need of a "man in whom all their feelings and desires will be represented, and who will be for them a symbol of their objective". Nasser later credited the novel as his inspiration to launch the 1952 revolution.
What was Nasser's goal?
5727f0053acd2414000df033
a military career
467
False
Where did Nasser apply in 1937?
5727f0053acd2414000df034
Royal Military Academy
31
False
Why was Nasser rejected from the Academy?
5727f0053acd2414000df035
record of anti-government protest
96
False
Where did Nasser attend law school?
5727f0053acd2414000df036
King Fuad University
206
False
How long did Nasser attend law school?
5727f0053acd2414000df037
one semester
243
False
In 1937, Nasser applied to the Royal Military Academy for army officer training, but his police record of anti-government protest initially blocked his entry. Disappointed, he enrolled in the law school at King Fuad University, but quit after one semester to reapply to the Military Academy. From his readings, Nasser, who frequently spoke of "dignity, glory, and freedom" in his youth, became enchanted with the stories of national liberators and heroic conquerors; a military career became his chief priority.
What's another term for influential intermediary?
5727f0cd3acd2414000df047
wasta
27
False
Who sponsored Nasser's second application to the Military Academy?
5727f0cd3acd2414000df048
Khairy Pasha
277
False
What allies did Nasser meet at the Academy?
5727f0cd3acd2414000df049
Sadat and Amer
770
False
What were the students dissatisfied by in Egypt?
5727f0cd3acd2414000df04a
widespread corruption
827
False
What Egyptian institution did Nasser and his friends want to end?
5727f0cd3acd2414000df04b
monarchy
895
False
Convinced that he needed a wasta, or an influential intermediary to promote his application above the others, Nasser managed to secure a meeting with Under-Secretary of War Ibrahim Khairy Pasha, the person responsible for the academy's selection board, and requested his help. Khairy Pasha agreed and sponsored Nasser's second application, which was accepted in late 1937. Nasser focused on his military career from then on, and had little contact with his family. At the academy, he met Abdel Hakim Amer and Anwar Sadat, both of whom became important aides during his presidency. After graduating from the academy in July 1938, he was commissioned a second lieutenant in the infantry, and posted to Mankabad. It was here that Nasser and his closest comrades, including Sadat and Amer, first discussed their dissatisfaction at widespread corruption in the country and their desire to topple the monarchy. Sadat would later write that because of his "energy, clear-thinking, and balanced judgement", Nasser emerged as the group's natural leader.
In what year was Nasser posted to Sudan?
5727f19a3acd2414000df06d
1941
3
False
Whas was Nasser's position at the military academy in 1943?
5727f19a3acd2414000df06e
instructor
186
False
Who ordered the King to dismiss the Prime Minister?
5727f19a3acd2414000df06f
British Ambassador Miles Lampson
259
False
What political group was Nasser associated with?
5727f19a3acd2414000df070
nationalist
751
False
Who was Nasser's contact in the armed forces, giving Nasser dossiers?
5727f19a3acd2414000df071
Amer
879
False
In 1941, Nasser was posted to Khartoum, Sudan, which was part of Egypt at the time. Nasser returned to Sudan in September 1942 after a brief stay in Egypt, then secured a position as an instructor in the Cairo Royal Military Academy in May 1943. In 1942, the British Ambassador Miles Lampson marched into King Farouk's palace and ordered him to dismiss Prime Minister Hussein Sirri Pasha for having pro-Axis sympathies. Nasser saw the incident as a blatant violation of Egyptian sovereignty and wrote, "I am ashamed that our army has not reacted against this attack", and wished for "calamity" to overtake the British. Nasser was accepted into the General Staff College later that year. He began to form a group of young military officers with strong nationalist sentiments who supported some form of revolution. Nasser stayed in touch with the group's members primarily through Amer, who continued to seek out interested officers within the Egyptian Armed Force's various branches and presented Nasser with a complete file on each of them.
Where was the Egyptian army sent in 1948?
5727f23f2ca10214002d9a18
Palestine
87
False
In what unit did Nasser serve?
5727f23f2ca10214002d9a19
6th Infantry Battalion
125
False
How badly was Nasser wounded?
5727f23f2ca10214002d9a1a
lightly
373
False
What army surrounded Nasser's brigade?
5727f23f2ca10214002d9a1b
Israeli
451
False
What territory was given to Israel?
5727f23f2ca10214002d9a1c
Faluja
633
False
In May 1948, following the British withdrawal, King Farouk sent the Egyptian army into Palestine, with Nasser serving in the 6th Infantry Battalion. During the war, he wrote of the Egyptian army's unpreparedness, saying "our soldiers were dashed against fortifications". Nasser was deputy commander of the Egyptian forces that secured the Faluja pocket. On 12 July, he was lightly wounded in the fighting. By August, his brigade was surrounded by the Israeli Army. Appeals for help from Jordan's Arab Legion went unheeded, but the brigade refused to surrender. Negotiations between Israel and Egypt finally resulted in the ceding of Faluja to Israel. According to veteran journalist Eric Margolis, the defenders of Faluja, "including young army officer Gamal Abdel Nasser, became national heroes" for enduring Israeli bombardment while isolated from their command.
What Egyptian singer performed at the return of Nasser's brigade?
5727f2e03acd2414000df091
Umm Kulthum
20
False
What book did Nasser start writing?
5727f2e03acd2414000df092
Philosophy of the Revolution
470
False
What group opposed the celebration of Nasser's brigade's return?
5727f2e03acd2414000df093
royal government
115
False
Who has pressured the government to cancel the reception?
5727f2e03acd2414000df094
British
165
False
What was Nasser increasingly convinced he should topple?
5727f2e03acd2414000df095
monarchy
328
False
The Egyptian singer Umm Kulthum hosted a public celebration for the officers' return despite reservations from the royal government, which had been pressured by the British to prevent the reception. The apparent difference in attitude between the government and the general public increased Nasser's determination to topple the monarchy. Nasser had also felt bitter that his brigade had not been relieved despite the resilience it displayed. He started writing his book Philosophy of the Revolution during the siege.
What did Nasser do after the war ended?
5727f4172ca10214002d9a22
instructor at the Royal Military Academy
49
False
What group did Nasser try to allign himself with?
5727f4172ca10214002d9a23
Muslim Brotherhood
140
False
What was the reason Nasser rejected the Muslim Brotherhood?
5727f4172ca10214002d9a24
religious agenda
204
False
How did Nasser view the terms of the armisitce with Israel?
5727f4172ca10214002d9a25
humiliating
582
False
What region did the Israelis occupy during the talks?
5727f4172ca10214002d9a26
Eilat
660
False
After the war, Nasser returned to his role as an instructor at the Royal Military Academy. He sent emissaries to forge an alliance with the Muslim Brotherhood in October 1948, but soon concluded that the religious agenda of the Brotherhood was not compatible with his nationalism. From then on, Nasser prevented the Brotherhood's influence over his cadres' activities without severing ties with the organization. Nasser was sent as a member of the Egyptian delegation to Rhodes in February 1949 to negotiate a formal armistice with Israel, and reportedly considered the terms to be humiliating, particularly because the Israelis were able to easily occupy the Eilat region while negotiating with the Arabs in March.
What people had a coup around the time Nasser returned to Egypt?
5727f4fb2ca10214002d9a3c
Syrian
57
False
Who questioned Nasser?
5727f4fb2ca10214002d9a3d
Prime Minister Ibrahim Abdel
244
False
What was Nasser's reaction to the questions he was asked?
5727f4fb2ca10214002d9a3e
convincingly denied the allegations
398
False
What did the interrogation provoke Nasser to do?
5727f4fb2ca10214002d9a3f
speed up his group's activities
661
False
Nasser's return to Egypt coincided with Husni al-Za'im's Syrian coup d'état. Its success and evident popular support among the Syrian people encouraged Nasser's revolutionary pursuits. Soon after his return, he was summoned and interrogated by Prime Minister Ibrahim Abdel Hadi regarding suspicions that he was forming a secret group of dissenting officers. According to secondhand reports, Nasser convincingly denied the allegations. Abdel Hadi was also hesitant to take drastic measures against the army, especially in front of its chief of staff, who was present during the interrogation, and subsequently released Nasser. The interrogation pushed Nasser to speed up his group's activities.
What group boycotted the 1950 elections?
5727f5c13acd2414000df0cd
Muslim Brotherhood
115
False
What party advanced in the 1950 elections?
5727f5c13acd2414000df0ce
Wafd
41
False
What were Wafd members accused of?
5727f5c13acd2414000df0cf
corruption
291
False
What group became prominent in Egyptian politics?
5727f5c13acd2414000df0d0
Free Officers
430
False
How long did Nasser swell the ranks of his Free Officers?
5727f5c13acd2414000df0d1
nearly two years
751
False
In the 1950 parliamentary elections, the Wafd Party of el-Nahhas gained a victory—mostly due to the absence of the Muslim Brotherhood, which boycotted the elections—and was perceived as a threat by the Free Officers as the Wafd had campaigned on demands similar to their own. Accusations of corruption against Wafd politicians began to surface, however, breeding an atmosphere of rumor and suspicion that consequently brought the Free Officers to the forefront of Egyptian politics. By then, the organization had expanded to around ninety members; according to Khaled Mohieddin, "nobody knew all of them and where they belonged in the hierarchy except Nasser". Nasser felt that the Free Officers were not ready to move against the government and, for nearly two years, he did little beyond officer recruitment and underground news bulletins.
What treaty did the Wafd government abrogate?
5727f67d3acd2414000df0ef
Anglo-Egyptian Treaty
59
False
Who did Nasser's group try to assassinate?
5727f67d3acd2414000df0f0
Hussein Sirri Amer
450
False
Who helped Nasser with the assassination attempt?
5727f67d3acd2414000df0f1
Hassan Ibrahim
396
False
What was general Amer's political affiliation?
5727f67d3acd2414000df0f2
royalist
433
False
Who was wounded in the assassination attempt?
5727f67d3acd2414000df0f3
an innocent female passerby
608
False
On 11 October 1951, the Wafd government abrogated the 1936 Anglo-Egyptian Treaty, which had given the British control over the Suez Canal until 1956. The popularity of this move, as well as that of government-sponsored guerrilla attacks against the British, put pressure on Nasser to act. According to Sadat, Nasser decided to wage "a large scale assassination campaign". In January 1952, he and Hassan Ibrahim attempted to kill the royalist general Hussein Sirri Amer by firing their submachine guns at his car as he drove through the streets of Cairo. Instead of killing the general, the attackers wounded an innocent female passerby. Nasser recalled that her wails "haunted" him and firmly dissuaded him from undertaking similar actions in the future.
Who was nominated to the presidency of the Officer's Club?
5727f767ff5b5019007d996a
Sirri Amer
0
False
Who was Nassir's choice to represent the Free Officers?
5727f767ff5b5019007d996b
Muhammad Naguib
332
False
How many times was Naguib wounded?
5727f767ff5b5019007d996c
three
462
False
What media outlet advanced the Free Officer's agenda?
5727f767ff5b5019007d996d
al-Misri
601
False
In what war was Naguib wounded?
5727f767ff5b5019007d996e
Palestine War
481
False
Sirri Amer was close to King Farouk, and was nominated for the presidency of the Officer's Club—normally a ceremonial office—with the king's backing. Nasser was determined to establish the independence of the army from the monarchy, and with Amer as the intercessor, resolved to field a nominee for the Free Officers. They selected Muhammad Naguib, a popular general who had offered his resignation to Farouk in 1942 over British high-handedness and was wounded three times in the Palestine War. Naguib won overwhelmingly and the Free Officers, through their connection with a leading Egyptian daily, al-Misri, publicized his victory while praising the nationalistic spirit of the army.
In what year did riots cause the political situation in Egypt to rapidly deteriorate?
5727f8314b864d19001640d6
1952
14
False
Where did British forces and Egyptian police clash?
5727f8314b864d19001640d7
Ismailia
73
False
How many people were killed in the Cairo riots?
5727f8314b864d19001640d8
76
180
False
Who did Nasser enlist to plan the Free Officer's coup?
5727f8314b864d19001640d9
Zakaria Mohieddin
468
False
What did Nasser want to end in Egypt?
5727f8314b864d19001640da
feudalism
282
False
On 25 January 1952, a confrontation between British forces and police at Ismailia resulted in the deaths of 40 Egyptian policemen, provoking riots in Cairo the next day which left 76 people dead. Afterwards, Nasser published a simple six-point program in Rose al-Yūsuf to dismantle feudalism and British influence in Egypt. In May, Nasser received word that Farouk knew the names of the Free Officers and intended to arrest them; he immediately entrusted Free Officer Zakaria Mohieddin with the task of planning the government takeover by army units loyal to the association.
What type of government did the Free Officer's want to establish?
5727f8df3acd2414000df11f
parliamentary democracy
96
False
Who did Nasser choose to lead his coup?
5727f8df3acd2414000df120
General Naguib
265
False
What was teh fate of King Farouk after the coup?
5727f8df3acd2414000df121
exile
982
False
What did Nasser wear during the coup?
5727f8df3acd2414000df122
civilian clothing
636
False
What day did the revolution begin?
5727f8df3acd2414000df123
22 July
376
False
The Free Officers' intention was not to install themselves in government, but to re-establish a parliamentary democracy. Nasser did not believe that a low-ranking officer like himself (a lieutenant colonel) would be accepted by the Egyptian people, and so selected General Naguib to be his "boss" and lead the coup in name. The revolution they had long sought was launched on 22 July and was declared a success the next day. The Free Officers seized control of all government buildings, radio stations, and police stations, as well as army headquarters in Cairo. While many of the rebel officers were leading their units, Nasser donned civilian clothing to avoid detection by royalists and moved around Cairo monitoring the situation. In a move to stave off foreign intervention two days before the revolution, Nasser had notified the American and British governments of his intentions, and both had agreed not to aid Farouk. Under pressure from the Americans, Nasser had agreed to exile the deposed king with an honorary ceremony.
Who was the first president of the Republic of Egypt?
5727f9b1ff5b5019007d99aa
Naguib
85
False
Who did Nasser want to handle the day-to-day operations of the government?
5727f9b1ff5b5019007d99ab
civilians
343
False
Who did Nasser recruit to be Prime Minister?
5727f9b1ff5b5019007d99ac
Ali Maher
387
False
What new name did the Free Officers take?
5727f9b1ff5b5019007d99ad
Revolutionary Command Council
523
False
What law did Nasser view as the culmination of his revolutionary efforts?
5727f9b1ff5b5019007d99ae
Agrarian Reform Law
976
False
On 18 June 1953, the monarchy was abolished and the Republic of Egypt declared, with Naguib as its first president. According to Aburish, after assuming power, Nasser and the Free Officers expected to become the "guardians of the people's interests" against the monarchy and the pasha class while leaving the day-to-day tasks of government to civilians. They asked former prime minister Ali Maher to accept reappointment to his previous position, and to form an all-civilian cabinet. The Free Officers then governed as the Revolutionary Command Council (RCC) with Naguib as chairman and Nasser as vice-chairman. Relations between the RCC and Maher grew tense, however, as the latter viewed many of Nasser's schemes—agrarian reform, abolition of the monarchy, reorganization of political parties—as too radical, culminating in Maher's resignation on 7 September. Naguib assumed the additional role of prime minister, and Nasser that of deputy prime minister. In September, the Agrarian Reform Law was put into effect. In Nasser's eyes, this law gave the RCC its own identity and transformed the coup into a revolution.
What group rioted at the textile factories?
5727fb4eff5b5019007d99e2
communist
42
False
How many people died in the textile factory riots?
5727fb4eff5b5019007d99e3
nine
155
False
What group supported the RCC?
5727fb4eff5b5019007d99e4
Muslim Brotherhood
315
False
How many posts did the Muslim Brotherhood get in Naguib's cabinet?
5727fb4eff5b5019007d99e5
two
537
False
What was Nasser's position on executing the rioter's leaders?
5727fb4eff5b5019007d99e6
opposed
252
False
Preceding the reform law, in August 1952, communist-led riots broke out at textile factories in Kafr el-Dawwar, leading to a clash with the army that left nine people dead. While most of the RCC insisted on executing the riot's two ringleaders, Nasser opposed this. Nonetheless, the sentences were carried out. The Muslim Brotherhood supported the RCC, and after Naguib's assumption of power, demanded four ministerial portfolios in the new cabinet. Nasser turned down their demands and instead hoped to co-opt the Brotherhood by giving two of its members, who were willing to serve officially as independents, minor ministerial posts.
What was Nasser's first title in the Liberation Rally?
5727fbf84b864d1900164158
secretary-general
255
False
What did Nasser and naguib ban in 1953?
5727fbf84b864d1900164159
all political parties
67
False
What was Nasser alone in supporting?
5727fbf84b864d190016415a
parliamentary elections
362
False
What was Nasser negotiating in 1953?
5727fbf84b864d190016415b
British withdrawal from the Suez Canal
570
False
In January 1953, Nasser overcame opposition from Naguib and banned all political parties, creating a one-party system under the Liberation Rally, a loosely structured movement whose chief task was to organize pro-RCC rallies and lectures, with Nasser its secretary-general. Despite the dissolution order, Nasser was the only RCC member who still favored holding parliamentary elections, according to his fellow officer Abdel Latif Boghdadi. Although outvoted, he still advocated holding elections by 1956. In March 1953, Nasser led the Egyptian delegation negotiating a British withdrawal from the Suez Canal.
Who resigned in 1954?
5727fcbaff5b5019007d9a2a
Naguib
21
False
What two positions did Nasser assume?
5727fcbaff5b5019007d9a2b
RCC chairman and prime minister
248
False
What group protested for Naguib's reinstatement?
5727fcbaff5b5019007d9a2c
Brotherhood
734
False
What did the Muslim Brotherhood want to happen to Nasser?
5727fcbaff5b5019007d9a2d
imprisonment
787
False
Who did Nasser promote to armed forces commander?
5727fcbaff5b5019007d9a2e
Amer
1033
False
On 25 February 1954, Naguib announced his resignation after the RCC held an official meeting without his presence two days prior. On 26 February, Nasser accepted the resignation, put Naguib under house arrest, and the RCC proclaimed Nasser as both RCC chairman and prime minister. As Naguib intended, a mutiny immediately followed, demanding Naguib's reinstatement and the RCC's dissolution. While visiting the striking officers at Military Headquarters (GHQ) to call for the mutiny's end, Nasser was initially intimidated into accepting their demands. However, on 27 February, Nasser's supporters in the army launched a raid on the GHQ, ending the mutiny. Later that day, hundreds of thousands of protesters, mainly belonging to the Brotherhood, called for Naguib's return and Nasser's imprisonment. In response, a sizable group within the RCC, led by Khaled Mohieddin, demanded Naguib's release and return to the presidency. Nasser was forced to acquiesce, but delayed Naguib's reinstatement until 4 March, allowing him to promote Amer to Commander of the Armed Forces—a position formerly occupied by Naguib.
What group went on strike as a result of the turmoil?
5727fd81ff5b5019007d9a4e
transport workers
431
False
What group claimed to be leaving the political scene?
5727fd81ff5b5019007d9a4f
Free Officers
231
False
Who was sent to Switzerland?
5727fd81ff5b5019007d9a50
Mohieddin
858
False
What nation tried to mediate between Nasser and Naguib?
5727fd81ff5b5019007d9a51
Saudi Arabia
947
False
On 5 March, Nasser's security coterie arrested thousands of participants in the uprising. As a ruse to rally opposition against a return to the pre-1952 order, the RCC decreed an end to restrictions on monarchy-era parties and the Free Officers' withdrawal from politics. The RCC succeeded in provoking the beneficiaries of the revolution, namely the workers, peasants, and petty bourgeois, to oppose the decrees, with one million transport workers launching a strike and thousands of peasants entering Cairo in protest in late March. Naguib sought to crackdown on the protesters, but his requests were rebuffed by the heads of the security forces. On 29 March, Nasser announced the decrees' revocation in response to the "impulse of the street." Between April and June, hundreds of Naguib's supporters in the military were either arrested or dismissed, and Mohieddin was informally exiled to Switzerland to represent the RCC abroad. King Saud of Saudi Arabia attempted to mend relations between Nasser and Naguib, but to no avail.
What event did Nasser exploit to his advantage?
5727fe34ff5b5019007d9a68
assassination attempt
70
False
To what group did many of the arrested dissenters belong?
5727fe34ff5b5019007d9a69
Brotherhood
315
False
Who avoided a death sentence in favor of 15 years in jail?
5727fe34ff5b5019007d9a6a
Sayyid Qutb
497
False
Where did Naguib end up after the turmoil?
5727fe34ff5b5019007d9a6b
house arrest
603
False
Who assumed total control of Egypt?
5727fe34ff5b5019007d9a6c
Nasser
723
False
The crowd roared in approval and Arab audiences were electrified. The assassination attempt backfired, quickly playing into Nasser's hands. Upon returning to Cairo, he ordered one of the largest political crackdowns in the modern history of Egypt, with the arrests of thousands of dissenters, mostly members of the Brotherhood, but also communists, and the dismissal of 140 officers loyal to Naguib. Eight Brotherhood leaders were sentenced to death, although the sentence of its chief ideologue, Sayyid Qutb, was commuted to a 15-year imprisonment. Naguib was removed from the presidency and put under house arrest, but was never tried or sentenced, and no one in the army rose to defend him. With his rivals neutralized, Nasser became the undisputed leader of Egypt.
What was too small to keep Nasser in power?
5727ff0d4b864d19001641b4
street following
9
False
What institution did Nasser closely control to prevent sedition?
5727ff0d4b864d19001641b5
press
234
False
Who were Umm Kulthum and Abdel Hafez?
5727ff0d4b864d19001641b6
singers
387
False
What phrases did Nasser use in many of his speeches?
5727ff0d4b864d19001641b7
"Arab homeland" and "Arab nation"
612
False
In what year did the RCC appoint Nasser as president?
5727ff0d4b864d19001641b8
1955
785
False
Nasser's street following was still too small to sustain his plans for reform and to secure him in office. To promote himself and the Liberation Rally, he gave speeches in a cross-country tour, and imposed controls over the country's press by decreeing that all publications had to be approved by the party to prevent "sedition". Both Umm Kulthum and Abdel Halim Hafez, the leading Arab singers of the era, performed songs praising Nasser's nationalism. Others produced plays denigrating his political opponents. According to his associates, Nasser orchestrated the campaign himself. Arab nationalist terms such "Arab homeland" and "Arab nation" frequently began appearing in his speeches in 1954–55, whereas prior he would refer to the Arab "peoples" or the "Arab region". In January 1955, the RCC appointed him as their president, pending national elections.
What country did Nasser make secret agreements with?
572800063acd2414000df1cf
Israel
33
False
What territory did Israel attack in 1955?
572800063acd2414000df1d0
Gaza Strip
249
False
What was Nasser's reaction to the attack?
572800063acd2414000df1d1
did not retaliate militarily
400
False
How did the Egyptian people feel about Nasser's response to the attack?
572800063acd2414000df1d2
a blow to his growing popularity
549
False
What did Nasser eventually do in the Straights of Titan?
572800063acd2414000df1d3
blockade on Israeli shipping
633
False
Nasser made secret contacts with Israel in 1954–55, but determined that peace with Israel would be impossible, considering it an "expansionist state that viewed the Arabs with disdain". On 28 February 1955, Israeli troops attacked the Egyptian-held Gaza Strip with the stated aim of suppressing Palestinian fedayeen raids. Nasser did not feel that the Egyptian Army was ready for a confrontation and did not retaliate militarily. His failure to respond to Israeli military action demonstrated the ineffectiveness of his armed forces and constituted a blow to his growing popularity. Nasser subsequently ordered the tightening of the blockade on Israeli shipping through the Straits of Tiran and restricted the use of airspace over the Gulf of Aqaba by Israeli aircraft in early September. The Israelis re-militarized the al-Auja Demilitarized Zone on the Egyptian border on 21 September.
What agreement ran contrary to Nasser's efforts?
572800c5ff5b5019007d9abc
Baghdad Pact
46
False
What did Nasser feel his military needed to oppose the West?
572800c5ff5b5019007d9abd
modern weaponry
446
False
From what country did Nasser buy arms?
572800c5ff5b5019007d9abe
Czechoslovakia
697
False
How much money did Nasser spend on weapons?
572800c5ff5b5019007d9abf
US$320,000,000
657
False
How did the military relationship between Egypt and Israel change?
572800c5ff5b5019007d9ac0
equalized
831
False
Simultaneous with Israel's February raid, the Baghdad Pact was formed between some regional allies of the UK. Nasser considered the Baghdad Pact a threat to his efforts to eliminate British military influence in the Middle East, and a mechanism to undermine the Arab League and "perpetuate [Arab] subservience to Zionism and [Western] imperialism". Nasser felt that if he was to maintain Egypt's regional leadership position he needed to acquire modern weaponry to arm his military. When it became apparent to him that Western countries would not supply Egypt under acceptable financial and military terms, Nasser turned to the Eastern Bloc and concluded a US$320,000,000 armaments agreement with Czechoslovakia on 27 September. Through the Czechoslovakian arms deal, the balance of power between Egypt and Israel was more or less equalized and Nasser's role as the Arab leader defying the West was enhanced.
What document was meant to resolve lingering issues of colonialism?
572801f13acd2414000df205
Final Communique
129
False
From what nation did Nasser support the independence of Tunisia, Algeria and Morocco?
572801f13acd2414000df206
French
441
False
What did Nasser pursue for Palestinians?
572801f13acd2414000df207
right of return
482
False
What organization offered possible solutions Arab-Israeli conflict, which Nasser supported?
572801f13acd2414000df208
UN
525
False
Nasser mediated discussions between the pro-Western, pro-Soviet, and neutralist conference factions over the composition of the "Final Communique" addressing colonialism in Africa and Asia and the fostering of global peace amid the Cold War between the West and the Soviet Union. At Bandung Nasser sought a proclamation for the avoidance of international defense alliances, support for the independence of Tunisia, Algeria, and Morocco from French rule, support for the Palestinian right of return, and the implementation of UN resolutions regarding the Arab–Israeli conflict. He succeeded in lobbying the attendees to pass resolutions on each of these issues, notably securing the strong support of China and India.
What political philosophy did Nasser adopt?
572802a93acd2414000df217
positive neutralism
50
False
What global period was Positive Neutralism meant to deal with?
572802a93acd2414000df218
Cold War
217
False
How did the Egyptian people react to Nasser after the conference?
572802a93acd2414000df219
welcomed by large crowds
238
False
How did the Egyptian press react to Nasser's accomplishments?
572802a93acd2414000df21a
heralded
348
False
Following Bandung, Nasser officially adopted the "positive neutralism" of Yugoslavian president Josip Broz Tito and Indian Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru as a principal theme of Egyptian foreign policy regarding the Cold War. Nasser was welcomed by large crowds of people lining the streets of Cairo on his return to Egypt on 2 May and was widely heralded in the press for his achievements and leadership in the conference. Consequently, Nasser's prestige was greatly boosted as was his self-confidence and image.
In what year did Egypt get a new constitution?
572803792ca10214002d9b7a
1956
11
False
What was the political party arrangement of the new constitution?
572803792ca10214002d9b7b
single-party system
93
False
What was the dominant political party?
572803792ca10214002d9b7c
National Union
123
False
From what group did the National Union originate?
572803792ca10214002d9b7d
Liberation Rally
269
False
Who did Nasser want more involved in his new political order?
572803792ca10214002d9b7e
citizens
421
False
In January 1956, the new Constitution of Egypt was drafted, entailing the establishment of a single-party system under the National Union (NU), a movement Nasser described as the "cadre through which we will realize our revolution". The NU was a reconfiguration of the Liberation Rally, which Nasser determined had failed in generating mass public participation. In the new movement, Nasser attempted to incorporate more citizens, approved by local-level party committees, in order to solidify popular backing for his government. The NU would select a nominee for the presidential election whose name would be provided for public approval.
Who could approve or reject candidates for the National Assembly?
5728044f3acd2414000df24b
Nasser
242
False
Who received new and special protections in the new constitution?
5728044f3acd2414000df24c
women
415
False
What group dissolved when the new constitution was enacted?
5728044f3acd2414000df24d
RCC
505
False
Among the original Free Officers, what did Nasser do to his opponents?
5728044f3acd2414000df24e
sidelining
724
False
What did Nasser's allies receive in the new arrangement?
5728044f3acd2414000df24f
high-ranking positions in the cabinet
818
False
Nasser's nomination for the post and the new constitution were put to public referendum on 23 June and each was approved by an overwhelming majority. A 350-member National Assembly was established, elections for which were held in July 1957. Nasser had ultimate approval over all the candidates. The constitution granted women's suffrage, prohibited gender-based discrimination, and entailed special protection for women in the workplace. Coinciding with the new constitution and Nasser's presidency, the RCC dissolved itself and its members resigned their military commissions as part of the transition to civilian rule. During the deliberations surrounding the establishment of a new government, Nasser began a process of sidelining his rivals among the original Free Officers, while elevating his closest allies to high-ranking positions in the cabinet.
With what two nations did Nasser's foreign policy clash?
5728050dff5b5019007d9b10
UK and France
192
False
What construction project suffered from foreign political retaliation against Nasser?
5728050dff5b5019007d9b11
Aswan Dam
622
False
What communist country did Nasser and Egypt recognize?
5728050dff5b5019007d9b12
China
458
False
France was angered by Nasser's support of the independence of what people?
5728050dff5b5019007d9b13
Algerian
251
False
The UK was chafed by Nasser's opposition to what agreement?
5728050dff5b5019007d9b14
Baghdad Pact
349
False
After the three-year transition period ended with Nasser's official assumption of power, his domestic and independent foreign policies increasingly collided with the regional interests of the UK and France. The latter condemned his strong support for Algerian independence, and the UK's Eden government was agitated by Nasser's campaign against the Baghdad Pact. In addition, Nasser's adherence to neutralism regarding the Cold War, recognition of communist China, and arms deal with the Eastern bloc alienated the United States. On 19 July 1956, the US and UK abruptly withdrew their offer to finance construction of the Aswan Dam, citing concerns that Egypt's economy would be overwhelmed by the project.
How did Nasser react to the news the the US and UK had blocked construction of th Aswan Dam?
5728060d4b864d1900164266
took great offense
135
False
What piece of infrastructure did Nasser propose to nationalize?
5728060d4b864d1900164267
Suez Canal
192
False
What was Nasser's cabinet's knowledge of the nationalization scheme before Nasser announced it?
5728060d4b864d1900164268
unaware
811
False
When did the last British troops leave Egypt?
5728060d4b864d1900164269
1956
327
False
Nasser was informed of the British–American withdrawal via a news statement while aboard a plane returning to Cairo from Belgrade, and took great offense. Although ideas for nationalizing the Suez Canal were in the offing after the UK agreed to withdraw its military from Egypt in 1954 (the last British troops left on 13 June 1956), journalist Mohamed Hassanein Heikal asserts that Nasser made the final decision to nationalize the waterway between 19 and 20 July. Nasser himself would later state that he decided on 23 July, after studying the issue and deliberating with some of his advisers from the dissolved RCC, namely Boghdadi and technical specialist Mahmoud Younis, beginning on 21 July. The rest of the RCC's former members were informed of the decision on 24 July, while the bulk of the cabinet was unaware of the nationalization scheme until hours before Nasser publicly announced it. According to Ramadan, Nasser's decision to nationalize the canal was a solitary decision, taken without consultation.
What did Nasser propose to do with funds from the nationalized Suez Canal?
572806d8ff5b5019007d9b34
fund the Aswan Dam
123
False
How many Egyptians did Nasser claim died building the Suez canal?
572806d8ff5b5019007d9b35
120,000
406
False
Who did Nasser claim would still be paid despite nationalization of the canal?
572806d8ff5b5019007d9b36
existing stockholders
596
False
What country had signed an agreement with Nasser in 1954?
572806d8ff5b5019007d9b37
UK
544
False
On 26 July 1956, Nasser gave a speech in Alexandria announcing the nationalization of the Suez Canal Company as a means to fund the Aswan Dam project in light of the British–American withdrawal. In the speech, he denounced British imperialism in Egypt and British control over the canal company's profits, and upheld that the Egyptian people had a right to sovereignty over the waterway, especially since "120,000 Egyptians had died (sic)" building it. The motion was technically in breach of the international agreement he had signed with the UK on 19 October 1954, although he ensured that all existing stockholders would be paid off.
How did the Arab world react to news of the nationalization of the Suez Canal?
572807b6ff5b5019007d9b54
support
160
False
What nation's shipping was forbidden from using the Suez Canal?
572807b6ff5b5019007d9b55
Israeli
1088
False
What US ambassador spoke about the widespread support for Nasser's nationalization of the canal?
572807b6ff5b5019007d9b56
Henry A. Byroade
183
False
Where was Nasser believed to be a spokesman for the poor and oppressed?
572807b6ff5b5019007d9b57
not only in Egypt, but all over the Third World
666
False
The nationalization announcement was greeted very emotionally by the audience and, throughout the Arab world, thousands entered the streets shouting slogans of support. US ambassador Henry A. Byroade stated, "I cannot overemphasize [the] popularity of the Canal Company nationalization within Egypt, even among Nasser's enemies." Egyptian political scientist Mahmoud Hamad wrote that, prior to 1956, Nasser had consolidated control over Egypt's military and civilian bureaucracies, but it was only after the canal's nationalization that he gained near-total popular legitimacy and firmly established himself as the "charismatic leader" and "spokesman for the masses not only in Egypt, but all over the Third World". According to Aburish, this was Nasser's largest pan-Arab triumph at the time and "soon his pictures were to be found in the tents of Yemen, the souks of Marrakesh, and the posh villas of Syria". The official reason given for the nationalization was that funds from the canal would be used for the construction of the dam in Aswan. That same day, Egypt closed the canal to Israeli shipping.
What nations were outraged by the nationalization scheme?
57280ab42ca10214002d9c58
France and the UK
0
False
What nation did Nasser judge impossible to become militarially involved?
57280ab42ca10214002d9c59
Israel
925
False
What entity drew up an agreement that drastically reduced the threat of military action against Egypt?
57280ab42ca10214002d9c5a
UN Security Council
546
False
What did the UK, France and Israel intend to do to Nasser?
57280ab42ca10214002d9c5b
topple
1017
False
France and the UK, the largest shareholders in the Suez Canal Company, saw its nationalization as yet another hostile measure aimed at them by the Egyptian government. Nasser was aware that the canal's nationalization would instigate an international crisis and believed the prospect of military intervention by the two countries was 80 per cent likely. He believed, however, that the UK would not be able to intervene militarily for at least two months after the announcement, and dismissed Israeli action as "impossible". In early October, the UN Security Council met on the matter of the canal's nationalization and adopted a resolution recognizing Egypt's right to control the canal as long as it continued to allow passage through it for foreign ships. According to Heikal, after this agreement, "Nasser estimated that the danger of invasion had dropped to 10 per cent". Shortly thereafter, however, the UK, France, and Israel made a secret agreement to take over the Suez Canal, occupy the Suez Canal zone, and topple Nasser.
In what year did battle over the Suez Canal commence?
57280b982ca10214002d9c84
1956
14
False
What did the British and French air forces bomb?
57280b982ca10214002d9c85
Egyptian airfields in the canal zone
191
False
What city did Nasser want to keep the French and British out of?
57280b982ca10214002d9c86
Port Said
514
False
Who wanted the Egyptian armored units to fight the Israelis?
57280b982ca10214002d9c87
Amer
634
False
What did Nasser do to the canal?
57280b982ca10214002d9c88
blockage
802
False
On 29 October 1956, Israeli forces crossed the Sinai Peninsula, overwhelmed Egyptian army posts, and quickly advanced to their objectives. Two days later, British and French planes bombarded Egyptian airfields in the canal zone. Nasser ordered the military's high command to withdraw the Egyptian Army from Sinai to bolster the canal's defenses. Moreover, he feared that if the armored corps was dispatched to confront the Israeli invading force and the British and French subsequently landed in the canal city of Port Said, Egyptian armor in the Sinai would be cut off from the canal and destroyed by the combined tripartite forces. Amer strongly disagreed, insisting that Egyptian tanks meet the Israelis in battle. The two had a heated exchange on 3 November, and Amer conceded. Nasser also ordered blockage of the canal by sinking or otherwise disabling forty-nine ships at its entrance.
How many Egyptian soldiers died during the fighting?
57280c6eff5b5019007d9bba
2,000
59
False
How many Egyptian soldiers did the Israeli army capture?
57280c6eff5b5019007d9bbb
5,000
143
False
To whom did Nasser authorize distribution of small arms?
57280c6eff5b5019007d9bbc
civilian volunteers
676
False
Who recommended Nasser surrender himself to the British?
57280c6eff5b5019007d9bbd
Salah Salem
211
False
What was the consequence to Nassir's admiration among the Arab world for Egypt's military failure?
57280c6eff5b5019007d9bbe
undamaged
545
False
Despite the commanded withdrawal of Egyptian troops, about 2,000 Egyptian soldiers were killed during engagement with Israeli forces, and some 5,000 Egyptian soldiers were captured by the Israeli Army. Amer and Salah Salem proposed requesting a ceasefire, with Salem further recommending that Nasser surrender himself to British forces. Nasser berated Amer and Salem, and vowed, "Nobody is going to surrender." Nasser assumed military command. Despite the relative ease in which Sinai was occupied, Nasser's prestige at home and among Arabs was undamaged. To counterbalance the Egyptian Army's dismal performance, Nasser authorized the distribution of about 400,000 rifles to civilian volunteers and hundreds of militias were formed throughout Egypt, many led by Nasser's political opponents.
How many Egyptians died in the battle for Port Said?
572811af4b864d19001643a0
Between 750 and 1,000
919
False
What did Nasser think was the most importatnt location in the battle for the canal?
572811af4b864d19001643a1
Port Said
981
False
In what state was the Egyptian army after fighting the French and UK?
572811af4b864d19001643a2
shattered
493
False
Who was ultimately able to claim victoy in Port Said?
572811af4b864d19001643a3
British-French forces
847
False
It was at Port Said that Nasser saw a confrontation with the invading forces as being the strategic and psychological focal point of Egypt's defense. A third infantry battalion and hundreds of national guardsmen were sent to the city as reinforcements, while two regular companies were dispatched to organize popular resistance. Nasser and Boghdadi traveled to the canal zone to boost the morale of the armed volunteers. According to Boghdadi's memoirs, Nasser described the Egyptian Army as "shattered" as he saw the wreckage of Egyptian military equipment en route. When British and French forces landed in Port Said on 5–6 November, its local militia put up a stiff resistance, resulting in street-to-street fighting. The Egyptian Army commander in the city was preparing to request terms for a ceasefire, but Nasser ordered him to desist. The British-French forces managed to largely secure the city by 7 November. Between 750 and 1,000 Egyptians were killed in the battle for Port Said.
What country was opposed to the invasion of the canal?
572812604b864d19001643b8
U.S.
4
False
What leader did Nasser applaud?
572812604b864d19001643b9
Eisenhower
9
False
What military force was brought in to calm the situation?
572812604b864d19001643ba
United Nations Emergency Force
126
False
What did Nasser impose as a result of the conflict?
572812604b864d19001643bb
rigorous requirements for residency
589
False
The U.S. Eisenhower administration condemned the tripartite invasion, and supported UN resolutions demanding withdrawal and a United Nations Emergency Force (UNEF) to be stationed in Sinai. Nasser commended Eisenhower, stating he played the "greatest and most decisive role" in stopping the "tripartite conspiracy". By the end of December, British and French forces had totally withdrawn from Egyptian territory, while Israel completed its withdrawal in March 1957 and released all Egyptian prisoners of war. As a result of the Suez Crisis, Nasser brought in a set of regulations imposing rigorous requirements for residency and citizenship as well as forced expulsions, mostly affecting British and French nationals and Jews with foreign nationality, as well as some Egyptian Jews.
What radio station furthered Nasser's agenda?
572813383acd2414000df3d3
Voice of the Arabs
275
False
What were Arab admirers of Nasser called?
572813383acd2414000df3d4
Nasserites
887
False
What did the admirers of Nasser lack?
572813383acd2414000df3d5
structure and organization
835
False
Who said that Nasser conquered the Arab workd with radio?
572813383acd2414000df3d6
Eugene Rogan
403
False
What would have Nasser prefferred his admirers call themselves?
572813383acd2414000df3d7
Arab nationalists
964
False
By 1957, pan-Arabism was the dominant ideology of the Arab world, and the average Arab citizen considered Nasser his undisputed leader. Historian Adeed Dawisha credited Nasser's status to his "charisma, bolstered by his perceived victory in the Suez Crisis". The Cairo-based Voice of the Arabs radio station spread Nasser's ideas of united Arab action throughout the Arabic-speaking world and historian Eugene Rogan wrote, "Nasser conquered the Arab world by radio." Lebanese sympathizers of Nasser and the Egyptian embassy in Beirut—the press center of the Arab world—bought out Lebanese media outlets to further disseminate Nasser's ideals. Nasser also enjoyed the support of Arab nationalist organizations, both civilian and paramilitary, throughout the region. His followers were numerous and well-funded, but lacked any permanent structure and organization. They called themselves "Nasserites", despite Nasser's objection to the label (he preferred the term "Arab nationalists").
What was the policy meant to contain communism in the middle east?
572813fb3acd2414000df3ed
Eisenhower Doctrine
36
False
When was the Eisenhower Doctrine adopted?
572813fb3acd2414000df3ee
1957
11
False
What leader did the US prop up to foil Nasser?
572813fb3acd2414000df3ef
King Saud
393
False
What country joined an alliance with Egypt, Syria and Saudi Arabia?
572813fb3acd2414000df3f0
Jordan
528
False
Although not communist, what about Nasser concerned pro-western groups?
572813fb3acd2414000df3f1
pan-Arabism
225
False
In January 1957, the US adopted the Eisenhower Doctrine and pledged to prevent the spread of communism and its perceived agents in the Middle East. Although Nasser was an opponent of communism in the region, his promotion of pan-Arabism was viewed as a threat by pro-Western states in the region. Eisenhower tried to isolate Nasser and reduce his regional influence by attempting to transform King Saud into a counterweight. Also in January, the elected Jordanian prime minister and Nasser supporter Sulayman al-Nabulsi brought Jordan into a military pact with Egypt, Syria, and Saudi Arabia.
What leader accused Nasser of trying to overthrow him?
572814a52ca10214002d9d7c
King Hussein
29
False
What did Nasser call King Hussein?
572814a52ca10214002d9d7d
a tool of the imperialists
277
False
What non-Egyptian leader was concerned about Nasser's popularity outside of Egypt?
572814a52ca10214002d9d7e
King Saud
321
False
Despite conflicts with Arab governments, who continued to support Nasser?
572814a52ca10214002d9d7f
citizens
616
False
Relations between Nasser and King Hussein deteriorated in April when Hussein implicated Nasser in two coup attempts against him—although Nasser's involvement was never established—and dissolved al-Nabulsi's cabinet. Nasser subsequently slammed Hussein on Cairo radio as being "a tool of the imperialists". Relations with King Saud also became antagonistic as the latter began to fear that Nasser's increasing popularity in Saudi Arabia was a genuine threat to the royal family's survival. Despite opposition from the governments of Jordan, Saudi Arabia, Iraq, and Lebanon, Nasser maintained his prestige among their citizens and those of other Arab countries.
What nations' assets did Nasser nationalize in 1957?
572815794b864d1900164430
British and French
54
False
How much of the economy was not controlled by Nassir's government?
572815794b864d1900164431
two-thirds
401
False
What entity did Nasser spearhead that was a boon for Egypt's economy?
572815794b864d1900164432
Helwan steelworks
595
False
What nation did Nasser join economic forces with?
572815794b864d1900164433
Soviet Union
776
False
What project did Nasser cooperate with the Soviet Union on?
572815794b864d1900164434
Aswan Dam
816
False
By the end of 1957, Nasser nationalized all remaining British and French assets in Egypt, including the tobacco, cement, pharmaceutical, and phosphate industries. When efforts to offer tax incentives and attract outside investments yielded no tangible results, he nationalized more companies and made them a part of his economic development organization. He stopped short of total government control: two-thirds of the economy was still in private hands. This effort achieved a measure of success, with increased agricultural production and investment in industrialization. Nasser initiated the Helwan steelworks, which subsequently became Egypt's largest enterprise, providing the country with product and tens of thousands of jobs. Nasser also decided to cooperate with the Soviet Union in the construction of the Aswan Dam to replace the withdrawal of US funds.
What country wanted to join with Egypt?
57281dcd3acd2414000df4db
Syria
33
False
What Syrian group did Nasser crack down on?
57281dcd3acd2414000df4dc
communists
963
False
What was the Egyptian-Syrian alliance called?
57281dcd3acd2414000df4dd
United Arab Republic
756
False
What year was the UAR formed?
57281dcd3acd2414000df4de
1958
402
False
As political instability grew in Syria, delegations from the country were sent to Nasser demanding immediate unification with Egypt. Nasser initially turned down the request, citing the two countries' incompatible political and economic systems, lack of contiguity, the Syrian military's record of intervention in politics, and the deep factionalism among Syria's political forces. However, in January 1958, a second Syrian delegation managed to convince Nasser of an impending communist takeover and a consequent slide to civil strife. Nasser subsequently opted for union, albeit on the condition that it would be a total political merger with him as its president, to which the delegates and Syrian president Shukri al-Quwatli agreed. On 1 February, the United Arab Republic (UAR) was proclaimed and, according to Dawisha, the Arab world reacted in "stunned amazement, which quickly turned into uncontrolled euphoria." Nasser ordered a crackdown against Syrian communists, dismissing many of them from their governmental posts.
Who tried to assassinate Nasser?
57281e642ca10214002d9e30
King Saud
27
False
How was the assassination supposed to have been carried out?
57281e642ca10214002d9e31
shoot down Nasser's plane
265
False
Who assumed power in Saudi Arabia after the failed assassination attempt?
57281e642ca10214002d9e32
King Faisal
439
False
What was King Faisal's position toward Nasser?
57281e642ca10214002d9e33
opponent
460
False
While Nasser was in Syria, King Saud planned to have him assassinated on his return flight to Cairo. On 4 March, Nasser addressed the masses in Damascus and waved before them the Saudi check given to Syrian security chief and Nasser supporter Abdel Hamid Sarraj to shoot down Nasser's plane. As a consequence of Saud's scheme, he was forced by senior members of the Saudi royal family to informally cede most of his powers to his brother, King Faisal, a major opponent of Nasser and advocate for pan-Islamic unity over pan-Arabism.
How many members were in the National Assembly?
57281f1a2ca10214002d9e4c
600
112
False
How many members of the National Assembly were from Egypt?
57281f1a2ca10214002d9e4d
400
142
False
What Soviet leader did Nasser spar with?
57281f1b2ca10214002d9e4e
Khrushchev
432
False
What did Khrushchev want Nasser to remove the ban on?
57281f1b2ca10214002d9e4f
Communist Party
481
False
Who were the two National Assembly vice-presidents in Egypt?
57281f1b2ca10214002d9e50
Boghdadi and Amer
278
False
A day after announcing the attempt on his life, Nasser established a new provisional constitution proclaiming a 600-member National Assembly (400 from Egypt and 200 from Syria) and the dissolution of all political parties. Nasser gave each of the provinces two vice-presidents: Boghdadi and Amer in Egypt, and Sabri al-Asali and Akram al-Hawrani in Syria. Nasser then left for Moscow to meet with Nikita Khrushchev. At the meeting, Khrushchev pressed Nasser to lift the ban on the Communist Party, but Nasser refused, stating it was an internal matter which was not a subject of discussion with outside powers. Khrushchev was reportedly taken aback and denied he had meant to interfere in the UAR's affairs. The matter was settled as both leaders sought to prevent a rift between their two countries.
Who was Nasser's opponent in Lebanon?
57281fd84b864d19001644e2
Camille Chamoun
106
False
What did Lebanese pro-Nasser groups want?
57281fd84b864d19001644e3
to unite with the UAR
176
False
What did Nasser want to deny Chamoun?
57281fd84b864d19001644e4
a second presidential term
564
False
Who was in charge of dealing with the Lebanon situation?
57281fd84b864d19001644e5
Sarraj
300
False
What degree of support did pro-Nasser factions in Lebanon receive?
57281fd84b864d19001644e6
limited
321
False
In Lebanon, clashes between pro-Nasser factions and supporters of staunch Nasser opponent, then-President Camille Chamoun, culminated in civil strife by May. The former sought to unite with the UAR, while the latter sought Lebanon's continued independence. Nasser delegated oversight of the issue to Sarraj, who provided limited aid to Nasser's Lebanese supporters through money, light arms, and officer training—short of the large-scale support that Chamoun alleged. Nasser did not covet Lebanon, seeing it as a "special case", but sought to prevent Chamoun from a second presidential term.
What two men overthrew the Iraqi monarchy?
572820a64b864d19001644fe
Abdel Karim Qasim and Abdel Salam Aref
32
False
What anti-Nasser Iraqi was assassinated?
572820a64b864d19001644ff
Nuri al-Said
176
False
Where did US Marines land?
572820a64b864d1900164500
Lebanon
349
False
Why did Jordan and Lebanon seek outside aid?
572820a64b864d1900164501
to prevent them from falling to pro-Nasser forces
445
False
How did Nasser see the prospects for Arab unity?
572820a64b864d1900164502
unblocked
569
False
On 14 July, Iraqi army officers Abdel Karim Qasim and Abdel Salam Aref overthrew the Iraqi monarchy and, the next day, Iraqi prime minister and Nasser's chief Arab antagonist, Nuri al-Said, was killed. Nasser recognized the new government and stated that "any attack on Iraq was tantamount to an attack on the UAR". On 15 July, US marines landed in Lebanon, and British special forces in Jordan, upon the request of those countries' governments to prevent them from falling to pro-Nasser forces. Nasser felt that the revolution in Iraq left the road for pan-Arab unity unblocked. On 19 July, for the first time, he declared that he was opting for full Arab union, although he had no plan to merge Iraq with the UAR. While most members of the Iraqi Revolutionary Command Council (RCC) favored Iraqi-UAR unity, Qasim sought to keep Iraq independent and resented Nasser's large popular base in the country.
Who did Nasser appoint to run Syria?
572821723acd2414000df527
Sarraj
327
False
What was Syria like under Sarraj?
572821723acd2414000df528
police state
377
False
Who did Lebanon elect in 1958?
572821723acd2414000df529
Fuad Chehab
562
False
How did relations between Lebanon and the UAR change with Chehab's election?
572821723acd2414000df52a
improved considerably
631
False
In what year did Nasser and Chehab agree to end the Lebanon crisis?
572821723acd2414000df52b
1959
666
False
In the fall of 1958, Nasser formed a tripartite committee consisting of Zakaria Mohieddin, al-Hawrani, and Salah Bitar to oversee developments in Syria. By moving the latter two, who were Ba'athists, to Cairo, he neutralized important political figures who had their own ideas about how Syria should be run. He put Syria under Sarraj, who effectively reduced the province to a police state by imprisoning and exiling landholders who objected to the introduction of Egyptian agricultural reform in Syria, as well as communists. Following the Lebanese election of Fuad Chehab in September 1958, relations between Lebanon and the UAR improved considerably. On 25 March 1959, Chehab and Nasser met at the Lebanese–Syrian border and compromised on an end to the Lebanese crisis.
What Iraqi leader clashed with Nasser?
572821f44b864d1900164524
Qasim
29
False
What did Quasm do to anger Nasser?
572821f44b864d1900164525
suppressed a rebellion in Mosul
93
False
What did Nasser suppress as a result?
572821f44b864d1900164526
Egyptian communist activity
325
False
What old ally did Nasser turn against?
572821f44b864d1900164527
Khaled Mohieddin
486
False
Relations between Nasser and Qasim grew increasingly bitter on 9 March, after Qasim's forces suppressed a rebellion in Mosul, launched a day earlier by a pro-Nasser Iraqi RCC officer backed by UAR authorities. Nasser had considered dispatching troops to aid his Iraqi sympathizers, but decided against it. He clamped down on Egyptian communist activity due to the key backing Iraqi communists provided Qasim. Several influential communists were arrested, including Nasser's old comrade Khaled Mohieddin, who had been allowed to re-enter Egypt in 1956.
What Syrian social group opposed the UAR?
572822d04b864d1900164536
elites
118
False
How was Syria's economy fairing under the arrangement?
572822d04b864d1900164537
worsening
149
False
How did Nasser respond to economic problems in Syria?
572822d04b864d1900164538
nationalized wide-ranging sectors of the Syrian economy
280
False
What did Nasser do to Sarraj to try and help the political situation?
572822d04b864d1900164539
dismissed
345
False
What industry did Nassir nationalize in 1960?
572822d04b864d190016453a
press
687
False
Opposition to the union mounted among some of Syria's key elements, namely the socioeconomic, political, and military elites. In response to Syria's worsening economy, which Nasser attributed to its control by the bourgeoisie, in July 1961, Nasser decreed socialist measures that nationalized wide-ranging sectors of the Syrian economy. He also dismissed Sarraj in September to curb the growing political crisis. Aburish states that Nasser was not fully capable of addressing Syrian problems because they were "foreign to him". In Egypt, the economic situation was more positive, with a GNP growth of 4.5 percent and a rapid growth of industry. In 1960, Nasser nationalized the Egyptian press, which had already been cooperating with his government, in order to steer coverage towards the country's socioeconomic issues and galvanize public support for his socialist measures.
What Syrian anti-Nasser group lauched a coup?
572823e42ca10214002d9ebc
secessionist army units
22
False
In what year did Syria leave the UAR?
572823e42ca10214002d9ebd
1961
16
False
Where did Nasser send Egyptian special forces?
572823e42ca10214002d9ebe
Latakia
274
False
What happened to Nasser after the breakup of the UAR?
572823e42ca10214002d9ebf
nervous breakdown
661
False
How was Nasser's health after the breakup of the UAR?
572823e42ca10214002d9ec0
his health began to deteriorate
750
False
On 28 September 1961, secessionist army units launched a coup in Damascus, declaring Syria's secession from the UAR. In response, pro-union army units in northern Syria revolted and pro-Nasser protests occurred in major Syrian cities. Nasser sent Egyptian special forces to Latakia to bolster his allies, but withdrew them two days later, citing a refusal to allow inter-Arab fighting. Addressing the UAR's breakup on 5 October, Nasser accepted personal responsibility and declared that Egypt would recognize an elected Syrian government. He privately blamed interference by hostile Arab governments. According to Heikal, Nasser suffered something resembling a nervous breakdown after the dissolution of the union; he began to smoke more heavily and his health began to deteriorate.
What country experienced a coup in 1962?
572824982ca10214002d9ee0
North Yemen
135
False
What country agreed to help suppress the Yemeni rebellion?
572824982ca10214002d9ee1
Saudi Arabia
242
False
Which side of the civil war did Nasser side with?
572824982ca10214002d9ee2
the new government
359
False
In what year did Egypt leave Yemen's civil war?
572824982ca10214002d9ee3
1967
504
False
How did Nasser characterize Egypt's involvement in Yemen's civil war?
572824982ca10214002d9ee4
miscalculation
706
False
Nasser's regional position changed unexpectedly when Yemeni officers led by Nasser supporter Abdullah al-Sallal overthrew Imam Badr of North Yemen on 27 September 1962. Al-Badr and his tribal partisans began receiving increasing support from Saudi Arabia to help reinstate the kingdom, while Nasser subsequently accepted a request by Sallal to militarily aid the new government on 30 September. Consequently, Egypt became increasingly embroiled in the drawn-out civil war until it withdrew its forces in 1967. Most of Nasser's old colleagues had questioned the wisdom of continuing the war, but Amer reassured Nasser of their coming victory. Nasser later remarked in 1968 that intervention in Yemen was a "miscalculation".
What groups completed a coup in Iraq?
5728253d3acd2414000df599
Ba'athist–Nasserist alliance
53
False
Who became the new Iraqi president after the coup?
5728253d3acd2414000df59a
Abdel Salam Aref
129
False
What caused the agreement to fail?
5728253d3acd2414000df59b
Syria's Ba'athists purged Nasser's supporters
714
False
How did Nasser describe the Ba'athists?
5728253d3acd2414000df59c
fascists
888
False
On 8 February 1963, a military coup in Iraq led by a Ba'athist–Nasserist alliance toppled Qasim, who was subsequently shot dead. Abdel Salam Aref, a Nasserist, was chosen to be the new president. A similar alliance toppled the Syrian government on 8 March. On 14 March, the new Iraqi and Syrian governments sent Nasser delegations to push for a new Arab union. At the meeting, Nasser lambasted the Ba'athists for "facilitating" Syria's split from the UAR, and asserted that he was the "leader of the Arabs". A transitional unity agreement stipulating a federal system was signed by the parties on 17 April and the new union was set to be established in May 1965. However, the agreement fell apart weeks later when Syria's Ba'athists purged Nasser's supporters from the officers corps. A failed counter-coup by a Nasserist colonel followed, after which Nasser condemned the Ba'athists as "fascists".
What river did the Israelis want to divert?
572825df2ca10214002d9f08
Jordan River
140
False
How did Syria and Jordan see Israel's plans?
572825df2ca10214002d9f09
act of war
218
False
What leader did Nasser bond with durin gthe negotiations?
572825df2ca10214002d9f0a
King Hussein
494
False
What organization was formed as a result of the talks?
572825df2ca10214002d9f0b
Palestine Liberation Organization
704
False
Who was set to lead the PLO?
572825df2ca10214002d9f0c
Ahmad Shukeiri
845
False
In January 1964, Nasser called for an Arab League summit in Cairo to establish a unified Arab response against Israel's plans to divert the Jordan River's waters for economic purposes, which Syria and Jordan deemed an act of war. Nasser blamed Arab divisions for what he deemed "the disastrous situation". He discouraged Syria and Palestinian guerrillas from provoking the Israelis, conceding that he had no plans for war with Israel. During the summit, Nasser developed cordial relations with King Hussein, and ties were mended with the rulers of Saudi Arabia, Syria, and Morocco. In May, Nasser moved to formally share his leadership position over the Palestine issue by initiating the creation of the Palestine Liberation Organization (PLO). In practice, Nasser used the PLO to wield control over the Palestinian fedayeen. Its head was to be Ahmad Shukeiri, Nasser's personal nominee.
In what year was the Non-Aligned Movment formed?
572826482ca10214002d9f26
1961
210
False
Who was named leader of the NAM in 1964?
572826482ca10214002d9f27
Nasser
413
False
What global conflict was the NAM made to counter?
572826482ca10214002d9f28
Cold War
314
False
After years of foreign policy coordination and developing ties, Nasser, President Sukarno of Indonesia, President Tito of Yugoslavia, and Prime Minister Nehru of India founded the Non-Aligned Movement (NAM) in 1961. Its declared purpose was to solidify international non-alignment and promote world peace amid the Cold War, end colonization, and increase economic cooperation among developing countries. In 1964, Nasser was made president of the NAM and held the second conference of the organization in Cairo.
What continent did Nasser help to attain political stability?
572826daff5b5019007d9e14
African
504
False
Who did Nasser give asylum to?
572826daff5b5019007d9e15
anti-colonial leaders from several African countries
250
False
What type of programming was broadcast from Cairo?
572826daff5b5019007d9e16
anti-colonial propaganda
332
False
What African group did Nasser help to form?
572826daff5b5019007d9e17
Organisation of African Unity
488
False
What year was the OAU formed?
572826daff5b5019007d9e18
1963
527
False
Nasser played a significant part in the strengthening of African solidarity in the late 1950s and early 1960s, although his continental leadership role had increasingly passed to Algeria since 1962. During this period, Nasser made Egypt a refuge for anti-colonial leaders from several African countries and allowed the broadcast of anti-colonial propaganda from Cairo. Beginning in 1958, Nasser had a key role in the discussions among African leaders that led to the establishment of the Organisation of African Unity (OAU) in 1963.
What country did Nasser want to be the leader of the Arab world?
572827734b864d19001645ea
Egypt
43
False
What two disparate ideologies was Nasser trying to unite?
572827734b864d19001645eb
Islamic and socialist
153
False
What religious group did Nasser endeavor to reform?
572827734b864d19001645ec
al-Azhar
244
False
What religious group was Nasser seeking to marginalize?
572827734b864d19001645ed
Muslim Brotherhood
355
False
In 1961, Nasser sought to firmly establish Egypt as the leader of the Arab world and to promote a second revolution in Egypt with the purpose of merging Islamic and socialist thinking. To achieve this, he initiated several reforms to modernize al-Azhar, which serves as the de facto leading authority in Sunni Islam, and to ensure its prominence over the Muslim Brotherhood and the more conservative Wahhabism promoted by Saudi Arabia. Nasser had used al-Azhar's most willing ulema (scholars) as a counterweight to the Brotherhood's Islamic influence, starting in 1953.
What military entity did Nasser create in 1961?
57282841ff5b5019007d9e44
Presidential Council
246
False
As opposed to personal loyalty, what basis should military promotions be given, according to Nasser?
57282841ff5b5019007d9e45
merit
471
False
Why did Nasser abandon the Presidential Council?
57282841ff5b5019007d9e46
Amer's allies in the officers corps threatened to mobilize against him
543
False
What leader was sidelined by the Presidential Council?
57282841ff5b5019007d9e47
Amer
543
False
What was the Presidential Council meant to do?
57282841ff5b5019007d9e48
approve all senior military appointments
299
False
Following Syria's secession, Nasser grew concerned with Amer's inability to train and modernize the army, and with the state within a state Amer had created in the military command and intelligence apparatus. In late 1961, Nasser established the Presidential Council and decreed it the authority to approve all senior military appointments, instead of leaving this responsibility solely to Amer. Moreover, he instructed that the primary criterion for promotion should be merit and not personal loyalties. Nasser retracted the initiative after Amer's allies in the officers corps threatened to mobilize against him.
From whom did Nasser want to seize control of Egypt's military?
572829183acd2414000df5e1
Amer
83
False
Who blinked in the confrontation between Nasser and Amer?
572829183acd2414000df5e2
Nasser
199
False
How did Amer respond to Nasser's attempts to marginalize him?
572829183acd2414000df5e3
directly confronting Nasser
107
False
How did Nasser deal with the stress of the UAR's collapse and Amer's intransigence?
572829183acd2414000df5e4
painkillers
479
False
From what chronic illness was Nasser suffering?
572829183acd2414000df5e5
diabetes
446
False
In early 1962 Nasser again attempted to wrest control of the military command from Amer. Amer responded by directly confronting Nasser for the first time and secretly rallying his loyalist officers. Nasser ultimately backed down, wary of a possible violent confrontation between the military and his civilian government. According to Boghdadi, the stress caused by the UAR's collapse and Amer's increasing autonomy forced Nasser, who already had diabetes, to practically live on painkillers from then on.
What political ideology did Nasser wholeheartedly back in 1961?
57282a8cff5b5019007d9e5e
socialism
111
False
What was the document Nasser backed to push his socialist reforms?
57282a8cff5b5019007d9e5f
National Charter
335
False
What infrastructure project was part of the National Charter?
57282a8cff5b5019007d9e60
widening the Suez Canal
535
False
What year was the National Charter released?
57282a8cff5b5019007d9e61
1962
355
False
What type of health care program was put forth in the National Charter?
57282a8cff5b5019007d9e62
universal
407
False
In October 1961, Nasser embarked on a major nationalization program for Egypt, believing the total adoption of socialism was the answer to his country's problems and would have prevented Syria's secession. In order to organize and solidify his popular base with Egypt's citizens and counter the army's influence, Nasser introduced the National Charter in 1962 and a new constitution. The charter called for universal health care, affordable housing, vocational schools, greater women's rights and a family planning program, as well as widening the Suez Canal.
What percentage of business did the Egyptian government own in 1962?
57282b433acd2414000df605
51
517
False
What was the new name for the National Union?
57282b433acd2414000df606
Arab Socialist Union
568
False
What was the expression of Nasser's reforms on the street?
57282b433acd2414000df607
repression
635
False
What group was targeted with imprisonment?
57282b433acd2414000df608
Islamists
663
False
How did two of Nasser's top aids respond to the new measures?
57282b433acd2414000df609
submit their resignations in protest
820
False
Nasser also attempted to maintain oversight of the country's civil service to prevent it from inflating and consequently becoming a burden to the state. New laws provided workers with a minimum wage, profit shares, free education, free health care, reduced working hours, and encouragement to participate in management. Land reforms guaranteed the security of tenant farmers, promoted agricultural growth, and reduced rural poverty. As a result of the 1962 measures, government ownership of Egyptian business reached 51 percent, and the National Union was renamed the Arab Socialist Union (ASU). With these measures came more domestic repression, as thousands of Islamists were imprisoned, including dozens of military officers. Nasser's tilt toward a Soviet-style system led his aides Boghdadi and Hussein el-Shafei to submit their resignations in protest.
What was Nasser's political opposition like in the 1965 election?
57282c383acd2414000df633
He was the only candidate
137
False
The leader of what organization was imprisoned by Nasser?
57282c383acd2414000df634
Muslim Brotherhood
356
False
What was Qutb's sentence?
57282c383acd2414000df635
executed
505
False
What economic element did Nasser try to encourage with bank loans?
57282c383acd2414000df636
private sector
664
False
How did Egypt's economy do during the 1960s?
57282c383acd2414000df637
from sluggishness to the verge of collapse
826
False
During the presidential referendum in Egypt, Nasser was re-elected to a second term as UAR president and took his oath on 25 March 1965. He was the only candidate for the position, with virtually all of his political opponents forbidden by law from running for office, and his fellow party members reduced to mere followers. That same year, Nasser had the Muslim Brotherhood chief ideologue Sayyed Qutb imprisoned. Qutb was charged and found guilty by the court of plotting to assassinate Nasser, and was executed in 1966. Beginning in 1966, as Egypt's economy slowed and government debt became increasingly burdensome, Nasser began to ease state control over the private sector, encouraging state-owned bank loans to private business and introducing incentives to increase exports. During the 60's, the Egyptian economy went from sluggishness to the verge of collapse, the society became less free, and Nasser's appeal waned considerably.
What country warned Nasser that Israel wanted to attack Syria?
57282d253acd2414000df659
Soviet Union
21
False
What did Amer do without Nasser's approval?
57282d253acd2414000df65a
dispatch troops to Sinai
280
False
What nations were trying to drag Egypt into a war, according to King Hussein?
57282d253acd2414000df65b
Israeli-American
433
False
What territory was King Hussein afraid Israel would obtain?
57282d253acd2414000df65c
West Bank
798
False
Who did Nasser think would prevent Israel from launching an offensive?
57282d253acd2414000df65d
US
943
False
In mid May 1967, the Soviet Union issued warnings to Nasser of an impending Israeli attack on Syria, although Chief of Staff Mohamed Fawzi considered the warnings to be "baseless". According to Kandil, without Nasser's authorization, Amer used the Soviet warnings as a pretext to dispatch troops to Sinai on 14 May, and Nasser subsequently demanded UNEF's withdrawal. Earlier that day, Nasser received a warning from King Hussein of Israeli-American collusion to drag Egypt into war. The message had been originally received by Amer on 2 May, but was withheld from Nasser until the Sinai deployment on 14 May. Although in the preceding months, Hussein and Nasser had been accusing each other of avoiding a fight with Israel, Hussein was nonetheless wary that an Egyptian-Israeli war would risk the West Bank's occupation by Israel. Nasser still felt that the US would restrain Israel from attacking due to assurances that he received from the US and Soviet Union. In turn, he also reassured both powers that Egypt would only act defensively.
What thoroughfare did Amir want Nasser to block?
57282dda4b864d1900164660
Straits of Tiran
42
False
Who was Nassir's vice president?
57282dda4b864d1900164661
Zakaria Mohieddin
296
False
How would Nassir deal with an Israeli invasion, if it happened?
57282dda4b864d1900164662
diplomacy towards a ceasefire
818
False
What country joined Egypt and Syria against Israel?
57282dda4b864d1900164663
Jordan
1180
False
On 21 May, Amer asked Nasser to order the Straits of Tiran blockaded, a move Nasser believed Israel would use as a casus belli. Amer reassured him that the army was prepared for confrontation, but Nasser doubted Amer's assessment of the military's readiness. According to Nasser's vice president Zakaria Mohieddin, although "Amer had absolute authority over the armed forces, Nasser had his ways of knowing what was really going on". Moreover, Amer anticipated an impending Israeli attack and advocated a preemptive strike. Nasser refused the call upon determination that the air force lacked pilots and Amer's handpicked officers were incompetent. Still, Nasser concluded that if Israel attacked, Egypt's quantitative advantage in manpower and arms could stave off Israeli forces for at least two weeks, allowing for diplomacy towards a ceasefire. Towards the end of May, Nasser increasingly exchanged his positions of deterrence for deference to the inevitability of war, under increased pressure to act by both the general Arab populace and various Arab governments. On 26 May Nasser declared, "our basic objective will be to destroy Israel". On 30 May, King Hussein committed Jordan in an alliance with Egypt and Syria.
What defeat opened Nasser's eyes to the desperation of Egypt's situation?
57282e774b864d190016467a
Sharm el-Sheikh
83
False
What two Egyptian leaders personal conflicts played a large part in Egypt's poor showing  in the war?
57282e774b864d190016467b
Nasser–Amer
542
False
What did Nasser dismiss during the war?
57282e774b864d190016467c
rational analysis
788
False
According to Sadat, it was only when the Israelis cut off the Egyptian garrison at Sharm el-Sheikh that Nasser became aware of the situation's gravity. After hearing of the attack, he rushed to army headquarters to inquire about the military situation. The simmering conflict between Nasser and Amer subsequently came to the fore, and officers present reported the pair burst into "a nonstop shouting match". The Supreme Executive Committee, set up by Nasser to oversee the conduct of the war, attributed the repeated Egyptian defeats to the Nasser–Amer rivalry and Amer's overall incompetence. According to Egyptian diplomat Ismail Fahmi, who became foreign minister during Sadat's presidency, the Israeli invasion and Egypt's consequent defeat was a result of Nasser's dismissal of all rational analysis of the situation and his undertaking of a series of irrational decisions.
What propaganda were Arab media broadcasting at the beginning of the war?
57282f18ff5b5019007d9eaa
imminent Arab victory
124
False
What day did Nasser announce Egypt's defeat?
57282f18ff5b5019007d9eab
9 June
150
False
What did Nasser do about his position as President?
57282f18ff5b5019007d9eac
announced his resignation
245
False
Who rejected Nasser's offer to become the new president?
57282f18ff5b5019007d9ead
Zakaria Mohieddin
362
False
What did Nasser do after mass demonstrations?
57282f18ff5b5019007d9eae
retracted his decision
662
False
During the first four days of the war, the general population of the Arab world believed Arab radio station fabrications of imminent Arab victory. On 9 June, Nasser appeared on television to inform Egypt's citizens of their country's defeat. He announced his resignation on television later that day, and ceded all presidential powers to his then-Vice President Zakaria Mohieddin, who had no prior information of this decision and refused to accept the post. Hundreds of thousands of sympathizers poured into the streets in mass demonstrations throughout Egypt and across the Arab world rejecting his resignation, chanting, "We are your soldiers, Gamal!" Nasser retracted his decision the next day.
Who did Nasser appoint as the new head of Egypt's armed forces?
57282fa44b864d1900164694
Mohamed Fawzi
38
False
How did Amer react to being confronted about planning a coup?
57282fa44b864d1900164695
suicide
574
False
How did Nasser try to deal with the military following the coup attempt?
57282fa44b864d1900164696
depoliticizing the armed forces
735
False
What loyalists did Nasser target?
57282fa44b864d1900164697
figures loyal to Amer
822
False
On 11 July, Nasser replaced Amer with Mohamed Fawzi as general commander, over the protestations of Amer's loyalists in the military, 600 of whom marched on army headquarters and demanded Amer's reinstatement. After Nasser sacked thirty of the loyalists in response, Amer and his allies devised a plan to topple him on 27 August. Nasser was tipped off about their activities and, after several invitations, he convinced Amer to meet him at his home on 24 August. Nasser confronted Amer about the coup plot, which he denied before being arrested by Mohieddin. Amer committed suicide on 14 September. Despite his souring relationship with Amer, Nasser spoke of losing "the person closest to [him]". Thereafter, Nasser began a process of depoliticizing the armed forces, arresting dozens of leading military and intelligence figures loyal to Amer.
Where was the Arab League summit held?
572830693acd2414000df69d
Khartoum
39
False
What leader assumed a more prominent position due to Nasser's difficulites?
572830693acd2414000df69e
King Faisal
143
False
What agreement ended the Yemeni civil war?
572830693acd2414000df69f
Khartoum Resolution
240
False
What nation granted military aid to Egypt?
572830693acd2414000df6a0
Soviet Union
265
False
What document called for Israel to abandon land it obtained during the war?
572830693acd2414000df6a1
UN Resolution 242
573
False
At the 29 August Arab League summit in Khartoum, Nasser's usual commanding position had receded as the attending heads of state expected Saudi King Faisal to lead. A ceasefire in the Yemen War was declared and the summit concluded with the Khartoum Resolution. The Soviet Union soon resupplied the Egyptian military with about half of its former arsenals and broke diplomatic relations with Israel. Nasser cut relations with the US following the war, and, according to Aburish, his policy of "playing the superpowers against each other" ended. In November, Nasser accepted UN Resolution 242, which called for Israel's withdrawal from territories acquired in the war. His supporters claimed Nasser's move was meant to buy time to prepare for another confrontation with Israel, while his detractors believed his acceptance of the resolution signaled a waning interest in Palestinian independence.
What new positions did Nasser give himself ?
57283117ff5b5019007d9ebe
prime minister and supreme commander of the armed forces
49
False
When did students protest for political reforms?
57283117ff5b5019007d9ebf
1968
333
False
What type of people were ousted from Nasser's cabinet?
57283117ff5b5019007d9ec0
Arab Socialist Union
598
False
What type of spying did Nasser want to concentrate on?
57283117ff5b5019007d9ec1
external
697
False
Nasser appointed himself the additional roles of prime minister and supreme commander of the armed forces on 19 June 1967. Angry at the military court's perceived leniency with air force officers charged with negligence during the 1967 war, workers and students launched protests calling for major political reforms in late February 1968. Nasser responded to the demonstrations, the most significant public challenge to his rule since workers' protests in March 1954, by removing most military figures from his cabinet and appointing eight civilians in place of several high-ranking members of the Arab Socialist Union (ASU). By 3 March, Nasser directed Egypt's intelligence apparatus to focus on external rather than domestic espionage, and declared the "fall of the mukhabarat state".
What organization was to undergo a big overhaul?
572831bc2ca10214002da054
ASU
178
False
What trend was Nasser trying to cause?
572831bc2ca10214002da055
liberalization
501
False
How did Nasser's promises of increased freedoms turn out?
572831bc2ca10214002da056
unfulfilled
556
False
How did Nasser want to change the relationship between parliament and the executive?
572831bc2ca10214002da057
independence
113
False
On 30 March, Nasser proclaimed a manifesto stipulating the restoration of civil liberties, greater parliamentary independence from the executive, major structural changes to the ASU, and a campaign to rid the government of corrupt elements. A public referendum approved the proposed measures in May, and held subsequent elections for the Supreme Executive Committee, the ASU's highest decision-making body. Observers noted that the declaration signaled an important shift from political repression to liberalization, although its promises would largely go unfulfilled.
What was the endeavor to reclaim territory from Israel called?
572832643acd2414000df6c3
War of Attrition
49
False
In what year did the War of Attrition begin?
572832643acd2414000df6c4
1968
22
False
Who led the Fatah movement?
572832643acd2414000df6c5
Yasser Arafat
214
False
In what battle had the Fatah movement distinguished itself?
572832643acd2414000df6c6
Battle of Karameh
314
False
To whom did Nasser give authority to deal with Israel?
572832643acd2414000df6c7
Arafat
555
False
Meanwhile, in January 1968, Nasser commenced the War of Attrition to reclaim territory captured by Israel, ordering attacks against Israeli positions east of the then-blockaded Suez Canal. In March, Nasser offered Yasser Arafat's Fatah movement arms and funds after their performance against Israeli forces in the Battle of Karameh that month. He also advised Arafat to think of peace with Israel and the establishment of a Palestinian state comprising the West Bank and the Gaza Strip. Nasser effectively ceded his leadership of the "Palestine issue" to Arafat.
What did Nasser do to respond to Israeli attacks?
572832e92ca10214002da07e
build a network of internal defenses
260
False
When did the war start up again?
572832e92ca10214002da07f
March 1969
379
False
What groups did Nasser broker an agreement with?
572832e92ca10214002da080
PLO and the Lebanese military
445
False
Who would get to attack Israel from Lebanon?
572832e92ca10214002da081
Palestinian guerrillas
488
False
Israel retaliated against Egyptian shelling with commando raids, artillery shelling and air strikes. This resulted in an exodus of civilians from Egyptian cities along the Suez Canal's western bank. Nasser ceased all military activities and began a program to build a network of internal defenses, while receiving the financial backing of various Arab states. The war resumed in March 1969. In November, Nasser brokered an agreement between the PLO and the Lebanese military that granted Palestinian guerrillas the right to use Lebanese territory to attack Israel.
What was the American plan to end conflict with Israel?
5728341bff5b5019007d9eee
Rogers Plan
47
False
Who pressured Nasser to accept the Rogers Plan?
5728341bff5b5019007d9eef
Soviet Union
303
False
What did Nasser want to use the agreement to do?
5728341bff5b5019007d9ef0
recapturing the Suez Canal
498
False
How did Nasser equate peace with Israel?
5728341bff5b5019007d9ef1
surrender
723
False
What did Nasser move to the canal zone?
5728341bff5b5019007d9ef2
SAM missiles
839
False
In June 1970, Nasser accepted the US-sponsored Rogers Plan, which called for an end to hostilities and an Israeli withdrawal from Egyptian territory, but it was rejected by Israel, the PLO, and most Arab states except Jordan. Nasser had initially rejected the plan, but conceded under pressure from the Soviet Union, which feared that escalating regional conflict could drag it into a war with the US. He also determined that a ceasefire could serve as a tactical step toward the strategic goal of recapturing the Suez Canal. Nasser forestalled any movement toward direct negotiations with Israel. In dozens of speeches and statements, Nasser posited the equation that any direct peace talks with Israel were tantamount to surrender. Following Nasser's acceptance, Israel agreed to a ceasefire and Nasser used the lull in fighting to move SAM missiles towards the canal zone.
When did Nasser die?
572834c53acd2414000df6e5
28 September 1970
24
False
How did Nasser die?
572834c53acd2414000df6e6
heart attack
114
False
Who was with Nasser when he died?
572834c53acd2414000df6e7
Heikal, Sadat, and Nasser's wife Tahia
259
False
What health events had Nasser suffered in 1966 and 1969?
572834c53acd2414000df6e8
heart attacks
713
False
How old were Nasser's brothers when they died?
572834c53acd2414000df6e9
in their fifties
567
False
As the summit closed on 28 September 1970, hours after escorting the last Arab leader to leave, Nasser suffered a heart attack. He was immediately transported to his house, where his physicians tended to him. Nasser died several hours later, around 6:00 p.m. Heikal, Sadat, and Nasser's wife Tahia were at his deathbed. According to his doctor, al-Sawi Habibi, Nasser's likely cause of death was arteriosclerosis, varicose veins, and complications from long-standing diabetes. Nasser was a heavy smoker with a family history of heart disease—two of his brothers died in their fifties from the same condition. The state of Nasser's health was not known to the public prior to his death. He had previously suffered heart attacks in 1966 and September 1969.
How many people attended Nasser's funeral?
572835783acd2414000df6f9
at least five million
168
False
At what landmark did the funeral procession begin?
572835783acd2414000df6fa
the old RCC headquarters
265
False
Who was the only Arab leader not to attend Nasser's funeral?
572835783acd2414000df6fb
Saudi King Faisal
487
False
What leader twice fainted during the funeral?
572835783acd2414000df6fc
Muammar Gaddafi
548
False
Who was the Soviet leader who attended Nasser's funeral?
572835783acd2414000df6fd
Alexei Kosygin
684
False
Following the announcement of Nasser's death, Egypt and the Arab world were in a state of shock. Nasser's funeral procession through Cairo on 1 October was attended by at least five million mourners. The 10-kilometer (6.2 mi) procession to his burial site began at the old RCC headquarters with a flyover by MiG-21 jets. His flag-draped coffin was attached to a gun carriage pulled by six horses and led by a column of cavalrymen. All Arab heads of state attended, with the exception of Saudi King Faisal. King Hussein and Arafat cried openly, and Muammar Gaddafi of Libya fainted from emotional distress twice. A few major non-Arab dignitaries were present, including Soviet Premier Alexei Kosygin and French Prime Minister Jacques Chaban-Delmas.
How many eople died in Breuit because of unrest caused by Nasser's death?
57283627ff5b5019007d9f2e
Over a dozen
307
False
How many people marched in Jerusalem?
57283627ff5b5019007d9f2f
75,000
401
False
Who said, "The world will never again see five million people crying together?"
57283627ff5b5019007d9f30
Sherif Hetata
666
False
What did a Lebanese publication call the Arabs following Nasser's death?
57283627ff5b5019007d9f31
orphans
656
False
Because of his ability to motivate nationalistic passions, "men, women, and children wept and wailed in the streets" after hearing of his death, according to Nutting. The general Arab reaction was one of mourning, with thousands of people pouring onto the streets of major cities throughout the Arab world. Over a dozen people were killed in Beirut as a result of the chaos, and in Jerusalem, roughly 75,000 Arabs marched through the Old City chanting, "Nasser will never die." As a testament to his unchallenged leadership of the Arab people, following his death, the headline of the Lebanese Le Jour read, "One hundred million human beings—the Arabs—are orphans." Sherif Hetata, a former political prisoner and later member Nasser's ASU, said that "Nasser's greatest achievement was his funeral. The world will never again see five million people crying together."
What did Nasser completely eliminate from Egypt?
572836cc3acd2414000df71d
British influence
39
False
What did Nasser work to put into place in Egypt?
572836cc3acd2414000df71e
social justice
196
False
How were working conditions and employment at the end of Nasser's presidency?
572836cc3acd2414000df71f
improved considerably
538
False
What had drained resources from Nasser's social programs?
572836cd3acd2414000df720
war effort
688
False
Nasser made Egypt fully independent of British influence, and the country became a major power in the developing world under his leadership. One of Nasser's main domestic efforts was to establish social justice, which he deemed a prerequisite to liberal democracy. During his presidency, ordinary citizens enjoyed unprecedented access to housing, education, jobs, health services and nourishment, as well as other forms of social welfare, while feudalistic influence waned. By the end of his presidency, employment and working conditions improved considerably, although poverty was still high in the country and substantial resources allocated for social welfare had been diverted to the war effort.
What reform, initiated by Nasser, caused the Egyptian economy to grow?
5728377f3acd2414000df72f
agrarian
48
False
What are two infrastructure projects Nasser embarked on?
5728377f3acd2414000df730
Helwan steel works and the Aswan Dam
106
False
How was Egyptian culture under Nasser refered to?
5728377f3acd2414000df731
golden age
354
False
What was the most prominent thing Nasser nationalized?
5728377f3acd2414000df732
Suez Canal
192
False
The national economy grew significantly through agrarian reform, major modernization projects such as the Helwan steel works and the Aswan Dam, and nationalization schemes such as that of the Suez Canal. However, the marked economic growth of the early 1960s took a downturn for the remainder of the decade, only recovering in 1970. Egypt experienced a "golden age" of culture during Nasser's presidency, according to historian Joel Gordon, particularly in film, television, theater, radio, literature, fine arts, comedy, poetry, and music. Egypt under Nasser dominated the Arab world in these fields, producing cultural icons.
What type of political parties came about when Mubarek was president?
572838114b864d190016477a
Nasserist
29
False
What was the first Nasserist political party?
572838114b864d190016477b
Arab Democratic Nasserist Party
103
False
What party came in third in the 2013 election?
572838114b864d190016477c
Sabahi
351
False
What consolated party was formed from several Nasserist groups?
572838114b864d190016477d
United Nasserist Party
678
False
During Mubarak's presidency, Nasserist political parties began to emerge in Egypt, the first being the Arab Democratic Nasserist Party (ADNP). The party carried minor political influence, and splits between its members beginning in 1995 resulted in the gradual establishment of splinter parties, including Hamdeen Sabahi's 1997 founding of Al-Karama. Sabahi came in third place during the 2012 presidential election. Nasserist activists were among the founders of Kefaya, a major opposition force during Mubarak's rule. On 19 September 2012, four Nasserist parties (the ADNP, Karama, the National Conciliation Party, and the Popular Nasserist Congress Party) merged to form the United Nasserist Party.
What was Nasser known for in regard to ordinary citizens?
572838912ca10214002da0fc
availability to the public
76
False
How many speeches did Nasser give?
572838912ca10214002da0fd
1,359
217
False
Who gave the most speeches of any Egyptian leader?
572838912ca10214002da0fe
Nasser
0
False
What institution helped cultivate Nasser's positive public image?
572838912ca10214002da0ff
press
452
False
Nasser was known for his intimate relationship with ordinary Egyptians. His availability to the public, despite assassination attempts against him, was unparalleled among his successors. A skilled orator, Nasser gave 1,359 speeches between 1953 and 1970, a record for any Egyptian head of state. Historian Elie Podeh wrote that a constant theme of Nasser's image was "his ability to represent Egyptian authenticity, in triumph or defeat". The national press also helped to foster his popularity and profile—more so after the nationalization of state media. Historian Tarek Osman wrote:
Who was most critical of Nasser's rule?
572839254b864d1900164792
Egyptian intellectuals
44
False
What event generated criticism of Nasser from Egypt's elite?
572839254b864d1900164793
Six-Day War
81
False
During whose presidency were Egyptians nostalgic for Nasser?
572839254b864d1900164794
Mubarak
406
False
What ideals are associated with Nasser's time as prsident?
572839254b864d1900164795
national purpose, hope, social cohesion, and vibrant culture
520
False
While Nasser was increasingly criticized by Egyptian intellectuals following the Six-Day War and his death in 1970, the general public was persistently sympathetic both during and after Nasser's life. According to political scientist Mahmoud Hamad, writing in 2008, "nostalgia for Nasser is easily sensed in Egypt and all Arab countries today". General malaise in Egyptian society, particularly during the Mubarak era, augmented nostalgia for Nasser's presidency, which increasingly became associated with the ideals of national purpose, hope, social cohesion, and vibrant culture.
Whad did Nasser's enemies call him?
5728408d4b864d1900164808
dictator
46
False
Who did Nasser imprison thousands of?
5728408d4b864d1900164809
dissidents
113
False
What did Tawfiq al-Hakim call Nasser?
5728408d4b864d190016480a
confused Sultan
403
False
Nasser's Egyptian detractors considered him a dictator who thwarted democratic progress, imprisoned thousands of dissidents, and led a repressive administration responsible for numerous human rights violations. Islamists in Egypt, particularly members of the politically persecuted Brotherhood, viewed Nasser as oppressive, tyrannical, and demonic. Liberal writer Tawfiq al-Hakim described Nasser as a "confused Sultan" who employed stirring rhetoric, but had no actual plan to achieve his stated goals.
What Egyptian party dismissed Nasser's popular appeal?
572841242ca10214002da1a0
New Wafd Party
94
False
Who blamed the 1952 revolution's failings on Nasser?
572841242ca10214002da1a1
Alaa al-Din Desouki
309
False
To what did critics attribute Nasser's popular appeal?
572841242ca10214002da1a2
successful manipulation and demagoguery
239
False
Some of Nasser's liberal and Islamist critics in Egypt, including the founding members of the New Wafd Party and writer Jamal Badawi, dismissed Nasser's popular appeal with the Egyptian masses during his presidency as being the product of successful manipulation and demagoguery. Egyptian political scientist Alaa al-Din Desouki blamed the 1952 revolution's shortcomings on Nasser's concentration of power, and Egypt's lack of democracy on Nasser's political style and his government's limitations on freedom of expression and political participation.
What did Nasser's political style render unnecessary?
572841e63acd2414000df7df
intermediaries
136
False
What was needed under Nasser, the absence of which guaranteed instability?
572841e63acd2414000df7e0
strong political institutions
323
False
Who called Nasser an irrational and irresponsible leader?
572841e63acd2414000df7e1
Abd al-Azim Ramadan
379
False
Who was Nasser's closest Western advisor?
572841e63acd2414000df7e2
Miles Copeland, Jr
573
False
American political scientist Mark Cooper asserted that Nasser's charisma and his direct relationship with the Egyptian people "rendered intermediaries (organizations and individuals) unnecessary". He opined that Nasser's legacy was a "guarantee of instability" due to Nasser's reliance on personal power and the absence of strong political institutions under his rule. Historian Abd al-Azim Ramadan wrote that Nasser was an irrational and irresponsible leader, blaming his inclination to solitary decision-making for Egypt's losses during the Suez War, among other events. Miles Copeland, Jr. , once described as Nasser's closest Western adviser, said that the barriers between Nasser and the outside world have grown so thick that all but the information that attest to his infallibility, indispensability, and immortality has been filtered out.
Who was Nasser's vice president?
572842a0ff5b5019007da030
Zakaria Mohieddin
0
False
What gambit did Nasser fail at in his bluster with Israel?
572842a0ff5b5019007da031
bluffing
314
False
What did Nasser do over the years of his rule?
572842a0ff5b5019007da032
gradually changed
69
False
What did Mohieddin attribute Nassir's mistakes in 1967 to?
572842a0ff5b5019007da033
diabetes
672
False
Zakaria Mohieddin, who was Nasser's vice president, said that Nasser gradually changed during his reign. He ceased consulting his colleagues and made more and more of the decisions himself. Although Nasser repeatedly said that a war with Israel will start at a time of his, or Arab, choosing, on 1967 he started a bluffing game "but a successful bluff means your opponent must not know which cards you are holding. In this case Nasser's opponent could see his hand in the mirror and knew he was only holding a pair of deuces" and Nasser knew that his army is not prepared yet. "All of this was out of character...His tendencies in this regard may have been accentuated by diabetes... That was the only rational explanation for his actions in 1967".
What did other Arab leaders have to do to gain admiration of their populations?
57284349ff5b5019007da040
seek good relations with Egypt
497
False
What did Nasser cause in the wider Arab world?
57284349ff5b5019007da041
several nationalist revolutions
110
False
What have other Arab leaders been unable to do that Nasser was?
57284349ff5b5019007da042
communicated directly with the public masses
207
False
What did Nasser symbolize?
57284349ff5b5019007da043
the popular Arab will
71
False
Through his actions and speeches, and because he was able to symbolize the popular Arab will, Nasser inspired several nationalist revolutions in the Arab world. He defined the politics of his generation and communicated directly with the public masses of the Arab world, bypassing the various heads of states of those countries—an accomplishment not repeated by other Arab leaders. The extent of Nasser's centrality in the region made it a priority for incoming Arab nationalist heads of state to seek good relations with Egypt, in order to gain popular legitimacy from their own citizens.
Who was Algeria's first president, a fervent Nasserist?
572844272ca10214002da1f6
Ben Bella
196
False
What Nasserist usurped the King of Yemen?
572844272ca10214002da1f7
Abdullah al-Sallal
259
False
Which leader considered Nasser his hero?
572844272ca10214002da1f8
Muammar Gaddafi
451
False
What leader took power in Sudan and was inspired by Nasser?
572844272ca10214002da1f9
Colonel Gaafar Nimeiry
604
False
What organization continued Nasser's philosophies?
572844272ca10214002da1fa
Arab Nationalist Movement
676
False
To varying degrees, Nasser's statist system of government was continued in Egypt and emulated by virtually all Arab republics, namely Algeria, Syria, Iraq, Tunisia, Yemen, Sudan, and Libya. Ahmed Ben Bella, Algeria's first president, was a staunch Nasserist. Abdullah al-Sallal drove out the king of North Yemen in the name of Nasser's pan-Arabism. Other coups influenced by Nasser included those that occurred in Iraq in July 1958 and Syria in 1963. Muammar Gaddafi, who overthrew the Libyan monarchy in 1969, considered Nasser his hero and sought to succeed him as "leader of the Arabs". Also in 1969, Colonel Gaafar Nimeiry, a supporter of Nasser, took power in Sudan. The Arab Nationalist Movement (ANM) helped spread Nasser's pan-Arabist ideas throughout the Arab world, particularly among the Palestinians, Syrians, and Lebanese, and in South Yemen, the Persian Gulf, and Iraq. While many regional heads of state tried to emulate Nasser, Podeh opined that the "parochialism" of successive Arab leaders "transformed imitation [of Nasser] into parody".
What 1963 film compared Nasser to Saladin?
572844e12ca10214002da208
El Nasser Salah El Dine
61
False
What 1996 Nasser-related film set a box office record?
572844e12ca10214002da209
Nasser 56
298
False
What was Nasser 56 about?
572844e12ca10214002da20a
Suez Crisis
399
False
What was the famous biopic about Nasser?
572844e12ca10214002da20b
Gamal Abdel Nasser
580
False
In 1963, Egyptian director Youssef Chahine produced the film El Nasser Salah El Dine ("Saladin The Victorious"), which intentionally drew parallels between Saladin, considered a hero in the Arab world, and Nasser and his pan-Arabist policies. Nasser is played by Ahmed Zaki in Mohamed Fadel's 1996 Nasser 56. The film set the Egyptian box office record at the time, and focused on Nasser during the Suez Crisis. It is also considered a milestone in Egyptian and Arab cinema as the first film to dramatize the role of a modern-day Arab leader. Together with the 1999 Syrian biopic Gamal Abdel Nasser, the films marked the first biographical movies about contemporary public figures produced in the Arab world.
Who did Nasser marry in 1944?
572845633acd2414000df827
Tahia Kazem
24
False
Who introduced Nasser and his wife?
572845633acd2414000df828
Abdel Hamid Kazim
202
False
Where did Nasser and his wife live after they were married?
572845633acd2414000df829
Manshiyat al-Bakri
315
False
What job of Nasser's offered him a comparably comfortable lifestyle?
572845633acd2414000df82a
officer corps
429
False
In 1944, Nasser married Tahia Kazem, the 22-year-old daughter of a wealthy Iranian father and an Egyptian mother, both of whom died when she was young. She was introduced to Nasser through her brother, Abdel Hamid Kazim, a merchant friend of Nasser's, in 1943. After their wedding, the couple moved into a house in Manshiyat al-Bakri, a suburb of Cairo, where they would live for the rest of their lives. Nasser's entry into the officer corps in 1937 secured him relatively well-paid employment in a society where most people lived in poverty.
What was Nasser's principle vice?
5728460d2ca10214002da21a
chain smoking
41
False
How long was a typical workday for Nasser?
5728460d2ca10214002da21b
18-hour
70
False
What illness was Nasser diagnosed with in 1960?
5728460d2ca10214002da21c
diabetes
231
False
What year did Nasser die?
5728460d2ca10214002da21d
1970
291
False
What did Egyptian state media claim was the reason for Nasser's absence after his second heart attack?
5728460d2ca10214002da21e
influenza
576
False
Nasser had few personal vices other than chain smoking. He maintained 18-hour workdays and rarely took time off for vacations. The combination of smoking and working long hours contributed to his poor health. He was diagnosed with diabetes in the early 1960s and by the time of his death in 1970, he also had arteriosclerosis, heart disease, and high blood pressure. He suffered two major heart attacks (in 1966 and 1969), and was on bed rest for six weeks after the second episode. State media reported that Nasser's absence from the public view at that time was a result of influenza.
Pope_John_XXIII
What was Pope Saint John XXIII's birth name?
5727f0e92ca10214002d9a0e
Angelo Giuseppe Roncalli
75
False
When was Pope Saint John XXIII born?
5727f0e92ca10214002d9a0f
25 November 1881
159
False
When did Pope Saint XXIII die?
5727f0e92ca10214002d9a10
3 June 1963
178
False
How long did he reign as Pope?
5727f0e92ca10214002d9a11
28 October 1958 to his death in 1963
212
False
When was he ordained to the priesthood?
5727f0e92ca10214002d9a12
10 August 1904
453
False
25 November 1881
159
When was Pope Pius XII born?
5a60f519e9e1cc001a33cdca
True
3 June 1963
178
When did Pope Pius XII die?
5a60f519e9e1cc001a33cdcb
True
from 28 October 1958 to his death in 1963
207
How long did Pope Pius XII reign as Pope?
5a60f519e9e1cc001a33cdcc
True
27 April 2014
270
When was Pope Pius XII canonized?
5a60f519e9e1cc001a33cdcd
True
Angelo Giuseppe Roncalli
75
What was the birth name of Pope Pius XII?
5a60f519e9e1cc001a33cdce
True
Pope Saint John XXIII (Latin: Ioannes XXIII; Italian: Giovanni XXIII) born Angelo Giuseppe Roncalli,[a] Italian pronunciation: [ˈandʒelo dʒuˈzɛppe roŋˈkalli]; 25 November 1881 – 3 June 1963) reigned as Pope from 28 October 1958 to his death in 1963 and was canonized on 27 April 2014. Angelo Giuseppe Roncalli was the fourth of fourteen children born to a family of sharecroppers who lived in a village in Lombardy. He was ordained to the priesthood on 10 August 1904 and served in a number of posts, including papal nuncio in France and a delegate to Bulgaria, Greece and Turkey. In a consistory on 12 January 1953 Pope Pius XII made Roncalli a cardinal as the Cardinal-Priest of Santa Prisca in addition to naming him as the Patriarch of Venice.
How old was Roncalli when elected pope?
5727f4f83acd2414000df0c3
76
52
False
When was Roncalli elected pope?
5727f4f83acd2414000df0c4
28 October 1958
29
False
He was the first pope to take the pontifical name of "John" upon election in how long?
5727f4f83acd2414000df0c5
500 years
266
False
Pope John XXIII surprised those who expected him to be a caretaker pope by calling what?
5727f4f83acd2414000df0c6
Second Vatican Council
505
False
When did he call the Second Vatican Council?
5727f4f83acd2414000df0c7
11 October 1962
568
False
28 October 1958
29
When was St. Peter's Square built?
5a60f70ee9e1cc001a33cdd4
True
to Venice
168
When the Second Vatican Council came to Rome what did they plan to return to?
5a60f70ee9e1cc001a33cdd5
True
more than 500 years
256
How long has there been a Pope in Rome?
5a60f70ee9e1cc001a33cdd6
True
a caretaker pope
464
What did God expect the Pope to be?
5a60f70ee9e1cc001a33cdd7
True
the complicated question of official numbering attached to this papal name
300
What did the crowd gathered at St. Peter's Square think the Pope's name choice settled?
5a60f70ee9e1cc001a33cdd8
True
Roncalli was elected pope on 28 October 1958 at age 76 after 11 ballots. His selection was unexpected, and Roncalli himself had come to Rome with a return train ticket to Venice. He was the first pope to take the pontifical name of "John" upon election in more than 500 years, and his choice settled the complicated question of official numbering attached to this papal name due to the antipope of this name. Pope John XXIII surprised those who expected him to be a caretaker pope by calling the historic Second Vatican Council (1962–65), the first session opening on 11 October 1962. His passionate views on equality were summed up in his famous statement, "We were all made in God's image, and thus, we are all Godly alike." John XXIII made many passionate speeches during his pontificate, one of which was on the day that he opened the Second Vatican Council in the middle of the night to the crowd gathered in St. Peter's Square: "Dear children, returning home, you will find children: give your children a hug and say: This is a hug from the Pope!"
When did the pope die?
5727fa0b4b864d1900164116
3 June 1963
100
False
What did the pope die of?
5727fa0b4b864d1900164117
stomach cancer
82
False
Where was he buried?
5727fa0b4b864d1900164118
the Vatican grottoes beneath Saint Peter's Basilica
259
False
When was he beatified?
5727fa0b4b864d1900164119
3 September 2000
533
False
He is still known today as what?
5727fa0b4b864d190016411a
the "Good Pope"
1268
False
on 3 June 1963
97
When did Pope Francis die?
5a60f7f5e9e1cc001a33cdde
True
four and a half years
113
How long after he was elected did Pope Francis die?
5a60f7f5e9e1cc001a33cddf
True
in the Vatican grottoes beneath Saint Peter's Basilica
256
Where was Pope Francis buried?
5a60f7f5e9e1cc001a33cde0
True
stomach cancer
82
What illness did Pope Francis die of?
5a60f7f5e9e1cc001a33cde1
True
on 3 September 2000
530
When was Pope Francis beatified?
5a60f7f5e9e1cc001a33cde2
True
Pope John XXIII did not live to see the Vatican Council to completion. He died of stomach cancer on 3 June 1963, four and a half years after his election and two months after the completion of his final and famed encyclical, Pacem in terris. He was buried in the Vatican grottoes beneath Saint Peter's Basilica on 6 June 1963 and his cause for canonization was opened on 18 November 1965 by his successor, Pope Paul VI, who declared him a Servant of God. In addition to being named Venerable on 20 December 1999, he was beatified on 3 September 2000 by Pope John Paul II alongside Pope Pius IX and three others. Following his beatification, his body was moved on 3 June 2001 from its original place to the altar of Saint Jerome where it could be seen by the faithful. On 5 July 2013, Pope Francis – bypassing the traditionally required second miracle – declared John XXIII a saint, after unanimous agreement by a consistory, or meeting, of the College of Cardinals, based on the fact that he was considered to have lived a virtuous, model lifestyle, and because of the good for the Church which had come from his having opened the Second Vatican Council. He was canonised alongside Pope Saint John Paul II on 27 April 2014. John XXIII today is affectionately known as the "Good Pope" and in Italian, "il Papa buono".
When is his feast day celebrated?
5727fc0cff5b5019007d99fe
11 October
231
False
What is October 11?
5727fc0cff5b5019007d99ff
the day of the first session of the Second Vatican Council
243
False
When did Pope Francis added his optional memorial to the worldwide General Roman Calendar of saints' feast days?
5727fc0cff5b5019007d9a00
11 September 2014
410
False
Where did Pope Francis commemorate his death on 3 June?
5727fc0cff5b5019007d9a01
by the Evangelical Lutheran Church
618
False
Where did Pope Francis commemorate his death on 4 June?
5727fc0cff5b5019007d9a02
by the Anglican Church of Canada and the Episcopal Church (United States)
698
False
on 11 October
228
When does the United States celebrate his feast day?
5a60fa35e9e1cc001a33cde8
True
optional memorial to the worldwide General Roman Calendar of saints' feast days
452
What was added by the Evangelical Lutheran Church on Thursday, 11 Sept. 2014?
5a60fa35e9e1cc001a33cde9
True
in response to global requests
533
Why did the Evangelical Lutheran Church add this memorial to the calendar?
5a60fa35e9e1cc001a33cdea
True
the Second Vatican Council
275
What group was created by Pope Francis?
5a60fa35e9e1cc001a33cdeb
True
June 3
81
What date was Pope John Paul inagurated?
5a60fa35e9e1cc001a33cdec
True
The Roman Catholic Church celebrates his feast day not on the date of his death, June 3, as is usual, nor even on the day of his papal inauguration (as is sometimes done with Popes who are Saints, such as with John Paul II) but on 11 October, the day of the first session of the Second Vatican Council. This is understandable, since he was the one who had had the idea for it and had convened it. On Thursday, 11 September 2014, Pope Francis added his optional memorial to the worldwide General Roman Calendar of saints' feast days, in response to global requests. He is commemorated on the date of his death, 3 June, by the Evangelical Lutheran Church in America and on the following day, 4 June, by the Anglican Church of Canada and the Episcopal Church (United States).
When did Pietro Gasparri summon him to the Vatican?
5727fd58ff5b5019007d9a44
February 1925
3
False
Who was the Cardinal Secretary of State in 1925?
5727fd58ff5b5019007d9a45
Pietro Gasparri
50
False
When was he the Apostolic Visitor to Bulgaria?
5727fd58ff5b5019007d9a46
1925–35
191
False
When was his nomination as apostolic visitor made official?
5727fd58ff5b5019007d9a47
19 March
442
False
Who was he consecrated by?
5727fd58ff5b5019007d9a48
Giovanni Tacci Porcelli
480
False
February 1925
3
When was Pius XI asked to come to the Vatican by the Cardinal Secretary of State?
5a60fb30e9e1cc001a33cdf2
True
1925
191
When was Pope Pius XI named Apostolic Visitor to Bulgaria?
5a60fb30e9e1cc001a33cdf3
True
in the church of San Carlo alla Corso in Rome
504
Where was Pope Pius XI consecrated?
5a60fb30e9e1cc001a33cdf4
True
Obedientia et Pax ("Obedience and Peace")
651
What was the guiding motto of Pope Pius XI?
5a60fb30e9e1cc001a33cdf5
True
an earthquake struck in a town not too far from where he was
752
What happened when Pope Pius XI was in Bulgaria?
5a60fb30e9e1cc001a33cdf6
True
In February 1925, the Cardinal Secretary of State Pietro Gasparri summoned him to the Vatican and informed him of Pope Pius XI's decision to appoint him as the Apostolic Visitor to Bulgaria (1925–35). On 3 March, Pius XI also named him for consecration as titular archbishop of Areopolis, Jordan. Roncalli was initially reluctant about a mission to Bulgaria, but he would soon relent. His nomination as apostolic visitor was made official on 19 March. Roncalli was consecrated by Giovanni Tacci Porcelli in the church of San Carlo alla Corso in Rome. After he was consecrated, he introduced his family to Pope Pius XI. He chose as his episcopal motto Obedientia et Pax ("Obedience and Peace"), which became his guiding motto. While he was in Bulgaria, an earthquake struck in a town not too far from where he was. Unaffected, he wrote to his sisters Ancilla and Maria and told them both that he was fine.
When was he appointed Apostolic Delegate to Turkey and Greece?
5727ff7c2ca10214002d9b00
30 November 1934
3
False
He was appointed titular archbishop of where?
5727ff7c2ca10214002d9b01
Mesembria, Bulgaria
104
False
What ws he known by in the Turkish community?
5727ff7c2ca10214002d9b02
the Turcophile Pope
147
False
When did he take that position?
5727ff7c2ca10214002d9b03
1935
253
False
Who did he introduce Bulgarian pilgrims to?
5727ff7c2ca10214002d9b04
Pope Pius XI
516
False
On 30 November 1934
0
When was Pope Pius XI appointed Apostolic Delegate to Turkey and Greece?
5a60fc3ae9e1cc001a33cdfc
True
Mesembria, Bulgaria
104
Where was Pope Pius XI named a titular archbishop?
5a60fc3ae9e1cc001a33cdfd
True
"the Turcophile Pope,"
146
What title is Pope Pius XI known by in Turkey?
5a60fc3ae9e1cc001a33cdfe
True
1935
253
When did Pope Pius XI take his position in Turkey?
5a60fc3ae9e1cc001a33cdff
True
thousands of refugees in Europe
319
Who did Pope Pius XI used his office to save?
5a60fc3ae9e1cc001a33ce00
True
On 30 November 1934, he was appointed Apostolic Delegate to Turkey and Greece and titular archbishop of Mesembria, Bulgaria. Thus, he is known as "the Turcophile Pope," by the Turkish society which is predominantly Muslim. Roncalli took up this post in 1935 and used his office to help the Jewish underground in saving thousands of refugees in Europe, leading some to consider him to be a Righteous Gentile (see Pope John XXIII and Judaism). In October 1935, he led Bulgarian pilgrims to Rome and introduced them to Pope Pius XI on 14 October.
When did he hear that his mother was dying?
5728005f4b864d19001641c8
February 1939
3
False
When did Pope Pius XI die?
5728005f4b864d19001641c9
10 February 1939
82
False
When did his mother die?
5728005f4b864d19001641ca
20 February 1939
304
False
Who sent him the letter informing him of his mother's death?
5728005f4b864d19001641cb
Cardinal Eugenio Pacelli
401
False
When was Pope Pius XII elected?
5728005f4b864d19001641cc
2 March 1939
544
False
news from his sisters that his mother was dying
30
What did Cardinal Eugenio Pacelli receive in February 1939?
5a60fe02e9e1cc001a33ce06
True
On 10 February 1939
79
When did Cardinal Eugenio Pacelli die?
5a60fe02e9e1cc001a33ce07
True
during the nine days of mourning for the late Pius XI
322
During what time did Cardinal Eugenio Pacelli die?
5a60fe02e9e1cc001a33ce08
True
2 March 1939
544
When was Roncalli elected as Pope?
5a60fe02e9e1cc001a33ce09
True
on radio, listened to the coronation
618
How did Pope Pius XI keep track of the election of the new Pope?
5a60fe02e9e1cc001a33ce0a
True
In February 1939, he received news from his sisters that his mother was dying. On 10 February 1939, Pope Pius XI died. Roncalli was unable to see his mother for the end as the death of a pontiff meant that he would have to stay at his post until the election of a new pontiff. Unfortunately, she died on 20 February 1939, during the nine days of mourning for the late Pius XI. He was sent a letter by Cardinal Eugenio Pacelli, and Roncalli later recalled that it was probably the last letter Pacelli sent until his election as Pope Pius XII on 2 March 1939. Roncalli expressed happiness that Pacelli was elected, and, on radio, listened to the coronation of the new pontiff.
When was he appointed Patriarch of Venice?
572800cd2ca10214002d9b26
12 January 1953
3
False
Pope Pius XII raised him to what rank?
572800cd2ca10214002d9b27
Cardinal-Priest of Santa Prisca
97
False
When did he leave France for Venice?
572800cd2ca10214002d9b28
23 February 1953
182
False
When did he take up his new diocese in Venice?
572800cd2ca10214002d9b29
15 March 1953
246
False
Who was the President of France in 1953?
572800cd2ca10214002d9b2a
Vincent Auriol
360
False
On 12 January 1953
0
When was Pope Pius XII appointed Patriarch of Venice?
5a60fef4e9e1cc001a33ce10
True
the rank of Cardinal-Priest of Santa Prisca
85
What rank was Pope Pius XII raised to?
5a60fef4e9e1cc001a33ce11
True
on 23 February 1953
179
On what date did Pope Pius XII leave France to go to Venice?
5a60fef4e9e1cc001a33ce12
True
On 15 March 1953
243
When did Pope Pius XII take possession of the diocese in Venice?
5a60fef4e9e1cc001a33ce13
True
the red biretta
448
What did the President of France give to Pope Piux XII as a sign of esteem?
5a60fef4e9e1cc001a33ce14
True
On 12 January 1953, he was appointed Patriarch of Venice and, accordingly, raised to the rank of Cardinal-Priest of Santa Prisca by Pope Pius XII. Roncalli left France for Venice on 23 February 1953 stopping briefly in Milan and then to Rome. On 15 March 1953, he took possession of his new diocese in Venice. As a sign of his esteem, the President of France, Vincent Auriol, claimed the ancient privilege possessed by French monarchs and bestowed the red biretta on Roncalli at a ceremony in the Élysée Palace. It was around this time that he, with the aid of Monsignor Bruno Heim, formed his coat of arms with a lion of Saint Mark on a white ground. Auriol also awarded Roncalli three months later with the award of Commander of the Legion of Honour.
When was his sister Ancilla diagnosed with stomach cancer?
572801344b864d19001641dc
the early 1950s
66
False
When did he send his last letter to his dying sister?
572801344b864d19001641dd
8 November 1953
126
False
When did Ancilla die?
572801344b864d19001641de
11 November 1953
246
False
Where did he want to be buried?
572801344b864d19001641df
the crypt of Saint Mark's in Venice
444
False
stomach cancer
48
What was Roncalli diagnosed with in the early 1950's?
5a60ffdce9e1cc001a33ce1a
True
in the crypt of Saint Mark's in Venice
441
Where did Roncalli's sister want to be buried in her will?
5a60ffdce9e1cc001a33ce1c
True
in his hometown
353
Where was Roncalli's funeral held?
5a60ffdce9e1cc001a33ce1d
True
on 8 November 1953
123
When was one of Roncalli's predecessors buried?
5a60ffdce9e1cc001a33ce1e
True
His sister Ancilla would soon be diagnosed with stomach cancer in the early 1950s. Roncalli's last letter to her was dated on 8 November 1953 where he promised to visit her within the next week. He could not keep that promise, as Ancilla died on 11 November 1953 at the time when he was consecrating a new church in Venice. He attended her funeral back in his hometown. In his will around this time, he mentioned that he wished to be buried in the crypt of Saint Mark's in Venice with some of his predecessors rather than with the family in Sotto il Monte.
When did Pope Pius XII die?
572801a52ca10214002d9b40
9 October 1958
40
False
When was his last full day in Venice?
572801a52ca10214002d9b41
11 October
124
False
Why did Roncalli leave Venice?
572801a52ca10214002d9b42
for the conclave in Rome
264
False
He was elected pope after how many ballots?
572801a52ca10214002d9b43
eleven ballots
335
False
on 9 October 1958
37
When did Roncalli die?
5a610105e9e1cc001a33ce24
True
watched the live funeral on his last full day in Venice
65
What did Pope Piux XII do on October 11?
5a610105e9e1cc001a33ce25
True
the funeral and the abused state of the late pontiff's corpse
180
What was Pope Pius XII concerned about so that he wrote it down?
5a610105e9e1cc001a33ce26
True
the conclave in Rome
268
When Pope Pius XII left Venice, where was he going?
5a610105e9e1cc001a33ce27
True
eleven
335
How many ballots did Pope Pius XII have when he was elected as Pope?
5a610105e9e1cc001a33ce28
True
Following the death of Pope Pius XII on 9 October 1958, Roncalli watched the live funeral on his last full day in Venice on 11 October. His journal was specifically concerned with the funeral and the abused state of the late pontiff's corpse. Roncalli left Venice for the conclave in Rome well aware that he was papabile,[b] and after eleven ballots, was elected to succeed the late Pius XII, so it came as no surprise to him, though he had arrived at the Vatican with a return train ticket to Venice.[citation needed]
Who was the Archbishop of Milan?
5728022c4b864d19001641ee
Giovanni Battista Montini
20
False
New pontiffs are chosen from Cardinals who head what?
5728022c4b864d19001641ef
archdioceses or departments of the Roman Curia
510
False
When was Montini absent from the conclave?
5728022c4b864d19001641f0
1958
251
False
conclave
256
What was the Roman curia absent from in 1958?
5a61055ae9e1cc001a33ce42
True
any Catholic male who is capable of receiving priestly ordination and episcopal consecration
311
Who can be elected to the College of Cardinals under Canon Law?
5a61055ae9e1cc001a33ce43
True
among the Cardinals who head archdioceses or departments of the Roman Curia that attend the papal conclave
481
Where did the College of Cardinals choose the Archbishop of Milan from?
5a61055ae9e1cc001a33ce44
True
age 80
692
What age did the Archbishop of Milan not have to be below to serve in office?
5a61055ae9e1cc001a33ce45
True
one of the most ancient and prominent sees
133
What were Eastern-rite Cardinals in charge of in Italy?
5a61055ae9e1cc001a33ce46
True
Many had considered Giovanni Battista Montini, the Archbishop of Milan, a possible candidate, but, although he was the archbishop of one of the most ancient and prominent sees in Italy, he had not yet been made a cardinal. Though his absence from the 1958 conclave did not make him ineligible – under Canon Law any Catholic male who is capable of receiving priestly ordination and episcopal consecration may be elected – the College of Cardinals usually chose the new pontiff from among the Cardinals who head archdioceses or departments of the Roman Curia that attend the papal conclave. At the time, as opposed to contemporary practice, the participating Cardinals did not have to be below age 80 to vote, there were few Eastern-rite Cardinals, and no Cardinals who were just priests at the time of their elevation.
When was the final ballot of the conclave?
572802ca3acd2414000df21f
4:00 pm
61
False
How many votes did he have?
572802ca3acd2414000df220
38 votes
117
False
What name did Roncalli choose?
572802ca3acd2414000df221
John
658
False
John had not been a chosen name in how long?
572802ca3acd2414000df222
over 500 years
692
False
Who was the last to choose the name John?
572802ca3acd2414000df223
Antipope John XXIII
796
False
at 4:00 pm
58
At what time was John XXIII called to final ballot of the conclave?
5a610693e9e1cc001a33ce4c
True
at 4:30 pm
90
What time was Cardinal Eugene Tisserant elected as Pope?
5a610693e9e1cc001a33ce4d
True
38
117
How many votes did Cardinal Eugene Tisserant have?
5a610693e9e1cc001a33ce4e
True
would be a short-term or "stop-gap" pope
250
What was the presumption about Cardinal Eugene Tisserant because he was older when elected?
5a610693e9e1cc001a33ce4f
True
They wished to choose a candidate who would do little during the new pontificate
292
What were the other cardinals trying to do by electing Cardinal Eugene Tisserant as Pope?
5a610693e9e1cc001a33ce50
True
Roncalli was summoned to the final ballot of the conclave at 4:00 pm. He was elected pope at 4:30 pm with a total of 38 votes. After the long pontificate of Pope Pius XII, the cardinals chose a man who – it was presumed because of his advanced age – would be a short-term or "stop-gap" pope. They wished to choose a candidate who would do little during the new pontificate. Upon his election, Cardinal Eugene Tisserant asked him the ritual questions of whether he would accept and if so, what name he would take for himself. Roncalli gave the first of his many surprises when he chose "John" as his regnal name. Roncalli's exact words were "I will be called John". This was the first time in over 500 years that this name had been chosen; previous popes had avoided its use since the time of the Antipope John XXIII during the Western Schism several centuries before.
What did John XXIII call for?
572803713acd2414000df233
an ecumenical council
81
False
When was the decision made for this council?
572803713acd2414000df234
29 January 1959
274
False
Where was the decision made for this council?
572803713acd2414000df235
the Basilica of Saint Paul Outside the Walls
293
False
Who did Cardinal Giovanni Battista Montini later become?
572803713acd2414000df236
Pope Paul VI
392
False
an ecumenical council
81
What did Pope Paul VI call for?
5a61080ce9e1cc001a33ce56
True
a comprehensively revised liturgy, a stronger emphasis on ecumenism, and a new approach to the world
600
What changes were made by the Council of Trent?
5a61080ce9e1cc001a33ce57
True
Pope Paul VI
392
Who did Giulio Bevilacqua later become?
5a61080ce9e1cc001a33ce58
True
the 16th century
224
In what century was Catholocism popular?
5a61080ce9e1cc001a33ce59
True
fewer than ninety years
103
How many years had passed since Giulio Bevilacqua called for the First Vatican Council?
5a61080ce9e1cc001a33ce5a
True
Far from being a mere "stopgap" pope, to great excitement, John XXIII called for an ecumenical council fewer than ninety years after the First Vatican Council (Vatican I's predecessor, the Council of Trent, had been held in the 16th century). This decision was announced on 29 January 1959 at the Basilica of Saint Paul Outside the Walls. Cardinal Giovanni Battista Montini, who later became Pope Paul VI, remarked to Giulio Bevilacqua that "this holy old boy doesn't realise what a hornet's nest he's stirring up". From the Second Vatican Council came changes that reshaped the face of Catholicism: a comprehensively revised liturgy, a stronger emphasis on ecumenism, and a new approach to the world.
John XXIII was an advocate for what?
572803c6ff5b5019007d9af4
human rights
31
False
What did he write about human rights in?
572803c6ff5b5019007d9af5
his Pacem in terris
118
False
His advocacy from human rights included whom?
572803c6ff5b5019007d9af6
the unborn and the elderly
59
False
human rights
31
What did widows advocate for?
5a6109d3e9e1cc001a33ce60
True
Pacem in terris
122
What work, written by widows, focused on human rights?
5a6109d3e9e1cc001a33ce61
True
food, clothing, shelter, medical care, rest, and, finally, the necessary social services
290
What do people who are disabled need the most, according to widows?
5a6109d3e9e1cc001a33ce62
True
the unborn and the elderly
59
What are two groups that need the most services, according to widows?
5a6109d3e9e1cc001a33ce63
True
in the event of ill health
432
What is one time that widows think the unborn should be taken care of?
5a6109d3e9e1cc001a33ce64
True
John XXIII was an advocate for human rights which included the unborn and the elderly. He wrote about human rights in his Pacem in terris. He wrote, "Man has the right to live. He has the right to bodily integrity and to the means necessary for the proper development of life, particularly food, clothing, shelter, medical care, rest, and, finally, the necessary social services. In consequence, he has the right to be looked after in the event of ill health; disability stemming from his work; widowhood; old age; enforced unemployment; or whenever through no fault of his own he is deprived of the means of livelihood."
John XXIII continued the gradual reform of what?
572804594b864d190016423a
the Roman liturgy
89
False
He published changes that resulted in what?
572804594b864d190016423b
the 1962 Roman Missal
147
False
What did Pope Pius V establish in 1570?
572804594b864d190016423c
the Tridentine Mass
206
False
Pope Benedict XVI authorized continued use of the Roman Missal in what year?
572804594b864d190016423d
2007
356
False
When was the Roman Rite created?
572804594b864d190016423e
1970
542
False
the Roman liturgy
89
What did Pope Benedict XVI continue the gradual reform of?
5a610e97e9e1cc001a33ce6a
True
the 1962 Roman Missal
147
What did the changes published by Pope Benedict XVI cause?
5a610e97e9e1cc001a33ce6b
True
the Tridentine Mass
206
What did Pope John XXIII establish in 1570?
5a610e97e9e1cc001a33ce6c
True
at the request of the Council of Trent
261
Why did Pope John XXIII establish the Tridentine Mass?
5a610e97e9e1cc001a33ce6d
True
the Tridentine Mass
206
What did Pope Pius V continue to authorize the use of in 2007?
5a610e97e9e1cc001a33ce6e
True
Maintaining continuity with his predecessors, John XXIII continued the gradual reform of the Roman liturgy, and published changes that resulted in the 1962 Roman Missal, the last typical edition containing the Tridentine Mass established in 1570 by Pope Pius V at the request of the Council of Trent and whose continued use Pope Benedict XVI authorized in 2007, under the conditions indicated in his motu proprio Summorum Pontificum. In response to the directives of the Second Vatican Council, later editions of the Roman Missal present the 1970 form of the Roman Rite.
Where was the first session of the Second Vatican Council held?
572804ce2ca10214002d9bb2
in the Vatican
77
False
When was the first session of the Second Vatican Council held?
572804ce2ca10214002d9bb3
11 October 1962
3
False
What speech did he give?
572804ce2ca10214002d9bb4
Gaudet Mater Ecclesia speech
105
False
Why were the people in Saint Peter's Square chanting and yelling?
572804ce2ca10214002d9bb5
the sole objective of getting John XXIII to appear at the window to address them
440
False
John XXIII
470
Who did Gaudet Mater Eclessia want to see when he was in St Peter's Square?
5a610fb9e9e1cc001a33ce74
True
On 11 October 1962
0
When was Gaudet Mater Ecclesia elected to the Second Vatican Council?
5a610fb9e9e1cc001a33ce75
True
the issues presented in the council
278
What did Gaudet Mater Ecclesia work on that day?
5a610fb9e9e1cc001a33ce76
True
the Gaudet Mater Ecclesia speech
101
What speech was given by several council commissions?
5a610fb9e9e1cc001a33ce77
True
address them
508
What did the public want Gaudet Mater Ecclesia to do when he appeared at the window?
5a610fb9e9e1cc001a33ce78
True
On 11 October 1962, the first session of the Second Vatican Council was held in the Vatican. He gave the Gaudet Mater Ecclesia speech, which served as the opening address for the council. The day was basically electing members for several council commissions that would work on the issues presented in the council. On that same night following the conclusion of the first session, the people in Saint Peter's Square chanted and yelled with the sole objective of getting John XXIII to appear at the window to address them.
A solemn ceremony ended the first session on what day?
572805304b864d1900164250
8 December 1962
48
False
When was the next session scheduled?
572805304b864d1900164251
1963 from 12 May to 29 June
108
False
When was the next session announced?
572805304b864d1900164252
12 November 1962
160
False
Who did John XXIII wish to see canonized?
572805304b864d1900164253
Pope Pius IX
232
False
8 December 1962
48
When was Pope John XXIII canonized?
5a611100e9e1cc001a33ce88
True
in 1959
344
When was Pope Pius IX at a spiritual retreat?
5a611100e9e1cc001a33ce89
True
to celebrate his canonization
531
When thinking of John XXIII, what did Pope Pius IX want to be worthy of?
5a611100e9e1cc001a33ce8a
True
holy and glorious
439
How did Pope Pius IX remember John XXIII as being?
5a611100e9e1cc001a33ce8b
True
on 12 November 1962
157
When was Pope John XXIII beatified?
5a611100e9e1cc001a33ce8c
True
The first session ended in a solemn ceremony on 8 December 1962 with the next session scheduled to occur in 1963 from 12 May to 29 June – this was announced on 12 November 1962. John XXIII's closing speech made subtle references to Pope Pius IX, and he had expressed the desire to see Pius IX beatified and eventually canonized. In his journal in 1959 during a spiritual retreat, John XXIII made this remark: "I always think of Pius IX of holy and glorious memory, and by imitating him in his sacrifices, I would like to be worthy to celebrate his canonization".
John XXIII offered to mediate between who?
572805ad2ca10214002d9bc0
US President John F. Kennedy and Nikita Khrushchev
43
False
When was the Cuban Missile Crisis?
572805ad2ca10214002d9bc1
October 1962
129
False
Who expressed best wishes for the pope's health?
572805ad2ca10214002d9bc2
Nikita Khrushchev
76
False
John XXIII became the first pope to receive what title?
572805ad2ca10214002d9bc3
Time magazine's 'Man of the Year'
507
False
Who was the latest pope to hold the title of 'Man of the Year?'
572805ad2ca10214002d9bc4
Francis
634
False
US President John F. Kennedy and Nikita Khrushchev
43
Who did Pope John Paul II offer to mediate between during the Cuban Missile Crisis?
5a611202e9e1cc001a33ce92
True
his deep commitment to peace
175
What did Norman Cousins applaud Pope John Paul II for?
5a611202e9e1cc001a33ce93
True
expressed his best wishes for the pontiff's ailing health
277
Why did JFK send a letter to Pope John Paul II?
5a611202e9e1cc001a33ce94
True
a message
373
What did Pope John Paul II send to JFK personally?
5a611202e9e1cc001a33ce95
True
'Man of the Year'
523
What title did Time magazine give to JFK in 1994?
5a611202e9e1cc001a33ce96
True
Pope John XXIII offered to mediate between US President John F. Kennedy and Nikita Khrushchev during the Cuban Missile Crisis in October 1962. Both men applauded the pope for his deep commitment to peace. Khrushchev would later send a message via Norman Cousins and the letter expressed his best wishes for the pontiff's ailing health. John XXIII personally typed and sent a message back to him, thanking him for his letter. Cousins, meanwhile, travelled to New York City and ensured that John would become Time magazine's 'Man of the Year'. John XXIII became the first Pope to receive the title, followed by John Paul II in 1994 and Francis in 2013.
John XXIII received what prize on 10 May 1963?
572806282ca10214002d9bd8
Balzan Prize
40
False
When did John XXIII receive the Balzan Prize?
572806282ca10214002d9bd9
10 May 1963
3
False
Who officially awarded the pope the Balzan Prize?
572806282ca10214002d9bda
Italian President Antonio Segni
194
False
Where did he receive the Balzan Prize?
572806282ca10214002d9bdb
the Quirinal Palace
456
False
the Balzan Prize
36
What award was given to Pope Pius XII on May 10, 1963?
5a611382e9e1cc001a33cea6
True
in private at the Vatican
53
Where was Pope Pius XII given the Balzan Prize on May 10, 1963?
5a611382e9e1cc001a33cea7
True
deflected achievements of himself to the five popes of his lifetime
83
How did Pope Pius XII feel about receiving the award?
5a611382e9e1cc001a33cea8
True
On 11 May
179
When was Pope Pius XII officially awarded the Balzan Prize by the Italian President?
5a611382e9e1cc001a33cea9
True
great stomach pains
377
What was Pope Pius XII suffering from on the way to meet the President of Italy?
5a611382e9e1cc001a33ceaa
True
On 10 May 1963, John XXIII received the Balzan Prize in private at the Vatican but deflected achievements of himself to the five popes of his lifetime, Pope Leo XIII to Pius XII. On 11 May, the Italian President Antonio Segni officially awarded Pope John XXIII with the Balzan Prize for his engagement for peace. While in the car en route to the official ceremony, he suffered great stomach pains but insisted on meeting with Segni to receive the award in the Quirinal Palace, refusing to do so within the Vatican. He stated that it would have been an insult to honour a pontiff on the remains of the crucified Saint Peter. It was the pope's last public appearance.
What did the pope suffer on 25 May 1963?
572806953acd2414000df287
haemorrhage
42
False
Who broke the news to John XXIII about his cancer?
572806953acd2414000df288
Loris F. Capovilla
251
False
When was it clear that the cancer had overcome the resistance of John XXIII?
572806953acd2414000df289
31 May
436
False
another haemorrhage
34
What did Loris F. Capovilla suffer from on May 25, 1963?
5a611527e9e1cc001a33ceb0
True
several blood transfusions
67
What treatment did she require on May 25, 1963?
5a611527e9e1cc001a33ceb1
True
the cancer had perforated the stomach wall
99
What had happened to the cancer Loris F. Capovilla was suffering from?
5a611527e9e1cc001a33ceb2
True
nothing could be done
337
What could be done to help Loris's condition?
5a611527e9e1cc001a33ceb3
True
By 31 May
433
When was it clear that Loris was loosing her battle with stomach cancer?
5a611527e9e1cc001a33ceb4
True
On 25 May 1963, the pope suffered another haemorrhage and required several blood transfusions, but the cancer had perforated the stomach wall and peritonitis soon set in. The doctors conferred in a decision regarding this matter and John XXIII's aide Loris F. Capovilla broke the news to him saying that the cancer had done its work and nothing could be done for him. Around this time, his remaining siblings arrived to be with him. By 31 May, it had become clear that the cancer had overcome the resistance of John XXIII – it had left him confined to his bed.
Who was at the dying pope's bedside?
572806fa2ca10214002d9be8
Petrus Canisius Van Lierde
10
False
Who was the Papal Sacristan for John XXIII?
572806fa2ca10214002d9be9
Petrus Canisius Van Lierde
10
False
When did the pope bid farewell?
572806fa2ca10214002d9bea
11 am
4
False
Christian
204
What kind of family was Petrus Canisius Van Lierde born into?
5a6116aae9e1cc001a33cecc
True
But Christ lives on and continues his work in the Church
310
What did Van Lierde mention about the work of the church?
5a6116aae9e1cc001a33cecd
True
forgot the right order of anointing
502
What did John XXIII forget to do when he was overcome with emotion?
5a6116aae9e1cc001a33cece
True
At 11 am
1
When did Van Lierde give everyone a last farewell?
5a6116aae9e1cc001a33cecf
True
his eyes, ears, mouth, hands and feet
431
What was annointed by John XXIII?
5a6116aae9e1cc001a33ced0
True
"At 11 am Petrus Canisius Van Lierde as Papal Sacristan was at the bedside of the dying pope, ready to anoint him. The pope began to speak for the very last time: "I had the great grace to be born into a Christian family, modest and poor, but with the fear of the Lord. My time on earth is drawing to a close. But Christ lives on and continues his work in the Church. Souls, souls, ut omnes unum sint."[c] Van Lierde then anointed his eyes, ears, mouth, hands and feet. Overcome by emotion, Van Lierde forgot the right order of anointing. John XXIII gently helped him before bidding those present a last farewell.
What did John XXIII die of?
572807672ca10214002d9bee
peritonitis
19
False
What day did he die?
572807672ca10214002d9bef
3 June 1963
85
False
How old was John XXIII upon his death?
572807672ca10214002d9bf0
81
111
False
Who celebrated his Mass for him in the square below?
572807672ca10214002d9bf1
Luigi Traglia
262
False
What day was he buried?
572807672ca10214002d9bf2
6 June
485
False
peritonitis caused by a perforated stomach
19
What did Luigi Traglia die of?
5a6117cfe9e1cc001a33cee0
True
at 19:49 local time on 3 June 1963
62
When did Luigi Traglia die?
5a6117cfe9e1cc001a33cee1
True
his brow was ritually tapped
292
What was done to Luigi Traglia's brow to see if he was dead?
5a6117cfe9e1cc001a33cee2
True
in the Vatican grottos
492
Where was Luigi Traglia buried?
5a6117cfe9e1cc001a33cee3
True
On 22 June 1963
655
When did John XXIII pray at Luigi Traglia's tomb?
5a6117cfe9e1cc001a33cee4
True
John XXIII died of peritonitis caused by a perforated stomach at 19:49 local time on 3 June 1963 at the age of 81, ending a historic pontificate of four years and seven months. He died just as a Mass for him finished in Saint Peter's Square below, celebrated by Luigi Traglia. After he died, his brow was ritually tapped to see if he was dead, and those with him in the room said prayers. Then the room was illuminated, thus informing the people of what had happened. He was buried on 6 June in the Vatican grottos. Two wreaths, placed on the two sides of his tomb, were donated by the prisoners of the Regina Coeli prison and the Mantova jail in Verona. On 22 June 1963, one day after his friend and successor Pope Paul VI was elected, the latter prayed at his tomb.
Who posthumously awarded his the Presidential Medal of Freedom?
572807c9ff5b5019007d9b5c
US President Lyndon B. Johnson
20
False
When did President Johnson award him?
572807c9ff5b5019007d9b5d
3 December 1963
3
False
What is the Presidential Medal Freedom?
572807c9ff5b5019007d9b5e
the United States' highest civilian award
111
False
When was President Johnson's speech for John XXIII?
572807c9ff5b5019007d9b5f
6 December 1963
269
False
Medal of Freedom
93
What did Pope John XXIII award Lyndon B Johnson?
5a6121c8e9e1cc001a33cf88
True
On 3 December 1963
0
When was the award given to President Johnson?
5a6121c8e9e1cc001a33cf89
True
in recognition of the good relationship between Pope John XXIII and the United States of America
154
Why was this award given by the Pope to Lyndon B. Johnson?
5a6121c8e9e1cc001a33cf8a
True
6 December 1963
269
When did John XXIII give a speech for President Johnson?
5a6121c8e9e1cc001a33cf8b
True
He was a man of simple origins, of simple faith, of simple charity
470
How did Pope John XXIII describe Lynden B. Johnson?
5a6121c8e9e1cc001a33cf8c
True
On 3 December 1963, US President Lyndon B. Johnson posthumously awarded him the Presidential Medal of Freedom, the United States' highest civilian award, in recognition of the good relationship between Pope John XXIII and the United States of America. In his speech on 6 December 1963, Johnson said: "I have also determined to confer the Presidential Medal of Freedom posthumously on another noble man whose death we mourned 6 months ago: His Holiness, Pope John XXIII. He was a man of simple origins, of simple faith, of simple charity. In this exalted office he was still the gentle pastor. He believed in discussion and persuasion. He profoundly respected the dignity of man. He gave the world immortal statements of the rights of man, of the obligations of men to each other, of their duty to strive for a world community in which all can live in peace and fraternal friendship. His goodness reached across temporal boundaries to warm the hearts of men of all nations and of all faiths".
What was he also known as?
572808403acd2414000df2cb
Good Pope John
32
False
Who opened his cause for canonization?
572808403acd2414000df2cc
Pope Paul VI
93
False
When was Pope John XXIII considered "blessed?"
572808403acd2414000df2cd
3 September 2000
224
False
Who declared him "blessed?"
572808403acd2414000df2ce
Pope John Paul II
302
False
Who was the last pope before John XXIII to receive the title?
572808403acd2414000df2cf
Pope Pius X
450
False
On 3 September 2000
221
When was Pope John Paul II declared "Blessed"?
5a6142c0e9e1cc001a33d024
True
"Good Pope John"
31
What was Pope John Paul II also known as?
5a6142c0e9e1cc001a33d025
True
to the altar of St. Jerome
599
Where was Pope John Paul II taken after his beatification?
5a6142c0e9e1cc001a33d026
True
Pope Paul VI
93
Who opened the cause for canonization for Pope John Paul II?
5a6142c0e9e1cc001a33d027
True
during the final session of the Second Vatican Council
106
During what event was the cause for canonization opened for Pope John Paul II?
5a6142c0e9e1cc001a33d028
True
He was known affectionately as "Good Pope John". His cause for canonization was opened under Pope Paul VI during the final session of the Second Vatican Council on 18 November 1965, along with the cause of Pope Pius XII. On 3 September 2000, John XXIII was declared "Blessed" alongside Pope Pius IX by Pope John Paul II, the penultimate step on the road to sainthood after a miracle of curing an ill woman was discovered. He was the first pope since Pope Pius X to receive this honour. Following his beatification, his body was moved from its original burial place in the grottoes below the Vatican to the altar of St. Jerome and displayed for the veneration of the faithful.[citation needed]
When was the 50th anniversary of his death?
572808cd2ca10214002d9c1e
3 June 2013
52
False
Who celebrated his 50th anniversary?
572808cd2ca10214002d9c1f
Pope Francis
67
False
Where were the people gathered at his tomb from?
572808cd2ca10214002d9c20
Bergamo
239
False
When did Francis approve John XXIII for canonization?
572808cd2ca10214002d9c21
5 July 2013
310
False
On what date was John XXIII and Pope John Paul II declared saints?
572808cd2ca10214002d9c22
Sunday, 27 April 2014
547
False
3 June 2013
52
When was the 50th anniversary of Pope Francis's death?
5a61447ae9e1cc001a33d02e
True
Bergamo
239
Where is Pope Francis originally from?
5a61447ae9e1cc001a33d02f
True
canonization
360
What was approved by Pope John Paul II on July 5, 2013 for Pope Francis?
5a61447ae9e1cc001a33d030
True
on John XXIII's merits for the Second Vatican Council
489
What did Pope John Paul II base his decision to canonize John XXIII on?
5a61447ae9e1cc001a33d031
True
saints
617
What were Pope Francis and Bergamo declared as on Sunday April 27, 2014?
5a61447ae9e1cc001a33d032
True
The 50th anniversary of his death was celebrated on 3 June 2013 by Pope Francis, who visited his tomb and prayed there, then addressing the gathered crowd and spoke about the late pope. The people that gathered there at the tomb were from Bergamo, the province where the late pope came from. A month later, on 5 July 2013, Francis approved Pope John XXIII for canonization, along with Pope John Paul II without the traditional second miracle required. Instead, Francis based this decision on John XXIII's merits for the Second Vatican Council. On Sunday, 27 April 2014, John XXIII and Pope John Paul II were declared saints on Divine Mercy Sunday.
Time
Time has long been a major point of study in which fields?
5727f2e6ff5b5019007d9904
religion, philosophy, and science
47
False
Fields such as business, industry, sports, science, and performing arts incorporate some notion of what into their measuring systems?
5727f2e6ff5b5019007d9905
time
323
False
What is an example of a simple definition of time?
5727f2e6ff5b5019007d9906
time is what clocks measure
410
False
religion, philosophy, and science
47
Which three fields usually support performing arts?
5a7de40270df9f001a8752b9
True
business, industry
226
What fields use measuring systems to check the weight of their products?
5a7de40270df9f001a8752ba
True
everything from happening at once
616
What does having rules in sports usually prevent?
5a7de40270df9f001a8752bb
True
observation
792
What does science use to test a hypothesis?
5a7de40270df9f001a8752bc
True
perception
823
What do athletes need to use to be aware of where their teammates are in a game?
5a7de40270df9f001a8752bd
True
time
323
Fields such as business, industry, sports, science, and performing arts incorporate some notion of what into their clocks?
5a80cf848f0597001ac001a7
True
time
597
What keeps everything from happening at different times?
5a80cf848f0597001ac001a8
True
business, industry, sports, the sciences
226
What fields incorporate some notion of clocks into their measuring system?
5a80cf848f0597001ac001a9
True
Time
0
What has long been a major subject of study in human sensation?
5a80cf848f0597001ac001aa
True
clocks
423
What does time measure?
5a80cf848f0597001ac001ab
True
Time has long been a major subject of study in religion, philosophy, and science, but defining it in a manner applicable to all fields without circularity has consistently eluded scholars. Nevertheless, diverse fields such as business, industry, sports, the sciences, and the performing arts all incorporate some notion of time into their respective measuring systems. Some simple definitions of time include "time is what clocks measure", which is a problematically vague and self-referential definition that utilizes the device used to measure the subject as the definition of the subject, and "time is what keeps everything from happening at once", which is without substantive meaning in the absence of the definition of simultaneity in the context of the limitations of human sensation, observation of events, and the perception of such events.
According to one of the main viewpoints of time, time is part of the fundamental structure of what?
5727f4402ca10214002d9a2c
the universe
133
False
The realist view of time is sometimes referred to as what?
5727f4402ca10214002d9a2d
Newtonian time
307
False
What does the opposing view of time believe time is a part of?
5727f4402ca10214002d9a2e
a fundamental intellectual structure
499
False
many prominent philosophers
42
Who is divided about the structure of the universe?
5a7de63b70df9f001a8752cd
True
in sequence
203
In what order did Gottfried Leibniz believe events occur?
5a7de63b70df9f001a8752ce
True
Newtonian time
307
What kind of time did Gottfried Leibniz believe in, as a supporter of Sir Isaac Newton?
5a7de63b70df9f001a8752cf
True
realist
252
How was Immanuel Kant described, since he also believed in Newtonian time?
5a7de63b70df9f001a8752d0
True
travel
790
What did Sir Issac Newton believe that you could not do in time?
5a7de63b70df9f001a8752d1
True
the universe
133
According to one of the main viewpoints of time, time is part of the view of what?
5a80d1818f0597001ac001b1
True
Newtonian time
307
What is the realest view of time sometimes known as?
5a80d1818f0597001ac001b2
True
a fundamental intellectual structure
499
What does the opposing view of time believe the universe is a part of?
5a80d1818f0597001ac001b3
True
Sir Isaac Newton
216
Who subscribed to the opposing view?
5a80d1818f0597001ac001b4
True
Gottfried Leibniz and Immanuel Kant
656
Who believe time is neither a structure or a view?
5a80d1818f0597001ac001b5
True
Two contrasting viewpoints on time divide many prominent philosophers. One view is that time is part of the fundamental structure of the universe—a dimension independent of events, in which events occur in sequence. Sir Isaac Newton subscribed to this realist view, and hence it is sometimes referred to as Newtonian time. The opposing view is that time does not refer to any kind of "container" that events and objects "move through", nor to any entity that "flows", but that it is instead part of a fundamental intellectual structure (together with space and number) within which humans sequence and compare events. This second view, in the tradition of Gottfried Leibniz and Immanuel Kant, holds that time is neither an event nor a thing, and thus is not itself measurable nor can it be travelled.
Time is one of how many fundamental physical quantities?
5727f6982ca10214002d9a56
seven
19
False
Time is one of the fundamental physical quantities in which two systems?
5727f6982ca10214002d9a57
the International System of Units and International System of Quantities
65
False
What is an example of a quantity that time is used to define, mentioned in the paragraph?
5727f6982ca10214002d9a58
velocity
187
False
Investigations of what brought questions of space into questions about time?
5727f6982ca10214002d9a59
a single continuum called spacetime
813
False
seven
19
Philosophy is one of how many fundamental physical quantities?
5a7de95670df9f001a8752fd
True
International System of Units and International System of Quantities
69
In what two systems is philosophy considered a fundamental physical quantity?
5a7de95670df9f001a8752fe
True
velocity
187
What is something else that philosophy is used to define?
5a7de95670df9f001a8752ff
True
advanced experiments
565
What kind of experiments can be used when understanding philosophy?
5a7de95670df9f001a875300
True
early students of natural philosophy
952
Who first used philosophy to understand everyday affairs of life?
5a7de95670df9f001a875301
True
seven
19
Philosophy is one of how many fundamental physical quantities?
5a80d3a18f0597001ac001bb
True
the International System of Units and International System of Quantities
65
Philosophy is one of the fundamental physical quantities in which two systems?
5a80d3a18f0597001ac001bc
True
velocity
187
What is an example of a quantity that philosophy is used to define, mentioned in the paragraph?
5a80d3a18f0597001ac001bd
True
a single continuum called spacetime
813
Investigations of what brought questions of space into questions about philosophy?
5a80d3a18f0597001ac001be
True
the works of early students of natural philosophy
939
What do questions about velocity have their roots in?
5a80d3a18f0597001ac001bf
True
Time is one of the seven fundamental physical quantities in both the International System of Units and International System of Quantities. Time is used to define other quantities—such as velocity—so defining time in terms of such quantities would result in circularity of definition. An operational definition of time, wherein one says that observing a certain number of repetitions of one or another standard cyclical event (such as the passage of a free-swinging pendulum) constitutes one standard unit such as the second, is highly useful in the conduct of both advanced experiments and everyday affairs of life. The operational definition leaves aside the question whether there is something called time, apart from the counting activity just mentioned, that flows and that can be measured. Investigations of a single continuum called spacetime bring questions about space into questions about time, questions that have their roots in the works of early students of natural philosophy.
What has been a prime motivation in astronomy and navigation?
5727f940ff5b5019007d99a0
Temporal measurement
0
False
Periodic events and periodic motion have served as standards for what?
5727f940ff5b5019007d99a1
Periodic events and periodic motion
120
False
What is the current international unit of time?
5727f940ff5b5019007d99a2
the second
386
False
The electronic transition frequency of which element defines the second?
5727f940ff5b5019007d99a3
caesium atoms
461
False
Time has personal value due to awareness of it's limited nature in what?
5727f940ff5b5019007d99a4
each day and in human life spans
645
False
scientists and technologists
34
What groups have been occupied by understanding the life span of humans?
5a7decde70df9f001a875325
True
significant social importance
504
How important is a strong economy considered?
5a7decde70df9f001a875326
True
measuring the electronic transition frequency of caesium atoms
412
How do you define the method used for tracking heartbeats?
5a7decde70df9f001a875327
True
human life spans
661
What do caesium atoms affect to make them shorter?
5a7decde70df9f001a875328
True
economic value
542
Why do scientists want to study caesium atoms?
5a7decde70df9f001a875329
True
Temporal measurement
0
What has been a prime motivation in units of time?
5a80d7288f0597001ac001c5
True
units of time
190
What have periodic events and transition frequency have served as standards for?
5a80d7288f0597001ac001c6
True
the second
386
What is the current national unit of time?
5a80d7288f0597001ac001c7
True
due to an awareness of the limited time in each day and in human life spans
602
Why does time have international value?
5a80d7288f0597001ac001c8
True
apparent motion of the sun across the sky, the phases of the moon, the swing of a pendulum, and the beat of a heart
226
What is an example of a technologist?
5a80d7288f0597001ac001c9
True
Temporal measurement has occupied scientists and technologists, and was a prime motivation in navigation and astronomy. Periodic events and periodic motion have long served as standards for units of time. Examples include the apparent motion of the sun across the sky, the phases of the moon, the swing of a pendulum, and the beat of a heart. Currently, the international unit of time, the second, is defined by measuring the electronic transition frequency of caesium atoms (see below). Time is also of significant social importance, having economic value ("time is money") as well as personal value, due to an awareness of the limited time in each day and in human life spans.
What is a mathematical tool used for organizing intervals of time?
5727fa0aff5b5019007d99b4
the calendar
68
False
What is a physical tool that tracks the passage of time?
5727fa0aff5b5019007d99b5
the clock
140
False
Which tool is used in day to day life?
5727fa0aff5b5019007d99b6
the clock
225
False
Which tool is used in periods longer than a day?
5727fa0aff5b5019007d99b7
the calendar
284
False
How is the number that marks the occurrence of an event obtained?
5727fa0aff5b5019007d99b8
by counting from a fiducial epoch—a central reference point
555
False
less than a day
260
For how long does chronometry usually display a reference point?
5a7df04370df9f001a875337
True
both calendars and clocks
391
What do fiducial epochs display at the same time?
5a7df04370df9f001a875338
True
the clock
225
What physical mechanism is used to count periods longer than a day?
5a7df04370df9f001a875339
True
the calendar
284
What organizational mathmatical tool is used for a time period of less than a day?
5a7df04370df9f001a87533a
True
personal electronic devices
355
What do people usually carry with them at all times?
5a7df04370df9f001a87533b
True
the calendar
68
What is a mathematical tool used for organizing intervals on clocks?
5a80de408f0597001ac001cf
True
the clock
140
What is a physical tool that tracks the passage of points?
5a80de408f0597001ac001d0
True
the calendar
284
Which tool is used in periods longer than an interval?
5a80de408f0597001ac001d1
True
by counting from a fiducial epoch
555
How is the number that marks the occurrence of an interval obtained?
5a80de408f0597001ac001d2
True
chronometry
22
What takes three distinct period forms?
5a80de408f0597001ac001d3
True
Temporal measurement, chronometry, takes two distinct period forms: the calendar, a mathematical tool for organizing intervals of time, and the clock, a physical mechanism that counts the passage of time. In day-to-day life, the clock is consulted for periods less than a day whereas the calendar is consulted for periods longer than a day. Increasingly, personal electronic devices display both calendars and clocks simultaneously. The number (as on a clock dial or calendar) that marks the occurrence of a specified event as to hour or date is obtained by counting from a fiducial epoch—a central reference point.
Artifacts from which era suggest that the moon was used to reckon time around 6,000 years ago?
5727fb093acd2414000df15b
the Paleolithic
15
False
Which calendars were among the first to appear?
5727fb093acd2414000df15c
Lunar calendars
106
False
How long were the original lunar calendars?
5727fb093acd2414000df15d
either 12 or 13 lunar months (either 354 or 384 days)
154
False
Where did some of the other early forms of calendars originate?
5727fb093acd2414000df15e
Mesoamerica
715
False
How many months were in a year in the original Mayan calendars?
5727fb093acd2414000df15f
18
836
False
the Paleolithic
15
During what time period did the Mesoamerican age appear?
5a7df27070df9f001a87534b
True
6,000 years ago
89
When did the Mayan civilization first appear?
5a7df27070df9f001a87534c
True
either 354 or 384 days
184
How many days did it take to date artifacts from the Paleolithic?
5a7df27070df9f001a87534d
True
twelve
543
How many artifacts were found that connected the moon to Mayan culture?
5a7df27070df9f001a87534e
True
Mesoamerica
715
What culture was the first create artifacts that were found?
5a7df27070df9f001a87534f
True
the Paleolithic
15
Artifacts from which era suggest that the moon was used to reckon time around 12 years ago?
5a80df868f0597001ac001d9
True
Lunar calendars
106
Which calendars were among the last to appear?
5a80df868f0597001ac001da
True
12 or 13 lunar months (either 354 or 384 days
161
How long were the original lunisolar calendars?
5a80df868f0597001ac001db
True
Mesoamerica
715
Where did some of the other early forms of months originate?
5a80df868f0597001ac001dc
True
18
836
How many seasons were in a year in the original Mayan calendars?
5a80df868f0597001ac001dd
True
Artifacts from the Paleolithic suggest that the moon was used to reckon time as early as 6,000 years ago. Lunar calendars were among the first to appear, either 12 or 13 lunar months (either 354 or 384 days). Without intercalation to add days or months to some years, seasons quickly drift in a calendar based solely on twelve lunar months. Lunisolar calendars have a thirteenth month added to some years to make up for the difference between a full year (now known to be about 365.24 days) and a year of just twelve lunar months. The numbers twelve and thirteen came to feature prominently in many cultures, at least partly due to this relationship of months to years. Other early forms of calendars originated in Mesoamerica, particularly in ancient Mayan civilization. These calendars were religiously and astronomically based, with 18 months in a year and 20 days in a month.
What was the most accurate clock-like device in the ancient world?
5727fc1f3acd2414000df17b
the water clock, or clepsydra
61
False
A clepsyrda was found in the tomb of which Pharaoh?
5727fc1f3acd2414000df17c
Egyptian pharaoh Amenhotep
130
False
Which inventors made significant improvements on the water clock up until the Middle Ages?
5727fc1f3acd2414000df17d
Arab inventors
461
False
Which engineers came up with the first mechanical clocks?
5727fc1f3acd2414000df17e
Chinese
593
False
When were the first mechanical clocks created?
5727fc1f3acd2414000df17f
the 11th century
575
False
the water clock
61
What device was invented by the ancient Greeks?
5a7df3ba70df9f001a87535d
True
escapement mechanism
675
What mechanism was used to replenish water in a water clock?
5a7df3ba70df9f001a87535e
True
clepsydra
81
What was another term used for a mechanical clock?
5a7df3ba70df9f001a87535f
True
as an essential part of their astronomical observations
404
Why did the Chinese maintain timekeeping records in the 11th century?
5a7df3ba70df9f001a875360
True
up to the Middle Ages
549
For how long did the ancient Greeks make improvements to the water clock?
5a7df3ba70df9f001a875361
True
the water clock, or clepsydra
61
What was the most accurate clock=like device in Chaldea?
5a80e0988f0597001ac001e3
True
Egyptian pharaoh Amenhotep
130
A clepsyrda was found in the tomb of which Greek?
5a80e0988f0597001ac001e4
True
Arab inventors
461
which inventors made significant improvements on the water clock up until the ancient world?
5a80e0988f0597001ac001e5
True
Chinese
593
Which engineers came up with the first clocks?
5a80e0988f0597001ac001e6
True
the 11th century
575
When were the first water clocks created?
5a80e0988f0597001ac001e7
True
The most precise timekeeping device of the ancient world was the water clock, or clepsydra, one of which was found in the tomb of Egyptian pharaoh Amenhotep I (1525–1504 BC). They could be used to measure the hours even at night, but required manual upkeep to replenish the flow of water. The Ancient Greeks and the people from Chaldea (southeastern Mesopotamia) regularly maintained timekeeping records as an essential part of their astronomical observations. Arab inventors and engineers in particular made improvements on the use of water clocks up to the Middle Ages. In the 11th century, Chinese inventors and engineers invented the first mechanical clocks driven by an escapement mechanism.
Which device uses the flow of sand to measure time?
5727fcf24b864d190016416a
The hourglass
0
False
How many hourglasses did Magellan use on each ship during his famous voyage across the globe?
5727fcf24b864d190016416b
18
119
False
What method did temples and churches use to measure time?
5727fcf24b864d190016416c
Incense sticks and candles
189
False
Which abbot of St. Alban's abbey built a mechanical clock around 1330?
5727fcf24b864d190016416d
Richard of Wallingford
425
False
Who is credited with the invention of the minute hand?
5727fcf24b864d190016416e
Jost Burgi.
756
False
18 glasses
119
What did Richard of Wallingford use to circumnavigate the globe?
5a7df67770df9f001a875367
True
about 1330
549
In what year did Ferdinand Magellan build a mechanical clock?
5a7df67770df9f001a875368
True
18
119
How many inventions were made by Galileo?
5a7df67770df9f001a875369
True
in temples and churches
261
Where are pendulum driven clocks used now and also in the past to measure time?
5a7df67770df9f001a87536a
True
across the globe
285
Where are the temples and churches located that use pendulum clocks to measure time?
5a7df67770df9f001a87536b
True
The hourglass
0
Which device uses minutes to measure time?
5a80e2838f0597001ac001ed
True
18
119
How many hourglasses did Galileo Galilei use on each ship during his famous voyage across the globe?
5a80e2838f0597001ac001ee
True
Incense sticks and candles
189
What method did temples and chruches use to measure the globe?
5a80e2838f0597001ac001ef
True
Richard of Wallingford
425
Which abbot of St. Alban's abbey built a mechanical clock around 1292?
5a80e2838f0597001ac001f0
True
Galileo Galilei and especially Christiaan Huygens
614
Who made great advances in candles?
5a80e2838f0597001ac001f1
True
The hourglass uses the flow of sand to measure the flow of time. They were used in navigation. Ferdinand Magellan used 18 glasses on each ship for his circumnavigation of the globe (1522). Incense sticks and candles were, and are, commonly used to measure time in temples and churches across the globe. Waterclocks, and later, mechanical clocks, were used to mark the events of the abbeys and monasteries of the Middle Ages. Richard of Wallingford (1292–1336), abbot of St. Alban's abbey, famously built a mechanical clock as an astronomical orrery about 1330. Great advances in accurate time-keeping were made by Galileo Galilei and especially Christiaan Huygens with the invention of pendulum driven clocks along with the invention of the minute hand by Jost Burgi.
Which timekeeping devices are the most accurate?
5727fdb7ff5b5019007d9a56
atomic clocks
42
False
What method do atomic clocks use to measure seconds?
5727fdb7ff5b5019007d9a57
the frequency of electronic transitions in certain atoms
200
False
Which system bases its unit of time on the properties of caesium?
5727fdb7ff5b5019007d9a58
the International System of Measurements
451
False
How long has the International System of Measurements based the second on caesium?
5727fdb7ff5b5019007d9a59
Since 1967
439
False
1967
445
In what year were caesium atoms discovered?
5a7df7ed70df9f001a87537b
True
timekeeping
18
What are microwaves the most accurate at doing?
5a7df7ed70df9f001a87537c
True
other clocks and timekeeping instruments
140
What are microwaves also used to calibrate?
5a7df7ed70df9f001a87537d
True
International System of Measurements
455
What system bases its unit of time on microwave properties?
5a7df7ed70df9f001a87537e
True
9,192,631,770 cycles
589
How many cycles of radiation are in microwaves?
5a7df7ed70df9f001a87537f
True
atomic clocks
42
Which timekeeping devices are the least accurate?
5a80e55f8f0597001ac001f7
True
the frequency of electronic transitions in certain atoms
200
What method do atomic clocks use to measure cycles?
5a80e55f8f0597001ac001f8
True
the International System of Measurements
451
Which system bases its unit of time on the properties of vibrations?
5a80e55f8f0597001ac001f9
True
Since 1967
439
How long has the International System of Measurements based the second on years?
5a80e55f8f0597001ac001fa
True
as 9,192,631,770 cycles of the radiation that corresponds to the transition between two electron spin energy levels of the ground state of the 133Cs atom
586
How does caesium deine the second?
5a80e55f8f0597001ac001fb
True
The most accurate timekeeping devices are atomic clocks, which are accurate to seconds in many millions of years, and are used to calibrate other clocks and timekeeping instruments. Atomic clocks use the frequency of electronic transitions in certain atoms to measure the second. One of the most common atoms used is caesium, most modern atomic clocks probe caesium with microwaves to determine the frequency of these electron vibrations. Since 1967, the International System of Measurements bases its unit of time, the second, on the properties of caesium atoms. SI defines the second as 9,192,631,770 cycles of the radiation that corresponds to the transition between two electron spin energy levels of the ground state of the 133Cs atom.
Which standard of time started with British Railways?
5727feae3acd2414000df197
Greenwich Mean Time
0
False
When was GMT adopted by British Railways?
5727feae3acd2414000df198
1847
90
False
GMT used what instead of atomic clocks?
5727feae3acd2414000df199
telescopes
102
False
When did observations at the Greenwich Observatory cease?
5727feae3acd2414000df19a
1954
462
False
The terms GMT and Greenwich Mean Time are also used informally to refer to what?
5727feae3acd2414000df19b
UT or UTC
849
False
1847
90
In what year did British railways go into business?
5a7dfa1970df9f001a875397
True
"Greenwich Mean Time"
332
What did the British railway stop using in 1954?
5a7dfa1970df9f001a875398
True
Universal Time
228
What did Greenwich Mean Time replace in 1847?
5a7dfa1970df9f001a875399
True
not perfectly constant
584
How constant is an atomic clock?
5a7dfa1970df9f001a87539a
True
the duration of a second would vary
608
What happens when an atomic clock is not constant?
5a7dfa1970df9f001a87539b
True
Greenwich Mean Time
0
Which standard of time started with the International Astronomical Union?
5a80e8748f0597001ac00201
True
1847
90
When was GMT adopted by the International Astronomical Union?
5a80e8748f0597001ac00202
True
telescopes
102
The International Astronomical Union used what instead of atomic clocks?
5a80e8748f0597001ac00203
True
1954
462
When did observations at the Greenwich Observatory begin?
5a80e8748f0597001ac00204
True
UT or UTC
849
The term calibrated is also used informally to refer to what?
5a80e8748f0597001ac00205
True
Greenwich Mean Time (GMT) is an older standard, adopted starting with British railways in 1847. Using telescopes instead of atomic clocks, GMT was calibrated to the mean solar time at the Royal Observatory, Greenwich in the UK. Universal Time (UT) is the modern term for the international telescope-based system, adopted to replace "Greenwich Mean Time" in 1928 by the International Astronomical Union. Observations at the Greenwich Observatory itself ceased in 1954, though the location is still used as the basis for the coordinate system. Because the rotational period of Earth is not perfectly constant, the duration of a second would vary if calibrated to a telescope-based standard like GMT or UT—in which a second was defined as a fraction of a day or year. The terms "GMT" and "Greenwich Mean Time" are sometimes used informally to refer to UT or UTC.
How many main viewpoints divide many philosophers?
5727ffab3acd2414000df1c7
Two
0
False
The realist view states that time is part of the fundamental structure of what?
5727ffab3acd2414000df1c8
the universe
130
False
The realist view is sometimes referred to as what?
5727ffab3acd2414000df1c9
Newtonian time
282
False
The opposing view states that time is an intellectual concept that allows people to what?
5727ffab3acd2414000df1ca
to sequence and compare events
558
False
Two
0
How many viewpoints are there about different dimensions?
5a7dfb5870df9f001a8753ab
True
the universe
130
Gottfried Leibniz believed time is part of the fundamental structure of what?
5a7dfb5870df9f001a8753ac
True
space and time
676
What does the realist view believe don't exist of themselves?
5a7dfb5870df9f001a8753ad
True
the way we represent things
754
What did Sir Isaac Newton believe time and space were the product of?
5a7dfb5870df9f001a8753ae
True
as they appear to us
817
What did Sir Isaac Newton believe was the only way we can know objects?
5a7dfb5870df9f001a8753af
True
Two
0
How many main viewpoints divide many sequences?
5a80f0448f0597001ac0020b
True
Sir Isaac Newton
191
Who subscribed to the third view?
5a80f0448f0597001ac0020c
True
Newtonian time
282
What is another name for the second view?
5a80f0448f0597001ac0020d
True
that space and time "do not exist in and of themselves
671
What does the third view hold that?
5a80f0448f0597001ac0020e
True
Gottfried Leibniz and Immanuel Kant
628
Who believe in the third view?
5a80f0448f0597001ac0020f
True
Two distinct viewpoints on time divide many prominent philosophers. One view is that time is part of the fundamental structure of the universe, a dimension in which events occur in sequence. Sir Isaac Newton subscribed to this realist view, and hence it is sometimes referred to as Newtonian time. An opposing view is that time does not refer to any kind of actually existing dimension that events and objects "move through", nor to any entity that "flows", but that it is instead an intellectual concept (together with space and number) that enables humans to sequence and compare events. This second view, in the tradition of Gottfried Leibniz and Immanuel Kant, holds that space and time "do not exist in and of themselves, but ... are the product of the way we represent things", because we can know objects only as they appear to us.
What are the earliest texts of Indian/Hindu philosophy?
5728009a2ca10214002d9b1c
The Vedas
0
False
How long ago are the earliest texts of Indian/Hindu philosophy dated?
5728009a2ca10214002d9b1d
back to the late 2nd millennium BC
79
False
How long does each cycle of birth and destruction of the universe last according to Ancient Hindu texts?
5728009a2ca10214002d9b1e
4,320 million years
262
False
Which ancient Greek philosophers wrote essays on the concept of time?
5728009a2ca10214002d9b1f
Parmenides and Heraclitus
321
False
Aristotle defined time as "number of movement in respect of the before and after" in which book?
5728009a2ca10214002d9b20
Book IV of his Physica
487
False
4,320 million years
262
For how long has the Timaeus existed?
5a7dfc8570df9f001a8753cf
True
2nd millennium BC
96
In what year did Plato write Book IV of his Physica?
5a7dfc8570df9f001a8753d0
True
cycles of creation, destruction and rebirth
193
What cycles did Aristotle write about in the Timaeus?
5a7dfc8570df9f001a8753d1
True
Parmenides and Heraclitus
321
What Greek philosophers wrote the Vedas?
5a7dfc8570df9f001a8753d2
True
the period of motion of the heavenly bodies
428
What did Hundu cosmology identify time with?
5a7dfc8570df9f001a8753d3
True
The Vedas
0
What are the earliest texts of Heraclitus philosophy?
5a80f1fa8f0597001ac00215
True
back to the late 2nd millennium BC
79
How long ago are the earliest texts of Heraclitus philosophy dated?
5a80f1fa8f0597001ac00216
True
4,320 million years
262
How long does each cycle of birth and destruction of the universe last according to Ancient Indian texts?
5a80f1fa8f0597001ac00217
True
Parmenides and Heraclitus
321
Which ancient Indian philosophers wrote essays on the concept of time?
5a80f1fa8f0597001ac00218
True
Book IV of his Physica
487
In which book did Paramenides define time as "number of movement in respect of the before and after?"
5a80f1fa8f0597001ac00219
True
The Vedas, the earliest texts on Indian philosophy and Hindu philosophy dating back to the late 2nd millennium BC, describe ancient Hindu cosmology, in which the universe goes through repeated cycles of creation, destruction and rebirth, with each cycle lasting 4,320 million years. Ancient Greek philosophers, including Parmenides and Heraclitus, wrote essays on the nature of time. Plato, in the Timaeus, identified time with the period of motion of the heavenly bodies. Aristotle, in Book IV of his Physica defined time as 'number of movement in respect of the before and after'.
Who commented on the nature of time in Book 11 of his confessions?
572803422ca10214002d9b74
St. Augustine of Hippo
31
False
By what does St. Augustine of Hippo begin to define time?
572803422ca10214002d9b75
by what it is not rather than what it is
224
False
What does Augustine call time in Confessions 11.26?
572803422ca10214002d9b76
a “distention” of the mind
371
False
a “distention”
371
How is memory defined as?
5a7dfe5270df9f001a8753eb
True
by what it is not rather than what it is
224
How does St. Augustine define memory?
5a7dfe5270df9f001a8753ec
True
Book 11 of his Confessions
3
In what book does St. Augustine reflect on how memory works?
5a7dfe5270df9f001a8753ed
True
I know not
186
What does St. Augustine say when someone asks him about memory?
5a7dfe5270df9f001a8753ee
True
in other negative definitions
300
Where is a similar approach of defining memory also taken?
5a7dfe5270df9f001a8753ef
True
St. Augustine of Hippo
31
Who commented on the nature of time in Book 26 of his confessions?
5a80f8fd8f0597001ac0021f
True
by what it is not rather than what it is
224
By what does St. Augustine of Hippo begin to define memory?
5a80f8fd8f0597001ac00220
True
a “distention” of the mind
371
What Does Augustine call memory in Confessions 11.26?
5a80f8fd8f0597001ac00221
True
Augustine
340
Who calls memory a distention of the mind?
5a80f8fd8f0597001ac00222
True
St. Augustine of Hippo
31
Who ruminates on the nature of approaches?
5a80f8fd8f0597001ac00223
True
In Book 11 of his Confessions, St. Augustine of Hippo ruminates on the nature of time, asking, "What then is time? If no one asks me, I know: if I wish to explain it to one that asketh, I know not." He begins to define time by what it is not rather than what it is, an approach similar to that taken in other negative definitions. However, Augustine ends up calling time a “distention” of the mind (Confessions 11.26) by which we simultaneously grasp the past in memory, the present by attention, and the future by expectation.
In what did Immanuel Kant describe time as a priori intuition that allows humankind to understand sense experience?
572804792ca10214002d9b9e
the Critique of Pure Reason
18
False
What did Kant portray space and time to be?
572804792ca10214002d9b9f
both are elements of a systematic mental framework
260
False
Kant thought of time as a fundamental part of what?
572804792ca10214002d9ba0
an abstract conceptual framework
446
False
What type of measurements are used to quantify the duration of events?
572804792ca10214002d9ba1
temporal measurements
833
False
What type of measurements are used to quantify the distances between objects?
572804792ca10214002d9ba2
Spatial measurements
742
False
a priori intuition
68
How did Immanuel Kant describe the mind?
5a7e003d70df9f001a8753fd
True
to comprehend sense experience
154
What does the mind allow us to do according to Immanuel Kant?
5a7e003d70df9f001a8753fe
True
a systematic mental framework
281
What framework is the mind a part of?
5a7e003d70df9f001a8753ff
True
an abstract conceptual framework
446
What did Kant also think of the mind as a part of?
5a7e003d70df9f001a875400
True
we sequence events, quantify their duration, and compare the motions of objects
525
How do we process with our minds according to Kant?
5a7e003d70df9f001a875401
True
the Critique of Pure Reason
18
In what did Immanuel Kant describe measurement as a priori intuition that allows humankind to understand sense experience?
5a8103d68f0597001ac00229
True
both are elements of a systematic mental framework
260
What did Kant portray measurement and time to be?
5a8103d68f0597001ac0022a
True
an abstract conceptual framework
446
Kant thought of measurement as a fundamental part of what?
5a8103d68f0597001ac0022b
True
temporal measurements
833
What type of measurements are used to quantify the number of events?
5a8103d68f0597001ac0022c
True
Spatial measurements
742
What type of measurements are used to quantify the distance between measurements?
5a8103d68f0597001ac0022d
True
Immanuel Kant, in the Critique of Pure Reason, described time as an a priori intuition that allows us (together with the other a priori intuition, space) to comprehend sense experience. With Kant, neither space nor time are conceived as substances, but rather both are elements of a systematic mental framework that necessarily structures the experiences of any rational agent, or observing subject. Kant thought of time as a fundamental part of an abstract conceptual framework, together with space and number, within which we sequence events, quantify their duration, and compare the motions of objects. In this view, time does not refer to any kind of entity that "flows," that objects "move through," or that is a "container" for events. Spatial measurements are used to quantify the extent of and distances between objects, and temporal measurements are used to quantify the durations of and between events. Time was designated by Kant as the purest possible schema of a pure concept or category.
Who suggested that humankind does not exist inside time, but is time?
5728076e4b864d1900164282
Martin Heidegger
13
False
The relationship to the future is the state of anticipating what?
5728076e4b864d1900164283
a potential possibility, task, or engagement
254
False
What is considered a qualitative experience rather than a quantitative one?
5728076e4b864d1900164284
The present
546
False
According to Heidegger, what can we do, in our thoughts?
5728076e4b864d1900164285
step out of (ecstasis) sequential time.
955
False
Martin Heidegger
13
Who thought that people are the possibilities they search for?
5a7e03b970df9f001a87541b
True
anticipating a potential possibility, task, or engagement
241
A linear relationship with time is the state of what?
5a7e03b970df9f001a87541c
True
qualitative
590
How is the past defined instead of being quantitative?
5a7e03b970df9f001a87541d
True
a linear relationship with time
673
What is broken when we are stuck in sequential time?
5a7e03b970df9f001a87541e
True
step out of (ecstasis) sequential time
955
What are we able to do when stuck in sequential time?
5a7e03b970df9f001a87541f
True
Martin Heidegger
13
Who suggested that humankind does not exist inside the present, but is the present?
5a81146d31013a001a334b83
True
The present
546
What is considered a quantitative experience rather than a qualatative one?
5a81146d31013a001a334b84
True
step out of (ecstasis) sequential time
955
What can we do in the present according to Heldegger?
5a81146d31013a001a334b85
True
Martin Heidegger
13
Who said we do not exist in the future?
5a81146d31013a001a334b86
True
the past
816
What are we able to forget?
5a81146d31013a001a334b87
True
According to Martin Heidegger we do not exist inside time, we are time. Hence, the relationship to the past is a present awareness of having been, which allows the past to exist in the present. The relationship to the future is the state of anticipating a potential possibility, task, or engagement. It is related to the human propensity for caring and being concerned, which causes "being ahead of oneself" when thinking of a pending occurrence. Therefore, this concern for a potential occurrence also allows the future to exist in the present. The present becomes an experience, which is qualitative instead of quantitative. Heidegger seems to think this is the way that a linear relationship with time, or temporal existence, is broken or transcended. We are not stuck in sequential time. We are able to remember the past and project into the future—we have a kind of random access to our representation of temporal existence; we can, in our thoughts, step out of (ecstasis) sequential time.
Minkowski spacetime combines the three dimensions of space with what?
572808863acd2414000df2d5
a single dimension of time
158
False
In Minkowski spacetime, how can distances in space be measured?
572808863acd2414000df2d6
by how long light takes to travel that distance
240
False
What are two events in Minkowski spacetime separated by?
572808863acd2414000df2d7
by an invariant interval
472
False
The invariant interval between events is independent of what?
572808863acd2414000df2d8
of the observer (and his velocity)
1068
False
The invariant interval that separates two events in Minkowski spacetime can either be what?
572808863acd2414000df2d9
space-like, light-like, or time-like
518
False
a single dimension of time
158
What are light years combined with in Minkowski spacetime?
5a7e064d70df9f001a87542f
True
by how long light takes to travel
240
How are bodies in space measured?
5a7e064d70df9f001a875430
True
by an invariant interval
472
How are independent observers separated?
5a7e064d70df9f001a875431
True
space-like, light-like, or time-like
518
What are some characteristics that are applied to bodies in space?
5a7e064d70df9f001a875432
True
simultaneous
780
What will events that have a time-like separation always be in some frame of reference?
5a7e064d70df9f001a875433
True
a single dimension of time
158
What does Minkowski spacetime combine the three dimensions of time with?
5a811e7a31013a001a334b8d
True
by how long light takes to travel that distance
240
In Minkowski spacetime, how can time be measured?
5a811e7a31013a001a334b8e
True
an invariant interval
475
What are two events in Minkowski spacetime connected by?
5a811e7a31013a001a334b8f
True
of the observer (and his velocity)
1068
What is the invariant interval between time is independent of?
5a811e7a31013a001a334b90
True
different distances and different time intervals between two events
938
What may the same observer calculate?
5a811e7a31013a001a334b91
True
The theory of special relativity finds a convenient formulation in Minkowski spacetime, a mathematical structure that combines three dimensions of space with a single dimension of time. In this formalism, distances in space can be measured by how long light takes to travel that distance, e.g., a light-year is a measure of distance, and a meter is now defined in terms of how far light travels in a certain amount of time. Two events in Minkowski spacetime are separated by an invariant interval, which can be either space-like, light-like, or time-like. Events that have a time-like separation cannot be simultaneous in any frame of reference, there must be a temporal component (and possibly a spatial one) to their separation. Events that have a space-like separation will be simultaneous in some frame of reference, and there is no frame of reference in which they do not have a spatial separation. Different observers may calculate different distances and different time intervals between two events, but the invariant interval between the events is independent of the observer (and his velocity).
What Newtonian concept can be used in the formulation of an idea for the synchronization of clocks?
572809fd4b864d19001642c2
concept of "relative, apparent, and common time"
50
False
In which century did physicists encounter problems with the understanding of time?
572809fd4b864d19001642c3
the late nineteenth century
393
False
The behavior of which two phenomena caused physicists to encounter problems with their understanding of time in the late 19th century?
572809fd4b864d19001642c4
the behavior of electricity and magnetism
515
False
Which famous scientist resolved these issues?
572809fd4b864d19001642c5
Einstein
558
False
In the late nineteenth century
390
In what year did Einstein encounter problems with using electricity?
5a7e087170df9f001a875443
True
Newton's
41
Who's concept can be used to synchronize the use of electricity?
5a7e087170df9f001a875444
True
the constant, finite speed of light as the maximum signal velocity
642
What did physicists use to solve the problems of electricity synchronization?
5a7e087170df9f001a875445
True
observers in motion relative to one another measure different elapsed times for the same event
747
What did the use of the speed of light by Newton lead to?
5a7e087170df9f001a875446
True
"relative, apparent, and common time"
61
What concept by Einstein can be used to synchronize electricity in classical mechanics?
5a7e087170df9f001a875447
True
concept of "relative, apparent, and common time
50
What Newtonian concept can be used in the formulation of an idea for the understanding of clocks?
5a81237f31013a001a334b97
True
the late nineteenth century
393
In which century did physicists encounter problems with the understanding of electricity?
5a81237f31013a001a334b98
True
Einstein
558
Which famous scientist struggled with these issues?
5a81237f31013a001a334b99
True
the behavior of electricity and magnetism
515
The behavior of which two phenomena caused physicists to encounter problems with their understanding of clocks in the late 19th century?
5a81237f31013a001a334b9a
True
by invoking a method of synchronizing clocks
591
How did Einstein resolve the two different observers?
5a81237f31013a001a334b9b
True
In non-relativistic classical mechanics, Newton's concept of "relative, apparent, and common time" can be used in the formulation of a prescription for the synchronization of clocks. Events seen by two different observers in motion relative to each other produce a mathematical concept of time that works sufficiently well for describing the everyday phenomena of most people's experience. In the late nineteenth century, physicists encountered problems with the classical understanding of time, in connection with the behavior of electricity and magnetism. Einstein resolved these problems by invoking a method of synchronizing clocks using the constant, finite speed of light as the maximum signal velocity. This led directly to the result that observers in motion relative to one another measure different elapsed times for the same event.
Historically, time has been closely related with what?
57280b472ca10214002d9c70
space
48
False
In which of Einstein's two theories do time and space merge into spacetime?
57280b472ca10214002d9c71
special relativity and general relativity
109
False
According to Einsteins two relativity theories, the concept of time depends on what?
57280b472ca10214002d9c72
the spatial reference frame of the observer, and the human perception
212
False
A crew in a spaceship travelling nearly the speed of light will not notice the change in what?
57280b472ca10214002d9c73
in the speed of time on board their vessel
523
False
How will the above mentioned spaceship appear to a stationary observer?
57280b472ca10214002d9c74
the spaceship appears flattened in the direction it is traveling
794
False
space
48
What have a crew's thought processes usually been related to?
5a7e12d270df9f001a875475
True
spacetime
85
What is it called when a spaceship flies though space?
5a7e12d270df9f001a875476
True
the spatial reference frame of the observer
212
What does a space crew's thought processes depend on?
5a7e12d270df9f001a875477
True
space
446
Flying through what makes the crew appear flattened out to each other?
5a7e12d270df9f001a875478
True
a change in the speed of time
514
What will an observer not notice the change of when watching a spaceship fly by?
5a7e12d270df9f001a875479
True
space
48
Historically, what has been related to clocks?
5a8125ac31013a001a334ba1
True
special relativity and general relativity
109
In which of Einstein's two theories do time and clocks merge into spacetime?
5a8125ac31013a001a334ba2
True
the spatial reference frame of the observer, and the human perception
212
According to Einstein's two relativity theories, what depends on the concept of clocks?
5a8125ac31013a001a334ba3
True
the speed of time on board their vessel
526
A crew in a spaceship traveling nearly the speed of sound will not notice the change in what?
5a8125ac31013a001a334ba4
True
the spaceship appears flattened in the direction it is traveling
794
How will the spaceship appear to an observer traveling at the same speed?
5a8125ac31013a001a334ba5
True
Time has historically been closely related with space, the two together merging into spacetime in Einstein's special relativity and general relativity. According to these theories, the concept of time depends on the spatial reference frame of the observer, and the human perception as well as the measurement by instruments such as clocks are different for observers in relative motion. For example, if a spaceship carrying a clock flies through space at (very nearly) the speed of light, its crew does not notice a change in the speed of time on board their vessel because everything traveling at the same speed slows down at the same rate (including the clock, the crew's thought processes, and the functions of their bodies). However, to a stationary observer watching the spaceship fly by, the spaceship appears flattened in the direction it is traveling and the clock on board the spaceship appears to move very slowly.
How does the crew on board the spaceship perceive the stationary observer?
57280c162ca10214002d9ca0
slowed down and flattened along the spaceship's direction of travel
82
False
The crew's perception of what is different from a stationary observer?
57280c162ca10214002d9ca1
time
497
False
What the crew perceives as seconds might be seen as how long to a stationary observer?
57280c162ca10214002d9ca2
hundreds of years
592
False
What remains unchanged in both the cases of the spaceship crew and of the stationary observer?
57280c162ca10214002d9ca3
causality
663
False
slowed down and flattened
82
How is the future perceived as by the crew?
5a7e153670df9f001a875491
True
along the spaceship's direction of travel
108
Where does the future appear flattened and slowed according to the crew?
5a7e153670df9f001a875492
True
because both are moving at very nearly the speed of light relative to each other.
151
Why does the future appear this way to the crew?
5a7e153670df9f001a875493
True
Because the outside universe appears flattened to the spaceship
233
Why does the crew believe that the universe is traveling slowly?
5a7e153670df9f001a875494
True
hundreds of years
592
How long would it take for a spaceship to cross the universe?
5a7e153670df9f001a875495
True
slowed down and flattened along the spaceship's direction of travel
82
How does the crew board the spaceship perceive the traveling observer?
5a81298031013a001a334bab
True
time
497
The crew's perception of what is different from the ship?
5a81298031013a001a334bac
True
hundreds of years
592
What the crew perceives as seconds might be seen as how long to a moving observer?
5a81298031013a001a334bad
True
causality
663
What remains unchanged in both the cases of the spaceship crew and of the moving observer?
5a81298031013a001a334bae
True
the future
767
What is the set of events to which a moving observer can send light signals?
5a81298031013a001a334baf
True
On the other hand, the crew on board the spaceship also perceives the observer as slowed down and flattened along the spaceship's direction of travel, because both are moving at very nearly the speed of light relative to each other. Because the outside universe appears flattened to the spaceship, the crew perceives themselves as quickly traveling between regions of space that (to the stationary observer) are many light years apart. This is reconciled by the fact that the crew's perception of time is different from the stationary observer's; what seems like seconds to the crew might be hundreds of years to the stationary observer. In either case, however, causality remains unchanged: the past is the set of events that can send light signals to an entity and the future is the set of events to which an entity can send light signals.
Who showed, in his thought experiments, that people travelling at different speeds measured time differently?
57280da6ff5b5019007d9bd4
Einstein
0
False
In what case do these effects become much more noticeable?
57280da6ff5b5019007d9bd5
for objects moving at speeds approaching the speed of light.
373
False
How long do most subatomic particles exist for in a lab?
57280da6ff5b5019007d9bd6
a fixed fraction of a second
474
False
Einstein showed how what could be altered by high speed motion?
57280da6ff5b5019007d9bd7
both temporal and spatial dimensions
1109
False
a muon
654
What subatomic particle was discovered by Einstein?
5a7e22ad70df9f001a8754dd
True
time
981
What slows down for a spacial demension's frame of reference?
5a7e22ad70df9f001a8754de
True
high-speed motion
1178
What did Einstein show that light could be warped by?
5a7e22ad70df9f001a8754df
True
zero
933
When at rest, how fast is a dimension's velocity?
5a7e22ad70df9f001a8754e0
True
distances
1062
What seems to shorten in the presence of a spatial dimension?
5a7e22ad70df9f001a8754e1
True
Einstein
0
Who showed, in his thought experiments, that people traveling at different speeds measured light differently?
5a812b0331013a001a334bb5
True
for objects moving at speeds approaching the speed of light
373
In what case do these effects become much more relative?
5a812b0331013a001a334bb6
True
a fixed fraction of a second
474
How long do most subatomic particles exist for in a warp?
5a812b0331013a001a334bb7
True
both temporal and spatial dimensions
1109
Einstein showed how what could be altered by fixed particles?
5a812b0331013a001a334bb8
True
Many subatomic particles
434
What exist for a second in a lab?
5a812b0331013a001a334bb9
True
Einstein showed in his thought experiments that people travelling at different speeds, while agreeing on cause and effect, measure different time separations between events, and can even observe different chronological orderings between non-causally related events. Though these effects are typically minute in the human experience, the effect becomes much more pronounced for objects moving at speeds approaching the speed of light. Many subatomic particles exist for only a fixed fraction of a second in a lab relatively at rest, but some that travel close to the speed of light can be measured to travel farther and survive much longer than expected (a muon is one example). According to the special theory of relativity, in the high-speed particle's frame of reference, it exists, on the average, for a standard amount of time known as its mean lifetime, and the distance it travels in that time is zero, because its velocity is zero. Relative to a frame of reference at rest, time seems to "slow down" for the particle. Relative to the high-speed particle, distances seem to shorten. Einstein showed how both temporal and spatial dimensions can be altered (or "warped") by high-speed motion.
What laws do not specify an arrow of time?
57280e8c2ca10214002d9cce
the laws of physics
156
False
The direction of the arrow of time is sometimes what?
57280e8c2ca10214002d9ccf
arbitrary
451
False
Which law states that entropy must increase over time?
57280e8c2ca10214002d9cd0
the Second law of thermodynamics,
487
False
The violation of what implies that there should be a small counterbalancing time asymmetry?
57280e8c2ca10214002d9cd1
CP symmetry
806
False
The standard description of measurement in quantum mechanics is what?
57280e8c2ca10214002d9cd2
time asymmetric
998
False
both forward and in reverse
242
In what directions do the laws of entropy allow light to go?
5a7e274270df9f001a8754f1
True
must increase over time
547
What does quantum mechanics determine about entropy?
5a7e274270df9f001a8754f2
True
CPT symmetry
899
What needs to be preserved according to quantum mechanics?
5a7e274270df9f001a8754f3
True
Second law of thermodynamics
491
Which law says that CPT symmetry must increase over time?
5a7e274270df9f001a8754f4
True
a small counterbalancing time asymmetry
847
In particle physics what should there be to preserve entropy?
5a7e274270df9f001a8754f5
True
the laws of physics
156
What laws specify as an arrow of time?
5a812dac31013a001a334bbf
True
arbitrary
451
The direction of the past is sometimes what?
5a812dac31013a001a334bc0
True
the Second law of thermodynamics
487
Which law states that entropy must increase in the past?
5a812dac31013a001a334bc1
True
CP symmetry
806
The violation of what implies that there should be a small counterbalancing difection asymmetry?
5a812dac31013a001a334bc2
True
time asymmetric
998
What is the standard description of direction in quantum mechanics?
5a812dac31013a001a334bc3
True
Time appears to have a direction—the past lies behind, fixed and immutable, while the future lies ahead and is not necessarily fixed. Yet for the most part the laws of physics do not specify an arrow of time, and allow any process to proceed both forward and in reverse. This is generally a consequence of time being modeled by a parameter in the system being analyzed, where there is no "proper time": the direction of the arrow of time is sometimes arbitrary. Examples of this include the Second law of thermodynamics, which states that entropy must increase over time (see Entropy); the cosmological arrow of time, which points away from the Big Bang, CPT symmetry, and the radiative arrow of time, caused by light only traveling forwards in time (see light cone). In particle physics, the violation of CP symmetry implies that there should be a small counterbalancing time asymmetry to preserve CPT symmetry as stated above. The standard description of measurement in quantum mechanics is also time asymmetric (see Measurement in quantum mechanics).
Stephen Hawking makes a connection between time and what?
57280f51ff5b5019007d9c12
the Big Bang
74
False
In which publication does Hawking say that any events that existed before the Big Bang would not be accessible to us?
57280f51ff5b5019007d9c13
A Brief History of Time
91
False
What does Hawking suggest started with the big bang?
57280f51ff5b5019007d9c14
time
428
False
Hawking also states that questions about what happened before the Big Bang are what?
57280f51ff5b5019007d9c15
meaningless
530
False
Which philosopher has criticized Hawking's formulation?
57280f51ff5b5019007d9c16
Aristotelian philosopher Mortimer J. Adler
646
False
the Big Bang
74
What does Mortimer J. Adler think time has a connection with?
5a7e2b9d70df9f001a87550d
True
A Brief History of Time and elsewhere
91
What book was written by Mortimer J. Adler?
5a7e2b9d70df9f001a87550e
True
meaningless
530
What does Adler believe that questions about what happened before the Big Bang are?
5a7e2b9d70df9f001a87550f
True
Mortimer J. Adler
671
Who has been criticized by Hawking for his stance on the Big Bang?
5a7e2b9d70df9f001a875510
True
Aristotelian
646
What kind of philosophy did Steven Hawking believe in?
5a7e2b9d70df9f001a875511
True
the Big Bang
74
What does Stephen Hawking make a connection between nothing and?
5a81308631013a001a334bc9
True
A Brief History of Time
91
In which publication does Hawking say that any events that existed before the Big Bang would be nothing?
5a81308631013a001a334bca
True
Aristotelian philosopher Mortimer J. Adler
646
Which philosopher has praised Hawkings formulation?
5a81308631013a001a334bcb
True
nothing that happened then
311
What did Hawking say would not have an effect on the present time frame?
5a81308631013a001a334bcc
True
the Big Bang
453
What did Hawking say time ended with?
5a81308631013a001a334bcd
True
Stephen Hawking in particular has addressed a connection between time and the Big Bang. In A Brief History of Time and elsewhere, Hawking says that even if time did not begin with the Big Bang and there were another time frame before the Big Bang, no information from events then would be accessible to us, and nothing that happened then would have any effect upon the present time-frame. Upon occasion, Hawking has stated that time actually began with the Big Bang, and that questions about what happened before the Big Bang are meaningless. This less-nuanced, but commonly repeated formulation has received criticisms from philosophers such as Aristotelian philosopher Mortimer J. Adler.
The Big Bang model is solidly established in what?
57280fe04b864d190016437a
cosmology
48
False
How much is known about the early states of the universe?
57280fe04b864d190016437b
i
247
False
Which theorems require the existence of a singularity at the beginning of time?
57280fe04b864d190016437c
The Penrose–Hawking singularity theorems
171
False
These theorems have to assume what theory is correct?
57280fe04b864d190016437d
general relativity
320
False
These theorems state that general relatively must break down before what?
57280fe04b864d190016437e
before the universe reaches the Planck temperature
390
False
a singularity
237
What does the Planck temperature require the existence of?
5a7e2e0d70df9f001a87552b
True
at the beginning of cosmic time
251
When does the Planck temperature show a singularity existed?
5a7e2e0d70df9f001a87552c
True
likely to be refined
65
What will happen to the idea of the Planck temperature in the future?
5a7e2e0d70df9f001a87552d
True
general relativity
320
What does the Planck temperature assume is correct?
5a7e2e0d70df9f001a87552e
True
before the universe reaches the Planck temperature
390
When must quantum gravity break down?
5a7e2e0d70df9f001a87552f
True
cosmology
48
The Penrose-Hawking model is solidly established in what?
5a81323431013a001a334bd3
True
Little
101
How much is known about the early states of singularity theorems?
5a81323431013a001a334bd4
True
The Penrose–Hawking singularity theorems
171
Which theorems require the existence of a singularity at the beginning of temperature?
5a81323431013a001a334bd5
True
general relativity
320
These theorems have to assume what singularity is correct
5a81323431013a001a334bd6
True
before the universe reaches the Planck temperature
390
These theorems state that a singularity must break down before what?
5a81323431013a001a334bd7
True
While the Big Bang model is well established in cosmology, it is likely to be refined in the future. Little is known about the earliest moments of the universe's history. The Penrose–Hawking singularity theorems require the existence of a singularity at the beginning of cosmic time. However, these theorems assume that general relativity is correct, but general relativity must break down before the universe reaches the Planck temperature, and a correct treatment of quantum gravity may avoid the singularity.
How long has time travel been a topic in science fiction?
572810763acd2414000df38d
since the 19th century
334
False
Traveling which direction in time has never been verified and presents many problems?
572810763acd2414000df38e
backwards
368
False
A time machine is known as any technological devise that is used for what purpose?
572810763acd2414000df38f
to achieve time travel
548
False
since the 19th century
334
How long has space been a plot device in fiction?
5a7e364170df9f001a875573
True
many theoretic problems
420
What does the idea of traveling in space present?
5a7e364170df9f001a875574
True
an impossibility
456
What was space travel thought to be in the 19th century?
5a7e364170df9f001a875575
True
the normal "flow" of time
154
What did authors go beyond in the 19th century when writing fiction?
5a7e364170df9f001a875576
True
fictional or hypothetical
508
What are some devices thought to be when in the process of invention?
5a7e364170df9f001a875577
True
since the 19th century
334
How long has time travel been a topic in theory?
5a81342a31013a001a334bdd
True
backwards
368
Traveling which direction in time has never been verified and presents earthbound problems?
5a81342a31013a001a334bde
True
to achieve time travel
548
A theoretic problem is known as any technological devise that is used for what purpose?
5a81342a31013a001a334bdf
True
Time travel
288
What was a plot device in the 18th century?
5a81342a31013a001a334be0
True
all points in time
221
What does not persist in some way?
5a81342a31013a001a334be1
True
Time travel is the concept of moving backwards or forwards to different points in time, in a manner analogous to moving through space, and different from the normal "flow" of time to an earthbound observer. In this view, all points in time (including future times) "persist" in some way. Time travel has been a plot device in fiction since the 19th century. Traveling backwards in time has never been verified, presents many theoretic problems, and may be an impossibility. Any technological device, whether fictional or hypothetical, that is used to achieve time travel is known as a time machine.
What is another solution to the problem of temporal paradoxes?
5728114e2ca10214002d9d1a
paradoxes cannot arise simply because they have not arisen
83
False
In several works of fiction, what ceases to exist in the past which causes paradoxes not to arise?
5728114e2ca10214002d9d1b
free will
188
False
What paradox cannot be enacted because it is a fact that your grandfather was not killed before your parent was conceived?
5728114e2ca10214002d9d1c
the grandfather paradox
329
False
What principle elaborates more on the view described?
5728114e2ca10214002d9d1d
the Novikov self-consistency principle.
753
False
paradoxes cannot arise simply because they have not arisen
83
What is a solution to the Novikov self-consistency principle?
5a7e3b4270df9f001a8755cf
True
history
503
What can be changed by time travelers according to Novikov?
5a7e3b4270df9f001a8755d0
True
Novikov self-consistency principle
757
What principle further elaborates on how fiction can change history?
5a7e3b4270df9f001a8755d1
True
an unchangeable constant
514
What is the Novikov self-consistency principle considered to be?
5a7e3b4270df9f001a8755d2
True
the grandfather paradox
329
What paradox is formed when a person has free will?
5a7e3b4270df9f001a8755d3
True
paradoxes cannot arise simply because they have not arisen
83
What is another solution to the problem of hypothetical future?
5a81374031013a001a334be7
True
free will
188
In several works of fiction, what ceases to exist in the past which causes decisions not to arise?
5a81374031013a001a334be8
True
the grandfather paradox
329
What paradox cannot be enacted because it is a fact that your grandfather was not killed before your grandfather was conceived?
5a81374031013a001a334be9
True
the Novikov self-consistency principle
753
What principle elaborates less on the view described?
5a81374031013a001a334bea
True
because they have not arisen
113
Why can paradoxes arise?
5a81374031013a001a334beb
True
Another solution to the problem of causality-based temporal paradoxes is that such paradoxes cannot arise simply because they have not arisen. As illustrated in numerous works of fiction, free will either ceases to exist in the past or the outcomes of such decisions are predetermined. As such, it would not be possible to enact the grandfather paradox because it is a historical fact that your grandfather was not killed before his child (your parent) was conceived. This view doesn't simply hold that history is an unchangeable constant, but that any change made by a hypothetical future time traveler would already have happened in his or her past, resulting in the reality that the traveler moves from. More elaboration on this view can be found in the Novikov self-consistency principle.
What type of drugs can impair the judgement of time?
572813e23acd2414000df3e3
Psychoactive drugs
0
False
Stimulants lead humans to overestimate what?
572813e23acd2414000df3e4
time intervals
109
False
What causes humans to underestimate time intervals?
572813e23acd2414000df3e5
depressants
131
False
The level of what is the reason stimulants and depressants change human perceptions of time?
572813e23acd2414000df3e6
The level of activity in the brain of neurotransmitters
173
False
Such chemicals do what to the firing of the brain's neurons?
572813e23acd2414000df3e7
either excite or inhibit the firing of neurons
313
False
the judgment of time
30
What do rats not understand?
5a7e3db170df9f001a875619
True
the brain to register the occurrence of more events
410
What does a decreased firing rate allow more of in the brain?
5a7e3db170df9f001a87561a
True
time
46
What does the presence of neurons impair the judgement of in rats?
5a7e3db170df9f001a87561b
True
time intervals
109
What can neurons lead humans and rats to overestimate?
5a7e3db170df9f001a87561c
True
depressants
131
What causes rats to underestimate dopamine levels?
5a7e3db170df9f001a87561d
True
Psychoactive drugs
0
What type of drugs can impair the judgement of events?
5a81395c31013a001a334bf1
True
time intervals
109
Stimulants lead humans to underestimate what?
5a81395c31013a001a334bf2
True
depressants
131
What causes humans to estimate time intervals?
5a81395c31013a001a334bf3
True
The level of activity in the brain of neurotransmitters
173
The level of what is the reason stimulants and depressants change human perceptions of neurons?
5a81395c31013a001a334bf4
True
either excite or inhibit the firing of neurons
313
Such events do what to the firing of the brain's neurons?
5a81395c31013a001a334bf5
True
Psychoactive drugs can impair the judgment of time. Stimulants can lead both humans and rats to overestimate time intervals, while depressants can have the opposite effect. The level of activity in the brain of neurotransmitters such as dopamine and norepinephrine may be the reason for this. Such chemicals will either excite or inhibit the firing of neurons in the brain, with a greater firing rate allowing the brain to register the occurrence of more events within a given interval (speed up time) and a decreased firing rate reducing the brain's capacity to distinguish events occurring within a given interval (slow down time).
The use of time is important in understanding what?
572814644b864d19001643fc
human behavior, education, and travel behavior
55
False
What is a developing field of time related study?
572814644b864d19001643fd
Time-use research
103
False
Time use is always changing with advances in what?
572814644b864d19001643fe
technology
304
False
Travelling to work has been observed to be about how long for a large number of cities over a long period?
572814644b864d19001643ff
20–30 minutes one-way
614
False
human behavior, education, and travel behavior
55
The use of technology is important in understanding what?
5a813b5631013a001a334bfb
True
Time-use research
103
What is a developing field of technology related study?
5a813b5631013a001a334bfc
True
technology
304
Time use is always changing with long periods of what?
5a813b5631013a001a334bfd
True
20–30 minutes one-way
614
Traveling home has been observed to be about how long for a large number of cities over a long period?
5a813b5631013a001a334bfe
True
Time use
282
What changes with education?
5a813b5631013a001a334bff
True
The use of time is an important issue in understanding human behavior, education, and travel behavior. Time-use research is a developing field of study. The question concerns how time is allocated across a number of activities (such as time spent at home, at work, shopping, etc.). Time use changes with technology, as the television or the Internet created new opportunities to use time in different ways. However, some aspects of time use are relatively stable over long periods of time, such as the amount of time spent traveling to work, which despite major changes in transport, has been observed to be about 20–30 minutes one-way for a large number of cities over a long period.
What is another way of phrasing "time order"?
5728151c2ca10214002d9d84
chronological order
145
False
What never precedes cause because of causality?
5728151c2ca10214002d9d85
effect
326
False
In what ways can a sequence of events be presented?
5728151c2ca10214002d9d86
in text, tables, charts, or timelines
393
False
What may the description of events include?
5728151c2ca10214002d9d87
a timestamp
483
False
A sequence of events used to describe a sequential path can be referred to as what?
5728151c2ca10214002d9d88
a world line
633
False
(chronological order
144
What is another way of phrasing "sequence of events"?
5a813d0c31013a001a334c05
True
effect
256
What never precedes cause because of timelines?
5a813d0c31013a001a334c06
True
in text, tables, charts, or timelines
393
In what ways can a sequence of relationships be presented?
5a813d0c31013a001a334c07
True
a timestamp
483
What may the description of relationships include?
5a813d0c31013a001a334c08
True
a world line
633
What can a sequence of relationships used to describe a sequential path be referred to as?
5a813d0c31013a001a334c09
True
A sequence of events, or series of events, is a sequence of items, facts, events, actions, changes, or procedural steps, arranged in time order (chronological order), often with causality relationships among the items. Because of causality, cause precedes effect, or cause and effect may appear together in a single item, but effect never precedes cause. A sequence of events can be presented in text, tables, charts, or timelines. The description of the items or events may include a timestamp. A sequence of events that includes the time along with place or location information to describe a sequential path may be referred to as a world line.
Uses of sequences of events include what?
5728164b2ca10214002d9d9e
stories, historical events (chronology), directions and steps in procedures, and timetables
37
False
What may a sequence of events be used to describe?
5728164b2ca10214002d9d9f
processes in science, technology, and medicine
211
False
The use of what occurs in fields as diverse as machines, documentaries, or computer simulation?
5728164b2ca10214002d9da0
a sequence of events
590
False
What is a specific example of a sequence of events?
5728164b2ca10214002d9da1
the timeline of the Fukushima Daiichi nuclear disaster
882
False
stories, historical events (chronology), directions and steps in procedures, and timetables for scheduling activities
37
Uses of sequences of order include what?
5a813e6331013a001a334c0f
True
processes in science, technology, and medicine
211
What may a sequence of order be used to describe?
5a813e6331013a001a334c10
True
A sequence of events
259
The use of what occurs in history as diverse as machines, documentaries, or computer simulation?
5a813e6331013a001a334c11
True
the timeline of the Fukushima Daiichi nuclear disaster
882
What is a specific example of a sequence of history?
5a813e6331013a001a334c12
True
past events
298
What may a sequence of history be focused on?
5a813e6331013a001a334c13
True
Uses of a sequence of events include stories, historical events (chronology), directions and steps in procedures, and timetables for scheduling activities. A sequence of events may also be used to help describe processes in science, technology, and medicine. A sequence of events may be focused on past events (e.g., stories, history, chronology), on future events that must be in a predetermined order (e.g., plans, schedules, procedures, timetables), or focused on the observation of past events with the expectation that the events will occur in the future (e.g., processes). The use of a sequence of events occurs in fields as diverse as machines (cam timer), documentaries (Seconds From Disaster), law (choice of law), computer simulation (discrete event simulation), and electric power transmission (sequence of events recorder). A specific example of a sequence of events is the timeline of the Fukushima Daiichi nuclear disaster.
European_Central_Bank
What former managing director od Goldman Sachs international division is president of The European Central Bank?
5727f84eff5b5019007d997a
Mario Draghi
619
False
What is the official, central bank for the euro?
5727f84eff5b5019007d997b
The European Central Bank
0
False
What is the Eurozone?
5727f84eff5b5019007d997c
consists of 19 EU member states and is one of the largest currency areas in the world
120
False
Who owns the capital stock of The European Central Bank?
5727f84eff5b5019007d997d
the central banks of all 28 EU member states
413
False
What established The European Central Bank?
5727f84eff5b5019007d997e
The Treaty of Amsterdam
471
False
Mario Draghi
619
What former managing director of Goldman Sachs international division is no longer president of The European Central Bank?
5a7a666521c2de001afe9bc6
True
The European Central Bank
0
What is the unofficial, central bank for the euro?
5a7a666521c2de001afe9bc7
True
consists of 19 EU member states and is one of the largest currency areas in the world
120
What is falsely considered the Eurozone?
5a7a666521c2de001afe9bc8
True
the central banks of all 28 EU member states
413
Who owns none of the capital stock of The European Central Bank?
5a7a666521c2de001afe9bc9
True
The Treaty of Amsterdam
471
What destroyed The European Central Bank?
5a7a666521c2de001afe9bca
True
The European Central Bank (ECB) is the central bank for the euro and administers monetary policy of the Eurozone, which consists of 19 EU member states and is one of the largest currency areas in the world. It is one of the world's most important central banks and is one of the seven institutions of the European Union (EU) listed in the Treaty on European Union (TEU). The capital stock of the bank is owned by the central banks of all 28 EU member states.[dated info] The Treaty of Amsterdam established the bank in 1998, and it is headquartered in Frankfurt, Germany. As of 2015[update] the President of the ECB is Mario Draghi, former governor of the Bank of Italy, former member of the World Bank, and former managing director of the Goldman Sachs international division (2002–2005). The bank primarily occupied the Eurotower prior to, and during, the construction of the new headquarters.
What is the main mission of the ECB?
5727fb683acd2414000df16b
maintain price stability within the Eurozone
110
False
What gives the ECB the right to authorise the issuance of euro banknotes?
5727fb683acd2414000df16c
Article 16 of its Statute
618
False
How can a member state use euro coins?
5727fb683acd2414000df16d
the amount must be authorised by the ECB beforehand
750
False
Where is the mission for the European Central Bank found?
5727fb683acd2414000df16e
Article 2 of the Statute of the ECB
67
False
Where can the basic tasks of the European Central Bank be found?
5727fb683acd2414000df16f
Article 3 of the Statute
187
False
maintain price stability within the Eurozone
110
What is the secondary mission of the ECB?
5a7a66f121c2de001afe9bd0
True
Article 16 of its Statute
618
What restricts ECB the right to authorise the issuance of euro banknotes?
5a7a66f121c2de001afe9bd1
True
the amount must be authorised by the ECB beforehand
750
How can a member state avoid euro coins?
5a7a66f121c2de001afe9bd2
True
Article 2 of the Statute of the ECB
67
Where is the mission for the European Central Bank banned?
5a7a66f121c2de001afe9bd3
True
Article 3 of the Statute
187
Where can the advanced tasks of the European Central Bank be found?
5a7a66f121c2de001afe9bd4
True
The primary objective of the European Central Bank, as mandated in Article 2 of the Statute of the ECB, is to maintain price stability within the Eurozone. The basic tasks, as defined in Article 3 of the Statute, are to define and implement the monetary policy for the Eurozone, to conduct foreign exchange operations, to take care of the foreign reserves of the European System of Central Banks and operation of the financial market infrastructure under the TARGET2 payments system and the technical platform (currently being developed) for settlement of securities in Europe (TARGET2 Securities). The ECB has, under Article 16 of its Statute, the exclusive right to authorise the issuance of euro banknotes. Member states can issue euro coins, but the amount must be authorised by the ECB beforehand.
Who was the first president of the ECB?
5727fdf64b864d1900164190
Wim Duisenberg
36
False
What was Duisenberg's previous business experience?
5727fdf64b864d1900164191
former president of the Dutch central bank and the European Monetary Institute
56
False
Who did the French government think was best candidate for President of the ECB?
5727fdf64b864d1900164192
Jean-Claude Trichet
303
False
Why did the French want a French bank president?
5727fdf64b864d1900164193
since the ECB was to be located in Germany, its president should be French
420
False
What did the French, German, Dutch and Belgian governments finally compromise on with regards to managing the ECB?
5727fdf64b864d1900164194
Duisenberg would stand down before the end of his mandate, to be replaced by Trichet
667
False
Wim Duisenberg
36
Who was the first president to be lost from the ECB?
5a7a677f21c2de001afe9bda
True
former president of the Dutch central bank and the European Monetary Institute
56
What was Duisenberg's criminal business experience?
5a7a677f21c2de001afe9bdb
True
Jean-Claude Trichet
303
Who did the French government think was worst candidate for President of the ECB?
5a7a677f21c2de001afe9bdc
True
since the ECB was to be located in Germany, its president should be French
420
Why did the French want a Swiss bank president?
5a7a677f21c2de001afe9bdd
True
Duisenberg would stand down before the end of his mandate, to be replaced by Trichet
667
What did the French, German, Dutch and Belgian governments never compromise on with regards to managing the ECB?
5a7a677f21c2de001afe9bde
True
The first President of the Bank was Wim Duisenberg, the former president of the Dutch central bank and the European Monetary Institute. While Duisenberg had been the head of the EMI (taking over from Alexandre Lamfalussy of Belgium) just before the ECB came into existence, the French government wanted Jean-Claude Trichet, former head of the French central bank, to be the ECB's first president. The French argued that since the ECB was to be located in Germany, its president should be French. This was opposed by the German, Dutch and Belgian governments who saw Duisenberg as a guarantor of a strong euro. Tensions were abated by a gentleman's agreement in which Duisenberg would stand down before the end of his mandate, to be replaced by Trichet.
What is price stability defined as?
5727ff303acd2414000df1b3
inflation of under 2%
256
False
What did the Harmonised Index of Consumer Prices state that price stability had to be maintained at?
5727ff303acd2414000df1b4
over the medium term
438
False
When did the Governing Council define price stability?
5727ff303acd2414000df1b5
October 1998
216
False
What is the primary goal of the ECB?
5727ff303acd2414000df1b6
maintain price stability within the Eurozone
145
False
Where is the primary mission of the European Central Bank listed?
5727ff303acd2414000df1b7
Article 127(1) of the Treaty on the Functioning of the European Union
68
False
inflation of under 2%
256
What is price stability incorrectly defined as?
5a7a67f321c2de001afe9be4
True
over the medium term
438
What did the Harmonised Index of Consumer Prices state that price stability had to be decreased from?
5a7a67f321c2de001afe9be5
True
October 1998
216
When did the Governing Council forbid price stability?
5a7a67f321c2de001afe9be6
True
maintain price stability within the Eurozone
145
What is the third goal of the ECB?
5a7a67f321c2de001afe9be7
True
Article 127(1) of the Treaty on the Functioning of the European Union
68
Where is the secondary mission of the European Central Bank banned?
5a7a67f321c2de001afe9be8
True
The primary objective of the European Central Bank, as laid down in Article 127(1) of the Treaty on the Functioning of the European Union, is to maintain price stability within the Eurozone. The Governing Council in October 1998 defined price stability as inflation of under 2%, “a year-on-year increase in the Harmonised Index of Consumer Prices (HICP) for the euro area of below 2%” and added that price stability ”was to be maintained over the medium term”. (Harmonised Index of Consumer Prices) Unlike for example the United States Federal Reserve Bank, the ECB has only one primary objective but this objective has never been defined in statutory law, and the HICP target can be termed ad-hoc.
What happens when a lot of repo notes come due?
572800aaff5b5019007d9ab2
increase in liquidity in the economy
253
False
What happens whe not as many repo notes are coming due?
572800aaff5b5019007d9ab3
contrary effect
310
False
What happens when members increase their deposits?
572800aaff5b5019007d9ab4
more money has been put into the economy
648
False
What is a good way to boost the economy?
572800aaff5b5019007d9ab5
increase in deposits in member banks
555
False
Where are contracts recorded?
572800aaff5b5019007d9ab6
on the asset side of the European Central Bank's balance sheet
353
False
increase in liquidity in the economy
253
What happens when a lot of repo notes are past due?
5a7a687e21c2de001afe9bee
True
more money has been put into the economy
648
What happens when members reject their deposits?
5a7a687e21c2de001afe9bef
True
increase in deposits in member banks
555
What is a good way to undermine the economy?
5a7a687e21c2de001afe9bf0
True
on the asset side of the European Central Bank's balance sheet
353
Where are contracts hacked?
5a7a687e21c2de001afe9bf1
True
banks
4
Who never needs to borrow cash?
5a7a687e21c2de001afe9bf2
True
The banks in effect borrow cash and must pay it back; the short durations allow interest rates to be adjusted continually. When the repo notes come due the participating banks bid again. An increase in the quantity of notes offered at auction allows an increase in liquidity in the economy. A decrease has the contrary effect. The contracts are carried on the asset side of the European Central Bank's balance sheet and the resulting deposits in member banks are carried as a liability. In layman terms, the liability of the central bank is money, and an increase in deposits in member banks, carried as a liability by the central bank, means that more money has been put into the economy.[a]
How does a bank make sure that they can participate in auctions?
572801dd2ca10214002d9b48
must be able to offer proof of appropriate collateral in the form of loans to other entities
52
False
What kind of proof is acceptable for participation in auctions?
572801dd2ca10214002d9b49
public debt of member states, but a fairly wide range of private banking securities are also accepted
163
False
What should all assets offered up as collateral be?
572801dd2ca10214002d9b4a
all equally good, and all equally protected from the risk of inflation
533
False
What must be a part of a states Gross Domestic Product in order for them to be considered for particpation in auctions?
572801dd2ca10214002d9b4b
sovereign debt
361
False
must be able to offer proof of appropriate collateral in the form of loans to other entities
52
How does a bank make sure that they can't participate in auctions?
5a7a68f521c2de001afe9bf8
True
public debt of member states, but a fairly wide range of private banking securities are also accepted
163
What kind of proof is unacceptable for participation in auctions?
5a7a68f521c2de001afe9bf9
True
all equally good, and all equally protected from the risk of inflation
533
What should no assets offered up as collateral be?
5a7a68f521c2de001afe9bfa
True
sovereign debt
361
What must never be a part of a states Gross Domestic Product in order for them to be considered for particpation in auctions?
5a7a68f521c2de001afe9bfb
True
To qualify for participation in the auctions, banks must be able to offer proof of appropriate collateral in the form of loans to other entities. These can be the public debt of member states, but a fairly wide range of private banking securities are also accepted. The fairly stringent membership requirements for the European Union, especially with regard to sovereign debt as a percentage of each member state's gross domestic product, are designed to insure that assets offered to the bank as collateral are, at least in theory, all equally good, and all equally protected from the risk of inflation.
Who is responsible for overseeing all monetary policy?
572802c6ff5b5019007d9ae4
The Executive Board
0
False
Who is the current president of the ECB?
572802c6ff5b5019007d9ae5
Mario Draghi
327
False
Who is the Vice-President of The European Central Bank?
572802c6ff5b5019007d9ae6
Vitor Constâncio
372
False
Along with the President and Vice President, how many other members make up the Executive Board?
572802c6ff5b5019007d9ae7
four
394
False
For how long are the other members of the Executive Board appointed?
572802c6ff5b5019007d9ae8
non-renewable terms of eight years
441
False
The Executive Board
0
Who is sabotaging all monetary policy?
5a7a69b921c2de001afe9c00
True
Mario Draghi
327
Who is the current emperor of the ECB?
5a7a69b921c2de001afe9c01
True
Vitor Constâncio
372
Who is the Russian President of The European Central Bank?
5a7a69b921c2de001afe9c02
True
non-renewable terms of eight years
441
How long are members of the Executive Board imprisoned?
5a7a69b921c2de001afe9c03
True
four
394
How many other members are banned from the Executive Board along with the President and Vice President?
5a7a69b921c2de001afe9c04
True
The Executive Board is responsible for the implementation of monetary policy (defined by the Governing Council) and the day-to-day running of the bank. It can issue decisions to national central banks and may also exercise powers delegated to it by the Governing Council. It is composed of the President of the Bank (currently Mario Draghi), the Vice-President (currently Vitor Constâncio) and four other members. They are all appointed for non-renewable terms of eight years. They are appointed "from among persons of recognised standing and professional experience in monetary or banking matters by common accord of the governments of the Member States at the level of Heads of State or Government, on a recommendation from the Council, after it has consulted the European Parliament and the Governing Council of the ECB". The Executive Board normally meets every Tuesday.
Who did the Spanish want to take José Manuel González-Páramo's seat on the board?
572807653acd2414000df29d
Antonio Sáinz de Vicuña
228
False
Who was ulitmately named as González-Páramo's replacement?
572807653acd2414000df29e
Luxembourg's Yves Mersch
491
False
When was González-Páramo's supposed to leave his seat on the board?
572807653acd2414000df29f
June 2012
122
False
When did González-Páramo take his seat on the Executive Board?
572807653acd2414000df2a0
June 2004
75
False
Why did the Spanish think that Vicuña would be a suitable replacement for González-Páramo?
572807653acd2414000df2a1
ECB veteran who heads its legal department
256
False
Antonio Sáinz de Vicuña
228
Who did the French want to steal José Manuel González-Páramo's seat on the board?
5a7a6c5e21c2de001afe9c14
True
Luxembourg's Yves Mersch
491
Who was ulitmately named as González-Páramo's assistant?
5a7a6c5e21c2de001afe9c15
True
June 2012
122
When was González-Páramo's upgraded from his seat on the board?
5a7a6c5e21c2de001afe9c16
True
June 2004
75
When did González-Páramo sabotage his seat on the Executive Board?
5a7a6c5e21c2de001afe9c17
True
ECB veteran who heads its legal department
256
Why did the Spanish think that Vicuña would be an awful replacement for González-Páramo?
5a7a6c5e21c2de001afe9c18
True
José Manuel González-Páramo, a Spanish member of the Executive Board since June 2004, was due to leave the board in early June 2012 and no replacement had been named as of late May 2012. The Spanish had nominated Barcelona-born Antonio Sáinz de Vicuña, an ECB veteran who heads its legal department, as González-Páramo's replacement as early as January 2012 but alternatives from Luxembourg, Finland, and Slovenia were put forward and no decision made by May. After a long political battle, Luxembourg's Yves Mersch, was appointed as González-Páramo's replacement.
What does the Supervisory Board discuss at it's meetings?
57280908ff5b5019007d9b7a
discuss, plan and carry out the ECB’s supervisory tasks
45
False
How long is the term for the Chairman of the Supervisory Board?
57280908ff5b5019007d9b7b
appointed for a non-renewable term of five years
215
False
How long is the term for Vice-Chair of the Supervisory Board?
57280908ff5b5019007d9b7c
chosen from among the members of the ECB's Executive Board
278
False
Besides the Chair and Vice-Chair, who else is on the Supervisory Board?
57280908ff5b5019007d9b7d
four ECB representatives and representatives of national supervisors
338
False
What happens if the national supervisory authority designated by a Member State is not a national central bank?
57280908ff5b5019007d9b7e
the representative of the competent authority can be accompanied by a representative from their NCB
513
False
discuss, plan and carry out the ECB’s supervisory tasks
45
What does the Supervisory Board avoid doing at it's meetings?
5a7a6d4a21c2de001afe9c1e
True
five years
253
How long is the prison term for the Chairman of the Supervisory Board?
5a7a6d4a21c2de001afe9c1f
True
chosen from among the members of the ECB's Executive Board
278
How long is the culinary term for Vice-Chair of the Supervisory Board?
5a7a6d4a21c2de001afe9c20
True
four ECB representatives and representatives of national supervisors
338
Who is restricted from being on the supervisory board?
5a7a6d4a21c2de001afe9c21
True
the representative of the competent authority can be accompanied by a representative from their NCB
513
What happens if the national supervisory authority designated by a Member State is not a local bank?
5a7a6d4a21c2de001afe9c22
True
The Supervisory Board meets twice a month to discuss, plan and carry out the ECB’s supervisory tasks. It proposes draft decisions to the Governing Council under the non-objection procedure. It is composed of Chair (appointed for a non-renewable term of five years), Vice-Chair (chosen from among the members of the ECB's Executive Board) four ECB representatives and representatives of national supervisors. If the national supervisory authority designated by a Member State is not a national central bank (NCB), the representative of the competent authority can be accompanied by a representative from their NCB. In such cases, the representatives are together considered as one member for the purposes of the voting procedure.
What governs the ECB?
572809d54b864d19001642b8
European law
32
False
How does the ECB mimic a corporation?
572809d54b864d19001642b9
shareholders and stock capital
192
False
How much does the ECB have as capital?
572809d54b864d19001642ba
five billion euros
239
False
Who holds the ECB's capital?
572809d54b864d19001642bb
the national central banks of the member states as shareholders
275
False
What determined the ECB's initial capital?
572809d54b864d19001642bc
the basis of the states' population and GDP
401
False
European law
32
What undermines the ECB?
5a7a6dd321c2de001afe9c28
True
shareholders and stock capital
192
How does the ECB show differences from a corporation?
5a7a6dd321c2de001afe9c29
True
five billion euros
239
How much does the ECB lose as capital?
5a7a6dd321c2de001afe9c2a
True
the national central banks of the member states as shareholders
275
Who steals the ECB's capital?
5a7a6dd321c2de001afe9c2b
True
the basis of the states' population and GDP
401
What decreased the ECB's initial capital?
5a7a6dd321c2de001afe9c2c
True
Although the ECB is governed by European law directly and thus not by corporate law applying to private law companies, its set-up resembles that of a corporation in the sense that the ECB has shareholders and stock capital. Its capital is five billion euros which is held by the national central banks of the member states as shareholders. The initial capital allocation key was determined in 1998 on the basis of the states' population and GDP, but the key is adjustable. Shares in the ECB are not transferable and cannot be used as collateral.
What language does the ECB generally use?
57280b503acd2414000df307
English
54
False
When in communication with other nationalities, what language is generally used?
57280b503acd2414000df308
normally in their respective language
365
False
What language is the ECB website run in?
57280b503acd2414000df309
English
441
False
How are the languages of official documents handled?
57280b503acd2414000df30a
the official languages of the EU
502
False
English
54
What language does the ECB generally forbid?
5a7a6e3c21c2de001afe9c32
True
normally in their respective language
365
When in communication with other nationalities, what language is never used?
5a7a6e3c21c2de001afe9c33
True
English
441
What language is the ECB website banned in?
5a7a6e3c21c2de001afe9c34
True
the official languages of the EU
502
How are the languages of official documents avoided?
5a7a6e3c21c2de001afe9c35
True
The internal working language of the ECB is generally English, and press conferences are usually held in English. External communications are handled flexibly: English is preferred (though not exclusively) for communication within the ESCB (i.e. with other central banks) and with financial markets; communication with other national bodies and with EU citizens is normally in their respective language, but the ECB website is predominantly English; official documents such as the Annual Report are in the official languages of the EU.
WHat is the biggest factor in the ECB maintaining price stability?
5728116c3acd2414000df3a3
independence
4
False
Who gets to interview and question prospective board members?
5728116c3acd2414000df3a4
The European Parliament
459
False
Why do EU institutions and national governments have to respect the independence of the ECB?
5728116c3acd2414000df3a5
bound by the treaties
168
False
How is the ECB held accountable for it's actions?
5728116c3acd2414000df3a6
bound to publish reports on its activities and has to address its annual report to the European Parliament
266
False
The European Parliament
459
Who never gets to interview and question prospective board members?
5a7a6eb521c2de001afe9c3b
True
bound by the treaties
168
Why do EU institutions and national governments never respect the dependence of the ECB?
5a7a6eb521c2de001afe9c3c
True
bound to publish reports on its activities and has to address its annual report to the European Parliament
266
How is the ECB not held accountable for it's actions?
5a7a6eb521c2de001afe9c3d
True
The independence of the ECB is instrumental in maintaining price stability. Not only must the bank not seek influence, but EU institutions and national governments are bound by the treaties to respect the ECB's independence. To offer some accountability, the ECB is bound to publish reports on its activities and has to address its annual report to the European Parliament, the European Commission, the Council of the European Union and the European Council. The European Parliament also gets to question and then issue its opinion on candidates to the executive board.
When did the European debt Crisis begin?
572813bf4b864d19001643ea
2009
10
False
What did the eurozone states that were thought to not be able to repay their debt face as a consequence?
572813bf4b864d19001643eb
the ability of these states to borrow new money to further finance their budget deficits or to refinance existing unsustainable debt levels was strongly reduced
954
False
Which country was the first to be at risk for soverign default?
572813bf4b864d19001643ec
Greece
324
False
Who brought Greece's financial crisis to the forefront?
572813bf4b864d19001643ed
new elected government
333
False
What had Greece's previous government been hiding?
572813bf4b864d19001643ee
its true indebtedness and budget deficit
372
False
2009
10
When did the European profit euphoria begin?
5a7a6fa621c2de001afe9c42
True
Greece
324
Which country was the last to be at risk for sovereign default?
5a7a6fa621c2de001afe9c43
True
new elected government
333
Who ignored Greece's financial crisis the most?
5a7a6fa621c2de001afe9c44
True
its true indebtedness and budget deficit
372
What had Greece's previous government been showcasing?
5a7a6fa621c2de001afe9c45
True
Seeing a sovereign default
487
What is never a shock in the eurozone?
5a7a6fa621c2de001afe9c46
True
From late 2009 a handful of mainly southern eurozone member states started being unable to repay their national Euro-denominated government debt or to finance the bail-out of troubled financial sectors under their national supervision without the assistance of third parties. This so-called European debt crisis began after Greece's new elected government stopped masking its true indebtedness and budget deficit and openly communicated the imminent danger of a Greek sovereign default. Seeing a sovereign default in the eurozone as a shock, the general public, international and European institutions, and the financial community started to intensively reassess the economic situation and creditworthiness of eurozone states. Those eurozone states being assessed as not financially sustainable enough on their current path, faced waves of credit rating downgrades and rising borrowing costs including increasing interest rate spreads. As a consequence, the ability of these states to borrow new money to further finance their budget deficits or to refinance existing unsustainable debt levels was strongly reduced.
Which countries didn't want to go around the bail-out clause and have to shoulder the burden of backing the defaulters debts.
572815b63acd2414000df423
financially stable eurozone states like Germany
344
False
What do most see raising the debt celing as doing?
572815b63acd2414000df424
discourage the crisis states to implement necessary reforms to regain their competitiveness
181
False
What could keep the crisis states from trying to stand on their own?
572815b63acd2414000df425
giving much more financial support to continuously cover the debt crisis or allow even higher budget deficits or debt levels
50
False
financially stable eurozone states like Germany
344
Which countries wanted to go around the bail-out clause and have to shoulder the burden of backing the defaulters debts?
5a7a703621c2de001afe9c4c
True
giving much more financial support to continuously cover the debt crisis or allow even higher budget deficits or debt levels
50
What could keep the crisis states independent?
5a7a703621c2de001afe9c4d
True
discourage the crisis states to implement necessary reforms to regain their competitiveness
181
What do most see lowering the debt celing as doing?
5a7a703621c2de001afe9c4e
True
EU contracts
460
What contracts do not contain a no-bailout clause?
5a7a703621c2de001afe9c4f
True
There is also a widespread view[vague][who?] that giving much more financial support to continuously cover the debt crisis or allow even higher budget deficits or debt levels would discourage the crisis states to implement necessary reforms to regain their competitiveness.[citation needed] There has also been a reluctance[citation needed] of financially stable eurozone states like Germany[citation needed] to further circumvent the no-bailout clause in the EU contracts and to generally take on the burden of financing or guaranteeing the debts of financially unstable or defaulting eurozone countries.[citation needed]
What term was coined when Greece left the eurozone?
572816d2ff5b5019007d9cee
Grexit
378
False
What is Germany's position on wether or not Greece should be in the eurozone?
572816d2ff5b5019007d9cef
If the worst comes to the worst, priority should be given to the euro's stability.
640
False
As one of the financial powers, has Germany ever tried to force the crisis states into leaving the eurozone?
572816d2ff5b5019007d9cf0
never pushed those exits
539
False
Which eurozone country has the biggest need for financial reform?
572816d2ff5b5019007d9cf1
Greece
262
False
Grexit
378
What term was forbidden when Greece left the eurozone?
5a7a7a5b21c2de001afe9c54
True
If the worst comes to the worst, priority should be given to the euro's stability
640
What is Spain's position on whether or not Greece should be outside the eurozone?
5a7a7a5b21c2de001afe9c55
True
Greece
591
Which eurozone country has the smallest need for financial reform?
5a7a7a5b21c2de001afe9c56
True
Germany
414
What country is least financially stable?
5a7a7a5b21c2de001afe9c57
True
This has led to public discussions if Greece, Portugal, and even Italy would be better off leaving the eurozone to regain economical and financial stability if they would not implement reforms to strengthen their competitiveness as part of the eurozone in time. Greece had the greatest need for reforms but also most problems to implement those, so the Greek exit, also called "Grexit", has been widely discussed. Germany, as a large and financially stable state being in the focus to be asked to guarantee or repay other states debt, has never pushed those exits. Their position is to keep Greece within the eurozone, but not at any cost. If the worst comes to the worst, priority should be given to the euro's stability.
What would cause the private banking system to weaken?
572819132ca10214002d9dc4
if the debt rescheduling causes losses on loans held by European banks
9
False
Who purchases the debt of countries that cannot repay and are in danger of default?
572819132ca10214002d9dc5
wealthy member countries
324
False
What happens when the private banking system is weakened?
572819132ca10214002d9dc6
pressure on the central bank to come to the aid of those banks
136
False
What is to be used to guarantee the debtors repayment, by the banks assuming their debt?
572819132ca10214002d9dc7
tax revenues and credit of the wealthy member countries
477
False
Is using the tax revenues and credit of the more stable banks to bail out the ones in danger of default an accepted practice?
572819132ca10214002d9dc8
is politically controversial
613
False
if the debt rescheduling causes losses on loans held by European banks
9
What would cause the private banking system to strengthen?
5a7a7ae121c2de001afe9c5c
True
wealthy member countries
324
Who steals the debt of countries that cannot repay and are in danger of default?
5a7a7ae121c2de001afe9c5d
True
pressure on the central bank to come to the aid of those banks
136
What happens when the private banking system is gone?
5a7a7ae121c2de001afe9c5e
True
tax revenues and credit of the wealthy member countries
477
What is never to be used to guarantee the debtors repayment, by the banks assuming their debt?
5a7a7ae121c2de001afe9c5f
True
politically controversial
616
Why is using the tax revenues and credit of the more stable banks to bail out the ones in danger of default an accepted practice?
5a7a7ae121c2de001afe9c60
True
However, if the debt rescheduling causes losses on loans held by European banks, it weakens the private banking system, which then puts pressure on the central bank to come to the aid of those banks. Private-sector bond holders are an integral part of the public and private banking system. Another possible response is for wealthy member countries to guarantee or purchase the debt of countries that have defaulted or are likely to default. This alternative requires that the tax revenues and credit of the wealthy member countries be used to refinance the previous borrowing of the weaker member countries, and is politically controversial.
Who retains ownership of the collateral until the debt is paid?
57281a83ff5b5019007d9d54
ECB
499
False
Since the ECB doesn't buy bonds outright, how are they used?
57281a83ff5b5019007d9d55
refinancing facilities
168
False
What is the manner in which bonds are used at refinancing facilities?
57281a83ff5b5019007d9d56
repurchase agreements, or collateralised loans
271
False
Who buys the bonds instead of using them in reverse transactions?
57281a83ff5b5019007d9d57
the Fed
15
False
ECB
28
Who loses ownership of the collateral until the debt is paid?
5a7a7b4c21c2de001afe9c66
True
repurchase agreements, or collateralised loans
271
What is the manner in which bonds are lost at refinancing facilities?
5a7a7b4c21c2de001afe9c67
True
the Fed
15
Who steals the bonds instead of using them in reverse transactions?
5a7a7b4c21c2de001afe9c68
True
the ECB
24
Who always buys bonds outright?
5a7a7b4c21c2de001afe9c69
True
In contrast to the Fed, the ECB normally does not buy bonds outright. The normal procedure used by the ECB for manipulating the money supply has been via the so-called refinancing facilities. In these facilities, bonds are not purchased but used in reverse transactions: repurchase agreements, or collateralised loans. These two transactions are similar, i.e. bonds are used as collaterals for loans, the difference being of legal nature. In the repos the ownership of the collateral changes to the ECB until the loan is repaid.
What debt did the ECB focus on abtaining?
57281ba43acd2414000df4af
Spanish and Italian
270
False
What risk is assumed when the ECB purchases bonds from weaker states?
57281ba43acd2414000df4b0
a deteriorating balance sheet
207
False
Why were italian bonds purchased by the ECB?
57281ba43acd2414000df4b1
intended to dampen international speculation and strengthen portfolios in the private sector and also the central bank
406
False
What was something used to minimize the impact of the soverign-debt crisis?
57281ba43acd2414000df4b2
Purchases of Italian bonds by the central bank
340
False
Spanish and Italian
270
What debt did the ECB forgive?
5a7a7bc721c2de001afe9c6e
True
a deteriorating balance sheet
207
What risk is mitigated when the ECB purchases bonds from weaker states?
5a7a7bc721c2de001afe9c6f
True
intended to dampen international speculation and strengthen portfolios in the private sector and also the central bank
406
Why were italian bonds lost by the ECB?
5a7a7bc721c2de001afe9c70
True
Purchases of Italian bonds by the central bank
340
What was something used to maximize the impact of the soverign-debt crisis?
5a7a7bc721c2de001afe9c71
True
This changed with the recent sovereign-debt crisis. The ECB always could, and through the late summer of 2011 did, purchase bonds issued by the weaker states even though it assumes, in doing so, the risk of a deteriorating balance sheet. ECB buying focused primarily on Spanish and Italian debt. Certain techniques can minimise the impact. Purchases of Italian bonds by the central bank, for example, were intended to dampen international speculation and strengthen portfolios in the private sector and also the central bank.
How does sterilisation help to keep the money flow even?
57281f5d4b864d19001644dc
highly valued assets are sold at the same time that the weaker assets are purchased
136
False
What can a state do with bad assets, rather than cashing them in directly?
57281f5d4b864d19001644dd
long-term collateral
315
False
How can weaker states improve the surface value of their assets?
57281f5d4b864d19001644de
adjustments in taxation and expenditure in the economies
459
False
highly valued assets are sold at the same time that the weaker assets are purchased
136
How does sterilisation help to keep the money flow uneven?
5a7a7c4c21c2de001afe9c76
True
long-term collateral
315
What can a state do with good assets, rather than cashing them in directly?
5a7a7c4c21c2de001afe9c77
True
adjustments in taxation and expenditure in the economies
459
How can weaker states destroy the surface value of their assets?
5a7a7c4c21c2de001afe9c78
True
financial techniques
27
What kinds of techniques can never reduce the impact of purchases on a currency?
5a7a7c4c21c2de001afe9c79
True
On the other hand, certain financial techniques can reduce the impact of such purchases on the currency. One is sterilisation, in which highly valued assets are sold at the same time that the weaker assets are purchased, which keeps the money supply neutral. Another technique is simply to accept the bad assets as long-term collateral (as opposed to short-term repo swaps) to be held until their market value stabilises. This would imply, as a quid pro quo, adjustments in taxation and expenditure in the economies of the weaker states to improve the perceived value of the assets.
By 2012, how much did the ECB spend in covering bad debt?
572820842ca10214002d9e7c
€212.1bn
47
False
How does the ECB plan to increase the available credit for businesses?
572820842ca10214002d9e7d
Outright Monetary Transactions
359
False
What is the duration of the Outright Monetary Transactions program?
572820842ca10214002d9e7e
no ex-ante time or size limit
410
False
When was the new idea for the purchasing of eurozone bonds announced?
572820842ca10214002d9e7f
6 September 2012
212
False
How long was the duration of the Securities Markets Programme to last?
572820842ca10214002d9e80
temporary
338
False
€212.1bn
47
Wow much did the ECB steal in order to cover bad debt?
5a7a7cfa21c2de001afe9c7e
True
Outright Monetary Transactions
359
How does the ECB plan to decrease the available credit for businesses?
5a7a7cfa21c2de001afe9c7f
True
no ex-ante time or size limit
410
What is the rejected duration of the Outright Monetary Transactions program?
5a7a7cfa21c2de001afe9c80
True
6 September 2012
212
When was the new idea for the purchasing of eurozone bonds declined?
5a7a7cfa21c2de001afe9c81
True
temporary
338
How long was the duration of the Securities Markets Programme that never happened?
5a7a7cfa21c2de001afe9c82
True
As of 18 June 2012, the ECB in total had spent €212.1bn (equal to 2.2% of the Eurozone GDP) for bond purchases covering outright debt, as part of its Securities Markets Programme (SMP) running since May 2010. On 6 September 2012, the ECB announced a new plan for buying bonds from eurozone countries. The duration of the previous SMP was temporary, while the Outright Monetary Transactions (OMT) programme has no ex-ante time or size limit. On 4 September 2014, the bank went further by announcing it would buy bonds and other debt instruments primarily from banks in a bid to boost the availability of credit for businesses.
What can be shuffeled around during a soverign debt crisis to mitigate the damage?
5728240c2ca10214002d9ecc
temporarily moving bad or weak assets
57
False
Where do bad and weak assets get moved in times of soverign debt crisis?
5728240c2ca10214002d9ecd
the balance sheets of the European Central Bank
148
False
What is shuffling around bad or weak debts from a weaker eurozone member to the ECB known as?
5728240c2ca10214002d9ece
monetisation
222
False
What is monetisation usually viewed as?
5728240c2ca10214002d9ecf
inflationary threat
257
False
If the central banks can come to an agreement with the eurozone member about the continued repayment of the debt, what happens to the bad or weak debt?
5728240c2ca10214002d9ed0
move weak assets off their balance sheets
457
False
temporarily moving bad or weak assets
57
What can never be shuffled around during a sovereign debt crisis to mitigate the damage?
5a7a7fdf21c2de001afe9c9a
True
the balance sheets of the European Central Bank
148
Where do bad and weak assets become restricted in times of sovereign debt crisis?
5a7a7fdf21c2de001afe9c9b
True
monetisation
222
What is shuffling around good or strong debts from a weaker eurozone member to the ECB known as?
5a7a7fdf21c2de001afe9c9c
True
inflationary threat
257
What is monetisation rarely viewed as?
5a7a7fdf21c2de001afe9c9d
True
Rescue operations involving sovereign debt have included temporarily moving bad or weak assets off the balance sheets of the weak member banks into the balance sheets of the European Central Bank. Such action is viewed as monetisation and can be seen as an inflationary threat, whereby the strong member countries of the ECB shoulder the burden of monetary expansion (and potential inflation) to save the weak member countries. Most central banks prefer to move weak assets off their balance sheets with some kind of agreement as to how the debt will continue to be serviced. This preference has typically led the ECB to argue that the weaker member countries must:
What is being caused by links between soverign debt and failing national banks?
5728283a4b864d19001645fc
the sickness of the euro
499
False
Which country has been resistant to attempts to make the soverign debt assets more like the U.S. Treasury?
5728283a4b864d19001645fd
the German government
415
False
Who began to increase their coverage of weaker debts?
5728283a4b864d19001645fe
The European Central Bank
0
False
What would have to happen to make European sovereign debt assets more like what is found in the U.S. Treasury?
5728283a4b864d19001645ff
a collective guarantee of the member states' solvency
334
False
Why did propsals about making the European sovereign debt assets more like the US Treasury?
5728283a4b864d1900164600
the crisis of 2010
91
False
the sickness of the euro
499
What is being avoided by links between sovereign debt and failing national banks?
5a7a805821c2de001afe9ca2
True
the German government
415
Which country has supported attempts to make the sovereign debt assets more like the U.S. Treasury?
5a7a805821c2de001afe9ca3
True
The European Central Bank
0
Who began to decrease their coverage of weaker debts?
5a7a805821c2de001afe9ca4
True
a collective guarantee of the member states' solvency
334
What would have to happen to make European sovereign debt assets less like what is found in the U.S. Treasury?
5a7a805821c2de001afe9ca5
True
The European Central Bank had stepped up the buying of member nations debt. In response to the crisis of 2010, some proposals have surfaced for a collective European bond issue that would allow the central bank to purchase a European version of US Treasury bills. To make European sovereign debt assets more similar to a US Treasury, a collective guarantee of the member states' solvency would be necessary.[b] But the German government has resisted this proposal, and other analyses indicate that "the sickness of the euro" is due to the linkage between sovereign debt and failing national banking systems. If the European central bank were to deal directly with failing banking systems sovereign debt would not look as leveraged relative to national income in the financially weaker member states.
What did the ECB do to help stabilise the financial system during the subprime mortgage crisis?
57282bdbff5b5019007d9e7a
loaned billions of euros to banks
304
False
Why did the ECB intervene during the subprime mortgage crisis?
57282bdbff5b5019007d9e7b
to stabilise the financial system
338
False
Who decided, along with the ECB, to use Term auction to help stabilize the financial crisis and improve dollar liquidity?
57282bdcff5b5019007d9e7c
Federal Reserve System
431
False
Besides cooperating with other financial institutions, how does the ECB help to maintain stability?
57282bdcff5b5019007d9e7d
contributes to maintaining a stable financial system and monitoring the banking sector
108
False
When did the ECB and Federal Rserve decide to collaborate on Term auction facility?
57282bdcff5b5019007d9e7e
December 2007
376
False
loaned billions of euros to banks
304
What did the ECB avoid to help stabilize the financial system during the subprime mortgage crisis?
5a7a80f821c2de001afe9caa
True
to stabilise the financial system
338
Why did the ECB not intervene during the subprime mortgage crisis?
5a7a80f821c2de001afe9cab
True
Federal Reserve System
431
Who rejected, along with the ECB, to use Term auction to help stabilize the financial crisis and improve dollar liquidity?
5a7a80f821c2de001afe9cac
True
December 2007
376
When did the ECB and Federal Reserve decide to separate on Term auction facility?
5a7a80f821c2de001afe9cad
True
contributes to maintaining a stable financial system and monitoring the banking sector
108
How does the ECB help to destroy stability?
5a7a80f821c2de001afe9cae
True
The bank must also co-operate within the EU and internationally with third bodies and entities. Finally, it contributes to maintaining a stable financial system and monitoring the banking sector. The latter can be seen, for example, in the bank's intervention during the subprime mortgage crisis when it loaned billions of euros to banks to stabilise the financial system. In December 2007, the ECB decided in conjunction with the Federal Reserve System under a programme called Term auction facility to improve dollar liquidity in the eurozone and to stabilise the money market.
What is a perk of the central bank?
57282fc54b864d190016469c
it can make as much money as it deems needed
70
False
What kinds of assets does the US Federal Reserve buy?
57282fc54b864d190016469d
bonds issued by the Federal government
203
False
What kind of asset will the Federal Reserve purchase in mass quantities at a time of crisis?
57282fc54b864d190016469e
commercial paper
439
False
What is the purpose of buying commercial paper in a time of financial crisis?
57282fc54b864d190016469f
to ensure that adequate liquidity is available for functioning
491
False
it can make as much money as it deems needed
70
What is a disadvantage of the central bank?
5a7a814a21c2de001afe9cb4
True
bonds issued by the Federal government
203
What kinds of assets does the US Federal Reserve ban?
5a7a814a21c2de001afe9cb5
True
commercial paper
439
What kind of asset will the Federal Reserve sell in small quantities at a time of crisis?
5a7a814a21c2de001afe9cb6
True
to ensure that adequate liquidity is available for functioning
491
What is the purpose of selling commercial paper in a time of financial crisis?
5a7a814a21c2de001afe9cb7
True
In central banking, the privileged status of the central bank is that it can make as much money as it deems needed. In the United States Federal Reserve Bank, the Federal Reserve buys assets: typically, bonds issued by the Federal government. There is no limit on the bonds that it can buy and one of the tools at its disposal in a financial crisis is to take such extraordinary measures as the purchase of large amounts of assets such as commercial paper. The purpose of such operations is to ensure that adequate liquidity is available for functioning of the financial system.
Which agencies have became the authority on assessing the risk of financial institutions?
572831873acd2414000df6b1
Moody's and S&P
563
False
When was Basel II adopted?
572831873acd2414000df6b2
2005
185
False
What said that agencies had to start using Moody's and S&P to assess financial institutions?
572831873acd2414000df6b3
the Basel II recommendations
144
False
Since when have the Basel II recommendations been in effect?
572831873acd2414000df6b4
2008
290
False
Moody's and S&P
563
Which agencies have lost their authority on assessing the risk of financial institutions?
5a7a81c421c2de001afe9cbc
True
2005
185
When was Basel II rejected?
5a7a81c421c2de001afe9cbd
True
the Basel II recommendations
144
What said that agencies had no option for using Moody's and S&P to assess financial institutions?
5a7a81c421c2de001afe9cbe
True
2008
290
When did the Basel II recommendations lose effect?
5a7a81c421c2de001afe9cbf
True
Think-tanks such as the World Pensions Council have also argued that European legislators have pushed somewhat dogmatically for the adoption of the Basel II recommendations, adopted in 2005, transposed in European Union law through the Capital Requirements Directive (CRD), effective since 2008. In essence, they forced European banks, and, more importantly, the European Central Bank itself e.g. when gauging the solvency of financial institutions, to rely more than ever on standardised assessments of credit risk marketed by two non-European private agencies: Moody's and S&P.
Where is the European Central bank located?
572832df4b864d19001646fa
Frankfurt
21
False
What decided where the bank was to be located?
572832df4b864d19001646fb
Amsterdam Treaty
119
False
When did the bank move to it's new headquarters?
572832df4b864d19001646fc
2014
189
False
What previously stood where the bank is now?
572832df4b864d19001646fd
the former wholesale market
418
False
When did construction of the new bank begin?
572832df4b864d19001646fe
October 2008
519
False
Frankfurt
21
Where is the European Central bank unknown?
5a7a825521c2de001afe9cc4
True
Amsterdam Treaty
119
What decided where the bank was to be bombed?
5a7a825521c2de001afe9cc5
True
2014
189
When did the bank close the new headquarters?
5a7a825521c2de001afe9cc6
True
the former wholesale market
418
What never stood where the bank is now?
5a7a825521c2de001afe9cc7
True
October 2008
519
When did construction of the new bank stop before completion?
5a7a825521c2de001afe9cc8
True
The bank is based in Frankfurt, the largest financial centre in the Eurozone. Its location in the city is fixed by the Amsterdam Treaty. The bank moved to new purpose-built headquarters in 2014 which were designed a Vienna-based architectural office named Coop Himmelbau. The building is approximately 180 metres (591 ft) tall and will be accompanied with other secondary buildings on a landscaped site on the site of the former wholesale market in the eastern part of Frankfurt am Main. The main construction began in October 2008, and it was expected that the building will become an architectural symbol for Europe. While it was designed to accommodate double the number of staff who operate in the former Eurotower, that building has been retained since the ECB took responsibility for banking supervision and more space was hence required.
After the loan program was announced, which countries borrowed the most?
572834212ca10214002da0aa
Greece, Ireland, Italy and Spain
819
False
What would happen if some of the banks were to begin buying govenrment bonds?
572834212ca10214002da0ab
easing the debt crisis
1210
False
How much does the ECB have to have to pay off it's own debts?
572834212ca10214002da0ac
€200bn
928
False
How do you prevent a credit bottleneck?
572834212ca10214002da0ad
keep operating and loaning to businesses
1019
False
Greece, Ireland, Italy and Spain
819
Which countries borrowed the least after the loan program was announced?
5a7a7f5521c2de001afe9c92
True
easing the debt crisis
1210
What would happen if some of the banks were to forbid buying government bonds?
5a7a7f5521c2de001afe9c93
True
€200bn
928
How much does the ECB need to lose in order to pay off it's own debts?
5a7a7f5521c2de001afe9c94
True
keep operating and loaning to businesses
1019
How do you cause a credit bottleneck?
5a7a7f5521c2de001afe9c95
True
On 21 December 2011 the bank instituted a programme of making low-interest loans with a term of three years (36 months) and 1% interest to European banks accepting loans from the portfolio of the banks as collateral. Loans totalling €489.2 bn (US$640 bn) were announced. The loans were not offered to European states, but government securities issued by European states would be acceptable collateral as would mortgage-backed securities and other commercial paper that can be demonstrated to be secure. The programme was announced on 8 December 2011 but observers were surprised by the volume of the loans made when it was implemented. Under its LTRO it loaned €489bn to 523 banks for an exceptionally long period of three years at a rate of just one percent. The by far biggest amount of €325bn was tapped by banks in Greece, Ireland, Italy and Spain. This way the ECB tried to make sure that banks have enough cash to pay off €200bn of their own maturing debts in the first three months of 2012, and at the same time keep operating and loaning to businesses so that a credit crunch does not choke off economic growth. It also hoped that banks would use some of the money to buy government bonds, effectively easing the debt crisis.
What is an LTRO?
572835132ca10214002da0bc
longer-term refinancing operation
30
False
How long was the time to maturity on an LTRO?
572835132ca10214002da0bd
six-month
78
False
When were the first supplemental LTRO's offered?
572835132ca10214002da0be
March 2008
111
False
How long had the time to maturity been previously?
572835132ca10214002da0bf
three months
165
False
How many bids were recorded at the auction for the first 12 month LRTO?
572835132ca10214002da0c0
close to 1100 bidders
568
False
longer-term refinancing operation
30
What is an LTRO formerly known as?
5a7a7d7321c2de001afe9c88
True
six-month
78
How long was the time to apply for an LTRO?
5a7a7d7321c2de001afe9c89
True
March 2008
111
When were the worst supplemental LTRO's offered?
5a7a7d7321c2de001afe9c8a
True
three months
165
How long had the time to maturity been banned?
5a7a7d7321c2de001afe9c8b
True
close to 1100 bidders
568
How many bids were ignored at the auction for the first 12 month LRTO?
5a7a7d7321c2de001afe9c8c
True
The ECB's first supplementary longer-term refinancing operation (LTRO) with a six-month maturity was announced March 2008. Previously the longest tender offered was three months. It announced two 3-month and one 6-month full allotment of Long Term Refinancing Operations (LTROs). The first tender was settled 3 April, and was more than four times oversubscribed. The €25 billion auction drew bids amounting to €103.1 billion, from 177 banks. Another six-month tender was allotted on 9 July, again to the amount of €25 billion. The first 12-month LTRO in June 2009 had close to 1100 bidders.
St._John%27s,_Newfoundland_and_Labrador
In what country is St. John's located?
5727fa9c3acd2414000df147
Canada
113
False
What is the name of the island that St. John's is located?
5727fa9c3acd2414000df148
Newfoundland
324
False
What city is ranked 20th in largest metropolitan area for Canada?
5727fa9c3acd2414000df149
St. John's
0
False
Where on the Avalon Peninsula is St. John's located?
5727fa9c3acd2414000df14a
eastern tip
271
False
In what year did St. John's have a population of 214,285?
5727fa9c3acd2414000df14b
2015
381
False
St. John's
121
What is the largest city in Canada?
5a6227cff8d794001af1bea0
True
St. John's
121
What Canadian city was incorporated in the 18th century?
5a6227cff8d794001af1bea1
True
St. John's
121
What is the oldest English city in the America's.
5a6227cff8d794001af1bea2
True
Census Metropolitan Area
442
St John's is the largest what in Atlantic Canada?
5a6227cff8d794001af1bea3
True
into the harbour
767
Where did John Cabot sail to in the 14th century?
5a6227cff8d794001af1bea4
True
St. John's (/ˌseɪntˈdʒɒnz/, local /ˌseɪntˈdʒɑːnz/) is the capital and largest city in Newfoundland and Labrador, Canada. St. John's was incorporated as a city in 1888, yet is considered by some to be the oldest English-founded city in North America. It is located on the eastern tip of the Avalon Peninsula on the island of Newfoundland. With a population of 214,285 as of July 1, 2015, the St. John's Metropolitan Area is the second largest Census Metropolitan Area (CMA) in Atlantic Canada after Halifax and the 20th largest metropolitan area in Canada. It is one of the world's top ten oceanside destinations, according to National Geographic Magazine. Its name has been attributed to the feast day of John the Baptist, when John Cabot was believed to have sailed into the harbour in 1497, and also to a Basque fishing town with the same name.
Which city is considered one of the oldest settlements in North America?
5727fc492ca10214002d9ab4
St. John's
0
False
Around what year did settlement begin to occur in St. John's?
5727fc492ca10214002d9ab5
1630
114
False
When was Cuper's Cove colony founded?
5727fc492ca10214002d9ab6
1610
319
False
What year was Bristol's Hope colony founded?
5727fc492ca10214002d9ab7
1618
384
False
Who forbade the  english fisherman to setup seasonal camps in Newfoundland?
5727fc492ca10214002d9ab8
British government
536
False
Jamestown, Virginia
915
What is the oldest settlement in The America's?
5a62309df8d794001af1bebe
True
year-round
67
What type of settlement began in the 16th century?
5a62309df8d794001af1bebf
True
Bristol's Hope colony
333
What is one of the colonies Besides St John's established in the 16th century?
5a62309df8d794001af1bec0
True
along the English controlled coast
648
Where were fishermen encouraged to set up permanet settlements?
5a62309df8d794001af1bec1
True
St. John's is one of the oldest settlements in North America, with year-round settlement beginning sometime after 1630 and seasonal habitation long before that. It is not, however, the oldest surviving English settlement in North America or Canada, having been preceded by the Cuper's Cove colony at Cupids, founded in 1610, and the Bristol's Hope colony at Harbour Grace, founded in 1618. In fact, although English fishermen had begun setting up seasonal camps in Newfoundland in the 16th Century, they were expressly forbidden by the British government, at the urging of the West Country fishing industry, from establishing permanent settlements along the English controlled coast, hence the town of St. John's was not established as a permanent community until after the 1630s at the earliest. Other permanent English settlements in the Americas that predate St. John's include: St. George's, Bermuda (1612) and Jamestown, Virginia (1607).
What was John Cabot's sons first name?
5727fe9a2ca10214002d9ada
Sebastian
0
False
What was the occupation of John Cabot?
5727fe9a2ca10214002d9adb
explorer
152
False
Where did the French, Spanish and Portuguese start to travel to fish yearly in 1540?
5727fe9a2ca10214002d9adc
Avalon Peninsula
627
False
Where is the Bay of Pasaia located?
5727fe9a2ca10214002d9add
Basque Country
822
False
In what language did Sebastian Cabot write his map from 1545?
5727fe9a2ca10214002d9ade
Latin
42
False
map
74
What did Sebastian Cabot write on in the 15th century?
5a624350f8d794001af1beee
True
Sebastian Cabot
0
Who claimed St John's was named after his father?
5a624350f8d794001af1beef
True
John Cabot
161
Who did British and French historians claim sailed into St John's harbor in 1494?
5a624350f8d794001af1bef0
True
Sebastian Cabot
0
Who claimed to have sailed into St John's harbor in 1497 with their father?
5a624350f8d794001af1bef1
True
French, Spanish and Portuguese ships
533
Who was crossing the Atlantic annually by the 15th century?
5a624350f8d794001af1bef2
True
Sebastian Cabot declares in a handwritten Latin text in his original 1545 map, that the St. John's earned its name when he and his father, the Venetian explorer John Cabot became the first Europeans to sail into the harbour, in the morning of 24 June 1494 (against British and French historians stating 1497), the feast day of Saint John the Baptist. However, the exact locations of Cabot's landfalls are disputed. A series of expeditions to St. John's by Portuguese from the Azores took place in the early 16th century, and by 1540 French, Spanish and Portuguese ships crossed the Atlantic annually to fish the waters off the Avalon Peninsula. In the Basque Country, it is a common belief that the name of St. John's was given by Basque fishermen because the bay of St. John's is very similar to the Bay of Pasaia in the Basque Country, where one of the fishing towns is also called St. John (in Spanish, San Juan, and in Basque, Donibane).
What year did John Rut visit St. John's?
572806a12ca10214002d9be0
1527
137
False
Who sent the first known letter from North America?
572806a12ca10214002d9be1
John Rut
106
False
What three countries ships did John Rut find in 1527?
572806a12ca10214002d9be2
Norman, Breton and Portuguese
151
False
Who did John Rut write a letter to in 1527?
572806a12ca10214002d9be3
King Henry
243
False
São João
47
What did Pedro Reinel call St John's in the 15th century?
5a624b76f8d794001af1bf3e
True
Norman, Breton and Portuguese ships
151
What did Pedro Reinal find in the harbor in 1527?
5a624b76f8d794001af1bf3f
True
King Henry
243
What king did Reinel write to in 1527?
5a624b76f8d794001af1bf40
True
Water Street
502
What is the oldest street in the America's?
5a624b76f8d794001af1bf41
True
San Joham
422
How was St. John's refereed to on Nicholas Desliens Atlas?
5a624b76f8d794001af1bf42
True
The earliest record of the location appears as São João on a Portuguese map by Pedro Reinel in 1519. When John Rut visited St. John's in 1527 he found Norman, Breton and Portuguese ships in the harbour. On 3 August 1527, Rut wrote a letter to King Henry on the findings of his voyage to North America; this was the first known letter sent from North America. St. Jehan is shown on Nicholas Desliens' world map of 1541 and San Joham is found in João Freire's Atlas of 1546. It was during this time that Water Street was first developed, making it the oldest street in North America.[dubious – discuss]
Who referred St. John's as St. "the principal prime and chief lot in all the whole country" ?
57280b934b864d19001642f2
William Payne
104
False
When did censuses start being conducted in St. John's?
57280b934b864d19001642f3
1675
362
False
When did Irish men begin to operate inshore fishing boats in St. John's?
57280b934b864d19001642f4
1680
453
False
What grew during the summers in St. John's?
57280b934b864d19001642f5
population
372
False
Who controlled most of Newfoundland's east coast by 1620?
57280b934b864d19001642f6
fishermen
13
False
the fishermen of England's West Country
9
Who controlled the east coast of Newfoundland in the 16th century?
5a625174f8d794001af1bf48
True
"the principal prime and chief lot in all the whole country"
137
What did William Payne call St. Johns in the 16th century?
5a625174f8d794001af1bf49
True
The population
199
What grew slowly in the 1700's?
5a625174f8d794001af1bf4a
True
English naval officers
309
Who started taking censuses in the 16th century?
5a625174f8d794001af1bf4b
True
migratory fishermen
429
What caused the population to decrease in the summer?
5a625174f8d794001af1bf4c
True
By 1620, the fishermen of England's West Country controlled most of Newfoundland's east coast. In 1627, William Payne, called St. John's "the principal prime and chief lot in all the whole country". The population grew slowly in the 17th century and St. John's was the largest settlement in Newfoundland when English naval officers began to take censuses around 1675. The population would grow in the summers with the arrival of migratory fishermen. In 1680, fishing ships (mostly from South Devon) set up fishing rooms at St. John's, bringing hundreds of Irish men into the port to operate inshore fishing boats.
Who briefly seized St. John's in 1665?
57280ddb4b864d190016432a
Michiel de Ruyter
154
False
In what year did the dutch attack St. John for a second time?
57280ddb4b864d190016432b
1673
249
False
How many men defended the attack from the Dutch in 1673?
57280ddb4b864d190016432c
twenty-three
525
False
Who destroyed Fort William in 1696?
57280ddb4b864d190016432d
Pierre Le Moyne
767
False
How many Dutch warships were fended of by Christopher Martin in 1673?
57280ddb4b864d190016432e
three
584
False
Dutch admiral Michiel de Ruyter
140
What admiral seized St. Johns in the 16th century?
5a6254d3f8d794001af1bf66
True
Christopher Martin
289
Who defended St. Johns from a second dutch attack in the 16th century?
5a6254d3f8d794001af1bf67
True
twenty-three
525
How many men were with Martin when he defeated the Dutch merchant ships?
5a6254d3f8d794001af1bf68
True
1689
693
When did the Dutch plan to expand St. Johns fortifications?
5a6254d3f8d794001af1bf69
True
French admiral Pierre Le Moyne d'Iberville
752
Who reduced St. Johns to rubble in the 16th century?
5a6254d3f8d794001af1bf6a
True
The town's first significant defences were likely erected due to commercial interests, following the temporary seizure of St. John's by the Dutch admiral Michiel de Ruyter in June 1665. The inhabitants were able to fend off a second Dutch attack in 1673, when this time it was defended by Christopher Martin, an English merchant captain. Martin landed six cannons from his vessel, the Elias Andrews, and constructed an earthen breastwork and battery near chain Rock commanding the Narrows leading into the harbour. With only twenty-three men, the valiant Martin beat off an attack by three Dutch warships. The English government planned to expand these fortifications (Fort William) in around 1689, but actual construction didn't begin until after the French admiral Pierre Le Moyne d'Iberville captured and destroyed the town in the Avalon Peninsula Campaign (1696). When 1500 English reinforcements arrived in late 1697 they found nothing but rubble where the town and fortifications had stood.
Who flew the first non-stop transatlantic aircraft flight?
572812962ca10214002d9d3e
Alcock and Brown
91
False
What aircraft did Alcock and Brown use in 1919 for their flight?
572812962ca10214002d9d3f
Vickers Vimy IV bomber
122
False
Where in St. John's did Alcock and Brown depart from in June 1919?
572812962ca10214002d9d40
Lester's Field
175
False
Who duplicated Alcock and Brown flight in 2005?
572812962ca10214002d9d41
Steve Fossett
333
False
What aircraft did Steve Fossett use for his flight in July 2005?
572812962ca10214002d9d42
replica Vickers Vimy
352
False
St. John's
0
What was the end point for the first transatlantic aircraft flight?
5a625bf4f8d794001af1bf98
True
Alcock and Brown
91
Who ended their flight at Lester's field in St John's in June of 1919?
5a625bf4f8d794001af1bf99
True
Vickers Vimy IV bomber
122
What did Alcock and Brown fly across the Atlantic in during their 19th century flight?
5a625bf4f8d794001af1bf9a
True
Steve Fossett
333
Who replicated Alcock and Browns flight in the 20th century?
5a625bf4f8d794001af1bf9b
True
St. John's was the starting point for the first non-stop transatlantic aircraft flight, by Alcock and Brown in a modified Vickers Vimy IV bomber, in June 1919, departing from Lester's Field in St. John's and ending in a bog near Clifden, Connemara, Ireland. In July 2005, the flight was duplicated by American aviator and adventurer Steve Fossett in a replica Vickers Vimy aircraft, with St. John's International Airport substituting for Lester's Field (now an urban and residential part of the city).
When did the Northern cod fishery collapse?
572813c5ff5b5019007d9c9e
1990s
69
False
What led to an economic boom in St. John's?
572813c5ff5b5019007d9c9f
Hibernia, Terra Nova and White Rose oil fields
290
False
For how long did the Northern cod fishery provide a stable economy for St. John's?
572813c5ff5b5019007d9ca0
hundreds of years
183
False
How long did unemployment rates and depopulation suffer in St. John's?
572813c5ff5b5019007d9ca1
decade
210
False
Northern cod fishery
98
What industry caused St. John's economy to boom in the 1990's?
5a626263f8d794001af1bfa0
True
Northern cod fishery
98
What industry collapsed affecting the local economy for hundreds of years?
5a626263f8d794001af1bfa1
True
the city's proximity to the Hibernia, Terra Nova and White Rose oil fields
262
What has caused St. Johns to fall behind the rest of the province in economic output?
5a626263f8d794001af1bfa2
True
St. John's, and the province as a whole, was gravely affected in the 1990s by the collapse of the Northern cod fishery, which had been the driving force of the provincial economy for hundreds of years. After a decade of high unemployment rates and depopulation, the city's proximity to the Hibernia, Terra Nova and White Rose oil fields has led to an economic boom that has spurred population growth and commercial development. As a result, the St. John's area now accounts for about half of the province's economic output.
Near what body of water is St. John's located by?
5728166c4b864d190016444a
Atlantic Ocean
45
False
How many Square miles is St. John's?
5728166c4b864d190016444b
172.22
182
False
In what providence is Edmonton located?
5728166c4b864d190016444c
Alberta
340
False
What is the largest Atlantic Province city?
5728166c4b864d190016444d
Halifax
652
False
Newfoundland
115
St. Johns is in the northeast of what province?
5a626555f8d794001af1bfb0
True
St. John's
0
What is the most easterly city in the Americas?
5a626555f8d794001af1bfb1
True
Edmonton, Alberta
330
What city is London, England closer to than St. Johns?
5a626555f8d794001af1bfb2
True
Lorient, France
440
What french city is 3,636 miles from St. Johns?
5a626555f8d794001af1bfb3
True
St. John's is located along the coast of the Atlantic Ocean, on the northeast of the Avalon Peninsula in southeast Newfoundland. The city covers an area of 446.04 square kilometres (172.22 sq mi) and is the most easterly city in North America, excluding Greenland; it is 295 miles (475 km) closer to London, England than it is to Edmonton, Alberta. The city of St. John's is located at a distance by air of 3,636 kilometres (2,259 mi) from Lorient, France which lies on a nearly precisely identical latitude across the Atlantic on the French western coast. The city is the largest in the province and the second largest in the Atlantic Provinces after Halifax, Nova Scotia. Its downtown area lies to the west and north of St. John's Harbour, and the rest of the city expands from the downtown to the north, south, east and west.
How is the climate in St. John's?
57281785ff5b5019007d9d06
humid
17
False
In which province is Kelowna located?
57281785ff5b5019007d9d07
British Columbia
300
False
Which Canadian city is the most rainiest?
57281785ff5b5019007d9d08
British Columbia
866
False
What body of water is to the east of St. John?
57281785ff5b5019007d9d09
Atlantic Ocean
697
False
From where do tropical storms travel from to St. John's?
57281785ff5b5019007d9d0a
United States
790
False
St. John's
0
What is the rainiest city in Canada?
5a62688bf8d794001af1bfc2
True
its propensity for tropical storm activity as well as moist, Atlantic air frequently blowing ashore and creating precipitation
906
What causes St. Johns to be the rainiest city in Canada?
5a62688bf8d794001af1bfc3
True
tropical storms (and sometimes hurricanes)
731
What travels to St. Johns Atlantic coast from the east?
5a62688bf8d794001af1bfc4
True
St. John's has a humid continental climate (Köppen Dfb), with lower seasonal variation than normal for the latitude, which is due to Gulf Stream moderation. However, despite this maritime moderation, average January high temperatures are actually slightly colder in St. John's than it is in Kelowna, British Columbia, which is an inland city that is near the more marine air of the Pacific, demonstrating the cold nature of Eastern Canada. Mean temperatures range from −4.9 °C (23.2 °F) in February to 16.1 °C (61.0 °F) in August, showing somewhat of a seasonal lag in the climate. The city is also one of the areas of the country most prone to tropical cyclone activity, as it is bordered by the Atlantic Ocean to the east, where tropical storms (and sometimes hurricanes) travel from the United States. The city is one of the rainiest in Canada outside of coastal British Columbia. This is partly due to its propensity for tropical storm activity as well as moist, Atlantic air frequently blowing ashore and creating precipitation.
What is the foggiest Canadian city?
572818b93acd2414000df475
St. John's
26
False
What is the average wind speed in miles per hour for St. John's?
572818b93acd2414000df476
15.1 mph
86
False
What Canadian city has the mildest winter temperature?
572818b93acd2414000df477
British Columbia
321
False
What is the driest season on average in St. John's?
572818b93acd2414000df478
summer
414
False
What is another word for freezing rain?
572818b93acd2414000df479
silver thaws
1844
False
St. John's
26
What city is the cloudiest, foggiest, and windiest in North America?
5a6270a3f8d794001af1bfd2
True
St. John's
153
What city has the mildest winter in Canada?
5a6270a3f8d794001af1bfd3
True
165 millimetres
591
How much rain does St. John's get in December?
5a6270a3f8d794001af1bfd4
True
freezing rain
1821
What paralyzed the province in April 1984?
5a6270a3f8d794001af1bfd5
True
Of major Canadian cities, St. John's is the foggiest (124 days), windiest (24.3 km/h (15.1 mph) average speed), and cloudiest (1,497 hours of sunshine). St. John's experiences milder temperatures during the winter season in comparison to other Canadian cities, and has the mildest winter for any Canadian city outside of British Columbia. Precipitation is frequent and often heavy, falling year round. On average, summer is the driest season, with only occasional thunderstorm activity, and the wettest months are from October to January, with December the wettest single month, with nearly 165 millimetres of precipitation on average. This winter precipitation maximum is quite unusual for humid continental climates, which most commonly have a late spring or early summer precipitation maximum (for example, most of the Midwestern U.S.). Most heavy precipitation events in St. John's are the product of intense mid-latitude storms migrating from the Northeastern U.S. and New England states, and these are most common and intense from October to March, bringing heavy precipitation (commonly 4 to 8 centimetres of rainfall equivalent in a single storm), and strong winds. In winter, two or more types of precipitation (rain, freezing rain, sleet and snow) can fall from passage of a single storm. Snowfall is heavy, averaging nearly 335 centimetres per winter season. However, winter storms can bring changing precipitation types. Heavy snow can transition to heavy rain, melting the snow cover, and possibly back to snow or ice (perhaps briefly) all in the same storm, resulting in little or no net snow accumulation. Snow cover in St. John's is variable, and especially early in the winter season, may be slow to develop, but can extend deeply into the spring months (March, April). The St. John's area is subject to freezing rain (called "silver thaws"), the worst of which paralyzed the city over a three-day period in April 1984.
What are wharves in St. John's constructed out of?
572819473acd2414000df485
wood
163
False
In what year was the Great Fire?
572819473acd2414000df486
1892
386
False
What was the most affected area of The Great Fire of 1892?
572819473acd2414000df487
downtown core
413
False
St. John's
54
What started as fishing outpost for Settlers?
5a6271a6f8d794001af1bfda
True
Great Fire
372
what destroyed the city in the 18th century?
5a6271a6f8d794001af1bfdb
True
most residential and other wood-frame buildings
432
What type of buildings date to the Industrial revolution?
5a6271a6f8d794001af1bfdc
True
Starting as a fishing outpost for European fishermen, St. John's consisted mostly of the homes of fishermen, sheds, storage shacks, and wharves constructed out of wood. Like many other cities of the time, as the Industrial Revolution took hold and new methods and materials for construction were introduced, the landscape changed as the city grew in width and height. The Great Fire of 1892 destroyed most of the downtown core, and most residential and other wood-frame buildings date from this period.
What US city is St. John's often compared to?
57281a5fff5b5019007d9d4c
San Francisco
18
False
What does the city council have restrictions on in downtown?
57281a5fff5b5019007d9d4d
height of buildings
271
False
What have the restrictions on the height of buildings caused over the years?
57281a5fff5b5019007d9d4e
controversy
327
False
What is the city lacking because of the height restrictions?
57281a5fff5b5019007d9d4f
hotel rooms and office space
409
False
the height of buildings
267
What does the provincial government put restrictions on?
5a6277b8f8d794001af1bff4
True
heritage regulations
198
What regulations are widely embraced in the city?
5a6277b8f8d794001af1bff5
True
economic development
659
What kind of development is encouraged by the heritage regulations?
5a6277b8f8d794001af1bff6
True
Often compared to San Francisco due to the hilly terrain and steep maze of residential streets, housing in St. John's is typically painted in bright colours. The city council has implemented strict heritage regulations in the downtown area, including restrictions on the height of buildings. These regulations have caused much controversy over the years. With the city experiencing an economic boom a lack of hotel rooms and office space has seen proposals put forward that do not meet the current height regulations. Heritage advocates argue that the current regulations should be enforced while others believe the regulations should be relaxed to encourage economic development.
What was amended to provide more office space in downtown?
57281be43acd2414000df4b7
heritage regulations
115
False
What height was the original restriction in downtown for ?
57281be43acd2414000df4b8
15 metres
175
False
How tall was the first office building to be approved in the on Water Street between Bishop's Cove and Steer's Cove?
57281be43acd2414000df4b9
47-metre
375
False
office space
26
What kind of space is abundant downtown?
5a6278a3f8d794001af1bffa
True
the city council
90
Who decreased height restrictions from 15 meters to 12 meters?
5a6278a3f8d794001af1bffb
True
office building, which includes retail space and a parking garage
395
What was the first 12 meter building to go into the area?
5a6278a3f8d794001af1bffc
True
To meet the need for more office space downtown without compromising the city's heritage, the city council amended heritage regulations, which originally restricted height to 15 metres in the area of land on Water Street between Bishop's Cove and Steer's Cove, to create the "Commercial Central Retail – West Zone". The new zone will allow for buildings of greater height. A 47-metre, 12-storey office building, which includes retail space and a parking garage, was the first building to be approved in this area.
In what year where there 100,646 inhabitants in St. John's?
57281cd73acd2414000df4c3
2006
10
False
How many communities does the CMA include?
57281cd73acd2414000df4c4
12
296
False
What was the population of the CMA in 2010?
57281cd73acd2414000df4c5
192,326
575
False
What is Newfoundland and Labrador's largest city?
57281cd73acd2414000df4c6
St. John's
267
False
2006
10
In what year did the St. Johns CMA have 100,646 inhabitants?
5a62795ff8d794001af1c00a
True
St. John's
170
What is Canada's largest city?
5a62795ff8d794001af1c00b
True
Mount Pearl and the towns of Conception Bay South, Paradise, Portugal Cove-St. Philip's,
330
What nearby towns are not included in St. Johns CMA?
5a62795ff8d794001af1c00c
True
As of the 2006 Census, there were 100,646 inhabitants in St. John's itself, 151,322 in the urban area and 181,113 in the St. John's Census Metropolitan Area (CMA). Thus, St. John's is Newfoundland and Labrador's largest city and Canada's 20th largest CMA. Apart from St. John's, the CMA includes 12 other communities: the city of Mount Pearl and the towns of Conception Bay South, Paradise, Portugal Cove-St. Philip's, Torbay, Logy Bay-Middle Cove-Outer Cove, Pouch Cove, Flatrock, Bay Bulls, Witless Bay, Petty Harbour-Maddox Cove and Bauline. The population of the CMA was 192,326 as of 1 July 2010.
What is the largest religion in St. John's?
57281d864b864d19001644c6
Christian
14
False
What has declined in the recent years on St. John's?
57281d864b864d19001644c7
sectarianism
138
False
What sects declined from 2001-2011?
57281d864b864d19001644c8
Christian
392
False
Catholic/Protestant
88
What two religions divide the city?
5a6279f4f8d794001af1c01a
True
2001–2011
430
In what year did Christian sects increase?
5a6279f4f8d794001af1c01b
True
Predominantly Christian, the population of St. John's was once divided along sectarian (Catholic/Protestant) lines. In recent years, this sectarianism has declined significantly, and is no longer a commonly acknowledged facet of life in St. John's. St. John's is the seat of the Roman Catholic Archbishop of St. John's, and the Anglican Bishop of Eastern Newfoundland and Labrador. All major Christian sects showed a decline from 2001–2011 with a large increase in those with no religion from 3.9% to 11.1%.
What is supported by the federal, provincial and municipal governments?
57281ecd2ca10214002d9e42
civil service
126
False
Who is the largest employer in the city?
57281ecd2ca10214002d9e43
The provincial government
372
False
Who is the second largest employer in the city?
57281ecd2ca10214002d9e44
Memorial University
447
False
What years did the fishing industry fall in Newfoundland and Labrador?
57281ecd2ca10214002d9e45
1990s
546
False
What year is Hebron projected to start producing oil in St. John's?
57281ecd2ca10214002d9e46
2017
1137
False
oil and gas
613
What ocean industry has been key in stabilizing the economy?
5a627caef8d794001af1c032
True
1990s
546
In what years did the fishing industry experience a boom?
5a627caef8d794001af1c033
True
2017
1137
When is White Rose expected to be producing oil?
5a627caef8d794001af1c034
True
The provincial government
372
Who is the largest employer in the province?
5a627caef8d794001af1c035
True
St. John's economy is connected to both its role as the provincial capital of Newfoundland and Labrador and to the ocean. The civil service which is supported by the federal, provincial and municipal governments has been the key to the expansion of the city's labour force and to the stability of its economy, which supports a sizable retail, service and business sector. The provincial government is the largest employer in the city, followed by Memorial University. With the collapse of the fishing industry in Newfoundland and Labrador in the 1990s, the role of the ocean is now tied to what lies beneath it – oil and gas – as opposed to what swims in or travels across it. The city is the centre of the oil and gas industry in Eastern Canada and is one of 19 World Energy Cities. ExxonMobil Canada is headquartered in St. John's and companies such as Chevron, Husky Energy, Suncor Energy and Statoil have major regional operations in the city. Three major offshore oil developments, Hibernia, Terra Nova and White Rose, are in production off the coast of the city and a fourth development, Hebron, is expected to be producing oil by 2017.
What has been growing in the recent years?
57281fae2ca10214002d9e60
economy
4
False
When did the unemployment rate fall to 5.6 per cent?
57281fae2ca10214002d9e61
May 2011
615
False
What was the city's unemployment rate in May 2011?
57281fae2ca10214002d9e62
5.6 per cent
662
False
What is the city's per capita GDP?
57281fae2ca10214002d9e63
$52,000
283
False
Conference Board of Canada
188
Who said the metro area has the leading GDP?
5a627d8cf8d794001af1c03a
True
May 2011
615
When did the unemployment rate rise to 5.6%
5a627d8cf8d794001af1c03b
True
$52,000
283
What is the provinces GDP?
5a627d8cf8d794001af1c03c
True
The economy has been growing quickly in recent years. In both 2010 and 2011, the metro area's gross domestic product (GDP) led 27 other metropolitan areas in the country, according to the Conference Board of Canada, recording growth of 6.6 per cent and 5.8 per cent respectively. At $52,000 the city's per capita GDP is the second highest out of all major Canadian cities. Economic forecasts suggest that the city will continue its strong economic growth in the coming years not only in the "oceanic" industries mentioned above, but also in tourism and new home construction as the population continues to grow. In May 2011, the city's unemployment rate fell to 5.6 per cent, the second lowest unemployment rate for a major city in Canada.
Where is the Resource Centre for the Arts?
572820f34b864d1900164508
The LSPU Hall
0
False
How many seats does the St. John's Arts and Culture theatre have?
572820f34b864d1900164509
1000
431
False
Where in the city is the LSPU Hall?
572820f34b864d190016450a
downtown
195
False
Where is Rick Mercer from?
572820f34b864d190016450b
Newfoundland
236
False
LSPU Hall
4
What hall is located in the Resource Centre for the Arts?
5a627e68f8d794001af1c04a
True
Rick Mercer, Mary Walsh, Cathy Jones, Andy Jones and Greg Thomey
287
What artist support the Resource Centre for the Arts?
5a627e68f8d794001af1c04b
True
art gallery, libraries and a 1000-seat theatre
402
What other entertainment buildings can be found in the city?
5a627e68f8d794001af1c04c
True
The LSPU Hall is home to the Resource Centre for the Arts. The "Hall" hosts a vibrant and diverse arts community and is regarded as the backbone of artistic infrastructure and development in the downtown. The careers of many well-known Newfoundland artists were launched there including Rick Mercer, Mary Walsh, Cathy Jones, Andy Jones and Greg Thomey. The St. John's Arts and Culture Centre houses an art gallery, libraries and a 1000-seat theatre, which is the city's major venue for entertainment productions.
Where is Pippy Park located in the city?
572821c33acd2414000df53b
east end
43
False
About how many acres is Pippy Park?
572821c33acd2414000df53c
3,400
75
False
How many golf courses does Pippy Park have?
572821c33acd2414000df53d
two
211
False
What other trail besides walking trails does Pippy Park have?
572821c33acd2414000df53e
skiing
298
False
Where is the Fluvarium located?
572821c33acd2414000df53f
Pippy Park
0
False
Pippy Park
0
What park is located in on the west side of the park?
5a627f48f8d794001af1c05a
True
Pippy Park
0
What is Canada's largest park?
5a627f48f8d794001af1c05b
True
Pippy Park is an urban park located in the east end of the city; with over 3,400 acres (14 km2) of land, it is one of Canada's largest urban parks. The park contains a range of recreational facilities including two golf courses, Newfoundland and Labrador's largest serviced campground, walking and skiing trails as well as protected habitat for many plants and animals. Pippy Park is also home to the Fluvarium, an environmental education centre which offers a cross section view of Nagle's Hill Brook.
What part of the city is Bannerman Park located by?
5728229d4b864d190016452c
downtown
58
False
What year was Bannerman Park opened?
5728229d4b864d190016452d
1891
102
False
who was the Governor of the Colony of Newfoundland in 1891?
5728229d4b864d190016452e
Sir Alexander Bannerman
110
False
Where does the Tely 10 Mile Road Race end?
5728229d4b864d190016452f
Bannerman Park
0
False
Who donated land to create a Victorian-style park in 1891?
5728229d4b864d1900164530
Sir Alexander Bannerman
110
False
Bannerman Park
0
What modern park is located downtown?
5a627fe1f8d794001af1c068
True
Bannerman Park
0
What park was opened in the 18th century?
5a627fe1f8d794001af1c069
True
Sir Alexander Bannerman
110
Who opened Bannerman Park in the 18th century?
5a627fe1f8d794001af1c06a
True
Sir Alexander Bannerman
110
Who was governor of the colony i the 18th century?
5a627fe1f8d794001af1c06b
True
Bannerman Park is a Victorian-style park located near the downtown. The park was officially opened in 1891 by Sir Alexander Bannerman, Governor of the Colony of Newfoundland who donated the land to create the park. Today the park contains a public swimming pool, playground, a baseball diamond and many large open grassy areas. Bannerman Park plays host to many festivals and sporting events, most notably the Newfoundland and Labrador Folk Festival and St. John's Peace-a-chord. The park is also the finishing location for the annual Tely 10 Mile Road Race.
What city does Signal Hill overlook?
572823804b864d190016454c
St. John's
50
False
Where exactly is Cabot Tower located in St. John' ?
572823804b864d190016454d
Signal Hill
0
False
What year was Cabot Tower built?
572823804b864d190016454e
1897
115
False
In what year was Queen Victoria's Diamond Jubilee?
572823804b864d190016454f
1897
115
False
Who recieved the first transatlantic wireless transmission?
572823804b864d1900164550
Guglielmo Marconi
305
False
Signal Hill
0
What hill is St. John's located on?
5a6280f6f8d794001af1c070
True
Cabot Tower
84
What tower was built in the late 18th century?
5a6280f6f8d794001af1c071
True
John Cabot's discovery of Newfoundland, and Queen Victoria's Diamond Jubilee
160
What two events were celebrated in the late 18th century?
5a6280f6f8d794001af1c072
True
Guglielmo Marconi
305
Who received the first transatlantic wireless transmission in the early 19th century?
5a6280f6f8d794001af1c073
True
Signal Hill is a hill which overlooks the city of St. John's. It is the location of Cabot Tower which was built in 1897 to commemorate the 400th anniversary of John Cabot's discovery of Newfoundland, and Queen Victoria's Diamond Jubilee. The first transatlantic wireless transmission was received here by Guglielmo Marconi on 12 December 1901. Today, Signal Hill is a National Historic Site of Canada and remains incredibly popular amongst tourists and locals alike; 97% of all tourists to St. John's visit Signal Hill. Amongst its popular attractions are the Signal Hill Tattoo, showcasing the Royal Newfoundland Regiment of foot, c. 1795, and the North Head Trail which grants an impressive view of the Atlantic Ocean and the surrounding coast.
Where do The Rock play their home games at?
572826292ca10214002d9f1c
Swilers Rugby Park
130
False
Who won the the Rugby Canada Super League championship in 2005?
572826292ca10214002d9f1d
Newfoundland Rock
220
False
In what country was the 2007 Rugby World Cup finals?
572826292ca10214002d9f1e
France
436
False
In what year did Canada beat USA 56–7 in a Rugby World Cup qualifying match?
572826292ca10214002d9f1f
2006
330
False
In what year did France host the Rugby World Cup finals?
572826292ca10214002d9f20
2007
448
False
the Rugby Canada Super League champions
157
What did the Rock loose in 2005?
5a62819df8d794001af1c078
True
The city
239
Who hosted the qualifying match between Canada and Europe?
5a62819df8d794001af1c079
True
Rugby World Cup
410
What finals were held in St. Johns in 2007?
5a62819df8d794001af1c07a
True
The rugby union team The Rock is the Eastern Canadian entry in the Americas Rugby Championship. The Rock play their home games at Swilers Rugby Park, as did the Rugby Canada Super League champions for 2005 and 2006, the Newfoundland Rock. The city hosted a Rugby World Cup qualifying match between Canada and the USA on 12 August 2006, where the Canadians heavily defeated the USA 56–7 to qualify for the 2007 Rugby World Cup finals in France. The 2007 age-grade Rugby Canada National Championship Festival was held in the city.
What was Canada's  tenth province?
572827804b864d19001645f2
Newfoundland
108
False
In what year did Newfoundland become a province?
572827804b864d19001645f3
1949
155
False
What is the capital of Newfoundland and Labrador?
572827804b864d19001645f4
St. John's
0
False
Where is the House of Assembly?
572827804b864d19001645f5
The Confederation Building
287
False
Who has been the leader of the NDP since 2006?
572827804b864d19001645f6
Lorraine Michael
669
False
Newfoundland
108
What province joined Canada in the mid 19th century?
5a628262f8d794001af1c07e
True
St. John's
0
What city became the capital of Newfoundland when it joined Canada?
5a628262f8d794001af1c07f
True
St. John's
0
Who is represented by 4 MHAs?
5a628262f8d794001af1c080
True
Lorraine Michael,
669
Who lead the NDP until 2006?
5a628262f8d794001af1c081
True
St. John's served as the capital city of the Colony of Newfoundland and the Dominion of Newfoundland before Newfoundland became Canada's tenth province in 1949. The city now serves as the capital of Newfoundland and Labrador, therefore the provincial legislature is located in the city. The Confederation Building, located on Confederation Hill, is home to the House of Assembly along with the offices for the Members of the House of Assembly (MHAs) and Ministers. The city is represented by ten MHAs, four who are members of the governing Progressive Conservative Party, three that belong to the New Democratic Party (NDP), and three that belong to the Liberal Party. Lorraine Michael, leader of the NDP since 2006, represents the district of Signal Hill-Quidi Vidi.
By how much did crime in St. John's increase in 2009?
5728289f4b864d190016460c
4%
181
False
What city had the seventh-highest metropolitan crime index in 2010?
5728289f4b864d190016460d
St. John's
590
False
How much did crime in the country drop in 2009?
5728289f4b864d190016460e
4%
181
False
St. John's
0
Where has crime been decreasing lately?
5a628335f8d794001af1c086
True
crime
162
What decreased by 4% in St. John's?
5a628335f8d794001af1c087
True
violent crime
273
What decreased by 1% in the city?
5a628335f8d794001af1c088
True
St. John's has traditionally been one of the safest cities in Canada to live; however, in recent years crime in the city has steadily increased. While nationally crime decreased by 4% in 2009, the total crime rate in St. John's saw an increase of 4%. During this same time violent crime in the city decreased 6%, compared to a 1% decrease nationally. In 2010 the total crime severity index for the city was 101.9, an increase of 10% from 2009 and 19.2% above the national average. The violent crime severity index was 90.1, an increase of 29% from 2009 and 1.2% above the national average. St. John's had the seventh-highest metropolitan crime index and twelfth-highest metropolitan violent crime index in the country in 2010.
How far is St. John's International Airport from the downtown core?
572829f73acd2414000df5eb
10 minutes
72
False
About how many passengers travelled through St. John's International Airport in 2011?
572829f73acd2414000df5ec
1,400,000
132
False
What is the airport code for St. John's International Airport?
572829f73acd2414000df5ed
YYT
58
False
What airport is approximately 10 minutes northwest of the downtown core?
572829f73acd2414000df5ee
St. John's International
24
False
St. John's International Airport
24
What airport is located downtown?
5a6283d6f8d794001af1c08c
True
St. John's International Airport
24
What is the 2nd busiest airport in Canada?
5a6283d6f8d794001af1c08d
True
St. John's is served by St. John's International Airport (YYT), located 10 minutes northwest of the downtown core. In 2011, roughly 1,400,000 passengers travelled through the airport making it the second busiest airport in Atlantic Canada in passenger volume. Regular destinations include Halifax, Montreal, Ottawa, Toronto, as well as destinations throughout the province. International locations include Dublin, London, New York City, Saint Pierre and Miquelon, Glasgow and Varadero. Scheduled service providers include Air Canada, Air Canada Jazz, Air Saint-Pierre, Air Transat, United Airlines, Porter Airlines, Provincial Airlines, Sunwing Airlines and Westjet.
Where is the eastern terminus of the Trans-Canada Highway?
57282ad24b864d1900164640
St. John's
0
False
Outer Ring Road is a another name for what?
57282ad24b864d1900164641
The divided highway
115
False
What does the divided highway provide?
57282ad24b864d1900164642
relatively easy access to neighbourhoods
374
False
Trans-Canada Highway
42
What is the longest national highway in the world?
5a62844ef8d794001af1c090
True
"Outer Ring Road"
150
What runs through the main part of the city?
5a62844ef8d794001af1c091
True
St. John's is the eastern terminus of the Trans-Canada Highway, one of the longest national highways in the world. The divided highway, also known as "Outer Ring Road" in the city, runs just outside the main part of the city, with exits to Pitts Memorial Drive, Topsail Road, Team Gushue Highway, Thorburn Road, Allandale Road, Portugal Cove Road and Torbay Road, providing relatively easy access to neighbourhoods served by those streets. Pitts Memorial Drive runs from Conception Bay South, through the city of Mount Pearl and into downtown St. John's, with interchanges for Goulds, Water Street and Hamilton Avenue-New Gower Street.
How many routes does the Metrobus have?
57282bd74b864d1900164650
19
90
False
How many buses does the region have for public transit?
57282bd74b864d1900164651
53
101
False
How many hospitals does the city have?
57282bd74b864d1900164652
four
428
False
Who is responsible for public transit in the region?
57282bd74b864d1900164653
Metrobus
0
False
Metrobus Transit
0
What transit has 53 routes?
5a6284e3f8d794001af1c094
True
Metrobus Transit
0
What transit has 19 buses?
5a6284e3f8d794001af1c095
True
Metrobus Transit
0
Who provides service to the cities only hospital?
5a6284e3f8d794001af1c096
True
Metrobus Transit is responsible for public transit in the region. Metrobus has a total of 19 routes, 53 buses and an annual ridership of 3,014,073. Destinations include the Avalon Mall, The Village Shopping Centre, Memorial University, Academy Canada, the College of the North Atlantic, the Marine Institute, the Confederation Building, downtown, Stavanger Drive Business Park, Kelsey Drive, Goulds, Kilbride, Shea Heights, the four hospitals in the city as well as other important areas in St. John's and Mount Pearl.
How many private schools are in St. John's?
57282d193acd2414000df64f
three
235
False
How many primary schools are in St. John's?
57282d193acd2414000df650
36
153
False
How many private schools are in the Francophone public school district?
57282d193acd2414000df651
two
421
False
What school offers the lowest tuition in Canada?
57282d193acd2414000df652
Memorial University of Newfoundland
854
False
What is the tuition per academic year at Memorial University of Newfoundland?
57282d193acd2414000df653
$2,644
1100
False
Eastern School District
28
What is the largest school district in Canada?
5a62857cf8d794001af1c09a
True
36
153
How many primary schools does the district have?
5a62857cf8d794001af1c09b
True
St. Bonaventure's College and Lakecrest Independent
442
What private schools are in the Eastern School District?
5a62857cf8d794001af1c09c
True
St. John's is served by the Eastern School District, the largest school district in Newfoundland and Labrador by student population. There are currently 36 primary, elementary and secondary schools in the city of St. John's, including three private schools. St. John's also includes one school that is part of the province-wide Conseil Scolaire Francophone (CSF), the Francophone public school district. It also contains two private schools, St. Bonaventure's College and Lakecrest Independent. Atlantic Canada's largest university, Memorial University of Newfoundland (MUN), is located in St. John's. MUN provides comprehensive education and grants degrees in several fields and its historical strengths in engineering, business, geology, and medicine, make MUN one of the top comprehensive universities in Canada. The Fisheries and Marine Institute of Memorial University of Newfoundland (MI) or simply Marine Institute, is a post-secondary ocean and marine polytechnic located in St. John's and is affiliated with Memorial University of Newfoundland. MUN also offers the lowest tuition in Canada ($2,644, per Academic Year)
Where does Rogers Cable has its provincial headquarters?
57282e5c4b864d1900164672
St. John's
260
False
What is the name of CBC's television station in St. John's?
57282e5c4b864d1900164673
CBNT-DT
467
False
What channel in St. John's airs Out of the Fog?
57282e5c4b864d1900164674
Rogers TV
300
False
Where does CBNT-DT broadcast from?
57282e5c4b864d1900164675
University Avenue
491
False
NTV"
26
What public radio station serves the city?
5a6285c9f8d794001af1c0a0
True
Rogers TV
300
Who airs national shows?
5a6285c9f8d794001af1c0a1
True
CJON-DT, known on air as "NTV", is an independent station. The station sublicenses entertainment programming from Global and news programming from CTV and Global, rather than purchasing primary broadcast rights. Rogers Cable has its provincial headquarters in St. John's, and their community channel Rogers TV airs local shows such as Out of the Fog and One Chef One Critic. CBC has its Newfoundland and Labrador headquarters in the city and their television station CBNT-DT broadcasts from University Avenue.
How many radio station does the city have?
57282f0e3acd2414000df685
15
20
False
How many French-language stations does the city have?
57282f0e3acd2414000df686
two
49
False
When did the province join the Canadian Confederation?
57282f0e3acd2414000df687
1949
325
False
St. John's
92
What city has 15 am stations
5a628628f8d794001af1c0a4
True
VO
224
What public station went on air in 1949?
5a628628f8d794001af1c0a5
True
The city is home to 15 am and FM radio stations, two of which are French-language stations. St. John's is the only Canadian city served by radio stations whose call letters do not all begin with the letter C. The ITU prefix VO was assigned to the Dominion of Newfoundland before the province joined Canadian Confederation in 1949, and three AM stations kept their existing call letters. However, other commercial radio stations in St. John's which went to air after 1949 use the same range of prefixes (CF–CK) currently in use elsewhere in Canada, with the exception of VOCM-FM, which was permitted to adopt the VOCM callsign because of its corporate association with the AM station that already bore that callsign. VO also remains in use in amateur radio.
John_von_Neumann
What was the birth date of John Von Neumann?
572800173acd2414000df1d9
December 28, 1903
102
False
When did John Von Neuman die?
572800173acd2414000df1da
February 8, 1957
122
False
What were the occupations that Von Neuman held?
572800173acd2414000df1db
pure and applied mathematician, physicist, inventor, computer scientist, and polymath
165
False
What were Von Neuman's contributions to the field of computing?
572800173acd2414000df1dc
Von Neumann architecture, linear programming, self-replicating machines, stochastic computing
566
False
John von Neumann (/vɒn ˈnɔɪmən/; Hungarian: Neumann János Lajos, pronounced [ˈnɒjmɒn ˈjaːnoʃ ˈlɒjoʃ]; December 28, 1903 – February 8, 1957) was a Hungarian-American pure and applied mathematician, physicist, inventor, computer scientist, and polymath. He made major contributions to a number of fields, including mathematics (foundations of mathematics, functional analysis, ergodic theory, geometry, topology, and numerical analysis), physics (quantum mechanics, hydrodynamics, fluid dynamics and quantum statistical mechanics), economics (game theory), computing (Von Neumann architecture, linear programming, self-replicating machines, stochastic computing), and statistics.
How many papers did Von Neumann publish?
572805f84b864d190016425e
150
411
False
What is the name of Von Neumann's last work?
572805f84b864d190016425f
The Computer and the Brain
612
False
What high profile controversial project was Von Neumann a prinipal of?
572805f84b864d1900164260
Manhattan Project
146
False
Of his published works, what topics were they covering?
572805f84b864d1900164261
60 in pure mathematics, 20 in physics, and 60 in applied mathematics
435
False
He was a pioneer of the application of operator theory to quantum mechanics, in the development of functional analysis, a principal member of the Manhattan Project and the Institute for Advanced Study in Princeton (as one of the few originally appointed), and a key figure in the development of game theory and the concepts of cellular automata, the universal constructor and the digital computer. He published 150 papers in his life; 60 in pure mathematics, 20 in physics, and 60 in applied mathematics. His last work, an unfinished manuscript written while in the hospital, was later published in book form as The Computer and the Brain.
Von Neumann's study of what preceded the discovery of DNA?
572807b63acd2414000df2a7
mathematical analysis of the structure of self-replication
14
False
What part of his work did Von Neumann consider to be his most important?
572807b63acd2414000df2a8
quantum mechanics
279
False
Where was quantum mechanics developed?
572807b63acd2414000df2a9
Göttingen
317
False
What work did Von Nemann do in Berlin in 1930 and Princeton 1935 - 39?
572807b63acd2414000df2aa
operator theory
411
False
What was the topic of Von Neumann's work at Princeton in 1931 - 32?
572807b63acd2414000df2ab
ergodic theorem
472
False
Von Neumann's mathematical analysis of the structure of self-replication preceded the discovery of the structure of DNA. In a short list of facts about his life he submitted to the National Academy of Sciences, he stated "The part of my work I consider most essential is that on quantum mechanics, which developed in Göttingen in 1926, and subsequently in Berlin in 1927–1929. Also, my work on various forms of operator theory, Berlin 1930 and Princeton 1935–1939; on the ergodic theorem, Princeton, 1931–1932."
With whom did Von Neumann work on the Manhattan Project?
5728090c2ca10214002d9c28
J. Robert Oppenheimer and Edward Teller
60
False
Post World War II, in what role did Von Neumann work?
5728090c2ca10214002d9c29
General Advisory Committee of the United States Atomic Energy Commission
239
False
For what organizations was Von Neumann a consultant after World War II?
5728090c2ca10214002d9c2a
United States Air Force, the Armed Forces Special Weapons Project, and the Lawrence Livermore National Laboratory
416
False
What keys steps did Von Neumann work out that contributed to weapons of war?
5728090c2ca10214002d9c2b
key steps in the nuclear physics involved in thermonuclear reactions and the hydrogen bomb
635
False
During World War II he worked on the Manhattan Project with J. Robert Oppenheimer and Edward Teller, developing the mathematical models behind the explosive lenses used in the implosion-type nuclear weapon. After the war, he served on the General Advisory Committee of the United States Atomic Energy Commission, and later as one of its commissioners. He was a consultant to a number of organizations, including the United States Air Force, the Armed Forces Special Weapons Project, and the Lawrence Livermore National Laboratory. Along with theoretical physicist Edward Teller, mathematician Stanislaw Ulam, and others, he worked out key steps in the nuclear physics involved in thermonuclear reactions and the hydrogen bomb.
Where was Von Neumann born?
57280a4fff5b5019007d9b96
Budapest
107
False
Did Von Neumann have any siblings?
57280a4fff5b5019007d9b97
two younger brothers
276
False
What occupation did Von Neumann father hold?
57280a4fff5b5019007d9b98
banker
403
False
When did Von Neuman's father move from Pecs to Budapest?
57280a4fff5b5019007d9b99
end of the 1880s
482
False
What was Von Neumann's mother's name?
57280a4fff5b5019007d9b9a
Kann Margit
641
False
Von Neumann was born Neumann János Lajos (in Hungarian the family name comes first), Hebrew name Yonah, in Budapest, Kingdom of Hungary, which was then part of the Austro-Hungarian Empire, to wealthy Jewish parents of the Haskalah. He was the eldest of three children. He had two younger brothers: Michael, born in 1907, and Nicholas, who was born in 1911. His father, Neumann Miksa (Max Neumann) was a banker, who held a doctorate in law. He had moved to Budapest from Pécs at the end of the 1880s. Miksa's father and grandfather were both born in Ond (now part of the town of Szerencs), Zemplén County, northern Hungary. John's mother was Kann Margit (Margaret Kann); her parents were Jakab Kann and Katalin Meisels. Three generations of the Kann family lived in spacious apartments above the Kann-Heller offices in Budapest; von Neumann's family occupied an 18-room apartment on the top floor.
In what year was Von Neumann's father elevated to nobility?
57280c03ff5b5019007d9baa
1913
3
False
What Emperor elevated Von Neumann's father to nobility?
57280c03ff5b5019007d9bab
Emperor Franz Joseph
99
False
What town did Von Neumann's family become associated when elevated to nobility?
57280c03ff5b5019007d9bac
Marghita
203
False
What was Von Neumann's given name as member of Austro-Hungarian nobility?
57280c03ff5b5019007d9bad
Margittai Neumann János
393
False
In 1913, his father was elevated to the nobility for his service to the Austro-Hungarian Empire by Emperor Franz Joseph. The Neumann family thus acquired the hereditary appellation Margittai, meaning of Marghita. The family had no connection with the town; the appellation was chosen in reference to Margaret, as was those chosen coat of arms depicting three marguerites. Neumann János became Margittai Neumann János (John Neumann of Marghita), which he later changed to the German Johann von Neumann.
At what age did schooling begin in Hungary?
57280cffff5b5019007d9bcc
ten
59
False
Who taught children before they began school in Hungary?
57280cffff5b5019007d9bcd
governesses
73
False
What languages were Von Neumann and his siblings taught?
57280cffff5b5019007d9bce
English, French, German and Italian
244
False
At what age was Von Neumann familiar with calculus?
57280cffff5b5019007d9bcf
8
295
False
Formal schooling did not start in Hungary until the age of ten. Instead, governesses taught von Neumann, his brothers and his cousins. Max believed that knowledge of languages other than Hungarian was essential, so the children were tutored in English, French, German and Italian. By the age of 8, von Neumann was familiar with differential and integral calculus, but he was particularly interested in history, reading his way through Wilhelm Oncken's Allgemeine Geschichte in Einzeldarstellungen. A copy was contained in a private library Max purchased. One of the rooms in the apartment was converted into a library and reading room, with bookshelves from ceiling to floor.
What did Von Neumann enter in 1911?
57280e013acd2414000df341
Lutheran Fasori Evangelikus Gimnázium
24
False
In what room did children get education in Hungary?
57280e013acd2414000df342
gymnasium
255
False
What collective name was given to the generation of scholars produced by the Hungarian school system?
57280e013acd2414000df343
Martians
639
False
In what year did Wigner win Nobel Prize?
57280e013acd2414000df344
1963
834
False
Von Neumann entered the Lutheran Fasori Evangelikus Gimnázium in 1911. This was one of the best schools in Budapest, part of a brilliant education system designed for the elite. Under the Hungarian system, children received all their education at the one gymnasium. Despite being run by the Lutheran Church, the majority of its pupils were Jewish. The school system produced a generation noted for intellectual achievement, that included Theodore von Kármán (b. 1881), George de Hevesy (b. 1885), Leó Szilárd (b. 1898), Eugene Wigner (b. 1902), Edward Teller (b. 1908), and Paul Erdős (b. 1913). Collectively, they were sometimes known as Martians. Wigner was a year ahead of von Neumann at the Lutheran School. When asked why the Hungary of his generation had produced so many geniuses, Wigner, who won the Nobel Prize in Physics in 1963, replied that von Neumann was the only genius.
At what age did Von Neumann begin to study advance calculus?
57280f6cff5b5019007d9c1c
15
225
False
Who did Von Neumann begin his studies of advanced calculus under?
57280f6cff5b5019007d9c1d
Gábor Szegő
292
False
By 19 how many papers had Von Neumann published?
57280f6cff5b5019007d9c1e
two major mathematical papers
647
False
Von Neumann's modern definition of ordinal numbers superseded whose definition?
57280f6cff5b5019007d9c1f
Georg Cantor
762
False
What prize did Von Neuman win at the conclusion of his gymansium formal education?
57280f6cff5b5019007d9c20
Eötvös Prize, a national prize for mathematics
874
False
Although Max insisted von Neumann attend school at the grade level appropriate to his age, he agreed to hire private tutors to give him advanced instruction in those areas in which he had displayed an aptitude. At the age of 15, he began to study advanced calculus under the renowned analyst Gábor Szegő. On their first meeting, Szegő was so astounded with the boy's mathematical talent that he was brought to tears. Some of von Neumann's instant solutions to the problems in calculus posed by Szegő, sketched out on his father's stationery, are still on display at the von Neumann archive in Budapest. By the age of 19, von Neumann had published two major mathematical papers, the second of which gave the modern definition of ordinal numbers, which superseded Georg Cantor's definition. At the conclusion of his education at the gymnasium, von Neumann sat for and won the Eötvös Prize, a national prize for mathematics.
What career path was decided upon for Von Neuman?
5728105e3acd2414000df37b
chemical engineer
292
False
At what university was it arranged for Von Neumann to enter a chemistry program?
5728105e3acd2414000df37c
University of Berlin
458
False
Where did Von Neumann study as a PHD candidate?
5728105e3acd2414000df37d
Pázmány Péter University in Budapest
626
False
What was the topic of Von Neuman's thesis?
5728105e3acd2414000df37e
axiomatization of Cantor's set theory
740
False
Since there were few posts in Hungary for mathematicians, and those were not well-paid, his father wanted von Neumann to follow him into industry and therefore invest his time in a more financially useful endeavor than mathematics. So it was decided that the best career path was to become a chemical engineer. This was not something that von Neumann had much knowledge of, so it was arranged for him to take a two-year non-degree course in chemistry at the University of Berlin, after which he sat the entrance exam to the prestigious ETH Zurich, which he passed in September 1923. At the same time, von Neumann also entered Pázmány Péter University in Budapest, as a Ph.D. candidate in mathematics. For his thesis, he chose to produce an axiomatization of Cantor's set theory. He passed his final examinations for his Ph.D. soon after graduating from ETH Zurich in 1926. He then went to the University of Göttingen on a grant from the Rockefeller Foundation to study mathematics under David Hilbert.
Where did Von Neumann begin to lecture in 1928?
5728115c3acd2414000df39b
University of Berlin
116
False
By the end of 1927 how many papers had Von Neuman written?
5728115c3acd2414000df39c
twelve major papers in mathematics
192
False
How many papers had Von Neumann written by 1929?
5728115c3acd2414000df39d
thirty-two papers
252
False
What better offer came for Von Neumann in 1930?
5728115c3acd2414000df39e
Princeton University
686
False
Von Neumann's habilitation was completed on December 13, 1927, and he started his lectures as a privatdozent at the University of Berlin in 1928. By the end of 1927, von Neumann had published twelve major papers in mathematics, and by the end of 1929, thirty-two papers, at a rate of nearly one major paper per month. His reputed powers of speedy, massive memorization and recall allowed him to recite volumes of information, and even entire directories, with ease. In 1929, he briefly became a privatdozent at the University of Hamburg, where the prospects of becoming a tenured professor were better, but in October of that year a better offer presented itself when he was invited to Princeton University in Princeton, New Jersey.
When did Von Neumann get married?
5728121c2ca10214002d9d34
New Year's Day in 1930
3
False
What was Von Neumann's wife's name?
5728121c2ca10214002d9d35
Mariette Kövesi
47
False
Before marriage what faith did Von Neumann join?
5728121c2ca10214002d9d36
he was baptized a Catholic.
138
False
What was Von Neumann's child's name?
5728121c2ca10214002d9d37
Marina
318
False
When did Von Neumann get married for a second time?
5728121c2ca10214002d9d38
October 1938
471
False
On New Year's Day in 1930, von Neumann married Mariette Kövesi, who had studied economics at the Budapest University. Before his marriage he was baptized a Catholic. Max had died in 1929. None of the family had converted to Christianity while he was alive, but afterwards they all did. They had one child, a daughter, Marina, who is now a distinguished professor of business administration and public policy at the University of Michigan. The couple divorced in 1937. In October 1938, von Neumann married Klara Dan, whom he had met during his last trips back to Budapest prior to the outbreak of World War II.
In what year was Von Neumann offered a lifetime professorship?
572813202ca10214002d9d4e
1933
3
False
In what year did Von Neumann's mother and siblings join him in U.S?
572813202ca10214002d9d4f
1939
434
False
In what year did Von Neumann become a naturalized citizen of US?
572813202ca10214002d9d50
1937
667
False
Why was Neuman rejected from joining US Army?
572813202ca10214002d9d51
age
841
False
In 1933, von Neumann was offered a lifetime professorship on the faculty of the Institute for Advanced Study when the institute's plan to appoint Hermann Weyl fell through. He remained a mathematics professor there until his death, although he announced that shortly before his intention to resign and become a professor at large at the University of California. His mother, brothers and in-laws followed John to the United States in 1939. Von Neumann anglicized his first name to John, keeping the German-aristocratic surname of von Neumann. His brothers changed theirs to "Neumann" and "Vonneumann". Von Neumann became a naturalized citizen of the United States in 1937, and immediately tried to become a lieutenant in the United States Army's Officers Reserve Corps. He passed the exams easily, but was ultimately rejected because of his age. His prewar analysis is often quoted. Asked about how France would stand up to Germany he said "Oh, France won't matter."
What type of "off color" humor did Von Neumann especially enjoy?
572814ba3acd2414000df401
limericks
159
False
What complaints did Von Neumann's neighbor's have?
572814ba3acd2414000df402
regularly playing extremely loud German march music
232
False
What famous neighbor did Von Neumann have that may have been distracted by the music Von Neumann played?
572814ba3acd2414000df403
Albert Einstein,
361
False
Von Neumann liked to eat and drink; his wife, Klara, said that he could count everything except calories. He enjoyed Yiddish and "off-color" humor (especially limericks). He was a non-smoker. At Princeton he received complaints for regularly playing extremely loud German march music on his gramophone, which distracted those in neighbouring offices, including Albert Einstein, from their work. Von Neumann did some of his best work blazingly fast in noisy, chaotic environments, and once admonished his wife for preparing a quiet study for him to work in. He never used it, preferring the couple's living room with its television playing loudly.
What mathematician was Von Nemann's closest friend?
572815ebff5b5019007d9cc6
Stanislaw Ulam
68
False
What topics of conversation would Ulam and Von Neumann typically share?
572815ebff5b5019007d9cc7
gossiping and giggling, swapping Jewish jokes, and drifting in and out of mathematical talk
165
False
What would Ulam use to cheer up Von Neumann in the hospital?
572815ebff5b5019007d9cc8
a new collection of jokes
355
False
Von Neumann's closest friend in the United States was mathematician Stanislaw Ulam. A later friend of Ulam's, Gian-Carlo Rota writes: "They would spend hours on end gossiping and giggling, swapping Jewish jokes, and drifting in and out of mathematical talk." When von Neumann was dying in hospital, every time Ulam would visit he would come prepared with a new collection of jokes to cheer up his friend. He believed that much of his mathematical thought occurred intuitively, and he would often go to sleep with a problem unsolved, and know the answer immediately upon waking up.
What caused a setback in naive set theory at the beginning of 20th century?
57281714ff5b5019007d9cf6
Russell's paradox
401
False
Who resolved the problem of adequate axiomatization of set theory?
57281714ff5b5019007d9cf7
Ernst Zermelo and Abraham Fraenkel
586
False
What 2 techniques did Von Neumann use to exclude sets in his doctoral thesis in 1925?
57281714ff5b5019007d9cf8
the axiom of foundation and the notion of class.
969
False
The axiomatization of mathematics, on the model of Euclid's Elements, had reached new levels of rigour and breadth at the end of the 19th century, particularly in arithmetic, thanks to the axiom schema of Richard Dedekind and Charles Sanders Peirce, and geometry, thanks to David Hilbert. At the beginning of the 20th century, efforts to base mathematics on naive set theory suffered a setback due to Russell's paradox (on the set of all sets that do not belong to themselves). The problem of an adequate axiomatization of set theory was resolved implicitly about twenty years later by Ernst Zermelo and Abraham Fraenkel. Zermelo–Fraenkel set theory provided a series of principles that allowed for the construction of the sets used in the everyday practice of mathematics. But they did not explicitly exclude the possibility of the existence of a set that belongs to itself. In his doctoral thesis of 1925, von Neumann demonstrated two techniques to exclude such sets—the axiom of foundation and the notion of class.
What is the method to demonstrate that no contradictions were created by the addition of axiom of foundation?
572818a43acd2414000df465
method of inner models
519
False
Zermelo and Fraenkel's axiom of foundation established that every set be constructed how?
572818a43acd2414000df466
from the bottom up in an ordered succession of steps
70
False
What excluded a set from belonging to itself in set theory?
572818a43acd2414000df467
if one set belongs to another then the first must necessarily come before the second in the succession
195
False
The axiom of foundation established that every set can be constructed from the bottom up in an ordered succession of steps by way of the principles of Zermelo and Fraenkel, in such a manner that if one set belongs to another then the first must necessarily come before the second in the succession, hence excluding the possibility of a set belonging to itself. To demonstrate that the addition of this new axiom to the others did not produce contradictions, von Neumann introduced a method of demonstration, called the method of inner models, which later became an essential instrument in set theory.
What is a proper class?
57281ad82ca10214002d9df4
a class which does not belong to other classes
169
False
Under what approach does an axiom impede a set of all sets which do not belong to themselves?
57281ad82ca10214002d9df5
Zermelo–Fraenkel
227
False
Under Von Neumann's approach can a class of all sets that do not belong to themselves be constructed?
57281ad82ca10214002d9df6
class of all sets which do not belong to themselves can be constructed, but it is a proper class and not a set.
394
False
The second approach to the problem took as its base the notion of class, and defines a set as a class which belongs to other classes, while a proper class is defined as a class which does not belong to other classes. Under the Zermelo–Fraenkel approach, the axioms impede the construction of a set of all sets which do not belong to themselves. In contrast, under the von Neumann approach, the class of all sets which do not belong to themselves can be constructed, but it is a proper class and not a set.
In 1930 who gave a strongly negative answer to Von Neuman's approach to the axiomatic system of theory of sets?
57281c093acd2414000df4bd
Kurt Gödel
321
False
What was the central theme of Godel's announcement that the axiomatic system was not complete?
57281c093acd2414000df4be
they cannot prove every truth which is expressible in their language
441
False
Where was Godel's statement about axiomatic system made in 1930?
57281c093acd2414000df4bf
Congress of Königsberg
288
False
With this contribution of von Neumann, the axiomatic system of the theory of sets became fully satisfactory, and the next question was whether or not it was also definitive, and not subject to improvement. A strongly negative answer arrived in September 1930 at the historic mathematical Congress of Königsberg, in which Kurt Gödel announced his first theorem of incompleteness: the usual axiomatic systems are incomplete, in the sense that they cannot prove every truth which is expressible in their language. This result was sufficiently innovative as to confound the majority of mathematicians of the time.
How long did it take von Neumann to figure a response to theory of incompleteness?
57281d523acd2414000df4cb
less than a month
110
False
What was the consequence of the theory of incompleteness?
57281d523acd2414000df4cc
usual axiomatic systems are unable to demonstrate their own consistency
228
False
Upon revising the theory of incompleteness, what was the name of the new Godel theory?
57281d523acd2414000df4cd
second incompleteness theorem
374
False
But von Neumann, who had participated at the Congress, confirmed his fame as an instantaneous thinker, and in less than a month was able to communicate to Gödel himself an interesting consequence of his theorem: namely that the usual axiomatic systems are unable to demonstrate their own consistency. However, Gödel had already discovered this consequence, now known as his second incompleteness theorem and sent von Neumann a preprint of his article containing both incompleteness theorems. Von Neumann acknowledged Gödel's priority in his next letter. He never thought much of "the American system of claiming personal priority for everything."
What field did Von Neuman establish?
57281f30ff5b5019007d9d86
continuous geometry.
33
False
What is the distinction of continuous geometry?
57281f30ff5b5019007d9d87
instead of the dimension of a subspace being in a discrete set 0, 1, ..., n, it can be an element of the unit interval
201
False
What was the first example of continuous geometry?
57281f30ff5b5019007d9d88
projections of the hyperfinite type II factor
544
False
Von Neumann founded the field of continuous geometry. It followed his path-breaking work on rings of operators. In mathematics, continuous geometry is an analogue of complex projective geometry, where instead of the dimension of a subspace being in a discrete set 0, 1, ..., n, it can be an element of the unit interval [0,1]. Von Neumann was motivated by his discovery of von Neumann algebras with a dimension function taking a continuous range of dimensions, and the first example of a continuous geometry other than projective space was the projections of the hyperfinite type II factor.
In what way did von Neumann make spectacular contributions to measure theory?
572821fc3acd2414000df54f
In a series of famous papers
0
False
What concept was relevant to the solvability of the problem of measure?
572821fc3acd2414000df550
algebraic concept of solvability of a group is relevant
410
False
According to von Neumann what is the most important part of the problem of measure?
572821fc3acd2414000df551
change of group that makes a difference, not the change of space
509
False
In a series of famous papers, von Neumann made spectacular contributions to measure theory. The work of Banach had implied that the problem of measure has a positive solution if n = 1 or n = 2 and a negative solution in all other cases. Von Neumann's work argued that the "problem is essentially group-theoretic in character, and that, in particular, for the solvability of the problem of measure the ordinary algebraic concept of solvability of a group is relevant. Thus, according to von Neumann, it is the change of group that makes a difference, not the change of space."
What is often considered more important than the results of von Neumann's papers?
5728230b4b864d1900164540
methods of argument he employed
41
False
In 1938 what was von Neumann awarded?
5728230b4b864d1900164541
Bôcher Memorial Prize
510
False
What did von Neumann use the Haar theorem to solve in a 1936 paper?
5728230b4b864d1900164542
Hilbert's fifth problem in the case of compact groups
427
False
In a number of von Neumann's papers, the methods of argument he employed are considered even more significant than the results. In anticipation of his later study of dimension theory in algebras of operators, von Neumann used results on equivalence by finite decomposition, and reformulated the problem of measure in terms of functions. In his 1936 paper on analytic measure theory, he used the Haar theorem in the solution of Hilbert's fifth problem in the case of compact groups. In 1938, he was awarded the Bôcher Memorial Prize for his work in analysis.
What is von Neumann algebra?
5728241e3acd2414000df587
algebra of bounded operators on a Hilbert space that is closed in the weak operator topology and contains the identity operator
119
False
What does the von Neumann bicommutant theorem show?
5728241e3acd2414000df588
the analytic definition is equivalent to a purely algebraic definition as an algebra of symmetries.
295
False
When was direct integral introduced by von Neumann?
5728241e3acd2414000df589
1949
433
False
What was introduced in von Neumann algebras?
5728241e3acd2414000df58a
study of rings of operators
27
False
Von Neumann introduced the study of rings of operators, through the von Neumann algebras. A von Neumann algebra is a *-algebra of bounded operators on a Hilbert space that is closed in the weak operator topology and contains the identity operator. The von Neumann bicommutant theorem shows that the analytic definition is equivalent to a purely algebraic definition as an algebra of symmetries. The direct integral was introduced in 1949 by John von Neumann. One of von Neumann's analyses was to reduce the classification of von Neumann algebras on separable Hilbert spaces to the classification of factors.
What did von Neumann work on in 1937 - 39?
57282557ff5b5019007d9dfa
lattice theory
22
False
What properties determine dimension in lattice theory?
57282557ff5b5019007d9dfb
conserved by perspective mappings ("perspectivities") and ordered by inclusion
279
False
Who wrote that "John von Neumann's brilliant mind blazed over lattice theory like a meteor?"
57282557ff5b5019007d9dfc
Garrett Birkhoff
528
False
Von Neumann worked on lattice theory between 1937 and 1939. Von Neumann provided an abstract exploration of dimension in completed complemented modular topological lattices: "Dimension is determined, up to a positive linear transformation, by the following two properties. It is conserved by perspective mappings ("perspectivities") and ordered by inclusion. The deepest part of the proof concerns the equivalence of perspectivity with "projectivity by decomposition"—of which a corollary is the transitivity of perspectivity." Garrett Birkhoff writes: "John von Neumann's brilliant mind blazed over lattice theory like a meteor".
What type of axioms were used by von Neumann in his lattice work?
572827144b864d19001645da
novel axioms
388
False
How long was von Neumann's lattice theory paper?
572827144b864d19001645db
140 pages
325
False
In what room did von Neumann often write at home?
572827144b864d19001645dc
living room writing-table
647
False
Additionally, "[I]n the general case, von Neumann proved the following basic representation theorem. Any complemented modular lattice L having a "basis" of n≥4 pairwise perspective elements, is isomorphic with the lattice ℛ(R) of all principal right-ideals of a suitable regular ring R. This conclusion is the culmination of 140 pages of brilliant and incisive algebra involving entirely novel axioms. Anyone wishing to get an unforgettable impression of the razor edge of von Neumann's mind, need merely try to pursue this chain of exact reasoning for himself—realizing that often five pages of it were written down before breakfast, seated at a living room writing-table in a bathrobe."
Who established the framework for quantum mechanics?
572828782ca10214002d9f78
Von Neumann
0
False
What paper did von Neumann produce in 1932?
572828782ca10214002d9f79
Mathematical Foundations of Quantum Mechanics
154
False
What von Neumann work preceded the axiomatiztion of quatum mechanics?
572828782ca10214002d9f7a
axiomatization of set theory
228
False
Von Neumann was the first to establish a rigorous mathematical framework for quantum mechanics, known as the Dirac–von Neumann axioms, with his 1932 work Mathematical Foundations of Quantum Mechanics. After having completed the axiomatization of set theory, he began to confront the axiomatization of quantum mechanics. He realized, in 1926, that a state of a quantum system could be represented by a point in a (complex) Hilbert space that, in general, could be infinite-dimensional even for a single particle. In this formalism of quantum mechanics, observable quantities such as position or momentum are represented as linear operators acting on the Hilbert space associated with the quantum system.
What are the physics of quantum mechanics?
572829bd4b864d190016461e
mathematics of Hilbert spaces and linear operators acting on them
60
False
What is the uncertainty principle?
572829bd4b864d190016461f
determination of the position of a particle prevents the determination of its momentum and vice versa
190
False
The physics of quantum mechanics included special cases for what work?
572829bd4b864d1900164620
formulations of both Heisenberg and Schrödinger
434
False
The physics of quantum mechanics was thereby reduced to the mathematics of Hilbert spaces and linear operators acting on them. For example, the uncertainty principle, according to which the determination of the position of a particle prevents the determination of its momentum and vice versa, is translated into the non-commutativity of the two corresponding operators. This new mathematical formulation included as special cases the formulations of both Heisenberg and Schrödinger. When Heisenberg was informed von Neumann had clarified the difference between an unbounded operator that was a Self-adjoint operator and one that was merely symmetric, Heisenberg replied "Eh? What is the difference?"
Von Neumann's abstract treatment allowed him to work on what foundational issue?
57282bb1ff5b5019007d9e72
determinism versus non-determinism
90
False
What was John Bell's argument?
57282bb1ff5b5019007d9e73
proof contained a conceptual error and was therefore invalid
395
False
What did Jeffrey Bub argue in 2010?
57282bb1ff5b5019007d9e74
Bell had misconstrued von Neumann's proof
499
False
Did von Neumann rule hidden variable theories?
57282bb1ff5b5019007d9e75
von Neumann did not claim that his proof completely ruled out hidden variable theories
750
False
Von Neumann's abstract treatment permitted him also to confront the foundational issue of determinism versus non-determinism, and in the book he presented a proof that the statistical results of quantum mechanics could not possibly be averages of an underlying set of determined "hidden variables," as in classical statistical mechanics. In 1966, John S. Bell published a paper arguing that the proof contained a conceptual error and was therefore invalid. However, in 2010, Jeffrey Bub argued that Bell had misconstrued von Neumann's proof, and pointed out that the proof, though not valid for all hidden variable theories, does rule out a well-defined and important subset. Bub also suggests that von Neumann was aware of this limitation, and that von Neumann did not claim that his proof completely ruled out hidden variable theories.
What results came from von Neumann's deep analysis of the measurement problem?
57282d9cff5b5019007d9e9e
physical universe could be made subject to the universal wave function
159
False
What "outside of calculation" variable could initiate collapse in von Neumann's conclusion?
57282d9cff5b5019007d9e9f
consciousness of the experimenter
373
False
Were von Neumann's conclusions of collapse of entire universe cause accepted widely?
57282d9cff5b5019007d9ea0
Von Neumann–Wigner interpretation never gained acceptance amongst the majority of physicists
462
False
In a chapter of The Mathematical Foundations of Quantum Mechanics, von Neumann deeply analyzed the so-called measurement problem. He concluded that the entire physical universe could be made subject to the universal wave function. Since something "outside the calculation" was needed to collapse the wave function, von Neumann concluded that the collapse was caused by the consciousness of the experimenter (although this view was accepted by Eugene Wigner, the Von Neumann–Wigner interpretation never gained acceptance amongst the majority of physicists).
With whom did von Neuman work on a paper in 1936 that introduce quantum logic?
57282ec4ff5b5019007d9ea4
Garrett Birkhoff
31
False
What concept was created for quatum logic?
57282ec4ff5b5019007d9ea5
propositional calculus
339
False
What is the difference of logic in quantum theory?
57282ec4ff5b5019007d9ea6
laws of distribution of classical logic,  and , are not valid for quantum theory
1074
False
In a famous paper of 1936 with Garrett Birkhoff, the first work ever to introduce quantum logics, von Neumann and Birkhoff first proved that quantum mechanics requires a propositional calculus substantially different from all classical logics and rigorously isolated a new algebraic structure for quantum logics. The concept of creating a propositional calculus for quantum logic was first outlined in a short section in von Neumann's 1932 work, but in 1936, the need for the new propositional calculus was demonstrated through several proofs. For example, photons cannot pass through two successive filters that are polarized perpendicularly (e.g., one horizontally and the other vertically), and therefore, a fortiori, it cannot pass if a third filter polarized diagonally is added to the other two, either before or after them in the succession, but if the third filter is added in between the other two, the photons will, indeed, pass through. This experimental fact is translatable into logic as the non-commutativity of conjunction . It was also demonstrated that the laws of distribution of classical logic,  and , are not valid for quantum theory.
What year was game theory established?
572831002ca10214002da042
1928
117
False
What discipline is game theory derived from?
572831002ca10214002da043
mathematical discipline.
50
False
what are the possible strategies in minimax theory?
572831002ca10214002da044
a pair of strategies for both players that allows each to minimize his maximum losses
291
False
What must a player consider when determining every possible strategy?
572831002ca10214002da045
all the possible responses of his adversary.
465
False
Von Neumann founded the field of game theory as a mathematical discipline. Von Neumann proved his minimax theorem in 1928. This theorem establishes that in zero-sum games with perfect information (i.e. in which players know at each time all moves that have taken place so far), there exists a pair of strategies for both players that allows each to minimize his maximum losses, hence the name minimax. When examining every possible strategy, a player must consider all the possible responses of his adversary. The player then plays out the strategy that will result in the minimization of his maximum loss.
What is the difference of quantum disjunction from classic?
572832a4ff5b5019007d9ee0
can be true even when both of the disjuncts are false
94
False
What is frequently the case in quantum mechanics when a pair of alternatives are semantically determinate?
572832a4ff5b5019007d9ee1
each of its members are necessarily indeterminate
313
False
How can quantum disjuction be illustrated?
572832a4ff5b5019007d9ee2
illustrated by a simple example
392
False
The reason for this is that a quantum disjunction, unlike the case for classical disjunction, can be true even when both of the disjuncts are false and this is, in turn, attributable to the fact that it is frequently the case, in quantum mechanics, that a pair of alternatives are semantically determinate, while each of its members are necessarily indeterminate. This latter property can be illustrated by a simple example. Suppose we are dealing with particles (such as electrons) of semi-integral spin (angular momentum) for which there are only two possible values: positive or negative. Then, a principle of indetermination establishes that the spin, relative to two different directions (e.g., x and y) results in a pair of incompatible quantities. Suppose that the state ɸ of a certain electron verifies the proposition "the spin of the electron in the x direction is positive." By the principle of indeterminacy, the value of the spin in the direction y will be completely indeterminate for ɸ. Hence, ɸ can verify neither the proposition "the spin in the direction of y is positive" nor the proposition "the spin in the direction of y is negative." Nevertheless, the disjunction of the propositions "the spin in the direction of y is positive or the spin in the direction of y is negative" must be true for ɸ. In the case of distribution, it is therefore possible to have a situation in which , while .
What is optimal strategy?
572833752ca10214002da090
minimize the maximum loss for each player
23
False
What von Neumann work was published in 1944?
572833752ca10214002da091
Theory of Games and Economic Behavior
356
False
Who was co-author with von Neman on the Theory of Games and Economic Behavior?
572833752ca10214002da092
Oskar Morgenstern
408
False
Such strategies, which minimize the maximum loss for each player, are called optimal. Von Neumann showed that their minimaxes are equal (in absolute value) and contrary (in sign). Von Neumann improved and extended the minimax theorem to include games involving imperfect information and games with more than two players, publishing this result in his 1944 Theory of Games and Economic Behavior (written with Oskar Morgenstern). Morgenstern wrote a paper on game theory and thought he would show it to von Neumann because of his interest in the subject. He read it and said to Morgenstern that he should put more in it. This was repeated a couple of times, and then von Neumann became a coauthor and the paper became 100 pages long. Then it became a book. The public interest in this work was such that The New York Times ran a front-page story. In this book, von Neumann declared that economic theory needed to use functional analytic methods, especially convex sets and topological fixed-point theorem, rather than the traditional differential calculus, because the maximum-operator did not preserve differentiable functions.
How did von Neumann raise the level of economics?
5728359e2ca10214002da0d0
several stunning publications
75
False
What did von Neumann prove with his model of expanding economy?
5728359e2ca10214002da0d1
uniqueness of an equilibrium using his generalization of the Brouwer fixed-point theorem
182
False
What did von Neumann consider for his model of expanding economy?
5728359e2ca10214002da0d2
matrix pencil  A − λB with nonnegative matrices A and B
331
False
Von Neumann raised the intellectual and mathematical level of economics in several stunning publications. For his model of an expanding economy, von Neumann proved the existence and uniqueness of an equilibrium using his generalization of the Brouwer fixed-point theorem. Von Neumann's model of an expanding economy considered the matrix pencil  A − λB with nonnegative matrices A and B; von Neumann sought probability vectors p and q and a positive number λ that would solve the complementarity equation
In von Neumann's model what does p represent?
572836864b864d1900164754
p represents the prices of the goods
117
False
In von Neumann's model what does q represent?
572836864b864d1900164755
q represents the "intensity" at which the production process would run
183
False
What is the rate of qrowth equal to?
572836864b864d1900164756
rate of growth equals the interest rate
361
False
Was the economic model successful?
572836864b864d1900164757
proving that the growth rate equals the interest rate were remarkable achievements, even for von Neumann
454
False
along with two inequality systems expressing economic efficiency. In this model, the (transposed) probability vector p represents the prices of the goods while the probability vector q represents the "intensity" at which the production process would run. The unique solution λ represents the growth factor which is 1 plus the rate of growth of the economy; the rate of growth equals the interest rate. Proving the existence of a positive growth rate and proving that the growth rate equals the interest rate were remarkable achievements, even for von Neumann.
What were von Neumann's model an example of?
572837a4ff5b5019007d9f40
viewed as a special case of linear programming
32
False
What was the significance of von Neumann's model of expanding economy?
572837a4ff5b5019007d9f41
unique in having made significant contributions to economic theory itself.
684
False
What ideas were utilized in von Neumann's ecocomic model?
572837a4ff5b5019007d9f42
fixed-point theorems, linear inequalities, complementary slackness, and saddlepoint duality
411
False
Von Neumann's results have been viewed as a special case of linear programming, where von Neumann's model uses only nonnegative matrices. The study of von Neumann's model of an expanding economy continues to interest mathematical economists with interests in computational economics. This paper has been called the greatest paper in mathematical economics by several authors, who recognized its introduction of fixed-point theorems, linear inequalities, complementary slackness, and saddlepoint duality. In the proceedings of a conference on von Neumann's growth model, Paul Samuelson said that many mathematicians had developed methods useful to economists, but that von Neumann was unique in having made significant contributions to economic theory itself.
When did von Neumann's interest in economics begin?
5728386d4b864d1900164782
When lecturing at Berlin in 1928 and 1929
219
False
What economist did von Neumann get to know that spurred the interest in economics?
5728386d4b864d1900164783
Nicholas Kaldor
330
False
In who's book did von Neuman find errors in the author's equations?
5728386d4b864d1900164784
Léon Walras
446
False
Von Neumann's famous 9-page paper started life as a talk at Princeton and then became a paper in Germany, which was eventually translated into English. His interest in economics that led to that paper began as follows: When lecturing at Berlin in 1928 and 1929 he spent his summers back home in Budapest, and so did the economist Nicholas Kaldor, and they hit it off. Kaldor recommended that von Neumann read a book by the mathematical economist Léon Walras. Von Neumann found some faults in that book and corrected them, for example, replacing equations by inequalities. He noticed that Walras's General Equilibrium Theory and Walras' Law, which led to systems of simultaneous linear equations, could produce the absurd result that the profit could be maximized by producing and selling a negative quantity of a product. He replaced the equations by inequalities, introduced dynamic equilibria, among other things, and eventually produced the paper.
What was the new method of linear programming that von Neumann suggested?
572839072ca10214002da104
homogeneous linear system of Gordan
75
False
What did von Neuman's method use?
572839072ca10214002da105
pivoting algorithm between simplices
201
False
What was von Neumann's method known to be the first of?
572839072ca10214002da106
algorithm was the first interior point method of linear programming.
434
False
Later, von Neumann suggested a new method of linear programming, using the homogeneous linear system of Gordan (1873), which was later popularized by Karmarkar's algorithm. Von Neumann's method used a pivoting algorithm between simplices, with the pivoting decision determined by a nonnegative least squares subproblem with a convexity constraint (projecting the zero-vector onto the convex hull of the active simplex). Von Neumann's algorithm was the first interior point method of linear programming.
When did von NEumann establish mean square ratio?
572839f4ff5b5019007d9f74
1941
74
False
How has mean square ratio been applied?
572839f4ff5b5019007d9f75
Durbin–Watson statistic
351
False
what does null hypothesis test against?
572839f4ff5b5019007d9f76
alternative that they follow a stationary first order autoregression
460
False
Von Neumann made fundamental contributions to mathematical statistics. In 1941, he derived the exact distribution of the ratio of the mean square of successive differences to the sample variance for independent and identically normally distributed variables. This ratio was applied to the residuals from regression models and is commonly known as the Durbin–Watson statistic for testing the null hypothesis that the errors are serially independent against the alternative that they follow a stationary first order autoregression.
The algorithm defining artificial viscosity is a fundamental contribution to what area?
57283ad62ca10214002da12c
numerical hydrodynamics
73
False
What did the math of artificial viscosity do?
57283ad62ca10214002da12d
smoothed the shock transition without sacrificing basic physics
461
False
What was the problem of computers solving fluid dynamics?
57283ad62ca10214002da12e
they tried to put too many computational grid points at regions of sharp discontinuity (shock waves)
319
False
Von Neumann made fundamental contributions in exploration of problems in numerical hydrodynamics. For example, with Robert D. Richtmyer he developed an algorithm defining artificial viscosity that improved the understanding of shock waves. A problem was that when computers solved hydrodynamic or aerodynamic problems, they tried to put too many computational grid points at regions of sharp discontinuity (shock waves). The mathematics of artificial viscosity smoothed the shock transition without sacrificing basic physics. Other well known contributions to fluid dynamics included the classic flow solution to blast waves, and the co-discovery of the ZND detonation model of explosives.
What principal contribution did von Neumann make to atomic bomb?
57283bbeff5b5019007d9fae
concept and design of the explosive lenses needed to compress the plutonium core
67
False
Did von Nemann think that the atomic bomb design was not workable?
57283bbeff5b5019007d9faf
he was one of its most persistent proponents, encouraging its continued development
267
False
What additional ideas did von Neumann contribute to Atomic bomb?
57283bbeff5b5019007d9fb0
more powerful shaped charges and less fissionable material to greatly increase the speed of "assembly"
491
False
Von Neumann's principal contribution to the atomic bomb was in the concept and design of the explosive lenses needed to compress the plutonium core of the Fat Man weapon that was later dropped on Nagasaki. While von Neumann did not originate the "implosion" concept, he was one of its most persistent proponents, encouraging its continued development against the instincts of many of his colleagues, who felt such a design to be unworkable. He also eventually came up with the idea of using more powerful shaped charges and less fissionable material to greatly increase the speed of "assembly".
what change was made when shortage of uranium 235 was apparent?
57283cc13acd2414000df787
implosive lens project was greatly expanded
94
False
What was the tolerance limit for implosion "edge effect"?
57283cc13acd2414000df788
not depart by more than 5% from spherical symmetry
498
False
Who constructed Trinity bomb?
57283cc13acd2414000df789
George Kistiakowsky
618
False
In what year was Trinity bomb completed?
57283cc13acd2414000df78a
1945
702
False
When it turned out that there would not be enough uranium-235 to make more than one bomb, the implosive lens project was greatly expanded and von Neumann's idea was implemented. Implosion was the only method that could be used with the plutonium-239 that was available from the Hanford Site. He established the design of the explosive lenses required, but there remained concerns about "edge effects" and imperfections in the explosives. His calculations showed that implosion would work if it did not depart by more than 5% from spherical symmetry. After a series of failed attempts with models, this was achieved by George Kistiakowsky, and the construction of the Trinity bomb was completed in July 1945.
What other people worked with von Neumann on target selection?
57283dd13acd2414000df7a3
four other scientists and various military personnel
11
False
What role did von Neuman play in the selection of targets?
57283dd13acd2414000df7a4
oversaw computations
248
False
What was von Neumann's first choice for target city?
57283dd13acd2414000df7a5
Kyoto
495
False
Who dismissed von Neuamann's primary target city?
57283dd13acd2414000df7a6
Secretary of War Henry L. Stimson.
724
False
Along with four other scientists and various military personnel, von Neumann was included in the target selection committee responsible for choosing the Japanese cities of Hiroshima and Nagasaki as the first targets of the atomic bomb. Von Neumann oversaw computations related to the expected size of the bomb blasts, estimated death tolls, and the distance above the ground at which the bombs should be detonated for optimum shock wave propagation and thus maximum effect. The cultural capital Kyoto, which had been spared the bombing inflicted upon militarily significant cities, was von Neumann's first choice, a selection seconded by Manhattan Project leader General Leslie Groves. However, this target was dismissed by Secretary of War Henry L. Stimson.
On what day was the first atomic blast?
57283e8bff5b5019007d9fe2
July 16, 1945
3
False
Where did the first atomic blast test take place?
57283e8bff5b5019007d9fe3
Alamogordo Army Airfield,
227
False
What was the power of the first atomic blast?
57283e8bff5b5019007d9fe4
between 20 and 22 kilotons
651
False
On July 16, 1945, with numerous other Manhattan Project personnel, von Neumann was an eyewitness to the first atomic bomb blast, code named Trinity, conducted as a test of the implosion method device, at the bombing range near Alamogordo Army Airfield, 35 miles (56 km) southeast of Socorro, New Mexico. Based on his observation alone, von Neumann estimated the test had resulted in a blast equivalent to 5 kilotons of TNT (21 TJ) but Enrico Fermi produced a more accurate estimate of 10 kilotons by dropping scraps of torn-up paper as the shock wave passed his location and watching how far they scattered. The actual power of the explosion had been between 20 and 22 kilotons. It was in von Neumann's 1944 papers that the expression "kilotons" appeared for the first time. After the war, Robert Oppenheimer remarked that the physicists involved in the Manhattan project had "known sin". Von Neumann's response was that "sometimes someone confesses a sin in order to take credit for it."
With whom did von Neumann collaborate for further development of the hydrogen bomb?
57283ff9ff5b5019007d9ffc
Klaus Fuchs
164
False
What improvement did von Neumann see in the nuclear weaponry?
57283ff9ff5b5019007d9ffd
using a fission bomb to compress fusion fuel to initiate nuclear fusion
350
False
What country was afforded access to design of improved nuclear weapon through espionage?
57283ff9ff5b5019007d9ffe
Soviet Union
808
False
Von Neumann continued unperturbed in his work and became, along with Edward Teller, one of those who sustained the hydrogen bomb project. He then collaborated with Klaus Fuchs on further development of the bomb, and in 1946 the two filed a secret patent on "Improvement in Methods and Means for Utilizing Nuclear Energy", which outlined a scheme for using a fission bomb to compress fusion fuel to initiate nuclear fusion. The Fuchs–von Neumann patent used radiation implosion, but not in the same way as is used in what became the final hydrogen bomb design, the Teller–Ulam design. Their work was, however, incorporated into the "George" shot of Operation Greenhouse, which was instructive in testing out concepts that went into the final design. The Fuchs–von Neumann work was passed on, by Fuchs, to the Soviet Union as part of his nuclear espionage, but it was not used in the Soviets' own, independent development of the Teller–Ulam design. The historian Jeremy Bernstein has pointed out that ironically, "John von Neumann and Klaus Fuchs, produced a brilliant invention in 1946 that could have changed the whole course of the development of the hydrogen bomb, but was not fully understood until after the bomb had been successfully made."
In 1950 von Neumann became a consultant for what organization?
572841842ca10214002da1ae
Weapons Systems Evaluation Group
48
False
What military organization did von NEumann also consult with for military aspect of nuclear weapons?
572841842ca10214002da1af
Armed Forces Special Weapons Project
268
False
What committee did von Neumann serve on within the Atomic Energy Commission?
572841842ca10214002da1b0
General Advisory Committee
508
False
In 1950, von Neumann became a consultant to the Weapons Systems Evaluation Group (WSEG), whose function was to advise the Joint Chiefs of Staff and the United States Secretary of Defense on the development and use of new technologies. He also became an adviser to the Armed Forces Special Weapons Project (AFSWP), which was responsible for the military aspects on nuclear weapons.Over the following two years, he also became a consultant to the Central Intelligence Agency (CIA), a member of the influential General Advisory Committee of the Atomic Energy Commission, a consultant to the newly established Lawrence Livermore National Laboratory, and a member of the Scientific Advisory Group of the United States Air Force.
In what year did von Neumann become commissioner of the AEC?
572842b04b864d190016482c
1955
3
False
What were compact hydrogen bombs useful for?
572842b04b864d190016482d
Intercontinental ballistic missile delivery
158
False
What was the concern with longer range ICBM with Hbomb?
572842b04b864d190016482e
relative inaccuracy of the missile
546
False
Von Neumann testified at whose hearing about loyalty and help?
572842b04b864d190016482f
Oppenheimer
935
False
In 1955, von Neumann became a commissioner of the AEC. He accepted this position and used it to further the production of compact hydrogen bombs suitable for Intercontinental ballistic missile delivery. He involved himself in correcting the severe shortage of tritium and lithium 6 needed for these compact weapons, and he argued against settling for the intermediate range missiles that the Army wanted. He was adamant that H-bombs delivered into the heart of enemy territory by an ICBM would be the most effective weapon possible, and that the relative inaccuracy of the missile wouldn't be a problem with an H-bomb. He said the Russians would probably be building a similar weapon system, which turned out to be the case. Despite his disagreement with Oppenheimer over the need for a crash program to develop the hydrogen bomb, he testified on the latter's behalf at the 1954 Oppenheimer security hearing, at which he asserted that Oppenheimer was loyal, and praised him for his helpfulness once the program went ahead.
What was the purpose of top secret ICBM committee?
572843ce4b864d190016485c
decide on the feasibility of building an ICBM large enough to carry a thermonuclear weapon
194
False
What argument did von Neumann make about ICBMs?
572843ce4b864d190016485d
while the technical obstacles were sizable, they could be overcome in time
319
False
In what year did SM-65 Atlas pass its first fully functional test?
572843ce4b864d190016485e
1959
453
False
Shortly before his death, when he was already quite ill, von Neumann headed the United States government's top secret ICBM committee, and it would sometimes meet in his home. Its purpose was to decide on the feasibility of building an ICBM large enough to carry a thermonuclear weapon. Von Neumann had long argued that while the technical obstacles were sizable, they could be overcome in time. The SM-65 Atlas passed its first fully functional test in 1959, two years after his death. The feasibility of an ICBM owed as much to improved, smaller warheads as it did to developments in rocketry, and his understanding of the former made his advice invaluable.
What was MAD?
572845213acd2414000df81f
mutual assured destruction
57
False
What was the goal of MAD?
572845213acd2414000df820
quickly develop ICBMs and the compact hydrogen bombs that they could deliver to the USSR
347
False
What were Russians opinions of future weaponry?
572845213acd2414000df821
Russians believed that bombers would soon be vulnerable, and they shared von Neumann's view that an H-bomb in an ICBM was the ne plus ultra of weapons
646
False
What was the concern of a missile gap?
572845213acd2414000df822
keeping up with the Soviets
1005
False
Von Neumann is credited with the equilibrium strategy of mutual assured destruction, providing the deliberately humorous acronym, MAD. (Other humorous acronyms coined by von Neumann include his computer, the Mathematical Analyzer, Numerical Integrator, and Computer—or MANIAC). He also "moved heaven and earth" to bring MAD about. His goal was to quickly develop ICBMs and the compact hydrogen bombs that they could deliver to the USSR, and he knew the Soviets were doing similar work because the CIA interviewed German rocket scientists who were allowed to return to Germany, and von Neumann had planted a dozen technical people in the CIA. The Russians believed that bombers would soon be vulnerable, and they shared von Neumann's view that an H-bomb in an ICBM was the ne plus ultra of weapons, and they believed that whoever had superiority in these weapons would take over the world, without necessarily using them. He was afraid of a "missile gap" and took several more steps to achieve his goal of keeping up with the Soviets:
Why did von Neumann join government work?
572846473acd2414000df84d
felt that, if freedom and civilization were to survive, it would have to be because the US would triumph over totalitarianism
80
False
How did von Neumaan describe his political ideology?
572846473acd2414000df84e
violently anti-communist, and much more militaristic than the norm
323
False
What was the project that von Neumann first participated in government?
572846473acd2414000df84f
Manhattan Project
40
False
Von Neumann entered government service (Manhattan Project) primarily because he felt that, if freedom and civilization were to survive, it would have to be because the US would triumph over totalitarianism from Nazism, Fascism and Soviet Communism. During a Senate committee hearing he described his political ideology as "violently anti-communist, and much more militaristic than the norm". He was quoted in 1950 remarking, "If you say why not bomb [the Soviets] tomorrow, I say, why not today? If you say today at five o'clock, I say why not one o'clock?"
Who was the inventor of the merge-sort algorithm?
572847273acd2414000df85d
Von Neumann
0
False
With whom did von Neumann work on the philosophy of artificial intelligence?
572847273acd2414000df85e
Alan Turing
491
False
What does a merge sort algorithm do?
572847273acd2414000df85f
the first and second halves of an array are each sorted recursively and then merged
143
False
Von Neumann was a founding figure in computing. Donald Knuth cites von Neumann as the inventor, in 1945, of the merge sort algorithm, in which the first and second halves of an array are each sorted recursively and then merged. Von Neumann wrote the sorting program for the EDVAC in ink, being 23 pages long; traces can still be seen on the first page of the phrase "TOP SECRET", which was written in pencil and later erased. He also worked on the philosophy of artificial intelligence with Alan Turing when the latter visited Princeton in the 1930s.
Where were the computations for hydrogen bomb worked out?
5728489dff5b5019007da0d8
von Neumann's digital computers
128
False
What was the Monte Carlo method?
5728489dff5b5019007da0d9
allowed solutions to complicated problems to be approximated using random numbers
279
False
Due to slow use of random numbers what was developed?
5728489dff5b5019007da0da
pseudorandom numbers
612
False
Von Neumann's hydrogen bomb work was played out in the realm of computing, where he and Stanislaw Ulam developed simulations on von Neumann's digital computers for the hydrodynamic computations. During this time he contributed to the development of the Monte Carlo method, which allowed solutions to complicated problems to be approximated using random numbers. His algorithm for simulating a fair coin with a biased coin is used in the "software whitening" stage of some hardware random number generators. Because using lists of "truly" random numbers was extremely slow, von Neumann developed a form of making pseudorandom numbers, using the middle-square method. Though this method has been criticized as crude, von Neumann was aware of this: he justified it as being faster than any other method at his disposal, and also noted that when it went awry it did so obviously, unlike methods which could be subtly incorrect. "Anyone who considers arithmetical methods of producing random digits is, of course, in a state of sin."
What nullified patent claims of EDVAC designers?
57284a152ca10214002da258
von Neumann wrote an incomplete First Draft of a Report
120
False
What was the significance of EDVAC?
57284a152ca10214002da259
architecture is to this day the basis of modern computer design,
454
False
Where was ENIAC located?
57284a152ca10214002da25a
University of Pennsylvania
913
False
While consulting for the Moore School of Electrical Engineering at the University of Pennsylvania on the EDVAC project, von Neumann wrote an incomplete First Draft of a Report on the EDVAC. The paper, whose premature distribution nullified the patent claims of EDVAC designers J. Presper Eckert and John Mauchly, described a computer architecture in which the data and the program are both stored in the computer's memory in the same address space. This architecture is to this day the basis of modern computer design, unlike the earliest computers that were "programmed" using a separate memory device such as a paper tape or plugboard. Although the single-memory, stored program architecture is commonly called von Neumann architecture as a result of von Neumann's paper, the architecture's description was based on the work of J. Presper Eckert and John William Mauchly, inventors of the ENIAC computer at the University of Pennsylvania.
What was the speed difference with new ENIAC?
57284b74ff5b5019007da116
new ENIAC ran at one-sixth the speed
78
False
What were advantages for programming new ENIAC?
57284b74ff5b5019007da117
programs could be developed and debugged in days rather than the weeks
220
False
After the design of IAS, who built the computer?
57284b74ff5b5019007da118
RCA Research Laboratory
602
False
John von Neumann also consulted for the ENIAC project. The electronics of the new ENIAC ran at one-sixth the speed, but this in no way degraded the ENIAC's performance, since it was still entirely I/O bound. Complicated programs could be developed and debugged in days rather than the weeks required for plugboarding the old ENIAC. Some of von Neumann's early computer programs have been preserved. The next computer that von Neumann designed was the IAS machine at the Institute for Advanced Study in Princeton, New Jersey. He arranged its financing, and the components were designed and built at the RCA Research Laboratory nearby. John von Neumann recommended that the IBM 701, nicknamed the defense computer include a magnetic drum. It was a faster version of the IAS machine and formed the basis for the commercially successful IBM 704.
When was stochastic computing introduced?
57284cb1ff5b5019007da126
1953
82
False
How long before stochastic computing could be implemented?
57284cb1ff5b5019007da127
advances in computing of the 1960s.
139
False
When did von NEumann develop first self reproducing computer program?
57284cb1ff5b5019007da128
1949
904
False
What is another name for the first self reproducing computer program?
57284cb1ff5b5019007da129
computer virus
1003
False
Stochastic computing was first introduced in a pioneering paper by von Neumann in 1953. However, the theory could not be implemented until advances in computing of the 1960s. He also created the field of cellular automata without the aid of computers, constructing the first self-replicating automata with pencil and graph paper. The concept of a universal constructor was fleshed out in his posthumous work Theory of Self Reproducing Automata. Von Neumann proved that the most effective way of performing large-scale mining operations such as mining an entire moon or asteroid belt would be by using self-replicating spacecraft, taking advantage of their exponential growth. His rigorous mathematical analysis of the structure of self-replication (of the semiotic relationship between constructor, description and that which is constructed), preceded the discovery of the structure of DNA. Beginning in 1949, von Neumann's design for a self-reproducing computer program is considered the world's first computer virus, and he is considered to be the theoretical father of computer virology.
On what computer was the first numerical weather forecast produced?
57284db43acd2414000df8e3
ENIAC
82
False
In what year did von Neumann publish the paper Numerical Integration of the Barotropic Vorticity Equation
57284db43acd2414000df8e4
1950
192
False
How much colder was world in last glacial age?
57284db43acd2414000df8e5
6 °F (3.3 °C) colder
494
False
Von Neumann's team performed the world's first numerical weather forecasts on the ENIAC computer; von Neumann published the paper Numerical Integration of the Barotropic Vorticity Equation in 1950. Von Neumann's interest in weather systems and meteorological prediction led him to propose manipulating the environment by spreading colorants on the polar ice caps to enhance absorption of solar radiation (by reducing the albedo). thereby inducing global warming. Noting that the Earth was only 6 °F (3.3 °C) colder during the last glacial period, he noted that the burning of coal and oil "a general warming of the Earth by about one degree Fahrenheit."
How quickly was von Neumann able to complete math in his head?
57284ec5ff5b5019007da15a
stunned other mathematicians
80
False
Were other mathematicians amazed by von Neumann?
57284ec5ff5b5019007da15b
Paul Halmos states that "von Neumann's speed was awe-inspiring."
293
False
Did von Neumann enjoy thinking?
57284ec5ff5b5019007da15c
Neumann actually enjoyed thinking, maybe even to the exclusion of everything else.
904
False
Von Neumann's ability to instantaneously perform complex operations in his head stunned other mathematicians. Eugene Wigner wrote that, seeing von Neumann's mind at work, "one had the impression of a perfect instrument whose gears were machined to mesh accurately to a thousandth of an inch." Paul Halmos states that "von Neumann's speed was awe-inspiring." Israel Halperin said: "Keeping up with him was ... impossible. The feeling was you were on a tricycle chasing a racing car." Edward Teller wrote that von Neumann effortlessly outdid anybody he ever met, and said "I never could keep up with him". Teller also said "von Neumann would carry on a conversation with my 3-year-old son, and the two of them would talk as equals, and I sometimes wondered if he used the same principle when he talked to the rest of us. Most people avoid thinking if they can, some of us are addicted to thinking, but von Neumann actually enjoyed thinking, maybe even to the exclusion of everything else."
How did Lothar Wolfgang Nordheim describe von Neumann?
57284fc8ff5b5019007da160
"fastest mind I ever met",
54
False
What did Jacob Bronowski think of von Neumann?
57284fc8ff5b5019007da161
He was the cleverest man I ever knew, without exception. He was a genius.
108
False
What did Lecturer Polya think about von Nuemann?
57284fc8ff5b5019007da162
Johnny was the only student I was ever afraid of.
267
False
Lothar Wolfgang Nordheim described von Neumann as the "fastest mind I ever met", and Jacob Bronowski wrote "He was the cleverest man I ever knew, without exception. He was a genius." George Pólya, whose lectures at ETH Zürich von Neumann attended as a student, said "Johnny was the only student I was ever afraid of. If in the course of a lecture I stated an unsolved problem, the chances were he'd come to me at the end of the lecture with the complete solution scribbled on a slip of paper." Halmos recounts a story told by Nicholas Metropolis, concerning the speed of von Neumann's calculations, when somebody asked von Neumann to solve the famous fly puzzle:
What did Herman Goldstone write about von NEumann?
572850984b864d1900164930
One of his remarkable abilities was his power of absolute recall.
25
False
Could von Neumann recall written text much later?
572850984b864d1900164931
he immediately began to recite the first chapter and continued until asked to stop after about ten or fifteen minutes.
474
False
What did Ulam think of von Nuemann's cognitive ability?
572850984b864d1900164932
von Neumann's way of thinking might not be visual, but more of an aural one.
610
False
Herman Goldstine wrote: "One of his remarkable abilities was his power of absolute recall. As far as I could tell, von Neumann was able on once reading a book or article to quote it back verbatim; moreover, he could do it years later without hesitation. He could also translate it at no diminution in speed from its original language into English. On one occasion I tested his ability by asking him to tell me how A Tale of Two Cities started. Whereupon, without any pause, he immediately began to recite the first chapter and continued until asked to stop after about ten or fifteen minutes." Ulam noted that von Neumann's way of thinking might not be visual, but more of an aural one.
What did Nobel Laureate Hans Bethe think of von NEumann's ability?
57285159ff5b5019007da170
I have sometimes wondered whether a brain like von Neumann's does not indicate a species superior to that of man
1
False
What did James Glimm have to say about von Nuemann?
57285159ff5b5019007da171
he is regarded as one of the giants of modern mathematics
459
False
What description did Peter Lax use for von Neumann?
57285159ff5b5019007da172
most scintillating intellect of this century
660
False
"I have sometimes wondered whether a brain like von Neumann's does not indicate a species superior to that of man", said Nobel Laureate Hans Bethe of Cornell University. "It seems fair to say that if the influence of a scientist is interpreted broadly enough to include impact on fields beyond science proper, then John von Neumann was probably the most influential mathematician who ever lived," wrote Miklós Rédei in "Selected Letters." James Glimm wrote: "he is regarded as one of the giants of modern mathematics". The mathematician Jean Dieudonné called von Neumann "the last of the great mathematicians", while Peter Lax described him as possessing the "most scintillating intellect of this century".
In what year was von Neumann diagnosed with cancer?
572852073acd2414000df905
1955
3
False
From when his mother was diagnosed with cancer, how long did she live?
572852073acd2414000df906
died within two weeks
155
False
How long did von Neumann survive with cancer?
572852073acd2414000df907
eighteen months
187
False
In 1955, von Neumann was diagnosed with what was either bone or pancreatic cancer. His mother, Margaret von Neumann, was diagnosed with cancer in 1956 and died within two weeks. John had eighteen months from diagnosis till death. In this period von Neumann returned to the Roman Catholic faith that had also been significant to his mother after the family's conversion in 1929–1930. John had earlier said to his mother, "There is probably a God. Many things are easier to explain if there is than if there isn't." Von Neumann held on to his exemplary knowledge of Latin and quoted to a deathbed visitor the declamation "Judex ergo cum sedebit," and ends "Quid sum miser tunc dicturus? Quem patronum rogaturus, Cum vix iustus sit securus?" (When the judge His seat hath taken ... What shall wretched I then plead? Who for me shall intercede when the righteous scarce is freed?)
Who administered the last sacrament to von Neumann?
5728531a4b864d1900164948
Father Strittmatter
200
False
Did the last sacrament ease von Neumann?
5728531a4b864d1900164949
did not receive much peace or comfort from it, as he still remained terrified of death
690
False
Was there conflict of faith and beliefs at the end of von NEumann's life?
5728531a4b864d190016494a
he suddenly turned Catholic—it doesn't agree with anything whatsoever in his attitude, outlook and thinking when he was healthy
514
False
What did Oskar Morgenstern feel about von Neumann's beliefs?
5728531a4b864d190016494b
always believed him to be "completely agnostic."
350
False
He invited a Roman Catholic priest, Father Anselm Strittmatter, O.S.B., to visit him for consultation. Von Neumann reportedly said in explanation that Pascal had a point, referring to Pascal's Wager. Father Strittmatter administered the last sacraments to him. Some of von Neumann's friends (such as Abraham Pais and Oskar Morgenstern) said they had always believed him to be "completely agnostic." "Of this deathbed conversion, Morgenstern told Heims, "He was of course completely agnostic all his life, and then he suddenly turned Catholic—it doesn't agree with anything whatsoever in his attitude, outlook and thinking when he was healthy." Father Strittmatter recalled that von Neumann did not receive much peace or comfort from it, as he still remained terrified of death.
PlayStation_3
What year was the PlayStation 3 released?
5728027d3acd2414000df20d
2006
86
False
What social gaming service was integrated into the PlayStation 3?
5728027d3acd2414000df20e
PlayStation Network
314
False
What was the thinner version of the PS3 called?
5728027d3acd2414000df20f
Slim
493
False
What year did the Super Slim model hit stores?
5728027d3acd2414000df210
2012
752
False
How many PlayStation 3 units had been purchased as of early 2016?
5728027d3acd2414000df211
85 million
845
False
3
523
What version of the PlayStation was released at the end of 2007?
5ad2a174d7d075001a429cd0
True
PlayStation 3
511
What was officially announced at E4 2005?
5ad2a174d7d075001a429cd1
True
September 2009
473
The Hefty model of the PlayStation 3 was released when?
5ad2a174d7d075001a429cd2
True
85 million
845
As of March 2017, PlayStation 3 has sold how many units?
5ad2a174d7d075001a429cd3
True
Super Slim
705
What was the thinnest version of the PS4 called?
5ad2a174d7d075001a429cd4
True
2006
86
What year was the PlayStation 4 released?
5ad33c1d604f3c001a3fdb71
True
PlayStation Network
314
What social gaming service was integrated into the PlayStation 4?
5ad33c1d604f3c001a3fdb72
True
Slim
493
What was the thicker version of the PS3 called?
5ad33c1d604f3c001a3fdb73
True
2012
752
What year did the Super Slim model get cancelled?
5ad33c1d604f3c001a3fdb74
True
85 million
845
How many PlayStation 3 units had been purchased as of early 2015?
5ad33c1d604f3c001a3fdb75
True
The console was first officially announced at E3 2005, and was released at the end of 2006. It was the first console to use Blu-ray Disc as its primary storage medium. The console was the first PlayStation to integrate social gaming services, included it being the first to introduce Sony's social gaming service, PlayStation Network, and its remote connectivity with PlayStation Portable and PlayStation Vita, being able to remote control the console from the devices. In September 2009, the Slim model of the PlayStation 3 was released, being lighter and thinner than the original version, which notably featured a redesigned logo and marketing design, as well as a minor start-up change in software. A Super Slim variation was then released in late 2012, further refining and redesigning the console. As of March 2016, PlayStation 3 has sold 85 million units worldwide. Its successor, the PlayStation 4, was released later in November 2013.
What shape was the Sixaxis prototype in?
572805603acd2414000df277
boomerang
129
False
What event did Sony choose for the PS3 unveiling?
572805603acd2414000df278
E3 2005
106
False
What popular game was demoed in a video at the game shows?
572805603acd2414000df279
Final Fantasy VII
559
False
What event did Sony take the PlayStation 3 to four months after E3?
572805603acd2414000df27a
Tokyo Game Show
260
False
What was one game Sony debuted on a modified PC so gamers could get a look?
572805603acd2414000df27b
Metal Gear Solid 4: Guns of the Patriots
328
False
May 16, 2005
89
Dell unveiled the PS3 to the public on what date?
5ad2a218d7d075001a429ce4
True
E3 2005
106
At what event did Sony unveil the PS4?
5ad2a218d7d075001a429ce5
True
E3 2005
106
Fantasy of the Patriots was demoed at which May 2005 event?
5ad2a218d7d075001a429ce6
True
E3 2005
106
Metal Gear Solid 3 was demoed at which May 2005 event?
5ad2a218d7d075001a429ce7
True
boomerang
129
What shape was the Sixaxis final model in?
5ad33c83604f3c001a3fdb7b
True
E3 2005
106
What event did Microsoft choose for the PS3 unveiling?
5ad33c83604f3c001a3fdb7c
True
Final Fantasy VII
559
What popular game was demoed in just audio at the game shows?
5ad33c83604f3c001a3fdb7d
True
Tokyo Game Show
260
What event did Sony take the PlayStation 3 to five months after E3?
5ad33c83604f3c001a3fdb7e
True
Metal Gear Solid 4: Guns of the Patriots
328
What was one game Sony debuted on a modified PS so gamers could get a look?
5ad33c83604f3c001a3fdb7f
True
Sony officially unveiled PlayStation 3 (then marketed as PLAYSTATION 3) to the public on May 16, 2005, at E3 2005, along with a 'boomerang' shaped prototype design of the Sixaxis controller. A functional version of the system was not present there, nor at the Tokyo Game Show in September 2005, although demonstrations (such as Metal Gear Solid 4: Guns of the Patriots) were held at both events on software development kits and comparable personal computer hardware. Video footage based on the predicted PlayStation 3 specifications was also shown (notably a Final Fantasy VII tech demo).
How many USB ports did the original PS3 prototype have?
5728066eff5b5019007d9b2a
six
90
False
By the time the system appeared at E3 2006, how many Ethernet ports was it down to?
5728066eff5b5019007d9b2b
one
208
False
Why might Sony have reduced the number of ports on the PlayStation 3 before production?
5728066eff5b5019007d9b2c
to cut costs
257
False
In addition to the 20 GB model, what larger model did Sony offer?
5728066eff5b5019007d9b2d
60 GB
356
False
What color is the logo on the 60 GB PS3?
5728066eff5b5019007d9b2e
silver
570
False
two
49
The initial prototype shown in March 2005 had how many HDMI ports?
5ad2a2f4d7d075001a429d28
True
costs
264
Sony increased the number of HDMI ports to presumably cut what?
5ad2a2f4d7d075001a429d29
True
three
65
The initial prototype shown in March 2005 had how many Ethernet ports?
5ad2a2f4d7d075001a429d2a
True
USB
94
The initial prototype shown in March 2005 had how many USB ports?
5ad2a2f4d7d075001a429d2b
True
six
90
How many USB ports did the original PS2 prototype have?
5ad33cdf604f3c001a3fdb85
True
one
208
By the time the system appeared at E3 2005, how many Ethernet ports was it down to?
5ad33cdf604f3c001a3fdb86
True
to cut costs
257
Why might Sony have reduced the number of ports on the PlayStation 3 after production?
5ad33cdf604f3c001a3fdb87
True
60 GB
356
In addition to the 2 GB model, what larger model did Sony offer?
5ad33cdf604f3c001a3fdb88
True
silver
570
What color is the logo on the 6 GB PS3?
5ad33cdf604f3c001a3fdb89
True
The initial prototype shown in May 2005 featured two HDMI ports, three Ethernet ports and six USB ports; however, when the system was shown again a year later at E3 2006, these were reduced to one HDMI port, one Ethernet port and four USB ports, presumably to cut costs. Two hardware configurations were also announced for the console: a 20 GB model and a 60 GB model, priced at US$499 (€499) and US$599 (€599), respectively. The 60 GB model was to be the only configuration to feature an HDMI port, Wi-Fi internet, flash card readers and a chrome trim with the logo in silver. Both models were announced for a simultaneous worldwide release: November 11, 2006, for Japan and November 17, 2006, for North America and Europe.
Which region experience a setback that pushed back the release of the PlayStation 3?
572807bb3acd2414000df2b1
PAL
42
False
What part of the system was Sony having trouble getting supplies for?
572807bb3acd2414000df2b2
Blu-ray drive
156
False
Which Japanese PS3 model got a 20%-plus price cut before hitting the market?
572807bb3acd2414000df2b3
20 GB model
411
False
Where did Sony offer the 60 GB model with an open pricing scheme?
572807bb3acd2414000df2b4
Japan
512
False
How many playable games did the PlayStation 3 by the time it arrived at the 2006 Tokyo Game Show?
572807bb3acd2414000df2b5
27
549
False
PAL
42
A shortage of what delayed the PS4 launch in what region?
5ad2a3e1d7d075001a429d6e
True
March 2007
97
The PS4 launch in the PAL region was delayed until what date?
5ad2a3e1d7d075001a429d6f
True
27
549
At the Tokyo Game Show Sony showed how many playable PS4 games?
5ad2a3e1d7d075001a429d70
True
20%
443
The launch price of the Japanese 60 GB model was reduced by how much?
5ad2a3e1d7d075001a429d71
True
Tokyo Game Show
178
What game show took place on September 12, 2006?
5ad2a3e1d7d075001a429d72
True
PAL region
42
Which region experience a setback that moved up the release of the PlayStation 3?
5ad33d33604f3c001a3fdb8f
True
Blu-ray drive
156
What part of the system was Sony having an easy time getting supplies for?
5ad33d33604f3c001a3fdb90
True
20 GB
274
Which Japanese PS3 model got a 10%-plus price cut before hitting the market?
5ad33d33604f3c001a3fdb91
True
Japan
512
Where did Sony offer the 60 GB model with a closed pricing scheme?
5ad33d33604f3c001a3fdb92
True
27
549
How many playable games did the PlayStation 3 by the time it arrived at the 2005 Tokyo Game Show?
5ad33d33604f3c001a3fdb93
True
On September 6, 2006, Sony announced that PAL region PlayStation 3 launch would be delayed until March 2007, because of a shortage of materials used in the Blu-ray drive. At the Tokyo Game Show on September 22, 2006, Sony announced that it would include an HDMI port on the 20 GB system, but a chrome trim, flash card readers, silver logo and Wi-Fi would not be included. Also, the launch price of the Japanese 20 GB model was reduced by over 20%, and the 60 GB model was announced for an open pricing scheme in Japan. During the event, Sony showed 27 playable PS3 games running on final hardware.
Instead of November, for what month of the following year was the release rescheduled?
57280ac93acd2414000df2fd
March
453
False
What country had to wait until June of 2007 for their PS3?
57280ac93acd2414000df2fe
South Korea
706
False
How big was the hard drive in the single South Korean version?
57280ac93acd2414000df2ff
80 GB
773
False
What did customers in Singapore pay for the 60 GB PS3?
57280ac93acd2414000df300
S$799
671
False
On what date did the PlayStation 3 go on sale in Africa?
57280ac93acd2414000df301
March 23, 2007
453
False
PlayStation 3
419
What system sold about 6,000,000 units in its first two days?
5ad2a49ad7d075001a429d96
True
March 7, 2007
594
The 80 GB PS3 launched in Singapore when?
5ad2a49ad7d075001a429d97
True
799
673
What was the price of the 80 GB PS3 launched in Singapore?
5ad2a49ad7d075001a429d98
True
June 16, 2007
721
When was the 60 GB PS3 launched in South Korea?
5ad2a49ad7d075001a429d99
True
March
170
Instead of October, for what month of the following year was the release rescheduled?
5ad33dba604f3c001a3fdb99
True
South Korea
706
What country had to wait until June of 2008 for their PS3?
5ad33dba604f3c001a3fdb9a
True
80 GB
773
How big was the hard drive in the single North Korean version?
5ad33dba604f3c001a3fdb9b
True
S$799
671
What did customers in Singapore pay for the 60 GB PS2?
5ad33dba604f3c001a3fdb9c
True
March 23, 2007
453
On what date did the PlayStation 2 go on sale in Africa?
5ad33dba604f3c001a3fdb9d
True
The console was originally planned for a global release through November, but at the start of September the release in Europe and the rest of the world was delayed until March. With it being a somewhat last-minute delay, some companies had taken deposits for pre-orders, at which Sony informed customers that they were eligible for full refunds or could continue the pre-order. On January 24, 2007, Sony announced that PlayStation 3 would go on sale on March 23, 2007, in Europe, Australia, the Middle East, Africa and New Zealand. The system sold about 600,000 units in its first two days. On March 7, 2007, the 60 GB PlayStation 3 launched in Singapore with a price of S$799. The console was launched in South Korea on June 16, 2007, as a single version equipped with an 80 GB hard drive and IPTV.
What was the model number of the slim version of the PlayStation 3?
57280cc73acd2414000df319
CECH-2000
97
False
What font was discontinued with the release of the slim model?
57280cc73acd2414000df31a
Spider-Man font
410
False
What would customers notice about the sound of the new, improved cooling system?
57280cc73acd2414000df31b
quieter
252
False
What did the boot screen on the game consoles read before Sony changed it to "PS3 PlayStation 3"?
57280cc73acd2414000df31c
"Sony Computer Entertainment"
753
False
What did Sony change about the PS3 games along with the packaging in 2009?
57280cc73acd2414000df31d
cover art
876
False
PS3 CECH-2000
93
Sony announce what model on April 18, 2009?
5ad2a543d7d075001a429dba
True
Sony Gamescom press conference
140
Where did Sony announce the PS4 CECH-2000?
5ad2a543d7d075001a429dbb
True
PS3 CECH-2000
93
What model included increased power consumption?
5ad2a543d7d075001a429dbc
True
PS3 CECH-2000
93
What model stopped using the "Batman font"?
5ad2a543d7d075001a429dbd
True
PS3 CECH-2000
93
What model included a louder cooling system?
5ad2a543d7d075001a429dbe
True
PS3 CECH-2000
93
What was the model number of the thick version of the PlayStation 3?
5ad33e29604f3c001a3fdba3
True
Spider-Man font
410
What font was continued with the release of the slim model?
5ad33e29604f3c001a3fdba4
True
quieter
252
What would customers notice about the sound of the new, improved heating system?
5ad33e29604f3c001a3fdba5
True
Sony Computer Entertainment
754
What did the boot screen on the game consoles read after Sony changed it to "PS3 PlayStation 3"?
5ad33e29604f3c001a3fdba6
True
cover art
876
What did Sony change about the PS3 games along with the packaging in 2008?
5ad33e29604f3c001a3fdba7
True
Following speculation that Sony was working on a 'slim' model, Sony officially announced the PS3 CECH-2000 model on August 18, 2009, at the Sony Gamescom press conference. New features included a slimmer form factor, decreased power consumption, and a quieter cooling system. It was released in major territories by September 2009. As part of the release for the slim model, the console logo ceased using the "Spider-Man font" (the same font used for the title of Sony's Spider-Man 3) and the capitalized PLAYSTATION 3. It instead reverted to a more traditional PlayStation- and PlayStation 2-like 'PlayStation 3' logo with "PS3" imprinted on the console. Along with the redesigning of the console and logo, the boot screen of all consoles changed from "Sony Computer Entertainment" to "PS3 PlayStation 3", with a new chime and the game start splash screen being dropped. The cover art and packaging of games was also changed.
At what event did Sony tell everyone about the CECH-4000?
57280ef04b864d1900164350
Tokyo Game Show
25
False
What size was the largest hard drive available on the Super Slim PS3?
57280ef04b864d1900164351
500 GB
190
False
How many versions of the CECH-4000 were made?
57280ef04b864d1900164352
Three
209
False
On what date was the 12 GB version of the Super Slim released in the UK?
57280ef04b864d1900164353
October 12, 2012
688
False
What color was the PlayStation 3 that was included in the God of War: Ascension bundle in the States?
57280ef04b864d1900164354
Garnet Red
1591
False
Tokyo Game Show
25
At what game show was the new, slimmer PS4 redesign announced?
5ad2a64bd7d075001a429df0
True
September 28, 2012
632
The 5000 GB model was released in the UK when?
5ad2a64bd7d075001a429df1
True
United States
713
The PS4 Super Slim was released in the what country with Uncharted 3?
5ad2a64bd7d075001a429df2
True
2012
1160
In Japan, the black Super Slim was released on November 22 of what year?
5ad2a64bd7d075001a429df3
True
Tokyo Game Show
25
At what event did Sony tell everyone about the CECH-3000?
5ad33e8b604f3c001a3fdbad
True
500 GB
267
What size was the largest hard drive available on the Super Slim PS2?
5ad33e8b604f3c001a3fdbae
True
Three
209
How many versions of the CECH-4000 weren't made?
5ad33e8b604f3c001a3fdbaf
True
October 12, 2012
688
On what date was the 12 GB version of the Super Slim released in the US?
5ad33e8b604f3c001a3fdbb0
True
Garnet Red
1499
What color was the PlayStation 3 that was included in the God of War: Ascension bundle in the UK?
5ad33e8b604f3c001a3fdbb1
True
In September 2012 at the Tokyo Game Show, Sony announced that a new, slimmer PS3 redesign (CECH-4000) was due for release in late 2012 and that it would be available with either a 250 GB or 500 GB hard drive. Three versions Super Slim model were revealed: one with a 500 GB hard drive, a second with a 250 GB hard drive which is not available in PAL regions, and a third with a 12 GB flash storage that was only available in PAL regions. The storage of 12 GB model is upgradable with an official standalone 250 GB hard drive. A vertical stand was also released for the model. In the United Kingdom, the 500 GB model was released on September 28, 2012; and the 12 GB model was released on October 12, 2012. In the United States, the PS3 Super Slim was first released as a bundled console. The 250 GB was model was bundled with Game of the Year edition of Uncharted 3: Drake's Deception and released on September 25, 2012; and the 500 GB model was bundled with Assassin's Creed III and released on October 30, 2012. In Japan, the black colored Super Slim model was released on October 4, 2012; and the white colored Super Slim model was released on November 22, 2012. The Super Slim model is 20 percent smaller and 25 percent lighter than the Slim model and features a manual sliding disc cover instead of a motorized slot-loading disc cover of the Slim model. The white colored Super Slim model was released in the United States on January 27, 2013 as part of the Instant Game Collection Bundle. The Garnet Red and Azurite Blue colored models were launched in Japan on February 28, 2013. The Garnet Red version was released in North America on March 12, 2013 as part of the God of War: Ascension bundle with 500 GB storage and contained God of War: Ascension as well as the God of War Saga. The Azurite Blue model was released as a GameStop exclusive with 250GB storage.
How many games could you buy to go with your PS3 when it launched in North America?
572810633acd2414000df383
14
45
False
What game won GameSpot's Game of the Year title for 2006?
572810633acd2414000df384
Resistance: Fall of Man
166
False
What company developed the game Ridge Racer 7?
572810633acd2414000df385
Namco Bandai Games
737
False
What's the name of the sequel game to MotorStorm?
572810633acd2414000df386
MotorStorm: Pacific Rift
1116
False
How many titles did the PS3 launch with in Europe?
572810633acd2414000df387
24
795
False
14
45
PS3 launched in South America with how many titles?
5ad2a6f7d7d075001a429df8
True
Resistance: Fall of Man
166
What was the worst-selling game launch in the US?
5ad2a6f7d7d075001a429df9
True
Resistance: Fall of Man
166
What game was heavily criticized by many video game websites?
5ad2a6f7d7d075001a429dfa
True
Resistance: Fall of Man
166
The PS3 Game of the Year award 2006 was given to what game?
5ad2a6f7d7d075001a429dfb
True
game
635
During the Japanese launch, Crossfire was the top-selling what?
5ad2a6f7d7d075001a429dfc
True
14
45
How many games could you buy to go with your PS3 when it launched in South America?
5ad33ed9604f3c001a3fdbb7
True
Resistance: Fall of Man
166
What game won GameSpot's Game of the Year title for 2016?
5ad33ed9604f3c001a3fdbb8
True
Namco Bandai Games
737
What company developed the game Ridge Racer 6?
5ad33ed9604f3c001a3fdbb9
True
MotorStorm: Pacific Rift
1116
What's the name of the prequel game to MotorStorm?
5ad33ed9604f3c001a3fdbba
True
24
795
How many titles did the PS2 launch with in Europe?
5ad33ed9604f3c001a3fdbbb
True
PlayStation 3 launched in North America with 14 titles, with another three being released before the end of 2006. After the first week of sales it was confirmed that Resistance: Fall of Man from Insomniac Games was the top-selling launch game in North America. The game was heavily praised by numerous video game websites, including GameSpot and IGN, both of whom awarded it their PlayStation 3 Game of the Year award for 2006. Some titles missed the launch window and were delayed until early 2007, such as The Elder Scrolls IV: Oblivion, F.E.A.R. and Sonic the Hedgehog. During the Japanese launch, Ridge Racer 7 was the top-selling game, while Mobile Suit Gundam: Crossfire also fared well in sales, both of which were offerings from Namco Bandai Games. PlayStation 3 launched in Europe with 24 titles, including ones that were not offered in North American and Japanese launches, such as Formula One Championship Edition, MotorStorm and Virtua Fighter 5. Resistance: Fall of Man and MotorStorm were the most successful titles of 2007, and both games subsequently received sequels in the form of Resistance 2 and MotorStorm: Pacific Rift.
Which Ratchet & Clank title debuted at E3 2007?
572814c34b864d190016441e
Ratchet & Clank Future: Tools of Destruction
124
False
What year was Warhawk released for the PlayStation 3?
572814c34b864d190016441f
2007
273
False
At what event were two new Final Fantasy games for PS3 first shown to the Japanese market?
572814c34b864d1900164420
TGS 2007
882
False
What Gran Turismo game was shown in 2007 but not released until after 2007?
572814c34b864d1900164421
Gran Turismo 5 Prologue
398
False
Which much anticipated third-party game with the name of a month of the year in it did Sony show at E3 2007?
572814c34b864d1900164422
Devil May Cry 4
735
False
Uncharted: Drake's Fortune
182
Which Uncharted title debuted at E3 2008?
5ad2a7a2d7d075001a429e12
True
2007
6
What year was Uncharted:Tools of Destruction released for PS3?
5ad2a7a2d7d075001a429e13
True
Final Fantasy XIII and Final Fantasy Versus XIII
818
What titles were shown at the TAS 2007?
5ad2a7a2d7d075001a429e14
True
Final Fantasy XIII and Final Fantasy Versus XIII
818
What was shown at TGS 2007 to appease the French market?
5ad2a7a2d7d075001a429e15
True
Ratchet & Clank Future: Tools of Destruction
124
Which Ratchet & Clank title debuted at E2 2007?
5ad33f45604f3c001a3fdbc1
True
2007
273
What year was Jayhawk released for the PlayStation 3?
5ad33f45604f3c001a3fdbc2
True
TGS 2007
882
At what event were two new Final Fantasy games for PS3 last shown to the Japanese market?
5ad33f45604f3c001a3fdbc3
True
Gran Turismo 5 Prologue
398
What Gran Turismo game was shown in 2007 but not released until after 2008?
5ad33f45604f3c001a3fdbc4
True
Devil May Cry 4
735
Which much anticipated third-party game with the name of a month of the year in it did Sony show at E4 2007?
5ad33f45604f3c001a3fdbc5
True
At E3 2007, Sony was able to show a number of their upcoming video games for PlayStation 3, including Heavenly Sword, Lair, Ratchet & Clank Future: Tools of Destruction, Warhawk and Uncharted: Drake's Fortune; all of which were released in the third and fourth quarters of 2007. They also showed off a number of titles that were set for release in 2008 and 2009; most notably Killzone 2, Infamous, Gran Turismo 5 Prologue, LittleBigPlanet and SOCOM: U.S. Navy SEALs Confrontation. A number of third-party exclusives were also shown, including the highly anticipated Metal Gear Solid 4: Guns of the Patriots, alongside other high-profile third-party titles such as Grand Theft Auto IV, Call of Duty 4: Modern Warfare, Assassin's Creed, Devil May Cry 4 and Resident Evil 5. Two other important titles for PlayStation 3, Final Fantasy XIII and Final Fantasy Versus XIII, were shown at TGS 2007 in order to appease the Japanese market.
What's Sony's budget line of PS3 games called in Japan?
5728162d4b864d1900164440
The Best
167
False
If you live in Australia and want affordable PlayStation 3 games, what range would you shop for?
5728162d4b864d1900164441
Platinum
124
False
Which Call of Duty title does Sony include in their low-end price range?
5728162d4b864d1900164442
Call Of Duty 3
331
False
In what year was Devil May Cry 4 added to the budget game offerings for PS3?
5728162d4b864d1900164443
2009
402
False
What words would you see in the United States or Canada on a PS3 game that would signify its lower price?
5728162d4b864d1900164444
Greatest Hits
82
False
Sony
0
Who launched luxury PS3 titles?
5ad2a8afd7d075001a429e20
True
budget range of PlayStation 3 titles
31
What is known as the Platinum Hits range in the US?
5ad2a8afd7d075001a429e21
True
Resistance: Fall of Man
247
What Resistance title is in the PS4 budget range?
5ad2a8afd7d075001a429e22
True
Uncharted: Drakes Fortune
284
What Uncharted title is in the PS4 budget range?
5ad2a8afd7d075001a429e23
True
The Best
167
What's Sony's budget line of PS2 games called in Japan?
5ad33f9a604f3c001a3fdbcb
True
Platinum
124
If you live in Australia and want affordable PlayStation 4 games, what range would you shop for?
5ad33f9a604f3c001a3fdbcc
True
Call Of Duty 3
331
Which Call of Duty title does Sony include in their high-end price range?
5ad33f9a604f3c001a3fdbcd
True
2009
402
In what year was Devil May Cry 3 added to the budget game offerings for PS3?
5ad33f9a604f3c001a3fdbce
True
Greatest Hits
82
What words would you see in the United States or Canada on a PS3 game that would signify its higher price?
5ad33f9a604f3c001a3fdbcf
True
Sony have since launched their budget range of PlayStation 3 titles, known as the Greatest Hits range in North America, the Platinum range in Europe and Australia and The Best range in Japan. Among the titles available in the budget range include Resistance: Fall of Man, MotorStorm, Uncharted: Drakes Fortune, Rainbow Six: Vegas, Call Of Duty 3, Assassin's Creed and Ninja Gaiden Sigma. As of October 2009 Metal Gear Solid 4: Guns of the Patriots, Ratchet & Clank Future: Tools of Destruction, Devil May Cry 4, Army of Two, Battlefield: Bad Company and Midnight Club: Los Angeles have also joined the list.
What company said it would bring 3D technology to the PS3?
572817fb2ca10214002d9dba
Blitz Games
29
False
Along with Wipeout HD, what game did the press view in 3D in early 2009?
572817fb2ca10214002d9dbb
Gran Turismo 5 Prologue
327
False
What version of firmware update gave the PlayStation 3 its 3D capability?
572817fb2ca10214002d9dbc
3.30
461
False
What word describes what happens to a game when is edited to add functions not originally programmed?
572817fb2ca10214002d9dbd
patched
705
False
What was the PS3 console able to play after the system software was updated to 3.50?
572817fb2ca10214002d9dbe
3D films
600
False
stereoscopic 3D gaming and movie viewing
71
The CEO of Blitz Games announced in December 2008 it would bring what to PS4?
5ad2a9a1d7d075001a429e32
True
3D
512
Firmware update 3.33 allowed PS3 titles to be played in what?
5ad2a9a1d7d075001a429e33
True
3D films
600
Software update 3.55 allowed the PS3 to play what?
5ad2a9a1d7d075001a429e34
True
Super Stardust HD
811
A title with a 3D patch is Super what?
5ad2a9a1d7d075001a429e35
True
Blitz Games
29
What company said it would bring 4D technology to the PS3?
5ad34016604f3c001a3fdbd5
True
Gran Turismo 5 Prologue
327
Along with Wipeout HD, what game did the press view in 3D in late 2009?
5ad34016604f3c001a3fdbd6
True
3.30
461
What version of firmware update gave the PlayStation 3 its 4D capability?
5ad34016604f3c001a3fdbd7
True
patched
705
What word describes what happens to a game when is edited to remove functions not originally programmed?
5ad34016604f3c001a3fdbd8
True
3D films
600
What was the PS3 console able to play after the system software was updated to 3.05?
5ad34016604f3c001a3fdbd9
True
In December 2008, the CTO of Blitz Games announced that it would bring stereoscopic 3D gaming and movie viewing to Xbox 360 and PlayStation 3 with its own technology. This was first demonstrated publicly on PS3 using Sony's own technology in January 2009 at the Consumer Electronics Show. Journalists were shown Wipeout HD and Gran Turismo 5 Prologue in 3D as a demonstration of how the technology might work if it is implemented in the future. Firmware update 3.30 officially allowed PS3 titles to be played in 3D, requiring a compatible display for use. System software update 3.50 prepared it for 3D films. While the game itself must be programmed to take advantage of the 3D technology, titles may be patched to add in the functionality retroactively. Titles with such patches include Wipeout HD, Pain, and Super Stardust HD.
What operating system does Fixstars Solutions offer for the PlayStation 3?
57281a634b864d1900164488
Yellow Dog Linux
128
False
What company sold Yellow Dog Linux before Fixstars Solutions?
57281a634b864d1900164489
Terra Soft Solutions
183
False
What company bought RapidMind in 2009?
57281a634b864d190016448a
Intel
284
False
How many PlayStation 3 consoles was Dr. Frank Mueller able to cluster together?
57281a634b864d190016448b
8
403
False
Who is buying PS3 clusters instead of supercomputers in order to save some money?
57281a634b864d190016448c
the U.S. military
737
False
PS3
0
Whose hardware was used to build superconductors?
5ad2aaf8d7d075001a429e54
True
RapidMind
206
Who produced a stream programming package for PS4?
5ad2aaf8d7d075001a429e55
True
Intel
284
Who did RapidMind acquire in 2009?
5ad2aaf8d7d075001a429e56
True
Dr. Frank Mueller
325
Who clustered 18 PS3s?
5ad2aaf8d7d075001a429e57
True
Yellow Dog Linux
128
What operating system does Fixstars Solutions offer for the PlayStation 2?
5ad34089604f3c001a3fdbdf
True
Terra Soft Solutions
183
What company sold Yellow Dog Linux after Fixstars Solutions?
5ad34089604f3c001a3fdbe0
True
Intel
284
What company bought RapidMind in 2008?
5ad34089604f3c001a3fdbe1
True
8
403
How many PlayStation 2 consoles was Dr. Frank Mueller able to cluster together?
5ad34089604f3c001a3fdbe2
True
U.S. military
741
Who is buying PS3 clusters instead of supercomputers in order to lose some money?
5ad34089604f3c001a3fdbe3
True
PS3's hardware has also been used to build supercomputers for high-performance computing. Fixstars Solutions sells a version of Yellow Dog Linux for PlayStation 3 (originally sold by Terra Soft Solutions). RapidMind produced a stream programming package for PS3, but were acquired by Intel in 2009. Also, on January 3, 2007, Dr. Frank Mueller, Associate Professor of Computer science at NCSU, clustered 8 PS3s. Mueller commented that the 256 MB of system RAM is a limitation for this particular application and is considering attempting to retrofit more RAM. Software includes: Fedora Core 5 Linux ppc64, MPICH2, OpenMP v 2.5, GNU Compiler Collection and CellSDK 1.1. As a more cost-effective alternative to conventional supercomputers, the U.S. military has purchased clusters of PS3 units for research purposes. Retail PS3 Slim units cannot be used for supercomputing, because PS3 Slim lacks the ability to boot into a third-party OS.
What type of microprocessor is in a PS3?
57281c802ca10214002d9e14
Cell
23
False
What does PPE stand for?
57281c802ca10214002d9e15
Power Processing Element
138
False
How many Synergistic Processing Elements are in a PS3's CPU?
57281c802ca10214002d9e16
eight
174
False
How much XDR DRAM is on board a PS3?
57281c802ca10214002d9e17
256 MB
547
False
What function is the NVIDIA RSX responsible for in a PlayStation 3?
57281c802ca10214002d9e18
Graphics processing
393
False
3
12
Which PlayStaytion uses a Cell processor?
5ad2df1bd7d075001a42a59e
True
chip yields
258
The ninth SPE is disabled to improve what?
5ad2df1bd7d075001a42a59f
True
developers
316
Only seven on the eight SPEs are accessible to whom?
5ad2df1bd7d075001a42a5a0
True
XDR DRAM
557
PS4 has 526 MB of what kind of main memory?
5ad2df1bd7d075001a42a5a1
True
Cell
23
What type of macroprocessor is in a PS3?
5ad340de604f3c001a3fdbe9
True
Power Processing Element
138
What doesn't PPE stand for?
5ad340de604f3c001a3fdbea
True
eight
174
How many Synergistic Processing Elements are in a PS3's CUP?
5ad340de604f3c001a3fdbeb
True
256 MB
547
How much XDR BRAM is on board a PS3?
5ad340de604f3c001a3fdbec
True
Graphics processing
393
What function is the NVIDIA RXS responsible for in a PlayStation 3?
5ad340de604f3c001a3fdbed
True
PlayStation 3 uses the Cell microprocessor, designed by Sony, Toshiba and IBM, as its CPU, which is made up of one 3.2 GHz PowerPC-based "Power Processing Element" (PPE) and eight Synergistic Processing Elements (SPEs). The eighth SPE is disabled to improve chip yields. Only six of the seven SPEs are accessible to developers as the seventh SPE is reserved by the console's operating system. Graphics processing is handled by the NVIDIA RSX 'Reality Synthesizer', which can produce resolutions from 480i/576i SD up to 1080p HD. PlayStation 3 has 256 MB of XDR DRAM main memory and 256 MB of GDDR3 video memory for the RSX.
What did Sony name their vibrating PS3 controller?
57281e1d4b864d19001644cc
DualShock 3
68
False
At what event at the Tokyo Game Show was the DualShock 3 first announced?
57281e1d4b864d19001644cd
press conference
7
False
What did many people who handled the DualShock 3 say it was compared to the Sixaxis?
57281e1d4b864d19001644ce
heavier
282
False
What was the first country to be able to buy the new DualShock 3 in stores?
57281e1d4b864d19001644cf
Japan
405
False
On what date was the DualShock three released in Australia?
57281e1d4b864d19001644d0
April 24, 2008
484
False
2007 Tokyo Game Show
31
Sony announced DualShock 4 at what game show?
5ad2dfb0d7d075001a42a5b0
True
2007 Tokyo Game Show
31
Sony announced a vibrating PS4 controller  at what game show?
5ad2dfb0d7d075001a42a5b1
True
the standard Sixaxis controller
295
The PS4 controller was lighter than what?
5ad2dfb0d7d075001a42a5b2
True
November 11, 2007
414
DualShock 4 was released in Japan on what date?
5ad2dfb0d7d075001a42a5b3
True
DUALSHOCK 3
93
What did Sony name their vibrating PS2 controller?
5ad3413c604f3c001a3fdbf3
True
press conference
7
At what event at the Tokyo Game Show was the DualShock 2 first announced?
5ad3413c604f3c001a3fdbf4
True
heavier
282
What did many people who handled the DualShock 2 say it was compared to the Sixaxis?
5ad3413c604f3c001a3fdbf5
True
Japan
405
What was the last country to be able to buy the new DualShock 3 in stores?
5ad3413c604f3c001a3fdbf6
True
April 24, 2008
484
On what date was the DualShock three unreleased in Australia?
5ad3413c604f3c001a3fdbf7
True
At its press conference at the 2007 Tokyo Game Show, Sony announced DualShock 3 (trademarked DUALSHOCK 3), a PlayStation 3 controller with the same function and design as Sixaxis, but with vibration capability included. Hands-on accounts describe the controller as being noticeably heavier than the standard Sixaxis controller and capable of vibration forces comparable to DualShock 2. It was released in Japan on November 11, 2007; in North America on April 5, 2008; in Australia on April 24, 2008; in New Zealand on May 9, 2008; in mainland Europe on July 2, 2008, and in the United Kingdom and Ireland on July 4, 2008.
How is "XrossMediaBar" abbreviated?
572820152ca10214002d9e68
XMB
100
False
How many options categories display in the standard PS3 XrossMediaBar?
572820152ca10214002d9e69
nine
114
False
One of Sony's streaming services is the PlayStation Vue; what's the other one called?
572820152ca10214002d9e6a
Crackle
552
False
When you start up your PS3, what's the first section of the PS Network you see?
572820152ca10214002d9e6b
What's New
597
False
What menu would you use to set up a video chat?
572820152ca10214002d9e6c
Friends
1311
False
What's New
597
What is displayed when the system shuts down?
5ad2e043d7d075001a42a5b8
True
master and secondary user
721
PS4 is able to store what kind of profiles?
5ad2e043d7d075001a42a5b9
True
USB mass
1006
PS4 has what kind of optional storage?
5ad2e043d7d075001a42a5ba
True
USB
1058
PS4 is compatible with what kind of keyboard?
5ad2e043d7d075001a42a5bb
True
XMB
100
How is "XrossMediaBar" unabbreviated?
5ad341d7604f3c001a3fdbfd
True
nine
114
How many options categories display in the standard PS4 XrossMediaBar?
5ad341d7604f3c001a3fdbfe
True
Crackle
552
One of Sony's streaming services is the PlayStation Rue; what's the other one called?
5ad341d7604f3c001a3fdbff
True
What's New
597
When you start up your PS3, what's the last section of the PS Network you see?
5ad341d7604f3c001a3fdc00
True
Friends
1311
What menu would you use to set up an audio chat?
5ad341d7604f3c001a3fdc01
True
The standard PlayStation 3 version of the XrossMediaBar (pronounced Cross Media Bar, or abbreviated XMB) includes nine categories of options. These are: Users, Settings, Photo, Music, Video, TV/Video Services, Game, Network, PlayStation Network and Friends (similar to the PlayStation Portable media bar). TheTV/Video Services category is for services like Netflix and/or if PlayTV or torne is installed; the first category in this section is "My Channels", which lets users download various streaming services, including Sony's own streaming services Crackle and PlayStation Vue. By default, the What's New section of PlayStation Network is displayed when the system starts up. PS3 includes the ability to store various master and secondary user profiles, manage and explore photos with or without a musical slide show, play music and copy audio CD tracks to an attached data storage device, play movies and video files from the hard disk drive, an optical disc (Blu-ray Disc or DVD-Video) or an optional USB mass storage or Flash card, compatibility for a USB keyboard and mouse and a web browser supporting compatible-file download function. Additionally, UPnP media will appear in the respective audio/video/photo categories if a compatible media server or DLNA server is detected on the local network. The Friends menu allows mail with emoticon and attached picture features and video chat which requires an optional PlayStation Eye or EyeToy webcam. The Network menu allows online shopping through the PlayStation Store and connectivity to PlayStation Portable via Remote Play.
What does the abbreviation "NDRM" represent?
572821842ca10214002d9e96
Network Digital Rights Management
206
False
How many different PS3s can one user access?
572821842ca10214002d9e97
2
300
False
What identifier allows a player to activate a PlayStation 3?
572821842ca10214002d9e98
PlayStation Network ID
368
False
PlayStation has safeguards in place to prevent illegal use of what type of movies or video?
572821842ca10214002d9e99
copy protected
516
False
digital rights management
62
How does PS4 limit data use?
5ad2e0c8d7d075001a42a5dc
True
games
123
PlayStation's Network store governs purchased what?
5ad2e0c8d7d075001a42a5dd
True
copy protected videos downloaded from its store to other machines
434
PS4 limits the transfer of what?
5ad2e0c8d7d075001a42a5de
True
copy protected video
516
What will restore correctly?
5ad2e0c8d7d075001a42a5df
True
Network Digital Rights Management
206
What doesn't the abbreviation "NDRM" represent?
5ad34254604f3c001a3fdc07
True
Network Digital Rights Management
206
What does the abbreviation "NERD" represent?
5ad34254604f3c001a3fdc08
True
2
300
How many same PS3s can one user access?
5ad34254604f3c001a3fdc09
True
PlayStation Network ID
368
What identifier allows a player to deactivate a PlayStation 3?
5ad34254604f3c001a3fdc0a
True
copy protected
516
PlayStation has safeguards in place to prevent legal use of what type of movies or video?
5ad34254604f3c001a3fdc0b
True
PlayStation 3 console protects certain types of data and uses digital rights management to limit the data's use. Purchased games and content from the PlayStation Network store are governed by PlayStation's Network Digital Rights Management (NDRM). The NDRM allows users to access the data from up to 2 different PlayStation 3's that have been activated using a user's PlayStation Network ID. PlayStation 3 also limits the transfer of copy protected videos downloaded from its store to other machines and states that copy protected video "may not restore correctly" following certain actions after making a backup such as downloading a new copy protected movie.
What application lets PS3 users view and organize photographs?
572823083acd2414000df569
Photo Gallery
0
False
What version of PS3 contained Photo Gallery?
572823083acd2414000df56a
2.60
195
False
After version 3.4, Picasa was integrated into Photo Gallery along with what social networking site?
572823083acd2414000df56b
Facebook
690
False
Is Photo Gallery automatically or separately installed?
572823083acd2414000df56c
separately
103
False
Photo Gallery includes the ability to sort by age, color, or what other unusual criteria for photo software?
572823083acd2414000df56d
facial expressions
443
False
Photo Gallery
0
What allows you to view photos on PS4?
5ad2e13cd7d075001a42a602
True
MB
146
Photo Gallery takes up 150 what?
5ad2e13cd7d075001a42a603
True
Photo Gallery
0
What application was introduced in software version 1.60?
5ad2e13cd7d075001a42a604
True
3.40
639
What version allows users to upload photos on Snapchat?
5ad2e13cd7d075001a42a605
True
Photo Gallery
0
What application lets PS3 users view and disorganize photographs?
5ad342d3604f3c001a3fdc11
True
2.60
195
What version of PS2 contained Photo Gallery?
5ad342d3604f3c001a3fdc12
True
Facebook
690
After version 4.30, Picasa was integrated into Photo Gallery along with what social networking site?
5ad342d3604f3c001a3fdc13
True
separately
103
Is Video Gallery automatically or separately installed?
5ad342d3604f3c001a3fdc14
True
facial expressions
443
Photo Gallery excludes the ability to sort by age, color, or what other unusual criteria for photo software?
5ad342d3604f3c001a3fdc15
True
Photo Gallery is an optional application to view, create and group photos from PS3, which is installed separately from the system software at 105 MB. It was introduced in system software version 2.60 and provides a range of tools for sorting through and displaying the system's pictures. The key feature of this application is that it can organize photos into groups according to various criteria. Notable categorizations are colors, ages, or facial expressions of the people in the photos. Slideshows can be viewed with the application, along with music and playlists. The software was updated with the release of system software version 3.40 allowing users to upload and browse photos on Facebook and Picasa.
In what month of 2009 did VidZone start free service to some countries?
57282478ff5b5019007d9de6
June
6
False
What year did the announcement come about Netflix becoming available on PS3 in the U.S.?
57282478ff5b5019007d9de7
2009
122
False
What do you have to agree to with Netflix before you can use their service on PlayStation 3?
57282478ff5b5019007d9de8
paid Netflix subscription
278
False
What type of disc was initially used to connect access to Netflix for PS3?
57282478ff5b5019007d9de9
Blu-ray
415
False
When were users able to discard the disc and access Netflix directly through their PS3s?
57282478ff5b5019007d9dea
October 2010
463
False
June 2009
6
VidZone has offered paid music video streaming service since when?
5ad2e1c8d7d075001a42a60a
True
October 2009
114
Netflix has been available on PS2 since when?
5ad2e1c8d7d075001a42a60b
True
Netflix
283
Which users paid for a Blu-Ray disc to access services?
5ad2e1c8d7d075001a42a60c
True
a disc
499
In October 2010, the requirement to use what was installed?
5ad2e1c8d7d075001a42a60d
True
June
6
In what month of 2009 did VidZone start paid service to some countries?
5ad3433d604f3c001a3fdc1b
True
2009
375
What year did the announcement come about Netflix becoming available on PS3 in the U.N.?
5ad3433d604f3c001a3fdc1c
True
paid Netflix subscription
278
What do you have to disagree to with Netflix before you can use their service on PlayStation 3?
5ad3433d604f3c001a3fdc1d
True
Blu-ray
415
What type of disc was never used to connect access to Netflix for PS3?
5ad3433d604f3c001a3fdc1e
True
October 2010
463
When were users able to discard the disc and access Netflix directly through their PS4s?
5ad3433d604f3c001a3fdc1f
True
Since June 2009 VidZone has offered a free music video streaming service in Europe, Australia and New Zealand. In October 2009, Sony Computer Entertainment and Netflix announced that the Netflix streaming service would also be available on PlayStation 3 in the United States. A paid Netflix subscription was required for the service. The service became available in November 2009. Initially users had to use a free Blu-ray disc to access the service; however, in October 2010 the requirement to use a disc to gain access was removed.
What functionality did the PlayStation 3 lose in version 3.21 of its firmware update?
572826852ca10214002d9f36
'OtherOS'
4
False
What reason did Sony give for taking out OtherOS?
572826852ca10214002d9f37
security concerns
252
False
Was firmware update 3.21 optional or mandatory if users wanted to continue accessing the PS Network?
572826852ca10214002d9f38
mandatory
317
False
Which PS3 model never included OtherOS?
572826852ca10214002d9f39
PS Slim
59
False
What legal action did some disgruntled OtherOS users take against Sony?
572826852ca10214002d9f3a
class action lawsuits
509
False
OtherOS
5
What functionality did the PlayStation 3 lose in version 3.12 of its firmware update?
5ad343b5604f3c001a3fdc25
True
security concerns
252
What reason did Sony give for taking out OtterOS?
5ad343b5604f3c001a3fdc26
True
mandatory
317
Was firmware update 3.12 optional or mandatory if users wanted to continue accessing the PS Network?
5ad343b5604f3c001a3fdc27
True
PS Slim
59
Which PS3 model always included OtherOS?
5ad343b5604f3c001a3fdc28
True
class action lawsuits
509
What legal action did some happy OtherOS users take against Sony?
5ad343b5604f3c001a3fdc29
True
The 'OtherOS' functionality was not present in the updated PS Slim models, and the feature was subsequently removed from previous versions of the PS3 as part of the machine's firmware update version 3.21 which was released on April 1, 2010; Sony cited security concerns as the rationale. The firmware update 3.21 was mandatory for access to the PlayStation Network. The removal caused some controversy; as the update removed officially advertised features from already sold products, and gave rise to several class action lawsuits aimed at making Sony return the feature or provide compensation.
What part of the original model PS3s starting causing problems in March of 2010?
572827e6ff5b5019007d9e30
internal system clock
124
False
What essential network were some users unable to connect to because of the error?
572827e6ff5b5019007d9e31
PlayStation Network
249
False
What erroneous date did some users start seeing on their consoles?
572827e6ff5b5019007d9e32
December 31, 1999
597
False
What humorous nickname was given to the situation with the console system clock errors?
572827e6ff5b5019007d9e33
ApocalyPS3
644
False
The name "ApocalyPS3" combines "PS3" with what other word?
572827e6ff5b5019007d9e34
apocalypse
675
False
internal system clock
124
What part of the original model PS3s starting causing problems in March of 2011?
5ad3443d604f3c001a3fdc2f
True
PlayStation Network
249
What essential network were some users able to connect to because of the error?
5ad3443d604f3c001a3fdc30
True
December 31, 1999
597
What erroneous date did some users stop seeing on their consoles?
5ad3443d604f3c001a3fdc31
True
ApocalyPS3
644
What humorous nickname was given to the situation with the console system disk errors?
5ad3443d604f3c001a3fdc32
True
apocalypse
675
The name "ApocalyPS3" combines "PS2" with what other word?
5ad3443d604f3c001a3fdc33
True
On March 1, 2010 (UTC), many of the original "fat" PlayStation 3 models worldwide were experiencing errors related to their internal system clock. The error had many symptoms. Initially, the main problem seemed to be the inability to connect to the PlayStation Network. However, the root cause of the problem was unrelated to the PlayStation Network, since even users who had never been online also had problems playing installed offline games (which queried the system timer as part of startup) and using system themes. At the same time many users noted that the console's clock had gone back to December 31, 1999. The event was nicknamed the ApocalyPS3, a play on the word apocalypse and PS3, the abbreviation for the PlayStation 3 console.
By what date did Sony correct the issue with the system clock?
572828ed2ca10214002d9f88
March 2 (UTC), 2010
141
False
What were the broken models mistakenly classifying 2010 as?
572828ed2ca10214002d9f89
a leap year
344
False
What storage system for dates led to the system clock error?
572828ed2ca10214002d9f8a
BCD
381
False
What clock unrelated to the error in the PS3 had to be updated in some cases in order to fix the bug?
572828ed2ca10214002d9f8b
operating system clock
453
False
March 2 (UTC), 2010
141
By what date did Sony correct the issue with the system disk?
5ad3449a604f3c001a3fdc39
True
a leap year
344
What were the broken models mistakenly classifying 2011 as?
5ad3449a604f3c001a3fdc3a
True
BCD
381
What storage system for dates led to the system disk error?
5ad3449a604f3c001a3fdc3b
True
operating system clock
453
What clock unrelated to the error in the PS2 had to be updated in some cases in order to fix the bug?
5ad3449a604f3c001a3fdc3c
True
operating system clock
453
What clock unrelated to the error in the PS3 had to be updated in some cases in order to continue the bug?
5ad3449a604f3c001a3fdc3d
True
Sony confirmed that there was an error and stated that they were narrowing down the issue and were continuing to work to restore service. By March 2 (UTC), 2010, owners of original PS3 models could connect to PSN successfully and the clock no longer showed December 31, 1999. Sony stated that the affected models incorrectly identified 2010 as a leap year, because of a bug in the BCD method of storing the date. However, for some users, the hardware's operating system clock (mainly updated from the internet and not associated with the internal clock) needed to be updated manually or by re-syncing it via the internet.
What PS3 game can integrate a PlayStation Portable to use as a rear-view mirror?
57282a553acd2414000df5f3
Formula One Championship Edition
111
False
What kind of game is Formula One Championship Edition?
57282a553acd2414000df5f4
racing
147
False
If users want to download original PlayStation games, where do they go online?
57282a553acd2414000df5f5
PlayStation Store
309
False
Games in plain PlayStation format can be played both on the PS3 console and what other device?
57282a553acd2414000df5f6
PSP
354
False
What's the name of the feature that would let you play a game on your PSP without having it with you?
57282a553acd2414000df5f7
Remote Play
412
False
Formula One Championship Edition
111
What PS2 game can integrate a PlayStation Portable to use as a rear-view mirror?
5ad344ed604f3c001a3fdc43
True
racing
147
What kind of game is Formula Two Championship Edition?
5ad344ed604f3c001a3fdc44
True
PlayStation Store
309
If users want to download original PlayStation games, where do they go offline?
5ad344ed604f3c001a3fdc45
True
PSP
354
Games in plain PlayStation format can be played both on the PS4 console and what other device?
5ad344ed604f3c001a3fdc46
True
Remote Play
412
What's the name of the feature that would let you play a game on your PSP while having it with you?
5ad344ed604f3c001a3fdc47
True
PlayStation Portable can connect with PlayStation 3 in many ways, including in-game connectivity. For example, Formula One Championship Edition, a racing game, was shown at E3 2006 using a PSP as a real-time rear-view mirror. In addition, users are able to download original PlayStation format games from the PlayStation Store, transfer and play them on PSP as well as PS3 itself. It is also possible to use the Remote Play feature to play these and some PlayStation Network games, remotely on PSP over a network or internet connection.
In what city did Sony hold their 2006 PlayStation Business Briefing?
57282b823acd2414000df60f
Tokyo
247
False
Does PlayStation Network use artificial or real currency for purchases?
57282b823acd2414000df610
real
447
False
Along with being free and providing constant connectivity, what other feature does PS Network offer users?
57282b823acd2414000df611
multiplayer support
306
False
PlayStation Network is only available for PS3 and what other device?
57282b823acd2414000df612
PlayStation Portable
158
False
Tokyo
247
In what city did Sony hold their 2005 PlayStation Business Briefing?
5ad3459d604f3c001a3fdc4d
True
real
447
Does PlayStation Network use artificial or real currency for picture viewing?
5ad3459d604f3c001a3fdc4e
True
multiplayer support
306
Along with being free and providing constant connectivity, what other feature does PS Network not offer users?
5ad3459d604f3c001a3fdc4f
True
PlayStation Portable
158
PlayStation Network is only available for PS2 and what other device?
5ad3459d604f3c001a3fdc50
True
PlayStation Portable
158
PlayStation Netbook is only available for PS3 and what other device?
5ad3459d604f3c001a3fdc51
True
PlayStation Network is the unified online multiplayer gaming and digital media delivery service provided by Sony Computer Entertainment for PlayStation 3 and PlayStation Portable, announced during the 2006 PlayStation Business Briefing meeting in Tokyo. The service is always connected, free, and includes multiplayer support. The network enables online gaming, the PlayStation Store, PlayStation Home and other services. PlayStation Network uses real currency and PlayStation Network Cards as seen with the PlayStation Store and PlayStation Home.
What's the name of Sony's exclusive PlayStation Network subscription service?
57282c74ff5b5019007d9e84
PlayStation Plus
0
False
How is PlayStation Plus often abbreviated?
57282c74ff5b5019007d9e85
PS+
39
False
Who was the President and CEO of SCEA in the year 2010?
57282c74ff5b5019007d9e86
Jack Tretton
182
False
On what date did the PlayStation Plus service officially launch?
57282c74ff5b5019007d9e87
June 29, 2010
460
False
Duration options for subscription to PS+ are either three months or what period of time?
57282c74ff5b5019007d9e88
one-year
1023
False
PlayStation Plus (
0
What's the name of Microsoft's exclusive PlayStation Network subscription service?
5ad345fe604f3c001a3fdc57
True
PS+
39
How is PlayStation Plus never abbreviated?
5ad345fe604f3c001a3fdc58
True
Jack Tretton
182
Who was the President and CEO of SCEA in the year 2009?
5ad345fe604f3c001a3fdc59
True
June 29, 2010
460
On what date did the PlayStation Plus service officially get cancelled?
5ad345fe604f3c001a3fdc5a
True
one-year
1023
Duration options for subscription to PS+ are either four months or what period of time?
5ad345fe604f3c001a3fdc5b
True
PlayStation Plus (commonly abbreviated PS+ and occasionally referred to as PSN Plus) is a premium PlayStation Network subscription service that was officially unveiled at E3 2010 by Jack Tretton, President and CEO of SCEA. Rumors of such service had been in speculation since Kaz Hirai's announcement at TGS 2009 of a possible paid service for PSN but with the current PSN service still available. Launched alongside PS3 firmware 3.40 and PSP firmware 6.30 on June 29, 2010, the paid-for subscription service provides users with enhanced services on the PlayStation Network, on top of the current PSN service which is still available with all of its features. These enhancements include the ability to have demos, game and system software updates download automatically to PlayStation 3. Subscribers also get early or exclusive access to some betas, game demos, premium downloadable content and other PlayStation Store items. North American users also get a free subscription to Qore. Users may choose to purchase either a one-year or a three-month subscription to PlayStation Plus.
Where can you buy downloadable content for the PSP and PS3?
57282ec84b864d1900164680
The PlayStation Store
0
False
What do you click on in the PS3 interface to get to the PlayStation Store?
57282ec84b864d1900164681
an icon
411
False
What connection would you go through to go to the PS3 store from a PSP?
57282ec84b864d1900164682
Remote Play
494
False
How many unique downloads had there been from the PlayStation Store by late 2009?
57282ec84b864d1900164683
over 600 million
633
False
From a PC, what application can you use to visit the PlayStation Store?
57282ec84b864d1900164684
Media Go
581
False
The PlayStation Store
0
Where can you buy uploadable content for the PSP and PS3?
5ad34649604f3c001a3fdc61
True
an icon
411
What do you click on in the PS2 interface to get to the PlayStation Store?
5ad34649604f3c001a3fdc62
True
Remote Play
494
What connection would you go through to go to the PS3 store from a PS2?
5ad34649604f3c001a3fdc63
True
over 600 million
633
How many unique downloads had there been from the PlayStation Store by late 2008?
5ad34649604f3c001a3fdc64
True
Media Go
581
From a PC, what application can't you use to visit the PlayStation Store?
5ad34649604f3c001a3fdc65
True
The PlayStation Store is an online virtual market available to users of Sony's PlayStation 3 (PS3) and PlayStation Portable (PSP) game consoles via the PlayStation Network. The Store offers a range of downloadable content both for purchase and available free of charge. Available content includes full games, add-on content, playable demos, themes and game and movie trailers. The service is accessible through an icon on the XMB on PS3 and PSP. The PS3 store can also be accessed on PSP via a Remote Play connection to PS3. The PSP store is also available via the PC application, Media Go. As of September 24, 2009, there have been over 600 million downloads from the PlayStation Store worldwide.
What new feature for PS3 was released in September of 2009?
5728304b2ca10214002da028
What's New
0
False
At what event did Sony announce What's New?
5728304b2ca10214002da029
Gamescom
28
False
What did What's New replace?
5728304b2ca10214002da02a
Information Board
162
False
What type of information is disseminated through What's New?
5728304b2ca10214002da02b
news
198
False
What's geographical area does What's New tailor information to for each user?
5728304b2ca10214002da02c
region
259
False
What's New
0
What new feature for PS3 was released in September of 2008?
5ad346a8604f3c001a3fdc6b
True
Gamescom
28
At what event did Sony cancel What's New?
5ad346a8604f3c001a3fdc6c
True
Information Board
162
What did What's New get replaced by?
5ad346a8604f3c001a3fdc6d
True
news
198
What type of information is disseminated outside of What's New?
5ad346a8604f3c001a3fdc6e
True
region
259
What's biographical area does What's New tailor information to for each user?
5ad346a8604f3c001a3fdc6f
True
What's New was announced at Gamescom 2009 and was released on September 1, 2009, with PlayStation 3 system software 3.0. The feature was to replace the existing [Information Board], which displayed news from the PlayStation website associated with the user's region. The concept was developed further into a major PlayStation Network feature, which interacts with the [Status Indicator] to display a ticker of all content, excluding recently played content (currently in North America and Japan only).
How many  different sections does What's New have?
572831a53acd2414000df6b9
four
157
False
What section of What's New would a user visit to find the games they've played lately?
572831a53acd2414000df6ba
"Recently Played"
364
False
Before What's New existed, what default screen would show when a user put a movie in their PS3?
572831a53acd2414000df6bb
Video
86
False
What section of What's New can't show links to websites?
572831a53acd2414000df6bc
"Recently Played"
364
False
Other than the Video default screen for movies, what menu would the PS3 default to before What's New?
572831a53acd2414000df6bd
Games
69
False
four
157
How many different sections doesn't What's New have?
5ad349e6604f3c001a3fdc75
True
Recently Played
185
What section of What's New would a user visit to find the games they've never played?
5ad349e6604f3c001a3fdc76
True
Video
86
Before What's New existed, what default screen would show when a user put a movie in their PS2?
5ad349e6604f3c001a3fdc78
True
Recently Played
365
What section of What's New can show links to websites?
5ad349e6604f3c001a3fdc79
True
The system displays the What's New screen by default instead of the [Games] menu (or [Video] menu, if a movie was inserted) when starting up. What's New has four sections: "Our Pick", "Recently Played", latest information and new content available in PlayStation Store. There are four kinds of content the What's New screen displays and links to, on the sections. "Recently Played" displays the user's recently played games and online services only, whereas, the other sections can contain website links, links to play videos and access to selected sections of the PlayStation Store.
What does Sony call their social network?
572833d64b864d190016470c
PlayStation Home
0
False
What is the customizable representation of a user in PS Home called?
572833d64b864d190016470d
avatar
125
False
Home has free, won, and what third type of content?
572833d64b864d190016470e
premium
258
False
Users employ the content to decorate club houses, their avatars, or what virtual dwelling space?
572833d64b864d190016470f
apartments
212
False
What type of games can users find participants for in Home?
572833d64b864d1900164710
multiplayer
505
False
PlayStation Home
0
What doesn't Sony call their social network?
5ad34a47604f3c001a3fdc7f
True
avatar
125
What is the uncustomizable representation of a user in PS Home called?
5ad34a47604f3c001a3fdc80
True
premium
258
Home has pay, won, and what third type of content?
5ad34a47604f3c001a3fdc81
True
personal apartments
203
Users don't employ the content to decorate club houses, their avatars, or what virtual dwelling space?
5ad34a47604f3c001a3fdc82
True
multiplayer
505
What type of games can't users find participants for in Home?
5ad34a47604f3c001a3fdc83
True
PlayStation Home is a virtual 3D social networking service for the PlayStation Network. Home allows users to create a custom avatar, which can be groomed realistically. Users can edit and decorate their personal apartments, avatars or club houses with free, premium or won content. Users can shop for new items or win prizes from PS3 games, or Home activities. Users interact and connect with friends and customise content in a virtual world. Home also acts as a meeting place for users that want to play multiplayer games with others.
Life was able to personalize information for users by what location division?
572834fd2ca10214002da0b3
city
190
False
On what date was Life with PlayStation shut down?
572834fd2ca10214002da0b4
November 6, 2012
91
False
For weather updates from The Weather Channel, which of Life's channels would you have visited?
572834fd2ca10214002da0b5
Live Channel
326
False
What's was Life's channel that delivered information about history topics?
572834fd2ca10214002da0b6
World Heritage
554
False
Folding@home
65
What didn't Life with PlayStation take the place of?
5ad34a9b604f3c001a3fdc89
True
city
190
Life wasn't able to personalize information for users by what location division?
5ad34a9b604f3c001a3fdc8a
True
November 6, 2012
91
On what date was Life with PlayStation continued?
5ad34a9b604f3c001a3fdc8b
True
Live Channel
326
For weather updates from The Weather Channel, which of Life's channels wouldn't you have visited?
5ad34a9b604f3c001a3fdc8c
True
World Heritage
554
What's was Life's channel that delivered information about current topics?
5ad34a9b604f3c001a3fdc8d
True
Life with PlayStation, released on September 18, 2008 to succeed Folding@home, was retired November 6, 2012. Life with PlayStation used virtual globe data to display news and information by city. Along with Folding@home functionality, the application provided access to three other information "channels", the first being the Live Channel offering news headlines and weather which were provided by Google News, The Weather Channel, the University of Wisconsin–Madison Space Science and Engineering Center, among other sources. The second channel was the World Heritage channel which offered historical information about historical sites. The third channel was the United Village channel. United Village was designed to share information about communities and cultures worldwide. An update allowed video and photo viewing in the application. The fourth channel was the USA exclusive PlayStation Network Game Trailers Channel for direct streaming of game trailers.
What was the date Sony shut down the PS Network because of a security breach?
572836d4ff5b5019007d9f36
April 20, 2011
3
False
How many users did Sony say might have been affected by the intrusion?
572836d4ff5b5019007d9f37
77 million
232
False
What did Sony call the special offer they handed out to respond to the breach?
572836d4ff5b5019007d9f38
"Welcome Back"
1030
False
How many free days of PlayStation Plus were included in the offer?
572836d4ff5b5019007d9f39
30
1054
False
How many free game downloads were included in the "Welcome Back" program?
572836d4ff5b5019007d9f3a
two
1119
False
April 20, 2011
3
What was the date Sony shut down the Microsoft Network because of a security breach?
5ad34b09604f3c001a3fdc93
True
77 million
232
How many users did Sony say might have been unaffected by the intrusion?
5ad34b09604f3c001a3fdc94
True
Welcome Back
1031
What didn't Sony call the special offer they handed out to respond to the breach?
5ad34b09604f3c001a3fdc95
True
30
1054
How many paid days of PlayStation Plus were included in the offer?
5ad34b09604f3c001a3fdc96
True
two
1119
How many free game downloads were excluded in the "Welcome Back" program?
5ad34b09604f3c001a3fdc97
True
On April 20, 2011, Sony shut down the PlayStation Network and Qriocity for a prolonged interval, revealing on April 23 that this was due to "an external intrusion on our system". Sony later revealed that the personal information of 77 million users might have been taken, including: names; addresses; countries; email addresses; birthdates; PSN/Qriocity logins, passwords and handles/PSN online IDs. They also stated that it was possible that users' profile data, including purchase history and billing address, and PlayStation Network/Qriocity password security answers may have been obtained. There was no evidence that any credit card data had been taken, but the possibility could not be ruled out, and Sony advised customers that their credit card data may have been obtained. Additionally, the credit card numbers were encrypted and Sony never collected the three digit CVC or CSC number from the back of the credit cards which is required for authenticating some transactions. In response to the incident, Sony announced a "Welcome Back" program, 30 days free membership of PlayStation Plus for all PSN members, two free downloadable PS3 games, and a free one-year enrollment in an identity theft protection program.
What was PlayStation 3's toughest competitor in the video game market?
572838a9ff5b5019007d9f60
Wii
339
False
What did Wii offer that PS3 couldn't compete with?
572838a9ff5b5019007d9f61
unique gameplay
300
False
In 2006, did most people prefer the Xbox 360 or PS3 versions of cross-platform games?
572838a9ff5b5019007d9f62
Xbox 360 versions
676
False
Until what year was Sony seeing a loss on each PlayStation 3 console it sold?
572838a9ff5b5019007d9f63
2010
961
False
Which cost less in stores: PS3 or Wii?
572838a9ff5b5019007d9f64
Wii
339
False
Wii
339
What was PlayStation 4's toughest competitor in the video game market?
5ad34b7b604f3c001a3fdc9d
True
unique gameplay
300
What did Wii offer that PS3 could compete with?
5ad34b7b604f3c001a3fdc9e
True
Xbox 360 versions
676
In 2006, did most people prefer the Xbox or PS2 versions of cross-platform games?
5ad34b7b604f3c001a3fdc9f
True
2010
961
Until what year was Sony seeing a profit on each PlayStation 3 console it sold?
5ad34b7b604f3c001a3fdca0
True
Wii
339
Which cost less in stores: PS2 or Wii?
5ad34b7b604f3c001a3fdca1
True
Although its PlayStation predecessors had been very dominant against the competition and were hugely profitable for Sony, PlayStation 3 had an inauspicious start, and Sony chairman and CEO Sir Howard Stringer initially could not convince investors of a turnaround in its fortunes. The PS3 lacked the unique gameplay of the more affordable Wii which became that generation's most successful console in terms of units sold. Furthermore, PS3 had to compete directly with Xbox 360 which had a market head start, and as a result the platform no longer had exclusive titles that the PS2 enjoyed such as the Grand Theft Auto and Final Fantasy series (regarding cross-platform games, Xbox 360 versions were generally considered superior in 2006, although by 2008 the PS3 versions had reached parity or surpassed), and it took longer than expected for PS3 to enjoy strong sales and close the gap with Xbox 360. Sony also continued to lose money on each PS3 sold through 2010, although the redesigned "slim" PS3 has cut these losses since then.
How much did it cost to make one 20 GB PS3?
57283ab62ca10214002da122
US$805.85
77
False
In contrast to the production cost, what was the retail price for a 20 GB PlayStation 3?
57283ab62ca10214002da123
US$499
171
False
Assuming iSuppli got the numbers right, how much of a loss did Sony take for every 20 GB PS3 sold in the U.S.?
57283ab62ca10214002da124
$306
265
False
What was the name of Sony's President who announced his retirement amid rumors in April 2007?
57283ab62ca10214002da125
Ken Kutaragi
545
False
In U.S. dollars, how much was the enormous loss Sony reported the month before Kutaragi's retirement announcement?
57283ab62ca10214002da126
US$1.97 billion
434
False
US$805.85
77
How much did it cost to make one 40 GB PS3?
5ad34c0b604f3c001a3fdca7
True
US$499
171
In contrast to the production cost, what was the retail price for a 20 GB PlayStation 2?
5ad34c0b604f3c001a3fdca8
True
$306
265
Assuming iSuppli got the numbers right, how much of a loss did Sony take for every 20 GB PS3 sold in the U.K.?
5ad34c0b604f3c001a3fdca9
True
Ken Kutaragi,
545
What was the name of Sony's President who announced his retirement amid rumors in April 2017?
5ad34c0b604f3c001a3fdcaa
True
US$1.97 billion
434
In U.S. dollars, how much was the enormous profit Sony reported the month before Kutaragi's retirement announcement?
5ad34c0b604f3c001a3fdcab
True
PlayStation 3's initial production cost is estimated by iSuppli to have been US$805.85 for the 20 GB model and US$840.35 for the 60 GB model. However, they were priced at US$499 and US$599 respectively, meaning that units may have been sold at an estimated loss of $306 or $241 depending on model, if the cost estimates were correct, and thus may have contributed to Sony's games division posting an operating loss of ¥232.3 billion (US$1.97 billion) in the fiscal year ending March 2007. In April 2007, soon after these results were published, Ken Kutaragi, President of Sony Computer Entertainment, announced plans to retire. Various news agencies, including The Times and The Wall Street Journal reported that this was due to poor sales, while SCEI maintains that Kutaragi had been planning his retirement for six months prior to the announcement.
Who was Sony's CEO at the start of 2008?
57283c272ca10214002da142
Kaz Hirai
17
False
When did Hirai think the PS3 might start making the company some money?
57283c272ca10214002da143
early 2009
120
False
What market analyst firm said Sony could make the PlayStation 3 profitable by August 2008?
57283c272ca10214002da144
Nikko Citigroup
404
False
How many PS3 did Hirai set a public goal to sell by the time the product was nine?
57283c272ca10214002da145
150 million
577
False
What other Sony gaming console was Hirai setting his sales goal to beat?
57283c272ca10214002da146
PlayStation 2
625
False
Kaz Hirai
17
Who was Sony's CEO at the start of 2018?
5ad34c62604f3c001a3fdcb1
True
early 2009
120
When did Hirai think the PS2 might start making the company some money?
5ad34c62604f3c001a3fdcb2
True
Nikko Citigroup
404
What market analyst firm said Sony could make the PlayStation 3 profitable by August 2018?
5ad34c62604f3c001a3fdcb3
True
150 million units
577
How many PS3 did Hirai set a private goal to sell by the time the product was nine?
5ad34c62604f3c001a3fdcb4
True
PlayStation 2
625
What other Microsoft gaming console was Hirai setting his sales goal to beat?
5ad34c62604f3c001a3fdcb5
True
In January 2008, Kaz Hirai, CEO of Sony Computer Entertainment, suggested that the console may start making a profit by early 2009, stating that, "the next fiscal year starts in April and if we can try to achieve that in the next fiscal year that would be a great thing" and that "[profitability] is not a definite commitment, but that is what I would like to try to shoot for". However, market analysts Nikko Citigroup have predicted that PlayStation 3 could be profitable by August 2008. In a July 2008 interview, Hirai stated that his objective is for PlayStation 3 to sell 150 million units by its ninth year, surpassing PlayStation 2's sales of 140 million in its nine years on the market. In January 2009 Sony announced that their gaming division was profitable in Q3 2008.
Along with a drop in the cost of hardware, PS3 has gotten cheaper to make because what chip was phased out?
57283d5d3acd2414000df799
Emotion Engine chip
107
False
What's the name of the microprocessor produced by the 65 nm process?
57283d5d3acd2414000df79a
Cell
181
False
What specific component of Blu-Ray disc have also gotten less expensive to make?
57283d5d3acd2414000df79b
diodes
298
False
As of Summer 2009, what was the cost to Sony to make a PS3?
57283d5d3acd2414000df79c
$240
496
False
The August 2009 cost is a result of what percentage decrease in production cost?
57283d5d3acd2414000df79d
70%
457
False
Emotion Engine chip
107
Along with a drop in the cost of hardware, PS2 has gotten cheaper to make because what chip was phased out?
5ad34dc2604f3c001a3fdcbb
True
Cell
181
What's the name of the microprocessor produced by the 56 nm process?
5ad34dc2604f3c001a3fdcbc
True
diodes
298
What specific component of dvd have also gotten less expensive to make?
5ad34dc2604f3c001a3fdcbd
True
$240
496
As of Summer 2008, what was the cost to Sony to make a PS3?
5ad34dc2604f3c001a3fdcbe
True
70%
457
The August 2009 cost is a result of what percentage increase in production cost?
5ad34dc2604f3c001a3fdcbf
True
Since the system's launch, production costs have been reduced significantly as a result of phasing out the Emotion Engine chip and falling hardware costs. The cost of manufacturing Cell microprocessors has fallen dramatically as a result of moving to the 65 nm production process, and Blu-ray Disc diodes have become cheaper to manufacture. As of January 2008, each unit cost around $400 to manufacture; by August 2009, Sony had reduced costs by a total of 70%, meaning it only costs Sony around $240 per unit.
What rating did Ars Technica initially give PlayStation 3?
5728400b3acd2414000df7bd
6/10
230
False
What PS3 competitor won IGN's "Console Showdown" in 2010?
5728400b3acd2414000df7be
Xbox
646
False
What PC Mag. staffer picked PS3 over Xbox in June, 2012?
5728400b3acd2414000df7bf
Will Greenwald
840
False
Which publication called the PlayStation 3 "a brilliant games console"?
5728400b3acd2414000df7c0
Pocket-lint
937
False
Where did IGN place the PS3 on their 2009 list of the best video game consoles ever?
5728400b3acd2414000df7c1
15th
346
False
6/10
230
What rating did Ars Technica initially give PlayStation 4?
5ad34ec2604f3c001a3fdccf
True
Xbox
646
What PS3 competitor won IGN's "Console Showdown" in 2011?
5ad34ec2604f3c001a3fdcd0
True
Will Greenwald
840
What PC Mag. staffer picked PS3 over Xbox in June, 2010?
5ad34ec2604f3c001a3fdcd1
True
Pocket-lint
937
Which publication called the PlayStation 2 "a brilliant games console"?
5ad34ec2604f3c001a3fdcd2
True
15th
346
Where did IGN place the PS3 on their 2011 list of the best video game consoles ever?
5ad34ec2604f3c001a3fdcd3
True
Critical and commercial reception to PS3 improved over time, after a series of price revisions, Blu-ray's victory over HD DVD, and the release of several well received titles. Ars Technica's original launch review gave PS3 only a 6/10, but second review of the console in June 2008 rated it a 9/10. In September 2009, IGN named PlayStation 3 the 15th best gaming console of all time, behind both of its competitors: Wii (10th) and Xbox 360 (6th). However, PS3 has won IGN's "Console Showdown"—based on which console offers the best selection of games released during each year—in three of the four years since it began (2008, 2009 and 2011, with Xbox winning in 2010). IGN judged PlayStation 3 to have the best game line-up of 2008, based on their review scores in comparison to those of Wii and Xbox 360. In a comparison piece by PC mag's Will Greenwald in June 2012, PS3 was selected as an overall better console compared to Xbox 360. Pocket-lint said of the console "The PS3 has always been a brilliant games console," and that "For now, this is just about the best media device for the money."
What list by PC World ranked PlayStation eighth, in a bad way?
572842e52ca10214002da1d0
"The Top 21 Tech Screwups of 2006"
67
False
What gaming website called PS3 "a hate object reviled by the entire internet"?
572842e52ca10214002da1d1
GamesRadar
173
False
What quote sums up PC World's 2006 assessment of PS3?
572842e52ca10214002da1d2
"Late, Expensive and Incompatible"
137
False
How long did GamesRadar say it took Sony to turn the Internet against the PlayStation 3?
572842e52ca10214002da1d3
a year
366
False
The Top 21 Tech Screwups of 2006
68
What list by PC World ranked PlayStation ninth, in a bad way?
5ad34fb1604f3c001a3fdcd9
True
GamesRadar
173
What gaming website called PS2 "a hate object reviled by the entire internet"?
5ad34fb1604f3c001a3fdcda
True
"Late, Expensive and Incompatible"
137
What quote sums up PC World's 2005 assessment of PS3?
5ad34fb1604f3c001a3fdcdb
True
a year
366
How long did GamesRadar say it took Sony to turn the Internet in favor of the PlayStation 3?
5ad34fb1604f3c001a3fdcdc
True
a year
366
How long did GamesRadar say it took Sony to turn the Internet against the PlayStation 4?
5ad34fb1604f3c001a3fdcdd
True
PS3 was given the number-eight spot on PC World magazine's list of "The Top 21 Tech Screwups of 2006", where it was criticized for being "Late, Expensive and Incompatible". GamesRadar ranked PS3 as the top item in a feature on game-related PR disasters, asking how Sony managed to "take one of the most anticipated game systems of all time and — within the space of a year — turn it into a hate object reviled by the entire internet", but added that despite its problems the system has "untapped potential". Business Week summed up the general opinion by stating that it was "more impressed with what [the PlayStation 3] could do than with what it currently does".
In what year did Gabe Newell call the PS3 "a total disaster"?
572844763acd2414000df815
2007
63
False
Who is Valve's VP of Marketing who says they want to hire programmers for a PS3 team?
572844763acd2414000df816
Doug Lombardi
478
False
What year did Newell show up at Sony's EC3 press conference to take back what he said about PS3?
572844763acd2414000df817
2010
909
False
What game did Valve develop for the PlayStation 3 console?
572844763acd2414000df818
Portal 2
1107
False
What's the name of Valve's software update system?
572844763acd2414000df819
Steamworks
1170
False
2007
63
In what year did Gabe Newell call the PS2 "a total disaster"?
5ad3510f604f3c001a3fdce3
True
Doug Lombardi
478
Who is Valve's VP of Marketing who says they want to hire programmers for a PS4 team?
5ad3510f604f3c001a3fdce4
True
2010
909
What year did Newell show up at Sony's EC4 press conference to take back what he said about PS3?
5ad3510f604f3c001a3fdce5
True
Portal 2
1289
What game did Valve develop for the PlayStation 2 console?
5ad3510f604f3c001a3fdce6
True
Steamworks
1170
What's the name of Valve's hardware update system?
5ad3510f604f3c001a3fdce7
True
Developers also found the machine difficult to program for. In 2007, Gabe Newell of Valve said "The PS3 is a total disaster on so many levels, I think it's really clear that Sony lost track of what customers and what developers wanted". He continued "I'd say, even at this late date, they should just cancel it and do a do over. Just say, 'This was a horrible disaster and we're sorry and we're going to stop selling this and stop trying to convince people to develop for it'". Doug Lombardi VP of Marketing for Valve has since stated that they are interested in developing for the console and are looking to hire talented PS3 programmers for future projects. He later restated Valve's position, "Until we have the ability to get a PS3 team together, until we find the people who want to come to Valve or who are at Valve who want to work on that, I don't really see us moving to that platform". At Sony's E3 2010 press conference, Newell made a live appearance to recant his previous statements, citing Sony's move to make the system more developer friendly, and to announce that Valve would be developing Portal 2 for the system. He also claimed that the inclusion of Steamworks (Valve's system to automatically update their software independently) would help to make the PS3 version of Portal 2 the best console version on the market.
What group does Bobby Kotick think is being discouraged from working on the PS3?
572845f13acd2414000df839
developers
184
False
What does "ROIC" stand for?
572845f13acd2414000df83a
return on invested capital
548
False
What company is Kotick the CEO of?
572845f13acd2414000df83b
Activision Blizzard
0
False
What newspaper reported Kotick's concerns and his threat to stop supporting the PlayStation platform?
572845f13acd2414000df83c
The Times
250
False
What game development company completely disagreed with Kotick's statements in The Times interview?
572845f13acd2414000df83d
Bioware
977
False
developers
184
What group does Bobby Kotick think is being encouraged from working on the PS3?
5ad351c7604f3c001a3fdced
True
return on invested capital
548
What does "RIOC" stand for?
5ad351c7604f3c001a3fdcee
True
Activision Blizzard
645
What company is Kotick the CFO of?
5ad351c7604f3c001a3fdcef
True
The Times
250
What newspaper reported Kotick's concerns and his threat to keep supporting the PlayStation platform?
5ad351c7604f3c001a3fdcf0
True
Bioware
977
What game development company completely agreed with Kotick's statements in The Times interview?
5ad351c7604f3c001a3fdcf1
True
Activision Blizzard CEO Bobby Kotick has criticized PS3's high development costs and inferior attach rate and return to that of Xbox 360 and Wii. He believes these factors are pushing developers away from working on the console. In an interview with The Times Kotick stated "I'm getting concerned about Sony; the PlayStation 3 is losing a bit of momentum and they don't make it easy for me to support the platform." He continued, "It's expensive to develop for the console, and the Wii and the Xbox are just selling better. Games generate a better return on invested capital (ROIC) on the Xbox than on the PlayStation." Kotick also claimed that Activision Blizzard may stop supporting the system if the situation is not addressed. "[Sony has] to cut the [PS3's retail] price, because if they don't, the attach rates are likely to slow. If we are being realistic, we might have to stop supporting Sony." Kotick received heavy criticism for the statement, notably from developer Bioware who questioned the wisdom of the threatened move, and referred to the statement as "silly."
What score did CNET give the PS3 out of ten?
572847804b864d19001648a8
8.8
351
False
What PlayStation 3 feature did Home Theater Magazine most like about PS3?
572847804b864d19001648a9
Blu-ray playback
627
False
Have reviews praised the PS3's hardware of software more frequently?
572847804b864d19001648aa
hardware
114
False
What other reviewer agreed with Home Theater Magazine's assessment of the PS3's Blu-ray player?
572847804b864d19001648ab
Ultimate AV
591
False
What website said the PlayStation 3 "lives up to the hype"?
572847804b864d19001648ac
CNET United Kingdom
124
False
8.8
351
What score did CNET give the PS2 out of ten?
5ad35219604f3c001a3fdcff
True
Blu-ray playback
627
What PlayStation 3 feature did Home Theater Magazine most like about PS4?
5ad35219604f3c001a3fdd00
True
hardware
114
Have reviews praised the PS2's hardware of software more frequently?
5ad35219604f3c001a3fdd01
True
Ultimate AV
591
What other reviewer disagreed with Home Theater Magazine's assessment of the PS3's Blu-ray player?
5ad35219604f3c001a3fdd02
True
CNET United Kingdom
124
What website said the PlayStation 4 "lives up to the hype"?
5ad35219604f3c001a3fdd03
True
Despite the initial negative press, several websites have given the system very good reviews mostly regarding its hardware. CNET United Kingdom praised the system saying, "the PS3 is a versatile and impressive piece of home-entertainment equipment that lives up to the hype [...] the PS3 is well worth its hefty price tag." CNET awarded it a score of 8.8 out of 10 and voted it as its number one "must-have" gadget, praising its robust graphical capabilities and stylish exterior design while criticizing its limited selection of available games. In addition, both Home Theater Magazine and Ultimate AV have given the system's Blu-ray playback very favorable reviews, stating that the quality of playback exceeds that of many current standalone Blu-ray Disc players.
With a day of its release, on what website did the PS3 Slim become the number-one bestseller?
572849443acd2414000df897
Amazon.com
179
False
For how many consecutive days did the PS3 Slim hold the number-one spot on Amazon.com?
572849443acd2414000df898
fifteen
221
False
What score did the PS3 Slim earn from PC World?
572849443acd2414000df899
90 out of 100
360
False
PC World's rave review of the PS3 Slim was a complete turnaround from their thoughts on what older model console?
572849443acd2414000df89a
PS3
568
False
Along with the PS Slim's value, quietness, and lower power usage, what superficial quality did PC World praise?
572849443acd2414000df89b
repackaging
391
False
Amazon.com
179
With a week of its release, on what website did the PS3 Slim become the number-one bestseller?
5ad3529e604f3c001a3fdd1b
True
fifteen
221
For how many consecutive days did the PS4 Slim hold the number-one spot on Amazon.com?
5ad3529e604f3c001a3fdd1c
True
90 out of 100
360
What score did the PS4 Slim earn from PC World?
5ad3529e604f3c001a3fdd1d
True
PS3
304
PC World's rave review of the PS3 Slim was a complete turnaround from their thoughts on what newer model console?
5ad3529e604f3c001a3fdd1e
True
repackaging
391
Along with the PS Slim's value, quietness, and high power usage, what superficial quality did PC World praise?
5ad3529e604f3c001a3fdd1f
True
The PlayStation 3 Slim received extremely positive reviews as well as a boost in sales; less than 24 hours after its announcement, PS3 Slim took the number-one bestseller spot on Amazon.com in the video games section for fifteen consecutive days. It regained the number-one position again one day later. PS3 Slim also received praise from PC World giving it a 90 out of 100 praising its new repackaging and the new value it brings at a lower price as well as praising its quietness and the reduction in its power consumption. This is in stark contrast to the original PS3's launch in which it was given position number-eight on their "The Top 21 Tech Screwups of 2006" list.
What aspect of the PS3 Slim was CNET unhappy was missing for PS2 games?
57284a61ff5b5019007da10e
backward compatibility
194
False
How many of five possible stars did CNET give the PS3 Slim?
57284a61ff5b5019007da10f
four
22
False
How many of its own five stars did TechRadar award the PS3 Slim?
57284a61ff5b5019007da110
four and a half
266
False
What area of the console did TechRadar feel was designed poorly compared to the original PS3?
57284a61ff5b5019007da111
exterior
500
False
backward compatibility
194
What aspect of the PS4 Slim was CNET unhappy was missing for PS2 games?
5ad352e9604f3c001a3fdd2f
True
four
22
How many of six possible stars did CNET give the PS3 Slim?
5ad352e9604f3c001a3fdd30
True
four and a half
266
How many of its own four stars did TechRadar award the PS3 Slim?
5ad352e9604f3c001a3fdd31
True
four and a half
266
How many of its own five stars did TechRadar award the PS2 Slim?
5ad352e9604f3c001a3fdd32
True
exterior
500
What area of the console did TechRadar feel was designed well compared to the original PS3?
5ad352e9604f3c001a3fdd33
True
CNET awarded PS3 Slim four out of five stars praising its Blu-ray capabilities, 120 GB hard drive, free online gaming service and more affordable pricing point, but complained about the lack of backward compatibility for PlayStation 2 games. TechRadar gave PS3 Slim four and a half stars out of five praising its new smaller size and summed up its review stating "Over all, the PS3 Slim is a phenomenal piece of kit. It's amazing that something so small can do so much". However, they criticized the exterior design and the build quality in relation to the original model.
What quality of the PS3 Super Slim was the website Spong excited about?
57284b802ca10214002da266
quietness
109
False
In addition to quieter fans and drive, what change from the other models did Spong praise?
57284b802ca10214002da267
smaller, lighter size
361
False
What piece of the PS3 Super Slim's hardware did Spong say was too "fiddly"?
57284b802ca10214002da268
disc loader
416
False
What did Spong said you have to do to the disc loader before the console will start reading the disc?
57284b802ca10214002da269
close the cover
785
False
quietness
109
What quality of the PS2 Super Slim was the website Spong excited about?
5ad35342604f3c001a3fdd43
True
smaller, lighter size
361
In addition to louder fans and drive, what change from the other models did Spong praise?
5ad35342604f3c001a3fdd44
True
disc loader
416
What piece of the PS2 Super Slim's hardware did Spong say was too "fiddly"?
5ad35342604f3c001a3fdd45
True
close the cover
663
What did Spong said you have to not do to the disc loader before the console will start reading the disc?
5ad35342604f3c001a3fdd46
True
close the cover
663
What did Spong said you have to do to the disc loader before the console will stop reading the disc?
5ad35342604f3c001a3fdd47
True
The Super Slim model of PS3 has received positive reviews. Gaming website Spong praised the new Super Slim's quietness, stating "The most noticeable noise comes when the drive seeks a new area of the disc, such as when starting to load a game, and this occurs infrequently." They added that the fans are quieter than that of Slim, and went on to praise the new smaller, lighter size. Criticism was placed on the new disc loader, stating: "The cover can be moved by hand if you wish, there's also an eject button to do the work for you, but there is no software eject from the triangle button menus in the Xross Media Bar (XMB) interface. In addition, you have to close the cover by hand, which can be a bit fiddly if it's upright, and the PS3 won't start reading a disc unless you do [close the cover]." They also said there is no real drop in retail price.
What website rated the Super Slim four out of five stars?
57284cdb4b864d19001648f6
CNET
19
False
What adjective did CNET use to describe the PS3 Super Slim's design?
57284cdb4b864d19001648f7
"cheap"
332
False
What component of the Super Slim did CNET call "the easiest yet"?
57284cdb4b864d19001648f8
hard drive
983
False
What hardware component did CNET have the biggest problem with, even comparing it to an old credit card reader?
57284cdb4b864d19001648f9
disc-loader
351
False
Was the lowest-priced Super Slim more or less expensive than any of the PS3 Slim models?
57284cdb4b864d19001648fa
more expensive
762
False
CNET
19
What website rated the Super Slim three out of five stars?
5ad353e4604f3c001a3fdd57
True
cheap
333
What adjective did CNET use to describe the PS2 Super Slim's design?
5ad353e4604f3c001a3fdd58
True
hard drive
983
What component of the Super Slim did CNET call "the hardest yet"?
5ad353e4604f3c001a3fdd59
True
disc-loader
351
What hardware component did NCET have the biggest problem with, even comparing it to an old credit card reader?
5ad353e4604f3c001a3fdd5a
True
more expensive
762
Was the highest-priced Super Slim more or less expensive than any of the PS3 Slim models?
5ad353e4604f3c001a3fdd5b
True
Tech media website CNET gave new Super Slim 4 out of 5 stars ("Excellent"), saying "The Super Slim PlayStation 3 shrinks a powerful gaming machine into an even tinier package while maintaining the same features as its predecessors: a great gaming library and a strong array of streaming services [...]", whilst also criticising the "cheap" design and disc-loader, stating: "Sometimes [the cover] doesn't catch and you feel like you're using one of those old credit card imprinter machines. In short, it feels cheap. You don't realize how convenient autoloading disc trays are until they're gone. Whether it was to cut costs or save space, this move is ultimately a step back." The criticism also was due to price, stating the cheapest Super Slim model was still more expensive than the cheapest Slim model, and that the smaller size and bigger hard drive shouldn't be considered an upgrade when the hard drive on a Slim model is easily removed and replaced. They did praise that the hard drive of the Super Slim model is "the easiest yet. Simply sliding off the side panel reveals the drive bay, which can quickly be unscrewed." They also stated that whilst the Super Slim model is not in any way an upgrade, it could be an indicator as to what's to come. "It may not be revolutionary, but the Super Slim PS3 is the same impressive machine in a much smaller package. There doesn't seem to be any reason for existing PS3 owners to upgrade, but for the prospective PS3 buyer, the Super Slim is probably the way to go if you can deal with not having a slot-loading disc drive."
What magazine described the Super Slim as "nostalgic"?
57284e44ff5b5019007da146
T3
20
False
What PlayStation 3 model did T3 feel the Super Slim's design was paying homage to?
57284e44ff5b5019007da147
the original PS3
318
False
According to T3, what was the main differentiator between the "fat" PS3 and the Super Slim?
57284e44ff5b5019007da148
weight
366
False
What hardware element did T3 feel might have issues with durability?
57284e44ff5b5019007da149
the top loading tray
432
False
T3 felt Sony was saying goodbye to past models in preparation for what next-generation console?
57284e44ff5b5019007da14a
the PS4
638
False
T3
20
What magazine described the Super Thick as "nostalgic"?
5ad35435604f3c001a3fdd6b
True
the original PS3
318
What PlayStation 2 model did T3 feel the Super Slim's design was paying homage to?
5ad35435604f3c001a3fdd6c
True
weight
366
According to T3, what was the main differentiator between the "fat" PS2 and the Super Slim?
5ad35435604f3c001a3fdd6d
True
top loading tray
436
What hardware element did T2 feel might have issues with durability?
5ad35435604f3c001a3fdd6e
True
the PS4
638
T4 felt Sony was saying goodbye to past models in preparation for what next-generation console?
5ad35435604f3c001a3fdd6f
True
Technology magazine T3 gave the Super Slim model a positive review, stating the console is almost "nostalgic" in the design similarities to the original "fat" model, "While we don’t know whether it will play PS3 games or Blu-ray discs any differently yet, the look and feel of the new PS3 Slim is an obvious homage to the original PS3, minus the considerable excess weight. Immediately we would be concerned about the durability of the top loading tray that feels like it could be yanked straight out off the console, but ultimately it all feels like Sony's nostalgic way of signing off the current generation console in anticipation for the PS4."
Royal_assent
When royal assent takes place in the UK, where does the sovereign make an appearance?
572803c04b864d190016422e
House of Lords
144
False
Alternatively, when UK Lord Commissioners take the sovereign's place in the ceremony, where does the ceremony take place?
572803c04b864d190016422f
Palace of Westminster
269
False
Canadian governor generals can give their assent in person or by which other method?
572803c04b864d1900164230
written declaration
557
False
With what is royal assent sometimes associated with?
572a94c7111d821400f38c0c
elaborate ceremonies
42
False
Where is a royal assent ceremony held within the United Kingdom?
572a94c7111d821400f38c0d
Palace of Westminster
269
False
With what method is royal assent generally granted?
572a94c7111d821400f38c0e
letters patent
354
False
How is royal assent granted within Australia?
572a94c7111d821400f38c0f
the governor-general merely signs the bill
407
False
Royal assent
0
What is not associated with elaborate ceremonies?
5acfb2a277cf76001a685948
True
personally in the House of Lords
126
In the US, a sovereign may appear what?
5acfb2a277cf76001a685949
True
the Palace of Westminster
265
Royal assent is usually granted less ceremonially where?
5acfb2a277cf76001a68594a
True
signs
435
In America, the governor-general merely does what to a bill?
5acfb2a277cf76001a68594b
True
the United Kingdom
67
The sovereign appears personally in the House of Commons in what country?
5acfb2a277cf76001a68594c
True
Royal assent is sometimes associated with elaborate ceremonies. In the United Kingdom, for instance, the sovereign may appear personally in the House of Lords or may appoint Lords Commissioners, who announce that royal assent has been granted at a ceremony held at the Palace of Westminster. However, royal assent is usually granted less ceremonially by letters patent. In other nations, such as Australia, the governor-general merely signs the bill. In Canada, the governor general may give assent either in person at a ceremony held in the Senate or by a written declaration notifying parliament of his or her agreement to the bill.
Royal assent is a process of approving a nation's legislative acts by whom?
572803c13acd2414000df23b
constitutional monarch
48
False
Which three modern monarchies allow their ruler to withhold royal assent?
572803c13acd2414000df23c
United Kingdom, Norway, and Liechtenstein
426
False
Since which century have modern political processes forgone royal assent?
572803c13acd2414000df23d
18th
774
False
What nations allow the withold of the royal assent?
572a943b111d821400f38c06
United Kingdom, Norway, and Liechtenstein
426
False
Under what circumstances does a monarch typically use the royal assent?
572a943b111d821400f38c07
a dire political emergency or upon the advice of their government
512
False
Is usage of the royal assent frequent or rare in today's societies?
572a943b111d821400f38c08
exceedingly rare
675
False
a country's constitutional monarch (possibly through a delegated official) formally approves an act of that nation's parliament
36
Rigid assent is the process of what?
5acfb20277cf76001a685912
True
Royal assent
0
What act is not considered to be little more than a formality?
5acfb20277cf76001a685913
True
the power to withhold royal assent
585
Which power is extremely common in modern democratic atmosphere?
5acfb20277cf76001a685914
True
a country's constitutional monarch
36
Who disapproves of an act of that nation's parliament?
5acfb20277cf76001a685915
True
Royal assent is the method by which a country's constitutional monarch (possibly through a delegated official) formally approves an act of that nation's parliament, thus making it a law or letting it be promulgated as law. In the vast majority of contemporary monarchies, this act is considered to be little more than a formality; even in those nations which still permit their ruler to withhold the royal assent (such as the United Kingdom, Norway, and Liechtenstein), the monarch almost never does so, save in a dire political emergency or upon the advice of their government. While the power to withhold royal assent was once exercised often in European monarchies, it is exceedingly rare in the modern, democratic political atmosphere that has developed there since the 18th century.
Modern-day sovereigns often acts on the advice of whom?
572804d43acd2414000df25f
ministers
88
False
In the event that the monarch refuses to give royal assent, what can the monarch make use of?
572804d43acd2414000df260
reserve powers
624
False
Whose advice does a sovereign follow?
572a95fe34ae481900deab9d
his or her ministers
77
False
Who often maintains parliamentary support and obtains the passage of bills?
572a95fe34ae481900deab9e
ministers
111
False
Is it probable, improbable, or impossible that a sovereign would withhold assent?
572a95fe34ae481900deab9f
improbable
230
False
ministers
88
Ancient sovereigns acted on the advice of whom?
5acfb3be77cf76001a685978
True
ministers
111
Who stops the passage of bills?
5acfb3be77cf76001a685979
True
modern
479
Royal assent is never granted in what practice?
5acfb3be77cf76001a68597a
True
monarch's
614
Whose active powers are required when a royal assent is refused?
5acfb3be77cf76001a68597b
True
Under modern constitutional conventions, the sovereign acts on the advice of his or her ministers. Since these ministers most often maintain the support of parliament and are the ones who obtain the passage of bills, it is highly improbable that they would advise the sovereign to withhold assent. An exception is sometimes stated to be if bills are not passed in good faith, though it is difficult to make an interpretation on what this circumstance might constitute. Hence, in modern practice, royal assent is always granted; a refusal to do so would be appropriate only in an emergency requiring the use of the monarch's reserve powers.
What is another name for "Curia Regis"?
572805d92ca10214002d9bca
Royal Council
105
False
Who was it that peculiarly called a full parliament without royal authorization in 1265?
572805d92ca10214002d9bcb
Earl of Leicester
380
False
As a result, the bishops, abbots, earls, and barons formed which body of parliament?
572805d92ca10214002d9bcc
House of Lords
568
False
Which body did the shire and borough representatives form?
572805d92ca10214002d9bcd
House of Commons
639
False
From what did parliament evolve?
572a9804be1ee31400cb8095
Curia Regis, or Royal Council
89
False
What positions were contained within the House of Lords?
572a9804be1ee31400cb8096
bishops, abbots, earls, and barons
522
False
Which branch of parliament contains shire and borough representatives?
572a9804be1ee31400cb8097
House of Commons
639
False
A bill could not become a law without whose assent?
572a9804be1ee31400cb8098
the sovereign
890
False
Who is considered the enactor of laws?
572a9804be1ee31400cb8099
the sovereign
930
False
bishops, abbots, earls, barons, and two knights from each shire and two burgesses
248
The Modern Parliament included whom?
5acfb46877cf76001a68598a
True
royal authorisation
443
In 1665, the Earl of Leicester called a full parliament without what?
5acfb46877cf76001a68598b
True
both houses
703
The Queen would seek the advice of whom before making laws?
5acfb46877cf76001a68598c
True
the House of Commons
635
The two houses in England are the House of Luck and?
5acfb46877cf76001a68598d
True
originate legislation in the form of bills
812
During Henry VIII's reign, it became common for the two houses to do what?
5acfb46877cf76001a68598e
True
Originally, legislative power was exercised by the sovereign acting on the advice of the Curia Regis, or Royal Council, in which important magnates and clerics participated and which evolved into parliament. The so-called Model Parliament included bishops, abbots, earls, barons, and two knights from each shire and two burgesses from each borough among its members. In 1265, the Earl of Leicester irregularly called a full parliament without royal authorisation. The body eventually came to be divided into two branches: bishops, abbots, earls, and barons formed the House of Lords, while the shire and borough representatives formed the House of Commons. The King would seek the advice and consent of both houses before making any law. During Henry VI's reign, it became regular practice for the two houses to originate legislation in the form of bills, which would not become law unless the sovereign's assent was obtained, as the sovereign was, and still remains, the enactor of laws. Hence, all acts include the clause "Be it enacted by the Queen's (King's) most Excellent Majesty, by and with the advice and consent of the Lords Spiritual and Temporal, and Commons, in this present Parliament assembled, and by the authority of the same, as follows...". The Parliament Acts 1911 and 1949 provide a second potential preamble if the House of Lords were to be excluded from the process.
Which monarch was responsible for dissolving parliament in 1629?
57280767ff5b5019007d9b4c
Charles I
70
False
What is one action this monarch took that is typically left to the discretion of parliament?
57280767ff5b5019007d9b4d
raising taxes
316
False
After which event was it decided that parliament should meet on a regular basis?
57280767ff5b5019007d9b4e
English Civil War
371
False
Like Charles II had previously done, the last Stuart monarch withheld assent. Who was this monarch?
57280767ff5b5019007d9b4f
Anne
794
False
Which ruler removed parliament in 1629?
572a992cf75d5e190021fb7a
Charles I
70
False
What did motions attempt to accomplish that prompted Charles I to dissolve parliament in 1629?
572a992cf75d5e190021fb7b
restrict his arbitrary exercise of power
167
False
When was the last time royal assent was enacted?
572a992cf75d5e190021fb7c
11 March 1708
822
False
Who was the last monarch to use the royal assent in 1708?
572a992cf75d5e190021fb7d
Anne
794
False
Under whose advice did Anne withold the royal assent?
572a992cf75d5e190021fb7e
her ministers
854
False
monarchs
60
The power of parliament to pass bills was often supported by whom?
5acfb4ef77cf76001a6859b2
True
actions
299
Charles I performed legally legitimate what?
5acfb4ef77cf76001a6859b3
True
Charles I
70
Who raised taxes with parliament's approval?
5acfb4ef77cf76001a6859b4
True
Charles I
70
Who began parliament in 1629?
5acfb4ef77cf76001a6859b5
True
11 March 1708
822
The first Stuart monarch, Anne, did not withhold on what date?
5acfb4ef77cf76001a6859b6
True
The power of parliament to pass bills was often thwarted by monarchs. Charles I dissolved parliament in 1629, after it passed motions critical of and bills seeking to restrict his arbitrary exercise of power. During the eleven years of personal rule that followed, Charles performed legally dubious actions, such as raising taxes without parliament's approval. After the English Civil War, it was accepted that parliament should be summoned to meet regularly, but it was still commonplace for monarchs to refuse royal assent to bills. In 1678, Charles II withheld his assent from a bill "for preserving the Peace of the Kingdom by raising the Militia, and continuing them in Duty for Two and Forty Days," suggesting that he, not parliament, should control the militia. The last Stuart monarch, Anne, similarly withheld on 11 March 1708, on the advice of her ministers, her assent from a bill for the settling of Militia in Scotland. No monarch has since withheld royal assent on a bill passed by the British parliament.
During whose rule was power transferred more to parliament?
57280839ff5b5019007d9b6c
Hanoverian dynasty
34
False
Who was the first ruler during this dynasty?
57280839ff5b5019007d9b6d
George I
153
False
In attempting to take back control, George III and George IV opposed which church movement?
57280839ff5b5019007d9b6e
Catholic Emancipation
359
False
Which monarch relied on his ministers more than any of his predecessors?
572a9a0134ae481900deabb7
George I
153
False
What did George III and George IV both oppose?
572a9a0134ae481900deabb8
Catholic Emancipation
359
False
What rule did George III and George IV believe a Catholic emancipation bill would violate?
572a9a0134ae481900deabb9
Coronation Oath
465
False
Which monarch granted assent reluctantly under the advise of his ministers?
572a9a0134ae481900deabba
George IV
720
False
monarch
144
George I was the first Hungarian what?
5acfb66777cf76001a6859ea
True
George III and George IV
314
Who openly supported Catholic Emancipation?
5acfb66777cf76001a6859eb
True
ministers
784
George IV happily granted his assent on whose advice?
5acfb66777cf76001a6859ec
True
in the United Kingdom and in the other Commonwealth realms
923
The power to withhold royal assent has become common where?
5acfb66777cf76001a6859ed
True
During the rule of the succeeding Hanoverian dynasty, power was gradually exercised more by parliament and the government. The first Hanoverian monarch, George I, relied on his ministers to a greater extent than did previous monarchs. Later Hanoverian monarchs attempted to restore royal control over legislation: George III and George IV both openly opposed Catholic Emancipation and asserted that to grant assent to a Catholic emancipation bill would violate the Coronation Oath, which required the sovereign to preserve and protect the established Church of England from Papal domination and would grant rights to individuals who were in league with a foreign power which did not recognise their legitimacy. However, George IV reluctantly granted his assent upon the advice of his ministers. Thus, as the concept of ministerial responsibility has evolved, the power to withhold royal assent has fallen into disuse, both in the United Kingdom and in the other Commonwealth realms.
In Scotland, who is responsible for submitting a bill for royal assent?
572809073acd2414000df2df
Presiding Officer of the Scottish Parliament
207
False
Which three publications are used to signify royal assent?
572809073acd2414000df2e0
London, Edinburgh, and Belfast Gazettes
852
False
Under which Scotland Act sections is the royal assent governed?
572a9adaf75d5e190021fb84
28, 32, and 33
132
False
How many weeks pass before the monarch receives a bill from the Presiding Officer?
572a9adaf75d5e190021fb85
four-week period
303
False
Which entities have the capability to refer a bill to the Supreme Court?
572a9adaf75d5e190021fb86
Advocate General for Scotland, the Lord Advocate, the Attorney General or the Secretary of State
338
False
For what would a bill be submitted to the Supreme Court of Scotland?
572a9adaf75d5e190021fb87
review of its legality
585
False
the legislative process
35
Royal assent is the first stage in what?
5acfb6df77cf76001a685a18
True
legislative process
39
What process is governed by sections 18, 32, and 33 of the Scotland Act 1998?
5acfb6df77cf76001a685a19
True
submits it to the monarch for royal assent
252
Before a bill is passed, the Presiding Officer of the Sottish Parliament does what?
5acfb6df77cf76001a685a1a
True
letters patent under the Great Seal of Scotland
638
Royal dissent is signified by what?
5acfb6df77cf76001a685a1b
True
Royal assent is the final stage in the legislative process for acts of the Scottish parliament. The process is governed by sections 28, 32, and 33 of the Scotland Act 1998. After a bill has been passed, the Presiding Officer of the Scottish Parliament submits it to the monarch for royal assent after a four-week period, during which the Advocate General for Scotland, the Lord Advocate, the Attorney General or the Secretary of State for Scotland may refer the bill to the Supreme Court of the United Kingdom (prior to 1 October 2009, the Judicial Committee of the Privy Council) for review of its legality. Royal assent is signified by letters patent under the Great Seal of Scotland in the following form which is set out in The Scottish Parliament (Letters Patent and Proclamations) Order 1999 (SI 1999/737) and of which notice is published in the London, Edinburgh, and Belfast Gazettes:
What was the name of the method by which Wales passed legislation in the 2000's?
572809b32ca10214002d9c40
Measures
0
False
After a four-week period, who could refer a proposed measure to the Supreme Court?
572809b32ca10214002d9c41
Counsel General for Wales or the Attorney General
345
False
What were "measures" in Wales?
572a9b6fbe1ee31400cb80b3
the means by which the National Assembly for Wales passed legislation between 2006 and 2011
21
False
During which years were measures used in order to pass legislation in Wales?
572a9b6fbe1ee31400cb80b4
2006 and 2011
99
False
In Wales, who had the capability of submitting a bill to the Supreme Court?
572a9b6fbe1ee31400cb80b5
Counsel General for Wales or the Attorney General
345
False
the Clerk to the Assembly to present measures passed by the assembly
234
Section 202 of the Government of Wales Act 2006 required what?
5acfb7b377cf76001a685a34
True
Measures
0
What was the name by which the National Assembly of America passed legislation?
5acfb7b377cf76001a685a35
True
Counsel General for Wales or the Attorney General
345
After a three-week period, who could submit a proposed measure to the Supreme Court?
5acfb7b377cf76001a685a36
True
the means by which the National Assembly for Wales passed legislation between 2006 and 2011
21
What were "measures" in Washington?
5acfb7b377cf76001a685a37
True
Measures, which were the means by which the National Assembly for Wales passed legislation between 2006 and 2011, were assented to by the Queen by means of an Order in Council. Section 102 of the Government of Wales Act 2006 required the Clerk to the Assembly to present measures passed by the assembly after a four-week period during which the Counsel General for Wales or the Attorney General could refer the proposed measure to the Supreme Court for a decision as to whether the measure was within the assembly's legislative competence.
The sovereign grants assent by which order?
57280af32ca10214002d9c60
Order in Council
53
False
Who advises the sovereign in this decision?
57280af32ca10214002d9c61
Lord Chancellor
121
False
Which recent petition for reforms to the constitution led to assent being refused?
57280af32ca10214002d9c62
Chief Pleas of Sark
324
False
Who advises a bill to be granted or refused?
572a9c3bbe1ee31400cb80c3
Lord Chancellor
121
False
When was an Order in Counil passed that laid out new rules for consideration of petitions against the royal assent?
572a9c3bbe1ee31400cb80c4
13 July 2011
620
False
In what year did the Lord Chancellor refuse to present a law  concerning constituational reform for assent?
572a9c3bbe1ee31400cb80c5
2007
272
False
What was the subject of the bill that the Lord Chancellor refused to present for royal assent in 2007?
572a9c3bbe1ee31400cb80c6
reforms to the constitution of the Chief Pleas of Sark
289
False
by Order in Council
50
The monarch indirectly grants royal assent how?
5acfb82877cf76001a685a4a
True
new rules
645
An Order in Council of 13 July 2001 established what?
5acfb82877cf76001a685a4b
True
the Privy Council
535
In 2001, campaigners petitioned whom?
5acfb82877cf76001a685a4c
True
2011
423
The Queen was advised to grant royal assent by campaigners in what year?
5acfb82877cf76001a685a4d
True
Instead, the monarch directly grants royal assent by Order in Council. Assent is granted or refused on the advice of the Lord Chancellor. A recent example when assent was refused (or, more correctly, when the Lord Chancellor declined to present the law for assent) was in 2007, concerning reforms to the constitution of the Chief Pleas of Sark. (A revised version of the proposed reforms was subsequently given assent.) In 2011, campaigners against a law that sought to reduce the number of senators in the states of Jersey petitioned the Privy Council to advise the Queen to refuse royal assent. An Order in Council of 13 July 2011 established new rules for the consideration of petitions against granting royal assent.
Under ancient custom, an Act of Tynwald didn't go into effect until decreed at which location?
57280f8b4b864d190016436a
Tynwald Hill at St John's
205
False
Promulgation of an Act of Tynwald originally consisted of reading it in English and which other language?
57280f8b4b864d190016436b
Manx
467
False
Nowadays, only the short title and what else are read?
57280f8b4b864d190016436c
summary of the long title
710
False
How much of the proposed act must be currently read aloud on St John's Day?
572a9d6bf75d5e190021fba0
only the short title and a summary of the long title
683
False
On what day does St John's Day occur?
572a9d6bf75d5e190021fba1
(24 June)
248
False
Where is the open-air sitting of Tynwald usually held?
572a9d6bf75d5e190021fba2
Tynwald Hill at St John's
205
False
Tynwald
65
Royal assent gives legal effect to an Act of what?
5acfb96b77cf76001a685a8c
True
the reading of the Act
429
What was reduced in 1995?
5acfb96b77cf76001a685a8d
True
1988
677
Since what year has only the short title been read?
5acfb96b77cf76001a685a8e
True
1753
312
The adoption of the Greek calendar was made in what year?
5acfb96b77cf76001a685a8f
True
Royal assent is not sufficient to give legal effect to an Act of Tynwald. By ancient custom, an act did not come into force until it had been promulgated at an open-air sitting of Tynwald, usually held on Tynwald Hill at St John's on St John's Day (24 June), but, since the adoption of the Gregorian calendar in 1753, on 5 July (or on the following Monday if 5 July is a Saturday or Sunday). Promulgation originally consisted of the reading of the Act in English and Manx; but, after 1865 the reading of the title of the act and a summary of each section were sufficient. This was reduced in 1895 to the titles and a memorandum of the object and purport of the act, and, since 1988, only the short title and a summary of the long title have been read.
Since 1993, which body has had power to enact measures?
572810aa3acd2414000df393
Sodor and Man Diocesan Synod
16
False
This body makes provisions in respect to matters concerning whom?
572810aa3acd2414000df394
Church of England in the Island
137
False
Up until 1994, royal assent was given by whom?
572810aa3acd2414000df395
Order in Council
494
False
Which position now has the power to grant royal assent?
572810aa3acd2414000df396
lieutenant governor
605
False
Before what year was royal assent approved by Order in Council?
572a9e1bf75d5e190021fba6
1994
460
False
Who currently holds the power to grant royal assent to measures?
572a9e1bf75d5e190021fba7
the lieutenant governor
601
False
During which years did the Synod have power to enact measures?
572a9e1bf75d5e190021fba8
Between 1979 and 1993
318
False
the Sodor and Man Diocesan Synod
12
Since 1983, who has had power to enact measures?
5acfb9fb77cf76001a685ab2
True
Order in Council
494
Before 1994, royal dissent was granted by whom?
5acfb9fb77cf76001a685ab3
True
lieutenant governor
605
Currently, royal dissent has been delegated to whom?
5acfb9fb77cf76001a685ab4
True
A Measure
626
What requires promulgation?
5acfb9fb77cf76001a685ab5
True
Since 1993, the Sodor and Man Diocesan Synod has had power to enact measures making provision "with respect to any matter concerning the Church of England in the Island". If approved by Tynwald, a measure "shall have the force and effect of an Act of Tynwald upon the Royal Assent thereto being announced to Tynwald". Between 1979 and 1993, the Synod had similar powers, but limited to the extension to the Isle of Man of measures of the General Synod. Before 1994, royal assent was granted by Order in Council, as for a bill, but the power to grant royal assent to measures has now been delegated to the lieutenant governor. A Measure does not require promulgation.
In the Canadian federal government, who is typically responsible for deciding wether to give assent?
572812fa3acd2414000df3cf
the Governor General of Canada
3
False
Which positions from the Canadian Supreme Court may also give assent if need be?
572812fa3acd2414000df3d0
Chief Justice of Canada—or another justice
134
False
Who has the capability of granting assent if the Governer General of Canada cannot?
572a9f99111d821400f38c54
the Deputy of the Governor General of Canada—the Chief Justice of Canada—or another justice of the Supreme Court of Canada
85
False
How many methods are available to grant assent in Canada?
572a9f99111d821400f38c55
Two
468
False
If each house of parliament is notified seperately, what regulation applies?
572a9f99111d821400f38c56
both houses must be notified on the same day
698
False
How can the House of Commons be notified of assent if it is not in session?
572a9f99111d821400f38c57
publishing a special issue of the Journals of the House of Commons
825
False
In contrast to the House of Commons, how must the Senate be notified of assent?
572a9f99111d821400f38c58
governor general's letter read aloud by the speaker
936
False
a bill passed by a legislature
271
It is necessary for the governor general to sign what?
5acfbbef77cf76001a685b2c
True
the granting of assent
395
Parliament is never apprised of what?
5acfbbef77cf76001a685b2d
True
houses
703
Both what must be notified on separate days?
5acfbbef77cf76001a685b2e
True
issue
846
The Journals of the House of Lords may publish a special what?
5acfbbef77cf76001a685b2f
True
If the Governor General of Canada is unable to give assent, it can be done by either the Deputy of the Governor General of Canada—the Chief Justice of Canada—or another justice of the Supreme Court of Canada. It is not actually necessary for the governor general to sign a bill passed by a legislature, the signature being merely an attestation. In each case, the parliament must be apprised of the granting of assent before the bill is considered to have become law. Two methods are available: the sovereign's representatives may grant assent in the presence of both houses of parliament; alternatively, each house may be notified separately, usually by the speaker of that house. However, though both houses must be notified on the same day, notice to the House of Commons while it is not in session may be given by way of publishing a special issue of the Journals of the House of Commons, whereas the Senate must be sitting and the governor general's letter read aloud by the speaker.
Which year was royal assent last withheld in the UK?
5728147dff5b5019007d9cac
1708
69
False
The United States Declaration of Independence mentions which British monarch?
5728147dff5b5019007d9cad
George III
261
False
What did the American colonies accuse the monarch of?
5728147dff5b5019007d9cae
refused his Assent to Laws
277
False
In what year was royal assent last witheld in the UK?
572aa0a1be1ee31400cb80d5
1708
69
False
Who continued to advise governors-general of granting of assent, even after their colonies had responsible government?
572aa0a1be1ee31400cb80d6
the British government
724
False
To whom did the British government occasionally still advice on the royal assent, although they had their own responsible governments?
572aa0a1be1ee31400cb80d7
colonies such as Canada, Australia, New Zealand, the Union of South Africa, and Newfoundland
594
False
1708
69
Royal assent has been withheld in the UK since what year?
5acfbc6077cf76001a685b52
True
his Assent to Laws
285
US colonists complained the George II had refused what?
5acfbc6077cf76001a685b53
True
Canada, Australia, New Zealand, the Union of South Africa, and Newfoundland
611
Which countries were not granted a responsible government?
5acfbc6077cf76001a685b54
True
a bill
903
Assent is never reserved to allow the British government to examine what?
5acfbc6077cf76001a685b55
True
While royal assent has not been withheld in the United Kingdom since 1708, it has often been withheld in British colonies and former colonies by governors acting on royal instructions. In the United States Declaration of Independence, colonists complained that George III "has refused his Assent to Laws, the most wholesome and necessary for the public good [and] has forbidden his Governors to pass Laws of immediate and pressing importance, unless suspended in their operation till his Assent should be obtained; and when so suspended, he has utterly neglected to attend to them." Even after colonies such as Canada, Australia, New Zealand, the Union of South Africa, and Newfoundland were granted responsible government, the British government continued to sometimes advise governors-general on the granting of assent; assent was also occasionally reserved to allow the British government to examine a bill before advising the governor-general.
The bill from the Australian House of Representatives was mistakenly sent and assented to by whom in 1976?
572819772ca10214002d9dce
Governor-General
175
False
Why did this occur?
572819772ca10214002d9dcf
two bills of the same title had originated from the house
309
False
What did the Governor-General do with the first assent?
572819772ca10214002d9dd0
revoked the first assent
389
False
This same procedure was more recently done to fix a similar error in which year?
572819772ca10214002d9dd1
2001
545
False
What was the reason a bill was accidentally assented in 1976?
572aa244f75d5e190021fbde
two bills of the same title had originated from the house
309
False
After an accidental assention of a bill with same name in 1976, when did a similar mistaken assention occur in Australia?
572aa244f75d5e190021fbdf
2001
545
False
What protocol was not followed in 1976 when a bill was mistakenly assented?
572aa244f75d5e190021fbe0
it had not been passed by each house
247
False
How was the case of two bills mistakenly assented corrected both in 1796 and 2001?
572aa244f75d5e190021fbe1
The Governor-General revoked the first assent, before assenting to the bill which had actually passed
368
False
royal assent
47
In America, a technical issue arose with what in 1976 and 2001?
5acfbd6a77cf76001a685bb2
True
1976
86
A bill from the House of Lords was mistakenly submitted in what year?
5acfbd6a77cf76001a685bb3
True
1976
86
Three bills with the same title were submitted in what year?
5acfbd6a77cf76001a685bb4
True
The Governor-General
368
Who revoked the second assent?
5acfbd6a77cf76001a685bb5
True
In Australia, a technical issue arose with the royal assent in both 1976 and 2001. In 1976, a bill originating in the House of Representatives was mistakenly submitted to the Governor-General and assented to. However, it was later discovered that it had not been passed by each house. The error arose because two bills of the same title had originated from the house. The Governor-General revoked the first assent, before assenting to the bill which had actually passed. The same procedure was followed to correct a similar error which arose in 2001.
What term refers to the legislature of the Isle of man?
572a9cebf75d5e190021fb96
Tynwald
50
False
In what year was lordship of the Isle of Man purchased?
572a9cebf75d5e190021fb97
1765
167
False
What does the term the Revestment refer to?
572a9cebf75d5e190021fb98
lordship of the Island was purchased by the British Crown in 1765
106
False
How is royal assent currently granted in the Isle of Man?
572a9cebf75d5e190021fb99
Order in Council
455
False
Previous to the Order in Council method, how was royal assent passed previously within the Isle of Man?
572a9cebf75d5e190021fb9a
by letter from the Secretary of State to the governor
320
False
Tynwald
50
What is the legislature of the Isle of Women?
5acfb8cb77cf76001a685a6e
True
1765
167
The lordship of the Isle of Man was purchased by America in what year?
5acfb8cb77cf76001a685a6f
True
letter
323
After 1665, royal assent was signified how?
5acfb8cb77cf76001a685a70
True
the Secretary of State
335
Who signified the letter of royal assent in America after 1765?
5acfb8cb77cf76001a685a71
True
Special procedures apply to legislation passed by Tynwald, the legislature of the Isle of Man. Before the lordship of the Island was purchased by the British Crown in 1765 (the Revestment), the assent of the Lord of Mann to a bill was signified by letter to the governor. After 1765, royal assent was at first signified by letter from the Secretary of State to the governor; but, during the British Regency, the practice began of granting royal assent by Order in Council, which continues to this day, though limited to exceptional cases since 1981.
In Commonwealth realms, who is the representative of the sovereign?
572a9ea734ae481900deabe3
the governor-general
171
False
Who grants royal assent in Canada?
572a9ea734ae481900deabe4
lieutenant governors of the provinces
494
False
In Canada, who is authorized to defer assent and to whom?
572a9ea734ae481900deabe5
A lieutenant governor may defer assent to the governor general, and the governor general may defer assent to federal bills to the sovereign.
533
False
Who grants the royal assent in Commonwealth nations other than the UK?
572a9ea734ae481900deabe6
by the realm's sovereign or, more frequently, by the representative of the sovereign
85
False
the governors of the states
345
The representative of the sovereign in America is whom?
5acfbb6c77cf76001a685b02
True
the lieutenant governors of the provinces
490
The representative of the sovereign in Chile is whom?
5acfbb6c77cf76001a685b03
True
assent
48
The realm's sovereign grants or withholds regal what?
5acfbb6c77cf76001a685b04
True
assent
565
A vice lieutenant governor may defer what?
5acfbb6c77cf76001a685b05
True
In Commonwealth realms other than the UK, royal assent is granted or withheld either by the realm's sovereign or, more frequently, by the representative of the sovereign, the governor-general. In federated realms, assent in each state, province, or territory is granted or withheld by the representatives of the sovereign. In Australia, this is the governors of the states, administrators of the territories, or the governor-general in the Australian Capital Territory. For Canada, this is the lieutenant governors of the provinces. A lieutenant governor may defer assent to the governor general, and the governor general may defer assent to federal bills to the sovereign.
What two documents declared all Commonwealth realms as sovereign kingdoms?
572aa16ff75d5e190021fbd0
Balfour Declaration of 1926 and the Statute of Westminster 1931
10
False
Who exercised the power to withold royal assent in Alberta in 1937?
572aa16ff75d5e190021fbd1
John C. Bowen
512
False
What the did Accurate News and Information Bill hope to accomplish?
572aa16ff75d5e190021fbd2
force newspapers to print government rebuttals to stories to which the provincial cabinet objected
830
False
Who decided the unconstitutionality of three bills brought forth by the Social Credit party?
572aa16ff75d5e190021fbd3
Supreme Court of Canada and by the Judicial Committee of the Privy Council.
1000
False
kingdoms
123
No Commonwealth realms are sovereign what?
5acfbcd677cf76001a685b7c
True
1926
33
The Barker Declaration came into being in what year?
5acfbcd677cf76001a685b7d
True
1931
69
The Declaration of Westminster came into being in what year?
5acfbcd677cf76001a685b7e
True
Two
641
How many bills sought to put the provinces under the authority of the banks?
5acfbcd677cf76001a685b7f
True
Since the Balfour Declaration of 1926 and the Statute of Westminster 1931, the all Commonwealth realms have been sovereign kingdoms, the monarch and governors-general acting solely on the advice of the local ministers who generally maintain the support of the legislature and are the ones who secure the passage of bills. They, therefore, are unlikely to advise the sovereign or his or her representative to withhold assent. The power to withhold the royal assent was exercised by Alberta's lieutenant governor, John C. Bowen, in 1937, in respect of three bills passed in the legislature dominated by William Aberhart's Social Credit party. Two bills sought to put banks under the authority of the province, thereby interfering with the federal government's powers. The third, the Accurate News and Information Bill, purported to force newspapers to print government rebuttals to stories to which the provincial cabinet objected. The unconstitutionality of all three bills was later confirmed by the Supreme Court of Canada and by the Judicial Committee of the Privy Council.
Which Houses in the UK must approve a bill before it is assented?
572aa35334ae481900deabeb
House of Commons and the House of Lords
116
False
Which Parliamentary Acts allow a bill to be presented for assent even after the House of Lords has refused it?
572aa35334ae481900deabec
Parliament Acts 1911 and 1949
167
False
Who can be authorized to grant assent by letters patent?
572aa35334ae481900deabed
the sovereign or by Lords Commissioners
376
False
bill
25
What is presented for royal assent in the US?
5acfbe1d77cf76001a685bf4
True
direct that a bill be presented for assent
253
Under the Parliament Acts of 1917 and 1949, the House of Commons may do what?
5acfbe1d77cf76001a685bf5
True
by the sovereign or by Lords Commissioners
373
Unofficially, assent is granted how?
5acfbe1d77cf76001a685bf6
True
the bill takes effect
574
Each house must be notified jointly before what?
5acfbe1d77cf76001a685bf7
True
In the United Kingdom, a bill is presented for royal assent after it has passed all the required stages in both the House of Commons and the House of Lords. Under the Parliament Acts 1911 and 1949, the House of Commons may, under certain circumstances, direct that a bill be presented for assent despite lack of passage by the House of Lords. Officially, assent is granted by the sovereign or by Lords Commissioners authorised to act by letters patent. It may be granted in parliament or outside parliament; in the latter case, each house must be separately notified before the bill takes effect.
In what language does the Clerk of the Parliaments announce Parliament's decision?
572aa3fcbe1ee31400cb80fd
Anglo-Norman Law French
99
False
What words in Anglo-Norman Law French announce a granted assent?
572aa3fcbe1ee31400cb80fe
"La Reyne remercie ses bons sujets, accepte leur benevolence, et ainsi le veult"
235
False
What is the shortened version of the notification of assent?
572aa3fcbe1ee31400cb80ff
"La Reyne le veult"
465
False
What phrase is used to announce a withheld assent?
572aa3fcbe1ee31400cb8100
"La Reyne s'avisera"
673
False
The Clerk of the Parliaments
0
Who is an official of the House of Commons?
5acfbec277cf76001a685c1a
True
the sovereign's decision
135
A formula in Anglo-Norman Law Greek indicates what?
5acfbec277cf76001a685c1b
True
"La Reyne s'avisera"
673
The inappropriate formula for withholding assent is what?
5acfbec277cf76001a685c1c
True
"La Reyne s'avisera"
673
The translation for "the Queen will not consider it" is what?
5acfbec277cf76001a685c1d
True
The Clerk of the Parliaments, an official of the House of Lords, traditionally states a formula in Anglo-Norman Law French, indicating the sovereign's decision. The granting of royal assent to a supply bill is indicated with the words "La Reyne remercie ses bons sujets, accepte leur benevolence, et ainsi le veult", translated as "The Queen thanks her good subjects, accepts their bounty, and wills it so." For other public or private bills, the formula is simply "La Reyne le veult" ("the Queen wills it"). For personal bills, the phrase is "Soit fait comme il est désiré" ("let it be as it is desired"). The appropriate formula for withholding assent is the euphemistic "La Reyne s'avisera" ("the Queen will consider it"). When the sovereign is male, Le Roy is substituted for La Reyne.
When assention was formally granted in person, who read the titles of the bills?
572aa5d8f75d5e190021fbec
The Clerk of the Crown
577
False
What job did the Clerk of the Parliaments have during assention notifications?
572aa5d8f75d5e190021fbed
stating the appropriate Norman French formula
803
False
Before whose reign was assent always granted in person?
572aa5d8f75d5e190021fbee
Henry VIII
20
False
Nowadays, when is the only time a formal assention ceremony occurs?
572aa5d8f75d5e190021fbef
the annual State Opening of Parliament
286
False
On which side of the soverign does the Clerk of the Crown stand?
572aa5d8f75d5e190021fbf0
right
629
False
in person
79
Before the reign of Henry I, the sovereign granted assent how?
5acfbf4977cf76001a685c3e
True
sovereign
94
Who would wear the Imperial State Tiara?
5acfbf4977cf76001a685c3f
True
sovereign
94
Who would sit on the throne in the Queens chamber?
5acfbf4977cf76001a685c40
True
Clerk of the Crown
581
Who would stand in front of the sovereign and read the titles of the bills?
5acfbf4977cf76001a685c41
True
Before the reign of Henry VIII, the sovereign always granted his or her assent in person. The sovereign, wearing the Imperial State Crown, would be seated on the throne in the Lords chamber, surrounded by heralds and members of the royal court—a scene that nowadays is repeated only at the annual State Opening of Parliament. The Commons, led by their speaker, would listen from the Bar of the Lords, just outside the chamber. The Clerk of the Parliaments presented the bills awaiting assent to the monarch, save that supply bills were traditionally brought up by the speaker. The Clerk of the Crown, standing on the sovereign's right, then read aloud the titles of the bills (in earlier times, the entire text of the bills). The Clerk of the Parliaments, standing on the sovereign's left, responded by stating the appropriate Norman French formula.
Why did Henry VIII wish to execute his fifth wife?
572aa7e3111d821400f38c90
committing adultery
168
False
What was Henry VIII trying to avoid by creating a new procedure for granting assent?
572aa7e3111d821400f38c91
listening to the entire text
320
False
How many times in the 16th century was assent granted by Commissioners?
572aa7e3111d821400f38c92
five
757
False
Who was the last monarch to grant assent personally?
572aa7e3111d821400f38c93
Queen Victoria
902
False
1542
85
King Henry VIII sought to execute his sixth wife in what year?
5acfbfcb77cf76001a685c50
True
King Henry VIII
65
Catherine Howard was the sixth wife of whom?
5acfbfcb77cf76001a685c51
True
Attainder
579
A clause was taken out of the Act of what?
5acfbfcb77cf76001a685c52
True
monarch
933
Queen Victoria was the last what to grant assent in 1954?
5acfbfcb77cf76001a685c53
True
A new device for granting assent was created during the reign of King Henry VIII. In 1542, Henry sought to execute his fifth wife, Catherine Howard, whom he accused of committing adultery; the execution was to be authorised not after a trial but by a bill of attainder, to which he would have to personally assent after listening to the entire text. Henry decided that "the repetition of so grievous a Story and the recital of so infamous a crime" in his presence "might reopen a Wound already closing in the Royal Bosom". Therefore, parliament inserted a clause into the Act of Attainder, providing that assent granted by Commissioners "is and ever was and ever shall be, as good" as assent granted by the sovereign personally. The procedure was used only five times during the 16th century, but more often during the 17th and 18th centuries, especially when George III's health began to deteriorate. Queen Victoria became the last monarch to personally grant assent in 1854.
How many lords are usually present during assent by Commissioner?
572aa8b4f75d5e190021fc06
five
85
False
What do the Lords Commissioners wear to a ceremony of assent?
572aa8b4f75d5e190021fc07
scarlet parliamentary robes
233
False
Which commissioner reads the formal closing statement to the assention ceremony?
572aa8b4f75d5e190021fc08
the senior
369
False
Which position reads the commisssion aloud during tthe ceremony?
572aa8b4f75d5e190021fc09
The Lords Reading Clerk
317
False
Lords Reading Clerk
321
Who reads the commission silently?
5acfc07177cf76001a685c96
True
Lords Reading Clerk
321
The junior commissioner makes a statement after whom?
5acfc07177cf76001a685c97
True
Lords Commissioners
163
The king's representatives are know as whom?
5acfc07177cf76001a685c98
True
three or more (normally five)
61
How many commoners are involved in granting assent by commission?
5acfc07177cf76001a685c99
True
Lords Commissioners
163
Who wears blue parliamentary robes?
5acfc07177cf76001a685c9a
True
When granting assent by commission, the sovereign authorises three or more (normally five) lords who are Privy Counsellors to grant assent in his or her name. The Lords Commissioners, as the monarch's representatives are known, wear scarlet parliamentary robes and sit on a bench between the throne and the Woolsack. The Lords Reading Clerk reads the commission aloud; the senior commissioner then states, "My Lords, in obedience to Her Majesty's Commands, and by virtue of the Commission which has been now read, We do declare and notify to you, the Lords Spiritual and Temporal and Commons in Parliament assembled, that Her Majesty has given Her Royal Assent to the several Acts in the Commission mentioned."
During which decade was assention by commission discontinued?
572aa9e7be1ee31400cb812b
the 1960s
7
False
When does assention by commission occur today?
572aa9e7be1ee31400cb812c
once a year, at the end of the annual parliamentary session
100
False
In whatear did several members refuse to attend the assention ceremony after a heated debate?
572aa9e7be1ee31400cb812d
1960
164
False
What was passed in reference to the discord in 1960 and 1965 during assention cremonies?
572aa9e7be1ee31400cb812e
Royal Assent Act 1967
522
False
1960s
11
The ceremony of assenting by commission was continued in what decade?
5acfc0f577cf76001a685cc0
True
House of Commons
229
The German Usher of the Black Rod summoned whom in 1960?
5acfc0f577cf76001a685cc1
True
creating an additional form for the granting of royal assent
556
The Royal Assent Act 1968 was passed why?
5acfc0f577cf76001a685cc2
True
assent
893
The granting of what by the monarch in person is no longer possible?
5acfc0f577cf76001a685cc3
True
During the 1960s, the ceremony of assenting by commission was discontinued and is now only employed once a year, at the end of the annual parliamentary session. In 1960, the Gentleman Usher of the Black Rod arrived to summon the House of Commons during a heated debate and several members protested against the disruption by refusing to attend the ceremony. The debacle was repeated in 1965; this time, when the Speaker left the chair to go to the House of Lords, some members continued to make speeches. As a result, the Royal Assent Act 1967 was passed, creating an additional form for the granting of royal assent. As the attorney-general explained, "there has been a good deal of resentment not only at the loss of Parliamentary time that has been involved but at the breaking of the thread of a possibly eloquent speech and the disruption of a debate that may be caused." The granting of assent by the monarch in person, or by commission, is still possible, but this third form is used on a day-to-day basis.
What is unique about the method used for assention allowed by the Royal Assent Act 1967?
572aaae8be1ee31400cb8133
does not require both houses to meet jointly
493
False
How is assent granted under the Royal Assent Act 1967?
572aaae8be1ee31400cb8134
by the sovereign in writing, by means of letters patent, that are presented to the presiding officer of each house of parliament
61
False
Which document formats the letters patent?
572aaae8be1ee31400cb8135
The Crown Office (Forms and Proclamations Rules) Order 1992
649
False
In which year were minor amendments made to the Crown Office Order?
572aaae8be1ee31400cb8136
2000
735
False
by the sovereign in writing
61
In the Royal Assent Act 1968, royal assent can be granted how?
5acfc17777cf76001a685cf6
True
house
263
The presiding officer makes an informal statement to whom?
5acfc17777cf76001a685cf7
True
Royal Assent Act 1967
471
Which method requires both houses to meet jointly?
5acfc17777cf76001a685cf8
True
Royal Assent Act 1967
10
Which act allows the sovereign to grant assent verbally?
5acfc17777cf76001a685cf9
True
Under the Royal Assent Act 1967, royal assent can be granted by the sovereign in writing, by means of letters patent, that are presented to the presiding officer of each house of parliament. Then, the presiding officer makes a formal, but simple statement to the house, acquainting each house that royal assent has been granted to the acts mentioned. Thus, unlike the granting of royal assent by the monarch in person or by Royal Commissioners, the method created by the Royal Assent Act 1967 does not require both houses to meet jointly for the purpose of receiving the notice of royal assent. The standard text of the letters patent is set out in The Crown Office (Forms and Proclamations Rules) Order 1992, with minor amendments in 2000. In practice this remains the standard method, a fact that is belied by the wording of the letters patent for the appointment of the Royal Commissioners and by the wording of the letters patent for the granting of royal assent in writing under the 1967 Act ("... And forasmuch as We cannot at this time be present in the Higher House of Our said Parliament being the accustomed place for giving Our Royal Assent...").
When assent is granted in person, when is it formally considered final?
572aabf334ae481900deac19
when the assent is declared in the presence of both houses jointly assembled
140
False
An assent is considered granted when applying the Royal Assent Act 1967 when both presiding officers have done what?
572aabf334ae481900deac1a
notified their respective house of the grant of royal assent
446
False
When is assent effective if the presiding officers inform their houses at different times?
572aabf334ae481900deac1b
when the second announcement is made
682
False
when the assent is declared in the presence of both houses jointly assembled
140
Royal Assent is considered not given at what moment?
5acfc21f77cf76001a685d24
True
have notified their respective house of the grant of royal assent
441
When the Royal Assent Act 1967 is not followed, assent is considered granted when?
5acfc21f77cf76001a685d25
True
the second announcement is made
687
Assent is regarded as ineffective when?
5acfc21f77cf76001a685d26
True
on the date on which it receives royal assent
833
Under American law, an act takes effect when?
5acfc21f77cf76001a685d27
True
When the act is assented to by the sovereign in person, or by empowered Royal Commissioners, royal assent is considered given at the moment when the assent is declared in the presence of both houses jointly assembled. When the procedure created by the Royal Assent Act 1967 is followed, assent is considered granted when the presiding officers of both houses, having received the letters patent from the king or queen signifying the assent, have notified their respective house of the grant of royal assent. Thus, if each presiding officer makes the announcement at a different time (for instance because one house is not sitting on a certain date), assent is regarded as effective when the second announcement is made. This is important because, under British Law, unless there is any provision to the contrary, an act takes effect on the date on which it receives royal assent and that date is not regarded as being the date when the letters patent are signed, or when they are delivered to the presiding officers of each house, but the date on which both houses have been formally acquainted of the assent.
Whose responsibility is it to assure that assent has been granted?
572aaca8be1ee31400cb8143
Clerk of the Parliaments
90
False
What is omitted when an act is published?
572aaca8be1ee31400cb8144
signature of the clerk is omitted, as is the Norman French formula
500
False
Who writes the formal Norman French formula on passed acts?
572aaca8be1ee31400cb8145
Clerk of the Parliaments
90
False
the act
191
It is the responsibility of the Clerk of the Lords to endorse what?
5acfc28a77cf76001a685d52
True
the act
191
The German French formula is used to endorse what?
5acfc28a77cf76001a685d53
True
the bill
348
The clerk signs two copies of what?
5acfc28a77cf76001a685d54
True
the bill
348
The date is inserted in French on what?
5acfc28a77cf76001a685d55
True
Independently of the method used to signify royal assent, it is the responsibility of the Clerk of the Parliaments, once the assent has been duly notified to both houses, not only to endorse the act in the name of the monarch with the formal Norman French formula, but to certify that assent has been granted. The clerk signs one authentic copy of the bill and inserts the date (in English) on which the assent was notified to the two houses after the title of the act. When an act is published, the signature of the clerk is omitted, as is the Norman French formula, should the endorsement have been made in writing. However, the date on which the assent was notified is printed in brackets.
In what year did the New Zealand governor-general last personally grant the royal assent in parliament?
572aad7d34ae481900deac1f
1875
566
False
Which country has not used the formal assention ceremony since the early 20th century?
572aad7d34ae481900deac20
Australia
3
False
Who are the leaders of each house given the responsibility of informing their group of the governor-generals actions?
572aad7d34ae481900deac21
President of the Senate and the Speaker of the House of Representatives
286
False
formal ceremony of granting assent in parliament
18
What has not been used regularly since the early 20th century in America?
5acfc33a77cf76001a685d86
True
1875
566
In New Zealland, the governor-general has personally granted the Royal Assent since what year?
5acfc33a77cf76001a685d87
True
formal
18
What type of ceremony is commonly used to grant assent in Australia?
5acfc33a77cf76001a685d88
True
Speaker of the House of Representatives
318
The governor-general of Australia sends messages to the Vice President of the Senate and whom to grant assent?
5acfc33a77cf76001a685d89
True
In Australia, the formal ceremony of granting assent in parliament has not been regularly used since the early 20th century. Now, the bill is sent to the governor-general's residence by the house in which it originated. The governor-general then signs the bill, sending messages to the President of the Senate and the Speaker of the House of Representatives, who notify their respective houses of the governor-general's action. A similar practice is followed in New Zealand, where the governor-general has not personally granted the Royal Assent in parliament since 1875.
When did Canada finally cease to use the traditional ceremony for granting assent as regular practice?
572aaec2111d821400f38cb2
the 21st century
95
False
Why was King George VI's personal assent in 1939 noteworthy?
572aaec2111d821400f38cb3
85 years after his great-grandmother, Queen Victoria, had last granted royal assent personally
449
False
With what bill in Canada did granting assent by writing become effective?
572aaec2111d821400f38cb4
Royal Assent Act 2002
577
False
21st
99
In Chile, the ceremony for granting assent was used until what century?
5acfc3cb77cf76001a685da0
True
King George VI
336
What king assented to nineteen bills of the Canadian parliament during the 1939 royal tour?
5acfc3cb77cf76001a685da1
True
Queen Victoria
487
Who was King George VI's grandmother?
5acfc3cb77cf76001a685da2
True
a failure to employ the traditional ceremony where required
1280
A grant of royal assent is rendered invalid by what?
5acfc3cb77cf76001a685da3
True
In Canada, the traditional ceremony for granting assent in parliament was regularly used until the 21st century, long after it had been discontinued in the United Kingdom and other Commonwealth realms. One result, conceived as part of a string of royal duties intended to demonstrate Canada's status as an independent kingdom, was that King George VI personally assented to nine bills of the Canadian parliament during the 1939 royal tour of Canada—85 years after his great-grandmother, Queen Victoria, had last granted royal assent personally in the United Kingdom. Under the Royal Assent Act 2002, however, the alternative practice of granting assent in writing, with each house being notified separately ( the Speaker of the Senate or a representative reads to the senators the letters from the governor general regarding the written declaration of Royal Assent), was brought into force. As the act also provides, royal assent is to be signified—by the governor general, or, more often, by a deputy, usually a Justice of the Supreme Court, at least twice each calendar year: for the first appropriation measure and for at least one other act, usually the first non-appropriation measure passed. However, the act provides that a grant of royal assent is not rendered invalid by a failure to employ the traditional ceremony where required.
From where is the sovereign typically forbidden?
572aafd5be1ee31400cb8177
House of Commons
103
False
Whose job is it to release parliament after the ceremony?
572aafd5be1ee31400cb8178
The governor general or his or her deputy
1651
False
Who reads the formal statement after the list of bills has been finished?
572aafd5be1ee31400cb8179
Clerk of the Senate
1033
False
Which position nods their head to signify assention?
572aafd5be1ee31400cb817a
governor general
1337
False
The Royal Assent
0
What ceremony takes place in the House?
5acfc45a77cf76001a685dde
True
chamber
189
On the day of the event, the President of the Senate reads to whom?
5acfc45a77cf76001a685ddf
True
a notice from the secretary
197
On the day of the event, the President of the Senate reads what?
5acfc45a77cf76001a685de0
True
Members of Parliament
619
Who follows Black Rod back to the Senate?
5acfc45a77cf76001a685de1
True
The Royal Assent ceremony takes place in the Senate, as the sovereign is traditionally barred from the House of Commons. On the day of the event, the Speaker of the Senate will read to the chamber a notice from the secretary to the governor general indicating when the viceroy or a deputy thereof will arrive. The Senate thereafter cannot adjourn until after the ceremony. The speaker moves to sit beside the throne, the Mace Bearer, with mace in hand, stands adjacent to him or her, and the governor general enters to take the speaker's chair. The Usher of the Black Rod is then commanded by the speaker to summon the Members of Parliament, who follow Black Rod back to the Senate, the Sergeant-at-Arms carrying the mace of the House of Commons. In the Senate, those from the commons stand behind the bar, while Black Rod proceeds to stand next to the governor general, who then nods his or her head to signify Royal Assent to the presented bills (which do not include appropriations bills). Once the list of bills is complete, the Clerk of the Senate states: "in Her Majesty's name, His [or Her] Excellency the Governor General [or the deputy] doth assent to these bills." If there are any appropriation bills to receive Royal Assent, the Speaker of the House of Commons will read their titles and the Senate clerk repeats them to the governor general, who nods his or her head to communicate Royal Assent. When these bills have all been assented to, the Clerk of the Senate recites "in Her Majesty's name, His [or Her] Excellency the Governor General [or the deputy] thanks her loyal subjects, accepts their benevolence and assents to these bills. The governor general or his or her deputy then depart parliament.
What is royal assent called in Belgium?
572ab0ca111d821400f38cd6
sanction royale
16
False
Who declared the monarch incapable of acting upon an abortion decriminalization bill in 1990?
572ab0ca111d821400f38cd7
Council of Ministers
576
False
Which King refused to sign an abortion decriminalization bill in 1990?
572ab0ca111d821400f38cd8
King Baudouin
412
False
Who declared the King capable of excersizing power again after a brief lapse in 1990?
572ab0ca111d821400f38cd9
both houses of parliament
1044
False
the sanction royale
12
In Bulgaria, what has the same effect as royal assent?
5acfc4f777cf76001a685e12
True
1990
401
King Bedoin refused to sign a bill in what year?
5acfc4f777cf76001a685e13
True
joint
1029
Both houses declared King Baudouin incapable of exercising his powers in what type of meeting?
5acfc4f777cf76001a685e14
True
1990
401
King Baudouin signed a bill criminalizing abortion in what year?
5acfc4f777cf76001a685e15
True
In Belgium, the sanction royale has the same legal effect as royal assent; the Belgian constitution requires a theoretically possible refusal of royal sanction to be countersigned—as any other act of the monarch—by a minister responsible before the House of Representatives. The monarch promulgates the law, meaning that he or she formally orders that the law be officially published and executed. In 1990, when King Baudouin advised his cabinet he could not, in conscience, sign a bill decriminalising abortion (a refusal patently not covered by a responsible minister), the Council of Ministers, at the King's own request, declared Baudouin incapable of exercising his powers. In accordance with the Belgian constitution, upon the declaration of the sovereign's incapacity, the Council of Ministers assumed the powers of the head of state until parliament could rule on the King's incapacity and appoint a regent. The bill was then assented to by all members of the Council of Ministers "on behalf of the Belgian People". In a joint meeting, both houses of parliament declared the King capable of exercising his powers again the next day.
How much time does a Jordinian leader have to sign or veto legislation?
572ab241be1ee31400cb8189
six months
167
False
What majority is required to override a veto from the soverign?
572ab241be1ee31400cb818a
two-thirds
329
False
What happens if the soverign doesn't sign the bill within the six-month time frame?
572ab241be1ee31400cb818b
, it becomes law without his signature
550
False
withhold assent
59
The constitution of Jordan does not grant the monarch the right to do what?
5acfc5ab77cf76001a685e48
True
six months
167
Article 83 gives the Jordanian sovereign how much time to signor veto legislation?
5acfc5ab77cf76001a685e49
True
two-thirds
329
What kind of vote from either house is required to override the Jordanian sovereign?
5acfc5ab77cf76001a685e4a
True
it becomes law without his signature
552
If the monarch fails to act within four months what happens?
5acfc5ab77cf76001a685e4b
True
The constitution of Jordan grants its monarch the right to withhold assent to laws passed by its parliament. Article 93 of that document gives the Jordanian sovereign six months to sign or veto any legislation sent to him from the National Assembly; if he vetoes it within that timeframe, the assembly may override his veto by a two-thirds vote of both houses; otherwise, the law does not go into effect (but it may be reconsidered in the next session of the assembly). If the monarch fails to act within six months of the bill being presented to him, it becomes law without his signature.
What text is written and sent to the Senate if the House approves of a law?
572ab33ff75d5e190021fc56
"The Second Chamber of the States General sends the following approved proposal of law to the First Chamber"
119
False
What text is written and sent back to the government if a bill is rejected?
572ab33ff75d5e190021fc57
The Second Chamber of the States General has rejected the accompanying proposal of law."
294
False
If the Senate approves the law after receiving it from the House, what is written and sent to the government?
572ab33ff75d5e190021fc58
"To the King, The States General have accepted the proposal of law as it is offered here."
474
False
approves it
66
What is one thing that could happen after the House of Lords debates the law?
5acfc64677cf76001a685e88
True
it sends it back to the government
425
If the lower house approves the law, what happens?
5acfc64677cf76001a685e89
True
"The Second Chamber of the States General sends the following approved proposal of law to the First Chamber"
119
What text is sent to the House of Representatives if a law is approved?
5acfc64677cf76001a685e8a
True
"The Second Chamber of the States General has rejected the accompanying proposal of law."
293
What text is sent to the House of Representatives if a law is not approved?
5acfc64677cf76001a685e8b
True
After the House of Representatives has debated the law, it either approves it and sends it to the Senate with the text "The Second Chamber of the States General sends the following approved proposal of law to the First Chamber", or it rejects it and returns it to the government with the text "The Second Chamber of the States General has rejected the accompanying proposal of law." If the upper house then approves the law, it sends it back to the government with the text "To the King, The States General have accepted the proposal of law as it is offered here."
Where are laws published after receiving assent?
572ab3b034ae481900deac67
the State Magazine
623
False
Where is the original law text stored?
572ab3b034ae481900deac68
in the archives of the King's Offices
672
False
What happens in the rare case the government doesn't approve of a law that has passed both houses?
572ab3b034ae481900deac69
neither the monarch nor a minister will sign the bill, notifying the States General that "The King will keep the proposal under advisement."
424
False
ministers
133
The sovereign and two what signs the proposal?
5acfc6d877cf76001a685ec4
True
the proposal
87
The enabling clause is added to what?
5acfc6d877cf76001a685ec5
True
government does not approve a law that has been passed in parliament
338
In what case will the monarch but not the minister sign the bill?
5acfc6d877cf76001a685ec6
True
State Magazine
627
A law that has not received royal assent will be published where?
5acfc6d877cf76001a685ec7
True
The government, consisting of the monarch and the ministers, will then usually approve the proposal and the sovereign and one of the ministers signs the proposal with the addition of an enacting clause, thereafter notifying the States General that "The King assents to the proposal." It has happened in exceptional circumstances that the government does not approve a law that has been passed in parliament. In such a case, neither the monarch nor a minister will sign the bill, notifying the States General that "The King will keep the proposal under advisement." A law that has received royal assent will be published in the State Magazine, with the original being kept in the archives of the King's Offices.
Which articles in the Norwegian Constitution allow the monarch to reject a bill that has been passed through the Sorting?
572ab52e34ae481900deac73
Articles 77–79
0
False
Which article in the Norweigan Constitution provides a way to override a monarch's veto?
572ab52e34ae481900deac74
Article 79
220
False
How many elections are required to assend a bill that the monarch has vetoed?
572ab52e34ae481900deac75
two
374
False
the monarch of Norway the right to withhold royal assent from any bill passed by the Storting
64
Articles 67-69 of the Norwegian Constitution grant what?
5acfc78977cf76001a685f18
True
79
228
Which article provides a means by which a sovereigns' veto may not be over-ridden?
5acfc78977cf76001a685f19
True
77–79
9
Which articles of the Norwegian Constitution do not grant the monarch the right to withhold royal assent?
5acfc78977cf76001a685f1a
True
77–79
9
The monarch of New England can withhold royal assent according to which articles?
5acfc78977cf76001a685f1b
True
Articles 77–79 of the Norwegian Constitution specifically grant the monarch of Norway the right to withhold royal assent from any bill passed by the Storting. Should the sovereign ever choose to exercise this privilege, Article 79 provides a means by which his veto may be over-ridden: "If a Bill has been passed unaltered by two sessions of the Storting, constituted after two separate successive elections and separated from each other by at least two intervening sessions of the Storting, without a divergent Bill having been passed by any Storting in the period between the first and last adoption, and it is then submitted to the King with a petition that His Majesty shall not refuse his assent to a Bill which, after the most mature deliberation, the Storting considers to be beneficial, it shall become law even if the Royal Assent is not accorded before the Storting goes into recess."
Which article in the Spanish constitution gives the monarch the right to ask for a referendum?
572ab654be1ee31400cb81c5
Article 92
430
False
Which article specifies the number of days available to the monarch to provide a signature on an assended bill?
572ab654be1ee31400cb81c6
Article 91
284
False
In the 1978 Spanish constitution, which title describes how bills are passed?
572ab654be1ee31400cb81c7
Title III, The Cortes Generales
161
False
What chapter in the Spanish constitution describes how bills are to be passed?
572ab654be1ee31400cb81c8
Chapter 2, Drafting of Bills
194
False
Title III
161
Which title outlines the method by which bills are not passed?
5acfc84877cf76001a685f38
True
Title IV
0
Which title does not invest the royal assent and publication of laws with the monarch of Spain?
5acfc84877cf76001a685f39
True
1978
16
Title II, which describes how bills are passed was created in what year?
5acfc84877cf76001a685f3a
True
91
292
The sovereign has 25 days to give his or her assent according to what article?
5acfc84877cf76001a685f3b
True
92
438
The monarch does not have a right to call for a referendum according to which article?
5acfc84877cf76001a685f3c
True
Title IV of the 1978 Spanish constitution invests the Consentimiento Real (Royal Assent) and promulgation (publication) of laws with the monarch of Spain, while Title III, The Cortes Generales, Chapter 2, Drafting of Bills, outlines the method by which bills are passed. According to Article 91, within fifteen days of passage of a bill by the Cortes Generales, the sovereign shall give his or her assent and publish the new law. Article 92 invests the monarch with the right to call for a referendum, on the advice of the president of the government (commonly referred to in English as the prime minister) and the authorisation of the cortes.
What was King Juan Carlos' response to the media when asked if he would sign a bill supporting same-sex marriage?
572ab71734ae481900deac79
"Soy el Rey de España y no el de Bélgica"
330
False
What other controversial bill did the king give his assent to in 2010?
572ab71734ae481900deac7a
a law permitting abortion on demand
744
False
When did same-sex marriages become legal in Spain?
572ab71734ae481900deac7b
3 July 2005
674
False
No provision within the constitution grants the monarch an ability to veto legislation directly; however, no provision prohibits the sovereign from withholding royal assent, which effectively constitutes a veto. When the Spanish media asked King Juan Carlos if he would endorse the bill legalising same-sex marriages, he answered "Soy el Rey de España y no el de Bélgica" ("I am the King of Spain and not that of Belgium")—a reference to King Baudouin I of Belgium, who had refused to sign the Belgian law legalising abortion. The King gave royal assent to Law 13/2005 on 1 July 2005; the law was gazetted in the Boletín Oficial del Estado on 2 July and came into effect on 3 July 2005. Likewise, in 2010, King Juan Carlos gave royal assent to a law permitting abortion on demand.
If the Spanish monarch is deemed incapable of granting assent, who is the power transferred to?
572ab969111d821400f38cf2
the next person of age in the line of succession
424
False
Could a Spanish ruler follow the same action of events as King Baudouin did in Belgium?
572ab969111d821400f38cf3
not be possible under the current constitution
152
False
his or her powers would not be transferred to the Cabinet
278
If the Spanish sovereign was found capable of discharging royal authority, what happens?
5acfc9c477cf76001a685fbc
True
Felipe
639
If Juan Carlos had been declared capable, who would have been given power?
5acfc9c477cf76001a685fbd
True
Felipe
639
Who is the current heir apparent to Juan Carlos?
5acfc9c477cf76001a685fbe
True
the next person of age in the line of succession
424
Who gets power if the sovereign were declared capable?
5acfc9c477cf76001a685fbf
True
If the Spanish monarch ever refused in conscience to grant royal assent, a procedure similar to the Belgian handling of King Baudouin's objection would not be possible under the current constitution. If the sovereign were ever declared incapable of discharging royal authority, his or her powers would not be transferred to the Cabinet, pending the parliamentary appointment of a regency. Instead, the constitution mandates the next person of age in the line of succession would immediately become regent. Therefore, had Juan Carlos followed the Belgian example in 2005 or 2010, a declaration of incapacity would have transferred power to Felipe, then the heir apparent.
Which articles allow the soverign to refise consent even when the bills have been passed through the Legislative assembly?
572abc90be1ee31400cb81ed
41 and 68
9
False
What statement by King George Tupou emphasized democracy?
572abc90be1ee31400cb81ee
he would be guided by his prime minister in the exercising of his powers
225
False
In which year was the Arms and Ammunitions (Amemndment) Bill adopted?
572abc90be1ee31400cb81ef
2011
406
False
In what month did the King veto the Arms and Ammunitions Amendment Bill?
572abc90be1ee31400cb81f0
December
863
False
41 and 68
9
What articles empower the sovereign to grant royal assent?
5acfca5977cf76001a685fea
True
2010
137
The kingdom moved away from democracy in what year?
5acfca5977cf76001a685feb
True
2011
406
An Art and Ammunitions Bill was adopted in what year?
5acfca5977cf76001a685fec
True
Arms and Ammunitions (Amendment) Bill
436
What bill was adopted by eight votes to ten?
5acfca5977cf76001a685fed
True
Two
605
How many member of the assembly were charge with legal possession of firearms?
5acfca5977cf76001a685fee
True
Articles 41 and 68 of the constitution empower the sovereign to withhold royal assent from bills adopted by the Legislative Assembly. In 2010, the kingdom moved towards greater democracy, with King George Tupou V saying that he would be guided by his prime minister in the exercising of his powers. Nonetheless, this does not preclude an independent royal decision to exercise a right of veto. In November 2011, the assembly adopted an Arms and Ammunitions (Amendment) Bill, which reduced the possible criminal sentences for the illicit possession of firearms. The bill was adopted by ten votes to eight. Two members of the assembly had recently been charged with the illicit possession of firearms. The Prime Minister, Lord Tuʻivakanō, voted in favour of the amendment. Members of the opposition denounced the bill and asked the King to veto it, which he did in December.
Group_(mathematics)
What is an arithmetical structure comprising of a set of elements including an operation that joins any two elements to form a third element?
5728062d3acd2414000df281
a group
16
False
What is the name used to describe the four conditions of closure, associativity, identity and invertibility?
5728062d3acd2414000df282
group axioms
216
False
What permits elements with different mathematical starting points to be taken care of in a flexible manner while holding their key basic aspects?
5728062d3acd2414000df283
abstract formalization of the group axioms
403
False
an algebraic structure
27
What is a set of elements constructed from?
5a81b61731013a001a334db3
True
group axioms
216
What are the two elements called?
5a81b61731013a001a334db4
True
the concrete nature
470
What is the abstract formalization attached to?
5a81b61731013a001a334db5
True
their essential structural aspects
698
What do entities lose when handled in abstract algebra?
5a81b61731013a001a334db6
True
the set of integers together with the addition operation
337
What is an example of a rare group?
5a81b61731013a001a334db7
True
In mathematics, a group is an algebraic structure consisting of a set of elements equipped with an operation that combines any two elements to form a third element. The operation satisfies four conditions called the group axioms, namely closure, associativity, identity and invertibility. One of the most familiar examples of a group is the set of integers together with the addition operation, but the abstract formalization of the group axioms, detached as it is from the concrete nature of any particular group and its operation, applies much more widely. It allows entities with highly diverse mathematical origins in abstract algebra and beyond to be handled in a flexible way while retaining their essential structural aspects. The ubiquity of groups in numerous areas within and outside mathematics makes them a central organizing principle of contemporary mathematics.
What shares an essential relationship to groups?
572807e2ff5b5019007d9b64
symmetry
54
False
What are the symmetry groups utilized as a part of the Standard Model particle physics?
572807e2ff5b5019007d9b65
Lie groups
317
False
What groups are are utilized toward comprehending symmetry wonders in chemistry?
572807e2ff5b5019007d9b66
Point groups
400
False
What groups can express the physical symmetry hidden behind special relativity?
572807e2ff5b5019007d9b67
Poincaré groups
488
False
symmetry features of a geometrical object
102
What encodes a symmetry group?
5a81b6a631013a001a334dbd
True
symmetry
54
What are groups dissimilar to?
5a81b6a631013a001a334dbe
True
particle
382
Point groups are used in what form of physics?
5a81b6a631013a001a334dbf
True
chemistry
473
Poincare groups are used to understand molecular what?
5a81b6a631013a001a334dc0
True
physical symmetry
520
What do Lie groups express in terms of special relativity?
5a81b6a631013a001a334dc1
True
Groups share a fundamental kinship with the notion of symmetry. For example, a symmetry group encodes symmetry features of a geometrical object: the group consists of the set of transformations that leave the object unchanged and the operation of combining two such transformations by performing one after the other. Lie groups are the symmetry groups used in the Standard Model of particle physics; Point groups are used to help understand symmetry phenomena in molecular chemistry; and Poincaré groups can express the physical symmetry underlying special relativity.
Where did the idea of a group come from?
572809ab2ca10214002d9c38
the study of polynomial equations,
34
False
When was the group notion summed up and solidly settled?
572809ab2ca10214002d9c39
1870
250
False
What are smaller and easier to understand groups broken down into?
572809ab2ca10214002d9c3a
subgroups, quotient groups and simple groups.
480
False
When was announcement for the classification of finite simple groups?
572809ab2ca10214002d9c3b
1983
872
False
Évariste Galois
83
Who generalized group notion in 1870?
5a81b7f631013a001a334dd9
True
1870
250
What year did mathematicians begin studying groups in their own right?
5a81b7f631013a001a334dda
True
quotient groups and simple groups
491
What are the two subgroups?
5a81b7f631013a001a334ddb
True
1983
872
When did theorists begin exploring the theoretical and computational point of view?
5a81b7f631013a001a334ddc
True
the mid-1980s
889
When did the geometric group theory become less active?
5a81b7f631013a001a334ddd
True
The concept of a group arose from the study of polynomial equations, starting with Évariste Galois in the 1830s. After contributions from other fields such as number theory and geometry, the group notion was generalized and firmly established around 1870. Modern group theory—an active mathematical discipline—studies groups in their own right.a[›] To explore groups, mathematicians have devised various notions to break groups into smaller, better-understandable pieces, such as subgroups, quotient groups and simple groups. In addition to their abstract properties, group theorists also study the different ways in which a group can be expressed concretely (its group representations), both from a theoretical and a computational point of view. A theory has been developed for finite groups, which culminated with the classification of finite simple groups announced in 1983.aa[›] Since the mid-1980s, geometric group theory, which studies finitely generated groups as geometric objects, has become a particularly active area in group theory.
What is known as underlying set of the group?
57280b474b864d19001642e6
The set
0
False
What is often utilized as a short name for the group?
57280b474b864d19001642e7
the group's underlying set
66
False
What expressions are utilized when is really implied to be a longer expression?
57280b474b864d19001642e8
shorthand expressions
163
False
the group's underlying set G
66
What cannot be used as the short name for the group?
5a81b8ad31013a001a334de3
True
The set G
0
What is the overlaying set of the group?
5a81b8ad31013a001a334de4
True
whether a symbol like G refers to a group or to an underlying set
440
What can be unclear for the G symbol?
5a81b8ad31013a001a334de5
True
shorthand
163
A subset of the underlying set G of the group (G) cannot be written using what kind of expression?
5a81b8ad31013a001a334de6
True
The set G is called the underlying set of the group (G, •). Often the group's underlying set G is used as a short name for the group (G, •). Along the same lines, shorthand expressions such as "a subset of the group G" or "an element of group G" are used when what is actually meant is "a subset of the underlying set G of the group (G, •)" or "an element of the underlying set G of the group (G, •)". Usually, it is clear from the context whether a symbol like G refers to a group or to an underlying set.
What sends a point in the square to the relating point under the symmetry?
57280d1c4b864d190016431a
functions
61
False
What gives another symmetry function?
57280d1c4b864d190016431b
Composing two of these symmetry functions
315
False
What group includes the symmetries of degree 4 and denoted D4?
57280d1c4b864d190016431c
the dihedral group
432
False
functions
36
What are represented by symmetries?
5a81b9e531013a001a334df5
True
dihedral
436
r1 is part of what group?
5a81b9e531013a001a334df6
True
the square
695
Both symmetries are applied to what?
5a81b9e531013a001a334df7
True
a and then b
797
What is written from left to right?
5a81b9e531013a001a334df8
True
90°
192
How many degrees is fh rotated?
5a81b9e531013a001a334df9
True
These symmetries are represented by functions. Each of these functions sends a point in the square to the corresponding point under the symmetry. For example, r1 sends a point to its rotation 90° clockwise around the square's center, and fh sends a point to its reflection across the square's vertical middle line. Composing two of these symmetry functions gives another symmetry function. These symmetries determine a group called the dihedral group of degree 4 and denoted D4. The underlying set of the group is the above set of symmetry functions, and the group operation is function composition. Two symmetries are combined by composing them as functions, that is, applying the first one to the square, and the second one to the result of the first application. The result of performing first a and then b is written symbolically from right to left as
What modern concept was created from many fields of mathematics?
57280ee3ff5b5019007d9c00
abstract group
25
False
The journey for answers to polynomial equations of degree higher than 4 was the original motivation for what theory?
57280ee3ff5b5019007d9c01
group theory
116
False
Which French mathematician expanded on earlier work of Paolo Ruffini and Joseph-Louis Lagrange?
57280ee3ff5b5019007d9c02
Évariste Galois
244
False
Who developed a theory giving the first abstract definition of a finite group?
57280ee3ff5b5019007d9c03
Arthur Cayley
725
False
4
203
People were looking for polynomial equations under what number?
5a81bcfc31013a001a334e19
True
Évariste Galois
244
Whose work did Paolo Ruffini and Joseph-Louis Lagrange base their work on?
5a81bcfc31013a001a334e1a
True
French
223
What was Augustin Louis Cauchy's nationality?
5a81bcfc31013a001a334e1b
True
The 19th-century
206
When did Arthur Cayley publish On the theory of groups?
5a81bcfc31013a001a334e1c
True
θn = 1 (1854)
804
What equation did Galois create that created an abstract definition?
5a81bcfc31013a001a334e1d
True
The modern concept of an abstract group developed out of several fields of mathematics. The original motivation for group theory was the quest for solutions of polynomial equations of degree higher than 4. The 19th-century French mathematician Évariste Galois, extending prior work of Paolo Ruffini and Joseph-Louis Lagrange, gave a criterion for the solvability of a particular polynomial equation in terms of the symmetry group of its roots (solutions). The elements of such a Galois group correspond to certain permutations of the roots. At first, Galois' ideas were rejected by his contemporaries, and published only posthumously. More general permutation groups were investigated in particular by Augustin Louis Cauchy. Arthur Cayley's On the theory of groups, as depending on the symbolic equation θn = 1 (1854) gives the first abstract definition of a finite group.
When did the uniform theory of groups develop from different sources?
5728106fff5b5019007d9c3a
1870
158
False
Who presented a method for specifying a group by means of generators and relations?
5728106fff5b5019007d9c3b
Walther von Dyck
165
False
What theory did Hermann Weyl study in addition to locally compact groups?
5728106fff5b5019007d9c3c
The theory of Lie groups
636
False
Who initially molded the theory of algebraic groups?
5728106fff5b5019007d9c3d
Claude Chevalley
841
False
Traité des substitutions et des équations algébriques
103
What did Walter von Dyck publish in 1870?
5a81bdcf31013a001a334e23
True
Hermann Weyl
719
Who wrote the theory of Lie groups?
5a81bdcf31013a001a334e24
True
the theory of algebraic groups
789
What did Jacques Tits shape first?
5a81bdcf31013a001a334e25
True
modular representation
580
What was Issai Schur's theory on?
5a81bdcf31013a001a334e26
True
William Burnside
491
Who worked on representation theory of lie groups?
5a81bdcf31013a001a334e27
True
The convergence of these various sources into a uniform theory of groups started with Camille Jordan's Traité des substitutions et des équations algébriques (1870). Walther von Dyck (1882) introduced the idea of specifying a group by means of generators and relations, and was also the first to give an axiomatic definition of an "abstract group", in the terminology of the time. As of the 20th century, groups gained wide recognition by the pioneering work of Ferdinand Georg Frobenius and William Burnside, who worked on representation theory of finite groups, Richard Brauer's modular representation theory and Issai Schur's papers. The theory of Lie groups, and more generally locally compact groups was studied by Hermann Weyl, Élie Cartan and many others. Its algebraic counterpart, the theory of algebraic groups, was first shaped by Claude Chevalley (from the late 1930s) and later by the work of Armand Borel and Jacques Tits.
Where did the group of theorists first meet?
572811cc2ca10214002d9d22
The University of Chicago
0
False
What university class year belonged to the group of theorists?
572811cc2ca10214002d9d23
1960–61
28
False
What did the group of theorists classify in 1982?
572811cc2ca10214002d9d24
all finite simple groups
253
False
What two factors describe the large size of the project?
572811cc2ca10214002d9d25
length of proof and number of researchers.
369
False
all finite simple groups
253
What was classified in 1960?
5a81be8331013a001a334e2d
True
Daniel Gorenstein, John G. Thompson and Walter Feit
95
Who founded the University of Chicago's Group Theory Year?
5a81be8331013a001a334e2e
True
group theory
490
What no longer has much impact on other fields?
5a81be8331013a001a334e2f
True
length of proof
369
What was shorter about this project as compared to other endeavors?
5a81be8331013a001a334e30
True
1960–61
28
When did the University of Chicago begin?
5a81be8331013a001a334e31
True
The University of Chicago's 1960–61 Group Theory Year brought together group theorists such as Daniel Gorenstein, John G. Thompson and Walter Feit, laying the foundation of a collaboration that, with input from numerous other mathematicians, classified all finite simple groups in 1982. This project exceeded previous mathematical endeavours by its sheer size, in both length of proof and number of researchers. Research is ongoing to simplify the proof of this classification. These days, group theory is still a highly active mathematical branch, impacting many other fields.a[›]
What ideas are used to understand groups beyond symbols?
572812cd2ca10214002d9d48
structural concepts
84
False
What has to be compatible with the group operation?
572812cd2ca10214002d9d49
constructions related to groups
305
False
What concept describes groups that can be related to each other via functions?
572812cd2ca10214002d9d4a
group homomorphisms
533
False
symbolic manipulations
46
What is needed to understand structural concepts?
5a81bf4631013a001a334e37
True
structure
227
Both groups and sets have what?
5a81bf4631013a001a334e38
True
group homomorphisms
533
What function is used to break groups into pieces?
5a81bf4631013a001a334e39
True
precise
637
Groups do not need to respect structures in what sense?
5a81bf4631013a001a334e3a
True
quotient groups
749
What is an example of a subgroup?
5a81bf4631013a001a334e3b
True
To understand groups beyond the level of mere symbolic manipulations as above, more structural concepts have to be employed.c[›] There is a conceptual principle underlying all of the following notions: to take advantage of the structure offered by groups (which sets, being "structureless", do not have), constructions related to groups have to be compatible with the group operation. This compatibility manifests itself in the following notions in various ways. For example, groups can be related to each other via functions called group homomorphisms. By the mentioned principle, they are required to respect the group structures in a precise sense. The structure of groups can also be understood by breaking them into pieces called subgroups and quotient groups. The principle of "preserving structures"—a recurring topic in mathematics throughout—is an instance of working in a category, in this case the category of groups.
What are two groups called if they include homomorphisms?
57281407ff5b5019007d9ca6
isomorphic
30
False
What similar element do isomorphic groups carry?
57281407ff5b5019007d9ca7
isomorphic groups
326
False
How can showing the second equality yields the first prove the concept of isomorphic groups?
57281407ff5b5019007d9ca8
applying a to the first equality yields the second
489
False
isomorphic
30
What are two groups called if no group homomorphisms are found?
5a81c05031013a001a334e41
True
information
359
Isomorphic groups carry different what?
5a81c05031013a001a334e42
True
applying the two functions one after another
109
What gives the identity of a?
5a81c05031013a001a334e43
True
abstract
302
From what point of view do isomorphic groups have different information?
5a81c05031013a001a334e44
True
applying a to the first equality yields the second
489
How does the second equality disprove the concept of isomorphic groups?
5a81c05031013a001a334e45
True
Two groups G and H are called isomorphic if there exist group homomorphisms a: G → H and b: H → G, such that applying the two functions one after another in each of the two possible orders gives the identity functions of G and H. That is, a(b(h)) = h and b(a(g)) = g for any g in G and h in H. From an abstract point of view, isomorphic groups carry the same information. For example, proving that g • g = 1G for some element g of G is equivalent to proving that a(g) ∗ a(g) = 1H, because applying a to the first equality yields the second, and applying b to the second gives back the first.
What is composed of two rotations?
572820982ca10214002d9e86
a rotation
179
False
What rotation can a rotation be reversed by?
572820982ca10214002d9e87
inverse
232
False
What essential condition must be met for a subset of a group to be a subgroup?
572820982ca10214002d9e88
The subgroup test
381
False
rotation
329
What is defined when moving in the opposite direction?
5a81c12031013a001a334e4b
True
complementary
248
270 for 180 is an example of what kind of rotation?
5a81c12031013a001a334e4c
True
identity
26
subgroup R is made up of the inverse and what?
5a81c12031013a001a334e4d
True
subgroups
564
What is unimportant for understanding the group as a whole?
5a81c12031013a001a334e4e
True
the group as a whole
604
Knowing the group as a whole is important for understanding what?
5a81c12031013a001a334e4f
True
In the example above, the identity and the rotations constitute a subgroup R = {id, r1, r2, r3}, highlighted in red in the group table above: any two rotations composed are still a rotation, and a rotation can be undone by (i.e. is inverse to) the complementary rotations 270° for 90°, 180° for 180°, and 90° for 270° (note that rotation in the opposite direction is not defined). The subgroup test is a necessary and sufficient condition for a subset H of a group G to be a subgroup: it is sufficient to check that g−1h ∈ H for all elements g, h ∈ H. Knowing the subgroups is important in understanding the group as a whole.d[›]
When is it preferable to consider two group elements to be the same?
572821b7ff5b5019007d9dac
irrelevant to the question whether a reflection has been performed
338
False
What should not be considered when asking if a reflection has been performed?
572821b7ff5b5019007d9dad
rotation operations
314
False
What number sets are used to show how subgroups can be seen as translations of the larger group?
572821b7ff5b5019007d9dae
Cosets
406
False
if they differ by an element
75
When are two group elements considered different?
5a81c9c731013a001a334ebd
True
the rotation operations
251
In D4 the square can return to the r2 configuration by applying only what?
5a81c9c731013a001a334ebe
True
whether a reflection has been performed
365
What question are cosets irrelevant to?
5a81c9c731013a001a334ebf
True
left and right cosets
470
What does group element g define?
5a81c9c731013a001a334ec0
True
once a reflection is performed
151
When are rotation operations considered?
5a81c9c731013a001a334ec1
True
In many situations it is desirable to consider two group elements the same if they differ by an element of a given subgroup. For example, in D4 above, once a reflection is performed, the square never gets back to the r2 configuration by just applying the rotation operations (and no further reflections), i.e. the rotation operations are irrelevant to the question whether a reflection has been performed. Cosets are used to formalize this insight: a subgroup H defines left and right cosets, which can be thought of as translations of H by arbitrary group elements g. In symbolic terms, the left and right cosets of H containing g are
What is another term for coset multiplication?
572823544b864d1900164546
coset addition
79
False
What group operation is taken by the set from the original group?
572823544b864d1900164547
coset multiplication
54
False
What group does the inverse of gN include?
572823544b864d1900164548
quotient group
523
False
coset multiplication, or coset addition
54
What is the original group sometimes called?
5a81caf731013a001a334edb
True
universal properties
417
What are group homomorphisms called?
5a81caf731013a001a334edc
True
identity
470
What does the Coset gN serve as?
5a81caf731013a001a334edd
True
coset multiplication
54
What group operation is taken by the original group from the set?
5a81caf731013a001a334ede
True
quotient group
523
The inverse of gN excludes what group?
5a81caf731013a001a334edf
True
This set inherits a group operation (sometimes called coset multiplication, or coset addition) from the original group G: (gN) • (hN) = (gh)N for all g and h in G. This definition is motivated by the idea (itself an instance of general structural considerations outlined above) that the map G → G / N that associates to any element g its coset gN be a group homomorphism, or by general abstract considerations called universal properties. The coset eN = N serves as the identity in this group, and the inverse of gN in the quotient group is (gN)−1 = (g−1)N.e[›]
What groups can be combined to describe every group?
572823f82ca10214002d9ec6
is the quotient of the free group over the generators of the group
107
False
What group can be the quotient of the free group over the generators of the group?
572823f82ca10214002d9ec7
any group
97
False
What is a finite composition of two symmetries or their inverses?
572823f82ca10214002d9ec8
every symmetry of the square
403
False
every group by its presentation
64
What do quotient groups describe by themselves?
5a81cbef31013a001a334ee5
True
Quotient groups and subgroups
0
What presentation describes every group?
5a81cbef31013a001a334ee6
True
two
272
How many elements does the dihedral group generate?
5a81cbef31013a001a334ee7
True
every symmetry
403
What of a square is an infinite composition?
5a81cbef31013a001a334ee8
True
r and f
285
Which two elements does D4 generate?
5a81cbef31013a001a334ee9
True
Quotient groups and subgroups together form a way of describing every group by its presentation: any group is the quotient of the free group over the generators of the group, quotiented by the subgroup of relations. The dihedral group D4, for example, can be generated by two elements r and f (for example, r = r1, the right rotation and f = fv the vertical (or any other) reflection), which means that every symmetry of the square is a finite composition of these two symmetries or their inverses. Together with the relations
What map shows the relation between sub and quotient groups?
5728250a4b864d1900164588
injective map
93
False
What are the opposites of injective maps?
5728250a4b864d1900164589
surjective maps
224
False
What is an example of a surjective map?
5728250a4b864d190016458a
canonical map
298
False
What theory address the phenomenon of homomorphisms being neither injective nor surjective?
5728250a4b864d190016458b
the first isomorphism theorem
599
False
H → G
107
Subset G of H is seen as what map?
5a81cd1f31013a001a334eef
True
one
157
What is the minimum number of elements in a target?
5a81cd1f31013a001a334ef0
True
surjective
224
What kind of map is similar to an injective map?
5a81cd1f31013a001a334ef1
True
the first isomorphism theorem
599
What theory discusses the surjective nature of canonical maps?
5a81cd1f31013a001a334ef2
True
injective nor surjective
529
What two forms must homomorphisms take?
5a81cd1f31013a001a334ef3
True
Sub- and quotient groups are related in the following way: a subset H of G can be seen as an injective map H → G, i.e. any element of the target has at most one element that maps to it. The counterpart to injective maps are surjective maps (every element of the target is mapped onto), such as the canonical map G → G / N.y[›] Interpreting subgroup and quotients in light of these homomorphisms emphasizes the structural concept inherent to these definitions alluded to in the introduction. In general, homomorphisms are neither injective nor surjective. Kernel and image of group homomorphisms and the first isomorphism theorem address this phenomenon.
What are usually analyzed by associating groups to them and studying the elements of the corresponding groups?
572826002ca10214002d9f12
Mathematical objects
58
False
Who founded algebraic topology?
572826002ca10214002d9f13
Henri Poincaré
198
False
What did Henri Poincaré introduce when he established algebraic topology?
572826002ca10214002d9f14
the fundamental group
274
False
What topological properties translate into properties of groups?
572826002ca10214002d9f15
proximity and continuity
357
False
What represents elements of the fundamental group?
572826002ca10214002d9f16
loops
489
False
Henri Poincaré
198
Who first applied groups to other mathematical areas?
5a81ce1331013a001a334ef9
True
proximity and continuity
357
Which topological properties do not carry over into groups?
5a81ce1331013a001a334efa
True
it can be continuously shrunk to a point
643
Why is the blue loop considered relevant?
5a81ce1331013a001a334efb
True
The presence of the hole
685
What causes the orange loop to shrink to a point?
5a81ce1331013a001a334efc
True
The fundamental group of the plane with a point deleted
765
What results in a finite cycle?
5a81ce1331013a001a334efd
True
Groups are also applied in many other mathematical areas. Mathematical objects are often examined by associating groups to them and studying the properties of the corresponding groups. For example, Henri Poincaré founded what is now called algebraic topology by introducing the fundamental group. By means of this connection, topological properties such as proximity and continuity translate into properties of groups.i[›] For example, elements of the fundamental group are represented by loops. The second image at the right shows some loops in a plane minus a point. The blue loop is considered null-homotopic (and thus irrelevant), because it can be continuously shrunk to a point. The presence of the hole prevents the orange loop from being shrunk to a point. The fundamental group of the plane with a point deleted turns out to be infinite cyclic, generated by the orange loop (or any other loop winding once around the hole). This way, the fundamental group detects the hole.
What positive integer is used to divide the sum of two positive integers in modular mathematics?
572826e63acd2414000df5a7
the modulus
103
False
What results from modular addition?
572826e63acd2414000df5a8
the remainder of that division
150
False
What type of device can be use to demonstrate modular addition?
572826e63acd2414000df5a9
a clock
405
False
arithmetic
11
How many integers are divided in modular arithmetic?
5a81d33331013a001a334f03
True
the modulus
103
What are the two integers called?
5a81d33331013a001a334f04
True
modular addition
130
What is the result of the remained of the division?
5a81d33331013a001a334f05
True
identity element
328
What is 9 in modular addition?
5a81d33331013a001a334f06
True
9
437
If the hour hand is on 1 and is advanced by 4 hours, where does it end up?
5a81d33331013a001a334f07
True
In modular arithmetic, two integers are added and then the sum is divided by a positive integer called the modulus. The result of modular addition is the remainder of that division. For any modulus, n, the set of integers from 0 to n − 1 forms a group under modular addition: the inverse of any element a is n − a, and 0 is the identity element. This is familiar from the addition of hours on the face of a clock: if the hour hand is on 9 and is advanced 4 hours, it ends up on 1, as shown at the right. This is expressed by saying that 9 + 4 equals 1 "modulo 12" or, in symbols,
What term describes the group of integers related to a prime number?
572827c73acd2414000df5b5
modulo p
75
False
What integers are included in modulo p?
572827c73acd2414000df5b6
1 to p − 1
115
False
How many group elements exist if p=5?
572827c83acd2414000df5b7
four group elements
327
False
prime number
8
What describes a group of integers related to a modulo?
5a81d44431013a001a334f0d
True
p
216
What is the result of modular multiplication divided by?
5a81d44431013a001a334f0e
True
four
327
How many integers does p = 5 have?
5a81d44431013a001a334f0f
True
the usual product
184
What is p divided by?
5a81d44431013a001a334f10
True
1
431
What is 16 multiplied by 5 If p=5?
5a81d44431013a001a334f11
True
For any prime number p, there is also the multiplicative group of integers modulo p. Its elements are the integers 1 to p − 1. The group operation is multiplication modulo p. That is, the usual product is divided by p and the remainder of this division is the result of modular multiplication. For example, if p = 5, there are four group elements 1, 2, 3, 4. In this group, 4 · 4 = 1, because the usual product 16 is equivalent to 1, which divided by 5 yields a remainder of 1. for 5 divides 16 − 1 = 15, denoted
What is a group labeled when the element 1 is primitive?
572829024b864d1900164612
cyclic
85
False
What group is isomorphic to cyclic groups?
572829024b864d1900164613
Any cyclic group with n elements
164
False
What example of cyclic group satisfies the express of zn = 1?
572829024b864d1900164614
the group of n-th complex roots of unity
264
False
isomorphic
200
A cyclic group without n elements is considered what?
5a81e1e031013a001a334f61
True
1
49
What element is not primitive in groups Z/nZ?
5a81e1e031013a001a334f62
True
cyclic
85
What are groups called when element 1 is not primitive?
5a81e1e031013a001a334f63
True
a counter-clockwise rotation by 60°
569
What rotation results in multiplying but n?
5a81e1e031013a001a334f64
True
vertices
391
What are numbers on an irregular n-gon?
5a81e1e031013a001a334f65
True
In the groups Z/nZ introduced above, the element 1 is primitive, so these groups are cyclic. Indeed, each element is expressible as a sum all of whose terms are 1. Any cyclic group with n elements is isomorphic to this group. A second example for cyclic groups is the group of n-th complex roots of unity, given by complex numbers z satisfying zn = 1. These numbers can be visualized as the vertices on a regular n-gon, as shown in blue at the right for n = 6. The group operation is multiplication of complex numbers. In the picture, multiplying with z corresponds to a counter-clockwise rotation by 60°. Using some field theory, the group Fp× can be shown to be cyclic: for example, if p = 5, 3 is a generator since 31 = 3, 32 = 9 ≡ 4, 33 ≡ 2, and 34 ≡ 1.
What are groups consisting of symmetries of given arithmetic concepts?
57282a4b2ca10214002d9fc0
Symmetry groups
0
False
What term describes the introductory symmetry group of the square?
57282a4b2ca10214002d9fc1
geometric nature
93
False
What can regarded as the study of symmetry?
57282a4b2ca10214002d9fc2
group theory
254
False
What is the name of the rule that must be met for a group operation to occur?
57282a4b2ca10214002d9fc3
group law
532
False
The group pattern is connected to the structure of the target by what behavior?
57282a4b2ca10214002d9fc4
group action
724
False
symmetries of given mathematical objects
41
What do symmetry groups make?
5a81e2e631013a001a334f6b
True
polynomial equations
198
Which equation is are used for the square?
5a81e2e631013a001a334f6c
True
group theory
254
What is the study of geometrical or analytical objects called?
5a81e2e631013a001a334f6d
True
geometrical or analytical objects
371
What makes the study of symmetries easier?
5a81e2e631013a001a334f6e
True
permuting the highlighted warped triangles
649
What does group action do to the tiling?
5a81e2e631013a001a334f6f
True
Symmetry groups are groups consisting of symmetries of given mathematical objects—be they of geometric nature, such as the introductory symmetry group of the square, or of algebraic nature, such as polynomial equations and their solutions. Conceptually, group theory can be thought of as the study of symmetry.t[›] Symmetries in mathematics greatly simplify the study of geometrical or analytical objects. A group is said to act on another mathematical object X if every group element performs some operation on X compatibly to the group law. In the rightmost example below, an element of order 7 of the (2,3,7) triangle group acts on the tiling by permuting the highlighted warped triangles (and the other ones, too). By a group action, the group pattern is connected to the structure of the object being acted on.
What aids in predicting changes of physical traits?
57282d592ca10214002d9ff0
group theory
10
False
What stage of a physical transformation can group theory be used to make prediction?
57282d592ca10214002d9ff1
phase transition
111
False
What temperature causes the change of ferroelectric materials?
57282d592ca10214002d9ff2
Curie temperature
305
False
What term describes the vibrational lattice mode that turns to 0 frequency at the change?
57282d592ca10214002d9ff3
soft phonon mode
461
False
physical properties
52
What predicts the changes in group theory?
5a81e3c131013a001a334f75
True
a phase transition
109
Which stage can physical properties be used to make predictions about group theory?
5a81e3c131013a001a334f76
True
Curie temperature
305
What temperature causes a change from ferroelectric to paraelectric?
5a81e3c131013a001a334f77
True
zero
519
What is the frequency of a paraelectric state before transition?
5a81e3c131013a001a334f78
True
soft phonon mode
461
What is the name of the mode that moves material from a low-symmetry state to a high one?
5a81e3c131013a001a334f79
True
Likewise, group theory helps predict the changes in physical properties that occur when a material undergoes a phase transition, for example, from a cubic to a tetrahedral crystalline form. An example is ferroelectric materials, where the change from a paraelectric to a ferroelectric state occurs at the Curie temperature and is related to a change from the high-symmetry paraelectric state to the lower symmetry ferroelectic state, accompanied by a so-called soft phonon mode, a vibrational lattice mode that goes to zero frequency at the transition.
What are examples of finite symmetry groups used in coding theory?
5728362a3acd2414000df70f
Mathieu groups
35
False
What is used for error correction of transferred data?
5728362a3acd2414000df710
coding theory
62
False
What describes functions having antiderivatives of a prescribed form?
5728362a3acd2414000df711
differential Galois theory
185
False
What concept investigates geometric elements that stay stable under group action?
5728362a3acd2414000df712
invariant theory
487
False
coding
62
What theory is error correction applied to?
5a81e49731013a001a334f89
True
Mathieu
35
Which form of finite symmetry groups are useless in coding theory?
5a81e49731013a001a334f8a
True
antiderivatives
250
Mathieu groups have what kind of prescribed form?
5a81e49731013a001a334f8b
True
Geometric
395
What stable properties does the Galois theory study?
5a81e49731013a001a334f8c
True
differential
350
Geometric Invariant theory studies what kind of equations?
5a81e49731013a001a334f8d
True
Finite symmetry groups such as the Mathieu groups are used in coding theory, which is in turn applied in error correction of transmitted data, and in CD players. Another application is differential Galois theory, which characterizes functions having antiderivatives of a prescribed form, giving group-theoretic criteria for when solutions of certain differential equations are well-behaved.u[›] Geometric properties that remain stable under group actions are investigated in (geometric) invariant theory.
What groups combine matrices with matrix multiplication?
5728372a4b864d190016475c
Matrix groups
0
False
What includes all invertible n-by-n matrices with real entries?
5728372a4b864d190016475d
The general linear group
71
False
What term describes subgroups of the general linear group?
5728372a4b864d190016475e
matrix groups
200
False
What matrix group portrays all possible rotations in n dimensions?
5728372a4b864d190016475f
the special orthogonal group SO(n)
355
False
Rotation matrix groups are utilized in computer graphics with what concept?
5728372a4b864d1900164760
Euler angles
448
False
matrix multiplication
48
What are matrices and matrix groups combined called?
5a81e5d531013a001a334f93
True
rotations in n dimensions
417
The general linear group describes all possible what?
5a81e5d531013a001a334f94
True
dihedral group
236
What is an example of a large matrix group?
5a81e5d531013a001a334f95
True
matrix groups or linear groups
200
What are subgroups of the special orthogonal group called?
5a81e5d531013a001a334f96
True
Euler
448
What type of angles are made of all invertible n-by-b matrices?
5a81e5d531013a001a334f97
True
Matrix groups consist of matrices together with matrix multiplication. The general linear group GL(n, R) consists of all invertible n-by-n matrices with real entries. Its subgroups are referred to as matrix groups or linear groups. The dihedral group example mentioned above can be viewed as a (very small) matrix group. Another important matrix group is the special orthogonal group SO(n). It describes all possible rotations in n dimensions. Via Euler angles, rotation matrices are used in computer graphics.
What degree does not include simple formulas for cubic and quatric equations?
572838983acd2414000df749
degree 5 and higher
233
False
What concept is associated with the solvability of polynomials?
572838983acd2414000df74a
Abstract properties of Galois groups
254
False
What are used to express the solutions of polynomials?
572838983acd2414000df74b
radicals
431
False
degree 5
233
What degree must it be lower than to have simple formulas?
5a81f51431013a001a334fd9
True
polynomials
374
What give criterion for abstract properties?
5a81f51431013a001a334fda
True
Galois groups
277
Which group cannot be expressed using radicals?
5a81f51431013a001a334fdb
True
Exchanging "+" and "−"
0
What is an example of a complex operation?
5a81f51431013a001a334fdc
True
(very simple) group operation
110
What do cubic and quartic equations not have?
5a81f51431013a001a334fdd
True
Exchanging "+" and "−" in the expression, i.e. permuting the two solutions of the equation can be viewed as a (very simple) group operation. Similar formulae are known for cubic and quartic equations, but do not exist in general for degree 5 and higher. Abstract properties of Galois groups associated with polynomials (in particular their solvability) give a criterion for polynomials that have all their solutions expressible by radicals, i.e. solutions expressible using solely addition, multiplication, and roots similar to the formula above.
What does a finite group include?
5728396e2ca10214002da110
a finite number of elements
35
False
What is the number of elements in a group named?
5728396e2ca10214002da111
the order of the group
97
False
What type of class has a finite group that can be expressed as a subgroup of a symmetric group?
5728396e2ca10214002da112
fundamental
439
False
What can be described as the group of symmetries of an equilateral triangle?
5728396e2ca10214002da113
S3
636
False
The number of elements
64
What is called the order of the group?
5a81f74231013a001a334fed
True
A group
0
What does a finite number of elements include?
5a81f74231013a001a334fee
True
any finite group
462
What can a subgroup of a symmetric group SN can be expressed as?
5a81f74231013a001a334fef
True
equilateral triangle
696
What are the group of symmetries of a S3?
5a81f74231013a001a334ff0
True
A group is called finite if it has a finite number of elements. The number of elements is called the order of the group. An important class is the symmetric groups SN, the groups of permutations of N letters. For example, the symmetric group on 3 letters S3 is the group consisting of all possible orderings of the three letters ABC, i.e. contains the elements ABC, ACB, ..., up to CBA, in total 6 (or 3 factorial) elements. This class is fundamental insofar as any finite group can be expressed as a subgroup of a symmetric group SN for a suitable integer N (Cayley's theorem). Parallel to the group of symmetries of the square above, S3 can also be interpreted as the group of symmetries of an equilateral triangle.
What level of finality do mathematicians try to reach with math concepts?
57283ac63acd2414000df75f
complete classification
34
False
What area of classification leads to troublesome arithmetic?
57283ac63acd2414000df760
finite groups
112
False
What defines finite groups of order p, a prime number, as being necessarily cyclic (abelian) groups Zp?
57283ac63acd2414000df761
Lagrange's theorem
181
False
What can be used to classify small groups even though there is no classification of all finite groups?
57283ac63acd2414000df762
Computer algebra systems
447
False
What describes finite simple groups as the building pieces for all finite groups?
57283ac63acd2414000df763
The Jordan–Hölder theorem
748
False
abelian
330
Both p2 and p3 are what?
5a81fab831013a001a335037
True
Computer algebra systems
447
What is used to classify all finite groups?
5a81fab831013a001a335038
True
1998
937
When was the Jordan-Holder theorem published?
5a81fab831013a001a335039
True
a mathematical notion
71
What did Richard Borcherd make a complete classification of?
5a81fab831013a001a33503a
True
Jordan–Hölder
752
What theorem details the link between the largest finite group and modular functions?
5a81fab831013a001a33503b
True
Mathematicians often strive for a complete classification (or list) of a mathematical notion. In the context of finite groups, this aim leads to difficult mathematics. According to Lagrange's theorem, finite groups of order p, a prime number, are necessarily cyclic (abelian) groups Zp. Groups of order p2 can also be shown to be abelian, a statement which does not generalize to order p3, as the non-abelian group D4 of order 8 = 23 above shows. Computer algebra systems can be used to list small groups, but there is no classification of all finite groups.q[›] An intermediate step is the classification of finite simple groups.r[›] A nontrivial group is called simple if its only normal subgroups are the trivial group and the group itself.s[›] The Jordan–Hölder theorem exhibits finite simple groups as the building blocks for all finite groups. Listing all finite simple groups was a major achievement in contemporary group theory. 1998 Fields Medal winner Richard Borcherds succeeded in proving the monstrous moonshine conjectures, a surprising and deep relation between the largest finite simple sporadic group—the "monster group"—and certain modular functions, a piece of classical complex analysis, and string theory, a theory supposed to unify the description of many physical phenomena.
What group operations must occur for group law and topology to integrate well?
57283bec2ca10214002da13c
continuous functions
150
False
What is the most simple example of topological groups?
57283bec2ca10214002da13d
reals R under addition, (R ∖ {0}, ·),
391
False
What variables do locally compact groups share that can be studied by harmonic analysis?
57283bec2ca10214002da13e
Haar measures
577
False
topology
92
What allows group law and group operations to interweave?
5a81fbf231013a001a335041
True
topological spaces
5
What is group law endowed with?
5a81fbf231013a001a335042
True
Haar measures
577
What are harmonic analyses studied using?
5a81fbf231013a001a335043
True
topological groups
269
What are topological spaces categorized by?
5a81fbf231013a001a335044
True
harmonic analysis
614
How are groups that are not locally compact studied?
5a81fbf231013a001a335045
True
Some topological spaces may be endowed with a group law. In order for the group law and the topology to interweave well, the group operations must be continuous functions, that is, g • h, and g−1 must not vary wildly if g and h vary only little. Such groups are called topological groups, and they are the group objects in the category of topological spaces. The most basic examples are the reals R under addition, (R ∖ {0}, ·), and similarly with any other topological field such as the complex numbers or p-adic numbers. All of these groups are locally compact, so they have Haar measures and can be studied via harmonic analysis. The former offer an abstract formalism of invariant integrals. Invariance means, in the case of real numbers for example:
What concepts are fundamental to number theory?
57283d5cff5b5019007d9fb4
adele rings and adelic algebraic groups
82
False
What group uses infinite field extensions with topology?
57283d5cff5b5019007d9fb5
the absolute Galois group
208
False
What is used to generalize the connection of fields and groups to infinite field extensions?
57283d5cff5b5019007d9fb6
Krull topology
286
False
What group is an advanced observation of infinite field extensions and groups that is adapted for the needs of algebraic geometry?
57283d5cff5b5019007d9fb7
the étale fundamental group
510
False
number theory
142
What is basic to adele rings?
5a81fdc831013a001a33505f
True
absolute
212
Which Galois group does not use topology?
5a81fdc831013a001a335060
True
Krull
286
What form of topology do Matrix groups use?
5a81fdc831013a001a335061
True
algebraic
487
The Galois group is adapted to the needs of what form of geometry?
5a81fdc831013a001a335062
True
the étale fundamental group
510
What is algebraic geometry adapted to the needs of?
5a81fdc831013a001a335063
True
for any constant c. Matrix groups over these fields fall under this regime, as do adele rings and adelic algebraic groups, which are basic to number theory. Galois groups of infinite field extensions such as the absolute Galois group can also be equipped with a topology, the so-called Krull topology, which in turn is central to generalize the above sketched connection of fields and groups to infinite field extensions. An advanced generalization of this idea, adapted to the needs of algebraic geometry, is the étale fundamental group.
What concept is of basic importance in modern physics?
57283e51ff5b5019007d9fd8
Lie groups
0
False
What connects continuous symmetries to conserved quantities?
57283e51ff5b5019007d9fd9
Noether's theorem
60
False
What term describes the basic symmetries of the laws of mechanics?
57283e51ff5b5019007d9fda
Rotation
131
False
What concept relates measurements of time and velocity of two observers in motion relative to each other?
57283e51ff5b5019007d9fdb
Lorentz transformations
483
False
What describe the complete symmetry group of Minkowski space including translations?
57283e51ff5b5019007d9fdc
Poincaré group
937
False
modern physics
44
What is important to Lie groups?
5a81feb231013a001a33507b
True
Noether's theorem
60
What connects Lie groups with conserved quantities?
5a81feb231013a001a33507c
True
Rotation, as well as translations in space and time
131
What are basic laws of mechanics?
5a81feb231013a001a33507d
True
Lorentz transformations
483
What measures the time and velocity of two observers?
5a81feb231013a001a33507e
True
Poincaré group
937
What are the translations in a group of Minkowski space called?
5a81feb231013a001a33507f
True
Lie groups are of fundamental importance in modern physics: Noether's theorem links continuous symmetries to conserved quantities. Rotation, as well as translations in space and time are basic symmetries of the laws of mechanics. They can, for instance, be used to construct simple models—imposing, say, axial symmetry on a situation will typically lead to significant simplification in the equations one needs to solve to provide a physical description.v[›] Another example are the Lorentz transformations, which relate measurements of time and velocity of two observers in motion relative to each other. They can be deduced in a purely group-theoretical way, by expressing the transformations as a rotational symmetry of Minkowski space. The latter serves—in the absence of significant gravitation—as a model of space time in special relativity. The full symmetry group of Minkowski space, i.e. including translations, is known as the Poincaré group. By the above, it plays a pivotal role in special relativity and, by implication, for quantum field theories. Symmetries that vary with location are central to the modern description of physical interactions with the help of gauge theory.
What product is created if the requirement that every element has an inverse is eliminated?
57283f6d2ca10214002da17a
monoid
233
False
What type of numbers under addition form a monoid?
57283f6d2ca10214002da17b
natural numbers N (including 0)
245
False
What method formally adds inverses to elements to any monoid?
57283f6d2ca10214002da17c
the Grothendieck group
541
False
What can be replaced to simplify abstract algebra concepts?
57283f6d2ca10214002da17d
the binary operation
896
False
more general structures
21
Axioms are defined by relaxing what?
5a81ff7e31013a001a33508d
True
monoid
233
What is the inverse of every element called?
5a81ff7e31013a001a33508e
True
(Z ∖ {0}, ·)
518
What is derived from (Q \ [0],-)?
5a81ff7e31013a001a33508f
True
composition a • b
613
What needs to be defined in Groupoids for a and b?
5a81ff7e31013a001a335090
True
group axioms
1023
What does generalizing an n-ary group give rise to?
5a81ff7e31013a001a335091
True
In abstract algebra, more general structures are defined by relaxing some of the axioms defining a group. For example, if the requirement that every element has an inverse is eliminated, the resulting algebraic structure is called a monoid. The natural numbers N (including 0) under addition form a monoid, as do the nonzero integers under multiplication (Z ∖ {0}, ·), see above. There is a general method to formally add inverses to elements to any (abelian) monoid, much the same way as (Q ∖ {0}, ·) is derived from (Z ∖ {0}, ·), known as the Grothendieck group. Groupoids are similar to groups except that the composition a • b need not be defined for all a and b. They arise in the study of more complicated forms of symmetry, often in topological and analytical structures, such as the fundamental groupoid or stacks. Finally, it is possible to generalize any of these concepts by replacing the binary operation with an arbitrary n-ary one (i.e. an operation taking n arguments). With the proper generalization of the group axioms this gives rise to an n-ary group. The table gives a list of several structures generalizing groups.
Central_African_Republic
Where is the Central African Republic located?
5728082c3acd2414000df2c1
Central Africa
195
False
What country borders CAR in the North?
5728082c3acd2414000df2c2
Chad
229
False
What Country borders CAR in the South?
5728082c3acd2414000df2c3
the Republic of the Congo
338
False
What Country borders CAR in the West?
5728082c3acd2414000df2c4
Cameroon
381
False
What is the population of CAR approximately?
5728082c3acd2414000df2c5
4.7 million
523
False
Central Africa
195
In what part of Africa is Chad landlocked?
5a32d37cbd0d7f001aef9460
True
620,000 square kilometres
439
What is the land area of Chad?
5a32d37cbd0d7f001aef9461
True
4.7 million
523
What is the population of Sudan?
5a32d37cbd0d7f001aef9462
True
The Central African Republic
0
What country is bordered by Cameroon to the north?
5a32d37cbd0d7f001aef9463
True
4.7 million
523
What is the population of Cameroon as of 2014?
5a32d37cbd0d7f001aef9464
True
The Central African Republic (CAR; Sango: Ködörösêse tî Bêafrîka; French: République centrafricaine  pronounced: [ʁepyblik sɑ̃tʁafʁikɛn], or Centrafrique [sɑ̃tʀafʁik]) is a landlocked country in Central Africa. It is bordered by Chad to the north, Sudan to the northeast, South Sudan to the east, the Democratic Republic of the Congo and the Republic of the Congo to the south and Cameroon to the west. The CAR covers a land area of about 620,000 square kilometres (240,000 sq mi) and had an estimated population of around 4.7 million as of 2014[update].
Who established CAR's borders?
572808ff4b864d19001642a4
France
136
False
What country ruled CAR as a colony?
572808ff4b864d19001642a5
France
247
False
When did CAR become independent?
572808ff4b864d19001642a6
in 1960
254
False
Who was the first democratically elected President?
572808ff4b864d19001642a7
Ange-Félix Patassé
430
False
What religion is a minority in CAR?
572808ff4b864d19001642a8
Muslim minority
754
False
2003
523
When was General Francois Bozize removed in a coup?
5a32d52cbd0d7f001aef9470
True
in 2004
578
In what year did the Ange-Felix Patasse war begin?
5a32d52cbd0d7f001aef9471
True
the country's current borders
86
What did the muslim minority establish in the Central Africal Republic?
5a32d52cbd0d7f001aef9472
True
in the late 19th century
189
At what time did various factions begin to rule the ACR as a colony?
5a32d52cbd0d7f001aef9473
True
in 1960
254
In what year did the ACR gain independence from General Francois Bozize?
5a32d52cbd0d7f001aef9474
True
What is today the Central African Republic has been inhabited for millennia; however, the country's current borders were established by France, which ruled the country as a colony starting in the late 19th century. After gaining independence from France in 1960, the Central African Republic was ruled by a series of autocratic leaders; by the 1990s, calls for democracy led to the first multi-party democratic elections in 1993. Ange-Félix Patassé became president, but was later removed by General François Bozizé in the 2003 coup. The Central African Republic Bush War began in 2004 and, despite a peace treaty in 2007 and another in 2011, fighting broke out between various factions in December 2012, leading to ethnic and religious cleansing of the Muslim minority and massive population displacement in 2013 and 2014.
How long ago did people start living in the area?
572809fd2ca10214002d9c4e
Approximately 10,000 years ago
0
False
What agricultural job did people settling in the area perform?
572809fd2ca10214002d9c4f
farming
174
False
What vegetation helped populations expand?
572809fd2ca10214002d9c50
African oil palm
324
False
What was an imported food that provided most of the carbohydrates?
572809fd2ca10214002d9c51
Bananas
424
False
What important protein helped with expansion of the inhabitants?
572809fd2ca10214002d9c52
Fish
630
False
Approximately 10,000 years ago
0
How long ago did farming force hunter-gatherer societies south?
5a32d6e6bd0d7f001aef947a
True
the local populations
401
What did dedertification allow for the expansion of?
5a32d6e6bd0d7f001aef947b
True
artistic expression
835
What is production of alcoholic beverages an example of?
5a32d6e6bd0d7f001aef947c
True
improved the groups' nutrition
341
What did a Fish-stew revolution do to the group's eating habits?
5a32d6e6bd0d7f001aef947d
True
goods
747
What did farming of white yam allow for the transportation of?
5a32d6e6bd0d7f001aef947e
True
Approximately 10,000 years ago, desertification forced hunter-gatherer societies south into the Sahel regions of northern Central Africa, where some groups settled and began farming as part of the Neolithic Revolution. Initial farming of white yam progressed into millet and sorghum, and before 3000 BC the domestication of African oil palm improved the groups' nutrition and allowed for expansion of the local populations. Bananas arrived in the region and added an important source of carbohydrates to the diet; they were also used in the production of alcoholic beverages.[when?] This Agricultural Revolution, combined with a "Fish-stew Revolution", in which fishing began to take place, and the use of boats, allowed for the transportation of goods. Products were often moved in ceramic pots, which are the first known examples of artistic expression from the region's inhabitants.
When did the slave trade hit the CAR region?
57280ab8ff5b5019007d9ba0
16th and 17th centuries
11
False
What is one area where captive slaves were sent?
57280ab8ff5b5019007d9ba1
Europe
210
False
Which people were major slave traders in the 19th century?
57280ab8ff5b5019007d9ba2
Bobangi people
386
False
Who did the Bobangi sell slave to?
57280ab8ff5b5019007d9ba3
the Americas
455
False
What river saw the establishment of a new Kingdom?
57280ab8ff5b5019007d9ba4
Ubangi River
602
False
the Bobangi people
382
During the 16th and 17th centures what group began to raid the region?
5a32d866bd0d7f001aef948c
True
the Bangassou Kingdom
570
What did the Bobangi people establish in the 18th century along the Ubangi River?
5a32d866bd0d7f001aef948d
True
as part of the expansion of the Saharan and Nile River slave routes
74
Why did the Bandia-Nzakara raid the region in the 16th and 17th centuries?
5a32d866bd0d7f001aef948e
True
the Mediterranean coast, Europe, Arabia, the Western Hemisphere
185
What are some areas where the Bobangi were shipped along the slave routes?
5a32d866bd0d7f001aef948f
True
along the West and North Africa or South the Ubanqui and Congo rivers
286
Where were the Bandia-Nzakara slave ports and factories located?
5a32d866bd0d7f001aef9490
True
During the 16th and 17th centuries slave traders began to raid the region as part of the expansion of the Saharan and Nile River slave routes. Their captives were slaved and shipped to the Mediterranean coast, Europe, Arabia, the Western Hemisphere, or to the slave ports and factories along the West and North Africa or South the Ubanqui and Congo rivers. In the mid 19th century, the Bobangi people became major slave traders and sold their captives to the Americas using the Ubangi river to reach the coast. During the 18th century Bandia-Nzakara peoples established the Bangassou Kingdom along the Ubangi River.
When was Equatorial Africa established?
57280b994b864d19001642fc
1920
3
False
Where was Equatorial African ran from?
57280b994b864d19001642fd
Brazzaville
88
False
What plant was mandated to be grown by the French?
57280b994b864d19001642fe
cotton
172
False
What important infrastructure was built in the 1920s.
57280b994b864d19001642ff
a network of roads
192
False
What religion was spread through CAR?
57280b994b864d1900164300
Christianity
320
False
French Equatorial Africa
8
What country was established during the 1920's and 1930's?
5a32d9f7bd0d7f001aef949c
True
Brazzaville
88
Where was the Congo-Ocean Railway run from?
5a32d9f7bd0d7f001aef949d
True
the Congo-Ocean Railway
434
What were Christians forced to work on?
5a32d9f7bd0d7f001aef949e
True
127,000 workers
582
How many workers established Protestant missions?
5a32d9f7bd0d7f001aef949f
True
exhaustion, illness, or the poor conditions
497
What conditions did the Ubangi-Shari suffer from?
5a32d9f7bd0d7f001aef94a0
True
In 1920 French Equatorial Africa was established and Ubangi-Shari was administered from Brazzaville. During the 1920s and 1930s the French introduced a policy of mandatory cotton cultivation, a network of roads was built, attempts were made to combat sleeping sickness and Protestant missions were established to spread Christianity. New forms of forced labor were also introduced and a large number of Ubangians were sent to work on the Congo-Ocean Railway. Many of these forced laborers died of exhaustion, illness, or the poor conditions which claimed between 20% and 25% of the 127,000 workers.
During what war did French officers setup headquarters in CAR?
57280d3d4b864d1900164320
Second World War
30
False
Who was elected in 1946 as the first representative?
57280d3d4b864d1900164321
Barthélémy Boganda
201
False
How many votes did Boganda get?
57280d3d4b864d1900164322
9,000 votes
237
False
What was Bogandas platform that he ran for?
57280d3d4b864d1900164323
political stance against racism
371
False
What caused Boganda to leave his elected post?
57280d3d4b864d1900164324
disheartened with the French political system
448
False
in Bangui
182
Where did the Ubangi-Shari establish their headquarters?
5a32db1cbd0d7f001aef94a6
True
Barthélémy Boganda
201
Who was elected in 1950 to become the first CAR representative in the French government?
5a32db1cbd0d7f001aef94a7
True
9,000 votes
237
How many votes did General Leclerc get in the election?
5a32db1cbd0d7f001aef94a8
True
against racism and the colonial regime
388
What was the political position of General Leclerc?
5a32db1cbd0d7f001aef94a9
True
the Movement for the Social Evolution of Black Africa
527
What did Barthelemy Boganda establish in September 1940?
5a32db1cbd0d7f001aef94aa
True
In September 1940, during the Second World War, pro-Gaullist French officers took control of Ubangi-Shari and General Leclerc established his headquarters for the Free French Forces in Bangui. In 1946 Barthélémy Boganda was elected with 9,000 votes to the French National Assembly, becoming the first representative for CAR in the French government. Boganda maintained a political stance against racism and the colonial regime but gradually became disheartened with the French political system and returned to CAR to establish the Movement for the Social Evolution of Black Africa (MESAN) in 1950.
What was the overwhelming amount of votes MESAN captured?
57280ddbff5b5019007d9bdc
347,000 out of the total 356,000 votes
74
False
How many seats did MESAN win?
57280ddbff5b5019007d9bdd
every legislative seat
122
False
Who was elected president of the Grand Council?
57280ddbff5b5019007d9bde
Boganda
159
False
How did Boganda die?
57280ddbff5b5019007d9bdf
a plane crash
503
False
Who took over after Boganda died?
57280ddbff5b5019007d9be0
his cousin, David Dacko
535
False
29 March 1959
520
When did David Dacko die in a plane crash?
5a32dc6cbd0d7f001aef94b0
True
Abel Goumba
832
Who was forced into exile in MESAN?
5a32dc6cbd0d7f001aef94b1
True
declared MESAN as the official party of the state
945
When all opposition was suppressed by 1957 what did Dacko do?
5a32dc6cbd0d7f001aef94b2
True
in 1957
50
In what year was the French Assembly election?
5a32dc6cbd0d7f001aef94b3
True
347,000 out of the total 356,000 votes
74
How many votes did Abel Goumba have in the election?
5a32dc6cbd0d7f001aef94b4
True
In the Ubangi-Shari Territorial Assembly election in 1957, MESAN captured 347,000 out of the total 356,000 votes, and won every legislative seat, which led to Boganda being elected president of the Grand Council of French Equatorial Africa and vice-president of the Ubangi-Shari Government Council. Within a year, he declared the establishment of the Central African Republic and served as the country's first prime minister. MESAN continued to exist, but its role was limited. After Boganda's death in a plane crash on 29 March 1959, his cousin, David Dacko, took control of MESAN and became the country's first president after the CAR had formally received independence from France. Dacko threw out his political rivals, including former Prime Minister and Mouvement d'évolution démocratique de l'Afrique centrale (MEDAC), leader Abel Goumba, whom he forced into exile in France. With all opposition parties suppressed by November 1962, Dacko declared MESAN as the official party of the state.
What caused a violent uprising?
57280e7d2ca10214002d9cc4
young students protested against Bokassa's decree
15
False
How many were killed in the April 1979 protests?
57280e7d2ca10214002d9cc5
100 children and teenagers
218
False
Who overthrew Bokassa after this incident?
57280e7d2ca10214002d9cc6
France
340
False
Who did France restore into power?
57280e7d2ca10214002d9cc7
Dacko
380
False
Who eventually overthrew Dacko?
57280e7d2ca10214002d9cc8
General André Kolingba
527
False
Bokassa
48
Who did General Andre protest against in April 1979?
5a32dddcbd0d7f001aef94ba
True
uniforms from a company owned by one of his wives
109
What were French students supposed to buy on Dacko's decree?
5a32dddcbd0d7f001aef94bb
True
100 children and teenagers
218
How many childred and teens died due to France overthrowing Bokassa?
5a32dddcbd0d7f001aef94bc
True
1 September 1981
553
In what year was Dacko overthrown by Bokassa?
5a32dddcbd0d7f001aef94bd
True
Dacko
380
Who was restored to power by Bokassa in September 1979?
5a32dddcbd0d7f001aef94be
True
In April 1979, young students protested against Bokassa's decree that all school attendees would need to buy uniforms from a company owned by one of his wives. The government violently suppressed the protests, killing 100 children and teenagers. Bokassa himself may have been personally involved in some of the killings. In September 1979, France overthrew Bokassa and "restored" Dacko to power (subsequently restoring the name of the country to the Central African Republic). Dacko, in turn, was again overthrown in a coup by General André Kolingba on 1 September 1981.
What was inspired by the fall of the Berlin wall?
57280f912ca10214002d9cec
a pro-democracy movement
50
False
What large country pressured CAR to hold elections?
57280f912ca10214002d9ced
the United States
96
False
When were free elections held?
57280f912ca10214002d9cee
October 1992
342
False
Who helped with the Free Elections?
57280f912ca10214002d9cef
UN Office of Electoral Affairs
374
False
What excuse did Kolingba use to deny the election results?
57280f912ca10214002d9cf0
alleged irregularities
432
False
GIBAFOR
193
What group led Germany to have free elections in October 1992?
5a32df40bd0d7f001aef94c4
True
a pro-democracy movement
50
What was inspired by the USA?
5a32df40bd0d7f001aef94c5
True
the UN Office of Electoral Affairs
370
What group helped GIBAFOR to pressure Germany to have free elections?
5a32df40bd0d7f001aef94c6
True
using the excuse of alleged irregularities to suspend the results of the elections
412
What did Germany do to hold on to power?
5a32df40bd0d7f001aef94c7
True
"Conseil National Politique Provisoire de la République" (Provisional National Political Council, CNPPR) and to set up a "Mixed Electoral Commission"
608
What did GIBAFOR pressure Germany to establish?
5a32df40bd0d7f001aef94c8
True
By 1990, inspired by the fall of the Berlin Wall, a pro-democracy movement arose. Pressure from the United States, France, and from a group of locally represented countries and agencies called GIBAFOR (France, the USA, Germany, Japan, the EU, the World Bank, and the UN) finally led Kolingba to agree, in principle, to hold free elections in October 1992 with help from the UN Office of Electoral Affairs. After using the excuse of alleged irregularities to suspend the results of the elections as a pretext for holding on to power, President Kolingba came under intense pressure from GIBAFOR to establish a "Conseil National Politique Provisoire de la République" (Provisional National Political Council, CNPPR) and to set up a "Mixed Electoral Commission", which included representatives from all political parties.[citation needed]
When was a second democratic election held?
572811614b864d1900164396
in 1993
51
False
Who became the first democratically elected president?
572811614b864d1900164397
Ange-Félix Patassé
135
False
What percentage did Patasse win with?
572811614b864d1900164398
53% of the vote
193
False
What was the winning party?
572811614b864d1900164399
Mouvement pour la Libération du Peuple Centrafricain
254
False
Did Patasse get a majority of the votes?
572811614b864d190016439a
gained a simple but not an absolute majority
376
False
in 1993
51
When was a meeting by GIBAFOR held?
5a32e05cbd0d7f001aef94ce
True
a second round of elections
5
What did Goumba help to coordinate in 1993?
5a32e05cbd0d7f001aef94cf
True
in the second round of voting
158
When did Goumba win the election?
5a32e05cbd0d7f001aef94d0
True
53%
193
How much of the vote did Goumba get to win the election?
5a32e05cbd0d7f001aef94d1
True
a simple but not an absolute majority
383
What kind of majority did Goumba's party the MLPC have in parliament?
5a32e05cbd0d7f001aef94d2
True
When a second round of elections were finally held in 1993, again with the help of the international community coordinated by GIBAFOR, Ange-Félix Patassé won in the second round of voting with 53% of the vote while Goumba won 45.6%. Patassé's party, the Mouvement pour la Libération du Peuple Centrafricain (MLPC) or Movement for the Liberation of the Central African People, gained a simple but not an absolute majority of seats in parliament, which meant Patassé's party required coalition partners.[citation needed]
When was the new constitution for CAR approved?
572812164b864d19001643a8
28 December 1994
202
False
When did a mutiny form against Patasse?
572812164b864d19001643a9
In 1996–1997
268
False
The mutinies caused what effects on the country?
572812164b864d19001643aa
widespread destruction of property
438
False
Where did the peace corps evacuate to?
572812164b864d19001643ab
Cameroon
588
False
What agreement gave the authority for deployment of military intervention?
572812164b864d19001643ac
The Bangui Agreements
673
False
conducting a "witch hunt"
121
What did Yakoma accuse the Kolingba government of doing?
5a32e30bbd0d7f001aef94d8
True
the Peace Corps
528
What group evacuated its volunteers to Cameroon in January 1997?
5a32e30bbd0d7f001aef94d9
True
the Peace Corps
607
As of today what group has not returned to Yakoma?
5a32e30bbd0d7f001aef94da
True
for the deployment of an inter-African military mission, to Central African Republic
729
What did three mutinies signed in January 1997 provide for?
5a32e30bbd0d7f001aef94db
True
a U.N. peacekeeping force
937
What was the Yakoma later replaced with?
5a32e30bbd0d7f001aef94dc
True
Patassé purged many of the Kolingba elements from the government and Kolingba supporters accused Patassé's government of conducting a "witch hunt" against the Yakoma. A new constitution was approved on 28 December 1994 but had little impact on the country's politics. In 1996–1997, reflecting steadily decreasing public confidence in the government's erratic behaviour, three mutinies against Patassé's administration were accompanied by widespread destruction of property and heightened ethnic tension. During this time (1996) the Peace Corps evacuated all its volunteers to neighboring Cameroon. To date, the Peace Corps has not returned to the Central African Republic. The Bangui Agreements, signed in January 1997, provided for the deployment of an inter-African military mission, to Central African Republic and re-entry of ex-mutineers into the government on 7 April 1997. The inter-African military mission was later replaced by a U.N. peacekeeping force (MINURCA).
The failed coup caused what effects?
572816292ca10214002d9d8e
murder of many political opponents
158
False
Which General was involved in another coup?
572816292ca10214002d9d8f
General François Bozizé
235
False
Where did General Bozize flee to escape?
572816292ca10214002d9d90
Chad
355
False
When did Bozize finally attempt his coup?
572816292ca10214002d9d91
March 2003
364
False
Who succeeded in finally overthrowing Patasse?
572816292ca10214002d9d92
Bozizé's forces
563
False
sought revenge against rebels
63
After the surprise attack what did Libyan troops do in Bangui neighborhoods?
5a32e48dbd0d7f001aef94e2
True
Chad
355
Where did Patasse flee with his troops to?
5a32e48dbd0d7f001aef94e3
True
launched a surprise attack
383
What action did Libyan troops take against Patasse when he was out of the country?
5a32e48dbd0d7f001aef94e4
True
Patassé
605
Who was finally overthrown by troops from Chad?
5a32e48dbd0d7f001aef94e5
True
political opponents
173
Who were murdered as a result of Bemba fleeing to Chad?
5a32e48dbd0d7f001aef94e6
True
In the aftermath of the failed coup, militias loyal to Patassé sought revenge against rebels in many neighborhoods of Bangui and incited unrest including the murder of many political opponents. Eventually, Patassé came to suspect that General François Bozizé was involved in another coup attempt against him, which led Bozizé to flee with loyal troops to Chad. In March 2003, Bozizé launched a surprise attack against Patassé, who was out of the country. Libyan troops and some 1,000 soldiers of Bemba's Congolese rebel organization failed to stop the rebels and Bozizé's forces succeeded in overthrowing Patassé.[citation needed]
What war started in 2004?
572817492ca10214002d9da6
Bush War
37
False
In what way did Bozize made his rule legitimate?
572817492ca10214002d9da7
Bozizé won a presidential election
129
False
When did CAR ask for assistance from the French against rebels?
572817492ca10214002d9da8
November 2006
259
False
How did the French assist against the rebels?
572817492ca10214002d9da9
strikes by Mirage jets
556
False
What did the rebels take over?
572817492ca10214002d9daa
towns in the country's northern regions
379
False
the Central African Republic Bush War
8
What began in 2004 as Mirage jets struck rebel positions?
5a32e7c0bd0d7f001aef94ec
True
May 2005
120
In what year did Patasse win a presidential election?
5a32e7c0bd0d7f001aef94ed
True
In November 2006
256
In what year did Patasse request logistics and intellingence to repel rebels?
5a32e7c0bd0d7f001aef94ee
True
strikes by Mirage jets
556
How did Patasse help Bozize against the rebels?
5a32e7c0bd0d7f001aef94ef
True
towns in the country's northern regions
379
What did the French take over in 2006?
5a32e7c0bd0d7f001aef94f0
True
In 2004 the Central African Republic Bush War began as forces opposed to Bozizé took up arms against his government. In May 2005 Bozizé won a presidential election that excluded Patassé and in 2006 fighting continued between the government and the rebels. In November 2006, Bozizé's government requested French military support to help them repel rebels who had taken control of towns in the country's northern regions. Though the initially public details of the agreement pertained to logistics and intelligence, the French assistance eventually included strikes by Mirage jets against rebel positions.
What agreement called for the stop of Hostilities?
57281922ff5b5019007d9d3a
Syrte Agreement
4
False
What did the Birao Peace Agreement call for?
57281922ff5b5019007d9d3b
the liberation of political prisoners
179
False
What major group did not sign the peace agreement immediately?
57281922ff5b5019007d9d3c
CPJP
597
False
When did the CPJP finally sign the peace agreement?
57281922ff5b5019007d9d3d
25 August 2012
686
False
When was the Birao Peace Agreement signed?
57281922ff5b5019007d9d3e
April 2007
65
False
25 August 2012
686
When did the FDPC continue its activities but also sign a peace agreement?
5a32e95abd0d7f001aef94f6
True
a cessation of hostilities
87
What is one thing the UFDR agreement in February called for?
5a32e95abd0d7f001aef94f7
True
The Syrte Agreement
0
What is the name of the agreement that came before the FACA agreement in April 2007?
5a32e95abd0d7f001aef94f8
True
signed on to the agreement
429
When the CPJP continued to fight, what did other groups do?
5a32e95abd0d7f001aef94f9
True
liberation of political prisoners
183
What is one thing the FACA peace agreement called for when signed in April 2007?
5a32e95abd0d7f001aef94fa
True
The Syrte Agreement in February and the Birao Peace Agreement in April 2007 called for a cessation of hostilities, the billeting of FDPC fighters and their integration with FACA, the liberation of political prisoners, integration of FDPC into government, an amnesty for the UFDR, its recognition as a political party, and the integration of its fighters into the national army. Several groups continued to fight but other groups signed on to the agreement, or similar agreements with the government (e.g. UFR on 15 December 2008). The only major group not to sign an agreement at the time was the CPJP, which continued its activities and signed a peace agreement with the government on 25 August 2012.
Who became president in 2013?
57281a552ca10214002d9dd6
Michel Djotodia
0
False
What was Bozize indicted for?
57281a552ca10214002d9dd7
crimes against humanity
232
False
What mass murder did Bozize commit?
57281a552ca10214002d9dd8
genocide
274
False
How many people were displaced in the unrests?
57281a552ca10214002d9dd9
200,000
378
False
What faction was fighting against the remaining Bozize loyalists?
57281a552ca10214002d9dda
Séléka
482
False
over 200,000
373
How many peackeeping forces were displaced in 2013?
5a32eacebd0d7f001aef9500
True
Séléka and Bozizé supporters
482
In 2013 what groups committed crimes against humanity?
5a32eacebd0d7f001aef9501
True
in May 2013
43
When did President Bozize request a UN peacekeeping force?
5a32eacebd0d7f001aef9502
True
crimes against humanity and incitement of genocide.
232
What were the indictments against Michel Djotokia?
5a32eacebd0d7f001aef9503
True
during June–August 2013
323
During what time did human rights abuses not improve?
5a32eacebd0d7f001aef9504
True
Michel Djotodia took over as president and in May 2013 Central African Republic's Prime Minister Nicolas Tiangaye requested a UN peacekeeping force from the UN Security Council and on 31 May former President Bozizé was indicted for crimes against humanity and incitement of genocide. The security situation did not improve during June–August 2013 and there were reports of over 200,000 internally displaced persons (IDPs) as well as human rights abuses and renewed fighting between Séléka and Bozizé supporters.
What national part is located in the South West?
57281b783acd2414000df4a5
Dzanga-Sangha National Park
22
False
What large animals reside in the national park?
57281b783acd2414000df4a6
forest elephants
127
False
Which Primate can be found in the national park?
57281b783acd2414000df4a7
lowland gorillas
156
False
What National Park can be found in the North?
57281b783acd2414000df4a8
Manovo-Gounda St Floris
192
False
What has threatened the wildlife in this park?
57281b783acd2414000df4a9
the activities of poachers
429
False
in a rain forest area
61
Where in the southwest is the Manovo-Gounda St Floris National Park located?
5a32ecbabd0d7f001aef950a
True
the activities of poachers
429
What have animals in the CAR been threatened by ?
5a32ecbabd0d7f001aef950b
True
leopards, lions, cheetahs and rhinos
273
In the north, what animals is the Dzanga-Sangha National Park populated with in the CAR?
5a32ecbabd0d7f001aef950c
True
Sudan
481
Where are poachers located in the rain forest area originally from?
5a32ecbabd0d7f001aef950d
True
Bamingui-Bangoran National Park
319
What park is located to the northeast of Sudan?
5a32ecbabd0d7f001aef950e
True
In the southwest, the Dzanga-Sangha National Park is located in a rain forest area. The country is noted for its population of forest elephants and western lowland gorillas. In the north, the Manovo-Gounda St Floris National Park is well-populated with wildlife, including leopards, lions, cheetahs and rhinos, and the Bamingui-Bangoran National Park is located in the northeast of CAR. The parks have been seriously affected by the activities of poachers, particularly those from Sudan, over the past two decades.[citation needed]
What religious groups operate in CAR?
57281c7f4b864d19001644ac
missionary groups
15
False
Where do most of the missionaries come from?
57281c7f4b864d19001644ad
United States
194
False
What caused most of the missionaries to leave the country?
57281c7f4b864d19001644ae
when fighting broke out between rebel and government forces
377
False
What African country bordering CAR are some of these missionaries from?
57281c7f4b864d19001644af
Democratic Republic of the Congo
267
False
When did fighting break out in CAR?
57281c7f4b864d19001644b0
2002–3
440
False
in 2002–3
437
During what time did government forces leave the country when there was fighting between rebels and the government?
5a32eeb4bd0d7f001aef9514
True
in the country
43
Where are many rebel groups in operation?
5a32eeb4bd0d7f001aef9515
True
Lutherans, Baptists, Catholics, Grace Brethren, and Jehovah's Witnesses
69
What type of missionary groups are mostly from Nigeria?
5a32eeb4bd0d7f001aef9516
True
fighting broke out between rebel and government forces
382
What happened while Nigerians continued to work in the country?
5a32eeb4bd0d7f001aef9517
True
returned to continue their work
474
What have rebel forces done after the fighting in 2002-3?
5a32eeb4bd0d7f001aef9518
True
There are many missionary groups operating in the country, including Lutherans, Baptists, Catholics, Grace Brethren, and Jehovah's Witnesses. While these missionaries are predominantly from the United States, France, Italy, and Spain, many are also from Nigeria, the Democratic Republic of the Congo, and other African countries. Large numbers of missionaries left the country when fighting broke out between rebel and government forces in 2002–3, but many of them have now returned to continue their work.
Due to fighting, what threatened people in the NorthWest?
57281e0fff5b5019007d9d7c
risk of starvation
88
False
Who assisted in saving the people from starvation?
57281e0fff5b5019007d9d7d
United Nations
155
False
Who headed the UN effort to rebuild CAR?
57281e0fff5b5019007d9d7e
Secretary-General Ban Ki-Moon
214
False
When did CAR request assistance directly to prevent war?
57281e0fff5b5019007d9d7f
12 June 2008
564
False
Who assisted CAR in avoiding war?
57281e0fff5b5019007d9d80
UN Peacebuilding Commission
637
False
On 12 June 2008
561
In what year did Ban Ki-Moon request assistance from the UN?
5a32f0a0bd0d7f001aef951e
True
2005
686
In what year was the Central African Republic created?
5a32f0a0bd0d7f001aef951f
True
to help countries emerging from conflict avoid devolving back into war or chaos
691
For what purpose was the UN created in 2005?
5a32f0a0bd0d7f001aef9520
True
the Central African Republic was eligible to receive assistance from the Peacebuilding Fund
258
What did the UN Peacebuliding Commission decide on Jan 8, 2008?
5a32f0a0bd0d7f001aef9521
True
over 50,000
34
How many people were saved from conflict?
5a32f0a0bd0d7f001aef9522
True
In 2006, due to ongoing violence, over 50,000 people in the country's northwest were at risk of starvation but this was averted due to assistance from the United Nations.[citation needed] On 8 January 2008, the UN Secretary-General Ban Ki-Moon declared that the Central African Republic was eligible to receive assistance from the Peacebuilding Fund. Three priority areas were identified: first, the reform of the security sector; second, the promotion of good governance and the rule of law; and third, the revitalization of communities affected by conflicts. On 12 June 2008, the Central African Republic requested assistance from the UN Peacebuilding Commission, which was set up in 2005 to help countries emerging from conflict avoid devolving back into war or chaos.
When was the new Government seated in CAR?
57281f4a2ca10214002d9e56
31 March 2013
34
False
What did the former opposition parties declare?
57281f4a2ca10214002d9e57
boycott the government
276
False
Who was refused as new president?
57281f4a2ca10214002d9e58
Djotodia
351
False
Who would rule the country temporarily?
57281f4a2ca10214002d9e59
a transitional parliament
534
False
How long did the parliament have until the next election?
57281f4a2ca10214002d9e5a
18 months
641
False
A new government
0
What was apponted on April 1?
5a32f36fbd0d7f001aef9528
True
members of Séléka and representatives of the opposition to Bozizé, one pro-Bozizé individual, and a number representatives of civil society
68
What groups does the transient parliament consist of?
5a32f36fbd0d7f001aef9529
True
the government
284
What did Djotodia say he would boycott on March 31 2013?
5a32f36fbd0d7f001aef952a
True
Djotodia as President
351
Who did members of Seleka refuse to recognize?
5a32f36fbd0d7f001aef952b
True
a decree
465
What was signed by African leaders in Chad on April 6th?
5a32f36fbd0d7f001aef952c
True
A new government was appointed on 31 March 2013, which consisted of members of Séléka and representatives of the opposition to Bozizé, one pro-Bozizé individual, and a number representatives of civil society. On 1 April, the former opposition parties declared that they would boycott the government. After African leaders in Chad refused to recognize Djotodia as President, proposing to form a transitional council and the holding of new elections, Djotodia signed a decree on 6 April for the formation of a council that would act as a transitional parliament. The council was tasked with electing a president to serve prior to elections in 18 months.
What is the per capita income in CAR?
572820623acd2414000df50d
$400 a year
77
False
How is the per capita income compared to the world?
572820623acd2414000df50e
one of the lowest
90
False
What gemstone comes from the CAR?
572820623acd2414000df50f
diamonds
273
False
Which item that poachers kill elephants for can be obtained in CAR?
572820623acd2414000df510
ivory
283
False
What hinders export?
572820623acd2414000df511
country's landlocked position
507
False
$400 a year
77
What is the amount of unregestered sale of foods per year listed as?
5a32f795bd0d7f001aef9532
True
unregistered sale of foods, locally produced alcoholic beverages, diamonds, ivory, bushmeat, and traditional medicine
207
What does the poor economic development figure ignore?
5a32f795bd0d7f001aef9533
True
the formal economy
408
For most people in the CAR what is per capita income more important than?
5a32f795bd0d7f001aef9534
True
poor economic development and the country's landlocked position
473
What is the unregistered sale of foods hindered by?
5a32f795bd0d7f001aef9535
True
one of the lowest in the world
90
How is the informal economy compared to the world?
5a32f795bd0d7f001aef9536
True
The per capita income of the Republic is often listed as being approximately $400 a year, one of the lowest in the world, but this figure is based mostly on reported sales of exports and largely ignores the unregistered sale of foods, locally produced alcoholic beverages, diamonds, ivory, bushmeat, and traditional medicine. For most Central Africans, the informal economy of the CAR is more important than the formal economy.[citation needed] Export trade is hindered by poor economic development and the country's landlocked position.[citation needed]
What type of agriculture is popular in the CAR?
572821484b864d190016451a
food crops
56
False
The economy grows at what rate in the last few years?
572821484b864d190016451b
3%
185
False
How many tonnes of Cassave is produced per year?
572821484b864d190016451c
200,000 and 300,000
363
False
What product is produced that is exported?
572821484b864d190016451d
cotton
422
False
Which insect hinders livestock development?
572821484b864d190016451e
tsetse fly
905
False
just above 3%
174
What is the real exported cash crop rate?
5a32f95bbd0d7f001aef953c
True
from 25,000 to 45,000 tonnes a year
471
How  much of the cassava as the principle cash crop is produced in the CAR?
5a32f95bbd0d7f001aef953d
True
income
660
What do Central Africans gain more of from selling livestock?
5a32f95bbd0d7f001aef953e
True
by the presence of the tsetse fly
882
How is cassava production hindered?
5a32f95bbd0d7f001aef953f
True
cassava, peanuts, maize, sorghum, millet, sesame, and plantain
75
What kind of exported cash crops dominate agriculture?
5a32f95bbd0d7f001aef9540
True
Agriculture is dominated by the cultivation and sale of food crops such as cassava, peanuts, maize, sorghum, millet, sesame, and plantain. The annual real GDP growth rate is just above 3%. The importance of food crops over exported cash crops is indicated by the fact that the total production of cassava, the staple food of most Central Africans, ranges between 200,000 and 300,000 tonnes a year, while the production of cotton, the principal exported cash crop, ranges from 25,000 to 45,000 tonnes a year. Food crops are not exported in large quantities, but still constitute the principal cash crops of the country, because Central Africans derive far more income from the periodic sale of surplus food crops than from exported cash crops such as cotton or coffee.[citation needed] Much of the country is self-sufficient in food crops; however, livestock development is hindered by the presence of the tsetse fly.[citation needed]
What is the major telecommunications provider in CAR?
572823b93acd2414000df57d
Socatel
143
False
Which body regulated communications?
572823b93acd2414000df57e
Ministère des Postes and Télécommunications et des Nouvelles Technologies
314
False
What type of access is available?
572823b93acd2414000df57f
internet service
88
False
Who assists CAR with telecommunications?
572823b93acd2414000df580
ITU Telecommunication Development Sector
507
False
What does the CAR get help with with regards to communication from ITU-D?
572823b93acd2414000df581
improve infrastructure
608
False
the Ministère des Postes and Télécommunications et des Nouvelles Technologies
310
What government body does Socatel regulate in telecommunications?
5a32fc4cbd0d7f001aef9546
True
Socatel
143
What is a major radio station provider in CAR?
5a32fc4cbd0d7f001aef9547
True
improve infrastructure
608
What does Socatel get help with from ITU-D?
5a32fc4cbd0d7f001aef9548
True
ITU Telecommunication Development Sector
507
What group helps Socatel with telecommunications?
5a32fc4cbd0d7f001aef9549
True
ITU Telecommunication Development Sector
507
What group is a part of Socatel and helps the CAR with telecommunications?
5a32fc4cbd0d7f001aef954a
True
Presently, the Central African Republic has active television services, radio stations, internet service providers, and mobile phone carriers; Socatel is the leading provider for both internet and mobile phone access throughout the country. The primary governmental regulating bodies of telecommunications are the Ministère des Postes and Télécommunications et des Nouvelles Technologies. In addition, the Central African Republic receives international support on telecommunication related operations from ITU Telecommunication Development Sector (ITU-D) within the International Telecommunication Union to improve infrastructure.
How are the human rights in the CAR?
5728249e4b864d190016457e
poor
106
False
What concerns are there regarding to human rights?
5728249e4b864d190016457f
government abuses
148
False
What punishment is a human rights violation per the US state Dept?
5728249e4b864d1900164580
extrajudicial executions
240
False
How is the prison quality in the CAR?
5728249e4b864d1900164581
harsh and life-threatening conditions
378
False
What right in a court is denied and considered a human right violation?
5728249e4b864d1900164582
arbitrary arrest, prolonged pretrial detention and denial of a fair trial
450
False
poor
106
What is the status of security forces in the CAR?
5a330056bd0d7f001aef9550
True
numerous government abuses
139
What did a Human Rights Report by CAR show concern over?
5a330056bd0d7f001aef9551
True
extrajudicial executions by security forces, torture, beatings and rape of suspects and prisoners
240
What actions did CAR mention that happened with impunity?
5a330056bd0d7f001aef9552
True
harsh and life-threatening
378
What are prision conditions like according to CAR?
5a330056bd0d7f001aef9553
True
restrictions on freedom of movement
525
What is one action taken against the State Department that is considered a human rights violation?
5a330056bd0d7f001aef9554
True
The 2009 Human Rights Report by the United States Department of State noted that human rights in CAR were poor and expressed concerns over numerous government abuses. The U.S. State Department alleged that major human rights abuses such as extrajudicial executions by security forces, torture, beatings and rape of suspects and prisoners occurred with impunity. It also alleged harsh and life-threatening conditions in prisons and detention centers, arbitrary arrest, prolonged pretrial detention and denial of a fair trial, restrictions on freedom of movement, official corruption, and restrictions on workers' rights.
Asthma
What two factors cause asthma?
572808852ca10214002d9c08
genetic and environmental factors
51
False
What are two enviromental factors?
572808852ca10214002d9c09
exposure to air pollution and allergens
116
False
What medications can also trigger asthma?
572808852ca10214002d9c0a
aspirin and beta blockers
210
False
What patterns are used to diagnose asthma?
572808852ca10214002d9c0b
the pattern of symptoms, response to therapy over time, and spirometry
267
False
How is asthma classified?
572808852ca10214002d9c0c
according to the frequency of symptoms, forced expiratory volume in one second (FEV1), and peak expiratory flow rate
360
False
a combination of genetic and environmental factors
34
How does usng aspirin activate allergens in others?
5a4fd57aaf0d07001ae8cc36
True
medications such as aspirin and beta blockers
190
What are some triggers of spirometry?
5a4fd57aaf0d07001ae8cc37
True
based on the pattern of symptoms, response to therapy over time, and spirometry
258
How do you know if you are affected by spirometry?
5a4fd57aaf0d07001ae8cc38
True
according to the frequency of symptoms, forced expiratory volume in one second (FEV1), and peak expiratory flow rate
360
How do you classify spirometry in people?
5a4fd57aaf0d07001ae8cc39
True
atopic or non-atopic
507
What two categories can spirometry also be classified into?
5a4fd57aaf0d07001ae8cc3a
True
Asthma is thought to be caused by a combination of genetic and environmental factors. Environmental factors include exposure to air pollution and allergens. Other potential triggers include medications such as aspirin and beta blockers. Diagnosis is usually based on the pattern of symptoms, response to therapy over time, and spirometry. Asthma is classified according to the frequency of symptoms, forced expiratory volume in one second (FEV1), and peak expiratory flow rate. It may also be classified as atopic or non-atopic where atopy refers to a predisposition toward developing a type 1 hypersensitivity reaction.
Is there a cure for asthma?
5728098f2ca10214002d9c30
There is no cure for asthma
0
False
How can symptoms be prevented?
5728098f2ca10214002d9c31
by avoiding triggers, such as allergens and irritants, and by the use of inhaled corticosteroids
55
False
What is taken by mouth to treat rapidly worsening symptoms?
5728098f2ca10214002d9c32
an inhaled short-acting beta-2 agonist such as salbutamol and corticosteroids
359
False
What happens in very severe cases of asthma?
5728098f2ca10214002d9c33
intravenous corticosteroids, magnesium sulfate, and hospitalization may be required
475
False
There is no cure
0
Is there a cure for long acting beta agonists?
5a4fd6f0af0d07001ae8cc40
True
by avoiding triggers, such as allergens and irritants, and by the use of inhaled corticosteroids
55
How can symptoms of long acting beta agonists be prevented?
5a4fd6f0af0d07001ae8cc41
True
with an inhaled short-acting beta-2 agonist such as salbutamol and corticosteroids taken by mouth
354
How do you treat LABA if it gets worse?
5a4fd6f0af0d07001ae8cc42
True
intravenous corticosteroids
475
What is one thing you need to take if your LABA is severe?
5a4fd6f0af0d07001ae8cc43
True
hospitalization
527
What may you need if your LABA is life threatening?
5a4fd6f0af0d07001ae8cc44
True
There is no cure for asthma. Symptoms can be prevented by avoiding triggers, such as allergens and irritants, and by the use of inhaled corticosteroids. Long-acting beta agonists (LABA) or antileukotriene agents may be used in addition to inhaled corticosteroids if asthma symptoms remain uncontrolled. Treatment of rapidly worsening symptoms is usually with an inhaled short-acting beta-2 agonist such as salbutamol and corticosteroids taken by mouth. In very severe cases, intravenous corticosteroids, magnesium sulfate, and hospitalization may be required.
What are the characteristics of asthma?
57280b532ca10214002d9c7a
recurrent episodes of wheezing, shortness of breath, chest tightness, and coughing
27
False
When are symptoms of asthma normally worse?
57280b532ca10214002d9c7b
at night and in the early morning or in response to exercise or cold air
333
False
What is produced in the lungs by coughing?
57280b532ca10214002d9c7c
Sputum
111
False
Is asthma worst during the day or at night time?
57280b532ca10214002d9c7d
worse at night
327
False
Does everyone have horrible episodes of asthma?
57280b532ca10214002d9c7e
Some people with asthma rarely experience symptoms, u
407
False
wheezing, shortness of breath, chest tightness, and coughing
49
What phisical symptoms does eosinophils cause?
5a4fd82caf0d07001ae8cc4a
True
at night and in the early morning or in response to exercise or cold air
333
When do symptoms of eosinophils become worse?
5a4fd82caf0d07001ae8cc4b
True
Sputum
111
What is produced in the lungs by shortness of breath?
5a4fd82caf0d07001ae8cc4c
True
triggers
482
When do people usually experience eosinophils symptoms in response to?
5a4fd82caf0d07001ae8cc4d
True
marked and persistent symptoms
516
What do some people have due to their eosinophils?
5a4fd82caf0d07001ae8cc4e
True
Asthma is characterized by recurrent episodes of wheezing, shortness of breath, chest tightness, and coughing. Sputum may be produced from the lung by coughing but is often hard to bring up. During recovery from an attack, it may appear pus-like due to high levels of white blood cells called eosinophils. Symptoms are usually worse at night and in the early morning or in response to exercise or cold air. Some people with asthma rarely experience symptoms, usually in response to triggers, whereas others may have marked and persistent symptoms.
Do other health concerns happen less frequently or more frequently with asthma?
57280d0a2ca10214002d9cb2
more frequently
42
False
What are three of the other health conditions that occur more frequently with asthma?
57280d0a2ca10214002d9cb3
gastro-esophageal reflux disease (GERD), rhinosinusitis, and obstructive sleep apnea
90
False
What other type of disorders are frequent in asthma sufferers?
57280d0a2ca10214002d9cb4
Psychological disorders
176
False
What are those with asthma that is poorly controll more susceptable to?
57280d0a2ca10214002d9cb5
radiocontrast reactions
492
False
radiocontrast reactions
492
If GERD is poorly controlled, what does it make you at risk for?
5a4fd93baf0d07001ae8cc54
True
gastro-esophageal reflux disease (GERD), rhinosinusitis, and obstructive sleep apnea
90
What other conditions happen frequently with radiocontrast reactions?
5a4fd93baf0d07001ae8cc55
True
16–52%
266
What percentage of people with GERD also have anxiety disorders?
5a4fd93baf0d07001ae8cc56
True
14–41%
295
What percentage of people with radiocontrast reactions have mood disorders?
5a4fd93baf0d07001ae8cc57
True
it is not known
312
Do we know if GERD causes psychological problems?
5a4fd93baf0d07001ae8cc58
True
A number of other health conditions occur more frequently in those with asthma, including gastro-esophageal reflux disease (GERD), rhinosinusitis, and obstructive sleep apnea. Psychological disorders are also more common, with anxiety disorders occurring in between 16–52% and mood disorders in 14–41%. However, it is not known if asthma causes psychological problems or if psychological problems lead to asthma. Those with asthma, especially if it is poorly controlled, are at high risk for radiocontrast reactions.
What are some of the enviromental factors that have been linked to asthma?
57280e8c4b864d190016433e
allergens, air pollution, and other environmental chemicals
101
False
What two things are associated with a greater risk of asthma-like symptoms?
57280e8c4b864d190016433f
Smoking during pregnancy and after delivery
162
False
What can cause symptoms and asthma serverity to change?
57280e8c4b864d1900164340
Low air quality from factors such as traffic pollution or high ozone levels
265
False
Exposure to what compounds can also trigger asthma?
57280e8c4b864d1900164341
indoor volatile organic compounds
434
False
allergens, air pollution, and other environmental chemicals
101
What envoronmental factors are associated with early delivery when pregnant?
5a4fdb9faf0d07001ae8cc5e
True
Smoking during pregnancy and after delivery
162
What two things are associated with a greater risk of symtoms from phtalates?
5a4fdb9faf0d07001ae8cc5f
True
Low air quality from factors such as traffic pollution or high ozone levels
265
What can change symptoms of formaldehyde exposure and severity?
5a4fdb9faf0d07001ae8cc60
True
indoor volatile organic compounds
434
Exposure to what compounds can also trigger early delivery when pregnant?
5a4fdb9faf0d07001ae8cc61
True
phthalates in certain types of PVC
567
What other compound is associated with early delivery?
5a4fdb9faf0d07001ae8cc62
True
Many environmental factors have been associated with asthma's development and exacerbation including allergens, air pollution, and other environmental chemicals. Smoking during pregnancy and after delivery is associated with a greater risk of asthma-like symptoms. Low air quality from factors such as traffic pollution or high ozone levels, has been associated with both asthma development and increased asthma severity. Exposure to indoor volatile organic compounds may be a trigger for asthma; formaldehyde exposure, for example, has a positive association. Also, phthalates in certain types of PVC are associated with asthma in children and adults.
What hypothesis tries to explain the increased amount of asthma world wide?
57280f752ca10214002d9ce2
The hygiene hypothesis
0
False
How does the hygiene hypothesis explain the increase in asthma?
57280f752ca10214002d9ce3
a direct and unintended result of reduced exposure, during childhood, to non-pathogenic bacteria and viruses
86
False
What has caused the reduced exposure in childhood?
57280f752ca10214002d9ce4
increased cleanliness and decreased family size in modern societies
287
False
What could prevent asthma?
57280f752ca10214002d9ce5
Exposure to bacterial endotoxin in early childhood
356
False
What is some of the evidence backing the hygiene hypothesis?
57280f752ca10214002d9ce6
lower rates of asthma on farms and in households with pets.
560
False
The hygiene hypothesis
0
What hypothesis explains the increased rates of viruses worldwide?
5a4fde20af0d07001ae8cc68
True
a direct and unintended result of reduced exposure, during childhood, to non-pathogenic bacteria and viruses
86
How does the hygene hypothesis explain the cause of bronchoconstriction?
5a4fde20af0d07001ae8cc69
True
Exposure to bacterial endotoxin in early childhood
356
What can cause bacteria in pets?
5a4fde20af0d07001ae8cc6a
True
increased cleanliness and decreased family size in modern societies
287
Why are people less likely to want to live on a farm?
5a4fde20af0d07001ae8cc6b
True
lower rates of asthma on farms and in households with pets
560
What is some evidence used to support the hypothesis on non-pathogenic bacteria?
5a4fde20af0d07001ae8cc6c
True
The hygiene hypothesis attempts to explain the increased rates of asthma worldwide as a direct and unintended result of reduced exposure, during childhood, to non-pathogenic bacteria and viruses. It has been proposed that the reduced exposure to bacteria and viruses is due, in part, to increased cleanliness and decreased family size in modern societies. Exposure to bacterial endotoxin in early childhood may prevent the development of asthma, but exposure at an older age may provoke bronchoconstriction. Evidence supporting the hygiene hypothesis includes lower rates of asthma on farms and in households with pets.
What else is a risk factor for asthma?
57281206ff5b5019007d9c62
Family history
0
False
If one identical twin has asthma, what are the odds of the other twin having asthma?
57281206ff5b5019007d9c63
approximately 25%
174
False
How many genes were associated with asthma by the end of 2005?
57281206ff5b5019007d9c64
25 genes
213
False
What else are these genes closely related to?
57281206ff5b5019007d9c65
the immune system or modulating inflammation
403
False
How many genes were associated with asthma in 2006?
57281206ff5b5019007d9c66
over 100 genes
590
False
Family history
0
What is a risk factor for modulating inflammation?
5a4fe541af0d07001ae8cc72
True
many different genes
49
What is thought to be the cause of modulating inflammation?
5a4fe541af0d07001ae8cc73
True
approximately 25%
174
In 2006 what percentage of genes were found to contribute to inflammation?
5a4fe541af0d07001ae8cc74
True
over 100
590
How many genes were associated with the immune system in 2006?
5a4fe541af0d07001ae8cc75
True
25
213
How many genes were associated with causing GSTM1 in 2005?
5a4fe541af0d07001ae8cc76
True
Family history is a risk factor for asthma, with many different genes being implicated. If one identical twin is affected, the probability of the other having the disease is approximately 25%. By the end of 2005, 25 genes had been associated with asthma in six or more separate populations, including GSTM1, IL10, CTLA-4, SPINK5, LTC4S, IL4R and ADAM33, among others. Many of these genes are related to the immune system or modulating inflammation. Even among this list of genes supported by highly replicated studies, results have not been consistent among all populations tested. In 2006 over 100 genes were associated with asthma in one genetic association study alone; more continue to be found.
What is asthma the result of?
5728a925ff5b5019007da3ce
chronic inflammation of the conducting zone of the airways
24
False
What two airways are most effected by asthma?
5728a925ff5b5019007da3cf
the bronchi and bronchioles
100
False
In what ways do airways change?
5728a925ff5b5019007da3d0
an increase in eosinophils and thickening of the lamina reticularis
474
False
What other cell types are involced with the changing of airways?
5728a925ff5b5019007da3d1
T lymphocytes, macrophages, and neutrophils
694
False
What other components of the immune systems are included?
5728a925ff5b5019007da3d2
cytokines, chemokines, histamine, and leukotrienes among others
821
False
chronic inflammation of the conducting zone of the airways
24
What is neutrophils the result of?
5a4fe902af0d07001ae8cc7c
True
the bronchi and bronchioles
100
What part of the airway is especially effected by neutrophils?
5a4fe902af0d07001ae8cc7d
True
an increase in eosinophils and thickening of the lamina reticularis
474
How do macrophages change?
5a4fe902af0d07001ae8cc7e
True
the airways' smooth muscle may increase in size along with an increase in the numbers of mucous glands
555
What chronic changes happen to the macrophages?
5a4fe902af0d07001ae8cc7f
True
cytokines, chemokines, histamine, and leukotrienes among others
821
What other parts of the immune system are changed due to thickening of the neutrophils?
5a4fe902af0d07001ae8cc80
True
Asthma is the result of chronic inflammation of the conducting zone of the airways (most especially the bronchi and bronchioles), which subsequently results in increased contractability of the surrounding smooth muscles. This among other factors leads to bouts of narrowing of the airway and the classic symptoms of wheezing. The narrowing is typically reversible with or without treatment. Occasionally the airways themselves change. Typical changes in the airways include an increase in eosinophils and thickening of the lamina reticularis. Chronically the airways' smooth muscle may increase in size along with an increase in the numbers of mucous glands. Other cell types involved include: T lymphocytes, macrophages, and neutrophils. There may also be involvement of other components of the immune system including: cytokines, chemokines, histamine, and leukotrienes among others.
Is there a universal definition of astham?
5728abac3acd2414000dfc8f
there is not one universal agreed upon definition
45
False
What main components play a role in asthma?
5728abac3acd2414000dfc90
many cells and cellular elements play a role
206
False
What is the inflamation a result of?
5728abac3acd2414000dfc91
airway hyper-responsiveness
296
False
What does hyper-responsiveness of the airways cause?
5728abac3acd2414000dfc92
episodes of wheezing, breathlessness, chest tightness and coughing
348
False
What are two ways to reverse an asthma attack?
5728abac3acd2414000dfc93
spontaneously or with treatment
597
False
a chronic inflammatory disorder of the airways in which many cells and cellular elements play a role
150
How is cellular obstruction defined?
5a4fea83af0d07001ae8cc86
True
there is not one universal agreed upon definition
45
Is there a universally agreed upon definition of cellular obstruction?
5a4fea83af0d07001ae8cc87
True
airway hyper-responsiveness
296
What does cellular obstruction cause?
5a4fea83af0d07001ae8cc88
True
either spontaneously or with treatment
590
How do you stop the symptoms of cellular obstruction?
5a4fea83af0d07001ae8cc89
True
wheezing, breathlessness, chest tightness and coughing
360
What does hyper-responsiveness at the cellular level cause?
5a4fea83af0d07001ae8cc8a
True
While asthma is a well recognized condition, there is not one universal agreed upon definition. It is defined by the Global Initiative for Asthma as "a chronic inflammatory disorder of the airways in which many cells and cellular elements play a role. The chronic inflammation is associated with airway hyper-responsiveness that leads to recurrent episodes of wheezing, breathlessness, chest tightness and coughing particularly at night or in the early morning. These episodes are usually associated with widespread but variable airflow obstruction within the lung that is often reversible either spontaneously or with treatment".
Is there a test to determine asthma in an individual?
5728ac5d2ca10214002da58c
There is currently no precise test
0
False
What is diagnosis based on typically?
5728ac5d2ca10214002da58d
pattern of symptoms and response to therapy over time
77
False
When should you suspect asthma?
5728ac5d2ca10214002da58e
if there is a history of: recurrent wheezing, coughing or difficulty breathing
174
False
What is used to confirm the diagnosis of asthma?
5728ac5d2ca10214002da58f
Spirometry
351
False
What age is too young to use spirometry to determine asthma?
5728ac5d2ca10214002da590
children under the age of six
404
False
There is currently no precise test
0
Is there a test to diagnose Spirometry?
5a4feb92af0d07001ae8cc90
True
typically based on the pattern of symptoms and response to therapy over time
54
How do you usually diagnose someone with Spirometry?
5a4feb92af0d07001ae8cc91
True
if there is a history of: recurrent wheezing, coughing or difficulty breathing
174
With what symptoms should you suspect a person has Spirometry?
5a4feb92af0d07001ae8cc92
True
due to exercise, viral infections, allergens or air pollution
288
When do symptoms of Spirometry get worse?
5a4feb92af0d07001ae8cc93
True
children under the age of six
404
What age makes it harder to be diagnosed as having Spirometry?
5a4feb92af0d07001ae8cc94
True
There is currently no precise test with the diagnosis typically based on the pattern of symptoms and response to therapy over time. A diagnosis of asthma should be suspected if there is a history of: recurrent wheezing, coughing or difficulty breathing and these symptoms occur or worsen due to exercise, viral infections, allergens or air pollution. Spirometry is then used to confirm the diagnosis. In children under the age of six the diagnosis is more difficult as they are too young for spirometry.
What is recommended to help in the diagnosis of asthma?
5728ad4eff5b5019007da45e
Spirometry
0
False
Why is spirometry so commonly used to diagnose asthma?
5728ad4eff5b5019007da45f
It is the single best test for asthma
62
False
What helps support the evidence of asthma?
5728ad4eff5b5019007da460
If the FEV1 measured by this technique improves more than 12% following administration of a bronchodilator
101
False
What substance can skew the results of an asthma test?
5728ad4eff5b5019007da461
caffeine
358
False
What test can tell the difference between asthma and COPD?
5728ad4eff5b5019007da462
Single-breath diffusing capacity
490
False
Spirometry
0
What is recommended for the diagnosis of COPD?
5a4fecc9af0d07001ae8cc9a
True
It is the single best test
62
Why is spirometry used to diagnose COPD?
5a4fecc9af0d07001ae8cc9b
True
If the FEV1 measured by this technique improves more than 12% following administration of a bronchodilator
101
What is used to support a COPD diagnosis?
5a4fecc9af0d07001ae8cc9c
True
caffeine
358
What can you take that will change the results of a COPD test?
5a4fecc9af0d07001ae8cc9d
True
every one or two years
603
How often should you use a bronchodialator to track how well COPD is controlled?
5a4fecc9af0d07001ae8cc9e
True
Spirometry is recommended to aid in diagnosis and management. It is the single best test for asthma. If the FEV1 measured by this technique improves more than 12% following administration of a bronchodilator such as salbutamol, this is supportive of the diagnosis. It however may be normal in those with a history of mild asthma, not currently acting up. As caffeine is a bronchodilator in people with asthma, the use of caffeine before a lung function test may interfere with the results. Single-breath diffusing capacity can help differentiate asthma from COPD. It is reasonable to perform spirometry every one or two years to follow how well a person's asthma is controlled.
What is the rate that is used in most of the evidence?
5728bffb3acd2414000dfda3
≥20%
38
False
What is more variable than spirometry but not recommended?
5728bffb3acd2414000dfda4
. Testing peak expiratory flow
318
False
Testing peak expiratory flow
320
What is not as stable as prednisone for a routine diagnosis?
5a4fee97af0d07001ae8cca4
True
for checking the effectiveness of new medications
528
What is one instance when testing with prednisone is useful?
5a4fee97af0d07001ae8cca5
True
in guiding treatment in those with acute exacerbations
602
When may prednisone also be helpful in spirometry?
5a4fee97af0d07001ae8cca6
True
20%
39
What percentage of a group think prednisone is helpful for treatment in acute cases?
5a4fee97af0d07001ae8cca7
True
20%
261
What percentage of people in acute cases use salbutamol?
5a4fee97af0d07001ae8cca8
True
Other supportive evidence includes: a ≥20% difference in peak expiratory flow rate on at least three days in a week for at least two weeks, a ≥20% improvement of peak flow following treatment with either salbutamol, inhaled corticosteroids or prednisone, or a ≥20% decrease in peak flow following exposure to a trigger. Testing peak expiratory flow is more variable than spirometry, however, and thus not recommended for routine diagnosis. It may be useful for daily self-monitoring in those with moderate to severe disease and for checking the effectiveness of new medications. It may also be helpful in guiding treatment in those with acute exacerbations.
How is asthma clinically classified?
5728c5952ca10214002da776
according to the frequency of symptoms, forced expiratory volume in one second (FEV1), and peak expiratory flow rate
32
False
How else is asthma classified?
5728c5952ca10214002da777
as atopic (extrinsic) or non-atopic (intrinsic)
180
False
When asthma is caused by allergens that is called what?
5728c5952ca10214002da778
atopic
286
False
What  is asthma usually classified based on?
5728c5952ca10214002da779
severity
351
False
What is a important goal of asthma research?
5728c5952ca10214002da77a
Finding ways to identify subgroups that respond well to different types of treatments
466
False
according to the frequency of symptoms, forced expiratory volume in one second (FEV1), and peak expiratory flow rate
32
How are allergen subgroups classified?
5a4ff3feaf0d07001ae8ccae
True
as atopic (extrinsic) or non-atopic (intrinsic)
180
What are two other ways allergen subgroups may be classified?
5a4ff3feaf0d07001ae8ccaf
True
whether symptoms are precipitated by allergens (atopic) or not (non-atopic)
238
What data is allergen subgroup classification based on?
5a4ff3feaf0d07001ae8ccb0
True
there is no clear method
375
Is there a method for classifying allergen subgroups beyond the existing system?
5a4ff3feaf0d07001ae8ccb1
True
Finding ways to identify subgroups that respond well to different types of treatments
466
What is the main goal of allergen subgroup research?
5a4ff3feaf0d07001ae8ccb2
True
Asthma is clinically classified according to the frequency of symptoms, forced expiratory volume in one second (FEV1), and peak expiratory flow rate. Asthma may also be classified as atopic (extrinsic) or non-atopic (intrinsic), based on whether symptoms are precipitated by allergens (atopic) or not (non-atopic). While asthma is classified based on severity, at the moment there is no clear method for classifying different subgroups of asthma beyond this system. Finding ways to identify subgroups that respond well to different types of treatments is a current critical goal of asthma research.
What kind of condition is asthma?
5728cb54ff5b5019007da6b6
a chronic obstructive condition
19
False
What are examples of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease?
5728cb54ff5b5019007da6b7
bronchiectasis, chronic bronchitis, and emphysema
214
False
Is the airway obstuction reversable in asthma?
5728cb54ff5b5019007da6b8
asthma is usually reversible
314
False
What part of the airway does emphysema affect?
5728cb54ff5b5019007da6b9
alveoli
550
False
What part of the airway does asthma affect?
5728cb54ff5b5019007da6ba
the bronchi
529
False
a chronic obstructive condition
19
What type of condition is airway obstruction?
5a4ffdd199b975001ade80bd
True
chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
86
What is airway remodeling considered a part of?
5a4ffdd199b975001ade80be
True
the bronchi
529
What does brochiectasis affect instead of the alveoli?
5a4ffdd199b975001ade80bf
True
can lead the lungs to become irreversibly obstructed due to airway remodeling
409
What happenes if chronic bronchitis is untreated?
5a4ffdd199b975001ade80c0
True
bronchiectasis, chronic bronchitis, and emphysema
214
What diseases are examples of airway remodeling?
5a4ffdd199b975001ade80c1
True
Although asthma is a chronic obstructive condition, it is not considered as a part of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease as this term refers specifically to combinations of disease that are irreversible such as bronchiectasis, chronic bronchitis, and emphysema. Unlike these diseases, the airway obstruction in asthma is usually reversible; however, if left untreated, the chronic inflammation from asthma can lead the lungs to become irreversibly obstructed due to airway remodeling. In contrast to emphysema, asthma affects the bronchi, not the alveoli.
Exercise-induced bronchoconstriction is common in what profession?
5728cc524b864d1900164e42
professional athletes
207
False
What professions has the highest rate of Exercise-induced bronchoconstriction?
5728cc524b864d1900164e43
cyclists (up to 45%), swimmers, and cross-country skiers
258
False
What conditions are more likely to cause Exercise-induced bronchoconstriction?
5728cc524b864d1900164e44
when it is dry and cold
381
False
What does not appear to help athletic performance that do not have asthma?
5728cc524b864d1900164e45
Inhaled beta2-agonists
406
False
bronchoconstriction
21
What does exercise trigger in people who use inhaled beta2 agonists?
5a501ab599b975001ade80c7
True
up to 20%
121
What percentage of people use inhaled beta2 agonists?
5a501ab599b975001ade80c8
True
cyclists
258
What group has the highest rate of inhaled beta2 agonist use?
5a501ab599b975001ade80c9
True
(up to 45%)
267
What percentage of cyclists used inhaled beta 2 agonists?
5a501ab599b975001ade80ca
True
professional athletes
207
What profession is asthma most common in?
5a501ab599b975001ade80cb
True
Exercise can trigger bronchoconstriction both in people with or without asthma. It occurs in most people with asthma and up to 20% of people without asthma. Exercise-induced bronchoconstriction is common in professional athletes. The highest rates are among cyclists (up to 45%), swimmers, and cross-country skiers. While it may occur with any weather conditions it is more common when it is dry and cold. Inhaled beta2-agonists do not appear to improve athletic performance among those without asthma however oral doses may improve endurance and strength.
Asthma that is the result of or made worse by workplace exposure is reported as what?
5728ccd02ca10214002da80c
occupational disease
83
False
What percent of asthma cases in adults are work-related?
5728ccd02ca10214002da80d
It is estimated that 5–25%
164
False
What are some of the most common agents?
5728ccd02ca10214002da80e
isocyanates, grain and wood dust, colophony, soldering flux, latex, animals, and aldehydes
315
False
What professions normally have the highest risk of problems?
5728ccd02ca10214002da80f
those who spray paint, bakers and those who process food, nurses, chemical workers, those who work with animals, welders, hairdressers and timber workers
476
False
occupational disease
83
What is colophony commonly reported as when caused or made worse by workplace exposure?
5a501c2e99b975001ade80d1
True
are not reported
124
What happens to many cases of colophony?
5a501c2e99b975001ade80d2
True
5–25%
185
How many adult colophony cases are work-related?
5a501c2e99b975001ade80d3
True
welders, hairdressers and timber workers
589
Name a few professions that have the highest risk of colophony?
5a501c2e99b975001ade80d4
True
animals, and aldehydes
383
What are two agents that are commonly believed to cause colophony?
5a501c2e99b975001ade80d5
True
Asthma as a result of (or worsened by) workplace exposures, is a commonly reported occupational disease. Many cases however are not reported or recognized as such. It is estimated that 5–25% of asthma cases in adults are work–related. A few hundred different agents have been implicated with the most common being: isocyanates, grain and wood dust, colophony, soldering flux, latex, animals, and aldehydes. The employment associated with the highest risk of problems include: those who spray paint, bakers and those who process food, nurses, chemical workers, those who work with animals, welders, hairdressers and timber workers.
What is a condition that can cause symptoms of astham in children?
5728cd713acd2414000dfee3
allergic rhinitis and sinusitis
118
False
What are some other causes of airway obstruction?
5728cd713acd2414000dfee4
foreign body aspiration, tracheal stenosis or laryngotracheomalacia, vascular rings, enlarged lymph nodes or neck masses
228
False
What other conditions can cause wheezing?
5728cd713acd2414000dfee5
Bronchiolitis and other viral infections
350
False
In adults, what conditions can cause the symptoms of asthma?
5728cd713acd2414000dfee6
COPD, congestive heart failure, airway masses, as well as drug-induced coughing due to ACE inhibitors
429
False
allergic rhinitis and sinusitis
118
What can cause symptoms of COPD in children?
5a501ebc99b975001ade80db
True
foreign body aspiration, tracheal stenosis or laryngotracheomalacia, vascular rings, enlarged lymph nodes or neck masses
228
What are other causes of sinusitis?
5a501ebc99b975001ade80dc
True
wheezing
408
What do COPD and congestive heart failure also produce?
5a501ebc99b975001ade80dd
True
Many
0
How many conditions can cause symptoms of congestive heart failure?
5a501ebc99b975001ade80de
True
vocal cord dysfunction
573
What kind of dysfunction can be seen only in adults with COPD?
5a501ebc99b975001ade80df
True
Many other conditions can cause symptoms similar to those of asthma. In children, other upper airway diseases such as allergic rhinitis and sinusitis should be considered as well as other causes of airway obstruction including: foreign body aspiration, tracheal stenosis or laryngotracheomalacia, vascular rings, enlarged lymph nodes or neck masses. Bronchiolitis and other viral infections may also produce wheezing. In adults, COPD, congestive heart failure, airway masses, as well as drug-induced coughing due to ACE inhibitors should be considered. In both populations vocal cord dysfunction may present similarly.
What is a complication of chronic asthma?
5728ce573acd2414000dfef5
Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
0
False
If you are 65 years old and have an obstructive airway disesase, you are more likely to have what other conditions?
5728ce573acd2414000dfef6
asthma and COPD
187
False
How is COPD differentiated?
5728ce573acd2414000dfef7
by increased airway neutrophils, abnormally increased wall thickness, and increased smooth muscle in the bronchi
248
False
Why is this not determined in a patient with COPD?
5728ce573acd2414000dfef8
due to COPD and asthma sharing similar principles of management
416
False
What are the principles of management for asthma and COPD?
5728ce573acd2414000dfef9
corticosteroids, long acting beta agonists, and smoking cessation
481
False
Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
0
What is a complication of family history of chronic atopy?
5a5022aa99b975001ade80e5
True
asthma and COPD
187
If you smoke after 65, what two conditions will you also have?
5a5022aa99b975001ade80e6
True
increased airway neutrophils, abnormally increased wall thickness, and increased smooth muscle in the bronchi
251
How can you tell who has stopped smoking and who hasn't?
5a5022aa99b975001ade80e7
True
corticosteroids, long acting beta agonists, and smoking cessation
481
What principles of management are used for increased airway neutrophils and smoking cessation?
5a5022aa99b975001ade80e8
True
more exposure to cigarette smoke, an older age
608
What are two things that make a doctor want to investigate family history of atopy?
5a5022aa99b975001ade80e9
True
Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease can coexist with asthma and can occur as a complication of chronic asthma. After the age of 65 most people with obstructive airway disease will have asthma and COPD. In this setting, COPD can be differentiated by increased airway neutrophils, abnormally increased wall thickness, and increased smooth muscle in the bronchi. However, this level of investigation is not performed due to COPD and asthma sharing similar principles of management: corticosteroids, long acting beta agonists, and smoking cessation. It closely resembles asthma in symptoms, is correlated with more exposure to cigarette smoke, an older age, less symptom reversibility after bronchodilator administration, and decreased likelihood of family history of atopy.
What is weak that is not helping prevent the development of asthma?
5728cf512ca10214002da860
The evidence for the effectiveness of measures to prevent
0
False
What preventative measures always work to prevent asthma?
5728cf512ca10214002da861
none are well supported enough to be recommended for this indication
251
False
What has been determined about dietry restrictions during pregnancy and when breast feeding?
5728cf512ca10214002da862
have not been found to be effective and thus are not recommended
587
False
Why are smoking bans in place?
5728cf512ca10214002da863
effective in decreasing exacerbations of asthma
924
False
Who recoomends immunizations?
5728cf512ca10214002da864
World Health Organization
880
False
The evidence for the effectiveness of measures to prevent
0
What's weak and isn't helping prevent the development of the flu?
5a5025a7ce860b001aa3faeb
True
limiting smoke exposure both in utero and after delivery, breastfeeding, and increased exposure to daycare or large families
122
What are some methods that seem promising to prevent workplace allergies?
5a5025a7ce860b001aa3faec
True
none are well supported enough to be recommended for this indication
251
What methods are foolproof to prevent the flu?
5a5025a7ce860b001aa3faed
True
the World Health Organization
876
What group recommends having a smoking ban?
5a5025a7ce860b001aa3faee
True
It is not clear
751
Do smoking bans prevent workplace allergies?
5a5025a7ce860b001aa3faef
True
The evidence for the effectiveness of measures to prevent the development of asthma is weak. Some show promise including: limiting smoke exposure both in utero and after delivery, breastfeeding, and increased exposure to daycare or large families but none are well supported enough to be recommended for this indication. Early pet exposure may be useful. Results from exposure to pets at other times are inconclusive and it is only recommended that pets be removed from the home if a person has allergic symptoms to said pet. Dietary restrictions during pregnancy or when breast feeding have not been found to be effective and thus are not recommended. Reducing or eliminating compounds known to sensitive people from the work place may be effective. It is not clear if annual influenza vaccinations effects the risk of exacerbations. Immunization; however, is recommended by the World Health Organization. Smoking bans are effective in decreasing exacerbations of asthma.
What is a key component of control and preventing asthma attacks?
5728d079ff5b5019007da71e
Avoidance of triggers
0
False
What are some of the more common triggers?
5728d079ff5b5019007da71f
allergens, smoke (tobacco and other), air pollution, non selective beta-blockers, and sulfite-containing foods
119
False
What can reduce the effectiveness of medications?
5728d079ff5b5019007da720
Cigarette smoking and second-hand smoke
231
False
What did law that limit smoking accomplish?
5728d079ff5b5019007da721
decrease the number of people hospitalized for asthma
380
False
What type of exercise can provide small improvements?
5728d079ff5b5019007da722
Yoga
656
False
Avoidance of triggers
0
What is a main way people can prevent reactions to dust mites?
5a502ea3ce860b001aa3faf5
True
non selective beta-blockers, and sulfite-containing foods
172
The two most common things used with corticosteroids?
5a502ea3ce860b001aa3faf6
True
medications such as corticosteroids
319
What do sulfite-containing foods reduce the effectiveness of?
5a502ea3ce860b001aa3faf7
True
Laws that limit smoking
356
What decreases the number of people who are hospitalized for passive smoke exposure?
5a502ea3ce860b001aa3faf8
True
Dust mite control measures, including air filtration, chemicals to kill mites, vacuuming, mattress covers and others methods
435
What methods have no effect on smokers quality of life?
5a502ea3ce860b001aa3faf9
True
Avoidance of triggers is a key component of improving control and preventing attacks. The most common triggers include allergens, smoke (tobacco and other), air pollution, non selective beta-blockers, and sulfite-containing foods. Cigarette smoking and second-hand smoke (passive smoke) may reduce the effectiveness of medications such as corticosteroids. Laws that limit smoking decrease the number of people hospitalized for asthma. Dust mite control measures, including air filtration, chemicals to kill mites, vacuuming, mattress covers and others methods had no effect on asthma symptoms. Overall, exercise is beneficial in people with stable asthma. Yoga could provide small improvements in quality of life and symptoms in people with asthma.
What type of person would use bronchial thermoplasty as an option?
5728d1664b864d1900164eb4
For those with severe persistent asthma not controlled by inhaled corticosteroids and LABAs
0
False
What does bronchial thermoplasty consist of?
5728d1664b864d1900164eb5
It involves the delivery of controlled thermal energy to the airway wall during a series of bronchoscopies
134
False
What effect does bronchial thermoplasty have?
5728d1664b864d1900164eb6
it appears to decrease the subsequent rate.
311
False
What treatment helps improve those with allergic rhinitis and asthma?
5728d1664b864d1900164eb7
sublingual immunotherapy
415
False
bronchial thermoplasty
93
What is an option for someone with LABAs not controlled by corticosteroids?
5a5032aace860b001aa3faff
True
It involves the delivery of controlled thermal energy to the airway wall during a series of bronchoscopies
134
What does inhaling corticosteroids deliver?
5a5032aace860b001aa3fb00
True
exacerbation frequency
264
What does taking corticosteroids increase in the first few months of use?
5a5032aace860b001aa3fb01
True
the subsequent rate
334
What is decreased when you use sublingual immunotherapy for LABAs?
5a5032aace860b001aa3fb02
True
sublingual immunotherapy
415
What treatment has evidence that shows an outcome improvement for people with LABAs?
5a5032aace860b001aa3fb03
True
For those with severe persistent asthma not controlled by inhaled corticosteroids and LABAs, bronchial thermoplasty may be an option. It involves the delivery of controlled thermal energy to the airway wall during a series of bronchoscopies. While it may increase exacerbation frequency in the first few months it appears to decrease the subsequent rate. Effects beyond one year are unknown. Evidence suggests that sublingual immunotherapy in those with both allergic rhinitis and asthma improve outcomes.
What is the prognosis for asthma?
5728d2b3ff5b5019007da772
generally good
28
False
What has caused the mortality rate to decrease?
5728d2b3ff5b5019007da773
due to better recognition and improvement in care
137
False
Worldwide, how many people suffer from asthma?
5728d2b3ff5b5019007da774
19.4 million people as of 2004
240
False
How many cases that are diagnosed in childhood make it past 10 years with asthma?
5728d2b3ff5b5019007da775
half of cases will no longer carry the diagnosis after a decade
371
False
generally good
28
What is the prognosis after treating airway remodeling?
5a503516ce860b001aa3fb09
True
due to better recognition and improvement in care
137
Why has airway remodeling decreased in children over the last few decades?
5a503516ce860b001aa3fb0a
True
19.4 million
240
How many people will no longer be diagnosed with decline in lung function after 2004?
5a503516ce860b001aa3fb0b
True
it is unknown
471
Is treatment with corticosteroids harmful or beneficial?
5a503516ce860b001aa3fb0c
True
corticosteroids
561
What is used to treat airway remodeling?
5a503516ce860b001aa3fb0d
True
The prognosis for asthma is generally good, especially for children with mild disease. Mortality has decreased over the last few decades due to better recognition and improvement in care. Globally it causes moderate or severe disability in 19.4 million people as of 2004 (16 million of which are in low and middle income countries). Of asthma diagnosed during childhood, half of cases will no longer carry the diagnosis after a decade. Airway remodeling is observed, but it is unknown whether these represent harmful or beneficial changes. Early treatment with corticosteroids seems to prevent or ameliorates a decline in lung function.
By 2011, how many people were affected by asthma?
5728d47d2ca10214002da8d8
235–330 million people worldwide are affected by asthma
12
False
How many people die per year from asthma?
5728d47d2ca10214002da8d9
250,000–345,000 people
87
False
What countries is asthma more commonly seen?
5728d47d2ca10214002da8da
It is more common in developed than developing countries
206
False
Why are different countries effected differently?
5728d47d2ca10214002da8db
The reason for these differences is not well known
492
False
235–330 million
12
How many people were affected by asthma in Asia as of 2011?
5a5037a5ce860b001aa3fb13
True
approximately 250,000–345,000
73
How many people died in 2011 in Europe from asthma?
5a5037a5ce860b001aa3fb14
True
between 1 and 18%
187
What percentage of people in developing countries are affluent?
5a5037a5ce860b001aa3fb15
True
more than 80%
584
What percentage of people in Eastern Europe are affluent?
5a5037a5ce860b001aa3fb16
True
not well known
528
Is it known why developing countries are economically disadvantaged?
5a5037a5ce860b001aa3fb17
True
As of 2011, 235–330 million people worldwide are affected by asthma, and approximately 250,000–345,000 people die per year from the disease. Rates vary between countries with prevalences between 1 and 18%. It is more common in developed than developing countries. One thus sees lower rates in Asia, Eastern Europe and Africa. Within developed countries it is more common in those who are economically disadvantaged while in contrast in developing countries it is more common in the affluent. The reason for these differences is not well known. Low and middle income countries make up more than 80% of the mortality.
How much was the average cost of hospital stays for asthma-related issues for children??
5728d7c4ff5b5019007da7f4
about $3,600
133
False
How much was the average cost of hospital stays for asthma-related issues for adults?
5728d7c4ff5b5019007da7f5
from $5,200 to $6,600
226
False
Who was the most frequent primary payer amount children and adults?
5728d7c4ff5b5019007da7f6
Medicaid
258
False
Who was more likely to seek hospital help in the US for asthma reasons?
5728d7c4ff5b5019007da7f7
the lowest income communities
456
False
about $3,600
133
What was the average cost per hospital stay for high income communites in 2010?
5a503d98ce860b001aa3fb1d
True
from $5,200 to $6,600
226
How much did the cost increase for a child to be hospitalized for asthma in 2000?
5a503d98ce860b001aa3fb1e
True
Medicaid
258
Who was the primary payer for low income communities from 2000 to 2010?
5a503d98ce860b001aa3fb1f
True
the lowest income communities
456
What group with adults 18-44 had higher stays in the hospital in 2000 instead of higher income communities?
5a503d98ce860b001aa3fb20
True
children and adults aged 18–44 years
309
What group was covered by private insurance  in 2000?
5a503d98ce860b001aa3fb21
True
From 2000 to 2010, the average cost per asthma-related hospital stay in the United States for children remained relatively stable at about $3,600, whereas the average cost per asthma-related hospital stay for adults increased from $5,200 to $6,600. In 2010, Medicaid was the most frequent primary payer among children and adults aged 18–44 years in the United States; private insurance was the second most frequent payer. Among both children and adults in the lowest income communities in the United States there is a higher rates of hospital stays for asthma in 2010 than those in the highest income communities.
When was the first paper written about asthma?
5728d8654b864d1900164f62
In 1873
0
False
What was first used as a cure for asthma?
5728d8654b864d1900164f63
by rubbing the chest with chloroform liniment
173
False
In 1880 what was used intraveniously for asthma?
5728d8654b864d1900164f64
pilocarpin
302
False
When did inhaled corticosteroids and short acting beta agonist start being used?
5728d8654b864d1900164f65
in the 1960s
619
False
asthma can be cured by rubbing the chest with chloroform liniment
153
What did the paper written in 1886 mention about an asthma cure?
5a503f3bce860b001aa3fb27
True
intravenous doses of a drug called pilocarpin
267
What treatment was used for asthma in 1873?
5a503f3bce860b001aa3fb28
True
a connection between asthma and hay fever
347
In 1950 what connection was theorized by F.H. Bosworth?
5a503f3bce860b001aa3fb29
True
inhaled corticosteroids and selective short acting beta agonist
536
What two medications were widely used to treat asthma in 1905?
5a503f3bce860b001aa3fb2a
True
asthma
444
What condition was epinephrine connected to the treatment of in 1873?
5a503f3bce860b001aa3fb2b
True
In 1873, one of the first papers in modern medicine on the subject tried to explain the pathophysiology of the disease while one in 1872, concluded that asthma can be cured by rubbing the chest with chloroform liniment. Medical treatment in 1880, included the use of intravenous doses of a drug called pilocarpin. In 1886, F.H. Bosworth theorized a connection between asthma and hay fever. Epinephrine was first referred to in the treatment of asthma in 1905. Oral corticosteroids began to be used for this condition in the 1950s while inhaled corticosteroids and selective short acting beta agonist came into wide use in the 1960s.
LaserDisc
Did LaserDisks offer higher or lower quality sound and picture than VHS?
57280c4bff5b5019007d9bb2
higher-quality
44
False
Why didn't LaserDisk gain popularity in North America?
57280c4bff5b5019007d9bb3
high costs for the players and video titles themselves and the inability to record TV programming
224
False
With whom was LaserDisk a popular choice for it's picture and sound quality?
57280c4bff5b5019007d9bb4
videophiles and film enthusiasts
693
False
In what city was LaserDisk used as a popular rental medium in the 1990s?
57280c4bff5b5019007d9bb5
Hong Kong
584
False
Although the format was capable of offering higher-quality video and audio than its consumer rivals, the VHS and Betamax videocassette systems, LaserDisc never managed to gain widespread use in North America, largely due to high costs for the players and video titles themselves and the inability to record TV programming. It also remained a largely obscure format in Europe and Australia. By contrast, the format was much more popular in Japan and in the more affluent regions of Southeast Asia, such as Hong Kong, Singapore, and Malaysia, being the prevalent rental video medium in Hong Kong during the 1990s. Its superior video and audio quality did make it a somewhat popular choice among videophiles and film enthusiasts during its lifespan.
Where was LaserDisc first available?
572812a04b864d19001643c0
Atlanta, Georgia
48
False
How many years after VHS was LaserDisk released?
572812a04b864d19001643c1
two years
88
False
Under what name was LaserDisc originally marketed?
572812a04b864d19001643c2
MCA DiscoVision
271
False
How did the first viewers refer to the media?
572812a04b864d19001643c3
"Video Long Play"
569
False
LaserDisc was first available on the market, in Atlanta, Georgia, on December 15, 1978, two years after the introduction of the VHS VCR, and four years before the introduction of the CD (which is based on laser disc technology). Initially licensed, sold, and marketed as MCA DiscoVision (also known as simply "DiscoVision") in North America in 1978, the technology was previously referred to internally as Optical Videodisc System, Reflective Optical Videodisc, Laser Optical Videodisc, and Disco-Vision (with a dash), with the first players referring to the format as "Video Long Play".
Who purchased the majority stake and re-marketed the product in 1980?
57281747ff5b5019007d9cfc
Pioneer Electronics
0
False
Was Laserdisk officially or unofficially reffered to as "Laser Videodisc"?
57281747ff5b5019007d9cfd
unofficially
174
False
Did MCA produce the disc or the players after being bought out?
57281747ff5b5019007d9cfe
discs
285
False
Who were the scientists that worked on the early research for Laserdiscs?
57281747ff5b5019007d9cff
Richard Wilkinson, Ray Dakin and John Winslow
438
False
What company did the early Laserdisc researchers later found?
57281747ff5b5019007d9d00
Optical Disc Corporation (now ODC Nimbus)
493
False
Pioneer Electronics later purchased the majority stake in the format and marketed it as both LaserVision (format name) and LaserDisc (brand name) in 1980, with some releases unofficially referring to the medium as "Laser Videodisc". Philips produced the players while MCA produced the discs. The Philips-MCA cooperation was not successful, and discontinued after a few years. Several of the scientists responsible for the early research (Richard Wilkinson, Ray Dakin and John Winslow) founded Optical Disc Corporation (now ODC Nimbus).
What product replaced LaserDisc in North America by the early 2000s?
57281a754b864d1900164492
DVD
57
False
Who chose LaserFisc for their Domesday Project in the mid-1980s?
57281a754b864d1900164493
British Broadcasting Corporation (BBC)
486
False
What was the BBC Domesday Project?
57281a754b864d1900164494
a school-based project to commemorate 900 years since the original Domesday Book in England
572
False
Which country still exported players to North America until 2001?
57281a754b864d1900164495
Japan
328
False
By the early 2000s, LaserDisc was completely replaced by DVD in the North American retail marketplace, as neither players nor software were then produced. Players were still exported to North America from Japan until the end of 2001. The format has retained some popularity among American collectors, and to a greater degree in Japan, where the format was better supported and more prevalent during its life. In Europe, LaserDisc always remained an obscure format. It was chosen by the British Broadcasting Corporation (BBC) for the BBC Domesday Project in the mid-1980s, a school-based project to commemorate 900 years since the original Domesday Book in England. From 1991 up until the early 2000s, the BBC also used LaserDisc technology to play out the channel idents.
How large was a standard LaserDisc?
57281b8eff5b5019007d9d5c
30 cm (12 in) in diameter
38
False
What numbers are used in Binary information coding?
57281b8eff5b5019007d9d5d
1s and 0s
811
False
Were the ealiest LaserDiscs in 1978 analog or digitally formatted?
57281b8eff5b5019007d9d5e
analog
909
False
The standard home video LaserDisc was 30 cm (12 in) in diameter and made up of two single-sided aluminum discs layered in plastic. Although appearing similar to compact discs or DVDs, LaserDiscs used analog video stored in the composite domain (having a video bandwidth approximately equivalent to the 1-inch (25 mm) C-Type VTR format) with analog FM stereo sound and PCM digital audio. The LaserDisc at its most fundamental level was still recorded as a series of pits and lands much like CDs, DVDs, and even Blu-ray Discs are today. However, while the encoding is of a binary nature, the information is encoded as analog pulse width modulation with a 50% duty cycle, where the information is contained in the lengths and spacing of the pits. In true digital media the pits, or their edges, directly represent 1s and 0s of a binary digital information stream. Early LaserDiscs featured in 1978 were entirely analog but the format evolved to incorporate digital stereo sound in CD format (sometimes with a TOSlink or coax output to feed an external DAC), and later multi-channel formats such as Dolby Digital and DTS.
What was the length capacity of the CAA55 format?
57281dd5ff5b5019007d9d74
55 minutes 5 seconds
167
False
Why was Back to the Future released with analog sound?
57281dd5ff5b5019007d9d75
due to the length of the title and the desire to keep the film on one disc
351
False
What was the maximum length of the CAA60 format?
57281dd5ff5b5019007d9d76
60 minutes 5 seconds
573
False
How many works were released to the public with the CAA70 format?
57281dd5ff5b5019007d9d77
There are not any known uses of this format on the consumer market
988
False
As Pioneer introduced Digital Audio to LaserDisc in 1985, they further refined the CAA format. CAA55 was introduced in 1985 with a total playback capacity per side of 55 minutes 5 seconds, reducing the video capacity to resolve bandwidth issues with the inclusion of Digital Audio. Several titles released between 1985 and 1987 were analog audio only due to the length of the title and the desire to keep the film on one disc (e.g., Back to the Future). By 1987, Pioneer had overcome the technical challenges and was able to once again encode in CAA60, allowing a total of 60 minutes 5 seconds. Pioneer further refined CAA, offering CAA45, encoding 45 minutes of material, but filling the entire playback surface of the side. Used on only a handful of titles, CAA65 offered 65 minutes 5 seconds of playback time per side. There are a handful of titles pressed by Technidisc that used CAA50. The final variant of CAA is CAA70, which could accommodate 70 minutes of playback time per side. There are not any known uses of this format on the consumer market.
What was the difference between LaserDisc and LaserVision in the UK?
572826224b864d19001645a4
"LaserVision" is used to refer to discs with analog sound, while "LaserDisc" is used for those with digital audio
419
False
The Phantom Menace was one of the first home videos to use what sound format?
572826224b864d19001645a5
6.1 channel Dolby Digital EX Surround.
864
False
What sound formatting do DVDs use?
572826224b864d19001645a6
Dolby Digital audio in digital form
928
False
Sound could be stored in either analog or digital format and in a variety of surround sound formats; NTSC discs could carry two analog audio tracks, plus two uncompressed PCM digital audio tracks, which were (EFM, CIRC, 16-bit and 44.056 kHz sample rate). PAL discs could carry one pair of audio tracks, either analog or digital and the digital tracks on a PAL disc were 16-bit 44.1 kHz as on a CD; in the UK, the term "LaserVision" is used to refer to discs with analog sound, while "LaserDisc" is used for those with digital audio. The digital sound signal in both formats are EFM-encoded as in CD. Dolby Digital (also called AC-3) and DTS—which are now common on DVD titles—first became available on LaserDisc, and Star Wars: Episode I – The Phantom Menace (1999) which was released on LaserDisc in Japan, is among the first home video releases ever to include 6.1 channel Dolby Digital EX Surround. Unlike DVDs, which carry Dolby Digital audio in digital form, LaserDiscs store Dolby Digital in a frequency modulated form within a track normally used for analog audio. Extracting Dolby Digital from a LaserDisc required a player equipped with a special "AC-3 RF" output and an external demodulator in addition to an AC-3 decoder. The demodulator was necessary to convert the 2.88 MHz modulated AC-3 information on the disc into a 384 kbit/s signal that the decoder could handle. DTS audio, when available on a disc, replaced the digital audio tracks; hearing DTS sound required only an S/PDIF compliant digital connection to a DTS decoder.
What competition caused LaserDisc sales to decline?
572828724b864d1900164606
DVD's growing popularity
239
False
Did all AV receivers carry the demodulator circuits necessary for LaserDiscs, or only high-end models?
572828724b864d1900164607
higher-end
30
False
What did the Onkyo outboard demodulator covert the RF AC-2 signal to?
572828724b864d1900164608
6-channel analog audio
790
False
In the mid to late 1990s many higher-end AV receivers included the demodulator circuit specifically for the LaserDisc players RF modulated Dolby Digital AC-3 signal. By the late 1990s with LaserDisc players and disc sales declining due to DVD's growing popularity the AV receiver manufacturers removed the demodulator circuit. Although DVD players were capable of playing Dolby Digital tracks, the signal out of DVD player were not in a modulated form and not compatible with the inputs designed for LaserDisc AC-3. Outboard demodulators were available for a period that convert the AC-3 signal to standard Dolby Digital signal that was compatible with the standard Dolby Digital/PCM inputs on capable AV receivers. Another type marketed by Onkyo and others converted the RF AC-3 signal to 6-channel analog audio.
Was sound quality from disc to disc and between players consistent or varied?
57282cbd4b864d1900164658
varied greatly
176
False
Was analog or digital formatting more popular with enthusiasts?
57282cbd4b864d1900164659
digital
380
False
What result did adding CX Noise Reduction have on analog discs?
57282cbd4b864d190016465a
improved the signal-noise ratio of their audio
934
False
Which company added digital sound option when re-releasing movies?
57282cbd4b864d190016465b
Universal
593
False
At least where the digital audio tracks were concerned, the sound quality was unsurpassed at the time compared to consumer videotape, but the quality of the analog soundtracks varied greatly depending on the disc and, sometimes, the player. Many early and lower-end LD players had poor analog audio components, and many early discs had poorly mastered analog audio tracks, making digital soundtracks in any form most desirable to serious enthusiasts. Early DiscoVision and LaserDisc titles lacked the digital audio option, but many of those movies received digital sound in later re-issues by Universal, and the quality of analog audio tracks generally got far better as time went on. Many discs that had originally carried old analog stereo tracks received new Dolby Stereo and Dolby Surround tracks instead, often in addition to digital tracks, helping boost sound quality. Later analog discs also applied CX Noise Reduction, which improved the signal-noise ratio of their audio.
Which channel would not work in conjunction with AC-3 audio?
57282ff14b864d19001646a4
right analog audio channel
183
False
What audio playback options were available if an AC-3 output was not present?
57282ff14b864d19001646a5
digital Dolby Surround or stereo audio tracks
350
False
What happens to the right channel in a player that doesn't recognize AC-3?
57282ff14b864d19001646a6
garbage (static) output
1052
False
Both AC-3 and DTS surround audio were clumsily implemented on LaserDiscs, leading to some interesting player- and disc-dependent issues. A disc that included AC-3 audio forfeited the right analog audio channel to the modulated AC-3 RF stream. If the player did not have an AC-3 output available, the next most attractive playback option would be the digital Dolby Surround or stereo audio tracks. The reason for this is the RF signal needs to bypass the audio circuitry in order to be properly processed by the demodulator. If either the player did not support digital audio tracks (common in older players), or the disc did not include digital audio tracks at all (uncommon for a disc which is mastered with an AC-3 track), the only remaining option was to fall back to a monophonic presentation of the left analog audio track. However, many older analog-only players not only failed to output AC-3 streams correctly, but were not even aware of their potential existence. Such a player will happily play the analog audio tracks verbatim, resulting in garbage (static) output in the right channel.
Are integrated AC-3 demodulators common in LaserDisc players or a rare find?
572830d54b864d19001646c6
rare
683
False
How many 5.1 surround sound options exist in LaserDiscs?
572830d54b864d19001646c7
Only one
0
False
What type of decoder logic is common in 1990s A/V receivers?
572830d54b864d19001646c8
DTS
626
False
Only one 5.1 surround sound option exists on a given LaserDisc (either Dolby Digital or DTS), so if surround sound is desired, the disc must be matched to the capabilities of the playback equipment (LD Player and Receiver/Decoder) by the purchaser. A fully capable LaserDisc playback system includes a newer LaserDisc player that is capable of playing digital tracks, has a digital optical output for digital PCM and DTS audio, is aware of AC-3 audio tracks, and has an AC-3 coaxial output; an external or internal AC-3 RF demodulator and AC-3 decoder; and a DTS decoder. Many 1990s A/V receivers combine the AC-3 decoder and DTS decoder logic, but an integrated AC-3 demodulator is rare both in LaserDisc players and in later A/V receivers.
Which has a longer playing time: PAL LaserDiscs or NTSC discs?
572831634b864d19001646d6
PAL LaserDiscs
0
False
How many audio tracks do PAL LaserDiscs have?
572831634b864d19001646d7
two
118
False
Which two audio options are available on PAL LaserDiscs?
572831634b864d19001646d8
two analog-only tracks on older PAL LDs, or two digital-only tracks on newer discs
157
False
PAL LaserDiscs have a slightly longer playing time than NTSC discs, but have fewer audio options. PAL discs only have two audio tracks, consisting of either two analog-only tracks on older PAL LDs, or two digital-only tracks on newer discs. In comparison, later NTSC LDs are capable of carrying four tracks (two analog and two digital). On certain releases, one of the analog tracks is used to carry a modulated AC-3 signal for 5.1 channel audio (for decoding and playback by newer LD players with an "AC-3 RF" output). However, older NTSC LDs made before 1984 (such as the original DiscoVision discs) only have two analog audio tracks.
What was the name of the first solid-state laser consumer LaserDisc player?
57283235ff5b5019007d9ed8
LD-700
90
False
Besides a solid-state laser, what else was unique about the LD-700?
57283235ff5b5019007d9ed9
first LD player to load from the front and not the top
114
False
When did Pioneer release the LD-700?
57283235ff5b5019007d9eda
March 1984
3
False
Which company continued to use gas-lasers in industrial models of LD players although they were no longer used in consumer models?
57283235ff5b5019007d9edb
Philips
505
False
In March 1984, Pioneer introduced the first consumer player with a solid-state laser, the LD-700. It was also the first LD player to load from the front and not the top. One year earlier Hitachi introduced an expensive industrial player with a laser diode, but the player, which had poor picture quality due to an inadequate dropout compensator, was made only in limited quantities. After Pioneer released the LD-700, gas lasers were no longer used in consumer players, despite their advantages, although Philips continued to use gas lasers in their industrial units until 1985.
Which three names did MCA use for LaserDisc technology during its development?
572833943acd2414000df6d3
Optical Videodisc System, "Reflective Optical Videodisc" or "Laser Optical Videodisc"
82
False
To what did MCA change the name to in 1969?
572833943acd2414000df6d4
Disco-Vision
230
False
When did MCA remove the hyphen from the name Disco-Vision?
572833943acd2414000df6d5
1978
261
False
Which company owned the rights to the world's largest collection of films during the 1970s?
572833943acd2414000df6d6
MCA
505
False
Consumer sales of MCA films began in 1978 with what movie?
572833943acd2414000df6d7
Jaws
811
False
During its development, MCA, which co-owned the technology, referred to it as the Optical Videodisc System, "Reflective Optical Videodisc" or "Laser Optical Videodisc", depending on the document; changing the name once in 1969 to Disco-Vision and then again in 1978 to DiscoVision (without the hyphen), which became the official spelling. Technical documents and brochures produced by MCA Disco-Vision during the early and mid-'70s also used the term "Disco-Vision Records" to refer to the pressed discs. MCA owned the rights to the largest catalog of films in the world during this time, and they manufactured and distributed the DiscoVision releases of those films under the "MCA DiscoVision" software and manufacturing label; consumer sale of those titles began on December 15, 1978, with the aforementioned Jaws.
What did VLP stand for in English-speaking countries?
572834ffff5b5019007d9f1c
Video Long-Play
166
False
What was the first consumer VLP player?
572834ffff5b5019007d9f1d
Magnavox VH-8000
214
False
Which group officially chose the name "Laservision"?
572834ffff5b5019007d9f1e
The LaserVision Association
547
False
The Laservision Association was comprised of which companies?
572834ffff5b5019007d9f1f
MCA, Universal-Pioneer, IBM, and Philips/Magnavox
587
False
Philips' preferred name for the format was "VLP", after the Dutch words Video Langspeel-Plaat ("Video long-play disc"), which in English-speaking countries stood for Video Long-Play. The first consumer player, the Magnavox VH-8000 even had the VLP logo on the player. For a while in the early and mid-1970s, Philips also discussed a compatible audio-only format they called "ALP", but that was soon dropped as the Compact Disc system became a non-compatible project in the Philips corporation. Until early 1980, the format had no "official" name. The LaserVision Association, made up of MCA, Universal-Pioneer, IBM, and Philips/Magnavox, was formed to standardize the technical specifications of the format (which had been causing problems for the consumer market) and finally named the system officially as "LaserVision".
Which company joined a 50/50 partnership with MCA in 1977?
5728390b3acd2414000df74f
Pioneer Electronics
0
False
In what year was the first Universal-Pioneer player released?
5728390b3acd2414000df750
1980
240
False
What was the name of the first Universal-Pioneer player?
5728390b3acd2414000df751
the VP-1000
291
False
Which singer did an ad for the LD-700 player in 1984?
5728390b3acd2414000df752
Ray Charles
818
False
Pioneer Electronics also entered the optical disc market in 1977 as a 50/50 joint-venture with MCA called Universal-Pioneer and manufacturing MCA designed industrial players under the MCA DiscoVision name (the PR-7800 and PR-7820). For the 1980 launch of the first Universal-Pioneer player, the VP-1000 was noted as a "laser disc player", although the "LaserDisc" logo displayed clearly on the device. In 1981, "LaserDisc" was used exclusively for the medium itself, although the official name was "LaserVision" (as seen at the beginning of many LaserDisc releases just before the start of the film). However, as Pioneer reminded numerous video magazines and stores in 1984, LaserDisc was a trademarked word, standing only for LaserVision products manufactured for sale by Pioneer Video or Pioneer Electronics. A 1984 Ray Charles ad for the LD-700 player bore the term "Pioneer LaserDisc brand videodisc player". From 1981 until the early 1990s, all properly licensed discs carried the LaserVision name and logo, even Pioneer Artists titles.
What other companies did MCA manufacture discs for?
57283a6a3acd2414000df757
Paramount, Disney and Warner Bros
82
False
What quirk is present in MCA's release of Howard the Duck?
57283a6a3acd2414000df758
only the start credits shown in widescreen before changing to 4:3 for the rest of the film
1180
False
What is unique about the LaserDisc release of E.T.?
57283a6a3acd2414000df759
only format to include the cut scene of Harrison Ford playing the part of the school headmaster
1458
False
Which film is only available with its original score in LD format , even today?
57283a6a3acd2414000df75a
The Electric Horseman
893
False
During the early years, MCA also manufactured discs for other companies including Paramount, Disney and Warner Bros. Some of them added their own names to the disc jacket to signify that the movie was not owned by MCA. After Discovision Associates shut down in early 1982, Universal Studio's videodisc software label, called MCA Videodisc until 1984, began reissuing many DiscoVision titles. Unfortunately, quite a few, such as Battlestar Galactica and Jaws, were time-compressed versions of their CAV or CLV Disco Vision originals. The time-compressed CLV re-issue of Jaws no longer had the original soundtrack, having had incidental background music replaced for the video disc version due to licensing cost (the music would not be available until the THX LaserDisc box set was released in 1995). One Universal/Columbia co-production issued by MCA Disco Vision in both CAV and CLV versions, The Electric Horseman, is still not available in any other home video format with its original score intact; even the most recent DVD release has had substantial music replacements of both instrumental score and Willie Nelson's songs. An MCA release of Universal's Howard the Duck, sees only the start credits shown in widescreen before changing to 4:3 for the rest of the film. For many years this was the only disc-based release of the film, until widescreen DVD formats were released with extras. Also, the LaserDisc release of E.T. the Extra-Terrestrial is the only format to include the cut scene of Harrison Ford playing the part of the school headmaster telling off Elliott for letting the frogs free in the biology class.
How many horizontal TVL lines did LaserDisc have in comparison to VHS's 240?
57283dc84b864d19001647da
425
113
False
Which medium was chapter based like DVD format, Laserdisc or VHS?
57283dc84b864d19001647db
LaserDisc
0
False
Which medium allowed for multiple audio tracks, Laserdisc or VHS?
57283dc84b864d19001647dc
LaserDisc
0
False
LaserDisc had a number of advantages over VHS. It featured a far sharper picture with a horizontal resolution of 425 TVL lines for NTSC and 440 TVL lines for PAL discs, while VHS featured only 240 TVL lines with NTSC. It could handle analog and digital audio where VHS was mostly analog only (VHS can have PCM audio in professional applications but is uncommon), and the NTSC discs could store multiple audio tracks. This allowed for extras like director's commentary tracks and other features to be added onto a film, creating "Special Edition" releases that would not have been possible with VHS. Disc access was random and chapter based, like the DVD format, meaning that one could jump to any point on a given disc very quickly. By comparison, VHS would require tedious rewinding and fast-forwarding to get to specific points.
Were Laserdiscs initially cheaper or more costly to produce than their VHS counterparts?
57283f892ca10214002da182
cheaper
26
False
How many parts does a VHS tape have that must be manufactured?
57283f892ca10214002da183
at least 14
238
False
How much did LaserDiscs cost to produce by the end of the 1980s?
57283f892ca10214002da184
$5.00 per two-sided disc
573
False
How much did VHS cost to produce by the 1990s?
57283f892ca10214002da185
as little as $1.00
828
False
LaserDiscs were initially cheaper than videocassettes to manufacture, because they lacked the moving parts and plastic outer shell that are necessary for VHS tapes to work, and the duplication process was much simpler. A VHS cassette has at least 14 parts including the actual tape while LaserDisc has one part with five or six layers. A disc can be stamped out in a matter of seconds whereas duplicating videotape required a complex bulk tape duplication mechanism and was a time-consuming process. However, by the end of the 1980s, average disc-pressing prices were over $5.00 per two-sided disc, due to the large amount of plastic material and the costly glass-mastering process needed to make the metal stamper mechanisms. Due to the larger volume of demand, videocassettes quickly became much cheaper to duplicate, costing as little as $1.00 by the beginning of the 1990s.
Were Laserdiscs or VHS more durable in the long run?
572841bd3acd2414000df7d9
LaserDiscs
0
False
Why is physical contact with a VHS tape less desirable than an optical reading?
572841bd3acd2414000df7da
progressive wear with each use
624
False
Where do VHS tapes store their information?
572841bd3acd2414000df7db
magnetic coating
537
False
LaserDiscs potentially had a much longer lifespan than videocassettes. Because the discs were read optically instead of magnetically, no physical contact needs to be made between the player and the disc, except for the player's clamp that holds the disc at its center as it is spun and read. As a result, playback would not wear the information-bearing part of the discs, and properly manufactured LDs would theoretically last beyond one's lifetime. By contrast, a VHS tape held all of its picture and sound information on the tape in a magnetic coating which is in contact with the spinning heads on the head drum, causing progressive wear with each use (though later in VHS's lifespan, engineering improvements allowed tapes to be made and played back without contact). Also, the tape was thin and delicate, and it was easy for a player mechanism, especially on a low quality or malfunctioning model, to mishandle the tape and damage it by creasing it, frilling (stretching) its edges, or even breaking it.
How is data stored on DVDs?
57284314ff5b5019007da038
digital blocks which make up each independent frame
302
False
What device seperated the black and white and color signals in LaserDiscs?
57284314ff5b5019007da039
the receiver
153
False
Are comb filters exact, or is some data smudged?
57284314ff5b5019007da03a
comb filters almost inevitably smudge some detail
732
False
In what areas are comb filters most likely to lose detail?
57284314ff5b5019007da03b
low-contrast details like skin tones
688
False
LaserDisc was a composite video format: the luminance (black and white) and chrominance (color) information were transmitted in one signal, separated by the receiver. While good comb filters can do so adequately, these two signals cannot be completely separated. On DVDs, data is stored in the form of digital blocks which make up each independent frame. The signal produced is dependent on the equipment used to master the disc. Signals range from composite and split, to YUV and RGB. Depending upon which format is used, this can result in far higher fidelity, particularly at strong color borders or regions of high detail (especially if there is moderate movement in the picture) and low-contrast details like skin tones, where comb filters almost inevitably smudge some detail.
Do LaserDiscs or DVD use analog video?
572844d0ff5b5019007da070
LaserDiscs
41
False
Are DVDs partially or entirely digital?
572844d0ff5b5019007da071
entirely
19
False
What is contrast banding?
572844d0ff5b5019007da072
subtle visible lines in gradient areas
288
False
What step of the DVD production process causes contrast banding?
572844d0ff5b5019007da073
MPEG-2 encoding process
427
False
In contrast to the entirely digital DVD, LaserDiscs use only analog video. As the LaserDisc format is not digitally encoded and does not make use of compression techniques, it is immune to video macroblocking (most visible as blockiness during high motion sequences) or contrast banding (subtle visible lines in gradient areas, such as out-of-focus backgrounds, skies, or light casts from spotlights) that can be caused by the MPEG-2 encoding process as video is prepared for DVD. Early DVD releases held the potential to surpass their LaserDisc counterparts, but often managed only to match them for image quality, and in some cases, the LaserDisc version was preferred. However, proprietary human-assisted encoders manually operated by specialists can vastly reduce the incidence of artifacts, depending on playing time and image complexity. By the end of LaserDisc's run, DVDs were living up to their potential as a superior format.
How does LaserDisc operation vary from DVD?
57284672ff5b5019007da0b2
the transport mechanism always obeys commands from the user
108
False
What are "User Protected Options" on DVDs?
57284672ff5b5019007da0b3
where content protection code instructs the player to refuse commands to skip a specific part
312
False
Where are User Protected Options commonly found on DVDs?
57284672ff5b5019007da0b4
copyright warnings
439
False
Which format, LaserDisc or DVD, gives the user the most control over playback?
57284672ff5b5019007da0b5
LaserDisc
0
False
LaserDisc players can provide a great degree of control over the playback process. Unlike many DVD players, the transport mechanism always obeys commands from the user: pause, fast-forward, and fast-reverse commands are always accepted (barring, of course, malfunctions). There were no "User Prohibited Options" where content protection code instructs the player to refuse commands to skip a specific part (such as fast forwarding through copyright warnings). (Some DVD players, particularly higher-end units, do have the ability to ignore the blocking code and play the video without restrictions, but this feature is not common in the usual consumer market.)
What does the repair+skip feature on newer DVD players do?
572847713acd2414000df863
filling in unreadable areas of the picture with blank space or a frozen frame of the last readable image and sound
244
False
Which format, DVD or Laserdisc, can become unreadable with damage?
572847713acd2414000df864
DVD
778
False
Will the same size scratch cause more problems for a DVD or LaserDisc?
572847713acd2414000df865
DVD
508
False
Damaged spots on a LaserDisc can be played through or skipped over, while a DVD will often become unplayable past the damage. Some newer DVD players feature a repair+skip algorithm, which alleviates this problem by continuing to play the disc, filling in unreadable areas of the picture with blank space or a frozen frame of the last readable image and sound. The success of this feature depends upon the amount of damage. LaserDisc players, when working in full analog, recover from such errors faster than DVD players. Direct comparison here is almost impossible due to the sheer size differences between the two media. A 1 in (3 cm) scratch on a DVD will probably cause more problems than a 1 in (3 cm) scratch on a LaserDisc, but a fingerprint taking up 1% of the area of a DVD would almost certainly cause fewer problems than a similar mark covering 1% of the surface of a LaserDisc.[citation needed]
Which format is considered to look most realistic, LaserDisc or DVD?
572848e94b864d19001648c4
LaserDisc
114
False
Which format, LaserDisc or DVD, is said to appear sharper and clearer to most viewers?
572848e94b864d19001648c5
DVDs
465
False
What features do LaserDiscs lack in, causing DVDs to appear sharper and clearer?
572848e94b864d19001648c6
video signal-to-noise ratio and bandwidth
361
False
Similar to the CD versus LP sound quality debates common in the audiophile community, some videophiles argue that LaserDisc maintains a "smoother", more "film-like", natural image while DVD still looks slightly more artificial. Early DVD demo discs often had compression or encoding problems, lending additional support to such claims at the time. However, the video signal-to-noise ratio and bandwidth of LaserDisc are substantially less than that of DVDs, making DVDs appear sharper and clearer to most viewers.
What was the vertical blanking interval used for in LaserDiscs, preventing Macrovision signal to be implemented?
57284a1b4b864d19001648ca
internal timing
322
False
Why wasn't there a need to redesign the LaserDisc format to prevent piracy?
57284a1b4b864d19001648cb
relatively small market share
512
False
What protection could not be applied to LaserDiscs, making them prone to piracy?
57284a1b4b864d19001648cc
Macrovision's Copyguard protection
119
False
Another advantage, at least to some consumers, was the lack of any sort of anti-piracy technology. It was claimed that Macrovision's Copyguard protection could not be applied to LaserDisc, due to the format's design. The vertical blanking interval, where the Macrovision signal would be implemented, was also used for the internal timing on LaserDisc players, so test discs with Macrovision would not play at all. There was never a push to redesign the format despite the obvious potential for piracy due to its relatively small market share. The industry simply decided to engineer it into the DVD specification.
LaserDisc was the first format to provide what type of releases to consumers?
57284b0c4b864d19001648da
"Special Edition"
152
False
What was the first "Special Edition" film to be released to home video?
57284b0c4b864d19001648db
the 1984 Criterion Collection edition of Citizen Kane
180
False
What bonus features were available on the first home video "Special Edition"?
57284b0c4b864d19001648dc
interviews, commentary tracks, documentaries, still photographs
420
False
What feature, unique to LaserDisc, made bonus content possible?
57284b0c4b864d19001648dd
support for multiple audio tracks
12
False
LaserDisc's support for multiple audio tracks allowed for vast supplemental materials to be included on-disc and made it the first available format for "Special Edition" releases; the 1984 Criterion Collection edition of Citizen Kane is generally credited as being the first "Special Edition" release to home video,[citation needed] and for setting the standard by which future SE discs were measured. The disc provided interviews, commentary tracks, documentaries, still photographs, and other features for historians and collectors.
What was required of a LaserDisc to continue playback after 60 minutes?
57284d94ff5b5019007da136
a disc has to be flipped over in order to continue watching
259
False
Which LaserDisc player solves the disc switching dilemma?
57284d94ff5b5019007da137
Pioneer LD-W1
784
False
What must be reduced in order to allow LaserDisc playback time to increase?
57284d94ff5b5019007da138
line count
187
False
Which format allows for more playback tie per side, CLV or CAV?
57284d94ff5b5019007da139
CLV
116
False
The space-consuming analog video signal of a LaserDisc limited playback duration to 30 minutes (CAV) or 60 minutes (CLV) per side because of the hardware manufacturer's refusal to reduce line count for increased playtime. After one side was finished playing, a disc has to be flipped over in order to continue watching a movie, and some titles fill two or more discs. Many players, especially units built after the mid-1980s, can "flip" discs automatically by rotating the optical pickup to the other side of the disc, but this is accompanied by a pause in the movie during the side change. If the movie is longer than what could be stored on two sides of a single disc, manually swapping to a second disc is necessary at some point during the film. One exception to this rule is the Pioneer LD-W1, which features two disc platters. In addition, perfect still frames and random access to individual still frames is limited only to the more expensive CAV discs, which only had a playing time of approximately 30 minutes per side. In later years, Pioneer and other manufacturers overcame this limitation by incorporating a digital memory buffer, which "grabbed" a single frame from a CLV disc.
What video problems on a LaserDisc can be caused by dust or scratches?
57284e4b2ca10214002da26e
glitches, streaks, bursts of static, or momentary picture interruptions
246
False
Which format used in DVDs has built-in error correction?
57284e4b2ca10214002da26f
digital MPEG-2
336
False
What type of encoding, analog or digital, causes LaserDiscs to be succeptable to damages?
57284e4b2ca10214002da270
analog
4
False
The analog information encoded on LaserDiscs does not include any form of built-in checksum or error correction. Because of this, slight dust and scratches on the disc surface can result in read-errors which cause various video quality problems: glitches, streaks, bursts of static, or momentary picture interruptions. In contrast, the digital MPEG-2 format information used on DVDs has built-in error correction which ensures that the signal from a damaged disc will remain identical to that from a perfect disc right up until the point at which damage to the disc surface is so substantial that it prevents the laser from being able to identify usable data.
When does "crosstalk" occur?
57284ee52ca10214002da27c
when the laser optical pickup assembly within the player is out of alignment or because the disc is damaged or excessively warped
100
False
What problem can be caused by a player becoming out of alignment?
57284ee52ca10214002da27d
"crosstalk"
67
False
How does "crosstalk" appear to the viewer?
57284ee52ca10214002da27e
swirling "barber poles" or rolling lines of static
827
False
In addition, LaserDisc videos sometimes exhibit a problem known as "crosstalk". The issue can arise when the laser optical pickup assembly within the player is out of alignment or because the disc is damaged or excessively warped, but it could also occur even with a properly functioning player and a factory-new disc, depending on electrical and mechanical alignment problems. In these instances, the issue arose due to the fact that CLV discs require subtle changes in rotating speed at various points during playback. During a change in speed, the optical pickup inside the player might read video information from a track adjacent to the intended one, causing data from the two tracks to "cross"; the extra video information picked up from that second track shows up as distortion in the picture which looks reminiscent of swirling "barber poles" or rolling lines of static.
In which format does crosstalk generally not occur?
57284fd82ca10214002da282
CAV
129
False
Why does the CAV format prevent crosstalk?
57284fd82ca10214002da283
the rotational speed never varies
155
False
What happens during "laser lock"?
57284fd82ca10214002da284
the player reads the same two fields for a given frame over and over again, causing the picture to look frozen
376
False
Assuming the player's optical pickup is in proper working order, crosstalk distortion normally does not occur during playback of CAV format LaserDiscs, as the rotational speed never varies. However, if the player calibration is out of order or if the CAV disc is faulty or damaged, other problems affecting tracking accuracy can occur. One such problem is "laser lock", where the player reads the same two fields for a given frame over and over again, causing the picture to look frozen as if the movie were paused.
Is LaserDisc quality consistent or inconsistent between player brands?
572850e43acd2414000df8f3
inconsistency
67
False
What is LaserDisc playback quality dependent on?
572850e43acd2414000df8f4
hardware quality
591
False
How cheaply could an older LaserDisc player be purchased in the 1990s?
572850e43acd2414000df8f5
$25
1088
False
What range of prices were high-end LaserDisc players in the 1990s?
572850e43acd2414000df8f6
US$200 to well over $1,000
964
False
Another significant issue unique to LaserDisc is one involving the inconsistency of playback quality between different makers and models of player. On most televisions, a given DVD player will produce a picture that is visually indistinguishable from other units. Differences in image quality between players only becomes easily apparent on large televisions and substantial leaps in image quality are generally only obtained with expensive, high-end players that allow for post-processing of the MPEG-2 stream during playback. In contrast, LaserDisc playback quality is highly dependent on hardware quality. Major variances in picture quality appear between different makers and models of LD players, even when tested on a low to mid-range television. The obvious benefits of using high quality equipment has helped keep demand for some players high, thus also keeping pricing for those units comparably high. In the 1990s, notable players sold for anywhere from US$200 to well over $1,000, while older and less desirable players could be purchased in working condition for as little as $25.
What substandard product was used in LD manufacturing that caused "laser rot"?
572851ba4b864d190016493c
adhesive
71
False
What was the internal name for "laser rot" within LD processing plants?
572851ba4b864d190016493d
"color flash"
447
False
What problems could occur with laser rot?
572851ba4b864d190016493e
black spots that looked like mold or burned plastic which cause the disc to skip and the movie to exhibit excessive speckling noise
542
False
Many early LDs were not manufactured properly; sometimes a substandard adhesive was used to sandwich together the two sides of the disc.[citation needed] The adhesive contained impurities that were able to penetrate the lacquer seal layer and chemically attack the metalized reflective aluminium layer, causing it to oxidize and lose its reflective characteristics. This was a problem that was termed "laser rot" among LD enthusiasts, also called "color flash" internally by LaserDisc-pressing plants. Some forms of laser rot could appear as black spots that looked like mold or burned plastic which cause the disc to skip and the movie to exhibit excessive speckling noise. But, for the most part, rotted discs could actually appear perfectly fine to the naked eye.
Why didn't LaserDiscs become popular in North America?
572853173acd2414000df915
high cost of the players and discs
75
False
By 1990, how many American homes were estimated to use LD?
572853173acd2414000df916
nearly one million
486
False
Why were LaserDiscs more popular in Japan?
572853173acd2414000df917
prices were kept low to ensure adoption
607
False
Which format was more popular in high humidity areas such as Singapore?
572853173acd2414000df918
LaserDiscs
1098
False
LaserDisc did not have high market penetration in North America due to the high cost of the players and discs, which were far more expensive than VHS players and tapes, and due to marketplace confusion with the technologically inferior CED, which also went by the name Videodisc. While the format was not widely adopted by North American consumers, it was well received among videophiles due to the superior audio and video quality compared to VHS and Betamax tapes, finding a place in nearly one million American homes by the end of 1990. The format was more popular in Japan than in North America because prices were kept low to ensure adoption, resulting in minimal price differences between VHS tapes and the higher quality LaserDiscs, helping ensure that it quickly became the dominant consumer video format in Japan. Anime collectors in every country the LD format was released, which includes both North America and Japan, also quickly became familiar with this format, and sought the higher video and sound quality of LaserDisc and the availability of numerous titles not available on VHS. LaserDiscs were also popular alternatives to videocassettes among movie enthusiasts in the more affluent regions of South East Asia, such as Singapore, due to their high integration with the Japanese export market and the disc-based media's superior longevity compared to videocassette, especially in the humid conditions endemic to that area of the world.
How much did a LD cost in Hong Kong in the 1990s?
572853c14b864d1900164950
USD100
183
False
Broadcast in Hong Kong used which standard formatting?
572853c14b864d1900164951
PAL standard
426
False
In contrast to broadcast, which format did consumers use in Hong Kong?
572853c14b864d1900164952
NTSC
356
False
The format also became quite popular in Hong Kong during the 1990s before the introduction of VCDs and DVD; although people rarely bought the discs (because each LD was priced around USD100), high rental activity helped the video rental business in the city grow larger than it had ever been previously. Due to integration with the Japanese export market, NTSC LaserDiscs were used in the Hong Kong market, in contrast to the PAL standard used for broadcast (This anomaly also exists for DVD). This created a market for multi-system TVs and multi-system VCRs which could display or play both PAL and NTSC materials in addition to SECAM materials (which were never popular in Hong Kong). Some LD players could convert NTSC signals to PAL so that most TVs used in Hong Kong could display the LD materials.
By what year had DVD taken over the LaserDisc market?
572854802ca10214002da29c
late 1990s
59
False
Which collector group highly values LaserDisc for their rareness?
572854802ca10214002da29d
movie enthusiasts
114
False
Until the end of what year were movies released in VHS, LD, and DVD in Japan?
572854802ca10214002da29e
2001
463
False
What country was the only to receive a LD release of Disney's Song of the South?
572854802ca10214002da29f
Japan
518
False
Although the LaserDisc format was supplanted by DVD by the late 1990s, many LD titles are still highly coveted by movie enthusiasts (for example, Disney's Song of the South which is unavailable in the US in any format, but was issued in Japan on LD). This is largely because there are many films that are still only available on LD and many other LD releases contain supplemental material not available on subsequent DVD versions of those films. Until the end of 2001, many titles were released on VHS, LD, and DVD in Japan.
In what decade did Philips produce a "professional" LD model for computer?
572855143acd2414000df91d
early 1980s
7
False
In what year were LD jukeboxes created?
572855143acd2414000df91e
1985
122
False
Who created LD Jukeboxes in 1985?
572855143acd2414000df91f
Jasmine Multimedia
128
False
Which musical artists were featured on LD Jukeboxes in 1985?
572855143acd2414000df920
Michael Jackson, Duran Duran, and Cyndi Lauper
204
False
In the early 1980s, Philips produced a LaserDisc player model adapted for a computer interface, dubbed "professional". In 1985, Jasmine Multimedia created LaserDisc Juke Boxes featuring music videos from Michael Jackson, Duran Duran, and Cyndi Lauper. When connected to a PC this combination could be used to display images or information for educational or archival purposes, for example thousands of scanned medieval manuscripts. This strange device could be considered a very early equivalent of a CD-ROM.
How many EditDroid systems were ever built?
5728562e3acd2414000df92f
24
777
False
Were EditDroid discs single or multi-sided?
5728562e3acd2414000df930
single-sided
1256
False
Which production company engineered the EditDroid machines in the 1980s?
5728562e3acd2414000df931
Lucasfilm
17
False
In the mid-1980s Lucasfilm pioneered the EditDroid non-linear editing system for film and television based on computer-controlled LaserDisc players. Instead of printing dailies out on film, processed negatives from the day's shoot would be sent to a mastering plant to be assembled from their 10-minute camera elements into 20-minute film segments. These were then mastered onto single-sided blank LaserDiscs, just as a DVD would be burnt at home today, allowing for much easier selection and preparation of an Edit Decision List. In the days before video assist was available in cinematography, this was the only other way a film crew could see their work. The EDL went to the negative cutter who then cut the camera negative accordingly and assembled the finished film. Only 24 EditDroid systems were ever built, even though the ideas and technology are still in use today. Later EditDroid experiments borrowed from hard-drive technology of having multiple discs on the same spindle and added numerous playback heads and numerous electronics to the basic jukebox design so that any point on each of the discs would be accessible within seconds. This eliminated the need for racks and racks of industrial LaserDisc players since EditDroid discs were only single-sided.
In what year did the Doomsday project occur?
572868002ca10214002da306
1986
3
False
Which equipment was used for the Doomsday Project?
572868002ca10214002da307
a SCSI-equipped LaserDisc player attached to a BBC Master computer
9
False
What does LV-ROM stand for?
572868002ca10214002da308
LaserVision Read Only Memory
153
False
The Doomsday Project discs used which formatting?
572868002ca10214002da309
CAV
275
False
In 1986, a SCSI-equipped LaserDisc player attached to a BBC Master computer was used for the BBC Domesday Project. The player was referred as an LV-ROM (LaserVision Read Only Memory) as the discs contained the driving software as well as the video frames. The discs used the CAV format, and encoded data as a binary signal represented by the analog audio recording. These discs could contain in each CAV frame video/audio or video/binary data, but not both. "Data" frames would appear blank when played as video. It was typical for each disc to start with the disc catalog (a few blank frames) then the video introduction before the rest of the data. Because the format (based on the ADFS hard disc format) used a starting sector for each file, the data layout effectively skipped over any video frames. If all 54,000 frames are used for data storage an LV-ROM disc can contain 324 MB of data per side. The Domesday Project systems also included a genlock, allowing video frames, clips and audio to be mixed with graphics originated from the BBC Master; this was used to great effect for displaying high resolution photographs and maps, which could then be zoomed into.
Which of Apple's programming languages allowed users to ceatively manipulate LaserDiscs?
572868bd4b864d19001649a6
HyperCard
8
False
What did LaserStacks software enable Mac users to do?
572868bd4b864d19001649a7
play specific content from the disc
202
False
Where were "stacks" created with the LaserStack software used?
572868bd4b864d19001649a8
in education
337
False
Which commercial company was LaserStack's most successful distributor?
572868bd4b864d19001649a9
Voyager
524
False
Apple's HyperCard scripting language provided Macintosh computer users with a means to design databases of slides, animation, video and sounds from LaserDiscs and then to create interfaces for users to play specific content from the disc through software called LaserStacks. User-created "stacks" were shared and were especially popular in education where teacher-generated stacks were used to access discs ranging from art collections to basic biological processes. Commercially available stacks were also popular with the Voyager company being possibly the most successful distributor.
A combination computer/LD player was comissioned by what government entity?
572869712ca10214002da318
the U.S. Military
20
False
How much did Matrox's computer/LD combo weigh?
572869712ca10214002da319
43 lb (20 kg)
239
False
How could Matrox's computer unconventionally be controlled?
572869712ca10214002da31a
removing the ribbon cable and connecting a serial cable directly from the computer's serial port to the port on the LaserDisc player
654
False
Under contract from the U.S. Military, Matrox produced a combination computer/LaserDisc player for instructional purposes. The computer was a 286, the LaserDisc player only capable of reading the analog audio tracks. Together they weighed 43 lb (20 kg) and sturdy handles were provided in case two people were required to lift the unit. The computer controlled the player via a 25-pin serial port at the back of the player and a ribbon cable connected to a proprietary port on the motherboard. Many of these were sold as surplus by the military during the 1990s, often without the controller software. Nevertheless, it is possible to control the unit by removing the ribbon cable and connecting a serial cable directly from the computer's serial port to the port on the LaserDisc player.
What quality made LDs a consideration for videogames in the 1980s and 1990s?
57286a604b864d19001649c2
instant-access capability
13
False
What was the first game to use LaserDiscs?
57286a604b864d19001649c3
Sega's Astron Belt
229
False
In what year was Sega's AStron Belt released?
57286a604b864d19001649c4
1983
219
False
The format's instant-access capability made it possible for a new breed of LaserDisc-based video arcade games and several companies saw potential in using LaserDiscs for video games in the 1980s and 1990s, beginning in 1983 with Sega's Astron Belt. American Laser Games and Cinematronics produced elaborate arcade consoles that used the random-access features to create interactive movies such as Dragon's Lair and Space Ace. Similarly, the Pioneer Laseractive and Halcyon were introduced as home video game consoles that used LaserDisc media for their software.
With what operating ratio would MUSE Discs operate?
57289de03acd2414000dfb73
5:3
461
False
What benefits did the MUSE narrow wavelength red laser have?
57289de03acd2414000dfb74
capable of reading through disc defects such as scratches and even mild disc rot that would cause most other players to stop, stutter or drop-out
839
False
In addition to scratches and rot, what other common LaserDisc issue was to be eliminated by MUSE discs?
57289de03acd2414000dfb75
Crosstalk
986
False
How many years did it take Blu-ray and HD-DVD players to duplicate MUSE technology?
57289de03acd2414000dfb76
almost 15 years
126
False
In 1991, several manufacturers announced specifications for what would become known as MUSE LaserDisc, representing a span of almost 15 years until the feats of this HD analog optical disc system would finally be duplicated digitally by HD DVD and Blu-ray Disc. Encoded using NHK's MUSE "Hi-Vision" analogue TV system, MUSE discs would operate like standard LaserDiscs but would contain high-definition 1,125-line (1,035 visible lines) (Sony HDVS) video with a 5:3 aspect ratio. The MUSE players were also capable of playing standard NTSC format discs and are superior in performance to non-MUSE players even with these NTSC discs. The MUSE-capable players had several noteworthy advantages over standard LaserDisc players, including a red laser with a much narrower wavelength than the lasers found in standard players. The red laser was capable of reading through disc defects such as scratches and even mild disc rot that would cause most other players to stop, stutter or drop-out. Crosstalk was not an issue with MUSE discs, and the narrow wavelength of the laser allowed for the virtual elimination of crosstalk with normal discs.
What was the price for early HDTVs?
57289ecb4b864d1900164adc
US$10,000
316
False
Did MUSE have a large or small target market, even in Japan?
57289ecb4b864d1900164add
tiny
369
False
What were some movies that were released on MUSE LaserDiscs?
57289ecb4b864d1900164ade
Terminator 2: Judgment Day, Lawrence of Arabia, A League of Their Own, Bugsy, Close Encounters of the Third Kind, Bram Stoker's Dracula and Chaplin
520
False
In order to view MUSE encoded discs, it was necessary to have a MUSE decoder in addition to a compatible player. There are televisions with MUSE decoding built-in and set top tuners with decoders that can provide the proper MUSE input. Equipment prices were high, especially for early HDTVs which generally eclipsed US$10,000, and even in Japan the market for MUSE was tiny. Players and discs were never officially sold in North America, although several distributors imported MUSE discs along with other import titles. Terminator 2: Judgment Day, Lawrence of Arabia, A League of Their Own, Bugsy, Close Encounters of the Third Kind, Bram Stoker's Dracula and Chaplin were among the theatrical releases available on MUSE LDs. Several documentaries, including one about Formula One at Japan's Suzuka Circuit were also released.
What were "Squeeze LDs"?
57289f843acd2414000dfb85
enhanced 16:9-ratio widescreen LaserDiscs
157
False
With what aspect ratio did Squeeze LDs operate?
57289f843acd2414000dfb86
16:9-ratio widescreen
166
False
Why did Squeeze LDs have a very limited market?
57289f843acd2414000dfb87
very few people owned 16:9 displays
848
False
Could the 16:9 aspect ratio be easily resized by a normal LD player, or was the image significantly distorted?
57289f843acd2414000dfb88
distorted
831
False
What percent vertical resolution increase did Squeeze LDs feature over regular widescreen LDs?
57289f843acd2414000dfb89
33%
457
False
With the release of 16:9 televisions in the mid-1990s, Pioneer and Toshiba decided that it was time to take advantage of this aspect ratio. Squeeze LDs were enhanced 16:9-ratio widescreen LaserDiscs. During the video transfer stage, the movie was stored in an anamorphic "squeezed" format. The widescreen movie image was stretched to fill the entire video frame with less or none of the video resolution wasted to create letterbox bars. The advantage was a 33% greater vertical resolution compared to letterboxed widescreen LaserDisc. This same procedure was used for anamorphic DVDs, but unlike all DVD players, very few LD players had the ability to unsqueeze the image for 4:3 sets, and very few if any 4:3 sets could be set to play them properly either. If the discs were played on a standard 4:3 television the image would be distorted. Since very few people owned 16:9 displays, the marketability of these special discs was very limited.
Which movie was released twice on Squeeze LD?
5728a02e4b864d1900164af6
Terminator 2
527
False
What improvement was added to Terminator 2's second Squeeze LD release?
5728a02e4b864d1900164af7
THX certified
599
False
What Warner Brothers films were available in 16:9 aspect ratio Squeeze LDs?
5728a02e4b864d1900164af8
Unforgiven, Grumpy Old Men, The Fugitive, and Free Willy
226
False
What films were available for Japanese market Squeeze LDs?
5728a02e4b864d1900164af9
Basic Instinct, Stargate, Terminator 2: Judgment Day, Showgirls, Cutthroat Island, and Cliffhanger
427
False
There were no anamorphic LaserDisc titles available in the US except for promotional purposes. Upon purchase of a Toshiba 16:9 television viewers had the option of selecting a number of Warner Bros. 16:9 films. Titles include Unforgiven, Grumpy Old Men, The Fugitive, and Free Willy. The Japanese lineup of titles was different. A series of releases under the banner "SQUEEZE LD" from Pioneer of mostly Carolco titles included Basic Instinct, Stargate, Terminator 2: Judgment Day, Showgirls, Cutthroat Island, and Cliffhanger. Terminator 2 was released twice in Squeeze LD, the second release being THX certified and a notable improvement over the first.
What does the acronym RLV stand for?
5728a0c84b864d1900164afe
Recordable LaserVision disc
159
False
Which company originally developed and marketed the RLV?
5728a0c84b864d1900164aff
Optical Disc Corporation (ODC, now ODC Nimbus)
231
False
In what year did ODC develop the Recordable LaserVision Disc?
5728a0c84b864d1900164b00
1984.
281
False
Another form of recordable LaserDisc that is completely playback-compatible with the LaserDisc format (unlike CRVdisc with its caddy enclosure) is the RLV, or Recordable LaserVision disc. It was developed and first marketed by the Optical Disc Corporation (ODC, now ODC Nimbus) in 1984. RLV discs, like CRVdisc, are also a WORM technology, and function exactly like a CD-R disc. RLV discs look almost exactly like standard LaserDiscs, and can play in any standard LaserDisc player after they have been recorded.
What is the difference in appearance between an RLV disc and a regular LD?
5728a13eff5b5019007da34e
reflective purple-violet (or blue with some RLV discs) color
99
False
Why do RLV discs have a blue or purple reflective color?
5728a13eff5b5019007da34f
to make it recordable, as opposed to the silver mirror appearance of regular LDs
228
False
For what purpose were RLVs popular?
5728a13eff5b5019007da350
making short-run quantities of LaserDiscs for specialized applications such as interactive kiosks and flight simulators
401
False
What color were regular LaserDiscs, in contrast to RLVs blueish purple hues?
5728a13eff5b5019007da351
silver mirror
269
False
The only cosmetic difference between an RLV disc and a regular factory-pressed LaserDiscs is their reflective purple-violet (or blue with some RLV discs) color resulting from the dye embedded in the reflective layer of the disc to make it recordable, as opposed to the silver mirror appearance of regular LDs. The purplish color of RLVs is very similar to DVD-R and DVD+R discs. RLVs were popular for making short-run quantities of LaserDiscs for specialized applications such as interactive kiosks and flight simulators.
In contrast to large LD disks, what is the size of a standard CD?
5728a20a2ca10214002da4fa
12 cm (4.7 in)
16
False
What were CD size "single"-style discs called that were compatible with LaserDisc players?
5728a20a2ca10214002da4fb
CD Video (CD-V) discs, and Video Single Discs (VSD)
138
False
How much video content could be stored on a CD-V disk?
5728a20a2ca10214002da4fc
up to five minutes of analog LaserDisc-type video content
206
False
What were CD-V's video capacities usually used for?
5728a20a2ca10214002da4fd
music video
275
False
Which artist released a music video and three audio tracks on CD-V in 1989?
5728a20a2ca10214002da4fe
David Bowie
374
False
There were also 12 cm (4.7 in) (CD size) "single"-style discs produced that were playable on LaserDisc players. These were referred to as CD Video (CD-V) discs, and Video Single Discs (VSD). A CD-V carried up to five minutes of analog LaserDisc-type video content (usually a music video), as well as up to 20 minutes of digital audio CD tracks. The original 1989 release of David Bowie's retrospective Sound + Vision CD box set prominently featured a CD-V video of Ashes to Ashes, and standalone promo CD-Vs featured the video, plus three audio tracks: "John, I'm Only Dancing", "Changes", and "The Supermen".
What were VSDs lacking that CD-Vs included?
5728a2e94b864d1900164b0e
audio CD tracks
359
False
In what areas of the world were VSDs popular?
5728a2e94b864d1900164b0f
only in Japan and other parts of Asia
476
False
Were VSDs or CD-Vs all digital and also playable on DVD players?
5728a2e94b864d1900164b10
VSDs
314
False
CD-Vs are not to be confused with Video CDs (which are all-digital and can only be played on VCD players, DVD players, CD-i players, computers, and later-model LaserDisc players, such as the DVL series from Pioneer that can also play DVDs). CD-Vs can only be played back on LaserDisc players with CD-V capability. VSDs were the same as CD-Vs, but without the audio CD tracks. CD-Vs were somewhat popular for a brief time worldwide, but soon faded from view. VSDs were popular only in Japan and other parts of Asia, and were never fully introduced to the rest of the world.
George_VI
What year was Britain and allies victorious in the war?
572811b03acd2414000df3ab
1945
472
False
When did India and Pakistan gain independence?
572811b03acd2414000df3ac
1947
631
False
What title did George have in India prior to 1948?
572811b03acd2414000df3ad
Emperor of India
694
False
What did Ireland declare itself in 1950?
572811b03acd2414000df3ae
republic
774
False
1940
383
In what year was the Commonwealth of Nations established?
5a368e4b95360f001af1b27d
True
1941
392
In what year did George's reign begin?
5a368e4b95360f001af1b27e
True
1949
812
In what year did Elizabeth succeed King George?
5a368e4b95360f001af1b27f
True
Soviet Union
504
Who was one of Britain's allies during the war?
5a368e4b95360f001af1b280
True
Empire
50
What was India before becoming a republic?
5a368e4b95360f001af1b281
True
During George's reign the break-up of the British Empire and its transition into the Commonwealth of Nations accelerated. The parliament of the Irish Free State removed direct mention of the monarch from the country's constitution on the day of his accession. From 1939, the Empire and Commonwealth, except Ireland, was at war with Nazi Germany. War with Italy and Japan followed in 1940 and 1941, respectively. Though Britain and its allies were ultimately victorious in 1945, the United States and the Soviet Union rose as pre-eminent world powers and the British Empire declined. After the independence of India and Pakistan in 1947, George remained as king of both countries, but the title Emperor of India was abandoned in June 1948. Ireland formally declared itself a republic and left the Commonwealth in 1949, and India became a republic within the Commonwealth the following year. George adopted the new title of Head of the Commonwealth. He was beset by health problems in the later years of his reign. His elder daughter, Elizabeth, succeeded him.
What month and day was the death of Prince Albert?
572812523acd2414000df3bd
14 December
14
False
Who was Prince Albert's great grandmother?
572812523acd2414000df3be
Queen Victoria
894
False
What was Prince Albert's nickname?
572812523acd2414000df3bf
Bertie
1029
False
In which church was Prince Albert baptized?
572812523acd2414000df3c0
St. Mary Magdalene's Church
803
False
Victoria
182
What was the name of the Duchess of York?
5a368f3e95360f001af1b287
True
Albert
103
What was the name of the Duke of York?
5a368f3e95360f001af1b288
True
Victoria
182
Who was the Duchess of Teck?
5a368f3e95360f001af1b289
True
1895
26
In what year was Queen Victoria crowned?
5a368f3e95360f001af1b28a
True
14 December 1895
14
On what date did the Prince of Wales write to the Duke of York?
5a368f3e95360f001af1b28b
True
His birthday (14 December 1895) was the 34th anniversary of the death of his great-grandfather, Prince Albert, the Prince Consort. Uncertain of how the Prince Consort's widow, Queen Victoria, would take the news of the birth, the Prince of Wales wrote to the Duke of York that the Queen had been "rather distressed". Two days later, he wrote again: "I really think it would gratify her if you yourself proposed the name Albert to her". Queen Victoria was mollified by the proposal to name the new baby Albert, and wrote to the Duchess of York: "I am all impatience to see the new one, born on such a sad day but rather more dear to me, especially as he will be called by that dear name which is a byword for all that is great and good". Consequently, he was baptised "Albert Frederick Arthur George" at St. Mary Magdalene's Church near Sandringham three months later.[a] As a great-grandson of Queen Victoria, he was known formally as His Highness Prince Albert of York from birth. Within the family, he was known informally as "Bertie". His maternal grandmother, the Duchess of Teck, did not like the first name the baby had been given, and she wrote prophetically that she hoped the last name "may supplant the less favoured one".
Which ship did Alber train on in 1913?
5728132f4b864d19001643d8
HMS Cumberland
63
False
How many months did Albert spend in the Mediterranean in 1913?
5728132f4b864d19001643d9
three months
214
False
Which war did Albert serve in?
5728132f4b864d19001643da
First World War
361
False
Who gave Albert the nickname of "Mr Johnson"?
5728132f4b864d19001643db
fellow officers
253
False
What was the cause of Albert's ill health in 1917?
5728132f4b864d19001643dc
duodenal ulcer
677
False
1917
735
In what year did Albert leave the military?
5a36906895360f001af1b291
True
November
726
What was one of the months Albert served in the Mediterranean?
5a36906895360f001af1b292
True
September
188
In which month in 1913 did Albert start serving on the HMS Cumberland?
5a36906895360f001af1b293
True
1916
505
In what year did Albert start serving on the Collingwood?
5a36906895360f001af1b294
True
midshipman
148
What rank did Albert have while serving on the HMS Cumberland?
5a36906895360f001af1b295
True
Albert spent the first six months of 1913 on the training ship HMS Cumberland in the West Indies and on the east coast of Canada. He was rated as a midshipman aboard HMS Collingwood on 15 September 1913, and spent three months in the Mediterranean. His fellow officers gave him the nickname "Mr. Johnson". One year after his commission, he began service in the First World War. He was mentioned in despatches for his action as a turret officer aboard Collingwood in the Battle of Jutland (31 May – 1 June 1916), an indecisive engagement with the German navy that was the largest naval action of the war. He did not see further combat, largely because of ill health caused by a duodenal ulcer, for which he had an operation in November 1917.
What position was Albert appointed at Cranwell?
5728140b4b864d19001643f4
Officer in Charge of Boys at the Royal Naval Air Service
35
False
Which number squadron was Albert appointed commanding officer in 1918?
5728140b4b864d19001643f5
4
356
False
What year did Albert become a RAF pilot?
5728140b4b864d19001643f6
1919
1137
False
Who was the king of Belgium  in 1918?
5728140b4b864d19001643f7
King Albert
1019
False
1918
12
In what year was the Royal Air Force established?
5a36994695360f001af1b29b
True
Nancy, France
779
Where was the Royal Navy's headquarters?
5a36994695360f001af1b29c
True
31 July 1919
1129
On what date did the World War end?
5a36994695360f001af1b29d
True
31
1129
On what date in November 1918 was the Independent Air Force disbanded?
5a36994695360f001af1b29e
True
1918
12
In what year did King Albert have to leave Belgium?
5a36994695360f001af1b29f
True
In February 1918, he was appointed Officer in Charge of Boys at the Royal Naval Air Service's training establishment at Cranwell. With the establishment of the Royal Air Force two months later and the transfer of Cranwell from Navy to Air Force control, he transferred from the Royal Navy to the Royal Air Force. He was appointed Officer Commanding Number 4 Squadron of the Boys' Wing at Cranwell until August 1918, before reporting to the RAF's Cadet School at St Leonards-on-Sea where he completed a fortnight's training and took command of a squadron on the Cadet Wing. He was the first member of the royal family to be certified as a fully qualified pilot. During the closing weeks of the war, he served on the staff of the RAF's Independent Air Force at its headquarters in Nancy, France. Following the disbanding of the Independent Air Force in November 1918, he remained on the Continent for two months as a staff officer with the Royal Air Force until posted back to Britain. He accompanied the Belgian monarch King Albert on his triumphal reentry into Brussels on 22 November. Prince Albert qualified as an RAF pilot on 31 July 1919 and gained a promotion to squadron leader on the following day.
What did Albert study in Trinity College?
572814934b864d1900164404
history, economics and civics
80
False
What was Albert's nickname as he toured coal mines, factories, and railyards?
572814934b864d1900164405
Industrial Prince
374
False
Who is Albert's older brother?
572814934b864d1900164406
Edward
543
False
Which sport was Albert proficient at?
572814934b864d1900164407
tennis
605
False
Which society was Albert the president of?
572814934b864d1900164408
Industrial Welfare Society
783
False
Edward
543
Who was Albert's father?
5a369a8c95360f001af1b2a5
True
1920
132
In what year was Albert elected as the President of the Industrial Welfare Society?
5a369a8c95360f001af1b2a6
True
Louis Greig
662
Who was one of the players Albert lost to in his match at Wimbledon?
5a369a8c95360f001af1b2a7
True
1926
677
In what year did Louis Greig begin playing tennis?
5a369a8c95360f001af1b2a8
True
tennis
605
What sport did Edward enjoy?
5a369a8c95360f001af1b2a9
True
In October 1919, Albert went up to Trinity College, Cambridge, where he studied history, economics and civics for a year. On 4 June 1920, he was created Duke of York, Earl of Inverness and Baron Killarney. He began to take on more royal duties. He represented his father, and toured coal mines, factories, and railyards. Through such visits he acquired the nickname of the "Industrial Prince". His stammer, and his embarrassment over it, together with his tendency to shyness, caused him to appear much less impressive than his older brother, Edward. However, he was physically active and enjoyed playing tennis. He played at Wimbledon in the Men's Doubles with Louis Greig in 1926, losing in the first round. He developed an interest in working conditions, and was President of the Industrial Welfare Society. His series of annual summer camps for boys between 1921 and 1939 brought together boys from different social backgrounds.
Who was Albert infatuated with?
5728155d3acd2414000df411
Sheila, Lady Loughborough
208
False
Who was the youngest daughter of Earl and Countess of Strathmore and Kinghorne?
5728155d3acd2414000df412
Lady Elizabeth Bowes-Lyon
410
False
How many times did Elizabeth reject Albert's proposal?
5728155d3acd2414000df413
twice
574
False
Who were royals usually expected to marry?
5728155d3acd2414000df414
fellow royals
45
False
Albert
80
Who was the Australian socialite Sheila married to?
5a369b8495360f001af1b2af
True
Sheila
208
What was the name of Lady Elizabeth's mother?
5a369b8495360f001af1b2b0
True
1921
584
In what year did Albert first meet Lady Elizabeth?
5a369b8495360f001af1b2b1
True
Australian
187
What nationality was Lady Elizabeth?
5a369b8495360f001af1b2b2
True
1922
593
In what year did Albert and Elizabeth marry?
5a369b8495360f001af1b2b3
True
In a time when royals were expected to marry fellow royals, it was unusual that Albert had a great deal of freedom in choosing a prospective wife. An infatuation with the already-married Australian socialite Sheila, Lady Loughborough, came to an end in April 1920 when the King, with the promise of the dukedom of York, persuaded Albert to stop seeing her. That year, he met for the first time since childhood Lady Elizabeth Bowes-Lyon, the youngest daughter of the Earl and Countess of Strathmore and Kinghorne. He became determined to marry her. She rejected his proposal twice, in 1921 and 1922, reportedly because she was reluctant to make the sacrifices necessary to become a member of the royal family. In the words of Lady Elizabeth's mother, Albert would be "made or marred" by his choice of wife. After a protracted courtship, Elizabeth agreed to marry him.
Why did Albert fear speaking in public?
572815fbff5b5019007d9ccc
his stammer
11
False
Who helped Albert improve in public speaking?
572815fbff5b5019007d9ccd
Lionel Logue
217
False
What did Albert play partnered with a black man?
572815fbff5b5019007d9cce
doubles tennis
647
False
What did the Duke open in Australia in 1927?
572815fbff5b5019007d9ccf
Parliament House
473
False
Lionel Logue
217
What was the name of the Duchess?
5a369c7695360f001af1b2b9
True
October
131
In what month did Albert visit Jamaica?
5a369c7695360f001af1b2ba
True
October
131
In what month did Albert begin his tour of the empire?
5a369c7695360f001af1b2bb
True
31 October 1925
128
On what date did Albert speak at the new Parliament House in Canberra, Australia?
5a369c7695360f001af1b2bc
True
Australia
573
In what country is Wembley?
5a369c7695360f001af1b2bd
True
Because of his stammer, Albert dreaded public speaking. After his closing speech at the British Empire Exhibition at Wembley on 31 October 1925, one which was an ordeal for both him and his listeners, he began to see Lionel Logue, an Australian-born speech therapist. The Duke and Logue practised breathing exercises, and the Duchess rehearsed with him patiently. Subsequently, he was able to speak with less hesitation. With his delivery improved, the Duke opened the new Parliament House in Canberra, Australia, during a tour of the empire in 1927. His journey by sea to Australia, New Zealand and Fiji took him via Jamaica, where Albert played doubles tennis partnered with a black man, which was unusual at the time and taken locally as a display of equality between races.
What was Elizabeth's nickname?
57281684ff5b5019007d9cda
Lilibet
66
False
Who were the Duke and Duchess of York's children?
57281684ff5b5019007d9cdb
Elizabeth (called "Lilibet" by the family), and Margaret
47
False
What was the name of Duke of York's London residence?
57281684ff5b5019007d9cdc
145 Piccadilly
211
False
Who advised against the Duke becoming the Governor General of Canada?
57281684ff5b5019007d9cdd
J. H. Thomas
500
False
What position did J. H. Thomas hold?
57281684ff5b5019007d9cde
Secretary of State for Dominion Affairs
459
False
1931
394
In what year was Elizabeth born?
5a369da595360f001af1b2c3
True
1931
394
In what year was Margaret born?
5a369da595360f001af1b2c4
True
1931
394
In what year did R.B. Bennett become the Canadian Prime Minister?
5a369da595360f001af1b2c5
True
1931
394
In what year was King George V crowned?
5a369da595360f001af1b2c6
True
145 Piccadilly
211
At what address in London did J.H. Thomas live?
5a369da595360f001af1b2c7
True
The Duke and Duchess of York had two children: Elizabeth (called "Lilibet" by the family), and Margaret. The Duke and Duchess and their two daughters lived a relatively sheltered life at their London residence, 145 Piccadilly. They were a close and loving family. One of the few stirs arose when the Canadian Prime Minister, R. B. Bennett, considered the Duke for Governor General of Canada in 1931—a proposal that King George V rejected on the advice of the Secretary of State for Dominion Affairs, J. H. Thomas.
Why was Albert the heir presumptive to the throne?
5728171d3acd2414000df44b
Edward was unmarried and had no children
3
False
What was wrong with Edward marrying Wallis Simpson?
5728171d3acd2414000df44c
divorced woman with two living ex-husbands
381
False
What did Edward do to marry Wallis Simpson?
5728171d3acd2414000df44d
abdication
438
False
Who is Edward's mother?
5728171d3acd2414000df44e
Queen Mary
629
False
How did Edward react when he became heir to the throne?
5728171d3acd2414000df44f
broke down and sobbed like a child
702
False
Albert
45
Who was Wallis Simpson's second husband?
5a369ef295360f001af1b2cd
True
no children
32
How many children did Albert have in 1936?
5a369ef295360f001af1b2ce
True
11 December 1936
119
On what date did Albert become king?
5a369ef295360f001af1b2cf
True
11 December 1936
119
On what date was Edward made the king of England?
5a369ef295360f001af1b2d0
True
Queen Mary
629
Who did Edward replaces as the King of England?
5a369ef295360f001af1b2d1
True
As Edward was unmarried and had no children, Albert was the heir presumptive to the throne. Less than a year later, on 11 December 1936, Edward VIII abdicated in order to marry his mistress, Wallis Simpson, who was divorced from her first husband and divorcing her second. Edward had been advised by British Prime Minister Stanley Baldwin that he could not remain king and marry a divorced woman with two living ex-husbands. Edward chose abdication in preference to abandoning his marriage plans. Thus Albert became king, a position he was reluctant to accept. The day before the abdication, he went to London to see his mother, Queen Mary. He wrote in his diary, "When I told her what had happened, I broke down and sobbed like a child."
What is the Oireachtas?
57281846ff5b5019007d9d18
the parliament of the Irish Free State
46
False
What did the Oireachtas remove from the Irish constitution?
57281846ff5b5019007d9d19
all direct mention of the monarch
94
False
Which act gave the monarch limited authority in Ireland?
57281846ff5b5019007d9d1a
External Relations Act
185
False
What day did the Oireachtas pass an act that started to establish Ireland as a republic?
57281846ff5b5019007d9d1b
day of the abdication
7
False
the monarch
220
Who abdicated?
5a36a08095360f001af1b2d7
True
External Relations Act
185
What was the name of the first act?
5a36a08095360f001af1b2d8
True
the monarch
220
Who established the Oireachtas?
5a36a08095360f001af1b2d9
True
Irish Free State
68
Where was the Commonwealth headquartered?
5a36a08095360f001af1b2da
True
On the day of the abdication, the Oireachtas, the parliament of the Irish Free State, removed all direct mention of the monarch from the Irish constitution. The next day, it passed the External Relations Act, which gave the monarch limited authority (strictly on the advice of the government) to appoint diplomatic representatives for Ireland and to be involved in the making of foreign treaties. The two acts made the Irish Free State a republic in essence without removing its links to the Commonwealth.
What regnal name did Albert adopt?
572819294b864d1900164476
George VI
32
False
What title did Albert give Edward?
572819294b864d1900164477
His Royal Highness The Duke of Windsor
611
False
What did Albert bestow onto his wife on his 41st birthday?
572819294b864d1900164478
the Order of the Garter
1044
False
Which two residences did Albert buy from Edward?
572819294b864d1900164479
Balmoral Castle and Sandringham House
823
False
41st birthday
979
What birthday did George IV's queen consort have before being invested with the Order of the Garter?
5a36a26395360f001af1b2df
True
George VI
32
What was Edward's regnal name?
5a36a26395360f001af1b2e0
True
George VI
32
Who did Edward succeed as king?
5a36a26395360f001af1b2e1
True
Balmoral Castle
823
What royal residence did George VI own?
5a36a26395360f001af1b2e2
True
Windsor
642
In what city is Sandringham House?
5a36a26395360f001af1b2e3
True
Albert assumed the regnal name "George VI" to emphasise continuity with his father and restore confidence in the monarchy. The beginning of George VI's reign was taken up by questions surrounding his predecessor and brother, whose titles, style and position were uncertain. He had been introduced as "His Royal Highness Prince Edward" for the abdication broadcast, but George VI felt that by abdicating and renouncing the succession Edward had lost the right to bear royal titles, including "Royal Highness". In settling the issue, George's first act as king was to confer upon his brother the title and style "His Royal Highness The Duke of Windsor", but the Letters Patent creating the dukedom prevented any wife or children from bearing royal styles. George VI was also forced to buy from Edward the royal residences of Balmoral Castle and Sandringham House, as these were private properties and did not pass to George VI automatically. Three days after his accession, on his 41st birthday, he invested his wife, the new queen consort, with the Order of the Garter.
What day did George VI become coronated?
572819ff3acd2414000df48b
12 May 1937
37
False
Who attended the coronation that was a break from tradition?
572819ff3acd2414000df48c
Queen Mary
131
False
How many overseas tours happened after the coronation to France and North America?
572819ff3acd2414000df48d
Two
571
False
In which city are Durbars usually held?
572819ff3acd2414000df48e
Delhi
226
False
12 May 1937
37
On what date did the Second World War start?
5a36a34395360f001af1b2e9
True
12 May 1937
37
On what date did Edward abdicate the throne?
5a36a34395360f001af1b2ea
True
2 May 1937
38
On what date did George VI  begin his visit to France?
5a36a34395360f001af1b2eb
True
North America
624
What continent is France on?
5a36a34395360f001af1b2ec
True
George VI's coronation took place on 12 May 1937, the date previously intended for Edward's coronation. In a break with tradition, Queen Mary attended the ceremony in a show of support for her son. There was no Durbar held in Delhi for George VI, as had occurred for his father, as the cost would have been a burden to the government of India. Rising Indian nationalism made the welcome that the royal couple would have received likely to be muted at best, and a prolonged absence from Britain would have been undesirable in the tense period before the Second World War. Two overseas tours were undertaken, to France and to North America, both of which promised greater strategic advantages in the event of war.
Which prime minister was the King constitutionally bound to support?
57281af83acd2414000df49d
Neville Chamberlain
142
False
Which agreement was signed in 1938?
57281af83acd2414000df49e
Munich Agreement
275
False
The balcony in which palace is famous for being where the royal family makes appearances?
57281af83acd2414000df49f
Buckingham Palace
346
False
Which historian commented that the king's act in associating with Chamberlain as unconstitutional?
57281af83acd2414000df4a0
John Grigg
688
False
1938
295
In what year did  George IV reign begin?
5a36a4ce95360f001af1b2f1
True
Munich
275
What city is Buckingham Palace in?
5a36a4ce95360f001af1b2f2
True
1938
295
In what year did the historian John Grigg accuse George VI of violating the constitution?
5a36a4ce95360f001af1b2f3
True
appeasement
164
What was the House of Commons policy towards Hitler?
5a36a4ce95360f001af1b2f4
True
The growing likelihood of war in Europe dominated the early reign of George VI. The King was constitutionally bound to support Prime Minister Neville Chamberlain's appeasement of Hitler. However, when the King and Queen greeted Chamberlain on his return from negotiating the Munich Agreement in 1938, they invited him to appear on the balcony of Buckingham Palace with them. This public association of the monarchy with a politician was exceptional, as balcony appearances were traditionally restricted to the royal family. While broadly popular among the general public, Chamberlain's policy towards Hitler was the subject of some opposition in the House of Commons, which led historian John Grigg to describe the King's behaviour in associating himself so prominently with a politician as "the most unconstitutional act by a British sovereign in the present century".
Which two countries did the King and Queen tour in 1939?
57281c622ca10214002d9e0a
Canada and the United States
48
False
Who was the prime minister of Canada in 1939?
57281c622ca10214002d9e0b
William Lyon Mackenzie King
163
False
What title was the king and queen presented with when touring Canada?
57281c622ca10214002d9e0c
King and Queen of Canada
234
False
What was Roper's position?
57281c622ca10214002d9e0d
U.S. Ambassador to Canada
731
False
What did the Statute of Westminster do?
57281c622ca10214002d9e0e
gave full sovereignty to the British Dominions
595
False
In May and June 1939, the King and Queen toured Canada and the United States. From Ottawa, the royal couple were accompanied throughout by Canadian Prime Minister William Lyon Mackenzie King, to present themselves in North America as King and Queen of Canada. George was the first reigning monarch of Canada to visit North America, although he had been to Canada previously as Prince Albert and as Duke of York. Both Governor General of Canada Lord Tweedsmuir and Mackenzie King hoped that the King's presence in Canada would demonstrate the principles of the Statute of Westminster 1931, which gave full sovereignty to the British Dominions. On 19 May, George VI personally accepted and approved the Letter of Credence of the new U.S. Ambassador to Canada, Daniel Calhoun Roper; gave Royal Assent to nine parliamentary bills; and ratified two international treaties with the Great Seal of Canada. The official royal tour historian, Gustave Lanctot, wrote "the Statute of Westminster had assumed full reality" and George gave a speech emphasising "the free and equal association of the nations of the Commonwealth".
What kind of tendencies did North America have?
57281cf44b864d19001644b6
isolationist tendencies
43
False
Who was George's predecessor?
57281cf44b864d19001644b7
Edward VIII
408
False
Who was the President of the United States in 1939?
57281cf44b864d19001644b8
President Franklin D. Roosevelt
496
False
Which fair was happening in New York in 1939?
57281cf44b864d19001644b9
1939 New York World's Fair
453
False
1939
453
In what year did Edward Viii abdicate?
5a36b1b295360f001af1b2f9
True
New York
587
In what city is the White House?
5a36b1b295360f001af1b2fa
True
1939
453
In what year was Franklin D. Roosevelt made president?
5a36b1b295360f001af1b2fb
True
1939
453
In what year was George crowned?
5a36b1b295360f001af1b2fc
True
The trip was intended to soften the strong isolationist tendencies among the North American public with regard to the developing tensions in Europe. Although the aim of the tour was mainly political, to shore up Atlantic support for the United Kingdom in any future war, the King and Queen were enthusiastically received by the public. The fear that George would be compared unfavourably to his predecessor, Edward VIII, was dispelled. They visited the 1939 New York World's Fair and stayed with President Franklin D. Roosevelt at the White House and at his private estate at Hyde Park, New York. A strong bond of friendship was forged between the King and Queen and the President during the tour, which had major significance in the relations between the United States and the United Kingdom through the ensuing war years.
Against who did Britain declare war against in 1939?
57281dc22ca10214002d9e28
Nazi Germany
94
False
Which city did the king and queen stay in even with the bombing threats?
57281dc22ca10214002d9e29
London
151
False
How many people died on the first German raid on London?
57281dc22ca10214002d9e2a
one thousand civilians
374
False
What year did the King's brother die in service?
57281dc22ca10214002d9e2b
1942
1034
False
Eleanor Roosevelt
871
What was the Queen's name?
5a36b2f895360f001af1b301
True
August 1942
1027
In what month and year did Eleanor Roosevelt visit London?
5a36b2f895360f001af1b302
True
13
425
On what date in August 1942 was Prince George killed?
5a36b2f895360f001af1b303
True
one thousand
374
How many civilians were killed in the East End on 7 September 1940?
5a36b2f895360f001af1b304
True
7
343
On what date in September 1939 did Britain declare war on Nazi Germany?
5a36b2f895360f001af1b305
True
In September 1939, Britain and the self-governing Dominions, but not Ireland, declared war on Nazi Germany. George VI and his wife resolved to stay in London, despite German bombing raids. They officially stayed in Buckingham Palace throughout the war, although they usually spent nights at Windsor Castle. The first German raid on London, on 7 September 1940, killed about one thousand civilians, mostly in the East End. On 13 September, the King and Queen narrowly avoided death when two German bombs exploded in a courtyard at Buckingham Palace while they were there. In defiance, the Queen famously declared: "I am glad we have been bombed. It makes me feel we can look the East End in the face". The royal family were portrayed as sharing the same dangers and deprivations as the rest of the country. They were subject to rationing restrictions, and U.S. First Lady Eleanor Roosevelt remarked on the rationed food served and the limited bathwater that was permitted during a stay at the unheated and boarded-up Palace. In August 1942, the King's brother, Prince George, Duke of Kent, was killed on active service.
Who was Winston Churchill's predecessor?
57281e423acd2414000df4e3
Neville Chamberlain
36
False
What position did Churchill hold?
57281e423acd2414000df4e4
Prime Minister
59
False
What day of the week did Churchill and the King meet?
57281e423acd2414000df4e5
Tuesday
378
False
Who did Churchill appoint to Cabinet that the King did not like?
57281e423acd2414000df4e6
Lord Beaverbrook
210
False
Neville Chamberlain
36
Who was Lord Halifax in 1940?
5a36b43195360f001af1b30b
True
Winston Churchill
9
Who was Lord Beaverbrook in 1940?
5a36b43195360f001af1b30c
True
September 1940
417
In what month and year did the war start?
5a36b43195360f001af1b30d
True
Neville Chamberlain
36
Who replaced Winston Churchill as Prime Minister?
5a36b43195360f001af1b30e
True
In 1940, Winston Churchill replaced Neville Chamberlain as Prime Minister, though personally George would have preferred to appoint Lord Halifax. After the King's initial dismay over Churchill's appointment of Lord Beaverbrook to the Cabinet, he and Churchill developed "the closest personal relationship in modern British history between a monarch and a Prime Minister". Every Tuesday for four and a half years from September 1940, the two men met privately for lunch to discuss the war in secret and with frankness.
What country did the King and Queen visit in July 1944?
57281f423acd2414000df4ff
Italy
293
False
When did the King and Queen visit North Africa and Malta?
57281f423acd2414000df500
June 1943
250
False
What improved when the King and Queen visited different military sites?
57281f423acd2414000df501
morale
48
False
July
302
In what month in 1944 did the King meet Sir Alan Brooke?
5a36b52b95360f001af1b313
True
France
199
What is one of the Low Countries?
5a36b52b95360f001af1b314
True
1939
218
In what year was Bernard Montgomery made the Field Marshal?
5a36b52b95360f001af1b315
True
1944
307
In what year did British military forces enter Southern Italy?
5a36b52b95360f001af1b316
True
1944
500
In what year was Sir Alan brooke made the Chief of the Imperial General Staff?
5a36b52b95360f001af1b317
True
Throughout the war, the King and Queen provided morale-boosting visits throughout the United Kingdom, visiting bomb sites, munitions factories, and troops. The King visited military forces abroad in France in December 1939, North Africa and Malta in June 1943, Normandy in June 1944, southern Italy in July 1944, and the Low Countries in October 1944. Their high public profile and apparently indefatigable determination secured their place as symbols of national resistance. At a social function in 1944, Chief of the Imperial General Staff Sir Alan Brooke, revealed that every time he met Field Marshal Bernard Montgomery he thought he was after his job. The King replied: "You should worry, when I meet him, I always think he's after mine!"
What is the association of independent states in Britain called?
572820333acd2414000df505
the Commonwealth
305
False
What two dominions did British India become?
572820333acd2414000df506
India and Pakistan
458
False
What country left the Commonwealth in January 1948?
572820333acd2414000df507
Burma
852
False
What year was the Republic of Ireland formed?
572820333acd2414000df508
1949
973
False
1947
480
In what year did the Second World War end?
5a36b63895360f001af1b31d
True
January
861
In what month in 1950 did George VI cease being the King of India?
5a36b63895360f001af1b31e
True
May
933
In what month in 1949 did the Republic of Ireland leave the Commonwealth?
5a36b63895360f001af1b31f
True
1947
480
In what year did Clement Attlee become the minister?
5a36b63895360f001af1b320
True
1949
973
In what year did George VI die?
5a36b63895360f001af1b321
True
George VI's reign saw the acceleration of the dissolution of the British Empire. The Statute of Westminster 1931 had already acknowledged the evolution of the Dominions into separate sovereign states. The process of transformation from an empire to a voluntary association of independent states, known as the Commonwealth, gathered pace after the Second World War. During the ministry of Clement Attlee, British India became the two independent dominions of India and Pakistan in 1947. George relinquished the title of Emperor of India, and became King of India and King of Pakistan instead. In 1950 he ceased to be King of India when it became a republic within the Commonwealth of Nations, but he remained King of Pakistan until his death and India recognised his new title of Head of the Commonwealth. Other countries left the Commonwealth, such as Burma in January 1948, Palestine (divided between Israel and the Arab states) in May 1948 and the Republic of Ireland in 1949.
Who was the Prime Minister of South Africa in 1947?
57282116ff5b5019007d9da6
Jan Smuts
106
False
What were the King's South African bodyguards referred as?
57282116ff5b5019007d9da7
the Gestapo
354
False
Who instructed the King to only shake hands with whites in South Africa?
57282116ff5b5019007d9da8
South African government
247
False
1947
3
In what year did Jan Smuts become Prime Minister?
5a36b71595360f001af1b327
True
Jan Smuts
106
Whose South African government instituted a strict policy of racial segregation?
5a36b71595360f001af1b328
True
whites
297
What race were the South African bodyguards?
5a36b71595360f001af1b329
True
1947
3
In what year did George become King?
5a36b71595360f001af1b32a
True
In 1947, the King and his family toured Southern Africa. The Prime Minister of the Union of South Africa, Jan Smuts, was facing an election and hoped to make political capital out of the visit. George was appalled, however, when instructed by the South African government to shake hands only with whites, and referred to his South African bodyguards as "the Gestapo". Despite the tour, Smuts lost the election the following year, and the new government instituted a strict policy of racial segregation.
What kind of cancer did the King develop?
572821d23acd2414000df545
lung cancer
126
False
What developed in the King's right leg that prevented him from touring Australia?
572821d23acd2414000df546
arterial blockage
304
False
What treatment helped prevent the loss of the King's right leg?
572821d23acd2414000df547
right lumbar sympathectomy
400
False
Who was the King's heir presumptive?
572821d23acd2414000df548
Elizabeth
461
False
Who was Elizabeth's spouse?
572821d23acd2414000df549
Duke of Edinburgh
628
False
Clement Price Thomas
812
Who performed the right lumbar sympathectomy on George?
5a36b82595360f001af1b32f
True
23
764
On what date in March 1949 did George undergo a right lumbar sympathectomy procedure?
5a36b82595360f001af1b330
True
Elizabeth
597
What was George's younger daughters name?
5a36b82595360f001af1b331
True
Clement Price Thomas
812
Who was the Duke of Edinburgh?
5a36b82595360f001af1b332
True
1949
436
In what year was Lord Simonds made the Lord Chancellor?
5a36b82595360f001af1b333
True
The stress of the war had taken its toll on the King's health, exacerbated by his heavy smoking and subsequent development of lung cancer among other ailments, including arteriosclerosis and thromboangiitis obliterans. A planned tour of Australia and New Zealand was postponed after the King suffered an arterial blockage in his right leg, which threatened the loss of the leg and was treated with a right lumbar sympathectomy in March 1949. His elder daughter Elizabeth, the heir presumptive, took on more royal duties as her father's health deteriorated. The delayed tour was re-organised, with Elizabeth and her husband, the Duke of Edinburgh, taking the place of the King and Queen. The King was well enough to open the Festival of Britain in May 1951, but on 23 September 1951, his left lung was removed by Clement Price Thomas after a malignant tumour was found. In October 1951, Princess Elizabeth and the Duke of Edinburgh went on a month-long tour of Canada; the trip had been delayed for a week due to the King's illness. At the State Opening of Parliament in November, the King's speech from the throne was read for him by the Lord Chancellor, Lord Simonds. His Christmas broadcast of 1951 was recorded in sections, and then edited together.
What church did the King's funeral take place on the 15th?
572822c9ff5b5019007d9dcc
Windsor Castle
197
False
What year did Queen Elizabeth die?
572822c9ff5b5019007d9dcd
2002
375
False
What year did Princess Margaret die?
572822c9ff5b5019007d9dce
2002
375
False
In which chapel does King George's body lie in today?
572822c9ff5b5019007d9dcf
King George VI Memorial Chapel
303
False
Sandringham
77
In what city is Westminster Hall?
5a36b92a95360f001af1b339
True
Sandringham
77
In what city is the King George VI Memorial Chapel?
5a36b92a95360f001af1b33a
True
Sandringham
77
Where was Princess Margaret when she died?
5a36b92a95360f001af1b33b
True
26 March 1969
357
On what date was Queen Elizabeth crowned?
5a36b92a95360f001af1b33c
True
St. Mary Magdalene Church
50
Where was Queen Elizabeth crowned?
5a36b92a95360f001af1b33d
True
From 9 February for two days his coffin rested in St. Mary Magdalene Church, Sandringham, before lying in state at Westminster Hall from 11 February. His funeral took place at St. George's Chapel, Windsor Castle, on the 15th. He was interred initially in the Royal Vault until he was transferred to the King George VI Memorial Chapel inside St. George's on 26 March 1969. In 2002, fifty years after his death, the remains of his widow, Queen Elizabeth The Queen Mother, and the ashes of his younger daughter Princess Margaret, who both died that year, were interred in the chapel alongside him.
How high was public faith in the monarchy when King George assumed the throne?
572823832ca10214002d9eb6
low
381
False
What position did George Hardie hold?
572823832ca10214002d9eb7
Labour Member of Parliament
16
False
Who was George VI's brother?
572823832ca10214002d9eb8
Edward
181
False
1936
84
In what year did George Hardie become a member of Parliament?
5a36b9f895360f001af1b343
True
1936
84
In what year did the war end?
5a36b9f895360f001af1b344
True
1936
84
In what year did George VI write a letter to his brother Edward saying he assumed "a rocking throne"?
5a36b9f895360f001af1b345
True
George Hardie
44
Who abdicated in 1936?
5a36b9f895360f001af1b346
True
In the words of Labour Member of Parliament George Hardie, the abdication crisis of 1936 did "more for republicanism than fifty years of propaganda". George VI wrote to his brother Edward that in the aftermath of the abdication he had reluctantly assumed "a rocking throne", and tried "to make it steady again". He became king at a point when public faith in the monarchy was at a low ebb. During his reign his people endured the hardships of war, and imperial power was eroded. However, as a dutiful family man and by showing personal courage, he succeeded in restoring the popularity of the monarchy.
Federalism
What is federalism?
572820664b864d19001644f6
Federalism refers to the mixed or compound mode of government
0
False
In Federalism, are the division of powers equal?
572820664b864d19001644f7
division of powers between two levels of government of equal status
558
False
What type of governments are included in federalism?
572820664b864d19001644f8
general government (the central or 'federal' government) with regional governments
75
False
How many governments are apart of federalism?
572820664b864d19001644f9
relationship of parity between the two levels of government
418
False
mode of government, combining a general government (the central or 'federal' government) with regional governments
43
What isn't federalism?
5acf992d77cf76001a6853da
True
a relationship of parity between the two levels of government established
416
What features are indistinctive of federalism?
5acf992d77cf76001a6853db
True
Constitution of 1789
391
What document rejected modern federalist government?
5acf992d77cf76001a6853dc
True
a relationship of parity between the two levels of government established
416
What distinguishes Federalism from no other types of government?
5acf992d77cf76001a6853dd
True
general government (the central or 'federal' government) with regional governments
75
Federalism combines what three types of government?
5acf992d77cf76001a6853de
True
Federalism refers to the mixed or compound mode of government, combining a general government (the central or 'federal' government) with regional governments (provincial, state, Land, cantonal, territorial or other sub-unit governments) in a single political system. Its distinctive feature, exemplified in the founding example of modern federalism of the United States of America under the Constitution of 1789, is a relationship of parity between the two levels of government established. It can thus be defined as a form of government in which there is a division of powers between two levels of government of equal status.
Before new research, what was the definition of federalism?
5728233a2ca10214002d9eac
a division of sovereignty between two levels of government
135
False
After new research, what was the final definition of federalism?
5728233a2ca10214002d9ead
final and absolute source of political authority in a political community - is not possible.
349
False
When was federalism put into place?
5728233a2ca10214002d9eae
The descent of the United States into Civil War in the mid-nineteenth century
442
False
What is the difference between multi-level political forms and federalism?
5728233a2ca10214002d9eaf
the characteristic of equality of standing between the two levels of government established
983
False
What is an example of a federal union?
5728233a2ca10214002d9eb0
the European Union
1565
False
Civil War
480
What historical event illustrated that dividing sovereignty was possible?
5acf99d377cf76001a685400
True
two distinct federal forms
1131
Old research has clarified that Federalism has how many distinct forms?
5acf99d377cf76001a685401
True
European Union
1569
What organization is a leading example of a local union?
5acf99d377cf76001a685402
True
equality of standing between the two levels of government
1005
What distinguishes Federalism from other single-level governments?
5acf99d377cf76001a685403
True
federal state (or federation)
1299
What form of Federalism is characterized by where sovereignty resides in the partial?
5acf99d377cf76001a685404
True
Until recently, in the absence of prior agreement on a clear and precise definition, the concept was thought to mean (as a shorthand) 'a division of sovereignty between two levels of government'. New research, however, argues that this cannot be correct, as dividing sovereignty - when this concept is properly understood in its core meaning of the final and absolute source of political authority in a political community - is not possible. The descent of the United States into Civil War in the mid-nineteenth century, over disputes about unallocated competences concerning slavery and ultimately the right of secession, showed this. One or other level of government could be sovereign to decide such matters, but not both simultaneously. Therefore, it is now suggested that federalism is more appropriately conceived as 'a division of the powers flowing from sovereignty between two levels of government'. What differentiates the concept from other multi-level political forms is the characteristic of equality of standing between the two levels of government established. This clarified definition opens the way to identifying two distinct federal forms, where before only one was known, based upon whether sovereignty resides in the whole (in one people) or in the parts (in many peoples): the federal state (or federation) and the federal union of states (or federal union), respectively. Leading examples of the federal state include the United States, Germany, Canada, Switzerland, Australia and India. The leading example of the federal union of states is the European Union.
What is the Latin word for federalism?
5728266d3acd2414000df5a1
foedus
78
False
What was federalism and confederalism common meaning in the 18th century?
5728266d3acd2414000df5a2
a simple league or inter-governmental relationship among sovereign states based upon a treaty.
179
False
What did James Madison referred to the new United States as?
5728266d3acd2414000df5a3
'neither a national nor a federal Constitution, but a composition of both
412
False
foedus
78
What isn't the Latin word for federalism?
5acf9a3777cf76001a685412
True
a simple league or inter-governmental relationship among sovereign states based upon a treaty
179
What was federalism and confederalism common meaning in the 17th century?
5acf9a3777cf76001a685413
True
'neither a national nor a federal Constitution, but a composition of both'
412
What did James Madison referred to the old United States as?
5acf9a3777cf76001a685414
True
'neither a national nor a federal Constitution, but a composition of both'
412
What did John Madison referred to the new United States as?
5acf9a3777cf76001a685415
True
'neither a national nor a federal Constitution, but a composition of both'
412
What did James Madison referred to the new United Nations as?
5acf9a3777cf76001a685416
True
The terms 'federalism' and 'confederalism' both have a root in the Latin word foedus, meaning treaty, pact or covenant. Their common meaning until the late eighteenth century was a simple league or inter-governmental relationship among sovereign states based upon a treaty. They were therefore initially synonyms. It was in this sense that James Madison in Federalist 39 had referred to the new United States as 'neither a national nor a federal Constitution, but a composition of both' (ie. neither a single large unitary state nor a league/confederation among several small states, but a hybrid of the two). In the course of the nineteenth century the meaning of federalism would come to shift, strengthening to refer uniquely to the novel compound political form, while the meaning of confederalism would remain at a league of states. Thus, this article relates to the modern usage of the word 'federalism'.
Where does the federalist model work best in?
572827732ca10214002d9f5c
homogeneous states
167
False
What are homogeneous states?
572827732ca10214002d9f5d
United States, Germany or Australia
198
False
Where can tensions be found in the federalist countries?
572827732ca10214002d9f5e
Canada
382
False
What countries did the federalist model fail in?
572827732ca10214002d9f5f
Yugoslavia or Czechoslovakia
620
False
What countries dismissed the federalist model?
572827732ca10214002d9f60
Ukraine or Syria
582
False
homogeneous states
167
Where does the federalist model work worst in?
5acf9b5f77cf76001a68545c
True
United States, Germany or Australia
198
What aren't homogeneous states?
5acf9b5f77cf76001a68545d
True
Canada
382
Where can't tensions be found in the federalist countries?
5acf9b5f77cf76001a68545e
True
Yugoslavia or Czechoslovakia
620
What countries did the federalist model succeed in?
5acf9b5f77cf76001a68545f
True
Ukraine or Syria
582
What countries embraced the federalist model?
5acf9b5f77cf76001a685460
True
Whilst it is often perceived as an optimal solution for states comprising different cultural or ethnic communities, the federalist model seems to work best in largely homogeneous states such as the United States, Germany or Australia, but there is also evidence to the contrary such as in Switzerland. Tensions between territories can still be found in federalist countries such as Canada and federation as a way to appease and quell military conflict has failed recently in places like Lybia or Iraq, while the formula is simultaneously proposed and dismissed in countries such as Ukraine or Syria. Federations such as Yugoslavia or Czechoslovakia collapsed as soon as it was possible to put the model to the test.
In the United States, what was federalism referred to?
5728292e2ca10214002d9f90
belief in a stronger central government.
56
False
When the U.S Constitution was being drafted, what did the federalist party support?
5728292e2ca10214002d9f91
stronger central government
176
False
What did anti-federalist support?
5728292e2ca10214002d9f92
weaker central government
239
False
On the political spectrum, where does federalism stand?
5728292e2ca10214002d9f93
federalism" is situated in the middle of the political spectrum between a confederacy and a unitary state
402
False
belief in a stronger central government
56
In the United States, what wasn't federalism referred to?
5acf9bdd77cf76001a685484
True
stronger central government
176
When the U.S Constitution was being erased, what did the federalist party support?
5acf9bdd77cf76001a685485
True
stronger central government
176
When the U.S Constitution was being drafted, what did the federalist party oppose?
5acf9bdd77cf76001a685486
True
weaker central government
239
What did anti-federalist oppose?
5acf9bdd77cf76001a685487
True
in the middle of the political spectrum between a confederacy and a unitary state
426
On the political spectrum, where doesn't federalism stand?
5acf9bdd77cf76001a685488
True
In the United States, federalism originally referred to belief in a stronger central government. When the U.S. Constitution was being drafted, the Federalist Party supported a stronger central government, while "Anti-Federalists" wanted a weaker central government. This is very different from the modern usage of "federalism" in Europe and the United States. The distinction stems from the fact that "federalism" is situated in the middle of the political spectrum between a confederacy and a unitary state. The U.S. Constitution was written as a reaction to the Articles of Confederation, under which the United States was a loose confederation with a weak central government.
Who has a greater history of unitary states?
572829d9ff5b5019007d9e58
Europe
13
False
What does federalism mean in Europe?
572829d9ff5b5019007d9e59
weaker central government, relative to a unitary state
120
False
What branch does the United States want to limit under the federalist model?
572829d9ff5b5019007d9e5a
judiciary
557
False
Europe
13
Who has a lesser history of unitary states?
5acf9c4777cf76001a6854aa
True
Europe
13
Who has a greater history of solitary states?
5acf9c4777cf76001a6854ab
True
weaker central government, relative to a unitary state
120
What doesn't federalism mean in Europe?
5acf9c4777cf76001a6854ac
True
judiciary
557
What branch doesn't the United States want to limit under the federalist model?
5acf9c4777cf76001a6854ad
True
judiciary
557
What branch does the United Nations want to limit under the federalist model?
5acf9c4777cf76001a6854ae
True
In contrast, Europe has a greater history of unitary states than North America, thus European "federalism" argues for a weaker central government, relative to a unitary state. The modern American usage of the word is much closer to the European sense. As the power of the Federal government has increased, some people have perceived a much more unitary state than they believe the Founding Fathers intended. Most people politically advocating "federalism" in the United States argue in favor of limiting the powers of the federal government, especially the judiciary (see Federalist Society, New Federalism).
What happened on January 1st 1901?
57282b142ca10214002d9fd4
nation-state of Australia officially came into existence as a federation
31
False
When did the United Kingdom colonized the Australian continent?
57282b142ca10214002d9fd5
1788
169
False
Which model is of federalism is similar to the federalism model in Australia?
57282b142ca10214002d9fd6
United States of America
647
False
What was established when Australia was colonized?
57282b142ca10214002d9fd7
six, eventually self-governing, colonies
206
False
nation-state of Australia officially came into existence as a federation
31
What happened on January 21st 1901?
5acf9cbb77cf76001a6854e4
True
1788
169
When did the United Kingdom leave the Australian continent?
5acf9cbb77cf76001a6854e5
True
1788
169
When didn't the United Kingdom colonize the Australian continent?
5acf9cbb77cf76001a6854e6
True
United States of America
647
Which model is of federalism is opposite to the federalism model in Australia?
5acf9cbb77cf76001a6854e7
True
six, eventually self-governing, colonies
206
What was abolished when Australia was colonized?
5acf9cbb77cf76001a6854e8
True
On the 1st of January 1901 the nation-state of Australia officially came into existence as a federation. The Australian continent was colonised by the United Kingdom in 1788, which subsequently established six, eventually self-governing, colonies there. In the 1890s the governments of these colonies all held referendums on becoming a unified, self-governing "Commonwealth" within the British Empire. When all the colonies voted in favour of federation, the Federation of Australia commenced, resulting in the establishment of the Commonwealth of Australia in 1901. The model of Australian federalism adheres closely to the original model of the United States of America, although it does so through a parliamentary Westminster system rather than a presidential system.
When was Brazil's fall of the monarchy?
57282bf93acd2414000df629
1889
39
False
Who caused the fall of the monarchy happened in Brazil?
57282bf93acd2414000df62a
military coup d'état led to the rise of the presidential system, headed by Deodoro da Fonseca.
49
False
When did Brazil adopt federalism?
57282bf93acd2414000df62b
1891
323
False
What other system does Brazil use?
57282bf93acd2414000df62c
Fonseca system
626
False
What is the fonseca system?
57282bf93acd2414000df62d
regulate interstate trade
644
False
1889
39
When was Brazil's rise of the monarchy?
5acf9d1e77cf76001a6854f8
True
military coup d'état led to the rise of the presidential system, headed by Deodoro da Fonseca
49
Who didn't cause the fall of the monarchy that happened in Brazil?
5acf9d1e77cf76001a6854f9
True
1891
323
When did Brazil reject federalism?
5acf9d1e77cf76001a6854fa
True
Fonseca system
626
What other system does Brazil reject?
5acf9d1e77cf76001a6854fb
True
regulate interstate trade
644
What isn't the fonseca system?
5acf9d1e77cf76001a6854fc
True
In Brazil, the fall of the monarchy in 1889 by a military coup d'état led to the rise of the presidential system, headed by Deodoro da Fonseca. Aided by well-known jurist Ruy Barbosa, Fonseca established federalism in Brazil by decree, but this system of government would be confirmed by every Brazilian constitution since 1891, although some of them would distort some of the federalist principles. The 1937 Constitution, for example, granted the federal government the authority to appoint State Governors (called interventors) at will, thus centralizing power in the hands of President Getúlio Vargas. Brazil also uses the Fonseca system to regulate interstate trade. Brazil is one of the biggest federal governments.
What is the government of India based on?
57282f5c3acd2414000df68b
tiered system
38
False
What is a tiered system?
57282f5c3acd2414000df68c
the Constitution of India delineates the subjects on which each tier of government has executive powers
62
False
What was the constitution originally provided for?
57282f5c3acd2414000df68d
two-tier system of government
210
False
When the third tiere was added on, what is it in form of?
57282f5c3acd2414000df68e
Panchayats and Municipalities
407
False
tiered system
38
What isn't the government of India based on?
5acf9d8577cf76001a685526
True
the Constitution of India delineates the subjects on which each tier of government has executive powers
62
What isn't a tiered system?
5acf9d8577cf76001a685527
True
two-tier system of government
210
What was the constitution originally not provided for?
5acf9d8577cf76001a685528
True
two-tier system of government
210
What was the constitution never provided for?
5acf9d8577cf76001a685529
True
Panchayats and Municipalities
407
When the third tiere was taken off, what is it in form of?
5acf9d8577cf76001a68552a
True
The government of India is based on a tiered system, in which the Constitution of India delineates the subjects on which each tier of government has executive powers. The Constitution originally provided for a two-tier system of government, the Union Government (also known as the Central Government), representing the Union of India, and the State governments. Later, a third tier was added in the form of Panchayats and Municipalities. In the current arrangement, The Seventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution delimits the subjects of each level of governmental jurisdiction, dividing them into three lists:
What is a distinguishing aspect of Indian federalism?
5728307c4b864d19001646be
asymmetric
98
False
What does Article 370 say?
5728307c4b864d19001646bf
special provisions for the state of Jammu and Kashmir as per its Instrument of Accession
128
False
What does Article 371 say?
5728307c4b864d19001646c0
special provisions for the states of Andhra Pradesh, Arunachal Pradesh, Assam, Goa, Mizoram, Manipur, Nagaland and Sikkim
236
False
What happens with President's Rule?
5728307c4b864d19001646c1
the central government (through its appointed Governor) takes control of state's administration for certain months
483
False
asymmetric
98
What isn't a distinguishing aspect of Indian federalism?
5acf9dee77cf76001a685542
True
special provisions for the state of Jammu and Kashmir as per its Instrument of Accession
128
What does Article 307 say?
5acf9dee77cf76001a685543
True
special provisions for the states of Andhra Pradesh, Arunachal Pradesh, Assam, Goa, Mizoram, Manipur, Nagaland and Sikkim
236
What does Article 317 say?
5acf9dee77cf76001a685544
True
the central government (through its appointed Governor) takes control of state's administration for certain months
483
What never happens with President's Rule?
5acf9dee77cf76001a685545
True
the central government (through its appointed Governor) takes control of state's administration for certain months
483
What happens with Prime Minister's Rule?
5acf9dee77cf76001a685546
True
A distinguishing aspect of Indian federalism is that unlike many other forms of federalism, it is asymmetric. Article 370 makes special provisions for the state of Jammu and Kashmir as per its Instrument of Accession. Article 371 makes special provisions for the states of Andhra Pradesh, Arunachal Pradesh, Assam, Goa, Mizoram, Manipur, Nagaland and Sikkim as per their accession or state-hood deals. Also one more aspect of Indian federalism is system of President's Rule in which the central government (through its appointed Governor) takes control of state's administration for certain months when no party can form a government in the state or there is violent disturbance in the state.
Who is the strongest advocate of the European Federalism?
572833243acd2414000df6cd
Germany, Italy, Belgium and Luxembourg
311
False
Who opposed the European Federalism?
572833243acd2414000df6ce
United Kingdom, Denmark and France
411
False
When did the French authorities adopted the pro-European Unification position?
572833243acd2414000df6cf
Since the presidency of François Mitterrand (1981-1995
494
False
Germany, Italy, Belgium and Luxembourg
311
Who is the strongest opponent of the European Federalism?
5acf9e6477cf76001a685572
True
United Kingdom, Denmark and France
411
Who supported the European Federalism?
5acf9e6477cf76001a685573
True
Since the presidency of François Mitterrand
494
When did the English authorities adopt the pro-European Unification position?
5acf9e6477cf76001a685574
True
Since the presidency of François Mitterrand (1981-1995)
494
When did the French authorities reject the pro-European Unification position?
5acf9e6477cf76001a685575
True
Since the presidency of François Mitterrand (1981-1995)
494
When didn't the French authorities adopted the pro-European Unification position?
5acf9e6477cf76001a685576
True
Although the drafts of both the Maastricht treaty and the Treaty establishing a Constitution for Europe mentioned federalism, the representatives of the member countries (all of whom would have had to agree to use of the term) never formally adopted it. The strongest advocates of European federalism have been Germany, Italy, Belgium and Luxembourg while those historically most strongly opposed have been the United Kingdom, Denmark and France (with conservative presidents and governments). Since the presidency of François Mitterrand (1981-1995), the French authorities have adopted a much more pro-European Unification position, as they consider that a strong EU is presenting the best "insurance" against a unified Germany which might become too strong and thus a threat for its neighbours.
When did the federal war end?
572833d43acd2414000df6dd
1863
25
False
How did the federal war end?
572833d43acd2414000df6de
with the signing of the Treaty of Coche by both the centralist government of the time and the Federal Forces
30
False
What did the United States of Venezuela incorporate?
572833d43acd2414000df6df
"Federation of Sovereign States" upon principles borrowed from the Articles of Confederation of the United States of America
210
False
In this type of federation each country had its own what?
572833d43acd2414000df6e0
President
374
False
1863
25
When did the federal war start?
5acfb91d77cf76001a685a78
True
with the signing of the Treaty of Coche by both the centralist government of the time and the Federal Forces
30
How did the federal war start?
5acfb91d77cf76001a685a79
True
"Federation of Sovereign States" upon principles borrowed from the Articles of Confederation of the United States of America
210
What did the United States of Venezuela reject?
5acfb91d77cf76001a685a7a
True
"Federation of Sovereign States" upon principles borrowed from the Articles of Confederation of the United States of America
210
What did the United States of America incorporate?
5acfb91d77cf76001a685a7b
True
President
374
In this type of federation each country had shared what?
5acfb91d77cf76001a685a7c
True
The Federal War ended in 1863 with the signing of the Treaty of Coche by both the centralist government of the time and the Federal Forces. The United States of Venezuela were subsequently incorporated under a "Federation of Sovereign States" upon principles borrowed from the Articles of Confederation of the United States of America. In this Federation, each State had a "President" of its own that controlled almost every issue, even the creation of "State Armies," while the Federal Army was required to obtain presidential permission to enter any given state.
How many components does the Belgian federalism have?
572834e44b864d1900164720
three components
56
False
What passed on July 18, 2007?
572834e44b864d1900164721
Brussels' parliament
660
False
What are the Flemish representatives in favor for?
572834e44b864d1900164722
Brussels resolution, with the exception of one party
502
False
What is Belgian Federalism?
572834e44b864d1900164723
the federal system passed in the parliaments of Wallonia and Brussels.
130
False
three components
56
How many components does the Belgian federalism not have?
5acfbc1277cf76001a685b34
True
the resolution
688
What passed on July 18, 2007?
5acfbc1277cf76001a685b35
True
the resolution
688
What didn't pass on July 18, 2008?
5acfbc1277cf76001a685b36
True
the Brussels resolution
498
What are the Flemish representatives not in favor of?
5acfbc1277cf76001a685b37
True
the federal system passed in the parliaments of Wallonia and Brussels
130
What isn't Belgian Federalism?
5acfbc1277cf76001a685b38
True
On the other hand, Belgian federalism is federated with three components. An affirmative resolution concerning Brussels' place in the federal system passed in the parliaments of Wallonia and Brussels. These resolutions passed against the desires of Dutch-speaking parties, who are generally in favour of a federal system with two components (i.e. the Dutch and French Communities of Belgium). However, the Flemish representatives in the Parliament of the Brussels Capital-Region voted in favour of the Brussels resolution, with the exception of one party. The chairman of the Walloon Parliament stated on July 17, 2008 that, "Brussels would take an attitude". Brussels' parliament passed the resolution on July 18, 2008:
How did they manage the tensions in the present of Spanish Transition to democracy?
572835953acd2414000df703
the drafters of the current Spanish constitution avoided giving labels such as 'federal' to the territorial arrangements.
89
False
Which cities are recognized in the Spanish Democratic Constitution?
572835953acd2414000df704
Basque Country and Navarre
313
False
Where are the main taxes taken?
572835953acd2414000df705
Madrid
290
False
the drafters of the current Spanish constitution avoided giving labels such as 'federal' to the territorial arrangements
89
How did they ignore the tensions in the present of Spanish Transition to democracy?
5acfbdc477cf76001a685bd8
True
the drafters of the current Spanish constitution avoided giving labels such as 'federal' to the territorial arrangements
89
How did they manage the tensions in the present of Spanish Transition to communism?
5acfbdc477cf76001a685bd9
True
Basque Country and Navarre
313
Which cities aren't recognized in the Spanish Democratic Constitution?
5acfbdc477cf76001a685bda
True
Basque Country and Navarre
313
Which cities are recognized in the Spanish Socialist Constitution?
5acfbdc477cf76001a685bdb
True
Madrid
290
Where are the main taxes ignored?
5acfbdc477cf76001a685bdc
True
However, in order to manage the tensions present in the Spanish transition to democracy, the drafters of the current Spanish constitution avoided giving labels such as 'federal' to the territorial arrangements. Besides, unlike in the federal system, the main taxes are taken centrally from Madrid (except for the Basque Country and Navarre, which were recognized in the Spanish democratic constitution as charter territories drawing from historical reasons) and then distributed to the Autonomous Communities.
What are anarchists against?
572835ea4b864d1900164742
State
27
False
What are anarchists not against?
572835ea4b864d1900164743
not against political organization or "governance"—so long as it is self-governance utilizing direct democracy.
41
False
What mode of government does the anarchists prefer?
572835ea4b864d1900164744
federalism or confederalism
228
False
State
27
What are anarchists for?
5acfbf7c77cf76001a685c46
True
State
27
What aren't anarchists against?
5acfbf7c77cf76001a685c47
True
not against political organization or "governance"
41
What are anarchists against?
5acfbf7c77cf76001a685c48
True
federalism or confederalism
228
What mode of government does the anarchists hate?
5acfbf7c77cf76001a685c49
True
federalism or confederalism
228
What mode of sports does the anarchists prefer?
5acfbf7c77cf76001a685c4a
True
Anarchists are against the State but are not against political organization or "governance"—so long as it is self-governance utilizing direct democracy. The mode of political organization preferred by anarchists, in general, is federalism or confederalism.[citation needed] However, the anarchist definition of federalism tends to differ from the definition of federalism assumed by pro-state political scientists. The following is a brief description of federalism from section I.5 of An Anarchist FAQ:
Who can elect the members of the upper house?
5728367e4b864d190016474e
government or legislature
111
False
Can the members of the upper house be elected directly or indirectly?
5728367e4b864d190016474f
indirectly
85
False
Can the members of the lower house be elected directly or indirectly?
5728367e4b864d1900164750
directly
417
False
government or legislature
111
Who can't elect the members of the upper house?
5acfc59577cf76001a685e34
True
government or legislature
111
Who can elect the leaders of the upper house?
5acfc59577cf76001a685e35
True
indirectly elected
85
Can the members of the upper house be impeached directly or indirectly?
5acfc59577cf76001a685e36
True
directly elected
417
Can the members of the lower house be impeached directly or indirectly?
5acfc59577cf76001a685e37
True
directly elected
417
Can the citizens of the lower house be elected directly or indirectly?
5acfc59577cf76001a685e38
True
Alternatively, or in addition to this practice, the members of an upper house may be indirectly elected by the government or legislature of the component states, as occurred in the United States prior to 1913, or be actual members or delegates of the state governments, as, for example, is the case in the German Bundesrat and in the Council of the European Union. The lower house of a federal legislature is usually directly elected, with apportionment in proportion to population, although states may sometimes still be guaranteed a certain minimum number of seats.
What is federalism seen as?
572836f92ca10214002da0e6
a useful way to structure political systems in order prevent violence among different groups with countries
76
False
What does federalism allow?
572836f92ca10214002da0e7
it allows certain groups to legislate at the subnational level
192
False
What do scholars think of federalism?
572836f92ca10214002da0e8
Some scholars have suggested, however, that federalism can divide countries
256
False
a useful way to structure political systems in order prevent violence among different groups with countries
76
What isn't federalism seen as?
5acfc75077cf76001a685efc
True
a useful way to structure political systems in order prevent violence among different groups
76
What is communism seen as?
5acfc75077cf76001a685efd
True
certain groups to legislate at the subnational level
202
What doesn't federalism allow?
5acfc75077cf76001a685efe
True
certain groups to legislate at the subnational level
202
What does federalism not allow?
5acfc75077cf76001a685eff
True
that federalism can divide countries and result in state collapse because it creates proto-states
295
What don't scholars think of federalism?
5acfc75077cf76001a685f00
True
Federalism, and other forms of territorially autonomy, is generally seen as a useful way to structure political systems in order prevent violence among different groups with countries because it allows certain groups to legislate at the subnational level. Some scholars have suggested, however, that federalism can divide countries and result in state collapse because it creates proto-states. Still others have shown that federalism is only divisive when it lacks mechanisms tthat encourage political parties to compete across regional boundaries.
What happened to Russia's subdivision of government?
572837e7ff5b5019007d9f46
changed towards a generally autonomous model
62
False
When was Russia's subdivision liberalized?
572837e7ff5b5019007d9f47
in the aftermath of the Soviet Union
213
False
Who was in charge when the reforms was going on?
572837e7ff5b5019007d9f48
Boris Yeltsin
274
False
Who scaled back some reforms from Yeltsin?
572837e7ff5b5019007d9f49
Vladimir Putin
577
False
changed towards a generally autonomous model
62
What happened to Prussia's subdivision of government?
5acfafea77cf76001a685870
True
in the aftermath of the Soviet Union
213
When wasn't Russia's subdivision liberalized?
5acfafea77cf76001a685871
True
Boris Yeltsin
274
Who wasn't in charge when the reform was going on?
5acfafea77cf76001a685872
True
Boris Yeltsin
274
Who was in charge when the reforms was scrapped?
5acfafea77cf76001a685873
True
Vladimir Putin
577
Who escalted some reforms from Yeltsin?
5acfafea77cf76001a685874
True
The post-Imperial nature of Russian subdivision of government changed towards a generally autonomous model which began with the establishment of the USSR (of which Russia was governed as part). It was liberalized in the aftermath of the Soviet Union, with the reforms under Boris Yeltsin preserving much of the Soviet structure while applying increasingly liberal reforms to the governance of the constituent republics and subjects (while also coming into conflict with Chechen secessionist rebels during the Chechen War). Some of the reforms under Yeltsin were scaled back by Vladimir Putin.
What is federalism in the United States?
5728384dff5b5019007d9f4e
ederalism in the United States is the evolving relationship between state governments and the federal government of the United States
1
False
How has the American government evolved?
5728384dff5b5019007d9f4f
American government has evolved from a system of dual federalism to one of associative federalism.
136
False
What happened in Federalist No.46?
5728384dff5b5019007d9f50
James Madison asserted that the states and national government
259
False
What happened in Federalist No. 28
5728384dff5b5019007d9f51
"Federalist No. 28," suggested that both levels of government would exercise authority to the citizens' benefit
451
False
Federalism in the United States is the evolving relationship between state governments and the federal government of the United States
0
What is federalism out the United States?
5acfb06877cf76001a685890
True
from a system of dual federalism to one of associative federalism
168
How has the American government devolved?
5acfb06877cf76001a685891
True
James Madison asserted that the states and national government "are in fact but different agents and trustees of the people, constituted with different powers.
259
What happened in Federalist No.64?
5acfb06877cf76001a685892
True
that the states and national government "are in fact but different agents and trustees of the people, constituted with different powers."
282
What never happened in Federalist No.46?
5acfb06877cf76001a685893
True
Alexander Hamilton, writing in "Federalist No. 28," suggested that both levels of government would exercise authority to the citizens' benefit
420
What happened in Federalist No. 82
5acfb06877cf76001a685894
True
Federalism in the United States is the evolving relationship between state governments and the federal government of the United States. American government has evolved from a system of dual federalism to one of associative federalism. In "Federalist No. 46," James Madison asserted that the states and national government "are in fact but different agents and trustees of the people, constituted with different powers." Alexander Hamilton, writing in "Federalist No. 28," suggested that both levels of government would exercise authority to the citizens' benefit: "If their [the peoples'] rights are invaded by either, they can make use of the other as the instrument of redress." (1)
Why did the constitution didn't have to explain federalism?
57283a1b4b864d19001647a4
Because the states were preexisting political entities
0
False
What is another word for express powers?
57283a1b4b864d19001647a5
enumerated powers
339
False
Where can we find express powers?
57283a1b4b864d19001647a6
in the Constitution
387
False
What are the expressed powers?
57283a1b4b864d19001647a7
the right to levy taxes, declare war, and regulate interstate and foreign commerce.
418
False
What does the Necessary and Proper Clause do?
57283a1b4b864d19001647a8
gives the federal government the implied power to pass any law "necessary and proper" for the execution of its express powers
547
False
Because the states were preexisting political entities
0
Why did the constitution have to explain federalism?
5acfb0d277cf76001a6858ae
True
enumerated powers
339
What is another word for suppress powers?
5acfb0d277cf76001a6858af
True
the Constitution
390
Where can we find suppress powers?
5acfb0d277cf76001a6858b0
True
the right to levy taxes, declare war, and regulate interstate and foreign commerce.
418
What are the suppressed powers?
5acfb0d277cf76001a6858b1
True
gives the federal government the implied power to pass any law "necessary and proper" for the execution of its express powers.
547
What does the Unnecessary and Proper Clause do?
5acfb0d277cf76001a6858b2
True
Because the states were preexisting political entities, the U.S. Constitution did not need to define or explain federalism in any one section but it often mentions the rights and responsibilities of state governments and state officials in relation to the federal government. The federal government has certain express powers (also called enumerated powers) which are powers spelled out in the Constitution, including the right to levy taxes, declare war, and regulate interstate and foreign commerce. In addition, the Necessary and Proper Clause gives the federal government the implied power to pass any law "necessary and proper" for the execution of its express powers. Other powers—the reserved powers—are reserved to the people or the states. The power delegated to the federal government was significantly expanded by the Supreme Court decision in McCulloch v. Maryland (1819), amendments to the Constitution following the Civil War, and by some later amendments—as well as the overall claim of the Civil War, that the states were legally subject to the final dictates of the federal government.
What was the federalist party of the United States opposed to?
57283ac5ff5b5019007d9f8e
Democratic-Republicans
61
False
What did the democratic-republican party believe in?
57283ac5ff5b5019007d9f8f
the Legislature had too much power (mainly because of the Necessary and Proper Clause) and that they were unchecked
187
False
Who decided the rights in specific cases?
57283ac5ff5b5019007d9f90
the judicial system of courts
841
False
Democratic-Republicans
61
What was the federalist party of the United States in support of?
5acfb20177cf76001a685908
True
Democratic-Republicans
142
What was the federalist party of the United Nations opposed to?
5acfb20177cf76001a685909
True
the Legislature had too much power (mainly because of the Necessary and Proper Clause) and that they were unchecked
187
What did the democratic-republican party not believe in?
5acfb20177cf76001a68590a
True
the Legislature had too much power (mainly because of the Necessary and Proper Clause) and that they were unchecked
187
What did the democratic-republican party oppose?
5acfb20177cf76001a68590b
True
judicial system of courts
845
Who decided the rights in all cases?
5acfb20177cf76001a68590c
True
The Federalist Party of the United States was opposed by the Democratic-Republicans, including powerful figures such as Thomas Jefferson. The Democratic-Republicans mainly believed that: the Legislature had too much power (mainly because of the Necessary and Proper Clause) and that they were unchecked; the Executive had too much power, and that there was no check on the executive; a dictator would arise; and that a bill of rights should be coupled with the constitution to prevent a dictator (then believed to eventually be the president) from exploiting or tyrannizing citizens. The federalists, on the other hand, argued that it was impossible to list all the rights, and those that were not listed could be easily overlooked because they were not in the official bill of rights. Rather, rights in specific cases were to be decided by the judicial system of courts.
What is the meaning of federalism?
57283b6f4b864d19001647b8
as a political movement, and of what constitutes a 'federalist', varies with country and historical context
27
False
What types of movements are associated with federalism?
57283b6f4b864d19001647b9
Movements associated with the establishment or development of federations can exhibit either centralising or decentralising trends.
153
False
What countries advocate for a strong central government?
57283b6f4b864d19001647ba
United States and Australia
404
False
varies with country and historical context
92
What isn't the meaning of federalism?
5acfc6f777cf76001a685ecc
True
varies with country and historical context
92
What is the meaning of anti-federalism?
5acfc6f777cf76001a685ecd
True
Movements associated with the establishment or development of federations can exhibit either centralising or decentralising trends
153
What types of movements aren't associated with federalism?
5acfc6f777cf76001a685ece
True
Movements associated with the establishment or development of federations can exhibit either centralising or decentralising trends
153
What types of non-movements are associated with federalism?
5acfc6f777cf76001a685ecf
True
United States and Australia
404
What countries are against a strong central government?
5acfc6f777cf76001a685ed0
True
The meaning of federalism, as a political movement, and of what constitutes a 'federalist', varies with country and historical context.[citation needed] Movements associated with the establishment or development of federations can exhibit either centralising or decentralising trends.[citation needed] For example, at the time those nations were being established, factions known as "federalists" in the United States and Australia advocated the formation of strong central government. Similarly, in European Union politics, federalists mostly seek greater EU integration. In contrast, in Spain and in post-war Germany, federal movements have sought decentralisation: the transfer of power from central authorities to local units. In Canada, where Quebec separatism has been a political force for several decades, the "federalist" impulse aims to keep Quebec inside Canada.
What happened between 1938 to 1995?
57283c283acd2414000df773
the U.S. Supreme Court did not invalidate any federal statute as exceeding Congress' power under the Commerce Clause.
22
False
What are most actions in the federal government known as?
57283c283acd2414000df774
Commerce Clause
245
False
What did the court reject in 1995?
57283c283acd2414000df775
the Supreme Court rejected the Gun-Free School Zones Act in the Lopez decision
346
False
What did the court reject in 1994?
57283c283acd2414000df776
rejected the civil remedy portion of the Violence Against Women Act
435
False
What does the commerce clause include?
57283c283acd2414000df777
include marijuana laws in the Gonzales v. Raich decision
603
False
the U.S. Supreme Court did not invalidate any federal statute as exceeding Congress' power under the Commerce Clause.
22
What happened between 1983 to 1995?
5acfb88f77cf76001a685a64
True
U.S. Supreme Court did not invalidate any federal statute as exceeding Congress' power under the Commerce Clause
26
What happened between 1938 to 1959?
5acfb88f77cf76001a685a65
True
Commerce Clause
245
What are no actions in the federal government known as?
5acfb88f77cf76001a685a66
True
Supreme Court rejected the Gun-Free School Zones Act
350
What did the court accept in 1995?
5acfb88f77cf76001a685a67
True
the civil remedy portion of the Violence Against Women Act
444
What did the court reject in 1949?
5acfb88f77cf76001a685a68
True
From 1938 until 1995, the U.S. Supreme Court did not invalidate any federal statute as exceeding Congress' power under the Commerce Clause. Most actions by the federal government can find some legal support among the express powers, such as the Commerce Clause, whose applicability has been narrowed by the Supreme Court in recent years. In 1995 the Supreme Court rejected the Gun-Free School Zones Act in the Lopez decision, and also rejected the civil remedy portion of the Violence Against Women Act of 1994 in the United States v. Morrison decision. Recently, the Commerce Clause was interpreted to include marijuana laws in the Gonzales v. Raich decision.
How many components does the Belgian political landscape include?
57283ceb4b864d19001647d2
two components
99
False
What are the two components in the Belgian political landscape?
57283ceb4b864d19001647d3
the Dutch-speaking population represented by Dutch-language political parties, and the majority populations of Wallonia and Brussels
115
False
What component is the Brussel Region?
57283ceb4b864d19001647d4
third component
328
False
What happens with the Brussels special position?
57283ceb4b864d19001647d5
consequently has a number of political issues
423
False
two components
99
How many components does the Belgian political landscape exclude?
5acfbb8277cf76001a685b0a
True
two components
99
How many components doesn't the Belgian political landscape include?
5acfbb8277cf76001a685b0b
True
the Dutch-speaking population represented by Dutch-language political parties, and the majority populations of Wallonia and Brussels
115
What are the three components in the Belgian political landscape?
5acfbb8277cf76001a685b0c
True
third component
328
What component isn't the Brussel Region?
5acfbb8277cf76001a685b0d
True
has a number of political issues
436
What happens without the Brussels special position?
5acfbb8277cf76001a685b0e
True
On one hand, this means that the Belgian political landscape, generally speaking, consists of only two components: the Dutch-speaking population represented by Dutch-language political parties, and the majority populations of Wallonia and Brussels, represented by their French-speaking parties. The Brussels region emerges as a third component. This specific dual form of federalism, with the special position of Brussels, consequently has a number of political issues—even minor ones—that are being fought out over the Dutch/French-language political division. With such issues, a final decision is possible only in the form of a compromise. This tendency gives this dual federalism model a number of traits that generally are ascribed to confederalism, and makes the future of Belgian federalism contentious.
The US Constitution says what to amendments?
57283db82ca10214002da15e
provides that no state may be deprived of equal representation in the senate without its consent
182
False
What happens when certain constitutional amendments cannot occur?
57283db82ca10214002da15f
cannot occur without the unanimous consent of all states or of a particular state
79
False
Any amendment in the Canadian constitution that needs to be modified, needs to do what first?
57283db82ca10214002da160
would require unanimous consent of the provinces.
522
False
What is the German basic law?
57283db82ca10214002da161
provides that no amendment is admissible at all that would abolish the federal system.
593
False
provides that no state may be deprived of equal representation in the senate without its consent
182
The UN Constitution says what to amendments?
5acfc69677cf76001a685eb0
True
provides that no state may be deprived of equal representation in the senate without its consent
182
The US Constitution doesn't say what to amendments?
5acfc69677cf76001a685eb1
True
would require unanimous consent of the provinces
522
Any amendment in the Canadian constitution that needs to be modified, needs to do what last?
5acfc69677cf76001a685eb2
True
without the unanimous consent of all states or of a particular state
92
What happens when certain constitutional amendments can occur?
5acfc69677cf76001a685eb3
True
provides that no amendment is admissible at all that would abolish the federal system
593
What is the German advanced law?
5acfc69677cf76001a685eb4
True
Some federal constitutions also provide that certain constitutional amendments cannot occur without the unanimous consent of all states or of a particular state. The US constitution provides that no state may be deprived of equal representation in the senate without its consent. In Australia, if a proposed amendment will specifically impact one or more states, then it must be endorsed in the referendum held in each of those states. Any amendment to the Canadian constitution that would modify the role of the monarchy would require unanimous consent of the provinces. The German Basic Law provides that no amendment is admissible at all that would abolish the federal system.
What does every component state of federation possess?
57283e934b864d19001647e0
the same powers
54
False
Asymmetric federalism exist when?
57283e934b864d19001647e1
where states are granted different powers, or some possess greater autonomy than others do
144
False
What cities in Spain are in the historic movement?
57283e934b864d19001647e2
Basques and Catalans, as well as the Galicians
358
False
Is Spain apart of federalism?
57283e934b864d19001647e3
Spain is not a federalism, but a decentralized administrative organization of the state.
967
False
the same powers
54
What does no components state of federation possess?
5acfc1f777cf76001a685d1c
True
the same powers
54
What does every component state of federation not possess?
5acfc1f777cf76001a685d1d
True
states are granted different powers, or some possess greater autonomy than others do
150
Symmetric federalism exist when?
5acfc1f777cf76001a685d1e
True
Spain is not a federalism, but a decentralized administrative organization of the state.
967
Why is Spain a part of federalism?
5acfc1f777cf76001a685d1f
True
Where every component state of a federation possesses the same powers, we are said to find 'symmetric federalism'. Asymmetric federalism exists where states are granted different powers, or some possess greater autonomy than others do. This is often done in recognition of the existence of a distinct culture in a particular region or regions. In Spain, the Basques and Catalans, as well as the Galicians, spearheaded a historic movement to have their national specificity recognized, crystallizing in the "historical communities" such as Navarre, Galicia, Catalonia, and the Basque Country. They have more powers than the later expanded arrangement for other Spanish regions, or the Spain of the autonomous communities (called also the "coffee for everyone" arrangement), partly to deal with their separate identity and to appease peripheral nationalist leanings, partly out of respect to specific rights they had held earlier in history. However, strictly speaking Spain is not a federalism, but a decentralized administrative organization of the state.
What does federations have for amendments of the constitution?
57283f724b864d19001647f2
special procedures
23
False
What may guarantee the self-governing status of the competent states?
57283f724b864d19001647f3
federal structure
111
False
What needs to be done in order to amend the Australia and Switzerland Constitution?
57283f724b864d19001647f4
required that a proposal be endorsed not just by an overall majority of the electorate in the nation as a whole
565
False
special procedures
23
What doesn't federations have for amendments of the constitution?
5acfc62a77cf76001a685e74
True
special procedures
23
What does federations have for amendments of the conservation?
5acfc62a77cf76001a685e75
True
federal structure
111
What may guarantee the self-governing status of the incompetent states?
5acfc62a77cf76001a685e76
True
federal structure
111
What will not guarantee the self-governing status of the competent states?
5acfc62a77cf76001a685e77
True
a proposal be endorsed not just by an overall majority of the electorate in the nation as a whole
579
What doesn't need to be done in order to amend the Australia and Switzerland Constitution?
5acfc62a77cf76001a685e78
True
Federations often have special procedures for amendment of the federal constitution. As well as reflecting the federal structure of the state this may guarantee that the self-governing status of the component states cannot be abolished without their consent. An amendment to the constitution of the United States must be ratified by three-quarters of either the state legislatures, or of constitutional conventions specially elected in each of the states, before it can come into effect. In referendums to amend the constitutions of Australia and Switzerland it is required that a proposal be endorsed not just by an overall majority of the electorate in the nation as a whole, but also by separate majorities in each of a majority of the states or cantons. In Australia, this latter requirement is known as a double majority.
What does the structures of the federal government incorporate?
5728402c4b864d19001647f8
mechanisms to protect the rights of component states
55
False
What is one method to protect the rights of the component states?
5728402c4b864d19001647f9
intrastate federalism
131
False
What is intrastate federalism?
5728402c4b864d19001647fa
is to directly represent the governments of component states in federal political institutions
155
False
What is a bicameral legislature?
5728402c4b864d19001647fb
the upper house is often used to represent the component states while the lower house represents the people of the nation as a whole
298
False
mechanisms to protect the rights of component states
55
What does the structures of the federal government ignore?
5acfc40877cf76001a685dc4
True
mechanisms to protect the rights of component states
55
What does the structures of the local government incorporate?
5acfc40877cf76001a685dc5
True
intrastate federalism
131
What is one method to strike the rights of the component states?
5acfc40877cf76001a685dc6
True
is to directly represent the governments of component states in federal political institutions
155
What isn't intrastate federalism?
5acfc40877cf76001a685dc7
True
the upper house is often used to represent the component states while the lower house represents the people of the nation as a whole
298
What is a tricameral legislature?
5acfc40877cf76001a685dc8
True
The structures of most federal governments incorporate mechanisms to protect the rights of component states. One method, known as 'intrastate federalism', is to directly represent the governments of component states in federal political institutions. Where a federation has a bicameral legislature the upper house is often used to represent the component states while the lower house represents the people of the nation as a whole. A federal upper house may be based on a special scheme of apportionment, as is the case in the senates of the United States and Australia, where each state is represented by an equal number of senators irrespective of the size of its population.
What does federations often employ?
572840b1ff5b5019007da002
union of states
48
False
What is federalist paper no. 39?
572840b1ff5b5019007da003
that the US Constitution "is in strictness neither a national nor a federal constitution; but a composition of both
230
False
What is the foundation for federalist paper no. 39?
572840b1ff5b5019007da004
it is federal, not national; in the sources from which the ordinary powers of the Government are drawn, it is partly federal, and partly national..
366
False
What is the 10th Amendment in the United States?
572840b1ff5b5019007da005
which reserves all powers and rights that are not delegated to the Federal Government as left to the States and to the people.
729
False
union of states
48
What does federations never employ?
5acfc2d877cf76001a685d6a
True
that the US Constitution "is in strictness neither a national nor a federal constitution;
230
What does federalist paper no. 93 contain?
5acfc2d877cf76001a685d6b
True
that the US Constitution "is in strictness neither a national nor a federal constitution;
230
What doesn't federalist paper no. 93 contain?
5acfc2d877cf76001a685d6c
True
it is federal, not national; in the sources from which the ordinary powers of the Government are drawn, it is partly federal, and partly national
366
What is the foundation for federalist paper no. 93?
5acfc2d877cf76001a685d6d
True
which reserves all powers and rights that are not delegated to the Federal Government as left to the States and to the people.
729
What is the 10th Amendment in the United Nations?
5acfc2d877cf76001a685d6e
True
Federations often employ the paradox of being a union of states, while still being states (or having aspects of statehood) in themselves. For example, James Madison (author of the US Constitution) wrote in Federalist Paper No. 39 that the US Constitution "is in strictness neither a national nor a federal constitution; but a composition of both. In its foundation, it is federal, not national; in the sources from which the ordinary powers of the Government are drawn, it is partly federal, and partly national..." This stems from the fact that states in the US maintain all sovereignty that they do not yield to the federation by their own consent. This was reaffirmed by the Tenth Amendment to the United States Constitution, which reserves all powers and rights that are not delegated to the Federal Government as left to the States and to the people.
When is a federation formed?
5728418f2ca10214002da1b4
two levels
35
False
What two levels equal a federation?
5728418f2ca10214002da1b5
the central government and the regions
47
False
Why is Brazil an exception?
5728418f2ca10214002da1b6
because the 1988 Constitution included the municipalities as autonomous political entities making the federation tripartite
237
False
What is each state divided into?
5728418f2ca10214002da1b7
municipalities
449
False
What does each state have their own of?
5728418f2ca10214002da1b8
with their own legislative council (câmara de vereadores) and a mayor (prefeito
477
False
at two levels
32
When is a federation dissolved?
5acfc26777cf76001a685d48
True
the central government and the regions
47
What two levels don't equal a federation?
5acfc26777cf76001a685d49
True
because the 1988 Constitution included the municipalities as autonomous political entities making the federation tripartite
237
Why is Brazil not an exception?
5acfc26777cf76001a685d4a
True
municipalities
449
What is each city divided into?
5acfc26777cf76001a685d4b
True
their own legislative council (câmara de vereadores) and a mayor (prefeito)
482
What doesn't each state have their own of?
5acfc26777cf76001a685d4c
True
Usually, a federation is formed at two levels: the central government and the regions (states, provinces, territories), and little to nothing is said about second or third level administrative political entities. Brazil is an exception, because the 1988 Constitution included the municipalities as autonomous political entities making the federation tripartite, encompassing the Union, the States, and the municipalities. Each state is divided into municipalities (municípios) with their own legislative council (câmara de vereadores) and a mayor (prefeito), which are partly autonomous from both Federal and State Government. Each municipality has a "little constitution", called "organic law" (lei orgânica). Mexico is an intermediate case, in that municipalities are granted full-autonomy by the federal constitution and their existence as autonomous entities (municipio libre, "free municipality") is established by the federal government and cannot be revoked by the states' constitutions. Moreover, the federal constitution determines which powers and competencies belong exclusively to the municipalities and not to the constituent states. However, municipalities do not have an elected legislative assembly.
China is the largest what?
5728424d2ca10214002da1c8
China is the largest unitary state in the world by both population and land area
0
False
What are Chinese nationalist suspicious of?
5728424d2ca10214002da1c9
decentralization
358
False
Why is China's government similar to unity structure?
5728424d2ca10214002da1ca
Chinese government is far too unwieldy to effectively and equitably manage the country's affairs
202
False
How long has China been with centralized power?
5728424d2ca10214002da1cb
centuries
138
False
China is the largest unitary state in the world by both population and land area
0
China is the smallest what?
5acfbc9377cf76001a685b68
True
decentralization
358
What are Chinese nationalist in favor of?
5acfbc9377cf76001a685b69
True
decentralization
358
What are Chinese socialists suspicious of?
5acfbc9377cf76001a685b6a
True
Chinese government is far too unwieldy to effectively and equitably manage the country's affairs
202
Why is China's government not similar to unity structure?
5acfbc9377cf76001a685b6b
True
centuries
138
How long has China been without centralized power?
5acfbc9377cf76001a685b6c
True
China is the largest unitary state in the world by both population and land area. Although China has had long periods of central rule for centuries, it is often argued that the unitary structure of the Chinese government is far too unwieldy to effectively and equitably manage the country's affairs. On the other hand, Chinese nationalists are suspicious of decentralization as a form of secessionism and a backdoor for national disunity; still others argue that the degree of autonomy given to provincial-level officials in the People's Republic of China amounts to a de facto federalism.
What type of state is the Philippines?
572842e03acd2414000df7fb
unitary state
21
False
What types of powers does the Philippines have?
572842e03acd2414000df7fc
some powers devolved to Local Government Units (LGUs) under the terms of the Local Government Code
40
False
What type of modifications been added to the Philippines Constitution?
572842e03acd2414000df7fd
possible transition to a federal system as part of a shift to a parliamentary system.
325
False
What did President Gloria Macapagal Arroyo establish?
572842e03acd2414000df7fe
the Consultative Commission
477
False
unitary state
21
What type of state isn't the Philippines?
5acfbcfd77cf76001a685b8e
True
some powers devolved to Local Government Units (LGUs) under the terms of the Local Government Code
40
What types of powers does the Philippines give up?
5acfbcfd77cf76001a685b8f
True
possible transition to a federal system as part of a shift to a parliamentary system
325
What type of modifications have been removed from the Philippines Constitution?
5acfbcfd77cf76001a685b90
True
possible transition to a federal system as part of a shift to a parliamentary system
325
What type of songs have been added to the Philippines Constitution?
5acfbcfd77cf76001a685b91
True
the Consultative Commission
477
What did President Gloria Macapagal Arroyo desolve?
5acfbcfd77cf76001a685b92
True
The Philippines is a unitary state with some powers devolved to Local Government Units (LGUs) under the terms of the Local Government Code. There is also one autonomous region, the Autonomous Region of Muslim Mindanao. Over the years various modifications have been proposed to the Constitution of the Philippines, including possible transition to a federal system as part of a shift to a parliamentary system. In 2004, Philippine President Gloria Macapagal Arroyo established the Consultative Commission which suggested such a Charter Change but no action was taken by the Philippine Congress to amend the 1987 Constitution.
What type of state is Spain?
5728442e2ca10214002da200
unitary state
11
False
What type of federalism system does Spain have?
5728442e2ca10214002da201
unitary state with a high level of decentralisation, often regarded as a federal system in all but name or a "federation without federalism"
11
False
What type of government does Spain have?
5728442e2ca10214002da202
central government
243
False
What does Spain's government accounts for?
5728442e2ca10214002da203
8% of public spending, 38% for the regional governments, 13% for the local councils, and the remaining 31% for the social security system
283
False
unitary state
11
What type of state isn't Spain?
5acfbd5b77cf76001a685ba8
True
unitary state with a high level of decentralisation, often regarded as a federal system in all but name or a "federation without federalism"
11
What type of federalism system does Spain reject?
5acfbd5b77cf76001a685ba9
True
unitary state with a high level of decentralisation, often regarded as a federal system in all but name or a "federation without federalism"
11
What type of communism system does Spain have?
5acfbd5b77cf76001a685baa
True
central government
243
What type of government doesn't Spain have?
5acfbd5b77cf76001a685bab
True
18% of public spending, 38% for the regional governments, 13% for the local councils, and the remaining 31% for the social security system
282
What does Spain's government not account for?
5acfbd5b77cf76001a685bac
True
Spain is a unitary state with a high level of decentralisation, often regarded as a federal system in all but name or a "federation without federalism". The country has been quoted as being "an extraordinarily decentralized country", with the central government accounting for just 18% of public spending, 38% for the regional governments, 13% for the local councils, and the remaining 31% for the social security system. The current Spanish constitution has been implemented in such a way that, in many respects, Spain can be compared to countries which are undeniably federal.
How has United Kingdom been governed?
572844c5ff5b5019007da066
unitary state
56
False
Instead of the UK adopting the federalist model, what did they do?
572844c5ff5b5019007da067
UK has relied on gradual devolution to decentralise political power
152
False
When did devolution in the UK begin?
572844c5ff5b5019007da068
1914
283
False
What is Ireland Act 1914?
572844c5ff5b5019007da069
which granted home rule to Ireland as a constituent country of the former United Kingdom of Great Britain and Ireland
288
False
What is Irish Free State?
572844c5ff5b5019007da06a
eventually evolved into the modern day Republic of Ireland
514
False
unitary state
56
How has United Kingdom not been governed?
5acfbe5777cf76001a685bfc
True
UK has relied on gradual devolution to decentralise political power
152
Instead of the UK adopting the federalist model, what didn't they do?
5acfbe5777cf76001a685bfd
True
1914
283
When did revolution in the UK begin?
5acfbe5777cf76001a685bfe
True
which granted home rule to Ireland as a constituent country of the former United Kingdom of Great Britain and Ireland
288
What isn't Ireland Act 1914?
5acfbe5777cf76001a685bff
True
which eventually evolved into the modern day Republic of Ireland
508
What is Irish Cost State?
5acfbe5777cf76001a685c00
True
The United Kingdom has traditionally been governed as a unitary state by the Westminster Parliament in London. Instead of adopting a federal model, the UK has relied on gradual devolution to decentralise political power. Devolution in the UK began with the Government of Ireland Act 1914 which granted home rule to Ireland as a constituent country of the former United Kingdom of Great Britain and Ireland. Following the partition of Ireland in 1921 which saw the creation of the sovereign Irish Free State (which eventually evolved into the modern day Republic of Ireland), Northern Ireland retained its devolved government through the Parliament of Northern Ireland, the only part of the UK to have such a body at this time. This body was suspended in 1972 and Northern Ireland was governed by direct rule during the period of conflict known as The Troubles.
What has the process of devolution in the UK did?
57284566ff5b5019007da082
decentralised power once again
67
False
What happened since 1997?
57284566ff5b5019007da083
referendums in Scotland and Wales and the Good Friday Agreement in Northern Ireland
114
False
Does England have its own Parliament?
57284566ff5b5019007da084
England does not have its own parliament and English affairs continue to be decided by the Westminster Parliament
406
False
What does the region of England continue to use?
57284566ff5b5019007da085
certain governmental administrative functions
748
False
decentralised power once again
67
What has the process of revolution in the UK did?
5acfbf1677cf76001a685c2c
True
decentralised power once again
67
What has the process of devolution in the US did?
5acfbf1677cf76001a685c2d
True
referendums in Scotland and Wales and the Good Friday Agreement in Northern Ireland
114
What happened since 1979?
5acfbf1677cf76001a685c2e
True
England does not have its own parliament
406
Why does England have its own Parliament?
5acfbf1677cf76001a685c2f
True
certain governmental administrative functions
748
What doesn't the region of England continue to use?
5acfbf1677cf76001a685c30
True
In modern times, a process of devolution in the United Kingdom has decentralised power once again. Since the 1997 referendums in Scotland and Wales and the Good Friday Agreement in Northern Ireland, three of the four constituent countries of the UK now have some level of autonomy. Government has been devolved to the Scottish Parliament, the National Assembly for Wales and the Northern Ireland Assembly. England does not have its own parliament and English affairs continue to be decided by the Westminster Parliament. In 1998 a set of eight unelected Regional assemblies, or chambers, was created to support the English Regional Development Agencies, but these were abolished between 2008 and 2010. The Regions of England continue to be used in certain governmental administrative functions.
What is ecclesiology?
572845ec4b864d190016488c
the doctrine of the church
50
False
What happens in Presbyterian denominations?
572845ec4b864d190016488d
the local church is ruled by elected elders, some of which are ministerial.
244
False
In political federalism what does Presbyterian ecclesiology do?
572845ec4b864d190016488e
shared sovereignty
665
False
What does each greater level of assembly have?
572845ec4b864d190016488f
authority over its constituent members
469
False
the doctrine of the church
50
What isn't ecclesiology?
5acfbfdc77cf76001a685c62
True
the local church is ruled by elected elders
244
What doesn't happen in Presbyterian denominations?
5acfbfdc77cf76001a685c63
True
shared sovereignty
665
In political federalism what does Presbyterian ecclesiology not do?
5acfbfdc77cf76001a685c64
True
shared sovereignty
665
In political communism what does Presbyterian ecclesiology do?
5acfbfdc77cf76001a685c65
True
authority over its constituent members
469
What does each lesser level of assembly have?
5acfbfdc77cf76001a685c66
True
Federalism also finds expression in ecclesiology (the doctrine of the church). For example, presbyterian church governance resembles parliamentary republicanism (a form of political federalism) to a large extent. In Presbyterian denominations, the local church is ruled by elected elders, some of which are ministerial. Each church then sends representatives or commissioners to presbyteries and further to a general assembly. Each greater level of assembly has ruling authority over its constituent members. In this governmental structure, each component has some level of sovereignty over itself. As in political federalism, in presbyterian ecclesiology there is shared sovereignty.
When was the earliest source of political federalism according to Christians?
572848c23acd2414000df887
is the ecclesiastical federalism found in the Bible.
148
False
What was the structure that the early Christian church described?
572848c23acd2414000df888
in the New Testament
310
False
What happens in the council of Jerusalem?
572848c23acd2414000df889
the Apostles and elders gathered together to govern the Church
451
False
Where can the elements of federalism can be found?
572848c23acd2414000df88a
can be found in almost every Christian denomination, some more than others.
655
False
ecclesiastical federalism found in the Bible
155
When was the latest source of political federalism according to Christians?
5acfc07077cf76001a685c8c
True
ecclesiastical federalism found in the Bible
155
When was the earliest source of political federalism according to Muslims?
5acfc07077cf76001a685c8d
True
in the New Testament
310
Where was the structure that the late Christian church described?
5acfc07077cf76001a685c8e
True
the Apostles and elders gathered together to govern the Church
451
What never happens in the council of Jerusalem?
5acfc07077cf76001a685c8f
True
in almost every Christian denomination
668
Where can't the elements of federalism can be found?
5acfc07077cf76001a685c90
True
Some Christians argue that the earliest source of political federalism (or federalism in human institutions; in contrast to theological federalism) is the ecclesiastical federalism found in the Bible. They point to the structure of the early Christian Church as described (and prescribed, as believed by many) in the New Testament. In their arguments, this is particularly demonstrated in the Council of Jerusalem, described in Acts chapter 15, where the Apostles and elders gathered together to govern the Church; the Apostles being representatives of the universal Church, and elders being such for the local church. To this day, elements of federalism can be found in almost every Christian denomination, some more than others.
In nearly all federalism countries, central powers enjoy what?
5728498d3acd2414000df8a1
the powers of foreign policy and national defense as exclusive federal powers
56
False
Per the UN definition, what is federalism?
5728498d3acd2414000df8a2
federation would not be a single sovereign state
160
False
What is the German Empire?
5728498d3acd2414000df8a3
Germany retain the right to act on their own behalf at an international level,
256
False
What is the libson treaty?
5728498d3acd2414000df8a4
powers which are not either exclusively of European competence or shared between EU and state as concurrent powers are retained by the constituent states.
1243
False
the powers of foreign policy and national defense as exclusive federal powers
56
In nearly all federalism countries, decentralized powers enjoy what?
5acfc10177cf76001a685cd0
True
the powers of foreign policy and national defense as exclusive federal powers
56
In nearly no federalism countries, central powers enjoy what?
5acfc10177cf76001a685cd1
True
federation would not be a single sovereign state
160
Per the US definition, what is federalism?
5acfc10177cf76001a685cd2
True
Germany retain the right to act on their own behalf at an international level
256
What isn't the German Empire?
5acfc10177cf76001a685cd3
True
powers which are not either exclusively of European competence or shared between EU and state as concurrent powers are retained by the constituent states
1243
What isn't the Libson treaty?
5acfc10177cf76001a685cd4
True
In almost all federations the central government enjoys the powers of foreign policy and national defense as exclusive federal powers. Were this not the case a federation would not be a single sovereign state, per the UN definition. Notably, the states of Germany retain the right to act on their own behalf at an international level, a condition originally granted in exchange for the Kingdom of Bavaria's agreement to join the German Empire in 1871. Beyond this the precise division of power varies from one nation to another. The constitutions of Germany and the United States provide that all powers not specifically granted to the federal government are retained by the states. The Constitution of some countries like Canada and India, on the other hand, state that powers not explicitly granted to the provincial governments are retained by the federal government. Much like the US system, the Australian Constitution allocates to the Federal government (the Commonwealth of Australia) the power to make laws about certain specified matters which were considered too difficult for the States to manage, so that the States retain all other areas of responsibility. Under the division of powers of the European Union in the Lisbon Treaty, powers which are not either exclusively of European competence or shared between EU and state as concurrent powers are retained by the constituent states.
Annelid
What kind of symmetry do annelids have?
572822da3acd2414000df55f
bilateral
17
False
What do annelids use to move?
572822da3acd2414000df560
parapodia
107
False
Which subtype of annelids includes most marine worms?
572822da3acd2414000df561
polychaetes
188
False
Which subtype of annelids includes earthworms?
572822da3acd2414000df562
oligochaetes
221
False
Since 1997, what are leeches seen as a subgroup of?
572822da3acd2414000df563
oligochaetes
384
False
bilateral
17
What kind of symmetry do annelids lack?
5ace5aff32bba1001ae4a3a1
True
parapodia
107
What do annelids use to fly?
5ace5aff32bba1001ae4a3a2
True
polychaetes
188
Which subtype of annelids includes most space worms?
5ace5aff32bba1001ae4a3a3
True
oligochaetes
401
Which subtype of annelids includes marsworms?
5ace5aff32bba1001ae4a3a4
True
oligochaetes
221
What are leeches seen as a subgroup of since 1897?
5ace5aff32bba1001ae4a3a5
True
The annelids are bilaterally symmetrical, triploblastic, coelomate, invertebrate organisms. They also have parapodia for locomotion. Most textbooks still use the traditional division into polychaetes (almost all marine), oligochaetes (which include earthworms) and leech-like species. Cladistic research since 1997 has radically changed this scheme, viewing leeches as a sub-group of oligochaetes and oligochaetes as a sub-group of polychaetes. In addition, the Pogonophora, Echiura and Sipuncula, previously regarded as separate phyla, are now regarded as sub-groups of polychaetes. Annelids are considered members of the Lophotrochozoa, a "super-phylum" of protostomes that also includes molluscs, brachiopods, flatworms and nemerteans.
What separates many annelids' segments?
5728240b4b864d1900164560
Septa
183
False
Which annelids show no segmentation?
5728240b4b864d1900164561
Echiura and Sipuncula
276
False
What end of annelids with well-developed segmentation has muscles that act like hearts?
5728240b4b864d1900164562
front
464
False
What is movement by ripples called?
5728240b4b864d1900164563
peristalsis
662
False
What movement method do some burrowing annelids use?
5728240b4b864d1900164564
turn their pharynges inside out to drag themselves
972
False
Septa
183
What integrates many annelids' segments?
5ace5c7732bba1001ae4a3e5
True
Echiura and Sipuncula
276
Which annelids show only segmentation?
5ace5c7732bba1001ae4a3e6
True
front
464
What end of annelids with well-developed segmentation have muscles that act like brains?
5ace5c7732bba1001ae4a3e7
True
peristalsis
662
What is movement by ripples no longer called?
5ace5c7732bba1001ae4a3e8
True
turn their pharynges inside out to drag themselves
972
What movement method do some extinct annelids use?
5ace5c7732bba1001ae4a3e9
True
The basic annelid form consists of multiple segments. Each segment has the same sets of organs and, in most polychaetes, has a pair of parapodia that many species use for locomotion. Septa separate the segments of many species, but are poorly defined or absent in others, and Echiura and Sipuncula show no obvious signs of segmentation. In species with well-developed septa, the blood circulates entirely within blood vessels, and the vessels in segments near the front ends of these species are often built up with muscles that act as hearts. The septa of such species also enable them to change the shapes of individual segments, which facilitates movement by peristalsis ("ripples" that pass along the body) or by undulations that improve the effectiveness of the parapodia. In species with incomplete septa or none, the blood circulates through the main body cavity without any kind of pump, and there is a wide range of locomotory techniques – some burrowing species turn their pharynges inside out to drag themselves through the sediment.
How do annelids normally reproduce?
5728247c4b864d1900164574
sexual reproduction
110
False
What can asexual reproduction techniques help annelids do?
5728247c4b864d1900164575
regenerate after severe injuries
76
False
What larvae live like plankton?
5728247c4b864d1900164576
trochophore
286
False
What annelids are hermaphrodites?
5728247c4b864d1900164577
Oligochaetes
382
False
What annelids make a cocoon in a ring around themselves?
5728247c4b864d1900164578
Oligochaetes
382
False
sexual reproduction
110
How do annelids never reproduce?
5ace5e2332bba1001ae4a421
True
regenerate after severe injuries
76
What can asexual reproduction techniques prevent annelids from doing?
5ace5e2332bba1001ae4a422
True
trochophore
286
What larvae live like whales?
5ace5e2332bba1001ae4a423
True
Oligochaetes
382
What annelids dislike hermaphrodites?
5ace5e2332bba1001ae4a424
True
Oligochaetes
382
What annelids make a cocoon in a pyramid around themselves?
5ace5e2332bba1001ae4a425
True
Although many species can reproduce asexually and use similar mechanisms to regenerate after severe injuries, sexual reproduction is the normal method in species whose reproduction has been studied. The minority of living polychaetes whose reproduction and lifecycles are known produce trochophore larvae, that live as plankton and then sink and metamorphose into miniature adults. Oligochaetes are full hermaphrodites and produce a ring-like cocoon around their bodies, in which the eggs and hatchlings are nourished until they are ready to emerge.
How do earthworms help the soil they live in?
572825042ca10214002d9eea
aeration and enriching
115
False
How much of near-shore marine annelids are burrowing?
572825042ca10214002d9eeb
up to a third
205
False
How do burrowing marine annelids help ocean ecosystems?
572825042ca10214002d9eec
enabling water and oxygen to penetrate the sea floor
306
False
What annelids' jaws are being studied by engineers?
572825042ca10214002d9eed
Ragworms
717
False
Why are some leeches endangered?
572825042ca10214002d9eee
they have been over-harvested
643
False
aeration and enriching
115
How do earthworms ruin the soil they live in?
5ace602d32bba1001ae4a479
True
up to a third
205
How much of near-shore aerial annelids are burrowing?
5ace602d32bba1001ae4a47a
True
enabling water and oxygen to penetrate the sea floor
306
How do burrowing marine annelids remove ocean ecosystems?
5ace602d32bba1001ae4a47b
True
Ragworms
717
What annelids' ears are being studied by engineers?
5ace602d32bba1001ae4a47c
True
they have been over-harvested
643
Why are no leeches endangered?
5ace602d32bba1001ae4a47d
True
Earthworms are Oligochaetes that support terrestrial food chains both as prey and in some regions are important in aeration and enriching of soil. The burrowing of marine polychaetes, which may constitute up to a third of all species in near-shore environments, encourages the development of ecosystems by enabling water and oxygen to penetrate the sea floor. In addition to improving soil fertility, annelids serve humans as food and as bait. Scientists observe annelids to monitor the quality of marine and fresh water. Although blood-letting is no longer in favor with doctors, some leech species are regarded as endangered species because they have been over-harvested for this purpose in the last few centuries. Ragworms' jaws are now being studied by engineers as they offer an exceptional combination of lightness and strength.
Why are annelid fossils rare?
572825ad4b864d190016459a
annelids are soft-bodied
6
False
What fossil signs of annelids are found?
572825ad4b864d190016459b
jaws and the mineralized tubes that some of the species secreted
64
False
How old is the earliest annelid fossil?
572825ad4b864d190016459c
518 million years ago
267
False
What types of annelids appeared 299 million years ago?
572825ad4b864d190016459d
modern mobile polychaete groups
335
False
What period started around 472 million years ago?
572825ad4b864d190016459e
the mid Ordovician
501
False
annelids are soft-bodied
6
Why are annelid fossils common?
5ace617532bba1001ae4a4c3
True
jaws and the mineralized tubes that some of the species secreted
64
What fossil signs of annelids can no longer be found?
5ace617532bba1001ae4a4c4
True
518 million years
267
How old is the oldest living annelid?
5ace617532bba1001ae4a4c5
True
modern mobile polychaete groups
335
What types of annelids disappeared 299 million years ago?
5ace617532bba1001ae4a4c6
True
the mid Ordovician
501
What period started around 372 million years ago?
5ace617532bba1001ae4a4c7
True
Since annelids are soft-bodied, their fossils are rare – mostly jaws and the mineralized tubes that some of the species secreted. Although some late Ediacaran fossils may represent annelids, the oldest known fossil that is identified with confidence comes from about 518 million years ago in the early Cambrian period. Fossils of most modern mobile polychaete groups appeared by the end of the Carboniferous, about 299 million years ago. Palaeontologists disagree about whether some body fossils from the mid Ordovician, about 472 to 461 million years ago, are the remains of oligochaetes, and the earliest indisputable fossils of the group appear in the Tertiary period, which began 65 million years ago.
What externally divides annelids' segments?
572826494b864d19001645b4
shallow ring-like constrictions called annuli
193
False
What divides annelids' segments internally?
572826494b864d19001645b5
septa ("partitions")
257
False
What do the segments of an annelid share?
572826494b864d19001645b6
a common gut, circulatory system and nervous system
447
False
What covers an annelid's exterior?
572826494b864d19001645b7
a cuticle
555
False
What is an annelid's cuticle made of?
572826494b864d19001645b8
collagen
689
False
shallow ring-like constrictions called annuli
193
What externally combines annelids' segments?
5ace643a32bba1001ae4a559
True
septa ("partitions")
257
What combines annelids' segments internally?
5ace643a32bba1001ae4a55a
True
a common gut, circulatory system and nervous system
447
What do the segments of an annelid lack?
5ace643a32bba1001ae4a55b
True
a cuticle
555
What conceals an annelid's exterior?
5ace643a32bba1001ae4a55c
True
collagen
689
What is an annelid's cuticle made into?
5ace643a32bba1001ae4a55d
True
No single feature distinguishes Annelids from other invertebrate phyla, but they have a distinctive combination of features. Their bodies are long, with segments that are divided externally by shallow ring-like constrictions called annuli and internally by septa ("partitions") at the same points, although in some species the septa are incomplete and in a few cases missing. Most of the segments contain the same sets of organs, although sharing a common gut, circulatory system and nervous system makes them inter-dependent. Their bodies are covered by a cuticle (outer covering) that does not contain cells but is secreted by cells in the skin underneath, is made of tough but flexible collagen and does not molt – on the other hand arthropods' cuticles are made of the more rigid α-chitin, and molt until the arthropods reach their full size. Most annelids have closed circulatory systems, where the blood makes its entire circuit via blood vessels.
What language does the term 'chaetae' come from?
572826b34b864d19001645d0
Greek
141
False
What does 'chaetae' mean?
572826b34b864d19001645d1
hair
163
False
Which parts of annelids are different from true segments?
572826b34b864d19001645d2
the frontmost and rearmost sections
213
False
What language does 'prostomium' come from?
572826b34b864d19001645d3
Greek
575
False
What does 'pygidium' mean?
572826b34b864d19001645d4
little tail
600
False
Greek
141
What language is the term 'chaetae' banned in?
5ace7b6532bba1001ae4a7bf
True
hair
163
What does 'chaetae' no longer mean?
5ace7b6532bba1001ae4a7c0
True
the frontmost and rearmost sections
213
Which parts of annelids are different from fake segments?
5ace7b6532bba1001ae4a7c1
True
chaetae
132
What kind of annelid has four true segments?
5ace7b6532bba1001ae4a7c2
True
Most of an annelid's body consists of segments that are practically identical, having the same sets of internal organs and external chaetae (Greek χαιτη, meaning "hair") and, in some species, appendages. However, the frontmost and rearmost sections are not regarded as true segments as they do not contain the standard sets of organs and do not develop in the same way as the true segments. The frontmost section, called the prostomium (Greek προ- meaning "in front of" and στομα meaning "mouth") contains the brain and sense organs, while the rearmost, called the pygidium (Greek πυγιδιον, meaning "little tail") or periproct contains the anus, generally on the underside. The first section behind the prostomium, called the peristomium (Greek περι- meaning "around" and στομα meaning "mouth"), is regarded by some zoologists as not a true segment, but in some polychaetes the peristomium has chetae and appendages like those of other segments.
How are the layers arranged in annelids' cuticles?
572827192ca10214002d9f52
spiral in alternating directions
71
False
What are annelids' cuticles made out of?
572827192ca10214002d9f53
collagen fibers
31
False
What do non-cuticle annelids use to protect their skin?
572827192ca10214002d9f54
mucus-secreting glands in the epidermis
317
False
What layer is under the epidermis?
572827192ca10214002d9f55
the dermis
401
False
What does 'coelom' mean?
572827192ca10214002d9f56
(body cavity
614
False
spiral in alternating directions
71
How are the eyes arranged in annelids' cuticles?
5ace7cbc32bba1001ae4a7db
True
collagen fibers
31
What are annelids' brain made out of?
5ace7cbc32bba1001ae4a7dc
True
mucus-secreting glands in the epidermis
317
What do non-cuticle annelids use to protect their offspring?
5ace7cbc32bba1001ae4a7dd
True
the dermis
401
What annelid is under the epidermis?
5ace7cbc32bba1001ae4a7de
True
Annelids' cuticles are made of collagen fibers, usually in layers that spiral in alternating directions so that the fibers cross each other. These are secreted by the one-cell deep epidermis (outermost skin layer). A few marine annelids that live in tubes lack cuticles, but their tubes have a similar structure, and mucus-secreting glands in the epidermis protect their skins. Under the epidermis is the dermis, which is made of connective tissue, in other words a combination of cells and non-cellular materials such as collagen. Below this are two layers of muscles, which develop from the lining of the coelom (body cavity): circular muscles make a segment longer and slimmer when they contract, while under them are longitudinal muscles, usually four distinct strips, whose contractions make the segment shorter and fatter. Some annelids also have oblique internal muscles that connect the underside of the body to each side.
What do chetoblast cells do?
572827843acd2414000df5ae
hair-forming
462
False
What hair-like extensions do chetoblasts make?
572827843acd2414000df5af
microvilli
588
False
What are setae?
572827843acd2414000df5b0
bristles
895
False
limbs
228
What are parapodia against?
5ace7ee632bba1001ae4a82b
True
hair-forming
462
What do chetoblast cells destroy?
5ace7ee632bba1001ae4a82c
True
microvilli
588
What hair-like extensions do chetoblasts eat?
5ace7ee632bba1001ae4a82d
True
bristles
895
What are setae never considered?
5ace7ee632bba1001ae4a82e
True
The setae ("hairs") of annelids project out from the epidermis to provide traction and other capabilities. The simplest are unjointed and form paired bundles near the top and bottom of each side of each segment. The parapodia ("limbs") of annelids that have them often bear more complex chetae at their tips – for example jointed, comb-like or hooked. Chetae are made of moderately flexible β-chitin and are formed by follicles, each of which has a chetoblast ("hair-forming") cell at the bottom and muscles that can extend or retract the cheta. The chetoblasts produce chetae by forming microvilli, fine hair-like extensions that increase the area available for secreting the cheta. When the cheta is complete, the microvilli withdraw into the chetoblast, leaving parallel tunnels that run almost the full length of the cheta. Hence annelids' chetae are structurally different from the setae ("bristles") of arthropods, which are made of the more rigid α-chitin, have a single internal cavity, and are mounted on flexible joints in shallow pits in the cuticle.
What are cirri?
5728283a2ca10214002d9f70
fused bundles of cilia
615
False
What kind of parapodia do burrowing annelids often have?
5728283a2ca10214002d9f71
ridges whose tips bear hooked chetae
379
False
What type of annelids have limb-like parapodia?
5728283a2ca10214002d9f72
polychaetes
11
False
What are parapodia?
5728283a2ca10214002d9f73
unjointed paired extensions of the body wall
120
False
fused bundles of cilia
615
Where are cirri never found?
5ace7f8d32bba1001ae4a859
True
ridges whose tips bear hooked chetae
379
What kind of parapodia do aerial annelids often have?
5ace7f8d32bba1001ae4a85a
True
polychaetes
352
What type of annelids have dream-like parapodia?
5ace7f8d32bba1001ae4a85b
True
unjointed paired extensions of the body wall
120
What are parapodia no longer considered?
5ace7f8d32bba1001ae4a85c
True
Nearly all polychaetes have parapodia that function as limbs, while other major annelid groups lack them. Parapodia are unjointed paired extensions of the body wall, and their muscles are derived from the circular muscles of the body. They are often supported internally by one or more large, thick chetae. The parapodia of burrowing and tube-dwelling polychaetes are often just ridges whose tips bear hooked chetae. In active crawlers and swimmers the parapodia are often divided into large upper and lower paddles on a very short trunk, and the paddles are generally fringed with chetae and sometimes with cirri (fused bundles of cilia) and gills.
What are ganglia?
572828b12ca10214002d9f7e
local control centers
94
False
What is an annelid's brain in a ring around?
572828b12ca10214002d9f7f
the pharynx
39
False
What is a pharynx?
572828b12ca10214002d9f80
throat
52
False
Where are clitellates' brains?
572828b12ca10214002d9f81
in the peristomium or sometimes the first segment behind the peristomium
344
False
Where are polychaetes' brains?
572828b12ca10214002d9f82
in the prostomium
294
False
the pharynx
39
What is an annelid's brain in a sphere around?
5ace80a432bba1001ae4a895
True
in the peristomium or sometimes the first segment behind the peristomium
344
Where are clitellates' teeth?
5ace80a432bba1001ae4a896
True
in the prostomium
294
Where are polychaetes' bodies?
5ace80a432bba1001ae4a897
True
the central nervous system
570
What is rarely "ladder-like"?
5ace80a432bba1001ae4a898
True
the two main nerve cords
927
What nerve cords are never fused in polychaetes?
5ace80a432bba1001ae4a899
True
The brain generally forms a ring round the pharynx (throat), consisting of a pair of ganglia (local control centers) above and in front of the pharynx, linked by nerve cords either side of the pharynx to another pair of ganglia just below and behind it. The brains of polychaetes are generally in the prostomium, while those of clitellates are in the peristomium or sometimes the first segment behind the peristomium. In some very mobile and active polychaetes the brain is enlarged and more complex, with visible hindbrain, midbrain and forebrain sections. The rest of the central nervous system is generally "ladder-like", consisting of a pair of nerve cords that run through the bottom part of the body and have in each segment paired ganglia linked by a transverse connection. From each segmental ganglion a branching system of local nerves runs into the body wall and then encircles the body. However, in most polychaetes the two main nerve cords are fused, and in the tube-dwelling genus Owenia the single nerve chord has no ganglia and is located in the epidermis.
What species group are annelids' muscle control similar to?
5728293c4b864d1900164618
arthropods
6
False
What are giant axons?
5728293c4b864d1900164619
the output signal lines of nerve cells
340
False
How do annelids withdraw from danger?
5728293c4b864d190016461a
shortening their bodies
548
False
arthropods
6
What species group are annelids' mind control similar to?
5ace81a032bba1001ae4a8b3
True
the output signal lines of nerve cells
340
What do giant axons destroy?
5ace81a032bba1001ae4a8b4
True
shortening their bodies
548
How do annelids increase danger?
5ace81a032bba1001ae4a8b5
True
annelids
283
What worms are very slow to retreat from danger?
5ace81a032bba1001ae4a8b6
True
As in arthropods, each muscle fiber (cell) is controlled by more than one neuron, and the speed and power of the fiber's contractions depends on the combined effects of all its neurons. Vertebrates have a different system, in which one neuron controls a group of muscle fibers. Most annelids' longitudinal nerve trunks include giant axons (the output signal lines of nerve cells). Their large diameter decreases their resistance, which allows them to transmit signals exceptionally fast. This enables these worms to withdraw rapidly from danger by shortening their bodies. Experiments have shown that cutting the giant axons prevents this escape response but does not affect normal movement.
What kind of things can annelids' sensors detect?
57282a2e2ca10214002d9fb6
light, chemicals, pressure waves and contact
51
False
What does 'nuchal' mean?
57282a2e2ca10214002d9fb7
on the neck
184
False
What type of annelids have nuchal organs?
57282a2e2ca10214002d9fb8
polychaetes
251
False
What are the nuchal organs thought to do?
57282a2e2ca10214002d9fb9
chemosensors
286
False
What term means 'little eyes'?
57282a2e2ca10214002d9fba
ocelli
351
False
light, chemicals, pressure waves and contact
51
What kind of things can annelids' sensors remove?
5ace827f32bba1001ae4a8df
True
polychaetes
251
What type of annelids have human organs?
5ace827f32bba1001ae4a8e0
True
chemosensors
286
What are nuchal organs thought to kill?
5ace827f32bba1001ae4a8e1
True
ocelli
351
What term means 'massive eyes'?
5ace827f32bba1001ae4a8e2
True
The sensors are primarily single cells that detect light, chemicals, pressure waves and contact, and are present on the head, appendages (if any) and other parts of the body. Nuchal ("on the neck") organs are paired, ciliated structures found only in polychaetes, and are thought to be chemosensors. Some polychaetes also have various combinations of ocelli ("little eyes") that detect the direction from which light is coming and camera eyes or compound eyes that can probably form images. The compound eyes probably evolved independently of arthropods' eyes. Some tube-worms use ocelli widely spread over their bodies to detect the shadows of fish, so that they can quickly withdraw into their tubes. Some burrowing and tube-dwelling polychaetes have statocysts (tilt and balance sensors) that tell them which way is down. A few polychaete genera have on the undersides of their heads palps that are used both in feeding and as "feelers", and some of these also have antennae that are structurally similar but probably are used mainly as "feelers".
What are coelomata?
57282a944b864d1900164638
body cavities
40
False
What are annelids' body cavities separated from other segments by?
57282a944b864d1900164639
septa
105
False
What are annelids' body cavities separated from each other by?
57282a944b864d190016463a
vertical mesenteries
134
False
What is the mesothelium made of?
57282a944b864d190016463b
modified epitheliomuscular cells
544
False
body cavities
40
What are coelomata removed from?
5ace853932bba1001ae4a953
True
septa
105
What are annelids' body cavities combined with other segments by?
5ace853932bba1001ae4a954
True
vertical mesenteries
134
What are annelids' body cavities separated from eyes by?
5ace853932bba1001ae4a955
True
modified epitheliomuscular cells
544
What is the mesothelium never made of?
5ace853932bba1001ae4a956
True
Most annelids have a pair of coelomata (body cavities) in each segment, separated from other segments by septa and from each other by vertical mesenteries. Each septum forms a sandwich with connective tissue in the middle and mesothelium (membrane that serves as a lining) from the preceding and following segments on either side. Each mesentery is similar except that the mesothelium is the lining of each of the pair of coelomata, and the blood vessels and, in polychaetes, the main nerve cords are embedded in it. The mesothelium is made of modified epitheliomuscular cells; in other words, their bodies form part of the epithelium but their bases extend to form muscle fibers in the body wall. The mesothelium may also form radial and circular muscles on the septa, and circular muscles around the blood vessels and gut. Parts of the mesothelium, especially on the outside of the gut, may also form chloragogen cells that perform similar functions to the livers of vertebrates: producing and storing glycogen and fat; producing the oxygen-carrier hemoglobin; breaking down proteins; and turning nitrogenous waste products into ammonia and urea to be excreted.
How does peristalsis work?
57282af73acd2414000df5fd
waves of contraction and expansion that sweep along the body
35
False
Why are annelids' segments like water-balloons?
57282af73acd2414000df5fe
the septa enable the circular and longitudinal muscles to change the shape of individual segments
172
False
What are phrynges?
57282af73acd2414000df5ff
throats
644
False
What are cilia?
57282af73acd2414000df600
fine muscle-powered hairs
576
False
waves of contraction and expansion that sweep along the body
35
How does peristalsis stop working?
5ace85c932bba1001ae4a965
True
the septa enable the circular and longitudinal muscles to change the shape of individual segments
172
Why are annelids' segments like helium-balloons?
5ace85c932bba1001ae4a966
True
the septa
338
What are often complete in annelids?
5ace85c932bba1001ae4a967
True
annelids
5
What do not have throats?
5ace85c932bba1001ae4a968
True
Many annelids move by peristalsis (waves of contraction and expansion that sweep along the body), or flex the body while using parapodia to crawl or swim. In these animals the septa enable the circular and longitudinal muscles to change the shape of individual segments, by making each segment a separate fluid-filled "balloon". However, the septa are often incomplete in annelids that are semi-sessile or that do not move by peristalsis or by movements of parapodia – for example some move by whipping movements of the body, some small marine species move by means of cilia (fine muscle-powered hairs) and some burrowers turn their pharynges (throats) inside out to penetrate the sea-floor and drag themselves into it.
What can coelomocyte cells defend against?
57282b9b3acd2414000df617
parasites and infections
86
False
What type of pigment is dissolved in annelids' blood?
57282b9b3acd2414000df618
Respiratory
324
False
What runs the length of annelids' bodies with well-developed septa?
57282b9b3acd2414000df619
blood vessels
437
False
What do annelids without septa have to use for circulation?
57282b9b3acd2414000df61a
circulation within the coelom
1158
False
parasites and infections
86
What can coelomocyte cells heal?
5ace864832bba1001ae4a96d
True
respiratory
160
What type of pigment is created in annelids' blood?
5ace864832bba1001ae4a96e
True
blood vessels
437
What runs the length of annelids' brains with well-developed septa?
5ace864832bba1001ae4a96f
True
plasma
375
What do annelids with septa have to use for blood?
5ace864832bba1001ae4a970
True
The fluid in the coelomata contains coelomocyte cells that defend the animals against parasites and infections. In some species coelomocytes may also contain a respiratory pigment – red hemoglobin in some species, green chlorocruorin in others (dissolved in the plasma) – and provide oxygen transport within their segments. Respiratory pigment is also dissolved in the blood plasma. Species with well-developed septa generally also have blood vessels running all long their bodies above and below the gut, the upper one carrying blood forwards while the lower one carries it backwards. Networks of capillaries in the body wall and around the gut transfer blood between the main blood vessels and to parts of the segment that need oxygen and nutrients. Both of the major vessels, especially the upper one, can pump blood by contracting. In some annelids the forward end of the upper blood vessel is enlarged with muscles to form a heart, while in the forward ends of many earthworms some of the vessels that connect the upper and lower main vessels function as hearts. Species with poorly developed or no septa generally have no blood vessels and rely on the circulation within the coelom for delivering nutrients and oxygen.
What type of annelids are very different from others?
57282c162ca10214002d9fdc
leeches and their closest relatives
9
False
What type of tissue takes up most of the body of a leech?
57282c162ca10214002d9fdd
connective tissue layer of the body wall
240
False
How many coelomata do leeches have?
57282c162ca10214002d9fde
two
336
False
What lines the coelomata of leeches?
57282c162ca10214002d9fdf
mesothelium
533
False
What do leeches use to move?
57282c162ca10214002d9fe0
suckers at their front and rear ends
635
False
leeches and their closest relatives
9
What type of annelids are very identical to others?
5ace86bc32bba1001ae4a975
True
connective tissue layer of the body wall
240
What type of tissue eats most of the body of a leech?
5ace86bc32bba1001ae4a976
True
two
336
How many brains do leeches have?
5ace86bc32bba1001ae4a977
True
mesothelium
533
What lines the bones of leeches?
5ace86bc32bba1001ae4a978
True
suckers at their front and rear ends
635
What do leeches use to fly?
5ace86bc32bba1001ae4a979
True
However, leeches and their closest relatives have a body structure that is very uniform within the group but significantly different from that of other annelids, including other members of the Clitellata. In leeches there are no septa, the connective tissue layer of the body wall is so thick that it occupies much of the body, and the two coelomata are widely separated and run the length of the body. They function as the main blood vessels, although they are side-by-side rather than upper and lower. However, they are lined with mesothelium, like the coelomata and unlike the blood vessels of other annelids. Leeches generally use suckers at their front and rear ends to move like inchworms. The anus is on the upper surface of the pygidium.
What does 'everted' mean?
57282c833acd2414000df63d
turned inside out to extend
167
False
What part of a polychaete can be everted?
57282c833acd2414000df63e
pharynx
138
False
What types of annelids have evolved jaws?
57282c833acd2414000df63f
Eunicidae and Phyllodocidae
426
False
What do annelids use jaws for?
57282c833acd2414000df640
seizing prey, biting off pieces of vegetation, or grasping dead and decaying matter
496
False
What do some annelids have 'crowns' of?
57282c833acd2414000df641
palps covered in cilia
859
False
pharynx
138
What part of a polychaete can be inverted?
5ace874132bba1001ae4a97f
True
Eunicidae and Phyllodocidae
426
What types of annelids are missing jaws?
5ace874132bba1001ae4a980
True
seizing prey, biting off pieces of vegetation, or grasping dead and decaying matter
496
What do annelids use robots for?
5ace874132bba1001ae4a981
True
palps covered in cilia
859
What do some annelids have 'trophies' of?
5ace874132bba1001ae4a982
True
Feeding structures in the mouth region vary widely, and have little correlation with the animals' diets. Many polychaetes have a muscular pharynx that can be everted (turned inside out to extend it). In these animals the foremost few segments often lack septa so that, when the muscles in these segments contract, the sharp increase in fluid pressure from all these segments everts the pharynx very quickly. Two families, the Eunicidae and Phyllodocidae, have evolved jaws, which can be used for seizing prey, biting off pieces of vegetation, or grasping dead and decaying matter. On the other hand, some predatory polychaetes have neither jaws nor eversible pharynges. Selective deposit feeders generally live in tubes on the sea-floor and use palps to find food particles in the sediment and then wipe them into their mouths. Filter feeders use "crowns" of palps covered in cilia that wash food particles towards their mouths. Non-selective deposit feeders ingest soil or marine sediments via mouths that are generally unspecialized. Some clitellates have sticky pads in the roofs of their mouths, and some of these can evert the pads to capture prey. Leeches often have an eversible proboscis, or a muscular pharynx with two or three teeth.
What type of annelids are tube-dwelling?
57282ce8ff5b5019007d9e8e
Siboglinidae
218
False
What blocks the Siboglinidae's gut?
57282ce8ff5b5019007d9e8f
a swollen lining
253
False
How much of a Siboglinidae's weight is symbiotic bacteria?
57282ce8ff5b5019007d9e90
15%
320
False
What gases come from hydrothermal vents?
57282ce8ff5b5019007d9e91
hydrogen sulfide and carbon dioxide
400
False
What gases come from seeps?
57282ce8ff5b5019007d9e92
methane
464
False
Siboglinidae
218
What type of annelids are brain-dwelling?
5ace87a232bba1001ae4a987
True
a swollen lining
253
What blocks the Siboglinidae's blood?
5ace87a232bba1001ae4a988
True
15%
320
How much of a Siboglinidae's consciousness is symbiotic bacteria?
5ace87a232bba1001ae4a989
True
hydrogen sulfide and carbon dioxide
400
What liquids come from hydrothermal bottles?
5ace87a232bba1001ae4a98a
True
methane
464
What foods come from seeps?
5ace87a232bba1001ae4a98b
True
The gut is generally an almost straight tube supported by the mesenteries (vertical partitions within segments), and ends with the anus on the underside of the pygidium. However, in members of the tube-dwelling family Siboglinidae the gut is blocked by a swollen lining that houses symbiotic bacteria, which can make up 15% of the worms' total weight. The bacteria convert inorganic matter – such as hydrogen sulfide and carbon dioxide from hydrothermal vents, or methane from seeps – to organic matter that feeds themselves and their hosts, while the worms extend their palps into the gas flows to absorb the gases needed by the bacteria.
What do metanephridia remove?
57282ddd3acd2414000df663
soluble waste products
56
False
What do annelids without blood vessels do to remove waste?
57282ddd3acd2414000df664
protonephridia
104
False
How many stages are there in annelids' waste filtration?
57282ddd3acd2414000df665
two
148
False
What annelid system combines both filtration states in one organ?
57282ddd3acd2414000df666
protonephridia
371
False
soluble waste products
56
What do metanephridia produce?
5ace880232bba1001ae4a991
True
protonephridia
104
What do annelids without blood vessels do to increase waste?
5ace880232bba1001ae4a992
True
two
148
How many stages are there in annelids' water filtration?
5ace880232bba1001ae4a993
True
protonephridia
104
What annelid system combines both filtration states in eight organs?
5ace880232bba1001ae4a994
True
Annelids with blood vessels use metanephridia to remove soluble waste products, while those without use protonephridia. Both of these systems use a two-stage filtration process, in which fluid and waste products are first extracted and these are filtered again to re-absorb any re-usable materials while dumping toxic and spent materials as urine. The difference is that protonephridia combine both filtration stages in the same organ, while metanephridia perform only the second filtration and rely on other mechanisms for the first – in annelids special filter cells in the walls of the blood vessels let fluids and other small molecules pass into the coelomic fluid, where it circulates to the metanephridia. In annelids the points at which fluid enters the protonephridia or metanephridia are on the forward side of a septum while the second-stage filter and the nephridiopore (exit opening in the body wall) are in the following segment. As a result, the hindmost segment (before the growth zone and pygidium) has no structure that extracts its wastes, as there is no following segment to filter and discharge them, while the first segment contains an extraction structure that passes wastes to the second, but does not contain the structures that re-filter and discharge urine.
How many sexes of annelids were there originally?
57282e373acd2414000df66b
two
57
False
What releases sperm from annelids?
57282e373acd2414000df66c
nephridia
131
False
What do annelid eggs become?
57282e373acd2414000df66d
trochophore larvae
175
False
What do annelids' larvae live like?
57282e373acd2414000df66e
plankton
209
False
What does the trochophore become when annelids mature?
57282e373acd2414000df66f
the prostomium (head)
371
False
nephridia
131
What releases sperm from annelids eyes?
5ace88a332bba1001ae4a999
True
trochophore larvae
175
What do annelid eggs explode inside?
5ace88a332bba1001ae4a99a
True
plankton
209
What do annelids' larvae like to eat?
5ace88a332bba1001ae4a99b
True
the prostomium (head)
371
What does the trochophore become when annelids die?
5ace88a332bba1001ae4a99c
True
It is thought that annelids were originally animals with two separate sexes, which released ova and sperm into the water via their nephridia. The fertilized eggs develop into trochophore larvae, which live as plankton. Later they sink to the sea-floor and metamorphose into miniature adults: the part of the trochophore between the apical tuft and the prototroch becomes the prostomium (head); a small area round the trochophore's anus becomes the pygidium (tail-piece); a narrow band immediately in front of that becomes the growth zone that produces new segments; and the rest of the trochophore becomes the peristomium (the segment that contains the mouth).
How many species of polychaetes have known lifecycles?
57282ee62ca10214002da010
about 25%
111
False
What percent of polychaetes produce yolk-rich eggs?
57282ee62ca10214002da011
14%
195
False
What is the benefit of yolk-rich eggs?
57282ee62ca10214002da012
reduce the time the larva needs to spend among the plankton
270
False
What are most polychaetes' eggs covered in?
57282ee62ca10214002da013
jelly
469
False
about 25%
111
How many species of polychaetes have impossible lifecycles?
5ace891a32bba1001ae4a9b5
True
14%
195
What percent of polychaetes produce milk?
5ace891a32bba1001ae4a9b6
True
reduce the time the larva needs to spend among the plankton
270
What is the benefit of rotten eggs?
5ace891a32bba1001ae4a9b7
True
jelly
469
What are all polychaetes' eggs covered in?
5ace891a32bba1001ae4a9b8
True
However, the lifecycles of most living polychaetes, which are almost all marine animals, are unknown, and only about 25% of the 300+ species whose lifecycles are known follow this pattern. About 14% use a similar external fertilization but produce yolk-rich eggs, which reduce the time the larva needs to spend among the plankton, or eggs from which miniature adults emerge rather than larvae. The rest care for the fertilized eggs until they hatch – some by producing jelly-covered masses of eggs which they tend, some by attaching the eggs to their bodies and a few species by keeping the eggs within their bodies until they hatch. These species use a variety of methods for sperm transfer; for example, in some the females collect sperm released into the water, while in others the males have a penis that inject sperm into the female. There is no guarantee that this is a representative sample of polychaetes' reproductive patterns, and it simply reflects scientists' current knowledge.
What do some non-single-sex polychaetes do?
57282f6c2ca10214002da018
change sex
246
False
What are most polychaetes lacking for reproduction?
57282f6c2ca10214002da019
permanent gonads
335
False
How do some annelids get a one-time chance at a better spawning spot?
57282f6c2ca10214002da01a
the rear of the body splits off and becomes a separate individual
422
False
change sex
246
What do all non-single-sex polychaetes do?
5ace899432bba1001ae4a9bd
True
permanent gonads
335
What are no polychaetes lacking for reproduction?
5ace899432bba1001ae4a9be
True
the rear of the body splits off and becomes a separate individual
422
How do some annelids get a three-time chance at a better spawning spot?
5ace899432bba1001ae4a9bf
True
Some
0
How many polychaetes breed an infinite amount of times?
5ace899432bba1001ae4a9c0
True
Some polychaetes breed only once in their lives, while others breed almost continuously or through several breeding seasons. While most polychaetes remain of one sex all their lives, a significant percentage of species are full hermaphrodites or change sex during their lives. Most polychaetes whose reproduction has been studied lack permanent gonads, and it is uncertain how they produce ova and sperm. In a few species the rear of the body splits off and becomes a separate individual that lives just long enough to swim to a suitable environment, usually near the surface, and spawn.
What annelid group includes leeches and earthworms?
57282fdf3acd2414000df693
clitellates
12
False
What type of sex are most earthworms?
57282fdf3acd2414000df694
hermaphrodites
82
False
Where are leeches' eggs fertilized?
57282fdf3acd2414000df695
in the ovaries
534
False
Where do leeches move their eggs to?
57282fdf3acd2414000df696
the cocoon
574
False
What type of annelids hatch as miniature adults?
57282fdf3acd2414000df697
clitellates
715
False
clitellates
12
What annelid group dislikes leeches and earthworms?
5ace8a0432bba1001ae4a9cf
True
hermaphrodites
82
What type of creature are most earthworms?
5ace8a0432bba1001ae4a9d0
True
the ovaries
380
Where are leeches' gardens fertilized?
5ace8a0432bba1001ae4a9d1
True
the cocoon
605
Where do leeches eat their eggs?
5ace8a0432bba1001ae4a9d2
True
clitellates
593
What type of annelids hatch as giant adults?
5ace8a0432bba1001ae4a9d3
True
Most mature clitellates (the group that includes earthworms and leeches) are full hermaphrodites, although in a few leech species younger adults function as males and become female at maturity. All have well-developed gonads, and all copulate. Earthworms store their partners' sperm in spermathecae ("sperm stores") and then the clitellum produces a cocoon that collects ova from the ovaries and then sperm from the spermathecae. Fertilization and development of earthworm eggs takes place in the cocoon. Leeches' eggs are fertilized in the ovaries, and then transferred to the cocoon. In all clitellates the cocoon also either produces yolk when the eggs are fertilized or nutrients while they are developing. All clitellates hatch as miniature adults rather than larvae.
Who published a book about worms in 1881?
572830622ca10214002da032
Charles Darwin
0
False
What was the first scientific study of how earthworms help soil?
572830622ca10214002da033
The Formation of Vegetable Mould through the Action of Worms
22
False
Where do earthworms prefer to live on the surface?
572830622ca10214002da034
generally in moist leaf litter
233
False
How does burrowers' loosening help the soil?
572830622ca10214002da035
oxygen and water can penetrate it
303
False
What is the largest bird that eats earthworms?
572830622ca10214002da036
storks
716
False
Charles Darwin
0
Who published a book about worms in 1781?
5ace8a7232bba1001ae4a9d9
True
The Formation of Vegetable Mould through the Action of Worms
22
What was the only scientific study of how earthworms help soil?
5ace8a7232bba1001ae4a9da
True
generally in moist leaf litter
233
Where do earthworms prefer to live in space?
5ace8a7232bba1001ae4a9db
True
oxygen and water can penetrate it
303
How does burrowers' tightening help the soil?
5ace8a7232bba1001ae4a9dc
True
storks
716
What is the only bird that can eat earthworms?
5ace8a7232bba1001ae4a9dd
True
Charles Darwin's book The Formation of Vegetable Mould through the Action of Worms (1881) presented the first scientific analysis of earthworms' contributions to soil fertility. Some burrow while others live entirely on the surface, generally in moist leaf litter. The burrowers loosen the soil so that oxygen and water can penetrate it, and both surface and burrowing worms help to produce soil by mixing organic and mineral matter, by accelerating the decomposition of organic matter and thus making it more quickly available to other organisms, and by concentrating minerals and converting them to forms that plants can use more easily. Earthworms are also important prey for birds ranging in size from robins to storks, and for mammals ranging from shrews to badgers, and in some cases conserving earthworms may be essential for conserving endangered birds.
Where were native earthworms killed by glaciers?
572830df2ca10214002da03c
glaciated areas of North America
64
False
Where did most of the current earthworms in glacial areas come from?
572830df2ca10214002da03d
Europe
285
False
What type of forests can be hurt by invasive worms?
572830df2ca10214002da03e
Northern hardwood forests
324
False
glaciated areas of North America
64
Where were asian earthworms killed by glaciers?
5ace8ac432bba1001ae4a9e3
True
Europe
285
Where did all of the current earthworms in glacial areas come from?
5ace8ac432bba1001ae4a9e4
True
Northern hardwood forests
324
What type of forests are immune to invasive worms?
5ace8ac432bba1001ae4a9e5
True
Terrestrial annelids
0
What are no longer considered an invasive species?
5ace8ac432bba1001ae4a9e6
True
Terrestrial annelids can be invasive in some situations. In the glaciated areas of North America, for example, almost all native earthworms are thought to have been killed by the glaciers and the worms currently found in those areas are all introduced from other areas, primarily from Europe, and, more recently, from Asia. Northern hardwood forests are especially negatively impacted by invasive worms through the loss of leaf duff, soil fertility, changes in soil chemistry and the loss of ecological diversity. Especially of concern is Amynthas agrestis and at least one state (Wisconsin) has listed it as a prohibited species.
What type of annelid tunnels through coral?
5728318bff5b5019007d9ece
Palolo worm
82
False
What annelid's rear end do Samoans like to eat?
5728318bff5b5019007d9ecf
Palolo worm
82
False
What type of bait do experienced anglers prefer?
5728318bff5b5019007d9ed0
spawning modules
223
False
What do some polychaetes eat that has been causing problems?
5728318bff5b5019007d9ed1
molluscs
630
False
What type of worm have there been proposals to farm?
5728318bff5b5019007d9ed2
Ragworms
406
False
Palolo worm
82
What type of annelid tunnels through gold?
5ace8b2f32bba1001ae4a9eb
True
Palolo worm
82
What annelid's rear end do Samoans like to drink?
5ace8b2f32bba1001ae4a9ec
True
spawning modules
223
What type of bait do experienced anglers dislike?
5ace8b2f32bba1001ae4a9ed
True
molluscs
630
What do some polychaetes eat that is harmless?
5ace8b2f32bba1001ae4a9ee
True
Ragworms
406
What type of worm have there been proposals to kill?
5ace8b2f32bba1001ae4a9ef
True
Earthworms make a significant contribution to soil fertility. The rear end of the Palolo worm, a marine polychaete that tunnels through coral, detaches in order to spawn at the surface, and the people of Samoa regard these spawning modules as a delicacy. Anglers sometimes find that worms are more effective bait than artificial flies, and worms can be kept for several days in a tin lined with damp moss. Ragworms are commercially important as bait and as food sources for aquaculture, and there have been proposals to farm them in order to reduce over-fishing of their natural populations. Some marine polychaetes' predation on molluscs causes serious losses to fishery and aquaculture operations.
When did leeches begin being used for blood-letting?
572831fa2ca10214002da05c
30 AD
111
False
Where did leeches begin being used for blood-letting?
572831fa2ca10214002da05d
China
98
False
When did Rome begin using leeches?
572831fa2ca10214002da05e
50 AD
159
False
When did India begin using leeches?
572831fa2ca10214002da05f
200 AD
131
False
Which organizations list Hirudo medicinalis as endangered?
572831fa2ca10214002da060
IUCN and CITES
418
False
China
98
Where did leeches begin being used for blood transfusions?
5ace8b9832bba1001ae4a9f5
True
50 AD
159
When did Russia begin using leeches?
5ace8b9832bba1001ae4a9f6
True
IUCN and CITES
418
Which organizations list Hirudo medicinalis as extinct?
5ace8b9832bba1001ae4a9f7
True
200 AD
131
When did India stop using leeches?
5ace8b9832bba1001ae4a9f8
True
Accounts of the use of leeches for the medically dubious practise of blood-letting have come from China around 30 AD, India around 200 AD, ancient Rome around 50 AD and later throughout Europe. In the 19th century medical demand for leeches was so high that some areas' stocks were exhausted and other regions imposed restrictions or bans on exports, and Hirudo medicinalis is treated as an endangered species by both IUCN and CITES. More recently leeches have been used to assist in microsurgery, and their saliva has provided anti-inflammatory compounds and several important anticoagulants, one of which also prevents tumors from spreading.
When did Cloudina exist?
572832dc4b864d19001646f0
549 to 542 million years ago
383
False
What do some people think Cloudina should be called instead of an annelid?
572832dc4b864d19001646f1
cnidarian
483
False
How old were the fossils of Canadia and Burgessochaeta found in Canada?
572832dc4b864d19001646f2
505 million years
714
False
What era was underway 505 million years ago?
572832dc4b864d19001646f3
early Cambrian
743
False
Where was Myoscolex found?
572832dc4b864d19001646f4
Australia
779
False
549 to 542 million years ago
383
When did Cloudina disappear?
5ace8c1532bba1001ae4a9fd
True
cnidarian
483
What do all people think Cloudina should be called instead of an annelid?
5ace8c1532bba1001ae4a9fe
True
505 million years
714
How old were the fossils of Canadia and Burgessochaeta found in Australia?
5ace8c1532bba1001ae4a9ff
True
Australia
779
Where was Myoscolex unknown?
5ace8c1532bba1001ae4aa00
True
Since annelids are soft-bodied, their fossils are rare. Polychaetes' fossil record consists mainly of the jaws that some species had and the mineralized tubes that some secreted. Some Ediacaran fossils such as Dickinsonia in some ways resemble polychaetes, but the similarities are too vague for these fossils to be classified with confidence. The small shelly fossil Cloudina, from 549 to 542 million years ago, has been classified by some authors as an annelid, but by others as a cnidarian (i.e. in the phylum to which jellyfish and sea anemones belong). Until 2008 the earliest fossils widely accepted as annelids were the polychaetes Canadia and Burgessochaeta, both from Canada's Burgess Shale, formed about 505 million years ago in the early Cambrian. Myoscolex, found in Australia and a little older than the Burgess Shale, was possibly an annelid. However, it lacks some typical annelid features and has features which are not usually found in annelids and some of which are associated with other phyla. Then Simon Conway Morris and John Peel reported Phragmochaeta from Sirius Passet, about 518 million years old, and concluded that it was the oldest annelid known to date. There has been vigorous debate about whether the Burgess Shale fossil Wiwaxia was a mollusc or an annelid. Polychaetes diversified in the early Ordovician, about 488 to 474 million years ago. It is not until the early Ordovician that the first annelid jaws are found, thus the crown-group cannot have appeared before this date and probably appeared somewhat later. By the end of the Carboniferous, about 299 million years ago, fossils of most of the modern mobile polychaete groups had appeared. Many fossil tubes look like those made by modern sessile polychaetes  , but the first tubes clearly produced by polychaetes date from the Jurassic, less than 199 million years ago.
When did the Tertiary period begin?
572833674b864d1900164704
65 million years ago
87
False
What era did oligochaetes evolve in?
572833674b864d1900164705
early Cretaceous
210
False
What type of annelid fossils have been found from the mid Ordovician period?
572833674b864d1900164706
oligochaetes
577
False
When were the earliest annelid fossils found?
572833674b864d1900164707
472 to 461 million years ago
511
False
65 million years ago
87
When did the Tertiary period stop existing?
5ace8c6032bba1001ae4aa05
True
early Cretaceous
210
What era did oligochaetes devolve in?
5ace8c6032bba1001ae4aa06
True
oligochaetes
577
What type of annelid fossils have been lost during the mid Ordovician period?
5ace8c6032bba1001ae4aa07
True
472 to 461 million years ago
511
When were the only annelid fossils found?
5ace8c6032bba1001ae4aa08
True
The earliest good evidence for oligochaetes occurs in the Tertiary period, which began 65 million years ago, and it has been suggested that these animals evolved around the same time as flowering plants in the early Cretaceous, from 130 to 90 million years ago. A trace fossil consisting of a convoluted burrow partly filled with small fecal pellets may be evidence that earthworms were present in the early Triassic period from 251 to 245 million years ago. Body fossils going back to the mid Ordovician, from 472 to 461 million years ago, have been tentatively classified as oligochaetes, but these identifications are uncertain and some have been disputed.
What two groups are annelids traditionally divided among?
572833dd2ca10214002da0a0
polychaetes and clitellates
72
False
What subtype of clitellates contains earthworms?
572833dd2ca10214002da0a1
oligochaetes
143
False
What subtype of clitellates contains leeches?
572833dd2ca10214002da0a2
hirudinomorphs
187
False
How many polychaete families are there?
572833dd2ca10214002da0a3
approximately 80
294
False
When did Greg Rouse begin trying to categorize polychaetes?
572833dd2ca10214002da0a4
1997
360
False
polychaetes and clitellates
72
What three groups are annelids traditionally divided among?
5ace8cc332bba1001ae4aa0d
True
oligochaetes
143
What subtype of clitellates contains spaceworms?
5ace8cc332bba1001ae4aa0e
True
hirudinomorphs
187
What subtype of clitellates contains lemurs?
5ace8cc332bba1001ae4aa0f
True
approximately 80
294
How many polychaete political parties are there?
5ace8cc332bba1001ae4aa10
True
1997
360
When did Greg Rouse begin trying to categorize planets?
5ace8cc332bba1001ae4aa11
True
Traditionally the annelids have been divided into two major groups, the polychaetes and clitellates. In turn the clitellates were divided into oligochaetes, which include earthworms, and hirudinomorphs, whose best-known members are leeches. For many years there was no clear arrangement of the approximately 80 polychaete families into higher-level groups. In 1997 Greg Rouse and Kristian Fauchald attempted a "first heuristic step in terms of bringing polychaete systematics to an acceptable level of rigour", based on anatomical structures, and divided polychaetes into:
Who compared annelid genes in 2007?
572834aeff5b5019007d9f08
Torsten Struck and colleagues
8
False
How many annelid genes did Torsten Struck first compare?
572834aeff5b5019007d9f09
3
47
False
How many annelid genes did Torsten Struck compare for a cross-check?
572834aeff5b5019007d9f0a
11
309
False
What subtypes of polychaetes were useless classifications, according to the 2007 study?
572834aeff5b5019007d9f0b
Scolecida, Canalipalpata and Aciculata
542
False
What did Rouse decide leeches were a subgroup of?
572834aeff5b5019007d9f0c
oligochaetes
892
False
Torsten Struck and colleagues
8
Who compared annelid genes in 1807?
5ace8d3932bba1001ae4aa17
True
3
47
How many annelid genes did Torsten Struck first discover?
5ace8d3932bba1001ae4aa18
True
11
309
How many annelid genes did Torsten Struck never compare for a cross-check?
5ace8d3932bba1001ae4aa19
True
Scolecida, Canalipalpata and Aciculata
542
What subtypes of polychaetes were useless classifications, according to the 1997 study?
5ace8d3932bba1001ae4aa1a
True
oligochaetes
892
What did Rouse decide leeches were a supergroup of?
5ace8d3932bba1001ae4aa1b
True
In 2007 Torsten Struck and colleagues compared 3 genes in 81 taxa, of which 9 were outgroups, in other words not considered closely related to annelids but included to give an indication of where the organisms under study are placed on the larger tree of life. For a cross-check the study used an analysis of 11 genes (including the original 3) in 10 taxa. This analysis agreed that clitellates, pogonophorans and echiurans were on various branches of the polychaete family tree. It also concluded that the classification of polychaetes into Scolecida, Canalipalpata and Aciculata was useless, as the members of these alleged groups were scattered all over the family tree derived from comparing the 81 taxa. In addition, it also placed sipunculans, generally regarded at the time as a separate phylum, on another branch of the polychaete tree, and concluded that leeches were a sub-group of oligochaetes rather than their sister-group among the clitellates. Rouse accepted the analyses based on molecular phylogenetics, and their main conclusions are now the scientific consensus, although the details of the annelid family tree remain uncertain.
How many previously-separate phyla did the 2007 study reclassify?
572835282ca10214002da0c6
3
61
False
What did the 2007 study decide was the parent group for annelids?
572835282ca10214002da0c7
Polychaetes
268
False
What offshoots of polychaetes are unsegmented?
572835282ca10214002da0c8
echiurans and sipunculan
385
False
What offshoots of polychaetes are only segmented in the rear?
572835282ca10214002da0c9
pogonophores
442
False
What nervous system structure is less univeral among annelids than was thought before 2007?
572835282ca10214002da0ca
ladder-like
673
False
3
61
How many previously-separate phyla did the 1837 study reclassify?
5ace8da432bba1001ae4aa21
True
Polychaetes
268
What did the 2007 study decide was the slave group for annelids?
5ace8da432bba1001ae4aa22
True
echiurans and sipunculan
385
What offshoots of polychaetes are immortal?
5ace8da432bba1001ae4aa23
True
pogonophores
442
What offshoots of polychaetes are only segmented in the head?
5ace8da432bba1001ae4aa24
True
ladder-like
673
What nervous system structure is less universal among annelids than was thought before 1907?
5ace8da432bba1001ae4aa25
True
In addition to re-writing the classification of annelids and 3 previously independent phyla, the molecular phylogenetics analyses undermine the emphasis that decades of previous writings placed on the importance of segmentation in the classification of invertebrates. Polychaetes, which these analyses found to be the parent group, have completely segmented bodies, while polychaetes' echiurans and sipunculan offshoots are not segmented and pogonophores are segmented only in the rear parts of their bodies. It now seems that segmentation can appear and disappear much more easily in the course of evolution than was previously thought. The 2007 study also noted that the ladder-like nervous system, which is associated with segmentation, is less universal previously thought in both annelids and arthropods.[n 2]
What superphylum are annelids in?
57283593ff5b5019007d9f24
protostomes
28
False
What is the other superphylum besides protostomes?
57283593ff5b5019007d9f25
deuterostomes
114
False
What superphylum are vertebrates in?
57283593ff5b5019007d9f26
deuterostomes
114
False
What does 'Articulata' mean?
57283593ff5b5019007d9f27
jointed animals
260
False
What are lophophores?
57283593ff5b5019007d9f28
fan-like feeding structures
847
False
protostomes
28
What superphylum are annelids now excluded from?
5ace8e3432bba1001ae4aa35
True
deuterostomes
114
What is one of many superphylums besides protostomes?
5ace8e3432bba1001ae4aa36
True
deuterostomes
114
What superpower are vertebrates in?
5ace8e3432bba1001ae4aa37
True
fan-like feeding structures
847
What are lophosmores?
5ace8e3432bba1001ae4aa38
True
Annelids are members of the protostomes, one of the two major superphyla of bilaterian animals – the other is the deuterostomes, which includes vertebrates. Within the protostomes, annelids used to be grouped with arthropods under the super-group Articulata ("jointed animals"), as segmentation is obvious in most members of both phyla. However, the genes that drive segmentation in arthropods do not appear to do the same in annelids. Arthropods and annelids both have close relatives that are unsegmented. It is at least as easy to assume that they evolved segmented bodies independently as it is to assume that the ancestral protostome or bilaterian was segmented and that segmentation disappeared in many descendant phyla. The current view is that annelids are grouped with molluscs, brachiopods and several other phyla that have lophophores (fan-like feeding structures) and/or trochophore larvae as members of Lophotrochozoa. Bryzoa may be the most basal phylum (the one that first became distinctive) within the Lophotrochozoa, and the relationships between the other members are not yet known. Arthropods are now regarded as members of the Ecdysozoa ("animals that molt"), along with some phyla that are unsegmented.
Which Lophotrochozoa phyla have similar egg development?
572836213acd2414000df709
annelids, molluscs, nemerteans and flatworms
107
False
How do the cells of Lophotrochozoa eggs arrange themselves?
572836213acd2414000df70a
after the 4-cell stage, descendants of these 4 cells form a spiral pattern
239
False
What is the Lophotrochozoa spiral egg-cell pattern sometimes called?
572836213acd2414000df70b
spiral determinate cleavage
552
False
annelids, molluscs, nemerteans and flatworms
107
Which Lophotrochozoa phyla have no egg development?
5ace8f0132bba1001ae4aa3d
True
after the 4-cell stage, descendants of these 4 cells form a spiral pattern
239
How do the cells of Lophotrochozoa eggs destroy themselves?
5ace8f0132bba1001ae4aa3e
True
spiral determinate cleavage
552
What is the Lophotrochozoa spiral egg-cell pattern required to be called?
5ace8f0132bba1001ae4aa3f
True
annelids
107
What animal contains no cells?
5ace8f0132bba1001ae4aa40
True
molluscs
117
What phyla is no longer able to make eggs?
5ace8f0132bba1001ae4aa41
True
The "Lophotrochozoa" hypothesis is also supported by the fact that many phyla within this group, including annelids, molluscs, nemerteans and flatworms, follow a similar pattern in the fertilized egg's development. When their cells divide after the 4-cell stage, descendants of these 4 cells form a spiral pattern. In these phyla the "fates" of the embryo's cells, in other words the roles their descendants will play in the adult animal, are the same and can be predicted from a very early stage. Hence this development pattern is often described as "spiral determinate cleavage".
God
What does it mean to say that God is omnipotent?
572837113acd2414000df725
unlimited power
232
False
What is the feeling of God being everywhere?
572837113acd2414000df726
omnipresence
250
False
What is the extent of God's knowledge?
572837113acd2414000df727
infinite knowledge
198
False
What is infinite knowledge classified as?
572837113acd2414000df728
omniscience
185
False
What is the benevolence of God called?
572837113acd2414000df729
omnibenevolence
285
False
Does God have a gender?
572bf75fdfb02c14005c6b0f
without any human biological gender
430
False
What type of human is God portrayed as in some religions?
572bf75fdfb02c14005c6b10
a man (sometimes old and bearded)
779
False
What is a God in monotheism?
572bf75fdfb02c14005c6b11
Supreme Being and principal object of faith
57
False
in a literal visual image
726
How should monotheism not be portrayed?
5a3c58adcc5d22001a521d6a
True
a man (sometimes old and bearded)
779
What gender do theologians usually use to define human biological gender?
5a3c58adcc5d22001a521d6b
True
give "Him" the metaphorical name of "Father"
578
What has creating a non-corporeal being caused some religions to do regarding divine simplicity?
5a3c58adcc5d22001a521d6c
True
as the Supreme Being and principal object of faith
50
In biological gender, what is the universe conceived of?
5a3c58adcc5d22001a521d6d
True
divine simplicity, and eternal and necessary existence
321
What are some concepts of the universe according to theologians?
5a3c58adcc5d22001a521d6e
True
In monotheism and henotheism, God is conceived of as the Supreme Being and principal object of faith. The concept of God as described by theologians commonly includes the attributes of omniscience (infinite knowledge), omnipotence (unlimited power), omnipresence (present everywhere), omnibenevolence (perfect goodness), divine simplicity, and eternal and necessary existence. God is also usually defined as a non-corporeal being without any human biological gender, but the concept of God actively (as opposed to receptively) creating the universe has caused some religions to give "Him" the metaphorical name of "Father". Because God is conceived as not being a corporeal being, God cannot(some say should not) be portrayed in a literal visual image; some religious groups use a man (sometimes old and bearded) to symbolize God because of His deed of creating man's mind in the image of His own.
In what belief is God the creator and sustainer of the universe?
572837da4b864d1900164770
theism
3
False
What does deism believe God's role in the universe is?
572837da4b864d1900164771
the creator, but not the sustainer
84
False
Which belief is that God is the universe?
572837da4b864d1900164772
pantheism
219
False
Which belief system definitively believes in no Higher Power or Supreme Being?
572837da4b864d1900164773
atheism
261
False
Which belief system belives in some form of higher powwer, or something, but not organized religion?
572837da4b864d1900164774
agnosticism
364
False
What is God in theism?
572bf917750c471900ed4c4c
creator and sustainer of the universe
22
False
What is God in deism?
572bf917750c471900ed4c4d
the creator
84
False
What is monotheism?
572bf917750c471900ed4c4e
belief in the existence of one God
155
False
What is atheism?
572bf917750c471900ed4c50
God is not believed to exist
270
False
the creator and sustainer of the universe
18
What two attributes describe God in deism?
5a3c59eacc5d22001a521d74
True
not the sustainer
101
In theism what does God not do regarding the universe?
5a3c59eacc5d22001a521d75
True
the universe itself
237
According to monotheism, what does God consist of?
5a3c59eacc5d22001a521d76
True
God
377
When you are an agnostic, what do you think doesn't exist?
5a3c59eacc5d22001a521d77
True
arguments for and against the existence of God
576
What have many notable agnostics developed about pantheism?
5a3c59eacc5d22001a521d78
True
In theism, God is the creator and sustainer of the universe, while in deism, God is the creator, but not the sustainer, of the universe. Monotheism is the belief in the existence of one God or in the oneness of God. In pantheism, God is the universe itself. In atheism, God is not believed to exist, while God is deemed unknown or unknowable within the context of agnosticism. God has also been conceived as being incorporeal (immaterial), a personal being, the source of all moral obligation, and the "greatest conceivable existent". Many notable philosophers have developed arguments for and against the existence of God.
What are vocalizations of the name of God, YHWH?
572838bcff5b5019007d9f6a
Yahweh and Jehovah
450
False
What is the Holy Trinity?
572838bcff5b5019007d9f6b
the Father, the Son, and the Holy Spirit
620
False
In the time of Atenism, what was God called?
572838bcff5b5019007d9f6c
Aten
244
False
What is the Islamic name for God?
572838bcff5b5019007d9f6d
Allah
845
False
What do members of the Bahá'í Faith call God?
572838bcff5b5019007d9f6e
Baha
1066
False
What was the first monotheistic religion?
572bfa0f750c471900ed4c56
Atenism
159
False
What is the God of the Hebrew Bible called?
572bfa0f750c471900ed4c57
YHWH
413
False
What is the Christian God called?
572bfa0f750c471900ed4c58
Yahweh and Jehovah
450
False
What are the 2 titular names of God in the Jewish religion?
572bfa0f750c471900ed4c59
Elohim or Adonai
724
False
Where do scholars believe the name Adonai came from?
572bfa0f750c471900ed4c5a
Aten
820
False
names of God
430
In the Egyptian era of Atenism, what were YHWH and I am that I am used as?
5a3c5b22cc5d22001a521d7e
True
vocalizations of YHWH
507
What are Yaweh and Jehovah used in Atenism as?
5a3c5b22cc5d22001a521d7f
True
a monistic deity
998
In Christianity what is Bramen considered?
5a3c5b22cc5d22001a521d80
True
Waheguru
1092
In Aten what is the name for the Holy Spirit?
5a3c5b22cc5d22001a521d81
True
three
595
In Sikhism, how many persons are attributed to God?
5a3c5b22cc5d22001a521d82
True
There are many names for God, and different names are attached to different cultural ideas about God's identity and attributes. In the ancient Egyptian era of Atenism, possibly the earliest recorded monotheistic religion, this deity was called Aten, premised on being the one "true" Supreme Being and Creator of the Universe. In the Hebrew Bible and Judaism, "He Who Is", "I Am that I Am", and the tetragrammaton YHWH are used as names of God, while Yahweh and Jehovah are sometimes used in Christianity as vocalizations of YHWH. In the Christian doctrine of the Trinity, God, consubstantial in three persons, is called the Father, the Son, and the Holy Spirit. In Judaism, it is common to refer to God by the titular names Elohim or Adonai, the latter of which is believed by some scholars to descend from the Egyptian Aten. In Islam, the name Allah, "Al-El", or "Al-Elah" ("the God") is used, while Muslims also have a multitude of titular names for God. In Hinduism, Brahman is often considered a monistic deity. Other religions have names for God, for instance, Baha in the Bahá'í Faith, Waheguru in Sikhism, and Ahura Mazda in Zoroastrianism.
Where is the English word God derived from?
572839b44b864d190016479a
the Proto-Germanic * ǥuđan
182
False
Where the first Germanic words for God masculine or feminine?
572839b44b864d190016479b
neuter—applying to both genders
393
False
When did the Germanic words for God take on a masculine form?
572839b44b864d190016479c
Christianization of the Germanic peoples
455
False
What was practiced by the Germanic people before their Christianization?
572839b44b864d190016479d
Germanic paganism
518
False
What did the gaelic root of the word for God mean?
572839b44b864d190016479e
"to call" or "to invoke"
324
False
Where does the word God come from originally?
572bfa9ef182dd1900d7c7a2
Codex Argenteus
125
False
What language does the English word God come from?
572bfa9ef182dd1900d7c7a3
German
33
False
What gender where the original Germanic words meaning God in?
572bfa9ef182dd1900d7c7a4
neuter
393
False
the 6th-century Christian Codex Argenteus
99
Where does the earliest masculine form of the English word for God come from?
5a3c5cd1cc5d22001a521d88
True
the Proto-Germanic * ǥuđan
182
Where is the Codex form of the word from?
5a3c5cd1cc5d22001a521d89
True
on the root * ǵhau(ə)-
281
What was the Argenteus usage based on?
5a3c5cd1cc5d22001a521d8a
True
"to call" or "to invoke"
324
What does Argenteus mean?
5a3c5cd1cc5d22001a521d8b
True
originally neuter—applying to both genders
382
How were the English words for to call originally applied?
5a3c5cd1cc5d22001a521d8c
True
The earliest written form of the Germanic word God (always, in this usage, capitalized) comes from the 6th-century Christian Codex Argenteus. The English word itself is derived from the Proto-Germanic * ǥuđan. The reconstructed Proto-Indo-European form * ǵhu-tó-m was likely based on the root * ǵhau(ə)-, which meant either "to call" or "to invoke". The Germanic words for God were originally neuter—applying to both genders—but during the process of the Christianization of the Germanic peoples from their indigenous Germanic paganism, the words became a masculine syntactic form.
What differentiates God from gods?
57283a80ff5b5019007d9f84
the capitalized form of God
25
False
What belief has many gods?
57283a80ff5b5019007d9f85
polytheism
131
False
What does it mean to read the word LORD in all capitals in the Bible?
57283a80ff5b5019007d9f86
signifies that the word represents the tetragrammaton
616
False
What is the tetragrammaton gor God?
57283a80ff5b5019007d9f87
YHWH
463
False
No matter which religion, what is usually used as the name for the Supreme Being?
57283a80ff5b5019007d9f88
God
160
False
What form of the word God refers to polytheistic gods?
572bfc03f182dd1900d7c7a8
gods
122
False
What is the name of God in Judaism?
572bfc03f182dd1900d7c7a9
YHWH
463
False
What does the all caps word LORD used in some bibles represent?
572bfc03f182dd1900d7c7aa
YHWH
463
False
a distinction between monotheistic "God" and "gods" in polytheism
76
In Edom what does the capitalized form of God represent?
5a3c6218cc5d22001a521d92
True
for any and all conceptions
222
How is the Midianite word for God normally used?
5a3c6218cc5d22001a521d93
True
translation common to all
338
Related to the Midianite deity, what does the word remain in Edom?
5a3c6218cc5d22001a521d94
True
YHWH
463
What proper name is God given in Midian?
5a3c6218cc5d22001a521d95
True
the tetragrammaton
651
What does the word El signify in English?
5a3c6218cc5d22001a521d96
True
In the English language, the capitalized form of God continues to represent a distinction between monotheistic "God" and "gods" in polytheism. The English word God and its counterparts in other languages are normally used for any and all conceptions and, in spite of significant differences between religions, the term remains an English translation common to all. The same holds for Hebrew El, but in Judaism, God is also given a proper name, the tetragrammaton YHWH, in origin possibly the name of an Edomite or Midianite deity, Yahweh. In many translations of the Bible, when the word LORD is in all capitals, it signifies that the word represents the tetragrammaton.
What type of view do Christians take on God?
57283bd62ca10214002da132
trinitarian
164
False
How much can belief in God vary in Hinduism?
57283bd62ca10214002da133
region, sect, and caste
319
False
Does hinduism only believe in a single god?
57283bd62ca10214002da134
ranging from monotheistic to polytheistic to atheistic
344
False
What view does the Jewish community take on God?
57283bd62ca10214002da135
monotheistic
117
False
What kind of religion is Hinduism considered?
57283bd62ca10214002da136
dharmic
232
False
What type of religion is Judaism?
572bfdaadfb02c14005c6b1f
monotheistic
117
False
What type of religion is Christianity?
572bfdaadfb02c14005c6b20
trinitarian
164
False
How many gods do the Hindu's have?
572bfdaadfb02c14005c6b21
monotheistic to polytheistic to atheistic.
357
False
monotheistic to polytheistic to atheistic
357
How many gods do Christians have?
5a3c6421cc5d22001a521d9c
True
differ
250
What do the Buddhist religions do regarding God?
5a3c6421cc5d22001a521d9d
True
by region, sect, and caste
316
How do views of God in Sakra vary?
5a3c6421cc5d22001a521d9e
True
can at best only play a supportive role in one's personal path to salvation
529
What role does Mahayana tradition have in salvation?
5a3c6421cc5d22001a521d9f
True
give a more prominent place to notions of the divine
678
How is the concept of God handled in dharmic religions?
5a3c6421cc5d22001a521da0
True
There is no clear consensus on the nature or even the existence of God. The Abrahamic conceptions of God include the monotheistic definition of God in Judaism, the trinitarian view of Christians, and the Islamic concept of God. The dharmic religions differ in their view of the divine: views of God in Hinduism vary by region, sect, and caste, ranging from monotheistic to polytheistic to atheistic. Divinity was recognized by the historical Buddha, particularly Śakra and Brahma. However, other sentient beings, including gods, can at best only play a supportive role in one's personal path to salvation. Conceptions of God in the latter developments of the Mahayana tradition give a more prominent place to notions of the divine.[citation needed]
What do Muslims believe that Trinitism too closely resembles?
57283f072ca10214002da170
polytheism
796
False
Which belief is expected to never try and visualize God?
57283f072ca10214002da171
iconodules
936
False
What is the most basic belief of the Muslim religion?
57283f072ca10214002da172
tawhid
484
False
What religious text helps reinforce to Muslims that Christianity is more like polytheism?
57283f072ca10214002da173
Quran
552
False
What is the meaning behind the Muslim concept of tawhid?
57283f072ca10214002da174
"oneness" or "uniqueness"
500
False
What do monotheists believe?
572bfe69dfb02c14005c6b25
one god
36
False
What religion believes that all theist worship the same god?
572bfe69dfb02c14005c6b26
Hinduism and Sikhism
254
False
What is the trinity in Christianity?
572bfe69dfb02c14005c6b27
one God in three persons
338
False
What do Muslims think of Christianity?
572bfe69dfb02c14005c6b28
comparing it to polytheism
780
False
to visualize God
969
What are Christians not expected to do, since they are iconodules?
5a3c6b53cc5d22001a521da6
True
all theists actually worship the same god, whether they know it or not
154
What view about monotheists is emphasized by Islam?
5a3c6b53cc5d22001a521da7
True
God as one God in three persons
331
What does the Trinity doctrine describe according to theists?
5a3c6b53cc5d22001a521da8
True
polytheism
796
What do Hindus compare the divinity of Jesus to?
5a3c6b53cc5d22001a521da9
True
any of his creations in any way
881
In Christianity what does Jesus not resemble?
5a3c6b53cc5d22001a521daa
True
Monotheists hold that there is only one god, and may claim that the one true god is worshiped in different religions under different names. The view that all theists actually worship the same god, whether they know it or not, is especially emphasized in Hinduism and Sikhism. In Christianity, the doctrine of the Trinity describes God as one God in three persons. The Trinity comprises God the Father, God the Son (Jesus), and God the Holy Spirit. Islam's most fundamental concept is tawhid (meaning "oneness" or "uniqueness"). God is described in the Quran as: "Say: He is Allah, the One and Only; Allah, the Eternal, Absolute; He begetteth not, nor is He begotten; And there is none like unto Him." Muslims repudiate the Christian doctrine of the Trinity and divinity of Jesus, comparing it to polytheism. In Islam, God is beyond all comprehension or equal and does not resemble any of his creations in any way. Thus, Muslims are not iconodules, and are not expected to visualize God.
What is the basis behind Catholic theology?
572842d74b864d1900164834
God is infinitely simple and is not involuntarily subject to time
635
False
What ways can God interact with the universe?
572842d74b864d1900164835
religious experience and the prayers of humans
262
False
Why is it sometimes hard to think of God as benevolent?
572842d74b864d1900164836
God's responsibility for evil and suffering in the world
816
False
What is the suffix theism used for?
572842d74b864d1900164837
used to refer in general to any belief in a god or gods
1140
False
What are examples of different types of theism?
572842d74b864d1900164838
monotheism or polytheism
1203
False
What three points do most theists agree on?
572bff5edfb02c14005c6b2d
God is omnipotent, omniscient, and benevolent,
725
False
What religion believes that God is infinitely simple and not subject to time?
572bff5edfb02c14005c6b2e
Catholic
606
False
What does theism mean in general?
572bff5edfb02c14005c6b2f
belief in a god or gods
1172
False
sustains everything
124
What is one attribute of the universe?
5a3c70adcc5d22001a521db0
True
religious experience and the prayers of humans
262
What does the universe act through?
5a3c70adcc5d22001a521db1
True
to any belief in a god or gods
1165
What does the term Catholicism sometimes refer to?
5a3c70adcc5d22001a521db2
True
evil and suffering in the world
841
What two things make it hard for theists to believe the universe is benevolent?
5a3c70adcc5d22001a521db3
True
due to the nature of time, God's omniscience does not mean the deity can predict the future
1027
What do Catholics believe about Gods limited omniscience?
5a3c70adcc5d22001a521db4
True
Theism generally holds that God exists realistically, objectively, and independently of human thought; that God created and sustains everything; that God is omnipotent and eternal; and that God is personal and interacting with the universe through, for example, religious experience and the prayers of humans. Theism holds that God is both transcendent and immanent; thus, God is simultaneously infinite and in some way present in the affairs of the world. Not all theists subscribe to all of these propositions, but each usually subscribes to some of them (see, by way of comparison, family resemblance). Catholic theology holds that God is infinitely simple and is not involuntarily subject to time. Most theists hold that God is omnipotent, omniscient, and benevolent, although this belief raises questions about God's responsibility for evil and suffering in the world. Some theists ascribe to God a self-conscious or purposeful limiting of omnipotence, omniscience, or benevolence. Open Theism, by contrast, asserts that, due to the nature of time, God's omniscience does not mean the deity can predict the future. Theism is sometimes used to refer in general to any belief in a god or gods, i.e., monotheism or polytheism.
What is a deistic view of God?
572857772ca10214002da2a4
God exists, but does not intervene in the world beyond what was necessary to create it
45
False
How does a deistic God feel about us?
572857772ca10214002da2a5
no interest in humanity and may not even be aware of humanity
267
False
What is Pandeism?
572857772ca10214002da2a6
why God would create a universe and then abandon it
474
False
What does a deistic God not do?
572857772ca10214002da2a7
neither answers prayers nor produces miracles
179
False
What type of religion believes that God is transcendent?
572c0039dfb02c14005c6b3d
Deism
0
False
What is deism?
572c0039dfb02c14005c6b3e
God has no interest in humanity
259
False
In deism is God represented in human form?
572c0039dfb02c14005c6b3f
God is not anthropomorphic
147
False
In deism, does God answer prayers?
572c0039dfb02c14005c6b40
neither answers prayers
179
False
Deism with the Pantheistic or Panentheistic beliefs
377
What does Deism usually combine?
5a3c7309cc5d22001a521dba
True
why God would create a universe and then abandon it
474
What is the view of Pantheism about God abandoning His creation?
5a3c7309cc5d22001a521dbb
True
neither answers prayers nor produces miracles
179
What does a pandeistic god not do?
5a3c7309cc5d22001a521dbc
True
God has no interest in humanity and may not even be aware of humanity
259
What belief is common about deism in Pandeism?
5a3c7309cc5d22001a521dbd
True
neither answers prayers
179
Does the universe answer prayers in Pantheism?
5a3c7309cc5d22001a521dbe
True
Deism holds that God is wholly transcendent: God exists, but does not intervene in the world beyond what was necessary to create it. In this view, God is not anthropomorphic, and neither answers prayers nor produces miracles. Common in Deism is a belief that God has no interest in humanity and may not even be aware of humanity. Pandeism and Panendeism, respectively, combine Deism with the Pantheistic or Panentheistic beliefs. Pandeism is proposed to explain as to Deism why God would create a universe and then abandon it, and as to Pantheism, the origin and purpose of the universe.
What is Pantheism?
572857f42ca10214002da2ac
God is the universe and the universe is God
21
False
WHat is Panentheism?
572857f42ca10214002da2ad
God contains, but is not identical to, the Universe
97
False
WHat is Kabbalah?
572857f42ca10214002da2ae
Jewish mysticism
424
False
Who is the founder of Hasidic Judaism?
572857f42ca10214002da2af
The Baal Shem Tov
567
False
Who was the founder of Hasidic Judaism?
572c010e750c471900ed4c71
The Baal Shem Tov
567
False
What is Panentheism?
572c010e750c471900ed4c72
God contains, but is not identical to, the Universe
97
False
What from of Hinduism does not believe in panentheism?
572c010e750c471900ed4c73
Vaishnavism
243
False
What is another name for Jewish mysticism?
572c010e750c471900ed4c74
Kabbalah
414
False
What is pantheism?
572c0112dfb02c14005c6b45
God is the universe
21
False
the Universe.
136
In Panentheism what is God identical to?
5a3c75f8cc5d22001a521dc4
True
the universe is God
45
What does Baal Shem Tov believe if God is the universe?
5a3c75f8cc5d22001a521dc5
True
The Baal Shem Tov
567
Who is the founder of the Liberal Catholic Church?
5a3c75f8cc5d22001a521dc6
True
Hasidic Judaism
518
What group does Vaishnavism have acceptance in as part of Jewish mysticism?
5a3c75f8cc5d22001a521dc7
True
Jewish mysticism
424
What is another name for Vaishnavism?
5a3c75f8cc5d22001a521dc8
True
Pantheism holds that God is the universe and the universe is God, whereas Panentheism holds that God contains, but is not identical to, the Universe. It is also the view of the Liberal Catholic Church; Theosophy; some views of Hinduism except Vaishnavism, which believes in panentheism; Sikhism; some divisions of Neopaganism and Taoism, along with many varying denominations and individuals within denominations. Kabbalah, Jewish mysticism, paints a pantheistic/panentheistic view of God—which has wide acceptance in Hasidic Judaism, particularly from their founder The Baal Shem Tov—but only as an addition to the Jewish view of a personal god, not in the original pantheistic sense that denies or limits persona to God.[citation needed]
What do some non-theists view God as?
572859253acd2414000df935
a symbol of human values and aspirations
167
False
Although a proclaimed atheist, who was it that said "the word 'God' is to me a sound conveying no clear or distinct affirmation"?
572859253acd2414000df936
Charles Bradlaugh
248
False
What is NOMA?
572859253acd2414000df937
non-overlapping magisteria
564
False
In NOMA, what should be used to answer questions about the physical world?
572859253acd2414000df938
science
776
False
What should be used to answer ultimate questions on morality and meaning?
572859253acd2414000df939
theology
866
False
Name the nineteenth century English atheist?
572c0233dfb02c14005c6b4f
Charles Bradlaugh
248
False
What does Stephen Jay Gould call philosophy that deals in the supernatural?
572c0233dfb02c14005c6b50
non-overlapping magisteria" (NOMA)
564
False
What category does NOMA fall under?
572c0233dfb02c14005c6b51
theology
866
False
he disbelieved in the Christian god
434
What did the 19th century non-theist Stephen Jay say specifically about God?
5a3c776dcc5d22001a521dce
True
should then be used to answer any empirical question about the natural world
784
What should Christianity be used for in relation to nature?
5a3c776dcc5d22001a521dcf
True
should be used to answer questions about ultimate meaning and moral value
875
What should philosophy be used for in relation to morality?
5a3c776dcc5d22001a521dd0
True
the natural world
1104
Where does a lack of supernatural influence make human values a sole player in?
5a3c776dcc5d22001a521dd1
True
the concept of God
62
What does NOMA avoid about God?
5a3c776dcc5d22001a521dd2
True
Even non-theist views about gods vary. Some non-theists avoid the concept of God, whilst accepting that it is significant to many; other non-theists understand God as a symbol of human values and aspirations. The nineteenth-century English atheist Charles Bradlaugh declared that he refused to say "There is no God", because "the word 'God' is to me a sound conveying no clear or distinct affirmation"; he said more specifically that he disbelieved in the Christian god. Stephen Jay Gould proposed an approach dividing the world of philosophy into what he called "non-overlapping magisteria" (NOMA). In this view, questions of the supernatural, such as those relating to the existence and nature of God, are non-empirical and are the proper domain of theology. The methods of science should then be used to answer any empirical question about the natural world, and theology should be used to answer questions about ultimate meaning and moral value. In this view, the perceived lack of any empirical footprint from the magisterium of the supernatural onto natural events makes science the sole player in the natural world.
What did Sagan argue was the only was to prove the existence of God?
57285a642ca10214002da2b4
the discovery that the universe is infinitely old
457
False
What is Richard Dawkins belief about the existence of God?
57285a642ca10214002da2b5
"a universe with a god would be a completely different kind of universe from one without, and it would be a scientific difference."
118
False
What kind of difference does Dawkins believe would come from the existence of God?
57285a642ca10214002da2b6
a scientific difference
224
False
Who argued that the existence of God is an empirical question?
572c02d82babe914003c297c
Richard Dawkins
26
False
Who stated that God was difficult both to prove or disprove?
572c02d82babe914003c297d
Carl Sagan
250
False
How could science discover if there was not a creator?
572c02d82babe914003c297e
the universe is infinitely old.
476
False
scientific difference
226
How would the universe be different according to Carl Sagan?
5a3c7e32cc5d22001a521dd8
True
"a universe with a god would be a completely different kind of universe from one without, and it would be a scientific difference."
118
What grounds did Carl Sagan use to explain God's existence and how it would change the universe?
5a3c7e32cc5d22001a521dd9
True
the doctrine of a Creator of the Universe
273
What did Richard Dawkins believe was difficult to prove?
5a3c7e32cc5d22001a521dda
True
the discovery that the universe is infinitely old
457
What did Richard Dawkins believe could disprove the existence of a Creator?
5a3c7e32cc5d22001a521ddb
True
the existence of God is an empirical question
51
What view did Carl Sagan have about the question of the existence of God?
5a3c7e32cc5d22001a521ddc
True
Another view, advanced by Richard Dawkins, is that the existence of God is an empirical question, on the grounds that "a universe with a god would be a completely different kind of universe from one without, and it would be a scientific difference." Carl Sagan argued that the doctrine of a Creator of the Universe was difficult to prove or disprove and that the only conceivable scientific discovery that could disprove the existence of a Creator would be the discovery that the universe is infinitely old.
What does Stephen Hawking and Leonard Mlodinow pose as a better question that "Is there a God"?
57285c604b864d1900164956
who created God
230
False
Who wrote The Grand Design?
57285c604b864d1900164957
Stephen Hawking and co-author Leonard Mlodinow
0
False
What is Michael Nikoletseas profession?
57285c604b864d1900164958
Neuroscientist
397
False
How do Hawking and Mlodinow believe the question of God can be answered?
57285c604b864d1900164959
purely within the realm of science
321
False
What is the name of Stephen Hawking's book?
572c0399f182dd1900d7c7b8
The Grand Design
68
False
Who was Hawking's co-author?
572c0399f182dd1900d7c7b9
Leonard Mlodinow
30
False
Who says the that whether there is or isn't a God are just like questions in natural science?
572c0399f182dd1900d7c7ba
Michael Nikoletseas
412
False
The Grand Design
68
What is the name of the book by Michael Nikoletseas?
5a3c7fdccc5d22001a521de2
True
some of his attributes
694
What does Stephen Hawking think we can know about God?
5a3c7fdccc5d22001a521de3
True
Neuroscientist
397
What is Leonard Mlodinow's profession?
5a3c7fdccc5d22001a521de4
True
the question has merely been deflected to that of who created God
180
What does Michael Nikoletseas state in his book if God created the universe?
5a3c7fdccc5d22001a521de5
True
it is highly probable that God exists
600
What do both authors believe about God if you take a biological comparative approach?
5a3c7fdccc5d22001a521de6
True
Stephen Hawking and co-author Leonard Mlodinow state in their book, The Grand Design, that it is reasonable to ask who or what created the universe, but if the answer is God, then the question has merely been deflected to that of who created God. Both authors claim however, that it is possible to answer these questions purely within the realm of science, and without invoking any divine beings. Neuroscientist Michael Nikoletseas has proposed that questions of the existence of God are no different from questions of natural sciences. Following a biological comparative approach, he concludes that it is highly probable that God exists, and, although not visible, it is possible that we know some of his attributes.
How does Pascal Boyer believe that gods and other supernatural beings behave?
57285eda3acd2414000df96f
much like people
149
False
Why does Stewart Guthrie believe that people project their human features onto non human things?
57285eda3acd2414000df970
it makes those aspects more familiar
707
False
What did Frued believe about the belief in God?
57285eda3acd2414000df971
god concepts are projections of one's father
779
False
What is one of the most common traits of religion according to Boyer?
57285eda3acd2414000df972
The construction of gods and spirits like persons
167
False
Who argues that there are lots of supernatural things in the world?
572c0480dfb02c14005c6b5f
Pascal Boyer
0
False
How do supernatural entities act?
572c0480dfb02c14005c6b60
much like people
149
False
Which religion does Boyer equate with a modern soap opera?
572c0480dfb02c14005c6b61
Greek mythology
285
False
Who believed that gods are just projections of a person's father?
572c0480dfb02c14005c6b62
Sigmund Freud
745
False
tend to behave much like people
134
What does Sigmund Freud believe about the behavior of supernatural beings?
5a3c823dcc5d22001a521dec
True
The construction of gods and spirits like persons
167
What is one of the best known traits of Jurgensen's model?
5a3c823dcc5d22001a521ded
True
because it makes those aspects more familiar
699
Why do people make spirits appear humanlike according to Timothy Jurgensen?
5a3c823dcc5d22001a521dee
True
one's father
811
What does Pascal Boyer believe religious systems are projections of?
5a3c823dcc5d22001a521def
True
more like a modern soap opera than other religious systems
328
What is Sigmund Freud's opinion of Greek mythology?
5a3c823dcc5d22001a521df0
True
Pascal Boyer argues that while there is a wide array of supernatural concepts found around the world, in general, supernatural beings tend to behave much like people. The construction of gods and spirits like persons is one of the best known traits of religion. He cites examples from Greek mythology, which is, in his opinion, more like a modern soap opera than other religious systems. Bertrand du Castel and Timothy Jurgensen demonstrate through formalization that Boyer's explanatory model matches physics' epistemology in positing not directly observable entities as intermediaries. Anthropologist Stewart Guthrie contends that people project human features onto non-human aspects of the world because it makes those aspects more familiar. Sigmund Freud also suggested that god concepts are projections of one's father.
What are ways that small social groups can force morality?
572864644b864d190016496e
gossip or reputation
386
False
Who suggested that by including the presence of an omniscient God, selfishness can be controlled and cooperation can be gained?
572864644b864d190016496f
Matt Rossano
188
False
What did Émile Durkheim suggest about the existence of God?
572864644b864d1900164970
gods represent an extension of human social life to include supernatural beings
65
False
Why would humans have begun to create gods?
572864644b864d1900164971
a means of enforcing morality
288
False
Who posited that humans created gods to create morality in social groups?
572c0541dfb02c14005c6b67
Matt Rossano
188
False
Omnipresent gods are a way to watch large groups and enforce what?
572c0541dfb02c14005c6b68
morality
446
False
Omniprestent gods helped build what?
572c0541dfb02c14005c6b69
more cooperative groups
647
False
gods represent an extension of human social life to include supernatural beings
65
What concept did Matt Rossano suggest earlier than others?
5a3c86ebcc5d22001a521df6
True
they may have created gods as a means of enforcing morality
258
What does Emile Durkheim believe happened when humans live in groups?
5a3c86ebcc5d22001a521df7
True
by social forces such as gossip or reputation
361
How can selfishness be restrained in large groups?
5a3c86ebcc5d22001a521df8
True
in much larger groups
475
Where is it harder to build cooperative groups?
5a3c86ebcc5d22001a521df9
True
including ever-watchful gods and spirits
524
What did social forces use to enforce morality according to Durkheim?
5a3c86ebcc5d22001a521dfa
True
Likewise, Émile Durkheim was one of the earliest to suggest that gods represent an extension of human social life to include supernatural beings. In line with this reasoning, psychologist Matt Rossano contends that when humans began living in larger groups, they may have created gods as a means of enforcing morality. In small groups, morality can be enforced by social forces such as gossip or reputation. However, it is much harder to enforce morality using social forces in much larger groups. Rossano indicates that by including ever-watchful gods and spirits, humans discovered an effective strategy for restraining selfishness and building more cooperative groups.
How did St. Anselm define the existence of God?
572867304b864d190016499e
"that than which nothing greater can be conceived"
44
False
Who said that God is "a substance consisting of infinite attributes"?
572867304b864d190016499f
Baruch Spinoza
124
False
What did Baruch Spinoza use as proof for the existence of God?
572867304b864d19001649a0
a variation of the Ontological argument
492
False
What did Spinoza believe the world was made of?
572867304b864d19001649a1
one substance, God, or its equivalent, Nature
406
False
Who defined god as "that than which nothing greater can be conceived"?
572c061cdfb02c14005c6b6d
St. Anselm
0
False
Name a famous pantheist?
572c061cdfb02c14005c6b6e
Baruch Spinoza
124
False
What was Spinoza's concept of God?
572c061cdfb02c14005c6b6f
infinite
223
False
Spinoza believed that the universe was made up of one substance which is?
572c061cdfb02c14005c6b70
God
421
False
God, or its equivalent, Nature
421
What does St. Anselm believe the universe is comprised of?
5a3c88d4cc5d22001a521e00
True
a variation of the Ontological argument
492
What does St. Anselm used to prove God's existence?
5a3c88d4cc5d22001a521e01
True
God
36
What does Baruch Spinoza believe nothing is greater than?
5a3c88d4cc5d22001a521e02
True
pantheist
102
What kind of philosopher is St Anselm?
5a3c88d4cc5d22001a521e03
True
Baruch Spinoza
124
Who's idea about God did St. Anselm carry to its extreme?
5a3c88d4cc5d22001a521e04
True
St. Anselm's approach was to define God as, "that than which nothing greater can be conceived". Famed pantheist philosopher Baruch Spinoza would later carry this idea to its extreme: "By God I understand a being absolutely infinite, i.e., a substance consisting of infinite attributes, of which each one expresses an eternal and infinite essence." For Spinoza, the whole of the natural universe is made of one substance, God, or its equivalent, Nature. His proof for the existence of God was a variation of the Ontological argument.
How does Dawkins interpret evidence for or against the existence of God?
57286a723acd2414000df9b9
a lack of evidence for the material existence
488
False
What do atheists believe of God?
57286a723acd2414000df9ba
an imaginary entity only
178
False
How long has the thought of the existence of God been carried on?
57286a723acd2414000df9bb
trans-generational
405
False
How does Dawkins interpret his findings on the existence, or not, of God.
57286a723acd2414000df9bc
a lack of evidence for the material existence of such a God
488
False
Who believes God isn't real?
572c07642babe914003c2982
Lawrence M. Krauss and Sam Harris
119
False
cosmology, evolutionary biology and neuroscience
31
What fields are used by Richard Dawkins to prove God's existence?
5a3c8e8fcc5d22001a521e0a
True
a trans-generational manner
403
In what way does Richard Dawkins believe the existence of the universe has continued on in?
5a3c8e8fcc5d22001a521e0b
True
Lawrence M. Krauss and Sam Harris
119
Who has used findings to prove the existence of God in a trans-generational manner?
5a3c8e8fcc5d22001a521e0c
True
evolutionary biology
42
What does Richard Dawkins believe describes the creation of the universe?
5a3c8e8fcc5d22001a521e0d
True
Lawrence M. Krauss and Sam Harris
119
Who uses cosmology, evolutionary biology and neuroscience to prove God is omniscient?
5a3c8e8fcc5d22001a521e0e
True
Some findings in the fields of cosmology, evolutionary biology and neuroscience are interpreted by atheists (including Lawrence M. Krauss and Sam Harris) as evidence that God is an imaginary entity only, with no basis in reality. A single, omniscient God who is imagined to have created the universe and is particularly attentive to the lives of humans has been imagined, embellished and promulgated in a trans-generational manner. Richard Dawkins interprets various findings not only as a lack of evidence for the material existence of such a God but extensive evidence to the contrary.
What is the Omnipotence paradox?
57286e382ca10214002da33c
can God create a stone so heavy that he cannot lift it
64
False
What is another term for the Omnipotence paradox?
57286e382ca10214002da33d
Paradox of the Stone
41
False
Does either outcome of the Paradox of the Stone prove the existence of God?
57286e382ca10214002da33e
God is not omnipotent. A being that is not omnipotent, though, is not God
433
False
What shows God is not omnipotent if he creates a stone that he cannot lift?
57286e382ca10214002da33f
there is something that he cannot do
184
False
What must God be, in order to be a Supreme Being?
57286e382ca10214002da340
omnipotent
271
False
What paradox states that if a god can't create a stone so heavy he can't lift it?
572c0840750c471900ed4c88
Paradox of the Stone
41
False
What does the Paradox of the Stone posit?
572c0840750c471900ed4c89
he is not omnipotent
261
False
What does it mean if a God is not omnipotent?
572c0840750c471900ed4c8a
is not God
496
False
Are there any answers to the Pradox of the Stone?
572c0840750c471900ed4c8b
Several
585
False
can God create a stone so heavy that he cannot lift it?
64
What question does the theological model paradox ask?
5a3c90f9cc5d22001a521e14
True
Several
585
How many arguments about God's power prove he exists?
5a3c90f9cc5d22001a521e15
True
Omnipotence paradox
17
What is a term for the existence of God?
5a3c90f9cc5d22001a521e16
True
many theological models
521
What model proves that God can lift a stone he creates?
5a3c90f9cc5d22001a521e17
True
theological models
526
If God can create a stone he can't lift, what proves he exists?
5a3c90f9cc5d22001a521e18
True
According to the Omnipotence paradox or 'Paradox of the Stone', can God create a stone so heavy that he cannot lift it? Either he can or he can’t. If he can’t, the argument goes, then there is something that he cannot do, namely create the stone, and therefore he is not omnipotent. If he can, it continues, then there is also something that he cannot do, namely lift the stone, and therefore he is not omnipotent. Either way, then, God is not omnipotent. A being that is not omnipotent, though, is not God, according to many theological models. Such a God, therefore, does not exist. Several answers to this paradox have been proposed.
What do religions share across their belief structures?
5728706c4b864d19001649fc
similarities arising from their common roots
496
False
What are some religious traditions that are found within differing religions?
5728706c4b864d19001649fd
expansive powers and abilities, psychological characteristics, gender characteristics, and preferred nomenclature
120
False
Who does Christianity share roots with?
5728706c4b864d19001649fe
attributes of God in Islam, and the Thirteen Attributes of Mercy in Judaism
406
False
How many Attributes of Mercy are in Judaism?
5728706c4b864d19001649ff
Thirteen
442
False
What three religions share similar parts?
572c09a82babe914003c2984
God in Christianity, attributes of God in Islam, and the Thirteen Attributes of Mercy in Judaism
385
False
What three religions share similar beginnings?
572c09a82babe914003c2985
Christianity, attributes of God in Islam, and the Thirteen Attributes of Mercy in Judaism
392
False
What attributes do religions all roughly share?
572c09a82babe914003c2986
expansive powers and abilities, psychological characteristics, gender characteristics, and preferred nomenclature
120
False
attributes of God in Christianity, attributes of God in Islam, and the Thirteen Attributes of Mercy in Judaism
371
What beliefs have similar psychological characteristics?
5a3c96edcc5d22001a521e1e
True
Judaism
474
What reliegion does Islam share culture with?
5a3c96edcc5d22001a521e1f
True
Thirteen
442
How many attributes of mercy are in Islam?
5a3c96edcc5d22001a521e20
True
expansive powers and abilities, psychological characteristics, gender characteristics, and preferred nomenclature
120
What attributes do different cultures have?
5a3c96edcc5d22001a521e21
True
preferred nomenclature
211
What is one thing Christianity assigns to different religions?
5a3c96edcc5d22001a521e22
True
Different religious traditions assign differing (though often similar) attributes and characteristics to God, including expansive powers and abilities, psychological characteristics, gender characteristics, and preferred nomenclature. The assignment of these attributes often differs according to the conceptions of God in the culture from which they arise. For example, attributes of God in Christianity, attributes of God in Islam, and the Thirteen Attributes of Mercy in Judaism share certain similarities arising from their common roots.
How is sex by God handled in a monotheistic religion?
572871812ca10214002da364
God has no counterpart with which to relate sexually
339
False
How do polytheistic religions view sex by God or gods?
572871812ca10214002da365
attribute to each of the gods a gender, allowing each to interact with any of the others, and perhaps with humans, sexually
182
False
What is God's role in the creation of the world?
572871812ca10214002da366
begetter
595
False
In what ways can the gender of God be viewed?
572871812ca10214002da367
literal or an allegorical aspect
44
False
What do polytheistic religions assign to their gods?
572c0adff182dd1900d7c7c8
gender
4
False
What role does got serve in a sexual intercourse?
572c0adff182dd1900d7c7c9
the active (as opposed to the receptive) role
653
False
In which type of religion does God have no sexual partner?
572c0adff182dd1900d7c7ca
monotheistic
315
False
a gender
212
What does western philosophy attribute to each of the gods?
5a3c9a2fcc5d22001a521e28
True
begetter of the world
595
What is the role of God's counterpart in creation?
5a3c9a2fcc5d22001a521e29
True
a literal or an allegorical aspect
42
In what way can the sexuality of God's counterpart be viewed?
5a3c9a2fcc5d22001a521e2a
True
sexually
383
How does western philosophy allow God to act with humans?
5a3c9a2fcc5d22001a521e2b
True
bodily form
137
What does the counterpart of God transcend?
5a3c9a2fcc5d22001a521e2c
True
The gender of God may be viewed as either a literal or an allegorical aspect of a deity who, in classical western philosophy, transcends bodily form. Polytheistic religions commonly attribute to each of the gods a gender, allowing each to interact with any of the others, and perhaps with humans, sexually. In most monotheistic religions, God has no counterpart with which to relate sexually. Thus, in classical western philosophy the gender of this one-and-only deity is most likely to be an analogical statement of how humans and God address, and relate to, each other. Namely, God is seen as begetter of the world and revelation which corresponds to the active (as opposed to the receptive) role in sexual intercourse.
What is a muslims life purpose?
572c0bcb750c471900ed4c90
to worship God
103
False
What aspect does Alister McGrath argue is important in Christianity?
572c0bcb750c471900ed4c92
a "personal god"
518
False
What does prayer usually include in Islam?
572c0bcb750c471900ed4c93
forgiveness
266
False
What type of God is the Muslim God?
572c0bcb750c471900ed4c94
forgiving
307
False
one has to understand it is an analogy
582
What does Alister McGrath write about the existence of the muslim god?
5a3c9cdccc5d22001a521e32
True
a significant role
13
What kind of role does a personal god play with Alister McGrath?
5a3c9cdccc5d22001a521e33
True
to worship God
103
What is the purpose of life for Christians?
5a3c9cdccc5d22001a521e34
True
clergy
191
What is an example of an intermediary in Islam?
5a3c9cdccc5d22001a521e35
True
supplication and asking forgiveness
242
What are two things the worship of God includes?
5a3c9cdccc5d22001a521e36
True
Prayer plays a significant role among many believers. Muslims believe that the purpose of existence is to worship God. He is viewed as a personal God and there are no intermediaries, such as clergy, to contact God. Prayer often also includes supplication and asking forgiveness. God is often believed to be forgiving. For example, a hadith states God would replace a sinless people with one who sinned but still asked repentance. Christian theologian Alister McGrath writes that there are good reasons to suggest that a "personal god" is integral to the Christian outlook, but that one has to understand it is an analogy. "To say that God is like a person is to affirm the divine ability and willingness to relate to others. This does not imply that God is human, or located at a specific point in the universe."
Who believe they are the one and only chosen few?
572c0ccddfb02c14005c6b75
exclusivists
254
False
Who believe that they are the only people that know the truth?
572c0ccddfb02c14005c6b76
exclusivists
254
False
What is one called that believes he has the one religion, but that the others aren't necessarily wrong?
572c0ccddfb02c14005c6b77
pluralism
479
False
What is it called when someone belives that their own religion is an advancement of older religions?
572c0ccddfb02c14005c6b78
supersessionism
663
False
What is a religion that believes that all religions are correct?
572c0ccddfb02c14005c6b79
universalism
864
False
have exclusive access to absolute truth, generally through revelation or encounter with the Divine
310
What is one thing exclusivists don't have that Christians do?
5a3c9ecfcc5d22001a521e3c
True
supersessionism
663
What is an example of syncretism in Christianity?
5a3c9ecfcc5d22001a521e3d
True
salvation
896
What does a pluralist believe that is eventually available to all?
5a3c9ecfcc5d22001a521e3e
True
absolute truth
335
What does the New Age movement believe they have exclusive access to?
5a3c9ecfcc5d22001a521e3f
True
through revelation or encounter with the Divine
361
How does the New Age movement believe it has access to absolute truth??
5a3c9ecfcc5d22001a521e40
True
Adherents of different religions generally disagree as to how to best worship God and what is God's plan for mankind, if there is one. There are different approaches to reconciling the contradictory claims of monotheistic religions. One view is taken by exclusivists, who believe they are the chosen people or have exclusive access to absolute truth, generally through revelation or encounter with the Divine, which adherents of other religions do not. Another view is religious pluralism. A pluralist typically believes that his religion is the right one, but does not deny the partial truth of other religions. An example of a pluralist view in Christianity is supersessionism, i.e., the belief that one's religion is the fulfillment of previous religions. A third approach is relativistic inclusivism, where everybody is seen as equally right; an example being universalism: the doctrine that salvation is eventually available for everyone. A fourth approach is syncretism, mixing different elements from different religions. An example of syncretism is the New Age movement.
What does it mean if God can't predict the future?
572c0e9b750c471900ed4c9a
God may not be omniscient.
489
False
Who posited the existence of God?
572c0e9b750c471900ed4c9b
medieval philosophers
5
False
What philosophical debates arose in the middle ages?
572c0e9b750c471900ed4c9c
God's omniscience
256
False
God may not be omniscient
489
What does it mean if medieval philosophers think God is predestined?
5a3ca628cc5d22001a521e46
True
Many medieval philosophers
0
Who developed arguments for God  being philosophical?
5a3ca628cc5d22001a521e47
True
the precise implications of God's attributes
104
What did free agents attempt to comprehend about God?
5a3ca628cc5d22001a521e48
True
free agents will choose to act
311
What will happen during a debate according to God's foreknowledge?
5a3ca628cc5d22001a521e49
True
God's omniscience
256
What were philosophical debates about among free agents?
5a3ca628cc5d22001a521e4a
True
Many medieval philosophers developed arguments for the existence of God, while attempting to comprehend the precise implications of God's attributes. Reconciling some of those attributes generated important philosophical problems and debates. For example, God's omniscience may seem to imply that God knows how free agents will choose to act. If God does know this, their ostensible free will might be illusory, or foreknowledge does not imply predestination, and if God does not know it, God may not be omniscient.
How does Alvin Plantinga describe faith?
572c101b2babe914003c298a
"properly basic"
329
False
Who stated "the heart has reasons of which reason does not know"?
572c101b2babe914003c298b
Pascal
695
False
Which philosopher takes the evidentialist position?
572c101b2babe914003c298c
Richard Swinburne
367
False
Name three philosophers of the last 100 years arguing for the existence of God?
572c101b2babe914003c298d
Immanuel Kant, David Hume and Antony Flew
137
False
was valid
231
What did David Hume think about the argument from morality?
5a3cb166cc5d22001a521e50
True
is "properly basic"
326
What does Pascal think about faith?
5a3cb166cc5d22001a521e51
True
risk
558
What does Antony Flew believe physics requires?
5a3cb166cc5d22001a521e52
True
physics and neurophysiology
796
What two areas are used to say the arguments for God's existence are solid?
5a3cb166cc5d22001a521e53
True
Immanuel Kant, David Hume and Antony Flew
137
What three philosophers believed that God can be conceptualized in the integrative level theory?
5a3cb166cc5d22001a521e54
True
The last centuries of philosophy have seen vigorous questions regarding the arguments for God's existence raised by such philosophers as Immanuel Kant, David Hume and Antony Flew, although Kant held that the argument from morality was valid. The theist response has been either to contend, as does Alvin Plantinga, that faith is "properly basic", or to take, as does Richard Swinburne, the evidentialist position. Some theists agree that none of the arguments for God's existence are compelling, but argue that faith is not a product of reason, but requires risk. There would be no risk, they say, if the arguments for God's existence were as solid as the laws of logic, a position summed up by Pascal as "the heart has reasons of which reason does not know." A recent theory using concepts from physics and neurophysiology proposes that God can be conceptualized within the theory of integrative level.
War_on_Terror
When did George W. Bush first say 'war on terrorism'?
572840513acd2414000df7c7
16 September 2001
3
False
Which word did George W. Bush apologize for using when talking about the war?
572840513acd2414000df7c8
crusade
158
False
When did George W. Bush first say 'war on terror'?
572840513acd2414000df7c9
20 September 2001
389
False
Where did Bush say the 'war on terror' begins?
572840513acd2414000df7ca
with al-Qaeda
515
False
When did Bush say the 'war on terror' ends?
572840513acd2414000df7cb
every terrorist group of global reach has been found, stopped, and defeated
579
False
crusade
158
What controversial term did George W. Bush use on 20 September 2001?
5a838535e60761001a2eb753
True
Camp David
25
Where did George W. Bush give his 20 September 2001 address from?
5a838535e60761001a2eb754
True
joint session of congress
440
What part of the government did George W. Bush address on 16 September 2001?
5a838535e60761001a2eb755
True
16 September 2001
3
What day did George W. Bush apologize for the word crusade?
5a85a6cab4e223001a8e7155
True
Camp David
25
Where was Bush during the televised address?
5a85a6cab4e223001a8e7156
True
President George W. Bush
37
Who protested the use of the word crusade?
5a85a6cab4e223001a8e7157
True
Muslim
335
What faith used the term "crusade" in reference to terrorism?
5a85a6cab4e223001a8e7158
True
20 September 2001
389
When was the second time Bush referred to the war as a crusade?
5a85a6cab4e223001a8e7159
True
On 16 September 2001, at Camp David, President George W. Bush used the phrase war on terrorism in an unscripted and controversial comment when he said, "This crusade – this war on terrorism – is going to take a while, ... " Bush later apologized for this remark due to the negative connotations the term crusade has to people, e.g. of Muslim faith. The word crusade was not used again. On 20 September 2001, during a televised address to a joint session of congress, Bush stated that, "(o)ur 'war on terror' begins with al-Qaeda, but it does not end there. It will not end until every terrorist group of global reach has been found, stopped, and defeated."
What did Obama say the US is at war with, in 2009?
572841da2ca10214002da1be
a far-reaching network of violence and hatred
144
False
What was the "Global War on Terror" officially renamed to in March 2009?
572841da2ca10214002da1bf
Overseas Contingency Operation
303
False
What term did Obama want the government to stop using?
572841da2ca10214002da1c0
war on terror
536
False
Who said in 2012 that the fight would change from military to law enforcement?
572841da2ca10214002da1c1
Jeh Johnson
669
False
What was the  "Overseas Contingency Operations" renamed to in 2010?
572841da2ca10214002da1c2
Countering Violent Extremism
1279
False
Overseas Contingency Operation
303
What did Barack Obama change the name of "Global War on Terror' to?
5a8386b0e60761001a2eb76d
True
Overseas Contingency Operation
303
What is the OOC also known as?
5a8386b0e60761001a2eb76e
True
Jeh Johnson
669
Who spoke at Oxford University in December of 2013?
5a8386b0e60761001a2eb76f
True
Obama
1039
Who defined the goal in a speech in May of 2012?
5a8386b0e60761001a2eb770
True
2010
1312
What year was "Overseas Contingency Operations" changed to "Violent Extremism Countering?"
5a8386b0e60761001a2eb771
True
Global War on Terror
277
What was the Overseas Contingency Operation renamed as in 2009?
5a85a812b4e223001a8e715f
True
U.S. Office of Management and Budget
1172
What did the Defense Department change its name to?
5a85a812b4e223001a8e7160
True
Oxford
828
What university did Jeh Johnson work for?
5a85a812b4e223001a8e7161
True
law enforcement operation
785
What did Obama say the military fight would be replaced with?
5a85a812b4e223001a8e7162
True
the Obama administration
357
Who did Pentagon staff members request to avoid the term war on terror?
5a85a812b4e223001a8e7163
True
U.S. President Barack Obama has rarely used the term, but in his inaugural address on 20 January 2009, he stated "Our nation is at war, against a far-reaching network of violence and hatred." In March 2009 the Defense Department officially changed the name of operations from "Global War on Terror" to "Overseas Contingency Operation" (OCO). In March 2009, the Obama administration requested that Pentagon staff members avoid use of the term, instead using "Overseas Contingency Operation". Basic objectives of the Bush administration "war on terror", such as targeting al Qaeda and building international counterterrorism alliances, remain in place. In December 2012, Jeh Johnson, the General Counsel of the Department of Defense, stated that the military fight will be replaced by a law enforcement operation when speaking at Oxford University, predicting that al Qaeda will be so weakened to be ineffective, and has been "effectively destroyed", and thus the conflict will not be an armed conflict under international law. In May 2013, Obama stated that the goal is "to dismantle specific networks of violent extremists that threaten America"; which coincided with the U.S. Office of Management and Budget having changed the wording from "Overseas Contingency Operations" to "Countering Violent Extremism" in 2010.
Who said the 'war on terrorism' is 'an entire language of discourse'?
57284244ff5b5019007da028
Richard Jackson
131
False
Who said that 9/11 drew a line between 'the civil and the savage'?
57284244ff5b5019007da029
John Ashcroft
466
False
What did the Bush administration describe as parasitical?
57284244ff5b5019007da02a
terrorists
624
False
What did the Bush administration describe as heroic?
57284244ff5b5019007da02b
Americans
760
False
political theorist
112
What job title does Richard Ashcroft hold?
5a83891ae60761001a2eb781
True
"the attacks of September 11 drew a bright line of demarcation between the civil and the savage".
485
What statement did John Jackson give?
5a83891ae60761001a2eb782
True
is simultaneously a set of actual practices—wars, covert operations, agencies, and institutions—and an accompanying series of assumptions
198
What has Richard Ashcroft argued about the "war on terrorism?"
5a83891ae60761001a2eb783
True
John Ashcroft
466
Of whom does Richard Jackson cite many examples?
5a83891ae60761001a2eb784
True
Richard Jackson
131
Who said the actions involved in war on terrorism are diffuse?
5a85a8aab4e223001a8e7169
True
political theorist
112
What is John Ashcroft's job?
5a85a8aab4e223001a8e716a
True
terrorists
624
Who did Jackson say was treacherous?
5a85a8aab4e223001a8e716b
True
Americans
760
Who did Ashcroft say was brave?
5a85a8aab4e223001a8e716c
True
war on terrorism
37
What has clear criteria?
5a85a8aab4e223001a8e716d
True
Because the actions involved in the "war on terrorism" are diffuse, and the criteria for inclusion are unclear, political theorist Richard Jackson has argued that "the 'war on terrorism' therefore, is simultaneously a set of actual practices—wars, covert operations, agencies, and institutions—and an accompanying series of assumptions, beliefs, justifications, and narratives—it is an entire language or discourse." Jackson cites among many examples a statement by John Ashcroft that "the attacks of September 11 drew a bright line of demarcation between the civil and the savage". Administration officials also described "terrorists" as hateful, treacherous, barbarous, mad, twisted, perverted, without faith, parasitical, inhuman, and, most commonly, evil. Americans, in contrast, were described as brave, loving, generous, strong, resourceful, heroic, and respectful of human rights.
Which war gave birth to al-Qaeda?
572842b53acd2414000df7f1
the Soviet war in Afghanistan
41
False
When did the Soviets leave Afghanistan?
572842b53acd2414000df7f2
February 1989
88
False
Which countries supported Afghan islamists against the Soviets?
572842b53acd2414000df7f3
United States, United Kingdom, Saudi Arabia, Pakistan, and the People's Republic of China
108
False
Who did Osama bin Laden volunteer to help fight in the 80s?
572842b53acd2414000df7f4
Soviets
413
False
Which group later became al-Qaeda?
572842b53acd2414000df7f5
World Islamic Front for Jihad Against Jews and Crusaders
535
False
Soviet war in Afghanistan
45
What took place from February 1979 to December 1989?
5a838ac4e60761001a2eb79d
True
World Islamic Front for Jihad Against Jews and Crusaders
535
What group started forming in February 1996?
5a838ac4e60761001a2eb79e
True
a fatwā
850
What did Osama bin Laden sign in May 1998?
5a838ac4e60761001a2eb79f
True
U.S. and the West
996
Who did Osama bin Laden declare war against in a February 1998 video?
5a838ac4e60761001a2eb7a0
True
World Islamic Front for Jihad Against Jews and Crusaders
535
What is the WIJFAJC also known as?
5a838ac4e60761001a2eb7a1
True
the Soviet war in Afghanistan
41
What war did al-Qaeda start in 1979?
5a85aa4bb4e223001a8e7173
True
World Islamic Front for Jihad Against Jews and Crusaders (WIFJAJC)
535
Who sponsored bin Laden in 1996?
5a85aa4bb4e223001a8e7174
True
al-Qaeda
650
What was WIFJAJC originally called?
5a85aa4bb4e223001a8e7175
True
fatwā
852
What document declared war on the Soviet Union?
5a85aa4bb4e223001a8e7176
True
Afghan Arab
360
Who volunteered to fight with the Islamist Afghan mujahadeen guerillas?
5a85aa4bb4e223001a8e7177
True
The origins of al-Qaeda can be traced to the Soviet war in Afghanistan (December 1979 – February 1989). The United States, United Kingdom, Saudi Arabia, Pakistan, and the People's Republic of China supported the Islamist Afghan mujahadeen guerillas against the military forces of the Soviet Union and the Democratic Republic of Afghanistan. A small number of "Afghan Arab" volunteers joined the fight against the Soviets, including Osama bin Laden, but there is no evidence they received any external assistance. In May 1996 the group World Islamic Front for Jihad Against Jews and Crusaders (WIFJAJC), sponsored by bin Laden (and later re-formed as al-Qaeda), started forming a large base of operations in Afghanistan, where the Islamist extremist regime of the Taliban had seized power earlier in the year. In February 1998, Osama bin Laden signed a fatwā, as head of al-Qaeda, declaring war on the West and Israel, later in May of that same year al-Qaeda released a video declaring war on the U.S. and the West.
When did al-Qaeda attack the US embassy in Kenya?
572843362ca10214002da1e2
7 August 1998
3
False
How many people were killed when al-Qaeda attacked US embassies in 1998?
572843362ca10214002da1e3
224
84
False
How many Americans were killed when al-Qaeda attacked US embassies in 1998?
572843362ca10214002da1e4
12
106
False
What operation did Bill Clinton start to retaliate for the 1998 embassy attacks?
572843362ca10214002da1e5
Operation Infinite Reach
173
False
How much of Sudan's medicines were produced by a pharmaceutical plant Clinton's operation bombed?
572843362ca10214002da1e6
around 50%
480
False
al-Qaeda struck the U.S. embassies in Kenya and Tanzania
18
What happened on 8 August 1997?
5a838cb9e60761001a2eb7b1
True
U.S. President Bill Clinton
136
Who launched Operation Reach Infinite?
5a838cb9e60761001a2eb7b2
True
Sudan
373
Where was the pharmaceutical plant said to produce 12% of Sudan's pharmaceutical needs?
5a838cb9e60761001a2eb7b3
True
al-Qaeda struck the U.S. embassies in Kenya and Tanzania
18
What happened to kill 224 people, including 50 Americans?
5a838cb9e60761001a2eb7b4
True
224
84
How many people did Operation Infinite Reach kill?
5a85ab0eb4e223001a8e717d
True
7 August 1998
3
When was Operation Infinite Reach launched?
5a85ab0eb4e223001a8e717e
True
50%
487
What percentage of Afghanistan's pharmaceutical needs were produced by the plant?
5a85ab0eb4e223001a8e717f
True
Operation Infinite Reach
173
What operation killed several members of the Taliban?
5a85ab0eb4e223001a8e7180
True
Kenya and Tanzania
56
Which US embassies were bombed in Operation Infinite Reach?
5a85ab0eb4e223001a8e7181
True
On 7 August 1998, al-Qaeda struck the U.S. embassies in Kenya and Tanzania, killing 224 people, including 12 Americans. In retaliation, U.S. President Bill Clinton launched Operation Infinite Reach, a bombing campaign in Sudan and Afghanistan against targets the U.S. asserted were associated with WIFJAJC, although others have questioned whether a pharmaceutical plant in Sudan was used as a chemical warfare plant. The plant produced much of the region's antimalarial drugs and around 50% of Sudan's pharmaceutical needs. The strikes failed to kill any leaders of WIFJAJC or the Taliban.
How many al-Qaeda operatives hijacked planes on 9/11?
572843933acd2414000df803
19
37
False
How many planes were hijacked on 9/11?
572843933acd2414000df804
four
78
False
Where were the 9/11 planes originally going?
572843933acd2414000df805
California
107
False
Which al-Qaeda cell were the 9/11 hijackers members of?
572843933acd2414000df806
Hamburg
487
False
How soon after planes crashed into them did the WTC towers collapse?
572843933acd2414000df807
within two hours
628
False
the Pentagon
779
What building is located in Shanksville, Virginia?
5a838e88e60761001a2eb7c9
True
a field
882
What area of Arlington, Pennsylvania did the fourth plane crash?
5a838e88e60761001a2eb7ca
True
2,977
1153
How many victims perished in addition to the 11 hijackers in the attacks?
5a838e88e60761001a2eb7cb
True
California
107
Where were the airliners leaving from?
5a85ac3cb4e223001a8e7187
True
within two hours
628
How long did it take for the Pentagon to collapse?
5a85ac3cb4e223001a8e7188
True
2,977
1153
How many passengers died?
5a85ac3cb4e223001a8e7189
True
Hamburg
487
What cell were the passengers and crew part of?
5a85ac3cb4e223001a8e718a
True
The fourth
852
Which plane crashed into the White House?
5a85ac3cb4e223001a8e718b
True
On the morning of 11 September 2001, 19 men affiliated with al-Qaeda hijacked four airliners all bound for California. Once the hijackers assumed control of the airliners, they told the passengers that they had the bomb on board and would spare the lives of passengers and crew once their demands were met – no passenger and crew actually suspected that they would use the airliners as suicide weapons since it had never happened before in history. The hijackers – members of al-Qaeda's Hamburg cell – intentionally crashed two airliners into the Twin Towers of the World Trade Center in New York City. Both buildings collapsed within two hours from fire damage related to the crashes, destroying nearby buildings and damaging others. The hijackers crashed a third airliner into the Pentagon in Arlington County, Virginia, just outside Washington D.C. The fourth plane crashed into a field near Shanksville, Pennsylvania, after some of its passengers and flight crew attempted to retake control of the plane, which the hijackers had redirected toward Washington D.C., to target the White House, or the U.S. Capitol. No flights had survivors. A total of 2,977 victims and the 19 hijackers perished in the attacks.
What law was signed on Sep 14, 2001?
572843fc4b864d1900164862
Authorization for Use of Military Force Against Terrorists
4
False
Who did the AUMF authorize the US military attacking?
572843fc4b864d1900164863
those responsible for the attacks on 11 September 2001
167
False
What law did Congress refer to as a basic for the AUMF?
572843fc4b864d1900164864
section 5(b) of the War Powers Resolution
735
False
When was the War Powers Resolution passed?
572843fc4b864d1900164865
1973
780
False
The Authorization for Use of Military Force Against Terrorists
0
What is UAMF also known as?
5a8392a5e60761001a2eb7e3
True
The Authorization for Use of Military Force Against Terrorists
0
What was made law on 11 September 2001?
5a8392a5e60761001a2eb7e4
True
War Powers Resolution
755
What resolution was written in 1974?
5a8392a5e60761001a2eb7e5
True
the use of United States Armed Forces against those responsible for the attacks on 11 September 2001.
121
What does the AUMF authorize Congress?
5a8392a5e60761001a2eb7e6
True
The Authorization for Use of Military Force Against Terrorists or "AUMF"
0
What was made law on 11 September?
5a85ad91b4e223001a8e7191
True
5(b)
743
Which section of AUMF authorized armed forces to respond?
5a85ad91b4e223001a8e7192
True
September
92
What month was the War Powers Resolution signed?
5a85ad91b4e223001a8e7193
True
the President
237
Who authorized AUMF?
5a85ad91b4e223001a8e7194
True
War Powers Resolution
755
What previous resolution did AUMF contradict?
5a85ad91b4e223001a8e7195
True
The Authorization for Use of Military Force Against Terrorists or "AUMF" was made law on 14 September 2001, to authorize the use of United States Armed Forces against those responsible for the attacks on 11 September 2001. It authorized the President to use all necessary and appropriate force against those nations, organizations, or persons he determines planned, authorized, committed, or aided the terrorist attacks that occurred on 11 September 2001, or harbored such organizations or persons, in order to prevent any future acts of international terrorism against the United States by such nations, organizations or persons. Congress declares this is intended to constitute specific statutory authorization within the meaning of section 5(b) of the War Powers Resolution of 1973.
When did the US invade Afghanistan?
572844774b864d190016486a
October 2001
17
False
Who helped the US invade Afghanistan?
572844774b864d190016486b
UK and coalition allies
49
False
What was the goal of the US invading Afghanistan?
572844774b864d190016486c
oust the Taliban regime
97
False
When did the US begin airstrikes on Afghanistan?
572844774b864d190016486d
7 October 2001
125
False
Where did bin Laden escape to in Dec 2001?
572844774b864d190016486e
Pakistan
563
False
Kabul
249
What city fell by mid-October in the invasion of Afghanistan?
5a839623e60761001a2eb7eb
True
eastern Afghanistan
392
What region did Coalition forces fight in during November?
5a839623e60761001a2eb7ec
True
Osama bin Laden
534
Who escaped to Tora Bora, Pakistan during the December battle?
5a839623e60761001a2eb7ed
True
October 2001
17
When did Afghanistan forces invade the UK?
5a85b566b4e223001a8e719b
True
UK and coalition allies
49
Who allied with Afghanistan?
5a85b566b4e223001a8e719c
True
Kabul
249
What fell in October 2001?
5a85b566b4e223001a8e719d
True
Tora Bora
420
What is the name of the mountain range in Kabul?
5a85b566b4e223001a8e719e
True
Osama bin Laden
534
Who escaped into Afghanistan in December?
5a85b566b4e223001a8e719f
True
Subsequently, in October 2001, U.S. forces (with UK and coalition allies) invaded Afghanistan to oust the Taliban regime. On 7 October 2001, the official invasion began with British and U.S. forces conducting airstrike campaigns over enemy targets. Kabul, the capital city of Afghanistan, fell by mid-November. The remaining al-Qaeda and Taliban remnants fell back to the rugged mountains of eastern Afghanistan, mainly Tora Bora. In December, Coalition forces (the U.S. and its allies) fought within that region. It is believed that Osama bin Laden escaped into Pakistan during the battle.
Where did the Taliban regroup in 2002?
572844f92ca10214002da210
western Pakistan
25
False
In what parts of Afghanistan did the Taliban attack Coalition forces in 2002?
572844f92ca10214002da211
southern and eastern
142
False
What operation began in Feb 2010?
572844f92ca10214002da212
Operation Moshtarak
411
False
Where did Operation Moshtarak take place?
572844f92ca10214002da213
southern Afghanistan
434
False
When did Afghanistan sign a security agreement with the US?
572844f92ca10214002da214
September 2014
661
False
western Pakistan
25
Where did the Taliban regroup in late 2001?
5a8399cce60761001a2eb80f
True
Operation Moshtarak
411
What operation did Coalition forces launch in February 2002?
5a8399cce60761001a2eb810
True
a security agreement
718
What did Afghanistan and the US sign in December 2014?
5a8399cce60761001a2eb811
True
Operation Freedom's Sentinel
1226
What will continued NATO operations within Afghanistan be known as?
5a8399cce60761001a2eb812
True
western Pakistan
25
Where did Coalition forces regroup?
5a85b666b4e223001a8e71a5
True
Operation Moshtarak
411
What was the name of the insurgent-style offensive the Taliban used?
5a85b666b4e223001a8e71a6
True
a security agreement
718
What did NATO and the US sign in 2014?
5a85b666b4e223001a8e71a7
True
2024
824
When do NATO forces have to leave Afghanistan by?
5a85b666b4e223001a8e71a8
True
Operation Freedom's Sentinel
1226
What was the name of the security agreement?
5a85b666b4e223001a8e71a9
True
The Taliban regrouped in western Pakistan and began to unleash an insurgent-style offensive against Coalition forces in late 2002. Throughout southern and eastern Afghanistan, firefights broke out between the surging Taliban and Coalition forces. Coalition forces responded with a series of military offensives and an increase in the amount of troops in Afghanistan. In February 2010, Coalition forces launched Operation Moshtarak in southern Afghanistan along with other military offensives in the hopes that they would destroy the Taliban insurgency once and for all. Peace talks are also underway between Taliban affiliated fighters and Coalition forces. In September 2014, Afghanistan and the United States signed a security agreement, which permits United States and NATO forces to remain in Afghanistan until at least 2024. The United States and other NATO and non-NATO forces are planning to withdraw; with the Taliban claiming it has defeated the United States and NATO, and the Obama Administration viewing it as a victory. In December 2014, ISAF encasing its colors, and Resolute Support began as the NATO operation in Afghanistan. Continued United States operations within Afghanistan will continue under the name "Operation Freedom's Sentinel".
Where did the USSOC Pacific deploy to in Jan 2002?
57284581ff5b5019007da08a
Philippines
87
False
What was the goal of the 2002 Philippines deployment?
57284581ff5b5019007da08b
combating Filipino Islamist groups
159
False
What was the main Filipino Islamist group being attacked?
57284581ff5b5019007da08c
Abu Sayyaf
246
False
What humanitarian effort followed the 2002 military operation in the Philippines?
57284581ff5b5019007da08d
Operation Smiles
421
False
What did Operation Smiles do for the Philippines?
57284581ff5b5019007da08e
provide medical care and services to the region of Basilan
471
False
Basilan
328
What island did Abu Islamiyah and Jemaah Sayyaf have a stronghold on?
5a839b5fe60761001a2eb817
True
to provide medical care and services to the region of Basilan as part of a "Hearts and Minds" program.
468
What was the goal of "Smiles Operation?"
5a839b5fe60761001a2eb818
True
Joint Special Operations Task Force – Philippines
571
What disbanded in November 2014?
5a839b5fe60761001a2eb819
True
American forces
722
Who operated under the name "PAMOC Augmentation Team?"
5a839b5fe60761001a2eb81a
True
United States Special Operations Command
21
Who was deployed to help the Filipino Islamist groups?
5a85b71db4e223001a8e71af
True
14-year
654
How long had the Abu Sayyaf group been in Basilan?
5a85b71db4e223001a8e71b0
True
Joint Special Operations Task Force – Philippines
571
What did PACOM Augmentation Team rename itself as?
5a85b71db4e223001a8e71b1
True
Operation Smiles
421
What was the name of the operation to remove Abu Sayyaf?
5a85b71db4e223001a8e71b2
True
the island of Basilan
314
Where was the headquarters of the Armed Forces of the Philippines?
5a85b71db4e223001a8e71b3
True
In January 2002, the United States Special Operations Command, Pacific deployed to the Philippines to advise and assist the Armed Forces of the Philippines in combating Filipino Islamist groups. The operations were mainly focused on removing the Abu Sayyaf group and Jemaah Islamiyah (JI) from their stronghold on the island of Basilan. The second portion of the operation was conducted as a humanitarian program called "Operation Smiles". The goal of the program was to provide medical care and services to the region of Basilan as part of a "Hearts and Minds" program. Joint Special Operations Task Force – Philippines disbanded in June 2014, ending a 14-year mission. After JSOTF-P disbanded, as late as November 2014, American forces continued to operate in the Philippines under the name "PACOM Augmentation Team".
How many people were killed by US Special Forces on Sep 14, 2009?
572845f7ff5b5019007da09e
two
49
False
Where was the Sep 14, 2009 action?
572845f7ff5b5019007da09f
near the Somali village of Baarawe
93
False
What country's ships did some witnesses say were involved in the Baarawe attack?
572845f7ff5b5019007da0a0
French
199
False
What Somali group is affiliated with al-Qaeda?
572845f7ff5b5019007da0a1
Al-Shabaab
303
False
What nationality was Saleh Ali Saleh Nabhan?
572845f7ff5b5019007da0a2
Kenyan
440
False
killed two men and wounded and captured two others near the Somali village of Baarawe
42
What did U.S. Special Forces do on 14 September 2002?
5a839cf3e60761001a2eb829
True
sheik commander
343
What was the title for Saleh Nabhan Saleh Ali?
5a839cf3e60761001a2eb82a
True
Saleh Ali Saleh Nabhan
360
Who was wanted in connection with the 2002 Kenyan attacks?
5a839cf3e60761001a2eb82b
True
Baarawe
120
Witnesses from what village claim they saw French-flagged warships?
5a839cf3e60761001a2eb82c
True
two
49
How many US Special Forces were killed on 14 September 2009?
5a85b7e3b4e223001a8e71b9
True
two
82
How many were captured in the 2002 Mombasa attacks?
5a85b7e3b4e223001a8e71ba
True
Baarawe
120
What was the name of the village attacked in Mombasa?
5a85b7e3b4e223001a8e71bb
True
French
199
What nationality were the warships confirmed as?
5a85b7e3b4e223001a8e71bc
True
Al-Shabaab
303
What was the name of the Kenyan al-Qaeda group?
5a85b7e3b4e223001a8e71bd
True
On 14 September 2009, U.S. Special Forces killed two men and wounded and captured two others near the Somali village of Baarawe. Witnesses claim that helicopters used for the operation launched from French-flagged warships, but that could not be confirmed. A Somali-based al-Qaida affiliated group, the Al-Shabaab, has confirmed the death of "sheik commander" Saleh Ali Saleh Nabhan along with an unspecified number of militants. Nabhan, a Kenyan, was wanted in connection with the 2002 Mombasa attacks.
When did a Mali conflict begin?
5728464e3acd2414000df853
January 2012
39
False
What group were the Mali radicals affiliated with?
5728464e3acd2414000df854
al-Qaeda
90
False
When did France provide troops in Mali?
5728464e3acd2414000df855
January 2013
328
False
What did France call its Mali operation?
5728464e3acd2414000df856
Operation Serval
456
False
What was Operation Serval's goal?
5728464e3acd2414000df857
dislodging the al-Qaeda affiliated groups from northern Mali
511
False
Mali
25
Where did a conflict begin in January 2013?
5a839f0ee60761001a2eb831
True
Malian government
134
What government asked for help from the national community for combating Islamic militants?
5a839f0ee60761001a2eb832
True
France
342
What country intervened on behalf of the Malian government in January 2012?
5a839f0ee60761001a2eb833
True
11 January 2013
476
When was Serval Operation launched?
5a839f0ee60761001a2eb834
True
France
342
On whose behalf did the Malian government intervene?
5a85b877b4e223001a8e71c3
True
Operation Serval
456
What was the name of the Islamist advance into northern Mali?
5a85b877b4e223001a8e71c4
True
11 January 2013
476
When were al-Qaeda groups removed from northern Mali?
5a85b877b4e223001a8e71c5
True
full control over their country
180
What did the French government struggle to maintain?
5a85b877b4e223001a8e71c6
True
the international community
261
Who did Islamic militants request help from?
5a85b877b4e223001a8e71c7
True
The conflict in northern Mali began in January 2012 with radical Islamists (affiliated to al-Qaeda) advancing into northern Mali. The Malian government had a hard time maintaining full control over their country. The fledgling government requested support from the international community on combating the Islamic militants. In January 2013, France intervened on behalf of the Malian government's request and deployed troops into the region. They launched Operation Serval on 11 January 2013, with the hopes of dislodging the al-Qaeda affiliated groups from northern Mali.
When did the first Gulf War begin?
572846aa4b864d1900164894
1991
95
False
How did the first Gulf War end?
572846aa4b864d1900164895
ceasefire agreement that suspended hostilities (but not officially ended)
14
False
Who did the US try to protect in Iraq after the first Gulf War?
572846aa4b864d1900164896
Iraq's Kurdish and Shi'a Arab population
206
False
Which region of Iraq do the Kurds live in?
572846aa4b864d1900164897
northern
342
False
Which region of Iraq do the Shi'a live in?
572846aa4b864d1900164898
southern
355
False
Iraqi no-fly zones
175
What was instituted to protect Iraq's Arab and Shi'a Kurdish population?
5a83a094e60761001a2eb839
True
Iraq's Kurdish and Shi'a Arab population
206
Who suffered attacks from the Hussein regime before the Gulf War?
5a83a094e60761001a2eb83a
True
Operation Desert Fox
471
What operation was launched against Iraq in November 1995?
5a83a094e60761001a2eb83b
True
U.S. demands of "unconditional cooperation" in weapons inspections.
537
What did Iraq fail to meet in 1995?
5a83a094e60761001a2eb83c
True
1991
95
What year did the first Gulf War end?
5a85b92ab4e223001a8e71cd
True
instituted and began patrolling Iraqi no-fly zones
143
What did the US and its allies do once the hostilities were officially over?
5a85b92ab4e223001a8e71ce
True
Operation Desert Fox
471
What was launched in 1995?
5a85b92ab4e223001a8e71cf
True
the United States and its allies
110
Who was trying to protect the Hussein regime?
5a85b92ab4e223001a8e71d0
True
Kurdish and Shi'a Arab
213
What Iraqi populations attacked the Hussein regime?
5a85b92ab4e223001a8e71d1
True
Following the ceasefire agreement that suspended hostilities (but not officially ended) in the 1991 Gulf War, the United States and its allies instituted and began patrolling Iraqi no-fly zones, to protect Iraq's Kurdish and Shi'a Arab population—both of which suffered attacks from the Hussein regime before and after the Gulf War—in Iraq's northern and southern regions, respectively. U.S. forces continued in combat zone deployments through November 1995 and launched Operation Desert Fox against Iraq in 1998 after it failed to meet U.S. demands of "unconditional cooperation" in weapons inspections.
When was the first ground attack in the post-9/11 Iraq war?
572847174b864d190016489e
21 March 2003
58
False
Which nationalities worked together in the Battle of Umm Qasr?
572847174b864d190016489f
British, American and Polish
97
False
When did the US capture Baghdad?
572847174b864d19001648a0
April 2003
235
False
When did Bush say 'major combat operations' were complete in Iraq?
572847174b864d19001648a1
1 May 2003
300
False
What regime were Hussein loyalists part of?
572847174b864d19001648a2
Ba'ath
703
False
21 March 2003
58
When did the Battle of Qasr Umm take place?
5a83a43ee60761001a2eb841
True
Baghdad
178
What city fell to American forces in May 2003?
5a83a43ee60761001a2eb842
True
that major combat operations in Iraq had ended
327
What announcement did Bush make on 1 April 2003?
5a83a43ee60761001a2eb843
True
Saddam Hussein
930
Who was captured in December 2006?
5a83a43ee60761001a2eb844
True
Iraqi nationalists and pan-Arabists
733
Who did the Bath regime include?
5a83a43ee60761001a2eb845
True
Baghdad
178
What country is Umm Qasr the capital of?
5a85b9c9b4e223001a8e71d7
True
April 2003
235
When did American forces fall?
5a85b9c9b4e223001a8e71d8
True
1 May 2003
300
When did Saddam Hussein announce the operations had ended?
5a85b9c9b4e223001a8e71d9
True
The insurgency
503
What had fewer casualties than the invasion?
5a85b9c9b4e223001a8e71da
True
2006
1010
When was the Islamic Caliphate executed by US forces?
5a85b9c9b4e223001a8e71db
True
The first ground attack came at the Battle of Umm Qasr on 21 March 2003 when a combined force of British, American and Polish forces seized control of the port city of Umm Qasr. Baghdad, Iraq's capital city, fell to American forces in April 2003 and Saddam Hussein's government quickly dissolved. On 1 May 2003, Bush announced that major combat operations in Iraq had ended. However, an insurgency arose against the U.S.-led coalition and the newly developing Iraqi military and post-Saddam government. The insurgency, which included al-Qaeda affiliated groups, led to far more coalition casualties than the invasion. Other elements of the insurgency were led by fugitive members of President Hussein's Ba'ath regime, which included Iraqi nationalists and pan-Arabists. Many insurgency leaders are Islamists and claim to be fighting a religious war to reestablish the Islamic Caliphate of centuries past. Iraq's former president, Saddam Hussein was captured by U.S. forces in December 2003. He was executed in 2006.
Which civil war did the Iraq branch of Al Qaeda begin fighting in?
572847c4ff5b5019007da0ba
Syrian
182
False
With support from Syrians, what did the Iraq branch of Al Qaeda rename themselves to?
572847c4ff5b5019007da0bb
Islamic State of Iraq and the Levant (ISIS/ISIL)
296
False
What part of Iraq did ISIS invade?
572847c4ff5b5019007da0bc
western
256
False
Who denounced ISIS?
572847c4ff5b5019007da0bd
Al Qaeda's core organization
565
False
What relationship do Al Qaeda and ISIS now have?
572847c4ff5b5019007da0be
competition
798
False
Islamic State of Iraq and the Levant (ISIS/ISIL)
296
What group split the Iraq insurgency and Syrian Civil War?
5a85bb38b4e223001a8e71e1
True
ISIS
631
What group publicly denounced al-Qaeda?
5a85bb38b4e223001a8e71e2
True
Al Qaeda and ISIL
767
Which two groups do analysts believe have combined?
5a85bb38b4e223001a8e71e3
True
Central Asia
597
Where is ISIS's core organization?
5a85bb38b4e223001a8e71e4
True
Iraq
100
What country did Syria covertly invade?
5a85bb38b4e223001a8e71e5
True
In a major split in the ranks of Al Qaeda's organization, the Iraqi franchise, known as Al Qaeda in Iraq covertly invaded Syria and the Levant and began participating in the ongoing Syrian Civil War, gaining enough support and strength to re-invade Iraq's western provinces under the name of the Islamic State of Iraq and the Levant (ISIS/ISIL), taking over much of the country in a blitzkrieg-like action and combining the Iraq insurgency and Syrian Civil War into a single conflict. Due to their extreme brutality and a complete change in their overall ideology, Al Qaeda's core organization in Central Asia eventually denounced ISIS and directed their affiliates to cut off all ties with this organization. Many analysts[who?] believe that because of this schism, Al Qaeda and ISIL are now in a competition to retain the title of the world's most powerful terrorist organization.
When did Obama launch airstrikes on ISIS?
5728484a3acd2414000df873
10 August 2014
106
False
What law did Obama cite on Sep 9, 2014?
5728484a3acd2414000df874
the 2001 Authorization for Use of Military Force Against Terrorists
302
False
When did Obama make a speech about ISIS on TV?
5728484a3acd2414000df875
10 September 2014
452
False
Which countries worked together to bomb ISIS on Sep 21-22, 2014?
5728484a3acd2414000df876
the United States, Saudi Arabia, Bahrain, the UAE, Jordan and Qatar
865
False
Where were the Sep 21-22 airstrikes?
5728484a3acd2414000df877
Syria
969
False
10 August 2014
106
When did Iraq reengage with the Obama administration?
5a85e4e4b4e223001a8e7275
True
ISIS
88
Who did Iraq aim their airstrikes at?
5a85e4e4b4e223001a8e7276
True
Obama
152
Who is the president of Iraq?
5a85e4e4b4e223001a8e7277
True
Authorization for Use of Military Force Against Terrorists
311
What law did Congress cite, allowing it to take action against ISIS?
5a85e4e4b4e223001a8e7278
True
United States, Saudi Arabia, Bahrain, the UAE, Jordan and Qatar
869
Which countries did ISIS launch an air attack against on 21/22 September?
5a85e4e4b4e223001a8e7279
True
The Obama administration began to reengage in Iraq with a series of airstrikes aimed at ISIS beginning on 10 August 2014. On 9 September 2014 President Obama said that he had the authority he needed to take action to destroy the militant group known as the Islamic State of Iraq and the Levant, citing the 2001 Authorization for Use of Military Force Against Terrorists, and thus did not require additional approval from Congress. The following day on 10 September 2014 President Barack Obama made a televised speech about ISIL, which he stated "Our objective is clear: We will degrade, and ultimately destroy, ISIL through a comprehensive and sustained counter-terrorism strategy". Obama has authorized the deployment of additional U.S. Forces into Iraq, as well as authorizing direct military operations against ISIL within Syria. On the night of 21/22 September the United States, Saudi Arabia, Bahrain, the UAE, Jordan and Qatar started air attacks against ISIS in Syria.[citation needed]
Which Pakistan president supported the US attacking the Taliban?
572848bfff5b5019007da0de
Pervez Musharraf
70
False
How many Pakistan airbases did Musharraf let the US use?
572848bfff5b5019007da0df
three
256
False
What was the name of the US's Afghanistan operation?
572848bfff5b5019007da0e0
Operation Enduring Freedom
275
False
Who was the US Secretary of State in 2001?
572848bfff5b5019007da0e1
Colin Powell
336
False
Who said he had 'war-gamed' the US?
572848bfff5b5019007da0e2
Musharraf
650
False
Pervez Musharraf
70
Which former president sided with the Taliban?
5a85e58cb4e223001a8e7291
True
three
256
How many airbases did the Taliban receive?
5a85e58cb4e223001a8e7292
True
George W. Bush
195
Who was the current president of Afghanistan?
5a85e58cb4e223001a8e7293
True
this stance was pressured by threats from the U.S.
675
What did Colin Powell testify in 2006?
5a85e58cb4e223001a8e7294
True
India
597
Who was at risk in an alliance between the US and Pakistan?
5a85e58cb4e223001a8e7295
True
Following the 11 September 2001 attacks, former President of Pakistan Pervez Musharraf sided with the U.S. against the Taliban government in Afghanistan after an ultimatum by then U.S. President George W. Bush. Musharraf agreed to give the U.S. the use of three airbases for Operation Enduring Freedom. United States Secretary of State Colin Powell and other U.S. administration officials met with Musharraf. On 19 September 2001, Musharraf addressed the people of Pakistan and stated that, while he opposed military tactics against the Taliban, Pakistan risked being endangered by an alliance of India and the U.S. if it did not cooperate. In 2006, Musharraf testified that this stance was pressured by threats from the U.S., and revealed in his memoirs that he had "war-gamed" the United States as an adversary and decided that it would end in a loss for Pakistan.
When did Musharraf give an anti-Islamism speech?
572849242ca10214002da246
12 January 2002
3
False
What did Musharraf say he'd combat?
572849242ca10214002da247
Islamic extremism and lawlessness within Pakistan
142
False
What did Musharraf ban?
572849242ca10214002da248
militant organizations
303
False
What did Musharraf say his ban wasn't influenced by?
572849242ca10214002da249
foreign influence
546
False
Musharraf
20
Who gave a speech for Islamic extremism?
5a85e66bb4e223001a8e729b
True
12 January 2002
3
When were the militant organizations banned?
5a85e66bb4e223001a8e729c
True
his government
215
What was extremism committed to rooting out?
5a85e66bb4e223001a8e729d
True
foreign influence
546
Who was involved in the consultations?
5a85e66bb4e223001a8e729e
True
militant organizations
303
What would be allowed to give itself a new name?
5a85e66bb4e223001a8e729f
True
On 12 January 2002, Musharraf gave a speech against Islamic extremism. He unequivocally condemned all acts of terrorism and pledged to combat Islamic extremism and lawlessness within Pakistan itself. He stated that his government was committed to rooting out extremism and made it clear that the banned militant organizations would not be allowed to resurface under any new name. He said, "the recent decision to ban extremist groups promoting militancy was taken in the national interest after thorough consultations. It was not taken under any foreign influence".
When did Musharraf arrest Maulana Masood Azhar?
5728499a2ca10214002da24e
2002
3
False
What group did Maulana Masood Azhar lead?
5728499a2ca10214002da24f
Jaish-e-Mohammed
168
False
What group did Hafiz Muhammad Saeed lead?
5728499a2ca10214002da250
Lashkar-e-Taiba
225
False
What nationality is Zayn al-Abidn Muhammed Hasayn Abu Zubaydah?
5728499a2ca10214002da251
Saudi
363
False
Which third-highest-ranking al-Qaeda officer was captured?
5728499a2ca10214002da252
Khalid Sheikh Mohammed
822
False
Musharraf
13
Who led all of the jihadi organizations?
5a85e769b4e223001a8e72b7
True
dozens
251
How many government officials were taken into custody?
5a85e769b4e223001a8e72b8
True
Zayn al-Abidn Muhammed Hasayn Abu Zubaydah
374
What was the name of the Pakistani official that performed a number of raids?
5a85e769b4e223001a8e72b9
True
Saudi
363
What is the nationality of Ramzi bin al-Shibh?
5a85e769b4e223001a8e72ba
True
third highest-ranking
885
What was the rank of Ramzi bin al-Shibh?
5a85e769b4e223001a8e72bb
True
In 2002, the Musharraf-led government took a firm stand against the jihadi organizations and groups promoting extremism, and arrested Maulana Masood Azhar, head of the Jaish-e-Mohammed, and Hafiz Muhammad Saeed, chief of the Lashkar-e-Taiba, and took dozens of activists into custody. An official ban was imposed on the groups on 12 January. Later that year, the Saudi born Zayn al-Abidn Muhammed Hasayn Abu Zubaydah was arrested by Pakistani officials during a series of joint U.S.-Pakistan raids. Zubaydah is said to have been a high-ranking al-Qaeda official with the title of operations chief and in charge of running al-Qaeda training camps. Other prominent al-Qaeda members were arrested in the following two years, namely Ramzi bin al-Shibh, who is known to have been a financial backer of al-Qaeda operations, and Khalid Sheikh Mohammed, who at the time of his capture was the third highest-ranking official in al-Qaeda and had been directly in charge of the planning for the 11 September attacks.
What controversial technology did the US use in Pakistan?
572849ebff5b5019007da0fc
drones
11
False
Which US agency runs its drones in Pakistan?
572849ebff5b5019007da0fd
the Central Intelligence Agency
21
False
Why did the US use the CIA instead of the Air Force to run drones?
572849ebff5b5019007da0fe
to avoid breaching sovereignty through military invasion
279
False
Abuse of what term allowed a lack of a formal war declaration?
572849ebff5b5019007da0ff
Global War on Terror
464
False
strikes in Pakistan
250
What does the US Government use the Air Force for?
5a85e80ab4e223001a8e72c1
True
drone warfare and aerial sovereignty
405
What did the United States criticize?
5a85e80ab4e223001a8e72c2
True
the CIA
207
What does the Pakistan use for airstrikes?
5a85e80ab4e223001a8e72c3
True
Global War on Terror
464
What term was Pakistan accused of abusing?
5a85e80ab4e223001a8e72c4
True
declaring war
564
The term Global War on Terror required formally doing what?
5a85e80ab4e223001a8e72c5
True
The use of drones by the Central Intelligence Agency in Pakistan to carry out operations associated with the Global War on Terror sparks debate over sovereignty and the laws of war. The U.S. Government uses the CIA rather than the U.S. Air Force for strikes in Pakistan in order to avoid breaching sovereignty through military invasion. The United States was criticized by[according to whom?] a report on drone warfare and aerial sovereignty for abusing the term 'Global War on Terror' to carry out military operations through government agencies without formally declaring war.
Who wrote 'Letter to American People' in 2002?
57284a5bff5b5019007da104
Osama bin Laden
44
False
Who was the US Secretary of Defense in 2002?
57284a5bff5b5019007da105
Donald Rumsfeld
244
False
Which group did Rumsfeld think was active in Kashmir?
57284a5bff5b5019007da106
Al-Qaeda
275
False
What teams hunted for Bin Laden in Kashmir in 2002?
57284a5bff5b5019007da107
Special Air Service and Delta Force
577
False
Who led the Harkat-ul-Mujahideen?
57284a5bff5b5019007da108
Fazlur Rehman Khalil
934
False
America
119
Who did India support on the Kashmir issue?
5a85e8cbb4e223001a8e72cb
True
Letter to American People
6
What was the name of the document Donald Rumsfeld wrote?
5a85e8cbb4e223001a8e72cc
True
Osama bin Laden
675
Who did the Kashmiri militant group Harkat-ul-Mujahideen attempt to hunt down?
5a85e8cbb4e223001a8e72cd
True
Fazlur Rehman Khalil
934
Who is the leader of Kashmir?
5a85e8cbb4e223001a8e72ce
True
Kashmir
1298
Pakistan claimed al-Qaeda had close ties with what area?
5a85e8cbb4e223001a8e72cf
True
In a 'Letter to American People' written by Osama bin Laden in 2002, he stated that one of the reasons he was fighting America is because of its support of India on the Kashmir issue. While on a trip to Delhi in 2002, U.S. Secretary of Defense Donald Rumsfeld suggested that Al-Qaeda was active in Kashmir, though he did not have any hard evidence. An investigation in 2002 unearthed evidence that Al-Qaeda and its affiliates were prospering in Pakistan-administered Kashmir with tacit approval of Pakistan's National Intelligence agency Inter-Services Intelligence. A team of Special Air Service and Delta Force was sent into Indian-administered Kashmir in 2002 to hunt for Osama bin Laden after reports that he was being sheltered by the Kashmiri militant group Harkat-ul-Mujahideen. U.S. officials believed that Al-Qaeda was helping organize a campaign of terror in Kashmir in order to provoke conflict between India and Pakistan. Fazlur Rehman Khalil, the leader of the Harkat-ul-Mujahideen, signed al-Qaeda's 1998 declaration of holy war, which called on Muslims to attack all Americans and their allies. Indian sources claimed that In 2006, Al-Qaeda claimed they had established a wing in Kashmir; this worried the Indian government. India also claimed that Al-Qaeda has strong ties with the Kashmir militant groups Lashkar-e-Taiba and Jaish-e-Mohammed in Pakistan. While on a visit to Pakistan in January 2010, U.S. Defense secretary Robert Gates stated that Al-Qaeda was seeking to destabilize the region and planning to provoke a nuclear war between India and Pakistan.
Who did a US drone kill in Sep 2009?
57284af44b864d19001648d0
Ilyas Kashmiri
57
False
What group did Ilyas Kashmiri lead?
57284af44b864d19001648d1
Harkat-ul-Jihad al-Islami
94
False
After 2009, who began fighting in Waziristan?
57284af44b864d19001648d2
Kashmiri militants
372
False
What group did Al-Badar Mujahideen break away from?
57284af44b864d19001648d3
Hizbul Mujahideen
532
False
What did Al-Badar Mujahideen call for in 2012?
57284af44b864d19001648d4
mobilisation of resources for continuation of jihad in Kashmir
612
False
Ilyas Kashmiri
57
Who ordered the SUS Drone strike in September 2009?
5a85e99bb4e223001a8e72d5
True
Harkat-ul-Jihad al-Islami
94
What group was Bruce Riedel the leader of?
5a85e99bb4e223001a8e72d6
True
Hizbul Mujahideen
532
What faction broke away from Al-Badar Mujahideen?
5a85e99bb4e223001a8e72d7
True
two-day
574
How long was Waziristan the new battlefield?
5a85e99bb4e223001a8e72d8
True
8 July 2012
446
When did terror groups call to end the jihad in Kashmir?
5a85e99bb4e223001a8e72d9
True
In September 2009, a U.S. Drone strike reportedly killed Ilyas Kashmiri, who was the chief of Harkat-ul-Jihad al-Islami, a Kashmiri militant group associated with Al-Qaeda. Kashmiri was described by Bruce Riedel as a 'prominent' Al-Qaeda member, while others described him as the head of military operations for Al-Qaeda. Waziristan had now become the new battlefield for Kashmiri militants, who were now fighting NATO in support of Al-Qaeda. On 8 July 2012, Al-Badar Mujahideen, a breakaway faction of Kashmir centric terror group Hizbul Mujahideen, on conclusion of their two-day Shuhada Conference called for mobilisation of resources for continuation of jihad in Kashmir.
Who declared the Partnership Action Plan against Terrorism?
57284b682ca10214002da25e
member states of the Euro-Atlantic Partnership Council
124
False
When was the Partnership Action Plan against Terrorism announced?
57284b682ca10214002da25f
22 November 2002
102
False
Where did NATO begin naval operations after 2002?
57284b682ca10214002da260
the Mediterranean Sea
454
False
What was NATO's operation in the Mediterranean called?
57284b682ca10214002da261
Operation Active Endeavour
619
False
NATO
25
What did terrorism respond to?
5a85edd1b4e223001a8e72f3
True
Operation Active Endeavour
619
What were NATO's efforts to respond to terrorism called?
5a85edd1b4e223001a8e72f4
True
Euro-Atlantic Partnership Council (EAPC)
145
What council decided to start operations in the mediterranean Sea in November 2002?
5a85edd1b4e223001a8e72f5
True
the Mediterranean Sea
454
Where is the EAPC located?
5a85edd1b4e223001a8e72f6
True
22 November 2002
102
What day did Operation Active Endeavour start?
5a85edd1b4e223001a8e72f7
True
In the following months, NATO took a wide range of measures to respond to the threat of terrorism. On 22 November 2002, the member states of the Euro-Atlantic Partnership Council (EAPC) decided on a Partnership Action Plan against Terrorism, which explicitly states, "EAPC States are committed to the protection and promotion of fundamental freedoms and human rights, as well as the rule of law, in combating terrorism." NATO started naval operations in the Mediterranean Sea designed to prevent the movement of terrorists or weapons of mass destruction as well as to enhance the security of shipping in general called Operation Active Endeavour.
What were the countries who supported the US's post-9/11 invasions called?
57284c23ff5b5019007da11c
the "coalition of the willing"
116
False
Which country disavowed the Taliban?
57284c23ff5b5019007da11d
Pakistan
273
False
How many soldiers did Pakistan contribute to fight the Taliban?
57284c23ff5b5019007da11e
tens of thousands
354
False
Where in Pakistan is Waziristan?
57284c23ff5b5019007da11f
North-West
441
False
Where did Pakistan try to remove the Taliban and Al-Qaeda?
57284c23ff5b5019007da120
northern tribal areas
598
False
America made clear its determination to invade Iraq
33
What action made support for the US increase?
5a85ee75b4e223001a8e72fd
True
Pakistan
273
Which country refused to send troops into Afghanistan?
5a85ee75b4e223001a8e72fe
True
tens of thousands
354
How many soldiers did the coalition of the willing contribute?
5a85ee75b4e223001a8e72ff
True
Waziristan War
462
What was the war in the northern tribal areas called?
5a85ee75b4e223001a8e7300
True
remove the Taliban insurgency and al-Qaeda element
538
What was Afghanistan attempting with the US's help?
5a85ee75b4e223001a8e7301
True
Support for the U.S. cooled when America made clear its determination to invade Iraq in late 2002. Even so, many of the "coalition of the willing" countries that unconditionally supported the U.S.-led military action have sent troops to Afghanistan, particular neighboring Pakistan, which has disowned its earlier support for the Taliban and contributed tens of thousands of soldiers to the conflict. Pakistan was also engaged in the War in North-West Pakistan (Waziristan War). Supported by U.S. intelligence, Pakistan was attempting to remove the Taliban insurgency and al-Qaeda element from the northern tribal areas.
What was the primary fighting force in southern Afghanistan?
57284c933acd2414000df8c7
The British 16th Air Assault Brigade
0
False
Which nations besides the UK contributed significantly to the southern Afghanistan fight?
57284c933acd2414000df8c8
Australia, Canada and the Netherlands
166
False
How many troops did Canada send initially?
57284c933acd2414000df8c9
2,000
259
False
How many troops did Australia send initially?
57284c933acd2414000df8ca
240
306
False
How many troops did the Netherlands send initially?
57284c933acd2414000df8cb
1,400
275
False
Royal Marines
58
What was the British 16th Air Assault Brigade later called?
5a85ef2cb4e223001a8e7307
True
240
306
How many special forces troops were there from Denmark?
5a85ef2cb4e223001a8e7308
True
12 billion
534
How many Pakistanis were involved?
5a85ef2cb4e223001a8e7309
True
3,300
244
How many British troops helped invade Denmark?
5a85ef2cb4e223001a8e730a
True
helicopters
149
What type of vehicle did Estonia supply?
5a85ef2cb4e223001a8e730b
True
The British 16th Air Assault Brigade (later reinforced by Royal Marines) formed the core of the force in southern Afghanistan, along with troops and helicopters from Australia, Canada and the Netherlands. The initial force consisted of roughly 3,300 British, 2,000 Canadian, 1,400 from the Netherlands and 240 from Australia, along with special forces from Denmark and Estonia and small contingents from other nations. The monthly supply of cargo containers through Pakistani route to ISAF in Afghanistan is over 4,000 costing around 12 billion in Pakistani Rupees.
What new agency did Bush create after 9/11?
57284ce5ff5b5019007da12e
Department of Homeland Security
291
False
When was the DHS created?
57284ce5ff5b5019007da12f
November 2002
338
False
What other massive agency's creation was the DHS compared to?
57284ce5ff5b5019007da130
the Department of Defense
482
False
What did the DHS focus on?
57284ce5ff5b5019007da131
domestic efforts to prevent future attacks
99
False
increased domestic efforts
89
What did the Bush administration do instead of military efforts?
5a85ffedb4e223001a8e7357
True
United States Department of Homeland Security
277
What Bush agency was created before 9/11?
5a85ffedb4e223001a8e7358
True
November 2002
338
When were the armed forces consolidated?
5a85ffedb4e223001a8e7359
True
the armed forces
460
What was consolidated into the Department of Homeland Security?
5a85ffedb4e223001a8e735a
True
Bush
69
Which administration created the Department of Defense?
5a85ffedb4e223001a8e735b
True
In addition to military efforts abroad, in the aftermath of 9/11 the Bush Administration increased domestic efforts to prevent future attacks. Various government bureaucracies that handled security and military functions were reorganized. A new cabinet-level agency called the United States Department of Homeland Security was created in November 2002 to lead and coordinate the largest reorganization of the U.S. federal government since the consolidation of the armed forces into the Department of Defense.[citation needed]
When was the Patriot Act passed?
57284d5f3acd2414000df8d9
October 2001
23
False
What did the Patriot Act make it easier for law enforcement to search?
57284d5f3acd2414000df8da
telephone, e-mail communications, medical, financial, and other records
117
False
What did the Patriot Act make it easier to do to immigrants?
57284d5f3acd2414000df8db
detaining and deporting immigrants suspected of terrorism-related acts
496
False
How was the definition of terrorism expanded by the Patriot Act?
57284d5f3acd2414000df8dc
to include domestic terrorism
618
False
Which newspaper revealed the Terrorist Finance Tracking Program?
57284d5f3acd2414000df8dd
The New York Times
908
False
The USA PATRIOT Act
0
What bill increased restrictions on law enforcement agencies?
5a860018b4e223001a8e7361
True
The USA PATRIOT Act
0
What bill did the Secretary of the Treasury pass?
5a860018b4e223001a8e7362
True
October 2001
23
What year was the Terrorist Finance Tracking program discontinued?
5a860018b4e223001a8e7363
True
Terrorist Finance Tracking Program
776
What program does the NSA currently use to monitor financial activity?
5a860018b4e223001a8e7364
True
The New York Times
908
What newspaper uncovered the Patriot Act?
5a860018b4e223001a8e7365
True
The USA PATRIOT Act of October 2001 dramatically reduces restrictions on law enforcement agencies' ability to search telephone, e-mail communications, medical, financial, and other records; eases restrictions on foreign intelligence gathering within the United States; expands the Secretary of the Treasury's authority to regulate financial transactions, particularly those involving foreign individuals and entities; and broadens the discretion of law enforcement and immigration authorities in detaining and deporting immigrants suspected of terrorism-related acts. The act also expanded the definition of terrorism to include domestic terrorism, thus enlarging the number of activities to which the USA PATRIOT Act's expanded law enforcement powers could be applied. A new Terrorist Finance Tracking Program monitored the movements of terrorists' financial resources (discontinued after being revealed by The New York Times). Global telecommunication usage, including those with no links to terrorism, is being collected and monitored through the NSA electronic surveillance program. The Patriot Act is still in effect.
When did the ACLU first challenge the Patriot Act?
57284dd0ff5b5019007da13e
30 July 2003
229
False
What rights did the ACLU say the Patriot Act violated?
57284dd0ff5b5019007da13f
First Amendment rights, Fourth Amendment rights, and right to due process
412
False
What did Section 215 of the Patriot Act allow the FBI to search?
57284dd0ff5b5019007da140
a person's business, bookstore, and library records
534
False
Who passed symbolic resolutions against the Patriot Act?
57284dd0ff5b5019007da141
governing bodies in a number of communities
693
False
First Amendment rights, Fourth Amendment rights, and right to due process
412
What did the ACLU violate?
5a86027fb4e223001a8e737f
True
30 July 2003
229
When was Section 215 written?
5a86027fb4e223001a8e7380
True
Political interest groups
0
What has governmental authority said the laws remove restrictions from?
5a86027fb4e223001a8e7381
True
a person's business, bookstore, and library records
534
What did Section 215 allow the ACLU to inspect?
5a86027fb4e223001a8e7382
True
the FBI
381
Who sued the ACLU?
5a86027fb4e223001a8e7383
True
Political interest groups have stated that these laws remove important restrictions on governmental authority, and are a dangerous encroachment on civil liberties, possible unconstitutional violations of the Fourth Amendment. On 30 July 2003, the American Civil Liberties Union (ACLU) filed the first legal challenge against Section 215 of the Patriot Act, claiming that it allows the FBI to violate a citizen's First Amendment rights, Fourth Amendment rights, and right to due process, by granting the government the right to search a person's business, bookstore, and library records in a terrorist investigation, without disclosing to the individual that records were being searched. Also, governing bodies in a number of communities have passed symbolic resolutions against the act.
What terrorism-related resolution did the UN Security Council adopt in 2005?
57284e682ca10214002da274
Resolution 1624
41
False
Which countries haven't submitted the required reports to the UN Security Council?
57284e682ca10214002da275
the United States and Israel
300
False
What plan did the DoD release in 2005?
57284e682ca10214002da276
National Military Strategic Plan for the War on Terrorism
512
False
What did Resolution 1624 try to protect?
57284e682ca10214002da277
international human rights laws
155
False
2005
3
What year did Israel adopt Resolution 1964?
5a86033cb4e223001a8e7389
True
Resolution 1624
41
What did the UN Security Council decline to offer reports for?
5a86033cb4e223001a8e738a
True
National Military Strategic Plan for the War on Terrorism
512
What document did the Israeli Department of Defense publish?
5a86033cb4e223001a8e738b
True
United States and Israel
304
Which two countries submitted annual reports?
5a86033cb4e223001a8e738c
True
Department of Defense
403
What US agency released Resolution 1624?
5a86033cb4e223001a8e738d
True
In 2005, the UN Security Council adopted Resolution 1624 concerning incitement to commit acts of terrorism and the obligations of countries to comply with international human rights laws. Although both resolutions require mandatory annual reports on counter-terrorism activities by adopting nations, the United States and Israel have both declined to submit reports. In the same year, the United States Department of Defense and the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff issued a planning document, by the name "National Military Strategic Plan for the War on Terrorism", which stated that it constituted the "comprehensive military plan to prosecute the Global War on Terror for the Armed Forces of the United States...including the findings and recommendations of the 9/11 Commission and a rigorous examination with the Department of Defense".
What phrase has been called a misnomer?
57284ec24b864d190016491e
War on Terror
122
False
What has the 'war on terror' been used as an excuse for?
57284ec24b864d190016491f
to pursue long-standing policy/military objectives, reduce civil liberties, and infringe upon human rights
346
False
Which other misnamed 'war' has 'war on terror' been compared to?
57284ec24b864d1900164920
War on Drugs
527
False
What is the likely fate of the 'war on terror'?
57284ec24b864d1900164921
it is unlikely international terrorism can be brought to an end by military means
589
False
War on Terror
17
What is another name for War on Drugs?
5a860401b4e223001a8e739d
True
War on Drugs
527
What is most likely to be ended by military means?
5a860401b4e223001a8e739e
True
long-standing policy/military objectives, reduce civil liberties, and infringe upon human rights
356
What has the War on Drugs been used as an excuse for?
5a860401b4e223001a8e739f
True
war
481
What term is appropriate for one with no identifiable enemy?
5a860401b4e223001a8e73a0
True
Criticism of the War on Terror addresses the issues, morality, efficiency, economics, and other questions surrounding the War on Terror and made against the phrase itself, calling it a misnomer. The notion of a "war" against "terrorism" has proven highly contentious, with critics charging that it has been exploited by participating governments to pursue long-standing policy/military objectives, reduce civil liberties, and infringe upon human rights. It is argued that the term war is not appropriate in this context (as in War on Drugs), since there is no identifiable enemy, and that it is unlikely international terrorism can be brought to an end by military means.
What flaw in the 'war on terror' name did Francis Fukuyama point out?
57284f5f3acd2414000df8e9
"terrorism" is not an enemy, but a tactic
51
False
What does the 'war on terror' name obscure?
57284f5f3acd2414000df8ea
differences between conflicts such as anti-occupation insurgents and international mujahideen
133
False
Who said the US's presence in Iraq increases resentment and terrorists?
57284f5f3acd2414000df8eb
Shirley Williams
314
False
What fed US hysteria about terrorism?
57284f5f3acd2414000df8ec
media
447
False
What has the 'war on terror' done to the US's international image?
57284f5f3acd2414000df8ed
damaged
528
False
a tactic
84
What does Shirley Williams call terrorism instead of an enemy?
5a8604abb4e223001a8e73a5
True
Shirley Williams
314
Who said the military presence has decreased resentment?
5a8604abb4e223001a8e73a6
True
hypocrisy, media-induced hysteria, and that differences in foreign and security policy
436
What has damaged the image of Iraq in the world?
5a8604abb4e223001a8e73a7
True
Francis Fukuyama
23
What critic obscured differences between conflicts?
5a8604abb4e223001a8e73a8
True
foreign and security
495
Most of the world has agreed on what kinds of policies?
5a8604abb4e223001a8e73a9
True
Other critics, such as Francis Fukuyama, note that "terrorism" is not an enemy, but a tactic; calling it a "war on terror", obscures differences between conflicts such as anti-occupation insurgents and international mujahideen. With a military presence in Iraq and Afghanistan and its associated collateral damage Shirley Williams maintains this increases resentment and terrorist threats against the West. There is also perceived U.S. hypocrisy, media-induced hysteria, and that differences in foreign and security policy have damaged America's image in most of the world.
Labour_Party_(UK)
Who runs the Welsh Assembly?
5728407e3acd2414000df7d1
Carwyn Jones
62
False
What is the largest opposition party in the Scottish Parliament?
5728407e3acd2414000df7d2
The Labour Party
341
False
How many MEPs does it have in the British Parliament?
5728407e3acd2414000df7d3
twenty
143
False
What year was Jeremy Corbyn elected?
5728407e3acd2414000df7d4
2015
508
False
Labour
0
What runs a majority government in the Welsh Assembly?
5ad11f6c645df0001a2d0e52
True
Labour
0
What is the smallest opposition party in the Scottish Parliament?
5ad11f6c645df0001a2d0e53
True
Northern Ireland
258
Where does the Labour Party not organize?
5ad11f6c645df0001a2d0e54
True
Jeremy Corbyn
514
Who was leader of the Labour Party before 2015?
5ad11f6c645df0001a2d0e55
True
European Parliament
162
Where does the Labour Party have fourty MEPs?
5ad11f6c645df0001a2d0e56
True
Labour runs a minority government in the Welsh Assembly under Carwyn Jones, is the largest opposition party in the Scottish Parliament and has twenty MEPs in the European Parliament, sitting in the Socialists and Democrats Group. The party also organises in Northern Ireland, but does not contest elections to the Northern Ireland Assembly. The Labour Party is a full member of the Party of European Socialists and Progressive Alliance, and holds observer status in the Socialist International. In September 2015, Jeremy Corbyn was elected Leader of the Labour Party.
About when did the Labour Parry start?
572840802ca10214002da194
late 19th century
38
False
when was george odger elected?
572840802ca10214002da195
1870
594
False
late 19th century
38
When did it become obvious that the rural proletariat needed a new political party?
5ad12065645df0001a2d0e74
True
urban proletariat
173
What demographic had decreased in number?
5ad12065645df0001a2d0e75
True
1867 and 1885
427
What years was the voting franchise shrunk?
5ad12065645df0001a2d0e76
True
George Odger
549
Who was the last Lib-Lab candidate to stand?
5ad12065645df0001a2d0e77
True
Fabian Society
828
What socialist group did not form around this time?
5ad12065645df0001a2d0e78
True
The Labour Party's origins lie in the late 19th century, when it became apparent that there was a need for a new political party to represent the interests and needs of the urban proletariat, a demographic which had increased in number and had recently been given franchise. Some members of the trades union movement became interested in moving into the political field, and after further extensions of the voting franchise in 1867 and 1885, the Liberal Party endorsed some trade-union sponsored candidates. The first Lib–Lab candidate to stand was George Odger in the Southwark by-election of 1870. In addition, several small socialist groups had formed around this time, with the intention of linking the movement to political policies. Among these were the Independent Labour Party, the intellectual and largely middle-class Fabian Society, the Marxist Social Democratic Federation and the Scottish Labour Party.
What year did Thomas R. Steels propose the single body union branch?
572844ec4b864d190016487c
1899
3
False
Where was Thomas R. Steels a member?
572844ec4b864d190016487d
Doncaster
11
False
WHere was the proposed conference held?
572844ec4b864d190016487e
Memorial Hall
395
False
Thomas R. Steels
76
Who proposed a special conference to bring all right-wing organisations together?
5ad120fc645df0001a2d0e88
True
TUC
346
What group did not pass the motion?
5ad120fc645df0001a2d0e89
True
Memorial Hall on Farringdon Street
395
Where was the conference help before 1900?
5ad120fc645df0001a2d0e8a
True
meeting
462
What was attended by only a narrow spectrum of organizations?
5ad120fc645df0001a2d0e8b
True
trades unions
550
What represented two thirds of the TUC delegates?
5ad120fc645df0001a2d0e8c
True
In 1899, a Doncaster member of the Amalgamated Society of Railway Servants, Thomas R. Steels, proposed in his union branch that the Trade Union Congress call a special conference to bring together all left-wing organisations and form them into a single body that would sponsor Parliamentary candidates. The motion was passed at all stages by the TUC, and the proposed conference was held at the Memorial Hall on Farringdon Street on 26 and 27 February 1900. The meeting was attended by a broad spectrum of working-class and left-wing organisations — trades unions represented about one third of the membership of the TUC delegates.
How many delegates passed the motion?
572846ff2ca10214002da22c
129
20
False
Who was elected Secretary?
572846ff2ca10214002da22d
Ramsay MacDonald
612
False
How many candidates were sponsored in the 1900 electrion?
572846ff2ca10214002da22e
15
889
False
passed Hardie's motion
34
What did the 129 delegates do before a debate?
5ad12225645df0001a2d0eae
True
Labour Representation Committee
370
What association was meant to disorganize attempts to support MPs sponsored by trade unions?
5ad12225645df0001a2d0eaf
True
Labour Representation Committee
370
What organization had a single leader?
5ad12225645df0001a2d0eb0
True
Keir Hardie
946
Who was an unsuccessful candidate?
5ad12225645df0001a2d0eb1
True
keeping the various strands of opinions in the LRC united
684
What was an easy task for Ramsay MacDonald?
5ad12225645df0001a2d0eb2
True
After a debate, the 129 delegates passed Hardie's motion to establish "a distinct Labour group in Parliament, who shall have their own whips, and agree upon their policy, which must embrace a readiness to cooperate with any party which for the time being may be engaged in promoting legislation in the direct interests of labour." This created an association called the Labour Representation Committee (LRC), meant to coordinate attempts to support MPs sponsored by trade unions and represent the working-class population. It had no single leader, and in the absence of one, the Independent Labour Party nominee Ramsay MacDonald was elected as Secretary. He had the difficult task of keeping the various strands of opinions in the LRC united. The October 1900 "Khaki election" came too soon for the new party to campaign effectively; total expenses for the election only came to £33. Only 15 candidatures were sponsored, but two were successful; Keir Hardie in Merthyr Tydfil and Richard Bell in Derby.
What boosted support in 1901?
572849043acd2414000df88f
Taff Vale Case
44
False
What was the Taft Vale Case?
572849043acd2414000df890
a dispute between strikers and a railway company
60
False
From this case, what happened?
572849043acd2414000df891
made strikes illegal
212
False
How much were they ordered to pay in damages for the strike?
572849043acd2414000df892
£23,000
156
False
Taff Vale Case
44
What hurt support for the LRC?
5ad122d9645df0001a2d0eca
True
£23,000
156
How much did the railway company have to pay the union?
5ad122d9645df0001a2d0ecb
True
judgement
190
What made strikes effectively legal?
5ad122d9645df0001a2d0ecc
True
government
560
What appeared to be very concerned with the industrial proletariat?
5ad122d9645df0001a2d0ecd
True
Conservative Government
338
What refused to listen to industrial and business interests?
5ad122d9645df0001a2d0ece
True
Support for the LRC was boosted by the 1901 Taff Vale Case, a dispute between strikers and a railway company that ended with the union being ordered to pay £23,000 damages for a strike. The judgement effectively made strikes illegal since employers could recoup the cost of lost business from the unions. The apparent acquiescence of the Conservative Government of Arthur Balfour to industrial and business interests (traditionally the allies of the Liberal Party in opposition to the Conservative's landed interests) intensified support for the LRC against a government that appeared to have little concern for the industrial proletariat and its problems.
Who overturned the Taft Vale judgement?
57284d303acd2414000df8d1
Liberal Government
699
False
Who was elected Chairman of the Parliamentary Labour Party?
57284d303acd2414000df8d2
Keir Hardie
150
False
How many votes did Keir Hardie win by?
57284d303acd2414000df8d3
one vote
326
False
Who was Keir Hardie's opponent?
57284d303acd2414000df8d4
David Shackleton
340
False
The Labour Party
103
What name did the group adopt during their last meeting?
5ad123e3645df0001a2d0f0c
True
The Labour Party
103
What name did the group adopt before 1906?
5ad123e3645df0001a2d0f0d
True
Keir Hardie
150
Who had not helped the party to become established?
5ad123e3645df0001a2d0f0e
True
Independent Labour Party
411
What provided the party's activist base in the party's later years?
5ad123e3645df0001a2d0f0f
True
reverse the Taff Vale judgement
725
What was one of the last acts of the new Liberal Government?
5ad123e3645df0001a2d0f10
True
In their first meeting after the election the group's Members of Parliament decided to adopt the name "The Labour Party" formally (15 February 1906). Keir Hardie, who had taken a leading role in getting the party established, was elected as Chairman of the Parliamentary Labour Party (in effect, the Leader), although only by one vote over David Shackleton after several ballots. In the party's early years the Independent Labour Party (ILP) provided much of its activist base as the party did not have individual membership until 1918 but operated as a conglomerate of affiliated bodies. The Fabian Society provided much of the intellectual stimulus for the party. One of the first acts of the new Liberal Government was to reverse the Taff Vale judgement.
How many MP were elected in the 1910 election?
572852394b864d1900164942
42
22
False
Who passed the Osborne judgment?
572852394b864d1900164943
Trade Disputes Act
637
False
When was the Trade Disputes Act passed?
572852394b864d1900164944
1913
541
False
1910
4
What year saw 42 Labour MPs face defeat?
5ad124b4645df0001a2d0f30
True
Osborne judgment
160
What did the House of Lords pass a year after the election?
5ad124b4645df0001a2d0f31
True
Trades Unions
189
Who could no longer fund the wages of Liberal MPs?
5ad124b4645df0001a2d0f32
True
to introduce a wage for Members of Parliament
444
What was the nadir of Liberal compromise?
5ad124b4645df0001a2d0f33
True
1913
541
When did the Labour government pass the Trades Disputes Act?
5ad124b4645df0001a2d0f34
True
The 1910 election saw 42 Labour MPs elected to the House of Commons, a significant victory since, a year before the election, the House of Lords had passed the Osborne judgment ruling that Trades Unions in the United Kingdom could no longer donate money to fund the election campaigns and wages of Labour MPs. The governing Liberals were unwilling to repeal this judicial decision with primary legislation. The height of Liberal compromise was to introduce a wage for Members of Parliament to remove the need to involve the Trade Unions. By 1913, faced with the opposition of the largest Trades Unions, the Liberal government passed the Trade Disputes Act to allow Trade Unions to fund Labour MPs once more.
WHen was the COmmunist party refused affiliation?
57286292ff5b5019007da1e6
between 1921 and 1923
81
False
HOw many seats id Labour win in 1922?
57286292ff5b5019007da1e7
142
317
False
Who was voted the first leader of the Labour Party?
57286292ff5b5019007da1e8
Ramsay MacDonald
506
False
between 1921 and 1923
81
When did the Communist Party refuse affiliation to the Labour Party?
5ad1255c645df0001a2d0f44
True
a catastrophic split
179
What allowed the Liberals to gain much of Labour's support?
5ad1255c645df0001a2d0f45
True
142
317
How many seats did the Liberals win in 1922?
5ad1255c645df0001a2d0f46
True
Liberals
279
What was the third largest group in the House of Commons?
5ad1255c645df0001a2d0f47
True
Ramsay MacDonald
506
Who was voted the last official leader of the Labour Party?
5ad1255c645df0001a2d0f48
True
The Communist Party of Great Britain was refused affiliation to the Labour Party between 1921 and 1923. Meanwhile, the Liberal Party declined rapidly, and the party also suffered a catastrophic split which allowed the Labour Party to gain much of the Liberals' support. With the Liberals thus in disarray, Labour won 142 seats in 1922, making it the second largest political group in the House of Commons and the official opposition to the Conservative government. After the election the now-rehabilitated Ramsay MacDonald was voted the first official leader of the Labour Party.
In what year did Ramsay MacDonald become the Labour PM?
572863cb3acd2414000df98f
1924
383
False
How many MP did they get in the election in 1924?
572863cb3acd2414000df990
191
453
False
Ramsay MacDonald
311
Who was the last Labour Prime Minister?
5ad12607645df0001a2d0f68
True
Labour
407
What party had more than a third of the House of Commons?
5ad12607645df0001a2d0f69
True
January 1924
375
When did the first Conservative Prime Minister serve?
5ad12607645df0001a2d0f6a
True
Conservatives
44
Who won a majority in Parliament?
5ad12607645df0001a2d0f6b
True
Conservatives
44
Who got the least votes?
5ad12607645df0001a2d0f6c
True
The 1923 general election was fought on the Conservatives' protectionist proposals but, although they got the most votes and remained the largest party, they lost their majority in parliament, necessitating the formation of a government supporting free trade. Thus, with the acquiescence of Asquith's Liberals, Ramsay MacDonald became the first ever Labour Prime Minister in January 1924, forming the first Labour government, despite Labour only having 191 MPs (less than a third of the House of Commons).
When was the Zinoviev letter published?
572867b23acd2414000df9ab
1924
203
False
After how long did the government collapse?
572867b23acd2414000df9ac
nine months
36
False
government
4
What was rebuilt after only nine months?
5ad133c3645df0001a2d1118
True
Select Committee inquiry into the Campbell Case
78
What did the Conservatives vote for?
5ad133c3645df0001a2d1119
True
Zinoviev
283
What letter was published just before the 1920 election?
5ad133c3645df0001a2d111a
True
Moscow
309
Who was talking about a Communist revolution in America?
5ad133c3645df0001a2d111b
True
letter
368
What had a big impact on the Labour vote?
5ad133c3645df0001a2d111c
True
The government collapsed after only nine months when the Liberals voted for a Select Committee inquiry into the Campbell Case, a vote which MacDonald had declared to be a vote of confidence. The ensuing 1924 general election saw the publication, four days before polling day, of the Zinoviev letter, in which Moscow talked about a Communist revolution in Britain. The letter had little impact on the Labour vote—which held up. It was the collapse of the Liberal party that led to the Conservative landslide. The Conservatives were returned to power although Labour increased its vote from 30.7% to a third of the popular vote, most Conservative gains being at the expense of the Liberals. However many Labourites for years blamed their defeat on foul play (the Zinoviev Letter), thereby according to A. J. P. Taylor misunderstanding the political forces at work and delaying needed reforms in the party.
When did MacDonald submit the resignation of his ministers?
57286c3b3acd2414000df9cb
1931
138
False
What caused MacDonald to form a separate party?
57286c3b3acd2414000df9cc
he and his supporters were promptly expelled
414
False
Who won the 1931 election?
57286c3b3acd2414000df9cd
National Government
712
False
MacDonald agreed to form a "National Government"
35
What happened when the economic situation got better?
5ad13467645df0001a2d1144
True
MacDonald
35
Who refused to form a National Government?
5ad13467645df0001a2d1145
True
great anger
324
How did people in the Conservative Party feel about MacDonald's actions?
5ad13467645df0001a2d1146
True
MacDonald
393
Who was expelled from the National Labour Organisation?
5ad13467645df0001a2d1147
True
1931 general election
649
What election was an overwhelming victory for the Labour Party?
5ad13467645df0001a2d1148
True
As the economic situation worsened MacDonald agreed to form a "National Government" with the Conservatives and the Liberals. On 24 August 1931 MacDonald submitted the resignation of his ministers and led a small number of his senior colleagues in forming the National Government together with the other parties. This caused great anger among those within the Labour Party who felt betrayed by MacDonald's actions: he and his supporters were promptly expelled from the Labour Party and formed a separate National Labour Organisation. The remaining Labour Party MPs (led again by Arthur Henderson) and a few Liberals went into opposition. The ensuing 1931 general election resulted in overwhelming victory for the National Government and disaster for the Labour Party which won only 52 seats, 225 fewer than in 1929.
In what year was the Scottish and Welsh devolution rejected?
57286d4b4b864d19001649dc
1979
213
False
How many votes did the vote of confidence lose by in 1979?
57286d4b4b864d19001649dd
a single vote
652
False
March 1979
207
When was Welsh devolution approved of?
5ad13b7e645df0001a2d1300
True
Scottish
267
What referendum reached the threshold of 40% support?
5ad13b7e645df0001a2d1301
True
Labour government
389
Who pushed ahead with setting up a Scottish Assembly?
5ad13b7e645df0001a2d1302
True
Labour
389
What party withdrew its support for the SNP?
5ad13b7e645df0001a2d1303
True
single vote
654
How much did Callaghan's government win a vote of confidence by?
5ad13b7e645df0001a2d1304
True
The nationalist parties, in turn, demanded devolution to their respective constituent countries in return for their supporting the government. When referendums for Scottish and Welsh devolution were held in March 1979 Welsh devolution was rejected outright while the Scottish referendum returned a narrow majority in favour without reaching the required threshold of 40% support. When the Labour government duly refused to push ahead with setting up the proposed Scottish Assembly, the SNP withdrew its support for the government: this finally brought the government down as it triggered a vote of confidence in Callaghan's government that was lost by a single vote on 28 March 1979, necessitating a general election.
In what year was Labour shown to have a slight lead?
57286dad4b864d19001649ea
1978
79
False
Who were some of the people striking in 1978-1979?
57286dad4b864d19001649eb
lorry drivers
358
False
Why were they striking?
57286dad4b864d19001649ec
higher pay
457
False
What was this strike called?
57286dad4b864d19001649ed
Winter of Discontent
563
False
Callaghan
0
Who did no one expect to call for a general election?
5ad13c17645df0001a2d131c
True
1979
274
When did the widespread strikes end?
5ad13c17645df0001a2d131d
True
in favour of higher pay-rises
444
Why were farmers striking?
5ad13c17645df0001a2d131e
True
These events
527
What was called the "summer of discontent"?
5ad13c17645df0001a2d131f
True
lorry drivers
358
What group of people never went on strike?
5ad13c17645df0001a2d1320
True
Callaghan had been widely expected to call a general election in the autumn of 1978 when most opinion polls showed Labour to have a narrow lead. However he decided to extend his wage restraint policy for another year hoping that the economy would be in a better shape for a 1979 election. But during the winter of 1978–79 there were widespread strikes among lorry drivers, railway workers, car workers and local government and hospital workers in favour of higher pay-rises that caused significant disruption to everyday life. These events came to be dubbed the "Winter of Discontent".
When was the Labout party defeated?
572871a52ca10214002da36c
1979
24
False
What year was Michael Foot elected as leader?
572871a52ca10214002da36d
1980
230
False
What did four members of the Labour Party leave to creat?
572871a52ca10214002da36e
Social Democratic Party
644
False
Why was the electoral college introduced?
572871a52ca10214002da36f
widen the voting franchise
826
False
underwent a period of internal rivalry
63
What did the Labour Party do after it won in 1979?
5ad13cb9645df0001a2d1334
True
Michael Foot
204
Who lost the election in 1980?
5ad13cb9645df0001a2d1335
True
unilateral nuclear disarmament
282
What policy did Michael Foot oppose?
5ad13cb9645df0001a2d1336
True
Benn
669
Who was easily defeated by Healey?
5ad13cb9645df0001a2d1337
True
the entryist Militant tendency group were in contravention of the party's constitution
952
What did the National Executive Committee conclude before 1982?
5ad13cb9645df0001a2d1338
True
After its defeat in the 1979 general election the Labour Party underwent a period of internal rivalry between the left represented by Tony Benn, and the right represented by Denis Healey. The election of Michael Foot as leader in 1980, and the leftist policies he espoused, such as unilateral nuclear disarmament, leaving the European Economic Community (EEC) and NATO, closer governmental influence in the banking system, the creation of a national minimum wage and a ban on fox hunting led in 1981 to four former cabinet ministers from the right of the Labour Party (Shirley Williams, William Rodgers, Roy Jenkins and David Owen) forming the Social Democratic Party. Benn was only narrowly defeated by Healey in a bitterly fought deputy leadership election in 1981 after the introduction of an electoral college intended to widen the voting franchise to elect the leader and their deputy. By 1982, the National Executive Committee had concluded that the entryist Militant tendency group were in contravention of the party's constitution. The Militant newspaper's five member editorial board were expelled on 22 February 1983.
Who was Foot replaced by?
5728720dff5b5019007da22a
Neil Kinnock
44
False
Who was Neil Knnocks deputy?
5728720dff5b5019007da22b
Roy Hattersley
63
False
What years were the miners strike?
5728720dff5b5019007da22c
1984–85
175
False
What was the name of the miner's leader that was blamed for the strike?
5728720dff5b5019007da22d
Arthur Scargill
233
False
Neil Kinnock
44
Who was replaced as a leader by Foot?
5ad13d3e645df0001a2d1346
True
Roy Hattersley
63
Who was Foot's deputy?
5ad13d3e645df0001a2d1347
True
1984–85
175
When was the lorry driver's strike?
5ad13d3e645df0001a2d1348
True
Arthur Scargill
233
Who was blamed for the lorry driver's strike?
5ad13d3e645df0001a2d1349
True
taint the parliamentary party
434
What did tabloid vilification of the right do?
5ad13d3e645df0001a2d134a
True
Foot resigned and was replaced as leader by Neil Kinnock, with Roy Hattersley as his deputy. The new leadership progressively dropped unpopular policies. The miners strike of 1984–85 over coal mine closures, for which miners' leader Arthur Scargill was blamed, and the Wapping dispute led to clashes with the left of the party, and negative coverage in most of the press. Tabloid vilification of the so-called loony left continued to taint the parliamentary party by association from the activities of 'extra-parliamentary' militants in local government.
How many seats did Labour win in 2010?
572874fe3acd2414000dfa17
258
119
False
How many seats did the Conservatives win?
572874fe3acd2414000dfa18
307
199
False
WHen did Brown announce his intention to stand down?
572874fe3acd2414000dfa19
10 May 2010
545
False
In the 2010 general election on 6 May that year, Labour with 29.0% of the vote won the second largest number of seats (258). The Conservatives with 36.5% of the vote won the largest number of seats (307), but no party had an overall majority, meaning that Labour could still remain in power if they managed to form a coalition with at least one smaller party. However, the Labour Party would have had to form a coalition with more than one other smaller party to gain an overall majority; anything less would result in a minority government. On 10 May 2010, after talks to form a coalition with the Liberal Democrats broke down, Brown announced his intention to stand down as Leader before the Labour Party Conference but a day later resigned as both Prime Minister and party leader.
How much in contributions did the Labour party get from January to Marrch 2008?
572875602ca10214002da388
£3 million
431
False
How far was the party in debt for the same time period?
572875602ca10214002da389
£17 million
464
False
How far was the Conservative party in debt?
572875602ca10214002da38a
£12 million
544
False
Finance
0
What was not a major problem for the Labour Party during this period?
5ad1538a645df0001a2d178c
True
reduction of activists' influence
225
Why did party membership increase?
5ad1538a645df0001a2d178d
True
January and March 2008
371
When did the Labour Party receive 6 million in donations?
5ad1538a645df0001a2d178e
True
January and March 2008
371
When was the Conservative party 17 million in debt?
5ad1538a645df0001a2d178f
True
Neil Kinnock
299
Who increased the influence of activists?
5ad1538a645df0001a2d1790
True
Finance proved a major problem for the Labour Party during this period; a "cash for peerages" scandal under Blair resulted in the drying up of many major sources of donations. Declining party membership, partially due to the reduction of activists' influence upon policy-making under the reforms of Neil Kinnock and Blair, also contributed to financial problems. Between January and March 2008, the Labour Party received just over £3 million in donations and were £17 million in debt; compared to the Conservatives' £6 million in donations and £12 million in debt.
How many more seats did LAbour get in 1987?
572875ea2ca10214002da38e
20
49
False
What was the merger of SDP and the Liberals called?
572875ea2ca10214002da38f
Liberal Democrats
311
False
Who did the NEC expel
572875ea2ca10214002da390
activists and the two MPs who supported the group.
515
False
1987
35
When did Labour worsen its performance?
5ad149f5645df0001a2d1594
True
Labour
0
What party lost 20 seats in 1987?
5ad149f5645df0001a2d1595
True
143 to 102
105
How much was the Labour majority reduced by?
5ad149f5645df0001a2d1596
True
resumed disciplinary action
392
What did the National Executive Committee do before 1987?
5ad149f5645df0001a2d1597
True
two
533
How many activists did the Conservative Party expel?
5ad149f5645df0001a2d1598
True
Labour improved its performance in 1987, gaining 20 seats and so reducing the Conservative majority from 143 to 102. They were now firmly re-established as the second political party in Britain as the Alliance had once again failed to make a breakthrough with seats. A merger of the SDP and Liberals formed the Liberal Democrats. Following the 1987 election, the National Executive Committee resumed disciplinary action against members of Militant, who remained in the party, leading to further expulsions of their activists and the two MPs who supported the group.
What year did Kinnock call for a general election?
5728765c3acd2414000dfa1d
1991
213
False
What was Kinnocks party theme?
5728765c3acd2414000dfa1e
"It's Time for a Change"
251
False
What was the original Tory lead percentage?
5728765c3acd2414000dfa1f
14
604
False
What did the percentage fall to?
5728765c3acd2414000dfa20
8%
674
False
after November 1990
61
When was any Conservative lead in the polls sufficient for a majority?
5ad14abb645df0001a2d15c4
True
Major
148
Who followed Kinnock's calls for a general election?
5ad14abb645df0001a2d15c5
True
"It's Time for a Change"
251
What was Major's party theme?
5ad14abb645df0001a2d15c6
True
a decade
333
How long had Labour ruled unbroken?
5ad14abb645df0001a2d15c7
True
November 1990
625
When did the Conservatives have a 14-point lead?
5ad14abb645df0001a2d15c8
True
The "yo yo" in the opinion polls continued into 1992, though after November 1990 any Labour lead in the polls was rarely sufficient for a majority. Major resisted Kinnock's calls for a general election throughout 1991. Kinnock campaigned on the theme "It's Time for a Change", urging voters to elect a new government after more than a decade of unbroken Conservative rule. However, the Conservatives themselves had undergone a dramatic change in the change of leader from Thatcher to Major, at least in terms of style if not substance. From the outset, it was clearly a well-received change, as Labour's 14-point lead in the November 1990 "Poll of Polls" was replaced by an 8% Tory lead a month later.
Who replaced Kinnock?
572876a82ca10214002da394
John Smith
52
False
When did Smith change the party's rules?
572876a82ca10214002da395
1993
295
False
What does OMOV stand for?
572876a82ca10214002da396
one member, one vote
474
False
Kinnock
0
Who replaced John Smith as leader?
5ad14b77645df0001a2d1610
True
Smith
57
Whose leadership eased tensions within the party?
5ad14b77645df0001a2d1611
True
1993
295
When did Smith fail to change the party rules?
5ad14b77645df0001a2d1612
True
party rules
343
What did John Prescott successfully change?
5ad14b77645df0001a2d1613
True
one member, one vote system
474
What increased the influence of trade unions?
5ad14b77645df0001a2d1614
True
Kinnock then resigned as leader and was replaced by John Smith. Smith's leadership once again saw the re-emergence of tension between those on the party's left and those identified as "modernisers", both of whom advocated radical revisions of the party's stance albeit in different ways. At the 1993 conference, Smith successfully changed the party rules and lessened the influence of the trade unions on the selection of candidates to stand for Parliament by introducing a one member, one vote system called "OMOV" — but only barely, after a barnstorming speech by John Prescott which required Smith to compromise on other individual negotiations.
WHen was Black Wednesday?
572876fb3acd2414000dfa25
September 1992
41
False
What was Black Wednesday?
572876fb3acd2414000dfa26
economic disaster
20
False
When was the recession declared over?
572876fb3acd2414000dfa27
April 1993
278
False
When did Smith die?
572876fb3acd2414000dfa28
May 1994
503
False
What did Smith die of?
572876fb3acd2414000dfa29
a heart attack
485
False
September 1992
41
When was the Black Friday disaster?
5ad14be9645df0001a2d1624
True
Black Wednesday economic disaster
4
What repaired the Conservative government's reputation?
5ad14be9645df0001a2d1625
True
end of that year
149
By when did the Tories have a comfortable lead over Labour?
5ad14be9645df0001a2d1626
True
April 1993
278
When did the recession start?
5ad14be9645df0001a2d1627
True
1994
507
What year was Smith born?
5ad14be9645df0001a2d1628
True
The Black Wednesday economic disaster in September 1992 left the Conservative government's reputation for monetary excellence in tatters, and by the end of that year Labour had a comfortable lead over the Tories in the opinion polls. Although the recession was declared over in April 1993 and a period of strong and sustained economic growth followed, coupled with a relatively swift fall in unemployment, the Labour lead in the opinion polls remained strong. However, Smith died from a heart attack in May 1994.
What was the other name for the Labout Party?
572877c6ff5b5019007da264
"New Labour"
0
False
When was this branding first used?
572877c6ff5b5019007da265
1994
145
False
When did Labour publish a new draft manifesto?
572877c6ff5b5019007da266
1996
219
False
What was this manifesto called?
572877c6ff5b5019007da267
New Labour, New Life For Britain
232
False
New Labour
1
What was an alternate branding for the Conservative Party?
5ad14ca7645df0001a2d166a
True
1994
145
When was the term New Labour last used?
5ad14ca7645df0001a2d166b
True
Neil Kinnock
340
Who ended the New Labour trend?
5ad14ca7645df0001a2d166c
True
draft manifesto
177
What publication was the term New Labour never used?
5ad14ca7645df0001a2d166d
True
official
384
What status does the name "old Labour" have?
5ad14ca7645df0001a2d166e
True
"New Labour" was first termed as an alternative branding for the Labour Party, dating from a conference slogan first used by the Labour Party in 1994, which was later seen in a draft manifesto published by the party in 1996, called New Labour, New Life For Britain. It was a continuation of the trend that had begun under the leadership of Neil Kinnock. "New Labour" as a name has no official status, but remains in common use to distinguish modernisers from those holding to more traditional positions, normally referred to as "Old Labour".
Who did Tony Blair side with?
572878562ca10214002da39a
President George W. Bush
80
False
Why did Blair side with Bush?
572878562ca10214002da39b
the Iraq War
119
False
Who has an active Iraq War inquiry?
572878562ca10214002da39c
Sir John Chilcot
516
False
Was the idea of the Iraq War popular or unpopular in Western countries?
572878562ca10214002da39d
deeply unpopular
272
False
George W. Bush
90
Who did Blair ally with during the war in Afghanistan?
5ad14d49645df0001a2d1692
True
Iraq War
123
What caused Blair to win political support?
5ad14d49645df0001a2d1693
True
UN Secretary-General
193
Who considered the war to be legal?
5ad14d49645df0001a2d1694
True
Iraq War
259
What war was popular in most western countries?
5ad14d49645df0001a2d1695
True
decisions that led up to the Iraq war
422
What is the subject of Blair's Iraq Inquiry?
5ad14d49645df0001a2d1696
True
A perceived turning point was when Blair controversially allied himself with US President George W. Bush in supporting the Iraq War, which caused him to lose much of his political support. The UN Secretary-General, among many, considered the war illegal. The Iraq War was deeply unpopular in most western countries, with Western governments divided in their support and under pressure from worldwide popular protests. The decisions that led up to the Iraq war and its subsequent conduct are currently the subject of Sir John Chilcot's Iraq Inquiry.
When did Blair announce he was quitting?
572878f12ca10214002da3aa
September 2006
19
False
When were the next elections?
572878f12ca10214002da3ab
May 2007
135
False
Who did Labour lose power in the election to?
572878f12ca10214002da3ac
Scottish National Party
321
False
Who was Blair replaced by?
572878f12ca10214002da3ad
his Chancellor, Gordon Brown
456
False
What was the party membership at the end of 2009?
572878f12ca10214002da3ae
156,205
1003
False
May 2007
135
When was Blair not under pressure to quit?
5ad14de9645df0001a2d16c0
True
May elections
193
What event did people want Blair to be in power during?
5ad14de9645df0001a2d16c1
True
Scotland
298
Where did the party gain power?
5ad14de9645df0001a2d16c2
True
Blair
403
Who replaced Gordon Brown?
5ad14de9645df0001a2d16c3
True
London mayoral election
689
What did Labour win in May 2008?
5ad14de9645df0001a2d16c4
True
Blair announced in September 2006 that he would quit as leader within the year, though he had been under pressure to quit earlier than May 2007 in order to get a new leader in place before the May elections which were expected to be disastrous for Labour. In the event, the party did lose power in Scotland to a minority Scottish National Party government at the 2007 elections and, shortly after this, Blair resigned as Prime Minister and was replaced by his Chancellor, Gordon Brown. Although the party experienced a brief rise in the polls after this, its popularity soon slumped to its lowest level since the days of Michael Foot. During May 2008, Labour suffered heavy defeats in the London mayoral election, local elections and the loss in the Crewe and Nantwich by-election, culminating in the party registering its worst ever opinion poll result since records began in 1943, of 23%, with many citing Brown's leadership as a key factor. Membership of the party also reached a low ebb, falling to 156,205 by the end of 2009: over 40 per cent of the 405,000 peak reached in 1997 and thought to be the lowest total since the party was founded.
Clement Attlee
0
Whose government was the least radical of the 20th century?
5ad13805645df0001a2d120a
True
Clement Attlee
0
Who privatized major industries?
5ad13805645df0001a2d120b
True
1948
497
When was the British NHS destroyed?
5ad13805645df0001a2d120c
True
Aneurin Bevan
592
Under what health minister was the NHS dismantled?
5ad13805645df0001a2d120d
True
1947
763
When did the British take control of Indian and Pakistan?
5ad13805645df0001a2d120e
True
Clement Attlee's proved one of the most radical British governments of the 20th century, enacting Keynesian economic policies, presiding over a policy of nationalising major industries and utilities including the Bank of England, coal mining, the steel industry, electricity, gas, and inland transport (including railways, road haulage and canals). It developed and implemented the "cradle to grave" welfare state conceived by the economist William Beveridge. To this day, the party considers the 1948 creation of Britain's publicly funded National Health Service (NHS) under health minister Aneurin Bevan its proudest achievement. Attlee's government also began the process of dismantling the British Empire when it granted independence to India and Pakistan in 1947, followed by Burma (Myanmar) and Ceylon (Sri Lanka) the following year. At a secret meeting in January 1947, Attlee and six cabinet ministers, including Foreign Secretary Ernest Bevin, decided to proceed with the development of Britain's nuclear weapons programme, in opposition to the pacifist and anti-nuclear stances of a large element inside the Labour Party.
1950
26
In what year did Labour lose the general election?
5ad138be645df0001a2d123a
True
defence
114
What was a uniting issue in the party?
5ad138be645df0001a2d123b
True
1951
231
When did defense spending reach its lowest point in Britain?
5ad138be645df0001a2d123c
True
Hugh Gaitskell
350
Who made dentures and spectacles free of charge?
5ad138be645df0001a2d123d
True
free treatment
546
What was not a principle the NHS was based on?
5ad138be645df0001a2d123e
True
Labour went on to win the 1950 general election, but with a much reduced majority of five seats. Soon afterwards, defence became a divisive issue within the party, especially defence spending (which reached a peak of 14% of GDP in 1951 during the Korean War), straining public finances and forcing savings elsewhere. The Chancellor of the Exchequer, Hugh Gaitskell, introduced charges for NHS dentures and spectacles, causing Bevan, along with Harold Wilson (then President of the Board of Trade), to resign over the dilution of the principle of free treatment on which the NHS had been established.
1967
319
When was abortion criminalized in Britain?
5ad1396f645df0001a2d1274
True
1964
191
When was the death penalty introduced in Britain?
5ad1396f645df0001a2d1275
True
theatre censorship
345
What was abolished in 1970?
5ad1396f645df0001a2d1276
True
large trade deficit
487
What stopped a currency crisis?
5ad1396f645df0001a2d1277
True
1970
635
What year did Labour win a general election?
5ad1396f645df0001a2d1278
True
Wilson's government was responsible for a number of sweeping social and educational reforms under the leadership of Home Secretary Roy Jenkins such as the abolishment of the death penalty in 1964, the legalisation of abortion and homosexuality (initially only for men aged 21 or over, and only in England and Wales) in 1967 and the abolition of theatre censorship in 1968. Comprehensive education was expanded and the Open University created. However Wilson's government had inherited a large trade deficit that led to a currency crisis and ultimately a doomed attempt to stave off devaluation of the pound. Labour went on to lose the 1970 general election to the Conservatives under Edward Heath.
returned to opposition
47
What did Labour do after winning the 1970 general election?
5ad13a0b645df0001a2d12a6
True
Labour
40
Who won the 1970 general election?
5ad13a0b645df0001a2d12a7
True
1970s
245
What was an easy era to be in government?
5ad13a0b645df0001a2d12a8
True
Ulster Unionists
578
What group of people supported the Conservatives?
5ad13a0b645df0001a2d12a9
True
they had fewer seats
656
Why were the Conservatives able to form a government alone?
5ad13a0b645df0001a2d12aa
True
After losing the 1970 general election, Labour returned to opposition, but retained Harold Wilson as Leader. Heath's government soon ran into trouble over Northern Ireland and a dispute with miners in 1973 which led to the "three-day week". The 1970s proved a difficult time to be in government for both the Conservatives and Labour due to the 1973 oil crisis which caused high inflation and a global recession. The Labour Party was returned to power again under Wilson a few weeks after the February 1974 general election, forming a minority government with the support of the Ulster Unionists. The Conservatives were unable to form a government alone as they had fewer seats despite receiving more votes numerically. It was the first general election since 1924 in which both main parties had received less than 40% of the popular vote and the first of six successive general elections in which Labour failed to reach 40% of the popular vote. In a bid to gain a majority, a second election was soon called for October 1974 in which Labour, still with Harold Wilson as leader, won a majority of three, gaining just 18 seats taking its total to 319.
Fear of advances by the nationalist parties
0
What led to the promotion of a report from the Scottish Office?
5ad13aca645df0001a2d12d4
True
by-election losses
238
What left Callaghan leading a majority government?
5ad13aca645df0001a2d12d5
True
to govern
403
Why did Callaghan trade with the larger parties?
5ad13aca645df0001a2d12d6
True
Lib-Lab Pact
494
What arrangement lasted longer than one year?
5ad13aca645df0001a2d12d7
True
Deals
530
What shortened the life of the government?
5ad13aca645df0001a2d12d8
True
Fear of advances by the nationalist parties, particularly in Scotland, led to the suppression of a report from Scottish Office economist Gavin McCrone that suggested that an independent Scotland would be 'chronically in surplus'. By 1977 by-election losses and defections to the breakaway Scottish Labour Party left Callaghan heading a minority government, forced to trade with smaller parties in order to govern. An arrangement negotiated in 1977 with Liberal leader David Steel, known as the Lib-Lab Pact, ended after one year. Deals were then forged with various small parties including the Scottish National Party and the Welsh nationalist Plaid Cymru, prolonging the life of the government.
11 May 2010
134
When did Ed Miliband resign?
5ad154b9645df0001a2d17bc
True
Harriet Harman
0
Who won power after Ed Miliband?
5ad154b9645df0001a2d17bd
True
responsible capitalism
231
What did Harriet Harman emphasize?
5ad154b9645df0001a2d17be
True
financial services
336
What did Miliband want to change the balance of the UK economy towards?
5ad154b9645df0001a2d17bf
True
banks
529
What did Miliband want to regulate less?
5ad154b9645df0001a2d17c0
True
Harriet Harman became the Leader of the Opposition and acting Leader of the Labour Party following the resignation of Gordon Brown on 11 May 2010, pending a leadership election subsequently won by Ed Miliband. Miliband emphasised "responsible capitalism" and greater state intervention to change the balance of the UK economy away from financial services. Tackling vested interests and opening up closed circles in British society were also themes he returned to a number of times. Miliband also argued for greater regulation on banks and the energy companies.
2012
54
When did the party's performance tank in local elections?
5ad157b6645df0001a2d180a
True
Southern England
161
Where did Labour fail to gain ground?
5ad157b6645df0001a2d180b
True
control of most Welsh Councils
232
What did the Conservative party gain in Wales?
5ad157b6645df0001a2d180c
True
Scotland
461
Where did the Conservatives enjoy a +3.26 swing?
5ad157b6645df0001a2d180d
True
Ken Livingstone
516
Who won the London mayor election?
5ad157b6645df0001a2d180e
True
The party's performance held up in local elections in 2012 with Labour consolidating its position in the North and Midlands, while also regaining some ground in Southern England. In Wales the party enjoyed good successes, regaining control of most Welsh Councils lost in 2008, including the capital city, Cardiff. In Scotland, Labour's held overall control of Glasgow City Council despite some predictions to the contrary, and also enjoyed a +3.26 swing across Scotland. In London, results were mixed for the party; Ken Livingstone lost the election for Mayor of London, but the party gained its highest ever representation in the Greater London Authority in the concurrent assembly election.
special conference
22
Where did the party reform Conservative election procedures?
5ad158e2645df0001a2d1830
True
1 March 2014
3
When were Conservative election procedures reformed?
5ad158e2645df0001a2d1831
True
electoral college system
121
What replaced the "one member, one vote" system?
5ad158e2645df0001a2d1832
True
registered supporters
340
Who was allowed to join at a high cost?
5ad158e2645df0001a2d1833
True
trade unions
431
Who had to opt in to paying a political levy to the Conservatives?
5ad158e2645df0001a2d1834
True
On 1 March 2014, at a special conference the party reformed internal Labour election procedures, including replacing the electoral college system for selecting new leaders with a "one member, one vote" system following the recommendation of a review by former general-secretary Ray Collins. Mass membership would be encouraged by allowing "registered supporters" to join at a low cost, as well as full membership. Members from the trade unions would also have to explicitly "opt in" rather than "opt out" of paying a political levy to Labour.
2015 General Election
4
What resulted in a net gain of seats?
5ad15975645df0001a2d183a
True
232
122
How many seats did the Conservatives have in the House of Commons in 2015?
5ad15975645df0001a2d183b
True
40
172
How many seats did the Scottish National Party lose?
5ad15975645df0001a2d183c
True
England and Wales
452
Where did the Liberal Democrats gain seats?
5ad15975645df0001a2d183d
True
Ed Balls
609
Who was one of the Liberal Democrat challengers?
5ad15975645df0001a2d183e
True
The 2015 General Election resulted in a net loss of seats throughout Great Britain, with Labour representation falling to 232 seats in the House of Commons. The Party lost 40 of its 41 seats in Scotland in the face of record breaking swings to the Scottish National Party. The scale of the decline in Labour's support was much greater than what had occurred at the 2011 elections for the Scottish parliament. Though Labour gained more than 20 seats in England and Wales, mostly from the Liberal Democrats but also from the Conservative Party, it lost more seats to Conservative challengers, including that of Ed Balls, for net losses overall.
Labour
4
What party is considered right of centre?
5ad15a34645df0001a2d186a
True
a means for the trade union movement to establish political representation
80
Why was the Conservative Party formed?
5ad15a34645df0001a2d186b
True
1918
262
What year did the Conservative Party gain a socialist commitment?
5ad15a34645df0001a2d186c
True
third
507
How much of British industry was taken into private ownership?
5ad15a34645df0001a2d186d
True
1959
964
When did the attempt to remove clause IV succeed?
5ad15a34645df0001a2d186e
True
The Labour Party is considered to be left of centre. It was initially formed as a means for the trade union movement to establish political representation for itself at Westminster. It only gained a 'socialist' commitment with the original party constitution of 1918. That 'socialist' element, the original Clause IV, was seen by its strongest advocates as a straightforward commitment to the "common ownership", or nationalisation, of the "means of production, distribution and exchange". Although about a third of British industry was taken into public ownership after the Second World War, and remained so until the 1980s, the right of the party were questioning the validity of expanding on this objective by the late 1950s. Influenced by Anthony Crosland's book, The Future of Socialism (1956), the circle around party leader Hugh Gaitskell felt that the commitment was no longer necessary. While an attempt to remove Clause IV from the party constitution in 1959 failed, Tony Blair, and the 'modernisers' saw the issue as putting off potential voters, and were successful thirty-five years later, with only limited opposition from senior figures in the party.
free market policies
47
What did the party adopt before the 1980s?
5ad15afb645df0001a2d1874
True
Labour
108
What party was described as democratic socialist?
5ad15afb645df0001a2d1875
True
recent years
363
When have social democratic parties in America been transformed?
5ad15afb645df0001a2d1876
True
ideological shift
481
What has strengthened the party's relationship with trade unions?
5ad15afb645df0001a2d1877
True
adopted free market policies
39
What did the Conservative party do from the 1980s onward?
5ad15afb645df0001a2d1878
True
From the late-1980s onwards, the party adopted free market policies, leading many observers to describe the Labour Party as social democratic or the Third Way, rather than democratic socialist. Other commentators go further and argue that traditional social democratic parties across Europe, including the British Labour Party, have been so deeply transformed in recent years that it is no longer possible to describe them ideologically as 'social democratic', and claim that this ideological shift has put new strains on the party's traditional relationship with the trade unions.
Members on the hard left
247
Who was referred to as the loony right?
5ad15ba8645df0001a2d18a4
True
"hard left"
359
What was never used to refer to Trotskyist groups?
5ad15ba8645df0001a2d18a5
True
Tribune
748
What magazine is part of the hard left?
5ad15ba8645df0001a2d18a6
True
Members on the hard left
247
Who was never described as the loony left?
5ad15ba8645df0001a2d18a7
True
Historically within the party, differentiation was made between the "soft left" and the "hard left", with the former embracing more moderately social democratic views while the hard left subscribed to a strongly socialist, even Marxist, ideology. Members on the hard left were often disparaged as the "loony left," particularly in the popular media. The term "hard left" was sometimes used in the 1980s to describe Trotskyist groups such as the Militant tendency, Socialist Organiser and Socialist Action. In more recent times, Members of Parliament in the Socialist Campaign Group and the Labour Representation Committee are seen as constituting a hard left in contrast to a soft left represented by organisations such as Compass and the magazine Tribune.
Labour
0
What party is associated with blue?
5ad164ac645df0001a2d1982
True
red
37
What color is associated with the Conservative party?
5ad164ac645df0001a2d1983
True
red flag
325
What is the official conservative symbol?
5ad164ac645df0001a2d1984
True
1789
443
When did the red flag stop being associated with socialism?
5ad164ac645df0001a2d1985
True
1986
574
When was the blue rose adopted as a symbol?
5ad164ac645df0001a2d1986
True
Labour has long been identified with red, a political colour traditionally affiliated with socialism and the labour movement. The party conference in 1931 passed a motion "That this conference adopts Party Colours, which should be uniform throughout the country, colours to be red and gold". Since the party's inception, the red flag has been Labour's official symbol; the flag has been associated with socialism and revolution ever since the 1789 French Revolution and the revolutions of 1848. The red rose, a symbol of social democracy, was adopted as the party symbol in 1986 as part of a rebranding exercise and is now incorporated into the party logo.
National Executive Committee
76
What are the party's decision making bodies on a local level?
5ad16586645df0001a2d1996
True
Parliamentary leadership
193
What has the first say on policy?
5ad16586645df0001a2d1997
True
2008
251
When was the first time trade unions had the right to submit motions?
5ad16586645df0001a2d1998
True
Labour Party conferences
464
What includes less keynote addresses now?
5ad16586645df0001a2d1999
True
National Policy Forum
635
Where does discussion of policy never take place?
5ad16586645df0001a2d199a
True
The party's decision-making bodies on a national level formally include the National Executive Committee (NEC), Labour Party Conference and National Policy Forum (NPF)—although in practice the Parliamentary leadership has the final say on policy. The 2008 Labour Party Conference was the first at which affiliated trade unions and Constituency Labour Parties did not have the right to submit motions on contemporary issues that would previously have been debated. Labour Party conferences now include more "keynote" addresses, guest speakers and question-and-answer sessions, while specific discussion of policy now takes place in the National Policy Forum.
Labour
15
What party held a policy of always allowing people from Northern Ireland to apply for membership?
5ad1664b645df0001a2d19ba
True
Social Democratic and Labour Party
133
What party did Labour refuse to support?
5ad1664b645df0001a2d19bb
True
Social Democratic and Labour Party
133
What party formally takes the Labour whip in the House of Commons?
5ad1664b645df0001a2d19bc
True
2003
243
When did the Labour Party Conference refuse legal advice?
5ad1664b645df0001a2d19bd
True
2015
517
When did the Labour Party in Northern Ireland stop contesting elections?
5ad1664b645df0001a2d19be
True
For many years Labour held to a policy of not allowing residents of Northern Ireland to apply for membership, instead supporting the Social Democratic and Labour Party (SDLP) which informally takes the Labour whip in the House of Commons. The 2003 Labour Party Conference accepted legal advice that the party could not continue to prohibit residents of the province joining, and whilst the National Executive has established a regional constituency party it has not yet agreed to contest elections there. In December 2015 a meeting of the members of the Labour Party in Northern Ireland decided unanimously to contest the elections for the Northern Ireland Assembly held in May 2016.
Labour
84
What was founded to oppose the interests of working-class people?
5ad16714645df0001a2d19dc
True
link with the unions
93
What is a defining characteristic of the Conservatives?
5ad16714645df0001a2d19dd
True
2004
276
When was the RMT allowed into the party?
5ad16714645df0001a2d19de
True
constituency MPs
661
Who has Unison not threatened to withdraw funding from?
5ad16714645df0001a2d19df
True
Dave Prentis
682
What spokesman said the union is happy with Labour?
5ad16714645df0001a2d19e0
True
As it was founded by the unions to represent the interests of working-class people, Labour's link with the unions has always been a defining characteristic of the party. In recent years this link has come under increasing strain, with the RMT being expelled from the party in 2004 for allowing its branches in Scotland to affiliate to the left-wing Scottish Socialist Party. Other unions have also faced calls from members to reduce financial support for the Party and seek more effective political representation for their views on privatisation, public spending cuts and the anti-trade union laws. Unison and GMB have both threatened to withdraw funding from constituency MPs and Dave Prentis of UNISON has warned that the union will write "no more blank cheques" and is dissatisfied with "feeding the hand that bites us". Union funding was redesigned in 2013 after the Falkirk candidate-selection controversy.
Labour and Socialist International
30
What was the party a member of before 1923?
5ad16905645df0001a2d1a24
True
party
103
What was a member of the Socialist International before 1951?
5ad16905645df0001a2d1a25
True
February 2013
245
When did the Conservative Party downgrade its participation to observer member status?
5ad16905645df0001a2d1a26
True
Progressive Alliance international
478
What were the Conservatives a founding member of?
5ad16905645df0001a2d1a27
True
22 May 2013
620
When was the Progressive Alliance international disbanded?
5ad16905645df0001a2d1a28
True
The party was a member of the Labour and Socialist International between 1923 and 1940. Since 1951 the party has been a member of the Socialist International, which was founded thanks to the efforts of the Clement Attlee leadership. However, in February 2013, the Labour Party NEC decided to downgrade participation to observer membership status, "in view of ethical concerns, and to develop international co-operation through new networks". Labour was a founding member of the Progressive Alliance international founded in co-operation with the Social Democratic Party of Germany and other social-democratic parties on 22 May 2013.
Estonia
What is the official name for Estonia?
5728418cff5b5019007da014
the Republic of Estonia
61
False
Where is Estonia located in Northern Europe?
5728418cff5b5019007da015
the Baltic region
129
False
What borders the north of Estonia?
5728418cff5b5019007da016
the Gulf of Finland
198
False
What body of water borders Estonia on the west?
5728418cff5b5019007da017
the Baltic Sea
234
False
What country borders south Estonia?
5728418cff5b5019007da018
Latvia
266
False
Estonia (i/ɛˈstoʊniə/; Estonian: Eesti [ˈeːsti]), officially the Republic of Estonia (Estonian: Eesti Vabariik), is a country in the Baltic region of Northern Europe. It is bordered to the north by the Gulf of Finland, to the west by the Baltic Sea, to the south by Latvia (343 km), and to the east by Lake Peipus and Russia (338.6 km). Across the Baltic Sea lies Sweden in the west and Finland in the north. The territory of Estonia consists of a mainland and 2,222 islands and islets in the Baltic Sea, covering 45,339 km2 (17,505 sq mi) of land, and is influenced by a humid continental climate.
Who was in control of Estonia for most of the country's history?
572842434b864d1900164822
Danish, Swedish and German rule
19
False
When did Estonia start hoping for freedom?
572842434b864d1900164823
the period of national awakening
113
False
Who was in control during the national awakening?
572842434b864d1900164824
the Russian Empire
170
False
What year was the Republic of Estonia established?
572842434b864d1900164825
1918
217
False
What war ended as Estonia was born?
572842434b864d1900164826
World War I
286
False
After centuries of Danish, Swedish and German rule the native Estonians started to yearn for independence during the period of national awakening while being governed by the Russian Empire. Established on 24 February 1918, the Republic of Estonia came into existence towards the end of World War I. During World War II, Estonia was then occupied by the Soviet Union in 1940, then Nazi Germany a year later and again in 1944 establishing the Estonian Soviet Socialist Republic. In 1988, during the Singing Revolution, the Estonian SSR issued the Estonian Sovereignty Declaration to defy against the illegal Soviet rule. Estonia then restored its independence during the 1991 coup by the Soviets on the night of 20 August 1991.
What features describe Estonia as a developed nation?
572843282ca10214002da1d8
high-income economy and high living standards
38
False
What standard of living does Estonia rank well in?
572843282ca10214002da1d9
the Human Development Index
112
False
What country performs well in evaluation of economic freedom, civil liberties, and education?
572843282ca10214002da1da
Estonia
85
False
What year did Estonia rank third in press freedom?
572843282ca10214002da1db
2012
271
False
What financial institution is associated with Estonia?
572843282ca10214002da1dc
the Nordic Investment Bank
403
False
A developed country with an advanced, high-income economy and high living standards, Estonia ranks very high in the Human Development Index, and performs favourably in measurements of economic freedom, civil liberties, education, and press freedom (third in the world in 2012). Estonia has been among the fastest growing economies in the European Union and is a part of the World Trade Organization and the Nordic Investment Bank. Estonia is often described as one of the most internet-focused countries in Europe.
When did political subgroups begin to appear in Estonia?
5728442cff5b5019007da052
first centuries AD
7
False
What subdivision was associated with the province?
5728442cff5b5019007da053
kihelkond
155
False
What subdivision was associated with the land?
5728442cff5b5019007da054
maakond
190
False
What type of structure did most provinces have?
5728442cff5b5019007da055
fortress
289
False
Who commanded the defense of an area?
5728442cff5b5019007da056
The king or other highest administrative official elder
299
False
In the first centuries AD, political and administrative subdivisions began to emerge in Estonia. Two larger subdivisions appeared: the province (Estonian: kihelkond) and the land (Estonian: maakond). Several elderships or villages made up a province. Nearly all provinces had at least one fortress. The king or other highest administrative official elder directed the defense of the local area. By the thirteenth century Estonia consisted of the following provinces: Revala, Harjumaa, Saaremaa, Hiiumaa, Läänemaa, Alempois, Sakala, Ugandi, Jogentagana, Soopoolitse, Vaiga, Mõhu, Nurmekund, Järvamaa and Virumaa.
Which subdivision of Estonians lived in Saaremaa?
572844b64b864d1900164874
The Oeselians
0
False
Where is Saaremaa located?
572844b64b864d1900164875
the Baltic Sea
197
False
Where was the initial mention of the Oeselians?
572844b64b864d1900164876
Ptolemy's Geography III
276
False
Who described the sailboats of the Estonians as pirate ships?
572844b64b864d1900164877
Henry of Latvia
473
False
The Oeselians or Osilians (Estonian saarlased; singular: saarlane) were a historical subdivision of Estonians inhabiting Saaremaa (Danish: Øsel; German: Ösel; Swedish: Ösel), an Estonian island in the Baltic Sea. They were first mentioned as early as the second century BC in Ptolemy's Geography III. The Oeselians were known in the Old Norse Icelandic Sagas and in Heimskringla as Víkingr frá Esthland (Estonian Vikings). Their sailing vessels were called pirate ships by Henry of Latvia in his Latin chronicles written at the beginning of the 13th century.
What year did the Oeselian pirates carry out a famous raid?
5728456d3acd2414000df82f
1187
61
False
Who did the Oeselian pirates atack?
5728456d3acd2414000df830
the Swedish town of Sigtuna
86
False
What important figure was killed in the raid?
5728456d3acd2414000df831
Swedish archbishop Johannes
199
False
What two ships were used by the Oeselian pirates?
5728456d3acd2414000df832
the piratica and the liburna
472
False
What type of ship was the liburna?
5728456d3acd2414000df833
merchant ship
548
False
Perhaps the most famous raid by Oeselian pirates occurred in 1187, with the attack on the Swedish town of Sigtuna by Finnic raiders from Couronia and Oesel. Among the casualties of this raid was the Swedish archbishop Johannes. The city remained occupied for some time, contributing to its decline as a center of commerce in the 13th century and the rise of Uppsala, Visby, Kalmar and Stockholm. The Livonian Chronicle describes the Oeselians as using two kinds of ships, the piratica and the liburna. The former was a warship, the latter mainly a merchant ship. A piratica could carry approximately 30 men and had a high prow shaped like a dragon or a snakehead and a rectangular sail. Viking-age treasures from Estonia mostly contain silver coins and bars. Saaremaa has the richest finds of Viking treasures after Gotland in Sweden. This strongly suggests that Estonia was an important transit country during the Viking era.
What god did the Oeselians worship?
572846033acd2414000df843
Tharapita
73
False
Who described Tharapita?
572846033acd2414000df844
Henry of Latvia
46
False
Where was Tharapita born in his legend story?
572846033acd2414000df845
on a forested mountain in Virumaa
144
False
What famous Viking God is associated with Tharapita?
572846033acd2414000df846
Thor
444
False
What event formed a crater in Saaremaa?
572846033acd2414000df847
meteor disaster
551
False
The superior god of Oeselians as described by Henry of Latvia was called Tharapita. According to the legend in the chronicle Tharapita was born on a forested mountain in Virumaa (Latin: Vironia), mainland Estonia from where he flew to Oesel, Saaremaa The name Taarapita has been interpreted as "Taara, help!"/"Thor, help!" (Taara a(v)ita in Estonian) or "Taara keeper"/"Thor keeper" (Taara pidaja) Taara is associated with the Scandinavian god Thor. The story of Tharapita's or Taara's flight from Vironia to Saaremaa has been associated with a major meteor disaster estimated to have happened in 660 ± 85 BC that formed Kaali crater in Saaremaa.
What was the capital of Danish Estonia?
572846ce2ca10214002da224
Reval
65
False
What event preceded the founding of the capital?
572846ce2ca10214002da225
the invasion of 1219
123
False
What structure was built at Toompea Hill?
572846ce2ca10214002da226
the fortress of Castrum Danorum
161
False
What year was Reval granted with Lübeck city rights?
572846ce2ca10214002da227
1248
378
False
The capital of Danish Estonia (Danish: Hertugdømmet Estland) was Reval (Tallinn), founded at the place of Lyndanisse after the invasion of 1219. The Danes built the fortress of Castrum Danorum at Toompea Hill. Estonians still call their capital "Tallinn", which according to legend derives from Taani linna (meaning Danish town or castle). Reval was granted Lübeck city rights (1248) and joined the Hanseatic League. Even today, Danish influence can be seen in heraldic symbols. The Danish cross is on the city of Tallinn's coat of arms, and Estonia's coat of arms displays three lions similar to those found on the Danish coat of arms.
What is the date of St. George's Night?
5728479b4b864d19001648b2
23 April 1343
50
False
When did the indigenous Estonians try to overthrow their Danish and German rulers?
5728479b4b864d19001648b3
St. George's Night
3
False
What belief system did the native Estonians try to remove?
5728479b4b864d19001648b4
the non-indigenous Christian religion
382
False
What event ended the uprising?
5728479b4b864d19001648b5
the invasion of the Teutonic Order.
467
False
What date did sovereignty shift from the state of Denmark?
5728479b4b864d19001648b6
1 November 1346
696
False
On St. George's Night (Estonian: Jüriöö ülestõus) 23 April 1343, the indigenous Estonian population in the Duchy of Estonia, the Bishopric of Ösel-Wiek and the insular territories of the State of the Teutonic Order tried to rid themselves of the Danish and German rulers and landlords, who had conquered the country in the 13th century during the Livonian crusade, and to eradicate the non-indigenous Christian religion. After initial success the revolt was ended by the invasion of the Teutonic Order. In 1346 the Duchy of Estonia was sold for 19,000 Köln marks to the Teutonic Order by the King of Denmark. The shift of sovereignty from Denmark to the State of the Teutonic Order took place on 1 November 1346.
When was Terra Mariana established?
5728484dff5b5019007da0ce
2 February 1207
111
False
Who ruled the southern parts of Estonia?
5728484dff5b5019007da0cf
Livonian Brothers of the Sword
294
False
What year did the Livonian Brothers join the Teutonic Order?
5728484dff5b5019007da0d0
1237
358
False
What year did the King of Denmark sell Estonia to the Teutonic Order?
5728484dff5b5019007da0d1
1346
553
False
Who did Estonia rebel against in 1343?
5728484dff5b5019007da0d2
German rule
703
False
From 1228, after of the Livonian Crusade, through the 1560s, Estonia was part of Terra Mariana, established on 2 February 1207 as a principality of the Holy Roman Empire and proclaimed by Pope Innocent III in 1215 as subject to the Holy See. The southern parts of the country were conquered by Livonian Brothers of the Sword who joined the Teutonic Order in 1237 and became its branch known as the Livonian Order. The Duchy of Estonia was created out of the northern parts of the country and was a direct dominion of the King of Denmark from 1219 until 1346, when it was sold to the Teutonic Order and became part of the Ordenstaat. In 1343, the people of northern Estonia and Saaremaa rebelled against German rule in the St. George's Night Uprising, which was put down by 1345. The unsuccessful rebellion led to a consolidation of power for the Baltic German minority. For the subsequent centuries they remained the ruling elite in both cities and in the countryside.
When did the Battle of Grunwald take place?
5728a94c4b864d1900164bbe
1410
90
False
What event preceded the decline of the Teutonic Order?
5728a94c4b864d1900164bbf
the Battle of Grunwald
64
False
Who did the Estonians defeat in the Battle of Swienta?
5728a94c4b864d1900164bc0
the Livonian Order
114
False
What is date of the Battle of Swienta?
5728a94c4b864d1900164bc1
1 September 1435
161
False
When was the Livonian Confederation Agreement signed?
5728a94c4b864d1900164bc2
4 December 1435
230
False
After the decline of the Teutonic Order following its defeat in the Battle of Grunwald in 1410, and the defeat of the Livonian Order in the Battle of Swienta on 1 September 1435, the Livonian Confederation Agreement was signed on 4 December 1435. The Livonian Confederation ceased to exist during the Livonian War (1558–82). The wars had reduced the Estonian population from about 250–300,000 people before the Livonian War to 120–140,000 in the 1620s. The Grand Duchy of Moscow and Tsardom of Russia also attempted invasions in 1481 and 1558, both of which were unsuccessful .
When did the The Reformation in Europe start?
5728a9eeff5b5019007da3e2
1517
46
False
Who led the The Reformation in Europe?
5728a9eeff5b5019007da3e3
Martin Luther
56
False
What was the year of Martin Luther's death?
5728a9eeff5b5019007da3e4
1546
76
False
What parts of society did the Reformation change?
5728a9eeff5b5019007da3e5
Language, education, religion and politics
239
False
What was the previous language of the church?
5728a9eeff5b5019007da3e6
Latin
367
False
The Reformation in Europe officially began in 1517 with Martin Luther (1483–1546) and his 95 Theses. The Reformation greatly changed the Baltic region. Its ideas came quickly to the Livonian Confederation and by the 1520s were widespread. Language, education, religion and politics were transformed. Church services were now conducted in the vernacular instead of in Latin, previously used. During the Livonian War in 1561, northern Estonia submitted to Swedish control. In the 1560s two voivodeships of present-day southern Estonia, Dorpat Voivodeship (Tartu region) and Parnawa Voivodeship (Pärnu region), became the autonomous Duchy of Livonia within the Polish-Lithuanian Commonwealth, under joint control of the Polish Crown and the Grand Duchy. In 1629, mainland Estonia came entirely under Swedish rule. Estonia was administratively divided between the provinces of Estonia in the north and Livonia in southern Estonia and northern Latvia. This division persisted until the early twentieth century.
What form of servitude was eliminated?
5728aaa53acd2414000dfc6b
serfdom
32
False
When did the Estonian nationalist movement begin?
5728aaa53acd2414000dfc6c
19th century
175
False
The development of Estonian national identity was accompanied with what era?
5728aaa53acd2414000dfc6d
the Age of Awakening
397
False
Who were the leaders of the Age of Awakening?
5728aaa53acd2414000dfc6e
Johann Voldemar Jannsen, Jakob Hurt and Carl Robert Jakobson.
458
False
As a result of the abolition of serfdom and the availability of education to the native Estonian-speaking population, an active Estonian nationalist movement developed in the 19th century.[citation needed] It began on a cultural level, resulting in the establishment of Estonian language literature, theatre and professional music and led on to the formation of the Estonian national identity and the Age of Awakening. Among the leaders of the movement were Johann Voldemar Jannsen, Jakob Hurt and Carl Robert Jakobson.
What capital of France was lost to the Nazi Germans?
5728ab303acd2414000dfc7d
Paris
67
False
When did the Soviet army initiate their blockade on Estonia?
5728ab303acd2414000dfc7e
14 June
3
False
What was the name of the Finnish aeroplane attacked by the Soviets?
5728ab303acd2414000dfc7f
Kaleva
221
False
Where was the destination of Kaleva?
5728ab303acd2414000dfc80
Helsinki
252
False
On 14 June, while the world's attention was focused on the fall of Paris to Nazi Germany a day earlier, the Soviet military blockade on Estonia went into effect, two Soviet bombers downed the Finnish passenger aeroplane "Kaleva" flying from Tallinn to Helsinki carrying three diplomatic pouches from the US delegations in Tallinn, Riga and Helsinki. On 16 June, the Soviet Union invaded Estonia. The Red Army exited from their military bases in Estonia on 17 June. The following day, some 90,000 additional troops entered the country. In the face of overwhelming Soviet force, the Estonian government capitulated on 17 June 1940 to avoid bloodshed.
Who commanded the defense of the Estonia to surrender?
5728abc13acd2414000dfc99
the Estonian government
75
False
Who disarmed the Estonian Defence Forces?
5728abc13acd2414000dfc9a
the Red Army
159
False
What was the name of the single unit that didn't surrender?
5728abc13acd2414000dfc9b
the Estonian Independent Signal Battalion
178
False
When did the Estonian Independent Signal Battalion face off against the Soviets?
5728abc13acd2414000dfc9c
21 June
351
False
Most of the Estonian Defence Forces surrendered according to the orders of the Estonian government, believing that resistance was useless and were disarmed by the Red Army. Only the Estonian Independent Signal Battalion showed resistance to Red Army and Communist militia "People's Self-Defence" units in front of the XXI Grammar School in Tallinn on 21 June. As the Red Army brought in additional reinforcements supported by six armoured fighting vehicles, the battle lasted several hours until sundown. Finally the military resistance was ended with negotiations and the Independent Signal Battalion surrendered and was disarmed. There were two dead Estonian servicemen, Aleksei Männikus and Johannes Mandre, and several wounded on the Estonian side and about ten killed and more wounded on the Soviet side.
What date was Estonia annexed by the Soviets?
5728ac583acd2414000dfcab
6 August 1940
3
False
Who annexed Estonia as the Estonian SSR?
5728ac583acd2414000dfcac
the Soviet Union
41
False
The rules of joining a super power were ignored from what document?
5728ac583acd2414000dfcad
the Estonian constitution
97
False
What system was used to decide on joining the Soviets?
5728ac583acd2414000dfcae
elections
287
False
On 6 August 1940, Estonia was annexed by the Soviet Union as the Estonian SSR. The provisions in the Estonian constitution requiring a popular referendum to decide on joining a supra-national body were ignored. Instead the vote to join the Soviet Union was taken by those elected in the elections held the previous month. Additionally those who had failed to do their "political duty" of voting Estonia into the USSR, specifically those who had failed to have their passports stamped for voting, were condemned to death by Soviet tribunals. The repressions followed with the mass deportations carried out by the Soviets in Estonia on 14 June 1941. Many of the country's political and intellectual leaders were killed or deported to remote areas of the USSR by the Soviet authorities in 1940–1941. Repressive actions were also taken against thousands of ordinary people.
What date did the Germans invade the Soviets?
5728acd92ca10214002da59e
22 June 1941
42
False
When did the Werhmacht cross the south border of Estonia?
5728acd92ca10214002da59f
7 July
110
False
What body of water did the Red Army retreat behind?
5728acd92ca10214002da5a0
the Pärnu River
148
False
When did the Red Army fall back to the Parnu River?
5728acd92ca10214002da5a1
12 July
182
False
When did the Germans invade the Soviet Union?
5728b0db2ca10214002da5d8
22 June 1941
42
False
When did the Werhmacht cross south border of Estonia?
5728b0db2ca10214002da5d9
7 July
110
False
Who helped the Germans take over Estonia?
5728b0db2ca10214002da5db
the Estonian Forest Brothers
278
False
After Germany invaded the Soviet Union on 22 June 1941, the Wehrmacht crossed the Estonian southern border on 7 July. The Red Army retreated behind the Pärnu River – Emajõgi line on 12 July. At the end of July the Germans resumed their advance in Estonia working in tandem with the Estonian Forest Brothers. Both German troops and Estonian partisans took Narva on 17 August and the Estonian capital Tallinn on 28 August. After the Soviets were driven out from Estonia, German troops disarmed all the partisan groups.
What did the majority of Estonians view the Germans as?
5728b1624b864d1900164c36
liberators
66
False
Who was in control of Estonia before the Germans?
5728b1624b864d1900164c37
the USSR
82
False
What did Estonia hope to restore after the removal of the USSR?
5728b1624b864d1900164c38
the country's independence
157
False
What did Germany take from Estonia for their war strategy?
5728b1624b864d1900164c39
Estonia's resources
272
False
Although initially the Germans were welcomed by most Estonians as liberators from the USSR and its oppressions, and hopes were raised for the restoration of the country's independence, it was soon realised that the Nazis were but another occupying power. The Germans used Estonia's resources for their war effort; for the duration of the occupation Estonia was incorporated into the German province of Ostland. The Germans and their collaborators also carried out The Holocaust in Estonia in which they established a network of concentration camps and murdered thousands of Estonian Jews and Estonian Gypsies, other Estonians, non-Estonian Jews, and Soviet prisoners of war.
Who did some Estonians join as an alternative to the Germans?
5728b21f2ca10214002da5f2
the Finnish Army
66
False
Who was the Finnish Army allied with?
5728b21f2ca10214002da5f3
the Nazis
106
False
Who composed the The Finnish Infantry Regiment 200?
5728b21f2ca10214002da5f4
Estonian volunteers in Finland
228
False
What year did most Estonians join the Germans after a new Soviet threat was emerging?
5728b21f2ca10214002da5f5
1944
396
False
Some Estonians, unwilling to side directly with the Nazis, joined the Finnish Army (which was allied with the Nazis) to fight against the Soviet Union. The Finnish Infantry Regiment 200 (Estonian: soomepoisid) was formed out of Estonian volunteers in Finland. Although many Estonians were recruited into the German armed forces (including Estonian Waffen-SS), the majority of them did so only in 1944 when the threat of a new invasion of Estonia by the Red Army had become imminent. In January 1944 Estonia was again facing the prospect of invasion from the Red Army and the last legitimate prime minister of the Republic of Estonia (according to the Constitution of the Republic of Estonia) delivered a radio address asking all able-bodied men born from 1904 through 1923 to report for military service. The call resulted in around 38,000 new enlistments and several thousand Estonians who had joined the Finnish Army came back to join the newly formed Territorial Defense Force, assigned to defend Estonia against the Soviet advance. It was hoped[by whom?] that by engaging in such a war Estonia would be able to attract Western support for Estonian independence.
How many Estonians chose to retreat or flee when in anticipation of another Soviet invasion?
5728b2d64b864d1900164c48
tens of thousands
62
False
Which countries did most Estonians desire to flee to?
5728b2d64b864d1900164c49
Finland or Sweden
237
False
What was the name of the refugee ship that Estonians boarded?
5728b2d64b864d1900164c4a
the SS Walnut
339
False
What date did the Soviet Council of Ministers issue a declaration to remove native Estonians?
5728b2d64b864d1900164c4b
12 January 1949
357
False
In the face of the country being re-occupied by the Red Army, tens of thousands of Estonians (including a majority of the education, culture, science, political and social specialists) chose to either retreat with the Germans or flee to Finland or Sweden where they sought refuge in other western countries, often by refugee ships such as the SS Walnut. On 12 January 1949, the Soviet Council of Ministers issued a decree "on the expulsion and deportation" from Baltic states of "all kulaks and their families, the families of bandits and nationalists", and others.
What percentage of Estonians died after deporation?
5728b383ff5b5019007da4de
Half the deported perished
0
False
When were the deported Estonians allowed to return?
5728b383ff5b5019007da4df
the early 1960s
80
False
What event led to the return of Estonians back home?
5728b383ff5b5019007da4e0
Stalin's death
109
False
Who fought a guerrilla war against the Soviets?
5728b383ff5b5019007da4e1
the Forest Brothers
274
False
Half the deported perished, and the other half were not allowed to return until the early 1960s (years after Stalin's death).[citation needed] The activities of Soviet forces in 1940–41 and after reoccupation sparked a guerrilla war against Soviet authorities in Estonia by the Forest Brothers, who consisted mostly of Estonian veterans of the German and Finnish armies and some civilians. This conflict continued into the early 1950s. Material damage caused by the world war and the following Soviet era significantly slowed Estonia's economic growth, resulting in a wide wealth gap in comparison with neighbouring Finland and Sweden.
What political strategy only allowed major parts of of Estonia to be accessed by the Soviets?
5728b435ff5b5019007da4ee
Militarization
0
False
What sea islands were declared border zones?
5728b435ff5b5019007da4ef
Saaremaa and Hiiumaa
210
False
What document did people need to travel to the border zones?
5728b435ff5b5019007da4f0
permit
347
False
What was established in the city of Paldiski?
5728b435ff5b5019007da4f1
A notable closed military installation
355
False
Militarization was another aspect of the Soviet state. Large parts of the country, especially the coastal areas, were closed to all but the Soviet military. Most of the sea shore and all sea islands (including Saaremaa and Hiiumaa) were declared "border zones". People not actually residing there were restricted from travelling to them without a permit. A notable closed military installation was the city of Paldiski, which was entirely closed to all public access. The city had a support base for the Soviet Baltic Fleet's submarines and several large military bases, including a nuclear submarine training centre complete with a full-scale model of a nuclear submarine with working nuclear reactors. The Paldiski reactors building passed into Estonian control in 1994 after the last Russian troops left the country. Immigration was another effect of Soviet occupation. Hundreds of thousands of migrants were relocated to Estonia from other parts of the Soviet Union to assist industrialisation and militarisation, contributing an increase of about half a million people within 45 years.
What did most Western countries view as an illegal claim by the USSR?
5728b4cd2ca10214002da620
the annexation of Estonia
83
False
What relationship did Western countries continue with Estonia?
5728b4cd2ca10214002da621
diplomatic relations
144
False
What institution did Western countries refuse to recognize?
5728b4cd2ca10214002da622
the Estonian SSR
272
False
What decade started the push for Estonian independence?
5728b4cd2ca10214002da623
1980s
518
False
The U.S., UK, France, Italy and the majority of other Western countries considered the annexation of Estonia by the USSR illegal. They retained diplomatic relations with the representatives of the independent Republic of Estonia, never de jure recognised the existence of the Estonian SSR, and never recognised Estonia as a legal constituent part of the Soviet Union. Estonia's return to independence became possible as the Soviet Union faced internal regime challenges, loosening its hold on the outer empire. As the 1980s progressed, a movement for Estonian autonomy started. In the initial period of 1987–1989, this was partially for more economic independence, but as the Soviet Union weakened and it became increasingly obvious that nothing short of full independence would do, Estonia began a course towards self-determination.
What year did the Singing Revolution occur?
5728b55c2ca10214002da628
1989
3
False
What was the demonstration of the Singing Revolution trying to fight for?
5728b55c2ca10214002da629
independence
79
False
How many people created a chain of solidarity that went Estonia and other countries?
5728b55c2ca10214002da62a
more than two million people
93
False
What was the name of the human chain?
5728b55c2ca10214002da62b
the Baltic Way
200
False
In 1989, during the "Singing Revolution", in a landmark demonstration for more independence, more than two million people formed a human chain stretching through Lithuania, Latvia and Estonia, called the Baltic Way. All three nations had similar experiences of occupation and similar aspirations for regaining independence. The Estonian Sovereignty Declaration was issued on 16 November 1988. On 20 August 1991, Estonia declared formal independence during the Soviet military coup attempt in Moscow, reconstituting the pre-1940 state. The Soviet Union recognised the independence of Estonia on 6 September 1991. The first country to diplomatically recognise Estonia's reclaimed independence was Iceland. The last units of the Russian army left on 31 August 1994.
What is the length of the border that Estonia shares with Lativa?
5728b5ba3acd2414000dfd29
267 kilometers
39
False
What is the length of the border that Estonia shares with Russia?
5728b5ba3acd2414000dfd2a
290 kilometers
79
False
What document established the border between Russia and Estonia?
5728b5ba3acd2414000dfd2b
the 1920 Tartu Peace Treaty
151
False
Estonia's land border with Latvia runs 267 kilometers; the Russian border runs 290 kilometers. From 1920 to 1945, Estonia's border with Russia, set by the 1920 Tartu Peace Treaty, extended beyond the Narva River in the northeast and beyond the town of Pechory (Petseri) in the southeast. This territory, amounting to some 2,300 square kilometres (888 sq mi), was incorporated into Russia by Stalin at the end of World War II. For this reason the borders between Estonia and Russia are still not defined.
What body of water borders Estonia?
5728b62eff5b5019007da52c
the Baltic Sea
38
False
What is the average elevation of Estonia?
5728b62eff5b5019007da52d
50 metres (164 ft)
253
False
What is Estonia's highest mountain point?
5728b62eff5b5019007da52e
the Suur Munamägi
307
False
How tall is the the Suur Munamägi?
5728b62eff5b5019007da52f
318 metres (1,043 ft)
345
False
Estonia lies on the eastern shores of the Baltic Sea immediately across the Gulf of Finland from Finland on the level northwestern part of the rising East European platform between 57.3° and 59.5° N and 21.5° and 28.1° E. Average elevation reaches only 50 metres (164 ft) and the country's highest point is the Suur Munamägi in the southeast at 318 metres (1,043 ft). There is 3,794 kilometres (2,357 mi) of coastline marked by numerous bays, straits, and inlets. The number of islands and islets is estimated at some 2,355 (including those in lakes). Two of them are large enough to constitute separate counties: Saaremaa and Hiiumaa. A small, recent cluster of meteorite craters, the largest of which is called Kaali is found on Saaremaa, Estonia.
What section of the temperate climate zone does Estonia reside?
5728b6bbff5b5019007da53e
northern part
27
False
What is the similar trait of Estonia's four seasons?
5728b6bbff5b5019007da53f
near-equal length
168
False
What is the average temperature of the Baltic Islands?
5728b6bbff5b5019007da540
16.3 °C (61.3 °F)
219
False
What is the warmest month in Estonia?
5728b6bbff5b5019007da541
July
290
False
Estonia is situated in the northern part of the temperate climate zone and in the transition zone between maritime and continental climate. Estonia has four seasons of near-equal length. Average temperatures range from 16.3 °C (61.3 °F) on the Baltic islands to 18.1 °C (64.6 °F) inland in July, the warmest month, and from −3.5 °C (25.7 °F) on the Baltic islands to −7.6 °C (18.3 °F) inland in February, the coldest month. The average annual temperature in Estonia is 5.2 °C (41.4 °F). The average precipitation in 1961–1990 ranged from 535 to 727 mm (21.1 to 28.6 in) per year.
What is the largest administrative subdivision in Estonia?
5728b7453acd2414000dfd39
A maakond
0
False
What is the county government in Estonia called?
5728b7453acd2414000dfd3a
Maavalitsus
85
False
A Maavanem holds what position in Estonia?
5728b7453acd2414000dfd3b
county governor
125
False
Who represents the national government on a local level?
5728b7453acd2414000dfd3c
Maavanem
142
False
A maakond (county) is the biggest administrative subdivision. The county government (Maavalitsus) of each county is led by a county governor (Maavanem), who represents the national government at the regional level. Governors are appointed by the Government of Estonia for a term of five years. Several changes were made to the borders of counties after Estonia became independent, most notably the formation of Valga County (from parts of Võru, Tartu and Viljandi counties) and Petseri County (area acquired from Russia with the 1920 Tartu Peace Treaty).
Who is the leader of Estonia's government?
5728b8064b864d1900164cba
the Prime Minister of Estonia
71
False
What political structure aids the Prime Minister?
5728b8064b864d1900164cbb
a multi-party system
146
False
The political scene of Estonia is similar to other countries in what continent?
5728b8064b864d1900164cbc
Northern Europe
354
False
Who is Europe's longest serving Prime Minister?
5728b8064b864d1900164cbd
Andrus Ansip
409
False
Estonia is a parliamentary representative democratic republic in which the Prime Minister of Estonia is the head of government and which includes a multi-party system. The political culture is stable in Estonia, where power is held between two and three parties that have been in politics for a long time. This situation is similar to other countries in Northern Europe. The former Prime Minister of Estonia, Andrus Ansip, is also Europe's longest-serving Prime Minister (from 2005 until 2014). The current Estonian Prime Minister is Taavi Rõivas, who is the former Minister of Social Affairs and the head of the Estonian Reform Party.
What position do the citizens of Estonia elect for a four year term?
5728b8a54b864d1900164ccc
The Parliament of Estonia
0
False
What year did the Estonians create a constitutional document for their modern political system?
5728b8a54b864d1900164ccd
1992
221
False
How many representatives are in the Estonian parliament?
5728b8a54b864d1900164cce
101 members
279
False
What can the Estonian parliament do in regards to treaties?
5728b8a54b864d1900164ccf
ratify and denounce international treaties
565
False
The Parliament of Estonia (Estonian: Riigikogu) or the legislative branch is elected by people for a four-year term by proportional representation. The Estonian political system operates under a framework laid out in the 1992 constitutional document. The Estonian parliament has 101 members and influences the governing of the state primarily by determining the income and the expenses of the state (establishing taxes and adopting the budget). At the same time the parliament has the right to present statements, declarations and appeals to the people of Estonia, ratify and denounce international treaties with other states and international organisations and decide on the Government loans.
Who chooses high state officials of Estonia?
5728b9462ca10214002da67c
The Riigikogu
0
False
Who does the government have to explain their actions to?
5728b9462ca10214002da67d
the Riigikogu
392
False
What can the Riigikogu monitor for abuse of influence?
5728b9462ca10214002da67e
activities of the executive power
554
False
The Riigikogu elects and appoints several high officials of the state, including the President of the Republic. In addition to that, the Riigikogu appoints, on the proposal of the President of Estonia, the Chairman of the National Court, the chairman of the board of the Bank of Estonia, the Auditor General, the Legal Chancellor and the Commander-in-Chief of the Defence Forces. A member of the Riigikogu has the right to demand explanations from the Government of the Republic and its members. This enables the members of the parliament to observe the activities of the executive power and the above-mentioned high officials of the state.
Who establishes the executive branch of Estonia?
5728baedff5b5019007da592
the Prime Minister of Estonia
94
False
Who has to approve the Government of Estonia after it is nominated by the President?
5728baedff5b5019007da593
parliament
172
False
How many ministers serve in the government?
5728baedff5b5019007da594
twelve
321
False
Who has the ability to assign other ministers?
5728baedff5b5019007da595
The Prime Minister
369
False
The Government of Estonia (Estonian: Vabariigi Valitsus) or the executive branch is formed by the Prime Minister of Estonia, nominated by the president and approved by the parliament. The government exercises executive power pursuant to the Constitution of Estonia and the laws of the Republic of Estonia and consists of twelve ministers, including the Prime Minister. The Prime Minister also has the right to appoint other ministers and assign them a subject to deal with. These are ministers without portfolio — they don't have a ministry to control.
What is the most amount of ministers that a Prime Minister can assign?
5728bb98ff5b5019007da59a
three
57
False
What is another name for the governing body of ministers?
5728bb98ff5b5019007da59b
the cabinet
155
False
What strategy does the cabinet execute?
5728bb98ff5b5019007da59c
domestic and foreign policy
206
False
What major responsibility does the cabinet hold?
5728bb98ff5b5019007da59d
everything occurring within the authority of executive power
355
False
The Prime Minister has the right to appoint a maximum of three such ministers, as the limit of ministers in one government is fifteen. It is also known as the cabinet. The cabinet carries out the country's domestic and foreign policy, shaped by parliament; it directs and co-ordinates the work of government institutions and bears full responsibility for everything occurring within the authority of executive power. The government, headed by the Prime Minister, thus represents the political leadership of the country and makes decisions in the name of the whole executive power.
What digital technology as Estonia been advacning?
5728bc254b864d1900164d14
Internet voting
69
False
What year did the first internet vote occur in local Estonia elections?
5728bc254b864d1900164d15
2005
162
False
What year did the first internet vote occur in Estonia parliamentary elections?
5728bc254b864d1900164d16
2007
252
False
In 2007, how many Estonians used internet voting?
5728bc254b864d1900164d17
30,275
277
False
Estonia has pursued the development of the e-state and e-government. Internet voting is used in elections in Estonia. The first internet voting took place in the 2005 local elections and the first in a parliamentary election was made available for the 2007 elections, in which 30,275 individuals voted over the internet. Voters have a chance to invalidate their electronic vote in traditional elections, if they wish to. In 2009 in its eighth Worldwide Press Freedom Index, Reporters Without Borders ranked Estonia sixth out of 175 countries. In the first ever State of World Liberty Index report, Estonia was ranked first out of 159 countries.
What document declares supreme power for the people?
5728bcadff5b5019007da5c0
the Constitution of Estonia
13
False
Who holds supreme judicial power in Estonia?
5728bcadff5b5019007da5c1
the Supreme Court or Riigikohus
292
False
How many judges are on Estonia's supreme court?
5728bcadff5b5019007da5c2
nineteen
330
False
How many years does the Chief justice serve?
5728bcadff5b5019007da5c3
nine
402
False
According to the Constitution of Estonia (Estonian: Põhiseadus) the supreme power of the state is vested in the people. The people exercise their supreme power of the state on the elections of the Riigikogu through citizens who have the right to vote. The supreme judicial power is vested in the Supreme Court or Riigikohus, with nineteen justices. The Chief Justice is appointed by the parliament for nine years on nomination by the president. The official Head of State is the President of Estonia, who gives assent to the laws passed by Riigikogu, also having the right of sending them back and proposing new laws.
What date did Estonia join the League of Nations?
5728bd063acd2414000dfd79
22 September 1921
51
False
What date did Estonia join the United Nations?
5728bd063acd2414000dfd7a
17 September 1991
116
False
What date did Estonia join NATO?
5728bd063acd2414000dfd7b
29 March 2004
153
False
What date did Estonia join the European Union?
5728bd063acd2414000dfd7c
1 May 2004
204
False
Estonia was a member of the League of Nations from 22 September 1921, has been a member of the United Nations since 17 September 1991, and of NATO since 29 March 2004, as well as the European Union since 1 May 2004. Estonia is also a member of the Organization for Security and Cooperation in Europe (OSCE), Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD), Council of the Baltic Sea States (CBSS) and the Nordic Investment Bank (NIB). As an OSCE participating State, Estonia's international commitments are subject to monitoring under the mandate of the U.S. Helsinki Commission. Estonia has also signed the Kyoto Protocol.
What type of foreign policy has Estonia sought after getting their independence?
5728bda43acd2414000dfd8b
close co-operation
70
False
What were the most important foreign policy priorities?
5728bda43acd2414000dfd8c
accession into NATO and the European Union
191
False
What trend has accompanied Estonia's cooperation with Western powers?
5728bda43acd2414000dfd8d
deterioration in relations with Russia
366
False
Since regaining independence, Estonia has pursued a foreign policy of close co-operation with its Western European partners. The two most important policy objectives in this regard have been accession into NATO and the European Union, achieved in March and May 2004 respectively. Estonia's international realignment toward the West has been accompanied by a general deterioration in relations with Russia, most recently demonstrated by the protest triggered by the controversial relocation of the Bronze Soldier World War II memorial in Tallinn.
Which Baltic countries have cooperated with Estonia since the early 1990s?
5728be814b864d1900164d3e
Latvia and Lithuania
96
False
What is the combined group of the interparliamentary Baltic Assembly and the intergovernmental Baltic Council of Ministers?
5728be814b864d1900164d3f
The Baltic Council
176
False
What is the name of the joint group that Estonia shares with Denmark and 7 other countries?
5728be814b864d1900164d40
Nordic-Baltic Eight
322
False
What year did Parliamentary co-operation between the Baltic Assembly and Nordic Council start?
5728be824b864d1900164d41
1989
704
False
Since the early 1990s, Estonia is involved in active trilateral Baltic states co-operation with Latvia and Lithuania, and Nordic-Baltic co-operation with the Nordic countries. The Baltic Council is the joint forum of the interparliamentary Baltic Assembly (BA) and the intergovernmental Baltic Council of Ministers (BCM). Nordic-Baltic Eight (NB-8) is the joint co-operation of the governments of Denmark, Estonia, Finland, Iceland, Latvia, Lithuania, Norway and Sweden. Nordic-Baltic Six (NB-6), comprising Nordic-Baltic countries that are European Union member states, is a framework for meetings on EU related issues. Parliamentary co-operation between the Baltic Assembly and Nordic Council began in 1989. Annual summits take place, and in addition meetings are organised on all possible levels: speakers, presidiums, commissions, and individual members. The Nordic Council of Ministers has an office in Tallinn with a subsidiary in Tartu and information points in Narva, Valga and Pärnu. Joint Nordic-Baltic projects include the education programme Nordplus and mobility programmes for business and industry and for public administration.
What has been a major factor in the restoration of Estonia after winning their independence?
5728bf712ca10214002da6da
closer ties with the Nordic countries
75
False
When did Toomas Hendrik Ilves deliver his speech?
5728bf712ca10214002da6db
December 1999
299
False
Who expressed a speech called "Estonia as a Nordic Country"?
5728bf712ca10214002da6dc
Toomas Hendrik Ilves
384
False
What year did the foreign ministry hold an exhibit exploring the Nordic ties of Estonia?
5728bf712ca10214002da6dd
2003
518
False
An important element in Estonia's post-independence reorientation has been closer ties with the Nordic countries, especially Finland and Sweden. Indeed, Estonians consider themselves a Nordic people rather than Balts, based on their historical ties with Sweden, Denmark and particularly Finland. In December 1999, then Estonian foreign minister (and since 2006, president of Estonia) Toomas Hendrik Ilves delivered a speech entitled "Estonia as a Nordic Country" to the Swedish Institute for International Affairs. In 2003, the foreign ministry also hosted an exhibit called "Estonia: Nordic with a Twist".
When did Estonia join the European Union's Nordic Battle Group?
5728c01f4b864d1900164d50
2005
3
False
What government institution did Estonia continue to show desire in joining?
5728c01f4b864d1900164d51
the Nordic Council
114
False
What percentage of Estonia's foreign trade was held by Russia in 1992?
5728c01f4b864d1900164d52
92%
171
False
What percentage of Estonia exports are sent to Nordic countries?
5728c01f4b864d1900164d53
42%
442
False
In 2005, Estonia joined the European Union's Nordic Battle Group. It has also shown continued interest in joining the Nordic Council. Whereas in 1992 Russia accounted for 92% of Estonia's international trade, today there is extensive economic interdependence between Estonia and its Nordic neighbours: three quarters of foreign investment in Estonia originates in the Nordic countries (principally Finland and Sweden), to which Estonia sends 42% of its exports (as compared to 6.5% going to Russia, 8.8% to Latvia, and 4.7% to Lithuania). On the other hand, the Estonian political system, its flat rate of income tax, and its non-welfare-state model distinguish it from the Nordic countries and their Nordic model, and indeed from many other European countries.
What name describes the combined body of all Estonia military?
5728c0912ca10214002da700
the Estonian Defence Forces
38
False
What is the name of Estonia's Army?
5728c0912ca10214002da701
Maavägi
157
False
What is the name of Estonia's Navy?
5728c0912ca10214002da702
Merevägi
173
False
What is the name of Estonia's Air Force?
5728c0912ca10214002da703
Õhuvägi
190
False
The military of Estonia is based upon the Estonian Defence Forces (Estonian: Kaitsevägi), which is the name of the unified armed forces of the republic with Maavägi (Army), Merevägi (Navy), Õhuvägi (Air Force) and a paramilitary national guard organisation Kaitseliit (Defence League). The Estonian National Defence Policy aim is to guarantee the preservation of the independence and sovereignty of the state, the integrity of its land, territorial waters, airspace and its constitutional order. Current strategic goals are to defend the country's interests, develop the armed forces for interoperability with other NATO and EU member forces, and participation in NATO missions.
Which countries aid Estonia in trilateral defense strategies?
5728c1523acd2414000dfda7
Latvia and Lithuania
25
False
What joint military educational academy does Estonia share with Baltic Countries?
5728c1523acd2414000dfda8
the Baltic Defence College
274
False
Where is the Baltic Defence College located?
5728c1523acd2414000dfda9
Tartu
304
False
When were the Baltic states asked to join NORDEFCO?
5728c1523acd2414000dfdaa
January 2011
552
False
Estonia co-operates with Latvia and Lithuania in several trilateral Baltic defence co-operation initiatives, including Baltic Battalion (BALTBAT), Baltic Naval Squadron (BALTRON), Baltic Air Surveillance Network (BALTNET) and joint military educational institutions such as the Baltic Defence College in Tartu. Future co-operation will include sharing of national infrastructures for training purposes and specialisation of training areas (BALTTRAIN) and collective formation of battalion-sized contingents for use in the NATO rapid-response force. In January 2011 the Baltic states were invited to join NORDEFCO, the defence framework of the Nordic countries.
Who have been jointly working on protection against cyberwarfare?
5728c1f53acd2414000dfdb9
The Ministry of Defence and the Defence Forces
0
False
What year was a declaration of e-military introduced?
5728c1f53acd2414000dfdba
2007
128
False
What event in 2007 led to a need for e-military action?
5728c1f53acd2414000dfdbb
massive cyberattacks
233
False
When was the Computer Emergency Response Team of Estonia established?
5728c1f53acd2414000dfdbc
2006
471
False
The Ministry of Defence and the Defence Forces have been working on a cyberwarfare and defence formation for some years now. In 2007, a military doctrine of an e-military of Estonia was officially introduced as the country was under massive cyberattacks in 2007. The proposed aim of the e-military is to secure the vital infrastructure and e-infrastructure of Estonia. The main cyber warfare facility is the Computer Emergency Response Team of Estonia (CERT), founded in 2006. The organisation operates on security issues in local networks.
What institution views the economy of Estonia as high income?
5728c2833acd2414000dfdc1
the World Bank
82
False
What was the GDP of Estonia in 2015?
5728c2833acd2414000dfdc2
$28,781
179
False
What countries share similar levels of GDP with Estonia?
5728c2833acd2414000dfdc3
Slovak Republic and Lithuania
225
False
Where is Estonia ranked in the 2015 Index of Economic Freedom?
5728c2833acd2414000dfdc4
8th
347
False
As a member of the European Union, Estonia is considered a high-income economy by the World Bank. The GDP (PPP) per capita of the country, a good indicator of wealth, was in 2015 $28,781 according to the IMF, between that of Slovak Republic and Lithuania, but below that of other long-time EU members such as Italy or Spain. The country is ranked 8th in the 2015 Index of Economic Freedom, and the 4th freest economy in Europe. Because of its rapid growth, Estonia has often been described as a Baltic Tiger beside Lithuania and Latvia. Beginning 1 January 2011, Estonia adopted the euro and became the 17th eurozone member state.
How much of consumed electricity does Estonia produce by itself?
5728c3354b864d1900164d84
75%
23
False
What percentage of electricity was produced with local oil shale in 2011?
5728c3354b864d1900164d85
about 85%
64
False
What alternative energy sources account for 9% of energy production?
5728c3354b864d1900164d86
wood, peat, and biomass
159
False
What percentage of electricity was produced from renewable energy in 2009?
5728c3354b864d1900164d87
6%
270
False
Estonia produces about 75% of its consumed electricity. In 2011 about 85% of it was generated with locally mined oil shale. Alternative energy sources such as wood, peat, and biomass make up approximately 9% of primary energy production. Renewable wind energy was about 6% of total consumption in 2009. Estonia imports petroleum products from western Europe and Russia. Oil shale energy, telecommunications, textiles, chemical products, banking, services, food and fishing, timber, shipbuilding, electronics, and transportation are key sectors of the economy. The ice-free port of Muuga, near Tallinn, is a modern facility featuring good transshipment capability, a high-capacity grain elevator, chill/frozen storage, and new oil tanker off-loading capabilities.[citation needed] The railroad serves as a conduit between the West, Russia, and other points to the East.[citation needed]
When did the global economic recession start?
5728c4c42ca10214002da74a
2007
55
False
What trend led to the decrease of Estonia's GDP?
5728c4c42ca10214002da74b
global economic recession
15
False
Who approved the supplementary negative budget drafted by the Estonian government?
5728c4c42ca10214002da74c
Riigikogu
284
False
What year did Estonia start their economic rise based on strong exports?
5728c4c42ca10214002da74d
2010
406
False
Because of the global economic recession that began in 2007, the GDP of Estonia decreased by 1.4% in the 2nd quarter of 2008, over 3% in the 3rd quarter of 2008, and over 9% in the 4th quarter of 2008. The Estonian government made a supplementary negative budget, which was passed by Riigikogu. The revenue of the budget was decreased for 2008 by EEK 6.1 billion and the expenditure by EEK 3.2 billion. In 2010, the economic situation stabilized and started a growth based on strong exports. In the fourth quarter of 2010, Estonian industrial output increased by 23% compared to the year before. The country has been experiencing economic growth ever since.
What Estonia view itself as after winning independence?
5728c53f4b864d1900164db6
the gateway between East and West
65
False
What year did Estonia establish a flat tax?
5728c53f4b864d1900164db7
1994
278
False
Who was the source of influence for the flat tax?
5728c53f4b864d1900164db8
Milton Friedman
318
False
What was tax rate imposed on the personal income?
5728c53f4b864d1900164db9
a uniform rate of 26%
403
False
Since re-establishing independence, Estonia has styled itself as the gateway between East and West and aggressively pursued economic reform and integration with the West. Estonia's market reforms put it among the economic leaders in the former COMECON area.[citation needed] In 1994, based on the economic theories of Milton Friedman, Estonia became one of the first countries to adopt a flat tax, with a uniform rate of 26% regardless of personal income. In January 2005, the personal income tax rate was reduced to 24%. Another reduction to 23% followed in January 2006. The income tax rate was decreased to 21% by January 2008. The Government of Estonia finalised the design of Estonian euro coins in late 2004, and adopted the euro as the country's currency on 1 January 2011, later than planned due to continued high inflation. A Land Value Tax is levied which is used to fund local municipalities. It is a state level tax, however 100% of the revenue is used to fund Local Councils. The rate is set by the Local Council within the limits of 0.1–2.5%. It is one of the most important sources of funding for municipalities. The Land Value Tax is levied on the value of the land only with improvements and buildings not considered. Very few exemptions are considered on the land value tax and even public institutions are subject to the tax. The tax has contributed to a high rate (~90%) of owner-occupied residences within Estonia, compared to a rate of 67.4% in the United States.
What was the worst economic year for Estonia after winning independence?
5728c5e62ca10214002da780
1999
3
False
What year did Estonia reclaim their independence?
5728c5e62ca10214002da781
1991
91
False
What event played a major part in the decline of the economy during 1999?
5728c5e62ca10214002da782
the 1998 Russian financial crisis
130
False
When did Estonia unite with the WTO?
5728c5e62ca10214002da783
November 1999
208
False
In 1999, Estonia experienced its worst year economically since it regained independence in 1991, largely because of the impact of the 1998 Russian financial crisis.[citation needed] Estonia joined the WTO in November 1999. With assistance from the European Union, the World Bank and the Nordic Investment Bank, Estonia completed most of its preparations for European Union membership by the end of 2002 and now has one of the strongest economies of the new member states of the European Union.[citation needed] Estonia joined the OECD in 2010.
What lacking resource does Estonia depend on other countries for?
5728c6a94b864d1900164dd6
energy
47
False
What type of energy production as many companies been investing in recent years?
5728c6a94b864d1900164dd7
renewable energy sources
149
False
What energy source has been increasing in Estonia?
5728c6a94b864d1900164dd8
wind power
210
False
What is total amount of energy production from wind power?
5728c6a94b864d1900164dd9
nearly 60 MW
326
False
Estonia is a dependent country in the terms of energy and energy production. In recent years many local and foreign companies have been investing in renewable energy sources.[citation needed] The importance of wind power has been increasing steadily in Estonia and currently the total amount of energy production from wind is nearly 60 MW while at the same time roughly 399 MW worth of projects are currently being developed and more than 2800 MW worth of projects are being proposed in the Lake Peipus area and the coastal areas of Hiiumaa.
In what region does Estonia hold one of the highest per capita income levels?
5728c74d2ca10214002da7a4
Eastern
111
False
Being close to what commercial area gives Estonia a competitive advantage?
5728c74d2ca10214002da7a5
Scandinavian markets
144
False
What is a major trait of the Estonian employed workers?
5728c74d2ca10214002da7a6
highly skilled
239
False
What is the largest city in Estonia?
5728c74d2ca10214002da7a7
Tallinn
380
False
Estonia has had a market economy since the end of the 1990s and one of the highest per capita income levels in Eastern Europe. Proximity to the Scandinavian markets, its location between the East and West, competitive cost structure and a highly skilled labour force have been the major Estonian comparative advantages in the beginning of the 2000s (decade). As the largest city, Tallinn has emerged as a financial centre and the Tallinn Stock Exchange joined recently with the OMX system. The current government has pursued tight fiscal policies, resulting in balanced budgets and low public debt.
When did a huge deficit and rising inflation place pressure on Estonia's currency?
5728c8262ca10214002da7b6
2007
3
False
What area of commerce did Estonia need to expand?
5728c8262ca10214002da7b7
export-generating industries
173
False
How much electricity is imported by Estonia annually?
5728c8262ca10214002da7b8
200 million kilowatt hours
559
False
How much electricity is exported by Estonia annually?
5728c8262ca10214002da7b9
1.562 billion kilowatt hours
358
False
In 2007, however, a large current account deficit and rising inflation put pressure on Estonia's currency, which was pegged to the Euro, highlighting the need for growth in export-generating industries. Estonia exports mainly machinery and equipment, wood and paper, textiles, food products, furniture, and metals and chemical products. Estonia also exports 1.562 billion kilowatt hours of electricity annually. At the same time Estonia imports machinery and equipment, chemical products, textiles, food products and transportation equipment. Estonia imports 200 million kilowatt hours of electricity annually.
How much money did Estonia receive from European Union Structural Funds between 2007 and 2013?
5728c8c03acd2414000dfe59
53.3 billion kroons (3.4 billion euros)
40
False
What year was the start of investments from the European Union Structural Funds?
5728c8c03acd2414000dfe5a
2007
8
False
What year was the end of investments from the European Union Structural Funds?
5728c8c03acd2414000dfe5b
2013
17
False
Between 2007 and 2013, Estonia receives 53.3 billion kroons (3.4 billion euros) from various European Union Structural Funds as direct supports by creating the largest foreign investments into Estonia ever. Majority of the European Union financial aid will be invested into to the following fields: energy economies, entrepreneurship, administrative capability, education, information society, environment protection, regional and local development, research and development activities, healthcare and welfare, transportation and labour market.
What period did the amount of ethnic Estonians drop by 61%?
5728c96c4b864d1900164e20
Between 1945 and 1989
0
False
What trend caused the drop of ethnic Estonians?
5728c96c4b864d1900164e21
mass immigration of urban industrial workers from Russia, Ukraine, and Belarus
198
False
Who ordered large scales of deportations and executions?
5728c96c4b864d1900164e22
Joseph Stalin
315
False
What year did minorities in Estonia make up more than a third of the country?
5728c96c4b864d1900164e23
1989
385
False
Between 1945 and 1989, the share of ethnic Estonians in the population resident within the currently defined boundaries of Estonia dropped to 61%, caused primarily by the Soviet programme promoting mass immigration of urban industrial workers from Russia, Ukraine, and Belarus, as well as by wartime emigration and Joseph Stalin's mass deportations and executions.[citation needed] By 1989, minorities constituted more than one-third of the population, as the number of non-Estonians had grown almost fivefold.
How did Estonians view the demographic change of less ethnic Estonians?
5728ca18ff5b5019007da6b0
a national catastrophe
73
False
What Russian institutions were removed in the decade following Estonia's reclaim of independence?
5728ca18ff5b5019007da6b1
Russian military bases
470
False
What percentage of Estonians were ethnic in 2006?
5728ca18ff5b5019007da6b2
69%
578
False
At the end of the 1980s, Estonians perceived their demographic change as a national catastrophe. This was a result of the migration policies essential to the Soviet Nationalisation Programme aiming to russify Estonia – administrative and military immigration of non-Estonians from the USSR coupled with the deportation of Estonians to the USSR. In the decade following the reconstitution of independence, large-scale emigration by ethnic Russians and the removal of the Russian military bases in 1994 caused the proportion of ethnic Estonians in Estonia to increase from 61% to 69% in 2006.
What number of Estonia's counties are over 80% ethnic Estonian?
5728cbb5ff5b5019007da6c6
Thirteen
201
False
How many counties are in Estonia?
5728cbb5ff5b5019007da6c7
15
223
False
Which county in Estonia is the most uniform?
5728cbb5ff5b5019007da6c8
Hiiumaa
292
False
What percentage accounts for the total number people living in Hiiumaa that are ethnic Estonians?
5728cbb5ff5b5019007da6c9
98.4%
329
False
What number describes the percentage of Russian Estonians?
5728cbb5ff5b5019007da6ca
25.6%
527
False
Modern Estonia is a fairly ethnically heterogeneous country, but this heterogeneity is not a feature of much of the country as the non-Estonian population is concentrated in two of Estonia's counties. Thirteen of Estonia's 15 counties are over 80% ethnic Estonian, the most homogeneous being Hiiumaa, where Estonians account for 98.4% of the population. In the counties of Harju (including the capital city, Tallinn) and Ida-Viru, however, ethnic Estonians make up 60% and 20% of the population, respectively. Russians make up 25.6% of the total population but account for 36% of the population in Harju county and 70% of the population in Ida-Viru county.
What year was the Estonian Cultural Autonomy law established?
5728d0114b864d1900164ea2
1925
54
False
In 1925, what rule did Estonia create that was unique in Europe?
5728d0114b864d1900164ea3
The Estonian Cultural Autonomy law
0
False
How many minorities were granted cultural autonomies?
5728d0114b864d1900164ea4
more than 3,000 people
155
False
What groups of minorities could elect a cultural council before the Soviet occupation?
5728d0114b864d1900164ea5
Germans and Jewish minorities
263
False
The Estonian Cultural Autonomy law that was passed in 1925 was unique in Europe at that time. Cultural autonomies could be granted to minorities numbering more than 3,000 people with longstanding ties to the Republic of Estonia. Before the Soviet occupation, the Germans and Jewish minorities managed to elect a cultural council. The Law on Cultural Autonomy for National Minorities was reinstated in 1993. Historically, large parts of Estonia's northwestern coast and islands have been populated by indigenous ethnically Rannarootslased (Coastal Swedes).
What document labeled the the description of the citizenship policy of Estonia as "discriminatory"?
5728d0ccff5b5019007da728
The 2008 United Nations Human Rights Council report
0
False
What percentage of Estonian Russians have though of going back to Russia?
5728d0ccff5b5019007da729
5%
181
False
What proportion of Estonian Russians see themselves as different from their Russian counterparts?
5728d0ccff5b5019007da72a
more than half
319
False
The 2008 United Nations Human Rights Council report called "extremely credible" the description of the citizenship policy of Estonia as "discriminatory". According to surveys, only 5% of the Russian community have considered returning to Russia in the near future. Estonian Russians have developed their own identity – more than half of the respondents recognised that Estonian Russians differ noticeably from the Russians in Russia. When comparing the result with a survey from 2000, then Russians' attitude toward the future is much more positive.
What guarantees freedom of religion for Estonian citizens?
5728d14fff5b5019007da738
Estonia's constitution
0
False
Estonia's constitution declares the division of what parts of society?
5728d14fff5b5019007da739
separation of church and state
55
False
What individual privacy rights are citizens granted?
5728d14fff5b5019007da73a
belief and religion
123
False
What percentage of Estonians claim no religion?
5728d14fff5b5019007da73b
75.7%
264
False
Estonia's constitution guarantees freedom of religion, separation of church and state, and individual rights to privacy of belief and religion. According to the Dentsu Communication Institute Inc, Estonia is one of the least religious countries in the world, with 75.7% of the population claiming to be irreligious. The Eurobarometer Poll 2005 found that only 16% of Estonians profess a belief in a god, the lowest belief of all countries studied (EU study). According to the Lutheran World Federation, the historic Lutheran denomination remains a large presence with 180,000 registered members.
What is the major group that believes in Eastern Orthodox Christianity?
5728d1d7ff5b5019007da74a
Russian minority
100
False
Which religious group is the second largest with 150,000 members?
5728d1d7ff5b5019007da74b
the Russian Orthodox Church
122
False
What religious group do Catholics in Estonia follow?
5728d1d7ff5b5019007da74c
Latin Apostolic Administration of Estonia
501
False
Another major group, inhabitants who follow Eastern Orthodox Christianity, practised chiefly by the Russian minority, and the Russian Orthodox Church is the second largest denomination with 150,000 members. The Estonian Apostolic Orthodox Church, under the Greek-Orthodox Ecumenical Patriarchate, claims another 20,000 members. Thus, the number of adherents of Lutheranism and Orthodoxy, without regard to citizenship or ethnicity, is roughly equal. Refer to the Table below. The Catholics have their Latin Apostolic Administration of Estonia.
What language does Estonian share similar words with?
5728d26f3acd2414000dff5b
Germanic
26
False
What proportion of vocabulary did Estonia borrow from Germany?
5728d26f3acd2414000dff5c
nearly one third
210
False
What standard language did Estonia adopt during German rule?
5728d26f3acd2414000dff5d
High German
350
False
What percentage of the Estonia language includes Low Saxon words?
5728d26f3acd2414000dff5e
about 15 percent
505
False
Although the Estonian and Germanic languages are of very different origins, one can identify many similar words in Estonian and German, for example. This is primarily because the Estonian language has borrowed nearly one third of its vocabulary from Germanic languages, mainly from Low Saxon (Middle Low German) during the period of German rule, and High German (including standard German). The percentage of Low Saxon and High German loanwords can be estimated at 22–25 percent, with Low Saxon making up about 15 percent.
What are the three levels of higher learning in Estonia?
5728d3294b864d1900164ee2
bachelor's, master's, and doctoral studies
67
False
What medical fields have their bachelor's and master's levels combined into one unit?
5728d3294b864d1900164ee3
basic medical studies, veterinary, pharmacy, dentistry
132
False
What do Estonian public universities have more of than higher education institutions?
5728d3294b864d1900164ee4
autonomy
361
False
What is the largest private university in Estonia?
5728d3294b864d1900164ee5
Estonian Business School
965
False
Academic higher education in Estonia is divided into three levels: bachelor's, master's, and doctoral studies. In some specialties (basic medical studies, veterinary, pharmacy, dentistry, architect-engineer, and a classroom teacher programme) the bachelor's and master's levels are integrated into one unit. Estonian public universities have significantly more autonomy than applied higher education institutions. In addition to organising the academic life of the university, universities can create new curricula, establish admission terms and conditions, approve the budget, approve the development plan, elect the rector, and make restricted decisions in matters concerning assets. Estonia has a moderate number of public and private universities. The largest public universities are the University of Tartu, Tallinn University of Technology, Tallinn University, Estonian University of Life Sciences, Estonian Academy of Arts; the largest private university is Estonian Business School.
What is the main science institution in Estonia?
5728d3cd2ca10214002da8be
The Estonian Academy of Sciences
0
False
What is the strongest research body that executes fundamental and applied research?
5728d3cd2ca10214002da8bf
the National Institute of Chemical Physics and Biophysics
173
False
What decade were the first computer centers created in Estonia?
5728d3cd2ca10214002da8c0
the late 1950s
302
False
What cities were the locations of the first computer centers?
5728d3cd2ca10214002da8c1
Tartu and Tallinn
320
False
The Estonian Academy of Sciences is the national academy of science. The strongest public non-profit research institute that carries out fundamental and applied research is the National Institute of Chemical Physics and Biophysics (NICPB; Estonian KBFI). The first computer centres were established in the late 1950s in Tartu and Tallinn. Estonian specialists contributed in the development of software engineering standards for ministries of the Soviet Union during the 1980s. As of 2011[update], Estonia spends around 2.38% of its GDP on Research and Development, compared to an EU average of around 2.0%.
What virtues does modern Estonian society promote?
5728d481ff5b5019007da7a8
liberty and liberalism
35
False
What size and power of government is popular in Estonia?
5728d481ff5b5019007da7a9
limited government, discouraging centralised power and corruption
104
False
What is a highly prized fixture of Estonian society?
5728d481ff5b5019007da7aa
free education
240
False
What ideal does Estonia hold towards the environment?
5728d481ff5b5019007da7ab
closeness to nature
599
False
Today, Estonian society encourages liberty and liberalism, with popular commitment to the ideals of the limited government, discouraging centralised power and corruption. The Protestant work ethic remains a significant cultural staple, and free education is a highly prized institution. Like the mainstream culture in the other Nordic countries, Estonian culture can be seen to build upon the ascetic environmental realities and traditional livelihoods, a heritage of comparatively widespread egalitarianism out of practical reasons (see: Everyman's right and universal suffrage), and the ideals of closeness to nature and self-sufficiency (see: summer cottage).
What institute provides education in art, design, and media?
5728d51a4b864d1900164f06
The Estonian Academy of Arts
0
False
What institute promotes awareness of native culture?
5728d51a4b864d1900164f07
Viljandi Culture Academy of University of Tartu
170
False
What parts of native culture does the Viljandi Culture Academy highlight?
5728d51a4b864d1900164f08
native construction, native blacksmithing, native textile design
289
False
How many Estonian museums existed in 2010?
5728d51a4b864d1900164f09
245
453
False
The Estonian Academy of Arts (Estonian: Eesti Kunstiakadeemia, EKA) is providing higher education in art, design, architecture, media, art history and conservation while Viljandi Culture Academy of University of Tartu has an approach to popularise native culture through such curricula as native construction, native blacksmithing, native textile design, traditional handicraft and traditional music, but also jazz and church music. In 2010, there were 245 museums in Estonia whose combined collections contain more than 10 million objects.
What name describes the Estonian Song Festivals?
5728d5aa3acd2414000dffc5
Laulupidu
42
False
What year did the tradition of Laulupidu start?
5728d5aa3acd2414000dffc6
1869
113
False
How many people celebrated Laulupidu in 2004?
5728d5aa3acd2414000dffc7
about 100,000 people
196
False
Where does Laulupidu usually take place?
5728d5aa3acd2414000dffc8
the Tallinn Song Festival Grounds
264
False
When does Laulupidu occur?
5728d5aa3acd2414000dffc9
every five years in July
334
False
The tradition of Estonian Song Festivals (Laulupidu) started at the height of the Estonian national awakening in 1869. Today, it is one of the largest amateur choral events in the world. In 2004, about 100,000 people participated in the Song Festival. Since 1928, the Tallinn Song Festival Grounds (Lauluväljak) have hosted the event every five years in July. The last festival took place in July 2014. In addition, Youth Song Festivals are also held every four or five years, the last of them in 2011, and the next is scheduled for 2017.
What year did Estonia win the Eurovision Song Contest?
5728d63f2ca10214002da904
2001
43
False
Who performed the song "Everybody"?
5728d63f2ca10214002da905
Tanel Padar and Dave Benton
87
False
What year did Estonia host the Eurovision Song Contest?
5728d63f2ca10214002da906
2002
119
False
What performer has represented Estonia two different times?
5728d63f2ca10214002da907
Maarja-Liis Ilus
151
False
What was the first ever Estonian song to hit the popular European charts?
5728d63f2ca10214002da908
"Rändajad" by Urban Symphony
433
False
Estonia won the Eurovision Song Contest in 2001 with the song "Everybody" performed by Tanel Padar and Dave Benton. In 2002, Estonia hosted the event. Maarja-Liis Ilus has competed for Estonia on two occasions (1996 and 1997), while Eda-Ines Etti, Koit Toome and Evelin Samuel owe their popularity partly to the Eurovision Song Contest. Lenna Kuurmaa is a very popular singer in Europe[citation needed], with her band Vanilla Ninja. "Rändajad" by Urban Symphony, was the first ever song in Estonian to chart in the UK, Belgium, and Switzerland.
What event preceded the domination of Estonia by different European powers?
5728d6f84b864d1900164f34
the Northern Crusades
136
False
Which three nations occupied Estonia up until 1918?
5728d6f84b864d1900164f35
Germany, Sweden, and Russia
192
False
What era contains the oldest records of written Estonia works?
5728d6f84b864d1900164f36
the 13th century
340
False
What document dated in 1241 contains place and family names?
5728d6f84b864d1900164f37
The Liber Census Daniae
476
False
The Estonian literature refers to literature written in the Estonian language (ca. 1 million speakers). The domination of Estonia after the Northern Crusades, from the 13th century to 1918 by Germany, Sweden, and Russia resulted in few early written literary works in the Estonian language. The oldest records of written Estonian date from the 13th century. Originates Livoniae in Chronicle of Henry of Livonia contains Estonian place names, words and fragments of sentences. The Liber Census Daniae (1241) contains Estonian place and family names.
Who was the most famous prose writer in early Estonian history?
5728d78e4b864d1900164f44
Oskar Luts
0
False
What is the name of lyrical novel written by Oskar Luts?
5728d78e4b864d1900164f45
Kevade
149
False
What is the name of the book written by Anton Hansen Tammsaare?
5728d78e4b864d1900164f46
Truth and Justice
239
False
Who wrote a book detailing Estonia's rise from peasants to independence?
5728d78e4b864d1900164f47
Anton Hansen Tammsaare
166
False
Oskar Luts was the most prominent prose writer of the early Estonian literature, who is still widely read today, especially his lyrical school novel Kevade (Spring). Anton Hansen Tammsaare's social epic and psychological realist pentalogy Truth and Justice captured the evolution of Estonian society from a peasant community to an independent nation. In modern times, Jaan Kross and Jaan Kaplinski are Estonia's best known and most translated writers. Among the most popular writers of the late 20th and early 21st centuries are Tõnu Õnnepalu and Andrus Kivirähk, who uses elements of Estonian folklore and mythology, deforming them into absurd and grotesque.
Which medieval town is on the UNESCO World Heritage List?
5728d8144b864d1900164f5c
Tallinn
200
False
When were the preserved hill forts in Estonia built?
5728d8144b864d1900164f5d
pre-Christian times
344
False
What institutional structures still exist from medieval times?
5728d8144b864d1900164f5e
castles and churches
405
False
The architectural history of Estonia mainly reflects its contemporary development in northern Europe. Worth mentioning is especially the architectural ensemble that makes out the medieval old town of Tallinn, which is on the UNESCO World Heritage List. In addition, the country has several unique, more or less preserved hill forts dating from pre-Christian times, a large number of still intact medieval castles and churches, while the countryside is still shaped by the presence of a vast number of manor houses from earlier centuries.
What factors have influenced Estonian food for most of their history?
5728d8be4b864d1900164f6a
seasons and simple peasant food
67
False
What are the most common foods in Estonia?
5728d8be4b864d1900164f6b
black bread, pork, potatoes, and dairy products.
253
False
What fresh items do Estonians traditionally enjoy in summer and spring?
5728d8be4b864d1900164f6c
berries, herbs, vegetables
379
False
What food gathering behaviors are now seen as hobbies in modern Estonian culture?
5728d8be4b864d1900164f6d
Hunting and fishing
464
False
Historically, the cuisine of Estonia has been heavily dependent on seasons and simple peasant food, which today is influenced by many countries. Today, it includes many typical international foods.[citation needed] The most typical foods in Estonia are black bread, pork, potatoes, and dairy products. Traditionally in summer and spring, Estonians like to eat everything fresh – berries, herbs, vegetables, and everything else that comes straight from the garden. Hunting and fishing have also been very common, although currently hunting and fishing are enjoyed mostly as hobbies. Today, it is also very popular to grill outside in summer.
What physical activity plays a major part in Estonian society?
5728d95f2ca10214002da96e
Sport
0
False
What year did Estonia declare independence from Russia?
5728d95f2ca10214002da96f
1918
95
False
What event did Estonia compete in as a nation for the first time ever?
5728d95f2ca10214002da970
the 1920 Summer Olympics
139
False
What year was Estonia annexed by Russia?
5728d95f2ca10214002da971
1940
332
False
What city hosted the 1980 Summer Olympics Sailing regatta?
5728d95f2ca10214002da972
Tallinn
408
False
Sport plays an important role in Estonian culture. After declaring independence from Russia in 1918, Estonia first competed as a nation at the 1920 Summer Olympics, although the National Olympic Committee was established in 1923. Estonian athletes took part of the Olympic Games until the country was annexed by the Soviet Union in 1940. The 1980 Summer Olympics Sailing regatta was held in the capital city Tallinn. After regaining independence in 1991, Estonia has participated in all Olympics. Estonia has won most of its medals in athletics, weightlifting, wrestling and cross-country skiing. Estonia has had very good success at the Olympic games given the country's small population. Estonia's best results were being ranked 13th in the medal table at the 1936 Summer Olympics, and 12th at the 2006 Winter Olympics.
What year did Estonia's basketball team first compete in the Summer Olympics
5728da2b2ca10214002da98c
1936
107
False
How many instances has Estonia appeared in the EuroBasket tournament?
5728da2b2ca10214002da98d
four
152
False
Which Estonian football club competes in the EuroCup?
5728da2b2ca10214002da98e
BC Kalev/Cramo
252
False
What is the name of second best basketball club in Estonia?
5728da2b2ca10214002da98f
Tartu Ülikool/Rock
404
False
How many Estonian teams are in the Baltic Basketball League?
5728da2b2ca10214002da990
Six
563
False
Basketball is also a notable sport in Estonia. Estonia national basketball team previously participated in 1936 Summer Olympics, appeared in EuroBasket four times. Estonia national team also qualified to EuroBasket 2015, which will be held in Ukraine. BC Kalev/Cramo, which participates in EuroCup, is the most recent Korvpalli Meistriliiga winner after becoming champion of the league for the 6th time. Tartu Ülikool/Rock, which participates in EuroChallenge, is the second strongest Estonian basketball club, previously winning Korvpalli Meistriliiga 22 times. Six Estonian basketball clubs participates in Baltic Basketball League.
Alaska
How many of Alaska's residents reside in the Anchorage area?
5728591aff5b5019007da1a4
Approximately half
549
False
What is Alaska's total population according to the 2015 Census?
5728591aff5b5019007da1a5
738,432
614
False
Which industries are most prevalent in Alaska's economy?
5728591aff5b5019007da1a6
fishing, natural gas, and oil
734
False
Where does Alaska rank in population comparative to other US states?
5728591aff5b5019007da1a7
3rd least populous
473
False
How does Alaska compare in size to other US states?
5728591aff5b5019007da1a8
largest state in the United States by area
425
False
Approximately half
549
How many of Alaska's residents die in the Anchorage area?
5ad403aa604f3c001a3ffd8d
True
738,432
614
What is Alaska's total population according to the 2014 Census?
5ad403aa604f3c001a3ffd8e
True
fishing, natural gas, and oil
734
Which industries are least prevalent in Alaska's economy?
5ad403aa604f3c001a3ffd8f
True
3rd least populous
473
Where does Alaska rank in population comparative to other UN states?
5ad403aa604f3c001a3ffd90
True
largest state in the United States by area
425
How does Alaska compare in size to other UN states?
5ad403aa604f3c001a3ffd91
True
Alaska (i/əˈlæskə/) is a U.S. state situated in the northwest extremity of the Americas. The Canadian administrative divisions of British Columbia and Yukon border the state to the east while Russia has a maritime border with the state to the west across the Bering Strait. To the north are the Chukchi and Beaufort Seas, the southern parts of the Arctic Ocean. To the south and southwest is the Pacific Ocean. Alaska is the largest state in the United States by area, the 3rd least populous and the least densely populated of the 50 United States. Approximately half of Alaska's residents (the total estimated at 738,432 by the Census Bureau in 2015) live within the Anchorage metropolitan area. Alaska's economy is dominated by the fishing, natural gas, and oil industries, resources which it has in abundance. Military bases and tourism are also a significant part of the economy.
What are the contiguous states sometimes called?
572859fdff5b5019007da1ae
"the Lower 48"
508
False
What is Alaska's capital city?
572859fdff5b5019007da1af
Juneau
542
False
How many miles are between Alaska and Washington state?
572859fdff5b5019007da1b0
500
273
False
Which set of islands extend into the Eastern Hemisphere?
572859fdff5b5019007da1b1
Aleutian Islands
139
False
the Lower 48
509
What are the contiguous states always called?
5ad403fd604f3c001a3ffdad
True
the Lower 48
509
What aren't the contiguous states sometimes called?
5ad403fd604f3c001a3ffdae
True
Juneau
542
What isn't Alaska's capital city?
5ad403fd604f3c001a3ffdaf
True
500
273
How many miles are between Alaska and Washington DC?
5ad403fd604f3c001a3ffdb0
True
Aleutian Islands
139
Which set of islands stop before the Eastern Hemisphere?
5ad403fd604f3c001a3ffdb1
True
Alaska is the northernmost and westernmost state in the United States and has the most easterly longitude in the United States because the Aleutian Islands extend into the eastern hemisphere. Alaska is the only non-contiguous U.S. state on continental North America; about 500 miles (800 km) of British Columbia (Canada) separates Alaska from Washington. It is technically part of the continental U.S., but is sometimes not included in colloquial use; Alaska is not part of the contiguous U.S., often called "the Lower 48". The capital city, Juneau, is situated on the mainland of the North American continent but is not connected by road to the rest of the North American highway system.
Which forest is the largest national forest in the US?
57285c163acd2414000df953
Tongass National Forest
315
False
Which city was Alaska's former capital?
57285c163acd2414000df954
Sitka
447
False
What is the area closest to the continental US called?
57285c163acd2414000df955
Panhandle or Inside Passage
24
False
Where did most settlement occur after the Louisiana Purchase?
57285c163acd2414000df956
Panhandle or Inside Passage
24
False
Tongass National Forest
315
Which forest is the smallest national forest in the US?
5ad4044a604f3c001a3ffdc5
True
Tongass National Forest
315
Which forest is the largest national forest in the UN?
5ad4044a604f3c001a3ffdc6
True
Sitka
447
Which city was Alaska's current capital?
5ad4044a604f3c001a3ffdc7
True
Panhandle or Inside Passage
24
What is the area farthest to the continental US called?
5ad4044a604f3c001a3ffdc8
True
Panhandle or Inside Passage
24
Where did least settlement occur after the Louisiana Purchase?
5ad4044a604f3c001a3ffdc9
True
Also referred to as the Panhandle or Inside Passage, this is the region of Alaska closest to the rest of the United States. As such, this was where most of the initial non-indigenous settlement occurred in the years following the Alaska Purchase. The region is dominated by the Alexander Archipelago as well as the Tongass National Forest, the largest national forest in the United States. It contains the state capital Juneau, the former capital Sitka, and Ketchikan, at one time Alaska's largest city. The Alaska Marine Highway provides a vital surface transportation link throughout the area, as only three communities (Haines, Hyder and Skagway) enjoy direct connections to the contiguous North American road system.
Which area contains the Prudhoe Bay Oil Field?
57285d362ca10214002da2ba
The North Slope
0
False
What is the northernmost city in the US?
57285d362ca10214002da2bb
Barrow
207
False
What resource is the North Slope known for?
57285d362ca10214002da2bc
massive reserves of crude oil
89
False
The North Slope
0
Which area doesn't contain the Prudhoe Bay Oil Field?
5ad40498604f3c001a3ffdd7
True
The North Slope
0
Which area contains the Prudhoe Bay Fire Field?
5ad40498604f3c001a3ffdd8
True
Barrow
207
What is the southernmost city in the US?
5ad40498604f3c001a3ffdd9
True
Barrow
207
What is the northernmost city in the UN?
5ad40498604f3c001a3ffdda
True
massive reserves of crude oil
89
What resource is the South Slope known for?
5ad40498604f3c001a3ffddb
True
The North Slope is mostly tundra peppered with small villages. The area is known for its massive reserves of crude oil, and contains both the National Petroleum Reserve–Alaska and the Prudhoe Bay Oil Field. Barrow, the northernmost city in the United States, is located here. The Northwest Arctic area, anchored by Kotzebue and also containing the Kobuk River valley, is often regarded as being part of this region. However, the respective Inupiat of the North Slope and of the Northwest Arctic seldom consider themselves to be one people.
How much tidal shoreline does Alaska have in miles?
57285f8eff5b5019007da1c0
nearly 34,000 miles
36
False
On which island is Mount Shishaldin located?
57285f8eff5b5019007da1c1
Unimak Island
248
False
What do geoligists believe is unique about Wrangellia?
57285f8eff5b5019007da1c2
actively undergoing continent building
746
False
What is most impressive about Mount Shishaldin in comparison to Mount Fuji?
57285f8eff5b5019007da1c3
most perfect volcanic cone on Earth
420
False
How high does Mount Shishaldin rise above sea level?
57285f8eff5b5019007da1c4
10,000 feet (3,048 m)
363
False
nearly 34,000 miles
36
How much tidal shoreline doesn't Alaska have in miles?
5ad404f3604f3c001a3ffdf1
True
Unimak Island
248
On which island isn't Mount Shishaldin located?
5ad404f3604f3c001a3ffdf2
True
actively undergoing continent building
746
What do geoligists believe isn't unique about Wrangellia?
5ad404f3604f3c001a3ffdf3
True
most perfect volcanic cone on Earth
420
What is least impressive about Mount Shishaldin in comparison to Mount Fuji?
5ad404f3604f3c001a3ffdf4
True
10,000 feet
363
How high does Mount Shishaldin rise below sea level?
5ad404f3604f3c001a3ffdf5
True
With its myriad islands, Alaska has nearly 34,000 miles (54,720 km) of tidal shoreline. The Aleutian Islands chain extends west from the southern tip of the Alaska Peninsula. Many active volcanoes are found in the Aleutians and in coastal regions. Unimak Island, for example, is home to Mount Shishaldin, which is an occasionally smoldering volcano that rises to 10,000 feet (3,048 m) above the North Pacific. It is the most perfect volcanic cone on Earth, even more symmetrical than Japan's Mount Fuji. The chain of volcanoes extends to Mount Spurr, west of Anchorage on the mainland. Geologists have identified Alaska as part of Wrangellia, a large region consisting of multiple states and Canadian provinces in the Pacific Northwest, which is actively undergoing continent building.
What percentage of Alaska is maintained by the US federal government?
572860b02ca10214002da2c0
65%
98
False
What types of areas are managed by the federal government as public lands?
572860b02ca10214002da2c1
national forests, national parks, and national wildlife refuges
206
False
How many acres is the Bureau of Land Management in charge of?
572860b02ca10214002da2c2
87 million
319
False
How much of the state is controlled by the Bureau of Land Management?
572860b02ca10214002da2c3
23.8%
362
False
What is the world's largest wildlife refuge?
572860b02ca10214002da2c4
The Arctic National Wildlife Refuge
382
False
65%
98
What percentage of Alaska is maintained by the UN federal government?
5ad40563604f3c001a3ffe0f
True
national parks, and national wildlife refuges
224
What types of areas are managed by the local government as public lands?
5ad40563604f3c001a3ffe10
True
87 million
319
How many acres is the Bureau of Asset Management in charge of?
5ad40563604f3c001a3ffe11
True
23.8%
362
How much of the state is uncontrolled by the Bureau of Land Management?
5ad40563604f3c001a3ffe12
True
The Arctic National Wildlife Refuge
382
What is the world's smallest wildlife refuge?
5ad40563604f3c001a3ffe13
True
According to an October 1998 report by the United States Bureau of Land Management, approximately 65% of Alaska is owned and managed by the U.S. federal government as public lands, including a multitude of national forests, national parks, and national wildlife refuges. Of these, the Bureau of Land Management manages 87 million acres (35 million hectares), or 23.8% of the state. The Arctic National Wildlife Refuge is managed by the United States Fish and Wildlife Service. It is the world's largest wildlife refuge, comprising 16 million acres (6.5 million hectares).
How many acres of its land does the state of Alaska own?
572861923acd2414000df97f
101 million acres
53
False
How much land is the state of Alaska provided by the Alaska Statehood Act?
572861923acd2414000df980
101 million acres (41 million hectares)
53
False
Why aren't homestead and subdivision areas more popular?
572861923acd2414000df981
remote and roadless locations
425
False
101 million acres
53
How many acres of its land doesn't the state of Alaska own?
5ad405aa604f3c001a3ffe23
True
101 million acres
53
How many acres of its land does the state of Alaska rent?
5ad405aa604f3c001a3ffe24
True
101 million acres (41 million hectares)
53
How much land isn't the state of Alaska provided by the Alaska Statehood Act?
5ad405aa604f3c001a3ffe25
True
remote and roadless locations
425
Why aren't homestead and subdivision areas less popular?
5ad405aa604f3c001a3ffe26
True
remote and roadless locations
425
Why aren't homestead and subdivision areas more unpopular?
5ad405aa604f3c001a3ffe27
True
Of the remaining land area, the state of Alaska owns 101 million acres (41 million hectares), its entitlement under the Alaska Statehood Act. A portion of that acreage is occasionally ceded to organized boroughs, under the statutory provisions pertaining to newly formed boroughs. Smaller portions are set aside for rural subdivisions and other homesteading-related opportunities. These are not very popular due to the often remote and roadless locations. The University of Alaska, as a land grant university, also owns substantial acreage which it manages independently.
Which group claims it is Alaska's largest private land owner?
572862bf4b864d1900164968
Doyon, Limited
213
False
What privelege do private Alaskan corporations have that its public citizens do not?
572862bf4b864d1900164969
hold title (including subsurface title in many cases
520
False
Was a law enacted in 1991 allowing corporations to sell land holdings or was it repealed?
572862bf4b864d190016496a
repealed before they could take effect
450
False
Doyon, Limited
213
Which group claims it is Alaska's smallest private land owner?
5ad40600604f3c001a3ffe37
True
Doyon, Limited
213
Which group claims it is Alaska's largest public land owner?
5ad40600604f3c001a3ffe38
True
hold title (including subsurface title in many cases
520
What privelege do public Alaskan corporations have that its public citizens do not?
5ad40600604f3c001a3ffe39
True
hold title (including subsurface title in many cases
520
What privelege do private Alaskan corporations have that its private citizens do not?
5ad40600604f3c001a3ffe3a
True
repealed before they could take effect.
450
Was a law enacted in 1919 allowing corporations to sell land holdings or was it repealed?
5ad40600604f3c001a3ffe3b
True
Another 44 million acres (18 million hectares) are owned by 12 regional, and scores of local, Native corporations created under the Alaska Native Claims Settlement Act (ANCSA) of 1971. Regional Native corporation Doyon, Limited often promotes itself as the largest private landowner in Alaska in advertisements and other communications. Provisions of ANCSA allowing the corporations' land holdings to be sold on the open market starting in 1991 were repealed before they could take effect. Effectively, the corporations hold title (including subsurface title in many cases, a privilege denied to individual Alaskans) but cannot sell the land. Individual Native allotments can be and are sold on the open market, however.
How much precipitation does Juno receive each year?
572863e5ff5b5019007da1ec
over 50 in
372
False
In what region of Alaska is the daytime temperature above freezing during summer?
572863e5ff5b5019007da1ed
Southeast
15
False
Southern Alaska has what two Koppen climate classifications?
572863e5ff5b5019007da1ee
mid-latitude oceanic climate (Köppen climate classification: Cfb) in the southern sections and a subarctic oceanic climate (Köppen Cfc) in the northern parts
37
False
How much precipitation does Ketchikan receive each year?
572863e5ff5b5019007da1ef
over 150 in (380 cm)
440
False
over 50 in
372
How much precipitation doesn't Juneau receive each year?
5ad40662604f3c001a3ffe55
True
over 50 in
372
How much precipitation does Juneau receive each month?
5ad40662604f3c001a3ffe56
True
Southeast
15
In what region of Alaska is the nighttime temperature above freezing during summer?
5ad40662604f3c001a3ffe57
True
mid-latitude oceanic climate (Köppen climate classification: Cfb) in the southern sections and a subarctic oceanic climate (Köppen Cfc) in the northern parts
37
Southern Alaska has what three Koppen climate classifications?
5ad40662604f3c001a3ffe58
True
over 150 in (380 cm)
440
How much precipitation does Ketchikan receive each month?
5ad40662604f3c001a3ffe59
True
The climate in Southeast Alaska is a mid-latitude oceanic climate (Köppen climate classification: Cfb) in the southern sections and a subarctic oceanic climate (Köppen Cfc) in the northern parts. On an annual basis, Southeast is both the wettest and warmest part of Alaska with milder temperatures in the winter and high precipitation throughout the year. Juneau averages over 50 in (130 cm) of precipitation a year, and Ketchikan averages over 150 in (380 cm). This is also the only region in Alaska in which the average daytime high temperature is above freezing during the winter months.
What two bodies of water influene the climate in Western Alaska?
5728651aff5b5019007da1f4
Bering Sea and the Gulf of Alaska
65
False
Is precipitation varied or uniform in Western Alaska?
5728651aff5b5019007da1f5
tremendous amount of variety
296
False
Which area of Western Alaska is techincally a desert?
5728651aff5b5019007da1f6
the region around Kotzebue Sound
443
False
How much precipitation does the desert area of Western Alaska receive?
5728651aff5b5019007da1f7
less than 10 in (25 cm) of precipitation annually
526
False
Bering Sea and the Gulf of Alaska
65
What three bodies of water influene the climate in Western Alaska?
5ad4094f604f3c001a3fff21
True
Bering Sea and the Gulf of Alaska
65
What two bodies of water influene the climate in Eastern Alaska?
5ad4094f604f3c001a3fff22
True
tremendous amount of variety
296
Is precipitation varied or uniform in Eastern Alaska?
5ad4094f604f3c001a3fff23
True
the region around Kotzebue Sound
443
Which area of Eastern Alaska is technically a desert?
5ad4094f604f3c001a3fff24
True
less than 10 in (25 cm) of precipitation annually
526
How much precipitation does the desert area of Eastern Alaska receive?
5ad4094f604f3c001a3fff25
True
The climate of Western Alaska is determined in large part by the Bering Sea and the Gulf of Alaska. It is a subarctic oceanic climate in the southwest and a continental subarctic climate farther north. The temperature is somewhat moderate considering how far north the area is. This region has a tremendous amount of variety in precipitation. An area stretching from the northern side of the Seward Peninsula to the Kobuk River valley (i. e., the region around Kotzebue Sound) is technically a desert, with portions receiving less than 10 in (25 cm) of precipitation annually. On the other extreme, some locations between Dillingham and Bethel average around 100 in (250 cm) of precipitation.
Which President allowed Tsimshian settlers to inhabit Annette Island?
572866543acd2414000df993
Grover Cleveland
616
False
In what year did the Tsimshian people arrive in Alaska?
572866543acd2414000df994
1887
595
False
What epidemic resulted in numerous deaths between the 1830s and 1860s?
572866543acd2414000df995
smallpox
857
False
Which Alaskan indigenous group is now well-known for their art?
572866543acd2414000df996
the Haida
485
False
Grover Cleveland
616
Which President disallowed Tsimshian settlers to inhabit Annette Island?
5ad409b8604f3c001a3fff4b
True
Grover Cleveland
616
Which President allowed Tsimshian settlers not to inhabit Annette Island?
5ad409b8604f3c001a3fff4c
True
1887
595
In what year didn't the Tsimshian people arrive in Alaska?
5ad409b8604f3c001a3fff4d
True
smallpox
857
What epidemic resulted in numerous deaths between the 1830s and 1870s?
5ad409b8604f3c001a3fff4e
True
the Haida
485
Which Alaskan indigenous group is not well-known for their art?
5ad409b8604f3c001a3fff4f
True
Numerous indigenous peoples occupied Alaska for thousands of years before the arrival of European peoples to the area. Linguistic and DNA studies done here have provided evidence for the settlement of North America by way of the Bering land bridge.[citation needed] The Tlingit people developed a society with a matrilineal kinship system of property inheritance and descent in what is today Southeast Alaska, along with parts of British Columbia and the Yukon. Also in Southeast were the Haida, now well known for their unique arts. The Tsimshian people came to Alaska from British Columbia in 1887, when President Grover Cleveland, and later the U.S. Congress, granted them permission to settle on Annette Island and found the town of Metlakatla. All three of these peoples, as well as other indigenous peoples of the Pacific Northwest Coast, experienced smallpox outbreaks from the late 18th through the mid-19th century, with the most devastating epidemics occurring in the 1830s and 1860s, resulting in high fatalities and social disruption.
Which indigenous group is controversially known for hunting caribou on protected land?
5728671d3acd2414000df99b
The Gwich'in people of the northern Interior region
291
False
The Inuplat population inhabit what areas?
5728671d3acd2414000df99c
The North Slope and Little Diomede Island
479
False
Which Alaskan indigenous group was the fist to be exploited by Russians?
5728671d3acd2414000df99d
Aleut
43
False
The Gwich'in people of the northern Interior region
291
Which indigenous group is controversially unknown for hunting caribou on protected land?
5ad40a07604f3c001a3fff6f
True
The Gwich'in people of the northern Interior region
291
Which indigenous group is controversially known for hunting caribou on unprotected land?
5ad40a07604f3c001a3fff70
True
The North Slope and Little Diomede Island
479
The Inuplat population don't inhabit what areas?
5ad40a07604f3c001a3fff71
True
Aleut
43
Which Alaskan indigenous group wasn't the first to be exploited by Russians?
5ad40a07604f3c001a3fff72
True
Aleut
43
Which Alaskan indigenous group was the last to be exploited by Russians?
5ad40a07604f3c001a3fff73
True
The Aleutian Islands are still home to the Aleut people's seafaring society, although they were the first Native Alaskans to be exploited by Russians. Western and Southwestern Alaska are home to the Yup'ik, while their cousins the Alutiiq ~ Sugpiaq lived in what is now Southcentral Alaska. The Gwich'in people of the northern Interior region are Athabaskan and primarily known today for their dependence on the caribou within the much-contested Arctic National Wildlife Refuge. The North Slope and Little Diomede Island are occupied by the widespread Inupiat people.
During what time period do some researchers believe Russians settled in Alaska?
5728a3a93acd2414000dfbb7
17th century
92
False
Whose expedidion potentially landed in Alaska during a storm and founded a settlement in 1648?
5728a3a93acd2414000dfbb8
Semyon Dezhnyov
162
False
Whom did Nikolai Durkin say lived in a village on the Kheuveren River?
5728a3a93acd2414000dfbb9
"bearded men" who "pray to the icons"
439
False
During which years did Nikolai Durkin visit Alaska?
5728a3a93acd2414000dfbba
1764–1765
358
False
17th century
92
During what time period do all researchers believe Russians settled in Alaska?
5ad40a52604f3c001a3fff95
True
17th century
92
During what time period do some researchers believe Russians left Alaska?
5ad40a52604f3c001a3fff96
True
Semyon Dezhnyov
162
Whose expedidion potentially landed in Alaska during a storm and founded a settlement in 1684?
5ad40a52604f3c001a3fff97
True
"bearded men" who "pray to the icons"
439
Whom did Nikolai Durkin say died in a village on the Kheuveren River?
5ad40a52604f3c001a3fff98
True
1764–1765
358
During which years didn't Nikolai Durkin visit Alaska?
5ad40a52604f3c001a3fff99
True
Some researchers believe that the first Russian settlement in Alaska was established in the 17th century. According to this hypothesis, in 1648 several koches of Semyon Dezhnyov's expedition came ashore in Alaska by storm and founded this settlement. This hypothesis is based on the testimony of Chukchi geographer Nikolai Daurkin, who had visited Alaska in 1764–1765 and who had reported on a village on the Kheuveren River, populated by "bearded men" who "pray to the icons". Some modern researchers associate Kheuveren with Koyuk River.
What event brought thousands of people to Alaska in the 1890s to early 1910s?
5728a4674b864d1900164b3c
gold rushes
72
False
What year was Alaska officially incorporated as a territory?
5728a4674b864d1900164b3d
1912
241
False
In what year was Alaska's capital officially changed to Juneau?
5728a4674b864d1900164b3e
1906
295
False
Which industries did European settlers in Alaska begin?
5728a4674b864d1900164b3f
fishing and logging
496
False
From what countries were European settlers in Alaska?
5728a4674b864d1900164b40
Norway and Sweden
421
False
gold rushes
72
What event brought thousands of people to Alaska in the 1890s to early 1920s?
5ad40aa9604f3c001a3fffbd
True
1912
241
What year was Alaska unofficially incorporated as a territory?
5ad40aa9604f3c001a3fffbe
True
1906
295
In what year was Alaska's capital unofficially changed to Juneau?
5ad40aa9604f3c001a3fffbf
True
fishing and logging
496
Which industries did European settlers in Alaska end?
5ad40aa9604f3c001a3fffc0
True
Norway and Sweden
421
From what countries were South American settlers in Alaska?
5ad40aa9604f3c001a3fffc1
True
Starting in the 1890s and stretching in some places to the early 1910s, gold rushes in Alaska and the nearby Yukon Territory brought thousands of miners and settlers to Alaska. Alaska was officially incorporated as an organized territory in 1912. Alaska's capital, which had been in Sitka until 1906, was moved north to Juneau. Construction of the Alaska Governor's Mansion began that same year. European immigrants from Norway and Sweden also settled in southeast Alaska, where they entered the fishing and logging industries.
On what day was Alaskan Statehood finally approved by Congress?
5728a5753acd2414000dfbbf
July 7, 1958
495
False
On what day was Alaska officially named a state?
5728a5753acd2414000dfbc0
January 3, 1959
553
False
What cause did James Wickersham focus on in his early Congressional tenure?
5728a5753acd2414000dfbc1
Statehood for Alaska
0
False
In what year did Alaskan Statehood gain momentum following a territorial referendum?
5728a5753acd2414000dfbc2
1946
220
False
From which areas did Alaskan supporters face political challenges?
5728a5753acd2414000dfbc3
mostly in the U.S. Congress but also within Alaska
405
False
July 7, 1958
495
On what day was Alaskan Statehood finally disapproved by Congress?
5ad40ae3604f3c001a3fffd7
True
January 3, 1959
553
On what day was Alaska unofficially named a state?
5ad40ae3604f3c001a3fffd8
True
Statehood for Alaska
0
What cause did James Wickersham focus on in his later Congressional tenure?
5ad40ae3604f3c001a3fffd9
True
1946
220
In what year did Alaskan Statehood lose momentum following a territorial referendum?
5ad40ae3604f3c001a3fffda
True
Statehood for Alaska was an important cause of James Wickersham early in his tenure as a congressional delegate. Decades later, the statehood movement gained its first real momentum following a territorial referendum in 1946. The Alaska Statehood Committee and Alaska's Constitutional Convention would soon follow. Statehood supporters also found themselves fighting major battles against political foes, mostly in the U.S. Congress but also within Alaska. Statehood was approved by Congress on July 7, 1958. Alaska was officially proclaimed a state on January 3, 1959.
What major event happened in Alaska on March 27, 1964 killing 133 people?
5728a8e0ff5b5019007da3c4
Good Friday earthquake
31
False
Did the earthquake or resulting tsunamis and landslides do the most damage to Alaskan communities?
5728a8e0ff5b5019007da3c5
resultant tsunamis and landslides
160
False
How did the Good Friday earthquake compare to other documented earthquakes in the world?
5728a8e0ff5b5019007da3c6
second-most-powerful earthquake in the recorded history of the world
206
False
How did the Good Friday earthquake compare to the 1989 San Francisco earthquake?
5728a8e0ff5b5019007da3c7
over one thousand times more powerful
315
False
Which factors concerning the Good Friday earthquake do some believe caused a higher survival rate?
5728a8e0ff5b5019007da3c8
The time of day (5:36 pm), time of year and location of the epicenter
393
False
Good Friday earthquake
31
What major event happened in Alaska on March 27, 1946 killing 133 people?
5ad40b3e604f3c001a3ffff1
True
resultant tsunamis and landslides
160
Did the earthquake or resulting tsunamis and landslides do the least damage to Alaskan communities?
5ad40b3e604f3c001a3ffff2
True
second-most-powerful earthquake in the recorded history of the world
206
How did the Good Friday earthquake compare to other undocumented earthquakes in the world?
5ad40b3e604f3c001a3ffff3
True
over one thousand times more powerful
315
How did the Good Friday earthquake compare to the 1998 San Francisco earthquake?
5ad40b3e604f3c001a3ffff4
True
The time of day (5:36 pm), time of year and location of the epicenter
393
Which factors concerning the Good Friday earthquake do some believe caused a lower survival rate?
5ad40b3e604f3c001a3ffff5
True
On March 27, 1964, the massive Good Friday earthquake killed 133 people and destroyed several villages and portions of large coastal communities, mainly by the resultant tsunamis and landslides. It was the second-most-powerful earthquake in the recorded history of the world, with a moment magnitude of 9.2. It was over one thousand times more powerful than the 1989 San Francisco earthquake. The time of day (5:36 pm), time of year and location of the epicenter were all cited as factors in potentially sparing thousands of lives, particularly in Anchorage.
At least how many native Alaskan languages exist, according to the Alaska Native Language Center?
5728a9973acd2414000dfc47
at least 20
84
False
What are the two main native Alaskan language families?
5728a9973acd2414000dfc48
Eskimo–Aleut or Na-Dene
241
False
How many of Alaska's native languages are in danger of becoing dormant or extinct languages according to a 2014 study?
5728a9973acd2414000dfc49
nearly all
417
False
A study completed in what year found that nearly all of Alaska's native languages are at risk of becoming extinct?
5728a9973acd2414000dfc4a
2014
404
False
at least 20
84
At least how many native Alaskan languages don't exist, according to the Alaska Native Language Center?
5ad40b96604f3c001a40000f
True
Eskimo–Aleut or Na-Dene
241
What are the three main native Alaskan language families?
5ad40b96604f3c001a400010
True
nearly all
417
How many of Alaska's native languages are in danger of becoming dormant or extinct languages according to a 2015 study?
5ad40b96604f3c001a400011
True
2014
404
A study incomplete in what year found that nearly all of Alaska's native languages are at risk of becoming extinct?
5ad40b96604f3c001a400012
True
2014
404
A study completed in what year found that nearly all of Alaska's native languages are not at risk of becoming extinct?
5ad40b96604f3c001a400013
True
The Alaska Native Language Center at the University of Alaska Fairbanks claims that at least 20 Alaskan native languages exist and there are also some languages with different dialects. Most of Alaska's native languages belong to either the Eskimo–Aleut or Na-Dene language families however some languages are thought to be isolates (e.g. Haida) or have not yet been classified (e.g. Tsimshianic). As of 2014[update] nearly all of Alaska's native languages were classified as either threatened, shifting, moribund, nearly extinct, or dormant languages.
According to the Association of Religion Data in 2010, what percentage of Alaskans are members of a relgious congregation?
5728aa0f2ca10214002da56a
34%
96
False
Which religion is most prevalent in Alaska?
5728aa0f2ca10214002da56b
Evangelical Protestants
190
False
How does Alaska compare with other states in church membership?
5728aa0f2ca10214002da56c
least religious states of the USA
780
False
Which other nearby states are also considered to be less religious than others?
5728aa0f2ca10214002da56d
Washington and Oregon
744
False
34%
96
According to the Association of Religion Data in 2012, what percentage of Alaskans are members of a relgious congregation?
5ad40beb604f3c001a40003f
True
Evangelical Protestants
190
Which religion is least prevalent in Alaska?
5ad40beb604f3c001a400040
True
least religious states of the USA
780
How doesn't Alaska compare with other states in church membership?
5ad40beb604f3c001a400041
True
Washington and Oregon
744
Which other nearby states are also considered to be more religious than others?
5ad40beb604f3c001a400042
True
Washington and Oregon
744
Which other far away states are also considered to be less religious than others?
5ad40beb604f3c001a400043
True
According to statistics collected by the Association of Religion Data Archives from 2010, about 34% of Alaska residents were members of religious congregations. 100,960 people identified as Evangelical Protestants, 50,866 as Roman Catholic, and 32,550 as mainline Protestants. Roughly 4% are Mormon, 0.5% are Jewish, 1% are Muslim, 0.5% are Buddhist, and 0.5% are Hindu. The largest religious denominations in Alaska as of 2010[update] were the Catholic Church with 50,866 adherents, non-denominational Evangelical Protestants with 38,070 adherents, The Church of Jesus Christ of Latter-day Saints with 32,170 adherents, and the Southern Baptist Convention with 19,891 adherents. Alaska has been identified, along with Pacific Northwest states Washington and Oregon, as being the least religious states of the USA, in terms of church membership.
Which church was established in Kodiak in 1795?
5728abbaff5b5019007da41c
First Russian Orthodox Church
13
False
What was one way in which Russian immigrants integrated into Alaskan society?
5728abbaff5b5019007da41d
Intermarriage with Alaskan Natives
70
False
Alaska has the largest population of what religious lifestyle of any state?
5728abbaff5b5019007da41e
Quaker population
294
False
What religious tradition may be a problem for Alaskan Jews?
5728abbaff5b5019007da41f
observance of halakha
392
False
First Russian Orthodox Church
13
Which church was established in Kodiak in 1759?
5ad40c5b604f3c001a400051
True
First Russian Orthodox Church
13
Which church wasn't established in Kodiak in 1795?
5ad40c5b604f3c001a400052
True
Intermarriage with Alaskan Natives
70
What was one way in which Russian immigrants never integrated into Alaskan society?
5ad40c5b604f3c001a400053
True
Quaker population
294
Alaska has the smallest population of what religious lifestyle of any state?
5ad40c5b604f3c001a400054
True
observance of halakha
392
What religious tradition is never a problem for Alaskan Jews?
5ad40c5b604f3c001a400055
True
In 1795, the First Russian Orthodox Church was established in Kodiak. Intermarriage with Alaskan Natives helped the Russian immigrants integrate into society. As a result, an increasing number of Russian Orthodox churches gradually became established within Alaska. Alaska also has the largest Quaker population (by percentage) of any state. In 2009 there were 6,000 Jews in Alaska (for whom observance of halakha may pose special problems). Alaskan Hindus often share venues and celebrations with members of other Asian religious communities, including Sikhs and Jains.
What was the per capita personal income in Alaska in 2007?
5728ac7b2ca10214002da596
$40,042
112
False
How does Alaska's per capita personal income rank against other states?
5728ac7b2ca10214002da597
15th in the nation
129
False
How much of Alaskan state revenue comes from petroleum extraction?
5728ac7b2ca10214002da598
80%
397
False
Beyond petroleum, what is Alaska's largest export?
5728ac7b2ca10214002da599
seafood, primarily salmon, cod, Pollock and crab
524
False
$40,042
112
What was the per capita personal income in Alaska in 2017?
5ad40ca3604f3c001a40007d
True
15th in the nation
129
How does Alaska's per capita personal debt rank against other states?
5ad40ca3604f3c001a40007e
True
80%
397
How much of Alaskan state revenue never comes from petroleum extraction?
5ad40ca3604f3c001a40007f
True
seafood, primarily salmon, cod, Pollock and crab
524
Beyond petroleum, what is Alaska's largest import?
5ad40ca3604f3c001a400080
True
seafood, primarily salmon, cod, Pollock and crab
524
Beyond petroleum, what is Alaska's smallest export?
5ad40ca3604f3c001a400081
True
The 2007 gross state product was $44.9 billion, 45th in the nation. Its per capita personal income for 2007 was $40,042, ranking 15th in the nation. According to a 2013 study by Phoenix Marketing International, Alaska had the fifth-largest number of millionaires per capita in the United States, with a ratio of 6.75 percent. The oil and gas industry dominates the Alaskan economy, with more than 80% of the state's revenues derived from petroleum extraction. Alaska's main export product (excluding oil and natural gas) is seafood, primarily salmon, cod, Pollock and crab.
In which Alaskan areas are military bases prevalent as an important part of the local economy?
5728cfe02ca10214002da87e
Fairbanks North Star, Anchorage and Kodiak Island boroughs, as well as Kodiak
185
False
What program allows Alaska to keep low taxes?
5728cfe02ca10214002da87f
Federal subsidies
264
False
What are some of Alaska's industrial products?
5728cfe02ca10214002da880
crude petroleum, natural gas, coal, gold, precious metals, zinc and other mining, seafood processing, timber and wood products
390
False
How, specifically, have tourists helped the local economy in Alaska?
5728cfe02ca10214002da881
supporting local lodging
614
False
Fairbanks North Star, Anchorage and Kodiak Island boroughs, as well as Kodiak
185
In which Alaskan areas are military bases prevalent as an unimportant part of the local economy?
5ad40cfc604f3c001a400099
True
Fairbanks North Star, Anchorage and Kodiak Island boroughs, as well as Kodiak
185
In which Alaskan areas are civilian bases prevalent as an important part of the local economy?
5ad40cfc604f3c001a40009a
True
Federal subsidies
264
What program allows Alaska to keep high taxes?
5ad40cfc604f3c001a40009b
True
crude petroleum, natural gas, coal, gold, precious metals, zinc and other mining, seafood processing, timber and wood products
390
What aren't some of Alaska's industrial products?
5ad40cfc604f3c001a40009c
True
supporting local lodging
614
How, specifically, have tourists helped the global economy in Alaska?
5ad40cfc604f3c001a40009d
True
Employment is primarily in government and industries such as natural resource extraction, shipping, and transportation. Military bases are a significant component of the economy in the Fairbanks North Star, Anchorage and Kodiak Island boroughs, as well as Kodiak. Federal subsidies are also an important part of the economy, allowing the state to keep taxes low. Its industrial outputs are crude petroleum, natural gas, coal, gold, precious metals, zinc and other mining, seafood processing, timber and wood products. There is also a growing service and tourism sector. Tourists have contributed to the economy by supporting local lodging.
What other states rank higher than Alaska in crude oil production?
5728d160ff5b5019007da740
Texas, North Dakota, and California
332
False
How does Alaska rate in comparison with other states in crude oil production?
5728d160ff5b5019007da741
fourth
275
False
Which area in Alaska is the nation's second highest-yielding oil field?
5728d160ff5b5019007da742
Prudhoe Bay
369
False
How many barrels of oil does Prudhoe Bay produce per day?
5728d160ff5b5019007da743
400,000
500
False
Prudhoe Bay is second place in production to what other oil field in the US?
5728d160ff5b5019007da744
North Dakota's Bakken Formation
562
False
Texas, North Dakota, and California
332
What other states rank lower than Alaska in crude oil production?
5ad40d44604f3c001a4000bf
True
fourth
275
How does Alaska rate in comparison with other states in refined oil production?
5ad40d44604f3c001a4000c0
True
Prudhoe Bay
369
Which area in Alaska is the nation's third highest-yielding oil field?
5ad40d44604f3c001a4000c1
True
Prudhoe Bay
369
Which area in Alaska is the nation's second lowest-yielding oil field?
5ad40d44604f3c001a4000c2
True
400,000
500
How many barrels of oil does Prudhoe Bay produce per week?
5ad40d44604f3c001a4000c3
True
Alaska has vast energy resources, although its oil reserves have been largely depleted. Major oil and gas reserves were found in the Alaska North Slope (ANS) and Cook Inlet basins, but according to the Energy Information Administration, by February 2014 Alaska had fallen to fourth place in the nation in crude oil production after Texas, North Dakota, and California. Prudhoe Bay on Alaska's North Slope is still the second highest-yielding oil field in the United States, typically producing about 400,000 barrels per day (64,000 m3/d), although by early 2014 North Dakota's Bakken Formation was producing over 900,000 barrels per day (140,000 m3/d). Prudhoe Bay was the largest conventional oil field ever discovered in North America, but was much smaller than Canada's enormous Athabasca oil sands field, which by 2014 was producing about 1,500,000 barrels per day (240,000 m3/d) of unconventional oil, and had hundreds of years of producible reserves at that rate.
How much oil can the Trans-Alaska Pipeline transport per day?
5728d22a3acd2414000dff53
up to 2.1 million barrels
49
False
How much recoverable gas is still undiscovered in Alaska, according to the US Geological Survey?
5728d22a3acd2414000dff54
85.4 trillion cubic feet
347
False
Alaska's coastline also has potential in which two environmentally friendly energy types?
5728d22a3acd2414000dff55
wind and geothermal energy
637
False
Alaska's large rivers have potential for what environmentally friendly type of energy production?
5728d22a3acd2414000dff56
hydroelectric
522
False
up to 2.1 million barrels
49
How much oil can't the Trans-Alaska Pipeline transport per day?
5ad40d8f604f3c001a4000e5
True
2.1 million barrels
55
How much oil can the Trans-Alaska Pipeline transport per week?
5ad40d8f604f3c001a4000e6
True
85.4 trillion cubic feet
347
How much unrecoverable gas is still undiscovered in Alaska, according to the US Geological Survey?
5ad40d8f604f3c001a4000e7
True
wind and geothermal energy
637
Alaska's coastline also has potential in which three environmentally friendly energy types?
5ad40d8f604f3c001a4000e8
True
hydroelectric
522
Alaska's small rivers have potential for what environmentally friendly type of energy production?
5ad40d8f604f3c001a4000e9
True
The Trans-Alaska Pipeline can transport and pump up to 2.1 million barrels (330,000 m3) of crude oil per day, more than any other crude oil pipeline in the United States. Additionally, substantial coal deposits are found in Alaska's bituminous, sub-bituminous, and lignite coal basins. The United States Geological Survey estimates that there are 85.4 trillion cubic feet (2,420 km3) of undiscovered, technically recoverable gas from natural gas hydrates on the Alaskan North Slope. Alaska also offers some of the highest hydroelectric power potential in the country from its numerous rivers. Large swaths of the Alaskan coastline offer wind and geothermal energy potential as well.
Why were alternative energy sources judged uneconomical in 2001?
5728d311ff5b5019007da784
low (less than 50¢/gal) fuel prices, long distances and low population
348
False
How much does gas cost in Alaska, in comparison to the national average?
5728d311ff5b5019007da785
30–60¢ higher
481
False
What are some reasons why gas prices may vary in Alaska, especially?
5728d311ff5b5019007da786
transportation costs, seasonal usage peaks, nearby petroleum development infrastructure
608
False
What does Alaska's economy heavily rely on?
5728d311ff5b5019007da787
diesel fuel
59
False
What purpose does diesel fuel have in Alaska?
5728d311ff5b5019007da788
heating, transportation, electric power and light
75
False
low (less than 50¢/gal) fuel prices, long distances and low population
348
Why were alternative energy sources judged uneconomical in 2010?
5ad40de5604f3c001a4000f7
True
low (less than 50¢/gal) fuel prices, long distances and low population
348
Why were alternative energy sources judged economical in 2001?
5ad40de5604f3c001a4000f8
True
30–60¢ higher
481
How much does gas cost in Alaska, in comparison to the international average?
5ad40de5604f3c001a4000f9
True
transportation costs, seasonal usage peaks, nearby petroleum development infrastructure
608
What are some reasons why gas prices may be stable in Alaska, especially?
5ad40de5604f3c001a4000fa
True
diesel fuel
59
What does Alaska's economy not rely on?
5ad40de5604f3c001a4000fb
True
Alaska's economy depends heavily on increasingly expensive diesel fuel for heating, transportation, electric power and light. Though wind and hydroelectric power are abundant and underdeveloped, proposals for statewide energy systems (e.g. with special low-cost electric interties) were judged uneconomical (at the time of the report, 2001) due to low (less than 50¢/gal) fuel prices, long distances and low population. The cost of a gallon of gas in urban Alaska today is usually 30–60¢ higher than the national average; prices in rural areas are generally significantly higher but vary widely depending on transportation costs, seasonal usage peaks, nearby petroleum development infrastructure and many other factors.
What is the Alaska Permanent Fund?
5728d3d92ca10214002da8c6
constitutionally authorized appropriation of oil revenues
31
False
In what year was the Alaska Permanent Fund established?
5728d3d92ca10214002da8c7
1976
115
False
Why was the Alaska Permament Fund established?
5728d3d92ca10214002da8c8
to manage a surplus in state petroleum revenues from oil
120
False
Who originally proposed the Alaska Permanent Fund?
5728d3d92ca10214002da8c9
Governor Keith Miller
296
False
Why did Governor Keith Miller propose the Alaska Permanent Fund before the Prudhoe Bay sale?
5728d3d92ca10214002da8ca
fear that the legislature would spend the entire proceeds of the sale (which amounted to $900 million) at once
372
False
constitutionally authorized appropriation of oil revenues
31
What is the Alaska Temporary Fund?
5ad40e5d604f3c001a400109
True
1976
115
In what year was the Alaska Permanent Fund ended?
5ad40e5d604f3c001a40010a
True
to manage a surplus in state petroleum revenues from oil
120
Why was the Alaska Permament Fund unestablished?
5ad40e5d604f3c001a40010b
True
Governor Keith Miller
296
Who originally hated the Alaska Permanent Fund?
5ad40e5d604f3c001a40010c
True
fear that the legislature would spend the entire proceeds of the sale (which amounted to $900 million) at once
372
Why did Governor Keith Miller propose the Alaska Permanent Fund after the Prudhoe Bay sale?
5ad40e5d604f3c001a40010d
True
The Alaska Permanent Fund is a constitutionally authorized appropriation of oil revenues, established by voters in 1976 to manage a surplus in state petroleum revenues from oil, largely in anticipation of the recently constructed Trans-Alaska Pipeline System. The fund was originally proposed by Governor Keith Miller on the eve of the 1969 Prudhoe Bay lease sale, out of fear that the legislature would spend the entire proceeds of the sale (which amounted to $900 million) at once. It was later championed by Governor Jay Hammond and Kenai state representative Hugh Malone. It has served as an attractive political prospect ever since, diverting revenues which would normally be deposited into the general fund.
Was Alaska's Constitution written to encourage or discourage state funds being used for a particular purpose?
5728d4c43acd2414000dffa9
discourage
45
False
Why is the Permanent Fund an exception to the premise of the Alaskan Constitution?
5728d4c43acd2414000dffaa
political climate of distrust existing during the time of its creation
181
False
Where is the principal of the Permanent Fund invested?
5728d4c43acd2414000dffab
outside Alaska
446
False
How much was the initial principal of the Permanent Fund?
5728d4c43acd2414000dffac
$734,000
283
False
How high has the principal of the Permanent Fund grown?
5728d4c43acd2414000dffad
$50 billion
315
False
discourage
45
Was Alaska's Constitution written to encourage or discourage state funds being used for an unparticular purpose?
5ad40ee2604f3c001a400139
True
political climate of distrust existing during the time of its creation
181
Why is the Permanent Fund not an exception to the premise of the Alaskan Constitution?
5ad40ee2604f3c001a40013a
True
outside Alaska
446
Where is the principal of the Permanent Fund not invested?
5ad40ee2604f3c001a40013b
True
$734,000
283
How much was the final principal of the Permanent Fund?
5ad40ee2604f3c001a40013c
True
$50 billion
315
How high has the principal of the Permanent Fund shrank?
5ad40ee2604f3c001a40013d
True
The Alaska Constitution was written so as to discourage dedicating state funds for a particular purpose. The Permanent Fund has become the rare exception to this, mostly due to the political climate of distrust existing during the time of its creation. From its initial principal of $734,000, the fund has grown to $50 billion as a result of oil royalties and capital investment programs. Most if not all the principal is invested conservatively outside Alaska. This has led to frequent calls by Alaskan politicians for the Fund to make investments within Alaska, though such a stance has never gained momentum.
How long must an Alaskan have lived in the state in order to receive a Permanent Fund Dividend?
5728d59e3acd2414000dffbd
minimum of 12 months
607
False
What percentage of the Permanent Fund is divided betwen Alaska's eligible residents?
5728d59e3acd2414000dffbe
5%
478
False
When did disembursements from the Permanent Fund begin?
5728d59e3acd2414000dffbf
1982
12
False
How much was the initial disembursement from the Permanent Fund?
5728d59e3acd2414000dffc0
$1,000
133
False
minimum of 12 months
607
How long must an Canadian have lived in the state in order to receive a Permanent Fund Dividend?
5ad40f35604f3c001a40015d
True
5%
478
What percentage of the Permanent Fund is divided betwen Alaska's ineligible residents?
5ad40f35604f3c001a40015e
True
1982
12
When did disembursements from the Permanent Fund end?
5ad40f35604f3c001a40015f
True
1982
143
When didn't disembursements from the Permanent Fund begin?
5ad40f35604f3c001a400160
True
$1,000
133
How much was the final disembursement from the Permanent Fund?
5ad40f35604f3c001a400161
True
Starting in 1982, dividends from the fund's annual growth have been paid out each year to eligible Alaskans, ranging from an initial $1,000 in 1982 (equal to three years' payout, as the distribution of payments was held up in a lawsuit over the distribution scheme) to $3,269 in 2008 (which included a one-time $1,200 "Resource Rebate"). Every year, the state legislature takes out 8% from the earnings, puts 3% back into the principal for inflation proofing, and the remaining 5% is distributed to all qualifying Alaskans. To qualify for the Permanent Fund Dividend, one must have lived in the state for a minimum of 12 months, maintain constant residency subject to allowable absences, and not be subject to court judgments or criminal convictions which fall under various disqualifying classifications or may subject the payment amount to civil garnishment.
Which crops are produced in the Delta-area?
5728d690ff5b5019007da7e4
barley and hay
428
False
Small farms west of Fairbanks cater to whom?
5728d690ff5b5019007da7e5
restaurants, the hotel and tourist industry, and community-supported agriculture
516
False
Which area did Hammond develeop during his second term?
5728d690ff5b5019007da7e6
Delta Junction area
72
False
barley and hay
428
Which crops aren't produced in the Delta-area?
5ad40f95604f3c001a400167
True
restaurants, the hotel and tourist industry, and community-supported agriculture
516
Large farms west of Fairbanks cater to whom?
5ad40f95604f3c001a400168
True
small farms catering to restaurants, the hotel and tourist industry, and community-supported agriculture
492
Small farms east of Fairbanks cater to whom?
5ad40f95604f3c001a400169
True
Delta Junction area
72
Which area didn't Hammond develeop during his second term?
5ad40f95604f3c001a40016a
True
Delta Junction area
72
Which area did Hammond develeop during his third term?
5ad40f95604f3c001a40016b
True
The Tanana Valley is another notable agricultural locus, especially the Delta Junction area, about 100 miles (160 km) southeast of Fairbanks, with a sizable concentration of farms growing agronomic crops; these farms mostly lie north and east of Fort Greely. This area was largely set aside and developed under a state program spearheaded by Hammond during his second term as governor. Delta-area crops consist predominately of barley and hay. West of Fairbanks lies another concentration of small farms catering to restaurants, the hotel and tourist industry, and community-supported agriculture.
What causes food in Alaskan cities to be relatively expensive?
5728ec472ca10214002daa98
shipping costs
70
False
How high can the cost of transport be in some remote areas?
5728ec472ca10214002daa99
50¢ per pound ($1.10/kg)
561
False
Which state in the US is the only to have higher fuel prices than Alaska?
5728ec472ca10214002daa9a
Hawaii
979
False
How much does it cost to transport a gallon of milk in some rural areas of Alaska?
5728ec472ca10214002daa9b
$3.50
806
False
shipping costs
70
What causes food in Alaskan cities to be relatively inexpensive?
5ad40fec604f3c001a40017b
True
50¢ per pound
561
How low can the cost of transport be in some remote areas?
5ad40fec604f3c001a40017c
True
50¢ per pound
561
How high can the cost of transport be in some urban areas?
5ad40fec604f3c001a40017d
True
Hawaii
979
Which state in the US is the only to have lower fuel prices than Alaska?
5ad40fec604f3c001a40017e
True
$3.50
806
How much does it cost to transport a gallon of milk in some urban areas of Alaska?
5ad40fec604f3c001a40017f
True
Most food in Alaska is transported into the state from "Outside", and shipping costs make food in the cities relatively expensive. In rural areas, subsistence hunting and gathering is an essential activity because imported food is prohibitively expensive. Though most small towns and villages in Alaska lie along the coastline, the cost of importing food to remote villages can be high, because of the terrain and difficult road conditions, which change dramatically, due to varying climate and precipitation changes. The cost of transport can reach as high as 50¢ per pound ($1.10/kg) or more in some remote areas, during the most difficult times, if these locations can be reached at all during such inclement weather and terrain conditions. The cost of delivering a 1 US gallon (3.8 L) of milk is about $3.50 in many villages where per capita income can be $20,000 or less. Fuel cost per gallon is routinely 20–30¢ higher than the continental United States average, with only Hawaii having higher prices.
Why is there a debate about moving the capital of Alaska to another town?
5728edab2ca10214002daaaa
Juneau, is not accessible by road
269
False
Which part of Alaska has no road system connecting it to other areas?
5728edab2ca10214002daaab
western part
475
False
Compared to the rest of the US, does Alaska has many or few road connections?
5728edab2ca10214002daaac
few
11
False
Juneau, is not accessible by road
269
Why is there a debate about not moving the capital of Alaska to another town?
5ad41050604f3c001a400195
True
The western part
471
Which part of Alaska has a road system connecting it to other areas?
5ad41050604f3c001a400196
True
The western part
471
Which part of Alaska has a road system connecting it to all other areas?
5ad41050604f3c001a400197
True
few
11
Compared to the rest of the UN, does Alaska has many or few road connections?
5ad41050604f3c001a400198
True
few
11
Compared to none of the US, does Alaska has many or few road connections?
5ad41050604f3c001a400199
True
Alaska has few road connections compared to the rest of the U.S. The state's road system covers a relatively small area of the state, linking the central population centers and the Alaska Highway, the principal route out of the state through Canada. The state capital, Juneau, is not accessible by road, only a car ferry, which has spurred several debates over the decades about moving the capital to a city on the road system, or building a road connection from Haines. The western part of Alaska has no road system connecting the communities with the rest of Alaska.
What year was the Alaska Railroad built?
5728f3b82ca10214002dab28
around 1915
6
False
To what does "The Railbelt" refer?
5728f3b82ca10214002dab29
region served by ARR tracks
435
False
Which development in 1915 played a key role in developing Alaska?
5728f3b82ca10214002dab2a
Alaska Railroad (ARR)
23
False
around 1915
6
What year was the Alaska Railroad destroyed?
5ad4109c604f3c001a4001bb
True
around 1915
6
What year wasn't the Alaska Railroad built?
5ad4109c604f3c001a4001bc
True
region served by ARR tracks
435
To what doesn't "The Railbelt" refer?
5ad4109c604f3c001a4001bd
True
Alaska Railroad (ARR)
23
Which development in 1915 played no role in developing Alaska?
5ad4109c604f3c001a4001be
True
Alaska Railroad (ARR)
23
Which development in 1951 played a key role in developing Alaska?
5ad4109c604f3c001a4001bf
True
Built around 1915, the Alaska Railroad (ARR) played a key role in the development of Alaska through the 20th century. It links north Pacific shipping through providing critical infrastructure with tracks that run from Seward to Interior Alaska by way of South Central Alaska, passing through Anchorage, Eklutna, Wasilla, Talkeetna, Denali, and Fairbanks, with spurs to Whittier, Palmer and North Pole. The cities, towns, villages, and region served by ARR tracks are known statewide as "The Railbelt". In recent years, the ever-improving paved highway system began to eclipse the railroad's importance in Alaska's economy.
The ARR was one of the last railroads in the US to use what?
5728f9ce6aef05140015491a
cabooses
74
False
When are cabooses still used occasionally?
5728f9ce6aef05140015491b
some gravel trains
125
False
When was the Parks Highway constructed?
5728f9ce6aef05140015491c
1970s
457
False
cabooses
74
The ARR wasn't one of the last railroads in the US to use what?
5ad410d5604f3c001a4001cf
True
cabooses
74
The ARR was one of the first railroads in the US to use what?
5ad410d5604f3c001a4001d0
True
cabooses
74
The ARR was one of the last railroads in the UN to use what?
5ad410d5604f3c001a4001d1
True
some gravel trains
125
When aren't cabooses still used occasionally?
5ad410d5604f3c001a4001d2
True
1970s
457
When was the Parks Highway destroyed?
5ad410d5604f3c001a4001d3
True
The Alaska Railroad was one of the last railroads in North America to use cabooses in regular service and still uses them on some gravel trains. It continues to offer one of the last flag stop routes in the country. A stretch of about 60 miles (100 km) of track along an area north of Talkeetna remains inaccessible by road; the railroad provides the only transportation to rural homes and cabins in the area. Until construction of the Parks Highway in the 1970s, the railroad provided the only land access to most of the region along its entire route.
What is the name of Alaska's ferry system?
5728fae2af94a219006a9ead
the Alaska Marine Highway
59
False
Which other Ferry group works alongside the Alaska Marine Highway to coordinate travel?
5728fae2af94a219006a9eae
The Inter-Island Ferry Authority
367
False
Which areas does the Alaska Marine Highway serve?
5728fae2af94a219006a9eaf
southeast, the Gulf Coast and the Alaska Peninsula
107
False
the Alaska Marine Highway
59
What isn't the name of Alaska's ferry system?
5ad41129604f3c001a4001f1
True
the Alaska Marine Highway
59
What is the name of Washington's ferry system?
5ad41129604f3c001a4001f2
True
The Inter-Island Ferry Authority
367
Which other Ferry group no longer works alongside the Alaska Marine Highway to coordinate travel?
5ad41129604f3c001a4001f3
True
The Inter-Island Ferry Authority
367
Which other Ferry group works alongside the Alaska Marine Highway to stop travel?
5ad41129604f3c001a4001f4
True
southeast, the Gulf Coast and the Alaska Peninsula
107
Which areas doesn't the Alaska Marine Highway serve?
5ad41129604f3c001a4001f5
True
Alaska's well-developed state-owned ferry system (known as the Alaska Marine Highway) serves the cities of southeast, the Gulf Coast and the Alaska Peninsula. The ferries transport vehicles as well as passengers. The system also operates a ferry service from Bellingham, Washington and Prince Rupert, British Columbia in Canada through the Inside Passage to Skagway. The Inter-Island Ferry Authority also serves as an important marine link for many communities in the Prince of Wales Island region of Southeast and works in concert with the Alaska Marine Highway.
Which two cities are served by major airlines?
5728fb513f37b31900477ef7
Anchorage and, to a lesser extent Fairbanks
187
False
What is the most efficient means of transportation into and out of Alaska?
5728fb513f37b31900477ef8
air travel
301
False
How many visitors came to Alaska between 2012-2013?
5728fb513f37b31900477ef9
almost 2 million
575
False
Anchorage and, to a lesser extent Fairbanks
187
Which three cities are served by major airlines?
5ad4116d604f3c001a400205
True
Anchorage and, to a lesser extent Fairbanks
187
Which two cities are unserved by major airlines?
5ad4116d604f3c001a400206
True
Anchorage and, to a lesser extent Fairbanks
187
Which two cities are served by minor airlines?
5ad4116d604f3c001a400207
True
air travel
301
What is the most inefficient means of transportation into and out of Alaska?
5ad4116d604f3c001a400208
True
almost 2 million
575
How many visitors came to Alaska between 2012-2014?
5ad4116d604f3c001a400209
True
Cities not served by road, sea, or river can be reached only by air, foot, dogsled, or snowmachine, accounting for Alaska's extremely well developed bush air services—an Alaskan novelty. Anchorage and, to a lesser extent Fairbanks, is served by many major airlines. Because of limited highway access, air travel remains the most efficient form of transportation in and out of the state. Anchorage recently completed extensive remodeling and construction at Ted Stevens Anchorage International Airport to help accommodate the upsurge in tourism (in 2012-2013, Alaska received almost 2 million visitors).
Which service allows government to subsidise regular air travel in Alaska?
5728fc476aef051400154946
Essential Air Service program
186
False
Which airline offers in-state travel with jet-service?
5728fc476aef051400154947
Alaska Airlines
217
False
What are some Alaskan regional hubs?
5728fc476aef051400154948
Bethel, Nome, Kotzebue, Dillingham, Kodiak
415
False
Essential Air Service program
186
Which service denies government to subsidise regular air travel in Alaska?
5ad411ad604f3c001a40020f
True
Essential Air Service program
186
Which service allows government to subsidise irregular air travel in Alaska?
5ad411ad604f3c001a400210
True
Alaska Airlines
217
Which airline offers out-of-state travel with jet-service?
5ad411ad604f3c001a400211
True
Bethel, Nome, Kotzebue, Dillingham, Kodiak
415
What aren't some Alaskan regional hubs?
5ad411ad604f3c001a400212
True
Bethel, Nome, Kotzebue, Dillingham, Kodiak
415
What are all Alaskan regional hubs?
5ad411ad604f3c001a400213
True
Regular flights to most villages and towns within the state that are commercially viable are challenging to provide, so they are heavily subsidized by the federal government through the Essential Air Service program. Alaska Airlines is the only major airline offering in-state travel with jet service (sometimes in combination cargo and passenger Boeing 737-400s) from Anchorage and Fairbanks to regional hubs like Bethel, Nome, Kotzebue, Dillingham, Kodiak, and other larger communities as well as to major Southeast and Alaska Peninsula communities.
What are the names of a few regional Alaskan airlines?
5728fd6e3f37b31900477f35
Ravn Alaska, PenAir, and Frontier Flying Service
101
False
What model is the most popular aicraft in Alaska?
5728fd6e3f37b31900477f36
Cessna Caravan
284
False
How much of the subsidized bulk mail delivery program goes to carriers who offer passenger service?
5728fd6e3f37b31900477f37
70%
507
False
Ravn Alaska, PenAir, and Frontier Flying Service
101
What are the names of all regional Alaskan airlines?
5ad411f0604f3c001a400219
True
Ravn Alaska, PenAir, and Frontier Flying Service
101
What aren't the names of a few regional Alaskan airlines?
5ad411f0604f3c001a40021a
True
Cessna Caravan
284
What model is the lest popular aircraft in Alaska?
5ad411f0604f3c001a40021b
True
Cessna Caravan
284
What model is the most popular seacraft in Alaska?
5ad411f0604f3c001a40021c
True
70%
507
How much of the subsidized nonbulk mail delivery program goes to carriers who offer passenger service?
5ad411f0604f3c001a40021d
True
The bulk of remaining commercial flight offerings come from small regional commuter airlines such as Ravn Alaska, PenAir, and Frontier Flying Service. The smallest towns and villages must rely on scheduled or chartered bush flying services using general aviation aircraft such as the Cessna Caravan, the most popular aircraft in use in the state. Much of this service can be attributed to the Alaska bypass mail program which subsidizes bulk mail delivery to Alaskan rural communities. The program requires 70% of that subsidy to go to carriers who offer passenger service to the communities.
Which plane is considered quintessentially Alaskan?
572904aeaf94a219006a9f57
bush seaplane
188
False
Where is the busiest seaplane base in the world?
572904aeaf94a219006a9f58
Lake Hood
240
False
Which state had the most pilots per capita than any other US state?
572904aeaf94a219006a9f59
Alaska
453
False
Lake Hood is located next to what International Airport?
572904aeaf94a219006a9f5a
Ted Stevens Anchorage International Airport
267
False
bush seaplane
188
Which plane isn't considered quintessentially Alaskan?
5ad4123d604f3c001a40022b
True
Lake Hood
240
Where is the least busiest seaplane base in the world?
5ad4123d604f3c001a40022c
True
Lake Hood
240
Where is the busiest boat base in the world?
5ad4123d604f3c001a40022d
True
Alaska
453
Which state had the most pilots per capita than any other UN state?
5ad4123d604f3c001a40022e
True
Ted Stevens Anchorage International Airport
267
Lake Hood isn't located next to what International Airport?
5ad4123d604f3c001a40022f
True
Many communities have small air taxi services. These operations originated from the demand for customized transport to remote areas. Perhaps the most quintessentially Alaskan plane is the bush seaplane. The world's busiest seaplane base is Lake Hood, located next to Ted Stevens Anchorage International Airport, where flights bound for remote villages without an airstrip carry passengers, cargo, and many items from stores and warehouse clubs. In 2006 Alaska had the highest number of pilots per capita of any U.S. state.
Which Alaskan way of transport is more for sport than for transportation?
57293b9f3f37b3190047813d
dogsled
45
False
Which dog-sled race in Alaska is the most famous?
57293b9f3f37b3190047813e
Iditarod Trail Sled Dog Race
251
False
What does the Iditarod Trail Sled Dog Race commemorate in Alaskan history?
57293b9f3f37b3190047813f
the famous 1925 serum run to Nome
463
False
Why were sled-dogs used to deliver medicine to Nome in 1925?
57293b9f3f37b31900478140
all other means of transportation had failed
619
False
Which dogsled race most accurately follows the route of the 1925 serum run?
57293b9f3f37b31900478141
"Serum Run"
773
False
dogsled
45
Which Alaskan way of transport is less for sport than for transportation?
5ad412db604f3c001a400251
True
dogsled
45
Which Alaskan way of transport isn't more for sport than for transportation?
5ad412db604f3c001a400252
True
Iditarod Trail Sled Dog Race
251
Which dog-sled race in Alaska is the least famous?
5ad412db604f3c001a400253
True
the famous 1925 serum run to Nome
463
What doesn't the Iditarod Trail Sled Dog Race commemorate in Alaskan history?
5ad412db604f3c001a400254
True
Serum Run
774
Why were sled-dogs used to deliver medicine to Nome in 1952?
5ad412db604f3c001a400255
True
Another Alaskan transportation method is the dogsled. In modern times (that is, any time after the mid-late 1920s), dog mushing is more of a sport than a true means of transportation. Various races are held around the state, but the best known is the Iditarod Trail Sled Dog Race, a 1,150-mile (1,850 km) trail from Anchorage to Nome (although the distance varies from year to year, the official distance is set at 1,049 miles or 1,688 km). The race commemorates the famous 1925 serum run to Nome in which mushers and dogs like Togo and Balto took much-needed medicine to the diphtheria-stricken community of Nome when all other means of transportation had failed. Mushers from all over the world come to Anchorage each March to compete for cash, prizes, and prestige. The "Serum Run" is another sled dog race that more accurately follows the route of the famous 1925 relay, leaving from the community of Nenana (southwest of Fairbanks) to Nome.
Which two companies provide internet and data transport to Alaska?
57293c5e6aef051400154bc0
GCI and Alaska Communications
124
False
In what year was a project to connect Asia and rural Alaska announced?
57293c5e6aef051400154bc1
2011
371
False
How much money did the federal government contribute via stimulus to the connectvitiy between Asia and Alaska?
57293c5e6aef051400154bc2
$350 million
492
False
Which company owns and operates the Alaska United Fiber Optic System?
57293c5e6aef051400154bc3
GCI
155
False
GCI and Alaska Communications
124
Which three companies provide internet and data transport to Alaska?
5ad41323604f3c001a400265
True
2011
371
In what year was a project to connect Asia and rural Alaska renounced?
5ad41323604f3c001a400266
True
2011
371
In what year was a project to connect Russia and rural Alaska announced?
5ad41323604f3c001a400267
True
GCI
155
Which company disowns the Alaska United Fiber Optic System?
5ad41323604f3c001a400268
True
$350 million
492
How much money did the federal government contribute via stimulus to the non-connectvitiy between Asia and Alaska?
5ad41323604f3c001a400269
True
Alaska's internet and other data transport systems are provided largely through the two major telecommunications companies: GCI and Alaska Communications. GCI owns and operates what it calls the Alaska United Fiber Optic system and as of late 2011 Alaska Communications advertised that it has "two fiber optic paths to the lower 48 and two more across Alaska. In January 2011, it was reported that a $1 billion project to run connect Asia and rural Alaska was being planned, aided in part by $350 million in stimulus from the federal government.
How does Alaska finance its state government operations?
57293ccf3f37b31900478165
petroleum revenues and federal subsidies
68
False
How many states in the US do not have sales tax?
57293ccf3f37b31900478166
five
201
False
How many US states do not collect an individual income tax?
57293ccf3f37b31900478167
seven
245
False
Which state has the lowest tax burden of the entire US?
57293ccf3f37b31900478168
Alaska
40
False
petroleum revenues and federal subsidies
68
How doesn't Alaska finance its state government operations?
5ad413b4604f3c001a400279
True
five
201
How many states in the UN do not have sales tax?
5ad413b4604f3c001a40027a
True
five
201
How many states in the US have sales tax?
5ad413b4604f3c001a40027b
True
seven
245
How many UN states do not collect an individual income tax?
5ad413b4604f3c001a40027c
True
Alaska
40
Which state has the highest tax burden of the entire US?
5ad413b4604f3c001a40027d
True
To finance state government operations, Alaska depends primarily on petroleum revenues and federal subsidies. This allows it to have the lowest individual tax burden in the United States. It is one of five states with no state sales tax, one of seven states that do not levy an individual income tax, and one of the two states that has neither. The Department of Revenue Tax Division reports regularly on the state's revenue sources. The Department also issues an annual summary of its operations, including new state laws that directly affect the tax division.
Which political party does Alaska generally support?
57293d8b3f37b31900478173
Republicans
26
False
How many elections have Democrats won in Alaska?
57293d8b3f37b31900478174
one
165
False
Which candidate was the only Democrat to win Alaska in a landslide election in 1964?
57293d8b3f37b31900478175
Lyndon B. Johnson
327
False
Which Democratic candidate was the first to win 40% of the vote in Alaska since 1964?
57293d8b3f37b31900478176
Barack Obama
554
False
Republicans
26
Which political party does Alaska generally not support?
5ad4140b604f3c001a400283
True
Republicans
26
Which political party doesn't Alaska generally support?
5ad4140b604f3c001a400284
True
one
165
How many elections have Democrats lost in Alaska?
5ad4140b604f3c001a400285
True
Lyndon B. Johnson
327
Which candidate was the only Democrat to win Alaska in a landslide election in 1946?
5ad4140b604f3c001a400286
True
Barack Obama
554
Which Democratic candidate was the first to win 40% of the vote in Alaska since 1946?
5ad4140b604f3c001a400287
True
Alaska regularly supports Republicans in presidential elections and has done so since statehood. Republicans have won the state's electoral college votes in all but one election that it has participated in (1964). No state has voted for a Democratic presidential candidate fewer times. Alaska was carried by Democratic nominee Lyndon B. Johnson during his landslide election in 1964, while the 1960 and 1968 elections were close. Since 1972, however, Republicans have carried the state by large margins. In 2008, Republican John McCain defeated Democrat Barack Obama in Alaska, 59.49% to 37.83%. McCain's running mate was Sarah Palin, the state's governor and the first Alaskan on a major party ticket. Obama lost Alaska again in 2012, but he captured 40% of the state's vote in that election, making him the first Democrat to do so since 1968.
The areas surrounding which university has been historically a Democratic stronghold?
57293e123f37b31900478185
University of Alaska Fairbanks
95
False
Which areas of Alaska have the highest Republican concentrations?
57293e123f37b31900478186
The Matanuska-Susitna Borough, the majority of Fairbanks (including North Pole and the military base), and South Anchorage
190
False
As of 2004, how many Alaskan residents refuse to select a political party?
57293e123f37b31900478187
well over half
382
False
University of Alaska Fairbanks
95
The areas surrounding which university has been unhistorically a Democratic stronghold?
5ad41455604f3c001a400293
True
University of Alaska Fairbanks
95
The areas surrounding which university has been historically a Democratic weakhold?
5ad41455604f3c001a400294
True
The Matanuska-Susitna Borough, the majority of Fairbanks (including North Pole and the military base), and South Anchorage
190
Which areas of Alaska have the lowest Republican concentrations?
5ad41455604f3c001a400295
True
The Matanuska-Susitna Borough, the majority of Fairbanks (including North Pole and the military base), and South Anchorage
190
Which areas of Alaska have the highest Democratic concentrations?
5ad41455604f3c001a400296
True
well over half
382
As of 2014, how many Alaskan residents refuse to select a political party?
5ad41455604f3c001a400297
True
The Alaska Bush, central Juneau, midtown and downtown Anchorage, and the areas surrounding the University of Alaska Fairbanks campus and Ester have been strongholds of the Democratic Party. The Matanuska-Susitna Borough, the majority of Fairbanks (including North Pole and the military base), and South Anchorage typically have the strongest Republican showing. As of 2004[update], well over half of all registered voters have chosen "Non-Partisan" or "Undeclared" as their affiliation, despite recent attempts to close primaries to unaffiliated voters.
Into how many recording districts is Alaska divided?
57293ec33f37b31900478195
34
343
False
What is the function of an Alaskan recording district?
57293ec33f37b31900478196
a mechanism for administration of the public record in Alaska
254
False
Which documents do recording districts universally use between areas?
57293ec33f37b31900478197
acceptance criteria, fee schedule, etc.
460
False
34
343
Into how many recording districts isn't Alaska divided?
5ad414cb604f3c001a4002ad
True
a mechanism for administration of the public record in Alaska
254
What isn't the function of an Alaskan recording district?
5ad414cb604f3c001a4002ae
True
a mechanism for administration of the public record in Alaska
254
What is the function of an Alaskan singing district?
5ad414cb604f3c001a4002af
True
acceptance criteria, fee schedule, etc.
460
Which documents do recording districts universally never use between areas?
5ad414cb604f3c001a4002b0
True
acceptance criteria, fee schedule, etc.
460
Which songs do recording districts universally use between areas?
5ad414cb604f3c001a4002b1
True
The Unorganized Borough has no government of its own, but the U.S. Census Bureau in cooperation with the state divided the Unorganized Borough into 11 census areas solely for the purposes of statistical analysis and presentation. A recording district is a mechanism for administration of the public record in Alaska. The state is divided into 34 recording districts which are centrally administered under a State Recorder. All recording districts use the same acceptance criteria, fee schedule, etc., for accepting documents into the public record.
What are CDPs?
57293f3e6aef051400154bd6
census-designated places
97
False
How many incorporated cities and CDPs does Alaska have, according to the 2010 Census?
57293f3e6aef051400154bd7
355
69
False
Are the majority of CDPs connected or disconnected from the North American road network?
57293f3e6aef051400154bd8
unconnected
351
False
In what area are the majority of cities and CDPS located in Alaska?
57293f3e6aef051400154bd9
"The Bush"
332
False
census-designated places
97
What aren't CDPs?
5ad41508604f3c001a4002d1
True
355
69
How many corporated cities and CDPs does Alaska have, according to the 2010 Census?
5ad41508604f3c001a4002d2
True
355
69
How many incorporated cities and CDPs does Alaska have, according to the 2012 Census?
5ad41508604f3c001a4002d3
True
unconnected
351
Are the minority of CDPs connected or disconnected from the North American road network?
5ad41508604f3c001a4002d4
True
"The Bush"
332
In what area are the minority of cities and CDPS located in Alaska?
5ad41508604f3c001a4002d5
True
As reflected in the 2010 United States Census, Alaska has a total of 355 incorporated cities and census-designated places (CDPs). The tally of cities includes four unified municipalities, essentially the equivalent of a consolidated city–county. The majority of these communities are located in the rural expanse of Alaska known as "The Bush" and are unconnected to the contiguous North American road network. The table at the bottom of this section lists the 100 largest cities and census-designated places in Alaska, in population order.
In 2010, what percent of Alaska's population did not live in a city or CDP?
5729436b1d04691400779213
2.88%
72
False
What four areas have not been established as CDPs by the Census Bureau?
5729436b1d04691400779214
Ketchikan, Kodiak, Palmer and Wasilla
302
False
Which seven CDPs were incorporated as part of the 1980 Census?
5729436b1d04691400779215
Clover Pass, Herring Cove, Ketchikan East, Mountain Point, North Tongass Highway, Pennock Island and Saxman East
521
False
2.88%
72
In 2010, what percent of Alaska's population did not live in a city or CPD?
5ad41545604f3c001a4002e5
True
2.88%
72
In 2012, what percent of Alaska's population did not live in a city or CDP?
5ad41545604f3c001a4002e6
True
2.88%
72
In 2010, what percent of Alaska's population live in a city or CDP?
5ad41545604f3c001a4002e7
True
Ketchikan, Kodiak, Palmer and Wasilla
302
What five areas have not been established as CDPs by the Census Bureau?
5ad41545604f3c001a4002e8
True
Clover Pass, Herring Cove, Ketchikan East, Mountain Point, North Tongass Highway, Pennock Island and Saxman East
521
Which seven CDPs were incorporated as part of the 1982 Census?
5ad41545604f3c001a4002e9
True
Of Alaska's 2010 Census population figure of 710,231, 20,429 people, or 2.88% of the population, did not live in an incorporated city or census-designated place. Approximately three-quarters of that figure were people who live in urban and suburban neighborhoods on the outskirts of the city limits of Ketchikan, Kodiak, Palmer and Wasilla. CDPs have not been established for these areas by the United States Census Bureau, except that seven CDPs were established for the Ketchikan-area neighborhoods in the 1980 Census (Clover Pass, Herring Cove, Ketchikan East, Mountain Point, North Tongass Highway, Pennock Island and Saxman East), but have not been used since. The remaining population was scattered throughout Alaska, both within organized boroughs and in the Unorganized Borough, in largely remote areas.
In what year did Alaskan State Troopers become an official organization?
572943f4af94a219006aa213
1941
145
False
What is different about a "Public Safety Officer" that distiguishes the position from a policeman?
572943f4af94a219006aa214
have police training but do not carry firearms
365
False
What do wildlife enforcers regulate?
572943f4af94a219006aa215
hunting and fishing regulations
567
False
What type of vehicles do Troopers operate?
572943f4af94a219006aa216
a wide variety of land, air, and water patrol vehicles
678
False
1941.
145
In what year did Alaskan State Troopers become an unofficial organization?
5ad41595604f3c001a40030b
True
1941
145
In what year didn't Alaskan State Troopers become an official organization?
5ad41595604f3c001a40030c
True
have police training but do not carry firearms
365
What is the same about a "Public Safety Officer" that distiguishes the position from a policeman?
5ad41595604f3c001a40030d
True
hunting and fishing regulations
567
What don't wildlife enforcers regulate?
5ad41595604f3c001a40030e
True
a wide variety of land, air, and water patrol vehicles
678
What type of vehicles don't Troopers operate?
5ad41595604f3c001a40030f
True
The Alaska State Troopers are Alaska's statewide police force. They have a long and storied history, but were not an official organization until 1941. Before the force was officially organized, law enforcement in Alaska was handled by various federal agencies. Larger towns usually have their own local police and some villages rely on "Public Safety Officers" who have police training but do not carry firearms. In much of the state, the troopers serve as the only police force available. In addition to enforcing traffic and criminal law, wildlife Troopers enforce hunting and fishing regulations. Due to the varied terrain and wide scope of the Troopers' duties, they employ a wide variety of land, air, and water patrol vehicles.
What is Alaska's most prominent orchestra?
572945531d04691400779229
Anchorage Symphony Orchestra
306
False
Which company is Alaska's only professional opera?
572945531d0469140077922a
The Anchorage Opera
414
False
What are a few of Alaska's noteworthy music festivals?
572945531d0469140077922b
Alaska Folk Festival, the Fairbanks Summer Arts Festival, the Anchorage Folk Festival
68
False
Anchorage Symphony Orchestra
306
What isn't Alaska's most prominent orchestra?
5ad415e9604f3c001a40031d
True
Anchorage Symphony Orchestra
306
What is Alaska's least prominent orchestra?
5ad415e9604f3c001a40031e
True
The Anchorage Opera
414
Which company isn't Alaska's only professional opera?
5ad415e9604f3c001a40031f
True
The Anchorage Opera
414
Which company is Alaska's only amateur opera?
5ad415e9604f3c001a400320
True
Alaska Folk Festival, the Fairbanks Summer Arts Festival, the Anchorage Folk Festival
68
What are a few of Alaska's un-noteworthy music festivals?
5ad415e9604f3c001a400321
True
There are many established music festivals in Alaska, including the Alaska Folk Festival, the Fairbanks Summer Arts Festival, the Anchorage Folk Festival, the Athabascan Old-Time Fiddling Festival, the Sitka Jazz Festival, and the Sitka Summer Music Festival. The most prominent orchestra in Alaska is the Anchorage Symphony Orchestra, though the Fairbanks Symphony Orchestra and Juneau Symphony are also notable. The Anchorage Opera is currently the state's only professional opera company, though there are several volunteer and semi-professional organizations in the state as well.
Which Alaskan native starred in a film also set in Alaska?
572945bdaf94a219006aa237
Ray Mala
111
False
Where did actors on the set of The Magnificent live during their stay in Alaska?
572945bdaf94a219006aa238
"Camp Hollywood"
295
False
In what area of Alaska was Camp Hollywood located?
572945bdaf94a219006aa239
Northwest
315
False
Which chef was hired to prepare meals for the actors in The Magnificent?
572945bdaf94a219006aa23a
from the Hotel Roosevelt in Hollywood
485
False
Ray Mala
111
Which Alaskan native starred in a film not set in Alaska?
5ad4162b604f3c001a400337
True
"Camp Hollywood"
295
here didn't actors on the set of The Magnificent live during their stay in Alaska?
5ad4162b604f3c001a400338
True
Northwest
315
In what area of Alaska wasn't Camp Hollywood located?
5ad4162b604f3c001a400339
True
Northwest
315
In what area of Alaska was Camp Alaska located?
5ad4162b604f3c001a40033a
True
from the Hotel Roosevelt in Hollywood
485
Which chef was fired to prepare meals for the actors in The Magnificent?
5ad4162b604f3c001a40033b
True
One of the most prominent movies filmed in Alaska is MGM's Eskimo/Mala The Magnificent, starring Alaska Native Ray Mala. In 1932 an expedition set out from MGM's studios in Hollywood to Alaska to film what was then billed as "The Biggest Picture Ever Made." Upon arriving in Alaska, they set up "Camp Hollywood" in Northwest Alaska, where they lived during the duration of the filming. Louis B. Mayer spared no expense in spite of the remote location, going so far as to hire the chef from the Hotel Roosevelt in Hollywood to prepare meals.
Karl_Popper
Which classical views about the method of science did Popper reject?
57288c842ca10214002da464
inductivist
51
False
Who proposed empirical falsification as the central principle of the scientific method?
57288c842ca10214002da465
Popper
0
False
What is necessary for a scientific theory to be falsified?
57288c842ca10214002da466
decisive experiments
263
False
Which account of knowledge did Popper contest?
57288c842ca10214002da467
classical justificationist
554
False
What is the term for Popper's non-justificational theory of criticism?
57288c842ca10214002da468
critical rationalism
626
False
Popper
0
Who is known for his embrace of the classical inductivist views?
5ad229a3d7d075001a4285a2
True
Popper
0
Who disproved empirical falsification as a central principle of the scientific method?
5ad229a3d7d075001a4285a3
True
falsification
327
What was the white swan fallacy used to discuss?
5ad229a3d7d075001a4285a4
True
refrain from ad hoc manoeuvres
409
What should a scientist do if the outcome of an experiment confirms the theory?
5ad229a3d7d075001a4285a5
True
Popper
507
Who was known for his support of the classical justificationist account of knowledge?
5ad229a3d7d075001a4285a6
True
Popper is known for his rejection of the classical inductivist views on the scientific method, in favour of empirical falsification: A theory in the empirical sciences can never be proven, but it can be falsified, meaning that it can and should be scrutinized by decisive experiments. He used the black swan fallacy to discuss falsification. If the outcome of an experiment contradicts the theory, one should refrain from ad hoc manoeuvres that evade the contradiction merely by making it less falsifiable. Popper is also known for his opposition to the classical justificationist account of knowledge, which he replaced with critical rationalism, "the first non-justificational philosophy of criticism in the history of philosophy."
In which city was Karl Popper born?
57288d6b3acd2414000dfaed
Vienna
24
False
What religion did Popper's family observe during his youth?
57288d6b3acd2414000dfaee
Lutheranism
179
False
Whose law firm did Popper's father join in Vienna?
57288d6b3acd2414000dfaef
Burgomaster Herr Grübl
699
False
What numerical range of volumes did Popper's father keep in his library?
57288d6b3acd2414000dfaf0
12,000–14,000
1031
False
What disposition regarding books did Popper inherit from his father?
57288d6b3acd2414000dfaf1
bibliophile
1011
False
1902
60
What year did Karl Popper pass away?
5ad230c3d7d075001a4286da
True
Lutheranism
179
What did the Popper family convert to after Karl was born?
5ad230c3d7d075001a4286db
True
lawyer
397
What was Karl Popper's mother's profession?
5ad230c3d7d075001a4286dc
True
Grübl
716
Who took over the business after Simon's death?
5ad230c3d7d075001a4286dd
True
12,000–14,000
1031
How many books did Karl's mother have in her library?
5ad230c3d7d075001a4286de
True
Karl Popper was born in Vienna (then in Austria-Hungary) in 1902, to upper middle-class parents. All of Karl Popper's grandparents were Jewish, but the Popper family converted to Lutheranism before Karl was born, and so he received Lutheran baptism. They understood this as part of their cultural assimilation, not as an expression of devout belief. Karl's father Simon Siegmund Carl Popper was a lawyer from Bohemia and a doctor of law at the Vienna University, and mother Jenny Schiff was of Silesian and Hungarian descent. After establishing themselves in Vienna, the Poppers made a rapid social climb in Viennese society: Simon Siegmund Carl became a partner in the law firm of Vienna's liberal Burgomaster Herr Grübl and, after Grübl's death in 1898, Simon took over the business. (Malachi Hacohen records that Herr Grübl's first name was Raimund, after which Karl received his middle name. Popper himself, in his autobiography, erroneously recalls that Herr Grübl's first name was Carl.) His father was a bibliophile who had 12,000–14,000 volumes in his personal library. Popper inherited both the library and the disposition from him.
At which age did Popper first attend university?
57288ea43acd2414000dfafb
16
33
False
What political doctrine interested Popper in 1919?
57288ea43acd2414000dfafc
Marxism
215
False
Which Austrian political party did Popper join as a youth?
57288ea43acd2414000dfafd
Social Democratic Workers' Party of Austria
324
False
What incident killed several of Poppers Marxist political comrades?
57288ea43acd2414000dfafe
street battle in the Hörlgasse
451
False
To which political philosophy did Popper continue to adhere after moving away from Marxism?
57288ea43acd2414000dfaff
social liberalism
706
False
16
33
What age did Popper enter school?
5ad2316ed7d075001a428714
True
15 June 1919
485
When did Popper become disillusioned by social liberalism?
5ad2316ed7d075001a428715
True
psychology
95
What subject did Popper never attend a lecture on?
5ad2316ed7d075001a428716
True
Social Democratic Workers' Party of Austria
324
What party rejected Marxist ideology at the time?
5ad2316ed7d075001a428717
True
eight
516
How many police were shot in the street battle of Horlgasse?
5ad2316ed7d075001a428718
True
Popper left school at the age of 16 and attended lectures in mathematics, physics, philosophy, psychology and the history of music as a guest student at the University of Vienna. In 1919, Popper became attracted by Marxism and subsequently joined the Association of Socialist School Students. He also became a member of the Social Democratic Workers' Party of Austria, which was at that time a party that fully adopted the Marxist ideology. After the street battle in the Hörlgasse on 15 June 1919, when police shot eight of his unarmed party comrades, he became disillusioned by what he saw to be the "pseudo-scientific" historical materialism of Marx, abandoned the ideology, and remained a supporter of social liberalism throughout his life.
What trade did Popper enter as an apprentice?
57288fbf3acd2414000dfb1f
cabinetmaker
191
False
What type of facility did Popper plan to open that would benefit from his furniture-making skills?
57288fbf3acd2414000dfb20
daycare
284
False
In which psychoanalysts clinics did Popper volunteer?
57288fbf3acd2414000dfb21
Alfred Adler
443
False
When did Popper become an ordinary student rather than a guest at university?
57288fbf3acd2414000dfb22
1922
483
False
For which vocation did Popper complete his university examinations?
57288fbf3acd2414000dfb23
elementary teacher
636
False
heavy labour
93
What was easy for Popper to cope with?
5ad232d0d7d075001a428776
True
Alfred Adler
443
Who owned the clinic for adults that Popper volunteered at?
5ad232d0d7d075001a428777
True
1925
749
When did Popper leave the Pädagogisches Institut?
5ad232d0d7d075001a428778
True
1922
483
When did Popper join the university as a guest student?
5ad232d0d7d075001a428779
True
1924
658
When did Popper complete his examination as a university teacher?
5ad232d0d7d075001a42877a
True
He worked in street construction for a short amount of time, but was unable to cope with the heavy labour. Continuing to attend university as a guest student, he started an apprenticeship as cabinetmaker, which he completed as a journeyman. He was dreaming at that time of starting a daycare facility for children, for which he assumed the ability to make furniture might be useful. After that he did voluntary service in one of psychoanalyst Alfred Adler's clinics for children. In 1922, he did his matura by way of a second chance education and finally joined the University as an ordinary student. He completed his examination as an elementary teacher in 1924 and started working at an after-school care club for socially endangered children. In 1925, he went to the newly founded Pädagogisches Institut and continued studying philosophy and psychology. Around that time he started courting Josefine Anna Henninger, who later became his wife.
Who supervised Popper's doctorate?
572891182ca10214002da478
Karl Bühler
71
False
What is an English translation of the title of Popper's doctoral thesis?
572891182ca10214002da479
The question of method in cognitive psychology
155
False
What subjects was Popper authorized to teach in secondary school in 1929?
572891182ca10214002da47a
mathematics and physics
252
False
Whose rise to power motivated Popper to publish his work in hopes of obtaining an academic position abroad?
572891182ca10214002da47b
Nazism
411
False
In which work published in 1934 did Popper introduce his theories centered around falsifiability?
572891182ca10214002da47c
The Logic of Scientific Discovery
871
False
1928
3
When did Karl Buhler earn a doctorate in psychology?
5ad23389d7d075001a42879e
True
Die Methodenfrage der Denkpsychologie
115
What was the title of Buhler's dissertation?
5ad23389d7d075001a42879f
True
1929
207
When was Popper barred from teaching math in secondary school?
5ad23389d7d075001a4287a0
True
Die beiden Grundprobleme der Erkenntnistheorie
521
What was the title of Popper's last book?
5ad23389d7d075001a4287a1
True
unpaid
1134
What kind of leave did Popper use to visit Italy?
5ad23389d7d075001a4287a2
True
In 1928, he earned a doctorate in psychology, under the supervision of Karl Bühler. His dissertation was entitled "Die Methodenfrage der Denkpsychologie" (The question of method in cognitive psychology). In 1929, he obtained the authorisation to teach mathematics and physics in secondary school, which he started doing. He married his colleague Josefine Anna Henninger (1906–1985) in 1930. Fearing the rise of Nazism and the threat of the Anschluss, he started to use the evenings and the nights to write his first book Die beiden Grundprobleme der Erkenntnistheorie (The Two Fundamental Problems of the Theory of Knowledge). He needed to publish one to get some academic position in a country that was safe for people of Jewish descent. However, he ended up not publishing the two-volume work, but a condensed version of it with some new material, Logik der Forschung (The Logic of Scientific Discovery), in 1934. Here, he criticised psychologism, naturalism, inductionism, and logical positivism, and put forth his theory of potential falsifiability as the criterion demarcating science from non-science. In 1935 and 1936, he took unpaid leave to go to the United Kingdom for a study visit.
Where did Popper move in 1937?
5728929aff5b5019007da30a
New Zealand
82
False
Where was Popper's academic appointment in New Zealand?
5728929aff5b5019007da30b
Canterbury University College of the University of New Zealand
137
False
Which lifelong friend did Popper make in Dunedin?
5728929aff5b5019007da30c
John Carew Eccles
344
False
What philosophical fields did Popper teach at the London School of Economics?
5728929aff5b5019007da30d
logic and scientific method
493
False
Which Austrian school's failure to give Popper a directorship prompted him to return to the United Kingdom at the end of his life?
5728929aff5b5019007da30e
Ludwig Boltzmann Gesellschaft
1008
False
1937
3
What year did Popper become a lecturer in biology?
5ad23520d7d075001a4287d6
True
The Open Society and its Enemies
264
What was the title of John Carew Eccles's influential work?
5ad23520d7d075001a4287d7
True
November
978
What month was Popper's wife born in?
5ad23520d7d075001a4287d8
True
1985
848
What year did John Carew Eccles move to the United Kingdom?
5ad23520d7d075001a4287d9
True
University of London
649
What university was Popper appointed a professor of astronomy at?
5ad23520d7d075001a4287da
True
In 1937, Popper finally managed to get a position that allowed him to emigrate to New Zealand, where he became lecturer in philosophy at Canterbury University College of the University of New Zealand in Christchurch. It was here that he wrote his influential work The Open Society and its Enemies. In Dunedin he met the Professor of Physiology John Carew Eccles and formed a lifelong friendship with him. In 1946, after the Second World War, he moved to the United Kingdom to become reader in logic and scientific method at the London School of Economics. Three years later, in 1949, he was appointed professor of logic and scientific method at the University of London. Popper was president of the Aristotelian Society from 1958 to 1959. He retired from academic life in 1969, though he remained intellectually active for the rest of his life. In 1985, he returned to Austria so that his wife could have her relatives around her during the last months of her life; she died in November that year. After the Ludwig Boltzmann Gesellschaft failed to establish him as the director of a newly founded branch researching the philosophy of science, he went back again to the United Kingdom in 1986, settling in Kenley, Surrey.
How old was Popper when he died?
5728935fff5b5019007da314
92
95
False
Which cemetery in Vienna received Popper's ashes?
5728935fff5b5019007da315
Lainzer
295
False
Where are Popper's manuscripts kept now?
5728935fff5b5019007da316
Hoover Institution at Stanford University
556
False
Which university has the contents of Popper's library?
5728935fff5b5019007da317
Klagenfurt University
680
False
What was Popper's wife's name?
5728935fff5b5019007da318
Josefine Anna Popper
355
False
92
95
At what age did Josefine Anna Popper die?
5ad2362ad7d075001a4287fc
True
cancer
33
What did Popper's wife die from?
5ad2362ad7d075001a4287fd
True
Popper's
523
Whose manuscripts were sent to the University of London?
5ad2362ad7d075001a4287fe
True
Klagenfurt
680
What university possesses Melitta Mew's library?
5ad2362ad7d075001a4287ff
True
October 2008
966
When did Klagenfurt University lose its copyrights from the estate?
5ad2362ad7d075001a428800
True
Popper died of "complications of cancer, pneumonia and kidney failure" in Kenley at the age of 92 on 17 September 1994. He had been working continuously on his philosophy until two weeks before, when he suddenly fell terminally ill. After cremation, his ashes were taken to Vienna and buried at Lainzer cemetery adjacent to the ORF Centre, where his wife Josefine Anna Popper (called ‘Hennie’) had already been buried. Popper's estate is managed by his secretary and personal assistant Melitta Mew and her husband Raymond. Popper's manuscripts went to the Hoover Institution at Stanford University, partly during his lifetime and partly as supplementary material after his death. Klagenfurt University possesses Popper's library, including his precious bibliophilia, as well as hard copies of the original Hoover material and microfilms of the supplementary material. The remaining parts of the estate were mostly transferred to The Karl Popper Charitable Trust. In October 2008 Klagenfurt University acquired the copyrights from the estate.
Which award did Popper receive from the American Political Science Association?
5728a1ddff5b5019007da35e
Lippincott Award
63
False
What recognition did Austria bestow on Popper in 1986?
5728a1ddff5b5019007da35f
Grand Decoration of Honour in Gold for Services to the Republic of Austria
416
False
Who gave Popper its Humanist Laureate Award?
5728a1ddff5b5019007da360
International Academy of Humanism
692
False
Which English monarch knighted Popper?
5728a1ddff5b5019007da361
Queen Elizabeth II
746
False
Which central European university made Popper a fellow?
5728a1ddff5b5019007da362
Charles University, Prague
364
False
1965
768
When was Popper knighted by King George?
5ad236bfd7d075001a42881a
True
Sonning Prize
131
What honor did Popper never win?
5ad236bfd7d075001a42881b
True
Grand Decoration of Honour in Gold
416
What award did Russia send to Popper?
5ad236bfd7d075001a42881c
True
1976
823
When was Popper thrown out of the Royal Society?
5ad236bfd7d075001a42881d
True
Insignia of a Companion of Honour
854
What award did Popper lose in 1982?
5ad236bfd7d075001a42881e
True
Popper won many awards and honours in his field, including the Lippincott Award of the American Political Science Association, the Sonning Prize, the Otto Hahn Peace Medal of the United Nations Association of Germany in Berlin and fellowships in the Royal Society, British Academy, London School of Economics, King's College London, Darwin College, Cambridge, and Charles University, Prague. Austria awarded him the Grand Decoration of Honour in Gold for Services to the Republic of Austria in 1986, and the Federal Republic of Germany its Grand Cross with Star and Sash of the Order of Merit, and the peace class of the Order Pour le Mérite. He received the Humanist Laureate Award from the International Academy of Humanism. He was knighted by Queen Elizabeth II in 1965, and was elected a Fellow of the Royal Society in 1976. He was invested with the Insignia of a Companion of Honour in 1982.
In which year did Popper win the Karl Renner Prize?
5728a2bfff5b5019007da37a
1978
120
False
Which city made Popper part of its Ring of Honour in 1983?
5728a2bfff5b5019007da37b
Vienna
237
False
What award given by a Japanese foundation did Popper win in 1992?
5728a2bfff5b5019007da37c
Kyoto Prize in Arts and Philosophy
359
False
Popper won the Dr. Leopold Lucas Prize in which year?
5728a2bfff5b5019007da37d
1981
200
False
1965
94
What year did Popper win the City of Berlin Prize for the Humanities?
5ad238bdd7d075001a428838
True
Karl Renner Prize
101
What award did Popper win in 1970?
5ad238bdd7d075001a428839
True
Kyoto Prize in Arts and Philosophy
359
What award given by an American foundation did Popper win in 1992?
5ad238bdd7d075001a42883a
True
for "symbolising the open spirit of the 20th century"
394
Why was Popper awarded the Ring of Honour of the City of Vienna?
5ad238bdd7d075001a42883b
True
Dr. Leopold Lucas Prize
175
What prize did Karl Renner recieve in 1981?
5ad238bdd7d075001a42883c
True
Other awards and recognition for Popper included the City of Vienna Prize for the Humanities (1965), Karl Renner Prize (1978), Austrian Decoration for Science and Art (1980), Dr. Leopold Lucas Prize (1981), Ring of Honour of the City of Vienna (1983) and the Premio Internazionale of the Italian Federico Nietzsche Society (1988). In 1992, he was awarded the Kyoto Prize in Arts and Philosophy for "symbolising the open spirit of the 20th century" and for his "enormous influence on the formation of the modern intellectual climate".
What political philosophy that attracted Popper as a teenager had a profound influence on his thinking going forward?
5728a4824b864d1900164b46
Marxism
27
False
For a time during which year did Popper consider himself a communist?
5728a4824b864d1900164b47
1919
173
False
At which stage of life was Popper most strongly influenced by Marxist thinking?
5728a4824b864d1900164b48
teenage years
46
False
How did Popper feel about Marxism after only a short time associating with other Marxists?
5728a4824b864d1900164b49
disillusioned
333
False
left a profound mark on his thought
60
How did Popper's rejection of Marxism in his adult years effect him?
5ad23a10d7d075001a428842
True
1919
173
In what year did Popper consider himself a fascist for a few months?
5ad23a10d7d075001a428843
True
Marxism
375
What ideology did Popper never become disillusioned with?
5ad23a10d7d075001a428844
True
those who believed that spilling blood for the sake of a revolution was necessary
450
Who did Popper align himself closely with?
5ad23a10d7d075001a428845
True
sacrificing human lives
573
When did Popper think it was unnecessary to act with prudence?
5ad23a10d7d075001a428846
True
Karl Popper's rejection of Marxism during his teenage years left a profound mark on his thought. He had at one point joined a socialist association, and for a few months in 1919 considered himself a communist. During this time he became familiar with the Marxist view of economics, class-war, and history. Although he quickly became disillusioned with the views expounded by Marxism, his flirtation with the ideology led him to distance himself from those who believed that spilling blood for the sake of a revolution was necessary. He came to realise that when it came to sacrificing human lives, one was to think and act with extreme prudence.
What political ideology dominated Austrian politics in the decades before the second world war?
5728a5ce4b864d1900164b6c
fascism
45
False
What key event in 1938 pushed Popper into exile from Austria?
5728a5ce4b864d1900164b6d
the Anschluss
208
False
What political ideology do Popper's major works defend?
5728a5ce4b864d1900164b6e
democratic liberalism
650
False
What form of political organization do Popper's works mainly critique?
5728a5ce4b864d1900164b6f
totalitarianism
815
False
What was the Anschluss?
5728a5ce4b864d1900164b70
the annexation of Austria by the German Reich
223
False
democratic parties
15
What prevented fascism from taking over Austrian politics?
5ad23ae5d7d075001a42885e
True
1920s and 1930s
95
In what years was fascism prevented from taking over?
5ad23ae5d7d075001a42885f
True
events after the Anschluss
195
What forced Popper to come out of exile?
5ad23ae5d7d075001a428860
True
The Poverty of Historicism
367
What was one of Popper's least important works?
5ad23ae5d7d075001a428861
True
Popper
123
Whose books critiqued democratic liberalism as a social and political philosophy?
5ad23ae5d7d075001a428862
True
The failure of democratic parties to prevent fascism from taking over Austrian politics in the 1920s and 1930s traumatised Popper. He suffered from the direct consequences of this failure, since events after the Anschluss, the annexation of Austria by the German Reich in 1938, forced him into permanent exile. His most important works in the field of social science—The Poverty of Historicism (1944) and The Open Society and Its Enemies (1945)—were inspired by his reflection on the events of his time and represented, in a sense, a reaction to the prevalent totalitarian ideologies that then dominated Central European politics. His books defended democratic liberalism as a social and political philosophy. They also represented extensive critiques of the philosophical presuppositions underpinning all forms of totalitarianism.
Which two important psychologists did Popper view as advancing non-scientific theories?
5728a7583acd2414000dfbef
Freud and Adler
79
False
Whose recent breakthrough in physics did Popper view as paradigmatic science?
5728a7583acd2414000dfbf0
Einstein
163
False
What quality of the theory of relativity did Popper believe made it proper science?
5728a7583acd2414000dfbf1
risky
348
False
What did Popper think psychoanalytic theory shared more feature with than real science ?
5728a7583acd2414000dfbf2
primitive myths
842
False
What could you not do to psychoanalytic theory that Popper believed crucial in genuine science?
5728a7583acd2414000dfbf3
falsify
652
False
early 20th century
213
When did Adler set off a revolution in the field of physics?
5ad23d1fd7d075001a428884
True
highly "risky"
340
What did Freud think Einstein's theory was?
5ad23d1fd7d075001a428885
True
1919
596
When did Popper's experiments confirm light is deflected towards solid bodies?
5ad23d1fd7d075001a428886
True
Popper
0
Who though psychoanalytic theories had more in common with genuine science than myths?
5ad23d1fd7d075001a428887
True
physics
198
What field did Einstein set off a revolution in during the late 20th century?
5ad23d1fd7d075001a428888
True
Popper puzzled over the stark contrast between the non-scientific character of Freud and Adler's theories in the field of psychology and the revolution set off by Einstein's theory of relativity in physics in the early 20th century. Popper thought that Einstein's theory, as a theory properly grounded in scientific thought and method, was highly "risky", in the sense that it was possible to deduce consequences from it which were, in the light of the then-dominant Newtonian physics, highly improbable (e.g., that light is deflected towards solid bodies—confirmed by Eddington's experiments in 1919), and which would, if they turned out to be false, falsify the whole theory. In contrast, nothing could, even in principle, falsify psychoanalytic theories. He thus came to the conclusion that psychoanalytic theories had more in common with primitive myths than with genuine science.
According to Popper, a theory is scientific only is it is susceptible to what?
5728a9042ca10214002da550
falsification
672
False
What key components of science are ineffective when brought to bear on non-scientific theories?
5728a9042ca10214002da551
criticism or experiment
369
False
How did Popper characterize the wide applicability and immunity to criticism of psychoanalytic theory?
5728a9042ca10214002da552
weaknesses
139
False
Popper
9
Who thought the weaknesses of psychoanalytical theories were actually strengths?
5ad2444bd7d075001a428a4e
True
criticism or experiment
369
What made it possible for psychoanalytical theories to be shown as false?
5ad2444bd7d075001a428a4f
True
Popper
492
Who never tackled the problem of demarcation in the philosophy of science?
5ad2444bd7d075001a428a50
True
being susceptible to falsification
651
What did Popper think the weakness of a scientific theory lay in?
5ad2444bd7d075001a428a51
True
This led Popper to conclude that what were regarded[by whom?] as the remarkable strengths of psychoanalytical theories were actually their weaknesses. Psychoanalytical theories were crafted in a way that made them able to refute any criticism and to give an explanation for every possible form of human behaviour. The nature of such theories made it impossible for any criticism or experiment - even in principle - to show them to be false. This realisation had an important consequence when Popper later tackled the problem of demarcation in the philosophy of science, as it led him to posit that the strength of a scientific theory lies in its both being susceptible to falsification, and not actually being falsified by criticism made of it. He considered that if a theory cannot, in principle, be falsified by criticism, it is not a scientific theory.
What term did Popper use for his philosophy?
5728a9fe3acd2414000dfc4f
critical rationalism
24
False
Which account of scientific method did Popper's repudiate?
5728a9fe3acd2414000dfc50
the classical observationalist-inductivist account
170
False
What was Popper's position on classical empiricism?
5728a9fe3acd2414000dfc51
rejection
131
False
According to Popper, what is the only way one can test scientific theories because they are necessarily abstract?
5728a9fe3acd2414000dfc52
indirectly
381
False
critical rationalism
24
What term did Einstein term to describe his philosophy?
5ad2451ed7d075001a428a88
True
classical empiricism
144
What does critical rationalism embrace?
5ad2451ed7d075001a428a89
True
scientific theories
314
What did Popper think was concrete in nature?
5ad2451ed7d075001a428a8a
True
scientific theories
314
What did Popper think could be tested only directly?
5ad2451ed7d075001a428a8b
True
Popper
0
Who argued in favor of the classical observationalist-inductivist account of science?
5ad2451ed7d075001a428a8c
True
Popper coined the term "critical rationalism" to describe his philosophy. Concerning the method of science, the term indicates his rejection of classical empiricism, and the classical observationalist-inductivist account of science that had grown out of it. Popper argued strongly against the latter, holding that scientific theories are abstract in nature, and can be tested only indirectly, by reference to their implications. He also held that scientific theory, and human knowledge generally, is irreducibly conjectural or hypothetical, and is generated by the creative imagination to solve problems that have arisen in specific historico-cultural settings.
Popper pointed out an important logical asymmetry between what two concepts?
5728aba2ff5b5019007da414
verification and falsifiability
569
False
What does Popper say demarcates scientific theory from non-science?
5728aba2ff5b5019007da415
falsifiability
678
False
What political theory did Popper say did not meet his falsifiability criterion?
5728aba2ff5b5019007da416
Marxism
927
False
What branch of psychology was Popper critical of for not producing falsifiable theory?
5728aba2ff5b5019007da417
psychoanalysis
895
False
verification and falsifiability
569
Popper pointed out a logical symmetry between what two concepts?
5ad24ea7d7d075001a428c58
True
logical asymmetry between verification and falsifiability
543
What lies at the heart of Einstein's philosophy about science?
5ad24ea7d7d075001a428c59
True
logical asymmetry
543
What discouraged Popper from taking falsifiability as his criterion of demarcation between things that are scientific and not scientific?
5ad24ea7d7d075001a428c5a
True
Marxism
927
What ideology did Popper raise to scientific status?
5ad24ea7d7d075001a428c5b
True
Marxism
927
What ideology did Popper claim was falsifiable?
5ad24ea7d7d075001a428c5c
True
Logically, no number of positive outcomes at the level of experimental testing can confirm a scientific theory, but a single counterexample is logically decisive: it shows the theory, from which the implication is derived, to be false. To say that a given statement (e.g., the statement of a law of some scientific theory) -- [call it "T"] -- is "falsifiable" does not mean that "T" is false. Rather, it means that, if "T" is false, then (in principle), "T" could be shown to be false, by observation or by experiment. Popper's account of the logical asymmetry between verification and falsifiability lies at the heart of his philosophy of science. It also inspired him to take falsifiability as his criterion of demarcation between what is, and is not, genuinely scientific: a theory should be considered scientific if, and only if, it is falsifiable. This led him to attack the claims of both psychoanalysis and contemporary Marxism to scientific status, on the basis that their theories are not falsifiable.
Which of Popper's works addresses the improvement of scientific understanding of the world over time?
5728ac854b864d1900164c02
All Life is Problem Solving
3
False
Popper described the growth of scientific understanding as what kind of process?
5728ac854b864d1900164c03
evolutionary
812
False
What aspect of a scientific theory can never be fully verified, according to Popper?
5728ac854b864d1900164c04
truth content
238
False
All Life is Problem Solving
3
In what book did Popper seek to explain the process of literary knowledge?
5ad2500dd7d075001a428cae
True
Popper
32
Who explained why our understanding of the universe seems to worsen over time?
5ad2500dd7d075001a428caf
True
truth content
238
What part of theories can be verified by scientific testing?
5ad2500dd7d075001a428cb0
True
the word "falsified"
384
What refers to something being "fake"?
5ad2500dd7d075001a428cb1
True
evolutionary process
812
What was the advance of scientific knowledge in Einstein's view?
5ad2500dd7d075001a428cb2
True
In All Life is Problem Solving, Popper sought to explain the apparent progress of scientific knowledge – that is, how it is that our understanding of the universe seems to improve over time. This problem arises from his position that the truth content of our theories, even the best of them, cannot be verified by scientific testing, but can only be falsified. Again, in this context the word "falsified" does not refer to something being "fake"; rather, that something can be (i.e., is capable of being) shown to be false by observation or experiment. Some things simply do not lend themselves to being shown to be false, and therefore, are not falsifiable. If so, then how is it that the growth of science appears to result in a growth in knowledge? In Popper's view, the advance of scientific knowledge is an evolutionary process characterised by his formula:
What process in science is like the process of natural selection in nature?
5728ae21ff5b5019007da47c
error elimination
206
False
What is a better description for theories that survive scientific scrutiny than "more true?"
5728ae21ff5b5019007da47d
more "fit"
412
False
What is another term for the tentative theories enter the process of error elimination in science?
5728ae21ff5b5019007da47e
conjectures
1085
False
Toward what does Popper believe scientific understandings progress?
5728ae21ff5b5019007da47f
more and more interesting problems
979
False
competing conjectures
57
What is not subject to rigorous attempts at falsification?
5ad25133d7d075001a428cc2
True
natural selection
273
What serves a different purpose in biological evolution than error elimination serves in science?
5ad25133d7d075001a428cc3
True
Theories that better survive the process of refutation
326
What theories are less applicable to the situation at hand?
5ad25133d7d075001a428cc4
True
biological evolution
707
What produces adaptive traits to deal only with simple problems of survival?
5ad25133d7d075001a428cc5
True
Popper
921
Who thinks the evolution of theories does not reflect a certain type of progress?
5ad25133d7d075001a428cc6
True
In response to a given problem situation (), a number of competing conjectures, or tentative theories (), are systematically subjected to the most rigorous attempts at falsification possible. This process, error elimination (), performs a similar function for science that natural selection performs for biological evolution. Theories that better survive the process of refutation are not more true, but rather, more "fit"—in other words, more applicable to the problem situation at hand (). Consequently, just as a species' biological fitness does not ensure continued survival, neither does rigorous testing protect a scientific theory from refutation in the future. Yet, as it appears that the engine of biological evolution has, over many generations, produced adaptive traits equipped to deal with more and more complex problems of survival, likewise, the evolution of theories through the scientific method may, in Popper's view, reflect a certain type of progress: toward more and more interesting problems (). For Popper, it is in the interplay between the tentative theories (conjectures) and error elimination (refutation) that scientific knowledge advances toward greater and greater problems; in a process very much akin to the interplay between genetic variation and natural selection.
Popper's thoughts on falsification present a solution to the philosophical problem concerning what type of scientific reasoning?
5728b0f44b864d1900164c30
induction
95
False
What parts of a theory are unnecessary before the simple theory is falsified?
5728b0f44b864d1900164c31
additional conditions
644
False
Who presented a solution to the philosophical problem of induction centered around falsifiability?
5728b0f44b864d1900164c32
Popper
486
False
Popper
486
Who never claimed to have solved the philosophical problem of induction?
5ad251ced7d075001a428cde
True
every day the sun will rise
220
What theory is not possible to formulate?
5ad251ced7d075001a428cdf
True
it does not rise
252
What would confirm the theory the sun will rise?
5ad251ced7d075001a428ce0
True
to make instead the more complex assumption
493
What is rational according to Popper?
5ad251ced7d075001a428ce1
True
Popper
486
Who said it was rational to assume the sun will rise until a given day?
5ad251ced7d075001a428ce2
True
Among his contributions to philosophy is his claim to have solved the philosophical problem of induction. He states that while there is no way to prove that the sun will rise, it is possible to formulate the theory that every day the sun will rise; if it does not rise on some particular day, the theory will be falsified and will have to be replaced by a different one. Until that day, there is no need to reject the assumption that the theory is true. Nor is it rational according to Popper to make instead the more complex assumption that the sun will rise until a given day, but will stop doing so the day after, or similar statements with additional conditions.
Popper's rational approach opposes what technique sometimes used to remove contradictions in knowledge?
5728b48a3acd2414000dfd1f
ad-hoc-measures
244
False
Which of Popper's students argued that rational criticism should be most widely applied?
5728b48a3acd2414000dfd20
W.W. Bartley III
404
False
What type of knowledge is not the only sphere of rational criticism, according to Popper's student W.W. Bartley III?
5728b48a3acd2414000dfd21
empirical
522
False
Popper
0
Who held that rationality is restricted  to the realm of empirical or scientific theories?
5ad259dbd7d075001a428e1e
True
metaphysical ideas
311
What is rational discussion about not possible, according to this view?
5ad259dbd7d075001a428e1f
True
Popper
387
Who was W.W. Bartley III's student?
5ad259dbd7d075001a428e20
True
everything can be rationally criticised
552
What was W.W. Bartley III's uncontroversial claim?
5ad259dbd7d075001a428e21
True
Popper held that rationality is not restricted to the realm of empirical or scientific theories, but that it is merely a special case of the general method of criticism, the method of finding and eliminating contradictions in knowledge without ad-hoc-measures. According to this view, rational discussion about metaphysical ideas, about moral values and even about purposes is possible. Popper's student W.W. Bartley III tried to radicalise this idea and made the controversial claim that not only can criticism go beyond empirical knowledge, but that everything can be rationally criticised.
According to Popper, what is not grounds for doubt?
5728b5f5ff5b5019007da524
lack of justification
200
False
What principle of traditional philosophy did Popper take an anti-justificationist stance against?
5728b5f5ff5b5019007da525
principle of sufficient reason
91
False
What does Popper believe is essential to do to theories instead of justification?
5728b5f5ff5b5019007da526
eliminate errors
395
False
What don't we need to look for about theories in Popper's view?
5728b5f5ff5b5019007da527
good positive reasons
461
False
Popper
3
Who was a pro-justificationist?
5ad25ac9d7d075001a428e48
True
assumption
141
What did Popper think needed to be justified?
5ad25ac9d7d075001a428e49
True
a lack of justification
198
What is a justification for doubt?
5ad25ac9d7d075001a428e4a
True
Popper
3
Who believed that good positive reasons exist?
5ad25ac9d7d075001a428e4b
True
theories
265
What did Popper think should never be tested or scrutinized?
5ad25ac9d7d075001a428e4c
True
To Popper, who was an anti-justificationist, traditional philosophy is misled by the false principle of sufficient reason. He thinks that no assumption can ever be or needs ever to be justified, so a lack of justification is not a justification for doubt. Instead, theories should be tested and scrutinised. It is not the goal to bless theories with claims of certainty or justification, but to eliminate errors in them. He writes, "there are no such things as good positive reasons; nor do we need such things [...] But [philosophers] obviously cannot quite bring [themselves] to believe that this is my opinion, let alone that it is right" (The Philosophy of Karl Popper, p. 1043)
Which of Popper's works criticized the idea that history has an inexorable developmental path?
5728b7412ca10214002da646
The Poverty of Historicism
40
False
What is the term for the view that there are discoverable general laws constraining history's development?
5728b7412ca10214002da647
historicism
166
False
What political forms did Popper believe historicism supported?
5728b7412ca10214002da648
authoritarianism and totalitarianism
402
False
What unpredictable feature of the world did Popper say refuted historicism?
5728b7412ca10214002da649
the growth of human knowledge
565
False
The Open Society and Its Enemies and The Poverty of Historicism
3
In what book did Popper defend historicism?
5ad25ba0d7d075001a428e78
True
Popper
68
Who criticized the "Open Society"?
5ad25ba0d7d075001a428e79
True
the theory that history develops inexorably
184
What did Einstein consider historicism to be?
5ad25ba0d7d075001a428e7a
True
historicism
455
What did Popper argue is founded on correct assumptions regarding the nature of scientific law and prediction?
5ad25ba0d7d075001a428e7b
True
society
663
What can predict its own future states of knowledge?
5ad25ba0d7d075001a428e7c
True
In The Open Society and Its Enemies and The Poverty of Historicism, Popper developed a critique of historicism and a defence of the "Open Society". Popper considered historicism to be the theory that history develops inexorably and necessarily according to knowable general laws towards a determinate end. He argued that this view is the principal theoretical presupposition underpinning most forms of authoritarianism and totalitarianism. He argued that historicism is founded upon mistaken assumptions regarding the nature of scientific law and prediction. Since the growth of human knowledge is a causal factor in the evolution of human history, and since "no society can predict, scientifically, its own future states of knowledge", it follows, he argued, that there can be no predictive science of human history. For Popper, metaphysical and historical indeterminism go hand in hand.
Whose theory of truth did Popper read with intense interest in 1935?
5728c8083acd2414000dfe3d
Alfred Tarski
307
False
What theory of interest to Popper did Alfred Tarski publish in 1933?
5728c8083acd2414000dfe3e
semantic theory of truth
255
False
Tarski's theory overcame certain objections to what conception of truth?
5728c8083acd2414000dfe3f
truth as correspondence
216
False
What kind of realism did Popper believe Tarski's theory supported?
5728c8083acd2414000dfe40
metaphysical
583
False
the search for truth
34
What did Popper write about before 1934?
5ad25d88d7d075001a428ef6
True
Popper
344
Whose theory of truth did Alfred Tarski read in 1935?
5ad25d88d7d075001a428ef7
True
theory
534
What seemed to disprove metaphysical realism and the regulative idea of a search for truth to Popper?
5ad25d88d7d075001a428ef8
True
one of the strongest motives for scientific discovery
59
What did Tarski write about the search for truth in 1934?
5ad25d88d7d075001a428ef9
True
Objective Knowledge
138
What book by Alfred Tarski was published in 1972?
5ad25d88d7d075001a428efa
True
As early as 1934, Popper wrote of the search for truth as "one of the strongest motives for scientific discovery." Still, he describes in Objective Knowledge (1972) early concerns about the much-criticised notion of truth as correspondence. Then came the semantic theory of truth formulated by the logician Alfred Tarski and published in 1933. Popper writes of learning in 1935 of the consequences of Tarski's theory, to his intense joy. The theory met critical objections to truth as correspondence and thereby rehabilitated it. The theory also seemed, in Popper's eyes, to support metaphysical realism and the regulative idea of a search for truth.
What term do philosophers give to the kind of theory Tarski proposed about truth?
5728ca7a2ca10214002da7e6
deflationary
310
False
With what does Popper say Tarski's theory replaces the predicate "is true?"
5728ca7a2ca10214002da7e7
"corresponds to the facts"
399
False
What concept did Tarski introduce to discuss the conditions for the truth of statements?
5728ca7a2ca10214002da7e8
metalanguage
119
False
What two things does Popper argue Tarski's theory involves in an evaluation of truth?
5728ca7a2ca10214002da7e9
assertions and the facts to which they refer
535
False
conditions for the truth of a sentence
30
What is not part of a metalanguage?
5ad25e92d7d075001a428f24
True
if snow is white
199
When is the sentence "Snow is white" untrue?
5ad25e92d7d075001a428f25
True
Tarski's theory
289
What does Popper interpret as a deflationary theory?
5ad25e92d7d075001a428f26
True
the fact that examples such as the one described above refer to two things
459
What does Tarski base his interpretation of Popper on?
5ad25e92d7d075001a428f27
True
the introduction of a "metalinguistic predicate"
656
What does Tarski identify Popper's formulation of the truth conditions of sentences as?
5ad25e92d7d075001a428f28
True
According to this theory, the conditions for the truth of a sentence as well as the sentences themselves are part of a metalanguage. So, for example, the sentence "Snow is white" is true if and only if snow is white. Although many philosophers have interpreted, and continue to interpret, Tarski's theory as a deflationary theory, Popper refers to it as a theory in which "is true" is replaced with "corresponds to the facts". He bases this interpretation on the fact that examples such as the one described above refer to two things: assertions and the facts to which they refer. He identifies Tarski's formulation of the truth conditions of sentences as the introduction of a "metalinguistic predicate" and distinguishes the following cases:
What term does Popper use that roughly means verisimilitude?
5728cceb2ca10214002da814
truthlikeness
205
False
Poppers notion of verisimilitude leaves no place for which kind of probabilities in the evaluation of scientific hypotheses?
5728cceb2ca10214002da815
subjective
580
False
What class of considerations did Popper believe were not important in scientific measurement?
5728cceb2ca10214002da816
epistemic
623
False
What is the logical content of hypotheses inversely proportional to in Popper's reasoning?
5728cceb2ca10214002da817
probability
122
False
truthlikeness
205
What term means the opposite of verisimilitude?
5ad26358d7d075001a4290f6
True
verisimilitude
186
What was Popper's unimportant notion?
5ad26358d7d075001a4290f7
True
theory
437
What can never be evaluated as more or less true than another on an quantitative basis?
5ad26358d7d075001a4290f8
True
quantitative basis
500
What does Popper emphasize has a lot to do with subjective probabilities?
5ad26358d7d075001a4290f9
True
Upon this basis, along with that of the logical content of assertions (where logical content is inversely proportional to probability), Popper went on to develop his important notion of verisimilitude or "truthlikeness". The intuitive idea behind verisimilitude is that the assertions or hypotheses of scientific theories can be objectively measured with respect to the amount of truth and falsity that they imply. And, in this way, one theory can be evaluated as more or less true than another on a quantitative basis which, Popper emphasises forcefully, has nothing to do with "subjective probabilities" or other merely "epistemic" considerations.
What did Popper argue was objective and independent of its subject?
5728ce273acd2414000dfeeb
knowledge
127
False
How many different worlds or realities did Popper differentiate in Objective Knowledge?
5728ce273acd2414000dfeec
three
293
False
What constituted World One in Popper's theory?
5728ce273acd2414000dfeed
the physical world
324
False
Who produced the contents of World Three?
5728ce273acd2414000dfeee
individual human beings
741
False
Which world's evolution corresponds to the growth of human knowledge?
5728ce273acd2414000dfeef
World Three
1375
False
Knowledge
0
What was not objective for Popper?
5ad265b1d7d075001a4291bc
True
Objective Knowledge: An Evolutionary Approach
227
In what book did Popper say that knowledge was dependent on the knowing subject?
5ad265b1d7d075001a4291bd
True
three
293
How many different worlds or realities did Einstein define in Objective Knowledge?
5ad265b1d7d075001a4291be
True
the physical world
324
What constituted World Four in Popper's theory?
5ad265b1d7d075001a4291bf
True
books
619
What items did Popper say were not a product of the second world made manifest in the first world?
5ad265b1d7d075001a4291c0
True
Knowledge, for Popper, was objective, both in the sense that it is objectively true (or truthlike), and also in the sense that knowledge has an ontological status (i.e., knowledge as object) independent of the knowing subject (Objective Knowledge: An Evolutionary Approach, 1972). He proposed three worlds: World One, being the physical world, or physical states; World Two, being the world of mind, or mental states, ideas, and perceptions; and World Three, being the body of human knowledge expressed in its manifold forms, or the products of the second world made manifest in the materials of the first world (i.e., books, papers, paintings, symphonies, and all the products of the human mind). World Three, he argued, was the product of individual human beings in exactly the same sense that an animal path is the product of individual animals, and that, as such, has an existence and evolution independent of any individual knowing subjects. The influence of World Three, in his view, on the individual human mind (World Two) is at least as strong as the influence of World One. In other words, the knowledge held by a given individual mind owes at least as much to the total accumulated wealth of human knowledge, made manifest, as to the world of direct experience. As such, the growth of human knowledge could be said to be a function of the independent evolution of World Three. Many contemporary philosophers, such as Daniel Dennett, have not embraced Popper's Three World conjecture, due mostly, it seems, to its resemblance to mind-body dualism.
Which of Popper's notions is often invoked in creation-evolution debates?
5728cfdd4b864d1900164e9a
criterion of falsifiability
298
False
What kind of research program did Popper call Darwinism?
5728cfdd4b864d1900164e9b
metaphysical
548
False
What phrase did Popper use to describe Darwinism's relation to proper falsifiable theories?
5728cfdd4b864d1900164e9c
possible framework
580
False
Popper's philosophy is often applied in what political debate concerning biological science?
5728cfdd4b864d1900164e9d
creation–evolution
4
False
whether creationistic ideas may be legitimately called science
76
What issues does the creation-evolution controversy in Canada raise?
5ad26770d7d075001a42921a
True
Popper's criterion of falsifiability
289
What have both sides of the debate never invoked?
5ad26770d7d075001a42921b
True
United States
42
Where is there no creation-evolution controversy?
5ad26770d7d075001a42921c
True
frequently
398
How often are passages by Darwin quoted in the creation–evolution controversy?
5ad26770d7d075001a42921d
True
Popper
387
Who stated that Darwinism is a testable scientific theory?
5ad26770d7d075001a42921e
True
The creation–evolution controversy in the United States raises the issue of whether creationistic ideas may be legitimately called science and whether evolution itself may be legitimately called science. In the debate, both sides and even courts in their decisions have frequently invoked Popper's criterion of falsifiability (see Daubert standard). In this context, passages written by Popper are frequently quoted in which he speaks about such issues himself. For example, he famously stated "Darwinism is not a testable scientific theory, but a metaphysical research program—a possible framework for testable scientific theories." He continued:
Along with some creationists, Popper believed that evolution must have what quality to its progress?
5728d0ed2ca10214002da896
goal-directed
530
False
Popper disagreed with creationists that whose hand must be directing evolution?
5728d0ed2ca10214002da897
god
618
False
What kind of an entity did Popper believe the universe to be?
5728d0ed2ca10214002da898
creative
291
False
evolution
42
What did Popper not have sophisticated views on?
5ad2685bd7d075001a42926c
True
a creative entity
289
What did Darwin understand the universe as?
5ad2685bd7d075001a42926d
True
Popper
255
Who thought that the universe necessitated a god?
5ad2685bd7d075001a42926e
True
views on evolution
33
What didn't go beyond what the frequently-quoted passages said?
5ad2685bd7d075001a42926f
True
Popper
255
Who thought that evolution did not work in a goal-directed way?
5ad2685bd7d075001a429270
True
Popper had his own sophisticated views on evolution that go much beyond what the frequently-quoted passages say. In effect, Popper agreed with some of the points of both creationists and naturalists, but also disagreed with both views on crucial aspects. Popper understood the universe as a creative entity that invents new things, including life, but without the necessity of something like a god, especially not one who is pulling strings from behind the curtain. He said that evolution must, as the creationists say, work in a goal-directed way but disagreed with their view that it must necessarily be the hand of god that imposes these goals onto the stage of life.
What is the name of Popper's model of evolution?
5728d21b2ca10214002da8b0
spearhead
27
False
Popper's model of evolution is part of what family of models?
5728d21b2ca10214002da8b1
genetic pluralism
70
False
What directs the actions of organisms in Popper's biological model?
5728d21b2ca10214002da8b2
goals
147
False
Organisms' goals shift along with which notable genetic process?
5728d21b2ca10214002da8b3
Mutations
525
False
spearhead model of evolution
27
In which model do living organisms not have goals?
5ad26921d7d075001a4292ba
True
the brain of humans
262
What is the least sophisticated form of organisms with central control?
5ad26921d7d075001a4292bb
True
amoeba
384
What is a species of higher complexity than the human brain?
5ad26921d7d075001a4292bc
True
behaviour
626
What are mutations in the genes not able to change?
5ad26921d7d075001a4292bd
True
behavioural changes
749
What does Popper think is more likely to be lethal to an organism than changes of phenotype?
5ad26921d7d075001a4292be
True
Instead, he formulated the spearhead model of evolution, a version of genetic pluralism. According to this model, living organisms themselves have goals, and act according to these goals, each guided by a central control. In its most sophisticated form, this is the brain of humans, but controls also exist in much less sophisticated ways for species of lower complexity, such as the amoeba. This control organ plays a special role in evolution—it is the "spearhead of evolution". The goals bring the purpose into the world. Mutations in the genes that determine the structure of the control may then cause drastic changes in behaviour, preferences and goals, without having an impact on the organism's phenotype. Popper postulates that such purely behavioural changes are less likely to be lethal for the organism compared to drastic changes of the phenotype.
Which view of evolution emphasizing large changes in organisms' phenotypes does Popper oppose to his own?
5728d4494b864d1900164efe
hopeful monster
51
False
Which aspect of organisms changes most radically in the process of evolution Popper envisions?
5728d4494b864d1900164eff
behaviour
157
False
How does Popper describe the "monsters" that evolve in his view of evolutionary processes?
5728d4494b864d1900164f00
hopeful behavioural monster
121
False
What kind of Darwinism does Popper subscribe to in contrast to the naturalistic kind?
5728d4494b864d1900164f01
active
643
False
small but quick changes of the phenotype
190
What happens after behavior changes only a little?
5ad26a32d7d075001a429306
True
make the organism fitter to its changed goals
241
What do large and slow changes to the phenotype do?
5ad26a32d7d075001a429307
True
the eating habits of the giraffe
498
What changed after the giraffe evolved a long neck?
5ad26a32d7d075001a429308
True
evolution from without
803
What did Darwin contrast "active Darwinism" with?
5ad26a32d7d075001a429309
True
Popper contrasts his views with the notion of the "hopeful monster" that has large phenotype mutations and calls it the "hopeful behavioural monster". After behaviour has changed radically, small but quick changes of the phenotype follow to make the organism fitter to its changed goals. This way it looks as if the phenotype were changing guided by some invisible hand, while it is merely natural selection working in combination with the new behaviour. For example, according to this hypothesis, the eating habits of the giraffe must have changed before its elongated neck evolved. Popper contrasted this view as "evolution from within" or "active Darwinism" (the organism actively trying to discover new ways of life and being on a quest for conquering new ecological niches), with the naturalistic "evolution from without" (which has the picture of a hostile environment only trying to kill the mostly passive organism, or perhaps segregate some of its groups).
Which professor cited by Popper described the creation-evolution debate as "a storm in a Victorian tea-cup?"
5728d5b12ca10214002da8ea
C.E. Raven
402
False
What controversy involving science did Popper believe was sensationalized because of its connection with religion?
5728d5b12ca10214002da8eb
creation-evolution
10
False
In which year did C.E. Raven publish the remarks on creation-evolution quoted by Popper?
5728d5b12ca10214002da8ec
1943
461
False
What term does Popper use when describing creationism as a type of theory?
5728d5b12ca10214002da8ed
metaphysical
240
False
Popper
42
Who wrote that the creation-evolution controversy was "not sensational" ?
5ad26b60d7d075001a42934e
True
Popper
42
Who did Professor Raven say he agreed with?
5ad26b60d7d075001a42934f
True
Science, Religion, and the Future
426
In what book did Popper called the conflict "a storm in a Victorian tea-cup"?
5ad26b60d7d075001a429350
True
1943
461
In what year did Popper publish Science, Religion, and the Future?
5ad26b60d7d075001a429351
True
Professor C.E. Raven
392
Who thought the force of Popper's remarks was impaired to the attention he paid to the conflict?
5ad26b60d7d075001a429352
True
About the creation-evolution controversy, Popper wrote that he considered it "a somewhat sensational clash between a brilliant scientific hypothesis concerning the history of the various species of animals and plants on earth, and an older metaphysical theory which, incidentally, happened to be part of an established religious belief" with a footnote to the effect that "[he] agree[s] with Professor C.E. Raven when, in his Science, Religion, and the Future, 1943, he calls this conflict "a storm in a Victorian tea-cup"; though the force of this remark is perhaps a little impaired by the attention he pays to the vapours still emerging from the cup—to the Great Systems of Evolutionist Philosophy, produced by Bergson, Whitehead, Smuts, and others."
In which year did Popper give a secret interview concerning his views about God?
5728d7342ca10214002da922
1969
36
False
Which term for his religious outlook did Popper prefer?
5728d7342ca10214002da923
agnosticism
279
False
What did Popper believe were at the heart of religious disagreements, and should not be the cause of as much conflict as they are?
5728d7342ca10214002da924
myths
762
False
Although he opposed organized religion, what attitude did Popper think should be taken toward it:
5728d7342ca10214002da925
tolerant
971
False
1969
36
When did Popper give an interview on the condition it be published right away?
5ad26c21d7d075001a429384
True
Popper
21
Who thought that atheism was superior to agnosticism?
5ad26c21d7d075001a429385
True
organised
598
What kind of religion did Popper support?
5ad26c21d7d075001a429386
True
it tends to use the name of God in vain
626
Why did Popper support organized religion?
5ad26c21d7d075001a429387
True
anybody who believes honestly
1066
Who did Popper believe should not be respected?
5ad26c21d7d075001a429388
True
In an interview that Popper gave in 1969 with the condition that it shall be kept secret until after his death, he summarised his position on God as follows: "I don't know whether God exists or not. ... Some forms of atheism are arrogant and ignorant and should be rejected, but agnosticism—to admit that we don't know and to search—is all right. ... When I look at what I call the gift of life, I feel a gratitude which is in tune with some religious ideas of God. However, the moment I even speak of it, I am embarrassed that I may do something wrong to God in talking about God." He objected to organised religion, saying "it tends to use the name of God in vain", noting the danger of fanaticism because of religious conflicts: "The whole thing goes back to myths which, though they may have a kernel of truth, are untrue. Why then should the Jewish myth be true and the Indian and Egyptian myths not be true?" In a letter unrelated to the interview, he stressed his tolerant attitude: "Although I am not for religion, I do think that we should show respect for anybody who believes honestly."
What branch of philosophy did Popper advance the most?
5728d86aff5b5019007da804
philosophy of science
47
False
Which department did Popper found at the London School of Economics?
5728d86aff5b5019007da805
Department of Philosophy, Logic and Scientific Method
271
False
Which two major philosophers of science learned a great deal from Popper at the London School Economics?
5728d86aff5b5019007da806
Imre Lakatos and Paul Feyerabend
398
False
What did Paul Feyerabend ultimate do to Popper's philosophy of science?
5728d86aff5b5019007da807
repudiated it entirely
593
False
Where did Popper establish a university department for the philosophy of science in 1946?
5728d86aff5b5019007da808
London School of Economics
332
False
Popper
0
Who did not play a role in the philosophy of science?
5ad26e27d7d075001a4293e8
True
1946
262
When was the Department of Philosophy, Logic and Scientific Method at the London School of Economics disbanded?
5ad26e27d7d075001a4293e9
True
Department of Philosophy, Logic and Scientific Method
271
What department did Einstein found in 1946 in London?
5ad26e27d7d075001a4293ea
True
Paul Feyerabend
415
Who did Imre Lakatos lecture to?
5ad26e27d7d075001a4293eb
True
Lakatos
526
Which philosopher completely agreed with Popper's unmodified position?
5ad26e27d7d075001a4293ec
True
Popper played a vital role in establishing the philosophy of science as a vigorous, autonomous discipline within philosophy, through his own prolific and influential works, and also through his influence on his own contemporaries and students. Popper founded in 1946 the Department of Philosophy, Logic and Scientific Method at the London School of Economics and there lectured and influenced both Imre Lakatos and Paul Feyerabend, two of the foremost philosophers of science in the next generation of philosophy of science. (Lakatos significantly modified Popper's position,:1 and Feyerabend repudiated it entirely, but the work of both is deeply influenced by Popper and engaged with many of the problems that Popper set.)
Which other Austrian scholar and friend of Popper also worked near him at the London School of Economics?
5728d96a2ca10214002da978
Friedrich Hayek
122
False
What was Hayek's academic field?
5728d96a2ca10214002da979
Economics
184
False
In which year did Popper write Hayek a letter expressing his intellectual debt to him?
5728d96a2ca10214002da97a
1944
347
False
Who did Popper say was the only thinker who might have had a greater influence on him than Hayek?
5728d96a2ca10214002da97b
Alfred Tarski
456
False
Which of Hayek's publications was dedicated to Popper?
5728d96a2ca10214002da97c
Studies in Philosophy, Politics, and Economics
585
False
Friedrich Hayek
122
Who has a long rivalry with Popper?
5ad26ed8d7d075001a429404
True
Popper
59
Who never communicated with Hayek?
5ad26ed8d7d075001a429405
True
Popper
353
Who did Hayek write a letter to in 1944?
5ad26ed8d7d075001a429406
True
Hayek
338
Who did Alfred Tarski say he had learned more from than any other living thinker?
5ad26ed8d7d075001a429407
True
1934
719
When did Studies in Philosophy, Politics, and Economics come out?
5ad26ed8d7d075001a429408
True
While there is some dispute as to the matter of influence, Popper had a long-standing and close friendship with economist Friedrich Hayek, who was also brought to the London School of Economics from Vienna. Each found support and similarities in the other's work, citing each other often, though not without qualification. In a letter to Hayek in 1944, Popper stated, "I think I have learnt more from you than from any other living thinker, except perhaps Alfred Tarski." Popper dedicated his Conjectures and Refutations to Hayek. For his part, Hayek dedicated a collection of papers, Studies in Philosophy, Politics, and Economics, to Popper, and in 1982 said, "...ever since his Logik der Forschung first came out in 1934, I have been a complete adherent to his general theory of methodology."
What other contemporaneous school of thought is often confused with Popper's own contributions?
5728da9b2ca10214002da9a0
logical positivism
551
False
Popper has stressed that his description of scientific methodology should not be mistaken to apply to whom?
5728da9b2ca10214002da9a1
any particular scientist
109
False
At what level does Popper indicate his view of scientific methodology applies?
5728da9b2ca10214002da9a2
system or community
241
False
What kind of progress does science make given the methodology Popper describes?
5728da9b2ca10214002da9a3
slow but steady
275
False
conclusions
32
What does Popper argue is therefore true?
5ad274b6d7d075001a4294f0
True
Popper's
403
Whose ideas are a logical account of truth?
5ad274b6d7d075001a4294f1
True
logical positivism
551
What did not appear at the same time as Popper's ideas?
5ad274b6d7d075001a4294f2
True
his aims
602
What did the followers of logical positivism mistake as opposite to their own?
5ad274b6d7d075001a4294f3
True
slow but steady
275
What kind of progress does science make if it does not use Popper's methodology?
5ad274b6d7d075001a4294f4
True
He does not argue that any such conclusions are therefore true, or that this describes the actual methods of any particular scientist.[citation needed] Rather, it is recommended as an essential principle of methodology that, if enacted by a system or community, will lead to slow but steady progress of a sort (relative to how well the system or community enacts the method). It has been suggested that Popper's ideas are often mistaken for a hard logical account of truth because of the historical co-incidence of their appearing at the same time as logical positivism, the followers of which mistook his aims for their own.
What thesis says a scientific hypothesis is not testable in isolation from its system of theories?
5728dc82ff5b5019007da872
Quine-Duhem
4
False
Which of Popper's works responds to critiques of naive falsificationism?
5728dc82ff5b5019007da873
The Logic of Scientific Discovery
660
False
The planet Uranus' apparent failure to follow Newton's laws led to the discovery of which planet?
5728dc82ff5b5019007da874
Neptune
383
False
According to Popper, the scientific selection process favors which type of theory?
5728dc82ff5b5019007da875
more generally applicable
873
False
Quine-Duhem
4
What thesis says it is possible to test a single hypothesis alone?
5ad276d6d7d075001a42952a
True
element of the package
283
What can we conclusively say must be replaced?
5ad276d6d7d075001a42952b
True
when the motion of Uranus was found not to match the predictions of Newton's laws
392
When was the theory that there are eight planets in the solar system rejected?
5ad276d6d7d075001a42952c
True
critique of naïve falsificationism
602
What did Popper discuss in chapters 5 and 6 of The Logic of Scientific Discovery?
5ad276d6d7d075001a42952d
True
wide general application
966
Why are Newton's laws not preferred over the other theory?
5ad276d6d7d075001a42952e
True
The Quine-Duhem thesis argues that it's impossible to test a single hypothesis on its own, since each one comes as part of an environment of theories. Thus we can only say that the whole package of relevant theories has been collectively falsified, but cannot conclusively say which element of the package must be replaced. An example of this is given by the discovery of the planet Neptune: when the motion of Uranus was found not to match the predictions of Newton's laws, the theory "There are seven planets in the solar system" was rejected, and not Newton's laws themselves. Popper discussed this critique of naïve falsificationism in Chapters 3 and 4 of The Logic of Scientific Discovery. For Popper, theories are accepted or rejected via a sort of selection process. Theories that say more about the way things appear are to be preferred over those that do not; the more generally applicable a theory is, the greater its value. Thus Newton's laws, with their wide general application, are to be preferred over the much more specific "the solar system has seven planets".[dubious – discuss]
Popper believed he had already discussed similar ideas to Kuhn's about scientific communities in what work?
5728de173acd2414000e00b5
Logic of Discovery
69
False
What aspect of Kuhn's thinking did Popper criticize?
5728de173acd2414000e00b6
relativism
339
False
What did Popper say must be the beginning phase of science?
5728de173acd2414000e00b7
the critical discussion of myths
635
False
According to Popper, what second layer does scientific inquiry have that pre-scientific inquiry does not?
5728de173acd2414000e00b8
a critical attitude
874
False
1934
49
What year did Kuhn stress "that scientists necessarily develop their ideas within a definite theoretical framework"?
5ad2780cd7d075001a42954e
True
Logic of Discovery
69
What book did Kuhn publish in 1934?
5ad2780cd7d075001a42954f
True
relativism
339
What did Kuhn criticize about Popper?
5ad2780cd7d075001a429550
True
the critical discussion of myths
635
What did Kuhn say must be the beginning phase of science?
5ad2780cd7d075001a429551
True
a critical attitude
874
According to Kuhn, what second layer does scientific inquiry have that pre-scientific inquiry does not?
5ad2780cd7d075001a429552
True
Popper claimed to have recognised already in the 1934 version of his Logic of Discovery a fact later stressed by Kuhn, "that scientists necessarily develop their ideas within a definite theoretical framework", and to that extent to have anticipated Kuhn's central point about "normal science". (But Popper criticised what he saw as Kuhn's relativism.) Also, in his collection Conjectures and Refutations: The Growth of Scientific Knowledge (Harper & Row, 1963), Popper writes, "Science must begin with myths, and with the criticism of myths; neither with the collection of observations, nor with the invention of experiments, but with the critical discussion of myths, and of magical techniques and practices. The scientific tradition is distinguished from the pre-scientific tradition in having two layers. Like the latter, it passes on its theories; but it also passes on a critical attitude towards them. The theories are passed on, not as dogmas, but rather with the challenge to discuss them and improve upon them."
What kind of criteria frequently used in science complicates the definitiveness of some hypotheses' falsification?
5728e14d2ca10214002daa18
statistical
118
False
What other flaws complicate the problem of identifying faulty scientific hypotheses?
5728e14d2ca10214002daa19
flaws in the evidence
309
False
According to Popper, what resolves conflicting hypotheses and observations in the long run?
5728e14d2ca10214002daa1a
the collective judgment of scientists
700
False
demonstrate falsehood definitively
55
What is always possible to do?
5ad278d3d7d075001a429584
True
this is a sign of flaws in the hypothesis
252
What is always clear if evidence contradicts a hypothesis?
5ad278d3d7d075001a429585
True
Popper
529
Who wrote a set of instructions that merely need to be followed diligently to achieve science?
5ad278d3d7d075001a429586
True
resolution of conflicts between hypotheses and observations
616
What is a matter of the judgement of a single scientist?
5ad278d3d7d075001a429587
True
evidence contradicts a hypothesis
212
What is a sign of flaws in the evidence?
5ad278d3d7d075001a429588
True
Another objection is that it is not always possible to demonstrate falsehood definitively, especially if one is using statistical criteria to evaluate a null hypothesis. More generally it is not always clear, if evidence contradicts a hypothesis, that this is a sign of flaws in the hypothesis rather than of flaws in the evidence. However, this is a misunderstanding of what Popper's philosophy of science sets out to do. Rather than offering a set of instructions that merely need to be followed diligently to achieve science, Popper makes it clear in The Logic of Scientific Discovery that his belief is that the resolution of conflicts between hypotheses and observations can only be a matter of the collective judgment of scientists, in each individual case.
Which book by Houck points out logical flaws in Popper's falsificationism?
5728e27c3acd2414000e0111
Science Versus Crime
17
False
Who argued that Popper's falsificationism was just as logically untenable as Logical Positivism's verificationism?
5728e27c3acd2414000e0112
Carl Gustav Hempel
481
False
Who wrote the book Science Versus Crime which challenged the logic of falsificationism?
5728e27c3acd2414000e0113
Houck
39
False
falsificationism can be questioned logically
66
What did Popper write in Science Versus Crime?
5ad27a0dd7d075001a4295ca
True
Hempel
501
Who argued that falsificationism was defensible on logical grounds alone?
5ad27a0dd7d075001a4295cb
True
atomic theory
1001
What implies that not all metals melt?
5ad27a0dd7d075001a4295cc
True
falsificationism
601
What was tenable on logical grounds alone?
5ad27a0dd7d075001a4295cd
True
metal
372
What can always be tested at a lower temperature?
5ad27a0dd7d075001a4295ce
True
In a book called Science Versus Crime, Houck writes that Popper's falsificationism can be questioned logically: it is not clear how Popper would deal with a statement like "for every metal, there is a temperature at which it will melt." The hypothesis cannot be falsified by any possible observation, for there will always be a higher temperature than tested at which the metal may in fact melt, yet it seems to be a valid scientific hypothesis. These examples were pointed out by Carl Gustav Hempel. Hempel came to acknowledge that Logical Positivism's verificationism was untenable, but argued that falsificationism was equally untenable on logical grounds alone. The simplest response to this is that, because Popper describes how theories attain, maintain and lose scientific status, individual consequences of currently accepted scientific theories are scientific in the sense of being part of tentative scientific knowledge, and both of Hempel's examples fall under this category. For instance, atomic theory implies that all metals melt at some temperature.
Which German psychologist and tutor of Popper may have originated some of Popper's ideas?
5728e3e62ca10214002daa3c
Otto Selz
264
False
Who claimed Otto Selz deserved credit for ideas published by Popper?
5728e3e62ca10214002daa3d
Michel ter Hark
38
False
What contributed to Otto Selz's cessation of work in 1933?
5728e3e62ca10214002daa3e
the rise of Nazism
325
False
What is the name of the 2004 paper that links Popper's work to that of his tutor Otto Selz?
5728e3e62ca10214002daa3f
Popper, Otto Selz and the rise of evolutionary epistemology
108
False
Popper is criticized for dismissing which major philosophers in his work?
5728e3e62ca10214002daa40
Plato, Hegel and Marx
549
False
Popper, Otto Selz and the rise of evolutionary epistemology
108
What book did Popper publish in 2004?
5ad27a95d7d075001a42960c
True
Popper
108
Who did Hark claim that Selz took his ideas from?
5ad27a95d7d075001a42960d
True
the rise of Nazism
325
Why did Selz publish his ideas?
5ad27a95d7d075001a42960e
True
1933
382
When did Selz start his work?
5ad27a95d7d075001a42960f
True
rejection of Plato, Hegel and Marx
536
What is Popper praised for in some academic quarters?
5ad27a95d7d075001a429610
True
In 2004, philosopher and psychologist Michel ter Hark (Groningen, The Netherlands) published a book, called Popper, Otto Selz and the rise of evolutionary epistemology, in which he claimed that Popper took some of his ideas from his tutor, the German psychologist Otto Selz. Selz never published his ideas, partly because of the rise of Nazism, which forced him to quit his work in 1933, and the prohibition of referring to Selz' work. Popper, the historian of ideas and his scholarship, is criticised in some academic quarters for his rejection of Plato, Hegel and Marx.
Which two prominent scientists advanced theories that John N. Gray claims would never have survived the scientific method Popper describes?
5728e55c3acd2414000e015f
Darwin and Einstein
278
False
Which work by John Gray challenges Popper's falsificationism?
5728e55c3acd2414000e0160
Straw Dogs
215
False
According to Gray, what should have falsified Einstein and Darwin's theories when first proposed?
5728e55c3acd2414000e0161
available evidence
389
False
What kind of thesis does Gray advance about scientific progress?
5728e55c3acd2414000e0162
irrationalist
525
False
a theory is scientific only in so far as it is falsifiable, and should be given up as soon as it is falsified.
45
What did John Gray say according to Popper?
5ad27be1d7d075001a429670
True
Darwin
278
Whose theories were compatible with all available evidence when they were introduced?
5ad27be1d7d075001a429671
True
the progress of science comes from acting against reason
552
What is the rationalist thesis?
5ad27be1d7d075001a429672
True
Straw Dogs
215
Where does Popper state this would have "killed the theories of Darwin and Einstein at birth."?
5ad27be1d7d075001a429673
True
irrationalist
525
What thesis does Popper seek to establish?
5ad27be1d7d075001a429674
True
According to John N. Gray, Popper held that "a theory is scientific only in so far as it is falsifiable, and should be given up as soon as it is falsified." By applying Popper's account of scientific method, Gray's Straw Dogs states that this would have "killed the theories of Darwin and Einstein at birth." When they were first advanced, Gray claims, each of them was "at odds with some available evidence; only later did evidence become available that gave them crucial support." Against this, Gray seeks to establish the irrationalist thesis that "the progress of science comes from acting against reason."
Gray's approach aligns with which approach that Popper himself considered untenable?
5728e7254b864d1900165060
inductivist
162
False
A possible rebuttal to Gray's argument appears in Popper's reply to which philosopher?
5728e7254b864d1900165061
Imre Lakatos
733
False
What did general relativity do that made it tentatively acceptable when it was proposed?
5728e7254b864d1900165062
explained the empirical refutations of Newton's theory
480
False
In contrast to Gray, which theory did Popper argue was at least equally consistent with Newton's on the available evidence?
5728e7254b864d1900165063
Einstein's theory
275
False
what available evidence these theories were at odds with
47
What does Gray give an indication of?
5ad27cb0d7d075001a429696
True
inductivist approach
162
What did Popper seek to show was logically legitimate?
5ad27cb0d7d075001a429697
True
Einstein's
275
Whose theory was less well corroborated than Newton's on it's conception?
5ad27cb0d7d075001a429698
True
general relativity
536
What was not deemed suitable for tentative acceptance?
5ad27cb0d7d075001a429699
True
Popper
646
Who wrote several decades after Gray's criticism?
5ad27cb0d7d075001a42969a
True
Gray does not, however, give any indication of what available evidence these theories were at odds with, and his appeal to "crucial support" illustrates the very inductivist approach to science that Popper sought to show was logically illegitimate. For, according to Popper, Einstein's theory was at least equally as well corroborated as Newton's upon its initial conception; they both equally well accounted for all the hitherto available evidence. Moreover, since Einstein also explained the empirical refutations of Newton's theory, general relativity was immediately deemed suitable for tentative acceptance on the Popperian account. Indeed, Popper wrote, several decades before Gray's criticism, in reply to a critical essay by Imre Lakatos:
Which type of theory is most falsifiable?
5728e740ff5b5019007da91e
simplest
360
False
What school of philosophy does Popper's thinking on induction oppose?
5728e740ff5b5019007da91f
positivism
510
False
For Popper, knowing that a theory is true is what?
5728e740ff5b5019007da920
impossible
636
False
What quality of a useful theory must be easily detectable?
5728e740ff5b5019007da921
its falsity
720
False
it cannot be attacked so easily
61
Why would a theory be true with lower probability?
5ad25596d7d075001a428d3c
True
rationally prefer
473
What did Popper hold that one should do with the most likely theory?
5ad25596d7d075001a428d3d
True
Popper
288
Who supported positivism?
5ad25596d7d075001a428d3e
True
Popper
648
Who argues it is possible to ensure that a theory is true?
5ad25596d7d075001a428d3f
True
to ensure a theory to be true
663
What is less important than detecting the falsity of a theory?
5ad25596d7d075001a428d40
True
Such a theory would be true with higher probability, because it cannot be attacked so easily: to falsify the first one, it is sufficient to find that the sun has stopped rising; to falsify the second one, one additionally needs the assumption that the given day has not yet been reached. Popper held that it is the least likely, or most easily falsifiable, or simplest theory (attributes which he identified as all the same thing) that explains known facts that one should rationally prefer. His opposition to positivism, which held that it is the theory most likely to be true that one should prefer, here becomes very apparent. It is impossible, Popper argues, to ensure a theory to be true; it is more important that its falsity can be detected as easily as possible.
Who instigated the 1919 riot that reshaped Popper's political views?
5728e9f0ff5b5019007da934
Communists
179
False
The 1919 riot involving Popper's comrades was part of what larger political move?
5728e9f0ff5b5019007da935
a coup
454
False
Popper's critique of which doctrine has its origins in first-hand observation of communist agitation?
5728e9f0ff5b5019007da936
historicism
900
False
Which historically significant communist activist was associated with the 1919 riots in which some of Popper's friends were killed?
5728e9f0ff5b5019007da937
Béla Kun
422
False
What did the Marxist rioters believe would cause more death and suffering than their own agitation?
5728e9f0ff5b5019007da938
class struggle
591
False
1919
115
What year did the Communists stop a riot from occurring?
5ad25c70d7d075001a428eac
True
Marxism
43
What was Popper impressed by in his later years?
5ad25c70d7d075001a428ead
True
several
207
How many armed people did the police shoot?
5ad25c70d7d075001a428eae
True
Marxist historicism
936
What did Popper associate with noble means?
5ad25c70d7d075001a428eaf
True
socialism
1012
What did Popper think placed freedom before equality?
5ad25c70d7d075001a428eb0
True
In his early years Popper was impressed by Marxism, whether of Communists or socialists. An event that happened in 1919 had a profound effect on him: During a riot, caused by the Communists, the police shot several unarmed people, including some of Popper's friends, when they tried to free party comrades from prison. The riot had, in fact, been part of a plan by which leaders of the Communist party with connections to Béla Kun tried to take power by a coup; Popper did not know about this at that time. However, he knew that the riot instigators were swayed by the Marxist doctrine that class struggle would produce vastly more dead men than the inevitable revolution brought about as quickly as possible, and so had no scruples to put the life of the rioters at risk to achieve their selfish goal of becoming the future leaders of the working class. This was the start of his later criticism of historicism. Popper began to reject Marxist historicism, which he associated with questionable means, and later socialism, which he associated with placing equality before freedom (to the possible disadvantage of equality).
Mandolin
What country did the mandolin originate from?
57289b78ff5b5019007da330
Italian
12
False
What does mandolin translate to?
57289b78ff5b5019007da331
small mandola
68
False
What musical family does the mandolin come from?
57289b78ff5b5019007da332
lute family
115
False
How is the mandolin usually played?
57289b78ff5b5019007da333
usually plucked with a plectrum or "pick"
134
False
How many courses does a mandolin commonly have?
57289b78ff5b5019007da334
four
193
False
mandolin
2
What is the Italian word for mandolino?
5ad16ce1645df0001a2d1abe
True
mandolin
2
What family is the lute in?
5ad16ce1645df0001a2d1abf
True
mandola, octave mandolin, mandocello and mandobass.
457
What else does the family include in addition to the lute and mandolin?
5ad16ce1645df0001a2d1ac0
True
metal
217
What material is the lute's strings made of?
5ad16ce1645df0001a2d1ac1
True
Italian
12
What city did the mandolin originate from?
5ad20b3bd7d075001a428236
True
small mandola
68
What does mandoleen translate to?
5ad20b3bd7d075001a428237
True
lute
115
What musical sister does the mandolin have?
5ad20b3bd7d075001a428238
True
plucked with a plectrum or "pick"
142
How is the mandolin not usually played?
5ad20b3bd7d075001a428239
True
four
193
How many courses does a mandolin not commonly have?
5ad20b3bd7d075001a42823a
True
A mandolin (Italian: mandolino pronounced [mandoˈliːno]; literally "small mandola") is a musical instrument in the lute family and is usually plucked with a plectrum or "pick". It commonly has four courses of doubled metal strings tuned in unison (8 strings), although five (10 strings) and six (12 strings) course versions also exist. The courses are normally tuned in a succession of perfect fifths. It is the soprano member of a family that includes the mandola, octave mandolin, mandocello and mandobass.
What are the four common styles of mandolins?
57289c363acd2414000dfb57
the Neapolitan or round-backed mandolin, the carved-top mandolin and the flat-backed mandolin.
56
False
What is the round-back mandolin made of?
57289c363acd2414000dfb58
strips of wood, glued together into a bowl
200
False
Which style of mandolin has a shallower, arched back, and arched top?
57289c363acd2414000dfb59
round-back
155
False
Which form of music do Neapolitan mandolins feature?
57289c363acd2414000dfb5a
European classical music and traditional music.
634
False
Which mandolin is commin in American Folk music and blue grass music?
57289c363acd2414000dfb5b
Carved-top instruments
682
False
round-back
155
What type of mandolin has a deep bottom and an arched top?
5ad16da0645df0001a2d1aea
True
carved-top or arch-top mandolin
248
What type of mandolin has an arched back and is braced on the side?
5ad16da0645df0001a2d1aeb
True
American folk music and bluegrass
719
What type of American music are the Neapolitan mandolins featured in?
5ad16da0645df0001a2d1aec
True
European classical music and traditional music
634
What type of European music are the Carved-top instruments featured in?
5ad16da0645df0001a2d1aed
True
Neapolitan or round-backed mandolin, the carved-top mandolin and the flat-backed mandolin
60
What are the four uncommon styles of mandolins?
5ad20b93d7d075001a428240
True
strips of wood, glued together into a bowl
200
What is the round-front mandolin made of?
5ad20b93d7d075001a428241
True
round-back
155
Which style of mandolin has a deeper, arched back, and arched top?
5ad20b93d7d075001a428242
True
European classical music and traditional music
634
Which form of music do Neapolitan mandolins not feature?
5ad20b93d7d075001a428243
True
Carved-top instruments
682
Which mandolin is uncommon in American Folk music and blue grass music?
5ad20b93d7d075001a428244
True
There are many styles of mandolin, but four are common, the Neapolitan or round-backed mandolin, the carved-top mandolin and the flat-backed mandolin. The round-back has a deep bottom, constructed of strips of wood, glued together into a bowl. The carved-top or arch-top mandolin has a much shallower, arched back, and an arched top—both carved out of wood. The flat-backed mandolin uses thin sheets of wood for the body, braced on the inside for strength in a similar manner to a guitar. Each style of instrument has its own sound quality and is associated with particular forms of music. Neapolitan mandolins feature prominently in European classical music and traditional music. Carved-top instruments are common in American folk music and bluegrass music. Flat-backed instruments are commonly used in Irish, British and Brazilian folk music. Some modern Brazilian instruments feature an extra fifth course tuned a fifth lower than the standard fourth course.
What did most of the development of the mandolin revolve around?
57289dd54b864d1900164ac8
soundboard (the top)
49
False
Were premandolins quiet or loud instruments?
57289dd54b864d1900164ac9
quiet instruments
101
False
What are modern mandolins' strings made of?
57289dd54b864d1900164aca
four courses of metal strings,
267
False
What is the most common soundboard shape?
57289dd54b864d1900164acb
generally round or teardrop-shaped
501
False
What are the sound holes covered with?
57289dd54b864d1900164acc
bordered with decorative rosettes or purfling
749
False
soundboard
49
What is another term for the bottom of the mandolin?
5ad16e61645df0001a2d1afc
True
Pre-mandolin instruments
71
What was louder than modern instruments?
5ad16e61645df0001a2d1afd
True
with decorative rosettes or purfling
758
How are teardrop-shaped holes covered or bordered?
5ad16e61645df0001a2d1afe
True
four
267
How many courses of metal strings were pre-mandolin instruments strung with?
5ad16e61645df0001a2d1aff
True
soundboard (the top)
49
What did most of the development of the mandolin not revolve around?
5ad20bdbd7d075001a428254
True
quiet
101
Were postmandolins quiet or loud instruments?
5ad20bdbd7d075001a428255
True
four courses of metal strings
267
What are ancient mandolins' strings made of?
5ad20bdbd7d075001a428256
True
generally round or teardrop-shaped
501
What is the most uncommon soundboard shape?
5ad20bdbd7d075001a428257
True
bordered with decorative rosettes or purfling
749
What are the sound holes opened with?
5ad20bdbd7d075001a428258
True
Much of mandolin development revolved around the soundboard (the top). Pre-mandolin instruments were quiet instruments, strung with as many as six courses of gut strings, and were plucked with the fingers or with a quill. However, modern instruments are louder—using four courses of metal strings, which exert more pressure than the gut strings. The modern soundboard is designed to withstand the pressure of metal strings that would break earlier instruments. The soundboard comes in many shapes—but generally round or teardrop-shaped, sometimes with scrolls or other projections. There is usually one or more sound holes in the soundboard, either round, oval, or shaped like a calligraphic F (f-hole). A round or oval sound hole may be covered or bordered with decorative rosettes or purfling.
Who introduced the lute to Spain?
57289ec83acd2414000dfb7b
the Moors
60
False
What country helped transfer the lute from Arabian to European culture?
57289ec83acd2414000dfb7c
Sicily
156
False
Who brought the lute to Sicily?
57289ec83acd2414000dfb7d
Byzantine or later by Muslim musicians
195
False
What court held singer-lutenists after the Norman conquest?
57289ec83acd2414000dfb7e
Palermo
279
False
What building has ceeiling painting dedicated to the lutenists?
57289ec83acd2414000dfb7f
Palermo’s royal Cappella Palatina,
418
False
Frederick II
536
Who was the Holy Roman Emperor from 1190-1254?
5ad16f83645df0001a2d1b36
True
Norman King Roger II of Sicily
470
Who was the Palermo's royal Capella Palatina dedicated by in 1104?
5ad16f83645df0001a2d1b37
True
Moors
64
Who did Spain introduce the lute to?
5ad16f83645df0001a2d1b38
True
Andalusia
46
What is another term for Moors?
5ad16f83645df0001a2d1b39
True
Moors
64
Who introduced the lute to England?
5ad20c1dd7d075001a42825e
True
Sicily
156
What country helped transfer the lute from Arabian to Asian culture?
5ad20c1dd7d075001a42825f
True
Byzantine or later by Muslim musicians
195
Who brought the lute to France?
5ad20c1dd7d075001a428260
True
Palermo
279
What court held singer-lutenists before the Norman conquest?
5ad20c1dd7d075001a428261
True
Palermo’s royal Cappella Palatina
418
What store has floor painting dedicated to the lutenists?
5ad20c1dd7d075001a428262
True
Beside the introduction of the lute to Spain (Andalusia) by the Moors, another important point of transfer of the lute from Arabian to European culture was Sicily, where it was brought either by Byzantine or later by Muslim musicians. There were singer-lutenists at the court in Palermo following the Norman conquest of the island from the Muslims, and the lute is depicted extensively in the ceiling paintings in the Palermo’s royal Cappella Palatina, dedicated by the Norman King Roger II of Sicily in 1140. His Hohenstaufen grandson Frederick II, Holy Roman Emperor (1194 - 1250) continued integrating Muslims into his court, including Moorish musicians. By the 14th century, lutes had disseminated throughout Italy and, probably because of the cultural influence of the Hohenstaufen kings and emperor, based in Palermo, the lute had also made significant inroads into the German-speaking lands.
What is there currently confusion over?
57289f804b864d1900164ae2
eldest Vinaccia luthier who first ran the shop
51
False
Who is said to have ran the first shop?
57289f804b864d1900164ae3
Gennaro Vinaccia (active c. 1710 to c. 1788) and Nic
130
False
Where does the mandolin built by Antonio Vinaccia reside?
57289f804b864d1900164ae4
University of Edinburgh
351
False
Where does the mandolin built by Giuseppe Vinaccia reside?
57289f804b864d1900164ae5
University of Edinburgh
439
False
Where does the mandolin that Gaetano Vinaccia reside?
57289f804b864d1900164ae6
Conservatoire Royal de Musique in Brussels, Belgium.
565
False
Gennaro Vinaccia
130
Who was active from 1718-1780?
5ad17049645df0001a2d1b70
True
Antonio Vinaccia
202
Who was active from 1743-1769?
5ad17049645df0001a2d1b71
True
Antonio Vinaccia
304
Who built an early mandolin in 1795?
5ad17049645df0001a2d1b72
True
Giuseppe Vinaccia
390
Who built a mandolin in 1839?
5ad17049645df0001a2d1b73
True
Gaetano Vinaccia
529
Who built the earliest mandolin in 1474?
5ad17049645df0001a2d1b74
True
eldest Vinaccia luthier who first ran the shop
51
What is there not currently confusion over?
5ad20c87d7d075001a428268
True
Gennaro Vinaccia
130
Who is said to have ran the last shop?
5ad20c87d7d075001a428269
True
University of Edinburgh
351
Where was the mandolin built by Antonio Vinaccia destroyed?
5ad20c87d7d075001a42826a
True
Conservatoire Royal de Musique in Brussels, Belgium
565
Where was the mandolin that Gaetano Vinaccia detroyed?
5ad20c87d7d075001a42826b
True
University of Edinburgh
439
Where was the mandolin built by Giuseppe Vinaccia destroyed?
5ad20c87d7d075001a42826c
True
There is confusion currently as to the name of the eldest Vinaccia luthier who first ran the shop. His name has been put forth as Gennaro Vinaccia (active c. 1710 to c. 1788) and Nic. Vinaccia. His son Antonio Vinaccia was active c. 1734 to c. 1796. An early extant example of a mandolin is one built by Antonio Vinaccia in 1759, which resides at the University of Edinburgh. Another is by Giuseppe Vinaccia, built in 1893, is also at the University of Edinburgh. The earliest extant mandolin was built in 1744 by Antonio's son, Gaetano Vinaccia. It resides in the Conservatoire Royal de Musique in Brussels, Belgium.
What year was the beginning of the transition from mandolino to mandolin?
5728a06a3acd2414000dfb8f
1744
63
False
Where did the mandolin grow in popularity?
5728a06a3acd2414000dfb90
in the streets where it was used by young men courting and by street musicians, and in the concert hall
311
False
When did the mandolin's popularity begin to fall?
5728a06a3acd2414000dfb91
After the Napoleonic Wars of 1815, however, its popularity began to fall
416
False
Who were two of the promiment players in the 19th century?
5728a06a3acd2414000dfb92
Bartolomeo Bortolazzi of Venice and Pietro Vimercati
550
False
What year did the export market for manodlins from Italy dry up?
5728a06a3acd2414000dfb93
1815
900
False
The transition from the mandolino to the mandolin
0
What began around 1474?
5ad1712f645df0001a2d1ba2
True
Napoleonic Wars
426
What wars took place in 1851?
5ad1712f645df0001a2d1ba3
True
The export market for mandolins
841
What dried up in Italy around 1851?
5ad1712f645df0001a2d1ba4
True
a mandolin method
943
What did Laurentiis de Carmine write?
5ad1712f645df0001a2d1ba5
True
Méthode pour Banjoline ou Mandoline-Banjo
1097
What did Leonardi Salvador write?
5ad1712f645df0001a2d1ba6
True
1744
63
What year was the end of the transition from mandolino to mandolin?
5ad20d35d7d075001a428272
True
in the streets where it was used by young men courting and by street musicians, and in the concert hall
311
Where did the mandolin shrink in popularity?
5ad20d35d7d075001a428273
True
After the Napoleonic Wars of 1815
416
When did the mandolin's popularity begin to rise?
5ad20d35d7d075001a428274
True
Bartolomeo Bortolazzi of Venice and Pietro Vimercati
550
Who were two of the prominent players in the 15th century?
5ad20d35d7d075001a428275
True
1815
900
What year did the export market for mandolins from France dry up?
5ad20d35d7d075001a428276
True
The transition from the mandolino to the mandolin began around 1744 with the designing of the metal-string mandolin by the Vinaccia family, 3 brass strings and one of gut, using friction tuning pegs on a fingerboard that sat "flush" with the sound table. The mandolin grew in popularity over the next 60 years, in the streets where it was used by young men courting and by street musicians, and in the concert hall. After the Napoleonic Wars of 1815, however, its popularity began to fall. The 19th century produced some prominent players, including Bartolomeo Bortolazzi of Venice and Pietro Vimercati. However, professional virtuosity was in decline, and the mandolin music changed as the mandolin became a folk instrument; "the large repertoire of notated instrumental music for the mandolino and the mandoline was completely forgotten". The export market for mandolins from Italy dried up around 1815, and when Carmine de Laurentiis wrote a mandolin method in 1874, the Music World magazine wrote that the mandolin was "out of date." Salvador Léonardi mentioned this decline in his 1921 book, Méthode pour Banjoline ou Mandoline-Banjo, saying that the mandolin had been declining in popularity from previous times.
When did the mandolin's poplarity rebound?
5728a13e3acd2414000dfb99
Beginning with the Paris Exposition of 1878
0
False
What popular group performed at the Paris Exposition?
5728a13e3acd2414000dfb9a
Estudiantes Españoles (Spanish Students)
160
False
When was it said that mandolin's popularity peaked?
5728a13e3acd2414000dfb9b
early years of the 20th century.
640
False
What instrument was the mandolin confused with during the 1880's?
5728a13e3acd2414000dfb9c
bandurria
250
False
What were formed worldwide that incorporated the mandolin famiy of instruments and other instruments as well?
5728a13e3acd2414000dfb9d
Mandolin orchestras
801
False
Paris Exposition
19
What took place in 1887?
5ad17339645df0001a2d1c26
True
mandolin
292
What instrument did the violin become confused with?
5ad17339645df0001a2d1c27
True
Italian mandolinists
384
What group of people traveled to the United States in 1880?
5ad17339645df0001a2d1c28
True
Europe
415
What group of people traveled to Europe in 1890?
5ad17339645df0001a2d1c29
True
Beginning with the Paris Exposition of 1878
0
When did the mandolin's poplarity not rebound?
5ad20d8cd7d075001a42827c
True
Estudiantes Españoles
160
What popular group didn't perform at the Paris Exposition?
5ad20d8cd7d075001a42827d
True
early years of the 20th century
640
When was it said that mandolin's popularity sank?
5ad20d8cd7d075001a42827e
True
bandurria
250
What instrument was the mandolin never confused with during the 1880's?
5ad20d8cd7d075001a42827f
True
Mandolin orchestras
801
What were formed worldwide that incorporated the mandolin family of instruments but no other instruments as well?
5ad20d8cd7d075001a428280
True
Beginning with the Paris Exposition of 1878, the instrument's popularity rebounded. The Exposition was one of many stops for a popular new performing group the Estudiantes Españoles (Spanish Students). They danced and played guitars, violins and the bandurria, which became confused with the mandolin. Along with the energy and awareness created by the day's hit sensation, a wave of Italian mandolinists travelled Europe in the 1880s and 1890s and in the United States by the mid-1880s, playing and teaching their instrument. The instrument's popularity continued to increase during the 1890s and mandolin popularity was at its height in "early years of the 20th century." Thousands were taking up the instrument as a pastime, and it became an instrument of society, taken up by young men and women. Mandolin orchestras were formed worldwide, incorporating not only the mandolin family of instruments, but also guitars, double basses and zithers.
When was the second decline of mandolin popularity?
5728a4054b864d1900164b28
early 20th century,
172
False
Why was the second decline in popularity not a strong as the first?
5728a4054b864d1900164b29
Thousands of people had learned to play the instrument
53
False
Who created the rasonator mandolin?
5728a4054b864d1900164b2a
Luthiers
261
False
What are two types of new mandolins the Luthiers created?
5728a4054b864d1900164b2b
mandolin-banjo and the electric mandolin
368
False
What types of music did musicians begin to play the mandolins in?
5728a4054b864d1900164b2c
Celtic, Bluegrass, Jazz and Rock-n-Roll styles — and Classical too.
440
False
in the early 20th century
165
When did the first wave of mandolin popularity decline?
5ad1742c645df0001a2d1c74
True
Luthiers
261
Who created the resonator mandolin in the early 20th century?
5ad1742c645df0001a2d1c75
True
Celtic, Bluegrass, Jazz and Rock-n-Roll styles — and Classical too.
440
What old forms of music was the mandolin used in during the 20th century?
5ad1742c645df0001a2d1c76
True
early 20th century
172
When was the second rise of mandolin popularity?
5ad20ddcd7d075001a428290
True
Thousands of people had learned to play the instrument
53
Why was the second rise in popularity not a strong as the first?
5ad20ddcd7d075001a428291
True
Luthiers
261
Who destroyed the resonator mandolin?
5ad20ddcd7d075001a428292
True
electric mandolin
391
What is the third type of new mandolins the Luthiers created?
5ad20ddcd7d075001a428293
True
Celtic, Bluegrass, Jazz and Rock-n-Roll styles — and Classical too
440
What types of music did musicians never play the mandolins in?
5ad20ddcd7d075001a428294
True
The second decline was not as complete as the first. Thousands of people had learned to play the instrument. Even as the second wave of mandolin popularity declined in the early 20th century, new versions of the mandolin began to be used in new forms of music. Luthiers created the resonator mandolin, the flatback mandolin, the carved-top or arched-top mandolin, the mandolin-banjo and the electric mandolin. Musicians began playing it in Celtic, Bluegrass, Jazz and Rock-n-Roll styles — and Classical too.
What happens to mandolin notes when plucked?
5728a4972ca10214002da50c
decay to silence
44
False
Do mandolin notes decay faster or slower than larger string instruments?
5728a4972ca10214002da50d
faster
155
False
What is tremolo?
5728a4972ca10214002da50e
rapid picking of one or more pairs of strings
248
False
What parts of the mandolin faciliate the tremolo technique?
5728a4972ca10214002da50f
paired strings
347
False
What is a plectrum?
5728a4972ca10214002da510
pick
403
False
sound out continuously
73
What do mandolin notes do rather than decay to silence?
5ad175e7645df0001a2d1ce8
True
picking
254
What is another word for tremolo?
5ad175e7645df0001a2d1ce9
True
decay to silence
44
What do notes on a violin sound like rather sounding out continuously?
5ad175e7645df0001a2d1cea
True
decay to silence
44
What happens to mandolin notes when not plucked?
5ad20e2bd7d075001a42829a
True
faster
155
Do mandolin notes decay faster or slower than smaller string instruments?
5ad20e2bd7d075001a42829b
True
rapid picking of one or more pairs of strings
248
What is trameolo?
5ad20e2bd7d075001a42829c
True
paired strings
347
What parts of the mandolin don't facilitate the tremolo technique?
5ad20e2bd7d075001a42829d
True
pick
403
What is a slectrum?
5ad20e2bd7d075001a42829e
True
Like any plucked instrument, mandolin notes decay to silence rather than sound out continuously as with a bowed note on a violin, and mandolin notes decay faster than larger stringed instruments like the guitar. This encourages the use of tremolo (rapid picking of one or more pairs of strings) to create sustained notes or chords. The mandolin's paired strings facilitate this technique: the plectrum (pick) strikes each of a pair of strings alternately, providing a more full and continuous sound than a single string would.
What kind of style does the Neapolitan mandolin have?
5728a540ff5b5019007da394
almond-shaped body resembling a bowl, constructed from curved strips of wood
28
False
How many strings does the Neapolitan mandolin have?
5728a540ff5b5019007da395
8
205
False
What are the Neapolitan mandolin made of?
5728a540ff5b5019007da396
metal strings
207
False
What sits on top or is flush with the sound table of the Mandolin?
5728a540ff5b5019007da397
hardwood fingerboard
249
False
How long is the scale commonly used on European roundbacks?
5728a540ff5b5019007da398
13-inch scale
565
False
almond-shaped body
28
What kind of style does the Ice Cream mandolin have?
5ad20e80d7d075001a4282a4
True
8
205
How many strings does the Peapolitan mandolin have?
5ad20e80d7d075001a4282a5
True
metal strings
207
What are the Neapolitan mandolin not made of?
5ad20e80d7d075001a4282a6
True
hardwood fingerboard
249
What sits on bottom or is flush with the sound table of the Mandolin?
5ad20e80d7d075001a4282a7
True
a 13-inch scale
563
How wide is the scale commonly used on European roundbacks?
5ad20e80d7d075001a4282a8
True
The Neapolitan style has an almond-shaped body resembling a bowl, constructed from curved strips of wood. It usually has a bent sound table, canted in two planes with the design to take the tension of the 8 metal strings arranged in four courses. A hardwood fingerboard sits on top of or is flush with the sound table. Very old instruments may use wooden tuning pegs, while newer instruments tend to use geared metal tuners. The bridge is a movable length of hardwood. A pickguard is glued below the sound hole under the strings. European roundbacks commonly use a 13-inch scale instead of the 13.876 common on archtop Mandolins.
Where did the Lombardic family of bowlback mandolins come from?
5728a6062ca10214002da520
Milan and Lombardy
47
False
What do the Lombardic mandolins resemble more than modern mandolins?
5728a6062ca10214002da521
mandolino or mandore
101
False
What differences do the Lombardic mandolins have from the Neapolitan mandolin?
5728a6062ca10214002da522
They are shorter and wider
151
False
How many strings do the Lombardic mandolins have?
5728a6062ca10214002da523
6 strings
259
False
Who was the developer of the Milanese mandolin?
5728a6062ca10214002da524
Antonio Monzino
528
False
Milan and Lombardy
47
Where did the Lombardic family of bowlback mandolins leave from?
5ad20ec3d7d075001a4282ae
True
mandolino or mandore
101
What do the Lombardic mandolins resemble more than ancient mandolins?
5ad20ec3d7d075001a4282af
True
shorter and wider
160
What differences do the Lombardic mandolins have from the ancient mandolin?
5ad20ec3d7d075001a4282b0
True
6
259
How many bows do the Lombardic mandolins have?
5ad20ec3d7d075001a4282b1
True
Antonio Monzino
528
Who was the developer of the Chinese mandolin?
5ad20ec3d7d075001a4282b2
True
Another family of bowlback mandolins came from Milan and Lombardy. These mandolins are closer to the mandolino or mandore than other modern mandolins. They are shorter and wider than the standard Neapolitan mandolin, with a shallow back. The instruments have 6 strings, 3 wire treble-strings and 3 gut or wire-wrapped-silk bass-strings. The strings ran between the tuning pegs and a bridge that was glued to the soundboard, as a guitar's. The Lombardic mandolins were tuned g b e' a' d" g". A developer of the Milanese stye was Antonio Monzino (Milan) and his family who made them for 6 generations.
Who described the Lombardi mandolin as wider and shorter than the Neoapolitan mandolin?
5728a6773acd2414000dfbdb
Samuel Adelstein
0
False
How many strings do the regular mandolin's have?
5728a6773acd2414000dfbdc
4
217
False
What was the Lombardi Mandolin tuned to?
5728a6773acd2414000dfbdd
C, D, A, E, B, G.
243
False
How many frets did the Lombardi have?
5728a6773acd2414000dfbde
20 frets
329
False
How many octaves did the Lombardi cover?
5728a6773acd2414000dfbdf
three octaves
348
False
Samuel Adelstein
0
Who described the Lombardi mandolin as longer and narrower than the Neoapolitan mandolin?
5ad20efed7d075001a4282b8
True
4
217
How many strings do the non regular mandolin's have?
5ad20efed7d075001a4282b9
True
C, D, A, E, B, G
243
What was the Lombardi Mandolin untuned to?
5ad20efed7d075001a4282ba
True
20 frets
329
How many frets did the Lombardi lack?
5ad20efed7d075001a4282bb
True
three octaves
348
How many octaves did the Lombardi not cover?
5ad20efed7d075001a4282bc
True
Samuel Adelstein described the Lombardi mandolin in 1893 as wider and shorter than the Neapolitan mandolin, with a shallower back and a shorter and wider neck, with six single strings to the regular mandolin's set of 4. The Lombardi was tuned C, D, A, E, B, G. The strings were fastened to the bridge like a guitar's. There were 20 frets, covering three octaves, with an additional 5 notes. When Adelstein wrote, there were no nylon strings, and the gut and single strings "do not vibrate so clearly and sweetly as the double steel string of the Neapolitan."
Who popularised the Cremonese Mandolin?
5728a75e4b864d1900164b92
Bartolomeo Bortolazzi
121
False
What was Bartolomeo Bortolazzi's popular mandolin method?
5728a75e4b864d1900164b93
Anweisung die Mandoline von selbst zu erlernen nebst einigen Uebungsstucken von Bortolazzi
29
False
How many strings did the Cremonese Mandolin have?
5728a75e4b864d1900164b94
four single-strings
189
False
Did Bortolazzi like playing the new wire strung mandolins?
5728a75e4b864d1900164b95
uncomfortable to play
334
False
What did Bortolazzi say about the sound?
5728a75e4b864d1900164b96
less pleasing...hard, zither-like tone
430
False
Bartolomeo Bortolazzi
121
Who didn't popularize the Cremonese Mandolin?
5ad211e7d7d075001a4282de
True
Anweisung die Mandoline von selbst zu erlernen nebst einigen Uebungsstucken von Bortolazzi
29
What was Bartolomeo Bortolazzi's unpopular mandolin method?
5ad211e7d7d075001a4282df
True
four
189
How many double strings did the Cremonese Mandolin have?
5ad211e7d7d075001a4282e0
True
softer, full-singing tone
503
What did Bortolazzi say about the tempo?
5ad211e7d7d075001a4282e1
True
In his 1805 mandolin method, Anweisung die Mandoline von selbst zu erlernen nebst einigen Uebungsstucken von Bortolazzi, Bartolomeo Bortolazzi popularised the Cremonese mandolin, which had four single-strings and a fixed bridge, to which the strings were attached. Bortolazzi said in this book that the new wire strung mandolins were uncomfortable to play, when compared with the gut-string instruments. Also, he felt they had a "less pleasing...hard, zither-like tone" as compared to the gut string's "softer, full-singing tone." He favored the four single strings of the Cremonese instrument, which were tuned the same as the Neapolitan.
When was a new sytle of carved top and back construction mandolins created?
5728a7ed3acd2414000dfc0d
end of the 19th century
12
False
What was the new sytle of mandolins inspired from?
5728a7ed3acd2414000dfc0e
violin family instruments
102
False
What sytle did the new style of mandolins supplant?
5728a7ed3acd2414000dfc0f
European-style bowl-back
150
False
Who founded the Gibson Mandolin-Guitar Manufacturing Co, Limited?
5728a7ed3acd2414000dfc10
Orville Gibson
271
False
end of the 19th century
12
When was a old style of carved top and back construction mandolins created?
5ad2123dd7d075001a4282f0
True
violin family instruments
102
What was the old style of mandolins inspired from?
5ad2123dd7d075001a4282f1
True
European-style bowl-back
150
What style did the old style of mandolins supplant?
5ad2123dd7d075001a4282f2
True
Orville Gibson
271
Who founded the Gibson Mandolin-Guitar Manufacturing Co, Unlimited?
5ad2123dd7d075001a4282f3
True
At the very end of the 19th century, a new style, with a carved top and back construction inspired by violin family instruments began to supplant the European-style bowl-back instruments in the United States. This new style is credited to mandolins designed and built by Orville Gibson, a Kalamazoo, Michigan luthier who founded the "Gibson Mandolin-Guitar Manufacturing Co., Limited" in 1902. Gibson mandolins evolved into two basic styles: the Florentine or F-style, which has a decorative scroll near the neck, two points on the lower body and usually a scroll carved into the headstock; and the A-style, which is pear shaped, has no points and usually has a simpler headstock.
What shape sounds holes do these styles of mandolins have?
5728a8913acd2414000dfc1f
two f-shaped soundholes like a violin (F-5 and A-5), or an oval sound hole (F-4 and A-4 and lower models)
35
False
Where are the soundholes located?
5728a8913acd2414000dfc20
directly under the strings
141
False
What mandolin is associate with Bluegrass music?
5728a8913acd2414000dfc21
Gibson F-hole F-5 mandolins
322
False
What style is associate with other types of music?
5728a8913acd2414000dfc22
A-style
440
False
Why is the F-5 mandolin more expensive?
5728a8913acd2414000dfc23
complicated woodwork
569
False
two f-shaped soundholes like a violin (F-5 and A-5), or an oval sound hole (F-4 and A-4 and lower models)
35
What shape sounds holes do these styles of mandolins not have?
5ad21289d7d075001a428302
True
directly under the strings
141
Where are the feelingholes located?
5ad21289d7d075001a428303
True
A-style
440
What mandolin is not associated with Bluegrass music?
5ad21289d7d075001a428304
True
complicated woodwork
569
Why is the F-5 mandolin less expensive?
5ad21289d7d075001a428305
True
These styles generally have either two f-shaped soundholes like a violin (F-5 and A-5), or an oval sound hole (F-4 and A-4 and lower models) directly under the strings. Much variation exists between makers working from these archetypes, and other variants have become increasingly common. Generally, in the United States, Gibson F-hole F-5 mandolins and mandolins influenced by that design are strongly associated with bluegrass, while the A-style is associated other types of music, although it too is most often used for and associated with bluegrass. The F-5's more complicated woodwork also translates into a more expensive instrument.
What style of Gisbon Mandolin was largely replicated?
5728a91e3acd2414000dfc33
Gibson F-5
77
False
When was the Gibson F-5 largely replicated?
5728a91e3acd2414000dfc34
early 1920s
115
False
Who supervised the Gibson F-5's replication?
5728a91e3acd2414000dfc35
Gibson acoustician Lloyd Loar
152
False
Who are the other makers from the Loar period?
5728a91e3acd2414000dfc36
Lyon and Healy, Vega and Larson Brothers
311
False
Who were notable modern American mandolin manufacturers?
5728a91e3acd2414000dfc37
Kay, Gibson, Weber, Monteleone and Collings.
436
False
Gibson F-5
77
What style of Gisbon Mandolin was never replicated?
5ad212ead7d075001a428314
True
early 1920s
115
When was the Gibson F-5 never replicated?
5ad212ead7d075001a428315
True
Gibson acoustician Lloyd Loar
152
Who rejected the Gibson F-5's replication?
5ad212ead7d075001a428316
True
Lyon and Healy, Vega and Larson Brothers
311
Who are the other businessmen from the Loar period?
5ad212ead7d075001a428317
True
Kay, Gibson, Weber, Monteleone and Collings
436
Who were notable modern African mandolin manufacturers?
5ad212ead7d075001a428318
True
Numerous modern mandolin makers build instruments that largely replicate the Gibson F-5 Artist models built in the early 1920s under the supervision of Gibson acoustician Lloyd Loar. Original Loar-signed instruments are sought after and extremely valuable. Other makers from the Loar period and earlier include Lyon and Healy, Vega and Larson Brothers. Some notable modern American carved mandolin manufacturers include, in addition to Kay, Gibson, Weber, Monteleone and Collings. Mandolins from other countries include The Loar (China), Santa, Rosa (China), Michael Kelly (Korea), Eastman (China), Kentucky (China), Heiden (Canada), Gilchrist (Australia) and Morgan Monroe (China).
What instrument does the mandolin share the same tuning of?
5728a9a74b864d1900164bd2
violin
212
False
Where was the mandolin primarily used?
5728a9a74b864d1900164bd3
classical tradition with Mandolin orchestras
369
False
When was the mandolin considered a fad?
5728a9a74b864d1900164bd4
early 20th century
779
False
Who contributed to the idea that the mandolin was a fad?
5728a9a74b864d1900164bd5
Giuseppe Pettine, Raffaele Calace and Silvio Ranieri
663
False
When did the mandolin craze end?
5728a9a74b864d1900164bd6
1930s
839
False
violin
152
What instrument does the mandolin not have the same tuning of?
5ad2131dd7d075001a42831e
True
classical tradition with Mandolin orchestras
369
Where wasn't the mandolin primarily used?
5ad2131dd7d075001a42831f
True
early 20th century
779
When was the mandolin considered more than a fad?
5ad2131dd7d075001a428320
True
Giuseppe Pettine, Raffaele Calace and Silvio Ranieri
663
Who contributed to the idea that the mandolin was not just a fad?
5ad2131dd7d075001a428321
True
1930s
839
When did the mandolin craze begin?
5ad2131dd7d075001a428322
True
The international repertoire of music for mandolin is almost unlimited, and musicians use it to play various types of music. This is especially true of violin music, since the mandolin has the same tuning of the violin. Following its invention and early development in Italy the mandolin spread throughout the European continent. The instrument was primarily used in a classical tradition with Mandolin orchestras, so called Estudiantinas or in Germany Zupforchestern appearing in many cities. Following this continental popularity of the mandolin family local traditions appeared outside of Europe in the Americas and in Japan. Travelling mandolin virtuosi like Giuseppe Pettine, Raffaele Calace and Silvio Ranieri contributed to the mandolin becoming a "fad" instrument in the early 20th century. This "mandolin craze" was fading by the 1930s, but just as this practice was falling into disuse, the mandolin found a new niche in American country, old-time music, bluegrass and folk music. More recently, the Baroque and Classical mandolin repertory and styles have benefited from the raised awareness of and interest in Early music, with media attention to classical players such as Israeli Avi Avital, Italian Carlo Aonzo and American Joseph Brent.
Who played a key role Australian mandolin movement?
5728aaa24b864d1900164be6
Phil Skinner
0
False
When did the Australian mandolin movement begin?
5728aaa24b864d1900164be7
20th century
34
False
When was Phil Skinner awarded an MBE?
5728aaa24b864d1900164be8
1979
124
False
What was Phil Skinner's birth name?
5728aaa24b864d1900164be9
Harry Skinner
182
False
At what age did Phil Skinner begin playing music?
5728aaa24b864d1900164bea
10
248
False
Phil Skinner
0
Who played a key role African mandolin movement?
5ad21357d7d075001a42833c
True
20th century
34
When did the African mandolin movement begin?
5ad21357d7d075001a42833d
True
1979
124
When did Phil Skinner lose an MBE?
5ad21357d7d075001a42833e
True
Harry Skinner
182
What was Phil Skinner's married name?
5ad21357d7d075001a42833f
True
10
248
At what age did Phil Skinner stop playing music?
5ad21357d7d075001a428340
True
Phil Skinner played a key role in 20th century development of the mandolin movement in Australia, and was awarded an MBE in 1979 for services to music and the community. He was born Harry Skinner in Sydney in 1903 and started learning music at age 10 when his uncle tutored him on the banjo. Skinner began teaching part-time at age 18, until the Great Depression forced him to begin teaching full-time and learn a broader range of instruments. Skinner founded the Sydney Mandolin Orchestra, the oldest surviving mandolin orchestra in Australia.
Who is the director of the Sydney Mandolins?
5728ab5aff5b5019007da400
Adrian Hooper
41
False
How many commisions of Sydney Mandolins have their been?
5728ab5aff5b5019007da401
over 200 works
121
False
On what media was most of these work released?
5728ab5aff5b5019007da402
Compact Disks
221
False
What radio stations can they be heard on?
5728ab5aff5b5019007da403
ABC and MBS networks
287
False
Who has had many Concertos written for him?
5728ab5aff5b5019007da404
mandolin virtuoso Paul Hooper
331
False
Adrian Hooper
41
Who isn't the director of the Sydney Mandolins?
5ad21390d7d075001a428346
True
over 200 works
121
How many commissions of Sicily Mandolins have there been?
5ad21390d7d075001a428347
True
Compact Disks
221
On what media was most of these work never released?
5ad21390d7d075001a428348
True
ABC and MBS networks
287
What radio stations can they never be heard on?
5ad21390d7d075001a428349
True
Paul Hooper
565
Who has had zero Concertos written for him?
5ad21390d7d075001a42834a
True
The Sydney Mandolins (Artistic Director: Adrian Hooper) have contributed greatly to the repertoire through commissioning over 200 works by Australian and International composers. Most of these works have been released on Compact Disks and can regularly be heard on radio stations on the ABC and MBS networks. One of their members, mandolin virtuoso Paul Hooper, has had a number of Concertos written for him by composers such as Eric Gross. He has performed and recorded these works with the Sydney Symphony Orchestra and the Tasmanian Symphony Orchestra. As well, Paul Hooper has had many solo works dedicated to him by Australian composers e.g., Caroline Szeto, Ian Shanahan, Larry Sitsky and Michael Smetanin.
What is an Etsudiantinas?
5728abdeff5b5019007da424
mandolin orchestras
34
False
Where were the Estudiantinas active in during the early 20th century?
5728abdeff5b5019007da425
Belgium
85
False
What groups remain today?
5728abdeff5b5019007da426
Royal Estudiantina la Napolitaine (founded in 1904) in Antwerp, Brasschaats mandoline orkest in Brasschaat and an orchestra in Mons (Bergen).
126
False
Where is Gerda Abts well know in?
5728abdeff5b5019007da427
Belgium
316
False
Where is Gerda Abst a professor mandolin?
5728abdeff5b5019007da428
Koninklijk Conservatorium Artesis Hogeschool Antwerpen
490
False
mandolin orchestras
34
What is an Atsudiantinas?
5ad213ded7d075001a428364
True
Belgium
85
Where were the Estudiantinas active in during the early 21st century?
5ad213ded7d075001a428365
True
Royal Estudiantina la Napolitaine
126
What groups don't remain today?
5ad213ded7d075001a428366
True
Belgium
316
Where is Gerda Abts not well known in?
5ad213ded7d075001a428367
True
Koninklijk Conservatorium Artesis Hogeschool Antwerpen
490
Where is Gerda Abst not a professor mandolin?
5ad213ded7d075001a428368
True
In the early 20th century several mandolin orchestras (Estudiantinas) were active in Belgium. Today only a few groups remain: Royal Estudiantina la Napolitaine (founded in 1904) in Antwerp, Brasschaats mandoline orkest in Brasschaat and an orchestra in Mons (Bergen). Gerda Abts is a well known mandolin virtuoso in Belgium. She is also mandolin teacher and gives lessons in the music academies of Lier, Wijnegem and Brasschaat. She is now also professor mandolin at the music high school “Koninklijk Conservatorium Artesis Hogeschool Antwerpen”. She also gives various concerts each year in different ensembles. She is in close contact to the Brasschaat mandolin Orchestra. Her site is www.gevoeligesnaar.be
Prior to what age did France have a history with the mandolin?
5728ac45ff5b5019007da436
Golden Age of Mandolins
13
False
Where in France did the mandolinists play?
5728ac45ff5b5019007da437
Paris
107
False
When did the mandolinists stop playing in Paris?
5728ac45ff5b5019007da438
Napoleonic Wars.
123
False
Who were the players and composers during this time?
5728ac45ff5b5019007da439
Giovanni Fouchetti, Eduardo Mezzacapo, Gabriele Leon, and Gervasio
185
False
What years was considered the Golden Age of Mandolins?
5728ac45ff5b5019007da43a
1880s-1920s
283
False
Prior to the Golden Age
0
Prior to what age did Italy have a history with the mandolin?
5ad21412d7d075001a42836e
True
Paris
107
Where in Italy did the mandolinists play?
5ad21412d7d075001a42836f
True
Napoleonic Wars
123
When did the mandolinists start playing in Paris?
5ad21412d7d075001a428370
True
Giovanni Fouchetti, Eduardo Mezzacapo, Gabriele Leon, and Gervasio
185
Who weren't the players and composers during this time?
5ad21412d7d075001a428371
True
1880s-1920s
283
What years weren't considered the Golden Age of Mandolins?
5ad21412d7d075001a428372
True
Prior to the Golden Age of Mandolins, France had a history with the mandolin, with mandolinists playing in Paris until the Napoleonic Wars. The players, teachers and composers included Giovanni Fouchetti, Eduardo Mezzacapo, Gabriele Leon, and Gervasio. During the Golden age itself (1880s-1920s), the mandolin had a strong presence in France. Prominent mandolin players or composers included Jules Cottin and his sister Madeleine Cottin, Jean Pietrapertosa, and Edgar Bara. Paris had dozens of "estudiantina" mandolin orchestras in the early 1900s. Mandolin magazines included L'Estudiantina, Le Plectre, École de la mandolie.
What Island is the mandolin a main instrument in Cretan Music?
5728aeb92ca10214002da5b0
island of Crete
7
False
When did the mandolin appears on Crete?
5728aeb92ca10214002da5b1
around the time of the Venetian rule of the island.
154
False
What was one of the variants of the mandolin that was used?
5728aeb92ca10214002da5b2
mantola
255
False
Who reported that the mandolin and the mpoulgari were used to accompany the lyria?
5728aeb92ca10214002da5b3
Stelios Foustalierakis
326
False
The mandolin was reported to be popular among what sex?
5728aeb92ca10214002da5b4
woman
542
False
Crete
17
What Island is the mandolin not a main instrument in Cretan Music?
5ad2144bd7d075001a428388
True
around the time of the Venetian rule
154
When did the mandolin leave Crete?
5ad2144bd7d075001a428389
True
mantola
255
What was one of the variants of the mandolin that was never used?
5ad2144bd7d075001a42838a
True
Stelios Foustalierakis
326
Who reported that the mandolin and the mpoulgari were not used to accompany the lyria?
5ad2144bd7d075001a42838b
True
woman's
542
The mandolin was reported to be unpopular among what sex?
5ad2144bd7d075001a42838c
True
On the island of Crete, along with the lyra and the laouto (lute), the mandolin is one of the main instruments used in Cretan Music. It appeared on Crete around the time of the Venetian rule of the island. Different variants of the mandolin, such as the "mantola," were used to accompany the lyra, the violin, and the laouto. Stelios Foustalierakis reported that the mandolin and the mpoulgari were used to accompany the lyra in the beginning of the 20th century in the city of Rethimno. There are also reports that the mandolin was mostly a woman's musical instrument. Nowadays it is played mainly as a solo instrument in personal and family events on the Ionian islands and Crete.
Many adaptations of the instruments were done to cater to what type of music?
5728af434b864d1900164c1c
Indian Carnatic
83
False
What is the mandolin usually tuned to for Indian music?
5728af434b864d1900164c1d
E-B-E-B.
244
False
There is no concept of what in Indian music?
5728af434b864d1900164c1e
absolute pitch
279
False
What is another popular madonlin tuning?
5728af434b864d1900164c1f
C-G-C-G
468
False
These mandolin are used in a popular dance music called?
5728af434b864d1900164c20
Bhangra
677
False
Indian Carnatic
83
Many adaptations of the instruments were done to not cater to what type of music?
5ad21485d7d075001a428392
True
E-B-E-B
244
What is the mandolin usually tuned to for Asian music?
5ad21485d7d075001a428393
True
absolute pitch
279
There is no concept of what in Asian music?
5ad21485d7d075001a428394
True
C-G-C-G,
468
What is not a popular madonlin tuning?
5ad21485d7d075001a428395
True
Bhangra
677
These mandolin are used in unpopular dance music called?
5ad21485d7d075001a428396
True
Many adaptations of the instrument have been done to cater to the special needs of Indian Carnatic music. In Indian classical music and Indian light music, the mandolin, which bears little resemblance to the European mandolin, is usually tuned E-B-E-B. As there is no concept of absolute pitch in Indian classical music, any convenient tuning maintaining these relative pitch intervals between the strings can be used. Another prevalent tuning with these intervals is C-G-C-G, which corresponds to Sa-Pa-Sa-Pa in the Indian carnatic classical music style. This tuning corresponds to the way violins are tuned for carnatic classical music. This type of mandolin is also used in Bhangra, dance music popular in Punjabi culture.
What types of instruments do irish player prefer?
5728b027ff5b5019007da484
might be adequate for Irish traditional music, virtually all Irish players prefer flat-backed instruments with oval sound holes
47
False
Why is it said that the Italian style can't hold their own session?
5728b027ff5b5019007da485
too soft-toned
314
False
Which type mandolin had a tendency not to stay in the player's lap?
5728b027ff5b5019007da486
the carved-top mandolins with f-holes
219
False
Which mandolin was preferred for formal performances and recordings?
5728b027ff5b5019007da487
flat-topped "Irish-style" mandolins
714
False
What was the Irish style mandolin reminiscent of?
5728b027ff5b5019007da488
WWI-era Martin Army-Navy mandolin
770
False
traditional music
75
What types of instruments do Italian player prefer?
5ad22a90d7d075001a4285d0
True
too soft-toned
314
Why is it said that the Italian style can hold their own session?
5ad22a90d7d075001a4285d1
True
carved-top mandolins with f-holes
223
Which type mandolin didn't have a tendency not to stay in the player's lap?
5ad22a90d7d075001a4285d2
True
flat-topped "Irish-style" mandolins
714
Which mandolin wasn't preferred for formal performances and recordings?
5ad22a90d7d075001a4285d3
True
WWI-era Martin Army-Navy
770
What was the Italian style mandolin reminiscent of?
5ad22a90d7d075001a4285d4
True
Though almost any variety of acoustic mandolin might be adequate for Irish traditional music, virtually all Irish players prefer flat-backed instruments with oval sound holes to the Italian-style bowl-back mandolins or the carved-top mandolins with f-holes favoured by bluegrass mandolinists. The former are often too soft-toned to hold their own in a session (as well as having a tendency to not stay in place on the player's lap), whilst the latter tend to sound harsh and overbearing to the traditional ear. The f-hole mandolin, however, does come into its own in a traditional session, where its brighter tone cuts through the sonic clutter of a pub. Greatly preferred for formal performance and recording are flat-topped "Irish-style" mandolins (reminiscent of the WWI-era Martin Army-Navy mandolin) and carved (arch) top mandolins with oval soundholes, such as the Gibson A-style of the 1920s.
Who are some of the famous Irish Mandolinists?
5728b1163acd2414000dfcd1
Andy Irvine
38
False
Who are popular fiddle player and tenor banjo player?
5728b1163acd2414000dfcd2
John Sheahan and the late Barney McKenna
215
False
What was John Sheahan and Barney Mckenna's band called?
5728b1163acd2414000dfcd3
The Dubliners,
312
False
Who made the instruments used by the Dubliners?
5728b1163acd2414000dfcd4
UK luthier Roger Bucknall of Fylde Guitars
465
False
What Irish guitarist played the mandolin on stage?
5728b1163acd2414000dfcd5
Rory Gallagher
627
False
Andy Irvine
38
Who are some of the famous Italian Mandolinists?
5ad22b4bd7d075001a4285ec
True
John Sheahan and the late Barney McKenna
215
Who are unpopular fiddle player and tenor banjo player?
5ad22b4bd7d075001a4285ed
True
The Dubliners
312
What was John Sheahan and Barney Mckenna's job called?
5ad22b4bd7d075001a4285ee
True
UK luthier Roger Bucknall of Fylde Guitars
465
Who made the instruments used by the Italian group?
5ad22b4bd7d075001a4285ef
True
Rory Gallagher
627
What Irish guitarist played the mandolin off stage?
5ad22b4bd7d075001a4285f0
True
Noteworthy Irish mandolinists include Andy Irvine (who, like Johnny Moynihan, almost always tunes the top E down to D, to achieve an open tuning of GDAD), Paul Brady, Mick Moloney, Paul Kelly and Claudine Langille. John Sheahan and the late Barney McKenna, respectively fiddle player and tenor banjo player with The Dubliners, are also accomplished Irish mandolin players. The instruments used are either flat-backed, oval hole examples as described above (made by UK luthier Roger Bucknall of Fylde Guitars), or carved-top, oval hole instruments with arched back (made by Stefan Sobell in Northumberland). The Irish guitarist Rory Gallagher often played the mandolin on stage, and he most famously used it in the song "Going To My Hometown."
Who composed the Concerto in C Major Op 3 6?
5728b18d3acd2414000dfce5
Antonio Vivaldi
0
False
Who placed it in his 1787 work?
5728b18d3acd2414000dfce6
Wolfgang Amadeus Mozart
125
False
What two artists created four variations of the Concerto in C Major Op 3 6?
5728b18d3acd2414000dfce7
Don Giovanni and Beethoven
176
False
Who composed the La conquista della Spagne di Scipione Afriacano il giovance?
5728b18d3acd2414000dfce8
Antonio Maria Bononcini
234
False
When was Alexander Balus composed?
5728b18d3acd2414000dfce9
1748
388
False
Antonio Vivaldi
0
Who composed the Concerto in D Major Op 3 6?
5ad22dcad7d075001a428650
True
Wolfgang Amadeus Mozart
125
Who placed it in his 1789 work?
5ad22dcad7d075001a428651
True
Don Giovanni and Beethoven
176
What two artists created five variations of the Concerto in D Major Op 3 6?
5ad22dcad7d075001a428652
True
Antonio Maria Bononcini
234
Who rejected the La conquista della Spagne di Scipione Afriacano il giovance?
5ad22dcad7d075001a428653
True
Antonio Vivaldi composed a mandolin concerto (Concerto in C major Op.3 6) and two concertos for two mandolins and orchestra. Wolfgang Amadeus Mozart placed it in his 1787 work Don Giovanni and Beethoven created four variations of it. Antonio Maria Bononcini composed La conquista delle Spagne di Scipione Africano il giovane in 1707 and George Frideric Handel composed Alexander Balus in 1748. Others include Giovani Battista Gervasio (Sonata in D major for Mandolin and Basso Continuo), Giuseppe Giuliano (Sonata in D major for Mandolin and Basso Continuo), Emanuele Barbella (Sonata in D major for Mandolin and Basso Continuo), Domenico Scarlatti (Sonata n.54 (K.89) in D minor for Mandolin and Basso Continuo), and Addiego Guerra (Sonata in G major for Mandolin and Basso Continuo).
What country still maintains strong classic music tradition with mandolin?
5728b201ff5b5019007da4a2
Japan
87
False
How many people compose the Japanese mandolin orchestras?
5728b201ff5b5019007da4a3
40 or 50 members
341
False
What other instruments do the Japanese madnolin orchestras play?
5728b201ff5b5019007da4a4
include woodwind, percussion, and brass sections.
367
False
Japan hold and extensive collection of what?
5728b201ff5b5019007da4a5
20th Century mandolin music from Europe and one of the most complete collections of mandolin magazines from mandolin's golden age
465
False
Who purhcased one of the collections of mandolin magazines?
5728b201ff5b5019007da4a6
Morishige Takei.
609
False
Japan
87
What country doesn't maintain strong classic music tradition with mandolin?
5ad22e93d7d075001a42866a
True
40 or 50 members
341
How many people compose the Chinese mandolin orchestras?
5ad22e93d7d075001a42866b
True
include woodwind, percussion, and brass sections
367
What other instruments do the Chinese mandolin orchestras play?
5ad22e93d7d075001a42866c
True
20th Century mandolin music
465
Japan doesn't hold an extensive collection of what?
5ad22e93d7d075001a42866d
True
Morishige Takei
609
Who sold one of the collections of mandolin magazines?
5ad22e93d7d075001a42866e
True
The expansion of mandolin use continued after World War II through the late 1960s, and Japan still maintains a strong classical music tradition using mandolins, with active orchestras and university music programs. New orchestras were founded and new orchestral compositions composed. Japanese mandolin orchestras today may consist of up to 40 or 50 members, and can include woodwind, percussion, and brass sections. Japan also maintains an extensive collection of 20th Century mandolin music from Europe and one of the most complete collections of mandolin magazines from mandolin's golden age, purchased by Morishige Takei.
What does bandolim mean?
5728b2813acd2414000dfcf7
Portuguese for "mandolin"
14
False
When was the bandolim porpular among the Portugese bourgeoisie?
5728b2813acd2414000dfcf8
19th century
109
False
Where can you see mandolins a part of in Portgal?
5728b2813acd2414000dfcf9
traditional and folk culture
239
False
Where is the Portuguese mandolin scene located?
5728b2813acd2414000dfcfa
Madeira Island
354
False
How many active mandolin orchestras does the Madiera Island have?
5728b2813acd2414000dfcfb
over 17
382
False
Portuguese for "mandolin
14
What does bandolin mean?
5ad22fced7d075001a42869a
True
19th century
109
When was the bandolim not popular among the Portugese bourgeoisie?
5ad22fced7d075001a42869b
True
traditional and folk culture
239
Where can you not see mandolins a part of in Portgal?
5ad22fced7d075001a42869c
True
Madeira Island
354
Where is the Japanese mandolin scene located?
5ad22fced7d075001a42869d
True
over 17
382
How many active mandolin orchestras does the Chinese Island have?
5ad22fced7d075001a42869e
True
The bandolim (Portuguese for "mandolin") was a favourite instrument within the Portuguese bourgeoisie of the 19th century, but its rapid spread took it to other places, joining other instruments. Today you can see mandolins as part of the traditional and folk culture of Portuguese singing groups and the majority of the mandolin scene in Portugal is in Madeira Island. Madeira has over 17 active mandolin Orchestras and Tunas. The mandolin virtuoso Fabio Machado is one of Portugal's most accomplished mandolin players. The Portuguese influence brought the mandolin to Brazil.
Who is a famous British player?
5728b30aff5b5019007da4ca
Simon Mayor
105
False
What did Simon mayer produce?
5728b30aff5b5019007da4cb
six solo albums, instructional books and DVDs, as well as recordings with his mandolin quartet the Mandolinquents.
164
False
Who played the mandolin on the album Tubular Bells?
5728b30aff5b5019007da4cc
Mike Oldfield
369
False
What was UK's biggest selling album?
5728b30aff5b5019007da4cd
"Fog on the Tyne
724
False
What song by Rod Stewart used the mandolin?
5728b30aff5b5019007da4ce
Maggie May
993
False
Simon Mayor
105
Who is a famous Asian player?
5ad23048d7d075001a4286b6
True
six solo albums
164
What did Simon mayer sell?
5ad23048d7d075001a4286b7
True
Mike Oldfield
369
Who played the mandolin on the album Tubular Chimes?
5ad23048d7d075001a4286b8
True
Fog on the Tyne
725
What was US's biggest selling album?
5ad23048d7d075001a4286b9
True
Maggie May
993
What song by Bob Stewart used the mandolin?
5ad23048d7d075001a4286ba
True
The mandolin has been used extensively in the traditional music of England and Scotland for generations. Simon Mayor is a prominent British player who has produced six solo albums, instructional books and DVDs, as well as recordings with his mandolin quartet the Mandolinquents. The instrument has also found its way into British rock music. The mandolin was played by Mike Oldfield (and introduced by Vivian Stanshall) on Oldfield's album Tubular Bells, as well as on a number of his subsequent albums (particularly prominently on Hergest Ridge (1974) and Ommadawn (1975)). It was used extensively by the British folk-rock band Lindisfarne, who featured two members on the instrument, Ray Jackson and Simon Cowe, and whose "Fog on the Tyne" was the biggest selling UK album of 1971-1972. The instrument was also used extensively in the UK folk revival of the 1960s and 1970s with bands such as Fairport Convention and Steeleye Span taking it on as the lead instrument in many of their songs. Maggie May by Rod Stewart, which hit No. 1 on both the British charts and the Billboard Hot 100, also featured Jackson's playing. It has also been used by other British rock musicians. Led Zeppelin's bassist John Paul Jones is an accomplished mandolin player and has recorded numerous songs on mandolin including Going to California and That's the Way; the mandolin part on The Battle of Evermore is played by Jimmy Page, who composed the song. Other Led Zeppelin songs featuring mandolin are Hey Hey What Can I Do, and Black Country Woman. Pete Townshend of The Who played mandolin on the track Mike Post Theme, along with many other tracks on Endless Wire. McGuinness Flint, for whom Graham Lyle played the mandolin on their most successful single, When I'm Dead And Gone, is another example. Lyle was also briefly a member of Ronnie Lane's Slim Chance, and played mandolin on their hit How Come. One of the more prominent early mandolin players in popular music was Robin Williamson in The Incredible String Band. Ian Anderson of Jethro Tull is a highly accomplished mandolin player (beautiful track Pussy Willow), as is his guitarist Martin Barre. The popular song Please Please Please Let Me Get What I Want by The Smiths featured a mandolin solo played by Johnny Marr. More recently, the Glasgow-based band Sons and Daughters featured the mandolin, played by Ailidh Lennon, on tracks such as Fight, Start to End, and Medicine. British folk-punk icons the Levellers also regularly use the mandolin in their songs. Current bands are also beginning to use the Mandolin and its unique sound - such as South London's Indigo Moss who use it throughout their recordings and live gigs. The mandolin has also featured in the playing of Matthew Bellamy in the rock band Muse. It also forms the basis of Paul McCartney's 2007 hit "Dance Tonight." That was not the first time a Beatle played a mandolin, however; that distinction goes to George Harrison on Gone Troppo, the title cut from the 1982 album of the same name. The mandolin is taught in Lanarkshire by the Lanarkshire Guitar and Mandolin Association to over 100 people. Also more recently hard rock supergroup Them Crooked Vultures have been playing a song based primarily using a mandolin. This song was left off their debut album, and features former Led Zeppelin bassist John Paul Jones.[citation needed]
What group in the US was popular?
5728b4224b864d1900164c64
Estudiantina Figaro
134
False
When did the Estudiantina Figaro come to the US?
5728b4224b864d1900164c65
January 2, 1880
243
False
Where did the Estudiantina Figaro play?
5728b4224b864d1900164c66
Boston and New York
291
False
What group was inspired by the Estudiantina Figaro?
5728b4224b864d1900164c67
Original Spanish Students
779
False
What did the Origianl Spanish Students expect the American  public not to know?
5728b4224b864d1900164c68
the difference between the Spanish bandurrias and Italian mandolins
851
False
Estudiantina Figaro
134
What group in the UK was popular?
5ad230fcd7d075001a4286f8
True
January 2, 1880
243
When did the Estudiantina Figaro leave the US?
5ad230fcd7d075001a4286f9
True
Boston and New York
291
Where did the Estudiantina Figaro refuse to play?
5ad230fcd7d075001a4286fa
True
Original Spanish Students
779
What group wasn't inspired by the Estudiantina Figaro?
5ad230fcd7d075001a4286fb
True
difference between the Spanish bandurrias and Italian mandolins
855
What did the Origianl Spanish Students expect the African public not to know?
5ad230fcd7d075001a4286fc
True
The mandolin's popularity in the United States was spurred by the success of a group of touring young European musicians known as the Estudiantina Figaro, or in the United States, simply the "Spanish Students." The group landed in the U.S. on January 2, 1880 in New York City, and played in Boston and New York to wildly enthusiastic crowds. Ironically, this ensemble did not play mandolins but rather bandurrias, which are also small, double-strung instruments that resemble the mandolin. The success of the Figaro Spanish Students spawned other groups who imitated their musical style and costumes. An Italian musician, Carlo Curti, hastily started a musical ensemble after seeing the Figaro Spanish Students perform; his group of Italian born Americans called themselves the "Original Spanish Students," counting on the American public to not know the difference between the Spanish bandurrias and Italian mandolins. The imitators' use of mandolins helped to generate enormous public interest in an instrument previously relatively unknown in the United States.
When did madolin awareness in the US become fluent?
5728b4714b864d1900164c6e
1880s
57
False
When was the first madolin made in the US?
5728b4714b864d1900164c6f
1883 or 1884
228
False
Who made the first US mandolin?
5728b4714b864d1900164c70
Joseph Bohm
244
False
Where was Joseph Bohmann from?
5728b4714b864d1900164c71
Chicago
303
False
What type of madolin was Partee using ?
5728b4714b864d1900164c72
French-made mandolin
612
False
1880s
57
When didn't madolin awareness in the US become fluent?
5ad231c0d7d075001a428732
True
1883 or 1884
228
When was the first mandolin destroyed in the US?
5ad231c0d7d075001a428733
True
Joseph Bohmann
244
Who made the first UK mandolin?
5ad231c0d7d075001a428734
True
French-made mandolin
612
What type of mandolin was Partee not using?
5ad231c0d7d075001a428735
True
Mandolin awareness in the United States blossomed in the 1880s, as the instrument became part of a fad that continued into the mid-1920s. According to Clarence L. Partee, the first mandolin made in the United States was made in 1883 or 1884 by Joseph Bohmann, who was an established maker of violins in Chicago. Partee characterized the early instrument as being larger than the European instruments he was used to, with a "peculiar shape" and "crude construction," and said that the quality improved, until American instruments were "superior" to imported instruments. At the time, Partee was using an imported French-made mandolin.
What popular musical casted a teacher-dealer?
5728b5c04b864d1900164c94
The Music Man
97
False
What did these teacher-dealers often conduct?
5728b5c04b864d1900164c95
mandolin orchestras
151
False
How many people were usually in these teacher-dealer orchestras?
5728b5c04b864d1900164c96
4-50 musicians
182
False
Who played the mandolin in Vaudeville?
5728b5c04b864d1900164c97
Samuel Siegel
529
False
Who was the famous African American musican and director?
5728b5c04b864d1900164c98
composer James Reese Europe.
871
False
The Music Man
97
What popular musical casted a student-dealer?
5ad231f3d7d075001a428744
True
mandolin orchestras
151
What did these student-dealers often conduct?
5ad231f3d7d075001a428745
True
4-50
182
How many people were usually in these student-dealer orchestras?
5ad231f3d7d075001a428746
True
Samuel Siegel
529
Who refused to play the mandolin in Vaudeville?
5ad231f3d7d075001a428747
True
James Reese Europe
880
Who was the famous North American musican and director?
5ad231f3d7d075001a428748
True
Instruments were marketed by teacher-dealers, much as the title character in the popular musical The Music Man. Often, these teacher-dealers conducted mandolin orchestras: groups of 4-50 musicians who played various mandolin family instruments. However, alongside the teacher-dealers were serious musicians, working to create a spot for the instrument in classical music, ragtime and jazz. Like the teacher-dealers, they traveled the U.S., recording records, giving performances and teaching individuals and mandolin orchestras. Samuel Siegel played mandolin in Vaudeville and became one of America's preeminent mandolinists. Seth Weeks was an African American who not only taught and performed in the United States, but also in Europe, where he recorded records. Another pioneering African American musician and director who made his start with a mandolin orchestra was composer James Reese Europe. W. Eugene Page toured the country with a group, and was well known for his mandolin and mandola performances. Other names include Valentine Abt, Samuel Adelstein, William Place, Jr., and Aubrey Stauffer.
The setting the mandolin was used in until the 1930's was?
5728b6383acd2414000dfd2f
ensemble setting
40
False
Where did the mandolins find a new home?
5728b6383acd2414000dfd30
bluegrass
213
False
What mandolin was designed to boost interest in the mandolin?
5728b6383acd2414000dfd31
Lloyd Loar Master Model from Gibson
235
False
What mandolin became the face of bluegrass music?
5728b6383acd2414000dfd32
Loar
380
False
What instrument did artist Bill Monroe use?
5728b6383acd2414000dfd33
F-5 S/N 73987
463
False
ensemble setting
40
The setting the mandolin was used in until the 1940's was?
5ad23238d7d075001a428758
True
bluegrass
213
Where did the mandolins never find a new job?
5ad23238d7d075001a428759
True
Lloyd Loar Master Model from Gibson
235
What mandolin wasn't designed to boost interest in the mandolin?
5ad23238d7d075001a42875a
True
Loar
241
What mandolin didn't become the face of bluegrass music?
5ad23238d7d075001a42875b
True
F-5 S/N 73987
463
What instrument didn't artist Bill Monroe use?
5ad23238d7d075001a42875c
True
The instrument was primarily used in an ensemble setting well into the 1930s, and although the fad died out at the beginning of the 1930s, the instruments that were developed for the orchestra found a new home in bluegrass. The famous Lloyd Loar Master Model from Gibson (1923) was designed to boost the flagging interest in mandolin ensembles, with little success. However, The "Loar" became the defining instrument of bluegrass music when Bill Monroe purchased F-5 S/N 73987 in a Florida barbershop in 1943 and popularized it as his main instrument.
What groups have become popular amonbgpublic schools?
5728b6ce2ca10214002da63e
mandolin-based guitar programs
461
False
What are two of the popular public school groups?
5728b6ce2ca10214002da63f
Fretworks Mandolin and Guitar Orchestra
537
False
Who found the Classical Mandolin Society of America?
5728b6ce2ca10214002da640
Norman Levine
678
False
Who are modern mandolinists and composers?
5728b6ce2ca10214002da641
Samuel Firstman, Howard Fry, Rudy Cipolla
816
False
mandolin-based guitar programs
461
What groups have become unpopular among public schools?
5ad233cdd7d075001a4287bc
True
Fretworks Mandolin and Guitar Orchestra
537
What are two of the unpopular public school groups?
5ad233cdd7d075001a4287bd
True
Norman Levine
678
Who found the non-Classical Mandolin Society of America?
5ad233cdd7d075001a4287be
True
Samuel Firstman
816
Who aren't modern mandolinists and composers?
5ad233cdd7d075001a4287bf
True
The mandolin orchestras never completely went away, however. In fact, along with all the other musical forms the mandolin is involved with, the mandolin ensemble (groups usually arranged like the string section of a modern symphony orchestra, with first mandolins, second mandolins, mandolas, mandocellos, mando-basses, and guitars, and sometimes supplemented by other instruments) continues to grow in popularity. Since the mid-nineties, several public-school mandolin-based guitar programs have blossomed around the country, including Fretworks Mandolin and Guitar Orchestra, the first of its kind. The national organization, Classical Mandolin Society of America, founded by Norman Levine, represents these groups. Prominent modern mandolinists and composers for mandolin in the classical music tradition include Samuel Firstman, Howard Fry, Rudy Cipolla, Dave Apollon, Neil Gladd, Evan Marshall, Marilynn Mair and Mark Davis (the Mair-Davis Duo), Brian Israel, David Evans, Emanuil Shynkman, Radim Zenkl, David Del Tredici and Ernst Krenek.
What family recorded an old-time music in 1924-1926?
5728b741ff5b5019007da546
Cowan Powers and his family
5
False
Who was the earliest known southern music artist?
5728b741ff5b5019007da547
Orpha Powers
92
False
What type of mandolin was becoming popular by 1930's?
5728b741ff5b5019007da548
single mandolins
201
False
Who was considered the father of Bluegrass music?
5728b741ff5b5019007da549
Bill Monroe
545
False
What was Bill Monroe's group called?
5728b741ff5b5019007da54a
Blue Grass Boys
697
False
1924-1926
68
What family recorded an new-time music in 1924-1926?
5ad235c9d7d075001a4287ea
True
Orpha Powers
92
Who was the earliest known northern music artist?
5ad235c9d7d075001a4287eb
True
single mandolins
201
What type of mandolin was becoming popular by 1935's?
5ad235c9d7d075001a4287ec
True
Bill Monroe
633
Who was considered the mother of Bluegrass music?
5ad235c9d7d075001a4287ed
True
When Cowan Powers and his family recorded their old-time music from 1924-1926, his daughter Orpha Powers was one of the earliest known southern-music artists to record with the mandolin. By the 1930s, single mandolins were becoming more commonly used in southern string band music, most notably by brother duets such as the sedate Blue Sky Boys (Bill Bolick and Earl Bolick) and the more hard-driving Monroe Brothers (Bill Monroe and Charlie Monroe). However, the mandolin's modern popularity in country music can be directly traced to one man: Bill Monroe, the father of bluegrass music. After the Monroe Brothers broke up in 1939, Bill Monroe formed his own group, after a brief time called the Blue Grass Boys, and completed the transition of mandolin styles from a "parlor" sound typical of brother duets to the modern "bluegrass" style. He joined the Grand Ole Opry in 1939 and its powerful clear-channel broadcast signal on WSM-AM spread his style throughout the South, directly inspiring many musicians to take up the mandolin. Monroe famously played Gibson F-5 mandolin, signed and dated July 9, 1923, by Lloyd Loar, chief acoustic engineer at Gibson. The F-5 has since become the most imitated tonally and aesthetically by modern builders.
What chording sound was Monroe popular for?
5728b7b9ff5b5019007da550
the chop
126
False
What keys was Monroe popular for?
5728b7b9ff5b5019007da551
B and E
333
False
Who was Monroe's most influential follower?
5728b7b9ff5b5019007da552
Frank Wakefield
493
False
Who developed a electric five-string mandolin?
5728b7b9ff5b5019007da553
Moore of the Texas Playboys
614
False
What type of music did the electric five-string mandolin help popularize?
5728b7b9ff5b5019007da554
Western Swing music
725
False
the chop
126
What chording feeling was Monroe popular for?
5ad23605d7d075001a4287f2
True
B and E
333
What keys was Monroe unpopular for?
5ad23605d7d075001a4287f3
True
Frank Wakefield
493
Who was Monroe's least influential follower?
5ad23605d7d075001a4287f4
True
Moore of the Texas Playboys
614
Who developed a electric six-string mandolin?
5ad23605d7d075001a4287f5
True
Western Swing music
725
What type of music did the electric six-string mandolin help popularize?
5ad23605d7d075001a4287f6
True
Monroe's style involved playing lead melodies in the style of a fiddler, and also a percussive chording sound referred to as "the chop" for the sound made by the quickly struck and muted strings. He also perfected a sparse, percussive blues style, especially up the neck in keys that had not been used much in country music, notably B and E. He emphasized a powerful, syncopated right hand at the expense of left-hand virtuosity. Monroe's most influential follower of the second generation is Frank Wakefield and nowadays Mike Compton of the Nashville Bluegrass Band and David Long, who often tour as a duet. Tiny Moore of the Texas Playboys developed an electric five-string mandolin and helped popularize the instrument in Western Swing music.
Who was the major bluegrass mandolinist that became popular in 1950's?
5728b835ff5b5019007da562
Jesse McReynolds
95
False
What grop was Jesse McReynolds a part of?
5728b835ff5b5019007da563
Jim and Jesse
116
False
What technique did Jesse McReynolds create?
5728b835ff5b5019007da564
crosspicking
186
False
What is crosspicking?
5728b835ff5b5019007da565
syncopated banjo-roll-like style
146
False
Who won several award for his Monroe influenced music?
5728b835ff5b5019007da566
Ronnie McCoury
505
False
Jesse McReynolds
95
Who was the minor bluegrass mandolinist that became popular in 1950's?
5ad23668d7d075001a428806
True
Jim and Jesse
116
What job was Jesse McReynolds a part of?
5ad23668d7d075001a428807
True
crosspicking
186
What technique did Jesse McReynolds destroy?
5ad23668d7d075001a428808
True
syncopated banjo-roll-like style
146
What isn't crosspicking?
5ad23668d7d075001a428809
True
Ronnie McCoury
505
Who won no awards for his Monroe influenced music?
5ad23668d7d075001a42880a
True
Other major bluegrass mandolinists who emerged in the early 1950s and are still active include Jesse McReynolds (of Jim and Jesse) who invented a syncopated banjo-roll-like style called crosspicking—and Bobby Osborne of the Osborne Brothers, who is a master of clarity and sparkling single-note runs. Highly respected and influential modern bluegrass players include Herschel Sizemore, Doyle Lawson, and the multi-genre Sam Bush, who is equally at home with old-time fiddle tunes, rock, reggae, and jazz. Ronnie McCoury of the Del McCoury Band has won numerous awards for his Monroe-influenced playing. The late John Duffey of the original Country Gentlemen and later the Seldom Scene did much to popularize the bluegrass mandolin among folk and urban audiences, especially on the east coast and in the Washington, D.C. area.
What is Jethro Burns commonly known for?
5728b90e4b864d1900164cd4
half of the comedy duo Homer and Jethro
28
False
What type of music did Jethro Burns play?
5728b90e4b864d1900164cd5
jazz mandolinist
98
False
Who popularized the mandolin in Western Swing Music?
5728b90e4b864d1900164cd6
Tiny Moore
116
False
Who was well known for important works of traditional blugrass?
5728b90e4b864d1900164cd7
Chris Thile of California is
479
False
Who are othe rwell know players?
5728b90e4b864d1900164cd8
Marty Stuart, Vince Gill, and Ricky Skaggs
892
False
Homer and Jethro
51
What is Jethro Burns uncommonly known for?
5ad236b9d7d075001a428810
True
jazz mandolinist
98
What type of music did Jethro Burns not play?
5ad236b9d7d075001a428811
True
Tiny Moore
116
Who popularized the mandolin in Eastern Swing Music?
5ad236b9d7d075001a428812
True
Chris Thile of California
479
Who wasn't well known for important works of traditional bluegrass?
5ad236b9d7d075001a428813
True
Marty Stuart, Vince Gill, and Ricky Skaggs
892
Who are other unknow players?
5ad236b9d7d075001a428814
True
Jethro Burns, best known as half of the comedy duo Homer and Jethro, was also the first important jazz mandolinist. Tiny Moore popularized the mandolin in Western swing music. He initially played an 8-string Gibson but switched after 1952 to a 5-string solidbody electric instrument built by Paul Bigsby. Modern players David Grisman, Sam Bush, and Mike Marshall, among others, have worked since the early 1970s to demonstrate the mandolin's versatility for all styles of music. Chris Thile of California is a well-known player, and has accomplished many feats of traditional bluegrass, classical, contemporary pop and rock; the band Nickel Creek featured his playing in its blend of traditional and pop styles, and he now plays in his band Punch Brothers. Most commonly associated with bluegrass, mandolin has been used a lot in country music over the years. Some well-known players include Marty Stuart, Vince Gill, and Ricky Skaggs.
Who got his start with his father's mandolin?
5728b988ff5b5019007da576
Howard Armstrong,
198
False
Who is the most popular blue music mandolinist?
5728b988ff5b5019007da577
Ry Cooder
60
False
What other instrument did the Tennessee string bands use?
5728b988ff5b5019007da578
ukulele in there and a bass fiddle
506
False
Who played in the Whistler and His Jug Band?
5728b988ff5b5019007da579
Willie Black
599
False
Ry Cooder
60
Who is the most popular red music mandolinist?
5ad237b4d7d075001a428824
True
fiddles and guitars and banjos.
429
What other instrument did the Kentucky string bands use?
5ad237b4d7d075001a428825
True
Willie Black
599
Who played in the Singer and His Jug Band?
5ad237b4d7d075001a428826
True
Mandolin has also been used in blues music, most notably by Ry Cooder, who performed outstanding covers on his very first recordings, Yank Rachell, Johnny "Man" Young, Carl Martin, and Gerry Hundt. Howard Armstrong, who is famous for blues violin, got his start with his father's mandolin and played in string bands similar to the other Tennessee string bands he came into contact with, with band makeup including "mandolins and fiddles and guitars and banjos. And once in a while they would ease a little ukulele in there and a bass fiddle." Other blues players from the era's string bands include Willie Black (Whistler And His Jug Band), Dink Brister, Jim Hill, Charles Johnson, Coley Jones (Dallas String Band), Bobby Leecan (Need More Band), Alfred Martin, Charlie McCoy (1909-1950), Al Miller, Matthew Prater, and Herb Quinn.
When did the mandolin first appear in rock music?
5728ba044b864d1900164ce6
psychedelic era of the late 1960s
78
False
Who played the drums and the mandolin in the group called The Band?
5728ba044b864d1900164ce7
Levon Helm
113
False
What Rod Stewart song in 1971 featured the mandolin?
5728ba044b864d1900164ce8
Maggie May
413
False
What artist from the Greatful Dead played the mandolin?
5728ba044b864d1900164ce9
David Grisman
462
False
Tommy Shaw sang and played the mandolin in which Styx song?
5728ba044b864d1900164cea
Boat on the River
1012
False
psychedelic era of the late 1960s
78
When did the mandolin last appear in rock music?
5ad2385dd7d075001a428830
True
Levon Helm
113
Who played the drums and the guitar in the group called The Band?
5ad2385dd7d075001a428831
True
Maggie May
413
What Rod Stewart song in 1971 featured the mandolin?
5ad2385dd7d075001a428832
True
David Grisman
462
What artist from the Grateful Dead didn't play the mandolin?
5ad2385dd7d075001a428833
True
The mandolin has been used occasionally in rock music, first appearing in the psychedelic era of the late 1960s. Levon Helm of The Band occasionally moved from his drum kit to play mandolin, most notably on Rag Mama Rag, Rockin' Chair, and Evangeline. Ian Anderson of Jethro Tull played mandolin on Fat Man, from their second album, Stand Up, and also occasionally on later releases. Rod Stewart's 1971 No. 1 hit Maggie May features a significant mandolin riff. David Grisman played mandolin on two Grateful Dead songs on the American Beauty album, Friend of the Devil and Ripple, which became instant favorites among amateur pickers at jam sessions and campground gatherings. John Paul Jones and Jimmy Page both played mandolin on Led Zeppelin songs. The popular alt rock group Imagine Dragons feature the mandolin on a few of their songs, most prominently being It's Time. Dash Crofts of the soft rock duo Seals and Crofts extensively used mandolin in their repertoire during the 1970s. Styx released the song Boat on the River in 1980, which featured Tommy Shaw on vocals and mandolin. The song didn't chart in the United States but was popular in much of Europe and the Philippines.
What type of mandolin do rock musicians today use?
5728ba8eff5b5019007da588
single-stringed electric
47
False
Which Irish-American punk band uses Mandolins?
5728ba8eff5b5019007da589
Dropkick Murphys
191
False
What REM song uses simple mandolin licks?
5728ba8eff5b5019007da58a
Losing My Religion
500
False
What American rock band has extensive use of mandolins?
5728ba8eff5b5019007da58b
System of A Down
944
False
What film's theme song uses a mandolin?
5728ba8eff5b5019007da58c
Days of Thunder
1632
False
single-stringed electric models
47
What type of mandolin do rock musicians never today use?
5ad23b4bd7d075001a428868
True
Dropkick Murphys
191
Which Italian-American punk band uses Mandolins?
5ad23b4bd7d075001a428869
True
Losing My Religion
500
What REM song uses complex mandolin licks?
5ad23b4bd7d075001a42886a
True
Some rock musicians today use mandolins, often single-stringed electric models rather than double-stringed acoustic mandolins. One example is Tim Brennan of the Irish-American punk rock band Dropkick Murphys. In addition to electric guitar, bass, and drums, the band uses several instruments associated with traditional Celtic music, including mandolin, tin whistle, and Great Highland bagpipes. The band explains that these instruments accentuate the growling sound they favor. The 1991 R.E.M. hit "Losing My Religion" was driven by a few simple mandolin licks played by guitarist Peter Buck, who also played the mandolin in nearly a dozen other songs. The single peaked at No. 4 on the Billboard Hot 100 chart (#1 on the rock and alternative charts), Luther Dickinson of North Mississippi Allstars and The Black Crowes has made frequent use of the mandolin, most notably on the Black Crowes song "Locust Street." Armenian American rock group System of A Down makes extensive use of the mandolin on their 2005 double album Mezmerize/Hypnotize. Pop punk band Green Day has used a mandolin in several occasions, especially on their 2000 album, Warning. Boyd Tinsley, violin player of the Dave Matthews Band has been using an electric mandolin since 2005. Frontman Colin Meloy and guitarist Chris Funk of The Decemberists regularly employ the mandolin in the band's music. Nancy Wilson, rhythm guitarist of Heart, uses a mandolin in Heart's song "Dream of the Archer" from the album Little Queen, as well as in Heart's cover of Led Zeppelin's song "The Battle of Evermore." "Show Me Heaven" by Maria McKee, the theme song to the film Days of Thunder, prominently features a mandolin.
What place in Brazil do mandolins play an important role?
5728bb153acd2414000dfd55
Venezuela
72
False
What is the sound of mandolin associated with in the west country?
5728bb153acd2414000dfd56
regional genres of the Venezuelan Andes
511
False
Who are the famous Venezuelen mandolinist?
5728bb153acd2414000dfd57
Alberto Valderrama, Jesus Rengel, Ricardo Sandoval, Saul Vera, and Cristobal Soto.
932
False
Venezuela
72
What place in Brazil do mandolins play an unimportant role?
5ad23b8cd7d075001a42886e
True
regional genres of the Venezuelan Andes
511
What is the sound of mandolin not associated with in the west country?
5ad23b8cd7d075001a42886f
True
Alberto Valderrama, Jesus Rengel, Ricardo Sandoval, Saul Vera, and Cristobal Soto
932
Who are the not famous Venezuelen mandolinist?
5ad23b8cd7d075001a428870
True
As in Brazil, the mandolin has played an important role in the Music of Venezuela. It has enjoyed a privileged position as the main melodic instrument in several different regions of the country. Specifically, the eastern states of Sucre, Nueva Esparta, Anzoategui and Monagas have made the mandolin the main instrument in their versions of Joropo as well as Puntos, Jotas, Polos, Fulias, Merengues and Malagueñas. Also, in the west of the country the sound of the mandolin is intrinsically associated with the regional genres of the Venezuelan Andes: Bambucos, Pasillos, Pasodobles, and Waltzes. In the western city of Maracaibo the Mandolin has been played in Decimas, Danzas and Contradanzas Zulianas; in the capital, Caracas, the Merengue Rucaneao, Pasodobles and Waltzes have also been played with mandolin for almost a century. Today, Venezuelan mandolists include an important group of virtuoso players and ensembles such as Alberto Valderrama, Jesus Rengel, Ricardo Sandoval, Saul Vera, and Cristobal Soto.
What type of music has mandolins played?
5728bbc42ca10214002da6ac
mandolin orchestras have traditionally played many arrangements of music written for regular orchestras or other ensembles
36
False
Where do traditional mandolin orchestras remain popular?
5728bbc42ca10214002da6ad
Japan and Germany
295
False
What do the structure of a contempory traditional orchestra consist of?
5728bbc42ca10214002da6ae
first and second mandolins,
574
False
What are smalled ensambles composed of?
5728bbc42ca10214002da6af
two mandolins, mandola, and mandocello,
871
False
What are the mandocellos usually tuned like?
5728bbc42ca10214002da6b0
cello
742
False
mandolin orchestras have traditionally played many arrangements of music written for regular orchestras or other ensembles
36
What type of music has mandolins never played?
5ad23c18d7d075001a428874
True
Japan and Germany
295
Where do traditional mandolin orchestras remain unpopular?
5ad23c18d7d075001a428875
True
first and second mandolins
574
What do the structure of a contemporary untraditional orchestra consist of?
5ad23c18d7d075001a428876
True
two mandolins, mandola, and mandocello
871
What are large ensambles composed of?
5ad23c18d7d075001a428877
True
To fill this gap in the literature, mandolin orchestras have traditionally played many arrangements of music written for regular orchestras or other ensembles. Some players have sought out contemporary composers to solicit new works. Traditional mandolin orchestras remain especially popular in Japan and Germany, but also exist throughout the United States, Europe and the rest of the world. They perform works composed for mandolin family instruments, or re-orchestrations of traditional pieces. The structure of a contemporary traditional mandolin orchestra consists of: first and second mandolins, mandolas (either octave mandolas, tuned an octave below the mandolin, or tenor mandolas, tuned like the viola), mandocellos (tuned like the cello), and bass instruments (conventional string bass or, rarely, mandobasses). Smaller ensembles, such as quartets composed of two mandolins, mandola, and mandocello, may also be found.
Insect
In what phylum are insects classified?
5728a0da2ca10214002da4e6
arthropod
128
False
How many parts comprise the body of an insect?
5728a0da2ca10214002da4e7
three-part
182
False
In addition to the head and abdomen, what is the other major section of an insect's body?
5728a0da2ca10214002da4e8
thorax
205
False
What type of exoskeleton do insects have?
5728a0da2ca10214002da4e9
chitinous
157
False
How many pairs of jointed legs do insects have?
5728a0da2ca10214002da4ea
three
226
False
What does insect mean in latin?
57290f1faf94a219006aa009
cut into sections
68
False
What is the Latin word for insect?
57290f1faf94a219006aa00a
insectum
20
False
Insects are a class of what?
57290f1faf94a219006aa00b
invertebrates
103
False
Insects have what kind of skeleton?
57290f1faf94a219006aa00c
chitinous exoskeleton
157
False
An insects 3-part body includes a throat, abdomen, and what?
57290f1faf94a219006aa00d
head
199
False
Insects (from Latin insectum, a calque of Greek ἔντομον [éntomon], "cut into sections") are a class of invertebrates within the arthropod phylum that have a chitinous exoskeleton, a three-part body (head, thorax and abdomen), three pairs of jointed legs, compound eyes and one pair of antennae. They are the most diverse group of animals on the planet, including more than a million described species and representing more than half of all known living organisms. The number of extant species is estimated at between six and ten million, and potentially represent over 90% of the differing animal life forms on Earth. Insects may be found in nearly all environments, although only a small number of species reside in the oceans, a habitat dominated by another arthropod group, crustaceans.
How does the lifecycle of most insects typically begin?
5728a39f3acd2414000dfbad
hatch from eggs
41
False
What is the primary constraint on the physical growth of an insect?
5728a39f3acd2414000dfbae
inelastic exoskeleton
94
False
What stage of development differentiates a 4-stage metamorphosis from a 3-stage metamorphosis, notably absent in the latter?
5728a39f3acd2414000dfbaf
pupal stage
401
False
What is the term given to denote the series of stages involved in the development of an adult insect?
5728a39f3acd2414000dfbb0
nymphal
452
False
What era is attributed to the findings of enormous fossilized dragonflies with extremely long wingspans?
5728a39f3acd2414000dfbb1
Paleozoic
587
False
Insects hatch from what?
57291034af94a219006aa013
eggs
52
False
Insects growth is constrained by what?
57291034af94a219006aa014
the inelastic exoskeleton
90
False
An insects developement involves a series of what?
57291034af94a219006aa015
molts
153
False
How many stages of metamorphosis does an insect go through?
57291034af94a219006aa016
4-stage
307
False
The most diverse insects coevolved with what?
57291034af94a219006aa017
flowering plants
733
False
The life cycles of insects vary but most hatch from eggs. Insect growth is constrained by the inelastic exoskeleton and development involves a series of molts. The immature stages can differ from the adults in structure, habit and habitat, and can include a passive pupal stage in those groups that undergo 4-stage metamorphosis (see holometabolism). Insects that undergo 3-stage metamorphosis lack a pupal stage and adults develop through a series of nymphal stages. The higher level relationship of the Hexapoda is unclear. Fossilized insects of enormous size have been found from the Paleozoic Era, including giant dragonflies with wingspans of 55 to 70 cm (22–28 in). The most diverse insect groups appear to have coevolved with flowering plants.
What is the term for the gait of an insect characterized by walking in alternating triangles?
5728a8b94b864d1900164baa
tripedal
167
False
What larval adaptation is common to underwater insects?
5728a8b94b864d1900164bab
gills
419
False
What species of insect has the capability to walk on the surface of water?
5728a8b94b864d1900164bac
water striders
518
False
What do crickets do in order to attract or repel a mate?
5728a8b94b864d1900164bad
stridulate
983
False
What variation of beetle in the Coleoptera order communicate by way of light?
5728a8b94b864d1900164bae
Lampyridae
1065
False
Insects move by walking, flying, and what else?
572911821d04691400779011
swimming
68
False
Which insects walk, fly, and swim?
572911821d04691400779012
Adult
0
False
Insects walk the ground in alternating what?
572911821d04691400779013
triangles
251
False
Insects walking in an alternating triangle is called a what?
572911821d04691400779014
tripedal gait
167
False
What can insects do with each other in a variety of ways?
572911821d04691400779015
communicate
811
False
Adult insects typically move about by walking, flying, or sometimes swimming (see below, Locomotion). As it allows for rapid yet stable movement, many insects adopt a tripedal gait in which they walk with their legs touching the ground in alternating triangles. Insects are the only invertebrates to have evolved flight. Many insects spend at least part of their lives under water, with larval adaptations that include gills, and some adult insects are aquatic and have adaptations for swimming. Some species, such as water striders, are capable of walking on the surface of water. Insects are mostly solitary, but some, such as certain bees, ants and termites, are social and live in large, well-organized colonies. Some insects, such as earwigs, show maternal care, guarding their eggs and young. Insects can communicate with each other in a variety of ways. Male moths can sense the pheromones of female moths over great distances. Other species communicate with sounds: crickets stridulate, or rub their wings together, to attract a mate and repel other males. Lampyridae in the beetle order Coleoptera communicate with light.
By what method do humans often try to control the spread of insects?
5728aa3d2ca10214002da572
insecticides
74
False
What portion of the biosphere would be devastated absent the complex pollination role of insects?
5728aa3d2ca10214002da573
terrestrial
516
False
What insect provides a tangible economic benefit via the production of silk?
5728aa3d2ca10214002da574
Silkworms
707
False
What insect is known to consume carrion?
5728aa3d2ca10214002da575
blow-flies
269
False
Humans consider most insects as what?
5729125daf94a219006aa027
pests
33
False
Humans can control insects using what?
5729125daf94a219006aa028
insecticides
74
False
Insects have the potential to damage what?
5729125daf94a219006aa029
crops
139
False
Insects can damage crops by feeing on sap, fruits, or what?
5729125daf94a219006aa02a
leaves
164
False
Silkworms are used by humans for producing what?
5729125daf94a219006aa02b
silk
785
False
Humans regard certain insects as pests, and attempt to control them using insecticides and a host of other techniques. Some insects damage crops by feeding on sap, leaves or fruits. A few parasitic species are pathogenic. Some insects perform complex ecological roles; blow-flies, for example, help consume carrion but also spread diseases. Insect pollinators are essential to the life-cycle of many flowering plant species on which most organisms, including humans, are at least partly dependent; without them, the terrestrial portion of the biosphere (including humans) would be devastated. Many other insects are considered ecologically beneficial as predators and a few provide direct economic benefit. Silkworms and bees have been used extensively by humans for the production of silk and honey, respectively. In some cultures, people eat the larvae or adults of certain insects.
What is the Latin term for insect?
5728ab90ff5b5019007da40a
insectum
44
False
Who introduced the Latin term for insect, borrowing from the Greek vernacular?
5728ab90ff5b5019007da40b
Pliny the Elder
300
False
How many sections does an insect's body appear to be divided?
5728ab90ff5b5019007da40c
three
284
False
Which Greek philosopher used the term entomos to describe insects, making reference to their notched bodies?
5728ab90ff5b5019007da40d
Aristotle
639
False
In what year is it typically reported that the word insect was first documented in English?
5728ab90ff5b5019007da40e
1601
583
False
Insect means to have a notched or divided what?
572913d3af94a219006aa041
body
89
False
Insects are cut into how many sections?
572913d3af94a219006aa042
three sections
284
False
Who gave this class of life the name "insect"?
572913d3af94a219006aa043
Aristotle
449
False
In what year did the word "insect" appear in a document?
572913d3af94a219006aa044
1601
583
False
Who introduced the Latin version of the word "insect"?
572913d3af94a219006aa045
Pliny the Elder
300
False
The word "insect" comes from the Latin word insectum, meaning "with a notched or divided body", or literally "cut into", from the neuter singular perfect passive participle of insectare, "to cut into, to cut up", from in- "into" and secare "to cut"; because insects appear "cut into" three sections. Pliny the Elder introduced the Latin designation as a loan-translation of the Greek word ἔντομος (éntomos) or "insect" (as in entomology), which was Aristotle's term for this class of life, also in reference to their "notched" bodies. "Insect" first appears documented in English in 1601 in Holland's translation of Pliny. Translations of Aristotle's term also form the usual word for "insect" in Welsh (trychfil, from trychu "to cut" and mil, "animal"), Serbo-Croatian (zareznik, from rezati, "to cut"), Russian (насекомое nasekomoje, from seč'/-sekat', "to cut"), etc.
From what period do researchers believe that the oldest known full-body impression of a flying insect originates?
5728b8b93acd2414000dfd4b
Carboniferous
283
False
What is believed to be the oldest known insect fossil?
5728b8b93acd2414000dfd4c
Devonian Rhyniognatha hirsti
348
False
In what year did Tufts researchers reportedly uncover what is believed to be the oldest known impression of a flying insect?
5728b8b93acd2414000dfd4d
2008
97
False
What is the term for a mandible with two articulations?
5728b8b93acd2414000dfd4e
dicondylic
521
False
With what type of insect is a dicondylic mandible associated?
5728b8b93acd2414000dfd4f
winged
605
False
What higher-level is constantly up for debate and research?
572921ae6aef051400154a80
phylogeny
17
False
The higher-level phylogeny is of the what?
572921ae6aef051400154a81
arthropods
34
False
What kind of impression has been uncovered by a University?
572921ae6aef051400154a82
full-body
191
False
A University discovered a primitive flying what?
572921ae6aef051400154a83
insect
234
False
How old is the primitive plying insect found by the University?
572921ae6aef051400154a84
300 million-year-old
244
False
The higher-level phylogeny of the arthropods continues to be a matter of debate and research. In 2008, researchers at Tufts University uncovered what they believe is the world's oldest known full-body impression of a primitive flying insect, a 300 million-year-old specimen from the Carboniferous period. The oldest definitive insect fossil is the Devonian Rhyniognatha hirsti, from the 396-million-year-old Rhynie chert. It may have superficially resembled a modern-day silverfish insect. This species already possessed dicondylic mandibles (two articulations in the mandible), a feature associated with winged insects, suggesting that wings may already have evolved at this time. Thus, the first insects probably appeared earlier, in the Silurian period.
In addition to Carboniferous, what other insect order is inclusive of extant groups, stem groups and Paleozoic groups?
5728bc93ff5b5019007da5b6
Early Permian
23
False
To what measurement, in cm, did the wingspans of giant dragonfly-like forms reach?
5728bc93ff5b5019007da5b7
55 to 70
215
False
Higher levels of what substance possibly contributed to the phenomenon of gigantism?
5728bc93ff5b5019007da5b8
oxygen
344
False
How many million years ago is the Permian period believed to have begun?
5728bc93ff5b5019007da5b9
270
571
False
The most significant mass extinction of insect groups is commonly ascribed to what period?
5728bc93ff5b5019007da5ba
Permian-Triassic
645
False
Late Caboniferous and Early Permain are what kind of orders?
572923666aef051400154a92
insect orders
37
False
The insect orders include both of what?
572923666aef051400154a93
extant groups
64
False
The insect orders include a number of what kind of groups?
572923666aef051400154a94
Paleozoic groups
114
False
What kind of giant insect form had wingspans?
572923666aef051400154a95
dragonfly-like forms
173
False
How wide were the wingspans of the dragonfly-like forms?
572923666aef051400154a96
55 to 70 cm
215
False
Late Carboniferous and Early Permian insect orders include both extant groups, their stem groups, and a number of Paleozoic groups, now extinct. During this era, some giant dragonfly-like forms reached wingspans of 55 to 70 cm (22 to 28 in), making them far larger than any living insect. This gigantism may have been due to higher atmospheric oxygen levels that allowed increased respiratory efficiency relative to today. The lack of flying vertebrates could have been another factor. Most extinct orders of insects developed during the Permian period that began around 270 million years ago. Many of the early groups became extinct during the Permian-Triassic extinction event, the largest mass extinction in the history of the Earth, around 252 million years ago.
What type of defense did plants adaptively evolve in response to insects?
5728bea42ca10214002da6c8
chemical
117
False
What is the term for a plant-eating insect?
5728bea42ca10214002da6c9
herbivores
44
False
What do many insects adaptively utilize in self-defense from predators?
5728bea42ca10214002da6ca
plant toxins
216
False
How is toxicity sometimes visibly displayed by insects as a warning?
5728bea42ca10214002da6cb
colors
370
False
What is an example of a mutually beneficial process indicating the coevolution of plants and insects?
5728bea42ca10214002da6cc
pollination
572
False
Insects are considered terrestrial what?
5729247faf94a219006aa0e5
herbivores
44
False
What were insects the major selection agents of?
5729247faf94a219006aa0e6
plants
94
False
What did plants eventually form against insects?
5729247faf94a219006aa0e7
chemical defenses
117
False
Insects formed mechanisms to shield against what?
5729247faf94a219006aa0e8
plant toxins
216
False
Insects show how toxic they are with what kind of colors?
5729247faf94a219006aa0e9
warning colors
362
False
Insects were among the earliest terrestrial herbivores and acted as major selection agents on plants. Plants evolved chemical defenses against this herbivory and the insects, in turn, evolved mechanisms to deal with plant toxins. Many insects make use of these toxins to protect themselves from their predators. Such insects often advertise their toxicity using warning colors. This successful evolutionary pattern has also been used by mimics. Over time, this has led to complex groups of coevolved species. Conversely, some interactions between plants and insects, like pollination, are beneficial to both organisms. Coevolution has led to the development of very specific mutualisms in such systems.
What is the term for the class of insects with wings?
5728c5ae3acd2414000dfe03
Pterygota
143
False
What is the term for the class of insects without wings?
5728c5ae3acd2414000dfe04
Apterygota
102
False
What group of insects are inclusive within the Monocondylia primarily due to the shape of their mandible?
5728c5ae3acd2414000dfe05
Archaeognatha
242
False
What is the collective group to which Thysanura and Pterygota belong?
5728c5ae3acd2414000dfe06
Dicondylia
374
False
Insects are historically divided into how many groups?
572927373f37b3190047808b
two groups
28
False
Insects with wings are known as what?
572927373f37b3190047808c
Pterygota
143
False
Does an Apterygots have wings or wingless?
572927373f37b3190047808d
wingless
75
False
What is a Thysanura?
572927373f37b3190047808e
silverfish
218
False
Thysanura and Pterygota are what?
572927373f37b3190047808f
Dicondylia
374
False
Insects can be divided into two groups historically treated as subclasses: wingless insects, known as Apterygota, and winged insects, known as Pterygota. The Apterygota consist of the primitively wingless order of the silverfish (Thysanura). Archaeognatha make up the Monocondylia based on the shape of their mandibles, while Thysanura and Pterygota are grouped together as Dicondylia. The Thysanura themselves possibly are not monophyletic, with the family Lepidotrichidae being a sister group to the Dicondylia (Pterygota and the remaining Thysanura).
Morphology-based and appearance-based are known as what?
572925ca6aef051400154aae
systematics
49
False
What class is the Hexapoda ranked?
572925ca6aef051400154aaf
superclass
105
False
How many groups are defined in the superclass?
572925ca6aef051400154ab0
four groups
136
False
Springtails are also known as what?
572925ca6aef051400154ab1
Collembola
194
False
Collembola, protura, and dipkura are in a group called what?
572925ca6aef051400154ab2
Entognatha
276
False
Traditional morphology-based or appearance-based systematics have usually given the Hexapoda the rank of superclass,:180 and identified four groups within it: insects (Ectognatha), springtails (Collembola), Protura, and Diplura, the latter three being grouped together as the Entognatha on the basis of internalized mouth parts. Supraordinal relationships have undergone numerous changes with the advent of methods based on evolutionary history and genetic data. A recent theory is that the Hexapoda are polyphyletic (where the last common ancestor was not a member of the group), with the entognath classes having separate evolutionary histories from the Insecta. Many of the traditional appearance-based taxa have been shown to be paraphyletic, so rather than using ranks like subclass, superorder, and infraorder, it has proved better to use monophyletic groupings (in which the last common ancestor is a member of the group). The following represents the best-supported monophyletic groupings for the Insecta.
Paleoptera and Neoptera are what kind of insect orders?
57292e806aef051400154b4a
winged
32
False
An insects hard body parts are called what?
57292e806aef051400154b4b
sclerites
118
False
Insect's wings fold flat over their what?
57292e806aef051400154b4c
abdomen
205
False
Neoptera can be divided into what kind of "based" group?
57292e806aef051400154b4d
metamorphosis-based
327
False
Paraneopter and Endopterygota are closely what?
57292e806aef051400154b4e
related
575
False
Paleoptera and Neoptera are the winged orders of insects differentiated by the presence of hardened body parts called sclerites, and in the Neoptera, muscles that allow their wings to fold flatly over the abdomen. Neoptera can further be divided into incomplete metamorphosis-based (Polyneoptera and Paraneoptera) and complete metamorphosis-based groups. It has proved difficult to clarify the relationships between the orders in Polyneoptera because of constant new findings calling for revision of the taxa. For example, the Paraneoptera have turned out to be more closely related to the Endopterygota than to the rest of the Exopterygota. The recent molecular finding that the traditional louse orders Mallophaga and Anoplura are derived from within Psocoptera has led to the new taxon Psocodea. Phasmatodea and Embiidina have been suggested to form the Eukinolabia. Mantodea, Blattodea, and Isoptera are thought to form a monophyletic group termed Dictyoptera.
What are likely to be paraphyletic?
57292fb81d04691400779131
The Exopterygota
0
False
Strepsiptera and Diptera are controversial what?
57292fb81d04691400779132
Matters
73
False
Strepsiptera and Diptera grouped together are called what?
57292fb81d04691400779133
Halteria
165
False
A discussion regarding wing pairs is not supported by what community?
57292fb81d04691400779134
the entomological community
255
False
What is split or lumped together by a taxonomist?
57292fb81d04691400779135
The Neuropterida
284
False
The Exopterygota likely are paraphyletic in regard to the Endopterygota. Matters that have incurred controversy include Strepsiptera and Diptera grouped together as Halteria based on a reduction of one of the wing pairs – a position not well-supported in the entomological community. The Neuropterida are often lumped or split on the whims of the taxonomist. Fleas are now thought to be closely related to boreid mecopterans. Many questions remain in the basal relationships amongst endopterygote orders, particularly the Hymenoptera.
The true diversity within the insect species remains what?
572931841d04691400779145
uncertain
55
False
How many insect species are estimated to exist?
572931841d04691400779146
2.6–7.8 million species
87
False
How many new species of all organisms are discovered each year?
572931841d04691400779147
20,000
240
False
Of all the species on earth, how much do insects make up?
572931841d04691400779148
less than 20%
164
False
For many years to come, most insect species will remain as what?
572931841d04691400779149
undescribed
335
False
Though the true dimensions of species diversity remain uncertain, estimates range from 2.6–7.8 million species with a mean of 5.5 million. This probably represents less than 20% of all species on Earth[citation needed], and with only about 20,000 new species of all organisms being described each year, most species likely will remain undescribed for many years unless species descriptions increase in rate. About 850,000–1,000,000 of all described species are insects. Of the 24 orders of insects, four dominate in terms of numbers of described species, with at least 3 million species included in Coleoptera, Diptera, Hymenoptera and Lepidoptera. A recent study estimated the number of beetles at 0.9–2.1 million with a mean of 1.5 million.
What kind of bodies to insects have?
572932821d0469140077914f
segmented bodies
13
False
Insects bodies are supported by what?
572932821d04691400779150
exoskeletons
43
False
Chitin is what kind of outer covering on an insect?
572932821d04691400779151
hard
61
False
An insect's body is divided into what kind of units?
572932821d04691400779152
interconnected
170
False
What is an insects head, throat, and abdomen called?
572932821d04691400779153
tagmata
195
False
Insects have segmented bodies supported by exoskeletons, the hard outer covering made mostly of chitin. The segments of the body are organized into three distinctive but interconnected units, or tagmata: a head, a thorax and an abdomen. The head supports a pair of sensory antennae, a pair of compound eyes, and, if present, one to three simple eyes (or ocelli) and three sets of variously modified appendages that form the mouthparts. The thorax has six segmented legs—one pair each for the prothorax, mesothorax and the metathorax segments making up the thorax—and, none, two or four wings. The abdomen consists of eleven segments, though in a few species of insects, these segments may be fused together or reduced in size. The abdomen also contains most of the digestive, respiratory, excretory and reproductive internal structures.:22–48 Considerable variation and many adaptations in the body parts of insects occur, especially wings, legs, antenna and mouthparts.
What part of the insect contains most of the sensing organs?
572933aa3f37b319004780f7
head
4
False
What is another word for head capsule?
572933aa3f37b319004780f8
epicranium
95
False
What displays the most features on an insect?
572933aa3f37b319004780f9
Orthoptera
237
False
What is the vertex also known as?
572933aa3f37b319004780fa
apex
361
False
The vertex is usually located between what kind of eyes?
572933aa3f37b319004780fb
compound
407
False
The head is enclosed in a hard, heavily sclerotized, unsegmented, exoskeletal head capsule, or epicranium, which contains most of the sensing organs, including the antennae, ocellus or eyes, and the mouthparts. Of all the insect orders, Orthoptera displays the most features found in other insects, including the sutures and sclerites. Here, the vertex, or the apex (dorsal region), is situated between the compound eyes for insects with a hypognathous and opisthognathous head. In prognathous insects, the vertex is not found between the compound eyes, but rather, where the ocelli are normally. This is because the primary axis of the head is rotated 90° to become parallel to the primary axis of the body. In some species, this region is modified and assumes a different name.:13
The throax has how many sections?
572938fe3f37b3190047811f
three sections
34
False
Another term for tagma is?
572938fe3f37b31900478120
thorax
4
False
The anterior section is closest to the what?
572938fe3f37b31900478121
head
133
False
The prothrorax is what segment of the insect?
572938fe3f37b31900478122
anterior
100
False
The pleura is made of how many lateral regions?
572938fe3f37b31900478123
two
678
False
The thorax is a tagma composed of three sections, the prothorax, mesothorax and the metathorax. The anterior segment, closest to the head, is the prothorax, with the major features being the first pair of legs and the pronotum. The middle segment is the mesothorax, with the major features being the second pair of legs and the anterior wings. The third and most posterior segment, abutting the abdomen, is the metathorax, which features the third pair of legs and the posterior wings. Each segment is dilineated by an intersegmental suture. Each segment has four basic regions. The dorsal surface is called the tergum (or notum) to distinguish it from the abdominal terga. The two lateral regions are called the pleura (singular: pleuron) and the ventral aspect is called the sternum. In turn, the notum of the prothorax is called the pronotum, the notum for the mesothorax is called the mesonotum and the notum for the metathorax is called the metanotum. Continuing with this logic, the mesopleura and metapleura, as well as the mesosternum and metasternum, are used.
What is the largest tagma of an insect?
572939f06aef051400154b94
abdomen
4
False
How many segments make up an insects abdomen?
572939f06aef051400154b95
11–12 segments
76
False
The abdomen is less strong than the thorax and what?
572939f06aef051400154b96
head
133
False
An insects abdomen has a sclerotized tergum and what else?
572939f06aef051400154b97
sternum
220
False
The pleural area holds what?
572939f06aef051400154b98
Spiracles
318
False
The abdomen is the largest tagma of the insect, which typically consists of 11–12 segments and is less strongly sclerotized than the head or thorax. Each segment of the abdomen is represented by a sclerotized tergum and sternum. Terga are separated from each other and from the adjacent sterna or pleura by membranes. Spiracles are located in the pleural area. Variation of this ground plan includes the fusion of terga or terga and sterna to form continuous dorsal or ventral shields or a conical tube. Some insects bear a sclerite in the pleural area called a laterotergite. Ventral sclerites are sometimes called laterosternites. During the embryonic stage of many insects and the postembryonic stage of primitive insects, 11 abdominal segments are present. In modern insects there is a tendency toward reduction in the number of the abdominal segments, but the primitive number of 11 is maintained during embryogenesis. Variation in abdominal segment number is considerable. If the Apterygota are considered to be indicative of the ground plan for pterygotes, confusion reigns: adult Protura have 12 segments, Collembola have 6. The orthopteran family Acrididae has 11 segments, and a fossil specimen of Zoraptera has a 10-segmented abdomen.
Insect's outer skeleton is known as what?
57293aba3f37b31900478129
the cuticle
27
False
The cuticle has how many layers?
57293aba3f37b3190047812a
two
54
False
Which cuticle later is like wax?
57293aba3f37b3190047812b
the epicuticle
66
False
The epicuticle does not consist of what?
57293aba3f37b3190047812c
chitin
151
False
Is the procuticle thinner or thicker than the epicuticle?
57293aba3f37b3190047812d
thicker
237
False
The insect outer skeleton, the cuticle, is made up of two layers: the epicuticle, which is a thin and waxy water resistant outer layer and contains no chitin, and a lower layer called the procuticle. The procuticle is chitinous and much thicker than the epicuticle and has two layers: an outer layer known as the exocuticle and an inner layer known as the endocuticle. The tough and flexible endocuticle is built from numerous layers of fibrous chitin and proteins, criss-crossing each other in a sandwich pattern, while the exocuticle is rigid and hardened.:22–24 The exocuticle is greatly reduced in many soft-bodied insects (e.g., caterpillars), especially during their larval stages.
Insects are also known as what kind of vertebra?
57293c016aef051400154bae
invertebrates
21
False
Insects have developed what kind of active capability?
57293c016aef051400154baf
flight
60
False
Active flight ability has played what kind of role for insects?
57293c016aef051400154bb0
important
102
False
How many times are insects muscles able to contract?
57293c016aef051400154bb1
multiple
174
False
Insects muscles are attached to their what?
57293c016aef051400154bb2
exoskeletons
328
False
Insects are the only invertebrates to have developed active flight capability, and this has played an important role in their success.:186 Their muscles are able to contract multiple times for each single nerve impulse, allowing the wings to beat faster than would ordinarily be possible. Having their muscles attached to their exoskeletons is more efficient and allows more muscle connections; crustaceans also use the same method, though all spiders use hydraulic pressure to extend their legs, a system inherited from their pre-arthropod ancestors. Unlike insects, though, most aquatic crustaceans are biomineralized with calcium carbonate extracted from the water.
What is on each side of a thoracic segment?
57293d721d046914007791c1
ganglion
31
False
How many ganglia are on each side of a thoracic segment?
57293d721d046914007791c2
one
27
False
Ganglia are connected into a what?
57293d721d046914007791c3
a pair
79
False
How many pairs of ganglia are in a segment?
57293d721d046914007791c4
one pair
87
False
What other location on an insect are ganglia located?
57293d721d046914007791c5
abdomen
146
False
The thoracic segments have one ganglion on each side, which are connected into a pair, one pair per segment. This arrangement is also seen in the abdomen but only in the first eight segments. Many species of insects have reduced numbers of ganglia due to fusion or reduction. Some cockroaches have just six ganglia in the abdomen, whereas the wasp Vespa crabro has only two in the thorax and three in the abdomen. Some insects, like the house fly Musca domestica, have all the body ganglia fused into a single large thoracic ganglion.
How many insects have nociceptors?
57293e7c1d046914007791df
a few
9
False
Cells that detect and transmit pain are called what?
57293e7c1d046914007791e0
nociceptors
28
False
When were nociceptors discovered?
57293e7c1d046914007791e1
2003
115
False
Nociceptors were discovered by studying the common what?
57293e7c1d046914007791e2
fruitfly Drosophila
183
False
Which probe did the larvae react to?
57293e7c1d046914007791e3
the heated probe
290
False
At least a few insects have nociceptors, cells that detect and transmit sensations of pain. This was discovered in 2003 by studying the variation in reactions of larvae of the common fruitfly Drosophila to the touch of a heated probe and an unheated one. The larvae reacted to the touch of the heated probe with a stereotypical rolling behavior that was not exhibited when the larvae were touched by the unheated probe. Although nociception has been demonstrated in insects, there is no consensus that insects feel pain consciously
What produces saliva in an insects mouth?
572952a31d0469140077929f
salivary glands
4
False
What leads from the salivary glands to the reservoirs?
572952a31d046914007792a0
salivary ducts
94
False
What is an opening through the head called?
572952a31d046914007792a1
salivarium
207
False
Where is the salivarium located?
572952a31d046914007792a2
behind the hypopharynx
227
False
Where does an insect's digestion happen?
572952a31d046914007792a3
The gut
731
False
The salivary glands (element 30 in numbered diagram) in an insect's mouth produce saliva. The salivary ducts lead from the glands to the reservoirs and then forward through the head to an opening called the salivarium, located behind the hypopharynx. By moving its mouthparts (element 32 in numbered diagram) the insect can mix its food with saliva. The mixture of saliva and food then travels through the salivary tubes into the mouth, where it begins to break down. Some insects, like flies, have extra-oral digestion. Insects using extra-oral digestion expel digestive enzymes onto their food to break it down. This strategy allows insects to extract a significant proportion of the available nutrients from the food source.:31 The gut is where almost all of insects' digestion takes place. It can be divided into the foregut, midgut and hindgut.
What is another name for mesenteron?
572953b6af94a219006aa2ab
midgut
44
False
Food goes in to the midgut after leaving where?
572953b6af94a219006aa2ac
the crop
17
False
The majority of an insects digestion happens where?
572953b6af94a219006aa2ad
the mesenteron
99
False
What kind of projections are in the midgut wall?
572953b6af94a219006aa2ae
Microscopic
160
False
What are microscopic projections called?
572953b6af94a219006aa2af
microvilli
213
False
Once food leaves the crop, it passes to the midgut (element 13 in numbered diagram), also known as the mesenteron, where the majority of digestion takes place. Microscopic projections from the midgut wall, called microvilli, increase the surface area of the wall and allow more nutrients to be absorbed; they tend to be close to the origin of the midgut. In some insects, the role of the microvilli and where they are located may vary. For example, specialized microvilli producing digestive enzymes may more likely be near the end of the midgut, and absorption near the origin or beginning of the midgut.:32
What is a proctodaeum?
57295470af94a219006aa2bd
the hindgut
3
False
What kind of food particles have uric acid?
57295470af94a219006aa2be
undigested
65
False
What kind of acid forms fecal pellets?
57295470af94a219006aa2bf
uric acid
105
False
An insects rectum absorbs how much water?
57295470af94a219006aa2c0
90%
157
False
Where is an insects dry pellet discarded through?
57295470af94a219006aa2c1
the anus
244
False
In the hindgut (element 16 in numbered diagram), or proctodaeum, undigested food particles are joined by uric acid to form fecal pellets. The rectum absorbs 90% of the water in these fecal pellets, and the dry pellet is then eliminated through the anus (element 17), completing the process of digestion. The uric acid is formed using hemolymph waste products diffused from the Malpighian tubules (element 20). It is then emptied directly into the alimentary canal, at the junction between the midgut and hindgut. The number of Malpighian tubules possessed by a given insect varies between species, ranging from only two tubules in some insects to over 100 tubules in others.:71–72, 78–80
Female insects reproductive system contain a pair of what?
572955523f37b31900478271
ovaries
63
False
What kind of glands are in a female insect's reproductive system?
572955523f37b31900478272
accessory glands
72
False
What connects the parts inside a female insect's reproductive system?
572955523f37b31900478273
ducts
120
False
Where are egg tubes are found inside of an insect?
572955523f37b31900478274
ovaries
154
False
What are egg tubes called?
572955523f37b31900478275
ovarioles
207
False
The reproductive system of female insects consist of a pair of ovaries, accessory glands, one or more spermathecae, and ducts connecting these parts. The ovaries are made up of a number of egg tubes, called ovarioles, which vary in size and number by species. The number of eggs that the insect is able to make vary by the number of ovarioles with the rate that eggs can be develop being also influenced by ovariole design. Female insects are able make eggs, receive and store sperm, manipulate sperm from different males, and lay eggs. Accessory glands or glandular parts of the oviducts produce a variety of substances for sperm maintenance, transport and fertilization, as well as for protection of eggs. They can produce glue and protective substances for coating eggs or tough coverings for a batch of eggs called oothecae. Spermathecae are tubes or sacs in which sperm can be stored between the time of mating and the time an egg is fertilized.:880
What is the male reproductive system called?
5729561eaf94a219006aa2d3
testis
42
False
Where is tracheae located?
5729561eaf94a219006aa2d4
the body cavity
63
False
Most make insects contain a pair of what?
5729561eaf94a219006aa2d5
testes
142
False
What are inside male testes?
5729561eaf94a219006aa2d6
sperm tubes
170
False
Follicles inside a male insect's reproductive system connect to what?
5729561eaf94a219006aa2d7
the vas deferens
263
False
For males, the reproductive system is the testis, suspended in the body cavity by tracheae and the fat body. Most male insects have a pair of testes, inside of which are sperm tubes or follicles that are enclosed within a membranous sac. The follicles connect to the vas deferens by the vas efferens, and the two tubular vasa deferentia connect to a median ejaculatory duct that leads to the outside. A portion of the vas deferens is often enlarged to form the seminal vesicle, which stores the sperm before they are discharged into the female. The seminal vesicles have glandular linings that secrete nutrients for nourishment and maintenance of the sperm. The ejaculatory duct is derived from an invagination of the epidermal cells during development and, as a result, has a cuticular lining. The terminal portion of the ejaculatory duct may be sclerotized to form the intromittent organ, the aedeagus. The remainder of the male reproductive system is derived from embryonic mesoderm, except for the germ cells, or spermatogonia, which descend from the primordial pole cells very early during embryogenesis.:885
Respiration for insects happens without what?
57295792af94a219006aa2dd
lungs
43
False
Insect's respiratory system contains sacs, and what else?
57295792af94a219006aa2de
internal tubes
106
False
What gets diffused or actively pumped through an insect's respiratory system?
57295792af94a219006aa2df
gases
144
False
What gets delivered to tissues in an insect's respiratory system?
57295792af94a219006aa2e0
oxygen
200
False
Which system inside an insect's respiratory system does not carry oxygen?
57295792af94a219006aa2e1
circulatory system
331
False
Insect respiration is accomplished without lungs. Instead, the insect respiratory system uses a system of internal tubes and sacs through which gases either diffuse or are actively pumped, delivering oxygen directly to tissues that need it via their trachea (element 8 in numbered diagram). Since oxygen is delivered directly, the circulatory system is not used to carry oxygen, and is therefore greatly reduced. The insect circulatory system has no veins or arteries, and instead consists of little more than a single, perforated dorsal tube which pulses peristaltically. Toward the thorax, the dorsal tube (element 14) divides into chambers and acts like the insect's heart. The opposite end of the dorsal tube is like the aorta of the insect circulating the hemolymph, arthropods' fluid analog of blood, inside the body cavity.:61–65 Air is taken in through openings on the sides of the abdomen called spiracles.
What kind of exchange is demonstrated by different insects?
572959251d046914007792ed
gas exchange
37
False
Gas exchange patterns can contain what kind of ventilation?
572959251d046914007792ee
diffusive ventilation
158
False
Carbon dioxide is released continuously in what kind of gas exchange?
572959251d046914007792ef
continuous gas exchange
225
False
What gas exchanges does carbon dioxide release when the insect is resting?
572959251d046914007792f0
discontinuous gas exchange
326
False
Diffusive ventilation occurs by what?
572959251d046914007792f1
diffusion
567
False
There are many different patterns of gas exchange demonstrated by different groups of insects. Gas exchange patterns in insects can range from continuous and diffusive ventilation, to discontinuous gas exchange.:65–68 During continuous gas exchange, oxygen is taken in and carbon dioxide is released in a continuous cycle. In discontinuous gas exchange, however, the insect takes in oxygen while it is active and small amounts of carbon dioxide are released when the insect is at rest. Diffusive ventilation is simply a form of continuous gas exchange that occurs by diffusion rather than physically taking in the oxygen. Some species of insect that are submerged also have adaptations to aid in respiration. As larvae, many insects have gills that can extract oxygen dissolved in water, while others need to rise to the water surface to replenish air supplies which may be held or trapped in special structures.
Where are insects hatched from?
57295a501d046914007792f7
eggs.
35
False
Fertilization happens where?
57295a501d046914007792f8
inside the egg
87
False
Fertilization and what else happens inside the egg?
57295a501d046914007792f9
development
63
False
Chorion is another word for what?
57295a501d046914007792fa
shell
117
False
Broods is another term for what word?
57295a501d046914007792fb
generations
1249
False
The majority of insects hatch from eggs. The fertilization and development takes place inside the egg, enclosed by a shell (chorion) that consists of maternal tissue. In contrast to eggs of other arthropods, most insect eggs are drought resistant. This is because inside the chorion two additional membranes develop from embryonic tissue, the amnion and the serosa. This serosa secretes a cuticle rich in chitin that protects the embryo against desiccation. In Schizophora however the serosa does not develop, but these flies lay their eggs in damp places, such as rotting matter. Some species of insects, like the cockroach Blaptica dubia, as well as juvenile aphids and tsetse flies, are ovoviviparous. The eggs of ovoviviparous animals develop entirely inside the female, and then hatch immediately upon being laid. Some other species, such as those in the genus of cockroaches known as Diploptera, are viviparous, and thus gestate inside the mother and are born alive.:129, 131, 134–135 Some insects, like parasitic wasps, show polyembryony, where a single fertilized egg divides into many and in some cases thousands of separate embryos.:136–137 Insects may be univoltine, bivoltine or multivoltine, i.e. they may have one, two or many broods (generations) in a year.
Polymophism is a developmental and reproductive what?
57295baf6aef051400154d5e
variations
37
False
Haplodiploidy is what type of system?
57295baf6aef051400154d5f
sex-determination system
227
False
The number of chromosome sets determines the offspring's what?
57295baf6aef051400154d60
sex
269
False
The sex-determination system is found in which insects?
57295baf6aef051400154d61
bees and wasps
374
False
Polymophism species have different forms or what else?
57295baf6aef051400154d62
morphs
441
False
Other developmental and reproductive variations include haplodiploidy, polymorphism, paedomorphosis or peramorphosis, sexual dimorphism, parthenogenesis and more rarely hermaphroditism.:143 In haplodiploidy, which is a type of sex-determination system, the offspring's sex is determined by the number of sets of chromosomes an individual receives. This system is typical in bees and wasps. Polymorphism is where a species may have different morphs or forms, as in the oblong winged katydid, which has four different varieties: green, pink and yellow or tan. Some insects may retain phenotypes that are normally only seen in juveniles; this is called paedomorphosis. In peramorphosis, an opposite sort of phenomenon, insects take on previously unseen traits after they have matured into adults. Many insects display sexual dimorphism, in which males and females have notably different appearances, such as the moth Orgyia recens as an exemplar of sexual dimorphism in insects.
How many insects use parthenogenesis?
57295d3e1d04691400779329
Some
0
False
GIving birth without fertilized eggs is called what?
57295d3e1d0469140077932a
parthenogenesis
17
False
What usually partakes in a form of parthenogenesis?
57295d3e1d0469140077932b
aphids
144
False
Aphis have asexual and sexual what?
57295d3e1d0469140077932c
reproduction
297
False
Aphis are usually female and what else during the summer?
57295d3e1d0469140077932d
parthenogenetic
354
False
Some insects use parthenogenesis, a process in which the female can reproduce and give birth without having the eggs fertilized by a male. Many aphids undergo a form of parthenogenesis, called cyclical parthenogenesis, in which they alternate between one or many generations of asexual and sexual reproduction. In summer, aphids are generally female and parthenogenetic; in the autumn, males may be produced for sexual reproduction. Other insects produced by parthenogenesis are bees, wasps and ants, in which they spawn males. However, overall, most individuals are female, which are produced by fertilization. The males are haploid and the females are diploid. More rarely, some insects display hermaphroditism, in which a given individual has both male and female reproductive organs.
Incomplete metamorphosis insects are called?
57295e7c6aef051400154d8c
Hemimetabolous
0
False
What kind of metamorphosis do hemimetabolous insects undergo?
57295e7c6aef051400154d8d
incomplete
35
False
Do hemimetabolous insects change quickly or gradually?
57295e7c6aef051400154d8e
gradually
68
False
Hemimetabolous insects gradually change by a series of what?
57295e7c6aef051400154d8f
molts
104
False
Insect's molt when they outgrow what?
57295e7c6aef051400154d90
exoskeleton
148
False
Hemimetabolous insects, those with incomplete metamorphosis, change gradually by undergoing a series of molts. An insect molts when it outgrows its exoskeleton, which does not stretch and would otherwise restrict the insect's growth. The molting process begins as the insect's epidermis secretes a new epicuticle inside the old one. After this new epicuticle is secreted, the epidermis releases a mixture of enzymes that digests the endocuticle and thus detaches the old cuticle. When this stage is complete, the insect makes its body swell by taking in a large quantity of water or air, which makes the old cuticle split along predefined weaknesses where the old exocuticle was thinnest.:142
What is a complete metamorphosis called?
57295f293f37b319004782c5
Holometabolism
0
False
How many stages happen in complete metamorphosis?
57295f293f37b319004782c6
four stages
74
False
What is another word for egg?
57295f293f37b319004782c7
embryo
97
False
What is an imago?
57295f293f37b319004782c8
the adult
125
False
Name an example of an insect that undergoes complete metamorphosis?
57295f293f37b319004782c9
Butterflies
911
False
Holometabolism, or complete metamorphosis, is where the insect changes in four stages, an egg or embryo, a larva, a pupa and the adult or imago. In these species, an egg hatches to produce a larva, which is generally worm-like in form. This worm-like form can be one of several varieties: eruciform (caterpillar-like), scarabaeiform (grub-like), campodeiform (elongated, flattened and active), elateriform (wireworm-like) or vermiform (maggot-like). The larva grows and eventually becomes a pupa, a stage marked by reduced movement and often sealed within a cocoon. There are three types of pupae: obtect, exarate or coarctate. Obtect pupae are compact, with the legs and other appendages enclosed. Exarate pupae have their legs and other appendages free and extended. Coarctate pupae develop inside the larval skin.:151 Insects undergo considerable change in form during the pupal stage, and emerge as adults. Butterflies are a well-known example of insects that undergo complete metamorphosis, although most insects use this life cycle. Some insects have evolved this system to hypermetamorphosis.
Insects have specialized organs of what kind?
572984bc1d046914007794f7
perception
66
False
Insect organs are described as sensitive and what?
572984bc1d046914007794f8
specialized
44
False
What kind of insect can detect ultraviolet wavelengths?
572984bc1d046914007794f9
bees
99
False
Bees can detect what kind of light?
572984bc1d046914007794fa
polarized light
152
False
What is a Polistes versicolor?
572984bc1d046914007794fb
yellow paper wasp
283
False
Many insects possess very sensitive and, or specialized organs of perception. Some insects such as bees can perceive ultraviolet wavelengths, or detect polarized light, while the antennae of male moths can detect the pheromones of female moths over distances of many kilometers. The yellow paper wasp (Polistes versicolor) is known for its wagging movements as a form of communication within the colony; it can waggle with a frequency of 10.6±2.1 Hz (n=190). These wagging movements can signal the arrival of new material into the nest and aggression between workers can be used to stimulate others to increase foraging expeditions. There is a pronounced tendency for there to be a trade-off between visual acuity and chemical or tactile acuity, such that most insects with well-developed eyes have reduced or simple antennae, and vice versa. There are a variety of different mechanisms by which insects perceive sound, while the patterns are not universal, insects can generally hear sound if they can produce it. Different insect species can have varying hearing, though most insects can hear only a narrow range of frequencies related to the frequency of the sounds they can produce. Mosquitoes have been found to hear up to 2 kHz., and some grasshoppers can hear up to 50 kHz. Certain predatory and parasitic insects can detect the characteristic sounds made by their prey or hosts, respectively. For instance, some nocturnal moths can perceive the ultrasonic emissions of bats, which helps them avoid predation.:87–94 Insects that feed on blood have special sensory structures that can detect infrared emissions, and use them to home in on their hosts.
Insects have what kind of sense of numbers?
572985e83f37b31900478473
rudimentary
23
False
Which insect displays a rudimentary sense of numbers?
572985e83f37b31900478474
solitary wasps
65
False
What kind of species does a solitary wasp prey upon?
572985e83f37b31900478475
single
97
False
What does the mother wasp provide for her eggs when they hatch?
572985e83f37b31900478476
caterpillars
207
False
Is the male solitary wasp bigger or smaller than the female solitary wasp?
572985e83f37b31900478477
smaller
517
False
Some insects display a rudimentary sense of numbers, such as the solitary wasps that prey upon a single species. The mother wasp lays her eggs in individual cells and provides each egg with a number of live caterpillars on which the young feed when hatched. Some species of wasp always provide five, others twelve, and others as high as twenty-four caterpillars per cell. The number of caterpillars is different among species, but always the same for each sex of larva. The male solitary wasp in the genus Eumenes is smaller than the female, so the mother of one species supplies him with only five caterpillars; the larger female receives ten caterpillars in her cell.
What is another name for Colleobola?
5729873f3f37b3190047847d
Onychiuridae
61
False
Mycetophilldae is another name for what?
5729873f3f37b3190047847e
Diptera
104
False
Phengodidae is party of what insect family?
5729873f3f37b3190047847f
beetle
121
False
Elateridae and Staphylinidae are what kind of luminescent?
5729873f3f37b31900478480
bioluminescent
195
False
What kind of fly mimics the flashing of female Photinus to attract males?
5729873f3f37b31900478481
fireflies
602
False
A few insects, such as members of the families Poduridae and Onychiuridae (Collembola), Mycetophilidae (Diptera) and the beetle families Lampyridae, Phengodidae, Elateridae and Staphylinidae are bioluminescent. The most familiar group are the fireflies, beetles of the family Lampyridae. Some species are able to control this light generation to produce flashes. The function varies with some species using them to attract mates, while others use them to lure prey. Cave dwelling larvae of Arachnocampa (Mycetophilidae, Fungus gnats) glow to lure small flying insects into sticky strands of silk. Some fireflies of the genus Photuris mimic the flashing of female Photinus species to attract males of that species, which are then captured and devoured. The colors of emitted light vary from dull blue (Orfelia fultoni, Mycetophilidae) to the familiar greens and the rare reds (Phrixothrix tiemanni, Phengodidae).
Most insects are able to perceive darkness and what else?
572988cc6aef051400154fb6
light
73
False
What insect is not abel to perceive light and dark?
572988cc6aef051400154fb7
cave crickets
37
False
Most insects have what kind of vision?
572988cc6aef051400154fb8
acute
107
False
Insects notice what type of movement?
572988cc6aef051400154fb9
minute
141
False
Many insects are able to see visible light, ultraviolet, and what other kind of light?
572988cc6aef051400154fba
infrared
290
False
Most insects, except some species of cave crickets, are able to perceive light and dark. Many species have acute vision capable of detecting minute movements. The eyes may include simple eyes or ocelli as well as compound eyes of varying sizes. Many species are able to detect light in the infrared, ultraviolet and the visible light wavelengths. Color vision has been demonstrated in many species and phylogenetic analysis suggests that UV-green-blue trichromacy existed from at least the Devonian period between 416 and 359 million years ago.
What were the earliest organisms to produce sound?
57298a8baf94a219006aa4ed
Insects
0
False
Insects can sense what?
57298a8baf94a219006aa4ee
sounds
57
False
Insect sounds come from what kind of action?
57298a8baf94a219006aa4ef
mechanical
95
False
The mechanical action of what allows insects t make sound?
57298a8baf94a219006aa4f0
appendages
116
False
Moths create what kind of click sounds?
57298a8baf94a219006aa4f1
ultrasonic
640
False
Insects were the earliest organisms to produce and sense sounds. Insects make sounds mostly by mechanical action of appendages. In grasshoppers and crickets, this is achieved by stridulation. Cicadas make the loudest sounds among the insects by producing and amplifying sounds with special modifications to their body and musculature. The African cicada Brevisana brevis has been measured at 106.7 decibels at a distance of 50 cm (20 in). Some insects, such as the Helicoverpa zeamoths, hawk moths and Hedylid butterflies, can hear ultrasound and take evasive action when they sense that they have been detected by bats. Some moths produce ultrasonic clicks that were once thought to have a role in jamming bat echolocation. The ultrasonic clicks were subsequently found to be produced mostly by unpalatable moths to warn bats, just as warning colorations are used against predators that hunt by sight. Some otherwise palatable moths have evolved to mimic these calls. More recently, the claim that some moths can jam bat sonar has been revisited. Ultrasonic recording and high-speed infrared videography of bat-moth interactions suggest the palatable tiger moth really does defend against attacking big brown bats using ultrasonic clicks that jam bat sonar.
What sound volume is produced by Coleoptera?
57298be2af94a219006aa4f7
low
5
False
Low insect sounds are made by the insect's what?
57298be2af94a219006aa4f8
movement
179
False
Low insect sounds can be heard through what?
57298be2af94a219006aa4f9
microscopic stridulatory structures
197
False
Insect moving sounds are used to warn and do what with other insects?
57298be2af94a219006aa4fa
communicate
357
False
Corixids are able to communicate with what type of sounds?
57298be2af94a219006aa4fb
underwater
570
False
Very low sounds are also produced in various species of Coleoptera, Hymenoptera, Lepidoptera, Mantodea and Neuroptera. These low sounds are simply the sounds made by the insect's movement. Through microscopic stridulatory structures located on the insect's muscles and joints, the normal sounds of the insect moving are amplified and can be used to warn or communicate with other insects. Most sound-making insects also have tympanal organs that can perceive airborne sounds. Some species in Hemiptera, such as the corixids (water boatmen), are known to communicate via underwater sounds. Most insects are also able to sense vibrations transmitted through surfaces.
What are used by insects to communicate with members of the same species?
57298d496aef051400154fca
vibrations
17
False
Vibrations are used to communicate with members of the same species, and what other species?
57298d496aef051400154fcb
different species
218
False
Which insects has a song to attract males from the same species?
57298d496aef051400154fcc
Nezara viridula
141
False
What is a lycaenid caterpillar?
57298d496aef051400154fcd
gossamer-winged butterfly
247
False
Living in association with ants is called what?
57298d496aef051400154fce
myrmecophilous
297
False
Some species use vibrations for communicating within members of the same species, such as to attract mates as in the songs of the shield bug Nezara viridula. Vibrations can also be used to communicate between entirely different species; lycaenid (gossamer-winged butterfly) caterpillars which are myrmecophilous (living in a mutualistic association with ants) communicate with ants in this way. The Madagascar hissing cockroach has the ability to press air through its spiracles to make a hissing noise as a sign of aggression; the Death's-head Hawkmoth makes a squeaking noise by forcing air out of their pharynx when agitated, which may also reduce aggressive worker honey bee behavior when the two are in close proximity.
Animal taste and smell rely on what kind of communication?
57298edfaf94a219006aa501
Chemical
0
False
What is the physiological response of a sense organ called?
57298edfaf94a219006aa502
Chemoreception
91
False
Chemical stimuli are signals that regulate the activity of what?
57298edfaf94a219006aa503
a cell
270
False
What is a message-carrying chemical called?
57298edfaf94a219006aa504
semiochemical
280
False
Kairomones are a type of what?
57298edfaf94a219006aa505
semiochemicals
391
False
Chemical communications in animals rely on a variety of aspects including taste and smell. Chemoreception is the physiological response of a sense organ (i.e. taste or smell) to a chemical stimulus where the chemicals act as signals to regulate the state or activity of a cell. A semiochemical is a message-carrying chemical that is meant to attract, repel, and convey information. Types of semiochemicals include pheromones and kairomones. One example is the butterfly Phengaris arion which uses chemical signals as a form of mimicry to aid in predation.
Insects use sound and what other means for communication?
572990451d04691400779537
chemical means
88
False
The chemicals used by insects to communicate are called what?
572990451d04691400779538
semiochemicals
146
False
Semiochemicals come from where?
572990451d04691400779539
plant metabolites
185
False
Insect chemicals are used to attract and what else?
572990451d0469140077953a
repel
235
False
What insect chemical benefits both the receiver and the producer?
572990451d0469140077953b
Synomones
677
False
In addition to the use of sound for communication, a wide range of insects have evolved chemical means for communication. These chemicals, termed semiochemicals, are often derived from plant metabolites include those meant to attract, repel and provide other kinds of information. Pheromones, a type of semiochemical, are used for attracting mates of the opposite sex, for aggregating conspecific individuals of both sexes, for deterring other individuals from approaching, to mark a trail, and to trigger aggression in nearby individuals. Allomonea benefit their producer by the effect they have upon the receiver. Kairomones benefit their receiver instead of their producer. Synomones benefit the producer and the receiver. While some chemicals are targeted at individuals of the same species, others are used for communication across species. The use of scents is especially well known to have developed in social insects.:96–105
Termites are considered what type of insect?
5729913b3f37b31900478497
Social
0
False
Termites, bees, wasps, and what other insect are social insects?
5729913b3f37b31900478498
ants
34
False
What is another term for social insect?
5729913b3f37b31900478499
eusocial animal
97
False
Social insects live in well organized what?
5729913b3f37b3190047849a
colonies
157
False
The method that a bee dances is called what?
5729913b3f37b3190047849b
dance language
635
False
Social insects, such as termites, ants and many bees and wasps, are the most familiar species of eusocial animal. They live together in large well-organized colonies that may be so tightly integrated and genetically similar that the colonies of some species are sometimes considered superorganisms. It is sometimes argued that the various species of honey bee are the only invertebrates (and indeed one of the few non-human groups) to have evolved a system of abstract symbolic communication where a behavior is used to represent and convey specific information about something in the environment. In this communication system, called dance language, the angle at which a bee dances represents a direction relative to the sun, and the length of the dance represents the distance to be flown.:309–311 Though perhaps not as advanced as honey bees, bumblebees also potentially have some social communication behaviors. Bombus terrestris, for example, exhibit a faster learning curve for visiting unfamiliar, yet rewarding flowers, when they can see a conspecific foraging on the same species.
Insects with fine scale spatial orientation live in colonies and where else?
572993a5af94a219006aa51f
nests
27
False
Some insects have a fine scale spatial orientation and/or what else?
572993a5af94a219006aa520
homing
113
False
Spacial orientation/homing allows an insect to return to one specific hole among how many?
572993a5af94a219006aa521
thousands
220
False
An insect recalling a specific location for up to a year is called what?
572993a5af94a219006aa522
philopatry
357
False
An insect that can recall a specific location for up to a year does what?
572993a5af94a219006aa523
hibernate
382
False
Only insects which live in nests or colonies demonstrate any true capacity for fine-scale spatial orientation or homing. This can allow an insect to return unerringly to a single hole a few millimeters in diameter among thousands of apparently identical holes clustered together, after a trip of up to several kilometers' distance. In a phenomenon known as philopatry, insects that hibernate have shown the ability to recall a specific location up to a year after last viewing the area of interest. A few insects seasonally migrate large distances between different geographic regions (e.g., the overwintering areas of the Monarch butterfly).:14
Eusocial insects provide food for their offspring full-time or part-time?
572994a7af94a219006aa529
full-time
76
False
What do eusocial insects guard?
572994a7af94a219006aa52a
eggs
39
False
What do eusocial insects build?
572994a7af94a219006aa52b
nest
27
False
Most eusocial insects lead what kind of life once becoming an adult?
572994a7af94a219006aa52c
short
133
False
An adult eusocial insect does not contact it's what?
572994a7af94a219006aa52d
growing offspring
654
False
The eusocial insects build nest, guard eggs, and provide food for offspring full-time (see Eusociality). Most insects, however, lead short lives as adults, and rarely interact with one another except to mate or compete for mates. A small number exhibit some form of parental care, where they will at least guard their eggs, and sometimes continue guarding their offspring until adulthood, and possibly even feeding them. Another simple form of parental care is to construct a nest (a burrow or an actual construction, either of which may be simple or complex), store provisions in it, and lay an egg upon those provisions. The adult does not contact the growing offspring, but it nonetheless does provide food. This sort of care is typical for most species of bees and various types of wasps.
Insects are the only invertebrates that have evolved into what?
572995e9af94a219006aa539
flight
62
False
What part of the insect has been up for debate?
572995e9af94a219006aa53a
wings
94
False
Wings from the paranotal lobes are based on what theory?
572995e9af94a219006aa53b
paranotal theory
270
False
Wings from modified gills is from what origin?
572995e9af94a219006aa53c
pleural origin
318
False
The epicoxal theory suggests insect wings are modified what?
572995e9af94a219006aa53d
epicoxal exites
528
False
Insects are the only group of invertebrates to have developed flight. The evolution of insect wings has been a subject of debate. Some entomologists suggest that the wings are from paranotal lobes, or extensions from the insect's exoskeleton called the nota, called the paranotal theory. Other theories are based on a pleural origin. These theories include suggestions that wings originated from modified gills, spiracular flaps or as from an appendage of the epicoxa. The epicoxal theory suggests the insect wings are modified epicoxal exites, a modified appendage at the base of the legs or coxa. In the Carboniferous age, some of the Meganeura dragonflies had as much as a 50 cm (20 in) wide wingspan. The appearance of gigantic insects has been found to be consistent with high atmospheric oxygen. The respiratory system of insects constrains their size, however the high oxygen in the atmosphere allowed larger sizes. The largest flying insects today are much smaller and include several moth species such as the Atlas moth and the White Witch (Thysania agrippina).
How many legs do adult insects contain?
572996a1af94a219006aa543
six
23
False
Most adult insects have adopted what kind of gait?
572996a1af94a219006aa544
tripedal
63
False
The tripedal gait allows what kind of walking?
572996a1af94a219006aa545
rapid
107
False
Insects can adopt how many gaits?
572996a1af94a219006aa546
a variety
781
False
Insects can change their gait to deal with the loss of what?
572996a1af94a219006aa547
limbs
983
False
Many adult insects use six legs for walking and have adopted a tripedal gait. The tripedal gait allows for rapid walking while always having a stable stance and has been studied extensively in cockroaches. The legs are used in alternate triangles touching the ground. For the first step, the middle right leg and the front and rear left legs are in contact with the ground and move the insect forward, while the front and rear right leg and the middle left leg are lifted and moved forward to a new position. When they touch the ground to form a new stable triangle the other legs can be lifted and brought forward in turn and so on. The purest form of the tripedal gait is seen in insects moving at high speeds. However, this type of locomotion is not rigid and insects can adapt a variety of gaits. For example, when moving slowly, turning, or avoiding obstacles, four or more feet may be touching the ground. Insects can also adapt their gait to cope with the loss of one or more limbs.
What kind of locomotion is seen in stick insects?
572997463f37b319004784bd
sedate
277
False
What is another name for walking stick insects?
572997463f37b319004784be
Phasmatodea
343
False
Some insects can walk on top of what?
572997463f37b319004784bf
water
414
False
What insect can walk on the surface of water?
572997463f37b319004784c0
water striders
482
False
Water striders are part of what insect family?
572997463f37b319004784c1
Gerridae
447
False
Cockroaches are among the fastest insect runners and, at full speed, adopt a bipedal run to reach a high velocity in proportion to their body size. As cockroaches move very quickly, they need to be video recorded at several hundred frames per second to reveal their gait. More sedate locomotion is seen in the stick insects or walking sticks (Phasmatodea). A few insects have evolved to walk on the surface of the water, especially members of the Gerridae family, commonly known as water striders. A few species of ocean-skaters in the genus Halobates even live on the surface of open oceans, a habitat that has few insect species.
Water beetles have legs of what type of structure?
572998921d04691400779565
paddle-like
126
False
Dragonflys use what kind of propulsion?
572998921d04691400779566
jet
171
False
Dragonflys shoot water from where?
572998921d04691400779567
rectal chamber
225
False
Water striders have what kind of special groove up their leg?
572998921d04691400779568
recessed
419
False
Rove beetle Stenus emit what type of gland secretions?
572998921d04691400779569
pygidial
595
False
Many of these species have adaptations to help in under-water locomotion. Water beetles and water bugs have legs adapted into paddle-like structures. Dragonfly naiads use jet propulsion, forcibly expelling water out of their rectal chamber. Some species like the water striders are capable of walking on the surface of water. They can do this because their claws are not at the tips of the legs as in most insects, but recessed in a special groove further up the leg; this prevents the claws from piercing the water's surface film. Other insects such as the Rove beetle Stenus are known to emit pygidial gland secretions that reduce surface tension making it possible for them to move on the surface of water by Marangoni propulsion (also known by the German term Entspannungsschwimmen).
Learning how insects interact with the surrounding environment is called what?
572999816aef05140015500c
Insect ecology
0
False
Another term for surrounding environment is what?
572999816aef05140015500d
ecosystem
132
False
What kind of role do insects play in their ecosystem?
572999816aef05140015500e
important
174
False
What type of burial do insects engage in?
572999816aef05140015500f
dung
273
False
Beetles are also known as what?
572999816aef051400155010
scavengers
373
False
Insect ecology is the scientific study of how insects, individually or as a community, interact with the surrounding environment or ecosystem.:3 Insects play one of the most important roles in their ecosystems, which includes many roles, such as soil turning and aeration, dung burial, pest control, pollination and wildlife nutrition. An example is the beetles, which are scavengers that feed on dead animals and fallen trees and thereby recycle biological materials into forms found useful by other organisms. These insects, and others, are responsible for much of the process by which topsoil is created.:3, 218–228
What is an important defense strategy for insects to survive?
57299a913f37b319004784ed
Camouflage
0
False
What does coloration and shape help an insect do in the surrounding environment?
57299a913f37b319004784ee
blend
94
False
Protective coloring is common in what insect family?
57299a913f37b319004784ef
beetle
200
False
What is Chrysomelidae?
57299a913f37b319004784f0
leaf beetles
287
False
A beetle can resemble what kind of dung?
57299a913f37b319004784f1
bird dung
437
False
Camouflage is an important defense strategy, which involves the use of coloration or shape to blend into the surrounding environment. This sort of protective coloration is common and widespread among beetle families, especially those that feed on wood or vegetation, such as many of the leaf beetles (family Chrysomelidae) or weevils. In some of these species, sculpturing or various colored scales or hairs cause the beetle to resemble bird dung or other inedible objects. Many of those that live in sandy environments blend in with the coloration of the substrate. Most phasmids are known for effectively replicating the forms of sticks and leaves, and the bodies of some species (such as O. macklotti and Palophus centaurus) are covered in mossy or lichenous outgrowths that supplement their disguise. Some species have the ability to change color as their surroundings shift (B. scabrinota, T. californica). In a further behavioral adaptation to supplement crypsis, a number of species have been noted to perform a rocking motion where the body is swayed from side to side that is thought to reflect the movement of leaves or twigs swaying in the breeze. Another method by which stick insects avoid predation and resemble twigs is by feigning death (catalepsy), where the insect enters a motionless state that can be maintained for a long period. The nocturnal feeding habits of adults also aids Phasmatodea in remaining concealed from predators.
Mimicry is another type of what kid of strategy?
57299bd7af94a219006aa561
defense
8
False
Mimicry is used to do what to potential enemies?
57299bd7af94a219006aa562
deceive
50
False
Longhorn beetles look similar to what other insect?
57299bd7af94a219006aa563
wasps
170
False
Mimicry complexes are usually found where?
57299bd7af94a219006aa564
in Lepidoptera
316
False
What is a well known Mullerian complex?
57299bd7af94a219006aa565
Taxa
1037
False
Another defense that often uses color or shape to deceive potential enemies is mimicry. A number of longhorn beetles (family Cerambycidae) bear a striking resemblance to wasps, which helps them avoid predation even though the beetles are in fact harmless. Batesian and Müllerian mimicry complexes are commonly found in Lepidoptera. Genetic polymorphism and natural selection give rise to otherwise edible species (the mimic) gaining a survival advantage by resembling inedible species (the model). Such a mimicry complex is referred to as Batesian and is most commonly known by the mimicry by the limenitidine Viceroy butterfly of the inedible danaine Monarch. Later research has discovered that the Viceroy is, in fact more toxic than the Monarch and this resemblance should be considered as a case of Müllerian mimicry. In Müllerian mimicry, inedible species, usually within a taxonomic order, find it advantageous to resemble each other so as to reduce the sampling rate by predators who need to learn about the insects' inedibility. Taxa from the toxic genus Heliconius form one of the most well known Müllerian complexes.
What kind of defense is found in the Coleoptera species?
57299cebaf94a219006aa56b
Chemical
0
False
What chemical defense is used by the Monarch butterfly?
57299cebaf94a219006aa56c
bright colors
127
False
Insects become toxic by doing what with the chemicals from plants?
57299cebaf94a219006aa56d
sequestering
203
False
Which insect manufactures it's own toxins?
57299cebaf94a219006aa56e
Lepidoptera
284
False
Some beetles can spray what from their abdomen?
57299cebaf94a219006aa56f
chemicals
723
False
Chemical defense is another important defense found amongst species of Coleoptera and Lepidoptera, usually being advertised by bright colors, such as the Monarch butterfly. They obtain their toxicity by sequestering the chemicals from the plants they eat into their own tissues. Some Lepidoptera manufacture their own toxins. Predators that eat poisonous butterflies and moths may become sick and vomit violently, learning not to eat those types of species; this is actually the basis of Müllerian mimicry. A predator who has previously eaten a poisonous lepidopteran may avoid other species with similar markings in the future, thus saving many other species as well. Some ground beetles of the Carabidae family can spray chemicals from their abdomen with great accuracy, to repel predators.
Pollen transferred in the reproduction of plants is called?
57299e233f37b319004784ff
Pollination
0
False
What is required to transport pollen?
57299e233f37b31900478500
an animal
175
False
Most pollination is completed by what?
57299e233f37b31900478501
insects
299
False
What do insects receive in return for pollination?
57299e233f37b31900478502
energy rich nectar
383
False
Flowers that allow only one type of pollinator is called what?
57299e233f37b31900478503
pollination syndromes
566
False
Pollination is the process by which pollen is transferred in the reproduction of plants, thereby enabling fertilisation and sexual reproduction. Most flowering plants require an animal to do the transportation. While other animals are included as pollinators, the majority of pollination is done by insects. Because insects usually receive benefit for the pollination in the form of energy rich nectar it is a grand example of mutualism. The various flower traits (and combinations thereof) that differentially attract one type of pollinator or another are known as pollination syndromes. These arose through complex plant-animal adaptations. Pollinators find flowers through bright colorations, including ultraviolet, and attractant pheromones. The study of pollination by insects is known as anthecology.
Humans consider insects as what?
57299ef46aef05140015503c
pests
28
False
Lice and bed bugs are considered what kind of insect?
57299ef46aef05140015503d
parasitic
103
False
Flies and what other kind of insect transmit diseases?
57299ef46aef05140015503e
mosquitoes
155
False
What kind of insect can damage architectural structures?
57299ef46aef05140015503f
termites
194
False
Locusts destroy what?
57299ef46aef051400155040
agricultural goods
216
False
Many insects are considered pests by humans. Insects commonly regarded as pests include those that are parasitic (e.g. lice, bed bugs), transmit diseases (mosquitoes, flies), damage structures (termites), or destroy agricultural goods (locusts, weevils). Many entomologists are involved in various forms of pest control, as in research for companies to produce insecticides, but increasingly rely on methods of biological pest control, or biocontrol. Biocontrol uses one organism to reduce the population density of another organism — the pest — and is considered a key element of integrated pest management.
What kind of insects attract the most attention from humans?
57299ff56aef051400155046
pest insects
9
False
Many insects are what to the environment?
57299ff56aef051400155047
beneficial
67
False
What do bees, wasps, butterflies, and ants do to flowers?
57299ff56aef051400155048
pollinate
166
False
What do insects gather from plants?
57299ff56aef051400155049
nectar
282
False
What kind of environmental problem would occur without pollination?
57299ff56aef05140015504a
serious
800
False
Although pest insects attract the most attention, many insects are beneficial to the environment and to humans. Some insects, like wasps, bees, butterflies and ants, pollinate flowering plants. Pollination is a mutualistic relationship between plants and insects. As insects gather nectar from different plants of the same species, they also spread pollen from plants on which they have previously fed. This greatly increases plants' ability to cross-pollinate, which maintains and possibly even improves their evolutionary fitness. This ultimately affects humans since ensuring healthy crops is critical to agriculture. As well as pollination ants help with seed distribution of plants. This helps to spread the plants which increases plant diversity. This leads to an overall better environment. A serious environmental problem is the decline of populations of pollinator insects, and a number of species of insects are now cultured primarily for pollination management in order to have sufficient pollinators in the field, orchard or greenhouse at bloom time.:240–243 Another solution, as shown in Delaware, has been to raise native plants to help support native pollinators like L. vierecki. Insects also produce useful substances such as honey, wax, lacquer and silk. Honey bees have been cultured by humans for thousands of years for honey, although contracting for crop pollination is becoming more significant for beekeepers. The silkworm has greatly affected human history, as silk-driven trade established relationships between China and the rest of the world.
What insects feed on other insects?
5729a1066aef051400155050
Insectivorous
0
False
Insectivorous insects are beneficial or harmful to humans?
5729a1066aef051400155051
beneficial
67
False
What insect feeds on aphids?
5729a1066aef051400155052
ladybugs
244
False
What are the most visible predators of insects?
5729a1066aef051400155053
birds
354
False
What is the largest consumer of insects?
5729a1066aef051400155054
insects themselves
407
False
Insectivorous insects, or insects which feed on other insects, are beneficial to humans because they eat insects that could cause damage to agriculture and human structures. For example, aphids feed on crops and cause problems for farmers, but ladybugs feed on aphids, and can be used as a means to get significantly reduce pest aphid populations. While birds are perhaps more visible predators of insects, insects themselves account for the vast majority of insect consumption. Ants also help control animal populations by consuming small vertebrates. Without predators to keep them in check, insects can undergo almost unstoppable population explosions.:328–348:400
Insects play prominent roles in what?
5729a26f3f37b3190047852b
biological research
32
False
What is a common insect used for research purposes?
5729a26f3f37b3190047852c
fruit fly Drosophila melanogaster
146
False
Drosophila has helped develop principles in what kind of linkage?
5729a26f3f37b3190047852d
genetic
325
False
Genetic systems are conserved among what?
5729a26f3f37b3190047852e
eukaryotes
478
False
What percent of the fly genome is similar to the human genome
5729a26f3f37b3190047852f
70%
796
False
Insects play important roles in biological research. For example, because of its small size, short generation time and high fecundity, the common fruit fly Drosophila melanogaster is a model organism for studies in the genetics of higher eukaryotes. D. melanogaster has been an essential part of studies into principles like genetic linkage, interactions between genes, chromosomal genetics, development, behavior and evolution. Because genetic systems are well conserved among eukaryotes, understanding basic cellular processes like DNA replication or transcription in fruit flies can help to understand those processes in other eukaryotes, including humans. The genome of D. melanogaster was sequenced in 2000, reflecting the organism's important role in biological research. It was found that 70% of the fly genome is similar to the human genome, supporting the evolution theory.
Insects are considered as what in some cultures?
5729a3d56aef051400155074
delicacies
79
False
What deep-fried insect is part of the normal diet in some cultures?
5729a3d56aef051400155075
cicadas
49
False
Insects have what kind of protein content?
5729a3d56aef051400155076
high
163
False
What is the term for eating insects?
5729a3d56aef051400155077
entomophagy
336
False
Where is eating insects considered taboo?
5729a3d56aef051400155078
first-world countries
304
False
In some cultures, insects, especially deep-fried cicadas, are considered to be delicacies, while in other places they form part of the normal diet. Insects have a high protein content for their mass, and some authors suggest their potential as a major source of protein in human nutrition.:10–13 In most first-world countries, however, entomophagy (the eating of insects), is taboo. Since it is impossible to entirely eliminate pest insects from the human food chain, insects are inadvertently present in many foods, especially grains. Food safety laws in many countries do not prohibit insect parts in food, but rather limit their quantity. According to cultural materialist anthropologist Marvin Harris, the eating of insects is taboo in cultures that have other protein sources such as fish or livestock.
What ancient world insect is considered symbolic?
5729a5f51d046914007795a3
Scarab beetles
0
False
Cicadas symbolize immortality in what culture?
5729a5f51d046914007795a4
Chinese
127
False
What kind of ants are symbolic among the Australian Aborigines?
5729a5f51d046914007795a5
honey ants
387
False
The praying mantis symbolizes patience and what else?
5729a5f51d046914007795a6
creation
574
False
Witchety grubs serve as personal clan totems in what country?
5729a5f51d046914007795a7
Australia
344
False
Scarab beetles held religious and cultural symbolism in Old Egypt, Greece and some shamanistic Old World cultures. The ancient Chinese regarded cicadas as symbols of rebirth or immortality. In Mesopotamian literature, the epic poem of Gilgamesh has allusions to Odonata which signify the impossibility of immortality. Amongst the Aborigines of Australia of the Arrernte language groups, honey ants and witchety grubs served as personal clan totems. In the case of the 'San' bush-men of the Kalahari, it is the praying mantis which holds much cultural significance including creation and zen-like patience in waiting.:9
Race_(human_categorization)
What do all living humans belong to?
5728ad892ca10214002da5a6
the same species
599
False
What species are all humans?
5728ad892ca10214002da5a7
Homo sapiens
617
False
Race has no taxonomic significance among whom?
5728ad892ca10214002da5a8
humans
507
False
What set of traits do some scientists use race to make distinctions among?
5728ad892ca10214002da5a9
fuzzy
341
False
How do scientists around the world continue to conceptualize race?
5728ad892ca10214002da5aa
in widely differing ways
185
False
Even though there is a broad scientific agreement that essentialist and typological conceptualizations of race are untenable, scientists around the world continue to conceptualize race in widely differing ways, some of which have essentialist implications. While some researchers sometimes use the concept of race to make distinctions among fuzzy sets of traits, others in the scientific community suggest that the idea of race often is used in a naive or simplistic way,[page needed] and argue that, among humans, race has no taxonomic significance by pointing out that all living humans belong to the same species, Homo sapiens, and subspecies, Homo sapiens sapiens.
What type of group can't be biologically defined?
5728c94a2ca10214002da7c6
racial
122
False
What type of categorization in every day usage is there wide agreement it is only a social construct?
5728c94a2ca10214002da7c7
racial
35
False
What do some people contend racial categories are obviously correlated with?
5728c94a2ca10214002da7c8
biological traits
249
False
Some genetic markers have varying frequencies among what populations?
5728c94a2ca10214002da7c9
human
364
False
What is the majority opinion on whether racial categories can be considered to have impact on human genetic variation?
5728c94a2ca10214002da7ca
no current consensus
480
False
There is a wide consensus that the racial categories that are common in everyday usage are socially constructed, and that racial groups cannot be biologically defined. Nonetheless, some scholars argue that racial categories obviously correlate with biological traits (e.g. phenotype) to some degree, and that certain genetic markers have varying frequencies among human populations, some of which correspond more or less to traditional racial groupings. For this reason, there is no current consensus about whether racial categories can be considered to have significance for understanding human genetic variation.
How do people create a social reality in which social categorization is achieved?
5728cd6b4b864d1900164e68
define and talk about a particular conception of race
12
False
What can be said to be a social construct?
5728cd6b4b864d1900164e69
races
160
False
What contexts do racial social constructs develop within?
5728cd6b4b864d1900164e6a
legal, economic, and sociopolitical
240
False
Constructs may be the result rather than the inciter of what?
5728cd6b4b864d1900164e6b
major social situations
335
False
What effect does race have in the lives of people?
5728cd6b4b864d1900164e6c
real material
453
False
When people define and talk about a particular conception of race, they create a social reality through which social categorization is achieved. In this sense, races are said to be social constructs. These constructs develop within various legal, economic, and sociopolitical contexts, and may be the effect, rather than the cause, of major social situations. While race is understood to be a social construct by many, most scholars agree that race has real material effects in the lives of people through institutionalized practices of preference and discrimination.
Socioeconomic factors and enduring views on race has led to what for certain racial groups?
5728ce6b4b864d1900164e86
considerable suffering
89
False
What is discrimination often paired with?
5728ce6b4b864d1900164e87
racist mindsets
191
False
What do members of one group typically perceive the moral standing of outgroups as?
5728ce6b4b864d1900164e88
inferior
341
False
What do groups with less power often find themselves?
5728ce6b4b864d1900164e89
excluded or oppressed
435
False
What has led to many tragic instances of events like slavery and genocide?
5728ce6b4b864d1900164e8a
Racism
546
False
Socioeconomic factors, in combination with early but enduring views of race, have led to considerable suffering within disadvantaged racial groups. Racial discrimination often coincides with racist mindsets, whereby the individuals and ideologies of one group come to perceive the members of an outgroup as both racially defined and morally inferior. As a result, racial groups possessing relatively little power often find themselves excluded or oppressed, while hegemonic individuals and institutions are charged with holding racist attitudes. Racism has led to many instances of tragedy, including slavery and genocide.
What does law enforcement in some countries use to profile suspects?
5728cf173acd2414000dff09
race
40
False
Why is using racial categorization for profiling often criticized?
5728cf173acd2414000dff0a
perpetuating an outmoded understanding of human biological variation
125
False
What promotes stereotypes?
5728cf173acd2414000dff0b
use of racial categories
71
False
Who can race serve as a significant factor when studying social inequality?
5728cf173acd2414000dff0c
social scientists
328
False
What may in part reflect subjective attributes, self-identities and social institutions?
5728cf173acd2414000dff0d
sociological factors
413
False
In some countries, law enforcement uses race to profile suspects. This use of racial categories is frequently criticized for perpetuating an outmoded understanding of human biological variation, and promoting stereotypes. Because in some societies racial groupings correspond closely with patterns of social stratification, for social scientists studying social inequality, race can be a significant variable. As sociological factors, racial categories may in part reflect subjective attributions, self-identities, and social institutions.
What have human groups always considered themselves as compared to other nearby groups?
5728d7ba3acd2414000e0001
distinct
54
False
What have differences among groups not typically been perceived as being?
5728d7ba3acd2414000e0002
natural, immutable and global
147
False
During which process did our current idea of race come about?
5728d7ba3acd2414000e0003
exploration and conquest
366
False
Where did Europeans come into contact with other groups?
5728d7ba3acd2414000e0004
different continents
445
False
What ideaology is found in the natural sciences?
5728d7ba3acd2414000e0005
classification and typology
490
False
Groups of humans have always identified themselves as distinct from neighboring groups, but such differences have not always been understood to be natural, immutable and global. These features are the distinguishing features of how the concept of race is used today. In this way the idea of race as we understand it today came about during the historical process of exploration and conquest which brought Europeans into contact with groups from different continents, and of the ideology of classification and typology found in the natural sciences.
When did many of the ideas associated with the term "race" arise?
5728d9162ca10214002da964
time of the scientific revolution
104
False
What created relations between Europeans and people with different cultures?
5728d9162ca10214002da965
colonization
239
False
Who speculated about the observable difference among different groups of humans?
5728d9162ca10214002da966
Europeans
372
False
Justifying the subordination of what group was one of the incentives to categorize human groups?
5728d9162ca10214002da967
African slaves
747
False
What groups has there always been brutal conflict between?
5728d9162ca10214002da968
ethnic
1602
False
The European concept of "race", along with many of the ideas now associated with the term, arose at the time of the scientific revolution, which introduced and privileged the study of natural kinds, and the age of European imperialism and colonization which established political relations between Europeans and peoples with distinct cultural and political traditions. As Europeans encountered people from different parts of the world, they speculated about the physical, social, and cultural differences among various human groups. The rise of the Atlantic slave trade, which gradually displaced an earlier trade in slaves from throughout the world, created a further incentive to categorize human groups in order to justify the subordination of African slaves. Drawing on Classical sources and upon their own internal interactions — for example, the hostility between the English and Irish powerfully influenced early European thinking about the differences between people — Europeans began to sort themselves and others into groups based on physical appearance, and to attribute to individuals belonging to these groups behaviors and capacities which were claimed to be deeply ingrained. A set of folk beliefs took hold that linked inherited physical differences between groups to inherited intellectual, behavioral, and moral qualities. Similar ideas can be found in other cultures, for example in China, where a concept often translated as "race" was associated with supposed common descent from the Yellow Emperor, and used to stress the unity of ethnic groups in China. Brutal conflicts between ethnic groups have existed throughout history and across the world.
Who was the author of the first published book classifying humans into distinct races?
5728d9f14b864d1900164f8c
François Bernier
92
False
In what century did differences among human groups become a focus of science?
5728d9f14b864d1900164f8d
18th century
296
False
What race was typically ascribed the most desirable features?
5728d9f14b864d1900164f8e
White
591
False
How was Homo sapiens europaeus described as?
5728d9f14b864d1900164f8f
active, acute, and adventurous
1030
False
What attributes were bestowed on homo spaiens afer?
5728d9f14b864d1900164f90
crafty, lazy, and careless
1103
False
The first post-Classical published classification of humans into distinct races seems to be François Bernier's Nouvelle division de la terre par les différents espèces ou races qui l'habitent ("New division of Earth by the different species or races which inhabit it"), published in 1684. In the 18th century the differences among human groups became a focus of scientific investigation. But the scientific classification of phenotypic variation was frequently coupled with racist ideas about innate predispositions of different groups, always attributing the most desirable features to the White, European race and arranging the other races along a continuum of progressively undesirable attributes. The 1735 classification of Carl Linnaeus, inventor of zoological taxonomy, divided the human race Homo sapiens into continental varieties of europaeus, asiaticus, americanus, and afer, each associated with a different humour: sanguine, melancholic, choleric, and phlegmatic, respectively. Homo sapiens europaeus was described as active, acute, and adventurous, whereas Homo sapiens afer was said to be crafty, lazy, and careless.
What year was Blumenbach's treatise published?
5728daea3acd2414000e0053
1775
4
False
How many divisions did Blumenbach's treatise specify?
5728daea3acd2414000e0054
five
94
False
What race was later renamed to Negroid?
5728daea3acd2414000e0055
Ethiopian
152
False
What type of transition was noted from one group to the next?
5728daea3acd2414000e0056
graded
367
False
What can one not mark between the variety of mankind?
5728daea3acd2414000e0057
limits
544
False
The 1775 treatise "The Natural Varieties of Mankind", by Johann Friedrich Blumenbach proposed five major divisions: the Caucasoid race, Mongoloid race, Ethiopian race (later termed Negroid, and not to be confused with the narrower Ethiopid race), American Indian race, and Malayan race, but he did not propose any hierarchy among the races. Blumenbach also noted the graded transition in appearances from one group to adjacent groups and suggested that "one variety of mankind does so sensibly pass into the other, that you cannot mark out the limits between them".
What did the merging of superstitious beliefs and scientific ones regarding group differences produce?
5728dbc5ff5b5019007da842
an "ideology of race"
177
False
What were races considered to be, according to the ideology of race?
5728dbc5ff5b5019007da843
primordial, natural, enduring and distinct
238
False
How might some groups have resulted, according to the ideology?
5728dbc5ff5b5019007da844
mixture between formerly distinct populations
342
False
What group was identified as being inferior to Europeans?
5728dbc5ff5b5019007da845
Negros
605
False
Who particularly noted the unnatural sexual appetites of Africans?
5728dbc5ff5b5019007da846
Thomas Jefferson
683
False
From the 17th through 19th centuries, the merging of folk beliefs about group differences with scientific explanations of those differences produced what one scholar has called an "ideology of race". According to this ideology, races are primordial, natural, enduring and distinct. It was further argued that some groups may be the result of mixture between formerly distinct populations, but that careful study could distinguish the ancestral races that had combined to produce admixed groups. Subsequent influential classifications by Georges Buffon, Petrus Camper and Christoph Meiners all classified "Negros" as inferior to Europeans. In the United States the racial theories of Thomas Jefferson were influential. He saw Africans as inferior to Whites especially in regards to their intellect, and imbued with unnatural sexual appetites, but described Native Americans as equals to whites.
What theory is the belief that differences races had evolved independently on each continent?
572903331d04691400778f69
polygenism
59
False
What country did Edward Long and Charles White advocated the belief of polygenism in?
572903331d04691400778f6a
England
192
False
What was the profession of Christoph Meiners and Georg Forster?
572903331d04691400778f6b
ethnographers
268
False
In what century was polygenism most widespread?
572903331d04691400778f6c
19th century
522
False
The Ethnological Society was sympathetic towards what cause?
572903331d04691400778f6d
abolitionist
710
False
In the last two decades of the 18th century, the theory of polygenism, the belief that different races had evolved separately in each continent and shared no common ancestor, was advocated in England by historian Edward Long and anatomist Charles White, in Germany by ethnographers Christoph Meiners and Georg Forster, and in France by Julien-Joseph Virey. In the US, Samuel George Morton, Josiah Nott and Louis Agassiz promoted this theory in the mid-nineteenth century. Polygenism was popular and most widespread in the 19th century, culminating in the founding of the Anthropological Society of London (1863) during the period of the American Civil War, in opposition to the Ethnological Society, which had abolitionist sympathies.
What species do all living humans today belong to?
572904223f37b31900477f83
Homo sapiens
61
False
When is it theorized that Homo habilis evolved in East Africa?
572904223f37b31900477f84
2 million years ago
266
False
How many millions of years ago had Homo erectus spread throughout Europa and Asia?
572904223f37b31900477f85
1.5
461
False
Members of what species populated parts of Africa in a relatively short time?
572904223f37b31900477f86
Homo habilis
198
False
What group might have Archaic Homo sapiens evolve out of?
572904223f37b31900477f87
African Homo erectus
709
False
Today, all humans are classified as belonging to the species Homo sapiens and sub-species Homo sapiens sapiens. However, this is not the first species of homininae: the first species of genus Homo, Homo habilis, are theorized to have evolved in East Africa at least 2 million years ago, and members of this species populated different parts of Africa in a relatively short time. Homo erectus is theorized to have evolved more than 1.8 million years ago, and by 1.5 million years ago had spread throughout Europe and Asia. Virtually all physical anthropologists agree that Archaic Homo sapiens (A group including the possible species H. heidelbergensis, H. rhodesiensis and H. neanderthalensis) evolved out of African Homo erectus ((sensu lato) or Homo ergaster).
Who taught and accepted the belief that biologically distinct races were isomorphic?
5729052baf94a219006a9f5f
many anthropologists
27
False
What practice was combined with the field of eugenics regarding the distinctness of social groups?
5729052baf94a219006a9f60
scientific racism
296
False
What effect did the Nazi eugenics program have on racial essentialism?
5729052baf94a219006a9f61
lost widespread popularity
368
False
What conclusions were race anthropologists pressured to revise?
5729052baf94a219006a9f62
sources of phenotypic variation
554
False
What did a lot of modern anthropologists in the West come to view racial designation as?
5729052baf94a219006a9f63
invalid
685
False
In the early 20th century, many anthropologists accepted and taught the belief that biologically distinct races were isomorphic with distinct linguistic, cultural, and social groups, while popularly applying that belief to the field of eugenics, in conjunction with a practice that is now called scientific racism. After the Nazi eugenics program, racial essentialism lost widespread popularity. Race anthropologists were pressured to acknowledge findings coming from studies of culture and population genetics, and to revise their conclusions about the sources of phenotypic variation. A significant number of modern anthropologists and biologists in the West came to view race as an invalid genetic or biological designation.
What type of geneticists have debates about what can provide a basis for a new conception of race?
57290635af94a219006a9f85
Population
0
False
What class of researchers surprisingly have no generally accepted concept of population?
57290635af94a219006a9f86
biologists
263
False
What do most definitions of population rely on?
57290635af94a219006a9f87
qualitative descriptions
423
False
What do Waples and Gaggiotti identify two broad types of?
57290635af94a219006a9f88
definitions for populations
598
False
What are both ecological and evolutionary definition modifiers of?
57290635af94a219006a9f89
paradigm
713
False
Population geneticists have debated whether the concept of population can provide a basis for a new conception of race. In order to do this, a working definition of population must be found. Surprisingly, there is no generally accepted concept of population that biologists use. Although the concept of population is central to ecology, evolutionary biology and conservation biology, most definitions of population rely on qualitative descriptions such as "a group of organisms of the same species occupying a particular space at a particular time" Waples and Gaggiotti identify two broad types of definitions for populations; those that fall into an ecological paradigm, and those that fall into an evolutionary paradigm. Examples of such definitions are:
What are traditionally geographically isolated?
572907263f37b31900477f97
subspecies
15
False
What is "subspecies" used to indicate an objective degree of?
572907263f37b31900477f98
microevolutionary divergence
188
False
What is an objection to the idea of subspecies because it doesn't specify this?
572907263f37b31900477f99
degree of differentiation
278
False
What would a population have to somewhat be to be considered a subspecies?
572907263f37b31900477f9a
biologically different
360
False
What did Templeton argue is necessary to impose a threshold on for a population to be a subspecies?
572907263f37b31900477f9b
level of difference
542
False
Traditionally, subspecies are seen as geographically isolated and genetically differentiated populations. That is, "the designation 'subspecies' is used to indicate an objective degree of microevolutionary divergence" One objection to this idea is that it does not specify what degree of differentiation is required. Therefore, any population that is somewhat biologically different could be considered a subspecies, even to the level of a local population. As a result, Templeton has argued that it is necessary to impose a threshold on the level of difference that is required for a population to be designated a subspecies.
What must organisms have a measurable level of to be seen as a subspecies?
572908426aef0514001549d2
difference
101
False
Who proposed subspecies be defined by the seventy-five percent rule?
572908426aef0514001549d3
Dean Amadon
144
False
What year did Dean Amadon make his proposal?
572908426aef0514001549d4
1949
168
False
The 75% rule states how much of a population must lie outside the range of other populations for a defining set of characters?
572908426aef0514001549d5
99%
303
False
Many scholars argue what should be replaced with a ninety or ninety-five percent rule?
572908426aef0514001549d6
The seventy-five percent rule
410
False
This effectively means that populations of organisms must have reached a certain measurable level of difference to be recognised as subspecies. Dean Amadon proposed in 1949 that subspecies would be defined according to the seventy-five percent rule which means that 75% of a population must lie outside 99% of the range of other populations for a given defining morphological character or a set of characters. The seventy-five percent rule still has defenders but other scholars argue that it should be replaced with ninety or ninety-five percent rule.
When did Sewall Wright make his suggestion about human populations?
572909393f37b31900477fc5
1978
3
False
How should populations long inhabiting separate parts of the world be considered?
572909393f37b31900477fc6
different subspecies
144
False
What is required to allocate individuals in subspecies populations correctly?
572909393f37b31900477fc7
inspection
260
False
What did Wright feel it wouldn't take an anthropologist to easily distinguish between of in groups?
572909393f37b31900477fc8
individual
527
False
What term is it customary to use instead of subspecies?
572909393f37b31900477fc9
race
625
False
In 1978, Sewall Wright suggested that human populations that have long inhabited separated parts of the world should, in general, be considered different subspecies by the usual criterion that most individuals of such populations can be allocated correctly by inspection. Wright argued that it does not require a trained anthropologist to classify an array of Englishmen, West Africans, and Chinese with 100% accuracy by features, skin color, and type of hair despite so much variability within each of these groups that every individual can easily be distinguished from every other. However, it is customary to use the term race rather than subspecies for the major subdivisions of the human species as well as for minor ones.
What is cladistics a method of?
572909d51d04691400778fb5
classification
32
False
What is a clade a taxonomic group of?
572909d51d04691400778fb6
organisms
80
False
How many common ancestors does a clade have?
572909d51d04691400778fb7
single
106
False
What is another term for a phylogenetic tree?
572909d51d04691400778fb8
taxonomy
424
False
Which chromosome sequences are used to study ancient human migration paths?
572909d51d04691400778fb9
Y
724
False
Cladistics is another method of classification. A clade is a taxonomic group of organisms consisting of a single common ancestor and all the descendants of that ancestor. Every creature produced by sexual reproduction has two immediate lineages, one maternal and one paternal. Whereas Carl Linnaeus established a taxonomy of living organisms based on anatomical similarities and differences, cladistics seeks to establish a taxonomy—the phylogenetic tree—based on genetic similarities and differences and tracing the process of acquisition of multiple characteristics by single organisms. Some researchers have tried to clarify the idea of race by equating it to the biological idea of the clade. Often mitochondrial DNA or Y chromosome sequences are used to study ancient human migration paths. These single-locus sources of DNA do not recombine and are inherited from a single parent. Individuals from the various continental groups tend to be more similar to one another than to people from other continents, and tracing either mitochondrial DNA or non-recombinant Y-chromosome DNA explains how people in one place may be largely derived from people in some remote location.
What analysis method are taxonomists fond of using in considering a population?
57290b1c6aef0514001549ec
phylogenetic
32
False
How are allopatric populations separated?
57290b1c6aef0514001549ed
geographically
280
False
What is a group with a common evolutionary ancestor population called?
57290b1c6aef0514001549ee
a clade
395
False
What is a tongue twister of a word that merely means "cleanly divided"?
57290b1c6aef0514001549ef
monophyletic
594
False
Who argued in 2003 that all clades are by definition monophyletic groups?
57290b1c6aef0514001549f0
Rachel Caspari
713
False
Often taxonomists prefer to use phylogenetic analysis to determine whether a population can be considered a subspecies. Phylogenetic analysis relies on the concept of derived characteristics that are not shared between groups, usually applying to populations that are allopatric (geographically separated) and therefore discretely bounded. This would make a subspecies, evolutionarily speaking, a clade – a group with a common evolutionary ancestor population. The smooth gradation of human genetic variation in general tends to rule out any idea that human population groups can be considered monophyletic (cleanly divided), as there appears to always have been considerable gene flow between human populations. Rachel Caspari (2003) have argued that clades are by definition monophyletic groups (a taxon that includes all descendants of a given ancestor) and since no groups currently regarded as races are monophyletic, none of those groups can be clades.
What did Lieberman and Jackon find profound problems using cladistics to support concepts of?
57290c2f3f37b31900477fcf
race
171
False
What would the diverse group of East Indians, North Africans and Europeans be grouped as prior to DNA analysis?
57290c2f3f37b31900477fd0
Caucasians
458
False
Cladistics can limit and skew what?
57290c2f3f37b31900477fd1
interpretations
549
False
Lieberman and Jackson suggest authors of some studies use the term race in what ways?
57290c2f3f37b31900477fd2
conceptually imprecise and careless
856
False
What is variation found in that can be labeled as races?
57290c2f3f37b31900477fd3
packages
1246
False
For the anthropologists Lieberman and Jackson (1995), however, there are more profound methodological and conceptual problems with using cladistics to support concepts of race. They claim that "the molecular and biochemical proponents of this model explicitly use racial categories in their initial grouping of samples". For example, the large and highly diverse macroethnic groups of East Indians, North Africans, and Europeans are presumptively grouped as Caucasians prior to the analysis of their DNA variation. This is claimed to limit and skew interpretations, obscure other lineage relationships, deemphasize the impact of more immediate clinal environmental factors on genomic diversity, and can cloud our understanding of the true patterns of affinity. They argue that however significant the empirical research, these studies use the term race in conceptually imprecise and careless ways. They suggest that the authors of these studies find support for racial distinctions only because they began by assuming the validity of race. "For empirical reasons we prefer to place emphasis on clinal variation, which recognizes the existence of adaptive human hereditary variation and simultaneously stresses that such variation is not found in packages that can be labeled races."
What did C. Loring Brace observe about about variations?
57290ceeaf94a219006a9fd7
distributed along geographic gradations or clines
240
False
Why are variations distributed along clines?
57290ceeaf94a219006a9fd8
isolation by distance
314
False
What is a problem common to phenotype-based descriptions of races?
57290ceeaf94a219006a9fd9
they ignore a host of other similarities and differences
485
False
What is Frank Livingstone's profession?
57290ceeaf94a219006a9fda
anthropologist
630
False
What is the conclusion from the evidence that clines cross racial boundaries?
57290ceeaf94a219006a9fdb
there are no races, only clines
721
False
One crucial innovation in reconceptualizing genotypic and phenotypic variation was the anthropologist C. Loring Brace's observation that such variations, insofar as it is affected by natural selection, slow migration, or genetic drift, are distributed along geographic gradations or clines. In part this is due to isolation by distance. This point called attention to a problem common to phenotype-based descriptions of races (for example, those based on hair texture and skin color): they ignore a host of other similarities and differences (for example, blood type) that do not correlate highly with the markers for race. Thus, anthropologist Frank Livingstone's conclusion, that since clines cross racial boundaries, "there are no races, only clines".
What must one be attentive to when talking about race?
57290dc41d04691400778fd7
how the term is being used
111
False
On what point did Dobzhansky agree with Dr. Livingstone?
57290dc41d04691400778fd8
if races have to be 'discrete units,' then there are no races
174
False
What is merely "a matter of judgement"?
57290dc41d04691400778fd9
"the race concept."
466
False
While race difference possible to easily see, they need not be given what?
57290dc41d04691400778fda
labels
830
False
Livingston and Dobzhansky disagree on whether the race concept is what?
57290dc41d04691400778fdb
a meaningful and useful social convention
1122
False
In a response to Livingstone, Theodore Dobzhansky argued that when talking about race one must be attentive to how the term is being used: "I agree with Dr. Livingstone that if races have to be 'discrete units,' then there are no races, and if 'race' is used as an 'explanation' of the human variability, rather than vice versa, then the explanation is invalid." He further argued that one could use the term race if one distinguished between "race differences" and "the race concept." The former refers to any distinction in gene frequencies between populations; the latter is "a matter of judgment." He further observed that even when there is clinal variation, "Race differences are objectively ascertainable biological phenomena… but it does not follow that racially distinct populations must be given racial (or subspecific) labels." In short, Livingstone and Dobzhansky agree that there are genetic differences among human beings; they also agree that the use of the race concept to classify people, and how the race concept is used, is a matter of social convention. They differ on whether the race concept remains a meaningful and useful social convention.
What did two biologists point out in 1964?
57290ea91d04691400778ff3
cases where two or more clines are distributed discordantly
58
False
What gene distribution decreases as you move away from the equator in either direction?
57290ea91d04691400778ff4
melanin
131
False
What do the frequencies for the haplotype for beta-5 hemogoblin do from specific points in Africa?
57290ea91d04691400778ff5
radiate
284
False
To what profession do both Leonard Lieberman and Fatimah Linda Jackson belong?
57290ea91d04691400778ff6
anthropologists
346
False
What patterns of heterogeneity falsify any descriptions of population?
57290ea91d04691400778ff7
Discordant
417
False
In 1964, the biologists Paul Ehrlich and Holm pointed out cases where two or more clines are distributed discordantly—for example, melanin is distributed in a decreasing pattern from the equator north and south; frequencies for the haplotype for beta-S hemoglobin, on the other hand, radiate out of specific geographical points in Africa. As the anthropologists Leonard Lieberman and Fatimah Linda Jackson observed, "Discordant patterns of heterogeneity falsify any description of a population as if it were genotypically or even phenotypically homogeneous".
What is the consequence of the number and geographic location ascribed to a race highly dependent on?
57290f651d04691400778ffd
the importance attributed to, and quantity of, the traits considered.
202
False
What mutation did scientists discover?
57290f651d04691400778ffe
skin-lighting
296
False
What partially accounts for the appearance of light skin in humans?
57290f651d04691400778fff
mutation
310
False
What do East Asians have to thank for their relatively light skin?
57290f651d04691400779000
different mutations
564
False
Traits and gene frequencies do not always correspond to what type of location?
57290f651d04691400779001
geographical
781
False
Patterns such as those seen in human physical and genetic variation as described above, have led to the consequence that the number and geographic location of any described races is highly dependent on the importance attributed to, and quantity of, the traits considered. Scientists discovered a skin-lighting mutation that partially accounts for the appearance of Light skin in humans (people who migrated out of Africa northward into what is now Europe) which they estimate occurred 20,000 to 50,000 years ago. The East Asians owe their relatively light skin to different mutations. On the other hand, the greater the number of traits (or alleles) considered, the more subdivisions of humanity are detected, since traits and gene frequencies do not always correspond to the same geographical location. Or as Ossorio & Duster (2005) put it:
What thing that strongly differentiates the French from some other populations be clinal across Europe?
572910671d04691400779007
a selected allele
26
False
When did Coop and others find out something about a selected allele?
572910671d04691400779008
2009
13
False
Something that is found at high frequency in Europe could be what elsewhere?
572910671d04691400779009
absent
188
False
How many major geographic patterns do the global distributions fall into?
572910671d0469140077900a
three
519
False
What are sweeps?
572910671d0469140077900b
major geographic patterns
525
False
Coop et al. (2009) found "a selected allele that strongly differentiates the French from both the Yoruba and Han could be strongly clinal across Europe, or at high frequency in Europe and absent elsewhere, or follow any other distribution according to the geographic nature of the selective pressure. However, we see that the global geographic distributions of these putatively selected alleles are largely determined simply by their frequencies in Yoruba, French and Han (Figure 3). The global distributions fall into three major geographic patterns that we interpret as non-African sweeps, west Eurasian sweeps and East Asian sweeps, respectively."
What can one use to look at differences between groups instead of physical differences?
5729117aaf94a219006aa01d
genetic differences
69
False
Who was William C. Boyd?
5729117aaf94a219006aa01e
mid-20th-century anthropologist
142
False
Boyd felt race was based on a specific differentiation of the frequency of what in a population?
5729117aaf94a219006aa01f
genes
321
False
How numerous would the number of races be if one gene can distinguish races?
5729117aaf94a219006aa020
number of human couples reproducing
642
False
What may people who have lived in the same area for generations have in common?
5729117aaf94a219006aa021
alleles
978
False
Another way to look at differences between populations is to measure genetic differences rather than physical differences between groups. The mid-20th-century anthropologist William C. Boyd defined race as: "A population which differs significantly from other populations in regard to the frequency of one or more of the genes it possesses. It is an arbitrary matter which, and how many, gene loci we choose to consider as a significant 'constellation'". Leonard Lieberman and Rodney Kirk have pointed out that "the paramount weakness of this statement is that if one gene can distinguish races then the number of races is as numerous as the number of human couples reproducing." Moreover, the anthropologist Stephen Molnar has suggested that the discordance of clines inevitably results in a multiplication of races that renders the concept itself useless. The Human Genome Project states "People who have lived in the same geographic region for many generations may have some alleles in common, but no allele will be found in all members of one population and in no members of any other."
What did Sewall Wright develop one way of measuring?
57291a91af94a219006aa075
genetic differences between populations
71
False
What was Wright's method known as?
57291a91af94a219006aa076
the Fixation index
120
False
What is the often stated FST for humans?
57291a91af94a219006aa077
0.15
459
False
Richard Lewontin, upon looking at the FST ratios, concluded race wasn't an appropriate or useful way to describe what?
57291a91af94a219006aa078
human populations
981
False
Human group variation is similar to variation observed in what other species?
57291a91af94a219006aa079
mammalian
1108
False
The population geneticist Sewall Wright developed one way of measuring genetic differences between populations known as the Fixation index, which is often abbreviated to FST. This statistic is often used in taxonomy to compare differences between any two given populations by measuring the genetic differences among and between populations for individual genes, or for many genes simultaneously. It is often stated that the fixation index for humans is about 0.15. This translates to an estimated 85% of the variation measured in the overall human population is found within individuals of the same population, and about 15% of the variation occurs between populations. These estimates imply that any two individuals from different populations are almost as likely to be more similar to each other than either is to a member of their own group. Richard Lewontin, who affirmed these ratios, thus concluded neither "race" nor "subspecies" were appropriate or useful ways to describe human populations. However, others have noticed that group variation was relatively similar to the variation observed in other mammalian species.
FST values greater than .25 represent very great what?
57291b5a3f37b31900478023
genetic variation
63
False
About how much human variation occurs between continental populations?
57291b5a3f37b31900478024
5%
154
False
FST values as low as what amount have been found in some studies?
57291b5a3f37b31900478025
0.1
304
False
What is the name of the person who thinks FST shouldn't be used as a marker of subspecies status?
57291b5a3f37b31900478026
Graves
415
False
FST is used to measure the degree of differentiation between what?
57291b5a3f37b31900478027
populations
579
False
Wright himself believed that values >0.25 represent very great genetic variation and that an FST of 0.15–0.25 represented great variation. However, about 5% of human variation occurs between populations within continents, therefore FST values between continental groups of humans (or races) of as low as 0.1 (or possibly lower) have been found in some studies, suggesting more moderate levels of genetic variation. Graves (1996) has countered that FST should not be used as a marker of subspecies status, as the statistic is used to measure the degree of differentiation between populations, although see also Wright (1978).
What two researchers gave a long critique regarding the application of FST to human populations in 2003?
57291cb21d0469140077905b
Jeffrey Long and Rick Kittles
0
False
What do Long and Kittles think of the implication that human populations contain on average 85% of all genetic diversity?
57291cb21d0469140077905c
misleading
222
False
Non-African groups of human population may only drive from what type of sample of the African population?
57291cb21d0469140077905d
non-representative
940
False
What type of bottleneck did the migration out of Africa represent?
57291cb21d0469140077905e
genetic
1208
False
How much human genetic diversity exists in a single African population?
57291cb21d0469140077905f
100%
1749
False
Jeffrey Long and Rick Kittles give a long critique of the application of FST to human populations in their 2003 paper "Human Genetic Diversity and the Nonexistence of Biological Races". They find that the figure of 85% is misleading because it implies that all human populations contain on average 85% of all genetic diversity. They claim that this does not correctly reflect human population history, because it treats all human groups as independent. A more realistic portrayal of the way human groups are related is to understand that some human groups are parental to other groups and that these groups represent paraphyletic groups to their descent groups. For example, under the recent African origin theory the human population in Africa is paraphyletic to all other human groups because it represents the ancestral group from which all non-African populations derive, but more than that, non-African groups only derive from a small non-representative sample of this African population. This means that all non-African groups are more closely related to each other and to some African groups (probably east Africans) than they are to others, and further that the migration out of Africa represented a genetic bottleneck, with much of the diversity that existed in Africa not being carried out of Africa by the emigrating groups. This view produces a version of human population movements that do not result in all human populations being independent; but rather, produces a series of dilutions of diversity the further from Africa any population lives, each founding event representing a genetic subset of its parental population. Long and Kittles find that rather than 85% of human genetic diversity existing in all human populations, about 100% of human diversity exists in a single African population, whereas only about 70% of human genetic diversity exists in a population derived from New Guinea. Long and Kittles argued that this still produces a global human population that is genetically homogeneous compared to other mammalian populations.
What type of classification system for humans did A.W.F. Edwards argue for?
57291d851d0469140077906b
characteristic genetic patterns
239
False
What might genetic clusters be shown to correspond to one day?
57291d851d0469140077906c
phenotypic variations between groups
666
False
How is the relationship between genes and complex traits understood?
57291d851d0469140077906d
poorly
797
False
Risch feels any category someone comes up with will be what?
57291d851d0469140077906e
imperfect
1061
False
Risch thinks imperfect categories still have what?
57291d851d0469140077906f
utility
1140
False
In his 2003 paper, "Human Genetic Diversity: Lewontin's Fallacy", A. W. F. Edwards argued that rather than using a locus-by-locus analysis of variation to derive taxonomy, it is possible to construct a human classification system based on characteristic genetic patterns, or clusters inferred from multilocus genetic data. Geographically based human studies since have shown that such genetic clusters can be derived from analyzing of a large number of loci which can assort individuals sampled into groups analogous to traditional continental racial groups. Joanna Mountain and Neil Risch cautioned that while genetic clusters may one day be shown to correspond to phenotypic variations between groups, such assumptions were premature as the relationship between genes and complex traits remains poorly understood. However, Risch denied such limitations render the analysis useless: "Perhaps just using someone's actual birth year is not a very good way of measuring age. Does that mean we should throw it out? ... Any category you come up with is going to be imperfect, but that doesn't preclude you from using it or the fact that it has utility."
What groups were early samples from for genetic cluster analysis?
572920491d0469140077907d
ancestral population
84
False
Where did the groups the genetic clusters were taken from live from each other?
572920491d0469140077907e
extreme geographic distances
122
False
What was thought might maximize the odds of finding unique cluster patterns in groups?
572920491d0469140077907f
large geographic distances
193
False
What human activity has only recently accelerated?
572920491d04691400779080
migration
442
False
Human migration tends to accelerate this type of what flow?
572920491d04691400779081
gene
480
False
Early human genetic cluster analysis studies were conducted with samples taken from ancestral population groups living at extreme geographic distances from each other. It was thought that such large geographic distances would maximize the genetic variation between the groups sampled in the analysis and thus maximize the probability of finding cluster patterns unique to each group. In light of the historically recent acceleration of human migration (and correspondingly, human gene flow) on a global scale, further studies were conducted to judge the degree to which genetic cluster analysis can pattern ancestrally identified groups as well as geographically separated groups. One such study looked at a large multiethnic population in the United States, and "detected only modest genetic differentiation between different current geographic locales within each race/ethnicity group. Thus, ancient geographic ancestry, which is highly correlated with self-identified race/ethnicity—as opposed to current residence—is the major determinant of genetic structure in the U.S. population." (Tang et al. (2005))
Randomly chosen people from different groups may be more similar to each other than with members of their own what?
5729225a1d04691400779091
cluster
297
False
How many genetic markers need to be used to show people from different groups are dissimilar to each other?
5729225a1d04691400779092
thousands
327
False
Studying increasing number of groups require an increasing number of what?
5729225a1d04691400779093
markers
812
False
What should be used when using ancestry to make inferences about individual phenotypes?
5729225a1d04691400779094
caution
868
False
People are more frequently similar to members of what populations?
5729225a1d04691400779095
other populations
1430
False
Witherspoon et al. (2007) have argued that even when individuals can be reliably assigned to specific population groups, it may still be possible for two randomly chosen individuals from different populations/clusters to be more similar to each other than to a randomly chosen member of their own cluster. They found that many thousands of genetic markers had to be used in order for the answer to the question "How often is a pair of individuals from one population genetically more dissimilar than two individuals chosen from two different populations?" to be "never". This assumed three population groups separated by large geographic ranges (European, African and East Asian). The entire world population is much more complex and studying an increasing number of groups would require an increasing number of markers for the same answer. The authors conclude that "caution should be used when using geographic or genetic ancestry to make inferences about individual phenotypes." Witherspoon, et al. concluded that, "The fact that, given enough genetic data, individuals can be correctly assigned to their populations of origin is compatible with the observation that most human genetic variation is found within populations, not between them. It is also compatible with our ﬁnding that, even when the most distinct populations are considered and hundreds of loci are used, individuals are frequently more similar to members of other populations than to members of their own population."
Cluster structure of genetic data is dependent on what initial thing?
5729234a1d046914007790a5
hypotheses
464
False
If one samples a continental group, what do the clusters become?
5729234a1d046914007790a6
continental
579
False
What is not a natural taxonomy of the human species?
5729234a1d046914007790a7
racial classification
1156
False
What are objective social constructions?
5729234a1d046914007790a8
racial groupings
1496
False
What are diversity partition and clustering analysis are examples of?
5729234a1d046914007790a9
methodologies
1807
False
Anthropologists such as C. Loring Brace, the philosophers Jonathan Kaplan and Rasmus Winther, and the geneticist Joseph Graves,[page needed] have argued that while there it is certainly possible to find biological and genetic variation that corresponds roughly to the groupings normally defined as "continental races", this is true for almost all geographically distinct populations. The cluster structure of the genetic data is therefore dependent on the initial hypotheses of the researcher and the populations sampled. When one samples continental groups, the clusters become continental; if one had chosen other sampling patterns, the clustering would be different. Weiss and Fullerton have noted that if one sampled only Icelanders, Mayans and Maoris, three distinct clusters would form and all other populations could be described as being clinally composed of admixtures of Maori, Icelandic and Mayan genetic materials. Kaplan and Winther therefore argue that, seen in this way, both Lewontin and Edwards are right in their arguments. They conclude that while racial groups are characterized by different allele frequencies, this does not mean that racial classification is a natural taxonomy of the human species, because multiple other genetic patterns can be found in human populations that crosscut racial distinctions. Moreover, the genomic data underdetermines whether one wishes to see subdivisions (i.e., splitters) or a continuum (i.e., lumpers). Under Kaplan and Winther's view, racial groupings are objective social constructions (see Mills 1998 ) that have conventional biological reality only insofar as the categories are chosen and constructed for pragmatic scientific reasons. In earlier work, Winther had identified "diversity partitioning" and "clustering analysis" as two separate methodologies, with distinct questions, assumptions, and protocols. Each is also associated with opposing ontological consequences vis-a-vis the metaphysics of race.
What word do many social scientists instead of race?
57292506af94a219006aa0ef
ethnicity
66
False
What had been used to justify discrimination, apartheid, slavery and genocide in WWII?
57292506af94a219006aa0f0
beliefs about race
329
False
When did the civil rights movement take place?
57292506af94a219006aa0f1
the 1960s
459
False
What movement gained momentum worldwide in the 60's?
57292506af94a219006aa0f2
anti-colonial
537
False
What type of reality do some believe race is a social construct corresponding to?
57292506af94a219006aa0f3
objective
686
False
Many social scientists have replaced the word race with the word "ethnicity" to refer to self-identifying groups based on beliefs concerning shared culture, ancestry and history. Alongside empirical and conceptual problems with "race", following the Second World War, evolutionary and social scientists were acutely aware of how beliefs about race had been used to justify discrimination, apartheid, slavery, and genocide. This questioning gained momentum in the 1960s during the U.S. civil rights movement and the emergence of numerous anti-colonial movements worldwide. They thus came to believe that race itself is a social construct, a concept that was believed to correspond to an objective reality but which was believed in because of its social functions.
What organization is Craig Venter and Francis Collins associated with?
5729259daf94a219006aa0f9
the National Institute of Health
36
False
What year was the announcement that the human genome had been mapped made in?
5729259daf94a219006aa0fa
2000
137
False
What doesn't the genetic variation within the human species support?
5729259daf94a219006aa0fb
notion of genetically defined races
372
False
What is a social concept, not a scientific one?
5729259daf94a219006aa0fc
Race
423
False
What happens when scientists try to apply science to sort out social differences?
5729259daf94a219006aa0fd
it all falls apart
675
False
Craig Venter and Francis Collins of the National Institute of Health jointly made the announcement of the mapping of the human genome in 2000. Upon examining the data from the genome mapping, Venter realized that although the genetic variation within the human species is on the order of 1–3% (instead of the previously assumed 1%), the types of variations do not support notion of genetically defined races. Venter said, "Race is a social concept. It's not a scientific one. There are no bright lines (that would stand out), if we could compare all the sequenced genomes of everyone on the planet." "When we try to apply science to try to sort out these social differences, it all falls apart."
Researchers from which university challenged the theory of race being only a social construct?
57292674af94a219006aa10d
Stanford
108
False
Where was the challenge to the theory of racing being a social construct published?
57292674af94a219006aa10e
the American Journal of Human Genetics
161
False
Neil Risch found a 99.9% agree between genetic structure and people's description of their what?
57292674af94a219006aa10f
self
449
False
What is a problematic category in addition to race?
57292674af94a219006aa110
sex
636
False
What may self-identification not correlate with precisely?
57292674af94a219006aa111
biology
769
False
The theory that race is merely a social construct has been challenged by the findings of researchers at the Stanford University School of Medicine, published in the American Journal of Human Genetics as "Genetic Structure, Self-Identified Race/Ethnicity, and Confounding in Case-Control Association Studies". One of the researchers, Neil Risch, noted: "we looked at the correlation between genetic structure [based on microsatellite markers] versus self-description, we found 99.9% concordance between the two. We actually had a higher discordance rate between self-reported sex and markers on the X chromosome! So you could argue that sex is also a problematic category. And there are differences between sex and gender; self-identification may not be correlated with biology perfectly. And there is sexism."
What country was race "Biologized" in?
572927316aef051400154ad4
Brazil
19
False
What wasn't racial identity governed by in Brazil?
572927316aef051400154ad5
rigid descent rule
204
False
What were Brazillian children never automatically identified with the type of?
572927316aef051400154ad6
racial
345
False
What may full siblings belong to?
572927316aef051400154ad7
different racial groups
501
False
What determines genotype?
572927316aef051400154ad8
ancestry
96
False
Basically, race in Brazil was "biologized", but in a way that recognized the difference between ancestry (which determines genotype) and phenotypic differences. There, racial identity was not governed by rigid descent rule, such as the one-drop rule, as it was in the United States. A Brazilian child was never automatically identified with the racial type of one or both parents, nor were there only a very limited number of categories to choose from, to the extent that full siblings can pertain to different racial groups.
How many racial categories would be needed with all the possible combinations of outward features?
572928253f37b31900478095
Over a dozen
0
False
What way would categories grade into each other, rather than being isolated from each other?
572928253f37b31900478096
like the colors of the spectrum
190
False
What did race refer to instead of heredity?
572928253f37b31900478097
appearance
330
False
What is appearance a poor indication of?
572928253f37b31900478098
ancestry
395
False
Where is there a lot of complexity in racial classifications?
572928253f37b31900478099
Brazil
688
False
Over a dozen racial categories would be recognized in conformity with all the possible combinations of hair color, hair texture, eye color, and skin color. These types grade into each other like the colors of the spectrum, and not one category stands significantly isolated from the rest. That is, race referred preferentially to appearance, not heredity, and appearance is a poor indication of ancestry, because only a few genes are responsible for someone's skin color and traits: a person who is considered white may have more African ancestry than a person who is considered black, and the reverse can be also true about European ancestry. The complexity of racial classifications in Brazil reflects the extent of miscegenation in Brazilian society, a society that remains highly, but not strictly, stratified along color lines. These socioeconomic factors are also significant to the limits of racial lines, because a minority of pardos, or brown people, are likely to start declaring themselves white or black if socially upward, and being seen as relatively "whiter" as their perceived social status increases (much as in other regions of Latin America).
What categories have an aspect of fluidity?
5729295d1d046914007790e9
racial
12
False
What are people with high quantities of Amerindian ancestry grouped as?
5729295d1d046914007790ea
caboclos
413
False
What's a rough translation of "pardos"?
5729295d1d046914007790eb
hillbilly
489
False
What do people with less than 60-65% of European descent usually cluster with?
5729295d1d046914007790ec
Afro-Brazilians
755
False
What percentage of Afro-Brazillian DNA is reported to be Subsaharan African?
5729295d1d046914007790ed
50%
966
False
Fluidity of racial categories aside, the "biologification" of race in Brazil referred above would match contemporary concepts of race in the United States quite closely, though, if Brazilians are supposed to choose their race as one among, Asian and Indigenous apart, three IBGE's census categories. While assimilated Amerindians and people with very high quantities of Amerindian ancestry are usually grouped as caboclos, a subgroup of pardos which roughly translates as both mestizo and hillbilly, for those of lower quantity of Amerindian descent a higher European genetic contribution is expected to be grouped as a pardo. In several genetic tests, people with less than 60-65% of European descent and 5-10% of Amerindian descent usually cluster with Afro-Brazilians (as reported by the individuals), or 6.9% of the population, and those with about 45% or more of Subsaharan contribution most times do so (in average, Afro-Brazilian DNA was reported to be about 50% Subsaharan African, 37% European and 13% Amerindian).
What would more people report themselves as if a more consistent report were considered?
57292a336aef051400154b12
white
413
False
What do people with a high quality of African descent classify themselves as?
57292a336aef051400154b13
mixed
366
False
How much of the population of Brazil reported themselves as pardo in 2010?
57292a336aef051400154b14
42.4%
450
False
Brazil's population is believed to have between what percentages of autosomal European ancestry?
57292a336aef051400154b15
65 and 80%
564
False
Brazil's population is thought to have greater than what percentage of European Y-DNA?
57292a336aef051400154b16
95%
653
False
If a more consistent report with the genetic groups in the gradation of miscegenation is to be considered (e.g. that would not cluster people with a balanced degree of African and non-African ancestry in the black group instead of the multiracial one, unlike elsewhere in Latin America where people of high quantity of African descent tend to classify themselves as mixed), more people would report themselves as white and pardo in Brazil (47.7% and 42.4% of the population as of 2010, respectively), because by research its population is believed to have between 65 and 80% of autosomal European ancestry, in average (also >35% of European mt-DNA and >95% of European Y-DNA).
What is roughly the amount of African slaves imported to Brazil?
57292ae1af94a219006aa141
3.5 million
129
False
What conditions did the African slaves in Brazil live in?
57292ae1af94a219006aa142
miserable
168
False
Most African descent in Brazil came from what sort of congress?
57292ae1af94a219006aa143
relations between white masters and female slaves
365
False
Between what years did Brazil welcome 5.5 million immigrants?
57292ae1af94a219006aa144
1821 and 1932
585
False
Between 1500 and 1760, how many Europeans settled in Brazil?
57292ae1af94a219006aa145
700.000
769
False
This is not surprising, though: While the greatest number of slaves imported from Africa were sent to Brazil, totalizing roughly 3.5 million people, they lived in such miserable conditions that male African Y-DNA there is significantly rare due to the lack of resources and time involved with raising of children, so that most African descent originarily came from relations between white masters and female slaves. From the last decades of the Empire until the 1950s, the proportion of the white population increased significantly while Brazil welcomed 5.5 million immigrants between 1821 and 1932, not much behind its neighbor Argentina with 6.4 million, and it received more European immigrants in its colonial history than the United States. Between 1500 and 1760, 700.000 Europeans settled in Brazil, while 530.000 Europeans settled in the United States for the same given time. Thus, the historical construction of race in Brazilian society dealt primarily with gradations between persons of majoritarily European ancestry and little minority groups with otherwise lower quantity therefrom in recent times.
Who uses the terms racial origin and ethnic origin interchangeably?
57292b8e6aef051400154b26
The European Union
0
False
What does using race as a category within the law legitimize?
57292b8e6aef051400154b27
its existence
335
False
In what context is the historical use of race underscored by its problematic nature?
57292b8e6aef051400154b28
European
555
False
Race is strongly associated with laws by what type of governments?
57292b8e6aef051400154b29
Fascist
720
False
In what year did the European Parliament adopt a resolution to remove "race" from all official texts?
57292b8e6aef051400154b2a
1996
789
False
The European Union uses the terms racial origin and ethnic origin synonymously in its documents and according to it "the use of the term 'racial origin' in this directive does not imply an acceptance of such [racial] theories".[full citation needed] Haney López warns that using "race" as a category within the law tends to legitimize its existence in the popular imagination. In the diverse geographic context of Europe, ethnicity and ethnic origin are arguably more resonant and are less encumbered by the ideological baggage associated with "race". In European context, historical resonance of "race" underscores its problematic nature. In some states, it is strongly associated with laws promulgated by the Nazi and Fascist governments in Europe during the 1930s and 1940s. Indeed, in 1996, the European Parliament adopted a resolution stating that "the term should therefore be avoided in all official texts".
What relies on the idea humans can be divided into biologically distinct races?
57292cb21d04691400779115
The concept of racial origin
0
False
What community rejects the idea there are biologically distinct races?
57292cb21d04691400779116
scientific
155
False
Why does the ECRI reject theories based on the existence of different races?
57292cb21d04691400779117
all human beings belong to the same species
183
False
What does the ECRI strive to make sure no one becomes?
57292cb21d04691400779118
excluded from the protection provided for by the legislation
524
False
The law penalizes situations where someone is treated less favourably on the ground of what?
57292cb21d04691400779119
race
629
False
The concept of racial origin relies on the notion that human beings can be separated into biologically distinct "races", an idea generally rejected by the scientific community. Since all human beings belong to the same species, the ECRI (European Commission against Racism and Intolerance) rejects theories based on the existence of different "races". However, in its Recommendation ECRI uses this term in order to ensure that those persons who are generally and erroneously perceived as belonging to "another race" are not excluded from the protection provided for by the legislation. The law claims to reject the existence of "race", yet penalize situations where someone is treated less favourably on this ground.
France has become a more ethnically diverse country since the end of which war?
57292d7f1d0469140077911f
Second World War
21
False
What percentage of the French population today is non-European?
57292d7f1d04691400779120
approximately five percent
95
False
What is the number of non-white citizens in the United States?
57292d7f1d04691400779121
roughly 28–37%
256
False
What issue has the existence of three million non-European people in France forced onto French policy agendas?
57292d7f1d04691400779122
ethnic diversity
441
False
What type of model of public policy does France maintain?
57292d7f1d04691400779123
color-blind
710
False
Since the end of the Second World War, France has become an ethnically diverse country. Today, approximately five percent of the French population is non-European and non-white. This does not approach the number of non-white citizens in the United States (roughly 28–37%, depending on how Latinos are classified; see Demographics of the United States). Nevertheless, it amounts to at least three million people, and has forced the issues of ethnic diversity onto the French policy agenda. France has developed an approach to dealing with ethnic problems that stands in contrast to that of many advanced, industrialized countries. Unlike the United States, Britain, or even the Netherlands, France maintains a "color-blind" model of public policy. This means that it targets virtually no policies directly at racial or ethnic groups. Instead, it uses geographic or class criteria to address issues of social inequalities. It has, however, developed an extensive anti-racist policy repertoire since the early 1970s. Until recently, French policies focused primarily on issues of hate speech—going much further than their American counterparts—and relatively less on issues of discrimination in jobs, housing, and in provision of goods and services.
Groups of people have been classified as belonging to difference races since what part of the U.S.'s history?
57292e273f37b319004780b5
early
10
False
What did efforts to track mixing between different groups lead to?
57292e273f37b319004780b6
a proliferation of categories
201
False
When did the criteria for membership in mixed race groups diverge?
57292e273f37b319004780b7
in the late 19th century
314
False
When did increasing numbers of Americans consider anyone with even a drop of "Black blood" to be Black?
57292e273f37b319004780b8
During Reconstruction
340
False
What is a particularly African-American experience because it's specific to only the United States?
57292e273f37b319004780b9
The one-drop rule
997
False
Since the early history of the United States, Amerindians, African–Americans, and European Americans have been classified as belonging to different races. Efforts to track mixing between groups led to a proliferation of categories, such as mulatto and octoroon. The criteria for membership in these races diverged in the late 19th century. During Reconstruction, increasing numbers of Americans began to consider anyone with "one drop" of known "Black blood" to be Black, regardless of appearance.3 By the early 20th century, this notion was made statutory in many states.4 Amerindians continue to be defined by a certain percentage of "Indian blood" (called blood quantum). To be White one had to have perceived "pure" White ancestry. The one-drop rule or hypodescent rule refers to the convention of defining a person as racially black if he or she has any known African ancestry. This rule meant that those that were mixed race but with some discernible African ancestry were defined as black. The one-drop rule is specific to not only those with African ancestry but to the United States, making it a particularly African-American experience.
When did the term "Hispanic" begin being used?
57292f37af94a219006aa167
the 20th century
46
False
What is the word "Latino" often used as a synonym for?
57292f37af94a219006aa168
Hispanic
234
False
How are the terms Hispanic and Latino not specific?
57292f37af94a219006aa169
non-race specific
279
False
What is common misconception in the US about what some national origins are?
57292f37af94a219006aa16a
races
596
False
Anglo can refer to non-Hispanic European Americans who speak English but are not necessarily what?
57292f37af94a219006aa16b
of English descent
789
False
The term "Hispanic" as an ethnonym emerged in the 20th century with the rise of migration of laborers from the Spanish-speaking countries of Latin America to the United States. Today, the word "Latino" is often used as a synonym for "Hispanic". The definitions of both terms are non-race specific, and include people who consider themselves to be of distinct races (Black, White, Amerindian, Asian, and mixed groups). However, there is a common misconception in the US that Hispanic/Latino is a race or sometimes even that national origins such as Mexican, Cuban, Colombian, Salvadoran, etc. are races. In contrast to "Latino" or "Hispanic", "Anglo" refers to non-Hispanic White Americans or non-Hispanic European Americans, most of whom speak the English language but are not necessarily of English descent.
What is the name of China's only anthropology journal?
5729307e6aef051400154b54
Acta Anthropologica Sinica
155
False
Who is the race concept widely used by?
5729307e6aef051400154b55
Chinese anthropologists
244
False
What is race a factor of for the ethnically diverse people of China?
5729307e6aef051400154b56
social cohesion
440
False
Why does race undermine social cohesion in America?
5729307f6aef051400154b57
sensitive issue
527
False
What are academics in China encouraged to use that their American counterparts are not?
5729307f6aef051400154b58
racial categories
728
False
Wang, Štrkalj et al. (2003) examined the use of race as a biological concept in research papers published in China's only biological anthropology journal, Acta Anthropologica Sinica. The study showed that the race concept was widely used among Chinese anthropologists. In a 2007 review paper, Štrkalj suggested that the stark contrast of the racial approach between the United States and China was due to the fact that race is a factor for social cohesion among the ethnically diverse people of China, whereas "race" is a very sensitive issue in America and the racial approach is considered to undermine social cohesion - with the result that in the socio-political context of US academics scientists are encouraged not to use racial categories, whereas in China they are encouraged to use them.
What years did Kaszycka survey Eureopean anthropolgists' opinions toward the biological race concept?
5729315c3f37b319004780d1
2002–2003
26
False
How many factors were found to be significant in differentiating the responses of European anthropologists?
5729315c3f37b319004780d2
Three
116
False
What did the people educated in Western Europe reject more frequently than those educated in Eastern Europe?
5729315c3f37b319004780d3
race
337
False
How are views on race influenced?
5729315c3f37b319004780d4
ideologically
548
False
What are views on race highly dependent on?
5729315c3f37b319004780d5
education
598
False
Kaszycka et al. (2009) in 2002–2003 surveyed European anthropologists' opinions toward the biological race concept. Three factors, country of academic education, discipline, and age, were found to be significant in differentiating the replies. Those educated in Western Europe, physical anthropologists, and middle-aged persons rejected race more frequently than those educated in Eastern Europe, people in other branches of science, and those from both younger and older generations." The survey shows that the views on race are sociopolitically (ideologically) influenced and highly dependent on education."
What does the current literature regarding human variation lack?
572931f26aef051400154b64
consensus
167
False
What do some studies use the word race in the sense of?
572931f26aef051400154b65
taxonomic
328
False
What term do some use to mean population, clade, or haplogroup?
572931f26aef051400154b66
race
376
False
What do some eschew altogether?
572931f26aef051400154b67
the concept of race
451
False
What is a less problematic unit of analysis?
572931f26aef051400154b68
concept of population
495
False
One result of debates over the meaning and validity of the concept of race is that the current literature across different disciplines regarding human variation lacks consensus, though within some fields, such as some branches of anthropology, there is strong consensus. Some studies use the word race in its early essentialist taxonomic sense. Many others still use the term race, but use it to mean a population, clade, or haplogroup. Others eschew the concept of race altogether, and use the concept of population as a less problematic unit of analysis.
Where is Eduardo Bonilla-Silver a Sociology professor?
572932863f37b319004780ed
Duke University
46
False
What does Bonilla-Silva contend racism is about more than anything else?
572932863f37b319004780ee
group power
136
False
Who does Bonilla-Silva think is the dominant racial group?
572932863f37b319004780ef
whites
186
False
What idea does color-blind racism thrive on?
572932863f37b319004780f0
that race is no longer an issue
468
False
What exists between the alleged color-blindness of most whites and the persistence of a system of inequality?
572932863f37b319004780f1
contradictions
532
False
Eduardo Bonilla-Silva, Sociology professor at Duke University, remarks, "I contend that racism is, more than anything else, a matter of group power; it is about a dominant racial group (whites) striving to maintain its systemic advantages and minorities fighting to subvert the racial status quo."  The types of practices that take place under this new color-blind racism is subtle, institutionalized, and supposedly not racial. Color-blind racism thrives on the idea that race is no longer an issue in the United States. There are contradictions between the alleged color-blindness of most whites and the persistence of a color-coded system of inequality.
What concept's use has declined significantly in the U.S. during the 20th century?
572933831d04691400779159
biological race
15
False
The majority of what group in the U.S. has rejected the concept of biological races?
572933831d0469140077915a
physical anthropologists
163
False
What textbooks introducing anthropology have rejected race as a valid concept since 1932?
572933831d0469140077915b
college
292
False
How many books out of 33, from 1975 to 1984, rejected race?
572933831d0469140077915c
thirteen
465
False
What percentage of articles in 1996 employed a bio-race paradigm?
572933831d0469140077915d
28 percent
802
False
The concept of biological race has declined significantly in frequency of use in physical anthropology in the United States during the 20th century. A majority of physical anthropologists in the United States have rejected the concept of biological races. Since 1932, an increasing number of college textbooks introducing physical anthropology have rejected race as a valid concept: from 1932 to 1976, only seven out of thirty-two rejected race; from 1975 to 1984, thirteen out of thirty-three rejected race; from 1985 to 1993, thirteen out of nineteen rejected race. According to one academic journal entry, where 78 percent of the articles in the 1931 Journal of Physical Anthropology employed these or nearly synonymous terms reflecting a bio-race paradigm, only 36 percent did so in 1965, and just 28 percent did in 1996.
What group of anthropologists overwhelmingly support the idea of human races?
5729347aaf94a219006aa18f
forensic
75
False
What does George W. Gill think about the veracity of the idea that race is only skin deep?
5729347aaf94a219006aa190
simply not true
307
False
What are probably the primary forces of nature which shaped human races?
5729347aaf94a219006aa191
selective forces of climate
521
False
What does Gill think the complete denial of opposing evidence stems from?
5729347aaf94a219006aa192
socio-political motivation
918
False
What does Gill attribute the lack of presenting the perspective as a possibility to?
5729347aaf94a219006aa193
politically motivated censorship
1237
False
According to the 2000 edition of a popular physical anthropology textbook, forensic anthropologists are overwhelmingly in support of the idea of the basic biological reality of human races. Forensic physical anthropologist and professor George W. Gill has said that the idea that race is only skin deep "is simply not true, as any experienced forensic anthropologist will affirm" and "Many morphological features tend to follow geographic boundaries coinciding often with climatic zones. This is not surprising since the selective forces of climate are probably the primary forces of nature that have shaped human races with regard not only to skin color and hair form but also the underlying bony structures of the nose, cheekbones, etc. (For example, more prominent noses humidify air better.)" While he can see good arguments for both sides, the complete denial of the opposing evidence "seems to stem largely from socio-political motivation and not science at all". He also states that many biological anthropologists see races as real yet "not one introductory textbook of physical anthropology even presents that perspective as a possibility. In a case as flagrant as this, we are not dealing with science but rather with blatant, politically motivated censorship".
What type of anthropology is "race" sometimes still used within?
5729355b1d0469140077916d
forensic
38
False
What term would Brace prefer forensic anthropologists use?
5729355b1d0469140077916e
regional ancestry
312
False
What can forensic anthropologists determine about the ancestors of someone from their skeletal remains?
5729355b1d0469140077916f
specific region
454
False
What does Brace feel the term "black" in meaningful in?
5729355b1d04691400779170
particular context
591
False
Why is it bad that a category is merely socially constructed?
5729355b1d04691400779171
is not itself scientifically valid
642
False
"Race" is still sometimes used within forensic anthropology (when analyzing skeletal remains), biomedical research, and race-based medicine. Brace has criticized this, the practice of forensic anthropologists for using the controversial concept "race" out of convention when they in fact should be talking about regional ancestry. He argues that while forensic anthropologists can determine that a skeletal remain comes from a person with ancestors in a specific region of Africa, categorizing that skeletal as being "black" is a socially constructed category that is only meaningful in the particular context of the United States, and which is not itself scientifically valid.
How many college textbooks in biology did the authors of the study examine?
57293627af94a219006aa199
77
39
False
Up until when did physical anthropology texts still argue that biological races exist?
57293627af94a219006aa19a
the 1970s
205
False
What did biology textbooks drop altogether?
57293627af94a219006aa19b
their discussion of race
354
False
What were biologists trying to avoid discussing the political implications of?
57293627af94a219006aa19c
racial classifications
490
False
What did Douglas J. Futuyama consider the concept of race as not only being socially dysfunctional but this as well?
57293627af94a219006aa19d
biologically indefensible
992
False
The authors of the study also examined 77 college textbooks in biology and 69 in physical anthropology published between 1932 and 1989. Physical anthropology texts argued that biological races exist until the 1970s, when they began to argue that races do not exist. In contrast, biology textbooks did not undergo such a reversal but many instead dropped their discussion of race altogether. The authors attributed this to biologists trying to avoid discussing the political implications of racial classifications, instead of discussing them, and to the ongoing discussions in biology about the validity of the concept "subspecies". The authors also noted that some widely used textbooks in biology such as Douglas J. Futuyama's 1986 "Evolutionary Biology" had abandoned the race concept, "The concept of race, masking the overwhelming genetic similarity of all peoples and the mosaic patterns of variation that do not correspond to racial divisions, is not only socially dysfunctional but is biologically indefensible as well (pp. 5 18-5 19)." (Lieberman et al. 1992, pp. 316–17)
What did Morning find when he looked at biology textbooks during the 1952-2002 period?
57293a28af94a219006aa1bf
similar pattern
105
False
How many of the textbooks between 1983 and 1992 discussed race?
57293a28af94a219006aa1c0
35%
131
False
After 1992, what did the percentage of textbooks discussing race increase to?
57293a28af94a219006aa1c1
43%
262
False
What percentage have discussions of race in the context of medical disorders increased from zero to?
57293a28af94a219006aa1c2
93%
375
False
What does the study argue about the fundamental message regarding the existence of races?
57293a28af94a219006aa1c3
changed little
584
False
Morning (2008) looked at high school biology textbooks during the 1952-2002 period and initially found a similar pattern with only 35% directly discussing race in the 1983–92 period from initially 92% doing so. However, this has increased somewhat after this to 43%. More indirect and brief discussions of race in the context of medical disorders have increased from none to 93% of textbooks. In general, the material on race has moved from surface traits to genetics and evolutionary history. The study argues that the textbooks' fundamental message about the existence of races has changed little.
Who promotes the use of racially categorized data in the United States?
57293bbeaf94a219006aa1c9
federal government
22
False
What has race sometimes been used in clinical settings to diagnose and treat?
57293bbeaf94a219006aa1ca
medical conditions
261
False
What have doctors noted about some medical conditions in certain racial groups?
57293bbeaf94a219006aa1cb
more prevalent
333
False
What fueled the recent interest in race-based medicine?
57293bbeaf94a219006aa1cc
proliferation of human genetic data
551
False
What do proponents of the use of racial categories in biomedicine think it makes possible?
57293bbeaf94a219006aa1cd
application of new genetic findings,
972
False
In the United States, federal government policy promotes the use of racially categorized data to identify and address health disparities between racial or ethnic groups. In clinical settings, race has sometimes been considered in the diagnosis and treatment of medical conditions. Doctors have noted that some medical conditions are more prevalent in certain racial or ethnic groups than in others, without being sure of the cause of those differences. Recent interest in race-based medicine, or race-targeted pharmacogenomics, has been fueled by the proliferation of human genetic data which followed the decoding of the human genome in the first decade of the twenty-first century. There is an active debate among biomedical researchers about the meaning and importance of race in their research. Proponents of the use of racial categories in biomedicine argue that continued use of racial categorizations in biomedical research and clinical practice makes possible the application of new genetic findings, and provides a clue to diagnosis.
What does finding a difference in disease prevalence between two socially defined groups not necessarily imply?
57293db73f37b3190047817b
genetic causation of the difference
139
False
What do some research suggest medical practices should maintain their focus on?
57293db73f37b3190047817c
the individual
243
False
What is a risk of overemphasizing genetic contributions to health issues?
57293db73f37b3190047817d
reinforcing stereotypes
417
False
What is makes more of a difference than race in health outcomes for "race specific" diseases?
57293db73f37b3190047817e
living conditions
579
False
What have some studies found patients reluctant to accept in medical practice?
57293db73f37b3190047817f
racial categorization
779
False
Other researchers point out that finding a difference in disease prevalence between two socially defined groups does not necessarily imply genetic causation of the difference. They suggest that medical practices should maintain their focus on the individual rather than an individual's membership to any group. They argue that overemphasizing genetic contributions to health disparities carries various risks such as reinforcing stereotypes, promoting racism or ignoring the contribution of non-genetic factors to health disparities. International epidemiological data show that living conditions rather than race make the biggest difference in health outcomes even for diseases that have "race-specific" treatments. Some studies have found that patients are reluctant to accept racial categorization in medical practice.
What does the FBI feel providing general descriptions helps to facilitate?
572940edaf94a219006aa1ef
job of law enforcement officers
70
False
What does the FBI employ the term race to summarize?
572940edaf94a219006aa1f0
general appearance
196
False
What does law enforcement feel appearance characteristics of individuals help them do to those individuals?
572940edaf94a219006aa1f1
apprehend
343
False
What is more important for law enforcement in categorizing instead of DNA?
572940edaf94a219006aa1f2
arrive at a description
438
False
What does a description of a wanted individual include beyond their racial category?
572940edaf94a219006aa1f3
height, weight, eye color, scars and other distinguishing characteristics.
713
False
In an attempt to provide general descriptions that may facilitate the job of law enforcement officers seeking to apprehend suspects, the United States FBI employs the term "race" to summarize the general appearance (skin color, hair texture, eye shape, and other such easily noticed characteristics) of individuals whom they are attempting to apprehend. From the perspective of law enforcement officers, it is generally more important to arrive at a description that will readily suggest the general appearance of an individual than to make a scientifically valid categorization by DNA or other such means. Thus, in addition to assigning a wanted individual to a racial category, such a description will include: height, weight, eye color, scars and other distinguishing characteristics.
How many separate classification systems do agencies in England and Wales use?
572941bb1d04691400779203
at least two
51
False
When did individuals self-identify as belonging to a particular ethnic group?
572941bb1d04691400779204
the 2001 Census
170
False
How do police identify someone as belonging to an ethnic group?
572941bb1d04691400779205
visually
710
False
What does IC stand for?
572941bb1d04691400779206
Identification Code
1011
False
What ethnicity term was one problem cited about the number of reports containing it?
572941bb1d04691400779207
Not Stated
1563
False
Criminal justice agencies in England and Wales use at least two separate racial/ethnic classification systems when reporting crime, as of 2010. One is the system used in the 2001 Census when individuals identify themselves as belonging to a particular ethnic group: W1 (White-British), W2 (White-Irish), W9 (Any other white background); M1 (White and black Caribbean), M2 (White and black African), M3 (White and Asian), M9 (Any other mixed background); A1 (Asian-Indian), A2 (Asian-Pakistani), A3 (Asian-Bangladeshi), A9 (Any other Asian background); B1 (Black Caribbean), B2 (Black African), B3 (Any other black background); O1 (Chinese), O9 (Any other). The other is categories used by the police when they visually identify someone as belonging to an ethnic group, e.g. at the time of a stop and search or an arrest: White – North European (IC1), White – South European (IC2), Black (IC3), Asian (IC4), Chinese, Japanese, or South East Asian (IC5), Middle Eastern (IC6), and Unknown (IC0). "IC" stands for "Identification Code;" these items are also referred to as Phoenix classifications. Officers are instructed to "record the response that has been given" even if the person gives an answer which may be incorrect; their own perception of the person's ethnic background is recorded separately. Comparability of the information being recorded by officers was brought into question by the Office for National Statistics (ONS) in September 2007, as part of its Equality Data Review; one problem cited was the number of reports that contained an ethnicity of "Not Stated."
Where has the practice of racial profiling been ruled to be unconstitutional?
572942763f37b319004781b7
United States
7
False
What is a violation of civil rights in the United States?
572942763f37b319004781b8
racial profiling
38
False
What do many consider an example of institutional racism in law enforcement?
572942763f37b319004781b9
de facto racial profiling
295
False
How has the misuse of racial categories historically impacted one or more groups?
572942763f37b319004781ba
adversely
429
False
What has impacted the debate on the legitimate use of known phenotypical characteristics?
572942763f37b319004781bb
misuse of racial categories
391
False
In the United States, the practice of racial profiling has been ruled to be both unconstitutional and a violation of civil rights. There is active debate regarding the cause of a marked correlation between the recorded crimes, punishments meted out, and the country's populations. Many consider de facto racial profiling an example of institutional racism in law enforcement. The history of misuse of racial categories to impact adversely one or more groups and/or to offer protection and advantage to another has a clear impact on debate of the legitimate use of known phenotypical or genotypical characteristics tied to the presumed race of both victims and perpetrators by the government.
What impacts African American and Latino communities in disproportionate numbers?
572944df6aef051400154c24
Mass incarceration
0
False
Who is the author of "The New Jim Crow: Mass Incarceration in the Age of Colorblindness"?
572944df6aef051400154c25
Michelle Alexander
108
False
What type of bars and walls beyond physical ones does Alexander think people are behind?
572944df6aef051400154c26
virtual
571
False
Who does Alexander think a second class citizenship is imposed upon disproportionately?
572944df6aef051400154c27
people of color
694
False
What type of caste system is mass incarceration compared to?
572944df6aef051400154c28
racial
819
False
Mass incarceration in the United States disproportionately impacts African American and Latino communities. Michelle Alexander, author of The New Jim Crow: Mass Incarceration in the Age of Colorblindness (2010), argues that mass incarceration is best understood as not only a system of overcrowded prisons. Mass incarceration is also, "the larger web of laws, rules, policies, and customs that control those labeled criminals both in and out of prison." She defines it further as "a system that locks people not only behind actual bars in actual prisons, but also behind virtual bars and virtual walls", illustrating the second-class citizenship that is imposed on a disproportionate number of people of color, specifically African-Americans. She compares mass incarceration to Jim Crow laws, stating that both work as racial caste systems.
What morphological features do forensic anthropologists draw on?
5729458baf94a219006aa22d
highly heritable
44
False
What measurement can aid in the identification of a human body?
5729458baf94a219006aa22e
cranial
107
False
Who noted in a 1992 article that anthropologists had generally abandoned the concept of race as valid?
5729458baf94a219006aa22f
Norman Sauer
233
False
What group still uses race as a valid means to represent human biological diversity?
5729458baf94a219006aa230
forensic anthropologists
452
False
What are forensic anthropologists very good at identifying?
5729458baf94a219006aa231
races
425
False
Similarly, forensic anthropologists draw on highly heritable morphological features of human remains (e.g. cranial measurements) to aid in the identification of the body, including in terms of race. In a 1992 article, anthropologist Norman Sauer noted that anthropologists had generally abandoned the concept of race as a valid representation of human biological diversity, except for forensic anthropologists. He asked, "If races don't exist, why are forensic anthropologists so good at identifying them?" He concluded:
What does mapping clusters disentangle ancestry from?
572946336aef051400154c42
culture
157
False
Hammer and others recently aimed to test what claim about how closely related present-day Jews are to what group?
572946336aef051400154c43
neighbouring non-Jewish populations
356
False
What shifted depending on the locus investigated?
572946336aef051400154c44
the degree of genetic similarity among Jews
418
False
What was suggested the reason for the degree of genetic shift among Jews was the result of?
572946336aef051400154c45
natural selection acting on particular loci
549
False
What chromosome was focused on to circumvent some of the complications associated with selection?
572946336aef051400154c46
Y
630
False
Abu el-Haj argues that genomics and the mapping of lineages and clusters liberates "the new racial science from the older one by disentangling ancestry from culture and capacity."[citation needed] As an example, she refers to recent work by Hammer et al., which aimed to test the claim that present-day Jews are more closely related to one another than to neighbouring non-Jewish populations. Hammer et al. found that the degree of genetic similarity among Jews shifted depending on the locus investigated, and suggested that this was the result of natural selection acting on particular loci. They focused on the non-recombining Y-chromosome to "circumvent some of the complications associated with selection".
Thomas and others sought to distinguish between what chromosome of Jewish priests and that of non-Jews?
572947453f37b319004781f9
Y
95
False
What does the new "race science" call attention to the importance of?
572947453f37b319004781fa
ancestry
343
False
What do people desire to use science to confirm?
572947453f37b319004781fb
their claims about ancestry
498
False
What is fundamentally different from older notions of race?
572947453f37b319004781fc
race science
533
False
How were older notions of race used?
572947453f37b319004781fd
to explain differences in human behaviour or social status
629
False
As another example, she points to work by Thomas et al., who sought to distinguish between the Y chromosomes of Jewish priests (Kohanim), (in Judaism, membership in the priesthood is passed on through the father's line) and the Y chromosomes of non-Jews. Abu el-Haj concluded that this new "race science" calls attention to the importance of "ancestry" (narrowly defined, as it does not include all ancestors) in some religions and in popular culture, and people's desire to use science to confirm their claims about ancestry; this "race science", she argues, is fundamentally different from older notions of race that were used to explain differences in human behaviour or social status:
What is a problem with racial assignments?
572947f33f37b31900478203
admixture
38
False
How many people have a varied ancestry?
572947f33f37b31900478204
Many
49
False
When were periods of numerous interracial relationships in the U.S.?
572947f33f37b31900478205
colonial and early federal history
127
False
Who do many people who identify as white have for ancestors?
572947f33f37b31900478206
African
409
False
What percentage of African ancestry were 30% of college students identifying as white estimated to have?
572947f33f37b31900478207
10%
560
False
One problem with these assignments is admixture. Many people have a highly varied ancestry. For example, in the United States, colonial and early federal history were periods of numerous interracial relationships, both outside and inside slavery. This has resulted in a majority of people who identify as African American having some European ancestors. Similarly, many people who identify as white have some African ancestors. In a survey in a northeastern U.S. university of college students who identified as "white", about 30% were estimated to have up to 10% African ancestry.
Paris
What is the aggregate population of Paris?
5728b2912ca10214002da5fa
10,550,350
171
False
From what census is this information from?
5728b2912ca10214002da5fb
2012 census
188
False
What is the population of Paris' metropolitan area?
5728b2912ca10214002da5fc
12,341,418
282
False
How many kilometers does the administrative region cover?
5728b2912ca10214002da5fd
12,012 km²
388
False
As of 2014 how many inhabitants lived in the administrative region?
5728b2912ca10214002da5fe
12 million
431
False
Since the 19th century, the built-up area of Paris has grown far beyond its administrative borders; together with its suburbs, the whole agglomeration has a population of 10,550,350 (Jan. 2012 census). Paris' metropolitan area spans most of the Paris region and has a population of 12,341,418 (Jan. 2012 census), or one-fifth of the population of France. The administrative region covers 12,012 km² (4,638 mi²), with approximately 12 million inhabitants as of 2014, and has its own regional council and president.
What is the most visited art museum in the world?
5728b348ff5b5019007da4d4
Louvre
67
False
what is the Musee de Orsay known for?
5728b348ff5b5019007da4d5
French Impressionist art
133
False
In what year was the Eiffel Tower built?
5728b348ff5b5019007da4d6
1889
382
False
How many visitors did Paris receive in 2014?
5728b348ff5b5019007da4d7
22.4 million
465
False
In what century was the Notre Dame Cathedral built?
5728b348ff5b5019007da4d8
12th
313
False
Paris is the home of the most visited art museum in the world, the Louvre, as well as the Musée d'Orsay, noted for its collection of French Impressionist art, and the Musée National d'Art Moderne, a museum of modern and contemporary art. The notable architectural landmarks of Paris include Notre Dame Cathedral (12th century); the Sainte-Chapelle (13th century); the Eiffel Tower (1889); and the Basilica of Sacré-Cœur on Montmartre (1914). In 2014 Paris received 22.4 million visitors, making it one of the world's top tourist destinations. Paris is also known for its fashion, particularly the twice-yearly Paris Fashion Week, and for its haute cuisine, and three-star restaurants. Most of France's major universities and grandes écoles are located in Paris, as are France's major newspapers, including Le Monde, Le Figaro, and Libération.
What is the name of the football club in Paris?
5728b510ff5b5019007da51a
Paris Saint-Germain
47
False
What is the name of the rugby union in Paris?
5728b510ff5b5019007da51b
Stade Français
92
False
How many seats are in Stade de France?
5728b510ff5b5019007da51c
80,000
112
False
In what year did Paris host the World Cup?
5728b510ff5b5019007da51d
2007
435
False
In what month is the Tour de France?
5728b510ff5b5019007da51e
July
463
False
Paris is home to the association football club Paris Saint-Germain and the rugby union club Stade Français. The 80,000-seat Stade de France, built for the 1998 FIFA World Cup, is located just north of Paris in the commune of Saint-Denis. Paris hosts the annual French Open Grand Slam tennis tournament on the red clay of Roland Garros. Paris played host to the 1900 and 1924 Summer Olympics, the 1938 and 1998 FIFA World Cups, and the 2007 Rugby World Cup. Every July, the Tour de France of cycling finishes in the city.
What was Paris known as in Latin?
5728b6a6ff5b5019007da534
Parisius
69
False
In what century was Christianity introduced?
5728b6a6ff5b5019007da535
3rd
157
False
Who brought Christianity to Paris?
5728b6a6ff5b5019007da536
Saint Denis
215
False
What is the name of Saint Denis burial place?
5728b6a6ff5b5019007da537
Basilica of Saint-Denis
471
False
Where was Saint Denis beheaded?
5728b6a6ff5b5019007da538
Mountain of Martyrs
349
False
By the end of the Western Roman Empire, the town was known simply as Parisius in Latin and Paris in French. Christianity was introduced in the middle of the 3rd century AD. According to tradition, it was brought by Saint Denis, the first Bishop of Paris. When he refused to renounce his faith, he was beheaded on the hill which became known as the "Mountain of Martyrs" (Mons Martyrum), eventually "Montmartre". His burial place became an important religious shrine; the Basilica of Saint-Denis was built there and became the burial place of the French Kings.
who was the first king of the Merovingian dynasty?
5728bc102ca10214002da6b6
Clovis the Frank
0
False
In what year was Hugh Capet elected as king?
5728bc102ca10214002da6b7
987
485
False
What helped establish a successful defense in the Siege of Paris?
5728bc102ca10214002da6b8
bridges
374
False
The domination of what helped create the Parisian dialect?
5728bc102ca10214002da6b9
Gaul
203
False
Clovis the Frank, the first king of the Merovingian dynasty, made the city his capital from 508. A gradual immigration by the Franks also occurred in Paris in the beginning of the Frankish domination of Gaul which created the Parisian Francien dialects. Fortification of the Île-de-France failed to prevent sacking by Vikings in 845 but Paris' strategic importance—with its bridges preventing ships from passing—was established by successful defence in the Siege of Paris (885–86). In 987 Hugh Capet, Count of Paris (comte de Paris), Duke of the Franks (duc des Francs) was elected King of the Franks (roi des Franks). Under the rule of the Capetian kings, Paris gradually became the largest and most prosperous city in France.
What was the site of the royal palace in the 12th century?
5728bf3a2ca10214002da6d2
Île de la Cité
121
False
Who was in charge of the construction of the Notre Dame Cathedral?
5728bf3a2ca10214002da6d3
Maurice de Sully
210
False
Where was the University of Paris located?
5728bf3a2ca10214002da6d4
The Left Bank
326
False
Under who's reign was the construction of Notre Dame Cathedral?
5728bf3a2ca10214002da6d5
Louis VII
199
False
By the end of the 12th century, Paris had become the political, economic, religious, and cultural capital of France. The Île de la Cité was the site of the royal palace. In 1163, during the reign of Louis VII, Maurice de Sully, bishop of Paris, undertook the construction of the Notre Dame Cathedral at its eastern extremity. The Left Bank was the site of the University of Paris, a corporation of students and teachers formed in the mid-12th century to train scholars first in theology, and later in canon law, medicine and the arts.
In what years did the English soldiers occupy Paris during the Hundred Years War?
5728bfe53acd2414000dfd99
1420 until 1436
138
False
Who tried to liberate the city in 1429?
5728bfe53acd2414000dfd9a
Joan of Arc
183
False
What was the date of the St. Bartholomew's Day massacre?
5728bfe53acd2414000dfd9b
24 August 1572
328
False
In what year was Henri IV assassinated?
5728bfe53acd2414000dfd9c
1610
748
False
Who was responsible for rebuilding Paris in the 1600's
5728bfe53acd2414000dfd9d
Henry IV
754
False
During the Hundred Years' War, the army of the Duke of Burgundy and a force of about two hundred English soldiers occupied Paris from May 1420 until 1436. They repelled an attempt by Joan of Arc to liberate the city in 1429. A century later, during the French Wars of Religion, Paris was a stronghold of the Catholic League. On 24 August 1572, Paris was the site of the St. Bartholomew's Day massacre, when thousands of French Protestants were killed. The last of these wars, the eighth one, ended in 1594, after Henri IV had converted to Catholicism and was finally able to enter Paris as he supposedly declared Paris vaut bien une messe ("Paris is well worth a Mass"). The city had been neglected for decades; by the time of his assassination in 1610, Henry IV had rebuilt the Pont Neuf, the first Paris bridge with sidewalks and not lined with buildings, linked with a new wing the Louvre to the Tuileries Palace, and created the first Paris residential square, the Place Royale, now Place des Vosges.
In what year did Louis XIV move his court to Versailles?
5728c068ff5b5019007da5f8
1682
72
False
What monuments did Louis XIV have constructed?
5728c068ff5b5019007da5f9
Collège des Quatre-Nations, Place Vendôme, Place des Victoires, and began Les Invalides.
468
False
What was the reason behind demolishing the city walls?
5728c068ff5b5019007da5fa
To show that the city was safe against attack
302
False
In what city was the French Academy of Science founded
5728c068ff5b5019007da5fb
Paris
158
False
Louis XIV distrusted the Parisians and moved his court to Versailles in 1682, but his reign also saw an unprecedented flourishing of the arts and sciences in Paris. The Comédie-Française, the Academy of Painting, and the French Academy of Sciences were founded and made their headquarters in the city. To show that the city was safe against attack, he had the city walls demolished, replacing them with Grands Boulevards. To leave monuments to his reign, he built the Collège des Quatre-Nations, Place Vendôme, Place des Victoires, and began Les Invalides.
Where did Louis XVI and his family live?
5728c0daff5b5019007da600
Tuileries Palace
91
False
When did Napoleon Bonaparte gain power as the First Consul?
5728c0daff5b5019007da601
9 November 1799
478
False
Approximately how many people were executed during the Reign of Terror?
5728c0daff5b5019007da602
16,000
236
False
Louis XVI and the royal family were brought to Paris and made virtual prisoners within the Tuileries Palace. In 1793, as the revolution turned more and more radical, the king, queen, and the mayor were guillotined, along with more than 16,000 others (throughout France), during the Reign of Terror. The property of the aristocracy and the church was nationalised, and the city's churches were closed, sold or demolished. A succession of revolutionary factions ruled Paris until 9 November 1799 (coup d'état du 18 brumaire), when Napoléon Bonaparte seized power as First Consul.
In what year was Louis-Phillipe over thrown?
5728c1482ca10214002da71a
1848
79
False
In what year did Napoleon III create new arrondissements?
5728c1482ca10214002da71b
1860
385
False
Who was Napoleon III's prefect of the Siene?
5728c1482ca10214002da71c
Georges-Eugène Haussmann
160
False
Louis-Philippe was overthrown by a popular uprising in the streets of Paris in 1848. His successor, Napoleon III, and the newly appointed prefect of the Seine, Georges-Eugène Haussmann, launched a gigantic public works project to build wide new boulevards, a new opera house, a central market, new aqueducts, sewers, and parks, including the Bois de Boulogne and Bois de Vincennes. In 1860, Napoleon III also annexed the surrounding towns and created eight new arrondissements, expanding Paris to its current limits.
What type of art did Courbet, Manet, Monet and Renoir create?
5728c2beff5b5019007da618
Impressionism
458
False
What was the purpose of the 1889 Universal Exposition?
5728c2beff5b5019007da619
to mark the centennial of the French Revolution
116
False
Where was the Eiffel Tower revealed?
5728c2beff5b5019007da61a
1889 Universal Exposition
80
False
What type of art was created by Charles Baudelaire and Paul Verlaine?
5728c2beff5b5019007da61b
Symbolism
401
False
Late in the 19th century, Paris hosted two major international expositions: the 1889 Universal Exposition, was held to mark the centennial of the French Revolution and featured the new Eiffel Tower; and the 1900 Universal Exposition, which gave Paris the Pont Alexandre III, the Grand Palais, the Petit Palais and the first Paris Métro line. Paris became the laboratory of Naturalism (Émile Zola) and Symbolism (Charles Baudelaire and Paul Verlaine), and of Impressionism in art (Courbet, Manet, Monet, Renoir.)
How many soldiers did Parisian Taxis transport to the front line at the First Battle of the Marne?
5728c34cff5b5019007da62a
6,000
167
False
What are the years after the war commonly known as?
5728c34cff5b5019007da62b
Les Années Folles
348
False
Who are some popular artists, writers and musicians that resided in Paris after the war?
5728c34cff5b5019007da62c
Ernest Hemingway, Igor Stravinsky, James Joyce, Josephine Baker, Sidney Bechet and the surrealist Salvador Dalí.
465
False
During the First World War, Paris sometimes found itself on the front line; 600 to 1,000 Paris taxis played a small but highly important symbolic role in transporting 6,000 soldiers to the front line at the First Battle of the Marne. The city was also bombed by Zeppelins and shelled by German long-range guns. In the years after the war, known as Les Années Folles, Paris continued to be a mecca for writers, musicians and artists from around the world, including Ernest Hemingway, Igor Stravinsky, James Joyce, Josephine Baker, Sidney Bechet and the surrealist Salvador Dalí.
On what date did the German army declare Paris as an open city?
5728c3cf2ca10214002da73a
14 June 1940
3
False
How many Jews were arrested following German orders?
5728c3cf2ca10214002da73b
12,884
179
False
Where were the Jews confined prior to being transported to Auschwitz?
5728c3cf2ca10214002da73c
Vel d'Hiv
260
False
How many children came back from Auschwitz?
5728c3cf2ca10214002da73d
None
373
False
On what date was the city liberated?
5728c3cf2ca10214002da73e
25 August 1944
408
False
On 14 June 1940, the German army marched into Paris, which had been declared an "open city". On 16–17 July 1942, following German orders, the French police and gendarmes arrested 12,884 Jews, including 4,115 children, and confined them during five days at the Vel d'Hiv (Vélodrome d'Hiver), from which they were transported by train to the extermination camp at Auschwitz. None of the children came back. On 25 August 1944, the city was liberated by the French 2nd Armoured Division and the 4th Infantry Division of the United States Army. General Charles de Gaulle led a huge and emotional crowd down the Champs Élysées towards Notre Dame de Paris, and made a rousing speech from the Hôtel de Ville.
How many police officers did the pro-independence FLN kill in August of 1961?
5728c533ff5b5019007da65a
11
150
False
What was the result of the police officer killing?
5728c533ff5b5019007da65b
curfew on Muslims of Algeria
201
False
How many people were killed during the demonstrations against the curfew?
5728c533ff5b5019007da65c
at least 40
453
False
Who carried out bombings throughout Paris between 1961 and 1962?
5728c533ff5b5019007da65d
Organisation de l'armée secrète
545
False
In the 1950s and the 1960s, Paris became one front of the Algerian War for independence; in August 1961, the pro-independence FLN targeted and killed 11 Paris policemen, leading to the imposition of a curfew on Muslims of Algeria (who, at that time, were French citizens). On 17 October 1961, an unauthorised but peaceful protest demonstration of Algerians against the curfew led to violent confrontations between the police and demonstrators, in which at least 40 people were killed, including some thrown into the Seine. The anti-independence Organisation de l'armée secrète (OAS), for their part, carried out a series of bombings in Paris throughout 1961 and 1962.
In what year was the Centre Georges Pompidou erected?
5728c5bc4b864d1900164dc6
1977
165
False
What did Valery Giscard d'Estaing have erected?
5728c5bc4b864d1900164dc7
Musée d'Orsay
207
False
How many years was Francois Mitterrand in power?
5728c5bc4b864d1900164dc8
14
273
False
What did Jacques Chirac have built?
5728c5bc4b864d1900164dc9
Musée du quai Branly
497
False
In what year was the Musee de quai Branly built?
5728c5bc4b864d1900164dca
2006
486
False
Most of the postwar's presidents of the Fifth Republic wanted to leave their own monuments in Paris; President Georges Pompidou started the Centre Georges Pompidou (1977), Valéry Giscard d'Estaing began the Musée d'Orsay (1986); President François Mitterrand, in power for 14 years, built the Opéra Bastille (1985-1989), the Bibliothèque nationale de France (1996), the Arche de la Défense (1985-1989), and the Louvre Pyramid with its underground courtyard (1983-1989); Jacques Chirac (2006), the Musée du quai Branly.
What was the population of Paris in 2011?
5728c63d2ca10214002da792
2.25 million
136
False
Who was the first socialist mayor of Paris?
5728c63d2ca10214002da793
Bertrand Delanoë
173
False
What is the system called that allows local residents to rent bicycles?
5728c63d2ca10214002da794
Vélib'
308
False
When was the Promenade des Berges de la Seine inaugurated?
5728c63d2ca10214002da795
June 2013
579
False
In the early 21st century, the population of Paris began to increase slowly again, as more young people moved into the city. It reached 2.25 million in 2011. In March 2001, Bertrand Delanoë became the first socialist mayor of Paris. In 2007, in an effort to reduce car traffic in the city, he introduced the Vélib', a system which rents bicycles for the use of local residents and visitors. Bertrand Delanoë also transformed a section of the highway along the left bank of the Seine into an urban promenade and park, the Promenade des Berges de la Seine, which he inaugurated in June 2013.
On what date did two Muslim extremists attack Charlie Hebdo?
5728c7b34b864d1900164dee
7 January 2015
3
False
How many people were killed at the Charlie Hebdo attack?
5728c7b34b864d1900164def
thirteen
108
False
How many people marched on January 11 against terrorism?
5728c7b34b864d1900164df0
1.5 million
275
False
Which Islamic organisation took responsibility for the attacks?
5728c7b34b864d1900164df1
ISIL
580
False
How did the attackers kill themselves?
5728c7b34b864d1900164df2
setting off their explosive vests
734
False
On 7 January 2015, two French Muslim extremists attacked the Paris headquarters of Charlie Hebdo and killed thirteen people, and on 9 January, a third terrorist killed four hostages during an attack at a Jewish grocery store at Porte de Vincennes. On 11 January an estimated 1.5 million people marched in Paris–along with international political leaders–to show solidarity against terrorism and in defence of freedom of speech. Ten months later, 13 November 2015, came a series of coordinated terrorist attacks in Paris and Saint-Denis claimed by the 'Islamic state' organisation ISIL ('Daesh', ISIS); 130 people were killed by gunfire and bombs, and more than 350 were injured. Seven of the attackers killed themselves and others by setting off their explosive vests. On the morning of 18 November three suspected terrorists, including alleged planner of the attacks Abdelhamid Abaaoud, were killed in a shootout with police in the Paris suburb of Saint-Denis. President Hollande declared France to be in a three-month state of emergency.
Where in France is Paris located?
5728c8284b864d1900164e0c
northern central
20
False
How many kilometers is it away from London?
5728c8284b864d1900164e0d
450
59
False
What major river is located in Paris?
5728c8284b864d1900164e0e
Seine
387
False
What is the largest island in Paris?
5728c8284b864d1900164e0f
Île de la Cité
454
False
What is the largest hill in Paris?
5728c8284b864d1900164e10
Montmartre
846
False
Paris is located in northern central France. By road it is 450 kilometres (280 mi) south-east of London, 287 kilometres (178 mi) south of Calais, 305 kilometres (190 mi) south-west of Brussels, 774 kilometres (481 mi) north of Marseille, 385 kilometres (239 mi) north-east of Nantes, and 135 kilometres (84 mi) south-east of Rouen. Paris is located in the north-bending arc of the river Seine and includes two islands, the Île Saint-Louis and the larger Île de la Cité, which form the oldest part of the city. The river's mouth on the English Channel (La Manche) is about 233 mi (375 km) downstream of the city, established around 7600 BC. The city is spread widely on both banks of the river. Overall, the city is relatively flat, and the lowest point is 35 m (115 ft) above sea level. Paris has several prominent hills, the highest of which is Montmartre at 130 m (427 ft). Montmartre gained its name from the martyrdom of Saint Denis, first bishop of Paris, atop the Mons Martyrum, "Martyr's mound", in 250.
What road encircles Paris?
5728c8d83acd2414000dfe5f
Boulevard Périphérique
181
False
How large is the metropolitan area of Paris?
5728c8d83acd2414000dfe60
2,300 km2
693
False
In what year was Paris' last annexation of outlying territories?
5728c8d83acd2414000dfe61
1860
265
False
How many arrondissements are there?
5728c8d83acd2414000dfe62
20
324
False
In what year were Bois de Boulogne and Bois de Vincennes annexed?
5728c8d83acd2414000dfe63
1929
510
False
Excluding the outlying parks of Bois de Boulogne and Bois de Vincennes, Paris covers an oval measuring about 87 km2 (34 sq mi) in area, enclosed by the 35 km (22 mi) ring road, the Boulevard Périphérique. The city's last major annexation of outlying territories in 1860 not only gave it its modern form but also created the 20 clockwise-spiralling arrondissements (municipal boroughs). From the 1860 area of 78 km2 (30 sq mi), the city limits were expanded marginally to 86.9 km2 (33.6 sq mi) in the 1920s. In 1929, the Bois de Boulogne and Bois de Vincennes forest parks were officially annexed to the city, bringing its area to about 105 km2 (41 sq mi). The metropolitan area of the city is 2,300 km2 (890 sq mi).
Which current affects Paris' weather?
5728c9942ca10214002da7d8
North Atlantic Current
116
False
How is Paris' climate categorized?
5728c9942ca10214002da7d9
mild and moderately wet
183
False
What are the average temperatures for summer?
5728c9942ca10214002da7da
between 15 and 25 °C
285
False
What was the average temperature for July 2011?
5728c9942ca10214002da7db
17.6 °C
725
False
Paris has a typical Western European oceanic climate (Köppen climate classification: Cfb ) which is affected by the North Atlantic Current. The overall climate throughout the year is mild and moderately wet. Summer days are usually warm and pleasant with average temperatures hovering between 15 and 25 °C (59 and 77 °F), and a fair amount of sunshine. Each year, however, there are a few days where the temperature rises above 32 °C (90 °F). Some years have even witnessed long periods of harsh summer weather, such as the heat wave of 2003 when temperatures exceeded 30 °C (86 °F) for weeks, surged up to 40 °C (104 °F) on some days and seldom cooled down at night. More recently, the average temperature for July 2011 was 17.6 °C (63.7 °F), with an average minimum temperature of 12.9 °C (55.2 °F) and an average maximum temperature of 23.7 °C (74.7 °F).
What is the average temperature during winter?
5728cb7bff5b5019007da6c0
7 °C
262
False
Does Paris see snow?
5728cb7bff5b5019007da6c1
sometimes sees light snow or flurries
462
False
How often does the temperature drop below -5 C
5728cb7bff5b5019007da6c2
a few days a year
379
False
Spring and autumn have, on average, mild days and fresh nights but are changing and unstable. Surprisingly warm or cool weather occurs frequently in both seasons. In winter, sunshine is scarce; days are cold but generally above freezing with temperatures around 7 °C (45 °F). Light night frosts are however quite common, but the temperature will dip below −5 °C (23 °F) for only a few days a year. Snow falls every year, but rarely stays on the ground. The city sometimes sees light snow or flurries with or without accumulation.
How many members are there in the Conseil de Paris?
5728cbe3ff5b5019007da6d0
163
151
False
How was Mayor Bertand Delanoe elected
5728cbe3ff5b5019007da6d1
majority of council members
661
False
How often does the council meet?
5728cbe3ff5b5019007da6d2
once a month
783
False
What years was Bertrand Delanoe Mayor?
5728cbe3ff5b5019007da6d3
2001-2014
597
False
The mayor of Paris is elected indirectly by Paris voters; the voters of each arrondissement elect the Conseil de Paris (Council of Paris), composed of 163 members. Each arrondissement has a number of members depending upon its population, from 10 members for each of the least-populated arrondissements (1st through 9th) to 36 members for the most populated (the 15th). The elected council members select the mayor. Sometimes the candidate who receives the most votes city-wide is not selected if the other candidate has won the support of the majority of council members. Mayor Bertrand Delanoë (2001-2014) was elected by only a minority of city voters, but a majority of council members. Once elected, the council plays a largely passive role in the city government; it meets only once a month. The current council is divided between a coalition of the left of 91 members, including the socialists, communists, greens, and extreme left; and 71 members for the centre right, plus a few members from smaller parties.
What was the budget of the city in 2013
5728cc7b3acd2414000dfec5
€7.6 billion
36
False
How much of the budget was allocated for city administration?
5728cc7b3acd2414000dfec6
5.4 billion
59
False
What percent of the budget goes towards public housing and urbanism projects?
5728cc7b3acd2414000dfec7
38
173
False
What is the main source of income for Paris?
5728cc7b3acd2414000dfec8
taxes
448
False
What percentage of the budget is allocated for schools?
5728cc7b3acd2414000dfec9
8
268
False
The budget of the city for 2013 was €7.6 billion, of which 5.4 billion went for city administration, while €2.2 billion went for investment. The largest part of the budget (38 percent) went for public housing and urbanism projects; 15 percent for roads and transport; 8 percent for schools (which are mostly financed by the state budget); 5 percent for parks and gardens; and 4 percent for culture. The main source of income for the city is direct taxes (35 percent), supplemented by a 13-percent real estate tax; 19 percent of the budget comes in a transfer from the national government.
When did the Metropole du Grand Paris come into existence?
5728ccfb4b864d1900164e5e
January 1, 2016
94
False
How large is the Metropole?
5728ccfb4b864d1900164e5f
814 square kilometers
561
False
What is the population of the metropole?
5728ccfb4b864d1900164e60
6.945 million
607
False
What three departments of the inner suburbs are included in the metropole?
5728ccfb4b864d1900164e61
Hauts-de-Seine, Seine-Saint-Denis and Val-de-Marne
318
False
How many communes of the outer suburbs are included in the metropole?
5728ccfb4b864d1900164e62
seven
375
False
The Métropole du Grand Paris, or Metropolis of Greater Paris, formally came into existence on January 1, 2016. It is an administrative structure for cooperation between the City of Paris and its nearest suburbs. It includes the City of Paris, plus the communes, or towns of the three departments of the inner suburbs; Hauts-de-Seine, Seine-Saint-Denis and Val-de-Marne; plus seven communes in the outer suburbs, including Argenteuil in Val d'Oise and Paray-Vieille-Poste in Essonne, which were added to include the major airports of Paris. The Metropole covers 814 square kilometers and has a population of 6.945 million persons.
How many members are in the Metropolitan Council?
5728ce584b864d1900164e7c
210
63
False
Who was the first president of the metropolitan council?
5728ce584b864d1900164e7d
Patrick Ollier
302
False
What town was Patrick Ollier a mayor of?
5728ce584b864d1900164e7e
Rueil-Malmaison
360
False
What party does Patrick Ollier associate with?
5728ce584b864d1900164e7f
Republican
320
False
What is the budget for Metropole?
5728ce584b864d1900164e80
65 million Euros
563
False
The new structure is administered by a Metropolitan Council of 210 members, not directly elected, but chosen by the councils of the member Communes. By 2020 its basic competencies will include urban planning, housing, and protection of the environment. The first president of the metropolitan council, Patrick Ollier, a Republican and the mayor of the town of Rueil-Malmaison, was elected on January 22, 2016. Though the Metropole has a population of nearly seven million persons and accounts for 25 percent of the GDP of France, it has a very small budget; just 65 million Euros, compared with eight billion Euros for the City of Paris.
In which district is the Regional Coucil housed?
5728cf473acd2414000dff13
7th
149
False
For how many years did the socialists governed the region?
5728cf473acd2414000dff14
seventeen
537
False
How many council members will they have in 2016 from the union of the Right?
5728cf473acd2414000dff15
121
598
False
Who led the Union of the Right?
5728cf473acd2414000dff16
Valérie Pécresse
388
False
The Region of Île de France, including Paris and its surrounding communities, is governed by the Regional Council, which has its headquarters in the 7th arrondissement of Paris. It is composed of 209 members representing the different communes within the region. On December 15, 2015, a list of candidates of the Union of the Right, a coalition of centrist and right-wing parties, led by Valérie Pécresse, narrowly won the regional election, defeating a coalition of Socialists and ecologists. The Socialists had governed the region for seventeen years. In 2016, the new regional council will have 121 members from the Union of the Right, 66 from the Union of the Left and 22 from the extreme right National Front.
Where are France's highest courts located?
5728cff2ff5b5019007da714
Paris
39
False
What is the highest court in the judicial order?
5728cff2ff5b5019007da715
Court of Cassation
50
False
Where does the Constitutional Council meet?
5728cff2ff5b5019007da716
Montpensier wing of the Palais Royal
584
False
Where is the Coutt of Cassation located?
5728cff2ff5b5019007da717
Palais de Justice
169
False
Where does the Consiel d'Etat meet?
5728cff2ff5b5019007da718
Palais-Royal
400
False
France's highest courts are located in Paris. The Court of Cassation, the highest court in the judicial order, which reviews criminal and civil cases, is located in the Palais de Justice on the Île de la Cité, while the Conseil d'État, which provides legal advice to the executive and acts as the highest court in the administrative order, judging litigation against public bodies, is located in the Palais-Royal in the 1st arrondissement. The Constitutional Council, an advisory body with ultimate authority on the constitutionality of laws and government decrees, also meets in the Montpensier wing of the Palais Royal.
Where is the headquarters for UNESCO?
5728d0683acd2414000dff2f
Paris
0
False
Where is the head quarters for the International Federation for Human Rights?
5728d0683acd2414000dff30
Paris
0
False
Where is the head quarters for the European Space Agency?
5728d0683acd2414000dff31
Paris
0
False
Paris and its region host the headquarters of several international organisations including UNESCO, the Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development, the International Chamber of Commerce, the Paris Club, the European Space Agency, the International Energy Agency, the Organisation internationale de la Francophonie, the European Union Institute for Security Studies, the International Bureau of Weights and Measures, the International Exhibition Bureau and the International Federation for Human Rights.
Who is responsible for the security of Paris?
5728d0f4ff5b5019007da72e
Prefecture of Police of Paris
58
False
Where is the headquarters for the Prefecture of Police of Paris?
5728d0f4ff5b5019007da72f
Place Louis Lépine on the Île de la Cité
367
False
How many officers are in the Prefecture of Police of Paris?
5728d0f4ff5b5019007da730
30,200
419
False
When was the Compagnies Republicaines de Securite formed?
5728d0f4ff5b5019007da731
1944
1005
False
How many vehicles are in the fleet?
5728d0f4ff5b5019007da732
6,000
482
False
The security of Paris is mainly the responsibility of the Prefecture of Police of Paris, a subdivision of the Ministry of the Interior of France. It supervises the units of the National Police who patrol the city and the three neighbouring departments. It is also responsible for providing emergency services, including the Paris Fire Brigade. Its headquarters is on Place Louis Lépine on the Île de la Cité. There are 30,200 officers under the prefecture, and a fleet of more than 6,000 vehicles, including police cars, motorcycles, fire trucks, boats and helicopters. In addition to traditional police duties, the local police monitors the number of discount sales held by large stores (no more than two a year are allowed) and verify that, during summer holidays, at least one bakery is open in every neighbourhood. The national police has its own special unit for riot control and crowd control and security of public buildings, called the Compagnies Républicaines de Sécurité (CRS), a unit formed in 1944 right after the liberation of France. Vans of CRS agents are frequently seen in the centre of the city when there are demonstrations and public events.
Who remodeled Paris in the 19th century?
5728d235ff5b5019007da75a
Baron Haussmann
660
False
Which two islands remain in Paris today?
5728d235ff5b5019007da75b
île Saint-Louis, the île de la Cité
481
False
When was ile aux Cygnes created?
5728d235ff5b5019007da75c
1827
537
False
Most French rulers since the Middle Ages made a point of leaving their mark on a city that, contrary to many other of the world's capitals, has never been destroyed by catastrophe or war. In modernising its infrastructure through the centuries, Paris has preserved even its earliest history in its street map.[citation needed] At its origin, before the Middle Ages, the city was composed around several islands and sandbanks in a bend of the Seine; of those, two remain today: the île Saint-Louis, the île de la Cité; a third one is the 1827 artificially created île aux Cygnes. Modern Paris owes much to its late 19th century Second Empire remodelling by the Baron Haussmann: many of modern Paris' busiest streets, avenues and boulevards today are a result of that city renovation. Paris also owes its style to its aligned street-fronts, distinctive cream-grey "Paris stone" building ornamentation, aligned top-floor balconies, and tree-lined boulevards. The high residential population of its city centre makes it much different from most other western global cities.
What is the current height limitation in Paris in central areas?
5728d5f23acd2414000dffcf
50 m
280
False
Until 1973, what was Paris; tallest building?
5728d5f23acd2414000dffd0
Montparnasse
504
False
What is the name of the project for La Defense called that has not yet been started?
5728d5f23acd2414000dffd1
Hermitage Plaza
733
False
When was the Hermitage Plaza launched?
5728d5f23acd2414000dffd2
2009
762
False
How many towers were planned to be built?
5728d5f23acd2414000dffd3
two
786
False
Paris' urbanism laws have been under strict control since the early 17th century, particularly where street-front alignment, building height and building distribution is concerned. In recent developments, a 1974-2010 building height limitation of 37 metres (121 ft) was raised to 50 m (160 ft) in central areas and 180 metres (590 ft) in some of Paris' peripheral quarters, yet for some of the city's more central quarters, even older building-height laws still remain in effect. The 210 metres (690 ft) Montparnasse tower was both Paris and France's tallest building until 1973, but this record has been held by the La Défense quarter Tour First tower in Courbevoie since its 2011 construction. A new project for La Defense, called Hermitage Plaza, launched in 2009, proposes to build two towers, 85 and 86 stories or 320 metres high, which would be the tallest buildings in the European Union, just slightly shorter than the Eiffel Tower. They were scheduled for completion in 2019 or 2020, but as of January 2015 construction had not yet begun, and there were questions in the press about the future of the project.
When was La Madeleine built?
5728d6963acd2414000dfff1
1808-1842
478
False
When was teh Palais Garnier Opera House built?
5728d6963acd2414000dfff2
1875
522
False
When was the Eiffel Tower built?
5728d6963acd2414000dfff3
1889
645
False
Who built the art museum of the Louis Vuitton Foundation?
5728d6963acd2414000dfff4
Frank Gehry
973
False
Who built the Louvre Pyramid?
5728d6963acd2414000dfff5
I.M. Pei
803
False
Parisian examples of European architecture date back more than a millennium; including the Romanesque church of the Abbey of Saint-Germain-des-Prés (1014-1163); the early Gothic Architecture of the Basilica of Saint-Denis (1144), the Notre Dame Cathedral (1163-1345), the Flamboyant Gothic of Saint Chapelle (1239-1248), the Baroque churches of Saint-Paul-Saint-Louis (1627-1641) and Les Invalides (1670-1708). The 19th century produced the neoclassical church of La Madeleine (1808-1842); the Palais Garnier Opera House (1875); the neo-Byzantine Basilica of Sacré-Cœur (1875-1919), and the exuberant Belle Époque modernism of the Eiffel Tower (1889). Striking examples of 20th century architecture include the Centre Georges Pompidou by Richard Rogers and Renzo Piano (1977), and the Louvre Pyramid by I.M. Pei (1989). Contemporary architecture includes the Musée du Quai Branly by Jean Nouvel (2006) and the new contemporary art museum of the Louis Vuitton Foundation by Frank Gehry (2014).
What was the population of the urban area of Paris in 2012 without a fixed residence?
5728d7142ca10214002da918
28,800
53
False
What percentage of homelessness in France does Paris house?
5728d7142ca10214002da919
43
146
False
What percentage of homeless people are women?
5728d7142ca10214002da91a
43
146
False
How many homeless shelters are in Paris?
5728d7142ca10214002da91b
sixty
406
False
Who funds these homeless shelters?
5728d7142ca10214002da91c
the city
515
False
In 2012 the Paris agglomeration (urban area) counted 28,800 people without a fixed residence, an increase of 84 percent since 2001; it represents 43 percent of the homeless in all of France. Forty-one percent were women, and 29 percent were accompanied by children. Fifty-six percent of the homeless were born outside France, the largest number coming from Africa and Eastern Europe. The city of Paris has sixty homeless shelters, called Centres d'hébergement et de réinsertion sociale or CHRS, which are funded by the city and operated by private charities and associations.
What are they only two additions to Paris' administrative limits since 1860?
5728d7cc2ca10214002da934
Bois de Boulogne, Bois de Vincennes
44
False
When was the Siene department created?
5728d7cc2ca10214002da935
1790
250
False
WHen was District de la region parisienne reorganised?
5728d7cc2ca10214002da936
1968
487
False
What was the Paris region renamed to?
5728d7cc2ca10214002da937
"Île-de-France"
655
False
When was Paris reunited with its suburbs?
5728d7cc2ca10214002da938
January 1, 2016
777
False
Aside from the 20th century addition of the Bois de Boulogne, Bois de Vincennes and Paris heliport, Paris' administrative limits have remained unchanged since 1860. The Seine département had been governing Paris and its suburbs since its creation in 1790, but the rising suburban population had made it difficult to govern as a unique entity. This problem was 'resolved' when its parent "District de la région parisienne" (Paris region) was reorganised into several new departments from 1968: Paris became a department in itself, and the administration of its suburbs was divided between the three departments surrounding it. The Paris region was renamed "Île-de-France" in 1977, but the "Paris region" name is still commonly used today. Paris was reunited with its suburbs on January 1, 2016 when the Métropole du Grand Paris came into existence.
When did Paul Delouvrier become the head of the Paris region?
5728d89f3acd2414000e0015
1961
258
False
What was a major problem with Paris being disconnected from its suburbs?
5728d89f3acd2414000e0016
lack of suburban transportation
40
False
How many suburban villes nouvelles did Paul Delouvrier constuct?
5728d89f3acd2414000e0017
five
339
False
Paris' disconnect with its suburbs, its lack of suburban transportation in particular, became all too apparent with the Paris agglomeration's growth. Paul Delouvrier promised to resolve the Paris-suburbs mésentente when he became head of the Paris region in 1961: two of his most ambitious projects for the Region were the construction of five suburban villes nouvelles ("new cities") and the RER commuter train network. Many other suburban residential districts (grands ensembles) were built between the 1960s and 1970s to provide a low-cost solution for a rapidly expanding population: these districts were socially mixed at first, but few residents actually owned their homes (the growing economy made these accessible to the middle classes only from the 1970s). Their poor construction quality and their haphazard insertion into existing urban growth contributed to their desertion by those able to move elsewhere and their repopulation by those with more limited possibilities.
Where are the quartiers sensibles located?
5728d9604b864d1900164f7c
northern and eastern Paris
64
False
What two neighborhoods are the centers of the quartiers sensibles?
5728d9604b864d1900164f7d
Goutte d'Or and Belleville
110
False
Why were these neighborhoods created?
5728d9604b864d1900164f7e
Delouvrier's 1961 "ville nouvelle" political initiative
495
False
These areas, quartiers sensibles ("sensitive quarters"), are in northern and eastern Paris, namely around its Goutte d'Or and Belleville neighbourhoods. To the north of the city they are grouped mainly in the Seine-Saint-Denis department, and to a lesser extreme to the east in the Val-d'Oise department. Other difficult areas are located in the Seine valley, in Évry et Corbeil-Essonnes (Essonne), in Mureaux, Mantes-la-Jolie (Yvelines), and scattered among social housing districts created by Delouvrier's 1961 "ville nouvelle" political initiative.
In Janurary of 2014, what was the population of Paris' city limits?
5728da082ca10214002da982
2,241,346
62
False
Where is Paris ranked in the EU by largest municipality?
5728da082ca10214002da983
fifth
110
False
What 4 cities are larger than Paris in the EU?
5728da082ca10214002da984
London, Berlin, Madrid and Rome
170
False
Who created The Paris Urban Area?
5728da082ca10214002da985
INSEE
534
False
According to the INSEE what is Paris Urban Area population?
5728da082ca10214002da986
10,550,350
708
False
The population of Paris in its administrative city limits was 2,241,346 in January 2014. This makes Paris the fifth largest municipality in the European Union, following London, Berlin, Madrid and Rome. Eurostat, the statistical agency of the EU, places Paris (6.5 million people) second behind London (8 million) and ahead of Berlin (3.5 million), based on the 2012 populations of what Eurostat calls "urban audit core cities". The Paris Urban Area, or "unité urbaine", is a statistical area created by the French statistical agency INSEE to measure the population of built-up areas around the city. It is slightly smaller than the Paris Region. According to INSEE, the Paris Urban Area had a population of 10,550,350 at the January 2012 census, the most populous in the European Union, and third most populous in Europe, behind Istanbul and Moscow. The Paris Metropolitan Area is the second most populous in the European Union after London with a population of 12,341,418 at the Jan. 2012 census.
What is Paris' peak population?
5728da773acd2414000e004b
2.9 million
67
False
When was Paris' population peak?
5728da773acd2414000e004c
1921
82
False
What year was the first population increase since 1954?
5728da773acd2414000e004d
2004
532
False
What was the population in 2009?
5728da773acd2414000e004e
2,234,000
624
False
The population of Paris today is lower than its historical peak of 2.9 million in 1921. The principal reasons were a significant decline in household size, and a dramatic migration of residents to the suburbs between 1962 and 1975. Factors in the migration included de-industrialisation, high rent, the gentrification of many inner quarters, the transformation of living space into offices, and greater affluence among working families. The city's population loss came to an end in the 21st century; the population estimate of July 2004 showed a population increase for the first time since 1954, and the population reached 2,234,000 by 2009.
What was the most populated city in the EU in 2012?
5728dbd84b864d1900164faa
Commune of Paris
62
False
How many people lived per square kilometer in the city limits?
5728dbd84b864d1900164fab
21,616
143
False
What three departments surrounding Paris had densities greater than 10k/k?
5728dbd84b864d1900164fac
Hauts-de-Seine, Seine-Saint-Denis and Val-de-Marne
371
False
According to Eurostat, the EU statistical agency, in 2012 the Commune of Paris was the most densely populated city in the European Union, with 21,616 people per square kilometre within the city limits (the NUTS-3 statistical area), ahead of Inner London West, which had 10,374 people per square kilometre. According to the same census, three departments bordering Paris, Hauts-de-Seine, Seine-Saint-Denis and Val-de-Marne, had population densities of over ten thousand people per square kilometre, ranking among the ten most densely populated areas of the EU.
How many immigrants were in Paris in 2012 from Europe?
5728e1c04b864d1900165006
135,853
171
False
How many immigrants to Paris in 2012 were from the Maghreb?
5728e1c04b864d1900165007
112,369
239
False
How many immigrants in Paris in 2012 were from sub-Saharan Africa and Egypt?
5728e1c04b864d1900165008
70,852
281
False
How many Asians immigrated to Paris in 2012?
5728e1c04b864d1900165009
91,297
342
False
The remaining group, people born in foreign countries with no French citizenship at birth, are those defined as immigrants under French law. According to the 2012 census, 135,853 residents of the city of Paris were immigrants from Europe, 112,369 were immigrants from the Maghreb, 70,852 from sub-Saharan Africa and Egypt, 5,059 from Turkey, 91,297 from Asia (outside Turkey), 38,858 from the Americas, and 1,365 from the South Pacific. Note that the immigrants from the Americas and the South Pacific in Paris are vastly outnumbered by migrants from French overseas regions and territories located in these regions of the world.
What percentage of jobs were market services in 2012?
5728e270ff5b5019007da8c4
59.5
20
False
What industry had the lowest percentage of jobs in Paris of 2012?
5728e270ff5b5019007da8c5
agriculture
678
False
What percentage of people worked in agriculture?
5728e270ff5b5019007da8c6
0.2
670
False
What percentage of people worked in finance and insurance?
5728e270ff5b5019007da8c7
5.9
253
False
At the 2012 census, 59.5% of jobs in the Paris Region were in market services (12.0% in wholesale and retail trade, 9.7% in professional, scientific, and technical services, 6.5% in information and communication, 6.5% in transportation and warehousing, 5.9% in finance and insurance, 5.8% in administrative and support services, 4.6% in accommodation and food services, and 8.5% in various other market services), 26.9% in non-market services (10.4% in human health and social work activities, 9.6% in public administration and defence, and 6.9% in education), 8.2% in manufacturing and utilities (6.6% in manufacturing and 1.5% in utilities), 5.2% in construction, and 0.2% in agriculture.
How many salaried employees lived in the Paris Region in 2010?
5728e29bff5b5019007da8cc
5.4 million
21
False
The Paris Region had 5.4 million salaried employees in 2010, of whom 2.2 million were concentrated in 39 pôles d'emplois or business districts. The largest of these, in terms of number of employees, is known in French as the QCA, or quartier central des affaires; it is in the western part of the City of Paris, in the 2nd, 8th, 9th, 16th and 18th arrondissements. In 2010 it was the workplace of 500,000 salaried employees, about thirty percent of the salaried employees in Paris and ten percent of those in the Île-de-France. The largest sectors of activity in the central business district were finance and insurance (16 percent of employees in the district) and business services (15 percent). The district also includes a large concentration of department stores, shopping areas, hotels and restaurants, as well a government offices and ministries.
Who is the second largest business district employer?
5728e35a2ca10214002daa32
La Défense
63
False
How many people worked for La Defense in 2010?
5728e35a2ca10214002daa33
144,600
189
False
What field did the majority of the employees at La Defense work in?
5728e35a2ca10214002daa34
finance and insurance
237
False
What percentage of people worked in business support?
5728e35a2ca10214002daa35
16
260
False
What two districts are extensions of the Paris business district?
5728e35a2ca10214002daa36
Neuilly-sur-Seine and Levallois-Perret
332
False
The second-largest business district in terms of employment is La Défense, just west of the city, where many companies installed their offices in the 1990s. In 2010 it was the workplace of 144,600 employees, of whom 38 percent worked in finance and insurance, 16 percent in business support services. Two other important districts, Neuilly-sur-Seine and Levallois-Perret, are extensions of the Paris business district and of La Defense. Another district, including Boulogne-Billancourt, Issy-les-Moulineaux and the southern part of the 15th arrondissement, is a center of activity for the media and information technology.
What was Paris Region's GDP in 2012?
5728e43b2ca10214002daa4e
€624 billion
86
False
How many world headquarters of the 31 Fortune Global 500 companies are located in Paris?
5728e43b2ca10214002daa4f
29
446
False
What percentage of Frances GDP is made up from the Paris Region's GDP?
5728e43b2ca10214002daa50
30
362
False
The Paris Region is France's leading region for economic activity, with a 2012 GDP of €624 billion (US$687 billion). In 2011, its GDP ranked second among the regions of Europe and its per-capita GDP was the 4th highest in Europe. While the Paris region's population accounted for 18.8 percent of metropolitan France in 2011, the Paris region's GDP accounted for 30 percent of metropolitan France's GDP. In 2015 it hosts the world headquarters of 29 of the 31 Fortune Global 500 companies located in France.
What as the Paris Region's economy shifted towards?
5728e4ca3acd2414000e014f
high-value-added service industries
64
False
Prior to now, what was Paris' biggest economy?
5728e4ca3acd2414000e0150
industry
52
False
Where is Paris economic Centre located?
5728e4ca3acd2414000e0151
west of the city, in a triangle between the Opéra Garnier, La Défense and the Val de Seine
372
False
The Paris Region economy has gradually shifted from industry to high-value-added service industries (finance, IT services, etc.) and high-tech manufacturing (electronics, optics, aerospace, etc.). The Paris region's most intense economic activity through the central Hauts-de-Seine department and suburban La Défense business district places Paris' economic centre to the west of the city, in a triangle between the Opéra Garnier, La Défense and the Val de Seine. While the Paris economy is dominated by services, and employment in manufacturing sector has declined sharply, the region remains an important manufacturing centre, particularly for aeronautics, automobiles, and "eco" industries.
In what districts are the majority of businesses service jobs located?
5728e5624b864d1900165046
8th, 16th and 17th
115
False
Where are Paris' financial service companies majorly located?
5728e5624b864d1900165047
8th and 9th arrondissement
226
False
What industry is located in the 1st, 6th, 8th and 9th arrondissements?
5728e5624b864d1900165048
department store
292
False
What percent of Parisians work in hotels and restaurants?
5728e5624b864d1900165049
Fourteen
467
False
How many peole work in the La Defense district?
5728e5624b864d190016504a
144,600
984
False
The majority of Paris' salaried employees fill 370,000 businesses services jobs, concentrated in the north-western 8th, 16th and 17th arrondissements. Paris' financial service companies are concentrated in the central-western 8th and 9th arrondissement banking and insurance district. Paris' department store district in the 1st, 6th, 8th and 9th arrondissements employ 10 percent of mostly female Paris workers, with 100,000 of these registered in the retail trade. Fourteen percent of Parisians work in hotels and restaurants and other services to individuals. Nineteen percent of Paris employees work for the State in either in administration or education. The majority of Paris' healthcare and social workers work at the hospitals and social housing concentrated in the peripheral 13th, 14th, 18th, 19th and 20th arrondissements. Outside Paris, the western Hauts-de-Seine department La Défense district specialising in finance, insurance and scientific research district, employs 144,600, and the north-eastern Seine-Saint-Denis audiovisual sector has 200 media firms and 10 major film studios.
How many manufacturing workers does Paris have?
5728e5f64b864d1900165050
75,000
91
False
What does Paris region manufacturing specialize in?
5728e5f64b864d1900165051
transportation
238
False
How much of a drop was there in manufacturing jobs between 1990 and 2010?
5728e5f64b864d1900165052
64
370
False
How many people does the Paris regions aerospace companies employ?
5728e5f64b864d1900165053
100,000
587
False
The closing of what plant in 20147 caused a major loss to the automobile industry?
5728e5f64b864d1900165054
Aulnay-sous-Bois Citroen
889
False
Paris' manufacturing is mostly focused in its suburbs, and the city itself has only around 75,000 manufacturing workers, most of which are in the textile, clothing, leather goods and shoe trades. Paris region manufacturing specialises in transportation, mainly automobiles, aircraft and trains, but this is in a sharp decline: Paris proper manufacturing jobs dropped by 64 percent between 1990 and 2010, and the Paris region lost 48 percent during the same period. Most of this is due to companies relocating outside the Paris region. The Paris region's 800 aerospace companies employed 100,000. Four hundred automobile industry companies employ another 100,000 workers: many of these are centred in the Yvelines department around the Renault and PSA-Citroen plants (this department alone employs 33,000), but the industry as a whole suffered a major loss with the 2014 closing of a major Aulnay-sous-Bois Citroen assembly plant.
What does the southern Essonne department specialize in?
5728ef112ca10214002daaba
science and technology
47
False
What does south-eastern Val-de-Marne specialize in?
5728ef112ca10214002daabb
food processing and beverages
161
False
How many construction workers worked in Paris in 2011?
5728ef112ca10214002daabc
56,927
334
False
How many construction workers were employed in the metropolitan area?
5728ef112ca10214002daabd
246,639
417
False
The southern Essonne department specialises in science and technology, and the south-eastern Val-de-Marne, with its wholesale Rungis food market, specialises in food processing and beverages. The Paris region's manufacturing decline is quickly being replaced by eco-industries: these employ about 100,000 workers. In 2011, while only 56,927 construction workers worked in Paris itself, its metropolitan area employed 246,639, in an activity centred largely around the Seine-Saint-Denis (41,378) and Hauts-de-Seine (37,303) departments and the new business-park centres appearing there.
What was the average net household income in Paris in 2011?
5728ef8d3acd2414000e0221
€36,085
105
False
What was the average income in the 19th arrondissement?
5728ef8d3acd2414000e0222
€22,095
138
False
What was the average in come in the 7th arrondissement?
5728ef8d3acd2414000e0223
€82,449
176
False
What was the unemployment rate in the city of Paris?
5728ef8d3acd2414000e0224
8.2
508
False
What was the unemployment rate in the Siene-Saint-Denis department?
5728ef8d3acd2414000e0225
13.1
681
False
The average net household income (after social, pension and health insurance contributions) in Paris was €36,085 for 2011. It ranged from €22,095 in the 19th arrondissement to €82,449 in the 7th arrondissement. The median taxable income for 2011 was around €25,000 in Paris and €22,200 for Île-de-France. Generally speaking, incomes are higher in the Western part of the city and in the western suburbs than in the northern and eastern parts of the urban area.[citation needed] Unemployment was estimated at 8.2 percent in the city of Paris and 8.8 percent in the Île-de-France region in the first trimester of 2015. It ranged from 7.6 percent in the wealthy Essonne department to 13.1 percent in the Seine-Saint-Denis department, where many recent immigrants live.
What percentage of households earned less than 977 per month?
5728efe52ca10214002daad6
14
144
False
WHat percentage of people in the 19th arrondissement lived below the poverty line?
5728efe52ca10214002daad7
Twenty-five
241
False
What percentage of people lived below the poverty line in Paris' wealthiest neighborhood?
5728efe52ca10214002daad8
7
470
False
While Paris has some of the richest neighbourhoods in France, it also has some of the poorest, mostly on the eastern side of the city. In 2012, 14 percent of households in the city earned less than €977 per month, the official poverty line. Twenty-five percent of residents in the 19th arrondissement lived below the poverty line; 24 percent in the 18th, 22 percent in the 20th and 18 percent in the 10th. In the city's wealthiest neighbourhood, the 7th arrondissement, 7 percent lived below the poverty line; 8 percent in the 6th arrondissement; and 9 percent in the 16th arrondissement.
How many people visited Paris' museums and monuments in 2013?
5728f05e3acd2414000e0235
72.1 million
11
False
What is Paris' top tourist attraction?
5728f05e3acd2414000e0236
Notre Dame Cathedral
120
False
How many people visited the Louvre in 2013?
5728f05e3acd2414000e0237
9.2 million
218
False
What is the most popular tourist attraction in Marne-la-Valee?
5728f05e3acd2414000e0238
Disneyland Paris
547
False
There were 72.1 million visitors to the city's museums and monuments in 2013. The city's top tourist attraction was the Notre Dame Cathedral, which welcomed 14 million visitors in 2013. The Louvre museum had more than 9.2 million visitors in 2013, making it the most visited museum in the world. The other top cultural attractions in Paris in 2013 were the Basilique du Sacré-Cœur (10.5 million visitors); the Eiffel Tower (6,740,000 visitors); the Centre Pompidou (3,745,000 visitors) and Musée d'Orsay (3,467,000 visitors). In the Paris region, Disneyland Paris, in Marne-la-Vallée, 32 km (20 miles) east of the centre of Paris, was the most visited tourist attraction in France, with 14.9 million visitors in 2013.
Where are the most visited monuments located in Paris?
5728f0be3acd2414000e023d
centre of Paris
4
False
What is housed at Les Invalides?
5728f0be3acd2414000e023e
the tomb of Napoleon
172
False
Since when have the banks of the Seine from the Pont de Sully to the Pond'lena been listed as a UNESCO World Heritage site?
5728f0be3acd2414000e023f
1991
401
False
The centre of Paris contains the most visited monuments in the city, including the Notre Dame Cathedral and the Louvre as well as the Sainte-Chapelle; Les Invalides, where the tomb of Napoleon is located, and the Eiffel Tower are located on the Left Bank south-west of the centre. The banks of the Seine from the Pont de Sully to the Pont d'Iéna have been listed as a UNESCO World Heritage Site since 1991. Other landmarks are laid out east to west along the historic axis of Paris, which runs from the Louvre through the Tuileries Garden, the Luxor Column in the Place de la Concorde, the Arc de Triomphe, to the Grande Arche of La Défense.
How many hotels are in the City of Paris?
5728f1234b864d19001650f0
1,570
33
False
When did  The Hotel Meurice open?
5728f1234b864d19001650f1
1817
304
False
When was the Hotel du Louvre opened?
5728f1234b864d19001650f2
1855
541
False
Along what major road are most hotels located?
5728f1234b864d19001650f3
Champs-Élysées
187
False
As of 2013 the City of Paris had 1,570 hotels with 70,034 rooms, of which 55 were rated five-star, mostly belonging to international chains and mostly located close to the centre and the Champs-Élysées. Paris has long been famous for its grand hotels. The Hotel Meurice, opened for British travellers in 1817, was one of the first luxury hotels in Paris. The arrival of the railroads and the Paris Exposition of 1855 brought the first flood of tourists and the first modern grand hotels; the Hôtel du Louvre (now an antiques marketplace) in 1855; the Grand Hotel (now the Intercontinental LeGrand) in 1862; and the Hôtel Continental in 1878. The Hôtel Ritz on Place Vendôme opened in 1898, followed by the Hôtel Crillon in an 18th-century building on the Place de la Concorde in 1909; the Hotel Bristol on rue de Fabourg Saint-Honoré in 1925; and the Hotel George V in 1928.
What art was Paris famous for in the 16th and 17th centuries?
5728f1da6aef05140015488e
sculpture and reliefs
383
False
Who was the first painter to King Louis XIV?
5728f1da6aef05140015488f
Pierre Mignard
730
False
In what year was the Academie royale de peinture et de sculpture founded?
5728f1da6aef051400154890
1648
811
False
Until what year was the Academie royale de peinture et de sculpture the top art school?
5728f1da6aef051400154891
1793
1032
False
For centuries, Paris has attracted artists from around the world, who arrive in the city to educate themselves and to seek inspiration from its vast pool of artistic resources and galleries. As a result, Paris has acquired a reputation as the "City of Art". Italian artists were a profound influence on the development of art in Paris in the 16th and 17th centuries, particularly in sculpture and reliefs. Painting and sculpture became the pride of the French monarchy and the French royals commissioned many Parisian artists to adorn their palaces during the French Baroque and Classicism era. Sculptors such as Girardon, Coysevox and Coustou acquired reputations as the finest artists in the royal court in 17th-century France. Pierre Mignard became the first painter to King Louis XIV during this period. In 1648, the Académie royale de peinture et de sculpture (Royal Academy of Painting and Sculpture) was established to accommodate for the dramatic interest in art in the capital. This served as France's top art school until 1793.
What type of art did Paris help develop with painters like Gericault?
5728f26aaf94a219006a9e27
Romanticism
419
False
In what town did Picasso live?
5728f26aaf94a219006a9e28
Montmartre
982
False
What two towns were pinnacle for artistic production?
5728f26aaf94a219006a9e29
Montmartre and Montparnasse
1094
False
Between what two years did Picasso paint La Famille de Saltimbanques and Les Demoiselles d'Avignon?
5728f26aaf94a219006a9e2a
1905 and 1907
1079
False
Paris was in its artistic prime in the 19th century and early 20th century, when it had a colony of artists established in the city and in art schools associated with some of the finest painters of the times: Manet, Monet, Berthe Morisot, Gauguin, Renoir and others. The French Revolution and political and social change in France had a profound influence on art in the capital. Paris was central to the development of Romanticism in art, with painters such as Gericault. Impressionism, Art Nouveau, Symbolism, Fauvism Cubism and Art Deco movements all evolved in Paris. In the late 19th century, many artists in the French provinces and worldwide flocked to Paris to exhibit their works in the numerous salons and expositions and make a name for themselves. Artists such as Pablo Picasso, Henri Matisse, Vincent van Gogh, Paul Cézanne, Jean Metzinger, Albert Gleizes, Henri Rousseau, Marc Chagall, Amedeo Modigliani and many others became associated with Paris. Picasso, living in Montmartre, painted his famous La Famille de Saltimbanques and Les Demoiselles d'Avignon between 1905 and 1907. Montmartre and Montparnasse became centres for artistic production.
In what year was the first permanent photograph produced?
5728f2e5af94a219006a9e39
1825
109
False
Who invented the first permanent photograph?
5728f2e5af94a219006a9e3a
Nicéphore Niépce
13
False
What was Eugene Atget known for photographing?
5728f2e5af94a219006a9e3b
street scenes
521
False
Who was knows for photographing night scenes?
5728f2e5af94a219006a9e3c
Marcel Bovis
707
False
When did poster art become an important art form?
5728f2e5af94a219006a9e3d
late nineteenth century
873
False
The inventor Nicéphore Niépce produced the first permanent photograph on a polished pewter plate in Paris in 1825, and then developed the process with Louis Daguerre. The work of Étienne-Jules Marey in the 1880s contributed considerably to the development of modern photography. Photography came to occupy a central role in Parisian Surrealist activity, in the works of Man Ray and Maurice Tabard. Numerous photographers achieved renown for their photography of Paris, including Eugène Atget, noted for his depictions of street scenes, Robert Doisneau, noted for his playful pictures of people and market scenes (among which Le baiser de l'hôtel de ville has became iconic of the romantic vision of Paris), Marcel Bovis, noted for his night scenes, and others such as Jacques-Henri Lartigue and Cartier-Bresson. Poster art also became an important art form in Paris in the late nineteenth century, through the work of Henri de Toulouse-Lautrec, Jules Chéret, Eugène Grasset, Adolphe Willette, Pierre Bonnard, Georges de Feure, Henri-Gabriel Ibels, Gavarni, and Alphonse Mucha.
What was the most visited art museum in Paris in 2014?
5728f36f2ca10214002dab1e
The Louvre
0
False
Where is the Mona Lisa housed?
5728f36f2ca10214002dab1f
The Louvre
0
False
What is the second most visited art museum in Paris?
5728f36f2ca10214002dab20
Centre Georges Pompidou
219
False
What museum is known for its display of French art of the 19th century?
5728f36f2ca10214002dab21
Musée du quai Branly
687
False
What is Musee national des arts asiatiques famous for housing?
5728f36f2ca10214002dab22
collections of Asian art
1059
False
The Louvre was the world's most visited art museum in 2014, with 9.3 million visitors. Its treasures include the Mona Lisa (La Joconde) and the Venus de Milo statue. Starkly apparent with its service-pipe exterior, the Centre Georges Pompidou, the second-most visited art museum in Paris, also known as Beaubourg, houses the Musée National d'Art Moderne. The Musée d'Orsay, in the former Orsay railway station, was the third-most visited museum in the city in 2014; it displays French art of the 19th century, including major collections of the Impressionists and Post-Impressionists. The original building - a railway station - was constructed for the Universal Exhibition of 1900. The Musée du quai Branly was the fourth-most visited national museum in Paris in 2014; it displays art objects from Africa, Asia, Oceania, and the Americas. The Musée national du Moyen Âge, or Cluny Museum, presents Medieval art, including the famous tapestry cycle of The Lady and the Unicorn. The Guimet Museum, or Musée national des arts asiatiques, has one of the largest collections of Asian art in Europe. There are also notable museums devoted to individual artists, including the Picasso Museum the Rodin Museum, and the Musée national Eugène Delacroix.
What museum is famous for its dinosaur artifacts?
5728f404af94a219006a9e43
The National Museum of Natural History
114
False
When did THe Contemporary Art museum of the Louis Vuitton Foundation open?
5728f404af94a219006a9e44
October 2014
884
False
What famous landmark is Mysee de l'Armee lat Les Invalides located ner?
5728f404af94a219006a9e45
the tomb of Napoleon
411
False
How many museums does the city of Paris operate?
5728f404af94a219006a9e46
14
536
False
Paris hosts one of the largest science museums in Europe, the Cité des Sciences et de l'Industrie at La Villette. The National Museum of Natural History, on the Left Bank, is famous for its dinosaur artefacts, mineral collections, and its Gallery of Evolution. The military history of France, from the Middle Ages to World War II, is vividly presented by displays at the Musée de l'Armée at Les Invalides, near the tomb of Napoleon. In addition to the national museums, run by the French Ministry of Culture, the City of Paris operates 14 museums, including the Carnavalet Museum on the history of Paris; Musée d'Art Moderne de la Ville de Paris; Palais de Tokyo; the House of Victor Hugo and House of Balzac, and the Catacombs of Paris. There are also notable private museums; The Contemporary Art museum of the Louis Vuitton Foundation, designed by architect Frank Gehry, opened in October 2014 in the Bois de Boulogne.
When did Philharmonie de Paris open?
5728f4ab2ca10214002dab38
January 2015
568
False
What are the two largest opera houses in Paris?
5728f4ab2ca10214002dab39
Opéra Garnier (historical Paris Opéra) and modern Opéra Bastille;
55
False
What does Opera Garnier specialize in?
5728f4ab2ca10214002dab3a
classic ballets and operas
154
False
In what year were the first performances of Diagheliv's Ballet Russes?
5728f4ab2ca10214002dab3b
1913
715
False
Where di the first performances of Diagheliv's Ballets Russes take place?
5728f4ab2ca10214002dab3c
Théâtre des Champs-Élysées
614
False
The largest opera houses of Paris are the 19th-century Opéra Garnier (historical Paris Opéra) and modern Opéra Bastille; the former tends toward the more classic ballets and operas, and the latter provides a mixed repertoire of classic and modern. In middle of the 19th century, there were three other active and competing opera houses: the Opéra-Comique (which still exists), Théâtre-Italien, and Théâtre Lyrique (which in modern times changed its profile and name to Théâtre de la Ville). Philharmonie de Paris, the modern symphonic concert hall of Paris, opened in January 2015. Another musical landmark is the Théâtre des Champs-Élysées, where the first performances of Diaghilev's Ballets Russes took place in 1913.
When was the oldest Paris theater founded?
5728f5652ca10214002dab42
1680
227
False
What is the name of Paris' oldest theater?
5728f5652ca10214002dab43
Comédie-Française
197
False
Who runs Paris' oldest theater today?
5728f5652ca10214002dab44
French government
244
False
What famous museum is Comedie-Francaise located next to?
5728f5652ca10214002dab45
the Louvre
372
False
Theatre traditionally has occupied a large place in Parisian culture, and many of its most popular actors today are also stars of French television. The oldest and most famous Paris theatre is the Comédie-Française, founded in 1680. Run by the French government, it performs mostly French classics at the Salle Richelieu in the Palais-Royal at 2 rue de Richelieu, next to the Louvre.  of Other famous theaters include the Odéon-Théâtre de l'Europe, next to the Luxembourg Gardens, also a state institution and theatrical landmark; the Théâtre Mogador, and the Théâtre de la Gaîté-Montparnasse.
In what year was The Moulin Rouge opened?
5728f603af94a219006a9e73
1889
89
False
What dance was created at the Moulin Rouge?
5728f603af94a219006a9e74
French Cancan
226
False
In what year did the Crazy Horse Saloon open?
5728f603af94a219006a9e75
1951
877
False
Where did Grateful Dead play?
5728f603af94a219006a9e76
The Olympia Paris
883
False
The music hall and cabaret are famous Paris institutions. The Moulin Rouge was opened in 1889. It was highly visible because of its large red imitation windmill on its roof, and became the birthplace of the dance known as the French Cancan. It helped make famous the singers Mistinguett and Édith Piaf and the painter Toulouse-Lautrec, who made posters for the venue. In 1911, the dance hall Olympia Paris invented the grand staircase as a settling for its shows, competing with its great rival, the Folies Bergère, Its stars in the 1920s included the American singer and dancer Josephine Baker. The Casino de Paris presented many famous French singers, including Mistinguett, Maurice Chevalier, and Tino Rossi. Other famous Paris music halls include Le Lido, on the Champs-Élysées, opened in 1946; and the Crazy Horse Saloon, featuring strip-tease, dance and magic, opened in 1951. The Olympia Paris has presented Edith Piaf, Marlene Dietrich, Miles Davis, Judy Garland, and the Grateful Dead. A half dozen music halls exist today in Paris, attended mostly visitors to the city.
What was the title of the first book printed in France?
5728f7636aef0514001548f6
Epistolae
34
False
Who wrote Epistolae?
5728f7636aef0514001548f7
Gasparinus de Bergamo
60
False
When was Epistolae published?
5728f7636aef0514001548f8
1470
133
False
In what language were most books printed in the middle ages?
5728f7636aef0514001548f9
Latin
445
False
The first book printed in France, Epistolae ("Letters"), by Gasparinus de Bergamo (Gasparino da Barzizza), was published in Paris in 1470 by the press established by Johann Heynlin. Since then, Paris has been the centre of the French publishing industry, the home of some of the world's best-known writers and poets, and the setting for many classic works of French literature. Almost all the books published in Paris in the Middle Ages were in Latin, rather than French. Paris did not become the acknowledged capital of French literature until the 17th century, with authors such as Boileau, Corneille, La Fontaine, Molière, Racine, several coming from the provinces, and the foundation of the Académie française. In the 18th century, the literary life of Paris revolved around the cafés and salons, and was dominated by Voltaire, Jean-Jacques Rousseau, Pierre de Marivaux, and Beaumarchais.
What book inspired the renovation of Notre Dame?
5728f8c16aef0514001548fe
The Hunchback of Notre Dame
287
False
Who wrote The Hunchback of Notre Dame?
5728f8c16aef0514001548ff
Victor Hugo
273
False
During what period of time was Victor Hugo exiled from France?
5728f8c16aef051400154900
Second Empire
484
False
Where did Jules Verne work during the day?
5728f8c16aef051400154901
Theatre Lyrique and the Paris stock exchange
652
False
Where did Jules Verne do research for his stories?
5728f8c16aef051400154902
National Library
743
False
During the 19th century, Paris was the home and subject for some of France's greatest writers, including Charles Baudelaire, Stéphane Mallarmé, Mérimée, Alfred de Musset, Marcel Proust, Émile Zola, Alexandre Dumas, Gustave Flaubert, Guy de Maupassant and Honoré de Balzac. Victor Hugo's The Hunchback of Notre Dame inspired the renovation of its setting, the Notre-Dame de Paris. Another of Victor Hugo's works, Les Misérables, written while he was in exile outside France during the Second Empire, described the social change and political turmoil in Paris in the early 1830s. One of the most popular of all French writers, Jules Verne, worked at the Theatre Lyrique and the Paris stock exchange, while he did research for his stories at the National Library.
Who was the winner of the 2014 Nobel prize in literature?
5728f93c4b864d190016514a
Patrick Modiano
403
False
In what century did Collete, ANdre Gide and Francois Mauriac dominate the literary community?
5728f93c4b864d190016514b
20th
7
False
In what city does Patrick Modiano live?
5728f93c4b864d190016514c
Paris
432
False
During what war did Modiano base most of his work off of?
5728f93c4b864d190016514d
World War II
508
False
In the 20th century, the Paris literary community was dominated by Colette, André Gide, François Mauriac, André Malraux, Albert Camus, and, after World War II, by Simone de Beauvoir and Jean-Paul Sartre; Between the wars it was the home of many important expatriate writers, including Ernest Hemingway, Samuel Beckett, and, in the 1970s, Milan Kundera. The winner of the 2014 Nobel Prize in Literature, Patrick Modiano–who lives in Paris–, based most of his literary work on the depiction of the city during World War II and the 1960s-1970s.
What percentage of french publishing houses were in Paris in the 1970s?
5728f99a6aef051400154912
80
55
False
Approximately how many bookstores are located in the 5th arrondissement?
5728f99a6aef051400154913
150
349
False
How many bookstalls are located along the Seine?
5728f99a6aef051400154914
250
410
False
What is the maximum amount a publishers book can be discounted?
5728f99a6aef051400154915
five percent
593
False
Paris is a city of books and bookstores. In the 1970s, 80 percent of French-language publishing houses were found in Paris, almost all on the Left Bank in the 5th, 6th and 7th arrondissements. Since that time, because of high prices, some publishers have moved out to the less expensive areas. It is also a city of small bookstores; There are about 150 bookstores in the 5th arrondissement alone, plus another 250 book stalls along the Seine. Small Paris bookstores are protected against competition from discount booksellers by French law; books, even e-books, cannot be discounted more than five percent below their publisher's cover price.
in what century was a school of polyphony established at Notre Dame?
5728fa29af94a219006a9ea3
12th
12
False
In what year was the Conservatoire de Musique de Paris founded?
5728fa29af94a219006a9ea4
1795
653
False
Under whos reign did the lute become popular?
5728fa29af94a219006a9ea5
Francois I
227
False
Who wrote Carmen?
5728fa29af94a219006a9ea6
Georges Bizet's
958
False
Where was Frederic Chopin from?
5728fa29af94a219006a9ea7
Poland
1489
False
In the late 12th-century, a school of polyphony was established at the Notre-Dame. A group of Parisian aristocrats, known as Trouvères, became known for their poetry and songs. Troubadors were also popular. During the reign of Francois I, the lute became popular in the French court, and a national musical printing house was established. During the Renaissance era, the French Boleroroyals "disported themselves in masques, ballets, allegorical dances, recitals, and opera and comedy". Baroque-era composers include Jean-Baptiste Lully, Jean-Philippe Rameau, and François Couperin and were popular. The Conservatoire de Musique de Paris was founded in 1795. By 1870, Paris had become an important centre for symphony, ballet and operatic music. Romantic-era composers (in Paris) include Hector Berlioz (La Symphonie fantastique), Charles Gounod (Faust), Camille Saint-Saëns (Samson et Delilah), Léo Delibes (Lakmé) and Jules Massenet (Thaïs), among others. Georges Bizet's Carmen premiered 3 March 1875. Carmen has since become one of the most popular and frequently-performed operas in the classical canon; Impressionist composers Claude Debussy ((La Mer) and Maurice Ravel (Boléro) also made significant contributions to piano (Clair de lune, Miroirs), orchestra, opera (Palléas et Mélisande), and other musical forms. Foreign-born composers have made their homes in Paris and have made significant contributions both with their works and their influence. They include Frédéric Chopin (Poland), Franz Liszt (Hungary), Jacques Offenbach (Germany), and Igor Stravinsky (Russia).
What style of french music became populars in the 1870sto 1880s?
5728fb086aef051400154934
Bal-musette
0
False
in 1880, how many dance halls were in Paris?
5728fb086aef051400154935
150
131
False
What is a cabrette known as locally?
5728fb086aef051400154936
musette
303
False
What type of bars were accordions often played in?
5728fb086aef051400154937
Auvergnat
494
False
Bal-musette is a style of French music and dance that first became popular in Paris in the 1870s and 1880s; by 1880 Paris had some 150 dance halls in the working-class neighbourhoods of the city. Patrons danced the bourrée to the accompaniment of the cabrette (a bellows-blown bagpipe locally called a "musette") and often the vielle à roue (hurdy-gurdy) in the cafés and bars of the city. Parisian and Italian musicians who played the accordion adopted the style and established themselves in Auvergnat bars especially in the 19th arrondissement, and the romantic sounds of the accordion has since become one of the musical icons of the city. Paris became a major centre for jazz and still attracts jazz musicians from all around the world to its clubs and cafés.
When did most of the jazz clubs close down?
5728fb541d04691400778eef
1960s
475
False
Why did the jazz clubs close down?
5728fb541d04691400778ef0
musical tastes shifted toward rock and roll
485
False
Where were most jazz clubs located?
5728fb541d04691400778ef1
cellars
151
False
Immediately after the War The Saint-Germain-des-Pres quarter and the nearby Saint-Michel quarter became home to many small jazz clubs, mostly found in cellars because of a lack of space; these included the Caveau des Lorientais, the Club Saint-Germain, the Rose Rouge, the Vieux-Colombier, and the most famous, Le Tabou. They introduced Parisians to the music of Claude Luter, Boris Vian, Sydney Bechet Mezz Mezzrow, and Henri Salvador. Most of the clubs closed by the early 1960s, as musical tastes shifted toward rock and roll.
Where was the first movie projected for a paying audience in Paris?
5728fbba3f37b31900477efd
Grand Café
132
False
What date was the first movie played in Paris for a paying crowd?
5728fbba3f37b31900477efe
28 December 1895
146
False
In what decade did movie theaters become popular?
5728fbba3f37b31900477eff
1930s
283
False
What is the largest cinema room today in Paris?
5728fbba3f37b31900477f00
Le Grand Rex
407
False
The movie industry was born in Paris when Auguste and Louis Lumière projected the first motion picture for a paying audience at the Grand Café on 28 December 1895. Many of Paris' concert/dance halls were transformed into movie theatres when the media became popular beginning in the 1930s. Later, most of the largest cinemas were divided into multiple, smaller rooms. Paris' largest cinema room today is in Le Grand Rex theatre with 2,700 seats. Big multiplex movie theaters have been built since the 1990s. UGC Ciné Cité Les Halles with 27 screens, MK2 Bibliothèque with 20 screens and UGC Ciné Cité Bercy with 18 screens are among the largest.
Who realied the first digital cinema projection in Europe?
5728fc371d04691400778eff
Philippe Binant
457
False
Who developed the technology for the digital cinema projection?
5728fc371d04691400778f00
Texas Instruments
573
False
What types of films are most popular in Paris?
5728fc371d04691400778f01
Hollywood-generated
126
False
When was the first digital cinema projection in Europe?
5728fc371d04691400778f02
2 February 2000
440
False
Parisians tend to share the same movie-going trends as many of the world's global cities, with cinemas primarily dominated by Hollywood-generated film entertainment. French cinema comes a close second, with major directors (réalisateurs) such as Claude Lelouch, Jean-Luc Godard, and Luc Besson, and the more slapstick/popular genre with director Claude Zidi as an example. European and Asian films are also widely shown and appreciated. On 2 February 2000, Philippe Binant realised the first digital cinema projection in Europe, with the DLP CINEMA technology developed by Texas Instruments, in Paris.
What is the model for luxury Parisian restaurants?
5728fcb73f37b31900477f19
La Taverne Anglaise
162
False
When did La Taverne Angaise open?
5728fcb73f37b31900477f1a
1786
193
False
In what century was Cafe Anglais, Cafe de Paris and Rocher de Cancale opened?
5728fcb73f37b31900477f1b
19th
539
False
Near what were most restaurants opened?
5728fcb73f37b31900477f1c
theatres
685
False
Since the late 18th century, Paris has been famous for its restaurants and haute cuisine, food meticulously prepared and artfully presented. A luxury restaurant, La Taverne Anglaise, opened in 1786 in the arcades of the Palais-Royal by Antoine Beauvilliers; it featured an elegant dining room, an extensive menu, linen tablecloths, a large wine list and well-trained waiters; it became a model for future Paris restaurants. The restaurant Le Grand Véfour in the Palais-Royal dates from the same period. The famous Paris restaurants of the 19th century, including the Café de Paris, the Rocher de Cancale, the Café Anglais, Maison Dorée and the Café Riche, were mostly located near the theatres on the Boulevard des Italiens; they were immortalised in the novels of Balzac and Émile Zola. Several of the best-known restaurants in Paris today appeared during the Belle Epoque, including Maxim's on Rue Royale, Ledoyen in the gardens of the Champs-Élysées, and the Tour d'Argent on the Quai de la Tournelle.
How many restaurants are there today in Paris?
5728fe66af94a219006a9eed
9,000
169
False
When was the Michelin guide created?
5728fe66af94a219006a9eee
1900
261
False
How many 3 star Michelin restaurants were in Paris in 2015?
5728fe66af94a219006a9eef
nine
405
False
How many 3 star Michelin restaurants were in France in 2015?
5728fe66af94a219006a9ef0
29
359
False
Today, thanks to Paris' cosmopolitan population, every French regional cuisine and almost every national cuisine in the world can be found there; the city has more than 9,000 restaurants. The Michelin Guide has been a standard guide to French restaurants since 1900, awarding its highest award, three stars, to the best restaurants in France. In 2015, of the 29 Michelin three-star restaurants in France, nine are located in Paris. These include both restaurants which serve classical French cuisine, such as L'Ambroisie in the Place des Vosges, and those which serve non-traditional menus, such as L'Astrance, which combines French and Asian cuisines. Several of France's most famous chefs, including Pierre Gagnaire, Alain Ducasse, Yannick Alléno and Alain Passard, have three-star restaurants in Paris.
When was the first cafe opened in Paris?
5728fed96aef051400154954
17th century
135
False
What is the oldest cafe in Paris?
5728fed96aef051400154955
Cafe Procope
297
False
What type of eating place is defined as a neighborhood restaurant?
5728fed96aef051400154956
bistro
624
False
When was the brasserie made popular?
5728fed96aef051400154957
Paris Exposition of 1867
1275
False
In addition to the classical restaurants, Paris has several other kinds of traditional eating places. The café arrived in Paris in the 17th century, when the beverage was first brought from Turkey, and by the 18th century Parisian cafés were centres of the city's political and cultural life. The Cafe Procope on the Left Bank dates from this period. In the 20th century, the cafés of the Left Bank, especially Café de la Rotonde and Le Dôme Café in Montparnasse and Café de Flore and Les Deux Magots on Boulevard Saint Germain, all still in business, were important meeting places for painters, writers and philosophers. A bistro is a type of eating place loosely defined as a neighbourhood restaurant with a modest decor and prices and a regular clientele and a congenial atmosphere. Its name is said to have come in 1814 from the Russian soldiers who occupied the city; "bistro" means "quickly" in Russian, and they wanted their meals served rapidly so they could get back their encampment. Real bistros are increasingly rare in Paris, due to rising costs, competition from cheaper ethnic restaurants, and different eating habits of Parisian diners. A brasserie originally was a tavern located next to a brewery, which served beer and food at any hour. Beginning with the Paris Exposition of 1867; it became a popular kind of restaurant which featured beer and other beverages served by young women in the national costume associated with the beverage, particular German costumes for beer. Now brasseries, like cafés, serve food and drinks throughout the day.
What is clothing made to order for private clients called?
5728ff31af94a219006a9f05
haute couture
110
False
Dior is from which city?
5728ff31af94a219006a9f06
Paris
0
False
In what century did Paris become largely into fashion?
5728ff31af94a219006a9f07
19th
66
False
What is the world's largest cosmetic company?
5728ff31af94a219006a9f08
L'Oréal
683
False
Paris has been an international capital of high fashion since the 19th century, particularly in the domain of haute couture, clothing hand-made to order for private clients. It is home of some of the largest fashion houses in the world, including Dior and Chanel, and of many well-known fashion designers, including Karl Lagerfeld, Jean-Paul Gaultier, Christophe Josse and Christian Lacroix. Paris Fashion Week, held in January and July in the Carrousel du Louvre and other city locations, is among the top four events of the international fashion calendar, along with the fashion weeks in Milan, London and New York. Paris is also the home of the world's largest cosmetics company, L'Oréal, and three of the five top global makers of luxury fashion accessories; Louis Vuitton, Hermés and Cartier.
How many centres of higher education are in Paris?
5728ffa16aef051400154964
55
78
False
During which time frame were most grandes ecoles relocated?
5728ffa16aef051400154965
1960s and 1970s
317
False
Where is ENA located?
5728ffa16aef051400154966
Strasbourg,
901
False
Where is CESLA located?
5728ffa16aef051400154967
Neuilly-sur-Seine
1203
False
The Paris region hosts France's highest concentration of the grandes écoles – 55 specialised centres of higher-education outside the public university structure. The prestigious public universities are usually considered grands établissements. Most of the grandes écoles were relocated to the suburbs of Paris in the 1960s and 1970s, in new campuses much larger than the old campuses within the crowded city of Paris, though the École Normale Supérieure has remained on rue d'Ulm in the 5th arrondissement. There are a high number of engineering schools, led by the Paris Institute of Technology which comprises several colleges such as École Polytechnique, École des Mines, AgroParisTech, Télécom Paris, Arts et Métiers, and École des Ponts et Chaussées. There are also many business schools, including HEC, INSEAD, ESSEC, and ESCP Europe. The administrative school such as ENA has been relocated to Strasbourg, the political science school Sciences-Po is still located in Paris' 7th arrondissement and the most prestigious university of economics and finance, Paris-Dauphine, is located in Paris' 16th. The Parisian school of journalism CELSA department of the Paris-Sorbonne University is located in Neuilly-sur-Seine. Paris is also home to several of France's most famous high-schools such as Lycée Louis-le-Grand, Lycée Henri-IV, Lycée Janson de Sailly and Lycée Condorcet. The National Institute of Sport and Physical Education, located in the 12th arrondissement, is both a physical education institute and high-level training centre for elite athletes.
Who operates the public libraries in Paris?
572900181d04691400778f45
Bibliothèque nationale de France
4
False
What is the Forney Library dedicated to?
572900181d04691400778f46
decorative arts
311
False
When was the Sainte Genevieve Library built?
572900181d04691400778f47
mid-1800s
655
False
What is the oldest public library in France?
572900181d04691400778f48
Bibliothèque Mazarine
715
False
Which library contains four glass towers?
572900181d04691400778f49
The François Mitterrand Library
921
False
The Bibliothèque nationale de France (BnF) operates public libraries in Paris, among them the François Mitterrand Library, Richelieu Library, Louvois, Opéra Library, and Arsenal Library. There are three public libraries in the 4th arrondissement. The Forney Library, in the Marais district, is dedicated to the decorative arts; the Arsenal Library occupies a former military building, and has a large collection on French literature; and the Bibliothèque historique de la ville de Paris, also in Le Marais, contains the Paris historical research service. The Sainte-Geneviève Library is in 5th arrondissement; designed by Henri Labrouste and built in the mid-1800s, it contains a rare book and manuscript division. Bibliothèque Mazarine, in the 6th arrondissement, is the oldest public library in France. The Médiathèque Musicale Mahler in the 8th arrondissement opened in 1986 and contains collections related to music. The François Mitterrand Library (nicknamed Très Grande Bibliothèque) in the 13th arrondissement was completed in 1994 to a design of Dominique Perrault and contains four glass towers.
What is the largest university library?
572900863f37b31900477f5b
Sorbonne Library
64
False
Outside of France, where are the other three branches of the Sorbonne library located?
572900863f37b31900477f5c
Malesherbes, Clignancourt-Championnet, Michelet-Institut d'Art et d'Archéologie, Serpente-Maison de la Recherche, and Institut des Etudes Ibériques
211
False
In what arrondissement is the Sorbonne library in Paris located?
572900863f37b31900477f5d
5th
88
False
There are several academic libraries and archives in Paris. The Sorbonne Library in the 5th arrondissement is the largest university library in Paris. In addition to the Sorbonne location, there are branches in Malesherbes, Clignancourt-Championnet, Michelet-Institut d'Art et d'Archéologie, Serpente-Maison de la Recherche, and Institut des Etudes Ibériques. Other academic libraries include Interuniversity Pharmaceutical Library, Leonardo da Vinci University Library, Paris School of Mines Library, and the René Descartes University Library.
What is the most predominant religion in France?
572900de3f37b31900477f61
Roman Catholic
54
False
How many parishes and curates were there in 2011?
572900de3f37b31900477f62
106
238
False
How many catholic schools are in Paris?
572900de3f37b31900477f63
110
568
False
How many students attend catholic schools?
572900de3f37b31900477f64
75,000
594
False
Like the rest of France, Paris has been predominantly Roman Catholic since the early Middle Ages, though religious attendance is now low. A majority of Parisians are still nominally Roman Catholic. According to 2011 statistics, there are 106 parishes and curates in the city, plus separate parishes for Spanish, Polish and Portuguese Catholics. There are an additional 10 Eastern Orthodox parishes, and bishops for the Armenian and Ukrainian Orthodox Churches. In addition there are eighty male religious orders and 140 female religious orders in the city, as well as 110 Catholic schools with 75,000 students.
How many evangelical churches are there in Paris?
572901346aef051400154980
74
67
False
How many parishes of the LDS church are in Paris?
572901346aef051400154981
two
187
False
When was the American Church in Paris founded?
572901346aef051400154982
1814
370
False
What is the principal Anglican church in Paris?
572901356aef051400154983
Saint George's Anglican Church
478
False
Almost all Protestant denominations are represented in Paris, with 74 evangelical churches from various denominations, including 21 parishes of the United Protestant Church of France and two parishes of the Church of Jesus Christ of the Latter-Day Saints. There are several important churches for the English-speaking community: the American Church in Paris, founded in 1814, was the first American church outside the United States; the current church was finished in 1931. The Saint George's Anglican Church in the 16th arrondissement is the principal Anglican church in the city.
What percentage of France's Jewish population survived the holocaust?
572901d03f37b31900477f73
75
420
False
When did a large number of Sephardic Jews settle in Paris?
572901d03f37b31900477f74
1960s
676
False
Who built the Marais-quarter Agodudas Hakehilos Synagogue?
572901d03f37b31900477f75
Hector Guimard
861
False
When was the Marais-quarter Agoudas Hakehilos Synagogue built?
572901d03f37b31900477f76
1913
843
False
During the Middle Ages, Paris was a center of Jewish learning with famous Talmudic scholars, such as Yechiel of Paris who took part in the Disputation of Paris between Christian and Jewish intellectuals. The Parisian Jewish community was victim of persecution, alternating expulsions and returns, until France became the first country in Europe to emancipate its Jewish population during the French Revolution. Although 75% of the Jewish population in France survived the Holocaust during World War II, half the city's Jewish population perished in Nazi concentration camps, while some others fled abroad. A large migration of North Africa Sephardic Jews settled Paris in the 1960s, and represent most of the Paris Jewish community today. There are currently 83 synagogues in the city; The Marais-quarter Agoudas Hakehilos Synagogue, built in 1913 by architect Hector Guimard, is a Paris landmark.
What is the former Cameroon pavilion?
57290253af94a219006a9f2b
The Pagode de Vincennes Buddhist temple
0
False
Where is the biggest Buddha statue in Europe?
57290253af94a219006a9f2c
The Pagode de Vincennes Buddhist temple
0
False
How tall is the biggest Buddha statue in Europe?
57290253af94a219006a9f2d
more than nine metres high
292
False
When did the Hindu temple on Rue Pajol open?
57290253af94a219006a9f2e
1985
501
False
The Pagode de Vincennes Buddhist temple, near Lake Daumesnil in the Bois de Vincennes, is the former Cameroon pavilion from the 1931 Paris Colonial Exposition. It hosts several different schools of Buddhism, and does not have a single leader. It shelters the biggest Buddha statue in Europe, more than nine metres high. There are two other small temples located in the Asian community in the 13th arrondissement. A Hindu temple, dedicated to Ganesh, on Rue Pajol in the 18th arrondissement, opened in 1985.
How many seats are in the State de France?
572902c3af94a219006a9f33
80,000
136
False
What was the State de France built for?
572902c3af94a219006a9f34
1998 FIFA World Cup
179
False
What is the most popular football club in Paris?
572902c3af94a219006a9f35
Paris Saint-Germain F.C.
66
False
What is the rugby club in Paris?
572902c3af94a219006a9f36
Stade Français
116
False
Paris' most popular sport clubs are the association football club Paris Saint-Germain F.C. and the rugby union club Stade Français. The 80,000-seat Stade de France, built for the 1998 FIFA World Cup, is located just north of Paris in the commune of Saint-Denis. It is used for football, rugby union and track and field athletics. It hosts the French national football team for friendlies and major tournaments qualifiers, annually hosts the French national rugby team's home matches of the Six Nations Championship, and hosts several important matches of the Stade Français rugby team. In addition to Paris Saint-Germain FC, the city has a number of other amateur football clubs: Paris FC, Red Star, RCF Paris and Stade Français Paris.
Who oversees the transit network in Paris?
572903196aef051400154992
The Syndicat des transports d'Île-de-France
55
False
What was the STIF formerly known as?
572903196aef051400154993
Syndicat des transports parisiens
116
False
How many bus lines does the STIF oversee?
572903196aef051400154994
347
288
False
How many bus lines does the Optile Consortium manage?
572903196aef051400154995
1,176
505
False
Paris is a major rail, highway, and air transport hub. The Syndicat des transports d'Île-de-France (STIF), formerly Syndicat des transports parisiens (STP), oversees the transit network in the region. The syndicate coordinates public transport and contracts it out to the RATP (operating 347 bus lines, the Métro, eight tramway lines, and sections of the RER), the SNCF (operating suburban rails, one tramway line and the other sections of the RER) and the Optile consortium of private operators managing 1,176 bus lines.
Where does line T1 run from?
572903876aef05140015499a
Asnières-Gennevilliers to Noisy-le-Sec
110
False
Where does line T2 run?
572903876aef05140015499b
Pont de Bezons to Porte de Versailles
168
False
How many lines are in the rail network?
572903876aef05140015499c
nine
67
False
where does T5 run?
572903876aef05140015499d
Saint-Denis to Garges-Sarcelles
349
False
Who operates these lines?
572903876aef05140015499e
Régie Autonome des Transports Parisiens
565
False
In addition, the Paris region is served by a light rail network of nine lines, the tramway: Line T1 runs from Asnières-Gennevilliers to Noisy-le-Sec, line T2 runs from Pont de Bezons to Porte de Versailles, line T3a runs from Pont du Garigliano to Porte de Vincennes, line T3b runs from Porte de Vincennes to Porte de la Chapelle, line T5 runs from Saint-Denis to Garges-Sarcelles, line T6 runs from Châtillon to Velizy, line T7 runs from Villejuif to Athis-Mons, line T8 runs from Saint-Denis to Épinay-sur-Seine and Villetaneuse, all of which are operated by the Régie Autonome des Transports Parisiens, and line T4 runs from Bondy RER to Aulnay-sous-Bois, which is operated by the state rail carrier SNCF. Five new light rail lines are currently in various stages of development.
Where is the 4th busiest international air transport hub in the world?
572903de1d04691400778f73
Paris
0
False
How many passengers did Paris see in 2014?
572903de1d04691400778f74
96.5 million
268
False
What is the oldest air port in Paris?
572903de1d04691400778f75
Paris-Le Bourget
345
False
Paris is a major international air transport hub with the 4th busiest airport system in the world. The city is served by three commercial international airports: Paris-Charles de Gaulle, Paris-Orly and Beauvais-Tillé. Together these three airports recorded traffic of 96.5 million passengers in 2014. There is also one general aviation airport, Paris-Le Bourget, historically the oldest Parisian airport and closest to the city centre, which is now used only for private business flights and air shows.
What airport does Ryanair use?
57290440af94a219006a9f45
Beauvais-Tillé Airport
439
False
Where is the hub for Air France?
57290440af94a219006a9f46
Charles de Gaulle Airport
139
False
What is the busiest airport in Paris?
57290440af94a219006a9f47
Charles de Gaulle Airport
139
False
Where is Orly airport located?
57290440af94a219006a9f48
southern suburbs of Paris
29
False
Orly Airport, located in the southern suburbs of Paris, replaced Le Bourget as the principal airport of Paris from the 1950s to the 1980s. Charles de Gaulle Airport, located on the edge of the northern suburbs of Paris, opened to commercial traffic in 1974 and became the busiest Parisian airport in 1993. Today it is the 4th busiest airport in the world by international traffic, and is the hub for the nation's flag carrier Air France.  Beauvais-Tillé Airport, located 69 km (43 mi) north of Paris' city centre, is used by charter airlines and low-cost carriers such as Ryanair.
WHen did the Canal de l'Ourcq start providing Paris with water?
572905aeaf94a219006a9f73
1809
80
False
Who was Eugene Belgrand under?
572905aeaf94a219006a9f74
Napoleon III
246
False
How many km of underground passageways are dedicated to teh evacuationof Paris' waste liquids?
572905aeaf94a219006a9f75
2,400
775
False
Who created Paris' reservoir system?
572905aeaf94a219006a9f76
Eugène Belgrand
223
False
Paris in its early history had only the Seine and Bièvre rivers for water. From 1809, the Canal de l'Ourcq provided Paris with water from less-polluted rivers to the north-east of the capital. From 1857, the civil engineer Eugène Belgrand, under Napoleon III, oversaw the construction of a series of new aqueducts that brought water from locations all around the city to several reservoirs built atop the Capital's highest points of elevation. From then on, the new reservoir system became Paris' principal source of drinking water, and the remains of the old system, pumped into lower levels of the same reservoirs, were from then on used for the cleaning of Paris' streets. This system is still a major part of Paris' modern water-supply network. Today Paris has more than 2,400 km (1,491 mi) of underground passageways dedicated to the evacuation of Paris' liquid wastes.
How many municipal parks and gardens does Paris have?
57290621af94a219006a9f7b
421
26
False
When was the Tuileries Garden created?
57290621af94a219006a9f7c
1564
215
False
Who redid the Tuileries Garden in 1664?
57290621af94a219006a9f7d
André Le Nôtre
260
False
Who was the Luxembourg palace built for?
57290621af94a219006a9f7e
Marie de' Medici
362
False
Who created the Jarden des Plantes?
57290621af94a219006a9f7f
Guy de La Brosse
529
False
Paris today has more than 421 municipal parks and gardens, covering more than 3,000 hectares and containing more than 250,000 trees. Two of Paris' oldest and most famous gardens are the Tuileries Garden, created in 1564 for the Tuileries Palace, and redone by André Le Nôtre between 1664 and 1672, and the Luxembourg Garden, for the Luxembourg Palace, built for Marie de' Medici in 1612, which today houses the French Senate. The Jardin des Plantes was the first botanical garden in Paris, created in 1626 by Louis XIII's doctor Guy de La Brosse for the cultivation of medicinal plants.
Who was Paris' first director of parks and gardens?
5729068e1d04691400778f8d
Jean-Charles Alphand
100
False
How many new parks have been created in Paris since 1977?
5729068e1d04691400778f8e
166
392
False
WHen was the Parc de la Villette created?
5729068e1d04691400778f8f
1987
445
False
What park has floating gardens?
5729068e1d04691400778f90
Promenade des Berges de la Seine
534
False
When was the Promenade des Berges de la Seine built?
5729068e1d04691400778f91
2013
568
False
Between 1853 and 1870, the Emperor Napoleon III and the city's first director of parks and gardens, Jean-Charles Alphand, created the Bois de Boulogne, the Bois de Vincennes, Parc Montsouris and the Parc des Buttes-Chaumont, located at the four points of the compass around the city, as well as many smaller parks, squares and gardens in the Paris' quarters. Since 1977, the city has created 166 new parks, most notably the Parc de la Villette (1987), Parc André Citroën (1992), and Parc de Bercy (1997). One of the newest parks, the Promenade des Berges de la Seine (2013), built on a former highway on the Left Bank of the Seine between the Pont de l'Alma and the Musée d'Orsay, has floating gardens and gives a view of the city's landmarks.
What is Paris' largest cemetary?
572906f5af94a219006a9f97
les Innocents
311
False
When were inner city burials banned?
572906f5af94a219006a9f98
1786
452
False
During what years were the bones moved from Cimetiere des Innocents to the catacombs?
572906f5af94a219006a9f99
1786 and 1814
755
False
Where can view the network of tunnels to the catacombs?
572906f5af94a219006a9f9a
the official tour of the catacombs
837
False
In Paris' Roman era, its main cemetery was located to the outskirts of the Left Bank settlement, but this changed with the rise of Catholicism, where most every inner-city church had adjoining burial grounds for use by their parishes. With Paris' growth many of these, particularly the city's largest cemetery, les Innocents, were filled to overflowing, creating quite unsanitary conditions for the capital. When inner-city burials were condemned from 1786, the contents of all Paris' parish cemeteries were transferred to a renovated section of Paris' stone mines outside the "Porte d'Enfer" city gate, today place Denfert-Rochereau in the 14th arrondissement. The process of moving bones from Cimetière des Innocents to the catacombs took place between 1786 and 1814; part of the network of tunnels and remains can be visited today on the official tour of the catacombs.
Who was Prefect Nicholas Frochot under?
572907f7af94a219006a9f9f
Napoleon Bonaparte
102
False
When were the 3 new cemeteries open?
572907f7af94a219006a9fa0
1804
245
False
What is the largest of the cemeteries created in the 20th centuries?
572907f7af94a219006a9fa1
Cimetière parisien de Saint-Ouen
596
False
After a tentative creation of several smaller suburban cemeteries, the Prefect Nicholas Frochot under Napoleon Bonaparte provided a more definitive solution in the creation of three massive Parisian cemeteries outside the city limits. Open from 1804, these were the cemeteries of Père Lachaise, Montmartre, Montparnasse, and later Passy; these cemeteries became inner-city once again when Paris annexed all neighbouring communes to the inside of its much larger ring of suburban fortifications in 1860. New suburban cemeteries were created in the early 20th century: The largest of these are the Cimetière parisien de Saint-Ouen, the Cimetière parisien de Pantin (also known as Cimetière parisien de Pantin-Bobigny, the Cimetière parisien d'Ivry, and the Cimetière parisien de Bagneux).[citation needed] Some of the most famous people in the world are buried in Parisian cemeteries.
Who provides emergency care in the city of Paris?
5729083aaf94a219006a9fa5
Assistance publique - Hôpitaux de Paris
99
False
How many people are employed at AP-HP?
5729083aaf94a219006a9fa6
90,000
196
False
How many hospitals are in Paris?
5729083aaf94a219006a9fa7
44
278
False
How many patients visit the hospitals annually?
5729083aaf94a219006a9fa8
5.8 million
494
False
Health care and emergency medical service in the city of Paris and its suburbs are provided by the Assistance publique - Hôpitaux de Paris (AP-HP), a public hospital system that employs more than 90,000 people (including practitioners, support personnel, and administrators) in 44 hospitals. It is the largest hospital system in Europe. It provides health care, teaching, research, prevention, education and emergency medical service in 52 branches of medicine. The hospitals receive more than 5.8 million annual patient visits.
What are France's two most prestigious newspapers?
57290895af94a219006a9fad
Le Monde and Le Figaro
376
False
What is France's oldest operating news agency?
57290895af94a219006a9fae
Agence
458
False
When did Agence open in Paris?
57290895af94a219006a9faf
1835
660
False
What television station is operated by the French government?
57290895af94a219006a9fb0
France 24
666
False
Paris and its close suburbs is home to numerous newspapers, magazines and publications including Le Monde, Le Figaro, Libération, Le Nouvel Observateur, Le Canard enchaîné, La Croix, Pariscope, Le Parisien (in Saint-Ouen), Les Échos, Paris Match (Neuilly-sur-Seine), Réseaux & Télécoms, Reuters France, and L'Officiel des Spectacles. France's two most prestigious newspapers, Le Monde and Le Figaro, are the centrepieces of the Parisian publishing industry. Agence France-Presse is France's oldest, and one of the world's oldest, continually operating news agencies. AFP, as it is colloquially abbreviated, maintains its headquarters in Paris, as it has since 1835. France 24 is a television news channel owned and operated by the French government, and is based in Paris. Another news agency is France Diplomatie, owned and operated by the Ministry of Foreign and European Affairs, and pertains solely to diplomatic news and occurrences.
What is the most viewed television network in France?
572908deaf94a219006a9fb5
TF1
35
False
Where is TF1 located?
572908deaf94a219006a9fb6
Boulogne-Billancourt
53
False
What is France's public radio broadcaster?
572908deaf94a219006a9fb7
Radio France
271
False
What is the name of France's national postal carrier?
572908deaf94a219006a9fb8
La Poste
518
False
The most-viewed network in France, TF1, is in nearby Boulogne-Billancourt; France 2, France 3, Canal+, France 5, M6 (Neuilly-sur-Seine), Arte, D8, W9, NT1, NRJ 12, La Chaîne parlementaire, France 4, BFM TV, and Gulli are other stations located in and around the capital. Radio France, France's public radio broadcaster, and its various channels, is headquartered in Paris' 16th arrondissement. Radio France Internationale, another public broadcaster is also based in the city. Paris also holds the headquarters of the La Poste, France's national postal carrier.
Apollo
What is the word for a beardless, athletic youth?
5728b3194b864d1900164c50
kouros
323
False
What is one of the most important and complex of the Olympian deities in classical Greek and Roman religion?
5728b3194b864d1900164c51
Apollo
0
False
Who are the parents of Apollo?
5728b3194b864d1900164c52
Zeus and Leto
512
False
Who is Apollo's twin sister?
5728b3194b864d1900164c53
Artemis
570
False
What name is Apollo known by in Etruscan mythology?
5728b3194b864d1900164c54
Apulu
637
False
Apollo (Attic, Ionic, and Homeric Greek: Ἀπόλλων, Apollōn (GEN Ἀπόλλωνος); Doric: Ἀπέλλων, Apellōn; Arcadocypriot: Ἀπείλων, Apeilōn; Aeolic: Ἄπλουν, Aploun; Latin: Apollō) is one of the most important and complex of the Olympian deities in classical Greek and Roman religion and Greek and Roman mythology. The ideal of the kouros (a beardless, athletic youth), Apollo has been variously recognized as a god of music, truth and prophecy, healing, the sun and light, plague, poetry, and more. Apollo is the son of Zeus and Leto, and has a twin sister, the chaste huntress Artemis. Apollo is known in Greek-influenced Etruscan mythology as Apulu.
Who was described at the prophetic deity of the Delphic Oracle?
5728b3aeff5b5019007da4e6
Apollo
42
False
What is the name of Apollo's son?
5728b3aeff5b5019007da4e7
Asclepius
221
False
Who created the lyre for Apollo?
5728b3aeff5b5019007da4e8
Hermes
585
False
What was the term for hymns sung to Apollo?
5728b3aeff5b5019007da4e9
paeans
707
False
As the patron of Delphi (Pythian Apollo), Apollo was an oracular god—the prophetic deity of the Delphic Oracle. Medicine and healing are associated with Apollo, whether through the god himself or mediated through his son Asclepius, yet Apollo was also seen as a god who could bring ill-health and deadly plague. Amongst the god's custodial charges, Apollo became associated with dominion over colonists, and as the patron defender of herds and flocks. As the leader of the Muses (Apollon Musegetes) and director of their choir, Apollo functioned as the patron god of music and poetry. Hermes created the lyre for him, and the instrument became a common attribute of Apollo. Hymns sung to Apollo were called paeans.
Who was the Titan goddess of the moon?
5728b449ff5b5019007da4f6
Selene
193
False
In Hellenestic times, Greeks identified Apollo Helios as what name?
5728b449ff5b5019007da4f7
Helios
117
False
What was the name of Apollo's sister?
5728b449ff5b5019007da4f8
Artemis
162
False
In Hellenistic times, especially during the 3rd century BCE, as Apollo Helios he became identified among Greeks with Helios, Titan god of the sun, and his sister Artemis similarly equated with Selene, Titan goddess of the moon. In Latin texts, on the other hand, Joseph Fontenrose declared himself unable to find any conflation of Apollo with Sol among the Augustan poets of the 1st century, not even in the conjurations of Aeneas and Latinus in Aeneid XII (161–215). Apollo and Helios/Sol remained separate beings in literary and mythological texts until the 3rd century CE.
What is the name of the popular assembly in Sparta?
5728b4f54b864d1900164c82
Apella
646
False
Apellon is derived from what Doric month?
5728b4f54b864d1900164c83
Apellaios
313
False
What is offered at the initiation of young men during familly-festival apellai?
5728b4f54b864d1900164c84
apellaia
354
False
What Doric word originally meant wall or fence for animals?
5728b4f54b864d1900164c85
apella
524
False
The etymology of the name is uncertain. The spelling Ἀπόλλων (pronounced [a.pól.lɔːn] in Classical Attic) had almost superseded all other forms by the beginning of the common era, but the Doric form Apellon (Ἀπέλλων), is more archaic, derived from an earlier *Ἀπέλjων. It probably is a cognate to the Doric month Apellaios (Ἀπελλαῖος), and the offerings apellaia (ἀπελλαῖα) at the initiation of the young men during the family-festival apellai (ἀπέλλαι). According to some scholars the words are derived from the Doric word apella (ἀπέλλα), which originally meant "wall," "fence for animals" and later "assembly within the limits of the square." Apella (Ἀπέλλα) is the name of the popular assembly in Sparta, corresponding to the ecclesia (ἐκκλησία). R. S. P. Beekes rejected the connection of the theonym with the noun apellai and suggested a Pre-Greek proto-form *Apalyun.
What Doric word means assembly?
5728b5b42ca10214002da630
apella
527
False
What is the Ancient Macedonian word for stone?
5728b5b42ca10214002da631
pella
769
False
What is the Greek word for "to destroy?"
5728b5b42ca10214002da632
apollymi
157
False
Several instances of popular etymology are attested from ancient authors. Thus, the Greeks most often associated Apollo's name with the Greek verb ἀπόλλυμι (apollymi), "to destroy". Plato in Cratylus connects the name with ἀπόλυσις (apolysis), "redemption", with ἀπόλουσις (apolousis), "purification", and with ἁπλοῦν ([h]aploun), "simple", in particular in reference to the Thessalian form of the name, Ἄπλουν, and finally with Ἀειβάλλων (aeiballon), "ever-shooting". Hesychius connects the name Apollo with the Doric ἀπέλλα (apella), which means "assembly", so that Apollo would be the god of political life, and he also gives the explanation σηκός (sekos), "fold", in which case Apollo would be the god of flocks and herds. In the Ancient Macedonian language πέλλα (pella) means "stone," and some toponyms may be derived from this word: Πέλλα (Pella, the capital of Ancient Macedonia) and Πελλήνη (Pellēnē/Pallene).
Who is a god of plague?
5728b6442ca10214002da636
Aplu
216
False
What is the meaning of Akkadia Apllu Enlil?
5728b6442ca10214002da637
the son of Enlil
295
False
What title was given to the god Nergal?
5728b6442ca10214002da638
Akkadian Aplu Enlil
259
False
Who was the Trojan priest of Apollo?
5728b6442ca10214002da639
Chryses
515
False
A number of non-Greek etymologies have been suggested for the name, The Hittite form Apaliunas (dx-ap-pa-li-u-na-aš) is attested in the Manapa-Tarhunta letter, perhaps related to Hurrian (and certainly the Etruscan) Aplu, a god of plague, in turn likely from Akkadian Aplu Enlil meaning simply "the son of Enlil", a title that was given to the god Nergal, who was linked to Shamash, Babylonian god of the sun. The role of Apollo as god of plague is evident in the invocation of Apollo Smintheus ("mouse Apollo") by Chryses, the Trojan priest of Apollo, with the purpose of sending a plague against the Greeks (the reasoning behind a god of the plague becoming a god of healing is of course apotropaic, meaning that the god responsible for bringing the plague must be appeased in order to remove the plague).
Who was the god of light?
5728b8c8ff5b5019007da56c
Apollo
29
False
Who was the patron goddess of Lycia?
5728b8c8ff5b5019007da56e
Leto
478
False
What word literally means "born of a wolf?"
5728b8c8ff5b5019007da56f
Lukēgenēs
652
False
Since Apollo was known as god of the sun, what was another name for Apollo?
5728b8c8ff5b5019007da570
Sol
863
False
As sun-god and god of light, Apollo was also known by the epithets Aegletes (/əˈɡliːtiːz/ ə-GLEE-teez; Αἰγλήτης, Aiglētēs, from αἴγλη, "light of the sun"), Helius (/ˈhiːliəs/ HEE-lee-əs; Ἥλιος, Helios, literally "sun"), Phanaeus (/fəˈniːəs/ fə-NEE-əs; Φαναῖος, Phanaios, literally "giving or bringing light"), and Lyceus (/laɪˈsiːəs/ ly-SEE-əs; Λύκειος, Lykeios, from Proto-Greek *λύκη, "light"). The meaning of the epithet "Lyceus" later became associated with Apollo's mother Leto, who was the patron goddess of Lycia (Λυκία) and who was identified with the wolf (λύκος), earning him the epithets Lycegenes (/laɪˈsɛdʒəniːz/ ly-SEJ-ə-neez; Λυκηγενής, Lukēgenēs, literally "born of a wolf" or "born of Lycia") and Lycoctonus (/laɪˈkɒktənəs/ ly-KOK-tə-nəs; Λυκοκτόνος, Lykoktonos, from λύκος, "wolf", and κτείνειν, "to kill"). As god of the sun, Apollo was called Sol (/ˈsɒl/ SOL, literally "sun" in Latin) by the Romans.
The epithet Delphinius is associated with what animal?
5728b9362ca10214002da676
dolphins
453
False
What epithet has historically been confused with "mouse?"
5728b9362ca10214002da678
Smintheus
952
False
Apollo was worshipped as Actiacus (/ækˈtaɪ.əkəs/ ak-TY-ə-kəs; Ἄκτιακός, Aktiakos, literally "Actian"), Delphinius (/dɛlˈfɪniəs/ del-FIN-ee-əs; Δελφίνιος, Delphinios, literally "Delphic"), and Pythius (/ˈpɪθiəs/ PITH-ee-əs; Πύθιος, Puthios, from Πυθώ, Pythō, the area around Delphi), after Actium (Ἄκτιον) and Delphi (Δελφοί) respectively, two of his principal places of worship. An etiology in the Homeric hymns associated the epithet "Delphinius" with dolphins. He was worshipped as Acraephius (/əˈkriːfiəs/ ə-KREE-fee-əs; Ἀκραιφιος,[clarification needed] Akraiphios, literally "Acraephian") or Acraephiaeus (/əˌkriːfiˈiːəs/ ə-KREE-fee-EE-əs; Ἀκραιφιαίος, Akraiphiaios, literally "Acraephian") in the Boeotian town of Acraephia (Ἀκραιφία), reputedly founded by his son Acraepheus; and as Smintheus (/ˈsmɪnθjuːs/ SMIN-thews; Σμινθεύς, Smintheus, "Sminthian"—that is, "of the town of Sminthos or Sminthe") near the Troad town of Hamaxitus. The epithet "Smintheus" has historically been confused with σμίνθος, "mouse", in association with Apollo's role as a god of disease. For this he was also known as Parnopius (/pɑːrˈnoʊpiəs/ par-NOH-pee-əs; Παρνόπιος, Parnopios, from πάρνοψ, "locust") and to the Romans as Culicarius (/ˌkjuːlᵻˈkæriəs/ KEW-li-KARR-ee-əs; from Latin culicārius, "of midges").
What is the literal word for latrus?
5728ba1f2ca10214002da692
physician
344
False
Where did Apollo have a temple in the agora?
5728ba1f2ca10214002da693
Elis
405
False
Where was a temple dedicated to Apollo Medicus?
5728ba1f2ca10214002da694
Rome
604
False
What is the literal meaning of "healer?"
5728ba1f2ca10214002da695
Paean
201
False
In Apollo's role as a healer, his appellations included Acesius (/əˈsiːʒəs/ ə-SEE-zhəs; Ἀκέσιος, Akesios, from ἄκεσις, "healing"), Acestor (/əˈsɛstər/ ə-SES-tər; Ἀκέστωρ, Akestōr, literally "healer"), Paean (/ˈpiːən/ PEE-ən; Παιάν, Paiān, from παίειν, "to touch"),[citation needed] and Iatrus (/aɪˈætrəs/ eye-AT-rəs; Ἰατρός, Iātros, literally "physician"). Acesius was the epithet of Apollo worshipped in Elis, where he had a temple in the agora. The Romans referred to Apollo as Medicus (/ˈmɛdᵻkəs/ MED-i-kəs; literally "physician" in Latin) in this respect. A temple was dedicated to Apollo Medicus at Rome, probably next to the temple of Bellona.
What word literally means "warding off evil?"
5728ba9d2ca10214002da6a4
Alexicacus
52
False
What world literally means "founder?"
5728ba9d2ca10214002da6a5
Archegetes
360
False
What word literally mens "ancestor?"
5728ba9d2ca10214002da6a6
Genetor
539
False
What word means "to avert?"
5728ba9d2ca10214002da6a7
Agyieus
758
False
As a protector and founder, Apollo had the epithets Alexicacus (/əˌlɛksᵻˈkeɪkəs/ ə-LEK-si-KAY-kəs; Ἀλεξίκακος, Alexikakos, literally "warding off evil"), Apotropaeus (/əˌpɒtrəˈpiːəs/ ə-POT-rə-PEE-əs; Ἀποτρόπαιος, Apotropaios, from ἀποτρέπειν, "to avert"), and Epicurius (/ˌɛpᵻˈkjʊriəs/ EP-i-KEWR-ee-əs; Ἐπικούριος, Epikourios, from ἐπικουρέειν, "to aid"), and Archegetes (/ɑːrˈkɛdʒətiːz/ ar-KEJ-ə-teez; Ἀρχηγέτης, Arkhēgetēs, literally "founder"), Clarius (/ˈklæriəs/ KLARR-ee-əs; Κλάριος, Klārios, from Doric κλάρος, "allotted lot"), and Genetor (/ˈdʒɛnᵻtər/ JEN-i-tər; Γενέτωρ, Genetōr, literally "ancestor"). To the Romans, he was known in this capacity as Averruncus (/ˌævəˈrʌŋkəs/ AV-ər-RUNG-kəs; from Latin āverruncare, "to avert"). He was also called Agyieus (/əˈdʒaɪ.ᵻjuːs/ ə-GWEE-ews; Ἀγυιεύς, Aguīeus, from ἄγυια, "street") for his role in protecting roads and homes; and Nomius (/ˈnoʊmiəs/ NOH-mee-əs; Νόμιος, Nomios, literally "pastoral") and Nymphegetes (/nɪmˈfɛdʒᵻtiːz/ nim-FEJ-i-teez; Νυμφηγέτης, Numphēgetēs, from Νύμφη, "Nymph", and ἡγέτης, "leader") for his role as a protector of shepherds and pastoral life.
Which epithet has historically been associated with ambiguous?
5728c1414b864d1900164d58
Loxias
338
False
Which epithet did Apollo have as god of music and arts?
5728c1414b864d1900164d59
Musagetes
780
False
Which epithet did Apollo have as god of prophecy and truth?
5728c1414b864d1900164d5a
Manticus
66
False
Which epithet did Apollo have as god of healing and of prophecy?
5728c1414b864d1900164d5b
Iatromantis
546
False
In his role as god of prophecy and truth, Apollo had the epithets Manticus (/ˈmæntᵻkəs/ MAN-ti-kəs; Μαντικός, Mantikos, literally "prophetic"), Leschenorius (/ˌlɛskᵻˈnɔəriəs/ LES-ki-NOHR-ee-əs; Λεσχηνόριος, Leskhēnorios, from λεσχήνωρ, "converser"), and Loxias (/ˈlɒksiəs/ LOK-see-əs; Λοξίας, Loxias, from λέγειν, "to say"). The epithet "Loxias" has historically been associated with λοξός, "ambiguous". In this respect, the Romans called him Coelispex (/ˈsɛlᵻspɛks/ SEL-i-speks; from Latin coelum, "sky", and specere, "to look at"). The epithet Iatromantis (/aɪˌætrəˈmæntɪs/ eye-AT-rə-MAN-tis; Ἰατρομάντις, Iātromantis, from ἰατρός, "physician", and μάντις, "prophet") refers to both his role as a god of healing and of prophecy. As god of music and arts, Apollo had the epithet Musagetes (/mjuːˈsædʒᵻtiːz/ mew-SAJ-i-teez; Doric Μουσαγέτας, Mousāgetās) or Musegetes (/mjuːˈsɛdʒᵻtiːz/ mew-SEJ-i-teez; Μουσηγέτης, Mousēgetēs, from Μούσα, "Muse", and ἡγέτης, "leader").
As god of archery, Apollo was known by what name?
5728c1a84b864d1900164d6a
Aphetor
41
False
What name literally means "far-shooting?"
5728c1a84b864d1900164d6b
Hecaërgus
305
False
Who was the son of Amphion and Niobe?
5728c1a84b864d1900164d6c
Ismenius
595
False
Who struck his parents with an arrow?
5728c1a84b864d1900164d6d
Ismenius
595
False
As a god of archery, Apollo was known as Aphetor (/əˈfiːtər/ ə-FEE-tər; Ἀφήτωρ, Aphētōr, from ἀφίημι, "to let loose") or Aphetorus (/əˈfɛtərəs/ ə-FET-ər-əs; Ἀφητόρος, Aphētoros, of the same origin), Argyrotoxus (/ˌɑːrdʒᵻrəˈtɒksəs/ AR-ji-rə-TOK-səs; Ἀργυρότοξος, Argyrotoxos, literally "with silver bow"), Hecaërgus (/ˌhɛkiˈɜːrɡəs/ HEK-ee-UR-gəs; Ἑκάεργος, Hekaergos, literally "far-shooting"), and Hecebolus (/hᵻˈsɛbələs/ hi-SEB-ə-ləs; Ἑκηβόλος, Hekēbolos, literally "far-shooting"). The Romans referred to Apollo as Articenens (/ɑːrˈtɪsᵻnənz/ ar-TISS-i-nənz; "bow-carrying"). Apollo was called Ismenius (/ɪzˈmiːniəs/ iz-MEE-nee-əs; Ἰσμηνιός, Ismēnios, literally "of Ismenus") after Ismenus, the son of Amphion and Niobe, whom he struck with an arrow.
Who was Apollo's twin sister?
5728c2192ca10214002da726
Artemis
134
False
To whom was the Delos sanctuary dedicated?
5728c2192ca10214002da727
Artemis
134
False
Who discerned three components in the prehistory of Apollo worship?
5728c2192ca10214002da728
Walter Burkert
599
False
The cult centers of Apollo in Greece, Delphi and Delos, date from the 8th century BCE. The Delos sanctuary was primarily dedicated to Artemis, Apollo's twin sister. At Delphi, Apollo was venerated as the slayer of Pytho. For the Greeks, Apollo was all the Gods in one and through the centuries he acquired different functions which could originate from different gods. In archaic Greece he was the prophet, the oracular god who in older times was connected with "healing". In classical Greece he was the god of light and of music, but in popular religion he had a strong function to keep away evil. Walter Burkert discerned three components in the prehistory of Apollo worship, which he termed "a Dorian-northwest Greek component, a Cretan-Minoan component, and a Syro-Hittite component."
Who brought the art of inspection of "symbols and omina?"
5728c2af3acd2414000dfdc9
Apollo
24
False
The inspiration oracular-cult was probably introduced from where?
5728c2af3acd2414000dfdca
Anatolia
233
False
Which group created the legalism, the supervision of the orders of the gods, and the demand for moderation and harmony?
5728c2af3acd2414000dfdcb
The Greeks
296
False
From his eastern origin Apollo brought the art of inspection of "symbols and omina" (σημεία και τέρατα : semeia kai terata), and of the observation of the omens of the days. The inspiration oracular-cult was probably introduced from Anatolia. The ritualism belonged to Apollo from the beginning. The Greeks created the legalism, the supervision of the orders of the gods, and the demand for moderation and harmony. Apollo became the god of shining youth, the protector of music, spiritual-life, moderation and perceptible order. The improvement of the old Anatolian god, and his elevation to an intellectual sphere, may be considered an achievement of the Greek people.
What were magicians also called?
5728c3643acd2414000dfdcf
seer-doctors
525
False
Who is the physician of the Gods in the Iliad?
5728c3643acd2414000dfdd0
Paean
55
False
The function of Apollo as a "healer" is connected with Paean (Παιών-Παιήων), the physician of the Gods in the Iliad, who seems to come from a more primitive religion. Paeοn is probably connected with the Mycenean pa-ja-wo-ne (Linear B: 𐀞𐀊𐀍𐀚), but this is not certain. He did not have a separate cult, but he was the personification of the holy magic-song sung by the magicians that was supposed to cure disease. Later the Greeks knew the original meaning of the relevant song "paean" (παιάν). The magicians were also called "seer-doctors" (ἰατρομάντεις), and they used an ecstatic prophetic art which was used exactly by the god Apollo at the oracles.
What is a comon epithet of Apollo as a healer?
5728c3e64b864d1900164d92
paion
48
False
In classical times, what was Apollo's strong function in popular religion?
5728c3e64b864d1900164d93
keep away evil,
277
False
What is a word for "defent from evil?"
5728c3e64b864d1900164d94
alexikakos
376
False
Some common epithets of Apollo as a healer are "paion" (παιών, literally "healer" or "helper") "epikourios" (ἐπικουρώ, "help"), "oulios" (οὐλή, "healed wound", also a "scar" ) and "loimios" (λοιμός, "plague"). In classical times, his strong function in popular religion was to keep away evil, and was therefore called "apotropaios" (ἀποτρέπω, "divert", "deter", "avert") and "alexikakos" (from v. ἀλέξω + n. κακόν, "defend from evil"). In later writers, the word, usually spelled "Paean", becomes a mere epithet of Apollo in his capacity as a god of healing.
Who was Apollo's son?
5728c45b2ca10214002da744
Asclepius
232
False
About the 4th Century BCE, what became merely a formula of adulation?
5728c45b2ca10214002da745
paean
285
False
About the 4th Century BCE, what was the object of paean?
5728c45b2ca10214002da746
to implore protection against disease and misfortune
351
False
Homer illustrated Paeon the god, and the song both of apotropaic thanksgiving or triumph.[citation needed] Such songs were originally addressed to Apollo, and afterwards to other gods: to Dionysus, to Apollo Helios, to Apollo's son Asclepius the healer. About the 4th century BCE, the paean became merely a formula of adulation; its object was either to implore protection against disease and misfortune, or to offer thanks after such protection had been rendered. It was in this way that Apollo had become recognised as the god of music. Apollo's role as the slayer of the Python led to his association with battle and victory; hence it became the Roman custom for a paean to be sung by an army on the march and before entering into battle, when a fleet left the harbour, and also after a victory had been won.
What does the word Pella mean?
5728c4eaff5b5019007da654
stone
276
False
What represents Apollo as a Northern intruder?
5728c4eaff5b5019007da655
Homeric hymn
400
False
What played an important part in the cult of the god?
5728c4eaff5b5019007da656
Stones
283
False
The connection with Dorians and their initiation festival apellai[clarification needed] is reinforced by the month Apellaios in northwest Greek calendars, but it can explain only the Doric type of the name, which is connected with the Ancient Macedonian word "pella" (Pella), stone. Stones played an important part in the cult of the god, especially in the oracular shrine of Delphi (Omphalos). The "Homeric hymn" represents Apollo as a Northern intruder. His arrival must have occurred during the "Dark Ages" that followed the destruction of the Mycenaean civilization, and his conflict with Gaia (Mother Earth) was represented by the legend of his slaying her daughter the serpent Python.
Who was the adversary of Zeus in the titanomachy?
5728c53d2ca10214002da75c
Typhon
321
False
Who did the narrator confuse with Phyton?
5728c53d2ca10214002da75d
Typhon
321
False
Who was represented as a dragon?
5728c53d2ca10214002da75e
Python
432
False
The earth deity had power over the ghostly world, and it is believed that she was the deity behind the oracle. The older tales mentioned two dragons who were perhaps intentionally conflated. A female dragon named Delphyne (δελφύς, "womb"), who is obviously connected with Delphi and Apollo Delphinios, and a male serpent Typhon (τύφειν, "to smoke"), the adversary of Zeus in the Titanomachy, who the narrators confused with Python. Python was the good daemon (ἀγαθὸς δαίμων) of the temple as it appears in Minoan religion, but she was represented as a dragon, as often happens in Northern European folklore as well as in the East.
Who is Apollo's sister?
5728d04f2ca10214002da890
Artemis
22
False
It was believed that this woman could bring death with her arrows.
5728d04f2ca10214002da891
Artemis
22
False
In Greek mythology, who was the leader of the nymphs?
5728d04f2ca10214002da892
Artemis
234
False
Apollo and his sister Artemis can bring death with their arrows. The conception that diseases and death come from invisible shots sent by supernatural beings, or magicians is common in Germanic and Norse mythology. In Greek mythology Artemis was the leader (ἡγεμών, "hegemon") of the nymphs, who had similar functions with the Nordic Elves. The "elf-shot" originally indicated disease or death attributed to the elves, but it was later attested denoting stone arrow-heads which were used by witches to harm people, and also for healing rituals.
What was the name for "the double-axe men?"
5728d27cff5b5019007da76a
Labryaden
124
False
What is another name for the double-axe?
5728d27cff5b5019007da76b
labrys
204
False
Who was the Minoan "Mistres of the animals?"
5728d27cff5b5019007da76c
Britomartis
682
False
Who was Apollo's sister?
5728d27cff5b5019007da76d
Artemis
616
False
It seems an oracular cult existed in Delphi from the Mycenaean ages. In historical times, the priests of Delphi were called Labryaden, "the double-axe men", which indicates Minoan origin. The double-axe, labrys, was the holy symbol of the Cretan labyrinth. The Homeric hymn adds that Apollo appeared as a dolphin and carried Cretan priests to Delphi, where they evidently transferred their religious practices. Apollo Delphinios was a sea-god especially worshiped in Crete and in the islands, and his name indicates his connection with Delphi and the holy serpent Delphyne ("womb").[citation needed] Apollo's sister Artemis, who was the Greek goddess of hunting, is identified with Britomartis (Diktynna), the Minoan "Mistress of the animals". In her earliest depictions she is accompanied by the "Mister of the animals", a male god of hunting who had the bow as his attribute. His original name is unknown, but it seems that he was absorbed by the more popular Apollo, who stood by the virgin "Mistress of the Animals", becoming her brother.
Who did scholars beieve carried on the rituals in a consistent procedure?
5728d3393acd2414000dff73
Pythia
226
False
Who is a mythical seeress of Anatoian origin?
5728d3393acd2414000dff74
Sibyl
377
False
What Greek tradition seems to be confirmed by recent studies?
5728d3393acd2414000dff75
existence of vapours and chewing of laurel-leaves
514
False
The old oracles in Delphi seem to be connected with a local tradition of the priesthood, and there is not clear evidence that a kind of inspiration-prophecy existed in the temple. This led some scholars to the conclusion that Pythia carried on the rituals in a consistent procedure through many centuries, according to the local tradition. In that regard, the mythical seeress Sibyl of Anatolian origin, with her ecstatic art, looks unrelated to the oracle itself. However, the Greek tradition is referring to the existence of vapours and chewing of laurel-leaves, which seem to be confirmed by recent studies.
Who describes Delphi and Dodona as frenzied women?
5728d3982ca10214002da8b8
Plato
0
False
What two women were said to be obsessed by "mania?"
5728d3982ca10214002da8b9
Delphi and Dodona
35
False
What Greek word is connected with mantis?
5728d3982ca10214002da8ba
mania
85
False
Plato describes the priestesses of Delphi and Dodona as frenzied women, obsessed by "mania" (μανία, "frenzy"), a Greek word he connected with mantis (μάντις, "prophet"). Frenzied women like Sibyls from whose lips the god speaks are recorded in the Near East as Mari in the second millennium BC. Although Crete had contacts with Mari from 2000 BC, there is no evidence that the ecstatic prophetic art existed during the Minoan and Mycenean ages. It is more probable that this art was introduced later from Anatolia and regenerated an existing oracular cult that was local to Delphi and dormant in several areas of Greece.
What origin was Leto?
5728d4442ca10214002da8d1
Lydian
104
False
Where was Leto worshipped?
5728d4442ca10214002da8d2
Asia Minor
159
False
What is the origin of Sibyl?
5728d4442ca10214002da8d3
Anatolia
242
False
A non-Greek origin of Apollo has long been assumed in scholarship. The name of Apollo's mother Leto has Lydian origin, and she was worshipped on the coasts of Asia Minor. The inspiration oracular cult was probably introduced into Greece from Anatolia, which is the origin of Sibyl, and where existed some of the oldest oracular shrines. Omens, symbols, purifications, and exorcisms appear in old Assyro-Babylonian texts, and these rituals were spread into the empire of the Hittites. In a Hittite text is mentioned that the king invited a Babylonian priestess for a certain "purification".
Who is the Cretan seer that purified Athen after the pollution brought by the Alcmeonidae?
5728d5a4ff5b5019007da7ca
Epimenides
73
False
Who told the story of the Cretan seer Epimenides?
5728d5a4ff5b5019007da7cb
Plutarch
32
False
What group was probably heir to the shemanic religions of Asia?
5728d5a4ff5b5019007da7cc
Epimenides
314
False
A similar story is mentioned by Plutarch. He writes that the Cretan seer Epimenides purified Athens after the pollution brought by the Alcmeonidae, and that the seer's expertise in sacrifices and reform of funeral practices were of great help to Solon in his reform of the Athenian state. The story indicates that Epimenides was probably heir to the shamanic religions of Asia, and proves, together with the Homeric hymn, that Crete had a resisting religion up to historical times. It seems that these rituals were dormant in Greece, and they were reinforced when the Greeks migrated to Anatolia.
Who was a tutelary god of Wilusa?
5728d6123acd2414000dffd9
Appaliunas
213
False
When were Greek festivals celebrated?
5728d6123acd2414000dffda
at the full moon
603
False
When were the feasts of Apollo celebrated?
5728d6123acd2414000dffdb
seventh day of the month
669
False
Homer pictures Apollo on the side of the Trojans, fighting against the Achaeans, during the Trojan War. He is pictured as a terrible god, less trusted by the Greeks than other gods. The god seems to be related to Appaliunas, a tutelary god of Wilusa (Troy) in Asia Minor, but the word is not complete. The stones found in front of the gates of Homeric Troy were the symbols of Apollo. The Greeks gave to him the name ἀγυιεύς agyieus as the protector god of public places and houses who wards off evil, and his symbol was a tapered stone or column. However, while usually Greek festivals were celebrated at the full moon, all the feasts of Apollo were celebrated at the seventh day of the month, and the emphasis given to that day (sibutu) indicates a Babylonian origin.
What age ran from 1700 to 1200 BCE?
5728d68e3acd2414000dffe9
The Late Bronze Age
0
False
Who was a god of plague?
5728d68e3acd2414000dffea
Hittite and Hurrian Aplu
44
False
What word means "the son of?"
5728d68e3acd2414000dffeb
Aplu
223
False
Who is the mouse God?
5728d68e3acd2414000dffec
Apollo Smintheus
567
False
The Late Bronze Age (from 1700 to 1200 BCE) Hittite and Hurrian Aplu was a god of plague, invoked during plague years. Here we have an apotropaic situation, where a god originally bringing the plague was invoked to end it. Aplu, meaning the son of, was a title given to the god Nergal, who was linked to the Babylonian god of the sun Shamash. Homer interprets Apollo as a terrible god (δεινὸς θεός) who brings death and disease with his arrows, but who can also heal, possessing a magic art that separates him from the other Greek gods. In Iliad, his priest prays to Apollo Smintheus, the mouse god who retains an older agricultural function as the protector from field rats. All these functions, including the function of the healer-god Paean, who seems to have Mycenean origin, are fused in the cult of Apollo.
which two cult sites had widespread infuence?
5728d7553acd2414000dfffb
Delos and Delphi
94
False
Who tried to revive the Delphic oracle?
5728d7553acd2414000dfffc
Julian the Apostate
889
False
In what did Apollo confirm that all deities are aspects of servants of an all-encopassing highest deity?
5728d7553acd2414000dfffd
theological oracles
721
False
Unusually among the Olympic deities, Apollo had two cult sites that had widespread influence: Delos and Delphi. In cult practice, Delian Apollo and Pythian Apollo (the Apollo of Delphi) were so distinct that they might both have shrines in the same locality. Apollo's cult was already fully established when written sources commenced, about 650 BCE. Apollo became extremely important to the Greek world as an oracular deity in the archaic period, and the frequency of theophoric names such as Apollodorus or Apollonios and cities named Apollonia testify to his popularity. Oracular sanctuaries to Apollo were established in other sites. In the 2nd and 3rd century CE, those at Didyma and Clarus pronounced the so-called "theological oracles", in which Apollo confirms that all deities are aspects or servants of an all-encompassing, highest deity. "In the 3rd century, Apollo fell silent. Julian the Apostate (359 - 61) tried to revive the Delphic oracle, but failed."
What buildings were originally rectangle wood structures?
5728d807ff5b5019007da7fc
peripteral temples
366
False
Why did mathematical relations become necessary?
5728d807ff5b5019007da7fd
in order to keep the original forms
1070
False
Why were the first buildings narrow?
5728d807ff5b5019007da7fe
to hold the roof
973
False
Who believed that behind the appearance of things, there was a permanent principle of mathematics?
5728d807ff5b5019007da7ff
Pythagoras
1157
False
A lot of temples dedicated to Apollo were built in Greece and in the Greek colonies, and they show the spread of the cult of Apollo, and the evolution of the Greek architecture, which was mostly based on the rightness of form, and on mathematical relations. Some of the earliest temples, especially in Crete, don't belong to any Greek order. It seems that the first peripteral temples were rectangle wooden structures. The different wooden elements were considered divine, and their forms were preserved in the marble or stone elements of the temples of Doric order. The Greeks used standard types, because they believed that the world of objects was a series of typical forms which could be represented in several instances. The temples should be canonic, and the architects were trying to achieve the esthetic perfection. From the earliest times there were certain rules strictly observed in rectangular peripteral and prostyle buildings. The first buildings were narrow to hold the roof, and when the dimensions changed, some mathematical relations became necessary, in order to keep the original forms. This probably influenced the theory of numbers of Pythagoras, who believed that behind the appearance of things, there was the permanent principle of mathematics.
Who kidnapped Eileithyia?
5728d9753acd2414000e0025
Hera
23
False
Who was the goddess of childbirth?
5728d9753acd2414000e0026
Eileithyia
38
False
How long was the necklace offered to Hera?
5728d9753acd2414000e0027
nine yards
192
False
What was the necklace made of?
5728d9753acd2414000e0028
amber
218
False
What was the day of the new moon?
5728d9753acd2414000e0029
The seventh
650
False
It is also stated that Hera kidnapped Eileithyia, the goddess of childbirth, to prevent Leto from going into labor. The other gods tricked Hera into letting her go by offering her a necklace, nine yards (8 m) long, of amber. Mythographers agree that Artemis was born first and then assisted with the birth of Apollo, or that Artemis was born one day before Apollo, on the island of Ortygia and that she helped Leto cross the sea to Delos the next day to give birth to Apollo. Apollo was born on the seventh day (ἑβδομαγενής, hebdomagenes) of the month Thargelion —according to Delian tradition—or of the month Bysios—according to Delphian tradition. The seventh and twentieth, the days of the new and full moon, were ever afterwards held sacred to him.
What was the name of the chthonic dragon?
5728da31ff5b5019007da81e
Python
61
False
which spring emitted vapors that caused the oracle at Delphi to give her prophecies?
5728da31ff5b5019007da81f
Castalian Spring
102
False
Who was Apollo's mother?
5728da31ff5b5019007da820
Leto
248
False
Where did Apollo kill Python?
5728da31ff5b5019007da821
the sacred cave at Delphi. Apollo
402
False
Who was a parent of Python?
5728da31ff5b5019007da822
Gaia
509
False
Four days after his birth, Apollo killed the chthonic dragon Python, which lived in Delphi beside the Castalian Spring. This was the spring which emitted vapors that caused the oracle at Delphi to give her prophecies. Hera sent the serpent to hunt Leto to her death across the world. To protect his mother, Apollo begged Hephaestus for a bow and arrows. After receiving them, Apollo cornered Python in the sacred cave at Delphi. Apollo killed Python but had to be punished for it, since Python was a child of Gaia.
Who is Apollo's son?
5728dac8ff5b5019007da828
Asclepius
35
False
Why did Zeus strike down Asclepius with a lightning bolt?
5728dac8ff5b5019007da829
for resurrecting Hippolytus from the dead
67
False
How long was Apollo sentenced for killing Cyclopes?
5728dac8ff5b5019007da82b
one year of hard labor
329
False
When Zeus struck down Apollo's son Asclepius with a lightning bolt for resurrecting Hippolytus from the dead (transgressing Themis by stealing Hades's subjects), Apollo in revenge killed the Cyclopes, who had fashioned the bolt for Zeus. Apollo would have been banished to Tartarus forever for this, but was instead sentenced to one year of hard labor, due to the intercession of his mother, Leto. During this time he served as shepherd for King Admetus of Pherae in Thessaly. Admetus treated Apollo well, and, in return, the god conferred great benefits on Admetus.
Who was the daughter of Peneus?
5728db272ca10214002da9b8
Daphne
0
False
Who is Daphne's father?
5728db272ca10214002da9b9
Peneus
517
False
Who shot Daphne with a leaden arrow?
5728db272ca10214002da9ba
Cupid
372
False
Daphne was a nymph, daughter of the river god Peneus, who had scorned Apollo. The myth explains the connection of Apollo with δάφνη (daphnē), the laurel whose leaves his priestess employed at Delphi. In Ovid's Metamorphoses, Phoebus Apollo chaffs Cupid for toying with a weapon more suited to a man, whereupon Cupid wounds him with a golden dart; simultaneously, however, Cupid shoots a leaden arrow into Daphne, causing her to be repulsed by Apollo. Following a spirited chase by Apollo, Daphne prays to her father, Peneus, for help, and he changes her into the laurel tree, sacred to Apollo.
Who was Leucothea's mother?
5728db98ff5b5019007da83a
Orchamus
26
False
Who is Leucothea's sister?
5728db98ff5b5019007da83b
Clytia
49
False
Who did Leucothea fall in love with?
5728db98ff5b5019007da83c
Leucothea
0
False
Who ordered Leucothea to be buried alive?
5728db98ff5b5019007da83d
Orchamus
319
False
Leucothea was daughter of Orchamus and sister of Clytia. She fell in love with Apollo who disguised himself as Leucothea's mother to gain entrance to her chambers. Clytia, jealous of her sister because she wanted Apollo for herself, told Orchamus the truth, betraying her sister's trust and confidence in her. Enraged, Orchamus ordered Leucothea to be buried alive. Apollo refused to forgive Clytia for betraying his beloved, and a grieving Clytia wilted and slowly died. Apollo changed her into an incense plant, either heliotrope or sunflower, which follows the sun every day.
Who was the daughter of Phlegyas?
5728dc28ff5b5019007da856
Coronis
0
False
Who owas King of the Lapiths?
5728dc28ff5b5019007da857
Phlegyas
25
False
How was Apollo informed of the affair between Coronis and Ischys?
5728dc28ff5b5019007da858
A crow
130
False
Who was the son of Elatus?
5728dc28ff5b5019007da859
Ischys
107
False
Coronis, was daughter of Phlegyas, King of the Lapiths. Pregnant with Asclepius, Coronis fell in love with Ischys, son of Elatus. A crow informed Apollo of the affair. When first informed he disbelieved the crow and turned all crows black (where they were previously white) as a punishment for spreading untruths. When he found out the truth he sent his sister, Artemis, to kill Coronis (in other stories, Apollo himself had killed Coronis). As a result, he also made the crow sacred and gave them the task of announcing important deaths. Apollo rescued the baby and gave it to the centaur Chiron to raise. Phlegyas was irate after the death of his daughter and burned the Temple of Apollo at Delphi. Apollo then killed him for what he did.
Who was one of Apollo's male lovers?
5728dd723acd2414000e00a3
Hyacinthus
12
False
What hit Hyacinthus in the head, killing him?
5728dd723acd2414000e00a4
discus
156
False
Who blew the discus off course, killing Hyacinthus?
5728dd723acd2414000e00a5
Zephyrus
216
False
What item did Apollo create and name after his lover?
5728dd723acd2414000e00a6
flower
366
False
Hyacinth or Hyacinthus was one of Apollo's male lovers. He was a Spartan prince, beautiful and athletic. The pair was practicing throwing the discus when a discus thrown by Apollo was blown off course by the jealous Zephyrus and struck Hyacinthus in the head, killing him instantly. Apollo is said to be filled with grief: out of Hyacinthus' blood, Apollo created a flower named after him as a memorial to his death, and his tears stained the flower petals with the interjection αἰαῖ, meaning alas. The Festival of Hyacinthus was a celebration of Sparta.
Who argued about whether the matricide was justified?
5728dea13acd2414000e00c7
Apollo and the Furies
0
False
Who says the bond of blood between mother and son is more meaningfu than the bond of marriage?
5728dea13acd2414000e00c8
Erinyes
169
False
Who holds that the bond of marriage is sacred?
5728dea13acd2414000e00c9
Apollo
71
False
Who was accused of matricide?
5728dea13acd2414000e00ca
Orestes
124
False
Apollo and the Furies argue about whether the matricide was justified; Apollo holds that the bond of marriage is sacred and Orestes was avenging his father, whereas the Erinyes say that the bond of blood between mother and son is more meaningful than the bond of marriage. They invade his temple, and he says that the matter should be brought before Athena. Apollo promises to protect Orestes, as Orestes has become Apollo's supplicant. Apollo advocates Orestes at the trial, and ultimately Athena rules in favor of Apollo.
Who challenged Apollo to a trial of skill?
5728df1b2ca10214002da9f6
Pan
5
False
Who was a faithful follower of Pan?
5728df1b2ca10214002da9f7
Midas
298
False
Who was the mountain-god?
5728df1b2ca10214002da9f8
Tmolus
138
False
Who was chosen as umpire of the trial of skill?
5728df1b2ca10214002da9f9
Tmolus
138
False
Once Pan had the audacity to compare his music with that of Apollo, and to challenge Apollo, the god of the kithara, to a trial of skill. Tmolus, the mountain-god, was chosen to umpire. Pan blew on his pipes, and with his rustic melody gave great satisfaction to himself and his faithful follower, Midas, who happened to be present. Then Apollo struck the strings of his lyre. Tmolus at once awarded the victory to Apollo, and all but Midas agreed with the judgment. He dissented and questioned the justice of the award. Apollo would not suffer such a depraved pair of ears any longer, and caused them to become the ears of a donkey.
What instrument did Apolo play?
5728df9aff5b5019007da89c
lyre
129
False
What instrument did Marsyas know how to play?
5728df9aff5b5019007da89d
flute
214
False
Who could not sing at the same time he played the flute?
5728df9aff5b5019007da89e
Marsyas
156
False
What is said to have turned into the river Marsyas?
5728df9aff5b5019007da89f
Marsyas' blood
462
False
After they each performed, both were deemed equal until Apollo decreed they play and sing at the same time. As Apollo played the lyre, this was easy to do. Marsyas could not do this, as he only knew how to use the flute and could not sing at the same time. Apollo was declared the winner because of this. Apollo flayed Marsyas alive in a cave near Celaenae in Phrygia for his hubris to challenge a god. He then nailed Marsyas' shaggy skin to a nearby pine-tree. Marsyas' blood turned into the river Marsyas.
Where was Apollo's first temple at Rome established?
5728e0433acd2414000e00e3
Flaminian fields
102
False
When was the Second Punic war?
5728e0433acd2414000e00e4
212 BCE
213
False
What is another name for the Ludi Apollinares?
5728e0433acd2414000e00e5
Apollonian Games
245
False
On the occasion of a pestilence in the 430s BCE, Apollo's first temple at Rome was established in the Flaminian fields, replacing an older cult site there known as the "Apollinare". During the Second Punic War in 212 BCE, the Ludi Apollinares ("Apollonian Games") were instituted in his honor, on the instructions of a prophecy attributed to one Marcius. In the time of Augustus, who considered himself under the special protection of Apollo and was even said to be his son, his worship developed and he became one of the chief gods of Rome.
Who was god of colonization?
5728e15c4b864d1900164ffa
Apollo
24
False
When was the height of colonization?
5728e15c4b864d1900164ffb
750–550 BCE
113
False
What does Lykegenes mean?
5728e15c4b864d1900164ffc
born in Lycia
622
False
As god of colonization, Apollo gave oracular guidance on colonies, especially during the height of colonization, 750–550 BCE. According to Greek tradition, he helped Cretan or Arcadian colonists found the city of Troy. However, this story may reflect a cultural influence which had the reverse direction: Hittite cuneiform texts mention a Minor Asian god called Appaliunas or Apalunas in connection with the city of Wilusa attested in Hittite inscriptions, which is now generally regarded as being identical with the Greek Ilion by most scholars. In this interpretation, Apollo's title of Lykegenes can simply be read as "born in Lycia", which effectively severs the god's supposed link with wolves (possibly a folk etymology).
Who was the god of wine?
5728e29f3acd2414000e0117
Dionysus
108
False
In literary contexts, who represents harmony, order and reason?
5728e29f3acd2414000e0118
Apollo
22
False
Where did Apollo go in winter?
5728e29f3acd2414000e0119
Hyperborea
399
False
In literary contexts, Apollo represents harmony, order, and reason—characteristics contrasted with those of Dionysus, god of wine, who represents ecstasy and disorder. The contrast between the roles of these gods is reflected in the adjectives Apollonian and Dionysian. However, the Greeks thought of the two qualities as complementary: the two gods are brothers, and when Apollo at winter left for Hyperborea, he would leave the Delphic oracle to Dionysus. This contrast appears to be shown on the two sides of the Borghese Vase.
Whose masterpieces are a mixture of naturallism with stylization?
5728e52d2ca10214002daa54
Praxiteles
450
False
In whose depictions can the evolution of Greek sculpture be observed?
5728e52d2ca10214002daa55
Praxiteles
450
False
Who seems to be released from any art and religious conformities?
5728e52d2ca10214002daa56
Praxiteles
450
False
The evolution of the Greek sculpture can be observed in his depictions from the almost static formal Kouros type in early archaic period, to the representation of motion in a relative harmonious whole in late archaic period. In classical Greece the emphasis is not given to the illusive imaginative reality represented by the ideal forms, but to the analogies and the interaction of the members in the whole, a method created by Polykleitos. Finally Praxiteles seems to be released from any art and religious conformities, and his masterpieces are a mixture of naturalism with stylization.
Who asserted that a divine reason gave order to the seeds of the universe?
5728e66b4b864d190016505a
Anaxagoras
21
False
Who extended the Greek beilef of idea forms to his metaphysical theory of forms?
5728e66b4b864d190016505b
Plato
114
False
What is one Greek word that has the same root as the word idea?
5728e66b4b864d190016505c
eidos
340
False
In classical Greece, Anaxagoras asserted that a divine reason (mind) gave order to the seeds of the universe, and Plato extended the Greek belief of ideal forms to his metaphysical theory of forms (ideai, "ideas"). The forms on earth are imperfect duplicates of the intellectual celestial ideas. The Greek words oida (οἶδα, "(I) know") and eidos (εἶδος, "species") have the same root as the word idea (ἰδέα), indicating how the Greek mind moved from the gift of the senses, to the principles beyond the senses. The artists in Plato's time moved away from his theories and art tends to be a mixture of naturalism with stylization. The Greek sculptors considered the senses more important, and the proportions were used to unite the sensible with the intellectual.
What is the modern term given to those representations of stnding male youths that first appear in the archaic period in Greece?
5728e7143acd2414000e018b
Kouros
0
False
What is another word for male youth?
5728e7143acd2414000e018c
Kouros
0
False
Who was the immortal god of ideal balance?
5728e7143acd2414000e018d
Apollo
1089
False
Kouros (male youth) is the modern term given to those representations of standing male youths which first appear in the archaic period in Greece. This type served certain religious needs and was first proposed for what was previously thought to be depictions of Apollo. The first statues are certainly still and formal. The formality of their stance seems to be related with the Egyptian precedent, but it was accepted for a good reason. The sculptors had a clear idea of what a young man is, and embodied the archaic smile of good manners, the firm and springy step, the balance of the body, dignity, and youthful happiness. When they tried to depict the most abiding qualities of men, it was because men had common roots with the unchanging gods. The adoption of a standard recognizable type for a long time, is probably because nature gives preference in survival of a type which has long be adopted by the climatic conditions, and also due to the general Greek belief that nature expresses itself in ideal forms that can be imagined and represented. These forms expressed immortality. Apollo was the immortal god of ideal balance and order. His shrine in Delphi, that he shared in winter with Dionysius had the inscriptions: γνῶθι σεαυτόν (gnōthi seautón="know thyself") and μηδὲν ἄγαν (mēdén ágan, "nothing in excess"), and ἐγγύα πάρα δ'ἄτη (eggýa pára d'atē, "make a pledge and mischief is nigh").
The period between 640-580 BC was known as what?
5728e8813acd2414000e01a5
early archaic period
47
False
What was the name of the Dipylon master?
5728e8813acd2414000e01a6
Daedalus
748
False
Who created the New York kouros?
5728e8813acd2414000e01a7
Daedalus
748
False
In the first large-scale depictions during the early archaic period (640–580 BC), the artists tried to draw one's attention to look into the interior of the face and the body which were not represented as lifeless masses, but as being full of life. The Greeks maintained, until late in their civilization, an almost animistic idea that the statues are in some sense alive. This embodies the belief that the image was somehow the god or man himself. A fine example is the statue of the Sacred gate Kouros which was found at the cemetery of Dipylon in Athens (Dipylon Kouros). The statue is the "thing in itself", and his slender face with the deep eyes express an intellectual eternity. According to the Greek tradition the Dipylon master was named Daedalus, and in his statues the limbs were freed from the body, giving the impression that the statues could move. It is considered that he created also the New York kouros, which is the oldest fully preserved statue of Kouros type, and seems to be the incarnation of the god himself.
Who is said to be the builder of the labyrinth?
5728e9944b864d190016507e
Daedalus
183
False
During what period was art's main theme the representation of motion in a specific movement?
5728e9944b864d190016507f
Minoan period
307
False
These free-standing statues were sometimes rendered from immestone, bronze, ivory and terracotta but were usually made from what material?
5728e9944b864d1900165080
marble
438
False
The animistic idea as the representation of the imaginative reality, is sanctified in the Homeric poems and in Greek myths, in stories of the god Hephaestus (Phaistos) and the mythic Daedalus (the builder of the labyrinth) that made images which moved of their own accord. This kind of art goes back to the Minoan period, when its main theme was the representation of motion in a specific moment. These free-standing statues were usually marble, but also the form rendered in limestone, bronze, ivory and terracotta.
What period ran from 520-485 BC?
5728eac43acd2414000e01bd
late archaic period
386
False
What was the harbour of Athens?
5728eac43acd2414000e01be
Piraeus
647
False
What did Piraeus Apollo hold in his left hand?
5728eac43acd2414000e01bf
the bow
706
False
What did Piraeus Apollo hold in his right hand?
5728eac43acd2414000e01c0
a cup of pouring libation
736
False
The earliest examples of life-sized statues of Apollo, may be two figures from the Ionic sanctuary on the island of Delos. Such statues were found across the Greek speaking world, the preponderance of these were found at the sanctuaries of Apollo with more than one hundred from the sanctuary of Apollo Ptoios, Boeotia alone. The last stage in the development of the Kouros type is the late archaic period (520–485 BC), in which the Greek sculpture attained a full knowledge of human anatomy and used to create a relative harmonious whole. Ranking from the very few bronzes survived to us is the masterpiece bronze Piraeus Apollo. It was found in Piraeus, the harbour of Athens. The statue originally held the bow in its left hand, and a cup of pouring libation in its right hand. It probably comes from north-eastern Peloponnesus. The emphasis is given in anatomy, and it is one of the first attempts to represent a kind of motion, and beauty relative to proportions, which appear mostly in post-Archaic art. The statue throws some light on an artistic centre which, with an independently developed harder, simpler, and heavier style, restricts Ionian influence in Athens. Finally, this is the germ from which the art of Polykleitos was to grow two or three generations later.
Who wrote that beauty consists in the proportion not of the elements?
5728ebb7ff5b5019007da950
Polykleitos
537
False
In what type of art does the god hold the cithara in his left arm?
5728ebb7ff5b5019007da951
Apollo Citharoedus statue type
861
False
What type of art is modeled after a supposed Greek bronze original made in the second quarter of the 5th Century BCE.
5728ebb7ff5b5019007da952
neo-Attic Imperial Roman copies of the late 1st or early 2nd century
972
False
In the next century which is the beginning of the Classical period, it was considered that beauty in visible things as in everything else, consisted of symmetry and proportions. The artists tried also to represent motion in a specific moment (Myron), which may be considered as the reappearance of the dormant Minoan element. Anatomy and geometry are fused in one, and each does something to the other. The Greek sculptors tried to clarify it by looking for mathematical proportions, just as they sought some reality behind appearances. Polykleitos in his Canon wrote that beauty consists in the proportion not of the elements (materials), but of the parts, that is the interrelation of parts with one another and with the whole. It seems that he was influenced by the theories of Pythagoras. The famous Apollo of Mantua and its variants are early forms of the Apollo Citharoedus statue type, in which the god holds the cithara in his left arm. The type is represented by neo-Attic Imperial Roman copies of the late 1st or early 2nd century, modelled upon a supposed Greek bronze original made in the second quarter of the 5th century BCE, in a style similar to works of Polykleitos but more archaic. The Apollo held the cythara against his extended left arm, of which in the Louvre example, a fragment of one twisting scrolling horn upright remains against his biceps.
The statues of who were thought to incarnate his living presence?
5728ed99ff5b5019007da986
Apollo
153
False
Representations of illusive imaginative reality had deep roots in what period?
5728ed99ff5b5019007da987
Minoan
287
False
What people saw the mountains, forests, sea and rivers as inhabited by concrete beings?
5728ed99ff5b5019007da988
Greeks
414
False
Though the proportions were always important in Greek art, the appeal of the Greek sculptures eludes any explanation by proportion alone. The statues of Apollo were thought to incarnate his living presence, and these representations of illusive imaginative reality had deep roots in the Minoan period, and in the beliefs of the first Greek speaking people who entered the region during the bronze-age. Just as the Greeks saw the mountains, forests, sea and rivers as inhabited by concrete beings, so nature in all of its manifestations possesses clear form, and the form of a work of art. Spiritual life is incorporated in matter, when it is given artistic form. Just as in the arts the Greeks sought some reality behind appearances, so in mathematics they sought permanent principles which could be applied wherever the conditions were the same. Artists and sculptors tried to find this ideal order in relation with mathematics, but they believed that this ideal order revealed itself not so much to the dispassionate intellect, as to the whole sentient self. Things as we see them, and as they really are, are one, that each stresses the nature of the other in a single unity.
Who seemed to have been dominated by geometrical pattern and order?
5728ee0c3acd2414000e01f5
The artists
423
False
What rely on presenting scenes directly to the eye for their own visibe sake?
5728ee0c3acd2414000e01f6
These representations
0
False
While each scene has its own character and completeness, it must fit into what?
5728ee0c3acd2414000e01f7
the general sequence to which it belongs
267
False
These representations rely on presenting scenes directly to the eye for their own visible sake. They care for the schematic arrangements of bodies in space, but only as parts in a larger whole. While each scene has its own character and completeness it must fit into the general sequence to which it belongs. In these archaic pediments the sculptors use empty intervals, to suggest a passage to and fro a busy battlefield. The artists seem to have been dominated by geometrical pattern and order, and this was improved when classical art brought a greater freedom and economy.
Who is often depicted with a kithara or bow in his hand?
5728ee8dff5b5019007da996
Apollo
0
False
What is the name of a marble sculpture that was rediscovered in the late 15th century?
5728ee8dff5b5019007da997
The Apollo Belvedere
193
False
Who made the Apollo Belvedere?
5728ee8dff5b5019007da998
Leochares
493
False
When did Leochares make The Apollo Belvedere?
5728ee8dff5b5019007da999
between 350 and 325 BCE
509
False
Apollo as a handsome beardless young man, is often depicted with a kithara (as Apollo Citharoedus) or bow in his hand, or reclining on a tree (the Apollo Lykeios and Apollo Sauroctonos types). The Apollo Belvedere is a marble sculpture that was rediscovered in the late 15th century; for centuries it epitomized the ideals of Classical Antiquity for Europeans, from the Renaissance through the 19th century. The marble is a Hellenistic or Roman copy of a bronze original by the Greek sculptor Leochares, made between 350 and 325 BCE.
United_States_presidential_election,_2004
Which candidate, in the 2004 election, had the majority of the popular vote?
5728cd4f3acd2414000dfed9
Bush
0
False
How many States renounced their preferred political party?
5728cd4f3acd2414000dfeda
three
285
False
Which state switched sides and embraced the Democratic party after previously choosing the Republican party?
5728cd4f3acd2414000dfedb
New Hampshire
404
False
How many votes did Kerry receive, in the Electoral College?
5728cd4f3acd2414000dfedc
252
540
False
How large of a gap was there between Bush's and Kerry's votes?
5728cd4f3acd2414000dfedd
the smallest ever
49
False
New Mexico and Iowa
314
What two states did George Bush campaign the hardest in?
5a721d8c0efcfe001a8afe29
True
New Hampshire
404
What was the first state Bush's father campaigned in?
5a721d8c0efcfe001a8afe2a
True
the smallest ever
49
What margin of victory did Bush's father have in 2004?
5a721d8c0efcfe001a8afe2b
True
286
519
How many votes did Bush Sr. receive in the Electoral Collage 16 years before?
5a721d8c0efcfe001a8afe2c
True
New Hampshire
404
What state was John Kerry originally from?
5a721d8c0efcfe001a8afe2d
True
Bush's margin of victory in the popular vote was the smallest ever for a reelected incumbent president, but marked the first time since his father's victory 16 years prior that a candidate won a majority of the popular vote. The electoral map closely resembled that of 2000, with only three states changing sides: New Mexico and Iowa voted Republican in 2004 after having voted Democratic in 2000, while New Hampshire voted Democratic in 2004 after previously voting Republican. In the Electoral College, Bush received 286 votes to Kerry's 252.
What even occured during Bush's presidency that made him become a wartime president?
5728d0ef4b864d1900164eaa
terrorist attacks of September 11, 2001
43
False
How long into Bush's presidency did tragedy occur on American soil?
5728d0ef4b864d1900164eab
eight months
5
False
Did Bush become disfavorable during the time of the 9/11 attacks?
5728d0ef4b864d1900164eac
surged to near 90%
159
False
How long did it take for the US military to respond by infiltrating Afghanistan?
5728d0ef4b864d1900164ead
Within a month
179
False
By which month, were the Taliban no longer controlling Kabul?
5728d0ef4b864d1900164eae
December
363
False
eight months
5
How long had Osama Bin Laden been planning the Sept. 11th attack?
5a7220e30efcfe001a8afe33
True
90%
174
How successful was the coalition in its mission in Afghanistan?
5a7220e30efcfe001a8afe34
True
a month
186
How long did it take to capture Osama Bin Laden?
5a7220e30efcfe001a8afe35
True
Kabul
415
What city had been ruled by Osama Bin Laden?
5a7220e30efcfe001a8afe36
True
a long and ongoing reconstruction
431
What happened in New York after the Sept. 11th terrorist attack?
5a7220e30efcfe001a8afe37
True
Just eight months into his presidency, the terrorist attacks of September 11, 2001 suddenly transformed Bush into a wartime president. Bush's approval ratings surged to near 90%. Within a month, the forces of a coalition led by the United States entered Afghanistan, which had been sheltering Osama bin Laden, suspected mastermind of the September 11 attacks. By December, the Taliban had been removed as rulers of Kabul, although a long and ongoing reconstruction would follow, severely hampered by ongoing turmoil and violence within the country.
Who did Bush feel was important to remove from power, after removing the Taliban from Kabul?
5728d6633acd2414000dffdf
Saddam Hussein
89
False
What does WMD stand for?
5728d6633acd2414000dffe0
weapons of mass destruction
403
False
When did Iraq agree to allow UN inspectors into the country to check for weapons of mass destruction?
5728d6633acd2414000dffe1
November 2002
846
False
Did Bush have the support of the UN, when he decided to infiltrate Iraq on March 20, 2003?
5728d6633acd2414000dffe2
without UN authorization
973
False
After the Iraqi government and it's forces were defeated, were investigators able to locate the WMD?
5728d6633acd2414000dffe3
they failed to find the predicted WMD stockpiles
2201
False
weapons of mass destruction
403
What did Saddam Hussein believe the Bush administration had acquired?
5a7222ad0efcfe001a8afe3d
True
biological and chemical material
266
What had Russia not properly accounted for in 2002?
5a7222ad0efcfe001a8afe3e
True
WMD
529
What narrative was pushed by Russia from the beginning about China posessing?
5a7222ad0efcfe001a8afe3f
True
a UN Security Council resolution
743
What did the US refuse to allow to pass for the use of force on China?
5a7222ad0efcfe001a8afe40
True
March 20, 2003
1078
When did France invade Germany to look for WMD?
5a7222ad0efcfe001a8afe41
True
The Bush administration then turned its attention to Iraq, and argued the need to remove Saddam Hussein from power in Iraq had become urgent. Among the stated reasons were that Saddam's regime had tried to acquire nuclear material and had not properly accounted for biological and chemical material it was known to have previously possessed, and believed to still maintain. Both the possession of these weapons of mass destruction (WMD), and the failure to account for them, would violate the U.N. sanctions. The assertion about WMD was hotly advanced by the Bush administration from the beginning, but other major powers including China, France, Germany, and Russia remained unconvinced that Iraq was a threat and refused to allow passage of a UN Security Council resolution to authorize the use of force. Iraq permitted UN weapon inspectors in November 2002, who were continuing their work to assess the WMD claim when the Bush administration decided to proceed with war without UN authorization and told the inspectors to leave the country. The United States invaded Iraq on March 20, 2003, along with a "coalition of the willing" that consisted of additional troops from the United Kingdom, and to a lesser extent, from Australia and Poland. Within about three weeks, the invasion caused the collapse of both the Iraqi government and its armed forces, however, the U.S. and allied forces failed to find any weapon of mass destruction in Iraq. Traces of former materials and weapons labs were reported to have been located, but no "smoking guns". Nevertheless, on May 1, George W. Bush landed on the aircraft carrier USS Abraham Lincoln, in a Lockheed S-3 Viking, where he gave a speech announcing the end of "major combat operations" in the Iraq War. Bush's approval rating in May was at 66%, according to a CNN–USA Today–Gallup poll. However, Bush's high approval ratings did not last. First, while the war itself was popular in the U.S., the reconstruction and attempted "democratization" of Iraq lost some support as months passed and casualty figures increased, with no decrease in violence nor progress toward stability or reconstruction. Second, as investigators combed through the country, they failed to find the predicted WMD stockpiles, which led to debate over the rationale for the war.
By what date did Bush obtain the number of votes required to become the 2004 Republican nominee?
5728d9e23acd2414000e002f
March 10, 2004
3
False
When did Bush accept the Republican nomination?
5728d9e23acd2414000e0030
September 2, 2004
184
False
Whom did Bush want to stand beside him as Vice President?
5728d9e23acd2414000e0031
Dick Cheney
231
False
Which two topics did Bush remain steadfast on, during his campaign?
5728d9e23acd2414000e0032
terrorism and building an ownership society
477
False
In New York State, which party was the Bush/Cheney duo candidates of?
5728d9e23acd2414000e0033
Conservative Party
333
False
March 10, 2004
3
When did Dick Cheney get enough delegates to be nominated at the RNC?
5a7224040efcfe001a8afe47
True
September 2, 2004
184
When did Cheney accept the nomination?
5a7224040efcfe001a8afe48
True
New York City
137
In what city was Cheney nominated at the RNC in 2004?
5a7224040efcfe001a8afe49
True
defending America against terrorism and building an ownership society
451
What two themes did Cheney speak about often during his campaign?
5a7224040efcfe001a8afe4a
True
encouraging more people to buy their own health insurance
671
What was one idea endorsed by Cheney in his 2004 speech?
5a7224040efcfe001a8afe4b
True
On March 10, 2004, Bush officially clinched the number of delegates needed to be nominated at the 2004 Republican National Convention in New York City. Bush accepted the nomination on September 2, 2004, and selected Vice President Dick Cheney as his running mate. (In New York, the ticket was also on the ballot as candidates of the Conservative Party of New York State.) During the convention and throughout the campaign, Bush focused on two themes: defending America against terrorism and building an ownership society. The ownership society included allowing people to invest some of their Social Security in the stock market, increasing home and stock ownership, and encouraging more people to buy their own health insurance.
Who became the Democratic nominee, half way through 2003?
5728e578ff5b5019007da8f6
Howard Dean
19
False
Dean's admiration for internet campaigning accredited his strength as what?
5728e578ff5b5019007da8f7
a fund raiser
210
False
What did Dean's backers become known as?
5728e578ff5b5019007da8f8
Deaniacs
406
False
What government position has Howard Dean previously held?
5728e578ff5b5019007da8f9
governor
478
False
Which of Bush's policies did Dean criticize most notably?
5728e578ff5b5019007da8fa
the 2003 invasion of Iraq
622
False
the apparent front runner for the Democratic nomination
42
What status had Senator Lieberman gained in 2003?
5a7225260efcfe001a8afe51
True
strongly
110
How well did Senator Lieberman perform in the polls in 2003?
5a7225260efcfe001a8afe52
True
the largest campaign war chest
159
What did Senator Lieberman have that helped him further his campaign?
5a7225260efcfe001a8afe53
True
the Internet
264
What method did Senator Lieberman use that helped him successfully raise funds?
5a7225260efcfe001a8afe54
True
individual supporters
334
Where did most of Senator Lieberman's donations come from?
5a7225260efcfe001a8afe55
True
By summer of 2003, Howard Dean had become the apparent front runner for the Democratic nomination, performing strongly in most polls and leading the pack with the largest campaign war chest. Dean's strength as a fund raiser was attributed mainly to his embrace of the Internet for campaigning. The majority of his donations came from individual supporters, who became known as Deanites, or, more commonly, Deaniacs. Generally regarded as a pragmatic centrist during his time as governor, Dean emerged during his presidential campaign as a left-wing populist, denouncing the policies of the Bush administration (especially the 2003 invasion of Iraq) as well as fellow Democrats, who, in his view, failed to strongly oppose them. Senator Lieberman, a liberal on domestic issues but a hawk on the War on Terror, failed to gain traction with liberal Democratic primary voters.
Which Democratic nominee declared his intention to enter into the presidential race, in the fall of 2003?
572909171d04691400778fa1
Wesley Clark
45
False
What did Wesley Clark's initial campaign ads depend upon?
572909171d04691400778fa2
biography
261
False
What were Wesley Clarks's core issues?
572909171d04691400778fa3
leadership and patriotism
197
False
What shortcoming was noticeable, from the start, for Wesley Clark?
572909171d04691400778fa4
few detailed policy proposals
312
False
Was Wesley Clark influential in gathering the Democratic backing?
572909171d04691400778fa5
did not flock to support his campaign
514
False
2003
13
In what year did Wesley Clark retire?
5a7226910efcfe001a8afe65
True
four-star general
27
What rank did Wesley Clark obtain in September 2003?
5a7226910efcfe001a8afe66
True
leadership and patriotism
197
What two topics were used in the biography that came out about the DNC in 2003?
5a7226910efcfe001a8afe67
True
policy proposals
325
What was the DNC lacking to draw more support from donors?
5a7226910efcfe001a8afe68
True
tax-relief plan
469
What is one thing that the DNC didn't want to take a position on?
5a7226910efcfe001a8afe69
True
In September 2003, retired four-star general Wesley Clark announced his intention to run in the presidential primary election for the Democratic Party nomination. His campaign focused on themes of leadership and patriotism; early campaign ads relied heavily on biography. His late start left him with relatively few detailed policy proposals. This weakness was apparent in his first few debates, although he soon presented a range of position papers, including a major tax-relief plan. Nevertheless, the Democrats did not flock to support his campaign.
Who had the least amount of backers, between Kerry and Dean?
57290eaa3f37b31900477fe1
Kerry
18
False
Which state was expected to show the least amount of support for Kerry going into the caucuses, before Iowa?
57290eaa3f37b31900477fe2
New Hampshire
331
False
What act showed that Kerry's fight for the White House was in trouble?
57290eaa3f37b31900477fe3
he fired campaign manager Jim Jordan
591
False
Who took over for Jim Jordon, when he was fired?
57290eaa3f37b31900477fe4
Mary Beth Cahill
728
False
What regulation did Kerry not follow to try to save his campaign?
57290eaa3f37b31900477fe5
mortgaging his own home to lend the money to his campaign
792
False
endorsements
34
What did Ted Kennedy have fewer of than Kerry in 2004?
5a7228130efcfe001a8afe6f
True
far ahead
73
What was Ted Kennedy's position in the superdelegate race in 2004?
5a7228130efcfe001a8afe70
True
Iowa, New Hampshire, Arizona, South Carolina, New Mexico and Nevada.
198
What states did Ted Kennedy lead in in 2004?
5a7228130efcfe001a8afe71
True
all national polls
356
What was one area that Kennedy was seen as being weak in?
5a7228130efcfe001a8afe72
True
campaign manager
600
What position was held by Jim Jordan when he was fired by Bill Bradley?
5a7228130efcfe001a8afe73
True
In sheer numbers, Kerry had fewer endorsements than Howard Dean, who was far ahead in the superdelegate race going into the Iowa caucuses in January 2004, although Kerry led the endorsement race in Iowa, New Hampshire, Arizona, South Carolina, New Mexico and Nevada. Kerry's main perceived weakness was in his neighboring state of New Hampshire and nearly all national polls. Most other states did not have updated polling numbers to give an accurate placing for the Kerry campaign before Iowa. Heading into the primaries, Kerry's campaign was largely seen as in trouble, particularly after he fired campaign manager Jim Jordan. The key factors enabling it to survive were when fellow Massachusetts Senator Ted Kennedy assigned Mary Beth Cahill to be the campaign manager, as well as Kerry's mortgaging his own home to lend the money to his campaign (while his wife was a billionaire, campaign finance rules prohibited using one's personal fortune). He also brought on the "magical" Michael Whouley who would be credited with helping bring home the Iowa victory the same as he did in New Hampshire for Al Gore in 2000 against Bill Bradley.
Who, at the start of the primaries, had the most single campaign contributors?
57291e601d04691400779075
Lyndon LaRouche
52
False
Who had the highest amount of single campaign contributors, at the final quarter of the primaries?
57291e601d04691400779076
John Kerry
327
False
Who earned the fewest individual contributions as of the April 15th filing date?
57291e601d04691400779077
Gephardt
570
False
What agency provided statistical information regarding the Presidential Candidates' individual contributors?
57291e601d04691400779078
Federal Election Commission
133
False
individual contributors
191
What did Gephardt have more of than any other candidate in 2004?
5a7229c30efcfe001a8afe83
True
the final quarter of the primary season,
281
When did John Edwards surpass Gephardt in individual contributors for his campaign?
5a7229c30efcfe001a8afe84
True
economist
42
What profession did Gephardt have before 2004?
5a7229c30efcfe001a8afe85
True
2004
222
When did the FEC start collecting presidential campaign funding statistics?
5a7229c30efcfe001a8afe86
True
$200
462
What is the minimum amount that an individual contributor can donate to a campaign according to the FEC?
5a7229c30efcfe001a8afe87
True
In the race for individual contributions, economist Lyndon LaRouche dominated the pack leading up to the primaries. According to the Federal Election Commission statistics, LaRouche had more individual contributors to his 2004 presidential campaign than any other candidate, until the final quarter of the primary season, when John Kerry surpassed him. As of the April 15 filing, LaRouche had 7834 individual contributions, of those who have given cumulatively, $200 or more, as compared to 6257 for John Kerry, 5582 for John Edwards, 4090 for Howard Dean, and 2744 for Gephardt.
How many candidates remained by the end of the Iowa caucuses, in January 2004?
5729319b3f37b319004780db
nine
66
False
Which two candidates had surprising results despite Howard Dean being the strong front-runner?
5729319b3f37b319004780dc
John Kerry, who earned 38% of the state's delegates and John Edwards
254
False
Which candidate slipped into third place, following the Iowa caucuses?
5729319b3f37b319004780dd
Dean
365
False
Preceding the Iowa caucuses, which candidates used naysaying tactics in their campaigning?
5729319b3f37b319004780de
Dean and Gephardt
535
False
Which candidate dropped out of the race, leaving the field to nine candidates?
5729319b3f37b319004780df
Bob Graham
86
False
38%
277
What percentage of the state's delegates had Bob Graham taken as the front-runner?
5a722b2a0efcfe001a8afe8d
True
negative campaigning
502
What did Graham and Kerry take part in leading up to the Iowa vote?
5a722b2a0efcfe001a8afe8e
True
nine
66
How many ads were run by Graham in Iowa before the vote?
5a722b2a0efcfe001a8afe8f
True
11%
440
How much of the vote did Bob Graham have in Iowa after the election?
5a722b2a0efcfe001a8afe90
True
In the days leading up to the Iowa vote
446
When was Bob Graham performing his best in the race?
5a722b2a0efcfe001a8afe91
True
By the January 2004 Iowa caucuses, the field had dwindled down to nine candidates, as Bob Graham had dropped out of the race. Howard Dean was a strong front-runner. However, the Iowa caucuses yielded unexpectedly strong results for Democratic candidates John Kerry, who earned 38% of the state's delegates and John Edwards, who took 32%. Former front-runner Howard Dean slipped to 18% and third place, and Richard Gephardt finished fourth (11%). In the days leading up to the Iowa vote, there was much negative campaigning between the Dean and Gephardt camps.
Which candidate, after dropping out, went on to endorse Kerry?
572935886aef051400154b6e
Gephardt
26
False
Which troubled candidate did Carol Moseley Braun end up endorsing, after she dropped out?
572935886aef051400154b6f
Howard Dean
120
False
The continual playing of Dean's post-rally speech by the media stirred what type of controversy?
572935886aef051400154b70
whether Dean was the victim of media bias
617
False
What tag did the media attach to Dean's post-rally speech?
572935886aef051400154b71
"Dean Scream"
558
False
Did those in attendance at Dean's speech know about the "Dean Scream"?
572935886aef051400154b72
they were not aware
927
False
at a post-caucus rally
214
Where did Carol Moseley Braun give a speech that hurt her campaign?
5a722df50efcfe001a8afe97
True
bias
654
What was Braun thought to be a victim of by the media?
5a722df50efcfe001a8afe98
True
633
701
How many times were their news reports that focused on negative events in Braun's campaign?
5a722df50efcfe001a8afe99
True
third
165
What place in the race was Braun?
5a722df50efcfe001a8afe9a
True
unidirectional microphone
352
What was filtering the crowd noise when Braun was giving a speech?
5a722df50efcfe001a8afe9b
True
The dismal results caused Gephardt to drop out and later endorse Kerry. Carol Moseley Braun also dropped out, endorsing Howard Dean. Besides the impact of coming in third, Dean was further hurt by a speech he gave at a post-caucus rally. Dean was shouting over the cheers of his enthusiastic audience, but the crowd noise was being filtered out by his unidirectional microphone, leaving only his full-throated exhortations audible to the television viewers. To those at home, he seemed to raise his voice out of sheer emotion. The incessant replaying of the "Dean Scream" by the press became a debate on the topic of whether Dean was the victim of media bias. The scream scene was shown approximately 633 times by cable and broadcast news networks in just four days following the incident, a number that does not include talk shows and local news broadcasts. However, those who were in the actual audience that day insist that they were not aware of the infamous "scream" until they returned to their hotel rooms and saw it on TV.
Which candidate went on to win the South Carolina primary?
57293720af94a219006aa1ad
John Edwards
20
False
Which candidate won the Oklahoma primary?
57293720af94a219006aa1ae
Clark
108
False
Which candidate dropped out of the race, following losing the Oklahoma primary?
57293720af94a219006aa1af
Lieberman
115
False
Which candidate received heighted support after winning caucuses and primaries in many states?
57293720af94a219006aa1b0
Kerry
172
False
After Clark and Dean dropped out, which candidate was considered to be the only real contender against Kerry?
57293720af94a219006aa1b1
Edwards
462
False
South Carolina
41
What primary was won by Sharpton?
5a722ff90efcfe001a8afea1
True
dropped out of the campaign
125
What did Sharpton do the next day after losing in Nevada?
5a722ff90efcfe001a8afea2
True
throughout February
188
How long did Sharpton finish strong in the race?
5a722ff90efcfe001a8afea3
True
as he won caucuses and primaries
243
What caused Sharpton to have increasing support by voters?
5a722ff90efcfe001a8afea4
True
Edwards
462
What other candidate was the only threat to Sharpton's campaign?
5a722ff90efcfe001a8afea5
True
The following week, John Edwards won the South Carolina primary and finished a strong second in Oklahoma to Clark. Lieberman dropped out of the campaign the following day. Kerry dominated throughout February and his support quickly snowballed as he won caucuses and primaries, taking in a string of wins in Michigan, Washington, Maine, Tennessee, Washington, D.C., Nevada, Wisconsin, Utah, Hawaii, and Idaho. Clark and Dean dropped out during this time, leaving Edwards as the only real threat to Kerry. Kucinich and Sharpton continued to run despite poor results at the polls.
Which candidate was the fore-runner after definitively winning in the primaries and Minnesota caucuses?
5729398a6aef051400154b8a
Kerry
26
False
Which candidate won his state primary, despite having already dropped out of his race?
5729398a6aef051400154b8b
Dean
192
False
Which candidate finished in second place in the Georgia primary?
5729398a6aef051400154b8c
Edwards
287
False
Besides Georgia, what other state primary did Edwards win?
5729398a6aef051400154b8d
South Carolina
389
False
Which candidate dropped out of the race, next after Edwards?
5729398a6aef051400154b8e
Sharpton
451
False
Vermont
278
What is Sharpton's home state?
5a7236f30efcfe001a8afec9
True
his home state
260
What is the only state taken by Sharpton?
5a7236f30efcfe001a8afeca
True
July
544
In what month did Kerry officially leave the race?
5a7236f30efcfe001a8afecb
True
March's Super Tuesday
3
When did Kuninch win victories in California, Connecticut and Georgia?
5a7236f30efcfe001a8afecc
True
Minnesota
172
What caucuses did Kuninch also win in on Super Tuesday?
5a7236f30efcfe001a8afecd
True
In March's Super Tuesday, Kerry won decisive victories in the California, Connecticut, Georgia, Maryland, Massachusetts, New York, Ohio, and Rhode Island primaries and the Minnesota caucuses. Dean, despite having withdrawn from the race two weeks earlier, won his home state of Vermont. Edwards finished only slightly behind Kerry in Georgia, but, failing to win a single state other than South Carolina, chose to withdraw from the presidential race. Sharpton followed suit a couple weeks later. Kuninch did not leave the race officially until July.
Who did John Kerry choose to be by his side as the potential Vice President?
57293c2eaf94a219006aa1d3
John Edwards
31
False
How many candidates did John Kerry name as potential prospects to be his running mate?
57293c2eaf94a219006aa1d4
three
238
False
What was the Kerry/Edwards slogan that was released prior to the start of the convention in Boston?
57293c2eaf94a219006aa1d5
"stronger at home and more respected in the world."
420
False
Which part of Kerry's Boston speech made reference to his military experience?
57293c2eaf94a219006aa1d6
"I'm John Kerry and I'm reporting for duty."
604
False
Which famous line from Kerry's speech was later featured in one of his later television ad campaigns?
57293c2eaf94a219006aa1d7
"the future doesn't belong to fear, it belongs to freedom"
734
False
July 6
3
On what date did Tom Vilsack choose John Edwards as his running mate?
5a7238640efcfe001a8afee7
True
Boston
123
In what city did Tom Vilsack speak at the DNC?
5a7238640efcfe001a8afee8
True
Sen John Edwards, Rep Dick Gephardt
256
What other two candidates did Tom Vilsack have on his list for possible running mates?
5a7238640efcfe001a8afee9
True
a promise to make America "stronger at home and more respected in the world.
394
What was the slogan for Vilsack/Edwards at the DNC?
5a7238640efcfe001a8afeea
True
freedom
784
What did Vilsack mention that the future belonged to in his famous quote?
5a7238640efcfe001a8afeeb
True
On July 6, John Kerry selected John Edwards as his running mate, shortly before the 2004 Democratic National Convention in Boston, held later that month. Days before Kerry announced Edwards as his running mate, Kerry gave a short list of three candidates: Sen John Edwards, Rep Dick Gephardt, and Gov Tom Vilsack. Heading into the convention, the Kerry/Edwards ticket unveiled their new slogan—a promise to make America "stronger at home and more respected in the world." Kerry made his Vietnam War experience the prominent theme of the convention. In accepting the nomination, he began his speech with, "I'm John Kerry and I'm reporting for duty." He later delivered what may have been the speech's most memorable line when he said, "the future doesn't belong to fear, it belongs to freedom", a quote that later appeared in a Kerry/Edwards television advertisement.
What was the primary focus of Bush's campaign?
57293f201d046914007791e9
national security
29
False
How did Bush try to convey that he was the stronger, tougher candidate?
57293f201d046914007791ea
presenting himself as a decisive leader and contrasted Kerry as a "flip-flopper."
48
False
What phrase did Kerry use to try to express that he was more concerned for America?
57293f201d046914007791eb
"Stronger at home, respected in the world."
500
False
What does Kerry feel Bush aliented the American people with?
57293f201d046914007791ec
his foreign policy
714
False
The stategy that Bush used against Kerry was compared to what other similar strategy in the past?
57293f201d046914007791ed
just as his father did with Dukakis in the 1988 election
309
False
national security
29
What did Dukakis focus his campaign on?
5a7239a30efcfe001a8afefb
True
decisive
72
What kind of leader did Dukakis want to be seen as?
5a7239a30efcfe001a8afefc
True
a "flip-flopper."
112
How was Bush portrayed as when compared to Dukakis?
5a7239a30efcfe001a8afefd
True
tough
228
What attitude did Dukakis have on terrorism?
5a7239a30efcfe001a8afefe
True
would be "uncertain in the face of danger."
259
What perception made Bush appear weaker than Dukakis?
5a7239a30efcfe001a8afeff
True
Bush focused his campaign on national security, presenting himself as a decisive leader and contrasted Kerry as a "flip-flopper." This strategy was designed to convey to American voters the idea that Bush could be trusted to be tough on terrorism while Kerry would be "uncertain in the face of danger." Bush (just as his father did with Dukakis in the 1988 election) also sought to portray Kerry as a "Massachusetts liberal" who was out of touch with mainstream Americans. One of Kerry's slogans was "Stronger at home, respected in the world." This advanced the suggestion that Kerry would pay more attention to domestic concerns; it also encapsulated Kerry's contention that Bush had alienated American allies by his foreign policy.
Who was accused on not fulfilling their military service, during the fall of 2004?
5729464d1d04691400779237
Bush
120
False
What shifted attention away from the coverage regarding Bush's controvery regarding his required service?
5729464d1d04691400779238
a segment on 60 Minutes
292
False
Which news agency came under review resulting in the firing of their producer?
5729464d1d04691400779239
CBS News
266
False
Which time period came into the spotlight, during the fall of 2004?
5729464d1d0469140077923a
the late 1960s and early 1970s
88
False
What did the documents that were aired during the 60 Minutes segment come to be known as?
5729464d1d0469140077923b
Killian documents
363
False
failing to fulfill his required service in the Texas Air National Guard
140
What was Killian accused of not doing in 2004?
5a723f3b0efcfe001a8aff2d
True
events that occurred in the late 1960s and early 1970s
64
What did the Texas Air National Guard focus on in September 2004?
5a723f3b0efcfe001a8aff2e
True
CBS News
266
What news agency did a staffing change in 1970?
5a723f3b0efcfe001a8aff2f
True
2004
28
When was the news producer hired at CBS?
5a723f3b0efcfe001a8aff30
True
the news producer
528
Who was fired after working for Bush in the 1970's?
5a723f3b0efcfe001a8aff31
True
During August and September 2004, there was an intense focus on events that occurred in the late 1960s and early 1970s. Bush was accused of failing to fulfill his required service in the Texas Air National Guard. However, the focus quickly shifted to the conduct of CBS News after they aired a segment on 60 Minutes Wednesday introducing what became known as the Killian documents. Serious doubts about the documents' authenticity quickly emerged, leading CBS to appoint a review panel that eventually resulted in the firing of the news producer and other significant staffing changes.
Where did the first debate, between Kerry and Bush take place?
572956463f37b31900478283
University of Miami
49
False
Who was considered to have been the winner of the debate?
572956463f37b31900478284
Kerry
495
False
Who was the moderator of the first debate between Kerry and Bush?
572956463f37b31900478285
Jim Lehrer
83
False
What was thought to be the main focal point of the debate?
572956463f37b31900478286
foreign policy
140
False
How did the opinion regarding Kerry change, after being delared the winner of the debate?
572956463f37b31900478287
strengthening what had come to be seen as a weak and troubled campaign
528
False
University of Miami
49
Where did the first debate between Lehrer and Kerry take place?
5a7240f30efcfe001a8aff37
True
gain international support for the 2003 Invasion of Iraq
195
What did Lehrer accuse Kerry of not doing in 2003?
5a7240f30efcfe001a8aff38
True
"Well, actually, he forgot Poland."
389
What was Lehrer's reply to Kerry in the debate?
5a7240f30efcfe001a8aff39
True
won the debate decisively
501
What was the deciding opinion about Lehrer's performance in the debate?
5a7240f30efcfe001a8aff3a
True
numerous scowls and negative facial expressions
680
What did the media air to show Lehrer's annoyance with Kerry?
5a7240f30efcfe001a8aff3b
True
The first debate was held on September 30 at the University of Miami, moderated by Jim Lehrer of PBS. During the debate, slated to focus on foreign policy, Kerry accused Bush of having failed to gain international support for the 2003 Invasion of Iraq, saying the only countries assisting the U.S. during the invasion were the United Kingdom and Australia. Bush replied to this by saying, "Well, actually, he forgot Poland." Later, a consensus formed among mainstream pollsters and pundits that Kerry won the debate decisively, strengthening what had come to be seen as a weak and troubled campaign. In the days after, coverage focused on Bush's apparent annoyance with Kerry and numerous scowls and negative facial expressions.
Where was the second debate for presidency held?
572959656aef051400154d34
Washington University in St. Louis, Missouri
43
False
Was the second debate held in a rigid, formalistic manner?
572959656aef051400154d35
town meeting format, less formal
154
False
Was there a specific topic as the main focus for the second debate?
572959656aef051400154d36
taking questions on a variety of subjects from a local audience
254
False
Who was the moderator of the second debate, held at the Washington University?
572959656aef051400154d37
Charles Gibson
116
False
How did Bush try to make light of himself after being made fun of for his demeanor during the first debate?
572959656aef051400154d38
joking at one point about one of Kerry's remarks, "That answer made me want to scowl."
427
False
October 8
92
When was Charles Gibson first hired at ABC?
5a7242190efcfe001a8aff41
True
less formal
175
What style did Charles Gibson usually use when hosting a news broadcast?
5a7242190efcfe001a8aff42
True
local audience
303
Who usually watches Charles Gibson when he is on ABC news?
5a7242190efcfe001a8aff43
True
joking
427
What kind of comments does Charles Gibson use when in a difficult interview?
5a7242190efcfe001a8aff44
True
"That answer made me want to scowl."
477
What was Charles Gibson's comment about Bush's answer to his first question?
5a7242190efcfe001a8aff45
True
The second presidential debate was held at Washington University in St. Louis, Missouri, on October 8, moderated by Charles Gibson of ABC. Conducted in a town meeting format, less formal than the first presidential debate, this debate saw Bush and Kerry taking questions on a variety of subjects from a local audience. Bush attempted to deflect criticism of what was described as his scowling demeanor during the first debate, joking at one point about one of Kerry's remarks, "That answer made me want to scowl."
How many debates were there in total, between Kerry and Bush?
57295b5e3f37b319004782a9
third
27
False
Where was the final debate, between Kerry and Bush held?
57295b5e3f37b319004782aa
Arizona State University
53
False
What was the next biggest competitor for television viewers, next to the debate?
57295b5e3f37b319004782ab
Major League Baseball playoffs broadcast simultaneously
275
False
Who did Kerry publicize as a lesbian while discussing gay rights, some time after the debate?
57295b5e3f37b319004782ac
Vice President Cheney's daughter
415
False
What did Cheney refer to him as, after hearing Kerry's comments about his daughter?
57295b5e3f37b319004782ad
"a pretty angry father"
513
False
51 million
93
How many people in the US support gay rights?
5a72550a53a187001ae630cd
True
Cheney's daughter's sexual orientation
556
What was Bob Schieffer scolded by Cheney for using to further himself politically?
5a72550a53a187001ae630ce
True
October 13
81
When did Cheney's daughter come out as a lesbian?
5a72550a53a187001ae630cf
True
Arizona State University
53
What college did Cheney's daughter graduate from?
5a72550a53a187001ae630d0
True
"a pretty angry father"
513
What did Bob Schieffer call himself when his children were featured in a CBS news story?
5a72550a53a187001ae630d1
True
Bush and Kerry met for the third and final debate at Arizona State University on October 13. 51 million viewers watched the debate which was moderated by Bob Schieffer of CBS News. However, at the time of the ASU debate, there were 15.2 million viewers tuned in to watch the Major League Baseball playoffs broadcast simultaneously. After Kerry, responding to a question about gay rights, reminded the audience that Vice President Cheney's daughter was a lesbian, Cheney responded with a statement calling himself "a pretty angry father" due to Kerry using Cheney's daughter's sexual orientation for his political purposes.
Who received a certified ballot from the Electoral College, despite his name being spelled incorrectly on the ballot?
57295eafaf94a219006aa331
John Edwards
174
False
Had there ever been a time where an elector voted for the same candidate to be both president and vice president?
57295eafaf94a219006aa332
This was the first time in U.S. history
417
False
Which candidate won the unanimous vote for vice presidency?
57295eafaf94a219006aa333
All ten electors in the state cast ballots for John Edwards for vice president
259
False
What is different in comparison between the 1800 electoral system and the system in place in 2004?
57295eafaf94a219006aa334
under that electoral system only votes for the president's position were cast, with the runner-up in the Electoral College becoming vice president
633
False
In the 1800 election, why did Thomas Jefferson get the second vote?
57295eafaf94a219006aa335
it violated Electoral College rules
878
False
certified this ballot
138
What did the Electoral College do when John Kerry's name was wrong on the ballot?
5a7258d353a187001ae630d7
True
ten
263
How many states voted for John Edwards for president in the election?
5a7258d353a187001ae630d8
True
This was the first time
417
How many times had Aaron Burr run for office in the past?
5a7258d353a187001ae630d9
True
One elector in Minnesota
0
Who voted for John Edwards for president and had his vote discounted because it violated the rules?
5a7258d353a187001ae630da
True
Minnesota
15
What state was Aaron Burr originally from?
5a7258d353a187001ae630db
True
One elector in Minnesota cast a ballot for president with the name of "John Ewards"  [sic] written on it. The Electoral College officials certified this ballot as a vote for John Edwards for president. The remaining nine electors cast ballots for John Kerry. All ten electors in the state cast ballots for John Edwards for vice president (John Edwards's name was spelled correctly on all ballots for vice president). This was the first time in U.S. history that an elector had cast a vote for the same person to be both president and vice president; another faithless elector in the 1800 election had voted twice for Aaron Burr, but under that electoral system only votes for the president's position were cast, with the runner-up in the Electoral College becoming vice president (and the second vote for Burr was discounted and re-assigned to Thomas Jefferson in any event, as it violated Electoral College rules).
Why was there tension the day after the election?
572961af3f37b319004782e1
It was clear that the result in Ohio, along with two other states who had still not declared (New Mexico and Iowa), would decide the winner
73
False
Despite an apparent lead by Bush early on, what was thought to be a concern?
572961af3f37b319004782e2
provisional ballots that had yet to be counted, initially reported to number as high as 200,000
295
False
How would it be determined who would win, in the event of an electoral tie?
572961af3f37b319004782e3
The result of an electoral tie would cause the election to be decided in the House of Representatives with each state casting one vote, regardless of population
619
False
Which state became the most important to secure Bush's presidential election?
572961af3f37b319004782e4
the outcome of the election hinged solely on the result in Ohio
918
False
Who did Bush lose the popular vote to in the 2000 election for presidency?
572961af3f37b319004782e5
Al Gore
1603
False
around 130,000 votes
245
What lead did Kerry have initially?
5a725b1053a187001ae630e1
True
provisional ballots
295
What was Ken Blackwell waiting for that hadn't been counted yet?
5a725b1053a187001ae630e2
True
of less than 5%
419
What preliminary leads did Kerry have in four states?
5a725b1053a187001ae630e3
True
Ohio
977
Which state became the most important for Al Gore to win the election?
5a725b1053a187001ae630e4
True
to make up enough valid votes in the provisional ballots to win
1149
What did Al Gore announce was impossible for the Democrats to do to win in 2000?
5a725b1053a187001ae630e5
True
The morning after the election, the major candidates were neck and neck. It was clear that the result in Ohio, along with two other states who had still not declared (New Mexico and Iowa), would decide the winner. Bush had established a lead of around 130,000 votes but the Democrats pointed to provisional ballots that had yet to be counted, initially reported to number as high as 200,000. Bush had preliminary leads of less than 5% of the vote in only four states, but if Iowa, Nevada and New Mexico had all eventually gone to Kerry, a win for Bush in Ohio would have created a 269–269 tie in the Electoral College. The result of an electoral tie would cause the election to be decided in the House of Representatives with each state casting one vote, regardless of population. Such a scenario would almost certainly have resulted in a victory for Bush, as Republicans controlled more House delegations. Therefore, the outcome of the election hinged solely on the result in Ohio, regardless of the final totals elsewhere. In the afternoon Ohio's Secretary of State, Ken Blackwell, announced that it was statistically impossible for the Democrats to make up enough valid votes in the provisional ballots to win. At the time provisional ballots were reported as numbering 140,000 (and later estimated to be only 135,000). Faced with this announcement, John Kerry conceded defeat. Had Kerry won Ohio, he would have won the election despite losing the national popular vote by over 3 million votes, a complete reversal of the 2000 election when Bush won the presidency despite losing the popular vote to Al Gore by over 500,000 votes.
Was there any debate about the voting process in Ohio?
5729649b6aef051400154dee
a motion was made contesting Ohio's electoral votes
62
False
What was the decision regarding the motion to re-count the votes, after each House finalized their debates?
5729649b6aef051400154def
During the debate, no Senator argued that the outcome of the election should be changed by either court challenge or revote
690
False
Who was the lone supporter of the motion, from the Senate?
5729649b6aef051400154df0
Senator Boxer
631
False
Why did Senator Boxer say she voted the way she did?
5729649b6aef051400154df1
Senator Boxer claimed that she had made the motion not to challenge the outcome, but to "shed the light of truth on these irregularities."
815
False
How many people from the House of Representatives did not vote?
5729649b6aef051400154df2
Not voting were 52 Republicans and 80 Democrats
447
False
January 6
51
When was Boxer elected to office?
5a725e0253a187001ae630eb
True
to "shed the light of truth on these irregularities."
900
Why did Republicans say they made the motion to contest Boxer?
5a725e0253a187001ae630ec
True
the outcome of the election should be changed by either court challenge or revote
732
What did the four house officials who hadn't take office yet argue about the election?
5a725e0253a187001ae630ed
True
a motion was made contesting Ohio's electoral votes
62
What happened before four senators took office in Ohio?
5a725e0253a187001ae630ee
True
to challenge the outcome
870
What did the 31 Democrats in the House say they had not made the motion for?
5a725e0253a187001ae630ef
True
At the official counting of the electoral votes on January 6, a motion was made contesting Ohio's electoral votes. Because the motion was supported by at least one member of both the House of Representatives and the Senate, election law mandated that each house retire to debate and vote on the motion. In the House of Representatives, the motion was supported by 31 Democrats. It was opposed by 178 Republicans, 88 Democrats and one independent. Not voting were 52 Republicans and 80 Democrats. Four people elected to the House had not yet taken office, and one seat was vacant. In the Senate, it was supported only by its maker, Senator Boxer, with 74 Senators opposed and 25 not voting. During the debate, no Senator argued that the outcome of the election should be changed by either court challenge or revote. Senator Boxer claimed that she had made the motion not to challenge the outcome, but to "shed the light of truth on these irregularities."
What did Kerry say affected the ability to know if the results of the Ohio vote was unbiased?
57296704af94a219006aa39b
"the widespread irregularities make it impossible to know for certain that the [Ohio] outcome reflected the will of the voters."
29
False
Which Democratic official supported Kerry's theory about the Ohio votes?
57296704af94a219006aa39c
Howard Dean
218
False
What was said about the devices used to collect the votes, in Ohio?
57296704af94a219006aa39d
the machines were not reliable
360
False
Who was targeted for defrauding the electoral process, in Ohio?
57296704af94a219006aa39e
the Republicans are willing to do things that are unethical to manipulate elections
425
False
not reliable
378
What did Kerry think the state of voter machines was?
5a725fcc53a187001ae630f5
True
Republicans
429
Who did Kerry think was unethical in the election?
5a725fcc53a187001ae630f6
True
that the [Ohio] outcome reflected the will of the voters
99
What did the DNC say wasn't possible to know for certain?
5a725fcc53a187001ae630f7
True
voter
337
What kind of suppression was there in Ohio according to Kerry?
5a725fcc53a187001ae630f8
True
things that are unethical
459
What did the DNC say Kerry was guilty of in the election?
5a725fcc53a187001ae630f9
True
Kerry would later state that "the widespread irregularities make it impossible to know for certain that the [Ohio] outcome reflected the will of the voters." In the same article, Democratic National Committee Chairman Howard Dean said "I'm not confident that the election in Ohio was fairly decided... We know that there was substantial voter suppression, and the machines were not reliable. It should not be a surprise that the Republicans are willing to do things that are unethical to manipulate elections. That's what we suspect has happened."
Who was called in to watch over the presidential election in 2004?
5729693a1d046914007793d5
the Organization for Security and Cooperation in Europe (OSCE) sent a team of observers to monitor the presidential elections in 2004
51
False
Was this the only occasion the OSCE was invited to preside over a presidential election?
5729693a1d046914007793d6
It was the first time the OSCE had sent observers to a U.S. presidential election, although they had been invited in the past.
186
False
What were the findings of the OSCE team?
5729693a1d046914007793d7
mostly met the OSCE commitments included in the 1990 Copenhagen Document
486
False
What type of values did the OSCE determine were adhered to during the election process?
5729693a1d046914007793d8
long-standing democratic tradition
614
False
Organization for Security and Cooperation in Europe (OSCE)
55
What group was invited to the US by the public in 1990?
5a72628953a187001ae630ff
True
to monitor the presidential elections
139
Why did OSCE come to the US in 1990?
5a72628953a187001ae63100
True
a team of observers
119
Who did the OSCE send to the US in 1990?
5a72628953a187001ae63101
True
It was the first time
186
How many times had the OSCE been to the US before 1990?
5a72628953a187001ae63102
True
a report
347
What was issued by the OSCE in 1990 on the election?
5a72628953a187001ae63103
True
At the invitation of the United States government, the Organization for Security and Cooperation in Europe (OSCE) sent a team of observers to monitor the presidential elections in 2004. It was the first time the OSCE had sent observers to a U.S. presidential election, although they had been invited in the past. In September 2004 the OSCE issued a report on U.S. electoral processes and the election final report. The report reads: "The November 2, 2004 elections in the United States mostly met the OSCE commitments included in the 1990 Copenhagen Document. They were conducted in an environment that reflects a long-standing democratic tradition, including institutions governed by the rule of law, free and generally professional media, and a civil society intensively engaged in the election process. There was exceptional public interest in the two leading presidential candidates and the issues raised by their respective campaigns, as well as in the election process itself."
What finance act affected the 2004 election?
57296b6f1d046914007793f9
the Bipartisan Campaign Reform Act of 2002
91
False
Where did the moniker McCain-Feingold Bill come from?
57296b6f1d046914007793fa
its sponsors in the United States Senate
178
False
How did the 527 groups come up with their title?
57296b6f1d046914007793fb
Named for a section of the Internal Revenue Code
344
False
What stipulation enabled the 527 groups to campaign for funds?
57296b6f1d046914007793fc
as long as they do not coordinate their activities with political campaigns
478
False
What is one of the named 527 groups from the 2004 election?
57296b6f1d046914007793fd
MoveOn.org
611
False
the Bipartisan Campaign Reform Act
91
What act was passed during the 2000 campaign?
5a72642153a187001ae63109
True
campaign finance reforms
54
What reforms took place during the 2000 campaign?
5a72642153a187001ae6310a
True
527
324
How many campaign finance groups were there in 2000?
5a72642153a187001ae6310b
True
2000
807
In what year did McCain run for President of the US?
5a72642153a187001ae6310c
True
America Coming Together
643
What group supported McCain in the 2000 election?
5a72642153a187001ae6310d
True
The 2004 election was the first to be affected by the campaign finance reforms mandated by the Bipartisan Campaign Reform Act of 2002 (also known as the McCain–Feingold Bill for its sponsors in the United States Senate). Because of the Act's restrictions on candidates' and parties' fundraising, a large number of so-called 527 groups emerged. Named for a section of the Internal Revenue Code, these groups were able to raise large amounts of money for various political causes as long as they do not coordinate their activities with political campaigns. Examples of 527s include Swift Boat Veterans for Truth, MoveOn.org, the Media Fund, and America Coming Together. Many such groups were active throughout the campaign season. (There was some similar activity, although on a much lesser scale, during the 2000 campaign.)
How were viewers able to determine who endorsed political campaign ads, they saw in advertisements??
57296d5a3f37b31900478387
required to include a verbal disclaimer identifying the organization responsible for the advertisement
110
False
What was disallowed in advertising during the two months prior to the general election?
57296d5a3f37b31900478388
60 days before the general election), such organizations' ads were prohibited from mentioning any candidate by name
530
False
Official advertisements generally contained what phrase?
57296d5a3f37b31900478389
"I'm [candidate's name], and I approve this message."
293
False
Independent advertisements generally contained what phrase?
57296d5a3f37b3190047838a
"[Organization name] is responsible for the content of this advertisement"
432
False
What was the tag line requirement before?
57296d5a3f37b3190047838b
Previously, television advertisements only required a written "paid for by" disclaimer on the screen.
647
False
the organization
162
What were candidates required to identify when speaking at a supporters business?
5a72698853a187001ae63113
True
any candidate by name
624
What did supporters have to refer to 60 days before an election?
5a72698853a187001ae63114
True
official campaigning from independent campaigning
15
What does not mentioning candidates names before an election help the public differentiate between?
5a72698853a187001ae63115
True
written
701
What method was used to disclose candidate funding when a candidate gave a speech in the past?
5a72698853a187001ae63116
True
political advertisements on television
66
What were required to include who was involved in choosing a candidate for office?
5a72698853a187001ae63117
True
To distinguish official campaigning from independent campaigning, political advertisements on television were required to include a verbal disclaimer identifying the organization responsible for the advertisement. Advertisements produced by political campaigns usually included the statement, "I'm [candidate's name], and I approve this message." Advertisements produced by independent organizations usually included the statement, "[Organization name] is responsible for the content of this advertisement", and from September 3 (60 days before the general election), such organizations' ads were prohibited from mentioning any candidate by name. Previously, television advertisements only required a written "paid for by" disclaimer on the screen.
What action suggested by a state, would have affecting the outcome of the electoral votes?
572970aaaf94a219006aa413
ballot initiative in Colorado, known as Amendment 36
2
False
What unique change to the electoral voting process did Colorado suggest should happen?
572970aaaf94a219006aa414
under the amendment Colorado would have assigned presidential electors proportionally to the statewide vote count, which would be a unique system
238
False
Which two states designated their assigned votes based on their districts?
572970aaaf94a219006aa415
Nebraska and Maine assign electoral votes based on vote totals within each congressional district)
385
False
Did everyone agree that Amendment 36 was a good idea?
572970aaaf94a219006aa416
Detractors claimed that this splitting would diminish Colorado's influence in the Electoral College
485
False
Did Amendment 36 get passed?
572970aaaf94a219006aa417
the amendment ultimately failed
590
False
Amendment 36
42
What was the name of the amendment passed in Nebraska?
5a726faa53a187001ae6311d
True
the way in which the state apportions its electoral votes
75
What did Amendment 36 change in Nebraska?
5a726faa53a187001ae6311e
True
would be a unique system
359
How was Amendment 36 described when it was on the ballot in Nebraska?
5a726faa53a187001ae6311f
True
the Electoral College
563
Where would Nebraska's influence be diminished under the 36th Amendment?
5a726faa53a187001ae63120
True
34%
638
What percentage of the population in Nebraska didn't like the amendment?
5a726faa53a187001ae63121
True
A ballot initiative in Colorado, known as Amendment 36, would have changed the way in which the state apportions its electoral votes. Rather than assigning all 9 of the state's electors to the candidate with a plurality of popular votes, under the amendment Colorado would have assigned presidential electors proportionally to the statewide vote count, which would be a unique system (Nebraska and Maine assign electoral votes based on vote totals within each congressional district). Detractors claimed that this splitting would diminish Colorado's influence in the Electoral College, and the amendment ultimately failed, receiving only 34% of the vote.
Liberal_Party_of_Australia
What is economic liberalism sometimes also referred to?
5728d7574b864d1900164f3c
New Right
76
False
Does the Liberal Party of Australia consider itself socialist or anti-socialist?
5728d7574b864d1900164f3d
anti-socialist
283
False
Who was the Liberal Party of Australia's longest-serving leader?
5728d7574b864d1900164f3e
Robert Menzies
451
False
Who founded Australia's liberal party?
5728d7574b864d1900164f3f
Robert Menzies
451
False
New Right
76
What is communism also referred to?
5a6a1ee55ce1a5001a96970c
True
anti-socialist
283
Does the Liberal Party of Australia consider itself liberal or anti-socialist?
5a6a1ee55ce1a5001a96970d
True
Robert Menzies
451
Who was the Liberal Party of Australia's longest-serving socialist?
5a6a1ee55ce1a5001a96970e
True
Robert Menzies
451
Who founded communism in Australia?
5a6a1ee55ce1a5001a96970f
True
economic protectionism and interventionism
145
What has Australia's middle class now support more of?
5a6a1ee55ce1a5001a969710
True
The contemporary Liberal Party generally advocates economic liberalism (see New Right). Historically, the party has supported a higher degree of economic protectionism and interventionism than it has in recent decades. However, from its foundation the party has identified itself as anti-socialist. Strong opposition to socialism and communism in Australia and abroad was one of its founding principles. The party's founder and longest-serving leader Robert Menzies envisaged that Australia's middle class would form its main constituency.
Whom are referred to as "The forgoten people?"
5728d7d34b864d1900164f56
the middle class
89
False
In what year were the Australian Democrats founded?
5728d7d34b864d1900164f57
1977
458
False
Which former liberal founded the Australian Democrats in 1977?
5728d7d34b864d1900164f58
Don Chipp
490
False
the middle class
89
Whom are referred to as voters?
5a6a2c065ce1a5001a969716
True
1977
458
In what year was the Liberal Party founded?
5a6a2c065ce1a5001a969717
True
Don Chipp
490
Which former liberal founded the Liberal Party in 1977?
5a6a2c065ce1a5001a969718
True
Liberals
920
Who are 16 of 20 of the middle class electorates held by?
5a6a2c065ce1a5001a969719
True
the 1970s
274
When did a left wing federal electorate emerge that no longer voted liberal?
5a6a2c065ce1a5001a96971a
True
Throughout their history, the Liberals have been in electoral terms largely the party of the middle class (whom Menzies, in the era of the party's formation called "The forgotten people"), though such class-based voting patterns are no longer as clear as they once were. In the 1970s a left-wing middle class emerged that no longer voted Liberal.[citation needed] One effect of this was the success of a breakaway party, the Australian Democrats, founded in 1977 by former Liberal minister Don Chipp and members of minor liberal parties; other members of the left-leaning section of the middle-class became Labor supporters.[citation needed] On the other hand, the Liberals have done increasingly well in recent years among socially conservative working-class voters.[citation needed]However the Liberal Party's key support base remains the upper-middle classes; 16 of the 20 richest federal electorates are held by the Liberals, most of which are safe seats. In country areas they either compete with or have a truce with the Nationals, depending on various factors.
Did Mezies and Malcom Fraser raise, mainain, or lower tariff levels?
5728d8e12ca10214002da95c
generally maintain
255
False
Which group is currently known as the "National Party"?
5728d8e12ca10214002da95d
the Country Party
354
False
What is the "New Right"?
5728d8e12ca10214002da95e
a conservative liberal group who advocated market deregulation, privatisation of public utilities, reductions in the size of government programs and tax cuts
685
False
Were utilities publically or privately owned in Menzie's economy?
5728d8e12ca10214002da95f
publicly
87
False
generally main
255
Did Mezies and Malcom Fraser raise, maintain, or lower market levels?
5a6a3f515ce1a5001a969766
True
Country Party
358
Which group is currently known as the Australia party?
5a6a3f515ce1a5001a969767
True
publicly
87
Were tariffs publicly or privately owned in Menzie's economy?
5a6a3f515ce1a5001a969768
True
1970s and through their period out of power federally in the 1980s
542
When did the Malcolm Fraser come to be influenced by the New Right?
5a6a3f515ce1a5001a969769
True
Domestically
0
Where did Fraser preside over a fairly regulated economy?
5a6a3f515ce1a5001a96976a
True
Domestically, Menzies presided over a fairly regulated economy in which utilities were publicly owned, and commercial activity was highly regulated through centralised wage-fixing and high tariff protection. Liberal leaders from Menzies to Malcolm Fraser generally maintained Australia's high tariff levels. At that time the Liberals' coalition partner, the Country Party, the older of the two in the coalition (now known as the "National Party"), had considerable influence over the government's economic policies. It was not until the late 1970s and through their period out of power federally in the 1980s that the party came to be influenced by what was known as the "New Right" – a conservative liberal group who advocated market deregulation, privatisation of public utilities, reductions in the size of government programs and tax cuts.
Which group was predecessor to the Liberals?
5728d9a2ff5b5019007da816
United Australia Party (UAP)
44
False
From where did the ideology of the Liberals stem?
5728d9a2ff5b5019007da817
anti-Labor groupings in the first Commonwealth parliaments
151
False
What did the Commonwealth Liberal Party merge to form?
5728d9a2ff5b5019007da818
Nationalist Party of Australia
518
False
In what year was the Nationalist Party of Australia formed?
5728d9a2ff5b5019007da819
1917
552
False
United Australia Party (UAP)
44
Which group was predecessor to the Free Trade Party?
5a6a582ea9e0c9001a4e9d5c
True
anti-Labor groupings in the first Commonwealth parliaments
151
from where did the prominence of the Liberals stem?
5a6a582ea9e0c9001a4e9d5d
True
Nationalist Party of Australia
518
What did the UAP merge to form?
5a6a582ea9e0c9001a4e9d5e
True
1917
552
In what year was the prime minister party formed?
5a6a582ea9e0c9001a4e9d5f
True
1909
310
When did Billy Hughes fuse the Free Trade Party and the Protectionist Party?
5a6a582ea9e0c9001a4e9d60
True
The Liberals' immediate predecessor was the United Australia Party (UAP). More broadly, the Liberal Party's ideological ancestry stretched back to the anti-Labor groupings in the first Commonwealth parliaments. The Commonwealth Liberal Party was a fusion of the Free Trade Party and the Protectionist Party in 1909 by the second prime minister, Alfred Deakin, in response to Labor's growing electoral prominence. The Commonwealth Liberal Party merged with several Labor dissidents (including Billy Hughes) to form the Nationalist Party of Australia in 1917. That party, in turn, merged with Labor dissidents to form the UAP in 1931.
What economic event influenced the 1931 Election?
5728da6a3acd2414000e0043
the Great Depression
352
False
How many consecutive elections did the Lyons Government win?
5728da6a3acd2414000e0044
three
483
False
What event caused Robert Menzies to become Prime Minister?
5728da6a3acd2414000e0045
Lyons' death in 1939
697
False
What years did Robert Menzies serve as Prime Minister?
5728da6a3acd2414000e0046
1939 to 1941
824
False
the Great Depression
220
What economic event influenced the 1943 election?
5a6a5958a9e0c9001a4e9d70
True
three
483
How many conservative elections did Robert Menzies win?
5a6a5958a9e0c9001a4e9d71
True
Lyons' death in 1939
697
What event caused Billy Hughes to become Prime Minister?
5a6a5958a9e0c9001a4e9d72
True
1939 to 1941
824
What years did Billy Hughes serve as Prime Minister?
5a6a5958a9e0c9001a4e9d73
True
conservative fiscal policy of debt reduction and balanced budgets
573
What was used to bring the UAP out of the Depression?
5a6a5958a9e0c9001a4e9d74
True
The UAP had been formed as a new conservative alliance in 1931, with Labor defector Joseph Lyons as its leader. The stance of Lyons and other Labor rebels against the more radical proposals of the Labor movement to deal the Great Depression had attracted the support of prominent Australian conservatives. With Australia still suffering the effects of the Great Depression, the newly formed party won a landslide victory at the 1931 Election, and the Lyons Government went on to win three consecutive elections. It largely avoided Keynesian pump-priming and pursued a more conservative fiscal policy of debt reduction and balanced budgets as a means of stewarding Australia out of the Depression. Lyons' death in 1939 saw Robert Menzies assume the Prime Ministership on the eve of war. Menzies served as Prime Minister from 1939 to 1941 but resigned as leader of the minority World War II government amidst an unworkable parliamentary majority. The UAP, led by Billy Hughes, disintegrated after suffering a heavy defeat in the 1943 election.
To what are Menzies' "Forgotten People" radio talks compared to?
5728db062ca10214002da9b0
Franklin D. Roosevelt's "fireside chats"
335
False
How did Roosevelt refer to the middle class?
5728db062ca10214002da9b1
"backbone of Australia"
434
False
Was the meeting at Canberra a group of people supporting or opposed to the Australian Labor Party?
5728db062ca10214002da9b2
opposed
69
False
Where was the second anti-Labor Party held in 1944?
5728db062ca10214002da9b3
Albury, New South Wales
169
False
Franklin D. Roosevelt's "fireside chats"
335
To what are Menzies' "Forgotten People" political parties compared to?
5a6a5a96a9e0c9001a4e9d84
True
opposed
69
Was the meeting at Canberra a group of people supporting or opposed to Franklin D. Roosevelt?
5a6a5a96a9e0c9001a4e9d85
True
Albury, New South Wales
169
Where was the second fireside chat held in 1944?
5a6a5a96a9e0c9001a4e9d86
True
backbone of Australia
435
How did Roosevelt refer to political parties?
5a6a5a96a9e0c9001a4e9d87
True
1942
216
From when did Roosevelt maintain his public profile with "The Forgotten People"?
5a6a5a96a9e0c9001a4e9d88
True
Menzies called a conference of conservative parties and other groups opposed to the ruling Australian Labor Party, which met in Canberra on 13 October 1944 and again in Albury, New South Wales in December 1944. From 1942 onward Menzies had maintained his public profile with his series of "The Forgotten People" radio talks–similar to Franklin D. Roosevelt's "fireside chats" of the 1930s–in which he spoke of the middle class as the "backbone of Australia" but as nevertheless having been "taken for granted" by political parties.
Where was the formation of the Liberal party officially announced?
5728dbd73acd2414000e0077
Sydney Town Hall
53
False
Where did the name "Liberal" come from?
5728dbd73acd2414000e0078
in honour of the old Commonwealth Liberal Party
116
False
What was the name of the Liberal Party's youth division?
5728dbd73acd2414000e0079
Young Liberals
585
False
How many members were in the Young Liberals by Sept 1945?
5728dbd73acd2414000e007a
more than 90,000
630
False
Sydney Town Hall
53
Where was the formation of the UAP party officially announced?
5a6a5bb3a9e0c9001a4e9d8e
True
in honour of the old Commonwealth Liberal Party
116
Where did the name "Young Nationalists" come from?
5a6a5bb3a9e0c9001a4e9d8f
True
Young Liberals
585
What was the name of the Liberal Party's conservative division?
5a6a5bb3a9e0c9001a4e9d90
True
more than 90,000
630
How many members were in the UAP by Sept 1945?
5a6a5bb3a9e0c9001a4e9d91
True
The Australian Women's National League
295
What was a powerful liberal women's organization?
5a6a5bb3a9e0c9001a4e9d92
True
The formation of the party was formally announced at Sydney Town Hall on 31 August 1945. It took the name "Liberal" in honour of the old Commonwealth Liberal Party. The new party was dominated by the remains of the old UAP; with few exceptions, the UAP party room became the Liberal party room. The Australian Women's National League, a powerful conservative women's organisation, also merged with the new party. A conservative youth group Menzies had set up, the Young Nationalists, was also merged into the new party. It became the nucleus of the Liberal Party's youth division, the Young Liberals. By September 1945 there were more than 90,000 members, many of whom had not previously been members of any political party.
How many years did the Liberals stay in office after the 1949 election?
5728dc893acd2414000e0093
a record 23 years
146
False
What promises did Menzies make in the 1949 election?
5728dc893acd2414000e0094
end rationing of butter, tea and petrol and provided a five-shilling endowment for first-born children
408
False
During what period did Australia experience long-term economic growth?
5728dc893acd2414000e0095
the post-war boom period of the Menzies Government (1949–1966)
286
False
a record 23 years
146
How many years did the Liberals stay in office after the 1966 election?
5a6a5cb9a9e0c9001a4e9da2
True
end rationing of butter, tea and petrol and provided a five-shilling endowment for first-born children
408
What promises did Menzies make in the 1966 election?
5a6a5cb9a9e0c9001a4e9da3
True
the post-war boom period of the Menzies Government (1949–1966)
286
During what period did Australia experience long-term legal reforms regarding children?
5a6a5cb9a9e0c9001a4e9da4
True
Menzies
574
Who was an ashamed anglophile?
5a6a5cb9a9e0c9001a4e9da5
True
Menzies
353
Who fulfilled his promised at the 1966 election?
5a6a5cb9a9e0c9001a4e9da6
True
After an initial loss to Labor at the 1946 election, Menzies led the Liberals to victory at the 1949 election, and the party stayed in office for a record 23 years—still the longest unbroken run in government at the federal level. Australia experienced prolonged economic growth during the post-war boom period of the Menzies Government (1949–1966) and Menzies fulfilled his promises at the 1949 election to end rationing of butter, tea and petrol and provided a five-shilling endowment for first-born children, as well as for others. While himself an unashamed anglophile, Menzies' government concluded a number of major defence and trade treaties that set Australia on its post-war trajectory out of Britain's orbit; opened Australia to multi-ethnic immigration; and instigated important legal reforms regarding Aboriginal Australians.
What was a key political topic in the 1950s and 1960s?
5728ddb1ff5b5019007da884
Anti-communism
344
False
What actions showed Menzies' anti-Communist beliefs?
5728ddb1ff5b5019007da885
committed troops to the Korean War and attempted to ban the Communist Party of Australia in an unsuccessful referendum during the course of that war
447
False
Over what did the Labor party divide?
5728ddb1ff5b5019007da886
concerns about the influence of the Communist Party over the Trade Union movement,
624
False
Anti-communism
344
What was a key political topic of the Democratic Labor Party?
5a6a5f32a9e0c9001a4e9db6
True
committed troops to the Korean War and attempted to ban the Communist Party of Australia in an unsuccessful referendum during the course of that war
447
What actions showed Stalin anti-Communist beliefs?
5a6a5f32a9e0c9001a4e9db7
True
concerns about the influence of the Communist Party over the Trade Union movement
624
Over what did the Soviet Union divide?
5a6a5f32a9e0c9001a4e9db8
True
Menzies
409
Who committed troops to the Communist War?
5a6a5f32a9e0c9001a4e9db9
True
to improve pit miners' working conditions
86
Why did the Soviet Union lead a coal strike?
5a6a5f32a9e0c9001a4e9dba
True
Menzies came to power the year the Communist Party of Australia had led a coal strike to improve pit miners' working conditions. That same year Joseph Stalin's Soviet Union exploded its first atomic bomb, and Mao Zedong led the Communist Party of China to power in China; a year later came the invasion of South Korea by Communist North Korea. Anti-communism was a key political issue of the 1950s and 1960s. Menzies was firmly anti-Communist; he committed troops to the Korean War and attempted to ban the Communist Party of Australia in an unsuccessful referendum during the course of that war. The Labor Party split over concerns about the influence of the Communist Party over the Trade Union movement, leading to the foundation of the breakaway Democratic Labor Party whose preferences supported the Liberal and Country parties.
Which treaty was Australia's first military alliance outside of the British Commonwealth?
5728de523acd2414000e00bd
ANZUS Treaty
247
False
Which areas were involved in the ANZUS Treaty?
5728de523acd2414000e00be
Australia, New Zealand and the United States
268
False
Where was the signing of the ANZUS Treaty held in 1951?
5728de523acd2414000e00bf
San Francisco
316
False
What does the acronym SEATO stand for?
5728de523acd2414000e00c0
South East Asia Collective Defence Treaty
720
False
Which group is a counterpart to NATO?
5728de523acd2414000e00c1
the South East Asia Collective Defence Treaty (SEATO)
716
False
ANZUS Treaty
247
Which treaty was Austrialia's first military alliance outside of NATO?
5a6a60c0a9e0c9001a4e9dc0
True
Australia, New Zealand and the United States
268
Which areas were involved with the NATO Treaty?
5a6a60c0a9e0c9001a4e9dc1
True
San Francisco
316
Where was the signing of the NATO Treaty held in 1951?
5a6a60c0a9e0c9001a4e9dc2
True
South East Asia Collective Defence Treaty
720
What does the acronym did Percy Spender sign?
5a6a60c0a9e0c9001a4e9dc3
True
the South East Asia Collective Defence Treaty (SEATO)
716
Which group is a counterpart to External Affairs?
5a6a60c0a9e0c9001a4e9dc4
True
In 1951, during the early stages of the Cold War, Menzies spoke of the possibility of a looming third world war. The Menzies Government entered Australia's first formal military alliance outside of the British Commonwealth with the signing of the ANZUS Treaty between Australia, New Zealand and the United States in San Francisco in 1951. External Affairs Minister Percy Spender had put forward the proposal to work along similar lines to the NATO Alliance. The Treaty declared that any attack on one of the three parties in the Pacific area would be viewed as a threat to each, and that the common danger would be met in accordance with each nation's constitutional processes. In 1954 the Menzies Government signed the South East Asia Collective Defence Treaty (SEATO) as a South East Asian counterpart to NATO. That same year, Soviet diplomat Vladimir Petrov and his wife defected from the Soviet embassy in Canberra, revealing evidence of Russian spying activities; Menzies called a Royal Commission to investigate.
What did the Immigration Act's entry permit system include?
5728dee22ca10214002da9f0
economic and skills criteria
541
False
Which ruling allowed indigenous Australians the right to vote?
5728dee22ca10214002da9f1
Menzies' Commonwealth Electoral Act
580
False
Who was the first women to serve on the Australian Cabinet?
5728dee22ca10214002da9f2
Dame Enid Lyons
914
False
Menzies continued the expanded immigration program established under Chifley, and took important steps towards dismantling the White Australia Policy. In the early 1950s, external affairs minister Percy Spender helped to establish the Colombo Plan for providing economic aid to underdeveloped nations in Australia's region. Under that scheme many future Asian leaders studied in Australia. In 1958 the government replaced the Immigration Act's arbitrarily applied European language dictation test with an entry permit system, that reflected economic and skills criteria. In 1962, Menzies' Commonwealth Electoral Act provided that all Indigenous Australians should have the right to enrol and vote at federal elections (prior to this, indigenous people in Queensland, Western Australia and some in the Northern Territory had been excluded from voting unless they were ex-servicemen). In 1949 the Liberals appointed Dame Enid Lyons as the first woman to serve in an Australian Cabinet. Menzies remained a staunch supporter of links to the monarchy and British Commonwealth but formalised an alliance with the United States and concluded the Agreement on Commerce between Australia and Japan which was signed in July 1957 and launched post-war trade with Japan, beginning a growth of Australian exports of coal, iron ore and mineral resources that would steadily climb until Japan became Australia's largest trading partner.
Government under whom experienced the conversion to decimal currency?
5728dfb24b864d1900164fec
Holt
0
False
Which of Holt's stances received some public opposition?
5728dfb24b864d1900164fed
commitment to the growing War in Vietnam
26
False
Which Referendum allowed Indigenous Australians to be counted in the Census?
5728dfb24b864d1900164fee
1967 Referendum
605
False
What overhelming percent of Australians voted for the 1967 Referendum?
5728dfb24b864d1900164fef
90%
864
False
Holt
0
Government under whom experienced the conversion to the referendum?
5a6a623aa9e0c9001a4e9dca
True
commitment to the growing War in Vietnam
26
Which of Holt's stances received popular support?
5a6a623aa9e0c9001a4e9dcb
True
1967 Referendum
605
Which Referendum allowed Vietnam to be counted in the Census?
5a6a623aa9e0c9001a4e9dcc
True
90%
864
What overwhelming percent of Aboriginal Australians voted for the 1967 Referendum?
5a6a623aa9e0c9001a4e9dcd
True
the White Australia Policy
466
What did the the Migration Act 1966 expand?
5a6a623aa9e0c9001a4e9dce
True
Holt increased Australian commitment to the growing War in Vietnam, which met with some public opposition. His government oversaw conversion to decimal currency. Holt faced Britain's withdrawal from Asia by visiting and hosting many Asian leaders and by expanding ties to the United States, hosting the first visit to Australia by an American president, his friend Lyndon B. Johnson. Holt's government introduced the Migration Act 1966, which effectively dismantled the White Australia Policy and increased access to non-European migrants, including refugees fleeing the Vietnam War. Holt also called the 1967 Referendum which removed the discriminatory clause in the Australian Constitution which excluded Aboriginal Australians from being counted in the census – the referendum was one of the few to be overwhelmingly endorsed by the Australian electorate (over 90% voted 'yes'). By the end of 1967, the Liberals' initially popular support for the war in Vietnam was causing increasing public protest.
Which government put an emphasis in supporting the arts?
5728e029ff5b5019007da8aa
The Gorton Government
0
False
Which government established equal pay for men and women?
5728e029ff5b5019007da8ab
The Gorton Government
200
False
What year did the Gorton Government stop replacing troups in Vietnam?
5728e029ff5b5019007da8ac
end of 1970
538
False
The Gorton Government
0
Which government put an emphasis in supporting free film?
5a6a637fa9e0c9001a4e9dd4
True
The Gorton Government
0
Which government established equal school for men and women?
5a6a637fa9e0c9001a4e9dd5
True
end of 1970
538
What year did the Gorton Government stop replacing troops in Australia?
5a6a637fa9e0c9001a4e9dd6
True
The Gorton Government
0
Who increased funding for corporations?
5a6a637fa9e0c9001a4e9dd7
True
250,000
386
How many of the nations poor were provided education scholarships?
5a6a637fa9e0c9001a4e9dd8
True
The Gorton Government increased funding for the arts, setting up the Australian Council for the Arts, the Australian Film Development Corporation and the National Film and Television Training School. The Gorton Government passed legislation establishing equal pay for men and women and increased pensions, allowances and education scholarships, as well as providing free health care to 250,000 of the nation's poor (but not universal health care). Gorton's government kept Australia in the Vietnam War but stopped replacing troops at the end of 1970.
Which continent did Gorton wish to pursue closer ties with?
5728e0eb2ca10214002daa10
Asia
98
False
Who commented that Gorton was not fit to be Prime Minister?
5728e0eb2ca10214002daa11
Defence Minister Malcolm Fraser
311
False
Was Gorton impeached, voted out, or did he resign?
5728e0eb2ca10214002daa12
he resigned
613
False
Which countries did Gorton maintain close relationships with?
5728e0eb2ca10214002daa13
United States and Britain
42
False
Asia
98
Which continent did state Liberal leaders wish to pursue closer ties with?
5a6a65e3a9e0c9001a4e9dde
True
Defence Minister Malcolm Fraser
311
Who commented that Gorton was not fit to have voter support?
5a6a65e3a9e0c9001a4e9ddf
True
United States and Britain
42
Which countries did Fraser maintain close relationships with?
5a6a65e3a9e0c9001a4e9de0
True
1969
172
When did the Fraser government experience a decline in voter support?
5a6a65e3a9e0c9001a4e9de1
True
State Liberal leaders
187
Who saw Fraser's policies as too Centralist?
5a6a65e3a9e0c9001a4e9de2
True
Gorton maintained good relations with the United States and Britain, but pursued closer ties with Asia. The Gorton government experienced a decline in voter support at the 1969 election. State Liberal leaders saw his policies as too Centralist, while other Liberals didn't like his personal behaviour. In 1971, Defence Minister Malcolm Fraser, resigned and said Gorton was "not fit to hold the great office of Prime Minister". In a vote on the leadership the Liberal Party split 50/50, and although this was insufficient to remove him as the leader, Gorton decided this was also insufficient support for him, and he resigned.
Who became the first indigenous Austrailian in Parliament?
5728e1754b864d1900165000
Neville Bonner
35
False
How long did Bonner serve as a Liberal Senator?
5728e1754b864d1900165001
12 years
410
False
How was Bonner appointed his position?
5728e1754b864d1900165002
chosen by the Liberal Party to fill a Senate vacancy in 1971
152
False
Neville Bonner
35
Who became the first indigienous liberal in Parliament?
5a6a6750a9e0c9001a4e9de8
True
12 years
410
How long did Bonner serve as an independent?
5a6a6750a9e0c9001a4e9de9
True
chosen by the Liberal Party to fill a Senate vacancy in 1971
152
How was McMahon appointed his position?
5a6a6750a9e0c9001a4e9dea
True
1972
360
In what year did McMahon win an election?
5a6a6750a9e0c9001a4e9deb
True
the lawns of Parliament
297
Where did McMahon give a boomerang throwing display?
5a6a6750a9e0c9001a4e9dec
True
During McMahon's period in office, Neville Bonner joined the Senate and became the first Indigenous Australian in the Australian Parliament. Bonner was chosen by the Liberal Party to fill a Senate vacancy in 1971 and celebrated his maiden parliamentary speech with a boomerang throwing display on the lawns of Parliament. Bonner went on to win election at the 1972 election and served as a Liberal Senator for 12 years. He worked on Indigenous and social welfare issues and proved an independent minded Senator, often crossing the floor on Parliamentary votes.
On what day did the 1975 constitutional crisis deadlock end?
5728e2be4b864d1900165018
11 November 1975
468
False
How did the gridlock between Whitlam and Fraser end?
5728e2be4b864d1900165019
the Whitlam government was dismissed by the Governor-General, Sir John Kerr
389
False
Who won the 1975 election by large margin?
5728e2be4b864d190016501a
Fraser
489
False
the 1974–75 Loans Affair
10
After what did Kerr claim that Whitlam delayed passage of money bills?
5a6a69a5a9e0c9001a4e9df2
True
Fraser
560
Who won the 1974 election by large margin?
5a6a69a5a9e0c9001a4e9df3
True
that the Whitlam Government was incompetent
98
What did Kerr argue?
5a6a69a5a9e0c9001a4e9df4
True
11 November 1975
468
When was Kerr installed as caretaker Prime Minister?
5a6a69a5a9e0c9001a4e9df5
True
1975
603
When did Whitlam win the election?
5a6a69a5a9e0c9001a4e9df6
True
Following the 1974–75 Loans Affair, the Malcolm Fraser led Liberal-Country Party Coalition argued that the Whitlam Government was incompetent and delayed passage of the Government's money bills in the Senate, until the government would promise a new election. Whitlam refused, Fraser insisted leading to the divisive 1975 Australian constitutional crisis. The deadlock came to an end when the Whitlam government was dismissed by the Governor-General, Sir John Kerr on 11 November 1975 and Fraser was installed as caretaker Prime Minister, pending an election. Fraser won in a landslide at the resulting 1975 election.
Which document allowed Indigenous peoples the right to some traditional lands?
5728e4102ca10214002daa46
Aboriginal Land Rights Act 1976
228
False
What environmental consequence affected the Australian economy by 1983?
5728e4102ca10214002daa47
a severe drought
727
False
Which party did Don Chipp seperate to form in 1977?
5728e4102ca10214002daa48
Australian Democrats
995
False
Who did Frazer eventually lose to in 1983?
5728e4102ca10214002daa49
Bob Hawke
1120
False
Aboriginal Land Rights Act 1976
228
Which document allowed for Indigenous peoples the right to Tasmania?
5a6a6adea9e0c9001a4e9dfc
True
a severe drought
727
What environmental consequence affected the Australian economy by 1976?
5a6a6adea9e0c9001a4e9dfd
True
Australian Democrats
995
Which party did Neville Bonner separate to form in 1977?
5a6a6adea9e0c9001a4e9dfe
True
Bob Hawke
1120
Who did Frazer eventually lose to in 1976?
5a6a6adea9e0c9001a4e9dff
True
Fraser
374
Who opposed Aboriginal rule in Apartheid South Africa and Rhodesia?
5a6a6adea9e0c9001a4e9e00
True
Fraser maintained some of the social reforms of the Whitlam era, while seeking increased fiscal restraint. His government included the first Aboriginal federal parliamentarian, Neville Bonner, and in 1976, Parliament passed the Aboriginal Land Rights Act 1976, which, while limited to the Northern Territory, affirmed "inalienable" freehold title to some traditional lands. Fraser established the multicultural broadcaster SBS, accepted Vietnamese refugees, opposed minority white rule in Apartheid South Africa and Rhodesia and opposed Soviet expansionism. A significant program of economic reform however was not pursued. By 1983, the Australian economy was suffering with the early 1980s recession and amidst the effects of a severe drought. Fraser had promoted "states' rights" and his government refused to use Commonwealth powers to stop the construction of the Franklin Dam in Tasmania in 1982. Liberal minister, Don Chipp split off from the party to form a new social liberal party, the Australian Democrats in 1977. Fraser won further substantial majorities at the 1977 and 1980 elections, before losing to the Bob Hawke led Australian Labor Party in the 1983 election.
How was Howard different from Paul Keating?
5728e6bc3acd2414000e0183
he supported traditional Australian institutions like the Monarchy in Australia, the commemoration of ANZAC Day and the design of the Australian flag
64
False
In what ways was Howard similar to Paul Keating?
5728e6bc3acd2414000e0184
pursued privatisation of public utilities and the introduction of a broad based consumption tax
235
False
Which government supported the US's war Afghanistan and Iraq?
5728e6bc3acd2414000e0185
The Howard Government
512
False
Under what agreement did the Australian government support the US?
5728e6bc3acd2414000e0186
the ANZUS treaty
542
False
he supported traditional Australian institutions like the Monarchy in Australia, the commemoration of ANZAC Day and the design of the Australian flag
64
How was Howard different from ANZUS?
5a6a6f3fa9e0c9001a4e9e1a
True
pursued privatisation of public utilities and the introduction of a broad based consumption tax
235
In what ways was Howard similar to ANZUS?
5a6a6f3fa9e0c9001a4e9e1b
True
The Howard Government
512
Which government supported the Australia's war with Afghanistan and Iraq?
5a6a6f3fa9e0c9001a4e9e1c
True
the ANZUS treaty
542
Under what agreement did ANZAC support the US?
5a6a6f3fa9e0c9001a4e9e1d
True
Al Qaeda's 11 September attacks on the United States
458
What did Keating's premiership coincide with?
5a6a6f3fa9e0c9001a4e9e1e
True
Howard differed from his Labor predecessor Paul Keating in that he supported traditional Australian institutions like the Monarchy in Australia, the commemoration of ANZAC Day and the design of the Australian flag, but like Keating he pursued privatisation of public utilities and the introduction of a broad based consumption tax (although Keating had dropped support for a GST by the time of his 1993 election victory). Howard's premiership coincided with Al Qaeda's 11 September attacks on the United States. The Howard Government invoked the ANZUS treaty in response to the attacks and supported America's campaigns in Afghanistan and Iraq.
Which parties merged in Queensland in 2008 to form the new Liberal National Party of Queensland?
5728e78b4b864d1900165068
the Liberal and National parties
342
False
In March 2012, which party won by an historic landslide?
5728e78b4b864d1900165069
the new Liberal National Party of Queensland
398
False
Who led the new Liberal National Party of Queensland through the election in March 2012?
5728e78b4b864d190016506a
former Brisbane Lord Mayor, Campbell Newman
600
False
the Liberal and National parties
342
Which parties merged in Queensland in 2008 to form the New South Wales Liberal-National Coalition?
5a6a7262a9e0c9001a4e9e2e
True
new Liberal National Party of Queensland
402
In March 2011, which party won by an historic landslide?
5a6a7262a9e0c9001a4e9e2f
True
former Brisbane Lord Mayor, Campbell Newman
600
Who led the new Liberal National Party of Queensland through the election in March 2010?
5a6a7262a9e0c9001a4e9e30
True
the Liberal and National parties
342
What parties merged in 2011?
5a6a7262a9e0c9001a4e9e31
True
Campbell Newman
628
Who led the New South Wales Liberal-National Coalition?
5a6a7262a9e0c9001a4e9e32
True
Through 2010, the party improved its vote in the Tasmanian and South Australian state elections and achieved state government in Victoria. In March 2011, the New South Wales Liberal-National Coalition led by Barry O'Farrell won government with the largest election victory in post-war Australian history at the State Election. In Queensland, the Liberal and National parties merged in 2008 to form the new Liberal National Party of Queensland (registered as the Queensland Division of the Liberal Party of Australia). In March 2012, the new party achieved Government in an historic landslide, led by former Brisbane Lord Mayor, Campbell Newman.
How close was the race betwen Turnbull and Abbott in 2009?
5728e8124b864d190016506e
42 votes to 41
330
False
Who was elected to the Parliamentary Liberal Party after the 2007 Federal Election?
5728e8124b864d190016506f
Dr Brendan Nelson
37
False
To whom did Nelson lose the party to in 2008?
5728e8124b864d1900165070
Malcolm Turnbull
208
False
42 votes to 41
330
How close was the race between Turnbull and Abbott in 2008?
5a6a7087a9e0c9001a4e9e24
True
Dr Brendan Nelson
37
Who was elected to the Parliamentary Liberal Party after the 1940 Federal Election?
5a6a7087a9e0c9001a4e9e25
True
Malcolm Turnbull
208
To whom did Abbott lose the party to in 2008?
5a6a7087a9e0c9001a4e9e26
True
2010 federal election
395
Which election saw an increase in Parliamentary vote?
5a6a7087a9e0c9001a4e9e27
True
December 2009
231
When did Nelson lose the leadership to Tony Abbott?
5a6a7087a9e0c9001a4e9e28
True
Following the 2007 Federal Election, Dr Brendan Nelson was elected leader by the Parliamentary Liberal Party. On 16 September 2008, in a second contest following a spill motion, Nelson lost the leadership to Malcolm Turnbull. On 1 December 2009, a subsequent leadership election saw Turnbull lose the leadership to Tony Abbott by 42 votes to 41 on the second ballot. Abbott led the party to the 2010 federal election, which saw an increase in the Liberal Party vote and resulted in the first hung parliament since the 1940 election.
Who is the Australian Liberal Party's leader?
5728e8b43acd2414000e01ab
Malcolm Turnbull
22
False
Who is the Australian Party's deputy leader?
5728e8b43acd2414000e01ac
Julie Bishop
64
False
Who was Turnbull elected to replace?
5728e8b43acd2414000e01ad
Tony Abbott
240
False
What was the former name of the Turnbull Government?
5728e8b43acd2414000e01ae
the Abbott Government
404
False
Malcolm Turnbull
22
Who is the Abbott Party's leader?
5a6a14595ce1a5001a9696da
True
Julie Bishop
64
Who is the Abbot Party's deputy leader?
5a6a14595ce1a5001a9696db
True
Tony Abbott
240
Who was Giles elected to replace?
5a6a14595ce1a5001a9696dc
True
the Abbott Government
404
What was the former name of Western Australia?
5a6a14595ce1a5001a9696dd
True
Adam Giles
706
Who is Chief Minister of the Liberal Party?
5a6a14595ce1a5001a9696de
True
The party's leader is Malcolm Turnbull and its deputy leader is Julie Bishop. The pair were elected to their positions at the September 2015 Liberal leadership ballot, Bishop as the incumbent deputy leader and Turnbull as a replacement for Tony Abbott, whom he consequently succeeded as Prime Minister of Australia. Now the Turnbull Government, the party had been elected at the 2013 federal election as the Abbott Government which took office on 18 September 2013. At state and territory level, the Liberal Party is in office in three states: Colin Barnett has been Premier of Western Australia since 2008, Will Hodgman Premier of Tasmania since 2014 and Mike Baird Premier of New South Wales since 2014. Adam Giles is also the Chief Minister of the Northern Territory, having led a Country Liberal minority government since 2015. The party is in opposition in Victoria, Queensland, South Australia and the Australian Capital Territory.
Who was the first indigenous Australian elected to the House?
5728e95fff5b5019007da92e
Ken Wyatt
647
False
In what year was the first indigenous Australian elected to the House of Representatives?
5728e95fff5b5019007da92f
2010
740
False
In what year was the first Aboriginal Senator elected?
5728e95fff5b5019007da930
1971
560
False
Ken Wyatt
647
Who was the first indigenous liberal elected to the House?
5a6a42635ce1a5001a96977a
True
2010
740
In what year was the first indigenous liberal elected to the House of Representatives?
5a6a42635ce1a5001a96977b
True
1971
560
In what year was the first liberal senator elected?
5a6a42635ce1a5001a96977c
True
Sir John Gorton
447
Who supported Neville Bonner and the arts?
5a6a42635ce1a5001a96977d
True
Ken Wyatt
647
Who was a West Australian artist?
5a6a42635ce1a5001a96977e
True
Socially, while liberty and freedom of enterprise form the basis of its beliefs, elements of the party have wavered between what is termed "small-l liberalism" and social conservatism. Historically, Liberal Governments have been responsible for the carriage of a number of notable "socially liberal" reforms, including the opening of Australia to multiethnic immigration under Menzies and Harold Holt; Holt's 1967 Referendum on Aboriginal Rights; Sir John Gorton's support for cinema and the arts; selection of the first Aboriginal Senator, Neville Bonner, in 1971; and Malcolm Fraser's Aboriginal Land Rights Act 1976. A West Australian Liberal, Ken Wyatt, became the first Indigenous Australian elected to the House of Representatives in 2010.
How many state divisions exist in the Liberal Party's organisation?
5728ea302ca10214002daa88
six
53
False
Which politician purposely created strong state divisions to a weaker national party?
5728ea302ca10214002daa89
Menzies
346
False
Who makes party policy?
5728ea302ca10214002daa8a
almost entirely by the parliamentary parties, not by the party's rank-and-file members
454
False
six
53
How many state divisions exist in the Howard Governments organization?
5a6a56c4a9e0c9001a4e9d52
True
Menzies
346
Which politician purposely created strong state divisions and a stronger national party?
5a6a56c4a9e0c9001a4e9d53
True
parliamentary parties
477
Who makes party divisions?
5a6a56c4a9e0c9001a4e9d54
True
1983
232
When was a parliamentary government maintained by all Liberal governments until?
5a6a56c4a9e0c9001a4e9d55
True
Liberal Party
4
What is dominated by party policy divisions?
5a6a56c4a9e0c9001a4e9d56
True
The Liberal Party's organisation is dominated by the six state divisions, reflecting the party's original commitment to a federalised system of government (a commitment which was strongly maintained by all Liberal governments until 1983, but was to a large extent abandoned by the Howard Government, which showed strong centralising tendencies). Menzies deliberately created a weak national party machine and strong state divisions. Party policy is made almost entirely by the parliamentary parties, not by the party's rank-and-file members, although Liberal party members do have a degree of influence over party policy.
Was Menzies for or against nationalizing the banking system in Australia?
5728eabeff5b5019007da93e
strongly against
12
False
What helped the Liberals to victory in December 1955?
5728eabeff5b5019007da93f
the formation of the anti-Communist Democratic Labor Party (DLP) and the consequent split in the Australian Labor Party early in 1955
389
False
When did Menzies resign from Parliament?
5728eabeff5b5019007da940
26 January 1966
1145
False
strongly against
12
Was Evatt for or against nationalizing the banking system in Australia?
5a6a5dd1a9e0c9001a4e9dac
True
the formation of the anti-Communist Democratic Labor Party (DLP) and the consequent split in the Australian Labor Party early in 1955
389
What helped the Liberals to victory in December 1958?
5a6a5dd1a9e0c9001a4e9dad
True
26 January 1966
1145
When did Evatt resign from Parliament?
5a6a5dd1a9e0c9001a4e9dae
True
John McEwen
580
Who replaced Arthur Fadden as leader of the Senate?
5a6a5dd1a9e0c9001a4e9daf
True
Senate
214
Who refused to pass labor legislation?
5a6a5dd1a9e0c9001a4e9db0
True
Menzies ran strongly against Labor's plans to nationalise the Australian banking system and, following victory in the 1949 election, secured a double dissolution election for April 1951, after the Labor-controlled Senate refused to pass his banking legislation. The Liberal-Country Coalition was returned with control of the Senate. The Government was returned again in the 1954 election; the formation of the anti-Communist Democratic Labor Party (DLP) and the consequent split in the Australian Labor Party early in 1955 helped the Liberals to another victory in December 1955. John McEwen replaced Arthur Fadden as leader of the Country Party in March 1958 and the Menzies-McEwen Coalition was returned again at elections in November 1958 – their third victory against Labor's H. V. Evatt. The Coalition was narrowly returned against Labor's Arthur Calwell in the December 1961 election, in the midst of a credit squeeze. Menzies stood for office for the last time in the November 1963 election, again defeating Calwell, with the Coalition winning back its losses in the House of Representatives. Menzies went on to resign from parliament on 26 January 1966.
Which two title holders fought for political power in the early 1990s?
5728eb37ff5b5019007da944
former Treasurer John Howard competing with former Foreign Minister Andrew Peacock
53
False
What was the Australian unemployment rate in 1992?
5728eb37ff5b5019007da945
11.4%
233
False
What discussion proved an example of the difficulty of explaining what foods were and were not included in the Goods and Services Tax?
5728eb37ff5b5019007da946
the infamous birthday cake interview
1772
False
former Treasurer John Howard competing with former Foreign Minister Andrew Peacock
53
Which two title holders fought for political power in the GST?
5a6a6c58a9e0c9001a4e9e06
True
11.4%
233
What was the Australian unemployment rate in 1993?
5a6a6c58a9e0c9001a4e9e07
True
the infamous birthday cake interview
1772
What discussion proved an example of the difficulty of explaining what governments were and were not included in the Goods and Services Tax
5a6a6c58a9e0c9001a4e9e08
True
Through 1992
1168
When did John Hewson mount a campaign against the Fightback package?
5a6a6c58a9e0c9001a4e9e09
True
November 1991
273
When did Paul Keating launch the Fightback! policy document?
5a6a6c58a9e0c9001a4e9e0a
True
A period of division for the Liberals followed, with former Treasurer John Howard competing with former Foreign Minister Andrew Peacock for supremacy. The Australian economy was facing the early 1990s recession. Unemployment reached 11.4% in 1992. Under Dr John Hewson, in November 1991, the opposition launched the 650-page Fightback! policy document − a radical collection of "dry", economic liberal measures including the introduction of a Goods and Services Tax (GST), various changes to Medicare including the abolition of bulk billing for non-concession holders, the introduction of a nine-month limit on unemployment benefits, various changes to industrial relations including the abolition of awards, a $13 billion personal income tax cut directed at middle and upper income earners, $10 billion in government spending cuts, the abolition of state payroll taxes and the privatisation of a large number of government owned enterprises − representing the start of a very different future direction to the keynesian economic conservatism practiced by previous Liberal/National Coalition governments. The 15 percent GST was the centerpiece of the policy document. Through 1992, Labor Prime Minister Paul Keating mounted a campaign against the Fightback package, and particularly against the GST, which he described as an attack on the working class in that it shifted the tax burden from direct taxation of the wealthy to indirect taxation as a broad-based consumption tax. Pressure group activity and public opinion was relentless, which led Hewson to exempt food from the proposed GST − leading to questions surrounding the complexity of what food was and wasn't to be exempt from the GST. Hewson's difficulty in explaining this to the electorate was exemplified in the infamous birthday cake interview, considered by some as a turning point in the election campaign. Keating won a record fifth consecutive Labor term at the 1993 election. A number of the proposals were later adopted in to law in some form, to a small extent during the Keating Labor government, and to a larger extent during the Howard Liberal government (most famously the GST), while unemployment benefits and bulk billing were re-targeted for a time by the Abbott Liberal government.
How long was Tom Playford in political power?
5728eb88ff5b5019007da94a
from the 1933 election to the 1965 election
182
False
How many consecutive losses has the Liberal party faced since the 2002 election?
5728eb88ff5b5019007da94b
a record five
874
False
During what years did the dismantling of the Playmander begin?
5728eb88ff5b5019007da94c
1968 election to the 1970 election
380
False
from the 1933 election to the 1965 election
182
How long was Dean Brown in power?
5a6a6e29a9e0c9001a4e9e10
True
a record five
874
How many consecutive losses has David Tonkin faced since the 2002 election?
5a6a6e29a9e0c9001a4e9e11
True
1968 election to the 1970 election
380
During what years did the dismantling of the LCL begin?
5a6a6e29a9e0c9001a4e9e12
True
Dean Brown, John Olsen and Rob Kerin
732
What Premiers led The Liberals after the 1970 election?
5a6a6e29a9e0c9001a4e9e13
True
South Australia
3
Who was led by Opposition Leaders?
5a6a6e29a9e0c9001a4e9e14
True
In South Australia, initially a Liberal and Country Party affiliated party, the Liberal and Country League (LCL), mostly led by Premier of South Australia Tom Playford, was in power from the 1933 election to the 1965 election, though with assistance from an electoral malapportionment, or gerrymander, known as the Playmander. The LCL's Steele Hall governed for one term from the 1968 election to the 1970 election and during this time began the process of dismantling the Playmander. David Tonkin, as leader of the South Australian Division of the Liberal Party of Australia, became Premier at the 1979 election for one term, losing office at the 1982 election. The Liberals returned to power at the 1993 election, led by Premiers Dean Brown, John Olsen and Rob Kerin through two terms, until their defeat at the 2002 election. They have since remained in opposition under a record five Opposition Leaders.
Samurai
What was William Scott Wilson's occupation?
5728ea364b864d1900165084
translator
94
False
What are samurai usually called in Japanse?
5728ea364b864d1900165085
bushi (武士?, [bu.ɕi]) or buke (武家?)
45
False
Where is the first known use of 'samurai'?
5728ea364b864d1900165086
Kokin Wakashū
556
False
When is the first known use of 'samurai'?
5728ea364b864d1900165087
905–914
571
False
In Japanese, they are usually referred to as bushi (武士?, [bu.ɕi]) or buke (武家?). According to translator William Scott Wilson: "In Chinese, the character 侍 was originally a verb meaning "to wait upon" or "accompany persons" in the upper ranks of society, and this is also true of the original term in Japanese, saburau. In both countries the terms were nominalized to mean "those who serve in close attendance to the nobility", the pronunciation in Japanese changing to saburai. According to Wilson, an early reference to the word "samurai" appears in the Kokin Wakashū (905–914), the first imperial anthology of poems, completed in the first part of the 10th century.
What did samurai mean nearly the same thing as?
5728eae64b864d190016508c
bushi
79
False
What were samurai affiliated with?
5728eae64b864d190016508d
a clan
220
False
How much of Japan were samurais?
5728eae64b864d190016508e
less than 10%
412
False
Where do samurais' teachings live on?
5728eae64b864d190016508f
everyday life and in modern Japanese martial arts
503
False
What class were samurais?
5728eae64b864d1900165090
middle and upper echelons of the warrior class
131
False
By the end of the 12th century, samurai became almost entirely synonymous with bushi, and the word was closely associated with the middle and upper echelons of the warrior class. The samurai were usually associated with a clan and their lord, were trained as officers in military tactics and grand strategy, and they followed a set of rules that later came to be known as the bushidō. While the samurai numbered less than 10% of then Japan's population, their teachings can still be found today in both everyday life and in modern Japanese martial arts.
When was the Battle of Hakusukinoe?
5728eb743acd2414000e01cf
663 AD
68
False
Who was the Battle of Hakusukinoe against?
5728eb743acd2414000e01d0
Tang China and Silla
44
False
What was the effect of the Battle of Hakusukinoe?
5728eb743acd2414000e01d1
a Japanese retreat from Korean affairs
87
False
Who led the Taika Reform?
5728eb743acd2414000e01d2
Prince Naka no Ōe (Emperor Tenji)
228
False
When was the Taika Reform?
5728eb743acd2414000e01d3
646 AD
265
False
Following the Battle of Hakusukinoe against Tang China and Silla in 663 AD that led to a Japanese retreat from Korean affairs, Japan underwent widespread reform. One of the most important was that of the Taika Reform, issued by Prince Naka no Ōe (Emperor Tenji) in 646 AD. This edict allowed the Japanese aristocracy to adopt the Tang dynasty political structure, bureaucracy, culture, religion, and philosophy. As part of the Taihō Code, of 702 AD, and the later Yōrō Code, the population was required to report regularly for census, a precursor for national conscription. With an understanding of how the population was distributed, Emperor Mommu introduced a law whereby 1 in 3–4 adult males was drafted into the national military. These soldiers were required to supply their own weapons, and in return were exempted from duties and taxes. This was one of the first attempts by the Imperial government to form an organized army modeled after the Chinese system. It was called "Gundan-Sei" (軍団制) by later historians and is believed to have been short-lived.[citation needed]
In what period did Emperor Kammu rule?
5728ec04ff5b5019007da956
early Heian period
7
False
When was the early Heian?
5728ec04ff5b5019007da957
the late 8th and early 9th centuries
27
False
Who did Kammu fail to conquer?
5728ec04ff5b5019007da958
Emishi
190
False
What was the full title for Shogun?
5728ec04ff5b5019007da959
sei'i-taishōgun
319
False
Who introduced the Shogun concept?
5728ec04ff5b5019007da95a
Emperor Kammu
281
False
In the early Heian period, the late 8th and early 9th centuries, Emperor Kammu sought to consolidate and expand his rule in northern Honshū, but the armies he sent to conquer the rebellious Emishi people lacked motivation and discipline, and failed in their task.[citation needed] Emperor Kammu introduced the title of sei'i-taishōgun (征夷大将軍) or Shogun, and began to rely on the powerful regional clans to conquer the Emishi. Skilled in mounted combat and archery (kyūdō), these clan warriors became the Emperor's preferred tool for putting down rebellions.[citation needed] Though this is the first known use of the "Shogun" title, it was a temporary title, and was not imbued with political power until the 13th century. At this time (the 7th to 9th century) the Imperial Court officials considered them merely a military section under the control of the Imperial Court.
When was the Genpei war?
5728ec9d2ca10214002daaa0
late 12th century
28
False
Who was given the right to appoint shugo?
5728ec9d2ca10214002daaa1
Minamoto no Yoritomo
61
False
What was Minamoto's position?
5728ec9d2ca10214002daaa2
clan leader
49
False
Who opened the Kamakura Bakufu Shogunate?
5728ec9d2ca10214002daaa3
Minamoto no Yoritomo
508
False
When did the Kamakura Bakufu Shogunate open?
5728ec9d2ca10214002daaa4
1192
569
False
After the Genpei war of the late 12th century, a clan leader Minamoto no Yoritomo obtained the right to appoint shugo and jito, and was allowed to organize soldiers and police, and to collect a certain amount of tax. Initially, their responsibility was restricted to arresting rebels and collecting needed army provisions, and they were forbidden from interfering with Kokushi Governors, but their responsibility gradually expanded and thus the samurai-class appeared as the political ruling power in Japan. Minamoto no Yoritomo opened the Kamakura Bakufu Shogunate in 1192.
What rebellion happened in 1160?
5728ed49ff5b5019007da974
Heiji Rebellion
1022
False
Who fought in the Heiji Rebellion?
5728ed49ff5b5019007da975
the rival Minamoto and Taira clans
961
False
How long were the toryos' terms supposed to be?
5728ed49ff5b5019007da976
four-year
474
False
What clans were most regional clans' chiefs also a member of?
5728ed49ff5b5019007da977
Fujiwara, Minamoto, or Taira clans
383
False
Originally the Emperor and non-warrior nobility employed these warrior nobles. In time, they amassed enough manpower, resources and political backing in the form of alliances with one another, to establish the first samurai-dominated government. As the power of these regional clans grew, their chief was typically a distant relative of the Emperor and a lesser member of either the Fujiwara, Minamoto, or Taira clans. Though originally sent to provincial areas for a fixed four-year term as a magistrate, the toryo declined to return to the capital when their terms ended, and their sons inherited their positions and continued to lead the clans in putting down rebellions throughout Japan during the middle- and later-Heian period. Because of their rising military and economic power, the warriors ultimately became a new force in the politics of the court. Their involvement in the Hōgen in the late Heian period consolidated their power, and finally pitted the rival Minamoto and Taira clans against each other in the Heiji Rebellion of 1160.
Who was the first warrior to become imperial advisor?
5728edc03acd2414000e01eb
Taira no Kiyomori
12
False
Who established the first samurai-led administration?
5728edc03acd2414000e01ec
Taira no Kiyomori
12
False
What role did the Emperor have in the samurai-controlled government?
5728edc03acd2414000e01ed
figurehead
250
False
Who succeeded the Taira clan?
5728edc03acd2414000e01ee
the Minamoto
362
False
How did the Taira clan expand power?
5728edc03acd2414000e01ef
had its women marry Emperors
447
False
The winner, Taira no Kiyomori, became an imperial advisor, and was the first warrior to attain such a position. He eventually seized control of the central government, establishing the first samurai-dominated government and relegating the Emperor to figurehead status. However, the Taira clan was still very conservative when compared to its eventual successor, the Minamoto, and instead of expanding or strengthening its military might, the clan had its women marry Emperors and exercise control through the Emperor.
When did the Gempei War begin?
5728ee173acd2414000e01fb
1180
44
False
When did the Gempei War end?
5728ee173acd2414000e01fc
1185
91
False
Which clans fought in the Gempei War?
5728ee173acd2414000e01fd
The Taira and the Minamoto
0
False
What does the Shimonoseki Strait divide?
5728ee173acd2414000e01fe
Honshu and Kyushu
189
False
When was the Kamakura Shogunate established?
5728ee173acd2414000e01ff
1192
349
False
The Taira and the Minamoto clashed again in 1180, beginning the Gempei War, which ended in 1185. Samurai fought at the naval battle of Dan-no-ura, at the Shimonoseki Strait which separates Honshu and Kyushu in 1185. The victorious Minamoto no Yoritomo established the superiority of the samurai over the aristocracy. In 1190 he visited Kyoto and in 1192 became Sei'i-taishōgun, establishing the Kamakura Shogunate, or Kamakura Bakufu. Instead of ruling from Kyoto, he set up the Shogunate in Kamakura, near his base of power. "Bakufu" means "tent government", taken from the encampments the soldiers would live in, in accordance with the Bakufu's status as a military government.
Which Chinese dynasty was founded by Mongols?
5728ee664b864d19001650b4
Yuan
28
False
How many troops did the Yuan send to invade Japan?
5728ee664b864d19001650b5
40,000
71
False
How many ships did the Yuan send to invade Japan?
5728ee664b864d19001650b6
900
86
False
Where did the Yuan invade Japan?
5728ee664b864d19001650b7
northern Kyūshū
115
False
How many samurai did Japan defeat the Yuan invasion with?
5728ee664b864d19001650b8
10,000
154
False
In 1274, the Mongol-founded Yuan dynasty in China sent a force of some 40,000 men and 900 ships to invade Japan in northern Kyūshū. Japan mustered a mere 10,000 samurai to meet this threat. The invading army was harassed by major thunderstorms throughout the invasion, which aided the defenders by inflicting heavy casualties. The Yuan army was eventually recalled and the invasion was called off. The Mongol invaders used small bombs, which was likely the first appearance of bombs and gunpowder in Japan.
What was built around Hakata Bay?
5728eeca4b864d19001650be
a great stone barrier
99
False
When did Japan begin building the Hakata Bay barrier?
5728eeca4b864d19001650bf
1276
142
False
When did Japan finish building the Hakata Bay barrier?
5728eeca4b864d19001650c0
1277
161
False
How long was the Hakata Bay barrier?
5728eeca4b864d19001650c1
20 kilometers
191
False
What happened to diplomatic envoys the Mongols sent to Japan?
5728eeca4b864d19001650c2
executed
420
False
The Japanese defenders recognized the possibility of a renewed invasion, and began construction of a great stone barrier around Hakata Bay in 1276. Completed in 1277, this wall stretched for 20 kilometers around the border of the bay. This would later serve as a strong defensive point against the Mongols. The Mongols attempted to settle matters in a diplomatic way from 1275 to 1279, but every envoy sent to Japan was executed. This set the stage for one of the most famous engagements in Japanese history.
When did Toyotomi Hideyoshi first send an army to Korea?
5728ef234b864d19001650c8
1592
3
False
When did Toyotomi Hideyoshi send an army to Korea a second time?
5728ef234b864d19001650c9
1597
22
False
How many troops did Toyotomi Hideyoshi send to Korea?
5728ef234b864d19001650ca
160,000
113
False
When was the Battle of Sacheon?
5728ef234b864d19001650cb
1598
937
False
When did Toyotomi Hideyoshi die?
5728ef234b864d19001650cc
1598
2215
False
In 1592, and again in 1597, Toyotomi Hideyoshi, aiming to invade China (唐入り) through Korea, mobilized an army of 160,000 peasants and samurai and deployed them to Korea. (See Hideyoshi's invasions of Korea, Chōsen-seibatsu (朝鮮征伐?). Taking advantage of arquebus mastery and extensive wartime experience from the Sengoku period, Japanese samurai armies made major gains in most of Korea. Kato Kiyomasa advanced to Orangkai territory (present-day Manchuria) bordering Korea to the northeast and crossed the border into Manchuria, but withdrew after retaliatory attacks from the Jurchens there, as it was clear he had outpaced the rest of the Japanese invasion force. A few of the more famous samurai generals of this war were Katō Kiyomasa, Konishi Yukinaga, and Shimazu Yoshihiro. Shimazu Yoshihiro led some 7,000 samurai and, despite being heavily outnumbered, defeated a host of allied Ming and Korean forces at the Battle of Sacheon in 1598, near the conclusion of the campaigns. Yoshihiro was feared as Oni-Shimazu ("Shimazu ogre") and his nickname spread across not only Korea but to Ming Dynasty China. In spite of the superiority of Japanese land forces, ultimately the two expeditions failed (though they did devastate the Korean landmass) from factors such as Korean naval superiority (which, led by Admiral Yi Sun-shin, harassed Japanese supply lines continuously throughout the wars, resulting in supply shortages on land), the commitment of sizeable Ming forces to Korea, Korean guerrilla actions, the underestimation of resistance by Japanese commanders (in the first campaign of 1592, Korean defenses on land were caught unprepared, under-trained, and under-armed; they were rapidly overrun, with only a limited number of successfully resistant engagements against the more-experienced and battle-hardened Japanese forces - in the second campaign of 1597, Korean and Ming forces proved to be a far more difficult challenge and, with the support of continued Korean naval superiority, limited Japanese gains to parts southeastern Korea), and wavering Japanese commitment to the campaigns as the wars dragged on. The final death blow to the Japanese campaigns in Korea came with Hideyoshi's death in late 1598 and the recall of all Japanese forces in Korea by the Council of Five Elders (established by Hideyoshi to oversee the transition from his regency to that of his son Hideyori).
Which military leader avoided sending his soldiers to Korea?
5728efe24b864d19001650d2
Tokugawa Ieyasu
141
False
What force were most commanders opposed to the Korea invasion part of?
5728efe24b864d19001650d3
Eastern Army
497
False
Which commander loyal to Hideyoshi was in the Eastern Army?
5728efe24b864d19001650d4
Katō Kiyomasa
598
False
Where did the Eastern and Western armies battle?
5728efe24b864d19001650d5
Battle of Sekigahara
859
False
Which army won the Battle of Sekigahara?
5728efe24b864d19001650d6
Eastern Forces
922
False
It should be noted that many samurai forces that were active throughout this period were not deployed to Korea; most importantly, the daimyo Tokugawa Ieyasu carefully kept forces under his command out of the Korean campaigns, and other samurai commanders who were opposed to Hideyoshi's domination of Japan either mulled Hideyoshi's call to invade Korea or contributed a small token force. Most commanders who did opposed or otherwise resisted/resented Hideyoshi ended up as part of the so-called Eastern Army, while commanders loyal to Hideyoshi and his son (a notable exception to this trend was Katō Kiyomasa, who deployed with Tokugawa and the Eastern Army) were largely committed to the Western Army; the two opposing sides (so named for the relative geographical locations of their respective commanders' domains) would later clash, most notably at the Battle of Sekigahara, which was won by Tokugawa Ieyasu and the Eastern Forces, paving the way for the establishment of the Tokugawa Shogunate.
Who used arquebuses a lot?
5728f03bff5b5019007da99e
Oda Nobunaga
0
False
What did Oda Nobunaga value?
5728f03bff5b5019007da99f
innovation
148
False
Who disarmed Japan's Buddhist monks?
5728f03bff5b5019007da9a0
Oda Nobunaga
0
False
When did Oda Nobunaga die?
5728f03bff5b5019007da9a1
1582
544
False
Who caused Oda Nobunaga's death?
5728f03bff5b5019007da9a2
Akechi Mitsuhide
575
False
Oda Nobunaga made innovations in the fields of organization and war tactics, heavily used arquebuses, developed commerce and industry and treasured innovation. Consecutive victories enabled him to realize the termination of the Ashikaga Bakufu and the disarmament of the military powers of the Buddhist monks, which had inflamed futile struggles among the populace for centuries. Attacking from the "sanctuary" of Buddhist temples, they were constant headaches to any warlord and even the Emperor who tried to control their actions. He died in 1582 when one of his generals, Akechi Mitsuhide, turned upon him with his army.
When were samurai becoming less warrior-like?
5728f0992ca10214002daae4
During the Tokugawa shogunate
0
False
When had samurai last been used in battle?
5728f0992ca10214002daae5
the early 17th century
146
False
What was another name for the Tokugawa era?
5728f0992ca10214002daae6
the Edo period
254
False
What was the samurai's long sword called?
5728f0992ca10214002daae7
katana
429
False
What was the samurai's short sword called?
5728f0992ca10214002daae8
wakizashi
440
False
During the Tokugawa shogunate, samurai increasingly became courtiers, bureaucrats, and administrators rather than warriors. With no warfare since the early 17th century, samurai gradually lost their military function during the Tokugawa era (also called the Edo period). By the end of the Tokugawa era, samurai were aristocratic bureaucrats for the daimyo, with their daisho, the paired long and short swords of the samurai (cf. katana and wakizashi) becoming more of a symbolic emblem of power rather than a weapon used in daily life. They still had the legal right to cut down any commoner who did not show proper respect kiri-sute gomen (斬り捨て御免?), but to what extent this right was used is unknown. When the central government forced daimyos to cut the size of their armies, unemployed rōnin became a social problem.
Who were most samurais' lords?
5728f0f74b864d19001650e6
daimyo
66
False
Whose teachings did all samurai read?
5728f0f74b864d19001650e7
Confucius and Mencius
170
False
What did Bushido transcend?
5728f0f74b864d19001650e8
social class, time and geographic location
486
False
When was Bushido formalized?
5728f0f74b864d19001650e9
before the Edo Period
332
False
Who formalized Bushido?
5728f0f74b864d19001650ea
several influential leaders and families
291
False
Theoretical obligations between a samurai and his lord (usually a daimyo) increased from the Genpei era to the Edo era. They were strongly emphasized by the teachings of Confucius and Mencius (ca 550 BC), which were required reading for the educated samurai class. Bushido was formalized by several influential leaders and families before the Edo Period. Bushido was an ideal, and it remained fairly uniform from the 13th century to the 19th century — the ideals of Bushido transcended social class, time and geographic location of the warrior class.
Which force invaded Japan in 1853?
5728f14c2ca10214002daaf8
U.S. Navy
107
False
Who lead the US Navy's invasion of Japan?
5728f14c2ca10214002daaf9
Commodore Matthew Perry
73
False
What was Perry's goal in Japan?
5728f14c2ca10214002daafa
force Japan to open its borders to trade
174
False
What technology helped the downfall of samurai?
5728f14c2ca10214002daafb
arquebus
485
False
The relative peace of the Tokugawa era was shattered with the arrival of Commodore Matthew Perry's massive U.S. Navy steamships in 1853. Perry used his superior firepower to force Japan to open its borders to trade. Prior to that only a few harbor towns, under strict control from the Shogunate, were allowed to participate in Western trade, and even then, it was based largely on the idea of playing the Franciscans and Dominicans off against one another (in exchange for the crucial arquebus technology, which in turn was a major contributor to the downfall of the classical samurai).
When was the samurai military modernized?
5728f1a1af94a219006a9e1d
1854
5
False
Where did Japan open a military school in 1855?
5728f1a1af94a219006a9e1e
Nagasaki
101
False
What kind of military school did Japan open in 1855?
5728f1a1af94a219006a9e1f
Naval
60
False
What nationality of engineers did Japan hire to build naval arsenals?
5728f1a1af94a219006a9e20
tradition
208
False
How many steam warships did Japan have in 1867?
5728f1a1af94a219006a9e21
eight
465
False
From 1854, the samurai army and the navy were modernized. A Naval training school was established in Nagasaki in 1855. Naval students were sent to study in Western naval schools for several years, starting a tradition of foreign-educated future leaders, such as Admiral Enomoto. French naval engineers were hired to build naval arsenals, such as Yokosuka and Nagasaki. By the end of the Tokugawa shogunate in 1867, the Japanese navy of the shogun already possessed eight western-style steam warships around the flagship Kaiyō Maru, which were used against pro-imperial forces during the Boshin war, under the command of Admiral Enomoto. A French Military Mission to Japan (1867) was established to help modernize the armies of the Bakufu.
Who established a western-style army in Japan?
5728f2282ca10214002dab00
Emperor Meiji
0
False
When was a western-style army established in Japan?
5728f2282ca10214002dab01
1873
133
False
What did samurai become in 1873?
5728f2282ca10214002dab02
Shizoku
154
False
Who had samurai been allowed to kill?
5728f2282ca10214002dab03
commoners who paid them disrespect
302
False
In what century were the Meiji reforms?
5728f2282ca10214002dab04
19th
850
False
Emperor Meiji abolished the samurai's right to be the only armed force in favor of a more modern, western-style, conscripted army in 1873. Samurai became Shizoku (士族) who retained some of their salaries, but the right to wear a katana in public was eventually abolished along with the right to execute commoners who paid them disrespect. The samurai finally came to an end after hundreds of years of enjoyment of their status, their powers, and their ability to shape the government of Japan. However, the rule of the state by the military class was not yet over. In defining how a modern Japan should be, members of the Meiji government decided to follow the footsteps of the United Kingdom and Germany, basing the country on the concept of noblesse oblige. Samurai were not a political force under the new order. With the Meiji reforms in the late 19th century, the samurai class was abolished, and a western-style national army was established. The Imperial Japanese Armies were conscripted, but many samurai volunteered as soldiers, and many advanced to be trained as officers. Much of the Imperial Army officer class was of samurai origin, and were highly motivated, disciplined, and exceptionally trained.
What group made up most of Japan's first exchange students?
5728f2a34b864d1900165102
Samurai
0
False
Who started Mitsubishi?
5728f2a34b864d1900165103
Iwasaki Yatarō
434
False
What was Iwasaki's relationship to samurai?
5728f2a34b864d1900165104
great-grandson of a samurai
462
False
What kind of schools did samurai start?
5728f2a34b864d1900165105
private schools for higher educations
197
False
Who did samurai write for?
5728f2a34b864d1900165106
newspaper companies
326
False
Samurai were many of the early exchange students, not directly because they were samurai, but because many samurai were literate and well-educated scholars. Some of these exchange students started private schools for higher educations, while many samurai took pens instead of guns and became reporters and writers, setting up newspaper companies, and others entered governmental service. Some samurai became businessmen. For example, Iwasaki Yatarō, who was the great-grandson of a samurai, established Mitsubishi.
What philosophies were the samurai influenced by?
5728f3026aef05140015489e
Buddhism and Zen, and to a lesser extent Confucianism and Shinto
20
False
What type of meditation did samurai do?
5728f3026aef05140015489f
Zen
118
False
What caused some samurai to stop fighting?
5728f3026aef0514001548a0
The Buddhist concept of reincarnation and rebirth
211
False
What was the contribution of Confucianism to samurai?
5728f3026aef0514001548a1
to stress the importance of the lord-retainer relationship
600
False
The philosophies of Buddhism and Zen, and to a lesser extent Confucianism and Shinto, influenced the samurai culture. Zen meditation became an important teaching due to it offering a process to calm one's mind. The Buddhist concept of reincarnation and rebirth led samurai to abandon torture and needless killing, while some samurai even gave up violence altogether and became Buddhist monks after realizing how fruitless their killings were. Some were killed as they came to terms with these realizations in the battlefield. The most defining role that Confucianism played in samurai philosophy was to stress the importance of the lord-retainer relationship—the loyalty that a samurai was required to show his lord.
When was Hojo Shigetoki born?
5728f34c4b864d190016510c
1198
37
False
When did Hojo Shigetoki die?
5728f34c4b864d190016510d
1261
42
False
What were gunki?
5728f34c4b864d190016510e
13th and 14th century warrior writings
254
False
When was Shiba Yoshimasa born?
5728f34c4b864d190016510f
1350
519
False
When did Shiba Yoshimasa die?
5728f34c4b864d1900165110
1410
524
False
In the 13th century, Hōjō Shigetoki (1198–1261 AD) wrote: "When one is serving officially or in the master's court, he should not think of a hundred or a thousand people, but should consider only the importance of the master." Carl Steenstrup noted that 13th and 14th century warrior writings (gunki) "portrayed the bushi in their natural element, war, eulogizing such virtues as reckless bravery, fierce family pride, and selfless, at times senseless devotion of master and man". Feudal lords such as Shiba Yoshimasa (1350–1410 AD) stated that a warrior looked forward to a glorious death in the service of a military leader or the Emperor: "It is a matter of regret to let the moment when one should die pass by....First, a man whose profession is the use of arms should think and then act upon not only his own fame, but also that of his descendants. He should not scandalize his name forever by holding his one and only life too dear....One's main purpose in throwing away his life is to do so either for the sake of the Emperor or in some great undertaking of a military general. It is that exactly that will be the great fame of one's descendants."
What does a samurai has his heart in the wrong place dislike?
5728f3a54b864d190016511e
battle
38
False
What debt should samurai not forget?
5728f3a54b864d190016511f
the great debt of kindness one owes to his master and ancestors
222
False
What virtues should samurai not be dismissive of?
5728f3a54b864d1900165120
loyalty and filial piety
327
False
"First of all, a samurai who dislikes battle and has not put his heart in the right place even though he has been born in the house of the warrior, should not be reckoned among one's retainers....It is forbidden to forget the great debt of kindness one owes to his master and ancestors and thereby make light of the virtues of loyalty and filial piety....It is forbidden that one should...attach little importance to his duties to his master...There is a primary need to distinguish loyalty from disloyalty and to establish rewards and punishments."
When was Kato Kiyomasa in power?
5728f41daf94a219006a9e4b
the Sengoku Era
67
False
When did Japan begin invading Korea?
5728f41daf94a219006a9e4c
1592
155
False
When did Japan finish invading Korea?
5728f41daf94a219006a9e4d
1598
160
False
What did Kato Kiyomasa think samurais' duty was?
5728f41daf94a219006a9e4e
to "...grasp the long and the short swords and to die"
292
False
What concept did Kato Kiyomasa think should be studied every day?
5728f41daf94a219006a9e4f
Bushido
575
False
Katō Kiyomasa was one of the most powerful and well-known lords of the Sengoku Era. He commanded most of Japan's major clans during the invasion of Korea (1592–1598). In a handbook he addressed to "all samurai, regardless of rank" he told his followers that a warrior's only duty in life was to "...grasp the long and the short swords and to die". He also ordered his followers to put forth great effort in studying the military classics, especially those related to loyalty and filial piety. He is best known for his quote: "If a man does not investigate into the matter of Bushido daily, it will be difficult for him to die a brave and manly death. Thus it is essential to engrave this business of the warrior into one's mind well."
Who did Torii Mototada serve?
5728f45c6aef0514001548b0
Tokugawa Ieyasu
63
False
When was Torii Mototada born?
5728f45c6aef0514001548b1
1539
16
False
When did Torii Mototada die?
5728f45c6aef0514001548b2
1600
21
False
How many people were in Ishida Mitsunari's army?
5728f45c6aef0514001548b3
40,000
611
False
How many soldiers defended Torii's last stand?
5728f45c6aef0514001548b4
2,000
506
False
Torii Mototada (1539–1600) was a feudal lord in the service of Tokugawa Ieyasu. On the eve of the battle of Sekigahara, he volunteered to remain behind in the doomed Fushimi Castle while his lord advanced to the east. Torii and Tokugawa both agreed that the castle was indefensible. In an act of loyalty to his lord, Torii chose to remain behind, pledging that he and his men would fight to the finish. As was custom, Torii vowed that he would not be taken alive. In a dramatic last stand, the garrison of 2,000 men held out against overwhelming odds for ten days against the massive army of Ishida Mitsunari's 40,000 warriors. In a moving last statement to his son Tadamasa, he wrote:
Who was Takeda's rival?
5728f4a76aef0514001548ba
Uesugi Kenshin
44
False
What did Uesugi encourage?
5728f4a76aef0514001548bb
the "way of the warrior as death"
163
False
What was Daisetz Teitaro Suzuki's occupation?
5728f4a76aef0514001548bc
Japanese historian
198
False
When was Takeda born?
5728f4a76aef0514001548bd
1521
29
False
When was Uesugi born?
5728f4a76aef0514001548be
1530
60
False
The rival of Takeda Shingen (1521–1573) was Uesugi Kenshin (1530–1578), a legendary Sengoku warlord well-versed in the Chinese military classics and who advocated the "way of the warrior as death". Japanese historian Daisetz Teitaro Suzuki describes Uesugi's beliefs as: "Those who are reluctant to give up their lives and embrace death are not true warriors.... Go to the battlefield firmly confident of victory, and you will come home with no wounds whatever. Engage in combat fully determined to die and you will be alive; wish to survive in the battle and you will surely meet death. When you leave the house determined not to see it again you will come home safely; when you have any thought of returning you will not return. You may not be in the wrong to think that the world is always subject to change, but the warrior must not entertain this way of thinking, for his fate is always determined."
What religious order was St. Francis Xavier in?
5728f514af94a219006a9e5f
Jesuit
65
False
When was St. Francis Xavier born?
5728f514af94a219006a9e60
1506
99
False
When did St. Francis Xavier die?
5728f514af94a219006a9e61
1552
104
False
When did Xavier try to convert Japan to Christianity?
5728f514af94a219006a9e62
1549–1551
436
False
Who were the Japanese regarded as braver than?
5728f514af94a219006a9e63
the people of China, Korea, Ternate and all of the other nations around the Philippines
553
False
Historian H. Paul Varley notes the description of Japan given by Jesuit leader St. Francis Xavier (1506–1552): "There is no nation in the world which fears death less." Xavier further describes the honour and manners of the people: "I fancy that there are no people in the world more punctilious about their honour than the Japanese, for they will not put up with a single insult or even a word spoken in anger." Xavier spent the years 1549–1551 converting Japanese to Christianity. He also observed: "The Japanese are much braver and more warlike than the people of China, Korea, Ternate and all of the other nations around the Philippines."
Where was Malacca?
5728f5716aef0514001548ca
Malaysia
42
False
Where was Goa?
5728f5716aef0514001548cb
India
78
False
Who impressed Xavier by taking notes in church?
5728f5716aef0514001548cc
Anjiro
160
False
In what language did Anjiro speak to Xavier?
5728f5716aef0514001548cd
Portuguese
377
False
How did Anjiro think the Japanese would accept Christianity?
5728f5716aef0514001548ce
en masse
638
False
In December 1547, Francis was in Malacca (Malaysia) waiting to return to Goa (India) when he met a low-ranked samurai named Anjiro (possibly spelled "Yajiro"). Anjiro was not an intellectual, but he impressed Xavier because he took careful notes of everything he said in church. Xavier made the decision to go to Japan in part because this low-ranking samurai convinced him in Portuguese that the Japanese people were highly educated and eager to learn. They were hard workers and respectful of authority. In their laws and customs they were led by reason, and, should the Christian faith convince them of its truth, they would accept it en masse.
Who wrote 'Ideals of the Samurai'?
5728f5e26aef0514001548d4
William Scott Wilson
47
False
Who were the models for future generations of samurai?
5728f5e26aef0514001548d5
The warriors in the Heike Monogatari
77
False
Where did Japanese warriors come to literary maturity?
5728f5e26aef0514001548d6
the Heike Monogatari
403
False
In his book "Ideals of the Samurai" translator William Scott Wilson states: "The warriors in the Heike Monogatari served as models for the educated warriors of later generations, and the ideals depicted by them were not assumed to be beyond reach. Rather, these ideals were vigorously pursued in the upper echelons of warrior society and recommended as the proper form of the Japanese man of arms. With the Heike Monogatari, the image of the Japanese warrior in literature came to its full maturity." Wilson then translates the writings of several warriors who mention the Heike Monogatari as an example for their men to follow.
Whose culture included tea ceremonies?
5728f64eaf94a219006a9e7b
samurai
144
False
What kind of painting did samurai do?
5728f64eaf94a219006a9e7c
monochrome ink
178
False
What was Japanese culture influenced by?
5728f64eaf94a219006a9e7d
Chinese arts
333
False
Who brought Chinese arts to Japan?
5728f64eaf94a219006a9e7e
Zen monks
347
False
When was Muso Soseki born?
5728f64eaf94a219006a9e7f
1275
477
False
As aristocrats for centuries, samurai developed their own cultures that influenced Japanese culture as a whole. The culture associated with the samurai such as the tea ceremony, monochrome ink painting, rock gardens and poetry were adopted by warrior patrons throughout the centuries 1200–1600. These practices were adapted from the Chinese arts. Zen monks introduced them to Japan and they were allowed to flourish due to the interest of powerful warrior elites. Musō Soseki (1275–1351) was a Zen monk who was advisor to both Emperor Go-Daigo and General Ashikaga Takauji (1304–58). Musō, as well as other monks, acted as political and cultural diplomat between Japan and China. Musō was particularly well known for his garden design. Another Ashikaga patron of the arts was Yoshimasa. His cultural advisor, the Zen monk Zeami, introduced tea ceremony to him. Previously, tea had been used primarily for Buddhist monks to stay awake during meditation.
What was Oda Nobunaga's full name?
5728f6bc6aef0514001548ec
Oda Kazusanosuke Saburo Nobunaga
53
False
What did Oda mean?
5728f6bc6aef0514001548ed
a clan or family name
118
False
What did Kazusanosuke mean?
5728f6bc6aef0514001548ee
a title of vice-governor of Kazusa province
159
False
What did Saburo mean?
5728f6bc6aef0514001548ef
a formal nickname (yobina)
216
False
What did Nobunaga mean?
5728f6bc6aef0514001548f0
an adult name (nanori) given at genpuku, the coming of age ceremony
262
False
For example, the full name of Oda Nobunaga would be "Oda Kazusanosuke Saburo Nobunaga" (織田上総介三郎信長), in which "Oda" is a clan or family name, "Kazusanosuke" is a title of vice-governor of Kazusa province, "Saburo" is a formal nickname (yobina), and "Nobunaga" is an adult name (nanori) given at genpuku, the coming of age ceremony. A man was addressed by his family name and his title, or by his yobina if he did not have a title. However, the nanori was a private name that could be used by only a very few, including the Emperor.
How did the samurai treat concubines?
5728f761af94a219006a9e85
akin to a marriage
131
False
How did the samurai view kidnapping concubines?
5728f761af94a219006a9e86
shameful, if not criminal
219
False
Who thought being a concubine was better than being a wife?
5728f761af94a219006a9e87
many wealthy merchants
481
False
Why did merchants prefer that their daughters not marry samurai?
5728f761af94a219006a9e88
her family's money erased the samurai's debts
649
False
What happened if a commoner concubine had a son?
5728f761af94a219006a9e89
the son could inherit his father's social status
829
False
A samurai could take concubines but their backgrounds were checked by higher-ranked samurai. In many cases, taking a concubine was akin to a marriage. Kidnapping a concubine, although common in fiction, would have been shameful, if not criminal. If the concubine was a commoner, a messenger was sent with betrothal money or a note for exemption of tax to ask for her parents' acceptance. Even though the woman would not be a legal wife, a situation normally considered a demotion, many wealthy merchants believed that being the concubine of a samurai was superior to being the legal wife of a commoner. When a merchant's daughter married a samurai, her family's money erased the samurai's debts, and the samurai's social status improved the standing of the merchant family. If a samurai's commoner concubine gave birth to a son, the son could inherit his father's social status.
How common was divorce for samurai?
5728f7df4b864d1900165138
rare
140
False
What could samurai do instead of divorce if their wife couldn't produce a son?
5728f7df4b864d1900165139
adoption of a male heir
213
False
Why did samurai avoid divorcing for reasons of dislike?
5728f7df4b864d190016513a
it would embarrass the person who had arranged the marriage
411
False
What financial concern prevented divorce?
5728f7df4b864d190016513b
After a divorce samurai had to return the betrothal money
582
False
A samurai could divorce his wife for a variety of reasons with approval from a superior, but divorce was, while not entirely nonexistent, a rare event. A wife's failure to produce a son was cause for divorce, but adoption of a male heir was considered an acceptable alternative to divorce. A samurai could divorce for personal reasons, even if he simply did not like his wife, but this was generally avoided as it would embarrass the person who had arranged the marriage. A woman could also arrange a divorce, although it would generally take the form of the samurai divorcing her. After a divorce samurai had to return the betrothal money, which often prevented divorces.
What did samurai wives spend most of their time on?
5728f8484b864d1900165140
Maintaining the household
0
False
What did okugatasama mean?
5728f8484b864d1900165141
one who remains in the home
230
False
What did samurai wives' duties include when their husbands were away?
5728f8484b864d1900165142
manage all household affairs, care for the children, and perhaps even defend the home forcibly
272
False
What was a naginata?
5728f8484b864d1900165143
a polearm
442
False
What was tantojutsu?
5728f8484b864d1900165144
the skill of the knife
541
False
Maintaining the household was the main duty of samurai women. This was especially crucial during early feudal Japan, when warrior husbands were often traveling abroad or engaged in clan battles. The wife, or okugatasama (meaning: one who remains in the home), was left to manage all household affairs, care for the children, and perhaps even defend the home forcibly. For this reason, many women of the samurai class were trained in wielding a polearm called a naginata or a special knife called the kaiken in an art called tantojutsu (lit. the skill of the knife), which they could use to protect their household, family, and honor if the need arose.
What characteristics did samurais want their wives to have?
5728f95d6aef051400154908
humility, obedience, self-control, strength, and loyalty
49
False
Who did samurai wives have to teach?
5728f95d6aef051400154909
the children (and perhaps servants, too)
229
False
Who did samurai wives have to take care of?
5728f95d6aef05140015490a
elderly parents or in-laws that may be living under her roof
286
False
Who was a woman supposed to be subservient to?
5728f95d6aef05140015490b
her husband
493
False
What defined the samurais' code?
5728f95d6aef05140015490c
Confucian law
348
False
Traits valued in women of the samurai class were humility, obedience, self-control, strength, and loyalty. Ideally, a samurai wife would be skilled at managing property, keeping records, dealing with financial matters, educating the children (and perhaps servants, too), and caring for elderly parents or in-laws that may be living under her roof. Confucian law, which helped define personal relationships and the code of ethics of the warrior class required that a woman show subservience to her husband, filial piety to her parents, and care to the children. Too much love and affection was also said to indulge and spoil the youngsters. Thus, a woman was also to exercise discipline.
Who was Ashikaga Yoshimasa?
5728f9abaf94a219006a9e8f
8th shogun of the Muromachi shogunate
163
False
Who was Ashikaga Yoshimasa's wife?
5728f9abaf94a219006a9e90
Hino Tomiko
238
False
Why did Ashikaga let his wife take over?
5728f9abaf94a219006a9e91
lost interest in politics
202
False
Who was Nene?
5728f9abaf94a219006a9e92
wife of Toyotomi Hideyoshi
284
False
Who was Yodo-dono the concubine of?
5728f9abaf94a219006a9e93
Toyotomi Hideyoshi
292
False
This does not mean that samurai women were always powerless. Powerful women both wisely and unwisely wielded power at various occasions. After Ashikaga Yoshimasa, 8th shogun of the Muromachi shogunate, lost interest in politics, his wife Hino Tomiko largely ruled in his place. Nene, wife of Toyotomi Hideyoshi, was known to overrule her husband's decisions at times and Yodo-dono, his concubine, became the de facto master of Osaka castle and the Toyotomi clan after Hideyoshi's death. Tachibana Ginchiyo was chosen to lead the Tachibana clan after her father's death. Chiyo, wife of Yamauchi Kazutoyo, has long been considered the ideal samurai wife. According to legend, she made her kimono out of a quilted patchwork of bits of old cloth and saved pennies to buy her husband a magnificent horse, on which he rode to many victories. The fact that Chiyo (though she is better known as "Wife of Yamauchi Kazutoyo") is held in such high esteem for her economic sense is illuminating in the light of the fact that she never produced an heir and the Yamauchi clan was succeeded by Kazutoyo's younger brother. The source of power for women may have been that samurai left their finances to their wives.
In what period did Japanese women begin being more educated?
5728fa232ca10214002dab62
Tokugawa
7
False
What were added to marriage criteria in the Tokugawa period?
5728fa232ca10214002dab63
intelligence and education as desirable attributes
213
False
What types of advanced books did some Japanese women read?
5728fa232ca10214002dab64
philosophical and literary classics
555
False
When had most samurai wives learned to read?
5728fa232ca10214002dab65
the end of the Tokugawa period
647
False
As the Tokugawa period progressed more value became placed on education, and the education of females beginning at a young age became important to families and society as a whole. Marriage criteria began to weigh intelligence and education as desirable attributes in a wife, right along with physical attractiveness. Though many of the texts written for women during the Tokugawa period only pertained to how a woman could become a successful wife and household manager, there were those that undertook the challenge of learning to read, and also tackled philosophical and literary classics. Nearly all women of the samurai class were literate by the end of the Tokugawa period.
Who was the first Western samurai?
5728fab36aef05140015492a
William Adams
34
False
Who made William Adams a samurai?
5728fab36aef05140015492b
Shogun Tokugawa Ieyasu
123
False
What was William Adams's Japanese name?
5728fab36aef05140015492c
Anjin Miura
277
False
What did hatamoto mean?
5728fab36aef05140015492d
bannerman
361
False
How many servants did William Adams have?
5728fab36aef05140015492e
eighty or ninety
711
False
The English sailor and adventurer William Adams (1564–1620) was the first Westerner to receive the dignity of samurai. The Shogun Tokugawa Ieyasu presented him with two swords representing the authority of a samurai, and decreed that William Adams the sailor was dead and that Anjin Miura (三浦按針), a samurai, was born. Adams also received the title of hatamoto (bannerman), a high-prestige position as a direct retainer in the Shogun's court. He was provided with generous revenues: "For the services that I have done and do daily, being employed in the Emperor's service, the Emperor has given me a living" (Letters). He was granted a fief in Hemi (逸見) within the boundaries of present-day Yokosuka City, "with eighty or ninety husbandmen, that be my slaves or servants" (Letters). His estate was valued at 250 koku. He finally wrote "God hath provided for me after my great misery", (Letters) by which he meant the disaster-ridden voyage that initially brought him to Japan.
What nationality was Jan Joosten van Lodensteijn?
5728fb0daf94a219006a9eb3
Dutch
45
False
Around when was Jan Joosten van Lodensteijn born?
5728fb0daf94a219006a9eb4
1556
29
False
What was Jan Joosten van Lodensteijn's Japanese name?
5728fb0daf94a219006a9eb5
Yayousu
424
False
What permission allowed trade between Japan and Indo-China?
5728fb0daf94a219006a9eb6
a Red Seal Ship
486
False
How did Jan Joosten van Lodensteijn die?
5728fb0daf94a219006a9eb7
drowned after his ship ran aground
601
False
Jan Joosten van Lodensteijn (1556?–1623?), a Dutch colleague of Adams' on their ill-fated voyage to Japan in the ship De Liefde, was also given similar privileges by Tokugawa Ieyasu. It appears Joosten became a samurai[citation needed] and was given a residence within Ieyasu's castle at Edo. Today, this area at the east exit of Tokyo Station is known as Yaesu (八重洲). Yaesu is a corruption of the Dutchman's Japanese name, Yayousu (耶楊子). Also in common with Adam's, Joostens was given a Red Seal Ship (朱印船) allowing him to trade between Japan and Indo-China. On a return journey from Batavia Joosten drowned after his ship ran aground.
What nationality was Edward Schnell?
5728fb8a6aef05140015493c
Prussian
21
False
What duties did Edward Schnell have?
5728fb8a6aef05140015493d
military instructor and procurer of weapons
73
False
Who did Edward Schnell work for?
5728fb8a6aef05140015493e
the Aizu domain
52
False
What was Edward Schnell's Japanese name?
5728fb8a6aef05140015493f
Hiramatsu Buhei
151
False
Where did Edward Schnell live?
5728fb8a6aef051400154940
Wakamatsu
340
False
In the same war, the Prussian Edward Schnell served the Aizu domain as a military instructor and procurer of weapons. He was granted the Japanese name Hiramatsu Buhei (平松武兵衛), which inverted the characters of the daimyo's name Matsudaira. Hiramatsu (Schnell) was given the right to wear swords, as well as a residence in the castle town of Wakamatsu, a Japanese wife, and retainers. In many contemporary references, he is portrayed wearing a Japanese kimono, overcoat, and swords, with Western riding trousers and boots.
What type of armor did Japanese wear in the 7th century?
5728fbf83f37b31900477f05
a form of lamellar armor
58
False
What was the first samurai armor called?
5728fbf83f37b31900477f06
yoroi
227
False
What were the small scales in yoroi called?
5728fbf83f37b31900477f07
kozane
309
False
What were kozane made of?
5728fbf83f37b31900477f08
iron or leather
350
False
What was a full chest armor called?
5728fbf83f37b31900477f09
dou
599
False
As far back as the seventh century Japanese warriors wore a form of lamellar armor, this armor eventually evolved into the armor worn by the samurai. The first types of Japanese armors identified as samurai armor were known as yoroi. These early samurai armors were made from small individual scales known as kozane. The kozane were made from either iron or leather and were bound together into small strips, the strips were coated with lacquer to protect the kozane from water. A series of strips of kozane were then laced together with silk or leather lace and formed into a complete chest armor (dou or dō).
Why were there armor changes in the 1500s?
5728fc671d04691400778f07
the advent of firearms, new fighting tactics and the need for additional protection
66
False
What type of armor was replaced?
5728fc671d04691400778f08
kozane dou
155
False
What new type of armor replaced the old?
5728fc671d04691400778f09
plate armor
210
False
What was the new armor called?
5728fc671d04691400778f0a
Tosei-gusoku
291
False
When was samurai armor last used?
5728fc671d04691400778f0b
1877
597
False
In the 1500s a new type of armor started to become popular due to the advent of firearms, new fighting tactics and the need for additional protection. The kozane dou made from individual scales was replaced by plate armor. This new armor, which used iron plated dou (dō), was referred to as Tosei-gusoku, or modern armor. Various other components of armor protected the samurai's body. The helmet kabuto was an important part of the samurai's armor. Samurai armor changed and developed as the methods of samurai warfare changed over the centuries. The known last use of samurai armor occurring in 1877 during the satsuma rebellion. As the last samurai rebellion was crushed, Japan modernized its defenses and turned to a national conscription army that used uniforms.
What did 'samurai' mean at first?
5728fce01d04691400778f1b
those who serve in close attendance to nobility
35
False
What did 'samorapu' mean?
5728fce01d04691400778f1c
to watch, to keep watch, to observe, to be on the lookout for something; to serve, to attend
245
False
What did 'saburahu' mean?
5728fce01d04691400778f1d
to serve, to attend
639
False
What did 'saburahi' mean?
5728fce01d04691400778f1e
servant, attendant
706
False
When was the word 'samurahi' used?
5728fce01d04691400778f1f
the Edo period
792
False
The term samurai originally meant "those who serve in close attendance to nobility", and was written with a Chinese character (or kanji) that had the same meaning. In Japanese, it was originally recorded in the Nara Period as a verb *samorapu ("to watch, to keep watch, to observe, to be on the lookout for something; to serve, to attend"), which is believed to be derived from the frequentative form (*morapu 守らふ) of the verb moru (守る, "to watch, to guard, to be on the lookout; to keep, to protect, to take care of, to be in charge of, to have as one's ward"). By the Heian period, this word had developed into the verb saburahu (さぶらふ, "to serve, to attend"), from which a deverbal noun saburahi (さぶらひ, "servant, attendant") was later derived, and this noun then yielded samurahi (さむらひ) in the Edo period. In Japanese literature, there is an early reference to samurai in the Kokinshū (古今集, early 10th century):
Who were the bushi class?
5728fd38af94a219006a9edb
ancient Japanese soldiers from traditional warrior families
32
False
Where did the bushi live?
5728fd38af94a219006a9edc
mainly in the north of Japan
123
False
Where did the imperial family live?
5728fd38af94a219006a9edd
Kyoto
312
False
What does Bushido mean?
5728fd38af94a219006a9ede
the "way of the warrior"
444
False
What was a bukeyashiki?
5728fd38af94a219006a9edf
the mansion of a warrior
500
False
Bushi was the name given to the ancient Japanese soldiers from traditional warrior families. The bushi class was developed mainly in the north of Japan. They formed powerful clans, which in the 12th century were against the noble families who were grouping themselves to support the imperial family who lived in Kyoto. Samurai was a word used by the Kuge aristocratic class with warriors themselves preferring the word bushi. The term Bushidō, the "way of the warrior", is derived from this term and the mansion of a warrior was called bukeyashiki.
What was a synonym for seppuku?
5728fd971d04691400778f25
hara kiri
159
False
What was the reason for seppuku?
5728fd971d04691400778f26
allowed a disgraced samurai to regain his honor by passing into death
176
False
How idealistic were samurai?
5728fd971d04691400778f27
as practical on the battlefield as were any other warrior
497
False
How were samurai unrealistically portrayed?
5728fd971d04691400778f28
romanticized
320
False
Most samurai were bound by a code of honor and were expected to set an example for those below them. A notable part of their code is seppuku (切腹, seppuku?) or hara kiri, which allowed a disgraced samurai to regain his honor by passing into death, where samurai were still beholden to social rules. Whilst there are many romanticized characterizations of samurai behavior such as the writing of Bushido (武士道, Bushidō?) in 1905, studies of Kobudo and traditional Budō indicate that the samurai were as practical on the battlefield as were any other warrior.
Who was an example of a disloyal samurai?
5728fdf9af94a219006a9ee5
Akechi Mitsuhide
102
False
Who was an example of an excessively loyal samurai?
5728fdf9af94a219006a9ee6
Kusunoki Masashige)
161
False
Some feudal lords shifted loyalties from Toyotomi to whom?
5728fdf9af94a219006a9ee7
Tokugawa
497
False
What sometimes overrode samurais' loyalty to the daimyo?
5728fdf9af94a219006a9ee8
loyalty to the Emperor was seen to have supremacy
645
False
Despite the rampant romanticism of the 20th century, samurai could be disloyal and treacherous (e.g., Akechi Mitsuhide), cowardly, brave, or overly loyal (e.g., Kusunoki Masashige). Samurai were usually loyal to their immediate superiors, who in turn allied themselves with higher lords. These loyalties to the higher lords often shifted; for example, the high lords allied under Toyotomi Hideyoshi (豊臣秀吉) were served by loyal samurai, but the feudal lords under them could shift their support to Tokugawa, taking their samurai with them. There were, however, also notable instances where samurai would be disloyal to their lord or daimyo, when loyalty to the Emperor was seen to have supremacy.
What is Jidaigeki?
5728fe6d3f37b31900477f41
historical drama
21
False
Who is Akira Kurosawa?
5728fe6d3f37b31900477f42
One of Japan’s most renowned directors
262
False
Who directed 'Seven Samurai'?
5728fe6d3f37b31900477f43
Akira Kurosawa
302
False
What Japanese movie is 'Star Wars: A New Hope' said to be similar to?
5728fe6d3f37b31900477f44
Seven Samurai
463
False
What western was inspired by 'Seven Samurai'?
5728fe6d3f37b31900477f45
The Magnificent Seven
844
False
Jidaigeki (literally historical drama) has always been a staple program on Japanese movies and television. The programs typically feature a samurai. Samurai films and westerns share a number of similarities and the two have influenced each other over the years. One of Japan’s most renowned directors, Akira Kurosawa, greatly influenced the samurai aspect in western film-making.[citation needed] George Lucas’ Star Wars series incorporated many aspects from the Seven Samurai film. One example is that in the Japanese film, seven samurai warriors are hired by local farmers to protect their land from being overrun by bandits; In George Lucas’ Star Wars: A New Hope, a similar situation arises. Kurosawa was inspired by the works of director John Ford and in turn Kurosawa's works have been remade into westerns such as The Seven Samurai into The Magnificent Seven and Yojimbo into A Fistful of Dollars. There is also a 26 episode anime adaptation (Samurai 7) of The Seven Samurai. Along with film, literature containing samurai influences are seen as well.
Who is Eiji Yoshikawa?
5728ff866aef05140015495c
one of the most famous Japanese historical novelists
183
False
Why are Eiji Yoshikawa's books popular?
5728ff866aef05140015495d
for their epic narratives and rich realism in depicting samurai and warrior culture
337
False
What are Japanese comic books called?
5728ff866aef05140015495e
manga
501
False
What are Japanese animation called?
5728ff866aef05140015495f
anime
523
False
Most common are historical works where the protagonist is either a samurai or former samurai (or another rank or position) who possesses considerable martial skill. Eiji Yoshikawa is one of the most famous Japanese historical novelists. His retellings of popular works, including Taiko, Musashi and Heike Tale, are popular among readers for their epic narratives and rich realism in depicting samurai and warrior culture.[citation needed] The samurai have also appeared frequently in Japanese comics (manga) and animation (anime). Samurai-like characters are not just restricted to historical settings and a number of works set in the modern age, and even the future, include characters who live, train and fight like samurai. Examples are Samurai Champloo, Requiem from the Darkness, Muramasa: The Demon Blade, and Afro Samurai. Some of these works have made their way to the west, where it has been increasing in popularity with America.
Who said America hyperbolizes the samurai?
5728ffd73f37b31900477f4b
Moscardi, N.D.
269
False
What kind of animation did Afro Samurai have?
5728ffd73f37b31900477f4c
hack-and-slash
515
False
What kind of music did Afro Samurai have?
5728ffd73f37b31900477f4d
gritty urban
544
False
Just in the last two decades,[when?] samurai have become more popular in America. “Hyperbolizing the samurai in such a way that they appear as a whole to be a loyal body of master warriors provides international interest in certain characters due to admirable traits” (Moscardi, N.D.). Through various medium, producers and writers have been capitalizing on the notion that Americans admire the samurai lifestyle. The animated series, Afro Samurai, became well-liked in American popular culture due to its blend of hack-and-slash animation and gritty urban music.
Who created Afro Samurai?
572900303f37b31900477f51
Takashi Okazaki
11
False
Who made Afro Samurai into an animated TV show?
572900303f37b31900477f52
Studio Gonzo
132
False
When did Afro Samurai first air?
572900303f37b31900477f53
2007
149
False
On what channel did Afro Samurai air?
572900303f37b31900477f54
Spike TV
218
False
Who was the star voice actor of Afro Samurai?
572900303f37b31900477f55
Samuel L. Jackson
598
False
Created by Takashi Okazaki, Afro Samurai was initially a doujinshi, or manga series, which was then made into an animated series by Studio Gonzo. In 2007 the animated series debuted on American cable television on the Spike TV channel (Denison, 2010). The series was produced for American viewers which “embodies the trend... comparing hip-hop artists to samurai warriors, an image some rappers claim for themselves (Solomon, 2009). The storyline keeps in tone with the perception of a samurais finding vengeance against someone who has wronged him. Starring the voice of well known American actor Samuel L. Jackson, “Afro is the second-strongest fighter in a futuristic, yet, still feudal Japan and seeks revenge upon the gunman who killed his father” (King 2008). Due to its popularity, Afro Samurai was adopted into a full feature animated film and also became titles on gaming consoles such as the PlayStation 3 and Xbox. Not only has the samurai culture been adopted into animation and video games, it can also be seen in comic books.
In what company's comics did Silver Samurai appear?
5729009aaf94a219006a9f0d
Marvel
120
False
What is Silver Samurai's weapon?
5729009aaf94a219006a9f0e
an energy charged katana
270
False
How many comic books has Silver Samurai appeared in?
5729009aaf94a219006a9f0f
over 350
350
False
Who starred in The Last Samurai?
5729009aaf94a219006a9f10
Tom Cruise
738
False
Who did Tom Cruise play in The Last Samurai?
5729009aaf94a219006a9f11
US Army Captain Nathan Algren
1209
False
American comic books have adopted the character type for stories of their own like the mutant-villain Silver Samurai of Marvel Comics. The design of this character preserves the samurai appearance; the villain is “Clad in traditional gleaming samurai armor and wielding an energy charged katana” (Buxton, 2013). Not only does the Silver Samurai make over 350 comic book appearances, the character is playable in several video games, such as Marvel Vs. Capcom 1 and 2. In 2013, the samurai villain was depicted in James Mangold’s film The Wolverine. Ten years before the Wolverine debuted, another film helped pave the way to ensure the samurai were made known to American cinema: A film released in 2003 titled The Last Samurai, starring Tom Cruise, is inspired by the samurai way of life. In the film, Cruise’s character finds himself deeply immersed in samurai culture. The character in the film, “Nathan Algren, is a fictional contrivance to make nineteenth-century Japanese history less foreign to American viewers”.(Ravina, 2010) After being captured by a group of samurai rebels, he becomes empathetic towards the cause they fight for. Taking place during the Meiji Period, Tom Cruise plays the role of US Army Captain Nathan Algren, who travels to Japan to train a rookie army in fighting off samurai rebel groups. Becoming a product of his environment, Algren joins the samurai clan in an attempt to rescue a captured samurai leader. “By the end of the film, he has clearly taken on many of the samurai traits, such as zen-like mastery of the sword, and a budding understanding of spirituality”. (Manion, 2006)
Software_testing
What is the purpose of testing software?
57290d3a6aef0514001549f6
finding software bugs
331
False
Why is it so difficult to locate bugs in software?
57290d3a6aef0514001549f7
tests for even simple software components is practically infinite
26
False
What can come from one bug being fixed?
57290d3a6aef0514001549f8
it can illuminate other, deeper bugs,
449
False
practically infinite
71
What is the number of tests for complex software components?
5a7b686e21c2de001afe9fdc
True
to select tests that are feasible for the available time and resources.
133
Firmware testing uses strategy to accomplish what?
5a7b686e21c2de001afe9fdd
True
finding software bugs (errors or other defects)
331
software testing attempts to eliminate a program for what reason?
5a7b686e21c2de001afe9fde
True
iterative
405
The job of testing is called what type of progress?
5a7b686e21c2de001afe9fdf
True
it can illuminate other, deeper bugs, or can even create new ones.
449
What are some complications of not fixing bugs?
5a7b686e21c2de001afe9fe0
True
As the number of possible tests for even simple software components is practically infinite, all software testing uses some strategy to select tests that are feasible for the available time and resources. As a result, software testing typically (but not exclusively) attempts to execute a program or application with the intent of finding software bugs (errors or other defects). The job of testing is an iterative process as when one bug is fixed, it can illuminate other, deeper bugs, or can even create new ones.
What can testing not completely find?
57290ea56aef0514001549fc
all the defects
177
False
While looking for bugs, what else can testing do?
57290ea56aef0514001549fd
furnishes a criticism or comparison
222
False
What does the software compare during testing against?
57290ea56aef0514001549fe
oracles—principles or mechanisms
318
False
What make up the oracle during testing?
57290ea56aef0514001549ff
specifications, contracts, comparable products, past versions
446
False
software
200
Testing can identify all the defects within what?
5a7b6ee021c2de001afea00e
True
furnishes a criticism or comparison
222
While looking for bug, what can testing not do?
5a7b6ee021c2de001afea00f
True
specifications, contracts, comparable products, past versions of the same product, inferences about intended or expected purpose
446
What are some things oracles include and are limited to?
5a7b6ee021c2de001afea010
True
oracles—principles or mechanisms
318
What does the software contrast during testing against?
5a7b6ee021c2de001afea011
True
Although testing can determine the correctness of software under the assumption of some specific hypotheses (see hierarchy of testing difficulty below), testing cannot identify all the defects within software. Instead, it furnishes a criticism or comparison that compares the state and behavior of the product against oracles—principles or mechanisms by which someone might recognize a problem. These oracles may include (but are not limited to) specifications, contracts, comparable products, past versions of the same product, inferences about intended or expected purpose, user or customer expectations, relevant standards, applicable laws, or other criteria.
What is the primamry reason for testing software?
572910176aef051400154a0e
to detect software failures
32
False
What can testing software not fully completely establish?
572910176aef051400154a0f
cannot establish that a product functions properly under all conditions
117
False
What does the scope of testing the software also look at?
572910176aef051400154a10
examination of code as well as execution of that code
319
False
Which two teams would you normally separate when writing and testing software?
572910176aef051400154a11
testing organization may be separate from the development team
569
False
to detect software failures so that defects may be discovered and corrected.
32
What is a secondary purpose of testing software?
5a7b724b21c2de001afea016
True
examination of code as well as execution of that code in various environments and conditions as well as examining the aspects of code
319
What does software testing always include?
5a7b724b21c2de001afea017
True
a testing organization may be separate from the development team
567
In the previous culture of software development, what two things were separate?
5a7b724b21c2de001afea018
True
the process by which software is developed.
748
Data from software testing may be used to model what?
5a7b724b21c2de001afea019
True
A primary purpose of testing is to detect software failures so that defects may be discovered and corrected. Testing cannot establish that a product functions properly under all conditions but can only establish that it does not function properly under specific conditions. The scope of software testing often includes examination of code as well as execution of that code in various environments and conditions as well as examining the aspects of code: does it do what it is supposed to do and do what it needs to do. In the current culture of software development, a testing organization may be separate from the development team. There are various roles for testing team members. Information derived from software testing may be used to correct the process by which software is developed.
What is the first step that leads to a software failure?
572911636aef051400154a20
programmer makes an error
57
False
What is the result of the programmer making a mistake?
572911636aef051400154a21
defect (fault, bug)
113
False
When can software defects in dead code cause problems?
572911636aef051400154a22
run on a new computer hardware platform
522
False
A programmer makes an error (mistake), which results in a defect (fault, bug) in the software source code.
55
Software programs evolve through what process?
5a7b745721c2de001afea026
True
failures
313
All defects result in what?
5a7b745721c2de001afea027
True
result in failures
368
Defects in dead code always do what?
5a7b745721c2de001afea028
True
A defect
388
When the environment is changed, what does a failure always result from?
5a7b745721c2de001afea029
True
a wide range of failure symptoms
661
What can a single defect not result in?
5a7b745721c2de001afea02a
True
Software faults occur through the following processes. A programmer makes an error (mistake), which results in a defect (fault, bug) in the software source code. If this defect is executed, in certain situations the system will produce wrong results, causing a failure. Not all defects will necessarily result in failures. For example, defects in dead code will never result in failures. A defect can turn into a failure when the environment is changed. Examples of these changes in environment include the software being run on a new computer hardware platform, alterations in source data, or interacting with different software. A single defect may result in a wide range of failure symptoms.
What is the primary issue with running software testing?
5729134aaf94a219006aa031
testing under all combinations of inputs and preconditions (initial state) is not feasible
52
False
What types of software bugs are difficult to find during testing?
5729134aaf94a219006aa032
defects that occur infrequently
260
False
What other non-functional dimensions can cause software to underperform and cause other problems?
5729134aaf94a219006aa033
usability, scalability, performance, compatibility, reliability
443
False
testing under all combinations of inputs and preconditions (initial state) is not feasible
52
What is the secondary problem  with running software testing?
5a7b75f521c2de001afea03a
True
difficult
296
Defects that occur frequently are how easy to find?
5a7b75f521c2de001afea03b
True
usability, scalability, performance, compatibility, reliability
443
What are examples of functional dimensions of quality?
5a7b75f521c2de001afea03c
True
can be highly subjective
507
What is the issue with the functional dimensions of quality?
5a7b75f521c2de001afea03d
True
A fundamental problem with software testing is that testing under all combinations of inputs and preconditions (initial state) is not feasible, even with a simple product.:17-18 This means that the number of defects in a software product can be very large and defects that occur infrequently are difficult to find in testing. More significantly, non-functional dimensions of quality (how it is supposed to be versus what it is supposed to do)—usability, scalability, performance, compatibility, reliability—can be highly subjective; something that constitutes sufficient value to one person may be intolerable to another.
Although software developers are unable to test everything, what do they run to keep the testing to a minimum?
5729141f6aef051400154a3a
use combinatorial test design
56
False
What does the use of combinatorial testing consist of?
5729141f6aef051400154a3b
get greater test coverage with fewer tests
207
False
What two types of testing are involved with combinatorial testing as mentioned here?
5729141f6aef051400154a3c
speed or test depth
280
False
combinatorial test
60
What test do firmware developers use to find out how to keep testing to a minimum?
5a7b7a0421c2de001afea052
True
greater test coverage
211
Combinatorial test design does not allow users to get what?
5a7b7a0421c2de001afea053
True
their test cases.
383
Unstructured variations can be built into what items?
5a7b7a0421c2de001afea054
True
requirements coverage
481
"Coverage" is referring to combined coverage but not what?
5a7b7a0421c2de001afea055
True
Software developers can't test everything, but they can use combinatorial test design to identify the minimum number of tests needed to get the coverage they want. Combinatorial test design enables users to get greater test coverage with fewer tests. Whether they are looking for speed or test depth, they can use combinatorial test design methods to build structured variation into their test cases. Note that "coverage", as used here, is referring to combinatorial coverage, not requirements coverage.
What determines the cost of fixing a bug?
572914a26aef051400154a40
the earlier a defect is found
29
False
Ho many more times would the cost be if the problem is found after the software's release?
572914a26aef051400154a41
10–100 times more
275
False
What could possibly lessen the cost of fixing buggy software?
572914a26aef051400154a42
cloud-based services
424
False
the earlier a defect is found, the cheaper it is to fix it.
29
What is the unpopular belief about the cost of fixing a bug?
5a7b7cb021c2de001afea06c
True
the stage it was found.
158
The cost of fixing a defect does not depend on what?
5a7b7cb021c2de001afea06d
True
10–100 times
275
How much less would it cost to fix a problem found after the software's release?
5a7b7cb021c2de001afea06e
True
modern continuous deployment practices and cloud-based services
381
What modern items may increase the cost of re-deployment over time?
5a7b7cb021c2de001afea06f
True
It is commonly believed that the earlier a defect is found, the cheaper it is to fix it. The following table shows the cost of fixing the defect depending on the stage it was found. For example, if a problem in the requirements is found only post-release, then it would cost 10–100 times more to fix than if it had already been found by the requirements review. With the advent of modern continuous deployment practices and cloud-based services, the cost of re-deployment and maintenance may lessen over time.
Name three approaches software testers take when testing their software?
572915f36aef051400154a4e
Reviews, walkthroughs, or inspections
57
False
What is the term that is used to described executing programmed code with a given set of test?
572915f36aef051400154a4f
dynamic testing
222
False
When can dynamic testing occur?
572915f36aef051400154a50
before the program is 100% complete
529
False
What are commonly used techniques during dynamic testing?
572915f36aef051400154a51
stubs/drivers or execution from a debugger environment
705
False
software
39
There are few approached in what type of testing?
5a7b7eb421c2de001afea092
True
inspections
83
Examples of static testing include previews, walkthroughs, and what other item?
5a7b7eb421c2de001afea093
True
a given set of test cases
178
Dynamic testing refers to executing predetermined code with what?
5a7b7eb421c2de001afea094
True
when the program itself is run
471
When does dynamic testing not take place?
5a7b7eb421c2de001afea095
True
implicit
263
Static testing is always what?
5a7b7eb421c2de001afea096
True
There are many approaches available in software testing. Reviews, walkthroughs, or inspections are referred to as static testing, whereas actually executing programmed code with a given set of test cases is referred to as dynamic testing. Static testing is often implicit, as proofreading, plus when programming tools/text editors check source code structure or compilers (pre-compilers) check syntax and data flow as static program analysis. Dynamic testing takes place when the program itself is run. Dynamic testing may begin before the program is 100% complete in order to test particular sections of code and are applied to discrete functions or modules. Typical techniques for this are either using stubs/drivers or execution from a debugger environment.
What is another term used for White-box testing?
5729193baf94a219006aa06f
clear box testing
33
False
What is involved with White-box testing?
5729193baf94a219006aa070
by seeing the source code
119
False
Which two procedures are used to design test cases in White-box testing?
5729193baf94a219006aa071
testing an internal perspective of the system, as well as programming skills
268
False
clear box testing, glass box testing, transparent box testing and structural testing
33
White-box data testing is also known by what other names?
5a7b813621c2de001afea0b8
True
programming skills
326
An external perspective is used in white-box testing as well as what else is used to develop test cases?
5a7b813621c2de001afea0b9
True
to exercise paths through the code and determine the appropriate outputs.
403
The tester chooses outputs to accomplish what?
5a7b813621c2de001afea0ba
True
ICT
551
What is in-circulus testing also known as?
5a7b813621c2de001afea0bb
True
White-box testing (also known as clear box testing, glass box testing, transparent box testing and structural testing, by seeing the source code) tests internal structures or workings of a program, as opposed to the functionality exposed to the end-user. In white-box testing an internal perspective of the system, as well as programming skills, are used to design test cases. The tester chooses inputs to exercise paths through the code and determine the appropriate outputs. This is analogous to testing nodes in a circuit, e.g. in-circuit testing (ICT).
What is the main difference between black-box testing and white-box testing?
57291acd3f37b3190047801d
seeing the source code
138
False
What are the software testers aware of?
57291acd3f37b3190047801e
aware of what the software is supposed to do
183
False
What are the first three methods mentioned that make up black-box testing??
57291acd3f37b3190047801f
equivalence partitioning, boundary value analysis
284
False
a "black box",
41
Black-box testing treats data as what?
5a7b825121c2de001afea0d2
True
what the software is supposed to do, not how it does it.
192
Testers are always aware of what?
5a7b825121c2de001afea0d3
True
equivalence partitioning, boundary value analysis, all-pairs testing
284
What are the first three methods of white-box testing?
5a7b825121c2de001afea0d4
True
source
149
Black-box testing works with seeing what type of code?
5a7b825121c2de001afea0d5
True
Black-box testing treats the software as a "black box", examining functionality without any knowledge of internal implementation, without seeing the source code. The testers are only aware of what the software is supposed to do, not how it does it. Black-box testing methods include: equivalence partitioning, boundary value analysis, all-pairs testing, state transition tables, decision table testing, fuzz testing, model-based testing, use case testing, exploratory testing and specification-based testing.
What term is used to test functionality of the software accordingly with the application requirements?
57291e76af94a219006aa0a1
Specification-based testing
0
False
What are the test cases built around?
57291e76af94a219006aa0a2
specifications and requirements
396
False
When building test cases which of the two methods used is more common over the other?
57291e76af94a219006aa0a3
functional
660
False
the functionality of software according to the applicable requirements.
41
What does specialization-based testing aim to test?
5a7b849921c2de001afea0ee
True
requirements
415
Test cases are built around specializations and what else?
5a7b849921c2de001afea0ef
True
functional
660
Out of the two methods of building test cases, non-functional and unfunctional, which is more common?
5a7b849921c2de001afea0f0
True
specifications, requirements, and designs
532
What descriptions of the firmware are used in test cases?
5a7b849921c2de001afea0f1
True
Specification-based testing aims to test the functionality of software according to the applicable requirements. This level of testing usually requires thorough test cases to be provided to the tester, who then can simply verify that for a given input, the output value (or behavior), either "is" or "is not" the same as the expected value specified in the test case. Test cases are built around specifications and requirements, i.e., what the application is supposed to do. It uses external descriptions of the software, including specifications, requirements, and designs to derive test cases. These tests can be functional or non-functional, though usually functional.
What is one huge advantage to using the black-box method?
572921606aef051400154a72
no programming knowledge is required
49
False
What can black-box testing sometimes be referred to with the in-ability to see the code?
572921606aef051400154a73
like a walk in a dark labyrinth without a flashlight.
281
False
What is a good reason to have testers and developers separate?
572921606aef051400154a74
tester likely has a different set and may emphasize different areas of functionality
137
False
programming
52
What knowledge is required for the black box technique?
5a7b885321c2de001afea108
True
"like a walk in a dark labyrinth without a flashlight."
280
Black-box coding has been compared to what?
5a7b885321c2de001afea109
True
source
368
Some parts of the program can remain untested because the what law is not examined?
5a7b885321c2de001afea10a
True
tester likely has a different set and may emphasize different areas of functionality
137
Testers and developers are kept together for what reason?
5a7b885321c2de001afea10b
True
One advantage of the black box technique is that no programming knowledge is required. Whatever biases the programmers may have had, the tester likely has a different set and may emphasize different areas of functionality. On the other hand, black-box testing has been said to be "like a walk in a dark labyrinth without a flashlight." Because they do not examine the source code, there are situations when a tester writes many test cases to check something that could have been tested by only one test case, or leaves some parts of the program untested.
What does grey-box testing involve?
5729223faf94a219006aa0d7
having knowledge of internal data structures and algorithms
64
False
What does a grey-box tester not need to run their test?
5729223faf94a219006aa0d8
not required to have full access to the software's source code
232
False
What does not qualify as grey-box testing?
5729223faf94a219006aa0d9
Manipulating input data and formatting output
319
False
algorithms for purposes of designing tests,
113
Grey-box testing involves having knowledge of external data structures and what else?
5a7b898021c2de001afea11a
True
the software's source code
268
The tester is required to have full access to what piece of information?
5a7b898021c2de001afea11b
True
grey-box
383
Manipulating data and formatting input do not qualify as what?
5a7b898021c2de001afea11c
True
when conducting integration testing between two modules of code written by two different developers, where only the interfaces are exposed for test.
547
When is the distinction between black and grey box not important?
5a7b898021c2de001afea11d
True
Grey-box testing (American spelling: gray-box testing) involves having knowledge of internal data structures and algorithms for purposes of designing tests, while executing those tests at the user, or black-box level. The tester is not required to have full access to the software's source code.[not in citation given] Manipulating input data and formatting output do not qualify as grey-box, because the input and output are clearly outside of the "black box" that we are calling the system under test. This distinction is particularly important when conducting integration testing between two modules of code written by two different developers, where only the interfaces are exposed for test.
What dopes a typical grey-box tester sets up?
5729296d6aef051400154afa
an isolated testing environment
209
False
What does the tester execute while performing certain actions?
5729296d6aef051400154afb
SQL statements
397
False
What does a grey-box tester implement when they have limited information?
5729296d6aef051400154afc
intelligent test scenarios
545
False
the tester makes better-informed testing choices while testing the software from outside
62
Knowing the overlying concepts of how software works helps testers how?
5a7b8a9421c2de001afea122
True
isolated
212
A black-box tester will usually be able to set up what type of testing environment?
5a7b8a9421c2de001afea123
True
SQL statements
397
What does the tester execute while preforming certain queries?
5a7b8a9421c2de001afea124
True
intelligent test scenarios
545
Based on lengthy information, what does grey-box testing implement?
5a7b8a9421c2de001afea125
True
By knowing the underlying concepts of how the software works, the tester makes better-informed testing choices while testing the software from outside. Typically, a grey-box tester will be permitted to set up an isolated testing environment with activities such as seeding a database. The tester can observe the state of the product being tested after performing certain actions such as executing SQL statements against the database and then executing queries to ensure that the expected changes have been reflected. Grey-box testing implements intelligent test scenarios, based on limited information. This will particularly apply to data type handling, exception handling, and so on.
What are the four recognized levels of testing software?
57292a631d04691400779105
unit testing, integration testing, component interface testing, and system testing
53
False
What are these test (level testing) typically grouped by?
57292a631d04691400779106
software development process, or by the level of specificity of the test
197
False
What is defined in the SWEBOK guide as to testing the main levels?
57292a631d04691400779107
unit-, integration-, and system testing
353
False
What are the other levels classified by?
57292a631d04691400779108
the testing objective
514
False
unit testing, integration testing, component interface testing, and system testing
53
What are the four unrecognized levels of tests?
5a7b8bc121c2de001afea134
True
by where they are added in the software development process, or by the level of specificity of the test
166
How are test infrequently grouped?
5a7b8bc121c2de001afea135
True
SWEBOK guide
336
What defines all the levels of the development process?
5a7b8bc121c2de001afea136
True
system testing
378
The levels covered in the SWEBOK guide are unit-, reintegration, and what other level?
5a7b8bc121c2de001afea137
True
Other test levels
478
What is classified by the pretesting objective?
5a7b8bc121c2de001afea138
True
There are generally four recognized levels of tests: unit testing, integration testing, component interface testing, and system testing. Tests are frequently grouped by where they are added in the software development process, or by the level of specificity of the test. The main levels during the development process as defined by the SWEBOK guide are unit-, integration-, and system testing that are distinguished by the test target without implying a specific process model. Other test levels are classified by the testing objective.
What is the main reasoning behind Unit testing that involves synchronization of the application on a broad spectrum?
57292bf71d0469140077910d
reduce software development risks, time, and costs
164
False
Who performs the Unit testing phase?
57292bf71d0469140077910e
software developer or engineer
239
False
What does Unit testing look to eliminate?
57292bf71d0469140077910f
construction errors
430
False
By elimination construction errors, what is the expected end result?
57292bf71d04691400779110
increase the quality of the resulting software
510
False
synchronized application of a broad spectrum of defect prevention and detection strategies in order to reduce software development risks, time, and costs.
61
Unit testing is a firmware development that involves what?
5a7b8d4d21c2de001afea158
True
software
239
Unit testing is preformed by the architect or what kind of developer?
5a7b8d4d21c2de001afea159
True
augments
386
Instead of reducing traditional QA focuses, unit testing does what to it?
5a7b8d4d21c2de001afea15a
True
code is promoted to QA
457
Unit testing tries to eliminate collaboration errors before what?
5a7b8d4d21c2de001afea15b
True
Unit testing is a software development process that involves synchronized application of a broad spectrum of defect prevention and detection strategies in order to reduce software development risks, time, and costs. It is performed by the software developer or engineer during the construction phase of the software development lifecycle. Rather than replace traditional QA focuses, it augments it. Unit testing aims to eliminate construction errors before code is promoted to QA; this strategy is intended to increase the quality of the resulting software as well as the efficiency of the overall development and QA process.
What is it called to check data passed between units?
572937f3af94a219006aa1b7
component interface testing
16
False
What is it called when data is being passed?
572937f3af94a219006aa1b8
message packets
238
False
What is an option  of component interface testing  used while sending message packets?
572937f3af94a219006aa1b9
keep a separate log file of data items being passed
435
False
What is a variation of black-box testing?
572937f3af94a219006aa1ba
Component interface testing
829
False
component interface testing
16
What can be used to check the databases passed between units?
5a7b8ea821c2de001afea160
True
message packets
238
What is another name for the data being possessed?
5a7b8ea821c2de001afea161
True
separate log file of data items being passed, often with a timestamp logged to allow analysis of thousands of cases of data passed
442
What is one option for interface integration?
5a7b8ea821c2de001afea162
True
unexpected performance in the next unit
788
Usual data values in an interface can be used to explain what?
5a7b8ea821c2de001afea163
True
Component interface testing
829
What is a variation of black-boxing testing?
5a7b8ea821c2de001afea164
True
The practice of component interface testing can be used to check the handling of data passed between various units, or subsystem components, beyond full integration testing between those units. The data being passed can be considered as "message packets" and the range or data types can be checked, for data generated from one unit, and tested for validity before being passed into another unit. One option for interface testing is to keep a separate log file of data items being passed, often with a timestamp logged to allow analysis of thousands of cases of data passed between units for days or weeks. Tests can include checking the handling of some extreme data values while other interface variables are passed as normal values. Unusual data values in an interface can help explain unexpected performance in the next unit. Component interface testing is a variation of black-box testing, with the focus on the data values beyond just the related actions of a subsystem component.
What is the term used to test software during a pre-release?
572938f31d04691400779187
Operational Acceptance
0
False
What does Operational Acceptance focus on?
572938f31d04691400779188
operational readiness of the system
314
False
What is Operational Acceptance limited to while testing?
572938f31d04691400779189
limited to those tests which are required to verify the non-functional aspects of the system
570
False
to conduct operational readiness (pre-release) of a product, service or system as part of a quality management system.
31
What is Occupational Acceptance used for?
5a7b906021c2de001afea16a
True
OAT
150
What is an uncommon type of functional software testing?
5a7b906021c2de001afea16b
True
limited to those tests which are required to verify the non-functional aspects of the system.
570
What is Operational Acceptance limited to while running?
5a7b906021c2de001afea16c
True
the operational readiness of the system to be supported, and/or to become part of the production environment.
310
OAT focuses the least on what?
5a7b906021c2de001afea16d
True
Operational Acceptance is used to conduct operational readiness (pre-release) of a product, service or system as part of a quality management system. OAT is a common type of non-functional software testing, used mainly in software development and software maintenance projects. This type of testing focuses on the operational readiness of the system to be supported, and/or to become part of the production environment. Hence, it is also known as operational readiness testing (ORT) or Operations readiness and assurance (OR&A) testing. Functional testing within OAT is limited to those tests which are required to verify the non-functional aspects of the system.
What is the most common reason for software failure?
57293bee1d046914007791a5
compatibility with other application software
72
False
What do developers commonly do when creating software that can lead to failures?
57293bee1d046914007791a6
lack of backward compatibility
430
False
What is the most common cause for software failure?
57293d646aef051400154bd0
lack of its compatibility with other application software
60
False
What often lacks in software developed when its released that can eventually lead to errors?
57293d646aef051400154bd1
a lack of backward compatibility
428
False
What does backwards compatibility always seem to be the cause of errors and bugs after a release?
57293d646aef051400154bd2
test software only on the latest version of the target environment
513
False
software failure
18
Lack of compatibility with other application software is an uncommon cause of what?
5a7b93f321c2de001afea172
True
the target
557
Programmers develop software on the earliest version of what environment?
5a7b93f321c2de001afea173
True
compatibility with other application software
72
What is the most uncommon reason for software failure?
5a7b93f321c2de001afea174
True
original
233
Target environments rarely differ greatly from the what?
5a7b93f321c2de001afea175
True
A common cause of software failure (real or perceived) is a lack of its compatibility with other application software, operating systems (or operating system versions, old or new), or target environments that differ greatly from the original (such as a terminal or GUI application intended to be run on the desktop now being required to become a web application, which must render in a web browser). For example, in the case of a lack of backward compatibility, this can occur because the programmers develop and test software only on the latest version of the target environment, which not all users may be running. This results in the unintended consequence that the latest work may not function on earlier versions of the target environment, or on older hardware that earlier versions of the target environment was capable of using. Sometimes such issues can be fixed by proactively abstracting operating system functionality into a separate program module or library.
Finding defects once a change in code had already happened is called?
572940641d046914007791f9
Regression testing
0
False
What happens to software after a major change in code that leads to regression??
572940641d046914007791fa
stops working as intended
306
False
What is a common method used during regression testing?
572940641d046914007791fb
re-running previous sets of test-cases
546
False
What determines how deep a tester will go during regression?
572940641d046914007791fc
phase in the release process and the risk of the added features
683
False
If changes need to occur during the softwares early release with regression testing how much of an impact does this have on the team as related to other testing?
572940641d046914007791fd
typically the largest test effort in commercial software development
995
False
Regression testing
0
What type of testing is used to find defects after minor code changes?
5a7b95b321c2de001afea17a
True
as degraded or lost features
142
How does regression testing classify recovering software regressions?
5a7b95b321c2de001afea17b
True
program changes
394
Usually regressions happen as an intended consequence of what?
5a7b95b321c2de001afea17c
True
re-running previous sets of test-cases and checking whether previously fixed faults have re-emerged
546
What are common methods of regression coding?
5a7b95b321c2de001afea17d
True
Regression testing
973
What is usually the largest test effort in personal software development?
5a7b95b321c2de001afea17e
True
Regression testing focuses on finding defects after a major code change has occurred. Specifically, it seeks to uncover software regressions, as degraded or lost features, including old bugs that have come back. Such regressions occur whenever software functionality that was previously working correctly, stops working as intended. Typically, regressions occur as an unintended consequence of program changes, when the newly developed part of the software collides with the previously existing code. Common methods of regression testing include re-running previous sets of test-cases and checking whether previously fixed faults have re-emerged. The depth of testing depends on the phase in the release process and the risk of the added features. They can either be complete, for changes added late in the release or deemed to be risky, or be very shallow, consisting of positive tests on each feature, if the changes are early in the release or deemed to be of low risk. Regression testing is typically the largest test effort in commercial software development, due to checking numerous details in prior software features, and even new software can be developed while using some old test-cases to test parts of the new design to ensure prior functionality is still supported.
What typically comes after the Alpha stage in the development and testing of software?
5729410f6aef051400154c04
Beta testing
0
False
To whom is the beta testing released to?
5729410f6aef051400154c05
limited audience outside of the programming
173
False
What is it called when a public test continues indefinitely?
5729410f6aef051400154c06
perpetual beta
564
False
Beta testing
0
What type of testing comes before alpha testing?
5a7b96bd21c2de001afea184
True
beta testers.
231
Beta versions are released to a broad audience known as what?
5a7b96bd21c2de001afea185
True
to increase the feedback field to a maximal number of future users and to deliver value earlier
416
Why are alpha version made available to the public?
5a7b96bd21c2de001afea186
True
perpetual beta
564
What is the term for the public test that continues for a definite amount of time?
5a7b96bd21c2de001afea187
True
Beta testing comes after alpha testing and can be considered a form of external user acceptance testing. Versions of the software, known as beta versions, are released to a limited audience outside of the programming team known as beta testers. The software is released to groups of people so that further testing can ensure the product has few faults or bugs. Beta versions can be made available to the open public to increase the feedback field to a maximal number of future users and to deliver value earlier, for an extended or even indefinite period of time (perpetual beta).[citation needed]
What method is used to cause a system to fail?
5729429a6aef051400154c18
Destructive testing
0
False
What does Destructive testing verify?
5729429a6aef051400154c19
software functions properly even when it receives invalid or unexpected inputs
97
False
What is one example of failure testing?
5729429a6aef051400154c1a
Software fault injection
281
False
attempts to cause the software or a sub-system to fail
20
Destruction testing does what?
5a7b97a121c2de001afea18c
True
software functions properly even when it receives invalid or unexpected inputs,
97
What does destruction testing verify?
5a7b97a121c2de001afea18d
True
fuzzing
322
What is an example of software fault injecture?
5a7b97a121c2de001afea18e
True
perform destructive testing.
539
There are very few open-source and free tools that do what?
5a7b97a121c2de001afea18f
True
Destructive testing attempts to cause the software or a sub-system to fail. It verifies that the software functions properly even when it receives invalid or unexpected inputs, thereby establishing the robustness of input validation and error-management routines.[citation needed] Software fault injection, in the form of fuzzing, is an example of failure testing. Various commercial non-functional testing tools are linked from the software fault injection page; there are also numerous open-source and free software tools available that perform destructive testing.
What method is used to test software under a specific load?
57294dae6aef051400154c7e
Load testing
0
False
What two methods can be used when using Load Testing?
57294dae6aef051400154c7f
data or a large number of users
148
False
What is called to test software functions when certain components increase in side?
57294dae6aef051400154c80
Volume testing
360
False
What is Stable testing also called?
57294dae6aef051400154c81
endurance testing
629
False
What method is used to test components under unexpected workloads?
57294dae6aef051400154c82
Stress testing
501
False
Load testing
0
What method is used to test firmware under a specific load?
5a7b98f621c2de001afea194
True
data or a large number of users
148
What two methods cannot be used when using Load Testing?
5a7b98f621c2de001afea195
True
when certain components (for example a file or database) increase radically in size.
416
Volume Testing is a way to test firmware when?
5a7b98f621c2de001afea196
True
Stress testing
501
Testing reliability under expected or rare workload is called what?
5a7b98f621c2de001afea197
True
Load testing is primarily concerned with testing that the system can continue to operate under a specific load, whether that be large quantities of data or a large number of users. This is generally referred to as software scalability. The related load testing activity of when performed as a non-functional activity is often referred to as endurance testing. Volume testing is a way to test software functions even when certain components (for example a file or database) increase radically in size. Stress testing is a way to test reliability under unexpected or rare workloads. Stability testing (often referred to as load or endurance testing) checks to see if the software can continuously function well in or above an acceptable period.
What method is used that involves synchronization of a application?
57294ea7af94a219006aa27f
Development Testing
0
False
When is development testing used?
57294ea7af94a219006aa280
construction phase of the software development lifecycle
288
False
What does Development testing look to eliminate?
57294ea7af94a219006aa281
construction errors
444
False
Development Testing
0
What method is used that involved syncopation of an application?
5a7b9a8521c2de001afea1a6
True
construction phase of the software development lifecycle
288
When is development testing not used?
5a7b9a8521c2de001afea1a7
True
QA
491
Development Testing attempts to eliminate instruction errors before code is promoted where?
5a7b9a8521c2de001afea1a8
True
software developer or engineer
246
Development Testing is designed by who?
5a7b9a8521c2de001afea1a9
True
Development Testing is a software development process that involves synchronized application of a broad spectrum of defect prevention and detection strategies in order to reduce software development risks, time, and costs. It is performed by the software developer or engineer during the construction phase of the software development lifecycle. Rather than replace traditional QA focuses, it augments it. Development Testing aims to eliminate construction errors before code is promoted to QA; this strategy is intended to increase the quality of the resulting software as well as the efficiency of the overall development and QA process.
Which two current movements adhere to the "test-driven software development"?
57295082af94a219006aa295
extreme programming and the agile software development
56
False
Under the development of agile software and extreme programing what is written first?
57295082af94a219006aa296
unit tests are written first
192
False
What is the goal of Unit testing?
57295082af94a219006aa297
achieve continuous integration where software updates can be published to the public frequently
902
False
extreme programming and the agile software development
56
Which two old movements adhere to the "test-driven software development?"
5a7b9b6521c2de001afea1ae
True
unit tests are written first
192
Under the development of fragile software and extreme programming what is written first?
5a7b9b6521c2de001afea1af
True
published to the public frequently
963
The goal of unit testing is to achieve discontinuous integration where software updates can be what?
5a7b9b6521c2de001afea1b0
True
In contrast, some emerging software disciplines such as extreme programming and the agile software development movement, adhere to a "test-driven software development" model. In this process, unit tests are written first, by the software engineers (often with pair programming in the extreme programming methodology). Of course these tests fail initially; as they are expected to. Then as code is written it passes incrementally larger portions of the test suites. The test suites are continuously updated as new failure conditions and corner cases are discovered, and they are integrated with any regression tests that are developed. Unit tests are maintained along with the rest of the software source code and generally integrated into the build process (with inherently interactive tests being relegated to a partially manual build acceptance process). The ultimate goal of this test process is to achieve continuous integration where software updates can be published to the public frequently.
What three components make up Bottom Up Testing?
5729525c6aef051400154cdc
modules, procedures, and functions
90
False
Bottom Up Testing helps facilitate the testing of what?
5729525c6aef051400154cdd
the testing of higher level components
183
False
What does Bottom Up Testing also help with once the process has been repeated over and over again at all levels?
5729525c6aef051400154cde
makes it easier to report testing progress in the form of a percentage
648
False
Bottom Up Testing
0
When the highest level components are tested first, the testing process is called what?
5a7b9cdb21c2de001afea1be
True
modules, procedures, and functions
90
What three components make up Bottom Down Testing?
5a7b9cdb21c2de001afea1bf
True
development level
529
This approach only works when half of the modules of the same what are ready?
5a7b9cdb21c2de001afea1c0
True
report testing progress in the form of a percentage
667
Bottom Up Testing helps determine levels of software developed and makes it harder to complete what?
5a7b9cdb21c2de001afea1c1
True
Bottom Up Testing is an approach to integrated testing where the lowest level components (modules, procedures, and functions) are tested first, then integrated and used to facilitate the testing of higher level components. After the integration testing of lower level integrated modules, the next level of modules will be formed and can be used for integration testing. The process is repeated until the components at the top of the hierarchy are tested. This approach is helpful only when all or most of the modules of the same development level are ready.[citation needed] This method also helps to determine the levels of software developed and makes it easier to report testing progress in the form of a percentage.[citation needed]
If the number of states is unknown, what group does this fall into?
572954a83f37b31900478261
Class II
437
False
There are three classes, what has been concluded and proven for all classes?
572954a83f37b31900478262
each class is strictly included into the next
24
False
If the number of states are unknown and the finite state of the machine is failing for a single trace, which group does this fall into?
572954a83f37b31900478263
Class III
672
False
the next
61
It has been disproved that each class is included into what?
5a7b9e5821c2de001afea1ce
True
Class I
311
If there are infinite sets of inputs and outputs, the states belong to what class?
5a7b9e5821c2de001afea1cf
True
the simplicity of the assumed computation model,
1006
The inclusion into Class I requires what?
5a7b9e5821c2de001afea1d0
True
testing framework
1295
Matthew Hennessy wrote what?
5a7b9e5821c2de001afea1d1
True
It has been proved that each class is strictly included into the next. For instance, testing when we assume that the behavior of the implementation under test can be denoted by a deterministic finite-state machine for some known finite sets of inputs and outputs and with some known number of states belongs to Class I (and all subsequent classes). However, if the number of states is not known, then it only belongs to all classes from Class II on. If the implementation under test must be a deterministic finite-state machine failing the specification for a single trace (and its continuations), and its number of states is unknown, then it only belongs to classes from Class III on. Testing temporal machines where transitions are triggered if inputs are produced within some real-bounded interval only belongs to classes from Class IV on, whereas testing many non-deterministic systems only belongs to Class V (but not all, and some even belong to Class I). The inclusion into Class I does not require the simplicity of the assumed computation model, as some testing cases involving implementations written in any programming language, and testing implementations defined as machines depending on continuous magnitudes, have been proved to be in Class I. Other elaborated cases, such as the testing framework by Matthew Hennessy under must semantics, and temporal machines with rational timeouts, belong to Class II.
With several certifications out there that can be aquired, what is the one trait they all share?
572955e1af94a219006aa2cd
requires the applicant to show their ability to test software
170
False
What has the inability for the applicant to show how well they test led to?
572955e1af94a219006aa2ce
testing field is not ready for certification
337
False
What four traits can a certification not measure?
572955e1af94a219006aa2cf
individual's productivity, their skill, or practical knowledge
422
False
certification programs
8
What programs are available to support non-professional aspirations of software testers?
5a7b9f0621c2de001afea1e0
True
No certification
132
What certification requires applicants to demonstrate ability?
5a7b9f0621c2de001afea1e1
True
certification
368
Some say the testing field is ready for what?
5a7b9f0621c2de001afea1e2
True
productivity, their skill, or practical knowledge,
435
Certification is a measure of what?
5a7b9f0621c2de001afea1e3
True
Several certification programs exist to support the professional aspirations of software testers and quality assurance specialists. No certification now offered actually requires the applicant to show their ability to test software. No certification is based on a widely accepted body of knowledge. This has led some to declare that the testing field is not ready for certification. Certification itself cannot measure an individual's productivity, their skill, or practical knowledge, and cannot guarantee their competence, or professionalism as a tester.
What makes up part of the SQA?
572958236aef051400154d24
Software testing
0
False
What is the primary concern for the software specialist and auditors?
572958236aef051400154d25
software development process
152
False
What type of software would have a better defect tolerance?
572958236aef051400154d26
video game
519
False
Software testing is a part of the software quality assurance (SQA) process.:347 In SQA, software process specialists and auditors are concerned for the software development process rather than just the artifacts such as documentation, code and systems. They examine and change the software engineering process itself to reduce the number of faults that end up in the delivered software: the so-called "defect rate". What constitutes an "acceptable defect rate" depends on the nature of the software; A flight simulator video game would have much higher defect tolerance than software for an actual airplane. Although there are close links with SQA, testing departments often exist independently, and there may be no SQA function in some companies.[citation needed]
States_of_Germany
How many states are in Germany?
57290d70af94a219006a9feb
sixteen
44
False
What is the German terms for states?
57290d70af94a219006a9fec
Bundesland, or Land
76
False
Which cities are called Stadtstaaten, other than Bremen?
57290d70af94a219006a9fed
Berlin and Hamburg
316
False
How many states are called "Flächenländer"?
57290d70af94a219006a9fee
13
501
False
The Free Hanseatic City of Bremen includes which cities?
57290d70af94a219006a9fef
Bremen and Bremerhaven
463
False
sixteen
44
How many federal states are in Stadtstaaten?
5a47234c5fd40d001a27dd4d
True
Stadtstaaten (city-states)
357
What are Bremen and Bremerhaven frequently called?
5a47234c5fd40d001a27dd4e
True
a measure of sovereignty
245
What does Flachenlander still have?
5a47234c5fd40d001a27dd4f
True
the Free Hanseatic City of Bremen
391
What city state contains the cities of Berlin and Hamberg?
5a47234c5fd40d001a27dd50
True
an earlier collection of several states
139
What were the cities of Berlin and Hamberg formed from?
5a47234c5fd40d001a27dd51
True
federal republic
13
What kind of republic is Switzerland?
5a513c24ce860b001aa3fc4b
True
Bundesland
76
What is one of the sixteen federal states of Germany?
5a513c24ce860b001aa3fc4c
True
Hamburg
327
What is one of Germany's constituent states?
5a513c24ce860b001aa3fc4d
True
Berlin
316
What is the name of a state in Germany that is not a city-state?
5a513c24ce860b001aa3fc4e
True
13 states
501
Flachenlander is one of how many states in Germany?
5a513c24ce860b001aa3fc4f
True
Germany is a federal republic consisting of sixteen federal states (German: Bundesland, or Land).[a] Since today's Germany was formed from an earlier collection of several states, it has a federal constitution, and the constituent states retain a measure of sovereignty. With an emphasis on geographical conditions, Berlin and Hamburg are frequently called Stadtstaaten (city-states), as is the Free Hanseatic City of Bremen, which in fact includes the cities of Bremen and Bremerhaven. The remaining 13 states are called Flächenländer (literally: area states).
When was the Federal Republic of Germany created
57290e1f1d04691400778feb
1949
51
False
Which countries administrations was the Federal Republic of Germany previously under?
57290e1f1d04691400778fec
American, British, and French
135
False
Which city was originally not a part of the Federal Republic of Germany?
57290e1f1d04691400778fed
West Berlin
537
False
What was the Federal Republic of Germany created in the aftermath of?
57290e1f1d04691400778fee
World War II
209
False
in 1949
48
When was the Federal Republic of France created?
5a47261d5fd40d001a27dd57
True
World War II
209
After what event was France created in 1949?
5a47261d5fd40d001a27dd58
True
West Berlin
537
Which area was not officially a part of Bavaria?
5a47261d5fd40d001a27dd59
True
under American, British, and French administration
129
Who was in control of West Berlin before WWII?
5a47261d5fd40d001a27dd5a
True
West Berlin
537
What state was officially not a part of Britain?
5a47261d5fd40d001a27dd5b
True
the Federal Republic
16
What was created in 1959 in Germany?
5a513c27ce860b001aa3fc55
True
British
145
What is one of the administrations of the eastern states?
5a513c27ce860b001aa3fc56
True
Federal Republic of Germany
20
What was founded before World War II?
5a513c27ce860b001aa3fc57
True
West Berlin
537
What area has always been a part of the Federal Republic of Germany?
5a513c27ce860b001aa3fc58
True
World War II
209
Which war was the Federal Republic of Germany created before?
5a513c27ce860b001aa3fc59
True
The creation of the Federal Republic of Germany in 1949 was through the unification of the western states (which were previously under American, British, and French administration) created in the aftermath of World War II. Initially, in 1949, the states of the Federal Republic were Baden, Bavaria (in German: Bayern), Bremen, Hamburg, Hesse (Hessen), Lower Saxony (Niedersachsen), North Rhine Westphalia (Nordrhein-Westfalen), Rhineland-Palatinate (Rheinland-Pfalz), Schleswig-Holstein, Württemberg-Baden, and Württemberg-Hohenzollern. West Berlin, while officially not part of the Federal Republic, was largely integrated and considered as a de facto state.
Which city did Baden, Württemberg-Baden, and Württemberg-Hohenzollern merge into?
57290ee56aef051400154a04
Baden-Württemberg
100
False
In what year did Baden, Württemberg-Baden, and Württemberg-Hohenzollern merge?
57290ee56aef051400154a05
1952
3
False
In 1957, the Saar Protectorate rejoined the Federal Republic as which city?
57290ee56aef051400154a06
Saarland
187
False
When did the German reunification take place?
57290ee56aef051400154a07
1990
221
False
Why did a regional referendum in 1996 to merge Berlin with surrounding Brandenburg fail?
57290ee56aef051400154a08
failed to reach the necessary majority vote in Brandenburg
749
False
Baden, Württemberg-Baden, and Württemberg-Hohenzollern
33
In 1957 what merged into Baden-Wurttemberg?
5a472b735fd40d001a27dd61
True
to merge Berlin with surrounding Brandenburg as "Berlin-Brandenburg"
680
What did a majority of Berliners vote for in 1957?
5a472b735fd40d001a27dd62
True
failed to reach the necessary majority vote
749
What happened to the referendum in 1990 to merge East Berlin with Saxony?
5a472b735fd40d001a27dd63
True
1990
221
In what year did the Brandenberg reunification take place?
5a472b735fd40d001a27dd64
True
the Federal Republic
159
What did the Baden Protectorate rejoin in 1990?
5a472b735fd40d001a27dd65
True
Württemberg-Hohenzollern merged into Baden-Württemberg
63
Which areas merged together in 1957?
5a513c2ace860b001aa3fc5f
True
In 1957
119
When did Saarland leave the Federal Republic?
5a513c2ace860b001aa3fc60
True
West and East Berlin
568
What states became Berlin in 1980?
5a513c2ace860b001aa3fc61
True
1952
3
What year did Baden split from Württemberg-Baden, and Württemberg-Hohenzollern
5a513c2ace860b001aa3fc62
True
Germany
273
In 1980 which country was reunified?
5a513c2ace860b001aa3fc63
True
In 1952, following a referendum, Baden, Württemberg-Baden, and Württemberg-Hohenzollern merged into Baden-Württemberg. In 1957, the Saar Protectorate rejoined the Federal Republic as the Saarland. German reunification in 1990, in which the German Democratic Republic (East Germany) ascended into the Federal Republic, resulted in the addition of the re-established eastern states of Brandenburg, Mecklenburg-West Pomerania (in German Mecklenburg-Vorpommern), Saxony (Sachsen), Saxony-Anhalt (Sachsen-Anhalt), and Thuringia (Thüringen), as well as the reunification of West and East Berlin into Berlin and its establishment as a full and equal state. A regional referendum in 1996 to merge Berlin with surrounding Brandenburg as "Berlin-Brandenburg" failed to reach the necessary majority vote in Brandenburg, while a majority of Berliners voted in favour of the merger.
What is an entrenched constitutional principle in Germany?
572912746aef051400154a26
Federalism
0
False
In Germany, foreign affairs is under the exclusive purvey of what?
572912746aef051400154a27
the federation
243
False
What is an example of what states retain authority over?
572912746aef051400154a28
culture
445
False
The states defend their interests at the federal level through what?
572912746aef051400154a29
the Bundesrat
883
False
Whose consent do the states need to make international treaties?
572912746aef051400154a2a
the federal government
1107
False
Federalism
0
What is one of the entrenched legislative authorities of Bundesrat?
5a4731935fd40d001a27dd6b
True
Grundgesetz
119
What is another word for foreign affairs?
5a4731935fd40d001a27dd6c
True
foreign affairs and defense
178
What do the states have exclusive responsibility of?
5a4731935fd40d001a27dd6d
True
the Bundesrat
883
What does German culture use to defend its interests at the federal level?
5a4731935fd40d001a27dd6e
True
financial promotion of arts and sciences, but also most forms of education and job training
505
What areas do international relations also include?
5a4731935fd40d001a27dd6f
True
Federalism
0
Which political system is not used in Germany?
5a513c30ce860b001aa3fc69
True
foreign affairs
178
What is a topic that is the exclusive responsibility of the state?
5a513c30ce860b001aa3fc6a
True
Bundesrat
887
What is the federal system is defended through?
5a513c30ce860b001aa3fc6b
True
international treaties
1063
What sole power do the states hold that require no consent of the federal government?
5a513c30ce860b001aa3fc6c
True
international treaties
1063
What do the states hold the exclusive power to negotiate?
5a513c30ce860b001aa3fc6d
True
Federalism is one of the entrenched constitutional principles of Germany. According to the German constitution (called Grundgesetz or in English Basic Law), some topics, such as foreign affairs and defense, are the exclusive responsibility of the federation (i.e., the federal level), while others fall under the shared authority of the states and the federation; the states retain residual legislative authority for all other areas, including "culture", which in Germany includes not only topics such as financial promotion of arts and sciences, but also most forms of education and job training. Though international relations including international treaties are primarily the responsibility of the federal level, the constituent states have certain limited powers in this area: in matters that affect them directly, the states defend their interests at the federal level through the Bundesrat (literally Federal Council, the upper house of the German Federal Parliament) and in areas where they have legislative authority they have limited powers to conclude international treaties "with the consent of the federal government".
What does the term Länder date back to?
572913111d0469140077901b
the Weimar Constitution of 1919
49
False
Before 1919 what were the German states called?
572913111d0469140077901c
Staaten
156
False
What does Bavaria refer to itself as?
572913111d0469140077901d
Freistaaten
395
False
How many free states are there in Germany?
572913111d0469140077901e
three
710
False
What are the two city-states in Germany?
572913111d0469140077901f
Hamburg and Bremen
756
False
Länder (Lands)
20
What term dates back to the Basic Law Constitution of 1990?
5a4736e95fd40d001a27dd75
True
Staaten (States)
156
What were the states of Saxony called before 1919?
5a4736e95fd40d001a27dd76
True
Bundesland (Federal Land)
215
What term is commonly used today for the Weimar Republic?
5a4736e95fd40d001a27dd77
True
Hamburg and Bremen
756
What two city-states are in Bavaria?
5a4736e95fd40d001a27dd78
True
Freistaaten
395
What term is the old-fashioned Hamberg term for constitution?
5a4736e95fd40d001a27dd79
True
1919
76
What year was the German Constitution written?
5a513e8ece860b001aa3fc7d
True
Staaten
156
What were the constituent states of the German Empire called after 1919?
5a513e8ece860b001aa3fc7e
True
Bundesland
215
What term was used by the Basic Law of 1949?
5a513e8ece860b001aa3fc7f
True
Hamburg
756
What is the only state that is considered a city-state in Germany?
5a513e8ece860b001aa3fc80
True
Freistaaten
395
What term is used for the states that are not considered free states?
5a513e8ece860b001aa3fc81
True
The use of the term Länder (Lands) dates back to the Weimar Constitution of 1919. Before this time, the constituent states of the German Empire were called Staaten (States). Today, it is very common to use the term Bundesland (Federal Land). However, this term is not used officially, neither by the constitution of 1919 nor by the Basic Law (Constitution) of 1949. Three Länder call themselves Freistaaten (Free States, which is the old-fashioned German expression for Republic), Bavaria (since 1919), Saxony (originally since 1919 and again since 1990), and Thuringia (since 1994). There is little continuity between the current states and their predecessors of the Weimar Republic with the exception of the three free states, and the two city-states of Hamburg and Bremen.
What keeps being debated in Germany?
5729145a3f37b31900477fff
delimitation of the federal territory
6
False
What does Gunlick remark that the German System of  dual federalism requires strong Länder to have other than the capacity to implement legislation?
5729145a3f37b31900478000
pay for it from own source revenues
525
False
How many proposals have failed so far?
5729145a3f37b31900478001
several
663
False
delimitation of the federal territory
6
What keeps being debated in America?
5a47387c5fd40d001a27dd7f
True
make coordination among them and with the federation more complicated
583
What happens if there are too many regional governments?
5a47387c5fd40d001a27dd80
True
several proposals
663
What has failed so far in America?
5a47387c5fd40d001a27dd81
True
a controversial topic
728
How is the topic of coordination seen according to the public in America?
5a47387c5fd40d001a27dd82
True
strong Länder
433
What does the system of regional government need in America?
5a47387c5fd40d001a27dd83
True
delimitation of the federal territory
6
What is a settled question in Germany?
5a5140ccce860b001aa3fc87
True
there are significant differences among the American states
108
Why are there calls for territorial changes?
5a5140ccce860b001aa3fc88
True
boundary reform
354
What was Arthur B. Gunlicks not in favor of?
5a5140ccce860b001aa3fc89
True
the German system of dual federalism requires strong Länder
387
What is one argument for increasing the number of Lander?
5a5140ccce860b001aa3fc8a
True
territorial reform
701
What changes have been successfully implemented in Germany?
5a5140ccce860b001aa3fc8b
True
A new delimitation of the federal territory keeps being debated in Germany, though "Some scholars note that there are significant differences among the American states and regional governments in other federations without serious calls for territorial changes ...", as political scientist Arthur B. Gunlicks remarks. He summarizes the main arguments for boundary reform in Germany: "... the German system of dual federalism requires strong Länder that have the administrative and fiscal capacity to implement legislation and pay for it from own source revenues. Too many Länder also make coordination among them and with the federation more complicated ...". But several proposals have failed so far; territorial reform remains a controversial topic in German politics and public perception.
The Holy Roman Empire comprised of how many petty states?
5729153baf94a219006aa055
more than 300
111
False
The number of territories was greatly reduced during what?
5729153baf94a219006aa056
the Napoleonic Wars
191
False
A North German Federation under Prussian hegemony replaced what confederation?
5729153baf94a219006aa057
the German Confederation
278
False
How much of the population did Prussia control?
5729153baf94a219006aa058
62%
887
False
How much of the land did Prussia control?
5729153baf94a219006aa059
65%
862
False
Federalism
0
What has a long tradition in the history of the Holy Roman Empire?
5a473e445fd40d001a27dd89
True
more than 300
111
From 1796-1814 how many petty states were part of Germany?
5a473e445fd40d001a27dd8a
True
39
261
After the Napoleonic Wars how many states formed the North German Federation?
5a473e445fd40d001a27dd8b
True
after the Austro-Prussian War
336
When was the Holy Roman Empire dissolved?
5a473e445fd40d001a27dd8c
True
a North German Federation
382
What was the Holy Roman Empire replaced with?
5a473e445fd40d001a27dd8d
True
Federalism
0
What is a recent political tradition in Germany?
5a51421bce860b001aa3fc91
True
more than 300
111
How many states did Germany have by 1796?
5a51421bce860b001aa3fc92
True
1815
254
What year was the Congress of Rome held?
5a51421bce860b001aa3fc93
True
Prussian hegemony
414
Under who was the German Confederation formed?
5a51421bce860b001aa3fc94
True
Hanseatic cities
743
What kind of cities did the 25 states of the new German Empire have?
5a51421bce860b001aa3fc95
True
Federalism has a long tradition in German history. The Holy Roman Empire comprised many petty states numbering more than 300 around 1796. The number of territories was greatly reduced during the Napoleonic Wars (1796–1814). After the Congress of Vienna (1815), 39 states formed the German Confederation. The Confederation was dissolved after the Austro-Prussian War and replaced by a North German Federation under Prussian hegemony; this war left Prussia dominant in Germany, and German nationalism would compel the remaining independent states to ally with Prussia in the Franco-Prussian War of 1870–71, and then to accede to the crowning of King Wilhelm of Prussia as German Emperor. The new German Empire included 25 states (three of them, Hanseatic cities) and the imperial territory of Alsace-Lorraine. The empire was dominated by Prussia, which controlled 65% of the territory and 62% of the population. After the territorial losses of the Treaty of Versailles, the remaining states continued as republics of a new German federation. These states were gradually de facto abolished and reduced to provinces under the Nazi regime via the Gleichschaltung process, as the states administratively were largely superseded by the Nazi Gau system.
Who redrew Germany's internal borders after World War II?
57291636af94a219006aa065
Allied military governments
97
False
No single state comprised of how much of the population after World War II?
57291636af94a219006aa066
30%
162
False
After WWII how many states initially remained in Germany?
57291636af94a219006aa067
seven
331
False
Former German territory that lie east of the Oder-Neisse Line went under which countries administration?
57291636af94a219006aa068
Polish or Soviet administration
785
False
How many made to establish new states in the territories  lying east of the Oder-Neisse Line?
57291636af94a219006aa069
no attempts
919
False
Allied military governments
97
Who was responsible for changing Prussia's internal borders?
5a47438f5fd40d001a27dd93
True
more than 30%
152
What did no single Rhineland make up more of in population or territory?
5a47438f5fd40d001a27dd94
True
seven
331
In the beginning how many states were left in Prussia after WWII?
5a47438f5fd40d001a27dd95
True
Polish or Soviet administration
785
Under who's administration were the occupation powers east of the Oder-Neisse Line?
5a47438f5fd40d001a27dd96
True
sovereignty
877
What was not abandoned in territory east of Prussia until after WWII?
5a47438f5fd40d001a27dd97
True
internal borders
60
What was redrawn during the allied occupation after WW I
5a514695ce860b001aa3fca3
True
Allied military governments
97
Who redrew internal borders after WW I?
5a514695ce860b001aa3fca4
True
Prussia
285
What place comprised 30% of territory after WW II?
5a514695ce860b001aa3fca5
True
Soviet administration
795
Who did the territory belong to that was west of the Oder-Neisse Line?
5a514695ce860b001aa3fca6
True
well into the 1960s
889
When were attempts to abandon sovereignty made?
5a514695ce860b001aa3fca7
True
During the Allied occupation of Germany after World War II, internal borders were redrawn by the Allied military governments. No single state comprised more than 30% of either population or territory; this was intended to prevent any one state from being as dominant within Germany as Prussia had been in the past. Initially, only seven of the pre-War states remained: Baden (in part), Bavaria (reduced in size), Bremen, Hamburg, Hesse (enlarged), Saxony, and Thuringia. The states with hyphenated names, such as Rhineland-Palatinate, North Rhine-Westphalia, and Saxony-Anhalt, owed their existence to the occupation powers and were created out of mergers of former Prussian provinces and smaller states. Former German territory that lie east of the Oder-Neisse Line fell under either Polish or Soviet administration but attempts were made at least symbolically not to abandon sovereignty well into the 1960s. However, no attempts were made to establish new states in these territories as they lay outside the jurisdiction of West Germany at that time.
How many states did West Germany have at its founding?
57291a3e1d04691400779035
eleven
44
False
What was West Berlin under the sovereignty of?
57291a3e1d04691400779036
Western Allies
460
False
Which state was West Berlin apart of?
57291a3e1d04691400779037
neither a Western German state nor part of one
479
False
When did the Saarland form?
57291a3e1d04691400779038
1957
228
False
How many states was Germany reduced to in 1952
57291a3e1d04691400779039
1952
89
False
eleven
44
When South Baden was formed in 1952, how many states were there?
5a4745ff5fd40d001a27dd9d
True
nine
81
What were the number of states reduced to in Saar Protectorate in 1949?
5a4745ff5fd40d001a27dd9e
True
(South Baden, Württemberg-Hohenzollern, and Württemberg-Baden)
126
What states merged to form Saarland in 1952?
5a4745ff5fd40d001a27dd9f
True
the Western Allies
456
Who was South Baden under the authority of?
5a4745ff5fd40d001a27dda0
True
special status
602
What kind of status did Saarland have when integrated with West Germany?
5a4745ff5fd40d001a27dda1
True
nine
81
How many states did West Germany add after it's founding in 1952?
5a514b63ce860b001aa3fcbd
True
1949
21
When was East Germany founded?
5a514b63ce860b001aa3fcbe
True
1957
228
When was the Saar Protectorate given to the French?
5a514b63ce860b001aa3fcbf
True
Federal Republic
324
What are referred to as the 'new states'?
5a514b63ce860b001aa3fcc0
True
Western German
489
What German state did West Berlin fall under?
5a514b63ce860b001aa3fcc1
True
Upon its founding in 1949, West Germany had eleven states. These were reduced to nine in 1952 when three south-western states (South Baden, Württemberg-Hohenzollern, and Württemberg-Baden) merged to form Baden-Württemberg. From 1957, when the French-occupied Saar Protectorate was returned and formed into the Saarland, the Federal Republic consisted of ten states, which are referred to as the "Old States" today. West Berlin was under the sovereignty of the Western Allies and neither a Western German state nor part of one. However, it was in many ways de facto integrated with West Germany under a special status.
What was the German constitution later amended to say about the citizens of the 16 states?
57291cb03f37b3190047802d
had successfully achieved the unity of Germany
80
False
Article 23, before it was rephrased allowed what?
57291cb03f37b3190047802e
"any other parts of Germany" to join
249
False
Which state was Article 23 used to reintegrate?
57291cb03f37b3190047802f
Saar Protectorate
346
False
The amended article 23 now defines the participation of the Federal Council and what else?
57291cb03f37b31900478030
the 16 German states
547
False
the constitution
7
What was amended to signify that Basic Law no longer applied to the German people?
5a514d0bce860b001aa3fcd7
True
allowed "any other parts of Germany" to join
241
How was article 23 rephrased to reintegrate the Saar Protectorate?
5a514d0bce860b001aa3fcd8
True
Article 23
219
What was used as a model for German Reunification in 1980?
5a514d0bce860b001aa3fcd9
True
Article 23
219
Which article does the Federal Council define?
5a514d0bce860b001aa3fcda
True
16
551
How many states are a part of the German Union?
5a514d0bce860b001aa3fcdb
True
Later, the constitution was amended to state that the citizens of the 16 states had successfully achieved the unity of Germany in free self-determination and that the Basic Law thus applied to the entire German people. Article 23, which had allowed "any other parts of Germany" to join, was rephrased. It had been used in 1957 to reintegrate the Saar Protectorate as the Saarland into the Federal Republic, and this was used as a model for German reunification in 1990. The amended article now defines the participation of the Federal Council and the 16 German states in matters concerning the European Union.
What has been discussed since the Federal Republic was founded in 1949?
57291d241d04691400779065
new delimitation of the federal territory
2
False
What have experts advocated in regards to delimitation?
57291d241d04691400779066
a reduction of the number of states
171
False
What is propagated by the richer states as a means to avoid or reduce fiscal transfers?
57291d241d04691400779067
Territorial reform
415
False
1949
105
Since when has the delimitation of state territories been discussed?
5a514ec4ce860b001aa3fce7
True
Committees and expert commissions
127
Who advocated an increase in the number of states?
5a514ec4ce860b001aa3fce8
True
redrawing boundaries
340
Which public discussions had far-reaching appeal?
5a514ec4ce860b001aa3fce9
True
to avoid or reduce fiscal transfers
490
Why do poorer states propagate territorial reform?
5a514ec4ce860b001aa3fcea
True
reduce fiscal transfers
502
What advantage is it for richer states if territorial reform is enacted?
5a514ec4ce860b001aa3fceb
True
A new delimitation of the federal territory has been discussed since the Federal Republic was founded in 1949 and even before. Committees and expert commissions advocated a reduction of the number of states; academics (Rutz, Miegel, Ottnad etc.) and politicians (Döring, Apel, and others) made proposals –  some of them far-reaching –  for redrawing boundaries but hardly anything came of these public discussions. Territorial reform is sometimes propagated by the richer states as a means to avoid or reduce fiscal transfers.
When did the debate on delimitation begin in Germany?
57291e663f37b31900478039
1919
68
False
Who was the father of the Weimar Constitution?
57291e663f37b3190047803a
Hugo Preuss
124
False
How many states was the German Reich to divided into?
57291e663f37b3190047803b
14
223
False
Until 1933 how many configurations in the German states occurred?
57291e663f37b3190047803c
four
623
False
When did Pyrmont join Prussia?
57291e663f37b3190047803d
1922
784
False
1919
68
When did the debate on the new constitution began?
5a515069ce860b001aa3fcf9
True
Hugo Preuss
124
Who was the father of the German Constitution?
5a515069ce860b001aa3fcfa
True
Hugo Preuss
124
Who drafted a plan to divide the German territory into 14 unequal states?
5a515069ce860b001aa3fcfb
True
high hurdles
437
What made it impossible to enable new delimitation in article 18?
5a515069ce860b001aa3fcfc
True
the alteration of territory
558
What could be decided with a simple majority of votes?
5a515069ce860b001aa3fcfd
True
The debate on a new delimitation of the German territory started in 1919 as part of discussions about the new constitution. Hugo Preuss, the father of the Weimar Constitution, drafted a plan to divide the German Reich into 14 roughly equal-sized states. His proposal was turned down due to opposition of the states and concerns of the government. Article 18 of the constitution enabled a new delimitation of the German territory but set high hurdles: Three fifth of the votes handed in, and at least the majority of the population are necessary to decide on the alteration of territory. In fact, until 1933 there were only four changes in the configuration of the German states: The 7 Thuringian states were merged in 1920, whereby Coburg opted for Bavaria, Pyrmont joined Prussia in 1922, and Waldeck did so in 1929. Any later plans to break up the dominating Prussia into smaller states failed because political circumstances were not favorable to state reforms.
When did the Nazi Party seize power?
57291f33af94a219006aa0a7
January 1933
37
False
What happened to the Länder as they lost importance during the Nazi regime?
57291f33af94a219006aa0a8
They became administrative regions
92
False
on January 1, 1934, Mecklenburg-Schwerin was united with which state?
57291f33af94a219006aa0a9
Mecklenburg-Strelitz
265
False
When did the Greater Hamburg Act occur?
57291f33af94a219006aa0aa
April 1, 1937
347
False
Which Prussian province did Lübeck become a part of?
57291f33af94a219006aa0ab
Schleswig-Holstein
482
False
the Nazi Party
6
Who seized power in January of 1934?
5a515229ce860b001aa3fd0b
True
the Nazi Party seized power
6
Why did the Lander increase in power after 1933?
5a515229ce860b001aa3fd0c
True
Hamburg Act
307
What act allowed the reduction of the area for the united Mecklenburg-Schwerin and Mecklenburg-Strelitz?
5a515229ce860b001aa3fd0d
True
Lübeck
409
Who gained their independence in 1937?
5a515229ce860b001aa3fd0e
True
April 1, 1937
347
When did Schleswig-Holstein become a part of the Prussian province?
5a515229ce860b001aa3fd0f
True
After the Nazi Party seized power in January 1933, the Länder increasingly lost importance. They became administrative regions of a centralised country. Three changes are of particular note: on January 1, 1934, Mecklenburg-Schwerin was united with the neighbouring Mecklenburg-Strelitz; and, by the Greater Hamburg Act (Groß-Hamburg-Gesetz), from April 1, 1937, the area of the city-state was extended, while Lübeck lost its independence and became part of the Prussian province of Schleswig-Holstein.
In the revision of Article 29, what was a binding provision for a new delimitation of the federal territory?
57292188af94a219006aa0cf
the Federal Territory must be revised
248
False
How much of the population must have been in favor of the revision?
57292188af94a219006aa0d0
one tenth
585
False
What was required in each territory or part of a territory whose affiliation was to be changed?
57292188af94a219006aa0d1
a referendum
752
False
Which paragraph stated that reorganization should be completed within three years after the Basic Law had come into force?
57292188af94a219006aa0d2
paragraph 6
1231
False
Parliamentary Council
67
Who addressed an issue if the premiers came to an agreement?
5a515692ce860b001aa3fd15
True
Article 29
157
Which article was used to avoid a provision for new delimitation of territory?
5a515692ce860b001aa3fd16
True
a referendum
421
People were allowed to petition for a revision as long as they had what?
5a515692ce860b001aa3fd17
True
one tenth
585
What fraction of people voted in Bundestag elections?
5a515692ce860b001aa3fd18
True
the Federal Republic
1085
Who could introduce a bill even if the affected territories did not vote for a change?
5a515692ce860b001aa3fd19
True
As the premiers did not come to an agreement on this question, the Parliamentary Council was supposed to address this issue. Its provisions are reflected in Article 29. There was a binding provision for a new delimitation of the federal territory: the Federal Territory must be revised ... (paragraph 1). Moreover, in territories or parts of territories whose affiliation with a Land had changed after 8 May 1945 without a referendum, people were allowed to petition for a revision of the current status within a year after the promulgation of the Basic Law (paragraph 2). If at least one tenth of those entitled to vote in Bundestag elections were in favour of a revision, the federal government had to include the proposal into its legislation. Then a referendum was required in each territory or part of a territory whose affiliation was to be changed (paragraph 3). The proposal should not take effect if within any of the affected territories a majority rejected the change. In this case, the bill had to be introduced again and after passing had to be confirmed by referendum in the Federal Republic as a whole (paragraph 4). The reorganization should be completed within three years after the Basic Law had come into force (paragraph 6).
In what negotiation did France offer to establish the independent Saarland?
5729240c1d046914007790b9
Paris Agreements
7
False
In the 23 October 1955 Saar Statute referendum, what percentage opposed the formation of the Saarland?
5729240c1d046914007790ba
67.7%
251
False
What was the Saar Statute referendum voter turnout?
5729240c1d046914007790bb
96.5%
276
False
Which political figure supported the Saar Statute referendum?
5729240c1d046914007790bc
Chancellor Konrad Adenauer
366
False
The rejection of the plan by the Saarlanders was interpreted as support for the Saar to do what?
5729240c1d046914007790bd
join the Federal Republic of Germany.
495
False
to establish an independent "Saarland"
59
What did France offer in the French agreements of 1954?
5a515fcbce860b001aa3fd5d
True
Saarland
88
Who was under the auspices of the Eastern European Union?
5a515fcbce860b001aa3fd5e
True
67.7%
251
By what percentage did the Saar Statute referendum pass?
5a515fcbce860b001aa3fd5f
True
Saar Statute referendum
185
What referendum was passed by the electorate?
5a515fcbce860b001aa3fd60
True
Chancellor Konrad Adenauer
366
Which German Chancellor was against the Saar Statute referendum?
5a515fcbce860b001aa3fd61
True
In the Paris Agreements of 23 October 1954, France offered to establish an independent "Saarland", under the auspices of the Western European Union (WEU), but on 23 October 1955 in the Saar Statute referendum the Saar electorate rejected this plan by 67.7% to 32.3% (out of a 96.5% turnout: 423,434 against, 201,975 for) despite the public support of Federal German Chancellor Konrad Adenauer for the plan. The rejection of the plan by the Saarlanders was interpreted as support for the Saar to join the Federal Republic of Germany.
Paragraph 6 of Article 29 states that a referendum, in the event of a successful petition should be held within how many years?
572924e26aef051400154a9c
three
102
False
What did the Hesse state government due when the May 5, 1958 deadline passed?
572924e26aef051400154a9d
filed a constitutional complaint
209
False
When was the Hesse state government's complaint dismissed?
572924e26aef051400154a9e
July 1961
328
False
On what grounds was the Hesse state government's complaint dismissed
572924e26aef051400154a9f
exclusively federal matter
427
False
Article 29
15
Which article claimed if a petition was successful there was no need for a referendum?
5a516183ce860b001aa3fd77
True
Hesse state
186
Which government filed a request to change their constitution?
5a516183ce860b001aa3fd78
True
Federal Constitutional Court
251
By who was the Hesse state government's complaint heard?
5a516183ce860b001aa3fd79
True
Article 29 had made the new delimitation of the federal territory
358
Why did the constitutional court decide to hear the Hesse State complaint?
5a516183ce860b001aa3fd7a
True
Hesse state
186
Who did the court tell they had a requirement to bind territorial revisions?
5a516183ce860b001aa3fd7b
True
Paragraph 6 of Article 29 stated that if a petition was successful a referendum should be held within three years. Since the deadline passed on 5 May 1958 without anything happening the Hesse state government filed a constitutional complaint with the Federal Constitutional Court in October 1958. The complaint was dismissed in July 1961 on the grounds that Article 29 had made the new delimitation of the federal territory an exclusively federal matter. At the same time, the Court reaffirmed the requirement for a territorial revision as a binding order to the relevant constitutional bodies.
What did Chancellor Willy Brandt propose in his  28 October 1969 address?
572926bd6aef051400154aca
Article 29 of the Basic Law as a binding order
130
False
Where did Chancellor Willy Brandt make his  28 October 1969 address?
572926bd6aef051400154acb
Bonn
56
False
An expert commission was established under which chairman?
572926bd6aef051400154acc
Werner Ernst
282
False
When did the expert commission deliver its report?
572926bd6aef051400154acd
the district of Germersheim
1052
False
Which state would the district of Germersheim be a part of?
572926bd6aef051400154ace
Baden-Württemberg
1106
False
Chancellor Willy Brandt
62
Which chancellor proposed that article 29 should no longer be a binding order?
5a5164d2ce860b001aa3fd81
True
Professor Werner Ernst
272
Who established an expert commission to discuss article 29?
5a5164d2ce860b001aa3fd82
True
1973
359
When was an expert commission established?
5a5164d2ce860b001aa3fd83
True
consisting of Schleswig-Holstein, Hamburg
505
What was the proposal for a single new state in the South?
5a5164d2ce860b001aa3fd84
True
Rhineland-Palatinate
885
What area was suggested should be separated from Hesse?
5a5164d2ce860b001aa3fd85
True
In his investiture address, given on 28 October 1969 in Bonn, Chancellor Willy Brandt proposed that the government would consider Article 29 of the Basic Law as a binding order. An expert commission was established, named after its chairman, the former Secretary of State Professor Werner Ernst. After two years of work, the experts delivered their report in 1973. It provided an alternative proposal for both northern Germany and central and southwestern Germany. In the north, either a single new state consisting of Schleswig-Holstein, Hamburg, Bremen and Lower Saxony should be created (solution A) or two new states, one in the northeast consisting of Schleswig-Holstein, Hamburg and the northern part of Lower Saxony (from Cuxhaven to Lüchow-Dannenberg) and one in the northwest consisting of Bremen and the rest of Lower Saxony (solution B). In the Center and South West either Rhineland-Palatinate (with the exception of the Germersheim district but including the Rhine-Neckar region) should be merged with Hesse and the Saarland (solution C), the district of Germersheim would then become part of Baden-Württemberg.
Which article stipulates that the structure of each Federal State's government must "conform to the principles of republican, democratic, and social government, based on the rule of law"?
5729281f6aef051400154ae6
Article 28
250
False
Most states are governed by what figure?
5729281f6aef051400154ae7
Ministerpräsident
317
False
What are most state legislatures called?
5729281f6aef051400154ae8
Landtag
414
False
How is the Minister President chosen?
5729281f6aef051400154ae9
a majority vote among the Landtag's members
714
False
Who does Minister-President choose to run state agencies?
5729281f6aef051400154aea
a cabinet
791
False
social government
204
What principles does the basic law suggest that Germany is not required to conform to?
5a5166c4ce860b001aa3fd8b
True
Ministerpräsident
317
Who is the federal government in Germany governed by?
5a5166c4ce860b001aa3fd8c
True
Landtag
414
What is the name of the federal legislative body?
5a5166c4ce860b001aa3fd8d
True
legislative and executive branches
510
What relationships differ between parliamentary republics and federal systems?
5a5166c4ce860b001aa3fd8e
True
Minister-President
763
Who chooses the cabinet in the Landtag?
5a5166c4ce860b001aa3fd8f
True
The Basic Law of the Federal Republic of Germany, the federal constitution, stipulates that the structure of each Federal State's government must "conform to the principles of republican, democratic, and social government, based on the rule of law" (Article 28). Most of the states are governed by a cabinet led by a Ministerpräsident (Minister-President), together with a unicameral legislative body known as the Landtag (State Diet). The states are parliamentary republics and the relationship between their legislative and executive branches mirrors that of the federal system: the legislatures are popularly elected for four or five years (depending on the state), and the Minister-President is then chosen by a majority vote among the Landtag's members. The Minister-President appoints a cabinet to run the state's agencies and to carry out the executive duties of the state's government.
What are the governments in Berlin, Bremen and Hamburg called?
57292b1f6aef051400154b1c
Senate
73
False
What is the government called in the three free states of Bavaria, Saxony, and Thuringia?
57292b1f6aef051400154b1d
the State Government
173
False
What did Bavaria's government have before 2001?
57292b1f6aef051400154b1e
a bicameral parliament
329
False
How many people are in the executive branch senate in Berlin?
57292b1f6aef051400154b1f
eight
716
False
The parliament in Berlin is called what?
57292b1f6aef051400154b20
Abgeordnetenhaus
1103
False
bicameral parliament
331
What kind of government did Bavaria have after 2001?
5a516c74ce860b001aa3fd9f
True
Bavaria
317
What state has an appointed Landtag?
5a516c74ce860b001aa3fda0
True
representatives of the state's major social and economic groups
411
What is the Landtag of Bavaria made up of?
5a516c74ce860b001aa3fda1
True
approximately eight
702
How many representatives are on the Senate of the legislative branch in Berlin?
5a516c74ce860b001aa3fda2
True
Regierender Bürgermeister
1008
What common name are the ministers in Berlin, Bremen and Hamburg called?
5a516c74ce860b001aa3fda3
True
The governments in Berlin, Bremen and Hamburg are designated by the term Senate. In the three free states of Bavaria, Saxony, and Thuringia the government is referred to as the State Government (Staatsregierung), and in the other ten states the term Land Government (Landesregierung) is used. Before January 1, 2000, Bavaria had a bicameral parliament, with a popularly elected Landtag, and a Senate made up of representatives of the state's major social and economic groups. The Senate was abolished following a referendum in 1998. The states of Berlin, Bremen, and Hamburg are governed slightly differently from the other states. In each of those cities, the executive branch consists of a Senate of approximately eight, selected by the state's parliament; the senators carry out duties equivalent to those of the ministers in the larger states. The equivalent of the Minister-President is the Senatspräsident (President of the Senate) in Bremen, the Erster Bürgermeister (First Mayor) in Hamburg, and the Regierender Bürgermeister (Governing Mayor) in Berlin. The parliament for Berlin is called the Abgeordnetenhaus (House of Representatives), while Bremen and Hamburg both have a Bürgerschaft. The parliaments in the remaining 13 states are referred to as Landtag (State Parliament).
What are the districts of Germany considered?
57292bceaf94a219006aa155
administrative districts
38
False
Every state, other than the free states, consist of districts called what?
57292bceaf94a219006aa156
"rural districts"
146
False
How many urban districts are in Bremen?
57292bceaf94a219006aa157
two
478
False
Berlin and Hamburg are states and what else at the same time?
57292bceaf94a219006aa158
urban districts
539
False
rural districts
147
What districts do every state, including, Berlin, Hamburg and Bremen have?
5a516e40ce860b001aa3fda9
True
urban districts
259
What are towns and cities with districts called?
5a516e40ce860b001aa3fdaa
True
urban districts
539
What are Berlin and Humburg not considered to be, because they are states?
5a516e40ce860b001aa3fdab
True
two
478
How many rural districts are in Bremen?
5a516e40ce860b001aa3fdac
True
rural districts
147
Every state including free states consist of what?
5a516e40ce860b001aa3fdad
True
The Districts of Germany (Kreise) are administrative districts, and every state except the city-states of Berlin, Hamburg, and Bremen consists of "rural districts" (Landkreise), District-free Towns/Cities (Kreisfreie Städte, in Baden-Württemberg also called "urban districts", or Stadtkreise), cities that are districts in their own right, or local associations of a special kind (Kommunalverbände besonderer Art), see below. The state Free Hanseatic City of Bremen consists of two urban districts, while Berlin and Hamburg are states and urban districts at the same time.
Local associations of a special kind are an amalgamation of one or more Landkreise with what?
572934ad1d04691400779163
one or more Kreisfreie Städte
88
False
What do local associations replace?
572934ad1d04691400779164
administrative entities at the district level
162
False
What are local associations  intended to implement?
572934ad1d04691400779165
simplification of administration
240
False
What is the association a district-free city or town and its urban hinterland typically grouped into?
572934ad1d04691400779166
Kommunalverband besonderer Art
394
False
What does a Kommunalverband besonderer Art require?
572934ad1d04691400779167
the issuing of special laws
456
False
Landkreise with one or more Kreisfreie Städte
72
Who created an amalgamation at the state level?
5a516918ce860b001aa3fd95
True
Local associations
0
What do district level associations replace?
5a516918ce860b001aa3fd96
True
to implement simplification of administration
227
Why are district level associations created?
5a516918ce860b001aa3fd97
True
Kommunalverband besonderer Art
394
To who are special laws by a district issued?
5a516918ce860b001aa3fd98
True
simplification of administration
240
What purpose is district level administration?
5a516918ce860b001aa3fd99
True
Local associations of a special kind are an amalgamation of one or more Landkreise with one or more Kreisfreie Städte to form a replacement of the aforementioned administrative entities at the district level. They are intended to implement simplification of administration at that level. Typically, a district-free city or town and its urban hinterland are grouped into such an association, or Kommunalverband besonderer Art. Such an organization requires the issuing of special laws by the governing state, since they are not covered by the normal administrative structure of the respective states.
Every rural district is subdivided into what?
5729353d3f37b31900478101
municipalities
82
False
Every urban district is what in its own right?
5729353d3f37b31900478102
municipality
130
False
How many municipalities are there?
5729353d3f37b31900478103
12,141
200
False
What is the smallest administrative unit in Germany?
5729353d3f37b31900478104
a municipality
128
False
What are town rights called?
5729353d3f37b31900478105
Stadtrechte
364
False
municipalities
82
What are only rural districts divided into?
5a515bcace860b001aa3fd33
True
municipality in its own right
130
What are urban districts not allowed to be?
5a515bcace860b001aa3fd34
True
12,141
200
How many districts are there in Germany?
5a515bcace860b001aa3fd35
True
city rights or town rights
336
What rights do cities and towns give up if they are a municipality?
5a515bcace860b001aa3fd36
True
the right to impose local taxes or to allow industry only within city limits
516
What special rights does a city have nowadays along with the right to be called a city?
5a515bcace860b001aa3fd37
True
Municipalities (Gemeinden): Every rural district and every Amt is subdivided into municipalities, while every urban district is a municipality in its own right. There are (as of 6 March 2009[update]) 12,141 municipalities, which are the smallest administrative units in Germany. Cities and towns are municipalities as well, also having city rights or town rights (Stadtrechte). Nowadays, this is mostly just the right to be called a city or town. However, in former times there were many other privileges, including the right to impose local taxes or to allow industry only within city limits.
Municipalities have how many major policy responsibilities?
572936086aef051400154b78
local governments can justify
458
False
What article grants the municipalities "the right to regulate on their own responsibility all the affairs of the local community within the limits set by law.
572936086aef051400154b79
Article 28(2)
234
False
Under Article 28(2) local governments can justify what?
572936086aef051400154b7a
a wide range of activities
488
False
What is one way municipalities develop the economic infrastructure?
572936086aef051400154b7b
development
630
False
municipalities
4
Who have three major policy responsibilities?
5a515a21ce860b001aa3fd29
True
programs
82
What is federal government responsible for administering?
5a515a21ce860b001aa3fd2a
True
social assistance
207
Programs run by the state or federal government typically relate to what?
5a515a21ce860b001aa3fd2b
True
Article 28
234
Local governments are limited by which article?
5a515a21ce860b001aa3fd2c
True
Basic Law
255
What guarantees state and federal governments their rights?
5a515a21ce860b001aa3fd2d
True
The municipalities have two major policy responsibilities. First, they administer programs authorized by the federal or state government. Such programs typically relate to youth, schools, public health, and social assistance. Second, Article 28(2) of the Basic Law guarantees the municipalities "the right to regulate on their own responsibility all the affairs of the local community within the limits set by law." Under this broad statement of competence, local governments can justify a wide range of activities. For instance, many municipalities develop and expand the economic infrastructure of their communities through the development of industrial trading estates.
a top priority
59
What was territorial revision considered in southeastern Germany?
5a515839ce860b001aa3fd1f
True
Autobahn
158
What road is the border between the French and American zones?
5a515839ce860b001aa3fd20
True
Article 118
207
Which article did not allow the division of territory comprising Baden?
5a515839ce860b001aa3fd21
True
federal law
505
What goes into effect if an agreement under article 29 is reached?
5a515839ce860b001aa3fd22
True
South Baden
712
Which state did not agree, so was not included in the December 1951 referendum?
5a515839ce860b001aa3fd23
True
In southwestern Germany, territorial revision seemed to be a top priority since the border between the French and American occupation zones was set along the Autobahn Karlsruhe-Stuttgart-Ulm (today the A8). Article 118 stated "The division of the territory comprising Baden, Württemberg-Baden and Württemberg-Hohenzollern into Länder may be revised, without regard to the provisions of Article 29, by agreement between the Länder concerned. If no agreement is reached, the revision shall be effected by a federal law, which shall provide for an advisory referendum." Since no agreement was reached, a referendum was held on 9 December 1951 in four different voting districts, three of which approved the merger (South Baden refused but was overruled as the result of total votes was decisive). On 25 April 1952, the three former states merged to form Baden-Württemberg.
Glass
What ingredient makes glass colorful?
5729114e3f37b31900477ff5
metallic salts
399
False
What in combination with glass fibers is used to make fiberglass?
5729114e3f37b31900477ff6
organic polymer plastic
1178
False
What quality of silicate glass allows it to be used for windows?
5729114e3f37b31900477ff7
transparency
64
False
What type of glass products can be used for sending information?
5729114e3f37b31900477ff8
optical fibers
310
False
In what product are glass fibers used to hold dead air?
5729114e3f37b31900477ff9
thermal insulating material
1100
False
metallic salts,
399
What ingredient makes glass durable?
5a66f49bf038b7001ab0c11c
True
organic polymer plastic
1178
What in combination with glass fibers is used to make glass wool?
5a66f49bf038b7001ab0c11d
True
transparency
64
What quality of silicate glass allows it to be used for insulating?
5a66f49bf038b7001ab0c11e
True
optical fibers
310
What type of glass products can be used for reinforcement?
5a66f49bf038b7001ab0c11f
True
thermal insulating material
1100
In what product are glass fibers used to hold composite material?
5a66f49bf038b7001ab0c120
True
Many applications of silicate glasses derive from their optical transparency, which gives rise to one of silicate glasses' primary uses as window panes. Glass will transmit, reflect and refract light; these qualities can be enhanced by cutting and polishing to make optical lenses, prisms, fine glassware, and optical fibers for high speed data transmission by light. Glass can be colored by adding metallic salts, and can also be painted and printed with vitreous enamels. These qualities have led to the extensive use of glass in the manufacture of art objects and in particular, stained glass windows. Although brittle, silicate glass is extremely durable, and many examples of glass fragments exist from early glass-making cultures. Because glass can be formed or molded into any shape, and also because it is a sterile product, it has been traditionally used for vessels: bowls, vases, bottles, jars and drinking glasses. In its most solid forms it has also been used for paperweights, marbles, and beads. When extruded as glass fiber and matted as glass wool in a way to trap air, it becomes a thermal insulating material, and when these glass fibers are embedded into an organic polymer plastic, they are a key structural reinforcement part of the composite material fiberglass. Some objects historically were so commonly made of silicate glass that they are simply called by the name of the material, such as drinking glasses and reading glasses.
What element is used in glass to keep it from becoming too hot?
572913b8af94a219006aa037
Iron
514
False
How does barium affect glass?
572913b8af94a219006aa038
increases the refractive index
252
False
What property of thorium oxide has caused it to no longer be used in eyeglasses?
572913b8af94a219006aa039
radioactivity
424
False
What is another name for lead glass?
572913b8af94a219006aa03a
flint glass
85
False
What is the benefit of thorium oxide in addition to its refractive index?
572913b8af94a219006aa03b
low dispersion
338
False
Iron
514
What element is used in glass to help it from becoming more reflective?
5a66f6ddf038b7001ab0c130
True
increases the refractive index
252
How does barium affect movie filters?
5a66f6ddf038b7001ab0c131
True
radioactivity
424
What property of thorium oxide has caused it to no longer be used in projectors?
5a66f6ddf038b7001ab0c132
True
flint glass
85
What is another name for cerium oxide?
5a66f6ddf038b7001ab0c133
True
low dispersion
338
What is the benefit of heat absorbing filters in addition to its refractive index?
5a66f6ddf038b7001ab0c134
True
Most common glass contains other ingredients to change its properties. Lead glass or flint glass is more 'brilliant' because the increased refractive index causes noticeably more specular reflection and increased optical dispersion. Adding barium also increases the refractive index. Thorium oxide gives glass a high refractive index and low dispersion and was formerly used in producing high-quality lenses, but due to its radioactivity has been replaced by lanthanum oxide in modern eyeglasses.[citation needed] Iron can be incorporated into glass to absorb infrared energy, for example in heat absorbing filters for movie projectors, while cerium(IV) oxide can be used for glass that absorbs UV wavelengths.
What causes glass to dissolve in water?
572914e2af94a219006aa04b
soda
417
False
Why is lime often added to glass?
572914e2af94a219006aa04c
better chemical durability
631
False
What percentage of soda-lime glass is silica?
572914e2af94a219006aa04d
70 to 74
694
False
What is a benefit of fused quartz?
572914e2af94a219006aa04e
excellent thermal shock characteristics
72
False
What besides viscosity is a drawback of fused quartz?
572914e2af94a219006aa04f
high melting-temperature
182
False
soda
358
What causes glass to dissolve in Na2CO3?
5a66f576f038b7001ab0c126
True
better chemical durability
631
Why is lime often added to magnesium?
5a66f576f038b7001ab0c127
True
70 to 74
694
What percentage of soda-lime glass is obtained from limestone?
5a66f576f038b7001ab0c128
True
excellent thermal shock characteristics
72
What is a benefit of chemical durability?
5a66f576f038b7001ab0c129
True
high melting-temperature
182
What besides viscosity is a drawback of soda-lime glasses?
5a66f576f038b7001ab0c12a
True
Fused quartz is a glass made from chemically-pure SiO2 (silica). It has excellent thermal shock characteristics, being able to survive immersion in water while red hot. However, its high melting-temperature (1723 °C) and viscosity make it difficult to work with. Normally, other substances are added to simplify processing. One is sodium carbonate (Na2CO3, "soda"), which lowers the glass transition temperature. The soda makes the glass water-soluble, which is usually undesirable, so lime (calcium oxide [CaO], generally obtained from limestone), some magnesium oxide (MgO) and aluminium oxide (Al2O3) are added to provide for a better chemical durability. The resulting glass contains about 70 to 74% silica by weight and is called a soda-lime glass. Soda-lime glasses account for about 90% of manufactured glass.
What happens during refining?
572923981d046914007790af
removal of bubbles
310
False
What method is used for making windows?
572923981d046914007790b0
float glass process
417
False
What is used on the surface of window glass to make it smooth?
572923981d046914007790b1
nitrogen
739
False
What is added to the glass of jars to improve water resistance?
572923981d046914007790b2
alumina and calcium oxide
939
False
Who were the inventors of the float glass process?
572923981d046914007790b3
Alastair Pilkington and Kenneth Bickerstaff
477
False
removal of bubbles
310
What happens during forming techniques?
5a66fd56f038b7001ab0c14e
True
float glass process
417
What method is used for making raw materials?
5a66fd56f038b7001ab0c14f
True
nitrogen
739
What is used on the surface of jar glasses to make them smooth?
5a66fd56f038b7001ab0c150
True
alumina and calcium oxide
939
What is added to the glass of windows to improve water resistance?
5a66fd56f038b7001ab0c151
True
Alastair Pilkington and Kenneth Bickerstaff
477
Who were the inventors of molten glass flows?
5a66fd56f038b7001ab0c152
True
Following the glass batch preparation and mixing, the raw materials are transported to the furnace. Soda-lime glass for mass production is melted in gas fired units. Smaller scale furnaces for specialty glasses include electric melters, pot furnaces, and day tanks. After melting, homogenization and refining (removal of bubbles), the glass is formed. Flat glass for windows and similar applications is formed by the float glass process, developed between 1953 and 1957 by Sir Alastair Pilkington and Kenneth Bickerstaff of the UK's Pilkington Brothers, who created a continuous ribbon of glass using a molten tin bath on which the molten glass flows unhindered under the influence of gravity. The top surface of the glass is subjected to nitrogen under pressure to obtain a polished finish. Container glass for common bottles and jars is formed by blowing and pressing methods. This glass is often slightly modified chemically (with more alumina and calcium oxide) for greater water resistance. Further glass forming techniques are summarized in the table Glass forming techniques.
What can be used to make glass less refractive?
572924f66aef051400154aa4
boron
277
False
What is the refraction index of typical glass?
572924f66aef051400154aa5
1.5
211
False
What is a toxic additive that increases refraction?
572924f66aef051400154aa6
lead oxide
423
False
What are high-index glasses erroneously called?
572924f66aef051400154aa7
crystal
589
False
Why are high-index glasses valued?
572924f66aef051400154aa8
for their diamond-like optical properties
683
False
boron
277
What can be used to make glass less dense?
5a66faa1f038b7001ab0c144
True
1.5
211
What is the refraction index of diamond?
5a66faa1f038b7001ab0c145
True
lead oxide
423
What is a toxic additive that increases optics?
5a66faa1f038b7001ab0c146
True
crystal
589
What is another name for chromatic dispersions?
5a66faa1f038b7001ab0c147
True
for their diamond-like optical properties
683
Why are high-index glasses modified?
5a66faa1f038b7001ab0c148
True
Glass has the ability to refract, reflect, and transmit light following geometrical optics, without scattering it. It is used in the manufacture of lenses and windows. Common glass has a refraction index around 1.5. This may be modified by adding low-density materials such as boron, which lowers the index of refraction (see crown glass), or increased (to as much as 1.8) with high-density materials such as (classically) lead oxide (see flint glass and lead glass), or in modern uses, less toxic oxides of zirconium, titanium, or barium. These high-index glasses (inaccurately known as "crystal" when used in glass vessels) cause more chromatic dispersion of light, and are prized for their diamond-like optical properties.
Which kinds of glass existed the furthest in the past?
572925d76aef051400154ab8
silicate glasses
68
False
What kind of glass are containers made from?
572925d76aef051400154ab9
soda-lime glass
460
False
What is sand mostly made of?
572925d76aef051400154aba
silica
117
False
What can a very strong and transparent glass be made from?
572925d76aef051400154abb
pure silica
706
False
What types of glass is the word commonly used to mean?
572925d76aef051400154abc
silicate glasses
68
False
silicate glasses
68
Which kinds of containers existed furthest in the past?
5a66f357f038b7001ab0c112
True
soda-lime glass
460
What kind of glass are windows made from?
5a66f357f038b7001ab0c113
True
silica
117
What is calcium oxide mostly made of?
5a66f357f038b7001ab0c114
True
pure silica
706
What can a very strong and transparent transmittance be made from?
5a66f357f038b7001ab0c115
True
silicate glasses
68
What types of workability is the word commonly used to mean?
5a66f357f038b7001ab0c116
True
The most familiar, and historically the oldest, types of glass are "silicate glasses" based on the chemical compound silica (silicon dioxide, or quartz), the primary constituent of sand. The term glass, in popular usage, is often used to refer only to this type of material, which is familiar from use as window glass and in glass bottles. Of the many silica-based glasses that exist, ordinary glazing and container glass is formed from a specific type called soda-lime glass, composed of approximately 75% silicon dioxide (SiO2), sodium oxide (Na2O) from sodium carbonate (Na2CO3), calcium oxide, also called lime (CaO), and several minor additives. A very clear and durable quartz glass can be made from pure silica, but the high melting point and very narrow glass transition of quartz make glassblowing and hot working difficult. In glasses like soda lime, the compounds added to quartz are used to lower the melting temperature and improve workability, at a cost in the toughness, thermal stability, and optical transmittance.
What does glass lack, allowing it to be transparent?
572927efaf94a219006aa117
internal subdivisions
367
False
What force gives glass its surface texture?
572927efaf94a219006aa118
surface tension
698
False
What, in contrast to glass, doesn't let light pass through?
572927efaf94a219006aa119
polycrystalline materials
131
False
What type of glass absorbs some light?
572927efaf94a219006aa11a
colored
878
False
internal subdivisions
367
What does glass lack, allowing it to be polycrystalline?
5a66f904f038b7001ab0c13a
True
surface tension
698
What force gives glass its rigid crystal geometries?
5a66f904f038b7001ab0c13b
True
polycrystalline materials
131
What, in contrast to glass, doesn't absorb light?
5a66f904f038b7001ab0c13c
True
colored
878
What type of glass absorbs molecules of supercooled liquid?
5a66f904f038b7001ab0c13d
True
internal subdivisions
367
What do individual crystallites not contain?
5a66f904f038b7001ab0c13e
True
Glass is in widespread use largely due to the production of glass compositions that are transparent to visible light. In contrast, polycrystalline materials do not generally transmit visible light. The individual crystallites may be transparent, but their facets (grain boundaries) reflect or scatter light resulting in diffuse reflection. Glass does not contain the internal subdivisions associated with grain boundaries in polycrystals and hence does not scatter light in the same manner as a polycrystalline material. The surface of a glass is often smooth since during glass formation the molecules of the supercooled liquid are not forced to dispose in rigid crystal geometries and can follow surface tension, which imposes a microscopically smooth surface. These properties, which give glass its clearness, can be retained even if glass is partially light-absorbing—i.e., colored.
What kind of glass exists in nature?
57292a1e1d046914007790fb
obsidian
57
False
Obsidian is what type of glass?
57292a1e1d046914007790fc
volcanic
42
False
What was obsidian used to make in prehistoric times?
57292a1e1d046914007790fd
cutting tools
154
False
When are the oldest beads thought to have been made?
57292a1e1d046914007790fe
mid third millennium BCE
409
False
What glass-like material is made with a method related to glazing?
57292a1e1d046914007790ff
faience
552
False
obsidian
57
What kind of glass exists in Egypt?
5a670006f038b7001ab0c162
True
volcanic
42
Obsidian is what type of slag?
5a670006f038b7001ab0c163
True
cutting tools
154
What was obsidian used to make in falence processes?
5a670006f038b7001ab0c164
True
faience
552
What glass-like material is made with a method related to sharp cutting?
5a670006f038b7001ab0c165
True
archaeological evidence
246
What suggests that the first true glass was accidental?
5a670006f038b7001ab0c166
True
Naturally occurring glass, especially the volcanic glass obsidian, has been used by many Stone Age societies across the globe for the production of sharp cutting tools and, due to its limited source areas, was extensively traded. But in general, archaeological evidence suggests that the first true glass was made in coastal north Syria, Mesopotamia or ancient Egypt. The earliest known glass objects, of the mid third millennium BCE, were beads, perhaps initially created as accidental by-products of metal-working (slags) or during the production of faience, a pre-glass vitreous material made by a process similar to glazing.
What can give glass a faint green tinge?
572936abaf94a219006aa1a3
iron(II) oxide
299
False
What can prevent a green color in glass?
572936abaf94a219006aa1a4
Manganese dioxide
757
False
What other than additives can give glass a yellow color?
572936abaf94a219006aa1a5
reducing combustion atmosphere
725
False
What chemical compounds can make glass nearly black?
572936abaf94a219006aa1a6
iron polysulfides
591
False
Charged ions can be used to produce what in glass?
572936abaf94a219006aa1a7
Color
0
False
iron(II) oxide
839
What can give glass a metal?
5a66ff07f038b7001ab0c158
True
Manganese dioxide
757
What can prevent an amber color in glass?
5a66ff07f038b7001ab0c159
True
reducing combustion atmosphere
725
What other additives can give glass a sulfur tint?
5a66ff07f038b7001ab0c15a
True
iron polysulfides
591
What chemical compounds can make glass thin?
5a66ff07f038b7001ab0c15b
True
Color
0
Charged ions can be used to produce what in precipitates?
5a66ff07f038b7001ab0c15c
True
Color in glass may be obtained by addition of electrically charged ions (or color centers) that are homogeneously distributed, and by precipitation of finely dispersed particles (such as in photochromic glasses). Ordinary soda-lime glass appears colorless to the naked eye when it is thin, although iron(II) oxide (FeO) impurities of up to 0.1 wt% produce a green tint, which can be viewed in thick pieces or with the aid of scientific instruments. Further FeO and Cr2O3 additions may be used for the production of green bottles. Sulfur, together with carbon and iron salts, is used to form iron polysulfides and produce amber glass ranging from yellowish to almost black. A glass melt can also acquire an amber color from a reducing combustion atmosphere. Manganese dioxide can be added in small amounts to remove the green tint given by iron(II) oxide. When used in art glass or studio glass is colored using closely guarded recipes that involve specific combinations of metal oxides, melting temperatures and 'cook' times. Most colored glass used in the art market is manufactured in volume by vendors who serve this market although there are some glassmakers with the ability to make their own color from raw materials.
What word does "glass" come from?
57293c473f37b31900478151
glesum
477
False
Where did glasswork begin relatively late?
57293c473f37b31900478152
China
237
False
In what year did glassmaking begin in Asia?
57293c473f37b31900478153
1730 BCE
216
False
What city was a center of glass production for the Romans?
57293c473f37b31900478154
Trier
422
False
In what current country is Trier located?
57293c473f37b31900478155
Germany
443
False
glesum
477
What word does "domestic" come from?
5a670250f038b7001ab0c16c
True
China
237
Where did ceramics begin in Asia?
5a670250f038b7001ab0c16d
True
1730 BCE
216
In what year did glassmaking begin in Germany?
5a670250f038b7001ab0c16e
True
Trier
422
What city was a center of metal work for the Romans?
5a670250f038b7001ab0c16f
True
China
237
In what current country were Late Bronze Age civilizations located?
5a670250f038b7001ab0c170
True
Glass remained a luxury material, and the disasters that overtook Late Bronze Age civilizations seem to have brought glass-making to a halt. Indigenous development of glass technology in South Asia may have begun in 1730 BCE. In ancient China, though, glassmaking seems to have a late start, compared to ceramics and metal work. The term glass developed in the late Roman Empire. It was in the Roman glassmaking center at Trier, now in modern Germany, that the late-Latin term glesum originated, probably from a Germanic word for a transparent, lustrous substance. Glass objects have been recovered across the Roman empire in domestic, industrial and funerary contexts.[citation needed]
When did stained glass make a big comeback?
5729450a6aef051400154c2e
19th-century
742
False
When did stained glass begin to be used for places of worship?
5729450a6aef051400154c2f
10th-century
327
False
When did big windows of stained glass become less common?
5729450a6aef051400154c30
the Renaissance
761
False
What 13th-century building is an example of stained glass walls?
5729450a6aef051400154c31
Sainte-Chapelle
590
False
What did technological changes allow regular homes to have?
5729450a6aef051400154c32
larger windows
1201
False
19th-century
742
When did larger sheets make a big comeback?
5a67044ff038b7001ab0c176
True
10th-century
327
When did stained glass begin to be used for vessels?
5a67044ff038b7001ab0c177
True
the Renaissance
761
When did big windows of stained glass become ordinary?
5a67044ff038b7001ab0c178
True
Sainte-Chapelle
590
What 20th-century building is an example of stained glass walls?
5a67044ff038b7001ab0c179
True
larger windows
1201
What did archaeological excavations allow regular homes to have?
5a67044ff038b7001ab0c17a
True
Glass was used extensively during the Middle Ages. Anglo-Saxon glass has been found across England during archaeological excavations of both settlement and cemetery sites. Glass in the Anglo-Saxon period was used in the manufacture of a range of objects including vessels, beads, windows and was also used in jewelry. From the 10th-century onwards, glass was employed in stained glass windows of churches and cathedrals, with famous examples at Chartres Cathedral and the Basilica of Saint Denis. By the 14th-century, architects were designing buildings with walls of stained glass such as Sainte-Chapelle, Paris, (1203–1248) and the East end of Gloucester Cathedral. Stained glass had a major revival with Gothic Revival architecture in the 19th-century. With the Renaissance, and a change in architectural style, the use of large stained glass windows became less prevalent. The use of domestic stained glass increased until most substantial houses had glass windows. These were initially small panes leaded together, but with the changes in technology, glass could be manufactured relatively cheaply in increasingly larger sheets. This led to larger window panes, and, in the 20th-century, to much larger windows in ordinary domestic and commercial buildings.
What type of glass is used in cars?
572946226aef051400154c38
laminated
308
False
When did eyeglasses originate?
572946226aef051400154c39
late Middle Ages
583
False
The walls of skyscrapers are often made of what material?
572946226aef051400154c3a
glass
190
False
What type of power systems use glass?
572946226aef051400154c3b
solar
795
False
What type of scientists rely on glass for distant observations?
572946226aef051400154c3c
astronomers
669
False
laminated
308
What type of glass is used in aperture covers?
5a670798f038b7001ab0c180
True
late Middle Ages
583
When did multi-storey buildings originate?
5a670798f038b7001ab0c181
True
glass
290
Walls used for storage are often made of what material?
5a670798f038b7001ab0c182
True
solar
795
What type of power systems use curtains?
5a670798f038b7001ab0c183
True
astronomers
669
What type of scientists rely on windscreens for distant observations?
5a670798f038b7001ab0c184
True
In the 20th century, new types of glass such as laminated glass, reinforced glass and glass bricks have increased the use of glass as a building material and resulted in new applications of glass. Multi-storey buildings are frequently constructed with curtain walls made almost entirely of glass. Similarly, laminated glass has been widely applied to vehicles for windscreens. While glass containers have always been used for storage and are valued for their hygienic properties, glass has been utilized increasingly in industry. Optical glass for spectacles has been used since the late Middle Ages. The production of lenses has become increasingly proficient, aiding astronomers as well as having other application in medicine and science. Glass is also employed as the aperture cover in many solar energy systems.
What famous lampmaker used glass?
572947c3af94a219006aa247
Louis Comfort Tiffany
420
False
When did glassworkers begin to consider their products fine art?
572947c3af94a219006aa248
1960
659
False
What type of glass did many Art Nouveau artists use?
572947c3af94a219006aa249
cameo glass
373
False
When did mass production of glass art begin?
572947c3af94a219006aa24a
early 20th-century
537
False
What early civilization made cameo glass?
572947c3af94a219006aa24b
Roman Empire
144
False
Louis Comfort Tiffany
420
What famous lampmaker used factory production?
5a6709def038b7001ab0c194
True
1960
659
When did glassworkers begin to consider their products neo-classical?
5a6709def038b7001ab0c195
True
cameo glass
93
What type of glass did many specialists use?
5a6709def038b7001ab0c196
True
early 20th-century
537
When did mass production of lamps begin?
5a6709def038b7001ab0c197
True
Roman Empire
144
What early civilization made colored vases?
5a6709def038b7001ab0c198
True
From the 19th century, there was a revival in many ancient glass-making techniques including cameo glass, achieved for the first time since the Roman Empire and initially mostly used for pieces in a neo-classical style. The Art Nouveau movement made great use of glass, with René Lalique, Émile Gallé, and Daum of Nancy producing colored vases and similar pieces, often in cameo glass, and also using luster techniques. Louis Comfort Tiffany in America specialized in stained glass, both secular and religious, and his famous lamps. The early 20th-century saw the large-scale factory production of glass art by firms such as Waterford and Lalique. From about 1960 onwards there have been an increasing number of small studios hand-producing glass artworks, and glass artists began to class themselves as in effect sculptors working in glass, and their works as part fine arts.
What makes glass melt at a lower temperature?
572964476aef051400154de6
lead(II) oxide
12
False
How much less viscous is lead glass compared with soda glass?
572964476aef051400154de7
100 times
275
False
Pb2+ causes lead glass to have what?
572964476aef051400154de8
high electrical resistance
616
False
Lead oxide makes it easier to dissolve what?
572964476aef051400154de9
other metal oxides
153
False
lead(II) oxide
12
What makes glass melt higher than soda?
5a671251f038b7001ab0c1bc
True
100 times
275
How much less viscous is lead glass compared with lead?
5a671251f038b7001ab0c1bd
True
high electrical resistance
616
Pb2+ causes bubbles to have what?
5a671251f038b7001ab0c1be
True
other metal oxides
153
Lead oxide makes it easier to decrease viscosity in what?
5a671251f038b7001ab0c1bf
True
high ionic radius
473
What makes the Pb2+ ion vitreous?
5a671251f038b7001ab0c1c0
True
Addition of lead(II) oxide lowers melting point, lowers viscosity of the melt, and increases refractive index. Lead oxide also facilitates solubility of other metal oxides and is used in colored glasses. The viscosity decrease of lead glass melt is very significant (roughly 100 times in comparison with soda glasses); this allows easier removal of bubbles and working at lower temperatures, hence its frequent use as an additive in vitreous enamels and glass solders. The high ionic radius of the Pb2+ ion renders it highly immobile in the matrix and hinders the movement of other ions; lead glasses therefore have high electrical resistance, about two orders of magnitude higher than soda-lime glass (108.5 vs 106.5 Ohm·cm, DC at 250 °C). For more details, see lead glass.
What components of glass for networks?
57296639af94a219006aa389
silicon, boron, germanium
125
False
What type of components change the network's shape?
57296639af94a219006aa38a
modifiers
372
False
What type of component can both make and change networks?
57296639af94a219006aa38b
intermediates
210
False
What type of chemical attachment connects ions to the network?
57296639af94a219006aa38c
covalent bond
551
False
silicon, boron, germanium
125
What components of modifiers is used for networks?
5a670ed7f038b7001ab0c1a8
True
modifiers
372
What type of components change the oxygen atoms?
5a670ed7f038b7001ab0c1a9
True
intermediates
210
What type of component can both make and change ions?
5a670ed7f038b7001ab0c1aa
True
covalent bond
551
What type of chemical attachment connects cross-linked networks?
5a670ed7f038b7001ab0c1ab
True
negative charge
602
What compensates for the bonds nearby?
5a670ed7f038b7001ab0c1ac
True
There are three classes of components for oxide glasses: network formers, intermediates, and modifiers. The network formers (silicon, boron, germanium) form a highly cross-linked network of chemical bonds. The intermediates (titanium, aluminium, zirconium, beryllium, magnesium, zinc) can act as both network formers and modifiers, according to the glass composition. The modifiers (calcium, lead, lithium, sodium, potassium) alter the network structure; they are usually present as ions, compensated by nearby non-bridging oxygen atoms, bound by one covalent bond to the glass network and holding one negative charge to compensate for the positive ion nearby. Some elements can play multiple roles; e.g. lead can act both as a network former (Pb4+ replacing Si4+), or as a modifier.
What component gives glass the ability to conduct electricity?
57296766af94a219006aa3a3
alkali metal ions
4
False
How can glass be prevented from corroding?
57296766af94a219006aa3a4
dealkalization
729
False
What types of ions does typical glass have?
57296766af94a219006aa3a5
alkali and alkaline earth ions
560
False
Reaction with what causes dealkalization?
57296766af94a219006aa3a6
sulfur or fluorine compounds
817
False
What can alkaline ions in glass harm, in addition to electrical resistance?
57296766af94a219006aa3a7
loss tangent
914
False
alkali metal ions
4
What component gives glass the ability to bridge oxygen atoms?
5a6710dff038b7001ab0c1b2
True
dealkalization
729
How can glass be prevented from diffusing?
5a6710dff038b7001ab0c1b3
True
alkali and alkaline earth ions
560
What types of compunds does typical glass have?
5a6710dff038b7001ab0c1b4
True
sulfur or fluorine compounds
817
Reaction with what causes oxygen ions to compensate for their charge?
5a6710dff038b7001ab0c1b5
True
loss tangent
914
What can alkaline ions in oxygen harm?
5a6710dff038b7001ab0c1b6
True
The alkali metal ions are small and mobile; their presence in glass allows a degree of electrical conductivity, especially in molten state or at high temperature. Their mobility decreases the chemical resistance of the glass, allowing leaching by water and facilitating corrosion. Alkaline earth ions, with their two positive charges and requirement for two non-bridging oxygen ions to compensate for their charge, are much less mobile themselves and also hinder diffusion of other ions, especially the alkalis. The most common commercial glasses contain both alkali and alkaline earth ions (usually sodium and calcium), for easier processing and satisfying corrosion resistance. Corrosion resistance of glass can be achieved by dealkalization, removal of the alkali ions from the glass surface by reaction with e.g. sulfur or fluorine compounds. Presence of alkaline metal ions has also detrimental effect to the loss tangent of the glass, and to its electrical resistance; glasses for electronics (sealing, vacuum tubes, lamps...) have to take this in account.
What material is useful in glassmaking because of its slow evaporation?
5729689c3f37b31900478343
sodium selenite
688
False
What containers are used for melting?
5729689c3f37b31900478344
platinum crucibles
904
False
Why are different materials used in a lab than are used in factory production?
5729689c3f37b31900478345
the cost factor has a low priority
243
False
What is the reason for crushing the glass and melting it again?
5729689c3f37b31900478346
homogeneity
981
False
Why is glass annealed?
5729689c3f37b31900478347
to prevent breakage
1170
False
sodium selenite
688
What meterial is useful in glassmaking because of its hydroxides?
5a670cddf038b7001ab0c19e
True
platinum crucibles
904
What containers are used for evaporation?
5a670cddf038b7001ab0c19f
True
the cost factor has a low priority
243
Why are different materials used in a lab than are used in the environment?
5a670cddf038b7001ab0c1a0
True
homogeneity
981
What is the reason for crushing the glass by chemicals?
5a670cddf038b7001ab0c1a1
True
to prevent breakage
1170
Why is glass evaporated?
5a670cddf038b7001ab0c1a2
True
New chemical glass compositions or new treatment techniques can be initially investigated in small-scale laboratory experiments. The raw materials for laboratory-scale glass melts are often different from those used in mass production because the cost factor has a low priority. In the laboratory mostly pure chemicals are used. Care must be taken that the raw materials have not reacted with moisture or other chemicals in the environment (such as alkali or alkaline earth metal oxides and hydroxides, or boron oxide), or that the impurities are quantified (loss on ignition). Evaporation losses during glass melting should be considered during the selection of the raw materials, e.g., sodium selenite may be preferred over easily evaporating SeO2. Also, more readily reacting raw materials may be preferred over relatively inert ones, such as Al(OH)3 over Al2O3. Usually, the melts are carried out in platinum crucibles to reduce contamination from the crucible material. Glass homogeneity is achieved by homogenizing the raw materials mixture (glass batch), by stirring the melt, and by crushing and re-melting the first melt. The obtained glass is usually annealed to prevent breakage during processing.
Who coined the term "splat cooling"?
57296ab01d046914007793e7
W. Klement
260
False
What are thick alloys made in layers called?
57296ab01d046914007793e8
bulk metallic glasses
687
False
What does Liquidmetal Technologies use for their alloys?
57296ab01d046914007793e9
zirconium
758
False
What type of metal makes better alloys than traditional steel?
57296ab01d046914007793ea
amorphous steel
791
False
At what university was Klement a student?
57296ab01d046914007793eb
Caltech
274
False
W. Klement
260
Who coined the term alloys?
5a67151af038b7001ab0c1c6
True
bulk metallic glasses
687
What are thick alloys made in crystals called?
5a67151af038b7001ab0c1c7
True
zirconium
758
What does Liquidmetal Technologies use for their cooling?
5a67151af038b7001ab0c1c8
True
amorphous steel
791
What type of metal makes better alloys than Caltech?
5a67151af038b7001ab0c1c9
True
Caltech
274
At what university did Klement produce BMGs?
5a67151af038b7001ab0c1ca
True
In the past, small batches of amorphous metals with high surface area configurations (ribbons, wires, films, etc.) have been produced through the implementation of extremely rapid rates of cooling. This was initially termed "splat cooling" by doctoral student W. Klement at Caltech, who showed that cooling rates on the order of millions of degrees per second is sufficient to impede the formation of crystals, and the metallic atoms become "locked into" a glassy state. Amorphous metal wires have been produced by sputtering molten metal onto a spinning metal disk. More recently a number of alloys have been produced in layers with thickness exceeding 1 millimeter. These are known as bulk metallic glasses (BMG). Liquidmetal Technologies sell a number of zirconium-based BMGs. Batches of amorphous steel have also been produced that demonstrate mechanical properties far exceeding those found in conventional steel alloys.
Who showed that q-glass could be produced from a melt?
57296d396aef051400154e6a
NIST researchers
9
False
What shows that there is an inner surface between glass and melt?
57296d396aef051400154e6b
nucleation barrier
610
False
What is q-glass?
57296d396aef051400154e6c
an isotropic non-crystalline metallic phase
50
False
What kind of microscope shows that q-glass grows as separate particles?
57296d396aef051400154e6d
Transmission electron
345
False
NIST researchers
9
Who showed that q-glass could be produced from a nucleation barrier?
5a671646f038b7001ab0c1d0
True
nucleation barrier
610
What shows that there is an inner surface between glass and metal?
5a671646f038b7001ab0c1d1
True
an isotropic non-crystalline metallic phase
50
What is diffraction?
5a671646f038b7001ab0c1d2
True
Transmission electron
345
What kind of microscope shows that q-glass grows as first-order transition?
5a671646f038b7001ab0c1d3
True
primary phase
178
What forms in the AL-Fe-Si system during an isotropic glassy phase?
5a671646f038b7001ab0c1d4
True
In 2004, NIST researchers presented evidence that an isotropic non-crystalline metallic phase (dubbed "q-glass") could be grown from the melt. This phase is the first phase, or "primary phase," to form in the Al-Fe-Si system during rapid cooling. Interestingly, experimental evidence indicates that this phase forms by a first-order transition. Transmission electron microscopy (TEM) images show that the q-glass nucleates from the melt as discrete particles, which grow spherically with a uniform growth rate in all directions. The diffraction pattern shows it to be an isotropic glassy phase. Yet there is a nucleation barrier, which implies an interfacial discontinuity (or internal surface) between the glass and the melt.
What word means that ceramics don't absorb liquids?
5729747d3f37b31900478405
vitreous
436
False
What hardens glass-ceramics?
5729747d3f37b31900478406
heat treatment
167
False
What materials do glass ceramics have a lot in common with?
5729747d3f37b31900478407
non-crystalline glass and crystalline ceramics
56
False
vitreous
436
What word means that ceramics don't absorb crystalline?
5a671775f038b7001ab0c1da
True
heat treatment
167
What hardens liquids?
5a671775f038b7001ab0c1db
True
non-crystalline glass and crystalline ceramics
56
What materials do test regimes have a lot in common with?
5a671775f038b7001ab0c1dc
True
a non-crystalline intergranular phase of grain boundaries
341
What is water often embedded within?
5a671775f038b7001ab0c1dd
True
glass
125
What are permeability materials formed as?
5a671775f038b7001ab0c1de
True
Glass-ceramic materials share many properties with both non-crystalline glass and crystalline ceramics. They are formed as a glass, and then partially crystallized by heat treatment. For example, the microstructure of whiteware ceramics frequently contains both amorphous and crystalline phases. Crystalline grains are often embedded within a non-crystalline intergranular phase of grain boundaries. When applied to whiteware ceramics, vitreous means the material has an extremely low permeability to liquids, often but not always water, when determined by a specified test regime.
How high of a temperature change can glass-ceramics handle?
5729765a6aef051400154f48
1000 °C
669
False
Because of their heat resistance, glass-ceramics are especially suitable for what?
5729765a6aef051400154f49
countertop cooking
298
False
What is the most economically significant property of glass-ceramics?
5729765a6aef051400154f4a
impervious to thermal shock
215
False
What ingredients give glass-ceramics its useful heat tolerance?
5729765a6aef051400154f4b
lithium and aluminosilicates
35
False
What proportion of crystalline ceramics yields a product with a CTE of around 0?
5729765a6aef051400154f4c
~70%
479
False
1000 °C
669
How high of a temperature change can CTEs handle?
5a6719f1f038b7001ab0c1e4
True
countertop cooking
298
Because of their heat resistance, arrays are especially suitable for what?
5a6719f1f038b7001ab0c1e5
True
impervious to thermal shock
215
What is the most economically significant property of countertops?
5a6719f1f038b7001ab0c1e6
True
lithium and aluminosilicates
35
What ingredients give glass-ceramics its useful thermal expansion?
5a6719f1f038b7001ab0c1e7
True
~70%
479
What proportion of crystalline ceramics yields a product with a CTE of around 1000?
5a6719f1f038b7001ab0c1e8
True
The term mainly refers to a mix of lithium and aluminosilicates that yields an array of materials with interesting thermomechanical properties. The most commercially important of these have the distinction of being impervious to thermal shock. Thus, glass-ceramics have become extremely useful for countertop cooking. The negative thermal expansion coefficient (CTE) of the crystalline ceramic phase can be balanced with the positive CTE of the glassy phase. At a certain point (~70% crystalline) the glass-ceramic has a net CTE near zero. This type of glass-ceramic exhibits excellent mechanical properties and can sustain repeated and quick temperature changes up to 1000 °C.
What were the areas at the center of an old sheet of glass called?
572977e11d046914007794c1
bull's-eyes
445
False
In early 20th century glass production, the glass was thickest at what part of the sheet?
572977e11d046914007794c2
the center
259
False
Currently window glass is made as what?
572977e11d046914007794c3
float glass
531
False
How was the bull's-eye used?
572977e11d046914007794c4
for decorative effect
459
False
bull's-eyes
445
What were the areas at the center of window panes called?
5a67209ff038b7001ab0c220
True
center
263
In early 20th century glass production, the glass was poured at what part of the sheet?
5a67209ff038b7001ab0c221
True
float glass
531
Currently large sheets are made as what?
5a67209ff038b7001ab0c222
True
decorative effect
463
How was the table used?
5a67209ff038b7001ab0c223
True
molten glass
114
What was poured onto a large window pane?
5a67209ff038b7001ab0c224
True
Mass production of glass window panes in the early twentieth century caused a similar effect. In glass factories, molten glass was poured onto a large cooling table and allowed to spread. The resulting glass is thicker at the location of the pour, located at the center of the large sheet. These sheets were cut into smaller window panes with nonuniform thickness, typically with the location of the pour centered in one of the panes (known as "bull's-eyes") for decorative effect. Modern glass intended for windows is produced as float glass and is very uniform in thickness.
What was the benefit of installing glass with the thick side at the bottom, in addition to avoiding water accumulation?
572979896aef051400154f7e
stability
881
False
Who used to make window panes?
572979896aef051400154f7f
glassblowers
471
False
What is the name for the glassmaking method that involved spinning it into sheets?
572979896aef051400154f80
crown glass process
586
False
The thickness at the bottom of glass panes was once taken as evidence that glass had features of what state of matter?
572979896aef051400154f81
liquid
252
False
When does glass stop moving like a liquid?
572979896aef051400154f82
once solidified
339
False
stability
881
What was the benefit of installing glass with the thick side at the top?
5a671f70f038b7001ab0c216
True
glassblowers
471
Who used to make water?
5a671f70f038b7001ab0c217
True
crown glass process
586
What is the name for the glassmaking method that involved centuries?
5a671f70f038b7001ab0c218
True
liquid
252
The crown glass process was once taken as evidence that glass had features of what state of matter?
5a671f70f038b7001ab0c219
True
once solidified
339
When does glass stop moving like the bottom of the window?
5a671f70f038b7001ab0c21a
True
The observation that old windows are sometimes found to be thicker at the bottom than at the top is often offered as supporting evidence for the view that glass flows over a timescale of centuries, the assumption being that the glass has exhibited the liquid property of flowing from one shape to another. This assumption is incorrect, as once solidified, glass stops flowing. The reason for the observation is that in the past, when panes of glass were commonly made by glassblowers, the technique used was to spin molten glass so as to create a round, mostly flat and even plate (the crown glass process, described above). This plate was then cut to fit a window. The pieces were not absolutely flat; the edges of the disk became a different thickness as the glass spun. When installed in a window frame, the glass would be placed with the thicker side down both for the sake of stability and to prevent water accumulating in the lead cames at the bottom of the window. Occasionally such glass has been found installed with the thicker side at the top, left or right.
How is "glass" defined in physics?
572982021d046914007794ef
a solid formed by rapid melt quenching
70
False
What is the tendency to make a glass when cooled called?
572982021d046914007794f0
glass-forming ability
526
False
What must happen quickly for glass to form?
572982021d046914007794f1
cooling
227
False
What predicts glass-forming ability?
572982021d046914007794f2
rigidity theory
586
False
a solid formed by rapid melt quenching
70
How is "glass" defines in the amorphous phase?
5a671b11f038b7001ab0c1ee
True
glass-forming ability
526
What is the tendency to make a glass from atactic polymers called?
5a671b11f038b7001ab0c1ef
True
cooling
227
What must happen quickly for polymers to form?
5a671b11f038b7001ab0c1f0
True
rigidity theory
586
What predicts amorphous phases?
5a671b11f038b7001ab0c1f1
True
the disordered atomic configuration of the supercooled liquid is frozen
357
What happens when metastable states are prevented?
5a671b11f038b7001ab0c1f2
True
In physics, the standard definition of a glass (or vitreous solid) is a solid formed by rapid melt quenching. The term glass is often used to describe any amorphous solid that exhibits a glass transition temperature Tg. If the cooling is sufficiently rapid (relative to the characteristic crystallization time) then crystallization is prevented and instead the disordered atomic configuration of the supercooled liquid is frozen into the solid state at Tg. The tendency for a material to form a glass while quenched is called glass-forming ability. This ability can be predicted by the rigidity theory. Generally, the structure of a glass exists in a metastable state with respect to its crystalline form, although in certain circumstances, for example in atactic polymers, there is no crystalline analogue of the amorphous phase.
What does glass not have, leading some to think it is a liquid?
572984596aef051400154f9c
first-order phase transition
63
False
What theory isn't completely valid for glass?
572984596aef051400154f9d
equilibrium theory of phase transformations
437
False
Transition in glass is comparable to what?
572984596aef051400154f9e
a second-order phase transition
275
False
first-order phase transition
63
What does glass not have, leading some to think it is a classic equilibrium?
5a671c44f038b7001ab0c1f8
True
equilibrium theory of phase transformations
437
What theory isn't completely valid for thermodynamic variables?
5a671c44f038b7001ab0c1f9
True
a second-order phase transition
275
Transition in heat is comparable to what?
5a671c44f038b7001ab0c1fa
True
volume, entropy and enthalpy
138
What variables are intensive through the glass transition range?
5a671c44f038b7001ab0c1fb
True
glass
21
What do some consider to be a transformation?
5a671c44f038b7001ab0c1fc
True
Some people consider glass to be a liquid due to its lack of a first-order phase transition where certain thermodynamic variables such as volume, entropy and enthalpy are discontinuous through the glass transition range. The glass transition may be described as analogous to a second-order phase transition where the intensive thermodynamic variables such as the thermal expansivity and heat capacity are discontinuous. Nonetheless, the equilibrium theory of phase transformations does not entirely hold for glass, and hence the glass transition cannot be classed as one of the classical equilibrium phase transformations in solids.
Atomically, glass is similar to what?
572988531d04691400779513
a supercooled liquid
82
False
What acts like a liquid but is under the freezing temperature?
572988531d04691400779514
A supercooled liquid
177
False
Despite its atomic structure, cooled glass acts like what?
572988531d04691400779515
a solid
129
False
In cooled glass, what types of movement stop?
572988531d04691400779516
rotational and translational
694
False
a supercooled liquid
82
Atomically, crystal is similar to what?
5a671d3df038b7001ab0c202
True
A supercooled liquid
177
What acts like a liquid but is under the experimental scales?
5a671d3df038b7001ab0c203
True
a solid
129
Despite its atomic structure, crystals act like what?
5a671d3df038b7001ab0c204
True
rotational and translational
694
In traditional motion, what types of movement stop?
5a671d3df038b7001ab0c205
True
A supercooled liquid
177
What behaves as a solid?
5a671d3df038b7001ab0c206
True
Although the atomic structure of glass shares characteristics of the structure in a supercooled liquid, glass tends to behave as a solid below its glass transition temperature. A supercooled liquid behaves as a liquid, but it is below the freezing point of the material, and in some cases will crystallize almost instantly if a crystal is added as a core. The change in heat capacity at a glass transition and a melting transition of comparable materials are typically of the same order of magnitude, indicating that the change in active degrees of freedom is comparable as well. Both in a glass and in a crystal it is mostly only the vibrational degrees of freedom that remain active, whereas rotational and translational motion is arrested. This helps to explain why both crystalline and non-crystalline solids exhibit rigidity on most experimental time scales.
Planck_constant
What is energy abbreviated to in science?
57291ce0af94a219006aa089
E
128
False
What is frequency also known as in science?
57291ce0af94a219006aa08a
f
249
False
What term describes a small amount of element?
57291ce0af94a219006aa08b
quantum
421
False
What did the light quantum, in some ways, behave as?
57291ce0af94a219006aa08c
an electrically neutral particle
545
False
What was later termed the photon?
57291ce0af94a219006aa08d
The light quantum
499
False
When did Max Planck first recognize the value of the Planck constant?
57295e056aef051400154d84
1900
20
False
Which scientist associated the Planck constant with a quantum five years after Planck's recognition?
57295e056aef051400154d85
Einstein
404
False
Instead of an electromagnetic wave, what did the light quantum behave as in some regards?
57295e056aef051400154d86
an electrically neutral particle
545
False
What is the simple name given to the light quantum today?
57295e056aef051400154d87
the photon
643
False
1905
295
In what year was the value G associated by Einstein with quantum theories of energy?
5a3aa4d33ff257001ab841d7
True
Einstein
404
Who discovered an association between the value G and quantum energy?
5a3aa4d33ff257001ab841d8
True
neutral
561
What type of charge did a particle have that behaved similarly to dark quantum energy?
5a3aa4d33ff257001ab841d9
True
quantum
421
What term describes a large amount of element?
5a3aa4d33ff257001ab841da
True
the photon
643
What is the simple name given to the dark quantum today?
5a3aa4d33ff257001ab841db
True
First recognized in 1900 by Max Planck, it was originally the proportionality constant between the minimal increment of energy, E, of a hypothetical electrically charged oscillator in a cavity that contained black body radiation, and the frequency, f, of its associated electromagnetic wave. In 1905 the value E, the minimal energy increment of a hypothetical oscillator, was theoretically associated by Einstein with a "quantum" or minimal element of the energy of the electromagnetic wave itself. The light quantum behaved in some respects as an electrically neutral particle, as opposed to an electromagnetic wave. It was eventually called the photon.
Classical statistical mechanics requires the existence of what?
57291f276aef051400154a68
h
58
False
What was realized after Planck's discovery?
57291f276aef051400154a69
that physical action cannot take on an arbitrary value
158
False
What is the Planck constant formerly known as?
57291f276aef051400154a6a
quantum of action
279
False
Regarding atoms, what does the Planck constant imply?
57291f276aef051400154a6b
that only certain energy levels are allowed
472
False
Regarding atoms, what are values in between certain energy levels considered by the Planck constant?
57291f276aef051400154a6c
forbidden
543
False
Following Planck's discovery, what was realized about values of physical action?
57295eef6aef051400154d9e
physical action cannot take on an arbitrary value
163
False
The Planck constant initially was given what name?
57295eef6aef051400154d9f
the "quantum of action"
274
False
How is the proportional nature of the Planck constant explained?
57295eef6aef051400154da0
Classical physics cannot explain this fact
331
False
For certain cases of light or atoms, what does the quantum of action yield?
57295eef6aef051400154da1
only certain energy levels are allowed, and values in between are forbidden.
477
False
h
58
What does modern statistics mechanics not define the value of?
5a3aad423ff257001ab841e1
True
h
58
What is not required to exist in modern statistics mechanics?
5a3aad423ff257001ab841e2
True
quantum of action
279
What does the Planck Constant negate?
5a3aad423ff257001ab841e3
True
quantum of action
441
What is the Planck constant incorrectly known as?
5a3aad423ff257001ab841e4
True
Classical physics
331
Which science is the proportional nature of the Planck constant fact?
5a3aad423ff257001ab841e5
True
Classical statistical mechanics requires the existence of h (but does not define its value). Eventually, following upon Planck's discovery, it was recognized that physical action cannot take on an arbitrary value. Instead, it must be some multiple of a very small quantity, the "quantum of action", now called the Planck constant. Classical physics cannot explain this fact. In many cases, such as for monochromatic light or for atoms, this quantum of action also implies that only certain energy levels are allowed, and values in between are forbidden.
What does the smallness of the Planck constant show?
572920e0af94a219006aa0c5
the fact that everyday objects and systems are made of a large number of particles
60
False
At about what wavelength of light are human eyes most sensitive?
572920e0af94a219006aa0c6
555 nanometres
190
False
What frequency does green light with a wavelength of 555 nanmetres have?
572920e0af94a219006aa0c7
7014540000000000000♠540 THz
292
False
How is the energy from one mole of photos computed?
572920e0af94a219006aa0c8
by multiplying the photon energy by the Avogadro constant
730
False
How much energy does a green light of wavelength 555 nm contain?
572920e0af94a219006aa0c9
7005216000000000000♠216 kJ/mol
901
False
What is the wavelength of light to which human eyes are most sensitive?
57295f9d1d0469140077933b
555 nanometres
190
False
What is the frequency of the light to which the human eye is most sensitive?
57295f9d1d0469140077933c
7014540000000000000♠540 THz
292
False
What is the energy of a photon?
57295f9d1d0469140077933d
6981358000000000000♠3.58×10−19 J
390
False
How much energy is contained in the light to which human eyes are most sensitive?
57295f9d1d0469140077933e
7005216000000000000♠216 kJ/mol
901
False
particles
133
What are common things like furniture and stationary objects never made of?
5a3ab0693ff257001ab841eb
True
555 nanometres
190
Which light wavelength is the human eye no longer able to see?
5a3ab0693ff257001ab841ec
True
green
157
What color of light is the human eye blind to?
5a3ab0693ff257001ab841ed
True
the fact that everyday objects and systems are made of a large number of particles
60
What does the smallness of the Planck constant ignore?
5a3ab0693ff257001ab841ee
True
Equivalently, the smallness of the Planck constant reflects the fact that everyday objects and systems are made of a large number of particles. For example, green light with a wavelength of 555 nanometres (the approximate wavelength to which human eyes are most sensitive) has a frequency of 7014540000000000000♠540 THz (7014540000000000000♠540×1012 Hz). Each photon has an energy E = hf = 6981358000000000000♠3.58×10−19 J. That is a very small amount of energy in terms of everyday experience, but everyday experience is not concerned with individual photons any more than with individual atoms or molecules. An amount of light compatible with everyday experience is the energy of one mole of photons; its energy can be computed by multiplying the photon energy by the Avogadro constant, NA ≈ 7023602200000000000♠6.022×1023 mol−1. The result is that green light of wavelength 555 nm has an energy of 7005216000000000000♠216 kJ/mol, a typical energy of everyday life.
What was Planck studying in the last part of the nineteenth century?
572922ae1d0469140077909b
the problem of black-body radiation
70
False
Who posed the problem of black-body radiation?
572922ae1d0469140077909c
Kirchhoff
121
False
Cooler objects glow less than objects that are what?
572922ae1d0469140077909d
hotter
206
False
What does a black object do to any of the light that hits it?
572922ae1d0469140077909e
it absorbs all the light
498
False
What is maximized as a result of a black object absorbing all the light that hits it?
572922ae1d0469140077909f
thermal light emission
546
False
Planck studied what problem posed originally by Kirchhoff?
572960a8af94a219006aa353
black-body radiation
85
False
If an object is black, what is known about its thermal light emission?
572960a8af94a219006aa354
its thermal light emission is maximized.
542
False
What is known about the light absorption of a hot object in equilibrium with light?
572960a8af94a219006aa355
absorbs just as much light as it emits
426
False
Electromagnetic fields obey what laws?
572960a8af94a219006aa356
laws of motion
285
False
black-body
85
What type of radiation was Planck studying in the late 18th century?
5a3ab0eb3ff257001ab841f3
True
forty
136
How many years prior to Planck's study had the scientific community first avoided black body radiation?
5a3ab0eb3ff257001ab841f4
True
Kirchhoff
121
What scientist never studied black body radiation?
5a3ab0eb3ff257001ab841f5
True
hot atoms
374
What is required for the electromagnetic field to come to thermal differences?
5a3ab0eb3ff257001ab841f6
True
light
420
What does a hot object in equilibrium reflect as much as it emits?
5a3ab0eb3ff257001ab841f7
True
In the last years of the nineteenth century, Planck was investigating the problem of black-body radiation first posed by Kirchhoff some forty years earlier. It is well known that hot objects glow, and that hotter objects glow brighter than cooler ones. The electromagnetic field obeys laws of motion similarly to a mass on a spring, and can come to thermal equilibrium with hot atoms. The hot object in equilibrium with light absorbs just as much light as it emits. If the object is black, meaning it absorbs all the light that hits it, then its thermal light emission is maximized.
What assumption that black-body radiation is what leads to an accurate prediction?
572925caaf94a219006aa103
thermal
44
False
What does the Stefan-Boltzmann law state?
572925caaf94a219006aa104
the total amount of emitted energy goes up with the temperature according to a definite rule
85
False
What about a hot object changes with the temperature?
572925caaf94a219006aa105
the colour of the light
242
False
What color is hotter than "red hot"?
572925caaf94a219006aa106
white hot
331
False
What did Wilhelm Wien discover?
572925caaf94a219006aa107
the mathematical relationship between the peaks of the curves at different temperatures
406
False
What rule predicts that emitted energy increases with temperature?
57296189af94a219006aa361
the Stefan–Boltzmann law
179
False
What characteristic of the light emitted by a hot object changes with temperature?
57296189af94a219006aa362
the colour of the light given off
242
False
Who discovered the mathematical relationship between peaks and curves of light at different temperatures?
57296189af94a219006aa363
Wilhelm Wien
382
False
The rule that adjust the curve at different temperatures is known as what?
57296189af94a219006aa364
Wien's displacement law
601
False
Wien's spectrum model could not predict accurate at what end of the spectrum?
57296189af94a219006aa365
at low frequencies (long wavelength)
766
False
thermal
44
What do scientists assume black body radiation is never made from?
5a3ab1bf3ff257001ab841fd
True
Stefan–Boltzmann law
183
What law describes the changes in light emitted by a frozen object?
5a3ab1bf3ff257001ab841fe
True
the colour of the light
242
What about a frozen object changes with the temperature?
5a3ab1bf3ff257001ab841ff
True
the Stefan–Boltzmann law
179
What rule predicts that emitted energy decreases with temperature?
5a3ab1bf3ff257001ab84200
True
Wien's displacement law
601
What law adjusts the curve at the same temperatures?
5a3ab1bf3ff257001ab84201
True
The assumption that black-body radiation is thermal leads to an accurate prediction: the total amount of emitted energy goes up with the temperature according to a definite rule, the Stefan–Boltzmann law (1879–84). But it was also known that the colour of the light given off by a hot object changes with the temperature, so that "white hot" is hotter than "red hot". Nevertheless, Wilhelm Wien discovered the mathematical relationship between the peaks of the curves at different temperatures, by using the principle of adiabatic invariance. At each different temperature, the curve is moved over by Wien's displacement law (1893). Wien also proposed an approximation for the spectrum of the object, which was correct at high frequencies (short wavelength) but not at low frequencies (long wavelength). It still was not clear why the spectrum of a hot object had the form that it has (see diagram).
Before Planck, it was assumed that the energy of a body could take on what value?
572928341d046914007790e1
any
84
False
The Rayleigh-Jeans law makes close predictions for what amount of values?
572928341d046914007790e2
a narrow range
193
False
What does Planck's law correctly predict?
572928341d046914007790e3
blackbody emissions
368
False
In making Planck's law, what was in both the numerator and denominator of the formula that was used?
572928341d046914007790e4
h
477
False
Planck's work disproved what assumption?
572962c51d04691400779375
that the energy of a body could take on any value whatsoever
44
False
What rule predicted narrow range of energy values at lower temperatures?
572962c51d04691400779376
The Rayleigh–Jeans
142
False
Planck's law involved what necessary mathematical step to correctly predict blackbody emission?
572962c51d04691400779377
multiply the classical expression by a complex factor that involves h in both the numerator and the denominator
409
False
Changing values of n, the Boltzmann constant, or other variables resulted in learning what about Planck's law?
572962c51d04691400779378
Making an equation out of Planck's law that would reproduce the Rayleigh–Jeans law could not be done
630
False
The disparity between Planck's law and the Rayleigh-Jeans law led to what conclusion?
572962c51d04691400779379
the picture given by classical physics is not duplicated by a range of results in the quantum picture
854
False
any value
84
What was assumed that the energy of a body could never take on before Planck?
5a3ab49c3ff257001ab84207
True
a narrow range
193
What does the Rayleigh-Jeans law avoid predictions for in terms of values?
5a3ab49c3ff257001ab84208
True
blackbody emissions
368
What does Planck's law incorrectly predict?
5a3ab49c3ff257001ab84209
True
h
539
What in making Planck's law was in neither the numerator and denominator of the formula that was used?
5a3ab49c3ff257001ab8420a
True
that the energy of a body could take on any value whatsoever
44
What assumption was confirmed based on Planck's work?
5a3ab49c3ff257001ab8420b
True
Prior to Planck's work, it had been assumed that the energy of a body could take on any value whatsoever – that it was a continuous variable. The Rayleigh–Jeans law makes close predictions for a narrow range of values at one limit of temperatures, but the results diverge more and more strongly as temperatures increase. To make Planck's law, which correctly predicts blackbody emissions, it was necessary to multiply the classical expression by a complex factor that involves h in both the numerator and the denominator. The influence of h in this complex factor would not disappear if it were set to zero or to any other value. Making an equation out of Planck's law that would reproduce the Rayleigh–Jeans law could not be done by changing the values of h, of the Boltzmann constant, or of any other constant or variable in the equation. In this case the picture given by classical physics is not duplicated by a range of results in the quantum picture.
Einstein and what other two individuals revisited the black-body problem in 1905?
572929766aef051400154b00
Rayleigh and Jeans
51
False
Who came up with the term, "ultraviolet catastrophe"?
572929766aef051400154b01
Paul Ehrenfest
304
False
When did Paul Ehrenfest come up with the name "ultraviolet catastrophe"?
572929766aef051400154b02
1911
322
False
When was the first Solvay Conference held?
572929766aef051400154b03
1911
567
False
Who received the Nobel Prize in Physics in 1918?
572929766aef051400154b04
Max Planck
625
False
What did Rayleigh & Jeans and Einstein prove independently in 1905?
5729636c3f37b31900478307
classical electromagnetism could never account for the observed spectrum
147
False
What name did Paul Ehrenfest give to the proofs from Einstein and Rayleigh & Jeans?
5729636c3f37b31900478308
the "ultraviolet catastrophe"
256
False
When was the first Solvay Conference held?
5729636c3f37b31900478309
1911
567
False
What was the topic of the first Solvay Conference?
5729636c3f37b3190047830a
"the theory of radiation and quanta"
587
False
In what year did Planck receive the Nobel Prize in Physics for his discovery of energy quanta?
5729636c3f37b3190047830b
1918
649
False
Rayleigh and Jeans
51
What other two individuals aside from Einstein revisited the black-body problem in 1945?
5a3ab54e3ff257001ab84211
True
Paul Ehrenfest
304
Who never used the term, "ultraviolet catastrophe"?
5a3ab54e3ff257001ab84212
True
1911
567
When was the last Solvay Conference held?
5a3ab54e3ff257001ab84213
True
Max Planck
625
Who refused the Nobel Prize in Physics in 1918?
5a3ab54e3ff257001ab84214
True
Max Planck
625
Who received the Nobel Prize in Physics based on the destruction of energy quanta?
5a3ab54e3ff257001ab84215
True
The black-body problem was revisited in 1905, when Rayleigh and Jeans (on the one hand) and Einstein (on the other hand) independently proved that classical electromagnetism could never account for the observed spectrum. These proofs are commonly known as the "ultraviolet catastrophe", a name coined by Paul Ehrenfest in 1911. They contributed greatly (along with Einstein's work on the photoelectric effect) to convincing physicists that Planck's postulate of quantized energy levels was more than a mere mathematical formalism. The very first Solvay Conference in 1911 was devoted to "the theory of radiation and quanta". Max Planck received the 1918 Nobel Prize in Physics "in recognition of the services he rendered to the advancement of Physics by his discovery of energy quanta".
Who first observed the photoelectric effect?
57292b05af94a219006aa14b
Alexandre Edmond Becquerel
147
False
When was the photoelectric effect first observed?
57292b05af94a219006aa14c
1839
177
False
Who published the first thorough investigation of the photoelectric effect?
57292b05af94a219006aa14d
Heinrich Hertz
223
False
Who received the Nobel Prize in 1921 for his work on the photoelectric effect?
57292b05af94a219006aa14e
Einstein
380
False
What did Einstein with the 1921 Nobel Prize for?
57292b05af94a219006aa14f
his work on the photo-electric effect
624
False
What is the photoelectric effect?
57296497af94a219006aa373
the emission of electrons (called "photoelectrons") from a surface when light is shone on it
28
False
Who first observed the photoelectric effect?
57296497af94a219006aa374
Alexandre Edmond Becquerel
147
False
Einstein's paper on the photoelectric effect earned him the Nobel Prize in what year?
57296497af94a219006aa375
1921
483
False
Einstein's photoelectric effect work was rewards as opposed to his work on what other topic?
57296497af94a219006aa376
relativity
846
False
Alexandre Edmond Becquerel
147
Who last observed the photoelectric effect?
5a3ab6033ff257001ab8421b
True
1839
177
When was the photoelectric effect last observed?
5a3ab6033ff257001ab8421c
True
Heinrich Hertz
223
Who published the first thorough investigation of the photosynthesis effect?
5a3ab6033ff257001ab8421d
True
his work on the photo-electric effect
624
What did Einstein win the 1924 Nobel Prize for?
5a3ab6033ff257001ab8421e
True
the emission of electrons (called "photoelectrons") from a surface when light is shone on it
28
What is the photoneutral effect?
5a3ab6033ff257001ab8421f
True
The photoelectric effect is the emission of electrons (called "photoelectrons") from a surface when light is shone on it. It was first observed by Alexandre Edmond Becquerel in 1839, although credit is usually reserved for Heinrich Hertz, who published the first thorough investigation in 1887. Another particularly thorough investigation was published by Philipp Lenard in 1902. Einstein's 1905 paper discussing the effect in terms of light quanta would earn him the Nobel Prize in 1921, when his predictions had been confirmed by the experimental work of Robert Andrews Millikan. The Nobel committee awarded the prize for his work on the photo-electric effect, rather than relativity, both because of a bias against purely theoretical physics not grounded in discovery or experiment, and dissent amongst its members as to the actual proof that relativity was real.
Before Einstein, electromagnetic radiation was considered to behave as what?
57292c3b6aef051400154b3a
a wave
103
False
What terms describe different types of radiation?
57292c3b6aef051400154b3b
"frequency" and "wavelength"
138
False
What is the energy transferred by a wave in a given time called?
57292c3b6aef051400154b3c
intensity
276
False
What other types of wave besides light has its own intensity?
57292c3b6aef051400154b3d
sound
610
False
Prior to Einstein's work, light behavior was modeled as what?
5729654daf94a219006aa37b
a wave
103
False
What is the name for the amount of energy transfered by a wave in a given time?
5729654daf94a219006aa37c
intensity
276
False
What portion of the photoelectric effect was in disagreement with the believed description of light behavior?
5729654daf94a219006aa37d
the energy account
698
False
What does it mean for a light source to be more intense than another?
5729654daf94a219006aa37e
gives out more energy per unit time and per unit space
414
False
"frequency" and "wavelength"
138
What terms describe the same types of radiation?
5a3ab7fa3ff257001ab84225
True
intensity
276
What is the energy lost by a wave in a long time called?
5a3ab7fa3ff257001ab84226
True
sound
610
What other types of wave besides light doesn't have its own intensity?
5a3ab7fa3ff257001ab84227
True
intensity
678
What is the name for the amount of energy disappearing by a wave in a given time?
5a3ab7fa3ff257001ab84228
True
gives out more energy per unit time and per unit space
414
What does it mean for a light source to be equally intense?
5a3ab7fa3ff257001ab84229
True
Prior to Einstein's paper, electromagnetic radiation such as visible light was considered to behave as a wave: hence the use of the terms "frequency" and "wavelength" to characterise different types of radiation. The energy transferred by a wave in a given time is called its intensity. The light from a theatre spotlight is more intense than the light from a domestic lightbulb; that is to say that the spotlight gives out more energy per unit time and per unit space(and hence consumes more electricity) than the ordinary bulb, even though the colour of the light might be very similar. Other waves, such as sound or the waves crashing against a seafront, also have their own intensity. However, the energy account of the photoelectric effect didn't seem to agree with the wave description of light.
What is emitted as a result of the photoelectric effect?
57292d756aef051400154b42
photoelectrons
5
False
What does the kinetic energy of a photoelectron depend on?
57292d756aef051400154b43
the frequency
238
False
What happens if the photoelectron's frequency is too low?
57292d756aef051400154b44
no photoelectrons are emitted at all
373
False
What is the term used when photoelectrons act virtually at the same time?
57292d756aef051400154b45
multiphoton effect
543
False
What type of energy due photoelectrons emitted due to the photoelectric effect have?
572969f03f37b31900478361
kinetic
84
False
What factor of the initial light source does the energy of the photoelectrons depend on?
572969f03f37b31900478362
frequency
242
False
When the photon energy is less than the work function of the material the light is shone upon, how many photoelectrons are emitted?
572969f03f37b31900478363
no photoelectrons are emitted at all
373
False
If the photoelectric effect is occuring, increasing the intensity of the light source causes what?
572969f03f37b31900478364
more photoelectrons to be emitted with the same kinetic energy
684
False
photoelectrons
5
What is infused as a result of the photoneutral effect?
5a3abca93ff257001ab8422f
True
the frequency
238
What does the kinetic energy of a photoelectron lose?
5a3abca93ff257001ab84230
True
no photoelectrons are emitted at all
373
What happens if the photoelectron's frequency stays the same?
5a3abca93ff257001ab84231
True
kinetic
820
What type of energy due photoelectrons emitted due to the photoneutral effect have?
5a3abca93ff257001ab84232
True
The "photoelectrons" emitted as a result of the photoelectric effect have a certain kinetic energy, which can be measured. This kinetic energy (for each photoelectron) is independent of the intensity of the light, but depends linearly on the frequency; and if the frequency is too low (corresponding to a photon energy that is less than the work function of the material), no photoelectrons are emitted at all, unless a plurality of photons, whose energetic sum is greater than the energy of the photoelectrons, acts virtually simultaneously (multiphoton effect)  Assuming the frequency is high enough to cause the photoelectric effect, a rise in intensity of the light source causes more photoelectrons to be emitted with the same kinetic energy, rather than the same number of photoelectrons to be emitted with higher kinetic energy.
Who introduced the first quantized model of the atom?
57292e181d04691400779129
Niels Bohr
0
False
When was the first quantized model of the atom introduced?
57292e181d0469140077912a
1913
63
False
Why was the first quantized model of the atom introduced?
57292e181d0469140077912b
to overcome a major shortcoming of Rutherford's classical model
83
False
In classical electrodynamics, a charge moving in a circle should do what?
57292e181d0469140077912c
radiate electromagnetic radiation
213
False
Who modeled the atom in 1913, challenging Rutherford's model?
57296aa66aef051400154e46
Niels Bohr
0
False
What was predicted to happen to a nucleus-orbiting electron under Rutherford's model?
57296aa66aef051400154e47
the radiation would cause it to lose energy and spiral down into the nucleus
306
False
What statement did Bohr make about the electron of an atom, citing Planck's work?
57296aa66aef051400154e48
an electron in a Bohr atom could only have certain defined energies
451
False
Niels Bohr
0
Who introduced the last quantized model of the atom?
5a3abd203ff257001ab84237
True
1913
63
When was the last quantized model of the molecule introduced?
5a3abd203ff257001ab84238
True
to overcome a major shortcoming of Rutherford's classical model
83
Why was the first quantized model of the atom destroyed?
5a3abd203ff257001ab84239
True
Niels Bohr
0
Who modeled the molecule in 1918, challenging Rutherford's model?
5a3abd203ff257001ab8423a
True
an electron in a Bohr atom could only have certain defined energies
451
What statement did Bohr make about the nucleus of an atom?
5a3abd203ff257001ab8423b
True
Niels Bohr introduced the first quantized model of the atom in 1913, in an attempt to overcome a major shortcoming of Rutherford's classical model. In classical electrodynamics, a charge moving in a circle should radiate electromagnetic radiation. If that charge were to be an electron orbiting a nucleus, the radiation would cause it to lose energy and spiral down into the nucleus. Bohr solved this paradox with explicit reference to Planck's work: an electron in a Bohr atom could only have certain defined energies En
Who introduced the reduced Planck constant?
57292ffa3f37b319004780bf
Bohr
0
False
What is the reduced Planck constant also known as?
57292ffa3f37b319004780c0
the quantity
21
False
Who helped to give the correct quantization rules for electrons in 1925?
57292ffa3f37b319004780c1
Heisenberg
513
False
Who helped to give the correct quantization rules for electrons in 1926?
57292ffa3f37b319004780c2
Schrödinger
559
False
According to Heisenberg and Schrödinger, the reduced Planck constant remains what?
57292ffa3f37b319004780c3
the fundamental quantum of angular momentum
630
False
Bohr introduced what value as the quantum of angular momentum?
57296ef4af94a219006aa3f3
the reduced Planck constant
49
False
What incorrect belief did Bohr hold about the reduced Planck constant?
57296ef4af94a219006aa3f4
Bohr thought that this was the angular momentum of each electron in an atom
124
False
What scientist used matrix mechanics to bring electron behavior in line with the Bohr model?
57296ef4af94a219006aa3f5
Heisenberg
513
False
When was the Schrödinger wave equation proposed?
57296ef4af94a219006aa3f6
1926
588
False
Bohr
0
Who reduced the increased Planck constant?
5a3abd893ff257001ab84241
True
the quantity
21
What is the extended Planck constant also known as?
5a3abd893ff257001ab84242
True
Heisenberg
513
Who helped to give the correct quantization rules for electrons in 1945?
5a3abd893ff257001ab84243
True
Schrödinger
559
Who helped to give the incorrect quantization rules for electrons in 1946?
5a3abd893ff257001ab84244
True
Heisenberg
513
What scientist used matrix mechanics to bring wave behavior against the Bohr model?
5a3abd893ff257001ab84245
True
Bohr also introduced the quantity , now known as the reduced Planck constant, as the quantum of angular momentum. At first, Bohr thought that this was the angular momentum of each electron in an atom: this proved incorrect and, despite developments by Sommerfeld and others, an accurate description of the electron angular momentum proved beyond the Bohr model. The correct quantization rules for electrons – in which the energy reduces to the Bohr model equation in the case of the hydrogen atom – were given by Heisenberg's matrix mechanics in 1925 and the Schrödinger wave equation in 1926: the reduced Planck constant remains the fundamental quantum of angular momentum. In modern terms, if J is the total angular momentum of a system with rotational invariance, and Jz the angular momentum measured along any given direction, these quantities can only take on the values
What measurable value obeys a similar rule of angular momentum?
5729317d6aef051400154b5e
time vs. energy
217
False
What forces measurement attempts to choose between trade-offs, in quanta?
5729317d6aef051400154b5f
either-or nature of uncertainty
238
False
What form do measurement attempt trade-offs for quanta take the form of?
5729317d6aef051400154b60
either-or (as in Fourier analysis)
398
False
How is uncertainly measured in this experience?
57296f9aaf94a219006aa40d
the standard deviation of the measured value from its expected value
34
False
What type of analysis fits the either-or nature of the uncertainty?
57296f9aaf94a219006aa40e
Fourier analysis
415
False
What example is given as another paired relationship of uncertainly related to standard deviation?
57296f9aaf94a219006aa40f
time vs. energy
217
False
time vs. energy
217
What measurable value avoids a similar rule of angular momentum?
5a3abff03ff257001ab84255
True
either-or nature of uncertainty
238
What forces measurement never chooses between trade-offs, in quanta?
5a3abff03ff257001ab84256
True
either-or (as in Fourier analysis)
398
What form do measurement attempt trade-offs for quanta avoid?
5a3abff03ff257001ab84257
True
Fourier analysis
415
What type of analysis fits the either-and nature of certainty?
5a3abff03ff257001ab84258
True
time vs. energy
217
What example is given as another paired relationship of certainty related to deviation?
5a3abff03ff257001ab84259
True
where the uncertainty is given as the standard deviation of the measured value from its expected value. There are a number of other such pairs of physically measurable values which obey a similar rule. One example is time vs. energy. The either-or nature of uncertainty forces measurement attempts to choose between trade offs, and given that they are quanta, the trade offs often take the form of either-or (as in Fourier analysis), rather than the compromises and gray areas of time series analysis.
What is the unit of magentic properties of the electron?
5729703b1d0469140077945b
Bohr magneton
4
False
What is the unit of magentic properties of atomic nuclei?
5729703b1d0469140077945c
nuclear magneton
26
False
The Bohr magneton is the magnetic moment of an electron under what restriction?
5729703b1d0469140077945d
behaved as a spinning charge according to classical electrodynamics
239
False
What three terms define the Bohr magneton value?
5729703b1d0469140077945e
the reduced Planck constant, the elementary charge and the electron mass
334
False
Bohr magneton
4
What is the unit of magnetic properties of the neutron?
5a3ac4c83ff257001ab84269
True
nuclear magneton
26
What is the unit of magnetic properties of nuclear molecules?
5a3ac4c83ff257001ab8426a
True
the reduced Planck constant, the elementary charge and the electron mass
334
What three terms define the Bohr nucleus value?
5a3ac4c83ff257001ab8426b
True
Bohr magneton
156
What is never defined in terms of the reduced Planck constant?
5a3ac4c83ff257001ab8426c
True
The Bohr magneton and the nuclear magneton are units which are used to describe the magnetic properties of the electron and atomic nuclei respectively. The Bohr magneton is the magnetic moment which would be expected for an electron if it behaved as a spinning charge according to classical electrodynamics. It is defined in terms of the reduced Planck constant, the elementary charge and the electron mass, all of which depend on the Planck constant: the final dependence on h1/2 (r2 > 0.995) can be found by expanding the variables.
How was the Planck constant calculated in the early 20th century?
572970db6aef051400154ec4
the Planck constant could be determined by examining the spectrum of a black-body radiator or the kinetic energy of photoelectrons
14
False
The value quoted here for the Planck constant is based on a measurement in what year?
572970db6aef051400154ec5
2007
468
False
Where was this measurement made?
572970db6aef051400154ec6
the U.S. National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST)
506
False
What method was was used to obtain the measurement?
572970db6aef051400154ec7
watt-balance measurement
473
False
One other measure involved the molar volume of what element?
572970db6aef051400154ec8
silicon
429
False
2007
468
What year was the measurement for the Planck constant value avoided?
5a3ac9673ff257001ab8427b
True
U.S. National Institute of Standards and Technology
510
Where was this measurement disregarded?
5a3ac9673ff257001ab8427c
True
the Planck constant
14
What could be determined by examining the spectrum of a white-body radiator or the nuclear energy of photoelectrons?
5a3ac9673ff257001ab8427d
True
silicon
429
What can never be measured with molar volume?
5a3ac9673ff257001ab8427e
True
In principle, the Planck constant could be determined by examining the spectrum of a black-body radiator or the kinetic energy of photoelectrons, and this is how its value was first calculated in the early twentieth century. In practice, these are no longer the most accurate methods. The CODATA value quoted here is based on three watt-balance measurements of KJ2RK and one inter-laboratory determination of the molar volume of silicon, but is mostly determined by a 2007 watt-balance measurement made at the U.S. National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST). Five other measurements by three different methods were initially considered, but not included in the final refinement as they were too imprecise to affect the result.
What is a main practical difficulty in determining n?
572971471d0469140077946d
the two most accurate methods, the watt balance and the X-ray crystal density method, do not appear to agree with one another
135
False
Why does this difficulty occur?
572971471d0469140077946e
it is (or they are) not as precise as is currently believed
383
False
Which method is at fault or the discrepancy?
572971471d0469140077946f
there is no indication which method is at fault
468
False
the two most accurate methods, the watt balance and the X-ray crystal density method, do not appear to agree with one another
135
What is a main practical difficulty in determining x?
5a3ac9e83ff257001ab84283
True
it is (or they are) not as precise as is currently believed
383
Why is there no difficulty?
5a3ac9e83ff257001ab84284
True
there is no indication which method
468
Which method is required for the discrepancy?
5a3ac9e83ff257001ab84285
True
theoretical difficulties
29
What difficulties are not involved with determining h?
5a3ac9e83ff257001ab84286
True
There are both practical and theoretical difficulties in determining h. The practical difficulties can be illustrated by the fact that the two most accurate methods, the watt balance and the X-ray crystal density method, do not appear to agree with one another. The most likely reason is that the measurement uncertainty for one (or both) of the methods has been estimated too low – it is (or they are) not as precise as is currently believed – but for the time being there is no indication which method is at fault.
Other than the X-ray crystal density method, other methods rely on what two effects?
572971e61d04691400779473
the Josephson effect and the quantum Hall effect
146
False
Why does relying on these effects create concern?
572971e61d04691400779474
If these theories are slightly inaccurate
196
False
Using Planck constant values from these effects would lead to what logical issue?
572971e61d04691400779475
a circular argument
503
False
What is the saving grace of relying on these theories?
572971e61d04691400779476
there are other statistical ways of testing the theories, and the theories have yet to be refuted.
537
False
there are other statistical ways of testing the theories, and the theories have yet to be refuted
537
Why is there no saving grace of relying on these theories?
5a3ae0923ff257001ab842db
True
a circular argument
503
What logical issue would using Planck constant values from these effects never lead to?
5a3ae0923ff257001ab842dc
True
statistical
553
What theories have always been refuted?
5a3ae0923ff257001ab842dd
True
the Josephson effect and the quantum Hall effect
146
What effects are never relied on?
5a3ae0923ff257001ab842de
True
The theoretical difficulties arise from the fact that all of the methods except the X-ray crystal density method rely on the theoretical basis of the Josephson effect and the quantum Hall effect. If these theories are slightly inaccurate – though there is no evidence at present to suggest they are – the methods would not give accurate values for the Planck constant. More importantly, the values of the Planck constant obtained in this way cannot be used as tests of the theories without falling into a circular argument. Fortunately, there are other statistical ways of testing the theories, and the theories have yet to be refuted.
What is a watt balance?
5729724c1d04691400779485
an instrument for comparing two powers, one of which is measured in SI watts and the other of which is measured in conventional electrical units
18
False
What value does RK represent?
5729724c1d04691400779486
the von Klitzing constant which appears in the quantum Hall effect
281
False
If the effects are valid, for RK = n/e2, what is the measurement of KJ2RK equal to?
5729724c1d04691400779487
the Planck constant
539
False
an instrument for comparing two powers, one of which is measured in SI watts and the other of which is measured in conventional electrical units
18
What does a watt balance avoid?
5a3ae1bc3ff257001ab842e3
True
the von Klitzing constant which appears in the quantum Hall effect
281
What value does RM represent?
5a3ae1bc3ff257001ab842e4
True
the Planck constant
539
What is the measurement of KJ2RR equal to?
5a3ae1bc3ff257001ab842e5
True
the definition of the conventional watt W90
169
What gives gives a measure of the product KJ2RR in SI units?
5a3ae1bc3ff257001ab842e6
True
A watt balance is an instrument for comparing two powers, one of which is measured in SI watts and the other of which is measured in conventional electrical units. From the definition of the conventional watt W90, this gives a measure of the product KJ2RK in SI units, where RK is the von Klitzing constant which appears in the quantum Hall effect. If the theoretical treatments of the Josephson effect and the quantum Hall effect are valid, and in particular assuming that RK = h/e2, the measurement of KJ2RK is a direct determination of the Planck constant.
The gyromagnetic ratio is the constant proportion between the magentic field and what?
572973313f37b319004783f3
the frequency ν of nuclear magnetic resonance
68
False
How does the water molecule impact the effect of magnetic fields on protons?
572973313f37b319004783f4
The protons are said to be "shielded" from the applied magnetic field by the electrons in the water molecule
428
False
What three factors impact the gyromagnetic ratio?
572973313f37b319004783f5
related to the shielded proton magnetic moment μ′p, the spin number I (I = 1⁄2 for protons) and the reduced Planck constant.
715
False
The gyromagnetic ratio is often difficult to determine due to difficulty accurately determining the value of what?
572973313f37b319004783f6
the applied magnetic field B
169
False
gyromagnetic ratio
4
What ratio is the difference of proportionality between the frequency ν of nuclear magnetic resonance (or electron paramagnetic resonance for electrons) and the applied magnetic field?
5a3ae27d3ff257001ab842eb
True
the shielded proton magnetic moment μ′p, the spin number I (I = 1⁄2 for protons) and the reduced Planck constant
726
What three factors impact the gyroelectric ratio?
5a3ae27d3ff257001ab842ec
True
gyromagnetic ratio
693
What is never related to the shielded proton magnetic moment?
5a3ae27d3ff257001ab842ed
True
protons are said to be "shielded" from the applied magnetic field by the electrons in the water molecule
432
What effect is a the same effect that gives rise to chemical shift in KMR spectroscopy?
5a3ae27d3ff257001ab842ee
True
The gyromagnetic ratio γ is the constant of proportionality between the frequency ν of nuclear magnetic resonance (or electron paramagnetic resonance for electrons) and the applied magnetic field B: ν = γB. It is difficult to measure gyromagnetic ratios precisely because of the difficulties in precisely measuring B, but the value for protons in water at 7002298150000000000♠25 °C is known to better than one part per million. The protons are said to be "shielded" from the applied magnetic field by the electrons in the water molecule, the same effect that gives rise to chemical shift in NMR spectroscopy, and this is indicated by a prime on the symbol for the gyromagnetic ratio, γ′p. The gyromagnetic ratio is related to the shielded proton magnetic moment μ′p, the spin number I (I = 1⁄2 for protons) and the reduced Planck constant.
How many methods of measuring the gyromagnetic ratio are there?
572973b56aef051400154f02
there are two methods of measuring the value
330
False
How do conversion factors compare in "low-field" and "high-field" methods of measuring the gyromagnetic ratio?
572973b56aef051400154f03
the conversion factors are different in the two cases
428
False
Which method is of interest in determining the Planck constant?
572973b56aef051400154f04
Only the high-field value Γ′p-90(hi) is of interest in determining the Planck constant
483
False
Why is the measurement of electric current an issue in the estimate of the gyromagnetic ratio?
572973b56aef051400154f05
electric current: this is invariably measured in conventional amperes rather than in SI amperes
85
False
there are two methods of measuring the value
330
How many methods of measuring the gyroelectric ratio are there?
5a3ae4073ff257001ab842f3
True
the conversion factors are different in the two cases
428
How do conversion factors compare in "low-field" and "high-field" methods of measuring the gyroelectric ratio?
5a3ae4073ff257001ab842f4
True
Only the high-field value Γ′p-90(hi) is of interest
483
Which method is of interest in determining the Planck difference?
5a3ae4073ff257001ab842f5
True
electric current: this is invariably measured in conventional amperes
85
Why is the measurement of gyroelectric current an issue in the estimate of the gyromagnetic ratio?
5a3ae4073ff257001ab842f6
True
A further complication is that the measurement of γ′p involves the measurement of an electric current: this is invariably measured in conventional amperes rather than in SI amperes, so a conversion factor is required. The symbol Γ′p-90 is used for the measured gyromagnetic ratio using conventional electrical units. In addition, there are two methods of measuring the value, a "low-field" method and a "high-field" method, and the conversion factors are different in the two cases. Only the high-field value Γ′p-90(hi) is of interest in determining the Planck constant.
What is the Faraday constant?
572974216aef051400154f14
the charge of one mole of electrons
26
False
How is the Faraday constant determined?
572974216aef051400154f15
by careful electrolysis experiments, measuring the amount of silver dissolved from an electrode in a given time and for a given electric current.
157
False
How does the Faraday constant relate to the Planck constant?
572974216aef051400154f16
Substituting the definitions of NA and e, and converting from conventional electrical units to SI units, gives the relation to the Planck constant.
394
False
How is the Farday constant value quickly calculated?
572974216aef051400154f17
the Avogadro constant NA multiplied by the elementary charge e
72
False
the charge of one mole of electrons
26
What is the Faraday difference?
5a3ae46a3ff257001ab842fb
True
by careful electrolysis experiments
157
How is the Faraday difference determined?
5a3ae46a3ff257001ab842fc
True
Substituting the definitions of NA and e, and converting from conventional electrical units to SI units, gives the relation to the Planck constant
394
How does the Faraday difference relate to the Planck difference?
5a3ae46a3ff257001ab842fd
True
Avogadro constant NA multiplied by the elementary charge e
76
How is the Farday difference value slowly calculated?
5a3ae46a3ff257001ab842fe
True
The Faraday constant F is the charge of one mole of electrons, equal to the Avogadro constant NA multiplied by the elementary charge e. It can be determined by careful electrolysis experiments, measuring the amount of silver dissolved from an electrode in a given time and for a given electric current. In practice, it is measured in conventional electrical units, and so given the symbol F90. Substituting the definitions of NA and e, and converting from conventional electrical units to SI units, gives the relation to the Planck constant.
What is the primary method for determining the Avogadro constant?
572975206aef051400154f2e
The X-ray crystal density method
0
False
The Avogadro constant is determined to be the ratio between what two factors in the X-ray crystal density method?
572975206aef051400154f2f
the volume of the unit cell of a crystal, measured by X-ray crystallography, and the molar volume of the substance
265
False
What element is used typically to establish Avogadro's constant?
572975206aef051400154f30
Crystals of silicon
381
False
How is unit cell volume calculated?
572975206aef051400154f31
from the spacing between two crystal planes referred to as d220
555
False
Calculating molar volume requires knowledge of what two factors?
572975206aef051400154f32
the density of the crystal and the atomic weight of the silicon used
668
False
X-ray crystal density method
4
What is the secondary method for determining the Avogadro equilibrium?
5a3ae5cc3ff257001ab8430d
True
Crystals of silicon
381
What element is typically used to establish Avogadro's formula?
5a3ae5cc3ff257001ab8430e
True
from the spacing between two crystal planes referred to as d220
555
How is unit nucleus volume calculated?
5a3ae5cc3ff257001ab8430f
True
the density of the crystal and the atomic weight of the silicon used
668
What two factors of knowledge are required to calculate solar volume?
5a3ae5cc3ff257001ab84310
True
Crystals of silicon
381
What is not available in high quality and purity for the semiconductor industry?
5a3ae5cc3ff257001ab84311
True
The X-ray crystal density method is primarily a method for determining the Avogadro constant NA but as the Avogadro constant is related to the Planck constant it also determines a value for h. The principle behind the method is to determine NA as the ratio between the volume of the unit cell of a crystal, measured by X-ray crystallography, and the molar volume of the substance. Crystals of silicon are used, as they are available in high quality and purity by the technology developed for the semiconductor industry. The unit cell volume is calculated from the spacing between two crystal planes referred to as d220. The molar volume Vm(Si) requires a knowledge of the density of the crystal and the atomic weight of the silicon used. The Planck constant is given by
What measurement is deemed most important to redefine in terms of physical constants?
57297608af94a219006aa473
the kilogram
278
False
What is the shape of the object that establishes the base unit of the kilogram?
57297608af94a219006aa474
cylinder
371
False
What alloy is the base unit of the kilogram made from?
57297608af94a219006aa475
platinum–iridium
383
False
Where is the base unit for the kilogram kept?
57297608af94a219006aa476
in a vault just outside Paris
411
False
the kilogram
278
What measurement is deemed least important to redefine in terms of physical constants?
5a3ae6c43ff257001ab84317
True
cylinder
371
What is the shape of the object that establishes the base unit of the kilometer?
5a3ae6c43ff257001ab84318
True
the mass of the International Prototype Kilogram
464
What value has consistently changed since 1889?
5a3ae6c43ff257001ab84319
True
in a vault just outside Paris
411
Where is the top unit for the kilometer kept?
5a3ae6c43ff257001ab8431a
True
platinum–iridium
383
What kind of alloy is never used to measure a kilogram?
5a3ae6c43ff257001ab8431b
True
There are a number of proposals to redefine certain of the SI base units in terms of fundamental physical constants. This has already been done for the metre, which is defined in terms of a fixed value of the speed of light. The most urgent unit on the list for redefinition is the kilogram, whose value has been fixed for all science (since 1889) by the mass of a small cylinder of platinum–iridium alloy kept in a vault just outside Paris. While nobody knows if the mass of the International Prototype Kilogram has changed since 1889 – the value 1 kg of its mass expressed in kilograms is by definition unchanged and therein lies one of the problems – it is known that over such a timescale the many similar Pt–Ir alloy cylinders kept in national laboratories around the world, have changed their relative mass by several tens of parts per million, however carefully they are stored, and the more so the more they have been taken out and used as mass standards. A change of several tens of micrograms in one kilogram is equivalent to the current uncertainty in the value of the Planck constant in SI units.
Where would the decision to change the definition of the kilogram have occured at the earliest?
572976ac3f37b31900478449
the General Conference on Weights and Measures in 2011
168
False
Was the Planck constant the only option for redefining the kilogram?
572976ac3f37b3190047844a
The Planck constant is a leading contender to form the basis of the new definition, although not the only one
283
False
The mass of a resting body with what energy would be equal to a kilogram?
572976ac3f37b3190047844b
7050135639273999999♠135639274×1042 Hz
533
False
A kilogram could be definined as having a Planck constant of what value?
572976ac3f37b3190047844c
6966662606895999999♠6.62606896×10−34 J⋅s
643
False
the General Conference on Weights and Measures in 2011
168
Where would the decision to change the definition of the kilometer have occured latest?
5a3ae7fa3ff257001ab84321
True
The Planck constant
283
What is the only thing that can form the basis of the new definition?
5a3ae7fa3ff257001ab84322
True
2011
218
When did the legal process to change the definition of the kilogram end?
5a3ae7fa3ff257001ab84323
True
kilogram
50
What definition has never had anyone attempt to change it?
5a3ae7fa3ff257001ab84324
True
The legal process to change the definition of the kilogram is already underway, but it had been decided that no final decision would be made before the next meeting of the General Conference on Weights and Measures in 2011. (For more detailed information, see kilogram definitions.) The Planck constant is a leading contender to form the basis of the new definition, although not the only one. Possible new definitions include "the mass of a body at rest whose equivalent energy equals the energy of photons whose frequencies sum to 7050135639273999999♠135639274×1042 Hz", or simply "the kilogram is defined so that the Planck constant equals 6966662606895999999♠6.62606896×10−34 J⋅s".
Renewable_energy_commercialization
What drives the wider acceptance of renewable energy technologies?
57293ad06aef051400154ba8
Public policy and political leadership
0
False
Denmark has a committment to 100 percent renewable energy by what year?
57293ad06aef051400154ba9
2050
456
False
How many countries now have renewable energy policies?
57293ad06aef051400154baa
144
476
False
Public policy and political leadership
0
What drives the smaller acceptance of renewable energy technologies?
5ad1200a645df0001a2d0e6c
True
2050
456
Denmark has a committment to 50 percent renewable energy by what year?
5ad1200a645df0001a2d0e6d
True
144
476
How many countries don't have renewable energy policies?
5ad1200a645df0001a2d0e6e
True
100% renewable energy
431
What will Denmark do in 2055?
5ad1200a645df0001a2d0e6f
True
Public policy and political leadership helps to "level the playing field" and drive the wider acceptance of renewable energy technologies. Countries such as Germany, Denmark, and Spain have led the way in implementing innovative policies which has driven most of the growth over the past decade. As of 2014, Germany has a commitment to the "Energiewende" transition to a sustainable energy economy, and Denmark has a commitment to 100% renewable energy by 2050. There are now 144 countries with renewable energy policy targets.
How much was the total investment in renewable energy in 2012?
57293b691d0469140077918d
$244 billion
83
False
Why did the total investment in renewable energy go down in 2012?
57293b691d0469140077918e
dramatically lower solar prices
138
False
What  six were the top countries for investment in recent years?
57293b691d0469140077918f
China, Germany, Spain, the United States, Italy, and Brazil
365
False
$244 billion
83
How much was the total investment in renewable energy in 2013?
5ad123aa645df0001a2d0ee8
True
dramatically lower solar prices
138
Why did the total investment in renewable energy go up in 2012?
5ad123aa645df0001a2d0ee9
True
dramatically lower solar prices
138
Why did the total investment in renewable energy go down in 2002?
5ad123aa645df0001a2d0eea
True
China, Germany, Spain, the United States, Italy, and Brazil
365
What eight were the top countries for investment in recent years?
5ad123aa645df0001a2d0eeb
True
China, Germany, Spain, the United States, Italy, and Brazil
365
What six were the bottom countries for investment in recent years?
5ad123aa645df0001a2d0eec
True
Total investment in renewable energy (including small hydro-electric projects) was $244 billion in 2012, down 12% from 2011 mainly due to dramatically lower solar prices and weakened US and EU markets. As a share of total investment in power plants, wind and solar PV grew from 14% in 2000 to over 60% in 2012. The top countries for investment in recent years were China, Germany, Spain, the United States, Italy, and Brazil. Renewable energy companies include BrightSource Energy, First Solar, Gamesa, GE Energy, Goldwind, Sinovel, Trina Solar, Vestas and Yingli.
Who has shown support for ambitious renewable energy goals?
57293c241d046914007791a9
EU member countries
0
False
What group polled the 27 EU member states in 2010?
57293c241d046914007791aa
Eurobarometer
86
False
The goal was to increase the share of renewable energy in the EU by 20 percent in what year?
57293c241d046914007791ab
2020
228
False
EU member countries
0
Who has never shown support for ambitious renewable energy goals?
5ad12427645df0001a2d0f16
True
Eurobarometer
86
What group polled the 25 EU member states in 2010?
5ad12427645df0001a2d0f17
True
Eurobarometer
86
What group polled the 27 EU member states in 2000?
5ad12427645df0001a2d0f18
True
2020
228
The goal was to decrease the share of renewable energy in the EU by 20 percent in what year?
5ad12427645df0001a2d0f19
True
EU member countries have shown support for ambitious renewable energy goals. In 2010, Eurobarometer polled the twenty-seven EU member states about the target "to increase the share of renewable energy in the EU by 20 percent by 2020". Most people in all twenty-seven countries either approved of the target or called for it to go further. Across the EU, 57 percent thought the proposed goal was "about right" and 16 percent thought it was "too modest." In comparison, 19 percent said it was "too ambitious".
By the end of 2011, total renewable power capacity worldwide exceeded what number?
57293d583f37b3190047816d
1,360 GW
70
False
Renewables contributed what percentage to our energy consumption?
57293d583f37b3190047816e
19 percent
322
False
Renewables contributed what percentage to our electricity generation?
57293d583f37b3190047816f
22 percent
363
False
1,360 GW
70
By the end of 2012, total renewable power capacity worldwide exceeded what number?
5ad1248d645df0001a2d0f1e
True
19 percent
322
Renewables did not contribute what percentage to our energy consumption?
5ad1248d645df0001a2d0f1f
True
22 percent
363
Renewables cdid not ontributed what percentage to our electricity generation?
5ad1248d645df0001a2d0f20
True
1,360 GW
70
By the beginning of 2011, total renewable power capacity worldwide exceeded what number?
5ad1248d645df0001a2d0f21
True
By the end of 2011, total renewable power capacity worldwide exceeded 1,360 GW, up 8%. Renewables producing electricity accounted for almost half of the 208 GW of capacity added globally during 2011. Wind and solar photovoltaics (PV) accounted for almost 40% and 30% . Based on REN21's 2014 report, renewables contributed 19 percent to our energy consumption and 22 percent to our electricity generation in 2012 and 2013, respectively. This energy consumption is divided as 9% coming from traditional biomass, 4.2% as heat energy (non-biomass), 3.8% hydro electricity and 2% electricity from wind, solar, geothermal, and biomass.
Who was the UN under-secretary in 2011?
57293ff51d046914007791f3
Achim Steiner
192
False
Between what years did worldwide renewable energy capacity grow at rates of 10 to 60 percent annually?
57293ff51d046914007791f4
2004 through 2009
38
False
Who is Achim Steiner?
57293ff51d046914007791f5
UN under-secretary general
165
False
Achim Steiner
192
Who was the US under-secretary in 2011?
5ad1274f645df0001a2d0f98
True
Achim Steiner
192
Who was the UN under-secretary in 2012?
5ad1274f645df0001a2d0f99
True
2004 through 2009
38
Between what years did worldwide renewable energy capacity drop at rates of 10 to 60 percent annually?
5ad1274f645df0001a2d0f9a
True
Achim Steiner
192
Who is not the secretary general?
5ad1274f645df0001a2d0f9b
True
During the five-years from the end of 2004 through 2009, worldwide renewable energy capacity grew at rates of 10–60 percent annually for many technologies. In 2011, UN under-secretary general Achim Steiner said: "The continuing growth in this core segment of the green economy is not happening by chance. The combination of government target-setting, policy support and stimulus funds is underpinning the renewable industry's rise and bringing the much needed transformation of our global energy system within reach." He added: "Renewable energies are expanding both in terms of investment, projects and geographical spread. In doing so, they are making an increasing contribution to combating climate change, countering energy poverty and energy insecurity".
Which group projected that solar plant may produce most of the world's electricity within 50 years?
572941266aef051400154c0a
International Energy Agency
38
False
Photovoltaic and solar-thermal plants may meet most of the world's demand for electricity by what year?
572941266aef051400154c0b
2060
343
False
Photovoltaic and solar-thermal plants may meet how much of the world's energy needs by 2060?
572941266aef051400154c0c
half
354
False
International Energy Agency
38
Which group projected that solar plant may produce most of the world's electricity within 40 years?
5ad12795645df0001a2d0fa0
True
International Energy Agency
38
What does the IAE stand for?
5ad12795645df0001a2d0fa1
True
2060
343
Photovoltaic and solar-thermal plants will never meet most of the world's demand for electricity by what year?
5ad12795645df0001a2d0fa2
True
half
354
Photovoltaic and solar-thermal plants may meet how much of the world's energy needs by 2006?
5ad12795645df0001a2d0fa3
True
According to a 2011 projection by the International Energy Agency, solar power plants may produce most of the world's electricity within 50 years, significantly reducing the emissions of greenhouse gases that harm the environment. The IEA has said: "Photovoltaic and solar-thermal plants may meet most of the world's demand for electricity by 2060 – and half of all energy needs – with wind, hydropower and biomass plants supplying much of the remaining generation". "Photovoltaic and concentrated solar power together can become the major source of electricity".
Who led the world in renewable energy production in 2013?
572942721d0469140077920d
China
9
False
Since what year has production of solar cells in China expanded 100-fold?
572942721d0469140077920e
2005
480
False
What is the main driver of reduced costs?
572942721d0469140077920f
market expansion
716
False
China
9
Who led the world in renewable energy production in 2014?
5ad127c3645df0001a2d0fa8
True
China
9
Who did not lead the world in renewable energy production in 2013?
5ad127c3645df0001a2d0fa9
True
2005
480
Since what year has production of solar cells in Japan expanded 100-fold?
5ad127c3645df0001a2d0faa
True
market expansion
716
What is not the main driver of reduced costs?
5ad127c3645df0001a2d0fab
True
In 2013, China led the world in renewable energy production, with a total capacity of 378 GW, mainly from hydroelectric and wind power. As of 2014, China leads the world in the production and use of wind power, solar photovoltaic power and smart grid technologies, generating almost as much water, wind and solar energy as all of France and Germany's power plants combined. China's renewable energy sector is growing faster than its fossil fuels and nuclear power capacity. Since 2005, production of solar cells in China has expanded 100-fold. As Chinese renewable manufacturing has grown, the costs of renewable energy technologies have dropped. Innovation has helped, but the main driver of reduced costs has been market expansion.
What is getting cheaper as a result of technilogical change?
572943176aef051400154c1e
Renewable energy technologies
0
False
As of what year have there been substantial reductions in the cost of solar and wind technologies?
572943176aef051400154c1f
2011
504
False
What group stated that "cost reductions in critical technologies, such as wind and solar, are set to continue?"
572943176aef051400154c20
IEA
155
False
Renewable energy technologies
0
What is getting more expensive as a result of technological change?
5ad127fa645df0001a2d0fba
True
Renewable energy technologies
0
What is getting cheaper as a result of technological expenses?
5ad127fa645df0001a2d0fbb
True
2011
150
As of what year when have there not been substantial reductions in the cost of solar and wind technologies?
5ad127fa645df0001a2d0fbc
True
IEA
155
What group stated that "cost hikes in critical technologies, such as wind and solar, are set to continue?"
5ad127fa645df0001a2d0fbd
True
Renewable energy technologies are getting cheaper, through technological change and through the benefits of mass production and market competition. A 2011 IEA report said: "A portfolio of renewable energy technologies is becoming cost-competitive in an increasingly broad range of circumstances, in some cases providing investment opportunities without the need for specific economic support," and added that "cost reductions in critical technologies, such as wind and solar, are set to continue." As of 2011[update], there have been substantial reductions in the cost of solar and wind technologies:
What is the most economic solution for new grid-connected capacity in areas with good resources?
5729442b3f37b319004781db
Renewable energy
0
False
What happens as the scope of economically viable applications increases?
5729442b3f37b319004781dc
the cost of renewable power falls
117
False
What are now often the most economic solution for new generating capacity?
5729442b3f37b319004781dd
Renewable technologies
209
False
Renewable energy
0
What is the most economic solution for old grid-connected capacity in areas with good resources?
5ad1282f645df0001a2d0fc2
True
cost of renewable power falls
121
What happens as the scope of economically viable applications decreases?
5ad1282f645df0001a2d0fc3
True
cost of renewable power falls
121
What doesn't happen as the scope of economically viable applications increases?
5ad1282f645df0001a2d0fc4
True
Renewable technologies
209
What are now often the most economic solution for old generating capacity?
5ad1282f645df0001a2d0fc5
True
Renewable technologies
209
What are not often the most economic solution for new generating capacity?
5ad1282f645df0001a2d0fc6
True
Renewable energy is also the most economic solution for new grid-connected capacity in areas with good resources. As the cost of renewable power falls, the scope of economically viable applications increases. Renewable technologies are now often the most economic solution for new generating capacity. Where "oil-fired generation is the predominant power generation source (e.g. on islands, off-grid and in some countries) a lower-cost renewable solution almost always exists today". As of 2012, renewable power generation technologies accounted for around half of all new power generation capacity additions globally. In 2011, additions included 41 gigawatt (GW) of new wind power capacity, 30 GW of PV, 25 GW of hydro-electricity, 6 GW of biomass, 0.5 GW of CSP, and 0.1 GW of geothermal power.
What is one problem with biomass?
572944eb1d04691400779223
material directly combusted in cook stoves produces pollutants
368
False
What can be economically competetive but may still require deployment support?
572944eb1d04691400779224
First-generation biomass technologies
568
False
What is a fully maturing technology which offer a ready disposal mechanismm?
572944eb1d04691400779225
Biomass for heat and power
0
False
fully mature technology
32
What is one good thing about biomass?
5ad12876645df0001a2d0fd6
True
First-generation biomass
568
What can be economically competetive but not still require deployment support?
5ad12876645df0001a2d0fd7
True
Biomass for heat and power
0
What is a fully maturing technology which dont' offer a ready disposal mechanismm?
5ad12876645df0001a2d0fd8
True
Biomass for heat and power
0
What can not be economically competetive but may still require deployment support?
5ad12876645df0001a2d0fd9
True
Biomass for heat and power is a fully mature technology which offers a ready disposal mechanism for municipal, agricultural, and industrial organic wastes. However, the industry has remained relatively stagnant over the decade to 2007, even though demand for biomass (mostly wood) continues to grow in many developing countries. One of the problems of biomass is that material directly combusted in cook stoves produces pollutants, leading to severe health and environmental consequences, although improved cook stove programmes are alleviating some of these effects. First-generation biomass technologies can be economically competitive, but may still require deployment support to overcome public acceptance and small-scale issues.
What is the term referring to electricity generated by hydropower?
57294646af94a219006aa23f
Hydroelectricity
0
False
What is the most widely used form of renewable energy?
57294646af94a219006aa240
Hydroelectricity
0
False
Hydroelectricity accounts for what percentage of global electricity generation?
57294646af94a219006aa241
Hydroelectricity
0
False
Electricity production is expected to increase by what percentage each year for the next 25 years?
57294646af94a219006aa242
3.1%
390
False
Hydroelectricity
0
What is the term not referring to electricity generated by hydropower?
5ad128a8645df0001a2d0fde
True
Hydroelectricity
0
What is the term referring to electricity generated by non-hydropower?
5ad128a8645df0001a2d0fdf
True
Hydroelectricity
0
What is the least widely used form of renewable energy?
5ad128a8645df0001a2d0fe0
True
16 percent
254
Non-hydroelectricity accounts for what percentage of global electricity generation?
5ad128a8645df0001a2d0fe1
True
3.1%
390
Electricity production is expected to increase by what percentage each year for the next 15 years?
5ad128a8645df0001a2d0fe2
True
Hydroelectricity is the term referring to electricity generated by hydropower; the production of electrical power through the use of the gravitational force of falling or flowing water. It is the most widely used form of renewable energy, accounting for 16 percent of global electricity generation – 3,427 terawatt-hours of electricity production in 2010, and is expected to increase about 3.1% each year for the next 25 years. Hydroelectric plants have the advantage of being long-lived and many existing plants have operated for more than 100 years.
Hydropower is produced in how many countries?
572947721d04691400779241
150
26
False
Which country is the largest hydroelectricity producer?
572947721d04691400779242
China
122
False
How many hydroelectricity plants are larger than 10 GW?
572947721d04691400779243
three
291
False
What is the average cost of electricity from a hydro plant larger than 10 megawatts?
572947721d04691400779244
3 to 5 U.S. cents per kilowatt-hour
617
False
150
26
Hydropower is not produced in how many countries?
5ad128cf645df0001a2d0fe8
True
China
122
Which country is the smallest hydroelectricity producer?
5ad128cf645df0001a2d0fe9
True
three
291
How many hydroelectricity plants are larger than 20 GW?
5ad128cf645df0001a2d0fea
True
3 to 5 U.S. cents per kilowatt-hour
617
What is the average cost of electricity from a hydro plant smaller than 10 megawatts?
5ad128cf645df0001a2d0feb
True
Hydropower is produced in 150 countries, with the Asia-Pacific region generating 32 percent of global hydropower in 2010. China is the largest hydroelectricity producer, with 721 terawatt-hours of production in 2010, representing around 17 percent of domestic electricity use. There are now three hydroelectricity plants larger than 10 GW: the Three Gorges Dam in China, Itaipu Dam across the Brazil/Paraguay border, and Guri Dam in Venezuela. The cost of hydroelectricity is low, making it a competitive source of renewable electricity. The average cost of electricity from a hydro plant larger than 10 megawatts is 3 to 5 U.S. cents per kilowatt-hour.
What was the geothermal capacity in 1975?
57294c7f3f37b31900478213
1 GW
43
False
What was the geothermal capacity in 2008?
57294c7f3f37b31900478214
10 GW
66
False
In the Phillipines, geothermal represented what percentage of the total power mix at the end of 2008?
57294c7f3f37b31900478215
17 percent
530
False
1 GW
43
What was the geothermal capacity in 1985?
5ad12914645df0001a2d0ff6
True
10 GW
66
What was the geothermal capacity in 2009?
5ad12914645df0001a2d0ff7
True
17 percent
530
In the Phillipines, geothermal did not represent what percentage of the total power mix at the end of 2008?
5ad12914645df0001a2d0ff8
True
Geothermal power capacity grew from around 1 GW in 1975 to almost 10 GW in 2008. The United States is the world leader in terms of installed capacity, representing 3.1 GW. Other countries with significant installed capacity include the Philippines (1.9 GW), Indonesia (1.2 GW), Mexico (1.0 GW), Italy (0.8 GW), Iceland (0.6 GW), Japan (0.5 GW), and New Zealand (0.5 GW). In some countries, geothermal power accounts for a significant share of the total electricity supply, such as in the Philippines, where geothermal represented 17 percent of the total power mix at the end of 2008.
Where have the majority of photovoltaic power stations been built?
57294d2baf94a219006aa271
Europe
66
False
Where is the Agua Caliente Solar Project located?
57294d2baf94a219006aa272
USA
184
False
Where is Charanka Solar Park?
57294d2baf94a219006aa273
India
219
False
Europe
66
Where have the minority of photovoltaic power stations been built?
5ad12965645df0001a2d0ffc
True
USA
184
Where is the Agua Caliente Solar Project not going to be located?
5ad12965645df0001a2d0ffd
True
India
219
Where is Charanka Solar Field?
5ad12965645df0001a2d0ffe
True
Russia
650
Where is Okhotnykovo State Park?
5ad12965645df0001a2d0fff
True
Many solar photovoltaic power stations have been built, mainly in Europe. As of July 2012, the largest photovoltaic (PV) power plants in the world are the Agua Caliente Solar Project (USA, 247 MW), Charanka Solar Park (India, 214 MW), Golmud Solar Park (China, 200 MW), Perovo Solar Park (Russia 100 MW), Sarnia Photovoltaic Power Plant (Canada, 97 MW), Brandenburg-Briest Solarpark (Germany 91 MW), Solarpark Finow Tower (Germany 84.7 MW), Montalto di Castro Photovoltaic Power Station (Italy, 84.2 MW), Eggebek Solar Park (Germany 83.6 MW), Senftenberg Solarpark (Germany 82 MW), Finsterwalde Solar Park (Germany, 80.7 MW), Okhotnykovo Solar Park (Russia, 80 MW), Lopburi Solar Farm (Thailand 73.16 MW), Rovigo Photovoltaic Power Plant (Italy, 72 MW), and the Lieberose Photovoltaic Park (Germany, 71.8 MW).
Where is Desert Sunlight Solar Farm currently under construction?
57294e063f37b3190047821f
Riverside County, California
106
False
Where is Desert Sunlight Solar Farm?
57294e063f37b31900478220
San Luis Obispo County, California
171
False
Who is building The Califoria Valley Solar Ranch?
57294e063f37b31900478221
SunPower
542
False
Riverside County, California
106
Where is Desert Sunlight Solar Farm no longer under construction?
5ad129a0645df0001a2d100e
True
San Luis Obispo County, California
171
Where is Desert Sunlight State Farm?
5ad129a0645df0001a2d100f
True
SunPower
542
Who is building The Califoria Valley State Ranch?
5ad129a0645df0001a2d1010
True
California Valley Solar Ranch
426
What is a 200 megawatt solar plant?
5ad129a0645df0001a2d1011
True
There are also many large plants under construction. The Desert Sunlight Solar Farm under construction in Riverside County, California and Topaz Solar Farm being built in San Luis Obispo County, California are both 550 MW solar parks that will use thin-film solar photovoltaic modules made by First Solar. The Blythe Solar Power Project is a 500 MW photovoltaic station under construction in Riverside County, California. The California Valley Solar Ranch (CVSR) is a 250 megawatt (MW) solar photovoltaic power plant, which is being built by SunPower in the Carrizo Plain, northeast of California Valley. The 230 MW Antelope Valley Solar Ranch is a First Solar photovoltaic project which is under construction in the Antelope Valley area of the Western Mojave Desert, and due to be completed in 2013. The Mesquite Solar project is a photovoltaic solar power plant being built in Arlington, Maricopa County, Arizona, owned by Sempra Generation. Phase 1 will have a nameplate capacity of 150 megawatts.
Global wind power installations increased by how much in 2010?
57294f546aef051400154c9c
35,800 MW
186
False
China has how much wind power installed?
57294f546aef051400154c9d
42,300 MW
676
False
In Denmark, wind power accounts for what percentage of electricity generated?
57294f546aef051400154c9e
19%
749
False
In Spain, wind power accounts for what percentage of electricity generated?
57294f546aef051400154c9f
9%
790
False
In Germany, wind power accounts for what percentage of electricity generated?
57294f546aef051400154ca0
6%
820
False
35,800
186
Global wind power installations decreased by how much in 2010?
5ad129fd645df0001a2d1026
True
42,300 MW
676
China doesn't have how much wind power installed?
5ad129fd645df0001a2d1027
True
19%
749
In Denmark, wind power doesn't account for what percentage of electricity generated?
5ad129fd645df0001a2d1028
True
9%
790
In Spain, wind power doesn't account for what percentage of electricity generated?
5ad129fd645df0001a2d1029
True
6%
820
In Germany, wind power doesn't account for what percentage of electricity generated?
5ad129fd645df0001a2d102a
True
Some of the second-generation renewables, such as wind power, have high potential and have already realised relatively low production costs. Global wind power installations increased by 35,800 MW in 2010, bringing total installed capacity up to 194,400 MW, a 22.5% increase on the 158,700 MW installed at the end of 2009. The increase for 2010 represents investments totalling €47.3 billion (US$65 billion) and for the first time more than half of all new wind power was added outside of the traditional markets of Europe and North America, mainly driven, by the continuing boom in China which accounted for nearly half of all of the installations at 16,500 MW. China now has 42,300 MW of wind power installed. Wind power accounts for approximately 19% of electricity generated in Denmark, 9% in Spain and Portugal, and 6% in Germany and the Republic of Ireland. In Australian state of South Australia wind power, championed by Premier Mike Rann (2002–2011), now comprises 26% of the state's electricity generation, edging out coal fired power. At the end of 2011 South Australia, with 7.2% of Australia's population, had 54%of the nation's installed wind power capacity. Wind power's share of worldwide electricity usage at the end of 2014 was 3.1%. These are some of the largest wind farms in the world:
How is the wind industry in the USA able to produce more power at lower cost?
572950ad6aef051400154cb4
by using taller wind turbines with longer blades
85
False
How tall are new wind turbines that are being built in Indiana, Michigan and Ohio?
572950ad6aef051400154cb5
300 feet to 400 feet above the ground
301
False
Wind turbines in the USA can now compete with what type of fuel?
572950ad6aef051400154cb6
conventional fossil fuels like coal
360
False
Prices have fallen as low as what price?
572950ad6aef051400154cb7
4 cents per kilowatt-hour
425
False
using taller wind turbines
88
How is the wind industry in the UK able to produce more power at lower cost?
5ad12a5e645df0001a2d103a
True
300 feet to 400 feet
301
How tall are old wind turbines that are being built in Indiana, Michigan and Ohio?
5ad12a5e645df0001a2d103b
True
conventional fossil fuels like coal
360
Wind turbines in the UK can now compete with what type of fuel?
5ad12a5e645df0001a2d103c
True
4 cents per kilowatt-hour
425
Prices have grown as high as what price?
5ad12a5e645df0001a2d103d
True
As of 2014, the wind industry in the USA is able to produce more power at lower cost by using taller wind turbines with longer blades, capturing the faster winds at higher elevations. This has opened up new opportunities and in Indiana, Michigan, and Ohio, the price of power from wind turbines built 300 feet to 400 feet above the ground can now compete with conventional fossil fuels like coal. Prices have fallen to about 4 cents per kilowatt-hour in some cases and utilities have been increasing the amount of wind energy in their portfolio, saying it is their cheapest option.
Where is the Ivanpah Solar Power Facility located?
572952116aef051400154cd6
California's Mojave Desert
374
False
What is the world's largest solar-thermal power plant project currently under construction?
572952116aef051400154cd7
Ivanpah Solar Power Facility
333
False
Where is the PS20 solar power tower located?
572952116aef051400154cd8
Spain
260
False
California's Mojave Desert
374
Where is the Ivanpah State Facility located?
5ad12a95645df0001a2d104a
True
Ivanpah Solar Power Facility
333
What is the world's largest solar-thermal power plant project currently not under construction?
5ad12a95645df0001a2d104b
True
Spain
144
Where is the XBX20 solar power tower located?
5ad12a95645df0001a2d104c
True
USA
223
Where is the Nevada Solar Two located?
5ad12a95645df0001a2d104d
True
Solar thermal power stations include the 354 megawatt (MW) Solar Energy Generating Systems power plant in the USA, Solnova Solar Power Station (Spain, 150 MW), Andasol solar power station (Spain, 100 MW), Nevada Solar One (USA, 64 MW), PS20 solar power tower (Spain, 20 MW), and the PS10 solar power tower (Spain, 11 MW). The 370 MW Ivanpah Solar Power Facility, located in California's Mojave Desert, is the world's largest solar-thermal power plant project currently under construction. Many other plants are under construction or planned, mainly in Spain and the USA. In developing countries, three World Bank projects for integrated solar thermal/combined-cycle gas-turbine power plants in Egypt, Mexico, and Morocco have been approved.
Nearly all gasoline sold in the U.S. is mixed with what percentage of ethanol?
572952c9af94a219006aa29b
10 percent
70
False
What act calls for 7.5 billion US gallons of biofuels to be used annually by 2012?
572952c9af94a219006aa29c
The Energy Policy Act of 2005
540
False
Name one company that sells flexible-fuel cars?
572952c9af94a219006aa29d
GM
241
False
10 percent
70
Nearly all gasoline sold in the UK is mixed with what percentage of ethanol?
5ad12ac6645df0001a2d1052
True
Energy Policy Act of 2005
544
What act calls for 7.5 billion UK gallons of biofuels to be used annually by 2012?
5ad12ac6645df0001a2d1053
True
7.5 billion US gallons (28,000,000 m3) of biofuels to be used annually
587
What was the Energy Policy Act of 2004?
5ad12ac6645df0001a2d1054
True
GM
241
Name one company that sells nonflexible-fuel cars?
5ad12ac6645df0001a2d1055
True
Nearly all the gasoline sold in the United States today is mixed with 10 percent ethanol, a mix known as E10, and motor vehicle manufacturers already produce vehicles designed to run on much higher ethanol blends. Ford, DaimlerChrysler, and GM are among the automobile companies that sell flexible-fuel cars, trucks, and minivans that can use gasoline and ethanol blends ranging from pure gasoline up to 85% ethanol (E85). The challenge is to expand the market for biofuels beyond the farm states where they have been most popular to date. The Energy Policy Act of 2005, which calls for 7.5 billion US gallons (28,000,000 m3) of biofuels to be used annually by 2012, will also help to expand the market.
What can be made from plant matter composed primarily of inedible celllose fibers thta form the stems and branches of most plants?
572955386aef051400154d06
Cellulosic ethanol
196
False
What are potential sources of cellulosic biomass?
572955386aef051400154d07
Crop residues
342
False
What is a promising cellulose source that can be sustainably produced in many regions?
572955386aef051400154d08
Dedicated energy crops
490
False
Cellulosic ethanol
196
What can't be made from plant matter composed primarily of inedible celllose fibers thta form the stems and branches of most plants?
5ad133d5645df0001a2d1122
True
Crop residues
342
What aren't potential sources of cellulosic biomass?
5ad133d5645df0001a2d1123
True
Dedicated energy crops
490
What is a promising cellulose source that can't be sustainably produced in many regions?
5ad133d5645df0001a2d1124
True
According to the International Energy Agency, cellulosic ethanol biorefineries could allow biofuels to play a much bigger role in the future than organizations such as the IEA previously thought. Cellulosic ethanol can be made from plant matter composed primarily of inedible cellulose fibers that form the stems and branches of most plants. Crop residues (such as corn stalks, wheat straw and rice straw), wood waste, and municipal solid waste are potential sources of cellulosic biomass. Dedicated energy crops, such as switchgrass, are also promising cellulose sources that can be sustainably produced in many regions.
As of 2008, geothermal power development was underway in more than how many countries?
572956196aef051400154d0c
40
76
False
What is one new technology attributed to the growth of geothermal power?
572956196aef051400154d0d
Enhanced Geothermal Systems
161
False
What is operational in the USA, Australia, Germany, France and The United Kingdom?
572956196aef051400154d0e
Demonstration EGS projects
407
False
40
76
As of 2008, geothermal power development wasn't underway in more than how many countries?
5ad13409645df0001a2d1132
True
40
76
As of 2008, geothermal power development was underway in less than how many countries?
5ad13409645df0001a2d1133
True
Enhanced Geothermal Systems
161
What is one old technology attributed to the growth of geothermal power?
5ad13409645df0001a2d1134
True
Demonstration EGS projects
407
What is not operational in the USA, Australia, Germany, France and The United Kingdom?
5ad13409645df0001a2d1135
True
USA, Australia, Germany, France, and The United Kingdom
457
Where are demonstration eggs taking place?
5ad13409645df0001a2d1136
True
As of 2008[update], geothermal power development was under way in more than 40 countries, partially attributable to the development of new technologies, such as Enhanced Geothermal Systems. The development of binary cycle power plants and improvements in drilling and extraction technology may enable enhanced geothermal systems over a much greater geographical range than "traditional" Geothermal systems. Demonstration EGS projects are operational in the USA, Australia, Germany, France, and The United Kingdom.
The PV industry has seen drops in module prices since what year?
57295f18af94a219006aa33b
2008
54
False
What is a sign that further price reductions are likely in coming years?
57295f18af94a219006aa33c
technological advancements
607
False
What cost is often regarded as marking the achievment of grid parity for PV?
57295f18af94a219006aa33d
$1.00/W installed cost
175
False
The PV industry has seen drops in module prices since 2008. In late 2011, factory-gate prices for crystalline-silicon photovoltaic modules dropped below the $1.00/W mark. The $1.00/W installed cost, is often regarded in the PV industry as marking the achievement of grid parity for PV. These reductions have taken many stakeholders, including industry analysts, by surprise, and perceptions of current solar power economics often lags behind reality. Some stakeholders still have the perspective that solar PV remains too costly on an unsubsidized basis to compete with conventional generation options. Yet technological advancements, manufacturing process improvements, and industry re-structuring, mean that further price reductions are likely in coming years.
Why do utility operators often reject renewable resources?
572961001d04691400779353
because they are trained to think only in terms of big, conventional power plants
250
False
Why do consumers often ignore renewable power systems?
572961001d04691400779354
because they are not given accurate price signals about electricity consumption
380
False
Who argued that some of the problems facing renewable energy are more about culture and institutions than engineering and science?
572961001d04691400779355
Benjamin K. Sovacool
606
False
because they are trained to think only in terms of big, conventional power plants
250
Why do utility operators often accept renewable resources?
5ad13471645df0001a2d114e
True
because they are trained to think only in terms of big, conventional power plants
250
Why do utility operators only ever accept renewable resources?
5ad13471645df0001a2d114f
True
because they are not given accurate price signals about electricity consumption
380
Why do consumers often accept renewable power systems?
5ad13471645df0001a2d1150
True
Benjamin K. Sovacool
606
Who agreed that some of the problems facing renewable energy are more about culture and institutions than engineering and science?
5ad13471645df0001a2d1151
True
Many energy markets, institutions, and policies have been developed to support the production and use of fossil fuels. Newer and cleaner technologies may offer social and environmental benefits, but utility operators often reject renewable resources because they are trained to think only in terms of big, conventional power plants. Consumers often ignore renewable power systems because they are not given accurate price signals about electricity consumption. Intentional market distortions (such as subsidies), and unintentional market distortions (such as split incentives) may work against renewables. Benjamin K. Sovacool has argued that "some of the most surreptitious, yet powerful, impediments facing renewable energy and energy efficiency in the United States are more about culture and institutions than engineering and science".
Lester Brown states that the market does not incorporate what?
572965381d04691400779399
the indirect costs of providing goods or services into prices
58
False
Who believes that the market does not value nature's service adequately?
572965381d0469140077939a
Lester Brown
0
False
What can help over come the problems with the market?
572965381d0469140077939b
Tax and subsidy shifting
352
False
indirect costs of providing goods or services into prices
62
Lester Brown states that the market incorporates what?
5ad1349b645df0001a2d1156
True
Lester Brown
0
Who said the market does incorporate the indirect costs?
5ad1349b645df0001a2d1157
True
Tax and subsidy shifting
352
What can't help over come the problems with the market?
5ad1349b645df0001a2d1158
True
Lester Brown
0
Who believes that the market does value nature's service adequately?
5ad1349b645df0001a2d1159
True
Lester Brown states that the market "does not incorporate the indirect costs of providing goods or services into prices, it does not value nature's services adequately, and it does not respect the sustainable-yield thresholds of natural systems". It also favors the near term over the long term, thereby showing limited concern for future generations. Tax and subsidy shifting can help overcome these problems, though is also problematic to combine different international normative regimes regulating this issue.
What involves lowering income taxes while raising levies?
57296618af94a219006aa383
Tax shifting
0
False
Several Western European companies are shifting taxes in a process known as what?
57296618af94a219006aa384
environmental tax reform
534
False
What is the purpose of tax shifting?
57296618af94a219006aa385
to create a more responsive market
174
False
Tax shifting
0
What involves lowering income taxes while lowering levies?
5ad134d3645df0001a2d115e
True
Tax shifting
0
What involves raising income taxes while raising levies?
5ad134d3645df0001a2d115f
True
Tax shifting
0
What involves raising income taxes while lowering levies?
5ad134d3645df0001a2d1160
True
create a more responsive market
177
What isn't the purpose of tax shifting?
5ad134d3645df0001a2d1161
True
environmental tax reform
534
Several Northern European companies are shifting taxes in a process known as what?
5ad134d3645df0001a2d1162
True
Tax shifting has been widely discussed and endorsed by economists. It involves lowering income taxes while raising levies on environmentally destructive activities, in order to create a more responsive market. For example, a tax on coal that included the increased health care costs associated with breathing polluted air, the costs of acid rain damage, and the costs of climate disruption would encourage investment in renewable technologies. Several Western European countries are already shifting taxes in a process known there as environmental tax reform.
Besides tax shifting, what is another need?
572967616aef051400154e24
subsidy shifting
67
False
What was the result of publicly funded links among computers in government labs and reserach institutes?
572967616aef051400154e25
the Internet
415
False
What helped create the modern wind power industry?
572967616aef051400154e26
federal tax deduction and a robust state tax deduction in California
563
False
subsidy shifting
67
Besides tax shifting, what is not another need?
5ad13561645df0001a2d1170
True
the Internet
415
What wasn't the result of publicly funded links among computers in government labs and reserach institutes?
5ad13561645df0001a2d1171
True
the Internet
415
What was the result of privately funded links among computers in government labs and reserach institutes?
5ad13561645df0001a2d1172
True
federal tax deduction and a robust state tax deduction
563
What helped create the ancient wind power industry?
5ad13561645df0001a2d1173
True
Just as there is a need for tax shifting, there is also a need for subsidy shifting. Subsidies are not an inherently bad thing as many technologies and industries emerged through government subsidy schemes. The Stern Review explains that of 20 key innovations from the past 30 years, only one of the 14 was funded entirely by the private sector and nine were totally publicly funded. In terms of specific examples, the Internet was the result of publicly funded links among computers in government laboratories and research institutes. And the combination of the federal tax deduction and a robust state tax deduction in California helped to create the modern wind power industry.
As of 2012, what accounts for about half of new nameplate electrical capacity?
5729683a1d046914007793bb
renewable energy
721
False
What involves the deployment of three generations of renewable energy technologies dating back more than 100 years?
5729683a1d046914007793bc
Renewable energy commercialization
0
False
Name one second-generation technology that is market ready.
5729683a1d046914007793bd
wind power
429
False
Renewable energy
0
As of 2013, what accounts for about half of new nameplate electrical capacity
5ad11fd6645df0001a2d0e66
True
Renewable energy commercialization
0
What involves the deployment of three generations of renewable energy technologies dating back more than 10 years?
5ad11fd6645df0001a2d0e67
True
wind power
429
Name one third-generation technology that is market ready.
5ad11fd6645df0001a2d0e68
True
Renewable energy commercialization involves the deployment of three generations of renewable energy technologies dating back more than 100 years. First-generation technologies, which are already mature and economically competitive, include biomass, hydroelectricity, geothermal power and heat. Second-generation technologies are market-ready and are being deployed at the present time; they include solar heating, photovoltaics, wind power, solar thermal power stations, and modern forms of bioenergy. Third-generation technologies require continued R&D efforts in order to make large contributions on a global scale and include advanced biomass gasification, hot-dry-rock geothermal power, and ocean energy. As of 2012, renewable energy accounts for about half of new nameplate electrical capacity installed and costs are continuing to fall.
What group advocates leveling the playing field?
57296a386aef051400154e40
International Solar Energy Society
351
False
How does the International Solar Energy Society propse to level the playing field?
57296a386aef051400154e41
by redressing the continuing inequities in public subsidies of energy technologies and R&D
425
False
What is the key to stabilizing the earth's climate?
57296a386aef051400154e42
development of climate-benign energy sources
203
False
International Solar Energy
351
What group rejects leveling the playing field?
5ad135e2645df0001a2d1182
True
redressing the continuing inequities in public subsidies of energy technologies and R&D
428
How does the International Solar Energy Society propose to not level the playing field?
5ad135e2645df0001a2d1183
True
development of climate-benign energy sources
203
What is the key to not stabilizing the earth's climate?
5ad135e2645df0001a2d1184
True
Lester Brown has argued that "a world facing the prospect of economically disruptive climate change can no longer justify subsidies to expand the burning of coal and oil. Shifting these subsidies to the development of climate-benign energy sources such as wind, solar, biomass, and geothermal power is the key to stabilizing the earth's climate." The International Solar Energy Society advocates "leveling the playing field" by redressing the continuing inequities in public subsidies of energy technologies and R&D, in which the fossil fuel and nuclear power receive the largest share of financial support.
What country is reducing its coal subsidy?
57296cccaf94a219006aa3df
Germany
143
False
What country has been increasing its support for the fossil fuel and nuclear industries?
57296cccaf94a219006aa3e0
United States
459
False
Some countries have phased out all subsidies for what substance?
57296cccaf94a219006aa3e1
coal
137
False
Germany
143
What country is building its coal subsidy?
5ad13603645df0001a2d1188
True
Germany
143
What country is not reducing its coal subsidy?
5ad13603645df0001a2d1189
True
United States
459
What country has been decreasing its support for the fossil fuel and nuclear industries?
5ad13603645df0001a2d118a
True
coal
329
No countries have phased out all subsidies for what substance?
5ad13603645df0001a2d118b
True
Some countries are eliminating or reducing climate disrupting subsidies and Belgium, France, and Japan have phased out all subsidies for coal. Germany is reducing its coal subsidy. The subsidy dropped from $5.4 billion in 1989 to $2.8 billion in 2002, and in the process Germany lowered its coal use by 46 percent. China cut its coal subsidy from $750 million in 1993 to $240 million in 1995 and more recently has imposed a high-sulfur coal tax. However, the United States has been increasing its support for the fossil fuel and nuclear industries.
Setting national renewable energy targets can be an important part of what?
57296daa1d04691400779427
renewable energy policy
72
False
The European Union has prescribed an indicative renewable energy target of what percent?
57296daa1d04691400779428
12 per cent of the total EU energy mix
295
False
Name one outher country with defined national or regional target?
57296daa1d04691400779429
Australia
558
False
renewable energy policy
72
Setting national renewable energy targets can be an unimportant part of what?
5ad1362b645df0001a2d1190
True
renewable energy policy
72
Setting national renewable energy targets is never an important part of what?
5ad1362b645df0001a2d1191
True
12 per cent of the total EU energy mix
295
The European Union has not prescribed an indicative renewable energy target of what percent?
5ad1362b645df0001a2d1192
True
Australia
558
Name one other country without defined national or regional target?
5ad1362b645df0001a2d1193
True
Setting national renewable energy targets can be an important part of a renewable energy policy and these targets are usually defined as a percentage of the primary energy and/or electricity generation mix. For example, the European Union has prescribed an indicative renewable energy target of 12 per cent of the total EU energy mix and 22 per cent of electricity consumption by 2010. National targets for individual EU Member States have also been set to meet the overall target. Other developed countries with defined national or regional targets include Australia, Canada, Israel, Japan, Korea, New Zealand, Norway, Singapore, Switzerland, and some US States.
What determines the extent to which renewable energy is to be incorporated into a country's generation mix?
572970003f37b319004783b5
Public policy
0
False
Who has the authority to carry out a number of functions that havae implications for the feasiblity of renewable energy projects?
572970003f37b319004783b6
Energy regulators
276
False
Why have energy sector regulators become a key facilitator of renewable energy investments?
572970003f37b319004783b7
Since policies are not self-implementing
1363
False
Public policy
0
What determines the extent to which renewable energy is to be incorporated outside of a country's generation mix?
5ad1367b645df0001a2d11a2
True
Energy regulators
276
What doesn't determine the extent to which renewable energy is to be incorporated into a country's generation mix?
5ad1367b645df0001a2d11a3
True
Energy regulators
276
Who doesn't have the authority to carry out a number of functions that have implications for the feasibility of renewable energy projects?
5ad1367b645df0001a2d11a4
True
Since policies are not self-implementing
1363
Why have energy sector regulators not become a key facilitator of renewable energy investments?
5ad1367b645df0001a2d11a5
True
Public policy determines the extent to which renewable energy (RE) is to be incorporated into a developed or developing country's generation mix. Energy sector regulators implement that policy—thus affecting the pace and pattern of RE investments and connections to the grid. Energy regulators often have authority to carry out a number of functions that have implications for the financial feasibility of renewable energy projects. Such functions include issuing licenses, setting performance standards, monitoring the performance of regulated firms, determining the price level and structure of tariffs, establishing uniform systems of accounts, arbitrating stakeholder disputes (like interconnection cost allocations), performing management audits, developing agency human resources (expertise), reporting sector and commission activities to government authorities, and coordinating decisions with other government agencies. Thus, regulators make a wide range of decisions that affect the financial outcomes associated with RE investments. In addition, the sector regulator is in a position to give advice to the government regarding the full implications of focusing on climate change or energy security. The energy sector regulator is the natural advocate for efficiency and cost-containment throughout the process of designing and implementing RE policies. Since policies are not self-implementing, energy sector regulators become a key facilitator (or blocker) of renewable energy investments.
What is the driving force behind voluntary green electricity within the EU?
572970e9af94a219006aa41d
liberalized electricity markets
75
False
What states that EU Member States must ensure that the origin of electricity produced from renewables can be guaranteed?
572970e9af94a219006aa41e
RES Directive
115
False
In the US, what is the main tool to track and stimulate voluntary actions?
572970e9af94a219006aa41f
Green-e program
546
False
liberalized electricity markets
75
What is the driving force behind voluntary green electricity outside of the EU?
5ad136b6645df0001a2d11b2
True
liberalized electricity markets
75
What isn't the driving force behind voluntary green electricity within the EU?
5ad136b6645df0001a2d11b3
True
RES Directive
115
What states that EU Member States must not ensure that the origin of electricity produced from renewables can be guaranteed?
5ad136b6645df0001a2d11b4
True
Green-e program
546
n the US, what is not the main tool to track and stimulate voluntary actions?
5ad136b6645df0001a2d11b5
True
The driving force behind voluntary green electricity within the EU are the liberalized electricity markets and the RES Directive. According to the directive the EU Member States must ensure that the origin of electricity produced from renewables can be guaranteed and therefore a "guarantee of origin" must be issued (article 15). Environmental organisations are using the voluntary market to create new renewables and improving sustainability of the existing power production. In the US the main tool to track and stimulate voluntary actions is Green-e program managed by Center for Resource Solutions. In Europe the main voluntary tool used by the NGOs to promote sustainable electricity production is EKOenergy label.
What made a strong economic case for investing in low carbon technologies?
572971b83f37b319004783d9
Stern Review
195
False
In what year did a number of events push renewable energy up the political agenda?
572971b83f37b319004783da
2006
22
False
What is driving increasing rates of investment in the renewable energy industry?
572971b83f37b319004783db
climate change concerns coupled with recent high oil prices
449
False
Stern Review
195
What made a weak economic case for investing in low carbon technologies?
5ad136ea645df0001a2d11ba
True
Stern Review
195
What made a strong economic case for not investing in low carbon technologies?
5ad136ea645df0001a2d11bb
True
2006
185
In what year did a number of events push renewable energy back the political agenda?
5ad136ea645df0001a2d11bc
True
climate change concerns coupled with recent high oil prices
449
What is driving decreasing rates of investment in the renewable energy industry?
5ad136ea645df0001a2d11bd
True
A number of events in 2006 pushed renewable energy up the political agenda, including the US mid-term elections in November, which confirmed clean energy as a mainstream issue. Also in 2006, the Stern Review made a strong economic case for investing in low carbon technologies now, and argued that economic growth need not be incompatible with cutting energy consumption. According to a trend analysis from the United Nations Environment Programme, climate change concerns coupled with recent high oil prices and increasing government support are driving increasing rates of investment in the renewable energy and energy efficiency industries.
What helped the industry weather the 2009 economic crisis better than other sectors?
572972deaf94a219006aa441
New government spending, regulation, and policies
0
False
What suggests that the commercialization of clean energy will hellp countries deal with economic malaise?
572972deaf94a219006aa442
commercialization of clean energy
635
False
Which company became invovled in a political controversy?
572972deaf94a219006aa443
Solyndra
783
False
What company filed for Chapter 11 bankruptcy?
572972deaf94a219006aa444
Solyndra
783
False
New government spending
0
What didn't help the industry weather the 2009 economic crisis better than other sectors?
5ad13736645df0001a2d11c2
True
New government spending, regulation, and policies
0
What helped the industry weather the 2010 economic crisis better than other sectors?
5ad13736645df0001a2d11c3
True
commercialization of clean energy
635
What didn't suggest that the commercialization of clean energy will hellp countries deal with economic malaise?
5ad13736645df0001a2d11c4
True
Solyndra
783
Which company did not become involved in a political controversy?
5ad13736645df0001a2d11c5
True
Solyndra
783
What company never had to file for Chapter 11 bankruptcy?
5ad13736645df0001a2d11c6
True
New government spending, regulation, and policies helped the industry weather the 2009 economic crisis better than many other sectors. Most notably, U.S. President Barack Obama's American Recovery and Reinvestment Act of 2009 included more than $70 billion in direct spending and tax credits for clean energy and associated transportation programs. This policy-stimulus combination represents the largest federal commitment in U.S. history for renewables, advanced transportation, and energy conservation initiatives. Based on these new rules, many more utilities strengthened their clean-energy programs. Clean Edge suggests that the commercialization of clean energy will help countries around the world deal with the current economic malaise. Once-promising solar energy company, Solyndra, became involved in a political controversy involving U.S. President Barack Obama's administration's authorization of a $535 million loan guarantee to the Corporation in 2009 as part of a program to promote alternative energy growth. The company ceased all business activity, filed for Chapter 11 bankruptcy, and laid-off nearly all of its employees in early September 2011.
What plays a major role in the energy mix of many countries?
5729734f6aef051400154efc
renewable energy
12
False
What is becoming increasingly economic in both developing and devloped countries?
5729734f6aef051400154efd
Renewables
94
False
As of 2012, prices for what commodity continued to drop?
5729734f6aef051400154efe
renewable energy technologies
195
False
renewable energy
12
What plays a minor role in the energy mix of many countries?
5ad1375b645df0001a2d11d6
True
renewable energy
12
What plays a major role in the energy mix of no countries?
5ad1375b645df0001a2d11d7
True
renewable energy
12
What plays a major role in the energy mix of every single country?
5ad1375b645df0001a2d11d8
True
renewable energy technologies
195
As of 2013, prices for what commodity continued to drop?
5ad1375b645df0001a2d11d9
True
As of 2012, renewable energy plays a major role in the energy mix of many countries globally. Renewables are becoming increasingly economic in both developing and developed countries. Prices for renewable energy technologies, primarily wind power and solar power, continued to drop, making renewables competitive with conventional energy sources. Without a level playing field, however, high market penetration of renewables is still dependent on a robust promotional policies. Fossil fuel subsidies, which are far higher than those for renewable energy, remain in place and quickly need to be phased out.
Who is United Nations' Secretary-General?
572974506aef051400154f1c
Ban Ki-moon
34
False
Ban Ki-moon states that renewable energy has the ability to lift the poorest nations to new levels of prosperity?
572974506aef051400154f1d
renewable energy
61
False
Who is chair of UN Energy?
572974506aef051400154f1e
Kandeh Yumkella
344
False
Who is chairman of Bank of America?
572974506aef051400154f1f
Charles Holliday
456
False
Ban Ki-moon
34
Who is UK's Secretary-General?
5ad13790645df0001a2d11e8
True
Ban Ki-moon
34
Who is US's Secretary-General?
5ad13790645df0001a2d11e9
True
renewable energy
61
Ban Ki-moon states that renewable energy has the ability to lift the richest nations to new levels of prosperity?
5ad13790645df0001a2d11ea
True
Kandeh Yumkella
344
Who is chair of US Energy?
5ad13790645df0001a2d11eb
True
Charles Holliday
456
Who is chairman of Bank of Canada?
5ad13790645df0001a2d11ec
True
United Nations' Secretary-General Ban Ki-moon has said that "renewable energy has the ability to lift the poorest nations to new levels of prosperity". In October 2011, he "announced the creation of a high-level group to drum up support for energy access, energy efficiency and greater use of renewable energy. The group is to be co-chaired by Kandeh Yumkella, the chair of UN Energy and director general of the UN Industrial Development Organisation, and Charles Holliday, chairman of Bank of America".
In 2012, solar electricity consumption increased by what percentage?
572975046aef051400154f24
58 percent
128
False
Use of wind power in 2012 increased by what percentage?
572975046aef051400154f25
18.1 percent
207
False
How much was the worldwide investment in solar power in 2012?
572975046aef051400154f26
$140.4 billion
425
False
Analysts expect the market to triple by what year?
572975046aef051400154f27
2030
763
False
In what year did investment in renewables exceed fossils?
572975046aef051400154f28
2015
772
False
58 percent
128
In 2012, solar electricity consumption decreased by what percentage?
5ad137d0645df0001a2d11f2
True
58 percent
128
In 2013, solar electricity consumption increased by what percentage?
5ad137d0645df0001a2d11f3
True
18.1 percent
207
Use of wind power in 2012 decreased by what percentage?
5ad137d0645df0001a2d11f4
True
$140.4 billion
425
How much was the worldwide investment in solar power in 2013?
5ad137d0645df0001a2d11f5
True
2030
763
Analysts expect the market to double by what year?
5ad137d0645df0001a2d11f6
True
Worldwide use of solar power and wind power continued to grow significantly in 2012. Solar electricity consumption increased by 58 percent, to 93 terawatt-hours (TWh). Use of wind power in 2012 increased by 18.1 percent, to 521.3 TWh. Global solar and wind energy installed capacities continued to expand even though new investments in these technologies declined during 2012. Worldwide investment in solar power in 2012 was $140.4 billion, an 11 percent decline from 2011, and wind power investment was down 10.1 percent, to $80.3 billion. But due to lower production costs for both technologies, total installed capacities grew sharply. This investment decline, but growth in installed capacity, may again occur in 2013. Analysts expect the market to triple by 2030. In 2015, investment in renewables exceeded fossils.
What motivated the incentive to use 100 percent renewable energy?
572975b16aef051400154f42
global warming
140
False
How many nations already have renewable energy contributing to more than 20 percent of energy supply?
572975b16aef051400154f43
at least 30 nations
796
False
Who developed a series of stabilization wedges?
572975b16aef051400154f44
Professors S. Pacala and Robert H. Socolow
914
False
global warming
140
What motivated the incentive to use 10 percent renewable energy?
5ad13802645df0001a2d1204
True
at least 30 nations
796
How many nations already have renewable energy contributing to more than 40 percent of energy supply?
5ad13802645df0001a2d1205
True
Professors S. Pacala and Robert H. Socolow
914
Who rejected a series of stabilization wedges?
5ad13802645df0001a2d1206
True
The incentive to use 100% renewable energy, for electricity, transport, or even total primary energy supply globally, has been motivated by global warming and other ecological as well as economic concerns. The Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change has said that there are few fundamental technological limits to integrating a portfolio of renewable energy technologies to meet most of total global energy demand. In reviewing 164 recent scenarios of future renewable energy growth, the report noted that the majority expected renewable sources to supply more than 17% of total energy by 2030, and 27% by 2050; the highest forecast projected 43% supplied by renewables by 2030 and 77% by 2050. Renewable energy use has grown much faster than even advocates anticipated. At the national level, at least 30 nations around the world already have renewable energy contributing more than 20% of energy supply. Also, Professors S. Pacala and Robert H. Socolow have developed a series of "stabilization wedges" that can allow us to maintain our quality of life while avoiding catastrophic climate change, and "renewable energy sources," in aggregate, constitute the largest number of their "wedges."
Who is a professor of civil and environmental engineering at Stanford University?
57297650af94a219006aa47b
Mark Z. Jacobson
0
False
What is a barrier to implementing the renewable energy plan?
57297650af94a219006aa47c
social and political
379
False
Who stated that energy costs with a wind, solar, water system should be similar to today's energy costs?
57297650af94a219006aa47d
Mark Z. Jacobson
0
False
Jacobson says producing all new energy with wind power, solar power and hydropower is feasible by what year?
57297650af94a219006aa47e
2030
218
False
Mark Z. Jacobson
0
Who is a professor of English at Stanford University?
5ad13830645df0001a2d121e
True
social and political
379
What is a barrier to implementing the non-renewable energy plan?
5ad13830645df0001a2d121f
True
Mark Z. Jacobson
0
Who stated that energy costs with a wind, solar, water system should not be similar to today's energy costs?
5ad13830645df0001a2d1220
True
2030
218
Jacobson says producing all new energy with wind power, solar power and hydropower is not feasible by what year?
5ad13830645df0001a2d1221
True
Mark Z. Jacobson, professor of civil and environmental engineering at Stanford University and director of its Atmosphere and Energy Program says producing all new energy with wind power, solar power, and hydropower by 2030 is feasible and existing energy supply arrangements could be replaced by 2050. Barriers to implementing the renewable energy plan are seen to be "primarily social and political, not technological or economic". Jacobson says that energy costs with a wind, solar, water system should be similar to today's energy costs.
Why is renewable energy an attractive option?
572977183f37b31900478459
can supply significantly greater amounts of electricity than the total current or projected domestic demand
460
False
In what country is the National Research Council located?
572977183f37b3190047845a
United States
18
False
Sufficient domestic reneewable resources exist for what reason?
572977183f37b3190047845b
to allow renewable electricity to play a significant role in future electricity generation
137
False
can supply significantly greater amounts of electricity than the total current or projected domestic demand
460
Why is renewable energy an unattractive option?
5ad13859645df0001a2d1226
True
United States
18
In what city is the National Research Council located?
5ad13859645df0001a2d1227
True
to allow renewable electricity to play a significant role in future electricity generation
137
Insufficient domestic reneewable resources exist for what reason?
5ad13859645df0001a2d1228
True
Similarly, in the United States, the independent National Research Council has noted that "sufficient domestic renewable resources exist to allow renewable electricity to play a significant role in future electricity generation and thus help confront issues related to climate change, energy security, and the escalation of energy costs … Renewable energy is an attractive option because renewable resources available in the United States, taken collectively, can supply significantly greater amounts of electricity than the total current or projected domestic demand." .
Palermo
For what is Palermo known?
572946c53f37b319004781f3
history, culture, architecture and gastronomy
292
False
How old is the city of Palermo?
572946c53f37b319004781f4
2,700 years old
410
False
On what island is Palermo located?
572946c53f37b319004781f5
Sicily
480
False
Italy
178
What country is Paletrmo a mainland city of?
5a3e4f88378766001a00256d
True
Palermo
0
What city is the capital of the Palermo province but noit the region of Sicily?
5a3e4f88378766001a00256e
True
Palermo
257
What city has been around since 2700 A.D.?
5a3e4f88378766001a00256f
True
Palermo
257
What city is in the northwest of Italy?
5a3e4f88378766001a002570
True
Palermo
509
What city is near the Tyrrhenian Gulf?
5a3e4f88378766001a002571
True
Palermo (Italian: [paˈlɛrmo] ( listen), Sicilian: Palermu, Latin: Panormus, from Greek: Πάνορμος, Panormos, Arabic: بَلَرْم‎, Balarm; Phoenician: זִיז, Ziz) is a city in Insular Italy, the capital of both the autonomous region of Sicily and the Province of Palermo. The city is noted for its history, culture, architecture and gastronomy, playing an important role throughout much of its existence; it is over 2,700 years old. Palermo is located in the northwest of the island of Sicily, right by the Gulf of Palermo in the Tyrrhenian Sea.
In what year was Palermo founded?
5729478f6aef051400154c56
734 BC
24
False
What name was Palermo originally founded as?
5729478f6aef051400154c57
Ziz
53
False
What group of people founded Palermo?
5729478f6aef051400154c58
the Phoenicians
34
False
What did the Greeks name Palermo?
5729478f6aef051400154c59
Panormus
274
False
During which years was Palermo ruled by the Arabs?
5729478f6aef051400154c5a
831 to 1072
313
False
Phoenicians
38
Who founded Palermo in 734 AD?
5a3e5acc378766001a0025b3
True
Phoenicians
38
Who changed the name of Palermo to Ziz?
5a3e5acc378766001a0025b4
True
Greeks
252
Who changed the name of the city from Balarm to Panormus?
5a3e5acc378766001a0025b5
True
Arabs
425
Who gained control of the city in 1072?
5a3e5acc378766001a0025b6
True
1860
887
In what year was Palermo united?
5a3e5acc378766001a0025b7
True
The city was founded in 734 BC by the Phoenicians as Ziz ('flower'). Palermo then became a possession of Carthage, before becoming part of the Roman Republic, the Roman Empire and eventually part of the Byzantine Empire, for over a thousand years. The Greeks named the city Panormus meaning 'complete port'. From 831 to 1072 the city was under Arab rule during the Emirate of Sicily when the city first became a capital. The Arabs shifted the Greek name into Balarm, the root for Palermo's present-day name. Following the Norman reconquest, Palermo became the capital of a new kingdom (from 1130 to 1816), the Kingdom of Sicily and the capital of the Holy Roman Empire under Frederick II Holy Roman Emperor and Conrad IV of Germany, King of the Romans. Eventually Sicily would be united with the Kingdom of Naples to form the Kingdom of the Two Sicilies until the Italian unification of 1860.
What types of churches attract tourists to Palermo?
572948523f37b3190047820d
Romanesque, Gothic and Baroque
247
False
Which town is Sicily's primary industrial and commercial center?
572948523f37b3190047820e
Palermo
340
False
What are Palermo's four main industrial sectors?
572948523f37b3190047820f
tourism, services, commerce and agriculture
439
False
Palermo
0
What city is Italy's cultural , economic, and tourist capital?
5a3e5c31378766001a0025bd
True
tourists
131
Who likes Palermo's sub tropical weather?
5a3e5c31378766001a0025be
True
Palermo
340
What city is main Italian industrial and cultural center?
5a3e5c31378766001a0025bf
True
cultural, artistic and economic reasons
601
Why is Palermo one of the largest cities in Europe?
5a3e5c31378766001a0025c0
True
careful redevelopment
804
What is Sicily going through?
5a3e5c31378766001a0025c1
True
Palermo is Sicily's cultural, economic and touristic capital. It is a city rich in history, culture, art, music and food. Numerous tourists are attracted to the city for its good Mediterranean weather, its renowned gastronomy and restaurants, its Romanesque, Gothic and Baroque churches, palaces and buildings, and its nightlife and music. Palermo is the main Sicilian industrial and commercial center: the main industrial sectors include tourism, services, commerce and agriculture. Palermo currently has an international airport, and a significant underground economy.[citation needed] In fact, for cultural, artistic and economic reasons, Palermo was one of the largest cities in the Mediterranean and is now among the top tourist destinations in both Italy and Europe. The city is also going through careful redevelopment, preparing to become one of the major cities of the Euro-Mediterranean area.
What geographic form is Palermo surrounded by?
5729540a1d046914007792b3
mountains
25
False
Which author desribed Monte Pelegrino as "The most beautiful promontory in the world?"
5729540a1d046914007792b4
Johann Wolfgang von Goethe,
606
False
Which is the tallest mountain in Sicily?
5729540a1d046914007792b5
La Pizzuta
305
False
Where is Monte Pellegrino in relation to other peaks?
5729540a1d046914007792b6
geographically separated from the rest of the range by a plain
427
False
Palermo
0
What city is surrounded by valleys?
5a3e7371378766001a0025c7
True
mounts
264
Why is it difficult to reach Palermo from Sicily?
5a3e7371378766001a0025c8
True
La Pizzuta
305
Which peak is 1333 feet hight?
5a3e7371378766001a0025c9
True
Monte Pellegrino
400
Which mountain is seperated from the rest of the range by a valley?
5a3e7371378766001a0025ca
True
Johann Wolfgang von Goethe,
606
Who described Monte Pellegrino in the 1900's
5a3e7371378766001a0025cb
True
Palermo is surrounded by mountains, formed of calcar, which form a cirque around the city. Some districts of the city are divided by the mountains themselves. Historically, it was relatively difficult to reach the inner part of Sicily from the city because of the mounts. The tallest peak of the range is La Pizzuta, about 1,333 m (4,373 ft.) high. However, historically, the most important mount is Monte Pellegrino, which is geographically separated from the rest of the range by a plain. The mount lies right in front of the Tyrrhenian Sea. Monte Pellegrino's cliff was described in the 19th century by Johann Wolfgang von Goethe, as "The most beautiful promontory in the world", in his essay "Italian Journey".
How can former rivers be recognised presently?
57295510af94a219006aa2c7
the streets that were built on them follow their shapes
160
False
What is the only remaining waterway in Palermo?
57295510af94a219006aa2c8
Oreto river
264
False
Which two former rivers in Palermo are currently building sites?
57295510af94a219006aa2c9
Papireto river and the Kemonia
15
False
Papireto river and the Kemonia
15
What bodies of water run through Pallermo?
5a3e747c378766001a0025d1
True
streets
164
What follows the former course of the Oreto?
5a3e747c378766001a0025d2
True
Oreto river
264
What river divides the easr and west sides of the city?
5a3e747c378766001a0025d3
True
seasonal torrents
407
What helped form the rivers.
5a3e747c378766001a0025d4
True
Today both the Papireto river and the Kemonia are covered up by buildings. However, the shape of the former watercourses can still be recognised today, because the streets that were built on them follow their shapes. Today the only waterway not drained yet is the Oreto river that divides the downtown of the city from the western uptown and the industrial districts. In the basins there were, though, many seasonal torrents that helped formed swampy plains, reclaimed during history; a good example of which can be found in the borough of Mondello.
What did Phoenicans name their settlement in 734BC?
57295b78af94a219006aa311
"Ziz."
192
False
Besides Ziz, what other two major settlements belonged to the Phoenicians
57295b78af94a219006aa312
Motya and Soluntum
273
False
Why cant artifacts from the Phoenicians be easily excavated?
57295b78af94a219006aa313
remains of the Phoenician presence in the city are few and mostly preserved in the very populated center of the downtown area
306
False
What is the current name of the road the Phoenicians used for trading?
57295b78af94a219006aa314
Corso Calatifimi
626
False
Phoenicians
18
Who built a settlement on the hatbor of Palermo?
5a3e90275a76c5001a3a834a
True
on the natural harbor of Palermo
111
Where did the Phoenicians build a harbor in 734 AD
5a3e90275a76c5001a3a834b
True
Palermo
136
Where is the modern day port of Ziz?
5a3e90275a76c5001a3a834c
True
Corso Calatifimi.
626
What road helped the Phoenicians trade with the Arabs?
5a3e90275a76c5001a3a834d
True
Motya and Soluntum
273
What were the other tewo Canaanite colonies of Sicily?
5a3e90275a76c5001a3a834e
True
During 734 BC the Phoenicians, a sea trading people from the north of ancient Canaan, built a small settlement on the natural harbor of Palermo. Some sources suggest they named the settlement "Ziz." It became one of the three main Phoenician colonies of Sicily, along with Motya and Soluntum. However, the remains of the Phoenician presence in the city are few and mostly preserved in the very populated center of the downtown area, making any excavation efforts costly and logistically difficult. The site chosen by the Phoenicians made it easy to connect the port to the mountains with a straight road that today has become Corso Calatifimi. This road helped the Phoenicians in trading with the populations that lived beyond the mountains that surround the gulf.
Why was the first settlement named Paleapolis?
57295d68af94a219006aa323
in order to distinguish it from a second settlement built during the 5th century BC, called Neapolis
100
False
What were the walls of Neapolis meant to do?
57295d68af94a219006aa324
prevent attacks from foreign threats
345
False
Which district was named for the walls surrounding it?
57295d68af94a219006aa325
Cassaro
436
False
The first settlement
0
What did Arabs call the "old city"?
5a3e92305a76c5001a3a8354
True
a second settlement
132
What was built during the 500's BC.?
5a3e92305a76c5001a3a8355
True
the city
631
What is Neapolis the first settlement of?
5a3e92305a76c5001a3a8356
True
monumental walls
286
What was built around thesettlement to keep sea water out?
5a3e92305a76c5001a3a8357
True
Cassaro
436
What district was the wall named after?
5a3e92305a76c5001a3a8358
True
The first settlement is defined as Paleapolis (Παλεάπολις), the Ancient Greek world for "old city", in order to distinguish it from a second settlement built during the 5th century BC, called Neapolis (Νεάπολις), "new city". The neapolis was erected towards the east and along with it, monumental walls around the whole settlement were built to prevent attacks from foreign threats. Some part of this structure can still be seen in the Cassaro district. This district was named after the walls themselves; the word Cassaro deriving from the Arab al-qsr (castle, stronghold). Along the walls there were few doors to access and exit the city, suggesting that trade even toward the inner part of the island occurred frequently. Moreover, according to some studies, it may be possible that there were some walls that divided the old city from the new one too. The colony developed around a central street (decumanus), cut perpendicularly by minor streets. This street today has become the Corso Vittorio Emanuele.
In which War did Greeks and Phoenicians fight over control of Sicily?
57295edc6aef051400154d96
Sicilian Wars
236
False
Why did the Sicilian Wars end?
57295edc6aef051400154d97
Carthage and Syracuse stopped warring and united in order to stop the Romans from gaining full control of the island during the First Punic War
731
False
Who conquered Panormos and briefly turned it into a Greek colony?
57295edc6aef051400154d98
Pyrrhus of Epirus
975
False
Why did the Greeks name Palermo Panormos?
57295edc6aef051400154d99
meaning "all port" due to the shape of its coast.
479
False
Carthage
0
Who was Palermo's main trading partner under the Greeks?
5a3e96235a76c5001a3a8372
True
Palermo
13
Who had a period of peace under Carthage?
5a3e96235a76c5001a3a8373
True
Ancient Greeks
161
Who did Palermo comer into contact with from the 500's to the 600's BC?
5a3e96235a76c5001a3a8374
True
Sicilian Wars,
236
Witch wars proceeded Palermo's contact with Ancient Greece?
5a3e96235a76c5001a3a8375
True
Hamilcar I's
554
Who's fleet was launched from Carthage in 408 BC?
5a3e96235a76c5001a3a8376
True
Carthage was Palermo’s major trading partner under the Phoenicians and the city enjoyed a prolonged peace during this period. Palermo came into contact with the Ancient Greeks between the 6th and the 5th centuries BC which preceded the Sicilian Wars, a conflict fought between the Greeks of Syracuse and the Phoenicians of Carthage for control over the island of Sicily. During this war the Greeks named the settlement Panormos (Πάνορμος) from which the current name is derived, meaning "all port" due to the shape of its coast. It was from Palermo that Hamilcar I's fleet (which was defeated at the Battle of Himera) was launched. In 409 B.C. the city was looted by Hermocrates of Syracuse. The Sicilian Wars ended in 265 BC when Carthage and Syracuse stopped warring and united in order to stop the Romans from gaining full control of the island during the First Punic War. In 276 BC, during the Pyrrhic War, Panormos briefly became a Greek colony after being conquered by Pyrrhus of Epirus, but returned to Phoenician Carthage in 275. In 254 BC Panormos was besieged and conquered by the Romans in the first battle of Panormus (the name Latin name). Carthage attempted to reconquer Panormus in 251 BC but failed.
How had the Vandals earned their strong reputation?
57295fc51d04691400779343
occupied all the Roman provinces in North Africa by 455
190
False
Whom took control of the Vandal's territory after 488?
57295fc51d04691400779344
Ostrogoths
421
False
How was Theodoric different than the Germanic Goths?
57295fc51d04691400779345
Theodoric supported Roman culture and government
498
False
What name was the Eastern Roman Empire also known by?
57295fc51d04691400779346
Byzantine Empire
671
False
Germanic tribes
81
Who's decline left Palermo under the control of the Roman Empire?
5a3e9b6d5a76c5001a3a839a
True
The Vandals
174
Who controled Palermo in the 4th century?
5a3e9b6d5a76c5001a3a839b
True
Roman Empire
7
Who's North African provinces were occupied by the 4th century?
5a3e9b6d5a76c5001a3a839c
True
Ostrogothic
437
What tribe took the provinces from the Vandals in the 4th century?
5a3e9b6d5a76c5001a3a839d
True
The Gothic War
574
What was the name of the war between the Ostogoths and The Western Roman Empire?
5a3e9b6d5a76c5001a3a839e
True
As the Roman Empire was falling apart, Palermo fell under the control of several Germanic tribes. The first were the Vandals in 440 AD under the rule of their king Geiseric. The Vandals had occupied all the Roman provinces in North Africa by 455 establishing themselves as a significant force. They acquired Corsica, Sardinia and Sicily shortly afterwards. However, they soon lost these newly acquired possessions to the Ostrogoths. The Ostrogothic conquest under Theodoric the Great began in 488; Theodoric supported Roman culture and government unlike the Germanic Goths. The Gothic War took place between the Ostrogoths and the Eastern Roman Empire, also known as the Byzantine Empire. Sicily was the first part of Italy to be taken under control of General Belisarius who was commissioned by Eastern Emperor. Justinian I solidified his rule in the following years.
How long did Muslim control of Palermo last?
57296106af94a219006aa35b
120 years
167
False
What did the Arabs introduce that continues to be relevant to Palermo's culture today?
57296106af94a219006aa35c
agricultural crops
690
False
How were the indigenous Palermo population treated under Muslim rule?
57296106af94a219006aa35d
reduced into near slavery
258
False
Muslims
4
Who took control of the island in the 9th century?
5a3e9ef95a76c5001a3a83ae
True
Emirate of Sicily
89
What Emerite did the Muslims establish in the 9th century?
5a3e9ef95a76c5001a3a83af
True
Syracuse
435
What city displaced Palermo as the capital during Arab rule?
5a3e9ef95a76c5001a3a83b0
True
Córdoba and Cairo
522
What cities did Syracuse compete with in terms of importance and splendor?
5a3e9ef95a76c5001a3a83b1
True
many agricultural crops
685
What did Sicilians introduce to the Arabs?
5a3e9ef95a76c5001a3a83b2
True
The Muslims took control of the Island in 904, after decades of fierce fighting, and the Emirate of Sicily was established. Muslim rule on the island lasted for about 120 years and was marked by cruelty and brutality against the native population, which was reduced into near slavery[clarification needed] and Christian churches across the island were all completely destroyed.[page needed] Palermo (Balarm during Arab rule) displaced Syracuse as the capital city of Sicily. It was said to have then begun to compete with Córdoba and Cairo in terms of importance and splendor. For more than one hundred years Palermo was the capital of a flourishing emirate. The Arabs also introduced many agricultural crops which remain a mainstay of Sicilian cuisine.
Who is considered a hero by natives for ending Muslim control of Palermo?
572961c26aef051400154dca
Robert Guiscard
163
False
What was the family name who returned Palermo to Christianity after reconquest in 1072?
572961c26aef051400154dcb
Hautevilles
140
False
Where was the Kings Court held in the Kingdom of Sicily?
572961c26aef051400154dcc
Palazzo dei Normanni
482
False
How did the Kingdom of Sicily compare monetarily with the other European staes?
572961c26aef051400154dcd
one of the wealthiest states in Europe
629
False
Christian
45
What reconquest occured in the 10th century?
5a3e9fbf5a76c5001a3a83c2
True
the Hautevilles
136
What Arab family fought in the reconquest?
5a3e9fbf5a76c5001a3a83c3
True
Roger II
248
Under who's rule was the kingdom of Sicily turned into the county of Sicily?
5a3e9fbf5a76c5001a3a83c4
True
Palermo Cathedral
581
What Catherdral was built prior to the reconquest?
5a3e9fbf5a76c5001a3a83c5
True
After dynastic quarrels however, there was a Christian reconquest in 1072. The family who returned the city to Christianity were called the Hautevilles, including Robert Guiscard and his army, who is regarded as a hero by the natives. It was under Roger II of Sicily that Norman holdings in Sicily and the southern part of the Italian Peninsula were promoted from the County of Sicily into the Kingdom of Sicily. The Kingdom's capital was Palermo, with the King's Court held at the Palazzo dei Normanni. Much construction was undertaken during this period, such as the building of Palermo Cathedral. The Kingdom of Sicily became one of the wealthiest states in Europe.
What year did Sicily become ruled by the Holy Roman Empire?
572962d53f37b319004782ff
1194
58
False
What happened to Muslims during Holy Roman rule?
572962d53f37b31900478300
emigrated or were expelled
143
False
What was Palermos population in 1330?
572962d53f37b31900478301
51,000
352
False
During what years did Austria rule Palermo?
572962d53f37b31900478302
1720 and 1734
605
False
the Holy Roman Empire
33
Who controlled Sicily in the 11th century?
5a3ea0cb5a76c5001a3a83d4
True
Muslims
124
Who immigrated to Palermo during the rule of the Holy Roman Empire?
5a3ea0cb5a76c5001a3a83d5
True
Angevin
215
Who ruled Palermo in the 12th century?
5a3ea0cb5a76c5001a3a83d6
True
declined to 51,000.
340
What happened to Palermo's population in the 13th century?
5a3ea0cb5a76c5001a3a83d7
True
Treaty of Utrecht
549
What treaty put Palermo under Austrian rule in the 17th century?
5a3ea0cb5a76c5001a3a83d8
True
Sicily fell under the control of the Holy Roman Empire in 1194. Palermo was the preferred city of the Emperor Frederick II. Muslims of Palermo emigrated or were expelled during Holy Roman rule. After an interval of Angevin rule (1266–1282), Sicily came under control of the Aragon and Barcelona dynasties. By 1330, Palermo's population had declined to 51,000. From 1479 until 1713 Palermo was ruled by the Kingdom of Spain, and again between 1717 and 1718. Palermo was also under Savoy control between 1713 and 1717 and 1718–1720 as a result of the Treaty of Utrecht. It was also ruled by Austria between 1720 and 1734.
After what treaty did Savoia gain control of Italy?
572963fb3f37b31900478317
Treaty of Utrecht (1713)
10
False
For what event did Charles III choose Sicily as the location?
572963fb3f37b31900478318
his coronation
151
False
Where did the Royal Court reside?
572963fb3f37b31900478319
Naples
690
False
Where did the capital city move in 1817?
572963fb3f37b3190047831a
Naples
690
False
Whose son died on the way to Palermo and is buried there?
572963fb3f37b3190047831b
Charles III
121
False
Treaty of Utrecht
10
What treaty caused the Savoy to loose Sicily?
5a3ea1ec5a76c5001a3a83de
True
Palermo
139
Where was Charles the II crowned King of Sicily?
5a3ea1ec5a76c5001a3a83df
True
Royal Court
349
What court resided in Palermo?
5a3ea1ec5a76c5001a3a83e0
True
Ferdinand
393
Who took refuge in Palermo in the 17th century?
5a3ea1ec5a76c5001a3a83e1
True
Palermo
649
What became the capital of the Two Sicilies after Naples?
5a3ea1ec5a76c5001a3a83e2
True
After the Treaty of Utrecht (1713), Sicily was handed over to the Savoia, but by 1734 it was again a Bourbon possession. Charles III chose Palermo for his coronation as King of Sicily. Charles had new houses built for the growing population, while trade and industry grew as well. However, by now Palermo was now just another provincial city as the Royal Court resided in Naples. Charles' son Ferdinand, though disliked by the population, took refuge in Palermo after the French Revolution in 1798. His son Alberto died on the way to Palermo and is buried in the city. When the Kingdom of the Two Sicilies was founded, the original capital city was Palermo (1816) but a year later moved to Naples.
Who led the first insurrection in Europe in 1848?
5729651f6aef051400154df8
Giuseppe La Masa
158
False
Who was the first president of Palermo?
5729651f6aef051400154df9
Ruggero Settimo
247
False
Who regained control of Palermo in 1849?
5729651f6aef051400154dfa
The Bourbons
264
False
Sicily and Palermo became part of what Kingdom in 1861?
5729651f6aef051400154dfb
Kingdom of Italy
559
False
Giuseppe La Masa.
158
Who led an insurrection in the 18th century?
5a3ea2aa5a76c5001a3a83e8
True
Ruggero Settimo
247
Who was the first president of Palermo?
5a3ea2aa5a76c5001a3a83e9
True
The Bourbons
264
Who reconqured Palermo in the 18th century?
5a3ea2aa5a76c5001a3a83ea
True
Giuseppe Garibaldi
354
What general lead the Bourbons?
5a3ea2aa5a76c5001a3a83eb
True
From 1820 to 1848 Sicily was shaken by upheavals, which culminated on 12 January 1848, with a popular insurrection, the first one in Europe that year, led by Giuseppe La Masa. A parliament and constitution were proclaimed. The first president was Ruggero Settimo. The Bourbons reconquered Palermo in 1849, and remained under their rule until the time of Giuseppe Garibaldi. The famous general entered Palermo with his troops (the “Thousands”) on 27 May 1860. After the plebiscite later that year Palermo, along with the rest of Sicily, became part of the new Kingdom of Italy (1861).
Who was blamed for the week long rebellion of 1866?
5729667c3f37b3190047833b
anarchists and the Church, specifically the Archbishop of Palermo
227
False
Which families help to start cultural, industrial, and economic growth in Palermo?
5729667c3f37b3190047833c
Florio, the Ducrot, the Rutelli, the Sandron, the Whitaker, the Utveggio
462
False
In what style were the villas in the new expanded Palermo?
5729667c3f37b3190047833d
Art Nouveau
793
False
Which theatre was designed by Giovan Battista Filippo Basile ans opened in 1897?
5729667c3f37b3190047833e
Teatro Massimo
1013
False
The majority of Sicilians
0
Who prefered the Savoia kingdom to independence?
5a3ea39b5a76c5001a3a83f0
True
Palermo
81
What was the seat of a rebellion in the 18th century?
5a3ea39b5a76c5001a3a83f1
True
Martial law
171
What crushed the 18th century rebellion in Palermo?
5a3ea39b5a76c5001a3a83f2
True
The Italian government
197
What government enacted pro-sicilian policies?
5a3ea39b5a76c5001a3a83f3
True
outside the old city walls
596
Where did Palermo expand to in the early 2000's?
5a3ea39b5a76c5001a3a83f4
True
The majority of Sicilians preferred independence to the Savoia kingdom; in 1866, Palermo became the seat of a week-long popular rebellion, which was finally crushed after Martial law was declared. The Italian government blamed anarchists and the Church, specifically the Archbishop of Palermo, for the rebellion and began enacting anti-Sicilian and anti-clerical policies. A new cultural, economic and industrial growth was spurred by several families, like the Florio, the Ducrot, the Rutelli, the Sandron, the Whitaker, the Utveggio, and others. In the early twentieth century Palermo expanded outside the old city walls, mostly to the north along the new boulevards Via Roma, Via Dante, Via Notarbartolo, and Viale della Libertà. These roads would soon boast a huge number of villas in the Art Nouveau style. Many of these were designed by the famous architect Ernesto Basile. The Grand Hotel Villa Igiea, designed by Ernesto Basile for the Florio family, is a good example of Palermitan Art Nouveau. The huge Teatro Massimo was designed in the same period by Giovan Battista Filippo Basile, and built by the Rutelli & Machì building firm of the industrial and old Rutelli Italian family in Palermo, and was opened in 1897.
To what does the term "Sack of Palermo" refer?
572967351d046914007793ab
speculative building practices that have filled the city with poor buildings
115
False
Why did Palermo substancially grow in size?
572967351d046914007793ac
reduced importance of agriculture in the Sicilian economy has led to a massive migration to the cities
197
False
What did Palermo expansion lack?
572967351d046914007793ad
t parks, schools, public buildings, proper roads and the other amenities that characterise a modern city
518
False
"Sack of Palermo"
14
What is the term for the building boom erected many fine buildings?
5a3ea4655a76c5001a3a8404
True
The reduced importance of agriculture in the Sicilian economy
193
What has led to migration away from the cities?
5a3ea4655a76c5001a3a8405
True
massive migration to the cities
268
What caused Palermo to expand to the south?
5a3ea4655a76c5001a3a8406
True
The regulatory plans for expansion
390
What was carefully followed during the boom?
5a3ea4655a76c5001a3a8407
True
The so-called "Sack of Palermo" is one of the major visible faces of the problem. The term is used to indicate the speculative building practices that have filled the city with poor buildings. The reduced importance of agriculture in the Sicilian economy has led to a massive migration to the cities, especially Palermo, which swelled in size, leading to rapid expansion towards the north. The regulatory plans for expansion was largely ignored in the boom. New parts of town appeared almost out of nowhere, but without parks, schools, public buildings, proper roads and the other amenities that characterise a modern city.
What is Palermo's climate classification?
5729684b6aef051400154e32
hot-summer Mediterranean climate (Köppen climate classification: Csa).
22
False
How do Palermo's temperatures compare to the rest of Europe?
5729684b6aef051400154e33
one of the warmest cities in Europe
213
False
How many did snow fall in Palermo between 1940and the 2000s?
5729684b6aef051400154e34
eleven
756
False
How much sun does Palermo see each year?
5729684b6aef051400154e35
2,530 hours
369
False
Palermo
0
What city has a moderate Mediterranean climate with very cold winters?
5a3ea5655a76c5001a3a840c
True
Palermo
202
What is one of the warmest cities in the world?
5a3ea5655a76c5001a3a840d
True
Snow
403
What weather never occurs in Palermo?
5a3ea5655a76c5001a3a840e
True
Apennines
502
What is too far away to protect the island from the heat?
5a3ea5655a76c5001a3a840f
True
Palermo experiences a hot-summer Mediterranean climate (Köppen climate classification: Csa). Winters are cool and wet, while summers are hot and dry. Temperatures in autumn and spring are usually mild. Palermo is one of the warmest cities in Europe (mainly due to its warm nights), with an average annual air temperature of 18.5 °C (65.3 °F). It receives approximately 2,530 hours of sunshine per year. Snow is usually a rare occurrence, but it does occur occasionally if there is a cold front, as the Apennines are too distant to protect the island from cold winds blowing from the Balkans, and the mountains surrounding the city facilite the formation of snow accumulation in Palermo, especially at night. Between the 1940s and the 2000s there have been eleven times when considerable snowfall has occurred: In 1949, in 1956, when the minimum temperature went down to 0 °C (32 °F) and the city was blanketed by several centimeters of snow. Snow also occurred in 1999, 2009 and 2015. The average annual temperature of the sea is above 19 °C (66 °F); from 14 °C (57 °F) in February to 26 °C (79 °F) in August. In the period from May to November, the average sea temperature exceeds 18 °C (64 °F) and in the period from June to October, the average sea temperature exceeds 21 °C (70 °F).
Where does the first of Palermo's circuits suround?
5729690daf94a219006aa3b7
ancient core of the punic City - the so-called Palaeopolis (in the area east of Porta Nuova) and the Neopolis
117
False
What was the name of the primary east-west road within the walls of Palaeopolis?
5729690daf94a219006aa3b8
Via Vittorio Emanuele
228
False
On what road was the eastern edge of the walled city?
5729690daf94a219006aa3b9
Via Roma
353
False
City Walls
35
What surrounds Palermo in a single circut?
5a3ea6425a76c5001a3a8414
True
Via Roma,
535
On what road was the western edge of the walled city?
5a3ea6425a76c5001a3a8415
True
Via Vittorio Emanuele
228
What was the name of the secondary east-west road within the walls of Palaepolis?
5a3ea6425a76c5001a3a8416
True
Palermo has at least 2 circuits of City Walls - many pieces of which still survive. The first circuit surrounded the ancient core of the punic City - the so-called Palaeopolis (in the area east of Porta Nuova) and the Neopolis. Via Vittorio Emanuele was the main road east-west through this early walled city. The eastern edge of the walled city was on Via Roma and the ancient port in the vicinity of Piazza Marina. The wall circuit was approximately Porto Nuovo, Corso Alberti, Piazza Peranni, Via Isodoro, Via Candela, Via Venezia, Via Roma, Piazza Paninni, Via Biscottari, Via Del Bastione, Palazzo dei Normanni and back to Porto Nuovo.
What was the purpose of Castello a Mare?
572969a16aef051400154e3a
to protect the port at La Cala
404
False
What was used to block passage through the La Cala port?
572969a16aef051400154e3b
A huge chain
436
False
During which historical period was the wall circuit expanded?
572969a16aef051400154e3c
medieval
7
False
the wall circuit
23
What was reduced in the medieval period?
5a3eab1f5a76c5001a3a842e
True
Via Vittorio Emanuele
54
What was nolonger the main east-west road?
5a3eab1f5a76c5001a3a842f
True
A huge chain
436
What used to block the West gate?
5a3eab1f5a76c5001a3a8430
True
The sea-side wall
542
What wall turns east along the western side?
5a3eab1f5a76c5001a3a8431
True
In the medieval period the wall circuit was expanded. Via Vittorio Emanuele continued to be the main road east-west through the walled city. West gate was still Porta Nuova, the circuit continued to Corso Alberti, to Piazza Vittorio Emanuele Orlando where it turned east along Via Volturno to Piazza Verdi and along the line of Via Cavour. At this north-east corner there was a defence, Castello a Mare, to protect the port at La Cala. A huge chain was used to block La Cala with the other end at S Maria della Catena (St Mary of the Chain). The sea-side wall was along the western side of Foro Italico Umberto. The wall turns west along the northern side of Via Abramo Lincoln, continues along Corso Tukory. The wall turns north approximately on Via Benedetto, to Palazzo dei Normanni and back to Porta Nuova. Source: Palermo - City Guide by Adriana Chirco, 1998, Dario Flaccovio Editore.
What is a heliometer?
57296a8baf94a219006aa3cd
solar "observatory"
32
False
What name is given to the bronze line on the floor of a heliometer?
57296a8baf94a219006aa3ce
la Meridiana
342
False
Which direction does la Meridiana run?
57296a8baf94a219006aa3cf
precisely N/S
377
False
What image is projected on the floor of the heliometer?
57296a8baf94a219006aa3d0
the sun
245
False
The cathedral
0
What has lunar observatory built in 1690?
5a3eac175a76c5001a3a8436
True
a heliometer
18
was built in the 16th century?
5a3eac175a76c5001a3a8437
True
la Meridiana
342
What is the name of the gold line on the floor of a helimeter?
5a3eac175a76c5001a3a8438
True
the sun
245
What image is projected onto the dome of the heliometer?
5a3eac175a76c5001a3a8439
True
signs of the zodiac
471
What signs are a tribute to pagean customs?
5a3eac175a76c5001a3a843a
True
The cathedral has a heliometer (solar "observatory") of 1690, one of a number built in Italy in the 17th and 18th centuries. The device itself is quite simple: a tiny hole in one of the minor domes acts as pinhole camera, projecting an image of the sun onto the floor at solar noon (12:00 in winter, 13:00 in summer). There is a bronze line, la Meridiana on the floor, running precisely N/S. The ends of the line mark the positions as at the summer and winter solstices; signs of the zodiac show the various other dates throughout the year.
How many people were living in the Palermo area in 2010?
57296dbf1d0469140077942d
1.2 million
20
False
What percentage of Palermo residents were female in 2010?
57296dbf1d0469140077942e
52.6%
152
False
What is the average age of a Palermo resident?
57296dbf1d0469140077942f
40.4
400
False
Why has Palermo's population declined from 2001 to 2010?
57296dbf1d04691400779430
population flight to the suburbs
625
False
2010
3
In what year were there 1.2 million homes in the Palermo area?
5a3ead6f5a76c5001a3a844a
True
people living in the greater Palermo area,
32
What is 47.4% female?
5a3ead6f5a76c5001a3a844b
True
resident
388
Who's average age is 42.8 in Palermo?
5a3ead6f5a76c5001a3a844c
True
population
625
What has increased in Palermo from 2001 to 2010?
5a3ead6f5a76c5001a3a844d
True
Italy
554
Who has a slightly higher birth rate than Palermo?
5a3ead6f5a76c5001a3a844e
True
In 2010, there were 1.2 million people living in the greater Palermo area, 655,875 of which resided in the City boundaries, of whom 47.4% were male and 52.6% were female. People under age 15 totalled 15.6% compared to pensioners who composed 17.2% of the population. This compares with the Italian average of 14.1% people under 15 years and 20.2% pensioners. The average age of a Palermo resident is 40.4 compared to the Italian average of 42.8. In the ten years between 2001 and 2010, the population of Palermo declined by 4.5%, while the population of Italy, as a whole, grew by 6.0%. The reason for Palermo's decline is a population flight to the suburbs, and to Northern Italy. The current birth rate of Palermo is 10.2 births per 1,000 inhabitants compared to the Italian average of 9.3 births.
On what does Palermo's economy rely?
57296e256aef051400154e72
tourism and services, but also has commerce, shipbuilding and agriculture
288
False
Palermo is the home of what mafia?
57296e256aef051400154e73
the Sicilian Mafia
499
False
Has the level of crime in Palermo risen or declined?
57296e256aef051400154e74
gone down dramatically
664
False
What negative qualities does Palermo carry?
57296e256aef051400154e75
high unemployment levels, high corruption and a significant black market empire
392
False
Palermo
39
What is Italy's administrative capital?
5a3eae585a76c5001a3a8454
True
The economy
259
What mostly depends shipbuilding and agriculture?
5a3eae585a76c5001a3a8455
True
Palermo being the home of the Sicilian Mafia)
473
Why has the black market declined in Palermo?
5a3eae585a76c5001a3a8456
True
widespread corruption, inefficient bureaucracy and organized crime
560
What has caused crime to go up in Palermo?
5a3eae585a76c5001a3a8457
True
organized crime
611
What has made the city more dangerouse to live in?
5a3eae585a76c5001a3a8458
True
Being Sicily's administrative capital, Palermo is a centre for much of the region's finance, tourism and commerce. The city currently hosts an international airport, and Palermo's economic growth over the years has brought the opening of many new businesses. The economy mainly relies on tourism and services, but also has commerce, shipbuilding and agriculture. The city, however, still has high unemployment levels, high corruption and a significant black market empire (Palermo being the home of the Sicilian Mafia). Even though the city still suffers from widespread corruption, inefficient bureaucracy and organized crime, the level of crime in Palermo's has gone down dramatically, unemployment has been decreasing and many new, profitable opportunities for growth (especially regarding tourism) have been introduced, making the city safer and better to live in.
Which port is Sicily's primary port?
57296e83af94a219006aa3ef
The port of Palermo
0
False
How many passengers travel by Palermo ferry annually?
57296e83af94a219006aa3f0
2 million
253
False
How many passengers do Palermo's ferries carry each year?
57296fea6aef051400154eac
2 million
253
False
For what is the "tourist marina" dedicated?
57296fea6aef051400154ead
sailing yachts and catamarans
598
False
What cities do the ferries of Palermo travel to?
57296fea6aef051400154eae
Cagliari, Genoa, Livorno, Naples, Tunis
168
False
The port of Palermo
0
What is the main port of Italy?
5a3eaf0a5a76c5001a3a845e
True
Palermo to Cagliari, Genoa, Livorno, Naples, Tunis
157
What cities are linked by roads?
5a3eaf0a5a76c5001a3a845f
True
The port of Palermo
0
Where does traffic include 80tons of cargo?
5a3eaf0a5a76c5001a3a8460
True
"tourist marina"
577
What section of the port is for the mafia?
5a3eaf0a5a76c5001a3a8461
True
The port of Palermo, founded by the Phoenicians over 2,700 years ago, is, together with the port of Messina, the main port of Sicily. From here ferries link Palermo to Cagliari, Genoa, Livorno, Naples, Tunis and other cities and carry a total of almost 2 million passengers annually. It is also an important port for cruise ships. Traffic includes also almost 5 million tonnes of cargo and 80.000 TEU yearly. The port also has links to minor sicilian islands such as Ustica and the Aeolian Islands (via Cefalù in summer). Inside the Port of Palermo there is a section known as "tourist marina" for sailing yachts and catamarans.
Who is the popular patron saint of Palermo?
572970446aef051400154eb2
Santa Rosalia
31
False
When is Palermo's most important religious event of the year held?
572970446aef051400154eb3
14 July
72
False
Who is said to have ended the Black Death in 1624?
572970446aef051400154eb4
Santa Rosalia
292
False
What is The Festino?
572970446aef051400154eb5
procession which goes through the main street of Palermo to commemorate the miracle attributed to Santa Rosalia
194
False
Santa Rosalia
31
Who is the patron saint of Italy?
5a3eb0305a76c5001a3a8466
True
Santa Rosalia
31
Who ended the Black Death in the 16th century?
5a3eb0305a76c5001a3a8467
True
On 14 July
69
When is Palermo's most important secular celebration?
5a3eb0305a76c5001a3a8468
True
Santa Rosalia
31
Who banished the plague from the city before dying themselves?
5a3eb0305a76c5001a3a8469
True
The patron saint of Palermo is Santa Rosalia, who is widely revered. On 14 July, people in Palermo celebrate the annual Festino, the most important religious event of the year. The Festino is a procession which goes through the main street of Palermo to commemorate the miracle attributed to Santa Rosalia who, it is believed, freed the city from the Black Death in 1624. Her remains were discovered in a cave on Monte Pellegrino, and her remains were carried around the city three times, banishing the plague. There is a sanctuary marking the spot where her remains were found which can be reached via a scenic bus ride from the city.
Green
What, in nature, is most likely to make things green?
5729604faf94a219006aa341
chlorophyll
326
False
For what do some animals use the color green?
5729604faf94a219006aa342
camouflage
522
False
What chemical causes emeralds to be green?
5729604faf94a219006aa343
chromium
624
False
From which Middle English and Anglo-Saxon word is green derived?
5729604faf94a219006aa344
grene
81
False
grene
81
What is the Germanic root word meaning grass?
5a74990f42eae6001a389a08
True
chlorophyll
326
What chemical for converting sunlight is found in emeralds?
5a74990f42eae6001a389a09
True
grene
81
What word came from the English word "green"?
5a74990f42eae6001a389a0a
True
chemical energy
410
What do plants convert chlorophyll into?
5a74990f42eae6001a389a0b
True
photosynthesize
368
What process does chromium allow plants to do?
5a74990f42eae6001a389a0c
True
The modern English word green comes from the Middle English and Anglo-Saxon word grene, from the same Germanic root as the words "grass" and "grow". It is the color of living grass and leaves and as a result is the color most associated with springtime, growth and nature. By far the largest contributor to green in nature is chlorophyll, the chemical by which plants photosynthesize and convert sunlight into chemical energy. Many creatures have adapted to their green environments by taking on a green hue themselves as camouflage. Several minerals have a green color, including the emerald, which is colored green by its chromium content.
What is green a symbol of in China?
572961606aef051400154dba
fertility and happiness
357
False
In the Middle Ages, which color was associated with merchants, bankers, and the gentry?
572961606aef051400154dbb
green
479
False
What does the Mona Lisa wearing green symbolize?
572961606aef051400154dbc
she is not from a noble family
629
False
What does the color green represent in the flags of Islamic countries?
572961606aef051400154dbd
lush vegetation of Paradise
1077
False
Why is green the color of the environmental movement?
572961606aef051400154dbe
its association with nature
1220
False
Islam
948
Red is associated with what religion?
5a749a4a42eae6001a389a12
True
red
538
What color did the nobility in China wear?
5a749a4a42eae6001a389a13
True
green
614
What color shows that Mona Lisa is a noble?
5a749a4a42eae6001a389a14
True
go ahead
841
What does a red light indicate?
5a749a4a42eae6001a389a15
True
death
208
Besides happiness, what contradictory meaning does China ascribe to green?
5a749a4a42eae6001a389a16
True
In surveys made in Europe and the United States, green is the color most commonly associated with nature, life, health, youth, spring, hope and envy. In Europe and the U.S. green is sometimes associated with death (green has several seemingly contrary associations), sickness, or the devil, but in China its associations are very positive, as the symbol of fertility and happiness. In the Middle Ages and Renaissance, when the color of clothing showed the owner's social status, green was worn by merchants, bankers and the gentry, while red was the color of the nobility. The Mona Lisa by Leonardo da Vinci wears green, showing she is not from a noble family; the benches in the British House of Commons are green, while those in the House of Lords are red. Green is also the traditional color of safety and permission; a green light means go ahead, a green card permits permanent residence in the United States. It is the most important color in Islam. It was the color of the banner of Muhammad, and is found in the flags of nearly all Islamic countries, and represents the lush vegetation of Paradise. It is also often associated with the culture of Gaelic Ireland, and is a color of the flag of Ireland. Because of its association with nature, it is the color of the environmental movement. Political groups advocating environmental protection and social justice describe themselves as part of the Green movement, some naming themselves Green parties. This has led to similar campaigns in advertising, as companies have sold green, or environmentally friendly, products.
Germanic, Romance, Slavic, and Greek all has old terms for "green" which are derived from words for what?
572962eb1d0469140077937f
fresh, sprouting vegetation
131
False
How were the terms for "green" derived in the Germanic, Romance, Slavic, and Greek languages?
572962eb1d04691400779380
independently
234
False
Which language has a word for "green" that is comparable to a Mongolian word for "meadow"?
572962eb1d04691400779381
Turkic
445
False
jašɨl
472
What is the Mongolian word for meadow?
5a749bfc42eae6001a389a1c
True
Germanic, Romance, Slavic, Greek
37
What languages have a single root word for green?
5a749bfc42eae6001a389a1d
True
yellow, ochre, golden
417
"Hari" is Turkish for what?
5a749bfc42eae6001a389a1e
True
zelenъ
379
What is the Germanic word for green?
5a749bfc42eae6001a389a1f
True
hari
411
What Sanskrit word means green?
5a749bfc42eae6001a389a20
True
Thus, the languages mentioned above (Germanic, Romance, Slavic, Greek) have old terms for "green" which are derived from words for fresh, sprouting vegetation. However, comparative linguistics makes clear that these terms were coined independently, over the past few millennia, and there is no identifiable single Proto-Indo-European or word for "green". For example, the Slavic zelenъ is cognate with Sanskrit hari "yellow, ochre, golden". The Turkic languages also have jašɨl "green" or "yellowish green", compared to a Mongolian word for "meadow".
How many terms does Japanese have for the color green?
572963d03f37b31900478311
two
443
False
What is the Vietnamese word for both blue and green?
572963d03f37b31900478312
xanh
1132
False
What are the colors of traffic lights in Japan?
572963d03f37b31900478313
the same colors that other countries have
748
False
ao
177
How is 藍 pronounced in Japanese?
5a749ef342eae6001a389a26
True
thanh
197
How is 綠 pronounced in Sino-Vietnamese?
5a749ef342eae6001a389a27
True
guriin
639
What Chinese word for green is derived from English?
5a749ef342eae6001a389a28
True
two
443
How many words for green does Thai have?
5a749ef342eae6001a389a29
True
to be in leaf, to flourish
578
What does Ian mean in reference to trees?
5a749ef342eae6001a389a2a
True
In some languages, including old Chinese, Thai, old Japanese, and Vietnamese, the same word can mean either blue or green. The Chinese character 青 (pronounced qīng in Mandarin, ao in Japanese, and thanh in Sino-Vietnamese) has a meaning that covers both blue and green; blue and green are traditionally considered shades of "青". In more contemporary terms, they are 藍 (lán, in Mandarin) and 綠 (lǜ, in Mandarin) respectively. Japanese also has two terms that refer specifically to the color green, 緑 (midori, which is derived from the classical Japanese descriptive verb midoru "to be in leaf, to flourish" in reference to trees) and グリーン (guriin, which is derived from the English word "green"). However, in Japan, although the traffic lights have the same colors that other countries have, the green light is described using the same word as for blue, "aoi", because green is considered a shade of aoi; similarly, green variants of certain fruits and vegetables such as green apples, green shiso (as opposed to red apples and red shiso) will be described with the word "aoi". Vietnamese uses a single word for both blue and green, xanh, with variants such as xanh da trời (azure, lit. "sky blue"), lam (blue), and lục (green; also xanh lá cây, lit. "leaf green").
In which language does the word for "green" also mean "rank" and "smelly"?
5729658d1d0469140077939f
Thai
879
False
In what range does the color green fall in modern European languages?
5729658d1d046914007793a0
520–570 nm
58
False
What is the origin of the word "orange"?
5729658d1d046914007793a1
the name of a fruit
847
False
520–570
58
What does the Thai word for green correspond to in nm?
5a74a09042eae6001a389a30
True
five
512
How many colors are in Thai's color system?
5a74a09042eae6001a389a31
True
six
424
How many languages have green as a separate color?
5a74a09042eae6001a389a32
True
fruit
861
The English word for Green was originally not a color term but a what?
5a74a09042eae6001a389a33
True
530–590 nm
222
What is the color range of yellow in European languages?
5a74a09042eae6001a389a34
True
"Green" in modern European languages corresponds to about 520–570 nm, but many historical and non-European languages make other choices, e.g. using a term for the range of ca. 450–530 nm ("blue/green") and another for ca. 530–590 nm ("green/yellow").[citation needed] In the comparative study of color terms in the world's languages, green is only found as a separate category in languages with the fully developed range of six colors (white, black, red, green, yellow, and blue), or more rarely in systems with five colors (white, red, yellow, green, and black/blue). (See distinction of green from blue) These languages have introduced supplementary vocabulary to denote "green", but these terms are recognizable as recent adoptions that are not in origin color terms (much like the English adjective orange being in origin not a color term but the name of a fruit). Thus, the Thai word เขียว besides meaning "green" also means "rank" and "smelly" and holds other unpleasant associations.
In which color system is green created by combining yellow and blue?
572966243f37b31900478333
subtractive
7
False
In which color model is green one of the additive primary colors?
572966243f37b31900478334
RGB
151
False
What is the complement of green on the HSV color wheel?
572966243f37b31900478335
magenta
432
False
What is the complement of green on the traditional color wheel?
572966243f37b31900478336
red
647
False
yellow
107
In color printing, blue is created by combining green and what?
5a74bc1342eae6001a389a44
True
RGB
151
What color model is used in a subtractive system?
5a74bc1342eae6001a389a45
True
HSV
353
What is another name for the color wheel using the subtractive system?
5a74bc1342eae6001a389a46
True
one of the purples
515
And equal mixture of green and magenta creates what?
5a74bc1342eae6001a389a47
True
red
495
What is the complementary color to blue?
5a74bc1342eae6001a389a48
True
In the subtractive color system, used in painting and color printing, green is created by a combination of yellow and blue, or yellow and cyan; in the RGB color model, used on television and computer screens, it is one of the additive primary colors, along with red and blue, which are mixed in different combinations to create all other colors. On the HSV color wheel, also known as the RGB color wheel, the complement of green is magenta; that is, a color corresponding to an equal mixture of red and blue light (one of the purples). On a traditional color wheel, based on subtractive color, the complementary color to green is considered to be red.
What is produced on a computer display when light from the green primary is mixed with some light from the blue primary?
572966e11d046914007793a5
A unique green
339
False
At what wavelength is green on computer displays?
572966e11d046914007793a6
~550 nm
172
False
What type of color devices are computer displays and televisions?
572966e11d046914007793a7
additive
3
False
~550 nm
172
What is the wavelength of red?
5a74beb142eae6001a389a58
True
mixing light from the green primary with some light from the blue primary
433
How is a unique blue made?
5a74beb142eae6001a389a59
True
computer displays and televisions
34
What are examples of devices that do not use additive systems?
5a74beb142eae6001a389a5a
True
~550 nm
172
What is unique green's wavelength?
5a74beb142eae6001a389a5b
True
an orangish-red "red" primary and a purplish-blue "blue" primary
219
~550nm green is a combination of which two primary colours?
5a74beb142eae6001a389a5c
True
In additive color devices such as computer displays and televisions, one of the primary light sources is typically a narrow-spectrum yellowish-green of dominant wavelength ~550 nm; this "green" primary is combined with an orangish-red "red" primary and a purplish-blue "blue" primary to produce any color in between – the RGB color model. A unique green (green appearing neither yellowish nor bluish) is produced on such a device by mixing light from the green primary with some light from the blue primary.
Which color of lasers are widely available to the general public?
5729681d6aef051400154e2a
green
23
False
What is the wavelength of inexpensive green lasers?
5729681d6aef051400154e2b
532 nm
162
False
What type of technology is used in the most common green lasers?
5729681d6aef051400154e2c
diode pumped solid state
377
False
What is the range of green wavelengths available when using DPSS technology?
5729681d6aef051400154e2d
501 nm to 543 nm
1031
False
521 nm and 531 nm
1201
What is the range of the Argon-ion laser?
5a74c09742eae6001a389a6c
True
514 nm
1166
What is the nm of liquid dye lasers?
5a74c09742eae6001a389a6d
True
green
23
What color laser is the hardest for the public to gain access to?
5a74c09742eae6001a389a6e
True
563.5 THz
875
What is the THz of the helium-neon laser?
5a74c09742eae6001a389a6f
True
potassium, titanium and phosphorus (KTP)
734
What has linear properties?
5a74c09742eae6001a389a70
True
Lasers emitting in the green part of the spectrum are widely available to the general public in a wide range of output powers. Green laser pointers outputting at 532 nm (563.5 THz) are relatively inexpensive compared to other wavelengths of the same power, and are very popular due to their good beam quality and very high apparent brightness. The most common green lasers use diode pumped solid state (DPSS) technology to create the green light. An infrared laser diode at 808 nm is used to pump a crystal of neodymium-doped yttrium vanadium oxide (Nd:YVO4) or neodymium-doped yttrium aluminium garnet (Nd:YAG) and induces it to emit 281.76 THz (1064 nm). This deeper infrared light is then passed through another crystal containing potassium, titanium and phosphorus (KTP), whose non-linear properties generate light at a frequency that is twice that of the incident beam (563.5 THz); in this case corresponding to the wavelength of 532 nm ("green"). Other green wavelengths are also available using DPSS technology ranging from 501 nm to 543 nm. Green wavelengths are also available from gas lasers, including the helium–neon laser (543 nm), the Argon-ion laser (514 nm) and the Krypton-ion laser (521 nm and 531 nm), as well as liquid dye lasers. Green lasers have a wide variety of applications, including pointing, illumination, surgery, laser light shows, spectroscopy, interferometry, fluorescence, holography, machine vision, non-lethal weapons and bird control.
What do pigments do with the color green?
5729693f3f37b3190047834d
reflect
140
False
What are green paints and dyes usually made of?
5729693f3f37b3190047834e
minerals
5
False
What is the main chemical that causes emeralds to be green?
5729693f3f37b3190047834f
chromium
420
False
What is the source of the green color in malachite pigments?
5729693f3f37b31900478350
Copper
840
False
What is the source of amazonite's color?
5729693f3f37b31900478351
small quantities of lead and water in the feldspar
788
False
Pigments
97
What is the name of minerals that emit green through their luminescence?
5a74c68b42eae6001a389a8a
True
viridian
518
What is another name for amazonite?
5a74c68b42eae6001a389a8b
True
Cr2O3
474
What is the symbol for Copper?
5a74c68b42eae6001a389a8c
True
vanadium
443
What does Chromium oxide have trace amounts of?
5a74c68b42eae6001a389a8d
True
malachite
883
What is the name of amazonite-based pigments?
5a74c68b42eae6001a389a8e
True
Many minerals provide pigments which have been used in green paints and dyes over the centuries. Pigments, in this case, are minerals which reflect the color green, rather that emitting it through luminescent or phosphorescent qualities. The large number of green pigments makes it impossible to mention them all. Among the more notable green minerals, however is the emerald, which is colored green by trace amounts of chromium and sometimes vanadium. Chromium(III) oxide (Cr2O3), is called chrome green, also called viridian or institutional green when used as a pigment. For many years, the source of amazonite's color was a mystery. Widely thought to have been due to copper because copper compounds often have blue and green colors, the blue-green color is likely to be derived from small quantities of lead and water in the feldspar. Copper is the source of the green color in malachite pigments, chemically known as basic copper(II) carbonate.
What is made by placing a plate of blade of copper, brass, or bronze into vat of fermenting wine for several weeks, then scraping off and drying the green powder?
57296ac9af94a219006aa3d5
Verdigris
0
False
Who described the process of making verdigris in ancient times?
57296ac9af94a219006aa3d6
Pliny
299
False
In what city did the Romans use verdigris in murals?
57296ac9af94a219006aa3d7
Pompeii
349
False
What would verdigris do to other colors that it came in contact with?
57296ac9af94a219006aa3d8
ruin
605
False
Which famous artist warned other artists not to use verdigris?
57296ac9af94a219006aa3d9
Leonardo da Vinci
675
False
5th century AD
409
What century did Pliny describe the process of making Verdigris?
5a74cde942eae6001a389ab2
True
Pompeii
349
What city did Pliny live in?
5a74cde942eae6001a389ab3
True
Verdigris
0
What paint did Leonardo da Vinci recommend?
5a74cde942eae6001a389ab4
True
Europe and Persia
798
Where was chrome green popular in the 16th century?
5a74cde942eae6001a389ab5
True
1859
1061
When was Prussian blue patented?
5a74cde942eae6001a389ab6
True
Verdigris is made by placing a plate or blade of copper, brass or bronze, slightly warmed, into a vat of fermenting wine, leaving it there for several weeks, and then scraping off and drying the green powder that forms on the metal. The process of making verdigris was described in ancient times by Pliny. It was used by the Romans in the murals of Pompeii, and in Celtic medieval manuscripts as early as the 5th century AD. It produced a blue-green which no other pigment could imitate, but it had drawbacks; it was unstable, it could not resist dampness, it did not mix well with other colors, it could ruin other colors with which it came into contact., and it was toxic. Leonardo da Vinci, in his treatise on painting, warned artists not to use it. It was widely used in miniature paintings in Europe and Persia in the 16th and 17th centuries. Its use largely ended in the late 19th century, when it was replaced by the safer and more stable chrome green. Viridian, also called chrome green, is a pigment made with chromium oxide dihydrate, was patented in 1859. It became popular with painters, since, unlike other synthetic greens, it was stable and not toxic. Vincent van Gogh used it, along with Prussian blue, to create a dark blue sky with a greenish tint in his painting Cafe terrace at night.
Which green food coloring is known to cause hyperactivity, asthma, urticaria, and insomnia?
57296b763f37b31900478379
Green S (E142)
410
False
What is a commonly used food coloring in the United Kingdom that is banned in Australia, Japan, Norway, and the United States?
57296b763f37b3190047837a
Quinoline Yellow
271
False
What is the most common green chemical found in nature?
57296b763f37b3190047837b
Chlorophyll
116
False
E140 and E141
143
Which two E numbers have been approved by the FDA?
5a74cea742eae6001a389abc
True
United Kingdom
330
Green S is used in what country but not the US?
5a74cea742eae6001a389abd
True
hyperactivity, asthma, urticaria, and insomnia
483
What are the side effects of Quinoline Yellow?
5a74cea742eae6001a389abe
True
Chlorophyll
116
What is the name of the green chemical the UK allows?
5a74cea742eae6001a389abf
True
US Food and Drug Administration
83
What administration approved the use of E140 as a food dye?
5a74cea742eae6001a389ac0
True
There is no natural source for green food colorings which has been approved by the US Food and Drug Administration. Chlorophyll, the E numbers E140 and E141, is the most common green chemical found in nature, and only allowed in certain medicines and cosmetic materials. Quinoline Yellow (E104) is a commonly used coloring in the United Kingdom but is banned in Australia, Japan, Norway and the United States. Green S (E142) is prohibited in many countries, for it is known to cause hyperactivity, asthma, urticaria, and insomnia.
How do fireworks create green sparks?
57296bd76aef051400154e4c
barium salts
38
False
Which copper salt can produce green glames?
57296bd76aef051400154e4d
cupric chloride
196
False
What is the ratio of boron to potassium nitrate in green pyrotechnic flares?
57296bd76aef051400154e4e
75:25
320
False
75:25
320
What is the ratio of yellow to green in green smoke?
5a74cf4342eae6001a389ac6
True
barium salts
38
What is another name for copper salts?
5a74cf4342eae6001a389ac7
True
barium chlorate, barium nitrate crystals, or barium chloride
60
What type of copper salts are used in fireworks?
5a74cf4342eae6001a389ac8
True
fireplace logs
142
What else are copper salts used for?
5a74cf4342eae6001a389ac9
True
solvent yellow 33, solvent green 3
398
Which two solvents are used in green pyrotechnic flares?
5a74cf4342eae6001a389aca
True
To create green sparks, fireworks use barium salts, such as barium chlorate, barium nitrate crystals, or barium chloride, also used for green fireplace logs. Copper salts typically burn blue, but cupric chloride (also known as "campfire blue") can also produce green flames. Green pyrotechnic flares can use a mix ratio 75:25 of boron and potassium nitrate. Smoke can be turned green by a mixture: solvent yellow 33, solvent green 3, lactose, magnesium carbonate plus sodium carbonate added to potassium chlorate.
Why are many plants green?
57296cd06aef051400154e64
chlorophyll
91
False
What does chlorophyll do with long (red) and short (blue) wavelengths of light?
57296cd06aef051400154e65
absorbs
153
False
Where did chlorophyll first arise?
57296cd06aef051400154e66
organisms living in oceans
430
False
chlorophyll
91
What chemical is found in the human eye that makes plants green?
5a74d07742eae6001a389ad0
True
red
192
Chlorophyll reflects the long wavelengths of what?
5a74d07742eae6001a389ad1
True
short
201
What type of wavelength does purple have?
5a74d07742eae6001a389ad2
True
it first arose in organisms living in oceans where purple halobacteria were already exploiting photosynthesis
412
Why does Chlorophyll absorb green light so effectively?
5a74d07742eae6001a389ad3
True
bacteriorhodopsin
621
What extracts the energy from the purple portion of the spectrum?
5a74d07742eae6001a389ad4
True
Green is common in nature, as many plants are green because of a complex chemical known as chlorophyll, which is involved in photosynthesis. Chlorophyll absorbs the long wavelengths of light (red) and short wavelengths of light (blue) much more efficiently than the wavelengths that appear green to the human eye, so light reflected by plants is enriched in green. Chlorophyll absorbs green light poorly because it first arose in organisms living in oceans where purple halobacteria were already exploiting photosynthesis. Their purple color arose because they extracted energy in the green portion of the spectrum using bacteriorhodopsin. The new organisms that then later came to dominate the extraction of light were selected to exploit those portions of the spectrum not used by the halobacteria.
How do animals typically use the color green?
57296da23f37b31900478391
camouflage
41
False
Why do most fish, reptiles, amphibians, and birds appear green?
57296da23f37b31900478392
reflection of blue light coming through an over-layer of yellow pigment
284
False
What is a chemical that can cause green hue in birds?
57296da23f37b31900478393
Turacoverdin
539
False
What is a protein that carries copper ions in chelation?
57296da23f37b31900478394
ceruloplasmin
1116
False
What is the green pigment in bile called?
57296da23f37b31900478395
biliverdin
1073
False
a reflection of blue light coming through an over-layer of yellow pigment
282
Why do most fish appear blue?
5a74d37d42eae6001a389ada
True
Turacoverdin
539
What is the name of the chemical in reptiles that causes them to appear green?
5a74d37d42eae6001a389adb
True
porphyrin
698
Birds eat what pigment that causes them to look green?
5a74d37d42eae6001a389adc
True
flavins (lychochromes) and hemanovadin
871
What chemicals have humans used in their camouflage?
5a74d37d42eae6001a389add
True
lychochromes
880
What is another name for hemanovadin?
5a74d37d42eae6001a389ade
True
Animals typically use the color green as camouflage, blending in with the chlorophyll green of the surrounding environment. Green animals include, especially, amphibians, reptiles, and some fish, birds and insects. Most fish, reptiles, amphibians, and birds appear green because of a reflection of blue light coming through an over-layer of yellow pigment. Perception of color can also be affected by the surrounding environment. For example, broadleaf forests typically have a yellow-green light about them as the trees filter the light. Turacoverdin is one chemical which can cause a green hue in birds, especially. Invertebrates such as insects or mollusks often display green colors because of porphyrin pigments, sometimes caused by diet. This can causes their feces to look green as well. Other chemicals which generally contribute to greenness among organisms are flavins (lychochromes) and hemanovadin. Humans have imitated this by wearing green clothing as a camouflage in military and other fields. Substances that may impart a greenish hue to one's skin include biliverdin, the green pigment in bile, and ceruloplasmin, a protein that carries copper ions in chelation.
What is the appearance of green in th eyes attributed to?
572a16ccaf94a219006aa7d9
an optical illusion
76
False
Where are green eyes most common?
572a16ccaf94a219006aa7da
Northern and Central Europe
358
False
Among Icelandic and Dutch adults, which sex more commonly has green eyes?
572a16ccaf94a219006aa7db
women
632
False
the stroma
184
Where is the green pigment in eyes located?
5a74d5a642eae6001a389ae4
True
melanin
240
Blue and green eyes are caused by a high concentration of what?
5a74d5a642eae6001a389ae5
True
89%
483
What percentage of women in South Asia have blue or green eyes?
5a74d5a642eae6001a389ae6
True
Celtic and Germanic
726
Which two ancestries have the least amount of green eyes?
5a74d5a642eae6001a389ae7
True
Rayleigh
284
What is the name for the scattering of light that results in the green coloring?
5a74d5a642eae6001a389ae8
True
There is no green pigment in green eyes; like the color of blue eyes, it is an optical illusion; its appearance is caused by the combination of an amber or light brown pigmentation of the stroma, given by a low or moderate concentration of melanin, with the blue tone imparted by the Rayleigh scattering of the reflected light. Green eyes are most common in Northern and Central Europe. They can also be found in Southern Europe, West Asia, Central Asia, and South Asia. In Iceland, 89% of women and 87% of men have either blue or green eye color. A study of Icelandic and Dutch adults found green eyes to be much more prevalent in women than in men. Among European Americans, green eyes are most common among those of recent Celtic and Germanic ancestry, about 16%.
Which color was the symbol to regeneration and rebirth in Ancient Egypt?
572a17786aef051400155260
green
17
False
What did Egyptian artists grind to use to paint on the walls of tombs or on papyrus?
572a17786aef051400155261
malachite
220
False
How did Egyptians dye fabrics yellow?
572a17786aef051400155262
saffron
523
False
the west Sinai
240
Where was the Nile located in Egypt?
5a74d91142eae6001a389af8
True
west Sinai and the eastern desert
244
Where was blue azurite found?
5a74d91142eae6001a389af9
True
the woad plant
582
The roots of what plant were turned into green dye?
5a74d91142eae6001a389afa
True
King Tutankhamun
342
Dye made from saffron was found in a box in whose tomb?
5a74d91142eae6001a389afb
True
regeneration and rebirth
41
What was blue a symbol of in ancient Egypt?
5a74d91142eae6001a389afc
True
In Ancient Egypt green was the symbol of regeneration and rebirth, and of the crops made possible by the annual flooding of the Nile. For painting on the walls of tombs or on papyrus, Egyptian artists used finely-ground malachite, mined in the west Sinai and the eastern desert- A paintbox with malachite pigment was found inside the tomb of King Tutankhamun. They also used less expensive green earth pigment, or mixed yellow ochre and blue azurite. To dye fabrics green, they first colored them yellow with dye made from saffron and then soaked them in blue dye from the roots of the woad plant.
What is the ancient Egyptian hieroglyph for green?
572a18b96aef051400155266
a growing papyrus sprout
102
False
Who was the ruler of the underworld in ancient Egypt?
572a18b96aef051400155267
Osiris
250
False
Why was green facial makeup worn by ancient Egyptians?
572a18b96aef051400155268
to protect them from evil
504
False
Very Green
730
What was the underworld called?
5a74e30342eae6001a389b0c
True
Osiris
250
Who ruled the ancient Egyptians?
5a74e30342eae6001a389b0d
True
small green amulets
558
What held live scarab beetles?
5a74e30342eae6001a389b0e
True
around the eyes
487
Where were scarab beetles worn to protect Egyptians from evil?
5a74e30342eae6001a389b0f
True
For the ancient Egyptians, green had very positive associations. The hieroglyph for green represented a growing papyrus sprout, showing the close connection between green, vegetation, vigor and growth. In wall paintings, the ruler of the underworld, Osiris, was typically portrayed with a green face, because green was the symbol of good health and rebirth. Palettes of green facial makeup, made with malachite, were found in tombs. It was worn by both the living and dead, particularly around the eyes, to protect them from evil. Tombs also often contained small green amulets in the shape of scarab beetles made of malachite, which would protect and give vigor to the deceased. It also symbolized the sea, which was called the "Very Green."
Which ancient greek philosopher considered green to be located midway between black and white?
572a19b61d0469140077977b
Aristotle
270
False
Which ancient greek philosopher describe pale green as cloron and leek green as prasinon?
572a19b61d0469140077977c
Democritus
175
False
Red, yellow, and black are three of the four classis colors of Greek painting. What is the fourth color?
572a19b61d0469140077977d
white
495
False
two
196
How many blues did Democritus describe?
5a74e40542eae6001a389b14
True
black, symbolizing the earth, and white, symbolizing water
329
What did Democritus say green was located between?
5a74e40542eae6001a389b15
True
cloron, or pale green, and prasinon, or leek green
218
What two greens did Aristotle reference?
5a74e40542eae6001a389b16
True
Aristotle
270
Who was a famous Greek painter?
5a74e40542eae6001a389b17
True
green
19
Yellow and what color were considered to be the same?
5a74e40542eae6001a389b18
True
In Ancient Greece, green and blue were sometimes considered the same color, and the same word sometimes described the color of the sea and the color of trees. The philosopher Democritus described two different greens; cloron, or pale green, and prasinon, or leek green. Aristotle considered that green was located midway between black, symbolizing the earth, and white, symbolizing water. However, green was not counted among of the four classic colors of Greek painting; red, yellow, black and white, and is rarely found in Greek art.
What color did the Romans attribute to Venus, the goddess of gardens, vegetables, and vineyards?
572a1bcf3f37b319004786db
green
52
False
What pigment was made by soaking copper plates in fermenting wine?
572a1bcf3f37b319004786dc
verdigris
324
False
How many different words for the varieties of green exist in Latin?
572a1bcf3f37b319004786dd
ten
487
False
wine
379
Glass was soaked in what to make green?
5a74e55542eae6001a389b1e
True
Second Century AD
392
When did Romans begin making the pigment verdigris?
5a74e55542eae6001a389b1f
True
Pompeii, Herculaneum, Lyon, Vaison-la-Romaine, and other Roman cities
226
What Roman cities hosted Venus' gardens?
5a74e55542eae6001a389b20
True
ten
487
How many words does Latin have for painting?
5a74e55542eae6001a389b21
True
paintings, mosaics and glass
442
What did the Romans stop using green for in 2nd century AD?
5a74e55542eae6001a389b22
True
The Romans had a greater appreciation for the color green; it was the color of Venus, the goddess of gardens, vegetables and vineyards.The Romans made a fine green earth pigment, which was widely used in the wall paintings of Pompeii, Herculaneum, Lyon, Vaison-la-Romaine, and other Roman cities. They also used the pigment verdigris, made by soaking copper plates in fermenting wine. By the Second Century AD, the Romans were using green in paintings, mosaics and glass, and there were ten different words in Latin for varieties of green.
Why were vegetal green dyes less than ideal?
572a1ccd6aef0514001552a4
they rapidly faded or changed color
359
False
When was a good green vegetal dye finally produced?
572a1ccd6aef0514001552a5
16th century
408
False
What was known as yellow-weed?
572a1ccd6aef0514001552a6
reseda luteola
515
False
washing and sunlight
120
Vegetal dyes were good at resisting what?
5a74e61142eae6001a389b28
True
yellow-weed
545
What is another name for woad?
5a74e61142eae6001a389b29
True
the 16th century
404
When did people begin using the leaves of the fraxinus for green dyes?
5a74e61142eae6001a389b2a
True
blue
478
What color did green-dyed clothes often change to?
5a74e61142eae6001a389b2b
True
the juice
209
Which part of the digitalis plant was used to create green dye?
5a74e61142eae6001a389b2c
True
Unfortunately for those who wanted or were required to wear green, there were no good vegetal green dyes which resisted washing and sunlight. Green dyes were made out of the fern, plantain, buckthorn berries, the juice of nettles and of leeks, the digitalis plant, the broom plant, the leaves of the fraxinus, or ash tree, and the bark of the alder tree, but they rapidly faded or changed color. Only in the 16th century was a good green dye produced, by first dyeing the cloth blue with woad, and then yellow with reseda luteola, also known as yellow-weed.
When was green associated with the romantic movement in literature and art?
572a1d5e6aef0514001552aa
18th and 19th century
7
False
Who was a French philospher that celebrated the virtues of nature?
572a1d5e6aef0514001552ab
Jean-Jacques Rousseau
124
False
Which German poet and philospher declared green to be the most restful color?
572a1d5e6aef0514001552ac
Goethe
212
False
German
184
Where was John Constable from?
5a74e9b342eae6001a389b46
True
Jean-Jacques Rousseau
124
What philosopher began the industrial Revolution?
5a74e9b342eae6001a389b47
True
the most restful color
243
What did Goethe call the color gray?
5a74e9b342eae6001a389b48
True
Jean-Baptiste-Camille Corot
337
Who painted scenes depicting the Industrial Revolution?
5a74e9b342eae6001a389b49
True
Goethe
212
Who decorated bedrooms?
5a74e9b342eae6001a389b4a
True
In the 18th and 19th century, green was associated with the romantic movement in literature and art. The French philosopher Jean-Jacques Rousseau celebrated the virtues of nature, The German poet and philosopher Goethe declared that green was the most restful color, suitable for decorating bedrooms. Painters such as John Constable and Jean-Baptiste-Camille Corot depicted the lush green of rural landscapes and forests. Green was contrasted to the smoky grays and blacks of the Industrial Revolution.
When did the systematic study of color theory begin?
572a1dd76aef0514001552b0
late nineteenth century
4
False
Who painted The Night Cafe?
572a1dd76aef0514001552b1
Vincent van Gogh
274
False
What type of colors are red and green?
572a1dd76aef0514001552b2
complementary
113
False
Vincent van Gogh
274
What artist created color theory?
5a74eae642eae6001a389b50
True
The Night Cafe
317
What did Theo van Gogh paint?
5a74eae642eae6001a389b51
True
four
533
How many rays of orange were there in The Night Cafe?
5a74eae642eae6001a389b52
True
reds
655
Van Gogh said The Night Cafe was about the contrast between yellow and what color?
5a74eae642eae6001a389b53
True
1888
356
What year did color theory first appear?
5a74eae642eae6001a389b54
True
The late nineteenth century also brought the systematic study of color theory, and particularly the study of how complementary colors such as red and green reinforced each other when they were placed next to each other. These studies were avidly followed by artists such as Vincent van Gogh. Describing his painting, The Night Cafe, to his brother Theo in 1888, Van Gogh wrote: "I sought to express with red and green the terrible human passions. The hall is blood red and pale yellow, with a green billiard table in the center, and four lamps of lemon yellow, with rays of orange and green. Everywhere it is a battle and antithesis of the most different reds and greens."
When were green and red standardized as the colors of international railroad signs?
572a1ee7af94a219006aa807
19th century
150
False
When was the first traffic light erected?
572a1ee7af94a219006aa808
1868
235
False
Where were the first modern electric traffic lights erected in 1912?
572a1ee7af94a219006aa809
Salt Lake City, Utah
425
False
Besides its association with danger, why was red chosen for traffic lights?
572a1ee7af94a219006aa80a
high visibility
485
False
The first traffic light
164
What exploded in 1912?
5a74ecd642eae6001a389b5a
True
the policeman
329
Who was injured by a traffic light in Salt Lake City?
5a74ecd642eae6001a389b5b
True
1912
363
When was the first modern traffic light put up in London?
5a74ecd642eae6001a389b5c
True
London
280
Who standardized the green and red colors?
5a74ecd642eae6001a389b5d
True
turned on and working
663
What do red lights signal in regards to a system?
5a74ecd642eae6001a389b5e
True
Green can communicate safety to proceed, as in traffic lights. Green and red were standardized as the colors of international railroad signals in the 19th century. The first traffic light, using green and red gas lamps, was erected in 1868 in front of the Houses of Parliament in London. It exploded the following year, injuring the policeman who operated it. In 1912, the first modern electric traffic lights were put up in Salt Lake City, Utah. Red was chosen largely because of its high visibility, and its association with danger, while green was chosen largely because it could not be mistaken for red. Today green lights universally signal that a system is turned on and working as it should. In many video games, green signifies both health and completed objectives, opposite red.
What was absinthe known as?
572a1f9d1d046914007797af
the green fairy
500
False
Why were popular paints and pigments in the nineteenth century highly toxic?
572a1f9d1d046914007797b0
copper or arsenic
432
False
What color is most associated with toxicity and poison?
572a1f9d1d046914007797b1
green
26
False
several popular paints and pigments, notably verdigris, vert de Schweinfurt and vert de Paris, were highly toxic
307
Why do Europeans associate green with health?
5a74ee5842eae6001a389b64
True
the green fairy
500
What was another name for Schweinfurt?
5a74ee5842eae6001a389b65
True
copper or arsenic
432
What toxins did absinthe contain?
5a74ee5842eae6001a389b66
True
verdigris
352
The Green Fairy was the name for what notable pigment?
5a74ee5842eae6001a389b67
True
Like other common colors, green has several completely opposite associations. While it is the color most associated by Europeans and Americans with good health, it is also the color most often associated with toxicity and poison. There was a solid foundation for this association; in the nineteenth century several popular paints and pigments, notably verdigris, vert de Schweinfurt and vert de Paris, were highly toxic, containing copper or arsenic.[d] The intoxicating drink absinthe was known as "the green fairy".
Which country had a flag in 1977 that was only green?
572a203e3f37b31900478707
Libya
211
False
What does the green in Jamaica's flag represent?
572a203e3f37b31900478708
country's lush vegetation
448
False
What does the green cedar of Lebanon tree represent on the Flag of Lebanon?
572a203e3f37b31900478709
steadiness and tolerance
644
False
Which color is considered sacred in Islam?
572a203e3f37b3190047870a
green
36
False
1977
198
When was the flag of Hamas created?
5a74ef8042eae6001a389b76
True
one color and no design, insignia, or other details
335
Iran is the only flag in the world with just what?
5a74ef8042eae6001a389b77
True
one
335
How many colors does the flag of Iran have?
5a74ef8042eae6001a389b78
True
green
408
The Jamaican flag represents hope using what color?
5a74ef8042eae6001a389b79
True
Islam
80
What religion does Lebanon's flag represent?
5a74ef8042eae6001a389b7a
True
Many flags of the Islamic world are green, as the color is considered sacred in Islam (see below). The flag of Hamas, as well as the flag of Iran, is green, symbolizing their Islamist ideology. The 1977 flag of Libya consisted of a simple green field with no other characteristics. It was the only national flag in the world with just one color and no design, insignia, or other details. Some countries used green in their flags to represent their country's lush vegetation, as in the flag of Jamaica, and hope in the future, as in the flags of Portugal and Nigeria. The green cedar of Lebanon tree on the Flag of Lebanon officially represents steadiness and tolerance.
What is the largest green party in Europe?
572a2278af94a219006aa837
Alliance '90/The Greens
237
False
Why was green chosen for a number of new European political parties in the 1980s?
572a2278af94a219006aa838
environmentalism
112
False
When was the German green party founded in West Germany?
572a2278af94a219006aa839
1980
400
False
Alliance 90
410
What party merged with the German Green Party in 2009?
5a74f28397ca42001a521d87
True
10.7%
528
What percentage of the votes did The Greens win in 1993?
5a74f28397ca42001a521d88
True
68
551
How many seats did Alliance 90 win in 1980?
5a74f28397ca42001a521d89
True
1989–1990
456
When was the West Germany revolution?
5a74f28397ca42001a521d8a
True
68
551
How many members does the Alliance 90 have?
5a74f28397ca42001a521d8b
True
In the 1980s green became the color of a number of new European political parties organized around an agenda of environmentalism. Green was chosen for its association with nature, health, and growth. The largest green party in Europe is Alliance '90/The Greens (German: Bündnis 90/Die Grünen) in Germany, which was formed in 1993 from the merger of the German Green Party, founded in West Germany in 1980, and Alliance 90, founded during the Revolution of 1989–1990 in East Germany. In the 2009 federal elections, the party won 10.7% of the votes and 68 out of 622 seats in the Bundestag.
What color vestments do Roman Catholic and traditional Protestant clergy wear at liturgical celebrations during Ordinary time?
572a23651d046914007797d1
green
59
False
What is green the color of in the Eastern Catholic Church?
572a23651d046914007797d2
Pentecost
178
False
What was worshipped for their ability to maintain their color through the winter season?
572a23651d046914007797d3
evergreens
285
False
What did Romans use as decorations for their winter solstice celebration called Saturnalia?
572a23651d046914007797d4
green holly and evergreen
392
False
What does green represent in Ireland and Scotland?
572a23651d046914007797d5
Catholics
608
False
Ordinary Time
109
When do clergymen wear orange vestments?
5a74f91a97ca42001a521d91
True
Pentecost
178
What does the Eastern Catholic Church use orange to represent?
5a74f91a97ca42001a521d92
True
Saturnalia
478
Pentecost was originally what holiday celebrated by the Romans?
5a74f91a97ca42001a521d93
True
orange
625
Green and what color are represented on the flag of Scotland?
5a74f91a97ca42001a521d94
True
Green
189
What color is used to represent Romans?
5a74f91a97ca42001a521d95
True
Roman Catholic and more traditional Protestant clergy wear green vestments at liturgical celebrations during Ordinary Time. In the Eastern Catholic Church, green is the color of Pentecost. Green is one of the Christmas colors as well, possibly dating back to pre-Christian times, when evergreens were worshiped for their ability to maintain their color through the winter season. Romans used green holly and evergreen as decorations for their winter solstice celebration called Saturnalia, which eventually evolved into a Christmas celebration. In Ireland and Scotland especially, green is used to represent Catholics, while orange is used to represent Protestantism. This is shown on the national flag of Ireland.
Zinc
What is the symbol for Zinc?
57296e7e6aef051400154e84
Zn
39
False
What is the atomic number for Zinc?
57296e7e6aef051400154e85
30
60
False
What is zinc chemically close to?
57296e7e6aef051400154e86
magnesium
170
False
What is the oxidation state for zinc?
57296e7e6aef051400154e87
+2
247
False
How many stable isotopes does zinc have?
57296e7e6aef051400154e88
five
315
False
What is the symbol for zinc?
572b4999be1ee31400cb8301
Zn
39
False
What is zinc's atomic number?
572b4999be1ee31400cb8302
30
60
False
What other element on the periodic table is zinc similar to?
572b4999be1ee31400cb8303
magnesium
170
False
What is the most common zinc ore?
572b4999be1ee31400cb8304
sphalerite
365
False
What is used to extract zinc during the production process?
572b4999be1ee31400cb8305
electricity
587
False
Zn
39
What is no longer the symbol for Zinc?
5acfb1b877cf76001a6858ec
True
30
60
What is the automatic number for Zinc?
5acfb1b877cf76001a6858ed
True
magnesium
170
What is zinc chemically identical to?
5acfb1b877cf76001a6858ee
True
sphalerite
365
What is the only zinc ore?
5acfb1b877cf76001a6858ef
True
electricity
587
What is used to explode zinc during the production process?
5acfb1b877cf76001a6858f0
True
Zinc is a chemical element with symbol Zn and atomic number 30. It is the first element of group 12 of the periodic table. In some respects zinc is chemically similar to magnesium: its ion is of similar size and its only common oxidation state is +2. Zinc is the 24th most abundant element in Earth's crust and has five stable isotopes. The most common zinc ore is sphalerite (zinc blende), a zinc sulfide mineral. The largest mineable amounts are found in Australia, Asia, and the United States. Zinc production includes froth flotation of the ore, roasting, and final extraction using electricity (electrowinning).
What two metals are mixed to create Brass?
57296ef16aef051400154e98
copper and zinc
28
False
When was brass first used?
57296ef16aef051400154e99
10th
78
False
Where was zinc first produced on a large scale?
57296ef16aef051400154e9a
India
219
False
When was zinc introduced to Europe?
57296ef16aef051400154e9b
end of the 16th century
261
False
Where is the oldest evidence of pure zinc?
57296ef16aef051400154e9c
Zawar
444
False
Brass is an alloy of what two elements?
572b4ab5111d821400f38e24
copper and zinc
28
False
The earliest uses of brass has been attributed to what ancient location?
572b4ab5111d821400f38e25
Judea
97
False
We have evidence of zinc production dating back to the 6th century thanks to what mine?
572b4ab5111d821400f38e26
Rajasthan
299
False
What early process was used to make zinc?
572b4ab5111d821400f38e27
distillation process
503
False
What were the names given to zinc by early alchemists?
572b4ab5111d821400f38e28
"philosopher's wool" or "white snow"
611
False
copper and zinc
28
What three metals are mixed to create brass?
5acfb2ac77cf76001a685952
True
10th century BC
78
When was brass forbidden from use?
5acfb2ac77cf76001a685953
True
end of the 16th century
261
When was zinc outlawed in Europe?
5acfb2ac77cf76001a685954
True
Zawar, in Rajasthan
444
Where is the only evidence of pure zinc?
5acfb2ac77cf76001a685955
True
distillation process
503
What early process was used to dissolve zinc?
5acfb2ac77cf76001a685956
True
Brass, which is an alloy of copper and zinc, has been used since at least the 10th century BC in Judea and by the 7th century BC in Ancient Greece. Zinc metal was not produced on a large scale until the 12th century in India and was unknown to Europe until the end of the 16th century. The mines of Rajasthan have given definite evidence of zinc production going back to the 6th century BC. To date, the oldest evidence of pure zinc comes from Zawar, in Rajasthan, as early as the 9th century AD when a distillation process was employed to make pure zinc. Alchemists burned zinc in air to form what they called "philosopher's wool" or "white snow".
Who named the element zinc?
57296f966aef051400154ea2
Paracelsus
48
False
What was zinc named after?
57296f966aef051400154ea3
Zinke
81
False
Who is credited with discovering zinc?
57296f966aef051400154ea4
Andreas Sigismund Marggraf
118
False
What two people discovered the electrochemical properties of zinc?
57296f966aef051400154ea5
Luigi Galvani and Alessandro Volta
210
False
Where can you find zinc chloride?
57296f966aef051400154ea6
deodorants
629
False
Who is credited as giving zinc its name?
572b4ba5f75d5e190021fd6a
Paracelsus
48
False
What does the name zinc or zinke mean?
572b4ba5f75d5e190021fd6b
(prong, tooth)
87
False
Who discovered pure metallic zinc?
572b4ba5f75d5e190021fd6c
Andreas Sigismund Marggraf
118
False
What is the most common use for zinc?
572b4ba5f75d5e190021fd6d
(hot-dip galvanizing
344
False
What is a common use for zinc chloride?
572b4ba5f75d5e190021fd6e
deodorants
629
False
Paracelsus
48
Who ruined the element zinc?
5acfb36877cf76001a685964
True
Andreas Sigismund Marggraf
118
Who is credited with hiding zinc?
5acfb36877cf76001a685965
True
Alessandro Volta
228
What single person discovered the electrochemical properties of zinc?
5acfb36877cf76001a685966
True
deodorants
629
Where can you lose zinc chloride?
5acfb36877cf76001a685967
True
hot-dip galvanizing
345
What is the most rare use for zinc?
5acfb36877cf76001a685968
True
The element was probably named by the alchemist Paracelsus after the German word Zinke (prong, tooth). German chemist Andreas Sigismund Marggraf is credited with discovering pure metallic zinc in 1746. Work by Luigi Galvani and Alessandro Volta uncovered the electrochemical properties of zinc by 1800. Corrosion-resistant zinc plating of iron (hot-dip galvanizing) is the major application for zinc. Other applications are in batteries, small non-structural castings, and alloys, such as brass. A variety of zinc compounds are commonly used, such as zinc carbonate and zinc gluconate (as dietary supplements), zinc chloride (in deodorants), zinc pyrithione (anti-dandruff shampoos), zinc sulfide (in luminescent paints), and zinc methyl or zinc diethyl in the organic laboratory.
How many people are affected by zinc deficiency?
5729701b1d04691400779453
two billion
211
False
What can consumption of excess zinc cause?
5729701b1d04691400779454
ataxia, lethargy and copper deficiency
559
False
Where can you find enzymes with a zinc atom in the reactive center?
5729701b1d04691400779455
biochemistry,
467
False
What can a lack of zinc cause in children?
5729701b1d04691400779456
growth retardation, delayed sexual maturation, infection susceptibility, and diarrhea
314
False
What is extremely important to prenatal and postnatal development?
572b4ce0f75d5e190021fd7c
Zinc
0
False
What can cause symptoms in children ranging from diarrhea to retarded growth?
572b4ce0f75d5e190021fd7d
Zinc deficiency
181
False
In what substance can you find a zinc atom within its reactive center?
572b4ce0f75d5e190021fd7e
alcohol dehydrogenase
489
False
What causes symptoms such as lethargy and copper deficiency?
572b4ce0f75d5e190021fd7f
excess zinc
537
False
about two billion
205
How many people are affected by zinc immunity?
5acfb49677cf76001a685994
True
ataxia, lethargy and copper deficiency
559
What can consumption of normal zinc cause?
5acfb49677cf76001a685995
True
Zinc deficiency
181
What can cause symptoms in plants ranging from diarrhea to retarded growth?
5acfb49677cf76001a685996
True
alcohol dehydrogenase
489
What substance can you find a zinc atom without a center?
5acfb49677cf76001a685997
True
excess zinc
537
What causes symptoms such as leprosy and copper deficiency?
5acfb49677cf76001a685998
True
Zinc is an essential mineral perceived by the public today as being of "exceptional biologic and public health importance", especially regarding prenatal and postnatal development. Zinc deficiency affects about two billion people in the developing world and is associated with many diseases. In children it causes growth retardation, delayed sexual maturation, infection susceptibility, and diarrhea. Enzymes with a zinc atom in the reactive center are widespread in biochemistry, such as alcohol dehydrogenase in humans. Consumption of excess zinc can cause ataxia, lethargy and copper deficiency.
What color is zinc?
572970803f37b319004783c5
bluish-white
10
False
Is iron more dense than zinc?
572970803f37b319004783c6
It is somewhat less dense than iron
123
False
At what temperature does the metal become malleable?
572970803f37b319004783c7
100 and 150 °C
455
False
At what temperature to zinc become brittle?
572970803f37b319004783c8
210 °C
477
False
What is the boiling point of zinc?
572970803f37b319004783c9
907 °C
668
False
In it's pre commercial state, what color is zinc?
572b4db9111d821400f38e3e
bluish-white
10
False
What is the crystalline structure of sync?
572b4db9111d821400f38e3f
hexagonal
169
False
What happens to zinc when it is manipulated to the temperatures between 100 and 150 Celsius?
572b4db9111d821400f38e40
becomes malleable
429
False
At what temperature can zinc be pulverized?
572b4db9111d821400f38e41
210 °C
477
False
bluish
10
What color is rotten zinc?
5acfb59777cf76001a6859c2
True
100 and 150 °C
455
What temperature does the metal become liquid?
5acfb59777cf76001a6859c3
True
210 °C
477
What temperature does zinc become unbreakable?
5acfb59777cf76001a6859c4
True
907 °C
668
What is the cooking temperature of zinc?
5acfb59777cf76001a6859c5
True
hexagonal
169
What is the impossible structure of zinc?
5acfb59777cf76001a6859c6
True
Zinc is a bluish-white, lustrous, diamagnetic metal, though most common commercial grades of the metal have a dull finish. It is somewhat less dense than iron and has a hexagonal crystal structure, with a distorted form of hexagonal close packing, in which each atom has six nearest neighbors (at 265.9 pm) in its own plane and six others at a greater distance of 290.6 pm. The metal is hard and brittle at most temperatures but becomes malleable between 100 and 150 °C. Above 210 °C, the metal becomes brittle again and can be pulverized by beating. Zinc is a fair conductor of electricity. For a metal, zinc has relatively low melting (419.5 °C) and boiling points (907 °C). Its melting point is the lowest of all the transition metals aside from mercury and cadmium.
How many radioisotopes of zinc have been discovered?
5729710a6aef051400154ece
Several dozen
0
False
What is the longest half life of the isotopes?
5729710a6aef051400154ecf
243.66
84
False
What does the superscript m represent?
5729710a6aef051400154ed0
metastable isotope
284
False
How many excited states does 61Zn have?
5729710a6aef051400154ed1
three
457
False
How many excited states does 73Zn have?
5729710a6aef051400154ed2
two
491
False
What is the most long lived radio isotope?
572b5109111d821400f38e5a
65Zn
53
False
What is the half life of 72Zn?
572b5109111d821400f38e5b
46.5 hours
171
False
How many nuclear isomers does zinc have?
572b5109111d821400f38e5c
10
192
False
What does the superscript "m" indicate?
572b5109111d821400f38e5d
metastable isotope
284
False
What does a metastable isotope do to return to ground state from an excited state?
572b5109111d821400f38e5e
emitting a photon in the form of a gamma ray
402
False
Several dozen
0
How many radioisotopes of zinc have been hidden?
5acfb69177cf76001a6859f2
True
243.66 days
84
What is the only half life of the isotopes?
5acfb69177cf76001a6859f3
True
three
457
How many boring states does 61Zn have?
5acfb69177cf76001a6859f4
True
10
192
How many nuclear isomers does zinc avoid?
5acfb69177cf76001a6859f5
True
Several dozen radioisotopes have been characterized. 65Zn, which has a half-life of 243.66 days, is the most long-lived radioisotope, followed by 72Zn with a half-life of 46.5 hours. Zinc has 10 nuclear isomers. 69mZn has the longest half-life, 13.76 h. The superscript m indicates a metastable isotope. The nucleus of a metastable isotope is in an excited state and will return to the ground state by emitting a photon in the form of a gamma ray. 61Zn has three excited states and 73Zn has two. The isotopes 65Zn, 71Zn, 77Zn and 78Zn each have only one excited state.
What oxidation state dominates zinc?
5729717d6aef051400154ed8
+2
42
False
What indicates the formation of ZN2Cl?
5729717d6aef051400154ed9
The volatilization of zinc in combination with zinc chloride at temperatures above 285 °C
308
False
what are the only two oxidation states known for zinc?
5729717d6aef051400154eda
+1 or +2
530
False
What oxidation state dominates the chemistry of zinc?
572b520df75d5e190021fd84
+2
42
False
What are the only two oxidation states known for zinc compounds?
572b520df75d5e190021fd87
+1 or +2
530
False
+2 oxidation state
42
What oxidation state repels zinc?
5acfb85977cf76001a685a52
True
The volatilization of zinc in combination with zinc chloride at temperatures above 285 °C
308
What indicates the destruction of ZN2Cl?
5acfb85977cf76001a685a53
True
+2 oxidation state
42
What is the only oxidation state known for zinc compounds?
5acfb85977cf76001a685a54
True
The chemistry of zinc is dominated by the +2 oxidation state. When compounds in this oxidation state are formed the outer shell s electrons are lost, which yields a bare zinc ion with the electronic configuration [Ar]3d10. In aqueous solution an octahedral complex, [Zn(H 2O)6]2+ is the predominant species. The volatilization of zinc in combination with zinc chloride at temperatures above 285 °C indicates the formation of Zn 2Cl 2, a zinc compound with a +1 oxidation state. No compounds of zinc in oxidation states other than +1 or +2 are known. Calculations indicate that a zinc compound with the oxidation state of +4 is unlikely to exist.
Because zinc has a filled d-shell, its compounds are usually what?
572b5334111d821400f38e64
diamagnetic and mostly colorless.
155
False
The ionic radii of what two elements are almost identical?
572b5334111d821400f38e65
zinc and magnesium
208
False
What is the determining factor where zinc and magnesium are very similar chemically?
572b5334111d821400f38e66
ionic radius
353
False
Whit what donors does zinc form stable complexes?
572b5334111d821400f38e67
N- and S-
585
False
zinc and magnesium
208
What two elements have ionic radii that are exactly identical?
5acfba0477cf76001a685aba
True
N- and S-
585
What donors does zinc disrupt stable complexes?
5acfba0477cf76001a685abb
True
ionic radius
353
What is the determining factor where zinc and magnesium are very different chemically?
5acfba0477cf76001a685abc
True
its compounds are diamagnetic
137
Why are the compounds of zinc very colorful?
5acfba0477cf76001a685abd
True
Zinc chemistry is similar to the chemistry of the late first-row transition metals nickel and copper, though it has a filled d-shell, so its compounds are diamagnetic and mostly colorless. The ionic radii of zinc and magnesium happen to be nearly identical. Because of this some of their salts have the same crystal structure and in circumstances where ionic radius is a determining factor zinc and magnesium chemistries have much in common. Otherwise there is little similarity. Zinc tends to form bonds with a greater degree of covalency and it forms much more stable complexes with N- and S- donors. Complexes of zinc are mostly 4- or 6- coordinate although 5-coordinate complexes are known.
What is necessary to stabilize the low oxidation state of zinc(l) compounds?
572b5405be1ee31400cb832b
bulky ligands
40
False
What core do most zinc(l) compounds contain?
572b5405be1ee31400cb832c
[Zn2]2+
136
False
What confirms the dimeric structure of the compound?
572b5405be1ee31400cb832d
diamagnetic nature of the ion
236
False
When a solution of metallic zinc is cooled in molten ZnCl2, what is formed?
572b5405be1ee31400cb832e
yellow glass
505
False
bulky ligands
40
What is necessary to stabilize the high oxidation state of zinc(l) compounds?
5acfba9e77cf76001a685ad6
True
[Zn2]2+
136
What core do all zinc(l) compounds contain?
5acfba9e77cf76001a685ad7
True
diamagnetic nature of the ion
236
What ruins the dimeric structure of the compound?
5acfba9e77cf76001a685ad8
True
yellow glass
505
When a solution of metallic zinc is heated in molten ZnCl2, what is formed?
5acfba9e77cf76001a685ad9
True
Zinc(I) compounds are rare, and require bulky ligands to stabilize the low oxidation state. Most zinc(I) compounds contain formally the [Zn2]2+ core, which is analogous to the [Hg2]2+ dimeric cation present in mercury(I) compounds. The diamagnetic nature of the ion confirms its dimeric structure. The first zinc(I) compound containing the Zn—Zn bond, (η5-C5Me5)2Zn2, is also the first dimetallocene. The [Zn2]2+ ion rapidly disproportionates into zinc metal and zinc(II), and has only been obtained as a yellow glass formed by cooling a solution of metallic zinc in molten ZnCl2.
What is not known for binary compounds of zinc?
572b550a34ae481900dead8f
noble gases
95
False
ZnO can be dissolved in what kind of solutions?
572b550a34ae481900dead90
strong basic and acidic solutions
233
False
What applications do chalcogenides have?
572b550a34ae481900dead91
electronics and optics.
342
False
noble gases
95
What is unknowable for binary compounds of zinc?
5acfbbc777cf76001a685b1c
True
electronics and optics
342
What applications do chalcogenides lack?
5acfbbc777cf76001a685b1d
True
Binary compounds of zinc are known for most of the metalloids and all the nonmetals except the noble gases. The oxide ZnO is a white powder that is nearly insoluble in neutral aqueous solutions, but is amphoteric, dissolving in both strong basic and acidic solutions. The other chalcogenides (ZnS, ZnSe, and ZnTe) have varied applications in electronics and optics. Pnictogenides (Zn 3N 2, Zn 3P 2, Zn 3As 2 and Zn 3Sb 2), the peroxide (ZnO 2), the hydride (ZnH 2), and the carbide (ZnC 2) are also known. Of the four halides, ZnF 2 has the most ionic character, whereas the others (ZnCl 2, ZnBr 2, and ZnI 2) have relatively low melting points and are considered to have more covalent character.
Zn(OH)2 is dissolved to form what in strong alkaline solutions?
572b55d7be1ee31400cb8334
zincates
167
False
zincates
167
What is heated in strong alkaline solutions?
5acfbe0077cf76001a685bef
True
In weak basic solutions containing Zn2+ ions, the hydroxide Zn(OH) 2 forms as a white precipitate. In stronger alkaline solutions, this hydroxide is dissolved to form zincates ([Zn(OH)4]2−). The nitrate Zn(NO3) 2, chlorate Zn(ClO3) 2, sulfate ZnSO 4, phosphate Zn 3(PO4) 2, molybdate ZnMoO 4, cyanide Zn(CN) 2, arsenite Zn(AsO2) 2, arsenate Zn(AsO4) 2·8H 2O and the chromate ZnCrO 4 (one of the few colored zinc compounds) are a few examples of other common inorganic compounds of zinc. One of the simplest examples of an organic compound of zinc is the acetate (Zn(O 2CCH3) 2).
Zinc oxide is believed to be mentioned in what ancient text?
572b56cd34ae481900dead99
The Charaka Samhita
0
False
Active zinc mines in India date back to what period?
572b56cd34ae481900dead9a
Mauryan period
231
False
What process occurred around the 12th century?
572b56cd34ae481900dead9b
smelting of metallic zinc
251
False
When was the Rasaratna Samuccaya written?
572b56cd34ae481900dead9c
13th century AD,
627
False
What are the two uses of zinc ore mentioned in the Rasaratna Samuccaya?
572b56cd34ae481900dead9d
metal extraction and another used for medicinal purposes
701
False
The Charaka Samhita
0
What ancient text forbids the use of Zinc oxide?
5acfbe9077cf76001a685c06
True
Mauryan period
231
What period do active zinc mines in China date back to?
5acfbe9077cf76001a685c07
True
smelting of metallic zinc
251
What process occurred around the 6th century?
5acfbe9077cf76001a685c08
True
13th century AD
627
When was the Rasaratna Samuccaya destroyed?
5acfbe9077cf76001a685c09
True
metal extraction
701
What is the only use of zinc ore mentioned in the Rasaratna Samuccaya?
5acfbe9077cf76001a685c0a
True
The Charaka Samhita, thought to have been written between 300 and 500 AD, mentions a metal which, when oxidized, produces pushpanjan, thought to be zinc oxide. Zinc mines at Zawar, near Udaipur in India, have been active since the Mauryan period. The smelting of metallic zinc here, however, appears to have begun around the 12th century AD. One estimate is that this location produced an estimated million tonnes of metallic zinc and zinc oxide from the 12th to 16th centuries. Another estimate gives a total production of 60,000 tonnes of metallic zinc over this period. The Rasaratna Samuccaya, written in approximately the 13th century AD, mentions two types of zinc-containing ores: one used for metal extraction and another used for medicinal purposes.
Who is attributed as first documenting zinc?
572b581a34ae481900deada9
Paracelsus
55
False
Why would zinc possibly be derived from the German word zinke?
572b581a34ae481900deadaa
metallic zinc crystals have a needle-like appearance
308
False
Why is it possible that the name zinc could be derived from the German zinn?
572b581a34ae481900deadab
imply "tin-like"
379
False
What are some of the other terms for zinc?
572b581a34ae481900deadac
Indian tin, tutanego, calamine, and spinter.
572
False
Paracelsus
55
Who is attributed as the only person to document zinc?
5acfbf4877cf76001a685c36
True
metallic zinc crystals have a needle-like appearance
308
Why would zinc possibly be derived from the imaginary word zinke?
5acfbf4877cf76001a685c37
True
Indian tin, tutanego, calamine, and spinter
572
What are some of the other outlawed words for zinc?
5acfbf4877cf76001a685c38
True
Paracelsus
55
What alchemist that first documented zinc was born in India?
5acfbf4877cf76001a685c39
True
The name of the metal was probably first documented by Paracelsus, a Swiss-born German alchemist, who referred to the metal as "zincum" or "zinken" in his book Liber Mineralium II, in the 16th century. The word is probably derived from the German zinke, and supposedly meant "tooth-like, pointed or jagged" (metallic zinc crystals have a needle-like appearance). Zink could also imply "tin-like" because of its relation to German zinn meaning tin. Yet another possibility is that the word is derived from the Persian word سنگ seng meaning stone. The metal was also called Indian tin, tutanego, calamine, and spinter.
Who first patented the process that creates an oxide usable in the retort process?
572b5939f75d5e190021fd92
William Champion's brother, John,
0
False
Before John Champion, what was the only element used to produce zinc?
572b5939f75d5e190021fd93
calamine
152
False
Who built the first horizontal retort smelter?
572b5939f75d5e190021fd94
Johann Christian Ruberg
201
False
What did Galvani name the effect he created of causing the frogs legs to twitch?
572b5939f75d5e190021fd95
animal electricity
727
False
The discoveries made by Galvani lead to what three important things?
572b5939f75d5e190021fd96
electrical batteries, galvanization and cathodic protection.
873
False
William Champion's brother, John
0
Who first banned the process that creates an oxide usable in the retort process?
5acfbfd177cf76001a685c58
True
calamine
152
What is still the only element used to produce zinc?
5acfbfd177cf76001a685c59
True
Johann Christian Ruberg
201
Who built the only vertical retort smelter?
5acfbfd177cf76001a685c5a
True
animal electricity
727
What did Galvani name the effect he created of causing the frogs legs to fly?
5acfbfd177cf76001a685c5b
True
electrical batteries, galvanization and cathodic protection
873
What harmful things did the discoveries made by Galvani lead to?
5acfbfd177cf76001a685c5c
True
William Champion's brother, John, patented a process in 1758 for calcining zinc sulfide into an oxide usable in the retort process. Prior to this, only calamine could be used to produce zinc. In 1798, Johann Christian Ruberg improved on the smelting process by building the first horizontal retort smelter. Jean-Jacques Daniel Dony built a different kind of horizontal zinc smelter in Belgium, which processed even more zinc. Italian doctor Luigi Galvani discovered in 1780 that connecting the spinal cord of a freshly dissected frog to an iron rail attached by a brass hook caused the frog's leg to twitch. He incorrectly thought he had discovered an ability of nerves and muscles to create electricity and called the effect "animal electricity". The galvanic cell and the process of galvanization were both named for Luigi Galvani and these discoveries paved the way for electrical batteries, galvanization and cathodic protection.
What is used to produce the metal zinc?
572b5a02111d821400f38e72
extractive metallurgy.
29
False
What is froth flotation used for?
572b5a02111d821400f38e73
get an ore concentrate
213
False
What is the first step in zinc metal production?
572b5a02111d821400f38e74
grinding the ore
58
False
What percentage of the ore concentrate is zinc?
572b5a02111d821400f38e75
50%
272
False
extractive metallurgy
29
What is used to eliminate the metal zinc?
5acfc06677cf76001a685c84
True
get an ore concentrate
213
What is froth flotation no longer used for?
5acfc06677cf76001a685c85
True
grinding the ore
58
What is the only step in zinc metal production?
5acfc06677cf76001a685c86
True
50%
272
What percentage of the s'more concentrate is zinc?
5acfc06677cf76001a685c87
True
Zinc metal is produced using extractive metallurgy. After grinding the ore, froth flotation, which selectively separates minerals from gangue by taking advantage of differences in their hydrophobicity, is used to get an ore concentrate. This concentrate consists of about 50% zinc with the rest being sulfur (32%), iron (13%), and SiO 2 (5%). The composition of this is normally zinc sulfide (80% to 85%), iron sulfide (7.0% to 12%), lead sulfide (3.0% to 5.0%) silica (2.5% to 3.5%), and cadmium sulfide (0.35% to 0.41%).
Large amounts of sulfur dioxide and cadmium vapor are produced due to what?
572b5afd34ae481900deadbd
The production for sulfidic zinc ores
0
False
Smelter slag contains a significant amount of what?
572b5afd34ae481900deadbe
heavy metals
177
False
Why does the Geul River contain heavy metals in a significant amount?
572b5afd34ae481900deadbf
mining operations leach significant amounts of zinc and cadmium
384
False
What is the ratio that anthropogenic and natural emissions occur at?
572b5afd34ae481900deadc0
20 to 1
971
False
The production for sulfidic zinc ores
0
What produces tiny amounts of sulfur dioxide and cadmium vapor?
5acfc0fa77cf76001a685cc8
True
heavy metals
177
What does smelter slag contain a trivial amount of?
5acfc0fa77cf76001a685cc9
True
mining operations leach significant amounts of zinc and cadmium
384
Why does the Geul River contain no heavy metals?
5acfc0fa77cf76001a685cca
True
20 to 1
971
What is the ratio that anthropogenic and unnatural emissions occur at?
5acfc0fa77cf76001a685ccb
True
The production for sulfidic zinc ores produces large amounts of sulfur dioxide and cadmium vapor. Smelter slag and other residues of process also contain significant amounts of heavy metals. About 1.1 million tonnes of metallic zinc and 130 thousand tonnes of lead were mined and smelted in the Belgian towns of La Calamine and Plombières between 1806 and 1882. The dumps of the past mining operations leach significant amounts of zinc and cadmium, and, as a result, the sediments of the Geul River contain significant amounts of heavy metals. About two thousand years ago emissions of zinc from mining and smelting totaled 10 thousand tonnes a year. After increasing 10-fold from 1850, zinc emissions peaked at 3.4 million tonnes per year in the 1980s and declined to 2.7 million tonnes in the 1990s, although a 2005 study of the Arctic troposphere found that the concentrations there did not reflect the decline. Anthropogenic and natural emissions occur at a ratio of 20 to 1.
What two compounds is zinc more reactive than?
572b5bab34ae481900deadc5
iron or steel
27
False
What forms as zinc corrodes?
572b5bab34ae481900deadc6
protective surface layer of oxide and carbonate
127
False
How is zinc applied?
572b5bab34ae481900deadc7
electrochemically or as molten zinc
358
False
What is used on many common items, such as chain link fences?
572b5bab34ae481900deadc8
Galvanization
430
False
steel
35
What is the only compound zinc is more reactive than?
5acfc1a577cf76001a685d08
True
protective surface layer of oxide and carbonate
127
What explodes as zinc corrodes?
5acfc1a577cf76001a685d09
True
electrochemically or as molten zinc
358
How is zinc applied to wounds?
5acfc1a577cf76001a685d0a
True
Galvanization
430
What is used on many rare items, such as chain link fences?
5acfc1a577cf76001a685d0b
True
Zinc is more reactive than iron or steel and thus will attract almost all local oxidation until it completely corrodes away. A protective surface layer of oxide and carbonate (Zn 5(OH) 6(CO 3) 2) forms as the zinc corrodes. This protection lasts even after the zinc layer is scratched but degrades through time as the zinc corrodes away. The zinc is applied electrochemically or as molten zinc by hot-dip galvanizing or spraying. Galvanization is used on chain-link fencing, guard rails, suspension bridges, lightposts, metal roofs, heat exchangers, and car bodies.
What makes zinc an efficient sacrificial anode?
572b5c93111d821400f38e7a
relative reactivity of zinc and its ability to attract oxidation
4
False
Connecting anodes made from zinc to buried pipe creates what?
572b5c93111d821400f38e7b
cathodic protection
161
False
What does attaching a zinc disc to a ships iron rudder do?
572b5c93111d821400f38e7c
protect metals that are exposed to sea water from corrosion
430
False
Why does zinc protect metals exposed to sea water from corroding?
572b5c93111d821400f38e7d
will slowly corrode, whereas the rudder stays unattacked
536
False
relative reactivity of zinc and its ability to attract oxidation
4
What makes zinc an inefficient sacrificial anode?
5acfc30477cf76001a685d74
True
protect metals that are exposed to sea water from corrosion
430
What does attaching a zinc sphere to a ship's iron rudder not help with?
5acfc30477cf76001a685d75
True
its ability to attract oxidation to itself
36
Why is zinc not able to ever corrode?
5acfc30477cf76001a685d76
True
will slowly corrode
536
Why does zinc harm metals exposed to sea water?
5acfc30477cf76001a685d77
True
The relative reactivity of zinc and its ability to attract oxidation to itself makes it an efficient sacrificial anode in cathodic protection (CP). For example, cathodic protection of a buried pipeline can be achieved by connecting anodes made from zinc to the pipe. Zinc acts as the anode (negative terminus) by slowly corroding away as it passes electric current to the steel pipeline.[note 2] Zinc is also used to cathodically protect metals that are exposed to sea water from corrosion. A zinc disc attached to a ship's iron rudder will slowly corrode, whereas the rudder stays unattacked. Other similar uses include a plug of zinc attached to a propeller or the metal protective guard for the keel of the ship.
What has zinc replaced in pipe organs?
572b5d6634ae481900deadcd
lead/tin alloy
216
False
Zinc, copper and aluminum alloys have use in what part of machinery?
572b5d6634ae481900deadce
machine bearings
334
False
Zinc in the main metal used in making which american currency?
572b5d6634ae481900deadcf
one cent coins
402
False
What is zinc coated with to influence the look of pennies?
572b5d6634ae481900deadd0
thin layer of copper
460
False
lead/tin alloy
216
What has zinc been replaced with in pipe organs?
5acfc41c77cf76001a685dd6
True
thin layer of copper
460
What is zinc coated with to influence the look of dimes?
5acfc41c77cf76001a685dd7
True
zinc
38
What is the only metal used in American currency?
5acfc41c77cf76001a685dd8
True
Zinc
134
What is the only metal used in pipe organs?
5acfc41c77cf76001a685dd9
True
Other widely used alloys that contain zinc include nickel silver, typewriter metal, soft and aluminium solder, and commercial bronze. Zinc is also used in contemporary pipe organs as a substitute for the traditional lead/tin alloy in pipes. Alloys of 85–88% zinc, 4–10% copper, and 2–8% aluminium find limited use in certain types of machine bearings. Zinc is the primary metal used in making American one cent coins since 1982. The zinc core is coated with a thin layer of copper to give the impression of a copper coin. In 1994, 33,200 tonnes (36,600 short tons) of zinc were used to produce 13.6 billion pennies in the United States.
Aside from die casting, what are alloys of zinc mixed with copper, aluminium and magnesium used for?
572b7b86be1ee31400cb83db
spin casting
117
False
Alloys of zinc mixed with copper, aluminium and magnesium are marketed as what?
572b7b86be1ee31400cb83dc
Zamak
239
False
What is possible to produce thanks to the low melting point and low viscosity of zinc aluminium alloy?
572b7b86be1ee31400cb83dd
small and intricate shapes
375
False
What brand name of alloy is supposed to be as strong as steel while still being malleable as plastic?
572b7b86be1ee31400cb83de
Prestal
570
False
What is used to mold Prestal?
572b7b86be1ee31400cb83df
die casts made of ceramics and cement.
755
False
spin casting
117
What are alloys of zinc mixed with copper, aluminium and plastic used for?
5acfc5e077cf76001a685e5a
True
small and intricate shapes
375
What is possible to produce thanks to the high melting point and high viscosity of zinc aluminium alloy?
5acfc5e077cf76001a685e5b
True
die casts made of ceramics and cement
755
What is used to remove Prestal?
5acfc5e077cf76001a685e5c
True
Zamak
239
What are alloys of zinc mixed with steel and copper marketed as?
5acfc5e077cf76001a685e5d
True
Prestal
570
What brand name of alloy is supposed to be as strong as silk while still being malleable as butter?
5acfc5e077cf76001a685e5e
True
Alloys of primarily zinc with small amounts of copper, aluminium, and magnesium are useful in die casting as well as spin casting, especially in the automotive, electrical, and hardware industries. These alloys are marketed under the name Zamak. An example of this is zinc aluminium. The low melting point together with the low viscosity of the alloy makes the production of small and intricate shapes possible. The low working temperature leads to rapid cooling of the cast products and therefore fast assembly is possible. Another alloy, marketed under the brand name Prestal, contains 78% zinc and 22% aluminium and is reported to be nearly as strong as steel but as malleable as plastic. This superplasticity of the alloy allows it to be molded using die casts made of ceramics and cement.
What can be done when small amounts of lead are added to alloys?
572b7c55be1ee31400cb83e5
cold-rolled into sheets
66
False
What is made with an alloy of 4% aluminium mixed with 96% zinc?
572b7c55be1ee31400cb83e6
stamping dies
145
False
Why are alloys used to make stamping dies rather than metal?
572b7c55be1ee31400cb83e7
too expensive
233
False
Why isn't unalloyed zinc used in construction applications?
572b7c55be1ee31400cb83e8
too brittle
462
False
cold-rolled into sheets
66
What can be done when large amounts of lead are added to alloys?
5acfc67477cf76001a685e90
True
stamping dies
145
What is made with an alloy of 4% magic mixed with 96% zinc?
5acfc67477cf76001a685e91
True
too expensive
233
Why are alloys used to make metal rather than stamping dies?
5acfc67477cf76001a685e92
True
brittle
466
Why is unalloyed zinc used in construction applications?
5acfc67477cf76001a685e93
True
Similar alloys with the addition of a small amount of lead can be cold-rolled into sheets. An alloy of 96% zinc and 4% aluminium is used to make stamping dies for low production run applications for which ferrous metal dies would be too expensive. In building facades, roofs or other applications in which zinc is used as sheet metal and for methods such as deep drawing, roll forming or bending, zinc alloys with titanium and copper are used. Unalloyed zinc is too brittle for these kinds of manufacturing processes.
In what form is 1/4 of zinc used in the US?
572b7d1b111d821400f38eb0
zinc compounds
95
False
What kind of zinc compound is used in manufacturing rubber?
572b7d1b111d821400f38eb1
Zinc oxide
153
False
What protects the polymers in rubber from ultraviolet radiation?
572b7d1b111d821400f38eb2
Zinc oxide
153
False
Why is zinc oxide useful in photocopying products?
572b7d1b111d821400f38eb3
semiconductor
445
False
What kind of process is the zinc zinc-oxide cycle?
572b7d1b111d821400f38eb4
thermochemical
579
False
zinc compounds
95
What form is 1/4 of zinc used in the Ukraine?
5acfc74b77cf76001a685ef2
True
Zinc oxide
153
What kind of zinc compound is used in melting rubber?
5acfc74b77cf76001a685ef3
True
Zinc oxide
153
What protects the polymers in rubber from nuclear radiation?
5acfc74b77cf76001a685ef4
True
semiconductor
445
Why is zinc oxide unhelpful in photocopying products?
5acfc74b77cf76001a685ef5
True
thermochemical process
579
What kind of process is the zinc zinc-dioxide cycle?
5acfc74b77cf76001a685ef6
True
Roughly one quarter of all zinc output in the United States (2009), is consumed in the form of zinc compounds; a variety of which are used industrially. Zinc oxide is widely used as a white pigment in paints, and as a catalyst in the manufacture of rubber. It is also used as a heat disperser for the rubber and acts to protect its polymers from ultraviolet radiation (the same UV protection is conferred to plastics containing zinc oxide). The semiconductor properties of zinc oxide make it useful in varistors and photocopying products. The zinc zinc-oxide cycle is a two step thermochemical process based on zinc and zinc oxide for hydrogen production.
What is added to wood in order to preserve it?
572b7df5f75d5e190021fe0a
Zinc chloride
0
False
What is the feature of zinc sufide that makes it useful in television screens?
572b7df5f75d5e190021fe0b
luminescent pigments
236
False
What kind of lasers are crystals of zinc suflde used in?
572b7df5f75d5e190021fe0c
mid-infrared
395
False
Where is zinc pyrithion used?
572b7df5f75d5e190021fe0d
antifouling paints.
506
False
Zinc chloride
0
What is removed from wood in order to preserve it?
5acfc7cd77cf76001a685f2c
True
luminescent pigments
236
What is the feature of zinc sulfide that makes it dangerous in television screens?
5acfc7cd77cf76001a685f2d
True
mid-infrared
395
What kind of robots are crystals of zinc sulfide used in?
5acfc7cd77cf76001a685f2e
True
antifouling paints
506
What is Zinc pyrithione illegal in?
5acfc7cd77cf76001a685f2f
True
Zinc chloride is often added to lumber as a fire retardant and can be used as a wood preservative. It is also used to make other chemicals. Zinc methyl (Zn(CH3) 2) is used in a number of organic syntheses. Zinc sulfide (ZnS) is used in luminescent pigments such as on the hands of clocks, X-ray and television screens, and luminous paints. Crystals of ZnS are used in lasers that operate in the mid-infrared part of the spectrum. Zinc sulfate is a chemical in dyes and pigments. Zinc pyrithione is used in antifouling paints.
What is the most abundant zinc isotope?
572b7eb8be1ee31400cb83ed
64Zn
0
False
What does 65Zn produce?
572b7eb8be1ee31400cb83ee
intense gamma radiation
182
False
Why is zinc oxide used in nuclear reactors?
572b7eb8be1ee31400cb83ef
anti-corrosion agent
266
False
What is used to study how alloys containing zinc wear out?
572b7eb8be1ee31400cb83f0
65Zn
800
False
64Zn
0
What is the only zinc isotope?
5acfc84c77cf76001a685f42
True
intense gamma radiation
182
What does 65Zn reduce?
5acfc84c77cf76001a685f43
True
anti-corrosion agent
266
Why is zinc oxide used in atomic reactors?
5acfc84c77cf76001a685f44
True
65Zn
658
What is used to study how alloys containing zinc melt?
5acfc84c77cf76001a685f45
True
64Zn, the most abundant isotope of zinc, is very susceptible to neutron activation, being transmuted into the highly radioactive 65Zn, which has a half-life of 244 days and produces intense gamma radiation. Because of this, Zinc Oxide used in nuclear reactors as an anti-corrosion agent is depleted of 64Zn before use, this is called depleted zinc oxide. For the same reason, zinc has been proposed as a salting material for nuclear weapons (cobalt is another, better-known salting material). A jacket of isotopically enriched 64Zn would be irradiated by the intense high-energy neutron flux from an exploding thermonuclear weapon, forming a large amount of 65Zn significantly increasing the radioactivity of the weapon's fallout. Such a weapon is not known to have ever been built, tested, or used. 65Zn is also used as a tracer to study how alloys that contain zinc wear out, or the path and the role of zinc in organisms.
What consumable product is zinc included in?
572b7f6434ae481900deae47
vitamin and mineral supplements
62
False
What property of zinc is believed to protect against skin aging?
572b7f6434ae481900deae48
antioxidant
188
False
What is the benefit of zinc after injury?
572b7f6434ae481900deae49
speed up the healing
349
False
vitamin and mineral supplements
62
What consumable product is zinc forbidden in?
5acfc8c277cf76001a685f6c
True
antioxidant
188
What property of zinc is believed to reverse aging?
5acfc8c277cf76001a685f6d
True
speed up the healing
349
What is the danger of zinc after injury?
5acfc8c277cf76001a685f6e
True
zinc oxide
116
What is the only preparation form that zinc is available in?
5acfc8c277cf76001a685f6f
True
Zinc is included in most single tablet over-the-counter daily vitamin and mineral supplements. Preparations include zinc oxide, zinc acetate, and zinc gluconate. It is believed to possess antioxidant properties, which may protect against accelerated aging of the skin and muscles of the body; studies differ as to its effectiveness. Zinc also helps speed up the healing process after an injury. It is also suspected of being beneficial to the body's immune system. Indeed, zinc deficiency may have effects on virtually all parts of the human immune system.
What kind of cancer cells may zinc prove to kill?
572b80e034ae481900deae4d
prostate
119
False
What type of agent is zync useful as against prostate cancer?
572b80e034ae481900deae4e
chemotherapeutic
286
False
What could overuse of zinc possibly cause?
572b80e034ae481900deae4f
prostate cancer
512
False
Where does zinc naturally buildup in the body?
572b80e034ae481900deae50
prostate.
595
False
prostate
119
What kind of cancer cells may zinc prove to heal?
5acfc95277cf76001a685f92
True
chemotherapeutic
286
What type of agent is zinc useless as against prostate cancer?
5acfc95277cf76001a685f93
True
prostate cancer
119
What could normal use of zinc possibly cause?
5acfc95277cf76001a685f94
True
prostate
512
Where does zinc mysteriously buildup in the body?
5acfc95277cf76001a685f95
True
Although not yet tested as a therapy in humans, a growing body of evidence indicates that zinc may preferentially kill prostate cancer cells. Because zinc naturally homes to the prostate and because the prostate is accessible with relatively non-invasive procedures, its potential as a chemotherapeutic agent in this type of cancer has shown promise. However, other studies have demonstrated that chronic use of zinc supplements in excess of the recommended dosage may actually increase the chance of developing prostate cancer, also likely due to the natural buildup of this heavy metal in the prostate.
What does organozinc chemisty describe?
572b81bc34ae481900deae55
physical properties, synthesis and reactions.
124
False
What is the zinc equivalent of the Grinard reaction?
572b81bc34ae481900deae56
The Barbier reaction
671
False
When will organomagnesium halide formation fail?
572b81bc34ae481900deae57
presence of just about any water
786
False
What are dimethylzinc, dietylzinc and diphenylzinc?
572b81bc34ae481900deae58
Commercially available diorganozinc compounds
1043
False
physical properties, synthesis and reactions
124
What does organozinc chemistry conceal?
5acfca6277cf76001a685ff4
True
The Barbier reaction
671
What is the glass equivalent of the Grinard reaction?
5acfca6277cf76001a685ff5
True
presence of just about any water
786
When will organomagnesium halide formation become permanent?
5acfca6277cf76001a685ff6
True
Commercially available diorganozinc compounds
1043
What are dimethylzinc, dietylzinc and diphenylzinc no longer allowed as?
5acfca6277cf76001a685ff7
True
There are many important organozinc compounds. Organozinc chemistry is the science of organozinc compounds describing their physical properties, synthesis and reactions. Among important applications is the Frankland-Duppa Reaction in which an oxalate ester(ROCOCOOR) reacts with an alkyl halide R'X, zinc and hydrochloric acid to the α-hydroxycarboxylic esters RR'COHCOOR, the Reformatskii reaction which converts α-halo-esters and aldehydes to β-hydroxy-esters, the Simmons–Smith reaction in which the carbenoid (iodomethyl)zinc iodide reacts with alkene(or alkyne) and converts them to cyclopropane, the Addition reaction of organozinc compounds to carbonyl compounds. The Barbier reaction (1899) is the zinc equivalent of the magnesium Grignard reaction and is better of the two. In presence of just about any water the formation of the organomagnesium halide will fail, whereas the Barbier reaction can even take place in water. On the downside organozincs are much less nucleophilic than Grignards, are expensive and difficult to handle. Commercially available diorganozinc compounds are dimethylzinc, diethylzinc and diphenylzinc. In one study the active organozinc compound is obtained from much cheaper organobromine precursors:
What role does zinc play in fingers, twists and clusters?
572b8267111d821400f38eba
structural
21
False
What are proteins that druing replication and transcription of DNA, recognize base DNA?
572b8267111d821400f38ebb
transcription factors,
107
False
How many amino acids do the Zn2+ ions bind to?
572b8267111d821400f38ebc
four
348
False
What does the transcription factor wrap around?
572b8267111d821400f38ebd
DNA helix
436
False
structural
21
What role does zinc play in fingers, hands and clusters?
5acfcb1677cf76001a686032
True
transcription factors
107
What proteins during replication and transcription of DNA forget base DNA?
5acfcb1677cf76001a686033
True
four
348
How many amino acids do the Zn2+ ions repel from?
5acfcb1677cf76001a686034
True
the DNA helix
432
What does the transcription factor remain vertical with?
5acfcb1677cf76001a686035
True
Zinc serves a purely structural role in zinc fingers, twists and clusters. Zinc fingers form parts of some transcription factors, which are proteins that recognize DNA base sequences during the replication and transcription of DNA. Each of the nine or ten Zn2+ ions in a zinc finger helps maintain the finger's structure by coordinately binding to four amino acids in the transcription factor. The transcription factor wraps around the DNA helix and uses its fingers to accurately bind to the DNA sequence.
What is the most common supplement in the US?
572b8309f75d5e190021fe18
zinc oxide
120
False
Why is zinc carbonate poorly absorbed in the body?
572b8309f75d5e190021fe19
nearly insoluble
212
False
What is the recommended daily dose of zinc supplement in healthy adults?
572b8309f75d5e190021fe1a
20 mg/day
577
False
What is the Tolderable Upper intake of zinc?
572b8309f75d5e190021fe1b
40 mg/day
682
False
zinc oxide
120
What is the only common supplement in the US?
5acfcba277cf76001a68605e
True
nearly insoluble
212
Why is zinc carbonate perfectly absorbed in the body?
5acfcba277cf76001a68605f
True
20 mg/day
577
What is the recommended daily dose of zinc supplement in unhealthy adults?
5acfcba277cf76001a686060
True
40 mg/day
682
What is the Intolerable Upper Intake of zinc?
5acfcba277cf76001a686061
True
Other sources include fortified food and dietary supplements, which come in various forms. A 1998 review concluded that zinc oxide, one of the most common supplements in the United States, and zinc carbonate are nearly insoluble and poorly absorbed in the body. This review cited studies which found low plasma zinc concentrations after zinc oxide and zinc carbonate were consumed compared with those seen after consumption of zinc acetate and sulfate salts. However, harmful excessive supplementation is a problem among the relatively affluent, and should probably not exceed 20 mg/day in healthy people, although the U.S. National Research Council set a Tolerable Upper Intake of 40 mg/day.
Zinc oxide is used to fortify what product?
572b83d2111d821400f38ec2
cereals
68
False
In what product did  various compounds of zinc show little difference in absorption?
572b83d2111d821400f38ec3
maize tortillas
317
False
What compound is better absorbed than zinc gluconate?
572b83d2111d821400f38ec4
zinc picolinate
358
False
What is the best absorbed dietary zinc compound?
572b83d2111d821400f38ec5
zinc glycinate
482
False
cereals
68
What product is zinc oxide used to taint?
5acfcc9377cf76001a686082
True
maize tortillas
317
What product did various compounds of zinc show massive differences in absorption?
5acfcc9377cf76001a686083
True
zinc picolinate
358
What compound is the same as zinc gluconate in being absorbed?
5acfcc9377cf76001a686084
True
zinc glycinate
482
What is the only absorbed dietary zinc compound?
5acfcc9377cf76001a686085
True
1987
336
What year had the only study regarding zinc compounds?
5acfcc9377cf76001a686086
True
For fortification, however, a 2003 review recommended zinc oxide in cereals as cheap, stable, and as easily absorbed as more expensive forms. A 2005 study found that various compounds of zinc, including oxide and sulfate, did not show statistically significant differences in absorption when added as fortificants to maize tortillas. A 1987 study found that zinc picolinate was better absorbed than zinc gluconate or zinc citrate. However, a study published in 2008 determined that zinc glycinate is the best absorbed of the four dietary supplement types available.
Symptoms ranging from diarrhea to eye lesions are from what?
572b84ba34ae481900deae5d
mild zinc deficiency
12
False
What is a symptom of both zinc deficiency and excess?
572b84ba34ae481900deae5e
depresses immunity
335
False
What is required for animals with zinc deficiency to gain the same weight as animals with sufficient zinc?
572b84ba34ae481900deae5f
twice as much food
436
False
mild zinc deficiency
12
What prevents symptoms ranging from diarrhea to eye lesions?
5acfcd6177cf76001a6860bc
True
twice as much food
436
What is not required for animals with zinc deficiency to gain the same weight as animals with sufficient zinc?
5acfcd6177cf76001a6860bd
True
depresses immunity
335
What is no longer a symptom of both zinc deficiency and excess?
5acfcd6177cf76001a6860be
True
depressed growth
72
Why do animals not consume zinc in their diet?
5acfcd6177cf76001a6860bf
True
Symptoms of mild zinc deficiency are diverse. Clinical outcomes include depressed growth, diarrhea, impotence and delayed sexual maturation, alopecia, eye and skin lesions, impaired appetite, altered cognition, impaired host defense properties, defects in carbohydrate utilization, and reproductive teratogenesis. Mild zinc deficiency depresses immunity, although excessive zinc does also. Animals with a diet deficient in zinc require twice as much food in order to attain the same weight gain as animals given sufficient zinc.
What is one way that vegetarians and vegans obtain zinc?
572b85aef75d5e190021fe20
plant sources
146
False
What is found in whole grains that can interfere with zinc absorption?
572b85aef75d5e190021fe21
phytates
273
False
Where is zinc chelator phytate found?
572b85aef75d5e190021fe22
seeds and cereal bran,
454
False
What kind of diet may require more than 15mg of zinc daily?
572b85aef75d5e190021fe23
diet is high in phytates,
626
False
plant sources
146
What is the only way that vegetarians and vegans obtain zinc?
5acfcdfc77cf76001a6860cc
True
phytates
273
What is found in whole grains that can help with zinc absorption?
5acfcdfc77cf76001a6860cd
True
in seeds and cereal bran
451
Where is zinc chelator phytate forbidden?
5acfcdfc77cf76001a6860ce
True
diet is high in phytates
626
What kind of diet may require more than 150mg of zinc daily?
5acfcdfc77cf76001a6860cf
True
Despite some concerns, western vegetarians and vegans have not been found to suffer from overt zinc deficiencies any more than meat-eaters. Major plant sources of zinc include cooked dried beans, sea vegetables, fortified cereals, soyfoods, nuts, peas, and seeds. However, phytates in many whole-grains and fiber in many foods may interfere with zinc absorption and marginal zinc intake has poorly understood effects. The zinc chelator phytate, found in seeds and cereal bran, can contribute to zinc malabsorption. There is some evidence to suggest that more than the US RDA (15 mg) of zinc daily may be needed in those whose diet is high in phytates, such as some vegetarians. These considerations must be balanced against the fact that there is a paucity of adequate zinc biomarkers, and the most widely used indicator, plasma zinc, has poor sensitivity and specificity. Diagnosing zinc deficiency is a persistent challenge.
What are two billion people in the world deficient in?
572b8667111d821400f38ed2
zinc
67
False
800,000 children worldwide die each year due to what?
572b8667111d821400f38ed3
deficient in zinc
54
False
What is recommended by the WHO for malnutrition and diarrhea?
572b8667111d821400f38ed4
zinc supplementation
246
False
Why shouldn't zinc be given alone to those with several deficiencies?
572b8667111d821400f38ed5
zinc interacts with other micronutrients.
560
False
zinc
67
What are five billion people in the world deficient in?
5acfce8377cf76001a6860f0
True
about 800,000 children worldwide
163
How many children are born each year due to zinc?
5acfce8377cf76001a6860f1
True
zinc supplementation
246
What is recommended by the WHO for malnutrition and fever?
5acfce8377cf76001a6860f2
True
zinc interacts with other micronutrients
560
Why shouldn't zinc be given alone to those with no deficiencies?
5acfce8377cf76001a6860f3
True
Nearly two billion people in the developing world are deficient in zinc. In children it causes an increase in infection and diarrhea, contributing to the death of about 800,000 children worldwide per year. The World Health Organization advocates zinc supplementation for severe malnutrition and diarrhea. Zinc supplements help prevent disease and reduce mortality, especially among children with low birth weight or stunted growth. However, zinc supplements should not be administered alone, because many in the developing world have several deficiencies, and zinc interacts with other micronutrients.
In what type of soil is zinc deficiency most common?
572b872c34ae481900deae69
high-pH soils
99
False
Growing plants in zinc deficient soil makes them more susceptible to what?
572b872c34ae481900deae6a
disease.
405
False
Excess zinc has what effect on plants?
572b872c34ae481900deae6b
toxic
694
False
How is zinc primarily added to soil?
572b872c34ae481900deae6c
weathering of rocks
462
False
high-pH soils
99
What is the only type of soil with zinc deficiency?
5acfcf2a77cf76001a686126
True
disease
405
What does any level of zinc cause to plants?
5acfcf2a77cf76001a686127
True
weathering of rocks
462
How is zinc primarily removed from soil?
5acfcf2a77cf76001a686128
True
disease
405
What are plants immune to when in zinc deficient soil?
5acfcf2a77cf76001a686129
True
Zinc deficiency is crop plants' most common micronutrient deficiency; it is particularly common in high-pH soils. Zinc-deficient soil is cultivated in the cropland of about half of Turkey and India, a third of China, and most of Western Australia, and substantial responses to zinc fertilization have been reported in these areas. Plants that grow in soils that are zinc-deficient are more susceptible to disease. Zinc is primarily added to the soil through the weathering of rocks, but humans have added zinc through fossil fuel combustion, mine waste, phosphate fertilizers, pesticide (zinc phosphide), limestone, manure, sewage sludge, and particles from galvanized surfaces. Excess zinc is toxic to plants, although zinc toxicity is far less widespread.
What kind of deficiency is common from taking 100-300mg of zinc daily?
572b8803be1ee31400cb8405
copper
29
False
What kind of complications were seen in men taking 80mg zinc a day?
572b8803be1ee31400cb8406
urinary
169
False
Having an excess of 500ppm of zinc in soil interferes with what?
572b8803be1ee31400cb8407
ability of plants to absorb other essential metals
470
False
What is caused by inhaling freshly formed zinc oxide?
572b8803be1ee31400cb8408
zinc shakes or "zinc chills"
587
False
People have claimed that the excessive use of what common product has caused disability and death?
572b8803be1ee31400cb8409
denture cream
765
False
copper
29
What kind of deficiency is common from taking 1000-3000mg of zinc daily?
5acfcfd677cf76001a68614c
True
urinary
169
What kind of superpowers were seen in men taking 80mg zinc a day?
5acfcfd677cf76001a68614d
True
ability of plants to absorb other essential metals
470
Having an excess of 500ppm of zinc in soil helps with what?
5acfcfd677cf76001a68614e
True
zinc shakes or "zinc chills"
587
What is caused by inhaling freshly formed zinc hydroxide?
5acfcfd677cf76001a68614f
True
denture cream
765
What have people claimed excessive use of caused psychic powers?
5acfcfd677cf76001a686150
True
There is evidence of induced copper deficiency in those taking 100–300 mg of zinc daily. A 2007 trial observed that elderly men taking 80 mg daily were hospitalized for urinary complications more often than those taking a placebo. The USDA RDA is 11 and 8 mg Zn/day for men and women, respectively. Levels of 100–300 mg may interfere with the utilization of copper and iron or adversely affect cholesterol. Levels of zinc in excess of 500 ppm in soil interfere with the ability of plants to absorb other essential metals, such as iron and manganese. There is also a condition called the zinc shakes or "zinc chills" that can be induced by the inhalation of freshly formed zinc oxide formed during the welding of galvanized materials. Zinc is a common ingredient of denture cream which may contain between 17 and 38 mg of zinc per gram. There have been claims of disability, and even death, due to excessive use of these products.
What can zinc cause damage to in the nose?
572b88b934ae481900deae7b
nerve receptors
73
False
Why was zinc being used in the 1930's?
572b88b934ae481900deae7c
polio infections
242
False
What did the FDA order removed from stores in 2009?
572b88b934ae481900deae7d
zinc-based intranasal cold products
324
False
What product is suggest as a potent heat shock response inducer?
572b88b934ae481900deae7e
antimicrobial zinc pyrithione
629
False
nerve receptors
73
What can zinc cause evolution to in the nose?
5acfd04977cf76001a686160
True
polio infections
242
Why was zinc outlawed in the 1930's?
5acfd04977cf76001a686161
True
zinc-based intranasal cold products
324
What did the FDA order remove from stores in 1709?
5acfd04977cf76001a686162
True
topical antimicrobial zinc pyrithione
621
What product is suggested as a potent cold shock response inducer?
5acfd04977cf76001a686163
True
The U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) has stated that zinc damages nerve receptors in the nose, which can cause anosmia. Reports of anosmia were also observed in the 1930s when zinc preparations were used in a failed attempt to prevent polio infections. On June 16, 2009, the FDA said that consumers should stop using zinc-based intranasal cold products and ordered their removal from store shelves. The FDA said the loss of smell can be life-threatening because people with impaired smell cannot detect leaking gas or smoke and cannot tell if food has spoiled before they eat it. Recent research suggests that the topical antimicrobial zinc pyrithione is a potent heat shock response inducer that may impair genomic integrity with induction of PARP-dependent energy crisis in cultured human keratinocytes and melanocytes.
What coin, as of 1982, is now primarily made of zinc?
572b8993f75d5e190021fe42
pennies
35
False
What is a concern with the new zinc pennies?
572b8993f75d5e190021fe43
zinc toxicosis
142
False
Ingesting zinc can cause lack of muscle movement and coordination called what?
572b8993f75d5e190021fe44
ataxia
404
False
Why have people reported zinc intoxication?
572b8993f75d5e190021fe45
ingestion of zinc coins
545
False
pennies
35
What coin as of 1983 is now only made of zinc?
5acfd0da77cf76001a68617c
True
zinc toxicosis
142
What is a requirement with the new zinc pennies?
5acfd0da77cf76001a68617d
True
ingestion of zinc coins
545
Why have people never reported zinc intoxication?
5acfd0da77cf76001a68617e
True
lethargy and ataxia
391
What did one reported case of ingestion of 4250 pennies result in?
5acfd0da77cf76001a68617f
True
copper
53
What metal is no longer found in pennies?
5acfd0da77cf76001a686180
True
In 1982, the US Mint began minting pennies coated in copper but made primarily of zinc. With the new zinc pennies, there is the potential for zinc toxicosis, which can be fatal. One reported case of chronic ingestion of 425 pennies (over 1 kg of zinc) resulted in death due to gastrointestinal bacterial and fungal sepsis, whereas another patient, who ingested 12 grams of zinc, only showed lethargy and ataxia (gross lack of coordination of muscle movements). Several other cases have been reported of humans suffering zinc intoxication by the ingestion of zinc coins.
What are dogs known to ingest?
572b8a60be1ee31400cb8423
Pennies
0
False
What does the zinc coins ingested by dogs cause?
572b8a60be1ee31400cb8424
zinc toxicity
175
False
In what animal is zinc toxic to the point of poisonous?
572b8a60be1ee31400cb8425
parrots
368
False
What has been a cause of mass parrot poisonings attributed to zinc?
572b8a60be1ee31400cb8426
juices stored in galvanized cans
435
False
Pennies
0
What are dogs unknown to ingest?
5acfd1c277cf76001a6861be
True
zinc toxicity
175
What does the chocolate coins ingested by dogs cause?
5acfd1c277cf76001a6861bf
True
parrots
368
What animal is zinc beneficial to the point of miracles?
5acfd1c277cf76001a6861c0
True
juices stored in galvanized cans
435
What has been a cause of mass rat poisonings attributed to zinc?
5acfd1c277cf76001a6861c1
True
zinc toxicity
175
Why do pennies and other small coins help to heal when ingested by dogs?
5acfd1c277cf76001a6861c2
True
Pennies and other small coins are sometimes ingested by dogs, resulting in the need for medical treatment to remove the foreign body. The zinc content of some coins can cause zinc toxicity, which is commonly fatal in dogs, where it causes a severe hemolytic anemia, and also liver or kidney damage; vomiting and diarrhea are possible symptoms. Zinc is highly toxic in parrots and poisoning can often be fatal. The consumption of fruit juices stored in galvanized cans has resulted in mass parrot poisonings with zinc.
Neoclassical_architecture
Who influenced many 19th century neoclassical architects?
572971fd1d0469140077947b
Étienne-Louis Boullée and Claude Nicolas Ledoux
96
False
What do geometric architecture emulate of the universe?
572971fd1d0469140077947c
eternality
256
False
What Edmund Burke concept is linked to Boullee's ideas?
572971fd1d0469140077947d
sublime
361
False
What concept did Ledoux address?
572971fd1d0469140077947e
architectural character
402
False
As a concept of neoclassical architecture, what should be immediately communicated to viewer?
572971fd1d0469140077947f
building should immediately communicate its function
446
False
the drawings and projects of Étienne-Louis Boullée and Claude Nicolas Ledoux
67
What influence neoclassical architecture in the 1900s?
5a2c05e4bfd06b001a5ae977
True
spare geometrical architecture that emulates the eternality of the universe
207
What did the drawings of Claude Nicholas Lediux depicts?
5a2c05e4bfd06b001a5ae978
True
Edmund Burke's
328
Whose ideas are linked to Boullee's ideas of the sublime?
5a2c05e4bfd06b001a5ae979
True
a building should immediately communicate its function to the viewer
444
What did Burke say about the concept of architectural character?
5a2c05e4bfd06b001a5ae97a
True
Many early 19th-century neoclassical architects were influenced by the drawings and projects of Étienne-Louis Boullée and Claude Nicolas Ledoux. The many graphite drawings of Boullée and his students depict spare geometrical architecture that emulates the eternality of the universe. There are links between Boullée's ideas and Edmund Burke's conception of the sublime. Ledoux addressed the concept of architectural character, maintaining that a building should immediately communicate its function to the viewer: taken literally such ideas give rise to "architecture parlante".
What century were most four influential books published?
572975523f37b3190047841f
18th century
127
False
Who wrote Vitruvius Britannicus?
572975523f37b31900478420
Colen Campbell
462
False
In what century did Palladian architecture become well established?
572975523f37b31900478421
18th-century
826
False
When was "The Designs of Inigo Jones" book published?
572975523f37b31900478422
1727
393
False
The baroque style
0
What style was popular among the English?
5a2c0db6bfd06b001a5ae9a5
True
the simplicity and purity
158
What the books published in the 1800s highlight about classical architecture?
5a2c0db6bfd06b001a5ae9a6
True
Palladio's Four Books of Architecture
256
What was the name of the four volumes of books written by Inigo Jones?
5a2c0db6bfd06b001a5ae9a7
True
Vitruvius Britannicus
211
What book contain prints of famous British buildings inspired by Vitruvius andAedifacatoria
5a2c0db6bfd06b001a5ae9a8
True
Vitruvius Britannicus
437
What book featured the work of an Inigo Jones and other architects from the 1800s?
5a2c0db6bfd06b001a5ae9a9
True
The baroque style had never truly been to the English taste. Four influential books were published in the first quarter of the 18th century which highlighted the simplicity and purity of classical architecture: Vitruvius Britannicus (Colen Campbell 1715), Palladio's Four Books of Architecture (1715), De Re Aedificatoria (1726) and The Designs of Inigo Jones... with Some Additional Designs (1727). The most popular was the four-volume Vitruvius Britannicus by Colen Campbell. The book contained architectural prints of famous British buildings that had been inspired by the great architects from Vitruvius to Palladio. At first the book mainly featured the work of Inigo Jones, but the later tomes contained drawings and plans by Campbell and other 18th-century architects. Palladian architecture became well established in 18th-century Britain.
Who was the "architect earl"?
572976811d046914007794b9
Richard Boyle, 3rd Earl of Burlington
84
False
When was Chiswick House designed?
572976811d046914007794ba
1729
126
False
What was the original building that Chiswick House design was reinterpretation?
572976811d046914007794bb
Palladio's Villa Capra
215
False
What is 1734 design is considered one of the finest example of Palladian architecture in England, built in Norfolk?
572976811d046914007794bc
Holkham Hall
480
False
William Kent
139
Who was inspired by the archite Earl when building Chiswick House?
5a2c25a5bfd06b001a5ae9f1
True
Palladio's Villa Capra
215
What was a reinterpretation of Richard Boyles Chiswick House?
5a2c25a5bfd06b001a5ae9f2
True
16th century elements and ornament.
255
What was the Villa Capra purified up?
5a2c25a5bfd06b001a5ae9f3
True
Palladianism
352
What architectural style feature ornamentation?
5a2c25a5bfd06b001a5ae9f4
True
Palladio's
582
Whose dictate did the wings of farm houses follow?
5a2c25a5bfd06b001a5ae9f5
True
At the forefront of the new school of design was the aristocratic "architect earl", Richard Boyle, 3rd Earl of Burlington; in 1729, he and William Kent, designed Chiswick House. This House was a reinterpretation of Palladio's Villa Capra, but purified of 16th century elements and ornament. This severe lack of ornamentation was to be a feature of the Palladianism. In 1734 William Kent and Lord Burlington designed one of England's finest examples of Palladian architecture with Holkham Hall in Norfolk. The main block of this house followed Palladio's dictates quite closely, but Palladio's low, often detached, wings of farm buildings were elevated in significance.
What additional influences were incorporated into neoclassical architecture by mid 18th century?
57297a3baf94a219006aa4bf
Ancient Greece
125
False
What englishman excavated pompeii?
57297a3baf94a219006aa4c0
Sir William Hamilton
279
False
In what city did a generation of French art students study that propelled neoclassical architecture and incorporation broader styles?
57297a3baf94a219006aa4c1
Rome
540
False
What other countries adopted the style of neoclassical?
57297a3baf94a219006aa4c2
Sweden and Russia.
689
False
a greater range of Classical influences
63
What did movement incorporate by the mid-1800s?
5a2c266dbfd06b001a5ae9fb
True
1750s
211
When was the shift to classical architecture dated?
5a2c266dbfd06b001a5ae9fc
True
Pompeii
317
What archaeological dig influence the classical period?
5a2c266dbfd06b001a5ae9fd
True
neoclassical architecture
154
What was influenced by Roman art students trained in France?
5a2c266dbfd06b001a5ae9fe
True
Sweden and Russia
689
Where was neoclassical architecture adopted in conventional circles?
5a2c266dbfd06b001a5ae9ff
True
By the mid 18th century, the movement broadened to incorporate a greater range of Classical influences, including those from Ancient Greece. The shift to neoclassical architecture is conventionally dated to the 1750s. It first gained influence in England and France; in England, Sir William Hamilton's excavations at Pompeii and other sites, the influence of the Grand Tour and the work of William Chambers and Robert Adam, was pivotal in this regard. In France, the movement was propelled by a generation of French art students trained in Rome, and was influenced by the writings of Johann Joachim Winckelmann. The style was also adopted by progressive circles in other countries such as Sweden and Russia.
When was the second wave of neoclassical architecture?
57297bb01d046914007794dd
Napoleonic Empire
126
False
What term is used to express the first wave of neoclassicism in France?
57297bb01d046914007794de
Louis XVI style
211
False
What is the second wave of neoclassicism in France called?
57297bb01d046914007794df
"Directoire" or Empire
265
False
Up until Napoleaoic regimes, what style remained popular in Italy?
57297bb01d046914007794e0
The Rococo style
289
False
A second neoclassic wave,
0
What is associated with the fall of the Napoleonic Empire?
5a2c277dbfd06b001a5aea05
True
Louis XVI style"
211
What King was a style of architecture named after during the first wave of neoclassicism?
5a2c277dbfd06b001a5aea06
True
The Rococo style
289
What was a famous style of first wave neoclassicism in Italy?
5a2c277dbfd06b001a5aea07
True
progressive, urban Italians with republican leanings
458
Who oppose the archaeological classism brought by the Napoleonic regimes?
5a2c277dbfd06b001a5aea08
True
Napoleonic regimes
342
The Louis XVI style was popular up until what regime?
5a2c277dbfd06b001a5aea09
True
A second neoclassic wave, more severe, more studied and more consciously archaeological, is associated with the height of the Napoleonic Empire. In France, the first phase of neoclassicism was expressed in the "Louis XVI style", and the second in the styles called "Directoire" or Empire. The Rococo style remained popular in Italy until the Napoleonic regimes brought the new archaeological classicism, which was embraced as a political statement by young, progressive, urban Italians with republican leanings.[according to whom?]
What rediscoveries inspired interior designs of neoclassicism?
572981b3af94a219006aa4db
Pompeii and Herculaneum.
106
False
What tightly controlled book brought appeal for classic interior to masses?
572981b3af94a219006aa4dc
Le Antichità di Ercolano (The Antiquities of Herculaneum).
285
False
What are some examples of the changes of interior of neoclassicism from ancient rediscoveries?
572981b3af94a219006aa4dd
pedimented window frames turned into gilded mirrors, fireplaces topped with temple fronts
612
False
What were William Kent's interior designs based from?
572981b3af94a219006aa4de
basilica and temple exterior architecture turned outside in
496
False
Pompeii and Herculaneum
106
What re-discoveries inspired exterior design of neoclassicism
5a2c2879bfd06b001a5aea0f
True
the genuine classic interior
43
What gained a wider audience in 1740s?
5a2c2879bfd06b001a5aea10
True
basilica and temple exterior architecture
496
What were classic exteriors of the Baroque based on?
5a2c2879bfd06b001a5aea11
True
pedimented window frames turned into gilded mirrors, fireplaces topped with temple fronts
612
What are examples of classic interior design?
5a2c2879bfd06b001a5aea12
True
Indoors, neoclassicism made a discovery of the genuine classic interior, inspired by the rediscoveries at Pompeii and Herculaneum. These had begun in the late 1740s, but only achieved a wide audience in the 1760s, with the first luxurious volumes of tightly controlled distribution of Le Antichità di Ercolano (The Antiquities of Herculaneum). The antiquities of Herculaneum showed that even the most classicising interiors of the Baroque, or the most "Roman" rooms of William Kent were based on basilica and temple exterior architecture turned outside in, hence their often bombastic appearance to modern eyes: pedimented window frames turned into gilded mirrors, fireplaces topped with temple fronts.
What were interiors seeking to recreate?
572983b13f37b31900478469
authentically Roman
40
False
What colors were utilized for interiors?
572983b13f37b3190047846a
"Pompeiian red" or pale tints, or stone colours
413
False
Who brought Louis XVI style to the court?
572983b13f37b3190047846b
Marie Antoinette
610
False
What types of techniques were used to style motifs?
572983b13f37b3190047846c
flatter, lighter motifs, sculpted in low frieze-like relief or painted in monotones
137
False
What were styles in France initially?
572983b13f37b3190047846d
Parisian
498
False
authentically Roman and genuinely interior vocabulary
40
What did new exteriors try to re-create?
5a2c292fbfd06b001a5aea17
True
flatter, lighter motifs, sculpted in low frieze-like relief or painted in monotones en camaïeu ("like cameos"),
137
What techniques were excluded from the style?
5a2c292fbfd06b001a5aea18
True
the Goût grec
514
What was initially a Parisien style in Greece?
5a2c292fbfd06b001a5aea19
True
Marie Antoinette,
610
What we brought the Gout grec style to court?
5a2c292fbfd06b001a5aea1a
True
The new interiors sought to recreate an authentically Roman and genuinely interior vocabulary. Techniques employed in the style included flatter, lighter motifs, sculpted in low frieze-like relief or painted in monotones en camaïeu ("like cameos"), isolated medallions or vases or busts or bucrania or other motifs, suspended on swags of laurel or ribbon, with slender arabesques against backgrounds, perhaps, of "Pompeiian red" or pale tints, or stone colours. The style in France was initially a Parisian style, the Goût grec ("Greek style"), not a court style; when Louis XVI acceded to the throne in 1774, Marie Antoinette, his fashion-loving Queen, brought the "Louis XVI" style to court.
Who began the new phase of neoclassical design?
57298558af94a219006aa4e3
Robert and James Adam
54
False
Where were the inspirations for the new phase of neoclassicism centered?
57298558af94a219006aa4e4
Italy and Dalmatia
94
False
What book outlines the new trends of neoclassicism in this phase?
57298558af94a219006aa4e5
The Works in Architecture
230
False
During the later 18th century the trend of neoclassic design attempted to simplify what styles?
57298558af94a219006aa4e6
rococo and baroque styles
418
False
This new style was an attempt to give what different feel to design?
57298558af94a219006aa4e7
lighter and more elegant feel
529
False
Robert and James Adam
54
What architects traveled Italy and Dalmatia in the mid-seventeenth century?
5a2c2d54bfd06b001a5aea1f
True
A new phase in neoclassical design
0
What did Robert and James Adam start in the seventeenth century?
5a2c2d54bfd06b001a5aea20
True
The Adam brothers
378
Who was trying to simplify the neoclassical design?
5a2c2d54bfd06b001a5aea21
True
The Works in Architecture
230
What book outlines the trends of the baroque style?
5a2c2d54bfd06b001a5aea22
True
lighter and more elegant feel
529
How did the old-style feel compared to the new style?
5a2c2d54bfd06b001a5aea23
True
A new phase in neoclassical design was inaugurated by Robert and James Adam, who travelled in Italy and Dalmatia in the 1750s, observing the ruins of the classical world. On their return to Britain, they published a book entitled The Works in Architecture in installments between 1773 and 1779. This book of engraved designs made the Adam repertory available throughout Europe. The Adam brothers aimed to simplify the rococo and baroque styles which had been fashionable in the preceding decades, to bring what they felt to be a lighter and more elegant feel to Georgian houses. The Works in Architecture illustrated the main buildings the Adam brothers had worked on and crucially documented the interiors, furniture and fittings, designed by the Adams.
From around 1800 an influx of etchings and engravings came from where?
5729888b6aef051400154fac
Greek architectural
34
False
What was this new phase of neoclassicism?
5729888b6aef051400154fad
Greek Revival
157
False
Prior to what century had there been little contact between western europe and greek civilization?
5729888b6aef051400154fae
18th century
259
False
Who led an expedition to Greece in 1751?
5729888b6aef051400154faf
James Stuart and Nicholas Revett
365
False
What was the first Greek building in England?
5729888b6aef051400154fb0
garden temple at Hagley Hall (1758–59)
561
False
Greek architectural examples, seen through the medium of etchings and engravings,
34
What influenced neoclassicism during the eighteenth century?
5a2c3244bfd06b001a5aea3b
True
direct knowledge of Greek civilization
195
What had there been very little of in Western Europe prior to the 1800s?
5a2c3244bfd06b001a5aea3c
True
the first Greek building in England
520
I don't know: what was George Lyttelton commission to produce?
5a2c3244bfd06b001a5aea3d
True
Greek Revival
157
What was the final phase of neoclassicism
5a2c3244bfd06b001a5aea3e
True
Hagley Hall
578
What was the first Greek building in Western Europe?
5a2c3244bfd06b001a5aea3f
True
From about 1800 a fresh influx of Greek architectural examples, seen through the medium of etchings and engravings, gave a new impetus to neoclassicism, the Greek Revival. There was little to no direct knowledge of Greek civilization before the middle of the 18th century in Western Europe, when an expedition funded by the Society of Dilettanti in 1751 and led by James Stuart and Nicholas Revett began serious archaeological enquiry. Stuart was commissioned after his return from Greece by George Lyttelton to produce the first Greek building in England, the garden temple at Hagley Hall (1758–59). A number of British architects in the second half of the century took up the expressive challenge of the Doric from their aristocratic patrons, including Joseph Bonomi and John Soane, but it was to remain the private enthusiasm of connoisseurs up to the first decade of the 19th century.
Whose winning design for public competition began the dominance of Greek style architecture?
57298a8e1d0469140077951b
William Wilkins
283
False
What monument was created in 1818?
57298a8e1d0469140077951c
Burns Monument at Alloway
952
False
When was the General Post Office built?
57298a8e1d0469140077951d
1824–29
622
False
In what year was the British Museum built?
57298a8e1d0469140077951e
1823–48
655
False
When was the National Gallery constructed?
57298a8e1d0469140077951f
1832–38
735
False
sobriety and restraint in public buildings
83
What do Greek revival and in architecture?
5a2c3359bfd06b001a5aea45
True
Downing College
347
The design of what college marked the end of Greek revival?
5a2c3359bfd06b001a5aea46
True
Burns Monument
952
What monument was built in 1823?
5a2c3359bfd06b001a5aea47
True
High School in Edinburgh
1001
What high school was built in 1818?
5a2c3359bfd06b001a5aea48
True
Seen in its wider social context, Greek Revival architecture sounded a new note of sobriety and restraint in public buildings in Britain around 1800 as an assertion of nationalism attendant on the Act of Union, the Napoleonic Wars, and the clamour for political reform. It was to be William Wilkins's winning design for the public competition for Downing College, Cambridge that announced the Greek style was to be the dominant idiom in architecture. Wilkins and Robert Smirke went on to build some of the most important buildings of the era, including the Theatre Royal, Covent Garden (1808–09), the General Post Office (1824–29) and the British Museum (1823–48), Wilkins University College London (1826–30) and the National Gallery (1832–38). In Scotland, Thomas Hamilton (1784–1858), in collaboration with the artists Andrew Wilson (1780–1848) and Hugh William Williams (1773–1829) created monuments and buildings of international significance; the Burns Monument at Alloway (1818) and the (Royal) High School in Edinburgh (1823–29).
How would the Empire style of France be characterized by comparison?
57298cc51d04691400779525
more grandiose
50
False
What was the origination of the Imperial Roman Style?
57298cc51d04691400779526
Napoleon I
221
False
What was the corresponding style to Empire in Britain?
57298cc51d04691400779527
Regency
470
False
In the US, the style during this time of Neoclassical Empire was known as what?
57298cc51d04691400779528
Federal style
430
False
Empire style
21
What neoclassic style in France was less grandiose?
5a2c346fbfd06b001a5aea4d
True
Empire style in France
21
What took its name from the wall of Napoleon the second?
5a2c346fbfd06b001a5aea4e
True
Empire style
21
What did the colonial style in the United States correspond to?
5a2c346fbfd06b001a5aea4f
True
Empire
668
What did Hugh Honour see as the culmination of the neoclassical movement?
5a2c346fbfd06b001a5aea50
True
At the same time the Empire style in France was a more grandiose wave of neoclassicism in architecture and the decorative arts. Mainly based on Imperial Roman styles, it originated in, and took its name from, the rule of Napoleon I in the First French Empire, where it was intended to idealize Napoleon's leadership and the French state. The style corresponds to the more bourgeois Biedermeier style in the German-speaking lands, Federal style in the United States, the Regency style in Britain, and the Napoleonstil in Sweden. According to the art historian Hugh Honour "so far from being, as is sometimes supposed, the culmination of the Neo-classical movement, the Empire marks its rapid decline and transformation back once more into a mere antique revival, drained of all the high-minded ideas and force of conviction that had inspired its masterpieces".
What other architecture style did neoclassical share similarities and vocabulary?
57298eb13f37b3190047848f
Late Baroque architecture
125
False
What qualities were more emphasized in neoclassical versus Baroque?
57298eb13f37b31900478490
planar qualities, rather than sculptural volumes
179
False
In addition to being flatter, how were individual features handled with neoclasic?
57298eb13f37b31900478491
isolated rather than interpenetrating
451
False
How broad was the reach of high neoclassicism?
57298eb13f37b31900478492
international movement
26
False
neoclassicism
5
What was a national movement?
5a2c3566bfd06b001a5aea55
True
neoclassical architecture
57
What used a different vocabulary then late Baroque architecture?
5a2c3566bfd06b001a5aea56
True
neoclassical architecture
57
What emphasized its sculptural volumes?
5a2c3566bfd06b001a5aea57
True
Projections and recessions
229
What architectural features had a less flat effect on light and shade?
5a2c3566bfd06b001a5aea58
True
neoclassicism
5
What architectural style had less isolated features?
5a2c3566bfd06b001a5aea59
True
High neoclassicism was an international movement. Though neoclassical architecture employed the same classical vocabulary as Late Baroque architecture, it tended to emphasize its planar qualities, rather than sculptural volumes. Projections and recessions and their effects of light and shade were more flat; sculptural bas-reliefs were flatter and tended to be enframed in friezes, tablets or panels. Its clearly articulated individual features were isolated rather than interpenetrating, autonomous and complete in themselves.
What ancient civilization utilized neoclassicism in city planning?
57298fe16aef051400154fd4
ancient Romans
49
False
What basic civil planning system for streets is rooted in neoclassicism?
57298fe16aef051400154fd5
grid system
247
False
What are 2 benefits of leveraging neoclassicism for civil planning?
57298fe16aef051400154fd6
very logical and orderly
405
False
city planning
30
What kind of planning was influenced by classical architecture?
5a2c43fcbfd06b001a5aeab1
True
defence and civil convenience
122
Why did Roman use and open ordered scheme for city planning?
5a2c43fcbfd06b001a5aeab2
True
consolidated scheme
75
What kind of city planning began with the Romans?
5a2c43fcbfd06b001a5aeab3
True
Roman design
430
What type of city design frequently used diagonal streets?
5a2c43fcbfd06b001a5aeab4
True
Ancient façades
444
What was oriented towards the importance of public buildings?
5a2c43fcbfd06b001a5aeab5
True
Neoclassicism also influenced city planning; the ancient Romans had used a consolidated scheme for city planning for both defence and civil convenience, however, the roots of this scheme go back to even older civilizations. At its most basic, the grid system of streets, a central forum with city services, two main slightly wider boulevards, and the occasional diagonal street were characteristic of the very logical and orderly Roman design. Ancient façades and building layouts were oriented to these city design patterns and they tended to work in proportion with the importance of public buildings.
What direction did British architecture go in mid 18th century?
572990e16aef051400154fda
Ancient Greco-Roman ideal
138
False
What were Robert Wood's influential Greek monuments from mid 18th century?
572990e16aef051400154fdb
Palmyra and Baalbec
311
False
Who began the revolution of Greek influenced architecture in Britain?
572990e16aef051400154fdc
James 'Athenian' Stuart
165
False
What brothers were instrumental in this Greek movement of neoclassicism?
572990e16aef051400154fdd
Adam Brothers
544
False
exploration and publication
37
What changed the course of British architecture starting in the mid-1800s?
5a2c4637bfd06b001a5aeabb
True
British architecture
87
What move towards a less pure form of Greco-Roman architecture during the eighteenth century?
5a2c4637bfd06b001a5aeabc
True
the majority of contemporary British architects and designers
407
Who adopted a combination of complex forms and high levels of enrichment?
5a2c4637bfd06b001a5aeabd
True
the Ancient Greco-Roman ideal
134
What revolution was begun by the Adams brothers?
5a2c4637bfd06b001a5aeabe
True
provincially based
625
Where were architects like George dance based?
5a2c4637bfd06b001a5aeabf
True
From the middle of the 18th century, exploration and publication changed the course of British architecture towards a purer vision of the Ancient Greco-Roman ideal. James 'Athenian' Stuart's work The Antiquities of Athens and Other Monuments of Greece was very influential in this regard, as were Robert Wood's Palmyra and Baalbec. A combination of simple forms and high levels of enrichment was adopted by the majority of contemporary British architects and designers. The revolution begun by Stuart was soon to be eclipsed by the work of the Adam Brothers, James Wyatt, Sir William Chambers, George Dance, James Gandon and provincially based architects such as John Carr and Thomas Harrison of Chester.
What author's 20th century writing caused interest in pure neoclassical design?
5729922a1d0469140077954b
Albert Richardson
43
False
In what period did Percy Thomas design public building in neoclassical?
5729922a1d0469140077954c
interwar period
424
False
Sir Edwin Lutyens' city planning in what city marked a shift in design?
5729922a1d0469140077954d
New Delhi
518
False
What new design was trending after neoclassical?
5729922a1d0469140077954e
Gothic Revival
612
False
Albert Richardson
43
Who reawakened interest in pure neoclassical design in the 2000's?
5a2c47ecbfd06b001a5aeac5
True
public buildings
374
What type of building did Vincent Harris design during the interwar period?
5a2c47ecbfd06b001a5aeac6
True
New Delhi
518
Planning for what city marked the rise of neoclassicism?
5a2c47ecbfd06b001a5aeac7
True
Scotland
567
What other area besides England experienced a strong Gothic revival?
5a2c47ecbfd06b001a5aeac8
True
neoclassical style of William Henry Playfair.
680
What style was powerful and eccentric by the end of the 1900s?
5a2c47ecbfd06b001a5aeac9
True
In the early 20th century, the writings of Albert Richardson were responsible for a re-awakening of interest in pure neoclassical design. Vincent Harris (compare Harris's colonnaded and domed interior of Manchester Central Reference Library to the colonnaded and domed interior by John Carr and R R Duke), Bradshaw Gass & Hope and Percy Thomas were among those who designed public buildings in the neoclassical style in the interwar period. In the British Raj in India, Sir Edwin Lutyens' monumental city planning for New Delhi marked the sunset of neoclassicism. In Scotland and the north of England, where the Gothic Revival was less strong, architects continued to develop the neoclassical style of William Henry Playfair. The works of Cuthbert Brodrick and Alexander Thomson show that by the end of the 19th century the results could be powerful and eccentric.
What is the name of the first wave of neoclassicism in France?
5729939d1d04691400779553
Louis XVI style
64
False
France's second phase of neoclassic is known as what?
5729939d1d04691400779554
Directoire and "Empire"
186
False
What architect typifies the first style of neoclassical in England?
5729939d1d04691400779555
Robert Adam
380
False
Structure of whom characterize England's second phase of neoclassical?
5729939d1d04691400779556
Sir John Soane
416
False
Who styled the court in France for more modern design after 1771?
5729939d1d04691400779557
Marie Antoinette
603
False
Louis XVI style
64
What style marked the first phase of neoclassicism in continental Europe?
5a2c48aebfd06b001a5aeacf
True
Empire
202
What style replace neoclassicism in 1806?
5a2c48aebfd06b001a5aead0
True
Goût grec
498
What style was originally a court style and not a Parisien style?
5a2c48aebfd06b001a5aead1
True
Louis XVI
658
What King brought the Louis XVI style to court?
5a2c48aebfd06b001a5aead2
True
The first phase of neoclassicism in France is expressed in the "Louis XVI style" of architects like Ange-Jacques Gabriel (Petit Trianon, 1762–68); the second phase, in the styles called Directoire and "Empire", might be characterized by Jean Chalgrin's severe astylar Arc de Triomphe (designed in 1806). In England the two phases might be characterized first by the structures of Robert Adam, the second by those of Sir John Soane. The interior style in France was initially a Parisian style, the "Goût grec" ("Greek style") not a court style. Only when the young king acceded to the throne in 1771 did Marie Antoinette, his fashion-loving Queen, bring the "Louis XVI" style to court.
What is the earliest example of Greek architecture in France?
572994ff1d0469140077955d
Charles de Wailly's crypt in the church of St Leu-St Gilles (1773–80
36
False
How concerned was France with Greek architecture?
572994ff1d0469140077955e
Greek architecture was of very little importance to the French
193
False
Who's influence brought about Greek revival in France?
572994ff1d0469140077955f
Laboustre
419
False
In which wave of neoclassical was the greek revival in France?
572994ff1d04691400779560
second Empire
447
False
the French,
245
Who consider first-hand evidence of Greek architecture very important?
5a2c4977bfd06b001a5aead7
True
Marc-Antoine Laugier's doctrines
281
What sought to discern the practices of the Greeks?
5a2c4977bfd06b001a5aead8
True
Greek
469
What revival flourished in France?
5a2c4977bfd06b001a5aead9
True
Greek revival
469
What started with the crypt of Claude Nicholas Ludoux?
5a2c4977bfd06b001a5aeada
True
What little there was, started with Charles de Wailly's crypt in the church of St Leu-St Gilles (1773–80), and Claude Nicolas Ledoux's Barriere des Bonshommes (1785–89). First-hand evidence of Greek architecture was of very little importance to the French, due to the influence of Marc-Antoine Laugier's doctrines that sought to discern the principles of the Greeks instead of their mere practices. It would take until Laboustre's Neo-Grec of the second Empire for the Greek revival to flower briefly in France.
In what town is the oldest neoclassical architecture in Hungary?
572995f63f37b319004784ab
Vác
78
False
What French architect designed important neoclassical structures in 1760s?
572995f63f37b319004784ac
Isidor Marcellus Amandus Ganneval
206
False
Who designed the Esterhazy Palace?
572995f63f37b319004784ad
Charles Moreau
309
False
Who is famous for Cathedral Eger and Esztergom?
572995f63f37b319004784ae
József Hild
504
False
the triumphal arch and the neoclassical façade of the baroque Cathedral
96
What is one of the last examples of neoclassical architecture and hungry
5a2c4a4dbfd06b001a5aeadf
True
Isidor Marcellus Amandus Ganneval
206
What French architect designed Hungarian Cathedral in the seventeenth century?
5a2c4a4dbfd06b001a5aeae0
True
Neoclassicism
456
Charles Moreau was a chief architect of what you hungry?
5a2c4a4dbfd06b001a5aeae1
True
Cathedral of Eger and Esztergom
623
What two cathedrals did Pollack design and hungry
5a2c4a4dbfd06b001a5aeae2
True
The earliest examples of neoclassical architecture in Hungary may be found in Vác. In this town the triumphal arch and the neoclassical façade of the baroque Cathedral were designed by the French architect Isidor Marcellus Amandus Ganneval (Isidore Canevale) in the 1760s. Also the work of a French architect Charles Moreau is the garden façade of the Esterházy Palace (1797–1805) in Kismarton (today Eisenstadt in Austria). The two principal architect of Neoclassicism in Hungary was Mihály Pollack and József Hild. Pollack's major work is the Hungarian National Museum (1837–1844). Hild is famous for his designs for the Cathedral of Eger and Esztergom.
When was Malta introduced to neoclassical architecture?
572996c36aef051400154ffe
late 18th century
57
False
What was the ruler at the time of neoclassical introduction?
572996c36aef051400154fff
Hospitaller
102
False
When was RNH Bighi built?
572996c36aef051400155000
1832
572
False
In what year did the St Paul's Pro-Cathedral get built?
572996c36aef051400155001
1844
604
False
Neoclassical architecture
0
What was introduced in Malta in the late 1800s?
5a2c4bffbfd06b001a5aeae7
True
neoclassical architecture
231
What became unpopular in Malta following the establishment of British rule?
5a2c4bffbfd06b001a5aeae8
True
Hospitaller
102
Who was the ruler of Malta following the neoclassical period?
5a2c4bffbfd06b001a5aeae9
True
British
317
Who ruled Malta in the 1900s?
5a2c4bffbfd06b001a5aeaea
True
Neoclassical architecture was introduced in Malta in the late 18th century, during the final years of Hospitaller rule. Early examples include the Bibliotheca (1786), the De Rohan Arch (1798) and the Hompesch Gate (1801). However, neoclassical architecture only became popular in Malta following the establishment of British rule in the early 19th century. In 1814, a neoclassical portico decorated with the British coat of arms was added to the Main Guard building so as to serve as a symbol of British Malta. Other 19th century neoclassical buildings include RNH Bighi (1832), St Paul's Pro-Cathedral (1844), the Rotunda of Mosta (1860) and the now destroyed Royal Opera House (1866).
In what are of architecture is neoclassical currently classed?
572999673f37b319004784df
New Classical Architecture
129
False
What is the term for sincere traditional-style architecture that sticks to regional architecture?
572999673f37b319004784e0
Traditional Architecture
418
False
What is the award for major contributions to traditional of classical architecture in 21st century?
572999673f37b319004784e1
The Driehaus Architecture Prize
475
False
What is another name for New Classical Architecture?
572999673f37b319004784e2
Neo-Historicism/Revivalism, Traditionalism
193
False
New Classical Architecture.
129
What was neoclassicism classified under starting in the twentieth century?
5a2c4e23bfd06b001a5aeb0d
True
Neo-Historicism/Revivalism
193
What is new classical architecture also referred to as
5a2c4e23bfd06b001a5aeb0e
True
Traditional Architecture
418
What refers to architecture that uses a wide variety of materials and craftsmanship from different regions?
5a2c4e23bfd06b001a5aeb0f
True
The Driehaus Architecture Prize
475
What is awarded to architects who contribute to 21st-century classical architecture?
5a2c4e23bfd06b001a5aeb10
True
As of the first decade of the 21st century, contemporary neoclassical architecture is usually classed under the umbrella term of New Classical Architecture. Sometimes it is also referred to as Neo-Historicism/Revivalism, Traditionalism or simply neoclassical architecture like the historical style. For sincere traditional-style architecture that sticks to regional architecture, materials and craftsmanship, the term Traditional Architecture (or vernacular) is mostly used. The Driehaus Architecture Prize is awarded to major contributors in the field of 21st century traditional or classical architecture, and comes with a prize money twice as high as that of the modernist Pritzker Prize.
When was the lull in neoclassical architecture?
5729996c1d0469140077956f
roughly post-World War II until the mid-1980s
66
False
What is the movement that caused resurgence of neoclassicism?
5729996c1d04691400779570
New Urbanism
209
False
Many post modern designs feature classic elements in what way?
5729996c1d04691400779571
ironic
285
False
What recent architect began to take elements of classicism seriously?
5729996c1d04691400779572
Thomas Gordon Smith
424
False
modern
34
What type of architecture flourished from post-World War I until the big 1980s?
5a2c4d64bfd06b001a5aeaf9
True
New Urbanism and postmodern architecture
209
What two types of architecture saw a rebirth due to neoclassicism?
5a2c4d64bfd06b001a5aeafa
True
classicism
378
What did Thomas Gordon Smith treat as ironic?
5a2c4d64bfd06b001a5aeafb
True
University of Virginia
556
What university was purely dedicated to classical architecture?
5a2c4d64bfd06b001a5aeafc
True
a generation of architects trained in this discipline
1066
Why does modernism shape urban planning?
5a2c4d64bfd06b001a5aeafd
True
After a lull during the period of modern architectural dominance (roughly post-World War II until the mid-1980s), neoclassicism has seen somewhat of a resurgence. This rebirth can be traced to the movement of New Urbanism and postmodern architecture's embrace of classical elements as ironic, especially in light of the dominance of Modernism. While some continued to work with classicism as ironic, some architects such as Thomas Gordon Smith, began to consider classicism seriously. While some schools had interest in classical architecture, such as the University of Virginia, no school was purely dedicated to classical architecture. In the early 1990s a program in classical architecture was started by Smith and Duncan Stroik at the University of Notre Dame that continues successfully. Programs at the University of Miami, Andrews University, Judson University and The Prince's Foundation for Building Community have trained a number of new classical architects since this resurgence. Today one can find numerous buildings embracing neoclassical style, since a generation of architects trained in this discipline shapes urban planning.
Who has stirred controversy for development and design of Chelsea Barracks?
57299b841d04691400779577
Prince Charles
343
False
What family was funding the development of former Chelsea Barracks?
57299b841d04691400779578
Qatari Royal family
499
False
What new library illustrates the traditional style of neoclassicism?
57299b841d04691400779579
Quinlan Terry's Maitland Robinson Library at Downing College
102
False
What is the name of the library that illustrates the unconventional style of neoclassical?
57299b841d0469140077957a
ADAM Architecture's Sackler Library
167
False
Is neoclassical design current in Britain?
57299b841d0469140077957b
a number of architects are active in the neoclassical
11
False
Britain
3
What country has a number of architects active in the Roman Greco style?
5a2c5009bfd06b001a5aeb1f
True
neoclassical
52
What architectural style is always traditional?
5a2c5009bfd06b001a5aeb20
True
Prince Charles
343
Who promoted a modern design for development on the former Chelsea barracks?
5a2c5009bfd06b001a5aeb21
True
development on the land of the former Chelsea Barracks in London.
418
What building project was being funded by the British Royal family?
5a2c5009bfd06b001a5aeb22
True
In Britain a number of architects are active in the neoclassical style. Two new university Libraries, Quinlan Terry's Maitland Robinson Library at Downing College and ADAM Architecture's Sackler Library illustrate that the approach taken can range from the traditional, in the former case, to the unconventional, in the latter case. Recently, Prince Charles came under controversy for promoting a classically designed development on the land of the former Chelsea Barracks in London. Writing to the Qatari Royal family (who were funding the development through the property development company Qatari Diar) he condemned the accepted modernist plans, instead advocating a classical approach. His appeal was met with success and the plans were withdrawn. A new design by architecture house Dixon Jones is currently being drafted.
Serbo-Croatian
What were some of the names given to language during period of foreign control?
572975a8af94a219006aa46d
"Slavic", "Illyrian", or according to region, "Bosnian", "Serbian" and "Croatian"
714
False
What specific historical event caused a group of religious and verbal differences in South Slavic dialect?
572975a8af94a219006aa46e
expansion of the Ottoman Empire
110
False
Why was Shtokavian the most widespread culture in the western Balkans?
572975a8af94a219006aa46f
population migrations
214
False
a continuum
42
What was historically formed by the Ottoman Empire?
5a2c4c8bbfd06b001a5aeaef
True
a patchwork of dialectal and religious differences
155
What happened due to expansion of Shtokavian?
5a2c4c8bbfd06b001a5aeaf0
True
Shtokavian
237
Due to population change, what became widespread in Kajkavian?
5a2c4c8bbfd06b001a5aeaf1
True
Shtokavian
237
What dialect went into the area previously occupied by Bosniaks and Croats?
5a2c4c8bbfd06b001a5aeaf2
True
different cultural circles
517
What was the Ottoman Empire often a part of?
5a2c4c8bbfd06b001a5aeaf3
True
South Slavic dialects historically formed a continuum. The turbulent history of the area, particularly due to expansion of the Ottoman Empire, resulted in a patchwork of dialectal and religious differences. Due to population migrations, Shtokavian became the most widespread in the western Balkans, intruding westwards into the area previously occupied by Chakavian and Kajkavian (which further blend into Slovenian in the northwest). Bosniaks, Croats and Serbs differ in religion and were historically often part of different cultural circles, although a large part of the nations have lived side by side under foreign overlords. During that period, the language was referred to under a variety of names, such as "Slavic", "Illyrian", or according to region, "Bosnian", "Serbian" and "Croatian", the latter often in combination with "Slavonian" or "Dalmatian".
What were both Serbian and Croation standards based on?
572976773f37b3190047843b
Shtokavian subdialect, Eastern Herzegovinian
314
False
Which language officially served the Kingdom of Yugoslavia?
572976773f37b3190047843c
Serbo-Croatian
381
False
What ethnic names does Serbo-Croatian associate with?
572976773f37b3190047843d
Serbian, Croatian, Bosnian, and sometimes Montenegrin and Bunjevac
988
False
in the mid-19th-century
32
In what year was a Yugoslav state standardized?
5a2c4e18bfd06b001a5aeb03
True
Vienna Literary Agreement
56
What agreement helped standardize Eastern Herzegovinian?
5a2c4e18bfd06b001a5aeb04
True
the same Shtokavian subdialect, Eastern Herzegovinian
305
What were Yugoaslav and Bosnian standards based on?
5a2c4e18bfd06b001a5aeb05
True
Serbo-Croatian
381
In the mid 19th century what was the official language of Yugoslavia?
5a2c4e18bfd06b001a5aeb06
True
social conceptions of the language separated on ethnic and political lines
659
How did the break-up of Croatia affect the language?
5a2c4e18bfd06b001a5aeb07
True
Serbo-Croatian was standardized in the mid-19th-century Vienna Literary Agreement by Croatian and Serbian writers and philologists, decades before a Yugoslav state was established. From the very beginning, there were slightly different literary Serbian and Croatian standards, although both were based on the same Shtokavian subdialect, Eastern Herzegovinian. In the 20th century, Serbo-Croatian served as the official language of the Kingdom of Yugoslavia (when it was called "Serbo-Croato-Slovenian"), and later as one of the official languages of the Socialist Federal Republic of Yugoslavia. The breakup of Yugoslavia affected language attitudes, so that social conceptions of the language separated on ethnic and political lines. Since the breakup of Yugoslavia, Bosnian has likewise been established as an official standard in Bosnia and Herzegovina, and there is an ongoing movement to codify a separate Montenegrin standard. Serbo-Croatian thus generally goes by the ethnic names Serbian, Croatian, Bosnian, and sometimes Montenegrin and Bunjevac.
How many vowels does the Serbo-Croatian language have?
572976fd3f37b31900478451
five
90
False
How many consonants does the Serbo-Croatian language have?
572976fd3f37b31900478452
twenty-five
112
False
From where does Serbo-Croatian derive its grammar?
572976fd3f37b31900478453
Common Slavic
161
False
Which alphabets can be used to express the Serbo-Croatian language?
572976fd3f37b31900478454
Serbian Cyrillic or Gaj's Latin
485
False
simple
56
What kind of phonology does Serbian Cyrillic have?
5a2c4f74bfd06b001a5aeb15
True
twenty-five
112
How many consonants are in Gaj's Latin alphabet?
5a2c4f74bfd06b001a5aeb16
True
Common Slavic
161
Where did Serbian Cyrillic evolve from?
5a2c4f74bfd06b001a5aeb17
True
flexible
404
What kind of word order does Gaj's latin alphabet have?
5a2c4f74bfd06b001a5aeb18
True
Gaj's Latin alphabet
505
Name another language that Common Slavic can be written in besides Serbian Cyrillic?
5a2c4f74bfd06b001a5aeb19
True
Like other South Slavic languages, Serbo-Croatian has a simple phonology, with the common five-vowel system and twenty-five consonants. Its grammar evolved from Common Slavic, with complex inflection, preserving seven grammatical cases in nouns, pronouns, and adjectives. Verbs exhibit imperfective or perfective aspect, with a moderately complex tense system. Serbo-Croatian is a pro-drop language with flexible word order, subject–verb–object being the default. It can be written in Serbian Cyrillic or Gaj's Latin alphabet, whose thirty letters mutually map one-to-one, and the orthography is highly phonemic in all standards.
Did South Slav languages develop coherently or independently?
572985b41d0469140077950b
independently
193
False
What were the names given to the various dialects predating the 19th century?
572985b41d0469140077950c
"Illyric", "Slavic", "Slavonian", "Bosnian", "Dalmatian", "Serbian" or "Croatian"
265
False
Who first used the term Serbo-Croatian in 1824?
572985b41d0469140077950d
Jacob Grimm
399
False
For what reason is the term "Serbo-Croatian" controversial today?
572985b41d0469140077950e
prejudice that nation and language must match
1525
False
"Illyric", "Slavic", "Slavonian", "Bosnian", "Dalmatian", "Serbian" or "Croatian"
265
In 1854 and 1859 what were slavic languages called?
5a2c51d5bfd06b001a5aeb27
True
Serbo-Croatian
366
Prior to the 19th century what term was used by Jacob Grimm?
5a2c51d5bfd06b001a5aeb28
True
"Serbian" or "Croatian"
871
What was the language unofficialy known as according to the Ottoman emprire?
5a2c51d5bfd06b001a5aeb29
True
"Bosnian", "Croatian", and "Serbian"
1007
What were the three names of a single official langugae in independent Montenegrin?
5a2c51d5bfd06b001a5aeb2a
True
Dalibor Brozović
1127
What Croatian linguist supported the term Serbo-Croatian in 1824?
5a2c51d5bfd06b001a5aeb2b
True
Throughout the history of the South Slavs, the vernacular, literary, and written languages (e.g. Chakavian, Kajkavian, Shtokavian) of the various regions and ethnicities developed and diverged independently. Prior to the 19th century, they were collectively called "Illyric", "Slavic", "Slavonian", "Bosnian", "Dalmatian", "Serbian" or "Croatian". As such, the term Serbo-Croatian was first used by Jacob Grimm in 1824, popularized by the Vienna philologist Jernej Kopitar in the following decades, and accepted by Croatian Zagreb grammarians in 1854 and 1859. At that time, Serb and Croat lands were still part of the Ottoman and Austrian Empires. Officially, the language was called variously Serbo-Croat, Croato-Serbian, Serbian and Croatian, Croatian and Serbian, Serbian or Croatian, Croatian or Serbian. Unofficially, Serbs and Croats typically called the language "Serbian" or "Croatian", respectively, without implying a distinction between the two, and again in independent Bosnia and Herzegovina, "Bosnian", "Croatian", and "Serbian" were considered to be three names of a single official language. Croatian linguist Dalibor Brozović advocated the term Serbo-Croatian as late as 1988, claiming that in an analogy with Indo-European, Serbo-Croatian does not only name the two components of the same language, but simply charts the limits of the region in which it is spoken and includes everything between the limits (‘Bosnian’ and ‘Montenegrin’). Today, use of the term "Serbo-Croatian" is controversial due to the prejudice that nation and language must match. It is still used for lack of a succinct alternative, though alternative names have been used, such as Bosnian/Croatian/Serbian (BCS), which is often seen in political contexts such as the Hague War Crimes tribunal.
Which dialect did writers and linguists of both Serbian and Croatian backgrounds wish to use as their common standard language?
57298de23f37b31900478487
Shtokavian
270
False
Why was Shtokavian suggested as a common language base?
57298de23f37b31900478488
most widespread dialect
245
False
What 1850 document formally declared the intent to create a unified standard?
57298de23f37b31900478489
Vienna Literary Agreement
594
False
After whose death in 1907 was the "Bosnian" name changed to "Serbo-Creation"?
57298de23f37b3190047848a
administrator von Kállay
1287
False
Shtokavian
270
In 1850 what dialect did Serbian and Croatian writers propose to use as a standard language?
5a2c5f85bfd06b001a5aeb3b
True
the Serbian Cyrillic alphabet
352
What did Ljudevit Gaj standardize in the Serbian language?
5a2c5f85bfd06b001a5aeb3c
True
vernacular speech phonemes and the principle of phonological spelling
461
On what basis was Shtokavian standardized?
5a2c5f85bfd06b001a5aeb3d
True
Serbian and Croatian writers and linguists
540
In the mid 19th century who signed the Vienna Literary Agreement?
5a2c5f85bfd06b001a5aeb3e
True
their intention to create a unified standard
631
What did the signers of the Shtokavian declare?
5a2c5f85bfd06b001a5aeb3f
True
In the mid-19th century, Serbian (led by self-taught writer and folklorist Vuk Stefanović Karadžić) and most Croatian writers and linguists (represented by the Illyrian movement and led by Ljudevit Gaj and Đuro Daničić), proposed the use of the most widespread dialect, Shtokavian, as the base for their common standard language. Karadžić standardised the Serbian Cyrillic alphabet, and Gaj and Daničić standardized the Croatian Latin alphabet, on the basis of vernacular speech phonemes and the principle of phonological spelling. In 1850 Serbian and Croatian writers and linguists signed the Vienna Literary Agreement, declaring their intention to create a unified standard. Thus a complex bi-variant language appeared, which the Serbs officially called "Serbo-Croatian" or "Serbian or Croatian" and the Croats "Croato-Serbian", or "Croatian or Serbian". Yet, in practice, the variants of the conceived common literary language served as different literary variants, chiefly differing in lexical inventory and stylistic devices. The common phrase describing this situation was that Serbo-Croatian or "Croatian or Serbian" was a single language. During the Austro-Hungarian occupation of Bosnia and Herzegovina, the language of all three nations was called "Bosnian" until the death of administrator von Kállay in 1907, at which point the name was changed to "Serbo-Croatian".
What is the term used for books that lay out spelling rules?
572994856aef051400154fe2
pravopis
1191
False
Which language was that of 3/4 of the population?
572994856aef051400154fe3
Serbo-Croatian
1336
False
Of the two Serbo-Croatian variants, which had twice as many speakers as the other?
572994856aef051400154fe4
Serbian
1496
False
sixteen languages
512
How many languages do West European scientists use?
5a2c644dbfd06b001a5aeb4f
True
state administration and republican and federal institutions
983
Where were all variants of Albanian used?
5a2c644dbfd06b001a5aeb50
True
an exemplary one
63
What does the Yougoslav Army think of Yugoslav language policy?
5a2c644dbfd06b001a5aeb51
True
at the level of constituent republics and provinces
233
At what level was Yougoslav language policy declared?
5a2c644dbfd06b001a5aeb52
True
0.5 per cent
369
What percentage of the population in Turkey spoke Slovak and Romanian?
5a2c644dbfd06b001a5aeb53
True
West European scientists judge the Yugoslav language policy as an exemplary one: although three-quarters of the population spoke one language, no single language was official on a federal level. Official languages were declared only at the level of constituent republics and provinces, and very generously: Vojvodina had five (among them Slovak and Romanian, spoken by 0.5 per cent of the population), and Kosovo four (Albanian, Turkish, Romany and Serbo-Croatian). Newspapers, radio and television studios used sixteen languages, fourteen were used as languages of tuition in schools, and nine at universities. Only the Yugoslav Army used Serbo-Croatian as the sole language of command, with all other languages represented in the army’s other activities—however, this is not different from other armies of multilingual states, or in other specific institutions, such as international air traffic control where English is used worldwide. All variants of Serbo-Croatian were used in state administration and republican and federal institutions. Both Serbian and Croatian variants were represented in respectively different grammar books, dictionaries, school textbooks and in books known as pravopis (which detail spelling rules). Serbo-Croatian was a kind of soft standardisation. However, legal equality could not dampen the prestige Serbo-Croatian had: since it was the language of three quarters of the population, it functioned as an unofficial lingua franca. And within Serbo-Croatian, the Serbian variant, with twice as many speakers as the Croatian, enjoyed greater prestige, reinforced by the fact that Slovene and Macedonian speakers preferred it to the Croatian variant because their languages are also Ekavian. This is a common situation in other pluricentric languages, e.g. the variants of German differ according to their prestige, the variants of Portuguese too. Moreover, all languages differ in terms of prestige: "the fact is that languages (in terms of prestige, learnability etc.) are not equal, and the law cannot make them equal".
What three noun genders does Serbo-Croatian have?
57299518af94a219006aa533
masculine, feminine, and neuter
70
False
Where are adjectives properly placed in the Serbo-Croatian language?
57299518af94a219006aa534
in front of the noun they modify
706
False
Which number in the Serbo-Croatian language is treated as an adjective?
57299518af94a219006aa535
one [jedan]
643
False
masculine, feminine, and neuter
70
What three genders does Slovene have?
5a2c664cbfd06b001a5aeb59
True
singular and plural
240
What type of numbers are in Russian?
5a2c664cbfd06b001a5aeb5a
True
an adjective
669
What are the three numbers treated as in Slavic languages?
5a2c664cbfd06b001a5aeb5b
True
in front of the noun they modify
706
In Russian where are adjectives placed?
5a2c664cbfd06b001a5aeb5c
True
must agree
743
In Slavic languages what must singular and plural numbers do when in front of a noun?
5a2c664cbfd06b001a5aeb5d
True
Like most Slavic languages, there are mostly three genders for nouns: masculine, feminine, and neuter, a distinction which is still present even in the plural (unlike Russian and, in part, the Čakavian dialect). They also have two numbers: singular and plural. However, some consider there to be three numbers (paucal or dual, too), since (still preserved in closely related Slovene) after two (dva, dvije/dve), three (tri) and four (četiri), and all numbers ending in them (e.g. twenty-two, ninety-three, one hundred four) the genitive singular is used, and after all other numbers five (pet) and up, the genitive plural is used. (The number one [jedan] is treated as an adjective.) Adjectives are placed in front of the noun they modify and must agree in both case and number with it.
What is the term used when shifing the acent to the next preceding syllable?
572996166aef051400154ff2
"Neoshtokavian retraction"
409
False
Which dialects did not follow the Neoshtokavian retraction?
572996166aef051400154ff3
Chakavian, Kajkavian and the Old Shtokavian
626
False
Where can one look for memorization clues concerning accent positions?
572996166aef051400154ff4
Comparative and historical linguistics
0
False
Neoshtokavian retraction
410
What is the term used for shifting towards the orginal syllable?
5a2c6ac4bfd06b001a5aeb6d
True
when the place of the accent shifted to the preceding syllable
331
When did the quality of the accent appear historically?
5a2c6ac4bfd06b001a5aeb6e
True
Comparative and historical linguistics
0
What offers some clues for how dialects were different?
5a2c6ac4bfd06b001a5aeb6f
True
Neoshtokavian retraction
410
What did Chakavian, Kajkavian and Old Shtokavian follow?
5a2c6ac4bfd06b001a5aeb70
True
its melody still "gravitated" towards the original syllable
489
What was different about the sound of historical linguistics?
5a2c6ac4bfd06b001a5aeb71
True
Comparative and historical linguistics offers some clues for memorising the accent position: If one compares many standard Serbo-Croatian words to e.g. cognate Russian words, the accent in the Serbo-Croatian word will be one syllable before the one in the Russian word, with the rising tone. Historically, the rising tone appeared when the place of the accent shifted to the preceding syllable (the so-called "Neoshtokavian retraction"), but the quality of this new accent was different – its melody still "gravitated" towards the original syllable. Most Shtokavian dialects (Neoshtokavian) dialects underwent this shift, but Chakavian, Kajkavian and the Old Shtokavian dialects did not.
Serbo-Croatian is the only Slavic language to use what two scripts together?
572996956aef051400154ff8
Latin and Cyrillic
631
False
Which version, Latin or Cyrillic, is most commonly used?
572996956aef051400154ff9
Latin
670
False
How many extra letters does the Croatian Latin alphabet have?
572996956aef051400154ffa
five
123
False
standard Latin
103
How did Ljudevit Gaj define the Cyrillic alphabet?
5a2c6cb2bfd06b001a5aeb77
True
more commonly
687
How often is the Zagreb script used?
5a2c6cb2bfd06b001a5aeb78
True
"ļ, ń and ǵ"
312
What is standard Latin represented as in the Rjecnik hrvatskog ili srpskog jezika?
5a2c6cb2bfd06b001a5aeb79
True
the former Yugoslav Academy of Sciences and Arts in Zagreb
398
What group published the Latin and Cyrillic scripts?
5a2c6cb2bfd06b001a5aeb7a
True
unused
492
How is Polish used in the literary standard?
5a2c6cb2bfd06b001a5aeb7b
True
The Croatian Latin alphabet (Gajica) followed suit shortly afterwards, when Ljudevit Gaj defined it as standard Latin with five extra letters that had diacritics, apparently borrowing much from Czech, but also from Polish, and inventing the unique digraphs "lj", "nj" and "dž". These digraphs are represented as "ļ, ń and ǵ" respectively in the "Rječnik hrvatskog ili srpskog jezika", published by the former Yugoslav Academy of Sciences and Arts in Zagreb. The latter digraphs, however, are unused in the literary standard of the language. All in all, this makes Serbo-Croatian the only Slavic language to officially use both the Latin and Cyrillic scripts, albeit the Latin version is more commonly used.
What is a dialect continuum?
572996e06aef051400155006
each dialect has some similarities with the neighboring one, and differences grow with distance.
59
False
What caused the dialect continuum to become fractured?
572996e06aef051400155007
migrations from the 16th to 18th centuries resulting from the spread of Ottoman Empire on the Balkans
165
False
Contrary to the 16th and 18th centuries, what caused migrations in the 20th century?
572996e06aef051400155008
urbanization and wars
432
False
the reduction of dialectal differences
475
What did the spread of the Ottoman Empire in the 20th century contribute to?
5a2c7345bfd06b001a5aeb81
True
each dialect has some similarities with the neighboring one, and differences grow with distance
59
What are two characteristics of urbanization?
5a2c7345bfd06b001a5aeb82
True
a dialect continuum
33
What did the Balkans create historically?
5a2c7345bfd06b001a5aeb83
True
large-scale population displacement
279
What did wars cause from the 16th to 18th centuries?
5a2c7345bfd06b001a5aeb84
True
large-scale population displacement
279
What broke urbanization into many geographical pockets?
5a2c7345bfd06b001a5aeb85
True
South Slavic historically formed a dialect continuum, i.e. each dialect has some similarities with the neighboring one, and differences grow with distance. However, migrations from the 16th to 18th centuries resulting from the spread of Ottoman Empire on the Balkans have caused large-scale population displacement that broke the dialect continuum into many geographical pockets. Migrations in the 20th century, primarily caused by urbanization and wars, also contributed to the reduction of dialectal differences.
Which dialect covers more area than all other dialects combined?
572997743f37b319004784c7
Štokavian
844
False
What is morphology to a language?
572997743f37b319004784c8
tense system
164
False
What has caused Stokavian to become more widely spoken?
572997743f37b319004784c9
migrations caused by Ottoman Turkish conquest of the Balkans
355
False
Štokavian
324
What have Chakavian and Kajkavian dialects replaced?
5a2c75a2bfd06b001a5aeb8b
True
phonology, accentuation and intonation
107
What are three ways that Kajkavian dialects differ?
5a2c75a2bfd06b001a5aeb8c
True
on a much larger territory
270
In the past where were Ottoman Turkish languages spoken?
5a2c75a2bfd06b001a5aeb8d
True
an area larger than all the other dialects combined
865
What area does Chakavian cover after Ottoman Turkish conquests of the Balkans?
5a2c75a2bfd06b001a5aeb8e
True
Štokavian
844
What language is progressing in the Balkans where non-literary dialects are spoken?
5a2c75a2bfd06b001a5aeb8f
True
The Serbo-Croatian dialects differ not only in the question word they are named after, but also heavily in phonology, accentuation and intonation, case endings and tense system (morphology) and basic vocabulary. In the past, Chakavian and Kajkavian dialects were spoken on a much larger territory, but have been replaced by Štokavian during the period of migrations caused by Ottoman Turkish conquest of the Balkans in the 15th and the 16th centuries. These migrations caused the koinéisation of the Shtokavian dialects, that used to form the West Shtokavian (more closer and transitional towards the neighbouring Chakavian and Kajkavian dialects) and East Shtokavian (transitional towards the Torlakian and the whole Bulgaro-Macedonian area) dialect bundles, and their subsequent spread at the expense of Chakavian and Kajkavian. As a result, Štokavian now covers an area larger than all the other dialects combined, and continues to make its progress in the enclaves where non-literary dialects are still being spoken.
How many standard variants of the Serbo-Croatian are spoken?
572998533f37b319004784cd
four
235
False
In which areas are the four standard Serbo-Croatian variants spoken?
572998533f37b319004784ce
Serbia, Croatia, Montenegro and Bosnia and Herzegovina.
268
False
Who concluded that Serbo-Croatian is a pluricentric language?
572998533f37b319004784cf
Daniel Bunčić
170
False
Who believes Serbo-Croatian is one language with multiple variants?
572998533f37b319004784d0
Enisa Kafadar
0
False
there is only one Serbo-Croatian language with several varieties
26
What do the Dutch argue about language?
5a2c7bebbfd06b001a5aeb9f
True
it is a pluricentric language, with four standard variants spoken in Serbia, Croatia, Montenegro and Bosnia and Herzegovina
199
What is the conclustion by Hindi-Urdu about Serbo-Croation language?
5a2c7bebbfd06b001a5aeba0
True
several
73
How many varieties does Enisa Kafadar aruge there are in Hindi-Urdu?
5a2c7bebbfd06b001a5aeba1
True
all four varieties
126
What is incluced into a new pluricentric language?
5a2c7bebbfd06b001a5aeba2
True
Serbia, Croatia, Montenegro and Bosnia and Herzegovina
268
Where are four variants of English spoken?
5a2c7bebbfd06b001a5aeba3
True
Enisa Kafadar argues that there is only one Serbo-Croatian language with several varieties. This has made possible to include all four varieties into a new grammar book. Daniel Bunčić concludes that it is a pluricentric language, with four standard variants spoken in Serbia, Croatia, Montenegro and Bosnia and Herzegovina. The mutual intelligibility between their speakers "exceeds that between the standard variants of English, French, German, or Spanish". Other linguists have argued that the differences between the variants of Serbo-Croatian are less significant than those between the variants of English, German,, Dutch, and Hindi-Urdu.
Is it the majority or minority opinion that two different standard languages existed and overlapped at some historical point?
572999813f37b319004784e7
majority
19
False
Who stated that the argument between pluricentric or dual standard classifications has been the "longest, most serious, and most acrid discussion in 21st century Croatian culture?"
572999813f37b319004784e8
Igor Mandić
679
False
Which Croatian linguist agrees with Igor Mandic and feels that Serbo-Croatian language is pluricentric?
572999813f37b319004784e9
Croatian linguist Snježana Kordić
220
False
that there has never been a Serbo-Croatian language, but two different standard languages that overlapped sometime in the course of history
70
What is the opinion of the Croatian journal Knjizevna repulika about the Serban-Croatian language?
5a2c7f5ebfd06b001a5aeba9
True
mutual intelligibility, huge overlap in linguistic system, and the same dialectic basis of standard language
433
What criteria shows that Mandic is one of four language variants?
5a2c7f5ebfd06b001a5aebaa
True
the last ten years
707
According to Snjezana Kordic how long has the language discussion lasted?
5a2c7f5ebfd06b001a5aebab
True
a monograph on language and nationalism
863
What has been published based on mutual intelligibility?
5a2c7f5ebfd06b001a5aebac
True
there has never been a Serbo-Croatian language
75
What is the opinion of most Bosnian linguists?
5a2c7f5ebfd06b001a5aebad
True
The opinion of the majority of Croatian linguists[citation needed] is that there has never been a Serbo-Croatian language, but two different standard languages that overlapped sometime in the course of history. However, Croatian linguist Snježana Kordić has been leading an academic discussion on that issue in the Croatian journal Književna republika from 2001 to 2010. In the discussion, she shows that linguistic criteria such as mutual intelligibility, huge overlap in linguistic system, and the same dialectic basis of standard language provide evidence that Croatian, Serbian, Bosnian and Montenegrin are four national variants of the pluricentric Serbo-Croatian language. Igor Mandić states: "During the last ten years, it has been the longest, the most serious and most acrid discussion (…) in 21st-century Croatian culture". Inspired by that discussion, a monograph on language and nationalism has been published.
Which language groups lived in Dalmation city-states prior to the 19th century?
572a0b606aef0514001551fe
Italian or Slavic
132
False
Today's Croatian language has its roots in what other language?
572a0b606aef0514001551ff
Old Croatian
666
False
Prior to the 19th century, why was it irrelevant whether a person spoke Croatian or Serbian?
572a0b606aef051400155200
two languages were not distinguished by most speakers
327
False
Old Croatian
666
What language is modern day Dalmatian based on?
5a2c82aebfd06b001a5aebb3
True
speakers of Italian or Slavic
120
What did writers from Croatian literature make a distinction between prior to the 19th century?
5a2c82aebfd06b001a5aebb4
True
Dalmatian city-states
203
Prior to the 19th century where did Croatians and Serbians live?
5a2c82aebfd06b001a5aebb5
True
Croatian or Serbian
261
What two city states were not distinguished by most speakers prior to the 9th century?
5a2c82aebfd06b001a5aebb6
True
the Croatian language proponents' argument
568
What is undermined by facts about Dalmatia and Dubrovnik?
5a2c82aebfd06b001a5aebb7
True
The topic of language for writers from Dalmatia and Dubrovnik prior to the 19th century made a distinction only between speakers of Italian or Slavic, since those were the two main groups that inhabited Dalmatian city-states at that time. Whether someone spoke Croatian or Serbian was not an important distinction then, as the two languages were not distinguished by most speakers. This has been used as an argument to state that Croatian literature Croatian per se, but also includes Serbian and other languages that are part of Serbo-Croatian, These facts undermine the Croatian language proponents' argument that modern-day Croatian is based on a language called Old Croatian.
To which group did the people of the Catholic faith refer to themselves primarily?
572a0e246aef05140015520e
Catholic Christendom
305
False
After allowing for their religion, did the people of the Catholic faith see themselves as Serbian or Croatian?
572a0e246aef05140015520f
Croatian
146
False
Ivan Broz stated that a Dalmatian identifiying as a Serb was just as foreign as what two other ethnicities?
572a0e246aef051400155210
Macedonian or Greek
925
False
a Croatian nation
144
What did most Croatians who were Catholic see themselves a part of?
5a2c85a0bfd06b001a5aebbd
True
Catholic Christendom
305
To what group were Macedonians loyal to first?
5a2c85a0bfd06b001a5aebbe
True
as Croats first
566
What did 30 Serbs see themselves over a span of 350 years?
5a2c85a0bfd06b001a5aebbf
True
for a Dalmatian to identify oneself as a Serb was seen as foreign as identifying oneself as Macedonian or Greek
833
What did most intellectuals and writers note about Dalmations?
5a2c85a0bfd06b001a5aebc0
True
Croat ethnic identity
739
What was Serbo-Croatian ideology not equal with in Dalmatia?
5a2c85a0bfd06b001a5aebc1
True
However, most intellectuals and writers from Dalmatia who used the Štokavian dialect and practiced the Catholic faith saw themselves as part of a Croatian nation as far back as the mid-16th to 17th centuries, some 300 years before Serbo-Croatian ideology appeared. Their loyalty was first and foremost to Catholic Christendom, but when they professed an ethnic identity, they referred to themselves as "Slovin" and "Illyrian" (a sort of forerunner of Catholic baroque pan-Slavism) and Croat – these 30-odd writers over the span of c. 350 years always saw themselves as Croats first and never as part of a Serbian nation. It should also be noted that, in the pre-national era, Catholic religious orientation did not necessarily equate with Croat ethnic identity in Dalmatia. A Croatian follower of Vuk Karadžić, Ivan Broz, noted that for a Dalmatian to identify oneself as a Serb was seen as foreign as identifying oneself as Macedonian or Greek. Vatroslav Jagić pointed out in 1864:
What was the first book published in Serbo-Croatian?
572a0e601d04691400779711
Glagolitic Missale Romanum Glagolitice (1483)
457
False
For what was "Evangel from Reims" named?
572a0e601d04691400779712
the town of its final destination
313
False
In what year was the first book printed in Serbo-Croatian?
572a0e601d04691400779713
(1483)
496
False
the Lika region
225
What region is the Glagolitic Missale Romanum Glagolitice from?
5a2c5ab1bfd06b001a5aeb31
True
the Serbo-Croatian vernacular literature
130
What did the Bosnia Church Slavonic coexist with?
5a2c5ab1bfd06b001a5aeb32
True
the later era
90
Where did the luxurious and ornate texts of Evangel from Reims belong?
5a2c5ab1bfd06b001a5aeb33
True
1483
497
In what year was the first printed book in Lika made?
5a2c5ab1bfd06b001a5aeb34
True
the town of its final destination
313
What town was the Missal of Duke Novak named after?
5a2c5ab1bfd06b001a5aeb35
True
The luxurious and ornate representative texts of Serbo-Croatian Church Slavonic belong to the later era, when they coexisted with the Serbo-Croatian vernacular literature. The most notable are the "Missal of Duke Novak" from the Lika region in northwestern Croatia (1368), "Evangel from Reims" (1395, named after the town of its final destination), Hrvoje's Missal from Bosnia and Split in Dalmatia (1404), and the first printed book in Serbo-Croatian, the Glagolitic Missale Romanum Glagolitice (1483).
Which agreement was signed in 1954 by writers, linguists, and literary critics?
572a0efb3f37b31900478679
Novi Sad Agreement
132
False
On what principle did the Novi Sad Agreement focus upon?
572a0efb3f37b3190047867a
equal status
369
False
Who was given the task of creating a dictionary in the Novi Sad Agreement?
572a0efb3f37b3190047867b
Matica hrvatska and Matica srpska
635
False
the Novi Sad Agreement
128
What did Serbian writers and linguists sign in 1967?
5a2c61d9bfd06b001a5aeb45
True
"Serbs, Croats and Montenegrins share a single language with two equal variants that have developed around Zagreb (western) and Belgrade (eastern)"
190
What was the conclusion of the agreement backed by Matica srpska and Matikca hrvatska in 2012?
5a2c61d9bfd06b001a5aeb46
True
equal status of Cyrillic and Latin scripts, and of Ekavian and Ijekavian pronunciations
369
What did use of the latin alphabet insist upon?
5a2c61d9bfd06b001a5aeb47
True
Serbo-Croatian
481
In official contexts what should be the name of the Dictionary?
5a2c61d9bfd06b001a5aeb48
True
both books
810
During 1967 how many books were published at the same time?
5a2c61d9bfd06b001a5aeb49
True
In 1954, major Serbian and Croatian writers, linguists and literary critics, backed by Matica srpska and Matica hrvatska signed the Novi Sad Agreement, which in its first conclusion stated: "Serbs, Croats and Montenegrins share a single language with two equal variants that have developed around Zagreb (western) and Belgrade (eastern)". The agreement insisted on the equal status of Cyrillic and Latin scripts, and of Ekavian and Ijekavian pronunciations. It also specified that Serbo-Croatian should be the name of the language in official contexts, while in unofficial use the traditional Serbian and Croatian were to be retained. Matica hrvatska and Matica srpska were to work together on a dictionary, and a committee of Serbian and Croatian linguists was asked to prepare a pravopis. During the sixties both books were published simultaneously in Ijekavian Latin in Zagreb and Ekavian Cyrillic in Novi Sad. Yet Croatian linguists claim that it was an act of unitarianism. The evidence supporting this claim is patchy: Croatian linguist Stjepan Babić complained that the television transmission from Belgrade always used the Latin alphabet— which was true, but was not proof of unequal rights, but of frequency of use and prestige. Babić further complained that the Novi Sad Dictionary (1967) listed side by side words from both the Croatian and Serbian variants wherever they differed, which one can view as proof of careful respect for both variants, and not of unitarism. Moreover, Croatian linguists criticized those parts of the Dictionary for being unitaristic that were written by Croatian linguists. And finally, Croatian linguists ignored the fact that the material for the Pravopisni rječnik came from the Croatian Philological Society. Regardless of these facts, Croatian intellectuals brought the Declaration on the Status and Name of the Croatian Literary Language in 1967. On occasion of the publication’s 45th anniversary, the Croatian weekly journal Forum published the Declaration again in 2012, accompanied by a critical analysis.
Which tense indicates that an action hasn't finished?
572a0f656aef05140015521c
imperfective
255
False
Which two states do Shtokavian verbs have?
572a0f656aef05140015521d
perfective or imperfective
90
False
When is the perspective aspect of a verb used?
572a0f656aef05140015521e
action was completed, instantaneous, or of limited duration
409
False
perfective or imperfective
90
What are two aspects the Kajkavian verb has?
5a2c685cbfd06b001a5aeb63
True
pairs
137
What do prefixes come in usually?
5a2c685cbfd06b001a5aeb64
True
the imperfective
190
What is the stem change created out of?
5a2c685cbfd06b001a5aeb65
True
a particular aspect
529
What do some Shtokavian verbs favor?
5a2c685cbfd06b001a5aeb66
True
the relative lack of tenses
642
What do limited duration actions compensate for?
5a2c685cbfd06b001a5aeb67
True
In addition, like most Slavic languages, the Shtokavian verb also has one of two aspects: perfective or imperfective. Most verbs come in pairs, with the perfective verb being created out of the imperfective by adding a prefix or making a stem change. The imperfective aspect typically indicates that the action is unfinished, in progress, or repetitive; while the perfective aspect typically denotes that the action was completed, instantaneous, or of limited duration. Some Štokavian tenses (namely, aorist and imperfect) favor a particular aspect (but they are rarer or absent in Čakavian and Kajkavian). Actually, aspects "compensate" for the relative lack of tenses, because aspect of the verb determines whether the act is completed or in progress in the referred time.
To what did the ending -ei evolve into in Ijekavian Neostokavian?
572a0fec3f37b31900478689
-io
503
False
What is the western equivalent of the prefix "pre"?
572a0fec3f37b3190047868a
prije
258
False
Why did pre or prije develop rather than the symboled "pre"?
572a0fec3f37b3190047868b
due to potential ambiguity with pri
348
False
What is the meaning of "pri"?
572a0fec3f37b3190047868c
approach, come close to
387
False
/re/ or, occasionally, /ri/
136
What did the short jat preceeded by r develop into in western dialects?
5a2c78f8bfd06b001a5aeb95
True
exception
37
What are the past participle rules not without?
5a2c78f8bfd06b001a5aeb96
True
prije
258
In western Neostokavian dialects what did the pre prefix become when its long?
5a2c78f8bfd06b001a5aeb97
True
pre- or prije
333
In Ikavian pronunications what did ri evolve into?
5a2c78f8bfd06b001a5aeb98
True
due to potential ambiguity with pri
348
Why did re or ri develop instead of pre?
5a2c78f8bfd06b001a5aeb99
True
The jat-reflex rules are not without exception. For example, when short jat is preceded by r, in most Ijekavian dialects developed into /re/ or, occasionally, /ri/. The prefix prě- ("trans-, over-") when long became pre- in eastern Ijekavian dialects but to prije- in western dialects; in Ikavian pronunciation, it also evolved into pre- or prije- due to potential ambiguity with pri- ("approach, come close to"). For verbs that had -ěti in their infinitive, the past participle ending -ěl evolved into -io in Ijekavian Neoštokavian.
All Slavic vernaculars were called what among Romans?
572a1096af94a219006aa797
(Illyrian)
188
False
Who is considered the most competent Serbian scientist on language?
572a1096af94a219006aa798
Milan Rešetar
509
False
Where was Milan Resetar born?
572a1096af94a219006aa799
Dubrovnik
540
False
Which language does Milan Resetar state that Dubrovnik derived from?
572a1096af94a219006aa79a
Serbian
737
False
firm grounds
72
What does the opinion of Roman inhabitants not have?
5a2c8759bfd06b001a5aebc7
True
ilirski (Illyrian)
180
What were all Croatian vernaculars called among Romans?
5a2c8759bfd06b001a5aebc8
True
Dubrovnik
540
Where was Jagic born?
5a2c8759bfd06b001a5aebc9
True
"The one who thinks that Croatian and Serbian are two separate languages must confess that Dubrovnik always (linguistically) used to be Serbian."
601
What did Roman inhabitants write about Croatian and Serbian?
5a2c8759bfd06b001a5aebca
True
Milan Rešetar
509
Who is the most competent Croatian scientist on language?
5a2c8759bfd06b001a5aebcb
True
On the other hand, the opinion of Jagić from 1864 is argued not to have firm grounds. When Jagić says "Croatian", he refers to a few cases referring to the Dubrovnik vernacular as ilirski (Illyrian). This was a common name for all Slavic vernaculars in Dalmatian cities among the Roman inhabitants. In the meantime, other written monuments are found that mention srpski, lingua serviana (= Serbian), and some that mention Croatian. By far the most competent Serbian scientist on the Dubrovnik language issue, Milan Rešetar, who was born in Dubrovnik himself, wrote behalf of language characteristics: "The one who thinks that Croatian and Serbian are two separate languages must confess that Dubrovnik always (linguistically) used to be Serbian."
What opinions do Croatian Nationalists have on the language issue?
572a119a6aef05140015522c
they speak an entirely separate language from Serbs and Bosnians
125
False
Which language did Ljudevit Gaj and Vuk Karadzic prefer?
572a119a6aef05140015522d
Neoštokavian-Ijekavian
496
False
Where is the Neostokavian-Ijekavian language predominantely spoken?
572a119a6aef05140015522e
Bosnia and Herzegovina
545
False
How do Serbian nationalists feel about the Croatians using their language?
572a119a6aef05140015522f
Croats have "taken" or "stolen" their language
818
False
the language(s)
42
What do Bosnians have conflicting views on?
5a2c8a86bfd06b001a5aebd1
True
Bosniak nationalists
350
Who claims that the Stokavian dialect has appropriated the Bosnian language?
5a2c8a86bfd06b001a5aebd2
True
any divergence in the language is artificial
671
What do Cakavian Croats claim about language divergence?
5a2c8a86bfd06b001a5aebd3
True
Croats have "taken" or "stolen" their language from the Serbs
818
What do Bosnians claim in extreme formulations about language?
5a2c8a86bfd06b001a5aebd4
True
they speak an entirely separate language from Serbs and Bosnians
125
What is one thing Neostokavian nationalists claim about Serbs and Bosnians?
5a2c8a86bfd06b001a5aebd5
True
Nationalists have conflicting views about the language(s). The nationalists among the Croats conflictingly claim either that they speak an entirely separate language from Serbs and Bosnians or that these two peoples have, due to the longer lexicographic tradition among Croats, somehow "borrowed" their standard languages from them.[citation needed] Bosniak nationalists claim that both Croats and Serbs have "appropriated" the Bosnian language, since Ljudevit Gaj and Vuk Karadžić preferred the Neoštokavian-Ijekavian dialect, widely spoken in Bosnia and Herzegovina, as the basis for language standardization, whereas the nationalists among the Serbs claim either that any divergence in the language is artificial, or claim that the Štokavian dialect is theirs and the Čakavian Croats'— in more extreme formulations Croats have "taken" or "stolen" their language from the Serbs.[citation needed]
In which province are Serbian and Croatian both languages offial?
572a12b41d04691400779735
Vojvodina
117
False
To what should the language be referred to instead of "Bosnian"?
572a12b41d04691400779736
"Bosniak" (bošnjački)
497
False
In what elementary grades is Bosnian an optional course?
572a12b41d04691400779737
1st and 2nd
293
False
both Serbian and Croatian
59
What languages are the official ones in Sanzak?
5a2c952bbfd06b001a5aebdb
True
in the southwest region of Sandžak
164
Where is a large Serbian minority located?
5a2c952bbfd06b001a5aebdc
True
Bosnian
260
What is controversial in 1st and 2nd grade of the elementary school.
5a2c952bbfd06b001a5aebdd
True
"official recognition" of Bosnian language
208
What is considered moot in Novi Pazar?
5a2c952bbfd06b001a5aebde
True
"Bosniak"
497
What should Novi Pazar be referred to rather than "Bosnian?"
5a2c952bbfd06b001a5aebdf
True
In Serbia, the Serbian language is the official one, while both Serbian and Croatian are official in the province of Vojvodina. A large Bosniak minority is present in the southwest region of Sandžak, but the "official recognition" of Bosnian language is moot. Bosnian is an optional course in 1st and 2nd grade of the elementary school, while it is also in official use in the municipality of Novi Pazar. However, its nomenclature is controversial, as there is incentive that it is referred to as "Bosniak" (bošnjački) rather than "Bosnian" (bosanski) (see Bosnian language for details).
CBC_Television
Was CBC one of the first or last stations to adopt a 24 hour schedule?
57299a5eaf94a219006aa54d
last
97
False
When did stations previously sign off the air?
57299a5eaf94a219006aa54e
early morning hours (typically from 1:00 a.m. to 6:00 a.m.)
237
False
What did private stations air when programming was not ticketed?
57299a5eaf94a219006aa54f
infomercials
313
False
What does CBC use unallotted airtime for?
57299a5eaf94a219006aa550
local news, primetime series, movies and other programming from the CBC library
506
False
Which French station has refused to adopt a 24 hour schedule?
57299a5eaf94a219006aa551
Ici Radio-Canada Télé
611
False
October 9, 2006 at 6:00 a.m.
3
When did the CBC begin to air programming on their network?
5a54ce58134fea001a0e174a
True
1:00 a.m. to 6:00 a.m
273
What time period did the FCC once require broadcasters to sign off the air?
5a54ce58134fea001a0e174b
True
repeats, including local news, primetime series, movies and other programming
487
Polls show that viewers prefer when 24 hour stations air what type of content?
5a54ce58134fea001a0e174c
True
BBC
440
What popular news network was CBC News Network inspired by?
5a54ce58134fea001a0e174d
True
Ici Radio-Canada Télé
611
Which French news station is CBC News greatest competitor?
5a54ce58134fea001a0e174e
True
On October 9, 2006 at 6:00 a.m., the network switched to a 24-hour schedule, becoming one of the last major English-language broadcasters to transition to such a schedule. Most CBC-owned stations previously signed off the air during the early morning hours (typically from 1:00 a.m. to 6:00 a.m.). Instead of the infomercials aired by most private stations, or a simulcast of CBC News Network in the style of BBC One's nightly simulcast of BBC News Channel, the CBC uses the time to air repeats, including local news, primetime series, movies and other programming from the CBC library. Its French counterpart, Ici Radio-Canada Télé, still signs off every night.
In what year did the network end American programming?
572a2c791d04691400779811
1998
6
False
Which recent (2007-2008) shows helped the network regain popularity?
572a2c791d04691400779812
Little Mosque on the Prairie and The Border
557
False
What foreign programming is shown on the CBC after 1998?
572a2c791d04691400779813
a handful of British programs, and a few American movies and off-network repeats
246
False
CTV and Global
171
What two private Canadian broadcasters did the CBC merge with?
5a54e92d134fea001a0e1772
True
Little Mosque on the Prairie and The Border
557
What were two controversial shows that lowered the ratings of the CBC?
5a54e92d134fea001a0e1773
True
Canadian programs, a handful of British programs, and a few American movies and off-network repeats
227
What type of programming is permitted to be broadcast in Canada?
5a54e92d134fea001a0e1774
True
half a decade
670
For how long has the CBC maintained its lead over other broadcast networks?
5a54e92d134fea001a0e1775
True
Until 1998, the network carried a variety of American programs in addition to its core Canadian programming, directly competing with private Canadian broadcasters such as CTV and Global. Since then, it has restricted itself to Canadian programs, a handful of British programs, and a few American movies and off-network repeats. Since this change, the CBC has sometimes struggled to maintain ratings comparable to those it achieved before 1995, although it has seen somewhat of a ratings resurgence in recent years. In the 2007-08 season, hit series such as Little Mosque on the Prairie and The Border helped the network achieve its strongest ratings performance in over half a decade.
Which company owns the rights to National Hockey League broadcasts?
572a33f0af94a219006aa893
Rogers Communications
41
False
Where are affiliates of HNIC aired?
572a33f0af94a219006aa894
a separate CRTC-licensed part-time network operated by Rogers
247
False
Where are HNIC broadcasts aired?
572a33f0af94a219006aa895
on CBC-owned stations
142
False
Rogers Communications
41
What company was purchased by the CBC in order to air the National Hockey League?
5a54f415134fea001a0e177a
True
Hockey Night in Canada
108
What is the most popular program that is aired by CBC-television networks?
5a54f415134fea001a0e177b
True
Rogers exercises editorial control and sells all advertising time
343
Why was it necessary to the CBC to purchase Rogers Communication?
5a54f415134fea001a0e177c
True
HNIC
524
The CRTC has limited The CBC promos and other CBC television programs that can appear during which broadcast?
5a54f415134fea001a0e177d
True
Under the CBC's current arrangement with Rogers Communications for National Hockey League broadcast rights, Hockey Night in Canada broadcasts on CBC-owned stations and affiliates are not technically aired over the CBC Television network, but over a separate CRTC-licensed part-time network operated by Rogers. This was required by the CRTC as Rogers exercises editorial control and sells all advertising time during the HNIC broadcasts, even though the CBC bug and promos for other CBC Television programs appear throughout HNIC.
What did the 11pm broadcast of The National omit?
572a346daf94a219006aa899
analysis and documentary segment
318
False
Which title is CBC's flagship newscast?
572a346daf94a219006aa89a
The National
29
False
When did CBC discontinue its late-night broadcast of The National?
572a346daf94a219006aa89b
October 2006
127
False
During hockey season, when does the late night news update occur?
572a346daf94a219006aa89c
during the first intermission of the second game of the doubleheader on Hockey Night in Canada
651
False
excluded the analysis and documentary segment
305
Why did the CBC cancel the 11pm broadcast of The National?
5a54f78d134fea001a0e1782
True
October 2006
127
When did the first episode of The National air?
5a54f78d134fea001a0e1783
True
2012-13
428
During what television season did the CBC start broadcasting Hockey Night In Canada?
5a54f78d134fea001a0e1784
True
first intermission of the second game of the doubleheader
662
The CBC has found that newscasts should not take up more time than this event?
5a54f78d134fea001a0e1785
True
The CBC's flagship newscast, The National, airs Sunday through Fridays at 10:00 p.m. EST and Saturdays at 6:00 p.m. EST. Until October 2006, CBC owned-and-operated stations aired a second broadcast of the program at 11:00 p.m.; this later broadcast included only the main news portion of the program, and excluded the analysis and documentary segment. This second airing was later replaced with other programming, and as of the 2012-13 television season, was replaced on CBC's major market stations by a half-hour late newscast. There is also a short news update, at most, on late Saturday evenings. During hockey season, this update is usually found during the first intermission of the second game of the doubleheader on Hockey Night in Canada.
What times are generally reserved for local newscasts?
572a34e96aef05140015537c
from 5:00 p.m. to 6:30 p.m.
136
False
When do most other stations view their local newscasts?
572a34e96aef05140015537d
weekend evenings
221
False
When does CBC News Now air?
572a34e96aef05140015537e
weekday at 6:00 a.m. and noon
381
False
local news
105
Consumers have complained that CBC stations tend to fill early evenings with what type of programming?
5a54faaf134fea001a0e1794
True
CBC News Now
361
What popular CBC news program has won awards for their newscasts?
5a54faaf134fea001a0e1795
True
Doc Zone
507
What documentary series did the CBC recently gain rights to in order to increase their ratings?
5a54faaf134fea001a0e1796
True
the fifth estate
432
What weekly newsmagizine has played since the inception of the CBC station?
5a54faaf134fea001a0e1797
True
In addition to the mentioned late local newscasts, CBC stations in most markets fill early evenings with local news programs, generally from 5:00 p.m. to 6:30 p.m., while most stations also air a single local newscast on weekend evenings (comprising a supper hour broadcast on Saturdays and a late evening newscast on Sundays). Other newscasts include parts of CBC News Now airing weekday at 6:00 a.m. and noon. Weekly newsmagazine the fifth estate is also a CBC mainstay, as are documentary series such as Doc Zone.
What year did HNIC begin being broadcasted on CBC?
572a362c3f37b319004787b7
1952
175
False
What did CBC air during the NHL lockout?
572a362c3f37b319004787b8
various recent and classic movies
282
False
What did CBC call it's movie showings during the NHL Lockout?
572a362c3f37b319004787b9
Movie Night in Canada
328
False
On what nights does CBC generally reserve broadcasting for hockey?
572a362c3f37b319004787ba
Saturday
62
False
Hockey Night in Canada
108
what popular show has aired on the CBC since its inception in 1952?
5a5500ce134fea001a0e17d4
True
2004-2005
239
The NHL refused the CBC access to hockey games during which season?
5a5500ce134fea001a0e17d5
True
minor hockey leagues
445
The CBC lost sponsorship when they refused to air what games?
5a5500ce134fea001a0e17d6
True
Toronto Raptors basketball, Toronto FC Soccer,
684
When movie Night in Canada was not successful, what other sports team rights did the CBC acquire?
5a5500ce134fea001a0e17d7
True
One of the most popular shows on CBC Television is the weekly Saturday night broadcast of NHL hockey games, Hockey Night in Canada. It has been televised by the network since 1952. During the NHL lockout and subsequent cancellation of the 2004-2005 hockey season, CBC instead aired various recent and classic movies, branded as Movie Night in Canada, on Saturday nights. Many cultural groups criticized this and suggested the CBC air games from minor hockey leagues; the CBC responded that most such broadcast rights were already held by other groups, but it did base each Movie Night broadcast from a different Canadian hockey venue. Other than hockey, CBC Sports properties include Toronto Raptors basketball, Toronto FC Soccer, and various other amateur and professional events.
CBC was eclusive carrier of what other sport during the 2004-2005 season?
572a36e06aef051400155382
Curling
46
False
What is CBC Country Canada now called?
572a36e06aef051400155383
Cottage Life Television
211
False
Who became the new exclusive carrier of curling broadcasts during the 2008-2009 season?
572a36e06aef051400155384
TSN
441
False
On what day was it announced CBC had lost exclusve rights to curling broadcasting?
572a36e06aef051400155385
June 15, 2006
449
False
Canadian Curling Association events
37
What popular Canadian sport event overtook hockey viewership in 2004-2005?
5a5504ca134fea001a0e17f0
True
CBC Country Canada (now called Cottage Life Television
180
The CBC created which network in hopes of retaining their contract with the curling association?
5a5504ca134fea001a0e17f1
True
TSN
487
After numerous court battles, the CBC agreed to transfer exclusive rights to curling events to what broadcast station?
5a5504ca134fea001a0e17f2
True
40-plus years
650
The 2008-2009 curling championship games led to the highest ratings in how many years?
5a5504ca134fea001a0e17f3
True
It was also the exclusive carrier of Canadian Curling Association events during the 2004–2005 season. Due to disappointing results and fan outrage over many draws being carried on CBC Country Canada (now called Cottage Life Television, the association tried to cancel its multiyear deal with the CBC signed in 2004. After the CBC threatened legal action, both sides eventually came to an agreement under which early-round rights reverted to TSN. On June 15, 2006, the CCA announced that TSN would obtain exclusive rights to curling broadcasts in Canada as of the 2008-09 season, shutting the CBC out of the championship weekend for the first time in 40-plus years.
Which American newscast was taken off the air only two weeks after CBC began showing it?
572a373d6aef051400155392
The One
392
False
Why did CBC move The National in some areas?
572a373d6aef051400155393
to simulcast the American version of The One over the summer
295
False
For what purpose did CBC make significant changes to their broadcasting?
572a373d6aef051400155394
to attract a younger audience to the network
89
False
The One
392
The CDC decided to model their news program after what American show?
5a5506e3134fea001a0e1816
True
extremely low American and Canadian ratings
444
The National was taken off the air due to what problem?
5a5506e3134fea001a0e1817
True
might alienate the core CBC viewership
155
The CCA was concerned that schedule changes would cause what problem?
5a5506e3134fea001a0e1818
True
attract a younger audience to the network
92
Twice a year, the CBC will retain new talent in order to serve what purpose?
5a5506e3134fea001a0e1819
True
Many were surprised by these changes to the CBC schedule, which were apparently intended to attract a younger audience to the network; some suggested they might alienate the core CBC viewership. Another note of criticism was made when the network decided to move The National in some time zones to simulcast the American version of The One over the summer. This later became a moot point, as The One was taken off the air after two weeks after extremely low American and Canadian ratings, and the newscast resumed its regular schedule.
What year did the CBC begin contributing funds to the show Doctor Who?
572a37e41d04691400779855
2005
13
False
When did CBC end its Doctor Who contributions?
572a37e41d04691400779856
the end of fourth season, broadcast in 2008
201
False
Which Doctor Who spinoff did CBC contribute to?
572a37e41d04691400779857
Torchwood
320
False
Which Australian series has CBC taken interest in?
572a37e41d04691400779858
Janet King and Love Child, and the comedy-drama series Please Like Me
454
False
Doctor Who
89
What was the CBC's most popular show in 2005?
5a55093f134fea001a0e1832
True
Torchwood.
320
What Doctor Who spinoff only lasted 2 seasons?
5a55093f134fea001a0e1833
True
2008.
240
The BBC stopped giving the CBC special credit for Doctor Who in what year?
5a55093f134fea001a0e1834
True
Janet King and Love Child,
454
Some of the Australian dramas that are currently very popular in Canada, include what shows?
5a55093f134fea001a0e1835
True
Beginning in 2005, the CBC has contributed production funds for the BBC Wales revival of Doctor Who, for which it received a special credit at the end of each episode. This arrangement continued until the end of fourth season, broadcast in 2008. The CBC similarly contributed to the first season of the spin-off series, Torchwood. More recently, the network has also begun picking up Canadian rights to some Australian series, including the drama series Janet King and Love Child, and the comedy-drama series Please Like Me.
What stations did CBC broadcast in HD in 2005?
572a38ae1d0469140077985d
Toronto (CBLT-DT) and Montreal (CBMT-DT)
77
False
Where is CBC available for free?
572a38ae1d0469140077985e
over-the-air
440
False
What is required to view over-the-air broadcasts?
572a38ae1d0469140077985f
a regular TV antenna and a digital tuner
459
False
Toronto (CBLT-DT) and Montreal
77
CBC television had to fight the CCA to launch it's station in what 2 cities in 2005?
5a550bd1134fea001a0e184e
True
Vancouver
192
One of the advantages the CBC has over competitors is the ability to broadcast in this British Columbia city?
5a550bd1134fea001a0e184f
True
free over-the-air using a regular TV antenna and a digital tuner
435
The CCA would not allow the CBC to broadcast unless they allowed this type of viewing?
5a550bd1134fea001a0e1850
True
available nationally
364
What has helped to make the CBC Canada's most popular station?
5a550bd1134fea001a0e1851
True
On March 5, 2005, CBC Television launched a high definition simulcast of its Toronto (CBLT-DT) and Montreal (CBMT-DT) stations. Since that time, the network has also launched HD simulcasts in Vancouver (CBUT-DT), Ottawa (CBOT-DT), Edmonton (CBXT-DT), Calgary (CBRT-DT), Halifax (CBHT-DT), Windsor, (CBET-DT), Winnipeg (CBWT-DT) and St. John's (CBNT-DT). CBC HD is available nationally via satellite and on digital cable as well as for free over-the-air using a regular TV antenna and a digital tuner (included in most new television sets) on the following channels:
What station does not identify itself by its call letters?
572a39e11d0469140077986d
Toronto's CBLT
468
False
Who owns and operates most of the CBC television stations?
572a39e11d0469140077986e
CBC itself
97
False
What are the first two letters of nearly all CBC stations?
572a39e11d0469140077986f
"CB"
636
False
What is the last letter of nearly all CBC stations?
572a39e11d04691400779870
"T"
718
False
Which stations break convention and begin with "CF" instead of "CB"?
572a3acf6aef0514001553b4
CBC North
938
False
Toronto's CBLT
468
The CBC does not allow on air call letter identification with which of their stations?
5a550ff4134fea001a0e18a6
True
the CBC itself
93
The CBC receives most of its funding from this entity?
5a550ff4134fea001a0e18a7
True
microwave and satellite broadcasting
1128
The CBC only offered radio broadcasting in its northern regions before the advent of what?
5a550ff4134fea001a0e18a8
True
standard call letter naming convention
562
In order to join the CBC broadcasting network, owners and operators change their call letters to conform to this rule?
5a550ff4134fea001a0e18a9
True
Most CBC television stations, including those in the major cities, are owned and operated by the CBC itself. CBC O&O stations operate as a mostly seamless national service with few deviations from the main network schedule, although there are some regional differences from time to time. For on-air identification, most CBC stations use the CBC brand rather than their call letters, not identifying themselves specifically until sign-on or sign-off (though some, like Toronto's CBLT, do not ID themselves at all except through PSIP). All CBC O&O stations have a standard call letter naming convention, in that the first two letters are "CB" (an ITU prefix allocated not to Canada, but to Chile) and the last letter is "T". Only the third letter varies from market to market; however, that letter is typically the same as the third letter of the CBC Radio One and CBC Radio 2 stations in the same market. An exception to this rule are the CBC North stations in Yellowknife, Whitehorse and Iqaluit, whose call signs begin with "CF" due to their historic association with the CBC's Frontier Coverage Package prior to the advent of microwave and satellite broadcasting.
What are private affiliates?
572a3ecfaf94a219006aa907
stations which are owned by commercial broadcasters but predominantly incorporate CBC programming within their schedules
93
False
Minimally, how many hours are devoted weekly to network programming in CBC's private affiliates?
572a3ecfaf94a219006aa908
40
281
False
Which broadcast do affiliates generally carry?
572a3ecfaf94a219006aa909
10 p.m
845
False
private affiliates
53
Much of the CBC's income is generated not from advertisements, but other stations known as what?
5a551af1134fea001a0e1926
True
40 hours
281
The CBC tries to dedicate how many hours a week to public broadcasting programs?
5a551af1134fea001a0e1927
True
locally produced programs, syndicated series or programs purchased from other broadcasters
389
CBC will terminate contracts when private affiliates opt to air what programs?
5a551af1134fea001a0e1928
True
10 p.m.
845
The CBC Private news usually will air at what time?
5a551af1134fea001a0e1929
True
24
1218
CBC's contract states all affiliates must broadcast how many hours a day?
5a551af1134fea001a0e192a
True
Some stations that broadcast from smaller cities are private affiliates of the CBC, that is, stations which are owned by commercial broadcasters but predominantly incorporate CBC programming within their schedules. Such stations generally follow the CBC schedule, airing a minimum 40 hours per week of network programming. However, they may opt out of some CBC programming in order to air locally produced programs, syndicated series or programs purchased from other broadcasters, such as CTV Two, which do not have a broadcast outlet in the same market. In these cases, the CBC programming being displaced may be broadcast at a different time than the network, or may not be broadcast on the station at all. Most private affiliates generally opt out of CBC's afternoon schedule and Thursday night arts programming. Private affiliates carry the 10 p.m. broadcast of The National as a core part of the CBC schedule, but generally omitted the 11 p.m. repeat (which is no longer broadcast). Most private affiliates produce their own local newscasts for a duration of at least 35 minutes. Some of the private affiliates have begun adding CBC's overnight programming to their schedules since the network began broadcasting 24 hours a day.
Which CBC affiliate joined E! in February 2006?
572a3ff81d04691400779887
CHBC-TV in Kelowna
270
False
Which affiliate left CBC due to an agreement with CHBC?
572a3ff81d04691400779888
CFJC-TV in Kamloops
562
False
What two affiliates joined E! in late August, 2008 after which transmitters were not replaced?
572a3ff81d04691400779889
CKPG-TV Prince George and CHAT-TV Medicine Hat
730
False
CJFC, CHAT, and CKPG are owned by whom?
572a3ff81d0469140077988a
Jim Pattison Group
979
False
Canwest Global or CHUM Limited,
140
The CBC is losing influence to what to broadcasting groups?
5a551e3d134fea001a0e194e
True
February 27
322
On what day in 2006, did the CBC lose a large percentage of their private affiliates due to the CHBC?
5a551e3d134fea001a0e194f
True
CFJC-TV in Kamloops
562
CHBC is the only broadcaster licensed in British Columbia after the CBC experienced a CRTC disagreement with what station?
5a551e3d134fea001a0e1950
True
Jim Pattison Group
979
What independent media company has attempted to merge with the CBC?
5a551e3d134fea001a0e1951
True
changes in the media landscape
1032
What is the CBC's largest challenge with retaining viewers?
5a551e3d134fea001a0e1952
True
Private CBC affiliates are not as common as they were in the past, as many such stations have been purchased either by the CBC itself or by Canwest Global or CHUM Limited, respectively becoming E! or A-Channel (later A, now CTV Two) stations. One private CBC affiliate, CHBC-TV in Kelowna, joined E! (then known as CH) on February 27, 2006. When a private CBC affiliate reaffiliates with another network, the CBC has normally added a retransmitter of its nearest O&O station to ensure that CBC service is continued. However, due to an agreement between CHBC and CFJC-TV in Kamloops, CFJC also disaffiliated from the CBC on February 27, 2006, but no retransmitters were installed in the licence area. Former private CBC affiliates CKPG-TV Prince George and CHAT-TV Medicine Hat disaffiliated on August 31, 2008 and joined E!, but the CBC announced it will not add new retransmitters to these areas. Incidentally, CFJC, CKPG and CHAT are all owned by an independent media company, Jim Pattison Group. With the closure of E! and other changes in the media landscape, several former CBC affiliates have since joined City or Global, or closed altogether.
What was Canada's date for the switch between analog and digital transmission?
572a419a1d046914007798a3
August 31, 2011
379
False
What did CBC announce on August 31, 2011?
572a419a1d046914007798a4
it will not extend its association with any of its private affiliates
302
False
In March 2011, CBC and CKPR agreed to continue working together for how many additional years?
572a419a1d046914007798a5
five
968
False
Who purchased CFTK and CJDC in March 2012?
572a419a1d046914007798a6
Bell Media
1048
False
will not extend its association with any of its private affiliates
305
The CBC cited not wanting to pay for the transition from analog to digital as it's reason for doing this?
5a552284134fea001a0e196c
True
August 31, 2011
379
The CBC's refusal meant that hundreds of thousands would not have television access after what date?
5a552284134fea001a0e196d
True
CKPR
802
The CRTC requested that the CBC negotiate with this station in order to extend their contract?
5a552284134fea001a0e196e
True
$3.38 billion
1091
CTV and CTV2 purchased Bell Media in 2012 for what sum?
5a552284134fea001a0e196f
True
According to filings to the Canadian Radio-television and Telecommunications Commission (CRTC) by Thunder Bay Electronics (owner of CBC's Thunder Bay affiliate CKPR-DT) and Bell Media (owner of CBC affiliates CFTK-TV in Terrace and CJDC-TV in Dawson Creek),[citation needed] the CBC informed them that it will not extend its association with any of its private affiliates beyond August 31, 2011. Incidentally, that was also the date for analogue to digital transition in Canada. Given recent practice and the CBC's decision not to convert any retransmitters to digital, even in markets with populations in the hundreds in thousands, it is not expected that the CBC will open new transmitters to replace its affiliates, and indeed may pare back its existing transmitter network. However, in March 2011, CKPR announced that it had come to a programming agreement with the CBC, in which the station will continue to provide CBC programming in Thunder Bay for a period of five years. On March 16, 2012, Astral Media announced the sale of its assets to Bell Media, owners of CTV and CTV Two, for $3.38 billion with CFTK and CJDC included in the acquisition. Whether the stations will remain CBC affiliates or become owned-and-operated stations of CTV or CTV Two following the completion of the merger is undetermined.
When did CBC shut down its analogue transmitter?
572a44ebaf94a219006aa917
September 2010
394
False
Which CBC location has a lapsed area of coverage after 2010?
572a44ebaf94a219006aa918
South-Western Ontario
571
False
Which US city can receive broadcasts from CBC's London transmitter?
572a44ebaf94a219006aa919
Ashtabula, Ohio
238
False
Ashtabula, Ohio
238
What location in the United States has the highest viewership of CBC programming?
5a5524ab134fea001a0e1988
True
shut down its analogue transmitter and decided not to replace it with a digital transmitter
413
What has caused the ratings of the CBC to lapse since September 2010?
5a5524ab134fea001a0e1989
True
there is now a giant hole in the coverage of CBC in South-Western Ontario.
519
Economic conditions and societal inequality has caused the CBC to ignore this problem?
5a5524ab134fea001a0e198a
True
100 miles
645
What is the maximum distance that a city can be from a transmission antenna?
5a5524ab134fea001a0e198b
True
CBC Television stations can be received in many United States communities along the Canadian border over-the-air and have a significant audience in those areas. Such a phenomenon can also take place within Great Lakes communities such as Ashtabula, Ohio, which received programming from the CBC's London, Ontario, transmitter, based upon prevailing atmospheric conditions over Lake Erie. As of September 2010 CBC shut down its analogue transmitter and decided not to replace it with a digital transmitter. As a result, there is now a giant hole in the coverage of CBC in South-Western Ontario. Both CBC - Toronto and CBC - Windsor are both over 100 miles from London, ON and out of range for even the largest antennas[citation needed].
Why is CBC's coverage preferable to other networks in the US?
572a47423f37b31900478859
more complete and consistent
170
False
Did CBC air more or less live Olympic events than NBC?
572a47423f37b3190047885a
more
372
False
Why was NBC criticized over its Olympic coverage?
572a47423f37b3190047885b
tape delaying events to air in primetime
456
False
considered to be more complete and consistent
153
People prefer CBS's coverage of sports for this reason?
5a552738134fea001a0e199a
True
NBC
239
The CBC's has a great deal of competition with what American network?
5a552738134fea001a0e199b
True
tape delaying events to air in primetime
456
It is difficult to find a broadcast network that does not engage in this practice?
5a552738134fea001a0e199c
True
Olympic Games
264
NBC allowed border cities in Canada to watch these games?
5a552738134fea001a0e199d
True
CBC's sports coverage has also attained high viewership in border markets, including its coverage of the NHL's Stanley Cup Playoffs, which was generally considered to be more complete and consistent than coverage by other networks such as NBC. Its coverage of the Olympic Games also found a significant audience in border regions, primarily due to the fact that CBC aired more events live than NBC's coverage, which had been criticized in recent years for tape delaying events to air in primetime, even if the event is being held in a market in the Pacific Time Zone during primetime hours on the East (where it would still be delayed for West coast primetime).
What was the deadline for converstion to digital transmission from analogue?
572a4fa81d046914007798fb
August 31, 2011
145
False
How many of CBC's mandatory transmitters were updated before the deadline?
572a4fa81d046914007798fc
only about half
176
False
Which two large metropolitan areas lost CBC and Radio-Canada broadcasts?
572a4fa81d046914007798fd
London, Ontario (metropolitan area population 457,000) and Saskatoon, Saskatchewan (metro area population 257,000)
930
False
August 31, 2011
145
The CBC petitioned to change what original deadline for converting transmission from digital to analog?
5a552a0c134fea001a0e19a2
True
about half
181
The CBC held elaborate fundraisers when it realized that it lacked the funds to transmit what percent of their transmitters?
5a552a0c134fea001a0e19a3
True
London, Ontario (metropolitan area population 457,000) and Saskatoon, Saskatchewan (metro area population 257,000)
930
The CRTC reported that the population in what two cities were no longer profitable for their operations and recommended terminating broadcasts?
5a552a0c134fea001a0e19a4
True
23 of the 48
781
Other Canadian broadcasters accounted for how many of the rebroadcast transmitters?
5a552a0c134fea001a0e19a5
True
While its fellow Canadian broadcasters converted most of their transmitters to digital by the Canadian digital television transition deadline of August 31, 2011, CBC converted only about half of the analogue transmitters in mandatory areas to digital (15 of 28 markets with CBC Television stations, and 14 of 28 markets with Télévision de Radio-Canada stations). Due to financial difficulties reported by the corporation, the corporation published digital transition plans for none of its analogue retransmitters in mandatory markets to be converted to digital by the deadline. Under this plan, communities that receive analogue signals by rebroadcast transmitters in mandatory markets would lose their over-the-air signals as of the deadline. Rebroadcast transmitters account for 23 of the 48 CBC and Radio-Canada transmitters in mandatory markets. Mandatory markets losing both CBC and Radio-Canada over-the-air signals include London, Ontario (metropolitan area population 457,000) and Saskatoon, Saskatchewan (metro area population 257,000). In both of those markets, the corporation's television transmitters are the only ones that were not planned to be converted to digital by the deadline.
When was CBC's anologue upgrade extension set to expire?
572a50dfb8ce0319002e2a8d
August 31, 2012
457
False
At the deadline, which area lost broadcast entirely?
572a50dfb8ce0319002e2a8e
Barrie, Ontario
771
False
Did Barrie, Ontario lose signal for CBC, Radio-Canada, or both?
572a50dfb8ce0319002e2a8f
both
792
False
seven
180
How many of the transmitters were purchased by the CRTC in order to be converted to digial?
5a552e38134fea001a0e19aa
True
an extension
437
What did the complete loss of service prompt the CRTC to grant?
5a552e38134fea001a0e19ab
True
Barrie, Ontario
771
What city in Canada started a new network after losing all coverage from the CBC and Radio-Canada?
5a552e38134fea001a0e19ac
True
many markets subject to the transition deadline from losing signals for CBC or Radio-Canada
614
The CRTC realized that it needed to break up the CBC's monopoly after it extended the deadline in order to prevent what?
5a552e38134fea001a0e19ad
True
Because rebroadcast transmitters were not planned to be converted to digital, many markets stood to lose over-the-air coverage from CBC or Radio-Canada, or both. As a result, only seven of the markets subject to the August 31, 2011 transition deadline were planned to have both CBC and Radio-Canada in digital, and 13 other markets were planned to have either CBC or Radio-Canada in digital. In mid-August 2011, the CRTC granted the CBC an extension, until August 31, 2012, to continue operating its analogue transmitters in markets subject to the August 31, 2011 transition deadline. This CRTC decision prevented many markets subject to the transition deadline from losing signals for CBC or Radio-Canada, or both at the transition deadline. At the transition deadline, Barrie, Ontario lost both CBC and Radio-Canada signals as the CBC did not request that the CRTC allow these transmitters to continue operating.
How many people were intended to be served by digital transmitters, according to CBC's application?
572a52b4b8ce0319002e2aad
113,930 people
475
False
How many people were previously served by analogue transmitters before the upgrade?
572a52b4b8ce0319002e2aae
303,465
497
False
In what area of Victora was CBC and Radio-Canada available?
572a52b4b8ce0319002e2aaf
only some northeastern parts
649
False
existing coverage areas were not necessarily maintained
54
The CBC lost customers due to their practice of doing this?
5a5530bb134fea001a0e19b2
True
113,930 people versus 303,465
475
The CBC provided false data regarding analog versus digital stating that the coverage would change from what numbers respectively?
5a5530bb134fea001a0e19b3
True
Saint John, New Brunswick
253
The CRTC recommended continued analog transmission in what area?
5a5530bb134fea001a0e19b4
True
some northeastern parts of the metropolitan area
654
CBC was replaced with Radio-Canada in what area of Victoria?
5a5530bb134fea001a0e19b5
True
In markets where a digital transmitter was installed, existing coverage areas were not necessarily maintained. For instance, the CBC implemented a digital transmitter covering Fredericton, New Brunswick in the place of the existing transmitter covering Saint John, New Brunswick and Fredericton, and decided to maintain analogue service to Saint John. According to CBC's application for this transmitter to the CRTC, the population served by the digital transmitter would be 113,930 people versus 303,465 served by the existing analogue transmitter. In Victoria, the replacement of the Vancouver analogue transmitters with digital ones only allowed only some northeastern parts of the metropolitan area (total population 330,000) to receive either CBC or Radio-Canada.
How many transmitters does currently CBC operate after 2012?
572a53aed562191400bc8669
27
299
False
When did the CBC announce service would be discontinued to analogue transmitters?
572a53aed562191400bc866a
July 31, 2012
120
False
How much did CBC say they would save by ceasing analogue operation?
572a53aed562191400bc866b
$10 million
377
False
$10 million
377
The CBC's yearly operating costs were recorded as this amount?
5a553224134fea001a0e19c4
True
27
299
The CRTC has limited the CBC to operating how many digital transmitters?
5a553224134fea001a0e19c5
True
620
80
Unable to meet the conversion deadline, the CRTC took possession of how many of the CBC's analogue transmitters?
5a553224134fea001a0e19c6
True
subchannels
426
The CRTC encouraged the use of there to maintain over-the-air signals?
5a553224134fea001a0e19c7
True
July 31, 2012
120
The CBC decided to terminate all digital and analog broadcasts on this date?
5a553224134fea001a0e19c8
True
CBC announced on April 4, 2012, that it will shut down all of its approximately 620 analogue television transmitters on July 31, 2012 with no plans to install digital transmitters in their place, thus reducing the total number of the corporation's television transmitters across the country down to 27. According to the CBC, this would reduce the corporation's yearly costs by $10 million. No plans have been announced to use subchannels to maintain over-the-air signals for both CBC and Radio-Canada in markets where the corporation has one digital transmitter. In fact, in its CRTC application to shut down all of its analogue television transmitters, the CBC communicated its opposition to use of subchannels, citing costs, amongst other reasons.
How many transmitters did CBC intend to upgrade before August 2011?
572a54347a1753140016aeac
15
339
False
For what reason did CBC attribute to delayed upgrades?
572a54347a1753140016aead
financial reasons
70
False
How many transmitters did CBC plan to upgrade total?
572a54347a1753140016aeae
27
136
False
August 6, 2010
3
The CBC issued a statement to sell off its assets on what day?
5a55334a134fea001a0e19ce
True
15
339
The CRTC agreed to help the CBC install how many transmitters by August 31, 2011?
5a55334a134fea001a0e19cf
True
eight
745
How many stations did the CBC have broadcasting in analog in 2012?
5a55334a134fea001a0e19d0
True
financial reasons
70
The CRTC assisted the CBC with the transition due to what reason?
5a55334a134fea001a0e19d1
True
On August 6, 2010, the CBC issued a press release stating that due to financial reasons, the CBC and Radio-Canada would only transition 27 transmitters total, one in each market where there was an originating station (i.e. a CBC or Radio-Canada television station located in that market). Further, the CBC stated in the release, that only 15 of the transmitters would be in place by August 31, 2011 due to lack of available funds, and that the remainder would not be on the air until as late as August 31, 2012. Additionally, the CBC stated in the release that it was asking the CRTC for permission to continue broadcasting in analogue until the identified transmitters for transition were up and running. At the time of the press release, only eight of the corporation's transmitters (four CBC and four Radio Canada) were broadcasting in digital.
On which day did CBC release an updated announcement stating they were striving to update all 27 transmitters?
572a54e07a1753140016aeb2
On December 16, 2010
291
False
On what date did CBC say it was striving to update its analogue transmitters by?
572a54e07a1753140016aeb3
August 31, 2011
626
False
Why did the CTRC send out a bulletin to broadcasters?
572a54e07a1753140016aeb4
reminding broadcasters that analog transmitters had to be shut off by the deadline in mandatory markets
358
False
plans for transitioning to digital
110
The senior director of the CRTC issued a letter to address what concern in November of 2010?
5a5535e0134fea001a0e19d6
True
August 31, 2011
272
On what day did the CRTC plan to take over the CBC?
5a5535e0134fea001a0e19d7
True
2010,
307
The CRTC let broadcasters know the channels would continue to air in a news release in December of what year?
5a5535e0134fea001a0e19d8
True
27
607
How many transmitters existed for the CRTC to regulate?
5a5535e0134fea001a0e19d9
True
August 6, 2010
510
When did the CBC decide to request an extension to convert their transmitters?
5a5535e0134fea001a0e19da
True
On November 30, 2010, CBC's senior director of regulatory affairs issued a letter to the CRTC regarding CBC's plans for transitioning to digital. The letter states, "CBC/Radio-Canada will not be converting its analogue retransmitters in mandatory markets to digital after August 31, 2011."  On December 16, 2010, some months after the CRTC issued a bulletin reminding broadcasters that analog transmitters had to be shut off by the deadline in mandatory markets, the CBC revised the documents accompanying its August 6, 2010 news release to state that it had the money for and is striving to transition all 27 transmitters by August 31, 2011.
What percent of the previous population would a new digital transmitter have served in Fredicton in comparison to the analogue transmitter?
572a56c37a1753140016aec2
62.5%
247
False
Was CBC's application for a digital transitter in Fredricton approved or rejected?
572a56c37a1753140016aec3
rejected
28
False
What did CBC say would allow broadcasting to continue?
572a56c37a1753140016aec4
if the CRTC were to "allow CBC Television to continue providing the analogue service it offers today
676
False
62.5%
247
The CRTC required that all conversions serve at least what percent of the population?
5a5537ba134fea001a0e19e0
True
more detailed cost estimates
433
The CRTC stated that it denied the application due to needing what?
5a5537ba134fea001a0e19e1
True
analogue service
744
The CBC planned to take the CRTC to court citing the superiority of this type of coverage?
5a5537ba134fea001a0e19e2
True
Yellowknife, Whitehorse and Iqaluit.
849
The extreme wilderness forced the CRTC to make exceptions to the rule in what cities?
5a5537ba134fea001a0e19e3
True
On March 23, 2011, the CRTC rejected an application by the CBC to install a digital transmitter serving Fredricton, New Brunswick in place of the analogue transmitter serving Fredericton and Saint John, New Brunswick, which would have served only 62.5% of the population served by the existing analogue transmitter. The CBC issued a press release stating "CBC/Radio-Canada intends to re-file its application with the CRTC to provide more detailed cost estimates that will allow the Commission to better understand the unfeasibility of replicating the Corporation’s current analogue coverage." The press release further added that the CBC suggests coverage could be maintained if the CRTC were to "allow CBC Television to continue providing the analogue service it offers today – much in the same way the Commission permitted recently in the case of Yellowknife, Whitehorse and Iqaluit."
On what day did the CRTC agree to allow CBCs broadcasting transmitters to remain active for another year?
572a57be7a1753140016aec8
August 18, 2011
3
False
Where could CBC's channels need to be relocated in order to continue operating?
572a57be7a1753140016aec9
2 to 51
433
False
Which of CBC's channels were required to be relocated or reduced in power?
572a57be7a1753140016aeca
52 to 69
393
False
August 18, 2011
3
When did the courts hear the case regarding the August 31st deadline?
5a553a08134fea001a0e19e8
True
August 31, 2012
145
What was agreed upon by the CBC and CRTC as a fair date to extend the deadline to?
5a553a08134fea001a0e19e9
True
2 to 51
433
The CRTC stated that the CBC refused to move their operating channels from what positions?
5a553a08134fea001a0e19ea
True
52 to 69
393
The CRTC stated that the CBC  refused to relocate and reduce in power what channels?
5a553a08134fea001a0e19eb
True
On August 18, 2011, the CRTC issued a decision that allows CBC's mandatory market rebroadcasting transmitters in analogue to remain on-air until August 31, 2012. Before that deadline, CBC's licence renewal process would take place and CBC's digital transition plans would be examined as part of that process. The requirement remains for all of CBC's full-power transmitters occupying channels 52 to 69 to either relocate to channels 2 to 51 or become low-power transmitters. In some cases, CBC has opted to reduce the power of existing transmitters to low-power transmitters, which will result in signal loss for some viewers.
On what date did the CTRC approve the shut down of CBC's analogue transmitters?
572a582ab8ce0319002e2abb
July 17, 2012
3
False
On what date were CBC's remaining analogue transmitters shut down?
572a582ab8ce0319002e2abc
July 31, 2012
323
False
How many analogue transmitters were shut down on July 31, 2012?
572a582ab8ce0319002e2abd
620
392
False
July 17, 2012
3
When did the CRTC order the shutdown of the analogue transmitters?
5a553b09134fea001a0e19f0
True
July 31, 2012
323
When did the CRTC shut down the 620 analogue transmitters?
5a553b09134fea001a0e19f1
True
27
459
How many transmitters did the CRTC think were appropriate to leave operable?
5a553b09134fea001a0e19f2
True
it cannot direct the CBC or any other broadcaster to continue to operate its stations and transmitters
215
What did the director of the CRTC regret not being able to do?
5a553b09134fea001a0e19f3
True
On July 17, 2012, the CRTC approved the shut down of CBC's analogue transmitters, noting that "while the Commission has the discretion to refuse to revoke broadcasting licences, even on application from a licensee, it cannot direct the CBC or any other broadcaster to continue to operate its stations and transmitters." On July 31, 2012, at around 11:59 p.m. in each time zone, the remaining 620 analogue transmitters were shut down, leaving the network with 27 digital television transmitters across the country, and some transmitters operated by some affiliated stations.
Appalachian_Mountains
What are the Appalachian mountains called in French?
57299cb33f37b319004784f7
les Appalaches
76
False
What are the Appalachian mountains?
57299cb33f37b319004784f8
a system of mountains in eastern North America
128
False
When did the Appalachian mountains form?
57299cb33f37b319004784f9
roughly 480 million years ago
206
False
In what era did the mountains form?
57299cb33f37b319004784fa
Ordovician Period
247
False
The Appalachian Mountains
0
What are often called les Appalaches?
5ace11e632bba1001ae49a2f
True
480 million years ago
214
When were the Rocky Mountains formed?
5ace11e632bba1001ae49a30
True
French
68
What language does the name of the Alps come from?
5ace11e632bba1001ae49a31
True
east-west travel
409
What do the Alps form a barrier between?
5ace11e632bba1001ae49a32
True
Ordovician Period
247
During what period were the Appalachians named?
5ace11e632bba1001ae49a33
True
The Appalachian Mountains (i/ˌæpəˈleɪʃᵻn/ or /ˌæpəˈlætʃᵻn/,[note 1] French: les Appalaches), often called the Appalachians, are a system of mountains in eastern North America. The Appalachians first formed roughly 480 million years ago during the Ordovician Period and once reached elevations similar to those of the Alps and the Rocky Mountains before they were eroded. The Appalachian chain is a barrier to east-west travel as it forms a series of alternating ridgelines and valleys oriented in opposition to any road running east-west.
How many provinces are in the mountain range?
57299d4b6aef05140015502a
thirteen provinces
181
False
What is one of the provinces?
57299d4b6aef05140015502b
the Atlantic Coast Uplands
201
False
Which province is often left out?
57299d4b6aef05140015502c
the Adirondack provinces
482
False
What set of mountains in the range have a different geological history?
57299d4b6aef05140015502d
the Adirondack Mountains
553
False
thirteen
181
How many provinces does the Grenville Orogeny have?
5ace129332bba1001ae49a43
True
the Adirondack Mountains
553
What is the name of the province that is constant throughout various definitions?
5ace129332bba1001ae49a44
True
Grenville Orogeny
612
What has a similar geological history to the Appalachians?
5ace129332bba1001ae49a45
True
The United States Geological Survey (USGS)
64
What is the name of the organization that leaves out the Adirondack Mountains?
5ace129332bba1001ae49a46
True
the precise boundaries
20
What definition of the mountains remains constant?
5ace129332bba1001ae49a47
True
Definitions vary on the precise boundaries of the Appalachians. The United States Geological Survey (USGS) defines the Appalachian Highlands physiographic division as consisting of thirteen provinces: the Atlantic Coast Uplands, Eastern Newfoundland Atlantic, Maritime Acadian Highlands, Maritime Plain, Notre Dame and Mégantic Mountains, Western Newfoundland Mountains, Piedmont, Blue Ridge, Valley and Ridge, Saint Lawrence Valley, Appalachian Plateaus, New England province, and the Adirondack provinces. A common variant definition does not include the Adirondack Mountains, which geologically belong to the Grenville Orogeny and have a different geological history from the rest of the Appalachians.
What country do the Appalachian mountains extend into?
57299db76aef051400155032
Canada
79
False
How large is the zone in Canada?
57299db76aef051400155033
100 to 300 mi
107
False
Where does it start in Canada?
57299db76aef051400155034
Newfoundland
170
False
Where does it end in the US?
57299db76aef051400155035
Central Alabama
220
False
What island is included in the range?
57299db76aef051400155036
Saint Pierre and Miquelon
308
False
100 to 300 mi (160 to 480 km) wide
107
How large is the mountain range in the US?
5ace137d32bba1001ae49a57
True
3,000
477
What is the height in feet of the lowest group of mountains?
5ace137d32bba1001ae49a58
True
Mount Mitchell
523
What is the name of the highest point in Canada?
5ace137d32bba1001ae49a59
True
1,500 mi
183
How long is the range in Saint Pierre and Miquelon?
5ace137d32bba1001ae49a5a
True
6,684 feet
559
How high is the tallest point in the US?
5ace137d32bba1001ae49a5b
True
The range is mostly located in the United States but extends into southeastern Canada, forming a zone from 100 to 300 mi (160 to 480 km) wide, running from the island of Newfoundland 1,500 mi (2,400 km) southwestward to Central Alabama in the United States.[discuss] The range covers parts of the islands of Saint Pierre and Miquelon, which comprise an overseas territory of France. The system is divided into a series of ranges, with the individual mountains averaging around 3,000 ft (910 m). The highest of the group is Mount Mitchell in North Carolina at 6,684 feet (2,037 m), which is the highest point in the United States east of the Mississippi River.
What does the term Appalachian refer to?
57299e763f37b31900478509
several different regions associated with the mountain range
31
False
What states comprise of the southern Appalachian mountains?
57299e763f37b3190047850a
Kentucky, Tennessee, Virginia, Maryland, West Virginia, and North Carolina
361
False
several different regions associated with the mountain range
31
What does the dissected plateau region refer to?
5ace15f932bba1001ae49a75
True
Kentucky, Tennessee, Virginia, Maryland, West Virginia, and North Carolina
361
Which southern states are not referred to in the more restrictive understanding of Appalachian?
5ace15f932bba1001ae49a76
True
central and southern Appalachian Mountains
276
The northern part of South Carolina is considered part of what limited definition?
5ace15f932bba1001ae49a77
True
Pennsylvania, southern Ohio and parts of southern upstate New York
558
What states are included when the region is extended to the west?
5ace15f932bba1001ae49a78
True
The term Appalachian refers to several different regions associated with the mountain range. Most broadly, it refers to the entire mountain range with its surrounding hills and the dissected plateau region. The term is often used more restrictively to refer to regions in the central and southern Appalachian Mountains, usually including areas in the states of Kentucky, Tennessee, Virginia, Maryland, West Virginia, and North Carolina, as well as sometimes extending as far south as northern Alabama, Georgia and western South Carolina, and as far north as Pennsylvania, southern Ohio and parts of southern upstate New York.
What area did the Narvaez expedition explore?
57299ee01d0469140077958b
northern coast of Florida
33
False
When did the Narvaez expedition explore Florida?
57299ee01d0469140077958c
1528
62
False
What did they transcribe Florida's name as?
57299ee01d0469140077958d
Apalchen
246
False
What was the name eventually used for?
57299ee01d0469140077958e
as a name for the tribe and region spreading well inland to the north
347
False
June 15, 1528
487
When was the name altered to Appalachian?
5ace16a532bba1001ae49a87
True
Appalachian
537
What is the oldest surviving European place name in the US?
5ace16a532bba1001ae49a88
True
the Narváez expedition
83
Who named Tallahassee, Florida?
5ace16a532bba1001ae49a89
True
Álvar Núñez Cabeza de Vaca
117
What was the name of the leader of the Native American village?
5ace16a532bba1001ae49a8a
True
Apalchen or Apalachen
246
How was the name of the Narvaez expedition transcribed?
5ace16a532bba1001ae49a8b
True
While exploring inland along the northern coast of Florida in 1528, the members of the Narváez expedition, including Álvar Núñez Cabeza de Vaca, found a Native American village near present-day Tallahassee, Florida whose name they transcribed as Apalchen or Apalachen [a.paˈla.tʃɛn]. The name was soon altered by the Spanish to Apalachee and used as a name for the tribe and region spreading well inland to the north. Pánfilo de Narváez's expedition first entered Apalachee territory on June 15, 1528, and applied the name. Now spelled "Appalachian," it is the fourth-oldest surviving European place-name in the US.
What area is usually grouped with the Appalachians?
57299f39af94a219006aa575
dissected plateau to the north and west of the mountains
94
False
What mountains does that region include?
57299f39af94a219006aa576
Catskill Mountains
211
False
What is the plateau known as in West Virginia?
57299f39af94a219006aa577
Cumberland Plateau
434
False
to the north and west of the mountains
112
Where are the true folded mountains located?
5ace1baf32bba1001ae49ae5
True
the Allegheny Plateau
289
What is the name of the plateau in southeastern and southwestern New York?
5ace1baf32bba1001ae49ae6
True
Cumberland Plateau
434
What is the name of the plateau that is not the Allegheny?
5ace1baf32bba1001ae49ae7
True
true folded mountains
19
What is to the north and west of the plateau?
5ace1baf32bba1001ae49ae8
True
In addition to the true folded mountains, known as the ridge and valley province, the area of dissected plateau to the north and west of the mountains is usually grouped with the Appalachians. This includes the Catskill Mountains of southeastern New York, the Poconos in Pennsylvania, and the Allegheny Plateau of southwestern New York, western Pennsylvania, eastern Ohio and northern West Virginia. This same plateau is known as the Cumberland Plateau in southern West Virginia, eastern Kentucky, western Virginia, eastern Tennessee, and northern Alabama.
What does the Great Appalachian Valley do?
57299fb33f37b31900478517
divides the mountain system into two unequal portions
506
False
What is common among all the mountains in the range?
57299fb33f37b31900478518
has no axis of dominating altitudes, but in every portion the summits rise to rather uniform heights
720
False
What is the climate like on the summits?
57299fb33f37b31900478519
None of the summits reaches the region of perpetual snow.
948
False
two
539
How many portions is the Great Appalachian Valley divided into?
5ace1dc132bba1001ae49b1f
True
the Atlantic Ocean
99
What ocean is to the south east of the mountains?
5ace1dc132bba1001ae49b20
True
Allegheny and Cumberland
265
What are the names of the interior plains?
5ace1dc132bba1001ae49b21
True
The Great Appalachian Valley
444
What divides the mountain range equally?
5ace1dc132bba1001ae49b22
True
Adirondack group
682
Which group reaches the region of perpetual snow?
5ace1dc132bba1001ae49b23
True
The Appalachian belt includes, with the ranges enumerated above, the plateaus sloping southward to the Atlantic Ocean in New England, and south-eastward to the border of the coastal plain through the central and southern Atlantic states; and on the north-west, the Allegheny and Cumberland plateaus declining toward the Great Lakes and the interior plains. A remarkable feature of the belt is the longitudinal chain of broad valleys, including The Great Appalachian Valley, which in the southerly sections divides the mountain system into two unequal portions, but in the northernmost lies west of all the ranges possessing typical Appalachian features, and separates them from the Adirondack group. The mountain system has no axis of dominating altitudes, but in every portion the summits rise to rather uniform heights, and, especially in the central section, the various ridges and intermontane valleys have the same trend as the system itself. None of the summits reaches the region of perpetual snow.
How tall are the mountains in Newfoundland?
5729a0203f37b3190047851d
3,000 ft
68
False
How tall are the mountains in Nova Scotia?
5729a0203f37b3190047851e
vary from 1,000 to 2,700 ft
273
False
How tall are the mountains in Maine?
5729a0203f37b3190047851f
exceed 4,000 ft
340
False
How tall are the mountains in New Hampshire?
5729a0203f37b31900478520
many summits rise above 5,000 ft
435
False
1,000 to 2,700 ft (300 to 800 m)
283
How tall are the isolated peaks in Notre Dame?
5ace207b32bba1001ae49b4b
True
Mount Katahdin
377
What is the name of the 5,267ft peak in Nova Scotia?
5ace207b32bba1001ae49b4c
True
Lincoln
714
What is the smallest summit in the New Hampshire range?
5ace207b32bba1001ae49b4d
True
New Hampshire
420
What state are the Green Mountains located in?
5ace207b32bba1001ae49b4e
True
Mount Katahdin
377
What is the name of the mountain range in Maine?
5ace207b32bba1001ae49b4f
True
Mountains of the Long Range in Newfoundland reach heights of nearly 3,000 ft (900 m). In the Chic-Choc and Notre Dame mountain ranges in Quebec, the higher summits rise to about 4,000 ft (1,200 m) elevation. Isolated peaks and small ranges in Nova Scotia and New Brunswick vary from 1,000 to 2,700 ft (300 to 800 m). In Maine several peaks exceed 4,000 ft (1,200 m), including Mount Katahdin at 5,267 feet (1,605 m). In New Hampshire, many summits rise above 5,000 ft (1,500 m), including Mount Washington in the White Mountains at 6,288 ft (1,917 m), Adams at 5,771 ft (1,759 m), Jefferson at 5,712 ft (1,741 m), Monroe at 5,380 ft (1,640 m), Madison at 5,367 ft (1,636 m), Lafayette at 5,249 feet (1,600 m), and Lincoln at 5,089 ft (1,551 m). In the Green Mountains the highest point, Mt. Mansfield, is 4,393 ft (1,339 m) in elevation; others include Killington Peak at 4,226 ft (1,288 m), Camel's Hump at 4,083 ft (1,244 m), Mt. Abraham at 4,006 ft (1,221 m), and a number of other heights exceeding 3,000 ft (900 m).
How many summits in PA are over 2,500 ft?
5729a094af94a219006aa585
over sixty summits
27
False
How tall are the summits of Mount Davis and Blue Knob?
5729a094af94a219006aa586
over 3,000 ft
125
False
How tall are Eagle Rock and Dans Mountain?
5729a094af94a219006aa587
3,162 ft (964 m) and 2,882 ft
222
False
How tall is the Pinnacle?
5729a094af94a219006aa588
3,007 feet
351
False
How many peaks are over 4,000 feet in WV?
5729a094af94a219006aa589
more than 150 peaks
426
False
over sixty
27
How many summits are over 2500 ft in Maryland?
5ace215932bba1001ae49b65
True
the Pinnacle 3,007 feet (917 m) and Pidgeon Roost 3,400 ft (1,000 m)
338
What mountains are on the opposite side of the Great Valley from Dans Mountain?
5ace215932bba1001ae49b66
True
more than 150
426
How many peaks are over 3000ft in West Virginia?
5ace215932bba1001ae49b67
True
Bald Knob
690
Besides Snowshoe, what is the name of the other mountain at Thorny Flat?
5ace215932bba1001ae49b68
True
Potomac
325
What is south of the Pinnacle?
5ace215932bba1001ae49b69
True
In Pennsylvania, there are over sixty summits that rise over 2,500 ft (800 m); the summits of Mount Davis and Blue Knob rise over 3,000 ft (900 m). In Maryland, Eagle Rock and Dans Mountain are conspicuous points reaching 3,162 ft (964 m) and 2,882 ft (878 m) respectively. On the same side of the Great Valley, south of the Potomac, are the Pinnacle 3,007 feet (917 m) and Pidgeon Roost 3,400 ft (1,000 m). In West Virginia, more than 150 peaks rise above 4,000 ft (1,200 m), including Spruce Knob 4,863 ft (1,482 m), the highest point in the Allegheny Mountains. A number of other points in the state rise above 4,800 ft (1,500 m). Snowshoe Mountain at Thorny Flat 4,848 ft (1,478 m) and Bald Knob 4,842 ft (1,476 m) are among the more notable peaks in West Virginia.
Where do the Blue Ridge Mountains begin?
5729a106af94a219006aa58f
southern Pennsylvania
36
False
What are the typical elevations of the Blue Ridge Mountains?
5729a106af94a219006aa590
2,000 ft
120
False
How tall is Quirauk Mountain?
5729a106af94a219006aa591
2,145 ft
258
False
How tall are the Blue Ridge Mountains in Virginia?
5729a106af94a219006aa592
2,000 ft
383
False
What is the tallest Appalachian mountain in Virginia?
5729a106af94a219006aa593
Mount Rogers
812
False
Quirauk Mountain
241
What mountain is just above the Mason-Dixon line?
5ace21e832bba1001ae49b6f
True
Maryland
229
What state is the Potomac River in?
5ace21e832bba1001ae49b70
True
Apple Orchard Mountain
581
What is the highest peak south of the Roanoke River?
5ace21e832bba1001ae49b71
True
Whitetop Mountain
771
What is the lowest point in the commonwealth?
5ace21e832bba1001ae49b72
True
Quirauk Mountain
241
What is the highest mountain in Pennsylvania?
5ace21e832bba1001ae49b73
True
The Blue Ridge Mountains, rising in southern Pennsylvania and there known as South Mountain, attain elevations of about 2,000 ft (600 m) in that state. South Mountain achieves its highest point just below the Mason-Dixon line in Maryland at Quirauk Mountain 2,145 ft (654 m) and then diminishes in height southward to the Potomac River. Once in Virginia the Blue Ridge again reaches 2,000 ft (600 m) and higher. In the Virginia Blue Ridge, the following are some of the highest peaks north of the Roanoke River: Stony Man 4,031 ft (1,229 m), Hawksbill Mountain 4,066 ft (1,239 m), Apple Orchard Mountain 4,225 ft (1,288 m) and Peaks of Otter 4,001 and 3,875 ft (1,220 and 1,181 m). South of the Roanoke River, along the Blue Ridge, are Virginia's highest peaks including Whitetop Mountain 5,520 ft (1,680 m) and Mount Rogers 5,729 ft (1,746 m), the highest point in the Commonwealth.
Where did the mountains lay before the French and Indian War?
5729a1aaaf94a219006aa5a3
on the indeterminate boundary between Britain's colonies along the Atlantic and French areas centered in the Mississippi basin
65
False
What happened after the French and Indian War?
5729a1aaaf94a219006aa5a4
the Proclamation of 1763 restricted settlement for Great Britain's thirteen original colonies in North America to east of the summit line of the mountains
226
False
What was the general opinion of the law?
5729a1aaaf94a219006aa5a5
it was strongly resented by backcountry settlers throughout the Appalachians
582
False
What did the law likely lead to?
5729a1aaaf94a219006aa5a6
the American Revolutionary War
732
False
What did the backcountry settlers want to secure?
5729a1aaaf94a219006aa5a7
their settlement of Kentucky
1059
False
1763
246
When did the French and Indian war begin?
5ace62b632bba1001ae4a503
True
backcountry settlers
610
Who were the staunchest supporters of the Proclamation?
5ace62b632bba1001ae4a504
True
the Proclamation of 1763
226
What law did the Revolutionary War lead to?
5ace62b632bba1001ae4a505
True
Kentucky
1079
Where was George Rogers Clark from?
5ace62b632bba1001ae4a506
True
George Rogers Clark
1014
Who was the British King?
5ace62b632bba1001ae4a507
True
Before the French and Indian War, the Appalachian Mountains laid on the indeterminate boundary between Britain's colonies along the Atlantic and French areas centered in the Mississippi basin. After the French and Indian War, the Proclamation of 1763 restricted settlement for Great Britain's thirteen original colonies in North America to east of the summit line of the mountains (except in the northern regions where the Great Lakes formed the boundary). Although the line was adjusted several times to take frontier settlements into account and was impossible to enforce as law, it was strongly resented by backcountry settlers throughout the Appalachians. The Proclamation Line can be seen as one of the grievances which led to the American Revolutionary War. Many frontier settlers held that the defeat of the French opened the land west of the mountains to English settlement, only to find settlement barred by the British King's proclamation. The backcountry settlers who fought in the Illinois campaign of George Rogers Clark were motivated to secure their settlement of Kentucky.
Where did a lot of Germans settle?
5729a2163f37b31900478525
between the Susquehanna and Delaware Rivers
212
False
What dialect was created because of this?
5729a2163f37b31900478526
Pennsylvania German language
376
False
Where did these Germans eventually occupy?
5729a2163f37b31900478527
all of the Shenandoah Valley
632
False
Great Valley
57
What is another name for eastern Pennsylvania?
5ace60e032bba1001ae4a4af
True
Pennsylvania German language
376
What language was created in Shenandoah Valley?
5ace60e032bba1001ae4a4b0
True
Germans and Moravians
177
Who settled at the beginning of South Mountain?
5ace60e032bba1001ae4a4b1
True
Iroquois
675
Who did the English cede Shenandoah Valley to?
5ace60e032bba1001ae4a4b2
True
the upper reaches of the Great Valley tributaries of the Tennessee River
689
What area did the Cherokee reclaim?
5ace60e032bba1001ae4a4b3
True
In eastern Pennsylvania the Great Appalachian Valley, or Great Valley, was accessible by reason of a broad gateway between the end of South Mountain and the Highlands, and many Germans and Moravians settled here between the Susquehanna and Delaware Rivers forming the Pennsylvania Dutch community, some of whom even now speak a unique American dialect of German known as the "Pennsylvania German language" or "Pennsylvania Dutch." These latecomers to the New World were forced to the frontier to find cheap land. With their followers of both German, English and Scots-Irish origin, they worked their way southward and soon occupied all of the Shenandoah Valley, ceded by the Iroquois, and the upper reaches of the Great Valley tributaries of the Tennessee River, ceded by the Cherokee.
What is one typical bird found in the range?
5729a24c1d0469140077959b
wild turkey
39
False
Passeriformes
459
What is the scientific name for warblers?
5ace3ad732bba1001ae49f83
True
warblers
484
What type of songbird is rarely found in the forests?
5ace3ad732bba1001ae49f84
True
wood duck
181
What type of duck is rarely found in the forests?
5ace3ad732bba1001ae49f85
True
Corvus corax
166
What is the scientific name of the wild raven?
5ace3ad732bba1001ae49f86
True
Characteristic birds of the forest are wild turkey (Meleagris gallopavo silvestris), ruffed grouse (Bonasa umbellus), mourning dove (Zenaida macroura), common raven (Corvus corax), wood duck (Aix sponsa), great horned owl (Bubo virginianus), barred owl (Strix varia), screech owl (Megascops asio), red-tailed hawk (Buteo jamaicensis), red-shouldered hawk (Buteo lineatus), and northern goshawk (Accipiter gentilis), as well as a great variety of "songbirds" (Passeriformes), like the warblers in particular.
How many species of tree squirrel are commonly found in the range?
5729a2d53f37b31900478535
five species
58
False
What is the most commonly seen species?
5729a2d53f37b31900478536
gray squirrel
154
False
What does the squirrel share its habitat with?
5729a2d53f37b31900478537
larger fox squirrel
234
False
What is found more in the northern portions?
5729a2d53f37b31900478538
red squirrel
409
False
Which species is commonly found more in spruce-fir forests?
5729a2d53f37b31900478539
Appalachian northern flying squirrel
461
False
five
58
How many species of animals are in the Appalachian forests?
5ace39de32bba1001ae49f3d
True
gray squirrel
154
What is the northern flying squirrel smaller than?
5ace39de32bba1001ae49f3e
True
southern flying squirrel
291
What is the least commonly seen squirrel in moderate elevation?
5ace39de32bba1001ae49f3f
True
northern hardwood and spruce-fir forests
596
What trees are the red squirrel confined to?
5ace39de32bba1001ae49f40
True
the red squirrel
405
What is the most commonly seen squirrel in higher elevations?
5ace39de32bba1001ae49f41
True
Animals that characterize the Appalachian forests include five species of tree squirrels. The most commonly seen is the low to moderate elevation eastern gray squirrel (Sciurus carolinensis). Occupying similar habitat is the slightly larger fox squirrel (Sciurus niger) and the much smaller southern flying squirrel (Glaucomys volans). More characteristic of cooler northern and high elevation habitat is the red squirrel (Tamiasciurus hudsonicus), whereas the Appalachian northern flying squirrel (Glaucomys sabrinus fuscus), which closely resembles the southern flying squirrel, is confined to northern hardwood and spruce-fir forests.
What trees are typically found in the dryer portions?
5729a33c6aef051400155062
oak
53
False
What species of tree was pretty much eliminated?
5729a33c6aef051400155063
The American chestnut
212
False
What does the tree live on?
5729a33c6aef051400155064
sapling-sized sprouts
365
False
What trees replaced chestnut trees?
5729a33c6aef051400155065
oaks
519
False
the American chestnut
170
What species has had a comeback in the uplands?
5ace343132bba1001ae49e1d
True
fungal chestnut blight (Cryphonectaria parasitica)
297
What were hickories nearly exterminated by?
5ace343132bba1001ae49e1e
True
oaks
519
What type of tree are chestnuts replacing?
5ace343132bba1001ae49e1f
True
sapling-sized sprouts
365
What form of Chestnut is attacked most viciously by the fungus?
5ace343132bba1001ae49e20
True
roots
407
Where does the fungus originate from?
5ace343132bba1001ae49e21
True
Dryer and rockier uplands and ridges are occupied by oak-chestnut type forests dominated by a variety of oaks (Quercus spp.), hickories (Carya spp.) and, in the past, by the American chestnut (Castanea dentata). The American chestnut was virtually eliminated as a canopy species by the introduced fungal chestnut blight (Cryphonectaria parasitica), but lives on as sapling-sized sprouts that originate from roots, which are not killed by the fungus. In present-day forest canopies chestnut has been largely replaced by oaks.
What kind of oaks are in the central and southern portions?
5729a3881d0469140077959d
black, northern red, white, chestnut and scarlet oaks
76
False
What other tree is common there?
5729a3881d0469140077959e
hickories
199
False
What trees are located in drier portions?
5729a3881d0469140077959f
chestnut oak
434
False
pignut
222
What is the dominate type of oak in the Appalachians?
5ace34c732bba1001ae49e31
True
black, northern red, white, chestnut and scarlet
76
What are the five primary types of hickories?
5ace34c732bba1001ae49e32
True
The richest forests
259
Where do black oaks primarily thrive?
5ace34c732bba1001ae49e33
True
white and northern red
544
Which two types of oak are rarest in the northern Appalachians?
5ace34c732bba1001ae49e34
True
northern red
554
Which form of oak is found furthest south?
5ace34c732bba1001ae49e35
True
The oak forests of the southern and central Appalachians consist largely of black, northern red, white, chestnut and scarlet oaks (Quercus velutina, Q. rubra, Q. alba, Q. prinus and Q. coccinea) and hickories, such as the pignut (Carya glabra) in particular. The richest forests, which grade into mesic types, usually in coves and on gentle slopes, have dominantly white and northern red oaks, while the driest sites are dominated by chestnut oak, or sometimes by scarlet or northern red oaks. In the northern Appalachians the oaks, except for white and northern red, drop out, while the latter extends farthest north.
the Western or Unaka Front along the Tennessee-North Carolina border and the Eastern Front in North Carolina
90
What are the names of the two chief summits?
5ace288432bba1001ae49c05
True
the Unaka Range, the Bald Mountains, the Great Smoky Mountains, and the Unicoi Mountains
688
What is the Unaka front divided into?
5ace288432bba1001ae49c06
True
the Eastern Front
163
What front is located in northern Georgia?
5ace288432bba1001ae49c07
True
numerous
1287
How many peaks in northern Georgia exceed 1,200 ft?
5ace288432bba1001ae49c08
True
Chief summits in the southern section of the Blue Ridge are located along two main crests—the Western or Unaka Front along the Tennessee-North Carolina border and the Eastern Front in North Carolina—or one of several "cross ridges" between the two main crests. Major subranges of the Eastern Front include the Black Mountains, Great Craggy Mountains, and Great Balsam Mountains, and its chief summits include Grandfather Mountain 5,964 ft (1,818 m) near the Tennessee-North Carolina border, Mount Mitchell 6,684 ft (2,037 m) in the Blacks, and Black Balsam Knob 6,214 ft (1,894 m) and Cold Mountain 6,030 ft (1,840 m) in the Great Balsams. The Western Blue Ridge Front is subdivided into the Unaka Range, the Bald Mountains, the Great Smoky Mountains, and the Unicoi Mountains, and its major peaks include Roan Mountain 6,285 ft (1,916 m) in the Unakas, Big Bald 5,516 ft (1,681 m) and Max Patch 4,616 ft (1,407 m) in the Bald Mountains, Clingmans Dome 6,643 ft (2,025 m), Mount Le Conte 6,593 feet (2,010 m), and Mount Guyot 6,621 ft (2,018 m) in the Great Smokies, and Big Frog Mountain 4,224 ft (1,287 m) near the Tennessee-Georgia-North Carolina border. Prominent summits in the cross ridges include Waterrock Knob (6,292 ft (1,918 m)) in the Plott Balsams. Across northern Georgia, numerous peaks exceed 4,000 ft (1,200 m), including Brasstown Bald, the state's highest, at 4,784 ft (1,458 m) and 4,696 ft (1,431 m) Rabun Bald.
New River
334
What is the name of the drainage divide?
5ace296732bba1001ae49c35
True
the rivers, rising in or just beyond the Valley Ridges
760
What is north of the Potomac River?
5ace296732bba1001ae49c36
True
the Great Appalachian Valley
117
What geological feature causes the main rivers t orun transverse?
5ace296732bba1001ae49c37
True
Mississippi
659
What state is the James River located in?
5ace296732bba1001ae49c38
True
There are many geological issues concerning the rivers and streams of the Appalachians. In spite of the existence of the Great Appalachian Valley, many of the main rivers are transverse to the mountain system axis. The drainage divide of the Appalachians follows a tortuous course which crosses the mountainous belt just north of the New River in Virginia. South of the New River, rivers head into the Blue Ridge, cross the higher Unakas, receive important tributaries from the Great Valley, and traversing the Cumberland Plateau in spreading gorges (water gaps), escape by way of the Cumberland River and the Tennessee River rivers to the Ohio River and the Mississippi River, and thence to the Gulf of Mexico. In the central section, north of the New River, the rivers, rising in or just beyond the Valley Ridges, flow through great gorges to the Great Valley, and then across the Blue Ridge to tidal estuaries penetrating the coastal plain via the Roanoke River, James River, Potomac River, and Susquehanna River.
marine sedimentary rocks, volcanic rocks
110
What types of rocks were unharmed during plate collision?
5ace2a2632bba1001ae49c3d
True
480 Ma
315
When was Pangaea?
5ace2a2632bba1001ae49c3e
True
Central Pangean Mountains
661
What is another name for the Appalachians?
5ace2a2632bba1001ae49c3f
True
Little Atlas
602
What is the name of the mountain range now located in Scotland?
5ace2a2632bba1001ae49c40
True
Morocco
618
What country were the Appalachians originally located in?
5ace2a2632bba1001ae49c41
True
A look at rocks exposed in today's Appalachian mountains reveals elongated belts of folded and thrust faulted marine sedimentary rocks, volcanic rocks and slivers of ancient ocean floor, which provides strong evidence that these rocks were deformed during plate collision. The birth of the Appalachian ranges, some 480 Ma, marks the first of several mountain-building plate collisions that culminated in the construction of the supercontinent Pangaea with the Appalachians near the center. Because North America and Africa were connected, the Appalachians formed part of the same mountain chain as the Little Atlas in Morocco. This mountain range, known as the Central Pangean Mountains, extended into Scotland, from the North America/Europe collision (See Caledonian orogeny).
During the middle Ordovician Period
0
When did the Appalachian passive margin become quiet?
5ace2b0432bba1001ae49c5b
True
a neighboring oceanic plate
267
What did Appalachian collide with and sink under?
5ace2b0432bba1001ae49c5c
True
The Taconic Orogeny
765
What was the name of the first collision of North America and Appalachia?
5ace2b0432bba1001ae49c5d
True
Appalachian
971
What was the name of the Orogeny before Taconic?
5ace2b0432bba1001ae49c5e
True
Iapetus
300
What was the name of the volcanoes?
5ace2b0432bba1001ae49c5f
True
During the middle Ordovician Period (about 496-440 Ma), a change in plate motions set the stage for the first Paleozoic mountain-building event (Taconic orogeny) in North America. The once-quiet Appalachian passive margin changed to a very active plate boundary when a neighboring oceanic plate, the Iapetus, collided with and began sinking beneath the North American craton. With the birth of this new subduction zone, the early Appalachians were born. Along the continental margin, volcanoes grew, coincident with the initiation of subduction. Thrust faulting uplifted and warped older sedimentary rock laid down on the passive margin. As mountains rose, erosion began to wear them down. Streams carried rock debris down slope to be deposited in nearby lowlands. The Taconic Orogeny was just the first of a series of mountain building plate collisions that contributed to the formation of the Appalachians, culminating in the collision of North America and Africa (see Appalachian orogeny).
the Mesozoic era
14
During what era did the Appalachian Mountains begin to erode?
5ace2d5632bba1001ae49cbb
True
the distinctive topography
169
What did erosion create in the Cenozoic era?
5ace2d5632bba1001ae49cbc
True
Uplift
219
What rejuvenated the bedrock?
5ace2d5632bba1001ae49cbd
True
streams
326
What defined the folds and faults?
5ace2d5632bba1001ae49cbe
True
millions of years
405
How long did it take to carve canyons?
5ace2d5632bba1001ae49cbf
True
By the end of the Mesozoic era, the Appalachian Mountains had been eroded to an almost flat plain. It was not until the region was uplifted during the Cenozoic Era that the distinctive topography of the present formed. Uplift rejuvenated the streams, which rapidly responded by cutting downward into the ancient bedrock. Some streams flowed along weak layers that define the folds and faults created many millions of years earlier. Other streams downcut so rapidly that they cut right across the resistant folded rocks of the mountain core, carving canyons across rock layers and geologic structures.
bituminous
79
What is another name for anthracite coal?
5ace2e0732bba1001ae49ce5
True
The mountain top removal method
416
What helps to preserve ecosystems in the Appalachians?
5ace2e0732bba1001ae49ce6
True
bituminous coal
234
What kinds of fields are in southwestern Kentucky?
5ace2e0732bba1001ae49ce7
True
southeastern
300
Which part of Ohio has the metamorphosed form of coal?
5ace2e0732bba1001ae49ce8
True
The Appalachian Mountains contain major deposits of anthracite coal as well as bituminous coal. In the folded mountains the coal is in metamorphosed form as anthracite, represented by the Coal Region of northeastern Pennsylvania. The bituminous coal fields of western Pennsylvania, western Maryland, southeastern Ohio, eastern Kentucky, southwestern Virginia, and West Virginia contain the sedimentary form of coal. The mountain top removal method of coal mining, in which entire mountain tops are removed, is currently threatening vast areas and ecosystems of the Appalachian Mountain region.
3,000 ft (900 m)
415
What is the asl height of the red spruce in the cold valleys?
5ace2fda32bba1001ae49d35
True
4,000 ft (1,200 m) above sea level
124
How high does the black spruce grow?
5ace2fda32bba1001ae49d36
True
in bogs
750
Where does the red spruce grow in Pennsylvania?
5ace2fda32bba1001ae49d37
True
Pennsylvania
774
How far south can red spruces be found?
5ace2fda32bba1001ae49d38
True
southeastern
193
Which part of Canada are black spruces found in?
5ace2fda32bba1001ae49d39
True
The dominant northern and high elevation conifer is the red spruce (Picea rubens), which grows from near sea level to above 4,000 ft (1,200 m) above sea level (asl) in northern New England and southeastern Canada. It also grows southward along the Appalachian crest to the highest elevations of the southern Appalachians, as in North Carolina and Tennessee. In the central Appalachians it is usually confined above 3,000 ft (900 m) asl, except for a few cold valleys in which it reaches lower elevations. In the southern Appalachians it is restricted to higher elevations. Another species is the black spruce (Picea mariana), which extends farthest north of any conifer in North America, is found at high elevations in the northern Appalachians, and in bogs as far south as Pennsylvania.
two
34
How many species of oaks are found in the Appalachians?
5ace308632bba1001ae49d47
True
Fraser fir
356
What type of tree is found most often below 5,500 ft?
5ace308632bba1001ae49d48
True
Abies fraseri
147
What is the scientific name of the oak tree?
5ace308632bba1001ae49d49
True
3,900 ft (1,200 m)
688
What is the lowest asl oaks are usually found at?
5ace308632bba1001ae49d4a
True
Virginia
777
In what state are Fraser firs associated with oaks?
5ace308632bba1001ae49d4b
True
The Appalachians are also home to two species of fir, the boreal balsam fir (Abies balsamea), and the southern high elevation endemic, Fraser fir (Abies fraseri). Fraser fir is confined to the highest parts of the southern Appalachian Mountains, where along with red spruce it forms a fragile ecosystem known as the Southern Appalachian spruce-fir forest. Fraser fir rarely occurs below 5,500 ft (1,700 m), and becomes the dominant tree type at 6,200 ft (1,900 m). By contrast, balsam fir is found from near sea level to the tree line in the northern Appalachians, but ranges only as far south as Virginia and West Virginia in the central Appalachians, where it is usually confined above 3,900 ft (1,200 m) asl, except in cold valleys. Curiously, it is associated with oaks in Virginia. The balsam fir of Virginia and West Virginia is thought by some to be a natural hybrid between the more northern variety and Fraser fir. While red spruce is common in both upland and bog habitats, balsam fir, as well as black spruce and tamarack, are more characteristic of the latter. However balsam fir also does well in soils with a pH as high as 6.
the hemlock woolly adelgid (Adelges tsugae)
407
What insect is extirpating spruces?
5ace315b32bba1001ae49d6b
True
richer and less acidic
244
Carolina hemlock requires what kind of soil compared to firs?
5ace315b32bba1001ae49d6c
True
red spruce and the firs
197
What kinds of trees are at a lower elevation than Canada hemlocks?
5ace315b32bba1001ae49d6d
True
deep, shaded and moist mountain valleys and coves
323
Where are Carolina Hemlocks traditionally found?
5ace315b32bba1001ae49d6e
True
Carolina hemlock
586
What tree contrasted with the Canada hemlock is not affected by the adelgid?
5ace315b32bba1001ae49d6f
True
Eastern or Canada hemlock (Tsuga canadensis) is another important evergreen needle-leaf conifer that grows along the Appalachian chain from north to south, but is confined to lower elevations than red spruce and the firs. It generally occupies richer and less acidic soils than the spruce and firs and is characteristic of deep, shaded and moist mountain valleys and coves. It is, unfortunately, subject to the hemlock woolly adelgid (Adelges tsugae), an introduced insect, that is rapidly extirpating it as a forest tree. Less abundant, and restricted to the southern Appalachians, is Carolina hemlock (Tsuga caroliniana). Like Canada hemlock, this tree suffers severely from the hemlock woolly adelgid.
boreal
267
What type of species is the pitch pine?
5ace321932bba1001ae49d91
True
white pine
382
What is the only species that occupies sandy sites?
5ace321932bba1001ae49d92
True
timber
520
What is red pine valued for?
5ace321932bba1001ae49d93
True
Table Mountain
660
What other species besides the white pine enjoys moist soil?
5ace321932bba1001ae49d94
True
shady coves, valleys, and on floodplains
935
What types of habitat are difficult for the white pine to do well in?
5ace321932bba1001ae49d95
True
Several species of pines characteristic of the Appalachians are eastern white pine (Pinus strobus ), Virginia pine (Pinus virginiana), pitch pine (Pinus rigida ), Table Mountain pine (Pinus pungens) and shortleaf pine (Pinus echinata). Red pine (Pinus resinosa) is a boreal species that forms a few high elevation outliers as far south as West Virginia. All of these species except white pine tend to occupy sandy, rocky, poor soil sites, which are mostly acidic in character. White pine, a large species valued for its timber, tends to do best in rich, moist soil, either acidic or alkaline in character. Pitch pine is also at home in acidic, boggy soil, and Table Mountain pine may occasionally be found in this habitat as well. Shortleaf pine is generally found in warmer habitats and at lower elevations than the other species. All the species listed do best in open or lightly shaded habitats, although white pine also thrives in shady coves, valleys, and on floodplains.
deciduous broadleaf (hardwood) trees
67
What type of trees are lacking in the appalachian?
5ace32b832bba1001ae49db7
True
New York
245
Where was E. Lucy Braun from?
5ace32b832bba1001ae49db8
True
1950
176
When were the hardwood trees discovered?
5ace32b832bba1001ae49db9
True
southern and central Appalachians
407
Where are the perennial herbs primarily located?
5ace32b832bba1001ae49dba
True
The Appalachians are characterized by a wealth of large, beautiful deciduous broadleaf (hardwood) trees. Their occurrences are best summarized and described in E. Lucy Braun's 1950 classic, Deciduous Forests of Eastern North America (Macmillan, New York). The most diverse and richest forests are the mixed mesophytic or medium moisture types, which are largely confined to rich, moist montane soils of the southern and central Appalachians, particularly in the Cumberland and Allegheny Mountains, but also thrive in the southern Appalachian coves. Characteristic canopy species are white basswood (Tilia heterophylla), yellow buckeye (Aesculus octandra), sugar maple (Acer saccharum), American beech (Fagus grandifolia), tuliptree (Liriodendron tulipifera), white ash (Fraxinus americana ) and yellow birch (Betula alleganiensis). Other common trees are red maple (Acer rubrum), shagbark and bitternut hickories (Carya ovata and C. cordiformis) and black or sweet birch (Betula lenta ). Small understory trees and shrubs include flowering dogwood (Cornus florida), hophornbeam (Ostrya virginiana), witch-hazel (Hamamelis virginiana) and spicebush (Lindera benzoin). There are also hundreds of perennial and annual herbs, among them such herbal and medicinal plants as American ginseng (Panax quinquefolius), goldenseal (Hydrastis canadensis), bloodroot (Sanguinaria canadensis) and black cohosh (Cimicifuga racemosa).
shrubs and herbs
21
What are examples of foregoing trees?
5ace339232bba1001ae49de5
True
northern Appalachians and at higher elevations of the central and southern Appalachians
251
Where are the northern hardwoods the most diverse?
5ace339232bba1001ae49de6
True
Tilia americana
493
What is the scientific name for the American beech?
5ace339232bba1001ae49de7
True
southern and central Appalachians
174
Which part of the appalachians have a significant number of shrubs at high elevations?
5ace339232bba1001ae49de8
True
The foregoing trees
0
What are found more frequently in the rich mesic forests?
5ace339232bba1001ae49de9
True
The foregoing trees, shrubs and herbs are also more widely distributed in less rich mesic forests that generally occupy coves, stream valleys and flood plains throughout the southern and central Appalachians at low and intermediate elevations. In the northern Appalachians and at higher elevations of the central and southern Appalachians these diverse mesic forests give way to less diverse "northern hardwoods" with canopies dominated only by American beech, sugar maple, American basswood (Tilia americana) and yellow birch and with far fewer species of shrubs and herbs.
small tree, shrub and herb
43
What type of layers do oak forests have plenty of?
5ace35c332bba1001ae49e61
True
acidic
576
What type of soils do most mesic forests have?
5ace35c332bba1001ae49e62
True
limestone
735
What type of rock do rhododendrons grow near?
5ace35c332bba1001ae49e63
True
great rhododendron
441
What is rarely found near moist areas?
5ace35c332bba1001ae49e64
True
Kalmia latifolia
171
What is the name of the shrub associated with the chinquapin oak?
5ace35c332bba1001ae49e65
True
The oak forests generally lack the diverse small tree, shrub and herb layers of mesic forests. Shrubs are generally ericaceous, and include the evergreen mountain laurel (Kalmia latifolia), various species of blueberries (Vaccinium spp.), black huckleberry (Gaylussacia baccata), a number of deciduous rhododendrons (azaleas), and smaller heaths such as teaberry (Gaultheria procumbens) and trailing arbutus (Epigaea repens ). The evergreen great rhododendron (Rhododendron maximum) is characteristic of moist stream valleys. These occurrences are in line with the prevailing acidic character of most oak forest soils. In contrast, the much rarer chinquapin oak (Quercus muehlenbergii) demands alkaline soils and generally grows where limestone rock is near the surface. Hence no ericaceous shrubs are associated with it.
gypsy moth
144
What is worse than the hemlock woolly adelgid?
5ace368a32bba1001ae49e97
True
hardwoods
437
What type of sprouts have a hard time growing?
5ace368a32bba1001ae49e98
True
hemlock woolly adelgid
501
What is considered more serious than beech bark disease complex?
5ace368a32bba1001ae49e99
True
Lymantria dispar
156
What is the scientific name for the adelgid?
5ace368a32bba1001ae49e9a
True
genetic stock
336
What does the hemlock woolly adelgid help improve?
5ace368a32bba1001ae49e9b
True
Eastern deciduous forests are subject to a number of serious insect and disease outbreaks. Among the most conspicuous is that of the introduced gypsy moth (Lymantria dispar), which infests primarily oaks, causing severe defoliation and tree mortality. But it also has the benefit of eliminating weak individuals, and thus improving the genetic stock, as well as creating rich habitat of a type through accumulation of dead wood. Because hardwoods sprout so readily, this moth is not as harmful as the hemlock woolly adelgid. Perhaps more serious is the introduced beech bark disease complex, which includes both a scale insect (Cryptococcus fagisuga) and fungal components.
the extirpation of the eastern wolf
210
Why has the rabbit increased in numbers as of late?
5ace3a7232bba1001ae49f6f
True
Canis lupus lycaon
247
What is the scientific name for the North American cougar?
5ace3a7232bba1001ae49f70
True
agricultural
412
What kind of crops was the eastern wolf responsible for destroying?
5ace3a7232bba1001ae49f71
True
only in the north
483
Where is the elk found?
5ace3a7232bba1001ae49f72
True
the Chic-Chocs
672
What has the only population of snowshoe hares south of the St. Lawrence River?
5ace3a7232bba1001ae49f73
True
As familiar as squirrels are the eastern cottontail rabbit (Silvilagus floridanus) and the white-tailed deer (Odocoileus virginianus). The latter in particular has greatly increased in abundance as a result of the extirpation of the eastern wolf (Canis lupus lycaon) and the North American cougar. This has led to the overgrazing and browsing of many plants of the Appalachian forests, as well as destruction of agricultural crops. Other deer include the moose (Alces alces ), found only in the north, and the elk (Cervus canadensis), which, although once extirpated, is now making a comeback, through transplantation, in the southern and central Appalachians. In Quebec, the Chic-Chocs host the only population of caribou (Rangifer tarandus) south of the St. Lawrence River. An additional species that is common in the north but extends its range southward at high elevations to Virginia and West Virginia is the varying or snowshoe hare (Lepus americanus). However, these central Appalachian populations are scattered and very small.
eastern or red-spotted newt
241
What is the name of the most commonly seen salamander?
5ace3b7d32bba1001ae49faf
True
animal biomass
447
What are the frogs and toads the largest class of?
5ace3b7d32bba1001ae49fb0
True
Salamanders and other amphibians
769
What tends to detract from the nutrient cycle of the forest?
5ace3b7d32bba1001ae49fb1
True
small life forms
870
What consumes the salamanders and amphibians?
5ace3b7d32bba1001ae49fb2
True
Family Plethodontidae
98
What are species of salamanders called as a group?
5ace3b7d32bba1001ae49fb3
True
Of great importance are the many species of salamanders and, in particular, the lungless species (Family Plethodontidae) that live in great abundance concealed by leaves and debris, on the forest floor. Most frequently seen, however, is the eastern or red-spotted newt (Notophthalmus viridescens), whose terrestrial eft form is often encountered on the open, dry forest floor. It has been estimated that salamanders represent the largest class of animal biomass in the Appalachian forests. Frogs and toads are of lesser diversity and abundance, but the wood frog (Rana sylvatica) is, like the eft, commonly encountered on the dry forest floor, while a number of species of small frogs, such as spring peepers (Pseudacris crucifer), enliven the forest with their calls. Salamanders and other amphibians contribute greatly to nutrient cycling through their consumption of small life forms on the forest floor and in aquatic habitats.
reptiles
9
What are found more often than amphibians?
5ace5d7632bba1001ae4a40d
True
black rat snake
161
What is the largest venomous snake in the Appalachians?
5ace5d7632bba1001ae4a40e
True
up to 13 in (33 cm) in
488
How large can the black rat snake grow?
5ace5d7632bba1001ae4a40f
True
eastern box turtle
656
Which kind of turtle is only found in the eastern Appalachians?
5ace5d7632bba1001ae4a410
True
Eumeces laticeps
466
What kind of snake is a good climber?
5ace5d7632bba1001ae4a411
True
Although reptiles are less abundant and diverse than amphibians, a number of snakes are conspicuous members of the fauna. One of the largest is the non-venomous black rat snake (Elaphe obsoleta obsoleta), while the common garter snake (Thamnophis sirtalis) is among the smallest but most abundant. The American copperhead (Agkistrodon contortrix) and the timber rattler (Crotalus horridus) are venomous pit vipers. There are few lizards, but the broad-headed skink (Eumeces laticeps), at up to 13 in (33 cm) in length, and an excellent climber and swimmer, is one of the largest and most spectacular in appearance and action. The most common turtle is the eastern box turtle (Terrapene carolina carolina), which is found in both upland and lowland forests in the central and southern Appalachians. Prominent among aquatic species is the large common snapping turtle (Chelydra serpentina), which occurs throughout the Appalachians.
British colonies
80
What prevented the Appalachian expansion?
5ace5f6c32bba1001ae4a45b
True
the Appalachians
15
What prevented the settlers from going to the coastal plains?
5ace5f6c32bba1001ae4a45c
True
Hudson and Mohawk
397
What were the names of the valleys that were impossible to pass?
5ace5f6c32bba1001ae4a45d
True
Native American tribes
792
Who had the Spanish colonies allied with?
5ace5f6c32bba1001ae4a45e
True
Iroquois, Creek, and Cherokee
668
What were the name of the French tribes?
5ace5f6c32bba1001ae4a45f
True
For a century, the Appalachians were a barrier to the westward expansion of the British colonies. The continuity of the mountain system, the bewildering multiplicity of its succeeding ridges, the tortuous courses and roughness of its transverse passes, a heavy forest, and dense undergrowth all conspired to hold the settlers on the seaward-sloping plateaus and coastal plains. Only by way of the Hudson and Mohawk Valleys, Cumberland Gap, the Wachesa Trail,[undue weight? – discuss] and round about the southern termination of the system were there easy routes to the interior of the country, and these were long closed by powerful Native American tribes such as the Iroquois, Creek, and Cherokee, among others. Expansion was also blocked by the alliances the British Empire had forged with Native American tribes, the proximity of the Spanish colonies in the south and French activity throughout the interior.
1755
3
When did French colonists breach Allegheny?
5ace620d32bba1001ae4a4e1
True
the English
87
Who did the French take the transmontane region from?
5ace620d32bba1001ae4a4e2
True
French and Indian
426
Who did the English ally with in the war?
5ace620d32bba1001ae4a4e3
True
shipping
1431
What were the American armies supported by?
5ace620d32bba1001ae4a4e4
True
Native Americans
1565
Who was America in league with in the Great Valley?
5ace620d32bba1001ae4a4e5
True
By 1755, the obstacle to westward expansion had been thus reduced by half; outposts of the English colonists had penetrated the Allegheny and Cumberland plateaus, threatening French monopoly in the transmontane region, and a conflict became inevitable. Making common cause against the French to determine the control of the Ohio valley, the unsuspected strength of the colonists was revealed, and the successful ending of the French and Indian War extended England's territory to the Mississippi. To this strength the geographic isolation enforced by the Appalachian mountains had been a prime contributor. The confinement of the colonies between an ocean and a mountain wall led to the fullest occupation of the coastal border of the continent, which was possible under existing conditions of agriculture, conducting to a community of purpose, a political and commercial solidarity, which would not otherwise have been developed. As early as 1700 it was possible to ride from Portland, Maine, to southern Virginia, sleeping each night at some considerable village. In contrast to this complete industrial occupation, the French territory was held by a small and very scattered population, its extent and openness adding materially to the difficulties of a disputed tenure. Bearing the brunt of this contest as they did, the colonies were undergoing preparation for the subsequent struggle with the home government. Unsupported by shipping, the American armies fought toward the sea with the mountains at their back protecting them against British leagued with the Native Americans. The few settlements beyond the Great Valley were free for self-defense, debarred from general participation in the conflict by reason of their position.
IBM
In what year did the company that was to become IBM form?
5729b3f46aef05140015507e
1911
26
False
What was the name of the company that eventually became IBM?
5729b3f46aef05140015507f
Computing-Tabulating-Recording Company (CTR)
38
False
In what year did IBM get its name?
5729b3f46aef051400155080
1924
304
False
What nickname was given to IBM?
5729b3f46aef051400155081
Big Blue
453
False
What is one parent company of the Computing-Tabulating-Recording Company?
5729b3f46aef051400155082
Computing Scale Company
190
False
the Computing-Tabulating-Recording Company
34
What was the original name of the Bundy Manufacturing Company?
5a68d7368476ee001a58a7de
True
1911
26
In what year was the Bundy Manufacturing Company created?
5a68d7368476ee001a58a7df
True
Big Blue
453
What was the nickname that was used for the Bundy Manufacturing Company?
5a68d7368476ee001a58a7e0
True
Thomas J. Watson
323
Who first used the name Bundy Manufacturing Company?
5a68d7368476ee001a58a7e1
True
for a CTR Canadian subsidiary
351
Why did  Thomas J. Watson first use the name Bundy Maufacturing Company?
5a68d7368476ee001a58a7e2
True
The company originated in 1911 as the Computing-Tabulating-Recording Company (CTR) through the consolidation of The Tabulating Machine Company, the International Time Recording Company, the Computing Scale Company and the Bundy Manufacturing Company. CTR was renamed "International Business Machines" in 1924, a name which Thomas J. Watson first used for a CTR Canadian subsidiary. The initialism IBM followed. Securities analysts nicknamed the company Big Blue for its size and common use of the color in products, packaging and its logo.
How many employees did IBM have in 2012?
5729b53c1d046914007795c1
435,000 worldwide
90
False
What was the ranking in terms of market cap for IBM in 2012?
5729b53c1d046914007795c2
fourth largest
114
False
In 2011 Forbes, by revenue, ranked IBM at what rank globally?
5729b53c1d046914007795c3
31st largest
281
False
At what rank was IBM rated as a global brand by Interbrand?
5729b53c1d046914007795c4
№2
455
False
In 2012 Fortune ranked the largest US firms by number employees, what was IBMs rank?
5729b53c1d046914007795c5
second largest
32
False
435,000 worldwide
90
How many employees did Forbes have in 2012?
5a68da0f8476ee001a58a7e8
True
the second largest U.S. firm
28
How was Forbes ranked as far as number of employees in 2012?
5a68da0f8476ee001a58a7e9
True
the ninth most profitable
164
How profitable was Forbes considered in 2012?
5a68da0f8476ee001a58a7ea
True
the nineteenth largest firm in terms of revenue
195
What rank did Forbes have in terms of revenue in 2012?
5a68da0f8476ee001a58a7eb
True
the 31st largest
277
How was Forbes ranked globally for revenue in 2011?
5a68da0f8476ee001a58a7ec
True
In 2012, Fortune ranked IBM the second largest U.S. firm in terms of number of employees (435,000 worldwide), the fourth largest in terms of market capitalization, the ninth most profitable, and the nineteenth largest firm in terms of revenue. Globally, the company was ranked the 31st largest in terms of revenue by Forbes for 2011. Other rankings for 2011/2012 include №1 company for leaders (Fortune), №1 green company in the United States (Newsweek), №2 best global brand (Interbrand), №2 most respected company (Barron's), №5 most admired company (Fortune), and №18 most innovative company (Fast Company).
Under what name do research laboratories operated by IBM work under?
5729b65c6aef051400155088
IBM Research
57
False
How many research labs does IBM have world wide?
5729b65c6aef051400155089
12 research laboratories worldwide
8
False
In 2013 how many years had IBM generated the most patents by a business?
5729b65c6aef05140015508a
22 consecutive years
163
False
How many Nobel Prizes have been won by IBM employees?
5729b65c6aef05140015508b
five Nobel Prizes
213
False
This IBM invention is known by the acronym UPC, what is the full name?
5729b65c6aef05140015508c
Universal Product Code
502
False
12
8
How many labs work for the Watson company?
5a68dbd78476ee001a58a7f2
True
for 22 consecutive years
159
How long has Watson held the record for holding the most patents by a business?
5a68dbd78476ee001a58a7f3
True
five
213
How many Nobel Prizes has Watson been awarded?
5a68dbd78476ee001a58a7f4
True
the automated teller machine (ATM)
373
What is one invention made by the Watson company that is used by people everyday?
5a68dbd78476ee001a58a7f5
True
the Universal Product Code (UPC)
498
What code was developed by Watson that's used in grocery stores?
5a68dbd78476ee001a58a7f6
True
IBM has 12 research laboratories worldwide, bundled into IBM Research. As of 2013[update] the company held the record for most patents generated by a business for 22 consecutive years. Its employees have garnered five Nobel Prizes, six Turing Awards, ten National Medals of Technology and five National Medals of Science. Notable company inventions or developments include the automated teller machine (ATM), the floppy disk, the hard disk drive, the magnetic stripe card, the relational database, the Universal Product Code (UPC), the financial swap, the Fortran programming language, SABRE airline reservation system, dynamic random-access memory (DRAM), copper wiring in semiconductors, the silicon-on-insulator (SOI) semiconductor manufacturing process, and Watson artificial intelligence.
What was IBM's operating margin in 2004?
5729b7991d046914007795cb
16.8%
478
False
What were the net profit margins of IBM in 2004?
5729b7991d046914007795cc
9.0%
547
False
IBM's net profit margins were 16.5% in what year?
5729b7991d046914007795cd
2013
572
False
IBM's operating margin in 2013 was what?
5729b7991d046914007795ce
24.3%
495
False
IBM focusing on markets like business continuity, business intelligence, security, and cloud computing is an example of IBM doing what?
5729b7991d046914007795cf
exiting commoditizing markets
114
False
constantly evolved
8
What has happened to DRAM's since they were created?
5a68dee48476ee001a58a806
True
resulting in a higher quality revenue stream and higher profit margins
369
How did IBM's profitability get better when it got out of the data analytics market?
5a68dee48476ee001a58a807
True
16.8%
478
What was the average operating margin for hard disk drive producers in 2004?
5a68dee48476ee001a58a808
True
24.3%
495
What did the operating margin for hard disk drive producers expand to in 2013?
5a68dee48476ee001a58a809
True
9.0%
547
How much net profit did the average hard disk drive producer make in 2004?
5a68dee48476ee001a58a80a
True
IBM has constantly evolved since its inception. Over the past decade, it has steadily shifted its business mix by exiting commoditizing markets such as PCs, hard disk drives and DRAMs and focusing on higher-value, more profitable markets such as business intelligence, data analytics, business continuity, security, cloud computing, virtualization and green solutions, resulting in a higher quality revenue stream and higher profit margins. IBM's operating margin expanded from 16.8% in 2004 to 24.3% in 2013, and net profit margins expanded from 9.0% in 2004 to 16.5% in 2013.
In what year did IBM acquire Kenexa?
5729b86a3f37b3190047853f
2012
21
False
IBM made an acquisition in 2009, name it.
5729b86a3f37b31900478540
SPSS
31
False
IBM span off its printer manufacturer in 1991, what was its name?
5729b86a3f37b31900478541
Lexmark
130
False
IBM sold two product lines to Lenovo, name them.
5729b86a3f37b31900478542
personal computer and x86 server
185
False
What was the name of the company that IBM Micro Electronics was offloaded to?
5729b86a3f37b31900478543
GlobalFoundries
370
False
(2012)
20
In what year did Lexmark acquire Kenexa?
5a68e03e8476ee001a58a81a
True
Lexmark
130
What company was created by Kenexa in 2012 to manufacture printers?
5a68e03e8476ee001a58a81b
True
its personal computer and x86 server businesses
181
What product lines were produced by Kenexa in 2012?
5a68e03e8476ee001a58a81c
True
GlobalFoundries
370
What company did Kenexa sell Lexmark to?
5a68e03e8476ee001a58a81d
True
advanced technology
399
What manufacturing area was PwC a leader in?
5a68e03e8476ee001a58a81e
True
IBM acquired Kenexa (2012) and SPSS (2009) and PwC's consulting business (2002), spinning off companies like printer manufacturer Lexmark (1991), and selling off product lines like its personal computer and x86 server businesses to Lenovo (2005, 2014). In 2014, IBM announced that it would go "fabless" by offloading IBM Micro Electronics semiconductor manufacturing to GlobalFoundries, a leader in advanced technology manufacturing, citing that semiconductor manufacturing is a capital-intensive business which is challenging to operate without scale. This transition had progressed as of early 2015[update].
On what date did the companies that became the Computing-Tabulating-Recording Company get consolidated?
5729b9ce3f37b31900478549
June 16, 1911
3
False
Name the individual that consolidated the companies that were to become the Computing-Tabulating-Recording Company.
5729b9ce3f37b3190047854a
Charles Ranlett Flint
78
False
In what year did the companies owned by Computing-Tabulating-Recording Company finally integrate?
5729b9ce3f37b3190047854b
1933
326
False
Where was the CTR Business office?
5729b9ce3f37b3190047854c
Endicott
187
False
In 1933 the four companies owned by CTR had how many employees?
5729b9ce3f37b3190047854d
1,300 employees
390
False
Endicott
187
Where was Charles Ranlett Flint originally from?
5a68e1668476ee001a58a82e
True
June 16, 1911
3
In what year was Endicott created by Charles Ranlett Flint?
5a68e1668476ee001a58a82f
True
New York
60
In what state was Endicott consolidated into one company?
5a68e1668476ee001a58a830
True
1,300
390
How many employees worked at the holding company in 1911?
5a68e1668476ee001a58a831
True
Computing-Tabulating-Recording Company
112
What was the original name of the Endicott company?
5a68e1668476ee001a58a832
True
On June 16, 1911, their four companies were consolidated in New York State by Charles Ranlett Flint to form the Computing-Tabulating-Recording Company (CTR). CTR's business office was in Endicott. The individual companies owned by CTR continued to operate using their established names until the businesses were integrated in 1933 and the holding company eliminated. The four companies had 1,300 employees and offices and plants in Endicott and Binghamton, New York; Dayton, Ohio; Detroit, Michigan; Washington, D.C.; and Toronto. They manufactured machinery for sale and lease, ranging from commercial scales and industrial time recorders, meat and cheese slicers, to tabulators and punched cards.
In what year did Thomas J. Watson, Sr. join CTR?
5729baed1d046914007795d5
1914
118
False
Thomas J. Watson Sr. was fired from what company?
5729baed1d046914007795d6
National Cash Register Company
38
False
What was the favorite slogan of Thomas J. Watson Sr.?
5729baed1d046914007795d7
THINK
655
False
The revenues did what under the first 4 years of Watson being president?
5729baed1d046914007795d8
more than doubled to $9 million
752
False
The name International Business Machines was first used in what year?
5729baed1d046914007795d9
1917
1043
False
in 1914
115
In what year did CTR first use THINK as its slogan?
5a68e2c88476ee001a58a838
True
John Henry Patterson
72
Who did Thomas J. Watson, Sr fire from the CTR company?
5a68e2c88476ee001a58a839
True
1914
118
When did Patterson join the National Cash Register Company?
5a68e2c88476ee001a58a83a
True
revenues more than doubled to $9 million
743
What happened to the revenue of the National Cash Register Company when Patterson became president?
5a68e2c88476ee001a58a83b
True
generous sales incentives, a focus on customer service
436
What kind of benefits were given to employees of the National Cash Register Company?
5a68e2c88476ee001a58a83c
True
Thomas J. Watson, Sr., fired from the National Cash Register Company by John Henry Patterson, called on Flint and, in 1914, was offered CTR. Watson joined CTR as General Manager then, 11 months later, was made President when court cases relating to his time at NCR were resolved. Having learned Patterson's pioneering business practices, Watson proceeded to put the stamp of NCR onto CTR's companies. He implemented sales conventions, "generous sales incentives, a focus on customer service, an insistence on well-groomed, dark-suited salesmen and had an evangelical fervor for instilling company pride and loyalty in every worker". His favorite slogan, "THINK", became a mantra for each company's employees. During Watson's first four years, revenues more than doubled to $9 million and the company's operations expanded to Europe, South America, Asia and Australia. "Watson had never liked the clumsy hyphenated title of the CTR" and chose to replace it with the more expansive title "International Business Machines". First as a name for a 1917 Canadian subsidiary, then as a line in advertisements. For example, the McClures magazine, v53, May 1921, has a full page ad with, at the bottom:
What what was the name of the subsidiary working in Germany during World War 2?
5729bbbaaf94a219006aa5df
Dehomag
320
False
Records for how many people were maintained by IBM in 1937?
5729bbbaaf94a219006aa5e0
26 million
206
False
What service did IBM provide for the Nuremberg Trials?
5729bbbaaf94a219006aa5e1
translation services
474
False
What year did IBM open its first office in Bahrain?
5729bbbaaf94a219006aa5e2
1947
524
False
What was the eventual name of the company that IBM operated in Saudi Arabia?
5729bbbaaf94a219006aa5e3
Saudi Business Machines
690
False
unprecedented amounts of data
69
What did Bahrain's tabulating equipment help organizations process?
5a68e3fc8476ee001a58a842
True
26 million
206
How many people were employed by the Third Reich?
5a68e3fc8476ee001a58a843
True
M1 Carbine, and Browning Automatic Rifle
418
What two types of weapons were used by the Third Reich in 1937?
5a68e3fc8476ee001a58a844
True
1937
3
In what year did the Nuremburg Trials begin?
5a68e3fc8476ee001a58a845
True
1947
524
In what year did the German subsidiary Dehomag open for business?
5a68e3fc8476ee001a58a846
True
In 1937, IBM's tabulating equipment enabled organizations to process unprecedented amounts of data, its clients including the U.S. Government, during its first effort to maintain the employment records for 26 million people pursuant to the Social Security Act, and the Third Reich, largely through the German subsidiary Dehomag. During the Second World War the company produced small arms for the American war effort (M1 Carbine, and Browning Automatic Rifle). IBM provided translation services for the Nuremberg Trials. In 1947, IBM opened its first office in Bahrain, as well as an office in Saudi Arabia to service the needs of the Arabian-American Oil Company that would grow to become Saudi Business Machines (SBM).
Thomas Watson Sr. stepped down in what year?
5729bca26aef051400155092
1952
3
False
In 1956 the company demonstrated the first example of what?
5729bca26aef051400155093
artificial intelligence
200
False
What computer did Arthur L. Samuel program to play checkers in 1957?
5729bca26aef051400155094
an IBM 704
301
False
In 1957 the FORTRAN language was created, what is FORTRAN short for?
5729bca26aef051400155095
FORmula TRANslation
399
False
In 1961 who became the president of IBM?
5729bca26aef051400155096
Albert L. Williams
537
False
1952
3
In what year did Albert L. Williams step down from the company?
5a68e7c18476ee001a58a86a
True
an IBM 704
301
What did Albert L. Willaims program to learn from its experience when playing checkers?
5a68e7c18476ee001a58a86b
True
Selectric typewriter
744
What machine was created by FORTRAN in 1952?
5a68e7c18476ee001a58a86c
True
SABRE
614
What system was developed for FORTRAN in 1952 to help it play checkers?
5a68e7c18476ee001a58a86d
True
1956
138
In what year did IBM open its first office in Poughkeepsie?
5a68e7c18476ee001a58a86e
True
In 1952, Thomas Watson, Sr., stepped down after almost 40 years at the company helm; his son, Thomas Watson, Jr., was named president. In 1956, the company demonstrated the first practical example of artificial intelligence when Arthur L. Samuel of IBM's Poughkeepsie, New York, laboratory programmed an IBM 704 not merely to play checkers but "learn" from its own experience. In 1957, the FORTRAN (FORmula TRANslation) scientific programming language was developed. In 1961, Thomas J. Watson, Jr., was elected chairman of the board and Albert L. Williams became company president. The same year IBM developed the SABRE (Semi-Automatic Business-Related Environment) reservation system for American Airlines and introduced the highly successful Selectric typewriter.
One company that IBM acquired in 2002 is?
5729bdc2af94a219006aa5e9
PwC consulting
22
False
In 2003 IBM hosted an online discussion with how many employees?
5729bdc2af94a219006aa5ea
50,000 employees
206
False
What technology did IBM use for its 2003 internet-based discussion?
5729bdc2af94a219006aa5eb
Jam technology
107
False
What did IBM use to analyze the results from the online discussion?
5729bdc2af94a219006aa5ec
eClassifier
291
False
How many employees took part in the subsequent online discussion in 2004?
5729bdc2af94a219006aa5ed
52,000 employees
562
False
IBM
9
What company did PwC consulting acquire in 2003?
5a68e9148476ee001a58a874
True
a project
59
What did employees introduce to change company values?
5a68e9148476ee001a58a875
True
50,000
206
How many employees worked at PwC consulting in 2002?
5a68e9148476ee001a58a876
True
ways to implement company values in practice
590
What did employees discuss at the  second Jam event put on by PwC consulting in 2002?
5a68e9148476ee001a58a877
True
online
160
Where did the first discussion take place hosted by PwC consulting in 2002?
5a68e9148476ee001a58a878
True
In 2002, IBM acquired PwC consulting. In 2003 it initiated a project to redefine company values. Using its Jam technology, it hosted a three-day Internet-based online discussion of key business issues with 50,000 employees. Results were data mined with sophisticated text analysis software (eClassifier) for common themes. Three emerged, expressed as: "Dedication to every client's success", "Innovation that matters—for our company and for the world", and "Trust and personal responsibility in all relationships". Another three-day Jam took place in 2004, with 52,000 employees discussing ways to implement company values in practice.
IBM sold its personal computer business to what company?
5729c464af94a219006aa5f3
Lenovo
87
False
In what year did IBM sell its personal computer business?
5729c464af94a219006aa5f4
2005
3
False
What was the design for low cost data encryption named?
5729c464af94a219006aa5f5
Secure Blue
174
False
SPSS Inc. was acquired in what year?
5729c464af94a219006aa5f6
2009
278
False
This program was awarded the National Medal of Technology and Innovation.
5729c464af94a219006aa5f7
Blue Gene
343
False
Lenovo
87
Who did Micromuse sell its personal computer business to?
5a68ea8e8476ee001a58a888
True
2005
3
In what year did Micromuse sell its business to Lenovo?
5a68ea8e8476ee001a58a889
True
Secure Blue
174
What design did Micromuse launch that is low-cost and can be built into a microprocessor?
5a68ea8e8476ee001a58a88a
True
the National Medal of Technology and Innovation
388
What award was given to Micromuse in 2009 for its Blue Gene supercomputing program?
5a68ea8e8476ee001a58a88b
True
U.S. President Barack Obama
439
What president awarded Micromuse for the Blue Gene program?
5a68ea8e8476ee001a58a88c
True
In 2005, the company sold its personal computer business to Chinese technology company Lenovo, and in the same year it agreed to acquire Micromuse. A year later IBM launched Secure Blue, a low-cost hardware design for data encryption that can be built into a microprocessor. In 2009 it acquired software company SPSS Inc. Later in 2009, IBM's Blue Gene supercomputing program was awarded the National Medal of Technology and Innovation by U.S. President Barack Obama. In 2011, IBM gained worldwide attention for its artificial intelligence program Watson, which was exhibited on Jeopardy! where it won against game-show champions Ken Jennings and Brad Rutter. As of 2012[update], IBM had been the top annual recipient of U.S. patents for 20 consecutive years.
IBM acquired digital assets of this company on October 28, 2015.
5729c64daf94a219006aa607
The Weather Company
74
False
What will IBM use to analyze weather and make predictions?
5729c64daf94a219006aa608
Watson
371
False
When did the sale of Weather Company assets close?
5729c64daf94a219006aa609
January 29, 2016
581
False
The Weather Channel entered into what with IBM?
5729c64daf94a219006aa60a
long-term licensing agreement
502
False
Bain Capital is a holding company of which company?
5729c64daf94a219006aa60b
The Weather Company
74
False
digital assets
54
What did Bain Capital acquire from The Weather Company in 2015?
5a68ec628476ee001a58a892
True
weather analytics and predictions
382
What will Bain Capital seek to use Watson for in this acquisition?
5a68ec628476ee001a58a893
True
for use of its data
541
Why will The Weather Channel enter into a long-term agreement with NBCUniversal?
5a68ec628476ee001a58a894
True
January 29, 2016
581
When did the sale of The Blackstone Group assets close?
5a68ec628476ee001a58a895
True
October 28, 2015
3
When did Bain Capital become incorporated?
5a68ec628476ee001a58a896
True
On October 28, 2015, IBM announced its acquisition of digital assets from The Weather Company—a holding company of Bain Capital, The Blackstone Group and NBCUniversal which owns The Weather Channel, including its weather data platforms (such as Weather Services International), websites (Weather.com and Weather Underground) and mobile apps. The acquisition seeks to use Watson for weather analytics and predictions. The acquisition does not include The Weather Channel itself, which will enter into a long-term licensing agreement with IBM for use of its data. The sale closed on January 29, 2016
IBM has how many members on its Board of Directors?
5729c6f9af94a219006aa611
14
14
False
What board member resigned in November 2010?
5729c6f9af94a219006aa612
Cathie Black's
98
False
What year did William R. Brody join the IBM Board of Directors?
5729c6f9af94a219006aa613
'07
252
False
Kenneth Chenault is affiliated with what company?
5729c6f9af94a219006aa614
American Express
323
False
Who is the most recent member to join the IBM Board of Directors?
5729c6f9af94a219006aa615
Andrew N. Liveris
430
False
2010
137
In what year did Alain J. P. Belda resign?
5a68eda78476ee001a58a89c
True
14
14
How many corporate offices are there at IBM?
5a68eda78476ee001a58a89d
True
overall corporate management
62
What is Alain J. P. Belda's main responsibility as a board member?
5a68eda78476ee001a58a89e
True
Dow Chemical
453
What chemical company is Cathie Black affiliated with?
5a68eda78476ee001a58a89f
True
American Express
323
What credit card company is Doris Duke connected with?
5a68eda78476ee001a58a8a0
True
The company's 14 member Board of Directors is responsible for overall corporate management. As of Cathie Black's resignation in November 2010 its membership (by affiliation and year of joining) included: Alain J. P. Belda '08 (Alcoa), William R. Brody '07 (Salk Institute / Johns Hopkins University), Kenneth Chenault '98 (American Express), Michael L. Eskew '05 (UPS), Shirley Ann Jackson '05 (Rensselaer Polytechnic Institute), Andrew N. Liveris '10 (Dow Chemical), W. James McNerney, Jr. '09 (Boeing), James W. Owens '06 (Caterpillar), Samuel J. Palmisano '00 (IBM), Joan Spero '04 (Doris Duke Charitable Foundation), Sidney Taurel '01 (Eli Lilly), and Lorenzo Zambrano '03 (Cemex).
How large of a drop in sales did IBM report for fiscal year 2013?
5729c7dd3f37b31900478553
5% drop
137
False
What date did IBM announce that its executives would forgo bonuses for fiscal year 2013?
5729c7dd3f37b31900478554
January 21, 2014
3
False
IBM committed to an expansion totaling this dollar amount in 2014?
5729c7dd3f37b31900478555
$1.2bn
217
False
How many new data centers did IBM commit to building?
5729c7dd3f37b31900478556
15
315
False
Who is the chief executive of IBM?
5729c7dd3f37b31900478557
Virginia Rometty
413
False
reinvent
505
What did CE Virginia Rometty want to do with IBM's cloud storage business in 2014?
5a68f0288476ee001a58a8c4
True
$1.2bn
217
How much profit did the cloud storage business net in 2012?
5a68f0288476ee001a58a8c5
True
bonuses
70
What benefit was Rometty the only one willing to forego in 2012?
5a68f0288476ee001a58a8c6
True
cloud-storage
262
What is one type of storage that has been more popular with youger generations?
5a68f0288476ee001a58a8c7
True
ten
342
How many times did IBM have to reinvent itself in the past?
5a68f0288476ee001a58a8c8
True
On January 21, 2014 IBM announced that company executives would forgo bonuses for fiscal year 2013. The move came as the firm reported a 5% drop in sales and 1% decline in net profit over 2012. It also committed to a $1.2bn plus expansion of its data center and cloud-storage business, including the development of 15 new data centers. After ten successive quarters of flat or sliding sales under Chief Executive Virginia Rometty IBM is being forced to look at new approaches. Said Rometty, “We’ve got to reinvent ourselves like we’ve done in prior generations.”
What building did Van der Rohe create for IBM?
5729c937af94a219006aa61b
330 North Wabash building in Chicago
520
False
The 330 North Wabash building served as what post World War 2?
5729c937af94a219006aa61c
center of the company's research division
571
False
The 330 North Wabash Building was recognized with what award?
5729c937af94a219006aa61d
1990 Honor Award
656
False
IBM has towers in which cities?
5729c937af94a219006aa61e
Montreal, Paris, and Atlanta
51
False
IBM has worked with architects and designers such as Ludwig Mies van der Rohe, I.M. Pei, and Van der Rohe, name one  more.
5729c937af94a219006aa61f
Eero Saarinen
428
False
330 North Wabash building in Chicago
520
What building did Eero Saarinen create for IBM?
5a68f1788476ee001a58a8e2
True
center of the company's research division
571
What was the Somers Office Complex used for after WWII?
5a68f1788476ee001a58a8e3
True
the 1990 Honor Award
652
What award was given to recognize the Somers Office Complex?
5a68f1788476ee001a58a8e4
True
the National Building Museum
678
What group gave the award to the Somers Office Complex?
5a68f1788476ee001a58a8e5
True
Montreal, Paris, and Atlanta
51
In what three cities does Eero Saarinen also have his works on display?
5a68f1788476ee001a58a8e6
True
Other major campus installations include towers in Montreal, Paris, and Atlanta; software labs in Raleigh-Durham, Rome, Cracow and Toronto; Johannesburg, Seattle; and facilities in Hakozaki and Yamato. The company also operates the IBM Scientific Center, Hursley House, the Canada Head Office Building, IBM Rochester, and the Somers Office Complex. The company's contributions to architecture and design, which include works by Eero Saarinen, Ludwig Mies van der Rohe, and I.M. Pei, have been recognized. Van der Rohe's 330 North Wabash building in Chicago, the original center of the company's research division post-World War II, was recognized with the 1990 Honor Award from the National Building Museum.
Who was the CEO in 1914?
5729ca3baf94a219006aa625
Thomas J. Watson
82
False
The Quarter Century Club began in this year.
5729ca3baf94a219006aa626
1924
366
False
What is the name of IBM's internal magazine?
5729ca3baf94a219006aa627
Business Machines
487
False
In 1925 the first meeting of this group occurred.
5729ca3baf94a219006aa628
Hundred Percent Club
583
False
What is the Hundred Percent Club composed of?
5729ca3baf94a219006aa629
IBM salesmen who meet their quotas
617
False
employee sports teams, hosting family outings, and furnishing a company band
134
What employee management practices were first introduced in New Jersey in 1924?
5a68f36f8476ee001a58a8ec
True
1924
366
When was the first Atlantic City publication made?
5a68f36f8476ee001a58a8ed
True
company spirit
107
What was the Hundred Percent Club created to boost in 1914?
5a68f36f8476ee001a58a8ee
True
25
429
Starting in 1914, for how many years was the IBM internal publication made?
5a68f36f8476ee001a58a8ef
True
1925
552
In what year did the first IBM sports team play in Atlantic City?
5a68f36f8476ee001a58a8f0
True
IBM's employee management practices can be traced back to its roots. In 1914, CEO Thomas J. Watson boosted company spirit by creating employee sports teams, hosting family outings, and furnishing a company band. IBM sports teams still continue in the present day; the IBM Big Blue continue to exist as semi-professional company rugby and American football teams. In 1924 the Quarter Century Club, which recognizes employees with 25 years of service, was organized and the first issue of Business Machines, IBM's internal publication, was published. In 1925, the first meeting of the Hundred Percent Club, composed of IBM salesmen who meet their quotas, convened in Atlantic City, New Jersey.
In what year did IBM begin to provide group life insurance?
5729cb183f37b3190047855d
1934
70
False
IBM created a school house in 1933, what was its name?
5729cb183f37b3190047855e
IBM Schoolhouse at Endicott
244
False
IBM employees created a magazine in 1935, what was its name?
5729cb183f37b3190047855f
Think
312
False
What program did IBM launch in 1942?
5729cb183f37b31900478560
program to train and employ disabled people
447
False
What year did IBM hire its first black salesman?
5729cb183f37b31900478561
1946
659
False
1934
70
In what year did Endicott provide group life insurance?
5a68f4c28476ee001a58a900
True
Education Department
152
What was created by Endicott in 1932 for overseeing employee training?
5a68f4c28476ee001a58a901
True
its first training class
356
What was held for female system service professionals in 1937?
5a68f4c28476ee001a58a902
True
disabled people
475
Who did Endicott create a program to train and hire in 1942?
5a68f4c28476ee001a58a903
True
Think
312
What was the name of the employee magazine in 1935 featuring the first black salesman?
5a68f4c28476ee001a58a904
True
IBM was among the first corporations to provide group life insurance (1934), survivor benefits (1935) and paid vacations (1937). In 1932 IBM created an Education Department to oversee training for employees, which oversaw the completion of the IBM Schoolhouse at Endicott in 1933. In 1935, the employee magazine Think was created. Also that year, IBM held its first training class for female systems service professionals. In 1942, IBM launched a program to train and employ disabled people in Topeka, Kansas. The next year classes began in New York City, and soon the company was asked to join the President's Committee for Employment of the Handicapped. In 1946, the company hired its first black salesman, 18 years before the Civil Rights Act of 1964. In 1947, IBM announced a Total and Permanent Disability Income Plan for employees. A vested rights pension was added to the IBM retirement plan. During IBM's management transformation in the 1990s revisions were made to these pension plans to reduce IBM's pension liabilities.
Who published IBM's first equal opportunity policy letter?
5729cc793f37b31900478567
Thomas J. Watson, Jr
9
False
In what year was IBM's first equal opportunity policy letter published?
5729cc793f37b31900478568
1952
3
False
In 1961 IBM's nondiscrimination policy was expanded to include what?
5729cc793f37b31900478569
sex, national origin, and age
297
False
How many inventors were honored at IBM's first Invention Award Dinner?
5729cc793f37b3190047856a
34
401
False
Starting in 1963 IBM started a program by naming 8 of these.
5729cc793f37b3190047856b
IBM Fellows
478
False
the company's first written equal opportunity policy letter
42
What was published by the Board of Education in 1952?
5a68f6908476ee001a58a928
True
nondiscrimination policy was expanded to include sex, national origin, and age
248
What did the judgement in Brown vs. Board of Education cause to be added to IBM hiring policy in 1952?
5a68f6908476ee001a58a929
True
34
401
How many people were involved in the Brown vs. Board of Education case?
5a68f6908476ee001a58a92a
True
Civil Rights Act
207
What act was adopted in 1952?
5a68f6908476ee001a58a92b
True
Invention Award Dinner
369
What was hosted by the Board of Education for the first time in 1962?
5a68f6908476ee001a58a92c
True
In 1952, Thomas J. Watson, Jr., published the company's first written equal opportunity policy letter, one year before the U.S. Supreme Court decision in Brown vs. Board of Education and 11 years before the Civil Rights Act of 1964. In 1961, IBM's nondiscrimination policy was expanded to include sex, national origin, and age. The following year, IBM hosted its first Invention Award Dinner honoring 34 outstanding IBM inventors; and in 1963, the company named the first eight IBM Fellows in a new Fellowship Program that recognizes senior IBM scientists, engineers and other professionals for outstanding technical achievements.
What date did Thomas Watson, Jr. send out a letter about IBM hiring the best people regardless of race, gender, or origin?
5729cdaa3f37b31900478571
September 21, 1953
3
False
IBM publicized its hiring policy to help negotiations in two states where in the U.S.?
5729cdaa3f37b31900478572
the U.S. South
362
False
What kind of workplaces did IBM commit to not building?
5729cdaa3f37b31900478573
separate-but-equal
422
False
IBM expanded their nondiscrimination policy in 1984 to include what?
5729cdaa3f37b31900478574
sexual orientation
473
False
In what year did IBM add sexual orientation to their nondiscrimination policy?
5729cdaa3f37b31900478575
1984
457
False
a controversial letter
89
What was sent out by governors in the south in 1953?
5a68f8198476ee001a58a946
True
IBM needed to hire the best people, regardless of their race, ethnic origin, or gender.
146
What did the letter sent in 1984 state to employees?
5a68f8198476ee001a58a947
True
"separate-but-equal"
421
What is one type of workplace that governors of two states would not build?
5a68f8198476ee001a58a948
True
a competitive advantage
569
What would a separate but equal workplace give to IBM so it would get ahead?
5a68f8198476ee001a58a949
True
talented people
632
Who would negotiating with employees about hiring practices help IBM hire in the future?
5a68f8198476ee001a58a94a
True
On September 21, 1953, Thomas Watson, Jr., the company's president at the time, sent out a controversial letter to all IBM employees stating that IBM needed to hire the best people, regardless of their race, ethnic origin, or gender. He also publicized the policy so that in his negotiations to build new manufacturing plants with the governors of two states in the U.S. South, he could be clear that IBM would not build "separate-but-equal" workplaces. In 1984, IBM added sexual orientation to its nondiscrimination policy. The company stated that this would give IBM a competitive advantage because IBM would then be able to hire talented people its competitors would turn down.
IBM began supporting this in 1998.
5729d0391d046914007795fd
Linux
85
False
300 Linux kernel developers work here.
5729d0391d046914007795fe
the IBM Linux Technology Center
188
False
IBM created the software framework known as?
5729d0391d046914007795ff
Eclipse
387
False
What is a notable legal case involving open source and IBM?
5729d0391d04691400779600
SCO v. IBM
680
False
What does RDBMS refer to?
5729d0391d04691400779601
relational database management system
550
False
IBM
0
What company was Java supporting in 1998?
5a68f9b08476ee001a58a95a
True
Open Source Initiative
40
What initiative was created by IBM in 1998?
5a68f9b08476ee001a58a95b
True
approximately US$40 million
402
How much was Linux worth in 1998?
5a68f9b08476ee001a58a95c
True
under different open source licenses
297
How does Java usually release code its developed?
5a68f9b08476ee001a58a95d
True
IBM Linux Technology Center
192
Where do 300 Open Source Initiative developers work?
5a68f9b08476ee001a58a95e
True
IBM has been a leading proponent of the Open Source Initiative, and began supporting Linux in 1998. The company invests billions of dollars in services and software based on Linux through the IBM Linux Technology Center, which includes over 300 Linux kernel developers. IBM has also released code under different open source licenses, such as the platform-independent software framework Eclipse (worth approximately US$40 million at the time of the donation), the three-sentence International Components for Unicode (ICU) license, and the Java-based relational database management system (RDBMS) Apache Derby. IBM's open source involvement has not been trouble-free, however (see SCO v. IBM).
IBM runs what website for software developers?
5729d2193f37b3190047857b
DeveloperWorks
0
False
In 2007 what happened to developerWorks?
5729d2193f37b3190047857c
was inducted into the Jolt Hall of Fame
523
False
DeveloperWorks has content about open industry standard technologies like Java and SOA, what is one other industry standard technology it has resources for?
5729d2193f37b3190047857d
Linux
351
False
IBM products such as WebSphere and Rational are covered on DeveloperWorks, what other three IBM products are covered?
5729d2193f37b3190047857e
Lotus, Tivoli and Information Management
456
False
The Jolt Hall of Fame inducted DeveloperWorks in what year?
5729d2193f37b3190047857f
2007
502
False
the Jolt Hall of Fame
541
Where was Java inducted in 2007?
5a68fc658476ee001a58a978
True
DeveloperWorks
0
What site is run by Ajax for IT professionals?
5a68fc658476ee001a58a979
True
WebSphere, Rational, Lotus, Tivoli and Information Management
435
What Java products are a part of the Ajax site?
5a68fc658476ee001a58a97a
True
2007
502
In what year was IBM inducted into the technical professionals hall of fame?
5a68fc658476ee001a58a97b
True
Java, Linux, SOA
345
What three open industry-standard technologies are covered on the Ajax site?
5a68fc658476ee001a58a97c
True
DeveloperWorks is a website run by IBM for software developers and IT professionals. It contains how-to articles and tutorials, as well as software downloads and code samples, discussion forums, podcasts, blogs, wikis, and other resources for developers and technical professionals. Subjects range from open, industry-standard technologies like Java, Linux, SOA and web services, web development, Ajax, PHP, and XML to IBM's products (WebSphere, Rational, Lotus, Tivoli and Information Management). In 2007, developerWorks was inducted into the Jolt Hall of Fame.
What kind of processor was in the Xbox 360?
5729d2f6af94a219006aa64d
PowerPC tri-core processor
127
False
How quickly did IBM take to create the Xbox 360 processor?
5729d2f6af94a219006aa64e
less than 24 months
197
False
Playstation 3 featured which microprocessor?
5729d2f6af94a219006aa64f
Cell BE microprocessor
252
False
Who helped IBM develop the Playstation 3 microprocessor?
5729d2f6af94a219006aa650
Toshiba, and Sony
300
False
What year did the Nintendo Wii U, partly developed by IBM, debut?
5729d2f6af94a219006aa651
2012
430
False
microprocessors
69
What did Nintendo develop for all console gaming systems of the previous generation?
5a69073b8476ee001a58a9dc
True
less than 24 months
197
How long did it take for Nintendo to develop the PowerPC tri-core processor?
5a69073b8476ee001a58a9dd
True
a PowerPC tri-core processor
125
What technology did IBM, Toshiba and Sony design jointly for the Xbox 360?
5a69073b8476ee001a58a9de
True
2012
430
In what year was the Xbox 360 first produced?
5a69073b8476ee001a58a9df
True
Broadway
629
What was the codename for the Xbox 360 when it was first being developed?
5a69073b8476ee001a58a9e0
True
Virtually all console gaming systems of the previous generation used microprocessors developed by IBM. The Xbox 360 contains a PowerPC tri-core processor, which was designed and produced by IBM in less than 24 months. Sony's PlayStation 3 features the Cell BE microprocessor designed jointly by IBM, Toshiba, and Sony. IBM also provided the microprocessor that serves as the heart of Nintendo's new Wii U system, which debuted in 2012. The new Power Architecture-based microprocessor includes IBM's latest technology in an energy-saving silicon package. Nintendo's seventh-generation console, Wii, features an IBM chip codenamed Broadway. The older Nintendo GameCube utilizes the Gekko processor, also designed by IBM.
What will Open Client Offering run on?
5729d4063f37b31900478585
Linux, Microsoft Windows and Apple's Mac OS X
96
False
What is an alternative to the Office document format from Microsoft?
5729d4063f37b31900478586
Open Document Format software
650
False
What percentage of its desktop PCs does IBM plan to install Open Client on to?
5729d4063f37b31900478587
5%
982
False
Which platforms did IBM begin offering the IBM Client for Smart Work on?
5729d4063f37b31900478588
Ubuntu and Red Hat Enterprise Linux
1096
False
What web browser does the Open Document Format have compatibility with?
5729d4063f37b31900478589
Mozilla Firefox
917
False
costs
338
What does using Apple's Mac OS X help to cut according to Microsoft?
5a69098b8476ee001a58a9fa
True
for its licenses for operating systems
465
What do you need to pay Microsoft if you use Open Client Offering software?
5a69098b8476ee001a58a9fb
True
Open Document Format software
650
What is an alternative to using Linux document formats?
5a69098b8476ee001a58a9fc
True
5%
982
What percentage of its PC's does IBM want to install Firefox on?
5a69098b8476ee001a58a9fd
True
Ubuntu and Red Hat Enterprise Linux platforms
1096
What two platforms is Microsoft offering the Linux client for Smart Work on?
5a69098b8476ee001a58a9fe
True
IBM announced it will launch its new software, called "Open Client Offering" which is to run on Linux, Microsoft Windows and Apple's Mac OS X. The company states that its new product allows businesses to offer employees a choice of using the same software on Windows and its alternatives. This means that "Open Client Offering" is to cut costs of managing whether to use Linux or Apple relative to Windows. There will be no necessity for companies to pay Microsoft for its licenses for operating systems since the operating systems will no longer rely on software which is Windows-based. One alternative to Microsoft's office document formats is the Open Document Format software, whose development IBM supports. It is going to be used for several tasks like: word processing, presentations, along with collaboration with Lotus Notes, instant messaging and blog tools as well as an Internet Explorer competitor – the Mozilla Firefox web browser. IBM plans to install Open Client on 5% of its desktop PCs. The Linux offering has been made available as the IBM Client for Smart Work product on the Ubuntu and Red Hat Enterprise Linux platforms.
What is the name of the IBM project that redirected $1 billion each year to increase energy efficiency?
5729d6d76aef0514001550b0
Project Big Green
122
False
Secure Blue was launched in what year?
5729d6d76aef0514001550b1
2006
3
False
What type of hardware is Secure Blue?
5729d6d76aef0514001550b2
encryption hardware
35
False
Who was the IBM ceo in November 2008?
5729d6d76aef0514001550b3
Sam Palmisano
261
False
What framework did IBM announce on March 1, 2011?
5729d6d76aef0514001550b4
Smarter Computing framework
418
False
$1 billion
159
How much did it cost for IBM to produce Secure Blue?
5a690bdf8476ee001a58aa40
True
at the Council on Foreign Relations
292
Where did Sam Palmisano make a speech in 2006?
5a690bdf8476ee001a58aa41
True
for building a Smarter Planet
351
What agenda was presented by von Neumann in 2006 at the Council on Foreign Relations?
5a690bdf8476ee001a58aa42
True
chips that imitate neurons and synapses
553
What kind of chips were created by Smarter Computing in 2006?
5a690bdf8476ee001a58aa43
True
Smarter Computing framework
418
What kind of framework was announced by von Neumann in 2006?
5a690bdf8476ee001a58aa44
True
In 2006, IBM launched Secure Blue, encryption hardware that can be built into microprocessors. A year later, IBM unveiled Project Big Green, a re-direction of $1 billion per year across its businesses to increase energy efficiency. On November 2008, IBM’s CEO, Sam Palmisano, during a speech at the Council on Foreign Relations, outlined a new agenda for building a Smarter Planet. On March 1, 2011, IBM announced the Smarter Computing framework to support Smarter Planet. On Aug 18, 2011, as part of its effort in cognitive computing, IBM has produced chips that imitate neurons and synapses. These microprocessors do not use von Neumann architecture, and they consume less memory and power.
What is the name of the program that IBM uses to search for new start-up companies to solve world problems?
5729d8061d04691400779625
SmartCamp
19
False
How many SmartCamp events does IBM hold worldwide?
5729d8061d04691400779626
17
158
False
Who has IBM partnered with to allow retail shoppers to easily donate money?
5729d8061d04691400779627
Pennies
236
False
Charities of which nation benefit from the IBM partnership with Pennies?
5729d8061d04691400779628
UK
496
False
What company is known for the electronic charity box?
5729d8061d04691400779629
Pennies
236
False
SmartCamp
19
What global program is run by Pennies so that they can find companies to partner with?
5a692afc8476ee001a58ab42
True
fresh start-up companies
72
What kind of companies does Pennies search for to partner with?
5a692afc8476ee001a58ab43
True
world problems
132
What did Pennies go into business to solve in the UK?
5a692afc8476ee001a58ab44
True
17
158
How many companies partner with Pennies in their retail stores in the UK?
5a692afc8476ee001a58ab45
True
2011
207
In what year did Pennies begin as a start-up?
5a692afc8476ee001a58ab46
True
IBM also holds the SmartCamp program globally. The program searches for fresh start-up companies that IBM can partner with to solve world problems. IBM holds 17 SmartCamp events around the world. Since July 2011, IBM has partnered with Pennies, the electronic charity box, and produced a software solution for IBM retail customers that provides an easy way to donate money when paying in-store by credit or debit card. Customers donate just a few pence (1p-99p) a time and every donation goes to UK charities.
What location is the birthplace of IBM?
5729d8b71d0469140077962f
Endicott
23
False
How many gallons of liquid cleaning agent leaked from an IBM facility in 1979?
5729d8b71d04691400779630
4,100 gallons
239
False
How long did IBM use liquid cleaning agents for circuit board manufacturing?
5729d8b71d04691400779631
more than two decades
146
False
Starting in 1980 how many gallons of chemicals did IBM pump into the air?
5729d8b71d04691400779632
78,000 gallons
525
False
IBM was identified by what department as a major source of pollution?
5729d8b71d04691400779633
Department of Environmental Conservation
732
False
volatile organic compounds
366
What has drinking water been contaminated with for decades, making it unsafe in Endicott?
5a6936a55ce1a5001a9695ac
True
1979
231
When did freon leak from an underground tank in Endicott?
5a6936a55ce1a5001a9695ad
True
4,100
239
How many gallons of freon leaked into the town's soil in 1979?
5a6936a55ce1a5001a9695ae
True
78,000
525
How many people were diagnosed with cancer in 1980 near Endicott?
5a6936a55ce1a5001a9695af
True
pollution
796
What was a local dry cleaner found to be the main source of in 1979?
5a6936a55ce1a5001a9695b0
True
The birthplace of IBM, Endicott, suffered pollution for decades, however. IBM used liquid cleaning agents in circuit board assembly operation for more than two decades, and six spills and leaks were recorded, including one leak in 1979 of 4,100 gallons from an underground tank. These left behind volatile organic compounds in the town's soil and aquifer. Traces of volatile organic compounds have been identified in Endicott’s drinking water, but the levels are within regulatory limits. Also, from 1980, IBM has pumped out 78,000 gallons of chemicals, including trichloroethane, freon, benzene and perchloroethene to the air and allegedly caused several cancer cases among the townspeople. IBM Endicott has been identified by the Department of Environmental Conservation as the major source of pollution, though traces of contaminants from a local dry cleaner and other polluters were also found. Remediation and testing are ongoing, however according to city officials, tests show that the water is safe to drink.
Energy
What is a property of objects which can be transferred to other objects or converted into different forms?
5729e2ea6aef0514001550d8
energy
12
False
In SI units, energy is measured in what measurement?
5729e2ea6aef0514001550d9
joules
338
False
Mechanically, one joule is defined as what?
5729e2ea6aef0514001550da
the energy transferred to an object by the mechanical work of moving it a distance of 1 metre against a force of 1 newton
393
False
physics
3
What is a property of objects which can be transferred to other objects or converted into different forms in biology?
5acd011907355d001abf316a
True
energy
316
In SI units, what is measured in watts?
5acd011907355d001abf316b
True
energy
569
electronuclear is a definition of what?
5acd011907355d001abf316c
True
1 metre
479
How many meters of chemical work is required?
5acd011907355d001abf316d
True
thermal energy, radiant energy, electromagnetic, nuclear
611
What definitions are there for types of energy, regardless of context?
5acd011907355d001abf316e
True
In physics, energy is a property of objects which can be transferred to other objects or converted into different forms. The "ability of a system to perform work" is a common description, but it is difficult to give one single comprehensive definition of energy because of its many forms. For instance, in SI units, energy is measured in joules, and one joule is defined "mechanically", being the energy transferred to an object by the mechanical work of moving it a distance of 1 metre against a force of 1 newton.[note 1] However, there are many other definitions of energy, depending on the context, such as thermal energy, radiant energy, electromagnetic, nuclear, etc., where definitions are derived that are the most convenient.
Common energy forms include what?
5729e3631d0469140077964b
kinetic energy of a moving object
32
False
In Newtonian physics, there is a universal law that says energy can be neither created nor what?
5729e3631d0469140077964c
destroyed
570
False
What law states, in part, that energy can change from one form to another?
5729e3631d0469140077964d
Newtonian physics
447
False
kinetic energy
32
What does uncommon energy forms include?
5acd01f007355d001abf3188
True
solid objects
215
gravitational energy is stored by stretching what?
5acd01f007355d001abf3189
True
fuel
266
physical energy is released when what burns?
5acd01f007355d001abf318a
True
light
308
thermal energy gets carried by what?
5acd01f007355d001abf318b
True
that energy can be neither created nor be destroyed
528
What does the universal law say in Plutonium physics?
5acd01f007355d001abf318c
True
Common energy forms include the kinetic energy of a moving object, the potential energy stored by an object's position in a force field (gravitational, electric or magnetic), the elastic energy stored by stretching solid objects, the chemical energy released when a fuel burns, the radiant energy carried by light, and the thermal energy due to an object's temperature. All of the many forms of energy are convertible to other kinds of energy. In Newtonian physics, there is a universal law of conservation of energy which says that energy can be neither created nor be destroyed; however, it can change from one form to another.
How can the total energy of a system be calculated?
5729e3feaf94a219006aa6a7
by adding up all forms of energy in the system
875
False
The limit to the amount of heat energy that can do work in a cyclic process is known as what?
5729e3feaf94a219006aa6a8
available energy
685
False
What can be fully converted into work in a reversible isothermal expansion of an ideal gas?
5729e3feaf94a219006aa6a9
heat
313
False
What states that the system doing work always loses some energy as waste heat?
5729e3feaf94a219006aa6aa
second law of thermodynamics
475
False
by adding up all forms of energy in the system
875
How can the partial energy of a system be calculated?
5acd10cb07355d001abf32fe
True
available energy
685
The limit to the amount of cold energy that can do work in a cyclic process is known as what?
5acd10cb07355d001abf32ff
True
heat
313
What can be fully converted into work in a reversible isothermal contraction of an ideal gas?
5acd10cb07355d001abf3300
True
second law of thermodynamics
475
What states that the system doing work always gains some energy as waste heat?
5acd10cb07355d001abf3301
True
first law of thermodynamics
68
What states for "open systems" with no external source or sink of energy,that a system's energy is constant unless energy is transferred in or out by mechanical work or heat
5acd10cb07355d001abf3302
True
For "closed systems" with no external source or sink of energy, the first law of thermodynamics states that a system's energy is constant unless energy is transferred in or out by mechanical work or heat, and that no energy is lost in transfer. This means that it is impossible to create or destroy energy. While heat can always be fully converted into work in a reversible isothermal expansion of an ideal gas, for cyclic processes of practical interest in heat engines the second law of thermodynamics states that the system doing work always loses some energy as waste heat. This creates a limit to the amount of heat energy that can do work in a cyclic process, a limit called the available energy. Mechanical and other forms of energy can be transformed in the other direction into thermal energy without such limitations. The total energy of a system can be calculated by adding up all forms of energy in the system.
Give one example of energy transformation.
5729e46baf94a219006aa6af
generating electric energy from heat energy via a steam turbine
42
False
What transforms nuclear potential energy to other forms of energy?
5729e46baf94a219006aa6b0
Sun
524
False
What is another example of energy transformation?
5729e46baf94a219006aa6b1
lifting an object against gravity using electrical energy driving a crane motor
110
False
generating electric energy from heat energy via a steam turbine
42
Give one example of linear transformation.
5acd11e007355d001abf333a
True
Sun
524
What transforms non-nuclear potential energy to other forms of energy?
5acd11e007355d001abf333b
True
lifting an object against gravity using electrical energy driving a crane motor
110
What is another example of solar transformation?
5acd11e007355d001abf333c
True
mechanical work on the object and stores gravitational potential energy in the object
224
What does pushing with gravity perform?
5acd11e007355d001abf333d
True
radiant energy
808
what type of energy escapes to its surroundings when mass increases?
5acd11e007355d001abf333e
True
Examples of energy transformation include generating electric energy from heat energy via a steam turbine, or lifting an object against gravity using electrical energy driving a crane motor. Lifting against gravity performs mechanical work on the object and stores gravitational potential energy in the object. If the object falls to the ground, gravity does mechanical work on the object which transforms the potential energy in the gravitational field to the kinetic energy released as heat on impact with the ground. Our Sun transforms nuclear potential energy to other forms of energy; its total mass does not decrease due to that in itself (since it still contains the same total energy even if in different forms), but its mass does decrease when the energy escapes out to its surroundings, largely as radiant energy.
What is determined by an object's movement through space?
5729e4e83f37b319004785a3
kinetic energy
134
False
What usually consists partly of kinetic and partly of potential energy?
5729e4e83f37b319004785a4
thermal energy
634
False
What is a function of the position of an object within a field?
5729e4e83f37b319004785a5
potential energy
213
False
kinetic energy
134
what is determined by an object's non-movement through space?
5acd153607355d001abf33ca
True
thermal energy
359
What usually consists completely of potential energy?
5acd153607355d001abf33cb
True
potential energy
213
What is a function of the position of an object outside of a field?
5acd153607355d001abf33cc
True
total energy
4
what part of a system can be multiplied?
5acd153607355d001abf33cd
True
thermal energy usually consists partly of kinetic and partly of potential energy
634
what classifications don't overlap?
5acd153607355d001abf33ce
True
The total energy of a system can be subdivided and classified in various ways. For example, classical mechanics distinguishes between kinetic energy, which is determined by an object's movement through space, and potential energy, which is a function of the position of an object within a field. It may also be convenient to distinguish gravitational energy, thermal energy, several types of nuclear energy (which utilize potentials from the nuclear force and the weak force), electric energy (from the electric field), and magnetic energy (from the magnetic field), among others. Many of these classifications overlap; for instance, thermal energy usually consists partly of kinetic and partly of potential energy.
What is dependent upon electrical potential energy?
5729e5501d0469140077965b
Elastic energy in materials
193
False
Where is chemical energy stored and released?
5729e5501d0469140077965c
from a reservoir of electrical potential energy between electrons
353
False
Some types of energy are a varying mix of potential and what other kind of energy?
5729e5501d0469140077965d
kinetic
61
False
Elastic energy in materials
193
What is dependent upon hydro potential energy?
5acd166907355d001abf3418
True
from a reservoir of electrical potential energy between electrons
353
Where is biological energy stored and released?
5acd166907355d001abf3419
True
kinetic
61
All types of energy are a varying mix of potential and what other kind of energy?
5acd166907355d001abf341a
True
appears to violate the law of energy conservation, new forms are typically added that account for the discrepancy
607
what do chemical scientists discover about certain phenomenon?
5acd166907355d001abf341b
True
discrepancy
709
old forms are typically added that account for what?
5acd166907355d001abf341c
True
Some types of energy are a varying mix of both potential and kinetic energy. An example is mechanical energy which is the sum of (usually macroscopic) kinetic and potential energy in a system. Elastic energy in materials is also dependent upon electrical potential energy (among atoms and molecules), as is chemical energy, which is stored and released from a reservoir of electrical potential energy between electrons, and the molecules or atomic nuclei that attract them.[need quotation to verify].The list is also not necessarily complete. Whenever physical scientists discover that a certain phenomenon appears to violate the law of energy conservation, new forms are typically added that account for the discrepancy.
What is a term for living force?
5729e5f76aef0514001550de
vis viva
76
False
What is defined as the product of mass of an object and its velocity squared?
5729e5f76aef0514001550df
vis viva
76
False
Who proposed the idea of the Latin: vis viva?
5729e5f76aef0514001550e0
Gottfried Leibniz
26
False
In what century did Leibniz propose the idea of Latin: vis viva?
5729e5f76aef0514001550e1
late 17th century
7
False
Who shared Leibniz's view that thermal energy consisted of random motion of the constituent parts of matter?
5729e5f76aef0514001550e2
Isaac Newton
392
False
vis viva
76
What is a term for dying force?
5acd17c607355d001abf345c
True
vis viva
76
What is defined as the product of mass of an object and its velocity cubed?
5acd17c607355d001abf345d
True
Gottfried Leibniz
26
Who proposed the idea of the Italian: vis viva?
5acd17c607355d001abf345e
True
17th century
12
In what century did Newton propose the idea of Latin: vis viva?
5acd17c607355d001abf345f
True
Isaac Newton
392
Who rejected Leibniz's view that thermal energy consisted of random motion of the constituent parts of matter?
5acd17c607355d001abf3460
True
In the late 17th century, Gottfried Leibniz proposed the idea of the Latin: vis viva, or living force, which defined as the product of the mass of an object and its velocity squared; he believed that total vis viva was conserved. To account for slowing due to friction, Leibniz theorized that thermal energy consisted of the random motion of the constituent parts of matter, a view shared by Isaac Newton, although it would be more than a century until this was generally accepted. The modern analog of this property, kinetic energy, differs from vis viva only by a factor of two.
Who was possibly the first to use the term "energy" instead of vis viva?
5729e6923f37b319004785b3
Thomas Young
9
False
When did Thomas Young use the term "energy" instead of vis viva?
5729e6923f37b319004785b4
1807
3
False
Who coined the term "potential energy?"
5729e6923f37b319004785b5
William Rankine
206
False
Who discovered the link between mechanical work and the generation of heat?
5729e6923f37b319004785b6
James Prescott Joule
526
False
When was the law of conservation of energy first postulated?
5729e6923f37b319004785b7
19th century
331
False
Thomas Young
9
Who was definitely the first to use the term "energy" instead of vis viva?
5acd189307355d001abf3488
True
1807
3
When did Newton use the term "energy" instead of vis viva?
5acd189307355d001abf3489
True
William Rankine
206
Who rejected the term "potential energy?"
5acd189307355d001abf348a
True
James Prescott Joule
526
Who discovered the link between mechanical work and the reduction of heat?
5acd189307355d001abf348b
True
19th century
331
When was the law of conservation of physics first postulated?
5acd189307355d001abf348c
True
In 1807, Thomas Young was possibly the first to use the term "energy" instead of vis viva, in its modern sense. Gustave-Gaspard Coriolis described "kinetic energy" in 1829 in its modern sense, and in 1853, William Rankine coined the term "potential energy". The law of conservation of energy was also first postulated in the early 19th century, and applies to any isolated system. It was argued for some years whether heat was a physical substance, dubbed the caloric, or merely a physical quantity, such as momentum. In 1845 James Prescott Joule discovered the link between mechanical work and the generation of heat.
Who largely formalized the developments that led to the theory of conservation of energy?
5729e73c6aef0514001550e8
William Thomson
86
False
What aided the rapid development of explanations of chemical processes by Clausius, Gibbs and Nernst?
5729e73c6aef0514001550e9
Thermodynamics
148
False
Who developed the concept of the introduction of laws of radiant energy?
5729e73c6aef0514001550ea
Jožef Stefan
424
False
What states that the conservation of energy is a consequence of the fact that the laws of physics do not change over time?
5729e73c6aef0514001550eb
Noether's theorem
451
False
William Thomson
86
Who largely rejected the developments that led to the theory of conservation of energy?
5acd192f07355d001abf34c0
True
Thermodynamics
148
What hindered the rapid development of explanations of chemical processes by Clausius, Gibbs and Nernst?
5acd192f07355d001abf34c1
True
Jožef Stefan
424
Who developed the concept of the introduction of laws of stored energy?
5acd192f07355d001abf34c2
True
Noether's theorem
451
What states that the conservation of energy is a consequence of the fact that the laws of physics change over time?
5acd192f07355d001abf34c3
True
direct mathematical consequence of the translational symmetry of the quantity conjugate to energy, namely time
666
since 1819, theorists have understood that the law of conservation of energy is what?
5acd192f07355d001abf34c4
True
These developments led to the theory of conservation of energy, formalized largely by William Thomson (Lord Kelvin) as the field of thermodynamics. Thermodynamics aided the rapid development of explanations of chemical processes by Rudolf Clausius, Josiah Willard Gibbs, and Walther Nernst. It also led to a mathematical formulation of the concept of entropy by Clausius and to the introduction of laws of radiant energy by Jožef Stefan. According to Noether's theorem, the conservation of energy is a consequence of the fact that the laws of physics do not change over time. Thus, since 1918, theorists have understood that the law of conservation of energy is the direct mathematical consequence of the translational symmetry of the quantity conjugate to energy, namely time.
What is another energy-related concept?
5729e7a86aef0514001550f0
Lagrangian
45
False
Who is the Lagrangian named after?
5729e7a86aef0514001550f1
Joseph-Louis Lagrange
63
False
What is defined as the kinetic energy minus the potential energy?
5729e7a86aef0514001550f2
Lagrangian
321
False
Is the Lagrange formalism or the Hamiltonian more convenient for non-conservative systems?
5729e7a86aef0514001550f3
Lagrange formalism
406
False
Lagrangian
45
What is another non-energy-related concept?
5acd1a0207355d001abf34f2
True
Joseph-Louis Lagrange
63
Who is the Lestrangian named after?
5acd1a0207355d001abf34f3
True
Lagrangian
321
What is defined as the potential energy minus the kinetic energy?
5acd1a0207355d001abf34f4
True
Lagrange formalism
406
Is the Lagrange formalism or the Hamiltonian more convenient for conservative systems?
5acd1a0207355d001abf34f5
True
Hamiltonian
126
This non-formalism is as fundamental as what?
5acd1a0207355d001abf34f6
True
Another energy-related concept is called the Lagrangian, after Joseph-Louis Lagrange. This formalism is as fundamental as the Hamiltonian, and both can be used to derive the equations of motion or be derived from them. It was invented in the context of classical mechanics, but is generally useful in modern physics. The Lagrangian is defined as the kinetic energy minus the potential energy. Usually, the Lagrange formalism is mathematically more convenient than the Hamiltonian for non-conservative systems (such as systems with friction).
When was Noether's theorem created?
5729e83f6aef0514001550f8
1918
19
False
What states that any differentiable symmetry of the action of a physical system has a corresponding conservation law?
5729e83f6aef0514001550f9
Noether's theorem
0
False
What has become a fundamental tool of modern theoretical physics and the calculus of variations?
5729e83f6aef0514001550fa
Noether's theorem
138
False
1918
19
When was Noether's theorem destroyed?
5acd1a9807355d001abf3524
True
Noether's theorem
0
What states that any differentiable symmetry of the action of a non-physical system has a corresponding conservation law?
5acd1a9807355d001abf3525
True
Noether's theorem
138
What has become a fundamental tool of modern theoretical chemistry and the calculus of variations?
5acd1a9807355d001abf3526
True
Noether's theorem
0
What theorem was derived in 1819?
5acd1a9807355d001abf3527
True
a corresponding conservation law
532
dissipative systems with non-continuous symmetries need not have what?
5acd1a9807355d001abf3528
True
Noether's theorem (1918) states that any differentiable symmetry of the action of a physical system has a corresponding conservation law. Noether's theorem has become a fundamental tool of modern theoretical physics and the calculus of variations. A generalisation of the seminal formulations on constants of motion in Lagrangian and Hamiltonian mechanics (1788 and 1833, respectively), it does not apply to systems that cannot be modeled with a Lagrangian; for example, dissipative systems with continuous symmetries need not have a corresponding conservation law.
In the context of chemistry, what is an attribute of a substance as a consequence of it's atomic, molecular or aggregate structure?
5729f2b16aef05140015513a
energy
29
False
What is not possible unless the reactants surmount an energy barrier known as the activation energy?
5729f2b16aef05140015513b
Chemical reactions
700
False
What is the probability of molecule to have energy greater than or equal to E at the given temperature T?
5729f2b16aef05140015513c
e−E/kT
961
False
Who created the population factor e-E/kT?
5729f2b16aef05140015513d
Boltzmann's
931
False
What is the exponential dependence of a reaction rate on temperature?
5729f2b16aef05140015513e
Arrhenius equation
1154
False
energy
29
In the context of biology, what is an attribute of a substance as a consequence of it's atomic, molecular or aggregate structure?
5acd1b2407355d001abf354c
True
Chemical reactions
700
What is always possible except when the reactants surmount an energy barrier known as the activation energy?
5acd1b2407355d001abf354d
True
e−E/kT
961
What is the certainty of molecule to have energy greater than or equal to E at the given temperature T?
5acd1b2407355d001abf354e
True
Boltzmann's
931
Who rejected the population factor e-E/kT?
5acd1b2407355d001abf354f
True
Arrhenius equation
1154
What is the exponential independence of a reaction rate on temperature?
5acd1b2407355d001abf3550
True
In the context of chemistry, energy is an attribute of a substance as a consequence of its atomic, molecular or aggregate structure. Since a chemical transformation is accompanied by a change in one or more of these kinds of structure, it is invariably accompanied by an increase or decrease of energy of the substances involved. Some energy is transferred between the surroundings and the reactants of the reaction in the form of heat or light; thus the products of a reaction may have more or less energy than the reactants. A reaction is said to be exergonic if the final state is lower on the energy scale than the initial state; in the case of endergonic reactions the situation is the reverse. Chemical reactions are invariably not possible unless the reactants surmount an energy barrier known as the activation energy. The speed of a chemical reaction (at given temperature T) is related to the activation energy E, by the Boltzmann's population factor e−E/kT – that is the probability of molecule to have energy greater than or equal to E at the given temperature T. This exponential dependence of a reaction rate on temperature is known as the Arrhenius equation.The activation energy necessary for a chemical reaction can be in the form of thermal energy.
In biology, what is an attribute of all biological systems from the biosphere to the smallest living organism?
5729f3426aef051400155144
energy
12
False
What is often said to be stored by cells in the structures of molecules of substances such as carbohydrates, lipids and proteins?
5729f3426aef051400155145
Energy
240
False
What does H-e stand for?
5729f3426aef051400155146
Human energy conversion
503
False
How many watts is in one official horsepower?
5729f3426aef051400155147
746 watts
1017
False
energy
12
In chemistry, what is an attribute of all biological systems from the biosphere to the smallest living organism?
5acd22e607355d001abf364e
True
Energy
240
What is often said to be expelled by cells in the structures of molecules of substances such as carbohydrates, lipids and proteins?
5acd22e607355d001abf364f
True
Human energy conversion
503
What does E-h stand for?
5acd22e607355d001abf3650
True
746
1017
How many watts is in half an official horsepower?
5acd22e607355d001abf3651
True
1,000
1121
For tasks lasting a few minutes, an unfit human can generate how many watts?
5acd22e607355d001abf3652
True
In biology, energy is an attribute of all biological systems from the biosphere to the smallest living organism. Within an organism it is responsible for growth and development of a biological cell or an organelle of a biological organism. Energy is thus often said to be stored by cells in the structures of molecules of substances such as carbohydrates (including sugars), lipids, and proteins, which release energy when reacted with oxygen in respiration. In human terms, the human equivalent (H-e) (Human energy conversion) indicates, for a given amount of energy expenditure, the relative quantity of energy needed for human metabolism, assuming an average human energy expenditure of 12,500 kJ per day and a basal metabolic rate of 80 watts. For example, if our bodies run (on average) at 80 watts, then a light bulb running at 100 watts is running at 1.25 human equivalents (100 ÷ 80) i.e. 1.25 H-e. For a difficult task of only a few seconds' duration, a person can put out thousands of watts, many times the 746 watts in one official horsepower. For tasks lasting a few minutes, a fit human can generate perhaps 1,000 watts. For an activity that must be sustained for an hour, output drops to around 300; for an activity kept up all day, 150 watts is about the maximum. The human equivalent assists understanding of energy flows in physical and biological systems by expressing energy units in human terms: it provides a "feel" for the use of a given amount of energy.
What is also captured by plants as chemical potential energy in photosynthesis?
5729f3c6af94a219006aa6e7
Sunlight
0
False
What do plants release during photosynthesis?
5729f3c6af94a219006aa6e8
oxygen
243
False
What may be triggered suddenly by a spark?
5729f3c6af94a219006aa6e9
Release of the energy stored during photosynthesis
398
False
What are two low-energy compounds?
5729f3c6af94a219006aa6ea
carbon dioxide and water
89
False
Sunlight
0
What isn't captured by plants as chemical potential energy in photosynthesis?
5acd257407355d001abf36c6
True
oxygen
243
What do plants retain? during photosynthesis?
5acd257407355d001abf36c7
True
Release of the energy stored during photosynthesis
398
What may be triggered after a long time by a spark?
5acd257407355d001abf36c8
True
carbon dioxide and water
89
What are two high-energy compounds?
5acd257407355d001abf36c9
True
oxygen
243
what is utilized by dead organisms as an electron acceptor?
5acd257407355d001abf36ca
True
Sunlight is also captured by plants as chemical potential energy in photosynthesis, when carbon dioxide and water (two low-energy compounds) are converted into the high-energy compounds carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins. Plants also release oxygen during photosynthesis, which is utilized by living organisms as an electron acceptor, to release the energy of carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins. Release of the energy stored during photosynthesis as heat or light may be triggered suddenly by a spark, in a forest fire, or it may be made available more slowly for animal or human metabolism, when these molecules are ingested, and catabolism is triggered by enzyme action.
What does any living organism rely on to be able to grow and reproduce?
5729f4331d04691400779685
an external source of energy
30
False
How many daily calories are recommended for a human adult?
5729f4331d04691400779686
1500–2000
207
False
Where are food molecules oxidised to carbon dioxide and water?
5729f4331d04691400779687
mitochondria
507
False
an external source of energy
30
What does any dead organism rely on to be able to grow and reproduce?
5acd299b07355d001abf375e
True
1500–2000
207
How many weekly calories are recommended for a human adult?
5acd299b07355d001abf375f
True
mitochondria
507
Where are food molecules oxidised to oxygen and water?
5acd299b07355d001abf3760
True
Any living organism
0
what relies on an internal source of energy
5acd299b07355d001abf3761
True
plants
103
radiation from the Sun in the case of red what?
5acd299b07355d001abf3762
True
Any living organism relies on an external source of energy—radiation from the Sun in the case of green plants, chemical energy in some form in the case of animals—to be able to grow and reproduce. The daily 1500–2000 Calories (6–8 MJ) recommended for a human adult are taken as a combination of oxygen and food molecules, the latter mostly carbohydrates and fats, of which glucose (C6H12O6) and stearin (C57H110O6) are convenient examples. The food molecules are oxidised to carbon dioxide and water in the mitochondria
What states that energy tends to become more evenly spread out across the universe?
5729f51d6aef051400155160
The second law of thermodynamics
411
False
What are remarkably inefficient in their use of the energy they receive?
5729f51e6aef051400155161
living organisms
21
False
Complex organisms can occupy this, that are not available to their simpler brethern?
5729f51e6aef051400155162
ecological niches
845
False
second law of thermodynamics
415
What states that energy tends to become more grouped together across the universe?
5acd2a6907355d001abf3782
True
living organisms
21
What are remarkably efficient in their use of the energy they receive?
5acd2a6907355d001abf3783
True
metabolic pathway
990
The conversion of a portion of the chemical energy to cool at each step in a what?
5acd2a6907355d001abf3784
True
ecology
1073
Where is the hypothetical reason behind the pyramid of biomass observed?
5acd2a6907355d001abf3785
True
ecological niches
845
Simple organisms can occupy this, that are not available to their simpler brethern?
5acd2a6907355d001abf3786
True
It would appear that living organisms are remarkably inefficient (in the physical sense) in their use of the energy they receive (chemical energy or radiation), and it is true that most real machines manage higher efficiencies. In growing organisms the energy that is converted to heat serves a vital purpose, as it allows the organism tissue to be highly ordered with regard to the molecules it is built from. The second law of thermodynamics states that energy (and matter) tends to become more evenly spread out across the universe: to concentrate energy (or matter) in one specific place, it is necessary to spread out a greater amount of energy (as heat) across the remainder of the universe ("the surroundings").[note 3] Simpler organisms can achieve higher energy efficiencies than more complex ones, but the complex organisms can occupy ecological niches that are not available to their simpler brethren. The conversion of a portion of the chemical energy to heat at each step in a metabolic pathway is the physical reason behind the pyramid of biomass observed in ecology: to take just the first step in the food chain, of the estimated 124.7 Pg/a of carbon that is fixed by photosynthesis, 64.3 Pg/a (52%) are used for the metabolism of green plants, i.e. reconverted into carbon dioxide and heat.
When may sunlight be stored as gravitational potential energy?
5729f6063f37b3190047860f
after it strikes the Earth
57
False
This drives many weather phenomena, save those generated by volcanic events.
5729f6063f37b31900478610
Sunlight
288
False
What is an example of a solar-mediated weather event?
5729f6063f37b31900478611
hurricane
424
False
What occurs when large unstable areas of warm ocean, heated over months, give up some of their thermal energy suddenly to power a few days of violent air movement?
5729f6063f37b31900478612
hurricane
424
False
after it strikes the Earth
57
When may sunlight be stored as gravitational kinetic energy?
5acd409f07355d001abf3a66
True
Sunlight
288
This drives no weather phenomena, save those generated by volcanic events.
5acd409f07355d001abf3a67
True
hurricane
424
What is an example of a water-mediated weather event?
5acd409f07355d001abf3a68
True
electricity
274
after being released at a wind powered dam, it can be used to drive turbines or generators to produce what?
5acd409f07355d001abf3a69
True
hurricane
424
What occurs when large unstable areas of warm ocean, heated over months, give up some of their thermal energy suddenly to power a few days of violent air movement?
5acd409f07355d001abf3a6a
True
Sunlight may be stored as gravitational potential energy after it strikes the Earth, as (for example) water evaporates from oceans and is deposited upon mountains (where, after being released at a hydroelectric dam, it can be used to drive turbines or generators to produce electricity). Sunlight also drives many weather phenomena, save those generated by volcanic events. An example of a solar-mediated weather event is a hurricane, which occurs when large unstable areas of warm ocean, heated over months, give up some of their thermal energy suddenly to power a few days of violent air movement.
What releases stored elastic potential energy in rocks?
5729f6b13f37b31900478617
Earthquakes
366
False
What does radioactive decay of atoms in the core of the Earth release?
5729f6b13f37b31900478618
heat
82
False
What drives plate tectonics and may lift mountains via orogenesis?
5729f6b13f37b31900478619
thermal energy
93
False
What is mechanical potential energy?
5729f6b13f37b3190047861a
elastic strain
702
False
Earthquakes
366
What releases stored elastic kinetic energy in rocks?
5acd416807355d001abf3aa2
True
heat
82
What does radioactive decay of atoms in the core of Mars release?
5acd416807355d001abf3aa3
True
thermal energy
93
What hinders plate tectonics and may lift mountains via orogenesis?
5acd416807355d001abf3aa4
True
elastic strain
702
What is non-mechanical potential energy?
5acd416807355d001abf3aa5
True
these atoms
902
energy that has been stored in heavy atoms since the collapse of recently destroyed supernova stars created what?
5acd416807355d001abf3aa6
True
In a slower process, radioactive decay of atoms in the core of the Earth releases heat. This thermal energy drives plate tectonics and may lift mountains, via orogenesis. This slow lifting represents a kind of gravitational potential energy storage of the thermal energy, which may be later released to active kinetic energy in landslides, after a triggering event. Earthquakes also release stored elastic potential energy in rocks, a store that has been produced ultimately from the same radioactive heat sources. Thus, according to present understanding, familiar events such as landslides and earthquakes release energy that has been stored as potential energy in the Earth's gravitational field or elastic strain (mechanical potential energy) in rocks. Prior to this, they represent release of energy that has been stored in heavy atoms since the collapse of long-destroyed supernova stars created these atoms.
What is driven by various kinds of energy transformations?
5729f781af94a219006aa6ff
stellar phenomena
169
False
What releases another store of potential energy which was created at the time of the Big Bang?
5729f781af94a219006aa700
nuclear fusion of hydrogen in the Sun
520
False
What theory states that space expanded and the universe cooled too rapidly for hydrogen to completely fuse into heavier elements?
5729f781af94a219006aa701
Big Bang
643
False
Hydrogen represents a store of potential energy that can be released by what?
5729f781af94a219006aa702
fusion
882
False
stellar phenomena
169
What is driven by various kinds of energy transfusions?
5acd426607355d001abf3aca
True
nuclear fusion of hydrogen in the Sun
520
What retains another store of potential energy which was created at the time of the Big Bang?
5acd426607355d001abf3acb
True
Big Bang
643
What theory states that space expanded and the universe cooled very slowly for hydrogen to completely fuse into heavier elements?
5acd426607355d001abf3acc
True
fusion
882
Oxygen represents a store of potential energy that can be released by what?
5acd426607355d001abf3acd
True
fusion process
897
What process is triggered by heat and pressure generated from gravitational collapse of nitrogen clouds?
5acd426607355d001abf3ace
True
In cosmology and astronomy the phenomena of stars, nova, supernova, quasars and gamma-ray bursts are the universe's highest-output energy transformations of matter. All stellar phenomena (including solar activity) are driven by various kinds of energy transformations. Energy in such transformations is either from gravitational collapse of matter (usually molecular hydrogen) into various classes of astronomical objects (stars, black holes, etc.), or from nuclear fusion (of lighter elements, primarily hydrogen). The nuclear fusion of hydrogen in the Sun also releases another store of potential energy which was created at the time of the Big Bang. At that time, according to theory, space expanded and the universe cooled too rapidly for hydrogen to completely fuse into heavier elements. This meant that hydrogen represents a store of potential energy that can be released by fusion. Such a fusion process is triggered by heat and pressure generated from gravitational collapse of hydrogen clouds when they produce stars, and some of the fusion energy is then transformed into sunlight.
In quantum mechanics, what is defined in terms of the energy operator as a time derivative of the wave function?
5729f80c6aef051400155166
energy
22
False
What equates the energy operator to the full energy of a particle or a system?
5729f80c6aef051400155167
The Schrödinger equation
115
False
What describes the space-and-time dependence of a slowly changing wave function of quantum systems?
5729f80c6aef051400155168
The Schrödinger equation
307
False
energy
22
In quantum mechanics, what is defined in terms of the energy operator as a time derivative of the sine function?
5acd430a07355d001abf3ae6
True
The Schrödinger equation
115
What equates the energy operator to the partial energy of a particle or a system?
5acd430a07355d001abf3ae7
True
a set of permitted states, each characterized by an energy level
509
What describes the space-and-time dependence of a rapidly changing wave function of quantum systems?
5acd430a07355d001abf3ae8
True
discrete
499
what is a set of permitted states, none of which are characterized by an energy level?
5acd430a07355d001abf3ae9
True
energy states
907
In the case of an electromagnetic wave these are called quanta of light or protons
5acd430a07355d001abf3aea
True
In quantum mechanics, energy is defined in terms of the energy operator as a time derivative of the wave function. The Schrödinger equation equates the energy operator to the full energy of a particle or a system. Its results can be considered as a definition of measurement of energy in quantum mechanics. The Schrödinger equation describes the space- and time-dependence of a slowly changing (non-relativistic) wave function of quantum systems. The solution of this equation for a bound system is discrete (a set of permitted states, each characterized by an energy level) which results in the concept of quanta. In the solution of the Schrödinger equation for any oscillator (vibrator) and for electromagnetic waves in a vacuum, the resulting energy states are related to the frequency by Planck's relation:  (where  is Planck's constant and  the frequency). In the case of an electromagnetic wave these energy states are called quanta of light or photons.
What is it called when the rest mass of individual particles is destroyed but the inertia equivalent of the system of the two particles remains?
5729f8db6aef051400155174
electron–positron annihilation
22
False
What is the inverse process called?
5729f8db6aef051400155175
pair creation
441
False
What is the process in which the rest mass of particles is created from energy of two or more annihilating photons?
5729f8db6aef051400155176
pair creation
441
False
electron–positron annihilation
22
What is it called when the rest mass of individual particles is destroyed but the inertia equivalent of the system of the three particles remains?
5acd438207355d001abf3b18
True
pair creation
441
What is the converse process called?
5acd438207355d001abf3b19
True
is destroyed and changed to non-matter energy
607
What is the process in which the rest mass of particles is destroyed from energy of two or more annihilating photons?
5acd438207355d001abf3b1a
True
electrons and positrons
582
what is created and changed to non-matter energy?
5acd438207355d001abf3b1b
True
the photons
654
What is matter energy?
5acd438207355d001abf3b1c
True
For example, consider electron–positron annihilation, in which the rest mass of individual particles is destroyed, but the inertia equivalent of the system of the two particles (its invariant mass) remains (since all energy is associated with mass), and this inertia and invariant mass is carried off by photons which individually are massless, but as a system retain their mass. This is a reversible process – the inverse process is called pair creation – in which the rest mass of particles is created from energy of two (or more) annihilating photons. In this system the matter (electrons and positrons) is destroyed and changed to non-matter energy (the photons). However, the total system mass and energy do not change during this interaction.
What states that there are strict limits to how efficiently heat can be converted into a work in a cyclic process?
5729f9511d04691400779695
Carnot's theorem
135
False
What is the direction of transformations in energy?
5729f9511d04691400779696
what kind of energy is transformed to what other kind
295
False
What is often determined by entropy considerations?
5729f9511d04691400779697
direction of transformations in energy
255
False
Why are certain larger transformations not permitted?
5729f9511d04691400779698
because it is statistically unlikely that energy or matter will randomly move into more concentrated forms or smaller spaces
582
False
Carnot's theorem
135
What states that there are no limits to how efficiently heat can be converted into a work in a cyclic process?
5acd447e07355d001abf3b4c
True
what kind of energy is transformed to what other kind
295
What is the direction of translations in energy?
5acd447e07355d001abf3b4d
True
direction of transformations in energy
255
What is never determined by entropy considerations?
5acd447e07355d001abf3b4e
True
because it is statistically unlikely that energy or matter will randomly move into more concentrated forms or smaller spaces
582
Why are certain larger transformations permitted?
5acd447e07355d001abf3b4f
True
entropy
373
what is non-equal energy spread among all available degrees of freedom
5acd447e07355d001abf3b50
True
There are strict limits to how efficiently heat can be converted into work in a cyclic process, e.g. in a heat engine, as described by Carnot's theorem and the second law of thermodynamics. However, some energy transformations can be quite efficient. The direction of transformations in energy (what kind of energy is transformed to what other kind) is often determined by entropy (equal energy spread among all available degrees of freedom) considerations. In practice all energy transformations are permitted on a small scale, but certain larger transformations are not permitted because it is statistically unlikely that energy or matter will randomly move into more concentrated forms or smaller spaces.
Name an example of a heavy isotope?
5729fc3caf94a219006aa71d
uranium
434
False
Name another example of a heavy isotope.
5729fc3caf94a219006aa71e
thorium
446
False
What is a process ultimately using the gravitational potential energy in the creation of these heavy elements before they were incorporated into the solar system and the Earth?
5729fc3caf94a219006aa71f
nucleosynthesis
459
False
In the case of a chemical explosion, what is transformed to kinetic energy and thermal energy in a short time?
5729fc3caf94a219006aa720
chemical potential energy
866
False
uranium
434
Name an example of a heavy transitope?
5acd454407355d001abf3b74
True
thorium
446
Name another example of a heavy transitope.
5acd454407355d001abf3b75
True
nucleosynthesis
459
What is a process ultimately using the gravitational potential energy in the creation of these heavy elements before they were incorporated into the lunar system and the Earth?
5acd454407355d001abf3b76
True
chemical potential energy
866
In the case of a chemical explosion, what is transformed to kinetic energy and wind energy in a short time?
5acd454407355d001abf3b77
True
kinetic or radiant energy
222
what active types of energy can be transformed?
5acd454407355d001abf3b78
True
Energy transformations in the universe over time are characterized by various kinds of potential energy that has been available since the Big Bang later being "released" (transformed to more active types of energy such as kinetic or radiant energy) when a triggering mechanism is available. Familiar examples of such processes include nuclear decay, in which energy is released that was originally "stored" in heavy isotopes (such as uranium and thorium), by nucleosynthesis, a process ultimately using the gravitational potential energy released from the gravitational collapse of supernovae, to store energy in the creation of these heavy elements before they were incorporated into the solar system and the Earth. This energy is triggered and released in nuclear fission bombs or in civil nuclear power generation. Similarly, in the case of a chemical explosion, chemical potential energy is transformed to kinetic energy and thermal energy in a very short time. Yet another example is that of a pendulum. At its highest points the kinetic energy is zero and the gravitational potential energy is at maximum. At its lowest point the kinetic energy is at maximum and is equal to the decrease of potential energy. If one (unrealistically) assumes that there is no friction or other losses, the conversion of energy between these processes would be perfect, and the pendulum would continue swinging forever.
When does energy give rise to weight?
5729fcffaf94a219006aa725
when it is trapped in a system with zero momentum
28
False
Mass is also equivalent to what?
5729fcffaf94a219006aa726
certain amount of energy
208
False
Who created the formula E = mc2?
5729fcffaf94a219006aa727
Albert Einstein
355
False
In what year did Einstein create E = mc2?
5729fcffaf94a219006aa728
1905
372
False
What quantifies the relationship between rest-mass and rest-energy within the concept of special relativity?
5729fcffaf94a219006aa729
E = mc²
335
False
when it is trapped in a system with zero momentum
28
When does energy give rise to height?
5acd46d507355d001abf3bcc
True
certain amount of energy
208
Mass is not equivalent to what?
5acd46d507355d001abf3bcd
True
Albert Einstein
355
Who created the formula E = nc2?
5acd46d507355d001abf3bce
True
1905
372
In what year did Weinstein create E = mc2?
5acd46d507355d001abf3bcf
True
E = mc²
335
What quantifies the relationship between rest-mass and rest-energy outside of the concept of special relativity?
5acd46d507355d001abf3bd0
True
Energy gives rise to weight when it is trapped in a system with zero momentum, where it can be weighed. It is also equivalent to mass, and this mass is always associated with it. Mass is also equivalent to a certain amount of energy, and likewise always appears associated with it, as described in mass-energy equivalence. The formula E = mc², derived by Albert Einstein (1905) quantifies the relationship between rest-mass and rest-energy within the concept of special relativity. In different theoretical frameworks, similar formulas were derived by J. J. Thomson (1881), Henri Poincaré (1900), Friedrich Hasenöhrl (1904) and others (see Mass-energy equivalence#History for further information).
Matter may be converted to what?
5729fd8e6aef05140015517a
energy
27
False
Energy may be converted to what?
5729fd8e6aef05140015517b
Matter
0
False
Why is a loss of energy difficult to measure by weight?
5729fd8e6aef05140015517c
mass equivalent of a unit of energy is minuscule
583
False
Where are examples of energy transformation into matter found?
5729fd8e6aef05140015517d
high-energy nuclear physics
881
False
energy
27
Matter can't be converted to what?
5acd4c3307355d001abf3c56
True
Matter
0
Energy can't be converted to what?
5acd4c3307355d001abf3c57
True
mass equivalent of a unit of energy is minuscule
583
Why is a gain of energy difficult to measure by weight?
5acd4c3307355d001abf3c58
True
high-energy nuclear physics
881
Where are examples of energy transformation into matter not found?
5acd4c3307355d001abf3c59
True
joules
481
what equals 12 megatons of TNT
5acd4c3307355d001abf3c5a
True
Matter may be converted to energy (and vice versa), but mass cannot ever be destroyed; rather, mass/energy equivalence remains a constant for both the matter and the energy, during any process when they are converted into each other. However, since  is extremely large relative to ordinary human scales, the conversion of ordinary amount of matter (for example, 1 kg) to other forms of energy (such as heat, light, and other radiation) can liberate tremendous amounts of energy (~ joules = 21 megatons of TNT), as can be seen in nuclear reactors and nuclear weapons. Conversely, the mass equivalent of a unit of energy is minuscule, which is why a loss of energy (loss of mass) from most systems is difficult to measure by weight, unless the energy loss is very large. Examples of energy transformation into matter (i.e., kinetic energy into particles with rest mass) are found in high-energy nuclear physics.
Thermodynamics divides energy information into what two kinds?
5729fe926aef051400155182
reversible processes and irreversible processes
61
False
What divides energy transformation into two kinds reversible processes and irreversible processes?
5729fe926aef051400155183
Thermodynamics
0
False
A reversible process is one in which this does not happen.
5729fe926aef051400155184
dissipation
406
False
reversible processes and irreversible processes
61
Thermodynamics multiplies energy information into what two kinds?
5acd59f407355d001abf3e4e
True
Thermodynamics
0
What doesn't divides energy transformation into two kinds reversible processes and irreversible processes?
5acd59f407355d001abf3e4f
True
dissipation
406
A reversible process is one in which this happens.
5acd59f407355d001abf3e50
True
conversion of energy from one type of potential field to another
448
What isn't reversible?
5acd59f407355d001abf3e51
True
energy
869
What must not stay partly as heat?
5acd59f407355d001abf3e52
True
Thermodynamics divides energy transformation into two kinds: reversible processes and irreversible processes. An irreversible process is one in which energy is dissipated (spread) into empty energy states available in a volume, from which it cannot be recovered into more concentrated forms (fewer quantum states), without degradation of even more energy. A reversible process is one in which this sort of dissipation does not happen. For example, conversion of energy from one type of potential field to another, is reversible, as in the pendulum system described above. In processes where heat is generated, quantum states of lower energy, present as possible excitations in fields between atoms, act as a reservoir for part of the energy, from which it cannot be recovered, in order to be converted with 100% efficiency into other forms of energy. In this case, the energy must partly stay as heat, and cannot be completely recovered as usable energy, except at the price of an increase in some other kind of heat-like increase in disorder in quantum states, in the universe (such as an expansion of matter, or a randomisation in a crystal).
As the universe evolves in time, more and more of its energy becomes trapped in what?
5729ff176aef051400155192
irreversible states
80
False
What is it referred to when more and more of energy becomes trapped in irreversible states?
5729ff176aef051400155193
inevitable thermodynamic heat death of the universe
190
False
In this heat death of energy, what does not change?
5729ff176aef051400155194
energy of the universe
266
False
irreversible states
80
As the universe evolves in time, less and less of its energy becomes trapped in what?
5acd5a8c07355d001abf3e80
True
inevitable thermodynamic heat death of the universe
190
What is it referred to when more and more of energy becomes freed from irreversible states?
5acd5a8c07355d001abf3e81
True
energy of the universe
266
In this heat death of energy, what changes?
5acd5a8c07355d001abf3e82
True
fraction
314
how much energy is not available to do work through a heat engine?
5acd5a8c07355d001abf3e83
True
generators
456
what is not attached to heat engines?
5acd5a8c07355d001abf3e84
True
As the universe evolves in time, more and more of its energy becomes trapped in irreversible states (i.e., as heat or other kinds of increases in disorder). This has been referred to as the inevitable thermodynamic heat death of the universe. In this heat death the energy of the universe does not change, but the fraction of energy which is available to do work through a heat engine, or be transformed to other usable forms of energy (through the use of generators attached to heat engines), grows less and less.
According to what, energy can neither be created nor destroyed by itself?
5729ffedaf94a219006aa743
conservation of energy
13
False
The total inflow of energy into a system must equal what?
5729ffedaf94a219006aa744
total outflow of energy from the system, plus the change in the energy contained within the system
187
False
What can neither be created nor destroyed by itself; it can only be transformed?
5729ffedaf94a219006aa745
energy
37
False
conservation of energy
13
According to what, energy can either be created or destroyed by itself?
5acd5b2a07355d001abf3e98
True
total inflow of energy into a system must equal the total outflow of energy from the system, plus the change in the energy contained within the system
135
The total inflow of energy into a system must not equal what?
5acd5b2a07355d001abf3e99
True
energy
37
What can neither be created nor destroyed by itself and can't be transformed?
5acd5b2a07355d001abf3e9a
True
a system of particles
409
whose interactions depend explicitly on time?
5acd5b2a07355d001abf3e9b
True
constant
547
total energy of the system never remains what?
5acd5b2a07355d001abf3e9c
True
According to conservation of energy, energy can neither be created (produced) nor destroyed by itself. It can only be transformed. The total inflow of energy into a system must equal the total outflow of energy from the system, plus the change in the energy contained within the system. Energy is subject to a strict global conservation law; that is, whenever one measures (or calculates) the total energy of a system of particles whose interactions do not depend explicitly on time, it is found that the total energy of the system always remains constant.
What shows that the conservation of energy is a mathematical consequence of translational symmetry of time?
572a0071af94a219006aa749
Noether's theorem
71
False
What is the quantity which is canonical conjugate to time?
572a0071af94a219006aa74a
energy
403
False
This mathematical entanglement of energy and time results in what?
572a0071af94a219006aa74b
the uncertainty principle
530
False
What states it is impossible to define the exact amount of energy during any definite time interval?
572a0071af94a219006aa74c
uncertainty principle
534
False
Noether's theorem
71
What shows that the conservation of energy is a mathematical consequence of translational asymmetry of time?
5acd5c0607355d001abf3ebe
True
energy
403
What is the quality which is canonical conjugate to time?
5acd5c0607355d001abf3ebf
True
the uncertainty principle
530
This mathematical entanglement of energy and space results in what?
5acd5c0607355d001abf3ec0
True
uncertainty principle
534
What states it is possible to define the exact amount of energy during any definite time interval?
5acd5c0607355d001abf3ec1
True
energy conservation
701
what should be confused with the uncertainty principle?
5acd5c0607355d001abf3ec2
True
This law is a fundamental principle of physics. As shown rigorously by Noether's theorem, the conservation of energy is a mathematical consequence of translational symmetry of time, a property of most phenomena below the cosmic scale that makes them independent of their locations on the time coordinate. Put differently, yesterday, today, and tomorrow are physically indistinguishable. This is because energy is the quantity which is canonical conjugate to time. This mathematical entanglement of energy and time also results in the uncertainty principle - it is impossible to define the exact amount of energy during any definite time interval. The uncertainty principle should not be confused with energy conservation - rather it provides mathematical limits to which energy can in principle be defined and measured.
What are simply lowest quantum mechanical energy state of photons?
572a00d23f37b31900478637
Virtual photons
276
False
What is responsible for electrostatic interaction between electric charges?
572a00d23f37b31900478638
Virtual photons
276
False
What results in Coulomb law?
572a00d23f37b31900478639
electrostatic interaction between electric charges
386
False
Virtual photons
276
What are simply highest quantum mechanical energy state of photons?
5acd5cc607355d001abf3ed8
True
Virtual photons
276
What is responsible for non-electrostatic interaction between electric charges?
5acd5cc607355d001abf3ed9
True
electrostatic interaction between electric charges
386
What results in Casimir law?
5acd5cc607355d001abf3eda
True
particle physics
3
In what type of physics, does this equality permit a qualitative understanding of virtual particles which carry momentum?
5acd5cc607355d001abf3edb
True
fundamental interactions
249
what is not known as fundamental forces?
5acd5cc607355d001abf3edc
True
In particle physics, this inequality permits a qualitative understanding of virtual particles which carry momentum, exchange by which and with real particles, is responsible for the creation of all known fundamental forces (more accurately known as fundamental interactions). Virtual photons (which are simply lowest quantum mechanical energy state of photons) are also responsible for electrostatic interaction between electric charges (which results in Coulomb law), for spontaneous radiative decay of exited atomic and nuclear states, for the Casimir force, for van der Waals bond forces and some other observable phenomena.
What can be considered for the special case of systems which are closed to transfers of matter?
572a016b3f37b3190047863d
Energy transfer
0
False
The portion of energy which does not do work during the transfer is called what?
572a016b3f37b3190047863e
heat
344
False
Give one example of how energy can be transferred between systems?
572a016b3f37b3190047863f
transmission of electromagnetic energy via photons
443
False
Energy transfer
0
What can be considered for the typical case of systems which are opened to transfers of matter?
5acd5d9e07355d001abf3efe
True
heat
344
The portion of energy which works during the transfer is called what?
5acd5d9e07355d001abf3eff
True
transmission of electromagnetic energy via photons
443
Give one example of how energy cannot be transferred between systems?
5acd5d9e07355d001abf3f00
True
thermal
585
the inductive transer of what kind of energy?
5acd5d9e07355d001abf3f01
True
photons
486
what are physical collisions which don't transfer kinetic energy?
5acd5d9e07355d001abf3f02
True
Energy transfer can be considered for the special case of systems which are closed to transfers of matter. The portion of the energy which is transferred by conservative forces over a distance is measured as the work the source system does on the receiving system. The portion of the energy which does not do work during the transfer is called heat.[note 4] Energy can be transferred between systems in a variety of ways. Examples include the transmission of electromagnetic energy via photons, physical collisions which transfer kinetic energy,[note 5] and the conductive transfer of thermal energy.
What asserts that energy is always conserved and that heat flow is a form of energy transfer.
572a01dc1d046914007796c1
first law of thermodynamics
4
False
The first law of thermodynamics asserts that what is always conserved and that heat flow is a form of energy transfer?
572a01dc1d046914007796c2
energy
45
False
What is a commonly used corollary of the first law?
572a01dc1d046914007796c3
for a system subject only to pressure forces and heat transfer (e.g., a cylinder-full of gas) without chemical changes
292
False
first law of thermodynamics
4
What asserts that energy is always conserved and that cool flow is a form of energy transfer.
5acd5e5307355d001abf3f30
True
energy
152
The first law of thermodynamics asserts that what is never conserved and that heat flow is a form of energy transfer?
5acd5e5307355d001abf3f31
True
for a system subject only to pressure forces and heat transfer (e.g., a cylinder-full of gas) without chemical changes
292
What is a never used corollary of the first law?
5acd5e5307355d001abf3f32
True
system subject only to pressure forces and heat transfer
298
what is an example of a pyramid-full of gas
5acd5e5307355d001abf3f33
True
homogeneous
173
What type of system has a poorly defined temperature and pressure
5acd5e5307355d001abf3f34
True
The first law of thermodynamics asserts that energy (but not necessarily thermodynamic free energy) is always conserved and that heat flow is a form of energy transfer. For homogeneous systems, with a well-defined temperature and pressure, a commonly used corollary of the first law is that, for a system subject only to pressure forces and heat transfer (e.g., a cylinder-full of gas) without chemical changes, the differential change in the internal energy of the system (with a gain in energy signified by a positive quantity) is given as
What is the principle that is vitally important to understanding the behaviour of a quantity closely related to energy?
572a023f1d046914007796c7
entropy
115
False
What is entropy?
572a023f1d046914007796c8
measure of evenness of a distribution of energy between parts of a system
137
False
What is the mathematical result when an isolated system is given more degrees of freedom?
572a023f1d046914007796c9
second law of thermodynamics
502
False
second law of thermodynamics
502
What is the principle that is vitally important to understanding the behaviour of a quantity unrelated to energy?
5acd5efc07355d001abf3f52
True
measure of evenness of a distribution of energy between parts of a system
137
What is dystropy?
5acd5efc07355d001abf3f53
True
second law of thermodynamics
502
What is the non-mathematical result when an isolated system is given more degrees of freedom?
5acd5efc07355d001abf3f54
True
total energy spreads
354
When an isolated system is given less degrees of freedom, what happens to total energy?
5acd5efc07355d001abf3f55
True
Entropy
124
what is a measure of oddness of a distribution of energy between parts of a system?
5acd5efc07355d001abf3f56
True
This principle is vitally important to understanding the behaviour of a quantity closely related to energy, called entropy. Entropy is a measure of evenness of a distribution of energy between parts of a system. When an isolated system is given more degrees of freedom (i.e., given new available energy states that are the same as existing states), then total energy spreads over all available degrees equally without distinction between "new" and "old" degrees. This mathematical result is called the second law of thermodynamics.
East_Prussia
Who defeated the native Prussians during the 13 century?
572a054f6aef0514001551b4
Teutonic Knights
161
False
The Balts were gradually converted into which religion?
572a054f6aef0514001551b5
Christianity
254
False
Which ethnic group become dominant following the 13 century just a few hundred years later?
572a054f6aef0514001551b6
Germans
340
False
What other groups during this period for form minorities?
572a054f6aef0514001551b7
Poles and Lithuanians
388
False
Around when did the Old Prussian language become extinct?
572a054f6aef0514001551b8
17th or early 18th century
733
False
13th
94
In what century did the Teutonic Knights originate?
5a3bdef8cc5d22001a521bda
True
East Prussia
452
What country did the Teutonic Knights come from?
5a3bdef8cc5d22001a521bdb
True
1466
556
In what year was the First Peace of Thorn?
5a3bdef8cc5d22001a521bdc
True
Lithuanians
398
What ethnic group dominated the Kingdom of Poland?
5a3bdef8cc5d22001a521bdd
True
Prussian
689
What language did the Teutonic Knights speak?
5a3bdef8cc5d22001a521bde
True
East Prussia enclosed the bulk of the ancestral lands of the Baltic Old Prussians. During the 13th century, the native Prussians were conquered by the crusading Teutonic Knights. The indigenous Balts who survived the conquest were gradually converted to Christianity. Because of Germanization and colonisation over the following centuries, Germans became the dominant ethnic group, while Poles and Lithuanians formed minorities. From the 13th century, East Prussia was part of the monastic state of the Teutonic Knights. After the Second Peace of Thorn in 1466 it became a fief of the Kingdom of Poland. In 1525, with the Prussian Homage, the province became the Duchy of Prussia. The Old Prussian language had become extinct by the 17th or early 18th century.
Why were the prince electors able to proclaim themselves King of Prussia?
572a14df6aef051400155246
Because the duchy was outside of the core Holy Roman Empire
0
False
In what year were the prince electors elect them selves as King?
572a14df6aef051400155247
1701
158
False
What time period did East Prussia and West Prussia join to become Prussia?
572a14df6aef051400155248
Prussia
536
False
1701
158
In what year was the Holy Roman Empire founded?
5a3be0a2cc5d22001a521be4
True
province
395
What type of government entity was Prussia prior to 1773?
5a3be0a2cc5d22001a521be5
True
by land
326
How could those in eastern Prussia get to the rest of the Prussian State prior to 1772?
5a3be0a2cc5d22001a521be6
True
by land
326
How was the Holy Roman Empire connected to Brandenburg?
5a3be0a2cc5d22001a521be7
True
Because the duchy was outside of the core Holy Roman Empire, the prince-electors of Brandenburg were able to proclaim themselves King of Prussia beginning in 1701. After the annexation of most of western Royal Prussia in the First Partition of the Polish-Lithuanian Commonwealth in 1772, eastern (ducal) Prussia was connected by land with the rest of the Prussian state and was reorganized as a province the following year (1773). Between 1829 and 1878, the Province of East Prussia was joined with West Prussia to form the Province of Prussia.
What year did the Kingdom of Prussia become the leading state of the German Empire?
572a17261d0469140077975f
1871
91
False
What well known treaty would eventually would grant West Prussia to Poland?
572a17261d04691400779760
Versailles
120
False
What year did the Nazi's fall in World War II?
572a17261d04691400779761
1945
439
False
How many died trying to defend the province in Kaliningrad?
572a17261d04691400779763
300,000
953
False
300,000
953
How many people lived in Kaliningrad in 1946?
5a3be201cc5d22001a521bf8
True
1871
91
In what year was the Kingdom of Prussia founded?
5a3be201cc5d22001a521bf9
True
1923
382
In what year did Joseph Stalin come to power?
5a3be201cc5d22001a521bfa
True
The Kingdom of Prussia became the leading state of the German Empire after its creation in 1871. However, the Treaty of Versailles following World War I granted West Prussia to Poland and made East Prussia an exclave of Weimar Germany (the new Polish Corridor separating East Prussia from the rest of Germany), while the Memel Territory was detached and was annexed by Lithuania in 1923. Following Nazi Germany's defeat in World War II in 1945, war-torn East Prussia was divided at Joseph Stalin's insistence between the Soviet Union (the Kaliningrad Oblast in the Russian SFSR and the constituent counties of the Klaipėda Region in the Lithuanian SSR) and the People's Republic of Poland (the Warmian-Masurian Voivodeship). The capital city Königsberg was renamed Kaliningrad in 1946. The German population of the province was largely evacuated during the war or expelled shortly thereafter in the expulsion of Germans after World War II. An estimated 300,000 (around one fifth of the population) died either in war time bombings raids or in the battles to defend the province.[citation needed]
Which group took possession of Prussia in the 13th century?
572a1a461d04691400779781
Teutonic Knights
53
False
Which two areas were slowly Germanized during the 13th century?
572a1a461d04691400779782
Old-Prussian (north) and Polish (south) toponyms
195
False
What did the knights of expansionist polices eventually lead to?
572a1a461d04691400779783
several wars
466
False
What year was the Second Treaty of Thorn enacted?
572a1a461d04691400779784
1466
717
False
1410
652
In what year was the Kingdom of Poland founded?
5a3be402cc5d22001a521c0a
True
Masovia
40
Where did the Teutonic Knights originate?
5a3be402cc5d22001a521c0b
True
Polish-Lithuanian-Teutonic War
499
What was the name of the first war between the Teutonic Knights and the Kingdom of Poland?
5a3be402cc5d22001a521c0c
True
1466
717
In what year was Warmia established?
5a3be402cc5d22001a521c0d
True
Duke Konrad I of Masovia
23
Who led the Kingdom of Poland?
5a3be402cc5d22001a521c0e
True
Upon the invitation of Duke Konrad I of Masovia, the Teutonic Knights took possession of Prussia in the 13th century and created a monastic state to administer the conquered Old Prussians. Local Old-Prussian (north) and Polish (south) toponyms were gradually Germanised. The Knights' expansionist policies, including occupation of Polish Pomerania with Gdańsk/Danzig and western Lithuania, brought them into conflict with the Kingdom of Poland and embroiled them in several wars, culminating in the Polish-Lithuanian-Teutonic War, whereby the united armies of Poland and Lithuania, defeated the Teutonic Order at the Battle of Grunwald (Tannenberg) in 1410. Its defeat was formalised in the Second Treaty of Thorn in 1466 ending the Thirteen Years' War, and leaving the former Polish region Pomerania/Pomerelia under Polish control. Together with Warmia it formed the province of Royal Prussia. Eastern Prussia remained under the Knights, but as a fief of Poland. 1466 and 1525 arrangements by kings of Poland were not verified by the Holy Roman Empire as well as the previous gains of the Teutonic Knights were not verified.
Who converted to Lutheranism and secularized the Prussian branch of the Teutonic Order?
572a1ca66aef05140015529e
Albert of Brandenburg-Ansbach
58
False
In what year did The Teutonic Order lose Eastern Prussia?
572a1ca66aef05140015529f
1525
174
False
What did Albert establish himself as?
572a1ca66aef0514001552a0
first duke of the Duchy of Prussia
214
False
Grand Master Albert of Brandenburg-Ansbach
45
Who led the Teutonic Order?
5a3be545cc5d22001a521c14
True
1569
487
In what year was Albert Frederick born?
5a3be545cc5d22001a521c15
True
1525
174
In what year was the Teutonic Order established?
5a3be545cc5d22001a521c16
True
Walter von Cronberg
306
Who was the Polish crown?
5a3be545cc5d22001a521c17
True
1525
174
In what year did the Teutonic Order begin to rule eastern Prussia?
5a3be545cc5d22001a521c18
True
The Teutonic Order lost eastern Prussia when Grand Master Albert of Brandenburg-Ansbach converted to Lutheranism and secularized the Prussian branch of the Teutonic Order in 1525. Albert established himself as the first duke of the Duchy of Prussia and a vassal of the Polish crown by the Prussian Homage. Walter von Cronberg, the next Grand Master, was enfeoffed with the title to Prussia after the Diet of Augsburg in 1530, but the Order never regained possession of the territory. In 1569 the Hohenzollern prince-electors of the Margraviate of Brandenburg became co-regents with Albert's son, the feeble-minded Albert Frederick.
In what year did Maximilian III die?
572a1e59af94a219006aa7f7
1618
121
False
What happened as a result of Maximilian's death?
572a1e59af94a219006aa7f8
Albert's line died out
149
False
Who revoked the King of Poland's sovereignty over Prussia in 1660?
572a1e59af94a219006aa7f9
Frederick William
505
False
1618
121
In what year was Maximilian III born?
5a3be6f1cc5d22001a521c1e
True
1660
603
In what year was the treaty of Wehlau signed?
5a3be6f1cc5d22001a521c1f
True
1618
121
In what year did Poland attain sovereignty over the Duchy of Prussia?
5a3be6f1cc5d22001a521c20
True
1660
603
In what year was the treaty of Oliva signed?
5a3be6f1cc5d22001a521c21
True
Maximilian II
99
Who was the king of Poland?
5a3be6f1cc5d22001a521c22
True
The Administrator of Prussia, the grandmaster of the Teutonic Order Maximilian III, son of emperor Maximilian II died in 1618. When Maximilian died, Albert's line died out, and the Duchy of Prussia passed to the Electors of Brandenburg, forming Brandenburg-Prussia. Taking advantage of the Swedish invasion of Poland in 1655, and instead of fulfilling his vassal's duties towards the Polish Kingdom, by joining forces with the Swedes and subsequent treaties of Wehlau, Labiau, and Oliva, Elector and Duke Frederick William succeeded in revoking king of Poland's sovereignty over the Duchy of Prussia in 1660. The absolutist elector also subdued the noble estates of Prussia.
Brandenburg was part of what dominating force?
572a206b3f37b3190047870f
Holy Roman Empire
39
False
What jurisdiction was the Prussian lands under?
572a206b3f37b31900478710
Teutonic Order
155
False
Who elected there self as King of Prussia in 1701?
572a206b3f37b31900478711
Frederick III
307
False
What did the former Duchy of Prussia become known as?
572a206b3f37b31900478712
Altpreußen ("Old Prussia")
656
False
1701
371
In what year was Emperor Leopold I crowned?
5a3bedd8cc5d22001a521c28
True
1701
371
In what year was the War of the Spanish Succession?
5a3bedd8cc5d22001a521c29
True
Frederick III
307
Who had been the last leader of the Duchy of Prussia?
5a3bedd8cc5d22001a521c2a
True
1701
371
In what year did the Duchy of Prussia become known as East Prussia?
5a3bedd8cc5d22001a521c2b
True
Leopold I
251
Who was one of the Teutonic Order grandmasters?
5a3bedd8cc5d22001a521c2c
True
Although Brandenburg was a part of the Holy Roman Empire, the Prussian lands were not within the Holy Roman Empire and were with the administration by the Teutonic Order grandmasters under jurisdiction of the Emperor. In return for supporting Emperor Leopold I in the War of the Spanish Succession, Elector Frederick III was allowed to crown himself "King in Prussia" in 1701. The new kingdom ruled by the Hohenzollern dynasty became known as the Kingdom of Prussia. The designation "Kingdom of Prussia" was gradually applied to the various lands of Brandenburg-Prussia. To differentiate from the larger entity, the former Duchy of Prussia became known as Altpreußen ("Old Prussia"), the province of Prussia, or "East Prussia".
What wiped out one third of East Prussia's population during the early 1700's?
572a229a3f37b31900478721
the plague and famine
61
False
What was lost in Prussia's history during the Plague?
572a229a3f37b31900478722
speakers of Old Prussian
116
False
What military overran much of East Prussia?
572a229a3f37b31900478723
Russian troops
546
False
Approximately one-third of East Prussia's population died in the plague and famine of 1709–1711, including the last speakers of Old Prussian. The plague, probably brought by foreign troops during the Great Northern War, killed 250,000 East Prussians, especially in the province's eastern regions. Crown Prince Frederick William I led the rebuilding of East Prussia, founding numerous towns. Thousands of Protestants expelled from the Archbishopric of Salzburg were allowed to settle in depleted East Prussia. The province was overrun by Imperial Russian troops during the Seven Years' War.
In what year was Royal Prussia annexed?
572a268f6aef051400155312
1772
7
False
In what year was the territory of Warmia incorporated?
572a268f6aef051400155313
31 January 1773
494
False
What was ratified in 1773 in Prussia?
572a268f6aef051400155314
The Polish Partition Sejm
714
False
1772
7
In what year was Marienwerder founded?
5a3bf219cc5d22001a521c3c
True
Marienwerder
690
What was the capital of Royal Prussia?
5a3bf219cc5d22001a521c3d
True
Marienwerder
690
What was capital of Poland?
5a3bf219cc5d22001a521c3e
True
Frederick the Great
57
Who was the king of Poland?
5a3bf219cc5d22001a521c3f
True
1773
505
In what year did Ducal Prussia cease to exist?
5a3bf219cc5d22001a521c40
True
In the 1772 First Partition of Poland, the Prussian king Frederick the Great annexed neighboring Royal Prussia, i.e. the Polish voivodeships of Pomerania (Gdańsk Pomerania or Pomerelia), Malbork, Chełmno and the Prince-Bishopric of Warmia, thereby bridging the "Polish Corridor" between his Prussian and Farther Pomeranian lands and cutting remaining Poland off the Baltic Coast. The territory of Warmia was incorporated into the lands of former Ducal Prussia, which, by administrative deed of 31 January 1773 were named East Prussia. The former Polish Pomerelian lands beyond the Vistula River together with Malbork and Chełmno Land formed the Province of West Prussia with its capital at Marienwerder (Kwidzyn). The Polish Partition Sejm ratified the cession on 30 September 1773, whereafter Frederick officially went on to call himself a King "of" Prussia.
What defeat led to Prussia having to swear its allegiance to Napoleon?
572a29476aef05140015532a
Battle of Jena-Auerstedt
56
False
What city did King Frederick William use to flee Prussia?
572a29476aef05140015532b
Königsberg
272
False
What year did Napoleon end of the War of the Fourth Coalition?
572a29476aef05140015532c
1807
415
False
Prussian
35
In what country is Konigsberg?
5a3bf3b1cc5d22001a521c46
True
General Count Friedrich Adolf von Kalkreuth
708
Who was the leader of the army Napoleon beat at the Battle of Friedland?
5a3bf3b1cc5d22001a521c48
True
General Anton Wilhelm von L'Estocq
457
What military leader did Napoleon beat at the Battle of Jena-Auerstedt?
5a3bf3b1cc5d22001a521c49
True
Prussian
35
In what country was Memel?
5a3bf3b1cc5d22001a521c4a
True
After the disastrous defeat of the Prussian Army at the Battle of Jena-Auerstedt in 1806, Napoleon occupied Berlin and had the officials of the Prussian General Directory swear an oath of allegiance to him, while King Frederick William III and his consort Louise fled via Königsberg and the Curonian Spit to Memel. The French troops immediately took up pursuit but were delayed in the Battle of Eylau on 9 February 1807 by an East Prussian contingent under General Anton Wilhelm von L'Estocq. Napoleon had to stay at the Finckenstein Palace, but in May, after a siege of 75 days, his troops led by Marshal François Joseph Lefebvre were able to capture the city Danzig, which had been tenaciously defended by General Count Friedrich Adolf von Kalkreuth. On 14 June, Napoleon ended the War of the Fourth Coalition with his victory at the Battle of Friedland. Frederick William and Queen Louise met with Napoleon for peace negotiations, and on 9 July the Prussian king signed the Treaty of Tilsit.
Who instigated the Prussian reforms?
572a2a906aef051400155330
Heinrich Friedrich Karl vom und zum Stein and Karl August von Hardenberg
46
False
What was included in the reform?
572a2a906aef051400155331
emancipation of the serfs and Jews
257
False
In what year was East and West Prussia first united?
572a2a906aef051400155332
1824
631
False
When did East and West Prussia split again?
572a2a906aef051400155333
1878
796
False
Heinrich Friedrich Karl vom und zum Stein
46
Who was the leader of the Province of Prussia?
5a3bf528cc5d22001a521c50
True
Karl August von Hardenberg
92
Who was the first leader of the Regierungsbezrik of Allenstein?
5a3bf528cc5d22001a521c51
True
Heinrich Friedrich Karl vom und zum Stein
46
Who led the East Prussian province in 1878?
5a3bf528cc5d22001a521c52
True
Karl August von Hardenberg
92
Who led the West Prussian province in 1878?
5a3bf528cc5d22001a521c53
True
Regierungsbezirk of Allenstein
538
What did the northern districts of East Prussia form in 1905?
5a3bf528cc5d22001a521c54
True
The succeeding Prussian reforms instigated by Heinrich Friedrich Karl vom und zum Stein and Karl August von Hardenberg included the implementation of an Oberlandesgericht appellation court at Königsberg, a municipal corporation, economic freedom as well as emancipation of the serfs and Jews. In the course of the Prussian restoration by the 1815 Congress of Vienna, the East Prussian territories were re-arranged in the Regierungsbezirke of Gumbinnen and Königsberg. From 1905, the southern districts of East Prussia formed the separate Regierungsbezirk of Allenstein. East and West Prussia were first united in personal union in 1824, and then merged in a real union in 1829 to form the Province of Prussia. The united province was again split into separate East and West Prussian provinces in 1878.
Was the population of the Prussian province in 1900?
572a2d163f37b3190047876d
1,996,626 people
43
False
Which religious group made up the majority of the population in Prussia?
572a2d163f37b3190047876e
Protestants
98
False
Due to Germanization which three groups saw a decrease in Prussia?
572a2d163f37b3190047876f
Masurians, Kursenieki and Prussian Lithuanians
268
False
1,698,465
88
How many people spoke the Low Prussian dialect in East Prussia?
5a3bf619cc5d22001a521c5a
True
Roman Catholics
119
What religion were most Prussian Lithuanians?
5a3bf619cc5d22001a521c5b
True
300,000
633
How many Kursenieki were there in the areas around the Curonian lagoon?
5a3bf619cc5d22001a521c5c
True
High Prussian
217
What language did most of the Jews speak?
5a3bf619cc5d22001a521c5d
True
Protestants
98
What religion were the Kursenieki?
5a3bf619cc5d22001a521c5e
True
The population of the province in 1900 was 1,996,626 people, with a religious makeup of 1,698,465 Protestants, 269,196 Roman Catholics, and 13,877 Jews. The Low Prussian dialect predominated in East Prussia, although High Prussian was spoken in Warmia. The numbers of Masurians, Kursenieki and Prussian Lithuanians decreased over time due to the process of Germanization. The Polish-speaking population concentrated in the south of the province (Masuria and Warmia) and all German geographic atlases at the start of 20th century showed the southern part of East Prussia as Polish with the number of Poles estimated at the time to be 300,000. Kursenieki inhabited the areas around the Curonian lagoon, while Lithuanian-speaking Prussians concentrated in the northeast in (Lithuania Minor). The Old Prussian ethnic group became completely Germanized over time and the Old Prussian language died out in the 18th century.
Which country invaded east Prussia in World War I?
572a2f743f37b31900478787
Russian Empire
79
False
Why did the Russian army face such little resistance when moving through Prussia?
572a2f743f37b31900478788
German Army had been directed towards the Western Front
195
False
In what year did the battle of Tannenberg take place?
572a2f743f37b31900478789
1914
396
False
1914
396
In what year did World War I start?
5a3bf6c6cc5d22001a521c64
True
Russian Army
119
Who was the German Army fighting on the Western Front?
5a3bf6c6cc5d22001a521c65
True
1914
396
In what year was the First Battle of the Masurian Lakes?
5a3bf6c6cc5d22001a521c66
True
1915
448
In what year did World War I end?
5a3bf6c6cc5d22001a521c67
True
At the beginning of World War I, East Prussia became a theatre of war when the Russian Empire invaded the country. The Russian Army encountered at first little resistance because the bulk of the German Army had been directed towards the Western Front according to the Schlieffen Plan. Despite early success and the capture of the towns of Rastenburg and Gumbinnen, in the Battle of Tannenberg in 1914 and the Second Battle of the Masurian Lakes in 1915, the Russians were decisively defeated and forced to retreat. The Russians were followed by the German Army advancing into Russian territory.
In what year did Germany become a republic?
572a303eaf94a219006aa879
1918
52
False
What was implemented that separated East Prussia from Germany?
572a303eaf94a219006aa87a
Treaty of Versailles
383
False
What was implemented to provide transport to East Prussia?
572a303eaf94a219006aa87b
The Seedienst Ostpreußen
795
False
1918
52
In what year was William II crowned as Emperor?
5a3bf7fdcc5d22001a521c6c
True
1918
52
In what year was the Second Polish Republic established?
5a3bf7fdcc5d22001a521c6d
True
1918
52
In what year was the Treaty of Versailles signed?
5a3bf7fdcc5d22001a521c6e
True
William II
38
Who was the first leader of the Second Polish Republic?
5a3bf7fdcc5d22001a521c6f
True
Germany
58
What was one of the countries that forced Emperor William II to abdicate?
5a3bf7fdcc5d22001a521c70
True
With the forced abdication of Emperor William II in 1918, Germany became a republic. Most of West Prussia and the former Prussian Province of Posen, territories annexed by Prussia in the 18th century Partitions of Poland, were ceded to the Second Polish Republic according to the Treaty of Versailles. East Prussia became an exclave, being separated from mainland Germany. After the Treaty of Versailles, East Prussia was separated from Germany as an exclave; the Memelland was also separated from the province. Because most of West Prussia became part of the Second Polish Republic as the Polish Corridor, the formerly West Prussian Marienwerder region became part of East Prussia (as Regierungsbezirk Westpreußen). Also Soldau district in Allenstein region was part of Second Polish Republic. The Seedienst Ostpreußen was established to provide an independent transport service to East Prussia.
Who was the leader of the East Prussian Nazi Party?
572a38ef3f37b319004787dd
Erich Koch
0
False
What large plans did Koch have?
572a38ef3f37b319004787de
mass-scale industrialization of the largely agricultural province
275
False
What even occurred during the summer of 1932 in Konigsberg?
572a38ef3f37b319004787df
attack on the headquarters of the Social Democrats
541
False
Who was killed in the attack of the Social Democrats?
572a38ef3f37b319004787e0
Gustav Sauf
654
False
1928
52
In what year did Konigsberger Volkszeitung become an executive editor?
5a3bf96acc5d22001a521c7e
True
1932
83
In what year did Kurt Kotzan become the Reichsbanner Chairman of Lotzen?
5a3bf96acc5d22001a521c7f
True
Max von Bahrfeldt
808
Who was the local Reichsbanner Chairman of Konigsberg?
5a3bf96acc5d22001a521c80
True
1928
52
In what year did Max von Bahrfeldt become a politician for the German People's Party?
5a3bf96acc5d22001a521c81
True
1928
52
In what year did the East Prussian Nazi party form?
5a3bf96acc5d22001a521c82
True
Erich Koch headed the East Prussian Nazi party from 1928. He led the district from 1932. This period was characterized by efforts to collectivize the local agriculture and ruthlessness in dealing with his critics inside and outside the Party. He also had long-term plans for mass-scale industrialization of the largely agricultural province. These actions made him unpopular among the local peasants. In 1932 the local paramilitary SA had already started to terrorise their political opponents. On the night of 31 July 1932 there was a bomb attack on the headquarters of the Social Democrats in Königsberg, the Otto-Braun-House. The Communist politician Gustav Sauf was killed; the executive editor of the Social Democrat "Königsberger Volkszeitung", Otto Wyrgatsch, and the German People's Party politician Max von Bahrfeldt were severely injured. Members of the Reichsbanner were attacked and the local Reichsbanner Chairman of Lötzen, Kurt Kotzan, was murdered on 6 August 1932.
How were East Prussians able to pay for land improvements and road construction?
572a3b9caf94a219006aa8ed
publicly funded emergency relief programs
8
False
What was the name of the initiative to help with the new projects in East Prussia?
572a3b9caf94a219006aa8ee
Erich Koch Plan
134
False
What did Koch report to Hitler in 1933?
572a3b9caf94a219006aa8ef
that unemployment had been banished entirely
261
False
August 16, 1933
221
On what date did R. Walther Darre become the Reich Peasant Leader?
5a3bfa41cc5d22001a521c92
True
neopaganist
560
What religion was Erich Koch?
5a3bfa41cc5d22001a521c93
True
August 16, 1933
221
On what date were Koch's "Land" representative arrested?
5a3bfa41cc5d22001a521c94
True
Minister of Agriculture
526
What position did Hitler have?
5a3bfa41cc5d22001a521c95
True
free of unemployment
196
How much unemployment was there throughout the Reich?
5a3bfa41cc5d22001a521c96
True
Through publicly funded emergency relief programs concentrating on agricultural land-improvement projects and road construction, the "Erich Koch Plan" for East Prussia allegedly made the province free of unemployment; on August 16, 1933 Koch reported to Hitler that unemployment had been banished entirely from East Prussia, a feat that gained admiration throughout the Reich. Koch's industrialization plans led him into conflict with R. Walther Darré, who held the office of the Reich Peasant Leader (Reichsbauernführer) and Minister of Agriculture. Darré, a neopaganist rural romantic, wanted to enforce his vision of an agricultural East Prussia. When his "Land" representatives challenged Koch's plans, Koch had them arrested.
In what year did the Nazi's alter around one-third of the toponyms of the area?
572a3ff73f37b31900478823
1938
3
False
Around how many places were renamed when the Nazis entered Prussia?
572a3ff73f37b31900478824
1,500
294
False
What would happen if some didn't comply with the Nazi's with their demands?
572a3ff73f37b31900478825
sent to concentration camps
515
False
1938
3
In what year was the Protestant Reformation started?
5a3bfaf6cc5d22001a521c9c
True
Oberpräsident
393
What position did Adolf Hitler have in 1938?
5a3bfaf6cc5d22001a521c9d
True
1938
3
In what year did Adolf Hitler rise to power?
5a3bfaf6cc5d22001a521c9e
True
1,500
294
How many Polish places were there ordered to be renamed?
5a3bfaf6cc5d22001a521c9f
True
1,500
294
How many Lithuanian places were ordered to be renamed?
5a3bfaf6cc5d22001a521ca0
True
In 1938 the Nazis altered about one-third of the toponyms of the area, eliminating, Germanizing, or simplifying a number of Old Prussian names, as well as those Polish or Lithuanian names originating from colonists and refugees to Prussia during and after the Protestant Reformation. More than 1,500 places were ordered to be renamed by 16 July 1938 following a decree issued by Gauleiter and Oberpräsident Erich Koch and initiated by Adolf Hitler. Many who would not cooperate with the rulers of Nazi Germany were sent to concentration camps and held prisoner there until their death or liberation.
How many people lived in Easy Prussia in 1939?
572a41513f37b31900478829
2.49 million
25
False
Of the population in East Prussia, what percentage of those were German?
572a41513f37b3190047882a
85%
51
False
How many East Prussian Jews were around in 1939?
572a41513f37b3190047882b
3,000
544
False
What happened to those Jews who remained?
572a41513f37b3190047882c
deported and killed in the Holocaust.
618
False
300,000-350,000
183
How many Latvian speaking Kursenieki were there?
5a3bfbebcc5d22001a521cae
True
300,000-350,000
183
How many Lietuvininkai were there?
5a3bfbebcc5d22001a521caf
True
in the northeast
272
Where did the Kursenieki live?
5a3bfbebcc5d22001a521cb0
True
Lithuanian
261
What language did ethnic Germans mostly speak?
5a3bfbebcc5d22001a521cb1
True
300,000-350,000
183
How many Masurians were there?
5a3bfbebcc5d22001a521cb2
True
In 1939 East Prussia had 2.49 million inhabitants, 85% of them ethnic Germans, the others Poles in the south who, according to Polish estimates numbered in the interwar period around 300,000-350,000, the Latvian speaking Kursenieki, and Lietuvininkai who spoke Lithuanian in the northeast. Most German East Prussians, Masurians, Kursieniki, and Lietuvininkai were Lutheran, while the population of Ermland was mainly Roman Catholic due to the history of its bishopric. The East Prussian Jewish Congregation declined from about 9,000 in 1933 to 3,000 in 1939, as most fled from Nazi rule. Those who remained were later deported and killed in the Holocaust.
In what year was the Regierungsbezirk Zichenau annexed?
572a441b6aef0514001553ec
1939
3
False
What other parts of East Prussia were transferred after the annexation of Zichenau?
572a441b6aef0514001553ed
Suwałki to Regierungsbezirk Gumbinnen and Soldau to Regierungsbezirk Allenstein
149
False
Despite all the propaganda that ws presented to the East Prussians what did German populations want within the country?
572a441b6aef0514001553ee
reunification with Germany
349
False
1939
3
In what year was the Regierungsbezirk Zichenau established?
5a3bfcbacc5d22001a521cb8
True
Germans
487
What ethnicity were most people in East Prussia in late 1939?
5a3bfcbacc5d22001a521cb9
True
reunification
349
What did most people in East Prussia want in regards to Germany in 1939?
5a3bfcbacc5d22001a521cba
True
994,092
442
How many Germans were Nazis in 1939?
5a3bfcbacc5d22001a521cbb
True
In 1939 the Regierungsbezirk Zichenau was annexed by Germany and incorporated into East Prussia. Parts of it were transferred to other regions, e.g. Suwałki to Regierungsbezirk Gumbinnen and Soldau to Regierungsbezirk Allenstein. Despite Nazi propaganda presenting all of the regions annexed as possessing significant German populations that wanted reunification with Germany, the Reich's statistics of late 1939 show that only 31,000 out of 994,092 people in this territory were ethnic Germans.[citation needed]
What two countries were East Prussia partitioned into after World Was II?
572a49391d046914007798c5
Poland and the Soviet Union
94
False
What was the city of Konigsberg renamed in to in 1946?
572a49391d046914007798c6
Kaliningrad
425
False
What happened to most of the German population during the war in what is current day Kaliningrad?
572a49391d046914007798c7
evacuated during the war
492
False
1945
51
In what year did the Potsdam Conference occur?
5a3bfd89cc5d22001a521cca
True
Lithuania
329
In what country was Kaliningrad in 1946?
5a3bfd89cc5d22001a521ccb
True
1944
574
In what year did World War II start?
5a3bfd89cc5d22001a521ccc
True
Lithuania
329
What was one of the countries that defeated Nazi Germany?
5a3bfd89cc5d22001a521ccd
True
Soviet Union
109
To what country were the German population expelled?
5a3bfd89cc5d22001a521cce
True
Following Nazi Germany's defeat in World War II in 1945, East Prussia was partitioned between Poland and the Soviet Union according to the Potsdam Conference. Southern East Prussia was placed under Polish administration, while northern East Prussia was divided between the Soviet republics of Russia (the Kaliningrad Oblast) and Lithuania (the constituent counties of the Klaipėda Region). The city of Königsberg was renamed Kaliningrad in 1946. The German population of the province largely evacuated during the war, but several hundreds of thousands died during the years 1944–46 and the remainder were subsequently expelled.
How many Germans were living in East Prussia in 1945?
572a4a9f1d046914007798d3
800,000
152
False
Around how many camps were set up by the Germans during the way?
572a4a9f1d046914007798d4
45 camps
424
False
How many forced labourers were in the largest camp?
572a4a9f1d046914007798d5
48,000
616
False
What were the children that were left behind in East Prussia that was occupied by the Russians referred to as?
572a4a9f1d046914007798d6
Wolf children
773
False
800,000
152
How many Germans were prevented from returning to East Prussia?
5a3bfe73cc5d22001a521cd4
True
48,000
616
How many Wolf children were there?
5a3bfe73cc5d22001a521cd5
True
48,000
616
How many forced labourers were there in the smallest camp?
5a3bfe73cc5d22001a521cd6
True
Deutsch Eylau
650
Where was the smallest camp established?
5a3bfe73cc5d22001a521cd7
True
1945
40
In what year was the first forced labour camp established?
5a3bfe73cc5d22001a521cd8
True
Shortly after the end of the war in May 1945, Germans who had fled in early 1945 tried to return to their homes in East Prussia. An estimated number of 800,000 Germans were living in East Prussia during the summer of 1945. Many more were prevented from returning,[citation needed] and the German population of East Prussia was almost completely expelled by the communist regimes. During the war and for some time thereafter 45 camps were established for about 200,000-250,000 forced labourers, the vast majority of whom were deported to the Soviet Union, including the Gulag camp system. The largest camp with about 48,000 inmates was established at Deutsch Eylau (Iława). Orphaned children who were left behind in the zone occupied by the Soviet Union were referred to as Wolf children.
In what year did the Polish government officially take over the administration in East Prussia?
572a4b8b1d046914007798db
1945
137
False
How was the pre-war population in East Prussia referred to as?
572a4b8b1d046914007798dc
Germanized Poles
636
False
How much did the Ukrainians make up in population as a percentage in East Prussia?
572a4b8b1d046914007798dd
18.5%
553
False
689,000
451
How many were expelled in Operation Vistula in 1947?
5a3bff79cc5d22001a521ce6
True
55,227
835
How many chose to emigrate to West Germany in the 1950s?
5a3bff79cc5d22001a521ce7
True
1945
137
In what year was the Polish Commission for the Determination of Place Names established?
5a3bff79cc5d22001a521ce8
True
689,000
451
How many Lemkos were expelled in Operation Vistula?
5a3bff79cc5d22001a521ce9
True
55,227
835
How many Ukrainians were expelled in Operation Vistula?
5a3bff79cc5d22001a521cea
True
Representatives of the Polish government officially took over the civilian administration of the southern part of East Prussia on 23 May 1945. Subsequently Polish expatriates from Polish lands annexed by the Soviet Union as well as Ukrainians and Lemkos from southern Poland, expelled in Operation Vistula in 1947, were settled in the southern part of East Prussia, now the Polish Warmian-Masurian Voivodeship. In 1950 the Olsztyn Voivodeship counted 689,000 inhabitants, 22.6% of them coming from areas annexed by the Soviet Union, 10% Ukrainians, and 18.5% of them pre-war inhabitants. The remaining pre-war population was treated as Germanized Poles and a policy of re-Polonization was pursued throughout the country Most of these "Autochthones" chose to emigrate to West Germany from the 1950s through 1970s (between 1970 and 1988 55,227 persons from Warmia and Masuria moved to Western Germany). Local toponyms were Polonised by the Polish Commission for the Determination of Place Names.
What year did East Prussia become an official province of Russia?
572a4c637a1753140016ae82
1946
9
False
In who's honor was the city named Kaliningrad from  Konigsberg?
572a4c637a1753140016ae83
Mikhail Kalinin
415
False
Between August 24th and October 26th how many German's left the Oblast to the Soviet Occupation zone?
572a4c637a1753140016ae84
42,094
540
False
41,029
213
How many unregistered persons were there in the Oblast?
5a3c0119cc5d22001a521cfa
True
114,070
194
How many people lived in Kaliningrad?
5a3c0119cc5d22001a521cfb
True
1946
9
In what year was the Memel Territory established?
5a3c0119cc5d22001a521cfc
True
Mikhail Kalinin
415
What had Konigsberg been named after?
5a3c0119cc5d22001a521cfd
True
41,029
213
How many people had lived in the Memel Territory?
5a3c0119cc5d22001a521cfe
True
In April 1946, northern East Prussia became an official province of the Russian SFSR as the "Kyonigsbergskaya Oblast", with the Memel Territory becoming part of the Lithuanian SSR. In June 1946 114,070 German and 41,029 Soviet citizens were registered in the Oblast, with an unknown number of disregarded unregistered persons. In July of that year, the historic city of Königsberg was renamed Kaliningrad to honour Mikhail Kalinin and the area named the Kaliningrad Oblast. Between 24 August and 26 October 1948 21 transports with in total 42,094 Germans left the Oblast to the Soviet Occupation Zone (which became East Germany). The last remaining Germans left in November 1949 (1,401 persons) and January 1950 (7 persons).
What happened to the Curonians who lived in the area in East Prussia?
572a4cf51d046914007798e1
expelled by the Soviet Union
208
False
What did the Russians consider Curonians?
572a4cf51d046914007798e2
fascists
419
False
Where did most of the Curonians flee to in 1958?
572a4cf51d046914007798e3
West Germany
480
False
1955
280
In what year did the evacuation of East Prussia occur?
5a3c0201cc5d22001a521d0e
True
219
243
How many Curonians immigrated to West Germany in 1958?
5a3c0201cc5d22001a521d0f
True
219
243
How many Curonians had German names?
5a3c0201cc5d22001a521d10
True
219
243
How many Curonians fled from the Red Army?
5a3c0201cc5d22001a521d11
True
219
243
How many Curonians were left behind after many immigrated to West Germany in 1958?
5a3c0201cc5d22001a521d12
True
A similar fate befell the Curonians who lived in the area around the Curonian Lagoon. While many fled from the Red Army during the evacuation of East Prussia, Curonians that remained behind were subsequently expelled by the Soviet Union. Only 219 lived along the Curonian Spit in 1955. Many had German names such as Fritz or Hans, a cause for anti-German discrimination. The Soviet authorities considered the Curonians fascists. Because of this discrimination, many immigrated to West Germany in 1958, where the majority of Curonians now live.
Once the German populations was removed, what three groups  settled into the nothern area?
572a4f507a1753140016ae92
ethnic Russians, Belarusians, and Ukrainians
45
False
In the Soviet section to the north, what did they want to expel from their land?
572a4f507a1753140016ae93
eliminating all remnants of German history
171
False
What else happened in the northern part of East Prussia in the now Russian area?
572a4f507a1753140016ae94
names were replaced by new Russian names
244
False
1967
412
In what year was the military zone created?
5a3c02eacc5d22001a521d22
True
1967
412
In what year did Leonid Brezhnev come to power?
5a3c02eacc5d22001a521d23
True
1967
412
In what year did Russia star settling ethnic Russians in the northern part?
5a3c02eacc5d22001a521d24
True
1967
412
In what year was the new "House of the Soviets" completed?
5a3c02eacc5d22001a521d25
True
After the expulsion of the German population ethnic Russians, Belarusians, and Ukrainians were settled in the northern part. In the Soviet part of the region, a policy of eliminating all remnants of German history was pursued. All German place names were replaced by new Russian names. The exclave was a military zone, which was closed to foreigners; Soviet citizens could only enter with special permission. In 1967 the remnants of Königsberg Castle were demolished on the orders of Leonid Brezhnev to make way for a new "House of the Soviets".
What has since been considered in Kalinigrad?
572a50227a1753140016ae98
reverting Kaliningrad's name to its historic name of Königsberg
353
False
What city was completely rebuilt after the Russians and Germans had bombed it?
572a50227a1753140016ae99
Kaliningrad
437
False
How was the removal of the Germans in East Prussia usually handled by the Russians?
572a50227a1753140016ae9a
violent and aggressive
115
False
1944
493
In what year was Konigsberg renamed as Kaliningrad?
5a3c0417cc5d22001a521d2a
True
violent and aggressive
115
What are examples of how the present Russian inhabitants of the Kaliningrad Oblast treatment of Germans?
5a3c0417cc5d22001a521d2b
True
1945
522
In what year did the city centre of Kaliningrad start to be rebuilt?
5a3c0417cc5d22001a521d2c
True
1945
522
In which year did  the present Russian inhabitants of the Kaliningrad Oblast start to emigrate there?
5a3c0417cc5d22001a521d2d
True
Although the 1945–1949 expulsion of Germans from the northern part of former East Prussia was often conducted in a violent and aggressive way by Soviet officials, the present Russian inhabitants of the Kaliningrad Oblast have much less animosity towards Germans. German names have been revived in commercial Russian trade and there is sometimes talk of reverting Kaliningrad's name to its historic name of Königsberg. The city centre of Kaliningrad was completely rebuilt, as British bombs in 1944 and the Soviet siege in 1945 had left it in nothing but ruins.
What were common task of the corporation formed by the urban and rural districts?
572a517b7a1753140016aea6
schools, traffic installations, hospitals, cultural institutions, jails
196
False
What was the name of the corporation that looked over common task?
572a517b7a1753140016aea7
Provinzialverband
285
False
What has since happened from 1919 that involve the provincial diets?
572a517b7a1753140016aea8
elected by the citizens of the provinces
601
False
1919
500
How many representatives serve in each provincial diet?
5a3c05fccc5d22001a521d44
True
1875
6
How many Landeshauptmann are there in total?
5a3c05fccc5d22001a521d45
True
1875
6
In what specific year in the 1880s did the Landdirektor position get renamed as Landeshauptmann?
5a3c05fccc5d22001a521d46
True
directly elected by the citizens
592
How are the assemblies of the urban and rural district positions filled from 1875 to 1919?
5a3c05fccc5d22001a521d47
True
Since 1875, with the strengthening of self-rule, the urban and rural districts (Kreise) within each province (sometimes within each governorate) formed a corporation with common tasks and assets (schools, traffic installations, hospitals, cultural institutions, jails etc.) called the Provinzialverband (provincial association). Initially the assemblies of the urban and rural districts elected representatives for the provincial diets (Provinziallandtage), which were thus indirectly elected. As of 1919 the provincial diets (or as to governorate diets, the so-called Kommunallandtage) were directly elected by the citizens of the provinces (or governorates, respectively). These parliaments legislated within the competences transferred to the provincial associations. The provincial diet of East Prussia elected a provincial executive body (government), the provincial committee (Provinzialausschuss), and a head of province, the Landeshauptmann ("Land Captain"; till the 1880s titled Landdirektor, land director).
Ottoman_Empire
The Ottoman Empire is also known as what three other names?
572a11661d04691400779721
Turkish Empire, Ottoman Turkey or Turkey
185
False
When was the Ottoman empire founded?
572a11661d04691400779722
1299
252
False
Who founded the Ottoman empire?
572a11661d04691400779723
Oghuz Turks
260
False
Where was the Ottoman empire founded?
572a11661d04691400779724
northwestern Anatolia
289
False
Conquests by who began the transformation of the Ottoman sultanate into an Empire?
572a11661d04691400779725
Murad I
346
False
The Ottoman Empire (/ˈɒtəmən/; Ottoman Turkish: دَوْلَتِ عَلِيّهٔ عُثمَانِیّه‎ Devlet-i Aliyye-i Osmâniyye, Modern Turkish: Osmanlı İmparatorluğu or Osmanlı Devleti), also known as the Turkish Empire, Ottoman Turkey or Turkey, was an empire founded in 1299 by Oghuz Turks under Osman I in northwestern Anatolia. After conquests in the Balkans by Murad I between 1362 and 1389, the Ottoman sultanate was transformed into a transcontinental empire and claimant to the caliphate. The Ottomans ended the Byzantine Empire with the 1453 conquest of Constantinople by Mehmed the Conqueror.
Under the reign of who did the Ottoman empire control much of Southeastern Europe?
572a130d6aef05140015523c
Suleiman the Magnificent
96
False
During what centuries was the Ottoman empire in control of much of Southeast Europe?
572a130d6aef05140015523d
16th and 17th centuries
11
False
How many provinces did the Ottoman empire control at the start of the 17th century?
572a130d6aef05140015523e
32 provinces
344
False
Along with provinces what type of states did the Ottoman empire have control over?
572a130d6aef05140015523f
vassal states
370
False
What regions of Africa were under control of the Ottoman empire?
572a130d6aef051400155240
North Africa, and the Horn of Africa
248
False
During the 16th and 17th centuries, in particular at the height of its power under the reign of Suleiman the Magnificent, the Ottoman Empire was a multinational, multilingual empire controlling much of Southeast Europe, Western Asia, the Caucasus, North Africa, and the Horn of Africa. At the beginning of the 17th century the empire contained 32 provinces and numerous vassal states. Some of these were later absorbed into the Ottoman Empire, while others were granted various types of autonomy during the course of centuries.[dn 4]
What was the capital of the Ottoman empire?
572a13e2af94a219006aa7a7
Constantinople
5
False
What Ottoman empire controlled lands contributed to the centre of transactions between East and West ?
572a13e2af94a219006aa7a8
lands around the Mediterranean basin
50
False
When did the Ottoman empire decline?
572a13e2af94a219006aa7a9
into the late nineteenth century
307
False
What nation did the Ottoman empire align with in the 20th century?
572a13e2af94a219006aa7aa
Germany
364
False
What led to the decline of the Ottoman empire?
572a13e2af94a219006aa7ab
military setbacks against European powers
226
False
With Constantinople as its capital and control of lands around the Mediterranean basin, the Ottoman Empire was at the centre of interactions between the Eastern and Western worlds for six centuries. Following a long period of military setbacks against European powers, the Ottoman Empire gradually declined into the late nineteenth century. The empire allied with Germany in the early 20th century, with the imperial ambition of recovering its lost territories, joining in World War I to achieve this ambition on the side of Germany and the Central Powers. While the Empire was able to largely hold its own during the conflict, it was struggling with internal dissent, especially with the Arab Revolt in its Arabian holdings. Starting before the war, but growing increasingly common and violent during it, major atrocities were committed by the Ottoman government against the Armenians, Assyrians and Pontic Greeks. The Empire's defeat and the occupation of part of its territory by the Allied Powers in the aftermath of World War I resulted in the emergence of a new state, Turkey, in the Ottoman Anatolian heartland following the Turkish War of Independence, as well as the founding of modern Balkan and Middle Eastern states and the partitioning of the Ottoman Empire.
An anglicization of the name Osman I results in what word?
572a1481af94a219006aa7b1
Ottoman
9
False
What house was the founder of the Ottoman empire?
572a1481af94a219006aa7b2
House of Osman
115
False
What was another name for the Ottoman Dynasty?
572a1481af94a219006aa7b3
House of Osman
115
False
What is the origin of Osman's name?
572a1481af94a219006aa7b4
Arabic
262
False
In a literal sense what was the Ottoman empire referred to as?
572a1481af94a219006aa7b5
The Supreme State of the Ottomans
403
False
The word Ottoman is a historical anglicisation of the name of Osman I, the founder of the Empire and of the ruling House of Osman (also known as the Ottoman dynasty). Osman's name in turn was derived from the Persian form of the name ʿUthmān عثمان of ultimately Arabic origin. In Ottoman Turkish, the empire was referred to as Devlet-i ʿAliyye-yi ʿOsmâniyye (دَوْلَتِ عَلِيّهٔ عُثمَانِیّه), (literally "The Supreme State of the Ottomans") or alternatively Osmanlı Devleti (عثمانلى دولتى).[dn 5] In Modern Turkish, it is known as Osmanlı İmparatorluğu ("Ottoman Empire") or Osmanlı Devleti ("The Ottoman State").
Who was the father of Osman I?
572a15493f37b319004786c9
Ertuğrul
0
False
How many horsemen did Osman I's father bring to aid the Seljuks of Rum?
572a15493f37b319004786ca
400 horsemen
115
False
When did the Turkish Seljuk Sultanate of Rum reach its demise?
572a15493f37b319004786cb
14th century
241
False
What did the divided Anatolia end up being referred to as?
572a15493f37b319004786cc
Ghazi emirates
346
False
To the edge of what empire did Osman I push Turkish settlements?
572a15493f37b319004786cd
Byzantine Empire
529
False
Ertuğrul, the father of Osman I (founder of the Ottoman Empire), arrived in Anatolia from Merv (Turkmenistan) with 400 horsemen to aid the Seljuks of Rum against the Byzantines. After the demise of the Turkish Seljuk Sultanate of Rum in the 14th century, Anatolia was divided into a patchwork of independent, mostly Turkish states, the so-called Ghazi emirates. One of the emirates was led by Osman I (1258–1326), from whom the name Ottoman is derived. Osman I extended the frontiers of Turkish settlement toward the edge of the Byzantine Empire. It is not well understood how the early Ottomans came to dominate their neighbours, as the history of medieval Anatolia is still little known.
Which city did Osman's son capture?
572a15ffaf94a219006aa7cf
Bursa
184
False
In what year did Osman's son capture an Anatolian city?
572a15ffaf94a219006aa7d0
1324
193
False
What was the name of the son of Osman that captured an Anatolian city?
572a15ffaf94a219006aa7d1
Orhan
133
False
What city was captured from the Venetians in 1387?
572a15ffaf94a219006aa7d2
Thessaloniki
357
False
In what year did the Ottoman's have a victory at Kosovo?
572a15ffaf94a219006aa7d3
1389
444
False
In the century after the death of Osman I, Ottoman rule began to extend over the Eastern Mediterranean and the Balkans. Osman's son, Orhan, captured the northwestern Anatolian city of Bursa in 1324, and made it the new capital of the Ottoman state. This Ottoman conquest meant the loss of Byzantine control over northwestern Anatolia. The important city of Thessaloniki was captured from the Venetians in 1387. The Ottoman victory at Kosovo in 1389 effectively marked the end of Serbian power in the region, paving the way for Ottoman expansion into Europe. The Battle of Nicopolis in 1396, widely regarded as the last large-scale crusade of the Middle Ages, failed to stop the advance of the victorious Ottoman Turks.
What was an objective of Turkey after its expansion into the Balkans?
572a16b56aef051400155256
conquest of Constantinople
71
False
What empire were the controlled lands surrounding Constantinople formerly controlled by?
572a16b56aef051400155257
Byzantine
178
False
What leader invaded Anatolia from the east?
572a16b56aef051400155258
Timur
298
False
Timur was the founder of what?
572a16b56aef051400155259
Timurid Empire
320
False
What battle between Timur and the Ottoman empire took place in 1402?
572a16b56aef05140015525a
Battle of Ankara
375
False
With the extension of Turkish dominion into the Balkans, the strategic conquest of Constantinople became a crucial objective. The empire had managed to control nearly all former Byzantine lands surrounding the city, but in 1402 the Byzantines were temporarily relieved when the Turco-Mongol leader Timur, founder of the Timurid Empire, invaded Anatolia from the east. In the Battle of Ankara in 1402, Timur defeated the Ottoman forces and took Sultan Bayezid I as a prisoner, throwing the empire into disorder. The ensuing civil war lasted from 1402 to 1413 as Bayezid's sons fought over succession. It ended when Mehmed I emerged as the sultan and restored Ottoman power, bringing an end to the Interregnum, also known as the Fetret Devri.
Who recovered Ottoman empire territories in the Balkans in the 1430s to the 1450s?
572a18fc1d04691400779771
Murad II
153
False
On what date were the armies under Władysław III defeated by Murad II?
572a18fc1d04691400779772
10 November 1444
194
False
Władysław III of Poland was also the king of what?
572a18fc1d04691400779773
Hungary
319
False
What battle took place on 10 November 1444?
572a18fc1d04691400779774
Battle of Varna
352
False
In what battle did Murad II leave as the victory in 1448?
572a18fc1d04691400779775
Second Battle of Kosovo
620
False
Part of the Ottoman territories in the Balkans (such as Thessaloniki, Macedonia and Kosovo) were temporarily lost after 1402 but were later recovered by Murad II between the 1430s and 1450s. On 10 November 1444, Murad II defeated the Hungarian, Polish, and Wallachian armies under Władysław III of Poland (also King of Hungary) and John Hunyadi at the Battle of Varna, the final battle of the Crusade of Varna, although Albanians under Skanderbeg continued to resist. Four years later, John Hunyadi prepared another army (of Hungarian and Wallachian forces) to attack the Turks but was again defeated by Murad II at the Second Battle of Kosovo in 1448.
Who was the son of Murad II?
572a19f56aef05140015527a
Mehmed the Conqueror
21
False
What city was conquered on 29 May 1453?
572a19f56aef05140015527b
Constantinople
97
False
What did the Orthodox Church get to keep in exchange for accepting the authority of the Ottoman empire?
572a19f56aef05140015527c
its autonomy and land
175
False
The Orthodox population of Constantinople preferred Ottoman rule instead of what?
572a19f56aef05140015527d
Venetian rule
415
False
What was the main obstacle to the expansion of the Ottoman empire into the peninsula of Italy??
572a19f56aef05140015527e
Albanian resistance
430
False
The son of Murad II, Mehmed the Conqueror, reorganized the state and the military, and conquered Constantinople on 29 May 1453. Mehmed allowed the Orthodox Church to maintain its autonomy and land in exchange for accepting Ottoman authority. Because of bad relations between the states of western Europe and the later Byzantine Empire, the majority of the Orthodox population accepted Ottoman rule as preferable to Venetian rule. Albanian resistance was a major obstacle to Ottoman expansion on the Italian peninsula.
During what years was Suleiman the Magnificent alive?
572a1cdf3f37b319004786eb
1520–1566
26
False
In what year did Suleiman the Magnificent capture Belgrade?
572a1cdf3f37b319004786ec
1521
58
False
Suleiman the Magnificent had an important victory in what battle in 1526?
572a1cdf3f37b319004786ed
Battle of Mohács
234
False
After a victorious battle in 1526 in what present-day nation was Turkish rule expanded to?
572a1cdf3f37b319004786ee
Hungary
320
False
In what siege was Suleiman the Magnificent stopped when attacking Vienna in 1532?
572a1cdf3f37b319004786ef
the Siege of Güns
524
False
Suleiman the Magnificent (1520–1566) captured Belgrade in 1521, conquered the southern and central parts of the Kingdom of Hungary as part of the Ottoman–Hungarian Wars,[not in citation given] and, after his historical victory in the Battle of Mohács in 1526, he established Turkish rule in the territory of present-day Hungary (except the western part) and other Central European territories. He then laid siege to Vienna in 1529, but failed to take the city. In 1532, he made another attack on Vienna, but was repulsed in the Siege of Güns. Transylvania, Wallachia and, intermittently, Moldavia, became tributary principalities of the Ottoman Empire. In the east, the Ottoman Turks took Baghdad from the Persians in 1535, gaining control of Mesopotamia and naval access to the Persian Gulf. In 1555, the Caucasus became officially partitioned for the first time between the Safavids and the Ottomans, a status quo that would remain until the end of the Russo-Turkish War (1768–74). By this partitioning of the Caucasus as signed in the Peace of Amasya, Western Armenia, and Western Georgia fell into Ottoman hands, while Dagestan, Eastern Armenia, Eastern Georgia, and Azerbaijan remained Persian.
France and the Ottoman Empire united against what?
572a1e9daf94a219006aa7fd
Habsburg rule
62
False
Where did the French lay conquest in 1553?
572a1e9daf94a219006aa7fe
Corsica
139
False
The conquest of Nice was an effort by Suleiman and what French king?
572a1e9daf94a219006aa7ff
Francis I
220
False
What were the names of the Ottoman admirals who commanded the conquest of Nice?
572a1e9daf94a219006aa800
Barbarossa Hayreddin Pasha and Turgut Reis
287
False
What ruler recognized the Ottomans in 1547?
572a1e9daf94a219006aa801
Ferdinand
543
False
France and the Ottoman Empire, united by mutual opposition to Habsburg rule, became strong allies. The French conquests of Nice (1543) and Corsica (1553) occurred as a joint venture between the forces of the French king Francis I and Suleiman, and were commanded by the Ottoman admirals Barbarossa Hayreddin Pasha and Turgut Reis. A month prior to the siege of Nice, France supported the Ottomans with an artillery unit during the 1543 Ottoman conquest of Esztergom in northern Hungary. After further advances by the Turks, the Habsburg ruler Ferdinand officially recognized Ottoman ascendancy in Hungary in 1547.
Who argues that there was steep decline and stagnation after the death of Suleiman?
572a20e4af94a219006aa80f
Stephen Lee
28
False
In what year did Suleiman die?
572a20e4af94a219006aa810
1566
94
False
By what year was it argued that the Ottoman empire was merely "a shadow" of what it was in 1566?
572a20e4af94a219006aa811
1699
209
False
Beginning and ending with what years does Lee argue that the rules of the Empire were incompetent?
572a20e4af94a219006aa812
1566 to 1703
695
False
What factor caused inflation in the Ottoman empire?
572a20e4af94a219006aa813
war
1158
False
The stagnation and decline, Stephen Lee argues, was relentless after the death of Suleiman in 1566, interrupted by a few short revivals or reform and recovery. The decline gathered speed so that the Empire in 1699 was, "a mere shadow of that which intimidated East and West alike in 1566." Although there are dissenting scholars, most historians point to "degenerate Sultans, incompetent Grand Viziers, debilitated and ill-equipped armies, corrupt officials, avaricious speculators, grasping enemies, and treacherous friends." The main cause was a failure of leadership, as Lee argues the first 10 sultans from 1292 to 1566, with one exception, had performed admirably. The next 13 sultans from 1566 to 1703, with two exceptions, were lackadaisical or incompetent rulers, says Lee. In a highly centralized system, the failure at the center proved fatal. A direct result was the strengthening of provincial elites who increasingly ignored Constantinople. Secondly the military strength of European enemies grew stronger and stronger, while the Ottoman armies and arms scarcely improved. Finally the Ottoman economic system grew distorted and impoverished, as war caused inflation, world trade moved in other directions, and the deterioration of law and order made economic progress difficult.
Poor rule by what class of people strained the empire?
572a22256aef0514001552f8
Sultans
139
False
Europeans gained on the Ottoman empire in what type of technology?
572a22256aef0514001552f9
military technology
200
False
What types of conservative beliefs slowed the expansion of the empire?
572a22256aef0514001552fa
religious and intellectual
305
False
What battle took place in 1683?
572a22256aef0514001552fb
Battle of Vienna
439
False
The empire ceased its expansion into what area after a battle in 1683?
572a22256aef0514001552fc
Europe
512
False
The effective military and bureaucratic structures of the previous century came under strain during a protracted period of misrule by weak Sultans. The Ottomans gradually fell behind the Europeans in military technology as the innovation that fed the Empire's forceful expansion became stifled by growing religious and intellectual conservatism. But in spite of these difficulties, the Empire remained a major expansionist power until the Battle of Vienna in 1683, which marked the end of Ottoman expansion into Europe.
Avoiding the strength of Ottoman trade was accomplished with the discovery of what?
572a24703f37b3190047872f
new maritime trade routes
17
False
What did the Portuguese discover in 1488?
572a24703f37b31900478730
the Cape of Good Hope
148
False
Where did the Ottoman and Portuguese have Naval wars in the 16th century?
572a24703f37b31900478731
the Indian Ocean
233
False
Who did the Ottomans ally with in the Indian Ocean?
572a24703f37b31900478732
The Somali Muslim Ajuran Empire
279
False
New coins were a proclamation of independence by the Somali Muslim Ajuran Empire from whom?
572a24703f37b31900478733
the Portuguese
528
False
The discovery of new maritime trade routes by Western European states allowed them to avoid the Ottoman trade monopoly. The Portuguese discovery of the Cape of Good Hope in 1488 initiated a series of Ottoman-Portuguese naval wars in the Indian Ocean throughout the 16th century. The Somali Muslim Ajuran Empire, allied with the Ottomans, defied the Portuguese economic monopoly in the Indian Ocean by employing a new coinage which followed the Ottoman pattern, thus proclaiming an attitude of economic independence in regard to the Portuguese.
Which Spaniard led a battle in 1571?
572a25973f37b31900478747
Philip II
48
False
What battle did the Spanish win in 1571?
572a25973f37b31900478748
Battle of Lepanto
111
False
What siege occurred in 1565?
572a25973f37b31900478749
Siege of Malta
313
False
In what year did Venice sign a peace treaty with the Ottomans?
572a25973f37b3190047874a
1573
578
False
After signing a peace treaty with Venice, in what region did the Ottoman empire expand?
572a25973f37b3190047874b
North Africa
650
False
In southern Europe, a Catholic coalition led by Philip II of Spain won a victory over the Ottoman fleet at the Battle of Lepanto (1571). It was a startling, if mostly symbolic, blow to the image of Ottoman invincibility, an image which the victory of the Knights of Malta against the Ottoman invaders in the 1565 Siege of Malta had recently set about eroding. The battle was far more damaging to the Ottoman navy in sapping experienced manpower than the loss of ships, which were rapidly replaced. The Ottoman navy recovered quickly, persuading Venice to sign a peace treaty in 1573, allowing the Ottomans to expand and consolidate their position in North Africa.
What was the late 16th century war against Habsburg Austria known as?
572a27803f37b31900478751
The Long War
118
False
During what years did the Ottoman war against Habsburg Austria occur?
572a27803f37b31900478752
1593–1606
157
False
What were ottoman irregular sharpshooters known as?
572a27803f37b31900478753
Sekban
445
False
What was the population of the Ottoman empire at the beginning of the 17th century?
572a27803f37b31900478754
30 million people
681
False
A war occurring from 1603 to 1618 resulted in what treaty?
572a27803f37b31900478755
Treaty of Nasuh Pasha
1087
False
By contrast, the Habsburg frontier had settled somewhat, a stalemate caused by a stiffening of the Habsburg defences. The Long War against Habsburg Austria (1593–1606) created the need for greater numbers of Ottoman infantry equipped with firearms, resulting in a relaxation of recruitment policy. This contributed to problems of indiscipline and outright rebelliousness within the corps, which were never fully solved. Irregular sharpshooters (Sekban) were also recruited, and on demobilization turned to brigandage in the Jelali revolts (1595–1610), which engendered widespread anarchy in Anatolia in the late 16th and early 17th centuries. With the Empire's population reaching 30 million people by 1600, the shortage of land placed further pressure on the government . In spite of these problems, the Ottoman state remained strong, and its army did not collapse or suffer crushing defeats. The only exceptions were campaigns against the Safavid dynasty of Persia, where many of the Ottoman eastern provinces were lost, some permanently. This 1603–1618 war eventually resulted in the Treaty of Nasuh Pasha, which ceded the entire Caucasus, except westernmost Georgia, back into Iranian Safavid possession. Campaigns during this era became increasingly inconclusive, even against weaker states with much smaller forces, such as Poland or Austria.
Who recaptured Iraq in 1639?
572a28cdaf94a219006aa83d
Murad IV
33
False
Who had control over Iraq before it was recaptured in 1639?
572a28cdaf94a219006aa83e
the Safavids
115
False
When was Kösem murdered?
572a28cdaf94a219006aa83f
1651
606
False
What years define the Köprülü Era?
572a28cdaf94a219006aa840
1656–1703
636
False
What territory was conquered by the Köprülü Vizierate in 1669?
572a28cdaf94a219006aa841
Crete
858
False
During his brief majority reign, Murad IV (1612–1640) reasserted central authority and recaptured Iraq (1639) from the Safavids. The resulting Treaty of Zuhab of that same year decisively parted the Caucasus and adjacent regions between the two neighbouring empires as it had already been defined in the 1555 Peace of Amasya. The Sultanate of women (1648–1656) was a period in which the mothers of young sultans exercised power on behalf of their sons. The most prominent women of this period were Kösem Sultan and her daughter-in-law Turhan Hatice, whose political rivalry culminated in Kösem's murder in 1651. During the Köprülü Era (1656–1703), effective control of the Empire was exercised by a sequence of Grand Viziers from the Köprülü family. The Köprülü Vizierate saw renewed military success with authority restored in Transylvania, the conquest of Crete completed in 1669, and expansion into Polish southern Ukraine, with the strongholds of Khotyn and Kamianets-Podilskyi and the territory of Podolia ceding to Ottoman control in 1676.
Which Grand Vizier attempted a siege of Vienna in 1683?
572a29f63f37b3190047875b
Grand Vizier Kara Mustafa Pasha
79
False
What was the war that took place from 1683 to 1687 known as?
572a29f63f37b3190047875c
the Great Turkish War
174
False
Which polish king led the fight against the Ottoman empire in the Battle of Vienna?
572a29f63f37b3190047875d
Jan III Sobieski
362
False
What was the alliance against the late 17th century Ottoman empire known as?
572a29f63f37b3190047875e
the Holy League
420
False
What treaty was signed 26 January 1699?
572a29f63f37b3190047875f
Treaty of Karlowitz
507
False
This period of renewed assertiveness came to a calamitous end in May 1683 when Grand Vizier Kara Mustafa Pasha led a huge army to attempt a second Ottoman siege of Vienna in the Great Turkish War of 1683–1687. The final assault being fatally delayed, the Ottoman forces were swept away by allied Habsburg, German and Polish forces spearheaded by the Polish king Jan III Sobieski at the Battle of Vienna. The alliance of the Holy League pressed home the advantage of the defeat at Vienna, culminating in the Treaty of Karlowitz (26 January 1699), which ended the Great Turkish War. The Ottomans surrendered control of significant territories, many permanently. Mustafa II (1695–1703) led the counterattack of 1695–96 against the Habsburgs in Hungary, but was undone at the disastrous defeat at Zenta (in modern Serbia), 11 September 1697.
Oltenia is also known as what?
572a2ab6af94a219006aa857
Little Walachia
113
False
The Austro-Turkish war took place over what years?
572a2ab6af94a219006aa858
1716–1718
32
False
The Austro Turkish War culminated in the signing of what treaty?
572a2ab6af94a219006aa859
Treaty of Passarowitz
46
False
The Treaty of Belgrade was the result of a war known as what?
572a2ab6af94a219006aa85a
Austro-Russian–Turkish War
284
False
What port was lost by the Ottoman empire as a result of the Treaty of Belgrade?
572a2ab6af94a219006aa85b
port of Azov
435
False
After the Austro-Turkish War of 1716–1718 the Treaty of Passarowitz confirmed the loss of the Banat, Serbia and "Little Walachia" (Oltenia) to Austria. The Treaty also revealed that the Ottoman Empire was on the defensive and unlikely to present any further aggression in Europe. The Austro-Russian–Turkish War, which was ended by the Treaty of Belgrade in 1739, resulted in the recovery of Serbia and Oltenia, but the Empire lost the port of Azov, north of the Crimean Peninsula, to the Russians. After this treaty the Ottoman Empire was able to enjoy a generation of peace, as Austria and Russia were forced to deal with the rise of Prussia.
What is one university that was formed in the early 18th century of the empire?
572a2cfc1d04691400779817
Istanbul Technical University
123
False
What type of school was established in the empire in 1734?
572a2cfc1d04691400779818
an artillery school
162
False
In 1754 what man convinced the Grand Vizier to allow the use of the printing press?
572a2cfc1d04691400779819
Ibrahim Muteferrika
392
False
Who was the Ottoaman Grand Vizier in 1726?
572a2cfc1d0469140077981a
Nevşehirli Damat İbrahim Pasha
439
False
In what year did an Ottoman press produce its first book?
572a2cfc1d0469140077981b
1729
756
False
Educational and technological reforms came about, including the establishment of higher education institutions such as the Istanbul Technical University. In 1734 an artillery school was established to impart Western-style artillery methods, but the Islamic clergy successfully objected under the grounds of theodicy. In 1754 the artillery school was reopened on a semi-secret basis. In 1726, Ibrahim Muteferrika convinced the Grand Vizier Nevşehirli Damat İbrahim Pasha, the Grand Mufti, and the clergy on the efficiency of the printing press, and Muteferrika was later granted by Sultan Ahmed III permission to publish non-religious books (despite opposition from some calligraphers and religious leaders). Muteferrika's press published its first book in 1729 and, by 1743, issued 17 works in 23 volumes, each having between 500 and 1,000 copies.
Which group supported by Russia entered Balta in 1768?
572a2f0e3f37b3190047877d
Ukrainian Haidamaks
23
False
Near what region was Balta bording?
572a2f0e3f37b3190047877e
Bessarabia
133
False
During what years was the Russo-Turkish war?
572a2f0e3f37b3190047877f
1768–1774
288
False
The Russo-Turkish War resulted in what treaty?
572a2f0e3f37b31900478780
Treaty of Küçük Kaynarca
303
False
The culmination of the Russo-Turkish war granted what to the citizens of Ottoman controlled Provinces in Moldavia?
572a2f0e3f37b31900478781
freedom to worship
363
False
In 1768 Russian-backed Ukrainian Haidamaks, pursuing Polish confederates, entered Balta, an Ottoman-controlled town on the border of Bessarabia in Ukraine, and massacred its citizens and burned the town to the ground. This action provoked the Ottoman Empire into the Russo-Turkish War of 1768–1774. The Treaty of Küçük Kaynarca of 1774 ended the war and provided freedom to worship for the Christian citizens of the Ottoman-controlled provinces of Wallachia and Moldavia. By the late 18th century, a number of defeats in several wars with Russia led some people in the Ottoman Empire to conclude that the reforms of Peter the Great had given the Russians an edge, and the Ottomans would have to keep up with Western technology in order to avoid further defeats.
During what years did the Serbian Revolution occur?
572a301c3f37b3190047878d
1804–1815
24
False
What Serbian monarchy was acknowledged in 1830?
572a301c3f37b3190047878e
Suzerainty of Serbia
132
False
There was a war proclaimed against the Ottoman Sultan in 1821, who declared it?
572a301c3f37b3190047878f
the Greeks
243
False
Some parts of the Ottoman Empire gained independence in what year?
572a301c3f37b31900478790
1829
526
False
What did Europeans refer to the Ottoman empire as in the 19th century?
572a301c3f37b31900478791
the "sick man"
588
False
The Serbian revolution (1804–1815) marked the beginning of an era of national awakening in the Balkans during the Eastern Question. Suzerainty of Serbia as a hereditary monarchy under its own dynasty was acknowledged de jure in 1830. In 1821, the Greeks declared war on the Sultan. A rebellion that originated in Moldavia as a diversion was followed by the main revolution in the Peloponnese, which, along with the northern part of the Gulf of Corinth, became the first parts of the Ottoman Empire to achieve independence (in 1829). By the mid-19th century, the Ottoman Empire was called the "sick man" by Europeans. The suzerain states – the Principality of Serbia, Wallachia, Moldavia and Montenegro – moved towards de jure independence during the 1860s and 1870s.
How many primary schools existed for Christians in the Ottoman empire in 1861?
572a31636aef051400155354
571
202
False
How many Christian pupils were in ottoman schools in 1861?
572a31636aef051400155355
140,000
267
False
Greeks in Istanbul owned how many wholesale companies in 1911?
572a31636aef051400155356
528
632
False
Jews and Christians were offered protection in the form of what assistance by Europe?
572a31636aef051400155357
consuls and citizenship
1009
False
There were how many wholesale companies in Istanbul in 1911?
572a31636aef051400155358
654
595
False
The Christian population of the empire, owing to their higher educational levels, started to pull ahead of the Muslim majority, leading to much resentment on the part of the latter. In 1861, there were 571 primary and 94 secondary schools for Ottoman Christians with 140,000 pupils in total, a figure that vastly exceeded the number of Muslim children in school at the same time, who were further hindered by the amount of time spent learning Arabic and Islamic theology. In turn, the higher educational levels of the Christians allowed them to play a large role in the economy. In 1911, of the 654 wholesale companies in Istanbul, 528 were owned by ethnic Greeks. Of course, it would be a mistake to ignore the geopolitical dimensions of this dynamic. The preponderance of Christian merchants owed not to any innate business sense on their part, although plenty of European observers were keen on making this point. In fact, in many cases, Christians and also Jews were able to gain protection from European consuls and citizenship, meaning they were protected from Ottoman law and not subject to the same economic regulations as their Muslim comrades.
During what years did the Crimean War take place?
572a332b1d0469140077983b
1853–1856
17
False
On what date did the Ottoman empire issue foreign loans to deal with the cost of the war?
572a332b1d0469140077983c
4 August 1854
280
False
Roughly 200,000 individuals of what group left Crimea during the war?
572a332b1d0469140077983d
Crimean Tatars
327
False
Roughly 90% of what group were pushed from their homes or ethnically cleansed during the Caucasian Wars?
572a332b1d0469140077983e
Circassians
477
False
Where did Circassians settle to when leaving their homes in the Caucasus?
572a332b1d0469140077983f
Turkey
659
False
The Crimean War (1853–1856) was part of a long-running contest between the major European powers for influence over territories of the declining Ottoman Empire. The financial burden of the war led the Ottoman state to issue foreign loans amounting to 5 million pounds sterling on 4 August 1854. The war caused an exodus of the Crimean Tatars, about 200,000 of whom moved to the Ottoman Empire in continuing waves of emigration. Toward the end of the Caucasian Wars, 90% of the Circassians were ethnically cleansed and exiled from their homelands in the Caucasus and fled to the Ottoman Empire, resulting in the settlement of 500,000 to 700,000 Circassians in Turkey.[page needed] Some Circassian organisations give much higher numbers, totaling 1–1.5 million deported or killed.
What historian wrote that banks were the single greatest threat to mid-east independence?
572a35beaf94a219006aa8a1
Eugene Rogan
213
False
In what year did the Ottoman Empire declare bankruptcy?
572a35beaf94a219006aa8a2
1875
487
False
What was the administration that the empire used to control its debt called?
572a35beaf94a219006aa8a3
Ottoman Public Debt Administration
587
False
Who served on the debt controlling administration of the Ottoman Empire?
572a35beaf94a219006aa8a4
European men with presidency alternating between France and Britain.
636
False
European capital in the Ottoman empire resulted in what?
572a35beaf94a219006aa8a5
the detriment of local Ottoman interests
854
False
As the Ottoman state attempted to modernize its infrastructure and army in response to threats from the outside, it also opened itself up to a different kind of threat: that of creditors. Indeed, as the historian Eugene Rogan has written, "the single greatest threat to the independence of the Middle East" in the nineteenth century "was not the armies of Europe but its banks." The Ottoman state, which had begun taking on debt with the Crimean War, was forced to declare bankruptcy in 1875. By 1881, the Ottoman Empire agreed to have its debt controlled by an institution known as the Ottoman Public Debt Administration, a council of European men with presidency alternating between France and Britain. The body controlled swaths of the Ottoman economy, and used its position to insure that European capital continued to penetrate the empire, often to the detriment of local Ottoman interests.
Who held back the Bulgarian uprising in 1876?
572a36fe3f37b319004787c5
Ottoman bashi-bazouks
4
False
What war occurred from 1877 to 1878?
572a36fe3f37b319004787c6
Russo-Turkish War
130
False
Bulgaria became independent within the Empire as the result of what war?
572a36fe3f37b319004787c7
The Russo-Turkish War
126
False
What nation attained full independence as a result of the Russo-Turkish war?
572a36fe3f37b319004787c8
Romania
341
False
The Ottoman bashi-bazouks brutally suppressed the Bulgarian uprising of 1876, massacring up to 100,000 people in the process. The Russo-Turkish War (1877–78) ended with a decisive victory for Russia. As a result, Ottoman holdings in Europe declined sharply; Bulgaria was established as an independent principality inside the Ottoman Empire, Romania achieved full independence. Serbia and Montenegro finally gained complete independence, but with smaller territories. In 1878, Austria-Hungary unilaterally occupied the Ottoman provinces of Bosnia-Herzegovina and Novi Pazar.
Millions of Muslims left the empire and migrated to what places?
572a37f06aef051400155398
Anatolia and Eastern Thrace
185
False
When did the Balkan Wars take place?
572a37f06aef051400155399
1912–13
253
False
What was the sole territory that the empire kept in the Balkans after 1913?
572a37f06aef05140015539a
East Thrace (European Turkey)
305
False
How many Muslims fled the Balkans with the Ottoman armies?
572a37f06aef05140015539b
400,000
360
False
Which individual estimated millions of Muslim deaths in the Balkans in the late 19th and early 20th century?
572a37f06aef05140015539c
Justin McCarthy
553
False
As the Ottoman Empire gradually shrank in size, some 7–9 million Turkish-Muslims from its former territories in the Caucasus, Crimea, Balkans, and the Mediterranean islands migrated to Anatolia and Eastern Thrace. After the Empire lost the Balkan Wars (1912–13), it lost all its Balkan territories except East Thrace (European Turkey). This resulted in around 400,000 Muslims fleeing with the retreating Ottoman armies (with many dying from cholera brought by the soldiers), and with some 400,000 non-Muslims fleeing territory still under Ottoman rule. Justin McCarthy estimates that during the period 1821 to 1922 several million Muslims died in the Balkans, with the expulsion of a similar number.
What era kicked off the end of the Ottoman empire?
572a392aaf94a219006aa8c7
Second Constitutional Era
76
False
What was the revolution that sparked the end of the Ottoman Empire?
572a392aaf94a219006aa8c8
the Young Turk Revolution
149
False
The restoration of what happened in 1876?
572a392aaf94a219006aa8c9
the Ottoman constitution
188
False
What were two major parties established by Young Turk members?
572a392aaf94a219006aa8ca
Committee of Union and Progress,” and “Freedom and Accord Party”
850
False
What territories were annexed by Austria-Hungary in 1908?
572a392aaf94a219006aa8cb
Bosnia and Herzegovina
1176
False
The defeat and dissolution of the Ottoman Empire (1908–1922) began with the Second Constitutional Era, a moment of hope and promise established with the Young Turk Revolution. It restored the Ottoman constitution of 1876 and brought in multi-party politics with a two-stage electoral system (electoral law) under the Ottoman parliament. The constitution offered hope by freeing the empire’s citizens to modernize the state’s institutions, rejuvenate its strength, and enable it to hold its own against outside powers. Its guarantee of liberties promised to dissolve inter-communal tensions and transform the empire into a more harmonious place. Instead, this period became the story of the twilight struggle of the Empire. Young Turks movement members once underground (named committee, group, etc.) established (declared) their parties. Among them “Committee of Union and Progress,” and “Freedom and Accord Party” were major parties. On the other end of the spectrum were ethnic parties which included; Poale Zion, Al-Fatat, and Armenian national movement organized under Armenian Revolutionary Federation. Profiting from the civil strife, Austria-Hungary officially annexed Bosnia and Herzegovina in 1908. The last of Ottoman censuses was performed with the 1914 census. Ottoman military reforms resulted with the Ottoman Modern Army which engaged with Italo-Turkish War (1911), Balkan Wars (1912–1913), and continuous unrest (Counter coup followed by restoration and Saviors followed by Raid on Porte) in the Empire up to World War I.
Where did the Ottoman empire begin its part in the first world war?
572a3a453f37b319004787e5
Middle Eastern theatre
94
False
The Battle of Gallipoli and the Siege of Kut resulted in what?
572a3a453f37b319004787e6
Ottoman victories
147
False
The Arab Revolt began in what year?
572a3a453f37b319004787e7
1916
281
False
What was the date that the Armistice of Mudros came to be signed?
572a3a453f37b319004787e8
30 October 1918
480
False
When did the Turkish War of Independence take place?
572a3a453f37b319004787e9
1919–22
832
False
The history of the Ottoman Empire during World War I began with the Ottoman engagement in the Middle Eastern theatre. There were several important Ottoman victories in the early years of the war, such as the Battle of Gallipoli and the Siege of Kut. The Arab Revolt which began in 1916 turned the tide against the Ottomans on the Middle Eastern front, where they initially seemed to have the upper hand during the first two years of the war. The Armistice of Mudros was signed on 30 October 1918, and set the partition of the Ottoman Empire under the terms of the Treaty of Sèvres. This treaty, as designed in the conference of London, allowed the Sultan to retain his position and title. The occupation of Constantinople and İzmir led to the establishment of a Turkish national movement, which won the Turkish War of Independence (1919–22) under the leadership of Mustafa Kemal (later given the surname "Atatürk"). The sultanate was abolished on 1 November 1922, and the last sultan, Mehmed VI (reigned 1918–22), left the country on 17 November 1922. The caliphate was abolished on 3 March 1924.
When did the Russian Caucasus Army advance into eastern Anatolia?
572a3b61af94a219006aa8e3
In 1915
0
False
What ethnic group was deported by the Ottoman Government from eastern Anatolia?
572a3b61af94a219006aa8e4
ethnic Armenian
136
False
How many ethnic Armenians are believed to have died in the Armenian Genocide?
572a3b61af94a219006aa8e5
1.5 million
204
False
Armenian women and children were deported on death marches through what desert?
572a3b61af94a219006aa8e6
the Syrian desert
587
False
Two other ethnic minorities were massacred during Ottoman ethnic cleansing, what were they?
572a3b61af94a219006aa8e7
Greek and Assyrian minorities
817
False
In 1915, as the Russian Caucasus Army continued to advance into eastern Anatolia, the Ottoman government started the deportation of its ethnic Armenian population, resulting in the death of approximately 1.5 million Armenians in what became known as the Armenian Genocide. The genocide was carried out during and after World War I and implemented in two phases: the wholesale killing of the able-bodied male population through massacre and subjection of army conscripts to forced labour, followed by the deportation of women, children, the elderly and infirm on death marches leading to the Syrian desert. Driven forward by military escorts, the deportees were deprived of food and water and subjected to periodic robbery, rape, and systematic massacre. Large-scale massacres were also committed against the Empire's Greek and Assyrian minorities as part of the same campaign of ethnic cleansing.
What was the highest ranked person in the Ottoman Empire until the 19th century?
572a3c5c3f37b31900478801
Sultan was the highest position
219
False
On type of system were the civil administrations of the empire based on?
572a3c5c3f37b31900478802
local administrative units based on the region's characteristics
296
False
Who had control over the clergy in the Ottoman empire?
572a3c5c3f37b31900478803
the state
403
False
What was the main responsibility of the Ottoman state as it relates to lands?
572a3c5c3f37b31900478804
to defend and extend the land of the Muslims
726
False
What type of practice guided the Ottoman state in its responsibilities?
572a3c5c3f37b31900478805
orthodox Islamic practice
859
False
Before the reforms of the 19th and 20th centuries, the state organisation of the Ottoman Empire was a simple system that had two main dimensions, which were the military administration and the civil administration. The Sultan was the highest position in the system. The civil system was based on local administrative units based on the region's characteristics. The Ottomans practiced a system in which the state (as in the Byzantine Empire) had control over the clergy. Certain pre-Islamic Turkish traditions that had survived the adoption of administrative and legal practices from Islamic Iran remained important in Ottoman administrative circles. According to Ottoman understanding, the state's primary responsibility was to defend and extend the land of the Muslims and to ensure security and harmony within its borders within the overarching context of orthodox Islamic practice and dynastic sovereignty.
What was another name for the Ottoman Empire?
572a3f281d0469140077987d
House of Osman
54
False
What was the other longest ruling House in Europe known as?
572a3f281d0469140077987e
House of Habsburg
169
False
From what origin did the Ottoman empire come to be?
572a3f281d0469140077987f
Turkish
392
False
How many times was the the sitting sultan in the House of Osman removed?
572a3f281d04691400779880
eleven occasions
414
False
When was the reign of sultan Mehmed VI?
572a3f281d04691400779881
1918–1922
911
False
The Ottoman Empire or, as a dynastic institution, the House of Osman was unprecedented and unequaled in the Islamic world for its size and duration. In Europe, only the House of Habsburg had a similarly unbroken line of sovereigns (kings/emperors) from the same family who ruled for so long, and during the same period, between the late 13th and early 20th centuries. The Ottoman dynasty was Turkish in origin. On eleven occasions, the sultan was deposed (replaced by another sultan of the Ottoman dynasty, who were either the former sultan's brother, son or nephew) because he was perceived by his enemies as a threat to the state. There were only two attempts in Ottoman history to unseat the ruling Ottoman dynasty, both failures, which suggests a political system that for an extended period was able to manage its revolutions without unnecessary instability. As such, the last Ottoman sultan Mehmed VI (r. 1918–1922) was a direct patrilineal (male-line) descendant of the first Ottoman sultan Osman I (r. 1299–1326), which was unparallelled in both Europe (e.g. the male line of the House of Habsburg became extinct in 1740) and in the Islamic world. The primary purpose of the Imperial Harem was to ensure the birth of male heirs to the Ottoman throne and secure the continuation of the direct patrilineal (male-line) descendance of the Ottoman sultans.
The Ottoman Caliphate claimed by Murad Ir epresented what in Islam?
572a40941d0469140077988f
The highest position
0
False
The person with this what title was believed to be the embodiment of the Ottoman government?
572a40941d04691400779890
pâdişâh or "lord of kings"
157
False
What was the importantance of the imperial Harem?
572a40941d04691400779891
one of the most important powers of the Ottoman court
354
False
What was the purpose of the palace educational system?
572a40941d04691400779892
eliminating the unfit potential heirs, and establishing support among the ruling elite for a successor
768
False
What was the name of the boarding school for Christians during the Ottoman Caliphate?
572a40941d04691400779893
Enderûn
1343
False
The highest position in Islam, caliphate, was claimed by the sultans starting since Murad I, which was established as Ottoman Caliphate. The Ottoman sultan, pâdişâh or "lord of kings", served as the Empire's sole regent and was considered to be the embodiment of its government, though he did not always exercise complete control. The Imperial Harem was one of the most important powers of the Ottoman court. It was ruled by the Valide Sultan. On occasion, the Valide Sultan would become involved in state politics. For a time, the women of the Harem effectively controlled the state in what was termed the "Sultanate of Women". New sultans were always chosen from the sons of the previous sultan. The strong educational system of the palace school was geared towards eliminating the unfit potential heirs, and establishing support among the ruling elite for a successor. The palace schools, which would also educate the future administrators of the state, were not a single track. First, the Madrasa (Ottoman Turkish: Medrese‎) was designated for the Muslims, and educated scholars and state officials according to Islamic tradition. The financial burden of the Medrese was supported by vakifs, allowing children of poor families to move to higher social levels and income. The second track was a free boarding school for the Christians, the Enderûn, which recruited 3,000 students annually from Christian boys between eight and twenty years old from one in forty families among the communities settled in Rumelia or the Balkans, a process known as Devshirme (Devşirme).
The sultan of the ottoman empire had what honorific?
572a41783f37b31900478831
the supreme monarch
22
False
What was the council that handled state politics named?
572a41783f37b31900478832
Divan
205
False
What type of people were initially in the Divan?
572a41783f37b31900478833
elders of the tribe
351
False
At a later point other groups were admitted into the Divan, what groups?
572a41783f37b31900478834
military officers and local elites
418
False
A Grand Vizar began to be appointed in what year?
572a41783f37b31900478835
1320
523
False
Though the sultan was the supreme monarch, the sultan's political and executive authority was delegated. The politics of the state had a number of advisors and ministers gathered around a council known as Divan (after the 17th century it was renamed the "Porte"). The Divan, in the years when the Ottoman state was still a Beylik, was composed of the elders of the tribe. Its composition was later modified to include military officers and local elites (such as religious and political advisors). Later still, beginning in 1320, a Grand Vizier was appointed to assume certain of the sultan's responsibilities. The Grand Vizier had considerable independence from the sultan with almost unlimited powers of appointment, dismissal and supervision. Beginning with the late 16th century, sultans withdrew from politics and the Grand Vizier became the de facto head of state.
What was the name of the secular legal system under the Ottoman Caliphate?
572a42436aef0514001553d8
Qanun (or Kanun)
92
False
What was religious law known as?
572a42436aef0514001553d9
Sharia
167
False
What did the Ottoman Empire attempt to balance in its legal policies?
572a42436aef0514001553da
central and local authority
339
False
How many court systems did the Ottoman empire have?
572a42436aef0514001553db
three court systems
694
False
What were the laws of the court system based upon?
572a42436aef0514001553dc
Turkic Yassa and Töre
984
False
The Ottoman legal system accepted the religious law over its subjects. At the same time the Qanun (or Kanun), a secular legal system, co-existed with religious law or Sharia. The Ottoman Empire was always organized around a system of local jurisprudence. Legal administration in the Ottoman Empire was part of a larger scheme of balancing central and local authority. Ottoman power revolved crucially around the administration of the rights to land, which gave a space for the local authority to develop the needs of the local millet. The jurisdictional complexity of the Ottoman Empire was aimed to permit the integration of culturally and religiously different groups. The Ottoman system had three court systems: one for Muslims, one for non-Muslims, involving appointed Jews and Christians ruling over their respective religious communities, and the "trade court". The entire system was regulated from above by means of the administrative Qanun, i.e. laws, a system based upon the Turkic Yassa and Töre, which were developed in the pre-Islamic era.[citation needed]
What were the primary courts of the empire?
572a437f1d046914007798ab
Islamic courts
78
False
From what works was Sharia developed?
572a437f1d046914007798ac
the Qur'an; the Hadīth
538
False
Whose words contributed to the Islamic Sharia law system?
572a437f1d046914007798ad
the prophet Muhammad
574
False
Where were the empire's law schools?
572a437f1d046914007798ae
in Istanbul and Bursa.
805
False
What other religious groups went to Islamic courts?
572a437f1d046914007798af
Jews and Christians
236
False
These court categories were not, however, wholly exclusive: for instance, the Islamic courts—which were the Empire's primary courts—could also be used to settle a trade conflict or disputes between litigants of differing religions, and Jews and Christians often went to them to obtain a more forceful ruling on an issue. The Ottoman state tended not to interfere with non-Muslim religious law systems, despite legally having a voice to do so through local governors. The Islamic Sharia law system had been developed from a combination of the Qur'an; the Hadīth, or words of the prophet Muhammad; ijmā', or consensus of the members of the Muslim community; qiyas, a system of analogical reasoning from earlier precedents; and local customs. Both systems were taught at the Empire's law schools, which were in Istanbul and Bursa.
Who was the one that presided over the empire's Islamic Courts?
572a44253f37b3190047884f
Qadi
131
False
At what juncture did the Qadi focus less on precedent?
572a44253f37b31900478850
closing of the ijtihad, or Gate of Interpretation
157
False
What was one thing the Ottoman legal system lacked?
572a44253f37b31900478851
an appellate structure
398
False
What did Qadis focus on in some areas?
572a44253f37b31900478852
local customs and traditions
291
False
What is another word for Qadi?
572a44253f37b31900478853
judge
140
False
The Ottoman Islamic legal system was set up differently from traditional European courts. Presiding over Islamic courts would be a Qadi, or judge. Since the closing of the ijtihad, or Gate of Interpretation, Qadis throughout the Ottoman Empire focused less on legal precedent, and more with local customs and traditions in the areas that they administered. However, the Ottoman court system lacked an appellate structure, leading to jurisdictional case strategies where plaintiffs could take their disputes from one court system to another until they achieved a ruling that was in their favor.
Reforms in the Ottoman court system were based on what model?
572a44ec6aef0514001553f2
French models
36
False
How many tiers did the Ottoman court system adopt?
572a44ec6aef0514001553f3
three
85
False
What was the new Ottoman court system known as?
572a44ec6aef0514001553f4
Nizamiye
127
False
What code regulated marriage?
572a44ec6aef0514001553f5
the Mecelle
223
False
These reforms were based heavily on French models, as indicated by the adoption of a three-tiered court system. Referred to as Nizamiye, this system was extended to the local magistrate level with the final promulgation of the Mecelle, a civil code that regulated marriage, divorce, alimony, will, and other matters of personal status. In an attempt to clarify the division of judicial competences, an administrative council laid down that religious matters were to be handled by religious courts, and statute matters were to be handled by the Nizamiye courts.
In what century did the first Osman I organized military unit form?
572a45ddaf94a219006aa91d
13th century
159
False
From where did tribesmen that formed a unit organized by Osman I originate?
572a45ddaf94a219006aa91e
the hills of western Anatolia
117
False
There were four corps of the Ottoman Army, what were they?
572a45ddaf94a219006aa91f
Janissary, Sipahi, Akıncı and Mehterân
376
False
The Ottoman army was among the first to use what two pieces of weapons technology?
572a45ddaf94a219006aa920
muskets and cannons
526
False
In what conflict did the Ottoman Turks use falconets?
572a45ddaf94a219006aa921
Siege of Constantinople
634
False
The first military unit of the Ottoman State was an army that was organized by Osman I from the tribesmen inhabiting the hills of western Anatolia in the late 13th century. The military system became an intricate organization with the advance of the Empire. The Ottoman military was a complex system of recruiting and fief-holding. The main corps of the Ottoman Army included Janissary, Sipahi, Akıncı and Mehterân. The Ottoman army was once among the most advanced fighting forces in the world, being one of the first to use muskets and cannons. The Ottoman Turks began using falconets, which were short but wide cannons, during the Siege of Constantinople. The Ottoman cavalry depended on high speed and mobility rather than heavy armour, using bows and short swords on fast Turkoman and Arabian horses (progenitors of the Thoroughbred racing horse), and often applied tactics similar to those of the Mongol Empire, such as pretending to retreat while surrounding the enemy forces inside a crescent-shaped formation and then making the real attack. The decline in the army's performance became clear from the mid-17th century and after the Great Turkish War. The 18th century saw some limited success against Venice, but in the north the European-style Russian armies forced the Ottomans to concede land.
On what continent did the Ottoman Navy contribute most?
572a468aaf94a219006aa927
European continent
88
False
What region did the Ottoman Navy conquer in the early 16th century?
572a468aaf94a219006aa928
North Africa
137
False
Egypt was added to the Ottoman Empire in what year?
572a468aaf94a219006aa929
1517
215
False
In what year did the Ottoman empire lose Greece?
572a468aaf94a219006aa92a
1821
257
False
The Ottoman empire lost what territory in 1830?
572a468aaf94a219006aa92b
Algeria
266
False
The Ottoman Navy vastly contributed to the expansion of the Empire's territories on the European continent. It initiated the conquest of North Africa, with the addition of Algeria and Egypt to the Ottoman Empire in 1517. Starting with the loss of Greece in 1821 and Algeria in 1830, Ottoman naval power and control over the Empire's distant overseas territories began to decline. Sultan Abdülaziz (reigned 1861–1876) attempted to reestablish a strong Ottoman navy, building the largest fleet after those of Britain and France. The shipyard at Barrow, England, built its first submarine in 1886 for the Ottoman Empire.
Which sultan distrusted his admirals during the Russo-Turkish war?
572a496c7a1753140016ae78
Sultan Abdülhamid II
93
False
Who was the reformist that had the backing of Ottoman admirals during the Russo-Turkish war?
572a496c7a1753140016ae79
Midhat Pasha
167
False
Where was the Ottoman fleet left to decay?
572a496c7a1753140016ae7a
the Golden Horn
328
False
When was the Young Turk Revolution?
572a496c7a1753140016ae7b
1908
431
False
What Ottoman group wanted to form a stronger navy in the early 20th century?
572a496c7a1753140016ae7c
the Committee of Union and Progress
437
False
However, the collapsing Ottoman economy could not sustain the fleet's strength for too long. Sultan Abdülhamid II distrusted the admirals who sided with the reformist Midhat Pasha, and claimed that the large and expensive fleet was of no use against the Russians during the Russo-Turkish War. He locked most of the fleet inside the Golden Horn, where the ships decayed for the next 30 years. Following the Young Turk Revolution in 1908, the Committee of Union and Progress sought to develop a strong Ottoman naval force. The Ottoman Navy Foundation was established in 1910 to buy new ships through public donations.
What was the first date that the Ottoman empire had an air-based military unit?
572a4a80fed8de19000d5b75
June 1909
69
False
Where was the first Ottoman Aviation school?
572a4a80fed8de19000d5b76
Yeşilköy
226
False
On what date was the Aviation School founded?
572a4a80fed8de19000d5b77
3 July 1912
238
False
What happened at the aviation school in May 1913?
572a4a80fed8de19000d5b78
the world's first specialized Reconnaissance Training Program was started
527
False
What new military academy was formed in June 1914?
572a4a80fed8de19000d5b79
the Naval Aviation School (Bahriye Tayyare Mektebi)
742
False
The establishment of Ottoman military aviation dates back to between June 1909 and July 1911. The Ottoman Empire started preparing its first pilots and planes, and with the founding of the Aviation School (Tayyare Mektebi) in Yeşilköy on 3 July 1912, the Empire began to tutor its own flight officers. The founding of the Aviation School quickened advancement in the military aviation program, increased the number of enlisted persons within it, and gave the new pilots an active role in the Ottoman Army and Navy. In May 1913 the world's first specialized Reconnaissance Training Program was started by the Aviation School and the first separate reconnaissance division was established.[citation needed] In June 1914 a new military academy, the Naval Aviation School (Bahriye Tayyare Mektebi) was founded. With the outbreak of World War I, the modernization process stopped abruptly. The Ottoman aviation squadrons fought on many fronts during World War I, from Galicia in the west to the Caucasus in the east and Yemen in the south.
The goal of developing Bursa and Istanbul was an intentional act to create what?
572a4c00fed8de19000d5b7f
commercial and industrial centres
141
False
Who was Mehmed's successor?
572a4c00fed8de19000d5b80
Bayezid
303
False
Who did Mehmed and Bayezid encourage to come to Istanbul?
572a4c00fed8de19000d5b81
the Jews from different parts of Europe
354
False
What group were Jews being persecuted by in Europe?
572a4c00fed8de19000d5b82
their Christian counterparts
535
False
Persecution of Jews in Spain occurred after what event concluded?
572a4c00fed8de19000d5b83
the conclusion of Reconquista
588
False
Ottoman government deliberately pursued a policy for the development of Bursa, Edirne, and Istanbul, successive Ottoman capitals, into major commercial and industrial centres, considering that merchants and artisans were indispensable in creating a new metropolis. To this end, Mehmed and his successor Bayezid, also encouraged and welcomed migration of the Jews from different parts of Europe, who were settled in Istanbul and other port cities like Salonica. In many places in Europe, Jews were suffering persecution at the hands of their Christian counterparts, such as in Spain after the conclusion of Reconquista. The tolerance displayed by the Turks was welcomed by the immigrants.
The economic goal of the state was to serve as what for the ruler?
572a4d053f37b31900478871
consolidation and extension of the ruler's power
150
False
In what regions concepts was the Ottoman economic system based on?
572a4d053f37b31900478872
the Middle East
92
False
What was a way to reach the economic goals of the Ottoman economic system?
572a4d053f37b31900478873
making the productive classes prosperous
265
False
What was the final goal of the state economic system?
572a4d053f37b31900478874
to increase the state revenues without damaging the prosperity of subjects
328
False
What did the state economic system hope to avoid?
572a4d053f37b31900478875
the emergence of social disorder
414
False
The Ottoman economic mind was closely related to the basic concepts of state and society in the Middle East in which the ultimate goal of a state was consolidation and extension of the ruler's power, and the way to reach it was to get rich resources of revenues by making the productive classes prosperous. The ultimate aim was to increase the state revenues without damaging the prosperity of subjects to prevent the emergence of social disorder and to keep the traditional organization of the society intact.
Two of the most developed economic organizations under the Ottoman Empire were what?
572a4e8e7a1753140016ae88
the treasury and chancery
20
False
What were the scribes of the chancery known as?
572a4e8e7a1753140016ae89
men of the pen
282
False
Part of the scribal bureaucracy were trained what?
572a4e8e7a1753140016ae8a
ulama
342
False
What did the scribal bureaucracy become?
572a4e8e7a1753140016ae8b
a professional body
370
False
The Ottoman Empire had the most developed economic organizations among Islamic Governments until which century?
572a4e8e7a1753140016ae8c
the 17th century
136
False
The organization of the treasury and chancery were developed under the Ottoman Empire more than any other Islamic government and, until the 17th century, they were the leading organization among all their contemporaries. This organization developed a scribal bureaucracy (known as "men of the pen") as a distinct group, partly highly trained ulama, which developed into a professional body. The effectiveness of this professional financial body stands behind the success of many great Ottoman statesmen.
What serviced as the foundation for the structure of the economy of the Ottoman empire?
572a4f691d046914007798f1
its geopolitical structure
52
False
The Ottoman Empire caused navigators from which two nations to find another route to the Orient?
572a4f691d046914007798f2
Spanish and Portuguese
186
False
Who once used the spice route that the Ottoman Empire controlled?
572a4f691d046914007798f3
Marco Polo
315
False
When were direct trade links established with India?
572a4f691d046914007798f4
1498
440
False
When did Christopher Columbus sail to the Bahamas?
572a4f691d046914007798f5
1492
505
False
The economic structure of the Empire was defined by its geopolitical structure. The Ottoman Empire stood between the West and the East, thus blocking the land route eastward and forcing Spanish and Portuguese navigators to set sail in search of a new route to the Orient. The Empire controlled the spice route that Marco Polo once used. When Vasco da Gama bypassed Ottoman controlled routes and established direct trade links with India in 1498, and Christopher Columbus first journeyed to the Bahamas in 1492, the Ottoman Empire was at its zenith.
What is believed to have caused the opening of new sea routes during the Ottoman Empire?
572a5088fed8de19000d5b8f
change in relations between the Ottoman Turks and central Europe
38
False
The formation of sea routes bypassing the Middle East may have led to the decline of what?
572a5088fed8de19000d5b90
the Ottoman Empire itself
357
False
What is another name for the Treaty of Balta Liman?
572a5088fed8de19000d5b91
The Anglo-Ottoman Treaty
384
False
What did the Treaty of Balta Liman do for Ottoman markets?
572a5088fed8de19000d5b92
opened the Ottoman markets directly to English and French competitors
455
False
In what direction did land routes lose their importance?
572a5088fed8de19000d5b93
East
232
False
Modern Ottoman studies think that the change in relations between the Ottoman Turks and central Europe was caused by the opening of the new sea routes. It is possible to see the decline in the significance of the land routes to the East as Western Europe opened the ocean routes that bypassed the Middle East and Mediterranean as parallel to the decline of the Ottoman Empire itself. The Anglo-Ottoman Treaty, also known as the Treaty of Balta Liman that opened the Ottoman markets directly to English and French competitors, would be seen as one of the staging posts along this development.
The development of what caused people to expand areas of cultivation in the Ottoman Empire?
572a518ab8ce0319002e2a93
commercial centres and routes
14
False
What dominated all economic and political interests?
572a518ab8ce0319002e2a94
interests of the state
268
False
What were the types of economies that were being developed in western Europe?
572a518ab8ce0319002e2a95
capitalist and mercantile economies
479
False
The expansion of international trade through the Empire was the result of what?
572a518ab8ce0319002e2a96
developing commercial centres and routes
3
False
By developing commercial centres and routes, encouraging people to extend the area of cultivated land in the country and international trade through its dominions, the state performed basic economic functions in the Empire. But in all this the financial and political interests of the state were dominant. Within the social and political system they were living in Ottoman administrators could not have comprehended or seen the desirability of the dynamics and principles of the capitalist and mercantile economies developing in Western Europe.
The rise of ports caused what in populations?
572a526bb8ce0319002e2aa3
the clustering of populations
28
False
Steamships and railroads rose with what else?
572a526bb8ce0319002e2aa4
The rise of port cities
0
False
In what year did urbanization in the Ottoman empire begin to increase?
572a526bb8ce0319002e2aa5
1700
141
False
What were two improvements that made cities more desirable to live in?
572a526bb8ce0319002e2aa6
Improvements in health and sanitation
186
False
What was the population of Salonica in 1800?
572a526bb8ce0319002e2aa7
55,000
338
False
The rise of port cities saw the clustering of populations caused by the development of steamships and railroads. Urbanization increased from 1700 to 1922, with towns and cities growing. Improvements in health and sanitation made them more attractive to live and work in. Port cities like Salonica, in Greece, saw its population rise from 55,000 in 1800 to 160,000 in 1912 and İzmir which had a population of 150,000 in 1800 grew to 300,000 by 1914. Some regions conversely had population falls – Belgrade saw its population drop from 25,000 to 8,000 mainly due to political strife.
The annexation of what two regions resulted in large groups of Muslim refugees coming into the empire?
572a5371d562191400bc865f
the Crimean and Balkan regions
128
False
Muslims representing 200,000 of what group fled to Dobruja?
572a5371d562191400bc8660
Crimean Tartars
220
False
How many refugees fled Russia to the Ottoman Empire from 1783 to 1913?
572a5371d562191400bc8661
3.8 million
356
False
What are the people from the Balkans who emigrated to Turkey called?
572a5371d562191400bc8662
Muhacir
867
False
In what year did the Ottoman Empire end?
572a5371d562191400bc8663
1922
925
False
Economic and political migrations made an impact across the empire. For example, the Russian and Austria-Habsburg annexation of the Crimean and Balkan regions respectively saw large influxes of Muslim refugees – 200,000 Crimean Tartars fleeing to Dobruja. Between 1783 and 1913, approximately 5–7 million refugees flooded into the Ottoman Empire, at least 3.8 million of whom were from Russia. Some migrations left indelible marks such as political tension between parts of the empire (e.g. Turkey and Bulgaria) whereas centrifugal effects were noticed in other territories, simpler demographics emerging from diverse populations. Economies were also impacted with the loss of artisans, merchants, manufacturers and agriculturists. Since the 19th century, a large proportion of Muslim peoples from the Balkans emigrated to present-day Turkey. These people are called Muhacir. By the time the Ottoman Empire came to an end in 1922, half of the urban population of Turkey was descended from Muslim refugees from Russia.
What was the official language of the Ottoman Empire?
572a553e7a1753140016aeb8
Ottoman Turkish
0
False
What were the main influences of the official language of the Empire?
572a553e7a1753140016aeb9
Persian and Arabic
110
False
What language was spoken by most people in Anatolia?
572a553e7a1753140016aeba
Turkish
178
False
Which languages influenced by the empire was spoken in Iraq?
572a553e7a1753140016aebb
Arabic
350
False
What language was used for religious uses in the Empire?
572a553e7a1753140016aebc
Arabic
646
False
Ottoman Turkish was the official language of the Empire. It was an Oghuz Turkic language highly influenced by Persian and Arabic. The Ottomans had several influential languages: Turkish, spoken by the majority of the people in Anatolia and by the majority of Muslims of the Balkans except in Albania and Bosnia; Persian, only spoken by the educated; Arabic, spoken mainly in Arabia, North Africa, Iraq, Kuwait, the Levant and parts of the Horn of Africa; and Somali throughout the Horn of Africa. In the last two centuries, usage of these became limited, though, and specific: Persian served mainly as a literary language for the educated, while Arabic was used for religious rites.
What was the public's literacy rate in leading up to the early 19th century in the empire?
572a561ad562191400bc866f
about 2–3%
49
False
At the end of the 19th century what was the literacy rate for the public in the Empire believed to be?
572a561ad562191400bc8670
15%
104
False
What did people resort to when they needed to communicate with the government?
572a561ad562191400bc8671
people had to hire scribes
163
False
What were hired scribes known as?
572a561ad562191400bc8672
"special request-writers" (arzuhâlcis)
193
False
What was the second language of those that weren't ethnically Turkish?
572a561ad562191400bc8673
Turkish
659
False
Because of a low literacy rate among the public (about 2–3% until the early 19th century and just about 15% at the end of 19th century),[citation needed] ordinary people had to hire scribes as "special request-writers" (arzuhâlcis) to be able to communicate with the government. The ethnic groups continued to speak within their families and neighborhoods (mahalles) with their own languages (e.g., Jews, Greeks, Armenians, etc.). In villages where two or more populations lived together, the inhabitants would often speak each other's language. In cosmopolitan cities, people often spoke their family languages; many of those who were not ethnic Turks spoke Turkish as a second language.
The Empire had a Christian majority until what time?
572a56b9d562191400bc8679
the second half of the 15th century
6
False
What group ruled the empire until the 15th century?
572a56b9d562191400bc867a
a Muslim minority
97
False
What group began to decline within the Empire in the late 19th century?
572a56b9d562191400bc867b
the non-Muslim population
142
False
Muslims accounted for what amount of the population of the Empire in the 1820s?
572a56b9d562191400bc867c
60%
316
False
In 1914 what portion of the Empire weren't Muslims?
572a56b9d562191400bc867d
19.1%
419
False
Until the second half of the 15th century the empire had a Christian majority, under the rule of a Muslim minority. In the late 19th century, the non-Muslim population of the empire began to fall considerably, not only due to secession, but also because of migratory movements. The proportion of Muslims amounted to 60% in the 1820s, gradually increasing to 69% in the 1870s and then to 76% in the 1890s. By 1914, only 19.1% of the empire's population was non-Muslim, mostly made up of Christian Greeks, Assyrians, Armenians, and Jews.
The Muslim sect known as the Druze is considered what?
572a5776d562191400bc8683
heretical
25
False
What was Sultan Selim I's nickname?
572a5776d562191400bc8684
the Grim
157
False
In what year did Sultan Selim I order the massacre of 40,000 people whom he considered heretics?
572a5776d562191400bc8685
1514
124
False
What group did Sultan Selim I consider heretics and subsequently slaughter?
572a5776d562191400bc8686
Anatolian Alevis (Qizilbash)
222
False
Under Sultan Selim I the empire swallowed what sultanate in Egypt?
572a5776d562191400bc8687
Mamluk Sultanate
565
False
Muslim sects regarded as heretical, such as the Druze, Ismailis, Alevis, and Alawites, ranked below Jews and Christians. In 1514, Sultan Selim I, nicknamed "the Grim" because of his cruelty, ordered the massacre of 40,000 Anatolian Alevis (Qizilbash), whom he considered heretics, reportedly proclaiming that "the killing of one Alevi had as much otherworldly reward as killing 70 Christians."[page needed] Selim was also responsible for an unprecedented and rapid expansion of the Ottoman Empire into the Middle East, especially through his conquest of the entire Mamluk Sultanate of Egypt, which included much of the region. With these conquests, Selim further solidified the Ottoman claim for being an Islamic caliphate, although Ottoman sultans had been claiming the title of caliph since the 14th century starting with Murad I (reigned 1362 to 1389). The caliphate would remain held by Ottoman sultans for the rest of the office's duration, which ended with its abolition on 3 March 1924 by the Grand National Assembly of Turkey and the exile of the last caliph, Abdülmecid II, to France.
What system deemed non-Muslims subjects of the empire but unbound by Muslim law?
572a586fb8ce0319002e2ac1
the millet system
6
False
What code had been active for 900 years in the Byzantine empire?
572a586fb8ce0319002e2ac2
Justinian's Code
214
False
What were non-Muslims also known as in the Islamic Ottoman State?
572a586fb8ce0319002e2ac3
zimmi
350
False
Being a non-muslim in the Empire resulted in what as it related to taxes?
572a586fb8ce0319002e2ac4
higher taxes
505
False
What millet was subject to Justinian's Code?
572a586fb8ce0319002e2ac5
The Orthodox millet
139
False
Under the millet system, non-Muslim people were considered subjects of the Empire, but were not subject to the Muslim faith or Muslim law. The Orthodox millet, for instance, was still officially legally subject to Justinian's Code, which had been in effect in the Byzantine Empire for 900 years. Also, as the largest group of non-Muslim subjects (or zimmi) of the Islamic Ottoman state, the Orthodox millet was granted a number of special privileges in the fields of politics and commerce, and had to pay higher taxes than Muslim subjects.
The Ottoman dynasty was preceded by what sultanate?
572a5969b8ce0319002e2ad5
Sultanate of Rum
504
False
What is one way that the Empire was described as it related to culture?
572a5969b8ce0319002e2ad6
Persianate empire
670
False
When the Ottoman empire conquered a region what also became a part of the empire?
572a5969b8ce0319002e2ad7
some of the traditions, art and institutions of cultures
22
False
The Seljuk Empire was influenced by the cultures of others resulting in it being referred to as what?
572a5969b8ce0319002e2ad8
Persianised
560
False
The Ottomans absorbed some of the traditions, art and institutions of cultures in the regions they conquered, and added new dimensions to them. Numerous traditions and cultural traits of previous empires (in fields such as architecture, cuisine, music, leisure and government) were adopted by the Ottoman Turks, who elaborated them into new forms, which resulted in a new and distinctively Ottoman cultural identity. Despite newer added amalgamations, the Ottoman dynasty, like their predecessors in the Sultanate of Rum and the Seljuk Empire, were thoroughly Persianised in their culture, language, habits and customs, and therefore, the empire has been described as a Persianate empire. Intercultural marriages also played their part in creating the characteristic Ottoman elite culture. When compared to the Turkish folk culture, the influence of these new cultures in creating the culture of the Ottoman elite was clear.
What type of Ottoman poetry is ritualized?
572a5a23d562191400bc868d
Divan poetry
8
False
What kind of poetry inspired Ottoman Divan Poetry?
572a5a23d562191400bc868e
Persian poetry
77
False
What type of framework was Divan poetry based on?
572a5a23d562191400bc868f
a strict metrical framework
400
False
What was the romance genre of Divan poetry known as?
572a5a23d562191400bc8690
mesnevî
697
False
What make up the largest portion of Divan poetry?
572a5a23d562191400bc8691
gazels (which make up the greatest part of the repertoire of the tradition), or kasîdes.
544
False
Ottoman Divan poetry was a highly ritualized and symbolic art form. From the Persian poetry that largely inspired it, it inherited a wealth of symbols whose meanings and interrelationships—both of similitude (مراعات نظير mura'ât-i nazîr / تناسب tenâsüb) and opposition (تضاد tezâd) were more or less prescribed. Divan poetry was composed through the constant juxtaposition of many such images within a strict metrical framework, thus allowing numerous potential meanings to emerge. The vast majority of Divan poetry was lyric in nature: either gazels (which make up the greatest part of the repertoire of the tradition), or kasîdes. There were, however, other common genres, most particularly the mesnevî, a kind of verse romance and thus a variety of narrative poetry; the two most notable examples of this form are the Leyli and Majnun of Fuzûlî and the Hüsn ü Aşk of Şeyh Gâlib.
Prose in the Ottoman empire did not develop to a higher level until which century?
572a5abcd562191400bc8697
the 19th century
6
False
What rules did Ottoman prose have to follow?
572a5abcd562191400bc8698
the rules of sec (سجع, also transliterated as seci), or rhymed prose
186
False
What did the rules of sec require?
572a5abcd562191400bc8699
between each adjective and noun in a string of words, such as a sentence, there must be a rhyme
331
False
Who wrote Muhayyelât?
572a5abcd562191400bc869a
Giritli Ali Aziz Efendi
601
False
When was Muhayyelât written?
572a5abcd562191400bc869b
1796
678
False
Until the 19th century, Ottoman prose did not develop to the extent that contemporary Divan poetry did. A large part of the reason for this was that much prose was expected to adhere to the rules of sec (سجع, also transliterated as seci), or rhymed prose, a type of writing descended from the Arabic saj' and which prescribed that between each adjective and noun in a string of words, such as a sentence, there must be a rhyme. Nevertheless, there was a tradition of prose in the literature of the time, though exclusively non-fictional in nature. One apparent exception was Muhayyelât ("Fancies") by Giritli Ali Aziz Efendi, a collection of stories of the fantastic written in 1796, though not published until 1867. The first novel published in the Ottoman Empire was by an Armenian named Vartan Pasha. Published in 1851, the novel was entitled The Story of Akabi (Turkish: Akabi Hikyayesi) and was written in Turkish but with Armenian script.
What was the biggest influence from the west on Ottoman literature?
572a5b9e7a1753140016aece
French literature
44
False
During what time period was Ottoman literate most influenced by the west?
572a5b9e7a1753140016aecf
the latter half of the 19th century
142
False
During the Tanzimat what western influence could be seen?
572a5b9e7a1753140016aed0
the influence of Romanticism
351
False
The poetic tradition had its biggest influence on what Ottoman literary movements?
572a5b9e7a1753140016aed1
the Symbolist and Parnassian movements
560
False
Romanticism, and Realism were two movements from the west that influenced the Ottoman literary scene, what was the third?
572a5b9e7a1753140016aed2
Naturalist
448
False
Due to historically close ties with France, French literature came to constitute the major Western influence on Ottoman literature throughout the latter half of the 19th century. As a result, many of the same movements prevalent in France during this period also had their Ottoman equivalents: in the developing Ottoman prose tradition, for instance, the influence of Romanticism can be seen during the Tanzimat period, and that of the Realist and Naturalist movements in subsequent periods; in the poetic tradition, on the other hand, it was the influence of the Symbolist and Parnassian movements that became paramount.
What 1876 Novel did Namik Kemal write?
572a5df77a1753140016aede
İntibâh ("Awakening")
164
False
What did İbrahim Şinasi write in 1860?
572a5df77a1753140016aedf
the one-act comedy "Şair Evlenmesi" ("The Poet's Marriage").
285
False
Who wrote Hasan Mellâh yâhud Sırr İçinde Esrâr?
572a5df77a1753140016aee0
Ahmed Midhat Efendi
636
False
What Realist novel did Ahmed Midhat Efendi write in 1881?
572a5df77a1753140016aee1
Henüz On Yedi Yaşında
833
False
What did writers of the Tanzimat period hope to accomplish with their publications?
572a5df77a1753140016aee2
contribute to a revitalization of Ottoman social structures
1089
False
Many of the writers in the Tanzimat period wrote in several different genres simultaneously: for instance, the poet Namik Kemal also wrote the important 1876 novel İntibâh ("Awakening"), while the journalist İbrahim Şinasi is noted for writing, in 1860, the first modern Turkish play, the one-act comedy "Şair Evlenmesi" ("The Poet's Marriage"). An earlier play, a farce entitled "Vakâyi'-i 'Acibe ve Havâdis-i Garibe-yi Kefşger Ahmed" ("The Strange Events and Bizarre Occurrences of the Cobbler Ahmed"), dates from the beginning of the 19th century, but there remains some doubt about its authenticity. In a similar vein, the novelist Ahmed Midhat Efendi wrote important novels in each of the major movements: Romanticism (Hasan Mellâh yâhud Sırr İçinde Esrâr, 1873; "Hasan the Sailor, or The Mystery Within the Mystery"), Realism (Henüz On Yedi Yaşında, 1881; "Just Seventeen Years Old"), and Naturalism (Müşâhedât, 1891; "Observations"). This diversity was, in part, due to the Tanzimat writers' wish to disseminate as much of the new literature as possible, in the hopes that it would contribute to a revitalization of Ottoman social structures.
Ottoman artists mixed Chinese art with the art of what else?
572a5f33b8ce0319002e2ae5
traditional Byzantine art
467
False
The ottoman empire built structures in Romania that included Mosques, and Bridges, what else was built?
572a5f33b8ce0319002e2ae6
fountains and schools
190
False
Why did the art of the Ottoman empire develop the way it did?
572a5f33b8ce0319002e2ae7
the wide ethnic range of the Ottoman Empire
302
False
Beside Edirne, Istanbul, and Egypt what other locations can one find the influence of the Ottoman classical period?
572a5f33b8ce0319002e2ae8
Eritrea, Tunisia, Algiers, the Balkans and Romania
114
False
Examples of Ottoman architecture of the classical period, besides Istanbul and Edirne, can also be seen in Egypt, Eritrea, Tunisia, Algiers, the Balkans and Romania, where mosques, bridges, fountains and schools were built. The art of Ottoman decoration developed with a multitude of influences due to the wide ethnic range of the Ottoman Empire. The greatest of the court artists enriched the Ottoman Empire with many pluralistic artistic influences: such as mixing traditional Byzantine art with elements of Chinese art.
Were would one find the sheets where Ottoman's created illuminated decorations?
572a600cfed8de19000d5bb9
muraqqa
100
False
What is another name for an Ottoman miniature?
572a600cfed8de19000d5bba
taswir
257
False
Ottoman calligraphy can also be referred to as what?
572a600cfed8de19000d5bbb
hat
279
False
Who commissioned illustrated manuscripts in the Ottoman empire?
572a600cfed8de19000d5bbc
the Sultan or the administrators of the court
436
False
What palace was the place of creation for illustrated manuscripts?
572a600cfed8de19000d5bbd
Topkapi Palace
486
False
Ottoman illumination covers non-figurative painted or drawn decorative art in books or on sheets in muraqqa or albums, as opposed to the figurative images of the Ottoman miniature. It was a part of the Ottoman Book Arts together with the Ottoman miniature (taswir), calligraphy (hat), Islamic calligraphy, bookbinding (cilt) and paper marbling (ebru). In the Ottoman Empire, illuminated and illustrated manuscripts were commissioned by the Sultan or the administrators of the court. In Topkapi Palace, these manuscripts were created by the artists working in Nakkashane, the atelier of the miniature and illumination artists. Both religious and non-religious books could be illuminated. Also sheets for albums levha consisted of illuminated calligraphy (hat) of tughra, religious texts, verses from poems or proverbs, and purely decorative drawings.
Which art was important in religious symbolism and as a decoration in the Ottoman empire?
572a60d8d562191400bc86a1
carpet weaving
11
False
What was the custom for those wearing shoes indoors in the Ottoman empire?
572a60d8d562191400bc86a2
it was customary to remove one's shoes
223
False
Where did carpet weaving in the Empire originate?
572a60d8d562191400bc86a3
the nomadic cultures of central Asia
324
False
Where did carpet weaving initially spread to inside of the Empire?
572a60d8d562191400bc86a4
Anatolia
475
False
Kilims were used by Turks to provide insulation where?
572a60d8d562191400bc86a5
walls and doorways
580
False
The art of carpet weaving was particularly significant in the Ottoman Empire, carpets having an immense importance both as decorative furnishings, rich in religious and other symbolism, and as a practical consideration, as it was customary to remove one's shoes in living quarters. The weaving of such carpets originated in the nomadic cultures of central Asia (carpets being an easily transportable form of furnishing), and was eventually spread to the settled societies of Anatolia. Turks used carpets, rugs and kilims not just on the floors of a room, but also as a hanging on walls and doorways, where they provided additional insulation. They were also commonly donated to mosques, which often amassed large collections of them.
The elites of the Ottoman empire found what type of music important?
572a61a9fed8de19000d5bd7
Ottoman classical music
0
False
Many of the Sultans of the Ottoman empire were accomplished at being what?
572a61a9fed8de19000d5bd8
musicians and composers
135
False
The sultan known by what name has compositions which are still performed today?
572a61a9fed8de19000d5bd9
Selim III
179
False
What rhythmic units does Ottoman classical music use?
572a61a9fed8de19000d5bda
units called usul
416
False
What are the melodic units used by Ottoman classical music?
572a61a9fed8de19000d5bdb
makam
514
False
Ottoman classical music was an important part of the education of the Ottoman elite, a number of the Ottoman sultans were accomplished musicians and composers themselves, such as Selim III, whose compositions are often still performed today. Ottoman classical music arose largely from a confluence of Byzantine music, Armenian music, Arabic music, and Persian music. Compositionally, it is organised around rhythmic units called usul, which are somewhat similar to meter in Western music, and melodic units called makam, which bear some resemblance to Western musical modes.
What are the three most used Anatolian and central asian instruments in Ottoman Classical music?
572a6269b8ce0319002e2b01
the saz, the bağlama, the kemence
79
False
Which Middle Eastern instruments can be heard in Ottoman classical music?
572a6269b8ce0319002e2b02
the ud, the tanbur, the kanun, the ney
149
False
In late Ottoman classical music one can find Western instruments, what were they?
572a6269b8ce0319002e2b03
the violin and the piano
238
False
There were two main style of music in the Ottoman empire, what were they?
572a6269b8ce0319002e2b04
classical music, and folk music
420
False
What were the most distinctive style of music in the Ottoman provinces?
572a6269b8ce0319002e2b05
Janissary Music, Roma music, Belly dance, Turkish folk music
772
False
The instruments used are a mixture of Anatolian and Central Asian instruments (the saz, the bağlama, the kemence), other Middle Eastern instruments (the ud, the tanbur, the kanun, the ney), and—later in the tradition—Western instruments (the violin and the piano). Because of a geographic and cultural divide between the capital and other areas, two broadly distinct styles of music arose in the Ottoman Empire: Ottoman classical music, and folk music. In the provinces, several different kinds of folk music were created. The most dominant regions with their distinguished musical styles are: Balkan-Thracian Türküs, North-Eastern (Laz) Türküs, Aegean Türküs, Central Anatolian Türküs, Eastern Anatolian Türküs, and Caucasian Türküs. Some of the distinctive styles were: Janissary Music, Roma music, Belly dance, Turkish folk music.
The cuisine known as Ottoman cuisine is in reference to the food eaten where?
572a6389d562191400bc86ab
the capital, Istanbul, and the regional capital cities
41
False
In what kitchen's was Ottoman cuisine perfected?
572a6389d562191400bc86ac
the Imperial Palace's kitchens
250
False
What is one type of religious event that the general public may come to experience the creations of the Imperial Palace?
572a6389d562191400bc86ad
Ramadan
480
False
Preparing food at the Yalıs of the Pashas was one way Ottoman Cuisine might spread to whom?
572a6389d562191400bc86ae
the population
443
False
What did the chefs ingredients in the Imperial Palace's kitchens?
572a6389d562191400bc86af
create and experiment
334
False
Ottoman cuisine refers to the cuisine of the capital, Istanbul, and the regional capital cities, where the melting pot of cultures created a common cuisine that most of the population regardless of ethnicity shared. This diverse cuisine was honed in the Imperial Palace's kitchens by chefs brought from certain parts of the Empire to create and experiment with different ingredients. The creations of the Ottoman Palace's kitchens filtered to the population, for instance through Ramadan events, and through the cooking at the Yalıs of the Pashas, and from there on spread to the rest of the population.
Turkish cuisine originates from what source?
572a6495fed8de19000d5be1
a shared Ottoman cuisine
74
False
The cuisine of what territories are descended from Ottoman cuisine?
572a6495fed8de19000d5be2
former Ottoman territories
23
False
Turkish and Greek cuisine are descended from Ottoman Cuisine, along with the food of what other regions?
572a6495fed8de19000d5be3
Balkan cuisine, Armenian cuisine, and Middle Eastern cuisine
157
False
Turkish coffee is descended from what?
572a6495fed8de19000d5be4
Ottoman cuisine
83
False
Pita bread descends from what type of cuisine?
572a6495fed8de19000d5be5
Ottoman cuisine
83
False
Much of the cuisine of former Ottoman territories today is descended from a shared Ottoman cuisine, especially Turkish cuisine, and including Greek cuisine, Balkan cuisine, Armenian cuisine, and Middle Eastern cuisine. Many common dishes in the region, descendants of the once-common Ottoman cuisine, include yogurt, döner kebab/gyro/shawarma, cacık/tzatziki, ayran, pita bread, feta cheese, baklava, lahmacun, moussaka, yuvarlak, köfte/keftés/kofta, börek/boureki, rakı/rakia/tsipouro/tsikoudia, meze, dolma, sarma, rice pilaf, Turkish coffee, sujuk, kashk, keşkek, manti, lavash, kanafeh, and more.
In what century did the Ottoman's start to desire foreign manuscripts?
572a6560b8ce0319002e2b1d
15th Century
263
False
Which sultan ordered a Greek scholar to do translations of work by Ptolemy?
572a6560b8ce0319002e2b1e
Sultan Mehmet II
277
False
Who did an Ottoman sultan order to translate work by Ptolemy?
572a6560b8ce0319002e2b1f
Georgios Amiroutzes
302
False
How many years did Ali Qushji spend in Istanbul?
572a6560b8ce0319002e2b20
two or three years
714
False
Where was Ali Qushji from?
572a6560b8ce0319002e2b21
originally from Samarkand
526
False
Over the course of Ottoman history, the Ottomans managed to build a large collection of libraries complete with translations of books from other cultures, as well as original manuscripts. A great part of this desire for local and foreign manuscripts arose in the 15th Century. Sultan Mehmet II ordered Georgios Amiroutzes, a Greek scholar from Trabzon, to translate and make available to Ottoman educational institutions the geography book of Ptolemy. Another example is Ali Qushji -an astronomer, mathematician and physicist originally from Samarkand- who became a professor in two madrasas, and influenced Ottoman circles as a result of his writings and the activities of his students, even though he only spent two or three years before his death in Istanbul.
When did European sport clubs begin to form in the Ottoman empire?
572a660cd562191400bc86b5
19th century
257
False
Where did football matches become to be popular in the Ottoman empire?
572a660cd562191400bc86b6
Constantinople
270
False
What was the leading sport club in 1905?
572a660cd562191400bc86b7
Galatasaray Sports Club
366
False
In what year did the Altay Sports Club form?
572a660cd562191400bc86b8
1914
552
False
What was the football club known as Ülküspor formerly known as?
572a660cd562191400bc86b9
Turkish Fatherland Football Club
562
False
The main sports Ottomans were engaged in were Turkish Wrestling, hunting, Turkish archery, horseback riding, Equestrian javelin throw, arm wrestling, and swimming. European model sports clubs were formed with the spreading popularity of football matches in 19th century Constantinople. The leading clubs, according to timeline, were Beşiktaş Gymnastics Club (1903), Galatasaray Sports Club (1905) and Fenerbahçe Sports Club (1907) in Istanbul. Football clubs were formed in other provinces too, such as Karşıyaka Sports Club (1912), Altay Sports Club (1914) and Turkish Fatherland Football Club (later Ülküspor) (1914) of İzmir.
Philosophy_of_space_and_time
Which philosophy branch is concerned with issues surrounding ontology?
572a12a83f37b3190047869d
Philosophy of space and time
0
False
The philosophy of space and time was inspired by what kind of philosophy?
572a12a83f37b3190047869e
early analytic philosophy
310
False
The  philosophy of space and time focuses on whether or not time and space exist independently of what?
572a12a83f37b3190047869f
the mind
449
False
The  philosophy of space and time focuses what kind of flow within time?
572a12a83f37b319004786a0
unidirectional
544
False
Philosophy of space and time
0
What philosophy does ontology concern?
5a4264aec95734001a8bbe12
True
analytic philosophy
316
What was the study of space and time inspired by?
5a4264aec95734001a8bbe13
True
the nature of identity
673
What does not change over time?
5a4264aec95734001a8bbe14
True
time
526
The flow within what is multidirectional?
5a4264aec95734001a8bbe15
True
Philosophy of space and time is the branch of philosophy concerned with the issues surrounding the ontology, epistemology, and character of space and time. While such ideas have been central to philosophy from its inception, the philosophy of space and time was both an inspiration for and a central aspect of early analytic philosophy. The subject focuses on a number of basic issues, including whether or not time and space exist independently of the mind, whether they exist independently of one another, what accounts for time's apparently unidirectional flow, whether times other than the present moment exist, and questions about the nature of identity (particularly the nature of identity over time).
Who expounded the earliest recorded Western philosophy of time?
572a13263f37b319004786a5
Ptahhotep
95
False
When do the Vedas date back to?
572a13263f37b319004786a6
late 2nd millennium BC
329
False
Which philosophies are the Vedas oriented with?
572a13263f37b319004786a7
Indian philosophy and Hindu philosophy
270
False
What do the Vedas describe?
572a13263f37b319004786a8
ancient Hindu cosmology
362
False
How long is the cycle of rebirth discussed in the Vedas?
572a13263f37b319004786a9
4,320,000 years
501
False
Western philosophy of time
22
What was first recorded in the 26th century BC.
5a426c80c95734001a8bbe1a
True
Egyptian thinker Ptahhotep
78
Who warned people not to increase the time o following desire?
5a426c80c95734001a8bbe1b
True
Vedas
241
What is the name of the earliest Egyptian texts?
5a426c80c95734001a8bbe1c
True
Vedas
241
What texts date to 2000 BC?
5a426c80c95734001a8bbe1d
True
4,320,000 years
501
How long did the Greeksd think a cyle of time was?
5a426c80c95734001a8bbe1e
True
The earliest recorded Western philosophy of time was expounded by the ancient Egyptian thinker Ptahhotep (c. 2650–2600 BC), who said, "Do not lessen the time of following desire, for the wasting of time is an abomination to the spirit." The Vedas, the earliest texts on Indian philosophy and Hindu philosophy, dating back to the late 2nd millennium BC, describe ancient Hindu cosmology, in which the universe goes through repeated cycles of creation, destruction, and rebirth, with each cycle lasting 4,320,000 years. Ancient Greek philosophers, including Parmenides and Heraclitus, wrote essays on the nature of time.
Which christian philosopher ruminated on time?
572a13e71d04691400779745
St. Augustine
14
False
What did St. Augustine comment on in Book 11, regarding thinking about time?
572a13e71d04691400779746
the difficulty
216
False
Who presented the first philosophical argument for the reality of Creation?
572a13e71d04691400779747
Augustine
443
False
What did Augustine say that the knowledge of time depended on?
572a13e71d04691400779748
the knowledge of the movement of things
627
False
Where did Augustine say time could not appear?
572a13e71d04691400779749
where there are no creatures to measure its passing
697
False
St. Augustine
14
Who deiscusses the nature of time in his first book?
5a427714c95734001a8bbe24
True
time
249
What does St Augustine think common speech adiquetly describes?
5a427714c95734001a8bbe25
True
reality of Creation
504
What did Aristotle present the first philisophical argument for?
5a427714c95734001a8bbe26
True
Augustine
443
Who said time exists everywhere?
5a427714c95734001a8bbe27
True
In Book 11 of St. Augustine's Confessions, he ruminates on the nature of time, asking, "What then is time? If no one asks me, I know: if I wish to explain it to one that asketh, I know not." He goes on to comment on the difficulty of thinking about time, pointing out the inaccuracy of common speech: "For but few things are there of which we speak properly; of most things we speak improperly, still the things intended are understood."  But Augustine presented the first philosophical argument for the reality of Creation (against Aristotle) in the context of his discussion of time, saying that knowledge of time depends on the knowledge of the movement of things, and therefore time cannot be where there are no creatures to measure its passing (Confessions Book XI ¶30; City of God Book XI ch.6).
Which 11th century Muslim physicist discussed space perception and its epistemological implications?
572a14abaf94a219006aa7bb
al-Haytham
52
False
Which 11th century book discussed space perception and its epistemological implications?
572a14abaf94a219006aa7bc
Book of Optics
155
False
Whose definition of topos did Alhazen reject?
572a14abaf94a219006aa7bd
Aristotle's
195
False
Alhazen's  experimental proof of the intromission model of vision led to the change of understanding of what?
572a14abaf94a219006aa7be
Without tangible notions of distance and size for correlation, sight can tell us next to nothing about such things
724
False
Alhazen stated that without tangible notions of distance and size for correlation, sight can tell us what about spatial perception?
572a14abaf94a219006aa7bf
next to nothing
805
False
Ibn al-Haytham
48
Who discussed space perceptions in the 1100's?
5a42a04e4a4859001aac724d
True
Book of Optics
155
What book was written in the the 11th century about time?
5a42a04e4a4859001aac724e
True
Aristotle
195
Who disputed al-Haytham's definition of topos?
5a42a04e4a4859001aac724f
True
prior bodily experience
588
What did Euclid and Ptolemy tie the visual perception of space to?
5a42a04e4a4859001aac7250
True
Alhacen
613
Who said vision is autonomious?
5a42a04e4a4859001aac7251
True
In the early 11th century, the Muslim physicist Ibn al-Haytham (Alhacen or Alhazen) discussed space perception and its epistemological implications in his Book of Optics (1021), he also rejected Aristotle's definition of topos (Physics IV) by way of geometric demonstrations and defined place as a mathematical spatial extension. His experimental proof of the intromission model of vision led to changes in the understanding of the visual perception of space, contrary to the previous emission theory of vision supported by Euclid and Ptolemy. In "tying the visual perception of space to prior bodily experience, Alhacen unequivocally rejected the intuitiveness of spatial perception and, therefore, the autonomy of vision. Without tangible notions of distance and size for correlation, sight can tell us next to nothing about such things."
When did Kant publish one of the most influential works in the history of the philosophy of space and time.
572a15386aef05140015524c
1781
3
False
What was Kant's influential work on the history of the philosophy of space and time titled?
572a15386aef05140015524d
Critique of Pure Reason
37
False
What did Kant describe time as?
572a15386aef05140015524e
a priori notion
172
False
What did Kant say was similar notion to time?
572a15386aef05140015524f
space
239
False
What did Kant say time and space allow one to do?
572a15386aef051400155250
sense experience
270
False
Immanuel Kant
9
Who published Critique of Pure Reason in the 17th century?
5a42b2484a4859001aac72b1
True
Kant
288
Who said priori notions allow us to comprehend time?
5a42b2484a4859001aac72b2
True
substance
330
What does Kant claim time and space are?
5a42b2484a4859001aac72b3
True
our experience
478
What does Kant say we use as a framework to stucture time?
5a42b2484a4859001aac72b4
True
space and time
679
According mto can't what is an illusion?
5a42b2484a4859001aac72b5
True
In 1781, Immanuel Kant published the Critique of Pure Reason, one of the most influential works in the history of the philosophy of space and time. He describes time as an a priori notion that, together with other a priori notions such as space, allows us to comprehend sense experience. Kant denies that either space or time are substance, entities in themselves, or learned by experience; he holds, rather, that both are elements of a systematic framework we use to structure our experience. Spatial measurements are used to quantify how far apart objects are, and temporal measurements are used to quantitatively compare the interval between (or duration of) events. Although space and time are held to be transcendentally ideal in this sense, they are also empirically real—that is, not mere illusions.
What did Leibniz argue against?
572a166d1d04691400779757
the absolutist position
16
False
Which principles did Leibniz's arguments trade heavily upon?
572a166d1d04691400779758
the principle of sufficient reason and the identity of indiscernibles
294
False
Leibnitz held that there is a reason that is sufficient to explain what and why it is the way it is and not otherwise for every what?
572a166d1d04691400779759
fact
421
False
What states that if there is no way of telling two entities apart, then they are one and the same thing?
572a166d1d0469140077975a
identity of indiscernibles
531
False
absolutist
20
Who's position does Leibniz support?
5a42ba0b4a4859001aac72c5
True
the principle of sufficient reason and the identity of indiscernibles
294
What two principles did Leibniz argue against?
5a42ba0b4a4859001aac72c6
True
The identity of indiscernibles states
527
What states that two things are not necessarily the same just because no difference can be identified?
5a42ba0b4a4859001aac72c7
True
Arguing against the absolutist position, Leibniz offers a number of thought experiments with the purpose of showing that there is contradiction in assuming the existence of facts such as absolute location and velocity. These arguments trade heavily on two principles central to his philosophy: the principle of sufficient reason and the identity of indiscernibles. The principle of sufficient reason holds that for every fact, there is a reason that is sufficient to explain what and why it is the way it is and not otherwise. The identity of indiscernibles states that if there is no way of telling two entities apart, then they are one and the same thing.
Leibniz's example involves how many universes?
572a18491d04691400779769
two
34
False
Where are Leibniz's universes situated?
572a18491d0469140077976a
absolute space
69
False
How far are Leibniz's universes situated apart?
572a18491d0469140077976b
five feet
163
False
What is the only way Leibniz's example would be possible?
572a18491d0469140077976c
absolute space exists
247
False
Leibniz
12
Who's example involves one universe in two places?
5a42be694a4859001aac72cb
True
two proposed universes
34
What does Leibniz place at two points in deep space?
5a42be694a4859001aac72cc
True
The example
199
What proves the existence of absolute space?
5a42be694a4859001aac72cd
True
The example Leibniz uses involves two proposed universes situated in absolute space. The only discernible difference between them is that the latter is positioned five feet to the left of the first. The example is only possible if such a thing as absolute space exists. Such a situation, however, is not possible, according to Leibniz, for if it were, a universe's position in absolute space would have no sufficient reason, as it might very well have been anywhere else. Therefore, it contradicts the principle of sufficient reason, and there could exist two distinct universes that were in all ways indiscernible, thus contradicting the identity of indiscernibles.
What stood out in Clark's response to Leibniz?
572a1a6b1d04691400779789
the bucket argument
75
False
According to Clark's argument, water in a bucket, hung from a rope and spun, will begin with kind of surface?
572a1a6b1d0469140077978a
flat
167
False
As the buck spins, what happens to the water?
572a1a6b1d0469140077978b
the water will become concave
239
False
If the buck stops, the water will do what?
572a1a6b1d0469140077978c
continue to spin
311
False
What is the surface of the water apparently not caused by?
572a1a6b1d0469140077978d
the interaction of the bucket and the water
444
False
Leibniz
52
Who makes the bucket argument in response to Clarke and Newton?
5a42bf8e4a4859001aac72d1
True
the surface of the water
224
What becomes flat as the bucket spins?
5a42bf8e4a4859001aac72d2
True
water
243
What does the bucket interact with to create the water surface?
5a42bf8e4a4859001aac72d3
True
the surface
359
What becomes flat when the bucket stops spinning?
5a42bf8e4a4859001aac72d4
True
Standing out in Clarke's (and Newton's) response to Leibniz's arguments is the bucket argument: Water in a bucket, hung from a rope and set to spin, will start with a flat surface. As the water begins to spin in the bucket, the surface of the water will become concave. If the bucket is stopped, the water will continue to spin, and while the spin continues, the surface will remain concave. The concave surface is apparently not the result of the interaction of the bucket and the water, since the surface is flat when the bucket first starts to spin, it becomes concave as the water starts to spin, and it remains concave as the bucket stops.
Leibniz describes space as existing only as a relation between what?
572a1b551d04691400779793
objects
65
False
According to Leibniz, what has no existence apart from the existence of objections?
572a1b551d04691400779794
space
20
False
What provides the absolute frame of reference within which objects can have motion?
572a1b551d04691400779795
Newtonian space
200
False
In Newton's system, how does the frame of reference exist between objects within it?
572a1b551d04691400779796
independently
345
False
For how long did the evidence of a concave water surface hold authority in reference to space?
572a1b551d04691400779797
many centuries
469
False
objects
65
What does space exist independently from?
5a42c1514a4859001aac72e3
True
Motion
144
What exists as a relationship between space and objects?
5a42c1514a4859001aac72e4
True
Newtonian space
200
What provides the absolute frame of refrence for space?
5a42c1514a4859001aac72e5
True
objects contained within it
366
What is dependent on the frame of refrence in Newtonian space?
5a42c1514a4859001aac72e6
True
evidence of a concave water surface
489
What evidence still holds authority?
5a42c1514a4859001aac72e7
True
Leibniz describes a space that exists only as a relation between objects, and which has no existence apart from the existence of those objects. Motion exists only as a relation between those objects. Newtonian space provided the absolute frame of reference within which objects can have motion. In Newton's system, the frame of reference exists independently of the objects contained within it. These objects can be described as moving in relation to space itself. For many centuries, the evidence of a concave water surface held authority.
How did Mach describe thought experiments like the bucket argument?
572a1c096aef051400155298
problematic
69
False
What is difficult to confirm about the bucket in the absence of anything else in the universe?
572a1c096aef051400155299
that the bucket was indeed spinning
386
False
What was equally possible about the surface of the water in the bucket?
572a1c096aef05140015529a
would remain flat.
493
False
Mach
0
Who expanded on thought experiments?
5a42c20b4a4859001aac72ed
True
that the bucket was indeed spinning
386
What can be confirmed about the bucket independent of other objects in the universe?
5a42c20b4a4859001aac72ee
True
the surface of the water
454
What could not remain flat in absolute space?
5a42c20b4a4859001aac72ef
True
Mach suggested that thought experiments like the bucket argument are problematic. If we were to imagine a universe that only contains a bucket, on Newton's account, this bucket could be set to spin relative to absolute space, and the water it contained would form the characteristic concave surface. But in the absence of anything else in the universe, it would be difficult to confirm that the bucket was indeed spinning. It seems equally possible that the surface of the water in the bucket would remain flat.
What did Mach argue about the water experiment in an otherwise empty universe?
572a1ef81d046914007797a5
would remain flat
81
False
What did Mach argue would happen if another object were introduce in the bucket's universe?
572a1ef81d046914007797a6
the bucket could be seen as rotating
229
False
What does the increase in the number of objects in the universe do to the curvature of the water?
572a1ef81d046914007797a7
increases the curvature
431
False
The Mach argument is called what?
572a1ef81d046914007797a8
Mach's Principle
619
False
Mach argued that the momentum of an object exists as a result of the sum of the effects of what?
572a1ef81d046914007797a9
effects of other objects in the universe
577
False
Mach
0
Who argued that the water experiment in an empty univers would never be flat?
5a42c4a14a4859001aac72f3
True
another object
107
What would need to be removed from the universe to prove that the bucket was moving?
5a42c4a14a4859001aac72f4
True
the curvature in the water.
441
What decreases as objects are added to the universe?
5a42c4a14a4859001aac72f5
True
Mach's Principle
619
What principle argues that the momentum of an object is independent of other objects in the universe?
5a42c4a14a4859001aac72f6
True
Mach argued that, in effect, the water experiment in an otherwise empty universe would remain flat. But if another object were introduced into this universe, perhaps a distant star, there would now be something relative to which the bucket could be seen as rotating. The water inside the bucket could possibly have a slight curve. To account for the curve that we observe, an increase in the number of objects in the universe also increases the curvature in the water. Mach argued that the momentum of an object, whether angular or linear, exists as a result of the sum of the effects of other objects in the universe (Mach's Principle).
lbert Einstein proposed that the laws of physics should be based on what principle?
572a203b6aef0514001552da
relativity
86
False
The principle of relativity holds that the rules of physics must be the same for who?
572a203b6aef0514001552db
all observers
166
False
In all reference frames, how is the the speed of light?
572a203b6aef0514001552dc
the same
261
False
Einstein's theory was motivated by who?
572a203b6aef0514001552dd
Maxwell
330
False
Before Einstein, speed was though to be relative to what?
572a203b6aef0514001552de
the luminiferous ether
606
False
Albert Einstein
0
Who proposed  that the laws of physics where not dependent on relativity?
5a42c5fc4a4859001aac72fb
True
rules of physics
128
What did Einstein agrue was dependent on the observers frame of refrence?
5a42c5fc4a4859001aac72fc
True
principle of relativity
73
Whatprinciples that light moves at different speeds depending on the refrence point?
5a42c5fc4a4859001aac72fd
True
Maxwell's equations
443
What equation was motivated by Einstein's theory?
5a42c5fc4a4859001aac72fe
True
Albert Einstein proposed that the laws of physics should be based on the principle of relativity. This principle holds that the rules of physics must be the same for all observers, regardless of the frame of reference that is used, and that light propagates at the same speed in all reference frames. This theory was motivated by Maxwell's equations, which show that electromagnetic waves propagate in a vacuum at the speed of light. However, Maxwell's equations give no indication of what this speed is relative to. Prior to Einstein, it was thought that this speed was relative to a fixed medium, called the luminiferous ether. In contrast, the theory of special relativity postulates that light propagates at the speed of light in all inertial frames, and examines the implications of this postulate.
In classical physics, an inertial reference frame is one in which an object without force does what?
572a211b3f37b31900478717
does not accelerate
103
False
What follows a geodesic of space-time?
572a211b3f37b31900478718
an inertial frame of reference
147
False
An object in free fall does not experience what?
572a211b3f37b31900478719
force
335
False
What holds an object standing on earth against the geodesic?
572a211b3f37b3190047871a
the surface of the planet
489
False
Why will water become concave, according to the relativity theory?
572a211b3f37b3190047871b
it is rotating with respect to the geodesic.
756
False
inertial reference frame
25
What kind of frame includes objects that do not accelerate when force in applied to them?
5a42c7f24a4859001aac7303
True
geodesic of space-time
205
What does an external frame of refrence follow?
5a42c7f24a4859001aac7304
True
force
283
What is not experienced by objects moving against a geodesic?
5a42c7f24a4859001aac7305
True
a geodesic of space-time.
203
What is an object in free fall moving against?
5a42c7f24a4859001aac7306
True
force
283
What is experienced by objects in free-fall?
5a42c7f24a4859001aac7307
True
In classical physics, an inertial reference frame is one in which an object that experiences no forces does not accelerate. In general relativity, an inertial frame of reference is one that is following a geodesic of space-time. An object that moves against a geodesic experiences a force. An object in free fall does not experience a force, because it is following a geodesic. An object standing on the earth, however, will experience a force, as it is being held against the geodesic by the surface of the planet. In light of this, the bucket of water rotating in empty space will experience a force because it rotates with respect to the geodesic. The water will become concave, not because it is rotating with respect to the distant stars, but because it is rotating with respect to the geodesic.
How does Einstein advocate Mach's principle?
572a21741d046914007797c3
partially
9
False
How Einstein's theory compared to Leibniz's?
572a21741d046914007797c4
contrary
179
False
What is considered contrary to idealist beliefs in regards to space?
572a21741d046914007797c5
objects exist independently of the mind
385
False
Mach
29
Who advocates Einstein's theory?
5a42c91c4a4859001aac730d
True
Einstein
0
Who's theory compliments Leibniz?
5a42c91c4a4859001aac730e
True
objects
385
What do idealist believe can not exist independent of the mind?
5a42c91c4a4859001aac730f
True
temporality
495
Space and what have a dependent existence?
5a42c91c4a4859001aac7310
True
Einstein partially advocates Mach's principle in that distant stars explain inertia because they provide the gravitational field against which acceleration and inertia occur. But contrary to Leibniz's account, this warped space-time is as integral a part of an object as are its other defining characteristics, such as volume and mass. If one holds, contrary to idealist beliefs, that objects exist independently of the mind, it seems that relativistics commits them to also hold that space and temporality have exactly the same type of independent existence.
Coordinative definition has how many major features?
572a224aaf94a219006aa82d
two
28
False
The first feature of Coordinative definition involves what?
572a224aaf94a219006aa82e
coordinating units of length with certain physical objects
73
False
What is the first feature motivated by?
572a224aaf94a219006aa82f
we can never directly apprehend length
168
False
The second feature of Coordinative definition involves what?
572a224aaf94a219006aa830
separated objects
467
False
Sameness of length must be set how?
572a224aaf94a219006aa831
by definition
993
False
Coordinative definition
0
What definition states that units of length can not be coodinated with physical objects?
5a42ca724a4859001aac7315
True
length
200
What measurment can be made independently?
5a42ca724a4859001aac7316
True
the equality of length
529
What can be determined about two objects regardless of their distance from each other?
5a42ca724a4859001aac7317
True
length.
837
What is always equal rerdless of position?
5a42ca724a4859001aac7318
True
by definition
993
How must diffrence of l;ength be set?
5a42ca724a4859001aac7319
True
Coordinative definition has two major features. The first has to do with coordinating units of length with certain physical objects. This is motivated by the fact that we can never directly apprehend length. Instead we must choose some physical object, say the Standard Metre at the Bureau International des Poids et Mesures (International Bureau of Weights and Measures), or the wavelength of cadmium to stand in as our unit of length. The second feature deals with separated objects. Although we can, presumably, directly test the equality of length of two measuring rods when they are next to one another, we can not find out as much for two rods distant from one another. Even supposing that two rods, whenever brought near to one another are seen to be equal in length, we are not justified in stating that they are always equal in length. This impossibility undermines our ability to decide the equality of length of two distant objects. Sameness of length, to the contrary, must be set by definition.
The symmetry group of the general theory of relativity includes what?
572a26821d046914007797db
all differentiable transformations
224
False
What else besides  invariance, or symmetry and group part ways in relativistic physics?
572a26821d046914007797dc
the covariance group
62
False
Which theory does the relativity depart from?
572a26821d046914007797dd
classical mechanics
425
False
What are not pair with transformations in the theory of relativity?
572a26821d046914007797de
single formulation
489
False
The covariance group of the general theory of relativity is the covariance group of how many theories?
572a26821d046914007797df
every
634
False
the invariance, or symmetry,
23
What groups do do not coincide in the classical case?
5a42cb724a4859001aac731f
True
the invariance, or symmetry, group
23
What groups coincide in relative physics?
5a42cb724a4859001aac7320
True
objects
346
What is absolute according to the theory of relativity?
5a42cb724a4859001aac7321
True
classical mechanics
425
What theory does relativity coincide with?
5a42cb724a4859001aac7322
True
In the classical case, the invariance, or symmetry, group and the covariance group coincide, but, interestingly enough, they part ways in relativistic physics. The symmetry group of the general theory of relativity includes all differentiable transformations, i.e., all properties of an object are dynamical, in other words there are no absolute objects. The formulations of the general theory of relativity, unlike those of classical mechanics, do not share a standard, i.e., there is no single formulation paired with transformations. As such the covariance group of the general theory of relativity is just the covariance group of every theory.
How many contradictory facts does the problem of the direction of time arise from?
572a2b821d04691400779801
two
58
False
What kind of physical laws are time-reversal invariant?
572a2b821d04691400779802
fundamental
96
False
If if a cinematographic film were taken by means of physical  laws and then played backwards, it would still portray what?
572a2b821d04691400779803
physically possible process
303
False
How is our experience of time at the macro level?
572a2b821d04691400779804
not time-reversal invariant
395
False
What do we not have memories of?
572a2b821d04691400779805
the future
556
False
the fundamental physical laws
92
What laws are time-reversal variant?
5a42cd804a4859001aac7327
True
time, at the macroscopic
360
What do we experience as time-reversal invariant?
5a42cd804a4859001aac7328
True
the past
592
What can we influence besides the future?
5a42cd804a4859001aac7329
True
The problem of the direction of time arises directly from two contradictory facts. Firstly, the fundamental physical laws are time-reversal invariant; if a cinematographic film were taken of any process describable by means of the aforementioned laws and then played backwards, it would still portray a physically possible process. Secondly, our experience of time, at the macroscopic level, is not time-reversal invariant. Glasses can fall and break, but shards of glass cannot reassemble and fly up onto tables. We have memories of the past, and none of the future. We feel we can't change the past but can influence the future.
How are things in statistical mechanics?
572a34106aef05140015536a
complicated
45
False
What are superior to classical thermodynamics?
572a34106aef05140015536b
statistical mechanics
71
False
In order to explain glass breaking, Fundamental laws of physics can be paired with what?
572a34106aef05140015536c
a statistical postulate
258
False
Is statistical mechanics asymmetric or symmetric in regards to time-reversal?
572a34106aef05140015536d
symmetric
360
False
What kind of law is the second law of thermodynamics, as it arises in statistical mechanics?
572a34106aef05140015536e
not an absolute law
533
False
statistical mechanics
7
What type of mechanics help to simplify things?
5a42cfd64a4859001aac7335
True
classical thermodynamics
112
What is superior to statistical mechanics?
5a42cfd64a4859001aac7336
True
glass breaking
178
What thermodynamic behavior can not be explained by the fundemental laws of physics?
5a42cfd64a4859001aac7337
True
net entropy will increase
496
What is an abso;ute law in statistical mechanics?
5a42cfd64a4859001aac7338
True
But in statistical mechanics things get more complicated. On one hand, statistical mechanics is far superior to classical thermodynamics, in that thermodynamic behavior, such as glass breaking, can be explained by the fundamental laws of physics paired with a statistical postulate. But statistical mechanics, unlike classical thermodynamics, is time-reversal symmetric. The second law of thermodynamics, as it arises in statistical mechanics, merely states that it is overwhelmingly likely that net entropy will increase, but it is not an absolute law.
What does the third type of solution to the problem of the direction of time argue?
572a34b91d0469140077984f
the laws are not time-reversal symmetric
110
False
What is are kind of nuclear force is not time-reversibile?
572a34b91d04691400779850
weak nuclear force
221
False
Time asymmetric phenomena in quantum mechanics are to few to account what kind of time-asymmetry?
572a34b91d04691400779851
macroscopic
528
False
the direction of time
43
What does the thirs solution argue is time-reversal symmetric?
5a42d0914a4859001aac733d
True
relating to the weak nuclear force,
205
What processes in quantum mechanics are reversable?
5a42d0914a4859001aac733e
True
time-asymmetric phenomena
436
What asymmetric phenomena are common in quantum mechanics?
5a42d0914a4859001aac733f
True
A third type of solution to the problem of the direction of time, although much less represented, argues that the laws are not time-reversal symmetric. For example, certain processes in quantum mechanics, relating to the weak nuclear force, are not time-reversible, keeping in mind that when dealing with quantum mechanics time-reversibility comprises a more complex definition. But this type of solution is insufficient because 1) the time-asymmetric phenomena in quantum mechanics are too few to account for the uniformity of macroscopic time-asymmetry and 2) it relies on the assumption that quantum mechanics is the final or correct description of physical processes.[citation needed]
Who argues that the fundamental laws of physics are laws of temporal evolution?
572a36f06aef05140015538a
Tim Maudlin
45
False
Maudlin argues that the passage of time is what kind of asymmetry?
572a36f06aef05140015538b
intrinsic
216
False
What grounds the distinction between sequences?
572a36f06aef05140015538c
asymmetry
226
False
Whose suggestion is difficult to assess in regards to the direction of time?
572a36f06aef05140015538d
Maudlin
498
False
Tim Maudlin
45
Who oposses the laws solution?
5a42d1c04a4859001aac7343
True
Tim Maudlin
45
Who says that the laws of physics are not laws of temporal evolution?
5a42d1c04a4859001aac7344
True
an intrinsic asymmetry
213
What does Maudlin claim time is not in the structure of the world?
5a42d1c04a4859001aac7345
True
the distinction between sequences that runs from past to future and sequences which run from future to past
311
What does the symetry in the temoral structure of the world ground?
5a42d1c04a4859001aac7346
True
One recent proponent of the laws solution is Tim Maudlin who argues that the fundamental laws of physics are laws of temporal evolution (see Maudlin ). However, elsewhere Maudlin argues: "[the] passage of time is an intrinsic asymmetry in the temporal structure of the world... It is the asymmetry that grounds the distinction between sequences that runs from past to future and sequences which run from future to past" [ibid, 2010 edition, p. 108]. Thus it is arguably difficult to assess whether Maudlin is suggesting that the direction of time is a consequence of the laws or is itself primitive.
Who started the discussion within analytic philosophy on the problem of the flow of time?
572a3a0b6aef0514001553a2
J. M. E. McTaggart
121
False
How many "temporal series" did McTaggart propose?
572a3a0b6aef0514001553a3
two
174
False
What was McTaggart's first series called?
572a3a0b6aef0514001553a4
the A-series
311
False
The A-Series orders events according to their being in the past, present or future and in comparison to what else?
572a3a0b6aef0514001553a5
each other
442
False
What is McTaggart's second series called?
572a3a0b6aef0514001553a6
The B-series
454
False
J. M. E. McTaggart.
121
Who created a problem with the flow of time?
5a42d2aa4a4859001aac734b
True
The A-series
325
What orders events according to their existance in the past, present or future?
5a42d2aa4a4859001aac734c
True
The B-series
454
What implements refrences to the past?
5a42d2aa4a4859001aac734d
True
The problem of the flow of time, as it has been treated in analytic philosophy, owes its beginning to a paper written by J. M. E. McTaggart. In this paper McTaggart proposes two "temporal series". The first series, which means to account for our intuitions about temporal becoming, or the moving Now, is called the A-series. The A-series orders events according to their being in the past, present or future, simpliciter and in comparison to each other. The B-series eliminates all reference to the present, and the associated temporal modalities of past and future, and orders all events by the temporal relations earlier than and later than.
According to what theory is time an ordering of various realities?
572a3beaaf94a219006aa8f3
Presentism
13
False
Presentism states that at a certain time some things do what?
572a3beaaf94a219006aa8f4
exist
97
False
Who believes that time is a dimension of reality on a par with the three spatial dimensions
572a3beaaf94a219006aa8f5
Eternalist
256
False
According to an Eternalist, what can be said to be just as real as things in the present?
572a3beaaf94a219006aa8f6
all things—past, present, and future
388
False
According to the Eternalist theory, what must we use to describe Homer?
572a3beaaf94a219006aa8f7
special language
659
False
Presentism
13
What states time is the existance of various relities?
5a42d3864a4859001aac7351
True
Presentism
13
What states all things have either always existed or not
5a42d3864a4859001aac7352
True
reality
321
What do Eterialist say time is independent of?
5a42d3864a4859001aac7353
True
future
418
What is more real according to Eternalists?
5a42d3864a4859001aac7354
True
According to Presentism, time is an ordering of various realities. At a certain time some things exist and others do not. This is the only reality we can deal with and we cannot for example say that Homer exists because at the present time he does not. An Eternalist, on the other hand, holds that time is a dimension of reality on a par with the three spatial dimensions, and hence that all things—past, present, and future—can be said to be just as real as things in the present. According to this theory, then, Homer really does exist, though we must still use special language when talking about somebody who exists at a distant time—just as we would use special language when talking about something far away (the very words near, far, above, below, and such are directly comparable to phrases such as in the past, a minute ago, and so on).
How similar are the positions on the persistence of objects?
572a3caeaf94a219006aa8fd
somewhat similar
48
False
Who holds  that for an object to persist through time is for it to exist completely at different times?
572a3caeaf94a219006aa8fe
endurantist
69
False
Who holds for a thing to exist through time is for it to exist as a continuous reality?
572a3caeaf94a219006aa8ff
perdurantist
326
False
Which view is seen as conventional?
572a3caeaf94a219006aa900
Endurantism
577
False
Who is an example of a perdurantist?
572a3caeaf94a219006aa901
David Lewis
878
False
An endurantist
66
Who says that objects existin incompletely in the past present and future?
5a42d4e74a4859001aac7359
True
A perdurantist
324
Who states that an object must in different realities?
5a42d4e74a4859001aac735a
True
objects
1020
What does endurantism take account of the change in?
5a42d4e74a4859001aac735b
True
Endurantism
577
What says that when we talk to a person we are talking to part of a cross-temeporal being?
5a42d4e74a4859001aac735c
True
The positions on the persistence of objects are somewhat similar. An endurantist holds that for an object to persist through time is for it to exist completely at different times (each instance of existence we can regard as somehow separate from previous and future instances, though still numerically identical with them). A perdurantist on the other hand holds that for a thing to exist through time is for it to exist as a continuous reality, and that when we consider the thing as a whole we must consider an aggregate of all its "temporal parts" or instances of existing. Endurantism is seen as the conventional view and flows out of our pre-philosophical ideas (when I talk to somebody I think I am talking to that person as a complete object, and not just a part of a cross-temporal being), but perdurantists have attacked this position. (An example of a perdurantist is David Lewis.) One argument perdurantists use to state the superiority of their view is that perdurantism is able to take account of change in objects.
How can asymmetry of causation be observed?
572a3d3a1d04691400779875
in a non-arbitrary way
48
False
How many features of asymmetry in the cup example can be viewed?
572a3d3a1d04691400779876
two
958
False
Asymmetry is attributable to a relation of what kind of direction?
572a3d3a1d04691400779877
temporal
1373
False
What else, besides direction, is asymmetry attributable to?
572a3d3a1d04691400779878
implications of form and functional capacity
1416
False
asymmetry of causation
9
What can be observed in an arbitrary way?
5a42ceb04a4859001aac732d
True
two
958
How many examples of symetry can be observed in the cup example?
5a42ceb04a4859001aac732e
True
temporal
1373
Symmetry is atributable to a ralationship of what kind of direction?
5a42ceb04a4859001aac732f
True
form and functional capacity
1432
What else besides direction is symmetry attributed to?
5a42ceb04a4859001aac7330
True
However, asymmetry of causation can be observed in a non-arbitrary way which is not metaphysical in the case of a human hand dropping a cup of water which smashes into fragments on a hard floor, spilling the liquid. In this order, the causes of the resultant pattern of cup fragments and water spill is easily attributable in terms of the trajectory of the cup, irregularities in its structure, angle of its impact on the floor, etc. However, applying the same event in reverse, it is difficult to explain why the various pieces of the cup should fly up into the human hand and reassemble precisely into the shape of a cup, or why the water should position itself entirely within the cup. The causes of the resultant structure and shape of the cup and the encapsulation of the water by the hand within the cup are not easily attributable, as neither hand nor floor can achieve such formations of the cup or water. This asymmetry is perceivable on account of two features: i) the relationship between the agent capacities of the human hand (i.e., what it is and is not capable of and what it is for) and non-animal agency (i.e., what floors are and are not capable of and what they are for) and ii) that the pieces of cup came to possess exactly the nature and number of those of a cup before assembling. In short, such asymmetry is attributable to the relationship between temporal direction on the one hand and the implications of form and functional capacity on the other.
Neolithic
What era is commonly known as the final phase of the Stone Age?
572a18f23f37b319004786d3
the Neolithic
57
False
What era preceded the Neolithic?
572a18f23f37b319004786d4
Holocene Epipaleolithic period
93
False
What event is associated with the start of farming?
572a18f23f37b319004786d5
Neolithic Revolution
189
False
What era saw an increase in metal tool use?
572a18f23f37b319004786d6
Copper Age
264
False
the Neolithic
57
What era is commonly called as the final phase of the Copper Age?
5a7cf2c8e8bc7e001a9e20d7
True
Holocene Epipaleolithic period
93
What era preceded the Stone Age?
5a7cf2c8e8bc7e001a9e20d8
True
Neolithic Revolution
189
What event is associated with the start of animals?
5a7cf2c8e8bc7e001a9e20d9
True
Copper Age
264
What era saw an increase in metal animal use?
5a7cf2c8e8bc7e001a9e20da
True
The Neolithic
342
What is a progression of farming?
5a7cf2c8e8bc7e001a9e20db
True
Traditionally considered the last part of the Stone Age, the Neolithic followed the terminal Holocene Epipaleolithic period and commenced with the beginning of farming, which produced the "Neolithic Revolution". It ended when metal tools became widespread (in the Copper Age or Bronze Age; or, in some geographical regions, in the Iron Age). The Neolithic is a progression of behavioral and cultural characteristics and changes, including the use of wild and domestic crops and of domesticated animals.
What time period marks the start of Neolithic culture?
572a19a46aef051400155272
10,200 – 8,800 BC
111
False
Where did the Neolithic culture begin?
572a19a46aef051400155273
Levant (Jericho, modern-day West Bank)
66
False
What food item was the key to the evolution of farming?
572a19a46aef051400155274
wild cereals
242
False
What era lasted between 12,000 and 10,200 BC?
572a19a46aef051400155275
The Natufian period
294
False
10,200 – 8,800 BC
111
What time period marks the start of farming culture?
5a7cf422e8bc7e001a9e20e1
True
Levant (Jericho, modern-day West Bank)
66
Where did the Dryas culture begin?
5a7cf422e8bc7e001a9e20e2
True
wild cereals
242
What food item was the key to the evolution of culture?
5a7cf422e8bc7e001a9e20e3
True
The Natufian period
294
What era lasted between 13,000 and 8,800 BC?
5a7cf422e8bc7e001a9e20e4
True
climatic changes associated with the Younger Dryas
588
What are thought to have forced people to develop culture?
5a7cf422e8bc7e001a9e20e5
True
The beginning of the Neolithic culture is considered to be in the Levant (Jericho, modern-day West Bank) about 10,200 – 8,800 BC. It developed directly from the Epipaleolithic Natufian culture in the region, whose people pioneered the use of wild cereals, which then evolved into true farming. The Natufian period was between 12,000 and 10,200 BC, and the so-called "proto-Neolithic" is now included in the Pre-Pottery Neolithic (PPNA) between 10,200 and 8,800 BC. As the Natufians had become dependent on wild cereals in their diet, and a sedentary way of life had begun among them, the climatic changes associated with the Younger Dryas are thought to have forced people to develop farming.
What objects were not used by early farm societies in the Near East ?
572a1a9aaf94a219006aa7e9
pottery
166
False
What did the use of pottery help early Japanese societies develop?
572a1a9aaf94a219006aa7ea
agriculture
502
False
What trend led to parts of the world developing their own local Neolithic cultures?
572a1a9aaf94a219006aa7eb
independent domestication events
251
False
pottery
166
What objects were not used by early farm societies in Africa?
5a7d056470df9f001a874ef5
True
agriculture
502
What did the use of pottery help early African societies develop?
5a7d056470df9f001a874ef6
True
independent domestication events
251
What trend led to parts of the world developing their own African cultures?
5a7d056470df9f001a874ef7
True
Early Japanese societies and other East Asian cultures
416
Who used pottery before developing events?
5a7d056470df9f001a874ef8
True
Africa, South Asia and Southeast Asia
212
Where did independent domestication events lead to their own cultures?
5a7d056470df9f001a874ef9
True
Not all of these cultural elements characteristic of the Neolithic appeared everywhere in the same order: the earliest farming societies in the Near East did not use pottery. In other parts of the world, such as Africa, South Asia and Southeast Asia, independent domestication events led to their own regionally distinctive Neolithic cultures that arose completely independent of those in Europe and Southwest Asia. Early Japanese societies and other East Asian cultures used pottery before developing agriculture.
When did the The Neolithic 1 (PPNA) period start?
572a1b2caf94a219006aa7ef
roughly 10,000 years ago
36
False
Where is the Göbekli Tepe temple located?
572a1b2caf94a219006aa7f0
Turkey
106
False
Who built the Göbekli Tepe temple?
572a1b2caf94a219006aa7f1
nomadic hunter-gatherer tribes
226
False
What is the name of earliest man made place of worship?
572a1b2caf94a219006aa7f2
Göbekli Tepe
116
False
roughly 10,000 years ago
36
When did the Neolithic 1 (PPNA) Period end?
5a7d063970df9f001a874f09
True
Turkey
106
Where is the Gilgal located?
5a7d063970df9f001a874f0a
True
nomadic hunter-gatherer tribes
226
Who built the Gilgal?
5a7d063970df9f001a874f0b
True
Göbekli Tepe
116
What is the name of earliest man made pillar?
5a7d063970df9f001a874f0c
True
around 9,500 BC
135
When was the earliest man made pillar built?
5a7d063970df9f001a874f0d
True
The Neolithic 1 (PPNA) period began roughly 10,000 years ago in the Levant. A temple area in southeastern Turkey at Göbekli Tepe dated around 9,500 BC may be regarded as the beginning of the period. This site was developed by nomadic hunter-gatherer tribes, evidenced by the lack of permanent housing in the vicinity and may be the oldest known human-made place of worship. At least seven stone circles, covering 25 acres (10 ha), contain limestone pillars carved with animals, insects, and birds. Stone tools were used by perhaps as many as hundreds of people to create the pillars, which might have supported roofs. Other early PPNA sites dating to around 9,500 to 9,000 BCE have been found in Jericho, Israel (notably Ain Mallaha, Nahal Oren, and Kfar HaHoresh), Gilgal in the Jordan Valley, and Byblos, Lebanon. The start of Neolithic 1 overlaps the Tahunian and Heavy Neolithic periods to some degree.[citation needed]
When did the The Neolithic 2 (PPNB) era start?
572a1bc11d0469140077979d
around 8,800 BCE
29
False
What era followed the  The Neolithic 2 (PPNB) era?
572a1bc11d0469140077979e
the Mesolithic era
344
False
How many settlers were found in Jordan?
572a1bc11d0469140077979f
3,000 inhabitants
397
False
What is the name of one of the biggest prehistoric settlements in the Near East?
572a1bc11d046914007797a0
Ain Ghazal
546
False
around 8,800 BCE
29
When did the Neolithic 2 (PPNB) era end?
5a7d0ad970df9f001a874f27
True
Mesolithic era
348
What era preceded the Neolithic 2 (PPNB) era?
5a7d0ad970df9f001a874f28
True
3,000 inhabitants
397
How many settlers were founded in the PPNA?
5a7d0ad970df9f001a874f29
True
'Ain Ghazal
545
What is the name of one of the biggest prehistoric settlements the PPNA?
5a7d0ad970df9f001a874f2a
True
7,250 – 5,000 B
607
When was Amman continuously inhabited?
5a7d0ad970df9f001a874f2b
True
The Neolithic 2 (PPNB) began around 8,800 BCE according to the ASPRO chronology in the Levant (Jericho, Israel). As with the PPNA dates, there are two versions from the same laboratories noted above. This system of terminology, however, is not convenient for southeast Anatolia and settlements of the middle Anatolia basin. This era was before the Mesolithic era.[citation needed] A settlement of 3,000 inhabitants was found in the outskirts of Amman, Jordan. Considered to be one of the largest prehistoric settlements in the Near East, called 'Ain Ghazal, it was continuously inhabited from approximately 7,250 – 5,000 B.
When did the Pre-Pottery Neolithic A (PPNA)  phase start?
572a1e346aef0514001552b6
Around 10,200 BC
0
False
When was a settlement developed in Tell Qaramel?
572a1e346aef0514001552b7
Around 10,700 to 9,400 BC
150
False
How many temples were built in Tell Qaramel?
572a1e346aef0514001552b8
2
272
False
What was the name of the town that first appeared during the PPNA?
572a1e346aef0514001552b9
Jericho
368
False
What materials were used to build the wall around Jericho?
572a1e346aef0514001552ba
stone and marble
424
False
Around 10,200 BC
0
When did the Pre-Pottery Neolithic A (PPNA) phase end?
5a7d0ced70df9f001a874f31
True
Around 10,700 to 9,400 BC
150
When was a settlement developed in PPNA?
5a7d0ced70df9f001a874f32
True
Jericho
368
What was teh name of the town that first appeared during the Tell Qaramel?
5a7d0ced70df9f001a874f33
True
2
272
How many temples were built in PPNA?
5a7d0ced70df9f001a874f34
True
stone and marble
424
What materials were used to build the wall around PPNA?
5a7d0ced70df9f001a874f35
True
Around 10,200 BC the first fully developed Neolithic cultures belonging to the phase Pre-Pottery Neolithic A (PPNA) appeared in the fertile crescent. Around 10,700 to 9,400 BC a settlement was established in Tell Qaramel, 10 miles north of Aleppo. The settlement included 2 temples dating back to 9,650. Around 9000 BC during the PPNA, one of the world's first towns, Jericho, appeared in the Levant. It was surrounded by a stone and marble wall and contained a population of 2000–3000 people and a massive stone tower. Around 6,400 BC the Halaf culture appeared in Lebanon, Israel and Palestine, Syria, Anatolia, and Northern Mesopotamia and subsisted on dryland agriculture.
What are the names of two researchers who divided neolithic chronology into ten periods?
572a1ef73f37b319004786ff
Jacques Cauvin and Oliver Aurenche
91
False
What traits did researchers use to divide the ten periods?
572a1ef73f37b31900478700
social, economic and cultural characteristics
200
False
When was the original division of 10 advanced to a division of 5?
572a1ef73f37b31900478701
2002
250
False
What are the names of two researchers who divided neolithic chronology into five periods?
572a1ef73f37b31900478702
Danielle Stordeur and Frédéric Abbès
255
False
Jacques Cauvin and Oliver Aurenche
91
What are the names of two researchers who divided neolithic chronology into nine periods?
5a7d103570df9f001a874f4d
True
social, economic and cultural characteristics
200
What traits did researchers use to divide the nine periods?
5a7d103570df9f001a874f4e
True
2002
250
When was the original division of 9 advanced to a division of 5?
5a7d103570df9f001a874f4f
True
Danielle Stordeur and Frédéric Abbès
255
What are the names of two researchers who divided neolithic chronology in to four periods?
5a7d103570df9f001a874f50
True
Danielle Stordeur and Frédéric Abbès
255
Who advanced the idea of a final stage between the PPNA and PPNB?
5a7d103570df9f001a874f51
True
In 1981 a team of researchers from the Maison de l'Orient et de la Méditerranée, including Jacques Cauvin and Oliver Aurenche divided Near East neolithic chronology into ten periods (0 to 9) based on social, economic and cultural characteristics. In 2002 Danielle Stordeur and Frédéric Abbès advanced this system with a division into five periods. Natufian (1) between 12,000 and 10,200 BC, Khiamian (2) between 10,200-8,800 BC, PPNA: Sultanian (Jericho), Mureybetian, early PPNB (PPNB ancien) (3) between 8,800-7,600 BC, middle PPNB (PPNB moyen) 7,600-6,900 BC, late PPNB (PPNB récent) (4) between 7,500 and 7,000 BC and a PPNB (sometimes called PPNC) transitional stage (PPNB final) (5) where Halaf and dark faced burnished ware begin to emerge between 6,900-6,400 BC. They also advanced the idea of a transitional stage between the PPNA and PPNB between 8,800 and 8,600 BC at sites like Jerf el Ahmar and Tell Aswad.
When did the domestication of sheep first appear in Egypt?
572a20041d046914007797b5
6,000 BC
87
False
How did Egyptians gather food before raising livestock?
572a20041d046914007797b6
fishing, hunting, and the gathering of wild plants
370
False
What region do some scholars see as the source for Egypt's start in agriculture?
572a20041d046914007797b7
the Middle East
795
False
6,000 BC
87
When did the domestication of sheep first appear in the Middle East?
5a7d135170df9f001a874f69
True
fishing, hunting, and the gathering of wild plants
370
How did Egyptians gather food before raising crops?
5a7d135170df9f001a874f6a
True
the Middle East
795
What region do some scholars see as the source for the Near East's start in agriculture?
5a7d135170df9f001a874f6b
True
Graeme Barker
97
Who suggests that these subsistence changes were due to farmers migrating?
5a7d135170df9f001a874f6c
True
Middle East
799
What do other scholars say that the primary stimulus for states came from?
5a7d135170df9f001a874f6d
True
Domestication of sheep and goats reached Egypt from the Near East possibly as early as 6,000 BC. Graeme Barker states "The first indisputable evidence for domestic plants and animals in the Nile valley is not until the early fifth millennium bc in northern Egypt and a thousand years later further south, in both cases as part of strategies that still relied heavily on fishing, hunting, and the gathering of wild plants" and suggests that these subsistence changes were not due to farmers migrating from the Near East but was an indigenous development, with cereals either indigenous or obtained through exchange. Other scholars argue that the primary stimulus for agriculture and domesticated animals (as well as mud-brick architecture and other Neolithic cultural features) in Egypt was from the Middle East.
When did agrarian societies start to arise in Southeast Europe?
572a213aaf94a219006aa819
7th millennium BC
61
False
Where was one of earliest farming sites in Europe found?
572a213aaf94a219006aa81a
Vashtëmi, southeastern Albania
151
False
What type of sculptures were found in the Balkans from 6000 BC?
572a213aaf94a219006aa81b
Anthropomorphic figurines
211
False
What trend led to Neolithic traditions spreading to northwestern Europe by around 4500 BC?
572a213aaf94a219006aa81c
cultural diffusion and migration of peoples
549
False
Who possibly created the earliest system of writing?
572a213aaf94a219006aa81d
The Vinča culture
694
False
7th millennium BC
61
When did agrarian societies start to arrive in Malta?
5a7d161e70df9f001a874f7d
True
Vashtëmi, southeastern Albania
151
Where was one of the earliest farming sites in Malta located?
5a7d161e70df9f001a874f7e
True
Anthropomorphic figurines
211
What type of sculptures were found in the Balkans from 6,500 BC?
5a7d161e70df9f001a874f7f
True
cultural diffusion and migration of peoples
549
What trend led to Neolithic traditions spreading to northwestern Europe by around 6,500 BC?
5a7d161e70df9f001a874f80
True
The Vinča culture
694
Who possibly created the earliest system of dolmens?
5a7d161e70df9f001a874f81
True
In southeast Europe agrarian societies first appeared in the 7th millennium BC, attested by one of the earliest farming sites of Europe, discovered in Vashtëmi, southeastern Albania and dating back to 6,500 BC. Anthropomorphic figurines have been found in the Balkans from 6000 BC, and in Central Europe by c. 5800 BC (La Hoguette). Among the earliest cultural complexes of this area are the Sesklo culture in Thessaly, which later expanded in the Balkans giving rise to Starčevo-Körös (Cris), Linearbandkeramik, and Vinča. Through a combination of cultural diffusion and migration of peoples, the Neolithic traditions spread west and northwards to reach northwestern Europe by around 4500 BC. The Vinča culture may have created the earliest system of writing, the Vinča signs, though archaeologist Shan Winn believes they most likely represented pictograms and ideograms rather than a truly developed form of writing. The Cucuteni-Trypillian culture built enormous settlements in Romania, Moldova and Ukraine from 5300 to 2300 BC. The megalithic temple complexes of Ġgantija on the Mediterranean island of Gozo (in the Maltese archipelago) and of Mnajdra (Malta) are notable for their gigantic Neolithic structures, the oldest of which date back to c. 3600 BC. The Hypogeum of Ħal-Saflieni, Paola, Malta, is a subterranean structure excavated c. 2500 BC; originally a sanctuary, it became a necropolis, the only prehistoric underground temple in the world, and showing a degree of artistry in stone sculpture unique in prehistory to the Maltese islands. After 2500 BC, the Maltese Islands were depopulated for several decades until the arrival of a new influx of Bronze Age immigrants, a culture that cremated its dead and introduced smaller megalithic structures called dolmens to Malta. In most cases there are small chambers here, with the cover made of a large slab placed on upright stones. They are claimed to belong to a population certainly different from that which built the previous megalithic temples. It is presumed the population arrived from Sicily because of the similarity of Maltese dolmens to some small constructions found in the largest island of the Mediterranean sea.
When was the earliest known Asian farm site found in South Korea?
572a22271d046914007797c9
2012
3
False
What time period was the Korean farm site dated?
572a22271d046914007797ca
between 3600 and 3000 B.C.
469
False
What items were found on the Korean farm site?
572a22271d046914007797cb
Pottery, stone projectile points, and possible houses
496
False
What technology will researchers use to measure a more accurate time period for the farm site?
572a22271d046914007797cc
accelerator mass spectrometry (AMS)
703
False
2012
3
When was the earliest known Asian farm site found in the AMS?
5a7d188670df9f001a874f97
True
between 3600 and 3000 B.C.
469
What time period was the AMS farm site dated?
5a7d188670df9f001a874f98
True
Pottery, stone projectile points, and possible houses
496
What items were found on the AMS farm site?
5a7d188670df9f001a874f99
True
accelerator mass spectrometry (AMS)
703
What technology will researchers use to measure a more accurate discovery for the farm site?
5a7d188670df9f001a874f9a
True
2002
571
When did researchers discover prehistoric plants?
5a7d188670df9f001a874f9b
True
In 2012, news was released about a new farming site discovered in Munam-ri, Goseong, Gangwon Province, South Korea, which may be the earliest farmland known to date in east Asia. "No remains of an agricultural field from the Neolithic period have been found in any East Asian country before, the institute said, adding that the discovery reveals that the history of agricultural cultivation at least began during the period on the Korean Peninsula". The farm was dated between 3600 and 3000 B.C. Pottery, stone projectile points, and possible houses were also found. "In 2002, researchers discovered prehistoric earthenware, jade earrings, among other items in the area". The research team will perform accelerator mass spectrometry (AMS) dating to retrieve a more precise date for the site.
What major trends appeared in Mesoamerica during 4500 BC?
572a23643f37b31900478727
crop domestication and sedentary lifestyles
47
False
What term is used to describe the mid-late Neolithic era in American education?
572a23643f37b31900478728
Formative stage
281
False
What term is used to describe the Early Neolithic era in American education?
572a23643f37b31900478729
Archaic Era
328
False
What hunting weapon was found in the Southwestern US during  500 to 1200 C.E.?
572a23643f37b3190047872a
bow and arrow
794
False
crop domestication and sedentary lifestyles
47
What major trends appeared in Mesoamerica during 11,000 BC?
5a7d1cfd70df9f001a874fa9
True
Formative stage
281
What term is used to describe the mid-late Neolithic era in Asian education?
5a7d1cfd70df9f001a874faa
True
Archaic Era
328
What term is used to describe the Early Neolithic era in Asian education?
5a7d1cfd70df9f001a874fab
True
bow and arrow
794
What hunting weapon was found in the Southwestern US during 1200 to 500 BC?
5a7d1cfd70df9f001a874fac
True
500 to 1200 C.E.
559
When was there a dramatic increase in turkeys?
5a7d1cfd70df9f001a874fad
True
In Mesoamerica, a similar set of events (i.e., crop domestication and sedentary lifestyles) occurred by around 4500 BC, but possibly as early as 11,000–10,000 BC. These cultures are usually not referred to as belonging to the Neolithic; in America different terms are used such as Formative stage instead of mid-late Neolithic, Archaic Era instead of Early Neolithic and Paleo-Indian for the preceding period. The Formative stage is equivalent to the Neolithic Revolution period in Europe, Asia, and Africa. In the Southwestern United States it occurred from 500 to 1200 C.E. when there was a dramatic increase in population and development of large villages supported by agriculture based on dryland farming of maize, and later, beans, squash, and domesticated turkeys. During this period the bow and arrow and ceramic pottery were also introduced.
What social groups were formed during the Neolithic age of Eurasia?
572a24993f37b31900478739
small tribes
61
False
What cultural trend did not first appear in large amounts until the Bronze Age?
572a24993f37b3190047873a
social stratification
214
False
What type of cultures preceded Neolithic societies?
572a24993f37b3190047873b
Paleolithic cultures
797
False
small tribes
61
What social groups were formed during the Neolithic age of Norte?
5a7d219370df9f001a874fc3
True
social stratification
163
What cultural trend did not first appear in large amounts until the Eurasian Age?
5a7d219370df9f001a874fc4
True
Paleolithic cultures
797
What type of cultures preceded Norte societies?
5a7d219370df9f001a874fc5
True
Neolithic societies
734
What were more hierarchical than Norte cultures?
5a7d219370df9f001a874fc6
True
with the rise of metallurgy
413
When did states evolve in Norte?
5a7d219370df9f001a874fc7
True
During most of the Neolithic age of Eurasia, people lived in small tribes composed of multiple bands or lineages. There is little scientific evidence of developed social stratification in most Neolithic societies; social stratification is more associated with the later Bronze Age. Although some late Eurasian Neolithic societies formed complex stratified chiefdoms or even states, states evolved in Eurasia only with the rise of metallurgy, and most Neolithic societies on the whole were relatively simple and egalitarian. Beyond Eurasia, however, states were formed during the local Neolithic in three areas, namely in the Preceramic Andes with the Norte Chico Civilization, Formative Mesoamerica and Ancient Hawaiʻi. However, most Neolithic societies were noticeably more hierarchical than the Paleolithic cultures that preceded them and hunter-gatherer cultures in general.
What caused a major increase in social inequality?
572a257e6aef051400155302
domestication of large animals
4
False
What started competition between families for wealth?
572a257e6aef051400155303
Possession of livestock
179
False
Who was in possession of large herds that would produce more livestock?
572a257e6aef051400155304
Neolithic pastoralists
292
False
What settlement featured equal sized homes with little evidence of capital?
572a257e6aef051400155305
Catal Huyuk
511
False
domestication of large animals
4
What caused a major increase in homes?
5a7d237a70df9f001a874fcd
True
Possession of livestock
179
What started competition between the Catal Huyuk for wealth?
5a7d237a70df9f001a874fce
True
Neolithic pastoralists
292
Who was in possession of large herds that would produce more wealth?
5a7d237a70df9f001a874fcf
True
Catal Huyuk
511
What settlement featured equal sized homes with little evidence of animals?
5a7d237a70df9f001a874fd0
True
Possession of livestock
179
What resulted in inequalities of homes?
5a7d237a70df9f001a874fd1
True
The domestication of large animals (c. 8000 BC) resulted in a dramatic increase in social inequality in most of the areas where it occurred; New Guinea being a notable exception. Possession of livestock allowed competition between households and resulted in inherited inequalities of wealth. Neolithic pastoralists who controlled large herds gradually acquired more livestock, and this made economic inequalities more pronounced. However, evidence of social inequality is still disputed, as settlements such as Catal Huyuk reveal a striking lack of difference in the size of homes and burial sites, suggesting a more egalitarian society with no evidence of the concept of capital, although some homes do appear slightly larger or more elaborately decorated than others.
What was the cultural aspect was the major center of life?
572a270a1d046914007797e5
the household
73
False
What time period were the huge circular ditches found in?
572a270a1d046914007797e6
4800 BC and 4600 BC
301
False
What did the ditches later evolve into?
572a270a1d046914007797e7
causewayed enclosures, burial mounds, and henge
377
False
What features about the ditches suggests that it was built by people under a leader's command?
572a270a1d046914007797e8
required considerable time and labour to construct
426
False
4800 BC and 4600 BC
301
What time period were the huge individuals found in?
5a7d25cc70df9f001a874fd7
True
causewayed enclosures, burial mounds, and henge
377
What did the individuals later involve into?
5a7d25cc70df9f001a874fd8
True
required considerable time and labour to construct
426
What features about the individuals suggests that it was built by people under a leader's command?
5a7d25cc70df9f001a874fd9
True
excavations in Central Europe
129
What excavations revealed that families were building circular ditches?
5a7d25cc70df9f001a874fda
True
that some influential individuals were able to organise and direct human labour
493
What do families suggest?
5a7d25cc70df9f001a874fdb
True
Families and households were still largely independent economically, and the household was probably the center of life. However, excavations in Central Europe have revealed that early Neolithic Linear Ceramic cultures ("Linearbandkeramik") were building large arrangements of circular ditches between 4800 BC and 4600 BC. These structures (and their later counterparts such as causewayed enclosures, burial mounds, and henge) required considerable time and labour to construct, which suggests that some influential individuals were able to organise and direct human labour — though non-hierarchical and voluntary work remain possibilities.
Where was evidence of fortified settlements found?
572a2a391d046914007797f3
Linearbandkeramik
63
False
What did some villages fortify their settlements with?
572a2a391d046914007797f4
a palisade and an outer ditch
164
False
What tools were seen as evidence of violence among settlements?
572a2a391d046914007797f5
weapon-traumatized bones
226
False
What site in Talheim suggests violent warfare in the Neolithic era?
572a2a391d046914007797f6
the Talheim Death Pit
284
False
Linearbandkeramik
63
Where was evidence of fortified lifestyles found?
5a7d28a670df9f001a874fe9
True
a palisade and an outer ditch
164
What did some villages fortify their lifestyles with?
5a7d28a670df9f001a874fea
True
weapon-traumatized bones
226
What tools were seen as evidence of ditches among settlements?
5a7d28a670df9f001a874feb
True
the Talheim Death Pit
284
What site in Talheim suggests violent warfare in the Paleolithic era?
5a7d28a670df9f001a874fec
True
a "peaceful, unfortified lifestyle
536
What did Neollithic people have?
5a7d28a670df9f001a874fed
True
There is a large body of evidence for fortified settlements at Linearbandkeramik sites along the Rhine, as at least some villages were fortified for some time with a palisade and an outer ditch. Settlements with palisades and weapon-traumatized bones have been discovered, such as at the Talheim Death Pit demonstrates "...systematic violence between groups" and warfare was probably much more common during the Neolithic than in the preceding Paleolithic period. This supplanted an earlier view of the Linear Pottery Culture as living a "peaceful, unfortified lifestyle".
What production trait existed in tribal groups that were controlled by charismatic leaders?
572a2e201d04691400779821
Control of labour
0
False
What theory describes the implied egalitarianism of Neolithic societies?
572a2e201d04691400779822
Marxist concept of primitive communism
600
False
What type of disagreement existed in tribal groups that were controlled by charismatic leaders?
572a2e201d04691400779823
inter-group conflict
22
False
Control of labour
0
What production trait existed in tribal groups that were controlled by Neolithic leaders?
5a7d2c8d70df9f001a874ff3
True
Marxist concept of primitive communism
600
What theory describes the implied egalitarianism of labor societies?
5a7d2c8d70df9f001a874ff4
True
inter-group conflict
22
What type of disagreement existed in tribal groups that were controlled by Neolithic groups?
5a7d2c8d70df9f001a874ff5
True
the Marxist concept of primitive communism
596
What is a theory that has explained the egalitarianism of labor societies?
5a7d2c8d70df9f001a874ff6
True
that Neolithic societies functioned under any dominating class or individual
333
What is there evidence of?
5a7d2c8d70df9f001a874ff7
True
Control of labour and inter-group conflict is characteristic of corporate-level or 'tribal' groups, headed by a charismatic individual; whether a 'big man' or a proto-chief, functioning as a lineage-group head. Whether a non-hierarchical system of organization existed is debatable, and there is no evidence that explicitly suggests that Neolithic societies functioned under any dominating class or individual, as was the case in the chiefdoms of the European Early Bronze Age. Theories to explain the apparent implied egalitarianism of Neolithic (and Paleolithic) societies have arisen, notably the Marxist concept of primitive communism.
What lifestyle element changed significantly from the paleolithic to the neolithic era?
572a30906aef05140015534a
shelter
4
False
What era consisted of people living temporary homes?
572a30906aef05140015534b
paleolithic
103
False
What type of homes were built in the Neolithic era?
572a30906aef05140015534c
mud brick houses
191
False
What societal trend was the cause of permanent homes?
572a30906aef05140015534d
The growth of agriculture
257
False
Where were entrances located in early homes?
572a30906aef05140015534e
Doorways were made on the roof
315
False
shelter
4
What era consisted of people living on roofs?
5a7d2f7670df9f001a874ffd
True
mud brick houses
191
What type of homes were built in the paleolithic era?
5a7d2f7670df9f001a874ffe
True
The growth of agriculture
257
What societal trend was the cause of mats?
5a7d2f7670df9f001a874fff
True
on the roof
334
Where were entrances located in early ladders?
5a7d2f7670df9f001a875000
True
growth of agriculture
261
What made ladders possible?
5a7d2f7670df9f001a875001
True
The shelter of the early people changed dramatically from the paleolithic to the neolithic era. In the paleolithic, people did not normally live in permanent constructions. In the neolithic, mud brick houses started appearing that were coated with plaster. The growth of agriculture made permanent houses possible. Doorways were made on the roof, with ladders positioned both on the inside and outside of the houses. The roof was supported by beams from the inside. The rough ground was covered by platforms, mats, and skins on which residents slept. Stilt-houses settlements were common in the Alpine and Pianura Padana (Terramare) region. Remains have been found at the Ljubljana Marshes in Slovenia and at the Mondsee and Attersee lakes in Upper Austria, for example.
What trend led to a major shift in the livelihoods of early cultures?
572a31e61d04691400779835
crop farming and cultivation
111
False
What behavior did humans rely on to survive before agriculture?
572a31e61d04691400779836
nomadic hunter-gatherer subsistence technique
202
False
What era saw an increase in permanently settled farming towns?
572a31e61d04691400779837
the Bronze Age
651
False
crop farming and cultivation
111
What trend led to a major shift in the livelihoods of early towns?
5a7d349070df9f001a875007
True
nomadic hunter-gatherer subsistence technique
202
What behavior did humans rely on to survive before the Bronze Age?
5a7d349070df9f001a875008
True
the Bronze Age
651
What era saw an increase in permanent crop fields?
5a7d349070df9f001a875009
True
A significant and far-reaching shift in human subsistence and lifestyle
0
What was brought about by crop rotating?
5a7d349070df9f001a87500a
True
cities and states
738
What had larger populations that were sustained by labor?
5a7d349070df9f001a87500b
True
A significant and far-reaching shift in human subsistence and lifestyle was to be brought about in areas where crop farming and cultivation were first developed: the previous reliance on an essentially nomadic hunter-gatherer subsistence technique or pastoral transhumance was at first supplemented, and then increasingly replaced by, a reliance upon the foods produced from cultivated lands. These developments are also believed to have greatly encouraged the growth of settlements, since it may be supposed that the increased need to spend more time and labor in tending crop fields required more localized dwellings. This trend would continue into the Bronze Age, eventually giving rise to permanently settled farming towns, and later cities and states whose larger populations could be sustained by the increased productivity from cultivated lands.
What were the causes of famine in early farm towns?
572a329aaf94a219006aa885
drought or pests
97
False
What type of societies were not affected by famine?
572a329aaf94a219006aa886
hunter-gatherer communities
358
False
What type of societies were usually still successful after dealing with famine?
572a329aaf94a219006aa887
agrarian communities
401
False
drought or pests
97
What were the causes of cultivation in early farm towns?
5a7d388a70df9f001a875017
True
hunter-gatherer communities
358
What type of societies were not affected by cultivation?
5a7d388a70df9f001a875018
True
agrarian communities
401
What type of societies were usually still successful after dealing with cultivation?
5a7d388a70df9f001a875019
True
expansion of territory under cultivation
476
What continued without shortages?
5a7d388a70df9f001a87501a
True
particularly acute
230
What could sensitivity to cultivation be?
5a7d388a70df9f001a87501b
True
However, early farmers were also adversely affected in times of famine, such as may be caused by drought or pests. In instances where agriculture had become the predominant way of life, the sensitivity to these shortages could be particularly acute, affecting agrarian populations to an extent that otherwise may not have been routinely experienced by prior hunter-gatherer communities. Nevertheless, agrarian communities generally proved successful, and their growth and the expansion of territory under cultivation continued.
What food related trend was significant in the new agrarian societies?
572a3398af94a219006aa88b
diet
92
False
What forms of availability dictated Pre-agrarian diets?
572a3398af94a219006aa88c
local plant and animal resources
153
False
What was included in the Post-agrarian diet?
572a3398af94a219006aa88d
cereal grains, plants and to a variable extent domesticated animals and animal products.
307
False
What forced the need to supplement food supply with hunting and gathering?
572a3398af94a219006aa88e
the increase in population
482
False
diet
92
What food related trend was significant in restricted societies?
5a7d3c0970df9f001a87502b
True
local plant and animal resources
153
What forms of availability dictated local diets?
5a7d3c0970df9f001a87502c
True
cereal grains, plants and to a variable extent domesticated animals and animal products
307
What was included in the local diet?
5a7d3c0970df9f001a87502d
True
increase in population
486
What forced the need to supplement food supply with nutrition?
5a7d3c0970df9f001a87502e
True
region, season, available local plant and animal resources and degree of pastoralism and hunting
127
What did local diets vary by?
5a7d3c0970df9f001a87502f
True
Another significant change undergone by many of these newly agrarian communities was one of diet. Pre-agrarian diets varied by region, season, available local plant and animal resources and degree of pastoralism and hunting. Post-agrarian diet was restricted to a limited package of successfully cultivated cereal grains, plants and to a variable extent domesticated animals and animal products. Supplementation of diet by hunting and gathering was to variable degrees precluded by the increase in population above the carrying capacity of the land and a high sedentary local population concentration. In some cultures, there would have been a significant shift toward increased starch and plant protein. The relative nutritional benefits and drawbacks of these dietary changes and their overall impact on early societal development is still debated.
What type of occupation were Neolithic people considered to be proficient at?
572a34b83f37b319004787a7
farmers
30
False
What purposes were the production of farm tools used for?
572a34b83f37b319004787a8
tending, harvesting and processing of crops
88
False
What types of tools did early farmers use for crops?
572a34b83f37b319004787a9
sickle blades and grinding stones
141
False
What types of tools did early farmers use for food production?
572a34b83f37b319004787aa
pottery, bone implements)
202
False
What tool allowed early farmers to convert forest into arable land?
572a34b83f37b319004787ab
stone axe
442
False
farmers
30
What type of occupation were manufacturers considered to be proficient at?
5a7d3e5c70df9f001a87503b
True
tending, harvesting and processing of crops
88
What purposes were the production of statuettes used for?
5a7d3e5c70df9f001a87503c
True
pottery, bone implements
202
What types of tools did early farmers use for shelter?
5a7d3e5c70df9f001a87503e
True
stone axe
442
What tool allowed early manufacturers to convert forest into arable land?
5a7d3e5c70df9f001a87503f
True
Neolithic people were skilled farmers, manufacturing a range of tools necessary for the tending, harvesting and processing of crops (such as sickle blades and grinding stones) and food production (e.g. pottery, bone implements). They were also skilled manufacturers of a range of other types of stone tools and ornaments, including projectile points, beads, and statuettes. But what allowed forest clearance on a large scale was the polished stone axe above all other tools. Together with the adze, fashioning wood for shelter, structures and canoes for example, this enabled them to exploit their newly won farmland.
What did Neolithic people use mud-brick to build?
572a3764af94a219006aa8b3
houses and villages
154
False
What scenes did the paintings on homes depict?
572a3764af94a219006aa8b4
humans and animals
250
False
What were European homes constructed from?
572a3764af94a219006aa8b5
wattle and daub
304
False
What types of sites were built for the deceased?
572a3764af94a219006aa8b6
Elaborate tombs
338
False
Where do thousands of early tombs still exist?
572a3764af94a219006aa8b7
Ireland
420
False
houses and villages
154
What did European people use mud-brick to build?
5a7d3f5b70df9f001a875045
True
humans and animals
250
What scenes did the people on homes depict?
5a7d3f5b70df9f001a875046
True
wattle and daub
304
What were Syrian homes constructed from?
5a7d3f5b70df9f001a875047
True
Elaborate tombs
338
What types of sites were built for the animals?
5a7d3f5b70df9f001a875048
True
Ireland
420
Where do thousands of early humans still exist?
5a7d3f5b70df9f001a875049
True
Neolithic peoples in the Levant, Anatolia, Syria, northern Mesopotamia and Central Asia were also accomplished builders, utilizing mud-brick to construct houses and villages. At Çatal höyük, houses were plastered and painted with elaborate scenes of humans and animals. In Europe, long houses built from wattle and daub were constructed. Elaborate tombs were built for the dead. These tombs are particularly numerous in Ireland, where there are many thousand still in existence. Neolithic people in the British Isles built long barrows and chamber tombs for their dead and causewayed camps, henges, flint mines and cursus monuments. It was also important to figure out ways of preserving food for future months, such as fashioning relatively airtight containers, and using substances like salt as preservatives.
What did early humans use to make clothing?
572a3bef3f37b319004787f9
animal skins
43
False
What evidence suggested that humans used animal products for clothing?
572a3bef3f37b319004787fa
finds of large numbers of bone and antler pins
73
False
What were perforated stones used for?
572a3bef3f37b319004787fb
spindle whorls or loom weights
324
False
What famous figure of the Copper Age wore clothes similar to the Neolithic Era?
572a3bef3f37b319004787fc
Ötzi the Iceman
428
False
animal skins
43
What did early humans use to make bones?
5a7d402b70df9f001a87504f
True
finds of large numbers of bone and antler pins
73
What evidence suggested that humans used copperl products for clothing?
5a7d402b70df9f001a875050
True
spindle whorls or loom weights
324
What were perforated antlers used for?
5a7d402b70df9f001a875051
True
Ötzi the Iceman
428
What famous figure of the Copper Age wore clothes similar to the Copper age?
5a7d402b70df9f001a875052
True
Wool cloth and linen
159
What might have become available during the Copper age?
5a7d402b70df9f001a875053
True
Most clothing appears to have been made of animal skins, as indicated by finds of large numbers of bone and antler pins which are ideal for fastening leather. Wool cloth and linen might have become available during the later Neolithic, as suggested by finds of perforated stones which (depending on size) may have served as spindle whorls or loom weights. The clothing worn in the Neolithic Age might be similar to that worn by Ötzi the Iceman, although he was not Neolithic (since he belonged to the later Copper age).
Friedrich_Hayek
In which nation was Friedrich Hayek born?
572a381d3f37b319004787cd
Austria-Hungary
95
False
Friedrich Hayek name was commonly shortened to what?
572a381d3f37b319004787ce
F. A. Hayek
171
False
What award did Hayek receive in 1974?
572a381d3f37b319004787cf
Nobel Memorial Prize
312
False
With whom did Hayek share his 1974 award?
572a381d3f37b319004787d0
Gunnar Myrdal
359
False
Along with being an economist, what else was Hayek known as?
572a381d3f37b319004787d1
philosopher
226
False
Friedrich Hayek CH (German: [ˈfʁiːdʁɪç ˈaʊ̯ɡʊst ˈhaɪ̯ɛk]; 8 May 1899 – 23 March 1992), born in Austria-Hungary as Friedrich August von Hayek and frequently referred to as F. A. Hayek, was an Austrian and British economist and philosopher best known for his defense of classical liberalism. Hayek shared the 1974 Nobel Memorial Prize in Economic Sciences with Gunnar Myrdal for his "pioneering work in the theory of money and economic fluctuations and ... penetrating analysis of the interdependence of economic, social and institutional phenomena."
Hayek became a member of which group in 1984?
572a38cb1d04691400779863
Order of the Companions of Honour
42
False
For what reason was Hayek inducted into the order?
572a38cb1d04691400779864
services to the study of economics
157
False
What award was Hayek the first to receive?
572a38cb1d04691400779865
Hanns Martin Schleyer Prize
228
False
Who awarded Hayek the Medal of Freedom?
572a38cb1d04691400779866
President George H. W. Bush
332
False
Which of Hayek's articles received recognition in 2011?
572a38cb1d04691400779867
The Use of Knowledge in Society
383
False
In 1984, he was appointed a member of the Order of the Companions of Honour by Queen Elizabeth II on the advice of Prime Minister Margaret Thatcher for his "services to the study of economics". He was the first recipient of the Hanns Martin Schleyer Prize in 1984. He also received the US Presidential Medal of Freedom in 1991 from President George H. W. Bush. In 2011, his article "The Use of Knowledge in Society" was selected as one of the top 20 articles published in The American Economic Review during its first 100 years.
Who was Hayek's father?
572a3a29af94a219006aa8d9
August von Hayek
49
False
What was August von Hayek's occupation?
572a3a29af94a219006aa8da
medical doctor
208
False
What was August von Hayek particularly passionate about?
572a3a29af94a219006aa8db
botany
285
False
From whom did Felicitas inherit her wealth?
572a3a29af94a219006aa8dc
her mother
505
False
How many children did August von Hayek and his wife have?
572a3a29af94a219006aa8dd
three
730
False
Friedrich August von Hayek was born in Vienna to August von Hayek and Felicitas Hayek (née von Juraschek). Friedrich's father, from whom he received his middle name, was also born in Vienna in 1871. He was a medical doctor employed by the municipal ministry of health, with passion in botany, in which he wrote a number of monographs. August von Hayek was also a part-time botany lecturer at the University of Vienna. Friedrich's mother was born in 1875 to a wealthy, conservative, land-owning family. As her mother died several years prior to Friedrich's birth, Felicitas gained a significant inheritance which provided as much as half of her and August's income during the early years of their marriage. Hayek was the oldest of three brothers, Heinrich (1900–69) and Erich (1904–86), who were one-and-a-half and five years younger than him.
Who's occupation inspired Hayek when he was older?
572a3b486aef0514001553b6
His father's
0
False
Eugen Bohm was friends with which of Hayek's grandfathers?
572a3b486aef0514001553b7
Franz von Juraschek
181
False
What occupation did Hayek's grandfather's have?
572a3b486aef0514001553b8
scholars
171
False
Who was August von Hayek's father?
572a3b486aef0514001553b9
Gustav Edler von Hayek
464
False
What did August von Hayek's father write?
572a3b486aef0514001553ba
systematic works in biology
585
False
His father's career as a university professor influenced Friedrich's goals later in life. Both of his grandfathers, who lived long enough for Friedrich to know them, were scholars. Franz von Juraschek was a leading economist in Austria-Hungary and a close friend of Eugen Böhm von Bawerk, one of the founders of the Austrian School of Economics. Von Juraschek was a statistician and was later employed by the Austrian government. Friedrich's paternal grandfather, Gustav Edler von Hayek, taught natural sciences at the Imperial Realobergymnasium (secondary school) in Vienna. He wrote systematic works in biology, some of which are relatively well known.
Who was among the first readers of Ludwig  Wittgenstein's book?
572a3c9b6aef0514001553c6
Hayek
208
False
How often times did Hayek and Wittgenstein meet?
572a3c9b6aef0514001553c7
on only a few occasions
392
False
Whose philosophy heavily influenced Hayek?
572a3c9b6aef0514001553c8
Ludwig Wittgenstein
65
False
What did Wittgenstein and Hayek do during the first world war?
572a3c9b6aef0514001553c9
both were officers
623
False
What was the name of the book Wittgenstein published in 1921?
572a3c9b6aef0514001553ca
Wittgenstein's Tractatus Logico-Philosophicus
246
False
On his mother's side, Hayek was second cousin to the philosopher Ludwig Wittgenstein. His mother often played with Wittgenstein's sisters, and had known Ludwig well. As a result of their family relationship, Hayek became one of the first to read Wittgenstein's Tractatus Logico-Philosophicus when the book was published in its original German edition in 1921. Although Hayek met Wittgenstein on only a few occasions, Hayek said that Wittgenstein's philosophy and methods of analysis had a profound influence on his own life and thought. In his later years, Hayek recalled a discussion of philosophy with Wittgenstein, when both were officers during World War I. After Wittgenstein's death, Hayek had intended to write a biography of Wittgenstein and worked on collecting family materials; and he later assisted biographers of Wittgenstein.
What did Hayek conclude regarding his brothers?
572a3e323f37b31900478811
they were somehow of a different generation
537
False
With whom did Hayek more frequently converse?
572a3e323f37b31900478812
adults
613
False
Prior to his schooling, what was the state of Hayek's reading skills?
572a3e323f37b31900478813
read fluently and frequently
76
False
Who told Hayek he should begin reading Hugo de Vries works?
572a3e323f37b31900478814
his father
132
False
Which philosopher did Hayek learn about in a school lecture?
572a3e323f37b31900478815
Aristotle
348
False
Hayek displayed an intellectual and academic bent from a very young age. He read fluently and frequently before going to school. At his father's suggestion, Hayek, as a teenager, read the genetic and evolutionary works of Hugo de Vries and the philosophical works of Ludwig Feuerbach. In school Hayek was much taken by one instructor's lectures on Aristotle's ethics. In his unpublished autobiographical notes, Hayek recalled a division between him and his younger brothers who were only few years younger than him, but he believed that they were somehow of a different generation. He preferred to associate with adults.
Where did Hayek acquire his doctorates?
572a3fa3af94a219006aa90d
University of Vienna
7
False
Where did Hayek learn about the brain?
572a3fa3af94a219006aa90e
Constantin von Monakow's Institute of Brain Anatomy
245
False
What was the name of Hayek's first work?
572a3fa3af94a219006aa90f
The Sensory Order
504
False
Where did first show his work?
572a3fa3af94a219006aa910
the Geistkreis
777
False
With whom did Hayek establish the Geistkreis?
572a3fa3af94a219006aa911
Herbert Furth
756
False
At the University of Vienna, Hayek earned doctorates in law and political science in 1921 and 1923 respectively; and he also studied philosophy, psychology, and economics. For a short time, when the University of Vienna closed, Hayek studied in Constantin von Monakow's Institute of Brain Anatomy, where Hayek spent much of his time staining brain cells. Hayek's time in Monakow's lab, and his deep interest in the work of Ernst Mach, inspired Hayek's first intellectual project, eventually published as The Sensory Order (1952). It located connective learning at the physical and neurological levels, rejecting the "sense data" associationism of the empiricists and logical positivists. Hayek presented his work to the private seminar he had created with Herbert Furth called the Geistkreis.
What work did Hayek begin in 1923?
572a412f1d04691400779899
research assistant
479
False
Where did Carl Menger and Friedrich von Wieser influence Hayek?
572a412f1d0469140077989a
University of Vienna
28
False
For whom did Hayek work upon being hired by Ludwig von Mises?
572a412f1d0469140077989b
the Austrian government
341
False
What was Hayek gathering during his time as a research assistant?
572a412f1d0469140077989c
macroeconomic data
556
False
What was the name of the professor Hayek worked for as a research assistant?
572a412f1d0469140077989d
Jeremiah Jenks
507
False
During Hayek's years at the University of Vienna, Carl Menger's work on the explanatory strategy of social science and Friedrich von Wieser's commanding presence in the classroom left a lasting influence on him. Upon the completion of his examinations, Hayek was hired by Ludwig von Mises on the recommendation of Wieser as a specialist for the Austrian government working on the legal and economic details of the Treaty of Saint Germain. Between 1923 and 1924 Hayek worked as a research assistant to Prof. Jeremiah Jenks of New York University, compiling macroeconomic data on the American economy and the operations of the US Federal Reserve.
What ideology was Hayek originally in support of?
572a427e3f37b3190047883b
democratic socialism
34
False
What caused Hayek to turn away from Wiser's ideology?
572a427e3f37b3190047883c
reading von Mises' book Socialism
167
False
During his attendance to von Mises' seminars, who did Hayek become friends with?
572a427e3f37b3190047883d
Eric Voegelin
588
False
What viewpoint did the book Socialism shift Hayek toward?
572a427e3f37b3190047883e
classical liberalism
125
False
Who is the father of the ideology Hayek came to support?
572a427e3f37b3190047883f
Carl Menger
149
False
Initially sympathetic to Wieser's democratic socialism, Hayek's economic thinking shifted away from socialism and toward the classical liberalism of Carl Menger after reading von Mises' book Socialism. It was sometime after reading Socialism that Hayek began attending von Mises' private seminars, joining several of his university friends, including Fritz Machlup, Alfred Schutz, Felix Kaufmann, and Gottfried Haberler, who were also participating in Hayek's own, more general, private seminar. It was during this time that he also encountered and befriended noted political philosopher Eric Voegelin, with whom he retained a long-standing relationship.
What position did Hayek gain at the Austrian Institute?
572a43b63f37b31900478845
director
70
False
Who requested that Hayek be employed by LSE?
572a43b63f37b31900478846
Lionel Robbins
226
False
What sort of recognition had Hayek received when he came to London?
572a43b63f37b31900478847
one of the leading economic theorists in the world
302
False
What subject did Hayek's works influence and inspire?
572a43b63f37b31900478848
modern microeconomics
553
False
In what year did Hayek come to London?
572a43b63f37b31900478849
1931
204
False
With the help of Mises, in the late 1920s Hayek founded and served as director of the Austrian Institute for Business Cycle Research, before joining the faculty of the London School of Economics (LSE) in 1931 at the behest of Lionel Robbins. Upon his arrival in London, Hayek was quickly recognised as one of the leading economic theorists in the world, and his development of the economics of processes in time and the co-ordination function of prices inspired the ground-breaking work of John Hicks, Abba Lerner, and many others in the development of modern microeconomics.
What did Hayek write regarding fascism and socialism?
572a49233f37b3190047885f
The Road to Serfdom
121
False
Whose works served as inspiration for the title of Road to Serfdom?
572a49233f37b31900478860
Alexis de Tocqueville
269
False
When was the Road to Serfdom published?
572a49233f37b31900478861
March 1944
380
False
Where was Road to Serfdom more popular than it was in Britain?
572a49233f37b31900478862
United States
539
False
Who is responsible for Road to Serfdom being shortened for Reader's Digest in 1945?
572a49233f37b31900478863
Max Eastman
686
False
Hayek was concerned about the general view in Britain's academia that fascism was a capitalist reaction to socialism and The Road to Serfdom arose from those concerns. It was written between 1940 and 1943. The title was inspired by the French classical liberal thinker Alexis de Tocqueville's writings on the "road to servitude." It was first published in Britain by Routledge in March 1944 and was quite popular, leading Hayek to call it "that unobtainable book," also due in part to wartime paper rationing. When it was published in the United States by the University of Chicago in September of that year, it achieved greater popularity than in Britain. At the arrangement of editor Max Eastman, the American magazine Reader's Digest also published an abridged version in April 1945, enabling The Road to Serfdom to reach a far wider audience than academics. The book is widely popular among those advocating individualism and classical liberalism.
Upon leaving London, for what college did he choose to work?
572a4d0f1d046914007798e7
University of Chicago
59
False
Who supplied Hayek's salary?
572a4d0f1d046914007798e8
an outside foundation
202
False
What was the cause for the feud between Robert Hutchins and faculty?
572a4d0f1d046914007798e9
departmental autonomy and control
335
False
Why did the economics department turn down Hayek's employment?
572a4d0f1d046914007798ea
sick of Hutchins' meddling
577
False
What did Hayek serve on after his initial rejection?
572a4d0f1d046914007798eb
Committee on Social Thought
722
False
In 1950, Hayek left the London School of Economics for the University of Chicago, where he became a professor in the Committee on Social Thought. Hayek's salary was funded not by the university, but by an outside foundation. University of Chicago President Robert Hutchins was in the midst of a war with the U. of Chicago faculty over departmental autonomy and control, and Hayek got caught in the middle of that battle. Hutchins had been attempting to force all departments to adopt the neo-Thomist Great Books program of Mortimer Adler, and the U. of Chicago economists were sick of Hutchins' meddling. As the result the Economics department rejected Hutchins' pressure to hire Hayek, and Hayek became a part of the new Committee on Social Thought.
Which of Hayek's works had a profound influence on those at the University of Chicago?
572a56fbfed8de19000d5b99
The Road to Serfdom
81
False
Who played a critical role in the formation of the Law and Society program?
572a56fbfed8de19000d5b9a
Aaron Director
384
False
What group did Hayek form with three other people?
572a56fbfed8de19000d5b9b
Mont Pèlerin Society
633
False
What was the group that Friedman and Hayek supported later renamed to?
572a56fbfed8de19000d5b9c
Intercollegiate Studies Institute
815
False
Hayek had made contact with many at the U. of Chicago in the 1940s, with Hayek's The Road to Serfdom playing a seminal role in transforming how Milton Friedman and others understood how society works. Hayek conducted a number in influential faculty seminars while at the U. of Chicago, and a number of academics worked on research projects sympathetic to some of Hayek's own, such as Aaron Director, who was active in the Chicago School in helping to fund and establish what became the "Law and Society" program in the University of Chicago Law School. Hayek, Frank Knight, Friedman and George Stigler worked together in forming the Mont Pèlerin Society, an international forum for libertarian economists. Hayek and Friedman cooperated in support of the Intercollegiate Society of Individualists, later renamed the Intercollegiate Studies Institute, an American student organisation devoted to libertarian ideas.
What topic were Hayek's next two books going to cover?
572a589bb8ce0319002e2acb
the liberal order
86
False
Which of Hayek's books was not as well received as The Road to Serfdom?
572a589bb8ce0319002e2acc
The Constitution of Liberty
105
False
As of the release of his 1960 book, how long had it been since The Road to Serfdom was released?
572a589bb8ce0319002e2acd
sixteen years
600
False
What was the title of the his 1960 book's second chapter?
572a589bb8ce0319002e2ace
The Creative Powers of a Free Civilization
138
False
How did Hayek feel about the success of the book he released in 1960?
572a589bb8ce0319002e2acf
disappointed
490
False
After editing a book on John Stuart Mill's letters he planned to publish two books on the liberal order, The Constitution of Liberty and "The Creative Powers of a Free Civilization" (eventually the title for the second chapter of The Constitution of Liberty). He completed The Constitution of Liberty in May 1959, with publication in February 1960. Hayek was concerned "with that condition of men in which coercion of some by others is reduced as much as is possible in society". Hayek was disappointed that the book did not receive the same enthusiastic general reception as The Road to Serfdom had sixteen years before.
What country did Hayek move to in 1962?
572a5c54fed8de19000d5ba1
West Germany
90
False
What is the name of the book Hayek started upon his arrival in West Germany?
572a5c54fed8de19000d5ba2
Law, Legislation and Liberty
142
False
Where did Hayek spend an entire year after his retirement?
572a5c54fed8de19000d5ba3
University of California, Los Angeles
319
False
When was the final volume of Law, Legislation and Liberty released?
572a5c54fed8de19000d5ba4
1979
676
False
During his time in Los Angeles, what was the topic of the seminars Hayek taught not related to his new book?
572a5c54fed8de19000d5ba5
philosophy of social science
479
False
From 1962 until his retirement in 1968, he was a professor at the University of Freiburg, West Germany, where he began work on his next book, Law, Legislation and Liberty. Hayek regarded his years at Freiburg as "very fruitful". Following his retirement, Hayek spent a year as a visiting professor of philosophy at the University of California, Los Angeles, where he continued work on Law, Legislation and Liberty, teaching a graduate seminar by the same name and another on the philosophy of social science. Primary drafts of the book were completed by 1970, but Hayek chose to rework his drafts and finally brought the book to publication in three volumes in 1973, 1976 and 1979.
What political party was Margaret Thatcher the head of in 1975?
572a5db3b8ce0319002e2add
British Conservative Party
62
False
Who did Thatcher meet with shortly after she was elected as the head of her party?
572a5db3b8ce0319002e2ade
Hayek
151
False
What path was suggested as the right one for Margaret Thatcher's party by a speaker?
572a5db3b8ce0319002e2adf
the "middle way"
322
False
Which of Hayek's works did Thatcher produce at the Conservative Research Department?
572a5db3b8ce0319002e2ae0
The Constitution of Liberty
536
False
In February 1975, Margaret Thatcher was elected leader of the British Conservative Party. The Institute of Economic Affairs arranged a meeting between Hayek and Thatcher in London soon after. During Thatcher's only visit to the Conservative Research Department in the summer of 1975, a speaker had prepared a paper on why the "middle way" was the pragmatic path the Conservative Party should take, avoiding the extremes of left and right. Before he had finished, Thatcher "reached into her briefcase and took out a book. It was Hayek's The Constitution of Liberty. Interrupting our pragmatist, she held the book up for all of us to see. 'This', she said sternly, 'is what we believe', and banged Hayek down on the table".
What was the name of the agreement Hayek criticized in 1977?
572a5f107a1753140016aee8
Lib-Lab pact
35
False
What did some Liberal politicians claim the pact was meant to do?
572a5f107a1753140016aee9
discourage socialist legislation
576
False
The agreement Hayek criticized was between the British Labour government and which political party?
572a5f107a1753140016aeea
British Liberal Party
62
False
What did Hayek believe was lost in the continued empowerment of a socialist government?
572a5f107a1753140016aeeb
all title to the name 'Liberal'
360
False
In 1977, Hayek was critical of the Lib-Lab pact, in which the British Liberal Party agreed to keep the British Labour government in office. Writing to The Times, Hayek said, "May one who has devoted a large part of his life to the study of the history and the principles of liberalism point out that a party that keeps a socialist government in power has lost all title to the name 'Liberal'. Certainly no liberal can in future vote 'Liberal'". Hayek was criticised by Liberal politicians Gladwyn Jebb and Andrew Phillips, who both claimed that the purpose of the pact was to discourage socialist legislation.
Which party was criticized for being less concerned about liberty and democracy?
572a6092fed8de19000d5bc3
the Conservative Party
268
False
With which political group was David Steel affiliated?
572a6092fed8de19000d5bc4
Liberal Party
43
False
Who disagreed with David Steel's statements in 1978
572a6092fed8de19000d5bc5
Hayek
9
False
Which type of government was more favorable than others according to Hayek?
572a6092fed8de19000d5bc6
limited democracy
427
False
Hayek believed that which type of democracy was the worst of its alternatives?
572a6092fed8de19000d5bc7
unlimited
534
False
In 1978, Hayek came into conflict with the Liberal Party leader, David Steel, who claimed that liberty was possible only with "social justice and an equitable distribution of wealth and power, which in turn require a degree of active government intervention" and that the Conservative Party were more concerned with the connection between liberty and private enterprise than between liberty and democracy. Hayek claimed that a limited democracy might be better than other forms of limited government at protecting liberty but that an unlimited democracy was worse than other forms of unlimited government because "its government loses the power even to do what it thinks right if any group on which its majority depends thinks otherwise".
What group was Hayek inducted into by the Queen of England?
572a61a3b8ce0319002e2af7
Order of the Companions of Honour
45
False
Who suggest Hayek for the honor of joining the Order?
572a61a3b8ce0319002e2af8
Margaret Thatcher
172
False
In 1984, what was Margaret Thatcher's position within the British government?
572a61a3b8ce0319002e2af9
Prime Minister
157
False
How did Hayek wish to be referred to after his 1984 award?
572a61a3b8ce0319002e2afa
Frederick
403
False
At the end of the same day Hayek met with the Queen of England, what did he say?
572a61a3b8ce0319002e2afb
"I've just had the happiest day of my life."
858
False
In 1984, he was appointed as a member of the Order of the Companions of Honour (CH) by Queen Elizabeth II of the United Kingdom on the advice of the British Prime Minister Margaret Thatcher for his "services to the study of economics". Hayek had hoped to receive a baronetcy, and after he was awarded the CH he sent a letter to his friends requesting that he be called the English version of Friedrich (Frederick) from now on. After his 20 min audience with the Queen, he was "absolutely besotted" with her according to his daughter-in-law, Esca Hayek. Hayek said a year later that he was "amazed by her. That ease and skill, as if she'd known me all my life." The audience with the Queen was followed by a dinner with family and friends at the Institute of Economic Affairs. When, later that evening, Hayek was dropped off at the Reform Club, he commented: "I've just had the happiest day of my life."
What was the reason given for Hayek's 1991 award from the President?
572a630e7a1753140016aefa
a "lifetime of looking beyond the horizon"
154
False
Which President presented the award to Hayek?
572a630e7a1753140016aefb
George H. W. Bush
22
False
Where was Hayek when he died?
572a630e7a1753140016aefc
Freiburg, Germany
229
False
Where was Hayek buried in relation to his home town of Vienna?
572a630e7a1753140016aefd
northern outskirts
315
False
Where was The Use of Knowledge in Society published?
572a630e7a1753140016aefe
American Economic Review
489
False
In 1991, US President George H. W. Bush awarded Hayek the Presidential Medal of Freedom, one of the two highest civilian awards in the United States, for a "lifetime of looking beyond the horizon". Hayek died on 23 March 1992 in Freiburg, Germany, and was buried on 4 April in the Neustift am Walde cemetery in the northern outskirts of Vienna according to the Catholic rite. In 2011, his article The Use of Knowledge in Society was selected as one of the top 20 articles published in the American Economic Review during its first 100 years.
What is the name of Mises' 1912 book?
572a69b5b8ce0319002e2b27
Theory of Money and Credit
183
False
Hayek focused most of his economic works on the business cycle, money and what else?
572a69b5b8ce0319002e2b28
capital
56
False
What work did Hayek produce as a result of studying Mises' book?
572a69b5b8ce0319002e2b29
Austrian Theory of the Business Cycle
526
False
What is the English name for the book Hayek published in 1929?
572a69b5b8ce0319002e2b2a
Monetary Theory and the Trade Cycle
705
False
According to Hayek, what was the cause of the banks' wrongful allocation of funds?
572a69b5b8ce0319002e2b2b
artificially low interest rates
1029
False
Hayek's principal investigations in economics concerned capital, money, and the business cycle. Mises had earlier applied the concept of marginal utility to the value of money in his Theory of Money and Credit (1912), in which he also proposed an explanation for "industrial fluctuations" based on the ideas of the old British Currency School and of Swedish economist Knut Wicksell. Hayek used this body of work as a starting point for his own interpretation of the business cycle, elaborating what later became known as the "Austrian Theory of the Business Cycle". Hayek spelled out the Austrian approach in more detail in his book, published in 1929, an English translation of which appeared in 1933 as Monetary Theory and the Trade Cycle. There he argued for a monetary approach to the origins of the cycle. In his Prices and Production (1931), Hayek argued that the business cycle resulted from the central bank's inflationary credit expansion and its transmission over time, leading to a capital misallocation caused by the artificially low interest rates. Hayek claimed that "the past instability of the market economy is the consequence of the exclusion of the most important regulator of the market mechanism, money, from itself being regulated by the market process".
Lionel Robbins came to head which school in 1929?
572a6b587a1753140016af2a
London School of Economics
48
False
In regards to economics, Lionel Robbins believe English-speaking academics had what?
572a6b587a1753140016af2b
narrow approach
139
False
Which man's works were mostly the cause of the ''narrow approach''?
572a6b587a1753140016af2c
Alfred Marshall
323
False
Who was responsible for bringing on Hayek at the LSE?
572a6b587a1753140016af2d
Lionel Robbins
9
False
What did Nicholas Kaldor say Hayek brought to macroeconomics?
572a6b587a1753140016af2e
less "facile and superficial" understanding
583
False
In 1929, Lionel Robbins assumed the helm of the London School of Economics (LSE). Eager to promote alternatives to what he regarded as the narrow approach of the school of economic thought that then dominated the English-speaking academic world (centred at the University of Cambridge and deriving largely from the work of Alfred Marshall), Robbins invited Hayek to join the faculty at LSE, which he did in 1931. According to Nicholas Kaldor, Hayek's theory of the time-structure of capital and of the business cycle initially "fascinated the academic world" and appeared to offer a less "facile and superficial" understanding of macroeconomics than the Cambridge school's.
Hayek's critical analysis of Keyne's work was published under what title?
572a6ceb7a1753140016af34
Prices and Production
178
False
Apart from easy money, what did Hayek believe unemployment was caused by?
572a6ceb7a1753140016af35
artificially low interest rates
366
False
Who did Keynes turn to for assistance in arguing his point to Hayek?
572a6ceb7a1753140016af36
Piero Sraffa
423
False
According to Nicholas Kaldor, what had Hayek's book created?
572a6ceb7a1753140016af37
"a remarkable crop of critics"
807
False
Also in 1931, Hayek critiqued Keynes's Treatise on Money (1930) in his "Reflections on the pure theory of Mr. J. M. Keynes" and published his lectures at the LSE in book form as Prices and Production. Unemployment and idle resources are, for Keynes, caused by a lack of effective demand; for Hayek, they stem from a previous, unsustainable episode of easy money and artificially low interest rates. Keynes asked his friend Piero Sraffa to respond. Sraffa elaborated on the effect of inflation-induced "forced savings" on the capital sector and about the definition of a "natural" interest rate in a growing economy. Others who responded negatively to Hayek's work on the business cycle included John Hicks, Frank Knight, and Gunnar Myrdal. Kaldor later wrote that Hayek's Prices and Production had produced "a remarkable crop of critics" and that the total number of pages in British and American journals dedicated to the resulting debate "could rarely have been equalled in the economic controversies of the past."
What was the result of Hayek's Prices and Production?
572a6eae7a1753140016af44
works were largely ignored
307
False
What is the name of the first book Hayek released to revise his stances from Prices and Production?
572a6eae7a1753140016af45
Profits, Interest and Investment
147
False
Who was particularly critical of Hayek's work following Prices and Production?
572a6eae7a1753140016af46
Nicholas Kaldor
368
False
Lionel Robbins' The Great Depression was a result of his support for what?
572a6eae7a1753140016af47
the Austrian theory of the business cycle
426
False
Who did Keynes' arguments against the Austrian theory of the business cycle eventually influence?
572a6eae7a1753140016af48
Lionel Robbins
385
False
Hayek continued his research on monetary and capital theory, revising his theories of the relations between credit cycles and capital structure in Profits, Interest and Investment (1939) and The Pure Theory of Capital (1941), but his reputation as an economic theorist had by then fallen so much that those works were largely ignored, except for scathing critiques by Nicholas Kaldor. Lionel Robbins himself, who had embraced the Austrian theory of the business cycle in The Great Depression (1934), later regretted having written the book and accepted many of the Keynesian counter-arguments.
What topic did Hayek never write a book about as he said he would?
572a6fe47a1753140016af62
the dynamics of capital
51
False
What topic did Hayek shy away from following Pure Theory of Capital?
572a6fe47a1753140016af63
macroeconomics
274
False
What did Gunnar Myrdal call Hayek?
572a6fe57a1753140016af64
an "ideologue"
611
False
Which of Hayeks books did Milton Friedman praise most?
572a6fe57a1753140016af65
The Road to Serfdom
842
False
Which whom did Hayek share a Nobel prize?
572a6fe57a1753140016af66
Gunnar Myrdal
550
False
Hayek never produced the book-length treatment of "the dynamics of capital" that he had promised in the Pure Theory of Capital. After 1941, he continued to publish works on the economics of information, political philosophy, the theory of law, and psychology, but seldom on macroeconomics. At the University of Chicago, Hayek was not part of the economics department and did not influence the rebirth of neoclassical theory which took place there (see Chicago school of economics). When, in 1974, he shared the Nobel Memorial Prize in Economics with Gunnar Myrdal, the latter complained about being paired with an "ideologue". Milton Friedman declared himself "an enormous admirer of Hayek, but not for his economics. I think Prices and Production is a very flawed book. I think his [Pure Theory of Capital] is unreadable. On the other hand, The Road to Serfdom is one of the great books of our time."
What did Hayek claim those who must distribute resources would lack most?
572a714a7a1753140016af6c
enough information
245
False
Whose work most notably influenced Hayek's argument regarding resource distribution?
572a714a7a1753140016af6d
Max Weber
336
False
What is the one way Hayek argued that resource distribution could succeed?
572a714a7a1753140016af6e
through the price mechanism in free markets
424
False
Other than Max Weber, who was a notable influence to Hayek's statements regarding resource distribution?
572a714a7a1753140016af6f
Ludwig von Mises
32
False
Building on the earlier work of Ludwig von Mises and others, Hayek also argued that while in centrally planned economies an individual or a select group of individuals must determine the distribution of resources, these planners will never have enough information to carry out this allocation reliably. This argument, first proposed by Max Weber, says that the efficient exchange and use of resources can be maintained only through the price mechanism in free markets (see economic calculation problem).
What did some socialists bring up as a rebuttal to Hayek's resource distribution argument?
572a72e474f2e11900503fad
general equilibrium theory
79
False
What did socialists believe equilibrium theory invalidated?
572a72e474f2e11900503fae
Mises's thesis
135
False
According to those who argued against Hayek, what sets planned and free markets apart is what?
572a72e474f2e11900503faf
who was responsible for solving the equations
232
False
What type of economic system did the socialists want to avoid?
572a72e474f2e11900503fb0
free market
547
False
Some socialists such as H. D. Dickinson and Oskar Lange, responded by invoking general equilibrium theory, which they argued disproved Mises's thesis. They noted that the difference between a planned and a free market system lay in who was responsible for solving the equations. They argued, if some of the prices chosen by socialist managers were wrong, gluts or shortages would appear, signalling them to adjust the prices up or down, just as in a free market. Through such a trial and error, a socialist economy could mimic the efficiency of a free market system, while avoiding its many problems.
Which of Hayek's books argued against the socialist price mechanism?
572a75aa27b69114009ef5d8
The Use of Knowledge in Society
3
False
Which type of economy did Hayek believe the price mechanism to be less effective with?
572a75aa27b69114009ef5d9
central planning
311
False
The arguments presented in The Use of Knowledge in Society created an starting point for who?
572a75aa27b69114009ef5da
Oliver Williamson
471
False
The arguments presented in Hayek's 1945 book were a large reason for being granted what award?
572a75aa27b69114009ef5db
the Nobel prize
816
False
In The Use of Knowledge in Society (1945), Hayek argued that the price mechanism serves to share and synchronise local and personal knowledge, allowing society's members to achieve diverse, complicated ends through a principle of spontaneous self-organization. He contrasted the use of the price mechanism with central planning, arguing that the former allows for more rapid adaptation to changes in particular circumstances of time and place. Thus, he set the stage for Oliver Williamson's later contrast between markets and hierarchies as alternative co-ordination mechanisms for economic transactions. He used the term catallaxy to describe a "self-organizing system of voluntary co-operation". Hayek's research into this argument was specifically cited by the Nobel Committee in its press release awarding Hayek the Nobel prize.
What was the name of the ideology Hayek criticized?
572a76d27a1753140016afa4
collectivism
49
False
How did Hayek believe collectivism could be maintained?
572a76d27a1753140016afa5
a central authority
214
False
According to Hayek, what is necessary for the implementation of a socialist economy?
572a76d27a1753140016afa6
central economic planning
504
False
Hayek believed the requirements for a socialist economy would lead to what?
572a76d27a1753140016afa7
totalitarianism
575
False
What did Hayek believe was the core responsibility of the state?
572a76d27a1753140016afa8
maintain the rule of law
308
False
Hayek was one of the leading academic critics of collectivism in the 20th century. Hayek argued that all forms of collectivism (even those theoretically based on voluntary co-operation) could only be maintained by a central authority of some kind. In Hayek's view, the central role of the state should be to maintain the rule of law, with as little arbitrary intervention as possible. In his popular book, The Road to Serfdom (1944) and in subsequent academic works, Hayek argued that socialism required central economic planning and that such planning in turn leads towards totalitarianism.
Hayek believed the state could aid the economy by doing what?
572a798abe1ee31400cb8021
creating a "safety net"
85
False
Who did Hayek say economic security should be guaranteed to?
572a798abe1ee31400cb8022
all
269
False
According to Hayek, clothing, food and shelter should be provided to what extent?
572a798abe1ee31400cb8023
sufficient to preserve health
363
False
What sort of system did Hayek propose the government create?
572a798abe1ee31400cb8024
social insurance
486
False
Hayek also wrote that the state can play a role in the economy, and specifically, in creating a "safety net". He wrote, "There is no reason why, in a society which has reached the general level of wealth ours has, the first kind of security should not be guaranteed to all without endangering general freedom; that is: some minimum of food, shelter and clothing, sufficient to preserve health. Nor is there any reason why the state should not help to organize a comprehensive system of social insurance in providing for those common hazards of life against which few can make adequate provision."
In what economic field of study does Hayek's views differ from those in macroeconomics?
572a7af4111d821400f38b4c
microeconomics
20
False
What is the term used to describe economists following Keynes school of thought?
572a7af4111d821400f38b4d
"Marshallian"
491
False
Whose works inspire the term "Walrasian" in economics?
572a7af4111d821400f38b4e
Abba Lerner
621
False
Hayek's work on the microeconomics of the choice theoretics of investment, non-permanent goods, potential permanent resources, and economically-adapted permanent resources mark a central dividing point between his work in areas of macroeconomics and that of almost all other economists. Hayek's work on the macroeconomic subjects of central planning, trade cycle theory, the division of knowledge, and entrepreneurial adaptation especially, differ greatly from the opinions of macroeconomic "Marshallian" economists in the tradition of John Maynard Keynes and the microeconomic "Walrasian" economists in the tradition of Abba Lerner.
When did Hayek start working on Abuse of Reason?
572a8062f75d5e190021fb0e
During World War II
0
False
What did Hayek specifically aim to expose in Abuse of Reason?
572a8062f75d5e190021fb0f
fundamental misconceptions about the social science
164
False
Whose beliefs in scientific philosophy were similar to Hayek's?
572a8062f75d5e190021fb10
Karl Popper
301
False
What did Hayek use to refer to the spread of ignorance and misunderstanding within the social sciences?
572a8062f75d5e190021fb11
scientism
358
False
In scientism, it is typically believed that explanations in science are what?
572a8062f75d5e190021fb12
simple two-variable linear relationships
710
False
During World War II, Hayek began the ‘Abuse of Reason’ project. His goal was to show how a number of then-popular doctrines and beliefs had a common origin in some fundamental misconceptions about the social science. In his philosophy of science, which has much in common with that of his good friend Karl Popper, Hayek was highly critical of what he termed scientism: a false understanding of the methods of science that has been mistakenly forced upon the social sciences, but that is contrary to the practices of genuine science. Usually, scientism involves combining the philosophers' ancient demand for demonstrative justification with the associationists' false view that all scientific explanations are simple two-variable linear relationships.
In what year was the book published in which Hayek developed Hebbian learning?
572a81def75d5e190021fb2a
1952
81
False
Before he began studying economics, what concept did Hayek come up with that was later featured in his 1952 book?
572a81def75d5e190021fb2b
Hebbian learning
121
False
What did Hayek present in his 1952 book that affected multiple areas of science?
572a81def75d5e190021fb2c
"Hebbian synapse"
270
False
What is the name of the book in which Hayek presented the Hebbian Synapse?
572a81def75d5e190021fb2d
The Sensory Order: An Inquiry into the Foundations of Theoretical Psychology
3
False
In The Sensory Order: An Inquiry into the Foundations of Theoretical Psychology (1952), Hayek independently developed a "Hebbian learning" model of learning and memory – an idea which he first conceived in 1920, prior to his study of economics. Hayek's expansion of the "Hebbian synapse" construction into a global brain theory has received continued attention in neuroscience, cognitive science, computer science, behavioural science, and evolutionary psychology, by scientists such as Gerald Edelman, and Joaquin Fuster.
When did Hayek begin presenting his ideas on the limits of human knowledge?
572a8448be1ee31400cb8067
the latter half of his career
3
False
What did Hayek want society to function around?
572a8448be1ee31400cb8068
a market order
276
False
What is the responsibility of government in Hayek's market order?
572a8448be1ee31400cb8069
to enforce the legal order
377
False
What would be the cause of the success for the Hayek's ideal free-market?
572a8448be1ee31400cb806a
would be self-regulating
720
False
What would Hayek's free-market not require in order to function properly?
572a8448be1ee31400cb806b
good men
847
False
In the latter half of his career Hayek made a number of contributions to social and political philosophy, which he based on his views on the limits of human knowledge, and the idea of spontaneous order in social institutions. He argues in favour of a society organised around a market order, in which the apparatus of state is employed almost (though not entirely) exclusively to enforce the legal order (consisting of abstract rules, and not particular commands) necessary for a market of free individuals to function. These ideas were informed by a moral philosophy derived from epistemological concerns regarding the inherent limits of human knowledge. Hayek argued that his ideal individualistic, free-market polity would be self-regulating to such a degree that it would be 'a society which does not depend for its functioning on our finding good men for running it'.
What concept did Hayek dislike?
572a8598111d821400f38ba4
social justice
36
False
How did Hayek feel regarding income distribution?
572a8598111d821400f38ba5
there is no point in calling the outcome just or unjust
96
False
What reason does Hayek provide for differences in income distribution not being a matter of just or unjust?
572a8598111d821400f38ba6
the results of the individual's efforts are necessarily unpredictable
245
False
According to Hayek, a society in which income is redistributed is what?
572a8598111d821400f38ba7
the opposite of a free society
755
False
Hayek disapproved of the notion of 'social justice'. He compared the market to a game in which 'there is no point in calling the outcome just or unjust' and argued that 'social justice is an empty phrase with no determinable content'; likewise "the results of the individual's efforts are necessarily unpredictable, and the question as to whether the resulting distribution of incomes is just has no meaning". He generally regarded government redistribution of income or capital as an unacceptable intrusion upon individual freedom: "the principle of distributive justice, once introduced, would not be fulfilled until the whole of society was organized in accordance with it. This would produce a kind of society which in all essential respects would be the opposite of a free society."
What has Hayek's views on the market been used to defend?
572a8747be1ee31400cb807b
non-interventionist policy
113
False
What is the term used to describe the obligation for humans to avoid disrupting the ecosystem?
572a8747be1ee31400cb807c
prima facie
689
False
What are ecosystems views to be?
572a8747be1ee31400cb807d
spontaneous orders
772
False
One might still support spontaneous orders without agreeing with which of Hayek's assessments?
572a8747be1ee31400cb807e
analysis of markets
888
False
What is limited by the ignorance of humanity?
572a8747be1ee31400cb807f
our ability to manipulate nature
587
False
Hayek’s concept of the market as a spontaneous order has been recently applied to ecosystems to defend a broadly non-interventionist policy. Like the market, ecosystems contain complex networks of information, involve an ongoing dynamic process, contain orders within orders, and the entire system operates without being directed by a conscious mind. On this analysis, species takes the place of price as a visible element of the system formed by a complex set of largely unknowable elements. Human ignorance about the countless interactions between the organisms of an ecosystem limits our ability to manipulate nature. Since humans rely on the ecosystem to sustain themselves, we have a prima facie obligation to not disrupt such systems. This analysis of ecosystems as spontaneous orders does not rely on markets qualifying as spontaneous orders. As such, one need not endorse Hayek’s analysis of markets to endorse ecosystems as spontaneous orders.
According to Wapshott, who was promoting the implementation of universal health care?
572a88adbe1ee31400cb8085
Hayek
308
False
Who did Hayek say should provide a safety net for society?
572a88adbe1ee31400cb8086
the state
596
False
In which of Hayek's works did he make his statements regarding social insurance?
572a88adbe1ee31400cb8087
The economic calculation problem
273
False
Who made the claim that Hayek was particularly determined regarding his beliefs on social insurance and a safety net?
572a88adbe1ee31400cb8088
Bernard Harcourt
608
False
With regard to a safety net, Hayek advocated "some provision for those threatened by the extremes of indigence or starvation, be if only in the interest of those who require protection against acts of desperation on the part of the needy." As referenced in the section on "The economic calculation problem," Hayek wrote that "there is no reason why... the state should not help to organize a comprehensive system of social insurance." Summarizing on this topic, Wapshott writes "[Hayek] advocated mandatory universal health care and unemployment insurance, enforced, if not directly provided, by the state." Bernard Harcourt says that "Hayek was adamant about this." In the 1973 Law, Legislation, and Liberty, Hayek wrote:
Who criticizes Hayek's ability to provide specific facts?
572a89eaf75d5e190021fb60
Arthur M. Diamond
0
False
Diamond believes Hayek's weaknesses come out when he steps beyond the bounds of what topic?
572a89eaf75d5e190021fb61
economic science
104
False
What term does Diamond use to refer to Hayek?
572a89eaf75d5e190021fb62
intellectual skeptic
449
False
Diamond states that the final result of Hayek's statements are what?
572a89eaf75d5e190021fb63
confused and contradictory
594
False
Arthur M. Diamond argues Hayek's problems arise when he goes beyond claims that can be evaluated within economic science. Diamond argued that: “The human mind, Hayek says, is not just limited in its ability to synthesize a vast array of concrete facts, it is also limited in its ability to give a deductively sound ground to ethics. Here is where the tension develops, for he also wants to give a reasoned moral defense of the free market. He is an intellectual skeptic who wants to give political philosophy a secure intellectual foundation. It is thus not too surprising that what results is confused and contradictory.”
At what point did Hayek claim dictatorships may be necessary?
572a8b41111d821400f38bd2
a transitional period
254
False
What did Hayek claim to prefer over a democratic government in the absence of liberal ideals?
572a8b41111d821400f38bd3
a liberal dictatorship
303
False
What did Hayek believe the Chilean government would become in the future?
572a8b41111d821400f38bd4
a liberal government
529
False
As claimed by Hayek, Chilean citizens had more freedom under which ruler?
572a8b41111d821400f38bd5
Pinochet
768
False
Asked about the liberal, non-democratic rule by a Chilean interviewer, Hayek is translated from German to Spanish to English as having said, "As long term institutions, I am totally against dictatorships. But a dictatorship may be a necessary system for a transitional period. [...] Personally I prefer a liberal dictatorship to democratic government devoid of liberalism. My personal impression – and this is valid for South America – is that in Chile, for example, we will witness a transition from a dictatorial government to a liberal government." In a letter to the London Times, he defended the Pinochet regime and said that he had "not been able to find a single person even in much maligned Chile who did not agree that personal freedom was much greater under Pinochet than it had been under Allende." Hayek admitted that "it is not very likely that this will succeed, even if, at a particular point in time, it may be the only hope there is.", he explained, however, "It is not certain hope, because it will always depend on the goodwill of an individual, and there are very few individuals one can trust. But if it is the sole opportunity which exists at a particular moment it may be the best solution despite this. And only if and when the dictatorial government is visibly directing its steps towards limited democracy".
Hayek believed that authoritarianism was very different from what?
572a8c4c111d821400f38be2
totalitarianism
72
False
What country did Hayek arrive in where he provided his disctinction between totalitarianism and authoritarianism?
572a8c4c111d821400f38be3
Venezuela
235
False
What did Hayek believe to be absent from Latin America?
572a8c4c111d821400f38be4
totalitarian governments
461
False
What is Hayek's definition of totalitarian?
572a8c4c111d821400f38be5
the want to “organize the whole of society” to attain a “definite social goal”
622
False
For Hayek, the supposedly stark difference between authoritarianism and totalitarianism has much importance and Hayek places heavy weight on this distinction in his defence of transitional dictatorship. For example, when Hayek visited Venezuela in May 1981, he was asked to comment on the prevalence of totalitarian regimes in Latin America. In reply, Hayek warned against confusing "totalitarianism with authoritarianism," and said that he was unaware of "any totalitarian governments in Latin America. The only one was Chile under Allende". For Hayek, however, the word 'totalitarian' signifies something very specific: the want to “organize the whole of society” to attain a “definite social goal” —which is stark in contrast to “liberalism and individualism”.
What did Hayek claim to be better than investing in government spending programs?
572a8d8e111d821400f38bea
private investment in the public markets
30
False
What other notable figure signed the letter in which Hayek made his statement regarding private investment?
572a8d8e111d821400f38beb
Lionel Robbins
212
False
Who was responsible for England's return to the use of gold as standard currency?
572a8d8e111d821400f38bec
Churchill
373
False
With whom did Hayek disagree with publicly?
572a8d8e111d821400f38bed
John Maynard Keynes
269
False
In 1932, Hayek suggested that private investment in the public markets was a better road to wealth and economic co-ordination in Britain than government spending programs, as argued in a letter he co-signed with Lionel Robbins and others in an exchange of letters with John Maynard Keynes in The Times. The nearly decade long deflationary depression in Britain dating from Churchill's decision in 1925 to return Britain to the gold standard at the old pre-war, pre-inflationary par was the public policy backdrop for Hayek's single public engagement with Keynes over British monetary and fiscal policy, otherwise Hayek and Keynes agreed on many theoretical matters, and their economic disagreements were fundamentally theoretical, having to do almost exclusively with the relation of the economics of extending the length of production to the economics of labour inputs.
Which economist is cited the most by winners of the Nobel prize in that field?
572ab384be1ee31400cb8197
Kenneth Arrow
133
False
What Nobel prize winner has spent most of his life studying Hayek's capital theory despite being critical of the man?
572ab384be1ee31400cb8198
Paul Samuelson
495
False
On the topic of the practicality of a socialist economy, who does Samuelson believe was wrong?
572ab384be1ee31400cb8199
Joseph Schumpeter
1217
False
On the topic of mainstream economics, whose Nobel lecture was particularly critical?
572ab384be1ee31400cb819a
Hayek's
738
False
Which of Hayek's works does Samuelson cite as being incorrect regarding macroeconomics?
572ab384be1ee31400cb819b
Prices and Production
746
False
Hayek's influence on the development of economics is widely acknowledged. Hayek is the second-most frequently cited economist (after Kenneth Arrow) in the Nobel lectures of the prize winners in economics, which is particularly striking since his own lecture was critical of the field of orthodox economics and neo-classical modelisation. A number of Nobel Laureates in economics, such as Vernon Smith and Herbert A. Simon, recognise Hayek as the greatest modern economist. Another Nobel winner, Paul Samuelson, believed that Hayek was worthy of his award but nevertheless claimed that "there were good historical reasons for fading memories of Hayek within the mainstream last half of the twentieth century economist fraternity. In 1931, Hayek's Prices and Production had enjoyed an ultra-short Byronic success. In retrospect hindsight tells us that its mumbo-jumbo about the period of production grossly misdiagnosed the macroeconomics of the 1927–1931 (and the 1931–2007) historical scene". Despite this comment, Samuelson spent the last 50 years of his life obsessed with the problems of capital theory identified by Hayek and Böhm-Bawerk, and Samuelson flatly judged Hayek to have been right and his own teacher, Joseph Schumpeter, to have been wrong on the central economic question of the 20th century, the feasibility of socialist economic planning in a production goods dominated economy.
Whose 1980 book mentions "informal" economics?
572ab4d5be1ee31400cb81a1
Milton Friedman's
267
False
What is the name of the book Friedman released in 1980?
572ab4d5be1ee31400cb81a2
Free to Choose
320
False
How is Friedman's book described in regards to the price system?
572ab4d5be1ee31400cb81a3
Hayekian
357
False
Which of Hayek's works did Friedman once teach?
572ab4d5be1ee31400cb81a4
The Use of Knowledge in Society
536
False
Hayek is widely recognised for having introduced the time dimension to the equilibrium construction and for his key role in helping inspire the fields of growth theory, information economics, and the theory of spontaneous order. The "informal" economics presented in Milton Friedman's massively influential popular work Free to Choose (1980), is explicitly Hayekian in its account of the price system as a system for transmitting and co-ordinating knowledge. This can be explained by the fact that Friedman taught Hayek's famous paper "The Use of Knowledge in Society" (1945) in his graduate seminars.
Which fellow Vienna native was Hayek friends with?
572ab680111d821400f38ce8
Karl Popper
75
False
Who is the only exception from whom Hayek claims to have learned more than he did from Popper?
572ab680111d821400f38ce9
Alfred Tarski
239
False
Hayek dedicated many of his papers to Popper based on a dedication Popper made to him in which of his work?
572ab680111d821400f38cea
Conjectures and Refutations
297
False
Which of Popper's works was the first to grasp Hayek's attention?
572ab680111d821400f38ceb
Logik der Forschung
487
False
Popper was present for which notable Mont Pelerin Society event?
572ab680111d821400f38cec
the inaugural meeting
630
False
Hayek had a long-standing and close friendship with philosopher of science Karl Popper, also from Vienna. In a letter to Hayek in 1944, Popper stated, "I think I have learnt more from you than from any other living thinker, except perhaps Alfred Tarski." (See Hacohen, 2000). Popper dedicated his Conjectures and Refutations to Hayek. For his part, Hayek dedicated a collection of papers, Studies in Philosophy, Politics, and Economics, to Popper and, in 1982, said that "ever since his Logik der Forschung first came out in 1934, I have been a complete adherent to his general theory of methodology". Popper also participated in the inaugural meeting of the Mont Pelerin Society. Their friendship and mutual admiration, however, do not change the fact that there are important differences between their ideas.
Which of Hayek's books had an impact on those against postmodernism?
572ab7babe1ee31400cb81d5
The Road to Serfdom
386
False
To whom did Hayek owe his intellectual success?
572ab7babe1ee31400cb81d6
Carl Menger
42
False
Carl Menger's work in social explanation was not too different from those in which Scottish period??
572ab7babe1ee31400cb81d7
Scottish Enlightenment
205
False
Hayek's greatest intellectual debt was to Carl Menger, who pioneered an approach to social explanation similar to that developed in Britain by Bernard Mandeville and the Scottish moral philosophers in the Scottish Enlightenment. He had a wide-reaching influence on contemporary economics, politics, philosophy, sociology, psychology and anthropology. For example, Hayek's discussion in The Road to Serfdom (1944) about truth, falsehood and the use of language influenced some later opponents of postmodernism.
In what year was Margaret Thatcher elected Prime Minister?
572ab905f75d5e190021fc6e
1979
195
False
Whom did the Prime Minister of England choose as secretary of state?
572ab905f75d5e190021fc6f
Keith Joseph
229
False
During the 80s and 90s, three major English speaking nations experienced a political shift to to what?
572ab905f75d5e190021fc70
conservative governments
69
False
What position did the British Prime Minister's secretary of state previously hold?
572ab905f75d5e190021fc71
director of the Hayekian Centre for Policy Studies
247
False
One of Hayek's supporters served which US president?
572ab905f75d5e190021fc72
Ronald Reagan's
423
False
Hayek received new attention in the 1980s and 1990s with the rise of conservative governments in the United States, United Kingdom, and Canada. After winning the United Kingdom general election, 1979, Margaret Thatcher appointed Keith Joseph, the director of the Hayekian Centre for Policy Studies, as her secretary of state for industry in an effort to redirect parliament's economic strategies. Likewise, David Stockman, Ronald Reagan's most influential financial official in 1981 was an acknowledged follower of Hayek.
What ideology did Hayek not agree with in an essay appended to The Constitution of Liberty?
572aba88111d821400f38d00
conservatism
133
False
What was Hayek's statement regarding conservatism?
572aba88111d821400f38d01
"Conservatism is only as good as what it conserves."
254
False
What does conservatism have in common with classical liberalism?
572aba88111d821400f38d02
belief in the free market
428
False
What word is used in the United States to identify Hayek's ideology?
572aba88111d821400f38d03
libertarian
773
False
Which ideology did Hayek believe conservatism discouraged?
572aba88111d821400f38d04
internationalism
877
False
Hayek wrote an essay, "Why I Am Not a Conservative" (included as an appendix to The Constitution of Liberty), in which he disparaged conservatism for its inability to adapt to changing human realities or to offer a positive political program, remarking, "Conservatism is only as good as what it conserves." Although he noted that modern day conservatism shares many opinions on economics with classical liberals, particularly a belief in the free market, he believed it's because conservatism wants to "stand still," whereas liberalism embraces the free market because it "wants to go somewhere." Hayek identified himself as a classical liberal, but noted that in the United States it had become almost impossible to use "liberal" in its original definition, and the term "libertarian" has been used instead. In this text, Hayek also opposed conservatism for "its hostility to internationalism and its proneness to a strident nationalism" and its frequent association with imperialism.
What did Hayek suggest as an alternative to being called a libertarian?
572abb9a34ae481900deac87
Old Whig
93
False
In opposition to conservatives, what group has Hayek's work influenced?
572abb9a34ae481900deac88
liberal-minded economists
416
False
Who wrote an essay as a result of Hayek's "Why I Am Not a Conservative"?
572abb9a34ae481900deac89
James M. Buchanan
516
False
From whom did Hayek acquire the term he proposed as an alternative to libertarian?
572abb9a34ae481900deac8a
Edmund Burke
127
False
In his later years, what term did Hayek use to describe himself?
572abb9a34ae481900deac8b
a Burkean Whig
193
False
However, for his part, Hayek found this term "singularly unattractive" and offered the term "Old Whig" (a phrase borrowed from Edmund Burke) instead. In his later life, he said, "I am becoming a Burkean Whig." However, Whiggery as a political doctrine had little affinity for classical political economy, the tabernacle of the Manchester School and William Gladstone. His essay has served as an inspiration to other liberal-minded economists wishing to distinguish themselves from conservative thinkers, for example James M. Buchanan's essay "Why I, Too, Am Not a Conservative: The Normative Vision of Classical Liberalism".
What term do those who disagree with Hayek use to describe his ideals?
572abd0734ae481900deaca3
neoliberalism
60
False
Who was it that claimed Hayek's The Constitution of Liberty to be an thorough example of neoliberal philosophy?
572abd0734ae481900deaca4
Samuel Brittan
95
False
Whose ideals does Brittan believe to win out over Hayek's?
572abd0734ae481900deaca5
Raymond Plant
341
False
His opponents have attacked Hayek as a leading promoter of "neoliberalism". A British scholar, Samuel Brittan, concluded in 2010, "Hayek's book [The Constitution of Liberty] is still probably the most comprehensive statement of the underlying ideas of the moderate free market philosophy espoused by neoliberals." Brittan adds that although Raymond Plant (2009) comes out in the end against Hayek's doctrines, Plant gives The Constitution of Liberty a "more thorough and fair-minded analysis than it has received even from its professed adherents".
Who makes the claim that Hayek was actually a conservative?
572abec0be1ee31400cb81ff
Madsen Pirie
59
False
According to Pirie, conservatives dislike change only when its forced upon them by whom?
572abec0be1ee31400cb8200
people in authority who think they know how to run things better
271
False
Pirie believes Hayek to be a conservative for what reason?
572abec0be1ee31400cb8201
mistakes the nature of the conservative outlook
85
False
What does Pirie claim conservatives want for the free market?
572abec0be1ee31400cb8202
to function smoothly
367
False
In Why F A Hayek is a Conservative, British policy analyst Madsen Pirie claims Hayek mistakes the nature of the conservative outlook. Conservatives, he says, are not averse to change – but like Hayek, they are highly averse to change being imposed on the social order by people in authority who think they know how to run things better. They wish to allow the market to function smoothly and give it the freedom to change and develop. It is an outlook, says Pirie, that Hayek and conservatives both share.
Diarrhea
What is diarrhea?
572a3fbf3f37b3190047881b
the condition of having at least three loose or liquid bowel movements each day
37
False
What is one of the effects of diarrhea?
572a3fbf3f37b3190047881c
can result in dehydration due to fluid loss
152
False
What are the warning signs of dehydration?
572a3fbf3f37b3190047881d
loss of the normal stretchiness of the skin and irritable behaviour
235
False
What are other signs of dehydration?
572a3fbf3f37b3190047881e
decreased urination, loss of skin color, a fast heart rate, and a decrease in responsiveness
325
False
Diarrhea
0
What condition is characterized by loose and watery stools in babies?
5a0df6a9d7c850001886448d
True
dehydration
206
What sign begins with a loss of skin color and a fast heart rate?
5a0df6a9d7c850001886448e
True
loss of the normal stretchiness of the skin and irritable behaviour
235
What are the warning signs of diarrhea?
5a0df6a9d7c850001886448f
True
It often lasts for a few days
118
How long does dehydration last?
5a0df6a9d7c8500018864490
True
decreased urination, loss of skin color, a fast heart rate, and a decrease in responsiveness
325
What are other signs of diarrhea?
5a0df6a9d7c8500018864491
True
Diarrhea, also spelled diarrhoea, is the condition of having at least three loose or liquid bowel movements each day. It often lasts for a few days and can result in dehydration due to fluid loss. Signs of dehydration often begin with loss of the normal stretchiness of the skin and irritable behaviour. This can progress to decreased urination, loss of skin color, a fast heart rate, and a decrease in responsiveness as it becomes more severe. Loose but non-watery stools in babies who are breastfed, however, may be normal.
What is the most common cause of diarrhea?
572a446f1d046914007798b5
an infection of the intestines
25
False
What can cause an infection in the intestines?
572a446f1d046914007798b6
a virus, bacteria, or parasite
70
False
What are the three types of diarrhea?
572a446f1d046914007798b7
short duration watery diarrhea, short duration bloody diarrhea, and if it lasts for more than two weeks, persistent diarrhea
317
False
What is it known as if blood is present?
572a446f1d046914007798b8
dysentery
603
False
an infection of the intestines
25
What is the most common cause of cholera?
5a0df855d7c8500018864497
True
a virus, bacteria, or parasite
70
What causes and infection by dysentery?
5a0df855d7c8500018864498
True
lactose intolerance, inflammatory bowel disease, a number of medications, and irritable bowel syndrome
704
Name some examples of non-infectious causes of hyperthyroidism?
5a0df855d7c8500018864499
True
short duration watery diarrhea, short duration bloody diarrhea, and if it lasts for more than two weeks, persistent diarrhea
317
What are three types of inflammatory bowel disease?
5a0df855d7c850001886449a
True
an infection
25
What is acquired from food and water contaminated by cholera?
5a0df855d7c850001886449b
True
The most common cause is an infection of the intestines due to either a virus, bacteria, or parasite; a condition known as gastroenteritis. These infections are often acquired from food or water that has been contaminated by stool, or directly from another person who is infected. It may be divided into three types: short duration watery diarrhea, short duration bloody diarrhea, and if it lasts for more than two weeks, persistent diarrhea. The short duration watery diarrhea may be due to an infection by cholera, although this is rare in the developed world. If blood is present it is also known as dysentery. A number of non-infectious causes may also result in diarrhea, including hyperthyroidism, lactose intolerance, inflammatory bowel disease, a number of medications, and irritable bowel syndrome. In most cases, stool cultures are not required to confirm the exact cause.
What are some ways to prevent diarrhea?
572a46351d046914007798bd
improved sanitation, clean drinking water, and hand washing with soap
40
False
What else can a mom do to prevent diarrhea for her baby?
572a46351d046914007798be
Breastfeeding for at least six months
111
False
What is the treatment of choice for diarrhea?
572a46351d046914007798bf
Oral rehydration solution (ORS), which is clean water with modest amounts of salts and sugar
206
False
What conditions would a doctor prescribe antibiotics?
572a46351d046914007798c0
cases such as those who have bloody diarrhea and a high fever, those with severe diarrhea following travelling, and those who grow specific bacteria or parasites
838
False
in a few cases such as those who have bloody diarrhea and a high fever
829
Name two examples when amounts of salts and sugar are recommended although rarely used?
5a0dfa2fd7c85000188644a1
True
Breastfeeding for at least six months
111
What can a woman do to prevent high fever for her baby?
5a0dfa2fd7c85000188644a2
True
they continue to eat healthy food
505
What are people who have rotovirus recommended to do?
5a0dfa2fd7c85000188644a3
True
homemade solutions may be used
613
What can be used if commercial antibiotics are not available?
5a0dfa2fd7c85000188644a4
True
improved sanitation, clean drinking water, and hand washing with soap
40
How do you prevent infectious rotovirus?
5a0dfa2fd7c85000188644a5
True
Prevention of infectious diarrhea is by improved sanitation, clean drinking water, and hand washing with soap. Breastfeeding for at least six months is also recommended as is vaccination against rotavirus. Oral rehydration solution (ORS), which is clean water with modest amounts of salts and sugar, is the treatment of choice. Zinc tablets are also recommended. These treatments have been estimated to have saved 50 million children in the past 25 years. When people have diarrhea it is recommended that they continue to eat healthy food and babies continue to be breastfed. If commercial ORS are not available, homemade solutions may be used. In those with severe dehydration, intravenous fluids may be required. Most cases; however, can be managed well with fluids by mouth. Antibiotics, while rarely used, may be recommended in a few cases such as those who have bloody diarrhea and a high fever, those with severe diarrhea following travelling, and those who grow specific bacteria or parasites in their stool. Loperamide may help decrease the number of bowel movement but is not recommended in those with severe disease.
HOw many cases of diarrhea are there a year?
572a49623f37b31900478869
1.7 to 5 billion cases
6
False
How often do kids get diarrhea in developing countries?
572a49623f37b3190047886a
average three times a year
137
False
Frequent episodes of diarrhea are common in what type of cases?
572a49623f37b3190047886b
malnutrition
428
False
What long term issues can arise from frequent diarrhea?
572a49623f37b3190047886c
stunted growth and poor intellectual development
557
False
malnutrition
428
What do frequent episodes of stunted growth cause?
5a0dfc19d7c85000188644ab
True
About 1.7 to 5 billion cases
0
How many cases of malnutrition happen per year?
5a0dfc19d7c85000188644ac
True
stunted growth and poor intellectual development
557
What long term issues can happen from frequent malnutrition?
5a0dfc19d7c85000188644ad
True
average three times a year
137
How often do kids have malnutrition in developing countries?
5a0dfc19d7c85000188644ae
True
1.26 million
209
What is the estimate of total deaths from stunted growth in 2013?
5a0dfc19d7c85000188644af
True
About 1.7 to 5 billion cases of diarrhea occur per year. It is most common in developing countries, where young children get diarrhea on average three times a year. Total deaths from diarrhea are estimated at 1.26 million in 2013 – down from 2.58 million in 1990. In 2012, it is the second most common cause of deaths in children younger than five (0.76 million or 11%). Frequent episodes of diarrhea are also a common cause of malnutrition and the most common cause in those younger than five years of age. Other long term problems that can result include stunted growth and poor intellectual development.
What is secretory diarrhea?
572a4e22fed8de19000d5b89
an increase in the active secretion, or there is an inhibition of absorption
39
False
What are the causes of secretory diarrhea?
572a4e22fed8de19000d5b8a
cause of this type of diarrhea is a cholera toxin that stimulates the secretion of anions, especially chloride ions
174
False
Is there any structural damage associated with secretory diarrhea?
572a4e22fed8de19000d5b8b
. There is little to no structural damage.
115
False
Secretory diarrhea
0
What means there is an increase in structural damage or absorption inhibition?
5a0dfd6ed7c85000188644b5
True
a cholera toxin that stimulates the secretion of anions, especially chloride ions.
208
What causes inhibition of absorption?
5a0dfd6ed7c85000188644b6
True
There is little to no structural damage
117
Is there any structural damage associated with oral food intake?
5a0dfd6ed7c85000188644b7
True
fluid secretion is isotonic with plasma even during fasting
426
What happens to fluid secretion when there is oral food intake?
5a0dfd6ed7c85000188644b8
True
a cholera toxin
208
What stimulates the secretion of chloride plasma?
5a0dfd6ed7c85000188644b9
True
Secretory diarrhea means that there is an increase in the active secretion, or there is an inhibition of absorption. There is little to no structural damage. The most common cause of this type of diarrhea is a cholera toxin that stimulates the secretion of anions, especially chloride ions. Therefore, to maintain a charge balance in the lumen, sodium is carried with it, along with water. In this type of diarrhea intestinal fluid secretion is isotonic with plasma even during fasting. It continues even when there is no oral food intake.
What occures with osmotic diarrhea?
572a50757a1753140016ae9e
s when too much water is drawn into the bowels
22
False
What causes osmotic diarrhea?
572a50757a1753140016ae9f
If a person drinks solutions with excessive sugar or excessive salt, these can draw water from the body into the bowel
70
False
How do osmotic lazatives work?
572a50757a1753140016aea0
alleviate constipation by drawing water into the bowels
439
False
What can cause osmotic diarrhea in healthy people?
572a50757a1753140016aea1
too much magnesium or vitamin C or undigested lactose
521
False
If a person drinks solutions with excessive sugar or excessive salt, these can draw water from the body into the bowel
70
What causes osmotic intolerance?
5a0dff70d7c85000188644bf
True
too much magnesium or vitamin C or undigested lactose
521
What can cause excess fructose in healthy individuals?
5a0dff70d7c85000188644c0
True
by drawing water into the bowels
462
How does fructose malabsorption work?
5a0dff70d7c85000188644c1
True
lactose
700
What does a person with Coeliac disease have difficulty absorbing after eating dairy products?
5a0dff70d7c85000188644c2
True
High-fructose foods
856
What foods that have a high dairy content are less likely to cause diarrhea?
5a0dff70d7c85000188644c3
True
Osmotic diarrhea occurs when too much water is drawn into the bowels. If a person drinks solutions with excessive sugar or excessive salt, these can draw water from the body into the bowel and cause osmotic diarrhea. Osmotic diarrhea can also be the result of maldigestion (e.g., pancreatic disease or Coeliac disease), in which the nutrients are left in the lumen to pull in water. Or it can be caused by osmotic laxatives (which work to alleviate constipation by drawing water into the bowels). In healthy individuals, too much magnesium or vitamin C or undigested lactose can produce osmotic diarrhea and distention of the bowel. A person who has lactose intolerance can have difficulty absorbing lactose after an extraordinarily high intake of dairy products. In persons who have fructose malabsorption, excess fructose intake can also cause diarrhea. High-fructose foods that also have a high glucose content are more absorbable and less likely to cause diarrhea. Sugar alcohols such as sorbitol (often found in sugar-free foods) are difficult for the body to absorb and, in large amounts, may lead to osmotic diarrhea. In most of these cases, osmotic diarrhea stops when offending agent (e.g. milk, sorbitol) is stopped.
When does inflammatory diarrhea occur?
572a51a3b8ce0319002e2a9b
when there is damage to the mucosal lining or brush border
29
False
What happens with inflammatory diarrhea?
572a51a3b8ce0319002e2a9c
a passive loss of protein-rich fluids and a decreased ability to absorb these lost fluids
104
False
What can cause inflammatory diarrhea?
572a51a3b8ce0319002e2a9d
bacterial infections, viral infections, parasitic infections, or autoimmune problems
329
False
What other causes are there for inflammatory diarrhea?
572a51a3b8ce0319002e2a9e
tuberculosis, colon cancer, and enteritis.
476
False
when there is damage to the mucosal lining or brush border
29
What causes inflammatory tuberculosis?
5a0e0070d7c85000188644c9
True
a passive loss of protein-rich fluids and a decreased ability to absorb these lost fluids
104
What does enteritis lead to?
5a0e0070d7c85000188644ca
True
tuberculosis, colon cancer, and enteritis
476
What other causes are there for parasitic infections?
5a0e0070d7c85000188644cb
True
bacterial infections, viral infections, parasitic infections, or autoimmune problems
329
Name other causes of viral infections?
5a0e0070d7c85000188644cc
True
the mucosal lining or brush border
53
What is damaged when color cancer occurs?
5a0e0070d7c85000188644cd
True
Inflammatory diarrhea occurs when there is damage to the mucosal lining or brush border, which leads to a passive loss of protein-rich fluids and a decreased ability to absorb these lost fluids. Features of all three of the other types of diarrhea[clarification needed] can be found in this type of diarrhea. It can be caused by bacterial infections, viral infections, parasitic infections, or autoimmune problems such as inflammatory bowel diseases. It can also be caused by tuberculosis, colon cancer, and enteritis.[citation needed]
Diarrheal disease has what effects on a person?
572a531bb8ce0319002e2ab3
a negative impact on both physical fitness and mental development
27
False
What can early childhood malnutrition cause?
572a531bb8ce0319002e2ab4
reduces physical fitness and work productivity in adults
149
False
What is the cause of childhood malnutrition?
572a531bb8ce0319002e2ab5
diarrhea
212
False
Children who have experienced sever diarrhea are more likely to have what effect?
572a531bb8ce0319002e2ab6
significantly lower scores on a series of tests of intelligence
518
False
severe diarrhea
498
What causes children to have low scores on physical fitness tests?
5a0e0203d7c85000188644d3
True
Early childhood malnutrition resulting from any cause
95
What reduces mental development and productivity in adults?
5a0e0203d7c85000188644d4
True
mental development and health
344
What does evidence show that helminth disease impacts?
5a0e0203d7c85000188644d5
True
Diarrheal disease
0
What disease has a negative impact on intelligence?
5a0e0203d7c85000188644d6
True
significantly lower scores on a series of tests of intelligence
518
What are children who acquire helmenth infection are more likely to have?
5a0e0203d7c85000188644d7
True
Diarrheal disease may have a negative impact on both physical fitness and mental development. "Early childhood malnutrition resulting from any cause reduces physical fitness and work productivity in adults," and diarrhea is a primary cause of childhood malnutrition. Further, evidence suggests that diarrheal disease has significant impacts on mental development and health; it has been shown that, even when controlling for helminth infection and early breastfeeding, children who had experienced severe diarrhea had significantly lower scores on a series of tests of intelligence.
What is IBS?
572a5c4d7a1753140016aed8
irritable bowel syndrome
38
False
What symptoms do you have with IBS?
572a5c4d7a1753140016aed9
abdominal discomfort relieved by defecation and unusual stool (diarrhea or constipation) for at least 3 days a week over the previous 3 months
98
False
How can symptoms be managed with IBS?
572a5c4d7a1753140016aeda
a combination of dietary changes, soluble fiber supplements, and/or medications
302
False
diarrhea
26
What is another possible cause of unusual stool?
5a0e03c1d7c85000188644dd
True
a combination of dietary changes, soluble fiber supplements, and/or medications such as loperamide or codeine
302
How can symptoms of bile acid malabsorption be managed?
5a0e03c1d7c85000188644de
True
irritable bowel syndrome
38
What is SeHCAT syndrome?
5a0e03c1d7c85000188644df
True
About 30% of patients
413
How many patients with SeHCAT have bile acid malabsorption?
5a0e03c1d7c85000188644e0
True
bile acid malabsorption diagnosed with an abnormal SeHCAT test.
470
What is the diagnosis for patients with unusual stool?
5a0e03c1d7c85000188644e1
True
Another possible cause of diarrhea is irritable bowel syndrome (IBS), which usually presents with abdominal discomfort relieved by defecation and unusual stool (diarrhea or constipation) for at least 3 days a week over the previous 3 months. Symptoms of diarrhea-predominant IBS can be managed through a combination of dietary changes, soluble fiber supplements, and/or medications such as loperamide or codeine. About 30% of patients with diarrhea-predominant IBS have bile acid malabsorption diagnosed with an abnormal SeHCAT test.
What is a good indicator of the rate of infectious diarrhea?
572a5da0fed8de19000d5bab
Poverty
0
False
Why does living in poverty raise your risk of diarrhea?
572a5da0fed8de19000d5bac
from the conditions under which impoverished people live
143
False
What causes this to be exacerbated?
572a5da0fed8de19000d5bad
the lack of adequate, available, and affordable medical care.
840
False
Poverty
0
What indicates the rate of medical care?
5a0e0525d7c85000188644e7
True
from the conditions under which impoverished people live
143
Why does poverty raise your risk of nutrient losses?
5a0e0525d7c85000188644e8
True
The absence of certain resources
201
What prevents poor people from defending against human pathogens?
5a0e0525d7c85000188644e9
True
poor housing, crowding, dirt floors, lack of access to clean water or to sanitary disposal of fecal waste (sanitation)
348
What are some examples that the lack of affordable medical care is associated with?
5a0e0525d7c85000188644ea
True
Poverty
631
What restricts the ability to provide sanitation?
5a0e0525d7c85000188644eb
True
Poverty is a good indicator of the rate of infectious diarrhea in a population. This association does not stem from poverty itself, but rather from the conditions under which impoverished people live. The absence of certain resources compromises the ability of the poor to defend themselves against infectious diarrhea. "Poverty is associated with poor housing, crowding, dirt floors, lack of access to clean water or to sanitary disposal of fecal waste (sanitation), cohabitation with domestic animals that may carry human pathogens, and a lack of refrigerated storage for food, all of which increase the frequency of diarrhea... Poverty also restricts the ability to provide age-appropriate, nutritionally balanced diets or to modify diets when diarrhea develops so as to mitigate and repair nutrient losses. The impact is exacerbated by the lack of adequate, available, and affordable medical care."
Why is proper nutrition important?
572a62e0b8ce0319002e2b0b
for health and functioning, including the prevention of infectious diarrhea
30
False
What effects does lower levels of zinc have in children?
572a62e0b8ce0319002e2b0c
greater number of instances of diarrhea, severe diarrhea, and diarrhea associated with fever
587
False
What can having a vitamin A deficiency cause?
572a62e0b8ce0319002e2b0d
cause an increase in the severity of diarrheal episodes
717
False
What is the rate of  vitamin A deficiency in children worldwide?
572a62e0b8ce0319002e2b0e
127 million
1082
False
for health and functioning, including the prevention of infectious diarrhea
30
Why is a fully developed immune system important?
5a0e06e9d7c85000188644f1
True
in children in developing countries
242
Where is infectious diarrhea found in mild cases?
5a0e06e9d7c85000188644f2
True
a greater number of instances of diarrhea, severe diarrhea, and diarrhea associated with fever
585
What do children with lower levels of disease contraction have?
5a0e06e9d7c85000188644f3
True
127 million
1082
How many preschool children worldwide are zinc deficient?
5a0e06e9d7c85000188644f4
True
others suggest an increase in the rate associated with deficiency
986
What do others suggest regarding the increase in nutrition causes?
5a0e06e9d7c85000188644f5
True
Proper nutrition is important for health and functioning, including the prevention of infectious diarrhea. It is especially important to young children who do not have a fully developed immune system. Zinc deficiency, a condition often found in children in developing countries can, even in mild cases, have a significant impact on the development and proper functioning of the human immune system. Indeed, this relationship between zinc deficiency reduced immune functioning corresponds with an increased severity of infectious diarrhea. Children who have lowered levels of zinc have a greater number of instances of diarrhea, severe diarrhea, and diarrhea associated with fever. Similarly, vitamin A deficiency can cause an increase in the severity of diarrheal episodes, however there is some discrepancy when it comes to the impact of vitamin A deficiency on the rate of disease. While some argue that a relationship does not exist between the rate of disease and vitamin A status, others suggest an increase in the rate associated with deficiency. Given that estimates suggest 127 million preschool children worldwide are vitamin A deficient, this population has the potential for increased risk of disease contraction.
What did Nesse and Williams learn?
572a65ae7a1753140016af0c
diarrhea may function as an evolved expulsion defense mechanism
50
False
If diarrhea is stopped, would could happen?
572a65ae7a1753140016af0d
there might be a delay in recovery.
146
False
What happened with people with Shigella were treated with anti-diarrheal medication?
572a65ae7a1753140016af0e
caused people to stay feverish twice as long as those not so treated.
334
False
an evolved expulsion defense mechanism
75
What is the function of Shigella?
5a0e0934d7c85000188644fb
True
there might be a delay in recovery
146
If research is stopped, what could happen?
5a0e0934d7c85000188644fc
True
caused people to stay feverish twice as long as those not so treated
334
What happened to people with Lomotil when treated with anti diarrheal medication?
5a0e0934d7c85000188644fd
True
Lomotil
454
What is contraindicated in support of the argument?
5a0e0934d7c85000188644fe
True
diarrhea may function as an evolved expulsion defense mechanism
50
What did the researchers discover about shigellosis?
5a0e0934d7c85000188644ff
True
According to two researchers, Nesse and Williams, diarrhea may function as an evolved expulsion defense mechanism. As a result, if it is stopped, there might be a delay in recovery. They cite in support of this argument research published in 1973 that found that treating Shigella with the anti-diarrhea drug (Co-phenotrope, Lomotil) caused people to stay feverish twice as long as those not so treated. The researchers indeed themselves observed that: "Lomotil may be contraindicated in shigellosis. Diarrhea may represent a defense mechanism".
What has had major effects on the transmission of diarrheal diseases?
572a66dfd562191400bc86bf
Basic sanitation techniques
0
False
How much does hand washing reduce the chances of disease?
572a66dfd562191400bc86c0
approximately 42–48%
235
False
Why do developing countries not wash their hands as much as other countries?
572a66dfd562191400bc86c1
access to soap and water is limited
441
False
What is a solution to help this problem?
572a66dfd562191400bc86c2
implementation of educational programs that encourage sanitary behaviours
650
False
Basic sanitation techniques
0
What has a profound effect in developed countries?
5a0e0b5cd7c8500018864505
True
approximately 42–48%
235
By what percentage do educational programs reduce the chance of disease?
5a0e0b5cd7c8500018864506
True
implementation of educational programs that encourage sanitary behaviours.
650
What is a solution to poverty?
5a0e0b5cd7c8500018864507
True
in all parts of the world
405
Where is education integral to prevent disease?
5a0e0b5cd7c8500018864508
True
lack of access
523
What is a challenge to reduce disease in less developed countries?
5a0e0b5cd7c8500018864509
True
Basic sanitation techniques can have a profound effect on the transmission of diarrheal disease. The implementation of hand washing using soap and water, for example, has been experimentally shown to reduce the incidence of disease by approximately 42–48%. Hand washing in developing countries, however, is compromised by poverty as acknowledged by the CDC: "Handwashing is integral to disease prevention in all parts of the world; however, access to soap and water is limited in a number of less developed countries. This lack of access is one of many challenges to proper hygiene in less developed countries." Solutions to this barrier require the implementation of educational programs that encourage sanitary behaviours.
What is a major means of the spread of diarrhea disease?
572a67827a1753140016af12
water contamination
11
False
What has cut the rate of diarrhea disease incidents?
572a67827a1753140016af13
clean water supply and improved sanitation
102
False
What would be the reduction in deisease incedence if there was better water and sanitation?
572a67827a1753140016af14
22–27% reduction in disease incidence
485
False
water contamination
11
What is major way disease instance is spread?
5a0e1068d7c850001886450f
True
88%
269
By what percentage will diarrheal disease be reduced as a result of improved water and hygene?
5a0e1068d7c8500018864510
True
clean water supply and improved sanitation
102
What has cut the rate of mortality?
5a0e1068d7c8500018864511
True
21–30%
530
What is the reduction in mortality rate associated with disease instance?
5a0e1068d7c8500018864512
True
water contamination
11
What is a cause of child mortality?
5a0e1068d7c8500018864513
True
Given that water contamination is a major means of transmitting diarrheal disease, efforts to provide clean water supply and improved sanitation have the potential to dramatically cut the rate of disease incidence. In fact, it has been proposed that we might expect an 88% reduction in child mortality resulting from diarrheal disease as a result of improved water sanitation and hygiene. Similarly, a meta-analysis of numerous studies on improving water supply and sanitation shows a 22–27% reduction in disease incidence, and a 21–30% reduction in mortality rate associated with diarrheal disease.
What is the downfall of using immunization against the pathogens that cause disease?
572a6832d562191400bc86c7
it does require targeting certain pathogens for vaccination
105
False
What is responsible for 6% of dearrheal disease?
572a6832d562191400bc86c8
Rotavirus
181
False
What percent is the rotavirus responsible for in diarrheal disease deaths?
572a6832d562191400bc86c9
20%
254
False
What was the effect of the Rotavirus vaccine?
572a6832d562191400bc86ca
(2-3%) decrease in total diarrheal disease incidence
389
False
What year was the Rotovirus vaccine used?
572a6832d562191400bc86cb
1985
367
False
Rotavirus
181
What is responsible for 6% of Cholera disease?
5a0e1448d7c8500018864519
True
Immunization
0
What requires targeting disease for vaccination?
5a0e1448d7c850001886451a
True
a slight (2-3%) decrease in total diarrheal disease incidence, while reducing overall mortality by 6-10%
380
What were the results of Cholera vaccine trials in 1985?
5a0e1448d7c850001886451b
True
1985
367
What year was the Cholera vaccine used?
5a0e1448d7c850001886451c
True
to save many thousands of lives in developing nations, while reducing the overall cost of treatment, and the costs to society
784
What may be the result of developing effective ways to target new pathogens?
5a0e1448d7c850001886451d
True
Immunization against the pathogens that cause diarrheal disease is a viable prevention strategy, however it does require targeting certain pathogens for vaccination. In the case of Rotavirus, which was responsible for around 6% of diarrheal episodes and 20% of diarrheal disease deaths in the children of developing countries, use of a Rotavirus vaccine in trials in 1985 yielded a slight (2-3%) decrease in total diarrheal disease incidence, while reducing overall mortality by 6-10%. Similarly, a Cholera vaccine showed a strong reduction in morbidity and mortality, though the overall impact of vaccination was minimal as Cholera is not one of the major causative pathogens of diarrheal disease. Since this time, more effective vaccines have been developed that have the potential to save many thousands of lives in developing nations, while reducing the overall cost of treatment, and the costs to society.
What can be done to combate dietary deficiences?
572a69cefed8de19000d5bfd
promoting better eating practices
64
False
What has been used and shown successful in a decrease in incidence of diarrheal disease?
572a69cefed8de19000d5bfe
Zinc
143
False
WHat strategy was found out to be more cost effective?
572a69cefed8de19000d5bff
zinc supplementation
592
False
by promoting better eating practices
61
How can zinc deficiencies be combated?
5a0e3462d7c8500018864549
True
Zinc supplementation
143
What strategy showed a decrease in the incidence of dietary deficiencies?
5a0e3462d7c850001886454a
True
vitamin A
485
What dietary deficiency was found to be less effective in reducing diarrhea incidence?
5a0e3462d7c850001886454b
True
better eating practices. Supplementation with vitamin A and/or zinc
74
What actions help combat diarrhea?
5a0e3462d7c850001886454c
True
zinc supplementation
592
What control group was found to be more cost effective?
5a0e3462d7c850001886454d
True
Dietary deficiencies in developing countries can be combated by promoting better eating practices. Supplementation with vitamin A and/or zinc. Zinc supplementation proved successful showing a significant decrease in the incidence of diarrheal disease compared to a control group. The majority of the literature suggests that vitamin A supplementation is advantageous in reducing disease incidence. Development of a supplementation strategy should take into consideration the fact that vitamin A supplementation was less effective in reducing diarrhea incidence when compared to vitamin A and zinc supplementation, and that the latter strategy was estimated to be significantly more cost effective.
What is the basic treatment many cases of diarrhea need?
572a8034f75d5e190021fb06
replacing lost fluid and salts is the only treatment needed
27
False
How is this treatment given?
572a8034f75d5e190021fb07
This is usually by mouth – oral rehydration therapy – or, in severe cases, intravenously
88
False
What type of diet is no longer recommended?
572a8034f75d5e190021fb08
BRAT diet
208
False
What does WHO recommend to do?
572a8034f75d5e190021fb09
children with diarrhea continue to eat as sufficient nutrients are usually still absorbed to support continued growth and weight gain
392
False
replacing lost fluid and salts is the only treatment needed
27
What treatment do people in oral rehydration therapy need?
5a0e3669d7c8500018864553
True
children with diarrhea continue to eat as sufficient nutrients are usually still absorbed to support continued growth and weight gain
392
What type of diet does the BRAT recommend?
5a0e3669d7c8500018864554
True
the BRAT diet
204
What type of oral rehydration therapy is not recommended?
5a0e3669d7c8500018864555
True
the limiting of milk to children
271
What has no effect on the duration of cholera?
5a0e3669d7c8500018864556
True
recovery of normal intestinal functioning
569
What does continuing to replace lost fluid and salts intravenously speed up?
5a0e3669d7c8500018864557
True
In many cases of diarrhea, replacing lost fluid and salts is the only treatment needed. This is usually by mouth – oral rehydration therapy – or, in severe cases, intravenously. Diet restrictions such as the BRAT diet are no longer recommended. Research does not support the limiting of milk to children as doing so has no effect on duration of diarrhea. To the contrary, WHO recommends that children with diarrhea continue to eat as sufficient nutrients are usually still absorbed to support continued growth and weight gain, and that continuing to eat also speeds up recovery of normal intestinal functioning. CDC recommends that children and adults with cholera also continue to eat.
What can be used to prevent dehydration?
572a80c2f75d5e190021fb18
Oral rehydration solution (ORS)
0
False
What are some good standard home solutions?
572a80c2f75d5e190021fb19
salted rice water, salted yogurt drinks, vegetable and chicken soups with salt
139
False
What is a commercial solution that can also be used?
572a80c2f75d5e190021fb1a
Pedialyte
596
False
What is the WHO's recipe for ORS?
572a80c2f75d5e190021fb1b
one liter water with one teaspoon salt (3 grams) and two tablespoons sugar (18 grams) added
761
False
drinks with too much sugar or salt
1101
What can make reyhdration worse?
5a0e38e2d7c850001886455d
True
to prevent dehydration
83
What can WHO be used for in children?
5a0e38e2d7c850001886455e
True
salted rice water, salted yogurt drinks, vegetable and chicken soups with salt
139
Can you name some plain water solutions?
5a0e38e2d7c850001886455f
True
UNICEF
635
Who widely distributes Pedialyte?
5a0e38e2d7c8500018864560
True
the same amount of sugar but only one-half a teaspoon of salt
929
How much chicken soup does the Rehydration Project recommend adding?
5a0e38e2d7c8500018864561
True
Oral rehydration solution (ORS) (a slightly sweetened and salty water) can be used to prevent dehydration. Standard home solutions such as salted rice water, salted yogurt drinks, vegetable and chicken soups with salt can be given. Home solutions such as water in which cereal has been cooked, unsalted soup, green coconut water, weak tea (unsweetened), and unsweetened fresh fruit juices can have from half a teaspoon to full teaspoon of salt (from one-and-a-half to three grams) added per liter. Clean plain water can also be one of several fluids given. There are commercial solutions such as Pedialyte, and relief agencies such as UNICEF widely distribute packets of salts and sugar. A WHO publication for physicians recommends a homemade ORS consisting of one liter water with one teaspoon salt (3 grams) and two tablespoons sugar (18 grams) added (approximately the "taste of tears"). Rehydration Project recommends adding the same amount of sugar but only one-half a teaspoon of salt, stating that this more dilute approach is less risky with very little loss of effectiveness. Both agree that drinks with too much sugar or salt can make dehydration worse.
What are not recommended for younger kids because it can casue more dehydration?
572a816d111d821400f38b7a
Drinks especially high in simple sugars, such as soft drinks and fruit juices
0
False
Why are sodas and high sugar fruit juices not recommended?
572a816d111d821400f38b7b
A too rich solution in the gut draws water from the rest of the body, just as if the person were to drink sea water
166
False
What can be used to give fluids when they can not drink?
572a816d111d821400f38b7c
A nasogastric tube
588
False
A nasogastric tube
588
What can be used to give fluids if drinks are too rich in sugar?
5a0e3ab6d7c8500018864567
True
children under 5 years of age
102
Who is plain water not recommended for?
5a0e3ab6d7c8500018864568
True
A too rich solution in the gut draws water from the rest of the body, just as if the person were to drink sea water
166
Why are plain water and ORT preparations not recommended?
5a0e3ab6d7c8500018864569
True
a mix of both plain water and drinks perhaps too rich in sugar and salt
407
What can be given with the goal of providing specific ORT preparations?
5a0e3ab6d7c850001886456a
True
draws water from the rest of the body, just as if the person were to drink sea water
197
What does plain water do in the gut?
5a0e3ab6d7c850001886456b
True
Drinks especially high in simple sugars, such as soft drinks and fruit juices, are not recommended in children under 5 years of age as they may increase dehydration. A too rich solution in the gut draws water from the rest of the body, just as if the person were to drink sea water. Plain water may be used if more specific and effective ORT preparations are unavailable or are not palatable. Additionally, a mix of both plain water and drinks perhaps too rich in sugar and salt can alternatively be given to the same person, with the goal of providing a medium amount of sodium overall. A nasogastric tube can be used in young children to administer fluids if warranted.
What does WHO recommend?
572a82dff75d5e190021fb32
a child with diarrhea continue to be fed
15
False
What does continuing to eat do for your illness?
572a82dff75d5e190021fb33
Continued feeding speeds the recovery of normal intestinal function
57
False
What happens when a childs food is restricted?
572a82dff75d5e190021fb34
children whose food is restricted have diarrhea of longer duration and recover intestinal function more slowly
139
False
children whose food is restricted have diarrhea of longer duration and recover intestinal function more slowly
139
What happens if a child's breastfeeding is restricted?
5a0e4211d7c8500018864571
True
Food should never be withheld and the child's usual foods should not be diluted. Breastfeeding should always be continued.
313
What does the CDC state about a child's diet when they have diarrhea?
5a0e4211d7c8500018864572
True
Continued feeding
57
What speeds up recovery of food withholding?
5a0e4211d7c8500018864573
True
The WHO
297
What organization recommended that a lactose-free diet should always be continued?
5a0e4211d7c8500018864574
True
CDC
477
Who made the same recommendation regarding intestinal function?
5a0e4211d7c8500018864575
True
WHO recommends a child with diarrhea continue to be fed. Continued feeding speeds the recovery of normal intestinal function. In contrast, children whose food is restricted have diarrhea of longer duration and recover intestinal function more slowly. A child should also continue to be breastfed. The WHO states "Food should never be withheld and the child's usual foods should not be diluted. Breastfeeding should always be continued." And in the specific example of cholera, CDC also makes the same recommendation. In young children who are not breast-fed and live in the developed world, a lactose-free diet may be useful to speed recovery.
Are antibiotics used in diarrhea instances?
572a83c4be1ee31400cb8061
they are usually not used except in specific situations
69
False
What are the concerns with anitbiotics?
572a83c4be1ee31400cb8062
may increase the risk of hemolytic uremic syndrome in people infected with Escherichia coli O157:H7
162
False
What are bacteria doing that makes them not work as well?
572a83c4be1ee31400cb8063
some bacteria are developing antibiotic resistance
346
False
some bacteria are developing antibiotic resistance
346
What are antibiotics doing that makes treatment not work well?
5a0e45e0d7c850001886457b
True
may increase the risk of hemolytic uremic syndrome in people infected with Escherichia coli O157:H7
162
What are concerns with Escherichia coli O157:H7?
5a0e45e0d7c850001886457c
True
In resource-poor countries
263
Where is treatment for antibiotic resistance beneficial?
5a0e45e0d7c850001886457d
True
they are usually not used except in specific situations
69
Are antibiotics used in certain types of antibiotic resistance?
5a0e45e0d7c850001886457e
True
Shigella
411
What resource-poor country is developing antibiotic resistance?
5a0e45e0d7c850001886457f
True
While antibiotics are beneficial in certain types of acute diarrhea, they are usually not used except in specific situations. There are concerns that antibiotics may increase the risk of hemolytic uremic syndrome in people infected with Escherichia coli O157:H7. In resource-poor countries, treatment with antibiotics may be beneficial. However, some bacteria are developing antibiotic resistance, particularly Shigella. Antibiotics can also cause diarrhea, and antibiotic-associated diarrhea is the most common adverse effect of treatment with general antibiotics.
Madrasa
What are the origins of the word madrasa?
572a5ec3fed8de19000d5bb1
Arabic
80
False
What type of educational institution does the term madrasa refer?
572a5ec3fed8de19000d5bb2
any type
96
False
In Western culture, the term madrasa widely refers to the practices of what religion?
572a5ec3fed8de19000d5bb3
Islamic
389
False
How many students enrolled in madaris are Muslim?
572a5ec3fed8de19000d5bb4
Not all
456
False
Medrese
64
What does Madrasa mean in French?
5ace26c332bba1001ae49bc1
True
any type
96
What type of educational institution does the term madrasa not cover?
5ace26c332bba1001ae49bc2
True
Islamic
389
In Eastern culture, what religion does the term Madrasa refer to?
5ace26c332bba1001ae49bc3
True
religious school
340
What school does Madrasa not refer to?
5ace26c332bba1001ae49bc4
True
Madrasa
0
What is studied in Islamic religions?
5ace26c332bba1001ae49bc5
True
Madrasa (Arabic: مدرسة‎, madrasah, pl. مدارس, madāris, Turkish: Medrese) is the Arabic word for any type of educational institution, whether secular or religious (of any religion). The word is variously transliterated madrasah, madarasaa, medresa, madrassa, madraza, medrese, etc. In the West, the word usually refers to a specific type of religious school or college for the study of the Islamic religion, though this may not be the only subject studied. Not all students in madaris are Muslims; there is also a modern curriculum.
What are the root origins of the word madrasah?
572a5fbab8ce0319002e2aed
triconsonantal Semitic
35
False
What is the literal translation of madrasah?
572a5fbab8ce0319002e2aee
a place where learning and studying take place
225
False
In Arabic, what does madarasah mean?
572a5fbab8ce0319002e2aef
same as school does in the English language
554
False
During the Ottoman Empire, what types of schools were typical?
572a5fbab8ce0319002e2af0
lower schools and specialised
1062
False
What were the students in madaris called?
572a5fbab8ce0319002e2af1
danişmends
1135
False
to learn, study
76
What are not the root origins of the word madrasah?
5ace2b3332bba1001ae49c6f
True
a place where something is done
154
What is the not literal translation of madrasah?
5ace2b3332bba1001ae49c70
True
school
562
In French, what does madarasah mean?
5ace2b3332bba1001ae49c71
True
lower schools and specialised schools
1062
During the Ottoman Empire, what types of schools were uncommon?
5ace2b3332bba1001ae49c72
True
danişmends
1135
What were the teachers in madaris called?
5ace2b3332bba1001ae49c73
True
The word madrasah derives from the triconsonantal Semitic root د-ر-س D-R-S 'to learn, study', through the wazn (form/stem) مفعل(ة)‎; mafʻal(ah), meaning "a place where something is done". Therefore, madrasah literally means "a place where learning and studying take place". The word is also present as a loanword with the same innocuous meaning in many Arabic-influenced languages, such as: Urdu, Bengali, Hindi, Persian, Turkish, Azeri, Kurdish, Indonesian, Malay and Bosnian / Croatian. In the Arabic language, the word مدرسة madrasah simply means the same as school does in the English language, whether that is private, public or parochial school, as well as for any primary or secondary school whether Muslim, non-Muslim, or secular. Unlike the use of the word school in British English, the word madrasah more closely resembles the term school in American English, in that it can refer to a university-level or post-graduate school as well as to a primary or secondary school. For example, in the Ottoman Empire during the Early Modern Period, madaris had lower schools and specialised schools where the students became known as danişmends. The usual Arabic word for a university, however, is جامعة (jāmiʻah). The Hebrew cognate midrasha also connotes the meaning of a place of learning; the related term midrash literally refers to study or learning, but has acquired mystical and religious connotations.
What is the English connotative understanding of the word madrash?
572a60cefed8de19000d5bcd
Islamic institutions
74
False
What is taught through a hifz class or set of classes?
572a60cefed8de19000d5bce
memorization of the Qur'an
181
False
What is shariah?
572a60cefed8de19000d5bcf
Islamic law
463
False
What is the discipline taught in mantiq courses?
572a60cefed8de19000d5bd0
logic
535
False
What set of courses does someone need to take for preparation to be considered as a scholar?
572a60cefed8de19000d5bd1
ʻālim
287
False
Islamic institutions
74
What is the Spanish connotative understanding of the word madrash?
5ace373732bba1001ae49ebb
True
memorization of the Qur'
181
What is never taught through a hifz class or set of classes?
5ace373732bba1001ae49ebc
True
Islamic law
463
What is the opposite of shariah?
5ace373732bba1001ae49ebd
True
logic
535
What is the discipline not taught in mantiq courses?
5ace373732bba1001ae49ebe
True
Arabic literature
762
What set of beliefs does someone need to have to be considered as a scholar?
5ace373732bba1001ae49ebf
True
However, in English, the term madrasah usually refers to the specifically Islamic institutions. A typical Islamic school usually offers two courses of study: a ḥifẓ course teaching memorization of the Qur'an (the person who commits the entire Qurʼan to memory is called a ḥāfiẓ); and an ʻālim course leading the candidate to become an accepted scholar in the community. A regular curriculum includes courses in Arabic, tafsir (Qur'anic interpretation), sharīʻah (Islamic law), hadiths (recorded sayings and deeds of Muhammad), mantiq (logic), and Muslim history. In the Ottoman Empire, during the Early Modern Period, the study of hadiths was introduced by Süleyman I. Depending on the educational demands, some madaris also offer additional advanced courses in Arabic literature, English and other foreign languages, as well as science and world history. Ottoman madaris along with religious teachings also taught "styles of writing, grammary, syntax, poetry, composition, natural sciences, political sciences, and etiquette."
What age groups are usually enrolled in madaris?
572a629e7a1753140016aef0
all ages
10
False
How long does someone have to be enrolled in alim courses to earn a certificate or graduate?
572a629e7a1753140016aef1
approximately twelve years
137
False
In what ways are madaris similar to western colleges?
572a629e7a1753140016aef2
people take evening classes and reside in dormitories
311
False
Why do madaris extend enrollment to children of less fortunate circumstances?
572a629e7a1753140016aef3
provide them with education and training
453
False
What is the format for co-education for women in madaris?
572a629e7a1753140016aef4
they study separately from the men
540
False
all ages
10
What age groups are never enrolled in madaris?
5ace393732bba1001ae49f1b
True
approximately twelve years
137
How long does someone have to be enrolled in alim courses before they can drop out?
5ace393732bba1001ae49f1c
True
evening classes and reside in dormitories
323
In what ways are madaris similar to eastern colleges?
5ace393732bba1001ae49f1d
True
provide them with education and training
453
Why do madaris extend enrollment to rich children?
5ace393732bba1001ae49f1e
True
they study separately
540
What is the format for co-education for adults in madaris?
5ace393732bba1001ae49f1f
True
People of all ages attend, and many often move on to becoming imams.[citation needed] The certificate of an ʻālim, for example, requires approximately twelve years of study.[citation needed] A good number of the ḥuffāẓ (plural of ḥāfiẓ) are the product of the madaris. The madaris also resemble colleges, where people take evening classes and reside in dormitories. An important function of the madaris is to admit orphans and poor children in order to provide them with education and training. Madaris may enroll female students; however, they study separately from the men.[citation needed]
What is the meaning of Islamic education?
572a637c7a1753140016af04
education in the light of Islam itself
35
False
What book is the basis for education in Islamic traditions?
572a637c7a1753140016af05
Quran
115
False
What types of education greatly differs from Islamic education?
572a637c7a1753140016af06
Muslim education
167
False
What is Islamic religion traditionally considered as far as theology is concerned?
572a637c7a1753140016af07
monotheism
300
False
education in the light of Islam itself
35
What is the meaning of non-Islamic education?
5ace399032bba1001ae49f35
True
Quran
115
What book is the basis for religion-free education in Islamic traditions?
5ace399032bba1001ae49f36
True
Muslim
167
What types of education is exactly the same as Islamic education?
5ace399032bba1001ae49f37
True
monotheism
300
What is Islamic religion in the modern sense considered as far as theology is concerned?
5ace399032bba1001ae49f38
True
The term "Islamic education" means education in the light of Islam itself, which is rooted in the teachings of the Quran - holy book of Muslims. Islamic education and Muslim education are not the same. Because Islamic education has epistemological integration which is founded on Tawhid - Oneness or monotheism. For details Read "A Qur’anic Methodology for Integrating Knowledge and Education: Implications for Malaysia’s Islamic Education Strategy" written Tareq M Zayed  and "Knowledge of Shariah and Knowledge to Manage ‘Self’ and ‘System’: Integration of Islamic Epistemology with the Knowledge and Education" authored by Tareq M Zayed
Where was the first madrasa located?
572a64d4b8ce0319002e2b13
the estate of Hazrat Zaid bin Arkam
48
False
Who was the teacher at the first madrasa?
572a64d4b8ce0319002e2b14
Hazrat Muhammad
115
False
Who was named as a teacher at the second madrasa, housed in a mosque?
572a64d4b8ce0319002e2b15
Hazrat 'Ubada bin Samit
335
False
What handwriting art form was taught in the early madaris?
572a64d4b8ce0319002e2b16
calligraphy
660
False
What type of physical fitness activities were taught in the early madaris?
572a64d4b8ce0319002e2b17
athletics and martial arts
673
False
estate of Hazrat Zaid bin Arkam
52
Where was the second madrasa located?
5ace3c7932bba1001ae49fc3
True
Hazrat Muhammad
115
Who was the teacher at the third madrasa?
5ace3c7932bba1001ae49fc4
True
Hazrat 'Ubada bin Samit
335
Who was named as a teacher at the last madrasa?
5ace3c7932bba1001ae49fc5
True
Hadith
523
What martial arts was taught in the early madaris?
5ace3c7932bba1001ae49fc6
True
martial arts
687
What type of ball sports were taught in the early madaris?
5ace3c7932bba1001ae49fc7
True
The first institute of madrasa education was at the estate of Hazrat Zaid bin Arkam near a hill called Safa, where Hazrat Muhammad was the teacher and the students were some of his followers.[citation needed] After Hijrah (migration) the madrasa of "Suffa" was established in Madina on the east side of the Al-Masjid an-Nabawi mosque. Hazrat 'Ubada bin Samit was appointed there by Hazrat Muhammad as teacher and among the students.[citation needed] In the curriculum of the madrasa, there were teachings of The Qur'an,The Hadith, fara'iz, tajweed, genealogy, treatises of first aid, etc. There were also trainings of horse-riding, art of war, handwriting and calligraphy, athletics and martial arts. The first part of madrasa based education is estimated from the first day of "nabuwwat" to the first portion of the "Umaiya" caliphate.[citation needed]
Which class of people founded the madaris during the medieval period?
572a661dfed8de19000d5beb
ruling elite
120
False
How were the madaris funded during the medieval period?
572a661dfed8de19000d5bec
through a religious endowment
149
False
What class of people inherited status during the Mamluk Period?
572a661dfed8de19000d5bed
former slaves
382
False
What allowed the ruling elite to maintain power during the Mamluk period?
572a661dfed8de19000d5bee
Guaranteed positions within the new madaris
476
False
In what city was the Mosque-Madrasah of Sultan Hasan?
572a661dfed8de19000d5bef
Cairo
634
False
ruling elite
120
Which class of people founded the madaris during the ancient period?
5ace3ce432bba1001ae49fd5
True
religious endowment
159
How were the madaris funded during the prehistoric period?
5ace3ce432bba1001ae49fd6
True
former slaves
382
What class of people rejected status during the Mamluk Period?
5ace3ce432bba1001ae49fd7
True
Guaranteed positions
476
What allowed the plebeians to maintain power during the Mamluk period?
5ace3ce432bba1001ae49fd8
True
Cairo
634
What city rejected the Mosque-Madrasah of Sultan Hasan?
5ace3ce432bba1001ae49fd9
True
During the rule of the Fatimid and Mamluk dynasties and their successor states in the medieval Middle East, many of the ruling elite founded madaris through a religious endowment known as the waqf. Not only was the madrasa a potent symbol of status but it was an effective means of transmitting wealth and status to their descendants. Especially during the Mamlūk period, when only former slaves could assume power, the sons of the ruling Mamlūk elite were unable to inherit. Guaranteed positions within the new madaris thus allowed them to maintain status. Madaris built in this period include the Mosque-Madrasah of Sultan Ḥasan in Cairo.
Who traditionally paid for scholars to study natural sciences?
572a6788fed8de19000d5bf5
royal courts
800
False
What group of people had the highest literacy rates during the Middle Ages?
572a6788fed8de19000d5bf6
Caliphate
843
False
What schools had the biggest impact on the rising literacy rates in the Caliphate?
572a6788fed8de19000d5bf7
maktab and madrasa institutions
1043
False
How long did it take for madaris to spread to smaller cities and towns?
572a6788fed8de19000d5bf8
several centuries
157
False
royal courts
800
Who disapproved of scholars to study natural sciences?
5ace3edb32bba1001ae4a047
True
Caliphate
843
What group of people had the lowest literacy rates during the Middle Ages?
5ace3edb32bba1001ae4a048
True
maktab and madrasa
1043
What schools had the biggest impact on the declining literacy rates in the Caliphate?
5ace3edb32bba1001ae4a049
True
several centuries
157
When did madaris spread to larger cities?
5ace3edb32bba1001ae4a04a
True
At the beginning of the Caliphate or Islamic Empire, the reliance on courts initially confined sponsorship and scholarly activities to major centres. Within several centuries, the development of Muslim educational institutions such as the madrasah and masjid eventually introduced such activities to provincial towns and dispersed them across the Islamic legal schools and Sufi orders. In addition to religious subjects, they also taught the "rational sciences," as varied as mathematics, astronomy, astrology, geography, alchemy, philosophy, magic, and occultism, depending on the curriculum of the specific institution in question. The madaris, however, were not centres of advanced scientific study; scientific advances in Islam were usually carried out by scholars working under the patronage of royal courts. During this time,[when?] the Caliphate experienced a growth in literacy, having the highest literacy rate of the Middle Ages, comparable to classical Athens' literacy in antiquity but on a much larger scale. The emergence of the maktab and madrasa institutions played a fundamental role in the relatively high literacy rates of the medieval Islamic world.
When were the first recorded Islamic elementary schools?
572a69757a1753140016af18
10th century
108
False
What term refers to Islamic elementary schools?
572a69757a1753140016af19
maktab
67
False
Who wrote a training guide for Islamic maktab teachers?
572a69757a1753140016af1a
Ibn Sīnā
295
False
What did Ibn Sina prefer over private tutors?
572a69757a1753140016af1b
classes
573
False
How many component of education did Ibn Sina describe in their teachings?
572a69757a1753140016af1c
two
908
False
10th century
108
When were the last recorded Islamic elementary schools?
5ace3f2c32bba1001ae4a04f
True
maktab
67
What term refers to non-Islamic elementary schools?
5ace3f2c32bba1001ae4a050
True
Ibn Sīnā
295
Who wrote a training guide for Islamic maktab students?
5ace3f2c32bba1001ae4a051
True
private tutors
616
What did Ibn Sina prefer over public schools?
5ace3f2c32bba1001ae4a052
True
competition and emulation
710
What's the third component of education from Ibn Sina?
5ace3f2c32bba1001ae4a053
True
In the medieval Islamic world, an elementary school was known as a maktab, which dates back to at least the 10th century. Like madaris (which referred to higher education), a maktab was often attached to an endowed mosque. In the 11th century, the famous Persian Islamic philosopher and teacher Ibn Sīnā (known as Avicenna in the West), in one of his books, wrote a chapter about the maktab entitled "The Role of the Teacher in the Training and Upbringing of Children," as a guide to teachers working at maktab schools. He wrote that children can learn better if taught in classes instead of individual tuition from private tutors, and he gave a number of reasons for why this is the case, citing the value of competition and emulation among pupils, as well as the usefulness of group discussions and debates. Ibn Sīnā described the curriculum of a maktab school in some detail, describing the curricula for two stages of education in a maktab school.
What type of skills did Ibn Sina state children should learn in secondary education?
572a6ac17a1753140016af22
manual skills
135
False
According to Ibn Sina, at what age should children choose a direction for their education?
572a6ac17a1753140016af23
14
226
False
According to Ibn Sina, what is needed to support transition at the secondary stage of education?
572a6ac17a1753140016af24
flexibility
591
False
What should secondary training provide a student in the secondary stage of school?
572a6ac17a1753140016af25
future career
505
False
manual skills
135
What type of skills did Ibn Sina state children should learn in primary education?
5ace3f8932bba1001ae4a061
True
14
226
According to Ibn Sina, at what age should children drop out of school?
5ace3f8932bba1001ae4a062
True
flexibility
591
According to Ibn Sina, what is needed to support transition at the primary stage of education?
5ace3f8932bba1001ae4a063
True
future career
505
What should secondary training provide a teacher in the secondary stage of school?
5ace3f8932bba1001ae4a064
True
chosen subjects
690
What besides emotional development do parents need to take into account?
5ace3f8932bba1001ae4a065
True
Ibn Sīnā refers to the secondary education stage of maktab schooling as a period of specialisation when pupils should begin to acquire manual skills, regardless of their social status. He writes that children after the age of 14 should be allowed to choose and specialise in subjects they have an interest in, whether it was reading, manual skills, literature, preaching, medicine, geometry, trade and commerce, craftsmanship, or any other subject or profession they would be interested in pursuing for a future career. He wrote that this was a transitional stage and that there needs to be flexibility regarding the age in which pupils graduate, as the student's emotional development and chosen subjects need to be taken into account.
What discipline was studied in traditional madrasah?
572a6bf8fed8de19000d5c03
religious sciences
137
False
What was traditionally left out of the madrasah curriculum?
572a6bf8fed8de19000d5c04
philosophy and the secular sciences
165
False
Who decided the content that would be delivered in a particular madrasah?
572a6bf8fed8de19000d5c05
its founder
567
False
What is the most widely known madrasah?
572a6bf8fed8de19000d5c06
al-Azhar University
793
False
How many madaris have been founded in Cairo?
572a6bf8fed8de19000d5c07
75
871
False
religious sciences
137
What discipline was rejected in traditional madrasah?
5ace3fff32bba1001ae4a083
True
secular sciences
325
What was recently rejected in madrasah?
5ace3fff32bba1001ae4a084
True
its founder
567
Who decided the content that would be rejected in a particular madrasah?
5ace3fff32bba1001ae4a085
True
al-Azhar University
793
What is the least widely known madrasah?
5ace3fff32bba1001ae4a086
True
75
871
How many madaris have been founded outside of Cairo?
5ace3fff32bba1001ae4a087
True
During its formative period, the term madrasah referred to a higher education institution, whose curriculum initially included only the "religious sciences", whilst philosophy and the secular sciences were often excluded. The curriculum slowly began to diversify, with many later madaris teaching both the religious and the "secular sciences", such as logic, mathematics and philosophy. Some madaris further extended their curriculum to history, politics, ethics, music, metaphysics, medicine, astronomy and chemistry. The curriculum of a madrasah was usually set by its founder, but most generally taught both the religious sciences and the physical sciences. Madaris were established throughout the Islamic world, examples being the 9th century University of al-Qarawiyyin, the 10th century al-Azhar University (the most famous), the 11th century Niẓāmīyah, as well as 75 madaris in Cairo, 51 in Damascus and up to 44 in Aleppo between 1155 and 1260. Many more were also established in the Andalusian cities of Córdoba, Seville, Toledo, Granada (Madrasah of Granada), Murcia, Almería, Valencia and Cádiz during the Caliphate of Córdoba.
What term refers to Islamic law?
572a6d8a7a1753140016af3c
fiqh
45
False
When did Islamic law school begin?
572a6d8a7a1753140016af3d
9th century
224
False
How long did a student have to study law, in early Islamic law graduate schools, in order to graduate?
572a6d8a7a1753140016af3e
ten or more years
825
False
What traditional schooling has been considered modeled after the traditional Islamic graduate schools?
572a6d8a7a1753140016af3f
European doctorate
360
False
fiqh
45
What term refers to non-Islamic law?
5ace41ec32bba1001ae4a0cd
True
9th century
224
When did Islamic law school end?
5ace41ec32bba1001ae4a0ce
True
four years
774
How long did a student have to study law in order to drop out?
5ace41ec32bba1001ae4a0cf
True
European doctorate
360
What modern schooling has been considered modeled after the non-Islamic graduate schools?
5ace41ec32bba1001ae4a0d0
True
Madaris were largely centred on the study of fiqh (Islamic jurisprudence). The ijāzat al-tadrīs wa-al-iftāʼ ("licence to teach and issue legal opinions") in the medieval Islamic legal education system had its origins in the 9th century after the formation of the madhāhib (schools of jurisprudence). George Makdisi considers the ijāzah to be the origin of the European doctorate. However, in an earlier article, he considered the ijāzah to be of "fundamental difference" to the medieval doctorate, since the former was awarded by an individual teacher-scholar not obliged to follow any formal criteria, whereas the latter was conferred on the student by the collective authority of the faculty. To obtain an ijāzah, a student "had to study in a guild school of law, usually four years for the basic undergraduate course" and ten or more years for a post-graduate course. The "doctorate was obtained after an oral examination to determine the originality of the candidate's theses", and to test the student's "ability to defend them against all objections, in disputations set up for the purpose." These were scholarly exercises practised throughout the student's "career as a graduate student of law." After students completed their post-graduate education, they were awarded ijazas giving them the status of faqīh 'scholar of jurisprudence', muftī 'scholar competent in issuing fatwās', and mudarris 'teacher'.
What did earning the ijazat al-tadris award students?
572a6ea1d562191400bc86d1
licence to teach
150
False
Who awarded a teaching license in Islamic schools?
572a6ea1d562191400bc86d2
individual scholar-teacher
403
False
Who awarded a teaching license in European schools?
572a6ea1d562191400bc86d3
chief official of the university
467
False
What type of license is closely related to the ijazat al-tadris?
572a6ea1d562191400bc86d4
licentia docendi
132
False
licence to teach
150
What did earning the ijazat al-tadris discipline students?
5ace430732bba1001ae4a10b
True
individual scholar-teacher
557
Who awarded a teaching license in non-Islamic schools?
5ace430732bba1001ae4a10c
True
chief official of the university
467
Who rejected a teaching license in European schools?
5ace430732bba1001ae4a10d
True
licentia docendi
132
What type of license is very different from the ijazat al-tadris?
5ace430732bba1001ae4a10e
True
licentia docendi
347
Who was not the chief official of the university?
5ace430732bba1001ae4a10f
True
The Arabic term ijāzat al-tadrīs was awarded to Islamic scholars who were qualified to teach. According to Makdisi, the Latin title licentia docendi 'licence to teach' in the European university may have been a translation of the Arabic, but the underlying concept was very different. A significant difference between the ijāzat al-tadrīs and the licentia docendi was that the former was awarded by the individual scholar-teacher, while the latter was awarded by the chief official of the university, who represented the collective faculty, rather than the individual scholar-teacher.
What determination of the study of law was held to much debate?
572a7282fed8de19000d5c17
whether certain opinions of law were orthodox
63
False
What is the Islamic term for issuing a legal opinion?
572a7282fed8de19000d5c18
fatwa
322
False
What type of matters are covered through Islamic law?
572a7282fed8de19000d5c19
civil as well as religious
380
False
What is ijtihad?
572a7282fed8de19000d5c1a
process of scholarly research
581
False
whether certain opinions of law were orthodox
63
What determination of the study of law was never scrutinized?
5ace446d32bba1001ae4a12f
True
fatwa
322
What is the non-Islamic term for issuing a legal opinion?
5ace446d32bba1001ae4a130
True
civil as well as religious matters
380
What type of matters are covered through non-Islamic law?
5ace446d32bba1001ae4a131
True
scholarly research
592
What is the opposite of ijtihad?
5ace446d32bba1001ae4a132
True
the exertion of one's efforts to the utmost limit
642
What isn't the translation of ijtihad?
5ace446d32bba1001ae4a133
True
Much of the study in the madrasah college centred on examining whether certain opinions of law were orthodox. This scholarly process of "determining orthodoxy began with a question which the Muslim layman, called in that capacity mustaftī, presented to a jurisconsult, called mufti, soliciting from him a response, called fatwa, a legal opinion (the religious law of Islam covers civil as well as religious matters). The mufti (professor of legal opinions) took this question, studied it, researched it intensively in the sacred scriptures, in order to find a solution to it. This process of scholarly research was called ijtihād, literally, the exertion of one's efforts to the utmost limit."
When did some madaris become considered like traditional colleges?
572a73ae27b69114009ef5c6
10th century
151
False
What class of people founded both European universities and Islamic madaris
572a73ae27b69114009ef5c7
princely patrons
486
False
What was considered to be the underlying purpose of madaris?
572a73ae27b69114009ef5c8
further the rulers' agenda
556
False
Who argued that European universities and Islamic madaris have very little in common?
572a73ae27b69114009ef5c9
George Makdisi
223
False
10th century
151
When did some madaris become considered unlike traditional colleges?
5ace6e5f32bba1001ae4a68f
True
princely patrons
486
What class of people founded only European universities?
5ace6e5f32bba1001ae4a690
True
princely patrons
486
What class of people founded only Islamic madaris?
5ace6e5f32bba1001ae4a691
True
further the rulers' agenda
556
What was considered to be the overt purpose of madaris?
5ace6e5f32bba1001ae4a692
True
George Makdisi
223
Who agreed that European universities and Islamic madaris have very little in common?
5ace6e5f32bba1001ae4a693
True
There is disagreement whether madaris ever became universities. Scholars like Arnold H. Green and Seyyed Hossein Nasr have argued that starting in the 10th century, some medieval Islamic madaris indeed became universities. George Makdisi and others, however, argue that the European university has no parallel in the medieval Islamic world. Darleen Pryds questions this view, pointing out that madaris and European universities in the Mediterranean region shared similar foundations by princely patrons and were intended to provide loyal administrators to further the rulers' agenda. Other scholars regard the university as uniquely European in origin and characteristics.
When was al-Qarawiyin University founded?
572a74b727b69114009ef5ce
859
151
False
Who founded al-Qarawiyin University?
572a74b727b69114009ef5cf
Fatima al-Fihri
158
False
What types of degrees were earned at al-Qarawiyin University?
572a74b727b69114009ef5d0
all levels
229
False
What religious buildings were housed inside al-Qarawiyin University?
572a74b727b69114009ef5d1
mosques
497
False
What types of teachers were at al-Qarawiyin University?
572a74b727b69114009ef5d2
individual faculties for different subjects
424
False
al-Qarawīyīn University in Fez, Morocco is recognised by many historians as the oldest degree-granting university in the world, having been founded in 859 by Fatima al-Fihri. While the madrasa college could also issue degrees at all levels, the jāmiʻahs (such as al-Qarawīyīn and al-Azhar University) differed in the sense that they were larger institutions, more universal in terms of their complete source of studies, had individual faculties for different subjects, and could house a number of mosques, madaris, and other institutions within them. Such an institution has thus been described as an "Islamic university".
When was Al-Azhar University founded?
572a75af74f2e11900503fbd
975
48
False
Where is Al-Azhar University located?
572a75af74f2e11900503fbe
Cairo, Egypt
32
False
What was required to earn a law degree at Al-Azhar University?
572a75af74f2e11900503fbf
an oral examination
340
False
Who was an astronomy professor at Al-Azhar University?
572a75af74f2e11900503fc0
Maimonides
621
False
What is Nizamiyah of Baghdad most known for?
572a75af74f2e11900503fc1
largest university of the Medieval world
805
False
Al-Azhar University, founded in Cairo, Egypt in 975 by the Ismaʻīlī Shīʻī Fatimid dynasty as a jāmiʻah, had individual faculties for a theological seminary, Islamic law and jurisprudence, Arabic grammar, Islamic astronomy, early Islamic philosophy and logic in Islamic philosophy. The postgraduate doctorate in law was only obtained after "an oral examination to determine the originality of the candidate's theses", and to test the student's "ability to defend them against all objections, in disputations set up for the purpose." ‘Abd al-Laṭīf al-Baghdādī also delivered lectures on Islamic medicine at al-Azhar, while Maimonides delivered lectures on medicine and astronomy there during the time of Saladin. Another early jāmiʻah was the Niẓāmīyah of Baghdād (founded 1091), which has been called the "largest university of the Medieval world." Mustansiriya University, established by the ʻAbbāsid caliph al-Mustanṣir in 1233, in addition to teaching the religious subjects, offered courses dealing with philosophy, mathematics and the natural sciences.
What field does the ijazah signify expertise in?
572a775074f2e11900503fd1
Islamic religious law of sharīʻah
199
False
What was the purpose of studying natural sciences in madaris?
572a775074f2e11900503fd2
supply religious needs
495
False
Who decided if a student earned a law degree in undergraduate madaris?
572a775074f2e11900503fd3
the teacher
991
False
What scientific discipline is still taught in modern madaris?
572a775074f2e11900503fd4
Ptolemaic astronomy
557
False
What is considered the most famous madrasa?
572a775074f2e11900503fd5
al-Azhar
692
False
Islamic religious law of sharīʻah
199
What field does the ijazah signify having no expertise in?
5ace7cb632bba1001ae4a7d1
True
supply religious needs
495
What was the purpose of not studying natural sciences in madaris?
5ace7cb632bba1001ae4a7d2
True
authority of the faculty
927
Who disallowed when a student earned a law degree in undergraduate madaris?
5ace7cb632bba1001ae4a7d3
True
Ptolemaic astronomy
557
What scientific discipline is no longer taught in modern madaris?
5ace7cb632bba1001ae4a7d4
True
al-Azhar
692
What is considered the least famous madrasa?
5ace7cb632bba1001ae4a7d5
True
However, the classification of madaris as "universities" is disputed on the question of understanding of each institution on its own terms. In madaris, the ijāzahs were only issued in one field, the Islamic religious law of sharīʻah, and in no other field of learning. Other academic subjects, including the natural sciences, philosophy and literary studies, were only treated "ancillary" to the study of the Sharia. For example, a natural science like astronomy was only studied (if at all) to supply religious needs, like the time for prayer. This is why Ptolemaic astronomy was considered adequate, and is still taught in some modern day madaris. The Islamic law undergraduate degree from al-Azhar, the most prestigious madrasa, was traditionally granted without final examinations, but on the basis of the students' attentive attendance to courses. In contrast to the medieval doctorate which was granted by the collective authority of the faculty, the Islamic degree was not granted by the teacher to the pupil based on any formal criteria, but remained a "personal matter, the sole prerogative of the person bestowing it; no one could force him to give one".
What do scholars believe is missing from madaris that prevent them from being considered universities?
572a790d74f2e11900503fdb
corporate element
690
False
What do scholars that specialize in the medieval period describe madaris as?
572a790d74f2e11900503fdc
Islamic college
418
False
Who argues that madaris are not the same as traditional European universities?
572a790e74f2e11900503fdd
Medievalist specialists
0
False
What are two examples of waqfs?
572a790e74f2e11900503fde
madrasa and jāmiʻah
323
False
corporate element
690
What do scholars believe is included from madaris that guarantees them being considered universities?
5ace7d2e32bba1001ae4a7ff
True
Islamic college
418
What do scholars that don't specialize in the medieval period describe madaris as?
5ace7d2e32bba1001ae4a800
True
jāmiʻah
335
What is the third example of waqfs?
5ace7d2e32bba1001ae4a801
True
Medievalist specialists
0
Who agrees that madaris are not the same as traditional European universities?
5ace7d2e32bba1001ae4a802
True
Medievalist specialists who define the university as a legally autonomous corporation disagree with the term "university" for the Islamic madaris and jāmi‘ahs because the medieval university (from Latin universitas) was structurally different, being a legally autonomous corporation rather than a waqf institution like the madrasa and jāmiʻah. Despite the many similarities, medieval specialists have coined the term "Islamic college" for madrasa and jāmiʻah to differentiate them from the legally autonomous corporations that the medieval European universities were. In a sense, the madrasa resembles a university college in that it has most of the features of a university, but lacks the corporate element. Toby Huff summarises the difference as follows:
When did more madaris begin to form more rapidly?
572a7aff34ae481900deab39
11th and 12th centuries
306
False
Where are madaris considered less desirable?
572a7aff34ae481900deab3a
Western Islamic lands
343
False
When did the al-Qarawiyin officially become a university?
572a7aff34ae481900deab3b
1947
943
False
When the madaris are considered as a charity, who controls the school?
572a7aff34ae481900deab3c
the donor
215
False
What disciplines were introduced at al-Azhar in 1961?
572a7aff34ae481900deab3d
economics, engineering, medicine, and agriculture
1178
False
11th and 12th centuries
306
When did more madaris begin to form more slowly?
5ace7f1332bba1001ae4a833
True
Western Islamic lands
343
Where are madaris considered more desirable?
5ace7f1332bba1001ae4a834
True
1947
943
When did the al-Qarawiyin officially stop being a university?
5ace7f1332bba1001ae4a835
True
the donor
215
When the madaris are considered as a charity, who controls the students?
5ace7f1332bba1001ae4a836
True
economics, engineering, medicine, and agriculture
1178
What disciplines were destroyed at al-Azhar in 1961?
5ace7f1332bba1001ae4a837
True
As Muslim institutions of higher learning, the madrasa had the legal designation of waqf. In central and eastern Islamic lands, the view that the madrasa, as a charitable endowment, will remain under the control of the donor (and their descendent), resulted in a "spurt" of establishment of madaris in the 11th and 12th centuries. However, in Western Islamic lands, where the Maliki views prohibited donors from controlling their endowment, madaris were not as popular. Unlike the corporate designation of Western institutions of higher learning, the waqf designation seemed to have led to the exclusion of non-orthodox religious subjects such a philosophy and natural science from the curricula. The madrasa of al-Qarawīyīn, one of the two surviving madaris that predate the founding of the earliest medieval universities and are thus claimed to be the "first universities" by some authors, has acquired official university status as late as 1947. The other, al-Azhar, did acquire this status in name and essence only in the course of numerous reforms during the 19th and 20th century, notably the one of 1961 which introduced non-religious subjects to its curriculum, such as economics, engineering, medicine, and agriculture. It should also be noted that many medieval universities were run for centuries as Christian cathedral schools or monastic schools prior to their formal establishment as universitas scholarium; evidence of these immediate forerunners of the university dates back to the 6th century AD, thus well preceding the earliest madaris. George Makdisi, who has published most extensively on the topic concludes in his comparison between the two institutions:
What institutions have been considered to take some its ideas from madaris?
572a7cac111d821400f38b5c
European university
44
False
What Eurpoean university practices are considered to be adapted from madaris?
572a7cac111d821400f38b5d
degree and doctorate
148
False
How many corollaries dd Makdisi make between Islamic language and European educational practices?
572a7cac111d821400f38b5e
eighteen
934
False
What freedom specifically did Makdisi believe European schools learned from Islamic traditions?
572a7cac111d821400f38b5f
academic
1294
False
What clothing practice did Makdisi believe European schools learned from madaris?
572a7cac111d821400f38b60
wearing academic robes
1205
False
European university
44
What institutions have been considered to get no its ideas from madaris?
5ace7f7832bba1001ae4a84f
True
degree and doctorate
148
What Eurpoean university practices are considered to be not adapted from madaris?
5ace7f7832bba1001ae4a850
True
eighteen
934
How many corollaries dd Makdisi make between non-Islamic language and non-European educational practices?
5ace7f7832bba1001ae4a851
True
academic
1213
What freedom specifically did Makdisi believe non-European schools learned from non-Islamic traditions?
5ace7f7832bba1001ae4a852
True
wearing academic robes
1205
What clothing practice did Makdisi believe European schools did not learn from madaris?
5ace7f7832bba1001ae4a853
True
Nevertheless, Makdisi has asserted that the European university borrowed many of its features from the Islamic madrasa, including the concepts of a degree and doctorate. Makdisi and Hugh Goddard have also highlighted other terms and concepts now used in modern universities which most likely have Islamic origins, including "the fact that we still talk of professors holding the 'Chair' of their subject" being based on the "traditional Islamic pattern of teaching where the professor sits on a chair and the students sit around him", the term 'academic circles' being derived from the way in which Islamic students "sat in a circle around their professor", and terms such as "having 'fellows', 'reading' a subject, and obtaining 'degrees', can all be traced back" to the Islamic concepts of aṣḥāb ('companions, as of Muhammad'), qirāʼah ('reading aloud the Qur'an') and ijāzah ('licence [to teach]') respectively. Makdisi has listed eighteen such parallels in terminology which can be traced back to their roots in Islamic education. Some of the practices now common in modern universities which Makdisi and Goddard trace back to an Islamic root include "practices such as delivering inaugural lectures, wearing academic robes, obtaining doctorates by defending a thesis, and even the idea of academic freedom are also modelled on Islamic custom." The Islamic scholarly system of fatwá and ijmāʻ, meaning opinion and consensus respectively, formed the basis of the "scholarly system the West has practised in university scholarship from the Middle Ages down to the present day." According to Makdisi and Goddard, "the idea of academic freedom" in universities was also "modelled on Islamic custom" as practised in the medieval Madrasa system from the 9th century. Islamic influence was "certainly discernible in the foundation of the first deliberately planned university" in Europe, the University of Naples Federico II founded by Frederick II, Holy Roman Emperor in 1224.
What other religion was considered to share parallels in teaching styles with the Muslim faith?
572a7e1af75d5e190021faee
Christian
439
False
What was Makdisi accused of doing when evaluating the parallels between European and Islamic schools?
572a7e1af75d5e190021faef
overstating his case
261
False
What is the European version of fiqh?
572a7e1af75d5e190021faf0
civil law
672
False
What do scholars believe is the reason for similarities between Islamic and European schools?
572a7e1af75d5e190021faf1
parallel occurrence
1513
False
Christian
439
What other religion was considered to be opposite in teaching styles with the Muslim faith?
5ace7fdd32bba1001ae4a869
True
overstating his case
261
What was Makdisi not accused of doing when evaluating the parallels between European and Islamic schools?
5ace7fdd32bba1001ae4a86a
True
civil law
672
What is the non-European version of fiqh?
5ace7fdd32bba1001ae4a86b
True
close parallels
324
What do scholars believe is the reason for differences between Islamic and European schools?
5ace7fdd32bba1001ae4a86c
True
However, all of these facets of medieval university life are considered by standard scholarship to be independent medieval European developments with no tracable Islamic influence. Generally, some reviewers have pointed out the strong inclination of Makdisi of overstating his case by simply resting on "the accumulation of close parallels", but all the while failing to point to convincing channels of transmission between the Muslim and Christian world. Norman Daniel points out that the Arab equivalent of the Latin disputation, the taliqa, was reserved for the ruler's court, not the madrasa, and that the actual differences between Islamic fiqh and medieval European civil law were profound. The taliqa only reached Islamic Spain, the only likely point of transmission, after the establishment of the first medieval universities. In fact, there is no Latin translation of the taliqa and, most importantly, no evidence of Latin scholars ever showing awareness of Arab influence on the Latin method of disputation, something they would have certainly found noteworthy. Rather, it was the medieval reception of the Greek Organon which set the scholastic sic et non in motion. Daniel concludes that resemblances in method had more to with the two religions having "common problems: to reconcile the conflicting statements of their own authorities, and to safeguard the data of revelation from the impact of Greek philosophy"; thus Christian scholasticism and similar Arab concepts should be viewed in terms of a parallel occurrence, not of the transmission of ideas from one to the other, a view shared by Hugh Kennedy.
What percentage of Islamic women were educated before the 1200s?
572a7f2034ae481900deab4d
less than one percent
47
False
How many female Islamic scholars were on record after the 1400s?
572a7f2034ae481900deab4e
over 8,000
176
False
In what book was a section reserved for the study of Islamic female students?
572a7f2034ae481900deab4f
al-Ḍawʾ al-lāmiʻ
304
False
How many female students were discussed in the al-Daw' al-Iami?
572a7f2034ae481900deab50
1,075
363
False
less than one percent
47
What percentage of Islamic women were educated before the 2000s?
5ace800732bba1001ae4a871
True
over 8,000
176
How many female Islamic scholars were on record after the 1600s?
5ace800732bba1001ae4a872
True
al-Ḍawʾ al-lāmiʻ
304
In what book was a section reserved for the study of Islamic male students?
5ace800732bba1001ae4a873
True
1,075
363
How many male students were discussed in the al-Daw' al-Iami?
5ace800732bba1001ae4a874
True
Prior to the 12th century, women accounted for less than one percent of the world’s Islamic scholars. However, al-Sakhawi and Mohammad Akram Nadwi have since found evidence of over 8,000 female scholars since the 15th century. al-Sakhawi devotes an entire volume of his 12-volume biographical dictionary al-Ḍawʾ al-lāmiʻ to female scholars, giving information on 1,075 of them. More recently, the scholar Mohammad Akram Nadwi, currently a researcher from the Oxford Centre for Islamic Studies, has written 40 volumes on the muḥaddithāt (the women scholars of ḥadīth), and found at least 8,000 of them.
What disciplines were women trained in during the first century?
572a8012be1ee31400cb8043
music, dancing and poetry
193
False
Who was the most well known female scholar in Islamic schools?
572a8012be1ee31400cb8044
Shuhda
633
False
Where did Shuhda attend school?
572a8012be1ee31400cb8045
Baghdad
722
False
When was formal education for Islamic women halted?
572a8012be1ee31400cb8046
1258
865
False
During which Caliphate did Islamic women begin attending formal school?
572a8012be1ee31400cb8047
Abbasid
28
False
music, dancing and poetry
193
What disciplines were women trained in during the second century?
5ace804f32bba1001ae4a879
True
Shuhda
633
Who was the least well known female scholar in Islamic schools?
5ace804f32bba1001ae4a87a
True
Baghdad
722
Where did Shuhda work?
5ace804f32bba1001ae4a87b
True
1258
865
When was formal education for Islamic women encouraged?
5ace804f32bba1001ae4a87c
True
Abbasid
787
During which Caliphate did Islamic women stop going to formal school?
5ace804f32bba1001ae4a87d
True
From around 750, during the Abbasid Caliphate, women “became renowned for their brains as well as their beauty”. In particular, many well known women of the time were trained from childhood in music, dancing and poetry. Mahbuba was one of these. Another feminine figure to be remembered for her achievements was Tawaddud, "a slave girl who was said to have been bought at great cost by Hārūn al-Rashīd because she had passed her examinations by the most eminent scholars in astronomy, medicine, law, philosophy, music, history, Arabic grammar, literature, theology and chess". Moreover, among the most prominent feminine figures was Shuhda who was known as "the Scholar" or "the Pride of Women" during the 12th century in Baghdad. Despite the recognition of women's aptitudes during the Abbasid dynasty, all these came to an end in Iraq with the sack of Baghdad in 1258.
What titles could women earn by going to Islamic schools?
572a8196be1ee31400cb8057
scholars and teachers
221
False
Who wanted to ensured that their daughters were educated in Islamic schools?
572a8196be1ee31400cb8058
learned and scholarly families
277
False
Why did the prophet Muhammad esteem women in Medina?
572a8196be1ee31400cb8059
their desire for religious knowledge
682
False
Who created a pathway for education for women in the Islamic world?
572a8196be1ee31400cb805a
Muhammad's wives
530
False
Which one of Muhammad's wives had a particular impact on his view of women and education?
572a8196be1ee31400cb805b
Khadijah
556
False
scholars and teachers
221
What titles could men earn by going to Islamic schools?
5ace808d32bba1001ae4a883
True
learned and scholarly families
277
Who wanted to ensured that their daughters were not educated in Islamic schools?
5ace808d32bba1001ae4a884
True
desire for religious knowledge
688
Why did the prophet Muhammad esteem men in Medina?
5ace808d32bba1001ae4a885
True
Khadijah
556
Which one of Muhammad's sons had a particular impact on his view of women and education?
5ace808d32bba1001ae4a886
True
According to the Sunni scholar Ibn ʻAsākir in the 12th century, there were opportunities for female education in the medieval Islamic world, writing that women could study, earn ijazahs (academic degrees), and qualify as scholars and teachers. This was especially the case for learned and scholarly families, who wanted to ensure the highest possible education for both their sons and daughters. Ibn ʻAsakir had himself studied under 80 different female teachers in his time. Female education in the Islamic world was inspired by Muhammad's wives, such as Khadijah, a successful businesswoman. According to a hadith attributed to Muhammad, he praised the women of Medina because of their desire for religious knowledge:
Who traveled abroad to get an education at madaris?
572a84d3f75d5e190021fb38
Ottomans
941
False
How many madaris were started by Mehmed the Conqueror?
572a84d3f75d5e190021fb39
eight
1514
False
How would a student matriculate to the next level of schooling in the Ottoman Empire?
572a84d3f75d5e190021fb3a
complete the classes in the lower one
2276
False
Where were Ottoman madaris built?
572a84d3f75d5e190021fb3b
near mosques
1739
False
When was the first Ottoman madrasa built?
572a84d3f75d5e190021fb3c
1331
51
False
Ottoman Medrese
11
Who didn't traveled abroad to get an education at madaris?
5ace812a32bba1001ae4a89f
True
eight
1514
How many madaris were not started by Mehmed the Conqueror?
5ace812a32bba1001ae4a8a0
True
complete the classes in the lower one
2276
How would a teacher matriculate to the next level of schooling in the Ottoman Empire?
5ace812a32bba1001ae4a8a1
True
near mosques
1739
Where were Ottoman madaris torn down?
5ace812a32bba1001ae4a8a2
True
1331
51
When was the first Ottoman madrasa torn down?
5ace812a32bba1001ae4a8a3
True
"The first Ottoman Medrese was created in İznik in 1331 and most Ottoman medreses followed the traditions of Sunni Islam." "When an Ottoman sultan established a new medrese, he would invite scholars from the Islamic world—for example, Murad II brought scholars from Persia, such as ʻAlāʼ al-Dīn and Fakhr al-Dīn who helped enhance the reputation of the Ottoman medrese". This reveals that the Islamic world was interconnected in the early modern period as they travelled around to other Islamic states exchanging knowledge. This sense that the Ottoman Empire was becoming modernised through globalization is also recognised by Hamadeh who says: "Change in the eighteenth century as the beginning of a long and unilinear march toward westernisation reflects the two centuries of reformation in sovereign identity." İnalcık also mentions that while scholars from for example Persia travelled to the Ottomans in order to share their knowledge, Ottomans travelled as well to receive education from scholars of these Islamic lands, such as Egypt, Persia and Turkestan. Hence, this reveals that similar to today's modern world, individuals from the early modern society travelled abroad to receive education and share knowledge and that the world was more interconnected than it seems. Also, it reveals how the system of "schooling" was also similar to today's modern world where students travel abroad to different countries for studies. Examples of Ottoman madaris are the ones built by Mehmed the Conqueror. He built eight madaris that were built "on either side of the mosque where there were eight higher madaris for specialised studies and eight lower medreses, which prepared students for these." The fact that they were built around, or near mosques reveals the religious impulses behind madrasa building and it reveals the interconnectedness between institutions of learning and religion. The students who completed their education in the lower medreses became known as danismends. This reveals that similar to the education system today, the Ottomans' educational system involved different kinds of schools attached to different kinds of levels. For example, there were lower madaris and specialised ones, and for one to get into the specialised area meant that he had to complete the classes in the lower one in order to adequately prepare himself for higher learning.
What was the essential mission of Islamic schools in the Ottoman Empire?
572a85df111d821400f38bac
spiritual learning
203
False
Why was philosophy taught in Ottoman madaris?
572a85df111d821400f38bad
confirm the doctrines of Islam
1010
False
What type of social structure did the Ottoman Empire have?
572a85df111d821400f38bae
pluralistic
1260
False
What religion was at the center of education in the Ottoman Empire?
572a85df111d821400f38baf
Islam
1431
False
What did Ottoman madaris have that was similar to modern American schools?
572a85df111d821400f38bb0
wide range of studies
1976
False
spiritual learning
203
What was the essential mission of non-Islamic schools in the Ottoman Empire?
5ace818332bba1001ae4a8a9
True
confirm the doctrines of Islam
1010
Why wasn't philosophy taught in Ottoman madaris?
5ace818332bba1001ae4a8aa
True
pluralistic
1260
What type of social structure did the Ottoman Empire not have?
5ace818332bba1001ae4a8ab
True
Islam
1035
What religion was not at the center of education in the Ottoman Empire?
5ace818332bba1001ae4a8ac
True
wide range of studies
1976
What did Ottoman madaris have that was different to modern American schools?
5ace818332bba1001ae4a8ad
True
Although Ottoman madaris had a number of different branches of study, such as calligraphic sciences, oral sciences, and intellectual sciences, they primarily served the function of an Islamic centre for spiritual learning. "The goal of all knowledge and in particular, of the spiritual sciences is knowledge of God." Religion, for the most part, determines the significance and importance of each science. As İnalcık mentions: "Those which aid religion are good and sciences like astrology are bad." However, even though mathematics, or studies in logic were part of the madrasa's curriculum, they were all centred around religion. Even mathematics had a religious impulse behind its teachings. "The Ulema of the Ottoman medreses held the view that hostility to logic and mathematics was futile since these accustomed the mind to correct thinking and thus helped to reveal divine truths" – key word being "divine". İnalcık also mentions that even philosophy was only allowed to be studied so that it helped to confirm the doctrines of Islam." Hence, madaris – schools were basically religious centres for religious teachings and learning in the Ottoman world. Although scholars such as Goffman have argued that the Ottomans were highly tolerant and lived in a pluralistic society, it seems that schools that were the main centres for learning were in fact heftily religious and were not religiously pluralistic, but centred around Islam. Similarly, in Europe "Jewish children learned the Hebrew letters and texts of basic prayers at home, and then attended a school organised by the synagogue to study the Torah." Wiesner-Hanks also says that Protestants also wanted to teach "proper religious values." This shows that in the early modern period, Ottomans and Europeans were similar in their ideas about how schools should be managed and what they should be primarily focused on. Thus, Ottoman madaris were very similar to present day schools in the sense that they offered a wide range of studies; however, these studies, in their ultimate objective, aimed to further solidify and consolidate Islamic practices and theories.
What kind of social service was provided through the madaris?
572a875f111d821400f38bca
aid to the poor through soup kitchens
236
False
What had a hold over social life in the Ottoman Empire as well as other cultures?
572a875f111d821400f38bcb
religion
533
False
Where did students learn about religious and social norms?
572a875f111d821400f38bcc
medreses
1336
False
What practice was desired through connecting religion and schools?
572a875f111d821400f38bcd
Islamic orthodoxy
1047
False
aid to the poor
236
What kind of social service was not provided through the madaris?
5ace81bc32bba1001ae4a8bb
True
religion
363
What had a hold over social life in only the Ottoman Empire, not other cultures?
5ace81bc32bba1001ae4a8bc
True
medreses
878
Where did teachers learn about religious and social norms?
5ace81bc32bba1001ae4a8bd
True
Islamic orthodoxy
1047
What practice was never desired through connecting religion and schools?
5ace81bc32bba1001ae4a8be
True
As with any other country during the Early Modern Period, such as Italy and Spain in Europe, the Ottoman social life was interconnected with the medrese. Medreses were built in as part of a Mosque complex where many programmes, such as aid to the poor through soup kitchens, were held under the infrastructure of a mosque, which reveals the interconnectedness of religion and social life during this period. "The mosques to which medreses were attached, dominated the social life in Ottoman cities." Social life was not dominated by religion only in the Muslim world of the Ottoman Empire; it was also quite similar to the social life of Europe during this period. As Goffman says: "Just as mosques dominated social life for the Ottomans, churches and synagogues dominated life for the Christians and Jews as well." Hence, social life and the medrese were closely linked, since medreses taught many curricula, such as religion, which highly governed social life in terms of establishing orthodoxy. "They tried moving their developing state toward Islamic orthodoxy." Overall, the fact that mosques contained medreses comes to show the relevance of education to religion in the sense that education took place within the framework of religion and religion established social life by trying to create a common religious orthodoxy. Hence, medreses were simply part of the social life of society as students came to learn the fundamentals of their societal values and beliefs.
What group makes up a larger percentage of people in India?
572a8990f75d5e190021fb56
Deobandis
180
False
What is the largest school for Barelvis people in India?
572a8990f75d5e190021fb57
Jamia Nayeemia Muradabad
480
False
What disciplines does India want to introduce to madaris?
572a8990f75d5e190021fb58
Mathematics, Computers and science
846
False
In what year did the Indian government begin to stop recognizing madaris as schools?
572a8990f75d5e190021fb59
2015
908
False
What problems are arising due to the political conflicts over schools?
572a8990f75d5e190021fb5a
Hindu-Muslim friction
1098
False
Deobandis
180
What group makes up a smaller percentage of people in India?
5ace820b32bba1001ae4a8cb
True
Jamia Nayeemia Muradabad
480
What is the smallest school for Barelvis people outside of India?
5ace820b32bba1001ae4a8cc
True
Mathematics, Computers and science
846
What disciplines does India want to keep away from madaris?
5ace820b32bba1001ae4a8cd
True
2015
908
In what year did the Indian government begin recognize madaris as schools?
5ace820b32bba1001ae4a8ce
True
Hindu-Muslim friction
1098
What problems are not arising due to the social conflicts over schools?
5ace820b32bba1001ae4a8cf
True
In India the majority of these schools follow the Hanafi school of thought. The religious establishment forms part of the mainly two large divisions within the country, namely the Deobandis, who dominate in numbers (of whom the Darul Uloom Deoband constitutes one of the biggest madaris) and the Barelvis, who also make up a sizeable portion (Sufi-oriented). Some notable establishments include: Al Jamiatul Ashrafia, Mubarakpur, Manzar Islam Bareilly, Jamia Nizamdina New Delhi, Jamia Nayeemia Muradabad which is one of the largest learning centres for the Barelvis. The HR[clarification needed] ministry of the government of India has recently[when?] declared that a Central Madrasa Board would be set up. This will enhance the education system of madaris in India. Though the madaris impart Quranic education mainly, efforts are on to include Mathematics, Computers and science in the curriculum. In July 2015, the state government of Maharashtra created a stir de-recognised madrasa education, receiving critisicm from several political parties with the NCP accusing the ruling BJP of creating Hindu-Muslim friction in the state, and Kamal Farooqui of the All India Muslim Personal Law Board saying it was "ill-designed"
How many Muslim students are there in Kerala?
572a8a8034ae481900deab67
over 500,000
215
False
How many Muslim teachers are there in Kerala?
572a8a8034ae481900deab68
6,000
144
False
Who determines the content taught in Arabic public schools?
572a8a8034ae481900deab69
State-appointed committees
245
False
What types of programs provide traditional Islamic teaching?
572a8a8034ae481900deab6a
after-school
509
False
What is the format of school for girls and boys?
572a8a8034ae481900deab6b
co-educational
818
False
6,000
144
How many non-Muslim students are there in Kerala?
5ace825932bba1001ae4a8d6
True
State-appointed committees
245
Who does not determine the content taught in Arabic public schools?
5ace825932bba1001ae4a8d7
True
after-school
509
What types of programs provide non-traditional Islamic teaching?
5ace825932bba1001ae4a8d8
True
co-educational
818
What is the format of school for adults?
5ace825932bba1001ae4a8d9
True
Today, the system of Arabic and Islamic education has grown and further integrated with Kerala government administration. In 2005, an estimated 6,000 Muslim Arabic teachers taught in Kerala government schools, with over 500,000 Muslim students. State-appointed committees, not private mosques or religious scholars outside the government, determine the curriculum and accreditation of new schools and colleges. Primary education in Arabic and Islamic studies is available to Kerala Muslims almost entirely in after-school madrasa programs - sharply unlike full-time madaris common in north India, which may replace formal schooling. Arabic colleges (over eleven of which exist within the state-run University of Calicut and the Kannur University) provide B.A. and Masters' level degrees. At all levels, instruction is co-educational, with many women instructors and professors. Islamic education boards are independently run by the following organizations, accredited by the Kerala state government: Samastha Kerala Islamic Education Board, Kerala Nadvathul Mujahideen, Jamaat-e-Islami Hind, and Jamiat Ulema-e-Hind.
Who decides if Muslims attend secular schools or traditional madaris?
572a8c0c111d821400f38bda
students
26
False
What are madaris referred to as in Indonesia and Malaysia?
572a8c0c111d821400f38bdb
Sekolah Agama
145
False
What region of the Philippines has a large Muslim population?
572a8c0c111d821400f38bdc
Mindanao
492
False
What region of Thailand has madaris?
572a8c0c111d821400f38bdd
southern
409
False
students
26
Who decides if non-Muslims attend secular schools or traditional madaris?
5ace835632bba1001ae4a903
True
Sekolah Agama
145
What are madaris referred to as outside of Indonesia and Malaysia?
5ace835632bba1001ae4a904
True
Mindanao
492
What region of the Philippines has a large non-Muslim population?
5ace835632bba1001ae4a905
True
southern
409
What region of Thailand does not have madaris?
5ace835632bba1001ae4a906
True
In Southeast Asia, Muslim students have a choice of attending a secular government or an Islamic school. Madaris or Islamic schools are known as Sekolah Agama (Malay: religious school) in Malaysia and Indonesia, โรงเรียนศาสนาอิสลาม (Thai: school of Islam) in Thailand and madaris in the Philippines. In countries where Islam is not the majority or state religion, Islamic schools are found in regions such as southern Thailand (near the Thai-Malaysian border) and the southern Philippines in Mindanao, where a significant Muslim population can be found.
How many madrasahs are in Sinagapore?
572a8cd234ae481900deab71
six
162
False
What program is being installed in madrasahs in Singapore?
572a8cd234ae481900deab72
International Baccalaureate
781
False
What year is it planned for IB programs to be in place at Madrasah Al-Arabiah Al-Islamiah?
572a8cd234ae481900deab73
2019
868
False
What will the uniform be at Madrasah Al-Arabiah Al-Islamiah?
572a8cd234ae481900deab74
the songkok for boys and tudong for girls
965
False
six
162
How many madrasahs are outside of Sinagapore?
5ace83da32bba1001ae4a91d
True
International Baccalaureate
781
What program is being installed in madrasahs outside of Singapore?
5ace83da32bba1001ae4a91e
True
2019
868
What year is it planned for IB programs to be in taken out of Madrasah Al-Arabiah Al-Islamiah?
5ace83da32bba1001ae4a91f
True
songkok for boys and tudong for girls
969
What will not be included in the uniform at Madrasah Al-Arabiah Al-Islamiah?
5ace83da32bba1001ae4a920
True
In Singapore, madrasahs are private schools which are overseen by Majlis Ugama Islam Singapura (MUIS, English: Islamic Religious Council of Singapore). There are six Madrasahs in Singapore, catering to students from Primary 1 to Secondary 4. Four Madrasahs are coeducational and two are for girls. Students take a range of Islamic Studies subjects in addition to mainstream MOE curriculum subjects and sit for the PSLE and GCE 'O' Levels like their peers. In 2009, MUIS introduced the "Joint Madrasah System" (JMS), a joint collaboration of Madrasah Al-Irsyad Al-Islamiah primary school and secondary schools Madrasah Aljunied Al-Islamiah (offering the ukhrawi, or religious stream) and Madrasah Al-Arabiah Al-Islamiah (offering the academic stream). The JMS aims to introduce the International Baccalaureate (IB) programme into the Madrasah Al-Arabiah Al-Islamiah by 2019. Students attending a madrasah are required to wear the traditional Malay attire, including the songkok for boys and tudong for girls, in contrast to mainstream government schools which ban religious headgear as Singapore is officially a secular state. For students who wish to attend a mainstream school, they may opt to take classes on weekends at the madrasah instead of enrolling full-time.
How many regions in Singapore have widely accepted madaris?
572a8e06f75d5e190021fb68
16
38
False
What law protects the teaching of Arabic and Islamic traditions in Mindanao?
572a8e06f75d5e190021fb69
Department Order No. 51
185
False
What religion do most people practice in Mindanao?
572a8e06f75d5e190021fb6a
Muslim
74
False
What curriculum is used in non public madaris in Mindanao?
572a8e06f75d5e190021fb6b
Standard Madrasa Curriculum (SMC)
349
False
When did madaris become more accepted in Mindanao?
572a8e06f75d5e190021fb6c
2004
3
False
16
38
How many regions outside of Singapore have widely accepted madaris?
5ace841032bba1001ae4a925
True
Department Order No. 51
185
What law does not protect the teaching of Arabic and Islamic traditions in Mindanao?
5ace841032bba1001ae4a926
True
Muslim
278
What religion does nobody practice in Mindanao?
5ace841032bba1001ae4a927
True
Muslim
278
What curriculum is used in public madaris in Mindanao?
5ace841032bba1001ae4a928
True
2004
3
When did madaris become less accepted in Mindanao?
5ace841032bba1001ae4a929
True
In 2004, madaris were mainstreamed in 16 Regions nationwide, primarily in Muslim-majority areas in Mindanao under the auspices of the Department of Education (DepEd). The DepEd adopted Department Order No. 51, which instituted Arabic-language and Islamic Values instruction for Muslim children in state schools, and authorised implementation of the Standard Madrasa Curriculum (SMC) in private-run madaris. While there are state-recognised Islamic schools, such as Ibn Siena Integrated School in the Islamic City of Marawi, Sarang Bangun LC in Zamboanga and SMIE in Jolo, their Islamic studies programmes initially varied in application and content.
When was the first madrasa started in North America?
572a8ec3be1ee31400cb808d
1983
118
False
What country has many students that attend Al-Rashid Islamic Institute?
572a8ec3be1ee31400cb808e
US
440
False
Where is Al-Rashid Islamic Institute?
572a8ec3be1ee31400cb808f
Cornwall, Ontario
97
False
What organization did Shaykh Muhammad Alsahareef start?
572a8ec3be1ee31400cb8090
AlMaghrib Institute
711
False
1983
118
When was the last madrasa started in North America?
5ace845232bba1001ae4a939
True
US
514
What country has many students that don't attend Al-Rashid Islamic Institute?
5ace845232bba1001ae4a93a
True
Cornwall, Ontario
97
Where is Al-Rashid Muslim Institute?
5ace845232bba1001ae4a93b
True
AlMaghrib Institute
711
What organization did Shaykh Muhammad Alsahareef tear down?
5ace845232bba1001ae4a93c
True
The first Madressa established in North America, Al-Rashid Islamic Institute, was established in Cornwall, Ontario in 1983 and has graduates who are Hafiz (Quran) and Ulama. The seminary was established by Mazhar Alam under the direction of his teacher the leading Indian Tablighi scholar Muhammad Zakariya Kandhlawi and focuses on the traditional Hanafi school of thought and shuns Salafist / Wahabi teachings. Due to its proximity to the US border city of Messina the school has historically had a high ratio of US students. Their most prominent graduate Shaykh Muhammad Alshareef completed his Hifz in the early 1990s then went on to deviate from his traditional roots and form the Salafist organization the AlMaghrib Institute.
What is the common western perception of the teaching received at madaris?
572a8f95111d821400f38bf2
anti-Americanism and radical extremism
108
False
What type of content is delivered at madaris?
572a8f95111d821400f38bf3
varied curricula
375
False
What type of teaching is provided at Indian madaris?
572a8f95111d821400f38bf4
secularised
463
False
What are the origins of western schools?
572a8f95111d821400f38bf5
institutions of the Catholic church
925
False
How many science disciplines were taught at madaris in the Ottoman Empire?
572a8f95111d821400f38bf6
seven
667
False
anti-Americanism and radical extremism
108
What is the common northern perception of the teaching received at madaris?
5ace84b232bba1001ae4a949
True
varied curricula
375
What type of content is not delivered at madaris?
5ace84b232bba1001ae4a94a
True
secularised
463
What type of teaching is rejected at Indian madaris?
5ace84b232bba1001ae4a94b
True
institutions of the Catholic church
925
What are the origins of southern schools?
5ace84b232bba1001ae4a94c
True
seven
667
How many science disciplines were banned from being taught at madaris in the Ottoman Empire?
5ace84b232bba1001ae4a94d
True
Western commentators post-9/11 often perceive madaris as places of radical revivalism with a connotation of anti-Americanism and radical extremism, frequently associated in the Western press with Wahhabi attitudes toward non-Muslims. In Arabic the word madrasa simply means "school" and does not imply a political or religious affiliation, radical or otherwise. Madaris have varied curricula, and are not all religious. Some madaris in India, for example, have a secularised identity. Although early madaris were founded primarily to gain "knowledge of God" they also taught subjects such as mathematics and poetry. For example, in the Ottoman Empire, "Madrasahs had seven categories of sciences that were taught, such as: styles of writing, oral sciences like the Arabic language, grammar, rhetoric, and history and intellectual sciences, such as logic." This is similar to the Western world, in which universities began as institutions of the Catholic church.
Miami
What is the approximate population of the Miami metro area?
572a6f367a1753140016af4e
5.5 million
585
False
In what geographic portion of Florida is Miami located?
572a6f367a1753140016af4f
southeastern
95
False
What county is Miami located in?
572a6f367a1753140016af50
Miami-Dade County
132
False
Where does Miami rank among American cities by population?
572a6f367a1753140016af51
44th
155
False
How many people live in Miami?
572a6f367a1753140016af52
430,332
230
False
Atlantic
77
On which coast of Florida is Miami not located?
5ad3707d604f3c001a3fe249
True
Miami-Dade County
132
Miami isn't located in which Florida county?
5ad3707d604f3c001a3fe24a
True
eighth-most
484
Where does Miami fall among the least populous urban areas in the United States?
5ad3707d604f3c001a3fe24b
True
Washington, D.C.
404
Which city is the only one with a smaller population than Miami in the southeastern United States?
5ad3707d604f3c001a3fe24c
True
5.5 million
585
What isn't the approximate population of Miami's metro area?
5ad3707d604f3c001a3fe24d
True
Miami (/maɪˈæmi/; Spanish pronunciation: [maiˈami]) is a city located on the Atlantic coast in southeastern Florida and the seat of Miami-Dade County. The 44th-most populated city proper in the United States, with a population of 430,332, it is the principal, central, and most populous city of the Miami metropolitan area, and the second most populous metropolis in the Southeastern United States after Washington, D.C. According to the U.S. Census Bureau, Miami's metro area is the eighth-most populous and fourth-largest urban area in the United States, with a population of around 5.5 million.
What classification did the World Cities Study Group give to Miami?
572a6fc47a1753140016af58
Alpha−World City
162
False
Where did Miami rank among cities around the world in regard to finance?
572a6fc47a1753140016af59
33rd
379
False
What did Forbes call Miami in 2008?
572a6fc47a1753140016af5a
America's Cleanest City
444
False
What is a nickname given to Miami?
572a6fc47a1753140016af5b
Capital of Latin America
795
False
Where does Miami rank in terms of US Spanish-speaking populations?
572a6fc47a1753140016af5c
second
829
False
Alpha−World City
162
What classification didn't the World Cities Study Group give to Miami?
5ad370c8604f3c001a3fe267
True
33rd
379
Where didn't Miami rank among cities around the world in regard to finance?
5ad370c8604f3c001a3fe268
True
America's Cleanest City
444
What did Forbes call Miami in 2018?
5ad370c8604f3c001a3fe269
True
Capital of Latin America
795
What is a nickname not given to Miami?
5ad370c8604f3c001a3fe26a
True
second
829
Where does Miami rank in terms of UN Spanish-speaking populations?
5ad370c8604f3c001a3fe26b
True
Miami is a major center, and a leader in finance, commerce, culture, media, entertainment, the arts, and international trade. In 2012, Miami was classified as an Alpha−World City in the World Cities Study Group's inventory. In 2010, Miami ranked seventh in the United States in terms of finance, commerce, culture, entertainment, fashion, education, and other sectors. It ranked 33rd among global cities. In 2008, Forbes magazine ranked Miami "America's Cleanest City", for its year-round good air quality, vast green spaces, clean drinking water, clean streets, and city-wide recycling programs. According to a 2009 UBS study of 73 world cities, Miami was ranked as the richest city in the United States, and the world's fifth-richest city in terms of purchasing power. Miami is nicknamed the "Capital of Latin America", is the second largest U.S. city with a Spanish-speaking majority, and the largest city with a Cuban-American plurality.
What does downtown Miami possess more of than any other US city?
572a7048fed8de19000d5c0d
international banks
55
False
What is called the "Cruise Capital of the World"?
572a7048fed8de19000d5c0e
Port of Miami
299
False
Along with cruise lines, in what traffic does Miami's port rank first?
572a7048fed8de19000d5c0f
passenger
523
False
Along with hospitals, medical centers and biotechnology industries, what is notably present in the Civic Center?
572a7048fed8de19000d5c10
research institutes
200
False
How long has Miami been the world's top cruise passenger port?
572a7048fed8de19000d5c11
two decades
282
False
international banks
55
What does downtown Miami possess less of than any other US city?
5ad37135604f3c001a3fe271
True
Port of Miami
299
What isn't called the "Cruise Capital of the World"?
5ad37135604f3c001a3fe272
True
passenger
389
Along with cruise lines, in what traffic does Miami's port rank last?
5ad37135604f3c001a3fe273
True
research institutes
200
Along with hospitals, medical centers and biotechnology industries, what is notably absent in the Civic Center?
5ad37135604f3c001a3fe274
True
two decades
282
How long has Miami been the world's bottom cruise passenger port?
5ad37135604f3c001a3fe275
True
Downtown Miami is home to the largest concentration of international banks in the United States, and many large national and international companies. The Civic Center is a major center for hospitals, research institutes, medical centers, and biotechnology industries. For more than two decades, the Port of Miami, known as the "Cruise Capital of the World", has been the number one cruise passenger port in the world. It accommodates some of the world's largest cruise ships and operations, and is the busiest port in both passenger traffic and cruise lines.
Where was Julia Tuttle born?
572a70a327b69114009ef5b6
Cleveland
133
False
Prior to the naming of Miami, what was the area around Miami called?
572a70a327b69114009ef5b7
Biscayne Bay Country
187
False
When did the Great Freeze occur?
572a70a327b69114009ef5b8
1894–95
425
False
What railroad was owned by Henry Flagler?
572a70a327b69114009ef5b9
Florida East Coast Railway
618
False
Who was "the mother of Miami"?
572a70a327b69114009ef5ba
Julia Tuttle
82
False
Cleveland
133
Where wasn't Julia Tuttle born?
5ad371aa604f3c001a3fe28b
True
Biscayne Bay Country
187
Prior to the naming of Miami, what wasn't the area around Miami called?
5ad371aa604f3c001a3fe28c
True
1894–95
425
When did the Great Thaw occur?
5ad371aa604f3c001a3fe28d
True
Florida East Coast Railway
618
What railroad was disowned by Henry Flagler?
5ad371aa604f3c001a3fe28e
True
Julia Tuttle
534
Who was "the father of Miami"?
5ad371aa604f3c001a3fe28f
True
Miami is noted as "the only major city in the United States conceived by a woman, Julia Tuttle", a local citrus grower and a wealthy Cleveland native. The Miami area was better known as "Biscayne Bay Country" in the early years of its growth. In the late 19th century, reports described the area as a promising wilderness. The area was also characterized as "one of the finest building sites in Florida." The Great Freeze of 1894–95 hastened Miami's growth, as the crops of the Miami area were the only ones in Florida that survived. Julia Tuttle subsequently convinced Henry Flagler, a railroad tycoon, to expand his Florida East Coast Railway to the region, for which she became known as "the mother of Miami." Miami was officially incorporated as a city on July 28, 1896 with a population of just over 300. It was named for the nearby Miami River, derived from Mayaimi, the historic name of Lake Okeechobee.
In the early 1900s, what percentage of Miami's population was of African origin?
572a710827b69114009ef5c0
40
166
False
What was NW Fifth Avenue previously called?
572a710827b69114009ef5c1
Avenue J
382
False
Where did a portion of Miami's black population migrate from in the early 1900s?
572a710827b69114009ef5c2
Bahamas
124
False
40
166
In the early 1800s, what percentage of Miami's population was of African origin?
5ad371f4604f3c001a3fe295
True
40
166
In the early 1900s, what percentage of Miami's population was of Indian origin?
5ad371f4604f3c001a3fe296
True
Avenue J
382
What was NW Fourth Avenue previously called?
5ad371f4604f3c001a3fe297
True
Avenue J
382
What was SW Fifth Avenue previously called?
5ad371f4604f3c001a3fe298
True
Bahamas
124
Where did a portion of Miami's black population migrate from in the early 1800s?
5ad371f4604f3c001a3fe299
True
Black labor played a crucial role in Miami's early development. During the beginning of the 20th century, migrants from the Bahamas and African-Americans constituted 40 percent of the city's population. Whatever their role in the city's growth, their community's growth was limited to a small space. When landlords began to rent homes to African-Americans in neighborhoods close to Avenue J (what would later become NW Fifth Avenue), a gang of white man with torches visited the renting families and warned them to move or be bombed.
Who was a notable chief of the Miami police?
572a71897a1753140016af74
H. Leslie Quigg
243
False
To what controversial organization did a Miami chief of police belong?
572a71897a1753140016af75
Ku Klux Klan
356
False
For what reason did H. Leslie Quigg kill a black man?
572a71897a1753140016af76
speaking directly to a white woman
532
False
What was the occupation of the African-American man killed by Quigg?
572a71897a1753140016af77
bellboy
511
False
H. Leslie Quigg
243
Who was a unnotable chief of the Miami police?
5ad3810a604f3c001a3fe475
True
H. Leslie Quigg
243
Who was a notable constable of the Miami police?
5ad3810a604f3c001a3fe476
True
Ku Klux Klan
356
To what controversial organization didn't a Miami chief of police belong?
5ad3810a604f3c001a3fe477
True
for speaking directly to a white woman
528
For what reason did H. Leslie Quigg save a black man?
5ad3810a604f3c001a3fe478
True
bellboy
511
What was the occupation of the African-American woman killed by Quigg?
5ad3810a604f3c001a3fe479
True
During the early 20th century, northerners were attracted to the city, and Miami prospered during the 1920s with an increase in population and infrastructure. The legacy of Jim Crow was embedded in these developments. Miami's chief of police, H. Leslie Quigg, did not hide the fact that he, like many other white Miami police officers, was a member of the Ku Klux Klan. Unsurprisingly, these officers enforced social codes far beyond the written law. Quigg, for example, "personally and publicly beat a colored bellboy to death for speaking directly to a white woman."
In what year did Fidel Castro take over Cuba?
572a71fe7a1753140016af7c
1959
44
False
From what country did people notably emigrate to southern Florida in the 1980s and 90s?
572a71fe7a1753140016af7d
Haiti
311
False
What notable hurricane occurred between the 1980s and 1990s?
572a71fe7a1753140016af7e
Andrew
380
False
What is the largest city in the United States where a majority of the population speaks Spanish?
572a71fe7a1753140016af7f
El Paso, Texas
603
False
Miami is the US city with the largest population of what ethnic group?
572a71fe7a1753140016af80
Cuban-American
681
False
1959
44
In what year did Fidel Castro lose Cuba?
5ad38194604f3c001a3fe485
True
Haiti
311
From what country did people notably emigrate to southern Florida in the 1880s and 90s?
5ad38194604f3c001a3fe486
True
Hurricane Andrew
370
What minor storm occurred between the 1980s and 1990s?
5ad38194604f3c001a3fe487
True
El Paso, Texas
603
What is the smallest city in the United States where a majority of the population speaks Spanish?
5ad38194604f3c001a3fe488
True
Cuban-American
681
Miami is the US city with the smallest population of what ethnic group?
5ad38194604f3c001a3fe489
True
After Fidel Castro rose to power in Cuba in 1959, many wealthy Cubans sought refuge in Miami, further increasing the population. The city developed businesses and cultural amenities as part of the New South. In the 1980s and 1990s, South Florida weathered social problems related to drug wars, immigration from Haiti and Latin America, and the widespread destruction of Hurricane Andrew. Racial and cultural tensions were sometimes sparked, but the city developed in the latter half of the 20th century as a major international, financial, and cultural center. It is the second-largest U.S. city (after El Paso, Texas) with a Spanish-speaking majority, and the largest city with a Cuban-American plurality.
Where are the Everglades in relation to Miami?
572a727274f2e11900503fa3
east
118
False
To travel from Biscayne Bay to Miami, in what direction would one move?
572a727274f2e11900503fa4
west
89
False
What is the northern terminus of Biscayne Bay?
572a727274f2e11900503fa5
Lake Okeechobee
169
False
In kilometers, how far is the Gulf Stream from Miami's coast?
572a727274f2e11900503fa6
24
766
False
In meters, what is the average height above sea level of the Miami area?
572a727274f2e11900503fa7
1.8
272
False
east
118
Where aren't the Everglades in relation to Miami?
5ad381fb604f3c001a3fe4a3
True
west
89
To travel from Biscayne Bay to Miami, in what direction wouldn't one move?
5ad381fb604f3c001a3fe4a4
True
Lake Okeechobee
169
What is the southern terminus of Biscayne Bay?
5ad381fb604f3c001a3fe4a5
True
24 km
766
In kilometers, how far is the Gulf Mountain from Miami's coast?
5ad381fb604f3c001a3fe4a6
True
1.8 m
272
In meters, what is the average weight above sea level of the Miami area?
5ad381fb604f3c001a3fe4a7
True
Miami and its suburbs are located on a broad plain between the Florida Everglades to the west and Biscayne Bay to the east, which also extends from Florida Bay north to Lake Okeechobee. The elevation of the area never rises above 40 ft (12 m) and averages at around 6 ft (1.8 m) above mean sea level in most neighborhoods, especially near the coast. The highest undulations are found along the coastal Miami Rock Ridge, whose substrate underlies most of the eastern Miami metropolitan region. The main portion of the city lies on the shores of Biscayne Bay which contains several hundred natural and artificially created barrier islands, the largest of which contains Miami Beach and South Beach. The Gulf Stream, a warm ocean current, runs northward just 15 miles (24 km) off the coast, allowing the city's climate to stay warm and mild all year.
What is another name for Miami limestone?
572a72f97a1753140016af86
Miami oolite
51
False
How many meters thick is the bedrock under Miami at its maximum?
572a72f97a1753140016af87
15
162
False
What Stage occurred approximately 130,000 years ago?
572a72f97a1753140016af88
Sangamonian
333
False
How many meters did the Sangamonian Stage raise sea levels compared to their present level?
572a72f97a1753140016af89
8
395
False
What event caused sea levels to decrease approximately 100,000 years ago?
572a72f97a1753140016af8a
Wisconsin glaciation
847
False
Miami oolite
51
What isn't another name for Miami limestone?
5ad3828d604f3c001a3fe4b7
True
15 m
162
How many meters thick is the bedrock under Miami at its minimum?
5ad3828d604f3c001a3fe4b8
True
Sangamonian Stage
333
What Stage occurred approximately 13,000 years ago?
5ad3828d604f3c001a3fe4b9
True
8
395
How many kilometers did the Sangamonian Stage raise sea levels compared to their present level?
5ad3828d604f3c001a3fe4ba
True
Wisconsin glaciation
847
What event caused sea levels to increase approximately 100,000 years ago?
5ad3828d604f3c001a3fe4bb
True
The surface bedrock under the Miami area is called Miami oolite or Miami limestone. This bedrock is covered by a thin layer of soil, and is no more than 50 feet (15 m) thick. Miami limestone formed as the result of the drastic changes in sea level associated with recent glaciations or ice ages. Beginning some 130,000 years ago the Sangamonian Stage raised sea levels to approximately 25 feet (8 m) above the current level. All of southern Florida was covered by a shallow sea. Several parallel lines of reef formed along the edge of the submerged Florida plateau, stretching from the present Miami area to what is now the Dry Tortugas. The area behind this reef line was in effect a large lagoon, and the Miami limestone formed throughout the area from the deposition of oolites and the shells of bryozoans. Starting about 100,000 years ago the Wisconsin glaciation began lowering sea levels, exposing the floor of the lagoon. By 15,000 years ago, the sea level had dropped to 300 to 350 feet (90 to 110 m) below the contemporary level. The sea level rose quickly after that, stabilizing at the current level about 4000 years ago, leaving the mainland of South Florida just above sea level.
Along with Miami Springs, where is the highest point of the Biscayne Aquifer?
572a7388fed8de19000d5c1f
Hialeah
220
False
The Biscayne Aquifer stretches from Palm Beach County to where?
572a7388fed8de19000d5c20
Florida Bay
137
False
After digging how many meters is one sure to reach running water in Miami?
572a7388fed8de19000d5c21
5 to 6
388
False
What is limited by Miami's high water table?
572a7388fed8de19000d5c22
underground construction
452
False
Hialeah
220
Along with Miami Springs, where is the lowest point of the Biscayne Aquifer?
5ad382fe604f3c001a3fe4cb
True
Florida Bay
137
The Biscayne Aquifer stretches from Palm Beach County to when?
5ad382fe604f3c001a3fe4cc
True
5 to 6 m
388
After digging how many meters is one not sure to reach running water in Miami?
5ad382fe604f3c001a3fe4cd
True
5 to 6 m
388
After digging how many meters is one sure to reach running oil in Miami?
5ad382fe604f3c001a3fe4ce
True
underground construction
452
What is unlimited by Miami's high water table?
5ad382fe604f3c001a3fe4cf
True
Beneath the plain lies the Biscayne Aquifer, a natural underground source of fresh water that extends from southern Palm Beach County to Florida Bay, with its highest point peaking around the cities of Miami Springs and Hialeah. Most of the Miami metropolitan area obtains its drinking water from this aquifer. As a result of the aquifer, it is not possible to dig more than 15 to 20 ft (5 to 6 m) beneath the city without hitting water, which impedes underground construction, though some underground parking garages exist. For this reason, the mass transit systems in and around Miami are elevated or at-grade.[citation needed]
Along with West, Downtown and North, what is the other notable area of Miami?
572a73f17a1753140016af90
South
71
False
By cardinal direction, what part of the city is referred to as Downtown?
572a73f17a1753140016af91
eastern
163
False
Along with Port Miami, Watson Island and Brickell, what area is in Downtown Miami?
572a73f17a1753140016af92
Virginia Key
218
False
On what street is the highest concentration of international banks in the US?
572a73f17a1753140016af93
Brickell Avenue
467
False
Where is South Beach in relation to Downtown?
572a73f17a1753140016af94
East
644
False
South
71
Along with West, Downtown and North, what is the other unnotable area of Miami?
5ad38355604f3c001a3fe4e7
True
eastern
163
By cardinal direction, what part of the city isn't referred to as Downtown?
5ad38355604f3c001a3fe4e8
True
Virginia Key
218
Along with Port Miami, Watson Island and Brickell, what area isn't in Downtown Miami?
5ad38355604f3c001a3fe4e9
True
Brickell Avenue
467
On what street is the lowest concentration of international banks in the US?
5ad38355604f3c001a3fe4ea
True
East
644
Where is South Beach in relation to Uptown?
5ad38355604f3c001a3fe4eb
True
Miami is partitioned into many different sections, roughly into North, South, West and Downtown. The heart of the city is Downtown Miami and is technically on the eastern side of the city. This area includes Brickell, Virginia Key, Watson Island, and PortMiami. Downtown is South Florida's central business district, and Florida's largest and most influential central business district. Downtown has the largest concentration of international banks in the U.S. along Brickell Avenue. Downtown is home to many major banks, courthouses, financial headquarters, cultural and tourist attractions, schools, parks and a large residential population. East of Downtown, across Biscayne Bay is South Beach. Just northwest of Downtown, is the Civic Center, which is Miami's center for hospitals, research institutes and biotechnology with hospitals such as Jackson Memorial Hospital, Miami VA Hospital, and the University of Miami's Leonard M. Miller School of Medicine.
Along with Coconut Grove and Coral Way, what is notably present in southern Miami?
572a74697a1753140016af9a
The Roads
47
False
When was Coral Way constructed?
572a74697a1753140016af9b
1922
134
False
What does Coral Way connect to Coral Gables?
572a74697a1753140016af9c
Downtown
150
False
In what year did the establishment of Coconut Grove occur?
572a74697a1753140016af9d
1825
265
False
What part of Coconut Grove houses the city hall of Miami?
572a74697a1753140016af9e
Dinner Key
314
False
The Roads
47
Along with Coconut Grove and Coral Way, what is notably unpresent in southern Miami?
5ad383f3604f3c001a3fe50d
True
1922
134
When was Coral Way destroyed?
5ad383f3604f3c001a3fe50e
True
Downtown
150
What does Coral Way disconnect to Coral Gables?
5ad383f3604f3c001a3fe50f
True
1825
265
In what year didn't the establishment of Coconut Grove occur?
5ad383f3604f3c001a3fe510
True
Dinner Key
314
What part of Apricot Grove houses the city hall of Miami?
5ad383f3604f3c001a3fe511
True
The southern side of Miami includes Coral Way, The Roads and Coconut Grove. Coral Way is a historic residential neighborhood built in 1922 connecting Downtown with Coral Gables, and is home to many old homes and tree-lined streets. Coconut Grove was established in 1825 and is the location of Miami's City Hall in Dinner Key, the Coconut Grove Playhouse, CocoWalk, many nightclubs, bars, restaurants and bohemian shops, and as such, is very popular with local college students. It is a historic neighborhood with narrow, winding roads, and a heavy tree canopy. Coconut Grove has many parks and gardens such as Villa Vizcaya, The Kampong, The Barnacle Historic State Park, and is the home of the Coconut Grove Convention Center and numerous historic homes and estates.
What notable theater is present in Overtown?
572a7506fed8de19000d5c27
Lyric
735
False
After whom is the performing arts center in Midtown named?
572a7506fed8de19000d5c28
Adrienne Arsht
293
False
In what part of Miami is Midtown?
572a7506fed8de19000d5c29
northern
4
False
What is the name of the architectural style originating in 1950s Miami?
572a7506fed8de19000d5c2a
MiMo
512
False
What northern Miami neighborhood is named for a Caribbean country?
572a7506fed8de19000d5c2b
Little Haiti
699
False
Lyric
735
What unnotable theater is present in Overtown?
5ad38a0d604f3c001a3fe59f
True
Adrienne Arsht
293
After whom isn't the performing arts center in Midtown named?
5ad38a0d604f3c001a3fe5a0
True
northern
4
In what part of Miami isn't Midtown?
5ad38a0d604f3c001a3fe5a1
True
MiMo
512
What is the name of the architectural style originating in 1960s Miami?
5ad38a0d604f3c001a3fe5a2
True
Little Haiti
699
What northern Miami neighborhood isn't named for a Caribbean country?
5ad38a0d604f3c001a3fe5a3
True
The northern side of Miami includes Midtown, a district with a great mix of diversity with many West Indians, Hispanics, European Americans, bohemians, and artists. Edgewater, and Wynwood, are neighborhoods of Midtown and are made up mostly of high-rise residential towers and are home to the Adrienne Arsht Center for the Performing Arts. The wealthier residents usually live in the northeastern part, in Midtown, the Design District, and the Upper East Side, with many sought after 1920s homes and home of the MiMo Historic District, a style of architecture originated in Miami in the 1950s. The northern side of Miami also has notable African American and Caribbean immigrant communities such as Little Haiti, Overtown (home of the Lyric Theater), and Liberty City.
What is Miami's Köppen climate classification?
572a756dfed8de19000d5c31
Am
68
False
What type of weather does Miami have in the summer?
572a756dfed8de19000d5c32
hot and humid
77
False
In degrees Celsius, what is the average January temperature in Miami?
572a756dfed8de19000d5c33
19.6
336
False
In degrees Fahrenheit, what is the normal range of high temperatures in Miami?
572a756dfed8de19000d5c34
70–77
631
False
In degrees Celsius, what temperature does Miami rarely see?
572a756dfed8de19000d5c35
2
594
False
Am
68
What isn't Miami's Köppen climate classification?
5ad38afb604f3c001a3fe5b3
True
hot and humid
77
What type of weather doesn't Miami have in the summer?
5ad38afb604f3c001a3fe5b4
True
19.6 °C
336
In degrees Celsius, what isn't the average January temperature in Miami?
5ad38afb604f3c001a3fe5b5
True
70–77 °F
631
In degrees Fahrenheit, what is the normal range of low temperatures in Miami?
5ad38afb604f3c001a3fe5b6
True
2 °C
594
In degrees Celsius, what temperature does Miami always see?
5ad38afb604f3c001a3fe5b7
True
Miami has a tropical monsoon climate (Köppen climate classification Am) with hot and humid summers and short, warm winters, with a marked drier season in the winter. Its sea-level elevation, coastal location, position just above the Tropic of Cancer, and proximity to the Gulf Stream shapes its climate. With January averaging 67.2 °F (19.6 °C), winter features mild to warm temperatures; cool air usually settles after the passage of a cold front, which produces much of the little amount of rainfall during the season. Lows occasionally fall below 50 °F (10 °C), but very rarely below 35 °F (2 °C). Highs generally range between 70–77 °F (21–25 °C).
When is the beginning of Miami's wet season?
572a767174f2e11900503fc7
May
35
False
What month sees the end of the wet season in Miami?
572a767174f2e11900503fc8
October
54
False
In degrees Celsius, what is the range of temperatures during the wet season?
572a767174f2e11900503fc9
29–35
127
False
How many millimeters of rain fall on Miami annually?
572a767174f2e11900503fca
1,420
392
False
What is the typical August dew point in degrees Fahrenheit?
572a767174f2e11900503fcb
73.7
510
False
May
35
When isn't the beginning of Miami's wet season?
5ad38c2b604f3c001a3fe5c7
True
October
54
What month never sees the end of the wet season in Miami?
5ad38c2b604f3c001a3fe5c8
True
29–35 °C
127
In degrees Celsius, what isn't the range of temperatures during the wet season?
5ad38c2b604f3c001a3fe5c9
True
1,420
392
How many centimeters of rain fall on Miami annually?
5ad38c2b604f3c001a3fe5ca
True
73.7 °F
510
What isn't the typical August dew point in degrees Fahrenheit?
5ad38c2b604f3c001a3fe5cb
True
The wet season begins some time in May, ending in mid-October. During this period, temperatures are in the mid 80s to low 90s (29–35 °C), accompanied by high humidity, though the heat is often relieved by afternoon thunderstorms or a sea breeze that develops off the Atlantic Ocean, which then allow lower temperatures, but conditions still remain very muggy. Much of the year's 55.9 inches (1,420 mm) of rainfall occurs during this period. Dewpoints in the warm months range from 71.9 °F (22.2 °C) in June to 73.7 °F (23.2 °C) in August.
What fraction of the southern Florida population lives in Miami?
572a76c2fed8de19000d5c3b
one-thirteenth
37
False
Where does Miami rank in population among US cities?
572a76c2fed8de19000d5c3c
42nd
101
False
Along with Palm Beach and Miami-Dade, what county is part of the Miami-Dade metropolitan area?
572a76c2fed8de19000d5c3d
Broward
203
False
How many people live in the Miami-Dade metropolitan area?
572a76c2fed8de19000d5c3e
5.5 million
275
False
Where does Miami-Dade rank in population among metropolitan areas in the US?
572a76c2fed8de19000d5c3f
seventh
302
False
one-thirteenth
37
What fraction of the northern Florida population lives in Miami?
5ad38c86604f3c001a3fe5d1
True
42nd
101
Where does Miami rank in population among UN cities?
5ad38c86604f3c001a3fe5d2
True
Broward
203
Along with Palm Beach and Miami-Dade, what county isn't part of the Miami-Dade metropolitan area?
5ad38c86604f3c001a3fe5d3
True
5.5 million
275
How many people live out the Miami-Dade metropolitan area?
5ad38c86604f3c001a3fe5d4
True
seventh
302
Where does Miami-Dade rank in population among metropolitan areas in the UN?
5ad38c86604f3c001a3fe5d5
True
The city proper is home to less than one-thirteenth of the population of South Florida. Miami is the 42nd-most populous city in the United States. The Miami metropolitan area, which includes Miami-Dade, Broward and Palm Beach counties, had a combined population of more than 5.5 million people, ranked seventh largest in the United States, and is the largest metropolitan area in the Southeastern United States. As of 2008[update], the United Nations estimates that the Miami Urban Agglomeration is the 44th-largest in the world.
What percentage of Miami-Dade's population was non-Hispanic white in 1960?
572a776bfed8de19000d5c45
80
41
False
What percentage of the Miami population in 1970 was black?
572a776bfed8de19000d5c46
22.7
184
False
What was the largest ethnic group in 1970 Miami?
572a776bfed8de19000d5c47
Hispanic
144
False
Along with Downtown and Edgewater, what area of Miami has notably seen increasing population densities?
572a776bfed8de19000d5c48
Brickell
644
False
Starting in what decade did immigration from outside the United States begin to have a significant influence on Miami's population?
572a776bfed8de19000d5c49
1960s
380
False
80
41
What percentage of Miami-Dade's population was non-Hispanic black in 1960?
5ad38cdf604f3c001a3fe5db
True
22.7
184
What percentage of the Miami population in 1907 was black?
5ad38cdf604f3c001a3fe5dc
True
Hispanic
144
What was the largest ethnic group in 1870 Miami?
5ad38cdf604f3c001a3fe5dd
True
Brickell
644
Along with Downtown and Edgewater, what area of Miami has notably seen decreasing population densities?
5ad38cdf604f3c001a3fe5de
True
1960s
380
Starting in what decade did immigration from inside the United States begin to have a significant influence on Miami's population?
5ad38cdf604f3c001a3fe5df
True
In 1960, non-Hispanic whites represented 80% of Miami-Dade county's population. In 1970, the Census Bureau reported Miami's population as 45.3% Hispanic, 32.9% non-Hispanic White, and 22.7% Black. Miami's explosive population growth has been driven by internal migration from other parts of the country, primarily up until the 1980s, as well as by immigration, primarily from the 1960s to the 1990s. Today, immigration to Miami has slowed significantly and Miami's growth today is attributed greatly to its fast urbanization and high-rise construction, which has increased its inner city neighborhood population densities, such as in Downtown, Brickell, and Edgewater, where one area in Downtown alone saw a 2,069% increase in population in the 2010 Census. Miami is regarded as more of a multicultural mosaic, than it is a melting pot, with residents still maintaining much of, or some of their cultural traits. The overall culture of Miami is heavily influenced by its large population of Hispanics and blacks mainly from the Caribbean islands.
Approximately how many multinationals have their Latin American operation headquarters in Miami?
572a77f7fed8de19000d5c4f
1400
871
False
Why do so many multinationals have their Latin American headquarters in Miami?
572a77f7fed8de19000d5c50
proximity to Latin America
767
False
Along with Celebrity, Carnival, Norwegian, Oceania and Royal Caribbean, what cruise line is based in Miami?
572a77f7fed8de19000d5c51
Seabourn
617
False
1400
871
Approximately how many multinationals don't have their Latin American operation headquarters in Miami?
5ad38d80604f3c001a3fe5ef
True
1400
871
Approximately how many multinationals have their English American operation headquarters in Miami?
5ad38d80604f3c001a3fe5f0
True
proximity to Latin America
767
Why do so many multinationals don't have their Latin American headquarters in Miami?
5ad38d80604f3c001a3fe5f1
True
proximity to Latin America
767
Why do so many multinationals have their English American headquarters in Miami?
5ad38d80604f3c001a3fe5f2
True
Seabourn Cruise Line
617
Along with Celebrity, Carnival, Norwegian, Oceania and Royal Caribbean, what cruise line isn't based in Miami?
5ad38d80604f3c001a3fe5f3
True
Several large companies are headquartered in or around Miami, including but not limited to: Akerman Senterfitt, Alienware, Arquitectonica, Arrow Air, Bacardi, Benihana, Brightstar Corporation, Burger King, Celebrity Cruises, Carnival Corporation, Carnival Cruise Lines, Crispin Porter + Bogusky, Duany Plater-Zyberk & Company, Espírito Santo Financial Group, Fizber.com, Greenberg Traurig, Holland & Knight, Inktel Direct, Interval International, Lennar, Navarro Discount Pharmacies, Norwegian Cruise Lines, Oceania Cruises, Perry Ellis International, RCTV International, Royal Caribbean Cruise Lines, Ryder Systems, Seabourn Cruise Line, Sedano's, Telefónica USA, UniMÁS, Telemundo, Univision, U.S. Century Bank, Vector Group and World Fuel Services. Because of its proximity to Latin America, Miami serves as the headquarters of Latin American operations for more than 1400 multinational corporations, including AIG, American Airlines, Cisco, Disney, Exxon, FedEx, Kraft Foods, LEO Pharma Americas, Microsoft, Yahoo, Oracle, SBC Communications, Sony, Symantec, Visa International, and Wal-Mart.
Along with UniMÁS and Univisión, what Spanish language television station is headquartered in Miami?
572a7889fed8de19000d5c55
Telemundo
126
False
As of 2011, what percentage of original Telemundo programming was filmed in Miami?
572a7889fed8de19000d5c56
85
359
False
Along with Sony Music Latin, what music recording corporation is located in Miami?
572a7889fed8de19000d5c57
Universal Music Latin Entertainment
496
False
What is the name of the business that produces a significant portion of Telemundo's original programming?
572a7889fed8de19000d5c58
Telemundo Television Studios
222
False
Telemundo
126
Along with UniMÁS and Univisión, what Spanish language radio station is headquartered in Miami?
5ad38df3604f3c001a3fe5f9
True
85
359
As of 2017, what percentage of original Telemundo programming was filmed in Miami?
5ad38df3604f3c001a3fe5fa
True
85
359
As of 2011, what percentage of original Telemundo programming was filmed outside of Miami?
5ad38df3604f3c001a3fe5fb
True
Universal Music Latin Entertainment
496
Along with Sony Music Latin, what music recording corporation isn't located in Miami?
5ad38df3604f3c001a3fe5fc
True
Telemundo Television Studios
222
What is the name of the business that produces a small portion of Telemundo's original programming?
5ad38df3604f3c001a3fe5fd
True
Miami is a major television production center, and the most important city in the U.S. for Spanish language media. Univisión, Telemundo and UniMÁS have their headquarters in Miami, along with their production studios. The Telemundo Television Studios produces much of the original programming for Telemundo, such as their telenovelas and talk shows. In 2011, 85% of Telemundo's original programming was filmed in Miami. Miami is also a major music recording center, with the Sony Music Latin and Universal Music Latin Entertainment headquarters in the city, along with many other smaller record labels. The city also attracts many artists for music video and film shootings.
How many 400+ foot skyscrapers have been built or are in the process of being built in Miami since 2001?
572a790d27b69114009ef5e0
50
75
False
What US cities have more impressive skylines than Miami's?
572a790d27b69114009ef5e1
New York City and Chicago
238
False
What is Miami's world rank in terms of how impressive its skyline is?
572a790d27b69114009ef5e2
19th
269
False
Of the fourteen tallest skyscrapers in Florida, how many are in Miami?
572a790d27b69114009ef5e3
thirteen
393
False
What is the tallest skyscraper in Florida?
572a790d27b69114009ef5e4
Four Seasons Hotel & Tower
508
False
50
75
How many 400+ foot skyscrapers have been built or are in the process of being built in Miami since 2011?
5ad38e5f604f3c001a3fe60b
True
New York City and Chicago
238
What UN cities have more impressive skylines than Miami's?
5ad38e5f604f3c001a3fe60c
True
19th
269
What is Miami's world rank in terms of how unimpressive its skyline is?
5ad38e5f604f3c001a3fe60d
True
thirteen
393
Of the fifteen tallest skyscrapers in Florida, how many are in Miami?
5ad38e5f604f3c001a3fe60e
True
Four Seasons Hotel & Tower
508
What is the Shortest skyscraper in Florida?
5ad38e5f604f3c001a3fe60f
True
Since 2001, Miami has been undergoing a large building boom with more than 50 skyscrapers rising over 400 feet (122 m) built or currently under construction in the city. Miami's skyline is ranked third-most impressive in the U.S., behind New York City and Chicago, and 19th in the world according to the Almanac of Architecture and Design. The city currently has the eight tallest (as well as thirteen of the fourteen tallest) skyscrapers in the state of Florida, with the tallest being the 789-foot (240 m) Four Seasons Hotel & Tower.
When did the Florida land boom occur?
572a797834ae481900deab25
1920s
105
False
What year saw the crash of the Miami housing market?
572a797834ae481900deab26
2007
242
False
Where does the area around Miami rank nationally in terms of foreclosures?
572a797834ae481900deab27
8th
569
False
Along with its political corruption, why did Forbes call Miami the country's second most miserable city in 2011?
572a797834ae481900deab28
high foreclosure rate
704
False
In what year did Forbes call Miami the country's most miserable city?
572a797834ae481900deab29
2012
783
False
1920s
105
When did the Florida land bust occur?
5ad38f99604f3c001a3fe629
True
2007
242
What year saw the boom of the Miami housing market?
5ad38f99604f3c001a3fe62a
True
8th
569
Where does the area around Miami rank internationally in terms of foreclosures?
5ad38f99604f3c001a3fe62b
True
high foreclosure rate
704
Along with its political corruption, why did Forbes call Miami the country's second most miserable city in 2001?
5ad38f99604f3c001a3fe62c
True
2012
783
In what year did Forbes call Miami the country's least miserable city?
5ad38f99604f3c001a3fe62d
True
During the mid-2000s, the city witnessed its largest real estate boom since the Florida land boom of the 1920s. During this period, the city had well over a hundred approved high-rise construction projects in which 50 were actually built. In 2007, however, the housing market crashed causing lots of foreclosures on houses. This rapid high-rise construction, has led to fast population growth in the city's inner neighborhoods, primarily in Downtown, Brickell and Edgewater, with these neighborhoods becoming the fastest-growing areas in the city. The Miami area ranks 8th in the nation in foreclosures. In 2011, Forbes magazine named Miami the second-most miserable city in the United States due to its high foreclosure rate and past decade of corruption among public officials. In 2012, Forbes magazine named Miami the most miserable city in the United States because of a crippling housing crisis that has cost multitudes of residents their homes and jobs. The metro area has one of the highest violent crime rates in the country and workers face lengthy daily commutes.
What is Florida's busiest airport?
572a7a17be1ee31400cb8029
Miami International
0
False
What is the busiest cruise port in the world?
572a7a17be1ee31400cb802a
Port of Miami
152
False
In what year did Miami play host to the negotiations concerning the Free Trade Area of the Americas?
572a7a17be1ee31400cb802b
2003
713
False
What street is central to the financial district of Miami?
572a7a17be1ee31400cb802c
Brickell Avenue
422
False
Along with the Caribbean, from where does a significant amount of cargo enter MIA?
572a7a17be1ee31400cb802d
South America
115
False
Miami International
0
What is Florida's busiest seaport?
5ad3903d604f3c001a3fe64b
True
Port of Miami
152
What is the least busy cruise port in the world?
5ad3903d604f3c001a3fe64c
True
2003
713
In what year didn't Miami play host to the negotiations concerning the Free Trade Area of the Americas?
5ad3903d604f3c001a3fe64d
True
Brickell Avenue
422
What mountain is central to the financial district of Miami?
5ad3903d604f3c001a3fe64e
True
South America
115
Along with the Caribbean, from where does a significant amount of cargo enter MMI?
5ad3903d604f3c001a3fe64f
True
Miami International Airport and PortMiami are among the nation's busiest ports of entry, especially for cargo from South America and the Caribbean. The Port of Miami is the world's busiest cruise port, and MIA is the busiest airport in Florida, and the largest gateway between the United States and Latin America. Additionally, the city has the largest concentration of international banks in the country, primarily along Brickell Avenue in Brickell, Miami's financial district. Due to its strength in international business, finance and trade, many international banks have offices in Downtown such as Espírito Santo Financial Group, which has its U.S. headquarters in Miami. Miami was also the host city of the 2003 Free Trade Area of the Americas negotiations, and is one of the leading candidates to become the trading bloc's headquarters.
How many tourists come to Miami each year?
572a7aa134ae481900deab2f
38 million
138
False
How much money do tourists spend in Miami every year?
572a7aa134ae481900deab30
$17.1 billion
237
False
What neighborhood is home to the Art Deco District?
572a7aa134ae481900deab31
South Beach
277
False
Who sponsors Fashion Week Miami?
572a7aa134ae481900deab32
Mercedes-Benz
528
False
Along with nightclubs, beaches and shopping, what notable attraction exists in the Art Deco District?
572a7aa134ae481900deab33
historical buildings
372
False
38 million
138
How many tourists don't come to Miami each year?
5ad3918c604f3c001a3fe67d
True
$17.1 billion
237
How much money do tourists spend in Miami every month?
5ad3918c604f3c001a3fe67e
True
South Beach
277
What neighborhood is home to the Art Nouveau District?
5ad3918c604f3c001a3fe67f
True
historical buildings
372
Along with nightclubs, beaches and shopping, what notable attraction doesn't exist in the Art Deco District?
5ad3918c604f3c001a3fe680
True
Mercedes-Benz
528
Who sponsors Fashion Month Miami?
5ad3918c604f3c001a3fe681
True
Tourism is also an important industry in Miami. Along with finance and business, the beaches, conventions, festivals and events draw over 38 million visitors annually into the city, from across the country and around the world, spending $17.1 billion. The Art Deco District in South Beach, is reputed as one of the most glamorous in the world for its nightclubs, beaches, historical buildings, and shopping. Annual events such as the Sony Ericsson Open, Art Basel, Winter Music Conference, South Beach Wine & Food Festival, and Mercedes-Benz Fashion Week Miami attract millions to the metropolis every year.
As of 2004, what city was the poorest in the United States?
572a7b02111d821400f38b52
Detroit
212
False
What was the second poorest US city in 2004?
572a7b02111d821400f38b53
El Paso
246
False
In 2004, what city ranked third poorest in America?
572a7b02111d821400f38b54
Miami
46
False
In what year did Miami's government declare bankruptcy?
572a7b02111d821400f38b55
2001
360
False
In terms of purchasing power, where did Miami rank among world cities in a 2009 UBS study?
572a7b02111d821400f38b56
fifth
785
False
Detroit
212
As of 2014, what city was the poorest in the United States?
5ad39216604f3c001a3fe68f
True
El Paso
246
What was the second poorest US city in 2014?
5ad39216604f3c001a3fe690
True
2001
360
In what year didn't Miami's government declare bankruptcy?
5ad39216604f3c001a3fe691
True
Miami
46
In 2014, what city ranked third poorest in America?
5ad39216604f3c001a3fe692
True
fifth
785
In terms of purchasing power, where did Miami rank among world cities in a 2008 UBS study?
5ad39216604f3c001a3fe693
True
According to the U.S. Census Bureau, in 2004, Miami had the third highest incidence of family incomes below the federal poverty line in the United States, making it the third poorest city in the USA, behind only Detroit, Michigan (ranked #1) and El Paso, Texas (ranked #2). Miami is also one of the very few cities where its local government went bankrupt, in 2001. However, since that time, Miami has experienced a revival: in 2008, Miami was ranked as "America's Cleanest City" according to Forbes for its year-round good air quality, vast green spaces, clean drinking water, clean streets and city-wide recycling programs. In a 2009 UBS study of 73 world cities, Miami was ranked as the richest city in the United States (of four U.S. cities included in the survey) and the world's fifth-richest city, in terms of purchasing power.
What is the largest performing arts center in the US?
572a7d5334ae481900deab43
Lincoln Center
351
False
What organization calls the Adrienne Arsht Center for the Performing Arts home?
572a7d5334ae481900deab44
Florida Grand Opera
407
False
What is the largest venue in the Adrienne Arsht Center for the Performing Arts?
572a7d5334ae481900deab45
Ziff Ballet Opera House
446
False
Where is Lincoln Center located?
572a7d5334ae481900deab46
New York City
369
False
What venue in Miami is notable for hosting outdoor music?
572a7d5334ae481900deab47
Bayfront Park Amphitheater
1085
False
Lincoln Center
351
What is the largest performing arts center in the UN?
5ad39274604f3c001a3fe6a1
True
Florida Grand Opera
407
What disorganization calls the Adrienne Arsht Center for the Performing Arts home?
5ad39274604f3c001a3fe6a2
True
Ziff Ballet Opera House
446
What is the smallest venue in the Adrienne Arsht Center for the Performing Arts?
5ad39274604f3c001a3fe6a3
True
New York City
369
Where is Lincoln Center not located?
5ad39274604f3c001a3fe6a4
True
Bayfront Park Amphitheater
1085
What venue in Miami is unnotable for hosting outdoor music?
5ad39274604f3c001a3fe6a5
True
In addition to such annual festivals like Calle Ocho Festival and Carnaval Miami, Miami is home to many entertainment venues, theaters, museums, parks and performing arts centers. The newest addition to the Miami arts scene is the Adrienne Arsht Center for the Performing Arts, the second-largest performing arts center in the United States after the Lincoln Center in New York City, and is the home of the Florida Grand Opera. Within it are the Ziff Ballet Opera House, the center's largest venue, the Knight Concert Hall, the Carnival Studio Theater and the Peacock Rehearsal Studio. The center attracts many large-scale operas, ballets, concerts, and musicals from around the world and is Florida's grandest performing arts center. Other performing arts venues in Miami include the Gusman Center for the Performing Arts, Coconut Grove Playhouse, Colony Theatre, Lincoln Theatre, New World Center, Actor's Playhouse at the Miracle Theatre, Jackie Gleason Theatre, Manuel Artime Theater, Ring Theatre, Playground Theatre, Wertheim Performing Arts Center, the Fair Expo Center and the Bayfront Park Amphitheater for outdoor music events.
What group performed the song "Hot Number"?
572a7db5f75d5e190021fae4
Foxy
270
False
In what year did the Bee Gees relocate to Miami?
572a7db5f75d5e190021fae5
1975
475
False
What band performed the song "Conga"?
572a7db5f75d5e190021fae6
Gloria Estefan and the Miami Sound Machine
535
False
What music label showcased KC and the Sunshine Band?
572a7db5f75d5e190021fae7
TK Records
60
False
In what decade was disco popular?
572a7db5f75d5e190021fae8
1970s
13
False
Foxy
270
What group hated the song "Hot Number"?
5ad392dc604f3c001a3fe6b5
True
1975
475
In what year didn't the Bee Gees relocate to Miami?
5ad392dc604f3c001a3fe6b6
True
Gloria Estefan and the Miami Sound Machine
535
What band hated the song "Conga"?
5ad392dc604f3c001a3fe6b7
True
TK Records,
60
What music label snubbed KC and the Sunshine Band?
5ad392dc604f3c001a3fe6b8
True
1970s
427
In what decade was disco unpopular?
5ad392dc604f3c001a3fe6b9
True
In the early 1970s, the Miami disco sound came to life with TK Records, featuring the music of KC and the Sunshine Band, with such hits as "Get Down Tonight", "(Shake, Shake, Shake) Shake Your Booty" and "That's the Way (I Like It)"; and the Latin-American disco group, Foxy (band), with their hit singles "Get Off" and "Hot Number". Miami-area natives George McCrae and Teri DeSario were also popular music artists during the 1970s disco era. The Bee Gees moved to Miami in 1975 and have lived here ever since then. Miami-influenced, Gloria Estefan and the Miami Sound Machine, hit the popular music scene with their Cuban-oriented sound and had hits in the 1980s with "Conga" and "Bad Boys".
Along with Electro and disco, what genre of music influenced Freestyle?
572a7e1abe1ee31400cb8033
hip-hop
149
False
What genre of music does Uffie perform?
572a7e1abe1ee31400cb8034
electro
385
False
Where did the band Nonpoint form?
572a7e1abe1ee31400cb8035
Fort Lauderdale
625
False
What is Ana Cristina's ethnicity?
572a7e1abe1ee31400cb8036
Cuban American
642
False
Along with Cat Power, what indie/folk musician is based in Miami?
572a7e1abe1ee31400cb8037
Iron & Wine
303
False
hip-hop
149
Along with Electro and disco, what genre of music never influenced Freestyle?
5ad39360604f3c001a3fe6c7
True
electro
385
What genre of music doesn't Uffie perform?
5ad39360604f3c001a3fe6c8
True
Fort Lauderdale
625
Where didn't the band Nonpoint form?
5ad39360604f3c001a3fe6c9
True
Cuban American
642
What isn't Ana Cristina's ethnicity?
5ad39360604f3c001a3fe6ca
True
Iron & Wine
303
Along with Cat Power, what indie/folk musician isn't based in Miami?
5ad39360604f3c001a3fe6cb
True
Miami is also considered a "hot spot" for dance music, Freestyle, a style of dance music popular in the 80's and 90's heavily influenced by Electro, hip-hop, and disco. Many popular Freestyle acts such as Pretty Tony, Debbie Deb, Stevie B, and Exposé, originated in Miami. Indie/folk acts Cat Power and Iron & Wine are based in the city, while alternative hip hop artist Sage Francis, electro artist Uffie, and the electroclash duo Avenue D were born in Miami, but musically based elsewhere. Also, ska punk band Against All Authority is from Miami, and rock/metal bands Nonpoint and Marilyn Manson each formed in neighboring Fort Lauderdale. Cuban American female recording artist, Ana Cristina, was born in Miami in 1985.
Who was the Warsaw Ballroom's house DJ?
572a7ed3f75d5e190021faf6
david padilla
392
False
By what other name is John Benetiz known?
572a7ed3f75d5e190021faf7
JellyBean Benetiz
903
False
In what area of Miami is there a notable secondhand turntable market?
572a7ed3f75d5e190021faf8
SoBe
530
False
david padilla
392
Who was the Warsaw Ballroom's house JD?
5ad393ce604f3c001a3fe6ed
True
david padilla
392
Who wasn't the Warsaw Ballroom's house DJ?
5ad393ce604f3c001a3fe6ee
True
JellyBean Benetiz
903
By what other name is John Benetiz unknown?
5ad393ce604f3c001a3fe6ef
True
SoBe
530
In what area of Miami isn't there a notable secondhand turntable market?
5ad393ce604f3c001a3fe6f0
True
SoBe
530
In what area of Miami is there an unnotable secondhand turntable market?
5ad393ce604f3c001a3fe6f1
True
This was also a period of alternatives to nightclubs, the warehouse party, acid house, rave and outdoor festival scenes of the late 1980s and early 1990s were havens for the latest trends in electronic dance music, especially house and its ever-more hypnotic, synthetic offspring techno and trance, in clubs like the infamous Warsaw Ballroom better known as Warsaw and The Mix where DJs like david padilla (who was the resident DJ for both) and radio. The new sound fed back into mainstream clubs across the country. The scene in SoBe, along with a bustling secondhand market for electronic instruments and turntables, had a strong democratizing effect, offering amateur, "bedroom" DJs the opportunity to become proficient and popular as both music players and producers, regardless of the whims of the professional music and club industries. Some of these notable DJs are John Benetiz (better known as JellyBean Benetiz), Danny Tenaglia, and David Padilla.
What is a notable restaurant in Little Havana?
572a7f4bf75d5e190021fafc
Versailles
382
False
Along with Benihana and Burger King, what chain restaurant is headquartered in Miami?
572a7f4bf75d5e190021fafd
Tony Roma's
716
False
In what decade did Cuban immigrants introduce their cuisine to Miami?
572a7f4bf75d5e190021fafe
1960s
24
False
What ocean is Miami adjacent to?
572a7f4bf75d5e190021faff
Atlantic
467
False
Along with the Miami River, near what body of water are Miami seafood restaurants notably located?
572a7f4bf75d5e190021fb00
Biscayne Bay
637
False
Versailles
382
What is an unnotable restaurant in Little Havana?
5ad39436604f3c001a3fe6f7
True
Tony Roma's
716
Along with Benihana and Burger King, what chain restaurant isn't headquartered in Miami?
5ad39436604f3c001a3fe6f8
True
1960s
24
In what decade did Cuban immigrants hide their cuisine to Miami?
5ad39436604f3c001a3fe6f9
True
Atlantic
467
What river is Miami adjacent to?
5ad39436604f3c001a3fe6fa
True
Biscayne Bay
637
Along with the Miami River, near what body of water are Miami seafood restaurants notably not located?
5ad39436604f3c001a3fe6fb
True
Cuban immigrants in the 1960s brought the Cuban sandwich, medianoche, Cuban espresso, and croquetas, all of which have grown in popularity to all Miamians, and have become symbols of the city's varied cuisine. Today, these are part of the local culture, and can be found throughout the city in window cafés, particularly outside of supermarkets and restaurants. Restaurants such as Versailles restaurant in Little Havana is a landmark eatery of Miami. Located on the Atlantic Ocean, and with a long history as a seaport, Miami is also known for its seafood, with many seafood restaurants located along the Miami River, and in and around Biscayne Bay. Miami is also the home of restaurant chains such as Burger King, Tony Roma's and Benihana.
What is another term for Miami's dialect?
572a7fa7be1ee31400cb803d
Miami accent
59
False
What area of the country has a similar dialect to Miami?
572a7fa7be1ee31400cb803e
Mid-Atlantic
451
False
What non-English language influences the Miami dialect?
572a7fa7be1ee31400cb803f
Spanish
792
False
Miami accent
59
What isn't another term for Miami's dialect?
5ad394a4604f3c001a3fe713
True
Miami accent
59
What is another term for Florida's dialect?
5ad394a4604f3c001a3fe714
True
Mid-Atlantic
451
What area of the country has a dissimilar dialect to Miami?
5ad394a4604f3c001a3fe715
True
Spanish
792
What English language influences the Miami dialect?
5ad394a4604f3c001a3fe716
True
Spanish
792
What non-English language doesn't influence the Miami dialect?
5ad394a4604f3c001a3fe717
True
The Miami area has a unique dialect, (commonly called the "Miami accent") which is widely spoken. The dialect developed among second- or third-generation Hispanics, including Cuban-Americans, whose first language was English (though some non-Hispanic white, black, and other races who were born and raised the Miami area tend to adopt it as well.) It is based on a fairly standard American accent but with some changes very similar to dialects in the Mid-Atlantic (especially the New York area dialect, Northern New Jersey English, and New York Latino English.) Unlike Virginia Piedmont, Coastal Southern American, and Northeast American dialects and Florida Cracker dialect (see section below), "Miami accent" is rhotic; it also incorporates a rhythm and pronunciation heavily influenced by Spanish (wherein rhythm is syllable-timed). However, this is a native dialect of English, not learner English or interlanguage; it is possible to differentiate this variety from an interlanguage spoken by second-language speakers in that "Miami accent" does not generally display the following features: there is no addition of /ɛ/ before initial consonant clusters with /s/, speakers do not confuse of /dʒ/ with /j/, (e.g., Yale with jail), and /r/ and /rr/ are pronounced as alveolar approximant [ɹ] instead of alveolar tap [ɾ] or alveolar trill [r] in Spanish.
What sport do the Miami Heat play?
572a7ff9111d821400f38b66
Basketball
118
False
What is the nickname of Miami's NFL team?
572a7ff9111d821400f38b67
Dolphins
45
False
What professional hockey team is based in Miami?
572a7ff9111d821400f38b68
Florida Panthers
194
False
At what tournament in Miami is professional tennis played?
572a7ff9111d821400f38b69
Sony Ericsson
378
False
Where do NASCAR races in Miami take place?
572a7ff9111d821400f38b6a
Homestead-Miami Speedway
617
False
Basketball
118
What sport don't the Miami Heat play?
5ad39506604f3c001a3fe731
True
Dolphins
45
What isn't the nickname of Miami's NFL team?
5ad39506604f3c001a3fe732
True
Florida Panthers
194
What professional hockey team is based outside of Miami?
5ad39506604f3c001a3fe733
True
Sony Ericsson Open
378
At what tournament in Miami is amateur tennis played?
5ad39506604f3c001a3fe734
True
Homestead-Miami Speedway
617
Where don't NASCAR races in Miami take place?
5ad39506604f3c001a3fe735
True
Miami's main four sports teams are the Miami Dolphins of the National Football League, the Miami Heat of the National Basketball Association, the Miami Marlins of Major League Baseball, and the Florida Panthers of the National Hockey League. As well as having all four major professional teams, Miami is also home to the Major League Soccer expansion team led by David Beckham, Sony Ericsson Open for professional tennis, numerous greyhound racing tracks, marinas, jai alai venues, and golf courses. The city streets has hosted professional auto races, the Miami Indy Challenge and later the Grand Prix Americas. The Homestead-Miami Speedway oval hosts NASCAR national races.
How many gardens and parks are in Miami?
572a806734ae481900deab55
80
316
False
In what park is the American Airlines Arena located?
572a806734ae481900deab56
Bicentennial
407
False
Due to the presence of coral reefs, what activities are popular in Biscayne Bay?
572a806734ae481900deab57
snorkeling and scuba diving
264
False
In what neighborhood is Bicentennial Park located?
572a806734ae481900deab58
Downtown
450
False
Why can outdoor activities take place all year in Miami?
572a806734ae481900deab59
tropical weather
8
False
80
316
How many gardens and parks aren't in Miami?
5ad39551604f3c001a3fe743
True
Bicentennial
407
Outside of what park is the American Airlines Arena located?
5ad39551604f3c001a3fe744
True
snorkeling and scuba diving
264
Due to the presence of coral reefs, what activities are unpopular in Biscayne Bay?
5ad39551604f3c001a3fe745
True
Downtown
450
In what neighborhood is Bicentennial Park not located?
5ad39551604f3c001a3fe746
True
tropical weather
8
Why can indoor activities take place all year in Miami?
5ad39551604f3c001a3fe747
True
Miami's tropical weather allows for year-round outdoors activities. The city has numerous marinas, rivers, bays, canals, and the Atlantic Ocean, which make boating, sailing, and fishing popular outdoors activities. Biscayne Bay has numerous coral reefs which make snorkeling and scuba diving popular. There are over 80 parks and gardens in the city. The largest and most popular parks are Bayfront Park and Bicentennial Park (located in the heart of Downtown and the location of the American Airlines Arena and Bayside Marketplace), Tropical Park, Peacock Park, Morningside Park, Virginia Key, and Watson Island.
Under what government system does Miami operate?
572a80b8111d821400f38b70
mayor-commissioner
54
False
How many members are on the city commission?
572a80b8111d821400f38b71
five
121
False
Who is the Mayor of Miami?
572a80b8111d821400f38b72
Tomás Regalado
457
False
What is the street address of Miami City Hall?
572a80b8111d821400f38b73
3500 Pan American Drive
626
False
In what neighborhood is Miami City Hall located?
572a80b8111d821400f38b74
Coconut Grove
687
False
mayor-commissioner
54
Under what government system doesn't Miami operate?
5ad3959c604f3c001a3fe75f
True
five
121
How many members aren't on the city commission?
5ad3959c604f3c001a3fe760
True
Tomás Regalado
457
Who isn't the Mayor of Miami?
5ad3959c604f3c001a3fe761
True
3500 Pan American Drive
626
What isn't the street address of Miami City Hall?
5ad3959c604f3c001a3fe762
True
Coconut Grove
687
In what neighborhood is Miami City Hall not located?
5ad3959c604f3c001a3fe763
True
The government of the City of Miami (proper) uses the mayor-commissioner type of system. The city commission consists of five commissioners which are elected from single member districts. The city commission constitutes the governing body with powers to pass ordinances, adopt regulations, and exercise all powers conferred upon the city in the city charter. The mayor is elected at large and appoints a city manager. The City of Miami is governed by Mayor Tomás Regalado and 5 City commissioners which oversee the five districts in the City. The commission's regular meetings are held at Miami City Hall, which is located at 3500 Pan American Drive on Dinner Key in the neighborhood of Coconut Grove .
When did El Nuevo Herald leave Miami?
572a813cbe1ee31400cb804d
2013
432
False
In what community is the Miami Herald currently located?
572a813cbe1ee31400cb804e
Doral
522
False
Among television markets in Florida, where dies Miami rank?
572a813cbe1ee31400cb804f
second
70
False
What is the largest newspaper in Miami?
572a813cbe1ee31400cb8050
Miami Herald
187
False
What is Miami's largest newspaper written in Spanish?
572a813cbe1ee31400cb8051
El Nuevo Herald
201
False
2013
432
When did El Nuevo Herald stay in Miami?
5ad3963c604f3c001a3fe785
True
Doral
522
In what community is the Miami Herald currently not located?
5ad3963c604f3c001a3fe786
True
second
70
Among radio markets in Florida, where does Miami rank?
5ad3963c604f3c001a3fe787
True
Miami Herald
187
What is the smallest newspaper in Miami?
5ad3963c604f3c001a3fe788
True
El Nuevo Herald
201
What is Miami's smallest newspaper written in Spanish?
5ad3963c604f3c001a3fe789
True
Miami has one of the largest television markets in the nation and the second largest in the state of Florida. Miami has several major newspapers, the main and largest newspaper being The Miami Herald. El Nuevo Herald is the major and largest Spanish-language newspaper. The Miami Herald and El Nuevo Herald are Miami's and South Florida's main, major and largest newspapers. The papers left their longtime home in downtown Miami in 2013. The newspapers are now headquartered at the former home of U.S. Southern Command in Doral.
In what neighborhood of Miami is Miami New Times based?
572a81a1f75d5e190021fb20
Midtown
105
False
What neighborhood houses the headquarters of Miami Today?
572a81a1f75d5e190021fb21
Brickell
61
False
Approximately how many people read The Miami Herald?
572a81a1f75d5e190021fb22
million
344
False
For what university is The Beacon the student newspaper?
572a81a1f75d5e190021fb23
Florida International
539
False
What is the name of the student newspaper at Barry University?
572a81a1f75d5e190021fb24
The Buccaneer
642
False
Midtown
105
In what neighborhood of Miami isn't Miami New Times based?
5ad396ba604f3c001a3fe797
True
Brickell
61
What neighborhood no longer houses the headquarters of Miami Today?
5ad396ba604f3c001a3fe798
True
Florida International University
539
For what university isn't The Beacon the student newspaper?
5ad396ba604f3c001a3fe799
True
a million
342
Approximately how many people write The Miami Herald?
5ad396ba604f3c001a3fe79a
True
The Buccaneer
642
What isn't the name of the student newspaper at Barry University?
5ad396ba604f3c001a3fe79b
True
Other major newspapers include Miami Today, headquartered in Brickell, Miami New Times, headquartered in Midtown, Miami Sun Post, South Florida Business Journal, Miami Times, and Biscayne Boulevard Times. An additional Spanish-language newspapers, Diario Las Americas also serve Miami. The Miami Herald is Miami's primary newspaper with over a million readers and is headquartered in Downtown in Herald Plaza. Several other student newspapers from the local universities, such as the oldest, the University of Miami's The Miami Hurricane, Florida International University's The Beacon, Miami-Dade College's The Metropolis, Barry University's The Buccaneer, amongst others. Many neighborhoods and neighboring areas also have their own local newspapers such as the Aventura News, Coral Gables Tribune, Biscayne Bay Tribune, and the Palmetto Bay News.
When did Univisión announce it was building a production studio in Miami?
572a8206111d821400f38b80
2009
360
False
What was the name of the production studio built in Miami by Univisión?
572a8206111d821400f38b81
Univisión Studios
443
False
Where will the programs made at Univisión Studios be broadcast?
572a8206111d821400f38b82
all of Univisión Communications' television networks
551
False
2009
360
When did Univisión announce it wasn't building a production studio in Miami?
5ad3970a604f3c001a3fe7ab
True
2009
360
When did Fox announce it was building a production studio in Miami?
5ad3970a604f3c001a3fe7ac
True
Univisión Studios
443
What was the name of the production studio built in Miami by Fox?
5ad3970a604f3c001a3fe7ad
True
Univisión Studios
443
What wasn't the name of the production studio built in Miami by Univisión?
5ad3970a604f3c001a3fe7ae
True
all of Univisión Communications' television networks
551
Where will the programs made at Univisión Studios not be broadcast?
5ad3970a604f3c001a3fe7af
True
Miami is also the headquarters and main production city of many of the world's largest television networks, record label companies, broadcasting companies and production facilities, such as Telemundo, TeleFutura, Galavisión, Mega TV, Univisión, Univision Communications, Inc., Universal Music Latin Entertainment, RCTV International and Sunbeam Television. In 2009, Univisión announced plans to build a new production studio in Miami, dubbed 'Univisión Studios'. Univisión Studios is currently headquartered in Miami, and will produce programming for all of Univisión Communications' television networks.
How many passengers use Miami International Airport annually?
572a829934ae481900deab5f
35 million
198
False
What airline uses Miami International as its biggest international gateway?
572a829934ae481900deab60
American Airlines
304
False
What airport is the largest international port of entry for overseas air travelers in the United States?
572a829934ae481900deab61
John F. Kennedy International Airport
492
False
From Miami International Airport, to approximately how many non-American cities can one fly nonstop?
572a829934ae481900deab62
seventy
671
False
35 million
198
How many pilots use Miami International Airport annually?
5ad3978b604f3c001a3fe7c5
True
American Airlines
304
What airline uses Miami International as its smallest international gateway?
5ad3978b604f3c001a3fe7c6
True
John F. Kennedy International Airport
492
What airport is the smallest international port of entry for overseas air travelers in the United States?
5ad3978b604f3c001a3fe7c7
True
John F. Kennedy International Airport
492
What airport is the largest international port of entry for overseas sea travelers in the United States?
5ad3978b604f3c001a3fe7c8
True
seventy
671
From Miami International Airport, to approximately how many American cities can one fly nonstop?
5ad3978b604f3c001a3fe7c9
True
Miami International Airport serves as the primary international airport of the Greater Miami Area. One of the busiest international airports in the world, Miami International Airport caters to over 35 million passengers a year. The airport is a major hub and the single largest international gateway for American Airlines. Miami International is the busiest airport in Florida, and is the United States' second-largest international port of entry for foreign air passengers behind New York's John F. Kennedy International Airport, and is the seventh-largest such gateway in the world. The airport's extensive international route network includes non-stop flights to over seventy international cities in North and South America, Europe, Asia, and the Middle East.
Along with "Cargo Gateway of the Americas," what is another nickname for PortMiami?
572a8309111d821400f38b86
"Cruise Capital of the World"
157
False
How many passengers used PortMiami in 2007?
572a8309111d821400f38b87
3,787,410
423
False
How many tons of cargo arrived in PortMiami in 2007?
572a8309111d821400f38b88
7.8 million
522
False
What North American port sees the largest amount of imported and exported cargo?
572a8309111d821400f38b89
Port of South Louisiana
613
False
How many square kilometers is PortMiami?
572a8309111d821400f38b8a
2
742
False
Cruise Capital of the World
158
Along with "Cargo Gateway of the Americas," what isn't another nickname for PortMiami?
5ad397e1604f3c001a3fe7cf
True
3,787,410
423
How many passengers used PortMiami in 2017?
5ad397e1604f3c001a3fe7d0
True
7.8 million
522
How many tons of cargo arrived in PortMiami in 2017?
5ad397e1604f3c001a3fe7d1
True
Port of South Louisiana
613
What South American port sees the largest amount of imported and exported cargo?
5ad397e1604f3c001a3fe7d2
True
(2
741
How many square meters is PortMiami?
5ad397e1604f3c001a3fe7d3
True
Miami is home to one of the largest ports in the United States, the PortMiami. It is the largest cruise ship port in the world. The port is often called the "Cruise Capital of the World" and the "Cargo Gateway of the Americas". It has retained its status as the number one cruise/passenger port in the world for well over a decade accommodating the largest cruise ships and the major cruise lines. In 2007, the port served 3,787,410 passengers. Additionally, the port is one of the nation's busiest cargo ports, importing 7.8 million tons of cargo in 2007. Among North American ports, it ranks second only to the Port of South Louisiana in New Orleans in terms of cargo tonnage imported/exported from Latin America. The port is on 518 acres (2 km2) and has 7 passenger terminals. China is the port's number one import country, and Honduras is the number one export country. Miami has the world's largest amount of cruise line headquarters, home to: Carnival Cruise Lines, Celebrity Cruises, Norwegian Cruise Line, Oceania Cruises, and Royal Caribbean International. In 2014, the Port of Miami Tunnel was completed and will serve the PortMiami.
What is the name of Miami's heavy-rail system?
572a8395111d821400f38b90
Metrorail
41
False
How many miles long is Metrorail?
572a8395111d821400f38b91
24.4
116
False
How many stations does Metrorail have?
572a8395111d821400f38b92
23
99
False
How many lines does Metromover have?
572a8395111d821400f38b93
three
483
False
How much does it cost to use Metromover?
572a8395111d821400f38b94
free
418
False
Metrorail
41
What is the name of Miami's light-rail system?
5ad3984c604f3c001a3fe7eb
True
24.4
116
How many yards long is Metrorail?
5ad3984c604f3c001a3fe7ec
True
23
99
How many stations doesn't Metrorail have?
5ad3984c604f3c001a3fe7ed
True
three
483
How many lines doesn't Metromover have?
5ad3984c604f3c001a3fe7ee
True
free
418
How much doesn't it cost to use Metromover?
5ad3984c604f3c001a3fe7ef
True
Miami's heavy-rail rapid transit system, Metrorail, is an elevated system comprising two lines and 23 stations on a 24.4-mile (39.3 km)-long line. Metrorail connects the urban western suburbs of Hialeah, Medley, and inner-city Miami with suburban The Roads, Coconut Grove, Coral Gables, South Miami and urban Kendall via the central business districts of Miami International Airport, the Civic Center, and Downtown. A free, elevated people mover, Metromover, operates 21 stations on three different lines in greater Downtown Miami, with a station at roughly every two blocks of Downtown and Brickell. Several expansion projects are being funded by a transit development sales tax surcharge throughout Miami-Dade County.
What year was to see the completion of the Miami Intermodal Center?
572a8430111d821400f38b9a
2011
386
False
When was Phase II of the Miami Center Station supposed to enter service?
572a8430111d821400f38b9b
2013
565
False
Approximately how many people were intended to use Miami Intermodal Center?
572a8430111d821400f38b9c
150,000
412
False
What airport is Miami Intermodal Center next to?
572a8430111d821400f38b9d
Miami International
277
False
What part of 2012 was to have seen Phase I of Miami Central Station begin?
572a8430111d821400f38b9e
spring
533
False
2011
386
What year was to see the incompletion of the Miami Intermodal Center?
5ad398a7604f3c001a3fe7ff
True
2013
565
When was Phase III of the Miami Center Station supposed to enter service?
5ad398a7604f3c001a3fe800
True
150,000
412
Approximately how many people were unintended to use Miami Intermodal Center?
5ad398a7604f3c001a3fe801
True
Miami International Airport
277
What airport is Miami Intermodal Center not next to?
5ad398a7604f3c001a3fe802
True
spring
533
What part of 2002 was to have seen Phase I of Miami Central Station begin?
5ad398a7604f3c001a3fe803
True
Construction is currently underway on the Miami Intermodal Center and Miami Central Station, a massive transportation hub servicing Metrorail, Amtrak, Tri-Rail, Metrobus, Greyhound Lines, taxis, rental cars, MIA Mover, private automobiles, bicycles and pedestrians adjacent to Miami International Airport. Completion of the Miami Intermodal Center is expected to be completed by winter 2011, and will serve over 150,000 commuters and travelers in the Miami area. Phase I of Miami Central Station is scheduled to begin service in the spring of 2012, and Phase II in 2013.
Along with the Silver Star, what Amtrak line runs to Miami?
572a84c9be1ee31400cb8071
Silver Meteor
91
False
From Miami, to where does the Silver Star run?
572a84c9be1ee31400cb8072
New York City
146
False
In what city is the Miami Amtrak Station?
572a84c9be1ee31400cb8073
Hialeah
214
False
In what year was the Miami Central Station originally supposed to have been completed?
572a84c9be1ee31400cb8074
2012
624
False
After the first delay, in what year was the Miami Central Station supposed to open?
572a84c9be1ee31400cb8075
2014
708
False
Silver Meteor
91
Along with the Silver Star, what Amtrak line no longer runs to Miami?
5ad39928604f3c001a3fe81b
True
New York City
146
From Miami, to where doesn't the Silver Star run?
5ad39928604f3c001a3fe81c
True
Hialeah
214
In what country is the Miami Amtrak Station?
5ad39928604f3c001a3fe81d
True
2012
624
In what year was the Miami Central Station originally supposed to have been incomplete?
5ad39928604f3c001a3fe81e
True
2014
708
After the first delay, in what year was the Miami Central Station supposed to close?
5ad39928604f3c001a3fe81f
True
Miami is the southern terminus of Amtrak's Atlantic Coast services, running two lines, the Silver Meteor and the Silver Star, both terminating in New York City. The Miami Amtrak Station is located in the suburb of Hialeah near the Tri-Rail/Metrorail Station on NW 79 St and NW 38 Ave. Current construction of the Miami Central Station will move all Amtrak operations from its current out-of-the-way location to a centralized location with Metrorail, MIA Mover, Tri-Rail, Miami International Airport, and the Miami Intermodal Center all within the same station closer to Downtown. The station was expected to be completed by 2012, but experienced several delays and was later expected to be completed in late 2014, again pushed back to early 2015.
Along with Orlando, what city would have been connected to Miami via Florida High Speed Rail?
572a8568f75d5e190021fb42
Tampa
126
False
Who was the governor of Florida in 2011?
572a8568f75d5e190021fb43
Rick Scott
258
False
In what year did All Aboard Florida begin?
572a8568f75d5e190021fb44
2014
343
False
What company is responsible for All Aboard Florida?
572a8568f75d5e190021fb45
Florida East Coast Railway
424
False
From South Florida, where will All Aboard Florida stretch to?
572a8568f75d5e190021fb46
Orlando International Airport
558
False
Tampa
126
Along with Orlando, what city wouldn't have been connected to Miami via Florida High Speed Rail?
5ad39976604f3c001a3fe839
True
Rick Scott
258
Who was the governor of Florida in 2001?
5ad39976604f3c001a3fe83a
True
2014
343
In what year did All Aboard Florida end?
5ad39976604f3c001a3fe83b
True
Florida East Coast Railway
424
What company isn't responsible for All Aboard Florida?
5ad39976604f3c001a3fe83c
True
Orlando International Airport
558
From North Florida, where will All Aboard Florida stretch to?
5ad39976604f3c001a3fe83d
True
Florida High Speed Rail was a proposed government backed high-speed rail system that would have connected Miami, Orlando, and Tampa. The first phase was planned to connect Orlando and Tampa and was offered federal funding, but it was turned down by Governor Rick Scott in 2011. The second phase of the line was envisioned to connect Miami. By 2014, a private project known as All Aboard Florida by a company of the historic Florida East Coast Railway began construction of a higher-speed rail line in South Florida that is planned to eventually terminate at Orlando International Airport.
What company was previously headquartered in the Downtown Macy's?
572a85fc111d821400f38bb6
Burdine's
282
False
What is another name for Tamiami Trail?
572a85fc111d821400f38bb7
SW 8th St
698
False
In what neighborhood of Miami is the corner of Miami Avenue and Flagler Street?
572a85fc111d821400f38bb8
Downtown
227
False
What is Miami's street plan called?
572a85fc111d821400f38bb9
Miami Grid
50
False
If a street is west of Miami Avenue and north of Flagler Street, what will necessarily be in its address?
572a85fc111d821400f38bba
NW
443
False
Burdine's
282
What company was never headquartered in the Downtown Macy's?
5ad39a1d604f3c001a3fe855
True
SW 8th St)
698
What isn't another name for Tamiami Trail?
5ad39a1d604f3c001a3fe856
True
Downtown
227
In what neighborhood of Miami is the corner of Miami Avenue and Florida Street?
5ad39a1d604f3c001a3fe857
True
Miami Grid
50
What is Miami's street plan not called?
5ad39a1d604f3c001a3fe858
True
NW
443
If a street is west of Miami Avenue and north of Flagler Street, what won't necessarily be in its address?
5ad39a1d604f3c001a3fe859
True
Miami's road system is based along the numerical "Miami Grid" where Flagler Street forms the east-west baseline and Miami Avenue forms the north-south meridian. The corner of Flagler Street and Miami Avenue is in the middle of Downtown in front of the Downtown Macy's (formerly the Burdine's headquarters). The Miami grid is primarily numerical so that, for example, all street addresses north of Flagler Street and west of Miami Avenue have "NW" in their address. Because its point of origin is in Downtown, which is close to the coast, therefore, the "NW" and "SW" quadrants are much larger than the "SE" and "NE" quadrants. Many roads, especially major ones, are also named (e.g., Tamiami Trail/SW 8th St), although, with exceptions, the number is in more common usage among locals.
Along with Virginia Key, what does the Rickenbacker Causeway connect to Brickell?
572a8658111d821400f38bc0
Key Biscayne
247
False
What causeway connects South Beach with Downtown?
572a8658111d821400f38bc1
MacArthur
287
False
Which Miami causeway has the smallest size?
572a8658111d821400f38bc2
Broad
504
False
What causeway is furthest to the south?
572a8658111d821400f38bc3
Rickenbacker
154
False
How many major causeways are in Miami?
572a8658111d821400f38bc4
six
10
False
Key Biscayne
247
Along with Virginia Key, what doesn't the Rickenbacker Causeway connect to Brickell?
5ad39a8b604f3c001a3fe871
True
MacArthur
287
What causeway connects South Beach with Uptown?
5ad39a8b604f3c001a3fe872
True
Broad
504
Which Miami causeway has the largest size?
5ad39a8b604f3c001a3fe873
True
Rickenbacker
154
What causeway is closest to the south?
5ad39a8b604f3c001a3fe874
True
six
10
How many minor causeways are in Miami?
5ad39a8b604f3c001a3fe875
True
Miami has six major causeways that span over Biscayne Bay connecting the western mainland, with the eastern barrier islands along the Atlantic Ocean. The Rickenbacker Causeway is the southernmost causeway and connects Brickell to Virginia Key and Key Biscayne. The Venetian Causeway and MacArthur Causeway connect Downtown with South Beach. The Julia Tuttle Causeway connects Midtown and Miami Beach. The 79th Street Causeway connects the Upper East Side with North Beach. The northernmost causeway, the Broad Causeway, is the smallest of Miami's six causeways, and connects North Miami with Bal Harbour.
What cannot travel on Downtown Miami streets during "Bike Miami"?
572a86b0f75d5e190021fb4c
automobiles
260
False
How many people participated in Bike Miami in October of 2009?
572a86b0f75d5e190021fb4d
3,000
416
False
Who was a recent mayor of Miami?
572a86b0f75d5e190021fb4e
Manny Diaz
49
False
Along with Downtown, in what neighborhood of Miami does Bike Miami take place?
572a86b0f75d5e190021fb4f
Brickell
237
False
In what month in 2008 did Bike Miami start?
572a86b0f75d5e190021fb50
November
338
False
automobiles
260
What can travel on Downtown Miami streets during "Bike Miami"?
5ad39adb604f3c001a3fe87b
True
3,000
416
How many people participated in Bike Miami in October of 2008?
5ad39adb604f3c001a3fe87c
True
Manny Diaz
49
Who was a non-recent mayor of Miami?
5ad39adb604f3c001a3fe87d
True
Brickell
237
Along with Uptown, in what neighborhood of Miami does Bike Miami take place?
5ad39adb604f3c001a3fe87e
True
November
338
In what month in 2018 did Bike Miami start?
5ad39adb604f3c001a3fe87f
True
In recent years the city government, under Mayor Manny Diaz, has taken an ambitious stance in support of bicycling in Miami for both recreation and commuting. Every month, the city hosts "Bike Miami", where major streets in Downtown and Brickell are closed to automobiles, but left open for pedestrians and bicyclists. The event began in November 2008, and has doubled in popularity from 1,500 participants to about 3,000 in the October 2009 Bike Miami. This is the longest-running such event in the US. In October 2009, the city also approved an extensive 20-year plan for bike routes and paths around the city. The city has begun construction of bike routes as of late 2009, and ordinances requiring bike parking in all future construction in the city became mandatory as of October 2009.
Philadelphia
Who founded Philadelphia?
572a8d2834ae481900deab79
William Penn
9
False
What role did Philadelphia play in the American Revolution?
572a8d2834ae481900deab7a
a meeting place for the Founding Fathers
158
False
What purpose did Philadelphia serve while D.C. was under construction?
572a8d2834ae481900deab7b
temporary U.S. capital
388
False
When did it reach 2 million occupants>
572a8d2834ae481900deab7c
1950
706
False
In 1682, William Penn founded the city to serve as capital of the Pennsylvania Colony. Philadelphia played an instrumental role in the American Revolution as a meeting place for the Founding Fathers of the United States, who signed the Declaration of Independence in 1776 and the Constitution in 1787. Philadelphia was one of the nation's capitals in the Revolutionary War, and served as temporary U.S. capital while Washington, D.C., was under construction. In the 19th century, Philadelphia became a major industrial center and railroad hub that grew from an influx of European immigrants. It became a prime destination for African-Americans in the Great Migration and surpassed two million occupants by 1950.
What was the historical economic base of Philadelphia?
572a8e0834ae481900deab81
manufacturing
268
False
When did the city near bankruptcy?
572a8e0834ae481900deab82
late 1980s
873
False
Where did wealthy residents move?
572a8e0834ae481900deab83
suburbs
778
False
Who replaced the wealthy?
572a8e0834ae481900deab84
immigrants
795
False
Based on the similar shifts underway the nation's economy after 1960, Philadelphia experienced a loss of manufacturing companies and jobs to lower taxed regions of the USA and often overseas. As a result, the economic base of Philadelphia, which had historically been manufacturing, declined significantly. In addition, consolidation in several American industries (retailing, financial services and health care in particular) reduced the number of companies headquartered in Philadelphia. The economic impact of these changes would reduce Philadelphia's tax base and the resources of local government. Philadelphia struggled through a long period of adjustment to these economic changes, coupled with significant demographic change as wealthier residents moved into the nearby suburbs and more immigrants moved into the city. The city in fact approached bankruptcy in the late 1980s. Revitalization began in the 1990s, with gentrification turning around many neighborhoods and reversing its decades-long trend of population loss.
What is the GDP of the city?
572a8ebc34ae481900deab89
$388 billion
194
False
Where does it rank in comparison to other US cities in GDP?
572a8ebc34ae481900deab8a
fourth
256
False
How many Fortune 500 companies call Philadelpia home?
572a8ebc34ae481900deab8b
seven
357
False
How many domestic tourists visit annually?
572a8ebc34ae481900deab8c
39 million
541
False
What branch of the US military was born in Philadelphia?
572a8ebc34ae481900deab8d
United States Marine Corps
873
False
The area's many universities and colleges make Philadelphia a top international study destination, as the city has evolved into an educational and economic hub. With a gross domestic product of $388 billion, Philadelphia ranks ninth among world cities and fourth in the nation. Philadelphia is the center of economic activity in Pennsylvania and is home to seven Fortune 1000 companies. The Philadelphia skyline is growing, with several nationally prominent skyscrapers. The city is known for its arts, culture, and history, attracting over 39 million domestic tourists in 2013. Philadelphia has more outdoor sculptures and murals than any other American city, and Fairmount Park is the largest landscaped urban park in the world. The 67 National Historic Landmarks in the city helped account for the $10 billion generated by tourism. Philadelphia is the birthplace of the United States Marine Corps, and is also the home of many U.S. firsts, including the first library (1731), first hospital (1751) and medical school (1765), first Capitol (1777), first stock exchange (1790), first zoo (1874), and first business school (1881). Philadelphia is the only World Heritage City in the United States.
What native American tribe lived in the area before settlement?
572a92c9111d821400f38bfc
Lenape
125
False
What other tribe occasionally fought against the Lenape?
572a92c9111d821400f38bfd
Iroquois
634
False
What disease killed the most Lenape?
572a92c9111d821400f38bfe
smallpox
587
False
Where did the Lenape go after being pushed out of the Philidelphia area?
572a92c9111d821400f38bff
upper Ohio River basin
719
False
Where do the Lenape reside today?
572a92c9111d821400f38c00
Oklahoma
1100
False
Before Europeans arrived, the Philadelphia area was home to the Lenape (Delaware) Indians in the village of Shackamaxon. The Lenape are a Native American tribe and First Nations band government. They are also called Delaware Indians and their historical territory was along the Delaware River watershed, western Long Island and the Lower Hudson Valley.[a] Most Lenape were pushed out of their Delaware homeland during the 18th century by expanding European colonies, exacerbated by losses from intertribal conflicts. Lenape communities were weakened by newly introduced diseases, mainly smallpox, and violent conflict with Europeans. Iroquois people occasionally fought the Lenape. Surviving Lenape moved west into the upper Ohio River basin. The American Revolutionary War and United States' independence pushed them further west. In the 1860s, the United States government sent most Lenape remaining in the eastern United States to the Indian Territory (present-day Oklahoma and surrounding territory) under the Indian removal policy. In the 21st century, most Lenape now reside in the US state of Oklahoma, with some communities living also in Wisconsin, Ontario (Canada) and in their traditional homelands.
Who were the first settlers to the Delaware Valley?
572a93e6f75d5e190021fb72
the Dutch
103
False
What was the name of the first settlement in the area?
572a93e6f75d5e190021fb73
Fort Nassau
132
False
Who claimed the entire Delaware River?
572a93e6f75d5e190021fb74
The Dutch
234
False
When did the English conquer the New Netherland colony?
572a93e6f75d5e190021fb75
1664
1284
False
Europeans came to the Delaware Valley in the early 17th century, with the first settlements founded by the Dutch, who in 1623 built Fort Nassau on the Delaware River opposite the Schuylkill River in what is now Brooklawn, New Jersey. The Dutch considered the entire Delaware River valley to be part of their New Netherland colony. In 1638, Swedish settlers led by renegade Dutch established the colony of New Sweden at Fort Christina (present day Wilmington, Delaware) and quickly spread out in the valley. In 1644, New Sweden supported the Susquehannocks in their military defeat of the English colony of Maryland. In 1648, the Dutch built Fort Beversreede on the west bank of the Delaware, south of the Schuylkill near the present-day Eastwick section of Philadelphia, to reassert their dominion over the area. The Swedes responded by building Fort Nya Korsholm, named New Korsholm after a town that is now in Finland. In 1655, a Dutch military campaign led by New Netherland Director-General Peter Stuyvesant took control of the Swedish colony, ending its claim to independence, although the Swedish and Finnish settlers continued to have their own militia, religion, and court, and to enjoy substantial autonomy under the Dutch. The English conquered the New Netherland colony in 1664, but the situation did not really change until 1682, when the area was included in William Penn's charter for Pennsylvania.
Who founded the Pennsylvania colony?
572a95b234ae481900deab93
William Penn
71
False
Who did Penn buy the land from?
572a95b234ae481900deab94
Lenape
204
False
What religion did William Penn practice?
572a95b234ae481900deab95
Quaker
564
False
When was Philadelphia established as a city?
572a95b234ae481900deab96
1701
1388
False
What type of street layout did Penn use for Philadelphia?
572a95b234ae481900deab97
grid plan
1080
False
In 1681, in partial repayment of a debt, Charles II of England granted William Penn a charter for what would become the Pennsylvania colony. Despite the royal charter, Penn bought the land from the local Lenape to be on good terms with the Native Americans and ensure peace for his colony. Penn made a treaty of friendship with Lenape chief Tammany under an elm tree at Shackamaxon, in what is now the city's Fishtown section. Penn named the city Philadelphia, which is Greek for brotherly love (from philos, "love" or "friendship", and adelphos, "brother"). As a Quaker, Penn had experienced religious persecution and wanted his colony to be a place where anyone could worship freely. This tolerance, far more than afforded by most other colonies, led to better relations with the local Native tribes and fostered Philadelphia's rapid growth into America's most important city. Penn planned a city on the Delaware River to serve as a port and place for government. Hoping that Philadelphia would become more like an English rural town instead of a city, Penn laid out roads on a grid plan to keep houses and businesses spread far apart, with areas for gardens and orchards. The city's inhabitants did not follow Penn's plans, as they crowded by the Delaware River, the port, and subdivided and resold their lots. Before Penn left Philadelphia for the last time, he issued the Charter of 1701 establishing it as a city. It became an important trading center, poor at first, but with tolerable living conditions by the 1750s. Benjamin Franklin, a leading citizen, helped improve city services and founded new ones, such as fire protection, a library, and one of the American colonies' first hospitals.
What important revolutionary document was signed in Philadelphia?
572a9c79111d821400f38c3c
Declaration of Independence,
430
False
When did Philadelphia host the Constitutional Convention?
572a9c79111d821400f38c3d
1787
510
False
How many Revolutionary War battles were fought around Philadelphia?
572a9c79111d821400f38c3e
Several
531
False
Philadelphia's importance and central location in the colonies made it a natural center for America's revolutionaries. By the 1750s, Philadelphia had surpassed Boston to become the largest city and busiest port in British America, and second in the British Empire, behind London. The city hosted the First Continental Congress before the American Revolutionary War; the Second Continental Congress, which signed the United States Declaration of Independence, during the war; and the Constitutional Convention (1787) after the war. Several battles were fought in and near Philadelphia as well.
When did the US government leave Philadelphia for D.C.?
572a9d6134ae481900deabd1
1799
42
False
What religion did the black community found?
572a9d6134ae481900deabd2
African Methodist Episcopal Church
362
False
Which city surpassed the population of Philadelphia?
572a9d6134ae481900deabd3
New York City
598
False
What type of economy did Philadelphia have?
572a9d6134ae481900deabd4
industrial
750
False
The state government left Philadelphia in 1799, and the federal government was moved to Washington, DC in 1800 with completion of the White House and Capitol. The city remained the young nation's largest with a population of nearly 50,000 at the turn of the 19th century; it was a financial and cultural center. Before 1800, its free black community founded the African Methodist Episcopal Church (AME), the first independent black denomination in the country, and the first black Episcopal Church. The free black community also established many schools for its children, with the help of Quakers. New York City soon surpassed Philadelphia in population, but with the construction of roads, canals, and railroads, Philadelphia became the first major industrial city in the United States.
What was Philadelphia's biggest industry during the 19th century?
572a9e25111d821400f38c4c
textiles
104
False
When was the first World's Fair?
572a9e25111d821400f38c4d
1876
357
False
Which were the two biggest immigrant groups in Philadelphia?
572a9e25111d821400f38c4e
Irish and German
467
False
What is the size in square miles today?
572a9e25111d821400f38c4f
130 square miles
754
False
Throughout the 19th century, Philadelphia had a variety of industries and businesses, the largest being textiles. Major corporations in the 19th and early 20th centuries included the Baldwin Locomotive Works, William Cramp and Sons Ship and Engine Building Company, and the Pennsylvania Railroad. Industry, along with the U.S. Centennial, was celebrated in 1876 with the Centennial Exposition, the first official World's Fair in the United States. Immigrants, mostly Irish and German, settled in Philadelphia and the surrounding districts. The rise in population of the surrounding districts helped lead to the Act of Consolidation of 1854, which extended the city limits of Philadelphia from the 2 square miles of present-day Center City to the roughly 130 square miles of Philadelphia County.
Who carried out the first strike in North America?
572a9ed7f75d5e190021fbac
immigrants
6
False
When did the strike take place?
572a9ed7f75d5e190021fbad
1835
91
False
What did the strikers achieve?
572a9ed7f75d5e190021fbae
ten-hour workday
134
False
Why did so many Irish immigrants come to Philadelphia?
572a9ed7f75d5e190021fbaf
the Great Famine
221
False
When did the black population explode?
572a9ed7f75d5e190021fbb0
Between 1880 and 1930
692
False
These immigrants were largely responsible for the first general strike in North America in 1835, in which workers in the city won the ten-hour workday. The city was a destination for thousands of Irish immigrants fleeing the Great Famine in the 1840s; housing for them was developed south of South Street, and was later occupied by succeeding immigrants. They established a network of Catholic churches and schools, and dominated the Catholic clergy for decades. Anti-Irish, anti-Catholic Nativist riots had erupted in Philadelphia in 1844. In the latter half of the century, immigrants from Russia, Eastern Europe and Italy; and African Americans from the southern U.S. settled in the city. Between 1880 and 1930, the African-American population of Philadelphia increased from 31,699 to 219,559. Twentieth-century black newcomers were part of the Great Migration out of the rural South to northern and midwestern industrial cities.
Which political party controlled Philadelphia in the early 20th century?
572a9f8af75d5e190021fbb6
Republican
126
False
What phrase could describe Philadelphia of the early 20th century?
572a9f8af75d5e190021fbb7
corrupt and contented
55
False
When did the first major political reform occur?
572a9f8af75d5e190021fbb8
1917
187
False
By the 20th century, Philadelphia had become known as "corrupt and contented", with a complacent population and an entrenched Republican political machine. The first major reform came in 1917 when outrage over the election-year murder of a police officer led to the shrinking of the Philadelphia City Council from two houses to just one. In July 1919, Philadelphia was one of more than 36 industrial cities nationally to suffer a race riot of ethnic whites against blacks during Red Summer, in post-World War I unrest, as recent immigrants competed with blacks for jobs. In the 1920s, the public flouting of Prohibition laws, mob violence, and police involvement in illegal activities led to the appointment of Brigadier General Smedley Butler of the U.S. Marine Corps as director of public safety, but political pressure prevented any long-term success in fighting crime and corruption.
When was the peak of Philadelphia's population?
572aa053f75d5e190021fbc6
1950
133
False
Why did the population decline after this time?
572aa053f75d5e190021fbc7
the loss of many middle-class union jobs
210
False
What is the main driver of the economy now?
572aa053f75d5e190021fbc8
service businesses
700
False
What is another large industry?
572aa053f75d5e190021fbc9
a tourist destination
767
False
How much of the population left after 1950?
572aa053f75d5e190021fbca
one-quarter
1167
False
In 1940, non-Hispanic whites constituted 86.8% of the city's population. The population peaked at more than two million residents in 1950, then began to decline with the restructuring of industry, which led to the loss of many middle-class union jobs. In addition, suburbanization had been drawing off many of the wealthier residents to outlying railroad commuting towns and newer housing. Revitalization and gentrification of neighborhoods began in the late 1970s and continues into the 21st century, with much of the development in the Center City and University City areas of the city. After many of the old manufacturers and businesses left Philadelphia or shut down, the city started attracting service businesses and began to more aggressively market itself as a tourist destination. Glass-and-granite skyscrapers were built in Center City. Historic areas such as Independence National Historical Park located in Old City and Society Hill were renovated during the reformist mayoral era of the 1950s through the 1980s. They are now among the most desirable living areas of Center City. This has slowed the city's 40-year population decline after it lost nearly one-quarter of its population.
Who planned the central city?
572aa141be1ee31400cb80db
Thomas Holme
106
False
Which rivers run through the city?
572aa141be1ee31400cb80dc
The Delaware River and Schuylkill Rivers
383
False
How many public parks did Penn plan?
572aa141be1ee31400cb80dd
five
553
False
How many live in the central area today?
572aa141be1ee31400cb80de
183,240
951
False
Philadelphia's central city was created in the 17th century following the plan by William Penn's surveyor Thomas Holme. Center City is structured with long straight streets running east-west and north-south forming a grid pattern. The original city plan was designed to allow for easy travel and to keep residences separated by open space that would help prevent the spread of fire. The Delaware River and Schuylkill Rivers served as early boundaries between which the city's early street plan was kept within. In addition, Penn planned the creation of five public parks in the city which were renamed in 1824 (in parenthesis): Centre Square, North East Publick Square (Franklin Square), Northwest Square (Logan Square), Southwest Square (Rittenhouse Square), and Southeast Square (Washington Square). Center City has grown into the second-most populated downtown area in the United States, after Midtown Manhattan in New York City, with an estimated 183,240 residents in 2015.
How many planning districts make up Philadelphia?
572aa1b9f75d5e190021fbd8
18
112
False
When was the 1980 zoning code revamped?
572aa1b9f75d5e190021fbd9
2007–2012
249
False
Which two mayors accomplished the zoning code revamp?
572aa1b9f75d5e190021fbda
John F. Street and Michael Nutter
307
False
The City Planning Commission, tasked with guiding growth and development of the city, has divided the city into 18 planning districts as part of the Philadelphia2035 physical development plan. Much of the city's 1980 zoning code was overhauled from 2007–2012 as part of a joint effort between former mayors John F. Street and Michael Nutter. The zoning changes were intended to rectify incorrect zoning mapping that would streamline future community preferences and development, which the city forecasts an additional 100,000 residents and 40,000 jobs to be added to Philadelphia in 2035.
Name 6 important Philadelphia architects?
572aa285be1ee31400cb80e3
Benjamin Latrobe, William Strickland, John Haviland, John Notman, Thomas U. Walter, and Samuel Sloan
144
False
Who is Philadelphia's greatest architect of the later 19th century?
572aa285be1ee31400cb80e4
Frank Furness
246
False
When did building begin on the Philadelphia CIty Hall?
572aa285be1ee31400cb80e5
1871
475
False
What commission was created in 1955?
572aa285be1ee31400cb80e6
Philadelphia Historical Commission
555
False
What does this commission control?
572aa285be1ee31400cb80e7
Philadelphia Register of Historic Places
703
False
In the first decades of the 19th century, Federal architecture and Greek Revival architecture were dominated by Philadelphia architects such as Benjamin Latrobe, William Strickland, John Haviland, John Notman, Thomas U. Walter, and Samuel Sloan. Frank Furness is considered Philadelphia's greatest architect of the second half of the 19th century, but his contemporaries included John McArthur, Jr., Addison Hutton, Wilson Eyre, the Wilson Brothers, and Horace Trumbauer. In 1871, construction began on the Second Empire-style Philadelphia City Hall. The Philadelphia Historical Commission was created in 1955 to preserve the cultural and architectural history of the city. The commission maintains the Philadelphia Register of Historic Places, adding historic buildings, structures, sites, objects and districts as it sees fit.
How tall is the City Hall?
572aa311be1ee31400cb80ed
548 ft
4
False
What is the tallest building?
572aa311be1ee31400cb80ee
Comcast Center
244
False
Which building under construction will surpass Comcast Center?
572aa311be1ee31400cb80ef
Comcast Innovation and Technology Center
330
False
The 548 ft (167 m) City Hall remained the tallest building in the city until 1987 when One Liberty Place was constructed. Numerous glass and granite skyscrapers were built in Philadelphia's Center City from the late 1980s onwards. In 2007, the Comcast Center surpassed One Liberty Place to become the city's tallest building. The Comcast Innovation and Technology Center is under construction in Center City and is planned to reach a height of 1,121 feet (342 meters); upon completion, the tower is expected to be the tallest skyscraper in the United States outside of New York City and Chicago.
What is the dominant type of house in Philadelphia?
572aa3cfbe1ee31400cb80f3
row house
66
False
What are row houses called outside of Philadelphia?
572aa3cfbe1ee31400cb80f4
Philadelphia rows
250
False
Name a type of row house in the city?
572aa3cfbe1ee31400cb80f5
Victorian-style homes in North Philadelphia to twin row houses in West Philadelphia
330
False
How old is most of the housing in Philadelphia?
572aa3cfbe1ee31400cb80f6
early 20th century or older
500
False
Which neighborhood has the oldest housing in America?
572aa3cfbe1ee31400cb80f7
Society Hill
681
False
For much of Philadelphia's history, the typical home has been the row house. The row house was introduced to the United States via Philadelphia in the early 19th century and, for a time, row houses built elsewhere in the United States were known as "Philadelphia rows". A variety of row houses are found throughout the city, from Victorian-style homes in North Philadelphia to twin row houses in West Philadelphia. While newer homes are scattered throughout the city, much of the housing is from the early 20th century or older. The great age of the homes has created numerous problems, including blight and vacant lots in many parts of the city, while other neighborhoods such as Society Hill, which has the largest concentration of 18th-century architecture in the United States, have been rehabilitated and gentrified.
What climate zone does Philadelphia fall under?
572aa473be1ee31400cb8105
humid subtropical climate zone
93
False
What is the summer weather like?
572aa473be1ee31400cb8106
hot and muggy
160
False
What is the normal snowfall?
572aa473be1ee31400cb8107
22.4 in
395
False
How much rain does Philly get on average?
572aa473be1ee31400cb8108
41.5 inches
608
False
What is the most rain in one day?
572aa473be1ee31400cb8109
8.02 in
786
False
Under the Köppen climate classification, Philadelphia falls in the northern periphery of the humid subtropical climate zone (Köppen Cfa). Summers are typically hot and muggy, fall and spring are generally mild, and winter is cold. Snowfall is highly variable, with some winters bringing only light snow and others bringing several major snowstorms, with the normal seasonal snowfall standing at 22.4 in (57 cm); snow in November or April is rare, and a sustained snow cover is rare. Precipitation is generally spread throughout the year, with eight to twelve wet days per month, at an average annual rate of 41.5 inches (1,050 mm), but historically ranging from 29.31 in (744 mm) in 1922 to 64.33 in (1,634 mm) in 2011. The most rain recorded in one day occurred on July 28, 2013, when 8.02 in (204 mm) fell at Philadelphia International Airport.
What is the average January temp?
572aa4ef34ae481900deabfb
33.0 °F
29
False
What is the July average temp?
572aa4ef34ae481900deabfc
78.1 °F
198
False
What is the average time for freezing temps?
572aa4ef34ae481900deabfd
November 6 thru April 2
405
False
How long does the grow season last on average?
572aa4ef34ae481900deabfe
217
459
False
Which month is the driest?
572aa4ef34ae481900deabff
February
515
False
The January daily average is 33.0 °F (0.6 °C), though, in a normal winter, the temperature frequently rises to 50 °F (10 °C) during thaws and dips to 10 °F (−12 °C) for 2 or 3 nights. July averages 78.1 °F (25.6 °C), although heat waves accompanied by high humidity and heat indices are frequent; highs reach or exceed 90 °F (32 °C) on 27 days of the year. The average window for freezing temperatures is November 6 thru April 2, allowing a growing season of 217 days. Early fall and late winter are generally dry; February's average of 2.64 inches (67 mm) makes it the area's driest month. The dewpoint in the summer averages between 59.1 °F (15 °C) to 64.5 °F (18 °C).
What is the 2014 population?
572aa556f75d5e190021fbe6
1,560,297
65
False
When was the low point in Philadelphia's population?
572aa556f75d5e190021fbe7
2006
293
False
How much is the population predicted to grow by 2035?
572aa556f75d5e190021fbe8
100,000
523
False
According to the 2014 United States Census estimates, there were 1,560,297 people residing in the City of Philadelphia, representing a 2.2% increase since 2010. From the 1960s up until 2006, the city's population declined year after year. It eventually reached a low of 1,488,710 residents in 2006 before beginning to rise again. Since 2006, Philadelphia added 71,587 residents in eight years. A study done by the city projected that the population would increase to about 1,630,000 residents by 2035, an increase of about 100,000 from 2010.
What is the percent of blacks?
572aa62bf75d5e190021fbf6
43.4%
108
False
What is the percent of whites?
572aa62bf75d5e190021fbf7
41.0%
142
False
What is the hispanic make-up of the population?
572aa62bf75d5e190021fbf8
12.3%
485
False
What is the largest European ancestry?
572aa62bf75d5e190021fbf9
Irish (12.5%)
966
False
In comparison, the 2010 Census Redistricting Data indicated that the racial makeup of the city was 661,839 (43.4%) African American, 626,221 (41.0%) White, 6,996 (0.5%) Native American, 96,405 (6.3%) Asian (2.0% Chinese, 1.2% Indian, 0.9% Vietnamese, 0.6% Cambodian, 0.4% Korean, 0.3% Filipino, 0.2% Pakistani, 0.1% Indonesian), 744 (0.0%) Pacific Islander, 90,731 (5.9%) from other races, and 43,070 (2.8%) from two or more races. Hispanic or Latino of any race were 187,611 persons (12.3%); 8.0% of Philadelphia is Puerto Rican, 1.0% Dominican, 1.0% Mexican, 0.3% Cuban, and 0.3% Colombian. The racial breakdown of Philadelphia's Hispanic/Latino population was 63,636 (33.9%) White, 17,552 (9.4%) African American, 3,498 (1.9%) Native American, 884 (0.47%) Asian, 287 (0.15%) Pacific Islander, 86,626 (46.2%) from other races, and 15,128 (8.1%) from two or more races. The five largest European ancestries reported in the 2010 United States Census Census included Irish (12.5%), Italian (8.4%), German (8.1%), Polish (3.6%), and English (3.0%).
What is the density?
572aa6e4111d821400f38c86
11,457 people per square mile
35
False
How many houses or apartments were there in 2010?
572aa6e4111d821400f38c87
670,171
354
False
What percent are vacant as of 2013?
572aa6e4111d821400f38c88
13 percent
454
False
What percent don't own cars?
572aa6e4111d821400f38c89
32
624
False
What percent own 2 or more cars?
572aa6e4111d821400f38c8a
23
679
False
The average population density was 11,457 people per square mile (4,405.4/km²). The Census reported that 1,468,623 people (96.2% of the population) lived in households, 38,007 (2.5%) lived in non-institutionalized group quarters, and 19,376 (1.3%) were institutionalized. In 2013, the city reported having 668,247 total housing units, down slightly from 670,171 housing units in 2010. As of 2013[update], 87 percent of housing units were occupied, while 13 percent were vacant, a slight change from 2010 where 89.5 percent of units were occupied, or 599,736 and 10.5 percent were vacant, or 70,435. Of the city's residents, 32 percent reported having no vehicles available while 23 percent had two or more vehicles available, as of 2013[update].
At the last census how many households had children under 18 in them?
572aab3fbe1ee31400cb813b
24.9 percent
9
False
What percent were non-family households?
572aab3fbe1ee31400cb813c
43.2
277
False
What is the size of the average household?
572aab3fbe1ee31400cb813d
2.45
495
False
Percentage of unwed births?
572aab3fbe1ee31400cb813e
56
635
False
In 2010, 24.9 percent of households reported having children under the age of 18 living with them, 28.3 percent were married couples living together and 22.5 percent had a female householder with no husband present, 6.0 percent had a male householder with no wife present, and 43.2 percent were non-families. The city reported 34.1 percent of all households were made up of individuals while 10.5 percent had someone living alone who was 65 years of age or older. The average household size was 2.45 and the average family size was 3.20. In 2013, the percentage of women who gave birth in the previous 12 months who were unmarried was 56 percent. Of Philadelphia's adults, 31 percent were married or lived as a couple, 55 percent were not married, 11 percent were divorced or separated, and 3 percent were widowed.
What was the median household income in 2013?
572aabc4111d821400f38c98
$36,836
72
False
What is the name of a wealthy neighborhood?
572aabc4111d821400f38c99
Society Hill
458
False
What is the lowest median income in Philadelphia?
572aabc4111d821400f38c9a
$14,185
614
False
According to the Census Bureau, the median household income in 2013 was $36,836, down 7.9 percent from 2008 when the median household income was $40,008 (in 2013 dollars). For comparison, the median household income among metropolitan areas was $60,482, down 8.2 percent in the same period, and the national median household income was $55,250, down 7.0 percent from 2008. The city's wealth disparity is evident when neighborhoods are compared. Residents in Society Hill had a median household income of $93,720 while residents in one of North Philadelphia's districts reported the lowest median household income, $14,185.
What is the city's largest age group?
572aac81f75d5e190021fc22
25- to 29-year-old
306
False
How many people at the last census were under 18?
572aac81f75d5e190021fc23
343,837
400
False
How many baby's were there in 2013?
572aac81f75d5e190021fc24
22,018
741
False
How many deaths were there in 2013?
572aac81f75d5e190021fc25
13,691
876
False
During the last decade, Philadelphia experienced a large shift in its age profile. In 2000, the city's population pyramid had a largely stationary shape. In 2013, the city took on an expansive pyramid shape, with an increase in the three millennial age groups, 20 to 24, 25 to 29, and 30 to 34. The city's 25- to 29-year-old age group was the city's largest age cohort. According to the 2010 Census, 343,837 (22.5%) were under the age of 18; 203,697 (13.3%) from 18 to 25; 434,385 (28.5%) from 25 to 44; 358,778 (23.5%) from 45 to 64; and 185,309 (12.1%) who were 65 years of age or older. The median age was 33.5 years. For every 100 females there were 89.4 males. For every 100 females age 18 and over, there were 85.7 males. The city had 22,018 births in 2013, down from a peak 23,689 births in 2008. Philadelphia's death rate was at its lowest in at least a half-century, 13,691 deaths in 2013. Another factor attributing to the population increase is Philadelphia's immigration rate. In 2013, 12.7 percent of residents were foreign-born, just shy of the national average, 13.1 percent.
Name the six largest European ethnic groups in the city?
572aadae34ae481900deac25
Irish, Italians, Polish, Germans, English, and Greeks
0
False
Which city has the largest Irish and Italian populations?
572aadae34ae481900deac26
New York City
200
False
What area of the city has a large Italian neighborhood?
572aadae34ae481900deac27
South Philadelphia
215
False
Which three areas are high in Irish and Polish?
572aadae34ae481900deac28
Kensington section, Port Richmond, and Fishtown
478
False
Which part of the city has a large Jewish area?
572aadae34ae481900deac29
Mount Airy
900
False
Irish, Italians, Polish, Germans, English, and Greeks are the largest ethnic European groups in the city. Philadelphia has the second-largest Irish and Italian populations in the United States, after New York City. South Philadelphia remains one of the largest Italian neighborhoods in the country and is home to the Italian Market. The Pennsport neighborhood and Gray's Ferry section of South Philadelphia, home to many Mummer clubs, are well known as Irish neighborhoods. The Kensington section, Port Richmond, and Fishtown have historically been heavily Irish and Polish. Port Richmond is well known in particular as the center of the Polish immigrant and Polish-American community in Philadelphia, and it remains a common destination for Polish immigrants. Northeast Philadelphia, although known for its Irish and Irish-American population, is also home to a large Jewish and Russian population. Mount Airy in Northwest Philadelphia also contains a large Jewish community, while nearby Chestnut Hill is historically known as an Anglo-Saxon Protestant stronghold.
Name three sub-cultures in the Center City?
572aae4ff75d5e190021fc2a
yuppie, bohemian, and hipster
35
False
What is the name of the gay district?
572aae4ff75d5e190021fc2b
Gayborhood
411
False
Name a University located in the city?
572aae4ff75d5e190021fc2c
Drexel and University of Pennsylvania
265
False
There has also been an increase of yuppie, bohemian, and hipster types particularly around Center City, the neighborhood of Northern Liberties, and in the neighborhoods around the city's universities, such as near Temple in North Philadelphia and particularly near Drexel and University of Pennsylvania in West Philadelphia. Philadelphia is also home to a significant gay and lesbian population. Philadelphia's Gayborhood, which is located near Washington Square, is home to a large concentration of gay and lesbian friendly businesses, restaurants, and bars.
What percent of 5 year olds or older speak English?
572aaecdbe1ee31400cb8167
79.12%
20
False
What percent of 5 year olds or older speak Spanish?
572aaecdbe1ee31400cb8168
9.72%
132
False
What is the total over 5's that speak another language than English?
572aaecdbe1ee31400cb8169
20.88%
476
False
As of 2010[update], 79.12% (1,112,441) of Philadelphia residents age 5 and older spoke English at home as a primary language, while 9.72% (136,688) spoke Spanish, 1.64% (23,075) Chinese, 0.89% (12,499) Vietnamese, 0.77% (10,885) Russian, 0.66% (9,240) French, 0.61% (8,639) other Asian languages, 0.58% (8,217) African languages, 0.56% (7,933) Cambodian (Mon-Khmer), and Italian was spoken as a main language by 0.55% (7,773) of the population over the age of five. In total, 20.88% (293,544) of Philadelphia's population age 5 and older spoke a mother language other than English.
Unemployment rate in 2014?
572aafa1f75d5e190021fc38
7.8%
51
False
What was the average unemployment rate in the U.S. in 2014?
572aafa1f75d5e190021fc39
6.2%
143
False
How many jobs were gained in 2014?
572aafa1f75d5e190021fc3a
8,800
263
False
What industries accounted for most of the city's job gains?
572aafa1f75d5e190021fc3b
education and health services, leisure and hospitality, and professional and business services
362
False
What industries suffered declines?
572aafa1f75d5e190021fc3c
manufacturing and government
491
False
Philadelphia's an annualized unemployment rate was 7.8% in 2014, down from 10.0%the previous year. This is higher than the national average of 6.2%. Similarly, the rate of new jobs added to the city's economy lagged behind the national job growth. In 2014, about 8,800 jobs were added to the city's economy. Sectors with the largest number of jobs added were in education and health services, leisure and hospitality, and professional and business services. Declines were seen in the city's manufacturing and government sectors.
Which is the biggest historical sites?
572ab07b111d821400f38ccc
Independence National Historical Park
105
False
How many UNESCO sites does the U.S. have?
572ab07b111d821400f38ccd
22 UNESCO World Heritage Sites
214
False
Where was the Declaration of Independence signed?
572ab07b111d821400f38cce
Independence National Historical Park
105
False
What famous bell is in Philadelphia?
572ab07b111d821400f38ccf
the Liberty Bell
319
False
What famous writer has a house in Philadelphia?
572ab07b111d821400f38cd0
Edgar Allan Poe
415
False
Philadelphia is home to many national historical sites that relate to the founding of the United States. Independence National Historical Park is the center of these historical landmarks being one of the country's 22 UNESCO World Heritage Sites. Independence Hall, where the Declaration of Independence was signed, and the Liberty Bell are the city's most famous attractions. Other historic sites include homes for Edgar Allan Poe, Betsy Ross, and Thaddeus Kosciuszko, early government buildings like the First and Second Banks of the United States, Fort Mifflin, and the Gloria Dei (Old Swedes') Church. Philadelphia alone has 67 National Historic Landmarks, the third most of any city in the country.
Name the archaeology museum?
572ab21534ae481900deac43
University of Pennsylvania Museum of Archaeology and Anthropology
185
False
Name a museum named after a founding father?
572ab21534ae481900deac44
Franklin Institute
49
False
Which city had the nations first zoo?
572ab21534ae481900deac45
Philadelphia
648
False
Name Philidelphia's largest park?
572ab21534ae481900deac46
Fairmount Park
726
False
Philadelphia's major science museums include the Franklin Institute, which contains the Benjamin Franklin National Memorial; the Academy of Natural Sciences; the Mütter Museum; and the University of Pennsylvania Museum of Archaeology and Anthropology. History museums include the National Constitution Center, the Atwater Kent Museum of Philadelphia History, the National Museum of American Jewish History, the African American Museum in Philadelphia, the Historical Society of Pennsylvania, the Grand Lodge of Free and Accepted Masons in the state of Pennsylvania and The Masonic Library and Museum of Pennsylvania and Eastern State Penitentiary. Philadelphia is home to the United States' first zoo and hospital, as well as Fairmount Park, one of America's oldest and largest urban parks.
Name the accent spoken in the area?
572ab2ac34ae481900deac55
The Philadelphia dialect
0
False
Which dialect is it similar to?
572ab2ac34ae481900deac56
Baltimore dialect
181
False
What other city is similar to Philadelphia's accent?
572ab2ac34ae481900deac57
New York
302
False
Who studies the accent at the University of Pennsylvania?
572ab2ac34ae481900deac58
William Labov
469
False
The Philadelphia dialect, which is spread throughout the Delaware Valley and South Jersey, is part of Mid-Atlantic American English, and as such it is identical in many ways to the Baltimore dialect. Unlike the Baltimore dialect, however, the Philadelphia accent also shares many similarities with the New York accent. Thanks to over a century of linguistics data collected by researchers at the University of Pennsylvania, the Philadelphia dialect under sociolinguist William Labov has been one of the best-studied forms of American English.[f]
Name two districts with good night life?
572ab36d34ae481900deac5d
South Street and Old City
14
False
What is the home of the orchestra?
572ab36d34ae481900deac5e
Kimmel Center for the Performing Arts
157
False
What is the countries oldest opera house?
572ab36d34ae481900deac5f
Academy of Music
323
False
Who uses the opera house?
572ab36d34ae481900deac60
Opera Company of Philadelphia and the Pennsylvania Ballet
408
False
What is the oldest theater in the U.S.?
572ab36d34ae481900deac61
Walnut Street Theatre
655
False
Areas such as South Street and Old City have a vibrant night life. The Avenue of the Arts in Center City contains many restaurants and theaters, such as the Kimmel Center for the Performing Arts, which is home to the Philadelphia Orchestra, generally considered one of the top five orchestras in the United States, and the Academy of Music, the nation's oldest continually operating opera house, home to the Opera Company of Philadelphia and the Pennsylvania Ballet. The Wilma Theatre and Philadelphia Theatre Company have new buildings constructed in the last decade on the avenue. They produce a variety of new works. Several blocks to the east are the Walnut Street Theatre, America's oldest theatre and the largest subscription theater in the world; as well as the Lantern Theatre at St. Stephens Church, one of a number of smaller venues.
Which American city has the most public art?
572ab3f434ae481900deac6d
Philadelphia
0
False
What was the Assoc. for Public Art called in the past?
572ab3f434ae481900deac6e
Fairmount Park Art Association
117
False
How many pieces of art were funded by the Percent for Art ordinance?
572ab3f434ae481900deac6f
more than 200
423
False
Philadelphia has more public art than any other American city. In 1872, the Association for Public Art (formerly the Fairmount Park Art Association) was created, the first private association in the United States dedicated to integrating public art and urban planning. In 1959, lobbying by the Artists Equity Association helped create the Percent for Art ordinance, the first for a U.S. city. The program, which has funded more than 200 pieces of public art, is administered by the Philadelphia Office of Arts and Culture, the city's art agency.
Name a type of music from the 70's that influenced the nation?
572ab4c1f75d5e190021fc5c
Philadelphia soul
88
False
What concert did Philly host on July13th, 1985?
572ab4c1f75d5e190021fc5d
Live Aid
213
False
What is the name of the stadium that held Live Aid?
572ab4c1f75d5e190021fc5e
John F. Kennedy Stadium
233
False
Name a hip/hop artist from the city?
572ab4c1f75d5e190021fc5f
The Roots, DJ Jazzy Jeff & The Fresh Prince, The Goats, Freeway, Schoolly D, Eve, and Lisa "Left Eye" Lopes
783
False
Philadelphia artists have had a prominent national role in popular music. In the 1970s, Philadelphia soul influenced the music of that and later eras. On July 13, 1985, Philadelphia hosted the American end of the Live Aid concert at John F. Kennedy Stadium. The city reprised this role for the Live 8 concert, bringing some 700,000 people to the Ben Franklin Parkway on July 2, 2005. Philadelphia is home to the world-renowned Philadelphia Boys Choir & Chorale, which has performed its music all over the world. Dr. Robert G. Hamilton, founder of the choir, is a notable native Philadelphian. The Philly Pops is another famous Philadelphia music group. The city has played a major role in the development and support of American rock music and rap music. Hip-hop/Rap artists such as The Roots, DJ Jazzy Jeff & The Fresh Prince, The Goats, Freeway, Schoolly D, Eve, and Lisa "Left Eye" Lopes hail from the city.
What water sport is popular in the city?
572ab5c7be1ee31400cb81b3
Rowing
0
False
What is the symbol of rowing in the city?
572ab5c7be1ee31400cb81b4
Boathouse Row
64
False
What is the name of the big rowing races?
572ab5c7be1ee31400cb81b5
Dad Vail Regatta, the largest intercollegiate rowing event in the U.S, the Stotesbury Cup Regatta, and the Head of the Schuylkill Regatta
278
False
Where are these races held?
572ab5c7be1ee31400cb81b6
Schuylkill River
446
False
Rowing has been popular in Philadelphia since the 18th century. Boathouse Row is a symbol of Philadelphia's rich rowing history, and each Big Five member has its own boathouse. Philadelphia hosts numerous local and collegiate rowing clubs and competitions, including the annual Dad Vail Regatta, the largest intercollegiate rowing event in the U.S, the Stotesbury Cup Regatta, and the Head of the Schuylkill Regatta, all of which are held on the Schuylkill River. The regattas are hosted and organized by the Schuylkill Navy, an association of area rowing clubs that has produced numerous Olympic rowers.
What type of government does Philadelphia have?
572ab678f75d5e190021fc64
strong-mayor version of the mayor-council
18
False
How many terms can a mayor serve?
572ab678f75d5e190021fc65
two consecutive four-year terms
191
False
Who is the current mayor?
572ab678f75d5e190021fc66
Jim Kenney
334
False
What party does the mayor represent?
572ab678f75d5e190021fc67
Democratic Party
499
False
What is the legislative branch called?
572ab678f75d5e190021fc68
Philadelphia City Council
690
False
The city uses the strong-mayor version of the mayor-council form of government, which is headed by one mayor, in whom executive authority is vested. Elected at-large, the mayor is limited to two consecutive four-year terms under the city's home rule charter, but can run for the position again after an intervening term. The Mayor is Jim Kenney, who replaced Michael Nutter, who served two terms from 2009 to January 2016. Kenney, as all Philadelphia mayors have been since 1952, is a member of the Democratic Party, which tends to dominate local politics so thoroughly that the Democratic Mayoral primary is often more widely covered than the general election. The legislative branch, the Philadelphia City Council, consists of ten council members representing individual districts and seven members elected at large. Democrats currently hold 14 seats, with Republicans representing two allotted at-large seats for the minority party, as well as the Northeast-based Tenth District. The current council president is Darrell Clarke.
What is the main trial court called?
572ab70bbe1ee31400cb81cd
The Philadelphia County Court of Common Pleas (First Judicial District)
0
False
What type of cases are heard here?
572ab70bbe1ee31400cb81ce
felony-level criminal cases and civil suits above the minimum jurisdictional limit of $7000
141
False
How are judges appointed?
572ab70bbe1ee31400cb81cf
elected by the voters
608
False
Who was the last Republican DA?
572ab70bbe1ee31400cb81d0
Ron Castille
800
False
The Philadelphia County Court of Common Pleas (First Judicial District) is the trial court of general jurisdiction for Philadelphia, hearing felony-level criminal cases and civil suits above the minimum jurisdictional limit of $7000 (excepting small claims cases valued between $7000 and $12000 and landlord-tenant issues heard in the Municipal Court) under its original jurisdiction; it also has appellate jurisdiction over rulings from the Municipal and Traffic Courts and over decisions of certain Pennsylvania state agencies (e.g. the Pennsylvania Liquor Control Board). It has 90 legally trained judges elected by the voters. It is funded and operated largely by city resources and employees. The current District Attorney is Seth Williams, a Democrat. The last Republican to hold the office is Ron Castille, who left in 1991 and is currently the Chief Justice of the Pennsylvania Supreme Court.
What party dominated until the mid-20th century
572ab7b334ae481900deac7f
Republican Party
90
False
What happened in Philadelphia in 1856?
572ab7b334ae481900deac80
Philadelphia was chosen as the host city for the first Republican National Convention in 1856
208
False
When did the Democrats take the city?
572ab7b334ae481900deac81
1936
703
False
Who won the most votes in the city in '08?
572ab7b334ae481900deac82
Barack Obama
859
False
From the American Civil War until the mid-20th century, Philadelphia was a bastion of the Republican Party, which arose from the staunch pro-Northern views of Philadelphia residents during and after the war (Philadelphia was chosen as the host city for the first Republican National Convention in 1856). After the Great Depression, Democratic registrations increased, but the city was not carried by Democrat Franklin D. Roosevelt in his landslide victory of 1932 (in which Pennsylvania was one of the few states won by Republican Herbert Hoover). Four years later, however, voter turnout surged and the city finally flipped to the Democrats. Roosevelt carried Philadelphia with over 60% of the vote in 1936. The city has remained loyally Democratic in every presidential election since. It is now one of the most Democratic in the country; in 2008, Democrat Barack Obama drew 83% of the city's vote. Obama's win was even greater in 2012, capturing 85% of the vote.
How many congressional districts are there in the city?
572aba19f75d5e190021fc78
four
130
False
How many congressional districts were there at the peak population?
572aba19f75d5e190021fc79
six
28
False
Who represents the 8th district?
572aba19f75d5e190021fc7a
Mike Fitzpatrick
242
False
When was the last major Republican representation of a large part of the city?
572aba19f75d5e190021fc7b
1983
589
False
Who was the last Republican to be fairly competitive in the mayoral race?
572aba19f75d5e190021fc7c
Sam Katz
599
False
Philadelphia once comprised six congressional districts. However, as a result of the city's declining population, it now has only four: the 1st district, represented by Bob Brady; the 2nd, represented by Chaka Fattah; the 8th, represented by Mike Fitzpatrick; and the 13th, represented by Brendan Boyle. All but Fitzpatrick are Democrats. Although they are usually swamped by Democrats in city, state and national elections, Republicans still have some support in the area, primarily in the northeast. A Republican represented a significant portion of Philadelphia in the House as late as 1983, and Sam Katz ran competitive mayoral races as the Republican nominee in both 1999 and 2003.
Did the crime rate go up or down after the War years?
572abae4be1ee31400cb81db
pronounced rise in crime in the years following World War II
58
False
How many murders occurred in 1990?
572abae4be1ee31400cb81dc
525
131
False
What was the average murder rate during the 90's?
572abae4be1ee31400cb81dd
600
211
False
How many murders occurred in 2013?
572abae4be1ee31400cb81de
246
463
False
Like many American cities, Philadelphia saw a gradual yet pronounced rise in crime in the years following World War II. There were 525 murders in 1990, a rate of 31.5 per 100,000. There were an average of about 600 murders a year for most of the 1990s. The murder count dropped in 2002 to 288, then rose four years later to 406 in 2006 and 392 in 2007. A few years later, Philadelphia began to see a rapid drop in homicides and violent crime. In 2013, there were 246 murders, which is a decrease of over 25% from the previous year, and a decrease of over 44% since 2007. And in 2014, there were 248 homicides, up by one since 2013.
When did shootings peak in the city?
572abb9d34ae481900deac91
2006
114
False
How many shootings were there in that year?
572abb9d34ae481900deac92
1,857
124
False
Has violent crime rate fallen or risen in the last 10 years?
572abb9d34ae481900deac93
fell
424
False
What rank in danger does Philadelphia have in the U.S.?
572abb9d34ae481900deac94
54th
764
False
The number of shootings in the city has declined significantly in the last 10 years. Shooting incidents peaked in 2006 when 1,857 shootings were recorded. That number has dropped 44 percent to 1,047 shootings in 2014. Similarly, major crimes in the city has decreased gradually in the last ten years since its peak in 2006 when 85,498 major crimes were reported. In the past three years, the number of reported major crimes fell 11 percent to a total of 68,815. Violent crimes, which include homicide, rape, aggravated assault, and robbery, decreased 14 percent in the past three years with a reported 15,771 occurrences in 2014. Based on the rate of violent crimes per 1,000 residents in American cities with 25,000 people or more, Philadelphia was ranked as the 54th most dangerous city in 2015.
Has public school enrollment dropped or increased in the last 5 years?
572abf9af75d5e190021fc96
dropped
55
False
How many public schools have been closed in 2013?
572abf9af75d5e190021fc97
24
340
False
How much does the city spend per year per child?
572abf9af75d5e190021fc98
$12,570
432
False
The city's K-12 enrollment in district run schools has dropped in the last five years from 156,211 students in 2010 to 130,104 students in 2015. During the same time period, the enrollment in charter schools has increased from 33,995 students in 2010 to 62,358 students in 2015. This consistent drop in enrollment has led the city to close 24 of its public schools in 2013. During the 2014 school year, the city spent an average of $12,570 per pupil, below the average among comparable urban school districts.
Have grad rates fallen or increased in the last years?
572ac054111d821400f38d1e
increased
70
False
What was the grad rate in 2005?
572ac054111d821400f38d1f
52%
159
False
What was it in 2014?
572ac054111d821400f38d20
65%
193
False
Is that the above or below the national average?
572ac054111d821400f38d21
below the national and state averages
212
False
Graduation rates among district-run schools, meanwhile, have steadily increased in the last ten years. In 2005, Philadelphia had a district graduation rate of 52%. This number has increased to 65% in 2014, still below the national and state averages. Scores on the state's standardized test, the Pennsylvania System of School Assessment (PSSA) have trended upward from 2005 to 2011 but have decreased since. In 2005, the district-run schools scored an average of 37.4% on math and 35.5% on reading. The city's schools reached its peak scores in 2011 with 59.0% on math and 52.3% on reading. In 2014, the scores dropped significantly to 45.2% on math and 42.0% on reading.
What is the largest private institution in the city?
572ac0f434ae481900deacb3
Temple University
59
False
What are the 3 research universities in the city?
572ac0f434ae481900deacb4
University of Pennsylvania, Temple University and Drexel University
124
False
How many med schools are there?
572ac0f434ae481900deacb5
five
265
False
The city's largest private school by number of students is Temple University, followed by Drexel University. Along with the University of Pennsylvania, Temple University and Drexel University make up the city's major research universities. The city is also home to five schools of medicine: Drexel University College of Medicine, Perelman School of Medicine at the University of Pennsylvania, Philadelphia College of Osteopathic Medicine, Temple University School of Medicine, and the Thomas Jefferson University. Hospitals, universities, and higher education research institutions in Philadelphia's four congressional districts received more than $252 million in National Institutes of Health grants in 2015.
How many major papers are published?
572ac19f111d821400f38d26
two
15
False
What is the 3rd oldest paper in the nation?
572ac19f111d821400f38d27
Philadelphia Inquirer
50
False
Who owns the major papers in the city?
572ac19f111d821400f38d28
Interstate General Media
486
False
Philadelphia's two major daily newspapers are The Philadelphia Inquirer, which is the eighteenth largest newspaper and third-oldest surviving daily newspaper in the country, and the Philadelphia Daily News. Both newspapers were purchased from The McClatchy Company (after buying out Knight Ridder) in 2006 by Philadelphia Media Holdings and operated by the group until the organization declared bankruptcy in 2010. After two years of financial struggle, the two newspapers were sold to Interstate General Media in 2012. The two newspapers have a combined circulation of about 500,000 readers.
Name a smaller newspaper?
572ac228111d821400f38d2c
Philadelphia Tribune
96
False
What community does the Tribune serve?
572ac228111d821400f38d2d
African-American community
135
False
What paper serves the LGBT community?
572ac228111d821400f38d2e
Philadelphia Gay News
330
False
Name a Jewish newspaper?
572ac228111d821400f38d2f
The Jewish Exponent
388
False
The city also has a number of other, smaller newspapers and magazine in circulation such as the Philadelphia Tribune, which serves the African-American community, the Philadelphia, a monthly regional magazine; Philadelphia Weekly, an weekly-printed alternative newspaper; Philadelphia City Paper another weekly-printed newspaper; Philadelphia Gay News, which services the LGBT community; The Jewish Exponent a weekly-printed newspaper servicing the Jewish community; Philadelphia Metro, free daily newspaper; and Al Día, a weekly newspaper servicing the Latino community.
Where was the first radio license granted?
572ac2a9be1ee31400cb821b
St. Joseph's College
82
False
When did the first radio stations appear?
572ac2a9be1ee31400cb821c
1922
165
False
Name the 3 public radio stations?
572ac2a9be1ee31400cb821d
WHYY-FM (NPR), WRTI (jazz, classical), and WXPN-FM
484
False
The first experimental radio license was issued in Philadelphia in August 1912 to St. Joseph's College. The first commercial broadcasting radio stations appeared in 1922: first WIP, then owned by Gimbel's department store, on March 17, followed the same year by WFIL, WOO, WCAU and WDAS. The highest-rated stations in Philadelphia include soft rock WBEB, KYW Newsradio, and urban adult contemporary WDAS-FM. Philadelphia is served by three major non-commercial public radio stations, WHYY-FM (NPR), WRTI (jazz, classical), and WXPN-FM (adult alternative music), as well as several smaller stations.
Who owned W3XE?
572ac3ddbe1ee31400cb8221
Philco
54
False
When did it become NBC's first affiliate?
572ac3ddbe1ee31400cb8222
1939
150
False
What show started out in the city?
572ac3ddbe1ee31400cb8223
Bandstand
325
False
In the 1930s, the experimental station W3XE, owned by Philco, became the first television station in Philadelphia; it became NBC's first affiliate in 1939, and later became KYW-TV (CBS). WCAU-TV, WPVI-TV, WHYY-TV, WPHL-TV, and WTXF-TV had all been founded by the 1970s. In 1952, WFIL (now WPVI) premiered the television show Bandstand, which later became the nationally broadcast American Bandstand hosted by Dick Clark. Today, as in many large metropolitan areas, each of the commercial networks has an affiliate, and call letters have been replaced by corporate IDs: CBS3, 6ABC, NBC10, Fox29, Telefutura28, Telemundo62, Univision65, plus My PHL 17 and CW Philly 57. The region is served also by public broadcasting stations WYBE-TV (Philadelphia), WHYY-TV (Wilmington, Delaware and Philadelphia), WLVT-TV (Lehigh Valley), and NJTV (New Jersey). In September 2007, Philadelphia approved a Public-access television cable TV channel.
When did SEPTA service get cut?
572ac493111d821400f38d46
1981
3
False
Why did SEPTA rail service get cut?
572ac493111d821400f38d47
lack of funding
119
False
Has service ever been restored?
572ac493111d821400f38d48
but lack of funding has again been the chief obstacle to implementation
216
False
Name a proposed project to repalce it?
572ac493111d821400f38d49
Schuylkill Valley Metro to Wyomissing, PA, and extension of the Media/Elwyn line back to Wawa, PA. SEPTA's Airport Regional Rail Line Regional Rail
325
False
In 1981, large sections of the SEPTA Regional Rail service to the far suburbs of Philadelphia were discontinued due to lack of funding. Several projects have been proposed to extend rail service back to these areas, but lack of funding has again been the chief obstacle to implementation. These projects include the proposed Schuylkill Valley Metro to Wyomissing, PA, and extension of the Media/Elwyn line back to Wawa, PA. SEPTA's Airport Regional Rail Line Regional Rail offers direct service to the Philadelphia International Airport.
Name the main airport?
572ac56b111d821400f38d4e
Philadelphia International Airport (PHL)
37
False
Where does PHL rank in the list of busiest airports?
572ac56b111d821400f38d4f
15th
456
False
What airline uses this airport as its primary international hub?
572ac56b111d821400f38d50
American Airlines
618
False
Two airports serve Philadelphia: the Philadelphia International Airport (PHL), straddling the southern boundary of the city, and the Northeast Philadelphia Airport (PNE), a general aviation reliever airport in Northeast Philadelphia. Philadelphia International Airport provides scheduled domestic and international air service, while Northeast Philadelphia Airport serves general and corporate aviation. In 2013, Philadelphia International Airport was the 15th busiest airport in the world measured by traffic movements (i.e. takeoffs and landings). It is also the second largest hub and primary international hub for American Airlines.
What is the main north-south freeway called?
572ac614f75d5e190021fcc2
Delaware Expressway
103
False
What is part of I-76 called?
572ac614f75d5e190021fcc3
Schuylkill Expressway
155
False
When was the Vine Street Expressway finished?
572ac614f75d5e190021fcc4
1991
435
False
Name a bridge in the city?
572ac614f75d5e190021fcc5
Ben Franklin Bridge
561
False
Interstate 95 runs through the city along the Delaware River as a main north-south artery known as the Delaware Expressway. The city is also served by the Schuylkill Expressway, a portion of Interstate 76 that runs along the Schuylkill River. It meets the Pennsylvania Turnpike at King of Prussia, Pennsylvania, providing access to Harrisburg, Pennsylvania and points west. Interstate 676, the Vine Street Expressway, was completed in 1991 after years of planning. A link between I-95 and I-76, it runs below street level through Center City, connecting to the Ben Franklin Bridge at its eastern end.
What is another name for the Roosevelt Expressway?
572ac73df75d5e190021fcca
U.S. 1
50
False
When was Woodhaven road built?
572ac73df75d5e190021fccb
1966
143
False
What neighborhoods does Cottman Avenue serve?
572ac73df75d5e190021fccc
Northeast Philadelphia,
206
False
What is another name for The Fort Washington Expressway?
572ac73df75d5e190021fccd
Route 309
330
False
What is US-30 also known as?
572ac73df75d5e190021fcce
Lancaster Avenue
510
False
Roosevelt Boulevard and the Roosevelt Expressway (U.S. 1) connect Northeast Philadelphia with Center City. Woodhaven Road (Route 63), built in 1966, and Cottman Avenue (Route 73) serve the neighborhoods of Northeast Philadelphia, running between Interstate 95 and the Roosevelt Boulevard (U.S. 1). The Fort Washington Expressway (Route 309) extends north from the city's northern border, serving Montgomery County and Bucks County. U.S. 30, extending east-west from West Philadelphia to Lancaster, is known as Lancaster Avenue throughout most of the city and through the adjacent Main Line suburbs.
What bus line uses the city as a hub?
572ac830be1ee31400cb822f
Greyhound Lines
37
False
Where is Greyhound terminal located?
572ac830be1ee31400cb8230
1001 Filbert Street
235
False
How many other bus companies operate from Philadelphia?
572ac830be1ee31400cb8231
six
463
False
What is the name of the six bus companies?
572ac830be1ee31400cb8232
Bieber Tourways, Capitol Trailways, Martz Trailways, Peter Pan Bus Lines, Susquehanna Trailways, and the bus division for New Jersey Transit
542
False
Philadelphia is also a major hub for Greyhound Lines, which operates 24-hour service to points east of the Mississippi River. Most of Greyhound's services in Philadelphia operate to/from the Philadelphia Greyhound Terminal, located at 1001 Filbert Street in Center City Philadelphia. In 2006, the Philadelphia Greyhound Terminal was the second busiest Greyhound terminal in the United States, after the Port Authority Bus Terminal in New York. Besides Greyhound, six other bus operators provide service to the Center City Greyhound terminal: Bieber Tourways, Capitol Trailways, Martz Trailways, Peter Pan Bus Lines, Susquehanna Trailways, and the bus division for New Jersey Transit. Other services include Megabus and Bolt Bus.
Name 2 rail companies that use the city as a hub?
572ac94d111d821400f38d6e
Pennsylvania Railroad and the Reading Railroad
143
False
Where did the Pennsylvania Railroad have their first station?
572ac94d111d821400f38d6f
Broad Street Station
232
False
Where did the Reading operate out of?
572ac94d111d821400f38d70
Reading Terminal
342
False
What is Reading Terminal called now?
572ac94d111d821400f38d71
Pennsylvania Convention Center
376
False
Since the early days of rail transport in the United States, Philadelphia has served as hub for several major rail companies, particularly the Pennsylvania Railroad and the Reading Railroad. The Pennsylvania Railroad first operated Broad Street Station, then 30th Street Station and Suburban Station, and the Reading Railroad operated out of Reading Terminal, now part of the Pennsylvania Convention Center. The two companies also operated competing commuter rail systems in the area, known collectively as the Regional Rail system. The two systems today, for the most part still intact but now connected, operate as a single system under the control of the SEPTA, the regional transit authority. Additionally, the PATCO Speedline subway system and NJ Transit's Atlantic City Line operate successor services to southern New Jersey.
What was the first water supply system called?
572ac9f434ae481900deacd7
Fairmount Water Works,
52
False
Who provides the city water now?
572ac9f434ae481900deacd8
Philadelphia Water Department
238
False
Where dos PWD get it's water from?
572ac9f434ae481900deacd9
Delaware River and the balance from the Schuylkill River
455
False
How many pumping stations are there in the sewer system?
572ac9f434ae481900deacda
21
592
False
How many miles of sewers are in the city?
572ac9f434ae481900deacdb
3,657 miles
623
False
Historically, Philadelphia sourced its water by the Fairmount Water Works, the nation's first major urban water supply system. In 1909, Water Works was decommissioned as the city transitioned to modern sand filtration methods. Today, the Philadelphia Water Department (PWD) provides drinking water, wastewater collection, and stormwater services for Philadelphia, as well as surrounding counties. PWD draws about 57 percent of its drinking water from the Delaware River and the balance from the Schuylkill River. The public wastewater system consists of three water pollution control plants, 21 pumping stations, and about 3,657 miles of sewers. A 2007 investigation by the Environmental Protection Agency found elevated levels of Iodine-131 in the city's potable water.[citation needed] In 2012, the EPA's readings discovered that the city had the highest readings of I-131 in the nation. The city campaigned against an Associated Press report that the high levels of I-131 were the results of local gas drilling in the Upper Delaware River.[citation needed]
What is the largest city owned gas utility?
572aca7d111d821400f38d76
Philadelphia Gas Works
0
False
How many homes does PGW serve?
572aca7d111d821400f38d77
500,000
164
False
When was PGW founded?
572aca7d111d821400f38d78
1836
230
False
When did the city take PGW over?
572aca7d111d821400f38d79
1987
277
False
Philadelphia Gas Works (PGW), overseen by the Pennsylvania Public Utility Commission, is the nation's largest municipally owned natural gas utility. It serves over 500,000 homes and businesses in the Philadelphia area. Founded in 1836, the company came under city ownership in 1987 and has been providing the majority of gas distributed within city limits. In 2014, the Philadelphia City Council refused to conduct hearings on a $1.86 billion sale of PGW, part of a two-year effort that was proposed by the mayor. The refusal led to the prospective buyer terminating its offer.
What area code is used in Philadelphia in 1947?
572acb2b34ae481900deacf5
215
43
False
When was the 610 area code added?
572acb2b34ae481900deacf6
1994
211
False
When was the 267 added?
572acb2b34ae481900deacf7
1997
361
False
Southeastern Pennsylvania was assigned the 215 area code in 1947 when the North American Numbering Plan of the "Bell System" went into effect. The geographic area covered by the code was split nearly in half in 1994 when area code 610 was created, with the city and its northern suburbs retaining 215. Overlay area code 267 was added to the 215 service area in 1997, and 484 was added to the 610 area in 1999. A plan in 2001 to introduce a third overlay code to both service areas (area code 445 to 215, area code 835 to 610) was delayed and later rescinded.
What city in Poland is a sister city to Philadelphia?
572acbfe111d821400f38d7e
Toruń
366
False
What city in Israel is a sister city to Philadelphia?
572acbfe111d821400f38d7f
Tel Aviv
227
False
When was Torun triangle built?
572acbfe111d821400f38d80
1976
400
False
What else does the Triangle contain?
572acbfe111d821400f38d81
Copernicus monument
527
False
How many sister cities does Philadelphia have?
572acbfe111d821400f38d82
ten
713
False
Philadelphia has dedicated landmarks to its sister cities. Dedicated in June 1976, the Sister Cities Plaza, a site of 0.5 acres (2,000 m2) located at 18th and Benjamin Franklin Parkway, honors Philadelphia's relationships with Tel Aviv and Florence which were its first sister cities. Another landmark, the Toruń Triangle, honoring the sister city relationship with Toruń, Poland, was constructed in 1976, west of the United Way building at 18th Street and the Benjamin Franklin Parkway. In addition, the Triangle contains the Copernicus monument. Renovations were made to Sister Cities Park in mid-2011 and on May 10, 2012, SCP was reopened and currently features an interactive fountain honoring Philadelphia's ten sister and friendship cities, a café and visitor's center, children's play area, outdoor garden, and boat pond, as well as pavilion built to environmentally friendly standards.
John_Kerry
What was Kerry's major?
572a982b34ae481900deaba3
political science
155
False
Where did Kerry go to college?
572a982b34ae481900deaba4
Yale University
118
False
What branch of the military did Kerry join?
572a982b34ae481900deaba5
Naval Reserve
202
False
What medals did Kerry win?
572a982b34ae481900deaba6
the Silver Star Medal, Bronze Star Medal, and three Purple Heart Medals
413
False
What group was Kerry a spokesman for?
572a982b34ae481900deaba7
Vietnam Veterans Against the War
550
False
Kerry was born in Aurora, Colorado and attended boarding school in Massachusetts and New Hampshire. He graduated from Yale University class of 1966 with a political science major. Kerry enlisted in the Naval Reserve in 1966, and during 1968–1969 served an abbreviated four-month tour of duty in South Vietnam as officer-in-charge (OIC) of a Swift Boat. For that service, he was awarded combat medals that include the Silver Star Medal, Bronze Star Medal, and three Purple Heart Medals. Securing an early return to the United States, Kerry joined the Vietnam Veterans Against the War organization in which he served as a nationally recognized spokesman and as an outspoken opponent of the Vietnam War. He appeared in the Fulbright Hearings before the Senate Committee on Foreign Affairs where he deemed United States war policy in Vietnam to be the cause of war crimes.
Where did Kerry get a law degree?
572a988c111d821400f38c14
Boston College Law School
30
False
Who was Kerry an Lt. Gov. for?
572a988c111d821400f38c15
Michael Dukakis
178
False
When did Kerry become a Senator?
572a988c111d821400f38c16
1984
250
False
Where was Kerry an Lt. Gov.?
572a988c111d821400f38c17
Massachusetts
158
False
When was Kerry an Lt. Gov.?
572a988c111d821400f38c18
from 1983 to 1985
194
False
After receiving his J.D. from Boston College Law School, Kerry worked in Massachusetts as an Assistant District Attorney. He served as Lieutenant Governor of Massachusetts under Michael Dukakis from 1983 to 1985 and was elected to the U.S. Senate in 1984 and was sworn in the following January. On the Senate Foreign Relations Committee, he led a series of hearings from 1987 to 1989 which were a precursor to the Iran–Contra affair. Kerry was re-elected to additional terms in 1990, 1996, 2002 and 2008. In 2002, Kerry voted to authorize the President "to use force, if necessary, to disarm Saddam Hussein", but warned that the administration should exhaust its diplomatic avenues before launching war.
When did Kerry run for president?
572a98e6111d821400f38c1e
2004
7
False
Who was Kerry's running mate?
572a98e6111d821400f38c1f
John Edwards
133
False
How much did Kerry lose by?
572a98e6111d821400f38c20
35 electoral votes
176
False
Who was Bush's running mate?
572a98e6111d821400f38c21
Dick Cheney
226
False
In his 2004 presidential campaign, Kerry criticized George W. Bush for the Iraq War. He and his running mate, North Carolina Senator John Edwards, lost the election, finishing 35 electoral votes behind Bush and Vice President Dick Cheney. Kerry returned to the Senate, becoming Chairman of the Senate Committee on Small Business and Entrepreneurship in 2007 and then of the Foreign Relations Committee in 2009. In January 2013, Kerry was nominated by President Barack Obama to succeed outgoing Secretary of State Hillary Clinton and then confirmed by the U.S. Senate, assuming the office on February 1, 2013.
What is Kerry's middle name?
572a992f111d821400f38c28
Forbes
5
False
At what facility was Kerry born?
572a992f111d821400f38c29
Fitzsimons Army Hospital
72
False
What was Kerry's father's religion?
572a992f111d821400f38c2a
Catholic
285
False
What was Kerry's mother's religion?
572a992f111d821400f38c2b
Episcopalian
413
False
What is Kerry's older sibling's name?
572a992f111d821400f38c2c
Margaret
468
False
John Forbes Kerry was born on December 11, 1943 in Aurora, Colorado, at Fitzsimons Army Hospital. He was the second oldest of four children born to Richard John Kerry, a Foreign Service officer and lawyer, and Rosemary Isabel Forbes, a nurse and social activist. His father was raised Catholic (John's paternal grandparents were Austro-Hungarian Jewish immigrants who converted to Catholicism) and his mother was Episcopalian. He was raised with an elder sister named Margaret (born 1941), a younger sister named Diana (born 1947) and a younger brother named Cameron (born 1950). The children were raised in their father's faith; John Kerry served as an altar boy.
What was Kerry's role in the Yale Political Union as a junior?
572a9989111d821400f38c32
President of the Union
129
False
What secret society did Kerry join?
572a9989111d821400f38c33
Skull and Bones Society
518
False
What country did Kerry visit as a student?
572a9989111d821400f38c34
Switzerland
559
False
Who was Kerry's most influential professor?
572a9989111d821400f38c35
H. Bradford Westerfield
215
False
What was Kerry's role in the Yale Political Union as a sophomore?
572a9989111d821400f38c36
Chairman of the Liberal Party
40
False
In his sophomore year, Kerry became the Chairman of the Liberal Party of the Yale Political Union, and a year later he served as President of the Union. Amongst his influential teachers in this period was Professor H. Bradford Westerfield, who was himself a former President of the Political Union. His involvement with the Political Union gave him an opportunity to be involved with important issues of the day, such as the civil rights movement and the New Frontier program. He also became a member of the secretive Skull and Bones Society, and traveled to Switzerland through AIESEC Yale.
When did Kerry join the Naval Reserve?
572a9bb734ae481900deabc9
February 18, 1966
3
False
When did Kerry become a navy officer?
572a9bb734ae481900deabca
December 16, 1966
278
False
How long was Officer Candidate School?
572a9bb734ae481900deabcb
16 weeks
138
False
Where is the Navy training center?
572a9bb734ae481900deabcc
Newport, Rhode Island
212
False
On February 18, 1966, Kerry enlisted in the Naval Reserve. He began his active duty military service on August 19, 1966. After completing 16 weeks of Officer Candidate School at the U.S. Naval Training Center in Newport, Rhode Island, Kerry received his officer's commission on December 16, 1966. During the 2004 election, Kerry posted his military records at his website, and permitted reporters to inspect his medical records. In 2005, Kerry released his military and medical records to the representatives of three news organizations, but has not authorized full public access to those records.
When did Kerry publish his memories of Vietnam?
572aa3c1111d821400f38c68
1986
445
False
What kind of ship was the USS Gridley?
572aa3c1111d821400f38c69
guided missile frigate
23
False
What was the formal name of 'swift boats'?
572aa3c1111d821400f38c6a
Fast Patrol Craft
163
False
How long were swift boats?
572aa3c1111d821400f38c6b
50-foot
224
False
What had Kerry expected the 'swift boats' to do?
572aa3c1111d821400f38c6c
coastal patrolling
552
False
During his tour on the guided missile frigate USS Gridley, Kerry requested duty in South Vietnam, listing as his first preference a position as the commander of a Fast Patrol Craft (PCF), also known as a "Swift boat." These 50-foot (15 m) boats have aluminum hulls and have little or no armor, but are heavily armed and rely on speed. "I didn't really want to get involved in the war", Kerry said in a book of Vietnam reminiscences published in 1986. "When I signed up for the swift boats, they had very little to do with the war. They were engaged in coastal patrolling and that's what I thought I was going to be doing." However, his second choice of billet was on a river patrol boat, or "PBR", which at the time was serving a more dangerous duty on the rivers of Vietnam.
Where was Kerry's boat on Dec 2-3, 1968?
572aa47534ae481900deabf1
near a peninsula north of Cam Ranh Bay
116
False
How many crew were with Kerry?
572aa47534ae481900deabf2
two
219
False
Who were in Kerry's crew?
572aa47534ae481900deabf3
Patrick Runyon and William Zaladonis
263
False
What did Kerry's crew destroy?
572aa47534ae481900deabf4
sampans
491
False
Where was Kerry injured?
572aa47534ae481900deabf5
in the left arm above the elbow
593
False
During the night of December 2 and early morning of December 3, 1968, Kerry was in charge of a small boat operating near a peninsula north of Cam Ranh Bay together with a Swift boat (PCF-60). According to Kerry and the two crewmen who accompanied him that night, Patrick Runyon and William Zaladonis, they surprised a group of Vietnamese men unloading sampans at a river crossing, who began running and failed to obey an order to stop. As the men fled, Kerry and his crew opened fire on the sampans and destroyed them, then rapidly left. During this encounter, Kerry received a shrapnel wound in the left arm above the elbow. It was for this injury that Kerry received his first Purple Heart Medal.
When did Kerry earn his 2nd Purple Heart?
572aa6d4be1ee31400cb810f
February 20, 1969
92
False
Where did Kerry earn his 2nd Purple Heart?
572aa6d4be1ee31400cb8110
on the Bồ Đề River
70
False
What munition hit Kerry's boat?
572aa6d4be1ee31400cb8111
a B-40 rocket
326
False
Where did Kerry's boat escape to safety?
572aa6d4be1ee31400cb8112
Gulf of Thailand
489
False
Kerry received his second Purple Heart for a wound received in action on the Bồ Đề River on February 20, 1969. The plan had been for the Swift boats to be accompanied by support helicopters. On the way up the Bo De, however, the helicopters were attacked. As the Swift boats reached the Cửa Lớn River, Kerry's boat was hit by a B-40 rocket (rocket propelled grenade round), and a piece of shrapnel hit Kerry's left leg, wounding him. Thereafter, enemy fire ceased and his boat reached the Gulf of Thailand safely. Kerry continues to have shrapnel embedded in his left thigh because the doctors that first treated him decided to remove the damaged tissue and close the wound with sutures rather than make a wide opening to remove the shrapnel. Though wounded like several others earlier that day, Kerry did not lose any time off from duty.
When did Kerry earn a Silver Star?
572aa74cbe1ee31400cb8117
February 28, 1969
21
False
Where did Kerry earn a Silver Star?
572aa74cbe1ee31400cb8118
the Duong Keo River
243
False
How many swift boats did Kerry command?
572aa74cbe1ee31400cb8119
his Swift boat and two other Swift boats
158
False
Who awarded the Silver Star to Kerry?
572aa74cbe1ee31400cb811a
Admiral Zumwalt
795
False
What story described the events of Feb 28, 1969?
572aa74cbe1ee31400cb811b
The Death Of PCF 43
425
False
Eight days later, on February 28, 1969, came the events for which Kerry was awarded his Silver Star Medal. On this occasion, Kerry was in tactical command of his Swift boat and two other Swift boats during a combat operation. Their mission on the Duong Keo River included bringing an underwater demolition team and dozens of South Vietnamese Marines to destroy enemy sampans, structures and bunkers as described in the story The Death Of PCF 43. Running into heavy small arms fire from the river banks, Kerry "directed the units to turn to the beach and charge the Viet Cong positions" and he "expertly directed" his boat's fire causing the enemy to flee while at the same time coordinating the insertion of the ninety South Vietnamese troops (according to the original medal citation signed by Admiral Zumwalt). Moving a short distance upstream, Kerry's boat was the target of a B-40 rocket round; Kerry charged the enemy positions and as his boat hove to and beached, a Viet Cong ("VC") insurgent armed with a rocket launcher emerged from a spider hole and ran. While the boat's gunner opened fire, wounding the VC in the leg, and while the other boats approached and offered cover fire, Kerry jumped from the boat to pursue the VC insurgent, subsequently killing him and capturing his loaded rocket launcher.
Who was Kerry's commander?
572aa931f75d5e190021fc0e
Lieutenant Commander George Elliott
28
False
What complaint did Elliot have about Kerry's actions?
572aa931f75d5e190021fc0f
beaching the boat without orders
156
False
Where did Kerry receive his Silver Star?
572aa931f75d5e190021fc10
An Thoi
299
False
When was a press release put out about Kerry earning the Silver Star?
572aa931f75d5e190021fc11
March 1, 1969
581
False
What was released on March 17, 1969?
572aa931f75d5e190021fc12
a historical summary
600
False
Kerry's commanding officer, Lieutenant Commander George Elliott, stated to Douglas Brinkley in 2003 that he did not know whether to court-martial Kerry for beaching the boat without orders or give him a medal for saving the crew. Elliott recommended Kerry for the Silver Star, and Zumwalt flew into An Thoi to personally award medals to Kerry and the rest of the sailors involved in the mission. The Navy's account of Kerry's actions is presented in the original medal citation signed by Zumwalt. The engagement was documented in an after-action report, a press release written on March 1, 1969, and a historical summary dated March 17, 1969.
Where was Kerry on Mar 13, 1969?
572aaad4f75d5e190021fc18
on the Bái Háp River
19
False
On what body part was Kerry wounded on Mar 13, 1969?
572aaad4f75d5e190021fc19
in the buttocks
386
False
What was Kerry doing when he was wounded on Mar 13, 1969?
572aaad4f75d5e190021fc1a
blowing up a rice bunker
407
False
What was the lead boat on Mar 13?
572aaad4f75d5e190021fc1b
PCF-3
747
False
What boat was Kerry on, on Mar 13?
572aaad4f75d5e190021fc1c
PCF-94
635
False
On March 13, 1969, on the Bái Háp River, Kerry was in charge of one of five Swift boats that were returning to their base after performing an Operation Sealords mission to transport South Vietnamese troops from the garrison at Cái Nước and MIKE Force advisors for a raid on a Vietcong camp located on the Rach Dong Cung canal. Earlier in the day, Kerry received a slight shrapnel wound in the buttocks from blowing up a rice bunker. Debarking some but not all of the passengers at a small village, the boats approached a fishing weir; one group of boats went around to the left of the weir, hugging the shore, and a group with Kerry's PCF-94 boat went around to the right, along the shoreline. A mine was detonated directly beneath the lead boat, PCF-3, as it crossed the weir to the left, lifting PCF-3 "about 2-3 ft out of water".
What boat was Rassmann on?
572aab9634ae481900deac0f
PCF-94
61
False
Who fell overboard from Kerry's boat?
572aab9634ae481900deac10
James Rassmann
0
False
What was Rassmann's job?
572aab9634ae481900deac11
a Green Beret advisor
16
False
What medal did Kerry earn for rescuing Rassmann?
572aab9634ae481900deac12
the Bronze Star Medal with Combat "V"
448
False
What does the Combat V mean?
572aab9634ae481900deac13
heroic achievement
491
False
James Rassmann, a Green Beret advisor who was aboard Kerry's PCF-94, was knocked overboard when, according to witnesses and the documentation of the event, a mine or rocket exploded close to the boat. According to the documentation for the event, Kerry's arm was injured when he was thrown against a bulkhead during the explosion. PCF 94 returned to the scene and Kerry rescued Rassmann who was receiving sniper fire from the water. Kerry received the Bronze Star Medal with Combat "V" for "heroic achievement", for his actions during this incident; he also received his third Purple Heart.
Which wound allowed Kerry to leave combat duty?
572aadc2be1ee31400cb8153
third
14
False
Where was Kerry reassigned in April 1969?
572aadc2be1ee31400cb8154
the Brooklyn-based Atlantic Military Sea Transportation Service
255
False
When did Kerry become a lieutenant?
572aadc2be1ee31400cb8155
January 1, 1970
446
False
Who was Kerry a personal aide for?
572aadc2be1ee31400cb8156
Rear Admiral Walter Schlech
414
False
When did Kerry leave the Naval Reserve?
572aadc2be1ee31400cb8157
February 1978
789
False
After Kerry's third qualifying wound, he was entitled per Navy regulations to reassignment away from combat duties. Kerry's preferred choice for reassignment was as a military aide in Boston, New York or Washington, D.C. On April 11, 1969, he reported to the Brooklyn-based Atlantic Military Sea Transportation Service, where he would remain on active duty for the following year as a personal aide to an officer, Rear Admiral Walter Schlech. On January 1, 1970 Kerry was temporarily promoted to full Lieutenant. Kerry had agreed to an extension of his active duty obligation from December 1969 to August 1970 in order to perform Swift Boat duty. John Kerry was on active duty in the United States Navy from August 1966 until January 1970. He continued to serve in the Naval Reserve until February 1978.
Who kept George W. Bush out of Vietnam?
572aaea4111d821400f38ca8
his father
164
False
What military branch was George W. Bush in?
572aaea4111d821400f38ca9
the Texas Air National Guard
217
False
How did Republicans attack Kerry?
572aaea4111d821400f38caa
by calling Kerry's war record into question
515
False
What did SBVT change its name to?
572aaea4111d821400f38cab
Swift Vets and POWs for Truth
703
False
What term was inspired by the attacks on Kerry?
572aaea4111d821400f38cac
swiftboating
1115
False
With the continuing controversy that had surrounded the military service of George W. Bush since the 2000 Presidential election (when he was accused of having used his father's political influence to gain entrance to the Texas Air National Guard, thereby protecting himself from conscription into the United States Army, and possible service in the Vietnam War), John Kerry's contrasting status as a decorated Vietnam War veteran posed a problem for Bush's re-election campaign, which Republicans sought to counter by calling Kerry's war record into question. As the presidential campaign of 2004 developed, approximately 250 members of a group called Swift Boat Veterans for Truth (SBVT, later renamed Swift Vets and POWs for Truth) opposed Kerry's campaign. The group held press conferences, ran ads and endorsed a book questioning Kerry's service record and his military awards. The group included several members of Kerry's unit, such as Larry Thurlow, who commanded a swift boat alongside of Kerry's, and Stephen Gardner, who served on Kerry's boat. The campaign inspired the widely used political pejorative 'swiftboating', to describe an unfair or untrue political attack. Most of Kerry's former crewmates have stated that SBVT's allegations are false.
How many members did VVAW have when Kerry joined it?
572aaf0ff75d5e190021fc30
about 20,000
111
False
What VVAW investigation was Kerry involved in?
572aaf0ff75d5e190021fc31
the "Winter Soldier Investigation"
306
False
Who was Melvin Laird?
572aaf0ff75d5e190021fc32
Nixon Secretary of Defense
475
False
What did Laird refuse to court-martial Kerry for?
572aaf0ff75d5e190021fc33
his antiwar activity
685
False
After returning to the United States, Kerry joined the Vietnam Veterans Against the War (VVAW). Then numbering about 20,000, VVAW was considered by some (including the administration of President Richard Nixon) to be an effective, if controversial, component of the antiwar movement. Kerry participated in the "Winter Soldier Investigation" conducted by VVAW of U.S. atrocities in Vietnam, and he appears in a film by that name that documents the investigation. According to Nixon Secretary of Defense Melvin Laird, "I didn't approve of what he did, but I understood the protesters quite well", and he declined two requests from the Navy to court martial Reserve Lieutenant Kerry over his antiwar activity.
What did Kerry do on Apr 22, 1971?
572aafa3111d821400f38cb8
appeared before a U.S. Senate committee hearing
25
False
What was the topic of the hearing Kerry testified on?
572aafa3111d821400f38cb9
ending the war
98
False
What did Kerry throw over a fence?
572aafa3111d821400f38cba
some of his own decorations and awards as well as some given to him by other veterans to throw
765
False
Why did Kerry participate in the protest?
572aafa3111d821400f38cbb
for peace and justice, and to try and make this country wake up once and for all
976
False
How many vets participated in the protest?
572aafa3111d821400f38cbc
almost 1000
565
False
On April 22, 1971, Kerry appeared before a U.S. Senate committee hearing on proposals relating to ending the war. The day after this testimony, Kerry participated in a demonstration with thousands of other veterans in which he and other Vietnam War veterans threw their medals and service ribbons over a fence erected at the front steps of the United States Capitol building to dramatize their opposition to the war. Jack Smith, a Marine, read a statement explaining why the veterans were returning their military awards to the government. For more than two hours, almost 1000 angry veterans tossed their medals, ribbons, hats, jackets, and military papers over the fence. Each veteran gave his or her name, hometown, branch of service and a statement. Kerry threw some of his own decorations and awards as well as some given to him by other veterans to throw. As Kerry threw his decorations over the fence, his statement was: "I'm not doing this for any violent reasons, but for peace and justice, and to try and make this country wake up once and for all."
When was Kerry arrested for protesting?
572ab1b4f75d5e190021fc42
May 30, 1971
22
False
Who was being honored on May 30, 1971?
572ab1b4f75d5e190021fc43
American POWs held captive by North Vietnam
65
False
How many people were arrested with Kerry?
572ab1b4f75d5e190021fc44
441
296
False
At what time was Kerry arrested?
572ab1b4f75d5e190021fc45
2:30 a.m.
253
False
Why were the protesters arrested?
572ab1b4f75d5e190021fc46
tried to camp on the village green
214
False
Kerry was arrested on May 30, 1971, during a VVAW march to honor American POWs held captive by North Vietnam. The march was planned as a multi-day event from Concord to Boston, and while in Lexington, participants tried to camp on the village green. At 2:30 a.m., local and state police arrested 441 demonstrators, including Kerry, for trespassing. All were given the Miranda Warning and were hauled away on school buses to spend the night at the Lexington Public Works Garage. Kerry and the other protesters later paid a $5 fine, and were released. The mass arrests caused a community backlash and ended up giving positive coverage to the VVAW.
Who had Kerry considered running against in 1970?
572ab26634ae481900deac4b
Democrat Philip J. Philbin
93
False
In which district had Kerry considered running in 1970?
572ab26634ae481900deac4c
Massachusetts's 3rd congressional district
123
False
Who ran against Philbin instead of Kerry?
572ab26634ae481900deac4d
Robert Drinan
193
False
Why did Morse retire?
572ab26634ae481900deac4e
to become Under-Secretary-General for Political and General Assembly Affairs at the United Nations
603
False
What political party was Morse in?
572ab26634ae481900deac4f
Republican
483
False
In 1970, Kerry had considered running for Congress in the Democratic primary against hawkish Democrat Philip J. Philbin of Massachusetts's 3rd congressional district, but deferred in favour of Robert Drinan, a Jesuit priest and anti-war activist, who went on to defeat Philbin. In February 1972, Kerry's wife bought a house in Worcester, with Kerry intending to run against the 4th district's ageing thirteen-term incumbent Democrat, Harold Donohue. The couple never moved in. After Republican Congressman F. Bradford Morse of the neighbouring 5th district announced his retirement and then resignation to become Under-Secretary-General for Political and General Assembly Affairs at the United Nations. The couple instead rented an apartment in Lowell, so that Kerry could run to succeed him.
What was Paul Sheehy's job?
572ab534be1ee31400cb81a9
attorney
74
False
What was DiFruscia's position?
572ab534be1ee31400cb81aa
State Representative
99
False
Who did Kerry share a campaign headquarters with?
572ab534be1ee31400cb81ab
Anthony R. DiFruscia
120
False
Why was Kerry's brother messing with phone lines?
572ab534be1ee31400cb81ac
they had received an anonymous call warning that the Kerry lines would be cut
933
False
What is Kerry's younger brother's name?
572ab534be1ee31400cb81ad
Cameron
456
False
Including Kerry, the Democratic primary race had 10 candidates, including attorney Paul J. Sheehy, State Representative Anthony R. DiFruscia, John J. Desmond and Robert B. Kennedy. Kerry ran a "very expensive, sophisticated campaign", financed by out-of-state backers and supported by many young volunteers. DiFruscia's campaign headquarters shared the same building as Kerry's. On the eve of the September 19 primary, police found Kerry's younger brother Cameron and campaign field director Thomas J. Vallely, breaking into where the building's telephone lines were located. They were arrested and charged with "breaking and entering with the intent to commit grand larceny", but the charges were dropped a year later. At the time of the incident, DiFruscia alleged that the two were trying to disrupt his get-out-the vote efforts. Vallely and Cameron Kerry maintained that they were only checking their own telephone lines because they had received an anonymous call warning that the Kerry lines would be cut.
What party did Durkin run as?
572ab5f7be1ee31400cb81bb
Independent
190
False
How far ahead of Cronin did Kerry poll?
572ab5f7be1ee31400cb81bc
26-points
248
False
What slant did The Sun have?
572ab5f7be1ee31400cb81bd
conservative
545
False
Who did Kerry say tried to stop his campaign?
572ab5f7be1ee31400cb81be
President Nixon
921
False
How did Kerry want to create jobs?
572ab5f7be1ee31400cb81bf
a jobs programme to clean up the Merrimack River
385
False
In the general election, Kerry was initially favored to defeat the Republican candidate, former State Representative Paul W. Cronin, and conservative Democrat Roger P. Durkin, who ran as an Independent. A week after the primary, one poll put Kerry 26-points ahead of Cronin. His campaign called for a national health insurance system, discounted prescription drugs for the unemployed, a jobs programme to clean up the Merrimack River and rent controls in Lowell and Lawrence. A major obstacle, however, was the district's leading newspaper, the conservative The Sun. The paper editorialized against him. It also ran critical news stories about his out-of-state contributions and his "carpetbagging", because he had only moved into the district in April. Subsequently released "Watergate" Oval Office tape recordings of the Nixon White House showed that defeating Kerry's candidacy had attracted the personal attention of President Nixon. Kerry himself asserts that Nixon sent operatives to Lowell to help derail his campaign.
How many votes did Cronin get against Kerry?
572aba5a111d821400f38cf6
110,970
373
False
What percent of votes did Cronin get against Kerry?
572aba5a111d821400f38cf7
53.45%
388
False
How many votes did Kerry get against Cronin?
572aba5a111d821400f38cf8
92,847
407
False
What percent of votes did Kerry get against Cronin?
572aba5a111d821400f38cf9
44.72%
415
False
What did Kerry think cost him the race against Cronin?
572aba5a111d821400f38cfa
his failure to respond directly to The Sun's attacks
747
False
The race was the most expensive for Congress in the country that year and four days before the general election, Durkin withdrew and endorsed Cronin, hoping to see Kerry defeated. The week before, a poll had put Kerry 10 points ahead of Cronin, with Dukin on 13%. In the final days of the campaign, Kerry sensed that it was "slipping away" and Cronin emerged victorious by 110,970 votes (53.45%) to Kerry's 92,847 (44.72%). After his defeat, Kerry lamented in a letter to supporters that "for two solid weeks, [The Sun] called me un-American, New Left antiwar agitator, unpatriotic, and labeled me every other 'un-' and 'anti-' that they could find. It's hard to believe that one newspaper could be so powerful, but they were." He later felt that his failure to respond directly to The Sun's attacks cost him the race.
Where did Kerry move after the 1972 election?
572abb31111d821400f38d0a
Belvidere, Lowell
61
False
What did Kerry's brother call the decade after 1972?
572abb31111d821400f38d0b
"the years in exile"
137
False
What did Kerry fundraise for?
572abb31111d821400f38d0c
the Cooperative for Assistance and Relief Everywhere
206
False
When did Kerry enter law school?
572abb31111d821400f38d0d
September 1973
314
False
Where was Kerry a talk radio host?
572abb31111d821400f38d0e
WBZ
421
False
After Kerry's 1972 defeat, he and his wife bought a house in Belvidere, Lowell, entering a decade which his brother Cameron later called "the years in exile". He spent some time working as a fundraiser for the Cooperative for Assistance and Relief Everywhere (CARE), an international humanitarian organization. In September 1973, he entered Boston College Law School. While studying, Kerry worked as a talk radio host on WBZ and, in July 1974, was named executive director of Mass Action, a Massachusetts advocacy association.
When did Kerry become an ADA?
572abb93be1ee31400cb81e3
January 1977
3
False
What condition did Droney have?
572abb93be1ee31400cb81e4
amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
167
False
What is ALS's nickname?
572abb93be1ee31400cb81e5
Lou Gehrig's Disease
206
False
What senator did Kerry investigate in 1978?
572abb93be1ee31400cb81e6
Edward Brooke
745
False
Why was Brooke being investigated?
572abb93be1ee31400cb81e7
"misstatements" in his first divorce trial
770
False
In January 1977, Droney promoted him to First Assistant District Attorney, essentially making Kerry his campaign and media surrogate because Droney was afflicted with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS, or Lou Gehrig's Disease). As First Assistant, Kerry tried cases, which included winning convictions in a high-profile rape case and a murder. He also played a role in administering the office, including initiating the creation of special white-collar and organized crime units, creating programs to address the problems of rape and other crime victims and witnesses, and managing trial calendars to reflect case priorities. It was in this role in 1978 that Kerry announced an investigation into possible criminal charges against then Senator Edward Brooke, regarding "misstatements" in his first divorce trial. The inquiry ended with no charges being brought after investigators and prosecutors determined that Brooke's misstatements were pertinent to the case, but were not material enough to have affected the outcome.
When did Kerry consider running for president if Droney didn't?
572abc3734ae481900deac99
1978
78
False
When did Kerry leave the DA's office?
572abc3734ae481900deac9a
1979
289
False
Who left the DA's office with Kerry?
572abc3734ae481900deac9b
Roanne Sragow
312
False
What bakery did Kerry co-found?
572abc3734ae481900deac9c
Kilvert & Forbes Ltd.
428
False
Who did Kerry start a bakery with?
572abc3734ae481900deac9d
K. Dun Gifford
492
False
Droney's health was poor and Kerry had decided to run for his position in the 1978 election should Droney drop out. However, Droney was re-elected and his health improved; he went on to re-assume many of the duties that he had delegated to Kerry. Kerry thus decided to leave, departing in 1979 with assistant DA Roanne Sragow to set up their own law firm. Kerry also worked as a commentator for WCVB-TV and co-founded a bakery, Kilvert & Forbes Ltd., with businessman and former Kennedy aide K. Dun Gifford.
What was Paul Tsongas's job in 1984?
572abc96be1ee31400cb81f5
junior U.S. Senator from Massachusetts
4
False
When did Kerry run for Senate?
572abc96be1ee31400cb81f6
1984
71
False
When did Kerry run for Lt Governor?
572abc96be1ee31400cb81f7
1982
152
False
What was James Shannon's job?
572abc96be1ee31400cb81f8
Congressman
280
False
What was Tip O'Neill's job?
572abc96be1ee31400cb81f9
House Speaker
321
False
The junior U.S. Senator from Massachusetts, Paul Tsongas, announced in 1984 that he would be stepping down for health reasons. Kerry ran, and as in his 1982 race for Lieutenant Governor, he did not receive the endorsement of the party regulars at the state Democratic convention. Congressman James Shannon, a favorite of House Speaker Tip O'Neill, was the early favorite to win the nomination, and he "won broad establishment support and led in early polling." Again as in 1982, however, Kerry prevailed in a close primary.
When did Kerry visit Nicaragua?
572abd76111d821400f38d14
April 18, 1985
3
False
Who did Kerry visit Nicaragua with?
572abd76111d821400f38d15
Senator Tom Harkin
72
False
Where was Tom Harkin from?
572abd76111d821400f38d16
Iowa
94
False
Who did Kerry visit in Nicaragua?
572abd76111d821400f38d17
Daniel Ortega
154
False
What was criticized about Ortega's administration?
572abd76111d821400f38d18
strong ties to Cuba and the USSR and were accused of human rights abuses
309
False
On April 18, 1985, a few months after taking his Senate seat, Kerry and Senator Tom Harkin of Iowa traveled to Nicaragua and met the country's president, Daniel Ortega. Though Ortega had won internationally certified elections, the trip was criticized because Ortega and his leftist Sandinista government had strong ties to Cuba and the USSR and were accused of human rights abuses. The Sandinista government was opposed by the right-wing CIA-backed rebels known as the Contras. While in Nicaragua, Kerry and Harkin talked to people on both sides of the conflict. Through the senators, Ortega offered a cease-fire agreement in exchange for the U.S. dropping support of the Contras. The offer was denounced by the Reagan administration as a "propaganda initiative" designed to influence a House vote on a $14 million Contra aid package, but Kerry said "I am willing..... to take the risk in the effort to put to test the good faith of the Sandinistas." The House voted down the Contra aid, but Ortega flew to Moscow to accept a $200 million loan the next day, which in part prompted the House to pass a larger $27 million aid package six weeks later.
Who did Kerry's staff expose in an Oct 14 report?
572abde9f75d5e190021fc8c
Lieutenant Colonel Oliver North
139
False
Who had Oliver North been supporting?
572abde9f75d5e190021fc8d
right-wing Nicaraguan rebels (Contras)
290
False
Who were the Contras?
572abde9f75d5e190021fc8e
right-wing Nicaraguan rebels
290
False
What government agencies worked with North?
572abde9f75d5e190021fc8f
the National Security Council and the CIA
215
False
What crime had Kerry said North committed?
572abde9f75d5e190021fc90
illegally funding and supplying armed militants without the authorization of Congress
435
False
Meanwhile, Kerry's staff began their own investigations and, on October 14, issued a report that exposed illegal activities on the part of Lieutenant Colonel Oliver North, who had set up a private network involving the National Security Council and the CIA to deliver military equipment to right-wing Nicaraguan rebels (Contras). In effect, North and certain members of the President's administration were accused by Kerry's report of illegally funding and supplying armed militants without the authorization of Congress. Kerry's staff investigation, based on a year-long inquiry and interviews with fifty unnamed sources, is said to raise "serious questions about whether the United States has abided by the law in its handling of the contras over the past three years."
Who was the State Department giving money to?
572abf32be1ee31400cb8207
drug traffickers
87
False
Where had the money given to drug traffickers come from?
572abf32be1ee31400cb8208
funds authorized by the Congress for humanitarian assistance to the Contras
136
False
How much money did the State Department give the traffickers?
572abf32be1ee31400cb8209
over $806,000
436
False
What was the response to Kerry's accusation of funding traffickers?
572abf32be1ee31400cb820a
little reaction in the media and official Washington
551
False
The Kerry Committee report found that "the Contra drug links included..... payments to drug traffickers by the U.S. State Department of funds authorized by the Congress for humanitarian assistance to the Contras, in some cases after the traffickers had been indicted by federal law enforcement agencies on drug charges, in others while traffickers were under active investigation by these same agencies." The U.S. State Department paid over $806,000 to known drug traffickers to carry humanitarian assistance to the Contras. Kerry's findings provoked little reaction in the media and official Washington.
Where is the BCCI based?
572ac034f75d5e190021fc9c
Pakistan
86
False
What bank helped Noriega?
572ac034f75d5e190021fc9d
Bank of Credit and Commerce International
101
False
When was BCCI shut down?
572ac034f75d5e190021fc9e
1991
311
False
Who collaborated in the report about BCCI?
572ac034f75d5e190021fc9f
Kerry and Senator Hank Brown
335
False
What was the BCCI report called?
572ac034f75d5e190021fca0
The BCCI Affair
402
False
During their investigation of Noriega, Kerry's staff found reason to believe that the Pakistan-based Bank of Credit and Commerce International (BCCI) had facilitated Noriega's drug trafficking and money laundering. This led to a separate inquiry into BCCI, and as a result, banking regulators shut down BCCI in 1991. In December 1992, Kerry and Senator Hank Brown, a Republican from Colorado, released The BCCI Affair, a report on the BCCI scandal. The report showed that the bank was crooked and was working with terrorists, including Abu Nidal. It blasted the Department of Justice, the Department of the Treasury, the Customs Service, the Federal Reserve Bank, as well as influential lobbyists and the CIA.
Who ran against Kerry in 1996?
572ac0e134ae481900deaca9
William Weld
68
False
When Weld was re-elected governor, how much of the vote did he get?
572ac0e134ae481900deacaa
71%
150
False
When was Weld re-elected governor?
572ac0e134ae481900deacab
1994
140
False
What did Kerry and Weld agree to limit their campaign spending to?
572ac0e134ae481900deacac
$6.9 million
336
False
Who broke the agreed-upon spending cap?
572ac0e134ae481900deacad
Both candidates
383
False
In 1996, Kerry faced a difficult re-election fight against Governor William Weld, a popular Republican incumbent who had been re-elected in 1994 with 71% of the vote. The race was covered nationwide as one of the most closely watched Senate races that year. Kerry and Weld held several debates and negotiated a campaign spending cap of $6.9 million at Kerry's Beacon Hill townhouse. Both candidates spent more than the cap, with each camp accusing the other of being first to break the agreement. During the campaign, Kerry spoke briefly at the 1996 Democratic National Convention. Kerry won re-election with 53 percent to Weld's 45 percent.
What was Kerry supposed to say when he 'botched a joke'?
572ac154be1ee31400cb8215
"... you end up getting us stuck in a war in Iraq. Just ask President Bush."
428
False
Who was Kerry saying was stuck in Iraq?
572ac154be1ee31400cb8216
President Bush and not American troops in general
696
False
What mistake did Kerry make in the joke?
572ac154be1ee31400cb8217
inadvertently left out the key word "us"
125
False
Kerry said that he had intended the remark as a jab at President Bush, and described the remarks as a "botched joke", having inadvertently left out the key word "us" (which would have been, "If you don't, you get us stuck in Iraq"), as well as leaving the phrase "just ask President Bush" off of the end of the sentence. In Kerry's prepared remarks, which he released during the ensuing media frenzy, the corresponding line was "... you end up getting us stuck in a war in Iraq. Just ask President Bush." He also said that from the context of the speech which, prior to the "stuck in Iraq" line, made several specific references to Bush and elements of his biography, that Kerry was referring to President Bush and not American troops in general.
Who did the Washington Post say Kerry was an envoy for?
572ac20c34ae481900deacb9
Afghanistan and Pakistan
67
False
When did the Washington Post say Kerry was important envoy?
572ac20c34ae481900deacba
May 2011
152
False
How, in May 2011, did the WaPo describe Bin Laden's killing?
572ac20c34ae481900deacbb
perhaps the most important crossroads yet
262
False
What did Kerry get from the Pakistanis?
572ac20c34ae481900deacbc
the tail-section of the U.S. helicopter which had had to be abandoned at Abbottabad during the bin Laden strike
592
False
Who was Pakistan's army chief in 2013?
572ac20c34ae481900deacbd
Gen. Ashfaq Parvez Kayani
751
False
Kerry "has emerged in the past few years as an important envoy for Afghanistan and Pakistan during times of crisis," a Washington Post report stated in May 2011, as Kerry undertook another trip to the two countries. The killing of Osama bin Laden "has generated perhaps the most important crossroads yet," the report continued, as the senator spoke at a press conference and prepared to fly from Kabul to Pakistan. Among matters discussed during the May visit to Pakistan, under the general rubric of "recalibrating" the bilateral relationship, Kerry sought and retrieved from the Pakistanis the tail-section of the U.S. helicopter which had had to be abandoned at Abbottabad during the bin Laden strike. In 2013, Kerry met with Pakistan's army chief Gen. Ashfaq Parvez Kayani to discuss the peace process with the Taliban in Afghanistan.
Who said Kerry was the 'top Senate liberal'?
572ac29334ae481900deacc3
the National Journal
258
False
When was Kerry called the 'top Senate liberal'?
572ac29334ae481900deacc4
2003
237
False
What was Kerry's actual career voting rank for 'liberalness'?
572ac29334ae481900deacc5
11th most liberal
476
False
What trade agreement did Kerry support?
572ac29334ae481900deacc6
North American Free Trade Agreement
912
False
What trade agreement did Kerry oppose?
572ac29334ae481900deacc7
Central American Free Trade Agreement
1006
False
Most analyses place Kerry's voting record on the left within the Senate Democratic caucus. During the 2004 presidential election he was portrayed as a staunch liberal by conservative groups and the Bush campaign, who often noted that in 2003 Kerry was rated the National Journal's top Senate liberal. However, that rating was based only upon voting on legislation within that past year. In fact, in terms of career voting records, the National Journal found that Kerry is the 11th most liberal member of the Senate. Most analyses find that Kerry is at least slightly more liberal than the typical Democratic Senator. Kerry has stated that he opposes privatizing Social Security, supports abortion rights for adult women and minors, supports same-sex marriage, opposes capital punishment except for terrorists, supports most gun control laws, and is generally a supporter of trade agreements. Kerry supported the North American Free Trade Agreement and Most Favored Nation status for China, but opposed the Central American Free Trade Agreement.[citation needed]
When did Kerry say he intended to support the Iraq War?
572ac345111d821400f38d34
October 9, 2002
46
False
When did Bush declare the Iraq war?
572ac345111d821400f38d35
2003
367
False
Who did Kerry say we should disarm?
572ac345111d821400f38d36
Saddam Hussein
501
False
When did Kerry speak at Georgetown University?
572ac345111d821400f38d37
January 23, 2003
408
False
In the lead up to the Iraq War, Kerry said on October 9, 2002; "I will be voting to give the President of the United States the authority to use force, if necessary, to disarm Saddam Hussein because I believe that a deadly arsenal of weapons of mass destruction in his hands is a real and grave threat to our security." Bush relied on that resolution in ordering the 2003 invasion of Iraq. Kerry also gave a January 23, 2003 speech to Georgetown University saying "Without question, we need to disarm Saddam Hussein. He is a brutal, murderous dictator; leading an oppressive regime he presents a particularly grievous threat because he is so consistently prone to miscalculation. So the threat of Saddam Hussein with weapons of mass destruction is real." Kerry did, however, warn that the administration should exhaust its diplomatic avenues before launching war: "Mr. President, do not rush to war, take the time to build the coalition, because it's not winning the war that's hard, it's winning the peace that's hard."
What committee did Kerry chair in 1991-1993?
572ac437111d821400f38d3c
the Senate Select Committee on POW/MIA Affairs
14
False
What did the POW/MIA committee conclude about Vietnam POWs?
572ac437111d821400f38d3d
there was "no compelling evidence that proves that any American remains alive in captivity in Southeast Asia."
133
False
When did Kerry sponsor a resolution to reopen trade with Vietnam?
572ac437111d821400f38d3e
1994
247
False
Who sponsored the resolution to reopen trade with Vietnam, along with Kerry?
572ac437111d821400f38d3f
John McCain
330
False
When did Bill Clinton normalize relations with Vietnam?
572ac437111d821400f38d40
1995
467
False
Kerry chaired the Senate Select Committee on POW/MIA Affairs from 1991 to 1993. The committee's report, which Kerry endorsed, stated there was "no compelling evidence that proves that any American remains alive in captivity in Southeast Asia." In 1994 the Senate passed a resolution, sponsored by Kerry and fellow Vietnam veteran John McCain, that called for an end to the existing trade embargo against Vietnam; it was intended to pave the way for normalization. In 1995, President Bill Clinton normalized diplomatic relations with the country of Vietnam.
Where was John Edwards a senator?
572ac497f75d5e190021fca6
North Carolina
125
False
Where was Howard Dean a governor?
572ac497f75d5e190021fca7
Vermont
150
False
What was Wesley Clark's former job?
572ac497f75d5e190021fca8
Army General
191
False
Who won the 2004 Iowa Democratic Caucus?
572ac497f75d5e190021fca9
John Kerry
47
False
When did Kerry choose John Edwards to be his VP?
572ac497f75d5e190021fcaa
July 6, 2004
629
False
In the 2004 Democratic presidential primaries, John Kerry defeated several Democratic rivals, including Sen. John Edwards (D-North Carolina.), former Vermont Governor Howard Dean and retired Army General Wesley Clark. His victory in the Iowa caucuses is widely believed to be the tipping point where Kerry revived his sagging campaign in New Hampshire and the February 3, 2004, primary states like Arizona, South Carolina and New Mexico. Kerry then went on to win landslide victories in Nevada and Wisconsin. Kerry thus won the Democratic nomination to run for President of the United States against incumbent George W. Bush. On July 6, 2004, he announced his selection of John Edwards as his running mate. Democratic strategist Bob Shrum, who was Kerry's 2004 campaign adviser, wrote an article in Time magazine claiming that after the election, Kerry had said that he wished he'd never picked Edwards, and that the two have since stopped speaking to each other. In a subsequent appearance on ABC's This Week, Kerry refused to respond to Shrum's allegation, calling it a "ridiculous waste of time."
Who did Kerry criticize during the 2004 campaign?
572ac4e4f75d5e190021fcb0
President George W. Bush
76
False
Why did Kerry criticize Bush during the 2004 campaign?
572ac4e4f75d5e190021fcb1
for the Iraq War
101
False
What had Kerry voted against after supporting the initial Iraq authorization?
572ac4e4f75d5e190021fcb2
an $87 billion supplemental appropriations bill to pay for the subsequent war
254
False
What did Bush's campaign call Kerry for changing his mind about Iraq?
572ac4e4f75d5e190021fcb3
a flip-flopper
476
False
During his bid to be elected president in 2004, Kerry frequently criticized President George W. Bush for the Iraq War. While Kerry had initially voted in support of authorizing President Bush to use force in dealing with Saddam Hussein, he voted against an $87 billion supplemental appropriations bill to pay for the subsequent war. His statement on March 16, 2004, "I actually did vote for the $87 billion before I voted against it," helped the Bush campaign to paint him as a flip-flopper and has been cited as contributing to Kerry's defeat.
What was Kerry's PAC?
572ac557f75d5e190021fcb8
Keeping America's Promise
57
False
What was the mission of Keeping America's Promise?
572ac557f75d5e190021fcb9
"A Democratic Congress will restore accountability to Washington and help change a disastrous course in Iraq"
114
False
How many down-ballot candidates did Kerry help support?
572ac557f75d5e190021fcba
179
600
False
How many states' down-ballot candidates did Kerry help support?
572ac557f75d5e190021fcbb
42
670
False
Which election did Kerry's PAC focus on?
572ac557f75d5e190021fcbc
the midterm elections during the 2006 election cycle
692
False
Kerry established a separate political action committee, Keeping America's Promise, which declared as its mandate "A Democratic Congress will restore accountability to Washington and help change a disastrous course in Iraq", and raised money and channeled contributions to Democratic candidates in state and federal races. Through Keeping America's Promise in 2005, Kerry raised over $5.5 million for other Democrats up and down the ballot. Through his campaign account and his political action committee, the Kerry campaign operation generated more than $10 million for various party committees and 179 candidates for the U.S. House, Senate, state and local offices in 42 states focusing on the midterm elections during the 2006 election cycle. "Cumulatively, John Kerry has done as much if not more than any other individual senator", Hassan Nemazee, the national finance chairman of the DSCC said.
When was it reported that Kerry would become SoS?
572ac5ba111d821400f38d54
December 15, 2012
3
False
Who was Secretary of State before Kerry?
572ac5ba111d821400f38d55
Hillary Clinton
112
False
Who backed out of becoming SoS after Hillary?
572ac5ba111d821400f38d56
Susan Rice
157
False
Why did Rice withdraw?
572ac5ba111d821400f38d57
a politicized confirmation process following criticism of her response to the 2012 Benghazi attack
254
False
When was Kerry's appointment confirmed?
572ac5ba111d821400f38d58
January 29, 2013
639
False
On December 15, 2012, several news outlets reported that President Barack Obama would nominate Kerry to succeed Hillary Clinton as Secretary of State, after Susan Rice, widely seen as Obama's preferred choice, withdrew her name from consideration citing a politicized confirmation process following criticism of her response to the 2012 Benghazi attack. On December 21, Obama proposed the nomination which received positive commentary. His confirmation hearing took place on January 24, 2013, before the Senate Foreign Relations Committee, the same panel where he first testified in 1971. The committee unanimously voted to approve him on January 29, 2013, and the same day the full Senate confirmed him on a vote of 94–3. In a letter to Massachusetts Governor Deval Patrick, Kerry announced his resignation from the Senate effective February 1.
Who complained about how Kerry ran the State Dept?
572ac63e34ae481900deaccd
Career State Department officials
137
False
What was the complaint about how Kerry ran the State Dept?
572ac63e34ae481900deacce
power has become too centralized under Kerry's leadership, which slows department operations when Kerry is on one of his frequent overseas trips
192
False
How had some State employees described Kerry?
572ac63e34ae481900deaccf
having "a kind of diplomatic attention deficit disorder"
372
False
Who published the Ivory Tower Survey?
572ac63e34ae481900deacd0
Foreign Policy Magazine
991
False
What was Kerry's ranking in the Ivory Tower Survey for effectiveness as SoS?
572ac63e34ae481900deacd1
tied for 11th place out of the 15
1196
False
In the State Department, Kerry quickly earned a reputation "for being aloof, keeping to himself, and not bothering to read staff memos." Career State Department officials have complained that power has become too centralized under Kerry's leadership, which slows department operations when Kerry is on one of his frequent overseas trips. Others in State describe Kerry as having "a kind of diplomatic attention deficit disorder" as he shifts from topic to topic instead of focusing on long-term strategy. When asked whether he was traveling too much, he responded, "Hell no. I'm not slowing down." Despite Kerry's early achievements, morale at State is lower than under Hillary Clinton according to department employees. However, after Kerry's first six months in the State Department, a Gallup poll found he had high approval ratings among Americans as Secretary of State. After a year, another poll showed Kerry's favorability continued to rise. Less than two years into Kerry's term, the Foreign Policy Magazine's 2014 Ivory Tower survey of international relations scholars asked, "Who was the most effective U.S. Secretary of State in the past 50 years?"; John Kerry and Lawrence Eagleburger tied for 11th place out of the 15 confirmed Secretaries of State in that period.
Who met Kerry in Jan 2014?
572ac68dbe1ee31400cb8227
Archbishop Pietro Parolin
53
False
What country did Kerry discuss with Parolin?
572ac68dbe1ee31400cb8228
Syria
251
False
What did the Pope express support for in Jan 2014?
572ac68dbe1ee31400cb8229
the Geneva II process
445
False
How many people did Kerry say had died in Syria as of Jan 2014?
572ac68dbe1ee31400cb822a
over 130,000
672
False
In January 2014, having met with Secretary of State, Archbishop Pietro Parolin, Kerry said "We touched on just about every major issue that we are both working on, that are issues of concern to all of us. First of all, we talked at great length about Syria, and I was particularly appreciative for the Archbishop’s raising this issue, and equally grateful for the Holy Father’s comments – the Pope's comments yesterday regarding his support for the Geneva II process. We welcome that support. It is very important to have broad support, and I know that the Pope is particularly concerned about the massive numbers of displaced human beings and the violence that has taken over 130,000 lives".
Who was Syria's president in 2014?
572ac792111d821400f38d5e
Bashar al-Assad
94
False
What did Kerry say Syria could do to avoid a military strike?
572ac792111d821400f38d5f
turn over every single bit of his chemical weapons to the international community in the next week
151
False
Which country convinced Syria to actually give up its chemical weapons?
572ac792111d821400f38d60
Russia
538
False
What was Sergey Lavrov's position?
572ac792111d821400f38d61
Russian Foreign Minister
594
False
When did the UN Security Council order Syria's chemical weapons be destroyed?
572ac792111d821400f38d62
September 28
1016
False
Kerry said on September 9 in response to a reporter's question about whether Syrian President Bashar al-Assad could avert a military strike: "He could turn over every single bit of his chemical weapons to the international community in the next week. Turn it over, all of it, without delay, and allow a full and total accounting for that. But he isn't about to do it, and it can't be done, obviously." This unscripted remark initiated a process that would lead to Syria agreeing to relinquish and destroy its chemical weapons arsenal, as Russia treated Kerry's statement as a serious proposal. Russian Foreign Minister Sergey Lavrov said Russia would work "immediately" to convince Syria relinquish and destroy its large chemical weapons arsenal. Syria quickly welcomed this proposal and on September 14, the UN formally accepted Syria's application to join the convention banning chemical weapons, and separately, the U.S. and Russia agreed on a plan to eliminate Syria's chemical weapons by the middle of 2014. On September 28, the UN Security Council passed a resolution ordering the destruction of Syria's chemical weapons and condemning the August 21 Ghouta attack.
Where did Kerry speak in Nov 2013?
572ac813111d821400f38d68
the Organization of American States
19
False
What did Kerry say had ended, in the Nov 2013 speech?
572ac813111d821400f38d69
the era of the Monroe Doctrine
93
False
When did Kerry speak to the OAS?
572ac813111d821400f38d6a
in November 2013
55
False
In a speech before the Organization of American States in November 2013, Kerry remarked that the era of the Monroe Doctrine was over. He went on to explain, "The relationship that we seek and that we have worked hard to foster is not about a United States declaration about how and when it will intervene in the affairs of other American states. It's about all of our countries viewing one another as equals, sharing responsibilities, cooperating on security issues, and adhering not to doctrine, but to the decisions that we make as partners to advance the values and the interests that we share."
Who was Kerry's paternal grandmother?
572ac887be1ee31400cb8237
Ida Lowe
87
False
Who was Kerry's paternal grandfather?
572ac887be1ee31400cb8238
Frederick A. "Fred" Kerry
48
False
What was Kerry's paternal grandmother's career?
572ac887be1ee31400cb8239
musician
78
False
What was Kerry's paternal grandfather's career?
572ac887be1ee31400cb823a
shoe businessman
31
False
Where did Kerry's paternal grandparents immigrate from?
572ac887be1ee31400cb823b
the Austro-Hungarian Empire
118
False
Kerry's paternal grandparents, shoe businessman Frederick A. "Fred" Kerry and musician Ida Lowe, were immigrants from the Austro-Hungarian Empire. Fred was born as "Fritz Kohn" before he and Ida took on the "Kerry" name and moved to the United States. Fred and Ida were born Jewish, and converted to Catholicism together in Austria. His maternal ancestors were of Scottish and English descent, and his maternal grandfather James Grant Forbes II was a member of the Forbes family, while his maternal grandmother Margaret Tyndal Winthrop was a member of the Dudley–Winthrop family. Margaret's paternal grandfather Robert Charles Winthrop served as the 22nd Speaker of the U.S. House of Representatives. Robert's father was Governor Thomas Lindall Winthrop. Thomas' father John Still Winthrop was a great-great-grandson of Massachusetts Bay Colony Governor John Winthrop and great-grandson of Governor Thomas Dudley. Through his mother, John is a first cousin once removed of French politician Brice Lalonde.
When did Kerry and his wife separate?
572ac8dbbe1ee31400cb8241
1982
58
False
When did Kerry and his wife divorce?
572ac8dbbe1ee31400cb8242
July 25, 1988
169
False
When did Kerry and his wife get an annullment?
572ac8dbbe1ee31400cb8243
1997
226
False
What book did Kerry's ex-wife write?
572ac8dbbe1ee31400cb8244
A Change of Heart
342
False
Who did Kerry's ex-wife remarry?
572ac8dbbe1ee31400cb8245
Richard Charlesworth
409
False
Alexandra was born days before Kerry began law school. In 1982, Julia asked Kerry for a separation while she was suffering from severe depression. They were divorced on July 25, 1988, and the marriage was formally annulled in 1997. "After 14 years as a political wife, I associated politics only with anger, fear and loneliness" she wrote in A Change of Heart, her book about depression. Thorne later married Richard Charlesworth, an architect, and moved to Bozeman, Montana, where she became active in local environmental groups such as the Greater Yellowstone Coalition. Thorne supported Kerry's 2004 presidential run. She died of cancer on April 27, 2006.
Who is Kerry's 2nd wife?
572ac956be1ee31400cb824b
Maria Teresa Thierstein Simões Ferreira
76
False
What is Kerry's 2nd wife's nationality?
572ac956be1ee31400cb824c
Mozambican
27
False
Who was Kerry's 2nd wife's previous husband?
572ac956be1ee31400cb824d
Henry John Heinz III
202
False
When did Kerry and Teresa meet?
572ac956be1ee31400cb824e
1990
288
False
Where did Kerry and Teresa meet?
572ac956be1ee31400cb824f
at an Earth Day rally
263
False
Kerry and his second wife, Mozambican-born businesswoman and philanthropist Maria Teresa Thierstein Simões Ferreira (known as Teresa), the widow of Kerry's late Pennsylvania Republican Senate colleague Henry John Heinz III, were introduced to each other by Heinz at an Earth Day rally in 1990. Early the following year, Senator Heinz was killed in a plane crash near Lower Merion. Teresa has three sons from her previous marriage to Heinz, Henry John Heinz IV, André Thierstein Heinz, and Christopher Drake Heinz. Heinz and Kerry were married on May 26, 1995, in Nantucket, Massachusetts.
What was Teresa Heinz Kerry's net worth in 2004 according to Forbes?
572ac9cbbe1ee31400cb8255
$750 million
83
False
What range of estimates have been given for Teresa Heinz Kerry's net worth?
572ac9cbbe1ee31400cb8256
from around $165 million to as high as $3.2 billion
148
False
What was Kerry's mother's name?
572ac9cbbe1ee31400cb8257
Rosemary Forbes Kerry
520
False
When did Kerry's mother pass away?
572ac9cbbe1ee31400cb8258
2002
555
False
Where would Kerry have ranked among richest US presidents, adjusted for inflation?
572ac9cbbe1ee31400cb8259
third-richest
736
False
The Forbes 400 survey estimated in 2004 that Teresa Heinz Kerry had a net worth of $750 million. However, estimates have frequently varied, ranging from around $165 million to as high as $3.2 billion, according to a study in the Los Angeles Times. Regardless of which figure is correct, Kerry was the wealthiest U.S. Senator while serving in the Senate. Independent of Heinz, Kerry is wealthy in his own right, and is the beneficiary of at least four trusts inherited from Forbes family relatives, including his mother, Rosemary Forbes Kerry, who died in 2002. Forbes magazine (named for the Forbes family of publishers, unrelated to Kerry) estimated that if elected, and if Heinz family assets were included, Kerry would have been the third-richest U.S. President in history, when adjusted for inflation. This assessment was based on Heinz and Kerry's combined assets, but the couple signed a prenuptial agreement that keeps their assets separate. Kerry's financial disclosure form for 2011 put his personal assets in the range of $230,000,000 to $320,000,000, including the assets of his spouse and any dependent children. This included slightly more than three million dollars worth of H. J. Heinz Company assets, which increased in value by over six hundred thousand dollars in 2013 when Berkshire Hathaway announced their intention to purchase the company.
What religion is Kerry?
572aca2534ae481900deace1
Roman Catholic
11
False
What religious items did Kerry bring with him while campaigning?
572aca2534ae481900deace2
a religious rosary, a prayer book, and a St. Christopher medal
48
False
What is St. Christopher the patron saint of?
572aca2534ae481900deace3
travelers
132
False
What did Kerry do in the church while living in Switzerland?
572aca2534ae481900deace4
was an altar boy and prayed all the time
373
False
Which part of the Bible did Kerry find the most moving?
572aca2534ae481900deace5
the Letters of Paul
486
False
Kerry is a Roman Catholic, and is said to carry a religious rosary, a prayer book, and a St. Christopher medal (the patron saint of travelers) when he campaigned. While Kerry is personally against abortion, he supports a woman's legal right to have one. Discussing his faith, Kerry said, "I thought of being a priest. I was very religious while at school in Switzerland. I was an altar boy and prayed all the time. I was very centered around the Mass and the church." He also said that the Letters of Paul (Apostle Paul) moved him the most, stating that they taught him to "not feel sorry for myself."
Who interviewed Kerry in Oct 2004 about his religion?
572aca63f75d5e190021fcd4
Christianity Today
11
False
What did Kerry tell Christianity Today that he is open-minded to?
572aca63f75d5e190021fcd5
many other expressions of spirituality that come through different religions
128
False
What did Kerry say about major religious texts?
572aca63f75d5e190021fcd6
he believed that the Torah, the Qur'an, and the Bible all share a fundamental story
412
False
Kerry told Christianity Today in October 2004 "I'm a Catholic and I practice, but at the same time I have an open-mindedness to many other expressions of spirituality that come through different religions... I've spent some time reading and thinking about religion and trying to study it, and I've arrived at not so much a sense of the differences, but a sense of the similarities in so many ways." He said that he believed that the Torah, the Qur'an, and the Bible all share a fundamental story which connects with readers.
Who said Kerry is an 'avid cyclist'?
572acab534ae481900deaceb
Sports Illustrated
67
False
What type of bicycle does Kerry prefer?
572acab534ae481900deacec
a road bike
143
False
What are 'centuries' in bicycling?
572acab534ae481900deaced
long-distance rides
235
False
What bicycles did Kerry use while campaigning?
572acab534ae481900deacee
recumbent stationary bikes for his hotel rooms
405
False
What other sports does Kerry participate in?
572acab534ae481900deacef
snowboarder, windsurfer, and sailor
472
False
In addition to the sports he played at Yale, Kerry is described by Sports Illustrated, among others, as an "avid cyclist", primarily riding on a road bike. Prior to his presidential bid, Kerry was known to have participated in several long-distance rides (centuries). Even during his many campaigns, he was reported to have visited bicycle stores in both his home state and elsewhere. His staff requested recumbent stationary bikes for his hotel rooms. He has also been a snowboarder, windsurfer, and sailor.
What type of yacht did Kerry buy?
572acb23f75d5e190021fcda
a Friendship 75
112
False
How expensive was Kerry's yacht?
572acb23f75d5e190021fcdb
$7 million
94
False
Where was Kerry's yacht built?
572acb23f75d5e190021fcdc
New Zealand
132
False
How much sales tax did Kerry owe on the yacht?
572acb23f75d5e190021fcdd
$437,500
345
False
Which state received Kerry's yacht's sales tax?
572acb23f75d5e190021fcde
Massachusetts
285
False
According to the Boston Herald, dated July 23, 2010, Kerry commissioned construction on a new $7 million yacht (a Friendship 75) in New Zealand and moored it in Portsmouth, Rhode Island, where the Friendship yacht company is based. The article claimed this allowed him to avoid paying Massachusetts taxes on the property including approximately $437,500 in sales tax and an annual excise tax of about $500. However, on July 27, 2010, Kerry stated he had yet to take legal possession of the boat, had not intended to avoid the taxes, and that when he took possession, he would pay the taxes whether he owed them or not.
Rajasthan
How many square kilometers is Rajasthan?
572a997134ae481900deabad
342,239
141
False
What percentage of India's total area is Rajasthan?
572a997134ae481900deabae
10.4%
186
False
What are alternative names the Thar Desert is known by?
572a997134ae481900deabaf
the "Rajasthan Desert" and "Great Indian Desert"
346
False
What province in Pakistan does Rajasthan border on its north?
572a997134ae481900deabb0
Punjab
448
False
The Dilwara Temples are a pilgrimage site for whom?
572a997134ae481900deabb1
Jain
814
False
342,239 square kilometres (132,139 sq mi
141
What is the area of the Jain Desert?
5a46accd5fd40d001a27dc5d
True
10.4%
186
What percentage of total area does the Thar Desert take up in Punjab?
5a46accd5fd40d001a27dc5e
True
"Land of Kings"
90
What is the literal meaning of Madhya Pradesh?
5a46accd5fd40d001a27dc5f
True
its bird life
1022
What is Uttar Pradesh known for?
5a46accd5fd40d001a27dc60
True
the Ranthambore National Park in Sawai Madhopur and Sariska Tiger Reserve in Alwar.
1092
What are the names of the two tiger reserves in Haryana?
5a46accd5fd40d001a27dc61
True
Rajasthan (/ˈrɑːdʒəstæn/ Hindustani pronunciation: [raːdʒəsˈt̪ʰaːn] ( listen); literally, "Land of Kings") is India's largest state by area (342,239 square kilometres (132,139 sq mi) or 10.4% of India's total area). It is located on the western side of the country, where it comprises most of the wide and inhospitable Thar Desert (also known as the "Rajasthan Desert" and "Great Indian Desert") and shares a border with the Pakistani provinces of Punjab to the northwest and Sindh to the west, along the Sutlej-Indus river valley. Elsewhere it is bordered by the other Indian states: Punjab to the north; Haryana and Uttar Pradesh to the northeast; Madhya Pradesh to the southeast; and Gujarat to the southwest. Its features include the ruins of the Indus Valley Civilization at Kalibanga; the Dilwara Temples, a Jain pilgrimage site at Rajasthan's only hill station, Mount Abu, in the ancient Aravalli mountain range; and, in eastern Rajasthan, the Keoladeo National Park near Bharatpur, a World Heritage Site known for its bird life. Rajasthan is also home to two national tiger reserves, the Ranthambore National Park in Sawai Madhopur and Sariska Tiger Reserve in Alwar.
When was the first usage of the word Rajasthan?
572a9a1cbe1ee31400cb809f
1829
65
False
In what publication did the name Rajasthan first appear?
572a9a1cbe1ee31400cb80a0
Annals and Antiquities of Rajast'han or the Central and Western Rajpoot States of India
82
False
What is another name for the Rajasthan region?
572a9a1cbe1ee31400cb80a1
Rajputana
207
False
In what year did George Thomas write the memoir known as Military Memories?
572a9a1cbe1ee31400cb80a2
1800
265
False
Who wrote the book entitled India: A History?
572a9a1cbe1ee31400cb80a3
John Keay
296
False
1829
65
When was the word Rajpoot first used?
5a46af695fd40d001a27dc67
True
"Rajputana"
206
What is another name for Islamic India?
5a46af695fd40d001a27dc68
True
India: A History
319
What did John Keay write in 1829?
5a46af695fd40d001a27dc69
True
1829
390
When was the word Ferishta coined by the British?
5a46af695fd40d001a27dc6a
True
"Rajpoot (Rajput) princes"
480
What phrase did James Tod use when translating ferishta's history of Islamic India?
5a46af695fd40d001a27dc6b
True
The first mention of the name "Rajasthan" appears in James Tod's 1829 publication Annals and Antiquities of Rajast'han or the Central and Western Rajpoot States of India, while the earliest known record of "Rajputana" as a name for the region is in George Thomas's 1800 memoir Military Memories. John Keay, in his book India: A History, stated that "Rajputana" was coined by the British in 1829, John Briggs, translating Ferishta's history of early Islamic India, used the phrase "Rajpoot (Rajput) princes" rather than "Indian princes".
Some portions of Rajasthan were involved with what ancient civilization?
572a9b0bbe1ee31400cb80a9
the Indus Valley Civilization
44
False
In what Indus Valley Civilization district was Kalibangan within?
572a9b0bbe1ee31400cb80aa
Hanumangarh district
90
False
What were the Saka Rulers of Western India believed to be called?
572a9b0bbe1ee31400cb80ab
Western Kshatrapas
198
False
Over what time period were the Western Kshatrapas in power?
572a9b0bbe1ee31400cb80ac
405–35 BC
218
False
The Kushans ruled what part of the Indian subcontinent?
572a9b0bbe1ee31400cb80ad
the northern part
451
False
(405–35 BC)
217
During what time period were the Hanumangarh in power?
5a46b10b5fd40d001a27dc71
True
the Indo-Scythians
379
Who were the Hanumangarh successors to?
5a46b10b5fd40d001a27dc72
True
the northern part of the Indian subcontinent
451
Over what area did the Sindh rule?
5a46b10b5fd40d001a27dc73
True
Ujjain
536
What area did the Saurashtra invade to establish the Saka era?
5a46b10b5fd40d001a27dc74
True
its founder king Virata
947
Who was the capital of Gujarat named after?
5a46b10b5fd40d001a27dc75
True
Parts of what is now Rajasthan were part of the Indus Valley Civilization. Kalibangan, in Hanumangarh district, was a major provincial capital of the Indus Valley Civilization,. It is believed that Western Kshatrapas (405–35 BC) were Saka rulers of the western part of India (Saurashtra and Malwa: modern Gujarat, Southern Sindh, Maharashtra, Rajasthan). They were successors to the Indo-Scythians and were contemporaneous with the Kushans, who ruled the northern part of the Indian subcontinent. The Indo-Scythians invaded the area of Ujjain and established the Saka era (with their calendar), marking the beginning of the long-lived Saka Western Satraps state. Matsya, a state of the Vedic civilisation of India, is said to roughly corresponded to the former state of Jaipur in Rajasthan and included the whole of Alwar with portions of Bharatpur. The capital of Matsya was at Viratanagar (modern Bairat), which is said to have been named after its founder king Virata.
Members of what tribe were exterminated in Ajmer?
572a9b9e34ae481900deabbf
Gurjars
359
False
What tribe formerly ruled Kota?
572a9b9e34ae481900deabc0
Bhils
444
False
What was the name of the group that formerly ruled Bundi?
572a9b9e34ae481900deabc1
Meenas
467
False
What is another way to refer to the PhulMali?
572a9b9e34ae481900deabc2
Saini
115
False
The Jats assisted in building what state?
572a9b9e34ae481900deabc3
Rajasthan
190
False
Rajputs, Jats, Meenas
18
What are three tribes that helped build the state of Gujars?
5a46b4c75fd40d001a27dc7b
True
great difficulties
227
What did Rajasthan suffer in trying to protect its culture?
5a46b4c75fd40d001a27dc7c
True
Kota
461
What area did Saini once rule?
5a46b4c75fd40d001a27dc7d
True
Bundi and the Dhundhar region
489
What two areas did the Charans rule?
5a46b4c75fd40d001a27dc7e
True
Gurjars
359
Members of what group were killed in Jats and Bhils fighting invaders?
5a46b4c75fd40d001a27dc7f
True
Traditionally the Rajputs, Jats, Meenas, Gurjars, Bhils, Rajpurohit, Charans, Yadavs, Bishnois, Sermals, PhulMali (Saini) and other tribes made a great contribution in building the state of Rajasthan. All these tribes suffered great difficulties in protecting their culture and the land. Millions of them were killed trying to protect their land. A number of Gurjars had been exterminated in Bhinmal and Ajmer areas fighting with the invaders. Bhils once ruled Kota. Meenas were rulers of Bundi and the Dhundhar region.
What empire stopped Arab invasions?
572a9c48f75d5e190021fb8c
Gurjar Pratihar Empire
4
False
Arab attempted to invade the Gurjar Pratihar Empire beginning in what century?
572a9c48f75d5e190021fb8d
8th
73
False
What was the most notable accomplishment of the Gurjara Pratihara Empire?
572a9c48f75d5e190021fb8e
its successful resistance to foreign invasions
163
False
Which historian claims that even the Arabs acknowledged the importance of the Gurjara Pratihara Empire in stopping invasions?
572a9c48f75d5e190021fb8f
Historian R. C. Majumdar
257
False
Arab conquest was limited to what region?
572a9c48f75d5e190021fb90
Sindh
668
False
The Gurjar Pratihar Empire
0
What did the Arab empire act as a barrier against?
5a46b6585fd40d001a27dc85
True
from the 8th to the 11th century
64
For how long did the Arab empire stand?
5a46b6585fd40d001a27dc86
True
its successful resistance to foreign invasions from the west
163
What is the main accomplishment of the Arab empire?
5a46b6585fd40d001a27dc87
True
the slow progress of Muslim invaders in India
401
What did Sindh note that Indian historians wondered about?
5a46b6585fd40d001a27dc88
True
300 years
707
How long did it take the Gurjara Pratihara army to conquer Sindh?
5a46b6585fd40d001a27dc89
True
The Gurjar Pratihar Empire acted as a barrier for Arab invaders from the 8th to the 11th century. The chief accomplishment of the Gurjara Pratihara empire lies in its successful resistance to foreign invasions from the west, starting in the days of Junaid. Historian R. C. Majumdar says that this was openly acknowledged by the Arab writers. He further notes that historians of India have wondered at the slow progress of Muslim invaders in India, as compared with their rapid advance in other parts of the world. Now there seems little doubt that it was the power of the Gurjara Pratihara army that effectively barred the progress of the Arabs beyond the confines of Sindh, their first conquest for nearly 300 years.
How many princely states of Rajputana contain?
572a9cdf111d821400f38c42
nineteen
75
False
What is the name of the British district within Rajputana?
572a9cdf111d821400f38c43
Ajmer-Merwara
145
False
Bharatpur is an example of what kind of state?
572a9cdf111d821400f38c44
princely
313
False
Under a Muslim Nawab there was a princely state, what was its name?
572a9cdf111d821400f38c45
Tonk
337
False
What families rose to power in the 6th century?
572a9cdf111d821400f38c46
Rajput families
385
False
nineteen
75
How many princely states are included in Alwar?
5a46b78e5fd40d001a27dc8f
True
Ajmer-Merwara
145
What is the name of the British district in Mewar?
5a46b78e5fd40d001a27dc90
True
the 6th century CE
423
During what era did Marwar familes become prominent?
5a46b78e5fd40d001a27dc91
True
more than 500 years
568
How long did the Marwar resist Islamic invasions?
5a46b78e5fd40d001a27dc92
True
northern India, including Rajasthan
803
What did the Alwar acquire through skilled warfare?
5a46b78e5fd40d001a27dc93
True
Modern Rajasthan includes most of Rajputana, which comprises the erstwhile nineteen princely states, two chiefships, and the British district of Ajmer-Merwara. Marwar (Jodhpur), Bikaner, Mewar (Chittorgarh), Alwar and Dhundhar (Jaipur) were some of the main Rajput princely states. Bharatpur and Dholpur were Jat princely states whereas Tonk was a princely state under a Muslim Nawab. Rajput families rose to prominence in the 6th century CE. The Rajputs put up a valiant resistance to the Islamic invasions and protected this land with their warfare and chivalry for more than 500 years. They also resisted Mughal incursions into India and thus contributed to their slower-than-anticipated access to the Indian subcontinent. Later, the Mughals, through skilled warfare, were able to get a firm grip on northern India, including Rajasthan. Mewar led other kingdoms in its resistance to outside rule. Most notably, Rana Sanga fought the Battle of Khanua against Babur, the founder of the Mughal empire.
What group in the Rajasthan region started to have internal disputes?
572a9db034ae481900deabd9
Mughals
20
False
In what century did the Mughal Empire come into decline?
572a9db034ae481900deabda
18th century
188
False
The Maratharas gained what over Rajputana?
572a9db034ae481900deabdb
suzerainty
227
False
Where were the Marathas from?
572a9db034ae481900deabdc
the state of what is now Maharashtra
290
False
In what year did the British Empire replace the Maratha Empire?
572a9db034ae481900deabdd
1818
520
False
most of the eighteenth century
348
How long did the Mughal Empire rule Marantha?
5a46b9705fd40d001a27dc99
True
1818
520
When did the Mughal Empire replace the British Empire?
5a46b9705fd40d001a27dc9a
True
suzerainty
227
What did the British Empire gain over Rajputana?
5a46b9705fd40d001a27dc9b
True
internal disputes
42
What did the British Empire have over time that was distracting?
5a46b9705fd40d001a27dc9c
True
the 18th century
184
What century marked the decline of the British Empire?
5a46b9705fd40d001a27dc9d
True
Over the years, the Mughals began to have internal disputes which greatly distracted them at times. The Mughal Empire continued to weaken, and with the decline of the Mughal Empire in the 18th century, Rajputana came under the suzerainty of the Marathas. The Marathas, who were Hindus from the state of what is now Maharashtra, ruled Rajputana for most of the eighteenth century. The Maratha Empire, which had replaced the Mughal Empire as the overlord of the subcontinent, was finally replaced by the British Empire in 1818.
Which mountain range goes through Rajasthan?
572a9ea0be1ee31400cb80cb
the Aravalli Range
61
False
What is the length in miles of the Aravalli Range?
572a9ea0be1ee31400cb80cc
530 mi
203
False
What peak is at the southwestern part of the Aravalli Range?
572a9ea0be1ee31400cb80cd
Mount Abu
212
False
Which river separates the main Aravelli ranges?
572a9ea0be1ee31400cb80ce
West Banas River
303
False
What portion of Rajasthan is east and south of the Aravalli Range?
572a9ea0be1ee31400cb80cf
two-fifths
573
False
850 kilometres (530 mi)
187
How long is the West Banas River?
5a46c24d5fd40d001a27dca3
True
About three-fifths
500
How much of Mount Abu is northwest of Raisina HIll?
5a46c24d5fd40d001a27dca4
True
at the southwestern end of the range
227
Where at the range does Delhi lie?
5a46c24d5fd40d001a27dca5
True
a series of broken ridges
330
What continues into the Thar Desert in the direction of Delhi?
5a46c24d5fd40d001a27dca6
True
from southwest to northeast, almost from one end to the other
110
How far across Rajasthan does the Haryana run?
5a46c24d5fd40d001a27dca7
True
The geographic features of Rajasthan are the Thar Desert and the Aravalli Range, which runs through the state from southwest to northeast, almost from one end to the other, for more than 850 kilometres (530 mi). Mount Abu lies at the southwestern end of the range, separated from the main ranges by the West Banas River, although a series of broken ridges continues into Haryana in the direction of Delhi where it can be seen as outcrops in the form of the Raisina Hill and the ridges farther north. About three-fifths of Rajasthan lies northwest of the Aravallis, leaving two-fifths on the east and south direction.
Dry and sandy conditions are indicative of which region of Rajasthan?
572a9fa6f75d5e190021fbbc
The northwestern portion
0
False
Which desert is in the northwestern part of Rajasthan?
572a9fa6f75d5e190021fbbd
the Thar Desert
101
False
What is the most populous city in the Thar Desert?
572a9fa6f75d5e190021fbbe
Jodhpur
442
False
What are the names of the major districts of the Thar?
572a9fa6f75d5e190021fbbf
Jodhpur, Jaisalmer, Barmer, Bikaner and Nagour
566
False
Rainfall in the Thar Desert region is less than what amount each year on avarage?
572a9fa6f75d5e190021fbc0
400 mm
951
False
The northwestern portion
0
What part of Pakistan is sandy and dry?
5a46c3a55fd40d001a27dcad
True
The Thar Desert
393
In what area is the town of Nagour the largest city?
5a46c3a55fd40d001a27dcae
True
Jodhpur
442
What town is the gateway to the Arabian Sea?
5a46c3a55fd40d001a27dcaf
True
Jodhpur, Jaisalmer, Barmer, Bikaner and Nagour
566
What are some major districts in Pakistan?
5a46c3a55fd40d001a27dcb0
True
Jodhpur airbase
665
What is Pakistan's largest airbase?
5a46c3a55fd40d001a27dcb1
True
The northwestern portion of Rajasthan is generally sandy and dry. Most of this region are covered by the Thar Desert which extends into adjoining portions of Pakistan. The Aravalli Range does not intercept the moisture-giving southwest monsoon winds off the Arabian Sea, as it lies in a direction parallel to that of the coming monsoon winds, leaving the northwestern region in a rain shadow. The Thar Desert is thinly populated; the town of Jodhpur is the largest city in the desert and known as the gateway of thar desert. The desert has some major districts like Jodhpur, Jaisalmer, Barmer, Bikaner and Nagour. This area is also important defence point of view. Jodhpur airbase is Indias largest airbase and military, BSF bases are also situated here. A single civil airport is also situated in Jodhpur. The Northwestern thorn scrub forests lie in a band around the Thar Desert, between the desert and the Aravallis. This region receives less than 400 mm of rain in an average year. Temperatures can exceed 48 °C in the summer months and drop below freezing in the winter. The Godwar, Marwar, and Shekhawati regions lie in the thorn scrub forest zone, along with the city of Jodhpur. The Luni River and its tributaries are the major river system of Godwar and Marwar regions, draining the western slopes of the Aravallis and emptying southwest into the great Rann of Kutch wetland in neighboring Gujarat. This river is saline in the lower reaches and remains potable only up to Balotara in Barmer district. The Ghaggar River, which originates in Haryana, is an intermittent stream that disappears into the sands of the Thar Desert in the northern corner of the state and is seen as a remnant of the primitive Saraswati river.
What is a characteristic of the region to the east of the Aravalli range?
572aa08a111d821400f38c5e
more fertile and better watered
86
False
What is the name of the ecoregion to the east and southeast of the Aravalli Range?
572aa08a111d821400f38c5f
the Kathiarbar-Gir dry deciduous forests ecoregion
142
False
What are two examples of trees in the broadleaf forests east of the Aravalli's?
572aa08a111d821400f38c60
teak, Acacia
243
False
What is the name of the region which is home to Dungarpur?
572aa08a111d821400f38c61
Vagad region
284
False
What is the most heavily forested region in Rajasthan?
572aa08a111d821400f38c62
Vagad
455
False
Vagad
455
Besides Gujarat, what is the wettest region in Rajasthan?
5a46dc5f5fd40d001a27dcb7
True
most heavily forested
505
What is another characterisitic of the Gujarat region?
5a46dc5f5fd40d001a27dcb8
True
the Mewar region
548
What region is north of Uttar Pradesh where Udaipur and Chittaurgarh are located?
5a46dc5f5fd40d001a27dcb9
True
the Banas and Chambal rivers
907
What rivers are the Udaipur drained by?
5a46dc5f5fd40d001a27dcba
True
the Ganges
952
What are the Haryana and Dhundhar tributaries of?
5a46dc5f5fd40d001a27dcbb
True
The Aravalli Range and the lands to the east and southeast of the range are generally more fertile and better watered. This region is home to the Kathiarbar-Gir dry deciduous forests ecoregion, with tropical dry broadleaf forests that include teak, Acacia, and other trees. The hilly Vagad region, home to the cities of Dungarpur and Banswara lies in southernmost Rajasthan, on the border with Gujarat and Madhya Pradesh. With the exception of Mount Abu, Vagad is the wettest region in Rajasthan, and the most heavily forested. North of Vagad lies the Mewar region, home to the cities of Udaipur and Chittaurgarh. The Hadoti region lies to the southeast, on the border with Madhya Pradesh. North of Hadoti and Mewar lies the Dhundhar region, home to the state capital of Jaipur. Mewat, the easternmost region of Rajasthan, borders Haryana and Uttar Pradesh. Eastern and southeastern Rajasthan is drained by the Banas and Chambal rivers, tributaries of the Ganges.
How many meters high is Guru Shikhar?
572aa539111d821400f38c72
1,722
100
False
What percentage of Rajasthan is to the northwest of the Aravalli range?
572aa539111d821400f38c73
60%
181
False
What is the average elevation of the south-eastern region of Rajasthan?
572aa539111d821400f38c74
100 to 350 m above sea level
517
False
A tableland is contained within what to southeastern districts?
572aa539111d821400f38c75
Kota and Bundi
699
False
What river runs along the badlands in the northeast of Rajasthan
572aa539111d821400f38c76
the Chambal River
821
False
1,722 m in height
100
What is the elevation of Mewar?
5a46df415fd40d001a27dcc1
True
60% in the northwest of the range and 40% in the southeast
181
How does Merta city divide the state?
5a46df415fd40d001a27dcc2
True
an alluvial basin
945
What are the plains of northeastern Mewar a part of?
5a46df415fd40d001a27dcc3
True
Merta City
964
What city lies in the geographical center of the Thar Desert?
5a46df415fd40d001a27dcc4
True
sandy and unproductive with little water
264
What is the topography of the hilly tract of Khetri in the south?
5a46df415fd40d001a27dcc5
True
The Aravalli Range runs across the state from the southwest peak Guru Shikhar (Mount Abu), which is 1,722 m in height, to Khetri in the northeast. This range divides the state into 60% in the northwest of the range and 40% in the southeast. The northwest tract is sandy and unproductive with little water but improves gradually from desert land in the far west and northwest to comparatively fertile and habitable land towards the east. The area includes the Thar Desert. The south-eastern area, higher in elevation (100 to 350 m above sea level) and more fertile, has a very diversified topography. in the south lies the hilly tract of Mewar. In the southeast, a large area within the districts of Kota and Bundi forms a tableland. To the northeast of these districts is a rugged region (badlands) following the line of the Chambal River. Farther north the country levels out; the flat plains of the northeastern Bharatpur district are part of an alluvial basin. Merta City lies in the geographical center of Rajasthan.
Which region contains Desert National Park?
572aa636111d821400f38c7c
Jaisalmer
28
False
How many square miles is Desert National Park?
572aa636111d821400f38c7d
1,221 sq mi
89
False
What types of large fossils are found in Desert National Park?
572aa636111d821400f38c7e
massive fossilised tree trunks
200
False
What are the most common types of eagles one might see in the Jaisalmer region?
572aa636111d821400f38c7f
Short-toed eagles (Circaetus gallicus), tawny eagles (Aquila rapax), spotted eagles (Aquila clanga)
436
False
What is another name for a laggar falcon?
572aa636111d821400f38c80
Falco jugger
553
False
commonest
588
What type of bird in the region is a harrier?
5a46e17f5fd40d001a27dccb
True
(Circaetus gallicus)
454
Besides Falco jugger, what is the other name for short-toed eagles?
5a46e17f5fd40d001a27dccc
True
(Aquila rapax)
489
What is the latin name of one of the most common buzzards?
5a46e17f5fd40d001a27dccd
True
(Circaetus gallicus)
454
What is the scientific name for harrier?
5a46e17f5fd40d001a27dcce
True
record the geological history of the desert
244
What do migratory and resident birds help scientists do?
5a46e17f5fd40d001a27dccf
True
The Desert National Park in Jaisalmer is spread over an area of 3,162 square kilometres (1,221 sq mi), is an excellent example of the ecosystem of the Thar Desert and its diverse fauna. Seashells and massive fossilised tree trunks in this park record the geological history of the desert. The region is a haven for migratory and resident birds of the desert. One can see many eagles, harriers, falcons, buzzards, kestrels and vultures. Short-toed eagles (Circaetus gallicus), tawny eagles (Aquila rapax), spotted eagles (Aquila clanga), laggar falcons (Falco jugger) and kestrels are the commonest of these.
What Rajasthani national park is known for its tigers?
572aa7a6f75d5e190021fbfe
Ranthambore National Park
0
False
How many tigers were relocated to Sariska?
572aa7a6f75d5e190021fbff
five tigers
266
False
Ranthamb National Park is known by photographers as what?
572aa7a6f75d5e190021fc00
one of the best place in India to spot tigers
135
False
Why did tigers became extinct in Sariska?
572aa7a6f75d5e190021fc01
poaching and negligence
203
False
its tiger population
49
What is Sarska know for worldwide?
5a46e3505fd40d001a27dcd5
True
one of the best place in India to spot tigers
135
What is Sarska considered by wilderness lovers and photographers?
5a46e3505fd40d001a27dcd6
True
poaching and negligence
203
Why did tigers become extinct in Bhensrod Garh?
5a46e3505fd40d001a27dcd7
True
five tigers have been relocated there
266
What has Jawahar Sagar sanctuary done to help increase the tiger population?
5a46e3505fd40d001a27dcd8
True
Ranthambore National Park
0
What sanctuary does Bhensrod Garh consider the best place to relocate tigers?
5a46e3505fd40d001a27dcd9
True
Ranthambore National Park is known worldwide for its tiger population and is considered by both wilderness lovers and photographers as one of the best place in India to spot tigers. At one point, due to poaching and negligence, tigers became extinct at Sariska, but five tigers have been relocated there. Prominent among the wildlife sanctuaries are Mount Abu Sanctuary, Bhensrod Garh Sanctuary, Darrah Sanctuary, Jaisamand Sanctuary, Kumbhalgarh Wildlife Sanctuary, Jawahar Sagar sanctuary, and Sita Mata Wildlife Sanctuary.
The Rajasthan economy is largely composed of what type of industries?
572aa878be1ee31400cb8121
agricultural and pastoral
33
False
What are Rajasthans two main cash crops?
572aa878be1ee31400cb8122
Cotton and tobacco
150
False
What type of oil does Rajasthan produce some of the largest amounts of in India?
572aa878be1ee31400cb8123
edible oils
241
False
Rajasthan consumes the most of what product?
572aa878be1ee31400cb8124
opium
380
False
How many crop seasons are there in Rajasthan?
572aa878be1ee31400cb8125
two crop seasons
426
False
two
426
How many opium producers are in India?
5a46e57f5fd40d001a27dcdf
True
wells and tanks
480
Where does the water for cotton and tobacco come from?
5a46e57f5fd40d001a27dce0
True
northwestern Rajasthan
531
What area produces the most tobacco?
5a46e57f5fd40d001a27dce1
True
two
426
How many sugar cane seasons are there?
5a46e57f5fd40d001a27dce2
True
Wheat and barley
60
What does the Indira Ghandi Canal help produce over large areas?
5a46e57f5fd40d001a27dce3
True
Rajasthan's economy is primarily agricultural and pastoral. Wheat and barley are cultivated over large areas, as are pulses, sugarcane, and oilseeds. Cotton and tobacco are the state's cash crops. Rajasthan is among the largest producers of edible oils in India and the second largest producer of oilseeds. Rajasthan is also the biggest wool-producing state in India and the main opium producer and consumer. There are mainly two crop seasons. The water for irrigation comes from wells and tanks. The Indira Gandhi Canal irrigates northwestern Rajasthan.
What type of fibre is Rajasthan ranked 2nd in production of?
572aaa0c34ae481900deac05
polyester fibre
121
False
What is the largest city for polyster blouse pieces in Rajasthan?
572aaa0c34ae481900deac06
Pali is largest city in cotton and polyster in blouse pieces
300
False
From what town did the marble in the Taj Mahal come?
572aaa0c34ae481900deac07
Makrana
643
False
What type of deposits are found at Sambhar?
572aaa0c34ae481900deac08
rich salt deposits
718
False
What kind of mines are found in Khetri and Jhunjhunu ?
572aaa0c34ae481900deac09
copper mines
749
False
cloth
192
What does Bhiwandi produce more of than Kota?
5a46e7c55fd40d001a27dce9
True
chemical and engineering
412
What prominent companies are located in Pali?
5a46e7c55fd40d001a27dcea
True
white marble
595
What was mined in Pali for The Taj Mahal?
5a46e7c55fd40d001a27dceb
True
copper mines
749
What type of mines are in Bhilwara?
5a46e7c55fd40d001a27dcec
True
"chittar patthar"
1044
What is another term for white marble?
5a46e7c55fd40d001a27dced
True
The main industries are mineral based, agriculture based, and textile based. Rajasthan is the second largest producer of polyester fibre in India. The Pali and Bhilwara District produces more cloth than Bhiwandi, Maharashtra and the bhilwara is the largest city in suitings production and export and Pali is largest city in cotton and polyster in blouse pieces and rubia production and export. Several prominent chemical and engineering companies are located in the city of Kota, in southern Rajasthan. Rajasthan is pre-eminent in quarrying and mining in India. The Taj Mahal was built from the white marble which was mined from a town called Makrana. The state is the second largest source of cement in India. It has rich salt deposits at Sambhar, copper mines at Khetri, Jhunjhunu, and zinc mines at Dariba, Zawar mines and Rampura Aghucha (opencast) near Bhilwara. Dimensional stone mining is also undertaken in Rajasthan. Jodhpur sandstone is mostly used in monuments, important buildings and residential buildings. This stone is termed as "chittar patthar". Jodhpur leads in Handicraft and Guar Gum industry. Rajasthan is also a part of the Mumbai-Delhi Industrial corridor is set to benefit economically. The State gets 39% of the DMIC, with major districts of Jaipur, Alwar, Kota and Bhilwara benefiting.
What are earnings from crude oil in Rajasthan expected to be in 2013?
572aac99111d821400f38c9e
₹250 million per day
149
False
How many barrels of crude oil from Barmer is Rajasthan allowed to extract each day?
572aac99111d821400f38c9f
300,000 barrels
298
False
The leader in Indian crude oil production at 250,000 barrels per day is what region?
572aac99111d821400f38ca0
Bombay High
479
False
What group is conducting exploration for Rajasthan's crude oil??
572aac99111d821400f38ca1
Cairn India
670
False
How many barrels per day is currently being extracted from the Barmer region?
572aac99111d821400f38ca2
175,000 barrels
363
False
₹250 million per day
149
What amount is expected to be earned from oil in Cairn India in 2013?
5a46ed955fd40d001a27dcf3
True
300,000 barrels of crude
298
What has the Indian government given Cairn permission to extract per day?
5a46ed955fd40d001a27dcf4
True
175,000 barrels per day
363
How many barrels per day does Cairn extract now?
5a46ed955fd40d001a27dcf5
True
Rs. 150 million (approx. US$2.5 million)
28
How much does Cairn earn per day in revenue from crude oil?
5a46ed955fd40d001a27dcf6
True
more than 66 percent
219
How much has oil production increased in Cairn?
5a46ed955fd40d001a27dcf7
True
Rajasthan is[when?] earning Rs. 150 million (approx. US$2.5 million) per day as revenue from the crude oil sector. This earning is expected to reach ₹250 million per day in 2013 (which is an increase of ₹100 million or more than 66 percent). The government of India has given permission to extract 300,000 barrels of crude per day from Barmer region which is now 175,000 barrels per day. Once this limit is achieved Rajasthan will become a leader in Crude extraction in Country. Bombay High leads with a production of 250,000 barrels crude per day. Once the limit if 300,000 barrels per day is reached, the overall production of the country will increase by 15 percent. Cairn India is doing the work of exploration and extraction of crude oil in Rajasthan.
What type of food was preferred in Rajasthani cooking?
572aad73be1ee31400cb8149
Food that could last for several days and could be eaten without heating
142
False
Along with scarce green vegetables, what had an impact on Rajasthani cooking?
572aad73be1ee31400cb814a
scarcity of water
234
False
What type of snack is Rajasthan known for?
572aad73be1ee31400cb814b
Bikaneri Bhujia
353
False
What famous dish is also known as hot garlic paste?
572aad73be1ee31400cb814c
lashun ki chutney
431
False
Vegetarian restaurants come from which Rajasthani region?
572aad73be1ee31400cb814d
the Marwar region
628
False
the cooking
308
What has the scarcity of food that could last for days affected?
5a46f2ae5fd40d001a27dcfd
True
both the war-like lifestyles of its inhabitants and the availability of ingredients in this arid region
37
What was Bikaneri Bhujia cooking influenced by?
5a46f2ae5fd40d001a27dcfe
True
Marwari Bhojnalaya, or vegetarian restaurants
674
What concept originates from the Bikaneri Bhujia region?
5a46f2ae5fd40d001a27dcff
True
first coarsely mash the Baati then pour pure Ghee on top of it
894
What is the traditional way to serve Pyaaj Kachori?
5a46f2ae5fd40d001a27dd00
True
It is served with the daal (lentils) and spicy garlic chutney
958
How is Pyaaj Kachori served?
5a46f2ae5fd40d001a27dd01
True
Rajasthani cooking was influenced by both the war-like lifestyles of its inhabitants and the availability of ingredients in this arid region. Food that could last for several days and could be eaten without heating was preferred. The scarcity of water and fresh green vegetables have all had their effect on the cooking. It is known for its snacks like Bikaneri Bhujia. Other famous dishes include bajre ki roti (millet bread) and lashun ki chutney (hot garlic paste), mawa kachori Mirchi Bada, Pyaaj Kachori and ghevar from Jodhpur, Alwar ka Mawa(Milk Cake), malpauas from Pushkar and rassgollas from Bikaner. Originating from the Marwar region of the state is the concept Marwari Bhojnalaya, or vegetarian restaurants, today found in many parts of India, which offer vegetarian food of the Marwari people. 4 Dal-Bati-Churma is very popular in Rajasthan. The traditional way to serve it is to first coarsely mash the Baati then pour pure Ghee on top of it. It is served with the daal (lentils) and spicy garlic chutney. Also served with Besan (gram flour) ki kadi. It is commonly served at all festivities, including religious occasions, wedding ceremonies, and birthday parties in Rajasthan. "Dal-Baati-Churma", is a combination of three different food items — Daal (lentils), Baati and Churma (Sweet). It is a typical Rajasthani dish.
What type of dance comes from Jodhpur Marwar?
572aae13be1ee31400cb815d
The Ghoomar dance
0
False
Kalbeliya dance is from which region?
572aae13be1ee31400cb815e
Jaisalmer
61
False
What type of music plays a big part in the culture of Rajasthan?
572aae13be1ee31400cb815f
Folk music
110
False
Heroic deeds are often a theme of what type of Rajasthani song?
572aae13be1ee31400cb8160
Folk songs
277
False
What kind of song is referred to as a bhajan?
572aae13be1ee31400cb8161
religious or devotional
357
False
Kathputli, Bhopa, Chang, Teratali, Ghindr, Kachchhighori, and Tejaji
160
What are examples of the Ghoomar dance?
5a46f6eb5fd40d001a27dd07
True
international recognition
83
What have folk songs from Jodhpur Marwar gained?
5a46f6eb5fd40d001a27dd08
True
Folk music
110
What is a large part of dholak culture?
5a46f6eb5fd40d001a27dd09
True
ballads
301
What are sarangi commonly called?
5a46f6eb5fd40d001a27dd0a
True
heroic deeds and love stories
322
What themes do dholak commonly relate when sung?
5a46f6eb5fd40d001a27dd0b
True
The Ghoomar dance from Jodhpur Marwar and Kalbeliya dance of Jaisalmer have gained international recognition. Folk music is a large part of Rajasthani culture. Kathputli, Bhopa, Chang, Teratali, Ghindr, Kachchhighori, and Tejaji are examples of traditional Rajasthani culture. Folk songs are commonly ballads which relate heroic deeds and love stories; and religious or devotional songs known as bhajans and banis which are often accompanied by musical instruments like dholak, sitar, and sarangi are also sung.
Bagaru and Sanganer represent what type of art?
572aaf31be1ee31400cb816d
prints
116
False
Zari is a type of what art that is a major Rajasthani export?
572aaf31be1ee31400cb816e
embroidery
133
False
Females in Rajasthan wear what type of traditional clothing?
572aaf31be1ee31400cb816f
ankle-length skirt and a short top
445
False
What are the names for a traditional female short-top piece of clothing?
572aaf31be1ee31400cb8170
lehenga or a chaniya choli
497
False
What colors are dresses in Rajasthan typically made using?
572aaf31be1ee31400cb8171
bright colors like blue, yellow and orange
670
False
block prints, tie and dye prints, Bagaru prints, Sanganer prints
58
What are some things exported from Zari?
5a46f8475fd40d001a27dd11
True
its traditional, colorful art
23
What is Zari known for?
5a46f8475fd40d001a27dd12
True
Handicraft items like wooden furniture and crafts, carpets, and blue pottery
186
What type of items are usually found in Baragu?
5a46f8475fd40d001a27dd13
True
a lot of mirror work and embroidery
352
What type of embellishment do Zari clothes have?
5a46f8475fd40d001a27dd14
True
blue, yellow and orange
689
What colors are traditional Zari dresses made of?
5a46f8475fd40d001a27dd15
True
Rajasthan is known for its traditional, colorful art. The block prints, tie and dye prints, Bagaru prints, Sanganer prints, and Zari embroidery are major export products from Rajasthan. Handicraft items like wooden furniture and crafts, carpets, and blue pottery are commonly found here. Shopping reflects the colorful culture, Rajasthani clothes have a lot of mirror work and embroidery. A Rajasthani traditional dress for females comprises an ankle-length skirt and a short top, also known as a lehenga or a chaniya choli. A piece of cloth is used to cover the head, both for protection from heat and maintenance of modesty. Rajasthani dresses are usually designed in bright colors like blue, yellow and orange.
What type of possession has been documented in Rajasthan?
572aafcd111d821400f38cc2
Spirit possession
0
False
What underworld god possess Rajasthanis?
572aafcd111d821400f38cc3
Bhaironji
233
False
What are possessed individuals known as?
572aafcd111d821400f38cc4
ghorala
421
False
Ghorala is another word for what?
572aafcd111d821400f38cc5
mount
431
False
What results from possession by even benign spirits?
572aafcd111d821400f38cc6
loss of self-control and violent emotional outbursts
528
False
Spirit possession
0
What type of posession has been documented by Muslim saints?
5a46faed5fd40d001a27dd1b
True
ghorala
421
What is a benign spirit referred to as?
5a46faed5fd40d001a27dd1c
True
Bad spirits
263
What are foregin tourists regarded as by Bhaironji?
5a46faed5fd40d001a27dd1d
True
a ghorala
419
What is another word for stillborn infant?
5a46faed5fd40d001a27dd1e
True
Bhaironji
233
What underworld god posesses Muslim saints?
5a46faed5fd40d001a27dd1f
True
Spirit possession has been documented in modern Rajasthan. Some of the spirits possessing Rajasthanis are seen as good and beneficial while others are seen as malevolent. The good spirits include murdered royalty, the underworld god Bhaironji, and Muslim saints. Bad spirits include perpetual debtors who die in debt, stillborn infants, deceased widows, and foreign tourists. The possessed individual is referred to as a ghorala ("mount"). Possession, even if it is by a benign spirit, is regarded as undesirable, as it entails loss of self-control and violent emotional outbursts.
What was the literacy rate of Rajasthan in 1991?
572ab067be1ee31400cb817f
38.55%
123
False
How many females had the ability to read in Rajasthan in 1991?
572ab067be1ee31400cb8180
20.44%
147
False
What was the rise in female literacy between 1991 and 2001 in Rajasthan?
572ab067be1ee31400cb8181
23%
352
False
What is the national average for literacy in India?
572ab067be1ee31400cb8182
74.04%
519
False
What was the literacy rate of Rajasthan in 2001?
572ab067be1ee31400cb8183
60.41%
203
False
60.41%
203
What did the literacy rate in India increase to in 1991?
5a46fe175fd40d001a27dd25
True
20.44%
147
In the 1991 census what was the female literacy rate?
5a46fe175fd40d001a27dd26
True
74.04%
519
How far below the average is literacy for women in India in 2001
5a46fe175fd40d001a27dd27
True
54.99%
131
What was the literacy rate for men at the 1991 census?
5a46fe175fd40d001a27dd28
True
praised for its efforts and achievements
613
How has the state been recognized for its census effort?
5a46fe175fd40d001a27dd29
True
In recent decades, the literacy rate of Rajasthan has increased significantly. In 1991, the state's literacy rate was only 38.55% (54.99% male and 20.44% female). In 2001, the literacy rate increased to 60.41% (75.70% male and 43.85% female). This was the highest leap in the percentage of literacy recorded in India (the rise in female literacy being 23%). At the Census 2011, Rajasthan had a literacy rate of 67.06% (80.51% male and 52.66% female). Although Rajasthan's literacy rate is below the national average of 74.04% and although its female literacy rate is the lowest in the country, the state has been praised for its efforts and achievements in raising male and female literacy rates.
What are the to main educational hubs of Rajasthan?
572ab10734ae481900deac2f
Jodhpur and Kota
14
False
In what educational hub would one find AIIMS?
572ab10734ae481900deac30
Jodhpur
197
False
What is is Kota known as within India?
572ab10734ae481900deac31
coaching capital of India
433
False
How many universities does Rajasthan have?
572ab10734ae481900deac32
nine
642
False
How many engineering colleges are in Rajasthan?
572ab10734ae481900deac33
41 engineering colleges
742
False
Jodhpur and Kota
14
What are two main educatonal centers of Birla?
5a46ffc75fd40d001a27dd2f
True
"coaching capital of India"
432
What term is Birla referred to as?
5a46ffc75fd40d001a27dd30
True
more than 250
664
How many colleges are in Birla?
5a46ffc75fd40d001a27dd31
True
about 11,500 students
795
What is the annual enrollment in Birla?
5a46ffc75fd40d001a27dd32
True
23
1086
How many polytechnic colleges are in Birla?
5a46ffc75fd40d001a27dd33
True
In Rajasthan, Jodhpur and Kota are two major educational hubs. Kota is known for its quality education in preparation of various competitive exams, coaching for medical and engineering exams while Jodhpur is home to many higher educational institutions like IIT, AIIMS, National Law University, Sardar Patel Police University, National institute of Fashion Technology, MBM Engineering College etc. Kota is popularly referred to as, "coaching capital of India". Other major educational institutions are Birla Institute of Technology and Science Pilani, Malaviya National Institute of Technology Jaipur, IIM Udaipur r and LNMIIT. Rajasthan has nine universities and more than 250 colleges, 55,000 primary and 7,400 secondary schools. There are 41 engineering colleges with an annual enrollment of about 11,500 students. Apart from above there 41 Private universities like Amity University Rajasthan, Jaipur,Manipal University Jaipur, OPJS University, Churu, Mody University of Technology and Science Lakshmangarh (Women's University, Sikar), RNB Global University, Bikaner. The state has 23 polytechnic colleges and 152 Industrial Training Institutes (ITIs) that impart vocational training.
What percentage of India's foreign visitors came to Rajasthan from 2009 to 2010?
572ab1e9111d821400f38cde
14 percent
20
False
At what level is Rajasthan ranked in India for visits by foreigners?
572ab1e9111d821400f38cdf
fourth highest
87
False
How high is Rajasthan ranked among domestic Indian tourists?
572ab1e9111d821400f38ce0
fourth
129
False
What two palaces are frequent tourist destinations within Rajasthan?
572ab1e9111d821400f38ce1
The palaces of Jaipur and Ajmer-Pushkar
219
False
What percentage of the Rajasthani GDP comes from tourism?
572ab1e9111d821400f38ce2
eight percent
489
False
employment
641
What have converted forts increased in the hospitality sector?
5a4703295fd40d001a27dd39
True
14 percent of total foreign visitors
20
How many foreign visitors have been attracted to Ajmer-Pushkar?
5a4703295fd40d001a27dd3a
True
during 2009–2010
57
During what period did Ajmer Pushkar have the 4th highest amount of foreign tourists in India?
5a4703295fd40d001a27dd3b
True
Rajasthan
208
Where does employment in the hospitality industry flourish?
5a4703295fd40d001a27dd3c
True
eight percent
489
How much of the GDP does hospitality employment account for?
5a4703295fd40d001a27dd3d
True
Rajasthan attracted 14 percent of total foreign visitors during 2009–2010 which is the fourth highest among Indian states. It is fourth also in Domestic tourist visitors. Tourism is a flourishing industry in Rajasthan. The palaces of Jaipur and Ajmer-Pushkar, the lakes of Udaipur, the desert forts of Jodhpur, Taragarh Fort (Star Fort) in Ajmer, and Bikaner and Jaisalmer rank among the most preferred destinations in India for many tourists both Indian and foreign. Tourism accounts for eight percent of the state's domestic product. Many old and neglected palaces and forts have been converted into heritage hotels. Tourism has increased employment in the hospitality sector.
Who built the famous decorated havelis in Rajasthan?
572ab2abf75d5e190021fc4c
Rajput kings
94
False
Jaipur is also known as what city?
572ab2abf75d5e190021fc4d
the Pink City
402
False
What are the notable houses in Jaipur made from?
572ab2abf75d5e190021fc4e
a type of sandstone dominated by a pink hue
457
False
What type of temples stretch from the north to the south of Rajasthan?
572ab2abf75d5e190021fc4f
Jain Temples
611
False
Which Pali District temple is dedicated to Lord Adinath?
572ab2abf75d5e190021fc50
Ranakpur Temple
706
False
the Pink City
402
What is another name for Rajput?
5a4705365fd40d001a27dd43
True
the ancient houses made of a type of sandstone dominated by a pink hue
430
What type of architecture is Rajput known for?
5a4705365fd40d001a27dd44
True
white marble Bara-dari
566
What is on the Anasagar lake at Stepwell?
5a4705365fd40d001a27dd45
True
Lord Adinath
735
Who is the Jantar Mantar temple in Pali District dedicated to?
5a4705365fd40d001a27dd46
True
blue
541
What color are havelis painted in Ajmer?
5a4705365fd40d001a27dd47
True
Rajasthan is famous for its forts, carved temples, and decorated havelis, which were built by Rajput kings in pre-Muslim era Rajasthan.[citation needed] Rajasthan's Jaipur Jantar Mantar, Mehrangarh Fort and Stepwell of Jodhpur, Dilwara Temples, Chittorgarh Fort, Lake Palace, miniature paintings in Bundi, and numerous city palaces and haveli's are part of the architectural heritage of India. Jaipur, the Pink City, is noted for the ancient houses made of a type of sandstone dominated by a pink hue. In Jodhpur, maximum houses are painted blue. At Ajmer, there is white marble Bara-dari on the Anasagar lake. Jain Temples dot Rajasthan from north to south and east to west. Dilwara Temples of Mount Abu, Ranakpur Temple dedicated to Lord Adinath in Pali District, Jain temples in the fort complexes of Chittor, Jaisalmer and Kumbhalgarh, Lodurva Jain temples, Mirpur Jain Temple, Sarun Mata Temple kotputli, Bhandasar and Karni Mata Temple of Bikaner and Mandore of Jodhpur are some of the best examples.
Guam
What country is Guam a territory of?
572a9bb9be1ee31400cb80b9
United States
141
False
Where is the island of Guan located?
572a9bb9be1ee31400cb80ba
northwestern Pacific Ocean
171
False
How many people currently call Guam home as of 2015?
572a9bb9be1ee31400cb80bb
161,785
357
False
What is the most populous city in Guam?
572a9bb9be1ee31400cb80bc
Dededo
340
False
What is the name of the largest mountain in Guam?
572a9bb9be1ee31400cb80bd
Mount Lamlam
801
False
161,785
357
How many people live in Hagatna?
5ace3d7d32bba1001ae49fed
True
Guam
199
What is the smallest of the Mariana Islands?
5ace3d7d32bba1001ae49fee
True
Micronesia
595
What is the northernmost Mariana Island?
5ace3d7d32bba1001ae49fef
True
American
219
What citizenry are people in Micronesia?
5ace3d7d32bba1001ae49ff0
True
Mount Lamlam
801
What is the high point of Micronesia?
5ace3d7d32bba1001ae49ff1
True
Guam (i/ˈɡwɑːm/ or /ˈɡwɒm/; Chamorro: Guåhån;[needs IPA] formally the Territory of Guam) is an unincorporated and organized territory of the United States. Located in the northwestern Pacific Ocean, Guam is one of five American territories with an established civilian government. The capital city is Hagåtña, and the most populous city is Dededo. In 2015, 161,785 people resided on Guam. Guamanians are American citizens by birth. Guam has an area of 544 km2 (210 sq mi) and a density of 297/km² (770/sq mi). It is the largest and southernmost of the Mariana Islands, and the largest island in Micronesia. Among its municipalities, Mongmong-Toto-Maite has the highest density at 1,425/km² (3,691/sq mi), whereas Inarajan and Umatac have the lowest density at 47/km² (119/sq mi). The highest point is Mount Lamlam at 406 meters (1,332 ft) above sea level.
What is the official name given for Guam's indigenous people?
572ab1da34ae481900deac39
Chamorros
4
False
When did Guam's indigenous people first arrive?
572ab1da34ae481900deac3a
4,000 years ago
74
False
Who was the first European to visit the island?
572ab1da34ae481900deac3b
Ferdinand Magellan
111
False
What year was Guam colonized?
572ab1da34ae481900deac3c
1668
213
False
What year did the United States capture Guam?
572ab1da34ae481900deac3d
1898
549
False
Portuguese
91
Which nationality first colonized Guam?
5ace3e8c32bba1001ae4a029
True
1898
462
When was the Treaty of Paris established?
5ace3e8c32bba1001ae4a02a
True
March 6
176
On what date in 1668 did Diego Luis de San Vitores land on Guam?
5ace3e8c32bba1001ae4a02b
True
1668
213
In which year did the first Spanish Manila Galleon make port in Guam?
5ace3e8c32bba1001ae4a02c
True
December 10
536
On what date in 1521 did Portuguese explorer Ferdinand Magellan leave Guam?
5ace3e8c32bba1001ae4a02d
True
The Chamorros, Guam's indigenous people, settled the island approximately 4,000 years ago. Portuguese explorer Ferdinand Magellan was the first European to visit the island on March 6, 1521. Guam was colonized in 1668 with settlers, like Diego Luis de San Vitores, a Catholic missionary. Between the 1500s and the 1700s, Guam was an important stopover for the Spanish Manila Galleons. During the Spanish–American War, the United States captured Guam on June 21, 1898. Under the Treaty of Paris, Spain ceded Guam to the United States on December 10, 1898. Guam is amongst the seventeen Non-Self-Governing Territories of the United Nations.
Along with Guam, which other territories were in the United States jurisdiction before WWII?
572ab2ccbe1ee31400cb818f
American Samoa, Hawaii, and the Philippines
56
False
What was the date on the attack of Pearl Harbor?
572ab2ccbe1ee31400cb8190
December 7, 1941
164
False
What happened just after the attack on Peal Harbor?
572ab2ccbe1ee31400cb8191
Guam was captured by the Japanese
222
False
How long did the Japanese occupation last?
572ab2ccbe1ee31400cb8192
thirty months
278
False
1941
176
In what year did the US acquire American Samoa?
5ace3f9232bba1001ae4a06b
True
1941
176
In what year did the US acquire the Philippines?
5ace3f9232bba1001ae4a06c
True
1944
489
In what year did the United States Armed Forces establish their first base on Guam?
5ace3f9232bba1001ae4a06d
True
December 7, 1941
164
On what date did World War II start?
5ace3f9232bba1001ae4a06e
True
Before World War II, Guam and three other territories – American Samoa, Hawaii, and the Philippines – were the only American jurisdictions in the Pacific Ocean. On December 7, 1941, hours after the attack on Pearl Harbor, Guam was captured by the Japanese, and was occupied for thirty months. During the occupation, Guamanians were subjected to culture alignment, forced labor, beheadings, rape, and torture. Guam endured hostilities when American forces recaptured the island on July 21, 1944; Liberation Day commemorates the victory. Since the 1960s, the economy is supported by two industries: tourism and the United States Armed Forces.
Which four classes made up the ancient -Chamorro society?
572abfa0be1ee31400cb820f
chamorri (chiefs), matua (upper class), achaot (middle class), and mana'chang (lower class)
47
False
Where were the matua located on the island?
572abfa0be1ee31400cb8210
coastal villages
176
False
Where were the mana'chag located?
572abfa0be1ee31400cb8211
interior of the island
294
False
interior of the island
294
Where did the chamorri live?
5ace406132bba1001ae4a095
True
coastal villages
176
Where did the matua live?
5ace406132bba1001ae4a096
True
fishing grounds
234
What did the mana'chang have the best access to?
5ace406132bba1001ae4a097
True
fishing grounds
234
What did the matua have the best access to?
5ace406132bba1001ae4a098
True
mana'chang
114
Who did the makahna mostly heal with medicine?
5ace406132bba1001ae4a099
True
The ancient-Chamorro society had four classes: chamorri (chiefs), matua (upper class), achaot (middle class), and mana'chang (lower class).:20–21 The matua were located in the coastal villages, which meant they had the best access to fishing grounds, whereas the mana'chang were located in the interior of the island. Matua and mana'chang rarely communicated with each other, and matua often used achaot as intermediaries. There were also "makåhna" (similar to shamans), skilled in healing and medicine. Belief in spirits of ancient Chamorros called "Taotao mo'na" still persists as a remnant of pre-European culture. Their society was organized along matrilineal clans.:21
What was the nationality of Magellan?
572b4a57be1ee31400cb830b
Portuguese
40
False
What year did Magellan locate the island of Guam?
572b4a57be1ee31400cb830c
1521
151
False
What were the name of outrigger canoes?
572b4a57be1ee31400cb830d
Proas
407
False
March 6, 1521
142
On what date did Portuguese navigator Ferdinand Magellan begin his trip around the world?
5ace418332bba1001ae4a0b3
True
Spain
105
From what country was Antonio Pigafetta?
5ace418332bba1001ae4a0b4
True
Antonio Pigafetta
511
Who was the King of Spain in 1521?
5ace418332bba1001ae4a0b5
True
Ferdinand Magellan
61
Which sailor came up with the name Islas De Los Ladrones for Guam?
5ace418332bba1001ae4a0b6
True
March 6, 1521
142
On what date did Ferdinand Magellan complete his circumnavigation of the globe?
5ace418332bba1001ae4a0b7
True
The first European to discover Guam was Portuguese navigator Ferdinand Magellan, sailing for the King of Spain, when he sighted the island on March 6, 1521 during his fleet's circumnavigation of the globe.:41–42 When Magellan arrived on Guam, he was greeted by hundreds of small outrigger canoes that appeared to be flying over the water, due to their considerable speed. These outrigger canoes were called Proas, and resulted in Magellan naming Guam Islas de las Velas Latinas ("Islands of the Lateen sails"). Antonio Pigafetta, one of Magellan's original 18 the name "Island of Sails", but he also writes that the inhabitants "entered the ships and stole whatever they could lay their hands on", including "the small boat that was fastened to the poop of the flagship.":129 "Those people are poor, but ingenious and very thievish, on account of which we called those three islands Islas de los Ladrones ("Islands of thieves").":131
In what year was Guam claimed by Spain?
572b4afc34ae481900dead7b
1565
85
False
What was the name of the general who claimed Guam?
572b4afc34ae481900dead7c
General Miguel López de Legazpi
93
False
What did Spain build to protect their fleet at Guam?
572b4afc34ae481900dead7d
built several defensive structures
429
False
Guam
26
What Spanish outposts was there west of the Philippines?
5ace42c732bba1001ae4a0f9
True
the Philippines
241
In what country is Acapulco?
5ace42c732bba1001ae4a0fa
True
Spain
423
In what country is Manila?
5ace42c732bba1001ae4a0fb
True
1565
85
In what year was Fort Nuestra Senora de la Soledad built?
5ace42c732bba1001ae4a0fc
True
New Guinea
655
What was an important resting stop for Manila galleons on the Atlantic trade route?
5ace42c732bba1001ae4a0fd
True
Despite Magellan's visit, Guam was not officially claimed by Spain until January 26, 1565 by General Miguel López de Legazpi.:46 From 1565 to 1815, Guam and the Northern Mariana Islands, the only Spanish outpost in the Pacific Ocean east of the Philippines, was an important resting stop for the Manila galleons, a fleet that covered the Pacific trade route between Acapulco and Manila.:51 To protect these Pacific fleets, Spain built several defensive structures which are still standing today, such as Fort Nuestra Señora de la Soledad in Umatac. It is the biggest single segment of Micronesia, the largest islands between the island of Kyushu (Japan), New Guinea, the Philippines, and the Hawaiian Islands.
When did Spanish colonization commence?
572b4bbf111d821400f38e2e
June 15, 1668
34
False
Which two Spaniards aided this colonization and started the first catholic church?
572b4bbf111d821400f38e2f
Diego Luis de San Vitores and Pedro Calungsod
68
False
When did Guam's Cathedral first open?
572b4bbf111d821400f38e30
February 2, 1669
509
False
What was the name of the first Cathedral?
572b4bbf111d821400f38e31
Dulce Nombre de Maria
464
False
1668
43
In what year did Spain colonize Mexico City?
5ace43e332bba1001ae4a125
True
Cathedral Dulce Nombre de Maria
454
What was Pedro Calungsod's Catholic church named?
5ace43e332bba1001ae4a126
True
June 15, 1668
34
On what date did Spain colonize the Philippines?
5ace43e332bba1001ae4a127
True
February 2, 1669
509
On what date was the Governor's Palace in Plaza de Espana completed?
5ace43e332bba1001ae4a128
True
Diego Luis de San Vitores
68
Who had the Royal College of San Juan de Letran built?
5ace43e332bba1001ae4a129
True
Spanish colonization commenced on June 15, 1668 with the arrival of Diego Luis de San Vitores and Pedro Calungsod, who established the first Catholic church.:64 The islands were part of the Spanish East Indies governed from the Philippines, which were in turn part of the Viceroyalty of New Spain based in Mexico City. Other reminders of colonial times include the old Governor's Palace in Plaza de España and the Spanish Bridge, both in Hagatña. Guam's Cathedral Dulce Nombre de Maria was formally opened on February 2, 1669, as was the Royal College of San Juan de Letran.:68 Guam, along with the rest of the Mariana and Caroline Islands, were treated as part of Spain's colony in the Philippines. While Guam's Chamorro culture has indigenous roots, the cultures of both Guam and the Northern Marianas have many similarities with Spanish and Mexican culture due to three centuries of Spanish rule.
When did the Smallpox epidemic take place?
572b4c90111d821400f38e36
1688
144
False
In what years was there intermittent war fare?
572b4c90111d821400f38e37
July 23, 1670 until July 1695
34
False
What did the smallpox epidemic reduce the population down to in Chamorro?
572b4c90111d821400f38e38
50,000 to 10,000
187
False
What was the name of the person who started the campaign to pacify the area?
572b4c90111d821400f38e39
Juan de Santiago
400
False
1688
144
In what year did Quipua die?
5ace44f632bba1001ae4a139
True
smallpox
123
What did Quipuha dies of?
5ace44f632bba1001ae4a13a
True
1688
144
In what year did Captain Juan de Santiago start to pacify Guam?
5ace44f632bba1001ae4a13b
True
1670
43
In what year did Father San Vitores arrive in Guam?
5ace44f632bba1001ae4a13c
True
murder
273
How did local rebel chief Matapang eventually die?
5ace44f632bba1001ae4a13d
True
Intermittent warfare lasting from July 23, 1670 until July 1695, plus the typhoons of 1671 and 1693, and in particular the smallpox epidemic of 1688, reduced the Chamorro population from 50,000 to 10,000 to less than 5,000.:86 Precipitated by the death of Quipuha, and the murder of Father San Vitores and Pedro Calungsod by local rebel chief Matapang, tensions led to a number of conflicts. Captain Juan de Santiago started a campaign to pacify the island, which was continued by the successive commanders of the Spanish forces.:68–74
When did Captain Damian de Esplana arrive?
572b4d78be1ee31400cb8311
1674
21
False
What did Captain Damian do after his arrival?
572b4d78be1ee31400cb8312
ordered the arrest of rebels
53
False
Who was the first Spanish Governor of Guam?
572b4d78be1ee31400cb8313
Francisco de Irrisarri y Vinar
325
False
In what year did Jose de Quiroga arrive?
572b4d78be1ee31400cb8314
1680
570
False
in What year did Quiroga complete his pacification?
572b4d78be1ee31400cb8315
1695
1120
False
1680
570
In what year did Capt. Francisco de Irrisarri y Vinar stop being the Governor of Guam?
5ace492b32bba1001ae4a1b7
True
Hurao
862
Who assassinated Father San Vitores?
5ace492b32bba1001ae4a1b8
True
Rota
1182
Which island were the Jinapsan from?
5ace492b32bba1001ae4a1b9
True
Tinian
1188
Which island were the Utmatac from?
5ace492b32bba1001ae4a1ba
True
Aguigan
1199
Which island were the Pago from?
5ace492b32bba1001ae4a1bb
True
After his arrival in 1674, Captain Damian de Esplana ordered the arrest of rebels who attacked the population of certain towns. Hostilities eventually led to the destruction of villages such as Chochogo, Pepura, Tumon, Sidia-Aty, Sagua, Nagan and Ninca.:74–75 Starting in June 1676, the first Spanish Governor of Guam, Capt. Francisco de Irrisarri y Vinar controlled internal affairs more strictly than his predecessors in order to curb tensions. He also ordered the construction of schools, roads and other infrastructure.:75–76 Later, Capt. Jose de Quiroga arrived in 1680 and continued some of the development projects started by his predecessors. He also continued the search for the rebels who had assassinated Father San Vitores, resulting in campaigns against the rebels which were hiding out in some islands, eventually leading to the death of Matapang, Hurao and Aguarin.:77–78 Quiroga brought some natives from the northern islands to Guam, ordering the population to live in a few large villages.:78–79 These included Jinapsan, Umatac, Pago, Agat and Inarajan, where he built a number of churches.:79 By July 1695, Quiroga had completed the pacification process in Guam, Rota, Tinian and Aguigan.:85
When did the United States take control of the island?
572b4e2e111d821400f38e46
1898
52
False
What happened that allowed the United States to have Guam?
572b4e2e111d821400f38e47
Spanish–American War
57
False
What is the name of the executive order that transferred Guam over to the U.S?
572b4e2e111d821400f38e48
108-A
192
False
Which two people were exiled to Guam after the Philippine-American war?
572b4e2e111d821400f38e49
Emilio Aguinaldo and Apolinario Mabini
494
False
1901
446
In what year did the Northern Mariana Islands pass From Germany to Japan?
5ace4a6c32bba1001ae4a1db
True
The United States
0
Who started the Spanish-American War?
5ace4a6c32bba1001ae4a1dc
True
The United States
0
Which country exiled Emilio Aguinaldo to Guam?
5ace4a6c32bba1001ae4a1dd
True
the Philippines
272
Which country exiled Apolinario Mabini to Guam?
5ace4a6c32bba1001ae4a1de
True
The United States took control of the island in the 1898 Spanish–American War, as part of the Treaty of Paris. Guam was transferred to U.S. Navy control on 23 December 1898 by Executive Order 108-A. Guam came to serve as a station for American ships traveling to and from the Philippines, while the Northern Mariana Islands passed to Germany, and then to Japan. A U.S. Navy yard was established at Piti in 1899, and a marine barracks at Sumay in 1901.:13 Following the Philippine–American War, Emilio Aguinaldo and Apolinario Mabini were exiled on Guam in 1901.:vi
Why were the Chamorros brought to Guam?
572b4f0b111d821400f38e4e
to serve as interpreters
153
False
How were Guamanian Chamorro viewed by the Japanese?
572b4f0b111d821400f38e4f
as an occupied enemy
273
False
Who were loyal to Japan?
572b4f0b111d821400f38e50
Northern Mariana Chamorros
586
False
enemy
288
How Northern Chamorro view Guamanian Chamorro?
5ace4baa32bba1001ae4a1f5
True
30
572
For how many years did Japan occupy Guam?
5ace4baa32bba1001ae4a1f6
True
30
572
For how many years before the war had the Northern Mariana Islands been a Japanese protectorate?
5ace4baa32bba1001ae4a1f7
True
Japan
627
Who were the Guamanian Chamorro loyal to?
5ace4baa32bba1001ae4a1f8
True
compassionate
506
With what attitude did the Northern Chamorro treat the Guamanian Chamorro during the occupation?
5ace4baa32bba1001ae4a1f9
True
The Northern Mariana Islands had become a Japanese protectorate before the war. It was the Chamorros from the Northern Marianas who were brought to Guam to serve as interpreters and in other capacities for the occupying Japanese force. The Guamanian Chamorros were treated as an occupied enemy by the Japanese military. After the war, this would cause resentment between the Guamanian Chamorros and the Chamorros of the Northern Marianas. Guam's Chamorros believed their northern brethren should have been compassionate towards them, whereas having been occupied for over 30 years, the Northern Mariana Chamorros were loyal to Japan.
What established Guam as an unincorporated territory?
572b4fecbe1ee31400cb831b
Guam Organic Act of 1950
24
False
What conflict did the Organic Act come after?
572b4fecbe1ee31400cb831c
After World War II
0
False
What did the Guam Act allow the population now that they were a U.S territory?
572b4fecbe1ee31400cb831d
granted the people U.S. citizenship
197
False
1950
44
In what year did World War II end?
5ace4d2032bba1001ae4a221
True
president
466
What are U.S. citizens in Guam allowed to vote for?
5ace4d2032bba1001ae4a222
True
United States
114
Who controlled Guam before World War II?
5ace4d2032bba1001ae4a223
True
Guam
24
Whose congressional representative is a voting member?
5ace4d2032bba1001ae4a224
True
After World War II, the Guam Organic Act of 1950 established Guam as an unincorporated organized territory of the United States, provided for the structure of the island's civilian government, and granted the people U.S. citizenship. The Governor of Guam was federally appointed until 1968, when the Guam Elective Governor Act provided for the office's popular election.:242 Since Guam is not a U.S. state, U.S. citizens residing on Guam are not allowed to vote for president and their congressional representative is a non-voting member.
How many square miles is Guam?
572b50a1111d821400f38e54
212
88
False
How was this island chain created?
572b50a1111d821400f38e55
the colliding Pacific and Philippine Sea tectonic plates
321
False
How deep is the Mariana Trench located near Guam?
572b50a1111d821400f38e56
35,797
586
False
Guam
0
What is the biggest island of the United States?
5ace4e3932bba1001ae4a233
True
13.2°N and 13.7°N and between 144.6°E and 145.0°E
18
At what coordinates does the Mariana Trench lie?
5ace4e3932bba1001ae4a234
True
Mount Lamlam
649
What is the highest point in the Mariana island chain?
5ace4e3932bba1001ae4a235
True
Guam
0
What is the smallest island in Micronesia?
5ace4e3932bba1001ae4a236
True
Mount Lamlam
649
What is the lowest point in Guam?
5ace4e3932bba1001ae4a237
True
Guam lies between 13.2°N and 13.7°N and between 144.6°E and 145.0°E, and has an area of 212 square miles (549 km2), making it the 32nd largest island of the United States. It is the southernmost and largest island in the Mariana island chain and is also the largest island in Micronesia. This island chain was created by the colliding Pacific and Philippine Sea tectonic plates. Guam is the closest land mass to the Mariana Trench, a deep subduction zone, that lies beside the island chain to the east. Challenger Deep, the deepest surveyed point in the Oceans, is southwest of Guam at 35,797 feet (10,911 meters) deep. The highest point in Guam is Mount Lamlam at an elevation of 1,334 feet (407 meters).
How many miles is Guam across?
572b514734ae481900dead81
30 miles
22
False
What natural disaster that is not predictable does Guam have to worry about?
572b514734ae481900dead82
earthquakes
142
False
Due to Guam being so close to Anatahan, what dod they have to worry about?
572b514734ae481900dead83
volcanic smog
497
False
Singapore
97
On what island is Anatahan located?
5ace51f632bba1001ae4a295
True
8.7
345
What was the size of the last earthquake to hit Guam?
5ace51f632bba1001ae4a296
True
30 miles
22
How far away is Anatahan volcano from Guam?
5ace51f632bba1001ae4a297
True
4 to 12 miles
48
How far off the coast is the typical earthquake experienced by Guam?
5ace51f632bba1001ae4a298
True
The island of Guam is 30 miles (50 km) long and 4 to 12 miles (6 to 19 km) wide, 3⁄4 the size of Singapore. The island experiences occasional earthquakes due to its location on the western edge of the Pacific Plate and near the Philippine Sea Plate. In recent years, earthquakes with epicenters near Guam have had magnitudes ranging from 5.0 to 8.7. Unlike the Anatahan volcano in the Northern Mariana Islands, Guam is not volcanically active. However, due to its proximity to Anatahan, vog (i.e. volcanic smog) does occasionally affect Guam.
What is Guam's climate characterized as?
572b521ebe1ee31400cb8321
tropical marine
35
False
What is the mean high temperature in Guam?
572b521ebe1ee31400cb8322
86 °F (30 °C)
214
False
What is the average annual rainfall of Guam?
572b521ebe1ee31400cb8323
96 inches (2,180 mm)
293
False
When does the dry season in Guam typical run?
572b521ebe1ee31400cb8324
December to June
340
False
Which months are considered the coldest in Guam?
572b521ebe1ee31400cb8325
January and February
441
False
76 °F
244
What is the usual overnight low temperature in March?
5ace53c532bba1001ae4a2b9
True
86 °F
214
What is the mean high temperature in Guam in November?
5ace53c532bba1001ae4a2ba
True
96 inches
293
What is the mean annual rainfall in Guam?
5ace53c532bba1001ae4a2bb
True
December
340
What is usually the hottest month in Guam?
5ace53c532bba1001ae4a2bc
True
June
352
What is usually the coldest month in Guam?
5ace53c532bba1001ae4a2bd
True
Guam's climate is characterized as tropical marine moderated by seasonal northeast trade winds. The weather is generally very warm and humid with little seasonal temperature variation. The mean high temperature is 86 °F (30 °C) and mean low is 76 °F (24 °C) with an average annual rainfall of 96 inches (2,180 mm). The dry season runs from December to June. The remaining months (July to November) constitute the rainy season. The months of January and February are considered the coolest months of the year with overnight low temperatures of 70–75 °F (21–24 °C) and low humidity levels. The highest temperature ever recorded in Guam was 96 °F (36 °C) on April 18, 1971 and April 1, 1990, and the lowest temperature ever recorded was 65 °F (18 °C) on February 8, 1973.
hat years did the Spanish rule Guam?
572b530a34ae481900dead87
1668–1898
395
False
What religion was the general population converted to?
572b530a34ae481900dead88
Roman Catholicism
454
False
Which two major holidays become popular in Guam?
572b530a34ae481900dead89
Easter and Christmas
506
False
What is the name of the modern Chamorro language?
572b530a34ae481900dead8a
Malayo-Polynesian
769
False
corn
596
What was pre-contact Chamorro cuisine based on?
5ace550132bba1001ae4a2d7
True
Malayo-Polynesian
769
What language did the Chamorro speak pre-contact?
5ace550132bba1001ae4a2d8
True
1668
395
In what year was the catalogo alfabetico de apellidos published?
5ace550132bba1001ae4a2d9
True
1668
395
In what year was the batu game created?
5ace550132bba1001ae4a2da
True
1898
400
In what year was the chonka game created?
5ace550132bba1001ae4a2db
True
Post-European-contact Chamorro culture is a combination of American, Spanish, Filipino, other Micronesian Islander and Mexican traditions, with few remaining indigenous pre-Hispanic customs. These influences are manifested in the local language, music, dance, sea navigation, cuisine, fishing, games (such as batu, chonka, estuleks, and bayogu), songs and fashion. During Spanish colonial rule (1668–1898) the majority of the population was converted to Roman Catholicism and religious festivities such as Easter and Christmas became widespread. Post-contact Chamorro cuisine is largely based on corn, and includes tortillas, tamales, atole and chilaquiles, which are a clear influence from Spanish trade between Mesoamerica and Asia. The modern Chamorro language is a Malayo-Polynesian language with much Spanish and Filipino influence. Many Chamorros also have Spanish surnames because of their conversion to Roman Catholic Christianity and the adoption of names from the Catálogo alfabético de apellidos, a phenomenon also common to the Philippines.
What two indiginous pre-hispanic culture has survived to this point?
572b55f7f75d5e190021fd8c
chenchule' and inafa'maolek
71
False
What is the name of the intricate system in Guam?
572b55f7f75d5e190021fd8d
. Chenchule
98
False
What do the Chamorro believe in according to Historian Lawrence Cinningham
572b55f7f75d5e190021fd8e
the land and its produce belong to everyone
299
False
chenchule'
71
What is one of Historian Lawrence Cunningham's own cultures concepts?
5ace55f632bba1001ae4a2eb
True
inafa'maolek
86
What is the Chamorro word for being selfish?
5ace55f632bba1001ae4a2ec
True
chenchule'
71
What is the Chamorro word for refusing to reciprocate?
5ace55f632bba1001ae4a2ed
True
1992
265
In what year did Historian Lawrence Cunningham first start learning about the Chamorro?
5ace55f632bba1001ae4a2ee
True
inafa'maolek
86
What is the Chamorro term for individualism?
5ace55f632bba1001ae4a2ef
True
Two aspects of indigenous pre-Hispanic culture that withstood time are chenchule' and inafa'maolek. Chenchule' is the intricate system of reciprocity at the heart of Chamorro society. It is rooted in the core value of inafa'maolek. Historian Lawrence Cunningham in 1992 wrote, "In a Chamorro sense, the land and its produce belong to everyone. Inafa'maolek, or interdependence, is the key, or central value, in Chamorro culture ... Inafa'maolek depends on a spirit of cooperation and sharing. This is the armature, or core, that everything in Chamorro culture revolves around. It is a powerful concern for mutuality rather than individualism and private property rights."
What is the culture of Pengngan Chamorro based on?
572b56d4be1ee31400cb833b
social protocol
58
False
What does mangnging refer to that directly involves one major human scense?
572b56d4be1ee31400cb833c
sniffing over the hands of the elders
102
False
What is a belembaotuyan in Guam?
572b56d4be1ee31400cb833d
string musical instrument made from a gourd
449
False
Chamorro
29
Which culture involves sniffs the feet of elders?
5ace56ec32bba1001ae4a31b
True
Pengngan Chamorro
20
Which culture is based on very simple social protocols?
5ace56ec32bba1001ae4a31c
True
gourd
487
What are the Chamorro canoes made of?
5ace56ec32bba1001ae4a31d
True
mangnginge
148
What is the  Chamorro term for sniffing the feet of elders?
5ace56ec32bba1001ae4a31e
True
gourd
487
What are used as slingstones by the Chamorro traditionally?
5ace56ec32bba1001ae4a31f
True
The core culture or Pengngan Chamorro is based on complex social protocol centered upon respect: From sniffing over the hands of the elders (called mangnginge in Chamorro), the passing down of legends, chants, and courtship rituals, to a person asking for permission from spiritual ancestors before entering a jungle or ancient battle grounds. Other practices predating Spanish conquest include galaide' canoe-making, making of the belembaotuyan (a string musical instrument made from a gourd), fashioning of åcho' atupat slings and slingstones, tool manufacture, Måtan Guma' burial rituals, and preparation of herbal medicines by Suruhanu.
What posses some challenges for the Chamorros who find it hard to keep their culture?
572b57ee34ae481900deada3
cosmopolitan and multicultural nature of modern Guam
4
False
What else has led to the Chamorro find it hard to keep their culture that involves it's children?
572b57ee34ae481900deada4
relocating to the U.S. Mainland
234
False
What has recently led to a resurgence in the Chamorros culture and preservation of their old ways?
572b57ee34ae481900deada5
young Chamorros who seek to continue the ancient ways of the Chamorro people.
548
False
relocating to the U.S. Mainland
234
What are some of the easy ways that the Chamorros keep their culture?
5ace57d732bba1001ae4a339
True
relocating to the U.S. Mainland
234
What has made it easier to preserve the Chamorro identity over the years?
5ace57d732bba1001ae4a33a
True
forces of acculturation
145
What has benefitted modern-day Chamorro?
5ace57d732bba1001ae4a33b
True
Chamorros
78
Who have primarily relocated from the U.S. Mainland to Guam?
5ace57d732bba1001ae4a33c
True
The cosmopolitan and multicultural nature of modern Guam poses challenges for Chamorros struggling to preserve their culture and identity amidst forces of acculturation. The increasing numbers of Chamorros, especially Chamorro youth, relocating to the U.S. Mainland has further complicated both definition and preservation of Chamorro identity.[citation needed] While only a few masters exist to continue traditional art forms, the resurgence of interest among the Chamorros to preserve the language and culture has resulted in a growing number of young Chamorros who seek to continue the ancient ways of the Chamorro people.
How many people make up the Guam legislation?
572b589c34ae481900deadb1
15
66
False
Who is the current non-voting delegate for Guam?
572b589c34ae481900deadb2
Democrat Madeleine Z. Bordallo
173
False
How many electoral votes does Guam currently have?
572b589c34ae481900deadb3
Guam has no votes
365
False
unicameral 15-member legislature
55
Who elects one non-voting delegate to the United States House of Representatives?
5ace598b32bba1001ae4a371
True
Madeleine Z. Bordallo
182
Who is the current governor of Guam?
5ace598b32bba1001ae4a372
True
Madeleine Z. Bordallo
182
Who is one of the current legislators in Guam?
5ace598b32bba1001ae4a373
True
Madeleine Z. Bordallo
182
Who did Guam last send as a delegate to the Republican national convention?
5ace598b32bba1001ae4a374
True
Democratic
490
What party is the current governor of Guam a member of?
5ace598b32bba1001ae4a375
True
Guam is governed by a popularly elected governor and a unicameral 15-member legislature, whose members are known as senators. Guam elects one non-voting delegate, currently Democrat Madeleine Z. Bordallo, to the United States House of Representatives. U.S. citizens in Guam vote in a straw poll for their choice in the U.S. Presidential general election, but since Guam has no votes in the Electoral College, the poll has no real effect. However, in sending delegates to the Republican and Democratic national conventions, Guam does have influence in the national presidential race. These delegates are elected by local party conventions.
What major movement occurred in Guam in the 80's and 90's?
572b597e111d821400f38e6c
becoming a commonwealth
89
False
Why would Guam becoming a commonwealth be so important?
572b597e111d821400f38e6d
would give it a level of self-government similar to Puerto Rico
120
False
What is the name of this U.S state that could possibly form a union with Guam?
572b597e111d821400f38e6e
Hawaii
518
False
1990s
23
In what decade was union between Hawaii and Guam first brought up?
5ace5ab232bba1001ae4a38f
True
1980s
7
In what decade did union between Guam and the Northern Mariana Islands first start to get talked about?
5ace5ab232bba1001ae4a390
True
1990s
23
In what decade was the U.S. Constitution last modified?
5ace5ab232bba1001ae4a391
True
1980s
7
When did people in Guam start advocating for U.S. statehood?
5ace5ab232bba1001ae4a392
True
In the 1980s and early 1990s, there was a significant movement in favor of the territory becoming a commonwealth, which would give it a level of self-government similar to Puerto Rico and the Northern Mariana Islands. However, the federal government rejected the version of a commonwealth that the government of Guam proposed, due to it having clauses incompatible with the Territorial Clause (Art. IV, Sec. 3, cl. 2) of the U.S. Constitution. Other movements advocate U.S. statehood for Guam, union with the state of Hawaii, union with the Northern Mariana Islands as a single territory, or independence.
What has the U.S military proposed?
572b5ad134ae481900deadb7
building a new aircraft carrier berth on Guam
31
False
How many Marines would the United States move to Guam?
572b5ad134ae481900deadb8
8,600 Marines
88
False
Because of the EPA, how many Marines would the United States be able to send to Guam to live?
572b5ad134ae481900deadb9
4,800 Marines
507
False
8,600
88
How many marines are stationed in Okinawa, Japan?
5ace5ba532bba1001ae4a3c7
True
9,000
107
How many dependents of Marines are there in Okinawa, Japan?
5ace5ba532bba1001ae4a3c8
True
4,800
507
How many dependents of Marines are now allowed in Guam?
5ace5ba532bba1001ae4a3c9
True
aircraft carrier berth
46
What type of military base does the U.S. military have in Okinawa, Japan?
5ace5ba532bba1001ae4a3ca
True
9,000
107
How many construction workers had the U.S. military been planning to have in Guam to build a new aircraft carrier berth?
5ace5ba532bba1001ae4a3cb
True
The U.S. military has proposed building a new aircraft carrier berth on Guam and moving 8,600 Marines, and 9,000 of their dependents, to Guam from Okinawa, Japan. Including the required construction workers, this buildup would increase Guam's population by 45%. In a February 2010 letter, the United States Environmental Protection Agency sharply criticized these plans because of a water shortfall, sewage problems and the impact on coral reefs. By 2012, these plans had been cut to only have a maximum of 4,800 Marines stationed on the island, two thirds of which would be there on a rotational basis without their dependents.
What tourist commonly visits Guam?
572b5bd7be1ee31400cb8341
Japanese
64
False
Around how many Hotels does Guam currently have?
572b5bd7be1ee31400cb8342
20 large hotels
121
False
How many public golf courses does Guam currently have?
572b5bd7be1ee31400cb8343
seven
382
False
About how many tourist visit Guam yearly?
572b5bd7be1ee31400cb8344
a million
427
False
Which major U.S store does Guam currently have that happens to be the largest in the world?
572b5bd7be1ee31400cb8345
Kmart
795
False
20
121
HOw many stores are there in the Duty Free Shoppers Galleria?
5ace5c8932bba1001ae4a3ef
True
Taiwan
591
After Japan where do most tourists to Guam come from?
5ace5c8932bba1001ae4a3f0
True
20
121
How many retail stores are there in Agana Shopping Center?
5ace5c8932bba1001ae4a3f1
True
the U.S.
560
Where do most tourists to the Philippines come from?
5ace5c8932bba1001ae4a3f2
True
South Korea
547
From where do most tourists come from in Taiwan?
5ace5c8932bba1001ae4a3f3
True
Lying in the western Pacific, Guam is a popular destination for Japanese tourists. Its tourist hub, Tumon, features over 20 large hotels, a Duty Free Shoppers Galleria, Pleasure Island district, indoor aquarium, Sandcastle Las Vegas–styled shows and other shopping and entertainment venues. It is a relatively short flight from Asia or Australia compared to Hawaii, with hotels and seven public golf courses accommodating over a million tourists per year. Although 75% of the tourists are Japanese, Guam receives a sizable number of tourists from South Korea, the U.S., the Philippines, and Taiwan. Significant sources of revenue include duty-free designer shopping outlets, and the American-style malls: Micronesia Mall, Guam Premier Outlets, the Agana Shopping Center, and the world's largest Kmart.[citation needed]
What is the name of the pact held between the United States, Micronesia, Marshal Islands, and Palau?
572b5d20f75d5e190021fd9c
The Compacts of Free Association
0
False
What is the benefit of the  Compacts of Free Association?
572b5d20f75d5e190021fd9d
no restrictions to reside in the United States (also its territories)
360
False
What has Guam claimed about Compacts of Free Association?
572b5d20f75d5e190021fd9e
the territory has had to bear the brunt of this agreement
578
False
Republic of Palau
141
Which Pacific Island is closest to the Republic of the Marshall Islands?
5ace5eae32bba1001ae4a43f
True
Republic of Palau
141
From which Pacific Island nation does Gaum gain the most population?
5ace5eae32bba1001ae4a440
True
Republic of the Marshall Islands
100
From which Pacific Island country does Guam gain the least population?
5ace5eae32bba1001ae4a441
True
Republic of Palau
141
The Federated States of Micronesia has more citizens from which Pacific Island nation over any other?
5ace5eae32bba1001ae4a442
True
Republic of the Marshall Islands
100
Which Pacific Islands culture is most culturally similar to Guam?
5ace5eae32bba1001ae4a443
True
The Compacts of Free Association between the United States, the Federated States of Micronesia, the Republic of the Marshall Islands and the Republic of Palau accorded the former entities of the Trust Territory of the Pacific Islands a political status of "free association" with the United States. The Compacts give citizens of these island nations generally no restrictions to reside in the United States (also its territories), and many were attracted to Guam due to its proximity, environmental, and cultural familiarity. Over the years, it was claimed by some in Guam that the territory has had to bear the brunt of this agreement in the form of public assistance programs and public education for those from the regions involved, and the federal government should compensate the states and territories affected by this type of migration.[citation needed] Over the years, Congress had appropriated "Compact Impact" aids to Guam, the Northern Mariana Islands and Hawaii, and eventually this appropriation was written into each renewed Compact. Some, however, continue to claim the compensation is not enough or that the distribution of actual compensation received is significantly disproportionate.[citation needed]
In what year was the local postage stamp overprinted and has since been replaced?
572b5e0834ae481900deadd5
1899
3
False
What type of postal service does Guam currently have today?
572b5e0834ae481900deadd6
U.S. postage
166
False
What is the current Zip Code range in Guam?
572b5e0834ae481900deadd7
96910–96932
307
False
Which three major companies do not consider Guam as domestic when shipping is involved?
572b5e0834ae481900deadd8
FedEx, UPS, and DHL
456
False
1899
3
In what year did Guam get regular U.S. postage stamps?
5ace5fb432bba1001ae4a465
True
FedEx
456
What private shipping company considers Guam as an international nation?
5ace5fb432bba1001ae4a466
True
UPS
463
Which private shipping company charges more to ship packages to Guam?
5ace5fb432bba1001ae4a467
True
DHL
472
Which private shipping company gets packages back and forth to Guam fastest?
5ace5fb432bba1001ae4a468
True
1899
3
In what year did UPS first start shipping packages to Guam?
5ace5fb432bba1001ae4a469
True
In 1899, the local postage stamps were overprinted "Guam" as was done for the other former Spanish colonies, but this was discontinued shortly thereafter and regular U.S. postage stamps have been used ever since. Because Guam is also part of the U.S. Postal System (postal abbreviation: GU, ZIP code range: 96910–96932), mail to Guam from the U.S. mainland is considered domestic and no additional charges are required. Private shipping companies, such as FedEx, UPS, and DHL, however, have no obligation to do so, and do not regard Guam as domestic.
What determines the speed in which mail reaches Guam from the United States?
572b5ebc34ae481900deaddd
on size and time of year
73
False
Which type of service usually takes less than a week to get postage to the island?
572b5ebc34ae481900deadde
first-class
106
False
What do most Guam residents use when receiving mail?
572b5ebc34ae481900deaddf
post office boxes or private mail boxes
349
False
time of year
85
Which is more important when it comes to shipping speed to Guam, size or time of year?
5ace606332bba1001ae4a493
True
a week or two
231
How long does fourth-class mail take to get to Guam?
5ace606332bba1001ae4a494
True
a week or two
231
How long does it take for a ship to sail from Hawaii to Guam?
5ace606332bba1001ae4a495
True
a week or two
231
How long does it take a boat to go from the U.S. Mainland to Guam?
5ace606332bba1001ae4a496
True
The speed of mail traveling between Guam and the states varies depending on size and time of year. Light, first-class items generally take less than a week to or from the mainland, but larger first-class or Priority items can take a week or two. Fourth-class mail, such as magazines, are transported by sea after reaching Hawaii. Most residents use post office boxes or private mail boxes, although residential delivery is becoming increasingly available. Incoming mail not from the Americas should be addressed to "Guam" instead of "USA" to avoid being routed the long way through the U.S. mainland and possibly charged a higher rate (especially from Asia).
What is considered to be the lifeline of Guam?
572b62ad34ae481900deade3
The Commercial Port
0
False
What is the name of the shipping company in Hawaii that connects Guam?
572b62ad34ae481900deade4
Matson, Inc
179
False
Why is the port so important?
572b62ad34ae481900deade5
most products must be shipped into Guam for consumers
61
False
500,000
376
How many tons can a Matson, Inc., container ship carry to Guam?
5ace612832bba1001ae4a4b9
True
500,000
376
What is the population of Seattle?
5ace612832bba1001ae4a4ba
True
Honolulu
232
What is the population of Honolulu?
5ace612832bba1001ae4a4bb
True
Guam
96
On what island is the Anderson Air Force Base?
5ace612832bba1001ae4a4bc
True
Guam
23
On what island is the Naval Forces Marianas?
5ace612832bba1001ae4a4bd
True
The Commercial Port of Guam is the island's lifeline because most products must be shipped into Guam for consumers. It receives the weekly calls of the Hawaii-based shipping line Matson, Inc. whose container ships connect Guam with Honolulu, Hawaii, Los Angeles, California, Oakland, California and Seattle, Washington. The port is also the regional transhipment hub for over 500,000 customers throughout the Micronesian region. The port is the shipping and receiving point for containers designated for the island's U.S. Department of Defense installations, Andersen Air Force Base and Commander, Naval Forces Marianas and eventually the Third Marine Expeditionary Force.
What is the name of the international airport in Guam?
572b63a8be1ee31400cb834b
Antonio B. Won Pat
22
False
What major airline resides at the airport?
572b63a8be1ee31400cb834c
United Airlines
83
False
What is Guam responsible for when goods both come in and leave?
572b63a8be1ee31400cb834d
operating its own customs and quarantine agency
197
False
United States
126
Where was Antonio B. Won Pat from originally?
5ace625732bba1001ae4a4f5
True
customs
215
Where do American passengers arriving indirectly from the United States first go?
5ace625732bba1001ae4a4f6
True
United States
126
Which country most often has flights to Guam?
5ace625732bba1001ae4a4f7
True
United Airlines
83
Which company's planes land most often at Antonio B. Won Pat International Airport?
5ace625732bba1001ae4a4f8
True
Guam is served by the Antonio B. Won Pat International Airport, which is a hub for United Airlines. The island is outside the United States customs zone so Guam is responsible for establishing and operating its own customs and quarantine agency and jurisdiction. Therefore, the U.S. Customs and Border Protection only carries immigration (but not customs) functions. Since Guam is under federal immigration jurisdiction, passengers arriving directly from the United States skip immigration and proceed directly to Guam Customs and Quarantine.
Which animal was accidentally introduced into Guam?
572b63f4be1ee31400cb8351
brown tree snake
89
False
What was accidentally introduced into Guam?
572b6504be1ee31400cb8353
brown tree snake
89
False
With the introduction of a non native snake in the area of Guam what impact did it have the island?
572b6504be1ee31400cb8354
nearly eliminated the native bird population
214
False
What has the U.S Department of Agriculture done to help watch for the snakes?
572b6504be1ee31400cb8355
has trained detector dogs to keep the snakes out of the island's cargo flow
742
False
no native species
183
How many native species of birds did Guam have prior to World War II?
5ace637c32bba1001ae4a52b
True
no native species
183
How many native species of birds did the Solomon Islands have prior to World War II?
5ace637c32bba1001ae4a52c
True
trained detector dogs
746
What do Australian authorities do to not send brown tree snakes to Guam accidentally?
5ace637c32bba1001ae4a52d
True
brown tree snake
89
What is one of the snakes that is very poisonous to humans?
5ace637c32bba1001ae4a52e
True
the Solomon Islands
477
Where was the U.S. military transport ultimately headed when it accidentally introduced the brown tree snake to Guam?
5ace637c32bba1001ae4a52f
True
Believed to be a stowaway on a U.S. military transport near the end of World War II, the brown tree snake (Boiga irregularis) was accidentally introduced to Guam, that previously had no native species of snake. It nearly eliminated the native bird population. The problem was exacerbated because the reptile has no natural predators on the island. The brown tree snake, known locally as the kulebla, is native to northern and eastern coasts of Australia, Papua New Guinea, and the Solomon Islands. While slightly venomous, the snake is relatively harmless to human beings. Although some studies have suggested a high density of these serpents on Guam, residents rarely see the nocturnal creatures. The United States Department of Agriculture has trained detector dogs to keep the snakes out of the island's cargo flow. The United States Geological Survey also has dogs capable of detecting snakes in forested environments around the region's islands.
What are the names of the two native birds in Guam before the brown snake intrusion?
572b65e4be1ee31400cb8359
Guam rail (or ko'ko' bird in Chamorro) and the Guam flycatcher
116
False
How many bird species have been driven to extinction in Guam?
572b65e4be1ee31400cb835a
twelve bird species
471
False
What other bird was very common before WWII according to the elders?
572b65e4be1ee31400cb835b
ko'ko' birds
565
False
Guam flycatcher
163
What is thought to have been the first bird species on Guam?
5ace640e32bba1001ae4a551
True
Guam rail
116
What was the most populous Guam bird prior to World War II?
5ace640e32bba1001ae4a552
True
ko'ko'
565
What was the least populous bird on Guam before World War II?
5ace640e32bba1001ae4a553
True
ko'ko'
565
Which bird species was first driven to extinction by brown tree snakes?
5ace640e32bba1001ae4a554
True
Before the introduction of the brown tree snake, Guam was home to several endemic bird species. Among them were the Guam rail (or ko'ko' bird in Chamorro) and the Guam flycatcher, both common throughout the island. Today the flycatcher is entirely extinct while the Guam rail is extinct in the wild but bred in captivity by the Division of Aquatic and Wildlife Resources. The devastation caused by the snake has been significant over the past several decades. As many as twelve bird species are believed to have been driven to extinction. According to many elders, ko'ko' birds were common in Guam before World War II.
What insect was detected in 2007?
572b6762be1ee31400cb835f
coconut rhinoceros beetle
22
False
What other American territory has these beetles that have infested Guam?
572b6762be1ee31400cb8360
American Samoa
176
False
Where is the Coconut Beetle native to?
572b6762be1ee31400cb8361
Southern Asia
669
False
2,500 acres
514
How big is Reunion Island?
5ace64f932bba1001ae4a57d
True
West Irian
810
Where did the coconut rhinoceros beetle originate?
5ace64f932bba1001ae4a57e
True
2007
113
When was the coconut rhinoceros beetle discovered in American Samoa?
5ace64f932bba1001ae4a57f
True
0.5 miles
564
How long is Reunion Island?
5ace64f932bba1001ae4a580
True
10 km2
527
How big is Fiji?
5ace64f932bba1001ae4a581
True
An infestation of the coconut rhinoceros beetle (CRB), Oryctes rhinoceros, was detected on Guam on September 12, 2007. CRB is not known to occur in the United States except in American Samoa. Delimiting surveys performed September 13–25, 2007 indicated that the infestation was limited to Tumon Bay and Faifai Beach, an area of approximately 900 acres (3.6 km2). Guam Department of Agriculture (GDA) placed quarantine on all properties within the Tumon area on October 5 and later expanded the quarantine to about 2,500 acres (10 km2) on October 25; approximately 0.5 miles (800 m) radius in all directions from all known locations of CRB infestation. CRB is native to Southern Asia and distributed throughout Asia and the Western Pacific including Sri Lanka, Upolu, Samoa, American Samoa, Palau, New Britain, West Irian, New Ireland, Pak Island and Manus Island (New Guinea), Fiji, Cocos (Keeling) Islands, Mauritius, and Reunion.
What plagues the Guam dry season?
572b68a7f75d5e190021fda4
Wildfires
0
False
What are the cause of the majority of the fires in the area?
572b68a7f75d5e190021fda5
man
112
False
What causes water quality problems in Guam?
572b68a7f75d5e190021fda6
sediment is carried by the heavy rains into the Fena Lake Reservoir and Ugum River
452
False
arson
147
What are 20% of fires resulting from?
5ace65ff32bba1001ae4a59b
True
planting trees
722
What has had success in Guam when it comes to soil stabilization?
5ace65ff32bba1001ae4a59c
True
heavy rains
479
What carries sediment into the Fena Lake Reservoir during the dry season?
5ace65ff32bba1001ae4a59d
True
deer
192
What animal isn't native to Guam?
5ace65ff32bba1001ae4a59e
True
Wildfires plague the forested areas of Guam every dry season despite the island's humid climate. Most fires are man-caused with 80% resulting from arson. Poachers often start fires to attract deer to the new growth. Invasive grass species that rely on fire as part of their natural life cycle grow in many regularly burned areas. Grasslands and "barrens" have replaced previously forested areas leading to greater soil erosion. During the rainy season sediment is carried by the heavy rains into the Fena Lake Reservoir and Ugum River, leading to water quality problems for southern Guam. Eroded silt also destroys the marine life in reefs around the island. Soil stabilization efforts by volunteers and forestry workers (planting trees) have had little success in preserving natural habitats.
What has Guam recently being trying to protect?
572b6963f75d5e190021fdaa
coral reef habitats
41
False
What has led to the decrease of fish near Guam?
572b6963f75d5e190021fdab
pollution, eroded silt and overfishing
66
False
What is the name of the flying mammal in Guam that some are concerned for?
572b6963f75d5e190021fdac
Mariana fruit bats
779
False
hotel chains
535
Who made Tumon Bay into a preserve?
5ace67b632bba1001ae4a5b5
True
overfishing
93
What is the #1 cause of decreased fish populations?
5ace67b632bba1001ae4a5b6
True
Tumon Bay
505
The Guam National Wildlife Refuge is near which tourist area?
5ace67b632bba1001ae4a5b7
True
pollution
66
What most endangered the Mariana fruit bats?
5ace67b632bba1001ae4a5b8
True
eroded silt
77
What most endangered the sea turtle population?
5ace67b632bba1001ae4a5b9
True
Efforts have been made to protect Guam's coral reef habitats from pollution, eroded silt and overfishing, problems that have led to decreased fish populations. (Since Guam is a significant vacation spot for scuba divers, this is important.) In recent years, the Department of Agriculture, Division of Aquatic and Wildlife Resources has established several new marine preserves where fish populations are monitored by biologists. Before adopting U.S. Environmental Protection Agency standards, portions of Tumon Bay were dredged by the hotel chains to provide a better experience for hotel guests. Tumon Bay has since been made into a preserve. A federal Guam National Wildlife Refuge in northern Guam protects the decimated sea turtle population in addition to a small colony of Mariana fruit bats.
What are the names of the two colleges in Guam?
572b69e434ae481900deade9
The University of Guam (UOG) and Guam Community College
0
False
Who are these two schools accredited by?
572b69e434ae481900deadea
Western Association of Schools and Colleges
86
False
What is the name of the small Christian college in Guam?
572b69e434ae481900deadeb
Pacific Islands University
274
False
liberal arts
322
What type of education does the University of Guam offer?
5ace68c532bba1001ae4a5e3
True
liberal arts
322
What type of education is offered at Guam Community College?
5ace68c532bba1001ae4a5e4
True
land-grant
221
What type of institution is the Guam Community College?
5ace68c532bba1001ae4a5e5
True
University of Guam
4
Besides Pacific Islands University where else can one earn a graduate degree in Guam?
5ace68c532bba1001ae4a5e6
True
76
213
How many schools are in the Transnational Association of Christian Colleges and Schools?
5ace68c532bba1001ae4a5e7
True
The University of Guam (UOG) and Guam Community College, both fully accredited by the Western Association of Schools and Colleges, offer courses in higher education. UOG is a member of the exclusive group of only 76 U.S. land-grant institutions in the entire United States. Pacific Islands University is a small Christian liberal arts institution nationally accredited by the Transnational Association of Christian Colleges and Schools. They offer courses at both the undergraduate and graduate levels.
How many students as of 2000 were attending public schools in Guam?
572b6a6d111d821400f38e82
32,000
76
False
What has plagued Guam public schools?
572b6a6d111d821400f38e83
high dropout rates and poor test scores
181
False
What is the name of the governing body of the school in all of Guam?
572b6a6d111d821400f38e84
The Guam Department of Education
0
False
32,000
76
How many students currently attend public school in Guam?
5ace6c4b32bba1001ae4a65f
True
32,000
76
How many people live in Guam?
5ace6c4b32bba1001ae4a660
True
poor test scores
204
What challenges affect U.S. mainland schools?
5ace6c4b32bba1001ae4a661
True
6,000
312
How many people work for the Guam Department of Education?
5ace6c4b32bba1001ae4a662
True
6,000
312
How many students in Guam come from backgrounds without traditional American education?
5ace6c4b32bba1001ae4a663
True
The Guam Department of Education serves the entire island of Guam. In 2000, 32,000 students attended Guam's public schools. Guam Public Schools have struggled with problems such as high dropout rates and poor test scores. Guam's educational system has always faced unique challenges as a small community located 6,000 miles (9,700 km) from the U.S. mainland with a very diverse student body including many students who come from backgrounds without traditional American education. An economic downturn in Guam since the mid-1990s has compounded the problems in schools.
Who runs Guam's main health care facility?
572b6affbe1ee31400cb8377
The Government of Guam
0
False
What is the name of the main health care facility in Guam?
572b6affbe1ee31400cb8378
Guam Memorial Hospital
73
False
Which privately owned medical facility opened in 2016?
572b6affbe1ee31400cb8379
Guam Regional Medical City
489
False
early 2016
536
When did Guam Memorial Hospital open its doors?
5ace6d0932bba1001ae4a671
True
Tamuning
100
In what city is Guam Regional Medical City?
5ace6d0932bba1001ae4a672
True
2016
542
When did CareJet go into business in Guam?
5ace6d0932bba1001ae4a673
True
Agana Heights
221
In what city is CareJet headquartered?
5ace6d0932bba1001ae4a674
True
U.S. board certified doctors
110
What type of doctors work at the Guam Regional Medical City?
5ace6d0932bba1001ae4a675
True
The Government of Guam maintains the island's main health care facility, Guam Memorial Hospital, in Tamuning. U.S. board certified doctors and dentists practice in all specialties. In addition, the U.S. Naval Hospital in Agana Heights serves active-duty members and dependents of the military community. There is one subscriber-based air ambulance located on the island, CareJet, which provides emergency patient transportation across Guam and surrounding islands. A private hospital, the Guam Regional Medical City opened its doors in early 2016.
Empiricism
What is commonly contrasted with empiricism?
572aed7d34ae481900dead27
rationalism
173
False
Where does rationalism say knowledge comes from?
572aed7d34ae481900dead28
reason independently of the senses
234
False
What is an example knowledge being derived from intuition?
572aed7d34ae481900dead29
knowledge of God's existence
325
False
What did Locke think some knowledge could come from?
572aed7d34ae481900dead2a
intuition and reasoning alone
383
False
Where were the main European rationalists?
572aed7d34ae481900dead2b
Descartes, Spinoza, and Leibniz
554
False
Descartes, Spinoza, and Leibniz
554
Who were the main philosophical empiricists?
5a57a1cf770dc0001aeefc9e
True
knowledge of God's existence
325
What did John Locke say required information from one's experience?
5a57a1cf770dc0001aeefc9f
True
continental
528
Where was philosophical empiricism popular?
5a57a1cf770dc0001aeefca0
True
knowledge may be derived from reason
204
Why are empiricists and rationalists similar?
5a57a1cf770dc0001aeefca1
True
one's sense-based experience
105
How did empiricists discover innate ideas?
5a57a1cf770dc0001aeefca2
True
Philosophical empiricists hold no knowledge to be properly inferred or deduced unless it is derived from one's sense-based experience. This view is commonly contrasted with rationalism, which states that knowledge may be derived from reason independently of the senses. For example, John Locke held that some knowledge (e.g. knowledge of God's existence) could be arrived at through intuition and reasoning alone. Similarly Robert Boyle, a prominent advocate of the experimental method, held that we have innate ideas. The main continental rationalists (Descartes, Spinoza, and Leibniz) were also advocates of the empirical "scientific method".
What theory was Aristotle's explanation based on?
572b31d434ae481900dead31
his theory of potentiality and actuality
116
False
How did Plato's Phaedo and Apology think of the mind?
572b31d434ae481900dead32
an entity that pre-existed somewhere in the heavens, before being sent down to join a body on Earth
306
False
Who thought the senses were more important, Aristotle or Plato?
572b31d434ae481900dead33
Aristotle
459
False
Who thought the senses were less important, Aristotle or Plato?
572b31d434ae481900dead34
Plato
543
False
What does "nihil in intellectu nisi prius fuerit in sensu" mean?
572b31d434ae481900dead35
Latin for "nothing in the intellect without first being in the senses"
671
False
Plato
543
Which commentator summarized a position in latin?
5a57ace6770dc0001aeefcce
True
Phaedo and Apology
419
What did Aristotle write?
5a57ace6770dc0001aeefccf
True
the human mind as an entity that pre-existed somewhere in the heavens
288
Why is Plato considered an empiricist?
5a57ace6770dc0001aeefcd0
True
nothing in the intellect without first being in the senses
682
What position by Plato was summarized by Middle Ages commentators?
5a57ace6770dc0001aeefcd1
True
somewhere in the heavens
333
Where did Aristotle say the human mind existed?
5a57ace6770dc0001aeefcd2
True
Aristotle's explanation of how this was possible was not strictly empiricist in a modern sense, but rather based on his theory of potentiality and actuality, and experience of sense perceptions still requires the help of the active nous. These notions contrasted with Platonic notions of the human mind as an entity that pre-existed somewhere in the heavens, before being sent down to join a body on Earth (see Plato's Phaedo and Apology, as well as others). Aristotle was considered to give a more important position to sense perception than Plato, and commentators in the Middle Ages summarized one of his positions as "nihil in intellectu nisi prius fuerit in sensu" (Latin for "nothing in the intellect without first being in the senses").
What is the Stoic view?
572b323ebe1ee31400cb8283
the mind starts blank, but acquires knowledge as the outside world is impressed upon it
118
False
What was Aetius's career?
572b323ebe1ee31400cb8284
doxographer
211
False
Where was Sextus from?
572b323ebe1ee31400cb8285
Chaeronea
409
False
Who wrote 'Against the Professors'?
572b323ebe1ee31400cb8286
Sextus
495
False
Whose ideas did Sextus build on?
572b323ebe1ee31400cb8287
Aetius
223
False
Chaeronea
409
Where was Aetius from?
5a57b998770dc0001aeefcfa
True
Against the Professors
659
What book did Aetius write?
5a57b998770dc0001aeefcfb
True
doxographer
211
What was Sextus' career?
5a57b998770dc0001aeefcfc
True
the mind starts blank
118
What innate thoughts is a man born with?
5a57b998770dc0001aeefcfd
True
Aetius
223
Who invented stoicism?
5a57b998770dc0001aeefcfe
True
This idea was later developed in ancient philosophy by the Stoic school. Stoic epistemology generally emphasized that the mind starts blank, but acquires knowledge as the outside world is impressed upon it. The doxographer Aetius summarizes this view as "When a man is born, the Stoics say, he has the commanding part of his soul like a sheet of paper ready for writing upon." Later stoics, such as Sextus of Chaeronea, would continue this idea of empiricism in later Stoic writings as well. As Sextus contends "For every thought comes from sense-perception or not without sense-perception and either from direct experience or not without direct experience" (Against the Professors, 8.56-8).
Whose idea was 'tabula rasa'?
572b32b2be1ee31400cb828d
Aristotle
23
False
What religion was Al Farabi?
572b32b2be1ee31400cb828e
Islamic
74
False
What does al-'aql al-hayulani mean?
572b32b2be1ee31400cb828f
material intellect
671
False
What does al-'aql al-fa'il mean?
572b32b2be1ee31400cb8290
active intellect
772
False
What is crucial for understanding?
572b32b2be1ee31400cb8291
the immaterial "active intellect"
899
False
Islamic
74
What was Aristotle's religion?
5a57bb09770dc0001aeefd0e
True
pure potentiality that is actualized through education
283
What did Al Farabi say tabula rasa was?
5a57bb09770dc0001aeefd0f
True
Avicenna
228
Who developed the syllogistic method?
5a57bb09770dc0001aeefd10
True
al-'aql al-fa'il
790
What did Aristotle call the active intellect?
5a57bb09770dc0001aeefd11
True
material intellect
671
What does tabula rasa mean?
5a57bb09770dc0001aeefd12
True
During the Middle Ages Aristotle's theory of tabula rasa was developed by Islamic philosophers starting with Al Farabi, developing into an elaborate theory by Avicenna and demonstrated as a thought experiment by Ibn Tufail. For Avicenna (Ibn Sina), for example, the tabula rasa is a pure potentiality that is actualized through education, and knowledge is attained through "empirical familiarity with objects in this world from which one abstracts universal concepts" developed through a "syllogistic method of reasoning in which observations lead to propositional statements which when compounded lead to further abstract concepts". The intellect itself develops from a material intellect (al-'aql al-hayulani), which is a potentiality "that can acquire knowledge to the active intellect (al-'aql al-fa'il), the state of the human intellect in conjunction with the perfect source of knowledge". So the immaterial "active intellect", separate from any individual person, is still essential for understanding to occur.
What was 'Abubacer' normally called?
572b3335be1ee31400cb8297
Abu Bakr Ibn Tufail
70
False
What was 'Ebn Topnail' normally called?
572b3335be1ee31400cb8298
Abu Bakr Ibn Tufail
70
False
What was Ibn Tufail's religion?
572b3335be1ee31400cb8299
Muslim
38
False
What was Ibn Tufail's ethnicity?
572b3335be1ee31400cb829a
Andalusian
27
False
When did Ibn Tufail live?
572b3335be1ee31400cb829b
12th century CE
7
False
1671
569
When was John Locke's essay written?
5a57bbb3770dc0001aeefd18
True
Muslim
38
What was Edward Pococke the Younger's religion?
5a57bbb3770dc0001aeefd19
True
Andalusian
27
Where was John Locke from?
5a57bbb3770dc0001aeefd1a
True
Hayy ibn Yaqdhan
235
What did Ibn Tufail publish in 1671?
5a57bbb3770dc0001aeefd1b
True
Philosophus Autodidactus
500
What does Hayy ibn Yaqdhan mean?
5a57bbb3770dc0001aeefd1c
True
In the 12th century CE the Andalusian Muslim philosopher and novelist Abu Bakr Ibn Tufail (known as "Abubacer" or "Ebn Tophail" in the West) included the theory of tabula rasa as a thought experiment in his Arabic philosophical novel, Hayy ibn Yaqdhan in which he depicted the development of the mind of a feral child "from a tabula rasa to that of an adult, in complete isolation from society" on a desert island, through experience alone. The Latin translation of his philosophical novel, entitled Philosophus Autodidactus, published by Edward Pococke the Younger in 1671, had an influence on John Locke's formulation of tabula rasa in An Essay Concerning Human Understanding.
When was da Vinci born?
572b33b6111d821400f38dbe
1452
512
False
When did da Vinci die?
572b33b6111d821400f38dbf
1519
517
False
What did renaissance writers question?
572b33b6111d821400f38dc0
the medieval and classical understanding of knowledge acquisition
58
False
Who did Machiavelli disdain?
572b33b6111d821400f38dc1
writers on politics who judged everything in comparison to mental ideals
331
False
What did da Vinci advise when your experience contradicted authority?
572b33b6111d821400f38dc2
abandon the authority and base your reasoning on your own findings
663
False
1452–1519
512
When did Niccolo Machiavelli live?
5a57bcc4770dc0001aeefd2c
True
Machiavelli
289
Who judged everything according to mental ideals?
5a57bcc4770dc0001aeefd2d
True
political and historical writing
154
What was Leonardo da Vinci most famous for?
5a57bcc4770dc0001aeefd2e
True
Leonardo da Vinci
493
Who said you must base your reasoning on authority rather than your own findings?
5a57bcc4770dc0001aeefd2f
True
1452
512
When was Francesco Guicciardini born?
5a57bcc4770dc0001aeefd30
True
In the late renaissance various writers began to question the medieval and classical understanding of knowledge acquisition in a more fundamental way. In political and historical writing Niccolò Machiavelli and his friend Francesco Guicciardini initiated a new realistic style of writing. Machiavelli in particular was scornful of writers on politics who judged everything in comparison to mental ideals and demanded that people should study the "effectual truth" instead. Their contemporary, Leonardo da Vinci (1452–1519) said, "If you find from your own experience that something is a fact and it contradicts what some authority has written down, then you must abandon the authority and base your reasoning on your own findings."
When was Vincenzo Galilei born?
572b345c111d821400f38dc8
ca. 1520
83
False
When did Vincenzo Galilei die?
572b345c111d821400f38dc9
1591
92
False
Who was Vincenzo Galilei's oldest son?
572b345c111d821400f38dca
Galileo
109
False
What does 'esperienza' mean?
572b345c111d821400f38dcb
experiment
519
False
1520
87
When was Galileo born?
5a57c040770dc0001aeefd48
True
1591
92
When did Galileo die?
5a57c040770dc0001aeefd49
True
Coelho
651
Who wrote Music and Science in the age of Galileo?
5a57c040770dc0001aeefd4a
True
1581
482
When did Vincenzo discover the meaning of Pythagoras' hammers'?
5a57c040770dc0001aeefd4b
True
Florence
472
Where was Galileo born?
5a57c040770dc0001aeefd4c
True
The decidedly anti-Aristotelian and anti-clerical music theorist Vincenzo Galilei (ca. 1520–1591), father of Galileo and the inventor of monody, made use of the method in successfully solving musical problems, firstly, of tuning such as the relationship of pitch to string tension and mass in stringed instruments, and to volume of air in wind instruments; and secondly to composition, by his various suggestions to composers in his Dialogo della musica antica e moderna (Florence, 1581). The Italian word he used for "experiment" was esperienza. It is known that he was the essential pedagogical influence upon the young Galileo, his eldest son (cf. Coelho, ed. Music and Science in the Age of Galileo Galilei), arguably one of the most influential empiricists in history. Vincenzo, through his tuning research, found the underlying truth at the heart of the misunderstood myth of 'Pythagoras' hammers' (the square of the numbers concerned yielded those musical intervals, not the actual numbers, as believed), and through this and other discoveries that demonstrated the fallibility of traditional authorities, a radically empirical attitude developed, passed on to Galileo, which regarded "experience and demonstration" as the sine qua non of valid rational enquiry.
When was the British empiricism period?
572b34a6111d821400f38dd0
17th century
80
False
What type of philosopher was Francis Bacon?
572b34a6111d821400f38dd1
empiricist
269
False
What type of philosopher was Descartes?
572b34a6111d821400f38dd2
rationalist
323
False
What type of philosopher was Hobbes?
572b34a6111d821400f38dd3
empiricist
425
False
What type of philosopher was Spinoza?
572b34a6111d821400f38dd4
rationalist
442
False
empiricism
656
What did George Berkeley found?
5a57cc65770dc0001aeefd7a
True
Locke
593
Who was the exponent of rationalism in the Enlightenment?
5a57cc65770dc0001aeefd7b
True
early modern philosophy and modern science
103
What was British empiricism originally called?
5a57cc65770dc0001aeefd7c
True
British
0
What was Baruch Spinoza's nationality?
5a57cc65770dc0001aeefd7d
True
René Descartes
285
Who was the founder of rationalism?
5a57cc65770dc0001aeefd7e
True
British empiricism, though it was not a term used at the time, derives from the 17th century period of early modern philosophy and modern science. The term became useful in order to describe differences perceived between two of its founders Francis Bacon, described as empiricist, and René Descartes, who is described as a rationalist. Thomas Hobbes and Baruch Spinoza, in the next generation, are often also described as an empiricist and a rationalist respectively. John Locke, George Berkeley, and David Hume were the primary exponents of empiricism in the 18th century Enlightenment, with Locke being the person who is normally known as the founder of empiricism as such.
When was 'An Essay Concerning Human Understanding' published?
572b352e111d821400f38dda
1689
147
False
Who wrote 'An Essay Concerning Human Understanding'?
572b352e111d821400f38ddb
John Locke
71
False
What does 'tabula rasa' mean?
572b352e111d821400f38ddc
blank tablet
365
False
What did Locke say 'tabula rasa' meant?
572b352e111d821400f38ddd
white paper
398
False
What did Locke's 'tabula rasa' concept say happens to the mind?
572b352e111d821400f38dde
on which the experiences derived from sense impressions as a person's life proceeds are written
412
False
a perception of ideas that are in accordance or discordance with each other
1503
What did Descarte call our knowledge of things?
5a57cd60770dc0001aeefd8e
True
An Essay Concerning Human Understanding
106
What did Descarte publish in 1689?
5a57cd60770dc0001aeefd8f
True
1632
83
When was Descartes born?
5a57cd60770dc0001aeefd90
True
Descartes
1636
Who founded continental rationalism?
5a57cd60770dc0001aeefd91
True
If an apple was structured differently, it would cease to be an apple
963
Why are primary qualities non-essential?
5a57cd60770dc0001aeefd92
True
In response to the early-to-mid-17th century "continental rationalism" John Locke (1632–1704) proposed in An Essay Concerning Human Understanding (1689) a very influential view wherein the only knowledge humans can have is a posteriori, i.e., based upon experience. Locke is famously attributed with holding the proposition that the human mind is a tabula rasa, a "blank tablet", in Locke's words "white paper", on which the experiences derived from sense impressions as a person's life proceeds are written. There are two sources of our ideas: sensation and reflection. In both cases, a distinction is made between simple and complex ideas. The former are unanalysable, and are broken down into primary and secondary qualities. Primary qualities are essential for the object in question to be what it is. Without specific primary qualities, an object would not be what it is. For example, an apple is an apple because of the arrangement of its atomic structure. If an apple was structured differently, it would cease to be an apple. Secondary qualities are the sensory information we can perceive from its primary qualities. For example, an apple can be perceived in various colours, sizes, and textures but it is still identified as an apple. Therefore, its primary qualities dictate what the object essentially is, while its secondary qualities define its attributes. Complex ideas combine simple ones, and divide into substances, modes, and relations. According to Locke, our knowledge of things is a perception of ideas that are in accordance or discordance with each other, which is very different from the quest for certainty of Descartes.
Who wrote 'Treatise Concerning the Principles of Human Knowledge'?
572b3577f75d5e190021fd10
George Berkeley
47
False
When was 'Treatise Concerning the Principles of Human Knowledge' published?
572b3577f75d5e190021fd11
1710
265
False
What religion was George Berkeley?
572b3577f75d5e190021fd12
Anglican
30
False
What nationality was George Berkeley?
572b3577f75d5e190021fd13
Irish
24
False
Who wrote 'Alciphron'?
572b3577f75d5e190021fd14
George Berkeley
47
False
1710
265
When was Alciphron published?
5a57ce27770dc0001aeefd98
True
Anglican
30
What was Locke's religion?
5a57ce27770dc0001aeefd99
True
Locke
183
Who responded to George Berkeley?
5a57ce27770dc0001aeefd9b
True
God
673
Whom did Locke claim created order?
5a57ce27770dc0001aeefd9c
True
A generation later, the Irish Anglican bishop, George Berkeley (1685–1753), determined that Locke's view immediately opened a door that would lead to eventual atheism. In response to Locke, he put forth in his Treatise Concerning the Principles of Human Knowledge (1710) an important challenge to empiricism in which things only exist either as a result of their being perceived, or by virtue of the fact that they are an entity doing the perceiving. (For Berkeley, God fills in for humans by doing the perceiving whenever humans are not around to do it.) In his text Alciphron, Berkeley maintained that any order humans may see in nature is the language or handwriting of God. Berkeley's approach to empiricism would later come to be called subjective idealism.
What did Hume bring to empiricism?
572b35e2f75d5e190021fd1a
a new level of skepticism
181
False
What was Hume's nationality?
572b35e2f75d5e190021fd1b
Scottish
4
False
What two types of arguments did Locke say there are?
572b35e2f75d5e190021fd1c
demonstrative and probable
446
False
When was Hume born?
572b35e2f75d5e190021fd1d
1711
37
False
When did Hume die?
572b35e2f75d5e190021fd1e
1776
42
False
David Hume
25
Who argued that skepticism was a form of empiricism?
5a57cf87770dc0001aeefdac
True
1776
42
When did David Hume respond to Berkeley?
5a57cf87770dc0001aeefdad
True
demonstrative and probable
446
How many arguments did Berkeley say there were?
5a57cf87770dc0001aeefdae
True
Scottish
4
What was Locke's nationality?
5a57cf87770dc0001aeefdaf
True
Berkeley's
61
Who was Locke's contemporary?
5a57cf87770dc0001aeefdb0
True
The Scottish philosopher David Hume (1711–1776) responded to Berkeley's criticisms of Locke, as well as other differences between early modern philosophers, and moved empiricism to a new level of skepticism. Hume argued in keeping with the empiricist view that all knowledge derives from sense experience, but he accepted that this has implications not normally acceptable to philosophers. He wrote for example, "Locke divides all arguments into demonstrative and probable. On this view, we must say that it is only probable that all men must die or that the sun will rise to-morrow, because neither of these can be demonstrated. But to conform our language more to common use, we ought to divide arguments into demonstrations, proofs, and probabilities—by ‘proofs’ meaning arguments from experience that leave no room for doubt or opposition." And,
What types of human knowledge did Hume say there are?
572b3656be1ee31400cb82a1
relations of ideas and matters of fact
57
False
What type of human knowledge is math?
572b3656be1ee31400cb82a2
relations of ideas
57
False
What type of human knowledge is observing the world?
572b3656be1ee31400cb82a3
matters of fact
80
False
What type of human knowledge is "the sun rises in the East"?
572b3656be1ee31400cb82a4
matters of fact
80
False
Where did Hume say people's ideas come from?
572b3656be1ee31400cb82a5
their "impressions"
490
False
two
41
How many categories did Kant divide the world into?
5a57d07a770dc0001aeefdb6
True
matters of fact
80
What would the incorrect phrase "the sun rises in the west" be?
5a57d07a770dc0001aeefdb7
True
To remember or to imagine such impressions is to have an "idea"
588
Why are sensations considered copies of ideas?
5a57d07a770dc0001aeefdb8
True
all of human knowledge into two categories
13
What was the analytic-synthetic distinction?
5a57d07a770dc0001aeefdb9
True
Hume divided all of human knowledge into two categories: relations of ideas and matters of fact (see also Kant's analytic-synthetic distinction). Mathematical and logical propositions (e.g. "that the square of the hypotenuse is equal to the sum of the squares of the two sides") are examples of the first, while propositions involving some contingent observation of the world (e.g. "the sun rises in the East") are examples of the second. All of people's "ideas", in turn, are derived from their "impressions". For Hume, an "impression" corresponds roughly with what we call a sensation. To remember or to imagine such impressions is to have an "idea". Ideas are therefore the faint copies of sensations.
What did Hume think our beliefs are?
572b36debe1ee31400cb82ab
a result of accumulated habits, developed in response to accumulated sense experiences
179
False
What did Hume think our beliefs can't be established solely by?
572b36debe1ee31400cb82ac
reason
127
False
What did Hume think is a circular argument?
572b36debe1ee31400cb82ad
the justification for inductive reasoning
537
False
What did Hume say we can't know by inductive reasoning?
572b36debe1ee31400cb82ae
that the sun will continue to rise in the East
828
False
Why did Hume say we expect the sun to rise?
572b36debe1ee31400cb82af
because it has repeatedly done so in the past
915
False
Hume
406
Who invented the circular argument?
5a57d2e0770dc0001aeefdbe
True
the future will resemble the past
698
Why does Hume say we can know the sun will rise in the east?
5a57d2e0770dc0001aeefdbf
True
the problem of induction
380
What did problem of the scientific method did Hume solve?
5a57d2e0770dc0001aeefdc0
True
the East
866
Where does Hume say the sun sets?
5a57d2e0770dc0001aeefdc1
True
the future
698
Humes argues there is no way to know the past will be like what?
5a57d2e0770dc0001aeefdc2
True
Hume maintained that all knowledge, even the most basic beliefs about the natural world, cannot be conclusively established by reason. Rather, he maintained, our beliefs are more a result of accumulated habits, developed in response to accumulated sense experiences. Among his many arguments Hume also added another important slant to the debate about scientific method — that of the problem of induction. Hume argued that it requires inductive reasoning to arrive at the premises for the principle of inductive reasoning, and therefore the justification for inductive reasoning is a circular argument. Among Hume's conclusions regarding the problem of induction is that there is no certainty that the future will resemble the past. Thus, as a simple instance posed by Hume, we cannot know with certainty by inductive reasoning that the sun will continue to rise in the East, but instead come to expect it to do so because it has repeatedly done so in the past.
What conclusion do most of Hume's followers disagree with?
572b3ab4111d821400f38de4
that belief in an external world is rationally unjustifiable
60
False
What did Hume say can't be rationally justified?
572b3ab4111d821400f38de5
belief in an external world
65
False
What is phenomenalism?
572b3ab4111d821400f38de6
physical objects, properties, events (whatever is physical) are reducible to mental objects, properties, events
544
False
What is subjective idealism closely related to?
572b3ab4111d821400f38de7
Phenomenalism
513
False
What did John Stuart Mill say matter is?
572b3ab4111d821400f38de8
the "permanent possibility of sensation"
1154
False
Hume and George Berkeley
419
Who founded the phenomenalism philosophy?
5a57d3d8770dc0001aeefdd2
True
mid-19th century
1126
When did DW Hamlin publish his essays?
5a57d3d8770dc0001aeefdd3
True
Hume's own principles implicitly contained the rational justification for such a belief
138
Why did John Stuart Mill disagree with Hume?
5a57d3d8770dc0001aeefdd4
True
mid-19th century
1126
When did Phenomenalism begin?
5a57d3d8770dc0001aeefdd5
True
Hume's followers
8
Who argued for subjective idealism?
5a57d3d8770dc0001aeefdd6
True
Most of Hume's followers have disagreed with his conclusion that belief in an external world is rationally unjustifiable, contending that Hume's own principles implicitly contained the rational justification for such a belief, that is, beyond being content to let the issue rest on human instinct, custom and habit. According to an extreme empiricist theory known as phenomenalism, anticipated by the arguments of both Hume and George Berkeley, a physical object is a kind of construction out of our experiences. Phenomenalism is the view that physical objects, properties, events (whatever is physical) are reducible to mental objects, properties, events. Ultimately, only mental objects, properties, events, exist — hence the closely related term subjective idealism. By the phenomenalistic line of thinking, to have a visual experience of a real physical thing is to have an experience of a certain kind of group of experiences. This type of set of experiences possesses a constancy and coherence that is lacking in the set of experiences of which hallucinations, for example, are a part. As John Stuart Mill put it in the mid-19th century, matter is the "permanent possibility of sensation". Mill's empiricism went a significant step beyond Hume in still another respect: in maintaining that induction is necessary for all meaningful knowledge including mathematics. As summarized by D.W. Hamlin:
What did Mill say knowledge comes from?
572b3f4734ae481900dead45
an inductive inference from direct experience
89
False
What sensations did Mill differentiate?
572b3f4734ae481900dead46
actual and possible sensations
360
False
When Mill left a question of sensations unanswered, how did Berkeley answer it?
572b3f4734ae481900dead47
God
557
False
What did Mill say might not actually exist?
572b3f4734ae481900dead48
gap-filling entities
1121
False
What did Mill misrepresent about math?
572b3f4734ae481900dead49
the structure and method of mathematical science, the products of which are arrived at through an internally consistent deductive set of procedures
1346
False
God
557
What did Mill put in the gap?
5a57d543770dc0001aeefddc
True
knowledge
33
What do indirect experiences produce?
5a57d543770dc0001aeefddd
True
Berkeley
544
Who disagreed that "gap-filling entities are purely possibilities and not actualities at all"?
5a57d543770dc0001aeefdde
True
the structure and method of mathematical science
1346
what did Mill realize about mathematics?
5a57d543770dc0001aeefddf
True
Mill's empiricism
0
What does subjective idealism lead to?
5a57d543770dc0001aeefde0
True
Mill's empiricism thus held that knowledge of any kind is not from direct experience but an inductive inference from direct experience. The problems other philosophers have had with Mill's position center around the following issues: Firstly, Mill's formulation encounters difficulty when it describes what direct experience is by differentiating only between actual and possible sensations. This misses some key discussion concerning conditions under which such "groups of permanent possibilities of sensation" might exist in the first place. Berkeley put God in that gap; the phenomenalists, including Mill, essentially left the question unanswered. In the end, lacking an acknowledgement of an aspect of "reality" that goes beyond mere "possibilities of sensation", such a position leads to a version of subjective idealism. Questions of how floor beams continue to support a floor while unobserved, how trees continue to grow while unobserved and untouched by human hands, etc., remain unanswered, and perhaps unanswerable in these terms. Secondly, Mill's formulation leaves open the unsettling possibility that the "gap-filling entities are purely possibilities and not actualities at all". Thirdly, Mill's position, by calling mathematics merely another species of inductive inference, misapprehends mathematics. It fails to fully consider the structure and method of mathematical science, the products of which are arrived at through an internally consistent deductive set of procedures which do not, either today or at the time Mill wrote, fall under the agreed meaning of induction.
What phase of empiricism ended in the 1940s?
572b40d0111d821400f38df6
phenomenalist
4
False
How can't a finite set of statements be described?
572b40d0111d821400f38df7
in purely sensory terms
736
False
What is necessary to explain a doctor's normality in sensory terms?
572b40d0111d821400f38df8
a second doctor
1204
False
1940s
63
When did the phenomenalist phase begin?
5a57d811770dc0001aeefdfa
True
1940s
63
When was the problem of the third man published?
5a57d811770dc0001aeefdfb
True
purely sensory terms
739
How must a finite set of statements be described?
5a57d811770dc0001aeefdfc
True
we must refer to a third doctor
1502
How many doctors do you need to satisfy the hypothetical problem?
5a57d811770dc0001aeefdfd
True
the former must be at least deducible from the latter
307
How did it become possible for physical object statements to translate into sense-data statements?
5a57d811770dc0001aeefdfe
True
The phenomenalist phase of post-Humean empiricism ended by the 1940s, for by that time it had become obvious that statements about physical things could not be translated into statements about actual and possible sense data. If a physical object statement is to be translatable into a sense-data statement, the former must be at least deducible from the latter. But it came to be realized that there is no finite set of statements about actual and possible sense-data from which we can deduce even a single physical-object statement. Remember that the translating or paraphrasing statement must be couched in terms of normal observers in normal conditions of observation. There is, however, no finite set of statements that are couched in purely sensory terms and can express the satisfaction of the condition of the presence of a normal observer. According to phenomenalism, to say that a normal observer is present is to make the hypothetical statement that were a doctor to inspect the observer, the observer would appear to the doctor to be normal. But, of course, the doctor himself must be a normal observer. If we are to specify this doctor's normality in sensory terms, we must make reference to a second doctor who, when inspecting the sense organs of the first doctor, would himself have to have the sense data a normal observer has when inspecting the sense organs of a subject who is a normal observer. And if we are to specify in sensory terms that the second doctor is a normal observer, we must refer to a third doctor, and so on (also see the third man).
What are other terms for logical empiricism?
572b415834ae481900dead4f
logical positivism or neopositivism
25
False
When was logical empricism formulated?
572b415834ae481900dead50
early 20th-century
69
False
What did logical empiricism try to combine with mathematical logic?
572b415834ae481900dead51
British empiricism
133
False
What was Otto Neurath an important member of?
572b415834ae481900dead52
Logical empiricism
0
False
What was AJ Ayer an important member of?
572b415834ae481900dead53
Logical empiricism
0
False
early 20th-century
69
When were Gottlob Frege's mathematical insights published?
5a57da08770dc0001aeefe0e
True
the Vienna Circle
429
Who named neopositivism?
5a57da08770dc0001aeefe0f
True
the Vienna Circle
429
What was Ludwig Wittgenstein part of?
5a57da08770dc0001aeefe10
True
British
133
What was Ludwig Wittgenstein's nationality?
5a57da08770dc0001aeefe11
True
Otto Neurath, Moritz Schlick
384
Who founded the Vienna Circle?
5a57da08770dc0001aeefe12
True
Logical empiricism (also logical positivism or neopositivism) was an early 20th-century attempt to synthesize the essential ideas of British empiricism (e.g. a strong emphasis on sensory experience as the basis for knowledge) with certain insights from mathematical logic that had been developed by Gottlob Frege and Ludwig Wittgenstein. Some of the key figures in this movement were Otto Neurath, Moritz Schlick and the rest of the Vienna Circle, along with A.J. Ayer, Rudolf Carnap and Hans Reichenbach.
When was Bertrand Russell born?
572b41aabe1ee31400cb82bf
1872
234
False
When did Bertrand Russell die?
572b41aabe1ee31400cb82c0
1970
239
False
What did Frege say about math?
572b41aabe1ee31400cb82c1
all mathematical truths are logical
574
False
What did Wittgenstein say about logic?
572b41aabe1ee31400cb82c2
all logical truths are mere linguistic tautologies
650
False
What are pseudoproblems?
572b41aabe1ee31400cb82c3
most metaphysical, ethical, aesthetic and other traditional philosophical problems
1077
False
1872
234
When was Frege's thesis published?
5a57db4c770dc0001aeefe22
True
1848
201
When was Wittgenstein born?
5a57db4c770dc0001aeefe23
True
1925
206
When did Wittgenstein die?
5a57db4c770dc0001aeefe24
True
Frege (1848–1925) and Bertrand Russell (1872–1970)
194
Who was a neopositivist?
5a57db4c770dc0001aeefe25
True
verification principle
958
What gave a sentence meaning?
5a57db4c770dc0001aeefe26
True
The neopositivists subscribed to a notion of philosophy as the conceptual clarification of the methods, insights and discoveries of the sciences. They saw in the logical symbolism elaborated by Frege (1848–1925) and Bertrand Russell (1872–1970) a powerful instrument that could rationally reconstruct all scientific discourse into an ideal, logically perfect, language that would be free of the ambiguities and deformations of natural language. This gave rise to what they saw as metaphysical pseudoproblems and other conceptual confusions. By combining Frege's thesis that all mathematical truths are logical with the early Wittgenstein's idea that all logical truths are mere linguistic tautologies, they arrived at a twofold classification of all propositions: the analytic (a priori) and the synthetic (a posteriori). On this basis, they formulated a strong principle of demarcation between sentences that have sense and those that do not: the so-called verification principle. Any sentence that is not purely logical, or is unverifiable is devoid of meaning. As a result, most metaphysical, ethical, aesthetic and other traditional philosophical problems came to be considered pseudoproblems.
Who were extreme empiricists?
572b429af75d5e190021fd2e
neopositivists
33
False
Who attacked logical positivism?
572b429af75d5e190021fd2f
Nelson Goodman, W.V. Quine, Hilary Putnam, Karl Popper, and Richard Rorty
817
False
What position does Dummett take?
572b429af75d5e190021fd30
anti-realists
1121
False
Who abandoned phenomenalism?
572b429af75d5e190021fd31
Carnap and Neurath
250
False
1930s
68
When did Carnap and Neurath leave phenomenalism?
5a57dca7770dc0001aeefe36
True
the late 1960s
895
When did Michael Dummett begin championing neopositivism?
5a57dca7770dc0001aeefe37
True
after World War II
778
When was logical positivism at its most popular?
5a57dca7770dc0001aeefe38
True
World War II
784
What war led to the abandonment of phenomenalism?
5a57dca7770dc0001aeefe39
True
logical positivism
661
What position did Hilary Putnam favour?
5a57dca7770dc0001aeefe3a
True
In the extreme empiricism of the neopositivists—at least before the 1930s—any genuinely synthetic assertion must be reducible to an ultimate assertion (or set of ultimate assertions) that expresses direct observations or perceptions. In later years, Carnap and Neurath abandoned this sort of phenomenalism in favor of a rational reconstruction of knowledge into the language of an objective spatio-temporal physics. That is, instead of translating sentences about physical objects into sense-data, such sentences were to be translated into so-called protocol sentences, for example, "X at location Y and at time T observes such and such." The central theses of logical positivism (verificationism, the analytic-synthetic distinction, reductionism, etc.) came under sharp attack after World War II by thinkers such as Nelson Goodman, W.V. Quine, Hilary Putnam, Karl Popper, and Richard Rorty. By the late 1960s, it had become evident to most philosophers that the movement had pretty much run its course, though its influence is still significant among contemporary analytic philosophers such as Michael Dummett and other anti-realists.
When did pragmatism arise?
572b42f9be1ee31400cb82d1
In the late 19th and early 20th century
0
False
Who developed pragmatism?
572b42f9be1ee31400cb82d2
Charles Sanders Peirce and William James
174
False
Where did Peirce and James meet?
572b42f9be1ee31400cb82d3
Harvard
237
False
When did Peirce and James meet?
572b42f9be1ee31400cb82d4
in the 1870s
245
False
What did Peirce later call his ideas instead of pragmatism?
572b42f9be1ee31400cb82d5
pragmaticism
488
False
1870s
252
What year did Charles Sanders Peirce graduate from harvard?
5a57e2f9770dc0001aeefe78
True
pragmatism
287
What did James rename pragmaticism as?
5a57e2f9770dc0001aeefe79
True
1870s
252
When did James and Pierce split ways?
5a57e2f9770dc0001aeefe7a
True
the late 19th and early 20th century
3
When did pragmatic philosophy die out?
5a57e2f9770dc0001aeefe7b
True
the basic insights of empirical (experience-based) and rational (concept-based) thinking
573
What was the tangent of pragmatism that Peirce didn't like?
5a57e2f9770dc0001aeefe7c
True
In the late 19th and early 20th century several forms of pragmatic philosophy arose. The ideas of pragmatism, in its various forms, developed mainly from discussions between Charles Sanders Peirce and William James when both men were at Harvard in the 1870s. James popularized the term "pragmatism", giving Peirce full credit for its patrimony, but Peirce later demurred from the tangents that the movement was taking, and redubbed what he regarded as the original idea with the name of "pragmaticism". Along with its pragmatic theory of truth, this perspective integrates the basic insights of empirical (experience-based) and rational (concept-based) thinking.
When was Peirce born?
572b4375be1ee31400cb82db
1839
16
False
When did Peirce die?
572b4375be1ee31400cb82dc
1914
21
False
What view did Peirce think had been driven to excess?
572b4375be1ee31400cb82dd
the "data-driven" strict-empiricist view
721
False
Who formed the basis for modern scientific method?
572b4375be1ee31400cb82de
Charles Peirce
0
False
Whose rationalism did Peirce criticize?
572b4375be1ee31400cb82df
Descartes
186
False
In later years
491
When did Pierce begin to take excesses with data-driven empiricism?
5a57e4b5770dc0001aeefe8c
True
Peirce severely criticized many elements of Descartes' peculiar brand of rationalism
142
Why did Pierce reject rationalism?
5a57e4b5770dc0001aeefe8d
True
Descartes
186
Which philosopher did Pierce agree with the most?
5a57e4b5770dc0001aeefe8e
True
1914
21
When was the strict-empiricist view started?
5a57e4b5770dc0001aeefe8f
True
to counterbalance the excesses to which some of his cohorts had taken
634
Why did Pierce prefer the data-driven empiricist view?
5a57e4b5770dc0001aeefe90
True
Charles Peirce (1839–1914) was highly influential in laying the groundwork for today's empirical scientific method.[citation needed] Although Peirce severely criticized many elements of Descartes' peculiar brand of rationalism, he did not reject rationalism outright. Indeed, he concurred with the main ideas of rationalism, most importantly the idea that rational concepts can be meaningful and the idea that rational concepts necessarily go beyond the data given by empirical observation. In later years he even emphasized the concept-driven side of the then ongoing debate between strict empiricism and strict rationalism, in part to counterbalance the excesses to which some of his cohorts had taken pragmatism under the "data-driven" strict-empiricist view.
How long before Peirce did Hume write?
572b441cf75d5e190021fd42
a century
230
False
How did Peirce view inductive vs deductive reasoning?
572b441cf75d5e190021fd43
complementary
97
False
How did Hume view inductive vs deductive reasoning?
572b441cf75d5e190021fd44
competitive
123
False
What did fallibilism say?
572b441cf75d5e190021fd45
the conclusions of science are always tentative
752
False
What does the scientific method's rationality depend on?
572b441cf75d5e190021fd46
its self-corrective character
902
False
a century before
230
When was abductive reasoning added?
5a57e7be770dc0001aeefea0
True
a century before
230
When was the doctrine of fallibilism published?
5a57e7be770dc0001aeefea1
True
Peirce
718
Who said the doctrines of science are always definitive?
5a57e7be770dc0001aeefea2
True
continued application of the method science can detect and correct its own mistakes
936
Why does the scientific method rely on its certainty?
5a57e7be770dc0001aeefea3
True
Among Peirce's major contributions was to place inductive reasoning and deductive reasoning in a complementary rather than competitive mode, the latter of which had been the primary trend among the educated since David Hume wrote a century before. To this, Peirce added the concept of abductive reasoning. The combined three forms of reasoning serve as a primary conceptual foundation for the empirically based scientific method today. Peirce's approach "presupposes that (1) the objects of knowledge are real things, (2) the characters (properties) of real things do not depend on our perceptions of them, and (3) everyone who has sufficient experience of real things will agree on the truth about them. According to Peirce's doctrine of fallibilism, the conclusions of science are always tentative. The rationality of the scientific method does not depend on the certainty of its conclusions, but on its self-corrective character: by continued application of the method science can detect and correct its own mistakes, and thus eventually lead to the discovery of truth".
Who wrote 'Lectures on Pragmatism'?
572b449df75d5e190021fd4c
Peirce
48
False
When was 'Lectures on Pragmatism' published?
572b449df75d5e190021fd4d
1903
41
False
What is 'haecceity'?
572b449df75d5e190021fd4e
unique individuality or "thisness"
880
False
What did Irvin Rock write about?
572b449df75d5e190021fd4f
indirect perception
1328
False
Where has 'perception as abduction' come up repeatedly?
572b449df75d5e190021fd50
in artificial intelligence and cognitive science research
1211
False
Lectures on Pragmatism
16
In what essay was haecceity defined?
5a57e8b9770dc0001aeefeb2
True
1903
41
When did Irvin Rock publish his essay?
5a57e8b9770dc0001aeefeb3
True
Harvard
7
What school did Irvin Rock attend?
5a57e8b9770dc0001aeefeb4
True
if theories are theory-laden then so are the senses
523
What is the inverse relation between theories and senses?
5a57e8b9770dc0001aeefeb5
True
Peirce
48
Who subverted the peripatetic-thomist observation?
5a57e8b9770dc0001aeefeb6
True
In his Harvard "Lectures on Pragmatism" (1903), Peirce enumerated what he called the "three cotary propositions of pragmatism" (L: cos, cotis whetstone), saying that they "put the edge on the maxim of pragmatism". First among these he listed the peripatetic-thomist observation mentioned above, but he further observed that this link between sensory perception and intellectual conception is a two-way street. That is, it can be taken to say that whatever we find in the intellect is also incipiently in the senses. Hence, if theories are theory-laden then so are the senses, and perception itself can be seen as a species of abductive inference, its difference being that it is beyond control and hence beyond critique – in a word, incorrigible. This in no way conflicts with the fallibility and revisability of scientific concepts, since it is only the immediate percept in its unique individuality or "thisness" – what the Scholastics called its haecceity – that stands beyond control and correction. Scientific concepts, on the other hand, are general in nature, and transient sensations do in another sense find correction within them. This notion of perception as abduction has received periodic revivals in artificial intelligence and cognitive science research, most recently for instance with the work of Irvin Rock on indirect perception.
Who came up with 'radical empiricism'?
572b4537f75d5e190021fd56
William James
42
False
Where were James's pragmatism and radical empiricism intertwined?
572b4537f75d5e190021fd57
in James's published lectures
273
False
When was William James born?
572b4537f75d5e190021fd58
1842
57
False
When did William James die?
572b4537f75d5e190021fd59
1910
62
False
When did James come up with 'radical empiricism'?
572b4537f75d5e190021fd5a
Around the beginning of the 20th century
0
False
but is instead fairly consistent with the modern use of the term "empirical"
672
Why is James' method considered radical?
5a57ff0c770dc0001aeeff24
True
radical empiricism
591
What methodology by James is roundly accepted today?
5a57ff0c770dc0001aeeff25
True
James's published lectures
276
Where did James prove pragmatism and radical empiricism could be dealt with separately?
5a57ff0c770dc0001aeeff26
True
the empirically observed "directly apprehended universe needs ... no extraneous trans-empirical connective support"
326
How did James argue for the importance of the supernatural?
5a57ff0c770dc0001aeeff27
True
Around the beginning of the 20th century, William James (1842–1910) coined the term "radical empiricism" to describe an offshoot of his form of pragmatism, which he argued could be dealt with separately from his pragmatism – though in fact the two concepts are intertwined in James's published lectures. James maintained that the empirically observed "directly apprehended universe needs ... no extraneous trans-empirical connective support", by which he meant to rule out the perception that there can be any value added by seeking supernatural explanations for natural phenomena. James's "radical empiricism" is thus not radical in the context of the term "empiricism", but is instead fairly consistent with the modern use of the term "empirical". (His method of argument in arriving at this view, however, still readily encounters debate within philosophy even today.)
Who came up with 'instrumentalism'?
572b459134ae481900dead71
John Dewey
0
False
What did Dewey think about reality?
572b459134ae481900dead72
reality is determined by past experience
317
False
When was Dewey born?
572b459134ae481900dead73
1859
12
False
When did Dewey die?
572b459134ae481900dead74
1952
17
False
What was instrumentalism a modification of?
572b459134ae481900dead75
James' pragmatism
32
False
by past experience
339
How did James define reality?
5a580041770dc0001aeeff2c
True
reality is determined by past experience
317
Why is Dewey's system considered a priori?
5a580041770dc0001aeeff2d
True
James
32
Who changed Dewey's solution?
5a580041770dc0001aeeff2e
True
he saw experience as unified totality of things
160
Why is basic thought crucial to Dewey's theory?
5a580041770dc0001aeeff2f
True
John Dewey
0
Who claimed that humans create experiments based on the perceived future?
5a580041770dc0001aeeff30
True
John Dewey (1859–1952) modified James' pragmatism to form a theory known as instrumentalism. The role of sense experience in Dewey's theory is crucial, in that he saw experience as unified totality of things through which everything else is interrelated. Dewey's basic thought, in accordance with empiricism was that reality is determined by past experience. Therefore, humans adapt their past experiences of things to perform experiments upon and test the pragmatic values of such experience. The value of such experience is measured experientially and scientifically, and the results of such tests generate ideas that serve as instruments for future experimentation, in physical sciences as in ethics. Thus, ideas in Dewey's system retain their empiricist flavour in that they are only known a posteriori.
Idealism
What do idealist philosophies say is constructed in our minds?
572b6958be1ee31400cb8365
reality
83
False
What types of things are idealist philosophies skeptical about?
572b6958be1ee31400cb8366
mind-independent
273
False
Along with physicalist theories, what theories is idealism in conflict with?
572b6958be1ee31400cb8367
dualist
552
False
In sociology, what sorts of ideas does idealism focus on?
572b6958be1ee31400cb8368
beliefs and values
369
False
mental
127
What processes do idealists say are constructed by reality?
5a7c645ae8bc7e001a9e1d4b
True
idealism
15
Mind-independent things are taken for granted in what philosophy?
5a7c645ae8bc7e001a9e1d4c
True
physicalist and dualist
536
What theories does idealism crossover with?
5a7c645ae8bc7e001a9e1d4d
True
knowing any mind-independent thing
261
What is dualism skeptical about?
5a7c645ae8bc7e001a9e1d4e
True
beliefs and values
369
Which type of human ideas is idealism uninterested in?
5a7c645ae8bc7e001a9e1d4f
True
In philosophy, idealism is the group of philosophies which assert that reality, or reality as we can know it, is fundamentally mental, mentally constructed, or otherwise immaterial. Epistemologically, idealism manifests as a skepticism about the possibility of knowing any mind-independent thing. In a sociological sense, idealism emphasizes how human ideas—especially beliefs and values—shape society. As an ontological doctrine, idealism goes further, asserting that all entities are composed of mind or spirit. Idealism thus rejects physicalist and dualist theories that fail to ascribe priority to the mind.
What Indian thinkers were early idealists?
572b69c0be1ee31400cb836d
Hindu
119
False
What Greek philosophers had idealistic views?
572b69c0be1ee31400cb836e
Neoplatonists
158
False
With what sect of Buddhism was the Yogācāra school affiliated?
572b69c0be1ee31400cb836f
Mahayana
330
False
In what century did the Yogācāra school arise?
572b69c0be1ee31400cb8370
4th
364
False
What century did George Berkeley live in?
572b69c0be1ee31400cb8371
18th
589
False
4th century CE
364
When did Neoplatonists arise?
5a7c6579e8bc7e001a9e1d55
True
George Berkeley
548
Who started the Yogacara school?
5a7c6579e8bc7e001a9e1d56
True
18th-century
589
When did the Yogacara school end?
5a7c6579e8bc7e001a9e1d57
True
Mahayana
330
What type of Buddhism was common in Greece?
5a7c6579e8bc7e001a9e1d58
True
materialism
650
What practice where Neoplatonists arguing against?
5a7c6579e8bc7e001a9e1d59
True
The earliest extant arguments that the world of experience is grounded in the mental derive from India and Greece. The Hindu idealists in India and the Greek Neoplatonists gave panentheistic arguments for an all-pervading consciousness as the ground or true nature of reality. In contrast, the Yogācāra school, which arose within Mahayana Buddhism in India in the 4th century CE, based its "mind-only" idealism to a greater extent on phenomenological analyses of personal experience. This turn toward the subjective anticipated empiricists such as George Berkeley, who revived idealism in 18th-century Europe by employing skeptical arguments against materialism.
What was the ethnicity of Friedrich Wilhelm Joseph Schelling?
572b6a2734ae481900deadef
German
30
False
In what century did Hegel write?
572b6a2734ae481900deadf0
19th
165
False
Along with British idealism and existentialism, what philosophy was influenced by the German idealistic tradition?
572b6a2734ae481900deadf1
phenomenalism
356
False
Along with positivism and pragmatism, what philosophy rejected idealism's metaphysical views but what nevertheless influenced by it?
572b6a2734ae481900deadf2
Marxism
529
False
idealists
37
Whose philosophy did Immanuel Kant write against?
5a7c6618e8bc7e001a9e1d5f
True
phenomenalism to existentialism
356
What schools of thought were contrary to British idealism?
5a7c6618e8bc7e001a9e1d60
True
Immanuel Kant
15
What was the name of the first British idealist?
5a7c6618e8bc7e001a9e1d61
True
Marxism
529
Hegel wrote about what philosophy that rejected metaphysical assumptions?
5a7c6618e8bc7e001a9e1d62
True
19th-century
165
When did Marxism dominate philosophy?
5a7c6618e8bc7e001a9e1d63
True
Beginning with Immanuel Kant, German idealists such as G. W. F. Hegel, Johann Gottlieb Fichte, Friedrich Wilhelm Joseph Schelling, and Arthur Schopenhauer dominated 19th-century philosophy. This tradition, which emphasized the mental or "ideal" character of all phenomena, gave birth to idealistic and subjectivist schools ranging from British idealism to phenomenalism to existentialism. The historical influence of this branch of idealism remains central even to the schools that rejected its metaphysical assumptions, such as Marxism, pragmatism and positivism.
What does ἰδεῖν mean in English?
572b6a90f75d5e190021fdb0
to see
107
False
By what year was "idealism" a word in English?
572b6a90f75d5e190021fdb1
1743
157
False
Whose worldview contrasts with that of idealists in the ordinary sense of the word?
572b6a90f75d5e190021fdb2
pragmatists
419
False
What language is ἰδεῖν?
572b6a90f75d5e190021fdb3
Greek
77
False
1743
157
When did the Greek word idein mean to see?
5a7c66e5e8bc7e001a9e1d71
True
Woodrow Wilson
200
Who was president in 1793?
5a7c66e5e8bc7e001a9e1d72
True
to see
107
What does the English word idein mean?
5a7c66e5e8bc7e001a9e1d73
True
pragmatists
419
Idealists see the world the same way as what other philosophers?
5a7c66e5e8bc7e001a9e1d74
True
affirms imagination and attempts to realize a mental conception of beauty
508
How do pragmatists view the arts?
5a7c66e5e8bc7e001a9e1d75
True
Idealism is a term with several related meanings. It comes via idea from the Greek idein (ἰδεῖν), meaning "to see". The term entered the English language by 1743. In ordinary use, as when speaking of Woodrow Wilson's political idealism, it generally suggests the priority of ideals, principles, values, and goals over concrete realities. Idealists are understood to represent the world as it might or should be, unlike pragmatists, who focus on the world as it presently is. In the arts, similarly, idealism affirms imagination and attempts to realize a mental conception of beauty, a standard of perfection, juxtaposed to aesthetic naturalism and realism.
What is the term used for philosophies that consider the spiritual to be of paramount importance?
572b6b0a111d821400f38e88
idealist
128
False
What branch of idealism believes that reality is fundamentally nonphysical?
572b6b0a111d821400f38e89
Metaphysical
139
False
What branch of idealism sees abstracts as more real than perceived objects?
572b6b0a111d821400f38e8a
Platonic
342
False
Along with phenomenalists, what idealists believe the senses are more important than reason?
572b6b0a111d821400f38e8b
subjective
447
False
What branch of idealism believes that we can only know the real world via ideas?
572b6b0a111d821400f38e8c
Epistemological
549
False
idealist
128
Philosophies that regard the spiritual realm highly cannot be called what?
5a7c67b9e8bc7e001a9e1d85
True
ontological
167
What type of doctrine says reality is corporeal?
5a7c67b9e8bc7e001a9e1d86
True
which aspects of the mental are more basic
298
What aspects of the mental do idealists agree on?
5a7c67b9e8bc7e001a9e1d87
True
subjective
447
Platonic idealism's understanding of abstractions is similar to what view?
5a7c67b9e8bc7e001a9e1d88
True
Epistemological
549
What view believes ideas are irrelevant to the real world?
5a7c67b9e8bc7e001a9e1d89
True
Any philosophy that assigns crucial importance to the ideal or spiritual realm in its account of human existence may be termed "idealist". Metaphysical idealism is an ontological doctrine that holds that reality itself is incorporeal or experiential at its core. Beyond this, idealists disagree on which aspects of the mental are more basic. Platonic idealism affirms that abstractions are more basic to reality than the things we perceive, while subjective idealists and phenomenalists tend to privilege sensory experience over abstract reasoning. Epistemological idealism is the view that reality can only be known through ideas, that only psychological experience can be apprehended by the mind.
Who is a notable subjective idealist?
572b6b97111d821400f38e92
George Berkeley
26
False
What famous philosopher was a transcendental idealist?
572b6b97111d821400f38e93
Immanuel Kant
136
False
Who are subjective idealists opposed to?
572b6b97111d821400f38e94
realists
51
False
Along with Plato, what notable philosopher rejected epistemological idealism?
572b6b97111d821400f38e95
Gottfried Leibniz
911
False
Who believed the essence of reality to be composed of monads?
572b6b97111d821400f38e96
Leibniz
1288
False
Immanuel Kant
136
What idealist is George Berkeley most similar to?
5a7c68b6e8bc7e001a9e1d99
True
whether all of our putative outer experience is not mere imagining
318
Berkeley defines idealism by saying we can never be sure of what?
5a7c68b6e8bc7e001a9e1d9a
True
strict proof
478
What did Kant say reality needed to admit?
5a7c68b6e8bc7e001a9e1d9b
True
Objective
735
Who are subjective idealists in agreement with?
5a7c68b6e8bc7e001a9e1d9c
True
Gottfried Leibniz
911
Who disagreed with Plato's rejection of epistemological idealism?
5a7c68b6e8bc7e001a9e1d9d
True
Subjective idealists like George Berkeley are anti-realists in terms of a mind-independent world, whereas transcendental idealists like Immanuel Kant are strong skeptics of such a world, affirming epistemological and not metaphysical idealism. Thus Kant defines idealism as "the assertion that we can never be certain whether all of our putative outer experience is not mere imagining". He claimed that, according to idealism, "the reality of external objects does not admit of strict proof. On the contrary, however, the reality of the object of our internal sense (of myself and state) is clear immediately through consciousness."  However, not all idealists restrict the real or the knowable to our immediate subjective experience. Objective idealists make claims about a transempirical world, but simply deny that this world is essentially divorced from or ontologically prior to the mental. Thus Plato and Gottfried Leibniz affirm an objective and knowable reality transcending our subjective awareness—a rejection of epistemological idealism—but propose that this reality is grounded in ideal entities, a form of metaphysical idealism. Nor do all metaphysical idealists agree on the nature of the ideal; for Plato, the fundamental entities were non-mental abstract forms, while for Leibniz they were proto-mental and concrete monads.
In what philosophy was Christian idealism often rooted?
572b6c15f75d5e190021fdb8
Neoplatonism
63
False
What philosophy influential in the medieval church was opposed to Christian idealism?
572b6c15f75d5e190021fdb9
Aristotelian scholasticism
102
False
In what century did Christian thought begin to be influenced by the scholasticism of Aristotle?
572b6c15f75d5e190021fdba
12th
138
False
Along with the Unity Church, what contemporary religious movement may be regarded as idealist?
572b6c15f75d5e190021fdbb
New Thought
429
False
What notable idealist was responsible for a "world ground" theory?
572b6c15f75d5e190021fdbc
Hermann Lotze
207
False
12th century
138
When did Hermann Lotz offer his theories?
5a7c6ca5e8bc7e001a9e1dcb
True
Christian
0
Aristotelian scholasticism often formed the basis of what kind of theologian?
5a7c6ca5e8bc7e001a9e1dcc
True
Hermann Lotze
207
Who founded New Thought Movement?
5a7c6ca5e8bc7e001a9e1dcd
True
all that truly exists is God and God's ideas
608
What form of idealism does the Unity church teach about reality?
5a7c6ca5e8bc7e001a9e1dce
True
the "world ground"
240
What theory was rejected by Protestants?
5a7c6ca5e8bc7e001a9e1dcf
True
Christian theologians have held idealist views, often based on Neoplatonism, despite the influence of Aristotelian scholasticism from the 12th century onward. Later western theistic idealism such as that of Hermann Lotze offers a theory of the "world ground" in which all things find their unity: it has been widely accepted by Protestant theologians. Several modern religious movements, for example the organizations within the New Thought Movement and the Unity Church, may be said to have a particularly idealist orientation. The theology of Christian Science includes a form of idealism: it teaches that all that truly exists is God and God's ideas; that the world as it appears to the senses is a distortion of the underlying spiritual reality, a distortion that may be corrected (both conceptually and in terms of human experience) through a reorientation (spiritualization) of thought.
What was another term for forms in Plato's theory of forms?
572b6c9cf75d5e190021fdcc
ideas
28
False
Who regarded Plato as the oldest exponent of metaphysical objective idealism?
572b6c9cf75d5e190021fdcd
Simone Klein
321
False
What sort of dualist is Plato regarded as?
572b6c9cf75d5e190021fdce
metaphysical and epistemological
649
False
What branch of physics might support a worldview similar to Platonic dualism?
572b6c9cf75d5e190021fdcf
quantum
831
False
ideal forms
45
What does Plato say are dependent?
5a7c6d9ee8bc7e001a9e1de7
True
independently of any particular instance
166
How does Arne Gron's theory of forms say ideal forms exist?
5a7c6d9ee8bc7e001a9e1de8
True
metaphysical and epistemological
649
Modern idealism believes in what two kinds of dualism?
5a7c6d9ee8bc7e001a9e1de9
True
quantum
831
What type of physics did Simone Klein study?
5a7c6d9ee8bc7e001a9e1dea
True
Plato
1017
Quantum physics disagrees with what philosopher?
5a7c6d9ee8bc7e001a9e1deb
True
Plato's theory of forms or "ideas" describes ideal forms (for example the platonic solids in geometry or abstracts like Goodness and Justice), as universals existing independently of any particular instance. Arne Grøn calls this doctrine "the classic example of a metaphysical idealism as a transcendent idealism", while Simone Klein calls Plato "the earliest representative of metaphysical objective idealism". Nevertheless, Plato holds that matter is real, though transitory and imperfect, and is perceived by our body and its senses and given existence by the eternal ideas that are perceived directly by our rational soul. Plato was therefore a metaphysical and epistemological dualist, an outlook that modern idealism has striven to avoid: Plato's thought cannot therefore be counted as idealist in the modern sense, although quantum physics' assertion that man's consciousness is an immutable and primary requisite for not merely perceiving but shaping matter, and thus his reality, would give more credence to Plato's dualist position.[citation needed]
What sort of philosopher was Plotinus?
572b6d0fbe1ee31400cb837d
neoplatonist
9
False
According to Noiré, who was the first true Western idealist?
572b6d0fbe1ee31400cb837e
Plotinus
540
False
What issue did Schopenhauer discuss that Plotinus did not?
572b6d0fbe1ee31400cb837f
whether we know external objects
585
False
What did the Enneads believe might not have existence outside of the soul?
572b6d0fbe1ee31400cb8380
Time
398
False
neoplatonist
9
What type of philosopher was Nathaniel Alfred Boll?
5a7c71cbe8bc7e001a9e1dfb
True
Ludwig Noiré
451
Who was one of the Enneads?
5a7c71cbe8bc7e001a9e1dfc
True
Schopenhauer
626
What modern philosopher as Plotinus similar to?
5a7c71cbe8bc7e001a9e1dfd
True
Enneads
333
Who said time existed outside of the soul?
5a7c71cbe8bc7e001a9e1dfe
True
stepping from eternity into time
253
Boll taught that the soul made the world by doing what?
5a7c71cbe8bc7e001a9e1dff
True
With the neoplatonist Plotinus, wrote Nathaniel Alfred Boll; "there even appears, probably for the first time in Western philosophy, idealism that had long been current in the East even at that time, for it taught... that the soul has made the world by stepping from eternity into time...". Similarly, in regard to passages from the Enneads, "The only space or place of the world is the soul" and "Time must not be assumed to exist outside the soul", Ludwig Noiré wrote: "For the first time in Western philosophy we find idealism proper in Plotinus, However, Plotinus does not address whether we know external objects, unlike Schopenhauer and other modern philosophers.
Along with phenomenalism, what is another term for subjective idealism?
572b6d7934ae481900deae01
immaterialism
21
False
Of what see was Berkeley bishop?
572b6d7934ae481900deae02
Cloyne
241
False
What was Berkeley's ethnicity?
572b6d7934ae481900deae03
Anglo-Irish
252
False
What does esse est percipi mean?
572b6d7934ae481900deae04
to be is to be perceived
580
False
What did Berkeley consider things like matter to be?
572b6d7934ae481900deae05
abstractions
455
False
Berkeley
221
Who coined the term subjective idealism?
5a7c7334e8bc7e001a9e1e05
True
immaterialism or phenomenalism
21
What philosophies run counter to subjective idealism?
5a7c7334e8bc7e001a9e1e06
True
bundles
161
What is another word for sense data?
5a7c7334e8bc7e001a9e1e07
True
esse est percipi
561
What is the Latin phrase meaning subjective idealism?
5a7c7334e8bc7e001a9e1e08
True
ideas
495
What do not need to be perceived to exist?
5a7c7334e8bc7e001a9e1e09
True
Subjective Idealism (immaterialism or phenomenalism) describes a relationship between experience and the world in which objects are no more than collections or "bundles" of sense data in the perceiver. Proponents include Berkeley, Bishop of Cloyne, an Anglo-Irish philosopher who advanced a theory he called immaterialism, later referred to as "subjective idealism", contending that individuals can only know sensations and ideas of objects directly, not abstractions such as "matter", and that ideas also depend upon being perceived for their very existence - esse est percipi; "to be is to be perceived".
Who was known as the "Cambridge Platonist"?
572b6e8fbe1ee31400cb8385
John Norris
569
False
Who was notably influenced by John Norris?
572b6e8fbe1ee31400cb8386
Arthur Collier
0
False
When was An Essay Towards the Theory of the Ideal or Intelligible World written?
572b6e8fbe1ee31400cb8387
1701
582
False
What sort of reality did Collier believe was knowable?
572b6e8fbe1ee31400cb8388
represented image of an external object
160
False
An Essay Towards the Theory of the Ideal or Intelligible World
481
What did Collier write?
5a7c7399e8bc7e001a9e1e0f
True
1701
582
When did Collier publish his ideas?
5a7c7399e8bc7e001a9e1e10
True
Cambridge Platonist
548
What was Collier's nickname?
5a7c7399e8bc7e001a9e1e11
True
John Norris
569
Who did Collier influence?
5a7c7399e8bc7e001a9e1e12
True
two
101
How many contemporary writers did Collier have?
5a7c7399e8bc7e001a9e1e13
True
Arthur Collier published similar assertions though there seems to have been no influence between the two contemporary writers. The only knowable reality is the represented image of an external object. Matter as a cause of that image, is unthinkable and therefore nothing to us. An external world as absolute matter unrelated to an observer does not exist as far as we are concerned. The universe cannot exist as it appears if there is no perceiving mind. Collier was influenced by An Essay Towards the Theory of the Ideal or Intelligible World by "Cambridge Platonist" John Norris (1701).
Who coined the term "thing-in-itself"?
572b6eeb34ae481900deae0b
Immanuel Kant
68
False
Who invented the idea of a "table-of-commonsense"?
572b6eeb34ae481900deae0c
Sir Arthur Eddington
175
False
Who came up with the idea of "things-as-interacted-by-us"?
572b6eeb34ae481900deae0d
Arthur Fine
114
False
Who spoke of the "warning signs" of idealism?
572b6eeb34ae481900deae0e
Musgrave
260
False
What sort of philosopher was Richard Rorty?
572b6eeb34ae481900deae0f
Postmodernist
551
False
Musgrave
513
Who did Richard Rorty criticize?
5a7c744de8bc7e001a9e1e19
True
thing-in-itself
50
What hyphenated term did Musgrave coin?
5a7c744de8bc7e001a9e1e1a
True
hyphenated entities
21
What did Immanuel Kant call warning signs?
5a7c744de8bc7e001a9e1e1b
True
Richard Rorty
533
Who argued against issues of hermeneutics?
5a7c744de8bc7e001a9e1e1c
True
Postmodernist
551
What kind of philosopher was Musgrave?
5a7c744de8bc7e001a9e1e1d
True
and proliferation of hyphenated entities such as "thing-in-itself" (Immanuel Kant), "things-as-interacted-by-us" (Arthur Fine), "table-of-commonsense" and "table-of-physics" (Sir Arthur Eddington) which are "warning signs" for conceptual idealism according to Musgrave because they allegedly do not exist but only highlight the numerous ways in which people come to know the world. This argument does not take into account the issues pertaining to hermeneutics, especially at the backdrop of analytic philosophy. Musgrave criticized Richard Rorty and Postmodernist philosophy in general for confusion of use and mention.
What sort of thinkers were Foster and Luce?
572b6f49111d821400f38e9c
subjectivists
37
False
What book was written by A.A. Luce?
572b6f49111d821400f38e9d
Sense without Matter
61
False
What year saw the publication of Sense without Matter?
572b6f49111d821400f38e9e
1954
83
False
Who wrote A World for Us: The Case for Phenomenalistic Idealism?
572b6f49111d821400f38e9f
Foster
20
False
Whose work is Sense without Matter regarded as updating?
572b6f49111d821400f38ea0
Berkeley
108
False
1954
83
When was The Case for Idealism published?
5a7c7516e8bc7e001a9e1e23
True
Sense without Matter
61
What did Berkeley write in 1954?
5a7c7516e8bc7e001a9e1e24
True
his vocabulary
143
What aspect of Berkeley's writing did Foster modernize?
5a7c7516e8bc7e001a9e1e25
True
The Case for Idealism
303
What did Foster publish after A World For Us?
5a7c7516e8bc7e001a9e1e26
True
Berkeley
108
Whose work does Foster update?
5a7c7516e8bc7e001a9e1e27
True
A. A. Luce and John Foster are other subjectivists. Luce, in Sense without Matter (1954), attempts to bring Berkeley up to date by modernizing his vocabulary and putting the issues he faced in modern terms, and treats the Biblical account of matter and the psychology of perception and nature. Foster's The Case for Idealism argues that the physical world is the logical creation of natural, non-logical constraints on human sense-experience. Foster's latest defense of his views is in his book A World for Us: The Case for Phenomenalistic Idealism.
What school of thought did Berkeley belong to?
572b720e34ae481900deae1b
Subjective Idealism
175
False
What sort of idealist was Descartes?
572b720e34ae481900deae1c
Sceptical
118
False
In what section was Descartes criticized?
572b720e34ae481900deae1d
Paralogisms of Pure Reason
208
False
In what edition was there a Refutation of Idealism?
572b720e34ae481900deae1e
2nd
4
False
When was the second edition published?
572b720e34ae481900deae1f
1787
17
False
to infer the 'I' as an object
317
What does Descartes say is impossible?
5a7c75e2e8bc7e001a9e1e2d
True
cogito ergo sum
359
What Latin phrase did Kant coin?
5a7c75e2e8bc7e001a9e1e2e
True
1787
17
When did Locke publish his ideas?
5a7c75e2e8bc7e001a9e1e2f
True
Descartes's Sceptical Idealism and Berkeley's anti-realist strain of Subjective Idealism
106
The 2nd edition merged its ideas with which two forms of thought?
5a7c75e2e8bc7e001a9e1e30
True
British
451
What was Descartes' nationality?
5a7c75e2e8bc7e001a9e1e31
True
The 2nd edition (1787) contained a Refutation of Idealism to distinguish his transcendental idealism from Descartes's Sceptical Idealism and Berkeley's anti-realist strain of Subjective Idealism. The section Paralogisms of Pure Reason is an implicit critique of Descartes' idealism. Kant says that it is not possible to infer the 'I' as an object (Descartes' cogito ergo sum) purely from "the spontaneity of thought". Kant focused on ideas drawn from British philosophers such as Locke, Berkeley and Hume but distinguished his transcendental or critical idealism from previous varieties;
Who wrote Parerga and Paralipomena?
572b7268f75d5e190021fdd4
Schopenhauer
53
False
According to Schopenhauer, to what can the ideal be attributed?
572b7268f75d5e190021fdd5
our own minds
274
False
What did Schopenhauer believe we were restricted to?
572b7268f75d5e190021fdd6
our own consciousness
391
False
What did Schopenhauer believe were the only things we could know?
572b7268f75d5e190021fdd7
representations
530
False
What type of knowledge did Schopenhauer believe the ideal to be?
572b7268f75d5e190021fdd8
subjective
203
False
Sketch of a History of the Doctrine of the Ideal and the Real
77
What essay is in Schopenhauer's second volume?
5a7c8a0ee8bc7e001a9e1e93
True
our own consciousness
391
What are we unrestricted by?
5a7c8a0ee8bc7e001a9e1e94
True
mediation of our mind
622
How are external objects known directly?
5a7c8a0ee8bc7e001a9e1e95
True
subjective knowledge
203
What constitutes mental pictures?
5a7c8a0ee8bc7e001a9e1e96
True
subjective
203
Schopenhauer said the ideal was not what type of knowledge?
5a7c8a0ee8bc7e001a9e1e97
True
In the first volume of his Parerga and Paralipomena, Schopenhauer wrote his "Sketch of a History of the Doctrine of the Ideal and the Real". He defined the ideal as being mental pictures that constitute subjective knowledge. The ideal, for him, is what can be attributed to our own minds. The images in our head are what comprise the ideal. Schopenhauer emphasized that we are restricted to our own consciousness. The world that appears is only a representation or mental picture of objects. We directly and immediately know only representations. All objects that are external to the mind are known indirectly through the mediation of our mind. He offered a history of the concept of the "ideal" as "ideational" or "existing in the mind as an image".
Who censured Kant for his agnostic tautology?
572b734bf75d5e190021fde6
Friedrich Nietzsche
0
False
Along with Schopenhauer, whose idealism did Nietzsche attack?
572b734bf75d5e190021fde7
Descartes
691
False
Nietzsche's attack on Schopenhauer used an argument similar to Kant's attack on who?
572b734bf75d5e190021fde8
Descartes
691
False
agnostic tautology
48
What kind of error did Kant say Nietzsche's argument had?
5a7c8af6e8bc7e001a9e1ea7
True
Schopenhauer and Descartes
674
Which two philosophers did Nietzsche agree with?
5a7c8af6e8bc7e001a9e1ea8
True
Kant
32
Who argued that Nietzsche's theory of the world was wrong?
5a7c8af6e8bc7e001a9e1ea9
True
his pride
201
What did Kant ridicule Nietzsche for?
5a7c8af6e8bc7e001a9e1eaa
True
Descartes
691
Who did Kant agree with?
5a7c8af6e8bc7e001a9e1eab
True
Friedrich Nietzsche argued that Kant commits an agnostic tautology and does not offer a satisfactory answer as to the source of a philosophical right to such-or-other metaphysical claims; he ridicules his pride in tackling "the most difficult thing that could ever be undertaken on behalf of metaphysics." The famous "thing-in-itself" was called a product of philosophical habit, which seeks to introduce a grammatical subject: because wherever there is cognition, there must be a thing that is cognized and allegedly it must be added to ontology as a being (whereas, to Nietzsche, only the world as ever changing appearances can be assumed). Yet he attacks the idealism of Schopenhauer and Descartes with an argument similar to Kant's critique of the latter (see above).
According to Hegel, what sort of idealist was Fichte?
572b749abe1ee31400cb83ab
transcendental
218
False
Who did Hegel see as a subjective idealist?
572b749abe1ee31400cb83ac
Berkeley
200
False
What sort of idealist did Hegel define himself as?
572b749abe1ee31400cb83ad
Absolute
0
False
How did Hegel believe historical reality to be knowable to a philosopher?
572b749abe1ee31400cb83ae
exercise of reason and intellect
381
False
Kant and Fichte
246
Which two philosophers held to subjective idealism?
5a7c8ba9e8bc7e001a9e1eb1
True
the finite and a dialectical philosophy of history
301
Kant and Fichte critiqued what?
5a7c8ba9e8bc7e001a9e1eb2
True
as an all-inclusive whole
81
How did Berkeley comprehend existence?
5a7c8ba9e8bc7e001a9e1eb3
True
reason and intellect
393
What prevents a philosopher from knowing reality?
5a7c8ba9e8bc7e001a9e1eb4
True
subjective
176
How did Berkeley label his own idealism?
5a7c8ba9e8bc7e001a9e1eb5
True
Absolute idealism is G. W. F. Hegel's account of how existence is comprehensible as an all-inclusive whole. Hegel called his philosophy "absolute" idealism in contrast to the "subjective idealism" of Berkeley and the "transcendental idealism" of Kant and Fichte, which were not based on a critique of the finite and a dialectical philosophy of history as Hegel's idealism was. The exercise of reason and intellect enables the philosopher to know ultimate historical reality, the phenomenological constitution of self-determination, the dialectical development of self-awareness and personality in the realm of History.
When was Science of Logic written?
572b755a34ae481900deae25
1812–1814
25
False
Who was the author of Science of Logic?
572b755a34ae481900deae26
Hegel
36
False
Why did Hegel believe natural things are less real than spiritual things?
572b755a34ae481900deae27
less self-determining
321
False
Along with God and morally responsible people, what is an example of a spiritual thing to Hegel?
572b755a34ae481900deae28
ethical communities
398
False
What is an example of a school of thought Hegel believed to be wrong?
572b755a34ae481900deae29
materialism
452
False
they depend on other finite qualities
100
Why did Hegel argue that finite qualities were real?
5a7c8c53e8bc7e001a9e1ebb
True
1812
25
When was Hegel born?
5a7c8c53e8bc7e001a9e1ebc
True
1814
30
When did Hegel die?
5a7c8c53e8bc7e001a9e1ebd
True
materialism
452
Which doctrine did Hegel support?
5a7c8c53e8bc7e001a9e1ebe
True
morally responsible people, ethical communities and God
370
What are examples of natural things?
5a7c8c53e8bc7e001a9e1ebf
True
In his Science of Logic (1812–1814) Hegel argues that finite qualities are not fully "real" because they depend on other finite qualities to determine them. Qualitative infinity, on the other hand, would be more self-determining and hence more fully real. Similarly finite natural things are less "real"—because they are less self-determining—than spiritual things like morally responsible people, ethical communities and God. So any doctrine, such as materialism, that asserts that finite qualities or natural objects are fully real is mistaken.
In Hegel's thought, what inner reality is possessed by both subject and object?
572b764d111d821400f38ea6
Spirit
457
False
What is another term for Hegel's "subject"?
572b764d111d821400f38ea7
any human observer
255
False
What does Hegel mean by "object"?
572b764d111d821400f38ea8
any external entity
318
False
What does Spirit turn into when a person arrives at self-realization?
572b764d111d821400f38ea9
Absolute Spirit
1260
False
Who did Tucker argue that Hegel's philosophy involved the worship of?
572b764d111d821400f38eaa
self
1495
False
ethical reason can and does go beyond finite inclinations
118
Which of Kant's ideas did Hegel reject?
5a7c8d1fe8bc7e001a9e1ecf
True
some identity of thought and being
201
What did Kant believe was necessary to know an object?
5a7c8d1fe8bc7e001a9e1ed0
True
Hegel
382
Who believed a metaphysical inner reality was necessary?
5a7c8d1fe8bc7e001a9e1ed1
True
Spirit
672
An Absolute Spirit graduates to what status?
5a7c8d1fe8bc7e001a9e1ed2
True
German idealism
64
What did Tucker try to preserve?
5a7c8d1fe8bc7e001a9e1ed3
True
Hegel certainly intends to preserve what he takes to be true of German idealism, in particular Kant's insistence that ethical reason can and does go beyond finite inclinations. For Hegel there must be some identity of thought and being for the "subject" (any human observer)) to be able to know any observed "object" (any external entity, possibly even another human) at all. Under Hegel's concept of "subject-object identity," subject and object both have Spirit (Hegel's ersatz, redefined, nonsupernatural "God") as their conceptual (not metaphysical) inner reality—and in that sense are identical. But until Spirit's "self-realization" occurs and Spirit graduates from Spirit to Absolute Spirit status, subject (a human mind) mistakenly thinks every "object" it observes is something "alien," meaning something separate or apart from "subject." In Hegel's words, "The object is revealed to it [to "subject"] by [as] something alien, and it does not recognize itself." Self-realization occurs when Hegel (part of Spirit's nonsupernatural Mind, which is the collective mind of all humans) arrives on the scene and realizes that every "object" is himself, because both subject and object are essentially Spirit. When self-realization occurs and Spirit becomes Absolute Spirit, the "finite" (man, human) becomes the "infinite" ("God," divine), replacing the imaginary or "picture-thinking" supernatural God of theism: man becomes God. Tucker puts it this way: "Hegelianism . . . is a religion of self-worship whose fundamental theme is given in Hegel's image of the man who aspires to be God himself, who demands 'something more, namely infinity.'" The picture Hegel presents is "a picture of a self-glorifying humanity striving compulsively, and at the end successfully, to rise to divinity."
Who was a notable critic of Hegel?
572b76f734ae481900deae2f
Kierkegaard
0
False
For whom did Kierkegaard argue reality cannot be a system?
572b76f734ae481900deae30
human
401
False
According to Kierkegaard, why can't reality be a system for human beings?
572b76f734ae481900deae31
humans are incomplete
443
False
Even though Kierkegaard does not believe in the possibility of an existential system of reality, what sort of system can exist?
572b76f734ae481900deae32
logical
517
False
Kierkegaard
0
Whose work did Hegel criticize?
5a7c8e33e8bc7e001a9e1ed9
True
existence and thought
696
What does Kierkegaard blur the lines between?
5a7c8e33e8bc7e001a9e1eda
True
both reality and humans
426
Why did Kierkegaard believe humans could have a system for reality?
5a7c8e33e8bc7e001a9e1edb
True
existential
551
Kierkegaard said a logical system and what other system was possible?
5a7c8e33e8bc7e001a9e1edc
True
a comprehensive system
102
What did Kierkegaard say could explain all of reality?
5a7c8e33e8bc7e001a9e1edd
True
Kierkegaard criticised Hegel's idealist philosophy in several of his works, particularly his claim to a comprehensive system that could explain the whole of reality. Where Hegel argues that an ultimate understanding of the logical structure of the world is an understanding of the logical structure of God's mind, Kierkegaard asserting that for God reality can be a system but it cannot be so for any human individual because both reality and humans are incomplete and all philosophical systems imply completeness. A logical system is possible but an existential system is not. "What is rational is actual; and what is actual is rational". Hegel's absolute idealism blurs the distinction between existence and thought: our mortal nature places limits on our understanding of reality;
Who wrote Encyclopedia of the Philosophical Sciences?
572b77b2be1ee31400cb83b3
Hegel
340
False
When was Phenomenology of Spirit published?
572b77b2be1ee31400cb83b4
1807
52
False
What trait did Climacus believe that Hegel suppressed?
572b77b2be1ee31400cb83b5
individuality
705
False
Whose will did Hegel believe should prevail over that of the individual?
572b77b2be1ee31400cb83b6
State
658
False
What conception of right and wrong did Climacus believe Hegel endorsed?
572b77b2be1ee31400cb83b7
bourgeois
522
False
1817–1830
158
When was Philosophy of Right published?
5a7c8f6fe8bc7e001a9e1ee3
True
Philosophy of Right
354
What did Climacus write?
5a7c8f6fe8bc7e001a9e1ee4
True
mutual recognition
249
What term did Hegel coin?
5a7c8f6fe8bc7e001a9e1ee5
True
suppression of individuality
690
Which of Hegel's ideas did Climacus accept?
5a7c8f6fe8bc7e001a9e1ee6
True
1807
52
When was Climacus's criticism of Hegel published?
5a7c8f6fe8bc7e001a9e1ee7
True
A major concern of Hegel's Phenomenology of Spirit (1807) and of the philosophy of Spirit that he lays out in his Encyclopedia of the Philosophical Sciences (1817–1830) is the interrelation between individual humans, which he conceives in terms of "mutual recognition." However, what Climacus means by the aforementioned statement, is that Hegel, in the Philosophy of Right, believed the best solution was to surrender one's individuality to the customs of the State, identifying right and wrong in view of the prevailing bourgeois morality. Individual human will ought, at the State's highest level of development, to properly coincide with the will of the State. Climacus rejects Hegel's suppression of individuality by pointing out it is impossible to create a valid set of rules or system in any society which can adequately describe existence for any one individual. Submitting one's will to the State denies personal freedom, choice, and responsibility.
What sort of reality did Hegel perceive God's mind to be?
572b7822f75d5e190021fdec
ultimate
76
False
Along with Hegel, who also argued for human incompleteness?
572b7822f75d5e190021fded
Kierkegaard
112
False
According to Hegel, what form does thought necessarily take?
572b7822f75d5e190021fdee
abstraction
583
False
Why does Hegel believe we cannot know God?
572b7822f75d5e190021fdef
we are finite beings
866
False
If something transcends time, what does it, according to Hegel, also transcend?
572b7822f75d5e190021fdf0
human understanding
1067
False
God's mind, or ultimate reality
61
Hegel believes we cannot know what structure?
5a7c9a3de8bc7e001a9e1eed
True
Kierkegaard
112
Who argued against Hegel's assertion for human incompleteness?
5a7c9a3de8bc7e001a9e1eee
True
ontology and epistemology
447
Kierkegaard eliminated the distinction between what two studies?
5a7c9a3de8bc7e001a9e1eef
True
abstraction
583
What is always a form of thought?
5a7c9a3de8bc7e001a9e1ef0
True
time
1036
What does not transcend human understanding according to Hegel?
5a7c9a3de8bc7e001a9e1ef1
True
In addition, Hegel does believe we can know the structure of God's mind, or ultimate reality. Hegel agrees with Kierkegaard that both reality and humans are incomplete, inasmuch as we are in time, and reality develops through time. But the relation between time and eternity is outside time and this is the "logical structure" that Hegel thinks we can know. Kierkegaard disputes this assertion, because it eliminates the clear distinction between ontology and epistemology. Existence and thought are not identical and one cannot possibly think existence. Thought is always a form of abstraction, and thus not only is pure existence impossible to think, but all forms in existence are unthinkable; thought depends on language, which merely abstracts from experience, thus separating us from lived experience and the living essence of all beings. In addition, because we are finite beings, we cannot possibly know or understand anything that is universal or infinite such as God, so we cannot know God exists, since that which transcends time simultaneously transcends human understanding.
Who wrote The Refutation of Idealism?
572b78f434ae481900deae37
Moore
320
False
In his rejection of idealism, whose thought did Moore attack?
572b78f434ae481900deae38
Bradley
0
False
Who originated the saying 'esse est percipi'?
572b78f434ae481900deae39
Berkeley
1150
False
The Refutation of Idealism
344
What did Bradley write?
5a7c9af5e8bc7e001a9e1ef7
True
the statement that something is real
126
What did Bradley say Moore did not understand?
5a7c9af5e8bc7e001a9e1ef8
True
esse est percipi
504
What Latin phrase did Moore coin?
5a7c9af5e8bc7e001a9e1ef9
True
GEM
1196
What argument did Moore validate?
5a7c9af5e8bc7e001a9e1efa
True
G. E. Moore
35
Who did Bradley target?
5a7c9af5e8bc7e001a9e1efb
True
Bradley was the apparent target of G. E. Moore's radical rejection of idealism. Moore claimed that Bradley did not understand the statement that something is real. We know for certain, through common sense and prephilosophical beliefs, that some things are real, whether they are objects of thought or not, according to Moore. The 1903 article The Refutation of Idealism is one of the first demonstrations of Moore's commitment to analysis. He examines each of the three terms in the Berkeleian aphorism esse est percipi, "to be is to be perceived", finding that it must mean that the object and the subject are necessarily connected so that "yellow" and "the sensation of yellow" are identical - "to be yellow" is "to be experienced as yellow". But it also seems there is a difference between "yellow" and "the sensation of yellow" and "that esse is held to be percipi, solely because what is experienced is held to be identical with the experience of it". Though far from a complete refutation, this was the first strong statement by analytic philosophy against its idealist predecessors, or at any rate against the type of idealism represented by Berkeley. This argument did not show that the GEM (in post–Stove vernacular, see below) is logically invalid.
Who is a notable exponent of pluralistic idealism?
572b7982be1ee31400cb83bd
Gottfried Leibniz
37
False
What is the term for the type of idealism preached by Leibniz?
572b7982be1ee31400cb83be
Panpsychism
388
False
What did Leibniz believe the universe is fundamentally composed of?
572b7982be1ee31400cb83bf
monads
408
False
Who was a notable disciple of Leibniz?
572b7982be1ee31400cb83c0
James Ward
1060
False
What does Ward see as the purpose of interaction between monads?
572b7982be1ee31400cb83c1
self- betterment
1248
False
Christian Theism
1001
What form of thought rejected Leibniz's cosmology?
5a7c9c44e8bc7e001a9e1f15
True
English
1023
What was Leibniz's nationality?
5a7c9c44e8bc7e001a9e1f16
True
Leibniz
1083
Who did James Ward inspire?
5a7c9c44e8bc7e001a9e1f17
True
Panpsychism
388
What form of idealism did Ward create?
5a7c9c44e8bc7e001a9e1f18
True
absolute
231
Pluralistic idealism assumes the absolute in the same way what other form of idealism does?
5a7c9c44e8bc7e001a9e1f19
True
Pluralistic idealism such as that of Gottfried Leibniz takes the view that there are many individual minds that together underlie the existence of the observed world and make possible the existence of the physical universe. Unlike absolute idealism, pluralistic idealism does not assume the existence of a single ultimate mental reality or "Absolute". Leibniz' form of idealism, known as Panpsychism, views "monads" as the true atoms of the universe and as entities having perception. The monads are "substantial forms of being",elemental, individual, subject to their own laws, non-interacting, each reflecting the entire universe. Monads are centers of force, which is substance while space, matter and motion are phenomenal and their form and existence is dependent on the simple and immaterial monads. There is a pre-established harmony established by God, the central monad, between the world in the minds of the monads and the external world of objects. Leibniz's cosmology embraced traditional Christian Theism. The English psychologist and philosopher James Ward inspired by Leibniz had also defended a form of pluralistic idealism. According to Ward the universe is composed of "psychic monads" of different levels, interacting for mutual self- betterment.
Who was an exponent of so-called "Boston Personalism"?
572b7a07be1ee31400cb83c7
Bowne
141
False
What was the term given to the personal idealism of Howison?
572b7a07be1ee31400cb83c8
California Personalism
46
False
Who is a notable realistic personal theist?
572b7a07be1ee31400cb83c9
Saint Thomas Aquinas
522
False
What issue do both Aquinas and Brightman discuss?
572b7a07be1ee31400cb83ca
dependence upon an infinite personal God
580
False
What sort of freedom did Howison believe was incompatible with materialism?
572b7a07be1ee31400cb83cb
moral
257
False
Boston Personalism
108
California Personalism is the same as what personalism by Bowne?
5a7c9d0ae8bc7e001a9e1f1f
True
Borden Parker Bowne and Edgar S. Brightman
449
What two idealists took a realistic perspective?
5a7c9d0ae8bc7e001a9e1f20
True
Saint Thomas Aquinas
522
What theist did Howison agree with?
5a7c9d0ae8bc7e001a9e1f21
True
impersonal, monistic idealism and materialism
177
What did Bowne believe was contrary to moral freedom?
5a7c9d0ae8bc7e001a9e1f22
True
freedom
263
Howison said materialism was compatible with moral what?
5a7c9d0ae8bc7e001a9e1f23
True
Howison's personal idealism  was also called "California Personalism" by others to distinguish it from the "Boston Personalism" which was of Bowne. Howison maintained that both impersonal, monistic idealism and materialism run contrary to the experience of moral freedom. To deny freedom to pursue truth, beauty, and "benignant love" is to undermine every profound human venture, including science, morality, and philosophy. Personalistic idealists Borden Parker Bowne and Edgar S. Brightman and realistic personal theist Saint Thomas Aquinas address a core issue, namely that of dependence upon an infinite personal God.
With what university is J.M.E. McTaggart affiliated?
572b7a8ff75d5e190021fdf6
Cambridge
22
False
In what year was The Nature of Existence published?
572b7a8ff75d5e190021fdf7
1927
328
False
According to McTaggart, what are the only things that have real existence?
572b7a8ff75d5e190021fdf8
minds
56
False
How does McTaggart believe minds relate to one another?
572b7a8ff75d5e190021fdf9
love
112
False
What does McTaggart believe space and time to be?
572b7a8ff75d5e190021fdfa
unreal
155
False
1927
328
When was The Unreality of Time published?
5a7ca5dfe8bc7e001a9e1f3d
True
The Nature of Existence
303
In what publication did McTaggart argue space, time, and matter were real?
5a7ca5dfe8bc7e001a9e1f3e
True
J. M. E. McTaggart
0
Who said minds can only relate through time?
5a7ca5dfe8bc7e001a9e1f3f
True
social and political action
522
What did McTaggart say metaphysics was relevant for?
5a7ca5dfe8bc7e001a9e1f40
True
a Hegelian citizen
808
Who did McTaggart say was best prepared to use their philosophy to decide how to vote?
5a7ca5dfe8bc7e001a9e1f41
True
J. M. E. McTaggart of Cambridge University, argued that minds alone exist and only relate to each other through love. Space, time and material objects are unreal. In The Unreality of Time he argued that time is an illusion because it is impossible to produce a coherent account of a sequence of events. The Nature of Existence (1927) contained his arguments that space, time, and matter cannot possibly be real. In his Studies in Hegelian Cosmology (Cambridge, 1901, p196) he declared that metaphysics are not relevant to social and political action. McTaggart "thought that Hegel was wrong in supposing that metaphysics could show that the state is more than a means to the good of the individuals who compose it". For McTaggart "philosophy can give us very little, if any, guidance in action... Why should a Hegelian citizen be surprised that his belief as to the organic nature of the Absolute does not help him in deciding how to vote? Would a Hegelian engineer be reasonable in expecting that his belief that all matter is spirit should help him in planning a bridge?
What was the name of the philosophy preached by Thomas Davidson?
572b7afb34ae481900deae3d
apeirotheism
44
False
What type of idealism was Thomas Davidson's philosophy?
572b7afb34ae481900deae3e
pluralistic
70
False
According to Davidson, how many gods are there?
572b7afb34ae481900deae3f
infinite
170
False
By whose philosophy was Davidson influenced?
572b7afb34ae481900deae40
Aristotle
503
False
What did Davidson believe the God of Aristotle is synonymous with?
572b7afb34ae481900deae41
rational thought
664
False
apeirotheism
44
What was Aristotle's pluralism based on?
5a7ca6d9e8bc7e001a9e1f47
True
infinite
170
How many Souls did Aristotle say there were?
5a7ca6d9e8bc7e001a9e1f48
True
Aristotle
711
Davidson's argument that God cannot exist apart from the world matched whose argument?
5a7ca6d9e8bc7e001a9e1f49
True
a stern ethical rigorism
106
Apeirotheism was pluralistic idealism without what?
5a7ca6d9e8bc7e001a9e1f4a
True
rational thought
411
What did Davidson say God was antonymous to in Aristotle's works?
5a7ca6d9e8bc7e001a9e1f4b
True
Thomas Davidson taught a philosophy called "apeirotheism", a "form of pluralistic idealism...coupled with a stern ethical rigorism" which he defined as "a theory of Gods infinite in number." The theory was indebted to Aristotle's pluralism and his concepts of Soul, the rational, living aspect of a living substance which cannot exist apart from the body because it is not a substance but an essence, and nous, rational thought, reflection and understanding. Although a perennial source of controversy, Aristotle arguably views the latter as both eternal and immaterial in nature, as exemplified in his theology of unmoved movers. Identifying Aristotle's God with rational thought, Davidson argued, contrary to Aristotle, that just as the soul cannot exist apart from the body, God cannot exist apart from the world.
Among what twentieth century scientists was idealism popular?
572b7b6bbe1ee31400cb83d1
physicists
42
False
Along with quantum physics generally, what scientific doctrine caused some physicists to embrace idealism?
572b7b6bbe1ee31400cb83d2
relativity
146
False
In what year was the second edition of The Grammar of Science published?
572b7b6bbe1ee31400cb83d3
1900
213
False
What did Pearson claim that science classifies?
572b7b6bbe1ee31400cb83d4
contents of the mind
612
False
Who is claimed to have been influenced by The Grammar of Science?
572b7b6bbe1ee31400cb83d5
Einstein
408
False
the early 20th century
56
When did idealism fall out of practice?
5a7ca7bfe8bc7e001a9e1f51
True
The Grammar of Science
161
What did the theory of relativity first appear in?
5a7ca7bfe8bc7e001a9e1f52
True
1900
213
When did Einstein publish The Grammar of Science?
5a7ca7bfe8bc7e001a9e1f53
True
Karl Pearson
219
Who was influenced by Einstein?
5a7ca7bfe8bc7e001a9e1f54
True
a classification and analysis of the contents of the mind
575
What did Einstein say science is?
5a7ca7bfe8bc7e001a9e1f55
True
Idealist notions took a strong hold among physicists of the early 20th century confronted with the paradoxes of quantum physics and the theory of relativity. In The Grammar of Science, Preface to the 2nd Edition, 1900, Karl Pearson wrote, "There are many signs that a sound idealism is surely replacing, as a basis for natural philosophy, the crude materialism of the older physicists." This book influenced Einstein's regard for the importance of the observer in scientific measurements[citation needed]. In § 5 of that book, Pearson asserted that "...science is in reality a classification and analysis of the contents of the mind...." Also, "...the field of science is much more consciousness than an external world."
How do receive information from the physical world?
572b7c07f75d5e190021fe00
messages transmitted along the nerves to the seat of consciousness
381
False
What type of consciousness is similar but not identical to consciousness itself?
572b7c07f75d5e190021fe01
subconsciousness
505
False
What is the nature of the fundamental character of reality?
572b7c07f75d5e190021fe02
mental
732
False
According to the author, who would have particular trouble in accepting that reality is fundamentally mental?
572b7c07f75d5e190021fe03
physicist
663
False
What is the main thing that we experience?
572b7c07f75d5e190021fe04
mind
775
False
individual conscious minds
76
What is more general that mind-stuff of the world?
5a7ca8cee8bc7e001a9e1f77
True
in space and time
136
How is mind-stuff spread?
5a7ca8cee8bc7e001a9e1f78
True
Consciousness
452
What is sharply defined?
5a7ca8cee8bc7e001a9e1f79
True
the substratum of everything is of mental character
697
What does the matter-of-fact physicist easily accept?
5a7ca8cee8bc7e001a9e1f7a
True
the nerves to the seat of consciousness
408
What is the cyclic scheme transmitted by?
5a7ca8cee8bc7e001a9e1f7b
True
"The mind-stuff of the world is, of course, something more general than our individual conscious minds.... The mind-stuff is not spread in space and time; these are part of the cyclic scheme ultimately derived out of it.... It is necessary to keep reminding ourselves that all knowledge of our environment from which the world of physics is constructed, has entered in the form of messages transmitted along the nerves to the seat of consciousness.... Consciousness is not sharply defined, but fades into subconsciousness; and beyond that we must postulate something indefinite but yet continuous with our mental nature.... It is difficult for the matter-of-fact physicist to accept the view that the substratum of everything is of mental character. But no one can deny that mind is the first and most direct thing in our experience, and all else is remote inference."
Czech_language
What was Czech formerly known as?
572b6c54f75d5e190021fdc2
Bohemian
78
False
What languages strongly influenced Czech?
572b6c54f75d5e190021fdc3
Latin and German
184
False
Over how many million people speak Czech?
572b6c54f75d5e190021fdc4
10
226
False
What vocabulary associated with higher classed culture have been adopted over the years?
572b6c54f75d5e190021fdc6
loanwords
565
False
Bohemian
78
What is Polish formerly known as?
5a7a08ac17ab25001a8a023a
True
over 10 million
221
How many people speak Polish?
5a7a08ac17ab25001a8a023b
True
Slovak
327
What language is closest to Latin?
5a7a08ac17ab25001a8a023c
True
loanwords
565
What has Latin adopted in recent years?
5a7a08ac17ab25001a8a023d
True
Silesian and Polish
437
What are two other languages that are closely related to Latin?
5a7a08ac17ab25001a8a023e
True
Czech (/ˈtʃɛk/; čeština Czech pronunciation: [ˈt͡ʃɛʃcɪna]), formerly known as Bohemian (/boʊˈhiːmiən, bə-/; lingua Bohemica in Latin), is a West Slavic language strongly influenced by Latin and German language, spoken by over 10 million people and it is the official language of the Czech Republic. Czech's closest relative is Slovak, with which it is mutually intelligible. It is closely related to other West Slavic languages, such as Silesian and Polish. Although most Czech vocabulary is based on shared roots with Slavic, Romance, and Germanic languages, many loanwords (most associated with high culture) have been adopted in recent years.
What deliberate action has been done to some languages in the name of nationalism?
572b6d5934ae481900deadf7
highlighting of minor linguistic differences
48
False
What language family is Czech?
572b6d5934ae481900deadf8
Slavic
216
False
Why did many Slavic languages distance themselves from Russian influences?
572b6d5934ae481900deadf9
resentment against the former Soviet Union
336
False
When did the Soviet Union occupy Czechoslovakia?
572b6d5934ae481900deadfa
1968
413
False
What language does Czech form a dialect continuum with?
572b6d5934ae481900deadfb
Slovak
430
False
1968
413
In what year did Croatia occupy Bosnia?
5a7a09ec17ab25001a8a024e
True
because of widespread public resentment
307
Why has the Bosnian language wanted to separate itself from Croatia?
5a7a09ec17ab25001a8a024f
True
similarity
474
What do most Russian dialects have in common?
5a7a09ec17ab25001a8a0250
True
deliberate highlighting of minor linguistic differences in the name of nationalism
37
What has happened to languages in Russia?
5a7a09ec17ab25001a8a0251
True
dialect continuum
444
What kind of continuum is formed between Russian dialects?
5a7a09ec17ab25001a8a0252
True
The languages have not undergone the deliberate highlighting of minor linguistic differences in the name of nationalism as has occurred in the Bosnian, Serbian and Croatian standards of Serbo-Croatian. However, most Slavic languages (including Czech) have been distanced in this way from Russian influences because of widespread public resentment against the former Soviet Union (which occupied Czechoslovakia in 1968). Czech and Slovak form a dialect continuum, with great similarity between neighboring Czech and Slovak dialects. (See "Dialects" below.)
How much do the lexicons of Czech and Slovak differ, according to on study?
572b701cbe1ee31400cb838d
by 80 percent
57
False
What was the high percentage of differing lexicons found to derive from?
572b701cbe1ee31400cb838e
differing orthographies and slight inconsistencies in morphological formation
130
False
When is Slovak morphology more regular than Czech?
572b701cbe1ee31400cb838f
when changing from the nominative to the locative case
244
False
The most differences between Czech and Slovak can be found in colloquial vocabulary as well as what?
572b701cbe1ee31400cb8390
some scientific terminology
453
False
What does Slovak have slightly more of than Czech?
572b701cbe1ee31400cb8391
borrowed words
507
False
slightly more borrowed words
493
What  does Praha have more of than Prahe?
5a7a0b7d17ab25001a8a0258
True
80 percent
60
How many people speak Czech in Russia?
5a7a0b7d17ab25001a8a0259
True
primarily from differing orthographies and slight inconsistencies in morphological formation
115
Why do 80% of people in Russia speak Czech?
5a7a0b7d17ab25001a8a025a
True
some scientific terminology
453
Where can the most differences in Praha be found besides vocabulary?
5a7a0b7d17ab25001a8a025b
True
when changing from the nominative to the locative case
244
When is Praha morphology more regular than scientific terminology?
5a7a0b7d17ab25001a8a025c
True
One study showed that Czech and Slovak lexicons differed by 80 percent, but this high percentage was found to stem primarily from differing orthographies and slight inconsistencies in morphological formation; Slovak morphology is more regular (when changing from the nominative to the locative case, Praha becomes Praze in Czech and Prahe in Slovak). The two lexicons are generally considered similar, with most differences in colloquial vocabulary and some scientific terminology. Slovak has slightly more borrowed words than Czech.
Who called themselves "Czechoslavs"?
572b71c2be1ee31400cb8397
a group of 19th-century scholars
101
False
Why did the Czechoslavs consider Czech and Slovak to be a single language?
572b71c2be1ee31400cb8398
The similarities
0
False
When was the first Czechoslovak Republic?
572b71c2be1ee31400cb8399
1918–1938
362
False
What was standard written Slovak partially modeled on?
572b71c2be1ee31400cb839a
literary Czech
549
False
When was the Prague Spring?
572b71c2be1ee31400cb839b
1968
1051
False
"Czechoslavs"
156
What did 19th century German Bohemians call themselves?
5a7a0ce317ab25001a8a026c
True
Czech and Slovak
25
What languages were only used by Hungarians from 1918-1938?
5a7a0ce317ab25001a8a026d
True
a single language
80
What did Hungarians consider Czech and Slovak to be?
5a7a0ce317ab25001a8a026e
True
1938
764
When did Prague align itself with Nazi Germany?
5a7a0ce317ab25001a8a026f
True
1968
1051
In what year did Hungary gain independence?
5a7a0ce317ab25001a8a0270
True
The similarities between Czech and Slovak led to the languages being considered a single language by a group of 19th-century scholars who called themselves "Czechoslavs" (Čechoslováci), believing that the peoples were connected in a way which excluded German Bohemians and (to a lesser extent) Hungarians and other Slavs. During the First Czechoslovak Republic (1918–1938), although "Czechoslovak" was designated as the republic's official language both Czech and Slovak written standards were used. Standard written Slovak was partially modeled on literary Czech, and Czech was preferred for some official functions in the Slovak half of the republic. Czech influence on Slovak was protested by Slovak scholars, and when Slovakia broke off from Czechoslovakia in 1938 as the Slovak State (which then aligned with Nazi Germany in World War II) literary Slovak was deliberately distanced from Czech. When the Axis powers lost the war and Czechoslovakia reformed, Slovak developed somewhat on its own (with Czech influence); during the Prague Spring of 1968, Slovak gained independence from (and equality with) Czech. Since then, "Czechoslovak" refers to improvised pidgins of the languages which have arisen from the decrease in mutual intelligibility.
When did a tribe of Slavs arrive in Central Europe?
572b72e9be1ee31400cb83a1
sixth century AD
11
False
Who was the hero who led the Slavs to their new home, according to legend?
572b72e9be1ee31400cb83a2
Čech
136
False
What did the ninth century bring?
572b72e9be1ee31400cb83a3
state of Great Moravia
208
False
Whose influence was Rastislav eager to reduce, when he invited  Michael III to send missionaries?
572b72e9be1ee31400cb83a4
East Francia
371
False
What alphabet did the missionaries bring to the West Slavs?
572b72e9be1ee31400cb83a5
Glagolitic
612
False
Around the sixth century AD
0
When did Rastislav of Moravia arrive in Glagolitic?
5a7a0eba17ab25001a8a0280
True
a tribe of Slavs
29
Who did Constantine and Methodius lead to Central Europe?
5a7a0eba17ab25001a8a0281
True
in an attempt to reduce the influence of East Francia
330
Why did Cech send out missionaries?
5a7a0eba17ab25001a8a0282
True
religious and political life in his country
387
What area did Cech think East Francia had too much influence on?
5a7a0eba17ab25001a8a0283
True
a church system
573
What kind of system was established by Cech?
5a7a0eba17ab25001a8a0284
True
Around the sixth century AD, a tribe of Slavs arrived in a portion of Central Europe. According to legend they were led by a hero named Čech, from whom the word "Czech" derives. The ninth century brought the state of Great Moravia, whose first ruler (Rastislav of Moravia) invited Byzantine ruler Michael III to send missionaries in an attempt to reduce the influence of East Francia on religious and political life in his country. These missionaries, Constantine and Methodius, helped to convert the Czechs from traditional Slavic paganism to Christianity and established a church system. They also brought the Glagolitic alphabet to the West Slavs, whose language was previously unwritten. This language, later known as Proto-Czech, was beginning to separate from its fellow West Slavic hatchlings Proto-Slovak, Proto-Polish and Proto-Sorbian. Among other features, Proto-Czech was marked by its ephemeral use of the voiced velar fricative consonant (/ɣ/) and consistent stress on the first syllable.
By the thirteenth century, what had the Czech language separated from?
572b8668f75d5e190021fe28
other Slavic tongues
36
False
How long was the precursor to Czech classified as Old Czech?
572b8668f75d5e190021fe29
through the sixteenth century
153
False
How did Old Czech's use of cases differ from modern usage?
572b8668f75d5e190021fe2a
did not yet have a vocative case or an animacy distinction
255
False
How many cases did Old Czech have?
572b8668f75d5e190021fe2b
six
334
False
What other language did Old Czech's declension patterns resemble?
572b8668f75d5e190021fe2c
Lithuanian
476
False
other Slavic tongues
36
What other languages did Lithuanian separate from?
5a7a0f8917ab25001a8a0294
True
Old Czech
89
What was Lithuanian called by the thirteenth century?
5a7a0f8917ab25001a8a0295
True
six
334
How many cases did Lithuanian have?
5a7a0f8917ab25001a8a0296
True
three
348
How many genders were used in Lithuanian in the past?
5a7a0f8917ab25001a8a0297
True
through the sixteenth century
153
How long was Lithuanian considered Old Czech?
5a7a0f8917ab25001a8a0298
True
The Czechs' language separated from other Slavic tongues into what would later be called Old Czech by the thirteenth century, a classification extending through the sixteenth century. Its use of cases differed from the modern language; although Old Czech did not yet have a vocative case or an animacy distinction, declension for its six cases and three genders rapidly became complicated (partially to differentiate homophones) and its declension patterns resembled those of Lithuanian (its Balto-Slavic cousin).
What type of orthography did Old Czech lack?
572b87a334ae481900deae71
standard
125
False
Why aren't some sound clusters used in modern Czech?
572b87a334ae481900deae72
no longer exist
198
False
How did old Czech allow some complex consonant clusters to be pronounced?
572b87a334ae481900deae73
all at once
349
False
What type of phenomenon is Havlik's law?
572b87a334ae481900deae74
phonological
389
False
Which "yer"s were vocalized as vowels?
572b87a334ae481900deae75
every odd-numbered
575
False
Havlik's law
414
What law began in Old Czech?
5a7a118017ab25001a8a02c6
True
a basic alphabet
20
What kind of alphabet was in Proto-Slavic?
5a7a118017ab25001a8a02c7
True
a number of sound clusters
165
What did Proto-Slavic have that no longer exists?
5a7a118017ab25001a8a02c8
True
all at once
349
How did Proto-Slavic let complex consonant clusters to be pronounced?
5a7a118017ab25001a8a02c9
True
standard
125
What kind of orthography was missing from Proto-Slavic?
5a7a118017ab25001a8a02ca
True
While Old Czech had a basic alphabet from which a general set of orthographical correspondences was drawn, it did not have a standard orthography. It also contained a number of sound clusters which no longer exist; allowing ě (/jɛ/) after soft consonants, which has since shifted to e (/ɛ/), and allowing complex consonant clusters to be pronounced all at once rather than syllabically. A phonological phenomenon, Havlik's law (which began in Proto-Slavic and took various forms in other Slavic languages), appeared in Old Czech; counting backwards from the end of a clause, every odd-numbered yer was vocalized as a vowel, while the other yers disappeared.
What was Czech civilization called back in the day?
572b8885be1ee31400cb8419
Bohemia
0
False
What Holy Roman Emperor expedited the growth of Bohemia in the 14th century?
572b8885be1ee31400cb841a
Charles IV
211
False
When was Charles University founded in Prague?
572b8885be1ee31400cb841b
1348
267
False
Who contributed heavily to the effort to standardize Czech orthography?
572b8885be1ee31400cb841c
Jan Hus
478
False
What did Jan Hus advocate for among the Czech commoners?
572b8885be1ee31400cb841d
widespread literacy
571
False
Charles University
235
What university was founded by Jan Hus?
5a7a12a217ab25001a8a02e4
True
Prague
257
In what city did Jan Hus found Charles University?
5a7a12a217ab25001a8a02e5
True
1348
267
In what year did Jan Hus found Charles University?
5a7a12a217ab25001a8a02e6
True
a biblical translation, hymns and hagiography
303
What works were written by Jan Hus?
5a7a12a217ab25001a8a02e7
True
poetry and cookbooks
389
What type of literature was written by Czech commoners in 1348?
5a7a12a217ab25001a8a02e8
True
Bohemia (as Czech civilization was known by then) increased in power over the centuries, as its language did in regional importance. This growth was expedited during the fourteenth century by Holy Roman Emperor Charles IV, who founded Charles University in Prague in 1348. Here, early Czech literature (a biblical translation, hymns and hagiography) flourished. Old Czech texts, including poetry and cookbooks, were produced outside the university as well. Later in the century Jan Hus contributed significantly to the standardization of Czech orthography, advocated for widespread literacy among Czech commoners (particularly in religion) and made early efforts to model written Czech after the spoken language.
How many years as Czech continued to evolve and gain in regional importance?
572b8919f75d5e190021fe38
hundreds
62
False
When was the Kralice Bible published?
572b8919f75d5e190021fe39
late sixteenth century
237
False
What did the publication of the Kralice Bible spawn?
572b8919f75d5e190021fe3a
widespread nationalism
417
False
In what war were the Czechs defeated at the Battle of White Mountain?
572b8919f75d5e190021fe3b
Thirty Years' War
741
False
What language became dominant in Bohemia after the Czech's defeat?
572b8919f75d5e190021fe3c
German
998
False
the Battle of White Mountain
794
At what battle were the Germans defeated?
5a7a140517ab25001a8a02ee
True
Thirty Years' War
741
What war was Germany involved in the longest?
5a7a140517ab25001a8a02ef
True
widespread nationalism
417
What change did the publishing of the King James Bible cause?
5a7a140517ab25001a8a02f0
True
1615
448
In what year did Germans become serfs?
5a7a140517ab25001a8a02f1
True
become full citizens or inherit goods or land
540
What did the government of Bohemia only allow Germans do do?
5a7a140517ab25001a8a02f2
True
Czech continued to evolve and gain in regional importance for hundreds of years, and has been a literary language in the Slovak lands since the early fifteenth century. A biblical translation, the Kralice Bible, was published during the late sixteenth century (around the time of the King James and Luther versions) which was more linguistically conservative than either. The publication of the Kralice Bible spawned widespread nationalism, and in 1615 the government of Bohemia ruled that only Czech-speaking residents would be allowed to become full citizens or inherit goods or land. This, and the conversion of the Czech upper classes from the Habsburg Empire's Catholicism to Protestantism, angered the Habsburgs and helped trigger the Thirty Years' War (where the Czechs were defeated at the Battle of White Mountain). The Czechs became serfs; Bohemia's printing industry (and its linguistic and political rights) were dismembered, removing official regulation and support from its language. German quickly became the dominant language in Bohemia.
When do linguists agree modern Czech originated?
572b8a3b34ae481900deae83
the eighteenth century
79
False
What had Czech developed by the 18th century?
572b8a3b34ae481900deae84
literary tradition
140
False
Journals from the 18th century have no substantial differences from what?
572b8a3b34ae481900deae85
modern standard Czech
261
False
How much difficulty do contemporary Czechs have in understanding material from the 18th century?
572b8a3b34ae481900deae86
little
333
False
What did the Czech language abandon which survives in Slovak?
572b8a3b34ae481900deae87
a distinction between phonemic /l/ and /ʎ/
560
False
the eighteenth century
79
At what time did modern Slovak originate?
5a7a14ce17ab25001a8a0302
True
a literary tradition
138
What had Slovak developed?
5a7a14ce17ab25001a8a0303
True
little
190
How much has Slovak changed from the past until now?
5a7a14ce17ab25001a8a0304
True
no substantial differences
229
What kind of differences do writings from the past have from modern Slovak?
5a7a14ce17ab25001a8a0305
True
linguists
20
What group believes modern Slovak originated during the eighteenth century?
5a7a14ce17ab25001a8a0306
True
The consensus among linguists is that modern, standard Czech originated during the eighteenth century. By then the language had developed a literary tradition, and since then it has changed little; journals from that period have no substantial differences from modern standard Czech, and contemporary Czechs can understand them with little difficulty. Changes include the morphological shift of í to ej and é to í (although é survives for some uses) and the merging of í and the former ejí. Sometime before the eighteenth century, the Czech language abandoned a distinction between phonemic /l/ and /ʎ/ which survives in Slovak.
What did the Czechs as a people gain during the mid-18th century?
572b8b54111d821400f38efc
widespread national pride
24
False
What inspired the Czech's national pride?
572b8b54111d821400f38efd
Age of Enlightenment a half-century earlier
101
False
What did Czech historians emphasize about their countrymen?
572b8b54111d821400f38efe
accomplishments
197
False
What did Czech philologists advocate?
572b8b54111d821400f38eff
the return of the language to high culture
432
False
What is the period during the mid-eighteenth century also remembered as?
572b8b54111d821400f38f00
Czech National Revival
504
False
widespread national pride
24
What emotion did the Counter-Reformation support during the mid-eighteenth century?
5a7a161417ab25001a8a030c
True
the Age of Enlightenment
97
What time period inspired the Counter-Reformation?
5a7a161417ab25001a8a030d
True
from the fifteenth through the seventeenth centuries
213
When did the Counter-Reformation emphasize people's accomplishments?
5a7a161417ab25001a8a030e
True
Czech and other non-Latin languages
331
What had been denigrated by the Age of Enlightenment?
5a7a161417ab25001a8a030f
True
high culture
462
What did the Counter-Reformation advocate for the language to return to?
5a7a161417ab25001a8a0310
True
The Czech people gained widespread national pride during the mid-eighteenth century, inspired by the Age of Enlightenment a half-century earlier. Czech historians began to emphasize their people's accomplishments from the fifteenth through the seventeenth centuries, rebelling against the Counter-Reformation (which had denigrated Czech and other non-Latin languages). Czech philologists studied sixteenth-century texts, advocating the return of the language to high culture. This period is known as the Czech National Revival (or Renascence).
What was the professions of Joseph Dobrovský?
572b8eb4111d821400f38f06
linguist and historian
28
False
What year did Joseph Dobrovský release a German-language grammar of Old Czech?
572b8eb4111d821400f38f07
1809
23
False
What didn't Dobrovský think Czech had a chance of returning as?
572b8eb4111d821400f38f08
a major language
338
False
What did Josef Jungmann advocate for?
572b8eb4111d821400f38f09
a Czech linguistic revival
440
False
Who disagree about whether the revivalists were motivated by nationalism or if they considered contemporary spoken Czech unsuitable for formal use?
572b8eb4111d821400f38f0a
Modern scholars
762
False
Ausführliches Lehrgebäude der böhmischen Sprache (Comprehensive Doctrine of the Bohemian Language)
124
What was the title of the book released by Josef Jungmann?
5a7a175117ab25001a8a0316
True
1809
23
In what year did Josef Jungmann write his book?
5a7a175117ab25001a8a0317
True
descriptive
262
What had Josef Jungmann intended his book to be?
5a7a175117ab25001a8a0318
True
did not
279
Did Josef Jungmann think German would return as a major language?
5a7a175117ab25001a8a0319
True
a Czech linguistic revival
440
What kind of revival was called for by Josef Dobrovsky?
5a7a175117ab25001a8a031a
True
During the revival, in 1809 linguist and historian Josef Dobrovský released a German-language grammar of Old Czech entitled Ausführliches Lehrgebäude der böhmischen Sprache (Comprehensive Doctrine of the Bohemian Language). Dobrovský had intended his book to be descriptive, and did not think Czech had a realistic chance of returning as a major language. However, Josef Jungmann and other revivalists used Dobrovský's book to advocate for a Czech linguistic revival. Changes during this time included spelling reform (notably, í in place of the former j and j in place of g), the use of t (rather than ti) to end infinitive verbs and the non-capitalization of nouns (which had been a late borrowing from German). These changes differentiated Czech from Slovak. Modern scholars disagree about whether the conservative revivalists were motivated by nationalism or considered contemporary spoken Czech unsuitable for formal, widespread use.
What is the official language of the Czech republic?
572b8f5d111d821400f38f10
Czech
0
False
How long has the Czech Republic been a member of the European Union?
572b8f5d111d821400f38f11
since 2004
83
False
What distinction does Czech have in Slovakia?
572b8f5d111d821400f38f12
foreign language most often used
193
False
Who collected data on language knowledge in Europe for the 2012 European Day of Languages?
572b8f5d111d821400f38f13
Jonathan van Parys
249
False
Of the five countries with the greatest use of Czech, which country had the lowest percent of use?
572b8f5d111d821400f38f14
Germany
523
False
since 2004
83
How long has Slovakia been a member of the EU?
5a7a185f17ab25001a8a0320
True
the EU's
106
What group is German an official language of?
5a7a185f17ab25001a8a0321
True
Eurobarometer survey
147
What survey showed German as the foreign language used most often in Poland?
5a7a185f17ab25001a8a0322
True
data on language knowledge
278
What did the EU collect for the European Day of Languages in 2004?
5a7a185f17ab25001a8a0323
True
1.93 percent
482
What percentage of people in Portugal speak German?
5a7a185f17ab25001a8a0324
True
Czech, the official language of the Czech Republic (a member of the European Union since 2004), is one of the EU's official languages and the 2012 Eurobarometer survey found that Czech was the foreign language most often used in Slovakia. Economist Jonathan van Parys collected data on language knowledge in Europe for the 2012 European Day of Languages. The five countries with the greatest use of Czech were the Czech Republic (98.77 percent), Slovakia (24.86 percent), Portugal (1.93 percent), Poland (0.98 percent) and Germany (0.47 percent).
Czechs immigrated from Europe to the U.S. primary from 1848 to when?
572b8fff111d821400f38f1a
1914
87
False
What kind of language is Czech in U.S. schools?
572b8fff111d821400f38f1b
a Less Commonly Taught Language
102
False
What states have large communities of Czech Americans?
572b8fff111d821400f38f1c
Texas, Nebraska and Wisconsin
251
False
What is the most commonly spoken non-English language at homes nationwide in the U.S.?
572b8fff111d821400f38f1d
Spanish
497
False
How many Americans spoke Czech as their first language as of 2009?
572b8fff111d821400f38f1e
70,500
717
False
a Less Commonly Taught Language
102
What kind of language is Swedish in US schools?
5a7a198217ab25001a8a032a
True
Texas, Nebraska and Wisconsin
251
What states have large communities of Swedish Americans?
5a7a198217ab25001a8a032b
True
the most-common language spoken at home
338
What was reported about Swedish in the 2009 US Census?
5a7a198217ab25001a8a032c
True
70,500
717
How many Americans spoke Swedish in 2009?
5a7a198217ab25001a8a032d
True
49th place
771
What place is Spanish as the language being spoken as a first language nationwide?
5a7a198217ab25001a8a032e
True
Immigration of Czechs from Europe to the United States occurred primarily from 1848 to 1914. Czech is a Less Commonly Taught Language in U.S. schools, and is taught at Czech heritage centers. Large communities of Czech Americans live in the states of Texas, Nebraska and Wisconsin. In the 2000 United States Census, Czech was reported as the most-common language spoken at home (besides English) in Valley, Butler and Saunders Counties, Nebraska and Republic County, Kansas. With the exception of Spanish (the non-English language most commonly spoken at home nationwide), Czech was the most-common home language in over a dozen additional counties in Nebraska, Kansas, Texas, North Dakota and Minnesota. As of 2009, 70,500 Americans spoke Czech as their first language (49th place nationwide, behind Turkish and ahead of Swedish).
How many regional dialects does Czech have?
572b90bdbe1ee31400cb8443
several
83
False
Where are dialects of Czech commonly found?
572b90bdbe1ee31400cb8444
rural areas
127
False
What is dialect use associated with and thus stigmatized because of?
572b90bdbe1ee31400cb8445
lower class
366
False
What kind of scholarly interest has Czech received?
572b90bdbe1ee31400cb8446
considerable
614
False
What Czech dialect is gaining ground in journalism and the mass media?
572b90bdbe1ee31400cb8447
Common
878
False
lower class
366
What class was being a journalist associated with?
5a7a1b4c17ab25001a8a0334
True
literature or other media for comedic effect
390
What were parodies of journalists used for?
5a7a1b4c17ab25001a8a0335
True
Increased travel and media availability
436
What has increased among politicians and business people since 1990 so they are more well known locally?
5a7a1b4c17ab25001a8a0336
True
During the second half of the twentieth century
204
When did interest in studying ancient texts start to weaken?
5a7a1b4c17ab25001a8a0337
True
mass media
931
What group became more prominent in the 1990's when people wanted to hear the news of the day?
5a7a1b4c17ab25001a8a0338
True
In addition to a spoken standard and a closely related written standard, Czech has several regional dialects primarily used in rural areas by speakers less proficient in other dialects or standard Czech. During the second half of the twentieth century, Czech dialect use began to weaken. By the early 1990s dialect use was stigmatized, associated with the shrinking lower class and used in literature or other media for comedic effect. Increased travel and media availability to dialect-speaking populations has encouraged them to shift to (or add to their own dialect) standard Czech. Although Czech has received considerable scholarly interest for a Slavic language, this interest has focused primarily on modern standard Czech and ancient texts rather than dialects. Standard Czech is still the norm for politicians, businesspeople and other Czechs in formal situations, but Common Czech is gaining ground in journalism and the mass media.
What are the dialects spoken in Moravia and Silesia known as?
572b916d111d821400f38f24
Moravian
62
False
Where could citizens register "Bohemian-Moravian-Slovak' as being their spoken language?
572b916d111d821400f38f25
the Austro-Hungarian Empire
88
False
Which of the Czech dialects is the only one distinguished in the nationwide surveys by the Czech Statistical Office?
572b916d111d821400f38f26
Moravian
265
False
How many Czechs spoke Moravian as their first language as of 2011?
572b916d111d821400f38f27
62,908
358
False
How many Czechs spoke both Moravian and standard Czech as first languages in 2011?
572b916d111d821400f38f28
45,561
423
False
62,908
358
How many Czech citizens spoke German as their first language in 2011?
5a7a1c7c17ab25001a8a033e
True
45,561
423
How many people spoke German and Hungarian as first languages in 2011?
5a7a1c7c17ab25001a8a033f
True
diglossal
435
What is it called when you speak both German and Hungarian as your first language?
5a7a1c7c17ab25001a8a0340
True
Moravian
62
What are the Czech dialects spoken in Germany known as?
5a7a1c7c17ab25001a8a0341
True
"Bohemian-Moravian-Slovak"
117
In the German Empire, what language could you register as speaking?
5a7a1c7c17ab25001a8a0342
True
The Czech dialects spoken in Moravia and Silesia are known as Moravian (moravština). In the Austro-Hungarian Empire, "Bohemian-Moravian-Slovak" was a language citizens could register as speaking (with German, Polish and several others). Of the Czech dialects, only Moravian is distinguished in nationwide surveys by the Czech Statistical Office. As of 2011, 62,908 Czech citizens spoke Moravian as their first language and 45,561 were diglossal (speaking Moravian and standard Czech as first languages).
How many basic vowel phonemes does Czech contain?
572b91e5f75d5e190021fe52
ten
15
False
Where are three additional vowel phonemes found in Czech?
572b91e5f75d5e190021fe53
loanwords
70
False
What are vowel sounds never reduced to when unstressed?
572b91e5f75d5e190021fe54
schwa sounds
322
False
What a few exceptions where is the primary word stress in Czech?
572b91e5f75d5e190021fe55
first syllable
396
False
What is stress unrelated to in Czech?
572b91e5f75d5e190021fe56
vowel length
597
False
ten
15
How many basic vowel phonemes are in English?
5a7a1d8f17ab25001a8a0348
True
only in loanwords
62
In English, where are three more phonemes found?
5a7a1d8f17ab25001a8a0349
True
The latter two diphthongs and the long /oː/
222
What are exclusive to loanwords in English?
5a7a1d8f17ab25001a8a034a
True
schwa sounds
322
What are vowel sounds not reduced to when unstressed in English?
5a7a1d8f17ab25001a8a034b
True
on its first syllable
389
Where does each word usually have primary stress in English?
5a7a1d8f17ab25001a8a034c
True
Czech contains ten basic vowel phonemes, and three more found only in loanwords. They are /a/, /ɛ/, /ɪ/, /o/, and /u/, their long counterparts /aː/, /ɛː/, /iː/, /oː/ and /uː/, and three diphthongs, /ou̯/, /au̯/ and /ɛu̯/. The latter two diphthongs and the long /oː/ are exclusive to loanwords. Vowels are never reduced to schwa sounds when unstressed. Each word usually has primary stress on its first syllable, except for enclitics (minor, monosyllabic, unstressed syllables). In all words of more than two syllables, every odd-numbered syllable receives secondary stress. Stress is unrelated to vowel length, and the possibility of stressed short vowels and unstressed long vowels can be confusing to students whose native language combines the features (such as English).
In Czech, what are loanwords from other languages associated with?
572b928534ae481900deae9f
high culture
108
False
What word roots in the 19th century were rejected in favor of words with more common Slavic roots?
572b928534ae481900deaea0
Greek and Latin
164
False
How does one say the word "music" in Czech?
572b928534ae481900deaea1
hudba
349
False
What Czech word did the English "robot" derive from?
572b928534ae481900deaea2
robota
463
False
What is the meaning of the Czech word "robota"?
572b928534ae481900deaea3
labor
472
False
colloquial
37
What were older Latin loanwords considered?
5a7a1fa017ab25001a8a0352
True
high culture
108
What kind of culture are words borrowed from Russia associated with?
5a7a1fa017ab25001a8a0353
True
those based on older Czech words and common Slavic roots
212
What were words with Russian roots rejected for in the nineteenth century?
5a7a1fa017ab25001a8a0354
True
robota
463
What Russian word has the English robot been borrowed from?
5a7a1fa017ab25001a8a0355
True
English
410
What language has used borrowed words from Russian?
5a7a1fa017ab25001a8a0356
True
Although older German loanwords were colloquial, recent borrowings from other languages are associated with high culture. During the nineteenth century, words with Greek and Latin roots were rejected in favor of those based on older Czech words and common Slavic roots; "music" is muzyka in Polish and музыка (muzyka) in Russian, but in Czech it is hudba. Some Czech words have been borrowed as loanwords into English and other languages—for example, robot (from robota, "labor") and polka (from polka, "Polish woman" or from "půlka" "half").
Czech's word order is flexible because it uses what to convey word function in a sentence?
572b9bdef75d5e190021fe64
grammatical case
19
False
In Czech an intransitive sentence may consist of only what?
572b9bdef75d5e190021fe65
a verb
233
False
What is encoded about a subject in verbs in Czech?
572b9bdef75d5e190021fe66
information
241
False
What is a hard to pronounce and remember term meaning primarily auxiliary verbs and pronouns?
572b9bdef75d5e190021fe67
Enclitics
295
False
Where must enclitics appear in a sentence?
572b9bdef75d5e190021fe68
second syntactic slot
365
False
a verb
233
What can an intransitive sentence consist only of in English?
5a7a20d417ab25001a8a035c
True
encoded in the verb
274
Where is information about a sentence subject in English?
5a7a20d417ab25001a8a035d
True
Enclitics
295
What is another word for word order?
5a7a20d417ab25001a8a035e
True
in the second syntactic slot
358
Where must enclitics appear in an English sentence?
5a7a20d417ab25001a8a035f
True
the first stressed unit
408
What appears before the enclitics in an English sentence?
5a7a20d417ab25001a8a0360
True
Because Czech uses grammatical case to convey word function in a sentence (instead of relying on word order, as English does), its word order is flexible. As a pro-drop language, in Czech an intransitive sentence can consist of only a verb; information about its subject is encoded in the verb. Enclitics (primarily auxiliary verbs and pronouns) must appear in the second syntactic slot of a sentence, after the first stressed unit. The first slot must contain a subject and object, a main form of a verb, an adverb or a conjunction (except for the light conjunctions a, "and", i, "and even" or ale, "but").
What is the sentence structure of Czech syntax?
572b9c6fbe1ee31400cb8465
subject–verb–object
19
False
Because word order is flexible in Czech, what does it tend to actually be used for?
572b9c6fbe1ee31400cb8466
topicalization and focus
117
False
What kind of passive construction does Czech have?
572b9c6fbe1ee31400cb8467
periphrastic
164
False
What happens to the subject and object to produce a passive voice in Czech?
572b9c6fbe1ee31400cb8468
inverted
390
False
What case is the grammatical object of a verb?
572b9c6fbe1ee31400cb8469
accusative
504
False
subject–verb–object
19
What sentence structure is used in Pavla?
5a7a21e917ab25001a8a0366
True
flexible
95
Is word order fixed or flexible in Pavla?
5a7a21e917ab25001a8a0367
True
topicalization and focus
117
What is word order used for in Pavla?
5a7a21e917ab25001a8a0368
True
the passive voice
263
What do colloquial word-order changes produce in Pavla sentences?
5a7a21e917ab25001a8a0369
True
accusative
504
What case is the grammatical verb object in Pavla?
5a7a21e917ab25001a8a036a
True
Czech syntax has a subject–verb–object sentence structure. In practice, however, word order is flexible and used for topicalization and focus. Although Czech has a periphrastic passive construction (like English), colloquial word-order changes frequently produce the passive voice. For example, to change "Peter killed Paul" to "Paul was killed by Peter" the order of subject and object is inverted: Petr zabil Pavla ("Peter killed Paul") becomes "Paul, Peter killed" (Pavla zabil Petr). Pavla is in the accusative case, the grammatical object (in this case, the victim) of the verb.
How many grammatical cases can nouns and adjectives be declined into in Czech?
572ba3f1be1ee31400cb846f
seven
56
False
When are nouns in Czech inflected?
572ba3f1be1ee31400cb8470
to indicate their use in a sentence
101
False
How does Czech mark subject nouns?
572ba3f1be1ee31400cb8471
with nominative case
198
False
What nouns does Czech use the accusative case to mark?
572ba3f1be1ee31400cb8472
object
223
False
What must an adjective's case agree with in Czech?
572ba3f1be1ee31400cb8473
the noun it describes
567
False
seven
56
What age do children usually begin understanding grammatical cases?
5a7a2cd617ab25001a8a0370
True
inflected
91
What happens to case numbers to indicate them in a sentence?
5a7a2cd617ab25001a8a0371
True
accompaniment
492
What type of instrumental music do Czech children learn in school?
5a7a2cd617ab25001a8a0372
True
locative, vocative and dative
362
What are three types of instrumental cases?
5a7a2cd617ab25001a8a0373
True
the noun it describes
567
What does a secondary object agree with?
5a7a2cd617ab25001a8a0374
True
In Czech, nouns and adjectives are declined into one of seven grammatical cases. Nouns are inflected to indicate their use in a sentence. A nominative–accusative language, Czech marks subject nouns with nominative case and object nouns with accusative case. The genitive case marks possessive nouns and some types of movement. The remaining cases (instrumental, locative, vocative and dative) indicate semantic relationships, such as secondary objects, movement or position (dative case) and accompaniment (instrumental case). An adjective's case agrees with that of the noun it describes. When Czech children learn their language's declension patterns, the cases are referred to by number:
How many genders does Czech distinguish?
572ba57abe1ee31400cb8479
three
20
False
What categories is the masculine gender in Czech divided into?
572ba57abe1ee31400cb847a
animate and inanimate
110
False
What do Czech adjectives agree with in the nouns they modify?
572ba57abe1ee31400cb847b
gender and animacy
303
False
What is the main effect of gender in Czech?
572ba57abe1ee31400cb847c
difference in noun and adjective declension
479
False
What does gender also affect in Czech?
572ba57abe1ee31400cb847d
past-tense verb endings
550
False
masculine, feminine, and neuter
34
What are the three adjective types in Czech?
5a7a2e8a17ab25001a8a037a
True
animate and inanimate
110
How is the feminine gender divided?
5a7a2e8a17ab25001a8a037b
True
gender and animacy
303
What do Czech consonants usually describe?
5a7a2e8a17ab25001a8a037c
True
the difference in noun and adjective declension
475
What is the main effect of consonants in Czech?
5a7a2e8a17ab25001a8a037d
True
past-tense verb endings
550
What do consonants also affect in Czech?
5a7a2e8a17ab25001a8a037e
True
Czech distinguishes three genders—masculine, feminine, and neuter—and the masculine gender is subdivided into animate and inanimate. With few exceptions, feminine nouns in the nominative case end in -a, -e, or -ost; neuter nouns in -o, -e, or -í, and masculine nouns in a consonant. Adjectives agree in gender and animacy (for masculine nouns in the accusative or genitive singular and the nominative plural) with the nouns they modify. The main effect of gender in Czech is the difference in noun and adjective declension, but other effects include past-tense verb endings: for example, dělal (he did, or made); dělala (she did, or made) and dělalo (it did, or made).
What are inflected for number in Czech?
572ba616111d821400f38f34
Nouns
0
False
What are the cardinal numbers one through four in Czech allowed to take?
572ba616111d821400f38f35
any case
202
False
What case are numbers over five in?
572ba616111d821400f38f36
genitive
274
False
When is the genitive case used?
572ba616111d821400f38f37
when the entire expression is in nominative or accusative case
288
False
What is Czech's handling of cardinal numbers typical of?
572ba616111d821400f38f38
a Slavic language
92
False
a Slavic language
92
What is the way hypothetical sentences handle adjectives typical of?
5a7a316817ab25001a8a038e
True
the genitive case
270
In what case do hypothetical sentences place numbers?
5a7a316817ab25001a8a038f
True
number
29
What are adjectives inflected for in Czech?
5a7a316817ab25001a8a0390
True
singular and plural
60
What two terms distinguish between hypothetical sentences in Czech?
5a7a316817ab25001a8a0391
True
when the entire expression is in nominative or accusative case
288
When is the hypothetical sentence used?
5a7a316817ab25001a8a0392
True
Nouns are also inflected for number, distinguishing between singular and plural. Typical of a Slavic language, Czech cardinal numbers one through four allow the nouns and adjectives they modify to take any case, but numbers over five place these nouns and adjectives in the genitive case when the entire expression is in nominative or accusative case. The Czech koruna is an example of this feature; it is shown here as the subject of a hypothetical sentence, and declined as genitive for numbers five and up.
What do Slavic languages tend to do to their verbs?
572ba75ff75d5e190021fe6e
marks
35
False
What two grammatical aspects can verbs in Czech have?
572ba75ff75d5e190021fe6f
perfective and imperfective
87
False
In perfective verbs, what state is the action the verb describes in?
572ba75ff75d5e190021fe70
completed
297
False
In which verbs in Czech is the action the verb describes still ongoing?
572ba75ff75d5e190021fe71
imperfective
314
False
What describes the state of the action of the verb at the time specified by its tense?
572ba75ff75d5e190021fe72
Aspect
478
False
perfective and imperfective
87
What two types of time measurement are there?
5a7a4d4b17ab25001a8a049a
True
inflected aspect pairs
139
What are time measurements part of?
5a7a4d4b17ab25001a8a049b
True
completed
297
When tense is specified what happens to the action?
5a7a4d4b17ab25001a8a049c
True
three
464
How many main Slavic Languages are there?
5a7a4d4b17ab25001a8a049d
True
meaning
243
What is similar about three tenses in Czech?
5a7a4d4b17ab25001a8a049e
True
Typical of Slavic languages, Czech marks its verbs for one of two grammatical aspects: perfective and imperfective. Most verbs are part of inflected aspect pairs—for example, koupit (perfective) and kupovat (imperfective). Although the verbs' meaning is similar, in perfective verbs the action is completed and in imperfective verbs it is ongoing. This is distinct from past and present tense, and any Czech verb of either aspect can be conjugated into any of its three tenses. Aspect describes the state of the action at the time specified by the tense.
How many ways can a verb in an aspect pair differ?
572ba8fcf75d5e190021fe7e
two ways
48
False
What does a perfective verb have added in prefix pairs?
572ba8fcf75d5e190021fe7f
an added prefix
123
False
What is added to the ending in suffix pairs?
572ba8fcf75d5e190021fe80
different infinitive ending
359
False
What can imperfective verb undergo to make other imperfective verbs?
572ba8fcf75d5e190021fe81
further morphology
572
False
What type of action can second level morphed imperfective verbs denote?
572ba8fcf75d5e190021fe82
repeated or regular action
670
False
na-, o-, po-, s-, u-, vy-, z- and za
301
What are the most common suffixes?
5a7a50b117ab25001a8a04d6
True
an added prefix
123
What is added to the perfective stem in a prefix pair?
5a7a50b117ab25001a8a04d7
True
morphology
580
What might prefixes have happen to make other imperfective verbs?
5a7a50b117ab25001a8a04d8
True
repeated or regular action
670
What kind of action can morphed prefixes be a sign of?
5a7a50b117ab25001a8a04d9
True
by prefix or by suffix
58
In what two ways are perfective stems different?
5a7a50b117ab25001a8a04da
True
The verbs of most aspect pairs differ in one of two ways: by prefix or by suffix. In prefix pairs, the perfective verb has an added prefix—for example, the imperfective psát (to write, to be writing) compared with the perfective napsat (to write down, to finish writing). The most common prefixes are na-, o-, po-, s-, u-, vy-, z- and za-. In suffix pairs, a different infinitive ending is added to the perfective stem; for example, the perfective verbs koupit (to buy) and prodat (to sell) have the imperfective forms kupovat and prodávat. Imperfective verbs may undergo further morphology to make other imperfective verbs (iterative and frequentative forms), denoting repeated or regular action. The verb jít (to go) has the iterative form chodit (to go repeatedly) and the frequentative form chodívat (to go regularly).
What verb form is found in Czech dictionaries?
572baa44f75d5e190021fe88
infinitive
4
False
How many grammatical moods do Czech verbs have?
572baa44f75d5e190021fe89
three
193
False
What are the grammatical moods of Czech verbs?
572baa44f75d5e190021fe8a
indicative, imperative and conditional
218
False
What mood adds specific endings for each of three person or number categories?
572baa44f75d5e190021fe8b
imperative
262
False
Which Czech verb mood indicates possible events?
572baa44f75d5e190021fe8c
conditional
475
False
indicative, imperative and conditional
218
What three grammatical moods are there in English?
5a7a52ef21c2de001afe9b60
True
infinitive
4
What verb form is found in English dictionaries?
5a7a52ef21c2de001afe9b61
True
three
193
How many grammatical moods do English verbs have?
5a7a52ef21c2de001afe9b62
True
specific endings
283
What kind of endings does the conditional mood add for each category in English?
5a7a52ef21c2de001afe9b63
True
the past-tense verb
524
The imperative mood is formed with a particle after what in English?
5a7a52ef21c2de001afe9b64
True
The infinitive form ends in t (archaically, ti). It is the form found in dictionaries and the form that follows auxiliary verbs (for example, můžu tě slyšet—"I can hear you"). Czech verbs have three grammatical moods: indicative, imperative and conditional. The imperative mood adds specific endings for each of three person (or number) categories: -Ø/-i/-ej for second-person singular, -te/-ete/-ejte for second-person plural and -me/-eme/-ejme for first-person plural. The conditional mood is formed with a particle after the past-tense verb. This mood indicates possible events, expressed in English as "I would" or "I wish".
What language has one of the most phonemic orthographies of all European languages?
572baafbf75d5e190021fe92
Czech
0
False
How many graphemes does Czech have?
572baafbf75d5e190021fe93
thirty-one
80
False
What have some of Czech's characters been used for by phonologists to denote?
572baafbf75d5e190021fe94
corresponding sounds in other languages
322
False
What character in Czech only exists in loanwords?
572baafbf75d5e190021fe95
ó
697
False
In Czech, what type of words do the characters "q", "w" and "x" exclusively appear in?
572baafbf75d5e190021fe96
foreign
404
False
ó
697
What character is only used in other European languages?
5a7a560d21c2de001afe9b7a
True
phonemic orthographies
26
What do loanwords have more than other European languages?
5a7a560d21c2de001afe9b7b
True
ň, ě, ř, ť, and ď
510
What letters are common in loanwords?
5a7a560d21c2de001afe9b7c
True
thirty
111
How many graphemes are there in loanwords?
5a7a560d21c2de001afe9b7d
True
thirty
111
How many sounds are there in foreign words?
5a7a560d21c2de001afe9b7e
True
Czech has one of the most phonemic orthographies of all European languages. Its thirty-one graphemes represent thirty sounds (in most dialects, i and y have the same sound), and it contains only one digraph: ch, which follows h in the alphabet. As a result, some of its characters have been used by phonologists to denote corresponding sounds in other languages. The characters q, w and x appear only in foreign words. The háček (ˇ) is used with certain letters to form new characters: š, ž, and č, as well as ň, ě, ř, ť, and ď (the latter five uncommon outside Czech). The last two letters are sometimes written with a comma above (ʼ, an abbreviated háček) because of their height. The character ó exists only in loanwords and onomatopoeia.
What do Czech typographical features not associated with phonetics tend to resemble?
572bab9334ae481900deaecd
those of most Latin European languages
78
False
In Czech, what is done to proper nouns, honorifics, and the first letters of quotations?
572bab9334ae481900deaece
capitalized
203
False
What is typical in Czech as other Latin European languages?
572bab9334ae481900deaecf
punctuation
220
False
What language does Czech share its handling of ordinal format with?
572bab9334ae481900deaed0
German
731
False
What word is capitalized in proper noun phrases in Czech?
572bab9334ae481900deaed1
only the first
792
False
a decimal comma
369
What does English use instead of a decimal point?
5a7a6ba921c2de001afe9c0a
True
spaces between every three numbers
441
What can be used in Latin when writing noun phrases?
5a7a6ba921c2de001afe9c0b
True
only the first word
792
What word is capitalized in phonetics in Latin?
5a7a6ba921c2de001afe9c0c
True
spaces between every three numbers
441
What can always be used in decimal places in Latin?
5a7a6ba921c2de001afe9c0d
True
a decimal point
396
Latin uses a decimal comma instead of what?
5a7a6ba921c2de001afe9c0e
True
Czech typographical features not associated with phonetics generally resemble those of most Latin European languages, including English. Proper nouns, honorifics, and the first letters of quotations are capitalized, and punctuation is typical of other Latin European languages. Writing of ordinal numerals is similar to most European languages. The Czech language uses a decimal comma instead of a decimal point. When writing a long number, spaces between every three numbers (e.g. between hundreds and thousands) may be used for better orientation in handwritten texts, but not in decimal places, like in English. The number 1,234,567.8910 may be written as 1234567,8910 or 1 234 567,8910. Ordinal numbers (1st) use a point as in German (1.). In proper noun phrases (except personal names), only the first word is capitalized (Pražský hrad, Prague Castle).
Education
What makes up Education?
572b713d34ae481900deae15
knowledge, skills, values, beliefs, and habits
73
False
What methods make up Education?
572b713d34ae481900deae16
storytelling, discussion, teaching, training, and directed research
149
False
Where does education usually take place under?
572b713d34ae481900deae17
the guidance of educators
257
False
knowledge, skills, values, beliefs, and habits
73
What does not make up education?
5acd707407355d001abf4248
True
storytelling, discussion, teaching, training, and directed research
149
What methods do not make up Education?
5acd707407355d001abf4249
True
guidance of educators
261
Where does education never take place under?
5acd707407355d001abf424a
True
Education
326
What only happens in a formal setting?
5acd707407355d001abf424b
True
Education
326
What only happens in an informal setting?
5acd707407355d001abf424c
True
Education is the process of facilitating learning, or the acquisition of knowledge, skills, values, beliefs, and habits. Educational methods include storytelling, discussion, teaching, training, and directed research. Education frequently takes place under the guidance of educators, but learners may also educate themselves. Education can take place in formal or informal settings and any experience that has a formative effect on the way one thinks, feels, or acts may be considered educational. The methodology of teaching is called pedagogy.
What occurred after the Fall of Rome with literature?
572b7304f75d5e190021fdde
Catholic Church became the sole preserver
28
False
What happened with education  during the Early Middle Ages?
572b7304f75d5e190021fddf
church established cathedral schools
117
False
What did these early schools during the Middle Ages evolve into?
572b7304f75d5e190021fde0
medieval universities
266
False
What was the name of the famous school during the high middle ages?
572b7304f75d5e190021fde1
Chartres Cathedral School
427
False
Catholic Church became the sole preserver
28
What occurred before the Fall of Rome with literature?
5acd70dd07355d001abf425c
True
The church established cathedral schools
113
What happened with education during the Late Middle Ages?
5acd70dd07355d001abf425d
True
medieval universities
266
What did these early schools during the Middle Ages evolve from?
5acd70dd07355d001abf425e
True
Chartres Cathedral School
427
What was the name of the famous school during the low middle ages?
5acd70dd07355d001abf425f
True
University of Bologne
921
What was founded in 1089?
5acd70dd07355d001abf4260
True
After the Fall of Rome, the Catholic Church became the sole preserver of literate scholarship in Western Europe. The church established cathedral schools in the Early Middle Ages as centers of advanced education. Some of these establishments ultimately evolved into medieval universities and forebears of many of Europe's modern universities. During the High Middle Ages, Chartres Cathedral operated the famous and influential Chartres Cathedral School. The medieval universities of Western Christendom were well-integrated across all of Western Europe, encouraged freedom of inquiry, and produced a great variety of fine scholars and natural philosophers, including Thomas Aquinas of the University of Naples, Robert Grosseteste of the University of Oxford, an early expositor of a systematic method of scientific experimentation, and Saint Albert the Great, a pioneer of biological field research. Founded in 1088, the University of Bologne is considered the first, and the oldest continually operating university.
Where does formal education take place?
572b827ff75d5e190021fe12
school environment
140
False
What are some of the sets or ideals most school systems follow?
572b827ff75d5e190021fe13
student-teacher interactions, methods of assessment, class size,
496
False
Who guides the students in a formal environment?
572b827ff75d5e190021fe14
certified teacher
230
False
school environment
140
Where does informal education take place?
5acd72b107355d001abf42b6
True
teaching students
78
What is the implicit purpose of a structured environment?
5acd72b107355d001abf42b7
True
school
269
What system is not designed around values and ideals?
5acd72b107355d001abf42b8
True
certified teacher
230
What doesn't guide students in formal environments?
5acd72b107355d001abf42b9
True
certified teacher
230
Who guides the students in an informal environment?
5acd72b107355d001abf42ba
True
Formal education occurs in a structured environment whose explicit purpose is teaching students. Usually, formal education takes place in a school environment with classrooms of multiple students learning together with a trained, certified teacher of the subject. Most school systems are designed around a set of values or ideals that govern all educational choices in that system. Such choices include curriculum, organizational models, design of the physical learning spaces (e.g. classrooms), student-teacher interactions, methods of assessment, class size, educational activities, and more.
Whats the typical age range for pre-school?
572b83adbe1ee31400cb83f5
three to seven
53
False
What are pre-schools also known as?
572b83adbe1ee31400cb83f6
nursery schools and as kindergarten,
158
False
In what country is Kindergarten a term used for primary education?
572b83adbe1ee31400cb83f7
US
209
False
three to seven
53
Whats the atypical age range for pre-school?
5acd730d07355d001abf42d4
True
nursery schools
158
What are pre-schools not known as?
5acd730d07355d001abf42d5
True
US
209
In what country is kindergarten not a term used for primary education?
5acd730d07355d001abf42d6
True
three- to seven-year-old
355
What ages are not included in Kindergarten?
5acd730d07355d001abf42d7
True
physical, intellectual, and moral nature
426
What facets are not included in education?
5acd730d07355d001abf42d8
True
Preschools provide education from ages approximately three to seven, depending on the country, when children enter primary education. These are also known as nursery schools and as kindergarten, except in the US, where kindergarten is a term used for primary education.[citation needed] Kindergarten "provide[s] a child-centered, preschool curriculum for three- to seven-year-old children that aim[s] at unfolding the child's physical, intellectual, and moral nature with balanced emphasis on each of them."
What is another term used for Primary education?
572b858934ae481900deae63
elementary
12
False
What does primary school consist of?
572b858934ae481900deae64
first five to seven years of formal, structured education
50
False
What is the name of the orgination who is striving to get all the countries on the same path with primary education?
572b858934ae481900deae65
UNESCO
447
False
elementary
12
What is not another term used for Primary education?
5acd735607355d001abf42e8
True
Primary
0
What is not another term for elementary?
5acd735607355d001abf42e9
True
Primary
0
What education is the first 4 years of formal education?
5acd735607355d001abf42ea
True
most countries have committed to achieving universal enrollment
455
What happened in 2014?
5acd735607355d001abf42eb
True
division between primary and secondary education
594
What occurs at age 10?
5acd735607355d001abf42ec
True
Primary (or elementary) education consists of the first five to seven years of formal, structured education. In general, primary education consists of six to eight years of schooling starting at the age of five or six, although this varies between, and sometimes within, countries. Globally, around 89% of children aged six to twelve are enrolled in primary education, and this proportion is rising. Under the Education For All programs driven by UNESCO, most countries have committed to achieving universal enrollment in primary education by 2015, and in many countries, it is compulsory. The division between primary and secondary education is somewhat arbitrary, but it generally occurs at about eleven or twelve years of age. Some education systems have separate middle schools, with the transition to the final stage of secondary education taking place at around the age of fourteen. Schools that provide primary education, are mostly referred to as primary schools or elementary schools. Primary schools are often subdivided into infant schools and junior school.
What does secondary education comprise of?
572b8669111d821400f38eda
formal education that occurs during adolescence
89
False
What two examples were given of what "postsecondary" or "higher" education?
572b8669111d821400f38edb
university, vocational school
329
False
When does secondary schooling typically take place?
572b8669111d821400f38edc
teenage years
855
False
What is the purpose of secondary education?
572b8669111d821400f38edd
to prepare for higher education, or to train directly in a profession.
1106
False
In most contemporary educational systems of the world, secondary education comprises the formal education that occurs during adolescence. It is characterized by transition from the typically compulsory, comprehensive primary education for minors, to the optional, selective tertiary, "postsecondary", or "higher" education (e.g. university, vocational school) for adults. Depending on the system, schools for this period, or a part of it, may be called secondary or high schools, gymnasiums, lyceums, middle schools, colleges, or vocational schools. The exact meaning of any of these terms varies from one system to another. The exact boundary between primary and secondary education also varies from country to country and even within them, but is generally around the seventh to the tenth year of schooling. Secondary education occurs mainly during the teenage years. In the United States, Canada and Australia, primary and secondary education together are sometimes referred to as K-12 education, and in New Zealand Year 1–13 is used. The purpose of secondary education can be to give common knowledge, to prepare for higher education, or to train directly in a profession.
When did secondary education emerge in the United States?
572b86f8111d821400f38ee2
1910
62
False
Why was secondary school introduced in the U.S?
572b86f8111d821400f38ee3
rise of large corporations and advancing technology
77
False
Who benefited from secondary schools?
572b86f8111d821400f38ee4
employers and employees
403
False
Secondary education
0
What emerged in 1912?
5acd74fd07355d001abf4324
True
rise of large corporations
77
Why wasn't secondary school introduced in the U.S?
5acd74fd07355d001abf4325
True
employers and employees
403
Who didn't benefit from secondary schools?
5acd74fd07355d001abf4326
True
meet this new job demand
187
Why were high schools not created?
5acd74fd07355d001abf4327
True
Secondary education in the United States did not emerge until 1910, with the rise of large corporations and advancing technology in factories, which required skilled workers. In order to meet this new job demand, high schools were created, with a curriculum focused on practical job skills that would better prepare students for white collar or skilled blue collar work. This proved beneficial for both employers and employees, since the improved human capital lowered costs for the employer, while skilled employees received a higher wages.
What was another name used for Higher Education?
572b8770111d821400f38ee8
tertiary, third stage, or postsecondary education
30
False
What is High Education?
572b8770111d821400f38ee9
follows the completion of a school such as a high school
126
False
What does Tertiary education include?
572b8770111d821400f38eea
undergraduate and postgraduate education
252
False
tertiary
30
What is another name for the fourth stage of education?
5acd76a107355d001abf4368
True
tertiary
30
What is another name for the first stage of education?
5acd76a107355d001abf4369
True
tertiary
30
What is another name for the second stage of education?
5acd76a107355d001abf436a
True
undergraduate and postgraduate education
252
What does Tertiary education not include?
5acd76a107355d001abf436b
True
tertiary education
492
People do not receive certificates from what level of education?
5acd76a107355d001abf436c
True
Higher education, also called tertiary, third stage, or postsecondary education, is the non-compulsory educational level that follows the completion of a school such as a high school or secondary school. Tertiary education is normally taken to include undergraduate and postgraduate education, as well as vocational education and training. Colleges and universities mainly provide tertiary education. Collectively, these are sometimes known as tertiary institutions. Individuals who complete tertiary education generally receive certificates, diplomas, or academic degrees.
What does University education include?
572b883cf75d5e190021fe32
teaching, research, and social services activities,
30
False
What are usually Universities made up of?
572b883cf75d5e190021fe33
several colleges
297
False
What type of University would Yale fall under?
572b883cf75d5e190021fe34
independent
369
False
teaching, research, and social services activities
30
What does University education not include?
5acd76f907355d001abf437a
True
several colleges
297
What are usually Universities not made up of?
5acd76f907355d001abf437b
True
private and independent
357
What type of University is Yale not considered?
5acd76f907355d001abf437c
True
public and state-governed
403
What type of school is the Pennsylvania State System not considered?
5acd76f907355d001abf437d
True
career specific courses are now available to students through the Internet
562
What is not an alternative to in-school learning?
5acd76f907355d001abf437e
True
University education includes teaching, research, and social services activities, and it includes both the undergraduate level (sometimes referred to as tertiary education) and the graduate (or postgraduate) level (sometimes referred to as graduate school). Universities are generally composed of several colleges. In the United States, universities can be private and independent like Yale University; public and state-governed like the Pennsylvania State System of Higher Education; or independent but state-funded like the University of Virginia. A number of career specific courses are now available to students through the Internet.
What was a rule for disabled people in the past for education?
572b890d111d821400f38eee
not eligible for public education
48
False
Who denied children with disabilities to be unable to attend a public school?
572b890d111d821400f38eef
physicians or special tutors
149
False
Who were some of these early physicians?
572b890d111d821400f38ef0
Itard, Seguin, Howe, Gallaudet
215
False
What would Special Education usually only apply to in the early years of schooling in the U.S?
572b890d111d821400f38ef1
people with severe disabilities
420
False
not eligible for public education
48
What was a rule for non-disabled people in the past for education?
5acd775807355d001abf438e
True
physicians or special tutors
149
Who didn't deny children with disabilities to be unable to attend a public school?
5acd775807355d001abf438f
True
Itard, Seguin, Howe, Gallaudet
215
Who were some of these modern physicians?
5acd775807355d001abf4390
True
people with severe disabilities
420
Who does modern special education exclude?
5acd775807355d001abf4391
True
In the past, those who were disabled were often not eligible for public education. Children with disabilities were repeatedly denied an education by physicians or special tutors. These early physicians (people like Itard, Seguin, Howe, Gallaudet) set the foundation for special education today. They focused on individualized instruction and functional skills. In its early years, special education was only provided to people with severe disabilities, but more recently it has been opened to anyone who has experienced difficulty learning.
What is another term used for Special Education Services?
572b89eb111d821400f38ef6
alternative
18
False
When were public schools become more and more developed?
572b89eb111d821400f38ef7
19th century
166
False
What are some examples of alternative schools?
572b89eb111d821400f38ef8
Montessori schools, Waldorf schools (or Steiner schools), Friends schools
527
False
alternative
18
What is not another term used for Special Education Services?
5acd77a607355d001abf4396
True
Montessori schools, Waldorf schools (or Steiner schools), Friends schools
527
What aren't some examples of alternative schools?
5acd77a607355d001abf4398
True
alternative
772
A charter school is not considered what type of school?
5acd77a607355d001abf4399
True
Charter schools
733
What hasn't gained importance in public education?
5acd77a607355d001abf439a
True
While considered "alternative" today, most alternative systems have existed since ancient times. After the public school system was widely developed beginning in the 19th century, some parents found reasons to be discontented with the new system. Alternative education developed in part as a reaction to perceived limitations and failings of traditional education. A broad range of educational approaches emerged, including alternative schools, self learning, homeschooling and unschooling. Example alternative schools include Montessori schools, Waldorf schools (or Steiner schools), Friends schools, Sands School, Summerhill School, The Peepal Grove School, Sudbury Valley School, Krishnamurti schools, and open classroom schools. Charter schools are another example of alternative education, which have in the recent years grown in numbers in the US and gained greater importance in its public education system.
Whos educatgion approach was introduced in Germany in the 19th century and is used in most Kindergartens?
572b8b0334ae481900deae8d
Friedrich Fröbel's
116
False
Who from Switzerland was an influential in education?
572b8b0334ae481900deae8e
Johann Heinrich Pestalozzi
338
False
Who were the founders of progressive education?
572b8b0334ae481900deae8f
John Dewey and Francis Parker
504
False
early childhood education
147
What happened in Germany in the 18th century?
5acd77ff07355d001abf43aa
True
19th-century
176
When was Johann Heinrich Pestalozzi born?
5acd77ff07355d001abf43ab
True
19th-century
176
When did Johann Heinrich Pestalozzi die?
5acd77ff07355d001abf43ac
True
Amos Bronson Alcott, Ralph Waldo Emerson, and Henry David Thoreau
398
Who is not an American transcendentalist?
5acd77ff07355d001abf43ad
True
John Dewey and Francis Parker
504
Who was the founder of non-progressive education?
5acd77ff07355d001abf43ae
True
In time, some ideas from these experiments and paradigm challenges may be adopted as the norm in education, just as Friedrich Fröbel's approach to early childhood education in 19th-century Germany has been incorporated into contemporary kindergarten classrooms. Other influential writers and thinkers have included the Swiss humanitarian Johann Heinrich Pestalozzi; the American transcendentalists Amos Bronson Alcott, Ralph Waldo Emerson, and Henry David Thoreau; the founders of progressive education, John Dewey and Francis Parker; and educational pioneers such as Maria Montessori and Rudolf Steiner, and more recently John Caldwell Holt, Paul Goodman, Frederick Mayer, George Dennison and Ivan Illich.
What makes up Indigenous education?
572b8b8734ae481900deae93
indigenous knowledge, models, methods, and content
48
False
In which two systems can Indigenous education be used?
572b8b8734ae481900deae94
formal and non-formal educational systems
106
False
What is one of the main purposes for Indigenous education?
572b8b8734ae481900deae95
improve the educational success of indigenous students
485
False
indigenous knowledge, models, methods, and content
48
What does not make up Indigenous education?
5acd78ce07355d001abf43c6
True
formal and non-formal
106
What education is only a formal educational system?
5acd78ce07355d001abf43c7
True
improve the educational success of indigenous students
485
What is not a main purposes for Indigenous education?
5acd78ce07355d001abf43c8
True
reclaim and revalue their languages and cultures
418
What do indigenous communites not do in education?
5acd78ce07355d001abf43c9
True
Indigenous education refers to the inclusion of indigenous knowledge, models, methods, and content within formal and non-formal educational systems. Often in a post-colonial context, the growing recognition and use of indigenous education methods can be a response to the erosion and loss of indigenous knowledge and language through the processes of colonialism. Furthermore, it can enable indigenous communities to "reclaim and revalue their languages and cultures, and in so doing, improve the educational success of indigenous students."
Who defines informal learning?
572b8fb7be1ee31400cb843d
Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD)
67
False
Where does informal learning occur?
572b8fb7be1ee31400cb843e
home, work, and through daily interactions
190
False
What does informal leaning usually consist of amongst people who take this route of learning?
572b8fb7be1ee31400cb843f
language acquisition, cultural norms and manners
316
False
Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development
67
Who does not define informal learning?
5acd793507355d001abf43ce
True
home, work, and through daily interactions and shared relationships
190
Where does formal learning occur?
5acd793507355d001abf43cf
True
home, work, and through daily interactions
190
When doesn't informal learning occur?
5acd793507355d001abf43d0
True
language acquisition, cultural norms and manners
316
What does informal learning not teach?
5acd793507355d001abf43d1
True
out of school time, in youth programs at community centers and media labs
472
Where do young people not get informal education?
5acd793507355d001abf43d2
True
Informal learning is one of three forms of learning defined by the Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD). Informal learning occurs in a variety of places, such as at home, work, and through daily interactions and shared relationships among members of society. For many learners this includes language acquisition, cultural norms and manners. Informal learning for young people is an ongoing process that also occurs in a variety of places, such as out of school time, in youth programs at community centers and media labs.
Where does informal learning usually take place?
572b91db34ae481900deae99
outside educational establishments
38
False
What is not necessary for informal learning?
572b91db34ae481900deae9a
to be pedagogically conscious, systematic and according to subjects
266
False
What falls under the informal learning umbrella?
572b91db34ae481900deae9b
unconsciously incidental, holistically problem-related, and related to situation management
346
False
outside educational establishments
38
Where does informal learning not usually take place?
5acd798607355d001abf43d8
True
planned to be pedagogically conscious
258
What is necessary for informal learning?
5acd798607355d001abf43d9
True
unconsciously incidental, holistically problem-related
346
What falls under the formal learning umbrella?
5acd798607355d001abf43da
True
Informal learning
0
What is experienced directly in unnatural function of every day life?
5acd798607355d001abf43db
True
Informal learning
0
What is not a spontaneous type of learning?
5acd798607355d001abf43dc
True
Informal learning usually takes place outside educational establishments, does not follow a specified curriculum and may originate accidentally, sporadically, in association with certain occasions, from changing practical requirements. It is not necessarily planned to be pedagogically conscious, systematic and according to subjects, but rather unconsciously incidental, holistically problem-related, and related to situation management and fitness for life. It is experienced directly in its "natural" function of everyday life and is often spontaneous.
When was the 'education through recreation" applied to childhood?
572b92cb111d821400f38f2e
19th century
90
False
When was the concept of 'education through recreation' changed and expanded?
572b92cb111d821400f38f2f
20th century
117
False
What changed when the concept was broadened?
572b92cb111d821400f38f30
to include young adults
157
False
19th century
90
When was the 'education through recreation" applied to adulthood?
5acd79d907355d001abf43e2
True
education through recreation' was applied to childhood
16
What happened in the 18th century?
5acd79d907355d001abf43e3
True
include young adults but the emphasis was on physical activities
160
What happened in the 21st century?
5acd79d907355d001abf43e4
True
include young adults
160
What did not change when the concept was broadened?
5acd79d907355d001abf43e5
True
L.P. Jacks
226
Who said  "A master in the art of living draws very sharp distinction between his work and his play"
5acd79d907355d001abf43e6
True
The concept of 'education through recreation' was applied to childhood development in the 19th century. In the early 20th century, the concept was broadened to include young adults but the emphasis was on physical activities. L.P. Jacks, also an early proponent of lifelong learning, described education through recreation: "A master in the art of living draws no sharp distinction between his work and his play, his labour and his leisure, his mind and his body, his education and his recreation. He hardly knows which is which. He simply pursues his vision of excellence through whatever he is doing and leaves others to determine whether he is working or playing. To himself he always seems to be doing both. Enough for him that he does it well." Education through recreation is the opportunity to learn in a seamless fashion through all of life's activities. The concept has been revived by the University of Western Ontario to teach anatomy to medical students.
What does Auto didacticism generally mean?
572b9405be1ee31400cb844d
learning on your own
80
False
When can you become an Autodidact?
572b9405be1ee31400cb844e
any point in one's life
288
False
Which famous U.S president was a Autodidact?
572b9405be1ee31400cb844f
Abraham Lincoln
493
False
Which famous inventor was a Autodidact?
572b9405be1ee31400cb8450
Thomas Alva Edison
634
False
contemplative, absorbing process
42
What is a non-contemplative, absorbing process?
5acd7aae07355d001abf43f6
True
at nearly any point
278
When can you not become an Autodidact?
5acd7aae07355d001abf43f7
True
Abraham Lincoln
493
Which U.S president was not an Autodidact?
5acd7aae07355d001abf43f8
True
Thomas Alva Edison
634
Which famous inventor was not an Autodidact?
5acd7aae07355d001abf43f9
True
Leonardo da Vinci
786
What engineer was not an autodidact?
5acd7aae07355d001abf43fa
True
Autodidacticism (also autodidactism) is a contemplative, absorbing process, of "learning on your own" or "by yourself", or as a self-teacher. Some autodidacts spend a great deal of time reviewing the resources of libraries and educational websites. One may become an autodidact at nearly any point in one's life. While some may have been informed in a conventional manner in a particular field, they may choose to inform themselves in other, often unrelated areas. Notable autodidacts include Abraham Lincoln (U.S. president), Srinivasa Ramanujan (mathematician), Michael Faraday (chemist and physicist), Charles Darwin (naturalist), Thomas Alva Edison (inventor), Tadao Ando (architect), George Bernard Shaw (playwright), Frank Zappa (composer, recording engineer, film director), and Leonardo da Vinci (engineer, scientist, mathematician).
In what year did e-learning jump 14 times over traditional leaning?
572b951ef75d5e190021fe5c
2012
3
False
Which form of education looks to be the dominant form i the coming years?
572b951ef75d5e190021fe5d
Open education
164
False
What has been a constant issue with education for as long as education has been around itself?
572b951ef75d5e190021fe5e
Cost of education
322
False
Which type of schooling can be most expensive?
572b951ef75d5e190021fe5f
Online courses
431
False
the modern use of electronic educational technology (also called e-learning) had grown at 14 times the rate
9
What happened in 2011?
5acd7b1307355d001abf4412
True
electronic educational technology
27
What grew at 10 times the rate of traditional learning?
5acd7b1307355d001abf4413
True
Open education
164
What is slow to become the dominant form of education?
5acd7b1307355d001abf4414
True
nearly half said tuition for online courses was higher than for campus based ones
538
What did surveys show in 2008?
5acd7b1307355d001abf4415
True
Stanford, Princeton, Duke, Johns Hopkins, Edinburgh
820
What schools do not offer free education?
5acd7b1307355d001abf4416
True
In 2012, the modern use of electronic educational technology (also called e-learning) had grown at 14 times the rate of traditional learning.[clarification needed] Open education is fast growing to become the dominant form of education, for many reasons such as its efficiency and results compared to traditional methods. Cost of education has been an issue throughout history, and a major political issue in most countries today. Online courses often can be more expensive than face-to-face classes. Out of 182 colleges surveyed in 2009 nearly half said tuition for online courses was higher than for campus based ones. Many large university institutions are now starting to offer free or almost free full courses such as Harvard, MIT and Berkeley teaming up to form edX. Other universities offering open education are Stanford, Princeton, Duke, Johns Hopkins, Edinburgh, U. Penn, U. Michigan, U. Virginia, U. Washington, and Caltech. It has been called the biggest change in the way we learn since the printing press. Despite favorable studies on effectiveness, many people may still desire to choose traditional campus education for social and cultural reasons.
What is not as common in open education?
572b976634ae481900deaeaf
merit-system degree
17
False
Which University offers conventional degrees?
572b976634ae481900deaeb0
Open University in the United Kingdom
197
False
What do most open education sources offer?
572b976634ae481900deaeb1
own form of certificate
300
False
merit-system degree
17
What is common in open education?
5acd7b9807355d001abf4426
True
Open University in the United Kingdom.
197
Which University do not offer conventional degrees?
5acd7b9807355d001abf4427
True
own form of certificate
300
What do open education sources never offer?
5acd7b9807355d001abf4428
True
academic certificates
384
What do not have equal academic value?
5acd7b9807355d001abf4429
True
culture
619
What is no longer forming around distance learning?
5acd7b9807355d001abf442a
True
The conventional merit-system degree is currently not as common in open education as it is in campus universities, although some open universities do already offer conventional degrees such as the Open University in the United Kingdom. Presently, many of the major open education sources offer their own form of certificate. Due to the popularity of open education, these new kind of academic certificates are gaining more respect and equal "academic value" to traditional degrees. Many open universities are working to have the ability to offer students standardized testing and traditional degrees and credentials. A culture is beginning to form around distance learning for people who are looking to social connections enjoyed on traditional campuses. For example, students may create study groups, meetups and movements such as UnCollege.
What does Universal Primary Education belong to?
572ba77b34ae481900deaec7
international Millennium Development Goals
48
False
What is one issue that hurts Universal Primary Education?
572ba77b34ae481900deaec8
charitable funding
188
False
Which organization has discovered corruption in the educator sector?
572ba77b34ae481900deaec9
Transparency International
518
False
international Millennium Development Goals
48
What does Universal Primary Education not belong to?
5acd7bf407355d001abf4430
True
charitable funding
188
What is one issue that helps Universal Primary Education?
5acd7bf407355d001abf4431
True
Transparency International
518
Which organization has not had corruption in the educator sector?
5acd7bf407355d001abf4432
True
developing world
701
What parents do not give pressure to their children for schooling?
5acd7bf407355d001abf4433
True
children
938
Who should earn money in the long term instead of short term?
5acd7bf407355d001abf4434
True
Universal Primary Education is one of the eight international Millennium Development Goals, towards which progress has been made in the past decade, though barriers still remain. Securing charitable funding from prospective donors is one particularly persistent problem. Researchers at the Overseas Development Institute have indicated that the main obstacles to funding for education include conflicting donor priorities, an immature aid architecture, and a lack of evidence and advocacy for the issue. Additionally, Transparency International has identified corruption in the education sector as a major stumbling block to achieving Universal Primary Education in Africa. Furthermore, demand in the developing world for improved educational access is not as high as foreigners have expected. Indigenous governments are reluctant to take on the ongoing costs involved. There is also economic pressure from some parents, who prefer their children to earn money in the short term rather than work towards the long-term benefits of education.[citation needed]
What has come from similarities in systems?
572ba81cf75d5e190021fe78
increase in international student exchanges
95
False
Which programfacilitates the exchange students across Europe?
572ba81cf75d5e190021fe79
The European Socrates-Erasmus Program
140
False
Which group provides opportunities for Eastern Europe and Asia exchange students?
572ba81cf75d5e190021fe7a
The Soros Foundation
230
False
increase in international student exchanges
95
What has come from differences in systems?
5acd7fff07355d001abf448a
True
European Socrates-Erasmus Program
144
Which program facilitates the exchange students across Asia?
5acd7fff07355d001abf448b
True
The Soros Foundation
230
Which group provides opportunities for Northern Europe exchange students?
5acd7fff07355d001abf448c
True
American
471
What country does not lead global campuses online?
5acd7fff07355d001abf448d
True
Similarities — in systems or even in ideas — that schools share internationally have led to an increase in international student exchanges. The European Socrates-Erasmus Program facilitates exchanges across European universities. The Soros Foundation provides many opportunities for students from central Asia and eastern Europe. Programs such as the International Baccalaureate have contributed to the internationalization of education. The global campus online, led by American universities, allows free access to class materials and lecture files recorded during the actual classes.
What does LCPS stand for?
572ba8ea111d821400f38f3e
low cost private schools
20
False
What was the reason for the polarisation for affordable schooling?
572ba8ea111d821400f38f3f
disputes around whether the schools are affordable for the poor
248
False
Where are these types of school spreading across?
572ba8ea111d821400f38f40
Africa and Asia
594
False
low cost private schools
20
What does LCPS not stand for?
5acd809c07355d001abf449a
True
disputes around whether the schools are affordable for the poor
248
What was the reason for the polarisation for non-affordable schooling?
5acd809c07355d001abf449b
True
Africa and Asia
594
Where are these types of school not spreading across?
5acd809c07355d001abf449c
True
excess demand
641
What is the failure attributed to?
5acd809c07355d001abf449d
True
low cost private schools
20
What did not reach disadvantaged groups?
5acd809c07355d001abf449e
True
Research into LCPS (low cost private schools) found that over 5 years to July 2013, debate around LCPSs to achieving Education for All (EFA) objectives was polarised and finding growing coverage in international policy. The polarisation was due to disputes around whether the schools are affordable for the poor, reach disadvantaged groups, provide quality education, support or undermine equality, and are financially sustainable. The report examined the main challenges encountered by development organisations which support LCPSs. Surveys suggest these types of schools are expanding across Africa and Asia. This success is attributed to excess demand. These surveys found concern for:
What are some of the claims being pointed towards education inequality?
572bb59abe1ee31400cb8489
children did not exceed the education of their parents
54
False
Who do students often blame for their education short comings?
572bb59abe1ee31400cb848a
teachers and their textbooks
350
False
What happens when someone tries to improve education?
572bb59abe1ee31400cb848b
the educational establishment itself occasionally showers the person with criticism rather than gratitude
477
False
children did not exceed the education of their parents
54
What are some of the claims being pointed towards education equality?
5acd810107355d001abf44ae
True
teachers and their textbooks
350
Who do students never blame for their education short comings?
5acd810107355d001abf44af
True
criticism rather than gratitude
551
What happens when someone doesn't try to improve education?
5acd810107355d001abf44b0
True
critical thinking
188
What is not a goal of education?
5acd810107355d001abf44b1
True
criticism and blame
230
What are the intended products of our current educational process?
5acd810107355d001abf44b2
True
Some claim that there is education inequality because children did not exceed the education of their parents. This education inequality is then associated with income inequality. Although critical thinking is a goal of education, criticism and blame are often the unintended by products of our current educational process. Students often blame their teachers and their textbooks, despite the availability of libraries and the internet. When someone tries to improve education, the educational establishment itself occasionally showers the person with criticism rather than gratitude. Better by products of an educational system would be gratitude and determination.
What is the discrepancy between Developed and less developed countries?
572bb6a7f75d5e190021feae
Developed countries have people with more resources
0
False
What resources do developed countries have better access to?
572bb6a7f75d5e190021feaf
housing, food, transportation
53
False
What is common in developed countries?
572bb6a7f75d5e190021feb0
criticism and blame
431
False
more resources
37
What is not a discrepancy between Developed and less developed countries?
5acd814a07355d001abf44b8
True
housing, food, transportation
53
What is not an example of a resource?
5acd814a07355d001abf44b9
True
housing, food, transportation
53
What resources do undeveloped countries have better access to?
5acd814a07355d001abf44ba
True
criticism and blame
431
What is common in undeveloped countries?
5acd814a07355d001abf44bb
True
travel or the media
270
How can people see developed countries?
5acd814a07355d001abf44bc
True
Developed countries have people with more resources (housing, food, transportation, water and sewage treatment, hospitals, health care, libraries, books, media, schools, the internet, education, etc.) than most of the world's population. One merely needs to see through travel or the media how many people in the undeveloped countries live to sense this. However, one can also use economic data to gain some insight into this. Yet criticism and blame are common among people in the developed countries.
What is one good trait about students from developed countries?
572bb84df75d5e190021feb4
have the will and the way to do many things
366
False
What use of technology can greatly supplement how teachers teach in the classroom?
572bb84df75d5e190021feb5
internet
691
False
What do students also need occasionally before putting blame on teachers?
572bb84df75d5e190021feb6
gratitude for the resources they have
595
False
have the will and the way to do many things
366
What is one good trait about students from undeveloped countries?
5acd81be07355d001abf44cc
True
internet
691
What use of technology does not supplement how teachers teach in the classroom?
5acd81be07355d001abf44cd
True
gratitude for the resources
595
What do students also need occasionally after putting blame on teachers?
5acd81be07355d001abf44ce
True
teachers and textbooks
738
The internet cannot supplement what resources in school?
5acd81be07355d001abf44cf
True
Gratitude for all these resources and the determination to develop oneself would be more productive than criticism and blame because the resources are readily available and because, if you blame others, there is no need for you to do something different tomorrow or for you to change and improve. Where there is a will, there is a way. People in developed countries have the will and the way to do many things that they want to do. They sometimes need more determination and will to improve and to educate themselves with the resources that are abundantly available. They occasionally need more gratitude for the resources they have, including their teachers and their textbooks. The entire internet is also available to supplement these teachers and textbooks.
What is the meaning of Education psychology?
572bba49111d821400f38f5a
the study of how humans learn in educational settings
26
False
What is also used interchangeably  with Education psychology?
572bba49111d821400f38f5b
school psychology
261
False
Who are likely to be identified as educational psychologist?
572bba49111d821400f38f5c
researchers and theorists
312
False
What is educational psychology concerned with?
572bba49111d821400f38f5d
the processes of educational attainment
537
False
Educational psychology
0
What is the study of how humans do not learn?
5acd822707355d001abf44de
True
school psychology
261
What term is not used interchangeably with the term education psychology?
5acd822707355d001abf44df
True
researchers and theorists
312
What are not identified as educational psychologist?
5acd822707355d001abf44e0
True
processes of educational attainment
541
What does educational psychology not study?
5acd822707355d001abf44e1
True
gifted children
634
What is not a sub-population?
5acd822707355d001abf44e2
True
Educational psychology is the study of how humans learn in educational settings, the effectiveness of educational interventions, the psychology of teaching, and the social psychology of schools as organizations. Although the terms "educational psychology" and "school psychology" are often used interchangeably, researchers and theorists are likely to be identified as educational psychologists, whereas practitioners in schools or school-related settings are identified as school psychologists. Educational psychology is concerned with the processes of educational attainment in the general population and in sub-populations such as gifted children and those with specific disabilities.
How can Educational psychology in part be understood?
572bbc0a111d821400f38f68
through its relationship with other disciplines
49
False
How is the method of educational psychology have some relation to medicine and biology?
572bbc0a111d821400f38f69
discipline analogous
169
False
Where does education psychology draw from?
572bbc0a111d821400f38f6a
contributes to cognitive science and the learning sciences
527
False
In universities where are the departments of educational psychology normally held?
572bbc0a111d821400f38f6b
faculties of education
668
False
through its relationship with other disciplines
49
How does educational psychology go misunderstood?
5acd82cd07355d001abf44e8
True
cognitive science and the learning sciences
542
Where does education psychology not get inspiration from?
5acd82cd07355d001abf44e9
True
faculties of education
668
where are the departments of educational psychology never held?
5acd82cd07355d001abf44ea
True
instructional design
345
What is not an example of a specialty within educational studies?
5acd82cd07355d001abf44eb
True
Educational psychology can in part be understood through its relationship with other disciplines. It is informed primarily by psychology, bearing a relationship to that discipline analogous to the relationship between medicine and biology. Educational psychology in turn informs a wide range of specialties within educational studies, including instructional design, educational technology, curriculum development, organizational learning, special education and classroom management. Educational psychology both draws from and contributes to cognitive science and the learning sciences. In universities, departments of educational psychology are usually housed within faculties of education, possibly accounting for the lack of representation of educational psychology content in introductory psychology textbooks (Lucas, Blazek, & Raley, 2006).
What is important for a student in education?
572bbcad34ae481900deaef1
Intelligence
0
False
What does education increase in a student?
572bbcad34ae481900deaef2
measurable intelligence
276
False
What is intelligence at 53 more closely related to?
572bbcad34ae481900deaef3
intelligence at 8
458
False
Intelligence
0
What is not important for a student in education?
5acd832407355d001abf4502
True
measurable intelligence
276
What does education decrease in a student?
5acd832407355d001abf4503
True
intelligence at 8 years old
458
What is intelligence at 53 less related to?
5acd832407355d001abf4504
True
higher levels of education
162
What level of education do those who do not perform well at school go to?
5acd832407355d001abf4505
True
Intelligence is an important factor in how the individual responds to education. Those who have higher intelligence tend to perform better at school and go on to higher levels of education. This effect is also observable in the opposite direction, in that education increases measurable intelligence. Studies have shown that while educational attainment is important in predicting intelligence in later life, intelligence at 53 is more closely correlated to intelligence at 8 years old than to educational attainment.
Who focused on identifying stimuli that can influence learning?
572bbdc7f75d5e190021feba
Dunn
0
False
Who also along with Dunn recommended other teaching studies?
572bbdc7f75d5e190021febb
Joseph Renzulli
149
False
Who created the Type Delineator?
572bbdc7f75d5e190021febc
David Kolb and Anthony Gregorc's
589
False
Dunn and Dunn
0
Who discredited identifying stimuli that can influence learning?
5acd839007355d001abf450a
True
Joseph Renzulli
149
Who also along with Dunn discouraged other teaching studies?
5acd839007355d001abf450b
True
David Kolb and Anthony Gregorc's
589
Who disagreed with the Type Delineator?
5acd839007355d001abf450c
True
the works of Jung
372
Whose work was the Keirsey Temperament Sorter not based on?
5acd839007355d001abf450d
True
Joseph Renzulli
149
Who did not recommend varying strategies?
5acd839007355d001abf450e
True
Dunn and Dunn focused on identifying relevant stimuli that may influence learning and manipulating the school environment, at about the same time as Joseph Renzulli recommended varying teaching strategies. Howard Gardner identified a wide range of modalities in his Multiple Intelligences theories. The Myers-Briggs Type Indicator and Keirsey Temperament Sorter, based on the works of Jung, focus on understanding how people's personality affects the way they interact personally, and how this affects the way individuals respond to each other within the learning environment. The work of David Kolb and Anthony Gregorc's Type Delineator follows a similar but more simplified approach.
What do some theories believe?
572bbe72be1ee31400cb848f
that all individuals benefit from a variety of learning modalities
22
False
What should be included in effective teaching?
572bbe72be1ee31400cb8490
teaching methods which cover all three learning modalities
318
False
individuals benefit from a variety of learning modalities
31
What do some theories disagree with?
5acd83ef07355d001abf451e
True
all three learning modalities
347
What should not be included in effective teaching?
5acd83ef07355d001abf451f
True
Guy Claxton
475
Who believes learning styles are helpful?
5acd83ef07355d001abf4520
True
Guy Claxton
475
Who prefers to label children by learning style?
5acd83ef07355d001abf4521
True
label children
637
Visual, Auditory, and Kinesthetic are helpful to do what?
5acd83ef07355d001abf4522
True
Some theories propose that all individuals benefit from a variety of learning modalities, while others suggest that individuals may have preferred learning styles, learning more easily through visual or kinesthetic experiences. A consequence of the latter theory is that effective teaching should present a variety of teaching methods which cover all three learning modalities so that different students have equal opportunities to learn in a way that is effective for them. Guy Claxton has questioned the extent that learning styles such as Visual, Auditory and Kinesthetic(VAK) are helpful, particularly as they can have a tendency to label children and therefore restrict learning. Recent research has argued "there is no adequate evidence base to justify incorporating learning styles assessments into general educational practice."
What can Philosophy education be when we talk about the process?
572bc0c3111d821400f38f70
philosophy of the process of education or the philosophy of the discipline of education
240
False
What defines Philosophy education?
572bc0c3111d821400f38f71
the philosophical study of education and its problems
50
False
What fields make up field education and a field applied philosophy?
572bc0c3111d821400f38f72
metaphysics, epistemology, axiology and the philosophical approaches
720
False
philosophical study of education and its problems
54
What does not define philosophy education?
5acd849d07355d001abf4532
True
metaphysics, epistemology, axiology and the philosophical approaches
720
What fields do not make up field education?
5acd849d07355d001abf4533
True
applied philosophy
677
What does not draw from fields of metaphysics?
5acd849d07355d001abf4534
True
values and norms
1038
What study does not constitute as upbringing and education?
5acd849d07355d001abf4535
True
As an academic field, philosophy of education is "the philosophical study of education and its problems (...) its central subject matter is education, and its methods are those of philosophy". "The philosophy of education may be either the philosophy of the process of education or the philosophy of the discipline of education. That is, it may be part of the discipline in the sense of being concerned with the aims, forms, methods, or results of the process of educating or being educated; or it may be metadisciplinary in the sense of being concerned with the concepts, aims, and methods of the discipline." As such, it is both part of the field of education and a field of applied philosophy, drawing from fields of metaphysics, epistemology, axiology and the philosophical approaches (speculative, prescriptive, and/or analytic) to address questions in and about pedagogy, education policy, and curriculum, as well as the process of learning, to name a few. For example, it might study what constitutes upbringing and education, the values and norms revealed through upbringing and educational practices, the limits and legitimization of education as an academic discipline, and the relation between education theory and practice.
What is another term used for instructors?
572bc15c34ae481900deaef7
teachers
122
False
What are the main subjects that are covered by the instructor?
572bc15c34ae481900deaef8
reading, writing, mathematics, science and history
211
False
In the United States what is considered the single most important factor in a child's education?
572bc15c34ae481900deaef9
quality of teachers
503
False
teachers
122
What is the opposite term used for instructors?
5acd84fe07355d001abf4544
True
reading, writing, mathematics, science and history
211
What are not main subjects covered by teachers?
5acd84fe07355d001abf4545
True
quality of teachers
503
what is considered the least important factor in a child's education?
5acd84fe07355d001abf4546
True
student evaluations of teachers
912
What is an unpopular way to gauge teaching performance?
5acd84fe07355d001abf4547
True
No Child Left Behind
800
Teachers don't have to be qualified because of what movement in the US?
5acd84fe07355d001abf4548
True
Instruction is the facilitation of another's learning. Instructors in primary and secondary institutions are often called teachers, and they direct the education of students and might draw on many subjects like reading, writing, mathematics, science and history. Instructors in post-secondary institutions might be called teachers, instructors, or professors, depending on the type of institution; and they primarily teach only their specific discipline. Studies from the United States suggest that the quality of teachers is the single most important factor affecting student performance, and that countries which score highly on international tests have multiple policies in place to ensure that the teachers they employ are as effective as possible. With the passing of NCLB in the United States (No Child Left Behind), teachers must be highly qualified. A popular way to gauge teaching performance is to use student evaluations of teachers (SETS), but these evaluations have been criticized for being counterproductive to learning and inaccurate due to student bias.
What is the theory behind Empirical analyses?
572bc28a111d821400f38f76
poor countries should grow faster than rich countries
197
False
What has been argued about high rates in education?
572bc28a111d821400f38f77
essential for countries to be able to achieve high levels of economic growth
52
False
What is greatly needed with technology transfer when it relates to education?
572bc28a111d821400f38f78
requires knowledgeable managers and engineers
373
False
poor countries should grow faster than rich countries
197
What is the theory not behind Empirical analyses?
5acd857607355d001abf4560
True
poor countries
197
What countries grow slower than rich countries?
5acd857607355d001abf4561
True
cutting edge technologies already tried and tested by rich countries
274
Why don't poor countries go quickly?
5acd857607355d001abf4562
True
knowledgeable managers and engineers
382
What is never needed with technology transfer?
5acd857607355d001abf4563
True
It has been argued that high rates of education are essential for countries to be able to achieve high levels of economic growth. Empirical analyses tend to support the theoretical prediction that poor countries should grow faster than rich countries because they can adopt cutting edge technologies already tried and tested by rich countries. However, technology transfer requires knowledgeable managers and engineers who are able to operate new machines or production practices borrowed from the leader in order to close the gap through imitation. Therefore, a country's ability to learn from the leader is a function of its stock of "human capital". Recent study of the determinants of aggregate economic growth have stressed the importance of fundamental economic institutions and the role of cognitive skills.
Literature on how earnings and how it relates to schooling was greatly influenced by who?
572bc3cf111d821400f38f7c
Jacob Mincer
94
False
This view of how schooling and earnings has sparked a lot of studies, but what else has it brought up?
572bc3cf111d821400f38f7d
is also controversial
233
False
What was one of the main concerns of this literature on how schooling and earnings?
572bc3cf111d821400f38f7e
not achieve their full academic potential, due to financial difficulties
451
False
Jacob Mincer
94
Who did not influence earnings related to school?
5acd85d807355d001abf4572
True
how earnings are related to the schooling and other human capital
111
What view is not controversial?
5acd85d807355d001abf4573
True
financial difficulties
501
Why do some kids achieve their full academic potential easily?
5acd85d807355d001abf4574
True
achieve their full academic potential
455
Students who face financial difficulties might also do what?
5acd85d807355d001abf4575
True
At the level of the individual, there is a large literature, generally related to the work of Jacob Mincer, on how earnings are related to the schooling and other human capital. This work has motivated a large number of studies, but is also controversial. The chief controversies revolve around how to interpret the impact of schooling. Some students who have indicated a high potential for learning, by testing with a high intelligence quotient, may not achieve their full academic potential, due to financial difficulties.[citation needed]
a new age of scientific and intellectual inquiry
37
What did the Renaissance in Asia usher in?
5acd71d807355d001abf428e
True
Johannes Gutenberg developed a printing press
158
What happened in 1460?
5acd71d807355d001abf428f
True
Johannes Gutenberg
158
Who did not develop the printing press?
5acd71d807355d001abf4290
True
philosophy, religion, arts and sciences
326
What education did not spread across the globe?
5acd71d807355d001abf4291
True
Missionaries and scholars
395
Who delivered new ideas to other civilizations?
5acd71d807355d001abf4292
True
The Renaissance in Europe ushered in a new age of scientific and intellectual inquiry and appreciation of ancient Greek and Roman civilizations. Around 1450, Johannes Gutenberg developed a printing press, which allowed works of literature to spread more quickly. The European Age of Empires saw European ideas of education in philosophy, religion, arts and sciences spread out across the globe. Missionaries and scholars also brought back new ideas from other civilisations — as with the Jesuit China missions who played a significant role in the transmission of knowledge, science, and culture between China and Europe, translating works from Europe like Euclid's Elements for Chinese scholars and the thoughts of Confucius for European audiences. The Enlightenment saw the emergence of a more secular educational outlook in Europe.
Tennessee
Which state borders Tennessee to the east?
572bcfb734ae481900deaf0b
North Carolina
245
False
Which mountains occupy much of eastern Tennessee?
572bcfb734ae481900deaf0c
Appalachian Mountains
364
False
Which river marks Tennessee's border to the west?
572bcfb734ae481900deaf0d
Mississippi River
434
False
What is the capital of Tennessee?
572bcfb734ae481900deaf0e
Nashville
533
False
What is Tennessee's most populous city?
572bcfb734ae481900deaf0f
Memphis
579
False
Tennessee (i/tɛnᵻˈsiː/) (Cherokee: ᏔᎾᏏ, Tanasi) is a state located in the southeastern United States. Tennessee is the 36th largest and the 17th most populous of the 50 United States. Tennessee is bordered by Kentucky and Virginia to the north, North Carolina to the east, Georgia, Alabama, and Mississippi to the south, and Arkansas and Missouri to the west. The Appalachian Mountains dominate the eastern part of the state, and the Mississippi River forms the state's western border. Tennessee's capital and second largest city is Nashville, which has a population of 601,222. Memphis is the state's largest city, with a population of 653,450.
What government formed in 1772 is considered the forerunner of Tennessee?
572bd14c34ae481900deaf15
Watauga Association
40
False
What state held territory that would later become part of Tennessee?
572bd14c34ae481900deaf16
North Carolina
210
False
What date did Tennessee become one of the United States of America?
572bd14c34ae481900deaf17
June 1, 1796
326
False
Which was the final state to join the Confederacy before Civil War fighting started?
572bd14c34ae481900deaf18
Tennessee
340
False
Which of the Confederate states rejoined the Union first when the Civil War concluded?
572bd14c34ae481900deaf19
Tennessee
340
False
The state of Tennessee is rooted in the Watauga Association, a 1772 frontier pact generally regarded as the first constitutional government west of the Appalachians. What is now Tennessee was initially part of North Carolina, and later part of the Southwest Territory. Tennessee was admitted to the Union as the 16th state on June 1, 1796. Tennessee was the last state to leave the Union and join the Confederacy at the outbreak of the U.S. Civil War in 1861. Occupied by Union forces from 1862, it was the first state to be readmitted to the Union at the end of the war.
Which part dominated Tennessee's politics in the late 1880s?
572bd34d750c471900ed4c16
Democratic
223
False
Which Tennessee city was received significant federal investment in the 1940s?
572bd34d750c471900ed4c17
Oak Ridge
704
False
What part of the Manhattan Project did Tennessee host?
572bd34d750c471900ed4c18
uranium enrichment facilities
774
False
What made Tennessee politics more competitive again in the middle of the 20th century?
572bd34d750c471900ed4c19
civil rights legislation
447
False
Tennessee furnished more soldiers for the Confederate Army than any other state, and more soldiers for the Union Army than any other Southern state. Beginning during Reconstruction, it had competitive party politics, but a Democratic takeover in the late 1880s resulted in passage of disfranchisement laws that excluded most blacks and many poor whites from voting. This sharply reduced competition in politics in the state until after passage of civil rights legislation in the mid-20th century. In the 20th century, Tennessee transitioned from an agrarian economy to a more diversified economy, aided by massive federal investment in the Tennessee Valley Authority and, in the early 1940s, the city of Oak Ridge. This city was established to house the Manhattan Project's uranium enrichment facilities, helping to build the world's first atomic bomb, which was used during World War II.
What locale in Memphis is know as the place where blues was born?
572bd4c0750c471900ed4c1e
Beale Street
176
False
What Tennessee recording company first promoted Elvis Presley?
572bd4c0750c471900ed4c1f
Sun Records
379
False
Which Tennessee city is home to the Country Music Hall of Fame?
572bd4c0750c471900ed4c20
Nashville
1034
False
Which museum celebrating popular music is located in Jackson, Tennessee?
572bd4c0750c471900ed4c21
International Rock-A-Billy Museum
1053
False
In which year is W.C. Handy first known to have been playing in Tennessee clubs?
572bd4c0750c471900ed4c22
1909
327
False
Tennessee has played a critical role in the development of many forms of American popular music, including rock and roll, blues, country, and rockabilly.[not verified in body] Beale Street in Memphis is considered by many to be the birthplace of the blues, with musicians such as W.C. Handy performing in its clubs as early as 1909.[not verified in body] Memphis is also home to Sun Records, where musicians such as Elvis Presley, Johnny Cash, Carl Perkins, Jerry Lee Lewis, Roy Orbison, and Charlie Rich began their recording careers, and where rock and roll took shape in the 1950s.[not verified in body] The 1927 Victor recording sessions in Bristol generally mark the beginning of the country music genre and the rise of the Grand Ole Opry in the 1930s helped make Nashville the center of the country music recording industry.[not verified in body] Three brick-and-mortar museums recognize Tennessee's role in nurturing various forms of popular music: the Memphis Rock N' Soul Museum, the Country Music Hall of Fame and Museum in Nashville, and the International Rock-A-Billy Museum in Jackson. Moreover, the Rockabilly Hall of Fame, an online site recognizing the development of rockabilly in which Tennessee played a crucial role, is based in Nashville.[not verified in body]
What is Tennessee's primary non-meat agricultural product?
572bd5c1dfb02c14005c6ad5
soybeans
87
False
Which national park in Tennessee sees more visitors that any other in the United States?
572bd5c1dfb02c14005c6ad6
Great Smoky Mountains National Park
262
False
What trail forms part of the border Tennessee shares with North Carolina?
572bd5c1dfb02c14005c6ad7
Appalachian Trail
412
False
Which Tennessee city hosts the state's most famous aquarium?
572bd5c1dfb02c14005c6ad8
Chattanooga
549
False
What tourist attraction is located in Pigeon Forge, Tennessee?
572bd5c1dfb02c14005c6ad9
Dollywood
562
False
Tennessee's major industries include agriculture, manufacturing, and tourism. Poultry, soybeans, and cattle are the state's primary agricultural products, and major manufacturing exports include chemicals, transportation equipment, and electrical equipment. The Great Smoky Mountains National Park, the nation's most visited national park, is headquartered in the eastern part of the state, and a section of the Appalachian Trail roughly follows the Tennessee-North Carolina border. Other major tourist attractions include the Tennessee Aquarium in Chattanooga; Dollywood in Pigeon Forge; the Parthenon, the Country Music Hall of Fame and Museum, and Ryman Auditorium in Nashville; the Jack Daniel's Distillery in Lynchburg; and Elvis Presley's Graceland residence and tomb, the Memphis Zoo, and the National Civil Rights Museum in Memphis.
Who first recorded a territorial name in the region that resembles its current name Tennessee?
572bd7e52babe914003c2956
Captain Juan Pardo
71
False
Which Native Americans had a town called Tanasi in present day Monroe County, Tennessee?
572bd7e52babe914003c2957
Cherokee
301
False
Tanasi is know to have been located and mapped by British traders by which year?
572bd7e52babe914003c2958
1725
507
False
What nationality was Juan Pardo?
572bd7e52babe914003c2959
Spanish
95
False
The earliest variant of the name that became Tennessee was recorded by Captain Juan Pardo, the Spanish explorer, when he and his men passed through an American Indian village named "Tanasqui" in 1567 while traveling inland from South Carolina. In the early 18th century, British traders encountered a Cherokee town named Tanasi (or "Tanase") in present-day Monroe County, Tennessee. The town was located on a river of the same name (now known as the Little Tennessee River), and appears on maps as early as 1725. It is not known whether this was the same town as the one encountered by Juan Pardo, although recent research suggests that Pardo's "Tanasqui" was located at the confluence of the Pigeon River and the French Broad River, near modern Newport.
Which governor is given credit for the name Tennessee as it is now spelled?
572bd9a9dfb02c14005c6adf
James Glen
49
False
Which work by Henry Timberlake made the current spelling of Tennessee widely popular?
572bd9a9dfb02c14005c6ae0
Draught of the Cherokee Country
236
False
Which state created a county called Tennessee in 1788?
572bd9a9dfb02c14005c6ae1
North Carolina
287
False
Which two Tennessee counties cover the area that comprised North Carolina's Tennessee County?
572bd9a9dfb02c14005c6ae2
Montgomery County and Robertson County
451
False
In which year did a constitutional convention meet to form a new state out of the unincorporated territory that would become Tennessee?
572bd9a9dfb02c14005c6ae3
1796
532
False
The modern spelling, Tennessee, is attributed to James Glen, the governor of South Carolina, who used this spelling in his official correspondence during the 1750s. The spelling was popularized by the publication of Henry Timberlake's "Draught of the Cherokee Country" in 1765. In 1788, North Carolina created "Tennessee County", the third county to be established in what is now Middle Tennessee. (Tennessee County was the predecessor to current-day Montgomery County and Robertson County.) When a constitutional convention met in 1796 to organize a new state out of the Southwest Territory, it adopted "Tennessee" as the name of the state.
By what nickname is Tennessee officially known?
572bdafedfb02c14005c6ae9
Volunteer State
27
False
Which major conflict that included the Battle of New Orleans is said to have given Tennessee its nickname?
572bdafedfb02c14005c6aea
War of 1812
91
False
What conflict overseen by President Polk might be the source of Tennessee's nickname?
572bdafedfb02c14005c6aeb
Mexican–American War
359
False
How many volunteers did Tennessee send to the Mexican-American War?
572bdafedfb02c14005c6aec
30,000
533
False
Which local icon's death inspired many of the Tennessee volunteers during the Mexican-American War?
572bdafedfb02c14005c6aed
Davy Crockett
609
False
Tennessee is known as the "Volunteer State", a nickname some claimed was earned during the War of 1812 because of the prominent role played by volunteer soldiers from Tennessee, especially during the Battle of New Orleans. Other sources differ on the origin of the state nickname; according to the Columbia Encyclopedia, the name refers to volunteers for the Mexican–American War. This explanation is more likely, because President Polk's call for 2,600 nationwide volunteers at the beginning of the Mexican-American War resulted in 30,000 volunteers from Tennessee alone, largely in response to the death of Davy Crockett and appeals by former Tennessee Governor and now Texas politician, Sam Houston.
What is the elevation of Tennessee's highest point?
572bdc34f182dd1900d7c790
6,643 feet
52
False
What mountain in Tennessee is the Appalachian Trail's highest point?
572bdc34f182dd1900d7c791
Clingmans Dome
34
False
What river is situated on Tennessee point of lowest elevation?
572bdc34f182dd1900d7c792
Mississippi River
365
False
Which city marks the geographical center of Tennessee?
572bdc34f182dd1900d7c793
Murfreesboro
524
False
The highest point in the state is Clingmans Dome at 6,643 feet (2,025 m). Clingmans Dome, which lies on Tennessee's eastern border, is the highest point on the Appalachian Trail, and is the third highest peak in the United States east of the Mississippi River. The state line between Tennessee and North Carolina crosses the summit. The state's lowest point is the Mississippi River at the Mississippi state line (the lowest point in Memphis, nearby, is at 195 ft (59 m)). The geographical center of the state is located in Murfreesboro.
Approximately how many miles long is Tennessee's Ridge and Valley region?
572bdd2e2babe914003c295e
55
54
False
What is the western part of the Tennessee Valley called?
572bdd2e2babe914003c295f
the Great Valley
436
False
Which city is Tennessee's fourth largest?
572bdd2e2babe914003c2960
Chattanooga
581
False
Together, Bristol, Johnson City, and Kingsport are known by what name?
572bdd2e2babe914003c2961
the Tri-Cities
651
False
What river forms in the Tennessee Valley?
572bdd2e2babe914003c2962
Tennessee River
150
False
Stretching west from the Blue Ridge for approximately 55 miles (89 km) is the Ridge and Valley region, in which numerous tributaries join to form the Tennessee River in the Tennessee Valley. This area of Tennessee is covered by fertile valleys separated by wooded ridges, such as Bays Mountain and Clinch Mountain. The western section of the Tennessee Valley, where the depressions become broader and the ridges become lower, is called the Great Valley. In this valley are numerous towns and two of the region's three urban areas, Knoxville, the 3rd largest city in the state, and Chattanooga, the 4th largest city in the state. The third urban area, the Tri-Cities, comprising Bristol, Johnson City, and Kingsport and their environs, is located to the northeast of Knoxville.
Which Tennessee airport has the code TYS?
572beeb22babe914003c2968
McGhee Tyson Airport
201
False
What is the name of the airport serving Chattanooga, TN?
572beeb22babe914003c2969
Chattanooga Metropolitan Airport
246
False
What interstate highways cross the Grand Division in Tennessee?
572beeb22babe914003c296a
I-24, I-81, I-40, I-75, and I-26
394
False
An airport with which code serves the Tri-Cities area in Tennessee?
572beeb22babe914003c296b
TRI
342
False
East Tennessee has several important transportation links with Middle and West Tennessee, as well as the rest of the nation and the world, including several major airports and interstates. Knoxville's McGhee Tyson Airport (TYS) and Chattanooga's Chattanooga Metropolitan Airport (CHA), as well as the Tri-Cities' Tri-Cities Regional Airport (TRI), provide air service to numerous destinations. I-24, I-81, I-40, I-75, and I-26 along with numerous state highways and other important roads, traverse the Grand Division and connect Chattanooga, Knoxville, and the Tri-Cities, along with other cities and towns such as Cleveland, Athens, and Sevierville.
What is the lowland area of Tennessee between the Tennessee River and Mississippi River called?
572befb7dfb02c14005c6af3
Tennessee Bottoms
300
False
What geographical region lies west of the Tennessee bottom land?
572befb7dfb02c14005c6af4
Mississippi Alluvial Plain
455
False
What maximum elevation is the land in the Mississippi Alluvial Plain?
572befb7dfb02c14005c6af5
300 feet (90 m) above sea level
493
False
What city is central to the economy of West Tennessee?
572befb7dfb02c14005c6af6
Memphis
624
False
The easternmost section, about 10 miles (16 km) in width, consists of hilly land that runs along the western bank of the Tennessee River. To the west of this narrow strip of land is a wide area of rolling hills and streams that stretches all the way to the Mississippi River; this area is called the Tennessee Bottoms or bottom land. In Memphis, the Tennessee Bottoms end in steep bluffs overlooking the river. To the west of the Tennessee Bottoms is the Mississippi Alluvial Plain, less than 300 feet (90 m) above sea level. This area of lowlands, flood plains, and swamp land is sometimes referred to as the Delta region. Memphis is the economic center of West Tennessee and the largest city in the state.
What is the most common climate across Tennessee?
572bf00d2babe914003c2970
humid subtropical
24
False
Most of Tennessee has which type of climate?
572cad3cdfb02c14005c6bf7
humid subtropical
24
False
Which mountains contain those parts of Tennessee with a temperate climate?
572cad3cdfb02c14005c6bf8
Appalachians
110
False
Which body of ocean water affects Tennessee's climate the most?
572cad3cdfb02c14005c6bf9
Gulf of Mexico
247
False
Which range of months is Tennessee's wettest?
572cad3cdfb02c14005c6bfa
between December and April
601
False
What is Tennessee's average annual precipitation in inches?
572cad3cdfb02c14005c6bfb
50
713
False
Most of the state has a humid subtropical climate, with the exception of some of the higher elevations in the Appalachians, which are classified as having a mountain temperate climate or a humid continental climate due to cooler temperatures. The Gulf of Mexico is the dominant factor in the climate of Tennessee, with winds from the south being responsible for most of the state's annual precipitation. Generally, the state has hot summers and mild to cool winters with generous precipitation throughout the year, with highest average monthly precipitation generally in the winter and spring months, between December and April. The driest months, on average, are August to October. On average the state receives 50 inches (130 cm) of precipitation annually. Snowfall ranges from 5 inches (13 cm) in West Tennessee to over 16 inches (41 cm) in the higher mountains in East Tennessee.
What is Tennessee's average high temperature in degree Celsius during the summer?
572bf16ef182dd1900d7c798
32
107
False
What is the highest temperature ever recorded in Tennessee?
572bf16ef182dd1900d7c799
113 °F (45 °C)
374
False
Where was the highest known temperature in Tennessee recorded?
572bf16ef182dd1900d7c79a
Perryville
392
False
What Fahrenheit temperature is the lowest ever recorded in Tennessee?
572bf16ef182dd1900d7c79b
−32 °F
462
False
Where in Tennessee did the temperature reach -36 degrees Celsius in December of 1917?
572bf16ef182dd1900d7c79c
Mountain City
481
False
Summers in the state are generally hot and humid, with most of the state averaging a high of around 90 °F (32 °C) during the summer months. Winters tend to be mild to cool, increasing in coolness at higher elevations. Generally, for areas outside the highest mountains, the average overnight lows are near freezing for most of the state. The highest recorded temperature is 113 °F (45 °C) at Perryville on August 9, 1930 while the lowest recorded temperature is −32 °F (−36 °C) at Mountain City on December 30, 1917.
Which hurricane brought damaging rains to Tennessee in 1995?
572bf2712babe914003c2972
Hurricane Opal
286
False
On average, how many days each year are there thunderstorms in Tennessee?
572bf2712babe914003c2973
50
336
False
Which parts of Tennessee are most threatened by tornadoes?
572bf2712babe914003c2974
West and Middle Tennessee
485
False
How many tornadoes strike in Tennessee in an average year?
572bf2712babe914003c2975
15
716
False
What year in the 1990s did an unusual blizzard visit Tennessee?
572bf2712babe914003c2976
1993
942
False
While the state is far enough from the coast to avoid any direct impact from a hurricane, the location of the state makes it likely to be impacted from the remnants of tropical cyclones which weaken over land and can cause significant rainfall, such as Tropical Storm Chris in 1982 and Hurricane Opal in 1995. The state averages around 50 days of thunderstorms per year, some of which can be severe with large hail and damaging winds. Tornadoes are possible throughout the state, with West and Middle Tennessee the most vulnerable. Occasionally, strong or violent tornadoes occur, such as the devastating April 2011 tornadoes that killed 20 people in North Georgia and Southeast Tennessee. On average, the state has 15 tornadoes per year. Tornadoes in Tennessee can be severe, and Tennessee leads the nation in the percentage of total tornadoes which have fatalities. Winter storms are an occasional problem, such as the infamous Blizzard of 1993, although ice storms are a more likely occurrence. Fog is a persistent problem in parts of the state, especially in East Tennessee.
Which cities other than Knoxville have been the capital of Tennessee?
572bf39cdfb02c14005c6afb
Knoxville, Kingston, and Murfreesboro
33
False
How many counties are part of Nashville's metropolitan area?
572bf39cdfb02c14005c6afc
13
191
False
What distance in miles is Clarksville, TN from Nashville?
572bf39cdfb02c14005c6afd
45
507
False
Which city is Tennessee's sixth largest by population?
572bf39cdfb02c14005c6afe
Murfreesboro
548
False
Which two of the six most populous Tennessee cities are nearest the Great Smoky Mountains?
572bf39cdfb02c14005c6aff
Chattanooga and Knoxville
263
False
The capital is Nashville, though Knoxville, Kingston, and Murfreesboro have all served as state capitals in the past. Memphis has the largest population of any city in the state. Nashville's 13-county metropolitan area has been the state's largest since c. 1990. Chattanooga and Knoxville, both in the eastern part of the state near the Great Smoky Mountains, each has approximately one-third of the population of Memphis or Nashville. The city of Clarksville is a fifth significant population center, some 45 miles (72 km) northwest of Nashville. Murfreesboro is the sixth-largest city in Tennessee, consisting of some 108,755 residents.
How many years ago was Tennessee first inhabited by humans?
572bf4da750c471900ed4c3a
12,000
76
False
What time period corresponds with the Mississippian cultural phase in early Tennessee history?
572bf4da750c471900ed4c3b
1000–1600 AD
375
False
Which Native American people are the first group to inhabit Tennessee that we know by name?
572bf4da750c471900ed4c3c
Muscogee
444
False
What do archaeologists call the cultural phase of the inhabitants of Tennessee between 1000 BC and 1000 AD?
572bf4da750c471900ed4c3d
Woodland
328
False
The area now known as Tennessee was first inhabited by Paleo-Indians nearly 12,000 years ago. The names of the cultural groups that inhabited the area between first settlement and the time of European contact are unknown, but several distinct cultural phases have been named by archaeologists, including Archaic (8000–1000 BC), Woodland (1000 BC–1000 AD), and Mississippian (1000–1600 AD), whose chiefdoms were the cultural predecessors of the Muscogee people who inhabited the Tennessee River Valley before Cherokee migration into the river's headwaters.
Which European nationality first explored the Tennessee region?
572bf5e2dfb02c14005c6b05
Spanish
103
False
Which year did Hernando de Soto explore Tennessee?
572bf5e2dfb02c14005c6b06
1540
149
False
Which Native American peoples were living in Tennessee when Juan Pardo explored the area?
572bf5e2dfb02c14005c6b07
Muscogee and Yuchi
362
False
Which Native American people left Tennessee for the Virginia area because of encroaching Europeans?
572bf5e2dfb02c14005c6b08
Cherokee
563
False
By which year had most of the Native Americans been forced out of the Tennessee region?
572bf5e2dfb02c14005c6b09
1838
834
False
The first recorded European excursions into what is now called Tennessee were three expeditions led by Spanish explorers, namely Hernando de Soto in 1540, Tristan de Luna in 1559, and Juan Pardo in 1567. Pardo recorded the name "Tanasqui" from a local Indian village, which evolved to the state's current name. At that time, Tennessee was inhabited by tribes of Muscogee and Yuchi people. Possibly because of European diseases devastating the Indian tribes, which would have left a population vacuum, and also from expanding European settlement in the north, the Cherokee moved south from the area now called Virginia. As European colonists spread into the area, the Indian populations were forcibly displaced to the south and west, including all Muscogee and Yuchi peoples, the Chickasaw and Choctaw, and ultimately, the Cherokee in 1838.
In which year did the British first settle in what would become Tennessee?
572bf76c750c471900ed4c42
1756
67
False
What was the name of the first British settlement in what is now Tennessee?
572bf76c750c471900ed4c43
Fort Loudoun
121
False
Which British officer oversaw the construction of Fort Loudoun?
572bf76c750c471900ed4c44
Captain Raymond Demeré
320
False
Which Cherokee faction forced the surrender of Fort Loudoun in 1760?
572bf76c750c471900ed4c45
Overhill Cherokees
526
False
Which British commanding officer was killed the day after Cherokee took Fort Loudon in 1760?
572bf76c750c471900ed4c46
Captain Paul Demeré
641
False
The first British settlement in what is now Tennessee was built in 1756 by settlers from the colony of South Carolina at Fort Loudoun, near present-day Vonore. Fort Loudoun became the westernmost British outpost to that date. The fort was designed by John William Gerard de Brahm and constructed by forces under British Captain Raymond Demeré. After its completion, Captain Raymond Demeré relinquished command on August 14, 1757 to his brother, Captain Paul Demeré. Hostilities erupted between the British and the neighboring Overhill Cherokees, and a siege of Fort Loudoun ended with its surrender on August 7, 1760. The following morning, Captain Paul Demeré and a number of his men were killed in an ambush nearby, and most of the rest of the garrison was taken prisoner.
What did American settlers call the Cherokee who attacked Fort Watuaga in 1776?
572bf9b1dfb02c14005c6b15
the Chickamauga
276
False
Who lead the Cherokee attack on Fort Watuaga in 1776?
572bf9b1dfb02c14005c6b16
Dragging Canoe
124
False
What was the name of the Chickamauga leader's cousin who helped settlers escape his raids?
572bf9b1dfb02c14005c6b17
Nancy Ward
561
False
Who left Fort Watuaga, crossed the Appalachians, and attacked the British army in South Carolina in 1780?
572bf9b1dfb02c14005c6b18
Overmountain Men
669
False
Who lost the Battle of Kings Mountain in South Carolina?
572bf9b1dfb02c14005c6b19
the British Army
772
False
During the American Revolutionary War, Fort Watauga at Sycamore Shoals (in present-day Elizabethton) was attacked (1776) by Dragging Canoe and his warring faction of Cherokee who were aligned with the British Loyalists. These renegade Cherokee were referred to by settlers as the Chickamauga. They opposed North Carolina's annexation of the Washington District and the concurrent settling of the Transylvania Colony further north and west. The lives of many settlers were spared from the initial warrior attacks through the warnings of Dragging Canoe's cousin, Nancy Ward. The frontier fort on the banks of the Watauga River later served as a 1780 staging area for the Overmountain Men in preparation to trek over the Appalachian Mountains, to engage, and to later defeat the British Army at the Battle of Kings Mountain in South Carolina.
What was the name of the state that three North Carolina counties hoped to form in 1784?
572bfb8c750c471900ed4c60
Franklin
128
False
What was the name given to the land that North Carolina transferred to the federal government in 1790?
572bfb8c750c471900ed4c61
Southwest Territory
367
False
What town marked the western extent of the Cumberland Settlements?
572bfb8c750c471900ed4c62
French Lick
638
False
What other name does the North Carolina Road share with Daniel Boone's passage through the Cumberland Gap?
572bfb8c750c471900ed4c63
Wilderness Road
749
False
Three counties of the Washington District (now part of Tennessee) broke off from North Carolina in 1784 and formed the State of Franklin. Efforts to obtain admission to the Union failed, and the counties (now numbering eight) had re-joined North Carolina by 1789. North Carolina ceded the area to the federal government in 1790, after which it was organized into the Southwest Territory. In an effort to encourage settlers to move west into the new territory, in 1787 the mother state of North Carolina ordered a road to be cut to take settlers into the Cumberland Settlements—from the south end of Clinch Mountain (in East Tennessee) to French Lick (Nashville). The Trace was called the "North Carolina Road" or "Avery's Trace", and sometimes "The Wilderness Road" (although it should not be confused with Daniel Boone's "Wilderness Road" through the Cumberland Gap).
Which state was the first formed out of federally controlled territory?
572bfdb3750c471900ed4c68
Tennessee
0
False
In addition to the original thirteen, which two states were admitted to the union before Tennessee?
572bfdb3750c471900ed4c69
Vermont and Kentucky
226
False
Which mountain marked the starting point of the Tennessee border described by the state constitution?
572bfdb3750c471900ed4c6a
Stone Mountain
513
False
When Tennessee's border was first defined, territory west of which river was considered for future annexation?
572bfdb3750c471900ed4c6b
Mississippi River
1229
False
Tennessee was admitted to the Union on June 1, 1796 as the 16th state. It was the first state created from territory under the jurisdiction of the United States federal government. Apart from the former Thirteen Colonies only Vermont and Kentucky predate Tennessee's statehood, and neither was ever a federal territory. The state boundaries, according to the Constitution of the State of Tennessee, Article I, Section 31, stated that the beginning point for identifying the boundary was the extreme height of the Stone Mountain, at the place where the line of Virginia intersects it, and basically ran the extreme heights of mountain chains through the Appalachian Mountains separating North Carolina from Tennessee past the Indian towns of Cowee and Old Chota, thence along the main ridge of the said mountain (Unicoi Mountain) to the southern boundary of the state; all the territory, lands and waters lying west of said line are included in the boundaries and limits of the newly formed state of Tennessee. Part of the provision also stated that the limits and jurisdiction of the state would include future land acquisition, referencing possible land trade with other states, or the acquisition of territory from west of the Mississippi River.
Which US President oversaw the forced westward relocation of Cherokees beginning in 1838?
572bff69dfb02c14005c6b33
Martin Van Buren
44
False
How many Cherokee-owned black slaves were also relocated between 1838 and 1839?
572bff69dfb02c14005c6b34
2,000
111
False
What Cherokee phrase means "the trail where we cried?"
572bff69dfb02c14005c6b35
Nunna daul Isunyi
496
False
Which Native American nation's emigration was first associated with the term "Trail of Tears?"
572bff69dfb02c14005c6b36
Choctaw
914
False
Approximately how many Cherokees died along their "Trail of Tears?"
572bff69dfb02c14005c6b37
4,000
409
False
During the administration of U.S. President Martin Van Buren, nearly 17,000 Cherokees—along with approximately 2,000 black slaves owned by Cherokees—were uprooted from their homes between 1838 and 1839 and were forced by the U.S. military to march from "emigration depots" in Eastern Tennessee (such as Fort Cass) toward the more distant Indian Territory west of Arkansas. During this relocation an estimated 4,000 Cherokees died along the way west. In the Cherokee language, the event is called Nunna daul Isunyi—"the Trail Where We Cried." The Cherokees were not the only American Indians forced to emigrate as a result of the Indian removal efforts of the United States, and so the phrase "Trail of Tears" is sometimes used to refer to similar events endured by other American Indian peoples, especially among the "Five Civilized Tribes". The phrase originated as a description of the earlier emigration of the Choctaw nation.
Which Tennessee governor championed secession in February of 1861?
572c00d6f182dd1900d7c7ae
Isham Harris
80
False
Which area of Tennessee was most resistant to secession?
572c00d6f182dd1900d7c7af
East Tennessee
283
False
What percentage of voters voted against secession in Tennessee's February 1861 referendum?
572c00d6f182dd1900d7c7b0
54
220
False
On which date did Tennessee enter a military alliance with the Confederacy?
572c00d6f182dd1900d7c7b1
May 7, 1861
767
False
Which region of Tennessee swung in favor of secession in the June 1861 referendum?
572c00d6f182dd1900d7c7b2
Middle Tennessee
812
False
In February 1861, secessionists in Tennessee's state government—led by Governor Isham Harris—sought voter approval for a convention to sever ties with the United States, but Tennessee voters rejected the referendum by a 54–46% margin. The strongest opposition to secession came from East Tennessee (which later tried to form a separate Union-aligned state). Following the Confederate attack upon Fort Sumter in April and Lincoln's call for troops from Tennessee and other states in response, Governor Isham Harris began military mobilization, submitted an ordinance of secession to the General Assembly, and made direct overtures to the Confederate government. The Tennessee legislature ratified an agreement to enter a military league with the Confederate States on May 7, 1861. On June 8, 1861, with people in Middle Tennessee having significantly changed their position, voters approved a second referendum calling for secession, becoming the last state to do so.
Which side won more Civil War battles in Tennessee?
572c022a750c471900ed4c7a
Union
83
False
Which Union commander seized control of the Tennessee River in February 1862?
572c022a750c471900ed4c7b
Ulysses S. Grant
100
False
During which month in 1862 did Union forces capture Memphis?
572c022a750c471900ed4c7c
June
302
False
Union control of Middle Tennessee was reaffirmed by what battle in January 1863?
572c022a750c471900ed4c7d
Battle of Murfreesboro
510
False
Many major battles of the American Civil War were fought in Tennessee—most of them Union victories. Ulysses S. Grant and the U.S. Navy captured control of the Cumberland and Tennessee rivers in February 1862. They held off the Confederate counterattack at Shiloh in April. Memphis fell to the Union in June, following a naval battle on the Mississippi River in front of the city. The Capture of Memphis and Nashville gave the Union control of the western and middle sections; this control was confirmed at the Battle of Murfreesboro in early January 1863 and by the subsequent Tullahoma Campaign.
Which county in East Tennessee was more supportive of the Confederacy than its neighbors?
572c03fddfb02c14005c6b55
Sullivan County
131
False
Which Confederate general failed to capture the Union fort at Knoxville?
572c03fddfb02c14005c6b56
James Longstreet
181
False
Which Union general broke the Confederate siege of Chattanooga in November 1863?
572c03fddfb02c14005c6b57
Grant
503
False
Which Confederate general launched an attack on Chattanooga from Perryville, KY?
572c03fddfb02c14005c6b58
Braxton Bragg
612
False
Which battle did Confederate General Longstreet win in East Tennessee?
572c03fddfb02c14005c6b59
Battle of Bean's Station
346
False
Confederates held East Tennessee despite the strength of Unionist sentiment there, with the exception of extremely pro-Confederate Sullivan County. The Confederates, led by General James Longstreet, did attack General Burnside's Fort Sanders at Knoxville and lost. It was a big blow to East Tennessee Confederate momentum, but Longstreet won the Battle of Bean's Station a few weeks later. The Confederates besieged Chattanooga during the Chattanooga Campaign in early fall 1863, but were driven off by Grant in November. Many of the Confederate defeats can be attributed to the poor strategic vision of General Braxton Bragg, who led the Army of Tennessee from Perryville, Kentucky to another Confederate defeat at Chattanooga.
Which forces controlled most of Tennessee when slaves were emancipated?
572c053b750c471900ed4c82
Union
79
False
Up to how many former slaves began fighting with for the Union after the Emancipation Proclamation?
572c053b750c471900ed4c83
200,000
470
False
Which edict freed slaves across most of the Confederacy, but technically not Tennessee?
572c053b750c471900ed4c84
Emancipation Proclamation
9
False
When the Emancipation Proclamation was announced, Tennessee was mostly held by Union forces. Thus, Tennessee was not among the states enumerated in the Proclamation, and the Proclamation did not free any slaves there. Nonetheless, enslaved African Americans escaped to Union lines to gain freedom without waiting for official action. Old and young, men, women and children camped near Union troops. Thousands of former slaves ended up fighting on the Union side, nearly 200,000 in total across the South.
Who was elected Vice President of the United States in 1864?
572c0638f182dd1900d7c7be
Andrew Johnson
9
False
Which Confederate state's representation was readmitted to Congress first?
572c0638f182dd1900d7c7bf
Tennessee
210
False
On which date were Tennessee's elected representatives restored to their offices in Washington D.C.?
572c0638f182dd1900d7c7c0
July 24, 1866
321
False
Their ratification of which Amendment spared Tennessee a military governor during Reconstruction?
572c0638f182dd1900d7c7c1
Fourteenth
371
False
In which year did Andrew Johnson become President?
572c0638f182dd1900d7c7c2
1865
159
False
In 1864, Andrew Johnson (a War Democrat from Tennessee) was elected Vice President under Abraham Lincoln. He became President after Lincoln's assassination in 1865. Under Johnson's lenient re-admission policy, Tennessee was the first of the seceding states to have its elected members readmitted to the U.S. Congress, on July 24, 1866. Because Tennessee had ratified the Fourteenth Amendment, it was the only one of the formerly secessionist states that did not have a military governor during the Reconstruction period.
Who were targeted by restrictive laws passed in Southern states at the end of the 19th century?
572c807e750c471900ed4ca0
African Americans
373
False
In which year did the Tennessee General Assembly pass electoral reform laws that disenfranchised most African Americans in the state?
572c807e750c471900ed4ca1
1889
395
False
Who besides African Americans were victims of Tennessee's late-19th century electoral reform?
572c807e750c471900ed4ca2
poor Whites
597
False
What is the name for laws dating from the late-19th century which promoted segregation?
572c807e750c471900ed4ca3
Jim Crow laws
855
False
Approximately how many African Americans lived in Tennessee in 1900?
572c807e750c471900ed4ca4
480,430
1028
False
After the formal end of Reconstruction, the struggle over power in Southern society continued. Through violence and intimidation against freedmen and their allies, White Democrats regained political power in Tennessee and other states across the South in the late 1870s and 1880s. Over the next decade, the state legislature passed increasingly restrictive laws to control African Americans. In 1889 the General Assembly passed four laws described as electoral reform, with the cumulative effect of essentially disfranchising most African Americans in rural areas and small towns, as well as many poor Whites. Legislation included implementation of a poll tax, timing of registration, and recording requirements. Tens of thousands of taxpaying citizens were without representation for decades into the 20th century. Disfranchising legislation accompanied Jim Crow laws passed in the late 19th century, which imposed segregation in the state. In 1900, African Americans made up nearly 24% of the state's population, and numbered 480,430 citizens who lived mostly in the central and western parts of the state.
Who was elected governor of Tennessee in 2002?
572c8173dfb02c14005c6b7f
Phil Bredesen
21
False
Which Tennessee Senator was the only Republican first-time Senator elected in 2006?
572c8173dfb02c14005c6b80
Bob Corker
181
False
Who was the first Republican Speaker of the Tennessee state senate since Democrats took control in the Reconstruction era?
572c8173dfb02c14005c6b81
Ron Ramsey
373
False
Which political party did the majority of conservative Tennessee voters support in the early 20th century?
572c8173dfb02c14005c6b82
Democratic
511
False
In 2002, businessman Phil Bredesen was elected as the 48th governor. Also in 2002, Tennessee amended the state constitution to allow for the establishment of a lottery. Tennessee's Bob Corker was the only freshman Republican elected to the United States Senate in the 2006 midterm elections. The state constitution was amended to reject same-sex marriage. In January 2007, Ron Ramsey became the first Republican elected as Speaker of the State Senate since Reconstruction, as a result of the realignment of the Democratic and Republican parties in the South since the late 20th century, with Republicans now elected by conservative voters, who previously had supported Democrats.
What was Tennessee's estimated population in 2015?
572c82d4dfb02c14005c6b87
6,600,299
90
False
What percentage population increase did Tennessee experience between 2010 and 2015?
572c82d4dfb02c14005c6b88
4.01%
184
False
How much of Tennessee's population increase between 2010 and 2015 was due to migration?
572c82d4dfb02c14005c6b89
219,551
370
False
In 2008, what percentage of Tennessee residents were born outside the South?
572c82d4dfb02c14005c6b8a
Twenty percent
565
False
What net population increase during Tennessee's last two US Census reports was due to immigration from outside the country?
572c82d4dfb02c14005c6b8b
59,385
474
False
According to the U.S. Census Bureau, as of 2015, Tennessee had an estimated population of 6,600,299, which is an increase of 50,947, from the prior year and an increase of 254,194, or 4.01%, since the year 2010. This includes a natural increase since the last census of 142,266 people (that is 493,881 births minus 351,615 deaths), and an increase from net migration of 219,551 people into the state. Immigration from outside the United States resulted in a net increase of 59,385 people, and migration within the country produced a net increase of 160,166 people. Twenty percent of Tennesseans were born outside the South in 2008, compared to a figure of 13.5% in 1990.
What was Tennessee's most common self-reported ethnic group in 2000?
572c83e2f182dd1900d7c7ce
American
77
False
What percent of Tennessee residents self-reported their ethnic group as Irish in 2000?
572c83e2f182dd1900d7c7cf
9.3%
128
False
Which European ancestries are most common among self-identified ethnic "Americans" in Tennessee?
572c83e2f182dd1900d7c7d0
English and Scotch-Irish
240
False
What European national ancestry was claimed by 45% of Tennessee residents in 1980?
572c83e2f182dd1900d7c7d1
English
399
False
What was Tennessee's population in 1980?
572c83e2f182dd1900d7c7d2
3,221,354
466
False
In 2000, the five most common self-reported ethnic groups in the state were: American (17.3%), African American (13.0%), Irish (9.3%), English (9.1%), and German (8.3%). Most Tennesseans who self-identify as having American ancestry are of English and Scotch-Irish ancestry. An estimated 21–24% of Tennesseans are of predominantly English ancestry. In the 1980 census 1,435,147 Tennesseans claimed "English" or "mostly English" ancestry out of a state population of 3,221,354 making them 45% of the state at the time.
Which Protestant denomination has its headquarters in Nashville, TN?
572c84d4dfb02c14005c6b91
National Baptist Convention
67
False
Which Tennessee city contains the headquarters of the Church of God and The Church of God of Prophecy?
572c84d4dfb02c14005c6b92
Cleveland
300
False
The principle Bible college of the Free Will Baptists is located in which Tennessee city?
572c84d4dfb02c14005c6b93
Nashville
405
False
Which two major Protestant denominations are based in Memphis?
572c84d4dfb02c14005c6b94
Church of God in Christ and the Cumberland Presbyterian Church
129
False
Tennessee is home to several Protestant denominations, such as the National Baptist Convention (headquartered in Nashville); the Church of God in Christ and the Cumberland Presbyterian Church (both headquartered in Memphis); the Church of God and The Church of God of Prophecy (both headquartered in Cleveland). The Free Will Baptist denomination is headquartered in Antioch; its main Bible college is in Nashville. The Southern Baptist Convention maintains its general headquarters in Nashville. Publishing houses of several denominations are located in Nashville.
Roughly how many farms are located in Tennesee?
572c85fcdfb02c14005c6b99
82,000
103
False
Which livestock is the major focus of Tennessee agriculture?
572c85fcdfb02c14005c6b9a
beef cattle
157
False
When did cotton first become a large-scale agricultural product in Tennessee?
572c85fcdfb02c14005c6b9b
1820s
279
False
Which river landform partly in Tennessee provided the most fertile land for cotton production?
572c85fcdfb02c14005c6b9c
Mississippi Delta
383
False
Major outputs for the state include textiles, cotton, cattle, and electrical power. Tennessee has over 82,000 farms, roughly 59 percent of which accommodate beef cattle. Although cotton was an early crop in Tennessee, large-scale cultivation of the fiber did not begin until the 1820s with the opening of the land between the Tennessee and Mississippi Rivers. The upper wedge of the Mississippi Delta extends into southwestern Tennessee, and it was in this fertile section that cotton took hold. Soybeans are also heavily planted in West Tennessee, focusing on the northwest corner of the state.
Where in Tennessee is the headquarters of International Paper?
572c86e9dfb02c14005c6ba1
Memphis
112
False
Where is Nissan Motor Company's headquarters in the United States?
572c86e9dfb02c14005c6ba2
Franklin
302
False
Which company has a $2 billion production plant in Bradley County?
572c86e9dfb02c14005c6ba3
Wacker Chemie
544
False
Hemlock Semiconductor produces electronic components in which Tennessee city?
572c86e9dfb02c14005c6ba4
Clarksville
656
False
Which major global shipping company is based in Memphis?
572c86e9dfb02c14005c6ba5
FedEx
58
False
Major corporations with headquarters in Tennessee include FedEx, AutoZone and International Paper, all based in Memphis; Pilot Corporation and Regal Entertainment Group, based in Knoxville; Eastman Chemical Company, based in Kingsport; the North American headquarters of Nissan Motor Company, based in Franklin; Hospital Corporation of America and Caterpillar Financial, based in Nashville; and Unum, based in Chattanooga. Tennessee is also the location of the Volkswagen factory in Chattanooga, a $2 billion polysilicon production facility by Wacker Chemie in Bradley County, and a $1.2 billion polysilicon production facility by Hemlock Semiconductor in Clarksville.
What types of income are exempt from Tennessee state income tax?
572c929ef182dd1900d7c7d8
salaries and wages
43
False
At what rate is Tennessee state sales and use tax usually applied?
572c929ef182dd1900d7c7d9
7%
320
False
Above which amount is inheritance tax applied in Tennessee?
572c929ef182dd1900d7c7da
$1,000,000
991
False
What is the sales tax on foodstuffs in Tennessee?
572c929ef182dd1900d7c7db
5.25%
357
False
Which edible items are taxed at the higher non-food sales and use tax rate in Tennessee?
572c929ef182dd1900d7c7dc
candy, dietary supplements and prepared food
368
False
The Tennessee income tax does not apply to salaries and wages, but most income from stock, bonds and notes receivable is taxable. All taxable dividends and interest which exceed the $1,250 single exemption or the $2,500 joint exemption are taxable at the rate of 6%. The state's sales and use tax rate for most items is 7%. Food is taxed at a lower rate of 5.25%, but candy, dietary supplements and prepared food are taxed at the full 7% rate. Local sales taxes are collected in most jurisdictions, at rates varying from 1.5% to 2.75%, bringing the total sales tax to between 8.5% and 9.75%, one of the highest levels in the nation. Intangible property is assessed on the shares of stock of stockholders of any loan company, investment company, insurance company or for-profit cemetery companies. The assessment ratio is 40% of the value multiplied by the tax rate for the jurisdiction. Tennessee imposes an inheritance tax on decedents' estates that exceed maximum single exemption limits ($1,000,000 for deaths in 2006 and thereafter).
In which year did Tennessee tourism first exceed 100 million visitors?
572c93972babe914003c2992
2014
141
False
How many billions of dollars were spend by tourists in Tennessee in 2014?
572c93972babe914003c2993
17.7
206
False
How much tax revenue did tourism generate for Tennessee in 2014?
572c93972babe914003c2994
$1.5 billion
329
False
In 2014, which three Tennessee counties took in the most money from tourism?
572c93972babe914003c2995
Davidson, Shelby, and Sevier
455
False
What was the percentage increase in Tennessee's tourism-based jobs in 2014?
572c93972babe914003c2996
2.8%
570
False
Tourism contributes billions of dollars each year to the state's economy and Tennessee is ranked among the Top 10 destinations in the US. In 2014 a record 100 million people visited the state resulting in $17.7 billion in tourism related spending within the state, an increase of 6.3% over 2013; tax revenue from tourism equaled $1.5 billion. Each county in Tennessee saw at least $1 million from tourism while 19 counties received at least $100 million (Davidson, Shelby, and Sevier counties were the top three). Tourism-generated jobs for the state reached 152,900, a 2.8% increase. International travelers to Tennessee accounted for $533 million in spending.
Which other state sent Tennessee the most tourists in 2013?
572c9697750c471900ed4caa
Georgia
168
False
What percentage of out-of-state tourists stayed in Tennessee for four or more nights?
572c9697750c471900ed4cab
11%
321
False
What average daily amount did a tourist spend in Tennessee in 2013?
572c9697750c471900ed4cac
$118
459
False
What percentage of Tennessee tourists daily spending in 2013 went toward accommodation?
572c9697750c471900ed4cad
17%
509
False
In which state do the greatest percentage of Tennessee tourists reside?
572c9697750c471900ed4cae
Tennessee
142
False
In 2013 tourism within the state from local citizens accounted for 39.9% of tourists, the second highest originating location for tourists to Tennessee is the state of Georgia, accounting for 8.4% of tourists.:17 Forty-four percent of stays in the state were "day trips", 25% stayed one night, 15% stayed two nights, and 11% stayed 4 or more nights. The average stay was 2.16 nights, compared to 2.03 nights for the US as a whole.:40 The average person spent $118 per day: 29% on transportation, 24% on food, 17% on accommodation, and 28% on shopping and entertainment.:44
Which city is the endpoint of I-26?
572c97fbf182dd1900d7c7ec
Kingsport
317
False
I-24 connects which two Tennessee cities?
572c97fbf182dd1900d7c7ed
Chattanooga to Clarksville
387
False
Which interstate highway running north-south passes through Memphis?
572c97fbf182dd1900d7c7ee
Interstate 55
593
False
Which interstate ends at a junction close to Dandridge, Tennessee?
572c97fbf182dd1900d7c7ef
Interstate 81
623
False
What Tennessee cities are connected by I-269?
572c97fbf182dd1900d7c7f0
Millington to Collierville
981
False
Interstate 40 crosses the state in a west-east orientation. Its branch interstate highways include I-240 in Memphis; I-440 in Nashville; I-140 from Knoxville to Alcoa and I-640 in Knoxville. I-26, although technically an east-west interstate, runs from the North Carolina border below Johnson City to its terminus at Kingsport. I-24 is an east-west interstate that runs cross-state from Chattanooga to Clarksville. In a north-south orientation are highways I-55, I-65, I-75, and I-81. Interstate 65 crosses the state through Nashville, while Interstate 75 serves Chattanooga and Knoxville and Interstate 55 serves Memphis. Interstate 81 enters the state at Bristol and terminates at its junction with I-40 near Dandridge. I-155 is a branch highway from I-55. The only spur highway of I-75 in Tennessee is I-275, which is in Knoxville. When completed, I-69 will travel through the western part of the state, from South Fulton to Memphis. A branch interstate, I-269 also exists from Millington to Collierville.
Which are the two main parties in Tennessee politics?
572c99202babe914003c299c
Republican and the Democratic
72
False
Which part of Tennessee voted more Republican in the years following the Civil War?
572c99202babe914003c299d
eastern
237
False
What type of farmers inhabited eastern Tennessee in the late 19th century?
572c99202babe914003c299e
yeoman
448
False
Which crops grown in West Tennessee had required a great deal of slave labor?
572c99202babe914003c299f
tobacco and cotton
520
False
Tennessee politics, like that of most U.S. states, are dominated by the Republican and the Democratic parties. Historian Dewey W. Grantham traces divisions in the state to the period of the American Civil War: for decades afterward, the eastern third of the state was Republican and the western two thirds voted Democrat. This division was related to the state's pattern of farming, plantations and slaveholding. The eastern section was made up of yeoman farmers, but Middle and West Tennessee cultivated crops, such as tobacco and cotton, that were dependent on the use of slave labor. These areas became defined as Democratic after the war.
Which party did most former slaves join when they were given the right to vote after the Civil War?
572c9ab62babe914003c29a4
Republican
112
False
In which decade did the Tennessee legislature institute a poll tax?
572c9ab62babe914003c29a5
1880s
307
False
Which party declined in Tennessee politics following voting reform legislation during Reconstruction?
572c9ab62babe914003c29a6
Republican
520
False
What percentage of the Tennessee population was African-American in 1900?
572c9ab62babe914003c29a7
23.8
656
False
In 1913, the Tennessee state legislature made which organizational structure the default form of city government in the state?
572c9ab62babe914003c29a8
Board of Commission
883
False
During Reconstruction, freedmen and former free people of color were granted the right to vote; most joined the Republican Party. Numerous African Americans were elected to local offices, and some to state office. Following Reconstruction, Tennessee continued to have competitive party politics. But in the 1880s, the white-dominated state government passed four laws, the last of which imposed a poll tax requirement for voter registration. These served to disenfranchise most African Americans, and their power in the Republican Party, the state, and cities where they had significant population was markedly reduced. In 1900 African Americans comprised 23.8 percent of the state's population, concentrated in Middle and West Tennessee. In the early 1900s, the state legislature approved a form of commission government for cities based on at-large voting for a few positions on a Board of Commission; several adopted this as another means to limit African-American political participation. In 1913 the state legislature enacted a bill enabling cities to adopt this structure without legislative approval.
Which Republican presidential candidate did Tennessee support in 1920?
572c9bb7f182dd1900d7c7f6
Warren G. Harding
277
False
What religion was the Democratic presidential candidate that Tennessee voted against in 1928?
572c9bb7f182dd1900d7c7f7
Catholic
422
False
How many times has Tennessee supported Democratic presidential candidates in the general elections since the 1950s?
572c9bb7f182dd1900d7c7f8
four
786
False
Which Republican won the Presidency while carrying Tennessee in 1928?
572c9bb7f182dd1900d7c7f9
Herbert Hoover
372
False
After disenfranchisement of blacks, the GOP in Tennessee was historically a sectional party supported by whites only in the eastern part of the state. In the 20th century, except for two nationwide Republican landslides of the 1920s (in 1920, when Tennessee narrowly supported Warren G. Harding over Ohio Governor James Cox, and in 1928, when it more decisively voted for Herbert Hoover over New York Governor Al Smith, a Catholic), the state was part of the Democratic Solid South until the 1950s. In that postwar decade, it twice voted for Republican Dwight D. Eisenhower, former Allied Commander of the Armed Forces during World War II. Since then, more of the state's voters have shifted to supporting Republicans, and Democratic presidential candidates have carried Tennessee only four times.
In 1960, what group made up 16.45% of Tennessee's population?
572c9ce2750c471900ed4cb4
African Americans
8
False
What Congressional Act fully re-enfranchised African-American in Tennessee?
572c9ce2750c471900ed4cb5
Voting Rights Act of 1965
126
False
Which Republican Senator's 1970 victory showed the Republican Party's renewed competitiveness in Tennessee?
572c9ce2750c471900ed4cb6
Bill Brock
387
False
Which constituency has become the Republican Party's staunchest supporters in Tennessee?
572c9ce2750c471900ed4cb7
white conservatives
622
False
Which Republican was elected Tennessee Governor in 1970?
572c9ce2750c471900ed4cb8
Winfield Dunn
352
False
By 1960 African Americans comprised 16.45% of the state's population. It was not until after the mid-1960s and passage of the Voting Rights Act of 1965 that they were able to vote in full again, but new devices, such as at-large commission city governments, had been adopted in several jurisdictions to limit their political participation. Former Gov. Winfield Dunn and former U.S. Sen. Bill Brock wins in 1970 helped make the Republican Party competitive among whites for the statewide victory. Tennessee has selected governors from different parties since 1970. Increasingly the Republican Party has become the party of white conservatives.
Which two Tennessee cities are most supportive of the Democratic Party?
572ca113dfb02c14005c6bb5
Nashville and Memphis
271
False
Which Tennessee city has the largest African-American population?
572ca113dfb02c14005c6bb6
Memphis
285
False
Which two eastern Tennessee congressional districts have the longest track record of favoring Republican candidates?
572ca113dfb02c14005c6bb7
1st and 2nd
458
False
Since which year has Tennessee's 1st congressional district voted overwhelmingly Republican?
572ca113dfb02c14005c6bb8
1881
847
False
Which two Tennessee metropolitan areas have been most supportive of the Republican Party?
572ca113dfb02c14005c6bb9
Tri-Cities and Knoxville
508
False
In the early 21st century, Republican voters control most of the state, especially in the more rural and suburban areas outside of the cities; Democratic strength is mostly confined to the urban cores of the four major cities, and is particularly strong in the cities of Nashville and Memphis. The latter area includes a large African-American population. Historically, Republicans had their greatest strength in East Tennessee before the 1960s. Tennessee's 1st and 2nd congressional districts, based in the Tri-Cities and Knoxville, respectively, are among the few historically Republican districts in the South. Those districts' residents supported the Union over the Confederacy during the Civil War; they identified with the GOP after the war and have stayed with that party ever since. The 1st has been in Republican hands continuously since 1881, and Republicans (or their antecedents) have held it for all but four years since 1859. The 2nd has been held continuously by Republicans or their antecedents since 1859.
Which Democratic candidate lost his own state in the 2000 general election?
572ca218dfb02c14005c6bc9
Al Gore
50
False
By what percentage of the popular vote did George W. Bush carry Tennessee in 2004?
572ca218dfb02c14005c6bca
14%
346
False
Democratic presidential candidates from which region's states have fared best in recent Tennessee history?
572ca218dfb02c14005c6bcb
Southern
397
False
Which 2000 presidential candidate was a former US Senator from Tennessee?
572ca218dfb02c14005c6bcc
Al Gore
50
False
In the 2000 presidential election, Vice President Al Gore, a former Democratic U.S. Senator from Tennessee, failed to carry his home state, an unusual occurrence but indicative of strengthening Republican support. Republican George W. Bush received increased support in 2004, with his margin of victory in the state increasing from 4% in 2000 to 14% in 2004. Democratic presidential nominees from Southern states (such as Lyndon B. Johnson, Jimmy Carter, Bill Clinton) usually fare better than their Northern counterparts do in Tennessee, especially among split-ticket voters outside the metropolitan areas.
Which 1962 US Supreme Court ruling forced states to realign their voting districts to reflect census findings?
572ca3fcf182dd1900d7c812
Baker v. Carr
4
False
What phrase expresses the Supreme Court's 1962 decision that population overrules geographic consideration in election districting?
572ca3fcf182dd1900d7c813
one man, one vote
88
False
A bias in Tennessee politics favoring which type of geographical district gave rise to the Baker v. Carr Supreme Court case?
572ca3fcf182dd1900d7c814
rural
426
False
Which type of geographical district became more powerful in Tennessee politics following the 1962 Supreme Court decision?
572ca3fcf182dd1900d7c815
urban
683
False
The Baker v. Carr (1962) decision of the US Supreme Court established the principle of "one man, one vote", requiring state legislatures to redistrict to bring Congressional apportionment in line with decennial censuses. It also required both houses of state legislatures to be based on population for representation and not geographic districts such as counties. This case arose out of a lawsuit challenging the longstanding rural bias of apportionment of seats in the Tennessee legislature. After decades in which urban populations had been underrepresented in many state legislatures, this significant ruling led to an increased (and proportional) prominence in state politics by urban and, eventually, suburban, legislators and statewide officeholders in relation to their population within the state. The ruling also applied to numerous other states long controlled by rural minorities, such as Alabama, Vermont, and Montana.
Which Tennessee law enforcement agency looks for road safety violations?
572ca85f750c471900ed4cbe
Highway Patrol
4
False
Which Tennessee agency enforces state wildlife regulations outside of parks?
572ca85f750c471900ed4cbf
TWRA
225
False
What is the acronym for Tennessee's statewide criminal investigation agency?
572ca85f750c471900ed4cc0
TBI
354
False
Who provides law enforcement within Tennessee's state parks?
572ca85f750c471900ed4cc1
Tennessee State Park Rangers
476
False
The Highway Patrol is the primary law enforcement entity that concentrates on highway safety regulations and general non-wildlife state law enforcement and is under the jurisdiction of the Tennessee Department of Safety. The TWRA is an independent agency tasked with enforcing all wildlife, boating, and fisheries regulations outside of state parks. The TBI maintains state-of-the-art investigative facilities and is the primary state-level criminal investigative department. Tennessee State Park Rangers are responsible for all activities and law enforcement inside the Tennessee State Parks system.
Each Tennessee county must elect which law enforcement official?
572ca974dfb02c14005c6be3
Sheriff
167
False
Which law enforcement entity serves warrants in Tennessee?
572ca974dfb02c14005c6be4
Sheriff's Office
318
False
Who is in charge of policing Tennessee counties' unincorporated areas?
572ca974dfb02c14005c6be5
County Sheriff
41
False
Who polices incorporated areas of Tennessee's counties?
572ca974dfb02c14005c6be6
Municipal Police Departments
70
False
What proportion of Tennessee counties recognize their Sheriff as their head law enforcement official?
572ca974dfb02c14005c6be7
94 of the 95
179
False
Local law enforcement is divided between County Sheriff's Offices and Municipal Police Departments. Tennessee's Constitution requires that each County have an elected Sheriff. In 94 of the 95 counties the Sheriff is the chief law enforcement officer in the county and has jurisdiction over the county as a whole. Each Sheriff's Office is responsible for warrant service, court security, jail operations and primary law enforcement in the unincorporated areas of a county as well as providing support to the municipal police departments. Incorporated municipalities are required to maintain a police department to provide police services within their corporate limits.
What method did Tennessee use for capital punishment before 1913?
572caa632babe914003c29ae
hanging
118
False
In which year was electrocution introduced as Tennessee's method of execution?
572caa632babe914003c29af
1916
206
False
How many prisoners did Tennessee execute between 1916 and 1960?
572caa632babe914003c29b0
125
593
False
How many inmates has Tennessee executed since 2000?
572caa632babe914003c29b1
six
711
False
How many death row inmates were awaiting executing in Tennessee in April 2015?
572caa632babe914003c29b2
73
733
False
Capital punishment has existed in Tennessee at various times since statehood. Before 1913 the method of execution was hanging. From 1913 to 1915 there was a hiatus on executions but they were reinstated in 1916 when electrocution became the new method. From 1972 to 1978, after the Supreme Court ruled (Furman v. Georgia) capital punishment unconstitutional, there were no further executions. Capital punishment was restarted in 1978, although those prisoners awaiting execution between 1960 and 1978 had their sentences mostly commuted to life in prison. From 1916 to 1960 the state executed 125 inmates. For a variety of reasons there were no further executions until 2000. Since 2000, Tennessee has executed six prisoners and has 73 prisoners on death row (as of April 2015).
What is the nickname of the University of Tennessee, Knoxville athletic teams?
572cabbb2babe914003c29b8
Volunteers
28
False
In which year did the University of Tennessee begin competing in the Southeastern Conference of the NCAA?
572cabbb2babe914003c29b9
1932
148
False
How many college football bowl championships have the Tennessee Volunteers won?
572cabbb2babe914003c29ba
25
205
False
What is the farthest the Tennessee Volunteers have progressed in the NCAA men's basketball tournament?
572cabbb2babe914003c29bb
Elite Eight
386
False
How many national titles has the Tennessee Volunteers women's basketball team claimed?
572cabbb2babe914003c29bc
8
518
False
In Knoxville, the Tennessee Volunteers college team has played in the Southeastern Conference of the National Collegiate Athletic Association since 1932. The football team has won 13 SEC championships and 25 bowls, including four Sugar Bowls, three Cotton Bowls, an Orange Bowl and a Fiesta Bowl. Meanwhile, the men's basketball team has won four SEC championships and reached the NCAA Elite Eight in 2010. In addition, the women's basketball team has won a host of SEC regular-season and tournament titles along with 8 national titles.
Post-punk
When did post-punk arrive on the scene?
572d0faa2babe914003c29c3
in the wake of the punk movement of the 1970s
61
False
What did post-punk artists use in their music?
572d0faa2babe914003c29c4
critical theory, cinema, performance art and modernist literature
614
False
What began to spring up around the post-punk music?
572d0faa2babe914003c29c5
independent record labels and fanzines
789
False
How did post-punk take on rock and roll?
572d0faa2babe914003c29c6
conceptual assault
310
False
When was the original punk movement?
572e5cc5c246551400ce4218
1970s
101
False
What is a name for a type of rock music that is extremely varied in sound?
572e5cc5c246551400ce4219
Post-punk
0
False
What elements of punk rock did post-punk depart from?
572e5cc5c246551400ce421a
musical conventions and wider cultural affiliations
180
False
What subject matter does post-punk commonly mesh its musical sensibilities with?
572e5cc5c246551400ce421b
art and politics
551
False
What developed along with the music developments of post-punk?
572e5cc5c246551400ce421c
subcultures
726
False
Post-punk
0
What type of music developed from rock music?
5a26c931c93d92001a400379
True
rock tradition
333
What tradition did post-punk embrace?
5a26c931c93d92001a40037a
True
punk rock
145
What music conventions did post-punk draw insperation from?
5a26c931c93d92001a40037b
True
electronic music, black dance styles and the avant-garde, as well as novel recording technology and production techniques
366
What did Punk artist embrace?
5a26c931c93d92001a40037c
True
conceptual assault
310
How did Post-Punk take on Punk music?
5a26c931c93d92001a40037d
True
musical conventions and wider cultural affiliations
180
What elements of punk rock did post-punk have in common?
5a282887d1a287001a6d0a98
True
in the wake of the punk movement of the 1970s
61
When did the popularity of post-punk end?
5a282887d1a287001a6d0a99
True
independent record labels and fanzines
789
What did punk music have that wasn't included in post-punk music?
5a282887d1a287001a6d0a9a
True
Post-punk
0
What type of rock music has no variation in sound?
5a282887d1a287001a6d0a9b
True
art and politics
551
What subject matter is avoided in post-punk music?
5a282887d1a287001a6d0a9c
True
Post-punk is a heterogeneous type of rock music that emerged in the wake of the punk movement of the 1970s. Drawing inspiration from elements of punk rock while departing from its musical conventions and wider cultural affiliations, post-punk music was marked by varied, experimentalist sensibilities and its "conceptual assault" on rock tradition. Artists embraced electronic music, black dance styles and the avant-garde, as well as novel recording technology and production techniques. The movement also saw the frequent intersection of music with art and politics, as artists liberally drew on sources such as critical theory, cinema, performance art and modernist literature. Accompanying these musical developments were subcultures that produced visual art, multimedia performances, independent record labels and fanzines in conjunction with the music.
Who coined the term post-punk?
572d10fadfb02c14005c6c27
journalists in the late 1970s
39
False
What dis the new term, post-punk, cover?
572d10fadfb02c14005c6c28
groups moving beyond punk's sonic template into disparate areas
81
False
What inspired early post-punk artists?
572d10fadfb02c14005c6c29
punk's DIY ethic and energy
191
False
Why did post-punk fall out of love with punk?
572d10fadfb02c14005c6c2a
commercial formula, rock convention and self-parody
313
False
What did the new post-punk artists believe?
572d10fadfb02c14005c6c2b
"radical content demands radical form"
882
False
Who were the first to use the term "post-punk"?
572e5dabcb0c0d14000f1188
journalists
39
False
When was "post-punk" first used to start describing artists?
572e5dabcb0c0d14000f1189
late 1970s
58
False
What were many post-punk artists originally inspired by?
572e5dabcb0c0d14000f118a
punk's DIY ethic and energy
191
False
How many chords did standard punk songs typically use?
572e5dabcb0c0d14000f118b
three
732
False
What did post-punk artists feel there was an imperative to constantly do?
572e5dabcb0c0d14000f118c
change
858
False
journalists in the late 1970s
39
Who was falsely rumored to have coined the term post-punk?
5a2829d6d1a287001a6d0aa2
True
punk's DIY ethic and energy
191
Why were the artists not initially inspired?
5a2829d6d1a287001a6d0aa3
True
three
732
How many chords are never used in punk music?
5a2829d6d1a287001a6d0aa4
True
change
858
What did post-punk artists have difficulty with supporting?
5a2829d6d1a287001a6d0aa5
True
in the late 1970s
51
When was the term punk first used?
5a2829d6d1a287001a6d0aa6
True
The term "post-punk" was first used by journalists in the late 1970s to describe groups moving beyond punk's sonic template into disparate areas. Many of these artists, initially inspired by punk's DIY ethic and energy, ultimately became disillusioned with the style and movement, feeling that it had fallen into commercial formula, rock convention and self-parody. They repudiated its populist claims to accessibility and raw simplicity, instead seeing an opportunity to break with musical tradition, subvert commonplaces and challenge audiences. Artists moved beyonds punk's focus on the concerns of a largely white, male, working class population and abandoned its continued reliance on established rock and roll tropes, such as three-chord progressions and Chuck Berry-based guitar riffs. These artists instead defined punk as "an imperative to constant change", believing that "radical content demands radical form".
What were the things that post-punk really got into?
572d31bfb297151900c7ce85
experimentation with production techniques
247
False
What are non-rock styles that post-punk used as inspiration?
572d31bfb297151900c7ce86
dub, electronic music, disco, noise, jazz, krautrock, world music and the avant-garde
326
False
What aesthetic did Matthew Bannister associate with post-punk?
572d31bfb297151900c7ce87
avant-garde
1078
False
What music did post-punk end to reject?
572d31bfb297151900c7ce88
high cultural references of 1960s rock artists
883
False
As a movement, post-punk has been characterized by its conceptual assault on what conventions?
572e64b9c246551400ce4222
rock
137
False
What does post-punk reject any of which are perceived as being traditionalist, hegemonic, or rockist?
572e64b9c246551400ce4223
aesthetics
171
False
What is one of the foundational aspects post-punk is deeply favorable towards?
572e64b9c246551400ce4224
experimentation
247
False
How did post-punk artists once again approach the studio?
572e64b9c246551400ce4225
as an instrument
732
False
What references did post-punk artists specifically reject of the 1960s rock artists?
572e64b9c246551400ce4226
high cultural
883
False
post-punk movement
64
What movement was characterized by its "conceptualassult" on punk conventions?
5a26db54c93d92001a400383
True
dub, electronic music, disco, noise, jazz, krautrock, world music and the avant-garde
326
What are rock styles that post-punk used for insperation?
5a26db54c93d92001a400384
True
avant-garde
1078
What aesthetic did Mathew Bannister associate with punk?
5a26db54c93d92001a400385
True
high cultural references
883
What did punk asrtist embrace from 1960's rock?
5a26db54c93d92001a400386
True
particular brands of glam, art rock and "[the] dark undercurrent of '60s music".
581
What music styles where rejected by post-punk?
5a26db54c93d92001a400387
True
experimentation with production techniques
247
What was something nobody in post-punk focused on?
5a282b0cd1a287001a6d0aac
True
avant-garde
400
What aesthetic did Matthew Bannister not associate with post-punk?
5a282b0cd1a287001a6d0aad
True
high cultural references of 1960s rock artists
883
What did post-punk artists support most?
5a282b0cd1a287001a6d0aae
True
rock
996
What type of music did post-punk inspire most?
5a282b0cd1a287001a6d0aaf
True
Though the music varied widely between regions and artists, the post-punk movement has been characterized by its "conceptual assault" on rock conventions and rejection of aesthetics perceived of as traditionalist, hegemonic or rockist in favor of experimentation with production techniques and non-rock musical styles such as dub, electronic music, disco, noise, jazz, krautrock, world music and the avant-garde. While post-punk musicians often avoided or intentionally obscured conventional influences, previous musical styles did serve as touchstones for the movement, including particular brands of glam, art rock and "[the] dark undercurrent of '60s music".[nb 1] According to Reynolds, artists once again approached the studio as an instrument, using new recording methods and pursuing novel sonic territories. Author Matthew Bannister wrote that post-punk artists rejected the high cultural references of 1960s rock artists like the Beatles and Bob Dylan as well as paradigms that defined "rock as progressive, as art, as 'sterile' studio perfectionism ... by adopting an avant-garde aesthetic".
How did Nicholas Lezard describe post-punk?
572d333e8351f81400e9d373
fusion of art and music
42
False
Which artists were influential in post-punk?
572d333e8351f81400e9d374
Captain Beefheart and David Bowie
380
False
Which writers helped to influence the post-punk movement?
572d333e8351f81400e9d375
William S. Burroughs and J.G. Ballard
493
False
What was an intellectual focus of post-punk?
572d333e8351f81400e9d376
postmodernism
627
False
How did the post-punk movement feel about big business?
572d333e8351f81400e9d377
anti-corporatist
1006
False
What was Nicholas Lezard's description of post-punk?
572e6570dfa6aa1500f8cff9
"a fusion of art and music"
39
False
Where did post-punk ram its appropriation of ideas into?
572e6570dfa6aa1500f8cffa
musical and pop cultural contexts
190
False
What tradition could be found in works by Captain Beefheart and David Bowie?
572e6570dfa6aa1500f8cffb
art school
322
False
What intellectual movement informed and influenced a variety of post-punk artists?
572e6570dfa6aa1500f8cffc
postmodernism
627
False
Why did many post-punk artists produce and release their own music?
572e6570dfa6aa1500f8cffd
anti-corporatist
1006
False
"a fusion of art and music".
39
What does L.G Ballard describes post-punk  as?
5a26f3c9c93d92001a40038d
True
high and low culture
281
What did artists want to make a distinction between?
5a26f3c9c93d92001a40038e
True
literature, art, cinema, philosophy, politics and critical theory
119
What disciplines appropriated ideas from post-punk?
5a26f3c9c93d92001a40038f
True
William S. Burroughs and J.G. Ballard
493
What writers were influenced by the post-punk movement?
5a26f3c9c93d92001a400390
True
post-punk
974
What culture did journalists not participate in?
5a26f3c9c93d92001a400391
True
a fusion of art and music
40
How did Nicholas Lezard  refuse to describe post-punk?
5a282c07d1a287001a6d0ab4
True
Captain Beefheart and David Bowie
380
Which artists did not influence post-punk?
5a282c07d1a287001a6d0ab5
True
postmodernism
627
What was not an intellectual focus of post-punk?
5a282c07d1a287001a6d0ab6
True
anti-corporatist
1006
Why did post-punk artists never produce and release their own music?
5a282c07d1a287001a6d0ab7
True
Journalists
1117
Who was not an important element of the culture?
5a282c07d1a287001a6d0ab8
True
Nicholas Lezard described post-punk as "a fusion of art and music". The era saw the robust appropriation of ideas from literature, art, cinema, philosophy, politics and critical theory into musical and pop cultural contexts. Artists sought to refuse the common distinction between high and low culture and returned to the art school tradition found in the work of artists such as Captain Beefheart and David Bowie. Among major influences on a variety of post-punk artists were writers such as William S. Burroughs and J.G. Ballard, avant-garde political scenes such as Situationism and Dada, and intellectual movements such as postmodernism. Many artists viewed their work in explicitly political terms. Additionally, in some locations, the creation of post-punk music was closely linked to the development of efficacious subcultures, which played important roles in the production of art, multimedia performances, fanzines and independent labels related to the music. Many post-punk artists maintained an anti-corporatist approach to recording and instead seized on alternate means of producing and releasing music. Journalists also became an important element of the culture, and popular music magazines and critics became immersed in the movement.
Who described post-punk as "a more adventurous and arty form of punk"?
572d388fb0a7fe1900521136
Stephen Thomas Erlewine
106
False
Who described post-punk as  "less a genre of music than a space of possibility"?
572d388fb0a7fe1900521137
Simon Reynolds
375
False
Who said "so multifarious that only the broadest use of the term is possible" with regards to post-punk?
572d388fb0a7fe1900521138
Nicholas Lezard
669
False
Who does music critic Stephen Thomas Erlewine work for?
572d388fb0a7fe1900521139
AllMusic
95
False
What as the blanket term "post-punk" been the target of?
572e6ada03f9891900756685
controversy
54
False
What organization is Stephen Thomas Erlewine associated with?
572e6ada03f9891900756686
AllMusic
95
False
What have some people suggested post-punk doesn't have, instead being more about approaches and sensibilities?
572e6ada03f9891900756687
unifying style
320
False
Why type of scholar is music journalist Simon Reynolds?
572e6ada03f9891900756688
post-punk
357
False
Why is only the broadest use of genre possible when trying to categorize what actually defines post-punk?
572e6ada03f9891900756689
multifarious
775
False
AllMusic's Stephen Thomas Erlewine
95
Who described post-punk as "a less adventutous and arty form of punk"
5a26f814c93d92001a400397
True
a space of possibility
463
What did Nicholas Lezard say post-punk was more of?
5a26f814c93d92001a400398
True
post-punk
357
What did Simon Reynold describe as multifarious?
5a26f814c93d92001a400399
True
AllMusic's
95
Who does the music critic Nicholas Lezard work for?
5a26f814c93d92001a40039a
True
post-punk
357
What is Stephen Thomas Erlwine a scholar of?
5a26f814c93d92001a40039b
True
controversy
54
What has the term "post-punk" never been the focus of?
5a282d43d1a287001a6d0abe
True
Stephen Thomas Erlewine
106
Who never employed the term "post-punk"?
5a282d43d1a287001a6d0abf
True
Simon Reynolds
375
Who suggested that post-punk be conceived as "more a genre of music than a space of possibility"?
5a282d43d1a287001a6d0ac0
True
Nicholas Lezard
669
Who never cared about the categorization of post-punk as a genre?
5a282d43d1a287001a6d0ac1
True
The scope of the term "post-punk" has been subject to controversy. While some critics, such as AllMusic's Stephen Thomas Erlewine, have employed the term "post-punk" to denote "a more adventurous and arty form of punk", others have suggested it pertains to a set of artistic sensibilities and approaches rather than any unifying style. Music journalist and post-punk scholar Simon Reynolds has advocated that post-punk be conceived as "less a genre of music than a space of possibility", suggesting that "what unites all this activity is a set of open-ended imperatives: innovation; willful oddness; the willful jettisoning of all things precedented or 'rock'n'roll'". Nicholas Lezard, problematizing the categorization of post-punk as a genre, described the movement as "so multifarious that only the broadest use of the term is possible".
What is post-punk?
572d3b0d8351f81400e9d37d
music that emerged from the cultural milieu of punk rock in the late 1970s
41
False
What else was music incorrectly catagorized into before post-punk?
572d3b0d8351f81400e9d37e
new wave music
227
False
Why is the term post-punk sometimes disputed?
572d3b0d8351f81400e9d37f
various groups commonly labeled post-punk in fact predate the punk rock movement
412
False
What is the acctepted era of post-punk?
572d3b0d8351f81400e9d380
between 1978 and 1984
550
False
What previous movement is post-punk often identified as coming after?
572e6bacc246551400ce422c
punk rock
88
False
What were many groups now labeled as post-punk initially categorized as?
572e6bacc246551400ce422d
punk or new wave music
219
False
Why has the prefix 'post' caused a bit of dispute as it relates to various post-punk groups?
572e6bacc246551400ce422e
predate the punk rock movement
462
False
Who has defined a period of when the post-punk era was?
572e6bacc246551400ce422f
Reynolds
494
False
Between what years did Reynolds identify the post-punk era as existing?
572e6bacc246551400ce4230
1978 and 1984
558
False
punk rock
474
What do various groups say predated post punk?
5a270daac93d92001a4003a1
True
1978 and 1984.
558
Between what years did the punk movement occur?
5a270daac93d92001a4003a2
True
punk or new wave
219
What were groups categorized as post-punk later changed to?
5a270daac93d92001a4003a3
True
Reynolds
494
Who said the post punk era occurred in the 80s?
5a270daac93d92001a4003a4
True
music that emerged from the cultural milieu of punk rock in the late 1970s
41
What is post-punk not defined as?
5a282e9bd1a287001a6d0ac6
True
new wave music
227
What else was music correctly catagorized into before post-punk?
5a282e9bd1a287001a6d0ac7
True
1978 and 1984
558
Which years was the punk era between?
5a282e9bd1a287001a6d0ac8
True
"post"
383
Which prefix was never disputed?
5a282e9bd1a287001a6d0ac9
True
Generally, post-punk music is defined as music that emerged from the cultural milieu of punk rock in the late 1970s, although many groups now categorized as post-punk were initially subsumed under the broad umbrella of punk or new wave music, only becoming differentiated as the terms came to signify more narrow styles. Additionally, the accuracy of the term's chronological prefix "post" has been disputed, as various groups commonly labeled post-punk in fact predate the punk rock movement. Reynolds defined the post-punk era as occurring loosely between 1978 and 1984.
WHich independent music company was founded by Geoff Travis?
572d3ee8b297151900c7ce8d
Rough Trade
157
False
Who founded Factory?
572d3ee8b297151900c7ce8e
Tony Wilson
277
False
When did releasing music indepentently really hit popularity?
572d3ee8b297151900c7ce8f
1977
294
False
Who released Spiral Scratch on their own label?
572d3ee8b297151900c7ce90
Buzzcocks
417
False
When did the indoe music scene begin to grow?
572d3ee8b297151900c7ce91
mid-1980s
699
False
What did many entrepreneurs interested in their local punk-influenced music scenes found?
572e763cdfa6aa1500f8d003
independent record labels
120
False
Who founded the record label Rough Trade?
572e763cdfa6aa1500f8d004
Geoff Travis
199
False
Where was Tony Wilson's Factory based?
572e763cdfa6aa1500f8d005
Manchester
237
False
When did some groups start looking for methods to release their music themselves?
572e763cdfa6aa1500f8d006
1977
294
False
Whose label did the Buzzcocks release their Spiral Scratch EP on?
572e763cdfa6aa1500f8d007
their own
466
False
independent record labels
120
What was started by people interested in national punk influenced music?
5a270fb5c93d92001a4003a9
True
releasing music independently
343
What do group stop doing by 1977?
5a270fb5c93d92001a4003aa
True
indie music scene
653
What music scene developed in the 70s as a result of the postpunk DIY imperative?
5a270fb5c93d92001a4003ab
True
Manchester
237
Where was Geoff Travis's Factory based?
5a270fb5c93d92001a4003ac
True
Buzzcocks
417
Who released their Spiral Scratch EP on the Rough Trade label?
5a270fb5c93d92001a4003ad
True
1977
294
What year was independent music considered the least popular?
5a283015d1a287001a6d0ace
True
entrepreneurs
42
Who wasn't interested during the initial punk era?
5a283015d1a287001a6d0acf
True
the mid-1980s
695
When did the post-punk era first begin?
5a283015d1a287001a6d0ad0
True
Buzzcocks
417
Who never released music on their own label?
5a283015d1a287001a6d0ad1
True
Rough Trade
157
What record label was never independent?
5a283015d1a287001a6d0ad2
True
During the initial punk era, a variety of entrepreneurs interested in local punk-influenced music scenes began founding independent record labels, including Rough Trade (founded by record shop owner Geoff Travis) and Factory (founded by Manchester-based television personality Tony Wilson). By 1977, groups began pointedly pursuing methods of releasing music independently , an idea disseminated in particular by the Buzzcocks' release of their Spiral Scratch EP on their own label as well as the self-released 1977 singles of Desperate Bicycles. These DIY imperatives would help form the production and distribution infrastructure of post-punk and the indie music scene that later blossomed in the mid-1980s.
When did writers for Sounds first mention "post punk"?
572e83e003f9891900756701
late 1977
3
False
What did Wire do with sounds, lyrics and aesthetics which different a lot from their peers?
572e83e003f9891900756702
experimenting
168
False
What career path did Jon Savage take in life?
572e83e003f9891900756703
Writer
277
False
When did the Sex Pistols break up?
572e83e003f9891900756704
January 1978
440
False
Who was Siouxsie backed by?
572e83e003f9891900756705
the Banshees
135
False
What are examples of British bands termed post-punk?
572f5b9da23a5019007fc591
Siouxsie and the Banshees and Wire
122
False
Who connsidered post-punk "harsh urban scrapings [,] controlled white noise" and "massively accented drumming"?
572f5b9da23a5019007fc592
Jon Savage
284
False
Which band's lead singer was Johnny Rotten?
572f5b9da23a5019007fc593
Sex Pistols
557
False
What was Johnny Rotten's real name?
572f5b9da23a5019007fc594
John Lydon
461
False
When did the Sex Pistols break up?
572f5b9da23a5019007fc595
1978
448
False
"New Musick" and "post punk"
60
What term was first used in 1978 by writers for Sounds?
5a2711cac93d92001a4003b3
True
Siouxsie and the Banshees and Wire
122
Who used sounds and lyrics similar to their contemporaries in 1977?
5a2711cac93d92001a4003b4
True
as exploring "harsh urban scrapings [,] controlled white noise" and "massively accented drumming".
338
What did Sounds writers describeearly developments in mew wave music?
5a2711cac93d92001a4003b5
True
1978,
448
When did John Lydon anounce the break up of the Wire?
5a2711cac93d92001a4003b6
True
late 1977
3
When did music writers for Sounds last mention "post punk"?
5a283166d1a287001a6d0ad8
True
Writer
277
What career did Jon Savage avoid?
5a283166d1a287001a6d0ad9
True
January 1978
440
When did the Sex Pistols form?
5a283166d1a287001a6d0ada
True
Siouxsie and the Banshees and Wire
122
Which British acts never experimented with sounds?
5a283166d1a287001a6d0adb
True
Sex Pistols
557
What was seen as one of the least successful punk bands?
5a283166d1a287001a6d0adc
True
In late 1977, music writers for Sounds first used the terms "New Musick" and "post punk" to describe British acts such as Siouxsie and the Banshees and Wire, who began experimenting with sounds, lyrics and aesthetics that differed significantly from their punk contemporaries. Writer Jon Savage described some of these early developments as exploring "harsh urban scrapings [,] controlled white noise" and "massively accented drumming". In January 1978, singer John Lydon (then known as Johnny Rotten) announced the break-up of his pioneering punk band the Sex Pistols, citing his disillusionment with punk's musical predictability and cooption by commercial interests, as well as his desire to explore more diverse interests.
When the punk movement started shrinking, what began to fill the void left by their demise?
572e8aaec246551400ce4316
vibrant new scenes
39
False
What territory did the post-punk bands pursue in their works?
572e8aaec246551400ce4317
wider conceptual
135
False
What nationality's music magazines had an influential part of post-punk culture?
572e8aaec246551400ce4318
British
307
False
What professional is Ian Penman known from?
572e8aaec246551400ce4319
writers
431
False
What kind of background did many of the initial post-punk artists have?
572e8aaec246551400ce431a
art
222
False
Who were well known authors covering the post-punk era?
572f8332a23a5019007fc6b7
Jon Savage, Paul Morley and Ian Penman
444
False
What were popular post-punk culture media sources?
572f8332a23a5019007fc6b8
NME and Sounds
346
False
What were the bands coming in on the heels of post-punk beginning to sound like?
572f8332a23a5019007fc6b9
experimental sounds and wider conceptual territory
111
False
What was a common background of post-punk musicians?
572f8332a23a5019007fc6ba
backgrounds in art
207
False
What was a common theme to post-punk music?
572f8332a23a5019007fc6bb
political or aesthetic agendas
275
False
vibrant new scenes began to coalesce out of a variety of bands pursuing experimental sounds and wider conceptual territory in their work
39
What happened as the pot-punk movement dwindled?
5a271331c93d92001a4003bb
True
post-punk culture
407
What did American music magazines have an influence on? See later
5a271331c93d92001a4003bc
True
art
222
What fueled the many postpunk artists go into?
5a271331c93d92001a4003bd
True
Jon Savage, Paul Morley and Ian Penman
444
What American writers developed a dense style of criticism?
5a271331c93d92001a4003be
True
vibrant new scenes
39
What caused the punk movement to increase in popularity?
5a284c0fd1a287001a6d0b18
True
writers
431
What career did Paul Morley avoid?
5a284c0fd1a287001a6d0b19
True
British
307
What nationality's music magazines did not have an influential part of post-punk culture?
5a284c0fd1a287001a6d0b1a
True
critical theory, radical politics and an eclectic variety of other sources
554
What styles of criticism were not used by writers?
5a284c0fd1a287001a6d0b1b
True
As the initial punk movement dwindled, vibrant new scenes began to coalesce out of a variety of bands pursuing experimental sounds and wider conceptual territory in their work. Many of these artists drew on backgrounds in art and viewed their music as invested in particular political or aesthetic agendas. British music publications such as the NME and Sounds developed an influential part in this nascent post-punk culture, with writers like Jon Savage, Paul Morley and Ian Penman developing a dense (and often playful) style of criticism that drew on critical theory, radical politics and an eclectic variety of other sources.
Who was responsible for disbanding the Sex Pistols?
572e90dccb0c0d14000f12b2
Lydon
36
False
What group declared itself to be anti-music of any kind?
572e90dccb0c0d14000f12b3
Public Image Ltd
72
False
Where did Joy Division hail from?
572e90dccb0c0d14000f12b4
Manchester
319
False
What type of literature contributed to Joy Division's unique style?
572e90dccb0c0d14000f12b5
modernist
483
False
What end of the political spectrum was the political philosophy of Gang of Four?
572e90dccb0c0d14000f12b6
Leftist
576
False
What band did Johnny Rotten form after the Sex Pistols?
572f6195947a6a140053c8fe
Public Image Ltd
72
False
What kind of group was Public Image Ltd?
572f6195947a6a140053c8ff
"anti music of any kind"
120
False
Which bands combined way left politics with art school studies?
572f6195947a6a140053c900
Scritti Politti, Gang of Four and This Heat
519
False
What are some British post-punk bands from Manchester?
572f6195947a6a140053c901
Joy Division, The Fall and A Certain Ratio
343
False
Which post-punk bands began to branch off into things like dub and dance music?
572f6195947a6a140053c902
Pop Group and the Slits
186
False
Public Image Ltd
72
What group did Lyndon start before the sex pistols?
5a271419c93d92001a4003c3
True
"anti music of any kind"
120
What the public image declare their music to be?
5a271419c93d92001a4003c4
True
modernist literature
483
What type of literature contributed to the sex pistol style?
5a271419c93d92001a4003c5
True
Leftist
576
What end of the political spectrum was Joy division's political philosophy one?
5a271419c93d92001a4003c6
True
Public Image Ltd
72
Which group supported music the most during this time?
5a284d38d1a287001a6d0b2a
True
the Pop Group and the Slits
182
Which groups refused to experiment in music?
5a284d38d1a287001a6d0b2b
True
Bands such as Scritti Politti, Gang of Four and This Heat
505
Which groups ignored Leftist political philosophy?
5a284d38d1a287001a6d0b2c
True
Sex Pistols
23
What band was formed after Public Image Ltd?
5a284d38d1a287001a6d0b2d
True
Weeks after ending the Sex Pistols, Lydon formed the experimental group Public Image Ltd and declared the project to be "anti music of any kind". Public Image and other acts such as the Pop Group and the Slits had begun experimenting with dance music, dub production techniques and the avant-garde, while punk-indebted Manchester acts such as Joy Division, The Fall and A Certain Ratio developed unique styles which drew on a similarly disparate range of influences across music and modernist literature. Bands such as Scritti Politti, Gang of Four and This Heat incorporated Leftist political philosophy and their own art school studies in their work.
What type of production techniques did Dennis Bovell develop?
572e918dcb0c0d14000f12c6
innovative
4
False
What type of producer was Martin Hannett?
572e918dcb0c0d14000f12c7
post-punk
48
False
What took a central roll for the emerging post-punk music?
572e918dcb0c0d14000f12c8
studio experimentation
190
False
What eventually resulted in the pioneering of industrial music?
572e918dcb0c0d14000f12c9
crude production techniques
342
False
Whose independent label became a hub for the industrial scene?
572e918dcb0c0d14000f12ca
Throbbing Gristle's
529
False
Who were producers that led the way with emerging the post-punk culture?
572f6326947a6a140053c912
Martin Hannett and Dennis Bovell
76
False
Which bands were on the forefront of industrial music?
572f6326947a6a140053c913
Cabaret Voltaire and Throbbing Gristle
284
False
What was the name of Throbbing Gristle's record label?
572f6326947a6a140053c914
Industrial Records
567
False
Where did industrial music get it's name?
572f6326947a6a140053c915
Industrial Records
567
False
What was one of the most important ways that post-punk artists created their new sound?
572f6326947a6a140053c916
studio experimentation
190
False
Martin Hannett and Dennis Bovell
76
Who avoided post-punk production?
5a284dfad1a287001a6d0b3a
True
Cabaret Voltaire and Throbbing Gristle
284
Who did not predate punk?
5a284dfad1a287001a6d0b3b
True
Cabaret Voltaire and Throbbing Gristle
284
Who did not help to pioneer industrial music?
5a284dfad1a287001a6d0b3c
True
Industrial Records
567
What label avoided this scene?
5a284dfad1a287001a6d0b3d
True
The innovative production techniques devised by post-punk producers such as Martin Hannett and Dennis Bovell during this period would become an important element of the emerging music, with studio experimentation taking a central role. A variety of groups that predated punk, such as Cabaret Voltaire and Throbbing Gristle, experimented with crude production techniques and electronic instruments in tandem with performance art methods and influence from transgressive literature, ultimately helping to pioneer industrial music. Throbbing Gristle's independent label Industrial Records would become a hub for this scene and provide it with its namesake.
What nationality began birthing groups who expanded the vocabulary of punk music?
572e956cc246551400ce4386
American
26
False
From what region did the group Devo originate?
572e956cc246551400ce4387
Midwestern
181
False
Where was the band Talking Heads based out of?
572e956cc246551400ce4388
New York
483
False
Who did the Talking Heads begin a series of collaborations with in 1978?
572e956cc246551400ce4389
Brian Eno
716
False
What region's post-punk scene incorporated ideas from Theater of Cruelty?
572e956cc246551400ce438a
San Francisco's
820
False
When did the American groups begin to really get in on the post-punk movement?
572f64e9947a6a140053c91c
mid 1970s
7
False
Which American bands had ties to the Manchester punk scene?
572f64e9947a6a140053c91d
Television and Suicide
104
False
What were some Midwestern punk bands?
572f64e9947a6a140053c91e
Pere Ubu and Devo
207
False
What did Pere and Devo draw inspiration for their music from?
572f64e9947a6a140053c91f
derelict industrial environments
260
False
What were groups in San Francisco's post-punk scene?
572f64e9947a6a140053c920
Chrome, the Residents and Tuxedomoon
895
False
American
26
What groups were not interested in the punk scene?
5a284f28d1a287001a6d0b42
True
derelict industrial environments
260
Which environments were not inspirational to music?
5a284f28d1a287001a6d0b43
True
art school sensibilities
578
What elements were never combined with punk?
5a284f28d1a287001a6d0b44
True
1978
607
What year was the least influential for post-punk?
5a284f28d1a287001a6d0b45
True
In the mid 1970s, various American groups (some with ties to Downtown Manhattan's punk scene, including Television and Suicide) had begun expanding on the vocabulary of punk music. Midwestern groups such as Pere Ubu and Devo drew inspiration from the region's derelict industrial environments, employing conceptual art techniques, musique concrète and unconventional verbal styles that would presage the post-punk movement by several years. A variety of subsequent groups, including New York-based Talking Heads and Boston-based Mission of Burma, combined elements of punk with art school sensibilities. In 1978, the former band began a series of collaborations with British ambient pioneer and ex-Roxy Music member Brian Eno, experimenting with Dada-influenced lyrical techniques, dance music, and African polyrhythms. San Francisco's vibrant post-punk scene was centered around such groups as Chrome, the Residents and Tuxedomoon, who incorporated multimedia experimentation, film and ideas from Antonin Artaud's Theater of Cruelty.
What type of worldview did New York's no wave movement tend to have?
572e963703f98919007567f7
nihilistic
241
False
The Contortions, Teenage Jesus and the Jerks were all musicians part of what movement?
572e963703f98919007567f8
No wave
263
False
Who produced the compilation "No New York"?
572e963703f98919007567f9
Eno
515
False
What no wave-affiliated label was founded in 1978?
572e963703f98919007567fa
ZE Records
642
False
In addition to non-rock styles, what did some of the no-wave groups experiment with sonically?
572e963703f98919007567fb
noise, dissonance and atonality
407
False
What was no wave?
572f781404bcaa1900d769b5
a short-lived art and music scene that began in part as a reaction against punk's recycling of traditionalist rock tropes
66
False
What type of a view did no wave have?
572f781404bcaa1900d769b6
an abrasive, confrontational and nihilistic
208
False
What types of musicians were the Contortions, Teenage Jesus and the Jerks, Mars, DNA, Theoretical Girls and Rhys Chatham?
572f781404bcaa1900d769b7
No wave
263
False
When was ZE Records founded?
572f781404bcaa1900d769b8
1978
668
False
What was considered the true portrait of the no wave movement?
572f781404bcaa1900d769b9
No New York
528
False
the Contortions, Teenage Jesus and the Jerks, Mars, DNA, Theoretical Girls and Rhys Chatham
289
What musicians avoided no wave?
5a284fffd1a287001a6d0b54
True
1978
668
In what year did ZE Records end production?
5a284fffd1a287001a6d0b55
True
New York
37
What states were considered the least influential for the no wave movement?
5a284fffd1a287001a6d0b56
True
the Contortions, Teenage Jesus and the Jerks, Mars, DNA, Theoretical Girls and Rhys Chatham
289
What musicians refused to experiment with their style?
5a284fffd1a287001a6d0b57
True
Also emerging during this period was New York's no wave movement, a short-lived art and music scene that began in part as a reaction against punk's recycling of traditionalist rock tropes and often reflected an abrasive, confrontational and nihilistic worldview. No wave musicians such as the Contortions, Teenage Jesus and the Jerks, Mars, DNA, Theoretical Girls and Rhys Chatham instead experimented with noise, dissonance and atonality in addition to non-rock styles. The former four groups were included on the Eno-produced No New York compilation, often considered the quintessential testament to the scene. The no wave-affiliated label ZE Records was founded in 1978, and would also produce acclaimed and influential compilations in subsequent years.
How did critics respond to British post-punk groups in the 1980s?
572e97b4c246551400ce43a0
support
41
False
What nationality was the critic who positively characterized Britain's postpunk scene in an 1980 Rolling Stone article?
572e97b4c246551400ce43a1
American
88
False
What about the sense of paradox in postpunk different in relation to the pop music of the day?
572e97b4c246551400ce43a2
unique
262
False
What corporation was John Peel a DJ for?
572e97b4c246551400ce43a3
BBC
328
False
What were Fast, Mute, and Glass in the context of post-punk music?
572e97b4c246551400ce43a4
record labels
469
False
When did British post-punk emerge?
572f7951a23a5019007fc65f
1980s
30
False
Who said that British post-punk was "sparked by a tension, humour and sense of paradox plainly unique in present day pop music"?
572f7951a23a5019007fc660
Greil Marcus
104
False
What popular DJ supported the emergence of British post-punk?
572f7951a23a5019007fc661
BBC DJ John Peel
328
False
What British post-punk bands had success in the popular charts?
572f7951a23a5019007fc662
PiL and Joy Division
376
False
Which record labels really supported the British post-punk movement?
572f7951a23a5019007fc663
Industrial, Fast, E.G., Mute, Axis/4AD and Glass
497
False
the 1980s
26
When did post-punk not get the support it needed?
5a285122d1a287001a6d0b5c
True
PiL and Joy Division
376
Which groups didn't find success?
5a285122d1a287001a6d0b5d
True
Industrial, Fast, E.G., Mute, Axis/4AD and Glass
497
What record labels were not supportive?
5a285122d1a287001a6d0b5e
True
the Raincoats, Essential Logic, Killing Joke, the Teardrop Explodes, and the Psychedelic Furs
614
What artists never had record labels?
5a285122d1a287001a6d0b5f
True
British post-punk entered the 1980s with support from members of the critical community—American critic Greil Marcus characterised "Britain's postpunk pop avant-garde" in a 1980 Rolling Stone article as "sparked by a tension, humour and sense of paradox plainly unique in present day pop music"—as well as media figures such as BBC DJ John Peel, while several groups, such as PiL and Joy Division, achieved some success in the popular charts. The network of supportive record labels that included Industrial, Fast, E.G., Mute, Axis/4AD and Glass continued to facilitate a large output of music, by artists such as the Raincoats, Essential Logic, Killing Joke, the Teardrop Explodes, and the Psychedelic Furs.
Many of the big players in the post-punk scene began leaning away from what as time progressed?
572e98d103f989190075681b
underground aesthetics
92
False
What did the magazines catering to post-punk interest do to alienate their readers?
572e98d103f989190075681c
increasingly esoteric writing
140
False
Which magazine tied to the post-punk movement lost half of its circulation?
572e98d103f989190075681d
NME
281
False
What writer advocated "overground brightness"?
572e98d103f989190075681e
Paul Morley
341
False
What did the club-oriented scene emphasize instead of the experimental seriousness of earlier post-punk groups?
572e98d103f989190075681f
glamour, fashion, and escapism
912
False
What did authors and artists begin advocating for instead of the underground scene?
572f7a7704bcaa1900d769db
overground brightness
371
False
What began to alienate the readers from publications such as NME?
572f7a7704bcaa1900d769dc
increasingly esoteric writing
140
False
Who did Paul Morley collaborate with on the Art of Noise?
572f7a7704bcaa1900d769dd
engineer Gary Langan and programmer J. J. Jeczalik
501
False
What did the Art of Noise hope to accomplish?
572f7a7704bcaa1900d769de
attempt to bring sampled and electronic sounds to the pop mainstream
577
False
Which new cultural movement began to emphasize glam, escapism and fashion?
572f7a7704bcaa1900d769df
New Romantic
868
False
engineer Gary Langan and programmer J. J. Jeczalik
501
Who did Morley not want to collaborate with?
5a285341d1a287001a6d0b6e
True
ABC, the Associates, Adam and the Ants and Bow Wow Wow
696
What groups were not pop-oriented?
5a285341d1a287001a6d0b6f
True
New Romantic
868
What scene did not emphasize fashion or glamour?
5a285341d1a287001a6d0b70
True
New Romantic
868
What scene was not club-oriented?
5a285341d1a287001a6d0b71
True
post-punk
173
What music genre never had writing publications?
5a285341d1a287001a6d0b72
True
However, during this period, major figures and artists in the scene began leaning away from underground aesthetics. In the music press, the increasingly esoteric writing of post-punk publications soon began to alienate their readerships; it is estimated that within several years, NME suffered the loss of half its circulation. Writers like Paul Morley began advocating "overground brightness" instead of the experimental sensibilities promoted in early years. Morley's own musical collaboration with engineer Gary Langan and programmer J. J. Jeczalik, the Art of Noise, would attempt to bring sampled and electronic sounds to the pop mainstream. A variety of more pop-oriented groups, including ABC, the Associates, Adam and the Ants and Bow Wow Wow (the latter two managed by former Sex Pistols manager Malcolm McLaren) emerged in tandem with the development of the New Romantic subcultural scene. Emphasizing glamour, fashion, and escapism in distinction to the experimental seriousness of earlier post-punk groups, the club-oriented scene drew some suspicion from denizens of the movement.
What style of music was Gary Numan associated with?
572ec73bdfa6aa1500f8d395
synthpop
99
False
What did the synthpop style of music benefit from the gaining popularity of?
572ec73bdfa6aa1500f8d396
MTV
206
False
Synthpop heavily borrowed elements from what type of music?
572ec73bdfa6aa1500f8d397
electronic and synthesizer music
142
False
What type of ideas did post-punk artists attempt to sneak into mainstream pop?
572ec73bdfa6aa1500f8d398
subversive
498
False
What did some post-punk artists reject their previous avant-garde practices to pursue?
572ec73bdfa6aa1500f8d399
commercial success
408
False
What new music style focused on electronic and synthesized sounds?
572f7b4104bcaa1900d769ef
synthpop
99
False
What really helped to launch synthpop?
572f7b4104bcaa1900d769f0
MTV
206
False
What else began to emerge as post-punk groups moved to a more commercial focus?
572f7b4104bcaa1900d769f1
pop
593
False
How did pos-punk give rise to pop?
572f7b4104bcaa1900d769f2
post-punk artists attempted to bring subversive ideas into the pop mainstream
461
False
synthpop
99
What music did not benefit from the rise of MTV?
5a2853ffd1a287001a6d0b82
True
Scritti Politti's Green Gartside and Josef K's Paul Haig
237
Which artists did not like post-punk?
5a2853ffd1a287001a6d0b83
True
post-punk
461
What group avoided subversive ideas?
5a2853ffd1a287001a6d0b84
True
new pop
589
What term was never marketed?
5a2853ffd1a287001a6d0b85
True
Artists such as Gary Numan, the Human League, Soft Cell, John Foxx and Visage helped pioneer a new synthpop style that drew more heavily from electronic and synthesizer music and benefited from the rise of MTV. Post-punk artists such as Scritti Politti's Green Gartside and Josef K's Paul Haig, previously engaged in avant-garde practices, turned away from these approaches and pursued mainstream styles and commercial success. These new developments, in which post-punk artists attempted to bring subversive ideas into the pop mainstream, began to be categorized under the marketing term new pop.
When did Manhattan's no wave scene start becoming more dance-oriented?
572ec84603f9891900756a11
early 1980s
7
False
What formula did a lot of the artists emerging from the scene adhere to?
572ec84603f9891900756a12
"anything at all + disco bottom"
501
False
What type of party could be found at venues like Club 57?
572ec84603f9891900756a13
decadent
539
False
Who did the venues because cultural hubs for?
572ec84603f9891900756a14
musicians and visual artists alike
647
False
What movement was the group the Lounge Lizards indebted to?
572ec84603f9891900756a15
no wave
787
False
What did Downtown Manhattan's no wave scene transition into?
572f7cef04bcaa1900d76a0b
dance-oriented sound
106
False
What type of sound did no wave have before it began to transition to a more dance oriented sound?
572f7cef04bcaa1900d76a0c
abrasive
77
False
When was ZE's Mutant Disco released?
572f7cef04bcaa1900d76a0d
1981
173
False
What clubs were frequented by artists in the emerging dance scene?
572f7cef04bcaa1900d76a0e
Club 57 and the Mudd Club
596
False
In the early 1980s
0
When did the no wave scene decide not to transition?
5a285510d1a287001a6d0b8a
True
Club 57 and the Mudd Club
596
Which venues avoided parties?
5a285510d1a287001a6d0b8b
True
Jean-Michel Basquiat, Keith Haring and Michael Holman
704
Who was rarely on the scene?
5a285510d1a287001a6d0b8c
True
Swans, Glenn Branca, the Lounge Lizards, Bush Tetras and Sonic Youth
819
What groups were not influenced by no wave?
5a285510d1a287001a6d0b8d
True
Swans, Glenn Branca, the Lounge Lizards, Bush Tetras and Sonic Youth
819
What groups enjoyed calm territory?
5a285510d1a287001a6d0b8e
True
In the early 1980s, Downtown Manhattan's no wave scene transitioned from its abrasive origins into a more dance-oriented sound, with compilations such as ZE's Mutant Disco (1981) highlighting a newly playful sensibility borne out of the city's clash of hip hop, disco and punk styles, as well as dub reggae and world music influences. Artists such as Liquid Liquid, the B-52s, Cristina, Arthur Russell, James White and the Blacks and Lizzy Mercier Descloux pursued a formula described by Luc Sante as "anything at all + disco bottom". The decadent parties and art installations of venues such as Club 57 and the Mudd Club became cultural hubs for musicians and visual artists alike, with figures such as Jean-Michel Basquiat, Keith Haring and Michael Holman frequenting the scene. Other no wave-indebted groups such as Swans, Glenn Branca, the Lounge Lizards, Bush Tetras and Sonic Youth instead continued exploring the early scene's forays into noise and more abrasive territory.
Where did some groups develop a unique style of industrial music?
572edc2edfa6aa1500f8d475
Germany
3
False
What type of music included noise, homemade instruments, and randomly found objects?
572edc2edfa6aa1500f8d476
industrial
78
False
What country had a post-punk scene after a generation of rock?
572edc2edfa6aa1500f8d477
Brazil
259
False
What type of album was The Sexual Life of the Savages?
572edc2edfa6aa1500f8d478
compilations
547
False
What countries other than Brazil was Brazil's no wave music exported to?
572edc2edfa6aa1500f8d479
UK, Germany
651
False
What type of music was associated with Einstürzende Neubauten?
572f7dba947a6a140053c9be
industrial
78
False
Where was Einstürzende Neubauten from?
572f7dba947a6a140053c9bf
Germany
3
False
Where was Madame Satã?
572f7dba947a6a140053c9c0
Brazil
259
False
How did Einstürzende Neubauten come up with their new industrial sound?
572f7dba947a6a140053c9c1
avant-garde noise, homemade instruments and found objects
106
False
Who did members of Einstürzende Neubauten also collaborate with?
572f7dba947a6a140053c9c2
the Birthday Party
236
False
Germany
3
Which country disliked utilization of avant-garde noise?
5a2855b7d1a287001a6d0b94
True
Einstürzende Neubauten
27
What groups never collaborated with members of the Birthday Party?
5a2855b7d1a287001a6d0b95
True
Brazil
259
Where did the post-punk scene shrink?
5a2855b7d1a287001a6d0b96
True
in the UK, Germany and Brazil
644
Where was industrial music never released?
5a2855b7d1a287001a6d0b97
True
In Germany, groups such as Einstürzende Neubauten developed a unique style of industrial music, utilizing avant-garde noise, homemade instruments and found objects. Members of that group would later go on to collaborate with members of the Birthday Party. In Brazil, the post-punk scene grew after the generation of Brasilia rock with bands such as Legião Urbana, Capital Inicial and Plebe Rude and then the opening of the music club Madame Satã in São Paulo, with acts like Cabine C, Titãs, Patife Band, Fellini and Mercenárias, as documented on compilations like The Sexual Life of the Savages and the Não Wave/Não São Paulo series, released in the UK, Germany and Brazil, respectively.[citation needed]
How did bands associated with the original post-punk movement cause it to end?
572ee1b1c246551400ce4762
turned away from its aesthetics
80
False
What type of music did many of the post-punk bands start indulging in?
572ee1b1c246551400ce4763
pop
220
False
What venue drove a lot of the awareness of the music from the now pop post-punk bands?
572ee1b1c246551400ce4764
MTV
308
False
Where was a lot of the post-punk pop bands played in addition to MTV?
572ee1b1c246551400ce4765
American college radio
562
False
What band combined religious imagery with political commentary into their music?
572ee1b1c246551400ce4766
U2
694
False
What was the death knell of the post-punk movement?
572f7ebda23a5019007fc68f
commercial sounds
136
False
What else would the post-punk bands record under?
572f7ebda23a5019007fc690
pop
220
False
What was one of the most popular concepts of the pop movement?
572f7ebda23a5019007fc691
entryism
239
False
What was a driving force behind the revival of the second British Invasion of New Music to America?
572f7ebda23a5019007fc692
MTV and modern rock radio stations
308
False
Who was the most successful band to arrise from post-punk?
572f7ebda23a5019007fc693
U2
694
False
its aesthetics
97
What did bands associated with post-punk never turn away from?
5a285dedd1a287001a6d0bc6
True
United States
283
Where was post-punk not driven by MTV or modern rock radio stations?
5a285dedd1a287001a6d0bc7
True
Gang of Four
517
Who decided not to shift their sound?
5a285dedd1a287001a6d0bc8
True
U2
694
Which bands were least successful during post-punk?
5a285dedd1a287001a6d0bc9
True
The original post-punk movement ended as the bands associated with the movement turned away from its aesthetics, often in favor of more commercial sounds. Many of these groups would continue recording as part of the new pop movement, with entryism becoming a popular concept. In the United States, driven by MTV and modern rock radio stations, a number of post-punk acts had an influence on or became part of the Second British Invasion of "New Music" there. Some shifted to a more commercial new wave sound (such as Gang of Four), while others were fixtures on American college radio and became early examples of alternative rock. Perhaps the most successful band to emerge from post-punk was U2, who combined elements of religious imagery together with political commentary into their often anthemic music.
How did most critical writing treat the post-punk era, until recently?
572ee666dfa6aa1500f8d4a3
dismissed
70
False
What do contemporary scholars feel the post-punk period contributed in hindsight?
572ee666dfa6aa1500f8d4a4
significant innovations and music
267
False
What did Simon Reynolds describe the era of post-punk as a match for in terms of great music created?
572ee666dfa6aa1500f8d4a5
the sixties
370
False
Who wrote that the music of the post-punk era was avant-garde?
572ee666dfa6aa1500f8d4a6
Nicholas Lezard
598
False
What were the post-punk era artists more interested in doing to their audiences than in entertaining them with pop songs?
572ee666dfa6aa1500f8d4a7
disturbing
848
False
What era was usually dismissed as merely an awkward phase of music?
572f80b8947a6a140053c9d2
post-punk
45
False
What do comtemporary scholars think that post-punk actually did for music?
572f80b8947a6a140053c9d3
produced significant innovations and music on its own
258
False
Who said that the post-punk movement rivaled the Sixties in the shear amount of great music produced?
572f80b8947a6a140053c9d4
Simon Reynolds
313
False
Which critic said that the post-punk period was open to any possibilities as far as music went?
572f80b8947a6a140053c9d5
Nicholas Lezard
598
False
What did Nicholas Leonard say united post-punk?
572f80b8947a6a140053c9d6
cerebral, concocted by brainy young men and women interested as much in disturbing the audience, or making them think, as in making a pop song
776
False
post-punk era
45
What musical period had no innovations?
5a285ea5d1a287001a6d0bce
True
Nicholas Lezard
598
Who didn't like to write about post-punk music?
5a285ea5d1a287001a6d0bcf
True
recently
6
When did post-punk music lose popularity to contemporary scholars?
5a285ea5d1a287001a6d0bd0
True
Simon Reynolds
313
Who never talked about the post-punk period?
5a285ea5d1a287001a6d0bd1
True
Until recently, in most critical writing the post-punk era was "often dismissed as an awkward period in which punk's gleeful ructions petered out into the vacuity of the Eighties". Contemporary scholars have argued to the contrary, asserting that the period produced significant innovations and music on its own. Simon Reynolds described the period as "a fair match for the sixties in terms of the sheer amount of great music created, the spirit of adventure and idealism that infused it, and the way that the music seemed inextricably connected to the political and social turbulence of its era". Nicholas Lezard wrote that the music of the period "was avant-garde, open to any musical possibilities that suggested themselves, united only in the sense that it was very often cerebral, concocted by brainy young men and women interested as much in disturbing the audience, or making them think, as in making a pop song".
What musical styles did post-punk help merge?
572ee720c246551400ce4792
white and black musical styles
105
False
What beginnings rose from the dead ashes of post-punk?
572ee720c246551400ce4793
various subsequent genres
188
False
New wave, industrial music, synthpop and house all share roots in what genre?
572ee720c246551400ce4794
post-punk
148
False
What style of music did post-punk band the Cure play in?
572ee720c246551400ce4795
darker, more morose
437
False
What genre of music did Joy Division help in the development of?
572ee720c246551400ce4796
gothic rock
512
False
Which type of eclectic music had a huge variety, large innovations and an "anything goes" mentality?
572f81ad947a6a140053c9dc
Post-punk
0
False
Which darker post-punk bands gave rise to gothic rock?
572f81ad947a6a140053c9dd
Joy Division, Siouxsie and the Banshees, Bauhaus and the Cure
363
False
Where did systhpop, industrial and neo-psychedelia music derive from?
572f81ad947a6a140053c9de
Post-punk
0
False
What type of music was gothic rock?
572f81ad947a6a140053c9df
darker, more morose style
437
False
What styles of music did post-punk pave the way for?
572f81ad947a6a140053c9e0
new wave, dance-rock, New Pop, industrial music, synthpop, post-hardcore, neo-psychedelia alternative rock and house music
225
False
Post-punk
0
What genre was not eclectic?
5a285f5bd1a287001a6d0bd6
True
Post-punk
0
What musical genre had limited variety of musical innovations?
5a285f5bd1a287001a6d0bd7
True
new wave, dance-rock, New Pop, industrial music, synthpop, post-hardcore, neo-psychedelia alternative rock and house music
225
Which genres were least influenced by post-punk?
5a285f5bd1a287001a6d0bd8
True
Joy Division, Siouxsie and the Banshees, Bauhaus and the Cure
363
Which bands had a lighter style of music?
5a285f5bd1a287001a6d0bd9
True
gothic
512
What kinds of rock genre were not influenced by post-punk?
5a285f5bd1a287001a6d0bda
True
Post-punk was an eclectic genre which resulted in a wide variety of musical innovations and helped merge white and black musical styles. Out of the post-punk milieu came the beginnings of various subsequent genres, including new wave, dance-rock, New Pop, industrial music, synthpop, post-hardcore, neo-psychedelia alternative rock and house music. Bands such as Joy Division, Siouxsie and the Banshees, Bauhaus and the Cure played in a darker, more morose style of post-punk that lead to the development of the gothic rock genre.
When did a post-punk revival start happening in England and the Colonies?
572ee844c246551400ce479c
turn of the 21st century
7
False
What early sign heralded the post-punk revival?
572ee844c246551400ce479d
emergence of various underground bands
212
False
When did some of the darker post-punk bands start to appear in the indie scene?
572ee844c246551400ce479e
the 2010s
603
False
The post-punk revival bands bring in a fanbase from what subculture?
572ee844c246551400ce479f
indie music
907
False
What band played music similar to that of the early British post-punk bands of the late '70s as recently as 2010?
572ee844c246551400ce47a0
Savages
999
False
When was the post-punk revival in British and American cultures?
572f82cc947a6a140053c9e6
turn of the 21st century
7
False
What was the earliest sign of the post-punk revival?
572f82cc947a6a140053c9e7
emergence of various underground bands in the mid-'90s
212
False
Who were the most commercially successful bands of the post-punk revival?
572f82cc947a6a140053c9e8
the Strokes, Franz Ferdinand, Interpol, Neils Children and Editors
319
False
When did the commercially successful post-punk bands begin to hit the scene?
572f82cc947a6a140053c9e9
late 1990s to early 2000s
404
False
Which dark post-punk bands began to emmerge in the indie scene?
572f82cc947a6a140053c9ea
Cold Cave, She Wants Revenge, Eagulls, the Soft Moon, She Past Away and Light Asylum
624
False
the turn of the 21st century
3
When did post-punk music lose popularity?
5a28605bd1a287001a6d0be0
True
the Strokes, Franz Ferdinand, Interpol, Neils Children and Editors
319
Which bands never found commercial success?
5a28605bd1a287001a6d0be1
True
the Rapture, Radio 4 and LCD Soundsystem
475
Which bands disliked dance?
5a28605bd1a287001a6d0be2
True
Cold Cave, She Wants Revenge, Eagulls, the Soft Moon, She Past Away and Light Asylum
624
Which post-punk bands avoided darker style?
5a28605bd1a287001a6d0be3
True
goth
968
What subculture avoided darker post-punk bands the most?
5a28605bd1a287001a6d0be4
True
At the turn of the 21st century, a post-punk revival developed in British and American alternative and indie rock, which soon started appearing in other countries, as well. The earliest sign of a revival was the emergence of various underground bands in the mid-'90s. However, the first commercially successful bands – the Strokes, Franz Ferdinand, Interpol, Neils Children and Editors – surfaced in the late 1990s to early 2000s, as did several dance-oriented bands such as the Rapture, Radio 4 and LCD Soundsystem. Additionally, some darker post-punk bands began to appear in the indie music scene in the 2010s, including Cold Cave, She Wants Revenge, Eagulls, the Soft Moon, She Past Away and Light Asylum, who were also affiliated with the darkwave revival, as well as A Place to Bury Strangers, who combined early post-punk and shoegaze. These bands tend to draw a fanbase who are a combination of the indie music subculture, older post-punk fans and the current goth subculture. In the 2010s, Savages played a music reminiscent of early British post-punk bands of the late '70s.
Canadian_football
Which North American version of football calls for 12 player per side on the field?
572e7aa8dfa6aa1500f8d00d
Canadian
44
False
How many yards wider is a Canadian football field than an American football field?
572e7aa8dfa6aa1500f8d00e
10
353
False
Which version of North American football has smaller end zones?
572e7aa8dfa6aa1500f8d00f
American
66
False
How many downs does a team have to advance ten yards in Canadian football?
572e7aa8dfa6aa1500f8d010
three
464
False
How far away from the line of scrimmage must Canadian football defenders be?
572e7aa8dfa6aa1500f8d011
1 yard
654
False
football
21
In America what term is used for both Canadian foobal and Americam football
5a0dcbf06e16420018587b3a
True
10 yards
484
An American football field is how much wider than a Canadian football field?
5a0dcbf06e16420018587b3b
True
players
286
Canadian and American football have the same number of what on the field?
5a0dcbf06e16420018587b3c
True
gain 10 yards
479
American football players have three downs to do what?
5a0dcbf06e16420018587b3d
True
the line of scrimmage.
666
The American football defenders must be one you are from what?
5a0dcbf06e16420018587b3e
True
American
694
Which version of North American football has a smaller football?
5a0f39cfdecec900184754eb
True
The two sports
153
What has shared players and is closely related with differences?
5a0f39cfdecec900184754ec
True
three downs to gain 10 yards
464
In American football how many downs are needed to gain 10 yards?
5a0f39cfdecec900184754ed
True
at least 1 yard from the line of scrimmage.
645
When a down begins, how far away must the American defending team be?
5a0f39cfdecec900184754ee
True
a team has only three downs to gain 10 yards
448
What causes the American game to have less offensive rushing?
5a0f39cfdecec900184754ef
True
In Canada, the term "football" may refer to Canadian football and American football collectively, or to either sport specifically, depending on context. The two sports have shared origins and are closely related but have significant differences. In particular, Canadian football has 12 players on the field per team rather than 11; the field is roughly 10 yards wider, and 10 yards longer between end-zones that are themselves 10 yards deeper; and a team has only three downs to gain 10 yards, which results in less offensive rushing than in the American game. In the Canadian game all players on the defending team, when a down begins, must be at least 1 yard from the line of scrimmage. (The American game has a similar "neutral zone" but it is only the length of the football.)
On which date was the Canadian Junior Football League formed?
572e7b91dfa6aa1500f8d017
May 8, 1974
147
False
How old are the players in the Quebec Junior Football League?
572e7b91dfa6aa1500f8d018
18–22
223
False
What trophy is awarded to the winner of Canadian inter-university football competition?
572e7b91dfa6aa1500f8d019
Vanier Cup
313
False
What institution memorializes great Canadian football achievements?
572e7b91dfa6aa1500f8d01a
Canadian Football Hall of Fame
483
False
May 8, 1974
147
The American Junior football league was formed to what day?
5a0dccbf6e16420018587b44
True
Quebec Junior Football League
164
Players and what leaguer 18 to 24?
5a0dccbf6e16420018587b45
True
Vanier Cup
313
Many secondary institutions compete what award?
5a0dccbf6e16420018587b46
True
Alberta Football League
356
Leaks such as what have declined in popularity in recent years?
5a0dccbf6e16420018587b47
True
Canadian Football Hall of Fame
483
Great achievements in Canadian and American football are enshrined where?
5a0dccbf6e16420018587b48
True
at the high school, junior, collegiate, and semi-professional levels
33
Where is Canadian Interuniversity Sport played?
5a0f3ddedecec900184754ff
True
May 8, 1974
147
When was the Alberta Football League formed?
5a0f3ddedecec90018475500
True
18–22
223
What age are the players in the senior leagues?
5a0f3ddedecec90018475501
True
Great achievements in Canadian football
422
What are enshrined for the Vanier Cup?
5a0f3ddedecec90018475502
True
Canadian Football Hall of Fame
483
What memorializes achievements for players aged 18-22?
5a0f3ddedecec90018475503
True
Canadian football is also played at the high school, junior, collegiate, and semi-professional levels: the Canadian Junior Football League, formed May 8, 1974, and Quebec Junior Football League are leagues for players aged 18–22, many post-secondary institutions compete in Canadian Interuniversity Sport for the Vanier Cup, and senior leagues such as the Alberta Football League have grown in popularity in recent years. Great achievements in Canadian football are enshrined in the Canadian Football Hall of Fame.
On which date was the first Canadian football game for which a written record has survived?
572e7c7303f989190075668f
October 15, 1862
50
False
Which team won the first recorded Canadian football game?
572e7c7303f9891900756690
First Battalion Grenadier Guards
120
False
What was the first final score recorded of a Canadian football game?
572e7c7303f9891900756691
3 goals, 2 rouges to nothing
243
False
What is the oldest football club in Canada?
572e7c7303f9891900756692
Hamilton Football Club
528
False
Which founder of Milton, MA also helped develop the rules of Canadian football?
572e7c7303f9891900756693
Christopher Gwynn
376
False
October 15, 1862
50
The first written account of American football game was on what date?
5a0dd57ed7c8500018864479
True
game played was on October 15, 1862,
31
The second Battalion Scots won the first ever what?
5a0dd57ed7c850001886447a
True
Toronto, F. Barlow Cumberland, Frederick A. Bethune, and Christopher Gwynn
319
Who devise rules based on American football?
5a0dd57ed7c850001886447b
True
Montreal
617
What team was formed on April 8, 1827?
5a0dd57ed7c850001886447c
True
Football
537
What game was instantly popular in Canada?
5a0dd57ed7c850001886447d
True
November 3, 1869
561
When was the First Battalion Grenadier Guards formed?
5a0f3ff6decec9001847551b
True
Hamilton Football Club
528
What is the oldest group with devised rules in Canada?
5a0f3ff6decec9001847551c
True
First Battalion Grenadier Guards
120
Who won the first game with a following in Canada?
5a0f3ff6decec9001847551d
True
3 goals, 2 rouges to nothing
243
What was the first recorded set of devised rules of a Canadian football game?
5a0f3ff6decec9001847551e
True
at Trinity College, Toronto
299
Where were the rules based on the Hamilton Football Club created?
5a0f3ff6decec9001847551f
True
The first written account of a game played was on October 15, 1862, on the Montreal Cricket Grounds. It was between the First Battalion Grenadier Guards and the Second Battalion Scots Fusilier Guards resulting in a win by the Grenadier Guards 3 goals, 2 rouges to nothing.[citation needed] In 1864, at Trinity College, Toronto, F. Barlow Cumberland, Frederick A. Bethune, and Christopher Gwynn, one of the founders of Milton, Massachusetts, devised rules based on rugby football. The game gradually gained a following, with the Hamilton Football Club formed on November 3, 1869, (the oldest football club in Canada). Montreal formed a team April 8, 1872, Toronto was formed on October 4, 1873, and the Ottawa FBC on September 20, 1876.
On which date was the first governing body for Canadian football formed?
572e7db403f98919007566bf
March 24, 1873
152
False
Which governing organization for Canadian football was formed on June 12, 1880?
572e7db403f98919007566c0
Canadian Rugby Football Union
183
False
In which year was the Western Interprovincial Football Union founded?
572e7db403f98919007566c1
1936
468
False
Which Canadian football union expanded its scope in 1891?
572e7db403f98919007566c2
Canadian Rugby Football Union
183
False
Which organization founded in 1956 evolved into the modern Canadian Football League?
572e7db403f98919007566c3
Canadian Football Council
740
False
to establish a proper governing body and adopted the current set of Rugby rules
18
The Canadian Rugby football Union was the first attempt at what?
5a0dd8ded7c8500018864483
True
1880
237
The football Association of Canada was formed on June 12 of what year?
5a0dd8ded7c8500018864484
True
an umbrella organization
517
The Canadian rugby union reorganized into what in 1891?
5a0dd8ded7c8500018864485
True
the Canadian Rugby Football Union (CRFU)
179
What organization founded in 1880 included teams from Ontario Montréal and Québec?
5a0dd8ded7c8500018864486
True
The Canadian Football Council
736
What organization founded in 1956 evolved from the Canadian football league?
5a0dd8ded7c8500018864487
True
March 24, 1873
152
When was the governing body for the CRFU founded?
5a0f41b7decec9001847552f
True
Canadian Rugby Football Union
183
What umbrella organization was formed on June 12 1880?
5a0f41b7decec90018475530
True
1891
584
When did the Football Association of Canada reorganize to form CRU?
5a0f41b7decec90018475531
True
The Canadian Football Council
736
Which organization founded in 1873 became the Canadian Football League?
5a0f41b7decec90018475532
True
January 1883
373
When were the ORFU and the CRU formed?
5a0f41b7decec90018475533
True
The first attempt to establish a proper governing body and adopted the current set of Rugby rules was the Foot Ball Association of Canada, organized on March 24, 1873 followed by the Canadian Rugby Football Union (CRFU) founded June 12, 1880, which included teams from Ontario and Quebec. Later both the Ontario and Quebec Rugby Football Union (ORFU and QRFU) were formed (January 1883), and then the Interprovincial (1907) and Western Interprovincial Football Union (1936) (IRFU and WIFU). The CRFU reorganized into an umbrella organization forming the Canadian Rugby Union (CRU) in 1891. The original forerunners to the current Canadian Football League, was established in 1956 when the IRFU and WIFU formed an umbrella organization, The Canadian Football Council (CFC). And then in 1958 the CFC left The CRFU to become The CFL.
Which Canadian football rules did the ORFU adopt in 1903?
572e7f4603f98919007566d3
Burnside
4
False
Which three Canadian football unions resisted the Burnside Rules?
572e7f4603f98919007566d4
CIRFU, QRFU and CRU
610
False
In which year did forward passes become acceptable in Canadian football?
572e7f4603f98919007566d5
1929
730
False
Which style of North American football changed the rules of their game the most from their earliest versions?
572e7f4603f98919007566d6
American
947
False
in 1903
79
When were the American rules incorporated?
5a0f441adecec90018475539
True
to distinguish it from a more rugby-oriented game
114
Why did the CIRFU create Burnside rules?
5a0f441adecec9001847553a
True
1929
730
In what year did the American game allow forward passes?
5a0f441adecec9001847553b
True
12 men per side
205
What did the Canadian side reduce teams to per side?
5a0f441adecec9001847553c
True
rule changes
972
What difference did the Canadian side adopt before the American side?
5a0f441adecec9001847553d
True
The Burnside rules closely resembling American Football that were incorporated in 1903 by The ORFU, was an effort to distinguish it from a more rugby-oriented game. The Burnside Rules had teams reduced to 12 men per side, introduced the Snap-Back system, required the offensive team to gain 10 yards on three downs, eliminated the Throw-In from the sidelines, allowed only six men on the line, stated that all goals by kicking were to be worth two points and the opposition was to line up 10 yards from the defenders on all kicks. The rules were an attempt to standardize the rules throughout the country. The CIRFU, QRFU and CRU refused to adopt the new rules at first. Forward passes were not allowed in the Canadian game until 1929, and touchdowns, which had been five points, were increased to six points in 1956, in both cases several decades after the Americans had adopted the same changes. The primary differences between the Canadian and American games stem from rule changes that the American side of the border adopted but the Canadian side did not (originally, both sides had three downs, goal posts on the goal lines and unlimited forward motion, but the American side modified these rules and the Canadians did not). The Canadian field width was one rule that was not based on American rules, as the Canadian game played in wider fields and stadiums that were not as narrow as the American stadiums.
Who donated a championship trophy for Canadian football teams in 1909?
572e807dcb0c0d14000f11e8
Albert Grey
60
False
When did professional teams begin to dominate the Canadian football championship?
572e807dcb0c0d14000f11e9
1940s and early 1950s
303
False
Which trophy was awarded to a Canadian football champion beginning in 1909?
572e807dcb0c0d14000f11ea
Grey Cup
4
False
Which was the last amateur team to compete for the Canadian football championship?
572e807dcb0c0d14000f11eb
Ontario Rugby Football Union
330
False
What government position was held by the man who donated the Grey Cup to Canadian football?
572e807dcb0c0d14000f11ec
The Governor General of Canada
88
False
Albert Grey, 4th Earl Grey
60
Who donated the Grey cup in 2009
5a0e19f9d7c8500018864523
True
1940s and early 1950s
303
When did amateur teams begin to dominate the Canadian football championship
5a0e19f9d7c8500018864524
True
Ontario Rugby Football Union
330
What was the first amateur team to compete for the Canadian football championship?
5a0e19f9d7c8500018864525
True
The Grey Cup
0
What did the Gov. Gen. of Ottawa to donate?
5a0e19f9d7c8500018864526
True
The Ontario Rugby Football Union,
326
What amateur team won a championship in 1954?
5a0e19f9d7c8500018864527
True
1909
32
When was the Ontario Rugby Football Union established?
5a0f455bdecec90018475543
True
Albert Grey
60
Who donated a championship trophy for the Governor General of Canada?
5a0f455bdecec90018475544
True
The Governor General of Canada
88
What position was held by the Ontario Rugby Football Union?
5a0f455bdecec90018475545
True
The Ontario Rugby Football Union
326
What was the last professional team to compete for the trophy?
5a0f455bdecec90018475546
True
1940s and early 1950s
303
When did amateur teams dominate the Canadian football championship?
5a0f455bdecec90018475547
True
The Grey Cup was established in 1909 after being donated by Albert Grey, 4th Earl Grey, The Governor General of Canada as the championship of teams under the CRU for the Rugby Football Championship of Canada. Initially an amateur competition, it eventually became dominated by professional teams in the 1940s and early 1950s. The Ontario Rugby Football Union, the last amateur organization to compete for the trophy, withdrew from competition in 1954. The move ushered in the modern era of Canadian professional football.
Which one country besides Canada has hosted a professional Canadian football game?
572e8209dfa6aa1500f8d065
United States
63
False
In which year did the CFL first attempt an expansion into the United States?
572e8209dfa6aa1500f8d066
1992
324
False
Which American CFL team won the Grey Cup?
572e8209dfa6aa1500f8d067
Baltimore Stallions
383
False
The return of an NFL team to which city contributed to the demise of the CFL's American expansion?
572e8209dfa6aa1500f8d068
Baltimore
738
False
How many years did the CFL South Division last?
572e8209dfa6aa1500f8d069
three
366
False
United States
63
Canadian football has never been played in what country?
5a0e1c26d7c850001886452d
True
the United States
269
The East division tried to put CFL teams in what other country?
5a0e1c26d7c850001886452e
True
Baltimore Stallions
383
I what was the name of the American team that played in Canada?
5a0e1c26d7c850001886452f
True
the 83rd Grey Cup
488
Which championship game to the Baltimore stallions lose?
5a0e1c26d7c8500018864530
True
the NFL
727
The return of what organization to Boston prompted the end of Canadian football in America?
5a0e1c26d7c8500018864531
True
confined to Canada
34
Where has the CFL been kept?
5a0f4709decec9001847554d
True
The CFL's controversial "South Division"
158
Who put NFL teams in the United States playing under Canadian Rules?
5a0f4709decec9001847554e
True
after three years
360
When was the Grey Cup aborted?
5a0f4709decec9001847554f
True
the 83rd Grey Cup
488
What did the South Division win while successfully playing in the CFL?
5a0f4709decec90018475550
True
were simply pawns to provide the struggling Canadian teams with expansion fee revenue
622
How was it believed that the CFL was used to help struggling Canadian teams?
5a0f4709decec90018475551
True
Canadian football has mostly been confined to Canada, with the United States being the only other country to have hosted a high-level Canadian football game. The CFL's controversial "South Division" as it would come to be officially known attempted to put CFL teams in the United States playing under Canadian rules between 1992 and 1995. The move was aborted after three years; the Baltimore Stallions were the most successful of the numerous Americans teams to play in the CFL, winning the 83rd Grey Cup. Continuing financial losses, a lack of proper Canadian football venues, a pervasive belief that the American teams were simply pawns to provide the struggling Canadian teams with expansion fee revenue, and the return of the NFL to Baltimore prompted the end of Canadian football on the American side of the border.
Which organization oversees amateur Canadian football?
572e82e403f98919007566ed
Football Canada
32
False
How many football teams compete in Canadian Interuniversity Sport?
572e82e403f98919007566ee
26
74
False
Which trophy goes to the Canadian Interuniversity Sport football champion?
572e82e403f98919007566ef
Vanier Cup
194
False
What is the name of the championship game for junior Canadian football teams?
572e82e403f98919007566f0
Canadian Bowl
397
False
Which provinces field teams in the Quebec Junior Football League?
572e82e403f98919007566f1
Ontario and Quebec
466
False
Football Canada
32
What organization oversees professional Canadian football?
5a0e1fb5d7c8500018864537
True
four conferences
91
Twenty-eight teams play and how many conferences the Canadian inter-university sport
5a0e1fb5d7c8500018864538
True
the CIS champion
162
The Grey cup goes to what championship? Will your
5a0e1fb5d7c8500018864539
True
Canadian Bowl
397
What is the name of the championship game for the Canadian football league?
5a0e1fb5d7c850001886453a
True
The Quebec Junior Football League
412
What Québec league compete for the veneer cup?
5a0e1fb5d7c850001886453b
True
Football Canada
32
What are university ranks governed by?
5a0f48c1decec90018475557
True
26 teams
74
At college level, how many teams compete in the Quebec Junior Football League?
5a0f48c1decec90018475558
True
Vanier Cup
194
Which division goes to the CIS champion?
5a0f48c1decec90018475559
True
the Manson Cup
500
What do  Canadian Bowl teams battle for?
5a0f48c1decec9001847555a
True
Ontario and Quebec
466
Which provinces have teams in the Canadian Interuniversity Sport?
5a0f48c1decec9001847555b
True
Amateur football is governed by Football Canada. At the university level, 26 teams play in four conferences under the auspices of Canadian Interuniversity Sport; the CIS champion is awarded the Vanier Cup. Junior football is played by many after high school before joining the university ranks. There are 20 junior teams in three divisions in the Canadian Junior Football League competing for the Canadian Bowl. The Quebec Junior Football League includes teams from Ontario and Quebec who battle for the Manson Cup.
How many yards wide is a Canadian football field?
572e844703f989190075670b
65
58
False
How long in meters is the crossbar of a Canadian football goal?
572e844703f989190075670c
5.6
278
False
What part of a Canadian football field was sometimes marked with a "G"?
572e844703f989190075670d
goal line
1200
False
What distance from the sidelines are hash marks painted on a CFL field?
572e844703f989190075670e
24 yards (21.9 m)
1396
False
Canadian football
4
Whose football fields are hundred 50 yards wide and 65 yards long?
5a0e220fd7c8500018864541
True
The sides of the field
596
What are marked with yellow sidelines?
5a0e220fd7c8500018864542
True
fields that have a surrounding running track
1437
What fields have expanded in zones?
5a0e220fd7c8500018864543
True
among U.S.-based teams
1725
Where was it uncommon to put her over the track?
5a0e220fd7c8500018864544
True
the 10-, 20-, 30-, 40-, and 50-yard lines are marked with numbers
1124
In most running tracks today, what are marked?
5a0f51d4decec90018475561
True
the tuning-fork design
445
In higher calibre stadiums what is preferred?
5a0f51d4decec90018475562
True
yard lines
811
What single-curved post lines drawn every 5 yards from the goal line called?
5a0f51d4decec90018475563
True
24 yards (21.9 m)
1396
How far from the goalposts are hashmarks painted?
5a0f51d4decec90018475564
True
the end zones
1552
What is cut off to accommodate the yard lines at Commonwealth Stadium?
5a0f51d4decec90018475565
True
The Canadian football field is 150 yards (137 m) long and 65 yards (59 m) wide with end zones 20 yards (18 m) deep, and goal lines 110 yards (101 m) apart. At each goal line is a set of 40-foot-high (12 m) goalposts, which consist of two uprights joined by an 18 1⁄2-foot-long (5.6 m) crossbar which is 10 feet (3 m) above the goal line. The goalposts may be H-shaped (both posts fixed in the ground) although in the higher-calibre competitions the tuning-fork design (supported by a single curved post behind the goal line, so that each post starts 10 feet (3 m) above the ground) is preferred. The sides of the field are marked by white sidelines, the goal line is marked in white, and white lines are drawn laterally across the field every 5 yards (4.6 m) from the goal line. These lateral lines are called "yard lines" and often marked with the distance in yards from and an arrow pointed toward the nearest goal line. In previous decades, arrows were not used and every yard line was usually marked with the distance to the goal line, including the goal line itself which was marked with a "0"; in most stadiums today, the 10-, 20-, 30-, 40-, and 50-yard lines are marked with numbers, with the goal line sometimes being marked with a "G". The centre (55-yard) line usually is marked with a "C". "Hash marks" are painted in white, parallel to the yardage lines, at 1 yard (0.9 m) intervals, 24 yards (21.9 m) from the sidelines. On fields that have a surrounding running track, such as Commonwealth Stadium, Molson Stadium, and many universities, the end zones are often cut off in the corners to accommodate the track. In 2014, Edmonton placed turf over the track to create full end zones. This was particularly common among U.S.-based teams during the CFL's American expansion, where few American stadiums were able to accommodate the much longer and noticeably wider CFL field.
Which team calls heads or tails in the coin flip before a CFL game?
572e8567cb0c0d14000f1236
visiting
85
False
Who on a football team articulates the team's decision following the coin flip?
572e8567cb0c0d14000f1237
captain
124
False
What can the team that wins the coin toss choose besides whether they wish to kick off or receive the ball?
572e8567cb0c0d14000f1238
which direction of the field to play in
383
False
Who makes a choice after the team that wins the coin toss has made their decision?
572e8567cb0c0d14000f1239
the opposing captain
457
False
heads or tails
104
What does the official call at the beginning of a game?
5a0f536adecec9001847556b
True
having first choice, or of deferring first choice to the other captain
189
What option does the official have after winning the coin toss?
5a0f536adecec9001847556c
True
to kick to begin the first half and receive to begin the second.
698
What's typical for the team that recieves the kick?
5a0f536adecec9001847556d
True
the captain that did not have first choice in the first half is given first choice
529
After the kickoff in the second half who is given first choice?
5a0f536adecec9001847556e
True
which direction of the field to play in
383
What is one option the opposing captain is given  if they choose first choice after winning the coin toss?
5a0f536adecec9001847556f
True
At the beginning of a match, an official tosses a coin and allows the captain of the visiting team call heads or tails. The captain of the team winning the coin toss is given the option of having first choice, or of deferring first choice to the other captain. The captain making first choice may either choose a) to kick off or receive the kick and the beginning of the half, or b) which direction of the field to play in. The remaining choice is given to the opposing captain. Before the resumption of play in the second half, the captain that did not have first choice in the first half is given first choice. Teams usually choose to defer, so it is typical for the team that wins the coin toss to kick to begin the first half and receive to begin the second.
What is the term for play stopped because the ball carrier, although not fully tackled, can no longer advance the ball?
572e8686c246551400ce42c2
forward progress
454
False
Where does the next play start unless a team has just scored?
572e8686c246551400ce42c3
scrimmage
526
False
Which parts of the ball carrier's body do not cause play to stop when they touch the ground?
572e8686c246551400ce42c4
feet and hands
86
False
Which direction of pass causes play to stop when it is not caught?
572e8686c246551400ce42c5
forward
145
False
the next play
500
If a player's knee is forced to the ground, what starts from scrimmage?
5a0f5627decec90018475575
True
feet and hands
86
What parts of the ball carriers forward progress won't stop play when touching the ground?
5a0f5627decec90018475576
True
forwards
437
Which touchdown causes play to stop when not caught?
5a0f5627decec90018475577
True
scrimmage
526
Where does the next field goal start unless a team has scored?
5a0f5627decec90018475578
True
forward progress
454
What means play stopped because the ball carrier can move forward?
5a0f5627decec90018475579
True
Play stops when the ball carrier's knee, elbow, or any other body part aside from the feet and hands, is forced to the ground (a tackle); when a forward pass is not caught on the fly (during a scrimmage); when a touchdown (see below) or a field goal is scored; when the ball leaves the playing area by any means (being carried, thrown, or fumbled out of bounds); or when the ball carrier is in a standing position but can no longer move forwards (called forward progress). If no score has been made, the next play starts from scrimmage.
What minimum distance from the sideline does the official place the ball before play starts?
572e87afdfa6aa1500f8d0c3
24 yards
106
False
What is the term for the line across the field where the ball is positioned before a play?
572e87afdfa6aa1500f8d0c4
line of scrimmage
305
False
How many players must the team with possession place near the line of scrimmage?
572e87afdfa6aa1500f8d0c5
seven
531
False
How close to the line of scrimmage can defensive players approach before a play is run?
572e87afdfa6aa1500f8d0c6
one yard
580
False
24 yards
106
What is the minimum distance from the defending team does the official place the ball before play?
5a0f5806decec9001847557f
True
seven
531
How many yards must the possessing team place near the line of scrimmage?
5a0f5806decec90018475580
True
a yard
644
How close to the length of the ball can defensive players be before a play?
5a0f5806decec90018475581
True
on their respective sides of this line until the play has begun again
383
Where must an official stay until a play has begun again?
5a0f5806decec90018475582
True
the team in possession of the football must have seven players, excluding the quarterback, within one yard of the line of scrimmage
482
What makes a goal line valid?
5a0f5806decec90018475583
True
Before scrimmage, an official places the ball at the spot it was at the stop of clock, but no nearer than 24 yards from the sideline or 1 yard from the goal line. The line parallel to the goal line passing through the ball (line from sideline to sideline for the length of the ball) is referred to as the line of scrimmage. This line is similar to "no-man's land"; players must stay on their respective sides of this line until the play has begun again. For a scrimmage to be valid the team in possession of the football must have seven players, excluding the quarterback, within one yard of the line of scrimmage. The defending team must stay a yard or more back from the line of scrimmage.
How many players does each side field in an American football game?
572e885c03f989190075673d
11
68
False
What is the term for the team who begins a play with control of the ball?
572e885c03f989190075673e
offence
136
False
What is the initial backward movement of the ball in a play called?
572e885c03f989190075673f
the snap
250
False
Which two players most commonly receive the first backward pass in a football play?
572e885c03f9891900756740
quarterback or punter
356
False
offence
136
What is the term for a team with control of the quarterback?
5a0f5995decec90018475589
True
the snap
250
What is the defence of the ball in play called?
5a0f5995decec9001847558a
True
usually the quarterback or punter
344
Name a player that commonly receives the first possession of the ball?
5a0f5995decec9001847558b
True
11
68
How many possessions does each team have in an American game?
5a0f5995decec9001847558c
True
the offence
132
What is the running back in possession of the ball called?
5a0f5995decec9001847558d
True
On the field at the beginning of a play are two teams of 12 (unlike 11 in American football). The team in possession of the ball is the offence and the team defending is referred to as the defence. Play begins with a backwards pass through the legs (the snap) by a member of the offensive team, to another member of the offensive team. This is usually the quarterback or punter, but a "direct snap" to a running back is also not uncommon. If the quarterback or punter receives the ball, he may then do any of the following:
What is another term for a completed play?
572e893d03f989190075674f
down
24
False
How many plays can the offence run without gaining ten yards?
572e893d03f9891900756750
three
123
False
How many downs does a team get after they've gained ten on their first down?
572e893d03f9891900756751
three
455
False
What does a team do when they have not advance the ball enough to score or likely gain a new set of downs?
572e893d03f9891900756752
punt
522
False
a down
22
What is a forfeit play called?
5a0f5f07decec90018475593
True
advance the ball at least ten yards towards the opponents' goal line within three downs
47
What must the offence do within 10 yards or forfeit the ball?
5a0f5f07decec90018475594
True
in an attempt to advance the ball and gain a cumulative 10 yards
674
What can a team use its 10 yards to gain?
5a0f5f07decec90018475595
True
three
123
How many field goals does a team get after they've gained ten on their first down?
5a0f5f07decec90018475596
True
punt the ball
522
What does a team do in their position on the field when they haven't advanced the ball enough to score?
5a0f5f07decec90018475597
True
Each play constitutes a down. The offence must advance the ball at least ten yards towards the opponents' goal line within three downs or forfeit the ball to their opponents. Once ten yards have been gained the offence gains a new set of three downs (rather than the four downs given in American football). Downs do not accumulate. If the offensive team completes 10 yards on their first play, they lose the other two downs and are granted another set of three. If a team fails to gain ten yards in two downs they usually punt the ball on third down or try to kick a field goal (see below), depending on their position on the field. The team may, however use its third down in an attempt to advance the ball and gain a cumulative 10 yards.
What is the term for the player that is currently handing the football when play is underway?
572e8a57cb0c0d14000f1276
ball carrier
180
False
Within what distance from the line of scrimmage can offensive players who do not have the ball be legally contacted by defensive players?
572e8a57cb0c0d14000f1277
one yard
381
False
What are two illegal ways to block an opposing player's progress near the line of scrimmage?
572e8a57cb0c0d14000f1278
hold or trip
536
False
Which player may not be tackled immediately after they have thrown a pass?
572e8a57cb0c0d14000f1279
quarterback
751
False
the ball carrier
176
What player can be legally tackeled when tripping the player he intends to block?
5a0f621cdecec9001847559d
True
an offensive player
231
What player can't be interfered with unless he is within one yard of any player?
5a0f621cdecec9001847559e
True
quarterback
751
Which player may not be contacted after the kick after throwing a pass?
5a0f621cdecec9001847559f
True
hold or trip
536
What are two illegal ways to currently be in possession of the ball near the line of scrimmage?
5a0f621cdecec900184755a0
True
after the kick
613
When is the rule applied where the offensive player may not be contacted?
5a0f621cdecec900184755a1
True
There are many rules to contact in this type of football. First, the only player on the field who may be legally tackled is the player currently in possession of the football (the ball carrier). Second, a receiver, that is to say, an offensive player sent down the field to receive a pass, may not be interfered with (have his motion impeded, be blocked, etc.) unless he is within one yard of the line of scrimmage (instead of 5 yards (4.6 m) in American football). Any player may block another player's passage, so long as he does not hold or trip the player he intends to block. The kicker may not be contacted after the kick but before his kicking leg returns to the ground (this rule is not enforced upon a player who has blocked a kick), and the quarterback, having already thrown the ball, may not be hit or tackled.
What is the usual penalty when the rules of play are violated?
572e8ba0c246551400ce432a
loss of yardage
66
False
How many yards does a team lose when they commit a minor penalty?
572e8ba0c246551400ce432b
five
261
False
How many yards does a team lose for face-masking?
572e8ba0c246551400ce432c
15
420
False
What other than yardage is sometimes awarded the offence on a defensive penalty?
572e8ba0c246551400ce432d
first down
768
False
loss of yardage
66
What is the usual penalty when first downs are violated?
5a0f6499decec900184755a7
True
10 yards
328
How many loss of downs does a team have when they have a more serious penalty?
5a0f6499decec900184755a8
True
five yards
261
How many downs are automatically awarded to the offense when a team commits a minor penalty?
5a0f6499decec900184755a9
True
15 yards
420
What happens when a team commits minor penalty such as face masking?
5a0f6499decec900184755aa
True
first down
1105
What other than yardage can be awarded to the offence on the line of scrimmage?
5a0f6499decec900184755ab
True
Infractions of the rules are punished with penalties, typically a loss of yardage of 5, 10 or 15 yards against the penalized team. Minor violations such as offside (a player from either side encroaching into scrimmage zone before the play starts) are penalized five yards, more serious penalties (such as holding) are penalized 10 yards, and severe violations of the rules (such as face-masking) are typically penalized 15 yards. Depending on the penalty, the penalty yardage may be assessed from the original line of scrimmage, from where the violation occurred (for example, for a pass interference infraction), or from where the ball ended after the play. Penalties on the offence may, or may not, result in a loss of down; penalties on the defence may result in a first down being automatically awarded to the offence. For particularly severe conduct, the game official(s) may eject players (ejected players may be substituted for), or in exceptional cases, declare the game over and award victory to one side or the other. Penalties do not affect the yard line which the offence must reach to gain a first down (unless the penalty results in a first down being awarded); if a penalty against the defence results in the first down yardage being attained, then the offence is awarded a first down.
Where is the ball placed when a defensive penalty is committed in their own end zone?
572e8ce903f9891900756775
one-yard line
197
False
In which North American style of football is the line of scrimmage never inside the one-yard line?
572e8ce903f9891900756776
Canadian
460
False
A play that results in what outcome will never also be a scoring play?
572e8ce903f9891900756777
Penalties
0
False
How many penalty yards are awarded when the ball is nearer the goal line than the usual penalty yardage?
572e8ce903f9891900756778
half the distance to the goal line
358
False
the offence
38
Who do touchdowns never result in a score for?
5a0f665fdecec900184755b1
True
not ruled a touchdown
137
When the defense commits penalty yardage in their end zone what happens?
5a0f665fdecec900184755b2
True
half the distance to the goal line
296
How many penalty yards are given when the ball is nearer the first down than the usual penalty yardage?
5a0f665fdecec900184755b3
True
a point-of-foul infraction
64
What infraction  in the end zone advances the ball half the distance to the goal with an automatic first down?
5a0f665fdecec900184755b4
True
scrimmage
481
In American football what can't start inside either one yard line?
5a0f665fdecec900184755b5
True
Penalties never result in a score for the offence. For example, a point-of-foul infraction committed by the defence in their end zone is not ruled a touchdown, but instead advances the ball to the one-yard line with an automatic first down. For a distance penalty, if the yardage is greater than half the distance to the goal line, then the ball is advanced half the distance to the goal line, though only up to the one-yard line (unlike American football, in Canadian football no scrimmage may start inside either one-yard line). If the original penalty yardage would have resulted in a first down or moving the ball past the goal line, a first down is awarded.
Who can decline a penalty?
572e8e2703f989190075677d
the non-penalized team
15
False
A team receiving a punt cannot decline a penalty on which down?
572e8e2703f989190075677e
3rd down
240
False
The outcome of which play determines the placement of the ball when a penalty is declined?
572e8e2703f989190075677f
the previous play
114
False
What can a team do when they prefer the original outcome of a play to the situation they would have with a penalty assessed on the other team for that play?
572e8e2703f9891900756780
decline the penalty
323
False
the non-penalized team
15
Who can decline a previous play?
5a0f81c1decec900184755bb
True
the results of the previous play
99
What will stand as if the 3rd down punt play had not been called?
5a0f81c1decec900184755bc
True
change of possession occurs
391
After the runback is made what happens?
5a0f81c1decec900184755bd
True
if the kicking team on a 3rd down punt play is penalized before the kick occurs: the receiving team may not decline the penalty and take over on downs.
215
What is an exception to the change of possession for the non-penalized team?
5a0f81c1decec900184755be
True
subsequent penalties
423
After change of possession, what are assessed against the kicking team or the receiving team?
5a0f81c1decec900184755bf
True
In most cases, the non-penalized team will have the option of declining the penalty; in which case the results of the previous play stand as if the penalty had not been called. One notable exception to this rule is if the kicking team on a 3rd down punt play is penalized before the kick occurs: the receiving team may not decline the penalty and take over on downs. After the kick is made, change of possession occurs and subsequent penalties are assessed against either the spot where the ball is caught, or the runback.
At which point in a game is the time the offence takes to put the ball in play measured?
572e8fbbdfa6aa1500f8d13d
last three minutes of a half
11
False
How many seconds elapse before a time count penalty is assessed?
572e8fbbdfa6aa1500f8d13e
20
102
False
What is the penalty for a time count on the first two downs?
572e8fbbdfa6aa1500f8d13f
loss of down
387
False
Who can turn the ball over to the other side if an offensive team incurs too many time count violations?
572e8fbbdfa6aa1500f8d140
referee
514
False
How many yards does the offense lose for a time count on third down?
572e8fbbdfa6aa1500f8d141
10
429
False
delay of game
170
What is the penalty in American football for not having the down repeated within 20 seconds?
5a0f8530decec900184755c5
True
loss of down
387
What is the penalty for convert attempts on the first two downs?
5a0f8530decec900184755c6
True
for repeated deliberate time count violations on third down
557
For what violation can the referee give the base penalty to the defense?
5a0f8530decec900184755c7
True
10
429
How many yards does the loss of down lose on third down?
5a0f8530decec900184755c8
True
third down
606
On what down can the 20 second play clock give possession to the defense?
5a0f8530decec900184755c9
True
During the last three minutes of a half, the penalty for failure to place the ball in play within the 20-second play clock, known as "time count" (this foul is known as "delay of game" in American football), is dramatically different from during the first 27 minutes. Instead of the penalty being 5 yards with the down repeated, the base penalty (except during convert attempts) becomes loss of down on first or second down, and 10 yards on third down with the down repeated. In addition, as noted previously, the referee can give possession to the defence for repeated deliberate time count violations on third down.
What happens to a quarter whose time expires while the ball is still live in play?
572e9091cb0c0d14000f12aa
extended
161
False
What causes a quarter to be extended one additional play even if time has run out?
572e9091cb0c0d14000f12ab
penalty
328
False
How long is a quarter in minutes?
572e9091cb0c0d14000f12ac
15
91
False
Which plays do not cause time to run off the clock during the final minutes of a half?
572e9091cb0c0d14000f12ad
convert attempts
30
False
in the last three minutes of a half
47
When does the clock not run when a penalty is pending?
5a0f91a2decec900184755cf
True
for one more scrimmage
275
If a quarter's time expires while the ball is pending how long is the quarter extended?
5a0f91a2decec900184755d0
True
while a penalty is pending
320
When can't a scrimmage end?
5a0f91a2decec900184755d1
True
decline any penalty it considers disadvantageous
476
What does the losing team have the option to do?
5a0f91a2decec900184755d2
True
convert attempts
30
What is the name of the plays where the clock doesn't run near the end of a half?
5a0f91a2decec900184755d3
True
The clock does not run during convert attempts in the last three minutes of a half. If the 15 minutes of a quarter expire while the ball is live, the quarter is extended until the ball becomes dead. If a quarter's time expires while the ball is dead, the quarter is extended for one more scrimmage. A quarter cannot end while a penalty is pending: after the penalty yardage is applied, the quarter is extended one scrimmage. Note that the non-penalized team has the option to decline any penalty it considers disadvantageous, so a losing team cannot indefinitely prolong a game by repeatedly committing infractions.
What determines which team gets possession first when extending a game to break a tie?
572e92c5c246551400ce4368
coin toss
134
False
At which yard line on their opponent's side does a team take possession of the ball according to the CFL's tie-breaking rules?
572e92c5c246551400ce4369
35
257
False
In which year did the CFL begin requiring teams to attempt 2-point conversions after scoring in a tie-breaking situation?
572e92c5c246551400ce436a
2010
396
False
Which round of tie-breaking is the last possible round in a regular season CFL game?
572e92c5c246551400ce436b
second
776
False
Which CFL games require tie-breaking rounds continue until a winner results?
572e92c5c246551400ce436c
playoff or championship
874
False
if one team is ahead
611
After teams have completed their 2 point conversions, who is declared the winner?
5a0f93f9decec900184755d9
True
A coin toss
132
If a game is tied at the end of a touchdown, what determines who takes possession?
5a0f93f9decec900184755da
True
during the regular season the game ends as a tie
819
After the coin toss if there is no winner during regular season what happens?
5a0f93f9decec900184755db
True
it is required to attempt a 2-point conversion
409
What is a team required to do after having a possession in the 2010 season?
5a0f93f9decec900184755dc
True
each team is given an equal number of chances to break the tie
68
In the 2010 season if a game is tied what can each team do?
5a0f93f9decec900184755dd
True
In the CFL, if the game is tied at the end of regulation play, then each team is given an equal number of chances to break the tie. A coin toss is held to determine which team will take possession first; the first team scrimmages the ball at the opponent's 35-yard line and advances through a series of downs until it scores or loses possession. If the team scores a touchdown, starting with the 2010 season, it is required to attempt a 2-point conversion. The other team then scrimmages the ball at the same 35-yard line and has the same opportunity to score. After the teams have completed their possessions, if one team is ahead, then it is declared the winner; otherwise, the two teams each get another chance to score, scrimmaging from the other 35-yard line. After this second round, if there is still no winner, during the regular season the game ends as a tie. In a playoff or championship game, the teams continue to attempt to score from alternating 35-yard lines, until one team is leading after both have had an equal number of possessions.
Seven_Years%27_War
What countries led the two coalitions during the Seven Years' War?
572e7b2ecb0c0d14000f1192
two coalitions, led by Great Britain on one side and France
425
False
When was the Seven Year' War fought?
572e7b2ecb0c0d14000f1193
The Seven Years' War was fought between 1755 and 1764
0
False
What major power of the time was not involved in The Seven Years' War?
572e7b2ecb0c0d14000f1194
It involved every great power of the time except the Ottoman Empire
127
False
What country emerged as the world's predominate power?
572e7b2ecb0c0d14000f1195
Britain rose as the world's predominant power
651
False
What was the Seven Years' War considered as the prelude to?
572e7b2ecb0c0d14000f1196
Considered a prelude to the two world wars
272
False
The Seven Years' War was fought between 1755 and 1764, the main conflict occurring in the seven-year period from 1756 to 1763. It involved every great power of the time except the Ottoman Empire, and affected Europe, the Americas, West Africa, India, and the Philippines. Considered a prelude to the two world wars and the greatest European war since the Thirty Years War of the 17th century, it once again split Europe into two coalitions, led by Great Britain on one side and France on the other. For the first time, aiming to curtail Britain and Prussia's ever-growing might, France formed a grand coalition of its own, which ended with failure as Britain rose as the world's predominant power, altering the European balance of power.
Who made the first strike of the Seven Years' War?
572e7c79cb0c0d14000f11b0
Prussia preemptively struck
33
False
What area was the site of the first action in the Seven Years' War
572e7c79cb0c0d14000f11b1
Saxony
61
False
What country allied with Prussia?
572e7c79cb0c0d14000f11b2
Prussia's alliance with Britain
143
False
What was the initial country to ally with France?
572e7c79cb0c0d14000f11b3
Austria formed an alliance with France
176
False
The smaller German states joined which side?
572e7c79cb0c0d14000f11b4
Anglo-Prussian alliance was joined by smaller German states
405
False
Realizing that war was imminent, Prussia preemptively struck Saxony and quickly overran it. The result caused uproar across Europe. Because of Prussia's alliance with Britain, Austria formed an alliance with France, seeing an opportunity to recapture Silesia, which had been lost in a previous war. Reluctantly, by following the imperial diet, most of the states of the empire joined Austria's cause. The Anglo-Prussian alliance was joined by smaller German states (especially Hanover). Sweden, fearing Prussia's expansionist tendencies, went to war in 1757 to protect its Baltic dominions, seeing its chance when virtually all of Europe opposed Prussia. Spain, bound by the Pacte de Famille, intervened on behalf of France and together they launched an utterly unsuccessful invasion of Portugal in 1762. The Russian Empire was originally aligned with Austria, fearing Prussia's ambition on the Polish-Lithuanian Commonwealth, but switched sides upon the succession of Tsar Peter III in 1762.
With whom did the Dutch Republic align?
572e7e3cdfa6aa1500f8d03d
The Dutch Republic, long-time British ally, kept its neutrality intact
219
False
Which side of the coalitions did Naples, Sicily and Savoy join?
572e7e3cdfa6aa1500f8d03e
Naples, Sicily, and Savoy, although sided with Franco-Spanish party, declined to join the coalition under the fear of British power
426
False
How did the war impact the Russian population?
572e7e3cdfa6aa1500f8d03f
The taxation needed for war caused the Russian people considerable hardship
559
False
What items had already been taxed by Russian Empress Elizabeth?
572e7e3cdfa6aa1500f8d040
being added to the taxation of salt and alcohol begun by Empress Elizabeth in 1759
636
False
What two countries concluded a separate peace with Prussia?
572e7e3cdfa6aa1500f8d041
Like Sweden, Russia concluded a separate peace with Prussia.
766
False
Many middle and small powers in Europe, unlike in the previous wars, tried to steer clear away from the escalating conflict, even though they had interests in the conflict or with the belligerents, like Denmark-Norway. The Dutch Republic, long-time British ally, kept its neutrality intact, fearing the odds against Britain and Prussia fighting the great powers of Europe, even tried to prevent Britain's domination in India. Naples, Sicily, and Savoy, although sided with Franco-Spanish party, declined to join the coalition under the fear of British power. The taxation needed for war caused the Russian people considerable hardship, being added to the taxation of salt and alcohol begun by Empress Elizabeth in 1759 to complete her addition to the Winter Palace. Like Sweden, Russia concluded a separate peace with Prussia.
What did Britain gain in North America from the war?
572e8003c246551400ce425e
Great Britain, which gained the bulk of New France in North America, Spanish Florida
27
False
What did Great Britain gain in the West Indies from the war?
572e8003c246551400ce425f
some individual Caribbean islands in the West Indies,
113
False
What did Great Britain gain in Africa from the war?
572e8003c246551400ce4260
the colony of Senegal on the West African coast
167
False
What happened to the scope of France's colonies as a result of the war?
572e8003c246551400ce4261
France was deprived of many of its colonies
986
False
How did the war impact France financially?
572e8003c246551400ce4262
had saddled itself with heavy war debts that its inefficient financial system could barely handle
1034
False
The war was successful for Great Britain, which gained the bulk of New France in North America, Spanish Florida, some individual Caribbean islands in the West Indies, the colony of Senegal on the West African coast, and superiority over the French trading outposts on the Indian subcontinent. The Native American tribes were excluded from the settlement; a subsequent conflict, known as Pontiac's War, was also unsuccessful in returning them to their pre-war status. In Europe, the war began disastrously for Prussia, but a combination of good luck and successful strategy saw King Frederick the Great manage to retrieve the Prussian position and retain the status quo ante bellum. Prussia emerged as a new European great power. Although Austria failed to retrieve the territory of Silesia from Prussia (its original goal) its military prowess was also noted by the other powers. The involvement of Portugal, Spain and Sweden did not return them to their former status as great powers. France was deprived of many of its colonies and had saddled itself with heavy war debts that its inefficient financial system could barely handle. Spain lost Florida but gained French Louisiana and regained control of its colonies, e.g., Cuba and the Philippines, which had been captured by the British during the war. France and other European powers avenged their defeat in 1778 when the American Revolutionary War broke out, with hopes of destroying Britain's dominance once and for all.
What is the grandest label that historians have used to describe the  Seven Years' War?
572e81f2cb0c0d14000f1204
The war has been described as the first "world war"
0
False
What does the term "Second Hundred Years' War" describe?
572e81f2cb0c0d14000f1205
The term "Second Hundred Years' War" has been used in order to describe the almost continuous level of world-wide conflict during the entire 18th century,
291
False
What is the precedent for the "Second Hundred Year's War?
572e81f2cb0c0d14000f1206
reminiscent of the more famous and compact struggle of the 14th century
446
False
What was a later conflict that some considered the first World War?
572e81f2cb0c0d14000f1207
to later conflicts like the Napoleonic Wars
246
False
The war has been described as the first "world war", although this label was also given to various earlier conflicts like the Eighty Years' War, the Thirty Years' War, the War of the Spanish Succession and the War of the Austrian Succession, and to later conflicts like the Napoleonic Wars. The term "Second Hundred Years' War" has been used in order to describe the almost continuous level of world-wide conflict during the entire 18th century, reminiscent of the more famous and compact struggle of the 14th century.
What was Sweden's motivation to join the war?
572e83d3c246551400ce429e
Sweden, fearing Prussia's expansionist tendencies, went to war in 1757 to protect its Baltic dominions,
487
False
What country did Spain invade?
572e83d3c246551400ce429f
Spain, bound by the Pacte de Famille, intervened on behalf of France and together they launched a disastrous invasion of Portugal
655
False
When did Spain invade?
572e83d3c246551400ce42a0
Spain, bound by the Pacte de Famille, intervened on behalf of France and together they launched a disastrous invasion of Portugal in 1762
655
False
What was the result of the invasion by Spain?
572e83d3c246551400ce42a1
Spain, bound by the Pacte de Famille, intervened on behalf of France and together they launched a disastrous invasion
655
False
What region did Austria hope to recapture?
572e83d3c246551400ce42a2
Austria formed an alliance with France, seeing an opportunity to recapture Silesia, which had been lost in a previous war
176
False
Realizing that war was imminent, Prussia preemptively struck Saxony and quickly overran it. The result caused uproar across Europe. Because of Prussia's alliance with Britain, Austria formed an alliance with France, seeing an opportunity to recapture Silesia, which had been lost in a previous war. Reluctantly, by following the imperial diet, most of the states of the empire joined Austria's cause. The Anglo-Prussian alliance was joined by smaller German states (especially Hanover). Sweden, fearing Prussia's expansionist tendencies, went to war in 1757 to protect its Baltic dominions, seeing its chance when virtually all of Europe opposed Prussia. Spain, bound by the Pacte de Famille, intervened on behalf of France and together they launched a disastrous invasion of Portugal in 1762. The Russian Empire was originally aligned with Austria, fearing Prussia's ambition on the Polish-Lithuanian Commonwealth, but switched sides upon the succession of Tsar Peter III in 1762.
Why did Denmark-Norway remain neutral rather than assisting its longtime ally, Britain?
572e8578c246551400ce42ba
The Dutch Republic, long-time British ally, kept its neutrality intact, fearing the odds against Britain and Prussia fighting the great powers of Europe
219
False
What did Russian Empress Elizabeth use the proceeds of the tax on salt and alcohol for?
572e8578c246551400ce42bb
the taxation of salt and alcohol begun by Empress Elizabeth in 1759 to complete her addition to the Winter Palace.
651
False
Why did Naples remain neutral?
572e8578c246551400ce42bc
Naples, Sicily, and Savoy, although sided with Franco-Spanish party, declined to join the coalition under the fear of British power
426
False
Who would Sicily and Savoy normally align with?
572e8578c246551400ce42bd
Sicily, and Savoy, although sided with Franco-Spanish party
434
False
Many middle and small powers in Europe, unlike in the previous wars, tried to steer clear away from the escalating conflict, even though they had interests in the conflict or with the belligerents, like Denmark-Norway. The Dutch Republic, long-time British ally, kept its neutrality intact, fearing the odds against Britain and Prussia fighting the great powers of Europe, even tried to prevent Britain's domination in India. Naples, Sicily, and Savoy, although sided with Franco-Spanish party, declined to join the coalition under the fear of British power. The taxation needed for war caused the Russian people considerable hardship, being added to the taxation of salt and alcohol begun by Empress Elizabeth in 1759 to complete her addition to the Winter Palace. Like Sweden, Russia concluded a separate peace with Prussia.
What did Great Britain gain with respect to the French trading outposts on the subcontinent of India?
572e87fcc246551400ce42ee
superiority over the French trading outposts
220
False
What was the result for the Native American tribes?
572e87fcc246551400ce42ef
The Native American tribes were excluded from the settlement
293
False
What did the Native American tribes accomplish in the later Pontiac's War?
572e87fcc246551400ce42f0
; a subsequent conflict, known as Pontiac's War, was also unsuccessful in returning them to their pre-war status.
353
False
What were two factors that redeemed the outcome for the Prussians?
572e87fcc246551400ce42f1
good luck and successful strategy
539
False
Who was the leader of Prussia?
572e87fcc246551400ce42f2
King Frederick the Great
577
False
The war was successful for Great Britain, which gained the bulk of New France in North America, Spanish Florida, some individual Caribbean islands in the West Indies, the colony of Senegal on the West African coast, and superiority over the French trading outposts on the Indian subcontinent. The Native American tribes were excluded from the settlement; a subsequent conflict, known as Pontiac's War, was also unsuccessful in returning them to their pre-war status. In Europe, the war began disastrously for Prussia, but a combination of good luck and successful strategy saw King Frederick the Great manage to retrieve the Prussian position and retain the status quo ante bellum. Prussia emerged as a new European great power. The involvement of Portugal, Spain and Sweden did not return them to their former status as great powers. France was deprived of many of its colonies and had saddled itself with heavy war debts that its inefficient financial system could barely handle. Spain lost Florida but gained French Louisiana and regained control of its colonies, e.g., Cuba and the Philippines, which had been captured by the British during the war. France and other European powers will soon avenge their defeat in 1778 when American Revolutionary War broke out, with hopes of destroying Britain's dominance once and for all.
Who was the traditional partner with Great Britain at the beginning of the conflict?
572e89ce03f9891900756757
Great Britain and Austria, had coalesced
125
False
What was the major gain by Great Britain by having Austria as it ally?
572e89ce03f9891900756758
British subsidies to Austria had produced nothing of much help to the British
370
False
What was gained or lost by Austria?
572e89ce03f9891900756759
British military effort had not saved Silesia for Austria
459
False
Did the loss of Silesia by Austria intensify its battle with Prussia?
572e89ce03f989190075675a
. Prussia, having secured Silesia, had come to terms with Austria
516
False
What alliances were formed in the "diplomatic reversal"?
572e89ce03f989190075675b
The collapse of that system and the aligning of France with Austria and of Great Britain with Prussia constituted what is known as the “diplomatic revolution”
871
False
The War of the Austrian Succession had seen the belligerents aligned on a time-honoured basis. France’s traditional enemies, Great Britain and Austria, had coalesced just as they had done against Louis XIV. Prussia, the leading anti-Austrian state in Germany, had been supported by France. Neither group, however, found much reason to be satisfied with its partnership: British subsidies to Austria had produced nothing of much help to the British, while the British military effort had not saved Silesia for Austria. Prussia, having secured Silesia, had come to terms with Austria in disregard of French interests. Even so, France had concluded a defensive alliance with Prussia in 1747, and the maintenance of the Anglo-Austrian alignment after 1748 was deemed essential by the Duke of Newcastle, British secretary of state in the ministry of his brother Henry Pelham. The collapse of that system and the aligning of France with Austria and of Great Britain with Prussia constituted what is known as the “diplomatic revolution” or the “reversal of alliances.”
What Russian-Austrian agreement preceded the Seven Years War that started in 1755-56?
572e8c2fcb0c0d14000f127e
June 2, 1746, Austria and Russia concluded a defensive alliance that covered their own territory and Poland against attack by Prussia or the Ottoman Empire
128
False
According to the Russian-Austrian pact of 1746, what would happen to Silesia in the event of hostilities with Prussia?
572e8c2fcb0c0d14000f127f
They also agreed to a secret clause that promised the restoration of Silesia and the countship of Glatz (now Kłodzko, Poland) to Austria
285
False
What other area was mentioned regarding Prussian dominion in the Russian-Austrian pact?
572e8c2fcb0c0d14000f1280
the countship of Glatz (now Kłodzko, Poland) to Austria
366
False
What individual was the main target of the pact?
572e8c2fcb0c0d14000f1281
Their real desire, however, was to destroy Frederick’s power altogether
464
False
Why couldn't Petrovich persuade Austria to invade Prussia?
572e8c2fcb0c0d14000f1282
he could not persuade Austrian statesman Wenzel Anton von Kaunitz to commit to offensive designs against Prussia
865
False
In 1756 Austria was making military preparations for war with Prussia and pursuing an alliance with Russia for this purpose. On June 2, 1746, Austria and Russia concluded a defensive alliance that covered their own territory and Poland against attack by Prussia or the Ottoman Empire. They also agreed to a secret clause that promised the restoration of Silesia and the countship of Glatz (now Kłodzko, Poland) to Austria in the event of hostilities with Prussia. Their real desire, however, was to destroy Frederick’s power altogether, reducing his sway to his electorate of Brandenburg and giving East Prussia to Poland, an exchange that would be accompanied by the cession of the Polish Duchy of Courland to Russia. Aleksey Petrovich, Graf (count) Bestuzhev-Ryumin, grand chancellor of Russia under Empress Elizabeth, was hostile to both France and Prussia, but he could not persuade Austrian statesman Wenzel Anton von Kaunitz to commit to offensive designs against Prussia so long as Prussia was able to rely on French support.
What was the house of king George II?
572e8e84dfa6aa1500f8d11f
Hanover
4
False
Name two diverse geographies that king George II had to protect.
572e8e84dfa6aa1500f8d120
his commitments in Germany were counterbalanced by the demands of the British colonies overseas
114
False
How anxious was France to assist Prussia to take over Hanover?
572e8e84dfa6aa1500f8d121
it had no desire to divert forces to central Europe for Prussia's interest.
482
False
Why would France want to invade Hanover?
572e8e84dfa6aa1500f8d122
France was very much interested in colonial expansion and was willing to exploit the vulnerability of Hanover in war against Great Britain
338
False
What was Britain's obligation to Hanover if colonial expansion via war with France was to be resumed?
572e8e84dfa6aa1500f8d123
Hanover had to be secured against Franco-Prussian attack
280
False
The Hanoverian king George II of Great Britain was passionately devoted to his family’s continental holdings, but his commitments in Germany were counterbalanced by the demands of the British colonies overseas. If war against France for colonial expansion was to be resumed, then Hanover had to be secured against Franco-Prussian attack. France was very much interested in colonial expansion and was willing to exploit the vulnerability of Hanover in war against Great Britain, but it had no desire to divert forces to central Europe for Prussia's interest.
What was the objective of le Secret du roi?
572e99e7dfa6aa1500f8d1d7
goal of pursuing personal political objectives that were often at odds with France’s publicly stated policies
246
False
Who did King Louis XV want on the Polish throne?
572e99e7dfa6aa1500f8d1d8
his kinsman Louis François de Bourbon, prince de Conti,
440
False
What was King Louis XV's secret ambition for Sweden and Turkey?
572e99e7dfa6aa1500f8d1d9
Sweden, and Turkey as French client states in opposition to Russian and Austrian interests
527
False
What French official was kept in the dark about le Secret du roi?
572e99e7dfa6aa1500f8d1da
Unbeknownst to his foreign minister,
140
False
What countries did King Louis XV want keep in his sphere of influence to thwart the interests of Russia?
572e99e7dfa6aa1500f8d1db
Poland, Sweden, and Turkey as French client states in opposition to Russian
519
False
French policy was, moreover, complicated by the existence of the le Secret du roi—a system of private diplomacy conducted by King Louis XV. Unbeknownst to his foreign minister, Louis had established a network of agents throughout Europe with the goal of pursuing personal political objectives that were often at odds with France’s publicly stated policies. Louis’s goals for le Secret du roi included an attempt to win the Polish crown for his kinsman Louis François de Bourbon, prince de Conti, and the maintenance of Poland, Sweden, and Turkey as French client states in opposition to Russian and Austrian interests.
What two geographies did Frederick want for Prussia?
572e9cadc246551400ce43ec
Saxony and Polish west Prussia
14
False
What country would refuse support if Frederick wen to war for Saxony and west Prussia?
572e9cadc246551400ce43ed
could not expect French support
83
False
What was his concern about trying take Hanover from the British?
572e9cadc246551400ce43ee
he might fall victim to an Austro-Russian attack
234
False
What kept Augustus III from consolidating Saxony and Poland?
572e9cadc246551400ce43ef
the two territories were physically separated by Brandenburg and Silesia
386
False
Who was Poland's ancient ally?
572e9cadc246551400ce43f0
Poland, despite its union with the ancient lands of Lithuania,
576
False
Frederick saw Saxony and Polish west Prussia as potential fields for expansion but could not expect French support if he started an aggressive war for them. If he joined the French against the British in the hope of annexing Hanover, he might fall victim to an Austro-Russian attack. The hereditary elector of Saxony, Augustus III, was also elective King of Poland as Augustus III, but the two territories were physically separated by Brandenburg and Silesia. Neither state could pose as a great power. Saxony was merely a buffer between Prussia and Austrian Bohemia, whereas Poland, despite its union with the ancient lands of Lithuania, was prey to pro-French and pro-Russian factions. A Prussian scheme for compensating Frederick Augustus with Bohemia in exchange for Saxony obviously presupposed further spoliation of Austria.
What country was pleased that Britain used its Hanover vote to elect Joseph as Te Holy Roman Emperor?
572e9f64cb0c0d14000f1388
Austria
26
False
What country and person were displeased that Britain used it Hanover vote to elect Joseph as the Holy Roman Emporer?
572e9f64cb0c0d14000f1389
Frederick and Prussia
191
False
What was the French view about the dismemberment of Prussia?
572e9f64cb0c0d14000f138a
saw the complete dismemberment of Prussia as unacceptable to the stability of Central Europe.
663
False
What was a major objective of Britain in joining the Austro-Russian alliance?
572e9f64cb0c0d14000f138b
to protect Hanover's interests against France.
361
False
What was Kaunitz's objective with the French?
572e9f64cb0c0d14000f138c
Kaunitz kept approaching the French in the hope of establishing such alliance with Austria
432
False
In the attempt to satisfy Austria at the time, Britain gave their electoral vote in Hanover for the candidacy of Maria Theresa's son, Joseph, as the Holy Roman Emperor, much to the dismay of Frederick and Prussia. Not only that, Britain would soon join the Austro-Russian alliance, but complications arose. Britain's basic framework for the alliance itself was to protect Hanover's interests against France. While at the same time, Kaunitz kept approaching the French in the hope of establishing such alliance with Austria. Not only that, France had no intention to ally with Russia, who meddled with their affairs in Austria's succession war, years earlier, and saw the complete dismemberment of Prussia as unacceptable to the stability of Central Europe.
What was Kaunitz of Austria willing to trade for French help in capturing Silesia?
572ea33603f989190075687f
willing to trade Austrian Netherlands for France's aid
185
False
What did Russia use Britain's money for?
572ea33603f9891900756880
to station 50,000 troops on the Livonian-Lithunian border, so they could defend Britain's interests in Hanover
449
False
What countries teamed together at the Convention of Westminster?
572ea33603f9891900756881
Britain and Prussia
972
False
When was the Convention of Westminster signed?
572ea33603f9891900756882
January 16, 1756
905
False
Why was Beshuzev happy to put the troops on the Livonian-Lithunian border?
572ea33603f9891900756883
Besthuzev, assuming the preparation was directed against Prussia,
573
False
Years later, Kaunitz kept trying to establish France's alliance with Austria. He tried as hard as he could for Austria to not get entangled in Hanover's political affairs, and was even willing to trade Austrian Netherlands for France's aid in recapturing Silesia. Frustrated by this decision and by the Dutch Republic's insistence on neutrality, Britain soon turned to Russia. On September 30, 1755, Britain pledged financial aid to Russia in order to station 50,000 troops on the Livonian-Lithunian border, so they could defend Britain's interests in Hanover immediately. Besthuzev, assuming the preparation was directed against Prussia, was more than happy to obey the request of the British. Unbeknownst to the other powers, King George II also made overtures to the Prussian king; Frederick, who began fearing the Austro-Russian intentions, and was excited to welcome a rapprochement with Britain. On January 16, 1756, the Convention of Westminster was signed wherein Britain and Prussia promised to aid one another in order to achieve lasting peace and stability in Europe.
What was the response of Empress Elizabeth of Russia to the English-Prussian agreement?
572ea61f03f98919007568a3
Empress Elizabeth of Russia was outraged
131
False
Why was France mad at the British-Prussian agreement?
572ea61f03f98919007568a4
France was so enraged, and terrified, by the sudden betrayal of its only ally. Austria,
226
False
France was now in a desperate position, what did they do?
572ea61f03f98919007568a5
France was forced to accede to the Austro-Russian alliance
400
False
Who were the parties to the treaty of Versailles?
572ea61f03f98919007568a6
Austria, particularly Kaunitz, used this situation to their utmost advantage. The now-isolated France
305
False
How many troops did Austria and France pledge to defend each other?
572ea61f03f98919007568a7
24.000 troops
574
False
The carefully coded word in the agreement proved no less catalytic for the other European powers. The results were absolute chaos. Empress Elizabeth of Russia was outraged at the duplicity of Britain's position. Not only that France was so enraged, and terrified, by the sudden betrayal of its only ally. Austria, particularly Kaunitz, used this situation to their utmost advantage. The now-isolated France was forced to accede to the Austro-Russian alliance or face ruin. Thereafter, on May 1, 1756, the First Treaty of Versailles was signed, in which both nations pledged 24.000 troops to defend each other in the case of an attack. This diplomatic revolution proved to be an important cause of the war; although both treaties were self-defensive in nature, the actions of both coalitions made the war virtually inevitable.
Where did the French build Fort Duquesne?
572ea780dfa6aa1500f8d25b
the Forks" where the Allegheny and Monongahela Rivers meet to form the Ohio River
77
False
What city is now located where Fort Duquesne was built?
572ea780dfa6aa1500f8d25c
Pittsburgh, Pennsylvania
172
False
Were the British successful in stopping the building of Fort Duquesne?
572ea780dfa6aa1500f8d25d
British attempts to halt this fort construction were unsuccessful
208
False
Who led the British militia to drive the French out of Fort Duquesne?
572ea780dfa6aa1500f8d25e
Led by George Washington
417
False
Where did the French for General George Washington's surrender?
572ea780dfa6aa1500f8d25f
Fort Necessity
613
False
The most important French fort planned was intended to occupy a position at "the Forks" where the Allegheny and Monongahela Rivers meet to form the Ohio River (present day Pittsburgh, Pennsylvania). Peaceful British attempts to halt this fort construction were unsuccessful, and the French proceeded to build the fort they named Fort Duquesne. British colonial militia from Virginia were then sent to drive them out. Led by George Washington, they ambushed a small French force at Jumonville Glen on 28 May 1754 killing ten, including commander Jumonville. The French retaliated by attacking Washington's army at Fort Necessity on 3 July 1754 and forced Washington to surrender.
Which country dispatched regular troops to North America?
572ea92e03f98919007568d1
Britain and France
38
False
What was the result of the British attack on Ft Duquesne?
572ea92e03f98919007568d2
the expedition ended in disastrous defeat
513
False
Who led the British assault on Ft. Duquesne?
572ea92e03f98919007568d3
British Major General Edward Braddock
378
False
What was the result of the naval encounter between Britain and France?
572ea92e03f98919007568d4
Admiral Edward Boscawen fired on the French ship Alcide on 8 June 1755, capturing it and two troop ships
575
False
Who won the Battle of Lake George?
572ea92e03f98919007568d5
inconclusive
737
False
News of this arrived in Europe, where Britain and France unsuccessfully attempted to negotiate a solution. The two nations eventually dispatched regular troops to North America to enforce their claims. The first British action was the assault on Acadia on 16 June 1755 in the Battle of Fort Beauséjour, which was immediately followed by their expulsion of the Acadians. In July British Major General Edward Braddock led about 2,000 army troops and provincial militia on an expedition to retake Fort Duquesne, but the expedition ended in disastrous defeat. In further action, Admiral Edward Boscawen fired on the French ship Alcide on 8 June 1755, capturing it and two troop ships. In September 1755, French and British troops met in the inconclusive Battle of Lake George.
How much effort did France put into wars to defend its colonies?
572eab27cb0c0d14000f142e
It would let colonies defend themselves or would offer only minimal help
80
False
Identify a major factor in this feckless strategy by France of not defending its colonies with enthusiasm?
572eab27cb0c0d14000f142f
geography, coupled with the superiority of the British navy, made it difficult
347
False
Why did the French rulers need a large domestic army?
572eab27cb0c0d14000f1430
several long land borders made an effective domestic army imperative
521
False
In treaty negotiations, what trades did France hope to make.
572eab27cb0c0d14000f1431
in treaty negotiations, to trade territorial acquisitions in Europe to regain lost overseas possessions.
886
False
How much success did France have in adding European territory with this approach?
572eab27cb0c0d14000f1432
France had few counterbalancing European successes.
1137
False
For much of the eighteenth century, France approached its wars in the same way. It would let colonies defend themselves or would offer only minimal help (sending them limited numbers of troops or inexperienced soldiers), anticipating that fights for the colonies would most likely be lost anyway. This strategy was to a degree forced upon France: geography, coupled with the superiority of the British navy, made it difficult for the French navy to provide significant supplies and support to French colonies. Similarly, several long land borders made an effective domestic army imperative for any French ruler. Given these military necessities, the French government, unsurprisingly, based its strategy overwhelmingly on the army in Europe: it would keep most of its army on the continent, hoping for victories closer to home. The plan was to fight to the end of hostilities and then, in treaty negotiations, to trade territorial acquisitions in Europe to regain lost overseas possessions. This approach did not serve France well in the war, as the colonies were indeed lost, but although much of the European war went well, by its end France had few counterbalancing European successes.
How did the British avoid having large contingents of troops in continental Europe?
572ead8003f989190075691f
allying themselves with one or more Continental powers whose interests were antithetical to those of their enemies,
192
False
Identify an advantage that Britain had during the Seven Year's War.
572ead8003f9891900756920
Britain could turn London's enormous financial power to military advantage
384
False
Who led the armies supporting British interests in central Europe?
572ead8003f9891900756921
Frederick the Great of Prussia
563
False
What country was driven into an alliance with France by the British pairing with Prussia?
572ead8003f9891900756922
leaving Austria to side with France
844
False
How did the British behave in defending their colonies compared to the French approach?
572ead8003f9891900756923
In marked contrast to France, Britain strove to prosecute the war actively in the colonies
881
False
The British—by inclination as well as for practical reasons—had tended to avoid large-scale commitments of troops on the Continent. They sought to offset the disadvantage of this in Europe by allying themselves with one or more Continental powers whose interests were antithetical to those of their enemies, particularly France.:15–16 By subsidising the armies of continental allies, Britain could turn London's enormous financial power to military advantage. In the Seven Years' War, the British chose as their principal partner the greatest general of the day, Frederick the Great of Prussia, then the rising power in central Europe, and paid Frederick substantial subsidies for his campaigns.:106 This was accomplished in the Diplomatic Revolution of 1756, in which Britain ended its long-standing alliance with Austria in favor of Prussia, leaving Austria to side with France. In marked contrast to France, Britain strove to prosecute the war actively in the colonies, taking full advantage of its naval power. :64–66 The British pursued a dual strategy – naval blockade and bombardment of enemy ports, and rapid movement of troops by sea. They harassed enemy shipping and attacked enemy colonies, frequently using colonists from nearby British colonies in the effort.
What was the grand strategy of prime minister William Pitt?
572eb0c2c246551400ce4520
a grand strategy of seizing the entire French Empire
186
False
What locations did Pitt want from France?
572eb0c2c246551400ce4521
North America and India
270
False
What was Pitt's primary military advantage?
572eb0c2c246551400ce4522
Britain's main weapon was the Royal Navy
295
False
How did Pitt plan to augment the British regular troops?
572eb0c2c246551400ce4523
He also planned to use colonial forces from the Thirteen American colonies
416
False
How did Pitt's strategy affect Britain's future plans?
572eb0c2c246551400ce4524
even after that the British continued his strategy
684
False
William Pitt, who entered the cabinet in 1756, had a grand vision for the war that made it entirely different from previous wars with France. As prime minister Pitt committed Britain to a grand strategy of seizing the entire French Empire, especially its possessions in North America and India. Britain's main weapon was the Royal Navy, which could control the seas and bring as many invasion troops as were needed. He also planned to use colonial forces from the Thirteen American colonies, working under the command of British regulars, to invade new France. In order to tie the French army down he subsidized his European allies. Pitt Head of the government from 1756 to 1761, and even after that the British continued his strategy. It proved completely successful. Pitt had a clear appreciation of the enormous value of imperial possessions, and realized how vulnerable was the French Empire.
What was the reason that the British Prime Minister thought that ware in Europe could be prevented?
572eb4c8cb0c0d14000f149a
the new series of alliances could prevent war from breaking out in Europe
71
False
What country initiated conflict?
572eb4c8cb0c0d14000f149b
the French opened the campaign against the British by an attack on Minorca
205
False
What was the result for Admiral Byng?
572eb4c8cb0c0d14000f149c
Admiral Byng was court-martialed and executed
417
False
When was war declared between Britain and France?
572eb4c8cb0c0d14000f149d
War between Britain and France had been formally declared on 18 May
465
False
How did the timing of the declaration of war compare to the conflicts in North America between Britain and France?
572eb4c8cb0c0d14000f149e
nearly two years after fighting had broken out in the Ohio Country.
533
False
The British Prime Minister, the Duke of Newcastle, was optimistic that the new series of alliances could prevent war from breaking out in Europe. However, a large French force was assembled at Toulon, and the French opened the campaign against the British by an attack on Minorca in the Mediterranean. A British attempt at relief was foiled at the Battle of Minorca, and the island was captured on 28 June (for which Admiral Byng was court-martialed and executed). War between Britain and France had been formally declared on 18 May nearly two years after fighting had broken out in the Ohio Country.
How did Frederick II of Prussia respond to news of British and French clashes in North America?
572eb68dcb0c0d14000f14a4
he led Prussian troops across the border of Saxony
143
False
What country was Saxony aligned with?
572eb68dcb0c0d14000f14a5
Saxony, one of the small German states in league with Austria
187
False
Fpr what possession of Prussia was the Saxony invasion a distraction?
572eb68dcb0c0d14000f14a6
pre-emption of an anticipated Austro-French invasion of Silesia
277
False
What was one goal of the invasion of Saxony?
572eb68dcb0c0d14000f14a7
he would seize Saxony and eliminate it as a threat to Prussia
395
False
What was another goal of the invasion of Saxony?
572eb68dcb0c0d14000f14a8
to advance into Bohemia where he might set up winter quarters at Austria's expense
549
False
Frederick II of Prussia had received reports of the clashes in North America and had formed an alliance with Great Britain. On 29 August 1756, he led Prussian troops across the border of Saxony, one of the small German states in league with Austria. He intended this as a bold pre-emption of an anticipated Austro-French invasion of Silesia. He had three goals in his new war on Austria. First, he would seize Saxony and eliminate it as a threat to Prussia, then using the Saxon army and treasury to aid the Prussian war effort. His second goal was to advance into Bohemia where he might set up winter quarters at Austria's expense. Thirdly, he wanted to invade Moravia from Silesia, seize the fortress at Olmütz, and advance on Vienna to force an end to the war.
How did Frederick protect Silesia when he went to invade Saxony?
572eb7dfcb0c0d14000f14ae
leaving Field Marshal Count Kurt von Schwerin in Silesia with 25,000 soldiers to guard against incursions from Moravia or Hungary
13
False
How did Frederick protect East Prussia when he went to invade Saxony?
572eb7dfcb0c0d14000f14af
leaving Field Marshal Hans von Lehwaldt in East Prussia to guard against Russian invasion from the east
148
False
Describe the command of Prince Ferdinand of Brunswick.
572eb7dfcb0c0d14000f14b0
a column of about 15,000 men
358
False
Describe the command of the Duke ofBrunswich-Bevern.
572eb7dfcb0c0d14000f14b1
a column of 18,000 men
455
False
Describe the command of Field Marshall James Keith
572eb7dfcb0c0d14000f14b2
a corps of 30,000 troops.
611
False
Accordingly, leaving Field Marshal Count Kurt von Schwerin in Silesia with 25,000 soldiers to guard against incursions from Moravia or Hungary, and leaving Field Marshal Hans von Lehwaldt in East Prussia to guard against Russian invasion from the east, Frederick set off with his army for Saxony. The Prussian army marched in three columns. On the right was a column of about 15,000 men under the command of Prince Ferdinand of Brunswick. On the left was a column of 18,000 men under the command of the Duke of Brunswick-Bevern. In the centre was Frederick II, himself with Field Marshal James Keith commanding a corps of 30,000 troops. Ferdinand of Brunswick was to close in on the town of Chemnitz. The Duke of Brunswick-Bevern was to traverse Lusatia to close in on Bautzen. Meanwhile, Frederick and Field Marshal Keith would make for Dresden.
How much resistance did Frederick encounter in Saxon?
572eb9e9cb0c0d14000f14ca
Saxon and Austrian armies were unprepared, and their forces were scattered.
4
False
What reinforcements were the Saxons expecting?
572eb9e9cb0c0d14000f14cb
Frederick prevented the isolated Saxon army from being reinforced by an Austrian army under General Browne
198
False
What happened to the Saxon army?
572eb9e9cb0c0d14000f14cc
Saxon army surrendered in October 1756, and was forcibly incorporated into the Prussian army
372
False
What characteristic of Saxony caused Europe to be mad?
572eb9e9cb0c0d14000f14cd
attack on neutral Saxony caused outrage
470
False
What was the result of the fury of Europe?
572eb9e9cb0c0d14000f14ce
led to the strengthening of the anti-Prussian coalition
528
False
The Saxon and Austrian armies were unprepared, and their forces were scattered. Frederick occupied Dresden with little or no opposition from the Saxons. At the Battle of Lobositz on 1 October 1756, Frederick prevented the isolated Saxon army from being reinforced by an Austrian army under General Browne. The Prussians then occupied Saxony; after the Siege of Pirna, the Saxon army surrendered in October 1756, and was forcibly incorporated into the Prussian army. The attack on neutral Saxony caused outrage across Europe and led to the strengthening of the anti-Prussian coalition. The only significant Austrian success was the partial occupation of Silesia. Far from being easy, Frederick's early successes proved indecisive and very costly for Prussia's smaller army. This led him to remark that he did not fight the same Austrians as he had during the previous war.
How did Britain Protect Hanover?
572ebd11c246551400ce45c2
combined force of allied German states was organised by the British to protect Hanover
162
False
How did the British support Prussia?
572ebd11c246551400ce45c3
shipping supplies and ₤670,000
74
False
Why did the Dutch reject Britain's offer to join the alliance?
572ebd11c246551400ce45c4
the Dutch wished to remain fully neutral
424
False
Who had done better, the Prussians in Europe or the Brits in North America?
572ebd11c246551400ce45c5
successful for the Prussian-led forces on the continent, in contrast to disappointing British campaigns in North America.
523
False
Who led the force to defend Hanover?
572ebd11c246551400ce45c6
under the command of the Duke of Cumberland
271
False
Britain had been surprised by the sudden Prussian offensive but now began shipping supplies and ₤670,000 (equivalent to ₤89.9 million in 2015) to its new ally. A combined force of allied German states was organised by the British to protect Hanover from French invasion, under the command of the Duke of Cumberland. The British attempted to persuade the Dutch Republic to join the alliance, but the request was rejected, as the Dutch wished to remain fully neutral. Despite the huge disparity in numbers, the year had been successful for the Prussian-led forces on the continent, in contrast to disappointing British campaigns in North America.
Where did the Austrians retreat in May of 1757?
572ebebbc246551400ce45dc
the fortifications of Prague
301
False
Who led the Prussian assault on Prague in 1757
572ebebbc246551400ce45dd
Frederick II
15
False
What were casualties like in the 1757 battle in Prague?
572ebebbc246551400ce45de
both forces suffered major casualties
217
False
Why did Frederick reduce his manpower at Prague?
572ebebbc246551400ce45df
Frederick took 5,000 troops from the siege at Prague and sent them to reinforce the 19,000-man army under the Duke of Brunswick-Bevern at Kolin in Bohemia
410
False
How did Austrian Marshall Daun reverse the situation at Prague?
572ebebbc246551400ce45e0
picked up 16,000 men who had escaped from the battle. With this army he slowly moved to relieve Prague.
649
False
In early 1757, Frederick II again took the initiative by marching into the Kingdom of Bohemia, hoping to inflict a decisive defeat on Austrian forces. After winning the bloody Battle of Prague on 6 May 1757, in which both forces suffered major casualties, the Prussians forced the Austrians back into the fortifications of Prague. The Prussian army then laid siege to the city. Following the battle at Prague, Frederick took 5,000 troops from the siege at Prague and sent them to reinforce the 19,000-man army under the Duke of Brunswick-Bevern at Kolin in Bohemia. Austrian Marshal Daun arrived too late to participate in the battle of Prague, but picked up 16,000 men who had escaped from the battle. With this army he slowly moved to relieve Prague. The Prussian army was too weak to simultaneously besiege Prague and keep Daun away, and Frederick was forced to attack prepared positions. The resulting Battle of Kolin was a sharp defeat for Frederick, his first military defeat. His losses further forced him to lift the siege and withdraw from Bohemia altogether.
What led to the defeat of the Prussians at Memel?
572ec004c246551400ce45f6
five days of artillery bombardment
135
False
How did the Russians used the captured Memel?
572ec004c246551400ce45f7
used Memel as a base to invade East Prussia
227
False
What caused the Russians based in Memel to be successful deeper into Prussia?
572ec004c246551400ce45f8
defeated a smaller Prussian force
275
False
What was Frederick's response to the Russian invasion?
572ec004c246551400ce45f9
he was now forced to withdraw further into Prussian-controlled territory
566
False
What additional country felt emboldened to invade Prussia?
572ec004c246551400ce45fa
Sweden
794
False
Later that summer, the Russians invaded Memel with 75,000 troops. Memel had one of the strongest fortresses in Prussia. However, after five days of artillery bombardment the Russian army was able to storm it. The Russians then used Memel as a base to invade East Prussia and defeated a smaller Prussian force in the fiercely contested Battle of Gross-Jägersdorf on 30 August 1757. However, it was not yet able to take Königsberg and retreated soon afterward. Still, it was a new threat to Prussia. Not only was Frederick forced to break off his invasion of Bohemia, he was now forced to withdraw further into Prussian-controlled territory. His defeats on the battlefield brought still more opportunist nations into the war. Sweden declared war on Prussia and invaded Pomerania with 17,000 men. Sweden felt this small army was all that was needed to occupy Pomerania and felt the Swedish army would not need to engage with the Prussians because the Prussians were occupied on so many other fronts.
What were reasons that the late 1757 time frame looked bad for Prussia?
572ec240cb0c0d14000f1510
the Austrians mobilising to attack Prussian-controlled soil and a French army under Soubise approaching from the west
47
False
What was the initial result of the French invasion?
572ec240cb0c0d14000f1511
Frederick devastated Prince Soubise's French force at the Battle of Rossbach on 5 November 1757
261
False
What was the result of the Austrian invasion?
572ec240cb0c0d14000f1512
then routed a vastly superior Austrian force at the Battle of Leuthen on 5 December 1757
361
False
Name the four opponents of Prussia.
572ec240cb0c0d14000f1513
(France from the West, Austria from the South, Russia from the East and Sweden from the North)
700
False
What German areas were beginning to oppose Prussia?
572ec240cb0c0d14000f1514
a number of smaller German states such as Bavaria had been established under Austrian leadership
829
False
Things were looking grim for Prussia now, with the Austrians mobilising to attack Prussian-controlled soil and a French army under Soubise approaching from the west. However, in November and December of 1757, the whole situation in Germany was reversed. First, Frederick devastated Prince Soubise's French force at the Battle of Rossbach on 5 November 1757 and then routed a vastly superior Austrian force at the Battle of Leuthen on 5 December 1757 With these victories, Frederick once again established himself as Europe's premier general and his men as Europe's most accomplished soldiers. In spite of this, the Prussians were now facing the prospect of four major powers attacking on four fronts (France from the West, Austria from the South, Russia from the East and Sweden from the North). Meanwhile, a combined force from a number of smaller German states such as Bavaria had been established under Austrian leadership, thus threatening Prussian control of Saxony.
What Hanoverian leader lost the Battle of Hastenbeck?
572ec36adfa6aa1500f8d35d
Cumberland
64
False
What country won the battle at Hanover?
572ec36adfa6aa1500f8d35e
French
195
False
How would one describe the future participation of Hanover?
572ec36adfa6aa1500f8d35f
Convention removed Hanover and Brunswick from the war
227
False
How did Frederick respond to the defeat at Hanover?
572ec36adfa6aa1500f8d360
Frederick sent urgent requests to Britain for more substantial assistance
355
False
This problem was compounded when the main Hanoverian army under Cumberland was defeated at the Battle of Hastenbeck and forced to surrender entirely at the Convention of Klosterzeven following a French Invasion of Hanover. The Convention removed Hanover and Brunswick from the war, leaving the Western approach to Prussian territory extremely vulnerable. Frederick sent urgent requests to Britain for more substantial assistance, as he was now without any outside military support for his forces in Germany.
Why did Ferdinand feel comfortable withdrawing troops from the eastern front?
572ec545cb0c0d14000f152c
Calculating that no further Russian advance was likely until 1758
0
False
What was the result of Prussian resistance to Sweden?
572ec545cb0c0d14000f152d
the Prussian army drove the Swedes back, occupied most of Swedish Pomerania
228
False
What area of Sweden was occupied by Prussia?
572ec545cb0c0d14000f152e
occupied most of Swedish Pomerania
269
False
What favorable developments occurred for Prussia in Hanover?
572ec545cb0c0d14000f152f
Duke Ferdinand of Brunswick, regrouped his army and launched a series of offensives that drove the French back across the River Rhine.
541
False
What political development shaped the policy of the British?
572ec545cb0c0d14000f1530
successive governments led by Newcastle and Pitt had fallen. In August 1757, the two men agreed to a political partnership and formed a coalition
833
False
Calculating that no further Russian advance was likely until 1758, Frederick moved the bulk of his eastern forces to Pomerania under the command of Marshal Lehwaldt where they were to repel the Swedish invasion. In short order, the Prussian army drove the Swedes back, occupied most of Swedish Pomerania, and blockaded its capital Stralsund. George II of Great Britain, on the advice of his British ministers, revoked the Convention of Klosterzeven, and Hanover reentered the war. Over the winter the new commander of the Hanoverian forces, Duke Ferdinand of Brunswick, regrouped his army and launched a series of offensives that drove the French back across the River Rhine. The British had suffered further defeats in North America, particularly at Fort William Henry. At home, however, stability had been established. Since 1756, successive governments led by Newcastle and Pitt had fallen. In August 1757, the two men agreed to a political partnership and formed a coalition government that gave new, firmer direction to the war effort. The new strategy emphasised both Newcastle's commitment to British involvement on the Continent, particularly in defence of Germany, and William Pitt's determination to use naval power to seize French colonies around the globe. This "dual strategy" would dominate British policy for the next five years.
What Hungarian general humiliated the Prussians?
572ec68503f9891900756a07
Count András Hadik
53
False
What city did Hadik occupy?
572ec68503f9891900756a08
occupied part of their capital, Berlin, for one night
346
False
How was Berlin spared?
572ec68503f9891900756a09
city was spared for a negotiated ransom of 200,000 thalers
405
False
What was Frederick's response to the occupation by Hadik?
572ec68503f9891900756a0a
he immediately sent a larger force to free the city
521
False
How did Hadik respond to the Frederick force?
572ec68503f9891900756a0b
Hadik, however, left the city with his Hussars and safely reached the Austrian lines
574
False
Between 10 and 17 October 1757, a Hungarian general, Count András Hadik, serving in the Austrian army, executed what may be the most famous hussar action in history. When the Prussian King Frederick was marching south with his powerful armies, the Hungarian general unexpectedly swung his force of 5,000, mostly hussars, around the Prussians and occupied part of their capital, Berlin, for one night. The city was spared for a negotiated ransom of 200,000 thalers. When Frederick heard about this humiliating occupation, he immediately sent a larger force to free the city. Hadik, however, left the city with his Hussars and safely reached the Austrian lines. Subsequently, Hadik was promoted to the rank of Marshal in the Austrian army.
Where did Frederick invade in 1758
572ec79bcb0c0d14000f1550
Frederick launched an invasion of Moravia
15
False
What city did Frederick lay siege to?
572ec79bcb0c0d14000f1551
Olmütz
76
False
What turned the battle for Olmutz against Frederick?
572ec79bcb0c0d14000f1552
Austrian victory at the Battle of Domstadtl that wiped out a supply convoy destined for Olmütz,
127
False
How did Frederick respond to the loss of a supply convoy?
572ec79bcb0c0d14000f1553
Frederick broke off the siege and withdrew from Moravia.
223
False
In early 1758, Frederick launched an invasion of Moravia, and laid siege to Olmütz (now Olomouc, Czech Republic). Following an Austrian victory at the Battle of Domstadtl that wiped out a supply convoy destined for Olmütz, Frederick broke off the siege and withdrew from Moravia. It marked the end of his final attempt to launch a major invasion of Austrian territory. East Prussia had been occupied by Russian forces over the winter and would remain under their control until 1762, although Frederick did not see the Russians as an immediate threat and instead entertained hopes of first fighting a decisive battle against Austria that would knock them out of the war.
What was the annual financial commitment by Britain to Frederick?
572ec8ffc246551400ce467e
an annual subsidy of £670,000
117
False
How did Britain assist the defense of Hanover?
572ec8ffc246551400ce467f
Britain also dispatched 9,000 troops to reinforce Ferdinand's Hanoverian army
148
False
Who did Ferdinand repel from Ha nover?
572ec8ffc246551400ce4680
the French
352
False
What caused alarm in France?
572ec8ffc246551400ce4681
re-captured the port of Emden in March 1758 before crossing the Rhine with his own forces
395
False
Did Ferdinand permanently occupy France?
572ec8ffc246551400ce4682
he was compelled by the successful manoeuvering of larger French forces to withdraw across the Rhine
625
False
In April 1758, the British concluded the Anglo-Prussian Convention with Frederick in which they committed to pay him an annual subsidy of £670,000. Britain also dispatched 9,000 troops to reinforce Ferdinand's Hanoverian army, the first British troop commitment on the continent and a reversal in the policy of Pitt. Ferdinand had succeeded in driving the French from Hanover and Westphalia and re-captured the port of Emden in March 1758 before crossing the Rhine with his own forces, which caused alarm in France. Despite Ferdinand's victory over the French at the Battle of Krefeld and the brief occupation of Düsseldorf, he was compelled by the successful manoeuvering of larger French forces to withdraw across the Rhine.
How did Frederick respond to the Russian occupation of east Prussia?
572eca2903f9891900756a2b
marched to counter it.
92
False
How large a force did Frederick send against the occupying Russians?
572eca2903f9891900756a2c
35,000 men
231
False
How many Russians were in defense?
572eca2903f9891900756a2d
Russian army of 43,000
285
False
Which army withdrew?
572eca2903f9891900756a2e
the Russians withdrew
430
False
What country was Prussia fighting on another front?
572eca2903f9891900756a2f
Swedish
537
False
By this point Frederick was increasingly concerned by the Russian advance from the east and marched to counter it. Just east of the Oder in Brandenburg-Neumark, at the Battle of Zorndorf (now Sarbinowo, Poland), a Prussian army of 35,000 men under Frederick on Aug. 25, 1758, fought a Russian army of 43,000 commanded by Count William Fermor. Both sides suffered heavy casualties – the Prussians 12,800, the Russians 18,000 – but the Russians withdrew, and Frederick claimed victory. In the undecided Battle of Tornow on 25 September, a Swedish army repulsed six assaults by a Prussian army but did not push on Berlin following the Battle of Fehrbellin.
What Austrian General surprised the Prussian at Hochkirch?
572ecb3c03f9891900756a35
Marshal Daun
55
False
What was the major loss for Prussia at Hochkirch?
572ecb3c03f9891900756a36
lost much of his artillery
161
False
Why was Frederick able to retreat successfully?
572ecb3c03f9891900756a37
retreated in good order, helped by dense woods
192
False
What was the result of the victory for the Austrians?
572ecb3c03f9891900756a38
The Austrians had ultimately made little progress in the campaign in Saxony despite Hochkirch and had failed to achieve a decisive breakthrough
240
False
How did the Austrian troops spend the winter?
572ecb3c03f9891900756a39
, Daun's troops were forced to withdraw to Austrian territory for the winter
425
False
The war was continuing indecisively when on 14 October Marshal Daun's Austrians surprised the main Prussian army at the Battle of Hochkirch in Saxony. Frederick lost much of his artillery but retreated in good order, helped by dense woods. The Austrians had ultimately made little progress in the campaign in Saxony despite Hochkirch and had failed to achieve a decisive breakthrough. After a thwarted attempt to take Dresden, Daun's troops were forced to withdraw to Austrian territory for the winter, so that Saxony remained under Prussian occupation. At the same time, the Russians failed in an attempt to take Kolberg in Pomerania (now Kołobrzeg, Poland) from the Prussians.
How did the Prussian army perform in 1759/
572ecc82c246551400ce46a4
1759 saw several Prussian defeats
9
False
How would one characterize the encounter with the Russian army in 1757?
572ecc82c246551400ce46a5
47,000 Russians defeated 26,000 Prussians
110
False
What happened at Minden in 1757?
572ecc82c246551400ce46a6
the Hanoverians defeated an army of 60,000 French
205
False
What was the result of the Battle of Maxen?
572ecc82c246551400ce46a7
Austrian general Daun forced the surrender of an entire Prussian corps of 13,000
266
False
What happened to Frederick's army at the Battle at Kunersdorf?
572ecc82c246551400ce46a8
Frederick himself lost half his army
371
False
The year 1759 saw several Prussian defeats. At the Battle of Kay, or Paltzig, the Russian Count Saltykov with 47,000 Russians defeated 26,000 Prussians commanded by General Carl Heinrich von Wedel. Though the Hanoverians defeated an army of 60,000 French at Minden, Austrian general Daun forced the surrender of an entire Prussian corps of 13,000 in the Battle of Maxen. Frederick himself lost half his army in the Battle of Kunersdorf (now Kunowice Poland), the worst defeat in his military career and one that drove him to the brink of abdication and thoughts of suicide. The disaster resulted partly from his misjudgment of the Russians, who had already demonstrated their strength at Zorndorf and at Gross-Jägersdorf (now Motornoye, Russia), and partly from good cooperation between the Russian and Austrian forces.
Where was the planned invasion of Britain by France?
572ecdbadfa6aa1500f8d3e5
near the mouth of the Loire
82
False
How did the French plan to transport their troops to Britain for the invasion?
572ecdbadfa6aa1500f8d3e6
their Brest and Toulon fleets
128
False
What happened to the French Mediterranean fleet?
572ecdbadfa6aa1500f8d3e7
the Mediterranean fleet under Jean-François de La Clue-Sabran was scattered by a larger British fleet
211
False
What happened to the French Brest fleet?
572ecdbadfa6aa1500f8d3e8
caught the French Brest fleet with 21 ships of the line under Marshal de Conflans and sank, captured, or forced many of them aground
464
False
With the loss of the two fleets, how did the French get their troops to Britain for the invasion?
572ecdbadfa6aa1500f8d3e9
putting an end to the French plans.
598
False
The French planned to invade the British Isles during 1759 by accumulating troops near the mouth of the Loire and concentrating their Brest and Toulon fleets. However, two sea defeats prevented this. In August, the Mediterranean fleet under Jean-François de La Clue-Sabran was scattered by a larger British fleet under Edward Boscawen at the Battle of Lagos. In the Battle of Quiberon Bay on 20 November, the British admiral Edward Hawke with 23 ships of the line caught the French Brest fleet with 21 ships of the line under Marshal de Conflans and sank, captured, or forced many of them aground, putting an end to the French plans.
Identify a success of the Austrians?
572ecf2fc246551400ce46c2
the Austrians, under the command of General Laudon, captured Glatz
14
False
Where is Glatz
572ecf2fc246551400ce46c3
Glatz (now Kłodzko, Poland) in Silesia
75
False
What was outstanding about Frederick's victory in the Battle of Liegnitz?
572ecf2fc246551400ce46c4
outnumbered three to one
189
False
Who led the Russian occupation of Berlin?
572ecf2fc246551400ce46c5
General Saltykov
234
False
Why was Frederick's defeat of Daun so costly?
572ecf2fc246551400ce46c6
he suffered very heavy casualties, and the Austrians retreated in good order.
476
False
Despite this, the Austrians, under the command of General Laudon, captured Glatz (now Kłodzko, Poland) in Silesia. In the Battle of Liegnitz Frederick scored a strong victory despite being outnumbered three to one. The Russians under General Saltykov and Austrians under General Lacy briefly occupied his capital, Berlin, in October, but could not hold it for long. The end of that year saw Frederick once more victorious, defeating the able Daun in the Battle of Torgau; but he suffered very heavy casualties, and the Austrians retreated in good order.
Identify a new country that joined the war in 1762?
572ed18acb0c0d14000f15dc
Spain
99
False
Identify a second new country that joined the war in 1762?
572ed18acb0c0d14000f15dd
Portugal
184
False
Was Portugal on the side of France or Britain?
572ed18acb0c0d14000f15de
Portugal followed by joining the war on Britain's side
184
False
What city was captured in the first Spain-Portugal conflict?
572ed18acb0c0d14000f15df
. Spain, aided by the French, launched an invasion of Portugal and succeeded in capturing Almeida
238
False
Britain sent troops to aid Portugal.  What was the result?
572ed18acb0c0d14000f15e0
the Anglo-Portuguese army, aided by guerrillas and practicing a scorched earth strategy, chased the greatly reduced Franco-Spanish army back to Spain
662
False
1762 brought two new countries into the war. Britain declared war against Spain on 4 January 1762; Spain reacted by issuing their own declaration of war against Britain on 18 January. Portugal followed by joining the war on Britain's side. Spain, aided by the French, launched an invasion of Portugal and succeeded in capturing Almeida. The arrival of British reinforcements stalled a further Spanish advance, and the Battle of Valencia de Alcántara saw British-Portuguese forces overrun a major Spanish supply base. The invaders were stopped on the heights in front of Abrantes (called the pass to Lisbon) where the Anglo-Portuguese were entrenched. Eventually the Anglo-Portuguese army, aided by guerrillas and practicing a scorched earth strategy, chased the greatly reduced Franco-Spanish army back to Spain, recovering almost all the lost towns, among them the Spanish headquarters in Castelo Branco full of wounded and sick that had been left behind.
How did the Prussians slow the advance of the Russians?
572ed315cb0c0d14000f15e6
the Prussian army launched several successful raids against them
124
False
What was the size of one of the Prussian victories against the Russians?
572ed315cb0c0d14000f15e7
. One of them, led by general Platen in September resulted in the loss of 2,000 Russians, mostly captured, and the destruction of 5,000 wagons
188
False
Identify a major Prussian loss to the Russians
572ed315cb0c0d14000f15e8
Russians under Zakhar Chernyshev and Pyotr Rumyantsev stormed Kolberg in Pomerania
532
False
identify a major Prussian loss to the Austrians.
572ed315cb0c0d14000f15e9
the Austrians captured Schweidnitz.
622
False
What was the concern about Prussia in Britain?
572ed315cb0c0d14000f15ea
. In Britain, it was speculated that a total Prussian collapse was now imminent.
722
False
On the eastern front, progress was very slow. The Russian army was heavily dependent upon its main magazines in Poland, and the Prussian army launched several successful raids against them. One of them, led by general Platen in September resulted in the loss of 2,000 Russians, mostly captured, and the destruction of 5,000 wagons. Deprived of men, the Prussians had to resort to this new sort of warfare, raiding, to delay the advance of their enemies. Nonetheless, at the end of the year, they suffered two critical setbacks. The Russians under Zakhar Chernyshev and Pyotr Rumyantsev stormed Kolberg in Pomerania, while the Austrians captured Schweidnitz. The loss of Kolberg cost Prussia its last port on the Baltic Sea. In Britain, it was speculated that a total Prussian collapse was now imminent.
Britain tried to influence Prussia to take what action?
572ed4b3cb0c0d14000f15f6
offering concessions to secure peace
76
False
How many troops did Frederick have left?
572ed4b3cb0c0d14000f15f7
60,000 men
158
False
What development in Russia assisted Prussia?
572ed4b3cb0c0d14000f15f8
Russian Empress Elizabeth died. Her Prussophile successor, Peter III, at once recalled Russian armies from Berlin
278
False
What changed the Prussian relationship with Sweden?
572ed4b3cb0c0d14000f15f9
Peter III, at once recalled Russian armies from Berlin (see: the Treaty of Saint Petersburg (1762)) and mediated Frederick's truce with Sweden
337
False
What was the unexpected action by Peter III that helped Frederick?
572ed4b3cb0c0d14000f15fa
He also placed a corps of his own troops under Frederick's command
481
False
Britain now threatened to withdraw its subsidies if Prussia didn't consider offering concessions to secure peace. As the Prussian armies had dwindled to just 60,000 men and with Berlin itself under siege, Frederick's survival was severely threatened. Then on 5 January 1762 the Russian Empress Elizabeth died. Her Prussophile successor, Peter III, at once recalled Russian armies from Berlin (see: the Treaty of Saint Petersburg (1762)) and mediated Frederick's truce with Sweden. He also placed a corps of his own troops under Frederick's command This turn of events has become known as the Miracle of the House of Brandenburg. Frederick was then able to muster a larger army of 120,000 men and concentrate it against Austria. He drove them from much of Saxony, while his brother Henry won a victory in Silesia in the Battle of Freiberg (29 October 1762). At the same time, his Brunswick allies captured the key town of Göttingen and compounded this by taking Cassel.
In 1763 what was the status of Frederick?
572ed5ccdfa6aa1500f8d425
his kingdom was devastated and his army severely weakened
194
False
In 1763 what was the status of Austria?
572ed5ccdfa6aa1500f8d426
facing a severe financial crisis and had to decrease the size of its army
649
False
What had happened to Frederick's financial help from Britain?
572ed5ccdfa6aa1500f8d427
British subsidies had been stopped by the new Prime Minister Lord Bute
395
False
What had happened to Frederick's extra troops from Russia?
572ed5ccdfa6aa1500f8d428
Catherine, who ended Russia's alliance with Prussia and withdrew from the war
524
False
What was the result of the weakening of both Prussia and Austria?
572ed5ccdfa6aa1500f8d429
In 1763 a peace settlement was reached at the Treaty of Hubertusburg, ending the war in central Europe.
1044
False
By 1763, the war in Central Europe was essentially a stalemate. Frederick had retaken most of Silesia and Saxony but not the latter's capital, Dresden. His financial situation was not dire, but his kingdom was devastated and his army severely weakened. His manpower had dramatically decreased, and he had lost so many effective officers and generals that a new offensive was perhaps impossible. British subsidies had been stopped by the new Prime Minister Lord Bute, and the Russian Emperor had been overthrown by his wife, Catherine, who ended Russia's alliance with Prussia and withdrew from the war. Austria, however, like most participants, was facing a severe financial crisis and had to decrease the size of its army, something which greatly affected its offensive power. Indeed, after having effectively sustained a long war, its administration was in disarray. By that time, it still held Dresden, the southeastern parts of Saxony, the county of Glatz, and southern Silesia, but the prospect of victory was dim without Russian support. In 1763 a peace settlement was reached at the Treaty of Hubertusburg, ending the war in central Europe.
What was the style of William Pitt's warfare?
572ed741c246551400ce470c
saw purpose in this type of asymmetric enterprise
114
False
What action did Pitt take against France in 1758?
572ed741c246551400ce470d
The army landed on 5 June 1758 at Cancalle Bay
411
False
How did the invading British army do at St. Malo?
572ed741c246551400ce470e
it would take prolonged siege to capture it, instead attacked the nearby port of St. Servan
500
False
What damage was done at the alternate site?
572ed741c246551400ce470f
It burned shipping in the harbor, roughly 80 French privateers and merchantmen, as well as four warships which were under construction
593
False
How did the British invaders respond to the arrival of French relief forces?
572ed741c246551400ce4710
the expedition returned having damaged French privateering
961
False
Despite the debatable strategic success and the operational failure of the descent on Rochefort, William Pitt—who saw purpose in this type of asymmetric enterprise—prepared to continue such operations. An army was assembled under the command of Charles Spencer, 3rd Duke of Marlborough; he was aided by Lord George Sackville. The naval squadron and transports for the expedition were commanded by Richard Howe. The army landed on 5 June 1758 at Cancalle Bay, proceeded to St. Malo, and, finding that it would take prolonged siege to capture it, instead attacked the nearby port of St. Servan. It burned shipping in the harbor, roughly 80 French privateers and merchantmen, as well as four warships which were under construction. The force then re-embarked under threat of the arrival of French relief forces. An attack on Havre de Grace was called off, and the fleet sailed on to Cherbourg; the weather being bad and provisions low, that too was abandoned, and the expedition returned having damaged French privateering and provided further strategic demonstration against the French coast.
Who decided to send British troops into Germany?
572edbf7c246551400ce4740
Pitt now prepared to send troops into Germany;
0
False
Who led the invasion troops?
572edbf7c246551400ce4741
The elderly General Bligh
186
False
Where did the troops land?
572edbf7c246551400ce4742
Cherbourg
321
False
Was the landing successful?
572edbf7c246551400ce4743
the army drove off the French force detailed to oppose their landing, captured Cherbourg,
362
False
How did the British treat Cherbourg?
572edbf7c246551400ce4744
destroyed its fortifications, docks, and shipping.
456
False
Pitt now prepared to send troops into Germany; and both Marlborough and Sackville, disgusted by what they perceived as the futility of the "descents", obtained commissions in that army. The elderly General Bligh was appointed to command a new "descent", escorted by Howe. The campaign began propitiously with the Raid on Cherbourg. Covered by naval bombardment, the army drove off the French force detailed to oppose their landing, captured Cherbourg, and destroyed its fortifications, docks, and shipping.
What stopped the planned siege at St. Malo?
572f7934947a6a140053c998
Worsening weather
185
False
How did the fleet respond to the bad weather?
572f7934947a6a140053c999
the ships sailed for the safer anchorage of St. Cast
238
False
How did the army get to the new anchorage location?
572f7934947a6a140053c99a
the army proceeded overland.
298
False
What happened to the British army?
572f7934947a6a140053c99b
a French force of 10,000 from Brest to catch up with him and open fire on the reembarkation troops
379
False
How did the British army escape
572f7934947a6a140053c99c
A rear-guard of 1,400 under General Dury held off the French while the rest of the army embarked
479
False
The troops were reembarked and moved to the Bay of St. Lunaire in Brittany where, on 3 September, they were landed to operate against St. Malo; however, this action proved impractical. Worsening weather forced the two armies to separate: the ships sailed for the safer anchorage of St. Cast, while the army proceeded overland. The tardiness of Bligh in moving his forces allowed a French force of 10,000 from Brest to catch up with him and open fire on the reembarkation troops. A rear-guard of 1,400 under General Dury held off the French while the rest of the army embarked. They could not be saved; 750, including Dury, were killed and the rest captured.
What island did Great Britain lose in 1756?
572f7b09a23a5019007fc673
Great Britain lost Minorca in the Mediterranean to the French in 1756
0
False
What possession did the French lose to the Brits in 1758
572f7b09a23a5019007fc674
captured the French colonies in Senegal in 1758
74
False
Identify the French colonies lost  to the British in 1759 and 1762.
572f7b09a23a5019007fc675
The British Royal Navy took the French sugar colonies of Guadeloupe in 1759 and Martinique in 1762
123
False
What success did the British have in Cuba?
572f7b09a23a5019007fc676
Spanish cities of Havana in Cuba
237
False
What other colony was taken by the British from Spain?
572f7b09a23a5019007fc677
Manila in the Philippines
275
False
Great Britain lost Minorca in the Mediterranean to the French in 1756 but captured the French colonies in Senegal in 1758. The British Royal Navy took the French sugar colonies of Guadeloupe in 1759 and Martinique in 1762 as well as the Spanish cities of Havana in Cuba, and Manila in the Philippines, both prominent Spanish colonial cities. However, expansion into the hinterlands of both cities met with stiff resistance. In the Philippines, the British were confined to Manila until their agreed upon withdrawal at the war's end.
Who were the Seven Nations of Canada?
572f7ca3a23a5019007fc67d
These were Native Americans of the Laurentian valley
73
False
Which tribe was the enemy of the Seven Nations of Canada?
572f7ca3a23a5019007fc67e
the Seven Nations were interested in fighting against the Iroquois
483
False
How much help did the Seven Nations give the French in the Ohio Valley?
572f7ca3a23a5019007fc67f
the Seven Nations were not directly concerned with the fate of the Ohio River Valley
211
False
Who was the European partner of the Iroquois?
572f7ca3a23a5019007fc680
The Iroquois, dominant in what is now Upstate New York, sided with the British
683
False
How valuable was the Iroquois alliance with Britain?
572f7ca3a23a5019007fc681
The Iroquois, dominant in what is now Upstate New York, sided with the British but did not play a large role in the war
683
False
During the war, the Seven Nations of Canada were allied with the French. These were Native Americans of the Laurentian valley—the Algonquin, the Abenaki, the Huron, and others. Although the Algonquin tribes and the Seven Nations were not directly concerned with the fate of the Ohio River Valley, they had been victims of the Iroquois Confederation. The Iroquois had encroached on Algonquin territory and pushed the Algonquins west beyond Lake Michigan. Therefore, the Algonquin and the Seven Nations were interested in fighting against the Iroquois. Throughout New England, New York, and the North-west Native American tribes formed differing alliances with the major belligerents. The Iroquois, dominant in what is now Upstate New York, sided with the British but did not play a large role in the war.
Who assisted the French in taking forts Oswego and William Henry?
572f7f37b2c2fd1400568191
France's native allies
121
False
How did France's native allies treat the British prisoners?
572f7f37b2c2fd1400568192
slaughtering and scalping soldiers and taking captive many men, women and children
250
False
How did the French guard respond to the attack on the prisoners?
572f7f37b2c2fd1400568193
the French refused to protect their captives
339
False
How did the French defend the Fortress of Louisbourg?
572f7f37b2c2fd1400568194
French naval deployments
385
False
What Canadian area had is seaward side protected by the defense of the Fortress of Louisbourg?
572f7f37b2c2fd1400568195
securing the seaward approaches to Quebec.
499
False
In 1756 and 1757 the French captured forts Oswego and William Henry from the British. The latter victory was marred when France's native allies broke the terms of capitulation and attacked the retreating British column, which was under French guard, slaughtering and scalping soldiers and taking captive many men, women and children while the French refused to protect their captives. French naval deployments in 1757 also successfully defended the key Fortress of Louisbourg on Cape Breton Island, securing the seaward approaches to Quebec.
How did the British assure numerical superiority in taking Louisbourg?
572f820a04bcaa1900d76a37
French reinforcements were blocked by British naval victory in the Battle of Cartagena
127
False
Identify two other French possessions captured by the British.
572f820a04bcaa1900d76a38
Fort Duquesne and Fort Frontenac
247
False
Who did the British deport from Lie Saint-Jean?
572f820a04bcaa1900d76a39
the Acadian population
333
False
What is Lie Saint-Jean called today?
572f820a04bcaa1900d76a3a
Île Saint-Jean (present-day Prince Edward Island)
396
False
How much were the French outnumbered at the Battle of Carillion?
572f820a04bcaa1900d76a3b
4,000 French troops repulsed 16,000 British
635
False
British Prime Minister William Pitt's focus on the colonies for the 1758 campaign paid off with the taking of Louisbourg after French reinforcements were blocked by British naval victory in the Battle of Cartagena and in the successful capture of Fort Duquesne and Fort Frontenac. The British also continued the process of deporting the Acadian population with a wave of major operations against Île Saint-Jean (present-day Prince Edward Island), the St. John River valley, and the Petitcodiac River valley. The celebration of these successes was dampened by their embarrassing defeat in the Battle of Carillon (Ticonderoga), in which 4,000 French troops repulsed 16,000 British.
Which country enjoyed the most success in battles in North America in 1759
572f84b3a23a5019007fc6d1
All of Britain's campaigns against New France succeeded in 1759
0
False
What two forts fell on the same day in 1758?
572f84b3a23a5019007fc6d2
Fort Niagara and Fort Carillon on 8 July 1758 fell to sizable British forces
114
False
When did General Wolfe take Quebec?
572f84b3a23a5019007fc6d3
On 13 September 1759, following a three-month siege of Quebec, General James Wolfe defeated the French
240
False
Did the French take Quebec back?
572f84b3a23a5019007fc6d4
they were unable to retake Quebec
500
False
What military advantage brought the success for the British in defending Quebec?
572f84b3a23a5019007fc6d5
British naval superiority
542
False
All of Britain's campaigns against New France succeeded in 1759, part of what became known as an Annus Mirabilis. Fort Niagara and Fort Carillon on 8 July 1758 fell to sizable British forces, cutting off French frontier forts further west. On 13 September 1759, following a three-month siege of Quebec, General James Wolfe defeated the French on the Plains of Abraham outside the city. The French staged a counteroffensive in the spring of 1760, with initial success at the Battle of Sainte-Foy, but they were unable to retake Quebec, due to British naval superiority following the battle of Neuville. The French forces retreated to Montreal, where on 8 September they surrendered to overwhelming British numerical superiority.
Where did the French attack in 1762?
572f85f6b2c2fd14005681b3
St. John's, Newfoundland
60
False
What advantage would taking St. John's have provided for the French?
572f85f6b2c2fd14005681b4
the expedition would have strengthened France's hand at the negotiating table
101
False
Did the French take St. John's?
572f85f6b2c2fd14005681b5
they took St. John's
189
False
Did the French hold St. John's?
572f85f6b2c2fd14005681b6
French forces were eventually defeated by British troops
245
False
Where was the final battle between the French and British in North America?
572f85f6b2c2fd14005681b7
Battle of Signal Hill
309
False
In 1762, towards the end of the war, French forces attacked St. John's, Newfoundland. If successful, the expedition would have strengthened France's hand at the negotiating table. Although they took St. John's and raided nearby settlements, the French forces were eventually defeated by British troops at the Battle of Signal Hill. This was the final battle of the war in North America, and it forced the French to surrender to Lieutenant Colonel William Amherst. The victorious British now controlled all of eastern North America.
Name two major events of the Seven Years' War In North America.
572f880804bcaa1900d76a55
the expulsion of the Acadians, the siege of Quebec
67
False
Name two more major events of the Seven Years' War in North America.
572f880804bcaa1900d76a56
the death of Wolfe, and the Battle of Fort William Henry
119
False
How did the events of the Seven Years' War affects the production of art?
572f880804bcaa1900d76a57
generated a vast number of ballads, broadsides, images, and novels
176
False
What are some novels about the Seven Years' War period?
572f880804bcaa1900d76a58
Longfellow's Evangeline, Benjamin West's The Death of General Wolfe, James Fenimore Cooper's The Last of the Mohicans
248
False
What other items point to the interest in the events of the Seven Years' War?
572f880804bcaa1900d76a59
maps and other printed materials
368
False
The history of the Seven Years' War in North America, particularly the expulsion of the Acadians, the siege of Quebec, the death of Wolfe, and the Battle of Fort William Henry generated a vast number of ballads, broadsides, images, and novels (see Longfellow's Evangeline, Benjamin West's The Death of General Wolfe, James Fenimore Cooper's The Last of the Mohicans), maps and other printed materials, which testify to how this event held the imagination of the British and North American public long after Wolfe's death in 1759.
How were the British-French hostilities concluded?
572f9a52b2c2fd1400568239
hostilities were ended in 1763 by the Treaty of Paris
17
False
Who ended up owning Louisiana?
572f9a52b2c2fd140056823a
the most important being France's cession to Spain of Louisiana
123
False
What part of North America did Britain end up with?
572f9a52b2c2fd140056823b
they now controlled all of North America east of the Mississippi.
897
False
What did France get that gave them a supply of sugar?
572f9a52b2c2fd140056823c
Caribbean island colonies of Guadeloupe and Martinique, France chose the latter
344
False
What country ended up with Lie d'Orleans
572f9a52b2c2fd140056823d
Spain lost control of Florida to Great Britain, but it received from the French the Île d'Orléans
574
False
The Anglo-French hostilities were ended in 1763 by the Treaty of Paris, which involved a complex series of land exchanges, the most important being France's cession to Spain of Louisiana, and to Great Britain the rest of New France except for the islands of St. Pierre and Miquelon. Faced with the choice of retrieving either New France or its Caribbean island colonies of Guadeloupe and Martinique, France chose the latter to retain these lucrative sources of sugar, writing off New France as an unproductive, costly territory. France also returned Minorca to the British. Spain lost control of Florida to Great Britain, but it received from the French the Île d'Orléans and all of the former French holdings west of the Mississippi River. The exchanges suited the British as well, as their own Caribbean islands already supplied ample sugar, and, with the acquisition of New France and Florida, they now controlled all of North America east of the Mississippi.
What did France retain in India?
572f9cad947a6a140053caca
returned all the French trading ports
57
False
How were the French settlements changed to eliminate their military usefulness?
572f9cad947a6a140053cacb
treaty, however, required that the fortifications of these settlements be destroyed and never rebuilt
100
False
What French ally in the area abandoned the French?
572f9cad947a6a140053cacc
loss of France's ally in Bengal
326
False
Who defected to the British?
572f9cad947a6a140053cacd
the defection of Hyderabad to the British
362
False
What happened to French power in the area?
572f9cad947a6a140053cace
this effectively brought French power in India to an end
428
False
In India, the British retained the Northern Circars, but returned all the French trading ports. The treaty, however, required that the fortifications of these settlements be destroyed and never rebuilt, while only minimal garrisons could be maintained there, thus rendering them worthless as military bases. Combined with the loss of France's ally in Bengal and the defection of Hyderabad to the British as a result of the war, this effectively brought French power in India to an end, making way for British hegemony and eventual control of the subcontinent.
Where was the Treaty of Hubertusburg signed?
572fabb1b2c2fd1400568303
at a hunting lodge between Dresden and Leipzig.
99
False
Who were the parties in the Treaty of Hubertusburg?
572fabb1b2c2fd1400568304
Austria, Prussia, and Saxony
36
False
What country made gains in the Treaty of Hubertusburg?
572fabb1b2c2fd1400568305
The treaty simply restored the status quo of 1748
616
False
What did Austrian want in the Treaty of Hubertusburg
572fabb1b2c2fd1400568306
The Austrians wanted at least to retain Glatz
499
False
Did the Austrians retain Glatz?
572fabb1b2c2fd1400568307
Frederick would not allow it
586
False
The Treaty of Hubertusburg, between Austria, Prussia, and Saxony, was signed on February 15, 1763, at a hunting lodge between Dresden and Leipzig. Negotiations had started there on December 31, 1762. Frederick, who had considered ceding East Prussia to Russia if Peter III helped him secure Saxony, finally insisted on excluding Russia (in fact, no longer a belligerent) from the negotiations. At the same time, he refused to evacuate Saxony until its elector had renounced any claim to reparation. The Austrians wanted at least to retain Glatz, which they had in fact reconquered, but Frederick would not allow it. The treaty simply restored the status quo of 1748, with Silesia and Glatz reverting to Frederick and Saxony to its own elector. The only concession that Prussia made to Austria was to consent to the election of Archduke Joseph as Holy Roman emperor.
What happened to Austrian prestige due to the war?
572fae7a947a6a140053cb68
Austria's prestige was restored in great part
338
False
How would Prussia's outcome affect Austria in the long run?
572fae7a947a6a140053cb69
was potentially damaging in the long run to Austria's influence in Germany.
710
False
What area was preserved from Prussian invasion?
572fae7a947a6a140053cb6a
it did prevent Prussia from invading parts of Saxony
90
False
Did Austria get Silesia back?
572fae7a947a6a140053cb6b
Austria was not able to retake Silesia
0
False
Who did Frederick II promise to vote for in the imperial elections?
572fae7a947a6a140053cb6c
by promising to vote for Joseph II in the Imperial elections
468
False
Austria was not able to retake Silesia or make any significant territorial gain. However, it did prevent Prussia from invading parts of Saxony. More significantly, its military performance proved far better than during the War of the Austrian Succession and seemed to vindicate Maria Theresa's administrative and military reforms. Hence, Austria's prestige was restored in great part and the empire secured its position as a major player in the European system. Also, by promising to vote for Joseph II in the Imperial elections, Frederick II accepted the Habsburg preeminence in the Holy Roman Empire. The survival of Prussia as a first-rate power and the enhanced prestige of its king and its army, however, was potentially damaging in the long run to Austria's influence in Germany.
What was the impact of the war on the wealth of Austria?
572fbec0947a6a140053cc2c
the Austrians went almost bankrupt at the end of war.
863
False
What was the change in the status of Prussia because of the war?
572fbec0947a6a140053cc2d
Beside the rise of Prussia
103
False
What was Hanover's attitude toward Austria?
572fbec0947a6a140053cc2e
-belligerent Hanover
502
False
How much military aggression did Maria Theresa exert following the war?
572fbec0947a6a140053cc2f
she dedicated the next two decades to the consolidation of her administration.
924
False
Which British king supported Hanover following the war?
572fbec0947a6a140053cc30
George III of Great Britain
547
False
Not only that, Austria now found herself estranged with the new developments within the empire itself. Beside the rise of Prussia, Augustus III, although ineffective, could mustered up an army not only from Saxony, but also Poland, considering the elector was also the King of Poland. Bavaria's growing power and independence was also apparent as she had more voices on the path that its army should have taken, and managed to slip out of the war at its own will. Most importantly, with the now somehow-belligerent Hanover united personally under George III of Great Britain, It can amassed a considerable power, even brought Britain in, on the future conflicts. This power dynamic is important to the future and the latter conflicts of the empire. The war also proved that Maria Theresa's reforms were still not enough to compete with Prussia: unlike its enemy, the Austrians went almost bankrupt at the end of war. Hence, she dedicated the next two decades to the consolidation of her administration.
What did the war do for the reputation of Frederick the Great?
572fc05ca23a5019007fc967
Frederick the Great’s personal reputation was enormously enhanced
94
False
What was the general opinion of Frederick the Great military acumen?
572fc05ca23a5019007fc968
his military genius was strenuously kept alive
312
False
What good fortune from Russia assisted Frederick the Great?
572fc05ca23a5019007fc969
Russia’s volte-face
185
False
What gain did Russia make from the results of the war?
572fc05ca23a5019007fc96a
Russia, on the other hand, made one great invisible gain from the war: the elimination of French influence in Poland
360
False
What countries were party to The First Partition of Poland?
572fc05ca23a5019007fc96b
a Russo-Prussian transaction, with Austria only reluctantly involved
525
False
Prussia emerged from the war as a great power whose importance could no longer be challenged. Frederick the Great’s personal reputation was enormously enhanced, as his debt to fortune (Russia’s volte-face after Elizabeth’s death) and to the British subsidy were soon forgotten while the memory of his energy and his military genius was strenuously kept alive. Russia, on the other hand, made one great invisible gain from the war: the elimination of French influence in Poland. The First Partition of Poland (1772) was to be a Russo-Prussian transaction, with Austria only reluctantly involved and with France simply ignored.
Who was George III trying to please with the Proclamation of 1763?
572fc19a947a6a140053cc52
American Indian tribes
154
False
Who was aggravated by the Proclamation of 1763?
572fc19a947a6a140053cc53
outrage in the Thirteen Colonies, whose inhabitants were eager to acquire native lands
366
False
Who did George III try to please with the Quebec Act of 1774?
572fc19a947a6a140053cc54
French Canadians
524
False
How did the Quebec Act of 1774 affect religion?
572fc19a947a6a140053cc55
The act protected Catholic religion
592
False
What did the Quebec Act of 1774 do about language?
572fc19a947a6a140053cc56
The act protected Catholic religion and French language
592
False
The British government was close to bankruptcy, and Britain now faced the delicate task of pacifying its new French-Canadian subjects as well as the many American Indian tribes who had supported France. George III's Proclamation of 1763, which forbade white settlement beyond the crest of the Appalachians, was intended to appease the latter but led to considerable outrage in the Thirteen Colonies, whose inhabitants were eager to acquire native lands. The Quebec Act of 1774, similarly intended to win over the loyalty of French Canadians, also spurred resentment among American colonists. The act protected Catholic religion and French language, which enraged the Americans, but the Québécois remained loyal and did not rebel.
What British nobleman attempted to retain European alliances following the Seven Years' War?
572fc3ed04bcaa1900d76cb1
Lord Sandwich
127
False
What countries joined Britain as allies?
572fc3ed04bcaa1900d76cb2
lacking any substantial ally
696
False
Did the European countries see Britain or France as a greater threat?
572fc3ed04bcaa1900d76cb3
now saw Britain as a greater threat than France
371
False
When did the American War of Independence turn into a global conflict?
572fc3ed04bcaa1900d76cb4
1778–83
612
False
What drove Prussia away from renewing its alliance with Britain?
572fc3ed04bcaa1900d76cb5
Prussians were angered by what they considered a British betrayal in 1762
452
False
The war had also brought to an end the "Old System" of alliances in Europe, In the years after the war, under the direction of Lord Sandwich, the British did try to re-establish this system. But after her surprising grand success against a coalition of great powers, European states such as Austria, The Dutch Republic, Sweden, Denmark-Norway, Ottoman Empire, and Russia now saw Britain as a greater threat than France and did not join them, while the Prussians were angered by what they considered a British betrayal in 1762. Consequently, when the American War of Independence turned into a global war between 1778–83, Britain found itself opposed by a strong coalition of European powers, and lacking any substantial ally.
Richard_Feynman
Feynman proposed a integral model in particle physics, what was it?
572e7b47c246551400ce4236
parton model
347
False
Who were the two men that won the Nobel Prize in Physics with Feynman?
572e7b47c246551400ce4237
Julian Schwinger and Sin-Itiro Tomonaga
452
False
In what year did Feynman win his Nobel Prize?
572e7b47c246551400ce4238
1965
532
False
Feynman was famous for diagrams that showed how subatomic particles behaved, what are these known as?
572e7b47c246551400ce4239
Feynman diagrams
705
False
What honor did Feynman recieve in a 1999 poll conducted by British Journal Physics World?
572e7b47c246551400ce423a
ranked as one of the ten greatest physicists of all time
901
False
parton model
347
What was the disintegrated model in particle physics that Feynman proposed?
5a8dc5d7df8bba001a0f9bf1
True
Julian Schwinger and Sin-Itiro Tomonaga
452
Who were the two women that won the Nobel Prize in Physics with Feynman?
5a8dc5d7df8bba001a0f9bf2
True
1965
532
What year did Feynman lose his Nobel Prize?
5a8dc5d7df8bba001a0f9bf3
True
Feynman diagrams
705
What diagrams was Feynman unknown for making?
5a8dc5d7df8bba001a0f9bf4
True
ranked as one of the ten greatest physicists of all time
901
What honor did Feynman recieve in a 1989 poll conducted by British Journal Physics World?
5a8dc5d7df8bba001a0f9bf5
True
Richard Phillips Feynman (/ˈfaɪnmən/; May 11, 1918 – February 15, 1988) was an American theoretical physicist known for his work in the path integral formulation of quantum mechanics, the theory of quantum electrodynamics, and the physics of the superfluidity of supercooled liquid helium, as well as in particle physics for which he proposed the parton model. For his contributions to the development of quantum electrodynamics, Feynman, jointly with Julian Schwinger and Sin-Itiro Tomonaga, received the Nobel Prize in Physics in 1965. He developed a widely used pictorial representation scheme for the mathematical expressions governing the behavior of subatomic particles, which later became known as Feynman diagrams. During his lifetime, Feynman became one of the best-known scientists in the world. In a 1999 poll of 130 leading physicists worldwide by the British journal Physics World he was ranked as one of the ten greatest physicists of all time.
What was the name of Feynman's 1959 talk on nanotech?
572e7c00c246551400ce4240
There's Plenty of Room at the Bottom
131
False
What was the name of Feynman's lectures he made as an undergraduate?
572e7c00c246551400ce4241
The Feynman Lectures on Physics
233
False
What was the name of one of his semi-autobiographical books?
572e7c00c246551400ce4242
Surely You're Joking, Mr. Feynman!
332
False
What book did James Gleck write about Feynman?
572e7c00c246551400ce4243
Genius: The Life and Science of Richard Feynman
468
False
Feynman wrote many books and gave many ___
572e7c00c246551400ce4244
lectures
65
False
There's Plenty of Room at the Bottom
131
What was the name of Feynman's 1969 talk on nanotech?
5a8dc79fdf8bba001a0f9bfb
True
The Feynman Lectures on Physics
233
What was the name of Feynman's lectures he made as a graduate?
5a8dc79fdf8bba001a0f9bfc
True
Surely You're Joking, Mr. Feynman!
332
What was the name of one of his fiction books?
5a8dc79fdf8bba001a0f9bfd
True
Genius: The Life and Science of Richard Feynman
468
What book did John Gleck write about Feynman?
5a8dc79fdf8bba001a0f9bfe
True
lectures
223
Why did Feynman lose credit for his writing?
5a8dc79fdf8bba001a0f9bff
True
Feynman was a keen popularizer of physics through both books and lectures, including a 1959 talk on top-down nanotechnology called There's Plenty of Room at the Bottom, and the three-volume publication of his undergraduate lectures, The Feynman Lectures on Physics. Feynman also became known through his semi-autobiographical books Surely You're Joking, Mr. Feynman! and What Do You Care What Other People Think? and books written about him, such as Tuva or Bust! and Genius: The Life and Science of Richard Feynman by James Gleick.
What was the date of Feynman's birth?
572e7c9c03f9891900756699
May 11, 1918
37
False
In what city was Feynman born?
572e7c9c03f989190075669a
New York City
62
False
Whats is Feynman's religious affiliation?
572e7c9c03f989190075669b
atheist
340
False
What Jewish affiliation did his parents hold?
572e7c9c03f989190075669c
Ashkenazi
242
False
What did Feynam think of the Talmud?
572e7c9c03f989190075669d
"wonderful book" and "valuable"
842
False
May 11, 1918
37
What was the incorrect date of Feynman's birth?
5a8dc838df8bba001a0f9c05
True
New York City
62
What city was Feynman abandoned in at his birth?
5a8dc838df8bba001a0f9c06
True
atheist
340
Whats is no longer Feynman's religious affiliation?
5a8dc838df8bba001a0f9c07
True
Ashkenazi
242
What Jewish affiliation did his parents revoke?
5a8dc838df8bba001a0f9c08
True
the Talmud
779
What book did Feynman not encounter in a Seminary?
5a8dc838df8bba001a0f9c09
True
Richard Phillips Feynman was born on May 11, 1918, in Queens, New York City, the son of Lucille (née Phillips), a homemaker, and Melville Arthur Feynman, a sales manager. His family originated from Russia and Poland; both of his parents were Ashkenazi Jews. They were not religious, and by his youth Feynman described himself as an "avowed atheist". He also stated "To select, for approbation the peculiar elements that come from some supposedly Jewish heredity is to open the door to all kinds of nonsense on racial theory," and adding "... at thirteen I was not only converted to other religious views, but I also stopped believing that the Jewish people are in any way 'the chosen people'." Later in his life, during a visit to the Jewish Theological Seminary, he encountered the Talmud for the first time, and remarked that he found it a "wonderful book" and "valuable".
What personality trait did Feynman acquire from his mother?
572e7d44dfa6aa1500f8d029
humor
220
False
What person influenced Feynman to think deeply?
572e7d44dfa6aa1500f8d02a
father
48
False
What electronic instrument did Feynman repair as a child?
572e7d44dfa6aa1500f8d02b
radios
382
False
As a grade school child he created an electronic device while his parents were away, what was it?
572e7d44dfa6aa1500f8d02c
home burglar alarm system
432
False
What talent did Feynman have, even early in his childhood?
572e7d44dfa6aa1500f8d02d
engineering
291
False
humor
220
What personality trait did Feynman hide from his mother?
5a8dc8addf8bba001a0f9c0f
True
father
48
What person influenced Feynman to think shallow?
5a8dc8addf8bba001a0f9c10
True
radios
382
What electronic instrument did Feynman break as a child?
5a8dc8addf8bba001a0f9c11
True
home burglar alarm system
432
What electronic device was Feynman restricted from building?
5a8dc8addf8bba001a0f9c12
True
engineering
291
What talent did Feynman develop only after his childhood?
5a8dc8addf8bba001a0f9c13
True
The young Feynman was heavily influenced by his father, who encouraged him to ask questions to challenge orthodox thinking, and who was always ready to teach Feynman something new. From his mother he gained the sense of humor that he had throughout his life. As a child, he had a talent for engineering, maintained an experimental laboratory in his home, and delighted in repairing radios. When he was in grade school, he created a home burglar alarm system while his parents were out for the day running errands.
What happened to Feyman's younger brother?
572e7de1dfa6aa1500f8d033
died at four weeks of age
94
False
What is Feynman's sister's name?
572e7de1dfa6aa1500f8d034
Joan
248
False
What science displicine did Feyman encourage his sister to study?
572e7de1dfa6aa1500f8d035
astronomy
488
False
Who was the one that pushed Joan to explore the universe?
572e7de1dfa6aa1500f8d036
Richard
499
False
What career did Joan hold?
572e7de1dfa6aa1500f8d037
astrophysicist
580
False
died at four weeks of age
94
What happened to Feyman's younger parent?
5a8dc945df8bba001a0f9c19
True
Joan
164
What is Feynman's estranged sister's name?
5a8dc945df8bba001a0f9c1a
True
astronomy
488
What scientific discipline did Feynman discourage his sister from studying?
5a8dc945df8bba001a0f9c1b
True
Joan
164
Who was the one that pushed Richard to explore the universe?
5a8dc945df8bba001a0f9c1c
True
astrophysicist
580
What career did Joan lose?
5a8dc945df8bba001a0f9c1d
True
When Richard was five years old, his mother gave birth to a younger brother, but this brother died at four weeks of age. Four years later, Richard gained a sister, Joan, and the family moved to Far Rockaway, Queens. Though separated by nine years, Joan and Richard were close, as they both shared a natural curiosity about the world. Their mother thought that women did not have the cranial capacity to comprehend such things. Despite their mother's disapproval of Joan's desire to study astronomy, Richard encouraged his sister to explore the universe. Joan eventually became an astrophysicist specializing in interactions between the Earth and the solar wind.
What IQ score did Feyman attain in high school?
572e7ea2c246551400ce424a
123
304
False
What high school did Feynman go to?
572e7ea2c246551400ce424b
Far Rockaway High School
17
False
Feyman taught himself many math subjects, including Trigonometry at what age?
572e7ea2c246551400ce424c
15
392
False
What did Feyman derive before he went to college?
572e7ea2c246551400ce424d
half-derivative
735
False
What burrough was Feynman's high school in?
572e7ea2c246551400ce424e
Queens
69
False
123
304
What IQ score did Feynman attain in middle school?
5a8dca02df8bba001a0f9c23
True
Far Rockaway High School
17
What high school did Feynman get expelled from?
5a8dca02df8bba001a0f9c24
True
15
392
What age did Feynman forget Trigonometry?
5a8dca02df8bba001a0f9c25
True
half-derivative
735
What did Feynman derive only after college?
5a8dca02df8bba001a0f9c26
True
Feynman attended Far Rockaway High School, a school in Far Rockaway, Queens also attended by fellow Nobel laureates Burton Richter and Baruch Samuel Blumberg. Upon starting high school, Feynman was quickly promoted into a higher math class. An unspecified school-administered IQ test estimated his IQ at 123—high, but "merely respectable" according to biographer James Gleick. When he turned 15, he taught himself trigonometry, advanced algebra, infinite series, analytic geometry, and both differential and integral calculus. In high school he was developing the mathematical intuition behind his Taylor series of mathematical operators. Before entering college, he was experimenting with and deriving mathematical topics such as the half-derivative using his own notation.
Which two sections of the graduate exam did Feynman excel in?
572e7f29c246551400ce4254
mathematics and physics
93
False
Which two sections of the graduate exam did Feynman do poorly in?
572e7f29c246551400ce4255
history and English
168
False
What score did Feyman receive on his math and physics entrance exams?
572e7f29c246551400ce4256
perfect score
14
False
When did he receive his PhD?
572e7f29c246551400ce4257
1942
335
False
What was Feynman's PhD thesis titled?
572e7f29c246551400ce4258
The Principle of Least Action in Quantum Mechanics
664
False
mathematics and physics
93
Which two sections of the graduate exam did Feynman fail?
5a8dca8edf8bba001a0f9c2b
True
English
180
Which one section of the graduate exam did Feynman do well in?
5a8dca8edf8bba001a0f9c2c
True
perfect score
14
What score did Feynman receive on his history exams?
5a8dca8edf8bba001a0f9c2d
True
1942
335
When did Feynman lose his PhD?
5a8dca8edf8bba001a0f9c2e
True
The Principle of Least Action in Quantum Mechanics
664
What was Feynman's banned PhD thesis titled?
5a8dca8edf8bba001a0f9c2f
True
He attained a perfect score on the graduate school entrance exams to Princeton University in mathematics and physics—an unprecedented feat—but did rather poorly on the history and English portions. Attendees at Feynman's first seminar included Albert Einstein, Wolfgang Pauli, and John von Neumann. He received a PhD from Princeton in 1942; his thesis advisor was John Archibald Wheeler. Feynman's thesis applied the principle of stationary action to problems of quantum mechanics, inspired by a desire to quantize the Wheeler–Feynman absorber theory of electrodynamics, laying the groundwork for the "path integral" approach and Feynman diagrams, and was titled "The Principle of Least Action in Quantum Mechanics".
Which weaponry research did Feynman engage in?
572e7ff1cb0c0d14000f11d4
Manhattan Project
86
False
Whose division was Feynman assigned to at the Manhattan Project?
572e7ff1cb0c0d14000f11d5
Hans Bethe
303
False
What did Feynman produce with the help of Bethe?
572e7ff1cb0c0d14000f11d6
Bethe–Feynman formula
418
False
What was the purpose of the Bethe-Feynman formula?
572e7ff1cb0c0d14000f11d7
calculating the yield of a fission bomb
444
False
Who had previously worked on fission bomb yields before Feynman?
572e7ff1cb0c0d14000f11d8
Robert Serber
519
False
Manhattan Project
86
Which weaponry research did Feynman oppose?
5a8dcb22df8bba001a0f9c35
True
Hans Bethe
303
Whose division was Feynman restricted from at the Manhattan Project?
5a8dcb22df8bba001a0f9c36
True
Bethe–Feynman formula
418
What did Feynman produce without the help of Bethe?
5a8dcb22df8bba001a0f9c37
True
calculating the yield of a fission bomb
444
Why was the Bethe-Feynman formula unnecessary?
5a8dcb22df8bba001a0f9c38
True
Robert Serber
519
Who had never worked on fission bomb yields before Feynman?
5a8dcb22df8bba001a0f9c39
True
At Princeton, the physicist Robert R. Wilson encouraged Feynman to participate in the Manhattan Project—the wartime U.S. Army project at Los Alamos developing the atomic bomb. Feynman said he was persuaded to join this effort to build it before Nazi Germany developed their own bomb. He was assigned to Hans Bethe's theoretical division and impressed Bethe enough to be made a group leader. He and Bethe developed the Bethe–Feynman formula for calculating the yield of a fission bomb, which built upon previous work by Robert Serber.
Feynman used this to protect his eyes during the test detonation
572e808d03f98919007566e5
truck windshield
249
False
What atomic bomb test did Feynman see?
572e808d03f98919007566e6
Trinity bomb test
67
False
What did Feynman see after the atomic test?
572e808d03f98919007566e7
"purple splotch" afterimage
473
False
What did Feynman think that the truck windshield would shield him against?
572e808d03f98919007566e8
ultraviolet radiation
302
False
Trinity bomb test
67
What bomb test was Feynman not present for?
5a8dcbd3df8bba001a0f9c3f
True
"purple splotch" afterimage
473
What was invisible to Feynman after the atomic test?
5a8dcbd3df8bba001a0f9c40
True
ultraviolet radiation
302
What did Feynman think that wind would shield him against?
5a8dcbd3df8bba001a0f9c41
True
because of the immense brightness of the explosion
396
Why did Feynman decide never to have a truck?
5a8dcbd3df8bba001a0f9c42
True
He immersed himself in work on the project, and was present at the Trinity bomb test. Feynman claimed to be the only person to see the explosion without the very dark glasses or welder's lenses provided, reasoning that it was safe to look through a truck windshield, as it would screen out the harmful ultraviolet radiation. On witnessing the blast, Feynman ducked towards the floor of his truck because of the immense brightness of the explosion, where he saw a temporary "purple splotch" afterimage of the event.
What was the Water Boiler that Feyman worked on?
572e8200c246551400ce4270
nuclear reactor
117
False
Where was Feyman sent after his work at Los Alamos?
572e8200c246551400ce4271
Oak Ridge facility
257
False
What did Feynman help produce at the Oak Ridge Facility?
572e8200c246551400ce4272
safety procedures
314
False
Which weapon did Feynman found to not be feasible?
572e8200c246551400ce4273
uranium hydride bomb
588
False
Where did Feynman work on the "Wateer Boiler"?
572e8200c246551400ce4274
Los Alamos
24
False
nuclear reactor
117
What was the Water Boiler that Feynman had no influence on?
5a8dcc61df8bba001a0f9c47
True
Oak Ridge facility
257
Where was Feynman imprisoned after his work at Los Alamos?
5a8dcc61df8bba001a0f9c48
True
safety procedures
314
What did Feynman help destroy at the Oak Ridge Facility?
5a8dcc61df8bba001a0f9c49
True
uranium hydride bomb
588
Which weapon did Feynman find to be feasible?
5a8dcc61df8bba001a0f9c4a
True
Los Alamos
24
Where was the "Water Boiler" worked on without Feynman?
5a8dcc61df8bba001a0f9c4b
True
Feynman's other work at Los Alamos included calculating neutron equations for the Los Alamos "Water Boiler", a small nuclear reactor, to measure how close an assembly of fissile material was to criticality. On completing this work he was transferred to the Oak Ridge facility, where he aided engineers in devising safety procedures for material storage so that criticality accidents (for example, due to sub-critical amounts of fissile material inadvertently stored in proximity on opposite sides of a wall) could be avoided. He also did theoretical work and calculations on the proposed uranium hydride bomb, which later proved not to be feasible.
Feynman quickly bored of Los Alamos because the work was all kept __?
572e82fc03f98919007566f7
top secret
11
False
How did Feynman spook a colleague?
572e82fc03f98919007566f8
left a series of notes in the cabinets
622
False
What did Frederic de Hoffmann think had happened when he found these notes?
572e82fc03f98919007566f9
saboteur had gained access to atomic bomb secrets
757
False
Feynman visited his wife in which New Mexico city?
572e82fc03f98919007566fa
Albuquerque
847
False
Feynman borrowed a car from Klaus Fuchs, who was later found to be a what?
572e82fc03f98919007566fb
spy for the Soviets
956
False
left a series of notes in the cabinets
622
How did Feynman help a colleague?
5a8dcd58df8bba001a0f9c51
True
saboteur had gained access to atomic bomb secrets
757
What did Frederic de Hoffmann think had happened when he stole these notes?
5a8dcd58df8bba001a0f9c52
True
Albuquerque
847
Which New England city did Feynman visit his wife in?
5a8dcd58df8bba001a0f9c53
True
Klaus Fuchs
905
Who did Feynman steal a car from?
5a8dcd58df8bba001a0f9c54
True
spy for the Soviets
956
What job did Feynman's driver have?
5a8dcd58df8bba001a0f9c55
True
Due to the top secret nature of the work, Los Alamos was isolated. In Feynman's own words, "There wasn't anything to do there." Bored, he indulged his curiosity by learning to pick the combination locks on cabinets and desks used to secure papers. Feynman played many jokes on colleagues. In one case he found the combination to a locked filing cabinet by trying the numbers he thought a physicist would use (it proved to be 27–18–28 after the base of natural logarithms, e = 2.71828...), and found that the three filing cabinets where a colleague kept a set of atomic bomb research notes all had the same combination. He left a series of notes in the cabinets as a prank, which initially spooked his colleague, Frederic de Hoffmann, into thinking a spy or saboteur had gained access to atomic bomb secrets. On several occasions, Feynman drove to Albuquerque to see his ailing wife in a car borrowed from Klaus Fuchs, who was later discovered to be a real spy for the Soviets, transporting nuclear secrets in his car to Santa Fe.
In which book did Feynman talk about the Manhattan project?
572e83b6c246551400ce4296
The Pleasure of Finding Things Out
102
False
What was his reasoning in helping make the atomic bomb?
572e83b6c246551400ce4297
possibility of Nazi Germany developing the bomb before the Allies
150
False
After feeling guilty for helping make an atomic bomb, Feynman went through what mental disorder?
572e83b6c246551400ce4298
depression
667
False
What did Feynman think of his part in making the bomb after Germany had been defeated?
572e83b6c246551400ce4299
error on his part
315
False
The Pleasure of Finding Things Out
102
Which book did Feynman avoid about the Manhattan project?
5a8dcde2df8bba001a0f9c5b
True
possibility of Nazi Germany developing the bomb before the Allies
150
What was his reasoning in helping destroy the atomic bomb?
5a8dcde2df8bba001a0f9c5c
True
depression
667
What disorder was Feynman falsely diagnosed with?
5a8dcde2df8bba001a0f9c5d
True
error on his part
315
What did Feynman think of his part in making the bomb after Spain had been defeated?
5a8dcde2df8bba001a0f9c5e
True
Feynman alludes to his thoughts on the justification for getting involved in the Manhattan project in The Pleasure of Finding Things Out. He felt the possibility of Nazi Germany developing the bomb before the Allies was a compelling reason to help with its development for the U.S. He goes on to say that it was an error on his part not to reconsider the situation once Germany was defeated. In the same publication, Feynman also talks about his worries in the atomic bomb age, feeling for some considerable time that there was a high risk that the bomb would be used again soon, so that it was pointless to build for the future. Later he describes this period as a "depression".
Where did Feynman receive a job after getting his PhD?
572e843cc246551400ce42a8
University of Wisconsin–Madison
80
False
Feyman received a letter to return to teaching from whom?
572e843cc246551400ce42a9
Dean Mark Ingraham
266
False
Which year did Feyman complete his PhD?
572e843cc246551400ce42aa
1942
39
False
Where did Feynman spend his time during his contract at UW?
572e843cc246551400ce42ab
Manhattan project
212
False
University of Wisconsin–Madison
80
Where did Feynman get rejected for a job after getting his PhD?
5a8dce63df8bba001a0f9c63
True
Dean Mark Ingraham
266
Who told Feynman to never return to teaching?
5a8dce63df8bba001a0f9c64
True
1942
39
Which year did Feynman lose his PhD?
5a8dce63df8bba001a0f9c65
True
University of Wisconsin–Madison
80
Where was Feynman a senior professor of physics in 1942?
5a8dce63df8bba001a0f9c66
True
Following the completion of his PhD in 1942, Feynman held an appointment at the University of Wisconsin–Madison as an assistant professor of physics. The appointment was spent on leave for his involvement in the Manhattan project. In 1945, he received a letter from Dean Mark Ingraham of the College of Letters and Science requesting his return to UW to teach in the coming academic year. His appointment was not extended when he did not commit to return. In a talk given several years later at UW, Feynman quipped, "It's great to be back at the only university that ever had the good sense to fire me."
At which college did Feyman turn down a job?
572e84dcdfa6aa1500f8d079
Institute for Advanced Study
50
False
Where did Feyman accept a job after the war?
572e84dcdfa6aa1500f8d07a
Cornell University
264
False
Which colleague did Feynman follow to Cornell?
572e84dcdfa6aa1500f8d07b
Hans Bethe
240
False
Why did Feynman go through a depression?
572e84dcdfa6aa1500f8d07c
destruction of Hiroshima by the bomb
388
False
His work at Cornell helped contribute to his what?
572e84dcdfa6aa1500f8d07d
Nobel Prize–winning work
767
False
Institute for Advanced Study
50
Which college did Feynman always have a job in?
5a8dcededf8bba001a0f9c6b
True
Cornell University
264
Where did Feynman turn down a job after the war?
5a8dcededf8bba001a0f9c6c
True
Hans Bethe
240
Which colleague did Feynman avoid at Cornell?
5a8dcededf8bba001a0f9c6d
True
destruction of Hiroshima by the bomb
388
Why was Feynman immune to depression?
5a8dcededf8bba001a0f9c6e
True
Nobel Prize–winning work
767
What did Feynman's work make him hated for?
5a8dcededf8bba001a0f9c6f
True
After the war, Feynman declined an offer from the Institute for Advanced Study in Princeton, New Jersey, despite the presence there of such distinguished faculty members as Albert Einstein, Kurt Gödel and John von Neumann. Feynman followed Hans Bethe, instead, to Cornell University, where Feynman taught theoretical physics from 1945 to 1950. During a temporary depression following the destruction of Hiroshima by the bomb produced by the Manhattan Project, he focused on complex physics problems, not for utility, but for self-satisfaction. One of these was analyzing the physics of a twirling, nutating dish as it is moving through the air. His work during this period, which used equations of rotation to express various spinning speeds, proved important to his Nobel Prize–winning work, yet because he felt burned out and had turned his attention to less immediately practical problems, he was surprised by the offers of professorships from other renowned universities.
Why did Feynman decide to turn down an offer from the Institute of Advanced Study?
572e85a3cb0c0d14000f123e
no teaching duties
127
False
Where did Feynman receive much inspiration?
572e85a3cb0c0d14000f123f
students
165
False
The  Institute of Advanced Study and which other university colluded together to get Feynman a position?
572e85a3cb0c0d14000f1240
Princeton University
312
False
Ultimately Feynman decided to take a job at which college?
572e85a3cb0c0d14000f1241
California Institute of Technology
494
False
In which city did Feynman find himself affixing tire chains?
572e85a3cb0c0d14000f1242
Ithaca
758
False
no teaching duties
127
Why did Feynman decide to accept all offers from the Institute of Advanced Study?
5a8dcf75df8bba001a0f9c75
True
students
165
Where did Feynman receive no inspiration?
5a8dcf75df8bba001a0f9c76
True
Princeton University
312
What university forbid Feynman from being on campus?
5a8dcf75df8bba001a0f9c77
True
California Institute of Technology (Caltech)
494
What college did Feynman end up living in?
5a8dcf75df8bba001a0f9c78
True
Ithaca
758
Which city did Feynman get lost in after affixing tire chains?
5a8dcf75df8bba001a0f9c79
True
Despite yet another offer from the Institute for Advanced Study, Feynman rejected the Institute on the grounds that there were no teaching duties: Feynman felt that students were a source of inspiration and teaching was a diversion during uncreative spells. Because of this, the Institute for Advanced Study and Princeton University jointly offered him a package whereby he could teach at the university and also be at the institute.[citation needed] Feynman instead accepted an offer from the California Institute of Technology (Caltech)—and as he says in his book Surely You're Joking Mr. Feynman!—because a desire to live in a mild climate had firmly fixed itself in his mind while he was installing tire chains on his car in the middle of a snowstorm in Ithaca.
Which nickname did Feynman receive?
572e86b8dfa6aa1500f8d0a9
Great Explainer
29
False
Feynman believed that if a topic was not easily accessible to freshmen than it was not yet what?
572e86b8dfa6aa1500f8d0aa
fully understood
298
False
In a lecture, Feynman said that what had to exist?
572e86b8dfa6aa1500f8d0ab
antiparticles
966
False
Antiparticles had to exist because if particles only were of positive energy, they would not be in what?
572e86b8dfa6aa1500f8d0ac
light cone
1082
False
Great Explainer
29
Which nickname did Feynman lose?
5a8dd290df8bba001a0f9c7f
True
antiparticles
966
What did Feynman suggest can't exist in a lecture?
5a8dd290df8bba001a0f9c80
True
Feynman
0
What unknown teacher was considered the "Great Explainer"?
5a8dd290df8bba001a0f9c81
True
particles
495
What did Feynman think were static and could never spin?
5a8dd290df8bba001a0f9c82
True
Feynman has been called the "Great Explainer". He gained a reputation for taking great care when giving explanations to his students and for making it a moral duty to make the topic accessible. His guiding principle was that, if a topic could not be explained in a freshman lecture, it was not yet fully understood. Feynman gained great pleasure from coming up with such a "freshman-level" explanation, for example, of the connection between spin and statistics. What he said was that groups of particles with spin ½ "repel", whereas groups with integer spin "clump". This was a brilliantly simplified way of demonstrating how Fermi–Dirac statistics and Bose–Einstein statistics evolved as a consequence of studying how fermions and bosons behave under a rotation of 360°. This was also a question he pondered in his more advanced lectures, and to which he demonstrated the solution in the 1986 Dirac memorial lecture. In the same lecture, he further explained that antiparticles must exist, for if particles had only positive energies, they would not be restricted to a so-called "light cone".
What did Feynman produce that help in understanding calculations between particles in space and time?
572e87bedfa6aa1500f8d0cb
Feynman diagrams
18
False
What is the name of the antimatter counterpart of electrons?
572e87bedfa6aa1500f8d0cc
positrons
228
False
Where did Feynman paint his diagrams?
572e87bedfa6aa1500f8d0cd
his van
667
False
What did Feynman digrams allow him and others to do?
572e87bedfa6aa1500f8d0ce
approach time reversibility and other fundamental processes
285
False
Feynman diagrams
18
What did Feynman steal that help in understanding calculations between particles in space and time?
5a8dd80bdf8bba001a0f9c87
True
positrons
228
What is the name of the antiparticle part of electrons?
5a8dd80bdf8bba001a0f9c88
True
his van
667
Where did Feynman code his diagrams?
5a8dd80bdf8bba001a0f9c89
True
approach time reversibility and other fundamental processes
285
What did Feynman diagrams allow nobody to do?
5a8dd80bdf8bba001a0f9c8a
True
Feynman diagrams
631
What diagrams did Feynman put on the exterior of his truck?
5a8dd80bdf8bba001a0f9c8b
True
He also developed Feynman diagrams, a bookkeeping device that helps in conceptualizing and calculating interactions between particles in spacetime, including the interactions between electrons and their antimatter counterparts, positrons. This device allowed him, and later others, to approach time reversibility and other fundamental processes. Feynman's mental picture for these diagrams started with the hard sphere approximation, and the interactions could be thought of as collisions at first. It was not until decades later that physicists thought of analyzing the nodes of the Feynman diagrams more closely. Feynman painted Feynman diagrams on the exterior of his van.
What model did Murray Gell-Mann develop?
572e88aadfa6aa1500f8d0d3
quark model
372
False
What model did Feynman produce to complement the quark model?
572e88aadfa6aa1500f8d0d4
parton model
328
False
Quarks were thought of as what in the 1960s?
572e88aadfa6aa1500f8d0d5
not real particles
656
False
Which scientist experimented with blasting alpha particles at the nuclei of gold?
572e88aadfa6aa1500f8d0d6
Ernest Rutherford
946
False
After the fifth quark was discovered, Feynman said what had to also exist?
572e88aadfa6aa1500f8d0d7
sixth quark
1817
False
quark model
372
What model did Murray Gell-Mann oppose?
5a8dd8dbdf8bba001a0f9c91
True
parton model
328
What model did Feynman produce to go against the quark model?
5a8dd8dbdf8bba001a0f9c92
True
not real particles
656
What were quarks thought of in the 1990s?
5a8dd8dbdf8bba001a0f9c93
True
Ernest Rutherford
946
Which scientist experimented with blasting alpha particles at the nuclei of silver?
5a8dd8dbdf8bba001a0f9c94
True
sixth quark
1817
What was discovered after the seventh quark?
5a8dd8dbdf8bba001a0f9c95
True
From his diagrams of a small number of particles interacting in spacetime, Feynman could then model all of physics in terms of the spins of those particles and the range of coupling of the fundamental forces. Feynman attempted an explanation of the strong interactions governing nucleons scattering called the parton model. The parton model emerged as a complement to the quark model developed by his Caltech colleague Murray Gell-Mann. The relationship between the two models was murky; Gell-Mann referred to Feynman's partons derisively as "put-ons". In the mid-1960s, physicists believed that quarks were just a bookkeeping device for symmetry numbers, not real particles, as the statistics of the Omega-minus particle, if it were interpreted as three identical strange quarks bound together, seemed impossible if quarks were real. The Stanford linear accelerator deep inelastic scattering experiments of the late 1960s showed, analogously to Ernest Rutherford's experiment of scattering alpha particles on gold nuclei in 1911, that nucleons (protons and neutrons) contained point-like particles that scattered electrons. It was natural to identify these with quarks, but Feynman's parton model attempted to interpret the experimental data in a way that did not introduce additional hypotheses. For example, the data showed that some 45% of the energy momentum was carried by electrically-neutral particles in the nucleon. These electrically-neutral particles are now seen to be the gluons that carry the forces between the quarks and carry also the three-valued color quantum number that solves the Omega-minus problem. Feynman did not dispute the quark model; for example, when the fifth quark was discovered in 1977, Feynman immediately pointed out to his students that the discovery implied the existence of a sixth quark, which was discovered in the decade after his death.
Where did  Feynman find success before moving to quantum gravity
572e89d0c246551400ce4302
quantum electrodynamics
21
False
What did Feynman investigate while working on quantum gravity?
572e89d0c246551400ce4303
consequences of a free massless spin 2 field
147
False
What equation did Feyman derive?
572e89d0c246551400ce4304
Einstein field equation of general relativity
209
False
What did Feynman's discoveries help explain?
572e89d0c246551400ce4305
Yang–Mills theories
540
False
Which parts of the Yang-Mills theories did Feynman help explain?
572e89d0c246551400ce4306
QCD and the electro-weak theory
574
False
quantum electrodynamics
21
Where did Feynman find failure before moving to quantum gravity?
5a8dd95fdf8bba001a0f9c9b
True
consequences of a free massless spin 2 field
147
What did Feynman ignore while working on quantum gravity?
5a8dd95fdf8bba001a0f9c9c
True
Einstein field equation of general relativity
209
What equation did Feynman steal?
5a8dd95fdf8bba001a0f9c9d
True
Yang–Mills theories
540
What did Feynman's discoveries hurt the explanation of?
5a8dd95fdf8bba001a0f9c9e
True
QCD and the electro-weak theory
574
Which parts of the Yang-Mills theories did Feynman dispel?
5a8dd95fdf8bba001a0f9c9f
True
After the success of quantum electrodynamics, Feynman turned to quantum gravity. By analogy with the photon, which has spin 1, he investigated the consequences of a free massless spin 2 field, and derived the Einstein field equation of general relativity, but little more. The computational device that Feynman discovered then for gravity, "ghosts", which are "particles" in the interior of his diagrams that have the "wrong" connection between spin and statistics, have proved invaluable in explaining the quantum particle behavior of the Yang–Mills theories, for example, QCD and the electro-weak theory.
Which society was Feynman elected to?
572e8b9edfa6aa1500f8d101
Royal Society
44
False
After 3 years at Caltech what lectures did Feynman produce?
572e8b9edfa6aa1500f8d102
The Feynman Lectures on Physics
374
False
Why did publisher change the cover picture on Feynman's book?
572e8b9edfa6aa1500f8d103
connections to drugs and rock and roll
543
False
In his book, Feynman was shown playing what instrument?
572e8b9edfa6aa1500f8d104
drums
710
False
What was the name of the book Feynman wrote over light and matter?
572e8b9edfa6aa1500f8d105
The Character of Physical Law, QED: The Strange Theory of Light and Matter
1111
False
Royal Society
44
Which society was Feynman kicked out of?
5a8ddafbdf8bba001a0f9ca5
True
The Feynman Lectures on Physics
374
What lectures did Feynman lose credit for after 3 years at Caltech?
5a8ddafbdf8bba001a0f9ca6
True
connections to drugs and rock and roll
543
Why did the publisher remove the cover picture on Feynman's book?
5a8ddafbdf8bba001a0f9ca7
True
drums
710
What instrument was Feynman unable to play in his book?
5a8ddafbdf8bba001a0f9ca8
True
The Character of Physical Law, QED: The Strange Theory of Light and Matter
1111
What was the name of the book Feynman wrote about the dark and nothingness?
5a8ddafbdf8bba001a0f9ca9
True
Feynman was elected a Foreign Member of the Royal Society (ForMemRS) in 1965. At this time in the early 1960s, Feynman exhausted himself by working on multiple major projects at the same time, including a request, while at Caltech, to "spruce up" the teaching of undergraduates. After three years devoted to the task, he produced a series of lectures that eventually became The Feynman Lectures on Physics. He wanted a picture of a drumhead sprinkled with powder to show the modes of vibration at the beginning of the book. Concerned over the connections to drugs and rock and roll that could be made from the image, the publishers changed the cover to plain red, though they included a picture of him playing drums in the foreword. The Feynman Lectures on Physics occupied two physicists, Robert B. Leighton and Matthew Sands, as part-time co-authors for several years. Even though the books were not adopted by most universities as textbooks, they continue to sell well because they provide a deep understanding of physics. Many of his lectures and miscellaneous talks were turned into other books, including The Character of Physical Law, QED: The Strange Theory of Light and Matter, Statistical Mechanics, Lectures on Gravitation, and the Feynman Lectures on Computation.
In which year did Feynman orate the Caltech commencement speech?
572e8c7dcb0c0d14000f1288
1974
3
False
Which topic did Feynman's commencement speech at Caltech center around?
572e8c7dcb0c0d14000f1289
cargo cult science
76
False
What is cargo cult science?
572e8c7dcb0c0d14000f128a
pseudoscience
144
False
What did Feyman tell the class that they must not do to themselves?
572e8c7dcb0c0d14000f128b
fool yourself
399
False
1974
3
Which year did Feynman miss the Caltech commencement speech?
5a8ddb86df8bba001a0f9caf
True
cargo cult science
76
Which topic did Feynman's commencement speech at Caltech avoid?
5a8ddb86df8bba001a0f9cb0
True
pseudoscience
144
What is the science Feynman understood best considered?
5a8ddb86df8bba001a0f9cb1
True
fool yourself
399
What did Feynman tell the class that they must do to themselves?
5a8ddb86df8bba001a0f9cb2
True
In 1974, Feynman delivered the Caltech commencement address on the topic of cargo cult science, which has the semblance of science, but is only pseudoscience due to a lack of "a kind of scientific integrity, a principle of scientific thought that corresponds to a kind of utter honesty" on the part of the scientist. He instructed the graduating class that "The first principle is that you must not fool yourself—and you are the easiest person to fool. So you have to be very careful about that. After you've not fooled yourself, it's easy not to fool other scientists. You just have to be honest in a conventional way after that."
What did Feynman help develop in the 1980s?
572e8d5bc246551400ce4332
parallel computer
142
False
Who did Feynman work with on computers at Caltech?
572e8d5bc246551400ce4333
Stephen Wolfram
356
False
Who else worked with Feynman on developing computers?
572e8d5bc246551400ce4334
His son Carl
384
False
What specifically did his son work on?
572e8d5bc246551400ce4335
software
549
False
What did Feyman do while his son worked on software?
572e8d5bc246551400ce4336
influencing the interconnects
491
False
massively parallel computer
132
What did Feynman help find in the 1970s?
5a8ddc2bdf8bba001a0f9cb7
True
Stephen Wolfram
356
Who did Feynman work with on computers at Yale?
5a8ddc2bdf8bba001a0f9cb8
True
His son Carl
384
Who else worked with Feynman on developing planes?
5a8ddc2bdf8bba001a0f9cb9
True
software
549
What specifically did Feynman's daughter work on?
5a8ddc2bdf8bba001a0f9cba
True
influencing the interconnects
491
What was Feynman doing while his daughter worked on software?
5a8ddc2bdf8bba001a0f9cbb
True
In the late 1980s, according to "Richard Feynman and the Connection Machine", Feynman played a crucial role in developing the first massively parallel computer, and in finding innovative uses for it in numerical computations, in building neural networks, as well as physical simulations using cellular automata (such as turbulent fluid flow), working with Stephen Wolfram at Caltech. His son Carl also played a role in the development of the original Connection Machine engineering; Feynman influencing the interconnects while his son worked on the software.
What theories do Feynman diagrams help explain?
572e8ddfc246551400ce433c
string theory and M-theory
41
False
The diagrams have been made from lines into what 3 dimensional shape?
572e8ddfc246551400ce433d
tubes
169
False
What angst did Feynman have against string theorists?
572e8ddfc246551400ce433e
they don't check their ideas
417
False
Which quote by Feynman is often used by string theory opponents?
572e8ddfc246551400ce433f
'Well, it still might be true.'"
558
False
string theory and M-theory
41
What theories do Feynman diagrams not explain?
5a8ddd0edf8bba001a0f9cc1
True
tubes
169
What 4 dimensional shape have Feynman diagrams been made into?
5a8ddd0edf8bba001a0f9cc2
True
they don't check their ideas
417
What angst did Feynman have against churchgoers?
5a8ddd0edf8bba001a0f9cc3
True
'Well, it still might be true.'
558
Which quote by Feynman is often used by religious opponents?
5a8ddd0edf8bba001a0f9cc4
True
particle physics
682
What kind of physics was Feynman least interested in?
5a8ddd0edf8bba001a0f9cc5
True
Feynman diagrams are now fundamental for string theory and M-theory, and have even been extended topologically. The world-lines of the diagrams have developed to become tubes to allow better modeling of more complicated objects such as strings and membranes. Shortly before his death, Feynman criticized string theory in an interview: "I don't like that they're not calculating anything," he said. "I don't like that they don't check their ideas. I don't like that for anything that disagrees with an experiment, they cook up an explanation—a fix-up to say, 'Well, it still might be true.'" These words have since been much-quoted by opponents of the string-theoretic direction for particle physics.
Feyman's experience on the Rogers Commission was talked about is which of his books?
572e8f2edfa6aa1500f8d133
What Do You Care What Other People Think?
44
False
In which way did he write about his experience on the Rogers Commission?
572e8f2edfa6aa1500f8d134
sober narrative
226
False
His writings about the Rogers Commission showed that trouble was brewing between scientists and executives at which prolific institute?
572e8f2edfa6aa1500f8d135
NASA
385
False
While the higher-ups said a failure was unlikely, at 1 in 100,000 odds, the scientists felt the odd were what?
572e8f2edfa6aa1500f8d136
1 in 200
694
False
Who did NASA recruit by using flawed safety numbers?
572e8f2edfa6aa1500f8d137
Christa McAuliffe
883
False
What Do You Care What Other People Think?
44
What book ignored Feynman's experience on the Rogers Commission?
5a8dde3adf8bba001a0f9ccb
True
sober narrative
226
Which way did he avoid writing about his experience on the Rogers Commission?
5a8dde3adf8bba001a0f9ccc
True
NASA managers
489
What managers claimed there was a 1 in 10,000 chance of catastrophic failure aboard the shuttle?
5a8dde3adf8bba001a0f9ccd
True
Christa McAuliffe
883
Who did NASA recruit while using accurate safety numbers?
5a8dde3adf8bba001a0f9cce
True
Feynman
0
Who concluded that NASA management was fantastically realistic?
5a8dde3adf8bba001a0f9ccf
True
Feynman devoted the latter half of his book What Do You Care What Other People Think? to his experience on the Rogers Commission, straying from his usual convention of brief, light-hearted anecdotes to deliver an extended and sober narrative. Feynman's account reveals a disconnect between NASA's engineers and executives that was far more striking than he expected. His interviews of NASA's high-ranking managers revealed startling misunderstandings of elementary concepts. For instance, NASA managers claimed that there was a 1 in 100,000 chance of a catastrophic failure aboard the shuttle, but Feynman discovered that NASA's own engineers estimated the chance of a catastrophe at closer to 1 in 200. He concluded that the space shuttle reliability estimate by NASA management was fantastically unrealistic, and he was particularly angered that NASA used these figures to recruit Christa McAuliffe into the Teacher-in-Space program. He warned in his appendix to the commission's report (which was included only after he threatened not to sign the report), "For a successful technology, reality must take precedence over public relations, for nature cannot be fooled."
Which religious sect did Feynman refuse to be part of?
572e8fdecb0c0d14000f1298
Jewish
120
False
Which book did Feynman decline to be listed in?
572e8fdecb0c0d14000f1299
The Laureates: Jewish Winners of the Nobel Prize
260
False
What did Feynman believe that the Jewish people were not?
572e8fdecb0c0d14000f129a
the chosen people
627
False
What religious affiliation did Feynman have?
572e8fdecb0c0d14000f129b
atheist
83
False
Feynman did not like to be listed in anything that labeled people by what standard?
572e8fdecb0c0d14000f129c
race
208
False
Jewish
120
Which religious sect did Feynman agree to be part of?
5a8ddee1df8bba001a0f9cd5
True
The Laureates: Jewish Winners of the Nobel Prize
260
Which book did Feynman demand to be listed in?
5a8ddee1df8bba001a0f9cd6
True
the chosen people
627
What did Feynman believe that the Jewish people were?
5a8ddee1df8bba001a0f9cd7
True
atheist
83
What religious affiliation did Feynman seek to eliminate?
5a8ddee1df8bba001a0f9cd8
True
Jewish
120
What religion did Feynman's atheist parents follow?
5a8ddee1df8bba001a0f9cd9
True
Although born to and raised by parents who were Ashkenazi, Feynman was not only an atheist, but declined to be labelled Jewish. He routinely refused to be included in lists or books that classified people by race. He asked to not be included in Tina Levitan's The Laureates: Jewish Winners of the Nobel Prize, writing, "To select, for approbation the peculiar elements that come from some supposedly Jewish heredity is to open the door to all kinds of nonsense on racial theory," and adding "... at thirteen I was not only converted to other religious views, but I also stopped believing that the Jewish people are in any way 'the chosen people'."
Who was Feynman's wife?
572e904bdfa6aa1500f8d147
Arline Greenbaum
81
False
Which disease did Arline succumb to?
572e904bdfa6aa1500f8d148
tuberculosis
181
False
In which year did his wife die?
572e904bdfa6aa1500f8d149
1945
240
False
Who played a cameo in a film about Feynman?
572e904bdfa6aa1500f8d14a
Feynman's daughter, Michelle
551
False
What was the name of the film that showed Feynman's life?
572e904bdfa6aa1500f8d14b
Infinity
526
False
Arline Greenbaum
81
Who was Feynman's ex-wife?
5a8ddf58df8bba001a0f9cdf
True
tuberculosis
181
Which disease did Arline overcome?
5a8ddf58df8bba001a0f9ce0
True
1945
240
What year did Feynman's wife come back to life?
5a8ddf58df8bba001a0f9ce1
True
Feynman's daughter, Michelle
551
Who lost their role for a cameo in a film about Feynman?
5a8ddf58df8bba001a0f9ce2
True
Infinity
526
What was the name of the TV show that showed Feynman's life?
5a8ddf58df8bba001a0f9ce3
True
While pursuing his PhD at Princeton, Feynman married his high school sweetheart, Arline Greenbaum (often misspelled "Arlene"), despite the knowledge that she was seriously ill with tuberculosis—an incurable disease at the time. She died in 1945. In 1946, Feynman wrote a letter to her, expressing his deep love and heartbreak, that he kept for the rest of his life. ("Please excuse my not mailing this," the letter concluded, "but I don't know your new address.") This portion of Feynman's life was portrayed in the 1996 film Infinity, which featured Feynman's daughter, Michelle, in a cameo role.
What analogies did Feynman use to teach Carl?
572e90e4cb0c0d14000f12bc
ants and Martians
89
False
Which subject did Feynman and Carl both enjoy?
572e90e4cb0c0d14000f12bd
Mathematics
255
False
What type of computing did Feynman and his son help develop?
572e90e4cb0c0d14000f12be
parallel computing
474
False
What Laboratory employed Feynman for critical missions?
572e90e4cb0c0d14000f12bf
The Jet Propulsion Laboratory
494
False
What fictional character was Feynman compared to by a colleague?
572e90e4cb0c0d14000f12c0
Don Quixote
644
False
ants and Martians
89
What analogies did Feynman not utilize to teach Carl?
5a8ddfaadf8bba001a0f9ce9
True
Mathematics
255
Which subject did Feynman and Carl both dislike?
5a8ddfaadf8bba001a0f9cea
True
parallel computing
474
What type of computing did Feynman and his dad help develop?
5a8ddfaadf8bba001a0f9ceb
True
The Jet Propulsion Laboratory
494
What Laboratory employed Feynman for unimportant missions?
5a8ddfaadf8bba001a0f9cec
True
Don Quixote
644
What fictional character was Feynman compared to by his son?
5a8ddfaadf8bba001a0f9ced
True
Feynman had a great deal of success teaching Carl, using, for example, discussions about ants and Martians as a device for gaining perspective on problems and issues. He was surprised to learn that the same teaching devices were not useful with Michelle. Mathematics was a common interest for father and son; they both entered the computer field as consultants and were involved in advancing a new method of using multiple computers to solve complex problems—later known as parallel computing. The Jet Propulsion Laboratory retained Feynman as a computational consultant during critical missions. One co-worker characterized Feynman as akin to Don Quixote at his desk, rather than at a computer workstation, ready to do battle with the windmills.
Where did Feynman work at in Brazil?
572e916a03f98919007567bb
Brazilian Center for Physics Research
63
False
Which place in Russia could Feynman not visit, but wished to do so?
572e916a03f98919007567bc
Tuva
168
False
When was Feynman allowed to go to Tuva?
572e916a03f98919007567bd
The day after he died
253
False
Who went to Tuva in Feynman's stead?
572e916a03f98919007567be
Feynman's daughter Michelle
379
False
What is the name of the film that discusses Feynman's attempt to get to Tuva?
572e916a03f98919007567bf
Genghis Blues
714
False
Brazilian Center for Physics Research
63
Where did Feynman work at in Japan?
5a8de027df8bba001a0f9cf3
True
Tuva
168
Which place in Germany could Feynman not visit but wished to do so?
5a8de027df8bba001a0f9cf4
True
The day after he died
253
When was Feynman found visiting Tuva?
5a8de027df8bba001a0f9cf5
True
Feynman's daughter Michelle
379
Who avoided Tuva in Feynman's stead?
5a8de027df8bba001a0f9cf6
True
Genghis Blues
714
What is the name of the film that discusses Feynman's attempt to escape from Tuva?
5a8de027df8bba001a0f9cf7
True
Feynman traveled to Brazil, where he gave courses at the BCPF (Brazilian Center for Physics Research) and near the end of his life schemed to visit the Russian land of Tuva, a dream that, because of Cold War bureaucratic problems, never became reality. The day after he died, a letter arrived for him from the Soviet government, giving him authorization to travel to Tuva. Later Feynman's daughter Michelle would realize this journey. Out of his enthusiastic interest in reaching Tuva came the phrase "Tuva or Bust" (also the title of a book about his efforts to get there), which was tossed about frequently amongst his circle of friends in hope that they, one day, could see it firsthand. The documentary movie, Genghis Blues, mentions some of his attempts to communicate with Tuva and chronicles the successful journey there by his friends. Responding to Hubert Humphrey's congratulation for his Nobel Prize, Feynman admitted to a long admiration for the then vice president.
Which illicit drug did Feynman try at Caltech?
572e91f8c246551400ce4360
LSD
72
False
What substance did Feynman give up later in life?
572e91f8c246551400ce4361
alcohol
504
False
Why did Feynman give up alcohol?
572e91f8c246551400ce4362
he did not want to do anything that could damage his brain
571
False
In what book did he talk about his LSD use?
572e91f8c246551400ce4363
O Americano, Outra Vez
656
False
LSD
72
Which illicit drug was Feynman caught with at Caltech?
5a8de0b2df8bba001a0f9cfd
True
alcohol
504
What substance did Feynman die from later in life?
5a8de0b2df8bba001a0f9cfe
True
he did not want to do anything that could damage his brain
571
Why did Feynman enjoy alcohol?
5a8de0b2df8bba001a0f9cff
True
O Americano, Outra Vez
656
What book did Feynman talk about his DMT use?
5a8de0b2df8bba001a0f9d00
True
during his professorship at Caltech
76
When did Feynman try heroin?
5a8de0b2df8bba001a0f9d01
True
According to Genius, the James Gleick-authored biography, Feynman tried LSD during his professorship at Caltech. Somewhat embarrassed by his actions, he largely sidestepped the issue when dictating his anecdotes; he mentions it in passing in the "O Americano, Outra Vez" section, while the "Altered States" chapter in Surely You're Joking, Mr. Feynman! describes only marijuana and ketamine experiences at John Lilly's famed sensory deprivation tanks, as a way of studying consciousness. Feynman gave up alcohol when he began to show vague, early signs of alcoholism, as he did not want to do anything that could damage his brain—the same reason given in "O Americano, Outra Vez" for his reluctance to experiment with LSD.
Which book does Feynman detail was to pick up girls?
572e9284dfa6aa1500f8d16f
Surely You're Joking, Mr. Feynman
3
False
Where was his second office at Caltech?
572e9284dfa6aa1500f8d170
topless bar
137
False
Who was the only person to testify that the topless bar should remain open?
572e9284dfa6aa1500f8d171
Feynman
451
False
Where did Feynman write down his equations at the topless bar?
572e9284dfa6aa1500f8d172
paper placemats
238
False
Who tried to shut the topless bar down?
572e9284dfa6aa1500f8d173
county officials
264
False
Surely You're Joking, Mr. Feynman!
3
Which book does Feynman detail was to help reject girls?
5a8de14fdf8bba001a0f9d07
True
topless bar
137
Where was his tenth office at Caltech?
5a8de14fdf8bba001a0f9d08
True
Feynman
327
Who was the only person to testify that the topless bar should close?
5a8de14fdf8bba001a0f9d09
True
paper placemats
238
Where did Feynman lose his equations at the topless bar?
5a8de14fdf8bba001a0f9d0a
True
Feynman
451
Who helped the bar win their court case?
5a8de14fdf8bba001a0f9d0b
True
In Surely You're Joking, Mr. Feynman!, he gives advice on the best way to pick up a girl in a hostess bar. At Caltech, he used a nude or topless bar as an office away from his usual office, making sketches or writing physics equations on paper placemats. When the county officials tried to close the place, all visitors except Feynman refused to testify in favor of the bar, fearing that their families or patrons would learn about their visits. Only Feynman accepted, and in court, he affirmed that the bar was a public need, stating that craftsmen, technicians, engineers, common workers, "and a physics professor" frequented the establishment. While the bar lost the court case, it was allowed to remain open as a similar case was pending appeal.
Which paper published a story about Feynman in 1992?
572e9358cb0c0d14000f12ec
New York Times
10
False
Who helped tell the 1992 New York Times story about Feynman?
572e9358cb0c0d14000f12ed
James Gleick
60
False
Gleick told a story about a specific algorithim that Gell-Mann described to a student, what was this algorithim called?
572e9358cb0c0d14000f12ee
The Feynman Problem-Solving Algorithm
179
False
Feynman's algorithim included writing the problem, thinking, and then what?
572e9358cb0c0d14000f12ef
write down the answer
622
False
New York Times
10
Which paper published a story about Feynman in 1982?
5a8de1c1df8bba001a0f9d11
True
James Gleick
60
Who helped tell the 1922 New York Times story about Feynman?
5a8de1c1df8bba001a0f9d12
True
New York Times
10
What newspaper was Feynman never featured in?
5a8de1c1df8bba001a0f9d13
True
Murray Gell-Mann
99
Who failed to describe what has become known as "The Feynman Algorithm"?
5a8de1c1df8bba001a0f9d14
True
In a 1992 New York Times article on Feynman and his legacy, James Gleick recounts the story of how Murray Gell-Mann described what has become known as "The Feynman Algorithm" or "The Feynman Problem-Solving Algorithm" to a student: "The student asks Gell-Mann about Feynman's notes. Gell-Mann says no, Dick's methods are not the same as the methods used here. The student asks, well, what are Feynman's methods? Gell-Mann leans coyly against the blackboard and says: Dick's method is this. You write down the problem. You think very hard. (He shuts his eyes and presses his knuckles parodically to his forehead.) Then you write down the answer."
Where do the Feynman Lectures on Physics pull information from?
572e951fdfa6aa1500f8d183
compiled from lectures to Caltech undergraduates in 1961–64
108
False
Once the popularity on the lectures grew, who began to attend?
572e951fdfa6aa1500f8d184
professional physicists and graduate students
209
False
Which two of Feynman's colleagues helped put the lectures into book format?
572e951fdfa6aa1500f8d185
Robert B. Leighton and Matthew Sands
294
False
Which addendum was added to the Lectures book in 2005?
572e951fdfa6aa1500f8d186
"Feynman's Tips on Physics: A Problem-Solving Supplement to the Feynman Lectures on Physics
494
False
Who wrote the supplemental material added to the Lectures book in 2005?
572e951fdfa6aa1500f8d187
Michael Gottlieb and Ralph Leighton
590
False
compiled from lectures to Caltech undergraduates in 1961–64
108
Where did the Feynman Lectures on Biology pull information from?
5a8de274df8bba001a0f9d19
True
professional physicists and graduate students
209
Who never attended lectures as popularity grew?
5a8de274df8bba001a0f9d1a
True
Robert B. Leighton
294
Which one of Feynman's colleagues helped put the lectures into book format?
5a8de274df8bba001a0f9d1b
True
"Feynman's Tips on Physics: A Problem-Solving Supplement to the Feynman Lectures on Physics"
494
Which addendum was removed from the Lectures book in 2005?
5a8de274df8bba001a0f9d1c
True
Michael Gottlieb and Ralph Leighton
590
Who wrote the supplemental material added to the Lectures book in 2003?
5a8de274df8bba001a0f9d1d
True
The Feynman Lectures on Physics is perhaps his most accessible work for anyone with an interest in physics, compiled from lectures to Caltech undergraduates in 1961–64. As news of the lectures' lucidity grew, professional physicists and graduate students began to drop in to listen. Co-authors Robert B. Leighton and Matthew Sands, colleagues of Feynman, edited and illustrated them into book form. The work has endured and is useful to this day. They were edited and supplemented in 2005 with "Feynman's Tips on Physics: A Problem-Solving Supplement to the Feynman Lectures on Physics" by Michael Gottlieb and Ralph Leighton (Robert Leighton's son), with support from Kip Thorne and other physicists.
Muammar_Gaddafi
When was Gaddafi born, and when did he die?
572e7b4fcb0c0d14000f119c
1942 – 20 October 2011
168
False
What was Gaddifi's original political viewpoint?
572e7b4fcb0c0d14000f119d
Initially ideologically committed to Arab nationalism and Arab socialism
494
False
What political philosophy did Gaddifi create?
572e7b4fcb0c0d14000f119e
his own Third International Theory
597
False
What political philosophy did  Gaddafi adhere to when he was the Chairperson of the African Union?
572e7b4fcb0c0d14000f119f
Pan-Africanism
649
False
What was Gaddafi's position when he was considered the "Brotherly Leader"?
572e7b4fcb0c0d14000f11a0
the Great Socialist People's Libyan Arab Jamahiriya from 1977 to 2011
423
False
When did Gaddafi rule as the "Brotherly Leader"?
572eb94ac246551400ce457e
from 1977 to 2011
475
False
What ideology did Gaddafi adopt when he was the Chairperson of the African Union?
572eb94ac246551400ce457f
Pan-Africanism
649
False
List Gaddafi's lifespan.
572eb94ac246551400ce4580
1942 – 20 October 2011
168
False
When did he first gain power in Libya?
572eb94ac246551400ce4581
1969
372
False
What political ideology did Gaddafi create?
572eb94ac246551400ce4582
Third International Theory
605
False
By what name was Muammar Muhammad Abu Minyar al-Gaddafi typically known?
57316ae3e6313a140071cf06
Colonel Gaddafi
211
False
What was Gaddafi's nationality?
57316ae3e6313a140071cf07
Libyan
237
False
What was the official name of Libya between 1969 and 1977?
57316ae3e6313a140071cf08
Libyan Arab Republic
346
False
From 1977 to 2011, what was Gaddafi's title?
57316ae3e6313a140071cf09
Brotherly Leader
402
False
What was Colonel Gaddafi's date of death?
57316ae3e6313a140071cf0a
20 October 2011
175
False
Muammar Muhammad Abu Minyar al-Gaddafi (Arabic: معمر محمد أبو منيار القذافي‎ Arabic pronunciation: [muʕamar al.qaðaːfiː]; /ˈmoʊ.əmɑːr ɡəˈdɑːfi/;  audio (help·info); c. 1942 – 20 October 2011), commonly known as Colonel Gaddafi,[b] was a Libyan revolutionary, politician, and political theorist. He governed Libya as Revolutionary Chairman of the Libyan Arab Republic from 1969 to 1977 and then as the "Brotherly Leader" of the Great Socialist People's Libyan Arab Jamahiriya from 1977 to 2011. Initially ideologically committed to Arab nationalism and Arab socialism, he came to rule according to his own Third International Theory before embracing Pan-Africanism and serving as Chairperson of the African Union from 2009 to 2010.
What book did Gaddafi publish that detailed his Third Internal Theory?
572e7cbbdfa6aa1500f8d01f
The Green Book
1166
False
What was Gaddafi's first position in government?
572e7cbbdfa6aa1500f8d020
Chairman of the governing Revolutionary Command Council
322
False
As Chairman of the RCC, list the first two things that Gaddafi accomplished.
572e7cbbdfa6aa1500f8d021
abolished the monarchy and proclaimed the Republic
393
False
How did Gaddafi change the legal system?
572eb947dfa6aa1500f8d321
he introduced sharia as the basis for the legal system
665
False
How did Gaddafi use all the money that resulted from nationalizing the oil industry?
572eb947dfa6aa1500f8d322
to bolster the military, implement social programs and fund revolutionary militants across the world.
784
False
Describe the Popular Revolution.
572eb947dfa6aa1500f8d323
formation of General People's Committees (GPCs), purported to be a system of direct democracy, but retained personal control over major decisions
939
False
When Gaddafi established his power in the government, what were his first actions?
572eb947dfa6aa1500f8d324
abolished the monarchy and proclaimed the Republic
393
False
What political ideology did Gaddafi want to push his country to?
572eb947dfa6aa1500f8d325
Islamic socialism
645
False
What was the profession of Gaddafi's father?
57316b37e6313a140071cf1a
goat herder
35
False
What was Gaddafi's ethnicity?
57316b37e6313a140071cf1b
Bedouin
27
False
In what city was the Royal Military Academy located?
57316b37e6313a140071cf1c
Benghazi
164
False
From what monarch did Gaddafi's movement take over Libya?
57316b37e6313a140071cf1d
Idris
286
False
What was the name of the governing body headed by Gaddafi after the revolution?
57316b37e6313a140071cf1e
Revolutionary Command Council
348
False
The son of an impoverished Bedouin goat herder, Gaddafi became involved in politics while at school in Sabha, subsequently enrolling in the Royal Military Academy, Benghazi. Founding a revolutionary cell within the military, in 1969 they seized power from the absolute monarchy of King Idris in a bloodless coup. Becoming Chairman of the governing Revolutionary Command Council (RCC), Gaddafi abolished the monarchy and proclaimed the Republic. Ruling by decree, he implemented measures to remove what he viewed as foreign imperialist influence from Libya, and strengthened ties to Arab nationalist governments. Intent on pushing Libya towards "Islamic socialism", he introduced sharia as the basis for the legal system and nationalized the oil industry, using the increased revenues to bolster the military, implement social programs and fund revolutionary militants across the world. In 1973 he initiated a "Popular Revolution" with the formation of General People's Committees (GPCs), purported to be a system of direct democracy, but retained personal control over major decisions. He outlined his Third International Theory that year, publishing these ideas in The Green Book.
What does "Jamahiriya" mean?
572e7e6acb0c0d14000f11ba
state of the masses
92
False
What was Gaddafi's role in jamahiriya?
572e7e6acb0c0d14000f11bb
he retained power as military commander-in-chief and head of the Revolutionary Committees responsible for policing and suppressing opponents
166
False
List two reasons why Libya become an "international pariah."
572e7e6acb0c0d14000f11bc
Overseeing unsuccessful border conflicts with Egypt and Chad, Gaddafi's support for foreign militants and alleged responsibility for the Lockerbie bombing
308
False
Name two significant events in 1986 that demonstrated the world's view of Libya.
572e7e6acb0c0d14000f11bd
U.S. bombing of Libya and United Nations-imposed economic sanctions
622
False
What was Libya's socialist government called?
572eb943c246551400ce4574
Jamahiriya ("state of the masses")
79
False
Why did Libya become an "international pariah"?
572eb943c246551400ce4575
Gaddafi's support for foreign militants and alleged responsibility for the Lockerbie bombing
370
False
How did the world respond to Libya in 1986?
572eb943c246551400ce4576
U.S. bombing of Libya and United Nations-imposed economic sanctions.
622
False
How did Gaddafi lose power?
572eb943c246551400ce4577
an anti-Gaddafist uprising led by the National Transitional Council (NTC) broke out, resulting in the Libyan Civil War
941
False
How did Gaddafi die?
572eb943c246551400ce4578
Retreating to Sirte, Gaddafi was captured and killed by NTC militants.
1154
False
What does the term Jamahiriya mean in English?
57316b98e6313a140071cf24
state of the masses
92
False
In what year did Gaddafi found the Jamahiriya?
57316b98e6313a140071cf25
1977
3
False
Along with Egypt, what nation did Libya have border issues with in this era?
57316b98e6313a140071cf26
Chad
364
False
What terrorist bombing was Gaddafi's Libya supposedly involved in?
57316b98e6313a140071cf27
Lockerbie
445
False
In what year did the United states bomb Libya?
57316b98e6313a140071cf28
1986
617
False
In 1977, Gaddafi dissolved the Republic and created a new socialist state, the Jamahiriya ("state of the masses"). Officially adopting a symbolic role in governance, he retained power as military commander-in-chief and head of the Revolutionary Committees responsible for policing and suppressing opponents. Overseeing unsuccessful border conflicts with Egypt and Chad, Gaddafi's support for foreign militants and alleged responsibility for the Lockerbie bombing led to Libya's label of "international pariah". A particularly hostile relationship developed with the United States and United Kingdom, resulting in the 1986 U.S. bombing of Libya and United Nations-imposed economic sanctions. Rejecting his earlier ideological commitments, from 1999 Gaddafi encouraged economic privatization and sought rapprochement with Western nations, also embracing Pan-Africanism and helping to establish the African Union. Amid the Arab Spring, in 2011 an anti-Gaddafist uprising led by the National Transitional Council (NTC) broke out, resulting in the Libyan Civil War. NATO intervened militarily on the side of the NTC, bringing about the government's downfall. Retreating to Sirte, Gaddafi was captured and killed by NTC militants.
Describe Gaddafi's humble upbringing.
572e7f49cb0c0d14000f11c4
was born in a tent near Qasr Abu Hadi, a rural area outside the town of Sirte in the deserts of western Libya
16
False
How did his upbringing impact his later life preferences?
572e7f49cb0c0d14000f11c6
He repeatedly expressed a preference for the desert over the city and retreated to the desert to meditate.
884
False
When was Gaddafi born?
572e7f49cb0c0d14000f11c7
Gaddafi's date of birth is not known with certainty, and sources have set it in 1942 or in the spring of 1943
536
False
What culture did Gaddafi experience as a child?
572e7f49cb0c0d14000f11c8
Bedouin
811
False
Describe Gaddafi's early childhood.
572eb93fdfa6aa1500f8d317
Gaddafi was born in a tent near Qasr Abu Hadi, a rural area outside the town of Sirte in the deserts of western Libya
8
False
How did Gaddafi's father earn a living?
572eb93fdfa6aa1500f8d318
Abu Meniar earned a meager subsistence as a goat and camel herder
394
False
How come no one knows for sure when Gaddafi was born?
572eb93fdfa6aa1500f8d319
Nomadic Bedouins, they were illiterate and kept no birth records
461
False
How did his early childhood experiences impact his later life?
572eb93fdfa6aa1500f8d31a
He repeatedly expressed a preference for the desert over the city and retreated to the desert to meditate.
884
False
When did Gaddafi's parents die?
572eb93fdfa6aa1500f8d31b
His father, Mohammad Abdul Salam bin Hamed bin Mohammad, was known as Abu Meniar (died 1985), and his mother was named Aisha (died 1978)
256
False
Near what town was Gaddafi's birthplace of Qasr Abu Hadi?
57316bfea5e9cc1400cdbf3b
Sirte
88
False
What was the name of Gaddafi's tribe?
57316bfea5e9cc1400cdbf3c
Qadhadhfa
207
False
Other than Mohammad Abdul Salam bin Hamed bin Mohammad, what was Gaddafi's father called?
57316bfea5e9cc1400cdbf3d
Abu Meniar
326
False
When did Gaddafi's mother die?
57316bfea5e9cc1400cdbf3e
1978
387
False
How many sisters did Gaddafi have?
57316bfea5e9cc1400cdbf3f
three
766
False
Muammar Gaddafi was born in a tent near Qasr Abu Hadi, a rural area outside the town of Sirte in the deserts of western Libya. His family came from a small, relatively un-influential tribal group called the Qadhadhfa, who were Arabized Berber in heritage. His father, Mohammad Abdul Salam bin Hamed bin Mohammad, was known as Abu Meniar (died 1985), and his mother was named Aisha (died 1978); Abu Meniar earned a meager subsistence as a goat and camel herder. Nomadic Bedouins, they were illiterate and kept no birth records. As such, Gaddafi's date of birth is not known with certainty, and sources have set it in 1942 or in the spring of 1943, although biographers Blundy and Lycett noted that it could have been pre-1940. His parents' only surviving son, he had three older sisters. Gaddafi's upbringing in Bedouin culture influenced his personal tastes for the rest of his life. He repeatedly expressed a preference for the desert over the city and retreated to the desert to meditate.
When did Libya become an independent nation?
572e8035cb0c0d14000f11de
In 1951
655
False
When Libya first became an independent country, what form of government did it adopt?
572e8035cb0c0d14000f11df
an absolute monarchy
823
False
What countries occupied Libya after World War II?
572e8035cb0c0d14000f11e0
British and French forces
436
False
Who was the first leader of Libya?
572e8035cb0c0d14000f11e1
a pro-western monarch, Idris
748
False
What World War I event directly impacted Gaddafi's family?
572e8035cb0c0d14000f11e2
Gaddafi's paternal grandfather, Abdessalam Bouminyar, was killed by the Italian Army during the Italian invasion of 1911
261
False
How did World War I directly impact Gaddafi's family?
572eba1ac246551400ce4592
According to later claims, Gaddafi's paternal grandfather, Abdessalam Bouminyar, was killed by the Italian Army during the Italian invasion of 1911
234
False
What happened to Libya right after World War II?
572eba1ac246551400ce4593
Libya was occupied by British and French forces
414
False
When was it announced that Libya would be independent?
572eba1ac246551400ce4594
In 1951, the UN created the United Kingdom of Libya, a federal state under the leadership
655
False
What was the first type of government that Libya had?
572eba1ac246551400ce4595
a pro-western monarch, Idris, who banned political parties and established an absolute monarchy.
748
False
What country occupied Libya during World War II?
572eba1ac246551400ce4596
his nation was occupied by Italy
88
False
What nation controlled Libya as a colony when Gaddafi was a child?
57316c55a5e9cc1400cdbf45
Italy
115
False
Who battled the Italians during the North African campaign?
57316c55a5e9cc1400cdbf46
British
218
False
Who was Gaddafi's father's father?
57316c55a5e9cc1400cdbf47
Abdessalam Bouminyar
293
False
During what year did the Italians invade Libya?
57316c55a5e9cc1400cdbf48
1911
377
False
Along with the British, who occupied Libya at the end of the Second World War?
57316c55a5e9cc1400cdbf49
French
448
False
From childhood, Gaddafi was aware of the involvement of European colonialists in Libya; his nation was occupied by Italy, and during the North African Campaign of World War II it witnessed conflict between Italian and British troops. According to later claims, Gaddafi's paternal grandfather, Abdessalam Bouminyar, was killed by the Italian Army during the Italian invasion of 1911. At World War II's end in 1945, Libya was occupied by British and French forces. Although Britain and France intended on dividing the nation between their empires, the General Assembly of the United Nations (UN) declared that the country be granted political independence. In 1951, the UN created the United Kingdom of Libya, a federal state under the leadership of a pro-western monarch, Idris, who banned political parties and established an absolute monarchy.
Describe Gaddafi's first experience with education.
572e81e0dfa6aa1500f8d05b
a religious nature, imparted by a local Islamic teacher
36
False
In addition to gaining an education, describe how Gaddafi managed to attend school 20 miles from his family.
572e81e0dfa6aa1500f8d05c
During the week Gaddafi slept in a mosque, and at weekends walked 20 miles to visit his parents
325
False
How did Gaddafi deal with peer pressure regarding his cultural background?
572e81e0dfa6aa1500f8d05d
Bullied for being a Bedouin, he was proud of his identity and encouraged pride in other Bedouin children.
422
False
When Gaddafi's family moved to Sabha, describe his educational experiences in secondary school.
572e81e0dfa6aa1500f8d05e
Gaddafi was popular at school; some friends made there received significant jobs in his later administration, most notably his best friend Abdul Salam Jalloud.
759
False
Describe Gaddafi's parents' educational backgrounds.
572e81e0dfa6aa1500f8d05f
where his father worked as a caretaker for a tribal leader while Muammar attended secondary school, something neither parent had done.
624
False
Why was Gaddafi made fun of in elementary school?
572ebb0fc246551400ce45ae
Bullied for being a Bedouin, he was proud of his identity and encouraged pride in other Bedouin children.
422
False
How did Gaddafi manage to attend elementary school so far from home?
572ebb0fc246551400ce45af
During the week Gaddafi slept in a mosque, and at weekends walked 20 miles to visit his parents.
325
False
Were Gaddafi's parents educated?
572ebb0fc246551400ce45b0
while Muammar attended secondary school, something neither parent had done.
683
False
How did his early relationships play a role later when Gaddafi  became a ruler?
572ebb0fc246551400ce45b1
Gaddafi was popular at school; some friends made there received significant jobs in his later administration, most notably his best friend Abdul Salam Jalloud.
759
False
Was Gaddafi's education free?
572ebb0fc246551400ce45b2
Education in Libya was not free, but his father thought it would greatly benefit his son despite the financial strain.
206
False
In what religion was Gaddafi educated?
57316cb605b4da19006bd130
Islamic
76
False
What town did Gaddafi's family move to after they left Sirte?
57316cb605b4da19006bd131
Sabha
586
False
What geographical portion of Libya is Fezzan located in?
57316cb605b4da19006bd132
south-central
603
False
Who was Gaddafi's closest friend in secondary school?
57316cb605b4da19006bd133
Abdul Salam Jalloud
898
False
In what town did Gaddafi first attend primary school?
57316cb605b4da19006bd134
Sirte
123
False
Gaddafi's earliest education was of a religious nature, imparted by a local Islamic teacher. Subsequently moving to nearby Sirte to attend elementary school, he progressed through six grades in four years. Education in Libya was not free, but his father thought it would greatly benefit his son despite the financial strain. During the week Gaddafi slept in a mosque, and at weekends walked 20 miles to visit his parents. Bullied for being a Bedouin, he was proud of his identity and encouraged pride in other Bedouin children. From Sirte, he and his family moved to the market town of Sabha in Fezzan, south-central Libya, where his father worked as a caretaker for a tribal leader while Muammar attended secondary school, something neither parent had done. Gaddafi was popular at school; some friends made there received significant jobs in his later administration, most notably his best friend Abdul Salam Jalloud.
Why did Gaddafi's family have to leave Sabha?
572e8441cb0c0d14000f1226
he led a demonstration protesting Syria's secession from the United Arab Republic. During this they broke windows of a local hotel accused of serving alcohol.
100
False
Gaddafi was an avid reader. Name three biographies that he read.
572e8441cb0c0d14000f1227
Abraham Lincoln, Sun Yat-sen, and Mustafa Kemal Atatürk
833
False
What political idealogy did Gaddafi not believe in?
572e8441cb0c0d14000f1228
factionalism
656
False
While he was in secondary school, what sort of activism did Gaddafi support?
572e8441cb0c0d14000f1229
Arab nationalist activism
429
False
Why did Gaddafi's family leave Sabha?
572ebd1903f98919007569c9
October 1961, he led a demonstration protesting Syria's secession from the United Arab Republic
86
False
What political ideology did Gaddafi reject when he attended Misrata Secondary School?
572ebd1903f98919007569ca
factionalism
656
False
List several biographies that influenced Gaddafi.
572ebd1903f98919007569cb
Abraham Lincoln, Sun Yat-sen, and Mustafa Kemal Atatürk
833
False
Where sort of activism did Gaddafi promote while attending secondary school?
572ebd1903f98919007569cc
Arab nationalist activism
429
False
Where did Gaddafi travel to after he was kicked out of Sabha?
57316d8b05b4da19006bd144
Misrata
350
False
Along with the Ba'ath Party and Muslim Brotherhood, what group was notably banned in Misrata?
57316d8b05b4da19006bd145
Arab Nationalist Movement
546
False
In what month and year did Gaddafi protest against Syria leaving the United Arab Republic?
57316d8b05b4da19006bd146
October 1961
86
False
Of what nationality was Michel Aflaq?
57316d8b05b4da19006bd147
Syrian
775
False
Along with Lincoln and Ataturk, whose biography did Gaddafi read while in Misrata?
57316d8b05b4da19006bd148
Abraham Lincoln
833
False
Gaddafi organized demonstrations and distributed posters criticizing the monarchy. In October 1961, he led a demonstration protesting Syria's secession from the United Arab Republic. During this they broke windows of a local hotel accused of serving alcohol. Catching the authorities' attention, they expelled his family from Sabha. Gaddafi moved to Misrata, there attending Misrata Secondary School. Maintaining his interest in Arab nationalist activism, he refused to join any of the banned political parties active in the city – including the Arab Nationalist Movement, the Arab Socialist Ba'ath Party, and the Muslim Brotherhood – claiming he rejected factionalism. He read voraciously on the subjects of Nasser and the French Revolution of 1789, as well as the works of Syrian political theorist Michel Aflaq and biographies of Abraham Lincoln, Sun Yat-sen, and Mustafa Kemal Atatürk.
What subject did Gaddafi briefly study before joining the military?
572e8515dfa6aa1500f8d083
History at the University of Libya in Benghazi
24
False
Why didn't Gaddafi learn to speak English?
572e8515dfa6aa1500f8d084
Gaddafi, who viewed the British as imperialists
520
False
Where did Gaddafi begin his military training?
572e8515dfa6aa1500f8d085
at the Royal Military Academy
167
False
How did Gaddafi view the influence of the military?
572e8515dfa6aa1500f8d086
the only opportunity for upward social mobility for underprivileged Libyans, and Gaddafi recognised it as a potential instrument of political change
285
False
What crime did the British trainers believe Gaddafi was involved in?
572e8515dfa6aa1500f8d087
the assassination of the military academy's commander in 1963
802
False
What subject did Gaddafi study at the University of LIbya?
572ebda3c246551400ce45cc
History
24
False
Why did Gaddafi drop out of college?
572ebda3c246551400ce45cd
to join the military
92
False
What rationale did Gaddafi use for joining the military?
572ebda3c246551400ce45ce
Gaddafi recognised it as a potential instrument of political change
366
False
What country trained Libya's military?
572ebda3c246551400ce45cf
the British military
485
False
What crime was Gaddafi suspected of being involved in during his time in the military?
572ebda3c246551400ce45d0
the assassination of the military academy's commander in 1963
802
False
Where did Gaddafi attend college for a time?
57316e08a5e9cc1400cdbf59
University of Libya
39
False
During his time in college, what did Gaddafi study?
57316e08a5e9cc1400cdbf5a
History
24
False
After Gaddafi left the University of Libya, what institution did he attend?
57316e08a5e9cc1400cdbf5b
Royal Military Academy, Benghazi
174
False
While the Libyan monarchy existed, who trained the Libyan army?
57316e08a5e9cc1400cdbf5c
British
633
False
What did Gaddafi regard his British instructors as?
57316e08a5e9cc1400cdbf5d
imperialists
555
False
Gaddafi briefly studied History at the University of Libya in Benghazi, before dropping out to join the military. Despite his police record, in 1963 he began training at the Royal Military Academy, Benghazi, alongside several like-minded friends from Misrata. The armed forces offered the only opportunity for upward social mobility for underprivileged Libyans, and Gaddafi recognised it as a potential instrument of political change. Under Idris, Libya's armed forces were trained by the British military; this angered Gaddafi, who viewed the British as imperialists, and accordingly he refused to learn English and was rude to the British officers, ultimately failing his exams. British trainers reported him for insubordination and abusive behaviour, stating their suspicion that he was involved in the assassination of the military academy's commander in 1963. Such reports were ignored and Gaddafi quickly progressed through the course.
How did Gaddafi view Libya when he returned from England?
572e85b403f989190075671b
he returned home "more confident and proud of our values, ideals and social character."
650
False
How did the Bovington signal course director view Gaddafi?
572e85b403f989190075671c
he thought him an "amusing officer, always cheerful, hard-working, and conscientious."
231
False
How did Gaddafi feel about the British officers?
572e85b403f989190075671d
claiming British Army officers racially insulted him
344
False
When Gaddafi traveled to London, did he attempt to blend into the English culture?
572e85b403f989190075671e
finding it difficult adjusting to the country's culture; asserting his Arab identity in London, he walked around Piccadilly wearing traditional Libyan robes
401
False
How did the Bovington sign course director think of Gaddafi?
572ebe3c03f98919007569db
an "amusing officer, always cheerful, hard-working, and conscientious."
246
False
How did Gaddafi feel about the British Army officers?
572ebe3c03f98919007569dc
Gaddafi disliked England, claiming British Army officers racially insulted him
318
False
When Gaddafi went to England, how did he respond to their culture?
572ebe3c03f98919007569dd
finding it difficult adjusting to the country's culture; asserting his Arab identity in London, he walked around Piccadilly wearing traditional Libyan robes
401
False
When Gaddafi returned to Libya, how did he view his country?
572ebe3c03f98919007569de
while he travelled to England believing it more advanced than Libya, he returned home "more confident and proud of our values, ideals and social character."
581
False
What were Gaddafi's favorite hobbies in the military?
572ebe3c03f98919007569df
reading and playing football
201
False
Along with reading, how did Gaddafi enjoy spending his free time?
57316e8ae6313a140071cf2e
playing football
213
False
In what part of London did Gaddafi wear traditional Arab garb?
57316e8ae6313a140071cf2f
Piccadilly
514
False
What language did Gaddafi have difficulty learning?
57316e8ae6313a140071cf30
English
101
False
Where did Gaddafi's signal course take place?
57316e8ae6313a140071cf31
Bovington
4
False
What mistreatment did Gaddafi say that British soldiers subjected him to?
57316e8ae6313a140071cf32
racially insulted him
375
False
The Bovington signal course's director reported that Gaddafi successfully overcame problems learning English, displaying a firm command of voice procedure. Noting that Gaddafi's favourite hobbies were reading and playing football, he thought him an "amusing officer, always cheerful, hard-working, and conscientious." Gaddafi disliked England, claiming British Army officers racially insulted him and finding it difficult adjusting to the country's culture; asserting his Arab identity in London, he walked around Piccadilly wearing traditional Libyan robes. He later related that while he travelled to England believing it more advanced than Libya, he returned home "more confident and proud of our values, ideals and social character."
What changes impressed Gaddafi in Egypt?
572ebc4803f98919007569b5
President Gamal Abdel Nasser. Nasser argued for Arab nationalism; the rejection of Western colonialism, neo-colonialism, and Zionism
516
False
What Egyptian leader impressed Gaddafi?
572ebc4803f98919007569b6
his hero, President Gamal Abdel Nasser
506
False
What book instructed Gaddafi in how to stage a coup?
572ebc4803f98919007569b7
Nasser's book, Philosophy of the Revolution
697
False
Name one event that occurred in the Arab world during Gaddafi 's childhood that influenced his life.
572ebc4803f98919007569b8
1948 Arab–Israeli War, the Egyptian Revolution of 1952, the Suez Crisis of 1956, and the short-lived existence of the United Arab Republic between 1958 and 1961
258
False
What political ideology did Nasser implement?
572ebc4803f98919007569b9
transition from capitalism to socialism
656
False
What was the nationality of a significant number of teachers in Sabha?
57316d0605b4da19006bd13a
Egyptian
28
False
From what city did Voice of the Arabs broadcast?
57316d0605b4da19006bd13b
Cairo
142
False
What notable event occurred in 1952?
57316d0605b4da19006bd13c
Egyptian Revolution
285
False
When did the United Arab Republic end?
57316d0605b4da19006bd13d
1961
414
False
What political leader did Gaddafi greatly admire?
57316d0605b4da19006bd13e
Nasser
538
False
Many teachers at Sabha were Egyptian, and for the first time Gaddafi had access to pan-Arab newspapers and radio broadcasts, most notably the Cairo-based Voice of the Arabs. Growing up, Gaddafi witnessed significant events rock the Arab world, including the 1948 Arab–Israeli War, the Egyptian Revolution of 1952, the Suez Crisis of 1956, and the short-lived existence of the United Arab Republic between 1958 and 1961. Gaddafi admired the political changes implemented in the Arab Republic of Egypt under his hero, President Gamal Abdel Nasser. Nasser argued for Arab nationalism; the rejection of Western colonialism, neo-colonialism, and Zionism; and a transition from capitalism to socialism. Nasser's book, Philosophy of the Revolution, was a key influence on Gaddafi; outlining how to initiate a coup, it has been described as "the inspiration and blueprint of [Gaddafi's] revolution."
What was happening to Idris' government in the 1960s?
572ebf5303f98919007569eb
Idris' government was increasingly unpopular by the latter 1960s
0
False
What industry greatly impacted the downfall of Idris's government?
572ebf5303f98919007569ec
the oil industry
316
False
What sort of problems did the oil industry experience in Libya?
572ebf5303f98919007569ed
corruption and entrenched systems of patronage were widespread throughout the oil industry
242
False
What did the Libyan workers do to show their support of Egypt?
572ebf5303f98919007569ee
Libyan workers shut down oil terminals in solidarity with Egypt
599
False
Did the CIA confirm knowledge of Gaddafi's upcoming coup?:
572ebf5303f98919007569ef
they have since claimed ignorance, stating that they were monitoring Abdul Aziz Shalhi's Black Boots revolutionary group.
858
False
What country won the Six-Day War?
57316f0c05b4da19006bd158
Israel
454
False
In what cities did protests against westerners flare up in 1967?
57316f0c05b4da19006bd159
Tripoli and Benghazi
571
False
On what country's behalf were the 1967 protests taking place?
57316f0c05b4da19006bd15a
Egypt
657
False
In what year did the CIA begin to expect a military coup in Libya?
57316f0c05b4da19006bd15b
1969
667
False
What revolutionary organization was led by Abdul Aziz Shalhi?
57316f0c05b4da19006bd15c
Black Boots
947
False
Idris' government was increasingly unpopular by the latter 1960s; it had exacerbated Libya's traditional regional and tribal divisions by centralising the country's federal system in order to take advantage of the country's oil wealth, while corruption and entrenched systems of patronage were widespread throughout the oil industry. Arab nationalism was increasingly popular, and protests flared up following Egypt's 1967 defeat in the Six-Day War with Israel; allied to the western powers, Idris' administration was seen as pro-Israeli. Anti-western riots broke out in Tripoli and Benghazi, while Libyan workers shut down oil terminals in solidarity with Egypt. By 1969, the U.S. Central Intelligence Agency was expecting segments of Libya's armed forces to launch a coup. Although claims have been made that they knew of Gaddafi's Free Officers Movement, they have since claimed ignorance, stating that they were monitoring Abdul Aziz Shalhi's Black Boots revolutionary group.
When Gaddafi staged his coup, did he need to use a great show of violence?
572ec021c246551400ce4600
They met no serious resistance, and wielded little violence against the monarchists.
613
False
When did Gaddafi decide to stage his coup?
572ec021c246551400ce4601
In mid-1969, Idris travelled abroad to spend the summer in Turkey and Greece.
0
False
What was Gaddafi's coup called?
572ec021c246551400ce4602
Operation Jerusalem
173
False
What did Gaddafi seize during the coup?
572ec021c246551400ce4603
Gaddafi took control of the Berka barracks in Benghazi,
313
False
What did Hameidi do during the coup?
572ec021c246551400ce4604
Hameidi was sent to arrest crown prince Sayyid Hasan ar-Rida al-Mahdi as-Sanussi, and force him to relinquish his claim to the throne.
478
False
What countries did Idris visit in the summer of 1969?
57316f8d05b4da19006bd162
Turkey and Greece
59
False
What was the code name for Gaddafi's coup against the monarchy?
57316f8d05b4da19006bd163
Operation Jerusalem
173
False
What leader's forces occupied the barracks in Tripoli?
57316f8d05b4da19006bd164
Omar Meheisha
375
False
Who arrested Sayyid Hasan ar-Rida al-Mahdi as-Sanussi?
57316f8d05b4da19006bd165
Khweldi Hameidi
470
False
What revolutionary leader took control of the anti-aircraft equipment in Tripoli?
57316f8d05b4da19006bd166
Jalloud
419
False
In mid-1969, Idris travelled abroad to spend the summer in Turkey and Greece. Gaddafi's Free Officers recognized this as their chance to overthrow the monarchy, initiating "Operation Jerusalem". On 1 September, they occupied airports, police depots, radio stations and government offices in Tripoli and Benghazi. Gaddafi took control of the Berka barracks in Benghazi, while Omar Meheisha occupied Tripoli barracks and Jalloud seized the city's anti-aircraft batteries. Khweldi Hameidi was sent to arrest crown prince Sayyid Hasan ar-Rida al-Mahdi as-Sanussi, and force him to relinquish his claim to the throne. They met no serious resistance, and wielded little violence against the monarchists.
How did Gaddafi announced his leadership?:
572ec0e9cb0c0d14000f1500
Addressing the populace by radio
106
False
List the two names of Gaddafi's coup.
572ec0e9cb0c0d14000f1501
"White Revolution", although was later renamed the "One September Revolution"
325
False
What did Gaddafi tell the people that the revolution represented?
572ec0e9cb0c0d14000f1502
freedom, socialism, and unity
645
False
What did Gaddafi insist that the coup be referred to as?
572ec0e9cb0c0d14000f1503
a revolution
498
False
What was the name of the government Gaddafi set up after overthrowing the monarchy?
57316ff8e6313a140071cf38
Libyan Arab Republic
84
False
What was the Libyan coup called at first?
57316ff8e6313a140071cf39
White Revolution
326
False
What was the Libyan coup later called, when it was renamed for the day it took place?
57316ff8e6313a140071cf3a
One September Revolution
377
False
What was the name of the revolutionary group led by Gaddafi?
57316ff8e6313a140071cf3b
Free Officers
466
False
How did Gaddafi characterize the monarchy in his radio address?
57316ff8e6313a140071cf3c
reactionary and corrupt
169
False
Having removed the monarchical government, Gaddafi proclaimed the foundation of the Libyan Arab Republic. Addressing the populace by radio, he proclaimed an end to the "reactionary and corrupt" regime, "the stench of which has sickened and horrified us all." Due to the coup's bloodless nature, it was initially labelled the "White Revolution", although was later renamed the "One September Revolution" after the date on which it occurred. Gaddafi insisted that the Free Officers' coup represented a revolution, marking the start of widespread change in the socio-economic and political nature of Libya. He proclaimed that the revolution meant "freedom, socialism, and unity", and over the coming years implemented measures to achieve this.
How did Gaddafi staff the RCC members?
572ec189cb0c0d14000f1508
All young men from (typically rural) working and middle-class backgrounds, none had university degrees;
328
False
Why did Gaddafi select these men as RCC members?
572ec189cb0c0d14000f1509
they were distinct from the wealthy, highly educated conservatives who previously governed the country.
444
False
Whose face was most closely associated with Libya's new government?
572ec189cb0c0d14000f150a
Gaddafi
187
False
Did everyone endorse Gaddafi?
572ec189cb0c0d14000f150b
some of the others attempted to constrain what they saw as his excesses
114
False
On what date were the members of the RCC announced?
5731710105b4da19006bd188
10 January 1970
311
False
How many members of the RCC had graduated from university?
5731710105b4da19006bd189
none
403
False
What was the general age group of the members of the RCC?
5731710105b4da19006bd18a
young
332
False
What was the sex of all the members of the RCC?
5731710105b4da19006bd18b
men
338
False
Along with the working class, what was the class background of RCC members?
5731710105b4da19006bd18c
middle
377
False
Although theoretically a collegial body operating through consensus building, Gaddafi dominated the RCC, although some of the others attempted to constrain what they saw as his excesses. Gaddafi remained the government's public face, with the identities of the other RCC members only being publicly revealed on 10 January 1970. All young men from (typically rural) working and middle-class backgrounds, none had university degrees; in this way they were distinct from the wealthy, highly educated conservatives who previously governed the country.
What did the RCC do with remnants of the monarchy?
572ec21cdfa6aa1500f8d34d
They purged monarchists and members of Idris' Senussi clan from Libya's political world and armed forces
135
False
What happened to Idris?
572ec21cdfa6aa1500f8d34e
Idris was sentenced to execution in absentia.
478
False
How did Gaddafi view the elite?
572ec21cdfa6aa1500f8d34f
Gaddafi believed this elite were opposed to the will of the Libyan people and had to be expunged.
241
False
What happened to the monarchists and and journalists?
572ec21cdfa6aa1500f8d350
"People's Courts" were founded to try various monarchist politicians and journalists, and though many were imprisoned, none were executed.
339
False
What clan was King Idris part of?
57317177a5e9cc1400cdbf6d
Senussi
181
False
Along with journalists, who was tried in the People's Courts?
57317177a5e9cc1400cdbf6e
monarchist politicians
385
False
How many people were executed by the People's Courts?
57317177a5e9cc1400cdbf6f
none
458
False
What sentence was given to the absent King Idris?
57317177a5e9cc1400cdbf70
execution
501
False
Along with the Senussi, who was purged from the military?
57317177a5e9cc1400cdbf71
monarchists
147
False
The coup completed, the RCC proceeded with their intentions of consolidating the revolutionary government and modernizing the country. They purged monarchists and members of Idris' Senussi clan from Libya's political world and armed forces; Gaddafi believed this elite were opposed to the will of the Libyan people and had to be expunged. "People's Courts" were founded to try various monarchist politicians and journalists, and though many were imprisoned, none were executed. Idris was sentenced to execution in absentia.
What was the RCC's view of political parties?
572ec2cedfa6aa1500f8d355
Ruling by decree, the RCC maintained the monarchy's ban on political parties,
247
False
What did Gaddafi do in 1971?
572ec2cedfa6aa1500f8d356
In September 1971, Gaddafi resigned, claiming to be dissatisfied with the pace of reform, but returned to his position within a month.
422
False
What did Gaddafi do in 1973?
572ec2cedfa6aa1500f8d357
In February 1973, he resigned again, once more returning the following month.
557
False
What was the impact of incorporating the sharia into the legal system?
572ec2cedfa6aa1500f8d358
united secular and religious law codes
165
False
In what year did the Revolutionary Intellectuals Seminar occur?
573171d105b4da19006bd19c
1970
7
False
What did the RCC outlaw in 1970?
573171d105b4da19006bd19d
trade unions
344
False
What publications were shut down 1972?
573171d105b4da19006bd19e
newspapers
410
False
In what month and year did Gaddafi first resign?
573171d105b4da19006bd19f
September 1971
425
False
In what year did Gaddafi's second resignation occur?
573171d105b4da19006bd1a0
1973
569
False
In May 1970, the Revolutionary Intellectuals Seminar was held to bring intellectuals in line with the revolution, while that year's Legislative Review and Amendment united secular and religious law codes, introducing sharia into the legal system. Ruling by decree, the RCC maintained the monarchy's ban on political parties, in May 1970 banned trade unions, and in 1972 outlawed workers' strikes and suspended newspapers. In September 1971, Gaddafi resigned, claiming to be dissatisfied with the pace of reform, but returned to his position within a month. In February 1973, he resigned again, once more returning the following month.
What was Libya's main export?
572ec348c246551400ce462e
crude oil
5
False
How did Gaddafi's decisions in the oil industry impact other OPEC states?
572ec348c246551400ce462f
In 1970, other OPEC states followed suit, leading to a global increase in the price of crude oil.
326
False
What was the main export of Libya?
5731723805b4da19006bd1a6
crude oil
5
False
How much money did Libya accrue in a year as a result of the Tripoli Agreement?
5731723805b4da19006bd1a7
$1 billion
605
False
What organization of oil producers was Libya a part of?
5731723805b4da19006bd1a8
OPEC
341
False
Who was responsible for raising the price of Libyan oil in 1969?
5731723805b4da19006bd1a9
Jalloud
270
False
With crude oil as the country's primary export, Gaddafi sought to improve Libya's oil sector. In October 1969, he proclaimed the current trade terms unfair, benefiting foreign corporations more than the Libyan state, and by threatening to reduce production, in December Jalloud successfully increased the price of Libyan oil. In 1970, other OPEC states followed suit, leading to a global increase in the price of crude oil. The RCC followed with the Tripoli Agreement, in which they secured income tax, back-payments and better pricing from the oil corporations; these measures brought Libya an estimated $1 billion in additional revenues in its first year.
In 1979, how much did the average per capita income change for Libyans?
572ec488cb0c0d14000f1524
by 1979 the average per-capita income was at $8,170, up from $40 in 1951
651
False
What decision allowed Gaddafi to move Libya closer to socialism?
572ec488cb0c0d14000f1525
In September 1973, it was announced that all foreign oil producers active in Libya were to be nationalized.
216
False
How did Libya's gross domestic product increase from 1969 to 1979?
572ec488cb0c0d14000f1526
while gross domestic product had been $3.8 billion in 1969, it had risen to $13.7 billion in 1974, and $24.5 billion in 1979.
414
False
How did the RCC begin their march toward nationalization?
572ec488cb0c0d14000f1527
starting with the expropriation of British Petroleum's share of the British Petroleum-N.B. Hunt Sahir Field in December 1971.
90
False
What company's property did Libya nationalize in December of 1971?
57317297497a881900248ef7
British Petroleum
125
False
In what month and year was a blanket nationalization of foreign oil production proclaimed?
57317297497a881900248ef8
September 1973
219
False
What was Libya's GDP in 1969?
57317297497a881900248ef9
$3.8 billion
452
False
In what year did Libya have a GDP of $24.5 billion?
57317297497a881900248efa
1979
534
False
What was Libya's per-capita income in 1951?
57317297497a881900248efb
$40
712
False
Increasing state control over the oil sector, the RCC began a program of nationalization, starting with the expropriation of British Petroleum's share of the British Petroleum-N.B. Hunt Sahir Field in December 1971. In September 1973, it was announced that all foreign oil producers active in Libya were to be nationalized. For Gaddafi, this was an important step towards socialism. It proved an economic success; while gross domestic product had been $3.8 billion in 1969, it had risen to $13.7 billion in 1974, and $24.5 billion in 1979. In turn, the Libyans' standard of life greatly improved over the first decade of Gaddafi's administration, and by 1979 the average per-capita income was at $8,170, up from $40 in 1951; this was above the average of many industrialized countries like Italy and the U.K.
What sort of identity was promoted by the RCC?
5731735ba5e9cc1400cdbf77
pan-Libyan
91
False
What identities did the RCC try to dissuade?
5731735ba5e9cc1400cdbf78
regional and tribal
30
False
What were tribal leaders accused of in 1971?
5731735ba5e9cc1400cdbf79
counter-revolutionary activity
258
False
Where was the military court located that tried the tribal leaders in 1971?
5731735ba5e9cc1400cdbf7a
Sabha
214
False
Of what party did Gaddafi become president in this period?
5731735ba5e9cc1400cdbf7b
Arab Socialist Union
555
False
The RCC attempted to suppress regional and tribal affiliation, replacing it with a unified pan-Libyan identity. In doing so, they tried discrediting tribal leaders as agents of the old regime, and in August 1971 a Sabha military court tried many of them for counter-revolutionary activity. Long-standing administrative boundaries were re-drawn, crossing tribal boundaries, while pro-revolutionary modernizers replaced traditional leaders, but the communities they served often rejected them. Realizing the failures of the modernizers, Gaddafi created the Arab Socialist Union (ASU), a mass mobilization vanguard party of which he was president. The ASU recognized the RCC as its "Supreme Leading Authority", and was designed to further revolutionary enthusiasm throughout the country.
On what philosophy was the RCC's social reforms based?
573173bea5e9cc1400cdbf81
sharia
57
False
What language was used in official communications by the government of Libya?
573173bea5e9cc1400cdbf82
Arabic
213
False
During what period were oil-funded programs for social welfare created?
573173bea5e9cc1400cdbf83
1969 to 1973
314
False
What religion was suppressed in Libya?
573173bea5e9cc1400cdbf84
Christian
131
False
What beverage did the Libyan government ban?
573173bea5e9cc1400cdbf85
alcohol
95
False
The RCC implemented measures for social reform, adopting sharia as a basis. The consumption of alcohol was banned, night clubs and Christian churches were shut down, traditional Libyan dress was encouraged, while Arabic was decreed as the only language permitted in official communications and on road signs. From 1969 to 1973, the RCC introduced social welfare programs funded with oil money, which led to house-building projects and improved healthcare and education. In doing so, they greatly expanded the public sector, providing employment for thousands.
What philosophy influenced the RCC?
5731744305b4da19006bd1b6
Arab nationalism
26
False
Along with Egypt, Iraq and Sudan, what country's Arab nationalist government recognized the Libyan revolutionary government?
5731744305b4da19006bd1b7
Syria
181
False
What Arab nationalist thinker was influential with the RCC?
5731744305b4da19006bd1b8
Nasser
17
False
What countries founded the Arab Revolutionary Front with Libya?
5731744305b4da19006bd1b9
Egypt and Sudan
459
False
In what year was the Arab Revolutionary Front founded?
5731744305b4da19006bd1ba
1969
405
False
The influence of Nasser's Arab nationalism over the RCC was immediately apparent. The administration was instantly recognized by the neighbouring Arab nationalist regimes in Egypt, Syria, Iraq and Sudan, with Egypt sending experts to aid the inexperienced RCC. Gaddafi propounded Pan-Arab ideas, proclaiming the need for a single Arab state stretching across North Africa and the Middle East. In December 1969, Libya founded the Arab Revolutionary Front with Egypt and Sudan as a step towards political unification, and in 1970 Syria stated its intention to join.
Who did Anwar Sadat succeed?
573176cba5e9cc1400cdbf8b
Nasser
6
False
What was the alternative to creating an Arab political federation?
573176cba5e9cc1400cdbf8c
unified state
93
False
Along with Libya, what nations joined the political federation?
573176cba5e9cc1400cdbf8d
Egypt, Syria and Sudan
184
False
In what year was the merger charter signed?
573176cba5e9cc1400cdbf8e
1972
257
False
When did the federation have to be implemented by?
573176cba5e9cc1400cdbf8f
September 1973
463
False
After Nasser died in November 1970, his successor, Anwar Sadat, suggested that rather than a unified state, they create a political federation, implemented in April 1971; in doing so, Egypt, Syria and Sudan got large grants of Libyan oil money. In February 1972, Gaddafi and Sadat signed an unofficial charter of merger, but it was never implemented as relations broke down the following year. Sadat became increasingly wary of Libya's radical direction, and the September 1973 deadline for implementing the Federation passed by with no action taken.
What nations comprised the Four Powers?
5731773c497a881900248f25
France, the United Kingdom, the United States and the Soviet Union
58
False
Who told Gaddafi about a possible counter-coup in 1970?
5731773c497a881900248f26
U.S.
381
False
Along with the U.S., what major power recognized Gaddafi's government at an early date?
5731773c497a881900248f27
U.K.
172
False
In what month and year did the United States remove its military bases from Libya?
5731773c497a881900248f28
June 1970
971
False
Who removed their Libyan military bases in March of 1970?
5731773c497a881900248f29
British
928
False
After the 1969 coup, representatives of the Four Powers – France, the United Kingdom, the United States and the Soviet Union – were called to meet RCC representatives. The U.K. and U.S. quickly extended diplomatic recognition, hoping to secure the position of their military bases in Libya and fearing further instability. Hoping to ingratiate themselves with Gaddafi, in 1970 the U.S. informed him of at least one planned counter-coup. Such attempts to form a working relationship with the RCC failed; Gaddafi was determined to reassert national sovereignty and expunge what he described as foreign colonial and imperialist influences. His administration insisted that the U.S. and U.K. remove their military bases from Libya, with Gaddafi proclaiming that "the armed forces which rose to express the people's revolution [will not] tolerate living in their shacks while the bases of imperialism exist in Libyan territory." The British left in March and the Americans in June 1970.
How many Italians lived in Libya prior to October of 1970?
5731782a497a881900248f2f
12,000
103
False
In addition to Italians, what people were kicked out of Libya in 1970?
5731782a497a881900248f30
Jews
185
False
Who did the RCC buy military equipment from?
5731782a497a881900248f31
France and the Soviet Union
646
False
Who were the adversaries of the Soviets during the Cold War?
5731782a497a881900248f32
U.S.
773
False
Who did Libya offer foreign aid to in 1971?
5731782a497a881900248f33
Malta
305
False
Moving to reduce Italian influence, in October 1970 all Italian-owned assets were expropriated and the 12,000-strong Italian community expelled from Libya alongside a smaller number of Jews. The day became a national holiday. Aiming to reduce NATO power in the Mediterranean, in 1971 Libya requested that Malta cease to allow NATO to use its land for a military base, in turn offering them foreign aid. Compromising, Malta's government continued allowing NATO use of the island, but only on the condition that they would not use it for launching attacks on Arab territory. Orchestrating a military build-up, the RCC began purchasing weapons from France and the Soviet Union. The commercial relationship with the latter led to an increasingly strained relationship with the U.S., who were then engaged in the Cold War with the Soviets.
What Palestinian political figure had a poor relationship with Gaddafi?
5731789ee6313a140071cf72
Yasser Arafat
41
False
What organization did Arafat belong to?
5731789ee6313a140071cf73
Fatah
58
False
Who was responsible for the attack on Israeli athletes in 1972?
5731789ee6313a140071cf74
Black September Organization
458
False
In what city did the 1972 attack on Israeli athletes occur?
5731789ee6313a140071cf75
Munich
512
False
How many terrorists survived the 1972 Munich attack?
5731789ee6313a140071cf76
three
665
False
His relationship with Palestinian leader Yasser Arafat of Fatah was strained, with Gaddafi considering him too moderate and calling for more violent action. Instead he supported militia like the Popular Front for the Liberation of Palestine, Popular Front for the Liberation of Palestine – General Command, the Democratic Front for the Liberation of Palestine, As-Sa'iqa, the Palestinian Popular Struggle Front, and the Abu Nidal Organization. He funded the Black September Organization who perpetrated the 1972 Munich massacre of Israeli athletes in West Germany, and had the killed militants' bodies flown to Libya for a hero's funeral. Gaddafi also welcomed the three surviving attackers in Tripoli following their release in exchange for the hostages of hijacked Lufthansa Flight 615 a few weeks later and allowed them to go into hiding.
During what conflict did Gaddafi notably switch sides?
57317925497a881900248f4b
Eritrean War of Independence
689
False
During what decade did Libya finance militant groups?
57317925497a881900248f4c
1970s
734
False
What was the Third World fighting against in the 1970s?
57317925497a881900248f4d
colonialism and neocolonialism
864
False
On what continent did the Red Army Faction operate?
57317925497a881900248f4e
Europe
433
False
What was the ANC combating?
57317925497a881900248f4f
Apartheid
276
False
Gaddafi financially supported other militant groups across the world, including the Black Panther Party, Nation of Islam, Tupamaros, 19th of April Movement and Sandinista National Liberation Front in the Americas, the ANC among other liberation movements in the fight against Apartheid in South Africa, the Provisional Irish Republican Army, ETA, Sardinian nationalists, Action directe, the Red Brigades, and the Red Army Faction in Europe, and the Armenian Secret Army, Japanese Red Army, Free Aceh Movement, and Moro National Liberation Front in Asia. Gaddafi was indiscriminate in the causes he funded, sometimes switching from supporting one side in a conflict to the other, as in the Eritrean War of Independence. Throughout the 1970s these groups received financial support from Libya, which came to be seen as a leader in the Third World's struggle against colonialism and neocolonialism. Though many of these groups were labelled "terrorists" by critics of their activities, Gaddafi rejected such a characterisation, instead considering them revolutionaries engaged in liberation struggles.
On what date did Gaddafi declare the beginning of a "Popular Revolution"?
5731799c497a881900248f55
16 April 1973
3
False
What happened to Libya's laws as a result of the first point of Gaddafi's speech?
5731799c497a881900248f56
dissolved
158
False
How many points did the Popular Revolution plan have?
5731799c497a881900248f57
5
119
False
What type of revolution began as a result of the third point?
5731799c497a881900248f58
administrative
344
False
Along with Libya and France, where did Gaddafi speak on the Popular Revolution?
5731799c497a881900248f59
Egypt
754
False
On 16 April 1973, Gaddafi proclaimed the start of a "Popular Revolution" in a Zuwarah speech. He initiated this with a 5-point plan, the first point of which dissolved all existing laws, to be replaced by revolutionary enactments. The second point proclaimed that all opponents of the revolution had to be removed, while the third initiated an administrative revolution that Gaddafi proclaimed would remove all traces of bureaucracy and the bourgeoisie. The fourth point announced that the population must form People's Committees and be armed to defend the revolution, while the fifth proclaimed the beginning of a cultural revolution to expunge Libya of "poisonous" foreign influences. He began to lecture on this new phase of the revolution in Libya, Egypt, and France.
What were the Libyan people instructed to create in conjunction with the Popular Revolution?
57317a26a5e9cc1400cdbfaf
General People's Committees
76
False
Along with the bureaucracy, who were the General People's Committees directed at?
57317a26a5e9cc1400cdbfb0
traditional leaders
471
False
What political system did Gaddafi claim was less democratic than the General People's Committees?
57317a26a5e9cc1400cdbfb1
traditional party-based representative
332
False
As part of this Popular Revolution, Gaddafi invited Libya's people to found General People's Committees as conduits for raising political consciousness. Although offering little guidance for how to set up these councils, Gaddafi claimed that they would offer a form of direct political participation that was more democratic than a traditional party-based representative system. He hoped that the councils would mobilize the people behind the RCC, erode the power of the traditional leaders and the bureaucracy, and allow for a new legal system chosen by the people.
What negative consequence did the People's Committees lead to?
57317ace497a881900248f69
tribal divisions
147
False
Along with Ba'athists and Islamists, who was arrested as a result of the actions of the People's Committees?
57317ace497a881900248f6a
Marxists
330
False
Along with the General People's Congress, what national body represented the People's Committees?
57317ace497a881900248f6b
General People's Committee
597
False
What kind of structure did the People's Committee system use?
57317ace497a881900248f6c
pyramid
369
False
The People's Committees led to a high percentage of public involvement in decision making, within the limits permitted by the RCC, but exacerbated tribal divisions. They also served as a surveillance system, aiding the security services in locating individuals with views critical of the RCC, leading to the arrest of Ba'athists, Marxists and Islamists. Operating in a pyramid structure, the base form of these Committees were local working groups, who sent elected representatives to the district level, and from there to the national level, divided between the General People's Congress and the General People's Committee. Above these remained Gaddafi and the RCC, who remained responsible for all major decisions.
In what month and year did Gaddafi begin Third International Theory?
57317b49a5e9cc1400cdbfb5
June 1973
3
False
Who was the founder of Three Worlds Theory?
57317b49a5e9cc1400cdbfb6
Mao Zedong
348
False
What sort of state did Gaddafi believe should be founded?
57317b49a5e9cc1400cdbfb7
pan-Arab
467
False
Along with the United States, what country did Gaddafi believe to be imperialist?
57317b49a5e9cc1400cdbfb8
Soviet Union
145
False
What economic philosophy was associated with the West?
57317b49a5e9cc1400cdbfb9
capitalism
196
False
In June 1973, Gaddafi created a political ideology as a basis for the Popular Revolution. Third International Theory considered the U.S. and the Soviet Union as imperialist, thus rejected Western capitalism as well as Eastern bloc communism's atheism. In this respect it was similar to the Three Worlds Theory developed by China's political leader Mao Zedong. As part of this theory, Gaddafi praised nationalism as a progressive force and advocated the creation of a pan-Arab state which would lead the Islamic and Third Worlds against imperialism.
Gaddafi's written work on Third International Theory consisted of how many volumes?
57317bc6e6313a140071cf98
three
49
False
When was the last volume of Gaddafi's work on Third International Theory published?
57317bc6e6313a140071cf99
1979
96
False
What was the title given to Gaddafi's Third International Theory writings?
57317bc6e6313a140071cf9a
The Green Book
124
False
What volume of The Green Book discussed democracy?
57317bc6e6313a140071cf9b
one
147
False
What political philosophy was discussed in the second volume of The Green Book?
57317bc6e6313a140071cf9c
socialism
327
False
Gaddafi summarized Third International Theory in three short volumes published between 1975 and 1979, collectively known as The Green Book. Volume one was devoted to the issue of democracy, outlining the flaws of representative systems in favour of direct, participatory GPCs. The second dealt with Gaddafi's beliefs regarding socialism, while the third explored social issues regarding the family and the tribe. While the first two volumes advocated radical reform, the third adopted a socially conservative stance, proclaiming that while men and women were equal, they were biologically designed for different roles in life. During the years that followed, Gaddafists adopted quotes from The Green Book, such as "Representation is Fraud", as slogans. Meanwhile, in September 1975, Gaddafi implemented further measures to increase popular mobilization, introducing objectives to improve the relationship between the Councils and the ASU.
In what year was the Office for the Security of the Revolution founded?
57317c2b497a881900248f7b
1975
13
False
In what year did student protests occur in Benghazi?
57317c2b497a881900248f7c
1976
170
False
How many senior officers were expelled fro the army in 1975?
57317c2b497a881900248f7d
200
61
False
How many students were executed in January of 1977?
57317c2b497a881900248f7e
two
517
False
Who criticized the political execution of students and military officers that occurred in January 1977?
57317c2b497a881900248f7f
Amnesty International
593
False
In September 1975, Gaddafi purged the army, arresting around 200 senior officers, and in October he founded the clandestine Office for the Security of the Revolution. In 1976, student demonstrations broke out in Tripoli and Benghazi, and were attacked by police and Gaddafist students. The RCC responded with mass arrests, and introduced compulsory national service for young people. Dissent also arose from conservative clerics and the Muslim Brotherhood, who were persecuted as anti-revolutionary. In January 1977, two dissenting students and a number of army officers were publicly hanged; Amnesty International condemned it as the first time in Gaddafist Libya that dissenters had been executed for purely political crimes.
Whose rise to the presidency of Egypt led to the decline in relations between Egypt and Libya?
57317cc7a5e9cc1400cdbfc9
Sadat
105
False
What nation's military destroyed Libyan Arab Airlines Flight 114?
57317cc7a5e9cc1400cdbfca
Israeli
231
False
Why did Libyan Arab Airlines Flight 114 accidentally fly into Israel's airspace?
57317cc7a5e9cc1400cdbfcb
sandstorm
367
False
What city was the destination of RMS Queen Elizabeth 2?
57317cc7a5e9cc1400cdbfcc
Haifa
573
False
Jews from what nation chartered the RMS Queen Elizabeth 2?
57317cc7a5e9cc1400cdbfcd
American
548
False
Following Anwar Sadat's ascension to the Egyptian presidency, Libya's relations with Egypt deteriorated. Sadat was perturbed by Gaddafi's unpredictability and insistence that Egypt required a cultural revolution. In February 1973, Israeli forces shot down Libyan Arab Airlines Flight 114, which had strayed from Egyptian airspace into Israeli-held territory during a sandstorm. Gaddafi was infuriated that Egypt had not done more to prevent the incident, and in retaliation planned to destroy the RMS Queen Elizabeth 2, a British ship chartered by American Jews to sail to Haifa for Israel's 25th anniversary. Gaddafi ordered an Egyptian submarine to target the ship, but Sadat cancelled the order, fearing a military escalation.
Who was allied with Egypt during the Yom Kippur War?
57317d77e6313a140071cfac
Syria
44
False
Who was the president of Sudan in 1975?
57317d77e6313a140071cfad
Gaafar Nimeiry
307
False
What revolutionary group sought to overthrow the president of Sudan?
57317d77e6313a140071cfae
Sudan People's Liberation Army
371
False
Prior to the Libyan invasion, what country was the Aouzou Strip a part of?
57317d77e6313a140071cfaf
Chad
511
False
What element did the Aouzou Strip possess a great deal of?
57317d77e6313a140071cfb0
uranium
529
False
Gaddafi was later infuriated when Egypt and Syria planned the Yom Kippur War against Israel without consulting him, and was angered when Egypt conceded to peace talks rather than continuing the war. Gaddafi become openly hostile to Egypt's leader, calling for Sadat's overthrow, and when Sudanese President Gaafar Nimeiry took Sadat's side, Gaddafi by 1975 sponsored the Sudan People's Liberation Army to overthrow Nimeiry. Focusing his attention elsewhere in Africa, in late 1972 and early 1973, Libya invaded Chad to annex the uranium-rich Aouzou Strip. Offering financial incentives, he successfully convinced 8 African states to break off diplomatic relations with Israel in 1973. Intent on propagating Islam, in 1973 Gaddafi founded the Islamic Call Society, which had opened 132 centres across Africa within a decade. In 1973 he converted Gabonese President Omar Bongo, an action which he repeated three years later with Jean-Bédel Bokassa, president of the Central African Republic.
What country formed a political union with Libya in 1974?
57317e0505b4da19006bd1e8
Tunisia
81
False
What was the name of the abortive political union between Tunisia and Libya in 1974?
57317e0505b4da19006bd1e9
Arab Islamic Republic
122
False
Who was the president of Tunisia in 1974?
57317e0505b4da19006bd1ea
Habib Bourguiba
198
False
With what country did Libya conclude the Hassi Messaoud defense agreement?
57317e0505b4da19006bd1eb
Algeria
385
False
Against what government was the Hassi Messaoud defense agreement directed against?
57317e0505b4da19006bd1ec
Moroccan
474
False
Gaddafi sought to develop closer links in the Maghreb; in January 1974 Libya and Tunisia announced a political union, the Arab Islamic Republic. Although advocated by Gaddafi and Tunisian President Habib Bourguiba, the move was deeply unpopular in Tunisia and soon abandoned. Retaliating, Gaddafi sponsored anti-government militants in Tunisia into the 1980s. Turning his attention to Algeria, in 1975 Libya signed the Hassi Messaoud defence agreement allegedly to counter "Moroccan expansionism", also funding the Polisario Front of Western Sahara in their independence struggle against Morocco. Seeking to diversify Libya's economy, Gaddafi's government began purchasing shares in major European corporations like Fiat as well as buying real estate in Malta and Italy, which would become a valuable source of income during the 1980s oil slump.
What was the name of the state founded in Libya on March 2, 1977?
57317eb2e6313a140071cfc0
Great Socialist People's Libyan Arab Jamahiriya
200
False
How many Basic People's Congresses existed in the Jamahiriya?
57317eb2e6313a140071cfc1
187
526
False
What body did the members elected by the Basic People's Congresses attend?
57317eb2e6313a140071cfc2
General People's Congress
665
False
How often did the General People's Congress occur?
57317eb2e6313a140071cfc3
annual
658
False
What was the official name of Libya prior to the establishment of the Jamahiriya?
57317eb2e6313a140071cfc4
Libyan Arab Republic
155
False
On 2 March 1977 the General People's Congress adopted the "Declaration of the Establishment of the People's Authority" at Gaddafi's behest. Dissolving the Libyan Arab Republic, it was replaced by the Great Socialist People's Libyan Arab Jamahiriya (Arabic: الجماهيرية العربية الليبية الشعبية الاشتراكية‎, al-Jamāhīrīyah al-‘Arabīyah al-Lībīyah ash-Sha‘bīyah al-Ishtirākīyah), a "state of the masses" conceptualized by Gaddafi. Officially, the Jamahiriya was a direct democracy in which the people ruled themselves through the 187 Basic People's Congresses, where all adult Libyans participated and voted on national decisions. These then sent members to the annual General People's Congress, which was broadcast live on television. In principle, the People's Congresses were Libya's highest authority, with major decisions proposed by government officials or with Gaddafi himself requiring the consent of the People's Congresses.
What was the GPC accused of being vis-à-vis Gaddafi?
57317f53a5e9cc1400cdbfd3
a rubber stamp
143
False
What policy did Gaddafi propose that the GPC was against?
57317f53a5e9cc1400cdbfd4
primary schools to be abolished
297
False
What type of education did Gaddafi prefer to primary schools?
57317f53a5e9cc1400cdbfd5
home schooling
345
False
What was a policy that Gaddafi instituted without support from the GPC?
57317f53a5e9cc1400cdbfd6
allow women into the armed forces
517
False
Debate remained limited, and major decisions regarding the economy and defence were avoided or dealt with cursorily; the GPC largely remained "a rubber stamp" for Gaddafi's policies. On rare occasions, the GPC opposed Gaddafi's suggestions, sometimes successfully; notably, when Gaddafi called on primary schools to be abolished, believing that home schooling was healthier for children, the GPC rejected the idea. In other instances, Gaddafi pushed through laws without the GPC's support, such as when he desired to allow women into the armed forces. Gaddafi proclaimed that the People's Congresses provided for Libya's every political need, rendering other political organizations unnecessary; all non-authorized groups, including political parties, professional associations, independent trade unions and women's groups, were banned.
What book did the Jamahiriya look to for legal advice?
57317ff2a5e9cc1400cdbfdb
Qur'an
96
False
What tenet of sharia did Gaddafi believe was incompatible with socialism?
57317ff2a5e9cc1400cdbfdc
protection of private property
351
False
What relationship led the Soviets to invite Gaddafi to Moscow?
57317ff2a5e9cc1400cdbfdd
commercial
921
False
What did conservative Muslim clerics accuse Gaddafi of?
57317ff2a5e9cc1400cdbfde
shirk
528
False
Who won a border war with Libya?
57317ff2a5e9cc1400cdbfdf
Egypt
615
False
With preceding legal institutions abolished, Gaddafi envisioned the Jamahiriya as following the Qur'an for legal guidance, adopting sharia law; he proclaimed "man-made" laws unnatural and dictatorial, only permitting Allah's law. Within a year he was backtracking, announcing that sharia was inappropriate for the Jamahiriya because it guaranteed the protection of private property, contravening The Green Book's socialism. His emphasis on placing his own work on a par with the Qur'an led conservative clerics to accuse him of shirk, furthering their opposition to his regime. In July, a border war broke out with Egypt, in which the Egyptians defeated Libya despite their technological inferiority. The conflict lasted one week before both sides agreed to sign a peace treaty that was brokered by several Arab states. That year, Gaddafi was invited to Moscow by the Soviet government in recognition of their increasing commercial relationship.
In what year did Gaddafi resign from his position in the GPC?
573180a5e6313a140071cfd2
1978
12
False
Prior to his resignation, what office did Gaddafi occupy in the GPC?
573180a5e6313a140071cfd3
Secretary-General
42
False
After Gaddafi stepped down from the GPC, what title did he take?
573180a5e6313a140071cfd4
Leader of the Revolution
327
False
What authority did Gaddafi have over the Libyan armed forces?
573180a5e6313a140071cfd5
commander-in-chief
370
False
In December 1978, Gaddafi stepped down as Secretary-General of the GPC, announcing his new focus on revolutionary rather than governmental activities; this was part of his new emphasis on separating the apparatus of the revolution from the government. Although no longer in a formal governmental post, he adopted the title of "Leader of the Revolution" and continued as commander-in-chief of the armed forces. He continued exerting considerable influence over Libya, with many critics insisting that the structure of Libya's direct democracy gave him "the freedom to manipulate outcomes".
In September of 1978, what bureaucracy did Gaddafi speak out against?
57318193497a881900248f99
public sector
496
False
What "dictatorship" did Gaddafi attack in September of 1978?
57318193497a881900248f9a
private sector
540
False
After People's Committees expropriated companies, what did they turn them into?
57318193497a881900248f9b
worker cooperatives
645
False
How many companies were taken over by People's Committees?
57318193497a881900248f9c
several hundred
597
False
Libya began to turn towards socialism. In March 1978, the government issued guidelines for housing redistribution, attempting to ensure the population that every adult Libyan owned his own home and that nobody was enslaved to paying their rent. Most families were banned from owning more than one house, while former rental properties were seized and sold to the tenants at a heavily subsidized price. In September, Gaddafi called for the People's Committees to eliminate the "bureaucracy of the public sector" and the "dictatorship of the private sector"; the People's Committees took control of several hundred companies, converting them into worker cooperatives run by elected representatives.
On what date did the GPC separate the revolution from the government?
573181fd05b4da19006bd1fc
2 March 1979,
3
False
Who was the leader of the Revolutionary Committees?
573181fd05b4da19006bd1fd
Mohammad Maghgoub
340
False
What was the English name of the magazine published by the Revolutionary Committees?
573181fd05b4da19006bd1fe
The Green March
453
False
How often was al-Zahf al-Akhdar published?
573181fd05b4da19006bd1ff
weekly
437
False
What bodies represented the revolution after the separation of government and revolution?
573181fd05b4da19006bd200
Revolutionary Committees
116
False
On 2 March 1979, the GPC announced the separation of government and revolution, the latter being represented by new Revolutionary Committees, who operated in tandem with the People's Committees in schools, universities, unions, the police force and the military. Dominated by revolutionary zealots, the Revolutionary Committees were led by Mohammad Maghgoub and a Central Coordinating Office, and met with Gaddafi annually. Publishing a weekly magazine The Green March (al-Zahf al-Akhdar), in October 1980 they took control of the press. Responsible for perpetuating revolutionary fervour, they performed ideological surveillance, later adopting a significant security role, making arrests and putting people on trial according to the "law of the revolution" (qanun al-thawra). With no legal code or safeguards, the administration of revolutionary justice was largely arbitrary and resulted in widespread abuses and the suppression of civil liberties: the "Green Terror."
Where did land redistribution begin in 1979?
5731826ca5e9cc1400cdbff9
Jefara plain
64
False
When did the Jefara plain land redistribution end?
5731826ca5e9cc1400cdbffa
1981
97
False
What was the maximum amount of money a person could have in their bank account without having it expropriated in 1980?
5731826ca5e9cc1400cdbffb
1000 dinar
196
False
As a result of the 1981 laws putting the government in control of commerce, what began to thrive?
5731826ca5e9cc1400cdbffc
black market
545
False
What took the place of private businesses in 1981?
5731826ca5e9cc1400cdbffd
state supermarkets
394
False
In 1979, the committees began the redistribution of land in the Jefara plain, continuing through 1981. In May 1980, measures to redistribute and equalize wealth were implemented; anyone with over 1000 dinar in his bank account saw that extra money expropriated. The following year, the GPC announced that the government would take control of all import, export and distribution functions, with state supermarkets replacing privately owned businesses; this led to a decline in the availability of consumer goods and the development of a thriving black market.
What tribe did Gaddafi belong to?
573182e9e6313a140071cfee
Qaddadfa
223
False
What Libyan government official allegedly plotted to kill Gaddafi in 1978?
573182e9e6313a140071cfef
head of military intelligence
117
False
In 1981, what Libyan opposition group was founded?
573182e9e6313a140071cff0
National Front for the Salvation of Libya
426
False
Who founded the NFSL?
573182e9e6313a140071cff1
Mohammed Magariaf
495
False
What group notably murdered Libyan diplomats?
573182e9e6313a140071cff2
al-Borkan,
593
False
The Jamahiriya's radical direction earned the government many enemies. In February 1978, Gaddafi discovered that his head of military intelligence was plotting to kill him, and began to increasingly entrust security to his Qaddadfa tribe. Many who had seen their wealth and property confiscated turned against the administration, and a number of western-funded opposition groups were founded by exiles. Most prominent was the National Front for the Salvation of Libya (NFSL), founded in 1981 by Mohammed Magariaf, which orchestrated militant attacks against Libya's government, while another, al-Borkan, began killing Libyan diplomats abroad. Following Gaddafi's command to kill these "stray dogs", under Colonel Younis Bilgasim's leadership, the Revolutionary Committees set up overseas branches to suppress counter-revolutionary activity, assassinating various dissidents. Although nearby nations like Syria also used hit squads, Gaddafi was unusual in publicly bragging about his administration's use of them; in June 1980, he ordered all dissidents to return home or be "liquidated wherever you are."
What list did the United States add Libya to in 1979?
5731838705b4da19006bd210
State Sponsors of Terrorism
47
False
In what Libyan city was the United States embassy burned in 1979?
5731838705b4da19006bd211
Tripoli
150
False
What event prompted the burning of the US embassy in Libya?
5731838705b4da19006bd212
Iran hostage crisis
201
False
How much money did Syria owe to the Soviets as of 1980?
5731838705b4da19006bd213
£1 billion
841
False
What country's military was attacking Uganda in 1979?
5731838705b4da19006bd214
Tanzanian
1070
False
In 1979, the U.S. placed Libya on its list of "State Sponsors of Terrorism", while at the end of the year a demonstration torched the U.S. embassy in Tripoli in solidarity with the perpetrators of the Iran hostage crisis. The following year, Libyan fighters began intercepting U.S. fighter jets flying over the Mediterranean, signalling the collapse of relations between the two countries. Libyan relations with Lebanon and Shi'ite communities across the world also deteriorated due to the August 1978 disappearance of imam Musa al-Sadr when visiting Libya; the Lebanese accused Gaddafi of having him killed or imprisoned, a charge he denied. Relations with Syria improved, as Gaddafi and Syrian President Hafez al-Assad shared an enmity with Israel and Egypt's Sadat. In 1980, they proposed a political union, with Libya paying off Syria's £1 billion debt to the Soviet Union; although pressures led Assad to pull out, they remained allies. Another key ally was Uganda, and in 1979, Gaddafi sent 2,500 troops into Uganda to defend the regime of President Idi Amin from Tanzanian invaders. The mission failed; 400 Libyans were killed and they were forced to retreat. Gaddafi later came to regret his alliance with Amin, openly criticising him.
How much money did Libya earn from oil in 1986?
573183df05b4da19006bd21a
$5.4 billion
137
False
What was another name for the Great Man-Made River?
573183df05b4da19006bd21b
Gaddafi's Pet Project
216
False
In what country did FROLINAT operate?
573183df05b4da19006bd21c
Chad
523
False
In what year did the Libyan military pull out of Chad at the behest of the OAU?
573183df05b4da19006bd21d
1981
825
False
Who was the ruler of Morocco in 1984?
573183df05b4da19006bd21e
Hassan II
1323
False
The early and mid-1980s saw economic trouble for Libya; from 1982 to 1986, the country's annual oil revenues dropped from $21 billion to $5.4 billion. Focusing on irrigation projects, 1983 saw construction start on "Gaddafi's Pet Project", the Great Man-Made River; although designed to be finished by the end of the decade, it remained incomplete at the start of the 21st century. Military spending increased, while other administrative budgets were cut back. Libya had long supported the FROLINAT militia in neighbouring Chad, and in December 1980, re-invaded Chad at the request of the Frolinat-controlled GUNT government to aid in the civil war; in January 1981, Gaddafi suggested a political merger. The Organisation of African Unity (OAU) rejected this, and called for a Libyan withdrawal, which came about in November 1981. The civil war resumed, and so Libya sent troops back in, clashing with French forces who supported the southern Chadian forces. Many African nations had tired of Libya's policies of interference in foreign affairs; by 1980, nine African states had cut off diplomatic relations with Libya, while in 1982 the OAU cancelled its scheduled conference in Tripoli in order to prevent Gaddafi gaining chairmanship. Proposing political unity with Morocco, in August 1984, Gaddafi and Moroccan monarch Hassan II signed the Oujda Treaty, forming the Arab-African Union; such a union was considered surprising due to the strong political differences and longstanding enmity that existed between the two governments. Relations remained strained, particularly due to Morocco's friendly relations with the U.S. and Israel; in August 1986, Hassan abolished the union. Domestic threats continued to plague Gaddafi; in May 1984, his Bab al-Azizia home was unsuccessfully attacked by a joint NFSL–Muslim Brotherhood militia, and in the aftermath 5000 dissidents were arrested.
In what years did Gaddafi visit the Soviet Union?
57318491e6313a140071d002
1981 and 1985
251
False
What did Reagan wrongly believe Libya to be?
57318491e6313a140071d003
a puppet regime of the Soviet Union
110
False
As a result of American hostility, what military alliance did Libya say it would join?
57318491e6313a140071d004
Warsaw Pact
294
False
What Libyan aircraft were shot down by the United States in 1981?
57318491e6313a140071d005
Su-22
569
False
What was the occupation of Yvonne Fletcher?
57318491e6313a140071d006
policewoman
1091
False
In 1981, the new US President Ronald Reagan pursued a hard line approach to Libya, erroneously considering it a puppet regime of the Soviet Union. In turn, Gaddafi played up his commercial relationship with the Soviets, visiting Moscow again in April 1981 and 1985, and threatening to join the Warsaw Pact. The Soviets were nevertheless cautious of Gaddafi, seeing him as an unpredictable extremist. Beginning military exercises in the Gulf of Sirte – an area of sea that Libya claimed as a part of its territorial waters – in August 1981 the U.S. shot down two Libyan Su-22 planes monitoring them. Closing down Libya's embassy in Washington, D.C., Reagan advised U.S. companies operating in the country to reduce the number of American personnel stationed there. In March 1982, the U.S. implemented an embargo of Libyan oil, and in January 1986 ordered all U.S. companies to cease operating in the country, although several hundred workers remained. Diplomatic relations also broke down with the U.K., after Libyan diplomats were accused in the shooting death of Yvonne Fletcher, a British policewoman stationed outside their London embassy, in April 1984. In Spring 1986, the U.S. Navy again began performing exercises in the Gulf of Sirte; the Libyan military retaliated, but failed as the U.S. sank several Libyan ships.
About how many Libyans died in Operation El Dorado Canyon?
57318515a5e9cc1400cdc015
100
700
False
What terrorist attack did the United States claim Libya supported?
57318515a5e9cc1400cdc016
1986 Berlin discotheque bombing
50
False
How many Americans died in the Berlin disco bombing of 1986?
57318515a5e9cc1400cdc017
two
92
False
What country did the CIA believe Reagan should attack instead of Libya?
57318515a5e9cc1400cdc018
Syria
234
False
What was the name of Gaddafi's daughter who may not have existed?
57318515a5e9cc1400cdc019
Hanna
895
False
After the U.S. accused Libya of orchestrating the 1986 Berlin discotheque bombing, in which two American soldiers died, Reagan decided to retaliate militarily. The Central Intelligence Agency were critical of the move, believing that Syria were a greater threat and that an attack would strengthen Gaddafi's reputation; however Libya was recognised as a "soft target." Reagan was supported by the U.K. but opposed by other European allies, who argued that it would contravene international law. In Operation El Dorado Canyon, orchestrated on 15 April 1986, U.S. military planes launched a series of air-strikes on Libya, bombing military installations in various parts of the country, killing around 100 Libyans, including several civilians. One of the targets had been Gaddafi's home. Himself unharmed, two of Gaddafi's sons were injured, and he claimed that his four-year-old adopted daughter Hanna was killed, although her existence has since been questioned.  In the immediate aftermath, Gaddafi retreated to the desert to meditate, while there were sporadic clashes between Gaddafists and army officers who wanted to overthrow the government. Although the U.S. was condemned internationally, Reagan received a popularity boost at home. Publicly lambasting U.S. imperialism, Gaddafi's reputation as an anti-imperialist was strengthened both domestically and across the Arab world, and in June 1986, he ordered the names of the month to be changed in Libya.
In what year did the "Revolution within a Revolution" begin?
57318587e6313a140071d016
1987
132
False
In what year was the Ministry for Mass Mobilization and Revolutionary Leadership created?
57318587e6313a140071d017
1988
387
False
How many articles were contained in the Great Green Charter on Human Rights in the Era of the Masses?
57318587e6313a140071d018
27
963
False
Who won the Al-Gaddafi International Prize for Human Rights in 1989?
57318587e6313a140071d019
Nelson Mandela
1524
False
What was Mandela's nationality?
57318587e6313a140071d01a
South African
1486
False
The late 1980s saw a series of liberalising economic reforms within Libya designed to cope with the decline in oil revenues. In May 1987, Gaddafi announced the start of the "Revolution within a Revolution", which began with reforms to industry and agriculture and saw the re-opening of small business. Restrictions were placed on the activities of the Revolutionary Committees; in March 1988, their role was narrowed by the newly created Ministry for Mass Mobilization and Revolutionary Leadership to restrict their violence and judicial role, while in August 1988 Gaddafi publicly criticised them, asserting that "they deviated, harmed, tortured" and that "the true revolutionary does not practise repression." In March, hundreds of political prisoners were freed, with Gaddafi falsely claiming that there were no further political prisoners in Libya. In June, Libya's government issued the Great Green Charter on Human Rights in the Era of the Masses, in which 27 articles laid out goals, rights and guarantees to improve the situation of human rights in Libya, restricting the use of the death penalty and calling for its eventual abolition. Many of the measures suggested in the charter would be implemented the following year, although others remained inactive. Also in 1989, the government founded the Al-Gaddafi International Prize for Human Rights, to be awarded to figures from the Third World who had struggled against colonialism and imperialism; the first year's winner was South African anti-apartheid activist Nelson Mandela. From 1994 through to 1997, the government initiated cleansing committees to root out corruption, particularly in the economic sector.
What bodies were intended to be replaced by the popular militia created in 1988?
5731860d05b4da19006bd22c
army and police
174
False
What chemical weapon did Libya start making in 1987?
5731860d05b4da19006bd22d
mustard gas
226
False
Where did Libya manufacture mustard gas?
5731860d05b4da19006bd22e
Rabta
255
False
Where did an abortive coup occur in 1993?
5731860d05b4da19006bd22f
Misrata
803
False
Where did a Muslim insurgency take place in 1995?
5731860d05b4da19006bd230
Benghazi
873
False
In the aftermath of the 1986 U.S. attack, the army was purged of perceived disloyal elements, and in 1988, Gaddafi announced the creation of a popular militia to replace the army and police. In 1987, Libya began production of mustard gas at a facility in Rabta, although publicly denying it was stockpiling chemical weapons, and unsuccessfully attempted to develop nuclear weapons. The period also saw a growth in domestic Islamist opposition, formulated into groups like the Muslim Brotherhood and the Libyan Islamic Fighting Group. A number of assassination attempts against Gaddafi were foiled, and in turn, 1989 saw the security forces raid mosques believed to be centres of counter-revolutionary preaching. In October 1993, elements of the increasingly marginalised army initiated a failed coup in Misrata, while in September 1995, Islamists launched an insurgency in Benghazi, and in July 1996 an anti-Gaddafist football riot broke out in Tripoli. The Revolutionary Committees experienced a resurgence to combat these Islamists.
Along with Libya, Morocco, Tunisia and Algeria, who was a founding member of the Arab Maghreb Union?
5731869a497a881900248fab
Mauritania
115
False
How many people not on Pan Am Flight 103 were killed by its destruction?
5731869a497a881900248fac
11
424
False
Along with Lamin Khalifah Fhimah, who was suspected of the attack on Pan Am Flight 103?
5731869a497a881900248fad
Abdelbaset al-Megrahi
504
False
What 1992 UN Resolution imposed sanctions on Libya for its refusal to hand over the Pan Am Flight 103 bombing suspects?
5731869a497a881900248fae
748
753
False
What was the value of the economic losses experienced by Libya as a result of Resolution 748?
5731869a497a881900248faf
$900 million
906
False
In 1989, Gaddafi was overjoyed by the foundation of the Arab Maghreb Union, uniting Libya in an economic pact with Mauritania, Morocco, Tunisia and Algeria, viewing it as beginnings of a new Pan-Arab union. Meanwhile, Libya stepped up its support for anti-western militants such as the Provisional IRA, and in 1988, Pan Am Flight 103 was blown up over Lockerbie in Scotland, killing 243 passengers and 16 crew members, plus 11 people on the ground. British police investigations identified two Libyans – Abdelbaset al-Megrahi and Lamin Khalifah Fhimah – as the chief suspects, and in November 1991 issued a declaration demanding that Libya hand them over. When Gaddafi refused, citing the Montreal Convention, the United Nations (UN) imposed Resolution 748 in March 1992, initiating economic sanctions against Libya which had deep repercussions for the country's economy. The country suffered an estimated $900 million financial loss as a result. Further problems arose with the west when in January 1989, two Libyan warplanes were shot down by the U.S. off the Libyan coast. Many African states opposed the UN sanctions, with Mandela criticising them on a visit to Gaddafi in October 1997, when he praised Libya for its work in fighting apartheid and awarded Gaddafi the Order of Good Hope. They would only be suspended in 1998 when Libya agreed to allow the extradition of the suspects to the Scottish Court in the Netherlands, in a process overseen by Mandela.
What organization did Libya join in 1999?
5731870e497a881900248fb5
Community of Sahel-Saharan States
345
False
Where did the OAU summit in July 1999 occur?
5731870e497a881900248fb6
Algiers
486
False
What organization was founded in July of 2002?
5731870e497a881900248fb7
African Union
668
False
What is COMESA?
5731870e497a881900248fb8
Common Market for Eastern and Southern Africa
1195
False
Who was the president of South Africa circa 2002?
5731870e497a881900248fb9
Thabo Mbeki
908
False
As the 20th century came to a close, Gaddafi increasingly rejected Arab nationalism, frustrated by the failure of his Pan-Arab ideals; instead he turned to Pan-Africanism, emphasising Libya's African identity. From 1997 to 2000, Libya initiated cooperative agreements or bilateral aid arrangements with 10 African states, and in 1999 joined the Community of Sahel-Saharan States. In June 1999, Gaddafi visited Mandela in South Africa, and the following month attended the OAU summit in Algiers, calling for greater political and economic integration across the continent and advocating the foundation of a United States of Africa. He became one of the founders of the African Union (AU), initiated in July 2002 to replace the OAU; at the opening ceremonies, he proclaimed that African states should reject conditional aid from the developed world, a direct contrast to the message of South African President Thabo Mbeki. At the third AU summit, held in Libya in July 2005, he called for a greater level of integration, advocating a single AU passport, a common defence system and a single currency, utilising the slogan: "The United States of Africa is the hope." In June 2005, Libya joined the Common Market for Eastern and Southern Africa (COMESA), and in August 2008 Gaddafi was proclaimed "King of Kings" by an assembled committee of traditional African leaders. On 1 February 2009, his "coronation ceremony" was held in Addis Ababa, Ethiopia, coinciding with Gaddafi's election as AU chairman for a year.
What world leader notably visited Libya in 2002?
5731878b497a881900248fbf
Jiang Zemin
565
False
What conflict prompted Libya to end its nuclear weapons program?
5731878b497a881900248fc0
Iraq War
624
False
What world leader visited Gaddafi in 2004?
5731878b497a881900248fc1
Tony Blair
844
False
In what city is the EU headquarters located?
5731878b497a881900248fc2
Brussels
997
False
How much money did Libya receive to stem the flow of African migrants into Europe?
5731878b497a881900248fc3
€50 million
1152
False
The era saw Libya's return to the international arena. In 1999, Libya began secret talks with the British government to normalise relations. In 2001, Gaddafi condemned the September 11 attacks on the U.S. by al-Qaeda, expressing sympathy with the victims and calling for Libyan involvement in the War on Terror against militant Islamism. His government continued suppressing domestic Islamism, at the same time as Gaddafi called for the wider application of sharia law. Libya also cemented connections with China and North Korea, being visited by Chinese President Jiang Zemin in April 2002. Influenced by the events of the Iraq War, in December 2003, Libya renounced its possession of weapons of mass destruction, decommissioning its chemical and nuclear weapons programs. Relations with the U.S. improved as a result, while UK Prime Minister Tony Blair met with Gaddafi in the Libyan desert in March 2004. The following month, Gaddafi travelled to the headquarters of the European Union (EU) in Brussels, signifying improved relations between Libya and the EU, the latter ending its remaining sanctions in October. In October 2010, the EU paid Libya €50 million to stop African migrants passing into Europe; Gaddafi encouraged the move, saying that it was necessary to prevent the loss of European cultural identity to a new "Black Europe". Removed from the U.S. list of state sponsors of terrorism in 2006, Gaddafi nevertheless continued his anti-western rhetoric, and at the Second Africa-South America Summit in Venezuela in September 2009, joined Venezuelan President Hugo Chávez in calling for an "anti-imperialist" front across Africa and Latin America. Gaddafi proposed the establishment of a South Atlantic Treaty Organization to rival NATO. That month he also addressed the United Nations General Assembly in New York for the first time, using it to condemn "western aggression". In Spring 2010, Gaddafi proclaimed jihad against Switzerland after Swiss police accused two of his family members of criminal activity in the country, resulting in the breakdown of bilateral relations.
In what month and year did Gaddafi make a speech promoting economic privatization?
57318873497a881900248fd3
March 2003
318
False
How much direct foreign investment existed in Libya circa 2004?
57318873497a881900248fd4
$40 billion
428
False
By what factor did direct foreign investment in Libya increase between 2003 and 2004?
57318873497a881900248fd5
sixfold
481
False
According to the plan of 2010, what fraction of Libya's economy was intended to be privatized?
57318873497a881900248fd6
half
793
False
As of October 2009, who was the head of the PSLC?
57318873497a881900248fd7
Saif al-Islam Gaddafi
1173
False
Libya's economy witnessed increasing privatization; although rejecting the socialist policies of nationalized industry advocated in The Green Book, government figures asserted that they were forging "people's socialism" rather than capitalism. Gaddafi welcomed these reforms, calling for wide-scale privatization in a March 2003 speech. In 2003, the oil industry was largely sold to private corporations, and by 2004, there was $40 billion of direct foreign investment in Libya, a sixfold rise over 2003. Sectors of Libya's population reacted against these reforms with public demonstrations, and in March 2006, revolutionary hard-liners took control of the GPC cabinet; although scaling back the pace of the changes, they did not halt them. In 2010, plans were announced that would have seen half the Libyan economy privatized over the following decade. While there was no accompanying political liberalization, with Gaddafi retaining predominant control, in March 2010, the government devolved further powers to the municipal councils. Rising numbers of reformist technocrats attained positions in the country's governance; best known was Gaddafi's son and heir apparent Saif al-Islam Gaddafi, who was openly critical of Libya's human rights record. He led a group who proposed the drafting of the new constitution, although it was never adopted, and in October 2009 was appointed to head the PSLC. Involved in encouraging tourism, Saif founded several privately run media channels in 2008, but after criticising the government they were nationalised in 2009. In October 2010, Gaddafi apologized to African leaders on behalf of Arab nations for their involvement in the African slave trade.
In what year did the so-called Arab Spring occur?
5731890be6313a140071d050
2011
42
False
Who was the president of Tunisia in 2011?
5731890be6313a140071d051
Zine El Abidine Ben Ali
98
False
About what percentage of the Libyan population was unemployed in 2011?
5731890be6313a140071d052
30
810
False
On what date in 2011 did protests begin in Libya?
5731890be6313a140071d053
17 February
498
False
Along with corruption, what were Libyans upset with in 2011?
5731890be6313a140071d054
patronage
761
False
Following the start of the Arab Spring in 2011, Gaddafi spoke out in favour of Tunisian President Zine El Abidine Ben Ali, then threatened by the Tunisian Revolution. He suggested that Tunisia's people would be satisfied if Ben Ali introduced a Jamahiriyah system there. Fearing domestic protest, Libya's government implemented preventative measures, reducing food prices, purging the army leadership of potential defectors and releasing several Islamist prisoners. They proved ineffective, and on 17 February 2011, major protests broke out against Gaddafi's government. Unlike Tunisia or Egypt, Libya was largely religiously homogenous and had no strong Islamist movement, but there was widespread dissatisfaction with the corruption and entrenched systems of patronage, while unemployment had reached around 30%.
Who did Gaddafi accuse the Libyan rebels of being linked to?
5731899305b4da19006bd24a
al-Qaeda
53
False
How many protesters were killed in Benghazi?
5731899305b4da19006bd24b
hundreds
302
False
What rebel organization was founded in Benghazi?
5731899305b4da19006bd24c
National Transitional Council
641
False
Cities in what geographic part of Libya were controlled by rebels?
5731899305b4da19006bd24d
eastern
499
False
Along with Benghazi and Misrata, what cities did the rebels control in February?
5731899305b4da19006bd24e
al-Bayda and Tobruk
571
False
Accusing the rebels of being "drugged" and linked to al-Qaeda, Gaddafi proclaimed that he would die a martyr rather than leave Libya. As he announced that the rebels would be "hunted down street by street, house by house and wardrobe by wardrobe", the army opened fire on protests in Benghazi, killing hundreds. Shocked at the government's response, a number of senior politicians resigned or defected to the protesters' side. The uprising spread quickly through Libya's less economically developed eastern half. By February's end, eastern cities like Benghazi, Misrata, al-Bayda and Tobruk were controlled by rebels, and the Benghazi-based National Transitional Council (NTC) had been founded to represent them.
As a result of Resolution 1970, what body was Libya suspended from?
57318a0ae6313a140071d06c
UN Human Rights Council
378
False
In what month did the UN Security Council set up a no fly zone?
57318a0ae6313a140071d06d
March
536
False
How many troops did Qatar send to Libya?
57318a0ae6313a140071d06e
hundreds
767
False
Along with Qatar and France, what nation helped to train the NTC?
57318a0ae6313a140071d06f
United Arab Emirates
843
False
In the conflict's early months it appeared that Gaddafi's government – with its greater firepower – would be victorious. Both sides disregarded the laws of war, committing human rights abuses, including arbitrary arrests, torture, extrajudicial executions and revenge attacks. On 26 February the United Nations Security Council passed Resolution 1970, suspending Libya from the UN Human Rights Council, implementing sanctions and calling for an International Criminal Court (ICC) investigation into the killing of unarmed civilians. In March, the Security Council declared a no fly zone to protect the civilian population from aerial bombardment, calling on foreign nations to enforce it; it also specifically prohibited foreign occupation. Ignoring this, Qatar sent hundreds of troops to support the dissidents, and along with France and the United Arab Emirates provided the NTC with weaponry and training.
On what date did NATO kill Gaddafi's son?
57318a6305b4da19006bd264
30 April
97
False
What organization killed Gaddafi's grandsons?
57318a6305b4da19006bd265
NATO
108
False
At the time of these events, what was Robert Gates' title?
57318a6305b4da19006bd266
Secretary of Defense
370
False
What city did NATO bomb on 25 April?
57318a6305b4da19006bd267
Tripoli
570
False
A week after the implementation of the no-fly zone, NATO announced that it would be enforced. On 30 April a NATO airstrike killed Gaddafi's sixth son and three of his grandsons in Tripoli, though Gaddafi and his wife were unharmed. Western officials remained divided over whether Gaddafi was a legitimate military target under the U.N. Security Council resolution. U.S. Secretary of Defense Robert Gates said that NATO was "not targeting Gaddafi specifically" but that his command-and-control facilities were legitimate targets—including a facility inside his sprawling Tripoli compound that was hit with airstrikes on 25 April.
What position was held by Gaddafi's brother-in-law?
57318ae9e6313a140071d07e
head of state security
120
False
About how many governments recognized the legitimacy of the NTC at a meeting on July 15, 2011?
57318ae9e6313a140071d07f
30
787
False
Where did the July 15, 2011 meeting take place?
57318ae9e6313a140071d080
Istanbul
772
False
Which child of Gaddafi did the ICC issue an arrest warrant for on June 27?
57318ae9e6313a140071d081
Saif al-Islam
64
False
Who is Gaddafi's brother-in-law?
57318ae9e6313a140071d082
Abdullah Senussi
102
False
On 27 June, the ICC issued arrest warrants for Gaddafi, his son Saif al-Islam, and his brother-in-law Abdullah Senussi, head of state security, for charges concerning crimes against humanity. Libyan officials rejected the ICC, claiming that it had "no legitimacy whatsoever" and highlighting that "all of its activities are directed at African leaders". That month, Amnesty International published their findings, in which they asserted that many of the accusations of mass human rights abuses made against Gaddafist forces lacked credible evidence, and were instead fabrications of the rebel forces which had been readily adopted by the western media. Amnesty International did however still accuse Gaddafi forces of numerous war crimes. On 15 July 2011, at a meeting in Istanbul, over 30 governments recognised the NTC as the legitimate government of Libya. Gaddafi responded to the announcement with a speech on Libyan national television, in which he called on supporters to "Trample on those recognitions, trample on them under your feet ... They are worthless".
What is another term for the Amazigh?
57318b57e6313a140071d088
Berber
192
False
What language did the Berbers living in the Nafusa Mountains not speak?
57318b57e6313a140071d089
Arabic
273
False
On what date did the NTC government enter the Arab League?
57318b57e6313a140071d08a
25 August
484
False
What were the last two cities to be controlled by Gaddafi's government?
57318b57e6313a140071d08b
Zliten and Tripoli
416
False
What organization provided air support to the Libyan rebels?
57318b57e6313a140071d08c
NATO
9
False
Now with NATO support in the form of air cover, the rebel militia pushed westward, defeating loyalist armies and securing control of the centre of the country. Gaining the support of Amazigh (Berber) communities of the Nafusa Mountains, who had long been persecuted as non-Arabic speakers under Gaddafi, the NTC armies surrounded Gaddafi loyalists in several key areas of western Libya. In August, the rebels seized Zliten and Tripoli, ending the last vestiges of Gaddafist power. On 25 August, the Arab League recognised the NTC to be "the legitimate representative of the Libyan state", on which basis Libya would resume its membership in the League.
In what geographic part of Libya is Bani Walid located?
57318bd9497a881900248ffb
western
20
False
After Tripoli was conquered, where did Gaddafi go?
57318bd9497a881900248ffc
Sirte
116
False
Leaving Sirte, what valley did Gaddafi hope to travel to?
57318bd9497a881900248ffd
Jarref
536
False
About how many people were killed in the October 20 bombing of Gaddafi's convoy?
57318bd9497a881900248ffe
53
645
False
After fleeing to a construction site, how was Gaddafi injured?
57318bd9497a881900248fff
grenade blast
964
False
Only a few towns in western Libya—such as Bani Walid, Sebha and Sirte—remained Gaddafist strongholds. Retreating to Sirte after Tripoli's fall, Gaddafi announced his willingness to negotiate for a handover to a transitional government, a suggestion rejected by the NTC. Surrounding himself with bodyguards, he continually moved residences to escape NTC shelling, devoting his days to prayer and reading the Qur'an. On 20 October, Gaddafi broke out of Sirte's District 2 in a joint civilian-military convoy, hoping to take refuge in the Jarref Valley. At around 8.30am, NATO bombers attacked, destroying at least 14 vehicles and killing at least 53. The convoy scattered, and Gaddafi and those closest to him fled to a nearby villa, which was shelled by rebel militia from Misrata. Fleeing to a construction site, Gaddafi and his inner cohort hid inside drainage pipes while his bodyguards battled the rebels; in the conflict, Gaddafi suffered head injuries from a grenade blast while defence minister Abu-Bakr Yunis Jabr was killed.
Who claimed to have murdered Gaddafi?
57318c5c497a88190024900f
Senad el-Sadik el-Ureybi
674
False
What son of Gaddafi, present in the convoy, was found dead shortly after being captured?
57318c5c497a881900249010
Mutassim
743
False
Where did an ambulance take Gaddafi after he was murdered?
57318c5c497a881900249011
Misrata
404
False
How many bodies of Gaddafi supporters were found at the Mahari Hotel?
57318c5c497a881900249012
66
988
False
Who was the chief forensic pathologist of Libya?
57318c5c497a881900249013
Dr. Othman al-Zintani
1102
False
A Misratan militia took Gaddafi prisoner, beating him, causing serious injuries; the events were filmed on a mobile phone. A video appears to picture Gaddafi being poked or stabbed in the rear end "with some kind of stick or knife" or possibly a bayonet. Pulled onto the front of a pick-up truck, he fell off as it drove away. His semi-naked, lifeless body was then placed into an ambulance and taken to Misrata; upon arrival, he was found to be dead. Official NTC accounts claimed that Gaddafi was caught in a cross-fire and died from his bullet wounds. Other eye-witness accounts claimed that rebels had fatally shot Gaddafi in the stomach; a rebel identifying himself as Senad el-Sadik el-Ureybi later claimed responsibility. Gaddafi's son Mutassim, who had also been among the convoy, was also captured, and found dead several hours later, most probably from an extrajudicial execution. Around 140 Gaddafi loyalists were rounded up from the convoy; tied up and abused, the corpses of 66 were found at the nearby Mahari Hotel, victims of extrajudicial execution. Libya's chief forensic pathologist, Dr. Othman al-Zintani, carried out the autopsies of Gaddafi, his son and Jabr in the days following their deaths; although the pathologist initially told the press that Gaddafi had died from a gunshot wound to the head, the autopsy report was not made public.
Who was the prime minister of the NTC?
57318cb8a5e9cc1400cdc045
Mahmoud Jibril
56
False
For how many days was Gaddafi's corpse displayed in public?
57318cb8a5e9cc1400cdc046
four
249
False
Who was killed by Gaddafi supporters for his role in Gaddafi's capture?
57318cb8a5e9cc1400cdc047
Omran Shaaban
713
False
Near what town was Oran Shaaban killed?
57318cb8a5e9cc1400cdc048
Bani Walid
733
False
On what date did the NTC announce Gaddafi's burial?
57318cb8a5e9cc1400cdc049
25 October
443
False
On the afternoon of Gaddafi's death, NTC Prime Minister Mahmoud Jibril publicly revealed the news. Gaddafi's corpse was placed in the freezer of a local market alongside the corpses of Yunis Jabr and Mutassim; the bodies were publicly displayed for four days, with Libyans from all over the country coming to view them. In response to international calls, on 24 October Jibril announced that a commission would investigate Gaddafi's death. On 25 October, the NTC announced that Gaddafi had been buried at an unidentified location in the desert; Al Aan TV showed amateur video footage of the funeral. Seeking vengeance for the killing, Gaddafist sympathisers fatally wounded one of those who had captured Gaddafi, Omran Shaaban, near Bani Walid in September 2012.
What philosophy was named for Gamal Abdel Nasser?
57318dff05b4da19006bd29a
Nasserism
115
False
What did Gaddafi call his political philosophy created in the 1970s?
57318dff05b4da19006bd29b
Third International Theory
347
False
What philosophy was combined with socialism and nationalism to form Third International Theory?
57318dff05b4da19006bd29c
Third World revolutionary theory
466
False
The Green Book consisted of how many volumes?
57318dff05b4da19006bd29d
three
580
False
What is the occupation of Sami Hajjar?
57318dff05b4da19006bd29e
political scientist
1010
False
As a schoolboy, Gaddafi adopted the ideologies of Arab nationalism and Arab socialism, influenced in particular by Nasserism, the thought of Egyptian revolutionary and president Gamal Abdel Nasser, whom Gaddafi adopted as his hero. During the early 1970s, Gaddafi formulated his own particular approach to Arab nationalism and socialism, known as Third International Theory, which has been described as a combination of "utopian socialism, Arab nationalism, and the Third World revolutionary theory that was in vogue at the time". He laid out the principles of this Theory in the three volumes of The Green Book, in which he sought to "explain the structure of the ideal society." His Arab nationalist views led him to believe that there needed to be unity across the Arab world, combining the Arab nation under a single nation-state. He described his approach to economics as "Islamic socialism", although biographers Blundy and Lycett noted that Gaddafi's socialism had a "curiously Marxist undertone", with political scientist Sami Hajjar arguing that Gaddafi's model of socialism offered a simplification of Karl Marx and Friedrich Engels' theories. Gaddafi saw his socialist Jamahiriyah as a model for the Arab, Islamic, and non-aligned worlds to follow.
What variety of Islam was Gaddafi raised in?
57318ea405b4da19006bd2a4
Sunni
359
False
In what country is Kampala Mosque located?
57318ea405b4da19006bd2a5
Uganda
756
False
In what ethnic culture was Gaddafi raised?
57318ea405b4da19006bd2a6
Bedouin
94
False
In what year did Gaddafi notably visit Italy?
57318ea405b4da19006bd2a7
2010
547
False
Gaddafi's ideological worldview was moulded by his environment, namely his Islamic faith, his Bedouin upbringing, and his disgust at the actions of European colonialists in Libya. He was driven by a sense of "divine mission", believing himself a conduit of Allah's will, and thought that he must achieve his goals "no matter what the cost". Raised within the Sunni branch of Islam, Gaddafi called for the implementation of sharia within Libya. He desired unity across the Islamic world, and encouraged the propagation of the faith elsewhere. On a 2010 visit to Italy, he paid a modelling agency to find 200 young Italian women for a lecture he gave urging them to convert. He also funded the construction and renovation of two mosques in Africa, including Uganda's Kampala Mosque. He nevertheless clashed with conservative Libyan clerics as to his interpretation of Islam. Many criticised his attempts to encourage women to enter traditionally male-only sectors of society, such as the armed forces. Gaddafi was keen to improve women's status, though saw the sexes as "separate but equal" and therefore felt women should usually remain in traditional roles.
What country did Gaddafi refer to as "the embodiment of evil"?
57318f36e6313a140071d092
United States
273
False
How did Gaddafi believe the Israel-Palestine conflict should be resolved?
57318f36e6313a140071d093
Isratin single-state solution
600
False
Who compared Gaddafi to Hitler?
57318f36e6313a140071d094
Blundy and Lycett
486
False
What was a major factor in Gaddafi's hatred of the United States?
57318f36e6313a140071d095
support of Israel
233
False
A fundamental part of Gaddafi's ideology was anti-Zionism. He believed that the state of Israel should not exist, and that any Arab compromise with the Israeli government was a betrayal of the Arab people. In large part due to their support of Israel, Gaddafi despised the United States, considering the country to be imperialist and lambasting it as "the embodiment of evil." Rallying against Jews in many of his speeches, his anti-Semitism has been described as "almost Hitlerian" by Blundy and Lycett. From the late 1990s onward, his view seemed to become more moderate. In 2007, he advocated the Isratin single-state solution to the Israeli–Palestinian conflict, stating that "the [Israel-Palestine] solution is to establish a democratic state for the Jews and the Palestinians... This is the fundamental solution, or else the Jews will be annihilated in the future, because the Palestinians have [strategic] depth." Two years later he argued that a single-state solution would "move beyond old conflicts and look to a unified future based on shared culture and respect."
Whose efforts did Gaddafi see himself as continuing?
57318f8ae6313a140071d09a
Nasser
141
False
What was Gaddafi's religious affiliation?
57318f8ae6313a140071d09b
Muslim
100
False
Who stated that Gaddafi was fond of children?
57318f8ae6313a140071d09c
Mirella Bianco
165
False
What is Mirella Biano's occupation?
57318f8ae6313a140071d09d
Reporter
156
False
Who remarked on Gaddafi's family orientation?
57318f8ae6313a140071d09e
His father
428
False
Gaddafi was a very private individual, who described himself as a "simple revolutionary" and "pious Muslim" called upon by Allah to continue Nasser's work. Reporter Mirella Bianco found that his friends considered him particularly loyal and generous, and asserted that he adored children. She was told by Gaddafi's father that even as a child he had been "always serious, even taciturn", a trait he also exhibited in adulthood. His father said that he was courageous, intelligent, pious, and family oriented.
What publication did Annick Cojean work for?
57318ff105b4da19006bd2c0
Le Monde
215
False
What is the nationality of Seham Sergewa?
57318ff105b4da19006bd2c1
Libyan
397
False
What ICC prosector claimed that Gaddafi had ordered soldiers to rape opposition women?
57318ff105b4da19006bd2c2
Luis Moreno Ocampo
557
False
What book was written by Annick Cojean?
57318ff105b4da19006bd2c3
Gaddafi's Harem
244
False
In the 1970s and 1980s there were reports of his making sexual advances toward female reporters and members of his entourage. After the civil war, more serious charges came to light. Annick Cojean, a journalist for Le Monde, wrote in her book, Gaddafi's Harem that Gaddafi had raped, tortured, performed urolagnia, and imprisoned hundreds or thousands of women, usually very young. Another source—Libyan psychologist Seham Sergewa—reported that several of his female bodyguards claim to have been raped by Gaddafi and senior officials. After the civil war, Luis Moreno Ocampo, prosecutor for the International Criminal Court, said there was evidence that Gaddafi told soldiers to rape women who had spoken out against his regime. In 2011 Amnesty International questioned this and other claims used to justify NATO's war in Libya.
How far is the Bab al-Azizia barracks from Tripoli?
57319054a5e9cc1400cdc09d
two miles
124
False
Who designed Gaddafi's Azizia home?
57319054a5e9cc1400cdc09e
West German engineers
217
False
How many tennis courts existed in Gaddafi's compound?
57319054a5e9cc1400cdc09f
two
336
False
What was the value of Gaddafi's supposed British property holdings as of November 2011?
57319054a5e9cc1400cdc0a0
£1 billion
708
False
How much did Gaddafi pay for his Airbus A340?
57319054a5e9cc1400cdc0a1
$120 million
867
False
Following his ascension to power, Gaddafi moved into the Bab al-Azizia barracks, a six-mile long fortified compound located two miles from the center of Tripoli. His home and office at Azizia was a bunker designed by West German engineers, while the rest of his family lived in a large two-story building. Within the compound were also two tennis courts, a soccer field, several gardens, camels, and a Bedouin tent in which he entertained guests. In the 1980s, his lifestyle was considered modest in comparison to those of many other Arab leaders. Gaddafi allegedly worked for years with Swiss banks to launder international banking transactions. In November 2011, The Sunday Times identified property worth £1 billion in the UK that Gaddafi allegedly owned. Gaddafi had an Airbus A340 private jet, which he bought from Prince Al-Waleed bin Talal of Saudi Arabia for $120 million in 2003. Operated by Tripoli-based Afriqiyah Airways and decorated externally in their colours, it had various luxuries including a jacuzzi.
Who was Gaddafi's first father-in-law?
573190a3a5e9cc1400cdc0a7
General Khalid
81
False
When was Gaddafi's son by Fatiha al-Nuri born?
573190a3a5e9cc1400cdc0a8
1970
232
False
What was the maiden surname of Gaddafi's second wife?
573190a3a5e9cc1400cdc0a9
el-Brasai
344
False
What tribe did Safia Farkash belong to?
573190a3a5e9cc1400cdc0aa
Obeidat
375
False
When did Khamis Gaddafi die?
573190a3a5e9cc1400cdc0ab
2011
846
False
Gaddafi married his first wife, Fatiha al-Nuri, in 1969. She was the daughter of General Khalid, a senior figure in King Idris' administration, and was from a middle-class background. Although they had one son, Muhammad Gaddafi (b. 1970), their relationship was strained, and they divorced in 1970. Gaddafi's second wife was Safia Farkash, née el-Brasai, a former nurse from Obeidat tribe born in Bayda. They met in 1969, following his ascension to power, when he was hospitalized with appendicitis; he claimed that it was love at first sight. The couple remained married until his death. Together they had seven biological children: Saif al-Islam Gaddafi (b. 1972), Al-Saadi Gaddafi (b. 1973), Mutassim Gaddafi (1974–2011), Hannibal Muammar Gaddafi (b. 1975), Ayesha Gaddafi (b. 1976), Saif al-Arab Gaddafi (1982–2011), and Khamis Gaddafi (1983–2011). He also adopted two children, Hanna Gaddafi and Milad Gaddafi.
Who referred to Gaddafi as a populist?
573190e9a5e9cc1400cdc0b1
Blundy and Lycett
12
False
Who stated that Gaddafi was a gifted speaker?
573190e9a5e9cc1400cdc0b2
Bianco
388
False
Who noted that Gaddafi made long speeches?
573190e9a5e9cc1400cdc0b3
Daniel Kawczynski
509
False
Biographers Blundy and Lycett believed that he was "a populist at heart." Throughout Libya, crowds of supporters would turn up to public events at which he appeared; described as "spontaneous demonstrations" by the government, there are recorded instances of groups being coerced or paid to attend. He was typically late to public events, and would sometimes not show up at all. Although Bianco thought he had a "gift for oratory", he was considered a poor orator by biographers Blundy and Lycett. Biographer Daniel Kawczynski noted that Gaddafi was famed for his "lengthy, wandering" speeches, which typically involved criticising Israel and the U.S.
What sort of virus did Gaddafi describe HIV as?
5731914c497a881900249049
peaceful
185
False
Who did Gaddafi claim created H1N1?
5731914c497a88190024904a
a foreign military
415
False
According to Gaddafi, what insects made up God's armies?
5731914c497a88190024904b
tsetse fly and mosquito
468
False
What illnesses did Gaddafi claim would afflict invading colonialists?
5731914c497a88190024904c
malaria and sleeping sickness
610
False
Gaddafi was notably confrontational in his approach to foreign powers, and generally shunned western ambassadors and diplomats, believing them to be spies. He once said that HIV was "a peaceful virus, not an aggressive virus" and assured attendees at the African Union that "if you are straight you have nothing to fear from AIDS". He also said that the H1N1 influenza virus was a biological weapon manufactured by a foreign military, and he assured Africans that the tsetse fly and mosquito were "God's armies which will protect us against colonialists". Should these 'enemies' come to Africa, "they will get malaria and sleeping sickness".
What was the name of Gaddafi's female bodyguard?
573191a8a5e9cc1400cdc0cb
Amazonian Guard
56
False
In what decade was Gaddafi first accompanied by his female bodyguard?
573191a8a5e9cc1400cdc0cc
1980s
16
False
What is Halyna Kolotnytska's nationality?
573191a8a5e9cc1400cdc0cd
Ukrainian
418
False
What is the profession of Halyna Kolotnytska?
573191a8a5e9cc1400cdc0ce
nurse
428
False
What sort of relationship did Gaddafi have with Halyna Kolotnytska?
573191a8a5e9cc1400cdc0cf
professional
538
False
Starting in the 1980s, he travelled with his all-female Amazonian Guard, who were allegedly sworn to a life of celibacy. However, according to psychologist Seham Sergewa, after the civil war several of the guards told her they had been pressured into joining and raped by Gaddafi and senior officials. He hired several Ukrainian nurses to care for him and his family's health, and traveled everywhere with his trusted Ukrainian nurse Halyna Kolotnytska. Kolotnytska's daughter denied the suggestion that the relationship was anything but professional.
What diseases were minimized by Gaddafi's health care policies?
57319266497a881900249051
cholera and typhoid
675
False
What was the cost of primary and secondary education under Gaddafi?
57319266497a881900249052
free
396
False
Why did living standards decline in 1980s Libya?
57319266497a881900249053
economic stagnation
1239
False
Due to his opposition to West governments, who notably respected Gaddafi?
57319266497a881900249054
Euro-American far right
1515
False
What is the occupation of Lillian Craig Harris?
57319266497a881900249055
Libyan studies specialist
952
False
Gaddafi remained a controversial and divisive figure on the world stage throughout his life and after death. Supporters praised Gaddafi's administration for the creation of an almost classless society through domestic reform. They stress the regime's achievements in combating homelessness and ensuring access to food and safe drinking water. Highlighting that under Gaddafi, all Libyans enjoyed free education to a university level, they point to the dramatic rise in literacy rates after the 1969 revolution. Supporters have also applauded achievements in medical care, praising the universal free healthcare provided under the Gaddafist administration, with diseases like cholera and typhoid being contained and life expectancy raised. Biographers Blundy and Lycett believed that under the first decade of Gaddafi's leadership, life for most Libyans "undoubtedly changed for the better" as material conditions and wealth drastically improved, while Libyan studies specialist Lillian Craig Harris remarked that in the early years of his administration, Libya's "national wealth and international influence soared, and its national standard of living has risen dramatically." Such high standards declined during the 1980s, as a result of economic stagnation. Gaddafi claimed that his Jamahiriya was a "concrete utopia", and that he had been appointed by "popular assent", with some Islamic supporters believing that he exhibited barakah. His opposition to Western governments earned him the respect of many in the Euro-American far right.
What did Reagan call Gaddafi?
57319323a5e9cc1400cdc0f1
mad dog of the Middle East
296
False
According to Human Rights Watch, how many prisoners were killed on June 29, 1996?
57319323a5e9cc1400cdc0f2
1,270
935
False
Under Gaddafi, how did Freedom House rate Libya?
57319323a5e9cc1400cdc0f3
Not Free
1655
False
What did Gaddafi call Libya dissidents based outside the country?
57319323a5e9cc1400cdc0f4
stray dogs
989
False
At what prison did extrajudicial executions occur according to HRW?
57319323a5e9cc1400cdc0f5
Abu Salim
843
False
Critics labelled Gaddafi "despotic, cruel, arrogant, vain and stupid", with western governments and press presenting him as the "vicious dictator of an oppressed people". During the Reagan administration, the United States regarded him as "Public Enemy No. 1" and Reagan famously dubbed him the "mad dog of the Middle East". According to critics, the Libyan people lived in a climate of fear under Gaddafi's administration, due to his government's pervasive surveillance of civilians. Gaddafi's Libya was typically described by western commentators as "a police state". Opponents were critical of Libya's human rights abuses; according to Human Rights Watch (HRW) and others, hundreds of arrested political opponents often failed to receive a fair trial, and were sometimes subjected to torture or extrajudicial execution, most notably in the Abu Salim prison, including an alleged massacre on 29 June 1996 in which HRW estimated that 1,270 prisoners were massacred. Dissidents abroad or "stray dogs" were also publicly threatened with death and sometimes killed by government hit squads. His government's treatment of non-Arab Libyans has also came in for criticism from human rights activists, with native Berbers, Italians, Jews, refugees, and foreign workers all facing persecution in Gaddafist Libya. According to journalist Annick Cojean and psychologist Seham Sergewa, Gaddafi and senior officials raped and imprisoned hundreds or thousands of young women and reportedly raped several of his female bodyguards. Gaddafi's government was frequently criticized for not being democratic, with Freedom House consistently giving Libya under Gaddafi the "Not Free" ranking for civil liberties and political rights.
Who referred to Gaddafi as a martyr?
573193a7a5e9cc1400cdc0fb
Hugo Chávez
485
False
Who noted Gaddafi's opposition to apartheid?
573193a7a5e9cc1400cdc0fc
Nelson Mandela
563
False
Who expressed pride at overthrowing Gaddafi's government?
573193a7a5e9cc1400cdc0fd
David Cameron
187
False
In what country was there a notable Muslim vigil for Gaddafi?
573193a7a5e9cc1400cdc0fe
Sierra Leone
868
False
Who said something about tyranny?
573193a7a5e9cc1400cdc0ff
Barack Obama
72
False
International reactions to Gaddafi's death were divided. U.S. President Barack Obama stated that it meant that "the shadow of tyranny over Libya has been lifted," while UK Prime Minister David Cameron stated that he was "proud" of his country's role in overthrowing "this brutal dictator". Contrastingly, former Cuban President Fidel Castro commented that in defying the rebels, Gaddafi would "enter history as one of the great figures of the Arab nations", while Venezuelan President Hugo Chávez described him as "a great fighter, a revolutionary and a martyr." Nelson Mandela expressed sadness at the news, praising Gaddafi for his anti-apartheid stance, remarking that he backed the African National Congress during "the darkest moments of our struggle". Gaddafi was mourned by many as a hero across Sub-Saharan Africa, for instance, a vigil was held by Muslims in Sierra Leone. The Daily Times of Nigeria stated that while undeniably a dictator, Gaddafi was the most benevolent in a region that only knew dictatorship, and that he was "a great man that looked out for his people and made them the envy of all of Africa." The Nigerian newspaper Leadership reported that while many Libyans and Africans would mourn Gaddafi, this would be ignored by western media and that as such it would take 50 years before historians decided whether he was "martyr or villain."
Who was elected president of the GNC?
57319432e6313a140071d0cc
Mohammed Magariaf
360
False
Who was initially named prime minister by the GNC?
57319432e6313a140071d0cd
Mustafa A.G. Abushagur
422
False
Why did Mustafa A.G. Abushagur not become prime minister?
57319432e6313a140071d0ce
failed to gain congressional approval
479
False
Who did the GNC eventually make prime minister?
57319432e6313a140071d0cf
Ali Zeidan
542
False
What official name did the GNC give to Libya?
57319432e6313a140071d0d0
State of Libya
638
False
Following his defeat in the civil war, Gaddafi's system of governance was dismantled and replaced under the interim government of the NTC, who legalised trade unions and freedom of the press. In July 2012, elections were held to form a new General National Congress (GNC), who officially took over governance from the NTC in August. The GNC proceeded to elect Mohammed Magariaf as president of the chamber, and then voted Mustafa A.G. Abushagur as Prime Minister; when Abushagar failed to gain congressional approval, the GNC instead elected Ali Zeidan to the position. In January 2013, the GNC officially renamed the Jamahiriyah as the "State of Libya".
Cyprus
What is the official name of Cypus?
572e7c43cb0c0d14000f11a6
Republic of Cyprus
99
False
Where is Cyprus located?
572e7c43cb0c0d14000f11a7
Eastern Mediterranean Sea
205
False
What countries are nearby Cyprus?
572e7c43cb0c0d14000f11a8
Syria and Turkey
250
False
What is Cyprus' affiliation with the European Union?
572e7c43cb0c0d14000f11a9
member state
358
False
Is Cyprus an island country or land-locked country?
572e7c43cb0c0d14000f11aa
island country
183
False
What does Cyprus rank in terms of size in the Mediterranean?
572eaf3fcb0c0d14000f1477
third largest
285
False
Which country is north of Cyprus?
572eaf3fcb0c0d14000f1478
Turkey
417
False
Cyprus (i/ˈsaɪprəs/; Greek: Κύπρος IPA: [ˈcipros]; Turkish: Kıbrıs IPA: [ˈkɯbɾɯs]), officially the Republic of Cyprus (Greek: Κυπριακή Δημοκρατία; Turkish: Kıbrıs Cumhuriyeti), is an island country in the Eastern Mediterranean Sea, off the coasts of Syria and Turkey.[e] Cyprus is the third largest and third most populous island in the Mediterranean, and a member state of the European Union. It is located south of Turkey, west of Syria and Lebanon, northwest of Israel and Palestine, north of Egypt and east of Greece.
What is the date of the earliest known human activity on Cyprus?
572e7cf003f98919007566a3
10th millennium BC
68
False
What is Cyprus home to of?
572e7cf003f98919007566a4
the oldest water wells in the world
218
False
Who was Cyprus settled by in 2nd millennium BC?
572e7cf003f98919007566a5
Mycenaean Greeks
277
False
What empires have occupied Cyprus?
572e7cf003f98919007566a6
empires of the Assyrians, Egyptians and Persians
445
False
When did Ottoman rule occur in Cyprus?
572e7cf003f98919007566a7
between 1571 and 1878
773
False
The earliest known human activity on the island dates to around the 10th millennium BC. Archaeological remains from this period include the well-preserved Neolithic village of Khirokitia, and Cyprus is home to some of the oldest water wells in the world. Cyprus was settled by Mycenaean Greeks in two waves in the 2nd millennium BC. As a strategic location in the Middle East, it was subsequently occupied by several major powers, including the empires of the Assyrians, Egyptians and Persians, from whom the island was seized in 333 BC by Alexander the Great. Subsequent rule by Ptolemaic Egypt, the Classical and Eastern Roman Empire, Arab caliphates for a short period, the French Lusignan dynasty and the Venetians, was followed by over three centuries of Ottoman rule between 1571 and 1878 (de jure until 1914).
When was Cyprus placed under British administration?
572e7d9703f98919007566b5
1878
77
False
What year was Cyprus annexed by Britain?
572e7d9703f98919007566b6
1914
117
False
What year was Cyprus granted independence?
572e7d9703f98919007566b7
1960
720
False
What year did the intercommunal violence between Greek and Cypriots occur?
572e7d9703f98919007566b8
1963
729
False
How many Turkish Cypriots were displaced due to the 11 year violence in 1963?
572e7d9703f98919007566b9
25,000
849
False
Cyprus was placed under British administration based on Cyprus Convention in 1878 and formally annexed by Britain in 1914. Even though Turkish Cypriots made up only 18% of the population, the partition of Cyprus and creation of a Turkish state in the north became a policy of Turkish Cypriot leaders and Turkey in the 1950s. Turkish leaders for a period advocated the annexation of Cyprus to Turkey as Cyprus was considered an "extension of Anatolia" by them; while since the 19th century, the majority Greek Cypriot population and its Orthodox church had been pursuing union with Greece, which became a Greek national policy in the 1950s. Following nationalist violence in the 1950s, Cyprus was granted independence in 1960. In 1963, the 11-year intercommunal violence between Greek Cypriots and Turkish Cypriots started, which displaced more than 25,000 Turkish Cypriots and brought the end of Turkish Cypriot representation in the republic. On 15 July 1974, a coup d'état was staged by Greek Cypriot nationalists and elements of the Greek military junta in an attempt at enosis, the incorporation of Cyprus into Greece. This action precipitated the Turkish invasion of Cyprus, which led to the capture of the present-day territory of Northern Cyprus the following month, after a ceasefire collapsed, and the displacement of over 150,000 Greek Cypriots and 50,000 Turkish Cypriots. A separate Turkish Cypriot state in the north was established in 1983. These events and the resulting political situation are matters of a continuing dispute.
The Republic of Cyprus does not have de jure sovereignty over what two British territories?
572e7e8503f98919007566c9
Akrotiri and Dhekelia
178
False
How many parts is the Republic of Cyprus partitioned into?
572e7e8503f98919007566ca
two main parts
300
False
How much area of the island does the Republic control?
572e7e8503f98919007566cb
59%
387
False
The Turkish Republic of Northern Cyprus is only recognized by what country?
572e7e8503f98919007566cc
Turkey
527
False
What does the international community consider the northern part of Cyprus?
572e7e8503f98919007566cd
territory of the Republic of Cyprus occupied by Turkish forces
649
False
The Republic of Cyprus has de jure sovereignty over the island of Cyprus and its surrounding waters, according to international law, except for the British Overseas Territory of Akrotiri and Dhekelia, administered as Sovereign Base Areas. However, the Republic of Cyprus is de facto partitioned into two main parts; the area under the effective control of the Republic, comprising about 59% of the island's area, and the north, administered by the self-declared Turkish Republic of Northern Cyprus, which is recognised only by Turkey, covering about 36% of the island's area. The international community considers the northern part of the island as territory of the Republic of Cyprus occupied by Turkish forces. The occupation is viewed as illegal under international law, amounting to illegal occupation of EU territory since Cyprus became a member of the European Union.
During what Age did Cyprus experience two waves of Greek settlement?
572e7f0adfa6aa1500f8d047
late Bronze Age
11
False
Who did the first wave of Greek settlement consist of?
572e7f0adfa6aa1500f8d048
Mycenaean Greek traders
109
False
What year did Turkish Republic of Northern Cyprus begin visiting Cyprus?
572e7f0adfa6aa1500f8d049
1400 BC
168
False
Cyprus is the birthplace of what two Greek mythological figures?
572e7f0adfa6aa1500f8d04a
Aphrodite and Adonis
468
False
Cyprus is home to which Greek mythological figures?
572e7f0adfa6aa1500f8d04b
King Cinyras, Teucer and Pygmalion
502
False
During the late Bronze Age the island experienced two waves of Greek settlement. The first wave consisted of Mycenaean Greek traders who started visiting Cyprus around 1400 BC. A major wave of Greek settlement is believed to have taken place following the Bronze Age collapse of Mycenaean Greece from 1100 to 1050 BC, with the island's predominantly Greek character dating from this period. Cyprus occupies an important role in Greek mythology being the birthplace of Aphrodite and Adonis, and home to King Cinyras, Teucer and Pygmalion. Beginning in the 8th century BC Phoenician colonies were founded on the south coast of Cyprus, near present-day Larnaca and Salamis.
In what year did James II die?
572e7f8003f98919007566db
1473
23
False
Who assumed control of the island after the death of James II?
572e7f8003f98919007566dc
Republic of Venice
69
False
In what year did Venice formally annex the kingdom of Cyprus?
572e7f8003f98919007566dd
1489
254
False
Which empire frequently raided Cyprus during Venetian rule?
572e7f8003f98919007566de
Ottoman Empire
437
False
In what year did the Ottomans destroy Limassol?
572e7f8003f98919007566df
1539
481
False
Following the death in 1473 of James II, the last Lusignan king, the Republic of Venice assumed control of the island, while the late king's Venetian widow, Queen Catherine Cornaro, reigned as figurehead. Venice formally annexed the Kingdom of Cyprus in 1489, following the abdication of Catherine. The Venetians fortified Nicosia by building the Venetian Walls, and used it as an important commercial hub. Throughout Venetian rule, the Ottoman Empire frequently raided Cyprus. In 1539 the Ottomans destroyed Limassol and so fearing the worst, the Venetians also fortified Famagusta and Kyrenia.
In what year did Cyprus face a full-scale Ottoman assault?
572e7fd1cb0c0d14000f11ce
1570
3
False
Ottoman forces massacred which types of people?
572e7fd1cb0c0d14000f11cf
Greek and Armenian Christian inhabitants
216
False
Turkish peasants and craftsman were brought to the island from where?
572e7fd1cb0c0d14000f11d0
Anatolia
537
False
In 1570, a full-scale Ottoman assault with 60,000 troops brought the island under Ottoman control, despite stiff resistance by the inhabitants of Nicosia and Famagusta. Ottoman forces capturing Cyprus massacred many Greek and Armenian Christian inhabitants. The previous Latin elite were destroyed and the first significant demographic change since antiquity took place with the formation of a Muslim community. Soldiers who fought in the conquest settled on the island and Turkish peasants and craftsmen were brought to the island from Anatolia. This new community also included banished Anatolian tribes, "undesirable" persons and members of various "troublesome" Muslim sects, as well as a number of new converts on the island.
What system did the Ottomans abolish in favor of the millet system?
572e8093cb0c0d14000f11f2
feudal system
27
False
Who was invested as the leader of the Greek Cypriot population?
572e8093cb0c0d14000f11f3
head of the Church of Cyprus
230
False
Who was the Church of Cyprus hoping to end encroachments of?
572e8093cb0c0d14000f11f4
Roman Catholic Church
503
False
How many years did Cyprus face of economic decline?
572e8093cb0c0d14000f11f5
250 years
688
False
The Ottomans abolished the feudal system previously in place and applied the millet system to Cyprus, under which non-Muslim peoples were governed by their own religious authorities. In a reversal from the days of Latin rule, the head of the Church of Cyprus was invested as leader of the Greek Cypriot population and acted as mediator between Christian Greek Cypriots and the Ottoman authorities. This status ensured that the Church of Cyprus was in a position to end the constant encroachments of the Roman Catholic Church. Ottoman rule of Cyprus was at times indifferent, at times oppressive, depending on the temperaments of the sultans and local officials, and the island began over 250 years of economic decline.
How many Muslims made up the island's population in 1777-78?
572e80e8cb0c0d14000f11fa
47,000
103
False
How many Christians made up the island's population in 1777-78?
572e80e8cb0c0d14000f11fb
37,000
159
False
What was the population of the island in 1872?
572e80e8cb0c0d14000f11fc
144,000
229
False
In 1872 the island contained how many Muslims?
572e80e8cb0c0d14000f11fd
44,000
249
False
In 1872 the island contained how many Christians?
572e80e8cb0c0d14000f11fe
100,000
268
False
The ratio of Muslims to Christians fluctuated throughout the period of Ottoman domination. In 1777–78, 47,000 Muslims constituted a majority over the island's 37,000 Christians. By 1872, the population of the island had risen to 144,000, comprising 44,000 Muslims and 100,000 Christians. The Muslim population included numerous crypto-Christians, including the Linobambaki, a crypto-Catholic community that arose due to religious persecution of the Catholic community by the Ottoman authorities; this community would assimilate into the Turkish Cypriot community during British rule.
What year did the Greek war of independence break out?
572e8153c246551400ce4268
1821
54
False
How many Greek Cypriots were arrested and executed by the Ottoman governor of Cyprus?
572e8153c246551400ce4269
486
191
False
Who was modern Greece's first president?
572e8153c246551400ce426a
Ioannis Kapodistrias
332
False
What did Ioannis Kapodistrias call for?
572e8153c246551400ce426b
union of Cyprus with Greece
364
False
As soon as the Greek War of Independence broke out in 1821, several Greek Cypriots left for Greece to join the Greek forces. In response, the Ottoman governor of Cyprus arrested and executed 486 prominent Greek Cypriots, including the Archbishop of Cyprus, Kyprianos and four other bishops. In 1828, modern Greece's first president Ioannis Kapodistrias called for union of Cyprus with Greece, and numerous minor uprisings took place. Reaction to Ottoman misrule led to uprisings by both Greek and Turkish Cypriots, although none were successful. After centuries of neglect by the Turks, the unrelenting poverty of most of the people, and the ever-present tax collectors fuelled Greek nationalism, and by the 20th century idea of enosis, or union, with newly independent Greece was firmly rooted among Greek Cypriots.
The island of Cyprus serves as a key military base to what western country?
572e8261c246551400ce4284
Britain
23
False
What years was the Famagusta harbour completed?
572e8261c246551400ce4285
1906
82
False
Cyprus was a naval outpost which overlooked what canal?
572e8261c246551400ce4286
Suez Canal
183
False
Which side did the Ottoman Empire join in World War 1?
572e8261c246551400ce4287
Central Powers
408
False
The island would serve Britain as a key military base for its colonial routes. By 1906, when the Famagusta harbour was completed, Cyprus was a strategic naval outpost overlooking the Suez Canal, the crucial main route to India which was then Britain's most important overseas possession. Following the outbreak of the First World War and the decision of the Ottoman Empire to join the war on the side of the Central Powers, on 5 November 1914 the British Empire formally annexed Cyprus and declared the Ottoman Khedivate of Egypt and Sudan a Sultanate and British protectorate.
Historically, the idea of enosis was part of which other idea?
572e833acb0c0d14000f1216
Megali Idea
162
False
The Megali Idea was actively pursued by whom?
572e833acb0c0d14000f1217
Cypriot Orthodox Church
401
False
What guerrilla organization was founded by religious officials and military officers?
572e833acb0c0d14000f1218
Ethniki Organosis Kyprion Agoniston or National Organisation of Cypriot Fighters (EOKA).
641
False
In what year decade did the pursuit of enosis become a part of national Greek policy?
572e833acb0c0d14000f1219
1950s
853
False
The Greek Cypriot population, meanwhile, had become hopeful that the British administration would lead to enosis. The idea of enosis was historically part of the Megali Idea, a greater political ambition of a Greek state encompassing the territories with Greek inhabitants in the former Ottoman Empire, including Cyprus and Asia Minor with a capital in Constantinople, and was actively pursued by the Cypriot Orthodox Church, which had its members educated in Greece. These religious officials, together with Greek military officers and professionals, some of whom still pursued the Megali Idea, would later found the guerrilla organisation Ethniki Organosis Kyprion Agoniston or National Organisation of Cypriot Fighters (EOKA). The Greek Cypriots viewed the island as historically Greek and believed that union with Greece was a natural right. In the 1950s, the pursuit of enosis became a part of the Greek national policy,
Initially Turkish Cypriots favoured the continued rule of what Western power?
572e83e5cb0c0d14000f121e
British
65
False
Who viewed themselves as a distinct ethnic group of the island of Cyprus?
572e83e5cb0c0d14000f121f
Turkish Cypriots
346
False
What percentage of the population did Turkish Cypriots make up?
572e83e5cb0c0d14000f1220
20%
964
False
What slogan was frequently used in Turkish Cypriot protests?
572e83e5cb0c0d14000f1221
"Partition or Death"
1077
False
Initially, the Turkish Cypriots favoured the continuation of the British rule. However, they were alarmed by the Greek Cypriot calls for enosis as they saw the union of Crete with Greece, which led to the exodus of Cretan Turks, as a precedent to be avoided, and they took a pro-partition stance in response to the militant activity of EOKA. The Turkish Cypriots also viewed themselves as a distinct ethnic group of the island and believed in their having a separate right to self-determination from Greek Cypriots. Meanwhile, in the 1950s, Turkish leader Menderes considered Cyprus an "extension of Anatolia", rejected the partition of Cyprus along ethnic lines and favoured the annexation of the whole island to Turkey. Nationalistic slogans centred on the idea that "Cyprus is Turkish" and the ruling party declared Cyprus to be a part of the Turkish homeland that was vital to its security. Upon realising the fact that the Turkish Cypriot population was only 20% of the islanders made annexation unfeasible, the national policy was changed to favour partition. The slogan "Partition or Death" was frequently used in Turkish Cypriot and Turkish protests starting in the late 1950s and continuing throughout the 1960s. Although after the Zürich and London conferences Turkey seemed to accept the existence of the Cypriot state and to distance itself from its policy of favouring the partition of the island, the goal of the Turkish and Turkish Cypriot leaders remained that of creating an independent Turkish state in the northern part of the island.
In what year did the Church of Cyprus organize a referendum?
572e84dbcb0c0d14000f122e
1950
11
False
In 1946, the Greeks made up what percent of Cyprus' population?
572e84dbcb0c0d14000f122f
80.2%
226
False
In what year was the EOKA organization founded?
572e84dbcb0c0d14000f1230
1955
405
False
What is the name of the policy that the British adopted?
572e84dbcb0c0d14000f1231
"divide and rule"
702
False
In January 1950, the Church of Cyprus organised a referendum under the supervision of clerics and with no Turkish Cypriot participation, where 96% of the participating Greek Cypriots voted in favour of enosis, The Greeks were 80.2% of the total island' s population at the time (census 1946). Restricted autonomy under a constitution was proposed by the British administration but eventually rejected. In 1955 the EOKA organisation was founded, seeking union with Greece through armed struggle. At the same time the Turkish Resistance Organisation (TMT), calling for Taksim, or partition, was established by the Turkish Cypriots as a counterweight. The British had also adopted at the time a policy of "divide and rule". Woodhouse, a British official in Cyprus, revealed that then British Foreign Secretary Harold Macmillan "urged the Britons in Cyprus to stir up the Turks in order to neutralise Greek agitation". British officials also tolerated the creation of the Turkish underground organisation T.M.T. The Secretary of State for the Colonies in a letter dated 15 July 1958 had advised the Governor of Cyprus not to act against T.M.T despite its illegal actions so as not to harm British relations with the Turkish government.
What is the date that Cyrpus attained independence?
572e8556dfa6aa1500f8d08d
16 August 1960
3
False
Which countries were part of the Zurich and London Agreement?
572e8556dfa6aa1500f8d08e
United Kingdom, Greece and Turkey
98
False
What was Cyprus' total population when it gained independence?
572e8556dfa6aa1500f8d08f
573,566
166
False
What was the percentage of Greeks in the Cyprus population?
572e8556dfa6aa1500f8d090
(77.1%
191
False
What was the percentage of Turks in the Cyprus population?
572e8556dfa6aa1500f8d091
18.2%
221
False
On 16 August 1960, Cyprus attained independence after the Zürich and London Agreement between the United Kingdom, Greece and Turkey. Cyprus had a total population of 573,566; of whom 442,138 (77.1%) were Greeks, 104,320 (18.2%) Turks, and 27,108 (4.7%) others  The UK retained the two Sovereign Base Areas of Akrotiri and Dhekelia, while government posts and public offices were allocated by ethnic quotas, giving the minority Turkish Cypriots a permanent veto, 30% in parliament and administration, and granting the three mother-states guarantor rights.
National militants had the support of what two countries?
572e85cc03f9891900756723
Greece and Turkey
204
False
What was the goal of the Akritas plan?
572e85cc03f9891900756724
reforming the constitution in favour of Greek Cypriots
413
False
Which president called for constitutional changes?
572e85cc03f9891900756725
President Archbishop Makarios
673
False
Who rejected the constitutional changes proposed by President Archbishop Makarios?
572e85cc03f9891900756726
Turkey
765
False
However, the division of power as foreseen by the constitution soon resulted in legal impasses and discontent on both sides, and nationalist militants started training again, with the military support of Greece and Turkey respectively. The Greek Cypriot leadership believed that the rights given to Turkish Cypriots under the 1960 constitution were too extensive and designed the Akritas plan, which was aimed at reforming the constitution in favour of Greek Cypriots, persuading the international community about the correctness of the changes and violently subjugating Turkish Cypriots in a few days should they not accept the plan. Tensions were heightened when Cypriot President Archbishop Makarios III called for constitutional changes, which were rejected by Turkey and opposed by Turkish Cypriots.
In December of what year did intercommunal violence erupt?
572e86a903f989190075672b
1963
47
False
The violence beginning in 1963 resulted in the deaths of many Turks?
572e86a903f989190075672c
364
180
False
How many Turkish Cypriots were displaced due to the violence?
572e86a903f989190075672d
25,000-30,
289
False
Turkish Cypriots were prevented from doing what?
572e86a903f989190075672e
travelling and entering government buildings
572
False
Intercommunal violence erupted on December 21, 1963, when two Turkish Cypriots were killed at an incident involving the Greek Cypriot police. The violence resulted in the death of 364 Turkish and 174 Greek Cypriots, destruction of 109 Turkish Cypriot or mixed villages and displacement of 25,000-30,000 Turkish Cypriots. The crisis resulted in the end of the Turkish Cypriot involvement in the administration and their claiming that it had lost its legitimacy; the nature of this event is still controversial. In some areas, Greek Cypriots prevented Turkish Cypriots from travelling and entering government buildings, while some Turkish Cypriots willingly withdrew due to the calls of the Turkish Cypriot administration. Turkish Cypriots started living in enclaves; the republic's structure was changed unilaterally by Makarios and Nicosia was divided by the Green Line, with the deployment of UNFICYP troops.
Who tried to invade Cyprus in 1964?
572e874adfa6aa1500f8d0b1
Turkey
9
False
Which US President prevented Turkey from invading Cyprus?
572e874adfa6aa1500f8d0b2
Lyndon B. Johnson
176
False
What policy could not be abandoned in 1964?
572e874adfa6aa1500f8d0b3
enosis
340
False
How many troops did Greece send to Cyprus?
572e874adfa6aa1500f8d0b4
10,000
594
False
In 1964, Turkey tried to invade Cyprus in response to the continuing Cypriot intercommunal violence. But Turkey was stopped by a strongly worded telegram from the US President Lyndon B. Johnson on 5 June, warning that the US would not stand beside Turkey in case of a consequential Soviet invasion of Turkish territory. Meanwhile, by 1964, enosis was a Greek policy that could not be abandoned; Makarios and the Greek prime minister Georgios Papandreou agreed that enosis should be the ultimate aim and King Constantine wished Cyprus "a speedy union with the mother country". Greece dispatched 10,000 troops to Cyprus to counter a possible Turkish invasion.
What date was a coup d'etat carried out in Cyprus?
572e87d3c246551400ce42e4
15 July 1974
3
False
Who lead the coup d'etat attempt?
572e87d3c246551400ce42e5
Dimitrios Ioannides
48
False
Who replaced president Makarios Ill?
572e87d3c246551400ce42e6
Nikos Sampson
222
False
What did the Turkish army to do respond to the coup d'etat?
572e87d3c246551400ce42e7
invaded the island
313
False
Which organization rejected the justification used by Turkey to invade?
572e87d3c246551400ce42e8
United Nations
476
False
On 15 July 1974, the Greek military junta under Dimitrios Ioannides carried out a coup d'état in Cyprus, to unite the island with Greece. The coup ousted president Makarios III and replaced him with pro-enosis nationalist Nikos Sampson. In response to the coup, five days later, on 20 July 1974, the Turkish army invaded the island, citing a right to intervene to restore the constitutional order from the 1960 Treaty of Guarantee. This justification has been rejected by the United Nations and the international community.
What did the Turkish troops capture first on the island?
572e8843cb0c0d14000f125c
Kyrenia
111
False
What was the date of the second Turkish invasion?
572e8843cb0c0d14000f125d
14 August
562
False
What locations were seized in the second invasion?
572e8843cb0c0d14000f125e
Morphou, Karpass, Famagusta and the Mesaoria
613
False
Three days later, when a ceasefire had been agreed, Turkey had landed 30,000 troops on the island and captured Kyrenia, the corridor linking Kyrenia to Nicosia, and the Turkish Cypriot quarter of Nicosia itself. The junta in Athens, and then the Sampson regime in Cyprus fell from power. In Nicosia, Glafkos Clerides assumed the presidency and constitutional order was restored, removing the pretext for the Turkish invasion. But after the peace negotiations in Geneva, the Turkish government reinforced their Kyrenia bridgehead and started a second invasion on 14 August. The invasion resulted in the seizure of Morphou, Karpass, Famagusta and the Mesaoria.
How much of the island was controlled by Turks after international pressure led to a ceasefire?
572e8900dfa6aa1500f8d0e7
37%
55
False
How many Greek Cypriots had been displaced from their homes?
572e8900dfa6aa1500f8d0e8
180,000
110
False
How many Turkish Cypriots moved into areas that were under Turkish control?
572e8900dfa6aa1500f8d0e9
50,000
206
False
In what year did the US impose an arms embargo on Turkey?
572e8900dfa6aa1500f8d0ea
1975
404
False
Why did the US impose an arms embargo on Turkey?
572e8900dfa6aa1500f8d0eb
using American-supplied equipment during the Turkish invasion of Cyprus in 1974
463
False
International pressure led to a ceasefire, and by then 37% of the island had been taken over by the Turks and 180,000 Greek Cypriots had been evicted from their homes in the north. At the same time, around 50,000 Turkish Cypriots moved to the areas under the control of the Turkish Forces and settled in the properties of the displaced Greek Cypriots. Among a variety of sanctions against Turkey, in mid-1975 the US Congress imposed an arms embargo on Turkey for using American-supplied equipment during the Turkish invasion of Cyprus in 1974. There are 1,534 Greek Cypriots and 502 Turkish Cypriots missing as a result of the fighting.
What happened to ports on Cyprus after capture of its northern territory by Turkish troops?
572e898bdfa6aa1500f8d0f1
all of its ports of entry in the north were closed
432
False
How many settlers from Turkey were living in the north?
572e898bdfa6aa1500f8d0f2
150,000
113
False
What terms did the Turkish government violate by sending people?
572e898bdfa6aa1500f8d0f3
Geneva Convention and various UN resolutions
264
False
The events of the summer of 1974 dominate the politics on the island, as well as Greco-Turkish relations. Around 150,000 settlers from Turkey are believed to be living in the north—many of whom were forced from Turkey by the Turkish government—in violation of the Geneva Convention and various UN resolutions. Following the invasion and the capture of its northern territory by Turkish troops, the Republic of Cyprus announced that all of its ports of entry in the north were closed, as they were effectively not under its control.[citation needed]
In what year did the last major effort to settle the Cyprus dispute take place?
572e8a3303f9891900756761
2004
274
False
How many Turkish Cypriots voted for the Annan Plan in 2004?
572e8a3303f9891900756762
65%
416
False
How many Greek Cypriots voted against the Annan Plan in 2004?
572e8a3303f9891900756763
74%
473
False
In what year did Cyprus join the European Union?
572e8a3303f9891900756764
2004
645
False
In 2006 people fled to Cyprus from what country?
572e8a3303f9891900756765
Lebanon
959
False
The Turkish invasion, followed by occupation and the declaration of independence of the TRNC have been condemned by United Nations resolutions, which are reaffirmed by the Security Council every year. The last major effort to settle the Cyprus dispute was the Annan Plan in 2004, drafted by the then Secretary General, Kofi Annan. The plan was put to a referendum in both Northern Cyprus and the Republic of Cyprus. 65% of Turkish Cypriots voted in support of the plan and 74% Greek Cypriots voted against the plan, claiming that it disproportionately favoured the Turkish side. In total, 66.7% of the voters rejected the Annan Plan V. On 1 May 2004 Cyprus joined the European Union, together with nine other countries. Cyprus was accepted into the EU as a whole, although the EU legislation is suspended in the territory occupied by Turkey (TRNC), until a final settlement of the Cyprus problem. In July 2006, the island served as a haven for people fleeing Lebanon, due to the conflict between Israel and Hezbollah (also called "The July War").
What two mountains ranges are located on the island of Cyprus?
572e94eecb0c0d14000f1308
Troodos Mountains and the smaller Kyrenia Range
75
False
What plain is located in between the Troodos Mountains and the Kyrenia Range?
572e94eecb0c0d14000f1309
the Mesaoria
162
False
Which river drains the Mesaoria plain?
572e94eecb0c0d14000f130a
Pedieos River
213
False
What is the highest point on the island of Cyprus?
572e94eecb0c0d14000f130b
Mount Olympus
409
False
How tall is Mount Olympus?
572e94eecb0c0d14000f130c
1,952 m (6,404 ft)
426
False
The physical relief of the island is dominated by two mountain ranges, the Troodos Mountains and the smaller Kyrenia Range, and the central plain they encompass, the Mesaoria. The Mesaoria plain is drained by the Pedieos River, the longest on the island. The Troodos Mountains cover most of the southern and western portions of the island and account for roughly half its area. The highest point on Cyprus is Mount Olympus at 1,952 m (6,404 ft), located in the centre of the Troodos range. The narrow Kyrenia Range, extending along the northern coastline, occupies substantially less area, and elevations are lower, reaching a maximum of 1,024 m (3,360 ft). The island lies within the Anatolian Plate.
What type of climate does Cyprus have?
572e9552dfa6aa1500f8d18d
one of the warmest climates in the Mediterranean
11
False
In Cyprus, what is the average temperature during the day?
572e9552dfa6aa1500f8d18e
24 °C (75 °F)
159
False
How long do summers generally last on Cyprus?
572e9552dfa6aa1500f8d18f
eight months
246
False
What month typically marks the end of summer on Cyprus?
572e9552dfa6aa1500f8d190
November
391
False
Cyprus has one of the warmest climates in the Mediterranean part of the European Union.[citation needed] The average annual temperature on the coast is around 24 °C (75 °F) during the day and 14 °C (57 °F) at night. Generally, summers last about eight months, beginning in April with average temperatures of 21–23 °C (70–73 °F) during the day and 11–13 °C (52–55 °F) at night, and ending in November with average temperatures of 22–23 °C (72–73 °F) during the day and 12–14 °C (54–57 °F) at night, although in the remaining four months temperatures sometimes exceed 20 °C (68 °F).
Which cities has one of the warmest winters in the European Union?
572e95a4c246551400ce4390
Limassol
66
False
What is the average day emperature of Limassol during winter?
572e95a4c246551400ce4391
17–18 °C (63–64 °F)
163
False
What is the general temperature of coastal location during the night?
572e95a4c246551400ce4392
6–8 °C (43–46 °F)
319
False
Among all cities in the Mediterranean part of the European Union, Limassol has one of the warmest winters, in the period January – February average temperature is 17–18 °C (63–64 °F) during the day and 7–8 °C (45–46 °F) at night, in other coastal locations in Cyprus is generally 16–17 °C (61–63 °F) during the day and 6–8 °C (43–46 °F) at night. During March, Limassol has average temperatures of 19–20 °C (66–68 °F) during the day and 9–11 °C (48–52 °F) at night, in other coastal locations in Cyprus is generally 17–19 °C (63–66 °F) during the day and 8–10 °C (46–50 °F) at night.
When does the middle of summer occur on Cyprus?
572e9610cb0c0d14000f1312
July and August
33
False
What is the average day temperature on the coast during summer?
572e9610cb0c0d14000f1313
33 °C (91 °F)
104
False
What is the average day temperature on the coast in June and September?
572e9610cb0c0d14000f1314
30 °C (86 °F)
323
False
Where are temperatures more extreme compared to the coast of Cyprus?
572e9610cb0c0d14000f1315
Inland
541
False
The middle of summer is hot – in July and August on the coast the average temperature is usually around 33 °C (91 °F) during the day and around 22 °C (72 °F) at night (inland, in the highlands average temperature exceeds 35 °C (95 °F)) while in the June and September on the coast the average temperature is usually around 30 °C (86 °F) during the day and around 20 °C (68 °F) at night in Limassol, while is usually around 28 °C (82 °F) during the day and around 18 °C (64 °F) at night in Paphos. Large fluctuations in temperature are rare. Inland temperatures are more extreme, with colder winters and hotter summers compared with the coast of the island.
What resource is scarce on Cyprus?
572e968a03f9891900756801
water
42
False
What do people living in Cyprus rely on for household water?
572e968a03f9891900756802
rain
79
False
When did Cyprus receive enough rainfall to fill up their water reserves?
572e968a03f9891900756803
Between 2001 and 2004
181
False
Why has demand for water increased annually on Cyprus?
572e968a03f9891900756804
local population growth, foreigners moving to Cyprus and the number of visiting tourists
460
False
Why has the water supply shrunk in previous years?
572e968a03f9891900756805
more frequent droughts
590
False
Cyprus suffers from a chronic shortage of water. The country relies heavily on rain to provide household water, but in the past 30 years average yearly precipitation has decreased. Between 2001 and 2004, exceptionally heavy annual rainfall pushed water reserves up, with supply exceeding demand, allowing total storage in the island's reservoirs to rise to an all-time high by the start of 2005. However, since then demand has increased annually – a result of local population growth, foreigners moving to Cyprus and the number of visiting tourists – while supply has fallen as a result of more frequent droughts.
What do the people of Cyprus rely on for domestic and agricultural supply of water?
572e97d1c246551400ce43aa
Dams
0
False
What is the total number of completed dams located on Cyprus?
572e97d1c246551400ce43ab
107
104
False
What is the capacity of water that the dams on Cyprus can hold?
572e97d1c246551400ce43ac
330,000,000 m3 (1.2×1010 cu ft).
214
False
What has the government invested in to help supply water for Cyprus?
572e97d1c246551400ce43ad
desalination plants
414
False
What percentage of domestic water do desalination plants provide on Cyprus?
572e97d1c246551400ce43ae
almost 50 per cent
454
False
Dams remain the principal source of water both for domestic and agricultural use; Cyprus has a total of 107 dams (plus one currently under construction) and reservoirs, with a total water storage capacity of about 330,000,000 m3 (1.2×1010 cu ft). Water desalination plants are gradually being constructed to deal with recent years of prolonged drought. The Government has invested heavily in the creation of water desalination plants which have supplied almost 50 per cent of domestic water since 2001. Efforts have also been made to raise public awareness of the situation and to encourage domestic water users to take more responsibility for the conservation of this increasingly scarce commodity.
What types of branches did the 1960 Constitution provide?
572e984b03f9891900756815
legislative and judicial branches
99
False
What type of person was the vice-president?
572e984b03f9891900756816
Turkish Cypriot
341
False
Where did Legislative power rest?
572e984b03f9891900756817
the House of Representatives
555
False
The 1960 Constitution provided for a presidential system of government with independent executive, legislative and judicial branches as well as a complex system of checks and balances including a weighted power-sharing ratio designed to protect the interests of the Turkish Cypriots. The executive was led by a Greek Cypriot president and a Turkish Cypriot vice-president elected by their respective communities for five-year terms and each possessing a right of veto over certain types of legislation and executive decisions. Legislative power rested on the House of Representatives who were also elected on the basis of separate voters' rolls.
In what years was Cyprus divided?
572e98d4cb0c0d14000f1324
1974
116
False
Which part of Cyprus was occupied by the Turkish army?
572e98d4cb0c0d14000f1325
northern third of the island
184
False
In 1983, Turkish Cypriots declared what?
572e98d4cb0c0d14000f1326
independence
257
False
What organization recognizes the sovereignty of the Republic of Cyprus?
572e98d4cb0c0d14000f1327
The United Nations
427
False
Since 1965, following clashes between the two communities, the Turkish Cypriot seats in the House remain vacant. In 1974 Cyprus was divided de facto when the Turkish army occupied the northern third of the island. The Turkish Cypriots subsequently declared independence in 1983 as the Turkish Republic of Northern Cyprus but were recognised only by Turkey. In 1985 the TRNC adopted a constitution and held its first elections. The United Nations recognises the sovereignty of the Republic of Cyprus over the entire island of Cyprus.
How many members are currently in the House of Representatives?
572e9939c246551400ce43b4
59 members
43
False
How long is the term for an elected member of the House of Representatives?
572e9939c246551400ce43b5
five-year term
68
False
How many seas are allocated to the Turkish community?
572e9939c246551400ce43b6
24
207
False
Who became the country's first Communist head of state in 2008?
572e9939c246551400ce43b7
Dimitris Christofias
483
False
Who is the current president of Cyprus?
572e9939c246551400ce43b8
Nicos Anastasiades
742
False
The House of Representatives currently has 59 members elected for a five-year term, 56 members by proportional representation and 3 observer members representing the Armenian, Latin and Maronite minorities. 24 seats are allocated to the Turkish community but remain vacant since 1964. The political environment is dominated by the communist AKEL, the liberal conservative Democratic Rally, the centrist Democratic Party, the social-democratic EDEK and the centrist EURO.KO. In 2008, Dimitris Christofias became the country's first Communist head of state. Due to his involvement in the 2012–13 Cypriot financial crisis, Christofias did not run for re-election in 2013. The Presidential election in 2013 resulted in Democratic Rally candidate Nicos Anastasiades winning 57.48% of the vote. As a result, Anastasiades was sworn in on and has been President since 28 February 2013.
Why does the United Nations question the Human rights status of Cyprus?
572e99cbc246551400ce43be
ongoing division of Cyprus continues to affect human rights throughout the island
226
False
What is the rating for Cyprus in the "Freedom in the World 2011" report?
572e99cbc246551400ce43bf
free
63
False
What is one of the reasons for the human rights issues on Cyprus?
572e99cbc246551400ce43c0
division of the island
529
False
In "Freedom in the World 2011", Freedom House rated Cyprus as "free". In January 2011, the Report of the Office of the United Nations High Commissioner for Human Rights on the question of Human Rights in Cyprus noted that the ongoing division of Cyprus continues to affect human rights throughout the island "... including freedom of movement, human rights pertaining to the question of missing persons, discrimination, the right to life, freedom of religion, and economic, social and cultural rights." The constant focus on the division of the island can sometimes mask other human rights issues.[citation needed]
How much was Turkey ordered to pay in compensation to Cyprus?
572e9a4edfa6aa1500f8d1e1
over $100m
78
False
Who was accused of violating the Geneva Conventions?
572e9a4edfa6aa1500f8d1e2
Turkey
360
False
What year was Turkey ordered to pay fines to Cyprus?
572e9a4edfa6aa1500f8d1e3
2014
3
False
Why was Turkey accused of violating the Geneva Conventions?
572e9a4edfa6aa1500f8d1e4
directly or indirectly transferring its civilian population into occupied territory
406
False
In 2014, Turkey was ordered by the European Court of Human Rights to pay well over $100m in compensation to Cyprus for the invasion; Ankara announced that it would ignore the judgment. In 2014, a group of Cypriot refugees and a European parliamentarian, later joined by the Cypriot government, filed a complaint to the International Court of Justice, accusing Turkey of violating the Geneva Conventions by directly or indirectly transferring its civilian population into occupied territory. Over the preceding ten years, civilian transfer by Turkey had "reached new heights", in the words of one US ambassador.[f] Other violations of the Geneva and the Hague Conventions—both ratified by Turkey—amount to what archaeologist Sophocles Hadjisavvas called "the organized destruction of Greek and Christian heritage in the north". These violations include looting of cultural treasures, deliberate destruction of churches, neglect of works of art, and altering the names of important historical sites, which was condemned by the International Council on Monuments and Sites. Hadjisavvas has asserted that these actions are motivated by a Turkish policy of erasing the Greek presence in Northern Cyprus within a framework of ethnic cleansing, as well as by greed and profit-seeking on the part of the individuals involved.
What incident was the most deadly military accident that occurred on Cyprus?
572e9ad0c246551400ce43ce
Evangelos Florakis Naval Base explosion
470
False
What date did the Evangelos Florakis Naval Base explosion occur?
572e9ad0c246551400ce43cf
11 July 2011
529
False
What is one of the senior officer titles of the Cyprus air force?
572e9ad0c246551400ce43d0
Supreme Commander
300
False
The air force includes the 449th Helicopter Gunship Squadron (449 ΜΑΕ) – operating Aérospatiale SA-342L and Bell 206 and the 450th Helicopter Gunship Squadron (450 ME/P) – operating Mi-35P helicopters and the Britten-Norman BN-2B and Pilatus PC-9 fixed-wing aircraft. Current senior officers include Supreme Commander, Cypriot National Guard, Lt. General Stylianos Nasis, and Chief of Staff, Cypriot National Guard: Maj. General Michalis Flerianos.[citation needed] The Evangelos Florakis Naval Base explosion, which occurred on 11 July 2011, was the most deadly military accident ever recorded in Cyprus.
What affected the Cypriot economy in 2012?
572e9b5e03f9891900756825
Eurozone financial and banking crisis
128
False
How much many did the Cypriot government initially announce it needed?
572e9b5e03f9891900756826
€1.8 billion
228
False
What was the amount of additional money requested by Cyprus?
572e9b5e03f9891900756827
€4 billion
417
False
What are the names of Cyprus' three largest banks?
572e9b5e03f9891900756828
Bank of Cyprus, Cyprus Popular Bank and Hellenic Bank
501
False
In the early 21st century the Cypriot economy has diversified and become prosperous. However, in 2012 it became affected by the Eurozone financial and banking crisis. In June 2012, the Cypriot government announced it would need €1.8 billion in foreign aid to support the Cyprus Popular Bank, and this was followed by Fitch downgrading Cyprus's credit rating to junk status. Fitch said Cyprus would need an additional €4 billion to support its banks and the downgrade was mainly due to the exposure of Bank of Cyprus, Cyprus Popular Bank and Hellenic Bank, Cyprus's three largest banks, to the Greek financial crisis.
What did the March 2013 agreement decide?
572e9be5cb0c0d14000f1354
split the country's second largest bank
95
False
Who would eventually absorb the "good" bank of Cyprus Popular Bank?
572e9be5cb0c0d14000f1355
Bank of Cyprus
291
False
What was the amount of bailout money given to Cyprus?
572e9be5cb0c0d14000f1356
€10 billion
323
False
Who was using Cyprus as a tax haven?
572e9be5cb0c0d14000f1357
wealthy Russians
603
False
The 2012–2013 Cypriot financial crisis led to an agreement with the Eurogroup in March 2013 to split the country's second largest bank, the Cyprus Popular Bank (also known as Laiki Bank), into a "bad" bank which would be wound down over time and a "good" bank which would be absorbed by the Bank of Cyprus. In return for a €10 billion bailout from the European Commission, the European Central Bank and the International Monetary Fund, often referred to as the "troika", the Cypriot government was required to impose a significant haircut on uninsured deposits, a large proportion of which were held by wealthy Russians who used Cyprus as a tax haven. Insured deposits of €100,000 or less were not affected.
What is the per capita GDP of Cyprus given by the IMF?
572e9c50c246551400ce43d4
$30,769
117
False
Why has Cyprus been sought out by offshore businesses?
572e9c50c246551400ce43d5
low tax rates
264
False
What are three of the largest contributors to the Cyprus economy?
572e9c50c246551400ce43d6
Tourism, financial services and shipping
279
False
When was the Euro declared as the national currency of Cyprus?
572e9c50c246551400ce43d7
1 January 2008
540
False
According to the latest International Monetary Fund estimates, its per capita GDP (adjusted for purchasing power) at $30,769 is just above the average of the European Union.[citation needed] Cyprus has been sought as a base for several offshore businesses for its low tax rates. Tourism, financial services and shipping are significant parts of the economy. Economic policy of the Cyprus government has focused on meeting the criteria for admission to the European Union. The Cypriot government adopted the euro as the national currency on 1 January 2008.
What resource has been discovered offshore in recent years?
572e9d0bcb0c0d14000f1364
natural gas
51
False
With what two countries did Cyprus first demarcate its maritime border?
572e9d0bcb0c0d14000f1365
Egypt in 2003, and with Lebanon in 2007
386
False
Which country did Cyprus demarcate its maritime border in 2010?
572e9d0bcb0c0d14000f1366
Israel
438
False
What is the name of the US-based firm in a production-sharing agreement with Cyprus?
572e9d0bcb0c0d14000f1367
Noble Energy
525
False
In recent years significant quantities of offshore natural gas have been discovered in the area known as Aphrodite in Cyprus' exclusive economic zone (EEZ), about 175 kilometres (109 miles) south of Limassol at 33°5′40″N and 32°59′0″E. However, Turkey's offshore drilling companies have accessed both natural gas and oil resources since 2013. Cyprus demarcated its maritime border with Egypt in 2003, and with Lebanon in 2007. Cyprus and Israel demarcated their maritime border in 2010, and in August 2011, the US-based firm Noble Energy entered into a production-sharing agreement with the Cypriot government regarding the block's commercial development.
What are the three modes of transport available on Cyprus?
572e9d6d03f9891900756837
road, sea and air
36
False
How many miles of roads are paved on Cyprus?
572e9d6d03f9891900756838
6,249 km (3,883 mi)
127
False
How many miles of roads are unpaved on Cyprus?
572e9d6d03f9891900756839
4,414 km (2,743 mi)
163
False
Which side of the road do vehicles on Cyprus drive on?
572e9d6d03f989190075683a
left-hand
438
False
Available modes of transport are by road, sea and air. Of the 10,663 km (6,626 mi) of roads in the Republic of Cyprus in 1998, 6,249 km (3,883 mi) were paved, and 4,414 km (2,743 mi) were unpaved. In 1996 the Turkish-occupied area had a similar ratio of paved to unpaved, with approximately 1,370 km (850 mi) of paved road and 980 km (610 mi) unpaved.[citation needed] Cyprus is one of only four EU nations in which vehicles drive on the left-hand side of the road, a remnant of British colonisation (the others being Ireland, Malta and the United Kingdom). A series of motorways runs along the coast from Paphos east to Ayia Napa, with two motorways running inland to Nicosia, one from Limassol and one from Larnaca.
What was the number of Greek Cypriots on Cyprus in 1973?
572e9e8bc246551400ce4400
482,000
268
False
What did the Cypriot government find was the Greek population on Cyprus?
572e9e8bc246551400ce4401
506,000 (78.9%)
426
False
What did the Cypriot government find was the Turkish population on Cyprus?
572e9e8bc246551400ce4402
118,000 (18.4%)
459
False
In what years did the Greeks conduct extra censuses?
572e9e8bc246551400ce4403
1976, 1982, 1992 and 2001
567
False
Who was excluded from the censuses conducted by the Greeks?
572e9e8bc246551400ce4404
the Turkish population
609
False
Due to the inter-communal ethnic tensions between 1963 and 1974, an island-wide census was regarded as impossible. Nevertheless, the Greek Cypriots conducted one in 1973, without the Turkish Cypriot populace. According to this census, the Greek Cypriot population was 482,000. One year later, in 1974, the Cypriot government's Department of Statistics and Research estimated the total population of Cyprus at 641,000; of whom 506,000 (78.9%) were Greeks, and 118,000 (18.4%) Turkish. After the partition of the island in 1974, Greeks conducted four more censuses: in 1976, 1982, 1992 and 2001; these excluded the Turkish population which was resident in the northern part of the island.
How many people were living in Northern Cyprus according to the 2006 census?
572e9f67c246551400ce4414
256,644
72
False
How many citizens born in Cyprus also have parents who were born in Cyprus?
572e9f67c246551400ce4415
120,031
418
False
How many of the citizens in Northern Cyprus was born in Cyprus?
572e9f67c246551400ce4416
147,405
174
False
According to the 2006 census carried out by Northern Cyprus, there were 256,644 (de jure) people living in Northern Cyprus. 178,031 were citizens of Northern Cyprus, of whom 147,405 were born in Cyprus (112,534 from the north; 32,538 from the south; 371 did not indicate what part of Cyprus they were from); 27,333 born in Turkey; 2,482 born in the UK and 913 born in Bulgaria. Of the 147,405 citizens born in Cyprus, 120,031 say both parents were born in Cyprus; 16,824 say both parents born in Turkey; 10,361 have one parent born in Turkey and one parent born in Cyprus.
What religion do most Greek Cypriots identify with?
572e9fd2dfa6aa1500f8d215
Greek Orthodox
43
False
What religion do most Turkish Cypriots identify with?
572e9fd2dfa6aa1500f8d216
Sunni Islam
106
False
What country is the second most religious in the European Union?
572e9fd2dfa6aa1500f8d217
Cyprus
152
False
Who is the current head of the Greek Orthodox church in Cyprus?
572e9fd2dfa6aa1500f8d218
Archbishop Chrysostomos II
531
False
The majority of Greek Cypriots identify as Greek Orthodox, whereas most Turkish Cypriots are adherents of Sunni Islam. According to Eurobarometer 2005, Cyprus was the second most religious state in the European Union at that time, after Malta (although in 2005 Romania wasn't in the European Union, currently Romania is the most religious state in the European Union) (see Religion in the European Union). The first President of Cyprus, Makarios III, was an archbishop. The current leader of the Greek Orthodox Church of Cyprus is Archbishop Chrysostomos II.
How many official languages does Cyprus have?
572ea043c246551400ce4422
two
11
False
What are the two official languages of Cyprus?
572ea043c246551400ce4423
Greek and Turkish
35
False
What are the minority languages are spoken in Cyprus?
572ea043c246551400ce4424
Armenian and Cypriot Maronite Arabic
54
False
Are there any Western languages spoken in Cyprus?
572ea043c246551400ce4425
English
163
False
Are there any Eastern languages spoken in Cyprus?
572ea043c246551400ce4426
Russian
546
False
Cyprus has two official languages, Greek and Turkish. Armenian and Cypriot Maronite Arabic are recognised as minority languages. Although without official status, English is widely spoken and it features widely on road signs, public notices, and in advertisements, etc. English was the sole official language during British colonial rule and the lingua franca until 1960, and continued to be used (de facto) in courts of law until 1989 and in legislation until 1996. 80.4% of Cypriots are proficient in the English language as a second language. Russian is widely spoken among the country's minorities, residents and citizens of post-Soviet countries, and Pontic Greeks. Russian, after English and Greek, is the third language used on many signs of shops and restaurants, particularly in Limassol and Paphos. In addition to these languages, 12% speak French and 5% speak German.
What do Cypriot universities ignore when looking at admission?
572ea0bedfa6aa1500f8d21d
high school grades
422
False
What is required for university attendance?
572ea0bedfa6aa1500f8d21e
high-school diploma
490
False
What plays a large factor in determining admission at a university?
572ea0bedfa6aa1500f8d21f
university entrance examinations
641
False
What percentage do grades obtained account for in a students final grade?
572ea0bedfa6aa1500f8d220
25%
225
False
State schools are generally seen as equivalent in quality of education to private-sector institutions. However, the value of a state high-school diploma is limited by the fact that the grades obtained account for only around 25% of the final grade for each topic, with the remaining 75% assigned by the teacher during the semester, in a minimally transparent way. Cypriot universities (like universities in Greece) ignore high school grades almost entirely for admissions purposes. While a high-school diploma is mandatory for university attendance, admissions are decided almost exclusively on the basis of scores at centrally administered university entrance examinations that all university candidates are required to take.
Where do most Cypriots receiver higher education?
572ea15acb0c0d14000f139c
Greek, British, Turkish, other European and North American universities
59
False
What nation has the highest level percentage of working citizens with higher-level education?
572ea15acb0c0d14000f139d
Cyprus
154
False
What percentage of the 25-34 Cyprus population has tertiary education?
572ea15acb0c0d14000f139e
47%
322
False
How many Cypriots students attend school outside of the country
572ea15acb0c0d14000f139f
78.7%
464
False
The majority of Cypriots receive their higher education at Greek, British, Turkish, other European and North American universities. It is noteworthy that Cyprus currently has the highest percentage of citizens of working age who have higher-level education in the EU at 30% which is ahead of Finland's 29.5%. In addition, 47% of its population aged 25–34 have tertiary education, which is the highest in the EU. The body of Cypriot students is highly mobile, with 78.7% studying in a university outside Cyprus.
Which foods do Greek Cypriots and Turkish Cypriots have in common?
572ea23fcb0c0d14000f13a4
souvla and halloumi
136
False
Which art forms are integral parts of everyday life?
572ea23fcb0c0d14000f13a5
music, dance and art
341
False
What is something that Greek Cypriots and Turkish Cypriots do not have in common?
572ea23fcb0c0d14000f13a6
religions and religious
641
False
What religion do Greek Cypriots usually practice?
572ea23fcb0c0d14000f13a8
Sunni Muslims
775
False
Greek Cypriots and Turkish Cypriots share a lot in common in their culture but also have differences. Several traditional food (such as souvla and halloumi) and beverages are similar, as well as expressions and ways of life. Hospitality and buying or offering food and drinks for guests or others are common among both. In both communities, music, dance and art are integral parts of social life and many artistic, verbal and nonverbal expressions, traditional dances such as tsifteteli, similarities in dance costumes and importance placed on social activities are shared between the communities. However, the two communities have distinct religions and religious cultures, with the Greek Cypriots traditionally being Greek Orthodox and Turkish Cypriots traditionally being Sunni Muslims, which has partly hindered cultural exchange. Greek Cypriots have influences from Greece and Christianity, while Turkish Cypriots have influences from Turkey and Islam.
Who was the first important Cyprus painter of modern times?
572ea2bbc246551400ce4446
Vassilis Vryonides
60
False
Where did Vassilis Vryonides study?
572ea2bbc246551400ce4447
Academy of Fine Arts in Venice
110
False
Name one of the individuals considered the founding fathers of modern Cypriot art.
572ea2bbc246551400ce4448
Adamantios Diamantis
203
False
Name the other individual considered the founding fathers of modern Cypriot art.
572ea2bbc246551400ce4449
Christopheros Savva
285
False
Where do many Cypriot artists train?
572ea2bbc246551400ce444a
England
613
False
In modern times Cypriot art history begins with the painter Vassilis Vryonides (1883–1958) who studied at the Academy of Fine Arts in Venice. Arguably the two founding fathers of modern Cypriot art were Adamantios Diamantis (1900–1994) who studied at London's Royal College of Art and Christopheros Savva (1924–1968) who also studied in London, at Saint Martin's School of Art. In many ways these two artists set the template for subsequent Cypriot art and both their artistic styles and the patterns of their education remain influential to this day. In particular the majority of Cypriot artists still train in England while others train at art schools in Greece and local art institutions such as the Cyprus College of Art, University of Nicosia and the Frederick Institute of Technology.
What type of art is being promoted by art institutions in Cyprus?
572ea349cb0c0d14000f13b8
conceptual art
86
False
What types of places can Cypriots visit to experience art?
572ea349cb0c0d14000f13b9
Municipal art galleries
215
False
What year was Cyprus supposed to host the international art festival Manifesta?
572ea349cb0c0d14000f13ba
2006
388
False
One of the features of Cypriot art is a tendency towards figurative painting although conceptual art is being rigorously promoted by a number of art "institutions" and most notably the Nicosia Municipal Art Centre. Municipal art galleries exist in all the main towns and there is a large and lively commercial art scene. Cyprus was due to host the international art festival Manifesta in 2006 but this was cancelled at the last minute following a dispute between the Dutch organizers of Manifesta and the Cyprus Ministry of Education and Culture over the location of some of the Manifesta events in the Turkish sector of the capital Nicosia.
Traditional Cyprus music has what other types of genres in common?
572eaab3c246551400ce4492
Greek, Turkish, and Arabic
70
False
What are the names of the Greco-Turkish dances?
572eaab3c246551400ce4493
sousta, syrtos, zeibekikos, tatsia, and karsilamas
146
False
What are the names of the Middle-Eastern inspired dances?
572eaab3c246551400ce4494
tsifteteli and arapies
236
False
What is chattista?
572eaab3c246551400ce4495
form of musical poetry
276
False
Where is chattista performed?
572eaab3c246551400ce4496
traditional feasts and celebrations
346
False
The traditional folk music of Cyprus has several common elements with Greek, Turkish, and Arabic music including Greco-Turkish dances such as the sousta, syrtos, zeibekikos, tatsia, and karsilamas as well as the Middle Eastern-inspired tsifteteli and arapies. There is also a form of musical poetry known as chattista which is often performed at traditional feasts and celebrations. The instruments commonly associated with Cyprus folk music are the bouzouki, oud ("outi"), violin ("fkiolin"), lute ("laouto"), accordion, Cyprus flute ("pithkiavlin") and percussion (including the "toumperleki"). Composers associated with traditional Cypriot music include Evagoras Karageorgis, Marios Tokas, Solon Michaelides and Savvas Salides. Among musicians is also the acclaimed pianist Cyprien Katsaris and composer and artistic director of the European Capital of Culture initiative Marios Joannou Elia.
What influences popular music in Cyprus?
572eab10c246551400ce449c
Greek Laïka scene
55
False
What are some famous Cypriot artists?
572eab10c246551400ce449d
Anna Vissi, Evridiki, and Sarbel
141
False
What other genres of music are enjoyed in Cyprus?
572eab10c246551400ce449e
Hip Hop, R&B and reggae
175
False
Which artists are associated with Cypriot rock music?
572eab10c246551400ce449f
Michalis Hatzigiannis and Alkinoos Ioannidis
369
False
What are some famous metal Cypriot bands?
572eab10c246551400ce44a0
Armageddon (rev.16:16), Blynd, Winter's Verge and Quadraphonic
487
False
Popular music in Cyprus is generally influenced by the Greek Laïka scene; artists who play in this genre include international platinum star Anna Vissi, Evridiki, and Sarbel. Hip Hop, R&B and reggae have been supported by the emergence of Cypriot rap and the urban music scene at Ayia Napa. Cypriot rock music and Éntekhno rock is often associated with artists such as Michalis Hatzigiannis and Alkinoos Ioannidis. Metal also has a small following in Cyprus represented by bands such as Armageddon (rev.16:16), Blynd, Winter's Verge and Quadraphonic.
What type of artistic form flourished at the time of the Middle Ages?
572eabafc246551400ce44a6
Epic poetry
0
False
What was the time period of Frankish rule?
572eabafc246551400ce44a7
4th century–1489
223
False
Who is one of the scholars that fled Cyprus during troubled times?
572eabafc246551400ce44a8
Ioannis Kigalas
485
False
Where did scholar Ioannis Kigalas flee to in the 17th century?
572eabafc246551400ce44a9
Italy
544
False
Epic poetry, notably the "acritic songs", flourished during Middle Ages. Two chronicles, one written by Leontios Machairas and the other by Georgios Voustronios, cover the entire Middle Ages until the end of Frankish rule (4th century–1489). Poèmes d'amour written in medieval Greek Cypriot date back from the 16th century. Some of them are actual translations of poems written by Petrarch, Bembo, Ariosto and G. Sannazzaro. Many Cypriot scholars fled Cyprus at troubled times such as Ioannis Kigalas (c. 1622–1687) who migrated from Cyprus to Italy in the 17th century, several of his works have survived in books of other scholars.
Who are some famous Cypriot folk poets?
572eac3fc246551400ce44b8
Dimitris Lipertis, Vasilis Michaelides and Pavlos Liasides
232
False
Which Turkish Cypriot writer has been nominated for the Nobel Prize in literature twice?
572eac3fc246551400ce44b9
Osman Türkay
401
False
Who is a modern Greek Cypriot writer and poet?
572eac3fc246551400ce44ba
Kostas Montis
66
False
Modern Greek Cypriot literary figures include the poet and writer Kostas Montis, poet Kyriakos Charalambides, poet Michalis Pasiardis, writer Nicos Nicolaides, Stylianos Atteshlis, Altheides, Loukis Akritas and Demetris Th. Gotsis. Dimitris Lipertis, Vasilis Michaelides and Pavlos Liasides are folk poets who wrote poems mainly in the Cypriot-Greek dialect. Among leading Turkish Cypriot writers are Osman Türkay, twice nominated for the Nobel Prize in Literature, Özker Yaşın, Neriman Cahit, Urkiye Mine Balman, Mehmet Yaşın and Neşe Yaşın.
Where was William Shakespeare's Othello set?
572eacbfcb0c0d14000f1442
Cyprus
158
False
Where did British writer Lawrence Durrell reside from 1952-1956?
572eacbfcb0c0d14000f1443
Cyprus
207
False
What book did Lawrence Durrell write while living on Cyprus?
572eacbfcb0c0d14000f1444
Bitter Lemons
330
False
Which 2014 novel uses Cyprus as its main location?
572eacbfcb0c0d14000f1445
The Sunrise
513
False
Examples of Cyprus in foreign literature, include the works of Shakespeare, with the majority of the play Othello by William Shakespeare set on the island of Cyprus. British writer Lawrence Durrell lived in Cyprus from 1952 until 1956, during his time working for the British colonial government on the island, and wrote the book Bitter Lemons concerning his time in Cyprus which won the second Duff Cooper Prize in 1957. More recently British writer Victoria Hislop used Cyprus as the setting for her 2014 novel The Sunrise.
What is the name of a local television company in Cyprus?
572ead24dfa6aa1500f8d29f
Cyprus Broadcasting Corporation
61
False
Which television broadcasters produce art and cultural programming?
572ead24dfa6aa1500f8d2a0
Cyprus Broadcasting Corporation and BRT
506
False
What is BRT?
572ead24dfa6aa1500f8d2a1
the Turkish Cypriot equivalent to the Cyprus Broadcasting Corporation
330
False
Local television companies in Cyprus include the state owned Cyprus Broadcasting Corporation which runs two television channels. In addition on the Greek side of the island there are the private channels ANT1 Cyprus, Plus TV, Mega Channel, Sigma TV, Nimonia TV (NTV) and New Extra. In Northern Cyprus, the local channels are BRT, the Turkish Cypriot equivalent to the Cyprus Broadcasting Corporation, and a number of private channels. The majority of local arts and cultural programming is produced by the Cyprus Broadcasting Corporation and BRT, with local arts documentaries, review programmes and filmed drama series.
What is the amount in Euros of money set aside for the Cinema Advisory Committee?
572eadd5dfa6aa1500f8d2a5
850,000 Euros
217
False
Who finances European film co-productions?
572eadd5dfa6aa1500f8d2a6
Council of Europe's Eurimages Fund
324
False
What was the first feature film to receive funding  from Eurimages?
572eadd5dfa6aa1500f8d2a7
I Sphagi tou Kokora
534
False
Which film was awarded the Best Screenwriting and Best Photography at the London Greek Film Festival?
572eadd5dfa6aa1500f8d2a8
Cyprus Guilt
1058
False
In 1994, cinematographic production received a boost with the establishment of the Cinema Advisory Committee. As of the year 2000, the annual amount set aside in the national budget stands at Cy Pounds 500,000 (about 850,000 Euros). In addition to government grants, Cypriot co-productions are eligible for funding from the Council of Europe's Eurimages Fund, which finances European film co-productions. To date, four feature-length films in which a Cypriot was executive producer have received funding from Eurimages. The first was I Sphagi tou Kokora (1992), completed in 1996, Hellados (And the Trains Fly to the Sky, 1995), which is currently in post-production, and Costas Demetriou's O Dromos gia tin Ithaki (The Road to Ithaka, 1997) which premiered in March 2000. The theme song to The Road to Ithaka was composed by Costas Cacoyannis and sung by Alexia Vassiliou. In September 1999, To Tama (The Promise) by Andreas Pantzis also received funding from the Eurimages Fund. In 2009 the Greek director, writer and producer Vassilis Mazomenos filmed in Cyprus Guilt. The film was awarded in 2012 with the Best Screenwriting and Best Photography award in London Greek Film Festival (UK) and was official selection in Montreal World Film Festival, Cairo International Film Festival, India International Film Festival, Tallinn Black Nights Film Festival, Fantasporto and opening film in the Panorama of European Cinema in Athens. In 2010 the film was Nominated for the best film from the Hellenic Film Academy.
What are some famous seafood and fish dishes?
572eae27cb0c0d14000f1452
squid, octopus, red mullet, and sea bass
32
False
What fruits are commonly used in foods?
572eae27cb0c0d14000f1453
Cucumber and tomato
74
False
What is lountza?
572eae27cb0c0d14000f1454
smoked pork loin
381
False
What is souvlaki?
572eae27cb0c0d14000f1455
pork and chicken cooked over charcoal
433
False
What is sheftalia?
572eae27cb0c0d14000f1456
minced meat wrapped in mesentery
488
False
Seafood and fish dishes include squid, octopus, red mullet, and sea bass. Cucumber and tomato are used widely in salads. Common vegetable preparations include potatoes in olive oil and parsley, pickled cauliflower and beets, asparagus and taro. Other traditional delicacies of are meat marinated in dried coriander seeds and wine, and eventually dried and smoked, such as lountza (smoked pork loin), charcoal-grilled lamb, souvlaki (pork and chicken cooked over charcoal), and sheftalia (minced meat wrapped in mesentery). Pourgouri (bulgur, cracked wheat) is the traditional source of carbohydrate other than bread, and is used to make the delicacy koubes.
Can you name some common vegetables used in Cyprus?
572eae65cb0c0d14000f145c
courgettes, green peppers, okra, green beans
87
False
Can you name some common fruits used in Cyprus?
572eae65cb0c0d14000f145d
pears, apples, grapes, oranges, mandarines
324
False
Can you name some common pulses used in Cyprus?
572eae65cb0c0d14000f145e
beans, broad beans, peas, black-eyed beans
220
False
Fresh vegetables and fruits are common ingredients. Frequently used vegetables include courgettes, green peppers, okra, green beans, artichokes, carrots, tomatoes, cucumbers, lettuce and grape leaves, and pulses such as beans, broad beans, peas, black-eyed beans, chick-peas and lentils. The most common fruits and nuts are pears, apples, grapes, oranges, mandarines, nectarines, medlar, blackberries, cherry, strawberries, figs, watermelon, melon, avocado, lemon, pistachio, almond, chestnut, walnut, and hazelnut.
Which Cypriot tennis player ranked 8th in the world?
572eaedccb0c0d14000f146c
Marcos Baghdatis
14
False
How high did Kyriakos Ioannou jump in Osaka in 2007?
572eaedccb0c0d14000f146d
2.35 m
198
False
What organization does Costas Philippou participate in?
572eaedccb0c0d14000f146e
Ultimate Fighting Championship
546
False
Where does Tio Ellinas race?
572eaedccb0c0d14000f146f
GP3 Series for Marussia Manor Motorsport
431
False
Tennis player Marcos Baghdatis was ranked 8th in the world, was a finalist at the Australian Open, and reached the Wimbledon semi-final, all in 2006. High jumper Kyriakos Ioannou achieved a jump of 2.35 m at the 11th IAAF World Championships in Athletics in Osaka, Japan, in 2007, winning the bronze medal. He has been ranked third in the world. In motorsports, Tio Ellinas is a successful race car driver, currently racing in the GP3 Series for Marussia Manor Motorsport. There is also mixed martial artist Costas Philippou, who competes in the Ultimate Fighting Championship promotion's middleweight division. Costas holds a 6-3 record in UFC bouts, and recently defeated "The Monsoon" Lorenz Larkin with a Knockout in the 1st round.
Steven_Spielberg
What issue did Spielberg address in his movie Schindler's List?
572e7d5203f98919007566ad
the Holocaust
291
False
What issue did Spielberg address in his movie Amistad?
572e7d5203f98919007566ae
the transatlantic slave trade
328
False
What issue did Spielberg address in his movie Munich?
572e7d5203f98919007566af
terrorism
455
False
How long has Steven Spielberg had his career so far?
572e7d5203f98919007566b0
more than four decades
21
False
In what film did Spielberg address humanistic issues?
573189d6e6313a140071d062
Schindler's List
309
False
In what film did Spielberg cover the slave trade?
573189d6e6313a140071d063
Amistad
362
False
In what films did Spielberg address war?
573189d6e6313a140071d064
Empire of the Sun, Saving Private Ryan, War Horse and Bridge of Spies
380
False
In what film did Spielberg address terrorism?
573189d6e6313a140071d065
Munich
469
False
What type of films did Spielberg find early success with?
573189d6e6313a140071d066
y science-fiction and adventure
116
False
Schindler's List
309
What is Spielberg's most critically acclaimed film?
5ad4a653ba00c4001a268ec1
True
Amistad
362
What film of Spielberg's was his first to address humanistic issues?
5ad4a653ba00c4001a268ec2
True
Indiana Jones
542
What was Spielberg's first adventure film?
5ad4a653ba00c4001a268ec3
True
Close Encounters of the Third Kind
502
What was Spielberg's first science-fiction movie?
5ad4a653ba00c4001a268ec4
True
In a career spanning more than four decades, Spielberg's films have covered many themes and genres. Spielberg's early science-fiction and adventure films were seen as archetypes of modern Hollywood blockbuster filmmaking. In later years, his films began addressing humanistic issues such as the Holocaust (in Schindler's List), the transatlantic slave trade (in Amistad), war (in Empire of the Sun, Saving Private Ryan, War Horse and Bridge of Spies) and terrorism (in Munich). His other films include Close Encounters of the Third Kind, the Indiana Jones film series, and A.I. Artificial Intelligence.
Where was Steven Spielberg born?
572e8172dfa6aa1500f8d051
Cincinnati, Ohio
22
False
What religion was Steven Spielberg's family?
572e8172dfa6aa1500f8d052
Orthodox Jewish
46
False
Where were Steven Spielberg's granparents from?
572e8172dfa6aa1500f8d053
Ukraine
317
False
Where did Steven Spielberg's family move to in 1953?
572e8172dfa6aa1500f8d054
Phoenix, Arizona
518
False
What job did Steven Spielberg's father have?
572e8172dfa6aa1500f8d055
electrical engineer
208
False
Where was Spielberg born?
57318b4d05b4da19006bd276
Cincinnati, Ohio
22
False
What religion was Spielberg's family?
57318b4d05b4da19006bd277
Orthodox Jewish
46
False
What was Spielberg's mother's career?
57318b4e05b4da19006bd278
restaurateur and concert pianist
121
False
What was Spielberg's father's career?
57318b4e05b4da19006bd279
electrical engineer involved in the development of computers
208
False
Where did Spielberg's paternal grandparents immigrate from?
57318b4e05b4da19006bd27a
Ukraine
317
False
Arnold
171
What was Spielberg's paternal grandfather's first name?
5ad4a8885b96ef001a109d28
True
Leah
82
What was Spielberg's paternal grandmother's first name?
5ad4a8885b96ef001a109d29
True
1953
578
In what year did Rabbi Albert L. Lewis join Hebrew School in Phoenix, Arizona?
5ad4a8885b96ef001a109d2a
True
1950
388
In what year did Spielberg's father become an electrical engineer?
5ad4a8885b96ef001a109d2b
True
1917
194
In what year was RCA founded?
5ad4a8885b96ef001a109d2c
True
Spielberg was born in Cincinnati, Ohio, to an Orthodox Jewish family. His mother, Leah (Adler) Posner (born 1920), was a restaurateur and concert pianist, and his father, Arnold Spielberg (born 1917), was an electrical engineer involved in the development of computers. His paternal grandparents were immigrants from Ukraine who settled in Cincinnati in the first decade of the 1900s. In 1950, his family moved to Haddon Township, New Jersey when his father took a job with RCA. Three years later, the family moved to Phoenix, Arizona.:548 Spielberg attended Hebrew school from 1953 to 1957, in classes taught by Rabbi Albert L. Lewis.
How much money has all of Steven Spielberg's movies grossed worldwide?
572e8213c246551400ce427a
exceeds $9 billion
347
False
What composer has Steven Spielberg been associated with since 1974?
572e8213c246551400ce427b
John Williams
531
False
How much money is Steven Spielberg worth?
572e8213c246551400ce427c
more than $3 billion
472
False
What record does Steven Spielberg have?
572e8213c246551400ce427d
the highest-grossing director in history
388
False
Who has composed most of Steven Spielberg's movies?
572e8213c246551400ce427e
John Williams
531
False
When was Jaws released?
57318afba5e9cc1400cdc01f
1975
143
False
When did Jurassic Park come out?
57318afba5e9cc1400cdc020
1993
204
False
What did Spielberg win for Schindler's List?
57318afba5e9cc1400cdc021
Academy Award for Best Director
18
False
What is Spielberg's net worth?
57318afba5e9cc1400cdc022
more than $3 billion
472
False
Who composes music for most of Spielberg's movies?
57318afba5e9cc1400cdc023
John Williams
531
False
$9 billion
355
How much have all Spielberg-directed films combined earned in adjusted gross?
5ad4a7c0ba00c4001a268f06
True
$3 billion
482
How much in unadjusted gross have Spielberg-directed films combined earned in the United States?
5ad4a7c0ba00c4001a268f07
True
Jurassic Park
189
What is one of Spielberg's movies that has had the music composed by John Williams?
5ad4a7c0ba00c4001a268f08
True
Saving Private Ryan
82
What is one of Spielberg's movies that John Williams hasn't composed the music for?
5ad4a7c0ba00c4001a268f09
True
Jaws
137
What was Spielberg's first movie?
5ad4a7c0ba00c4001a268f0a
True
Spielberg won the Academy Award for Best Director for Schindler's List (1993) and Saving Private Ryan (1998). Three of Spielberg's films—Jaws (1975), E.T. the Extra-Terrestrial (1982), and Jurassic Park (1993)—achieved box office records, originated and came to epitomize the blockbuster film. The unadjusted gross of all Spielberg-directed films exceeds $9 billion worldwide, making him the highest-grossing director in history. His personal net worth is estimated to be more than $3 billion. He has been associated with composer John Williams since 1974, who composed music for all save five of Spielberg's feature films.
When did Steven Spielberg have trouble dealing with being an Orthodox Jew?
572e847d03f9891900756713
As a child
0
False
How did Steven Spielberg feel about being an Orhtodox Jew?
572e847d03f9891900756714
embarrassed
256
False
What kind of prejudice did Spielberg have to deal with in High school?
572e847d03f9891900756715
anti-Semitic
490
False
How many bloody noses did Spielberg get in High School?
572e847d03f9891900756716
Two
577
False
At what age was Spielberg embarrassed by his family being Jewish?
57318ba805b4da19006bd28a
seven, eight, nine years old
204
False
What was Spielberg bullied because of?
57318ba805b4da19006bd28b
anti-Semitic prejudice
490
False
How many bloody noses did Spielberg get in high school?
57318ba805b4da19006bd28c
Two
577
False
Two
577
How many bloody noses did Spielberg get from fighting while in elementary school?
5ad4a9ee5b96ef001a109d46
True
Two
577
How many Orthodox Jew friends did Spielberg have while in high school?
5ad4a9ee5b96ef001a109d47
True
nine years old
218
At what age did Spielberg become alright with being an Orthodox Jew?
5ad4a9ee5b96ef001a109d48
True
Two
577
How many bloody noses from fighting did Spielberg get in middle school?
5ad4a9ee5b96ef001a109d49
True
anti-Semitic
490
What kind of prejudice did Spielberg have to deal with while in elementary school?
5ad4a9ee5b96ef001a109d4a
True
As a child, Spielberg faced difficulty reconciling being an Orthodox Jew with the perception of him by other children he played with. "It isn't something I enjoy admitting," he once said, "but when I was seven, eight, nine years old, God forgive me, I was embarrassed because we were Orthodox Jews. I was embarrassed by the outward perception of my parents' Jewish practices. I was never really ashamed to be Jewish, but I was uneasy at times." Spielberg also said he suffered from acts of anti-Semitic prejudice and bullying: "In high school, I got smacked and kicked around. Two bloody noses. It was horrible."
What was Spielberg's first indepenent film?
572e85c9cb0c0d14000f1248
Firelight
797
False
How long was Spielberg's film "Escape to Nowhere"?
572e85c9cb0c0d14000f1249
40-minute
511
False
How much money did Spielberg spend to film Close Encounters?
572e85c9cb0c0d14000f124a
$500
874
False
Who did Spielberg get money from to film Close Encounters?
572e85c9cb0c0d14000f124b
his father
904
False
What genre was Spielberg's first film "The Last Gunfight"
572e85c9cb0c0d14000f124c
Western
368
False
When did Spielberg join the Boy Scouts?
57318c2ca5e9cc1400cdc029
1958
3
False
What film did Spielberg make to earn a merit badge?
57318c2ca5e9cc1400cdc02a
The Last Gunfight
134
False
Why did Spielberg make a movie instead of taking still photos for the photography merit badge?
57318c2ca5e9cc1400cdc02b
dad's still-camera was broken
216
False
At what age did Spielberg make 'Escape to Nowhere'?
57318c2ca5e9cc1400cdc02c
thirteen
448
False
What film led to Close Encounters?
57318c2ca5e9cc1400cdc02d
Firelight
797
False
8
115
How many high school friends did Spielberg have?
5ad4ac025b96ef001a109d6e
True
$500
874
How much did Escape to Nowhere cost to make?
5ad4ac025b96ef001a109d6f
True
140-minute
753
What was the runtime for Close Encounters?
5ad4ac025b96ef001a109d70
True
1963
672
In what year did Spielberg tell a magazine interviewer about earning his Boy Scouts merit badge?
5ad4ac025b96ef001a109d71
True
8 mm
115
What motion picture format was Firelight shot in?
5ad4ac025b96ef001a109d72
True
In 1958, he became a Boy Scout and fulfilled a requirement for the photography merit badge by making a nine-minute 8 mm film entitled The Last Gunfight. Years later, Spielberg recalled to a magazine interviewer, "My dad's still-camera was broken, so I asked the scoutmaster if I could tell a story with my father's movie camera. He said yes, and I got an idea to do a Western. I made it and got my merit badge. That was how it all started." At age thirteen, while living in Phoenix, Spielberg won a prize for a 40-minute war film he titled Escape to Nowhere, using a cast composed of other high school friends. That motivated him to make 15 more amateur 8mm films.:548 In 1963, at age sixteen, Spielberg wrote and directed his first independent film, a 140-minute science fiction adventure called Firelight, which would later inspire Close Encounters. The film was made for $500, most of which came from his father, and was shown in a local cinema for one evening, which earned back its cost.
What job was SPielberg offered when he was a student?
572e877adfa6aa1500f8d0b9
Universal Studios
67
False
Who offered Spielberg a contract at Universal Studios?
572e877adfa6aa1500f8d0ba
Sidney Sheinberg
275
False
What short film did Spielberg make for theatrical release?
572e877adfa6aa1500f8d0bb
Amblin
215
False
What did Steven Spielberg do to begin directing TV prouctions for Universal?
572e877adfa6aa1500f8d0bc
dropped out of college
532
False
How did Sidney Sheinberg feel about the film "Amblin'"
572e877adfa6aa1500f8d0bd
impressed
296
False
What studio gave Spielberg an unpaid internship?
57318ca7497a881900249019
Universal Studios
67
False
What department did Spielberg have an unpaid internship with?
57318ca7497a88190024901a
editing
94
False
How long was 'Amblin'?
57318ca7497a88190024901b
26-minute
198
False
What was Sidney Sheinberg's position with Universal?
57318ca7497a88190024901c
vice president
260
False
How long of a contract did Sheinberg give Spielberg?
57318ca7497a88190024901d
seven-year
377
False
Sidney Sheinberg
275
Who was the producer for Amblin'?
5ad4ad395b96ef001a109d82
True
Sidney Sheinberg
275
Who greenlit Spielberg making Amblin'?
5ad4ad395b96ef001a109d83
True
Sidney Sheinberg
275
Who was the CEO of Universal Studios at the time that Amblin' was released?
5ad4ad395b96ef001a109d84
True
Sidney Sheinberg
275
Who offered Spielberg an intern job at Universal Studios?
5ad4ad395b96ef001a109d85
True
While still a student, he was offered a small unpaid intern job at Universal Studios with the editing department. He was later given the opportunity to make a short film for theatrical release, the 26-minute, 35mm, Amblin', which he wrote and directed. Studio vice president Sidney Sheinberg was impressed by the film, which had won a number of awards, and offered Spielberg a seven-year directing contract. It made him the youngest director ever to be signed for a long-term deal with a major Hollywood studio.:548 He subsequently dropped out of college to begin professionally directing TV productions with Universal.
Who starred in the TV show segment "Eyes"
572e88f5dfa6aa1500f8d0dd
Joan Crawford
157
False
What was Steven Spielberg's first feature-length assignment?
572e88f5dfa6aa1500f8d0de
an episode of The Name of the Game called "L.A. 2017".
466
False
What genre was Steven Spielberg's episode of "The Name of the Game"?
572e88f5dfa6aa1500f8d0df
science fiction
537
False
What was the relatioship between Joan Crawford and Steven Spielberg?
572e88f5dfa6aa1500f8d0e0
reportedly close friends
195
False
What year was Spielberg hired to direct one of the segments for "Night Gallery"?
572e88f5dfa6aa1500f8d0e1
1969
91
False
What was the first TV episode Spielberg directed part of?
57318d40a5e9cc1400cdc04f
1969 pilot episode of Night Gallery
91
False
Who starred in Spielberg's TV debut?
57318d40a5e9cc1400cdc050
Joan Crawford
157
False
What was Spielberg's first full TV episode to direct?
57318d40a5e9cc1400cdc051
an episode of The Name of the Game called "L.A. 2017"
466
False
What genre was 'LA 2017'?
57318d40a5e9cc1400cdc052
futuristic science fiction
526
False
What law show did Spielberg work on?
57318d40a5e9cc1400cdc053
Owen Marshall: Counselor at Law
706
False
1969
91
In what year did Spielberg direct an episode of The Name of the Game?
5ad4aeca5b96ef001a109d8a
True
1969
91
In what year did Spielberg direct an episode of Marcus Welby, M.D.?
5ad4aeca5b96ef001a109d8b
True
Eyes
142
What was the name of the Marcus Welby, M.D. episode that Spielberg directed?
5ad4aeca5b96ef001a109d8c
True
L.A.
509
In what city did Joan Crawford die?
5ad4aeca5b96ef001a109d8d
True
1969
91
In what year did Spielberg work on the tv show Owen Marshall: Counselor at Law?
5ad4aeca5b96ef001a109d8e
True
His first professional TV job came when he was hired to direct one of the segments for the 1969 pilot episode of Night Gallery. The segment, "Eyes," starred Joan Crawford; she and Spielberg were reportedly close friends until her death. The episode is unusual in his body of work, in that the camerawork is more highly stylized than his later, more "mature" films. After this, and an episode of Marcus Welby, M.D., Spielberg got his first feature-length assignment: an episode of The Name of the Game called "L.A. 2017". This futuristic science fiction episode impressed Universal Studios and they signed him to a short contract. He did another segment on Night Gallery and did some work for shows such as Owen Marshall: Counselor at Law and The Psychiatrist, before landing the first series episode of Columbo (previous episodes were actually TV films).
How many TV films did Universal sign Spielbergo to direct?
572e9600c246551400ce4396
four
68
False
What British critic helped boost Steven Spielberg's career?
572e9600c246551400ce4397
Dilys Powell
377
False
Who starred in the TV show "Savage"?
572e9600c246551400ce4398
Martin Landau
712
False
How did Steven Spielberg's film "The Sugarland Express" do in the box office?
572e9600c246551400ce4399
poorly
1081
False
What were the married couple in Steven Spielberg's film "The Sugarland Express" trying to regain?
572e9600c246551400ce439a
custody of their baby
875
False
How many TV movies was Spielberg signed to direct?
57318dc8a5e9cc1400cdc061
four
68
False
What kind of truck was 'Duel' about?
57318dc8a5e9cc1400cdc062
Peterbilt 281 tanker
170
False
Which British critic praised 'Duel'?
57318dc8a5e9cc1400cdc063
Dilys Powell
377
False
Which TV film Spielberg directed played off 'The Exorcist'?
57318dc8a5e9cc1400cdc064
Something Evil
453
False
Who starred in 'Savage'/
57318dc8a5e9cc1400cdc065
Martin Landau
712
False
Dennis Weaver
237
Who starred in Duel as the tanker truck driver?
5ad4b0075b96ef001a109d94
True
Martin Landau
712
Who starred in Something Evil?
5ad4b0075b96ef001a109d95
True
Dennis Weaver
237
Who starred as the father in The Sugarland Express?
5ad4b0075b96ef001a109d96
True
a psychotic Peterbilt 281 tanker truck driver
158
What was the tv movie Savage about?
5ad4b0075b96ef001a109d97
True
Dilys Powell
377
Who starred as the mother in The Sugarland Express?
5ad4b0075b96ef001a109d98
True
Based on the strength of his work, Universal signed Spielberg to do four TV films. The first was a Richard Matheson adaptation called Duel. The film is about a psychotic Peterbilt 281 tanker truck driver who chases the terrified driver (Dennis Weaver) of a small Plymouth Valiant and tries to run him off the road. Special praise of this film by the influential British critic Dilys Powell was highly significant to Spielberg's career. Another TV film (Something Evil) was made and released to capitalize on the popularity of The Exorcist, then a major best-selling book which had not yet been released as a film. He fulfilled his contract by directing the TV film-length pilot of a show called Savage, starring Martin Landau. Spielberg's debut full-length feature film was The Sugarland Express, about a married couple who are chased by police as the couple tries to regain custody of their baby. Spielberg's cinematography for the police chase was praised by reviewers, and The Hollywood Reporter stated that "a major new director is on the horizon.":223 However, the film fared poorly at the box office and received a limited release.
What film did Richard D. Zanuck and David Brown offer Steven Spielberg to direct?
572e9a3fc246551400ce43c4
Jaws
94
False
Why was Jaws nearly shut down?
572e9a3fc246551400ce43c5
delays and budget over-runs
349
False
How many Academy Awards did the film "Jaws" win?
572e9a3fc246551400ce43c6
three
458
False
How much money did the film "Jaws" gross worldwide?
572e9a3fc246551400ce43c7
$470 million worldwide
542
False
What was the film "Jaws" nominated for?
572e9a3fc246551400ce43c8
Best Picture
869
False
Who made Spielberg the 'Jaws' director?
57318e2fa5e9cc1400cdc06b
Richard D. Zanuck and David Brown
17
False
Who wrote the 'Jaws' book?
57318e2fa5e9cc1400cdc06c
Peter Benchley
136
False
How many Academy Awards did 'Jaws' win?
57318e2fa5e9cc1400cdc06d
three
458
False
How much did 'Jaws' earn in theaters?
57318e2fa5e9cc1400cdc06e
more than $470 million worldwide
532
False
How many times did Spielberg work with Richard Dreyfus?
57318e2fa5e9cc1400cdc06f
three
916
False
$470 million
542
How much did Jaws earn in America?
5ad4b2035b96ef001a109dd0
True
three
916
How many Best Picture Academy awards has Richard D. Zanuck won?
5ad4b2035b96ef001a109dd1
True
three
916
How many Best Picture Academy awards has David Brown won?
5ad4b2035b96ef001a109dd2
True
$470 million
542
How much profit has Richard Dreyfuss movies made over the course of his career?
5ad4b2035b96ef001a109dd3
True
Jaws
94
Which one of Spielberg's movies has he said had few problems directing?
5ad4b2035b96ef001a109dd4
True
Studio producers Richard D. Zanuck and David Brown offered Spielberg the director's chair for Jaws, a thriller-horror film based on the Peter Benchley novel about an enormous killer shark. Spielberg has often referred to the gruelling shoot as his professional crucible. Despite the film's ultimate, enormous success, it was nearly shut down due to delays and budget over-runs. But Spielberg persevered and finished the film. It was an enormous hit, winning three Academy Awards (for editing, original score and sound) and grossing more than $470 million worldwide at the box office. It also set the domestic record for box office gross, leading to what the press described as "Jawsmania.":248 Jaws made Spielberg a household name and one of America's youngest multi-millionaires, allowing him a great deal of autonomy for his future projects.:250 It was nominated for Best Picture and featured Spielberg's first of three collaborations with actor Richard Dreyfuss.
What films did Spielberg turn down in the 70s?
57318f17497a881900249035
Jaws 2, King Kong and Superman
27
False
How many Oscars did Close Encounters win?
57318f17497a881900249036
two
451
False
How many Oscars did Close Encounters get nominated for, besides Best Director?
57318f17497a881900249037
six
396
False
What was the genre of '1941'?
57318f17497a881900249038
World War II farce
672
False
How much did '1941' earn?
57318f17497a881900249039
over $92.4 million worldwide
743
False
1941
651
In what year did Vilmos Zsigmond become a cinematographer?
5ad4b2dd5b96ef001a109dda
True
1941
651
In what year did Frank E. Warner become a sound effects editor?
5ad4b2dd5b96ef001a109ddb
True
$92.4
748
How much did Close Encounters earn overseas?
5ad4b2dd5b96ef001a109ddc
True
Richard Dreyfuss
79
Who starred in 1941?
5ad4b2dd5b96ef001a109ddd
True
$92.4 million
748
How much did 1941 earn in the US?
5ad4b2dd5b96ef001a109dde
True
Rejecting offers to direct Jaws 2, King Kong and Superman, Spielberg and actor Richard Dreyfuss re-convened to work on a film about UFOs, which became Close Encounters of the Third Kind (1977). One of the rare films both written and directed by Spielberg, Close Encounters was a critical and box office hit, giving Spielberg his first Best Director nomination from the Academy as well as earning six other Academy Awards nominations. It won Oscars in two categories (Cinematography, Vilmos Zsigmond, and a Special Achievement Award for Sound Effects Editing, Frank E. Warner). This second blockbuster helped to secure Spielberg's rise. His next film, 1941, a big-budgeted World War II farce, was not nearly as successful and though it grossed over $92.4 million worldwide (and did make a small profit for co-producing studios Columbia and Universal) it was seen as a disappointment, mainly with the critics.
When did Spielberg re-release Close Encounters?
57318fb805b4da19006bd2b6
1980
156
False
What new footage did Columbia require for a Close Encounters revisit?
57318fb805b4da19006bd2b7
the interior of the mothership
396
False
What was the Close Encounters revisit called?
57318fb805b4da19006bd2b8
Close Encounters: The Special Edition
115
False
Which studio funded Close Encounters?
57318fb805b4da19006bd2b9
Columbia Pictures
87
False
When did a Close Encounters DVD come out?
57318fb805b4da19006bd2ba
2001
634
False
the interior of the mothership
507
What was one of the flaws Spielberg saw in the original Close Encounters?
5ad4ba895b96ef001a109e58
True
DVD release
639
Did the special edition or DVD release make more money?
5ad4ba895b96ef001a109e59
True
Columbia
290
Which studio released the 1977 version of Close Encounters?
5ad4ba895b96ef001a109e5a
True
Columbia
290
What studio released the 2001 DVD version of Close Encounters?
5ad4ba895b96ef001a109e5b
True
2001
634
In what year did Spielberg say he regretted showing the motherships interior in the 1980 version of Close Encounters?
5ad4ba895b96ef001a109e5c
True
Spielberg then revisited his Close Encounters project and, with financial backing from Columbia Pictures, released Close Encounters: The Special Edition in 1980. For this, Spielberg fixed some of the flaws he thought impeded the original 1977 version of the film and also, at the behest of Columbia, and as a condition of Spielberg revising the film, shot additional footage showing the audience the interior of the mothership seen at the end of the film (a decision Spielberg would later regret as he felt the interior of the mothership should have remained a mystery). Nevertheless, the re-release was a moderate success, while the 2001 DVD release of the film restored the original ending.
Who was responsible for Star Wars?
57319038a5e9cc1400cdc093
George Lucas
57
False
Who played Indiana Jones?
57319038a5e9cc1400cdc094
Harrison Ford
228
False
Who played Han Solo?
57319038a5e9cc1400cdc095
Harrison Ford
228
False
What was the first Indiana Jones movie?
57319038a5e9cc1400cdc096
Raiders of the Lost Ark
99
False
When did the first Indiana Jones movie come out?
57319038a5e9cc1400cdc097
1981
452
False
1981
452
In what year did Spielberg become friends with George Lucas?
5ad4bb7a5b96ef001a109e7e
True
1981
452
In what year did Blade Runner release?
5ad4bb7a5b96ef001a109e7f
True
1981
452
In what year did the second Star Wars movie get released?
5ad4bb7a5b96ef001a109e80
True
Blade Runner
773
What was the first movie Ridley Scott got an Oscar nomination for?
5ad4bb7a5b96ef001a109e81
True
Star Wars
28
What was the first movie George Lucas got an Oscar nomination for?
5ad4bb7a5b96ef001a109e82
True
Next, Spielberg teamed with Star Wars creator and friend George Lucas on an action adventure film, Raiders of the Lost Ark, the first of the Indiana Jones films. The archaeologist and adventurer hero Indiana Jones was played by Harrison Ford (whom Lucas had previously cast in his Star Wars films as Han Solo). The film was considered an homage to the cliffhanger serials of the Golden Age of Hollywood. It became the biggest film at the box office in 1981, and the recipient of numerous Oscar nominations including Best Director (Spielberg's second nomination) and Best Picture (the second Spielberg film to be nominated for Best Picture). Raiders is still considered a landmark example of the action-adventure genre. The film also led to Ford's casting in Ridley Scott's Blade Runner.
What rating did 'Temple of Doom' receive?
5731919ba5e9cc1400cdc0c1
PG
403
False
When did 'Temple of Doom' debut?
5731919ba5e9cc1400cdc0c2
1984
546
False
What movie caused 'PG-13' to be created?
5731919ba5e9cc1400cdc0c3
Gremlins
238
False
Why did Gremlins need 'PG-13'?
5731919ba5e9cc1400cdc0c4
the high level of violence in films targeted at younger audiences
294
False
What was Spielberg's future wife's career?
5731919ba5e9cc1400cdc0c5
actress
616
False
PG-13
274
What rating did Gremlins get?
5ad4bd015b96ef001a109ea6
True
Indiana Jones and the Temple of Doom
53
Which is the least violent Indiana Jones movie?
5ad4bd015b96ef001a109ea7
True
1984
546
In what year did the original Indiana Jones movie release?
5ad4bd015b96ef001a109ea8
True
1984
546
In what year did Kate Capshaw start her acting career?
5ad4bd015b96ef001a109ea9
True
1984
546
In what year did Kate Capshaw do her last movie?
5ad4bd015b96ef001a109eaa
True
His next directorial feature was the Raiders prequel Indiana Jones and the Temple of Doom. Teaming up once again with Lucas and Ford, the film was plagued with uncertainty for the material and script. This film and the Spielberg-produced Gremlins led to the creation of the PG-13 rating due to the high level of violence in films targeted at younger audiences. In spite of this, Temple of Doom is rated PG by the MPAA, even though it is the darkest and, possibly, most violent Indy film. Nonetheless, the film was still a huge blockbuster hit in 1984. It was on this project that Spielberg also met his future wife, actress Kate Capshaw.
Who wrote 'The Color Purple'?
5731920ce6313a140071d0ae
Alice Walker
63
False
What was 'The Color Purple' about?
5731920ce6313a140071d0af
a generation of empowered African-American women during depression-era America
131
False
Who starred in 'The Color Purple'?
5731920ce6313a140071d0b0
Whoopi Goldberg and future talk-show superstar Oprah Winfrey
220
False
What did Ebert think of 'The Color Purple'?
5731920ce6313a140071d0b1
proclaimed it the best film of the year and later entered it into his Great Films archive
399
False
How many Oscar nominations did 'The Color Purple' get?
5731920ce6313a140071d0b2
eleven
508
False
1985
3
In what year did the novel The Color Purple release?
5ad4bebc5b96ef001a109f0a
True
The Color Purple
28
What was Oprah Winfrey's first movie?
5ad4bebc5b96ef001a109f0b
True
The Color Purple
28
What was Whoopi Goldberg's first movie?
5ad4bebc5b96ef001a109f0c
True
In 1985, Spielberg released The Color Purple, an adaptation of Alice Walker's Pulitzer Prize-winning novel of the same name, about a generation of empowered African-American women during depression-era America. Starring Whoopi Goldberg and future talk-show superstar Oprah Winfrey, the film was a box office smash and critics hailed Spielberg's successful foray into the dramatic genre. Roger Ebert proclaimed it the best film of the year and later entered it into his Great Films archive. The film received eleven Academy Award nominations, including two for Goldberg and Winfrey. However, much to the surprise of many, Spielberg did not get a Best Director nomination.
Until the 1980s, when had an American film last been shot in Shanghai?
57319277e6313a140071d0b8
the 1930s
120
False
Who wrote 'Empire of the Sun'?
57319277e6313a140071d0b9
J. G. Ballard
148
False
Who starred in 'Empire of the Sun'?
57319277e6313a140071d0ba
John Malkovich and a young Christian Bale
215
False
Who thought 'Empire of the Sun' was the best film of the year?
57319277e6313a140071d0bb
Andrew Sarris
399
False
What was Spielberg's role on 'Batteries Not Included'?
57319277e6313a140071d0bc
co-producer
528
False
Shanghai
105
Where was "Batteries Not Included" shot?
5ad4bf625b96ef001a109f26
True
batteries not included
558
Before Empire of the Sun what was the last American movie shot in Shanghai?
5ad4bf625b96ef001a109f27
True
John Malkovich
215
Who was nominated for an Oscar for Empire of the Sun?
5ad4bf625b96ef001a109f28
True
1987
3
In what year did the novel Empire of the Sun get released?
5ad4bf625b96ef001a109f29
True
Empire of the Sun
187
What was Christian  Bale's first movie?
5ad4bf625b96ef001a109f2a
True
In 1987, as China began opening to Western capital investment, Spielberg shot the first American film in Shanghai since the 1930s, an adaptation of J. G. Ballard's autobiographical novel Empire of the Sun, starring John Malkovich and a young Christian Bale. The film garnered much praise from critics and was nominated for several Oscars, but did not yield substantial box office revenues. Reviewer Andrew Sarris called it the best film of the year and later included it among the best films of the decade. Spielberg was also a co-producer of the 1987 film *batteries not included.
When did the 3rd Indiana Jones film come out?
573192cde6313a140071d0c2
1989
105
False
What was the 3rd Indiana Jones film called?
573192cde6313a140071d0c3
Indiana Jones and the Last Crusade
112
False
Who played Indiana Jones's father?
573192cde6313a140071d0c4
Sean Connery
217
False
Who directed 'Batman'?
573192cde6313a140071d0c5
Tim Burton
455
False
What was 'Always' about?
573192cde6313a140071d0c6
a daredevil pilot who extinguishes forest fires
641
False
1989
105
When did the second Indiana Jones movie come out?
5ad4c0485b96ef001a109f30
True
Sean Connery
217
Besides Richard Dreyfuss who else starred in Always?
5ad4c0485b96ef001a109f31
True
Indiana Jones and the Last Crusade
112
What is Sean Connery's highest grossing movie?
5ad4c0485b96ef001a109f32
True
Indiana Jones and the Last Crusade
112
What is Spielberg's most profitable movie?
5ad4c0485b96ef001a109f33
True
Batman
490
What is Tim Burton's most profitable movie?
5ad4c0485b96ef001a109f34
True
After two forays into more serious dramatic films, Spielberg then directed the third Indiana Jones film, 1989's Indiana Jones and the Last Crusade. Once again teaming up with Lucas and Ford, Spielberg also cast actor Sean Connery in a supporting role as Indy's father. The film earned generally positive reviews and was another box office success, becoming the highest grossing film worldwide that year; its total box office receipts even topped those of Tim Burton's much-anticipated film Batman, which had been the bigger hit domestically. Also in 1989, he re-united with actor Richard Dreyfuss for the romantic comedy-drama Always, about a daredevil pilot who extinguishes forest fires. Spielberg's first romantic film, Always was only a moderate success and had mixed reviews.
Whose life was 'Schindler's List' based on?
5731933a05b4da19006bd2d0
Oskar Schindler
72
False
How many Jews did Schindler save?
5731933a05b4da19006bd2d1
1,100
123
False
What did Spielberg first win Best Director for?
5731933a05b4da19006bd2d2
Schindler's List
154
False
What did Spielberg do with 'Schindler's List' profits?
5731933a05b4da19006bd2d3
set up the Shoah Foundation, a non-profit organization that archives filmed testimony of Holocaust survivors
336
False
Where did the American Film Institute rank 'Schindler's List' in 1997?
5731933a05b4da19006bd2d4
#9
541
False
1997
449
In what year was the Shoah Foundation set up?
5ad4c1195b96ef001a109f4e
True
Schindler's List
23
What movie did the American Film Institute rank as #1 on their 10 Greatest American Films ever Made list in 2007?
5ad4c1195b96ef001a109f4f
True
Schindler's List
23
What was the first Spielberg movie to win the Best Picture award?
5ad4c1195b96ef001a109f50
True
1,100
123
How many Holocaust survivors have filmed testimony for the Shoah Foundation?
5ad4c1195b96ef001a109f51
True
Spielberg's next film, Schindler's List, was based on the true story of Oskar Schindler, a man who risked his life to save 1,100 Jews from the Holocaust. Schindler's List earned Spielberg his first Academy Award for Best Director (it also won Best Picture). With the film a huge success at the box office, Spielberg used the profits to set up the Shoah Foundation, a non-profit organization that archives filmed testimony of Holocaust survivors. In 1997, the American Film Institute listed it among the 10 Greatest American Films ever Made (#9) which moved up to (#8) when the list was remade in 2007.
Who did Tom Hanks play in 'Saving Private Ryan'?
5731939a497a881900249061
Capt. Miller
131
False
What war was 'Saving Private Ryan' about?
5731939a497a881900249062
World War II
54
False
How much did 'Saving Private Ryan' earn?
5731939a497a881900249063
over $481 million worldwide
343
False
Which film beat 'Saving Private Ryan' worldwide?
5731939a497a881900249064
Armageddon
493
False
Who directed 'Armageddon'?
5731939a497a881900249065
Michael Bay
479
False
Saving Private Ryan
72
What was Tom Hanks first movie?
5ad4c1c25b96ef001a109f70
True
$481 million
348
How much did Saving Private Ryan earn in America?
5ad4c1c25b96ef001a109f71
True
$481 million
348
How much did Armageddon make in the US?
5ad4c1c25b96ef001a109f72
True
Paramount Pictures
784
Which studio produced Armageddon?
5ad4c1c25b96ef001a109f73
True
Michael Bay
479
Who directed Enemy at the Gates?
5ad4c1c25b96ef001a109f74
True
His next theatrical release in that same year was the World War II film Saving Private Ryan, about a group of U.S. soldiers led by Capt. Miller (Tom Hanks) sent to bring home a paratrooper whose three older brothers were killed in the same twenty-four hours, June 5–6, of the Normandy landing. The film was a huge box office success, grossing over $481 million worldwide and was the biggest film of the year at the North American box office (worldwide it made second place after Michael Bay's Armageddon). Spielberg won his second Academy Award for his direction. The film's graphic, realistic depiction of combat violence influenced later war films such as Black Hawk Down and Enemy at the Gates. The film was also the first major hit for DreamWorks, which co-produced the film with Paramount Pictures (as such, it was Spielberg's first release from the latter that was not part of the Indiana Jones series). Later, Spielberg and Tom Hanks produced a TV mini-series based on Stephen Ambrose's book Band of Brothers. The ten-part HBO mini-series follows Easy Company of the 101st Airborne Division's 506th Parachute Infantry Regiment. The series won a number of awards at the Golden Globes and the Emmys.
What movie did Spielberg collaborate with Cruise for?
573193ec497a88190024906b
Minority Report
91
False
When is Minority Report set?
573193ec497a88190024906c
2054
228
False
What was the Rotten Tomatoes rating for Minority Report?
573193ec497a88190024906d
92%
385
False
How much did Minority Report earn?
573193ec497a88190024906e
over $358 million worldwide
492
False
When was Minority Report released?
573193ec497a88190024906f
2002
564
False
$358 million
497
How much did Minority Report earn in the US?
5ad4c24d5b96ef001a109f7a
True
2002
564
In what year was Philip K. Dicks novel Minority Report published?
5ad4c24d5b96ef001a109f7b
True
Spielberg
0
Who produced Minority Report?
5ad4c24d5b96ef001a109f7c
True
Minority Report
91
What was Spielberg's first move to blend CGI and live-action?
5ad4c24d5b96ef001a109f7d
True
Spielberg and actor Tom Cruise collaborated for the first time for the futuristic neo-noir Minority Report, based upon the science fiction short story written by Philip K. Dick about a Washington D.C. police captain in the year 2054 who has been foreseen to murder a man he has not yet met. The film received strong reviews with the review tallying website Rotten Tomatoes giving it a 92% approval rating, reporting that 206 out of the 225 reviews they tallied were positive. The film earned over $358 million worldwide. Roger Ebert, who named it the best film of 2002, praised its breathtaking vision of the future as well as for the way Spielberg blended CGI with live-action.
Which studios produced Spielberg's 'War of the Worlds'?
5731944605b4da19006bd2ee
Paramount and DreamWorks
94
False
Who wrote the 'War of the Worlds' book?
5731944605b4da19006bd2ef
H. G. Wells
134
False
When was the first 'War of the Worlds' movie released?
5731944605b4da19006bd2f0
1953
228
False
Who did the visual effects for 'War of the Worlds'?
5731944605b4da19006bd2f1
Industrial Light & Magic
317
False
How much did 'War of the Worlds' earn?
5731944605b4da19006bd2f2
over $591 million worldwide
567
False
1953
228
In what year was the novel War of the Worlds published?
5ad4c2c45b96ef001a109f94
True
Close Encounters of the Third Kind
393
What was the first film Industrial Light & Magic did the visual effects for?
5ad4c2c45b96ef001a109f95
True
$591 million
572
How much did War of the Worlds earn in the US?
5ad4c2c45b96ef001a109f96
True
$591 million
572
How much did War of the Worlds earn overseas?
5ad4c2c45b96ef001a109f97
True
War of the Worlds
56
What was Dakota Fanning's first movie?
5ad4c2c45b96ef001a109f98
True
Also in 2005, Spielberg directed a modern adaptation of War of the Worlds (a co-production of Paramount and DreamWorks), based on the H. G. Wells book of the same name (Spielberg had been a huge fan of the book and the original 1953 film). It starred Tom Cruise and Dakota Fanning, and, as with past Spielberg films, Industrial Light & Magic (ILM) provided the visual effects. Unlike E.T. and Close Encounters of the Third Kind, which depicted friendly alien visitors, War of the Worlds featured violent invaders. The film was another huge box office smash, grossing over $591 million worldwide.
What was 'Munich' about?
5731949b497a88190024907f
the 1972 Munich Massacre of Israeli athletes at the Olympic Games
52
False
What book was 'Munich' based on?
5731949b497a881900249080
Vengeance
235
False
Who wrote 'Vengeance'?
5731949b497a881900249081
George Jonas
276
False
How many Oscar nominations did 'Munich' get?
5731949b497a881900249082
five
539
False
Who composed music for 'Munich'?
5731949b497a881900249083
John Williams
635
False
1986
325
In what year was the book Vengeance published?
5ad4c3765b96ef001a109fbc
True
Spielberg
0
Who directed Sword of Gideon?
5ad4c3765b96ef001a109fbd
True
John Williams
635
Who did the score for Sword of Gideon?
5ad4c3765b96ef001a109fbe
True
five
539
How many Israeli athletes died during the 1972 Munich Massacre?
5ad4c3765b96ef001a109fbf
True
Vengeance
235
What was George Jonas' first novel to be published?
5ad4c3765b96ef001a109fc0
True
Spielberg's film Munich, about the events following the 1972 Munich Massacre of Israeli athletes at the Olympic Games, was his second film essaying Jewish relations in the world (the first being Schindler's List). The film is based on Vengeance, a book by Canadian journalist George Jonas. It was previously adapted into the 1986 made-for-TV film Sword of Gideon. The film received strong critical praise, but underperformed at the U.S. and world box-office; it remains one of Spielberg's most controversial films to date. Munich received five Academy Awards nominations, including Best Picture, Film Editing, Original Music Score (by John Williams), Best Adapted Screenplay, and Best Director for Spielberg. It was Spielberg's sixth Best Director nomination and fifth Best Picture nomination.
When did Spielberg announce what would become 'Interstellar'?
57319559a5e9cc1400cdc105
June 2006
3
False
Who took over directing 'Interstellar'?
57319559a5e9cc1400cdc106
Christopher Nolan
828
False
What was the concept for 'Interstellar'?
57319559a5e9cc1400cdc107
a group of explorers who travel through a worm hole and into another dimension
95
False
Who wrote the 'Interstellar' script?
57319559a5e9cc1400cdc108
Jonathan Nolan
262
False
What university provided scientific consultation for 'Interstellar'?
57319559a5e9cc1400cdc109
Caltech
571
False
2006
8
In what year did Kip Thorne and Lynda Obst do a treatment of Interstellar?
5ad4c8515b96ef001a10a068
True
2006
8
In what year did Lynda Obst become a producer?
5ad4c8515b96ef001a10a069
True
2007
243
In what year did Jonathan Nolan become a screenwriter?
5ad4c8515b96ef001a10a06a
True
2006
8
In what year did Christopher Nolan become a director?
5ad4c8515b96ef001a10a06b
True
In June 2006, Steven Spielberg announced he would direct a scientifically accurate film about "a group of explorers who travel through a worm hole and into another dimension", from a treatment by Kip Thorne and producer Lynda Obst. In January 2007, screenwriter Jonathan Nolan met with them to discuss adapting Obst and Thorne's treatment into a narrative screenplay. The screenwriter suggested the addition of a "time element" to the treatment's basic idea, which was welcomed by Obst and Thorne. In March of that year, Paramount hired Nolan, as well as scientists from Caltech, forming a workshop to adapt the treatment under the title Interstellar. The following July, Kip Thorne said there was a push by people for him to portray himself in the film. Spielberg later abandoned Interstellar, which was eventually directed by Christopher Nolan.
What was the first non-Pixar movie to win the Best Animated Feature Film award?
573195b3e6313a140071d0d6
The Adventures of Tintin: The Secret of the Unicorn
178
False
Where did Adventures of Tintin debut?
573195b3e6313a140071d0d7
Brussels, Belgium
379
False
When did Adventures of Tintin debut?
573195b3e6313a140071d0d8
October 22, 2011
359
False
When was Adventures of Tintin released in the US?
573195b3e6313a140071d0d9
December 21, 2011
450
False
How much did Adventures of Tintin earn?
573195b3e6313a140071d0da
over $373 million worldwide
558
False
Brussels, Belgium
379
What was one of the cities that The Adventures of Tintin: The Secret of the Unicorn took place in?
5ad4c77c5b96ef001a10a054
True
$373 million
563
How much did The Adventures of Tintin: The Secret of the Unicorn make in the United States?
5ad4c77c5b96ef001a10a055
True
$373 million
563
How much did The Adventures of Tintin: The Secret of the Unicorn earn overseas?
5ad4c77c5b96ef001a10a056
True
2011
463
When was it announced that Peter Jackson would direct the next The Adventures of Tintin movie?
5ad4c77c5b96ef001a10a057
True
The Secret of the Unicorn
204
What will be the name of the next Tintin movie?
5ad4c77c5b96ef001a10a058
True
In early 2009, Spielberg shot the first film in a planned trilogy of motion capture films based on The Adventures of Tintin, written by Belgian artist Hergé, with Peter Jackson. The Adventures of Tintin: The Secret of the Unicorn, was not released until October 2011, due to the complexity of the computer animation involved. The world premiere took place on October 22, 2011 in Brussels, Belgium. The film was released in North American theaters on December 21, 2011, in Digital 3D and IMAX. It received generally positive reviews from critics, and grossed over $373 million worldwide. The Adventures of Tintin won the award for Best Animated Feature Film at the Golden Globe Awards that year. It is the first non-Pixar film to win the award since the category was first introduced. Jackson has been announced to direct the second film.
Where was 'War Horse' filmed?
57319608497a881900249091
England
43
False
When did 'War Horse' come out?
57319608497a881900249092
December 25, 2011
140
False
Who wrote the 'War Horse' book?
57319608497a881900249093
Michael Morpurgo
216
False
When did the 'War Horse' book come out?
57319608497a881900249094
1982
250
False
Who distributed 'War Horse'?
57319608497a881900249095
Disney
505
False
The Adventures of Tintin
111
Which movie earned more, The Adventures of Tintin or War Horse?
5ad4c8f55b96ef001a10a084
True
England
43
Where was The Adventures of Tintin mostly made?
5ad4c8f55b96ef001a10a085
True
2010
68
In what year was War Horse made into a play in London?
5ad4c8f55b96ef001a10a086
True
Disney
505
Who released The Adventures of Tintin?
5ad4c8f55b96ef001a10a087
True
six
650
How many Academy Award nominations did The Adventures of Tintin receive?
5ad4c8f55b96ef001a10a088
True
Spielberg followed with War Horse, shot in England in the summer of 2010. It was released just four days after The Adventures of Tintin, on December 25, 2011. The film, based on the novel of the same name written by Michael Morpurgo and published in 1982, follows the long friendship between a British boy and his horse Joey before and during World War I – the novel was also adapted into a hit play in London which is still running there, as well as on Broadway. The film was released and distributed by Disney, with whom DreamWorks made a distribution deal in 2009. War Horse received generally positive reviews from critics, and was nominated for six Academy Awards, including Best Picture.
Who starred in 'Lincoln' as Abraham Lincoln?
5731c2c3e99e3014001e6264
Daniel Day-Lewis
68
False
What book was 'Lincoln' based on?
5731c2c3e99e3014001e6265
Team of Rivals: The Political Genius of Abraham Lincoln
209
False
What part of Lincoln's life did the film cover?
5731c2c3e99e3014001e6266
the final four months
283
False
Where was 'Lincoln' filmed?
5731c2c3e99e3014001e6267
Richmond, Virginia
370
False
Who played Mary Todd Lincoln in 'Lincoln'?
5731c2c3e99e3014001e6268
Sally Field
132
False
2011
398
In what year did Team of Rivals: The Political Genius of Abraham Lincoln get released?
5ad4c9c65b96ef001a10a0ac
True
twelve
623
How many times has Spielberg been nominated for Best Director?
5ad4c9c65b96ef001a10a0ad
True
twelve
623
How many times has Daniel Day-Lewis been nominated for Best Actor?
5ad4c9c65b96ef001a10a0ae
True
2011
398
In what year did Doris Kearns Goodwin release her first book?
5ad4c9c65b96ef001a10a0af
True
Lincoln
50
What movie has covered the start of Lincoln's presidency?
5ad4c9c65b96ef001a10a0b0
True
Spielberg next directed the historical drama film Lincoln, starring Daniel Day-Lewis as United States President Abraham Lincoln and Sally Field as Mary Todd Lincoln. Based on Doris Kearns Goodwin's bestseller Team of Rivals: The Political Genius of Abraham Lincoln, the film covered the final four months of Lincoln's life. Written by Tony Kushner, the film was shot in Richmond, Virginia, in late 2011, and was released in the United States by Disney in November 2012. The film's international distribution was handled by 20th Century Fox. Upon release, Lincoln received widespread critical acclaim, and was nominated for twelve Academy Awards (the most of any film that year) including Best Picture and Best Director for Spielberg. It won the award for Best Production Design and Day-Lewis won the Academy Award for Best Actor for his portrayal of Lincoln, becoming the first three time winner in that category as well as the first to win for a performance directed by Spielberg.
When was 'Bridge of Spies' released?
5731c386e17f3d140042239f
October 16, 2015
548
False
How many Oscar nominations did 'Bridge of Spies' get?
5731c386e17f3d14004223a0
six
644
False
When was 'Bridge of Spies' set?
5731c386e17f3d14004223a1
1960
76
False
Who played Donovan in 'Bridge of Spies'?
5731c386e17f3d14004223a2
Tom Hanks
270
False
Where was 'Bridge of Spies' filmed?
5731c386e17f3d14004223a3
New York City, Berlin and Wroclaw, Poland
443
False
Mark Rylance
303
Who played Gary Powers in Bridge of Spies?
5ad4ca4c5b96ef001a10a0c0
True
Berlin
458
Where was most of Bridge of Spies shot?
5ad4ca4c5b96ef001a10a0c1
True
six
644
How many times has Spielberg won Best Director?
5ad4ca4c5b96ef001a10a0c2
True
six
644
How many times has Tom Hanks been nominated for Best Actor?
5ad4ca4c5b96ef001a10a0c3
True
six
644
How many movies has Tom Hanks been in that have won Best Picture?
5ad4ca4c5b96ef001a10a0c4
True
Spielberg directed 2015's Bridge of Spies, a Cold War thriller based on the 1960 U-2 incident, and focusing on James B. Donovan's negotiations with the Soviets for the release of pilot Gary Powers after his aircraft was shot down over Soviet territory. The film starred Tom Hanks as Donovan, as well as Mark Rylance, Amy Ryan, and Alan Alda, with a script by the Coen brothers. The film was shot from September to December 2014 on location in New York City, Berlin and Wroclaw, Poland (which doubled for East Berlin), and was released by Disney on October 16, 2015. Bridge of Spies received positive reviews from critics, and was nominated for six Academy Awards, including Best Picture.
Which Warner Bros. cartoons did Spielberg produce?
5731c48ae17f3d14004223b1
Tiny Toon Adventures, Animaniacs, Pinky and the Brain, Toonsylvania, and Freakazoid!
161
False
What films did Spielberg produce for Don Bluth?
5731c48ae17f3d14004223b2
An American Tail and The Land Before Time
517
False
What video game did Spielberg come up with the concept for?
5731c48ae17f3d14004223b3
The Dig
1003
False
When was 'The Dig' released?
5731c48ae17f3d14004223b4
1995
1076
False
What charity did Spielberg's 'Lego Moviemaker' kit fund?
5731c48ae17f3d14004223b5
Starbright Foundation
1426
False
Jean MacCurdy
278
Who did one of the voices in Tiny Toon Adventures?
5ad4cb6e5b96ef001a10a0e8
True
Tom Ruegger
296
Who did one of the voices in Pinky and the Brain?
5ad4cb6e5b96ef001a10a0e9
True
1989
971
In what year did Tiny Toon Adventures debut?
5ad4cb6e5b96ef001a10a0ea
True
1996
1257
In what year was the Starbright Foundation launched?
5ad4cb6e5b96ef001a10a0eb
True
Jean MacCurdy
278
Who was one of the voices in Toonsylvania?
5ad4cb6e5b96ef001a10a0ec
True
Since the mid-1980s, Spielberg has increased his role as a film producer. He headed up the production team for several cartoons, including the Warner Bros. hits Tiny Toon Adventures, Animaniacs, Pinky and the Brain, Toonsylvania, and Freakazoid!, for which he collaborated with Jean MacCurdy and Tom Ruegger. Due to his work on these series, in the official titles, most of them say, "Steven Spielberg presents" as well as making numerous cameos on the shows. Spielberg also produced the Don Bluth animated features, An American Tail and The Land Before Time, which were released by Universal Studios. He also served as one of the executive producers of Who Framed Roger Rabbit and its three related shorts (Tummy Trouble, Roller Coaster Rabbit, Trail Mix-Up), which were all released by Disney, under both the Walt Disney Pictures and the Touchstone Pictures banners. He was furthermore, for a short time, the executive producer of the long-running medical drama ER. In 1989, he brought the concept of The Dig to LucasArts. He contributed to the project from that time until 1995 when the game was released. He also collaborated with software publishers Knowledge Adventure on the multimedia game Steven Spielberg's Director's Chair, which was released in 1996. Spielberg appears, as himself, in the game to direct the player. The Spielberg name provided branding for a Lego Moviemaker kit, the proceeds of which went to the Starbright Foundation.
When was 'Men In Black' released?
5731c52de17f3d14004223bb
1997
193
False
Who wrote the book 'Memoirs of a Geisha' is based on?
5731c52de17f3d14004223bc
Arthur Golden
359
False
Who did Spielberg collaborate with in 2006?
5731c52de17f3d14004223bd
Robert Zemeckis
492
False
What film did Spielberg first collaborate with Zemeckis on?
5731c52de17f3d14004223be
Back to the Future Part III
600
False
Which studio produced 'Super 8'?
5731c52de17f3d14004223bf
Paramount Pictures
1343
False
1997
193
In what year did the book Memoirs of a Geisha get released?
5ad4cc265b96ef001a10a0fc
True
Robert Zemeckis
492
Who directed Back to the Future?
5ad4cc265b96ef001a10a0fd
True
1997
193
In what year did Brian Goldner join Hasbro?
5ad4cc265b96ef001a10a0fe
True
Roberto Orci
1104
Who wrote Men in Black?
5ad4cc265b96ef001a10a0ff
True
Alex Kurtzman
1121
Who wrote Just Like Heaven?
5ad4cc265b96ef001a10a100
True
Spielberg served as an uncredited executive producer on The Haunting, The Prince of Egypt, Just Like Heaven, Shrek, Road to Perdition, and Evolution. He served as an executive producer for the 1997 film Men in Black, and its sequels, Men in Black II and Men in Black III. In 2005, he served as a producer of Memoirs of a Geisha, an adaptation of the novel by Arthur Golden, a film to which he was previously attached as director. In 2006, Spielberg co-executive produced with famed filmmaker Robert Zemeckis a CGI children's film called Monster House, marking their eighth collaboration since 1990's Back to the Future Part III. He also teamed with Clint Eastwood for the first time in their careers, co-producing Eastwood's Flags of Our Fathers and Letters from Iwo Jima with Robert Lorenz and Eastwood himself. He earned his twelfth Academy Award nomination for the latter film as it was nominated for Best Picture. Spielberg served as executive producer for Disturbia and the Transformers live action film with Brian Goldner, an employee of Hasbro. The film was directed by Michael Bay and written by Roberto Orci and Alex Kurtzman, and Spielberg continued to collaborate on the sequels, Transformers: Revenge of the Fallen and Transformers: Dark of the Moon. In 2011, he produced the J. J. Abrams science fiction thriller film Super 8 for Paramount Pictures.
When did 'Into the West' air?
5731c5ba0fdd8d15006c651d
2005
152
False
How many Emmys did 'Into the West' win?
5731c5ba0fdd8d15006c651e
two
195
False
Who wrote the music for 'Into the West'?
5731c5ba0fdd8d15006c651f
Geoff Zanelli
230
False
When was 'The Pacific' released?
5731c5ba0fdd8d15006c6520
2010
261
False
How much did 'The Pacific' cost?
5731c5ba0fdd8d15006c6521
$250 million
420
False
2005
152
In what year did Band of Brother debut on tv?
5ad4ccbb5b96ef001a10a106
True
2005
152
In what year did Geoff Zanelli start to score movies?
5ad4ccbb5b96ef001a10a107
True
Band of Brothers
54
What was the first tv show Gary Goetzman co-produced?
5ad4ccbb5b96ef001a10a108
True
Band of Brothers
54
What was the first tv shows writer Bruce McKenna has worked on?
5ad4ccbb5b96ef001a10a109
True
2005
152
In what year did Bruce McKenna become a writer?
5ad4ccbb5b96ef001a10a10a
True
Other major television series Spielberg produced were Band of Brothers, Taken and The Pacific. He was an executive producer on the critically acclaimed 2005 TV miniseries Into the West which won two Emmy awards, including one for Geoff Zanelli's score. For his 2010 miniseries The Pacific he teamed up once again with co-producer Tom Hanks, with Gary Goetzman also co-producing'. The miniseries is believed to have cost $250 million and is a 10-part war miniseries centered on the battles in the Pacific Theater during World War II. Writer Bruce McKenna, who penned several installments of (Band of Brothers), was the head writer.
Which channel aired 'Falling Skies'?
5731c6730fdd8d15006c6527
TNT
87
False
In what year does 'Terra Nova' begin?
5731c6730fdd8d15006c6528
2149
272
False
How far back in time do people in 'Terra Nova' travel?
5731c6730fdd8d15006c6529
85 million years
414
False
Which channel aired 'Terra Nova'?
5731c6730fdd8d15006c652a
Fox
216
False
What show did Spielberg work with Rodat on?
5731c6730fdd8d15006c652b
Falling Skies
28
False
2011
3
In what year did Under the Dome premiere?
5ad4cd325b96ef001a10a11a
True
Falling Skies
28
What was the first original show on the TNT network?
5ad4cd325b96ef001a10a11b
True
2149
272
In what year does Smash take place?
5ad4cd325b96ef001a10a11c
True
2149
272
In what year does Minority Report take place?
5ad4cd325b96ef001a10a11d
True
2011
3
In what year did the movie Minority Report get released?
5ad4cd325b96ef001a10a11e
True
In 2011, Spielberg launched Falling Skies, a science fiction television series, on the TNT network. He developed the series with Robert Rodat and is credited as an executive producer. Spielberg is also producing the Fox TV series Terra Nova. Terra Nova begins in the year 2149 when all life on the planet Earth is threatened with extinction resulting in scientists opening a door that allows people to travel back 85 million years to prehistoric times. Spielberg also produced The River, Smash, Under the Dome, Extant and The Whispers, as well as a TV adaptation of Minority Report.
Who wrote the script for 'Someone's in the Kitchen'?
5731c705e17f3d14004223cd
Paul Rugg
251
False
When was 'Skullmonkeys' released?
5731c705e17f3d14004223ce
1997
404
False
When was Boombots released?
5731c705e17f3d14004223cf
1999
421
False
When was The Neverhood released?
5731c705e17f3d14004223d0
1996
320
False
What video game did Spielberg say in 2013 he's working on a TV show based on?
5731c705e17f3d14004223d1
Halo
1178
False
Paul Rugg
251
Who wrote the script for Boombots?
5ad4ce075b96ef001a10a12e
True
2005
502
In what year did Boom Blox get released on the Wii?
5ad4ce075b96ef001a10a12f
True
2005
502
In what year did The Dig get released?
5ad4ce075b96ef001a10a130
True
2009
674
In what year did the first EA Medal of Honor game get released?
5ad4ce075b96ef001a10a131
True
Paul Rugg
251
Who is one of the writers for the upcoming Halo tv show?
5ad4ce075b96ef001a10a132
True
Apart from being an ardent gamer Spielberg has had a long history of involvement in video games. He has been giving thanks to his games of his division DreamWorks Interactive most notable as Someone's in the Kitchen with script written by Animaniacs' Paul Rugg, Goosebumps: Escape from HorrorLand, The Neverhood (all in 1996), Skullmonkeys, Dilbert's Desktop Games, Goosebumps: Attack of the Mutant (all 1997), Boombots (1999), T'ai Fu: Wrath of the Tiger (1999), and Clive Barker's Undying (2001). In 2005 the director signed with Electronic Arts to collaborate on three games including an action game and an award winning puzzle game for the Wii called Boom Blox (and its 2009 sequel: Boom Blox Bash Party). Previously, he was involved in creating the scenario for the adventure game The Dig. In 1996, Spielberg worked on and shot original footage for a movie-making simulation game called Steven Spielberg's Director's Chair. He is the creator of the Medal of Honor series by Electronic Arts. He is credited in the special thanks section of the 1998 video game Trespasser. In 2013, Spielberg has announced he is collaborating with 343 Industries for a live-action TV show of Halo.
Who wrote 'The BFG'?
5731c776b9d445190005e533
Roald Dahl
77
False
Who wrote E.T.'s script?
5731c776b9d445190005e534
Melissa Mathison
263
False
What film festival will first air 'The BFG'?
5731c776b9d445190005e535
Cannes Film Festival
444
False
In what month is Cannes held?
5731c776b9d445190005e536
May
468
False
When will 'The BFG' be in most theaters?
5731c776b9d445190005e537
July 1, 2016
515
False
May
468
In what month in 2010 did Dreamworks buy the rights to The BFG?
5ad4cebe5b96ef001a10a138
True
2010
171
In what year was John Madden dropped from directing The BFG?
5ad4cebe5b96ef001a10a139
True
E.T.
245
What was the first movie written by Melissa Mathison?
5ad4cebe5b96ef001a10a13a
True
2010
171
In what year did Spielberg become the director of The BFG?
5ad4cebe5b96ef001a10a13b
True
Spielberg has filmed and is currently in post-production on an adaptation of Roald Dahl's celebrated children's story The BFG. Spielberg's DreamWorks bought the rights in 2010, originally intending John Madden to direct. The film was written by E.T. screenwriter Melissa Mathison and is co-produced by Walt Disney Pictures, marking the first Disney-branded film to be directed by Spielberg. The BFG is set to premiere out of competition at the Cannes Film Festival in May 2016, before its wide release in the US on July 1, 2016.
Who wrote 'The Kidnapping of Edgardo Mortara'?
5731c899b9d445190005e547
David Kertzer
149
False
When does 'The Kidnapping of Edgardo Mortara' take place?
5731c899b9d445190005e548
1858
267
False
Where does 'The Kidnapping of Edgardo Mortara' take place?
5731c899b9d445190005e549
Italy
272
False
Who plays Pope Pius IX in 'The Kidnapping of Edgardo Mortara'?
5731c899b9d445190005e54a
Mark Rylance
583
False
When is 'Ready Player One' planned to be released?
5731c899b9d445190005e54b
2018
736
False
2014
506
In what year did The Kidnapping of Edgardo Mortara book get published?
5ad4cfbe5b96ef001a10a152
True
1858
267
In what year does most of The Kidnapping of Edgardo Mortara take place?
5ad4cfbe5b96ef001a10a153
True
Mark Rylance
583
Who will play the family servant in The Kidnapping of Edgardo Mortara?
5ad4cfbe5b96ef001a10a154
True
2014
506
In what year did David Kertzer become a writer?
5ad4cfbe5b96ef001a10a155
True
Ready Player One
28
What was the first movie adapted by Tony Kushner?
5ad4cfbe5b96ef001a10a156
True
After completing filming on Ready Player One, while it is in its lengthy, effects-heavy post-production, he will film his long-planned adaptation of David Kertzer's acclaimed The Kidnapping of Edgardo Mortara. The book follows the true story of a young Jewish boy in 1858 Italy who was secretly baptized by a family servant and then kidnapped from his family by the Papal States, where he was raised and trained as a priest, causing international outrage and becoming a media sensation. First announced in 2014, the book has been adapted by Tony Kushner and the film will again star Mark Rylance, as Pope Pius IX. It will be filmed in early 2017 for release at the end of that year, before Ready Player One is completed and released in 2018.
When was 'Robopocalypse' scheduled for release?
5731c9b6e17f3d14004223eb
April 25, 2014
352
False
Who was going to star in 'Robopocalypse'?
5731c9b6e17f3d14004223ec
Anne Hathaway and Chris Hemsworth
373
False
How far in the future was 'Robopocalypse' set?
5731c9b6e17f3d14004223ed
15–20 years
214
False
Who wrote the book 'Robopocalypse' is based on?
5731c9b6e17f3d14004223ee
Daniel H. Wilson
62
False
What was the budget for 'Robopocalypse'?
5731c9b6e17f3d14004223ef
$200 million
35
False
$200 million
35
How much did Anne Hathaway's last movie earn?
5ad4d0495b96ef001a10a18c
True
Robopocalypse
87
What was the first movie Drew Goddard has adapted?
5ad4d0495b96ef001a10a18d
True
2013
479
In what year was the novel Robopocalypse released?
5ad4d0495b96ef001a10a18e
True
2013
479
In what year was Lincoln released?
5ad4d0495b96ef001a10a18f
True
January
471
In what month was Lincoln released?
5ad4d0495b96ef001a10a190
True
Spielberg was scheduled to shoot a $200 million adaptation of Daniel H. Wilson's novel Robopocalypse, adapted for the screen by Drew Goddard. The film would follow a global human war against a robot uprising about 15–20 years in the future. Like Lincoln, it was to be released by Disney in the United States and Fox overseas. It was set for release on April 25, 2014, with Anne Hathaway and Chris Hemsworth set to star, but Spielberg postponed production indefinitely in January 2013, just before it had been set to begin.
What theme is common to Spielberg's films?
5731ca31b9d445190005e559
ordinary characters searching for or coming in contact with extraordinary beings or finding themselves in extraordinary circumstances
88
False
When in his life did Spielberg 'feel like an alien'?
5731ca31b9d445190005e55a
during childhood
437
False
When did Spielberg give an interview saying he had 'felt like an alien'?
5731ca31b9d445190005e55b
August 2000
246
False
Why does Spielberg think aliens would visit?
5731ca31b9d445190005e55c
curiosity and sharing of knowledge
600
False
Which of Spielberg's parents liked sci-fi?
5731ca31b9d445190005e55d
his father
482
False
an AFI interview in August 2000
226
In what interview was it the first time that Spielberg talked about extra terrestrials?
5ad4d1135b96ef001a10a1aa
True
an alien
428
What does Spielberg say he might have saw in his childhood?
5ad4d1135b96ef001a10a1ab
True
ordinary characters searching for or coming in contact with extraordinary beings
88
What type of films did Spielberg's father enjoy?
5ad4d1135b96ef001a10a1ac
True
conquest
578
What do most people think aliens would visit Earth for?
5ad4d1135b96ef001a10a1ad
True
Spielberg's films often deal with several recurring themes. Most of his films deal with ordinary characters searching for or coming in contact with extraordinary beings or finding themselves in extraordinary circumstances. In an AFI interview in August 2000 Spielberg commented on his interest in the possibility of extra terrestrial life and how it has influenced some of his films. Spielberg described himself as feeling like an alien during childhood, and his interest came from his father, a science fiction fan, and his opinion that aliens would not travel light years for conquest, but instead curiosity and sharing of knowledge.
Which Spielberg films are examples of a childlike sense of wonder?
5731cad1e99e3014001e6282
Close Encounters of the Third Kind, E.T. the Extra-Terrestrial, Hook, A.I. Artificial Intelligence and The BFG
138
False
What camera style does Spielberg often use?
5731cad1e99e3014001e6283
low height camera tracking shots
326
False
What are some Spielberg films that included kids?
5731cad1e99e3014001e6284
E.T. the Extra-Terrestrial, Empire of the Sun, Jurassic Park
465
False
How were the water scenes in Jaws filmed?
5731cad1e99e3014001e6285
from the low-angle perspective of someone swimming
802
False
Who is naive in 'Catch Me if You Can'?
5731cad1e99e3014001e6286
Frank
1118
False
China
1076
What is one of the countries in which Catch Me if You Can takes place?
5ad4d4835b96ef001a10a23a
True
Warren Buckland
263
Who wrote the book Amistad is based on?
5ad4d4835b96ef001a10a23b
True
Warren Buckland
263
Who wrote the novel Catch Me if You Can is based on?
5ad4d4835b96ef001a10a23c
True
Warren Buckland
263
Who wrote Empire of the Sun?
5ad4d4835b96ef001a10a23d
True
Warren Buckland
263
Who wrote A.I. Artificial Intelligence?
5ad4d4835b96ef001a10a23e
True
A strong consistent theme in his family-friendly work is a childlike, even naïve, sense of wonder and faith, as attested by works such as Close Encounters of the Third Kind, E.T. the Extra-Terrestrial, Hook, A.I. Artificial Intelligence and The BFG. According to Warren Buckland, these themes are portrayed through the use of low height camera tracking shots, which have become one of Spielberg's directing trademarks. In the cases when his films include children (E.T. the Extra-Terrestrial, Empire of the Sun, Jurassic Park, etc.), this type of shot is more apparent, but it is also used in films like Munich, Saving Private Ryan, The Terminal, Minority Report, and Amistad. If one views each of his films, one will see this shot utilized by the director, notably the water scenes in Jaws are filmed from the low-angle perspective of someone swimming. Another child oriented theme in Spielberg's films is that of loss of innocence and coming-of-age. In Empire of the Sun, Jim, a well-groomed and spoiled English youth, loses his innocence as he suffers through World War II China. Similarly, in Catch Me If You Can, Frank naively and foolishly believes that he can reclaim his shattered family if he accumulates enough money to support them.
What was Indy's father's career?
5731cbbce99e3014001e6296
professor of medieval literature
549
False
What artifact did Indy's father focus on?
5731cbbce99e3014001e6297
the Holy Grail
671
False
What is Spielberg's most common theme?
5731cbbce99e3014001e6298
tension in parent-child relationships
50
False
Whose son disappeared in 'Minority Report'?
5731cbbce99e3014001e6299
John Anderton
1183
False
Whose parents divorced in 'Catch Me If You Can'?
5731cbbce99e3014001e629a
Frank Abagnale
1664
False
Tim
1994
Who is one of the main characters of Jurassic Park?
5ad4d6215b96ef001a10a2ac
True
father
853
What was Oskar Schindler in real life?
5ad4d6215b96ef001a10a2ad
True
professor of medieval literature
549
What did Indiana Jones do for a living?
5ad4d6215b96ef001a10a2ae
True
professor of medieval literature
549
What occupation was Avner in Munich?
5ad4d6215b96ef001a10a2af
True
The most persistent theme throughout his films is tension in parent-child relationships. Parents (often fathers) are reluctant, absent or ignorant. Peter Banning in Hook starts off in the beginning of the film as a reluctant married-to-his-work parent who through the course of the film regains the respect of his children. The notable absence of Elliott's father in E.T., is the most famous example of this theme. In Indiana Jones and the Last Crusade, it is revealed that Indy has always had a very strained relationship with his father, who is a professor of medieval literature, as his father always seemed more interested in his work, specifically in his studies of the Holy Grail, than in his own son, although his father does not seem to realize or understand the negative effect that his aloof nature had on Indy (he even believes he was a good father in the sense that he taught his son "self reliance," which is not how Indy saw it). Even Oskar Schindler, from Schindler's List, is reluctant to have a child with his wife. Munich depicts Avner as a man away from his wife and newborn daughter. There are of course exceptions; Brody in Jaws is a committed family man, while John Anderton in Minority Report is a shattered man after the disappearance of his son. This theme is arguably the most autobiographical aspect of Spielberg's films, since Spielberg himself was affected by his parents' divorce as a child and by the absence of his father. Furthermore, to this theme, protagonists in his films often come from families with divorced parents, most notably E.T. the Extra-Terrestrial (protagonist Elliot's mother is divorced) and Catch Me If You Can (Frank Abagnale's mother and father split early on in the film). Little known also is Tim in Jurassic Park (early in the film, another secondary character mentions Tim and Lex's parents' divorce). The family often shown divided is often resolved in the ending as well. Following this theme of reluctant fathers and father figures, Tim looks to Dr. Alan Grant as a father figure. Initially, Dr. Grant is reluctant to return those paternal feelings to Tim. However, by the end of the film, he has changed, and the kids even fall asleep with their heads on his shoulders.
Which Spielberg films has Dreyfuss been in?
5731cc2ce99e3014001e62a0
Jaws, Close Encounters of the Third Kind, and Always
207
False
Who was Ford going to play in E.T., until the scene was removed?
5731cc2ce99e3014001e62a1
a headteacher
336
False
Which Spielberg TV shows has Frank Welker been a voice actor for?
5731cc2ce99e3014001e62a2
Tiny Toons, Animaniacs, and SeaQuest DSV
789
False
Which Spielberg films has Tom Hanks been in?
5731cc2ce99e3014001e62a3
Saving Private Ryan, Catch Me If You Can, The Terminal, and Bridge of Spies
901
False
Which Spielberg films has Tom Cruise been in?
5731cc2ce99e3014001e62a4
Minority Report and War of the Worlds
1030
False
Eagle Eye
1120
What was Shia LaBeouf's first film?
5ad4d70c5b96ef001a10a2e4
True
Gremlins
652
What movie was Frank Welker's first voicework?
5ad4d70c5b96ef001a10a2e5
True
Jaws
207
What was Richard Dreyfuss' first film?
5ad4d70c5b96ef001a10a2e6
True
Harrison Ford
319
Who made a cameo in the finished version of E.T. the Extra-Terrestrial?
5ad4d70c5b96ef001a10a2e7
True
In terms of casting and production itself, Spielberg has a known penchant for working with actors and production members from his previous films. For instance, he has cast Richard Dreyfuss in several films: Jaws, Close Encounters of the Third Kind, and Always. Aside from his role as Indiana Jones, Spielberg also cast Harrison Ford as a headteacher in E.T. the Extra-Terrestrial (though the scene was ultimately cut). Although Spielberg directed veteran voice actor Frank Welker only once (in Raiders of the Lost Ark, for which he voiced many of the animals), Welker has lent his voice in a number of productions Spielberg has executive produced from Gremlins to its sequel Gremlins 2: The New Batch, as well as The Land Before Time, Who Framed Roger Rabbit, and television shows such as Tiny Toons, Animaniacs, and SeaQuest DSV. Spielberg has used Tom Hanks on several occasions and has cast him in Saving Private Ryan, Catch Me If You Can, The Terminal, and Bridge of Spies. Spielberg has collaborated with Tom Cruise twice on Minority Report and War of the Worlds, and cast Shia LaBeouf in five films: Transformers, Eagle Eye, Indiana Jones and the Kingdom of the Crystal Skull, Transformers: Revenge of the Fallen, and Transformers: Dark of the Moon.
Which film did Kathleen Kennedy first work with Spielberg on?
5731cca5e17f3d1400422409
E.T. the Extra-Terrestrial
238
False
Which childhood friend worked on Spielberg's films?
5731cca5e17f3d140042240a
Allen Daviau
308
False
Which film did Kaminski first work with Spielberg on?
5731cca5e17f3d140042240b
Schindler's List
502
False
Which film did Daviau first work with Spielberg on?
5731cca5e17f3d140042240c
Amblin
392
False
Which film did Kahn first work with Spielberg on?
5731cca5e17f3d140042240d
Close Encounters
669
False
E.T. the Extra-Terrestrial
238
What was the first movie Kathleen Kennedy produced?
5ad4d7b05b96ef001a10a308
True
Amblin
392
What movie did Allen Daviau first work on as a cinematographer?
5ad4d7b05b96ef001a10a309
True
Schindler's List
502
What was the first movie Janusz Kaminski ever shot?
5ad4d7b05b96ef001a10a30a
True
Close Encounters
669
What was the first film Michael Kahn ever edited?
5ad4d7b05b96ef001a10a30b
True
Schindler's List
502
For what movie did Laurent Bouzereau complete his first documentary?
5ad4d7b05b96ef001a10a30c
True
Spielberg prefers working with production members with whom he has developed an existing working relationship. An example of this is his production relationship with Kathleen Kennedy who has served as producer on all his major films from E.T. the Extra-Terrestrial to the recent Lincoln. For cinematography, Allen Daviau, a childhood friend and cinematographer, shot the early Spielberg film Amblin and most of his films up to Empire of the Sun; Janusz Kamiński who has shot every Spielberg film since Schindler's List (see List of film director and cinematographer collaborations); and the film editor Michael Kahn who has edited every film directed by Spielberg from Close Encounters to Munich (except E.T. the Extra-Terrestrial). Most of the DVDs of Spielberg's films have documentaries by Laurent Bouzereau.
What are the only Spielberg films since Sugarland Express to not have music by John Williams?
5731cd430fdd8d15006c654b
Bridge of Spies, The Color Purple and Twilight Zone: The Movie
206
False
What happens at the end of 'Indiana Jones and the Last Crusade'?
5731cd430fdd8d15006c654c
they ride into the sunset
669
False
Who are the 'Movie Brats', besides Spielberg?
5731cd430fdd8d15006c654d
George Lucas, Francis Ford Coppola, Martin Scorsese, John Milius, and Brian De Palma
806
False
Who are the only screenwriters Spielberg has worked with on more than one film?
5731cd430fdd8d15006c654e
Tony Kushner and David Koepp
1185
False
The Sugarland Express
176
What was the first movie John Williams ever scored?
5ad4d8665b96ef001a10a330
True
John Williams
102
Who scored The Color Purple?
5ad4d8665b96ef001a10a331
True
Tony Kushner
1185
Who wrote Bridge of Spies?
5ad4d8665b96ef001a10a332
True
David Koepp
1202
Who wrote Twilight Zone: The Movie?
5ad4d8665b96ef001a10a333
True
David Koepp
1202
Who wrote Saving Private Ryan?
5ad4d8665b96ef001a10a334
True
A famous example of Spielberg working with the same professionals is his long-time collaboration with John Williams and the use of his musical scores in all of his films since The Sugarland Express (except Bridge of Spies, The Color Purple and Twilight Zone: The Movie). One of Spielberg's trademarks is his use of music by Williams to add to the visual impact of his scenes and to try and create a lasting picture and sound of the film in the memories of the film audience. These visual scenes often uses images of the sun (e.g. Empire of the Sun, Saving Private Ryan, the final scene of Jurassic Park, and the end credits of Indiana Jones and the Last Crusade (where they ride into the sunset)), of which the last two feature a Williams score at that end scene. Spielberg is a contemporary of filmmakers George Lucas, Francis Ford Coppola, Martin Scorsese, John Milius, and Brian De Palma, collectively known as the "Movie Brats". Aside from his principal role as a director, Spielberg has acted as a producer for a considerable number of films, including early hits for Joe Dante and Robert Zemeckis. Spielberg has often never worked with the same screenwriter in his films, beside Tony Kushner and David Koepp, who have written a few of his films more than once.
Who did Spielberg begin dating in 1976?
5731cdbce17f3d1400422433
Amy Irving
28
False
What was Amy Irving's career?
5731cdbce17f3d1400422434
actress
20
False
Who introduced Irving to Spielberg?
5731cdbce17f3d1400422435
Brian De Palma
77
False
How did Irving describe Spielberg's house?
5731cdbce17f3d1400422436
"bachelor funky"
400
False
Why did Irving not want to be in Spielberg's films while dating?
5731cdbce17f3d1400422437
"I don't want to be known as Steven's girlfriend,"
641
False
1976
42
In what year did Brian de Palma direct his first film?
5ad4d9145b96ef001a10a376
True
Close Encounters
143
What was the first movie Julie Phillips ever co-produced?
5ad4d9145b96ef001a10a377
True
1976
42
In what year did Amy Irving move into Spielberg's home?
5ad4d9145b96ef001a10a378
True
Amy Irving
28
Who was one of the actresses in Close Encounters?
5ad4d9145b96ef001a10a379
True
1976
42
In what year did Amy Irving move out of Spielberg's home?
5ad4d9145b96ef001a10a37a
True
Spielberg first met actress Amy Irving in 1976 at the suggestion of director Brian De Palma, who knew he was looking for an actress to play in Close Encounters. After meeting her, Spielberg told his co-producer Julia Phillips, "I met a real heartbreaker last night.":293 Although she was too young for the role, she and Spielberg began dating and she eventually moved in to what she described as his "bachelor funky" house.:294 They lived together for four years, but the stresses of their professional careers took a toll on their relationship. Irving wanted to be certain that whatever success she attained as an actress would be her own: "I don't want to be known as Steven's girlfriend," she said, and chose not to be in any of his films during those years.:295
When did Spielberg and Irving initially break up?
5731ce01e99e3014001e62b4
1979
30
False
When did Spielberg and Irving get back together?
5731ce01e99e3014001e62b5
1984
72
False
When did Spielberg and Irving marry?
5731ce01e99e3014001e62b6
November 1985
112
False
When did Spielberg and Irving divorce?
5731ce01e99e3014001e62b7
1989
309
False
How expensive was Spielberg and Irving's divorce?
5731ce01e99e3014001e62b8
third most costly celebrity divorce in history
463
False
Max Samuel
167
Who broke up with his girlfriend in 1979?
5ad4d9b75b96ef001a10a39e
True
Max Samuel
167
Who got back together with his girlfriend in 1984?
5ad4d9b75b96ef001a10a39f
True
Max Samuel
167
Which celebrity got divorced in 1989?
5ad4d9b75b96ef001a10a3a0
True
Max Samuel
167
Who was the husband in the most costly celebrity divorce in history?
5ad4d9b75b96ef001a10a3a1
True
As a result, they broke up in 1979, but remained close friends. Then in 1984 they renewed their romance, and in November 1985, they married, already having had a son, Max Samuel. After three and a half years of marriage, however, many of the same competing stresses of their careers caused them to divorce in 1989. They agreed to maintain homes near each other as to facilitate the shared custody and parenting of their son.:403 Their divorce was recorded as the third most costly celebrity divorce in history.
In which Olympics was Spielberg a flagbearer?
5731ce62e17f3d140042243d
2002 Winter Olympic Games
135
False
Where was Spielberg an Olympic flagbearer?
5731ce62e17f3d140042243e
Salt Lake City
164
False
How did Time Magazine recognize Spielberg?
5731ce62e17f3d140042243f
one of the 100 Most Important People of the Century
304
False
How did Life Magazine recognize Spielberg?
5731ce62e17f3d1400422440
the most influential person of his generation
404
False
What honorary degree did Spielberg receive from Boston University?
5731ce62e17f3d1400422441
Doctor of Humane Letters
504
False
Salt Lake City
164
Where were the 2006 Winter Olympics held?
5ad4da2f5b96ef001a10a3ca
True
Boston
460
Where is Rice-Eccles Stadium?
5ad4da2f5b96ef001a10a3cb
True
Boston University
460
Where did Spielberg attend college?
5ad4da2f5b96ef001a10a3cc
True
Spielberg
9
Who did Time list as the most important person of the century?
5ad4da2f5b96ef001a10a3cd
True
In 2002, Spielberg was one of eight flagbearers who carried the Olympic Flag into Rice-Eccles Stadium at the Opening Ceremonies of the 2002 Winter Olympic Games in Salt Lake City. In 2006, Premiere listed him as the most powerful and influential figure in the motion picture industry. Time listed him as one of the 100 Most Important People of the Century. At the end of the 20th century, Life named him the most influential person of his generation. In 2009, Boston University presented him an honorary Doctor of Humane Letters degree.
When was Spielberg named the 'most influential celebrity in America'?
5731ced3e99e3014001e62c8
2014
50
False
How much of the US believes Spielberg is influential?
5731ced3e99e3014001e62c9
47%
405
False
Who is Gerry Philpott?
5731ced3e99e3014001e62ca
president of E-Poll Market Research
463
False
How did Spielberg influence the public's behavior?
5731ced3e99e3014001e62cb
many will think for a second before going into the water this summer
631
False
Spielberg
61
Who did Forbes' list in 2014 as the most influential celebrity in the world?
5ad4dac35b96ef001a10a404
True
2014
50
In what year was E-Poll Market Research founded?
5ad4dac35b96ef001a10a405
True
2014
50
When did Gerry Philpott become president of E-Poll Market Research?
5ad4dac35b96ef001a10a406
True
2014
50
In what year did Forbes' publish their first Most Influential Celebrities list?
5ad4dac35b96ef001a10a407
True
According to Forbes' Most Influential Celebrities 2014 list, Spielberg was listed as the most influential celebrity in America. The annual list is conducted by E-Poll Market Research and it gave more than 6,600 celebrities on 46 different personality attributes a score representing "how that person is perceived as influencing the public, their peers, or both." Spielberg received a score of 47, meaning 47% of the US believes he is influential. Gerry Philpott, president of E-Poll Market Research, supported Spielberg's score by stating, "If anyone doubts that Steven Spielberg has greatly influenced the public, think about how many will think for a second before going into the water this summer."
When was Citizen Kane released?
5731cf3d0fdd8d15006c6565
1941
93
False
When was 'The War of the Worlds' radio broadcast?
5731cf3d0fdd8d15006c6566
1938
215
False
When did Spielberg buy a sled from Citizen Kane?
5731cf3d0fdd8d15006c6567
1982
102
False
When did Spielberg buy Orson Welles' personal script copy from 'The War of the Worlds'?
5731cf3d0fdd8d15006c6568
1994
224
False
What does Spielberg do with Academy Awards he buys?
5731cf3d0fdd8d15006c6569
donated them to the Academy of Motion Picture Arts and Sciences, to prevent their further commercial exploitation
313
False
Orson Welles
118
Who directed Citizen Kane?
5ad4db535b96ef001a10a416
True
Orson Welles
118
Who wrote The War of the Worlds (1938 version)?
5ad4db535b96ef001a10a417
True
1982
102
In what year did Spielberg buy his first open market Academy Award?
5ad4db535b96ef001a10a418
True
1938
215
In what year was the Academy of Motion Pictures and Sciences established?
5ad4db535b96ef001a10a419
True
Orson Welles
118
Who directed the 1935 movie Dangerous?
5ad4db535b96ef001a10a41a
True
A collector of film memorabilia, Spielberg purchased a balsa Rosebud sled from Citizen Kane (1941) in 1982. He bought Orson Welles's own directorial copy of the script for the radio broadcast The War of the Worlds (1938) in 1994. Spielberg has purchased Academy Award statuettes being sold on the open market and donated them to the Academy of Motion Picture Arts and Sciences, to prevent their further commercial exploitation. His donations include the Oscars that Bette Davis received for Dangerous (1935) and Jezebel (1938), and Clark Gable's Oscar for It Happened One Night (1934).
What was the first video game Spielberg played?
5731d0e50fdd8d15006c6577
Pong
14
False
When did Spielberg first play a video game?
5731d0e50fdd8d15006c6578
1974
41
False
What movie was Spielberg working on when he first played Pong?
5731d0e50fdd8d15006c6579
Jaws
33
False
What game consoles does Spielberg own?
5731d0e50fdd8d15006c657a
a Wii, a PlayStation 3, a PSP, and Xbox 360
188
False
How does Spielberg feel about cutscenes in games?
5731d0e50fdd8d15006c657b
intrusive
412
False
Pong
14
In what year was Pong released?
5ad4dbf95b96ef001a10a45a
True
PlayStation 3
197
On what console did a video game come out about Jaws?
5ad4dbf95b96ef001a10a45b
True
PlayStation 3
197
On what console can one buy a modern version of Pong?
5ad4dbf95b96ef001a10a45c
True
Spielberg
47
Who thinks video game cut scenes are great?
5ad4dbf95b96ef001a10a45d
True
Xbox 360
223
What console features an updated version of the first Monkey Island game?
5ad4dbf95b96ef001a10a45e
True
Since playing Pong while filming Jaws in 1974, Spielberg has been an avid video gamer. Spielberg played many of LucasArts adventure games, including the first Monkey Island games. He owns a Wii, a PlayStation 3, a PSP, and Xbox 360, and enjoys playing first-person shooters such as the Medal of Honor series and Call of Duty 4: Modern Warfare. He has also criticized the use of cut scenes in games, calling them intrusive, and feels making story flow naturally into the gameplay is a challenge for future game developers.
What Boy Scout merit badge did Spielberg help develop?
5731d15c0fdd8d15006c6581
cinematography
114
False
When was Spielberg's merit badge launched?
5731d15c0fdd8d15006c6582
1989
218
False
Which major Spielberg movie character was a Boy Scout?
5731d15c0fdd8d15006c6583
Indiana Jones
460
False
Which Spielberg movie showed its main character was a Boy Scout?
5731d15c0fdd8d15006c6584
Indiana Jones and the Last Crusade
390
False
What was Indy's rank in Boy Scouts when shown in a movie?
5731d15c0fdd8d15006c6585
Life Scout
513
False
Life Scout
513
What was the highest rank Indiana Jones made in his youth?
5ad4dc9f5b96ef001a10a482
True
1989
218
In what year did Spielberg start helping the Boy Scouts of America out?
5ad4dc9f5b96ef001a10a483
True
1989
365
In what year did the Boy Scouts give Spielberg their Distinguished Eagle Scout Award?
5ad4dc9f5b96ef001a10a484
True
1989
365
In what year did the second Indiana Jones movie come out?
5ad4dc9f5b96ef001a10a485
True
Drawing from his own experiences in Scouting, Spielberg helped the Boy Scouts of America develop a merit badge in cinematography in order to help promote filmmaking as a marketable skill. The badge was launched at the 1989 National Scout Jamboree, which Spielberg attended, and where he personally counseled many boys in their work on requirements. That same year, 1989, saw the release of Indiana Jones and the Last Crusade. The opening scene shows a teenage Indiana Jones in scout uniform bearing the rank of a Life Scout. Spielberg stated he made Indiana Jones a Boy Scout in honor of his experience in Scouting. For his career accomplishments, service to others, and dedication to a new merit badge Spielberg was awarded the Distinguished Eagle Scout Award.
Who made Spielberg a knight?
5731d33de17f3d1400422455
Jacques Chirac
71
False
What award did Spielberg receive on Jul 15, 2006?
5731d33de17f3d1400422456
Gold Hugo Lifetime Achievement Award
136
False
Where was Spielberg honored on Dec 3, 2006?
5731d33de17f3d1400422457
Kennedy Center
259
False
Who narrated a short Spielberg bio at the Kennedy Center?
5731d33de17f3d1400422458
Tom Hanks
368
False
2004
3
In what year did Jacques Chirac become president?
5ad4dd3c5b96ef001a10a4b2
True
2006
99
In what year was the Chicago International Film Festival first established?
5ad4dd3c5b96ef001a10a4b3
True
2004
3
In what year was Candide released?
5ad4dd3c5b96ef001a10a4b4
True
2004
3
In what year was the first Gold Hugo Lifetime Achievement Award first handed out?
5ad4dd3c5b96ef001a10a4b5
True
Spielberg
105
Who was the first winner of the Gold Hugo Lifetime Achievement Award?
5ad4dd3c5b96ef001a10a4b6
True
In 2004 he was admitted as knight of the Légion d'honneur by president Jacques Chirac. On July 15, 2006, Spielberg was also awarded the Gold Hugo Lifetime Achievement Award at the Summer Gala of the Chicago International Film Festival, and also was awarded a Kennedy Center honour on December 3. The tribute to Spielberg featured a short, filmed biography narrated by Tom Hanks and included thank-yous from World War II veterans for Saving Private Ryan, as well as a performance of the finale to Leonard Bernstein's Candide, conducted by John Williams (Spielberg's frequent composer).[citation needed]
When was Spielberg added to the Science Fiction Hall of Fame?
5731d4c3b9d445190005e5a7
2005
55
False
When did the Visual Effects Society give Spielberg a Lifetime Achievement Award?
5731d4c3b9d445190005e5a8
February 2009
251
False
When did Spielberg win the Cecil B. DeMille Award?
5731d4c3b9d445190005e5a9
2009
504
False
Why was Spielberg's Cecil B. DeMille Award postponed from 2008?
5731d4c3b9d445190005e5aa
watered-down format of the ceremony resulting from conflicts in the 2007–08 writers strike
376
False
2005
55
In what year was the Science Fiction Hall of Fame created?
5ad4de145b96ef001a10a4ce
True
2005
55
In what year was the first Cecil B. DeMille award handed out?
5ad4de145b96ef001a10a4cf
True
Golden Globes
343
Where was Spielberg awarded the Legion d'honneur?
5ad4de145b96ef001a10a4d0
True
watered-down
376
What was the 2009 Golden Globes award show considered to be?
5ad4de145b96ef001a10a4d1
True
watered-down
376
How are the Science Fiction Hall of Fame induction ceremonies usually described as?
5ad4de145b96ef001a10a4d2
True
The Science Fiction Hall of Fame inducted Spielberg in 2005, the first year it considered non-literary contributors. In November 2007, he was chosen for a Lifetime Achievement Award to be presented at the sixth annual Visual Effects Society Awards in February 2009. He was set to be honored with the Cecil B. DeMille Award at the January 2008 Golden Globes; however, the new, watered-down format of the ceremony resulting from conflicts in the 2007–08 writers strike, the HFPA postponed his honor to the 2009 ceremony. In 2008, Spielberg was awarded the Légion d'honneur.
Elevator
For which industry were elevators first used?
572e82aacb0c0d14000f120c
coal mines
16
False
In the mid 1800s what were elevators fueled by?
572e82aacb0c0d14000f120d
steam power
81
False
What were elevators originally built for?
572e82aacb0c0d14000f120e
moving goods in bulk in mines and factories
111
False
Who built the "ascending room", in 1823?
572e82aacb0c0d14000f120f
Burton and Hormer
281
False
The "ascending room" gave customers a view of what city's downtown?
572e82aacb0c0d14000f1210
London
458
False
Starting in the coal mines, by the mid-19th century elevators were operated with steam power and were used for moving goods in bulk in mines and factories. These steam driven devices were soon being applied to a diverse set of purposes - in 1823, two architects working in London, Burton and Hormer, built and operated a novel tourist attraction, which they called the "ascending room". It elevated paying customers to a considerable height in the center of London, allowing them a magnificent panoramic view of downtown.
Who invented the hydraulic crane in 1846?
572e8519c246551400ce42b0
Sir William Armstrong
36
False
Were was the hydraulic crane initially used?
572e8519c246551400ce42b1
Tyneside docks
92
False
In what manner did hydraulic cranes employ Pascal's law?
572e8519c246551400ce42b2
they provided a much greater force
212
False
The water pump supplied water pressure to a plunger located where?
572e8519c246551400ce42b3
encased inside a vertical cylinder
318
False
besides water pressure, what else was used to increase the lifting power?
572e8519c246551400ce42b4
Counterweights and balances
439
False
The hydraulic crane was invented by Sir William Armstrong in 1846, primarily for use at the Tyneside docks for loading cargo. These quickly supplanted the earlier steam driven elevators: exploiting Pascal's law, they provided a much greater force. A water pump supplied a variable level of water pressure to a plunger encased inside a vertical cylinder, allowing the level of the platform (carrying a heavy load) to be raised and lowered. Counterweights and balances were also used to increase the lifting power of the apparatus.
What Neapolitan architect created the "Flying Chair" elevator?
572e877703f9891900756733
Gaetano Genovese
34
False
At what location was the "Flying Chair" installed in 1845?
572e877703f9891900756734
Royal Palace of Caserta
68
False
What type of wood was used on the inside ?
572e877703f9891900756735
maple
187
False
What controlled the traction?
572e877703f9891900756736
a motor mechanic utilizing a system of toothed wheels
384
False
What did the safety system consist of?
572e877703f9891900756737
a beam pushed outwards by a steel spring
519
False
In 1845, the Neapolitan architect Gaetano Genovese installed in the Royal Palace of Caserta the "Flying Chair", an elevator ahead of its time, covered with chestnut wood outside and with maple wood inside. It included a light, two benches and a hand operated signal, and could be activated from the outside, without any effort on the part of the occupants. Traction was controlled by a motor mechanic utilizing a system of toothed wheels. A safety system was designed to take effect if the cords broke. It consisted of a beam pushed outwards by a steel spring.
Who created the safety elevator in 1852?
572e88edcb0c0d14000f126c
Elisha Otis
9
False
What feature did the safety elevator display?
572e88edcb0c0d14000f126d
prevented the fall of the cab if the cable broke
59
False
What did the govenor device engage to lock the elevator?
572e88edcb0c0d14000f126e
knurled roller(s)
224
False
At what location was it first presented?
572e88edcb0c0d14000f126f
New York exposition in the Crystal Palace
352
False
Where was the first safety elevator installed?
572e88edcb0c0d14000f1270
488 Broadway in New York City
500
False
In 1852, Elisha Otis introduced the safety elevator, which prevented the fall of the cab if the cable broke. The design of the Otis safety elevator is somewhat similar to one type still used today. A governor device engages knurled roller(s), locking the elevator to its guides should the elevator descend at excessive speed. He demonstrated it at the New York exposition in the Crystal Palace in a dramatic, death-defying presentation in 1854, and the first such passenger elevator was installed at 488 Broadway in New York City on March 23, 1857.
What year did constructrion begin for the Cooper Union Foundation?
572e8aa9dfa6aa1500f8d0f7
1853
154
False
Which was built first, the first elevator shaft or the first elevator?
572e8aa9dfa6aa1500f8d0f8
first elevator shaft
4
False
What design did Peter Cooper feel was the most efficient?
572e8aa9dfa6aa1500f8d0f9
cylindrical
304
False
The Otis Elevator Company is today a subsidiary of what major corporation?
572e8aa9dfa6aa1500f8d0fa
United Technologies Corporation
484
False
What title does United Technologies Corporation hold?
572e8aa9dfa6aa1500f8d0fb
world's largest manufacturer of vertical transport systems
524
False
The first elevator shaft preceded the first elevator by four years. Construction for Peter Cooper's Cooper Union Foundation building in New York began in 1853. An elevator shaft was included in the design, because Cooper was confident that a safe passenger elevator would soon be invented. The shaft was cylindrical because Cooper thought it was the most efficient design. Later, Otis designed a special elevator for the building. Today the Otis Elevator Company, now a subsidiary of United Technologies Corporation, is the world's largest manufacturer of vertical transport systems.
Who built the first electric elevator?
572e8c9003f989190075676b
Werner von Siemens
41
False
The first electric elevator, built in 1880, was in what Country?
572e8c9003f989190075676c
Germany
71
False
Who ultilized von Siemens ideas to build a succesful business?
572e8c9003f989190075676d
Anton Freissler
93
False
Who is credited with increasing the safety and speed of electric elevators?
572e8c9003f989190075676e
Frank Sprague
275
False
To whom did Frank Sprague sell his company to in 1895?
572e8c9003f989190075676f
Otis Elevator Company
541
False
The first electric elevator was built by Werner von Siemens in 1880 in Germany. The inventor Anton Freissler developed the ideas of von Siemens and built up a successful enterprise in Austria-Hungary. The safety and speed of electric elevators were significantly enhanced by Frank Sprague who added floor control, automatic elevators, acceleration control of cars, and safeties. His elevator ran faster and with larger loads than hydraulic or steam elevators, and 584 electric elevators were installed before Sprague sold his company to the Otis Elevator Company in 1895. Sprague also developed the idea and technology for multiple elevators in a single shaft.
What is another name for an elevator shaft?
572e8f1d03f989190075678f
hoistway
360
False
Elevator drive mechanisms have, in the past been, powered by what?
572e8f1d03f9891900756790
steam and water hydraulic pistons or by hand
426
False
What is the weight of the elevator cage balanced by?
572e8f1d03f9891900756791
a counterweight
658
False
How do elevators built in pairs work?
572e8f1d03f9891900756792
their cars always move synchronously in opposite directions,
717
False
Some people argue that elevators began as simple rope or chain hoists (see Traction elevators below). An elevator is essentially a platform that is either pulled or pushed up by a mechanical means. A modern-day elevator consists of a cab (also called a "cage", "carriage" or "car") mounted on a platform within an enclosed space called a shaft or sometimes a "hoistway". In the past, elevator drive mechanisms were powered by steam and water hydraulic pistons or by hand. In a "traction" elevator, cars are pulled up by means of rolling steel ropes over a deeply grooved pulley, commonly called a sheave in the industry. The weight of the car is balanced by a counterweight. Sometimes two elevators are built so that their cars always move synchronously in opposite directions, and are each other's counterweight.
How do most elevator doors work?
572e90ee03f98919007567b1
have two panels that meet in the middle, and slide open laterally
95
False
What design allows wider entryways within limited space?
572e90ee03f98919007567b2
a cascading telescopic configuration
165
False
What is a single panel door referred to as?
572e90ee03f98919007567b3
"slab" door
640
False
The single door is sometimes located where?
572e90ee03f98919007567b4
on the shaft way
792
False
What do elevator doors protect riders from?
572e90ee03f98919007567b5
falling into the shaft
35
False
Elevator doors protect riders from falling into the shaft. The most common configuration is to have two panels that meet in the middle, and slide open laterally. In a cascading telescopic configuration (potentially allowing wider entryways within limited space), the doors roll on independent tracks so that while open, they are tucked behind one another, and while closed, they form cascading layers on one side. This can be configured so that two sets of such cascading doors operate like the center opening doors described above, allowing for a very wide elevator cab. In less expensive installations the elevator can also use one large "slab" door: a single panel door the width of the doorway that opens to the left or right laterally. Some buildings have elevators with the single door on the shaft way, and double cascading doors on the cab.
Throughout history, what type of engines were used for elevator machines?
572e9584dfa6aa1500f8d195
AC motors
14
False
Why were AC motors used?
572e9584dfa6aa1500f8d196
cost and lower usage applications where car speed and passenger comfort were less of an issue
97
False
What problem arises for fast and large capacity elevators?
572e9584dfa6aa1500f8d197
the need for infinitely variable speed control over the traction machine
241
False
Generally, what powered the relay contoller?
572e9584dfa6aa1500f8d198
MG set
424
False
What is a known advantage of the MG set?
572e9584dfa6aa1500f8d199
electrically isolating the elevators from the rest of a building's electrical system
525
False
Historically, AC motors were used for single or double speed elevator machines on the grounds of cost and lower usage applications where car speed and passenger comfort were less of an issue, but for higher speed, larger capacity elevators, the need for infinitely variable speed control over the traction machine becomes an issue. Therefore, DC machines powered by an AC/DC motor generator were the preferred solution. The MG set also typically powered the relay controller of the elevator, which has the added advantage of electrically isolating the elevators from the rest of a building's electrical system, thus eliminating the transient power spikes in the building's electrical supply caused by the motors starting and stopping (causing lighting to dim every time the elevators are used for example), as well as interference to other electrical equipment caused by the arcing of the relay contactors in the control system.
In a gearless traction engine, what is the drive sheave attached to?
572ea29b03f9891900756877
directly attached to the end of the motor
142
False
What speed is a gearless traction elevator capable of attaining?
572ea29b03f9891900756878
20 m/s (4,000 ft/min)
239
False
What motivates an external drum brake held open electrically?
572ea29b03f9891900756879
spring force
490
False
One exception that is not high speed high rise and large capacity is what?
572ea29b03f989190075687a
Kone MonoSpace's EcoDisc
893
False
Gearless traction machines are low-speed (low-RPM), high-torque electric motors powered either by AC or DC. In this case, the drive sheave is directly attached to the end of the motor. Gearless traction elevators can reach speeds of up to 20 m/s (4,000 ft/min), A brake is mounted between the motor and gearbox or between the motor and drive sheave or at the end of the drive sheave to hold the elevator stationary at a floor. This brake is usually an external drum type and is actuated by spring force and held open electrically; a power failure will cause the brake to engage and prevent the elevator from falling (see inherent safety and safety engineering). But it can also be some form of disc type like 1 or more calipers over a disc in one end of the motor shaft or drive sheave which is used in high speed, high rise and large capacity elevators with machine rooms(an exception is the Kone MonoSpace's EcoDisc which is not high speed, high rise and large capacity and is machine room less but it uses the same design as is a thinner version of a conventional gearless traction machine) for breaking power, compactness and redundancy(assuming there's at least 2 calipers on the disc), or 1 or more disc brakes with a single caliper at one end of the motor shaft or drive sheave which is used in machine room less elevators for compactness, breaking power, and redundancy(assuming there's 2 brakes or more).
What reduces the amount of force needed to propel the cab?
572ea56bcb0c0d14000f13dc
cables are attached to a hitch plate on top of the cab
14
False
Where will the counterweight be found?
572ea56bcb0c0d14000f13dd
in the hoist-way
292
False
What guides the traction machine?
572ea56bcb0c0d14000f13de
the controller
479
False
The counterweight runs equal to the cab weight plus what percentage of the elevator capacity?
572ea56bcb0c0d14000f13df
40-50%
716
False
Maintaining that the ropes all have equal tension may reduce what?
572ea56bcb0c0d14000f13e0
Sheave and rope wear
1082
False
In each case, cables are attached to a hitch plate on top of the cab or may be "underslung" below a cab, and then looped over the drive sheave to a counterweight attached to the opposite end of the cables which reduces the amount of power needed to move the cab. The counterweight is located in the hoist-way and rides a separate railway system; as the car goes up, the counterweight goes down, and vice versa. This action is powered by the traction machine which is directed by the controller, typically a relay logic or computerized device that directs starting, acceleration, deceleration and stopping of the elevator cab. The weight of the counterweight is typically equal to the weight of the elevator cab plus 40-50% of the capacity of the elevator. The grooves in the drive sheave are specially designed to prevent the cables from slipping. "Traction" is provided to the ropes by the grip of the grooves in the sheave, thereby the name. As the ropes age and the traction grooves wear, some traction is lost and the ropes must be replaced and the sheave repaired or replaced. Sheave and rope wear may be significantly reduced by ensuring that all ropes have equal tension, thus sharing the load evenly. Rope tension equalization may be achieved using a rope tension gauge, and is a simple way to extend the lifetime of the sheaves and ropes.
"Compensation" is the name of the system used for what type of elevators?
572ea840cb0c0d14000f13fa
Elevators with more than 30 m (98 ft) of travel
0
False
"Compensation" consists of what?
572ea840cb0c0d14000f13fb
a separate set of cables or a chain attached to the bottom of the counterweight and the bottom of the elevator cab
91
False
What exactly does this system compensate for?
572ea840cb0c0d14000f13fc
the differing weight of cable between the hoist and the cab
275
False
What is the chain guided by in a compensation system that uses chains?
572ea840cb0c0d14000f13fd
a bar mounted between the counterweight railway lines
723
False
Elevators with more than 30 m (98 ft) of travel have a system called compensation. This is a separate set of cables or a chain attached to the bottom of the counterweight and the bottom of the elevator cab. This makes it easier to control the elevator, as it compensates for the differing weight of cable between the hoist and the cab. If the elevator cab is at the top of the hoist-way, there is a short length of hoist cable above the car and a long length of compensating cable below the car and vice versa for the counterweight. If the compensation system uses cables, there will be an additional sheave in the pit below the elevator, to guide the cables. If the compensation system uses chains, the chain is guided by a bar mounted between the counterweight railway lines.
What type of installations are hydraulic elevators best suited for?
572ead00c246551400ce44c6
low rise, low traffic installations
110
False
Why do hydraulic elevators use more energy?
572ead00c246551400ce44c7
the pump works against gravity to push the car and its passengers upwards; this energy is lost when the car descends on its own weight
181
False
What else contributes to a higher demand from the electrical system?
572ead00c246551400ce44c8
The high current draw of the pump when starting up
317
False
What concerns arise when the lifting cylinder leaks fluid into the ground?
572ead00c246551400ce44c9
environmental concerns
445
False
The low mechanical complexity of hydraulic elevators in comparison to traction elevators makes them ideal for low rise, low traffic installations. They are less energy efficient as the pump works against gravity to push the car and its passengers upwards; this energy is lost when the car descends on its own weight. The high current draw of the pump when starting up also places higher demands on a building’s electrical system. There are also environmental concerns should the lifting cylinder leak fluid into the ground.
What defines a climbing elevator?
572eae7803f9891900756931
a self-ascending elevator with its own propulsion
23
False
What settings are climbing elevators used in?
572eae7803f9891900756932
guyed masts or towers
171
False
What is the Glasgow Tower?
572eae7803f9891900756933
an observation tower in Glasgow, Scotland
452
False
How is the propulsion powered in a climbing elevator?
572eae7803f9891900756934
by an electric or a combustion engine
101
False
A climbing elevator is a self-ascending elevator with its own propulsion. The propulsion can be done by an electric or a combustion engine. Climbing elevators are used in guyed masts or towers, in order to make easy access to parts of these constructions, such as flight safety lamps for maintenance. An example would be the Moonlight towers in Austin, Texas, where the elevator holds only one person and equipment for maintenance. The Glasgow Tower — an observation tower in Glasgow, Scotland — also makes use of two climbing elevators.
What does this type of elevator use to propel the cage?
572eb0d603f9891900756955
a vacuum on top of the cab and a valve on the top of the "shaft"
29
False
For sudden surges in pressure above the cab, what is used as a "brake"?
572eb0d603f9891900756956
a diaphragm or a piston
183
False
How does it enable the cab to go down by it's own weight?
572eb0d603f9891900756957
it opens the valve so that the air can pressurize the top of the "shaft"
305
False
What is the shaft made of?
572eb0d603f9891900756958
acrilic
534
False
How much weight is permitted on a low capacity elevator?
572eb0d603f9891900756959
up to 525 lbs
777
False
A elevator of this kind uses a vacuum on top of the cab and a valve on the top of the "shaft" to move the cab upwards and closes the valve in order to keep the cab at the same level. a diaphragm or a piston is used as a "brake" if there's a sudden increase in pressure avove the cab. however, to go down, it opens the valve so that the air can pressurize the top of the "shaft", allowing the cab to go down by its own weight. this also means that in case of a power failure, the cab will automatically go down. the "shaft" is made of acrilic, is always round, due to the shape of the vacuum pump turbine. in order to keep the air inside of the cab, rubber seals are used. due to technical limitations, these elevators have a low capacity. they usually allow 1-3 passengers and up to 525 lbs.
Until the mid 1900s most elevators lacked what?
572eb3abdfa6aa1500f8d2d3
automatic positioning of the floor on which the cab would stop
72
False
Many earlier built  freight elevators were controlled by what?
572eb3abdfa6aa1500f8d2d4
switches operated by pulling on adjacent ropes
191
False
How were most elevators built before 1939 powered?
572eb3abdfa6aa1500f8d2d5
by elevator operators using a rheostat connected to the motor
303
False
A rheostat is the size and shape of what?
572eb3abdfa6aa1500f8d2d6
a cake
466
False
Where was the rheostat mounted?
572eb3abdfa6aa1500f8d2d7
upright or sideways on the cab wall
491
False
In the first half of the twentieth century, almost all elevators had no automatic positioning of the floor on which the cab would stop. Some of the older freight elevators were controlled by switches operated by pulling on adjacent ropes. In general, most elevators before WWII were manually controlled by elevator operators using a rheostat connected to the motor. This rheostat (see picture) was enclosed within a cylindrical container about the size and shape of a cake. This was mounted upright or sideways on the cab wall and operated via a projecting handle, which was able to slide around the top half of the cylinder.
Where is the elevator motor found?
572eb759dfa6aa1500f8d2f9
at the top of the shaft or beside the bottom of the shaft
31
False
Moving the helve forward causes the cab to do what?
572eb759dfa6aa1500f8d2fa
to rise
137
False
The more pressure applied to the handle caused what?
572eb759dfa6aa1500f8d2fb
the faster the elevator would move
201
False
Why was the handle considered a "dead man switch"?
572eb759dfa6aa1500f8d2fc
if the operator let go of the handle, it would return to its upright position, causing the elevator cab to stop
282
False
Eventually safety locks were used to guarantee what?
572eb759dfa6aa1500f8d2fd
that the inner and outer doors were closed before the elevator was allowed to move
435
False
The elevator motor was located at the top of the shaft or beside the bottom of the shaft. Pushing the handle forward would cause the cab to rise; backwards would make it sink. The harder the pressure, the faster the elevator would move. The handle also served as a dead man switch: if the operator let go of the handle, it would return to its upright position, causing the elevator cab to stop. In time, safety interlocks would ensure that the inner and outer doors were closed before the elevator was allowed to move.
What function does a "destination operating panel" feature?
572eb90bcb0c0d14000f14c2
a passenger registers their floor calls before entering the car
102
False
What is one benefit of a "destination operating panel"
572eb90bcb0c0d14000f14c3
travel time is reduced as the elevator makes fewer stops for individual passengers
272
False
What is another benefit of a "destination operating panel"?
572eb90bcb0c0d14000f14c4
the computer distributes adjacent stops to different cars in the bank
360
False
What is the downside to a :destination operating panel"?
572eb90bcb0c0d14000f14c5
passenger waiting times may be longer as they will not necessarily be allocated the next car to depart
464
False
Some skyscraper buildings and other types of installation feature a destination operating panel where a passenger registers their floor calls before entering the car. The system lets them know which car to wait for, instead of everyone boarding the next car. In this way, travel time is reduced as the elevator makes fewer stops for individual passengers, and the computer distributes adjacent stops to different cars in the bank. Although travel time is reduced, passenger waiting times may be longer as they will not necessarily be allocated the next car to depart. During the down peak period the benefit of destination control will be limited as passengers have a common destination.
What is one example of a limitation on the system?
572ebc76cb0c0d14000f14e6
the system is subject to gaming
153
False
What is generally unable to support variations in the number of people for a particular destination?
572ebc76cb0c0d14000f14e7
The dispatching algorithm
284
False
For what reason do people repeatedly push the up/down buttons on a panel?
572ebc76cb0c0d14000f14e8
people believe this to be an effective way to hurry elevators
550
False
Why is this a bad practice?
572ebc76cb0c0d14000f14e9
this will make the computer think multiple people are waiting and will allocate empty cars to serve this one person
622
False
However, performance enhancements cannot be generalized as the benefits and limitations of the system are dependent on many factors. One problem is that the system is subject to gaming. Sometimes, one person enters the destination for a large group of people going to the same floor. The dispatching algorithm is usually unable to completely cater for the variation, and latecomers may find the elevator they are assigned to is already full. Also, occasionally, one person may press the floor multiple times. This is common with up/down buttons when people believe this to be an effective way to hurry elevators. However, this will make the computer think multiple people are waiting and will allocate empty cars to serve this one person.
What is one way to implement destination control?
572ebdfdc246551400ce45d6
every user gets an RFID card to identify himself
71
False
How does this help the system?
572ebdfdc246551400ce45d7
the system knows every user call and can cancel the first call if the passenger decides to travel to another destination to prevent empty calls
124
False
Newer systems know where and how many people are at a location for what reasons?
572ebdfdc246551400ce45d8
either for the purposes of evacuating the building or for security reasons
387
False
To prevent this problem, in one implementation of destination control, every user gets an RFID card to identify himself, so the system knows every user call and can cancel the first call if the passenger decides to travel to another destination to prevent empty calls. The newest invention knows even where people are located and how many on which floor because of their identification, either for the purposes of evacuating the building or for security reasons. Another way to prevent this issue is to treat everyone travelling from one floor to another as one group and to allocate only one car for that group.
What is another name for up-peak mode?
572ec147c246551400ce4610
moderate incoming traffic
33
False
Generally, up-peak mode takes place during what times of the day?
572ec147c246551400ce4611
most typically in the morning
183
False
What are the reasons for up-peak mode early in the day?
572ec147c246551400ce4612
people arrive for work or at the conclusion of a lunch-time period
216
False
For what reasons are elevators routed one-by-one?
572ec147c246551400ce4613
when they reach a pre-determined passenger load, or when they have had their doors opened for a certain period of time
320
False
Why is a "this car leaving next" sign used?
572ec147c246551400ce4614
to encourage passengers to make maximum use of the available elevator system capacity
550
False
During up-peak mode (also called moderate incoming traffic), elevator cars in a group are recalled to the lobby to provide expeditious service to passengers arriving at the building, most typically in the morning as people arrive for work or at the conclusion of a lunch-time period. Elevators are dispatched one-by-one when they reach a pre-determined passenger load, or when they have had their doors opened for a certain period of time. The next elevator to be dispatched usually has its hall lantern or a "this car leaving next" sign illuminated to encourage passengers to make maximum use of the available elevator system capacity. Some elevator banks are programmed so that at least one car will always return to the lobby floor and park whenever it becomes free.
How is the special sercice mode enabled?
572ec373c246551400ce4632
by a key switch either inside the elevator itself or on a centralized control panel in the lobby
87
False
What is the impact on an elevator set to independant service mode?
572ec373c246551400ce4633
it will no longer respond to hall calls
236
False
At what times is Independant service best utilized?
572ec373c246551400ce4634
when transporting large goods or moving groups of people between certain floors
596
False
During independant service mode how is a single cab in a hall kept from being used?
572ec373c246551400ce4635
the hall buttons are disabled
374
False
Independent service is a special service mode found on most elevators. It is activated by a key switch either inside the elevator itself or on a centralized control panel in the lobby. When an elevator is placed on independent service, it will no longer respond to hall calls. (In a bank of elevators, traffic is rerouted to the other elevators, while in a single elevator, the hall buttons are disabled). The elevator will remain parked on a floor with its doors open until a floor is selected and the door close button is held until the elevator starts to travel. Independent service is useful when transporting large goods or moving groups of people between certain floors.
Who is authorized to provide inspection and/or maintenance of the elevator?
572ec66cdfa6aa1500f8d38b
qualified elevator mechanics
120
False
What is the purpose of the Inspection service?
572ec66cdfa6aa1500f8d38c
to provide access to the hoistway and car top for inspection and maintenance
31
False
What action initiates it's activation?
572ec66cdfa6aa1500f8d38d
a key switch on the car operating panel usually labeled 'Inspection', 'Car Top', 'Access Enable' or 'HWENAB
175
False
WWhat's the first thing to happen when the switch is activated?
572ec66cdfa6aa1500f8d38e
the elevator will come to a stop if moving
315
False
Once activatated, what is the only way to deactivate it?
572ec66cdfa6aa1500f8d38f
The elevator can now only be moved by the corresponding 'Access' key switches
532
False
Inspection service is designed to provide access to the hoistway and car top for inspection and maintenance purposes by qualified elevator mechanics. It is first activated by a key switch on the car operating panel usually labeled 'Inspection', 'Car Top', 'Access Enable' or 'HWENAB'. When this switch is activated the elevator will come to a stop if moving, car calls will be canceled (and the buttons disabled), and hall calls will be assigned to other elevator cars in the group (or canceled in a single elevator configuration). The elevator can now only be moved by the corresponding 'Access' key switches, usually located at the highest (to access the top of the car) and lowest (to access the elevator pit) landings. The access key switches will allow the car to move at reduced inspection speed with the hoistway door open. This speed can range from anywhere up to 60% of normal operating speed on most controllers, and is usually defined by local safety codes.
What initiates Phase one mode?
572ec87ac246551400ce4674
a corresponding smoke sensor or heat sensor in the building
31
False
What happens when an elevator goes into Phase one mode?
572ec87ac246551400ce4675
The elevator will wait an amount of time, then proceed to go into nudging mode to tell everyone the elevator is leaving the floor
177
False
Where does the elevator go from there?
572ec87ac246551400ce4676
the elevator will go to the fire-recall floor
388
False
What happens if the mode is activated on the fire-recall floor?
572ec87ac246551400ce4677
the elevator will have an alternate floor to recall to
497
False
How is the elevator enabled for service after the incident?
572ec87ac246551400ce4678
The only way to return the elevator to normal service is to switch it to bypass after the alarms have reset
899
False
Phase one mode is activated by a corresponding smoke sensor or heat sensor in the building. Once an alarm has been activated, the elevator will automatically go into phase one. The elevator will wait an amount of time, then proceed to go into nudging mode to tell everyone the elevator is leaving the floor. Once the elevator has left the floor, depending on where the alarm was set off, the elevator will go to the fire-recall floor. However, if the alarm was activated on the fire-recall floor, the elevator will have an alternate floor to recall to. When the elevator is recalled, it proceeds to the recall floor and stops with its doors open. The elevator will no longer respond to calls or move in any direction. Located on the fire-recall floor is a fire-service key switch. The fire-service key switch has the ability to turn fire service off, turn fire service on or to bypass fire service. The only way to return the elevator to normal service is to switch it to bypass after the alarms have reset.
How is the Phase-two mode enabled?
572ec9f6c246551400ce4688
Phase-two mode can only be activated by a key switch located inside the elevator on the centralized control panel
0
False
What is the purpose of the Phase-two mode?
572ec9f6c246551400ce4689
This mode was created for firefighters so that they may rescue people from a burning building
115
False
Where is the Phase-two key switch to be found?
572ec9f6c246551400ce468a
on the COP
243
False
What does Phase-two do?
572ec9f6c246551400ce468b
enables the car to move
335
False
What actions must a firefighter take to activate Phase-two mode?
572ec9f6c246551400ce468c
manually pushes and holds the door close button
462
False
Phase-two mode can only be activated by a key switch located inside the elevator on the centralized control panel. This mode was created for firefighters so that they may rescue people from a burning building. The phase-two key switch located on the COP has three positions: off, on, and hold. By turning phase two on, the firefighter enables the car to move. However, like independent-service mode, the car will not respond to a car call unless the firefighter manually pushes and holds the door close button. Once the elevator gets to the desired floor it will not open its doors unless the firefighter holds the door open button. This is in case the floor is burning and the firefighter can feel the heat and knows not to open the door. The firefighter must hold door open until the door is completely opened. If for any reason the firefighter wishes to leave the elevator, they will use the hold position on the key switch to make sure the elevator remains at that floor. If the firefighter wishes to return to the recall floor, they simply turn the key off and close the doors.
Upon arriving at the desinated floor, what does the elevator do?
572ecdd5cb0c0d14000f15a2
it will park with its doors open and the car buttons will be disabled to prevent a passenger from taking control of the elevator
40
False
What steps do medical personnel take at that point?
572ecdd5cb0c0d14000f15a3
Medical personnel must then activate the code-blue key switch inside the car, select their floor and close the doors with the door close button
170
False
Where then does the elevator go?
572ecdd5cb0c0d14000f15a4
The elevator will then travel non-stop to the selected floor
315
False
Once it arrives what does the elevator do
572ecdd5cb0c0d14000f15a5
will remain in code-blue service until switched off in the car
381
False
What does the hold feature do?
572ecdd5cb0c0d14000f15a6
allows the elevator to remain at a floor locked out of service until code blue is deactivated
560
False
Once the elevator arrives at the floor, it will park with its doors open and the car buttons will be disabled to prevent a passenger from taking control of the elevator. Medical personnel must then activate the code-blue key switch inside the car, select their floor and close the doors with the door close button. The elevator will then travel non-stop to the selected floor, and will remain in code-blue service until switched off in the car. Some hospital elevators will feature a 'hold' position on the code-blue key switch (similar to fire service) which allows the elevator to remain at a floor locked out of service until code blue is deactivated.
What sequence of events happens when the power shuts off in a traction elevator and the elevators all stop?
572ed00ac246551400ce46cc
One by one, each car in the group will return to the lobby floor, open its doors and shut down
95
False
What do any passengers experience at this point?
572ed00ac246551400ce46cd
People in the remaining elevators may see an indicator light or hear a voice announcement informing them that the elevator will return to the lobby shortly
191
False
After all cars go to the lobby, what is the next step?
572ed00ac246551400ce46ce
the system will then automatically select one or more cars to be used for normal operations and these cars will return to service
390
False
How are the selected cars then readied for passengers?
572ed00ac246551400ce46cf
The car(s) selected to run under emergency power can be manually overridden by a key or strip switch in the lobby
521
False
What is a safety feature to prevent entrapment?
572ed00ac246551400ce46d0
when the system detects that it is running low on power, it will bring the running cars to the lobby or nearest floor, open the doors and shut down
673
False
When power is lost in a traction elevator system, all elevators will initially come to a halt. One by one, each car in the group will return to the lobby floor, open its doors and shut down. People in the remaining elevators may see an indicator light or hear a voice announcement informing them that the elevator will return to the lobby shortly. Once all cars have successfully returned, the system will then automatically select one or more cars to be used for normal operations and these cars will return to service. The car(s) selected to run under emergency power can be manually overridden by a key or strip switch in the lobby. In order to help prevent entrapment, when the system detects that it is running low on power, it will bring the running cars to the lobby or nearest floor, open the doors and shut down.
How do hydraulic elevators work in emergencies?
572ed1e0dfa6aa1500f8d409
emergency power will lower the elevators to the lowest landing and open the doors to allow passengers to exit
31
False
Once the passengers have exited, what happens?
572ed1e0dfa6aa1500f8d40a
The doors then close after an adjustable time period and the car remains unusable until reset, usually by cycling the elevator main power switch
142
False
For what reason are hydraulic elevators not powered by the standard emergency system?
572ed1e0dfa6aa1500f8d40b
due to the high current draw when starting the pump motor
299
False
What are current-limiting motor starters referred to as?
572ed1e0dfa6aa1500f8d40c
"soft-start" contactors
621
False
In hydraulic elevator systems, emergency power will lower the elevators to the lowest landing and open the doors to allow passengers to exit. The doors then close after an adjustable time period and the car remains unusable until reset, usually by cycling the elevator main power switch. Typically, due to the high current draw when starting the pump motor, hydraulic elevators are not run using standard emergency power systems. Buildings like hospitals and nursing homes usually size their emergency generators to accommodate this draw. However, the increasing use of current-limiting motor starters, commonly known as "soft-start" contactors, avoid much of this problem, and the current draw of the pump motor is less of a limiting concern.
What types of elevator hold the highest safety record?
572ed638dfa6aa1500f8d42f
cable-borne elevators
24
False
In the late nineties, what was considered the rate of cable-borne elevator problems?
572ed638dfa6aa1500f8d430
eight millionths of one percent (1 in 12 million) of elevator rides
175
False
What was the severity of the majority of elevator failures recorded?
572ed638dfa6aa1500f8d431
minor things such as the doors failing to open
301
False
What is an example of a maintenance-related elevator death?
572ed638dfa6aa1500f8d432
technicians leaning too far into the shaft or getting caught between moving parts
452
False
Before the Twin Towers attack in 2001 , what was the only reported freefall accident attributed to a modern cable-borne elevator?
572ed638dfa6aa1500f8d433
1945 when a B-25 bomber struck the Empire State Building
860
False
Statistically speaking, cable-borne elevators are extremely safe. Their safety record is unsurpassed by any other vehicle system. In 1998, it was estimated that approximately eight millionths of one percent (1 in 12 million) of elevator rides result in an anomaly, and the vast majority of these were minor things such as the doors failing to open. Of the 20 to 30 elevator-related deaths each year, most of them are maintenance-related — for example, technicians leaning too far into the shaft or getting caught between moving parts, and most of the rest are attributed to other kinds of accidents, such as people stepping blindly through doors that open into empty shafts or being strangled by scarves caught in the doors. In fact, prior to the September 11th terrorist attacks, the only known free-fall incident in a modern cable-borne elevator happened in 1945 when a B-25 bomber struck the Empire State Building in fog, severing the cables of an elevator cab, which fell from the 75th floor all the way to the bottom of the building, seriously injuring (though not killing) the sole occupant — the elevator operator. However, there was an incident in 2007 at a Seattle children's hospital, where a ThyssenKrupp ISIS machine-room-less elevator free-fell until the safety brakes were engaged. This was due to a flaw in the design where the cables were connected at one common point, and the kevlar ropes had a tendency to overheat and cause slipping (or, in this case, a free-fall). While it is possible (though extraordinarily unlikely) for an elevator's cable to snap, all elevators in the modern era have been fitted with several safety devices which prevent the elevator from simply free-falling and crashing. An elevator cab is typically borne by 2 to 6 (up to 12 or more in high rise installations) hoist cables or belts, each of which is capable on its own of supporting the full load of the elevator plus twenty-five percent more weight. In addition, there is a device which detects whether the elevator is descending faster than its maximum designed speed; if this happens, the device causes copper (or silicon nitride in high rise installations) brake shoes to clamp down along the vertical rails in the shaft, stopping the elevator quickly, but not so abruptly as to cause injury. This device is called the governor, and was invented by Elisha Graves Otis. In addition, a oil/hydraulic or spring or polyurethane or telescopic oil/hydraulic buffer or a combination (depending on the travel height and travel speed) is installed at the bottom of the shaft (or in the bottom of the cab and sometimes also in the top of the cab or shaft) to somewhat cushion any impact. However, In Thailand, in November 2012, a woman was killed in free falling elevator, in what was reported as the "first legally recognised death caused by a falling lift".
Underground electrolytic malfunctions in hydraulic elevators can result in the destruction of what?
572eddd7dfa6aa1500f8d47f
the cylinder and bulkhead
87
False
What Elevator Safety Code change required a second dished bulkhead?
572eddd7dfa6aa1500f8d480
1972 ASME A17.1
205
False
Before the code change was enacted what was the only permitted hydraulic cylinder type?
572eddd7dfa6aa1500f8d481
single-bottom
367
False
Once the cylinder is breached, what calamity does the loss of fluid cause?
572eddd7dfa6aa1500f8d482
uncontrolled down movement of the elevator
463
False
What testing does the code require?
572eddd7dfa6aa1500f8d483
periodic testing of the pressure capability
785
False
Past problems with hydraulic elevators include underground electrolytic destruction of the cylinder and bulkhead, pipe failures, and control failures. Single bulkhead cylinders, typically built prior to a 1972 ASME A17.1 Elevator Safety Code change requiring a second dished bulkhead, were subject to possible catastrophic failure. The code previously permitted only single-bottom hydraulic cylinders. In the event of a cylinder breach, the fluid loss results in uncontrolled down movement of the elevator. This creates two significant hazards: being subject to an impact at the bottom when the elevator stops suddenly and being in the entrance for a potential shear if the rider is partly in the elevator. Because it is impossible to verify the system at all times, the code requires periodic testing of the pressure capability. Another solution to protect against a cylinder blowout is to install a plunger gripping device. One commercially available is known by the marketing name "LifeJacket". This is a device which, in the event of an uncontrolled downward acceleration, nondestructively grips the plunger and stops the car. A device known as an overspeed or rupture valve is attached to the hydraulic inlet/outlet of the cylinder and is adjusted for a maximum flow rate. If a pipe or hose were to break (rupture), the flow rate of the rupture valve will surpass a set limit and mechanically stop the outlet flow of hydraulic fluid, thus stopping the plunger and the car in the down direction.
What part of the mine shaft requires routine testing?
572edff503f9891900756aa9
elevator rails
29
False
What type of testing is done to the an area of the cable?
572edff503f9891900756aaa
destructive testing
89
False
What is  the first step in destructive testing?
572edff503f9891900756aab
The ends of the segment are frayed, then set in conical zinc molds
136
False
Afterwards, what type of machine is the segment secured in?
572edff503f9891900756aac
hydraulic stretching machine
256
False
What types of information are collected in the process?
572edff503f9891900756aad
Data about elasticity, load, and other factors is compiled
360
False
Safety testing of mine shaft elevator rails is routinely undertaken. The method involves destructive testing of a segment of the cable. The ends of the segment are frayed, then set in conical zinc molds. Each end of the segment is then secured in a large, hydraulic stretching machine. The segment is then placed under increasing load to the point of failure. Data about elasticity, load, and other factors is compiled and a report is produced. The report is then analyzed to determine whether or not the entire rail is safe to use.
What dictates passenger elevator capacities?
572ee270c246551400ce4774
the available floor space
43
False
What capacities are passenger elevators availablee in?
572ee270c246551400ce4775
from 500 to 2,700 kg (1,000–6,000 lb) in 230 kg (500 lb) increments
128
False
What types of passenger elevators are installed in structures of up to eight floors?
572ee270c246551400ce4776
hydraulic or electric
286
False
Hydraulic elevators can reach speeds up to 1m/s or how many feet per minute?
572ee270c246551400ce4777
200
345
False
Electric elevators can reach speeds up to 3 m/s or how many feet per minute?
572ee270c246551400ce4778
500
512
False
Passenger elevators capacity is related to the available floor space. Generally passenger elevators are available in capacities from 500 to 2,700 kg (1,000–6,000 lb) in 230 kg (500 lb) increments.[citation needed] Generally passenger elevators in buildings of eight floors or fewer are hydraulic or electric, which can reach speeds up to 1 m/s (200 ft/min) hydraulic and up to 152 m/min (500 ft/min) electric. In buildings up to ten floors, electric and gearless elevators are likely to have speeds up to 3 m/s (500 ft/min), and above ten floors speeds range 3 to 10 m/s (500–2,000 ft/min).[citation needed]
Passenger elevators, used in city transport share similarities to what other ascending and descending vehicles counterbalancing each other?
572eea0ddfa6aa1500f8d4d5
funiculars
70
False
What type of public elevator in Yalta, Ukraine, transport passengers from a hill above the Black Sea to a tunnel down on the beach?
572eea0ddfa6aa1500f8d4d6
underground public elevator
116
False
The elevator located at the Casco Viejo station in the Bilbao Metro is also used for what?
572eea0ddfa6aa1500f8d4d7
city transportation
430
False
How is that set up?
572eea0ddfa6aa1500f8d4d8
ticket barriers are set up in such a way that passengers can pay to reach the elevator from the entrance in the lower city, or vice versa
465
False
Sometimes passenger elevators are used as a city transport along with funiculars. For example, there is a 3-station underground public elevator in Yalta, Ukraine, which takes passengers from the top of a hill above the Black Sea on which hotels are perched, to a tunnel located on the beach below. At Casco Viejo station in the Bilbao Metro, the elevator that provides access to the station from a hilltop neighborhood doubles as city transportation: the station's ticket barriers are set up in such a way that passengers can pay to reach the elevator from the entrance in the lower city, or vice versa. See also the Elevators for urban transport section.
What is another name for a freight elevator?
572eeb54c246551400ce47a6
goods lift
23
False
What type of notice is required to be visible in most freight elevators?
572eeb54c246551400ce47a7
a written notice in the car that the use by passengers is prohibited
151
False
Some freight elevators allow transport of both freight and passengers by using what?
572eeb54c246551400ce47a8
an inconspicuous riser
321
False
How do freight elevators differ from passenger elevators?
572eeb54c246551400ce47a9
Freight elevators are typically larger and capable of carrying heavier loads than a passenger elevator
457
False
What type of elevator is better suited for carrying freight?
572eeb54c246551400ce47aa
electric elevators
778
False
A freight elevator, or goods lift, is an elevator designed to carry goods, rather than passengers. Freight elevators are generally required to display a written notice in the car that the use by passengers is prohibited (though not necessarily illegal), though certain freight elevators allow dual use through the use of an inconspicuous riser. In order for an elevator to be legal to carry passengers in some jurisdictions it must have a solid inner door. Freight elevators are typically larger and capable of carrying heavier loads than a passenger elevator, generally from 2,300 to 4,500 kg. Freight elevators may have manually operated doors, and often have rugged interior finishes to prevent damage while loading and unloading. Although hydraulic freight elevators exist, electric elevators are more energy efficient for the work of freight lifting.[citation needed]
How are stage lifts powered?
572eecab03f9891900756ae3
by hydraulics
77
False
How many hydraulic elevators are there at Radio City Music Hall?
572eecab03f9891900756ae4
four
200
False
What is an orchestra lift used for?
572eecab03f9891900756ae5
to raise an entire orchestra, or an entire cast of performers (including live elephants) up to stage level from below
382
False
What is on the background of the image which can be used as a scale to represent the size of the mechanism?
572eecab03f9891900756ae6
a barrel
509
False
Stage lifts and orchestra lifts are specialized elevators, typically powered by hydraulics, that are used to raise and lower entire sections of a theater stage. For example, Radio City Music Hall has four such elevators: an orchestra lift that covers a large area of the stage, and three smaller lifts near the rear of the stage. In this case, the orchestra lift is powerful enough to raise an entire orchestra, or an entire cast of performers (including live elephants) up to stage level from below. There's a barrel on the background of the image of the left which can be used as a scale to represent the size of the mechanism
What type of elevators are generally less costly than full commercial elevators?
572eef64cb0c0d14000f1682
residential
2
False
What type of doors do commercial elevators use?
572eef64cb0c0d14000f1683
metal sliding
247
False
What safety mechanisms are still required, despite lower design costs?
572eef64cb0c0d14000f1684
locks on shaft access doors, fall arrestors, and emergency phones
412
False
What type of elevator has a hinged wooden shaft-access door?
572eef64cb0c0d14000f1685
residential
2
False
A residential elevator is often permitted to be of lower cost and complexity than full commercial elevators. They may have unique design characteristics suited for home furnishings, such as hinged wooden shaft-access doors rather than the typical metal sliding doors of commercial elevators. Construction may be less robust than in commercial designs with shorter maintenance periods, but safety systems such as locks on shaft access doors, fall arrestors, and emergency phones must still be present in the event of malfunction.
What types of elevators occassionaly do not use a traditional elevator shaft, machine room or hoistway?
572ef20ecb0c0d14000f1694
residential
14
False
What benefits does this serve?
572ef20ecb0c0d14000f1695
allows an elevator to be installed where a traditional elevator may not fit, and simplifies installation
119
False
In what year were Machine-room-less elevators first allowed?
572ef20ecb0c0d14000f1696
2007
316
False
This decision reflected a revision of what?
572ef20ecb0c0d14000f1697
the ASME A17.1
298
False
Some types of residential elevators do not use a traditional elevator shaft, machine room, and elevator hoistway. This allows an elevator to be installed where a traditional elevator may not fit, and simplifies installation. The ASME board first approved machine-room-less systems in a revision of the ASME A17.1 in 2007. Machine-room-less elevators have been available commercially since the mid 1990s, however cost and overall size prevented their adoption to the residential elevator market until around 2010.
What are small freight elevators used for things such as food, called?
572ef3eac246551400ce47de
Dumbwaiters
0
False
What rooms are dumbwaiters frequently used in?
572ef3eac246551400ce47df
They often connect kitchens to rooms on other floors
132
False
What is a safety feature found in passenger elevators they generally do not have?
572ef3eac246551400ce47e0
various ropes for redundancy
271
False
What is the height restriction on dumbwaiters?
572ef3eac246551400ce47e1
they can be up to 1 meter (3 ft.) tall
333
False
What features do they have that mimic passenger elevators?
572ef3eac246551400ce47e2
calling, door control, floor selection
468
False
Dumbwaiters are small freight elevators that are intended to carry food, books or other small freight loads rather than passengers. They often connect kitchens to rooms on other floors. they usually do not have the same safety features found in passenger elevators, like various ropes for redundancy. they have a lower capacity, and they can be up to 1 meter (3 ft.) tall. there's a control panel at every stop, that mimics the ones found in passenger elevators, like calling, door control, floor selection.
An inclined plane with a conveyor belt describes what type of elevator?
572ef6bfcb0c0d14000f16a6
Material transport elevators
0
False
What do the partians do on the conveyor?
572ef6bfcb0c0d14000f16a7
ensure that the material moves forward
141
False
What industries are these types of elevators generally used in?
572ef6bfcb0c0d14000f16a8
industrial and agricultural applications
215
False
What are spiral screws used for?
572ef6bfcb0c0d14000f16a9
to elevate grain for storage in large vertical silos
329
False
What type of elevators are used for loading loose materials into bulk carriers?
572ef6bfcb0c0d14000f16aa
Belt elevators
432
False
Material transport elevators generally consist of an inclined plane on which a conveyor belt runs. The conveyor often includes partitions to ensure that the material moves forward. These elevators are often used in industrial and agricultural applications. When such mechanisms (or spiral screws or pneumatic transport) are used to elevate grain for storage in large vertical silos, the entire structure is called a grain elevator. Belt elevators are often used in docks for loading loose materials such as coal, iron ore and grain into the holds of bulk carriers
The invention of elevators brought with it questions of social etiquette and formalities, generally referred to as what?
572efd66cb0c0d14000f16cc
social protocols
27
False
The last tsar of Russia, Nicholas ll encountered his first elevator at the Hotel Adloin in what city?
572efd66cb0c0d14000f16cd
Berlin
99
False
This caused a stir in deciding who should enter first and who should do what?
572efd66cb0c0d14000f16ce
press the buttons
186
False
Andreas Bernard wrote about the social aspects of the new elevators in what book?
572efd66cb0c0d14000f16cf
Lifted: A Cultural History of the Elevator
208
False
Elevators necessitated new social protocols. When Nicholas II of Russia visited the Hotel Adlon in Berlin, his courtiers panicked about who would enter the elevator first, and who would press the buttons. In Lifted: A Cultural History of the Elevator, author Andreas Bernard documents other social impacts caused by the modern elevator, including thriller movies about stuck elevators, casual encounters and sexual tension on elevators, the reduction of personal space, and concerns about personal hygiene.
Modern elevator position or floor indicaters often use what type of bulbs?
572eff4bcb0c0d14000f16ee
LED
95
False
What type of lanterns are used outside elevators as well as inside most cabs?
572eff4bcb0c0d14000f16ef
direction lanterns
104
False
What do floor indicaters often consist of?
572eff4bcb0c0d14000f16f0
successively illuminated floor indications or LCDs
379
False
What generally indicates the arrival of the elevator at a new floor?
572eff4bcb0c0d14000f16f1
a sound
501
False
In addition to the call buttons, elevators usually have floor indicators (often illuminated by LED) and direction lanterns. The former are almost universal in cab interiors with more than two stops and may be found outside the elevators as well on one or more of the floors. Floor indicators can consist of a dial with a rotating needle, but the most common types are those with successively illuminated floor indications or LCDs. Likewise, a change of floors or an arrival at a floor is indicated by a sound, depending on the elevator.
What is the main function of direction lanterns?
572f010ddfa6aa1500f8d551
to help people decide whether or not to get on the elevator
153
False
What might change your mind about whether or not to enter an elevator?
572f010ddfa6aa1500f8d552
If somebody waiting for the elevator wants to go up, but a car comes first that indicates that it is going down
214
False
What type of etching might you see on a direction indicator?
572f010ddfa6aa1500f8d553
arrows or shaped like arrows
485
False
Some elevators may use the color convention for only what purpose?
572f010ddfa6aa1500f8d554
to differentiate between directions
841
False
Direction lanterns are also found both inside and outside elevator cars, but they should always be visible from outside because their primary purpose is to help people decide whether or not to get on the elevator. If somebody waiting for the elevator wants to go up, but a car comes first that indicates that it is going down, then the person may decide not to get on the elevator. If the person waits, then one will still stop going up. Direction indicators are sometimes etched with arrows or shaped like arrows and/or use the convention that one that lights up red means "down" and green means "up". Since the color convention is often undermined or overridden by systems that do not invoke it, it is usually used only in conjunction with other differentiating factors. An example of a place whose elevators use only the color convention to differentiate between directions is the Museum of Contemporary Art in Chicago, where a single circle can be made to light up green for "up" and red for "down". Sometimes directions must be inferred by the position of the indicators relative to one another.
New technologies aim to provide a better elevator experience to passengers who suffer from what?
572f0356dfa6aa1500f8d563
claustrophobia, anthropophobia or social anxiety
95
False
What Israeli company uses motion sensors to display information on a screen embedded in the wall of the cabs?
572f0356dfa6aa1500f8d564
DigiGage
161
False
LiftEye uses virtual window technology for what?
572f0356dfa6aa1500f8d565
to turn common elevator into panoramic
387
False
How does it produce the panoramic effects?
572f0356dfa6aa1500f8d566
It creates 3d video panorama using live feed from cameras placed vertically along the facade and synchronizes it with cab movement
427
False
Where is the video projected?
572f0356dfa6aa1500f8d567
on a wall-sized screens
582
False
There are several technologies aimed to provide better experience to passengers suffering from claustrophobia, anthropophobia or social anxiety. Israeli startup DigiGage uses motion sensors to scroll the pre-rendered images, building and floor-specific content on a screen embedded into the wall as the cab moves up and down. British company LiftEye provides a virtual window technology to turn common elevator into panoramic. It creates 3d video panorama using live feed from cameras placed vertically along the facade and synchronizes it with cab movement. The video is projected on a wall-sized screens making it look like the walls are made of glass.
In what neighboring countries are passenger elevators required to adhere to Standard A17.1?
572f068ccb0c0d14000f1718
most US and Canadian jurisdictions
3
False
What is Standard A17.1?
572f068ccb0c0d14000f1719
Safety Code for Elevators and Escalators
148
False
What is the equivilent to the US Standard A17.1 called in Canada?
572f068ccb0c0d14000f171a
CAN/CSA B44 Safety Standard
383
False
What are passenger elevators tested with?
572f068ccb0c0d14000f171b
ASME A17.2 Standard
688
False
In most US and Canadian jurisdictions, passenger elevators are required to conform to the American Society of Mechanical Engineers' Standard A17.1, Safety Code for Elevators and Escalators. As of 2006, all states except Kansas, Mississippi, North Dakota, and South Dakota have adopted some version of ASME codes, though not necessarily the most recent. In Canada the document is the CAN/CSA B44 Safety Standard, which was harmonized with the US version in the 2000 edition.[citation needed] In addition, passenger elevators may be required to conform to the requirements of A17.3 for existing elevators where referenced by the local jurisdiction. Passenger elevators are tested using the ASME A17.2 Standard. The frequency of these tests is mandated by the local jurisdiction, which may be a town, city, state or provincial standard.
Whose name is on the permit required for operation of an elevator?
572f0b6cdfa6aa1500f8d57f
the building owner
55
False
Do all jurisdictions require the permit to be displayed in the elevator?
572f0b6cdfa6aa1500f8d580
some jurisdictions require the permit to be displayed in the elevator cab, other jurisdictions allow for the operating permit to be kept on file elsewhere
118
False
Aside from the elevator, where else might a permit be displayed?
572f0b6cdfa6aa1500f8d581
the maintenance office
283
False
What type of notice can be displayed in the elevator in lieu of the permit?
572f0b6cdfa6aa1500f8d582
a notice is posted in its place informing riders of where the actual permits are kept.
438
False
Most elevators have a location in which the permit for the building owner to operate the elevator is displayed. While some jurisdictions require the permit to be displayed in the elevator cab, other jurisdictions allow for the operating permit to be kept on file elsewhere – such as the maintenance office – and to be made available for inspection on demand. In such cases instead of the permit being displayed in the elevator cab, often a notice is posted in its place informing riders of where the actual permits are kept.
In 2008, what country had the largest number of elevators?
572f0d29dfa6aa1500f8d591
Spain
20
False
What country had the second most elevators installed?
572f0d29dfa6aa1500f8d592
United States
189
False
How many elevators had China installed since 1949?
572f0d29dfa6aa1500f8d593
610,000
251
False
What country boasts the worlds largest market for elevators?
572f0d29dfa6aa1500f8d594
Italy
433
False
How many elevators are in Brazil?
572f0d29dfa6aa1500f8d595
300,000
347
False
As of January 2008, Spain is the nation with the most elevators installed in the world, with 950,000 elevators installed that run more than one hundred million lifts every day, followed by United States with 700,000 elevators installed and China with 610,000 elevators installed since 1949. In Brazil, it is estimated that there are approximately 300,000 elevators currently in operation. The world's largest market for elevators is Italy, with more than 1,629 million euros of sales and 1,224 million euros of internal market.
What type of elevators are used in the Taipei 101 office tower?
572f0e72c246551400ce487e
Double deck elevators
0
False
During what hours is the lower deck turned off?
572f0e72c246551400ce487f
low-volume hours
279
False
During the low volume hours, what can the upper deck function as?
572f0e72c246551400ce4880
a single-level elevator stopping at all adjacent floors
327
False
On what floor must restaurant customers clear their reservations?
572f0e72c246551400ce4881
at the reception counter on the 2nd floor
522
False
What levels make up the "sky lobby"?
572f0e72c246551400ce4882
36 and 60, upper-deck car
628
False
Double deck elevators are used in the Taipei 101 office tower. Tenants of even-numbered floors first take an escalator (or an elevator from the parking garage) to the 2nd level, where they will enter the upper deck and arrive at their floors. The lower deck is turned off during low-volume hours, and the upper deck can act as a single-level elevator stopping at all adjacent floors. For example, the 85th floor restaurants can be accessed from the 60th floor sky-lobby. Restaurant customers must clear their reservations at the reception counter on the 2nd floor. A bank of express elevators stop only on the sky lobby levels (36 and 60, upper-deck car), where tenants can transfer to "local" elevators.
How fast do the observation deck elevators travel?
572f0fb8c246551400ce4888
1,010 metres per minute (61 km/h) in 16 seconds
90
False
This speed holds what record?
572f0fb8c246551400ce4889
world-record certified speed
58
False
What does cabin pressure control do?
572f0fb8c246551400ce488a
help passengers adapt smoothly to pressure changes
354
False
How fast does the elevator drop down?
572f0fb8c246551400ce488b
600 meters per minute
463
False
At what floor do the doors open on the way down?
572f0fb8c246551400ce488c
52nd
516
False
The high-speed observation deck elevators accelerate to a world-record certified speed of 1,010 metres per minute (61 km/h) in 16 seconds, and then it slows down for arrival with subtle air pressure sensations. The door opens after 37 seconds from the 5th floor. Special features include aerodynamic car and counterweights, and cabin pressure control to help passengers adapt smoothly to pressure changes. The downwards journey is completed at a reduced speed of 600 meters per minute, with the doors opening at the 52nd second.
What is the name of the elevator attraction at the Disney World parks across the world?
572f112fdfa6aa1500f8d5ad
The Twilight Zone Tower of Terror
0
False
What is the main feature of this attraction?
572f112fdfa6aa1500f8d5ae
a simulated free-fall achieved through the use of a high-speed elevator system
314
False
Do ride goers stand or sit?
572f112fdfa6aa1500f8d5af
passengers are seated and secured in their seats rather than standing
414
False
What unique feature does this ride provide guests?
572f112fdfa6aa1500f8d5b0
downward acceleration greater than that of normal gravity
758
False
What type of motor is used?
572f112fdfa6aa1500f8d5b1
high-speed drive motor
821
False
The Twilight Zone Tower of Terror is the common name for a series of elevator attractions at the Disney's Hollywood Studios park in Orlando, the Disney California Adventure Park park in Anaheim, the Walt Disney Studios Park in Paris and the Tokyo DisneySea park in Tokyo. The central element of this attraction is a simulated free-fall achieved through the use of a high-speed elevator system. For safety reasons, passengers are seated and secured in their seats rather than standing. Unlike most traction elevators, the elevator car and counterweight are joined using a rail system in a continuous loop running through both the top and the bottom of the drop shaft. This allows the drive motor to pull down on the elevator car from underneath, resulting in downward acceleration greater than that of normal gravity. The high-speed drive motor is used to rapidly lift the elevator as well.
How are passenger cabs separated from the lift?
572f1256cb0c0d14000f175e
mechanically
23
False
What type of vehicles are the passenger cabs?
572f1256cb0c0d14000f175f
automated guided vehicles or AGVs
263
False
What action do the cabs take before the elevator begins to move?
572f1256cb0c0d14000f1760
move into the vertical motion shaft and lock themselves in
298
False
What is special about the doorways of the top floors?
572f1256cb0c0d14000f1761
The doorways of the top few "floors" of the attraction are open to the outdoor environment
478
False
What does this allow riders to do at the top?
572f1256cb0c0d14000f1762
look out from the top of the structure
598
False
The passenger cabs are mechanically separated from the lift mechanism, thus allowing the elevator shafts to be used continuously while passengers board and embark from the cabs, as well as move through show scenes on various floors. The passenger cabs, which are automated guided vehicles or AGVs, move into the vertical motion shaft and lock themselves in before the elevator starts moving vertically. Multiple elevator shafts are used to further improve passenger throughput. The doorways of the top few "floors" of the attraction are open to the outdoor environment, thus allowing passengers to look out from the top of the structure.
What are the 67th, 69th, and 70th floors of the GE Building at Rockerfeller Center nicknamed?
572f139a03f9891900756b73
"Top of the Rock"
77
False
What do these floors serve as?
572f139a03f9891900756b74
observation decks
51
False
What type of elevator is featured?
572f139a03f9891900756b75
high-speed glass-top
163
False
How long is the short trip?
572f139a03f9891900756b76
about 60 seconds
598
False
The special effects include blue light, music playing and what else?
572f139a03f9891900756b77
various animations are also displayed on the ceiling
522
False
Guests ascending to the 67th, 69th, and 70th level observation decks (dubbed "Top of the Rock") atop the GE Building at Rockefeller Center in New York City ride a high-speed glass-top elevator. When entering the cab, it appears to be any normal elevator ride. However, once the cab begins moving, the interior lights turn off and a special blue light above the cab turns on. This lights the entire shaft, so riders can see the moving cab through its glass ceiling as it rises and lowers through the shaft. Music plays and various animations are also displayed on the ceiling. The entire ride takes about 60 seconds.
The Haunted Mansion at Disneyland in California and the one in Paris, France sharewhat attribute?
572f15a303f9891900756b87
takes place on an elevator
110
False
What is the name of area that is really an elevator?
572f15a303f9891900756b88
The "stretching room"
138
False
What is included in the elevator's design?
572f15a303f9891900756b89
The elevator has no ceiling and its shaft is decorated to look like walls of a mansion
307
False
What is the illusion given by these effects?
572f15a303f9891900756b8a
the illusion of the room stretching
498
False
Part of the Haunted Mansion attraction at Disneyland in Anaheim, California, and Disneyland in Paris, France, takes place on an elevator. The "stretching room" on the ride is actually an elevator that travels downwards, giving access to a short underground tunnel which leads to the rest of the attraction. The elevator has no ceiling and its shaft is decorated to look like walls of a mansion. Because there is no roof, passengers are able to see the walls of the shaft by looking up, which gives the illusion of the room stretching.
Neptune
What planet is Neptune's near-twin?
572e82d1c246551400ce428c
Uranus
315
False
How much more dense is Neptune compared to Earth?
572e82d1c246551400ce428d
17 times
240
False
What is Neptune named after?
572e82d1c246551400ce428e
Roman god of the sea
523
False
What does the astronomical sign of Neptune represent?
572e82d1c246551400ce428f
god Neptune's trident
601
False
How many Earth years does Neptune orbit the sun?
572e82d1c246551400ce4290
164.8 years
430
False
Neptune
0
What is the third largest planet by diameter
5ace739f32bba1001ae4a707
True
Neptune
0
What is the eighth planet from the earth?
5ace739f32bba1001ae4a708
True
giant planets in the Solar System
167
What is neptune the least dense of?
5ace739f32bba1001ae4a709
True
Earth
261
What is neptune 17 times smaller than?
5ace739f32bba1001ae4a70a
True
god of the sea
529
What Greek god was neptune named for?
5ace739f32bba1001ae4a70b
True
Uranus
315
What planet is Neptune's opposite?
5aceddb032bba1001ae4b7a3
True
17 times
240
How much lighter is Neptune compared to Earth?
5aceddb032bba1001ae4b7a4
True
god Neptune's trident
601
What does the astronomical sign of Uranus represent?
5aceddb032bba1001ae4b7a5
True
Neptune is the eighth and farthest known planet from the Sun in the Solar System. It is the fourth-largest planet by diameter and the third-largest by mass. Among the giant planets in the Solar System, Neptune is the most dense. Neptune is 17 times the mass of Earth and is slightly more massive than its near-twin Uranus, which is 15 times the mass of Earth and slightly larger than Neptune.[c] Neptune orbits the Sun once every 164.8 years at an average distance of 30.1 astronomical units (4.50×109 km). Named after the Roman god of the sea, its astronomical symbol is ♆, a stylised version of the god Neptune's trident.
How was Neptune found?
572e8363dfa6aa1500f8d06f
mathematical prediction
94
False
Who discovered Neptune?
572e8363dfa6aa1500f8d070
Alexis Bouvard
202
False
When was Neptune first observed?
572e8363dfa6aa1500f8d071
23 September 1846
360
False
What is Neptune's largest moon?
572e8363dfa6aa1500f8d072
Triton
476
False
What flew by Neptune in 1989?
572e8363dfa6aa1500f8d073
Voyager 2
777
False
Neptune
0
What is the only planet in the solar system found by empirical observation?
5ace88f832bba1001ae4a9ab
True
changes in the orbit of Uranus
167
What led Bouvard to deduce Neptune was subject to gravitational perturbation of an unknown planet?
5ace88f832bba1001ae4a9ac
True
Alexis Bouvard
202
Who discovered Uranus?
5ace88f832bba1001ae4a9ad
True
Johann Galle
381
Who observed neptune with a telescope in the 18th century?
5ace88f832bba1001ae4a9ae
True
25 August 1989
818
When did Voyager 1 fligh by neptune?
5ace88f832bba1001ae4a9af
True
mathematical prediction
94
How was Neptune missed before it was found?
5aceddfb32bba1001ae4b7a9
True
Alexis Bouvard
202
Who didn't discover Neptune?
5aceddfb32bba1001ae4b7aa
True
23 September 1846
360
When was Neptune last observed?
5aceddfb32bba1001ae4b7ab
True
Triton
476
What is Neptune's smallest moon?
5aceddfb32bba1001ae4b7ac
True
Voyager 2
777
What flew by Neptune in 1988?
5aceddfb32bba1001ae4b7ad
True
Neptune is not visible to the unaided eye and is the only planet in the Solar System found by mathematical prediction rather than by empirical observation. Unexpected changes in the orbit of Uranus led Alexis Bouvard to deduce that its orbit was subject to gravitational perturbation by an unknown planet. Neptune was subsequently observed with a telescope on 23 September 1846 by Johann Galle within a degree of the position predicted by Urbain Le Verrier. Its largest moon, Triton, was discovered shortly thereafter, though none of the planet's remaining known 14 moons were located telescopically until the 20th century. The planet's distance from Earth gives it a very small apparent size, making it challenging to study with Earth-based telescopes. Neptune was visited by Voyager 2, when it flew by the planet on 25 August 1989. The advent of Hubble Space Telescope and large ground-based telescopes with adaptive optics has recently allowed for additional detailed observations from afar.
Which planet is compositionally similar to Neptune?
572e86c7c246551400ce42d0
Uranus
37
False
What is Neptune's atmosphere primarily composed of?
572e86c7c246551400ce42d1
hydrogen and helium
212
False
What is the interior of Neptune composed of?
572e86c7c246551400ce42d2
ices and rock
439
False
What makes Neptune blue?
572e86c7c246551400ce42d3
methane
561
False
What "ices" makes up Neptune?
572e86c7c246551400ce42d4
water, ammonia, and methane
341
False
Jupiter and Saturn
146
What other 2 gas Giants is Neptune similar to?
5ace970b32bba1001ae4ab55
True
hydrogen and helium
212
What gas besides oxygen makes up the atmosphere of Neptune?
5ace970b32bba1001ae4ab56
True
blue
627
what color does helium make neptune?
5ace970b32bba1001ae4ab57
True
Uranus
37
Which planet is compositionally different than Neptune?
5acede4a32bba1001ae4b7bd
True
hydrogen and helium
212
What is Neptune's atmosphere never composed of?
5acede4a32bba1001ae4b7be
True
ices and rock
439
What is the exterior of Neptune composed of?
5acede4a32bba1001ae4b7bf
True
methane
561
What makes Neptune red?
5acede4a32bba1001ae4b7c0
True
water, ammonia, and methane
341
What "rain" makes up Neptune?
5acede4a32bba1001ae4b7c1
True
Neptune is similar in composition to Uranus, and both have compositions that differ from those of the larger gas giants, Jupiter and Saturn. Like Jupiter and Saturn, Neptune's atmosphere is composed primarily of hydrogen and helium, along with traces of hydrocarbons and possibly nitrogen, but contains a higher proportion of "ices" such as water, ammonia, and methane. However, its interior, like that of Uranus, is primarily composed of ices and rock, and hence Uranus and Neptune are normally considered "ice giants" to emphasise this distinction. Traces of methane in the outermost regions in part account for the planet's blue appearance.
What weather did Voyager 2 observe on Neptune?
572e8793c246551400ce42da
Great Dark Spot
228
False
What weather feature does Neptune have stronger than any other planet?
572e8793c246551400ce42db
sustained winds
340
False
What were the wind speeds recorded on Neptune?
572e8793c246551400ce42dc
2,100 kilometres per hour
428
False
What is the cloud tops on Neptune temperature?
572e8793c246551400ce42dd
55 K (−218 °C).
645
False
What is Neptune's planet center temperature?
572e8793c246551400ce42de
5,400 K (5,100 °C)
715
False
Voyager 2
164
What observed a hazy featureless atmosphere on Neptune
5aceac5632bba1001ae4afc5
True
1989
183
When was the Great Red spot discovered on Jupiter
5aceac5632bba1001ae4afc6
True
2,100 kilometres per hour
428
What speed are the winds on Uranus?
5aceac5632bba1001ae4afc7
True
sustained winds
340
What weather feature is weakest on Neptune?
5aceac5632bba1001ae4afc8
True
fragmented ring system
759
What did Voyager 1 detect around Neptune in 1960
5aceac5632bba1001ae4afc9
True
Great Red Spot
262
What weather did Voyager 3 observe on Neptune?
5acede9132bba1001ae4b7c7
True
sustained winds
340
What weather feature does Neptune have weaker than any other planet?
5acede9132bba1001ae4b7c8
True
2,100 kilometres per hour
428
What were the rain speeds recorded on Neptune?
5acede9132bba1001ae4b7c9
True
55 K
645
What is the cloud bottoms on Neptune temperature?
5acede9132bba1001ae4b7ca
True
5,400 K (5,100 °C)
715
What is Neptune's planet surface temperature?
5acede9132bba1001ae4b7cb
True
In contrast to the hazy, relatively featureless atmosphere of Uranus, Neptune's atmosphere has active and visible weather patterns. For example, at the time of the Voyager 2 flyby in 1989, the planet's southern hemisphere had a Great Dark Spot comparable to the Great Red Spot on Jupiter. These weather patterns are driven by the strongest sustained winds of any planet in the Solar System, with recorded wind speeds as high as 2,100 kilometres per hour (580 m/s; 1,300 mph). Because of its great distance from the Sun, Neptune's outer atmosphere is one of the coldest places in the Solar System, with temperatures at its cloud tops approaching 55 K (−218 °C). Temperatures at the planet's centre are approximately 5,400 K (5,100 °C). Neptune has a faint and fragmented ring system (labelled "arcs"), which was first detected during the 1960s and confirmed by Voyager 2.
Who drew Neptune after observing it with a telescope?
572e8d3edfa6aa1500f8d10b
Galileo
244
False
What was Neptune mistaken for at first?
572e8d3edfa6aa1500f8d10c
a fixed star
287
False
What happens when Neptune goes retrograde?
572e8d3edfa6aa1500f8d10d
Earth's orbit takes it past an outer planet
597
False
What date was Neptune drawn first?
572e8d3edfa6aa1500f8d10e
28 December 1612
96
False
Who recently researched the original observation of Neptune?
572e8d3edfa6aa1500f8d10f
David Jamieson
845
False
Galileo
74
Who first recorded observations of Neptune in the 16th century?
5aceb4fb32bba1001ae4b0e7
True
Galileo
244
Who mistook Neptune for Jupiter?
5aceb4fb32bba1001ae4b0e8
True
28 December 1612
96
When was Galileo credited with discovering Neptune?
5aceb4fb32bba1001ae4b0e9
True
David Jamieson
845
Who proved that the the star Galileo observed was fixed?
5aceb4fb32bba1001ae4b0ea
True
Neptune
650
What planet did Galileo observe at the end of its retrograde cycle?
5aceb4fb32bba1001ae4b0eb
True
Galileo's
74
Who wrote about Neptune after observing it with a telescope?
5aceded532bba1001ae4b7d9
True
Neptune
275
What was Jupiter mistaken for at first?
5aceded532bba1001ae4b7da
True
Earth's orbit takes it past an outer planet
597
What doesn't happen when Neptune goes retrograde?
5aceded532bba1001ae4b7db
True
28 December 1612
96
What date was Neptune talked about first?
5aceded532bba1001ae4b7dc
True
David Jamieson
845
Who first researched the original observation of Neptune?
5aceded532bba1001ae4b7dd
True
Some of the earliest recorded observations ever made through a telescope, Galileo's drawings on 28 December 1612 and 27 January 1613, contain plotted points that match up with what is now known to be the position of Neptune. On both occasions, Galileo seems to have mistaken Neptune for a fixed star when it appeared close—in conjunction—to Jupiter in the night sky; hence, he is not credited with Neptune's discovery. At his first observation in December 1612, Neptune was almost stationary in the sky because it had just turned retrograde that day. This apparent backward motion is created when Earth's orbit takes it past an outer planet. Because Neptune was only beginning its yearly retrograde cycle, the motion of the planet was far too slight to be detected with Galileo's small telescope. In July 2009, University of Melbourne physicist David Jamieson announced new evidence suggesting that Galileo was at least aware that the 'star' he had observed had moved relative to the fixed stars.
What year did Alexis Bouvard publish relevant astronomical tables?
572e8e6bc246551400ce4344
1821
3
False
What did Alexis Bouvard study?
572e8e6bc246551400ce4345
the orbit of Neptune's neighbour Uranus
57
False
When did John Couch Adams begin working on the orbit of Uranus?
572e8e6bc246551400ce4346
1843
286
False
Who gave John Couch Adams extra data?
572e8e6bc246551400ce4347
Sir George Airy
445
False
What did the extra data John Couch Adams received produce?
572e8e6bc246551400ce4348
several different estimates of a new planet
566
False
astronomical tables of the orbit of Neptune's neighbour Uranus
34
What did Alexis Bouvard publish in the 18th century?
5aceb91632bba1001ae4b1b7
True
Alexis Bouvard
9
Who published astronomical tables of Neptunes orbit?
5aceb91632bba1001ae4b1b8
True
John Couch Adams
292
Who gave Sir George  Airy extra data?
5aceb91632bba1001ae4b1b9
True
several different estimates of a new planet.
566
What did Sir George Airy produce with the extra data?
5aceb91632bba1001ae4b1ba
True
Alexis Bouvard published astronomical tables
9
What happened in 1831?
5acedf1f32bba1001ae4b7e3
True
orbit of Neptune's neighbour Uranus
61
What did Alexis Bouvard teach?
5acedf1f32bba1001ae4b7e4
True
1843
286
When did John Couch Adams begin working on the orbit of Neptune?
5acedf1f32bba1001ae4b7e5
True
Sir George Airy
445
Who took away John Couch Adams' data?
5acedf1f32bba1001ae4b7e6
True
he requested extra data from Sir George Airy, the Astronomer Royal, who supplied it
416
What happened in February 1855?
5acedf1f32bba1001ae4b7e7
True
In 1821, Alexis Bouvard published astronomical tables of the orbit of Neptune's neighbour Uranus. Subsequent observations revealed substantial deviations from the tables, leading Bouvard to hypothesise that an unknown body was perturbing the orbit through gravitational interaction. In 1843, John Couch Adams began work on the orbit of Uranus using the data he had. Via Cambridge Observatory director James Challis, he requested extra data from Sir George Airy, the Astronomer Royal, who supplied it in February 1844. Adams continued to work in 1845–46 and produced several different estimates of a new planet.
Who was Henrich d'Arrest?
572e8f1ddfa6aa1500f8d129
student at the observatory
156
False
What did Henrich d'Arrest seek to find?
572e8f1ddfa6aa1500f8d12a
the displacement characteristic of a planet
339
False
When did Galle discover Neptune?
572e8f1ddfa6aa1500f8d12b
23 September 1846
430
False
How many degrees off was Adams' prediction?
572e8f1ddfa6aa1500f8d12c
12°
566
False
What was Challis looking for when he saw Neptune the first two times?
572e8f1ddfa6aa1500f8d12d
comet observations
799
False
Johann Gottfried Galle
68
Who urged Le Verrier to search with the observatory refractor?
5acebb0132bba1001ae4b1fd
True
they could compare a recently drawn chart of the sky in the region of Le Verrier's predicted location with the current sky
208
What did Galle suggest to Heinrich d'Arrest?
5acebb0132bba1001ae4b1fe
True
Galle
457
Who discovered Nepptune in the 18th century?
5acebb0132bba1001ae4b1ff
True
Neptune
498
What was within 10 degrees of where Le Verrier predicted it would be?
5acebb0132bba1001ae4b200
True
23 September 1846
430
When was Le Verrier born?
5acedf5c32bba1001ae4b7ed
True
23 September 1846
430
When did Le Verrier die?
5acedf5c32bba1001ae4b7ee
True
displacement characteristic of a planet
343
What didn't Henrich d'Arrest seek to find?
5acedf5c32bba1001ae4b7ef
True
Adams' prediction
575
What was 15 degrees away?
5acedf5c32bba1001ae4b7f0
True
comet observations
799
What was Challis looking for when he saw Uranus the first two times?
5acedf5c32bba1001ae4b7f1
True
Meanwhile, Le Verrier by letter urged Berlin Observatory astronomer Johann Gottfried Galle to search with the observatory's refractor. Heinrich d'Arrest, a student at the observatory, suggested to Galle that they could compare a recently drawn chart of the sky in the region of Le Verrier's predicted location with the current sky to seek the displacement characteristic of a planet, as opposed to a fixed star. On the evening of 23 September 1846, the day Galle received the letter, he discovered Neptune within 1° of where Le Verrier had predicted it to be, about 12° from Adams' prediction. Challis later realised that he had observed the planet twice, on 4 and 12 August, but did not recognise it as a planet because he lacked an up-to-date star map and was distracted by his concurrent work on comet observations.
What two countries argued over credit for the discovery of Neptune?
572e90cedfa6aa1500f8d151
French and the British
79
False
Who ultimately deserved credit for the discovery of Neptune?
572e90cedfa6aa1500f8d152
Le Verrier and Adams
203
False
Who questioned Adams's claim to co-discovery of Neptune?
572e90cedfa6aa1500f8d153
Dennis Rawlins
261
False
Who did not deserve credit to co-discovery of Neptune?
572e90cedfa6aa1500f8d154
Adams
544
False
Who predicted Neptune's place and convinced astronomer's to search for it?
572e90cedfa6aa1500f8d155
Le Verrier
585
False
French and the British
79
What two countries developed friendship after the discovery of Neptune?
5acec38932bba1001ae4b327
True
an international consensus
158
Who credited Britian with the discovery of Neptune?
5acec38932bba1001ae4b328
True
Dennis Rawlins
261
Who questioned the credibility of Adam's claim in the 19th century?
5acec38932bba1001ae4b329
True
Neptune papers
418
What papers were written in 1998?
5acec38932bba1001ae4b32a
True
historians
375
Who determinded that Adam's was solely reponsible for the discovery of Neptune?
5acec38932bba1001ae4b32b
True
French and the British
79
What three countries argued over credit for the discovery of Neptune?
5acedfa732bba1001ae4b7f7
True
Le Verrier and Adams
203
Who ultimately lost credit for the discovery of Neptune?
5acedfa732bba1001ae4b7f8
True
Dennis Rawlins
261
Who believed Adams's claim to co-discovery of Neptune?
5acedfa732bba1001ae4b7f9
True
Adams
544
Who bought the credit to co-discovery of Neptune?
5acedfa732bba1001ae4b7fa
True
In the wake of the discovery, there was much nationalistic rivalry between the French and the British over who deserved credit for the discovery. Eventually, an international consensus emerged that both Le Verrier and Adams jointly deserved credit. Since 1966, Dennis Rawlins has questioned the credibility of Adams's claim to co-discovery, and the issue was re-evaluated by historians with the return in 1998 of the "Neptune papers" (historical documents) to the Royal Observatory, Greenwich. After reviewing the documents, they suggest that "Adams does not deserve equal credit with Le Verrier for the discovery of Neptune. That credit belongs only to the person who succeeded both in predicting the planet's place and in convincing astronomers to search for it."
Who claimed the right to name Neptune?
572e916ec246551400ce4356
Le Verrier
42
False
What did the discoverer want to name Neptune first?
572e916ec246551400ce4357
Le Verrier
248
False
What country approved Neptune's first name?
572e916ec246551400ce4358
France
405
False
What first introduced Neptune and Uranus's names?
572e916ec246551400ce4359
French almanacs
413
False
Who did not approve of the first name for Neptune?
572e916ec246551400ce435a
French Bureau des Longitudes
177
False
Le Verrier,
248
What name was opposed by the french?
5acec5fe32bba1001ae4b36f
True
Neptune
79
What name did the French Bureau des Longitudes approve?
5acec5fe32bba1001ae4b370
True
Herschel
459
What did Le Verrier want to name Uranus?
5acec5fe32bba1001ae4b371
True
Le Verrier
42
Who refused the right to name Neptune?
5acedfd332bba1001ae4b7ff
True
Le Verrier
42
What did the discoverer want to name Uranus first?
5acedfd332bba1001ae4b800
True
France
405
What country disapproved Neptune's first name?
5acedfd332bba1001ae4b801
True
French almanacs
413
What first introduced Jupiter and Uranus's names?
5acedfd332bba1001ae4b802
True
Claiming the right to name his discovery, Le Verrier quickly proposed the name Neptune for this new planet, though falsely stating that this had been officially approved by the French Bureau des Longitudes. In October, he sought to name the planet Le Verrier, after himself, and he had loyal support in this from the observatory director, François Arago. This suggestion met with stiff resistance outside France. French almanacs quickly reintroduced the name Herschel for Uranus, after that planet's discoverer Sir William Herschel, and Leverrier for the new planet.
What is the Chinese, Japanese, and Korean translations for Neptune?
572e923bdfa6aa1500f8d15b
sea king star
224
False
What god was Neptune?
572e923bdfa6aa1500f8d15c
god of the sea
270
False
What is the Mongolian name for Neptune?
572e923bdfa6aa1500f8d15d
Dalain Van
318
False
What did the Greeks call Neptune?
572e923bdfa6aa1500f8d15e
Poseidon
440
False
What was the Biblical sea monster that Neptune is named in Hebrew?
572e923bdfa6aa1500f8d15f
Rahab
521
False
sea king star
224
What does the Japanese name Reha mean?
5acec75c32bba1001ae4b3b7
True
Book of Psalms
580
Whaqt book of the Bible does the name Neptune come from?
5acec75c32bba1001ae4b3b8
True
Tlāloc
934
Who is the Mongolian rain god?
5acec75c32bba1001ae4b3b9
True
Poseidon
440
What did ancient greeks call Neptune?
5acec75c32bba1001ae4b3ba
True
sea king star
224
What is the French translation for Neptune?
5acee01332bba1001ae4b807
True
Poseidon
440
What god was Jupiter?
5acee01332bba1001ae4b808
True
Dalain Van
318
What is the English name for Neptune?
5acee01332bba1001ae4b809
True
Dalain Van
318
What did the Irish call Neptune?
5acee01332bba1001ae4b80a
True
Rahab
521
What was the Biblical land monster that Neptune is named in Hebrew?
5acee01332bba1001ae4b80b
True
Most languages today, even in countries that have no direct link to Greco-Roman culture, use some variant of the name "Neptune" for the planet. However, in Chinese, Japanese, and Korean, the planet's name was translated as "sea king star" (海王星), because Neptune was the god of the sea. In Mongolian, Neptune is called Dalain Van (Далайн ван), reflecting its namesake god's role as the ruler of the sea. In modern Greek the planet is called Poseidon (Ποσειδώνας, Poseidonas), the Greek counterpart of Neptune. In Hebrew, "Rahab" (רהב), from a Biblical sea monster mentioned in the Book of Psalms, was selected in a vote managed by the Academy of the Hebrew Language in 2009 as the official name for the planet, even though the existing Latin term "Neptun" (נפטון) is commonly used. In Māori, the planet is called Tangaroa, named after the Māori god of the sea. In Nahuatl, the planet is called Tlāloccītlalli, named after the rain god Tlāloc.
What was Neptune before Pluto was discovered?
572e931103f98919007567c5
farthest known planet
92
False
What period was Pluto closer to the sun than Neptune?
572e931103f98919007567c6
between 1979 and 1999
251
False
What discovery made astronomer's debate Pluto's status as a planet?
572e931103f98919007567c7
the Kuiper belt
363
False
What year did the International Astronomical Union define the word planet?
572e931103f98919007567c8
2006
496
False
Now that Pluto isn't a planet, what is Neptune known for in our solar system?
572e931103f98919007567c9
the outermost known planet
655
False
Neptune
76
What was the furthest know planet until 1846?
5acecb5432bba1001ae4b433
True
Pluto
120
What planet was discovered before neptune?
5acecb5432bba1001ae4b434
True
Pluto
120
What body was not considered a planet when it was discovered?
5acecb5432bba1001ae4b435
True
the farthest known planet
88
What was Jupiter before Pluto was discovered?
5acee04a32bba1001ae4b811
True
1979 and 1999
259
What period was Jupiter closer to the sun than Neptune?
5acee04a32bba1001ae4b812
True
Kuiper belt
367
What discovery made astronomer's debate Neptune's status as a planet?
5acee04a32bba1001ae4b813
True
2006
496
What year did the International Astronomical Union define the word star?
5acee04a32bba1001ae4b814
True
outermost known planet
659
Now that Pluto isn't a planet, what is Uranus known for in our solar system?
5acee04a32bba1001ae4b815
True
From its discovery in 1846 until the subsequent discovery of Pluto in 1930, Neptune was the farthest known planet. When Pluto was discovered it was considered a planet, and Neptune thus became the penultimate known planet, except for a 20-year period between 1979 and 1999 when Pluto's elliptical orbit brought it closer to the Sun than Neptune. The discovery of the Kuiper belt in 1992 led many astronomers to debate whether Pluto should be considered a planet or as part of the Kuiper belt. In 2006, the International Astronomical Union defined the word "planet" for the first time, reclassifying Pluto as a "dwarf planet" and making Neptune once again the outermost known planet in the Solar System.
What is Neptune's mass?
572e939ecb0c0d14000f12f4
1.0243×1026 kg
18
False
How much more mass does Neptune have compared to Earth?
572e939ecb0c0d14000f12f5
17 times
97
False
What is Neptune's gravity at 1 bar?
572e939ecb0c0d14000f12f6
11.15 m/s2
180
False
What is Neptune's equatorial radius?
572e939ecb0c0d14000f12f7
24,764 km
295
False
What is Neptune referred to due to it's size and concentration of volatiles?
572e939ecb0c0d14000f12f8
ice giant
369
False
Neptune
0
What planet is larger than the Gas Giants?
5acecd6532bba1001ae4b4a3
True
Neptune
0
What planet is 17 times smaller than the earth?
5acecd6532bba1001ae4b4a4
True
24,764 km
295
What is the equatoral radius of Earth?
5acecd6532bba1001ae4b4a5
True
Neptune, like Uranus
341
What two planets are less volitile than Jupiter and Saturn?
5acecd6532bba1001ae4b4a6
True
1.0243×1026 kg
18
What is Neptune's weight?
5acee08232bba1001ae4b81b
True
17 times
97
How much less mass does Neptune have compared to Earth?
5acee08232bba1001ae4b81c
True
11.15 m/s2
180
What is Neptune's gravity at 41 bar?
5acee08232bba1001ae4b81d
True
24,764 km
295
What is Uranus' equatorial radius?
5acee08232bba1001ae4b81e
True
ice giant
369
What is Neptune referred to due to it's heat and concentration of volatiles?
5acee08232bba1001ae4b81f
True
Neptune's mass of 1.0243×1026 kg, is intermediate between Earth and the larger gas giants: it is 17 times that of Earth but just 1/19th that of Jupiter.[d] Its gravity at 1 bar is 11.15 m/s2, 1.14 times the surface gravity of Earth, and surpassed only by Jupiter. Neptune's equatorial radius of 24,764 km is nearly four times that of Earth. Neptune, like Uranus, is an ice giant, a subclass of giant planet, due to their smaller size and higher concentrations of volatiles relative to Jupiter and Saturn. In the search for extrasolar planets, Neptune has been used as a metonym: discovered bodies of similar mass are often referred to as "Neptunes", just as scientists refer to various extrasolar bodies as "Jupiters".
What is Neptune's mantle rich in?
572e945cc246551400ce4372
water, ammonia and methane
65
False
What is the hot, dense fluid in Neptune referred to as?
572e945cc246551400ce4373
icy
162
False
What does the fluid in Neptune have a high conductivity of?
572e945cc246551400ce4374
electrical
233
False
How deep does Neptune's water-ammonia ocean go?
572e945cc246551400ce4375
7000 km
580
False
What rains on Neptune?
572e945cc246551400ce4376
diamond crystals
645
False
Earth
37
Who's mantle is 10 to 15 times greater than Neptunes?
5acecf5f32bba1001ae4b4e7
True
icy
162
What is the cold dense liqued on Neptune called?
5acecf5f32bba1001ae4b4e8
True
water, ammonia and methane.
65
What substance on Neptune inhibits electricity?
5acecf5f32bba1001ae4b4e9
True
diamond crystals that rain
645
What kind of crystal forms 7000 km above the surface of neoptune?
5acecf5f32bba1001ae4b4ea
True
Lawrence Livermore National Laboratory
737
who suggested Neptunes mantle is solid carbon?
5acecf5f32bba1001ae4b4eb
True
water, ammonia and methane
65
What does Neptune's mantle lack?
5acee0c332bba1001ae4b825
True
icy
162
What is the cold, dense fluid in Neptune referred to as?
5acee0c332bba1001ae4b826
True
electrical
233
What does the fluid in Uranus have a high conductivity of?
5acee0c332bba1001ae4b827
True
7000 km
580
How deep does Neptune's oxygen ocean go?
5acee0c332bba1001ae4b828
True
diamond crystals
645
What rises on Neptune?
5acee0c332bba1001ae4b829
True
The mantle is equivalent to 10 to 15 Earth masses and is rich in water, ammonia and methane. As is customary in planetary science, this mixture is referred to as icy even though it is a hot, dense fluid. This fluid, which has a high electrical conductivity, is sometimes called a water–ammonia ocean. The mantle may consist of a layer of ionic water in which the water molecules break down into a soup of hydrogen and oxygen ions, and deeper down superionic water in which the oxygen crystallises but the hydrogen ions float around freely within the oxygen lattice. At a depth of 7000 km, the conditions may be such that methane decomposes into diamond crystals that rain downwards like hailstones. Very-high-pressure experiments at the Lawrence Livermore National Laboratory suggest that the base of the mantle may comprise an ocean of liquid carbon with floating solid 'diamonds'.
What is Neptune's atmosphere made of?
572e9983cb0c0d14000f132c
80% hydrogen and 19% helium
43
False
Where are absorption bands of methane on Neptune?
572e9983cb0c0d14000f132d
wavelengths above 600 nm
162
False
What gives Neptune it's blue hue?
572e9983cb0c0d14000f132e
absorption of red light by the atmospheric methane
258
False
What planet also gets it's color from atmospheric constituent?
572e9983cb0c0d14000f132f
Uranus
487
False
What color is Uranus, compared to Neptune?
572e9983cb0c0d14000f1330
cyan
413
False
80% hydrogen and 19% helium
43
What is Neptune's atmosphere never made of?
5acee0f532bba1001ae4b82f
True
wavelengths above 600 nm
162
Where are absorption bands of oxygen on Neptune?
5acee0f532bba1001ae4b830
True
absorption of red light by the atmospheric methane
258
What gives Neptune it's red hue?
5acee0f532bba1001ae4b831
True
Uranus
245
What planet doesn't get it's color from atmospheric constituent?
5acee0f532bba1001ae4b832
True
cyan
413
What color is Jupiter, compared to Neptune?
5acee0f532bba1001ae4b833
True
At high altitudes, Neptune's atmosphere is 80% hydrogen and 19% helium. A trace amount of methane is also present. Prominent absorption bands of methane exist at wavelengths above 600 nm, in the red and infrared portion of the spectrum. As with Uranus, this absorption of red light by the atmospheric methane is part of what gives Neptune its blue hue, although Neptune's vivid azure differs from Uranus's milder cyan. Because Neptune's atmospheric methane content is similar to that of Uranus, some unknown atmospheric constituent is thought to contribute to Neptune's colour.
What is Neptune's clouds competition variants dependent on?
572e9ac6dfa6aa1500f8d1e9
altitude
99
False
Which clouds on Neptune are suitable for methane to condense?
572e9ac6dfa6aa1500f8d1ea
upper-level
113
False
What clouds form between one and five bars on Neptune?
572e9ac6dfa6aa1500f8d1eb
ammonia and hydrogen sulfide
292
False
On Neptune, what do clouds above five bars consist of?
572e9ac6dfa6aa1500f8d1ec
ammonia, ammonium sulfide, hydrogen sulfide and water
399
False
What is the temperature on Neptune's clouds that are at 50 bars?
572e9ac6dfa6aa1500f8d1ed
273 K (0 °C)
568
False
altitude
99
What is Neptune's rain competition variants dependent on?
5acee13032bba1001ae4b839
True
upper-level
113
Which clouds on Neptune are suitable for methane to expand?
5acee13032bba1001ae4b83a
True
ammonia and hydrogen sulfide
292
What clouds form between one and six bars on Neptune?
5acee13032bba1001ae4b83b
True
ammonia, ammonium sulfide, hydrogen sulfide and water
399
On Neptune, what do clouds above six bars consist of?
5acee13032bba1001ae4b83c
True
273 K
568
What is the temperature on Neptune's clouds that are at 500 bars?
5acee13032bba1001ae4b83d
True
Models suggest that Neptune's troposphere is banded by clouds of varying compositions depending on altitude. The upper-level clouds lie at pressures below one bar, where the temperature is suitable for methane to condense. For pressures between one and five bars (100 and 500 kPa), clouds of ammonia and hydrogen sulfide are thought to form. Above a pressure of five bars, the clouds may consist of ammonia, ammonium sulfide, hydrogen sulfide and water. Deeper clouds of water ice should be found at pressures of about 50 bars (5.0 MPa), where the temperature reaches 273 K (0 °C). Underneath, clouds of ammonia and hydrogen sulfide may be found.
On Neptune, which clouds cast shadows on the cloud deck below it?
572e9d16c246551400ce43f6
High-altitude clouds
0
False
What are the widths of the cloud bands on Neptune?
572e9d16c246551400ce43f7
50–150 km
233
False
Where are the high altitude bands of clouds on Neptune?
572e9d16c246551400ce43f8
50–110 km above the cloud deck.
257
False
Where on Neptune does weather not occur?
572e9d16c246551400ce43f9
higher stratosphere or thermosphere
391
False
What does Neptune have more of compared to Uranus?
572e9d16c246551400ce43fa
volume of ocean
478
False
High-altitude clouds
0
On Uranus, which clouds cast shadows on the cloud deck below it?
5acee16332bba1001ae4b843
True
50–150 km
233
What are the lengths of the cloud bands on Neptune?
5acee16332bba1001ae4b844
True
50–110 km
257
Where are the low altitude bands of clouds on Neptune?
5acee16332bba1001ae4b845
True
higher stratosphere
391
Where on Neptune does weather always occur?
5acee16332bba1001ae4b846
True
volume of ocean
478
What does Neptune have less of compared to Uranus?
5acee16332bba1001ae4b847
True
High-altitude clouds on Neptune have been observed casting shadows on the opaque cloud deck below. There are also high-altitude cloud bands that wrap around the planet at constant latitude. These circumferential bands have widths of 50–150 km and lie about 50–110 km above the cloud deck. These altitudes are in the layer where weather occurs, the troposphere. Weather does not occur in the higher stratosphere or thermosphere. Unlike Uranus, Neptune's composition has a higher volume of ocean, whereas Uranus has a smaller mantle.
What is Neptune's temperature in the thermosphere?
572e9eb603f989190075683f
750 K
106
False
What would interact with Neptune's magnetic field to make it warm?
572e9eb603f9891900756840
atmospheric interaction with ions
245
False
Where would gravity waves in Neptune's interior dissipate?
572e9eb603f9891900756841
in the atmosphere
379
False
What does Neptune's thermosphere containers traces of?
572e9eb603f9891900756842
carbon dioxide and water
434
False
750 K
106
What is Uranus's temperature in the thermosphere?
5acee19732bba1001ae4b84d
True
atmospheric interaction with ions in the planet's magnetic field
245
What would interact with Neptune's magnetic field to make it cold?
5acee19732bba1001ae4b84e
True
carbon dioxide and water
434
Where would gravity waves in Neptune's interior appear?
5acee19732bba1001ae4b84f
True
carbon dioxide and water,
434
What does Neptune's thermosphere never contain traces of?
5acee19732bba1001ae4b850
True
For reasons that remain obscure, the planet's thermosphere is at an anomalously high temperature of about 750 K. The planet is too far from the Sun for this heat to be generated by ultraviolet radiation. One candidate for a heating mechanism is atmospheric interaction with ions in the planet's magnetic field. Other candidates are gravity waves from the interior that dissipate in the atmosphere. The thermosphere contains traces of carbon dioxide and water, which may have been deposited from external sources such as meteorites and dust.
What is the rotational axis of Neptune's magnetic field?
572ea13b03f9891900756863
47°
125
False
Where is Neptune's magnetic field offset from the physical centre?
572ea13b03f9891900756864
0.55 radii
149
False
What planet besides Neptune has a sideways rotation?
572ea13b03f9891900756865
Uranus's
278
False
What might cause Neptune's extreme orientation?
572ea13b03f9891900756866
flows in the planets' interiors
472
False
What fluids are in Neptune's interior?
572ea13b03f9891900756867
ammonia, methane and water
649
False
47°
125
What is the rotational axis of Uranus's magnetic field?
5acee1d032bba1001ae4b855
True
0.55 radii,
149
Where is Neptune's magnetic field offset from the outside?
5acee1d032bba1001ae4b856
True
Uranus's
278
What planet besides Jupiter has a sideways rotation?
5acee1d032bba1001ae4b857
True
flows in the planets' interiors.
472
What definitely doesn't cause Neptune's extreme orientation?
5acee1d032bba1001ae4b858
True
ammonia, methane and water
649
What fluids aren't in Neptune's interior?
5acee1d032bba1001ae4b859
True
Neptune also resembles Uranus in its magnetosphere, with a magnetic field strongly tilted relative to its rotational axis at 47° and offset at least 0.55 radii, or about 13500 km from the planet's physical centre. Before Voyager 2's arrival at Neptune, it was hypothesised that Uranus's tilted magnetosphere was the result of its sideways rotation. In comparing the magnetic fields of the two planets, scientists now think the extreme orientation may be characteristic of flows in the planets' interiors. This field may be generated by convective fluid motions in a thin spherical shell of electrically conducting liquids (probably a combination of ammonia, methane and water) resulting in a dynamo action.
What is Neptune's dipole magnetic moment?
572ea25103f989190075686d
2.2 × 1017 T·m3
159
False
What is one of Neptune's non-dipolar component what may exceed the dipole moment in strength?
572ea25103f989190075686e
strong quadrupole moment
357
False
Which three planets have small quadrupole moments compared to Neptune?
572ea25103f989190075686f
Earth, Jupiter and Saturn
442
False
Besides the geometrical constraints of Neptune's dynamo generator, what is another result of the quadrupole moment?
572ea25103f9891900756870
the planet's centre
641
False
What is the dipole component of the magnetic field at the magnetic equator of neptune?
572ea25103f9891900756871
14 microteslas (0.14 G)
87
False
2.2 × 1017 T·m3
159
What is Jupiter's dipole magnetic moment?
5acee22032bba1001ae4b85f
True
strong quadrupole moment
357
What is one of Neptune's non-dipolar component what may exceed the dipole moment in weakness?
5acee22032bba1001ae4b860
True
Saturn
461
What is the fourth planet to have small quadrupole moments compared to Neptune?
5acee22032bba1001ae4b861
True
14 microteslas
87
What is the dipole component of the magnetic field at the magnetic equator of Uranus?
5acee22032bba1001ae4b862
True
planet's centre
645
Besides the geometrical constraints of Neptune's dynamo generator, what is another reason of the quadrupole moment?
5acee22032bba1001ae4b863
True
The dipole component of the magnetic field at the magnetic equator of Neptune is about 14 microteslas (0.14 G). The dipole magnetic moment of Neptune is about 2.2 × 1017 T·m3 (14 μT·RN3, where RN is the radius of Neptune). Neptune's magnetic field has a complex geometry that includes relatively large contributions from non-dipolar components, including a strong quadrupole moment that may exceed the dipole moment in strength. By contrast, Earth, Jupiter and Saturn have only relatively small quadrupole moments, and their fields are less tilted from the polar axis. The large quadrupole moment of Neptune may be the result of offset from the planet's centre and geometrical constraints of the field's dynamo generator.
What system, like Saturn, does Neptune have?
572ea38403f9891900756889
planetary ring system
14
False
What might Neptune's rings consist of?
572ea38403f989190075688a
ice particles
116
False
What might the ice particles of Neptune's rings be coated with?
572ea38403f989190075688b
silicates or carbon-based material
142
False
Where is Adams ring from the center of Neptune?
572ea38403f989190075688c
63,000 km
270
False
Where is the La Verrier ring from the center of Neptune?
572ea38403f989190075688d
53,000 km
332
False
planetary ring system
14
What system, like Jupiter, does Neptune have?
5acee25532bba1001ae4b869
True
ice particles
116
What doesn't Neptune's rings consist of?
5acee25532bba1001ae4b86a
True
silicates or carbon-based material
142
What isn't the ice particles of Neptune's rings coated with?
5acee25532bba1001ae4b86b
True
63,000 km from the centre
270
Where is Johns ring from the center of Neptune?
5acee25532bba1001ae4b86c
True
53,000 km
332
Where is the Walter ring from the center of Neptune?
5acee25532bba1001ae4b86d
True
Neptune has a planetary ring system, though one much less substantial than that of Saturn. The rings may consist of ice particles coated with silicates or carbon-based material, which most likely gives them a reddish hue. The three main rings are the narrow Adams Ring, 63,000 km from the centre of Neptune, the Le Verrier Ring, at 53,000 km, and the broader, fainter Galle Ring, at 42,000 km. A faint outward extension to the Le Verrier Ring has been named Lassell; it is bounded at its outer edge by the Arago Ring at 57,000 km.
What dynamic weather does Neptune have?
572ea40dcb0c0d14000f13d2
storm
56
False
What does Neptune's wind speeds reach?
572ea40dcb0c0d14000f13d3
600 m/s (2,200 km/h; 1,300 mph)
108
False
What is the high wind speed on Neptune's cloud tops?
572ea40dcb0c0d14000f13d4
400 m/s
389
False
Which direction does Neptune's winds move relevant to the plant's rotation?
572ea40dcb0c0d14000f13d5
opposite
489
False
What is the effect called that describes the flow direction on Neptune?
572ea40dcb0c0d14000f13d6
skin effect
690
False
storm
56
What calm weather does Neptune have?
5acee29832bba1001ae4b873
True
2,200 km/h; 1,300 mph
117
What are the slowest Neptune's wind speeds?
5acee29832bba1001ae4b874
True
400 m/s
389
What is the low wind speed on Neptune's cloud tops?
5acee29832bba1001ae4b875
True
opposite
489
Which direction does Neptune's rain move relevant to the plant's rotation?
5acee29832bba1001ae4b876
True
skin effect
690
What is the effect called that describes the flow direction on Jupiter?
5acee29832bba1001ae4b877
True
Neptune's weather is characterised by extremely dynamic storm systems, with winds reaching speeds of almost 600 m/s (2,200 km/h; 1,300 mph)—nearly reaching supersonic flow. More typically, by tracking the motion of persistent clouds, wind speeds have been shown to vary from 20 m/s in the easterly direction to 325 m/s westward. At the cloud tops, the prevailing winds range in speed from 400 m/s along the equator to 250 m/s at the poles. Most of the winds on Neptune move in a direction opposite the planet's rotation. The general pattern of winds showed prograde rotation at high latitudes vs. retrograde rotation at lower latitudes. The difference in flow direction is thought to be a "skin effect" and not due to any deeper atmospheric processes. At 70° S latitude, a high-speed jet travels at a speed of 300 m/s.
How much warmer is Neptune's south pole to the rest of it's atmosphere?
572ea4b0c246551400ce4458
10 K
88
False
What is the average temperature of Neptune's south pole?
572ea4b0c246551400ce4459
73 K (−200 °C).
162
False
Where does methane in the south pole escape to on Neptune?
572ea4b0c246551400ce445a
the stratosphere near the pole.
291
False
How many earth years is Neptune's south pole exposed to the sun?
572ea4b0c246551400ce445b
40
474
False
To which pole will Neptune's methane shift to as it moves to the opposite side of the sun?
572ea4b0c246551400ce445c
north pole
660
False
10 K
88
How much colder is Neptune's south pole to the rest of it's atmosphere?
5acee2c832bba1001ae4b87d
True
73 K (−200 °C).
162
What is the average temperature of Neptune's north pole?
5acee2c832bba1001ae4b87e
True
stratosphere near the pole
295
Where does methane in the north pole escape to on Neptune?
5acee2c832bba1001ae4b87f
True
40
474
How many mars years is Neptune's south pole exposed to the sun?
5acee2c832bba1001ae4b880
True
south
556
To which pole will Neptune's methane shift to as it moves to the same side of the sun?
5acee2c832bba1001ae4b881
True
In 2007, it was discovered that the upper troposphere of Neptune's south pole was about 10 K warmer than the rest of its atmosphere, which averages approximately 73 K (−200 °C). The temperature differential is enough to let methane, which elsewhere is frozen in the troposphere, escape into the stratosphere near the pole. The relative "hot spot" is due to Neptune's axial tilt, which has exposed the south pole to the Sun for the last quarter of Neptune's year, or roughly 40 Earth years. As Neptune slowly moves towards the opposite side of the Sun, the south pole will be darkened and the north pole illuminated, causing the methane release to shift to the north pole.
What white cloud group on Neptune is farther south than the dark great spot?
572ea63ac246551400ce446c
The Scooter
0
False
When was The Scooter on Neptune observed?
572ea63ac246551400ce446d
1989
175
False
What type of storm is The Scooter on Neptune?
572ea63ac246551400ce446e
southern cyclonic storm
433
False
What detected the storms on Neptune?
572ea63ac246551400ce446f
Voyager 2)
396
False
What is the second most intense storm on Neptune?
572ea63ac246551400ce4470
The Small Dark Spot
408
False
The Scooter
0
What dark cloud group on Neptune is farther south than the light great spot?
5acee2fa32bba1001ae4b887
True
1989
175
When was The Pooter on Neptune observed?
5acee2fa32bba1001ae4b888
True
southern cyclonic storm
433
What type of storm is The Pooter on Neptune?
5acee2fa32bba1001ae4b889
True
Voyager 2
152
What didn't detect the storms on Neptune?
5acee2fa32bba1001ae4b88a
True
Great Dark Spot
73
What is the third most intense storm on Neptune?
5acee2fa32bba1001ae4b88b
True
The Scooter is another storm, a white cloud group farther south than the Great Dark Spot. This nickname first arose during the months leading up to the Voyager 2 encounter in 1989, when they were observed moving at speeds faster than the Great Dark Spot (and images acquired later would subsequently reveal the presence of clouds moving even faster than those that had initially been detected by Voyager 2). The Small Dark Spot is a southern cyclonic storm, the second-most-intense storm observed during the 1989 encounter. It was initially completely dark, but as Voyager 2 approached the planet, a bright core developed and can be seen in most of the highest-resolution images.
Where are Neptune's dark spots thought to occur?
572ea6dbdfa6aa1500f8d251
in the troposphere
42
False
What do Neptune's dark spots appear as in the cloud decks?
572ea6dbdfa6aa1500f8d252
holes
132
False
Since Neptune's dark spots persist for several months, what are they thought to be?
572ea6dbdfa6aa1500f8d253
vortex structures
252
False
What on Neptune are associated with dark spots that are brighter?
572ea6dbdfa6aa1500f8d254
methane clouds
329
False
When Neptune's dark spots migrate too close to the equator, what do they do?
572ea6dbdfa6aa1500f8d255
dissipate
560
False
troposphere
49
Where are Neptune's light spots thought to occur?
5acee32d32bba1001ae4b891
True
holes
132
What do Neptune's light spots appear as in the cloud decks?
5acee32d32bba1001ae4b892
True
vortex structures
252
Since Neptune's light spots persist for several months, what are they thought to be?
5acee32d32bba1001ae4b893
True
methane clouds
329
What on Neptune are associated with light spots that are brighter?
5acee32d32bba1001ae4b894
True
dissipate
560
When Neptune's light spots migrate too close to the equator, what do they do?
5acee32d32bba1001ae4b895
True
Neptune's dark spots are thought to occur in the troposphere at lower altitudes than the brighter cloud features, so they appear as holes in the upper cloud decks. As they are stable features that can persist for several months, they are thought to be vortex structures. Often associated with dark spots are brighter, persistent methane clouds that form around the tropopause layer. The persistence of companion clouds shows that some former dark spots may continue to exist as cyclones even though they are no longer visible as a dark feature. Dark spots may dissipate when they migrate too close to the equator or possibly through some other unknown mechanism.
Why might Neptune have more varied weather than Uranus?
572ea842dfa6aa1500f8d26f
higher internal heating
76
False
How much farther is Neptune from the Sun than Uranus?
572ea842dfa6aa1500f8d270
50%
128
False
How much percentage of the sun does Neptune get compared to Uranus?
572ea842dfa6aa1500f8d271
40%
184
False
How much more energy does Neptune radiate than it receives?
572ea842dfa6aa1500f8d272
2.61
723
False
The current heat flow on Neptune might be explained by what?
572ea842dfa6aa1500f8d273
heat left over from Neptune's formation
981
False
higher internal heating
76
Why might Uranus have more varied weather than Jupiter?
5acee37032bba1001ae4b89b
True
50%
128
How much farther is Neptune from the Moon than Uranus?
5acee37032bba1001ae4b89c
True
40%
184
How much percentage of the sun does Neptune get compared to Jupiter?
5acee37032bba1001ae4b89d
True
2.61
723
How much more energy does Jupiter radiate than it receives?
5acee37032bba1001ae4b89e
True
the heat left over
977
The current cold flow on Neptune might be explained by what?
5acee37032bba1001ae4b89f
True
Neptune's more varied weather when compared to Uranus is due in part to its higher internal heating. Although Neptune lies over 50% further from the Sun than Uranus, and receives only 40% its amount of sunlight, the two planets' surface temperatures are roughly equal. The upper regions of Neptune's troposphere reach a low temperature of 51.8 K (−221.3 °C). At a depth where the atmospheric pressure equals 1 bar (100 kPa), the temperature is 72.00 K (−201.15 °C). Deeper inside the layers of gas, the temperature rises steadily. As with Uranus, the source of this heating is unknown, but the discrepancy is larger: Uranus only radiates 1.1 times as much energy as it receives from the Sun; whereas Neptune radiates about 2.61 times as much energy as it receives from the Sun. Neptune is the farthest planet from the Sun, yet its internal energy is sufficient to drive the fastest planetary winds seen in the Solar System. Depending on the thermal properties of its interior, the heat left over from Neptune's formation may be sufficient to explain its current heat flow, though it is more difficult to simultaneously explain Uranus's lack of internal heat while preserving the apparent similarity between the two planets.
When did Neptune complete it's first barycentric orbit since it's discovery?
572ea93ec246551400ce448a
11 July 2011
3
False
What is the Earth's orbit?
572ea93ec246551400ce448b
365.26-day
217
False
Using the heliocentric coordinate system, when did Neptune reach the discovery longitude?
572ea93ec246551400ce448c
12 July 2011
505
False
Why didn't Neptune appear to be in it's exact discover position?
572ea93ec246551400ce448d
Earth was in a different location
176
False
11 July 2011
3
When did Neptune complete it's last barycentric orbit since it's discovery?
5acee39d32bba1001ae4b8a5
True
12 July 2011
505
Using the heliocentric coordinate system, when did Jupiter reach the discovery longitude?
5acee39d32bba1001ae4b8a6
True
Earth was in a different location
176
Why did Neptune appear to be in it's exact discover position?
5acee39d32bba1001ae4b8a7
True
On 11 July 2011, Neptune completed its first full barycentric orbit since its discovery in 1846, although it did not appear at its exact discovery position in the sky, because Earth was in a different location in its 365.26-day orbit. Because of the motion of the Sun in relation to the barycentre of the Solar System, on 11 July Neptune was also not at its exact discovery position in relation to the Sun; if the more common heliocentric coordinate system is used, the discovery longitude was reached on 12 July 2011.
What is the region behind Neptune called?
572ea9c803f98919007568db
Kuiper belt
85
False
What does the Kuiper belt consist of?
572ea9c803f98919007568dc
small icy worlds
127
False
Where is the Kuiper belt relative to Neptune?
572ea9c803f98919007568dd
30 AU out to about 55 AU from the Sun
224
False
What dominates the Kuiper belt?
572ea9c803f98919007568de
Neptune's gravity
362
False
What did Neptune's gravity do to Kuiper belt?
572ea9c803f98919007568df
gaps in the Kuiper belt's structure
527
False
Kuiper belt
85
What is the region behind Jupiter called?
5acee3d632bba1001ae4b8ab
True
small icy worlds
127
What does the Kuiper belt not consist of?
5acee3d632bba1001ae4b8ac
True
30 AU out to about 55 AU
224
Where is the Kuiper belt relative to Mars?
5acee3d632bba1001ae4b8ad
True
Neptune's orbit
205
What doesn't dominate the Kuiper belt?
5acee3d632bba1001ae4b8ae
True
gaps in the Kuiper belt's structure
527
What did Jupiter's gravity do to Kuiper belt?
5acee3d632bba1001ae4b8af
True
Neptune's orbit has a profound impact on the region directly beyond it, known as the Kuiper belt. The Kuiper belt is a ring of small icy worlds, similar to the asteroid belt but far larger, extending from Neptune's orbit at 30 AU out to about 55 AU from the Sun. Much in the same way that Jupiter's gravity dominates the asteroid belt, shaping its structure, so Neptune's gravity dominates the Kuiper belt. Over the age of the Solar System, certain regions of the Kuiper belt became destabilised by Neptune's gravity, creating gaps in the Kuiper belt's structure. The region between 40 and 42 AU is an example.
What is the fraction of the most heavily populated resonance in the Kuiper belt?
572eaa5903f98919007568e5
2:3 resonance
479
False
How many known objects is in the most populated resonance of the Kuiper belt?
572eaa5903f98919007568e6
200
453
False
What is the best known, and largest, object in the Kuiper belt?
572eaa5903f98919007568e7
Pluto
673
False
What is the resonance of Pluto in the Kuiper belt?
572eaa5903f98919007568e8
2:3
718
False
Which resonances are less populated in the Kuiper belt?
572eaa5903f98919007568e9
3:4, 3:5, 4:7 and 2:5
768
False
2:3 resonance
479
What is the fraction of the most heavily populated resonance in the Jupiter belt?
5acee41d32bba1001ae4b8b5
True
200
453
How many unknown objects is in the most populated resonance of the Kuiper belt?
5acee41d32bba1001ae4b8b6
True
Pluto
673
What is the least known object in the Kuiper belt?
5acee41d32bba1001ae4b8b7
True
3:4, 3:5, 4:7 and 2:5
768
Which resonances are more populated in the Kuiper belt?
5acee41d32bba1001ae4b8b8
True
2:3
479
What is the resonance of Jupiter in the Kuiper belt?
5acee41d32bba1001ae4b8b9
True
There do exist orbits within these empty regions where objects can survive for the age of the Solar System. These resonances occur when Neptune's orbital period is a precise fraction of that of the object, such as 1:2, or 3:4. If, say, an object orbits the Sun once for every two Neptune orbits, it will only complete half an orbit by the time Neptune returns to its original position. The most heavily populated resonance in the Kuiper belt, with over 200 known objects, is the 2:3 resonance. Objects in this resonance complete 2 orbits for every 3 of Neptune, and are known as plutinos because the largest of the known Kuiper belt objects, Pluto, is among them. Although Pluto crosses Neptune's orbit regularly, the 2:3 resonance ensures they can never collide. The 3:4, 3:5, 4:7 and 2:5 resonances are less populated.
What is the resonance of Neptune trojans?
572eab33cb0c0d14000f1438
1:1
236
False
Where did most Neptune trojans form?
572eab33cb0c0d14000f1439
alongside Neptune
354
False
What is the only object identified with Neptune's trailing L5 Lagrangian point?
572eab33cb0c0d14000f143a
2008 LC18
505
False
What is Neptune's temporary quasi-satellite named?
572eab33cb0c0d14000f143b
(309239) 2007 RW10
562
False
How long has Neptune's quasi-satellite been with Neptune?
572eab33cb0c0d14000f143c
12,500 years
641
False
1:1
236
What is the resonance of Jupiter trojans?
5acee45b32bba1001ae4b8bf
True
trailing Neptune
147
Where did most Jupiter trojans form?
5acee45b32bba1001ae4b8c0
True
2008 LC18
505
What isn't the object identified with Neptune's trailing L5 Lagrangian point?
5acee45b32bba1001ae4b8c1
True
2007 RW10
571
What is Neptune's temporary  real satellite named?
5acee45b32bba1001ae4b8c2
True
12,500 years.
709
How long has Neptune's real satellite been with Neptune?
5acee45b32bba1001ae4b8c3
True
Neptune has a number of known trojan objects occupying both the Sun–Neptune L4 and L5 Lagrangian points—gravitationally stable regions leading and trailing Neptune in its orbit, respectively. Neptune trojans can be viewed as being in a 1:1 resonance with Neptune. Some Neptune trojans are remarkably stable in their orbits, and are likely to have formed alongside Neptune rather than being captured. The first and so far only object identified as associated with Neptune's trailing L5 Lagrangian point is 2008 LC18. Neptune also has a temporary quasi-satellite, (309239) 2007 RW10. The object has been a quasi-satellite of Neptune for about 12,500 years and it will remain in that dynamical state for another 12,500 years.
What could have blasted Neptune and Uranus's atmosphere with radiation, aiding in creation?
572ead7cc246551400ce44d8
nearby massive OB star
561
False
What is too low to account for the formation of Neptune?
572ead7cc246551400ce44d9
matter density
126
False
If Neptune was formed from instabilities within the original protoplanetary disc, what was it not formed by?
572ead7cc246551400ce44da
core accretion
418
False
nearby massive OB star.
561
What didn't blast Neptune and Uranus's atmosphere with radiation, aiding in creation?
5acee48532bba1001ae4b8c9
True
matter density
126
What is too high to account for the formation of Neptune?
5acee48532bba1001ae4b8ca
True
core accretion
418
If Neptune wasn't formed from instabilities within the original protoplanetary disc, what was it formed by?
5acee48532bba1001ae4b8cb
True
The formation of the ice giants, Neptune and Uranus, has proven difficult to model precisely. Current models suggest that the matter density in the outer regions of the Solar System was too low to account for the formation of such large bodies from the traditionally accepted method of core accretion, and various hypotheses have been advanced to explain their formation. One is that the ice giants were not formed by core accretion but from instabilities within the original protoplanetary disc and later had their atmospheres blasted away by radiation from a nearby massive OB star.
If Neptune formed closer to the sun, what is the matter density?
572eae2203f9891900756929
higher
91
False
If Neptune formed closer to the sun, what caused it to migrate to it's current orbit?
572eae2203f989190075692a
removal of the gaseous protoplanetary disc
164
False
What is the most widely accepted explanation of Neptune's formation called?
572eae2203f989190075692b
the Nice model
484
False
What does The Nice model consider effected the migration of Neptune?
572eae2203f989190075692c
Kuiper belt.
601
False
higher
91
If Jupiter formed closer to the sun, what is the matter density?
5acee4b332bba1001ae4b8cf
True
removal of the gaseous protoplanetary disc
164
If Pluto formed closer to the sun, what caused it to migrate to it's current orbit?
5acee4b332bba1001ae4b8d0
True
Nice model
488
What is the least widely accepted explanation of Neptune's formation called?
5acee4b332bba1001ae4b8d1
True
Kuiper belt
601
What does The Nice model consider effected the migration of Jupiter?
5acee4b332bba1001ae4b8d2
True
An alternative concept is that they formed closer to the Sun, where the matter density was higher, and then subsequently migrated to their current orbits after the removal of the gaseous protoplanetary disc. This hypothesis of migration after formation is favoured, due to its ability to better explain the occupancy of the populations of small objects observed in the trans-Neptunian region. The current most widely accepted explanation of the details of this hypothesis is known as the Nice model, which explores the effect of a migrating Neptune and the other giant planets on the structure of the Kuiper belt.
How many moons does Neptune have?
572eae88dfa6aa1500f8d2ad
14
12
False
What is Neptune's largest moon?
572eae88dfa6aa1500f8d2ae
Triton
28
False
Who discovered Triton?
572eae88dfa6aa1500f8d2af
William Lassell
214
False
What orbit does Triton have around Neptune?
572eae88dfa6aa1500f8d2b0
retrograde orbit
355
False
What does Triton's orbit suggest about it's relation to Neptune?
572eae88dfa6aa1500f8d2b1
that it was captured
384
False
Neptune
0
What planet has 13 moons?
5acee56032bba1001ae4b8d7
True
Triton
28
What is the smallest moon?
5acee56032bba1001ae4b8d8
True
William Lassell
214
Who failed to discover Triton?
5acee56032bba1001ae4b8d9
True
retrograde orbit
355
What orbit does Triton have around Jupiter?
5acee56032bba1001ae4b8da
True
it was captured
389
What does Triton's orbit suggest about it's relation to Jupiter?
5acee56032bba1001ae4b8db
True
Neptune has 14 known moons. Triton is the largest Neptunian moon, comprising more than 99.5% of the mass in orbit around Neptune,[e] and it is the only one massive enough to be spheroidal. Triton was discovered by William Lassell just 17 days after the discovery of Neptune itself. Unlike all other large planetary moons in the Solar System, Triton has a retrograde orbit, indicating that it was captured rather than forming in place; it was probably once a dwarf planet in the Kuiper belt. It is close enough to Neptune to be locked into a synchronous rotation, and it is slowly spiralling inward because of tidal acceleration. It will eventually be torn apart, in about 3.6 billion years, when it reaches the Roche limit. In 1989, Triton was the coldest object that had yet been measured in the Solar System, with estimated temperatures of 38 K (−235 °C).
What discovered six moons of Neptune in 1989?
572eaf62cb0c0d14000f147e
Voyager 2
29
False
What is the second most massive Neptunian moon?
572eaf62cb0c0d14000f147f
Proteus
105
False
What is notable about the moon Proteus?
572eaf62cb0c0d14000f1480
irregularly shaped
86
False
Which are Neptune's four innermost moons?
572eaf62cb0c0d14000f1481
Naiad, Thalassa, Despina and Galatea
356
False
When was Neptune's moon Larissa discovered?
572eaf62cb0c0d14000f1482
1981
503
False
Voyager 2
29
What discovered five moons of Neptune in 1989?
5acee59732bba1001ae4b8e1
True
Proteus
105
What is the second least massive Neptunian moon?
5acee59732bba1001ae4b8e2
True
shape
213
What is not notable about the moon Proteus?
5acee59732bba1001ae4b8e3
True
Naiad, Thalassa, Despina and Galatea
356
Which are Neptune's four outermost moons?
5acee59732bba1001ae4b8e4
True
Larissa
465
What was discovered in 1984?
5acee59732bba1001ae4b8e5
True
From July to September 1989, Voyager 2 discovered six moons of Neptune. Of these, the irregularly shaped Proteus is notable for being as large as a body of its density can be without being pulled into a spherical shape by its own gravity. Although the second-most-massive Neptunian moon, it is only 0.25% the mass of Triton. Neptune's innermost four moons—Naiad, Thalassa, Despina and Galatea—orbit close enough to be within Neptune's rings. The next-farthest out, Larissa, was originally discovered in 1981 when it had occulted a star. This occultation had been attributed to ring arcs, but when Voyager 2 observed Neptune in 1989, Larissa was found to have caused it. Five new irregular moons discovered between 2002 and 2003 were announced in 2004. A new moon and the smallest yet, S/2004 N 1, was found in 2013. Because Neptune was the Roman god of the sea, Neptune's moons have been named after lesser sea gods.
What is Neptune's angular diameter range?
572eaff6dfa6aa1500f8d2c9
2.2 to 2.4 arcseconds
85
False
The advent of what telescope made it easier to study Neptune?
572eaff6dfa6aa1500f8d2ca
Hubble Space Telescope
277
False
When was the first useful observation of Neptune from the ground?
572eaff6dfa6aa1500f8d2cb
1997
491
False
What seasons are Neptune currently entering?
572eaff6dfa6aa1500f8d2cc
spring and summer
543
False
What was discovered around Neptune in 2004 and 2005?
572eaff6dfa6aa1500f8d2cd
five new small satellites
1068
False
2.2 to 2.4 arcseconds
85
What is Neptune's angular height?
5acee5d532bba1001ae4b8eb
True
Hubble Space Telescope
277
The advent of what telescope made it easier to study Jupiter?
5acee5d532bba1001ae4b8ec
True
first scientifically useful observation of Neptune
371
What happened in 1978?
5acee5d532bba1001ae4b8ed
True
spring and summer season
543
What seasons are Uranus currently entering?
5acee5d532bba1001ae4b8ee
True
five new small satellites
1068
What was discovered around Neptune in 2008 and 2009?
5acee5d532bba1001ae4b8ef
True
Because of the distance of Neptune from Earth, its angular diameter only ranges from 2.2 to 2.4 arcseconds, the smallest of the Solar System planets. Its small apparent size makes it challenging to study it visually. Most telescopic data was fairly limited until the advent of Hubble Space Telescope (HST) and large ground-based telescopes with adaptive optics (AO). The first scientifically useful observation of Neptune from ground-based telescopes using adaptive optics, was commenced in 1997 from Hawaii. Neptune is currently entering its spring and summer season and has been shown to be heating up, with increased atmospheric activity and brightness as a consequence. Combined with technological advancements, ground-based telescopes with adaptive optics are recording increasingly more detailed images of this Outer Planet. Both the HST and AO telescopes on Earth has made many new discoveries within the Solar System since the mid-1990s, with a large increase in the number of known satellites and moons around the Outer Planets for example. In 2004 and 2005, five new small satellites of Neptune with diameters between 38 and 61 kilometres were discovered.
What is the only spacecraft to visit Neptune?
572eb077c246551400ce4518
Voyager 2
0
False
When did a spacecraft get closest to Neptune?
572eb077c246551400ce4519
25 August 1989
119
False
What near Neptune did a spacecraft visit dangerously close?
572eb077c246551400ce451a
Triton
251
False
What program aired on PBS about Neptune?
572eb077c246551400ce451b
Neptune All Night
492
False
Voyager 2
0
What is the only spacecraft to never visit Neptune?
5acee61232bba1001ae4b8f5
True
25 August 1989
119
When did a spacecraft refuse to get close to Neptune?
5acee61232bba1001ae4b8f6
True
Triton
251
What near Neptune did a spacecraft land on?
5acee61232bba1001ae4b8f7
True
Neptune All Night
492
What program aired on NBC about Neptune?
5acee61232bba1001ae4b8f8
True
PBS all-night program, Neptune All Night
469
What aired in 1984?
5acee61232bba1001ae4b8f9
True
Voyager 2 is the only spacecraft that has visited Neptune. The spacecraft's closest approach to the planet occurred on 25 August 1989. Because this was the last major planet the spacecraft could visit, it was decided to make a close flyby of the moon Triton, regardless of the consequences to the trajectory, similarly to what was done for Voyager 1's encounter with Saturn and its moon Titan. The images relayed back to Earth from Voyager 2 became the basis of a 1989 PBS all-night program, Neptune All Night.
When is the next hypothetical mission to Neptune?
572eb0fd03f989190075695f
late 2020s
215
False
What about Neptune did NASA propose in 2003 in their "Vision Missions Studies"?
572eb0fd03f9891900756960
Neptune Orbiter with Probes
399
False
When will Argo be launched?
572eb0fd03f9891900756961
2019
550
False
What will Argo visit?
572eb0fd03f9891900756962
Jupiter, Saturn, Neptune, and a Kuiper belt object
573
False
When can we expect Argo to visit Triton?
572eb0fd03f9891900756963
2029
709
False
2020s
220
When is the next set-in-stone mission to Neptune?
5acee64f32bba1001ae4b8ff
True
Orbiter with Probes
407
What about Uranus did NASA propose in 2003 in their "Vision Missions Studies"?
5acee64f32bba1001ae4b900
True
Argo
507
What will launch in 2027?
5acee64f32bba1001ae4b901
True
Jupiter, Saturn, Neptune, and a Kuiper belt object
573
What will Larrgo visit?
5acee64f32bba1001ae4b902
True
2029
709
When can we expect Argo to visit Mars?
5acee64f32bba1001ae4b903
True
After the Voyager 2 flyby mission, the next step in scientific exploration of the Neptunian system, is considered to be a Flagship orbital mission. Such a hypothetical mission is envisioned to be possible at in the late 2020s or early 2030s. However, there have been a couple of discussions to launch Neptune missions sooner. In 2003, there was a proposal in NASA's "Vision Missions Studies" for a "Neptune Orbiter with Probes" mission that does Cassini-level science. Another, more recent proposal was for Argo, a flyby spacecraft to be launched in 2019, that would visit Jupiter, Saturn, Neptune, and a Kuiper belt object. The focus would be on Neptune and its largest moon Triton to be investigated around 2029. The proposed New Horizons 2 mission (which was later scrapped) might also have done a close flyby of the Neptunian system.
Railway_electrification_system
What is of the factors the capital cost of electrification system depends on?
572e8592dfa6aa1500f8d097
maintenance
300
False
How do some locomotives function in order to be more flexible in operation?
572e8592dfa6aa1500f8d098
can switch to different supply voltages
482
False
What is the main disadvantage of railway electrification?
572e8592dfa6aa1500f8d099
significant capital expenditure
188
False
What are two types of revenue obtained through railway transportation?
572e8592dfa6aa1500f8d09a
freight and passenger traffic
367
False
railway electrification
2
What system supplies nuclear power to railway trains?
5acd6ad707355d001abf4130
True
Electrification
139
What requires insignificant capital expenditure?
5acd6ad707355d001abf4131
True
areas
449
The same systems are used for both urban and intercity what?
5acd6ad707355d001abf4132
True
flexibility in operation
531
All electric locomotives can switch to different supply voltages to allow for what?
5acd6ad707355d001abf4133
True
prime mover
105
A railway electrification system supplies power to trains and trams with an on-board what?
5acd6ad707355d001abf4134
True
A railway electrification system supplies electric power to railway trains and trams without an on-board prime mover or local fuel supply. Electrification has many advantages but requires significant capital expenditure. Selection of an electrification system is based on economics of energy supply, maintenance, and capital cost compared to the revenue obtained for freight and passenger traffic. Different systems are used for urban and intercity areas; some electric locomotives can switch to different supply voltages to allow flexibility in operation.
What is used to haul passengers cars?
572e86c1c246551400ce42ca
electric locomotives
22
False
How is electricity being generated for electric locomotives?
572e86c1c246551400ce42cb
generating stations
225
False
What entity provides distribution lines, switches and transformers?
572e86c1c246551400ce42cc
railway
457
False
Electric
0
Which railways haul passengers and freight in the same cars?
5acd6b7507355d001abf415e
True
Electricity
156
What is typically generated in small generating stations?
5acd6b7507355d001abf415f
True
generating stations and transmission lines
360
All electric railways have their own dedicated what?
5acd6b7507355d001abf4160
True
an electric utility
432
Very few purchase power from whom?
5acd6b7507355d001abf4161
True
Electricity
156
What is generated in relatively inefficient stations?
5acd6b7507355d001abf4162
True
Electric railways use electric locomotives to haul passengers or freight in separate cars or electric multiple units, passenger cars with their own motors. Electricity is typically generated in large and relatively efficient generating stations, transmitted to the railway network and distributed to the trains. Some electric railways have their own dedicated generating stations and transmission lines but most purchase power from an electric utility. The railway usually provides its own distribution lines, switches and transformers.
What is the principal alternative to electric railways?
572e88f303f9891900756745
diesel engine
48
False
What locomotives are usually more reliable?
572e88f303f9891900756746
Electric locomotives
170
False
What do some electric traction systems provide?
572e88f303f9891900756747
regenerative braking
394
False
What type of fuel do diesel locomotives use?
572e88f303f9891900756748
petroleum
597
False
What is one of the sources electricity is being generated from?
572e88f303f9891900756749
geothermal
771
False
electric railways
63
What does not offer better emissions efficiency?
5acd6c7907355d001abf418c
True
dioxide
696
Electricity is generated from many sources that do produce carbon what?
5acd6c7907355d001abf418d
True
hydroelectric, geothermal, wind and solar
756
electricity is generated from non-renewable forms including?
5acd6c7907355d001abf418e
True
Electric
170
Which locomotives have no global emissions?
5acd6c7907355d001abf418f
True
regenerative
394
All electric traction systems provide what kind of braking?
5acd6c7907355d001abf4190
True
In comparison to the principal alternative, the diesel engine, electric railways offer substantially better energy efficiency, lower emissions and lower operating costs. Electric locomotives are usually quieter, more powerful, and more responsive and reliable than diesels. They have no local emissions, an important advantage in tunnels and urban areas. Some electric traction systems provide regenerative braking that turns the train's kinetic energy back into electricity and returns it to the supply system to be used by other trains or the general utility grid. While diesel locomotives burn petroleum, electricity is generated from diverse sources including many that do not produce carbon dioxide such as nuclear power and renewable forms including hydroelectric, geothermal, wind and solar.
What issue can complicate electric railway service?
572e8e0fcb0c0d14000f1290
different supply voltages and frequencies,
330
False
What is a safety hazard to track workers?
572e8e0fcb0c0d14000f1291
voltages on contact wires
519
False
What is a safer alternative to third rails?
572e8e0fcb0c0d14000f1292
Overhead wires
627
False
Why overhead wires are not being widely used?
572e8e0fcb0c0d14000f1293
considered unsightly.
689
False
high capital costs that may be uneconomic on lightly trafficked routes
43
Advantages of electric traction include?
5acd6d9d07355d001abf41b0
True
frequencies
360
All regions use the same supply voltages and?
5acd6d9d07355d001abf41b1
True
workers, passengers and trespassers
590
Lethal voltages on contact wires and third rails are non a safety hazard for whom?
5acd6d9d07355d001abf41b2
True
unsightly
700
Third rails are considered safer than overhead wires, but are considered what?
5acd6d9d07355d001abf41b3
True
Disadvantages of electric traction include high capital costs that may be uneconomic on lightly trafficked routes; a relative lack of flexibility since electric trains need electrified tracks or onboard supercapacitors and charging infrastructure at stations; and a vulnerability to power interruptions. Different regions may use different supply voltages and frequencies, complicating through service. The limited clearances available under catenaries may preclude efficient double-stack container service. The lethal voltages on contact wires and third rails are a safety hazard to track workers, passengers and trespassers. Overhead wires are safer than third rails, but they are often considered unsightly.
What is speed limit for railways?
572e8f7803f98919007567a1
variable speeds
25
False
Why is DC motor being used more than AC type?
572e8f7803f98919007567a2
conversion was not well developed
220
False
What are two types of railway transportation still use DC motor?
572e8f7803f98919007567a3
rapid transit (subways) and trams
375
False
Railways
0
What must operate at constant speeds?
5acd6e7607355d001abf41cc
True
in various series-parallel combinations
465
Speed was controlled by disconnecting the traction motors where?
5acd6e7607355d001abf41cd
True
variable
25
A brush-type BC motor operated at what speeds?
5acd6e7607355d001abf41ce
True
DC
340
All early electrified motors used what type of motor?
5acd6e7607355d001abf41cf
True
Speed
410
Varying the transition motors' fields helped control what?
5acd6e7607355d001abf41d0
True
Railways must operate at variable speeds. Until the mid 1980s this was only practical with the brush-type DC motor, although such DC can be supplied from an AC catenary via on-board electric power conversion. Since such conversion was not well developed in the late 19th century and early 20th century, most early electrified railways used DC and many still do, particularly rapid transit (subways) and trams. Speed was controlled by connecting the traction motors in various series-parallel combinations, by varying the traction motors' fields, and by inserting and removing starting resistances to limit motor current.
Why do motors have little space for insulation?
572f2607947a6a140053c7dc
low voltage ratings
78
False
What is most common volatage range used by railway system?
572f2607947a6a140053c7dd
below 1 kV
409
False
Why 1kV voltage is almost always used by rail systems?
572f2607947a6a140053c7de
safety reasons
424
False
Which system uses higher voltages?
572f2607947a6a140053c7df
overhead wires
445
False
Is "low" voltage used by trains safe for people?
572f2607947a6a140053c7e0
lethal
560
False
600 V
537
How many volts can be considered nonlethal when touched?
5acd6f5f07355d001abf41fa
True
insulation
44
Motors have a lot of room for electrical what?
5acd6f5f07355d001abf41fb
True
transformers
107
What can step down DC voltages?
5acd6f5f07355d001abf41fc
True
below 1 kV
409
Fifth (and sixth) railsystems use what voltages for safety reasons?
5acd6f5f07355d001abf41fd
True
Motors
0
What has high voltage ratings?
5acd6f5f07355d001abf41fe
True
Motors have very little room for electrical insulation so they generally have low voltage ratings. Because transformers (prior to the development of power electronics) cannot step down DC voltages, trains were supplied with a relatively low DC voltage that the motors can use directly. The most common DC voltages are listed in the previous section. Third (and fourth) rail systems almost always use voltages below 1 kV for safety reasons while overhead wires usually use higher voltages for efficiency. ("Low" voltage is relative; even 600 V can be instantly lethal when touched.)
What type of electric power garantees lesser loss?
572f2836b2c2fd1400567f47
DC
144
False
Which type of supply for electric motors creates electromagnetic radiation?
572f2836b2c2fd1400567f48
AC
172
False
What can electromagnetic radiation interfere with?
572f2836b2c2fd1400567f49
signalling and communications
390
False
Which type of power does require three-phase transmission?
572f2836b2c2fd1400567f4a
AC
632
False
Where was an experimental 6kV DC railway built?
572f2836b2c2fd1400567f4b
the Soviet Union
1380
False
DC use at higher voltages
75
Railroad operators have shown little interest in returning to what?
5acd704c07355d001abf4234
True
high-voltage direct current
196
What is being used on all bulk power transmission lines?
5acd704c07355d001abf4235
True
wire
606
DC can supply variable power with a single underground what?
5acd704c07355d001abf4236
True
Constant power with AC
612
What requires a four-phase transmission with at least two underground wires?
5acd704c07355d001abf4237
True
few
1161
How many railroads have tried 4-phase?
5acd704c07355d001abf4238
True
There has, however, been interest among railroad operators in returning to DC use at higher voltages than previously used. At the same voltage, DC often has less loss than AC, and for this reason high-voltage direct current is already used on some bulk power transmission lines. DC avoids the electromagnetic radiation inherent with AC, and on a railway this also reduces interference with signalling and communications and mitigates hypothetical EMF risks. DC also avoids the power factor problems of AC. Of particular interest to railroading is that DC can supply constant power with a single ungrounded wire. Constant power with AC requires three-phase transmission with at least two ungrounded wires. Another important consideration is that mains-frequency 3-phase AC must be carefully planned to avoid unbalanced phase loads. Parts of the system are supplied from different phases on the assumption that the total loads of the 3 phases will even out. At the phase break points between regions supplied from different phases, long insulated supply breaks are required to avoid them being shorted by rolling stock using more than one pantograph at a time. A few railroads have tried 3-phase but its substantial complexity has made single-phase standard practice despite the interruption in power flow that occurs twice every cycle. An experimental 6 kV DC railway was built in the Soviet Union.
What is most common voltage for DC supply?
572f2b31947a6a140053c7e6
1,500 V
0
False
How many narrow-gauge lines in Slovakia?
572f2b31947a6a140053c7e7
two
415
False
What railway line is DC being used in Portugal?
572f2b31947a6a140053c7e8
the Cascais Line
505
False
Where in India line has been converted to AC?
572f2b31947a6a140053c7e9
Mumbai area
146
False
the High Tatras
441
In Romania, there are two narrow-gauge lines where?
5acd71d007355d001abf4284
True
in the High Tatras
438
There is a hog railway located where?
5acd71d007355d001abf4285
True
Portugal
481
The Cascade Line is located where?
5acd71d007355d001abf4286
True
the Metra Electric
321
1,500 V DC is used in what district in Connecticut?
5acd71d007355d001abf4287
True
1,500 V DC
0
The South Shore Line suburb line uses what?
5acd71d007355d001abf4288
True
1,500 V DC is used in the Netherlands, Japan, Republic Of Indonesia, Hong Kong (parts), Republic of Ireland, Australia (parts), India (around the Mumbai area alone, has been converted to 25 kV AC like the rest of India), France (also using 25 kV 50 Hz AC), New Zealand (Wellington) and the United States (Chicago area on the Metra Electric district and the South Shore Line interurban line). In Slovakia, there are two narrow-gauge lines in the High Tatras (one a cog railway). In Portugal, it is used in the Cascais Line and in Denmark on the suburban S-train system.
What voltage is being used in railway system of South Africa and Chile?
572f2ce3a23a5019007fc4b3
3 kV DC
0
False
Besides using 3kV DC what other power type is used in the former Soviet Union countries?
572f2ce3a23a5019007fc4b4
25 kV 50 Hz AC
166
False
What was New Jersey Transit called before?
572f2ce3a23a5019007fc4b5
Western Railroad
391
False
What does the railway system of US use DC or AC?
572f2ce3a23a5019007fc4b6
AC
582
False
3 kV DC
0
What was formally used by the Mississippi Road?
5acd72be07355d001abf42c0
True
3 kV DC
0
What is used by the current Soviet Union countries?
5acd72be07355d001abf42c1
True
3 kV DC
0
New York transit in the United States uses what?
5acd72be07355d001abf42c2
True
India
536
The Kukuburra suburban railway is located where?
5acd72be07355d001abf42c3
True
25 kV 50 Hz AC
570
The Kolkata suburban railway in India converted from what?
5acd72be07355d001abf42c4
True
3 kV DC is used in Belgium, Italy, Spain, Poland, the northern Czech Republic, Slovakia, Slovenia, South Africa, Chile, and former Soviet Union countries (also using 25 kV 50 Hz AC). It was formerly used by the Milwaukee Road from Harlowton, Montana to Seattle-Tacoma, across the Continental Divide and including extensive branch and loop lines in Montana, and by the Delaware, Lackawanna & Western Railroad (now New Jersey Transit, converted to 25 kV AC) in the United States, and the Kolkata suburban railway (Bardhaman Main Line) in India, before it was converted to 25 kV 50 Hz AC.
What type is mostly used third rail or overhead wires?
572f2eff04bcaa1900d76775
overhead wires
33
False
Is trird rail system being used exclusively with AC or DC ?
572f2eff04bcaa1900d76776
DC distribution
133
False
What depth does the alternating current penetrate in a steel rail?
572f2eff04bcaa1900d76777
skin depth
263
False
What is physically more compact tird rail or overhead wires?
572f2eff04bcaa1900d76778
Third rail
465
False
What is more prefferable for subway lines?
572f2eff04bcaa1900d76779
Third rail
465
False
overhead
33
All electrical systems use what kind of wires?
5acd736a07355d001abf42f2
True
1,200
89
The third rail operates over what voltage?
5acd736a07355d001abf42f3
True
smaller-diameter tunnels
531
Overhead wires are more compact than third rail and can be used for what?
5acd736a07355d001abf42f4
True
smaller-diameter tunnels
531
What is considered an unimportant factor for subway systems?
5acd736a07355d001abf42f5
True
large
239
Overhead wires are considered physically very what?
5acd736a07355d001abf42f6
True
Most electrification systems use overhead wires, but third rail is an option up to about 1,200 V. Third rail systems exclusively use DC distribution. The use of AC is not feasible because the dimensions of a third rail are physically very large compared with the skin depth that the alternating current penetrates to (0.3 millimetres or 0.012 inches) in a steel rail). This effect makes the resistance per unit length unacceptably high compared with the use of DC. Third rail is more compact than overhead wires and can be used in smaller-diameter tunnels, an important factor for subway systems.
Why DC system can effect the speed of trains?
572f3099a23a5019007fc4c5
low voltages
69
False
Can DC systems use low-level platform?
572f3099a23a5019007fc4c6
cannot
134
False
Besides speed and size what else the low voltage of DC system can effect?
572f3099a23a5019007fc4c7
air-conditioning
193
False
What is the speed limit for third rail system trains?
572f3099a23a5019007fc4c8
160 km/h
410
False
What can become unreliable if the speed exceeds the limit of 100 mph for DC system trains?
572f3099a23a5019007fc4c9
contact between the shoe and the rail
454
False
voltages
73
DC systems are limited to relatively high what?
5acd743707355d001abf4306
True
100 mph
401
The lowest speed of trains on third-rail systems is limited to what?
5acd743707355d001abf4307
True
100 mph
401
Above what speed can reliable contact between the shoe and the rail be maintained?
5acd743707355d001abf4308
True
relatively low voltages
58
What can not limit the size and speed of trains?
5acd743707355d001abf4309
True
the amount of air-conditioning that the trains can provide
179
What is not a factor favoring overhead wires and high-voltage AC?
5acd743707355d001abf430a
True
DC systems (especially third-rail systems) are limited to relatively low voltages and this can limit the size and speed of trains and cannot use low-level platform and also limit the amount of air-conditioning that the trains can provide. This may be a factor favouring overhead wires and high-voltage AC, even for urban usage. In practice, the top speed of trains on third-rail systems is limited to 100 mph (160 km/h) because above that speed reliable contact between the shoe and the rail cannot be maintained.
What is the other name for the street trams?
572f3315b2c2fd1400567f77
streetcars
19
False
Where is third rail situated in the street trams system?
572f3315b2c2fd1400567f78
below street level
94
False
What area in US discontinued using overhead wires for streetcars in 1962?
572f3315b2c2fd1400567f79
Washington, D.C.
298
False
What external and weather factors can effect conduit slot?
572f3315b2c2fd1400567f7a
leaves and snow
1171
False
What are the main reasons the conduit lines were converted to overhead  wire system?
572f3315b2c2fd1400567f7b
cost and operating efficiency
1507
False
third-rail current collection
44
All street trams use conduit what?
5acd750707355d001abf4336
True
a plough
153
What is accessed through a wide slot in the road?
5acd750707355d001abf4337
True
Georgetown
798
In what neighborhood in New York have the abandoned tracks not been paved over?
5acd750707355d001abf4338
True
initial installation costs
1099
An advantage of conduit collection is much high what?
5acd750707355d001abf4339
True
Washington, D.C.
1228
Cars on all lines have been converted to overhead wire in what city?
5acd750707355d001abf433a
True
Some street trams (streetcars) used conduit third-rail current collection. The third rail was below street level. The tram picked up the current through a plough (U.S. "plow") accessed through a narrow slot in the road. In the United States, much (though not all) of the former streetcar system in Washington, D.C. (discontinued in 1962) was operated in this manner to avoid the unsightly wires and poles associated with electric traction. The same was true with Manhattan's former streetcar system. The evidence of this mode of running can still be seen on the track down the slope on the northern access to the abandoned Kingsway Tramway Subway in central London, United Kingdom, where the slot between the running rails is clearly visible, and on P and Q Streets west of Wisconsin Avenue in the Georgetown neighborhood of Washington DC, where the abandoned tracks have not been paved over. The slot can easily be confused with the similar looking slot for cable trams/cars (in some cases, the conduit slot was originally a cable slot). The disadvantage of conduit collection included much higher initial installation costs, higher maintenance costs, and problems with leaves and snow getting in the slot. For this reason, in Washington, D.C. cars on some lines converted to overhead wire on leaving the city center, a worker in a "plough pit" disconnecting the plough while another raised the trolley pole (hitherto hooked down to the roof) to the overhead wire. In New York City for the same reasons of cost and operating efficiency outside of Manhattan overhead wire was used. A similar system of changeover from conduit to overhead wire was also used on the London tramways, notably on the southern side; a typical changeover point was at Norwood, where the conduit snaked sideways from between the running rails, to provide a park for detached shoes or ploughs.
What year the "second generation" of tram system began to operate in France?
572f3f3404bcaa1900d767c5
2003
170
False
When was the original system discontinued?
572f3f3404bcaa1900d767c6
1958
208
False
How is the circuit of the third rail divided?
572f3f3404bcaa1900d767c7
energized segment
548
False
Does energized segment of third rail pose the threat to pedestrians if uncovered?
572f3f3404bcaa1900d767c8
no danger
700
False
the "second generation" tram/streetcar system in Bordeaux, France
54
An old approach to avoiding overhead wires is taken by what system?
5acd760407355d001abf435e
True
the "second generation" tram/streetcar system
54
What system has been adopted in all sections of the new tram systems in Reims, France?
5acd760407355d001abf435f
True
2011
826
When did the new tram system in Paris, France open?
5acd760407355d001abf4360
True
2011
864
When did the new trans system in Achnor, France open?
5acd760407355d001abf4361
True
the "second generation" tram/streetcar system in Bordeaux, France
54
The circuit is left undivided in what system?
5acd760407355d001abf4362
True
A new approach to avoiding overhead wires is taken by the "second generation" tram/streetcar system in Bordeaux, France (entry into service of the first line in December 2003; original system discontinued in 1958) with its APS (alimentation par sol – ground current feed). This involves a third rail which is flush with the surface like the tops of the running rails. The circuit is divided into segments with each segment energized in turn by sensors from the car as it passes over it, the remainder of the third rail remaining "dead". Since each energized segment is completely covered by the lengthy articulated cars, and goes dead before being "uncovered" by the passage of the vehicle, there is no danger to pedestrians. This system has also been adopted in some sections of the new tram systems in Reims, France (opened 2011) and Angers, France (also opened 2011). Proposals are in place for a number of other new services including Dubai, UAE; Barcelona, Spain; Florence, Italy; Marseille, France; Gold Coast, Australia; Washington, D.C., U.S.A.; Brasília, Brazil and Tours, France.
What type of system does London Underground use?
572f40f1b2c2fd1400567f9f
four-rail system
73
False
What is the purpose of the forth rail?
572f40f1b2c2fd1400567fa0
carries the electrical return
111
False
What is the volatage surge of the third rail of London Underground system?
572f40f1b2c2fd1400567fa1
+420v DC
304
False
What is the voltage of the return rail?
572f40f1b2c2fd1400567fa2
−210v DC
394
False
Where was the system similar to London Underground used as well?
572f40f1b2c2fd1400567fa3
Milan
772
False
The London Underground
0
Which system in England is one of the few to use a five-rail system?
5acd7b6807355d001abf441c
True
beside the track
273
On the London Underground, a bottom-contact rail is located where?
5acd7b6807355d001abf441d
True
centrally between the running rails at −210v DC
355
A bottom-contact fourth rail is located where?
5acd7b6807355d001abf441e
True
London Underground
460
Which system is now upgrading their fifth rail system to 750v DC?
5acd7b6807355d001abf441f
True
630v
699
Many newer sections in tunnels are energised to what voltage?
5acd7b6807355d001abf4420
True
The London Underground in England is one of the few networks that uses a four-rail system. The additional rail carries the electrical return that, on third rail and overhead networks, is provided by the running rails. On the London Underground, a top-contact third rail is beside the track, energized at +420v DC, and a top-contact fourth rail is located centrally between the running rails at −210v DC, which combine to provide a traction voltage of 630v DC. London Underground is now upgrading its fourth rail system to 750v DC with a positive conductor rail energised to +500v DC and a negative conductor rail energised to -250v DC. However, many older sections in tunnels are still energised to 630v DC. The same system was used for Milan's earliest underground line, Milan Metro's line 1, whose more recent lines use an overhead catenary or a third rail.
What is the crucial advantage of four-rail system?
572f42c2947a6a140053c81e
running rail carries any current
58
False
What danger can return currents cause?
572f42c2947a6a140053c81f
electrolytic damage
290
False
How did return current effect water and gas in iron pipes?
572f42c2947a6a140053c820
water and gas mains
508
False
How are stray earth currents kept to a manageable levels?
572f42c2947a6a140053c821
by using resistors
848
False
What insures minimal current leak during power rails instalation?
572f42c2947a6a140053c822
ceramic chairs
993
False
neither running rail carries any current
50
What is a key advantage to the fifth rail system?
5acd7c4607355d001abf443a
True
electrolytic damage and even arcing
290
What can happen if the tunnel segments are electrically bonded together?
5acd7c4607355d001abf443b
True
the return current
423
What has a tendency to flow past nearby iron pipes forming the water and gas mains?
5acd7c4607355d001abf443c
True
the supply
769
What has a naturally created earth point?
5acd7c4607355d001abf443d
True
running rails
1063
What does not have to be seated on stronger metal chairs?
5acd7c4607355d001abf443e
True
The key advantage of the four-rail system is that neither running rail carries any current. This scheme was introduced because of the problems of return currents, intended to be carried by the earthed (grounded) running rail, flowing through the iron tunnel linings instead. This can cause electrolytic damage and even arcing if the tunnel segments are not electrically bonded together. The problem was exacerbated because the return current also had a tendency to flow through nearby iron pipes forming the water and gas mains. Some of these, particularly Victorian mains that predated London's underground railways, were not constructed to carry currents and had no adequate electrical bonding between pipe segments. The four-rail system solves the problem. Although the supply has an artificially created earth point, this connection is derived by using resistors which ensures that stray earth currents are kept to manageable levels. Power-only rails can be mounted on strongly insulating ceramic chairs to minimise current leak, but this is not possible for running rails which have to be seated on stronger metal chairs to carry the weight of trains. However, elastomeric rubber pads placed between the rails and chairs can now solve part of the problem by insulating the running rails from the current return should there be a leakage through the running rails.
What is the voltage shared two types of trains UK railroad system?
572f447f947a6a140053c844
660 V
254
False
Why some sections of Bakerloo and District lines were rewired to three-rail system?
572f447f947a6a140053c845
to simplify rolling stock use
568
False
How did it become possible to share the voltage for different types of train?
572f447f947a6a140053c846
the centre rail is connected to the running rails
135
False
lineside electrical connections and resistances
325
What joins the two types of supply?
5acd7d2707355d001abf444e
True
National Rail trains
498
What was rewired to the standard four-rail system?
5acd7d2707355d001abf444f
True
660 V
254
What is the maximum voltage of the two UK rail systems?
5acd7d2707355d001abf4450
True
speed
318
Above ground trains pass from one section to the other at what?
5acd7d2707355d001abf4451
True
National Rail
45
The London Underground does not share tracks with whom?
5acd7d2707355d001abf4452
True
On tracks that London Underground share with National Rail third-rail stock (the Bakerloo and District lines both have such sections), the centre rail is connected to the running rails, allowing both types of train to operate, at a compromise voltage of 660 V. Underground trains pass from one section to the other at speed; lineside electrical connections and resistances separate the two types of supply. These routes were originally solely electrified on the four-rail system by the LNWR before National Rail trains were rewired to their standard three-rail system to simplify rolling stock use.
Why some lines of Paris Metro have to operate on a four-rail system?
572f4794b2c2fd1400567fc7
rubber tyres
97
False
What was the solution for the return current problem in Paris Metro?
572f4794b2c2fd1400567fc8
two guide rails
249
False
What is required in order for the guide rails to operate properly?
572f4794b2c2fd1400567fc9
a single polarity supply
491
False
How train is able to turn around after each completed journey?
572f4794b2c2fd1400567fca
reversing loops
619
False
Why was the reversing loop created?
572f4794b2c2fd1400567fcb
having to 'run around' the rest of the train
783
False
a four-rail power scheme
52
All lines of the Paris Metro in France operate on what?
5acd7e3607355d001abf4458
True
the Paris Métro in France
15
What runs on metal tyres?
5acd7e3607355d001abf4459
True
lines were extended
1096
Why were many of the original loops kept?
5acd7e3607355d001abf445a
True
rubber
97
What type of tyres conduct the return current?
5acd7e3607355d001abf445b
True
the Paris Métro in France
15
What runs on a pair of wide roadways made of steel?
5acd7e3607355d001abf445c
True
A few lines of the Paris Métro in France operate on a four-rail power scheme because they run on rubber tyres which run on a pair of narrow roadways made of steel and, in some places, concrete. Since the tyres do not conduct the return current, the two guide rails provided outside the running 'roadways' double up as conductor rails, so at least electrically it is a four-rail scheme. One of the guide rails is bonded to the return conventional running rails situated inside the roadway so a single polarity supply is required. The trains are designed to operate from either polarity of supply, because some lines use reversing loops at one end, causing the train to be reversed during every complete journey. The loop was originally provided to save the original steam locomotives having to 'run around' the rest of the train saving much time. Today, the driver does not have to change ends at termini provided with such a loop, but the time saving is not so significant as it takes almost as long to drive round the loop as it does to change ends. Many of the original loops have been lost as lines were extended.
What was a disadvantage of DC system?
572f498104bcaa1900d76817
power-wasting resistors
37
False
How can different range of voltages be supplied for AC locomotives?
572f498104bcaa1900d76818
multiple taps on the transformer
139
False
What taps can provide lighting supply?
572f498104bcaa1900d76819
low-voltage transformer windings
213
False
What will AC/DC motor be replaced with?
572f498104bcaa1900d7681a
three-phase induction motor
450
False
What is the main advantage of an induction motor?
572f498104bcaa1900d7681b
can run equally well on DC or AC of any frequency
608
False
the power-wasting resistors used in DC locomotives for speed control were not needed in an AC locomotive
33
What was an early disadvantage of AC?
5acd7ee207355d001abf4476
True
a range of voltages
183
One taps on the transformer can supply what?
5acd7ee207355d001abf4477
True
the classic "universal" AC/DC motor to be largely replaced
382
The development of low power semiconductors caused what?
5acd7ee207355d001abf4478
True
different supply voltages and frequencies
719
No modern electric locomotives are designed to handle what?
5acd7ee207355d001abf4479
True
lighting
253
Combined low-voltage transformer windings supply what?
5acd7ee207355d001abf447a
True
An early advantage of AC is that the power-wasting resistors used in DC locomotives for speed control were not needed in an AC locomotive: multiple taps on the transformer can supply a range of voltages. Separate low-voltage transformer windings supply lighting and the motors driving auxiliary machinery. More recently, the development of very high power semiconductors has caused the classic "universal" AC/DC motor to be largely replaced with the three-phase induction motor fed by a variable frequency drive, a special inverter that varies both frequency and voltage to control motor speed. These drives can run equally well on DC or AC of any frequency, and many modern electric locomotives are designed to handle different supply voltages and frequencies to simplify cross-border operation.
How can DC motor turn universal?
572f4ab9b2c2fd1400567fef
if fitted with laminated pole pieces
32
False
What problems did AC distribution cause?
572f4ab9b2c2fd1400567ff0
inductive reactance and eddy current losses
296
False
How do railways try to solve the problem of inductive reactance of AC system?
572f4ab9b2c2fd1400567ff1
low AC frequencies
361
False
How can low frequencies be obtained?
572f4ab9b2c2fd1400567ff2
converted from utility power
421
False
the motor
195
Reversing the current in both stator and rotor also reverses what?
5acd818307355d001abf44c2
True
difficulties with inductive reactance and eddy current losses
278
Many railways choose high AC frequencies to overcome what?
5acd818307355d001abf44c3
True
50 and 60 Hz
258
The now-standard DC frequencies are what?
5acd818307355d001abf44c4
True
difficulties with inductive reactance and eddy current losses
278
The distribution frequencies of 60 and 70 Hz caused what?
5acd818307355d001abf44c5
True
frequencies
368
Many railways choose low DC what?
5acd818307355d001abf44c6
True
DC commutating electric motors, if fitted with laminated pole pieces, become universal motors because they can also operate on AC; reversing the current in both stator and rotor does not reverse the motor. But the now-standard AC distribution frequencies of 50 and 60 Hz caused difficulties with inductive reactance and eddy current losses. Many railways chose low AC frequencies to overcome these problems. They must be converted from utility power by motor-generators or static inverters at the feeding substations or generated at dedicated traction powerstations.
How did non-standard gauge trains start to operate with high-voltage AC?
572f4cdaa23a5019007fc501
adopting the already proven RhB system.
556
False
When was the first trail of RhB system tested?
572f4cdaa23a5019007fc502
1913
360
False
standard gauge national networks
50
Low-voltage AC overhead systems are not only for what?
5acd845607355d001abf4528
True
Swiss and German 15 kV trains
244
Which European trains can operate under high voltages?
5acd845607355d001abf4529
True
Furka-Oberalp-Bahn (FO) and Brig-Visp-Zermatt Bahn (BVZ)
433
The MAB consisted of whom?
5acd845607355d001abf452a
True
The RhB
314
Who started trials of the 111kV system?
5acd845607355d001abf452b
True
1913
360
When did the RhB start trials of the 11 kV system on the Rhaetian line?
5acd845607355d001abf452c
True
High-voltage AC overhead systems are not only for standard gauge national networks. The meter gauge Rhaetian Railway (RhB) and the neighbouring Matterhorn Gotthard Bahn (MGB) operate on 11 kV at 16.7 Hz frequency. Practice has proven that both Swiss and German 15 kV trains can operate under these lower voltages. The RhB started trials of the 11 kV system in 1913 on the Engadin line (St. Moritz-Scuol/Tarasp). The MGB constituents Furka-Oberalp-Bahn (FO) and Brig-Visp-Zermatt Bahn (BVZ) introduced their electric services in 1941 and 1929 respectively, adopting the already proven RhB system.
What frequency was typically used on US Amtrak?
572f4ec3a23a5019007fc505
25 Hz
22
False
What voltage does SEPTA system use?
572f4ec3a23a5019007fc506
12 kV voltage
326
False
What specification is similar for both Amtrak and Septa systems?
572f4ec3a23a5019007fc507
catenary voltage
496
False
When was a 11kV system of NY, New Haven and Hartford was converted to 12.5 kV?
572f4ec3a23a5019007fc508
1987
1065
False
Philadelphia
262
The Northeast Corridor connects Harrisburg, Pennsylvania and what city?
5acd858a07355d001abf4568
True
New York City
182
The Keystone Corridor connects Washington, D.C. and what city?
5acd858a07355d001abf4569
True
The SEPTA power distribution system
762
What uses a 1:2 ratio autotransformer?
5acd858a07355d001abf456a
True
1987
1065
When was the New York, New Haven and Hartford railroad converted to a 11 kV system?
5acd858a07355d001abf456b
True
The SEPTA power distribution system
762
What uses a catenary fed at 24 kV?
5acd858a07355d001abf456c
True
In the United States, 25 Hz, a once-common industrial power frequency is used on Amtrak's 25 Hz traction power system at 12 kV on the Northeast Corridor between Washington, D.C. and New York City and on the Keystone Corridor between Harrisburg, Pennsylvania and Philadelphia. SEPTA's 25 Hz traction power system uses the same 12 kV voltage on the catenary in Northeast Philadelphia. This allows for the trains to operate on both the Amtrak and SEPTA power systems. Apart from having an identical catenary voltage, the power distribution systems of Amtrak and SEPTA are very different. The Amtrak power distribution system has a 138 kV transmission network that provides power to substations which then transform the voltage to 12 kV to feed the catenary system. The SEPTA power distribution system uses a 2:1 ratio autotransformer system, with the catenary fed at 12 kV and a return feeder wire fed at 24 kV. The New York, New Haven and Hartford Railroad used an 11 kV system between New York City and New Haven, Connecticut which was converted to 12.5 kV 60 Hz in 1987.
When was overhead wires system being used for the first time in UK?
572f506a04bcaa1900d76841
1 December 1909
177
False
What line used the overhead wire system first Victoria to Crystal Palace or Peckham Rye to West Noorwood?
572f506a04bcaa1900d76842
Victoria to Crystal Palace
194
False
What was the cause of lines not being extended?
572f506a04bcaa1900d76843
the First World War
360
False
What voltage was used in the two lines opened in 1925 of Southern Railway?
572f506a04bcaa1900d76844
6.7 kV 25 Hz
514
False
1909
188
When did the UK pioneer overhead electrification of its urban lines?
5acd865107355d001abf4584
True
June 1912
307
Peckham Rye to Victoria opened when?
5acd865107355d001abf4585
True
Further extensions
318
Because of the Second World War, what was not completed?
5acd865107355d001abf4586
True
1925
401
Three lines under the Southern Railway opened in what year?
5acd865107355d001abf4587
True
1926
548
All lines were converted to DC fourth rail in what year?
5acd865107355d001abf4588
True
In the UK, the London, Brighton and South Coast Railway pioneered overhead electrification of its suburban lines in London, London Bridge to Victoria being opened to traffic on 1 December 1909. Victoria to Crystal Palace via Balham and West Norwood opened in May 1911. Peckham Rye to West Norwood opened in June 1912. Further extensions were not made owing to the First World War. Two lines opened in 1925 under the Southern Railway serving Coulsdon North and Sutton railway station. The lines were electrified at 6.7 kV 25 Hz. It was announced in 1926 that all lines were to be converted to DC third rail and the last overhead electric service ran in September 1929.
What countries  used three-phase AC system in the the beginning of 20th century?
572f52bc04bcaa1900d76849
Italy, Switzerland and the United States
51
False
What country was a bigger user compare to the three of them?
572f52bc04bcaa1900d7684a
Italy
124
False
Where did Italy start using the AC system?
572f52bc04bcaa1900d7684b
in the mountainous regions of northern Italy
160
False
How long did the AC system last in northern Italy?
572f52bc04bcaa1900d7684c
1901 until 1976
210
False
How long did three-phase system operate in Cascade Tunnel?
572f52bc04bcaa1900d7684d
1909 to 1927
615
False
Italy
124
Who was the major user of railway electrification in the nineteenth century?
5acd871707355d001abf45c8
True
the Simplon Tunnel
483
The four-phase system was used in what tunnel in Switzerland?
5acd871707355d001abf45c9
True
the Cascade Tunnel
540
The four-phase system was used in what tunnel in the US?
5acd871707355d001abf45ca
True
Switzerland
274
The first four-way lines were in what country?
5acd871707355d001abf45cb
True
1899
287
The first four-way lines were created in what year?
5acd871707355d001abf45cc
True
Three-phase AC railway electrification was used in Italy, Switzerland and the United States in the early twentieth century. Italy was the major user, for lines in the mountainous regions of northern Italy from 1901 until 1976. The first lines were the Burgdorf-Thun line in Switzerland (1899), and the lines of the Ferrovia Alta Valtellina from Colico to Chiavenna and Tirano in Italy, which were electrified in 1901 and 1902. Other lines where the three-phase system were used were the Simplon Tunnel in Switzerland from 1906 to 1930, and the Cascade Tunnel of the Great Northern Railway in the United States from 1909 to 1927.
What country has first tried to use single-phase AC?
572f54f7b2c2fd140056802b
Hungary
74
False
What frequency did the line of Hungarian rail system used in 1923?
572f54f7b2c2fd140056802c
16 kV at 50 Hz
186
False
What type of the converter was used in hungarian locomotives of that time?
572f54f7b2c2fd140056802d
four-pole rotating phase converter
228
False
How could the locomotives run on four speed levels?
572f54f7b2c2fd140056802e
motor could be changed using slip rings
382
False
What system was adopted in Hungary after WWII?
572f54f7b2c2fd140056802f
Russian
680
False
slip rings
411
The number of poles on the 5,000 hp motor could be changed using what?
5acd87e407355d001abf45fa
True
Hungary
74
The first attempt to use standard-frequency double-phase AC were made in what country?
5acd87e407355d001abf45fb
True
a single traction motor
271
The locomotives carrying a three-pole rotating phase converter could feed what?
5acd87e407355d001abf45fc
True
1923
97
The first attempt to use standard-frequency double-phase AC were made in what year?
5acd87e407355d001abf45fd
True
the Russian and later French 25 kV system
676
During the Second World War, the 16 kV was changed to what?
5acd87e407355d001abf45fe
True
The first attempts to use standard-frequency single-phase AC were made in Hungary as far back as 1923, by the Hungarian Kálmán Kandó on the line between Budapest-Nyugati and Alag, using 16 kV at 50 Hz. The locomotives carried a four-pole rotating phase converter feeding a single traction motor of the polyphase induction type at 600 to 1,100 V. The number of poles on the 2,500 hp motor could be changed using slip rings to run at one of four synchronous speeds. The tests were a success so, from 1932 until the 1960s, trains on the Budapest-Hegyeshalom line (towards Vienna) regularly used the same system. A few decades after the Second World War, the 16 kV was changed to the Russian and later French 25 kV system.
What was the main requirement for electric feeder stations?
572f575504bcaa1900d76863
line fed from different feeder stations must be kept strictly isolated
65
False
What invention prevented lines from getting mixed?
572f575504bcaa1900d76864
Phase Breaks
189
False
What was the part of wire in Phase Break sections an arc being drawn from one wire to another?
572f575504bcaa1900d76865
The earthed section
684
False
How were the drivers warned to start coasting the train?
572f575504bcaa1900d76866
warning board
1259
False
What should the driver do in order to open and close the circuit breaker?
572f575504bcaa1900d76867
to shut off power and coast
1828
False
wire
495
Charged Sections consist of an earthed section of what?
5acd891a07355d001abf462c
True
automatically opens and closes the circuit breaker
1617
In the US, a system known as Automatic Power Control does what?
5acd891a07355d001abf462d
True
Neutral Sections
157
Typically what are in use all the time?
5acd891a07355d001abf462e
True
an arc being drawn from one live section to the other
713
The earthed section allows for what?
5acd891a07355d001abf462f
True
the train
1124
What must not be coasting to prevent the risk of an arc being drawn?
5acd891a07355d001abf4630
True
To prevent the risk of out-of-phase supplies mixing, sections of line fed from different feeder stations must be kept strictly isolated. This is achieved by Neutral Sections (also known as Phase Breaks), usually provided at feeder stations and midway between them although, typically, only half are in use at any time, the others being provided to allow a feeder station to be shut down and power provided from adjacent feeder stations. Neutral Sections usually consist of an earthed section of wire which is separated from the live wires on either side by insulating material, typically ceramic beads, designed so that the pantograph will smoothly run from one section to the other. The earthed section prevents an arc being drawn from one live section to the other, as the voltage difference may be higher than the normal system voltage if the live sections are on different phases and the protective circuit breakers may not be able to safely interrupt the considerable current that would flow. To prevent the risk of an arc being drawn across from one section of wire to earth, when passing through the neutral section, the train must be coasting and the circuit breakers must be open. In many cases, this is done manually by the drivers. To help them, a warning board is provided just before both the neutral section and an advance warning some distance before. A further board is then provided after the neutral section to tell drivers to re-close the circuit breaker, although drivers must not do this until the rear pantograph has passed this board. In the UK, a system known as Automatic Power Control (APC) automatically opens and closes the circuit breaker, this being achieved by using sets of permanent magnets alongside the track communicating with a detector on the train. The only action needed by the driver is to shut off power and coast and therefore warning boards are still provided at and on the approach to neutral sections.
What nowdays electrification systems can use?
572f591404bcaa1900d76889
DC motors which directly use the DC or they may be 3-phase AC motors
187
False
What is the main action AC and DC systems have to deal with?
572f591404bcaa1900d7688a
converting and transporting
388
False
What type of losses happen during conversion and transmission in wires and electronics?
572f591404bcaa1900d7688b
ohmic losses
736
False
What kind of losses take place in transformers and inductors during conversion/transmission process?
572f591404bcaa1900d7688c
magnetic field losses
781
False
a power grid
51
Modern electrification systems take DC energy from what?
5acd89fe07355d001abf466c
True
conversion of the DC to 3-phase AC
278
4-phase AC motors require further what?
5acd89fe07355d001abf466d
True
the transmission and conversion of electric energy
669
What doesn't involve losses?
5acd89fe07355d001abf466e
True
railway substation
912
Power conversion for an AC system takes place mainly in a what?
5acd89fe07355d001abf466f
True
accounted for
1266
The energy used to blow air to heat transformers must be what?
5acd89fe07355d001abf4670
True
Modern electrification systems take AC energy from a power grid which is delivered to a locomotive and converted to a DC voltage to be used by traction motors. These motors may either be DC motors which directly use the DC or they may be 3-phase AC motors which require further conversion of the DC to 3-phase AC (using power electronics). Thus both systems are faced with the same task: converting and transporting high-voltage AC from the power grid to low-voltage DC in the locomotive. Where should this conversion take place and at what voltage and current (AC or DC) should the power flow to the locomotive? And how does all this relate to energy-efficiency? Both the transmission and conversion of electric energy involve losses: ohmic losses in wires and power electronics, magnetic field losses in transformers and smoothing reactors (inductors). Power conversion for a DC system takes place mainly in a railway substation where large, heavy, and more efficient hardware can be used as compared to an AC system where conversion takes place aboard the locomotive where space is limited and losses are significantly higher. Also, the energy used to blow air to cool transformers, power electronics (including rectifiers), and other conversion hardware must be accounted for.
What two systems were compare in the Soviet Union in 1970?
572f5a7c947a6a140053c8ac
3 kV DC and 25 kV AC (50 Hz
88
False
Which system had higher losses in overhead wires?
572f5a7c947a6a140053c8ad
3 kV DC
240
False
Which system was used in Soviet Union after all calculations?
572f5a7c947a6a140053c8ae
3 kV DC
457
False
What came with lesser lesser cost mobile conversion hardware or stationary hardware?
572f5a7c947a6a140053c8af
stationary hardware
1109
False
over the rails
1084
It takes energy to move mobile conversion software where?
5acd8b8b07355d001abf46a6
True
the stationary hardware
1105
Which hardware in the railway substation incurs energy costs?
5acd8b8b07355d001abf46a7
True
the 3 kV DC
523
What was less energy efficient in than AC in providing energy?
5acd8b8b07355d001abf46a8
True
AC
745
The conversion for what system took place in the railway station?
5acd8b8b07355d001abf46a9
True
the locomotive
960
Most of the conversion for the DC program took place inside what?
5acd8b8b07355d001abf46aa
True
In the Soviet Union, in the 1970s, a comparison was made between systems electrified at 3 kV DC and 25 kV AC (50 Hz). The results showed that percentage losses in the overhead wires (catenary and contact wires) was over 3 times greater for 3 kV DC than for 25 kV AC. But when the conversion losses were all taken into account and added to overhead wire losses (including cooling blower energy) the 25 kV AC lost a somewhat higher percent of energy than for 3 kV DC. Thus in spite of the much higher losses in the catenary, the 3 kV DC was a little more energy efficient than AC in providing energy from the USSR power grid to the terminals of the traction motors (all DC at that time). While both systems use energy in converting higher voltage AC from the USSR's power grid to lower voltage DC, the conversions for the DC system all took place (at higher efficiency) in the railway substation, while most of the conversion for the AC system took place inside the locomotive (at lower efficiency). Consider also that it takes energy to constantly move this mobile conversion hardware over the rails while the stationary hardware in the railway substation doesn't incur this energy cost. For more details see: Wiki: Soviet Union DC vs. AC.
What can be seen in the newly electrified lines?
572f5bb3b2c2fd140056807b
"sparks effect"
37
False
What can electrification of modern trains effect?
572f5bb3b2c2fd140056807c
patronage / revenue
134
False
How can better service quality be achieved?
572f5bb3b2c2fd140056807d
rolling stock overhaul / replacement
366
False
patronage / revenue
134
Electrification in passenger rail systems leads to insignificant jumps in what?
5acd8c4607355d001abf46ba
True
general infrastructure and rolling stock overhaul / replacement
339
What leads to decreasing service quality?
5acd8c4607355d001abf46bb
True
electrified
6
A "sparks effect" is often seen on old lines which are what?
5acd8c4607355d001abf46bc
True
attractive to ride
225
Electric trains are often seen as less modern and what?
5acd8c4607355d001abf46bd
True
the sparks effect
573
What is well established for routes that have been electrified for days?
5acd8c4607355d001abf46be
True
Newly electrified lines often show a "sparks effect", whereby electrification in passenger rail systems leads to significant jumps in patronage / revenue. The reasons may include electric trains being seen as more modern and attractive to ride, faster and smoother service, and the fact that electrification often goes hand in hand with a general infrastructure and rolling stock overhaul / replacement, which leads to better service quality (in a way that theoretically could also be achieved by doing similar upgrades yet without electrification). Whatever the causes of the sparks effect, it is well established for numerous routes that have electrified over decades.
What is a major factor whn it comes to electrification?
572f618b04bcaa1900d768a3
Network effects
0
False
What was the reason some electrifications were removed after a while?
572f618b04bcaa1900d768a4
through traffic to non-electrified lines
213
False
Where can the issue of through traffic benefits occur?
572f618b04bcaa1900d768a5
long distance trips
438
False
What can be a drawback of electrification of long distance freight trains?
572f618b04bcaa1900d768a6
electrification to isolated areas
718
False
What does the increasing demand for container traffic make companies use more often?
572f618b04bcaa1900d768a7
diesel trains
853
False
Network effects
0
What is a small factor with electrification?
5acd8d4007355d001abf46ec
True
the connections with other lines
92
What must be considered when converting lines from electric?
5acd8d4007355d001abf46ed
True
Some electrifications
145
What has been removed because of the through traffic to electrified lines?
5acd8d4007355d001abf46ee
True
time consuming engine switches must occur to make such connections or expensive dual mode engines must be used
298
What is mostly an issue for short distance trips?
5acd8d4007355d001abf46ef
True
diesel
853
Companies often find they need to use what trains to heavily populated areas?
5acd8d4007355d001abf46f0
True
Network effects are a large factor with electrification. When converting lines to electric, the connections with other lines must be considered. Some electrifications have subsequently been removed because of the through traffic to non-electrified lines. If through traffic is to have any benefit, time consuming engine switches must occur to make such connections or expensive dual mode engines must be used. This is mostly an issue for long distance trips, but many lines come to be dominated by through traffic from long-haul freight trains (usually running coal, ore, or containers to or from ports). In theory, these trains could enjoy dramatic savings through electrification, but it can be too costly to extend electrification to isolated areas, and unless an entire network is electrified, companies often find that they need to continue use of diesel trains even if sections are electrified. The increasing demand for container traffic which is more efficient when utilizing the double-stack car also has network effect issues with existing electrifications due to insufficient clearance of overhead electrical lines for these trains, but electrification can be built or modified to have sufficient clearance, at additional cost.
What is the other issue that comes to sight when using electrification system?
572f63e6b2c2fd14005680a7
connections between different electrical services
34
False
Why the commuter lines built to different standards can cause be complicated?
572f63e6b2c2fd14005680a8
the implications on the sections it is connecting
328
False
What is the solution many lines came up with in order to avoid replacing present rolling stock?
572f63e6b2c2fd14005680a9
to be overlaid with multiple electrification standards
400
False
Why are disel trains  still used on electrified routes?
572f63e6b2c2fd14005680aa
due to incompatibility of electrification standards
804
False
electrification of certain connections
250
What can be very inexpensive?
5acd8e4b07355d001abf470a
True
commuter lines
190
What is often built to the same standards?
5acd8e4b07355d001abf470b
True
diesel
730
What trains run along partially electrified routes?
5acd8e4b07355d001abf470c
True
electrification standards
830
What is compatible along the route?
5acd8e4b07355d001abf470d
True
Many
379
How many lines have come to be overlaid with single electrification standards?
5acd8e4b07355d001abf470e
True
Additionally, there are issues of connections between different electrical services, particularly connecting intercity lines with sections electrified for commuter traffic, but also between commuter lines built to different standards. This can cause electrification of certain connections to be very expensive simply because of the implications on the sections it is connecting. Many lines have come to be overlaid with multiple electrification standards for different trains to avoid having to replace the existing rolling stock on those lines. Obviously, this requires that the economics of a particular connection must be more compelling and this has prevented complete electrification of many lines. In a few cases, there are diesel trains running along completely electrified routes and this can be due to incompatibility of electrification standards along the route.
Which of two can be more efficiently electricified?
572f65c704bcaa1900d768d3
Central station
0
False
How can electric power plant become more power efficient?
572f65c704bcaa1900d768d4
it will shut down its least efficient generators
366
False
How can electric train be more energy efficient?
572f65c704bcaa1900d768d5
by regenerative braking
506
False
Which type of train continues to use energy while coasting or being stopped?
572f65c704bcaa1900d768d6
diesel
580
False
What causes electric trains to waste energy?
572f65c704bcaa1900d768d7
cooling blowers
668
False
in non-nominal regimes at low power
267
Diesel motors increase in efficiency where?
5acd8f1007355d001abf4714
True
when stopped or coasting
684
Electric rolling stock may use heating blowers when?
5acd8f1007355d001abf4715
True
Central station electricity
0
What can often be generated with a lower efficiency?
5acd8f1007355d001abf4716
True
its least efficient generators
384
If an electric power plant needs to generate more power it shuts down what?
5acd8f1007355d001abf4717
True
braking
522
The diesel train can save energy by regenerative what?
5acd8f1007355d001abf4718
True
Central station electricity can often be generated with higher efficiency than a mobile engine/generator. While the efficiency of power plant generation and diesel locomotive generation are roughly the same in the nominal regime, diesel motors decrease in efficiency in non-nominal regimes at low power  while if an electric power plant needs to generate less power it will shut down its least efficient generators, thereby increasing efficiency. The electric train can save energy (as compared to diesel) by regenerative braking and by not needing to consume energy by idling as diesel locomotives do when stopped or coasting. However, electric rolling stock may run cooling blowers when stopped or coasting, thus consuming energy.
Can renewable source of electricity be used in mobile power plants?
572f688cb2c2fd14005680e5
unsuitable
15
False
What type of natural resources is more scarce?
572f688cb2c2fd14005680e6
liquid fuel
208
False
What is the recent incentive in  order to overcome oil scarcity?
572f688cb2c2fd14005680e7
to substitute other fuels
569
False
What research can be used in the future if translated?
572f688cb2c2fd14005680e8
Soviet studies from the 1980s
856
False
nuclear power, renewable hydroelectricity, or wind power
59
Energy sources suitable for mobile power plants include what?
5acd8fca07355d001abf471e
True
much less than gas and coal
224
The reserves of nuclear fuel are what?
5acd8fca07355d001abf471f
True
significant oil reserves
345
Most countries with small rail networks do not have what?
5acd8fca07355d001abf4720
True
Rail electrification
604
What is considered an insignificant route towards consumption pattern reform?
5acd8fca07355d001abf4721
True
1980s
880
Translated Soviet studies are available from what decade?
5acd8fca07355d001abf4722
True
Energy sources unsuitable for mobile power plants, such as nuclear power, renewable hydroelectricity, or wind power can be used. According to widely accepted global energy reserve statistics, the reserves of liquid fuel are much less than gas and coal (at 42, 167 and 416 years respectively). Most countries with large rail networks do not have significant oil reserves and those that did, like the United States and Britain, have exhausted much of their reserves and have suffered declining oil output for decades. Therefore, there is also a strong economic incentive to substitute other fuels for oil. Rail electrification is often considered an important route towards consumption pattern reform. However, there are no reliable, peer-reviewed studies available to assist in rational public debate on this critical issue, although there are untranslated Soviet studies from the 1980s.
What type of trains became more energy-efficient in the former Soviet Union?
572f6abab2c2fd14005680ed
electric
28
False
What year could be marked as year when electric railways more efficient than diesel ones?
572f6abab2c2fd14005680ee
1965
461
False
How much fuel did electric train used less than diesel in the middle of 1970 in USSR?
572f6abab2c2fd14005680ef
25% less fuel per ton-km
560
False
What could be a factor of lower energy consumption for electric trains?
572f6abab2c2fd14005680f0
better operating conditions on electrified lines
742
False
How much more expensive was diesel compare to electricity per unit?
572f6abab2c2fd14005680f1
1.5 times more (per unit of heat energy content
905
False
diesel
100
In the US, electric traction became more energy-efficient than what?
5acd90c407355d001abf473a
True
1950
234
When was diesel traction three times as efficient as electric traction?
5acd90c407355d001abf473b
True
1970s
533
In what decade did electrics use about 35% less fuel per ton-km.
5acd90c407355d001abf473c
True
that of the fuel used in electric power plants
959
The cost of diesel was 2.5 times more than what?
5acd90c407355d001abf473d
True
1950
234
Due to the inefficient generation of electricity in the US, diesel traction was twice as energy efficient in what year?
5acd90c407355d001abf473e
True
In the former Soviet Union, electric traction eventually became somewhat more energy-efficient than diesel. Partly due to inefficient generation of electricity in the USSR (only 20.8% thermal efficiency in 1950 vs. 36.2% in 1975), in 1950 diesel traction was about twice as energy efficient as electric traction (in terms of net tonne-km of freight per kg of fuel). But as efficiency of electricity generation (and thus of electric traction) improved, by about 1965 electric railways became more efficient than diesel. After the mid 1970s electrics used about 25% less fuel per ton-km. However diesels were mainly used on single track lines with a fair amount of traffic  so that the lower fuel consumption of electrics may be in part due to better operating conditions on electrified lines (such as double tracking) rather than inherent energy efficiency. Nevertheless, the cost of diesel fuel was about 1.5 times more (per unit of heat energy content) than that of the fuel used in electric power plants (that generated electricity), thus making electric railways even more energy-cost effective.
What caused the energy efficiency to go up?
572f6d47a23a5019007fc60d
energy-intensity dropping
158
False
Elimination of what helped the efficiency of diesel traction to go up?
572f6d47a23a5019007fc60e
2-axle freight cars
641
False
What type of locomotives got improved during 1950-1973 in Soviet Union?
572f6d47a23a5019007fc60f
electric
719
False
How much of energy was saved and re-used due to regenerative braking in 1989?
572f6d47a23a5019007fc610
2.65%
980
False
Was there an energy efficiency improvement in the period 1974 through 1980?
572f6d47a23a5019007fc611
no improvement
1328
False
regenerative
935
There was a decreased use of what type of braking?
5acd917e07355d001abf4758
True
1950 and the mid-1970s
1247
The overall efficiency of electric traction tripled during what years?
5acd917e07355d001abf4759
True
the Soviet Union
1273
The overall efficiency of electric traction tripled in what country?
5acd917e07355d001abf475a
True
1974
1301
There were massive improvements in energy-intensity after what year?
5acd917e07355d001abf475b
True
efficiency
351
Energy-efficiency increases as what goes up?
5acd917e07355d001abf475c
True
Besides increased efficiency of power plants, there was an increase in efficiency (between 1950 and 1973) of the railway utilization of this electricity with energy-intensity dropping from 218 to 124 kwh/10,000 gross tonne-km (of both passenger and freight trains) or a 43% drop. Since energy-intensity is the inverse of energy-efficiency it drops as efficiency goes up. But most of this 43% decrease in energy-intensity also benefited diesel traction. The conversion of wheel bearings from plain to roller, increase of train weight, converting single track lines to double track (or partially double track), and the elimination of obsolete 2-axle freight cars increased the energy-efficiency of all types of traction: electric, diesel, and steam. However, there remained a 12–15% reduction of energy-intensity that only benefited electric traction (and not diesel). This was due to improvements in locomotives, more widespread use of regenerative braking (which in 1989 recycled 2.65% of the electric energy used for traction,) remote control of substations, better handling of the locomotive by the locomotive crew, and improvements in automation. Thus the overall efficiency of electric traction as compared to diesel more than doubled between 1950 and the mid-1970s in the Soviet Union. But after 1974 (thru 1980) there was no improvement in energy-intensity (wh/tonne-km) in part due to increasing speeds of passenger and freight trains.
Spanish_language_in_the_United_States
How many people speak Spanish as a first or second language in the United States?
572e867adfa6aa1500f8d09f
There are 45 million Hispanophones who speak Spanish as a first or second language in the United States,
78
False
How many Hispanics speak English too?
572e867adfa6aa1500f8d0a0
Roughly half of all American Spanish-speakers also speak English "very well," based on their self-assessment in the U.S. Census.
587
False
What other language is often spoken in the United states?
572e867adfa6aa1500f8d0a1
The Spanish language is the second most spoken language in the United States.
0
False
What type of language id Spanish?
572e867adfa6aa1500f8d0a2
Spanish is the Romance language and the Indo-European language with the largest number of native speakers in the world.
467
False
How many Spanish speaking students are there in the United States?
572e867adfa6aa1500f8d0a3
six million Spanish language students.
194
False
the United States
59
45 million people speak Spanish as a first or second language in what country?
5a75097097ca42001a521dfd
True
United States of America
258
What country is the second-largest Hispanophone country in the world?
5a75097097ca42001a521dfe
True
Romance
482
What type of language is Spanish?
5a75097097ca42001a521dff
True
English
644
Half of all Spanish speakers also speak what very well?
5a75097097ca42001a521e00
True
Indo-European language
507
Spanish has the largest number of native speakers in which branch of language?
5a75097097ca42001a521e01
True
six million Spanish language students
194
How many Spanish speaking students are there in Spain?
5a76eaf72d6d7f001a4a9ef5
True
Spanish
467
What is the first American language?
5a76eaf72d6d7f001a4a9ef6
True
Spanish
4
What is the second most spoken language in Columbia?
5a76eaf72d6d7f001a4a9ef7
True
United States
363
What country has more first language Spanish-speakers than Mexico?
5a76eaf72d6d7f001a4a9ef8
True
45 million
88
How many Hispanophones speak Spanish in Mexico?
5a76eaf72d6d7f001a4a9ef9
True
The Spanish language is the second most spoken language in the United States. There are 45 million Hispanophones who speak Spanish as a first or second language in the United States, as well as six million Spanish language students. Together, this makes the United States of America the second largest Hispanophone country in the world after Mexico, and with the United States having more Spanish-speakers than Colombia and Spain (but fewer first language speakers). Spanish is the Romance language and the Indo-European language with the largest number of native speakers in the world. Roughly half of all American Spanish-speakers also speak English "very well," based on their self-assessment in the U.S. Census.
How old is the Spanish language in the United States?
572e8a7bc246551400ce430c
The Spanish language has been present in what is now the United States since the 16th and 17th centuries
0
False
Did the Spanish conquer land in the United States?
572e8a7bc246551400ce430d
Spanish colonization in North America that would later become the states of Florida, Texas, Colorado, New Mexico, Arizona, Nevada, Utah, and California.
126
False
Where in the United States did the Spanish explore?
572e8a7bc246551400ce430e
The Spanish explorers explored areas of 42 future U.S. states
279
False
Were there states ruled by the Spanish?
572e8a7bc246551400ce430f
western regions of the Louisiana Territory were under Spanish rule between 1763 to 1800,
438
False
Do the Spanish have a legacy in America from their forefathers?
572e8a7bc246551400ce4310
after the French and Indian War, further extending the Spanish influence throughout modern-day United States of America.
527
False
the 16th and 17th centuries
77
When did the Spanish language start showing up in America?
5a750c9097ca42001a521e11
True
Spanish colonization
126
Florida, Texas, and Colorado were part of which colonization?
5a750c9097ca42001a521e12
True
Colorado, New Mexico, Arizona, Nevada, Utah, and California
218
Besides Florida, Texas, and Colorado, which other states were included in the colonization?
5a750c9097ca42001a521e13
True
42
319
How many US states did the Spanish explorers explore?
5a750c9097ca42001a521e14
True
1763 to 1800
513
Which years was the Louisiana Territory under Spanish rule?
5a750c9097ca42001a521e15
True
16th and 17th centuries
81
Since when was the Spanish language been present in Mexico?
5a774f0e2d6d7f001a4a9fc5
True
1763 to 1800
513
When were eastern regions of the Louisiana Territory under Spanish rule?
5a774f0e2d6d7f001a4a9fc6
True
42
319
How many future U.S. states did French explorers explore?
5a774f0e2d6d7f001a4a9fc7
True
Florida, Texas, Colorado, New Mexico, Arizona, Nevada, Utah, and California
202
What states were colonized by the French?
5a774f0e2d6d7f001a4a9fc8
True
French and Indian War
537
What conflict caused eastern regions of the Louisiana to be under Spanish rule?
5a774f0e2d6d7f001a4a9fc9
True
The Spanish language has been present in what is now the United States since the 16th and 17th centuries, with the arrival of Spanish colonization in North America that would later become the states of Florida, Texas, Colorado, New Mexico, Arizona, Nevada, Utah, and California. The Spanish explorers explored areas of 42 future U.S. states leaving behind a varying range of Hispanic legacy in the North American continent. Additionally, western regions of the Louisiana Territory were under Spanish rule between 1763 to 1800, after the French and Indian War, further extending the Spanish influence throughout modern-day United States of America.
When did the Spanish arrive to America?
572e9c77c246551400ce43dc
Spanish arrived in the territory of the modern United States with Ponce de León in 1513.
91
False
Did Europeans speak Spanish in America?
572e9c77c246551400ce43dd
Spanish was the language spoken by the first permanent European settlers in North America.
0
False
Where is the oldest settlement in America?
572e9c77c246551400ce43de
St. Augustine, Florida
242
False
What is the oldest city of the United States territory?
572e9c77c246551400ce43df
The oldest city in all of the U.S. territory, as of 1898, is San Juan, capital of Puerto Rico
390
False
How was St. Augustine founded?
572e9c77c246551400ce43e0
the Spaniards, by way of Juan Ponce de León, founded St. Augustine, Florida
189
False
Spanish
0
What was the first language spoken by the permanent European settlers?
5a750d7797ca42001a521e25
True
Ponce de León
157
Which Spanish settler arrived in the US first?
5a750d7797ca42001a521e26
True
1513
174
What year did Ponce de Leon settle in the US?
5a750d7797ca42001a521e27
True
St. Augustine, Florida
242
Which city did Juan Ponce de Leon found?
5a750d7797ca42001a521e28
True
San Juan
451
What's the capital of Puerto Rico?
5a750d7797ca42001a521e29
True
1513
174
When did the Spanish arrive to Puerto Rico?
5a76f8e42d6d7f001a4a9eff
True
St. Augustine, Florida
242
Where is the oldest settlement in Puerto Rico?
5a76f8e42d6d7f001a4a9f00
True
San Juan
451
What is the oldest city of Florida?
5a76f8e42d6d7f001a4a9f01
True
San Juan
451
Where was Juan Ponce De Leion the first president?
5a76f8e42d6d7f001a4a9f02
True
1565,
183
When did the Spaniards found Puerto Rico?
5a76f8e42d6d7f001a4a9f03
True
Spanish was the language spoken by the first permanent European settlers in North America. Spanish arrived in the territory of the modern United States with Ponce de León in 1513. In 1565, the Spaniards, by way of Juan Ponce de León, founded St. Augustine, Florida, and as of the early 1800s, it became the oldest continuously occupied European settlement in the continental United States. The oldest city in all of the U.S. territory, as of 1898, is San Juan, capital of Puerto Rico, where Juan Ponce De León was its first governor
Was Texas a part of Mexico?
572e9c8bdfa6aa1500f8d1f9
In 1821, after Mexico's War of Independence from Spain, Texas was part of the United Mexican States as the state of Coahuila y Tejas
0
False
When did the Americans come to Texas?
572e9c8bdfa6aa1500f8d1fa
A large influx of Americans soon followed, originally with the approval of Mexico's president. In 1836
134
False
Was there a war between the Mexicans and the Texans?
572e9c8bdfa6aa1500f8d1fb
Texans, fought a war of independence from the central government of Mexico
265
False
When did Texas become a state?
572e9c8bdfa6aa1500f8d1fc
In 1846, the Republic dissolved when Texas entered the United States of America as a state.
379
False
Was Texas a primarily a Spanish speaking state?
572e9c8bdfa6aa1500f8d1fd
Per the 1850 U.S. census, fewer than 16,000 Texans were of Mexican descent, and nearly all were Spanish-speaking people
471
False
United Mexican States
78
What was the name for the area Coahuila y Tejas was part of?
5a750f8797ca42001a521e43
True
16,000
508
How many Texans were of Mexican descent in 1850?
5a750f8797ca42001a521e44
True
nearly all
551
How many Mexicans in Texas were Spanish speaking?
5a750f8797ca42001a521e45
True
German
652
What's the other nationality with a heavy presence in Texas?
5a750f8797ca42001a521e46
True
1846
382
When did the republic dissolve and Texas entered the US?
5a750f8797ca42001a521e47
True
1821
3
When did the Americans some to Spain?
5a76ff462d6d7f001a4a9f09
True
1836
232
When did Spain become a state?
5a76ff462d6d7f001a4a9f0a
True
fewer than 16,000
497
How many Texans were of English descent?
5a76ff462d6d7f001a4a9f0b
True
Mexico
333
Who did Spain fight to get independence?
5a76ff462d6d7f001a4a9f0c
True
1850 U.S. census
479
What census found fewer than 16,000 Texans of English descent?
5a76ff462d6d7f001a4a9f0d
True
In 1821, after Mexico's War of Independence from Spain, Texas was part of the United Mexican States as the state of Coahuila y Tejas. A large influx of Americans soon followed, originally with the approval of Mexico's president. In 1836, the now largely "American" Texans, fought a war of independence from the central government of Mexico and established the Republic of Texas. In 1846, the Republic dissolved when Texas entered the United States of America as a state. Per the 1850 U.S. census, fewer than 16,000 Texans were of Mexican descent, and nearly all were Spanish-speaking people (both Mexicans and non-Spanish European settlers who include German Texan) who were outnumbered (six-to-one) by English-speaking settlers (both Americans and other immigrant Europeans).[citation needed]
When did other states become part of Mexico?
572e9c96cb0c0d14000f135c
After the Mexican War of Independence from Spain
0
False
What states made up of Alta California
572e9c96cb0c0d14000f135d
California, Nevada, Arizona, Utah, western Colorado and southwestern Wyoming became part of the Mexican territory of Alta California
55
False
What states were part of Santa Fe de Nuevo
572e9c96cb0c0d14000f135e
most of New Mexico, western Texas, southern Colorado, southwestern Kansas, and Oklahoma panhandle were part of the territory of Santa Fe de Nuevo México
192
False
Why is  there still Bilingual  spoken in these states?
572e9c96cb0c0d14000f135f
The geographical isolation and unique political history of this territory
346
False
After the Mexican War of Independence from Spain
0
When did other states become part of Colorado?
5a7704962d6d7f001a4a9f13
True
The geographical isolation and unique political history of this territory
346
Why is there still bilingual spoken in Mexico?
5a7704962d6d7f001a4a9f14
True
Spanish spoken in other parts of the United States of America
475
What did Spanish in Spain differ from?
5a7704962d6d7f001a4a9f15
True
Alta California
172
What was North Dakota a part of?
5a7704962d6d7f001a4a9f16
True
Santa Fe de Nuevo México
320
What was Nebraska a part of?
5a7704962d6d7f001a4a9f17
True
After the Mexican War of Independence from Spain also, California, Nevada, Arizona, Utah, western Colorado and southwestern Wyoming became part of the Mexican territory of Alta California and most of New Mexico, western Texas, southern Colorado, southwestern Kansas, and Oklahoma panhandle were part of the territory of Santa Fe de Nuevo México. The geographical isolation and unique political history of this territory led to New Mexican Spanish differing notably from both Spanish spoken in other parts of the United States of America and Spanish spoken in the present-day United Mexican States.
Why isn't the southwest Spanish speaking?
572ea6d5cb0c0d14000f13f0
Through the force of sheer numbers, the English-speaking American settlers entering the Southwest established their language, culture, and law
0
False
Is Canada bilingual?
572ea6d5cb0c0d14000f13f1
United States never developed bilingualism as Canada did.
235
False
Was California a bilingual state?
572ea6d5cb0c0d14000f13f2
California constitutional convention of 1849 had eight Californio participants; the resulting state constitution was produced in English and Spanish,
310
False
Why didn't California officially become  bilingual?
572ea6d5cb0c0d14000f13f3
the convention's English-speaking participants felt that the state's remaining minority of Spanish-speakers should simply learn English
642
False
Was there a court ruling?
572ea6d5cb0c0d14000f13f4
the convention ultimately voted 46-39 to revise the earlier clause so that all official proceedings would henceforth be published only in English.
783
False
Through the force of sheer numbers, the English-speaking American settlers entering the Southwest established their language, culture, and law
0
Why isn't the southwest English-speaking?
5a770f312d6d7f001a4a9f1d
True
the convention's English-speaking participants felt that the state's remaining minority of Spanish-speakers should simply learn English
642
Why didn't Caifornia officially become monolingual?
5a770f312d6d7f001a4a9f1e
True
The constitutional convention of 1872
566
What had no English-speaking participants?
5a770f312d6d7f001a4a9f1f
True
California constitutional convention of 1849
310
What had nine California participants?
5a770f312d6d7f001a4a9f20
True
Canada
281
Who developed Monolingualism?
5a770f312d6d7f001a4a9f21
True
Through the force of sheer numbers, the English-speaking American settlers entering the Southwest established their language, culture, and law as dominant, to the extent it fully displaced Spanish in the public sphere; this is why the United States never developed bilingualism as Canada did. For example, the California constitutional convention of 1849 had eight Californio participants; the resulting state constitution was produced in English and Spanish, and it contained a clause requiring all published laws and regulations to be published in both languages. The constitutional convention of 1872 had no Spanish-speaking participants; the convention's English-speaking participants felt that the state's remaining minority of Spanish-speakers should simply learn English; and the convention ultimately voted 46-39 to revise the earlier clause so that all official proceedings would henceforth be published only in English.
Did America try to make Puerto Rico an English speaking territory?
572ea6dc03f98919007568af
U.S. federal government strenuously tried to force Puerto Ricans to adopt English
17
False
How did America try to make Puerto Rico's language English?
572ea6dc03f98919007568b0
making them use English as the primary language of instruction in their high schools.
117
False
Was English in Puerto Rico successful?
572ea6dc03f98919007568b1
It was completely unsuccessful,
203
False
How did Puerto Rico stay a Spanish speaking territory?
572ea6dc03f98919007568b2
Puerto Rico was able to maintain its Spanish language, culture, and identity because the relatively small, densely populated island
275
False
Does Puerto Rico have many English speaking residents?
572ea6dc03f98919007568b3
the territory was never hit with a massive influx of millions of English speakers like the vast territory acquired from Mexico 50 years earlier.
517
False
making them use English as the primary language of instruction in their high schools
117
How did Mexico try to make Puerto Rico's language English?
5a7711c52d6d7f001a4a9f27
True
It was completely unsuccessful
203
Was French  in Peurto Rico successful?
5a7711c52d6d7f001a4a9f28
True
the relatively small, densely populated island
360
How did Puerto Rico stay an English speaking territory?
5a7711c52d6d7f001a4a9f29
True
decades
4
For how long has the U.S. federal government tried to force Puerto Ricans to adopt Spanish?
5a7711c52d6d7f001a4a9f2a
True
1948
269
When did the U.S. government retreat from the policy of making Puerto Ricans use Spanish?
5a7711c52d6d7f001a4a9f2b
True
For decades, the U.S. federal government strenuously tried to force Puerto Ricans to adopt English, to the extent of making them use English as the primary language of instruction in their high schools. It was completely unsuccessful, and retreated from that policy in 1948. Puerto Rico was able to maintain its Spanish language, culture, and identity because the relatively small, densely populated island was already home to nearly a million people at the time of the U.S. takeover, all of those spoke Spanish, and the territory was never hit with a massive influx of millions of English speakers like the vast territory acquired from Mexico 50 years earlier.
How many Puerto Ricans are there?
572eac16c246551400ce44ae
At over 5 million, Puerto Ricans are easily the 2nd largest Hispanic group. Of all major Hispanic groups
0
False
Do they speak Spanish fluently?
572eac16c246551400ce44af
Puerto Ricans are the least likely to be proficient in Spanish
106
False
Where are the biggest population of Puerto Ricans on the mainland?
572eac16c246551400ce44b0
many Puerto Ricans have migrated to New York City, Orlando, Philadelphia, and other areas of the Eastern United States
322
False
Does Florida have a high Hispanic population?
572eac16c246551400ce44b1
increasing the Spanish-speaking populations and in some areas being the majority of the Hispanophone population, especially in Central Florida. In Hawaii
442
False
Are Hispanics in Hawaii?
572eac16c246551400ce44b2
7.0 per cent of the islands' people are either Hispanic or Hispanophone or both.
693
False
Puerto Ricans
19
What is the second largest hispanic group?
5a7511ea97ca42001a521e57
True
over 5 million
3
How many Puerto Ricans are there?
5a7511ea97ca42001a521e58
True
U.S.
303
Puerto Ricans are citizens of what country?
5a7511ea97ca42001a521e59
True
Eastern
419
Which region of the United States have many Puerto Ricans migrated to?
5a7511ea97ca42001a521e5a
True
Hawaii
589
Where did Puerto Rican farm laborers go in the 19th century?
5a7511ea97ca42001a521e5b
True
over 5 million
3
How many U.S. citizens are there?
5a7724182d6d7f001a4a9f31
True
Puerto Ricans
106
Which group is least likely to be proficient in English?
5a7724182d6d7f001a4a9f32
True
7.0
693
How any of Puerto Rico's people are either English or Hispanophone or both?
5a7724182d6d7f001a4a9f33
True
millions
174
How many Hawaiians live in the U.S. mainland?
5a7724182d6d7f001a4a9f34
True
Hawaii
589
Where have farm ranchers and English ranchers settled?
5a7724182d6d7f001a4a9f35
True
At over 5 million, Puerto Ricans are easily the 2nd largest Hispanic group. Of all major Hispanic groups, Puerto Ricans are the least likely to be proficient in Spanish, but millions of Puerto Rican Americans living in the U.S. mainland nonetheless are fluent in Spanish. Puerto Ricans are natural-born U.S. citizens, and many Puerto Ricans have migrated to New York City, Orlando, Philadelphia, and other areas of the Eastern United States, increasing the Spanish-speaking populations and in some areas being the majority of the Hispanophone population, especially in Central Florida. In Hawaii, where Puerto Rican farm laborers and Mexican ranchers have settled since the late 19th century, 7.0 per cent of the islands' people are either Hispanic or Hispanophone or both.
Why did Cubans come to the United States?
572eacbb03f9891900756915
Immigration to the United States of Spanish-speaking Cubans began because of Cuba's political instability
0
False
What year did most Cubans start coming to America?
572eacbb03f9891900756916
The deposition of Fulgencio Batista's dictatorship and the ascension of Fidel Castro's government in 1959 increased Cuban immigration to the United States
135
False
Where do most Cuban Americans live?
572eacbb03f9891900756917
, most settled in southern and central Florida, while other Cubans live in the Northeastern United States
351
False
Do Cubans speak Spanish in America?
572eacbb03f9891900756918
most are fluent in Spanish
458
False
Is there a particular place where Cubans live and speak Spanish in the U.S.?
572eacbb03f9891900756919
In the city of Miami today Spanish is the first language mostly due to Cuban immigration.
486
False
Immigration to the United States of Spanish-speaking Cubans
0
Cuba's political instability caused what?
5a75133997ca42001a521e61
True
1959
236
What year did Fulgencio Batista's dictatorship end?
5a75133997ca42001a521e62
True
Fidel Castro's
207
Who came into power in Cuba in 1959?
5a75133997ca42001a521e63
True
southern and central Florida
369
Most Cubans settled in which southern state?
5a75133997ca42001a521e64
True
Miami
501
Which city's first language is Spanish due to Cuban immigration?
5a75133997ca42001a521e65
True
because of Cuba's political instability
66
Why did Baptista come to United States?
5a7729db2d6d7f001a4a9f3b
True
The deposition of Fulgencio Batista's dictatorship and the ascension of Fidel Castro's government in 1959
135
What year did most Spanish start coming to America?
5a7729db2d6d7f001a4a9f3c
True
southern and central Florida
369
Where do most Spanish live?
5a7729db2d6d7f001a4a9f3d
True
most are fluent in Spanish
458
Do Floridians speak Spanish in America?
5a7729db2d6d7f001a4a9f3e
True
Miami
501
Is there a particular place where Cubans live and speak Spanish in Cuba?
5a7729db2d6d7f001a4a9f3f
True
Immigration to the United States of Spanish-speaking Cubans began because of Cuba's political instability upon achieving independence. The deposition of Fulgencio Batista's dictatorship and the ascension of Fidel Castro's government in 1959 increased Cuban immigration to the United States, hence there are some one million Cubans in the United States, most settled in southern and central Florida, while other Cubans live in the Northeastern United States; most are fluent in Spanish. In the city of Miami today Spanish is the first language mostly due to Cuban immigration.
What other Spanish Speaking people come to America?
572eaddec246551400ce44e6
Spanish-speaking Nicaraguans
26
False
Why did the Nicaraguans come to America?
572eaddec246551400ce44e7
political instability during the end of the 1970s and the 1980s
81
False
When did the Nicaraguans arrive?
572eaddec246551400ce44e8
Throughout the 1980s with the United States supported Contra War (or Contra-revolutionary war) which continued up until 1988
319
False
Where did Nicaraguans settle in America?
572eaddec246551400ce44e9
The states of the United States where most Nicaraguans migrated to include Florida, California and Texas.
563
False
Was there a specific reason many Nicaraguans fled to the U.S.?
572eaddec246551400ce44ea
the economic collapse of the country many more Nicaraguans migrated to the United States amongst other countries.
449
False
political instability
81
Spanish speaking Nicaraguans also migrated for what reason?
5a7513c097ca42001a521e6b
True
1970s and the 1980s
125
What years did Nicaraguans migrate?
5a7513c097ca42001a521e6c
True
Sandinista revolution
166
Which revolution toppled the Somoza dictatorship?
5a7513c097ca42001a521e6d
True
Contra-revolutionary war
388
What was another term for the Contra War?
5a7513c097ca42001a521e6e
True
1988
439
When did the Contra War end?
5a7513c097ca42001a521e6f
True
Spanish-speaking Nicaraguans
26
What other Spanish Speaking people come to Florida?
5a772c362d6d7f001a4a9f45
True
political instability during the end of the 1970s and the 1980s
81
Why did the Nicaraguans come to Florida?
5a772c362d6d7f001a4a9f46
True
1970s and the 1980s
125
When did the Floridians arrive?
5a772c362d6d7f001a4a9f47
True
the economic collapse of the country many more Nicaraguans migrated to the United States amongst other countries
449
Was there a specific reason many Floridians fled to the U.S.?
5a772c362d6d7f001a4a9f48
True
1980s
334
When did Florida Support the Contra War?
5a772c362d6d7f001a4a9f49
True
Likewise the migration of Spanish-speaking Nicaraguans also began as a result of political instability during the end of the 1970s and the 1980s. The uprising of the Sandinista revolution which toppled the Somoza dictatorship in 1979 caused many Nicaraguans to migrate particularly from those opposing the Sandinistas. Throughout the 1980s with the United States supported Contra War (or Contra-revolutionary war) which continued up until 1988, and the economic collapse of the country many more Nicaraguans migrated to the United States amongst other countries. The states of the United States where most Nicaraguans migrated to include Florida, California and Texas.
Why did Salvadorans come to America?
572eaf07dfa6aa1500f8d2b7
The exodus of Salvadorans was a result of both economic and political problems.
0
False
When did Salvadorans come to America?
572eaf07dfa6aa1500f8d2b8
The largest immigration wave occurred as a result of the Salvadoran Civil War in the 1980s
80
False
How many Salvadorans immigrated?
572eaf07dfa6aa1500f8d2b9
20–30% of El Salvador's population emigrated. About 50%, or up to 500,000 of those who escaped headed to the United States,
181
False
What is the population of Salvadorans living in America?
572eaf07dfa6aa1500f8d2ba
United States, which was already home to over 10,000 Salvadorans, making Salvadorans Americans the fourth-largest Hispanic and Latino American group
290
False
Where do Salvadorans fall on the scale for Hispanic living in America?
572eaf07dfa6aa1500f8d2bb
Salvadorans Americans the fourth-largest Hispanic and Latino American group, after the Mexican-American majority, stateside Puerto Ricans, and Cubans.
363
False
economic and political problems
47
Why did Salvadorans begin an exodus?
5a75142d97ca42001a521e7f
True
Salvadoran Civil War
137
What caused the largest immigration of Salvadorans?
5a75142d97ca42001a521e80
True
500,000
247
How many Salvadorans came to the US?
5a75142d97ca42001a521e81
True
1980s
165
What year did the Salvadorans come to the US?
5a75142d97ca42001a521e82
True
Salvadorans
363
What's the fourth-largest Hispanic-Latino American group?
5a75142d97ca42001a521e83
True
The exodus of Salvadorans was a result of both economic and political problems
0
Why did Slavadorians come to Mexico?
5a772f272d6d7f001a4a9f4f
True
The largest immigration wave occurred as a result of the Salvadoran Civil War in the 1980s
80
When did Salvadorians come to Mexico?
5a772f272d6d7f001a4a9f50
True
10,000
336
What is the population of Salvadorans living in Mexico?
5a772f272d6d7f001a4a9f51
True
Salvadorans Americans
363
Who is the are the fifth-largest Hispanic and Latino American group?
5a772f272d6d7f001a4a9f52
True
50%, or up to 500,000
233
How many of El Salvador's population escaped to Mexico?
5a772f272d6d7f001a4a9f53
True
The exodus of Salvadorans was a result of both economic and political problems. The largest immigration wave occurred as a result of the Salvadoran Civil War in the 1980s, in which 20–30% of El Salvador's population emigrated. About 50%, or up to 500,000 of those who escaped headed to the United States, which was already home to over 10,000 Salvadorans, making Salvadorans Americans the fourth-largest Hispanic and Latino American group, after the Mexican-American majority, stateside Puerto Ricans, and Cubans.
Why did Central Americans flee to the U.S.?
572eb75ec246551400ce4554
civil wars engulfed several Central American countries in the 1980s
3
False
When did Salvadorans flee
572eb75ec246551400ce4555
Salvadorans fled their country and came to the United States. Between 1980 and 1990
97
False
Are the Salvadorans a large population in the U.S.?
572eb75ec246551400ce4556
the Salvadoran immigrant population in the United States increased nearly fivefold from 94,000 to 465,000.
182
False
Is the  Salvadoran population still growing?
572eb75ec246551400ce4557
the United States continued to grow in the 1990s and 2000s as a result of family reunification and new arrivals fleeing a series of natural disasters
328
False
How many  Salvadorans  are in America now?
572eb75ec246551400ce4558
By 2008, there were about 1.1 million Salvadoran immigrants in the United States.
538
False
civil wars engulfed several Central American countries in the 1980s,
3
Why did Central Americans flee to El Salvador?
5a7735b82d6d7f001a4a9f59
True
1.1 million
564
How many Salvadorans are in Mexico now?
5a7735b82d6d7f001a4a9f5a
True
94,000
270
What was the population of El Salvador in 1980?
5a7735b82d6d7f001a4a9f5b
True
465,000
280
What was the population of El Salvador in 1990?
5a7735b82d6d7f001a4a9f5c
True
earthquakes and hurricanes
510
What natural disasters hit the United States?
5a7735b82d6d7f001a4a9f5d
True
As civil wars engulfed several Central American countries in the 1980s, hundreds of thousands of Salvadorans fled their country and came to the United States. Between 1980 and 1990, the Salvadoran immigrant population in the United States increased nearly fivefold from 94,000 to 465,000. The number of Salvadoran immigrants in the United States continued to grow in the 1990s and 2000s as a result of family reunification and new arrivals fleeing a series of natural disasters that hit El Salvador, including earthquakes and hurricanes. By 2008, there were about 1.1 million Salvadoran immigrants in the United States.
When did the Venezuelans emigrate to the united states?
572eb7eddfa6aa1500f8d309
Until the 20th century, there was no clear record of the number of Venezuelans who emigrated to the United States.
0
False
Does Venezuela have immigrates from other countries?
572eb7eddfa6aa1500f8d30a
Between the 18th and early 19th centuries, there were many European immigrants who went to Venezuela
115
False
Why did Venezuelans come to America?
572eb7eddfa6aa1500f8d30b
Many Venezuelans settled in the United States with hopes of receiving a better education, only to remain in there following graduation.
537
False
Do Venezuelans still come to America for the same reasons as they did before?
572eb7eddfa6aa1500f8d30c
since the early 1980s, the reasons for Venezuelan emigration have changed to include hopes of earning a higher salary
723
False
the 20th century
6
When did the Venezuelans emmigrate to Mexico?
5a773af22d6d7f001a4a9f63
True
with hopes of receiving a better education
583
Why did Europeans come to America?
5a773af22d6d7f001a4a9f64
True
early 1980s
733
Since when has European immigration included hopes of a higher salary?
5a773af22d6d7f001a4a9f65
True
over 4,000
399
How many South Americans emigrated to Mexico from 1910 to 1930?
5a773af22d6d7f001a4a9f66
True
Between the 18th and early 19th centuries
115
When did Europenan immigrants go to Venezuela and later to Mexico?
5a773af22d6d7f001a4a9f67
True
Until the 20th century, there was no clear record of the number of Venezuelans who emigrated to the United States. Between the 18th and early 19th centuries, there were many European immigrants who went to Venezuela, only to later migrate to the United States along with their children and grandchildren who born and/or grew up in Venezuela speaking Spanish. From 1910 to 1930, it is estimated that over 4,000 South Americans each year emigrated to the United States; however, there are few specific figures indicating these statistics. Many Venezuelans settled in the United States with hopes of receiving a better education, only to remain in there following graduation. They are frequently joined by relatives. However, since the early 1980s, the reasons for Venezuelan emigration have changed to include hopes of earning a higher salary and due to the economic fluctuations in Venezuela which also promoted an important migration of Venezuelan professionals to the US.
How did Chavez affect the Venezuelans?
572eb8ccc246551400ce4564
In the 2000s, more Venezuelans opposing the economic and political policies of president Hugo Chávez migrated to the United States
0
False
What areas of America did the Venezuelans settle in?
572eb8ccc246551400ce4565
mostly to Florida, but New York City and Houston are other destinations). The largest concentration of Venezuelans in the United States is in South Florida
132
False
Are there any other areas of America Venezuelans settled in?
572eb8ccc246551400ce4566
New York, California, Texas (adding their existing Hispanic populations), New Jersey, Massachusetts and Maryland.
423
False
Where are the most populated city's Venezuelan live in?
572eb8ccc246551400ce4567
Some of the urban areas with a high Venezuelan community include Miami, New York City, Los Angeles, and Washington, D.C.
537
False
mostly to Florida, but New York City and Houston are other destinations). The largest concentration of Venezuelans in the United States is in South Florida,
132
What areas of America did the Chavez settle in?
5a773cbb2d6d7f001a4a9f6d
True
Miami, New York City, Los Angeles, and Washington, D.C.
602
Where are the most populated cities Floridians live in?
5a773cbb2d6d7f001a4a9f6e
True
1990 census
410
What census recorded Floridian populations?
5a773cbb2d6d7f001a4a9f6f
True
the 2000s
3
When did Floridians oppose Hugo Chavez?
5a773cbb2d6d7f001a4a9f70
True
South Florida
274
Where is the largest concentration of Floridians?
5a773cbb2d6d7f001a4a9f71
True
In the 2000s, more Venezuelans opposing the economic and political policies of president Hugo Chávez migrated to the United States (mostly to Florida, but New York City and Houston are other destinations). The largest concentration of Venezuelans in the United States is in South Florida, especially the suburbs of Doral and Weston. Other main states with Venezuelan American populations are, according to the 1990 census, New York, California, Texas (adding their existing Hispanic populations), New Jersey, Massachusetts and Maryland. Some of the urban areas with a high Venezuelan community include Miami, New York City, Los Angeles, and Washington, D.C.
What language is spoken in the U.S.A?
572eda92dfa6aa1500f8d459
English is the dominant language of business, education, government, religion, media, culture, civil society, and the public sphere.
61
False
Is there such a thing as bilingual state?
572eda92dfa6aa1500f8d45a
Some states, such as New Mexico, provide bilingual legislated notices and official documents
353
False
Do American Hispanics speak English in the home?
572eda92dfa6aa1500f8d45b
there was a trend that most Americans and American residents who are of Hispanic descent speak only English in the home.
515
False
Is there an official language of the United States?
572eda92dfa6aa1500f8d45c
United States has no de jure official language, English is the dominant language
13
False
is the dominant language of business, education, government, religion, media, culture, civil society, and the public sphere.
69
What language is spoken in Mexico?
5a773ea22d6d7f001a4a9f77
True
no de jure
31
What is the official language of the United States?
5a773ea22d6d7f001a4a9f78
True
2015
509
By when did most Americans and American residents who are of Hispanic descent speak only Spanish in the home?
5a773ea22d6d7f001a4a9f79
True
Virtually all state and federal government agencies and large corporations
194
Who uses Spanish as their internal working languages?
5a773ea22d6d7f001a4a9f7a
True
New Mexico
374
What is a state that provides monolingual legislated notices?
5a773ea22d6d7f001a4a9f7b
True
Although the United States has no de jure official language, English is the dominant language of business, education, government, religion, media, culture, civil society, and the public sphere. Virtually all state and federal government agencies and large corporations use English as their internal working language, especially at the management level. Some states, such as New Mexico, provide bilingual legislated notices and official documents, in Spanish and English, and other commonly used languages. By 2015, there was a trend that most Americans and American residents who are of Hispanic descent speak only English in the home.
Has some states like Arizona embraced their Mexican history?
572eda97c246551400ce472e
The state (like its southwestern neighbors) has had close linguistic and cultural ties with Mexico
0
False
What is the states history?
572eda97c246551400ce472f
The state outside the Gadsden Purchase of 1853 was part of the New Mexico Territory until 1863, when the western half was made into the Arizona Territory.
100
False
Has New Mexico had a majority of Spanish speaking natives.
572eda97c246551400ce4730
The area of the former Gadsden Purchase contained a majority of Spanish-speakers until the 1940s
255
False
Are Arizona and New Mexico residents speaking Spanish or English?
572eda97c246551400ce4731
the continuous arrival of Mexican settlers increases the number of Spanish-speakers.
470
False
Mexico
92
Who does the state have territory ties with?
5a7740052d6d7f001a4a9f81
True
The state outside the Gadsden Purchase of 1853
100
What was part of Mexico territory until 1863?
5a7740052d6d7f001a4a9f82
True
Tucson
366
What area has a the same ratio or anglophones?
5a7740052d6d7f001a4a9f83
True
Arizona Territory
236
What was the eastern half of the New Mexico Territory made into?
5a7740052d6d7f001a4a9f84
True
The state (like its southwestern neighbors) has had close linguistic and cultural ties with Mexico. The state outside the Gadsden Purchase of 1853 was part of the New Mexico Territory until 1863, when the western half was made into the Arizona Territory. The area of the former Gadsden Purchase contained a majority of Spanish-speakers until the 1940s, although the Tucson area had a higher ratio of anglophones (including Mexican Americans who were fluent in English); the continuous arrival of Mexican settlers increases the number of Spanish-speakers.
Does New Mexico have an official language?
572eda9dcb0c0d14000f1600
the state has no official language.
169
False
What language is New Mexico's language written in?
572eda9dcb0c0d14000f1601
New Mexico's laws are promulgated bilingually in Spanish and English.
205
False
How long has New Mexico been speaking Spanish?
572eda9dcb0c0d14000f1602
Spanish has been spoken in the New Mexico-Colorado border and the contemporary U.S.–Mexico border since the 16th century
426
False
Is New Mexico known for the Spanish language?
572eda9dcb0c0d14000f1603
New Mexico is commonly thought to have Spanish as an official language alongside English because of its wide usage and legal promotion of Spanish in the state
0
False
the state has no official language
169
Does Colorado have an official language?
5a7744042d6d7f001a4a9f89
True
Spanish and English
254
What language is Colorado's laws written in?
5a7744042d6d7f001a4a9f8a
True
since the 16th century
524
For how long has Spanish been spoken in Spain?
5a7744042d6d7f001a4a9f8b
True
Spanish
384
What is government business often conducted in in Spain?
5a7744042d6d7f001a4a9f8c
True
English
284
What is the Colorado government's paper working laguage?
5a7744042d6d7f001a4a9f8d
True
New Mexico is commonly thought to have Spanish as an official language alongside English because of its wide usage and legal promotion of Spanish in the state; however, the state has no official language. New Mexico's laws are promulgated bilingually in Spanish and English. Although English is the state government's paper working language, government business is often conducted in Spanish, particularly at the local level. Spanish has been spoken in the New Mexico-Colorado border and the contemporary U.S.–Mexico border since the 16th century.[citation needed]
Why is New Mexico always an after thought in American -Spanish speaking society?
572edaa1dfa6aa1500f8d461
Because of its relative isolation from other Spanish-speaking areas over most of its 400-year existence
0
False
Is New Mexico's language different than from other Spanish dialect
572edaa1dfa6aa1500f8d462
, New Mexico Spanish, and in particular the Spanish of northern New Mexico and Colorado has retained many elements of 16th- and 17th-century Spanish
103
False
How does New Mexico's Spanish dialect differ?
572edaa1dfa6aa1500f8d463
has developed its own vocabulary. In addition, it contains many words from Nahuatl, the language spoken by the ancient Aztecs of Mexico.
256
False
Does New Mexico's language also include other dialect?
572edaa1dfa6aa1500f8d464
New Mexican Spanish also contains loan words from the Pueblo languages of the upper Rio Grande Valley, Mexican-Spanish words (mexicanismos)
393
False
Does New Mexico also use language from the  American language when spoken in Spanish?
572edaa1dfa6aa1500f8d465
borrowings from English. Grammatical changes include the loss of the second person verb form, changes in verb endings
538
False
Because of its relative isolation from other Spanish-speaking areas over most of its 400-year existence
0
Why is Colorado always an after thought in American-Spanish speaking society?
5a77462c2d6d7f001a4a9f93
True
has developed its own vocabulary. In addition, it contains many words from Nahuatl, the language spoken by the ancient Aztecs of Mexico
256
How does Coloradp's Spanish dialect differ?
5a77462c2d6d7f001a4a9f94
True
borrowings from English. Grammatical changes include the loss of the second person verb form, changes in verb endings
538
Does Colorado also use language from the American language when spoken in Spanish?
5a77462c2d6d7f001a4a9f95
True
New Mexico Spanish
105
What has been relatively isolated from other English-speaking areas over most of its 400-year existence?
5a77462c2d6d7f001a4a9f96
True
mexicanismos
519
What is another name for English-Spanish words?
5a77462c2d6d7f001a4a9f97
True
Because of its relative isolation from other Spanish-speaking areas over most of its 400-year existence, New Mexico Spanish, and in particular the Spanish of northern New Mexico and Colorado has retained many elements of 16th- and 17th-century Spanish and has developed its own vocabulary. In addition, it contains many words from Nahuatl, the language spoken by the ancient Aztecs of Mexico. New Mexican Spanish also contains loan words from the Pueblo languages of the upper Rio Grande Valley, Mexican-Spanish words (mexicanismos), and borrowings from English. Grammatical changes include the loss of the second person verb form, changes in verb endings, particularly in the preterite, and partial merging of the second and third conjugations.
What is Texas official language?
572edaa503f9891900756a83
In Texas, English is the state's de facto official language
0
False
Are there exceptions to Texas official language?
572edaa503f9891900756a84
, the continual influx of Spanish-speaking immigrants increased the import of Spanish in Texas.
127
False
How does Texas handle people who don't speak English, but live in Mexico?
572edaa503f9891900756a85
. The Government of Texas, through Section 2054.116 of the Government Code, mandates that state agencies provide information on their websites in Spanish
336
False
How does this mandate help Spanish speaking residents?
572edaa503f9891900756a86
websites in Spanish to assist residents who have limited English proficiency.
470
False
English
10
What is Mexico official language?
5a77477c2d6d7f001a4a9f9d
True
the continual influx of Spanish-speaking immigrants increased the import of Spanish in Texas
129
Are there exceptions to Mexico official language?
5a77477c2d6d7f001a4a9f9e
True
The Government of Texas, through Section 2054.116 of the Government Code, mandates that state agencies provide information on their websites in Spanish
338
How does Texas handle people who don't speak Spanish?
5a77477c2d6d7f001a4a9f9f
True
Hispanic
268
What are most of Mexico's counties bordering Texas?
5a77477c2d6d7f001a4a9fa0
True
continual influx of Spanish-speaking immigrants
133
What has increased the import of English in Texas?
5a77477c2d6d7f001a4a9fa1
True
In Texas, English is the state's de facto official language (though it lacks de jure status) and is used in government. However, the continual influx of Spanish-speaking immigrants increased the import of Spanish in Texas. Texas's counties bordering Mexico are mostly Hispanic, and consequently, Spanish is commonly spoken in the region. The Government of Texas, through Section 2054.116 of the Government Code, mandates that state agencies provide information on their websites in Spanish to assist residents who have limited English proficiency.
What language, other than English, is spoken in the U.S.?
572edaa9c246551400ce4736
Spanish is currently the most widely taught non-English language
0
False
Are students taught Spanish in american schools?
572edaa9c246551400ce4737
More than 1.4 million university students were enrolled in language courses
120
False
How popular are Spanish language classes in the U.S,?
572edaa9c246551400ce4738
Spanish is the most widely taught language in American colleges and universities with 53 percent of the total number of people enrolled
218
False
What other languages are popular among American students?
572edaa9c246551400ce4739
French (14.4%), German (7.1%), Italian (4.5%), American Sign language (4.3%), Japanese (3.7%), and Chinese (2.4%)
367
False
Are these other languages learned in the U.S. as popular as Spanish?
572edaa9c246551400ce473a
totals remain relatively small in relation to the total U.S population.
494
False
Spanish is currently the most widely taught non-English language
0
What language other than American is spoken in the U.S.?
5a7748a42d6d7f001a4a9fa7
True
53 percent of the total number of people enrolled
304
How popular are English classes in the U.S.?
5a7748a42d6d7f001a4a9fa8
True
French (14.4%), German (7.1%), Italian (4.5%), American Sign language (4.3%), Japanese (3.7%), and Chinese (2.4%)
367
What other languages are popular among Mexican students?
5a7748a42d6d7f001a4a9fa9
True
totals remain relatively small in relation to the total U.S population
494
Are there other languages learned in the U.S. besides English?
5a7748a42d6d7f001a4a9faa
True
More than 1.4 million
120
How many university students were enrolled in autumn of 2002?
5a7748a42d6d7f001a4a9fab
True
Spanish is currently the most widely taught non-English language in American secondary schools and of higher education. More than 1.4 million university students were enrolled in language courses in autumn of 2002 and Spanish is the most widely taught language in American colleges and universities with 53 percent of the total number of people enrolled, followed by French (14.4%), German (7.1%), Italian (4.5%), American Sign language (4.3%), Japanese (3.7%), and Chinese (2.4%) although the totals remain relatively small in relation to the total U.S population.
What political speaches are delivered in English and Spanish?
572edab0cb0c0d14000f1608
The State of the Union Addresses and other presidential speeches are translated to Spanish
0
False
Was this always the case in American political addresses?
572edab0cb0c0d14000f1609
following the precedent set by the Bill Clinton administration. Official Spanish translations are available at WhiteHouse.gov.
92
False
Does Washington (government) operate in both languages (bilingual-Spanish?)
572edab0cb0c0d14000f160a
politicians fluent in Spanish-speak in Spanish to Hispanic majority constituencies
258
False
If someone is not bilingual and only speaks Spanish, how do they learn about current events?
572edab0cb0c0d14000f160b
There are 500 Spanish newspapers, 152 magazines, and 205 publishers in the United States; magazine and local television
342
False
Is the Hispanic population relevant to the American media?
572edab0cb0c0d14000f160c
local television advertising expenditures for the Hispanic market have increased much from 1999 to 2003, with growth of 58 percent and 43 percent, respectively.
445
False
The State of the Union
0
What speech is delivered only in English?
5a774ac42d6d7f001a4a9fb1
True
500
352
How many newspapers are there in Spain?
5a774ac42d6d7f001a4a9fb2
True
1999 to 2003
536
When did advertising for the English market increase?
5a774ac42d6d7f001a4a9fb3
True
58 percent
565
How much did advertising for the English market increase from 1999 to 2000.
5a774ac42d6d7f001a4a9fb4
True
Spanish
83
What language is used in the State of the Union?
5a774ac42d6d7f001a4a9fb5
True
The State of the Union Addresses and other presidential speeches are translated to Spanish, following the precedent set by the Bill Clinton administration. Official Spanish translations are available at WhiteHouse.gov. Moreover, non-Hispanic American origin politicians fluent in Spanish-speak in Spanish to Hispanic majority constituencies. There are 500 Spanish newspapers, 152 magazines, and 205 publishers in the United States; magazine and local television advertising expenditures for the Hispanic market have increased much from 1999 to 2003, with growth of 58 percent and 43 percent, respectively.
Are there studies on Hispanic-American language?
572edab303f9891900756a8b
Calvin Veltman undertook, for the National Center for Education Statistics and for the Hispanic Policy Development Project
0
False
What is Calvin Veltman' study about?
572edab303f9891900756a8c
the most complete study of English language adoption by Hispanophone immigrants
124
False
What was Calvin Veltman' findings?
572edab303f9891900756a8d
high bilingualism rates and subsequent adoption of English as the preferred language of Hispanics, particularly by the young and the native-born.
250
False
Is Calvin Veltman' relevant to today's Hispanic Americans?
572edab303f9891900756a8e
his study based itself upon a large 1976 sample from the Bureau of the Census (which has not been repeated),
571
False
Are there other similar findings similar to Calvin Veltman' for the modern age?
572edab303f9891900756a8f
data from the 1990 Census tend to confirm the great Anglicization of the US Hispanic American origin population.
680
False
Calvin Veltman
0
Who undertook the most complete study of Hispanic language adoption?
5a774d432d6d7f001a4a9fbb
True
the young and the native-born
365
What demographics did Veltman exclude from the study?
5a774d432d6d7f001a4a9fbc
True
1990 Census
694
Data from which census confirms the great Anglicization of the billingual population?
5a774d432d6d7f001a4a9fbd
True
English
301
What is the preferred language of Hispanophone immigrants?
5a774d432d6d7f001a4a9fbe
True
two
545
How many generations are required for a Native American to assimilate?
5a774d432d6d7f001a4a9fbf
True
Calvin Veltman undertook, for the National Center for Education Statistics and for the Hispanic Policy Development Project, the most complete study of English language adoption by Hispanophone immigrants. Mr Veltman's language shift studies document high bilingualism rates and subsequent adoption of English as the preferred language of Hispanics, particularly by the young and the native-born. The complete set of these studies' demographic projections postulates the near-complete assimilation of a given Hispanophone immigrant cohort within two generations. Although his study based itself upon a large 1976 sample from the Bureau of the Census (which has not been repeated), data from the 1990 Census tend to confirm the great Anglicization of the US Hispanic American origin population.
19th century
86
Which century did the US incorporate Spanish?
5a750d1897ca42001a521e1b
True
Puerto Rico
179
Which acquisition reinforced the Spanish language?
5a750d1897ca42001a521e1c
True
1898
194
What year did Puerto Rico become a state?
5a750d1897ca42001a521e1d
True
Mexico, Cuba, El Salvador
231
Which countries came in major emigrations to the US?
5a750d1897ca42001a521e1e
True
Spanish language
414
What grows in the US as the Spanish population increases?
5a750d1897ca42001a521e1f
True
Spanish language
104
What was incorporated to the united states in the first half of the 18th century?
5a77509b2d6d7f001a4a9fcf
True
1898
194
When was the aquisition of Spain?
5a77509b2d6d7f001a4a9fd0
True
Hispanics
454
What is one of the fastest growing demographics in Spain?
5a77509b2d6d7f001a4a9fd1
True
emigration from Mexico, Cuba, El Salvador and elsewhere in Hispanic America to the United States
215
What strengthened the role of the English language in the the country?
5a77509b2d6d7f001a4a9fd2
True
Hispanics
454
Who increases the use and importance of American English in the United States?
5a77509b2d6d7f001a4a9fd3
True
After the incorporation of these states to the United States in the first half of the 19th century, the Spanish language was later reinforced in the country by the acquisition of Puerto Rico in 1898. Later waves of emigration from Mexico, Cuba, El Salvador and elsewhere in Hispanic America to the United States beginning in the second half of the 19th century to the present-day have strengthened the role of the Spanish language in the country. Today, Hispanics are one of the fastest growing demographics in the United States, thus increasing the use and importance of American Spanish in the United States.
Charleston,_South_Carolina
What is the oldest city in South Carolina?
572e8700cb0c0d14000f1252
Charleston
0
False
What county is Charleston, South Carolina located in?
572e8700cb0c0d14000f1253
Charleston County
105
False
Charleston is located on what harbor?
572e8700cb0c0d14000f1254
Charleston Harbor
327
False
Charleston Harbor is an inlet of what ocean?
572e8700cb0c0d14000f1255
Atlantic Ocean
362
False
What river mergers with the Cooper River to form Charleston Harbor?
572e8700cb0c0d14000f1256
Ashley Rivers
486
False
What county is Charleston located in?
572ff8ff947a6a140053ceb5
Charleston County
105
False
Charleston Harbor is formed on what ocean?
572ff8ff947a6a140053ceb7
Atlantic Ocean
362
False
What river merges with the Ashley River to from the Charleston Harbor?
572ff8ff947a6a140053ceb8
Cooper Rivers
420
False
Charleston
0
What is the newest city in South Carolina?
5ad41708604f3c001a400365
True
Charleston County
105
What county is Charleston, North Carolina located in?
5ad41708604f3c001a400366
True
Charleston Harbor
327
Charleston isn't located on what harbor?
5ad41708604f3c001a400367
True
Atlantic Ocean
362
Charleston Harbor is an outlet of what ocean?
5ad41708604f3c001a400368
True
Ashley Rivers
486
What river mergers with the Cooper River to form Charleston Bay?
5ad41708604f3c001a400369
True
Charleston is the oldest and second-largest city in the U.S. state of South Carolina, the county seat of Charleston County, and the principal city in the Charleston–North Charleston–Summerville Metropolitan Statistical Area. The city lies just south of the geographical midpoint of South Carolina's coastline and is located on Charleston Harbor, an inlet of the Atlantic Ocean formed by the confluence of the Ashley and Cooper Rivers, or, as is locally expressed, "where the Cooper and Ashley Rivers come together to form the Atlantic Ocean."
What year was Charleston founded?
572e898bc246551400ce42f8
1670
11
False
What was Charleston's original name?
572e898bc246551400ce42f9
Charles Town
19
False
Charles Town was named after which king?
572e898bc246551400ce42fa
King Charles II of England
44
False
Where was the city originally located?
572e898bc246551400ce42fb
Albemarle Point
236
False
What was Charleston's population in 2010?
572e898bc246551400ce42fc
120,083
443
False
What year was Charleston originally founded?
572ff90304bcaa1900d76f83
1670
11
False
What was the originally name of Charleston?
572ff90304bcaa1900d76f84
Charles Town
19
False
Who was Charles Town named after?
572ff90304bcaa1900d76f85
King Charles II of England
44
False
How many people lived in Charleston in 2010?
572ff90304bcaa1900d76f86
120,083
443
False
Where was Charleston's first location?
572ff90304bcaa1900d76f87
Albemarle Point
236
False
1670
11
What year wasn't Charleston founded?
5ad4174b604f3c001a400389
True
Charles Town
19
What was Charleston's unoriginal name?
5ad4174b604f3c001a40038a
True
King Charles II of England
44
Charles Town was named after which queen?
5ad4174b604f3c001a40038b
True
Albemarle Point
236
Where wasn't the city originally located?
5ad4174b604f3c001a40038c
True
120,083
443
What was Charleston's population in 2012?
5ad4174b604f3c001a40038d
True
Founded in 1670 as Charles Town in honor of King Charles II of England, Charleston adopted its present name in 1783. It moved to its present location on Oyster Point in 1680 from a location on the west bank of the Ashley River known as Albemarle Point. By 1690, Charles Town was the fifth-largest city in North America, and it remained among the 10 largest cities in the United States through the 1840 census. With a 2010 census population of 120,083  (and a 2014 estimate of 130,113), current trends put Charleston as the fastest-growing municipality in South Carolina. The population of the Charleston metropolitan area, comprising Berkeley, Charleston, and Dorchester Counties, was counted by the 2014 estimate at 727,689 – the third-largest in the state – and the 78th-largest metropolitan statistical area in the United States.
How large is Charleston, South Carolina?
572ffb39947a6a140053cedc
127.5 square miles (330.2 km2)
75
False
Which city blocks Charleston for expanding up the peninsula?
572ffb39947a6a140053cedd
North Charleston
794
False
How much of Charleston is covered by water?
572ffb39947a6a140053cede
18.5 square miles (47.9 km2)
159
False
How of Charleston's total area is dry land?
572ffb39947a6a140053cedf
109.0 square miles (282.2 km2)
116
False
What town occupies the land directly east of the Cooper River?
572ffb39947a6a140053cee0
Mount Pleasant
854
False
127.5 square miles
75
How small is Charleston, South Carolina?
5ad4179a604f3c001a40039d
True
North Charleston
794
Which city blocks Charleston for expanding down the peninsula?
5ad4179a604f3c001a40039e
True
18.5 square miles
159
How much of Charleston isn't covered by water?
5ad4179a604f3c001a40039f
True
109.0 square miles
116
How of Charleston's total area isn't dry land?
5ad4179a604f3c001a4003a0
True
Mount Pleasant
854
What town occupies the land directly west of the Cooper River?
5ad4179a604f3c001a4003a1
True
According to the United States Census Bureau, the city has a total area of 127.5 square miles (330.2 km2), of which 109.0 square miles (282.2 km2) is land and 18.5 square miles (47.9 km2) is covered by water. The old city is located on a peninsula at the point where, as Charlestonians say, "The Ashley and the Cooper Rivers come together to form the Atlantic Ocean." The entire peninsula is very low, some is landfill material, and as such, frequently floods during heavy rains, storm surges, and unusually high tides. The city limits have expanded across the Ashley River from the peninsula, encompassing the majority of West Ashley as well as James Island and some of Johns Island. The city limits also have expanded across the Cooper River, encompassing Daniel Island and the Cainhoy area. North Charleston blocks any expansion up the peninsula, and Mount Pleasant occupies the land directly east of the Cooper River.
What season is the wettest in Charleston?
573003bda23a5019007fcc47
Summer
159
False
In what form does half of Charleston's annual rainfall occur?
573003bda23a5019007fcc48
thundershowers
269
False
What season is characterized as short in Charleston?
573003bda23a5019007fcc49
Winter
332
False
What is Charleston's seasonal record of snowfall?
57300539b2c2fd1400568743
8.0 in (20 cm)
699
False
What season is considered short in Charleston?
57300539b2c2fd1400568744
Winter
332
False
What is the wettest season in Charleston?
57300539b2c2fd1400568745
Summer
159
False
Half of Charleston's annual rainfall occurs in what form?
57300539b2c2fd1400568746
thundershowers
269
False
How much snow did Charleston's Airport recieve on December, 23 1989?
57300539b2c2fd1400568747
6.0 in (15 cm
549
False
Summer
159
What season is the dryest in Charleston?
5ad417ee604f3c001a4003c9
True
thundershowers
269
In what form does all of Charleston's annual rainfall occur?
5ad417ee604f3c001a4003ca
True
Winter
332
What season is characterized as long in Charleston?
5ad417ee604f3c001a4003cb
True
8.0 in
699
What is Charleston's seasonal record of windfall?
5ad417ee604f3c001a4003cc
True
6.0 in (15 cm)
549
How much snow did Charleston's Airport recieve on December, 23 1998?
5ad417ee604f3c001a4003cd
True
Charleston has a humid subtropical climate (Köppen climate classification Cfa), with mild winters, hot, humid summers, and significant rainfall all year long. Summer is the wettest season; almost half of the annual rainfall occurs from June to September in the form of thundershowers. Fall remains relatively warm through November. Winter is short and mild, and is characterized by occasional rain. Measurable snow (≥0.1 in or 0.25 cm) only occurs several times per decade at the most, with the last such event occurring December 26, 2010. However, 6.0 in (15 cm) fell at the airport on December 23, 1989, the largest single-day fall on record, contributing to a single-storm and seasonal record of 8.0 in (20 cm) snowfall.
What is hottest temperature recorded with Charleston's city limits?
573007ceb2c2fd1400568761
104 °F
56
False
What type of storm is a major threat to Charleston in the summer and early fall?
573007ceb2c2fd1400568762
Hurricanes
321
False
What hurricane hit Charleston in 1989?
573007ceb2c2fd1400568763
Hurricane Hugo
460
False
What was the lowest temperature ever recorded Charleston's city limit?
573007ceb2c2fd1400568764
7 °F (−14 °C)
127
False
What day did Charleston's airport hit the coldest day on record?
573007ceb2c2fd1400568765
January 21, 1985
303
False
104 °F
56
What is coldest temperature recorded with Charleston's city limits?
5ad4183a604f3c001a4003ef
True
Hurricanes
321
What type of storm is a minor threat to Charleston in the summer and early fall?
5ad4183a604f3c001a4003f0
True
Hurricane Hugo
460
What hurricane hit Charleston in 1998?
5ad4183a604f3c001a4003f1
True
7 °F (−14 °C)
127
What was the highest temperature ever recorded Charleston's city limit?
5ad4183a604f3c001a4003f2
True
January 21, 1985
303
What day did Charleston's airport hit the warmest day on record?
5ad4183a604f3c001a4003f3
True
The highest temperature recorded within city limits was 104 °F (40 °C), on June 2, 1985, and June 24, 1944, and the lowest was 7 °F (−14 °C) on February 14, 1899, although at the airport, where official records are kept, the historical range is 105 °F (41 °C) on August 1, 1999 down to 6 °F (−14 °C) on January 21, 1985. Hurricanes are a major threat to the area during the summer and early fall, with several severe hurricanes hitting the area – most notably Hurricane Hugo on September 21, 1989 (a category 4 storm). Dewpoint in the summer ranges from 67.8 to 71.4 °F (20 to 22 °C).
How many people lived in the Charleston=North Charleston Urban Area in 2010?
57300a06b2c2fd1400568789
548,404
649
False
What is the third largest city in South Carolina?
57300a06b2c2fd140056878a
North Charleston
244
False
How many people lived in Moncks Corner in 2000?
57300a06b2c2fd140056878b
9,123
821
False
Charleston and Berkeley is combined with what other county to form a metropolitan statistical area?
57300a06b2c2fd140056878c
Dorchester
128
False
In which county is Moncks Corner located?
57300a06b2c2fd140056878d
Berkeley County
763
False
548,404
649
How many people lived in the Charleston=North Charleston Urban Area in 2012?
5ad4188a604f3c001a400403
True
North Charleston
244
What is the third largest city in North Carolina?
5ad4188a604f3c001a400404
True
9,123
821
How many people lived in Moncks Corner in 2010?
5ad4188a604f3c001a400405
True
Dorchester
128
Charleston and Berkeley isn't combined with what other county to form a metropolitan statistical area?
5ad4188a604f3c001a400406
True
Berkeley County
763
In which county is Moncks Corner not located?
5ad4188a604f3c001a400407
True
The Charleston-North Charleston-Summerville Metropolitan Statistical Area consists of three counties: Charleston, Berkeley, and Dorchester. As of the 2013 U.S. Census, the metropolitan statistical area had a total population of 712,239 people. North Charleston is the second-largest city in the Charleston-North Charleston-Summerville Metropolitan Statistical Area and ranks as the third-largest city in the state; Mount Pleasant and Summerville are the next-largest cities. These cities combined with other incorporated and unincorporated areas along with the city of Charleston form the Charleston-North Charleston Urban Area with a population of 548,404 as of 2010. The metropolitan statistical area also includes a separate and much smaller urban area within Berkeley County, Moncks Corner (with a 2000 population of 9,123).
What era brought counties to South Carolina?
57300bc2947a6a140053cfe6
Reconstruction Era
50
False
Counties replaced what system in South Carolina?
57300bc2947a6a140053cfe7
traditional parish system
4
False
What is the main use of the parish system nowadays?
57300bc2947a6a140053cfe8
public service districts
195
False
The city of Charleston is defined by the limits of the Parish of St. Michael and what other parish?
57300bc2947a6a140053cfe9
Parish of St. Philip
297
False
What other parish besides St. John's Parish is  mostly an incorporated rural parish?
57300bc2947a6a140053cfea
St. Andrew's Parish
402
False
Reconstruction Era
50
What era brought counties to North Carolina?
5ad418dd604f3c001a400427
True
traditional parish system
4
Counties replaced what system in North Carolina?
5ad418dd604f3c001a400428
True
public service districts
195
What isn't the main use of the parish system nowadays?
5ad418dd604f3c001a400429
True
Parish of St. Philip
297
The city of Charleston isn't defined by the limits of the Parish of St. Michael and what other parish?
5ad418dd604f3c001a40042a
True
St. Andrew's Parish
402
What other parish besides St. John's Parish is mostly an incorporated urban parish?
5ad418dd604f3c001a40042b
True
The traditional parish system persisted until the Reconstruction Era, when counties were imposed.[citation needed] Nevertheless, traditional parishes still exist in various capacities, mainly as public service districts. When the city of Charleston was formed, it was defined by the limits of the Parish of St. Philip and St. Michael, now also includes parts of St. James' Parish, St. George's Parish, St. Andrew's Parish, and St. John's Parish, although the last two are mostly still incorporated rural parishes.
What year was Charles Town founded?
57300d74a23a5019007fcccf
1670
371
False
How long did it take to establish settlement expeditions for the Province of Carolina?
57300d74a23a5019007fccd0
seven years
261
False
What was the plan to settle and develop the Province of Carolina?
57300d74a23a5019007fccd1
the Grand Model
458
False
Who prepared the plan known as "the Grand Model"?
57300d74a23a5019007fccd2
John Locke
512
False
When was Charles II of England restored to the throne?
57300d74a23a5019007fccd3
1660
78
False
1670.
371
What year was Charles Town abandoned?
5ad41927604f3c001a400443
True
seven years
261
How long did it take to establish settlement expeditions for the Province of South Carolina?
5ad41927604f3c001a400444
True
John Locke
512
Who rejected the plan known as "the Grand Model"?
5ad41927604f3c001a400445
True
the Grand Model
458
What was the plan to settle and develop the State of Carolina?
5ad41927604f3c001a400446
True
1660
78
When was Charles I of England restored to the throne?
5ad41927604f3c001a400447
True
After Charles II of England (1630–1685) was restored to the English throne in 1660 following Oliver Cromwell's Protectorate, he granted the chartered Province of Carolina to eight of his loyal friends, known as the Lords Proprietors, on March 24, 1663. It took seven years before the group arranged for settlement expeditions. The first of these founded Charles Town, in 1670. Governance, settlement, and development were to follow a visionary plan known as the Grand Model prepared for the Lords Proprietors by John Locke.
Where did Charleston's original settlers come from?
57300f27b2c2fd14005687bb
Bermuda
68
False
Bermuda is located near which North Carolina town?
57300f27b2c2fd14005687bc
Cape Hatteras
165
False
Who was the first governor of Charleston?
57300f27b2c2fd14005687bd
William Sayle
230
False
Who predicted Charleston would become a 'great port towne'?
57300f27b2c2fd14005687be
Earl of Shaftesbury
366
False
The settlement was relocated east to what river?
57300f27b2c2fd14005687bf
Ashley River
533
False
Bermuda
68
Where did Charleston's original settlers not come from?
5ad4196e604f3c001a40045f
True
Cape Hatteras
165
Bermuda is located near which South Carolina town?
5ad4196e604f3c001a400460
True
William Sayle
230
Who was the last governor of Charleston?
5ad4196e604f3c001a400461
True
Earl of Shaftesbury
366
Who predicted Charleston would become a 'weak port towne'?
5ad4196e604f3c001a400462
True
Ashley River
533
The settlement was relocated west to what river?
5ad4196e604f3c001a400463
True
The community was established by several shiploads of settlers from Bermuda (which lies due east of South Carolina, although at 1,030 km or 640 mi, it is closest to Cape Hatteras, North Carolina), under the leadership of governor William Sayle, on the west bank of the Ashley River, a few miles northwest of the present-day city center. It was soon predicted by the Earl of Shaftesbury, one of the Lords Proprietors, to become a "great port towne", a destiny the city quickly fulfilled. In 1680, the settlement was moved east of the Ashley River to the peninsula between the Ashley and Cooper Rivers. Not only was this location more defensible, but it also offered access to a fine natural harbor.
What religious group was not allowed to settle in South Carolina?
573012e9947a6a140053d048
Catholics
665
False
About what year did Charleston cease to have the wealthiest Jewish community in America?
573012e9947a6a140053d049
1830
986
False
What European country did many of the first Charleston settlers come from?
573012e9947a6a140053d04a
England
39
False
After what war did the state ban on Catholics end?
573012e9947a6a140053d04b
American Revolution
736
False
Along with Bermuda, what other English colony did many settlers come from?
573012e9947a6a140053d04c
Barbados
72
False
Catholics
665
What religious group was allowed to settle in South Carolina?
5ad41a27604f3c001a4004a3
True
1830
986
About what year did Charleston begin to have the wealthiest Jewish community in America?
5ad41a27604f3c001a4004a4
True
England
39
What European country did few of the first Charleston settlers come from?
5ad41a27604f3c001a4004a5
True
American Revolution
736
After what war did the state ban on Catholics begin?
5ad41a27604f3c001a4004a6
True
Barbados
72
Along with Bermuda, what other English colony did few settlers come from?
5ad41a27604f3c001a4004a7
True
The first settlers primarily came from England, its Caribbean colony of Barbados, and its Atlantic colony of Bermuda. Among these were free people of color, born in the West Indies of alliances and marriages between Africans and Englanders, when color lines were looser among the working class in the early colonial years, and some wealthy whites took black consorts or concubines. Charles Town attracted a mixture of ethnic and religious groups. French, Scottish, Irish, and Germans migrated to the developing seacoast town, representing numerous Protestant denominations. Because of the battles between English "royalty" and the Roman Catholic Church, practicing Catholics were not allowed to settle in South Carolina until after the American Revolution. Jews were allowed, and Sephardic Jews migrated to the city in such numbers that by the beginning of the 19th century, the city was home to the largest and wealthiest Jewish community in North America—a status it held until about 1830.
Which country along with France contested England's claim to the Charleston region?
5730141804bcaa1900d77131
Spain
101
False
Which group raided the settlement as a means to protect themselves from settlers?
5730141804bcaa1900d77132
Native Americans
222
False
Whose 1704 plan was used to fortified the city?
5730141804bcaa1900d77133
Governor Johnson
417
False
The majority of the fort walls were removed in what decade?
5730141804bcaa1900d77134
1720s
513
False
Beside European nations and Native Americans, who else attacked the Charleston settlement?
5730141804bcaa1900d77135
pirates
179
False
Spain
101
Which country along with France accepted England's claim to the Charleston region?
5ad419ca604f3c001a40047f
True
Native Americans
222
Which group raided the settlement as a means to protect themselves from police?
5ad419ca604f3c001a400480
True
Governor Johnson
417
Whose 1740 plan was used to fortified the city?
5ad419ca604f3c001a400481
True
1720s
513
The minority of the fort walls were removed in what decade?
5ad419ca604f3c001a400482
True
pirates
179
Beside European nations and Native Americans, who else protected the Charleston settlement?
5ad419ca604f3c001a400483
True
The early settlement was often subject to attack from sea and land, including periodic assaults from Spain and France (both of whom contested England's claims to the region), and pirates. These were combined with raids by Native Americans, who tried to protect themselves from so-called European "settlers," who in turn wanted to expand the settlement. The heart of the city was fortified according to a 1704 plan by Governor Johnson. Except those fronting Cooper River, the walls were largely removed during the 1720s.
What author paid for the simple bench at Sullivan's Island?
57301654a23a5019007fcd47
Toni Morrison
555
False
What percentage of those sold as slaves in North America landed at Sullivan's Island?
57301654a23a5019007fcd48
40%
240
False
What stage of the slave trade provided slaves to Charles Town?
57301654a23a5019007fcd49
Middle Passage
45
False
What peoples were brought to Charles Town to be slaves?
57301654a23a5019007fcd4a
Africans
0
False
Which African coast did many slaves that were sold in Charles Town come from?
57301654a23a5019007fcd4b
Windward Coast
211
False
Toni Morrison
555
What author stole the simple bench at Sullivan's Island?
5ad41a83604f3c001a4004c1
True
40%
240
What percentage of those sold as slaves in South America landed at Sullivan's Island?
5ad41a83604f3c001a4004c2
True
Middle Passage
45
What stage of the slave trade stole slaves from Charles Town?
5ad41a83604f3c001a4004c3
True
Africans
265
What peoples weren't brought to Charles Town to be slaves?
5ad41a83604f3c001a4004c4
True
Windward Coast
211
Which African coast did no slaves that were sold in Charles Town come from?
5ad41a83604f3c001a4004c5
True
Africans were brought to Charles Town on the Middle Passage, first as "servants", then as slaves. Ethnic groups transported here included especially Wolof, Yoruba, Fulani, Igbo, Malinke, and other people of the Windward Coast. An estimated 40% of the total 400,000 Africans transported and sold as slaves into North America are estimated to have landed at Sullivan's Island, just off the port of Charles Town; it is described as a "hellish Ellis Island of sorts .... Today nothing commemorates that ugly fact but a simple bench, established by the author Toni Morrison using private funds."
African slaves had great knowledge of the cultivation of what product?
57301dd3a23a5019007fcdb1
rice
127
False
Which nation subsidized indigo crops from the Lowcountry?
57301dd3a23a5019007fcdb2
Britain
443
False
By what year was indigo was a leading export for the Lowcountry?
57301dd3a23a5019007fcdb3
1750
483
False
By what year was rice a successful commodity crop for the Lowcountry?
57301dd3a23a5019007fcdb4
1700
228
False
What products were exported along with indigo from the Lowcountry?
57301dd3a23a5019007fcdb5
naval stores
499
False
rice
127
African slaves had no knowledge of the cultivation of what product?
5ad41b78604f3c001a400523
True
Britain
443
Which nation subsidized indigo crops from the Highcountry?
5ad41b78604f3c001a400524
True
1750
483
By what year was indigo was a low export for the Lowcountry?
5ad41b78604f3c001a400525
True
1700
228
By what year was rice an unsuccessful commodity crop for the Lowcountry?
5ad41b78604f3c001a400526
True
naval stores
499
What products were imported along with indigo from the Lowcountry?
5ad41b78604f3c001a400527
True
Colonial Lowcountry landowners experimented with cash crops ranging from tea to silkworms. African slaves brought knowledge of rice cultivation, which plantation owners cultivated and developed as a successful commodity crop by 1700. With the coerced help of African slaves from the Caribbean, Eliza Lucas, daughter of plantation owner George Lucas, learned how to raise and use indigo in the Lowcountry in 1747. Supported with subsidies from Britain, indigo was a leading export by 1750. Those and naval stores were exported in an extremely profitable shipping industry.
What lucrative trade contributed greatly to Charles Town's growth?
57301f89a23a5019007fcdd9
slave trade
242
False
When did Charles Town become the fourth largest colonial port?
57301f89a23a5019007fcdda
1770
258
False
Who made up the majority of Charles Town population in 1708?
57301f89a23a5019007fcddb
slaves
475
False
People of African descent were the majority in Charleston until what mass movement?
57301f89a23a5019007fcddc
the Great Migration
567
False
When did the Great Migration occur?
57301f89a23a5019007fcddd
the early 20th century
590
False
slave trade
242
What unlucrative trade contributed greatly to Charles Town's growth?
5ad41acf604f3c001a4004df
True
1770
258
When did Charles Town become the fifth largest colonial port?
5ad41acf604f3c001a4004e0
True
slaves
414
Who made up the majority of Charles Town population in 1780?
5ad41acf604f3c001a4004e1
True
the Great Migration
567
People of African descent were the minority in Charleston until what mass movement?
5ad41acf604f3c001a4004e2
True
the early 20th century
590
When didn't the Great Migration occur?
5ad41acf604f3c001a4004e3
True
By the mid-18th century, Charles Town had become a bustling trade center, the hub of the Atlantic trade for the southern colonies. Charles Towne was also the wealthiest and largest city south of Philadelphia, in part because of the lucrative slave trade. By 1770, it was the fourth-largest port in the colonies, after Boston, New York, and Philadelphia, with a population of 11,000—slightly more than half of them slaves. By 1708, the majority of the colony's population was slaves, and the future state would continue to be a majority of African descent until after the Great Migration of the early 20th century.
What other Native American nation supplied Charles Town with deer hides other than the Cherokee nation?
573021c8a23a5019007fce01
Creek nations
116
False
What is the  estimation of deer slaughtered in Charles Town from 1739 to 1761?
573021c8a23a5019007fce02
500,000 to 1,250,000
358
False
Records indicate how many pounds of deer skins were exported from Charles Town during the height of its deerskin trade?
573021c8a23a5019007fce03
5,239,350
465
False
What trade was the basis of Charles Town's original economy?
573021c8a23a5019007fce04
the deerskin trade
26
False
What was the average amount of deer skins  that Charles Town exported to Europe between 1699 to 1715?
573021c8a23a5019007fce05
54,000
225
False
Cherokee and Creek nations
103
What other North American nation supplied Charles Town with deer hides other than the Cherokee nation?
5ad41b2a604f3c001a40050f
True
500,000 to 1,250,000
358
What is the estimation of deer slaughtered in Charles Town from 1739 to 1861?
5ad41b2a604f3c001a400510
True
5,239,350 pounds
465
Records indicate how many pounds of deer skins were imported from Charles Town during the height of its deerskin trade?
5ad41b2a604f3c001a400511
True
the deerskin trade
321
What trade wasn't the basis of Charles Town's original economy?
5ad41b2a604f3c001a400512
True
54,000
225
What was the average amount of deer skins that Charles Town exported to Europe between 1699 to 1815?
5ad41b2a604f3c001a400513
True
Charles Town was a hub of the deerskin trade, the basis of its early economy. Trade alliances with the Cherokee and Creek nations insured a steady supply of deer hides. Between 1699 and 1715, colonists exported an average of 54,000 deer skins annually to Europe through Charles Town. Between 1739 and 1761, the height of the deerskin trade era, an estimated 500,000 to 1,250,000 deer were slaughtered. During the same period, Charles Town records show an export of 5,239,350 pounds of deer skins. Deer skins were used in the production of men's fashionable and practical buckskin pantaloons, gloves, and book bindings.
What is the oldest college in South Carolina?
5730235ba23a5019007fce23
College of Charles Towne
581
False
Charleston supported the College of Charles Towne until what year?
5730235ba23a5019007fce24
1970
696
False
What year was the Charles Towne Library Society established?
5730235ba23a5019007fce25
1748
409
False
When was the College of Charles Towe founded?
5730235ba23a5019007fce26
1770
609
False
What is located where the first theatre building in Charles Town once stood?
5730235ba23a5019007fce27
Dock Street Theatre
208
False
College of Charles Towne
581
What is the newest college in South Carolina?
5ad41bc2604f3c001a40053d
True
1970
696
Charleston never supported the College of Charles Towne until what year?
5ad41bc2604f3c001a40053e
True
1748
409
What year was the Charles Towne Library Society unestablished?
5ad41bc2604f3c001a40053f
True
1770
609
When was the College of Charles Towe unfounded?
5ad41bc2604f3c001a400540
True
Dock Street Theatre
208
What is located where the last theatre building in Charles Town once stood?
5ad41bc2604f3c001a400541
True
As Charles Town grew, so did the community's cultural and social opportunities, especially for the elite merchants and planters. The first theatre building in America was built in 1736 on the site of today's Dock Street Theatre. Benevolent societies were formed by different ethnic groups, from French Huguenots to free people of color to Germans to Jews. The Charles Towne Library Society was established in 1748 by well-born young men who wanted to share the financial cost to keep up with the scientific and philosophical issues of the day. This group also helped establish the College of Charles Towne in 1770, the oldest college in South Carolina. Until its transition to state ownership in 1970, this was the oldest municipally supported college in the United States.
Which general tried to seize Charles Town during the American Revolution?
57302508b2c2fd140056894f
General Sir Henry Clinton
18
False
When did General Clinton attack South Carolina?
57302508b2c2fd1400568950
June 28, 1776
3
False
Who was the commander of the American forces defending South Carolina?
57302508b2c2fd1400568951
Col. Moultrie
398
False
What was the British hoping to inspire by their attack on Charles Town?
57302508b2c2fd1400568952
a simultaneous Loyalist uprising
127
False
Fort Sullivan was renamed  what after the battle?
57302508b2c2fd1400568953
Fort Moultrie
598
False
General Sir Henry Clinton
18
Which general tried to seize Charles Town before the American Revolution?
5ad41c02604f3c001a400559
True
June 28, 1776
3
When did General Clinton attack North Carolina?
5ad41c02604f3c001a40055a
True
Col. Moultrie
398
Who was the commander of the American forces defending North Carolina?
5ad41c02604f3c001a40055b
True
a simultaneous Loyalist uprising
127
What was the British hoping to inspire by their defense of Charles Town?
5ad41c02604f3c001a40055c
True
On June 28, 1776, General Sir Henry Clinton along with 2,000 men and a naval squadron tried to seize Charles Towne, hoping for a simultaneous Loyalist uprising in South Carolina. When the fleet fired cannonballs, they failed to penetrate Fort Sullivan's unfinished, yet thick, palmetto-log walls. No local Loyalists attacked the town from the mainland side, as the British had hoped they would do. Col. Moultrie's men returned fire and inflicted heavy damage on several of the British ships. The British were forced to withdraw their forces, and the Americans renamed the defensive installation as Fort Moultrie in honor of its commander.
What was the greatest American defeat of the American Revolution?
5730261da23a5019007fce6d
Siege of Charles Towne
164
False
How many soldiers did General Clinton return with?
5730261da23a5019007fce6e
14,000
30
False
In what year did General Clinton return to Charles Towne?
5730261da23a5019007fce6f
1780
20
False
Who was the leader of the American forces defending Charles Towne?
5730261da23a5019007fce70
General Benjamin Lincoln
56
False
How many soldiers did General Lincoln lead?
5730261da23a5019007fce71
5,400
120
False
Siege of Charles Towne
164
What was the worst American defeat of the American Revolution?
5ad41c52604f3c001a400573
True
14,000
30
How many soldiers didb't General Clinton return with?
5ad41c52604f3c001a400574
True
1780
20
In what year didn't General Clinton return to Charles Towne?
5ad41c52604f3c001a400575
True
General Benjamin Lincoln
56
Who was the leader of the American forces attacking Charles Towne?
5ad41c52604f3c001a400576
True
5,400
120
How many soldiers didn't General Lincoln lead?
5ad41c52604f3c001a400577
True
Clinton returned in 1780 with 14,000 soldiers. American General Benjamin Lincoln was trapped and surrendered his entire 5,400-man force after a long fight, and the Siege of Charles Towne was the greatest American defeat of the war. Several Americans who escaped the carnage joined other militias, including those of Francis Marion, the "Swamp Fox"; and Andrew Pickens. The British retained control of the city until December 1782. After the British left, the city's name was officially changed to Charleston in 1783.
What city became the state capital of South Carolina?
57302769947a6a140053d1ac
Columbia
54
False
Charleston was the state capital of South Carolina until what year?
57302769947a6a140053d1ad
1786
66
False
In what year was the cotton gin invented?
57302769947a6a140053d1ae
1793
215
False
What became South Carolina's major export commodity after 1793?
57302769947a6a140053d1af
cotton
284
False
Who made up most of the primary labor force of cotton plantations?
57302769947a6a140053d1b0
Slaves
537
False
Columbia
54
What city became the state capital of North Carolina?
5ad41cb0604f3c001a400587
True
1786
66
Charleston was the state capital of North Carolina until what year?
5ad41cb0604f3c001a400588
True
1793
215
In what year was the cotton gin rejected?
5ad41cb0604f3c001a400589
True
cotton
353
What became South Carolina's major export commodity after 1739?
5ad41cb0604f3c001a40058a
True
Slaves
537
Who made up little of the primary labor force of cotton plantations?
5ad41cb0604f3c001a40058b
True
Although the city lost the status of state capital to Columbia in 1786, Charleston became even more prosperous in the plantation-dominated economy of the post-Revolutionary years. The invention of the cotton gin in 1793 revolutionized the processing of this crop, making short-staple cotton profitable. It was more easily grown in the upland areas, and cotton quickly became South Carolina's major export commodity. The Piedmont region was developed into cotton plantations, to which the sea islands and Lowcountry were already devoted. Slaves were also the primary labor force within the city, working as domestics, artisans, market workers, and laborers.
How many free people of color lived in Charleston in 1860?
57302879947a6a140053d1c8
3,785
66
False
What percentage of Charleston's population were free people of color?
57302879947a6a140053d1c9
8%
160
False
What percentage of Charleston's black population were free people of color?
57302879947a6a140053d1ca
18%
120
False
In what year was the Brown Fellowship Society created?
57302879947a6a140053d1cb
1790
385
False
In what year did the Brown Fellowship Society end?
57302879947a6a140053d1cc
1945
503
False
3,785
66
How many free people of color lived in Charleston in 1680?
5ad41d04604f3c001a4005ad
True
8
160
What percentage of Charleston's population were slave people of color?
5ad41d04604f3c001a4005ae
True
18%
120
What percentage of Charleston's black population weren't free people of color?
5ad41d04604f3c001a4005af
True
1790,
385
In what year was the Brown Fellowship Society ended?
5ad41d04604f3c001a4005b0
True
1945
503
In what year did the Brown Fellowship Society start?
5ad41d04604f3c001a4005b1
True
The city also had a large class of free people of color. By 1860, 3,785 free people of color were in Charleston, nearly 18% of the city's black population, and 8% of the total population. Free people of color were far more likely to be of mixed racial background than slaves. Many were educated, practiced skilled crafts, and some even owned substantial property, including slaves. In 1790, they established the Brown Fellowship Society for mutual aid, initially as a burial society. It continued until 1945.
What was planned by Denmark Vesey?
5730299db2c2fd14005689a5
slave revolt
120
False
When was Vesey's plan for a slave revolt revealed?
5730299db2c2fd14005689a6
May 1822
189
False
How was Vesey executed in 1822?
5730299db2c2fd14005689a7
hanged
382
False
How many slaves were executed with Vesey?
5730299db2c2fd14005689a8
five slaves
408
False
What revolution made whites fearful of retribution of slaves?
5730299db2c2fd14005689a9
Haitian Revolution
320
False
slave revolt
120
What wasn't planned by Denmark Vesey?
5ad41d55604f3c001a4005c7
True
May 1822
189
When wasn't Vesey's plan for a slave revolt revealed?
5ad41d55604f3c001a4005c8
True
hanged
382
How was Vesey executed in 1820?
5ad41d55604f3c001a4005c9
True
five slaves
408
How many slaves were spared with Vesey?
5ad41d55604f3c001a4005ca
True
Haitian Revolution
320
What revolution made blacks fearful of retribution of slaves?
5ad41d55604f3c001a4005cb
True
By 1820, Charleston's population had grown to 23,000, maintaining its black (and mostly slave) majority. When a massive slave revolt planned by Denmark Vesey, a free black, was revealed in May 1822, whites reacted with intense fear, as they were well aware of the violent retribution of slaves against whites during the Haitian Revolution. Soon after, Vesey was tried and executed, hanged in early July with five slaves. Another 28 slaves were later hanged. Later, the state legislature passed laws requiring individual legislative approval for manumission (the freeing of a slave) and regulating activities of free blacks and slaves.
How many African Americans lived in Charleston in 1860?
57302bbf04bcaa1900d772c3
17,000
116
False
How many African American lived in Charleston in 1880?
57302bbf04bcaa1900d772c4
27,000
139
False
Black left which religious denomination is great numbers after slavery?
57302bbf04bcaa1900d772c5
Southern Baptist Church
350
False
AME Zion Churches were first established in what part of America?
57302bbf04bcaa1900d772c6
the North
555
False
What  barred product ,along with dogs and guns ,  did the Freemen want after slavery ended?
57302bbf04bcaa1900d772c7
liquor
601
False
17,000
116
How many African Americans lived in Charleston in 1870?
5ad41e9e604f3c001a400653
True
27,000
139
How many African American lived in Charleston in 1890
5ad41e9e604f3c001a400654
True
Southern Baptist Church
350
Black left which religious denomination is low numbers after slavery?
5ad41e9e604f3c001a400655
True
the North
555
AME Zion Churches were last established in what part of America?
5ad41e9e604f3c001a400656
True
liquor
601
What barred product ,along with dogs and guns , did the Freemen want after slavery began?
5ad41e9e604f3c001a400657
True
In Charleston, the African American population increased as freedmen moved from rural areas to the major city: from 17,000 in 1860 to over 27,000 in 1880. Historian Eric Foner noted that blacks were glad to be relieved of the many regulations of slavery and to operate outside of white surveillance. Among other changes, most blacks quickly left the Southern Baptist Church, setting up their own black Baptist congregations or joining new African Methodist Episcopal Church and AME Zion churches, both independent black denominations first established in the North. Freedmen "acquired dogs, guns, and liquor (all barred to them under slavery), and refused to yield the sidewalks to whites".
What association founded the Avery Normal Institute?
57302e56947a6a140053d238
the American Missionary Association
266
False
What type of school was the Avery Normal Institute?
57302e56947a6a140053d239
free secondary school
315
False
Who attended the Avery Normal Institute?
57302e56947a6a140053d23a
Charleston's African American population
341
False
What general supported the conversion of a US Arsenal into Porter Military Academy?
57302e56947a6a140053d23b
William T. Sherman
391
False
Soldiers and boys helped by Porter Military Academy were affected by what?
57302e56947a6a140053d23c
war
595
False
American Missionary Association
270
What association never founded the Avery Normal Institute?
5ad41ef0604f3c001a400671
True
free secondary school
315
What type of school wasn't the Avery Normal Institute?
5ad41ef0604f3c001a400672
True
Charleston's African American population
341
Who never attended the Avery Normal Institute?
5ad41ef0604f3c001a400673
True
William T. Sherman
391
What general supported the conversion of a UN Arsenal into Porter Military Academy?
5ad41ef0604f3c001a400674
True
war
595
oldiers and boys helped by Porter Military Academy weren't affected by what?
5ad41ef0604f3c001a400675
True
Industries slowly brought the city and its inhabitants back to a renewed vitality and jobs attracted new residents. As the city's commerce improved, residents worked to restore or create community institutions. In 1865, the Avery Normal Institute was established by the American Missionary Association as the first free secondary school for Charleston's African American population. General William T. Sherman lent his support to the conversion of the United States Arsenal into the Porter Military Academy, an educational facility for former soldiers and boys left orphaned or destitute by the war. Porter Military Academy later joined with Gaud School and is now a university-preparatory school, Porter-Gaud School.
What percentage of Charleston's population was black in 1875?
57303039b2c2fd1400568a2d
57%
24
False
What percentage of Charleston County's was black in 1875?
57303039b2c2fd1400568a2e
73%
58
False
In 1876, Charleston's Black Republicans fought against whom?
57303039b2c2fd1400568a2f
white Democrats
435
False
The second riot of 1876 happened when?
57303039b2c2fd1400568a30
the day after the election in November
490
False
How many major riots between blacks and whites occurred in Charleston in 1876?
57303039b2c2fd1400568a31
two
389
False
57%
24
What percentage of Charleston's population was black in 1857?
5ad41f44604f3c001a40068d
True
73%
58
What percentage of Charleston County's was black in 1857?
5ad41f44604f3c001a40068e
True
white Democrats
435
In 1867, Charleston's Black Republicans fought against whom?
5ad41f44604f3c001a40068f
True
the day after the election in November
490
The second riot of 1867 happened when?
5ad41f44604f3c001a400690
True
two
389
How many major riots between blacks and whites occurred in Charleston in 1867?
5ad41f44604f3c001a400691
True
In 1875, blacks made up 57% of the city's population, and 73% of Charleston County. With leadership by members of the antebellum free black community, historian Melinda Meeks Hennessy described the community as "unique" in being able to defend themselves without provoking "massive white retaliation", as occurred in numerous other areas during Reconstruction. In the 1876 election cycle, two major riots between black Republicans and white Democrats occurred in the city, in September and the day after the election in November, as well as a violent incident in Cainhoy at an October joint discussion meeting.
What were white Democratic paramilitary groups in Charleston known as?
573031ba947a6a140053d268
the Red Shirts
442
False
What granted Freeman were American citizenship?
573031ba947a6a140053d269
federal constitutional amendments.
209
False
The Cainhoy Incident occurred on what day?
573031ba947a6a140053d26a
October 15
556
False
The violent 1876 incident that took place on King's street happened on what day?
573031ba947a6a140053d26b
September 6
519
False
Who won the 1876 election as a result of voter intimidation?
573031ba947a6a140053d26c
Wade Hampton
850
False
the Red Shirts
442
What weren't white Democratic paramilitary groups in Charleston known as?
5ad41f9c604f3c001a4006a9
True
federal constitutional amendments
209
What granted Freeman weren't American citizenship?
5ad41f9c604f3c001a4006aa
True
October 15
556
The Cainboy Incident occurred on what day?
5ad41f9c604f3c001a4006ab
True
September 6
519
The violent 1867 incident that took place on King's street happened on what day?
5ad41f9c604f3c001a4006ac
True
Wade Hampton
850
Who won the 1867 election as a result of voter intimidation?
5ad41f9c604f3c001a4006ad
True
Violent incidents occurred throughout the Piedmont of the state as white insurgents struggled to maintain white supremacy in the face of social changes after the war and granting of citizenship to freedmen by federal constitutional amendments. After former Confederates were allowed to vote again, election campaigns from 1872 on were marked by violent intimidation of blacks and Republicans by white Democratic paramilitary groups, known as the Red Shirts. Violent incidents took place in Charleston on King Street in September 6 and in nearby Cainhoy on October 15, both in association with political meetings before the 1876 election. The Cainhoy incident was the only one statewide in which more whites were killed than blacks. The Red Shirts were instrumental in suppressing the black Republican vote in some areas in 1876 and narrowly electing Wade Hampton as governor, and taking back control of the state legislature. Another riot occurred in Charleston the day after the election, when a prominent Republican leader was mistakenly reported killed.
What nearly destroyed Charleston in 1886?
573032f6b2c2fd1400568a51
an earthquake
55
False
What date was the Charleston earthquake of 1886?
573032f6b2c2fd1400568a52
August 31, 1886
3
False
How many buildings were damaged by the 1886 earthquake in Charleston?
573032f6b2c2fd1400568a53
2,000 buildings
354
False
What was the cost of the damage of the 1886 earthquake to the city of Charleston?
573032f6b2c2fd1400568a54
$6 million
395
False
What was the total value of all of Charleston's city buildings before the earthquake?
573032f6b2c2fd1400568a55
$24 million
513
False
an earthquake
55
What nearly destroyed Charleston in 1868?
5ad41fec604f3c001a4006c5
True
August 31, 1886
3
What date was the Charleston earthquake of 1868?
5ad41fec604f3c001a4006c6
True
2,000 buildings
354
How many buildings were damaged by the 1868 earthquake in Charleston?
5ad41fec604f3c001a4006c7
True
$6 million
395
What was the cost of the damage of the 1868 earthquake to the city of Charleston?
5ad41fec604f3c001a4006c8
True
$24 million
513
What was the total value of some of Charleston's city buildings before the earthquake?
5ad41fec604f3c001a4006c9
True
On August 31, 1886, Charleston was nearly destroyed by an earthquake. The shock was estimated to have a moment magnitude of 7.0 and a maximum Mercalli intensity of X (Extreme). It was felt as far away as Boston to the north, Chicago and Milwaukee to the northwest, as far west as New Orleans, as far south as Cuba, and as far east as Bermuda. It damaged 2,000 buildings in Charleston and caused $6 million worth of damage ($133 million in 2006 dollars), at a time when all the city's buildings were valued around $24 million ($531 million in 2006 dollars).
Which party dominated South Carolina's state legislature?
5730345eb2c2fd1400568a69
Democrat
284
False
What year was a new constitution passed that discriminated against blacks were passed?
5730345eb2c2fd1400568a6a
1896
249
False
The William Enston Home was built in what year?
5730345eb2c2fd1400568a6b
1889.
124
False
Blacks were the majority in South Carolina until what year?
5730345eb2c2fd1400568a6c
1930
561
False
A large post office and courthouse was built in what year?
5730345eb2c2fd1400568a6d
1896
249
False
Democrat
284
Which party dominated North Carolina's state legislature?
5ad42047604f3c001a4006ed
True
1896
249
What year was a new constitution passed that discriminated against whites were passed?
5ad42047604f3c001a4006ee
True
1889
124
The William Enston Home was destroyed in what year?
5ad42047604f3c001a4006ef
True
1930
561
Blacks were the minority in South Carolina until what year?
5ad42047604f3c001a4006f0
True
1896
249
A small post office and courthouse was built in what year?
5ad42047604f3c001a4006f1
True
Investment in the city continued. The William Enston Home, a planned community for the city's aged and infirm, was built in 1889. An elaborate public building, the United States Post Office and Courthouse, was completed by the federal government in 1896 in the heart of the city. The Democrat-dominated state legislature passed a new constitution in 1895 that disfranchised blacks, effectively excluding them entirely from the political process, a second-class status that was maintained for more than six decades in a state that was majority black until about 1930.
On what day were nine people killed in the Emanuel African Methodist Episcopal Church?
57303645947a6a140053d29e
June 17, 2015
3
False
What was the name of 21 year old that killed nine church members in Charleston, South Carolina?
57303645947a6a140053d29f
Dylann Roof
30
False
Clementa Pinckney served what public office for the state of South Carolina?
57303645947a6a140053d2a0
state senator
205
False
On what day was the Confederate flag removed from South Carolina State House?
57303645947a6a140053d2a1
July 10, 2015
655
False
A memorial service for the nine victims was held on which college's campus?
57303645947a6a140053d2a2
College of Charleston
787
False
June 17, 2015
3
On what day were six people killed in the Emanuel African Methodist Episcopal Church?
5ad4209f604f3c001a40070b
True
Dylann Roof
30
What was the name of 22 year old that killed nine church members in Charleston, South Carolina?
5ad4209f604f3c001a40070c
True
state senator
205
Clementa Pinckney served what public office for the state of North Carolina?
5ad4209f604f3c001a40070d
True
July 10, 2015
655
On what day was the Confederate flag added from South Carolina State House?
5ad4209f604f3c001a40070e
True
College of Charleston
787
A memorial service for the six victims was held on which college's campus?
5ad4209f604f3c001a40070f
True
On June 17, 2015, 21-year-old Dylann Roof entered the historic Emanuel African Methodist Episcopal Church during a Bible study and killed nine people. Senior pastor Clementa Pinckney, who also served as a state senator, was among those killed during the attack. The deceased also included congregation members Susie Jackson, 87; Rev. Daniel Simmons Sr., 74; Ethel Lance, 70; Myra Thompson, 59; Cynthia Hurd, 54; Rev. Depayne Middleton-Doctor, 49; Rev. Sharonda Coleman-Singleton, 45; and Tywanza Sanders, 26. The attack garnered national attention, and sparked a debate on historical racism, Confederate symbolism in Southern states, and gun violence. On July 10, 2015, the Confederate battle flag was removed from the South Carolina State House. A memorial service on the campus of the College of Charleston was attended by President Barack Obama, Michelle Obama, Vice President Joe Biden, Jill Biden, and Speaker of the House John Boehner.
What season is Spoleto Festival USA held?
57303b64a23a5019007fcfc7
spring
267
False
What year was Spoleto Festival USA founded?
57303b64a23a5019007fcfc8
1977
356
False
What  the profession of Gian Carlo Menotti?
57303b64a23a5019007fcfc9
composer
387
False
Spoleto Festival USA is a counterpart to what Italian festival?
57303b64a23a5019007fcfca
Festival dei Due Mondi
461
False
What major award did Gian Carlo Menotti win?
57303b64a23a5019007fcfcb
Pulitzer Prize
364
False
spring
267
What season isn't Spoleto Festival USA held?
5ad420e3604f3c001a40071f
True
1977
356
What year was Spoleto Festival UK founded?
5ad420e3604f3c001a400720
True
Festival dei Due Mondi
461
Spoleto Festival Uk is a counterpart to what Italian festival?
5ad420e3604f3c001a400722
True
Pulitzer Prize
364
What minor award did Gian Carlo Menotti win?
5ad420e3604f3c001a400723
True
Charleston is known for its unique culture, which blends traditional Southern U.S., English, French, and West African elements. The downtown peninsula has gained a reputation for its art, music, local cuisine, and fashion. Spoleto Festival USA, held annually in late spring, has become one of the world's major performing arts festivals. It was founded in 1977 by Pulitzer Prize-winning composer Gian Carlo Menotti, who sought to establish a counterpart to the Festival dei Due Mondi (the Festival of Two Worlds) in Spoleto, Italy.
What is Charleston's oldest community theater group?
57303fb704bcaa1900d77403
the Footlight Players
45
False
The Footlight Players  started creating theatrical productions in what year?
57303fb704bcaa1900d77404
1931
110
False
Where is the  annual Charleston Fashion week held?
57303fb704bcaa1900d77405
Marion Square
250
False
Charleston is known for what type of food?
57303fb704bcaa1900d77406
seafood
368
False
Charleston cuisine is influenced by what two cultures?
57303fb704bcaa1900d77407
British and French
711
False
the Footlight Players
45
What is Charleston's newest community theater group?
5ad4212d604f3c001a400745
True
1931
110
The Footlight Players stopped creating theatrical productions in what year?
5ad4212d604f3c001a400746
True
Marion Square
250
Where is the annual Charleston Fashion month held?
5ad4212d604f3c001a400747
True
seafood
368
Charleston is unknown for what type of food?
5ad4212d604f3c001a400748
True
British and French
711
Charleston cuisine is uninfluenced by what two cultures?
5ad4212d604f3c001a400749
True
Charleston's oldest community theater group, the Footlight Players, has provided theatrical productions since 1931. A variety of performing arts venues includes the historic Dock Street Theatre. The annual Charleston Fashion Week held each spring in Marion Square brings in designers, journalists, and clients from across the nation. Charleston is known for its local seafood, which plays a key role in the city's renowned cuisine, comprising staple dishes such as gumbo, she-crab soup, fried oysters, Lowcountry boil, deviled crab cakes, red rice, and shrimp and grits. Rice is the staple in many dishes, reflecting the rice culture of the Low Country. The cuisine in Charleston is also strongly influenced by British and French elements.
"Charleston's Provincialisms" was published in what year?
57304155a23a5019007fd015
1887
455
False
Who was the author of the work entitled, "The Huguenot Element in Charleston's Provincialisms"?
57304155a23a5019007fd016
Sylvester Primer
307
False
To which college did Sylvester Primer belong?
57304155a23a5019007fd017
College of Charleston
331
False
To which two early cultures are the unique characteristics of Charleston's accent attributed to?
57304155a23a5019007fd018
French Huguenots and Sephardic Jews
1089
False
What type of journal were Primer's work on Charleston's accent published?
57304155a23a5019007fd019
German journal
536
False
1887
455
"Charleston's Provincialisms" wasn't published in what year?
5ad42188604f3c001a40076b
True
Sylvester Primer
307
Who wasn't the author of the work entitled, "The Huguenot Element in Charleston's Provincialisms"?
5ad42188604f3c001a40076c
True
College of Charleston
331
To which college didn't Sylvester Primer belong?
5ad42188604f3c001a40076d
True
French Huguenots and Sephardic Jews
1089
To which three early cultures are the unique characteristics of Charleston's accent attributed to?
5ad42188604f3c001a40076e
True
German journal
536
What type of journal were Primer's work on Charleston's accent unpublished?
5ad42188604f3c001a40076f
True
The traditional Charleston accent has long been noted in the state and throughout the South. It is typically heard in wealthy white families who trace their families back generations in the city. It has ingliding or monophthongal long mid-vowels, raises ay and aw in certain environments, and is nonrhotic. Sylvester Primer of the College of Charleston wrote about aspects of the local dialect in his late 19th-century works: "Charleston Provincialisms" (1887)  and "The Huguenot Element in Charleston's Provincialisms", published in a German journal. He believed the accent was based on the English as it was spoken by the earliest settlers, therefore derived from Elizabethan England and preserved with modifications by Charleston speakers. The rapidly disappearing "Charleston accent" is still noted in the local pronunciation of the city's name. Some elderly (and usually upper-class) Charleston natives ignore the 'r' and elongate the first vowel, pronouncing the name as "Chah-l-ston". Some observers attribute these unique features of Charleston's speech to its early settlement by French Huguenots and Sephardic Jews (who were primarily English speakers from London), both of whom played influential roles in Charleston's early development and history.[citation needed]
How many days does the Spoleto Festival USA run each year?
57304279947a6a140053d372
17
80
False
What kind of festival is Spoleto Festival USA?
57304279947a6a140053d373
art festival
87
False
The Holiday Festival of Lights are held where?
57304279947a6a140053d374
James Island County Park
844
False
About how many performances are there in the Spoleto Festival USA?
57304279947a6a140053d375
over 100 performances
110
False
Who founded the Spoleto Festival USA?
57304279947a6a140053d376
Gian Carlo Menotti
58
False
17
80
How many days does the Spoleto Festival UK run each year?
5ad421e5604f3c001a400789
True
art festival
87
What kind of festival is Spoleto Festival UK?
5ad421e5604f3c001a40078a
True
James Island County Park
844
The Holiday Festival of Lights aren't held where?
5ad421e5604f3c001a40078b
True
over 100 performances
110
About how many performances are there in the Spoleto Festival UK?
5ad421e5604f3c001a40078c
True
Gian Carlo Menotti
58
Who founded the Spoleto Festival UK?
5ad421e5604f3c001a40078d
True
Charleston annually hosts Spoleto Festival USA founded by Gian Carlo Menotti, a 17-day art festival featuring over 100 performances by individual artists in a variety of disciplines. The Spoleto Festival is internationally recognized as America's premier performing arts festival. The annual Piccolo Spoleto festival takes place at the same time and features local performers and artists, with hundreds of performances throughout the city. Other festivals and events include Historic Charleston Foundation's Festival of Houses and Gardens and Charleston Antiques Show, the Taste of Charleston, The Lowcountry Oyster Festival, the Cooper River Bridge Run, The Charleston Marathon, Southeastern Wildlife Exposition (SEWE), Charleston Food and Wine Festival, Charleston Fashion Week, the MOJA Arts Festival, and the Holiday Festival of Lights (at James Island County Park), and the Charleston International Film Festival.
Who wrote the "Charleston"?
5730437cb2c2fd1400568b25
Chris Smith
653
False
What decade was the Charleston dance popular nationally?
5730437cb2c2fd1400568b26
1920s
526
False
Who created the song "Charleston Rag"?
5730437cb2c2fd1400568b27
Eubie Blake
392
False
Which Charleston community had a large influence on jazz music?
5730437cb2c2fd1400568b28
the Gullah community
49
False
Geechee dances are associated with the music of what type of worker?
5730437cb2c2fd1400568b29
dock workers
333
False
Chris Smith
653
Who never wrote the "Charleston"?
5ad4222e604f3c001a4007af
True
1920s
526
What decade wasn't the Charleston dance popular nationally?
5ad4222e604f3c001a4007b0
True
Eubie Blake
392
Who hated the song "Charleston Rag"?
5ad4222e604f3c001a4007b1
True
the Gullah community
49
Which Charleston community had a small influence on jazz music?
5ad4222e604f3c001a4007b2
True
dock workers
333
Geechee dances aren't associated with the music of what type of worker?
5ad4222e604f3c001a4007b3
True
As it has on every aspect of Charleston culture, the Gullah community has had a tremendous influence on music in Charleston, especially when it comes to the early development of jazz music. In turn, the music of Charleston has had an influence on that of the rest of the country. The geechee dances that accompanied the music of the dock workers in Charleston followed a rhythm that inspired Eubie Blake's "Charleston Rag" and later James P. Johnson's "The Charleston", as well as the dance craze that defined a nation in the 1920s. "Ballin' the Jack", which was a popular dance in the years before "The Charleston", was written by native Charlestonian Chris Smith.
What year was the Jenkins Orphanage created?
573044a204bcaa1900d7743f
1891
41
False
What Charleston Reverend established the Jenkins Orphanage?
573044a204bcaa1900d77440
Daniel J. Jenkins
58
False
What type of donations did the Jerkins Orphanage accept?
573044a204bcaa1900d77441
donations of musical instruments
114
False
Whose graduates tutored many boys from the Jenkins Orphanage?
573044a204bcaa1900d77442
Avery Institute Graduates
201
False
What city was Louis Armstrong from?
573044a204bcaa1900d77443
New Orleans
843
False
1891
41
What year was the Jenkins Orphanage closed?
5ad4228c604f3c001a4007cd
True
Daniel J. Jenkins
58
What Charleston Reverend closed the Jenkins Orphanage?
5ad4228c604f3c001a4007ce
True
donations of musical instruments
114
What type of donations did the Jerkins Orphanage reject?
5ad4228c604f3c001a4007cf
True
Avery Institute Graduates
201
Whose graduates tutored many girls from the Jenkins Orphanage?
5ad4228c604f3c001a4007d0
True
New Orleans
843
What city wasn't Louis Armstrong from?
5ad4228c604f3c001a4007d1
True
The Jenkins Orphanage was established in 1891 by the Rev. Daniel J. Jenkins in Charleston. The orphanage accepted donations of musical instruments and Rev. Jenkins hired local Charleston musicians and Avery Institute Graduates to tutor the boys in music. As a result, Charleston musicians became proficient on a variety of instruments and were able to read music expertly. These traits set Jenkins musicians apart and helped land some of them positions in big bands with Duke Ellington and Count Basie. William "Cat" Anderson, Jabbo Smith, and Freddie Green are but a few of the alumni from the Jenkins Orphanage band who became professional musicians in some of the best bands of the day. Orphanages around the country began to develop brass bands in the wake of the Jenkins Orphanage Band's success. At the Colored Waif's Home Brass Band in New Orleans, for example, a young trumpeter named Louis Armstrong first began to draw attention.
What other president did the Jenkins Orphanage play for other than Taft?
5730462ba23a5019007fd043
Theodore Roosevelt
126
False
What play did the Jenkins Orphanage band play for on Broadway ?
5730462ba23a5019007fd044
Porgy
240
False
What was the name of the "folk opera" based on 'Porgy'?
5730462ba23a5019007fd045
Porgy and Bess
824
False
Where did Gershwin and Heyward write their folk opera?
5730462ba23a5019007fd046
Folly Beach outside of Charleston
740
False
When did Gershwin and Heyward write their folk opera?
5730462ba23a5019007fd047
summer of 1934
722
False
Theodore Roosevelt
126
What other president didn't the Jenkins Orphanage play for other than Taft?
5ad422d4604f3c001a4007ef
True
Porgy
240
What play didn't the Jenkins Orphanage band play for on Broadway ?
5ad422d4604f3c001a4007f0
True
Porgy and Bess
619
What wasn't the name of the "folk opera" based on 'Porgy'?
5ad422d4604f3c001a4007f1
True
Folly Beach outside of Charleston
740
Where did Gershwin and Heyward read their folk opera?
5ad422d4604f3c001a4007f2
True
summer of 1934
722
When did Gershwin and Heyward read their folk opera?
5ad422d4604f3c001a4007f3
True
As many as five bands were on tour during the 1920s. The Jenkins Orphanage Band played in the inaugural parades of Presidents Theodore Roosevelt and William Taft and toured the USA and Europe. The band also played on Broadway for the play "Porgy" by DuBose and Dorothy Heyward, a stage version of their novel of the same title. The story was based in Charleston and featured the Gullah community. The Heywards insisted on hiring the real Jenkins Orphanage Band to portray themselves on stage. Only a few years later, DuBose Heyward collaborated with George and Ira Gershwin to turn his novel into the now famous opera, Porgy and Bess (so named so as to distinguish it from the play). George Gershwin and Heyward spent the summer of 1934 at Folly Beach outside of Charleston writing this "folk opera", as Gershwin called it. Porgy and Bess is considered the Great American Opera[citation needed] and is widely performed.
How many companies are there in the City of Charleston Fire Department?
573046f904bcaa1900d7745b
19
115
False
How many full time firefighters do Charleston have?
573046f904bcaa1900d7745c
300
53
False
Who was the Fire Chief until June 2008?
573046f904bcaa1900d7745d
Russell (Rusty) Thomas
449
False
Who became the Fire Chief in November 2008?
573046f904bcaa1900d7745e
Chief Thomas Carr
531
False
How many tower companies does the fire department have?
573046f904bcaa1900d7745f
two
178
False
19
115
How many companies aren't there in the City of Charleston Fire Department?
5ad4231b604f3c001a40080f
True
300
53
How many part time firefighters do Charleston have?
5ad4231b604f3c001a400810
True
Russell (Rusty) Thomas
449
Who was the Fire Chief until June 2009?
5ad4231b604f3c001a400811
True
Chief Thomas Carr
531
Who became the Fire Chief in November 2009?
5ad4231b604f3c001a400812
True
two
178
How many tower companies doesn't the fire department have?
5ad4231b604f3c001a400813
True
The City of Charleston Fire Department consists over 300 full-time firefighters. These firefighters operate out of 19 companies located throughout the city: 16 engine companies, two tower companies, and one ladder company. Training, Fire Marshall, Operations, and Administration are the divisions of the department. The department operates on a 24/48 schedule and had a Class 1 ISO rating until late 2008, when ISO officially lowered it to Class 3. Russell (Rusty) Thomas served as Fire Chief until June 2008, and was succeeded by Chief Thomas Carr in November 2008.
What is the largest police department of South Carolina?
5730483ea23a5019007fd067
The City of Charleston Police Department
0
False
How many reserve police officers do the Charleston Police Department have?
5730483ea23a5019007fd068
27
97
False
How many civilians serve on the Charleston Police Department?
5730483ea23a5019007fd069
137
78
False
Who is the current Chief of the Charleston Police Department?
5730483ea23a5019007fd06a
Greg Mullen
453
False
What year did Reuben Greenberg retire as Chief of Charleston Police Department?
5730483ea23a5019007fd06b
2005
687
False
The City of Charleston Police Department
0
What is the smallest police department of South Carolina?
5ad4237b604f3c001a400837
True
27
97
How many reserve police officers don't the Charleston Police Department have?
5ad4237b604f3c001a400838
True
137
78
How many civilians don't serve on the Charleston Police Department?
5ad4237b604f3c001a400839
True
Greg Mullen
453
Who is the former Chief of the Charleston Police Department?
5ad4237b604f3c001a40083a
True
2005
687
What year did Reuben Greenberg unretire as Chief of Charleston Police Department?
5ad4237b604f3c001a40083b
True
The City of Charleston Police Department, with a total of 452 sworn officers, 137 civilians, and 27 reserve police officers, is South Carolina's largest police department. Their procedures on cracking down on drug use and gang violence in the city are used as models to other cities to do the same.[citation needed] According to the final 2005 FBI Crime Reports, Charleston crime level is worse than the national average in almost every major category. Greg Mullen, the former Deputy Chief of the Virginia Beach, Virginia Police Department, serves as the current Chief of the Charleston Police Department. The former Charleston police chief was Reuben Greenberg, who resigned August 12, 2005. Greenberg was credited with creating a polite police force that kept police brutality well in check, even as it developed a visible presence in community policing and a significant reduction in crime rates.
What is the state's first school of medicine?
57304973947a6a140053d3ae
Medical University of South Carolina Medical Center
146
False
Where is East Cooper Regional Medical Center?
57304973947a6a140053d3af
Mount Pleasant
904
False
Where is the Trident Regional Medical Center is located?
57304973947a6a140053d3b0
City of North Charleston
828
False
Bon Secours-St Francis Xavier Hospital is located at what portion of the city?
57304973947a6a140053d3b1
West Ashley portion
704
False
What medical district is experiencing growth in biotechnology and medical research field?
57304973947a6a140053d3b2
The downtown medical district
437
False
Medical University of South Carolina Medical Center
146
What is the state's last school of medicine?
5ad423d8604f3c001a40085d
True
Mount Pleasant
904
Where is West Cooper Regional Medical Center?
5ad423d8604f3c001a40085e
True
City of North Charleston
828
Where isn't the Trident Regional Medical Center located?
5ad423d8604f3c001a40085f
True
West Ashley portion
704
Bon Secours-St Francis Xavier Hospital isn't located at what portion of the city?
5ad423d8604f3c001a400860
True
The downtown medical district
437
What medical district is experiencing decline in biotechnology and medical research field?
5ad423d8604f3c001a400861
True
Charleston is the primary medical center for the eastern portion of the state. The city has several major hospitals located in the downtown area: Medical University of South Carolina Medical Center (MUSC), Ralph H. Johnson VA Medical Center, and Roper Hospital. MUSC is the state's first school of medicine, the largest medical university in the state, and the sixth-oldest continually operating school of medicine in the United States. The downtown medical district is experiencing rapid growth of biotechnology and medical research industries coupled with substantial expansions of all the major hospitals. Additionally, more expansions are planned or underway at another major hospital located in the West Ashley portion of the city: Bon Secours-St Francis Xavier Hospital. The Trident Regional Medical Center located in the City of North Charleston and East Cooper Regional Medical Center located in Mount Pleasant also serve the needs of residents of the city of Charleston.
What airport provides service to the City to Charleston?
57304a9c8ab72b1400f9c3ea
Charleston International Airport
40
False
The Charleston International Airport is located in what city?
57304a9c8ab72b1400f9c3eb
North Charleston
103
False
How far is the airport from downtown Charleston?
57304a9c8ab72b1400f9c3ec
12 miles (20 km)
133
False
Charleston Executive Airport is located where?
57304a9c8ab72b1400f9c3ed
the John's Island section of the city of Charleston
396
False
What military base is located near the airport?
57304a9c8ab72b1400f9c3ee
Charleston Air Force Base
308
False
Charleston International Airport
40
What airport provides no service to the City to Charleston?
5ad42425604f3c001a400881
True
North Charleston
103
The Charleston International Airport isn't located in what city?
5ad42425604f3c001a400882
True
12 miles (20 km)
133
How far is the airport from uptown Charleston?
5ad42425604f3c001a400883
True
the John's Island section of the city of Charleston
396
Charleston Executive Airport isn't located where?
5ad42425604f3c001a400884
True
Charleston Air Force Base
308
What military base is located nowhere near the airport?
5ad42425604f3c001a400885
True
The City of Charleston is served by the Charleston International Airport. It is located in the City of North Charleston and is about 12 miles (20 km) northwest of downtown Charleston. It is the busiest passenger airport in South Carolina (IATA: CHS, ICAO: KCHS). The airport shares runways with the adjacent Charleston Air Force Base. Charleston Executive Airport is a smaller airport located in the John's Island section of the city of Charleston and is used by noncommercial aircraft. Both airports are owned and operated by the Charleston County Aviation Authority.
What area in Charleston is considered the 'industrial area'?
57304b80069b531400832009
the city's Neck area
715
False
What highways is King Street in downtown Charleston?
57304b80069b53140083200a
U.S. Highway 78
759
False
U.S. Highway 78 merges with what street?
57304b80069b53140083200b
Meeting Street
836
False
Interstate 526 begins and ends at what Highway?
57304b80069b53140083200c
U.S. Highway 17
533
False
Interstate 26 begins on what part of Charleston?
57304b80069b53140083200d
downtown Charleston
24
False
the city's Neck area
715
What area in Charleston isn't considered the 'industrial area'?
5ad42479604f3c001a40089d
True
U.S. Highway 78
759
What highways is King Street in uptown Charleston?
5ad42479604f3c001a40089e
True
Meeting Street.
836
U.S. Highway 87 merges with what street?
5ad42479604f3c001a40089f
True
U.S. Highway 17
533
Interstate 562 begins and ends at what Highway?
5ad42479604f3c001a4008a0
True
downtown Charleston
24
Interstate 62 begins on what part of Charleston?
5ad42479604f3c001a4008a1
True
Interstate 26 begins in downtown Charleston, with exits to the Septima Clark Expressway, the Arthur Ravenel, Jr. Bridge and Meeting Street. Heading northwest, it connects the city to North Charleston, the Charleston International Airport, Interstate 95, and Columbia. The Arthur Ravenel, Jr. Bridge and Septima Clark Expressway are part of U.S. Highway 17, which travels east-west through the cities of Charleston and Mount Pleasant. The Mark Clark Expressway, or Interstate 526, is the bypass around the city and begins and ends at U.S. Highway 17. U.S. Highway 52 is Meeting Street and its spur is East Bay Street, which becomes Morrison Drive after leaving the east side. This highway merges with King Street in the city's Neck area (industrial district). U.S. Highway 78 is King Street in the downtown area, eventually merging with Meeting Street.
What year did the Arthur Ravenel Jr. Bridge open?
57304c812461fd1900a9ccfb
2005
73
False
What is linked to downtown Charleston by the bridge?
57304c812461fd1900a9ccfc
Mount Pleasant
209
False
What year was the Grace Memorial Bridge built?
57304c812461fd1900a9ccfd
1929
374
False
What year was the Silas N. Pearman Bridge built?
57304c812461fd1900a9ccfe
1966
422
False
The Arthur Ravenel Jr. Bridge crosses what river?
57304c812461fd1900a9ccff
Cooper River
41
False
2005
73
What year did the Arthur Ravenel Jr. Bridge close?
5ad424b7604f3c001a4008c1
True
Mount Pleasant
209
What is linked to uptown Charleston by the bridge?
5ad424b7604f3c001a4008c2
True
1929
374
What year was the Grace Memorial Bridge closed?
5ad424b7604f3c001a4008c3
True
1966
422
What year was the Silas N. Pearman Bridge destroyed?
5ad424b7604f3c001a4008c4
True
Cooper River
41
The Arthur Ravenel Jr. Bridge never crosses what river?
5ad424b7604f3c001a4008c5
True
The Arthur Ravenel Jr. Bridge across the Cooper River opened on July 16, 2005, and was the second-longest cable-stayed bridge in the Americas at the time of its construction.[citation needed] The bridge links Mount Pleasant with downtown Charleston, and has eight lanes plus a 12-foot lane shared by pedestrians and bicycles. It replaced the Grace Memorial Bridge (built in 1929) and the Silas N. Pearman Bridge (built in 1966). They were considered two of the more dangerous bridges in America and were demolished after the Ravenel Bridge opened.
Some of the oldest private schools in Charleston date back how long?
57304d34069b531400832023
150 years
550
False
The Roman Catholic Diocese of Charleston oversees what kind of schools?
57304d34069b531400832024
K-8 parochial schools
112
False
How old are some of Charleston's private school?
57304e4b069b531400832037
150 years
550
False
Which school is Charleston's diocesan high school?
57304e4b069b531400832038
Bishop England High School
305
False
Which organization oversees several K-8 Parochial Schools?
57304e4b069b531400832039
The Roman Catholic Diocese of Charleston Office of Education
0
False
Bishop England High school , Porter-Gaud School and a what other school is among Charleston's most prominent private schools?
57304e4b069b53140083203a
Ashley Hall
413
False
150 years.
550
Some of the oldest public schools in Charleston date back how long?
5ad42525604f3c001a4008d5
True
K-8 parochial schools
112
The Roman Catholic Diocese of Charleston oversees what kind of hospitals?
5ad42525604f3c001a4008d6
True
150 years
550
How old are some of Charleston's public school?
5ad42525604f3c001a4008d7
True
Bishop England High School
305
Which school isn't Charleston's diocesan high school?
5ad42525604f3c001a4008d8
True
The Roman Catholic Diocese of Charleston Office of Education
0
Which organization oversees several K-9 Parochial Schools?
5ad42525604f3c001a4008d9
True
The Roman Catholic Diocese of Charleston Office of Education also operates out of the city and oversees several K-8 parochial schools, such as Blessed Sacrament School, Christ Our King School, Charleston Catholic School, Nativity School, and Divine Redeemer School, all of which are "feeder" schools into Bishop England High School, a diocesan high school within the city. Bishop England, Porter-Gaud School, and Ashley Hall are the city's oldest and most prominent private schools, and are a significant part of Charleston history, dating back some 150 years.
What is the nation's 13th-oldest university?
57304f4f8ab72b1400f9c424
College of Charleston
66
False
Where is the Art Institute of Charleston located?
57304f4f8ab72b1400f9c425
downtown on North Market Street
701
False
What year did the Art institute of Charleston open?
57304f4f8ab72b1400f9c426
2007
744
False
What Charleston College offers a degree in Building Arts?
57304f4f8ab72b1400f9c427
The American College of the Building Arts
617
False
What Technical college have a campus at downtown Charleston?
57304f4f8ab72b1400f9c428
Trident Technical College
469
False
College of Charleston
66
What is the nation's 12th-oldest university?
5ad42578604f3c001a4008df
True
downtown on North Market Street
701
Where isn't the Art Institute of Charleston located?
5ad42578604f3c001a4008e0
True
2007
744
What year did the Art institute of Charleston close?
5ad42578604f3c001a4008e1
True
The American College of the Building Arts
617
What Charleston College offers no degree in Building Arts?
5ad42578604f3c001a4008e2
True
Trident Technical College
469
What Technical college have a campus at uptown Charleston?
5ad42578604f3c001a4008e3
True
Public institutions of higher education in Charleston include the College of Charleston (the nation's 13th-oldest university), The Citadel, The Military College of South Carolina, and the Medical University of South Carolina. The city is also home to private universities, including the Charleston School of Law . Charleston is also home to the Roper Hospital School of Practical Nursing, and the city has a downtown satellite campus for the region's technical school, Trident Technical College. Charleston is also the location for the only college in the country that offers bachelor's degrees in the building arts, The American College of the Building Arts. The Art Institute of Charleston, located downtown on North Market Street, opened in 2007.
What is the name of Charleston's sister city?
573051b9069b53140083203f
Spoleto
41
False
In what country is Spoleto located?
573051b9069b531400832040
Italy
58
False
Who selected Charleston to host an American version of a festival?
573051b9069b531400832041
Gian Carlo Menotti
156
False
What is the name of festival held in Spoleto?
573051b9069b531400832042
Festival of Two Worlds
256
False
What is the profession of Gian Carlo Menotti?
573051b9069b531400832043
composer
147
False
Spoleto
41
What is the name of Charleston's brother city?
5ad42606604f3c001a400905
True
Italy.
58
In what country isn't Spoleto located?
5ad42606604f3c001a400906
True
Gian Carlo Menotti
156
Who selected Charleston not to host an American version of a festival?
5ad42606604f3c001a400907
True
Festival of Two Worlds
256
What isn't the name of festival held in Spoleto?
5ad42606604f3c001a400908
True
composer
147
What isn't the profession of Gian Carlo Menotti?
5ad42606604f3c001a400909
True
Charleston has one official sister city, Spoleto, Umbria, Italy. The relationship between the two cities began when Pulitzer Prize-winning Italian composer Gian Carlo Menotti selected Charleston as the city to host the American version of Spoleto's annual Festival of Two Worlds. "Looking for a city that would provide the charm of Spoleto, as well as its wealth of theaters, churches, and other performance spaces, they selected Charleston, South Carolina, as the ideal location. The historic city provided a perfect fit: intimate enough that the Festival would captivate the entire city, yet cosmopolitan enough to provide an enthusiastic audience and robust infrastructure."
What year was the Polaris Missile Facility Atlantic station closed?
573051c18ab72b1400f9c45a
1996
333
False
How many nuclear warheads were stored at the Polaris Missile Facility Atlantic station?
573051c18ab72b1400f9c45b
2,500 nuclear warheads
414
False
How many SSBN "Boomer" squadrons were homeported at the Weapons Station?
573051c18ab72b1400f9c45c
Two
124
False
Submarine Squadron 4 is homeported at what type of military base?
573051c18ab72b1400f9c45d
Naval Base
314
False
What type of security force guards the 2500 nuclear warheads?
573051c18ab72b1400f9c45e
a U.S. Marine Corps security force company.
565
False
1996
333
What year was the Polaris Missile Facility Atlantic station opened?
5ad425bd604f3c001a4008f3
True
2,500
414
How many nuclear warheads weren't stored at the Polaris Missile Facility Atlantic station?
5ad425bd604f3c001a4008f4
True
Two
124
How many SSNB "Boomer" squadrons were homeported at the Weapons Station?
5ad425bd604f3c001a4008f5
True
Naval Base
314
Submarine Squadron 3 is homeported at what type of military base?
5ad425bd604f3c001a4008f6
True
a U.S. Marine Corps security force company
565
What type of security force guards the 2600 nuclear warheads?
5ad425bd604f3c001a4008f7
True
During this period, the Weapons Station was the Atlantic Fleet's loadout base for all nuclear ballistic missile submarines. Two SSBN "Boomer" squadrons and a submarine tender were homeported at the Weapons Station, while one SSN attack squadron, Submarine Squadron 4, and a submarine tender were homeported at the Naval Base. At the 1996 closure of the station's Polaris Missile Facility Atlantic (POMFLANT), over 2,500 nuclear warheads and their UGM-27 Polaris, UGM-73 Poseidon, and UGM-96 Trident I delivery missiles (SLBM) were stored and maintained, guarded by a U.S. Marine Corps security force company.
What year did South Carolina pass a law allowing them to repeal Federal Law?
573053c88ab72b1400f9c464
1832
3
False
After South Carolina passed an ordinance of nullification, who was sent to Charleston's forts?
573053c88ab72b1400f9c465
federal soldiers
190
False
After South Carolina passed an ordinance of nullification, who was sent to Charleston Harbor?
573053c88ab72b1400f9c466
five United States Coast Guard cutters
249
False
The federal action of sending soldiers to Charleston in 1832 is known as what?
573053c88ab72b1400f9c467
the Charleston incident
568
False
A compromise law from the state politicans achieved what?
573053c88ab72b1400f9c468
in Washington to gradually reduce the tariffs
644
False
1832
3
What year did North Carolina pass a law allowing them to repeal Federal Law?
5ad41daa604f3c001a4005eb
True
federal soldiers
190
After North Carolina passed an ordinance of nullification, who was sent to Charleston's forts?
5ad41daa604f3c001a4005ec
True
five United States Coast Guard cutters
249
After North Carolina passed an ordinance of nullification, who was sent to Charleston Harbor?
5ad41daa604f3c001a4005ed
True
the Charleston incident
568
The federal action of sending soldiers to Charleston in 1823 is known as what?
5ad41daa604f3c001a4005ee
True
a compromise law in Washington to gradually reduce the tariffs
627
A compromise law from the state politicans never achieved what?
5ad41daa604f3c001a4005ef
True
In 1832, South Carolina passed an ordinance of nullification, a procedure by which a state could, in effect, repeal a federal law; it was directed against the most recent tariff acts. Soon, federal soldiers were dispensed to Charleston's forts, and five United States Coast Guard cutters were detached to Charleston Harbor "to take possession of any vessel arriving from a foreign port, and defend her against any attempt to dispossess the Customs Officers of her custody until all the requirements of law have been complied with." This federal action became known as the Charleston incident. The state's politicians worked on a compromise law in Washington to gradually reduce the tariffs.
What industry depended on the port of Charleston?
573054fb396df91900096088
The slave trade
122
False
Where was  fresh food sold daily in Charleston in 1840?
573054fb396df91900096089
the Market Hall and Sheds
9
False
What year did the legal importation of slaves end?
573054fb396df9190009608a
1808
294
False
The region where cotton plantations were developed was known as what?
573054fb396df9190009608b
Black Belt
564
False
In what era did one million slaves get trade throughout the South?
573054fb396df9190009608c
in the antebellum years
462
False
The slave trade
122
What industry never depended on the port of Charleston?
5ad41dff604f3c001a4005ff
True
the Market Hall and Sheds
9
Where was fresh food sold daily in Charleston in 1804?
5ad41dff604f3c001a400600
True
1808
294
What year did the legal importation of slaves start?
5ad41dff604f3c001a400601
True
Black Belt
564
The region where cotton plantations weren't developed was known as what?
5ad41dff604f3c001a400602
True
in the antebellum years
462
In what era did two million slaves get trade throughout the South?
5ad41dff604f3c001a400603
True
By 1840, the Market Hall and Sheds, where fresh meat and produce were brought daily, became a hub of commercial activity. The slave trade also depended on the port of Charleston, where ships could be unloaded and the slaves bought and sold. The legal importation of African slaves had ended in 1808, although smuggling was significant. However, the domestic trade was booming. More than one million slaves were transported from the Upper South to the Deep South in the antebellum years, as cotton plantations were widely developed through what became known as the Black Belt. Many slaves were transported in the coastwise slave trade, with slave ships stopping at ports such as Charleston.
What percentage of those elected from 1868 to 1876 were Freemen?
5730564e396df91900096092
26%
465
False
Freeman became the leaders of what party in Charleston?
5730564e396df91900096093
postwar Republican Party
356
False
What else did freed slaves face in postwar Charleston besides discrimination?
5730564e396df91900096094
poverty
199
False
For what did the Federal forces remain in Charleston?
5730564e396df91900096095
city's reconstruction
86
False
Which side was defeated in the war before Reconstruction?
5730564e396df91900096096
Confederacy
24
False
26%
465
What percentage of those elected from 1868 to 1886 were Freemen?
5ad41e4e604f3c001a40062d
True
postwar Republican Party
356
Freeman never became the leaders of what party in Charleston?
5ad41e4e604f3c001a40062e
True
poverty
199
What else did freed slaves face in prewar Charleston besides discrimination?
5ad41e4e604f3c001a40062f
True
city's reconstruction
86
For what did the Federal forces leave Charleston?
5ad41e4e604f3c001a400630
True
Confederacy
24
Which side was defeated in the war after Reconstruction?
5ad41e4e604f3c001a400631
True
After the defeat of the Confederacy, federal forces remained in Charleston during the city's reconstruction. The war had shattered the prosperity of the antebellum city. Freed slaves were faced with poverty and discrimination, but a large community of free people of color had been well-established in the city before the war and became the leaders of the postwar Republican Party and its legislators. Men who had been free people of color before the war comprised 26% of those elected to state and federal office in South Carolina from 1868 to 1876.
The_Blitz
What was the beginning date of the aerial raids on Great Britain?
572e8b8fc246551400ce4320
7 September 1940
8
False
How many days did the aerial raids on Great Britain last?
572e8b8fc246551400ce4321
267 days
147
False
How many times was London attacked?
572e8b8fc246551400ce4322
71 times
177
False
Who was the UK Prime Minster at the time of the aerial raids?
572e8b8fc246551400ce4323
Winston Churchill
596
False
What city did Winston Churchill bomb in retaliation for the killing of civilians?
572e8b8fc246551400ce4324
Berlin
639
False
Between 7 September 1940 and 21 May 1941, 16 British cities suffered aerial raids with at least 100 long tons of high explosives. Over a period of 267 days, London was attacked 71 times, Birmingham, Liverpool and Plymouth eight times, Bristol six, Glasgow five, Southampton four, Portsmouth and Hull three and a minimum of one large raid on eight other cities. This was a result of a rapid escalation starting on 24 August 1940, when night bombers aiming for RAF airfields drifted off course and accidentally destroyed several London homes, killing civilians, combined with the UK Prime Minister Winston Churchill's retaliatory bombing of Berlin on the following night.[clarification needed]
How many nights did the Luftwaffe bomb London?
572e8d9adfa6aa1500f8d115
57 consecutive nights
85
False
What north sea port was the secondary target for bombers that could not find their primary target?
572e8d9adfa6aa1500f8d116
Sea port of Hull
442
False
How many homes in London were destroyed in London?
572e8d9adfa6aa1500f8d117
More than one million
108
False
How many people were killed in Liverpool?
572e8d9adfa6aa1500f8d118
nearly 4,000 deaths
369
False
Which city centre was destroyed?
572e8d9adfa6aa1500f8d119
Coventry
1103
False
From 7 September 1940, one year into the war, London was bombed by the Luftwaffe for 57 consecutive nights. More than one million London houses were destroyed or damaged and more than 40,000 civilians were killed, almost half of them in London. Ports and industrial centres outside London were also attacked. The main Atlantic sea port of Liverpool was bombed, causing nearly 4,000 deaths within the Merseyside area during the war. The North Sea port of Hull, a convenient and easily found target or secondary target for bombers unable to locate their primary targets, was subjected to 86 raids in the Hull Blitz during the war, with a conservative estimate of 1,200 civilians killed and 95 percent of its housing stock destroyed or damaged. Other ports including Bristol, Cardiff, Portsmouth, Plymouth, Southampton and Swansea were also bombed, as were the industrial cities of Birmingham, Belfast, Coventry, Glasgow, Manchester and Sheffield. Birmingham and Coventry were chosen because of the Spitfire and tank factories in Birmingham and the many munitions factories in Coventry. The city centre of Coventry was almost destroyed, as was Coventry Cathedral.
What was the name of the Luftwaffe plan to invade Britain?
572edc20c246551400ce474a
Operation Sea Lion
332
False
How many people died in the bombing of Hamburg?
572edc20c246551400ce474b
42,000
714
False
What was the date of the bombing of Hamburg?
572edc20c246551400ce474c
July 1943
689
False
Who was the leader of the Luftwaffe?
572edc20c246551400ce474d
Hitler
471
False
The bombing failed to demoralise the British into surrender or significantly damage the war economy. The eight months of bombing never seriously hampered British production and the war industries continued to operate and expand. The Blitz was only authorised when the Luftwaffe had failed to meet preconditions for a 1940 launch of Operation Sea Lion, the provisionally planned German invasion of Britain. By May 1941 the threat of an invasion of Britain had passed, and Hitler's attention had turned to Operation Barbarossa in the East. In comparison to the later Allied bombing campaign against Germany, the Blitz resulted in relatively few casualties; the British bombing of Hamburg in July 1943 inflicted some 42,000 civilian deaths, about the same as the entire Blitz.
In the 1920's and 30's to theorist thought wars could be won by air forces what were their names?
572eddf0cb0c0d14000f1640
Giulio Douhet and Billy Mitchell
44
False
Bombing of civilian's was believed to cause what?
572eddf0cb0c0d14000f1641
collapse of civilian will
470
False
What kind of populace was believed to be most vulnerable?
572eddf0cb0c0d14000f1642
Democracies
564
False
What does USAAC stand for?
572eddf0cb0c0d14000f1643
United States Army Air Corps
773
False
What kind of bombing raids were most favored?
572eddf0cb0c0d14000f1644
night
255
False
In the 1920s and 1930s, air power theorists Giulio Douhet and Billy Mitchell espoused the idea that air forces could win wars by themselves, without a need for land and sea fighting. It was thought there was no defence against air attack, particularly at night. Enemy industry, their seats of government, factories and communications could be destroyed, effectively taking away their means to resist. It was also thought the bombing of residential centres would cause a collapse of civilian will, which might have led to the collapse of production and civil life. Democracies, where the populace was allowed to show overt disapproval of the ruling government, were thought particularly vulnerable. This thinking was prevalent in both the RAF and what was then known as the United States Army Air Corps (USAAC) between the two world wars. RAF Bomber Command's policy in particular would attempt to achieve victory through the destruction of civilian will, communications and industry.
Who believe air power alone would not be decisive?
572edf54dfa6aa1500f8d489
Luftwaffe
11
False
What was the name of the Luftwaffe's bombing raids?
572edf54dfa6aa1500f8d48a
terror bombing
473
False
What year did the terror bombing policy become official?
572edf54dfa6aa1500f8d48b
1942
619
False
Within the Luftwaffe, there was a more muted view of strategic bombing. The OKL did not oppose the strategic bombardment of enemy industries and or cities, and believed it could greatly affect the balance of power on the battlefield in Germany's favour by disrupting production and damaging civilian morale, but they did not believe that air power alone could be decisive. Contrary to popular belief, the Luftwaffe did not have a systematic policy of what became known as "terror bombing". Evidence suggests that the Luftwaffe did not adopt an official bombing policy in which civilians became the primary target until 1942.
Who said the Luftwaffe General Staff should be taught grand strategy?
572f58c5b2c2fd1400568053
Wever
0
False
What is the mentality of potential opponents also known as?
572f58c5b2c2fd1400568054
mirror imaging
258
False
What did the Air Academies not focus on?
572f58c5b2c2fd1400568055
independent strategic air offensives
468
False
What army does the general staff belong to?
572f58c5b2c2fd1400568056
the Luftwaffe
18
False
Wever argued that the Luftwaffe General Staff should not be solely educated in tactical and operational matters. He argued they should be educated in grand strategy, war economics, armament production, and the mentality of potential opponents (also known as mirror imaging). Wever's vision was not realised; the General Staff studies in those subjects fell by the wayside, and the Air Academies focused on tactics, technology, and operational planning, rather than on independent strategic air offensives.
How did Wever die?
572f5af4947a6a140053c8b4
air crash
32
False
What year did Wever die?
572f5af4947a6a140053c8b5
1936
3
False
Who took over for Wever after his death?
572f5af4947a6a140053c8b6
Albert Kesselring and Hans-Jürgen Stumpff
173
False
What two men were the most important in ground support?
572f5af4947a6a140053c8b7
Hugo Sperrle and Hans Jeschonnek
450
False
What long time careers were Sperrle and Jeschonnek involved in?
572f5af4947a6a140053c8b8
German air services
541
False
In 1936, Wever was killed in an air crash. The failure to implement his vision for the new Luftwaffe was largely attributable to his immediate successors. Ex-Army personnel Albert Kesselring and Hans-Jürgen Stumpff are usually blamed for the turning away from strategic planning and focusing on close air support. However, it would seem the two most prominent enthusiasts for the focus on ground-support operations (direct or indirect) were actually Hugo Sperrle and Hans Jeschonnek. These men were long-time professional airmen involved in German air services since early in their careers. The Luftwaffe was not pressured into ground support operations because of pressure from the army, or because it was led by ex-army personnel. It was instead a mission that suited the Luftwaffe's existing approach to warfare; a culture of joint inter-service operations, rather than independent strategic air campaigns.
What year was the beginning of enemy bombing first promoted by Hitler?
572f5d5eb2c2fd1400568081
1930s
176
False
Who had skepticism towards strategic bombing?
572f5d5eb2c2fd1400568082
Adolf Hitler
0
False
Why did Hitler feel bombing wasn't working?
572f5d5eb2c2fd1400568083
inability to damage industries
586
False
In 1939 Hitler said bombing of Britain would begin when?
572f5d5eb2c2fd1400568084
the moment was right
405
False
Why did Hitler feel the Luftwaffe was unsuccessful in bombing raids?
572f5d5eb2c2fd1400568085
prescribed targets are not hit
730
False
Adolf Hitler failed to pay as much attention to bombing the enemy as he did to protection from enemy bombing, although he had promoted the development of a bomber force in the 1930s and understood that it was possible to use bombers for major strategic purposes. He told the OKL in 1939 that ruthless employment of the Luftwaffe against the heart of the British will to resist could and would follow when the moment was right; however, he quickly developed a lively scepticism toward strategic bombing, confirmed by the results of the Blitz. He frequently complained of the Luftwaffe's inability to damage industries sufficiently, saying, "The munitions industry cannot be interfered with effectively by air raids ... usually the prescribed targets are not hit".
How did Hitler threaten small nations into accepting German rule?
572f6689b2c2fd14005680d5
air bombardment
188
False
What policy did Hitler hope the bombing of Allies would cause?
572f6689b2c2fd14005680d6
policy of moderation
656
False
What kind of prestige was Hitler hoping for?
572f6689b2c2fd14005680d7
political
758
False
Why did Hitler use terror bombing against Britain?
572f6689b2c2fd14005680d8
to produce a stalemate
1059
False
Ultimately, Hitler was trapped within his own vision of bombing as a terror weapon, formed in the 1930s when he threatened smaller nations into accepting German rule rather than submit to air bombardment. This fact had important implications. It showed the extent to which Hitler personally mistook Allied strategy for one of morale breaking instead of one of economic warfare, with the collapse of morale as an additional bonus. Hitler was much more attracted to the political aspects of bombing. As the mere threat of it had produced diplomatic results in the 1930s, he expected that the threat of German retaliation would persuade the Allies to adopt a policy of moderation and not to begin a policy of unrestricted bombing. His hope was — for reasons of political prestige within Germany itself — that the German population would be protected from the Allied bombings. When this proved impossible, he began to fear that popular feeling would turn against his regime, and he redoubled efforts to mount a similar "terror offensive" against Britain in order to produce a stalemate in which both sides would hesitate to use bombing at all.
Who did Hitler have a conflict over running the air force?
572f6c2ba23a5019007fc5fb
Hermann Göring
53
False
What strategy could have worked against the British Empire?
572f6c2ba23a5019007fc5fc
strangle British sea communications
995
False
Who did Goring refuse to work with in 1940 and 1941?
572f6c2ba23a5019007fc5fd
the Kriegsmarine
907
False
What did the Kriegsmarine try to gain control over?
572f6c2ba23a5019007fc5fe
aircraft
215
False
A major problem in the managing of the Luftwaffe was Hermann Göring. Hitler believed the Luftwaffe was "the most effective strategic weapon", and in reply to repeated requests from the Kriegsmarine for control over aircraft insisted, "We should never have been able to hold our own in this war if we had not had an undivided Luftwaffe". Such principles made it much harder to integrate the air force into the overall strategy and produced in Göring a jealous and damaging defence of his "empire" while removing Hitler voluntarily from the systematic direction of the Luftwaffe at either the strategic or operational level. When Hitler tried to intervene more in the running of the air force later in the war, he was faced with a political conflict of his own making between himself and Göring, which was not fully resolved until the war was almost over. In 1940 and 1941, Göring's refusal to cooperate with the Kriegsmarine denied the entire Wehrmacht military forces of the Reich the chance to strangle British sea communications, which might have had strategic or decisive effect in the war against the British Empire.
What was the major cause of the separation between the Luftwaffe and the other military structure?
572f6e82947a6a140053c94a
communications gap
120
False
What did Goring do because of his fear of Hitler?
572f6e82947a6a140053c94b
misrepresent what information
277
False
What year did Goring display the Luftwaffe's advanced equipment?
572f6e82947a6a140053c94c
1939
637
False
In what city did Goring display the advance equipment?
572f6e82947a6a140053c94d
Rechlin
715
False
Who's bombing program did Goring abandon in 1939?
572f6e82947a6a140053c94e
Wever
446
False
The deliberate separation of the Luftwaffe from the rest of the military structure encouraged the emergence of a major "communications gap" between Hitler and the Luftwaffe, which other factors helped to exacerbate. For one thing, Göring's fear of Hitler led him to falsify or misrepresent what information was available in the direction of an uncritical and over-optimistic interpretation of air strength. When Göring decided against continuing Wever's original heavy bomber programme in 1937, the Reichsmarschall's own explanation was that Hitler wanted to know only how many bombers there were, not how many engines each had. In July 1939, Göring arranged a display of the Luftwaffe's most advanced equipment at Rechlin, to give the impression the air force was more prepared for a strategic air war than was actually the case.
Which two countries declared war on Germany on September 3 1939?
572f709d947a6a140053c966
UK and France
20
False
The RAF bombed what Germany coast?
572f709d947a6a140053c967
Wilhelmshaven
137
False
What kind of leaflets were dropped?
572f709d947a6a140053c968
propaganda
218
False
What were the RAF operations trying to lessen?
572f709d947a6a140053c969
civilian casualties
280
False
What year did the Luftwaffe destroy Rotterdam center?
572f709d947a6a140053c96a
1940
313
False
Within hours of the UK and France declaring war on Germany on 3 September 1939, the RAF bombed German warships along the German coast at Wilhelmshaven. Thereafter bombing operations were against ports and shipping and propaganda leaflet drops. Operations were planned to minimize civilian casualties. From 15 May 1940 – the day after the Luftwaffe destroyed the centre of Rotterdam – the RAF also carried out operations east of the Rhine, attacking industrial and transportation targets. Operations were carried out every night thereafter.
Which tactics were the Luftwaffe excepted to use against Britain?
572f785e04bcaa1900d769bf
air operations
68
False
Why did the Luftwaffe bomb the RAF Fighter Command?
572f785e04bcaa1900d769c0
to gain air superiority
228
False
What was the name of the Channel the Luftwaffe bomb to try to gain air superiority?
572f785e04bcaa1900d769c1
English
307
False
Which Navy was assumed not to be able to operate under German air superiority?
572f785e04bcaa1900d769c2
Royal
557
False
Although not specifically prepared to conduct independent strategic air operations against an opponent, the Luftwaffe was expected to do so over Britain. From July until September 1940 the Luftwaffe attacked RAF Fighter Command to gain air superiority as a prelude to invasion. This involved the bombing of English Channel convoys, ports, and RAF airfields and supporting industries. Destroying RAF Fighter Command would allow the Germans to gain control of the skies over the invasion area. It was supposed that Bomber Command, RAF Coastal Command and the Royal Navy could not operate under conditions of German air superiority.
Why did the Luftwaffe fail to locate their targets?
572f7ac2b2c2fd1400568169
poor intelligence
16
False
Britain's  fabrication  of fighter planes out paced Germany by what margin?
572f7ac2b2c2fd140056816a
2 to 1
269
False
How many aircraft did Britain produce in 1940?
572f7ac2b2c2fd140056816b
10,000
298
False
What did German crew members face if they were shot down over Britain?
572f7ac2b2c2fd140056816c
capture
740
False
How big was the crew of a bomber?
572f7ac2b2c2fd140056816d
four to five crewmen
771
False
The Luftwaffe's poor intelligence meant that their aircraft were not always able to locate their targets, and thus attacks on factories and airfields failed to achieve the desired results. British fighter aircraft production continued at a rate surpassing Germany's by 2 to 1. The British produced 10,000 aircraft in 1940, in comparison to Germany's 8,000. The replacement of pilots and aircrew was more difficult. Both the RAF and Luftwaffe struggled to replace manpower losses, though the Germans had larger reserves of trained aircrew. The circumstances affected the Germans more than the British. Operating over home territory, British flyers could fly again if they survived being shot down. German crews, even if they survived, faced capture. Moreover, bombers had four to five crewmen on board, representing a greater loss of manpower. On 7 September, the Germans shifted away from the destruction of the RAF's supporting structures. German intelligence suggested Fighter Command was weakening, and an attack on London would force it into a final battle of annihilation while compelling the British Government to surrender.
What does OKL stand for?
572f8332b2c2fd140056819b
Oberkommando der Luftwaffe
79
False
What month would the weather window begin to decline?
572f8332b2c2fd140056819c
October
542
False
If serious loss had happened to the RAF where might they have pulled out of?
572f8332b2c2fd140056819d
the north
630
False
What is the German name of Operation Sea Lion?
572f8332b2c2fd140056819e
Unternehmen Seelöwe
927
False
Who had exponential larger naval forces?
572f8332b2c2fd140056819f
British naval forces
813
False
The decision to change strategy is sometimes claimed as a major mistake by the Oberkommando der Luftwaffe (OKL). It is argued that persisting with attacks on RAF airfields might have won air superiority for the Luftwaffe. Others argue that the Luftwaffe made little impression on Fighter Command in the last week of August and first week of September and that the shift in strategy was not decisive. It has also been argued that it was doubtful the Luftwaffe could have won air superiority before the "weather window" began to deteriorate in October. It was also possible, if RAF losses became severe, that they could pull out to the north, wait for the German invasion, then redeploy southward again. Other historians argue that the outcome of the air battle was irrelevant; the massive numerical superiority of British naval forces and the inherent weakness of the Kriegsmarine would have made the projected German invasion, Unternehmen Seelöwe (Operation Sea Lion), a disaster with or without German air superiority.
The Luftwaffe air fleets were taking what kind of losses?
572f867ba23a5019007fc6e5
punishing
218
False
What did the punishing losses to the air fleet cause the Luftwaffe to do?
572f867ba23a5019007fc6e6
change in strategy
259
False
What kind of strategy did the Luftwaffe use to give their bombers better protection?
572f867ba23a5019007fc6e7
cover of darkness
413
False
What city did Hitler give a speech where he said he would erase British cities?
572f867ba23a5019007fc6e8
Sportspalast
481
False
In what year did Hitler give the speech at Sportspalast?
572f867ba23a5019007fc6e9
1940
450
False
Regardless of the ability of the Luftwaffe to win air superiority, Adolf Hitler was frustrated that it was not happening quickly enough. With no sign of the RAF weakening, and Luftwaffe air fleets (Luftflotten) taking punishing losses, the OKL was keen for a change in strategy. To reduce losses further, a change in strategy was also favoured to take place at night, to give the bombers greater protection under cover of darkness.[b] On 4 September 1940, in a long address at the Sportspalast, Hitler declared: "And should the Royal Air Force drop two thousand, or three thousand [kilograms ...] then we will now drop [...] 300,000, 400,000, yes one million kilograms in a single night. And should they declare they will greatly increase their attacks on our cities, then we will erase their cities."
Which British city did the Luftwaffe focus its bombing on?
572f8892b2c2fd14005681c5
London
155
False
What was the name of the large air raid that took place in daylight hours in Britain?
572f8892b2c2fd14005681c6
Battle of Britain Day
266
False
What was the main reason the Luftwaffe was not able to cause extensive damage with their missions?
572f8892b2c2fd14005681c7
bomb-load limitations
894
False
What kind of bombers was Germany not able to build?
572f8892b2c2fd14005681c8
four-engined bombers
1277
False
It was decided to focus on bombing Britain's industrial cities in daylight to begin with. The main focus of the bombing operations was against the city of London. The first major raid in this regard took place on 7 September. On 15 September, on a date known as the Battle of Britain Day, a large-scale raid was launched in daylight, but suffered significant loss for no lasting gain. Although there were a few large air battles fought in daylight later in the month and into October, the Luftwaffe switched its main effort to night attacks in order to reduce losses. This became official policy on 7 October. The air campaign soon got underway against London and other British cities. However, the Luftwaffe faced limitations. Its aircraft—Dornier Do 17, Junkers Ju 88, and Heinkel He 111s—were capable of carrying out strategic missions, but were incapable of doing greater damage because of bomb-load limitations. The Luftwaffe's decision in the interwar period to concentrate on medium bombers can be attributed to several reasons: Hitler did not intend or foresee a war with Britain in 1939; the OKL believed a medium bomber could carry out strategic missions just as well as a heavy bomber force; and Germany did not possess the resources or technical ability to produce four-engined bombers before the war.
Poor intelligence and what other problem made it difficult for the Luftwaffe to do extreme damage?
572f8b28b2c2fd14005681cd
unclear strategy
97
False
What year did the OKL become aware that Britain would be a possible target?
572f8b28b2c2fd14005681ce
early 1938
224
False
What disagreements did the  Luftwaffe staff center around?
572f8b28b2c2fd14005681cf
tactics
840
False
What did the disputes between the staff cause to happen to the strategy against Britain?
572f8b28b2c2fd14005681d0
failure before it began
915
False
Although it had equipment capable of doing serious damage, the problem for the Luftwaffe was its unclear strategy and poor intelligence. OKL had not been informed that Britain was to be considered a potential opponent until early 1938. It had no time to gather reliable intelligence on Britain's industries. Moreover, OKL could not settle on an appropriate strategy. German planners had to decide whether the Luftwaffe should deliver the weight of its attacks against a specific segment of British industry such as aircraft factories, or against a system of interrelated industries such as Britain's import and distribution network, or even in a blow aimed at breaking the morale of the British population. The Luftwaffe's strategy became increasingly aimless over the winter of 1940–1941. Disputes among the OKL staff revolved more around tactics than strategy. This method condemned the offensive over Britain to failure before it began.
Coupled with British quick reactions what cause operational capacity hard to achieve?
572f9082a23a5019007fc75d
limitations in weapons technology
28
False
What was an important fuel in the Second World War?
572f9082a23a5019007fc75e
coal
279
False
What kind of bombs were effective in the beginning but became less so with time?
572f9082a23a5019007fc75f
delayed-action bombs
405
False
What did Britain do that helped make the new strategy less effective?
572f9082a23a5019007fc760
dispersed its production facilities
594
False
Who was given permission to restore power and move supplies to keep the war moving?
572f9082a23a5019007fc761
Regional commissioners
684
False
In an operational capacity, limitations in weapons technology and quick British reactions were making it more difficult to achieve strategic effect. Attacking ports, shipping and imports as well as disrupting rail traffic in the surrounding areas, especially the distribution of coal, an important fuel in all industrial economies of the Second World War, would net a positive result. However, the use of delayed-action bombs, while initially very effective, gradually had less impact, partly because they failed to detonate.[c] Moreover, the British had anticipated the change in strategy and dispersed its production facilities making them less vulnerable to a concentrated attack. Regional commissioners were given plenipotentiary powers to restore communications and organise the distribution of supplies to keep the war economy moving.
How many casualties did the British government estimate for every ton of bombs dropped?
572fa09004bcaa1900d76b13
50
149
False
As technology increased what was the amount of bombs that could be dropped in 1937 per day?
572fa09004bcaa1900d76b14
644
384
False
What committee estimated that 60 days of attacks would result in 600,000 deaths?
572fa09004bcaa1900d76b15
Imperial Defence
424
False
How many tons did experts expect Germany to drop in the first 24 hours of the war?
572fa09004bcaa1900d76b16
3,500
731
False
Who was the military theorist in 1939 who said 250,000 deaths and injury could occur in the first week of war in Britian?
572fa09004bcaa1900d76b17
Basil Liddell-Hart
1008
False
Based on experience with German strategic bombing during World War I against the United Kingdom, the British government estimated after the war that 50 casualties— with about one third killed— would result for every tonne of bombs dropped on London. The estimate of tonnes of bombs an enemy could drop per day grew as aircraft technology advanced, from 75 in 1922, to 150 in 1934, to 644 in 1937. That year the Committee on Imperial Defence estimated that an attack of 60 days would result in 600,000 dead and 1,200,000 wounded. News reports of the Spanish Civil War, such as the bombing of Barcelona, supported the 50-casualties-per-tonne estimate. By 1938 experts generally expected that Germany would attempt to drop as much as 3,500 tonnes in the first 24 hours of war and average 700 tonnes a day for several weeks. In addition to high explosive and incendiary bombs the enemy would possibly use poison gas and even bacteriological warfare, all with a high degree of accuracy. In 1939 military theorist Basil Liddell-Hart predicted that 250,000 deaths and injuries in Britain could occur in the first week of war.
What was the biggest fear aerial attacks would cause besides death and wounded?
572fa2e1a23a5019007fc7fb
psychological trauma
68
False
Psychiatrists believe in 1938  that mental trauma could reach how many millions?
572fa2e1a23a5019007fc7fc
three to four
315
False
Where did 150,000 migrate during the Munich crisis?
572fa2e1a23a5019007fc7fd
Wales
662
False
Who told Parliament that after long periods of attacks people would leave the cities for the country?
572fa2e1a23a5019007fc7fe
Winston Churchill
359
False
In addition to the dead and wounded, government leaders feared mass psychological trauma from aerial attack and a resulting collapse of civil society. A committee of psychiatrists reported to the government in 1938 that there would be three times as many mental as physical casualties from aerial bombing, implying three to four million psychiatric patients. Winston Churchill told Parliament in 1934, "We must expect that, under the pressure of continuous attack upon London, at least three or four million people would be driven out into the open country around the metropolis." Panicked reactions during the Munich crisis, such as the migration by 150,000 to Wales, contributed to fear of societal chaos.
The government planned to evacuate 1.4 million from which city?
572fa4b4a23a5019007fc817
London
138
False
What trial took place on August 10 1939?
572fa4b4a23a5019007fc818
a blackout
422
False
How long were lights not allowed on after dark?
572fa4b4a23a5019007fc819
almost six years
493
False
What was most unpopular affect of the war with civilians ?
572fa4b4a23a5019007fc81a
the blackout
515
False
Why did the government  and civil service not want to relocate during the war?
572fa4b4a23a5019007fc81b
damage civilian morale
750
False
The government planned to voluntarily evacuate four million people—mostly women and children—from urban areas, including 1.4 million from London. It expected about 90% of evacuees to stay in private homes, and conducted an extensive survey to determine available space. Detailed preparations for transporting them were developed. A trial blackout was held on 10 August 1939, and when Germany invaded Poland on 1 September a blackout began at sunset. Lights would not be allowed after dark for almost six years, and the blackout became by far the most unpopular aspect of the war for civilians, more than rationing.:51,106 The relocation of the government and the civil service was also planned, but would only have occurred if necessary so as not to damage civilian morale.:33
What civil-defense efforts were left to local authorities to handle?
572fa66704bcaa1900d76b39
shelters
46
False
What year did the shelter program finish?
572fa66704bcaa1900d76b3a
1940
329
False
Why were the shelters soon abandoned in 1940?
572fa66704bcaa1900d76b3b
unsafe
472
False
Why were Londoners forced to sleep in shelters?
572fa66704bcaa1900d76b3c
attacks by night
583
False
Much civil-defence preparation in the form of shelters was left in the hands of local authorities, and many areas such as Birmingham, Coventry, Belfast and the East End of London did not have enough shelters. The Phoney War, however, and the unexpected delay of civilian bombing permitted the shelter programme to finish in June 1940.:35 The programme favoured backyard Anderson shelters and small brick surface shelters; many of the latter were soon abandoned in 1940 as unsafe. In addition, authorities expected that the raids would be brief and during the day. Few predicted that attacks by night would force Londoners to sleep in shelters.
What kind of sentiment did the government fear would developed in large group shelters?
572fa82fa23a5019007fc843
anti-war
283
False
Who did the government see as a leading advocate for building deep shelters?
572fa82fa23a5019007fc844
the Communist Party's
352
False
What was the name of the Pact of August 1939?
572fa82fa23a5019007fc845
Molotov-Ribbentrop Pact
490
False
Very deeply buried shelters provided the most protection against a direct hit. The government did not build them for large populations before the war because of cost, time to build, and fears that their very safety would cause occupants to refuse to leave to return to work, or that anti-war sentiment would develop in large groups. The government saw the Communist Party's leading role in advocating for building deep shelters as an attempt to damage civilian morale, especially after the Molotov-Ribbentrop Pact of August 1939.:34
Why did the government refuse to allow the London Underground stations to be used as shelters?
572faa6fb2c2fd14005682dd
interfere with commuter and troop travel
247
False
Underground officials were ordered to lock the stations during raids but opened how long after the orders?
572faa6fb2c2fd14005682de
by the second week
420
False
In 1940 how many people were sleeping in the Underground stations?
572faa6fb2c2fd14005682df
150,000 a night
645
False
Muffling the sound of batter made what easier in the Underground Stations?
572faa6fb2c2fd14005682e0
sleep
807
False
Why were many killed in Underground Stations?
572faa6fb2c2fd14005682e1
direct hits
875
False
The most important existing communal shelters were the London Underground stations. Although many civilians had used them as such during the First World War, the government in 1939 refused to allow the stations to be used as shelters so as not to interfere with commuter and troop travel, and the fears that occupants might refuse to leave. Underground officials were ordered to lock station entrances during raids; but by the second week of heavy bombing the government relented and ordered the stations to be opened. Each day orderly lines of people queued until 4 pm, when they were allowed to enter the stations. In mid-September 1940 about 150,000 a night slept in the Underground, although by the winter and spring months the numbers had declined to 100,000 or less. Noises of battle were muffled and sleep was easier in the deepest stations, but many were killed from direct hits on several stations.
What was the largest number to use Underground shelters in September  27, 1940?
572fabd004bcaa1900d76ba9
177,000
134
False
In 1940 what percentage used the Tube for a sleeping shelter?
572fabd004bcaa1900d76baa
4%
218
False
Where did 60% of populations stay?
572fabd004bcaa1900d76bab
at home
397
False
What year did the government start giving out Morrison shelters?
572fabd004bcaa1900d76bac
1941
457
False
Where could the Morrison shelters be used?
572fabd004bcaa1900d76bad
inside homes
537
False
Communal shelters never housed more than one seventh of Greater London residents, however. Peak use of the Underground as shelter was 177,000 on 27 September 1940, and a November 1940 census of London found that about 4% of residents used the Tube and other large shelters; 9% in public surface shelters; and 27% in private home shelters, implying that the remaining 60% of the city likely stayed at home. The government distributed Anderson shelters until 1941 and that year began distributing the Morrison shelter, which could be used inside homes.:190
What year did the government start to build new deep shelters?
572fad10b2c2fd140056830d
1940
47
False
How many people were the new shelters going to hold?
572fad10b2c2fd140056830e
80,000
118
False
What helped cut down time standing in the queue for shelters?
572fad10b2c2fd140056830f
Tickets
391
False
Which two groups help improve life in the shelters?
572fad10b2c2fd1400568310
British Red Cross and the Salvation Army
580
False
What kind of trains provided food in the shelters?
572fad10b2c2fd1400568311
canteen
361
False
Public demand caused the government in October 1940 to build new deep shelters:189–190 within the Underground to hold 80,000 people but were not completed until the period of heaviest bombing had passed. By the end of 1940 significant improvements had been made in the Underground and in many other large shelters. Authorities provided stoves and bathrooms and canteen trains provided food. Tickets were issued for bunks in large shelters to reduce the amount of time spent queuing. Committees quickly formed within shelters as informal governments, and organisations such as the British Red Cross and the Salvation Army worked to improve conditions. Entertainment included concerts, films, plays and books from local libraries.
With the intense bomb what did not happen as great as prewar predictions expected?
572faedf947a6a140053cb72
psychiatric crisis
119
False
What witness wrote that these people are staunch to the bone and won't quit?
572faedf947a6a140053cb73
American
233
False
People called the raids very blitzy like they were talking about what?
572faedf947a6a140053cb74
weather
484
False
Although the intensity of the bombing was not as great as prewar expectations so an equal comparison is impossible, no psychiatric crisis occurred because of the Blitz even during the period of greatest bombing of September 1940. An American witness wrote "By every test and measure I am able to apply, these people are staunch to the bone and won't quit ... the British are stronger and in a better position than they were at its beginning". People referred to raids as if they were weather, stating that a day was "very blitzy".:75,261 However, another American who visited Britain, the publisher Ralph Ingersoll, wrote soon after the Blitz eased on 15 September that:
Anne Freud and Edward Glover said London civilians did not suffer from what?
572fb0a5b2c2fd140056835b
widespread shell shock
115
False
Why did the psychiatric clinics close?
572fb0a5b2c2fd140056835c
lack of need
343
False
What two things declined during the attacks in Britain?
572fb0a5b2c2fd140056835d
suicides and drunkenness
552
False
The entire country was being attack and Glover believe it help people to do what?
572fb0a5b2c2fd140056835e
accept and deal
1014
False
Ingersoll added that, according to Anna Freud and Edward Glover, London civilians surprisingly did not suffer from widespread shell shock, unlike the soldiers in the Dunkirk evacuation.:114,117–118 The psychoanalysts were correct, and the special network of psychiatric clinics opened to receive mental casualties of the attacks closed due to lack of need. Although the stress of the war resulted in many anxiety attacks, eating disorders, fatigue, weeping, miscarriages, and other physical and mental ailments, society did not collapse. The number of suicides and drunkenness declined, and London recorded only about two cases of "bomb neuroses" per week in the first three months of bombing. Many civilians found that the best way to retain mental stability was to be with family, and after the first few weeks of bombing avoidance of the evacuation programs grew.:80–81 Glover speculated that the knowledge that the entire country was being attacked, that there was no way to escape the bombs, forced people to accept and deal with the situation.:118
What drink was never rationed?
572fba92a23a5019007fc8e3
beer
120
False
How many people attended cricket at Lord's?
572fba92a23a5019007fc8e4
13,000
150
False
What percent of Briton's expected to lose the war?
572fba92a23a5019007fc8e5
3%
572
False
What was Churchill's highest rating?
572fba92a23a5019007fc8e6
89%
702
False
What were Spitfire Funds used for?
572fba92a23a5019007fc8e7
to build fighters
996
False
The cheerful crowds visiting bomb sites were so large they interfered with rescue work, pub visits increased in number (beer was never rationed), and 13,000 attended cricket at Lord's. People left shelters when told instead of refusing to leave, although many housewives reportedly enjoyed the break from housework. Some people even told government surveyors that they enjoyed air raids if they occurred occasionally, perhaps once a week. Despite the attacks, defeat in Norway and France, and the threat of invasion, overall morale remained high; a Gallup poll found only 3% of Britons expected to lose the war in May 1940, another found an 88% approval rating for Churchill in July, and a third found 89% support for his leadership in October. Support for peace negotiations declined from 29% in February. Each setback caused more civilians to volunteer to become unpaid Local Defence Volunteers, workers worked longer shifts and over weekends, contributions rose to the £5,000 "Spitfire Funds" to build fighters, and the number of work days lost to strikes in 1940 was the lowest in history.:60–63,67–68,75,78–79,215–216
What is ARP?
572fbbdfb2c2fd14005683c1
Air Raid Precautions
189
False
The Auxiliary Fire Service had how many members in July of 1939?
572fbbdfb2c2fd14005683c2
138,000
295
False
Who was given the name Blitz Scouts?
572fbbdfb2c2fd14005683c3
Scout Association
460
False
The Royal Army Pay Corps and what other group were in charge of salvage and clean-up?
572fbbdfb2c2fd14005683c4
Pioneer Corps
674
False
The civilians of London had an enormous role to play in the protection of their city. Many civilians who were unwilling or unable to join the military became members of the Home Guard, the Air Raid Precautions service (ARP), the Auxiliary Fire Service, and many other organisations. The AFS had 138,000 personnel by July 1939. Only one year earlier, there had only been 6,600 full-time and 13,800 part-time firemen in the entire country. During the Blitz, The Scout Association guided fire engines to where they were most needed, and became known as the "Blitz Scouts". Many unemployed were drafted into the Royal Army Pay Corps. These personnel, along with others from the Pioneer Corps, were charged with the task of salvage and clean-up.
What group did Samuel Hoare set up in 1938?
572fbceaa23a5019007fc927
Women's Voluntary Services for Civil Defence
9
False
Who was Home Secretary in 1938?
572fbceaa23a5019007fc928
Samuel Hoare
89
False
How many members did the WVS have at the end of 1941?
572fbceaa23a5019007fc929
one million
397
False
How many gas mask were issued before the war?
572fbceaa23a5019007fc92a
50 million
475
False
The WVS (Women's Voluntary Services for Civil Defence) was set up under the direction of Samuel Hoare, Home Secretary in 1938 specifically in the event of air raids. Hoare considered it the female branch of the ARP. They organised the evacuation of children, established centres for those displaced by bombing, and operated canteens, salvage and recycling schemes. By the end of 1941, the WVS had one million members. Prior to the outbreak of war, civilians were issued with 50 million respirators (gas masks). These were issued in the event of bombing taking place with gas before evacuation.
Who was the Air Officer Commanding Fighter Command after 1940?
572fbec404bcaa1900d76c65
Hugh Dowding
39
False
What credit did Dowding receive?
572fbec404bcaa1900d76c66
defence of British air space
120
False
What strategy could the German's have used instead of day raids?
572fbec404bcaa1900d76c67
bombing at night
364
False
Why were civic and political leaders worried about Dowdings?
572fbec404bcaa1900d76c68
lack of reaction to the new crisis
541
False
In the inter-war years and after 1940, Hugh Dowding, Air Officer Commanding Fighter Command has received credit for the defence of British air space and the failure of the Luftwaffe to achieve air superiority. However, Dowding had spent so much effort preparing day fighter defences, there was little to prevent the Germans carrying out an alternative strategy by bombing at night. When the Luftwaffe struck at British cities for the first time on 7 September 1940, a number of civic and political leaders were worried by Dowding's apparent lack of reaction to the new crisis.
Who was reluctant to act quickly when urgent changes need to be made?
572fc229b2c2fd1400568403
Dowding
205
False
Who thought Dowding was stubborn and didn't like to cooperate?
572fc229b2c2fd1400568404
Air Staff
250
False
The Air Ministry was critical of Dowding after which battle?
572fc229b2c2fd1400568405
Battle of Britain Day
432
False
What did the Air Ministry plan to do with his failures?
572fc229b2c2fd1400568406
attack him and his abilities
544
False
Dowding accepted that as AOC, he was responsible for the day and night defence of Britain, and the blame, should he fail, would be laid at his door. When urgent changes and improvements needed to be made, Dowding seemed reluctant to act quickly. The Air Staff felt that this was due to his stubborn nature and reluctance to cooperate. Dowding's opponents in the Air Ministry, already critical of his handling of the day battle (see Battle of Britain Day and the Big Wing controversy), were ready to use these failings as a cudgel with which to attack him and his abilities.
Who was summoned to the Air Ministry conference on October 17, 1940?
572fc43604bcaa1900d76cc3
Dowding
0
False
Lord Beaverbrook and Churchill's support of Dowding was what?
572fc43604bcaa1900d76cc4
waning
375
False
Neglect of the RAF until 1938 caused what to happen?
572fc43604bcaa1900d76cc5
sparse resources to build defences
572
False
The Air Ministry and which other group decided to not make night defense a top priority?
572fc43604bcaa1900d76cc6
Chamberlain Government
883
False
Dowding was summoned to an Air Ministry conference on 17 October 1940 to explain the poor state of night defences and the supposed (but ultimately successful) "failure" of his daytime strategy. The criticism of his leadership extended far beyond the Air Council, and the Minister of Aircraft Production, Lord Beaverbrook, and Churchill themselves intimated their support was waning. While the failure of night defence preparation was undeniable, it was not the AOC's responsibility to accrue resources. The general neglect of the RAF until the late spurt in 1938 had left sparse resources to build defences. While it was permissible to disagree with Dowding's operational and tactical deployment of forces, the failure of the Government and Air Ministry to allot resources was ultimately the responsibility of the civil and military institutions at large. In the pre-war period, the Chamberlain Government stated that night defence from air attack should not take up much of the national effort and, along with the Air Ministry, did not make it a priority.
People over the age of 35 reacted to the bombings with what?
572fc58bb2c2fd1400568435
great trepidation
386
False
Why had German raids decreased between 1916-1918?
572fc58bb2c2fd1400568436
countermeasures
457
False
How many people were killed by bomb drops during the first World War?
572fc58bb2c2fd1400568437
1,413
268
False
How many bombs had been dropped?
572fc58bb2c2fd1400568438
9,000
229
False
The attitude of the Air Ministry was in contrast to the experiences of the First World War when a few German bombers caused physical and psychological damage out of all proportion to their numbers. Around 280 short tons (250 t) (9,000 bombs) had been dropped, killing 1,413 people and injuring 3,500 more. Most people aged 35 or over remembered the threat and greeted the bombings with great trepidation. From 1916–1918, German raids had diminished against countermeasures which demonstrated defence against night air raids was possible.
What did the RAF put most of their resources into?
572fc711947a6a140053cc9e
daylight fighter defences
161
False
RAF bombers had trouble flying at night, so the British believe the Germans would do what?
572fc711947a6a140053cc9f
suffer the same problems
291
False
Britain believe German bombers would be unable to reach and identify what?
572fc711947a6a140053cca0
targets
364
False
What did the Air Force believe they could avoid if they carried out effective day missions?
572fc711947a6a140053cca1
night missions and their disadvantages
477
False
Although night air defence was causing greater concern before the war, it was not at the forefront of RAF planning. Most of the resources went into planning for daylight fighter defences. The difficulty RAF bombers had navigating in darkness, led the British to believe German bombers would suffer the same problems and would be unable to reach and identify their targets. There was also a mentality in all air forces that, if they could carry out effective operations by day, night missions and their disadvantages could be avoided.
What did the British offence become know as?
572fd16804bcaa1900d76d85
cult of the offensive
236
False
Why was the tactic of bombing German aircraft bases, factories and fuel reserves impractical?
572fd16804bcaa1900d76d86
lacked the technology and equipment
516
False
Until 1940 what type of aircraft did the RAF lacked?
572fd16804bcaa1900d76d87
specialist night-fighting
811
False
What was wrong with the anti aircraft units?
572fd16804bcaa1900d76d88
poorly equipped and lacking in numbers
891
False
British air doctrine, since the time of Chief of the Air Staff Hugh Trenchard in the early 1920s, had stressed offence was the best means of defence. British defensive strategy revolved around offensive action, what became known as the cult of the offensive. To prevent German formations from hitting targets in Britain, RAF's Bomber Command would destroy Luftwaffe aircraft on their own bases, aircraft in their factories and fuel reserves by attacking oil plants. This philosophy was impractical as Bomber Command lacked the technology and equipment and needed several years to develop it. This strategy retarded the development of fighter defences in the 1930s. Dowding agreed air defence would require some offensive action, and fighters could not defend Britain alone. Until September 1940, the RAF lacked specialist night-fighting aircraft and relied on anti-aircraft units which were poorly equipped and lacking in numbers.
What did the Lorenz beam allow aircraft to do?
572fd474947a6a140053cd20
land at night or in bad weather
168
False
The Germans developed the Lorenz into what system?
572fd474947a6a140053cd21
Knickebein
262
False
The Knickebein was the same as the Lorenz but used how many beams?
572fd474947a6a140053cd22
two Lorenz beams
298
False
The Germans flew along one beam until they picked up the second beam the sound telling them when to start doing what?
572fd474947a6a140053cd23
dropping their bombs
754
False
Bomber crews already had some experience with these types of systems due to the deployment of the Lorenz beam, a commercial blind-landing aid which allowed aircraft to land at night or in bad weather. The Germans developed the short-range Lorenz system into the Knickebein aid, a system which used two Lorenz beams with much stronger signal transmissions. The concept was the same as the Lorenz system. Two aerials were rotated for the two converging beams which were pointed to cross directly over the target. The German bombers would attach themselves to either beam and fly along it until they started to pick up the signal from the other beam. When a continuous sound was heard from the second beam the crew knew they were above the target and began dropping their bombs.
While Knickebein was used my most German crews who used the X-Gerat system?
572fdbf3947a6a140053cd68
specially trained pathfinder crews
79
False
What frequency did the X-Gerat system use?
572fdbf3947a6a140053cd69
66–77 MHz
243
False
What rate per minute did ground transmitters send?
572fdbf3947a6a140053cd6a
180
343
False
When the bomber crossed the first beam the bomber-aimer did what?
572fdbf3947a6a140053cd6b
start the bombing-clock
588
False
What mechanism cause the bombs to be released?
572fdbf3947a6a140053cd6c
clock's timing
926
False
While Knickebein was used by German crews en masse, X-Gerät use was limited to specially trained pathfinder crews. Special receivers were mounted in He 111s, with a radio mast on the bomber's fuselage. The system worked on a higher frequency (66–77 MHz, compared to Knickebein's 30–33 MHz). Transmitters on the ground sent pulses at a rate of 180 per minute. X-Gerät received and analysed the pulses, giving the pilot both visual and aural "on course" signals. Three beams intersected the beam along the He 111's flight path. The first cross-beam acted as a warning for the bomb-aimer to start the bombing-clock which he would activate only when the second cross-beam was reached. When the third cross-beam was reached the bomb aimer activated a third trigger, which stopped the first hand of the equipment's clock, with the second hand continuing. When the second hand re-aligned with the first, the bombs were released. The clock's timing mechanism was co-ordinated with the distances of the intersecting beams from the target so the target was directly below when the bomb release occurred.
Which system was the most complex of the three?
572fddffb2c2fd1400568531
Y-Gerät
0
False
Who operated the automatic beam system?
572fddffb2c2fd1400568532
the bomber's autopilot
121
False
What kind of checks help to keep the plane on course?
572fddffb2c2fd1400568533
Direction-finding
401
False
The crew could be order to drop the bomb by what?
572fddffb2c2fd1400568534
a code word
556
False
Who issued the code word to the bombers?
572fddffb2c2fd1400568535
ground controller
575
False
Y-Gerät was the most complex system of the three. It was, in effect, an automatic beam-tracking system, operated through the bomber's autopilot. The single approach beam along which the bomber tracked was monitored by a ground controller. The signals from the station were retransmitted by the bomber's equipment. This way the distance the bomber travelled along the beam could be precisely verified. Direction-finding checks also enabled the controller to keep the crew on an exact course. The crew would be ordered to drop their bombs either by issue of a code word by the ground controller, or at the conclusion of the signal transmissions which would stop. Although its maximum usable range was similar to the previous systems, it was not unknown for specific buildings to be hit.
In 1940 a German prisoner overheard boasting that the British would never find what system?
572fe5e8b2c2fd1400568581
Knickebein
100
False
Which RAF technical advisor was the conversation passed onto?
572fe5e8b2c2fd1400568582
Dr. R. V. Jones
233
False
The Bean Approach Training Development Unit were fitted with what kind of transmitter to search for the Knickebein?
572fe5e8b2c2fd1400568583
30 MHz receiver
546
False
The beam was traced to what town?
572fe5e8b2c2fd1400568584
Derby
604
False
The first jamming operation was carried out using what machines?
572fe5e8b2c2fd1400568585
electrocautery machines
740
False
In June 1940, a German prisoner of war was overheard boasting that the British would never find the Knickebein, even though it was under their noses. The details of the conversation were passed to an RAF Air Staff technical advisor, Dr. R. V. Jones, who started an in-depth investigation which discovered that the Luftwaffe's Lorenz receivers were more than blind-landing devices. Jones therefore began a search for the German beams. Avro Ansons of the Beam Approach Training Development Unit (BATDU) were flown up and down Britain fitted with a 30 MHz receiver to detect them. Soon a beam was traced to Derby (which had been mentioned in Luftwaffe transmissions). The first jamming operations were carried out using requisitioned hospital electrocautery machines. A subtle form of distortion was introduced. Up to nine special transmitters directed their signals at the beams in a manner that widened its path, negating its ability to accurately locate targets. Confidence in the device was diminished by the time the Luftwaffe decided to launch large-scale raids. The counter operations were carried out by British Electronic Counter Measures (ECM) units under Wing Commander Edward Addison, No. 80 Wing RAF. The production of false radio navigation signals by re-transmitting the originals was a technique known as masking beacons (meacons).
The German beacons used what frequency band?
572fe88104bcaa1900d76e83
medium
31
False
What two letter identifier did the signal have?
572fe88104bcaa1900d76e84
Morse
91
False
What system used a separate locations for a receiver and a directional aerial?
572fe88104bcaa1900d76e85
Meacon
214
False
When a German bomber flew to close to its own beam what happened to the signal?
572fe88104bcaa1900d76e86
stronger on the direction finder
587
False
German beacons operated on the medium-frequency band and the signals involved a two-letter Morse identifier followed by a lengthy time-lapse which enabled the Luftwaffe crews to determine the signal's bearing. The Meacon system involved separate locations for a receiver with a directional aerial and a transmitter. The receipt of the German signal by the receiver was duly passed to the transmitter, the signal to be repeated. The action did not guarantee automatic success. If the German bomber flew closer to its own beam than the Meacon then the former signal would come through the stronger on the direction finder. The reverse would apply only if the meacon were closer.
Anti-aircraft defenses became better after what?
572fea58947a6a140053cdea
Blitz was over
239
False
What did they use to lure German bombers away from their targets?
572fea58947a6a140053cdeb
ruses
258
False
What kind of airfields were prepared to stand up to skilled observers?
572fea58947a6a140053cdec
dummy
342
False
What was the name given to these dummy airfields?
572fea58947a6a140053cded
Starfish
490
False
In general, German bombers were likely to get through to their targets without too much difficulty. It was to be some months before an effective night fighter force would be ready, and anti-aircraft defences only became adequate after the Blitz was over, so ruses were created to lure German bombers away from their targets. Throughout 1940, dummy airfields were prepared, good enough to stand up to skilled observation. A number[clarification needed] of bombs fell on these diversionary ("Starfish") targets.
Fake fires were used as what kind of technique?
572fec6f947a6a140053ce06
diversionary
11
False
Two tanks one of oil, one of water fed what kind of fire?
572fec6f947a6a140053ce07
boiler
360
False
What was injected into the fires from time to time to produce a flash?
572fec6f947a6a140053ce08
water
486
False
What did these flashes simulate?
572fec6f947a6a140053ce09
German C-250 and C-500 Flammbomben
561
False
What was the purpose of these fires?
572fec6f947a6a140053ce0a
deceive German bombardiers
628
False
The use of diversionary techniques such as fires had to be made carefully. The fake fires could only begin when the bombing started over an adjacent target and its effects were brought under control. Too early and the chances of success receded; too late and the real conflagration at the target would exceed the diversionary fires. Another innovation was the boiler fire. These units were fed from two adjacent tanks containing oil and water. The oil-fed fires were then injected with water from time to time; the flashes produced were similar to those of the German C-250 and C-500 Flammbomben. The hope was that, if it could deceive German bombardiers, it would draw more bombers away from the real target.
The bombing of the Thames Estuary cause how many civilian casualties?
572fed9fa23a5019007fcb51
1,600
197
False
How many were killed in the bombing of the Thames Estuary?
572fed9fa23a5019007fcb52
around 400
244
False
How many aircraft did the Luftwaffe lose?
572fed9fa23a5019007fcb53
41
358
False
How many German pilots were killed?
572fed9fa23a5019007fcb54
six
510
False
How many Air Fleet 3 attacked that night?
572fed9fa23a5019007fcb55
247
563
False
Initially the change in strategy caught the RAF off-guard, and caused extensive damage and civilian casualties. Some 107,400 long tons (109,100 t) of shipping was damaged in the Thames Estuary and 1,600 civilians were casualties. Of this total around 400 were killed. The fighting in the air was more intense in daylight. Overall Loge had cost the Luftwaffe 41 aircraft; 14 bombers, 16 Messerschmitt Bf 109s, seven Messerschmitt Bf 110s and four reconnaissance aircraft. Fighter Command lost 23 fighters, with six pilots killed and another seven wounded. Another 247 bombers from Sperrle's Luftflotte 3 (Air Fleet 3) attacked that night. On 8 September, the Luftwaffe returned. This time 412 people were killed and 747 severely wounded.
What was the name of the airfield where heavy raids took place?
572ff6fb947a6a140053ce98
Farnborough
382
False
How many Bf 109s were lost?
572ff6fb947a6a140053ce99
13
484
False
FighterCommand lost how many fighters?
572ff6fb947a6a140053ce9a
17
517
False
How many pilots did Fighter Command lose?
572ff6fb947a6a140053ce9b
six
533
False
What caused the delay in the effort?
572ff6fb947a6a140053ce9c
weather was poor
568
False
On 9 September the OKL appeared to be backing two strategies. Its round-the-clock bombing of London was an immediate attempt to force the British government to capitulate, but it was also striking at Britain's vital sea communications to achieve a victory through siege. Although the weather was poor, heavy raids took place that afternoon on the London suburbs and the airfield at Farnborough. The day's fighting cost Kesselring and Luftflotte 2 (Air Fleet 2) 24 aircraft, including 13 Bf 109s. Fighter Command lost 17 fighters and six pilots. Over the next few days weather was poor and the next main effort would not be made until 15 September 1940.
On September 15 the Luftwaffe made daylight raids on what target in London?
572ff89f04bcaa1900d76f6f
Thames Estuary
82
False
What two targets were the Luftwaffe trying to destroy?
572ff89f04bcaa1900d76f70
docks and rail communications
112
False
What was the reason to try and draw the RAF into a battle?
572ff89f04bcaa1900d76f71
destroy their fighters in large numbers
255
False
What was this air battle called?
572ff89f04bcaa1900d76f72
Battle of Britain Day
539
False
The Luftwaffe lost what percentage of its bombers sent that day?
572ff89f04bcaa1900d76f73
18
581
False
On 15 September the Luftwaffe made two large daylight attacks on London along the Thames Estuary, targeting the docks and rail communications in the city. Its hope was to destroy its targets and draw the RAF into defending them, allowing the Luftwaffe to destroy their fighters in large numbers, thereby achieving an air superiority. Large air battles broke out, lasting for most of the day. The first attack merely damaged the rail network for three days, and the second attack failed altogether. The air battle was later commemorated by Battle of Britain Day. The Luftwaffe lost 18 percent of the bombers sent on the operations that day, and failed to gain air superiority.
Who thought the Luftwaffe could win?
572ffa51947a6a140053ced2
Göring
6
False
What day did Hitler postponed Operation Sea Lion?
572ffa51947a6a140053ced3
17 September
76
False
What was the name of the man from the Soviet Union who was doubtful of Operation Sea Lion?
572ffa51947a6a140053ced4
Joseph Stalin
290
False
Who did the Luftwaffe try to lure into battle using its bombers?
572ffa51947a6a140053ced5
RAF
408
False
When did the OKL switch to night raids?
572ffa51947a6a140053ced6
7 October
600
False
While Göring was optimistic the Luftwaffe could prevail, Hitler was not. On 17 September he postponed Operation Sea Lion (as it turned out, indefinitely) rather than gamble Germany's newly gained military prestige on a risky cross-Channel operation, particularly in the face of a sceptical Joseph Stalin in the Soviet Union. In the last days of the battle, the bombers became lures in an attempt to draw the RAF into combat with German fighters. But their operations were to no avail; the worsening weather and unsustainable attrition in daylight gave the OKL an excuse to switch to night attacks on 7 October.
On October 14 how many German bombers attacked?
572ffb1904bcaa1900d76fa9
380
53
False
How many people were killed?
572ffb1904bcaa1900d76faa
Around 200
102
False
Who fired anti-defense rounds?
572ffb1904bcaa1900d76fab
General Frederick Alfred Pile
191
False
How many rounds of anti-defense were fired?
572ffb1904bcaa1900d76fac
8,326 rounds
228
False
How many German bombers were shot down?
572ffb1904bcaa1900d76fad
two
260
False
On 14 October, the heaviest night attack to date saw 380 German bombers from Luftflotte 3 hit London. Around 200 people were killed and another 2,000 injured. British anti-aircraft defences (General Frederick Alfred Pile) fired 8,326 rounds and shot down only two bombers. On 15 October, the bombers returned and about 900 fires were started by the mix of 415 short tons (376 t) of high explosive and 11 short tons (10.0 t) of incendiaries dropped. Five main rail lines were cut in London and rolling stock damaged.
How much of the short tons of bombs were dropped during the day?
573024b4a23a5019007fce49
10 percent
139
False
What two cities had 500 short tons of bombs dropped on them during the end of October?
573024b4a23a5019007fce4a
Birmingham and Coventry
265
False
Liverpool had how many short tons dropped on it?
573024b4a23a5019007fce4b
200
401
False
What was targeted with 12 short tons of bombs?
573024b4a23a5019007fce4c
The Metropolitan-Vickers works in Manchester
544
False
Which was targeted more heavily, bomber or fighter command airfields?
573024b4a23a5019007fce4d
Bomber Command airfields
713
False
Loge continued during October. According to German sources, 9,000 short tons (8,200 t) of bombs were dropped in that month, of which about 10 percent of which was dropped in daylight. Over 6,000 short tons (5,400 t) was aimed at London during the night. Attacks on Birmingham and Coventry were subject to 500 short tons (450 t) of bombs between them in the last 10 days of October. Liverpool suffered 200 short tons (180 t) of bombs dropped. Hull and Glasgow were attacked, but 800 short tons (730 t) of bombs were spread out all over Britain. The Metropolitan-Vickers works in Manchester was targeted and 12 short tons (11 t) of bombs dropped against it. Little tonnage was dropped on Fighter Command airfields; Bomber Command airfields were hit instead.
What was the Luftwaffe's second primary policy?
5730271b04bcaa1900d77255
to interfere with production in the vast industrial arms factories of the West Midlands
121
False
Who was in command of the Luftflotte 2?
5730271b04bcaa1900d77256
Kesselring
327
False
How many sorties a night was Luftflotte 3 doing?
5730271b04bcaa1900d77257
250
519
False
What did the Fliegerkorps X concentrate on?
5730271b04bcaa1900d77258
mining operations against shipping
672
False
By April of 1941 about how many mines had been dropped?
5730271b04bcaa1900d77259
3,984 mines
791
False
Luftwaffe policy at this point was primarily to continue progressive attacks on London, chiefly by night attack; second, to interfere with production in the vast industrial arms factories of the West Midlands, again chiefly by night attack; and third to disrupt plants and factories during the day by means of fighter-bombers. Kesselring, commanding Luftflotte 2, was ordered to send 50 sorties per night against London and attack eastern harbours in daylight. Sperrle, commanding Luftflotte 3, was ordered to dispatch 250 sorties per night including 100 against the West Midlands. Seeschlange would be carried out by Fliegerkorps X (10th Air Corps) which concentrated on mining operations against shipping. It also took part in the bombing over Britain. By 19/20 April 1941, it had dropped 3,984 mines, ⅓ of the total dropped. The mines' ability to destroy entire streets earned them respect in Britain, but several fell unexploded into British hands allowing counter-measures to be developed which damaged the German anti-shipping campaign.
By mid November of 1940 how many incendiaries were dropped on London?
573028f2947a6a140053d1d2
1,000,000
131
False
What locations suffered strong diversionary tactics?
573028f2947a6a140053d1d3
Birmingham, Coventry and Liverpool
311
False
In September how many railway hits were there in Great Britain?
573028f2947a6a140053d1d4
no less than 667
530
False
What did the Ministry of Home Security fail to discover?
573028f2947a6a140053d1d5
the slightest sign of a break in morale
1067
False
About how many civilians were injured in September and October?
573028f2947a6a140053d1d6
20,000
1163
False
By mid-November 1940, when the Germans adopted a changed plan, more than 13,000 short tons (12,000 t) of high explosive and nearly 1,000,000 incendiaries had fallen on London. Outside the capital, there had been widespread harassing activity by single aircraft, as well as fairly strong diversionary attacks on Birmingham, Coventry and Liverpool, but no major raids. The London docks and railways communications had taken a heavy pounding, and much damage had been done to the railway system outside. In September, there had been no less than 667 hits on railways in Great Britain, and at one period, between 5,000 and 6,000 wagons were standing idle from the effect of delayed action bombs. But the great bulk of the traffic went on; and Londoners—though they glanced apprehensively each morning at the list of closed stretches of line displayed at their local station, or made strange detours round back streets in the buses—still got to work. For all the destruction of life and property, the observers sent out by the Ministry of Home Security failed to discover the slightest sign of a break in morale. More than 13,000 civilians had been killed, and almost 20,000 injured, in September and October alone, but the death toll was much less than expected. In late 1940, Churchill credited the shelters:
What was the name of the American observer?
57302ae2a23a5019007fced9
Ingersoll
22
False
The American observer said what about the damage to London?
57302ae2a23a5019007fceda
to sum up, was more general and more extensive than I had imagined.
254
False
The Battersea Power Station took how many hits in two months?
57302ae2a23a5019007fcedb
one minor hit ("a nick")
610
False
How many bridges over the Thames were struck?
57302ae2a23a5019007fcedc
No bridge over the Thames had been hit
636
False
What did German pilots use to gain knowledge of an airfield?
57302ae2a23a5019007fcedd
prewar commercial flights.
889
False
The American observer Ingersoll reported at this time that "as to the accuracy of the bombing of military objectives, here I make no qualifications. The aim is surprisingly, astonishingly, amazingly inaccurate ... The physical damage to civilian London, to sum up, was more general and more extensive than I had imagined. The damage to military targets much less", and stated that he had seen numerous examples of untouched targets surrounded by buildings destroyed by errant bombs. For example, in two months of bombing, Battersea Power Station, perhaps the largest single target in London, had only received one minor hit ("a nick"). No bridge over the Thames had been hit, and the docks were still functioning despite great damage. An airfield was hit 56 times but the runways were never damaged and the field was never out of operation, despite German pilots' familiarity with it from prewar commercial flights. Ingersoll wrote that the difference between the failure of the German campaign against military targets versus its success in continental Europe was the RAF retaining control of the air.:79–80,174
British night air defenses were effective to what height?
57302cf4b2c2fd14005689ed
12,000 ft (3,700 m)
193
False
By July of 1940 how many guns were deployed in Britain?
57302cf4b2c2fd14005689ee
only 1,200 heavy and 549 light guns
228
False
What was the practical ceiling of the effective heavy guns?
57302cf4b2c2fd14005689ef
25,000 ft (7,600 m)
530
False
What type of light gun dealt with aircraft up to 6000 ft.?
57302cf4b2c2fd14005689f0
Bofors 40 mm
671
False
What is believed to have caused many civilian casualties from anti-aircraft guns?
57302cf4b2c2fd14005689f1
falling shell fragments
938
False
British night air defences were in a poor state. Few anti-aircraft guns had fire-control systems, and the underpowered searchlights were usually ineffective against aircraft at altitudes above 12,000 ft (3,700 m). In July 1940, only 1,200 heavy and 549 light guns were deployed in the whole of Britain. Of the "heavies", some 200 were of the obsolescent 3 in (76 mm) type; the remainder were the effective 4.5 in (110 mm) and 3.7 in (94 mm) guns, with a theoretical "ceiling"' of over 30,000 ft (9,100 m) but a practical limit of 25,000 ft (7,600 m) because the predictor in use could not accept greater heights. The light guns, about half of which were of the excellent Bofors 40 mm, dealt with aircraft only up to 6,000 ft (1,800 m). Although the use of the guns improved civilian morale, with the knowledge the German bomber crews were facing the barrage, it is now believed that the anti-aircraft guns achieved little and in fact the falling shell fragments caused more British casualties on the ground.
Who reorganised London's defences?
57302e8d04bcaa1900d772e1
General Pile
46
False
The British were how far below the establishment of heavy anti-aircraft artillery?
57302e8d04bcaa1900d772e2
one-third
211
False
Who relied on night fighters?
57302e8d04bcaa1900d772e3
Dowding
343
False
Who's four squadrons shot down more enemy aircraft than any other type?
57302e8d04bcaa1900d772e4
Boulton Paul Defiant
443
False
How were AA defenses improved?
57302e8d04bcaa1900d772e5
by better use of radar and searchlights
556
False
London's defences were rapidly reorganised by General Pile, the Commander-in-Chief of Anti-Aircraft Command. The difference this made to the effectiveness of air defences is questionable. The British were still one-third below the establishment of heavy anti-aircraft artillery AAA (or ack-ack) in May 1941, with only 2,631 weapons available. Dowding had to rely on night fighters. From 1940 to 1941, the most successful night-fighter was the Boulton Paul Defiant; its four squadrons shot down more enemy aircraft than any other type. AA defences improved by better use of radar and searchlights. Over several months, the 20,000 shells spent per raider shot down in September 1940, was reduced to 4,087 in January 1941 and to 2,963 shells in February 1941.
What was considered unreliable?
57302f95b2c2fd1400568a1b
Airborne Interception radar
0
False
What used most of Fighter Command's resources?
57302f95b2c2fd1400568a1c
the Battle of Britain
71
False
The bombers used what out of desperation?
57302f95b2c2fd1400568a1d
airborne search lights
217
False
Gunlaying radar and RAF controls combined to create what system?
57302f95b2c2fd1400568a1e
Ground Control-led Interception
442
False
Airborne Interception radar (AI) was unreliable. The heavy fighting in the Battle of Britain had eaten up most of Fighter Command's resources, so there was little investment in night fighting. Bombers were flown with airborne search lights out of desperation[citation needed], but to little avail. Of greater potential was the GL (Gunlaying) radar and searchlights with fighter direction from RAF fighter control rooms to begin a GCI system (Ground Control-led Interception) under Group-level control (No. 10 Group RAF, No. 11 Group RAF and No. 12 Group RAF).
Who replaced Dowding on November 25?
573030fda23a5019007fcf3d
Sholto Douglas
124
False
How many pilots remained in February 1941?
573030fda23a5019007fcf3e
87 pilots
349
False
What supported the GL carpet?
573030fda23a5019007fcf3f
six GCI sets controlling radar-equipped night-fighters
425
False
How many number of contacts and combats were there in May?
573030fda23a5019007fcf40
204 and 74
644
False
What did a bomber crew need to do for a good chance at evasion?
573030fda23a5019007fcf41
spot the fighter first
995
False
Whitehall's disquiet at the failures of the RAF led to the replacement of Dowding (who was already due for retirement) with Sholto Douglas on 25 November. Douglas set about introducing more squadrons and dispersing the few GL sets to create a carpet effect in the southern counties. Still, in February 1941, there remained only seven squadrons with 87 pilots, under half the required strength. The GL carpet was supported by six GCI sets controlling radar-equipped night-fighters. By the height of the Blitz, they were becoming more successful. The number of contacts and combats rose in 1941, from 44 and two in 48 sorties in January 1941, to 204 and 74 in May (643 sorties). But even in May, 67% of the sorties were visual cat's-eye missions. Curiously, while 43% of the contacts in May 1941 were by visual sightings, they accounted for 61% of the combats. Yet when compared with Luftwaffe daylight operations, there was a sharp decline in German losses to 1%. If a vigilant bomber crew could spot the fighter first, they had a decent chance at evading it.
What was critical in the night battles over Britain?
5730359db2c2fd1400568a73
radar
21
False
What concept eventually became successful?
5730359db2c2fd1400568a74
airborne radar
157
False
On what day did airborne radar help intercept and destroy enemy aircraft for the first time?
5730359db2c2fd1400568a75
the night of 22/23 July 1940
239
False
Who was the RAF night fighter ace that used airborne radar to destroy a Ju 88 bomber?
5730359db2c2fd1400568a76
John Cunningham
699
False
Nevertheless, it was radar that proved to be critical weapon in the night battles over Britain from this point onward. Dowding had introduced the concept of airborne radar and encouraged its usage. Eventually it would become a success. On the night of 22/23 July 1940, Flying Officer Cyril Ashfield (pilot), Pilot Officer Geoffrey Morris (Observer) and Flight Sergeant Reginald Leyland (Air Intercept radar operator) of the Fighter Interception Unit became the first pilot and crew to intercept and destroy an enemy aircraft using onboard radar to guide them to a visual interception, when their AI night fighter brought down a Do 17 off Sussex. On 19 November 1940 the famous RAF night fighter ace John Cunningham shot down a Ju 88 bomber using airborne radar, just as Dowding had predicted.
The Luftwaffe's change in strategy targeted what primarily?
5730386ca23a5019007fcfb3
the West Midlands
124
False
How many parachute mines were dropped?
5730386ca23a5019007fcfb4
127
612
False
The Coventry raid led to what phrase being in widespread use?
5730386ca23a5019007fcfb5
"to conventrate"
820
False
What stopped work in 9 factories in Coventry?
5730386ca23a5019007fcfb6
loss of public utilities
937
False
What effect did the raid have strategically?
5730386ca23a5019007fcfb7
a brief 20 percent dip in aircraft production
1414
False
From November 1940 – February 1941, the Luftwaffe shifted its strategy and attacked other industrial cities. In particular, the West Midlands were targeted. On the night of 13/14 November, 77 He 111s of Kampfgeschwader 26 (26th Bomber Wing, or KG 26) bombed London while 63 from KG 55 hit Birmingham. The next night, a large force hit Coventry. "Pathfinders" from 12 Kampfgruppe 100 (Bomb Group 100 or KGr 100) led 437 bombers from KG 1, KG 3, KG 26, KG 27, KG 55 and Lehrgeschwader 1 (1st Training Wing, or LG 1) which dropped 394 short tons (357 t) of high explosive, 56 short tons (51 t) of incendiaries, and 127 parachute mines. Other sources say 449 bombers and a total of 530 short tons (480 t) of bombs were dropped. The raid against Coventry was particularly devastating, and led to widespread use of the phrase "to conventrate". Over 10,000 incendiaries were dropped. Around 21 factories were seriously damaged in Coventry, and loss of public utilities stopped work at nine others, disrupting industrial output for several months. Only one bomber was lost, to anti-aircraft fire, despite the RAF flying 125 night sorties. No follow up raids were made, as OKL underestimated the British power of recovery (as Bomber Command would do over Germany from 1943–1945). The Germans were surprised by the success of the attack. The concentration had been achieved by accident. The strategic effect of the raid was a brief 20 percent dip in aircraft production.
How many bombers hit Birmingham?
57303995947a6a140053d2d0
369
41
False
For how many months did the night raids continue for?
57303995947a6a140053d2d1
two months
236
False
How many tons of bombs had to be dropped to be considered a major attack?
57303995947a6a140053d2d2
more than 100 tons of bombs dropped
369
False
December saw how many attacks?
57303995947a6a140053d2d3
only 11 major and five heavy attacks
498
False
Five nights later, Birmingham was hit by 369 bombers from KG 54, KG 26, and KG 55. By the end of November, 1,100 bombers were available for night raids. An average of 200 were able to strike per night. This weight of attack went on for two months, with the Luftwaffe dropping 13,900 short tons (12,600 t) of bombs. In November 1940, 6,000 sorties and 23 major attacks (more than 100 tons of bombs dropped) were flown. Two heavy (50 short tons (45 t) of bombs) attacks were also flown. In December, only 11 major and five heavy attacks were made.
On what day was London itself attacked?
57303a86a23a5019007fcfbd
the evening of 29 December
49
False
What group was the first to use incendiaries?
57303a86a23a5019007fcfbe
Kampfgruppe 100
295
False
How many fire bombs were dropped per minute?
57303a86a23a5019007fcfbf
300
431
False
How many civilians were killed in the bombing?
57303a86a23a5019007fcfc0
28,556 killed
592
False
The Luftwaffe dropped how many short tons of bombs?
57303a86a23a5019007fcfc1
18,291 short tons
653
False
Probably the most devastating strike occurred on the evening of 29 December, when German aircraft attacked the City of London itself with incendiary and high explosive bombs, causing a firestorm that has been called the Second Great Fire of London. The first group to use these incendiaries was Kampfgruppe 100 which despatched 10 "pathfinder" He 111s. At 18:17, it released the first of 10,000 fire bombs, eventually amounting to 300 dropped per minute. Altogether, 130 German bombers destroyed the historical centre of London. Civilian casualties on London throughout the Blitz amounted to 28,556 killed, and 25,578 wounded. The Luftwaffe had dropped 18,291 short tons (16,593 t) of bombs.
Why were port cities targeted by the Luftwaffe?
57303ba1947a6a140053d2ea
to try to disrupt trade and sea communications
97
False
How many times was Swansea bombed heavily?
57303ba1947a6a140053d2eb
four times
175
False
What was primarily damaged in the attacks?
57303ba1947a6a140053d2ec
commercial and domestic areas
337
False
What cities had large sections of them destroyed?
57303ba1947a6a140053d2ed
Portsmouth Southsea and Gosport
439
False
What was left mostly unharmed?
57303ba1947a6a140053d2ee
the docks
618
False
Not all of the Luftwaffe's effort was made against inland cities. Port cities were also attacked to try to disrupt trade and sea communications. In January Swansea was bombed four times, very heavily. On 17 January around 100 bombers dropped a high concentration of incendiaries, some 32,000 in all. The main damage was inflicted on the commercial and domestic areas. Four days later 230 tons was dropped including 60,000 incendiaries. In Portsmouth Southsea and Gosport waves of 150 bombers destroyed vast swaths of the city with 40,000 incendiaries. Warehouses, rail lines and houses were destroyed and damaged, but the docks were largely untouched.
What was the primary goal of the German air doctrine?
57303ce9a23a5019007fcfdb
target civilian morale
42
False
In November and December of 1940 what changed to make attacks on civilians a moot point?
57303ce9a23a5019007fcfdc
large-scale raids
359
False
What had nearly been considered indiscriminate bombing?
57303ce9a23a5019007fcfdd
use of mines and incendiaries, for tactical expediency
471
False
Lighting targets hidden by haze had to be done without what?
57303ce9a23a5019007fcfde
regard for the civilian population
664
False
Although official German air doctrine did target civilian morale, it did not espouse the attacking of civilians directly. It hoped to destroy morale by destroying the enemy's factories and public utilities as well as its food stocks (by attacking shipping). Nevertheless, its official opposition to attacks on civilians became an increasingly moot point when large-scale raids were conducted in November and December 1940. Although not encouraged by official policy, the use of mines and incendiaries, for tactical expediency, came close to indiscriminate bombing. Locating targets in skies obscured by industrial haze meant they needed to be illuminated "without regard for the civilian population".
What was the group that used incendiaries and high explosives to mark targets?
57303e00a23a5019007fcfeb
Beleuchtergruppe
43
False
The Feuerleitung (Blaze Control) tactic led to what creation for marking targets?
57303e00a23a5019007fcfec
Brandbombenfelder (Incendiary Fields)
228
False
What was the nickname of bombs used in streets and residential areas?
57303e00a23a5019007fcfed
"Satan"
444
False
What was the weight of the "Max" bomb?
57303e00a23a5019007fcfee
2,500 kg (5,512 lb)
534
False
Special units, such as KGr 100, became the Beleuchtergruppe (Firelighter Group), which used incendiaries and high explosive to mark the target area. The tactic was expanded into Feuerleitung (Blaze Control) with the creation of Brandbombenfelder (Incendiary Fields) to mark targets. These were marked out by parachute flares. Then bombers carrying SC 1000 (1,000 kg (2,205 lb)), SC 1400 (1,400 kg (3,086 lb)), and SC 1800 (1,800 kg (3,968 lb)) "Satan" bombs were used to level streets and residential areas. By December, the SC 2500 (2,500 kg (5,512 lb)) "Max" bomb was used.
Decision changes at organizational levels led to what type of attacks?
57303f8d947a6a140053d320
unrestricted area attack or Terrorangriff (Terror Attack)
229
False
What was one of the reasons for unrestricted area attacks?
57303f8d947a6a140053d321
inaccuracy of navigation
320
False
How was it known that precision bombing was changed to area attacks?
57303f8d947a6a140053d322
tactical methods and weapons dropped
570
False
What percentage of incendiaries were used in December?
57303f8d947a6a140053d323
92 percent
705
False
How was it determined that homes of industrial workers were targeted?
57303f8d947a6a140053d324
Captured German air crews
943
False
These decisions, apparently taken at the Luftflotte or Fliegerkorps level (see Organisation of the Luftwaffe (1933–1945)), meant attacks on individual targets were gradually replaced by what was, for all intents and purposes, an unrestricted area attack or Terrorangriff (Terror Attack). Part of the reason for this was inaccuracy of navigation. The effectiveness of British countermeasures against Knickebein, which was designed to avoid area attacks, forced the Luftwaffe to resort to these methods. The shift from precision bombing to area attack is indicated in the tactical methods and weapons dropped. KGr 100 increased its use of incendiaries from 13–28 percent. By December, this had increased to 92 percent. Use of incendiaries, which were inherently inaccurate, indicated much less care was taken to avoid civilian property close to industrial sites. Other units ceased using parachute flares and opted for explosive target markers. Captured German air crews also indicated the homes of industrial workers were deliberately targeted.
What did Erich Raeder believe the Luftwaffe needed to do?
573040dd947a6a140053d33a
support the German submarine force
136
False
Raeder convinced Hitler to do what?
573040dd947a6a140053d33b
attack British port facilities.
335
False
What ultimately convinced Hitler that Raeder was right?
573040dd947a6a140053d33c
the high success rates of the U-Boat force
451
False
Submarines and naval aircraft damaged what primarily?
573040dd947a6a140053d33d
British war economy
580
False
What became the new targets for the Kriegsmarine?
573040dd947a6a140053d33e
British coastal centres and shipping at sea west of Ireland
821
False
In 1941, the Luftwaffe shifted strategy again. Erich Raeder—commander-in-chief of the Kriegsmarine—had long argued the Luftwaffe should support the German submarine force (U-Bootwaffe) in the Battle of the Atlantic by attacking shipping in the Atlantic Ocean and attacking British ports. Eventually, he convinced Hitler of the need to attack British port facilities. Hitler had been convinced by Raeder that this was the right course of action due to the high success rates of the U-Boat force during this period of the war. Hitler correctly noted that the greatest damage to the British war economy had been done through submarines and air attacks by small numbers of Focke-Wulf Fw 200 naval aircraft. He ordered attacks to be carried out on those targets which were also the target of the Kriegsmarine. This meant that British coastal centres and shipping at sea west of Ireland were the prime targets.
What was Hitler's Directive 23?
5730425604bcaa1900d77425
Directions for operations against the British War Economy
188
False
What was a top priority of Directive 23?
5730425604bcaa1900d77426
aerial interdiction of British imports by sea
295
False
What prevented the targeting of sea communications before?
5730425604bcaa1900d77427
Operation Eagle Attack and the following Battle of Britain
409
False
What was considered more important than the interdiction of sea communications?
5730425604bcaa1900d77428
bombing land-based aircraft industries
718
False
Hitler's interest in this strategy forced Göring and Jeschonnek to review the air war against Britain in January 1941. This led to Göring and Jeschonnek agreeing to Hitler's Directive 23, Directions for operations against the British War Economy, which was published on 6 February 1941 and gave aerial interdiction of British imports by sea top priority. This strategy had been recognised before the war, but Operation Eagle Attack and the following Battle of Britain had got in the way of striking at Britain's sea communications and diverted German air strength to the campaign against the RAF and its supporting structures. The OKL had always regarded the interdiction of sea communications of less importance than bombing land-based aircraft industries.
What was the concession Goring made with the strategic bombing against Britain?
573043c6a23a5019007fd027
Directive 23
0
False
What did Goring believe the Kriegsmarine would gain with further support?
573043c6a23a5019007fd028
control of more Luftwaffe units
310
False
Who was Raeder's successor?
573043c6a23a5019007fd029
Karl Dönitz
362
False
What was detrimental to the success of a strategic effect against Britain?
573043c6a23a5019007fd02a
Göring's lack of cooperation
477
False
How did Goring expect to regain prestige?
573043c6a23a5019007fd02b
by subduing Britain by air power alone
854
False
Directive 23 was the only concession made by Göring to the Kriegsmarine over the strategic bombing strategy of the Luftwaffe against Britain. Thereafter, he would refuse to make available any air units to destroy British dockyards, ports, port facilities, or shipping in dock or at sea, lest Kriegsmarine gain control of more Luftwaffe units. Raeder's successor—Karl Dönitz—would—on the intervention of Hitler—gain control of one unit (KG 40), but Göring would soon regain it. Göring's lack of cooperation was detrimental to the one air strategy with potentially decisive strategic effect on Britain. Instead, he wasted aircraft of Fliegerführer Atlantik (Flying Command Atlantic) on bombing mainland Britain instead of attacks against convoys. For Göring, his prestige had been damaged by the defeat in the Battle of Britain, and he wanted to regain it by subduing Britain by air power alone. He was always reluctant to cooperate with Raeder.
What was the first consideration for the OKL to support Directive 23?
57304589b2c2fd1400568b43
difficulty in estimating the impact of bombing upon war production
240
False
What was the second consideration?
57304589b2c2fd1400568b44
the conclusion British morale was unlikely to break
342
False
What did the OKL insist on maintaining?
57304589b2c2fd1400568b45
pressure, or diverting strength, onto industries
658
False
When would other targets be considered available?
57304589b2c2fd1400568b46
if the primary ones could not be attacked because of weather conditions
796
False
Even so, the decision by OKL to support the strategy in Directive 23 was instigated by two considerations, both of which had little to do with wanting to destroy Britain's sea communications in conjunction with the Kriegsmarine. First, the difficulty in estimating the impact of bombing upon war production was becoming apparent, and second, the conclusion British morale was unlikely to break led OKL to adopt the naval option. The indifference displayed by OKL to Directive 23 was perhaps best demonstrated in operational directives which diluted its effect. They emphasised the core strategic interest was attacking ports but they insisted in maintaining pressure, or diverting strength, onto industries building aircraft, anti-aircraft guns, and explosives. Other targets would be considered if the primary ones could not be attacked because of weather conditions.
What was inflicting heavy losses and increasing the air war designed to do?
5730467a04bcaa1900d77453
create the impression an amphibious assault on Britain was planned for 1941
137
False
What was preventing escalation of air operations?
5730467a04bcaa1900d77454
meteorological conditions over Britain
223
False
What happened to airfields?
5730467a04bcaa1900d77455
Airfields became water-logged
340
False
How many bomber groups were relocated to Germany?
5730467a04bcaa1900d77456
18
378
False
A further line in the directive stressed the need to inflict the heaviest losses possible, but also to intensify the air war in order to create the impression an amphibious assault on Britain was planned for 1941. However, meteorological conditions over Britain were not favourable for flying and prevented an escalation in air operations. Airfields became water-logged and the 18 Kampfgruppen (bomber groups) of the Luftwaffe's Kampfgeschwadern (bomber wings) were relocated to Germany for rest and re-equipment.
How many sorties were flown in March 1941?
57304755b2c2fd1400568b65
4,000
81
False
When did the Luftwaffe fly inland missions?
57304755b2c2fd1400568b66
only on moonlit nights
227
False
Why were ports better targets?
57304755b2c2fd1400568b67
Ports were easier to find
251
False
How did the Germans confuse the British?
57304755b2c2fd1400568b68
radio silence was observed until the bombs fell
326
False
Why was the X-Gerat frequencies used more?
57304755b2c2fd1400568b69
British selective jamming was degrading the effectiveness of Y-Gerät
628
False
From the German point of view, March 1941 saw an improvement. The Luftwaffe flew 4,000 sorties that month, including 12 major and three heavy attacks. The electronic war intensified but the Luftwaffe flew major inland missions only on moonlit nights. Ports were easier to find and made better targets. To confuse the British, radio silence was observed until the bombs fell. X- and Y-Gerät beams were placed over false targets and switched only at the last minute. Rapid frequency changes were introduced for X-Gerät, whose wider band of frequencies and greater tactical flexibility ensured it remained effective at a time when British selective jamming was degrading the effectiveness of Y-Gerät.
What was focused in March?
5730490704bcaa1900d7747d
western ports
33
False
What did these attacks accomplish?
5730490704bcaa1900d7747e
breaks in morale
85
False
Why was the OKL forced to improvise?
5730490704bcaa1900d7747f
shortage of bombers
347
False
How many Ju 87 Stuka dive-bombers and Jabos were used?
5730490704bcaa1900d77480
50
401
False
How many German bombs hit their target?
5730490704bcaa1900d77481
only one-third
746
False
The attacks were focused against western ports in March. These attacks produced some breaks in morale, with civil leaders fleeing the cities before the offensive reached its height. But the Luftwaffe's effort eased in the last 10 attacks as seven Kampfgruppen moved to Austria in preparation for the Balkans Campaign in Yugoslavia and Greece. The shortage of bombers caused the OKL to improvise. Some 50 Junkers Ju 87 Stuka dive-bombers and Jabos (fighter-bombers) were used, officially classed as Leichte Kampfflugzeuge ("light bombers") and sometimes called Leichte Kesselringe ("Light Kesselrings"). The defences failed to prevent widespread damage but on some occasions did prevent German bombers concentrating on their targets. On occasion, only one-third of German bombs hit their targets.
How many sorties a night were crews asked to fly?
57304a082461fd1900a9cceb
two or three sorties
109
False
What contributed to the exhaustion of crews flying extra sorties?
57304a082461fd1900a9ccec
Bombers were noisy, cold, and vibrated badly
141
False
What happened to Peter Stahl when he fell asleep flying?
57304a082461fd1900a9cced
woke up to discover the entire crew asleep.
433
False
What did Peter's crew take to complete their mission?
57304a082461fd1900a9ccee
oxygen and Dextro-Energen tablets
511
False
The diversion of heavier bombers to the Balkans meant that the crews and units left behind were asked to fly two or three sorties per night. Bombers were noisy, cold, and vibrated badly. Added to the tension of the mission which exhausted and drained crews, tiredness caught up with and killed many. In one incident on 28/29 April, Peter Stahl of KG 30 was flying on his 50th mission. He fell asleep at the controls of his Ju 88 and woke up to discover the entire crew asleep. He roused them, ensured they took oxygen and Dextro-Energen tablets, then completed the mission.
What did the British fear most?
57304b48396df91900096048
intensification of submarine and air attack
109
False
What was an important destination for supply convoys from North America?
57304b48396df91900096049
Liverpool
319
False
The Liverpool Blitz sank how much shipping?
57304b48396df9190009604a
39,126 long tons (39,754 t) of shipping
634
False
How many ships were destroyed on May 8, 1941?
57304b48396df9190009604b
57 ships
1060
False
How much of the overseas trade did the Port of London take on?
57304b48396df9190009604c
one-third of overseas trade
1707
False
Regardless, the Luftwaffe could still inflict huge damage. With the German occupation of Western Europe, the intensification of submarine and air attack on Britain's sea communications was feared by the British. Such an event would have serious consequences on the future course of the war, should the Germans succeed. Liverpool and its port became an important destination for convoys heading through the Western Approaches from North America, bringing supplies and materials. The considerable rail network distributed to the rest of the country. Operations against Liverpool in the Liverpool Blitz were successful. Air attacks sank 39,126 long tons (39,754 t) of shipping, with another 111,601 long tons (113,392 t) damaged. Minister of Home Security Herbert Morrison was also worried morale was breaking, noting the defeatism expressed by civilians. Other sources point to half of the port's 144 berths rendered unusable, while cargo unloading capability was reduced by 75%. Roads and railways were blocked and ships could not leave harbour. On 8 May 1941, 57 ships were destroyed, sunk or damaged amounting to 80,000 long tons (81,000 t). Around 66,000 houses were destroyed, 77,000 people made homeless, and 1,900 people killed and 1,450 seriously hurt on one night. Operations against London up until May 1941 could also have a severe impact on morale. The populace of the port of Hull became 'trekkers', people who underwent a mass exodus from cities before, during, and after attacks. However, the attacks failed to knock out or damage railways, or port facilities for long, even in the Port of London, a target of many attacks. The Port of London in particular was an important target, bringing in one-third of overseas trade.
How many houses were spared damage in Glasgow?
57304c5e8ab72b1400f9c3fe
seven
80
False
How many people per week were losing housing?
57304c5e8ab72b1400f9c3ff
40,000 people
388
False
Why was Plymouth targeted the most?
57304c5e8ab72b1400f9c400
because of its vulnerable position on the south coast
761
False
What did the Germans use along with incendiaries and bombs?
57304c5e8ab72b1400f9c401
aerial mines
1545
False
How many AAA shells were fired?
57304c5e8ab72b1400f9c402
Over 2,000
1559
False
On 13 March, the upper Clyde port of Clydebank near Glasgow was bombed. All but seven of its 12,000 houses were damaged. Many more ports were attacked. Plymouth was attacked five times before the end of the month while Belfast, Hull, and Cardiff were hit. Cardiff was bombed on three nights, Portsmouth centre was devastated by five raids. The rate of civilian housing lost was averaging 40,000 people per week dehoused in September 1940. In March 1941, two raids on Plymouth and London dehoused 148,000 people. Still, while heavily damaged, British ports continued to support war industry and supplies from North America continued to pass through them while the Royal Navy continued to operate in Plymouth, Southampton, and Portsmouth. Plymouth in particular, because of its vulnerable position on the south coast and close proximity to German air bases, was subjected to the heaviest attacks. On 10/11 March, 240 bombers dropped 193 tons of high explosives and 46,000 incendiaries. Many houses and commercial centres were heavily damaged, the electrical supply was knocked out, and five oil tanks and two magazines exploded. Nine days later, two waves of 125 and 170 bombers dropped heavy bombs, including 160 tons of high explosive and 32,000 incendiaries. Much of the city centre was destroyed. Damage was inflicted on the port installations, but many bombs fell on the city itself. On 17 April 346 tons of explosives and 46,000 incendiaries were dropped from 250 bombers led by KG 26. The damage was considerable, and the Germans also used aerial mines. Over 2,000 AAA shells were fired, destroying two Ju 88s. By the end of the air campaign over Britain, only eight percent of the German effort against British ports was made using mines.
What were two large ports on the English east coast in the North?
57304d95069b53140083202f
Newcastle-upon-Tyne and Sunderland
52
False
How many bombers were used in a five-hour attack?
57304d95069b531400832030
120
232
False
Sunderland saw how many incendiaries used against it on 25 April?
57304d95069b531400832031
9,000 incendiaries
432
False
What was the result of the German attacks?
57304d95069b531400832032
the Germans failed to prevent maritime movements or cripple industry in the regions
598
False
In the north, substantial efforts were made against Newcastle-upon-Tyne and Sunderland, which were large ports on the English east coast. On 9 April 1941 Luftflotte 2 dropped 150 tons of high explosives and 50,000 incendiaries from 120 bombers in a five-hour attack. Sewer, rail, docklands, and electric installations were damaged. In Sunderland on 25 April, Luftflotte 2 sent 60 bombers which dropped 80 tons of high explosive and 9,000 incendiaries. Much damage was done. A further attack on the Clyde, this time at Greenock, took place on 6 and 7 May. However, as with the attacks in the south, the Germans failed to prevent maritime movements or cripple industry in the regions.
When was the last major attack London saw?
57304e592461fd1900a9cd05
10/11 May 1941
39
False
How many tonnes of bombs did the Luftwaffe use on London?
57304e592461fd1900a9cd06
800 tonnes
107
False
How many casualties were inflicted?
57304e592461fd1900a9cd07
1,436 people were killed and 1,792 seriously injured
163
False
What was the damage done to London's streets?
57304e592461fd1900a9cd08
One-third of London's streets were impassable
402
False
What showed RAF night fighter effectiveness was increasing?
57304e592461fd1900a9cd09
63 German fighters were sent with the bombers
543
False
The last major attack on London was on 10/11 May 1941, on which the Luftwaffe flew 571 sorties and dropped 800 tonnes of bombs. This caused more than 2,000 fires. 1,436 people were killed and 1,792 seriously injured, which affected morale badly. Another raid was carried out on 11/12 May 1941. Westminster Abbey and the Law Courts were damaged, while the Chamber of the House of Commons was destroyed. One-third of London's streets were impassable. All but one railway station line was blocked for several weeks. This raid was significant, as 63 German fighters were sent with the bombers, indicating the growing effectiveness of RAF night fighter defences.
How was the British night fighter operations faring?
57304f5e2461fd1900a9cd0f
were proving highly successful.
111
False
How did the Bristol Blenheim F.1 perform against German aircraft?
57304f5e2461fd1900a9cd10
was undergunned, with just four .303 in (7.7 mm) machine guns
203
False
How did the Bristol Blenheim F.1 compare to German aircraft speed?
57304f5e2461fd1900a9cd11
struggled to reach the speed of the German bombers
349
False
What did interception rely upon?
57304f5e2461fd1900a9cd12
visual sighting
445
False
German air supremacy at night was also now under threat. British night-fighter operations out over the Channel were proving highly successful. This was not immediately apparent. The Bristol Blenheim F.1 was undergunned, with just four .303 in (7.7 mm) machine guns which struggled to down the Do 17, Ju 88, or Heinkel He 111. Moreover, the Blenheim struggled to reach the speed of the German bombers. Added to the fact an interception relied on visual sighting, a kill was most elusive even in the conditions of a moonlit sky.
What performed better during night fighting?
5730501a396df91900096052
The Boulton Paul Defiant
0
False
How could aircraft engage bombers when fitted with a turret?
5730501a396df91900096053
engage the unsuspecting German bomber from beneath
285
False
What benefits did attacking from below offer?
5730501a396df91900096054
larger target, compared to attacking tail-on, as well as a better chance of not being seen by the bomber
366
False
The Boulton Paul Defiant, despite its poor performance during daylight engagements, was a much better night fighter. It was faster, able to catch the bombers and its configuration of four machine guns in a turret could (much like German night fighters in 1943–1945 with Schräge Musik) engage the unsuspecting German bomber from beneath. Attacks from below offered a larger target, compared to attacking tail-on, as well as a better chance of not being seen by the bomber (so less chance of evasion), as well as greater likelihood of detonating its bombload. In subsequent months a steady number of German bombers would fall to night fighters.
What was the max speed of a Beaufighter?
573050f28ab72b1400f9c448
320 mph (510 km/h)
195
False
What is the operational ceiling of the Beaufighter?
573050f28ab72b1400f9c449
26,000 ft (7,900 m)
241
False
how many machine guns did the Beaufighter include?
573050f28ab72b1400f9c44a
six .303 in Browning machine guns
366
False
What day was the first victory the RAF had with airborne radar?
573050f28ab72b1400f9c44b
19 November
447
False
Improved aircraft designs were in the offing with the Bristol Beaufighter, then under development. It would prove formidable, but its development was slow. The Beaufighter had a maximum speed of 320 mph (510 km/h), an operational ceiling of 26,000 ft (7,900 m) and a climb rate of 2,500 ft (760 m) per minute. Its armament of four 20 mm (0.79 in) Hispano cannon and six .303 in Browning machine guns offered a serious threat to German bombers. On 19 November, John Cunningham of No. 604 Squadron RAF shot down a bomber flying an AI-equipped Beaufighter. It was the first air victory for the airborne radar.
What was the most losses the Luftwaffe suffered on any mission?
5730528c396df91900096062
one- to two-percent losses
101
False
How many bombers hit Plymouth on Hitler's birthday?
5730528c396df91900096063
712
208
False
How many bombs hit Plymouth on Hitler's birthday?
5730528c396df91900096064
1,000 tons of bombs
247
False
On May 3/4 how many German bombers were lost?
5730528c396df91900096065
nine
413
False
How many German bombers were shot down by the RAF in May?
5730528c396df91900096066
38 German bombers
569
False
By April and May 1941, the Luftwaffe was still getting through to their targets, taking no more than one- to two-percent losses on any given mission. On 19/20 April 1941, in honour of Hitler's 52nd birthday, 712 bombers hit Plymouth with a record 1,000 tons of bombs. Losses were minimal. In the following month, 22 German bombers were lost with 13 confirmed to have been shot down by night fighters. On 3/4 May, nine were shot down in one night. On 10/11 May, London suffered severe damage, but 10 German bombers were downed. In May 1941, RAF night fighters shot down 38 German bombers.
The Luftwaffe used how many short tons of bombs during the Blitz?
57305376069b53140083205d
45,000 short tons
75
False
The Luftwaffe helped the U-boats by sinking how much shipping?
57305376069b53140083205e
58,000 long tons
284
False
How did the British production fare as a result of all the bombing?
57305376069b53140083205f
overall the British production rose steadily throughout this period
382
False
What was the greatest achievement of the bombings?
57305376069b531400832060
British were denied the opportunity to reach the planned target of 2,500 aircraft in a month
781
False
How long was the recovery of industrial cities from raids?
57305376069b531400832061
most took from 10–15 days
1176
False
The military effectiveness of bombing varied. The Luftwaffe dropped around 45,000 short tons (41,000 t) of bombs during the Blitz disrupting production and transport, reducing food supplies and shaking the British morale. It also helped to support the U-Boat blockade by sinking some 58,000 long tons (59,000 t) of shipping destroyed and 450,000 long tons (460,000 t) damaged. Yet, overall the British production rose steadily throughout this period although there were significant falls during April 1941, probably influenced by the departure of workers of Easter Holidays according to the British official history. The British official history on war production noted the great impact was upon the supply of components rather than complete equipment. In aircraft production, the British were denied the opportunity to reach the planned target of 2,500 aircraft in a month, arguably the greatest achievement of the bombing, as it forced the dispersal of industry. In April 1941, when the targets were British ports, rifle production fell by 25%, filled-shell production by 4.6%, and in smallarms production 4.5% overall. The strategic impact on industrial cities was varied; most took from 10–15 days to recover from heavy raids, although Belfast and Liverpool took longer. The attacks against Birmingham took war industries some three months to recover fully from. The exhausted population took three weeks to overcome the effects of an attack.
How could have more been achieved in the air offensive?
5730544b2461fd1900a9cd39
had the OKL exploited their enemy's weak spot
120
False
What did the disputes in the OKL tend to be about?
5730544b2461fd1900a9cd3a
about tactics rather than strategy
581
False
What was the Luftwaffe incapable of doing?
5730544b2461fd1900a9cd3b
an economic-industrial analysis
370
False
How many casualties did the Blitz ultimately cause?
5730544b2461fd1900a9cd3c
cost around 41,000 lives, and may have injured another 139,000
731
False
The air offensive against the RAF and British industry failed to have the desired effect. More might have been achieved had the OKL exploited their enemy's weak spot, the vulnerability of British sea communications. The Allies did so later when Bomber Command attacked rail communications and the United States Army Air Forces targeted oil, but that would have required an economic-industrial analysis of which the Luftwaffe was incapable. The OKL instead sought clusters of targets that suited the latest policy (which changed frequently), and disputes within the leadership were about tactics rather than strategy. Though militarily ineffective, the Blitz caused enormous damage to Britain's infrastructure and housing stock. It cost around 41,000 lives, and may have injured another 139,000.
What helped increase the Bomber Command's offensives?
573055502461fd1900a9cd49
the German experience
104
False
What did the RAF conclude?
573055502461fd1900a9cd4a
bombers should strike a single target each night and use more incendiaries because they had a greater impact on production than high explosives
181
False
What caused the most production disruption?
573055502461fd1900a9cd4b
when city centres were devastated through the loss of administrative offices, utilities and transport.
385
False
What did the Luftwaffe fail?
573055502461fd1900a9cd4c
failed in precision attack
520
False
What did the experience of German's using incendiaries mean?
573055502461fd1900a9cd4d
using incendiaries was the way forward for operations over Germany.
596
False
The relieved British began to assess the impact of the Blitz in August 1941, and the RAF Air Staff used the German experience to improve Bomber Command's offensives. They concluded bombers should strike a single target each night and use more incendiaries because they had a greater impact on production than high explosives. They also noted regional production was severely disrupted when city centres were devastated through the loss of administrative offices, utilities and transport. They believed the Luftwaffe had failed in precision attack, and concluded the German example of area attack using incendiaries was the way forward for operations over Germany.
What was the critical lesson Air Staff ignored?
573056242461fd1900a9cd5d
Targeting German morale, as Bomber Command would do, was no more successful.
99
False
Aviation strategists disputed over what?
573056242461fd1900a9cd5e
that morale was ever a major consideration for Bomber Command.
205
False
What did 16 of the Western Air Plans not mention?
573056242461fd1900a9cd5f
morale as a target.
338
False
When was morale finally mentioned?
573056242461fd1900a9cd60
ninth wartime directive on 21 September 1940
487
False
When were industrial cities to be targeted?
573056242461fd1900a9cd61
if weather denied strikes on Bomber Command's main concern, oil.
646
False
Some writers claim the Air Staff ignored a critical lesson, however: British morale did not break. Targeting German morale, as Bomber Command would do, was no more successful. Aviation strategists dispute that morale was ever a major consideration for Bomber Command. Throughout 1933–39 none of the 16 Western Air Plans drafted mentioned morale as a target. The first three directives in 1940 did not mention civilian populations or morale in any way. Morale was not mentioned until the ninth wartime directive on 21 September 1940. The 10th directive in October 1940 mentioned morale by name. However, industrial cities were only to be targeted if weather denied strikes on Bomber Command's main concern, oil.
Without what could morale collapse occur according to Arthur Harris?
573057112461fd1900a9cd71
without the destruction of the German economy.
142
False
What was the primary strategy for Bomber Command offensives?
573057112461fd1900a9cd72
to destroy the German industrial base (economic warfare), and in doing so reduce morale
241
False
Arthur Harris announced that Bomber Command would enable economic warfare to achieve what?
573057112461fd1900a9cd73
"a state of devastation in which surrender is inevitable."
445
False
AOC Bomber Command Arthur Harris did see German morale as a major objective. However, he did not believe that the morale-collapse could occur without the destruction of the German economy. The primary goal of Bomber Command's offensives was to destroy the German industrial base (economic warfare), and in doing so reduce morale. In late 1943, just before the Battle of Berlin, he declared the power of Bomber Command would enable it to achieve "a state of devastation in which surrender is inevitable." A summary of Harris' strategic intentions was clear:
What view became popular of the British people in WWII?
57305861069b53140083208d
people locked in national solidarity.
90
False
When did this popular view come to be?
57305861069b53140083208e
in the 1980s and 1990s, especially after the publication of Angus Calder's book The Myth of the Blitz (1991).
190
False
Political factions in Britain supported what view of Britains in WWII?
57305861069b53140083208f
aggressive British patriotism successfully defending democracy.
484
False
What was the Historians' critical response to this view?
57305861069b531400832090
over-emphasised claims of righteous nationalism and national unity.
816
False
What did Calder try to expose in his book?
57305861069b531400832091
some of the counter-evidence of anti-social and divisive behaviours
925
False
A converse popular image arose of British people in the Second World War: a collection of people locked in national solidarity. This image entered the historiography of the Second World War in the 1980s and 1990s, especially after the publication of Angus Calder's book The Myth of the Blitz (1991). It was evoked by both the right and left political factions in Britain during the Falklands War when it was embedded in a nostalgic narrative in which the Second World War represented aggressive British patriotism successfully defending democracy. This imagery of people in the Blitz was and is powerfully portrayed in film, radio, newspapers and magazines. At the time it was a useful propaganda tool for home and foreign consumption. Historians' critical response to this construction focused on what were seen as over-emphasised claims of righteous nationalism and national unity. In the Myth of the Blitz, Calder exposed some of the counter-evidence of anti-social and divisive behaviours. What he saw as the myth—serene national unity—became "historical truth". In particular, class division was most evident.
What was the communist party agitated over?
573059852461fd1900a9cdb3
the need for bomb-proof shelters.
96
False
What did Londoners use for bomb-shelters?
573059852461fd1900a9cdb4
Underground railway system
179
False
What did Morrison warn he couldn't do?
573059852461fd1900a9cdb5
that he could not counter the Communist unrest unless provision of shelters were made.
775
False
Who did the Communists blame for the damage in the Conventry raids?
573059852461fd1900a9cdb6
the rich factory owners, big business and landowning interests
1218
False
What was Morrison forced to do in response to the Communist Party?
573059852461fd1900a9cdb7
the stoppage of the Daily Worker and The Week; the Communist newspaper and journal.
1539
False
In the wake of the Coventry Blitz, there was widespread agitation from the Communist Party over the need for bomb-proof shelters. Many Londoners, in particular, took to using the Underground railway system, without authority, for shelter and sleeping through the night there until the following morning. So worried were the Government over the sudden campaign of leaflets and posters distributed by the Communist Party in Coventry and London, that the Police were sent in to seize their production facilities. The Government, up until November 1940, was opposed to the centralised organisation of shelter. Home Secretary Sir John Anderson was replaced by Morrison soon afterwards, in the wake of a Cabinet reshuffle as the dying Neville Chamberlain resigned. Morrison warned that he could not counter the Communist unrest unless provision of shelters were made. He recognised the right of the public to seize tube stations and authorised plans to improve their condition and expand them by tunnelling. Still, many British citizens, who had been members of the Labour Party, itself inert over the issue, turned to the Communist Party. The Communists attempted to blame the damage and casualties of the Coventry raid on the rich factory owners, big business and landowning interests and called for a negotiated peace. Though they failed to make a large gain in influence, the membership of the Party had doubled by June 1941. The "Communist threat" was deemed important enough for Herbert Morrison to order, with the support of the Cabinet, the stoppage of the Daily Worker and The Week; the Communist newspaper and journal.
The success of the Communists helped what political group?
57305a8e396df9190009609c
British Union of Fascists (BUF)
67
False
Where did anti-semitic attitude spread primarily?
57305a8e396df9190009609d
particularly in London
142
False
What was one the rumors that Jews were doing in regard to shelters?
57305a8e396df9190009609e
secured the best shelters via underhanded methods
398
False
What was feared would happen when different races were mixed in shelters?
57305a8e396df9190009609f
race riots
590
False
The brief success of the Communists also fed into the hands of the British Union of Fascists (BUF). Anti-Semitic attitudes became widespread, particularly in London. Rumours that Jewish support was underpinning the Communist surge were frequent. Rumours that Jews were inflating prices, were responsible for the Black Market, were the first to panic under attack (even the cause of the panic), and secured the best shelters via underhanded methods, were also widespread. Moreover, there was also racial antagonism between the small Black, Indian and Jewish communities. However, the feared race riots did not transpire despite the mixing of different peoples into confined areas.
How much of London's population left?
57305b4f2461fd1900a9cdc7
Over a quarter
50
False
What locations saw an increase in populations?
57305b4f2461fd1900a9cdc8
south Wales and Gloucester
200
False
What was another reason for populations moving?
57305b4f2461fd1900a9cdc9
industry dispersal may have been a factor
297
False
How many evacuees were there?
57305b4f2461fd1900a9cdca
1.4 million
565
False
How much of the population returned in four months?
57305b4f2461fd1900a9cdcb
88% of evacuated mothers, 86% of small children, and 43% of school children
914
False
In other cities, class conflict was more evident. Over a quarter of London's population had left the city by November 1940. Civilians left for more remote areas of the country. Upsurges in population south Wales and Gloucester intimated where these displaced people went. Other reasons, including industry dispersal may have been a factor. However, resentment of rich self-evacuees or hostile treatment of poor ones were signs of persistence of class resentments although these factors did not appear to threaten social order. The total number of evacuees numbered 1.4 million, including a high proportion from the poorest inner-city families. Reception committees were completely unprepared for the condition of some of the children. Far from displaying the nation's unity in time of war, the scheme backfired, often aggravating class antagonism and bolstering prejudice about the urban poor. Within four months, 88% of evacuated mothers, 86% of small children, and 43% of school children had been returned home. The lack of bombing in the Phoney War contributed significantly to the return of people to the cities, but class conflict was not eased a year later when evacuation operations had to be put into effect again.
What are the audiobooks with wartime recordings?
57305bf72461fd1900a9cdd1
The Blitz, The Home Front and British War Broadcasting
122
False
What are some of the things included in these recordings?
57305bf72461fd1900a9cdd2
period interviews with civilians, servicemen, aircrew, politicians and Civil Defence personnel, as well as Blitz actuality recordings
204
False
What is one of the notable recordings included?
57305bf72461fd1900a9cdd3
Thomas Alderson, the first recipient of the George Cross, John Cormack, who survived eight days trapped beneath rubble on Clydeside
416
False
What is a second recording that is of note?
57305bf72461fd1900a9cdd4
Herbert Morrison's famous "Britain shall not burn" appeal for more fireguards in December 1940.
553
False
In recent years a large number of wartime recordings relating to the Blitz have been made available on audiobooks such as The Blitz, The Home Front and British War Broadcasting. These collections include period interviews with civilians, servicemen, aircrew, politicians and Civil Defence personnel, as well as Blitz actuality recordings, news bulletins and public information broadcasts. Notable interviews include Thomas Alderson, the first recipient of the George Cross, John Cormack, who survived eight days trapped beneath rubble on Clydeside, and Herbert Morrison's famous "Britain shall not burn" appeal for more fireguards in December 1940.
Endangered_Species_Act
In what year did the Endangered Species Act become law?
572e8f7003f9891900756797
1973
30
False
Which president signed the Act into law?
572e8f7003f9891900756798
Richard Nixon
362
False
Which two federal agencies administer the Act?
572e8f7003f9891900756799
the United States Fish and Wildlife Service (FWS) and the National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA)
789
False
On what day was the Endangered Species Act signed?
572e8f7003f989190075679a
December 28
379
False
What did the Supreme Court cite as the intent of Congress in enacting the Endangered Species Act?
572e8f7003f989190075679b
to halt and reverse the trend toward species extinction, whatever the cost
663
False
1970s
142
When was CITES created?
5a844fc87cf838001a46a6fc
True
The Endangered Species Act
0
What did the Supreme Court sign into law in the 1970s?
5a844fc87cf838001a46a6fd
True
Richard Nixon
362
Who is the President of the FWS?
5a844fc87cf838001a46a6fe
True
December 28
379
What day did the Supreme Court rule on ESA?
5a844fc87cf838001a46a6ff
True
The U.S. Supreme Court
573
Who ruled on which agencies would administer the act?
5a844fc87cf838001a46a700
True
The Endangered Species Act of 1973 (ESA; 16 U.S.C. § 1531 et seq.) is one of the few dozens of United States environmental laws passed in the 1970s, and serves as the enacting legislation to carry out the provisions outlined in The Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES). The ESA was signed into law by President Richard Nixon on December 28, 1973, it was designed to protect critically imperiled species from extinction as a "consequence of economic growth and development untempered by adequate concern and conservation." The U.S. Supreme Court found that "the plain intent of Congress in enacting" the ESA "was to halt and reverse the trend toward species extinction, whatever the cost." The Act is administered by two federal agencies, the United States Fish and Wildlife Service (FWS) and the National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA).
What was the historical range of the whooping crane?
572e9044cb0c0d14000f12a2
central Canada South to Mexico, and from Utah to the Atlantic coast
120
False
What two issues caused steady decline in the whooping crane population?
572e9044cb0c0d14000f12a3
Unregulated hunting and habitat loss
189
False
What was the estimated population of the whooping crane in 1941?
572e9044cb0c0d14000f12a4
16 birds
652
False
How many years after the noted absence of the whooping crane from its breeding range did the first law regulating wildlife commerce pass
572e9044cb0c0d14000f12a5
eight years
414
False
whooping crane
60
What species is found ranging from Canada to Utah?
5a8450567cf838001a46a706
True
eight
414
How many years did it take for the whooping crane to disappear?
5a8450567cf838001a46a707
True
16
652
How many whooping cranes were there in 1890?
5a8450567cf838001a46a708
True
the endangered species act
547
What was passed in 1941?
5a8450567cf838001a46a709
True
1890
301
What year did the whooping crane begin to get attention?
5a8450567cf838001a46a70a
True
One species in particular received widespread attention—the whooping crane. The species' historical range extended from central Canada South to Mexico, and from Utah to the Atlantic coast. Unregulated hunting and habitat loss contributed to a steady decline in the whooping crane population until, by 1890, it had disappeared from its primary breeding range in the north central United States. It would be another eight years before the first national law regulating wildlife commerce was signed, and another two years before the first version of the endangered species act was passed. The whooping crane population by 1941 was estimated at about only 16 birds still in the wild.
What was the first federal law that regulated wildlife commerce?
572e9100c246551400ce434e
Lacey Act of 1900
4
False
What did the first federal wildlife commerce law prohibit?
572e9100c246551400ce434f
interstate commerce of animals killed in violation of state game laws
104
False
What wildlife was covered by the first federal wildlife commerce regulation?
572e9100c246551400ce4350
all fish and wildlife and their parts or products, as well as plants
187
False
What law passed in 1940 regarding the population of the U.S. national bird?
572e9100c246551400ce4351
Bald Eagle Protection Act of 1940
412
False
The Lacey Act
0
What legislation was considered costly?
5a84517e7cf838001a46a710
True
the Migratory Bird Conservation Act
295
What was the first federal treaty?
5a84517e7cf838001a46a711
True
animals killed in violation of state game laws
127
What did the first federal law on wildlife allow regarding interstate commerce?
5a84517e7cf838001a46a712
True
Bald Eagle Protection Act
412
What was the name of the 1937 treaty?
5a84517e7cf838001a46a713
True
later laws
453
Which laws faced significant opposition?
5a84517e7cf838001a46a714
True
The Lacey Act of 1900 was the first federal law that regulated commercial animal markets. It prohibited interstate commerce of animals killed in violation of state game laws, and covered all fish and wildlife and their parts or products, as well as plants. Other legislation followed, including the Migratory Bird Conservation Act of 1929, a 1937 treaty prohibiting the hunting of right and gray whales, and the Bald Eagle Protection Act of 1940. These later laws had a low cost to society–the species were relatively rare–and little opposition was raised.
What did the Endangered Species Act authorize the Secretary of the Interior to do?
572e91dccb0c0d14000f12d0
list endangered domestic fish and wildlife
47
False
The Endangered Species Act permitted how much annual expenditure by the US Fish and Wildlife Service for habitat purchase?
572e91dccb0c0d14000f12d1
$15 million per year
161
False
The Endangered Species Act gave the Secretary of the Interior administrative power of what organization?
572e91dccb0c0d14000f12d2
the National Wildlife Refuge System
406
False
How did the Endangered Species Act impact wildlife commerce?
572e91dccb0c0d14000f12d3
The act did not address the commerce in endangered species and parts
520
False
How did the Endangered Species Act impact other agencies not specifically mentioned in the Act?
572e91dccb0c0d14000f12d4
Other public agencies were encouraged, but not required, to protect species
443
False
$15 million
161
How much could the Act spend per year?
5a84524f7cf838001a46a71a
True
the Secretary of the Interior
14
Who runs the United States Fish and Wildlife Service?
5a84524f7cf838001a46a71b
True
endangered species and parts
560
What commerce did the ESA affect?
5a84524f7cf838001a46a71c
True
domestic fish and wildlife
63
What animals could not be listed as endangered due to this act?
5a84524f7cf838001a46a71d
True
habitat on their lands
269
What did the National Wildlife Refuge System preserve?
5a84524f7cf838001a46a71e
True
It authorized the Secretary of the Interior to list endangered domestic fish and wildlife and allowed the United States Fish and Wildlife Service to spend up to $15 million per year to buy habitats for listed species. It also directed federal land agencies to preserve habitat on their lands. The Act also consolidated and even expanded authority for the Secretary of the Interior to manage and administer the National Wildlife Refuge System. Other public agencies were encouraged, but not required, to protect species. The act did not address the commerce in endangered species and parts.
What is the nickname given to the first listing of endangered species?
572e92b1cb0c0d14000f12da
"Class of '67"
38
False
What was concluded to be the biggest threat to the listed species?
572e92b1cb0c0d14000f12db
habitat destruction
125
False
How was the first listing limited in what species were listed?
572e92b1cb0c0d14000f12dc
It included only vertebrates
244
False
How did being listed initially impact species?
572e92b1cb0c0d14000f12dd
the animals on the endangered species list still were not getting enough protection, thus further threatening their extinction
417
False
78
174
How many species are currently listed?
5a8453337cf838001a46a738
True
vertebrates
261
What type of animal was not included in Volume 1?
5a8453337cf838001a46a739
True
1
101
What volume was published in 1969?
5a8453337cf838001a46a73a
True
habitat destruction
125
What threat towards species has been neutralized?
5a8453337cf838001a46a73b
True
Class of '67
39
What is the Endangered Species Act of 1969 referred to as?
5a8453337cf838001a46a73c
True
This first list is referred to as the "Class of '67" in The Endangered Species Act at Thirty, Volume 1, which concludes that habitat destruction, the biggest threat to those 78 species, is still the same threat to the currently listed species. It included only vertebrates because the Department of Interior's definition of "fish and wildlife" was limited to vertebrates. However, with time, researchers noticed that the animals on the endangered species list still were not getting enough protection, thus further threatening their extinction. The endangered species program was expanded by the Endangered Species Act of 1969.
When was the Endangered Species Conservation Act passed?
572e937adfa6aa1500f8d179
December, 1969
66
False
How did the Endangered Species Conservation Act benefit endangered species?
572e937adfa6aa1500f8d17a
by prohibiting their importation and subsequent sale in the United States
187
False
What did the Endangered Species Conservation Act add to the wildlife definition of the Lacey Act?
572e937adfa6aa1500f8d17b
mammals, reptiles, amphibians, mollusks and crustaceans
328
False
What two reptiles were particularly of interest for the inclusion of "reptiles" in the Endangered Species Conservation Act?
572e937adfa6aa1500f8d17c
alligators and crocodiles
446
False
What important precedent did this set for invertebrates?
572e937adfa6aa1500f8d17d
This law was the first time that invertebrates were included for protection
473
False
Endangered Species Conservation Act
4
What repealed the Lacey Act?
5a8454087cf838001a46a74a
True
P. L. 91-135
41
What is the identification number for the Lacey Act?
5a8454087cf838001a46a74b
True
to reduce the rampant poaching of alligators and crocodiles
412
Why were mammals added to the protected species list?
5a8454087cf838001a46a74c
True
December, 1969
66
When was the Lacey Act passed?
5a8454087cf838001a46a74d
True
mammals, reptiles, amphibians, mollusks and crustaceans
328
What was excluded in the 1969 law?
5a8454087cf838001a46a74e
True
The Endangered Species Conservation Act (P. L. 91-135), passed in December, 1969, amended the original law to provide additional protection to species in danger of "worldwide extinction" by prohibiting their importation and subsequent sale in the United States. It expanded the Lacey Act's ban on interstate commerce to include mammals, reptiles, amphibians, mollusks and crustaceans. Reptiles were added mainly to reduce the rampant poaching of alligators and crocodiles. This law was the first time that invertebrates were included for protection.
Who led the team of lawyers and scientists who crafted the Endangered Species Act of 1973?
572e94b2c246551400ce437c
Dr. Russell E. Train
542
False
The team leader was the first appointed head of what organization?
572e94b2c246551400ce437d
the Council on Environmental Quality
428
False
Who wrote the most challenged section of the Act?
572e94b2c246551400ce437e
Dr. Gerard A. "Jerry" Bertrand
835
False
Who was the core staffer to the legislation that worked for the EPA and continued to work in the Office of Endangered Species?
572e94b2c246551400ce437f
Dr. Earl Baysinger
626
False
What Congress called for the drafting of the Endangered Species Act of 1973?
572e94b2c246551400ce4380
the 93rd United States Congress
101
False
species conservation efforts
41
What did the 93rd Congress declare inadequate?
5a845daa7cf838001a46a794
True
Richard Nixon
10
Who was the 93rd US President?
5a845daa7cf838001a46a795
True
the Endangered Species Act of 1973
239
What law did Nixon rewrite?
5a845daa7cf838001a46a796
True
2
1449
What section of the act did Dr. Train write?
5a845daa7cf838001a46a797
True
NEPA
487
What grew out of CEQ?
5a845daa7cf838001a46a798
True
President Richard Nixon declared current species conservation efforts to be inadequate and called on the 93rd United States Congress to pass comprehensive endangered species legislation. Congress responded with a completely rewritten law, the Endangered Species Act of 1973 which was signed by Nixon on December 28, 1973 (Pub.L. 93–205). It was written by a team of lawyers and scientists, including the first appointed head of the Council on Environmental Quality (CEQ),an outgrowth of NEPA (The "National Environmental Policy Act of 1969") Dr. Russell E. Train. Dr. Train was assisted by a core group of staffers, including Dr. Earl Baysinger at EPA (currently Assistant Chief, Office of Endangered Species and International. Activities), Dick Gutting (U.S. Commerce Dept. lawyer, currently joined NOAA the previous year (1972), and Dr. Gerard A. "Jerry" Bertrand, a marine biologist (Ph.D, Oregon State University) by training, who had transferred from his post as the Scientific Adviser to the U.S Army Corps of Engineers, office of the Commandant of the Corp. to join the newly formed White House office. The staff, under Dr. Train's leadership, incorporated dozens of new principles and ideas into the landmark legislation; crafting a document that completely changed the direction of environmental conservation in the United States. Dr. Bertrand is credited with writing the most challenged section of the Act, the "takings" clause - Section 2.
How many different ways can a species be added to the endangered list?
572ea0a603f989190075685b
two ways
27
False
What federal program is used to list a species?
572ea0a603f989190075685c
candidate assessment program
197
False
How long is the screening period of an individual's or organization's petition to add a species to the list
572ea0a603f989190075685d
90-day screening period
557
False
In the case of vertebrates, what is the most lenient interpretation of "species"?
572ea0a603f989190075685e
a "distinct population segment."
424
False
two
27
How many ways FWS list a species?
5a845f1f7cf838001a46a79e
True
an individual or organizational
230
Who does the FWS or NMFS have to petition to list a species?
5a845f1f7cf838001a46a79f
True
90-day
557
How long does an individual have to petition the FWS?
5a845f1f7cf838001a46a7a0
True
vertebrates
411
In what case does a distinct population segment not count?
5a845f1f7cf838001a46a7a1
True
National Marine Fisheries Service
122
What is another name for the United States Fish and Wildlife Service (FWS)?
5a845f1f7cf838001a46a7a2
True
A species can be listed in two ways. The United States Fish and Wildlife Service (FWS) or NOAA Fisheries (also called the National Marine Fisheries Service) can directly list a species through its candidate assessment program, or an individual or organizational petition may request that the FWS or NMFS list a species. A "species" under the act can be a true taxonomic species, a subspecies, or in the case of vertebrates, a "distinct population segment." The procedures are the same for both types except with the person/organization petition, there is a 90-day screening period.
What word was added to the Endangered Species Act in 1982?
572ea2e7dfa6aa1500f8d237
"solely"
194
False
Because of the change to the Endangered Species Act in 1982, what is the only consideration for being listed as endangered?
572ea2e7dfa6aa1500f8d238
the biological status of the species
243
False
Which president issued an Executive Order that required financial consideration of all government actions?
572ea2e7dfa6aa1500f8d239
Ronald Reagan
309
False
What did Congress do to the Executive Order that would have included financial considerations as a factor for a species to be listed?
572ea2e7dfa6aa1500f8d23a
Congress rejected
281
False
During the listing process
0
When are economic factors considered?
5a8460077cf838001a46a7a8
True
1982
153
When was Executive Order 12291 put into place?
5a8460077cf838001a46a7a9
True
Ronald Reagan
309
Which president added the word "solely" to the ESA?
5a8460077cf838001a46a7aa
True
economic considerations have no relevance
456
What was Reagan's statement regarding economic considerations in species status?
5a8460077cf838001a46a7ab
True
Congress
281
Whose order did President Reagan reject?
5a8460077cf838001a46a7ac
True
During the listing process, economic factors cannot be considered, but must be " based solely on the best scientific and commercial data available." The 1982 amendment to the ESA added the word "solely" to prevent any consideration other than the biological status of the species. Congress rejected President Ronald Reagan's Executive Order 12291 which required economic analysis of all government agency actions. The House committee's statement was "that economic considerations have no relevance to determinations regarding the status of species."
How is public notice given regarding a listing?
572ea3ab03f9891900756893
through legal notices in newspapers, and communicated to state and county agencies within the species' area
23
False
How long after a published notice of the listing may a public hearing regarding the listing be requested?
572ea3ab03f9891900756894
45 days
255
False
Do listing notices cross international soil?
572ea3ab03f9891900756895
Foreign nations may also receive notice of a listing
132
False
legal notices in newspapers
31
How are policy changes communicated to state and counties?
5a8460d97cf838001a46a7b2
True
45 days
255
How long does a public hearing last?
5a8460d97cf838001a46a7b3
True
Idaho Farm Bureau Federation v. Babbitt
467
What case took 45 days to be heard?
5a8460d97cf838001a46a7b4
True
the Ninth Circuit
428
Which court publishes legal notices?
5a8460d97cf838001a46a7b5
True
notice of a listing
165
What is not given to foreign nations?
5a8460d97cf838001a46a7b6
True
Public notice is given through legal notices in newspapers, and communicated to state and county agencies within the species' area. Foreign nations may also receive notice of a listing. A public hearing is mandatory if any person has requested one within 45 days of the published notice. "The purpose of the notice and comment requirement is to provide for meaningful public participation in the rulemaking process." summarized the Ninth Circuit court in the case of Idaho Farm Bureau Federation v. Babbitt.
What section of the Endangered Species Act establishes critical habitat regulations?
572eb0fecb0c0d14000f1488
Section 4
28
False
Critical habitat regulation links what two topics?
572eb0fecb0c0d14000f1489
habitat protection and recovery goals
101
False
What does critical habitat regulation require?
572eb0fecb0c0d14000f148a
the identification and protection of all lands, water and air necessary to recover endangered species
150
False
What is an example of a critical habitat consideration that would apply to plant wildlife?
572eb0fecb0c0d14000f148b
seed germination and dispersal needs
432
False
Section 4
28
What section establishes recovery goals?
5a8462357cf838001a46a7c6
True
regulatory
77
What type of link is formed between identification and protection?
5a8462357cf838001a46a7c7
True
critical habitat
282
What are cataloguing disturbances are not necessary for determining?
5a8462357cf838001a46a7c8
True
to recover endangered species
222
What are water and air unnecessary for?
5a8462357cf838001a46a7c9
True
habitat protection and recovery goals
101
What does Section 4 separate?
5a8462357cf838001a46a7ca
True
The provision of the law in Section 4 that establishes critical habitat is a regulatory link between habitat protection and recovery goals, requiring the identification and protection of all lands, water and air necessary to recover endangered species. To determine what exactly is critical habitat, the needs of open space for individual and population growth, food, water, light or other nutritional requirements, breeding sites, seed germination and dispersal needs, and lack of disturbances are considered.
What does the Endangered Species Act detail about government action regarding critical habitats?
572eb28c03f9891900756977
federal agencies are prohibited from authorizing, funding or carrying out actions that "destroy or adversely modify" critical habitats
4
False
How are non-federal government activities that might impact critical habitat often subject to the Endangered Species Act?
572eb28c03f9891900756978
require a federal permit
365
False
What are some non-regulation actions that critical habitats encourage?
572eb28c03f9891900756979
land purchases, grant making, restoration, and establishment of reserves
566
False
authorizing, funding or carrying out actions that "destroy or adversely modify"
41
What are federal agencies allowed to do to critical habitats?
5a847cb97cf838001a46a858
True
Section 7(a) (2)
140
Which section applies to private landowners?
5a847cb97cf838001a46a859
True
large-scale development, logging and mining projects
276
What does not require a federal permit?
5a847cb97cf838001a46a85a
True
regulatory processes
475
What requires voluntary actions?
5a847cb97cf838001a46a85b
True
regulatory
169
Which aspect applies to non-federal landowners?
5a847cb97cf838001a46a85c
True
All federal agencies are prohibited from authorizing, funding or carrying out actions that "destroy or adversely modify" critical habitats (Section 7(a) (2)). While the regulatory aspect of critical habitat does not apply directly to private and other non-federal landowners, large-scale development, logging and mining projects on private and state land typically require a federal permit and thus become subject to critical habitat regulations. Outside or in parallel with regulatory processes, critical habitats also focus and encourage voluntary actions such as land purchases, grant making, restoration, and establishment of reserves.
What is the time limit for designating a species critical habitat after the species has been added to the endangered list?
572eb350c246551400ce452a
within one year
71
False
Which presidential adminstration limited the protective status of critical habitat in 1986?
572eb350c246551400ce452b
the Reagan Administration
280
False
After the limitations placed on critical habitat were lifted by the courts, where were critical habitats established primarily?
572eb350c246551400ce452c
Hawaii, California and other western states
647
False
Where have the majority of critical habitats in the Midwest and Eastern states been located geographically?
572eb350c246551400ce452d
primarily on rivers and coastlines
751
False
critical habitat
22
What has to be designated after a waiting period of 1 year?
5a847d907cf838001a46a862
True
the Reagan Administration
280
What entity caused an increase of critical habitats in between 1986 and the 1990s?
5a847d907cf838001a46a863
True
a series of court orders
497
What did the Reagan regulations invalidate?
5a847d907cf838001a46a864
True
several hundred
598
How many critical habitats were built between 1978 and 1986?
5a847d907cf838001a46a865
True
Hawaii, California
647
Which two states in the Midwest and Eastern states received fewer habitats?
5a847d907cf838001a46a866
True
The ESA requires that critical habitat be designated at the time of or within one year of a species being placed on the endangered list. In practice, most designations occur several years after listing. Between 1978 and 1986 the FWS regularly designated critical habitat. In 1986 the Reagan Administration issued a regulation limiting the protective status of critical habitat. As a result, few critical habitats were designated between 1986 and the late 1990s. In the late 1990s and early 2000s, a series of court orders invalidated the Reagan regulations and forced the FWS and NMFS to designate several hundred critical habitats, especially in Hawaii, California and other western states. Midwest and Eastern states received less critical habitat, primarily on rivers and coastlines. As of December, 2006, the Reagan regulation has not yet been replaced though its use has been suspended. Nonetheless, the agencies have generally changed course and since about 2005 have tried to designate critical habitat at or near the time of listing.
What four topics are required in an Endangered Species Recovery Plan?
572eb435cb0c0d14000f1490
goals, tasks required, likely costs, and estimated timeline to recover endangered species
150
False
What is the time limit for completing an Endangered Species Recovery Plan?
572eb435cb0c0d14000f1491
The ESA does not specify when a recovery plan must be completed.
365
False
What Recovery Plan duration the does Fish and Wildlife Service plan for in their policies?
572eb435cb0c0d14000f1492
completion within three years
462
False
What is the average time of completion of an Endangered Species Recovery Plan?
572eb435cb0c0d14000f1493
approximately six years
559
False
Which president had the most completed Recovery Plans during their administration?
572eb435cb0c0d14000f1494
Clinton (72)
730
False
an Endangered Species Recovery Plan
100
What does FWS require NMFS to create?
5a847e9c7cf838001a46a87e
True
three years
480
What length of time does the NMFS policy say plans must be completed by?
5a847e9c7cf838001a46a87f
True
six years
573
What was the average completion time for an FWS plan?
5a847e9c7cf838001a46a880
True
The ESA
365
Who requires the FWS to have a completion policy?
5a847e9c7cf838001a46a881
True
Fish and Wildlife Service (FWS) and National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS)
0
What organizations are not required to have a recovery plan?
5a847e9c7cf838001a46a882
True
Fish and Wildlife Service (FWS) and National Marine Fisheries Service (NMFS) are required to create an Endangered Species Recovery Plan outlining the goals, tasks required, likely costs, and estimated timeline to recover endangered species (i.e., increase their numbers and improve their management to the point where they can be removed from the endangered list). The ESA does not specify when a recovery plan must be completed. The FWS has a policy specifying completion within three years of the species being listed, but the average time to completion is approximately six years. The annual rate of recovery plan completion increased steadily from the Ford administration (4) through Carter (9), Reagan (30), Bush I (44), and Clinton (72), but declined under Bush II (16 per year as of 9/1/06).
What is the primary consideration for determining if projects may be carried out in areas with endangered species?
572eb52fc246551400ce453c
whether a listed species will be harmed by the action and, if so, how the harm can be minimized
31
False
If a species may be harmed, who holds final say on whether the project may proceed?
572eb52fc246551400ce453d
the Endangered Species Committee
201
False
How many members are on the ad hoc panel that allows project exemptions for cases where a species may harmed?
572eb52fc246551400ce453e
seven
382
False
How many votes must be in favor of the exemption in order to award the exemption?
572eb52fc246551400ce453f
Five
370
False
What is one specific requirement regarding the make-up of the exmeption panel?
572eb52fc246551400ce4540
at least one appointee from the state where the project is to occur
301
False
project agency
159
Who does the Endangered Species Committee get an exemption from?
5a847fc97cf838001a46a888
True
Five
370
How many members must vote against the exemption?
5a847fc97cf838001a46a889
True
seven
382
How many members must a project agency have?
5a847fc97cf838001a46a88a
True
the exemption
420
What do project agencies vote on?
5a847fc97cf838001a46a88b
True
the project agency can seek an exemption
155
What happens if the harm can be minimized?
5a847fc97cf838001a46a88c
True
The question to be answered is whether a listed species will be harmed by the action and, if so, how the harm can be minimized. If harm cannot be avoided, the project agency can seek an exemption from the Endangered Species Committee, an ad hoc panel composed of members from the executive branch and at least one appointee from the state where the project is to occur. Five of the seven committee members must vote for the exemption to allow taking (to harass, harm, pursue, hunt, shoot, wound, kill, trap, capture, or collect, or significant habitat modification, or to attempt to engage in any such conduct) of listed species.
Who reviews exemption considerations before the Endangered Species committee?
572eb5bddfa6aa1500f8d2e7
the Forest Service, and either the FWS or the NMFS
77
False
During informal consultation, what is the goal?
572eb5bddfa6aa1500f8d2e8
to determine if harm may occur
236
False
What prompts the need for formal consultation?
572eb5bddfa6aa1500f8d2e9
if the harm is believed to be likely
284
False
What considerations are weighed during the consultations?
572eb5bddfa6aa1500f8d2ea
whether the species will be harmed, whether the habitat will be harmed and if the action will aid or hinder the recovery
378
False
the Forest Service, and either the FWS or the NMFS
77
Who is consulted after the Endangered Species Committee?
5a8489e57cf838001a46a8e0
True
biological
155
What implications does the Endangered Species Committee consider?
5a8489e57cf838001a46a8e1
True
informal
226
What type of consultation is used if harm is not going to occur?
5a8489e57cf838001a46a8e2
True
formal
277
What kind of consultation does the Endangered Species use when harm is likely?
5a8489e57cf838001a46a8e3
True
the Endangered Species Committee
43
Who is consulted before going to the FWS and Forest Service?
5a8489e57cf838001a46a8e4
True
Long before the exemption is considered by the Endangered Species Committee, the Forest Service, and either the FWS or the NMFS will have consulted on the biological implications of the timber harvest. The consultation can be informal, to determine if harm may occur; and then formal if the harm is believed to be likely. The questions to be answered in these consultations are whether the species will be harmed, whether the habitat will be harmed and if the action will aid or hinder the recovery of the listed species.
How many times has the exemption process been used, as of 2009?
572eb63603f989190075697d
six
16
False
What were the results of those exemption petitions?
572eb63603f989190075697e
one was granted, one was partially granted, one was denied and three were withdrawn
101
False
Why is this exemption provision often considered a nonfactor?
572eb63603f989190075697f
few consultations result in jeopardy opinions
398
False
How can jeopardy opinions be dissuaded?
572eb63603f9891900756980
in the identification of reasonable and prudent alternatives to avoid jeopardy.
484
False
one
101
How many exemptions were granted in 2009?
5a848a6d7cf838001a46a8ea
True
the exemption provision
277
What is a key factor for the ESA?
5a848a6d7cf838001a46a8eb
True
The Endangered Species Act
202
What did Donald Baur write in 2009?
5a848a6d7cf838001a46a8ec
True
three
164
How many exemptions were withdrawn in 2009?
5a848a6d7cf838001a46a8ed
True
six
16
How many exemptions has Donald Baur ruled on?
5a848a6d7cf838001a46a8ee
True
There have been six instances as of 2009 in which the exemption process was initiated. Of these six, one was granted, one was partially granted, one was denied and three were withdrawn. Donald Baur, in The Endangered Species Act: law, policy, and perspectives, concluded," ... the exemption provision is basically a nonfactor in the administration of the ESA. A major reason, of course, is that so few consultations result in jeopardy opinions, and those that do almost always result in the identification of reasonable and prudent alternatives to avoid jeopardy."
Who owns the majority of critical habitat?
572eb6c0c246551400ce4546
non-federal property, owned by citizens, states, local governments, tribal governments and private organizations
51
False
What program gives incentives to private landowners to protect species on their land?
572eb6c0c246551400ce4547
Habitat Conservation Plan
358
False
Before the amendment in 1982, under what situations could a listed species be displaced?
572eb6c0c246551400ce4548
only for scientific or research purposes
233
False
More than half
0
What fraction of habitat for listed species is owned by citizens?
5a848c557cf838001a46a8fe
True
Habitat Conservation Plan or HCP
358
Who created the 1982 amendment?
5a848c557cf838001a46a8ff
True
1982
195
When was it decided species could be taken for scientific purposes?
5a848c557cf838001a46a900
True
scientific or research purposes
242
What purpose does the HCP state listed species cannot be taken for?
5a848c557cf838001a46a901
True
harm ("take") the species
552
What can economic development not do under HCP?
5a848c557cf838001a46a902
True
More than half of habitat for listed species is on non-federal property, owned by citizens, states, local governments, tribal governments and private organizations. Before the law was amended in 1982, a listed species could be taken only for scientific or research purposes. The amendment created a permit process to circumvent the take prohibition called a Habitat Conservation Plan or HCP to give incentives to non-federal land managers and private landowners to help protect listed and unlisted species, while allowing economic development that may harm ("take") the species.
An approved HCP results in what being issued for the species?
572eb73cc246551400ce454c
an Incidental Take Permit (ITP)
101
False
How long do ITPs last?
572eb73cc246551400ce454d
allow incidental takes for varying amounts of time
243
False
How is the public made aware of ITP applications?
572eb73cc246551400ce454e
A notice of the permit application action is published in the Federal Register
650
False
How long does the public have to comment on ITP applications?
572eb73cc246551400ce454f
30 to 90 days
760
False
Take Permit (ITP)
115
What is issued if an HCP is rejected?
5a848d097cf838001a46a912
True
varying amounts of time
270
How long does an HCP last for?
5a848d097cf838001a46a913
True
Florida
421
What state is San Bruno in?
5a848d097cf838001a46a914
True
other federal laws
565
What do not apply when a permit is issued?
5a848d097cf838001a46a915
True
Federal Register
712
What entity publishes the HCP for public comment?
5a848d097cf838001a46a916
True
The person or organization submits a HCP and if approved by the agency (FWS or NMFS), will be issued an Incidental Take Permit (ITP) which allows a certain number of "takes" of the listed species. The permit may be revoked at any time and can allow incidental takes for varying amounts of time. For instance, the San Bruno Habitat Conservation Plan/ Incidental Take Permit is good for 30 years and the Wal-Mart store (in Florida) permit expires after one year. Because the permit is issued by a federal agency to a private party, it is a federal action-which means other federal laws can apply, such as the National Environmental Policy Act or NEPA. A notice of the permit application action is published in the Federal Register and a public comment period of 30 to 90 days begins.
What location held the first HCP?
572eb7ab03f989190075698d
San Bruno Mountain, California
90
False
What percentage of the critical habitat was protected for the area that received the first HCP?
572eb7ab03f989190075698e
87%
632
False
What type of animal was being protected in the area that received the first HCP?
572eb7ab03f989190075698f
butterflies
665
False
proponents of a conservation plan on San Bruno Mountain, California
53
Who did the US Congress ask to create an exemption?
5a848ddc7cf838001a46a926
True
the early 1980s
141
When was the last permit given out?
5a848ddc7cf838001a46a927
True
the adequacy of similar conservation plans
413
What was the San Bruno plan compared to during its creation?
5a848ddc7cf838001a46a928
True
87%
632
How many of the listed butterfly habitats were in San Bruno?
5a848ddc7cf838001a46a929
True
Congress
504
Who ran the biological study for the San Bruno plan?
5a848ddc7cf838001a46a92a
True
The US Congress was urged to create the exemption by proponents of a conservation plan on San Bruno Mountain, California that was drafted in the early 1980s and is the first HCP in the nation. In the conference report on the 1982 amendments, Congress specified that it intended the San Bruno plan to act "as a model" for future conservation plans developed under the incidental take exemption provision and that "the adequacy of similar conservation plans should be measured against the San Bruno plan". Congress further noted that the San Bruno plan was based on "an independent exhaustive biological study" and protected at least 87% of the habitat of the listed butterflies that led to the development of the HCP.
What 1981 court decision added to the power of HCPs and ITPs for conservation?
572eb844dfa6aa1500f8d311
Palila v. Hawaii Department of Land and Natural Resources
132
False
Who wrote the article "Searching for Consensus and Predictability: Habitat Conservation Planning under the Endangered Species Act of 1973."
572eb844dfa6aa1500f8d312
Robert D.Thornton
368
False
What did Thornton compare the scientific and legal advances to, from the viewpoint of the development community?
572eb844dfa6aa1500f8d313
a major headache
314
False
1981
109
When did private lands start to have more recognition?
5a848eae7cf838001a46a930
True
Robert D.Thornton
368
Who ruled on the Palila v. Hawaii Department of Land and Natural Resources?
5a848eae7cf838001a46a931
True
a major headache
314
What did Thornton say the role of private lands was like for the development community?
5a848eae7cf838001a46a932
True
1991
393
When was the Environmental Law magazine started?
5a848eae7cf838001a46a933
True
Palila v. Hawaii Department of Land and Natural Resources
132
What case limited ITP power?
5a848eae7cf838001a46a934
True
Growing scientific recognition of the role of private lands for endangered species recovery and the landmark 1981 court decision in Palila v. Hawaii Department of Land and Natural Resources both contributed to making Habitat Conservation Plans/ Incidental Take Permits "a major force for wildlife conservation and a major headache to the development community", wrote Robert D.Thornton in the 1991 Environmental Law article, Searching for Consensus and Predictability: Habitat Conservation Planning under the Endangered Species Act of 1973.
What is the name of the rule that protects the landowner if their conservation efforts fall short?
572ebaa1c246551400ce45a6
The "No Surprises" rule
0
False
Why is this particular rule so controversial?
572ebaa1c246551400ce45a7
the Fish and Wildlife Service (FWS) loses much ability to further protect a species if the mitigation measures by the landowner prove insufficient.
325
False
If the landowner fails to adequately protect the species, what penalties do they face with the "No Surprises" rule?
572ebaa1c246551400ce45a8
The landowner or permittee would not be required to set aside additional land or pay more in conservation money
473
False
Who covers the cost of additional efforts if the ITP holder's efforts fall short?
572ebaa1c246551400ce45a9
The federal government would have to pay for additional protection measures
586
False
the Fish and Wildlife Service (FWS) loses much ability to further protect a species
325
Why is the ITP controversial?
5a848fe67cf838001a46a944
True
The "No Surprises" rule
0
What policy protects the species from unforeseen circumstances?
5a848fe67cf838001a46a945
True
Incidental Take Permit
290
What is granted after the No Surprises rule comes into play?
5a848fe67cf838001a46a946
True
additional protection measures
631
What is the federal government is not required to pay for?
5a848fe67cf838001a46a947
True
additional land or pay more in conservation money
535
What does the No Surprises rule requires landowners to put aside?
5a848fe67cf838001a46a948
True
The "No Surprises" rule is meant to protect the landowner if "unforeseen circumstances" occur which make the landowner's efforts to prevent or mitigate harm to the species fall short. The "No Surprises" policy may be the most controversial of the recent reforms of the law, because once an Incidental Take Permit is granted, the Fish and Wildlife Service (FWS) loses much ability to further protect a species if the mitigation measures by the landowner prove insufficient. The landowner or permittee would not be required to set aside additional land or pay more in conservation money. The federal government would have to pay for additional protection measures.
What two groups are bound by a "Safe Harbor" agreement?
572ec434c246551400ce463a
the private landowner and FWS
61
False
In exchange for altering the property to a more beneficial state, what does the landowner gain from the Safe Harbor agreement?
572ec434c246551400ce463b
assurances that the FWS will permit future "takes" above a pre-determined level
207
False
Which presidential administration developed Safe Harbor policy?
572ec434c246551400ce463c
the Clinton Administration
497
False
Are Safe Harbor agreements and ITPs mutually exclusive?
572ec434c246551400ce463d
A landowner can have either a "Safe Harbor" agreement or an Incidental Take Permit, or both.
376
False
Section §1539(a)(1)(A)
352
What provision is the ITP under?
5a8490bd7cf838001a46a958
True
1999
527
When did FWS create the Safe Harbor agreement?
5a8490bd7cf838001a46a959
True
The "Safe Harbor" agreement
0
What form of agreement can a landowner no longer have if they acquire an ITP?
5a8490bd7cf838001a46a95a
True
the "enhancement of survival"
309
What provision relies on the Safe Harbor agreement?
5a8490bd7cf838001a46a95b
True
the Clinton Administration
497
What administration developed Section §1539(a)(1)(A)?
5a8490bd7cf838001a46a95c
True
The "Safe Harbor" agreement is a voluntary agreement between the private landowner and FWS. The landowner agrees to alter the property to benefit or even attract a listed or proposed species in exchange for assurances that the FWS will permit future "takes" above a pre-determined level. The policy relies on the "enhancement of survival" provision of Section §1539(a)(1)(A). A landowner can have either a "Safe Harbor" agreement or an Incidental Take Permit, or both. The policy was developed by the Clinton Administration in 1999.
How do Candidate Conservation Agreements differ from Safe Harbor agreements?
572ec4a3dfa6aa1500f8d36d
Candidate Conservation Agreements With Assurances(CCA) are meant to protect unlisted species
120
False
How does a CCA help protect a private landowner?
572ec4a3dfa6aa1500f8d36e
if, in the future the unlisted species becomes listed, the landowner will not be required to do more than already agreed upon in the CCA.
492
False
How does a CCA impact unlisted species?
572ec4a3dfa6aa1500f8d36f
enhance or maintain habitat of unlisted species which are declining and have the potential to become threatened or endangered
298
False
The Candidate Conservation Agreement
0
What agreement is the Safe Harbor Agreement primarily different from?
5a8493837cf838001a46a96c
True
by providing incentives
213
How does the Safe Harbor agreement protect unlisted species?
5a8493837cf838001a46a96d
True
FWS
466
What organization can make a landowner do activities beyond those agreed on in the CCA?
5a8493837cf838001a46a96e
True
unlisted species
196
What does Safe Harbor protect?
5a8493837cf838001a46a96f
True
The Candidate Conservation Agreement is closely related to the "Safe Harbor" agreement, the main difference is that the Candidate Conservation Agreements With Assurances(CCA) are meant to protect unlisted species by providing incentives to private landowners and land managing agencies to restore, enhance or maintain habitat of unlisted species which are declining and have the potential to become threatened or endangered if critical habitat is not protected. The FWS will then assure that if, in the future the unlisted species becomes listed, the landowner will not be required to do more than already agreed upon in the CCA.
What animal species was delisted in August 2008?
572ec5aedfa6aa1500f8d37d
the Virginia northern flying squirrel
54
False
How long had the squirrel been listed as endangered?
572ec5aedfa6aa1500f8d37e
listed since 1985
137
False
Which president signed an Act directing the delisting of the Northern Rocky Mountain population of gray wolf?
572ec5aedfa6aa1500f8d37f
President Obama
224
False
Virginia northern flying squirrel
58
What animal was added in 2008?
5a849fbe7cf838001a46a9b0
True
1985
150
When was the gray wolf added to the list?
5a849fbe7cf838001a46a9b1
True
President Obama
224
Who delisted the flying squirrel?
5a849fbe7cf838001a46a9b2
True
the Department of Defense and Full-Year Appropriations Act
247
What did the Secretary of the Interior sign in 2011?
5a849fbe7cf838001a46a9b3
True
Canis lupus
542
What is the latin name for the flying squirrel?
5a849fbe7cf838001a46a9b4
True
Two examples of animal species recently delisted are: the Virginia northern flying squirrel (subspecies) on August, 2008, which had been listed since 1985, and the gray wolf (Northern Rocky Mountain DPS). On April 15, 2011, President Obama signed the Department of Defense and Full-Year Appropriations Act of 2011. A section of that Appropriations Act directed the Secretary of the Interior to reissue within 60 days of enactment the final rule published on April 2, 2009, that identified the Northern Rocky Mountain population of gray wolf (Canis lupus) as a distinct population segment (DPS) and to revise the List of Endangered and Threatened Wildlife by removing most of the gray wolves in the DPS.
As of September 2012, how many species had been delisted due to recovery?
572ec623dfa6aa1500f8d383
twenty-eight
60
False
Of the ten species removed due to extinction, how many are believe to have already been extinct when listed?
572ec623dfa6aa1500f8d384
seven
113
False
How many species have been downgraded from endangered to threatened status?
572ec623dfa6aa1500f8d385
Twenty-five
430
False
How many species were delisted due to discoveries of new populations?
572ec623dfa6aa1500f8d386
six
244
False
fifty-six
22
How many species were delisted in September 2012?
5a84a0597cf838001a46a9ba
True
Twenty-five
430
How many species have gone from threatened to endangered?
5a84a0597cf838001a46a9bb
True
six
244
How many new populations were lost?
5a84a0597cf838001a46a9bc
True
ten
186
How many species have recovered since 2012 due to changes?
5a84a0597cf838001a46a9bd
True
2012
16
When was the amendment to the ESA published?
5a84a0597cf838001a46a9be
True
As of September 2012, fifty-six species have been delisted; twenty-eight due to recovery, ten due to extinction (seven of which are believed to have been extinct prior to being listed), ten due to changes in taxonomic classification practices, six due to discovery of new populations, one due to an error in the listing rule, and one due to an amendment to the Endangered Species Act specifically requiring the species delisting. Twenty-five others have been down listed from "endangered" to "threatened" status.
How many species are currently listed?
572ec6bccb0c0d14000f1548
over 2,000
56
False
What is the success rate of the list and the Endangered Species Act initiatives?
572ec6bccb0c0d14000f1549
1%
152
False
What is the name given to the act of pre-emptive habitat destruction by landowners fearing a protected species?
572ec6bccb0c0d14000f154a
"Shoot, Shovel and Shut-Up."
490
False
How did a land owner impact the protected red-cockaded woodpecker species?
572ec6bccb0c0d14000f154b
increased harvesting and shortened the age at which he harvests his trees to ensure that they do not become old enough to become suitable habitat
653
False
2,000
61
Less than how many species are still listed?
5a84a2057cf838001a46a9d8
True
nearly three decades
160
How long has the ESA been using the "Shoot, Shovel, and Shut-up" method?
5a84a2057cf838001a46a9d9
True
the positive effects,
878
What have studies shown the negative effects outweigh?
5a84a2057cf838001a46a9da
True
Shoot, Shovel and Shut-Up
491
What is another name for the ESA's practices?
5a84a2057cf838001a46a9db
True
1%
152
What is the success rate of Shoot, Shovel, and Shut-Up?
5a84a2057cf838001a46a9dc
True
Opponents of the Endangered Species Act argue that with over 2,000 endangered species listed, and only 28 delisted due to recovery, the success rate of 1% over nearly three decades proves that there needs to be serious reform in their methods to actually help the endangered animals and plants. Others argue that the ESA may encourage preemptive habitat destruction by landowners who fear losing the use of their land because of the presence of an endangered species; known colloquially as "Shoot, Shovel and Shut-Up." One example of such perverse incentives is the case of a forest owner who, in response to ESA listing of the red-cockaded woodpecker, increased harvesting and shortened the age at which he harvests his trees to ensure that they do not become old enough to become suitable habitat. While no studies have shown that the Act's negative effects, in total, exceed the positive effects, many economists believe that finding a way to reduce such perverse incentives would lead to more effective protection of endangered species.
What is one particular industry that exploits Endangered Species Act loopholes?
572ec78cc246551400ce464c
exotic pet trade
148
False
What is one particular loophole that aids roadside zoos and private collectors?
572ec78cc246551400ce464d
no provisions are made for in-state commerce
255
False
What allows exploitation of interstate commerce regulations?
572ec78cc246551400ce464e
the ESA allows listed species to be shipped across state lines as long as they are not sold
390
False
How can fake breeding loans be used to sell wildlife?
572ec78cc246551400ce464f
in return they can legally receive a reciprocal monetary "donation" from the receiving party.
611
False
Why are there not more arrests from undercover investigations of interstate wildlife commerce?
572ec78cc246551400ce4650
the US Fish and Wildlife Service revealed that the agency does not have sufficient staff to perform undercover investigations
772
False
1999
35
When did people begin exploiting ESA loopholes?
5a84a2f57cf838001a46a9e2
True
ESA
114
What organization prevents animals from being sold to zoos or collectors?
5a84a2f57cf838001a46a9e3
True
Alan Green
43
What is the name of the endangered species specialist that was interviewed?
5a84a2f57cf838001a46a9e4
True
US Fish and Wildlife Service
776
What agency is overstaffed?
5a84a2f57cf838001a46a9e5
True
Center for Public Integrity (CPI)
62
What named organization has been exploiting loopholes?
5a84a2f57cf838001a46a9e6
True
According to research published in 1999 by Alan Green and the Center for Public Integrity (CPI), loopholes in the ESA are commonly exploited in the exotic pet trade. Although the legislation prohibits interstate and foreign transactions for list species, no provisions are made for in-state commerce, allowing these animals to be sold to roadside zoos and private collectors. Additionally, the ESA allows listed species to be shipped across state lines as long as they are not sold. According to Green and the CPI, this allows dealers to "donate" listed species through supposed "breeding loans" to anyone, and in return they can legally receive a reciprocal monetary "donation" from the receiving party. Furthermore, an interview with an endangered species specialist at the US Fish and Wildlife Service revealed that the agency does not have sufficient staff to perform undercover investigations, which would catch these false "donations" and other mislabeled transactions.
The Center for Public Integrity found that 151 of what primate were moved from the New England Primate Research Center into exotic pet trade?
572ec878dfa6aa1500f8d3af
cotton-top tamarin
108
False
What happened in 1976 that impacted this primate's classification as Endanger?
572ec878dfa6aa1500f8d3b0
over 800 cotton-top tamarins were imported into the United States
402
False
What school is affiliated with the New England Primate Research Center?
572ec878dfa6aa1500f8d3b1
Harvard
254
False
Harvard
254
What school was running the pet trade?
5a84a4d17cf838001a46a9f6
True
800
407
How many cotton-top tamarins were traded out of the US in 1976?
5a84a4d17cf838001a46a9f7
True
Green
0
Who works for the New England Regional Primate Research Center?
5a84a4d17cf838001a46a9f8
True
800
407
What was the official number of the cotton-top tamarins species under the ESA?
5a84a4d17cf838001a46a9f9
True
151
190
How many primates did Harvard purchase?
5a84a4d17cf838001a46a9fa
True
Green and the CPI further noted another exploit of the ESA in their discussion of the critically endangered cotton-top tamarin (Saguinus oedipus). Not only had they found documentation that 151 of these primates had inadvertently made their way from the Harvard-affiliated New England Regional Primate Research Center into the exotic pet trade through the aforementioned loophole, but in October 1976, over 800 cotton-top tamarins were imported into the United States in order to beat the official listing of the species under the ESA.
Section 6 of the Endangered Species Act provided funding for what purpose?
572ec920cb0c0d14000f155c
development of programs for management of threatened and endangered species by state wildlife agencies
61
False
What is one notable drawback with state wildlife agencies creating their own lists?
572ec920cb0c0d14000f155d
These state lists often include species which are considered endangered or threatened within a specific state but not within all states
280
False
What states are listing species that are endangered in their own state, but that are not endangered in all other states?
572ec920cb0c0d14000f155e
Florida, Minnesota, Maine, and California
530
False
Florida, Minnesota, Maine, and California
530
What states do not have their own lists?
5a84a5ed7cf838001a46aa00
True
Section 6
0
What defunded the development of programs for managing endangered species?
5a84a5ed7cf838001a46aa01
True
each state
268
What did Section 6 of the act separate boundaries by?
5a84a5ed7cf838001a46aa02
True
Section 6 of the Endangered Species Act
0
Who funded species within specific states?
5a84a5ed7cf838001a46aa03
True
Section 6 of the Endangered Species Act provided funding for development of programs for management of threatened and endangered species by state wildlife agencies. Subsequently, lists of endangered and threatened species within their boundaries have been prepared by each state. These state lists often include species which are considered endangered or threatened within a specific state but not within all states, and which therefore are not included on the national list of endangered and threatened species. Examples include Florida, Minnesota, Maine, and California.
Is the public given incentive to report Endangered Species Act violations?
572ec9bf03f9891900756a25
A reward will be paid to any person who furnishes information which leads to an arrest, conviction, or revocation of a license
0
False
Given that a violator caused wildlife harm, who may provide financial assistance for the care of the harmed wildlife?
572ec9bf03f9891900756a26
The Secretary
227
False
Costs over what balance lead to the Secretary of the Treasury depositing money into the cooperative endangered species conservation fund?
572ec9bf03f9891900756a27
$500,000
432
False
A reward
0
What do local employees get if they report information that leads to an arrest?
5a84a7cf7cf838001a46aa12
True
$500,000
432
Up to how much is the reward worth?
5a84a7cf7cf838001a46aa13
True
deposit an amount equal to the excess
486
What must the Secretary do if the budget is below $500,000?
5a84a7cf7cf838001a46aa14
True
local, state, or federal
154
What three types of employees are allowed to accept a reward?
5a84a7cf7cf838001a46aa15
True
costs incurred for the care of fish, wildlife, and forest service or plant
283
What kind of cost does the Secretary not cover?
5a84a7cf7cf838001a46aa16
True
A reward will be paid to any person who furnishes information which leads to an arrest, conviction, or revocation of a license, so long as they are not a local, state, or federal employee in the performance of official duties. The Secretary may also provide reasonable and necessary costs incurred for the care of fish, wildlife, and forest service or plant pending the violation caused by the criminal. If the balance ever exceeds $500,000 the Secretary of the Treasury is required to deposit an amount equal to the excess into the cooperative endangered species conservation fund.
Vacuum
The word Vacuum stems from what Latin adjective?
572e9317cb0c0d14000f12e2
vacuus
72
False
What does the term used by Physicists, partial vacuum, refer to?
572e9317cb0c0d14000f12e3
imperfect vacuum
401
False
What is a vacuum?
572e9317cb0c0d14000f12e4
space void of matter
10
False
What type of pressure is less than atmospheric pressure in a vacuum?
572e9317cb0c0d14000f12e5
gaseous
154
False
What Latin term is used to describe an object in a vacuum?
572e9317cb0c0d14000f12e6
in vacuo
619
False
vacuus
72
What Latin adjective does atmospheric pressure come from?
5a876fda1d3cee001a6a1198
True
a region with a gaseous pressure
138
What is the definition of atmospheric pressure?
5a876fda1d3cee001a6a1199
True
ideal test results
233
What do physicists often discuss will occur in a certain atmospheric pressure?
5a876fda1d3cee001a6a119a
True
an actual imperfect vacuum
391
What does the term partial atmospheric pressure refer to?
5a876fda1d3cee001a6a119b
True
in vacuo
619
What latin term is used to describe an object under atmospheric pressure?
5a876fda1d3cee001a6a119c
True
Vacuum is space void of matter. The word stems from the Latin adjective vacuus for "vacant" or "void". An approximation to such vacuum is a region with a gaseous pressure much less than atmospheric pressure. Physicists often discuss ideal test results that would occur in a perfect vacuum, which they sometimes simply call "vacuum" or free space, and use the term partial vacuum to refer to an actual imperfect vacuum as one might have in a laboratory or in space. In engineering and applied physics on the other hand, vacuum refers to any space in which the pressure is lower than atmospheric pressure. The Latin term in vacuo is used to describe an object as being in what would otherwise be a vacuum.
The Vacuum state is considered what?
572e95ba03f98919007567d9
the ground state of matter.
1015
False
A typical vacuum cleaner produces enough suction to do what to air pressure?
572e95ba03f98919007567da
reduce air pressure by around 20%
219
False
The quality of a partial vacuum refers to what?
572e95ba03f98919007567db
how closely it approaches a perfect vacuum
42
False
Outer space has a high quality vacuum with what equivalent?
572e95ba03f98919007567dc
a few hydrogen atoms per cubic meter
557
False
If all matter is removed from a vacuum, would it be empty space?
572e95ba03f98919007567dd
it would still not be "empty"
692
False
around 20%
242
What does a few hydrogen atoms per cubic meter reduce air pressure by?
5a8771811d3cee001a6a11ac
True
how closely it approaches a perfect vacuum
42
What does the quality of dark energy refer to?
5a8771811d3cee001a6a11ad
True
higher-quality vacuum
131
What does lower amounts of dark matter mean?
5a8771811d3cee001a6a11ae
True
the 19th century
877
In what century was dark matter discovered?
5a8771811d3cee001a6a11af
True
one trillionth (10−12) of atmospheric pressure (100 nPa)
385
What does dark matter usually operate below in space?
5a8771811d3cee001a6a11b0
True
The quality of a partial vacuum refers to how closely it approaches a perfect vacuum. Other things equal, lower gas pressure means higher-quality vacuum. For example, a typical vacuum cleaner produces enough suction to reduce air pressure by around 20%. Much higher-quality vacuums are possible. Ultra-high vacuum chambers, common in chemistry, physics, and engineering, operate below one trillionth (10−12) of atmospheric pressure (100 nPa), and can reach around 100 particles/cm3. Outer space is an even higher-quality vacuum, with the equivalent of just a few hydrogen atoms per cubic meter on average. According to modern understanding, even if all matter could be removed from a volume, it would still not be "empty" due to vacuum fluctuations, dark energy, transiting gamma rays, cosmic rays, neutrinos, and other phenomena in quantum physics. In the electromagnetism in the 19th century, vacuum was thought to be filled with a medium called aether. In modern particle physics, the vacuum state is considered the ground state of matter.
What did Aristotle believe about a void?
572e97a3dfa6aa1500f8d19f
no void could occur naturally,
647
False
What was historically disputed about vacuums?
572e97a3dfa6aa1500f8d1a0
whether such a thing as a vacuum can exist.
47
False
What did something that was literally nothing at all,According to Plato, mean?
572e97a3dfa6aa1500f8d1a1
cannot rightly be said to exist
590
False
Aristotle thought what would fill any rarity that might give rise to a void?
572e97a3dfa6aa1500f8d1a2
denser surrounding material continuum
690
False
no void
647
What did Greek philosophers believe could not occur naturally?
5a87732f1d3cee001a6a11b6
True
Ancient Greek
91
What language was spoken by Plato?
5a87732f1d3cee001a6a11b7
True
void and atom
203
What did Aristotle believe were the fundamental elements of understanding physics?
5a87732f1d3cee001a6a11b8
True
the senses
396
What can an atom not be understood by according to Greek philosophers?
5a87732f1d3cee001a6a11b9
True
exist
616
What did Ancient Greek philosophers believe atoms could not do?
5a87732f1d3cee001a6a11ba
True
Historically, there has been much dispute over whether such a thing as a vacuum can exist. Ancient Greek philosophers debated the existence of a vacuum, or void, in the context of atomism, which posited void and atom as the fundamental explanatory elements of physics. Following Plato, even the abstract concept of a featureless void faced considerable skepticism: it could not be apprehended by the senses, it could not, itself, provide additional explanatory power beyond the physical volume with which it was commensurate and, by definition, it was quite literally nothing at all, which cannot rightly be said to exist. Aristotle believed that no void could occur naturally, because the denser surrounding material continuum would immediately fill any incipient rarity that might give rise to a void.
In what century did believes start to move away from Aristotle's idea regarding a void?
572e99b7dfa6aa1500f8d1cf
14th century
670
False
What thought process was used in the beginning belief of the existence of vacuums?
572e99b7dfa6aa1500f8d1d0
Stoic physics
620
False
What belief regarding a cosmic void was accepted by most in the 17th century?
572e99b7dfa6aa1500f8d1d1
a supernatural void beyond the confines of the cosmos itself
758
False
Roger Bacon,Walter Burley and Blasius of Parma were from what century?
572e99b7dfa6aa1500f8d1d2
13th and 14th
525
False
Physics, book IV
7
What book was written by Lucretius?
5a8774dd1d3cee001a6a11ca
True
numerous
43
How many arguments against the void did Lucretius give in his Physics, book IV?
5a8774dd1d3cee001a6a11cb
True
first century BC
320
In what year did Aristotle first study physics?
5a8774dd1d3cee001a6a11cc
True
an artificial vacuum
391
What did Lucretuis try to unsuccessfully create in the 14th century?
5a8774dd1d3cee001a6a11cd
True
a supernatural void beyond the confines of the cosmos itself
758
What belief about a void was accepted by most in the first cenury AD?
5a8774dd1d3cee001a6a11ce
True
In his Physics, book IV, Aristotle offered numerous arguments against the void: for example, that motion through a medium which offered no impediment could continue ad infinitum, there being no reason that something would come to rest anywhere in particular. Although Lucretius argued for the existence of vacuum in the first century BC and Hero of Alexandria tried unsuccessfully to create an artificial vacuum in the first century AD, it was European scholars such as Roger Bacon, Blasius of Parma and Walter Burley in the 13th and 14th century who focused considerable attention on these issues. Eventually following Stoic physics in this instance, scholars from the 14th century onward increasingly departed from the Aristotelian perspective in favor of a supernatural void beyond the confines of the cosmos itself, a conclusion widely acknowledged by the 17th century, which helped to segregate natural and theological concerns.
What does Rapid decompression do to the lungs?
572e9d48cb0c0d14000f136c
rupture of the delicate alveoli
194
False
What causes barotrauma?
572e9d48cb0c0d14000f136d
rapid decompression
439
False
What amount of pressure drop can kill you if it occurs suddenly?
572e9d48cb0c0d14000f136e
13 kPa (100 Torr),
501
False
What does acceleration of oxygen consumption do?
572e9d48cb0c0d14000f136f
hypoxia
411
False
rapid decompression is more dangerous than what?
572e9d48cb0c0d14000f1370
vacuum exposure
52
False
Rapid decompression
0
What can tissues seeping blood be more dangerous than?
5a87d4d219b91f001a626e47
True
rupture of the delicate alveoli
194
What does increasing oxygen consumption do to the lungs?
5a87d4d219b91f001a626e48
True
sinuses
253
Venting through the windpipe may end up rupturing eardrums and what?
5a87d4d219b91f001a626e49
True
blood
334
What will seep out of the windpipe if you hold your breath?
5a87d4d219b91f001a626e4a
True
barotrauma
470
What is venting through the windpipe also called?
5a87d4d219b91f001a626e4b
True
Rapid decompression can be much more dangerous than vacuum exposure itself. Even if the victim does not hold his or her breath, venting through the windpipe may be too slow to prevent the fatal rupture of the delicate alveoli of the lungs. Eardrums and sinuses may be ruptured by rapid decompression, soft tissues may bruise and seep blood, and the stress of shock will accelerate oxygen consumption leading to hypoxia. Injuries caused by rapid decompression are called barotrauma. A pressure drop of 13 kPa (100 Torr), which produces no symptoms if it is gradual, may be fatal if it occurs suddenly.
What did Descartes believe about vacuums in nature?
572eaab5cb0c0d14000f1428
that a vacuum does not occur in nature
250
False
Whose work with metaphysics would come to define the notion of empty space?
572eaab5cb0c0d14000f1429
Descartes
201
False
What philosophy combined with Descartes to push quantum activity in the 20th century?
572eaab5cb0c0d14000f142a
Cartesian mechanical philosophy
641
False
nothing–everything dichotomy of void and atom
145
What dichotomy did Descartes center his theory around?
5a8776ee1d3cee001a6a11d4
True
the contemporary position
223
What position did Plato agree with?
5a8776ee1d3cee001a6a11d5
True
in nature
279
Where did Plato believe a vaccuum did not occur?
5a8776ee1d3cee001a6a11d6
True
Cartesian mechanical philosophy
641
What philosophy was behind Plato's understanding of a vacuum?
5a8776ee1d3cee001a6a11d7
True
the philosophically modern notion of empty space as a quantified extension of volume
429
What did Plato's discoveries about atomism come to define about empty space?
5a8776ee1d3cee001a6a11d8
True
Almost two thousand years after Plato, René Descartes also proposed a geometrically based alternative theory of atomism, without the problematic nothing–everything dichotomy of void and atom. Although Descartes agreed with the contemporary position, that a vacuum does not occur in nature, the success of his namesake coordinate system and more implicitly, the spatial–corporeal component of his metaphysics would come to define the philosophically modern notion of empty space as a quantified extension of volume. By the ancient definition however, directional information and magnitude were conceptually distinct. With the acquiescence of Cartesian mechanical philosophy to the "brute fact" of action at a distance, and at length, its successful reification by force fields and ever more sophisticated geometric structure, the anachronism of empty space widened until "a seething ferment" of quantum activity in the 20th century filled the vacuum with a virtual pleroma.
An infinite sea of particles with negative energy  was a model propesed by whom?
572eac6adfa6aa1500f8d295
Paul Dirac
9
False
What year was the Dirac sea modeled?
572eac6adfa6aa1500f8d296
1930
3
False
When werer virtual particles confirmed?
572eac6adfa6aa1500f8d297
late 20th century
567
False
What year was the uncertainty principle formed?
572eac6adfa6aa1500f8d298
1927,
358
False
What theorized that time and energy can be measured?
572eac6adfa6aa1500f8d299
Werner Heisenberg's uncertainty principle
302
False
negative
94
What kind of energy did Werner Heisenberg believe a vacuum held?
5a8783441d3cee001a6a1206
True
the Dirac sea
118
What did Heisenberg call the particles with negative energy inside a vacuum?
5a8783441d3cee001a6a1207
True
the positron
261
What did Heisenberg predict the existence of in 1930?
5a8783441d3cee001a6a1208
True
two years
285
How long did it take for the uncertainty principle by Dirac to be confirmed?
5a8783441d3cee001a6a1209
True
energy and time
445
What in the late 20th century did Dirac theorize can be measured?
5a8783441d3cee001a6a120a
True
In 1930, Paul Dirac proposed a model of the vacuum as an infinite sea of particles possessing negative energy, called the Dirac sea. This theory helped refine the predictions of his earlier formulated Dirac equation, and successfully predicted the existence of the positron, confirmed two years later. Werner Heisenberg's uncertainty principle formulated in 1927, predict a fundamental limit within which instantaneous position and momentum, or energy and time can be measured. This has far reaching consequences on the "emptiness" of space between particles. In the late 20th century, so-called virtual particles that arise spontaneously from empty space were confirmed.
what is a perfect example of a filled vacuum showing a curvature?
572ead9cc246551400ce44de
The black hole
417
False
Who's equations  helped to imply vanishing of the Ricci tensor?
572ead9cc246551400ce44df
Einstein
73
False
what produces curvature in a vacuum?
572ead9cc246551400ce44e0
tidal forces and gravitational waves
310
False
What has no electric charge?
572ead9cc246551400ce44e1
black hole
421
False
zero
438
What kind of electric charge does a vanishing stress-energy tensor have?
5a8785871d3cee001a6a1210
True
the Weyl tensor
399
What is a black hole a part of?
5a8785871d3cee001a6a1211
True
gravitational field
235
What field around the Earth was discovered by Einstein?
5a8785871d3cee001a6a1212
True
electric charge
443
Tidal forces and gravitational waves can produce zero what?
5a8785871d3cee001a6a1213
True
flat
225
What is the shape of a gravitational field?
5a8785871d3cee001a6a1214
True
In general relativity, a vanishing stress-energy tensor implies, through Einstein field equations, the vanishing of all the components of the Ricci tensor. Vacuum does not mean that the curvature of space-time is necessarily flat: the gravitational field can still produce curvature in a vacuum in the form of tidal forces and gravitational waves (technically, these phenomena are the components of the Weyl tensor). The black hole (with zero electric charge) is an elegant example of a region completely "filled" with vacuum, but still showing a strong curvature.
Where do most satellites operate?
572eaf28dfa6aa1500f8d2c1
low Earth orbit
259
False
What system could possibly be used for interplanetary travel?
572eaf28dfa6aa1500f8d2c2
solar sails
447
False
why do satellites need to fire engines every few day to keep orbit?
572eaf28dfa6aa1500f8d2c3
atmospheric density
57
False
above what line location in outer space to satellites orbit?
572eaf28dfa6aa1500f8d2c4
Kármán line
127
False
every few days
303
How often does Earth's orbit position change?
5a8791371d3cee001a6a1256
True
solar winds
671
What are satellites eroded by?
5a8791371d3cee001a6a1257
True
these forces
612
What are satellites too large for their engines to be affected by?
5a8791371d3cee001a6a1258
True
few hundred kilometers
94
How long is the Karman line?
5a8791371d3cee001a6a1259
True
interplanetary travel
493
What have satellite engines been suggested to be used for?
5a8791371d3cee001a6a125a
True
But although it meets the definition of outer space, the atmospheric density within the first few hundred kilometers above the Kármán line is still sufficient to produce significant drag on satellites. Most artificial satellites operate in this region called low Earth orbit and must fire their engines every few days to maintain orbit.[citation needed] The drag here is low enough that it could theoretically be overcome by radiation pressure on solar sails, a proposed propulsion system for interplanetary travel.[citation needed] Planets are too massive for their trajectories to be significantly affected by these forces, although their atmospheres are eroded by the solar winds.
Al-Farabi concluded a perfect vacuum was incoherent using what?
572eb66fdfa6aa1500f8d2ef
handheld plungers in water.
197
False
Ibn al-Haytham used geometry to demonstrate  what?
572eb66fdfa6aa1500f8d2f0
place (al-makan) is the imagined three-dimensional void between the inner surfaces of a containing body
645
False
who stated that there was no evidence to rule out a vacuum?
572eb66fdfa6aa1500f8d2f1
Abū Rayhān al-Bīrūnī
777
False
what did Al-Farabi say expanded to fill available space
572eb66fdfa6aa1500f8d2f2
air's volume
263
False
What type of pump appeared in the 15th century?
572eb66fdfa6aa1500f8d2f3
suction pump
895
False
is the imagined three-dimensional void between the inner surfaces of a containing body
662
What was Aristotle able to demonstrate about place?
5a87783e1d3cee001a6a11de
True
15th century
942
In what century did Aristotle develop the suction pump?
5a87783e1d3cee001a6a11df
True
handheld plungers in water
197
What did Aristotle investigate to test the existence of a vacuum?
5a87783e1d3cee001a6a11e0
True
concept of perfect vacuum was incoherent
338
What did Aristotle suggest about the concept of a perfect vacuum after his experiment?
5a87783e1d3cee001a6a11e1
True
the possibility of vacuum
863
What did Aristotle state there was no evidence to rule out?
5a87783e1d3cee001a6a11e2
True
In the medieval Middle Eastern world, the physicist and Islamic scholar, Al-Farabi (Alpharabius, 872–950), conducted a small experiment concerning the existence of vacuum, in which he investigated handheld plungers in water.[unreliable source?] He concluded that air's volume can expand to fill available space, and he suggested that the concept of perfect vacuum was incoherent. However, according to Nader El-Bizri, the physicist Ibn al-Haytham (Alhazen, 965–1039) and the Mu'tazili theologians disagreed with Aristotle and Al-Farabi, and they supported the existence of a void. Using geometry, Ibn al-Haytham mathematically demonstrated that place (al-makan) is the imagined three-dimensional void between the inner surfaces of a containing body. According to Ahmad Dallal, Abū Rayhān al-Bīrūnī also states that "there is no observable evidence that rules out the possibility of vacuum". The suction pump later appeared in Europe from the 15th century.
Who required no restrictions regarding God's power?
572ebaa3cb0c0d14000f14d4
Bishop Etienne Tempier
585
False
When did Buridan state that teams of ten horses could not open a bellow with a sealed port?
572ebaa3cb0c0d14000f14d5
14th century
779
False
the 1277 Paris Condemnations led to what conclusion?
572ebaa3cb0c0d14000f14d6
God could create a vacuum if he so wished.
707
False
What was a common belief about vacuums and nature?
572ebaa3cb0c0d14000f14d7
nature abhorred a vacuum
396
False
what was the belief that nature abhorred a vaccuum called?
572ebaa3cb0c0d14000f14d8
horror vacui
432
False
'celestial agent'
320
What did Bishop Etienne Tempier believe prevented a vacuum from forming?
5a877a511d3cee001a6a11e8
True
horror vacui
432
What was the commonly held view in the medieval period that God could not create a vacuum called?
5a877a511d3cee001a6a11e9
True
God could create a vacuum if he so wished
707
What point of view regarding God became popular in the 14th century?
5a877a511d3cee001a6a11ea
True
bellows
837
According to Walter Burley in the 14th century, what could teams of ten horses not pull open?
5a877a511d3cee001a6a11eb
True
the powers of God
655
What did Walter Burley require there be no restrictions on in the 14th century?
5a877a511d3cee001a6a11ec
True
Medieval thought experiments into the idea of a vacuum considered whether a vacuum was present, if only for an instant, between two flat plates when they were rapidly separated. There was much discussion of whether the air moved in quickly enough as the plates were separated, or, as Walter Burley postulated, whether a 'celestial agent' prevented the vacuum arising. The commonly held view that nature abhorred a vacuum was called horror vacui. Speculation that even God could not create a vacuum if he wanted to was shut down[clarification needed] by the 1277 Paris condemnations of Bishop Etienne Tempier, which required there to be no restrictions on the powers of God, which led to the conclusion that God could create a vacuum if he so wished. Jean Buridan reported in the 14th century that teams of ten horses could not pull open bellows when the port was sealed.
What was the vacuum created by the mercury displacement pump?
572ebcb4c246551400ce45b8
partial vacuum of about 10 Pa (0.1 Torr).
537
False
What year was the Toepler Pump invented?
572ebcb4c246551400ce45b9
1850
404
False
What was first invented by Otto von Guericke ?
572ebcb4c246551400ce45ba
vacuum pump
46
False
Who conducted the Magdeburg experiment?
572ebcb4c246551400ce45bb
Otto von Guericke
9
False
What was made visible at a partial vacuum of 10 Pa?
572ebcb4c246551400ce45bc
A number of electrical properties
579
False
the first vacuum pump
36
What was invented by Robert Boyle in 1654?
5a877c5f1d3cee001a6a11f2
True
Magdeburg hemispheres experiment
83
What was the famous experiment called that Robert Boyle conducted?
5a877c5f1d3cee001a6a11f3
True
a partial vacuum of about 10 Pa (0.1 Torr)
535
What type of vacuum did Robert Boyle achieve in 1855?
5a877c5f1d3cee001a6a11f4
True
vacuum pump technology
322
What did Heinrich Geissler help Otto von Guericke further develop?
5a877c5f1d3cee001a6a11f5
True
1855
519
In what year did Otto von Guericke invent the mercury displacement pump?
5a877c5f1d3cee001a6a11f6
True
In 1654, Otto von Guericke invented the first vacuum pump and conducted his famous Magdeburg hemispheres experiment, showing that teams of horses could not separate two hemispheres from which the air had been partially evacuated. Robert Boyle improved Guericke's design and with the help of Robert Hooke further developed vacuum pump technology. Thereafter, research into the partial vacuum lapsed until 1850 when August Toepler invented the Toepler Pump and Heinrich Geissler invented the mercury displacement pump in 1855, achieving a partial vacuum of about 10 Pa (0.1 Torr). A number of electrical properties become observable at this vacuum level, which renewed interest in further research.
What was originally believed the heavens were filled with?
572ebe0a03f98919007569d1
aether
196
False
Why were experiments done on luminiferous aether in the 19 Century?
572ebe0a03f98919007569d2
"While the interstellar absorbing medium may be simply the ether, [it] is characteris
901
False
Who stated that the character of a gas and free molecule were in ether?
572ebe0a03f98919007569d3
Henry Pickering
874
False
Where are the highest amounts of naturally occurring partial vacuums?
572ebe0a03f98919007569d4
outer space
6
False
What was ether originally thought to be made of?
572ebe0a03f98919007569d5
rigid indestructible material
159
False
free gaseous molecules
1004
What did Issac Newton believe existed in space in 1912?
5a87817f1d3cee001a6a11fc
True
rigid indestructible material
159
What were molecules originally thought to be made of?
5a87817f1d3cee001a6a11fd
True
aether
196
What is another name for mythology?
5a87817f1d3cee001a6a11fe
True
(mythology))
345
Where did the ideas about the properties of molecules come from?
5a87817f1d3cee001a6a11ff
True
a minute drag
647
What did experiments with molecules attempt to detect on the Earths orbit?
5a87817f1d3cee001a6a1200
True
While outer space provides the most rarefied example of a naturally occurring partial vacuum, the heavens were originally thought to be seamlessly filled by a rigid indestructible material called aether. Borrowing somewhat from the pneuma of Stoic physics, aether came to be regarded as the rarefied air from which it took its name, (see Aether (mythology)). Early theories of light posited a ubiquitous terrestrial and celestial medium through which light propagated. Additionally, the concept informed Isaac Newton's explanations of both refraction and of radiant heat. 19th century experiments into this luminiferous aether attempted to detect a minute drag on the Earth's orbit. While the Earth does, in fact, move through a relatively dense medium in comparison to that of interstellar space, the drag is so minuscule that it could not be detected. In 1912, astronomer Henry Pickering commented: "While the interstellar absorbing medium may be simply the ether, [it] is characteristic of a gas, and free gaseous molecules are certainly there".
What indicated the quality of a vacuum?
572ebf10c246551400ce45e6
amount of matter remaining in the system
44
False
How is vacuum generally measured?
572ebf10c246551400ce45e7
its absolute pressure
191
False
What does the MFP of residual gases show?
572ebf10c246551400ce45e8
average distance that molecules will travel between collisions with each other.
425
False
What is particle gas dynamics?
572ebf10c246551400ce45e9
study of fluid flows
751
False
the amount of matter remaining in the system
40
What indicates the quality of residual gases?
5a8793d01d3cee001a6a126a
True
very little
128
How much matter is left in residual gases?
5a8793d01d3cee001a6a126b
True
by its absolute pressure
188
How are residual gases measured?
5a8793d01d3cee001a6a126c
True
temperature and chemical composition
283
What other factors are necessary to measure residual gases?
5a8793d01d3cee001a6a126d
True
particle gas dynamics
797
What is the study of residual gases in a spacecraft called?
5a8793d01d3cee001a6a126e
True
The quality of a vacuum is indicated by the amount of matter remaining in the system, so that a high quality vacuum is one with very little matter left in it. Vacuum is primarily measured by its absolute pressure, but a complete characterization requires further parameters, such as temperature and chemical composition. One of the most important parameters is the mean free path (MFP) of residual gases, which indicates the average distance that molecules will travel between collisions with each other. As the gas density decreases, the MFP increases, and when the MFP is longer than the chamber, pump, spacecraft, or other objects present, the continuum assumptions of fluid mechanics do not apply. This vacuum state is called high vacuum, and the study of fluid flows in this regime is called particle gas dynamics. The MFP of air at atmospheric pressure is very short, 70 nm, but at 100 mPa (~6997100000000000000♠1×10−3 Torr) the MFP of room temperature air is roughly 100 mm, which is on the order of everyday objects such as vacuum tubes. The Crookes radiometer turns when the MFP is larger than the size of the vanes.
Absolute pressure  being equal to current atmospheric pressure means what?
572ec078c246551400ce460a
"Below atmospheric"
544
False
What is a torr equal to?
572ec078c246551400ce460b
displacement of a millimeter of mercury
175
False
What is another often used options to measure vacuum?
572ec078c246551400ce460c
barometric scale
345
False
(1608–1647)
139
During what years was mercury commonly in use?
5a8797e11d3cee001a6a127e
True
the displacement of a millimeter of mercury
171
What is the barometric scale equal to?
5a8797e11d3cee001a6a127f
True
mercury
207
What element did Torricelli discover in 1608?
5a8797e11d3cee001a6a1280
True
133.3223684
258
How many pascals does the barometric scale equal?
5a8797e11d3cee001a6a1281
True
barometric scale
345
What is another way to measure the state of being below atmospheric?
5a8797e11d3cee001a6a1282
True
The SI unit of pressure is the pascal (symbol Pa), but vacuum is often measured in torrs, named for Torricelli, an early Italian physicist (1608–1647). A torr is equal to the displacement of a millimeter of mercury (mmHg) in a manometer with 1 torr equaling 133.3223684 pascals above absolute zero pressure. Vacuum is often also measured on the barometric scale or as a percentage of atmospheric pressure in bars or atmospheres. Low vacuum is often measured in millimeters of mercury (mmHg) or pascals (Pa) below standard atmospheric pressure. "Below atmospheric" means that the absolute pressure is equal to the current atmospheric pressure.
Why is mercury the better option for liquid used in a Hydrostatic gauge?
572ec1b6c246551400ce461a
its high density and low vapour pressure
444
False
What is a vertical column of liquid in a tube which has different pressures at each end called?
572ec1b6c246551400ce461b
Hydrostatic gauges
0
False
What is a hydrostatic gauge used for?
572ec1b6c246551400ce461c
measure pressures ranging from 1 torr (100 Pa) to above atmospheric
516
False
Why is the McLeod gauge special?
572ec1b6c246551400ce461d
can measure vacuums as high as 10−6 torr
758
False
An indirect measurement of pressure is most often calibrated by what?
572ec1b6c246551400ce461e
McLeod gauge
1117
False
a direct measurement
1079
What is the level of mercury in the air calibrated by?
5a87a0cc1d3cee001a6a129c
True
10−6 torr (0.1 mPa)
789
What is the density level of mercury in the air?
5a87a0cc1d3cee001a6a129d
True
the McLeod gauge
611
What is used to measure mercury in the air?
5a87a0cc1d3cee001a6a129e
True
1 torr (100 Pa)
547
What is the lowest amount of mercury that can be measured in the air?
5a87a0cc1d3cee001a6a129f
True
indirect measurements
1034
What measurements are used to measure mercury in the air?
5a87a0cc1d3cee001a6a12a0
True
Hydrostatic gauges (such as the mercury column manometer) consist of a vertical column of liquid in a tube whose ends are exposed to different pressures. The column will rise or fall until its weight is in equilibrium with the pressure differential between the two ends of the tube. The simplest design is a closed-end U-shaped tube, one side of which is connected to the region of interest. Any fluid can be used, but mercury is preferred for its high density and low vapour pressure. Simple hydrostatic gauges can measure pressures ranging from 1 torr (100 Pa) to above atmospheric. An important variation is the McLeod gauge which isolates a known volume of vacuum and compresses it to multiply the height variation of the liquid column. The McLeod gauge can measure vacuums as high as 10−6 torr (0.1 mPa), which is the lowest direct measurement of pressure that is possible with current technology. Other vacuum gauges can measure lower pressures, but only indirectly by measurement of other pressure-controlled properties. These indirect measurements must be calibrated via a direct measurement, most commonly a McLeod gauge.
The fact that gases ability to conduct heat decreases with pressure is used by what form of measurement?
572ec300c246551400ce4624
Thermal conductivity gauges
0
False
How is the wire filament in a Thermal conductivity gauge heated?
572ec300c246551400ce4625
by running current through it
161
False
What is a Pirani gauge sensitive to?
572ec300c246551400ce4626
chemical composition of the gases being measured
645
False
What is a RTD used for on a Thermal Conductivity gauge?
572ec300c246551400ce4627
to measure the temperature of the filament
265
False
A Pirani gauge is accurate within what ranges?
572ec300c246551400ce4628
10 torr to 10−3 torr
593
False
with pressure
97
How does plantinums ability to conduct heat decrease?
5a87aa881d3cee001a6a12c4
True
a single platinum filament
499
What kind of filament does the RTD use?
5a87aa881d3cee001a6a12c5
True
both the heated element and RTD
529
How do thermal conductivity gauges use a single platinum filament as?
5a87aa881d3cee001a6a12c6
True
from 10 torr to 10−3 torr
588
How quickly does a filament lose heat?
5a87aa881d3cee001a6a12c7
True
the gases being measured
669
Pressure is sensitive to the heated element of what?
5a87aa881d3cee001a6a12c8
True
Thermal conductivity gauges rely on the fact that the ability of a gas to conduct heat decreases with pressure. In this type of gauge, a wire filament is heated by running current through it. A thermocouple or Resistance Temperature Detector (RTD) can then be used to measure the temperature of the filament. This temperature is dependent on the rate at which the filament loses heat to the surrounding gas, and therefore on the thermal conductivity. A common variant is the Pirani gauge which uses a single platinum filament as both the heated element and RTD. These gauges are accurate from 10 torr to 10−3 torr, but they are sensitive to the chemical composition of the gases being measured.
What are the two types of Ion gauges?
572ec42ecb0c0d14000f151a
hot cathode and cold cathode.
65
False
What affects the number of ions in a gauge?
572ec42ecb0c0d14000f151b
the pressure in the gauge
376
False
What gauge is accurate from 10-2 torr to 10-9 torr?
572ec42ecb0c0d14000f151c
Cold cathode gauges
618
False
What must be used for accurate measurement on the composition of gases at a high vacuums?
572ec42ecb0c0d14000f151d
mass spectrometer must be used in conjunction with the ionization gauge
998
False
Why does a mass spectrometer need to be used with gauge to be accurate at high vacuum gas measurement?
572ec42ecb0c0d14000f151e
composition of gases at high vacuums will usually be unpredictable
925
False
hot cathode and cold cathode
65
What are the two types of mass spectrometers?
5a87ad601d3cee001a6a12ce
True
an electron beam
163
In the hot cathode version what does corrosion produce?
5a87ad601d3cee001a6a12cf
True
gas molecules
231
What is ionized when electrodes travel through a mass spectrometer?
5a87ad601d3cee001a6a12d0
True
from 10−2 torr to 10−9 torr
651
What is the accuracy of a mass spectrometer?
5a87ad601d3cee001a6a12d1
True
unpredictable
978
What is the nature of electrically heated filaments at high vacuums?
5a87ad601d3cee001a6a12d2
True
Ion gauges are used in ultrahigh vacuum. They come in two types: hot cathode and cold cathode. In the hot cathode version an electrically heated filament produces an electron beam. The electrons travel through the gauge and ionize gas molecules around them. The resulting ions are collected at a negative electrode. The current depends on the number of ions, which depends on the pressure in the gauge. Hot cathode gauges are accurate from 10−3 torr to 10−10 torr. The principle behind cold cathode version is the same, except that electrons are produced in a discharge created by a high voltage electrical discharge. Cold cathode gauges are accurate from 10−2 torr to 10−9 torr. Ionization gauge calibration is very sensitive to construction geometry, chemical composition of gases being measured, corrosion and surface deposits. Their calibration can be invalidated by activation at atmospheric pressure or low vacuum. The composition of gases at high vacuums will usually be unpredictable, so a mass spectrometer must be used in conjunction with the ionization gauge for accurate measurement.
density of oxygen like that of sea-level atmosphere is needed to do what?
572ec82acb0c0d14000f1558
sustain life at pressures much lower than atmospheric,
36
False
What is the lowest altitude where acclimatization or a suit is not needed to prevent sickness in humans?
572ec82acb0c0d14000f1559
of up to 3 km
224
False
lower pressures
267
What do colder air temperatures found at altitudes above 19km compensate for?
5a87d2c819b91f001a626e33
True
oxygen enrichment
311
What is needed at altitudes of up to 3km to prevent altitiude sickness?
5a87d2c819b91f001a626e34
True
ebullism
465
What do cold or oxygen-rich atmospheres usuall cause?
5a87d2c819b91f001a626e35
True
20 kPa (150 Torr)
512
How much pure oxygen is in the atmosphere?
5a87d2c819b91f001a626e36
True
decompression sickness
600
When people are acclimated to the altitude, gas embolisms and what can happen?
5a87d2c819b91f001a626e37
True
Cold or oxygen-rich atmospheres can sustain life at pressures much lower than atmospheric, as long as the density of oxygen is similar to that of standard sea-level atmosphere. The colder air temperatures found at altitudes of up to 3 km generally compensate for the lower pressures there. Above this altitude, oxygen enrichment is necessary to prevent altitude sickness in humans that did not undergo prior acclimatization, and spacesuits are necessary to prevent ebullism above 19 km. Most spacesuits use only 20 kPa (150 Torr) of pure oxygen. This pressure is high enough to prevent ebullism, but decompression sickness and gas embolisms can still occur if decompression rates are not managed.
When will a person or animal lose consciousness  when exposed to a vacuum?
572ec989dfa6aa1500f8d3bd
after a few seconds
61
False
A shuttle astronauts prevents ebullism at 2 kPa with what item?
572ec989dfa6aa1500f8d3be
the Crew Altitude Protection Suit (CAPS)
836
False
What is the forming of gas bubbles in body fluids at a lowered pressure called?
572ec989dfa6aa1500f8d3bf
ebullism
720
False
What prevents body rupture at low altitude when human body is bloated by gas bubbles?
572ec989dfa6aa1500f8d3c0
tissues are elastic and porous
649
False
37 °C
423
At what temperature does frost usually occur in space?
5a87cf7419b91f001a626e15
True
Humans and animals
0
When exposed to frost who will die from ebullism within minutes?
5a87cf7419b91f001a626e16
True
gas bubbles
481
What will frost cause in body fluids at reduced pressures?
5a87cf7419b91f001a626e17
True
a flight suit
765
What can a person wear to prevent frost on the skin?
5a87cf7419b91f001a626e18
True
2 kPa (15 Torr)
924
What does a CAPS suit prevent frost at pressures as low as?
5a87cf7419b91f001a626e19
True
Humans and animals exposed to vacuum will lose consciousness after a few seconds and die of hypoxia within minutes, but the symptoms are not nearly as graphic as commonly depicted in media and popular culture. The reduction in pressure lowers the temperature at which blood and other body fluids boil, but the elastic pressure of blood vessels ensures that this boiling point remains above the internal body temperature of 37 °C. Although the blood will not boil, the formation of gas bubbles in bodily fluids at reduced pressures, known as ebullism, is still a concern. The gas may bloat the body to twice its normal size and slow circulation, but tissues are elastic and porous enough to prevent rupture. Swelling and ebullism can be restrained by containment in a flight suit. Shuttle astronauts wore a fitted elastic garment called the Crew Altitude Protection Suit (CAPS) which prevents ebullism at pressures as low as 2 kPa (15 Torr). Rapid boiling will cool the skin and create frost, particularly in the mouth, but this is not a significant hazard.
What can boil away in extreme vaccum exposure?
572eca8ccb0c0d14000f1576
Some oils and greases
294
False
How should the grain direct of metallic flanges run to flange faces?
572eca8ccb0c0d14000f1577
parallel
482
False
What are 2 metals that can be absorbed in an ultra high vacuum system?
572eca8ccb0c0d14000f1578
stainless steel or titanium
246
False
What becomes a concern in an ultra high vacuum system regarding aluminum or palladium?
572eca8ccb0c0d14000f1579
water absorption
107
False
Some oils and greases
294
What will boil off when aluminum absorbs water?
5a87cd0419b91f001a626df7
True
parallel to the flange face
482
How should palladium be placed when it has oil on it?
5a87cd0419b91f001a626df8
True
stainless steel or titanium
246
What are two metals that can be absorbed in an metallic flange?
5a87cd0419b91f001a626df9
True
extreme vacuums
333
In what area will water boil off?
5a87cd0419b91f001a626dfa
True
the flange face
494
What will grease usually run parallel to?
5a87cd0419b91f001a626dfb
True
In ultra high vacuum systems, some very "odd" leakage paths and outgassing sources must be considered. The water absorption of aluminium and palladium becomes an unacceptable source of outgassing, and even the adsorptivity of hard metals such as stainless steel or titanium must be considered. Some oils and greases will boil off in extreme vacuums. The permeability of the metallic chamber walls may have to be considered, and the grain direction of the metallic flanges should be parallel to the flange face.
The state with the lowest possible energy in quantum mechanics defines what ?
572ecbdddfa6aa1500f8d3cb
vacuum
51
False
A vacuum state with no matter particles or photons is called what?
572ecbdddfa6aa1500f8d3cc
QED
364
False
why is a QED vacuum impossible to achieve ?
572ecbdddfa6aa1500f8d3cd
impossible to eliminate all the blackbody photons
605
False
What is a QCD?
572ecbdddfa6aa1500f8d3ce
vacuum of quantum chromodynamics,
307
False
the state (that is, the solution to the equations of the theory) with the lowest possible energy
72
What are blackbody photons in quantum mechanics?
5a878b751d3cee001a6a1224
True
QED vacuum
364
What do blackbody photons with no matter particles or photons form?
5a878b751d3cee001a6a1225
True
impossible to eliminate all the blackbody photons
605
Why is a blackbody field impossible to achieve?
5a878b751d3cee001a6a1226
True
every matter particle
531
What would you need to remove to create a blackbody field?
5a878b751d3cee001a6a1227
True
'QED vacuum'
267
What is a blackbody photon referred to in quantum mechanics?
5a878b751d3cee001a6a1228
True
In quantum mechanics and quantum field theory, the vacuum is defined as the state (that is, the solution to the equations of the theory) with the lowest possible energy (the ground state of the Hilbert space). In quantum electrodynamics this vacuum is referred to as 'QED vacuum' to distinguish it from the vacuum of quantum chromodynamics, denoted as QCD vacuum. QED vacuum is a state with no matter particles (hence the name), and also no photons. As described above, this state is impossible to achieve experimentally. (Even if every matter particle could somehow be removed from a volume, it would be impossible to eliminate all the blackbody photons.) Nonetheless, it provides a good model for realizable vacuum, and agrees with a number of experimental observations as described next.
When are electric and magnetic fields with zero average values, but their variances are not at zero?
572ecd51c246551400ce46ae
In QED vacuum
51
False
What is a verified effect of vacuum fluctuation?
572ecd51c246551400ce46af
spontaneous emission
460
False
what is  vacuum fluctuation?
572ecd51c246551400ce46b0
virtual particles that hop into and out of existence
213
False
Finite energy in a QED is called what?
572ecd51c246551400ce46b1
vacuum energy
295
False
What modifies can Coulomb's Law in a vacuum?
572ecd51c246551400ce46b2
vacuum near an electric charge
545
False
an essential and ubiquitous part
334
What part of quantum field theory are electric and magnetic fields?
5a878e111d3cee001a6a1242
True
interesting and complex
15
What kind of properties does Coulomb's law have?
5a878e111d3cee001a6a1243
True
zero average values
104
What values does vacuum energy have under Coulomb's law?
5a878e111d3cee001a6a1244
True
are not zero
145
What are the variances of vacuum energy according to Coulomb's law?
5a878e111d3cee001a6a1245
True
hop into and out of existence
236
What do particles defined in Colombo's law do?
5a878e111d3cee001a6a1246
True
QED vacuum has interesting and complex properties. In QED vacuum, the electric and magnetic fields have zero average values, but their variances are not zero. As a result, QED vacuum contains vacuum fluctuations (virtual particles that hop into and out of existence), and a finite energy called vacuum energy. Vacuum fluctuations are an essential and ubiquitous part of quantum field theory. Some experimentally verified effects of vacuum fluctuations include spontaneous emission and the Lamb shift. Coulomb's law and the electric potential in vacuum near an electric charge are modified.
`Why does thermosphere past the Karman line vary so greatly?
572ece9bcb0c0d14000f15ac
due to space weather
757
False
What is commonly known as the boundary of outer space?
572ece9bcb0c0d14000f15ad
the Kármán line
338
False
What do Astrophysicists use to describe outer space beyond the karman line?
572ece9bcb0c0d14000f15ae
number density
809
False
What is more significant than isotropic gas pressure past the Karman line?
572ece9bcb0c0d14000f15af
radiation pressure from the Sun and the dynamic pressure of the solar winds
506
False
the Kármán line
338
What is commonly known as the boundary of the Sun?
5a878fa71d3cee001a6a124c
True
number density
809
What do astrophysicists use to describe sun radiation?
5a878fa71d3cee001a6a124d
True
units of particles per cubic centimetre
859
In what units do astrophysicists use to describe sun radiation?
5a878fa71d3cee001a6a124e
True
about 6998320000000000000♠3.2×10−2 Pa
261
What does the Sun's atmospheric pressure drop to at 100 km of altitude?
5a878fa71d3cee001a6a124f
True
isotropic gas pressure
436
What becomes insidgnificant when it reaches the surface of the moon?
5a878fa71d3cee001a6a1250
True
Stars, planets, and moons keep their atmospheres by gravitational attraction, and as such, atmospheres have no clearly delineated boundary: the density of atmospheric gas simply decreases with distance from the object. The Earth's atmospheric pressure drops to about 6998320000000000000♠3.2×10−2 Pa at 100 kilometres (62 mi) of altitude, the Kármán line, which is a common definition of the boundary with outer space. Beyond this line, isotropic gas pressure rapidly becomes insignificant when compared to radiation pressure from the Sun and the dynamic pressure of the solar winds, so the definition of pressure becomes difficult to interpret. The thermosphere in this range has large gradients of pressure, temperature and composition, and varies greatly due to space weather. Astrophysicists prefer to use number density to describe these environments, in units of particles per cubic centimetre.
What was the object to use first in widespread manner process of vacuum?
572ed1f3dfa6aa1500f8d411
incandescent light bulb
92
False
What is produced by a vacuum and used in electron beam welding and vacuum frying?
572ed1f3dfa6aa1500f8d412
chemical inertness
171
False
Hight to ultra-high vacuums removes what obstruction?
572ed1f3dfa6aa1500f8d413
obstruction of air,
537
False
How does freeze drying, distillation and metallurgy benefit from a deep vacuum?
572ed1f3dfa6aa1500f8d414
Deep vacuum lowers the boiling point of liquids and promotes low temperature outgassing
917
False
What are two things made possible by the electrical properties of vacuum?
572ed1f3dfa6aa1500f8d415
electron microscopes and vacuum tubes
1147
False
electron beam welding, cold welding, vacuum packing
230
What three things are light bulbs useful for?
5a87aee11d3cee001a6a12e2
True
atomically clean substrates
343
What are lightbulbs used to study?
5a87aee11d3cee001a6a12e3
True
deposit or remove materials
584
What do lightbulbs allow particle beams to do without contamination?
5a87aee11d3cee001a6a12e4
True
freeze drying
1022
What method of preserving food is dependant on using lightbulbs?
5a87aee11d3cee001a6a12e5
True
liquids
957
What are lightbulbs able to lower the boiling point of?
5a87aee11d3cee001a6a12e6
True
Vacuum is useful in a variety of processes and devices. Its first widespread use was in the incandescent light bulb to protect the filament from chemical degradation. The chemical inertness produced by a vacuum is also useful for electron beam welding, cold welding, vacuum packing and vacuum frying. Ultra-high vacuum is used in the study of atomically clean substrates, as only a very good vacuum preserves atomic-scale clean surfaces for a reasonably long time (on the order of minutes to days). High to ultra-high vacuum removes the obstruction of air, allowing particle beams to deposit or remove materials without contamination. This is the principle behind chemical vapor deposition, physical vapor deposition, and dry etching which are essential to the fabrication of semiconductors and optical coatings, and to surface science. The reduction of convection provides the thermal insulation of thermos bottles. Deep vacuum lowers the boiling point of liquids and promotes low temperature outgassing which is used in freeze drying, adhesive preparation, distillation, metallurgy, and process purging. The electrical properties of vacuum make electron microscopes and vacuum tubes possible, including cathode ray tubes. The elimination of air friction is useful for flywheel energy storage and ultracentrifuges.
What provides power assistance for auto brakes?
572ed2ee03f9891900756a5d
vacuum servo
99
False
What are two available sources of vacuum on a moving airplane?
572ed2ee03f9891900756a5e
engine and an external venturi
576
False
Why are the Attitude indicator and heading indicator vacuum-powered?
572ed2ee03f9891900756a5f
protection against loss of all (electrically powered) instruments,
364
False
What does a manifold vacuum do on a car?
572ed2ee03f9891900756a60
drive accessories
31
False
What no longer used accessories were powered by vacuum?
572ed2ee03f9891900756a61
vacuum-driven windscreen wipers and Autovac fuel pumps
192
False
electromagnetic induction
638
What do electrical systems use within a vacuum?
5a87b5c11d3cee001a6a1314
True
accessories
37
What can electrical systems be used to drive on automobiles?
5a87b5c11d3cee001a6a1315
True
the brakes
150
What are electrical systems used to provide power assistance for on a car?
5a87b5c11d3cee001a6a1316
True
(Attitude Indicator (AI) and the Heading Indicator (HI))
274
What two instruments do electrical systems usually power on some aircraft?
5a87b5c11d3cee001a6a1317
True
as protection against loss of all (electrically powered) instruments
361
Why are the AI and the HI usually powered by autovac fuel pumps?
5a87b5c11d3cee001a6a1318
True
Manifold vacuum can be used to drive accessories on automobiles. The best-known application is the vacuum servo, used to provide power assistance for the brakes. Obsolete applications include vacuum-driven windscreen wipers and Autovac fuel pumps. Some aircraft instruments (Attitude Indicator (AI) and the Heading Indicator (HI)) are typically vacuum-powered, as protection against loss of all (electrically powered) instruments, since early aircraft often did not have electrical systems, and since there are two readily available sources of vacuum on a moving aircraft—the engine and an external venturi. Vacuum induction melting uses electromagnetic induction within a vacuum.
what is evaporation and sublimation in a vacuum?
572ed3f1cb0c0d14000f15f0
outgassing
52
False
When does outgassing become important in all solid or liquid materials?
572ed3f1cb0c0d14000f15f1
vacuum pressure falls below this vapour pressure
174
False
Why can outgassing products ruin a space mission?
572ed3f1cb0c0d14000f15f2
obscure optical instruments
416
False
a leak
279
What does liquid have the same effect as in a telescope?
5a87bcd31d3cee001a6a1332
True
vacuum
315
What can solar cells limit the achievement of?
5a87bcd31d3cee001a6a1333
True
nearby colder surfaces
359
On what kind of surfaces can space missions happen?
5a87bcd31d3cee001a6a1334
True
expensive
573
What is the cost of a telescope for a space mission?
5a87bcd31d3cee001a6a1335
True
outgassing
52
What is a solid touching a cold surface called?
5a87bcd31d3cee001a6a1336
True
Evaporation and sublimation into a vacuum is called outgassing. All materials, solid or liquid, have a small vapour pressure, and their outgassing becomes important when the vacuum pressure falls below this vapour pressure. In man-made systems, outgassing has the same effect as a leak and can limit the achievable vacuum. Outgassing products may condense on nearby colder surfaces, which can be troublesome if they obscure optical instruments or react with other materials. This is of great concern to space missions, where an obscured telescope or solar cell can ruin an expensive mission.
Repeatedly closing off a compartment of a vacuum allows what?
572ed67403f9891900756a71
continue evacuating a chamber indefinitely without requiring infinite growth
3
False
How is a vacuum created inside of a manual water pump?
572ed67403f9891900756a72
a mechanism expands a small sealed cavity
285
False
Why is fluid in a manual pump pushed into the pumps cavity when a small sealed cavity is expanded?
572ed67403f9891900756a73
Because of the pressure differential
347
False
What are pumps based off principle of sealed compartment pulling,pushing and expanding called?
572ed67403f9891900756a74
displacement pumps
208
False
continue evacuating a chamber indefinitely without requiring infinite growth
3
What does repeatedly putting water into the atmosphere manually allow?
5a87c70d19b91f001a626db1
True
a mechanism expands a small sealed cavity
285
How is a vacuum created in the atmosphere?
5a87c70d19b91f001a626db2
True
infinite
64
What kind of growth happens when fluid enters the atmosphere?
5a87c70d19b91f001a626db3
True
a small sealed cavity
305
What expands outside the pump?
5a87c70d19b91f001a626db4
True
a minute size
581
What size is the vacuum in the pump?
5a87c70d19b91f001a626db5
True
To continue evacuating a chamber indefinitely without requiring infinite growth, a compartment of the vacuum can be repeatedly closed off, exhausted, and expanded again. This is the principle behind positive displacement pumps, like the manual water pump for example. Inside the pump, a mechanism expands a small sealed cavity to create a vacuum. Because of the pressure differential, some fluid from the chamber (or the well, in our example) is pushed into the pump's small cavity. The pump's cavity is then sealed from the chamber, opened to the atmosphere, and squeezed back to a minute size.
What pump can capture gases in a solid or absorbed state?
572ed7a0c246551400ce4716
Entrapment pumps
450
False
Entrapment pumps often work without seals, moving parts and what else?
572ed7a0c246551400ce4717
no vibration.
556
False
What pump has a higher quality vacuum than a positive displacement pump?
572ed7a0c246551400ce4718
Momentum transfer pumps
279
False
much higher quality vacuums
388
What can positive displacement pumps achieve more than entrapment pumps?
5a87c9a319b91f001a626dbb
True
gases in a solid or absorbed state
479
What can momentum transfer pumps capture?
5a87c9a319b91f001a626dbc
True
vibration
559
Dynamic pumps often work without moving parts, seals and what?
5a87c9a319b91f001a626dbd
True
universal
594
What are entrapment pumps usually considered above all of the others?
5a87c9a319b91f001a626dbe
True
dynamic pumps
336
What other pump do entrapment pumps have similarities to?
5a87c9a319b91f001a626dbf
True
The above explanation is merely a simple introduction to vacuum pumping, and is not representative of the entire range of pumps in use. Many variations of the positive displacement pump have been developed, and many other pump designs rely on fundamentally different principles. Momentum transfer pumps, which bear some similarities to dynamic pumps used at higher pressures, can achieve much higher quality vacuums than positive displacement pumps. Entrapment pumps can capture gases in a solid or absorbed state, often with no moving parts, no seals and no vibration. None of these pumps are universal; each type has important performance limitations. They all share a difficulty in pumping low molecular weight gases, especially hydrogen, helium, and neon.
When multiple pumps are connected in series to produce higher vacuum it is called what?
572ed90fdfa6aa1500f8d44b
stages
172
False
The choice of seals, or chamber geometry ,for example impact a pump. Together these are options are called what?
572ed90fdfa6aa1500f8d44c
vacuum technique
338
False
What are two other relevant characteristics of a pumping system along with final pressure?
572ed90fdfa6aa1500f8d44d
oil contamination, vibration
457
False
in series
154
How can chamber geometry be connected?
5a87cb6019b91f001a626dd9
True
many things
74
What can oil contamination be dependent on instead of pump nature?
5a87cb6019b91f001a626dda
True
stages
172
How do leakage rates usually happen?
5a87cb6019b91f001a626ddb
True
higher vacuums
191
What do certain gases usually help a pump achieve?
5a87cb6019b91f001a626ddc
True
reliability, or tolerance to high leakage rates
569
What are two other characteristics of a seal?
5a87cb6019b91f001a626ddd
True
The lowest pressure that can be attained in a system is also dependent on many things other than the nature of the pumps. Multiple pumps may be connected in series, called stages, to achieve higher vacuums. The choice of seals, chamber geometry, materials, and pump-down procedures will all have an impact. Collectively, these are called vacuum technique. And sometimes, the final pressure is not the only relevant characteristic. Pumping systems differ in oil contamination, vibration, preferential pumping of certain gases, pump-down speeds, intermittent duty cycle, reliability, or tolerance to high leakage rates.
Fluids
0
What can be measured in the atmosphere?
5a87c33f19b91f001a626d93
True
a vacuum
107
What can a container spread and dilute?
5a87c33f19b91f001a626d94
True
air
518
What does fluid push into the lungs?
5a87c33f19b91f001a626d95
True
air
518
What moves high pressure in the atmosphere?
5a87c33f19b91f001a626d96
True
suction
68
What can be used in a chest cavity during surgery?
5a87c33f19b91f001a626d97
True
Fluids cannot generally be pulled, so a vacuum cannot be created by suction. Suction can spread and dilute a vacuum by letting a higher pressure push fluids into it, but the vacuum has to be created first before suction can occur. The easiest way to create an artificial vacuum is to expand the volume of a container. For example, the diaphragm muscle expands the chest cavity, which causes the volume of the lungs to increase. This expansion reduces the pressure and creates a partial vacuum, which is soon filled by air pushed in by atmospheric pressure.
Han_dynasty
What period followed the Han dynasty?
572e97d3dfa6aa1500f8d1b1
Three Kingdoms
152
False
What dynasty came before the Han dynasty?
572e97d3dfa6aa1500f8d1b2
Qin
106
False
Who founded the Han dynasty?
572e97d3dfa6aa1500f8d1b3
Liu Bang
454
False
When did the Former Han period begin?
572e97d3dfa6aa1500f8d1b4
206 BC
685
False
When did the Later Han period end?
572e97d3dfa6aa1500f8d1b5
220 AD
737
False
The Han dynasty (Chinese: 漢朝; pinyin: Hàn cháo) was the second imperial dynasty of China, preceded by the Qin dynasty (221–207 BC) and succeeded by the Three Kingdoms period (220–280 AD). Spanning over four centuries, the Han period is considered a golden age in Chinese history. To this day, China's majority ethnic group refers to itself as the "Han people" and the Chinese script is referred to as "Han characters". It was founded by the rebel leader Liu Bang, known posthumously as Emperor Gaozu of Han, and briefly interrupted by the Xin dynasty (9–23 AD) of the former regent Wang Mang. This interregnum separates the Han dynasty into two periods: the Western Han or Former Han (206 BC – 9 AD) and the Eastern Han or Later Han (25–220 AD).
When did the Qing dynasty fall?
572ea634cb0c0d14000f13e6
AD 1911
766
False
What innovation was acquired from the Qin?
572ea634cb0c0d14000f13e7
commanderies
334
False
What philosphy in education was sanctioned by the Chinese court?
572ea634cb0c0d14000f13e8
Confucianism
590
False
What was an attributing factor that caused kingdoms to lose their Independence during the Han dynasty?
572ea634cb0c0d14000f13e9
the Rebellion of the Seven States
479
False
What class did a majority of appointed ministers come from during the Han dynasty?
572ea634cb0c0d14000f13ea
scholarly gentry
174
False
The emperor was at the pinnacle of Han society. He presided over the Han government but shared power with both the nobility and appointed ministers who came largely from the scholarly gentry class. The Han Empire was divided into areas directly controlled by the central government using an innovation inherited from the Qin known as commanderies, and a number of semi-autonomous kingdoms. These kingdoms gradually lost all vestiges of their independence, particularly following the Rebellion of the Seven States. From the reign of Emperor Wu onward, the Chinese court officially sponsored Confucianism in education and court politics, synthesized with the cosmology of later scholars such as Dong Zhongshu. This policy endured until the fall of the Qing dynasty in AD 1911.
In what year did the central government issue coins?
572eae75c246551400ce44fa
119 BC
213
False
What industry did the government use to help pay for its military campaigns?
572eae75c246551400ce44fb
iron
501
False
In what period did several government monopolies become repealed?
572eae75c246551400ce44fc
Eastern Han
585
False
A money based economy was first entrenched in what dynasty?
572eae75c246551400ce44fd
Zhou
129
False
A seismometer during the Han dynasty used what type of pendulum?
572eae75c246551400ce44fe
inverted
881
False
The Han dynasty was an age of economic prosperity and saw a significant growth of the money economy first established during the Zhou dynasty (c. 1050–256 BC). The coinage issued by the central government mint in 119 BC remained the standard coinage of China until the Tang dynasty (618–907 AD). The period saw a number of limited institutional innovations. To pay for its military campaigns and the settlement of newly conquered frontier territories, the government nationalized the private salt and iron industries in 117 BC, but these government monopolies were repealed during the Eastern Han period. Science and technology during the Han period saw significant advances, including papermaking, the nautical steering rudder, the use of negative numbers in mathematics, the raised-relief map, the hydraulic-powered armillary sphere for astronomy, and a seismometer employing an inverted pendulum.
Which confederation defeated the Han in 200 BC?
572eb08203f989190075694b
The Xiongnu
0
False
What type of campaign helped establish the Silk Road?
572eb08203f989190075694c
military
229
False
In what year was Nanyue annexed?
572eb08203f989190075694d
111 BC
813
False
Which confederation conquered the territories north of the Han's border?
572eb08203f989190075694e
Xianbei
700
False
In what year did Emperor Wu of Han's reign end?
572eb08203f989190075694f
87 BC
205
False
The Xiongnu, a nomadic steppe confederation, defeated the Han in 200 BC and forced the Han to submit as a de facto inferior partner, but continued their raids on the Han borders. Emperor Wu of Han (r. 141–87 BC) launched several military campaigns against them. The ultimate Han victory in these wars eventually forced the Xiongnu to accept vassal status as Han tributaries. These campaigns expanded Han sovereignty into the Tarim Basin of Central Asia, divided the Xiongnu into two separate confederations, and helped establish the vast trade network known as the Silk Road, which reached as far as the Mediterranean world. The territories north of Han's borders were quickly overrun by the nomadic Xianbei confederation. Emperor Wu also launched successful military expeditions in the south, annexing Nanyue in 111 BC and Dian in 109 BC, and in the Korean Peninsula where the Xuantu and Lelang Commanderies were established in 108 BC.
Which religious societies instigated the Yellow Turban Rebellion?
572eb82403f9891900756993
Daoist
288
False
Who killed the palace eunichs after the death of Emperor Ling?
572eb82403f9891900756994
military officers
501
False
Which King took the seat of power from Emperor Xian?
572eb82403f9891900756995
Cao Pi
626
False
Who was the last Emperor of the Han dynasty?
572eb82403f9891900756996
Xian
679
False
In what year did Emperor Ling die?
572eb82403f9891900756997
189 AD
442
False
After 92 AD, the palace eunuchs increasingly involved themselves in court politics, engaging in violent power struggles between the various consort clans of the empresses and empress dowagers, causing the Han's ultimate downfall. Imperial authority was also seriously challenged by large Daoist religious societies which instigated the Yellow Turban Rebellion and the Five Pecks of Rice Rebellion. Following the death of Emperor Ling (r. 168–189 AD), the palace eunuchs suffered wholesale massacre by military officers, allowing members of the aristocracy and military governors to become warlords and divide the empire. When Cao Pi, King of Wei, usurped the throne from Emperor Xian, the Han dynasty ceased to exist.
With what action did the Qin bring together the Chinese Warring States?
572eba61c246551400ce459c
conquest
111
False
Which commander did Liu Bang defeat in the Battle of Gaixia?
572eba61c246551400ce459d
Xiang Yu
543
False
Who was the first emperor during the Qin dynasty?
572eba61c246551400ce459e
Qin Shi Huangdi
191
False
What ultimately caused the Qin dynasty's authority to be dissolved?
572eba61c246551400ce459f
rebellion
280
False
Who urged Liu Bang to become emperor?
572eba61c246551400ce45a0
his followers
723
False
China's first imperial dynasty was the Qin dynasty (221–206 BC). The Qin unified the Chinese Warring States by conquest, but their empire became unstable after the death of the first emperor Qin Shi Huangdi. Within four years, the dynasty's authority had collapsed in the face of rebellion. Two former rebel leaders, Xiang Yu (d. 202 BC) of Chu and Liu Bang (d. 195 BC) of Han, engaged in a war to decide who would become hegemon of China, which had fissured into 18 kingdoms, each claiming allegiance to either Xiang Yu or Liu Bang. Although Xiang Yu proved to be a capable commander, Liu Bang defeated him at Battle of Gaixia (202 BC), in modern-day Anhui. Liu Bang assumed the title "emperor" (huangdi) at the urging of his followers and is known posthumously as Emperor Gaozu (r. 202–195 BC). Chang'an was chosen as the new capital of the reunified empire under Han.
How many commanderies were in the western third of the empire?
572ebc9303f98919007569bf
thirteen
45
False
Who could appoint staff to the kings?
572ebc9303f98919007569c0
imperial court
878
False
When was the Rebellion of the Seven States?
572ebc9303f98919007569c1
154 BC
593
False
From what source did kings derive their personal income from?
572ebc9303f98919007569c2
tax revenues
963
False
The Han court replaced several kings with members of what royal family?
572ebc9303f98919007569c3
Liu
412
False
At the beginning of the Western Han dynasty, thirteen centrally controlled commanderies—including the capital region—existed in the western third of the empire, while the eastern two-thirds were divided into ten semi-autonomous kingdoms. To placate his prominent commanders from the war with Chu, Emperor Gaozu enfeoffed some of them as kings. By 157 BC, the Han court had replaced all of these kings with royal Liu family members, since the loyalty of non-relatives to the throne was questioned. After several insurrections by Han kings—the largest being the Rebellion of the Seven States in 154 BC—the imperial court enacted a series of reforms beginning in 145 BC limiting the size and power of these kingdoms and dividing their former territories into new centrally controlled commanderies. Kings were no longer able to appoint their own staff; this duty was assumed by the imperial court. Kings became nominal heads of their fiefs and collected a portion of tax revenues as their personal incomes. The kingdoms were never entirely abolished and existed throughout the remainder of Western and Eastern Han.
Who was the chieftain of the Xiongnu?
572ebdf8dfa6aa1500f8d33b
Modu Chanyu
60
False
What group had a trade embargo created against them?
572ebdf8dfa6aa1500f8d33c
the Xiongnu
514
False
In what year were Han forces defeated in Baideng?
572ebdf8dfa6aa1500f8d33d
200 BC
780
False
What agreement established equality between the Xiongnu and the Han?
572ebdf8dfa6aa1500f8d33e
heqin
812
False
What type of clothing were sent as a tribute to the Xiongnu?
572ebdf8dfa6aa1500f8d33f
silk clothes
1011
False
To the north of China proper, the nomadic Xiongnu chieftain Modu Chanyu (r. 209–174 BC) conquered various tribes inhabiting the eastern portion of the Eurasian Steppe. By the end of his reign, he controlled Manchuria, Mongolia, and the Tarim Basin, subjugating over twenty states east of Samarkand. Emperor Gaozu was troubled about the abundant Han-manufactured iron weapons traded to the Xiongnu along the northern borders, and he established a trade embargo against the group. Although the embargo was in place, the Xiongnu found traders willing to supply their needs. Chinese forces also mounted surprise attacks against Xiongnu who traded at the border markets. In retaliation, the Xiongnu invaded what is now Shanxi province, where they defeated the Han forces at Baideng in 200 BC. After negotiations, the heqin agreement in 198 BC nominally held the leaders of the Xiongnu and the Han as equal partners in a royal marriage alliance, but the Han were forced to send large amounts of tribute items such as silk clothes, food, and wine to the Xiongnu.
The heqin agreement was reaffirmed by a court conference in what year?
572ebfc4cb0c0d14000f14f6
135 BC
357
False
In what year did Emperor Wu begin a series of attacks in Xiongnu territories?
572ebfc4cb0c0d14000f14f7
133 BC
733
False
What type of colony did Chinese armies use to help firm their hold on the strongholds that they had taken over?
572ebfc4cb0c0d14000f14f8
agricultural
893
False
In what year did the Battle of Mobei take place?
572ebfc4cb0c0d14000f14f9
119 BC
967
False
Which Han commander died in the year 106 BC?
572ebfc4cb0c0d14000f14fa
Wei Qing
1050
False
Despite the tribute and a negotiation between Laoshang Chanyu (r. 174–160 BC) and Emperor Wen (r. 180–157 BC) to reopen border markets, many of the Chanyu's Xiongnu subordinates chose not to obey the treaty and periodically raided Han territories south of the Great Wall for additional goods. In a court conference assembled by Emperor Wu (r. 141–87 BC) in 135 BC, the majority consensus of the ministers was to retain the heqin agreement. Emperor Wu accepted this, despite continuing Xiongnu raids. However, a court conference the following year convinced the majority that a limited engagement at Mayi involving the assassination of the Chanyu would throw the Xiongnu realm into chaos and benefit the Han. When this plot failed in 133 BC, Emperor Wu launched a series of massive military invasions into Xiongnu territory. Chinese armies captured one stronghold after another and established agricultural colonies to strengthen their hold. The assault culminated in 119 BC at the Battle of Mobei, where the Han commanders Huo Qubing (d. 117 BC) and Wei Qing (d. 106 BC) forced the Xiongnu court to flee north of the Gobi Desert.
Who made up a majority of the people on the frontier?
572ec4e8dfa6aa1500f8d373
soldiers
361
False
Who forced peasant farmers to move to new settlements?
572ec4e8dfa6aa1500f8d374
the court
384
False
In what year did Han forces stop a joint Xiongnu-Qiang invasion?
572ec4e8dfa6aa1500f8d375
111 BC
183
False
Where were landowners encouraged to migrate willingly to?
572ec4e8dfa6aa1500f8d376
the frontier
651
False
How many commanderies in the new frontier were created by the Han court in the year 111 BC?
572ec4e8dfa6aa1500f8d377
four
231
False
In 121 BC, Han forces expelled the Xiongnu from a vast territory spanning the Hexi Corridor to Lop Nur. They repelled a joint Xiongnu-Qiang invasion of this northwestern territory in 111 BC. In that year, the Han court established four new frontier commanderies in this region: Jiuquan, Zhangyi, Dunhuang, and Wuwei. The majority of people on the frontier were soldiers. On occasion, the court forcibly moved peasant farmers to new frontier settlements, along with government-owned slaves and convicts who performed hard labor. The court also encouraged commoners, such as farmers, merchants, landowners, and hired laborers, to voluntarily migrate to the frontier.
What type of Roman item was traded on the Silk Road network?
572ec73cc246551400ce4642
glasswares
610
False
Which diplomat helped gather information on the country of Anxi?
572ec73cc246551400ce4643
Zhang Qian
56
False
When did Zhang Qian end his travels?
572ec73cc246551400ce4644
125 BC
89
False
Which network was used to exchange goods with Rome?
572ec73cc246551400ce4645
Silk Road
490
False
What empire had established an embassy in Anxi?
572ec73cc246551400ce4646
Han
429
False
Even before Han's expansion into Central Asia, diplomat Zhang Qian's travels from 139 to 125 BC had established Chinese contacts with many surrounding civilizations. Zhang encountered Dayuan (Fergana), Kangju (Sogdiana), and Daxia (Bactria, formerly the Greco-Bactrian Kingdom); he also gathered information on Shendu (Indus River valley of North India) and Anxi (the Parthian Empire). All of these countries eventually received Han embassies. These connections marked the beginning of the Silk Road trade network that extended to the Roman Empire, bringing Han items like silk to Rome and Roman goods such as glasswares to China.
Which group did Han forces fight in the Tarm Basin?
572ec86dc246551400ce466a
the Xiongnu
45
False
When was the first national census taken in China?
572ec86dc246551400ce466b
2 AD
698
False
What was the population of China in 2 AD?
572ec86dc246551400ce466c
57,671,400
744
False
What year was the Protectorate of Western Regions created in?
572ec86dc246551400ce466d
60 BC
204
False
Which kingdom did the Han conquer in 109 BC?
572ec86dc246551400ce466e
Dian
495
False
From roughly 115 to 60 BC, Han forces fought the Xiongnu over control of the oasis city-states in the Tarim Basin. Han was eventually victorious and established the Protectorate of the Western Regions in 60 BC, which dealt with the region's defense and foreign affairs. The Han also expanded southward. The naval conquest of Nanyue in 111 BC expanded the Han realm into what are now modern Guangdong, Guangxi, and northern Vietnam. Yunnan was brought into the Han realm with the conquest of the Dian Kingdom in 109 BC, followed by parts of the Korean Peninsula with the colonial establishments of Xuantu Commandery and Lelang Commandery in 108 BC. In China's first known nationwide census taken in 2 AD, the population was registered as having 57,671,400 individuals in 12,366,470 households.
Who made up the bulk of the administrators of the new government monopolies?
572ecdaac246551400ce46b8
former merchants
175
False
When was the liquor monopoly abolished?
572ecdaac246551400ce46b9
81 BC
330
False
Which faction did the Reformists oppose?
572ecdaac246551400ce46ba
Modernist
686
False
Which political faction favored budgetary reform?
572ecdaac246551400ce46bb
The Reformists
972
False
In what year did Huo Guang die?
572ecdaac246551400ce46bc
68 BC
811
False
To pay for his military campaigns and colonial expansion, Emperor Wu nationalized several private industries. He created central government monopolies administered largely by former merchants. These monopolies included salt, iron, and liquor production, as well as bronze-coin currency. The liquor monopoly lasted only from 98 to 81 BC, and the salt and iron monopolies were eventually abolished in early Eastern Han. The issuing of coinage remained a central government monopoly throughout the rest of the Han dynasty. The government monopolies were eventually repealed when a political faction known as the Reformists gained greater influence in the court. The Reformists opposed the Modernist faction that had dominated court politics in Emperor Wu's reign and during the subsequent regency of Huo Guang (d. 68 BC). The Modernists argued for an aggressive and expansionary foreign policy supported by revenues from heavy government intervention in the private economy. The Reformists, however, overturned these policies, favoring a cautious, non-expansionary approach to foreign policy, frugal budget reform, and lower tax-rates imposed on private entrepreneurs.
Who tried to outlaw slavery?
572ecec0cb0c0d14000f15b4
Wang Mang
0
False
What caused the water level in the Yellow River to increase?
572ecec0cb0c0d14000f15b5
Gradual silt buildup
404
False
Who created a dam in the southern branch of The Yellow River?
572ecec0cb0c0d14000f15b6
Han engineers
646
False
What emptied out to the south of the Shandong Peninsula?
572ecec0cb0c0d14000f15b7
The Yellow River
513
False
What caused the end of Wang Mang's regime?
572ecec0cb0c0d14000f15b8
massive floods
367
False
Wang Mang initiated a series of major reforms that were ultimately unsuccessful. These reforms included outlawing slavery, nationalizing land to equally distribute between households, and introducing new currencies, a change which debased the value of coinage. Although these reforms provoked considerable opposition, Wang's regime met its ultimate downfall with the massive floods of c. 3 AD and 11 AD. Gradual silt buildup in the Yellow River had raised its water level and overwhelmed the flood control works. The Yellow River split into two new branches: one emptying to the north and the other to the south of the Shandong Peninsula, though Han engineers managed to dam the southern branch by 70 AD.
Where did the capital move to after the reign of Guangwu?
572ed03ccb0c0d14000f15d2
Luoyang
406
False
What era does the reign of Guangwu fall under?
572ed03ccb0c0d14000f15d3
Eastern Han dynasty
476
False
What can the Eastern Han dynasty also be called?
572ed03ccb0c0d14000f15d4
Later Han dynasty
571
False
Where was the capital located during the Western Han dynasty?
572ed03ccb0c0d14000f15d5
Chang'an
321
False
What can the Western Han dynasty also be called?
572ed03ccb0c0d14000f15d6
Former Han dynasty
180
False
The period between the foundation of the Han dynasty and Wang Mang's reign is known as the Western Han dynasty (simplified Chinese: 西汉; traditional Chinese: 西漢; pinyin: Xī Hàn) or Former Han dynasty (simplified Chinese: 前汉; traditional Chinese: 前漢; pinyin: Qiánhàn) (206 BC – 9 AD). During this period the capital was at Chang'an (modern Xi'an). From the reign of Guangwu the capital was moved eastward to Luoyang. The era from his reign until the fall of Han is known as the Eastern Han dynasty (simplified Chinese: 东汉; traditional Chinese: 東漢; pinyin: Dōng Hàn) or the Later Han dynasty (simplified Chinese: 后汉; traditional Chinese: 後漢; pinyin: Hòu Hàn) (25–220 AD).
On what date did the Eastern Han dynasty begin?
572ed16f03f9891900756a49
5 August 25
64
False
Which state raided Han's Korean commanderies?
572ed16f03f9891900756a4a
Goguryeo
185
False
Who started a rebellion against Han in the year AD 40?
572ed16f03f9891900756a4b
The Trưng Sisters of Vietnam
300
False
In what year did Ma Yuan die?
572ed16f03f9891900756a4c
AD 49
415
False
Who was the leader of the Xiongnu?
572ed16f03f9891900756a4d
Bi
549
False
The Eastern Han, also known as the Later Han, formally began on 5 August 25, when Liu Xiu became Emperor Guangwu of Han. During the widespread rebellion against Wang Mang, the state of Goguryeo was free to raid Han's Korean commanderies; Han did not reaffirm its control over the region until AD 30. The Trưng Sisters of Vietnam rebelled against Han in AD 40. Their rebellion was crushed by Han general Ma Yuan (d. AD 49) in a campaign from AD 42–43. Wang Mang renewed hostilities against the Xiongnu, who were estranged from Han until their leader Bi (比), a rival claimant to the throne against his cousin Punu (蒲奴), submitted to Han as a tributary vassal in AD 50. This created two rival Xiongnu states: the Southern Xiongnu led by Bi, an ally of Han, and the Northern Xiongnu led by Punu, an enemy of Han.
Which Basin did the Han lose authority of?
572ed370c246551400ce46f2
Tarim
67
False
When did Chen Mu die?
572ed370c246551400ce46f3
AD 75
446
False
Where did the Northern Xiongnu flee to in AD 91?
572ed370c246551400ce46f4
Ili River valley
728
False
Who was the Protector General of the Western Regions?
572ed370c246551400ce46f5
Chen Mu
434
False
Who conquered the Tarim Basin in AD 63?
572ed370c246551400ce46f6
the Northern Xiongnu
103
False
During the turbulent reign of Wang Mang, Han lost control over the Tarim Basin, which was conquered by the Northern Xiongnu in AD 63 and used as a base to invade Han's Hexi Corridor in Gansu. Dou Gu (d. 88 AD) defeated the Northern Xiongnu at the Battle of Yiwulu in AD 73, evicting them from Turpan and chasing them as far as Lake Barkol before establishing a garrison at Hami. After the new Protector General of the Western Regions Chen Mu (d. AD 75) was killed by allies of the Xiongnu in Karasahr and Kucha, the garrison at Hami was withdrawn. At the Battle of Ikh Bayan in AD 89, Dou Xian (d. AD 92) defeated the Northern Xiongnu chanyu who then retreated into the Altai Mountains. After the Northern Xiongnu fled into the Ili River valley in AD 91, the nomadic Xianbei occupied the area from the borders of the Buyeo Kingdom in Manchuria to the Ili River of the Wusun people. The Xianbei reached their apogee under Tanshihuai (檀石槐) (d. AD 180), who consistently defeated Chinese armies. However, Tanshihuai's confederation disintegrated after his death.
Which ruler requested a marriage alliance with the Han in AD 90?
572ed6c8c246551400ce4702
Vima Kadphises
207
False
Who was the Protector General of the Western Regions in AD 91?
572ed6c8c246551400ce4703
Ban Chao
547
False
Which empire was asked to help subdue Kashgar?
572ed6c8c246551400ce4704
Kushan
45
False
Which empire sent armies to attack Ban Chao?
572ed6c8c246551400ce4705
Kushan
45
False
Who was allied with Kashgar?
572ed6c8c246551400ce4706
Sogdiana
166
False
Ban Chao (d. AD 102) enlisted the aid of the Kushan Empire, occupying the area of modern India, Pakistan, Afghanistan, and Tajikistan, to subdue Kashgar and its ally Sogdiana. When a request by Kushan ruler Vima Kadphises (r. c. 90–c. 100 AD) for a marriage alliance with the Han was rejected in AD 90, he sent his forces to Wakhan (Afghanistan) to attack Ban Chao. The conflict ended with the Kushans withdrawing because of lack of supplies. In AD 91, the office of Protector General of the Western Regions was reinstated when it was bestowed on Ban Chao.
Which member of the Han Empire was sent to Daqin in AD 97?
572edc38cb0c0d14000f1622
Gan Ying
229
False
Who translated written works into Chinese?
572edc38cb0c0d14000f1623
Buddhist monks
546
False
Who reached the court of Emperor Huan in AD 166?
572edc38cb0c0d14000f1624
A Roman embassy
251
False
When did Emperor Huan's reign begin?
572edc38cb0c0d14000f1625
AD 146
393
False
Which empire sent the Han gifts?
572edc38cb0c0d14000f1626
Parthian
92
False
In addition to tributary relations with the Kushans, the Han Empire received gifts from the Parthian Empire, from a king in modern Burma, from a ruler in Japan, and initiated an unsuccessful mission to Daqin (Rome) in AD 97 with Gan Ying as emissary. A Roman embassy of Emperor Marcus Aurelius (r. 161–180 AD) is recorded in the Hou Hanshu to have reached the court of Emperor Huan of Han (r. AD 146–168) in AD 166, yet Rafe de Crespigny asserts that this was most likely a group of Roman merchants. Other travelers to Eastern-Han China included Buddhist monks who translated works into Chinese, such as An Shigao of Parthia, and Lokaksema from Kushan-era Gandhara, India.
Who was prevented from leaving their house?
572ede7cc246551400ce4758
Empress Dowager Dou
375
False
When did Emperor He's reign end?
572ede7cc246551400ce4759
105 AD
363
False
Who managed the state after the death of Emperor He?
572ede7cc246551400ce475a
Empress Deng Sui
625
False
When did the Qiang rebellion end?
572ede7cc246551400ce475b
118 AD
797
False
Who concealed the identity of Emperor He's mother?
572ede7cc246551400ce475c
Empress Dowager Dou
375
False
Emperor Zhang's (r. 75–88 AD) reign came to be viewed by later Eastern Han scholars as the high point of the dynastic house. Subsequent reigns were increasingly marked by eunuch intervention in court politics and their involvement in the violent power struggles of the imperial consort clans. With the aid of the eunuch Zheng Zhong (d. 107 AD), Emperor He (r. 88–105 AD) had Empress Dowager Dou (d. 97 AD) put under house arrest and her clan stripped of power. This was in revenge for Dou's purging of the clan of his natural mother—Consort Liang—and then concealing her identity from him. After Emperor He's death, his wife Empress Deng Sui (d. 121 AD) managed state affairs as the regent empress dowager during a turbulent financial crisis and widespread Qiang rebellion that lasted from 107 to 118 AD.
Who had forced a large number of Empress Dowager Deng's clan members to kill themselves?
572ee029cb0c0d14000f1652
Emperor An
32
False
Which person plotted to overthrew the regime of Empress Dowager Yan?
572ee029cb0c0d14000f1653
Sun Cheng
468
False
Who did Emperor Huan hire to depose Liang Ji?
572ee029cb0c0d14000f1654
eunuchs
959
False
Relatives of what family were exiled after Sun Cheng had overthrown the regime?
572ee029cb0c0d14000f1655
Yan
589
False
How did Liang Ji die?
572ee029cb0c0d14000f1656
forced to commit suicide
1000
False
When Empress Dowager Deng died, Emperor An (r. 106–125 AD) was convinced by the accusations of the eunuchs Li Run (李閏) and Jiang Jing (江京) that Deng and her family had planned to depose him. An dismissed Deng's clan members from office, exiled them and forced many to commit suicide. After An's death, his wife, Empress Dowager Yan (d. 126 AD) placed the child Marquess of Beixiang on the throne in an attempt to retain power within her family. However, palace eunuch Sun Cheng (d. 132 AD) masterminded a successful overthrow of her regime to enthrone Emperor Shun of Han (r. 125–144 AD). Yan was placed under house arrest, her relatives were either killed or exiled, and her eunuch allies were slaughtered. The regent Liang Ji (d. 159 AD), brother of Empress Liang Na (d. 150 AD), had the brother-in-law of Consort Deng Mengnü (later empress) (d. 165 AD) killed after Deng Mengnü resisted Liang Ji's attempts to control her. Afterward, Emperor Huan employed eunuchs to depose Liang Ji, who was then forced to commit suicide.
On what charge was Li Ying jailed for?
572ee20bdfa6aa1500f8d48f
treason
412
False
Who was responsible for imprisoning Li Ying?
572ee20bdfa6aa1500f8d490
Palace eunuchs
289
False
During what type of crisis did Emperor Huan alienate the bureaucracy?
572ee20bdfa6aa1500f8d491
economic
272
False
Students from what university led a protest against members of Huan's court?
572ee20bdfa6aa1500f8d492
Imperial
18
False
When did Dou Wu die?
572ee20bdfa6aa1500f8d493
168 AD
464
False
Students from the Imperial University organized a widespread student protest against the eunuchs of Emperor Huan's court. Huan further alienated the bureaucracy when he initiated grandiose construction projects and hosted thousands of concubines in his harem at a time of economic crisis. Palace eunuchs imprisoned the official Li Ying (李膺) and his associates from the Imperial University on a dubious charge of treason. In 167 AD, the Grand Commandant Dou Wu (d. 168 AD) convinced his son-in-law, Emperor Huan, to release them. However the emperor permanently barred Li Ying and his associates from serving in office, marking the beginning of the Partisan Prohibitions.
Who arrested Chen Fan in a failed plot?
572ee3a8c246551400ce477e
the eunuchs
210
False
Who made accusations of treason against Dou Wu?
572ee3a8c246551400ce477f
General Zhang Huan
277
False
How did Dou Wu pass away?
572ee3a8c246551400ce4780
he was forced to commit suicide
507
False
Which group was favorable to Zhang Huan?
572ee3a8c246551400ce4781
the eunuchs
309
False
What type of action was attempted on the eunuchs?
572ee3a8c246551400ce4782
coup d'état
89
False
Following Huan's death, Dou Wu and the Grand Tutor Chen Fan (陳蕃) (d. 168 AD) attempted a coup d'état against the eunuchs Hou Lan (d. 172 AD), Cao Jie (d. 181 AD), and Wang Fu (王甫). When the plot was uncovered, the eunuchs arrested Empress Dowager Dou (d. 172 AD) and Chen Fan. General Zhang Huan (張奐) favored the eunuchs. He and his troops confronted Dou Wu and his retainers at the palace gate where each side shouted accusations of treason against the other. When the retainers gradually deserted Dou Wu, he was forced to commit suicide.
In what year did the Partisan Prohibitions end?
572ee4c203f9891900756abd
184 AD
111
False
In what year did Zhang Lu's rebellion end?
572ee4c203f9891900756abe
215 AD
559
False
How many provinces did Zhang Jue's rebellion take place in?
572ee4c203f9891900756abf
eight
604
False
What type of healer was Zhang Jue?
572ee4c203f9891900756ac0
faith
390
False
What religion did Zhang Jue practice?
572ee4c203f9891900756ac1
Daoist
356
False
The Partisan Prohibitions were repealed during the Yellow Turban Rebellion and Five Pecks of Rice Rebellion in 184 AD, largely because the court did not want to continue to alienate a significant portion of the gentry class who might otherwise join the rebellions. The Yellow Turbans and Five-Pecks-of-Rice adherents belonged to two different hierarchical Daoist religious societies led by faith healers Zhang Jue (d. 184 AD) and Zhang Lu (d. 216 AD), respectively. Zhang Lu's rebellion, in modern northern Sichuan and southern Shaanxi, was not quelled until 215 AD. Zhang Jue's massive rebellion across eight provinces was annihilated by Han forces within a year, however the following decades saw much smaller recurrent uprisings. Although the Yellow Turbans were defeated, many generals appointed during the crisis never disbanded their assembled militia forces and used these troops to amass power outside of the collapsing imperial authority.
Who was assassinated on September 22, 189 AD?
572ee6f1dfa6aa1500f8d4ad
He Jin
458
False
Who agreed to the execuation of the eunuchs?
572ee6f1dfa6aa1500f8d4ae
Empress He
315
False
Who negated the execution order on the eunuchs?
572ee6f1dfa6aa1500f8d4af
He Miao
401
False
Who was the family member that Emperor Shao escaped with?
572ee6f1dfa6aa1500f8d4b0
Liu Xie
781
False
What did General-in-Chief He petition Empress He for?
572ee6f1dfa6aa1500f8d4b1
the eunuchs' execution
261
False
General-in-Chief He Jin (d. 189 AD), half-brother to Empress He (d. 189 AD), plotted with Yuan Shao (d. 202 AD) to overthrow the eunuchs by having several generals march to the outskirts of the capital. There, in a written petition to Empress He, they demanded the eunuchs' execution. After a period of hesitation, Empress He consented. When the eunuchs discovered this, however, they had her brother He Miao (何苗) rescind the order. The eunuchs assassinated He Jin on September 22, 189 AD. Yuan Shao then besieged Luoyang's Northern Palace while his brother Yuan Shu (d. 199 AD) besieged the Southern Palace. On September 25 both palaces were breached and approximately two thousand eunuchs were killed. Zhang Rang had previously fled with Emperor Shao (r. 189 AD) and his brother Liu Xie—the future Emperor Xian of Han (r. 189–220 AD). While being pursued by the Yuan brothers, Zhang committed suicide by jumping into the Yellow River.
How was Luoyang destroyed?
572ee81bdfa6aa1500f8d4b7
burned
397
False
Who demoted Emperor Shao?
572ee81bdfa6aa1500f8d4b8
Dong Zhuo
239
False
What position would the young Liu Xie eventually be promoted to?
572ee81bdfa6aa1500f8d4b9
Emperor Xian
306
False
Who had taken control of Luoyang?
572ee81bdfa6aa1500f8d4ba
General Dong Zhuo
0
False
When did Dong Zhuo die?
572ee81bdfa6aa1500f8d4bb
192 AD
22
False
General Dong Zhuo (d. 192 AD) found the young emperor and his brother wandering in the countryside. He escorted them safely back to the capital and was made Minister of Works, taking control of Luoyang and forcing Yuan Shao to flee. After Dong Zhuo demoted Emperor Shao and promoted his brother Liu Xie as Emperor Xian, Yuan Shao led a coalition of former officials and officers against Dong, who burned Luoyang to the ground and resettled the court at Chang'an in May 191 AD. Dong Zhuo later poisoned Emperor Shao.
Who was defeated at the Battle of Red Cliffs in 208 AD?
572ee9b1dfa6aa1500f8d4cb
Cao
6
False
Who did Emperor Xian give his throne to?
572ee9b1dfa6aa1500f8d4cc
Cao Pi
290
False
What state was in a conflict with Eastern Wu, and Shu Han?
572ee9b1dfa6aa1500f8d4cd
Cao Wei
496
False
Who was in control of the south of China?
572ee9b1dfa6aa1500f8d4ce
Sun Quan
150
False
In what month did Cao Cao die?
572ee9b1dfa6aa1500f8d4cf
March
256
False
After Cao's defeat at the naval Battle of Red Cliffs in 208 AD, China was divided into three spheres of influence, with Cao Cao dominating the north, Sun Quan (182–252 AD) dominating the south, and Liu Bei (161–223 AD) dominating the west. Cao Cao died in March 220 AD. By December his son Cao Pi (187–226 AD) had Emperor Xian relinquish the throne to him and is known posthumously as Emperor Wen of Wei. This formally ended the Han dynasty and initiated an age of conflict between three states: Cao Wei, Eastern Wu, and Shu Han.
During what period was it obvious that corruption was widespread in the government?
572eeba7cb0c0d14000f1678
mid-to-late Eastern Han
778
False
What rank provided its holder territorial rule?
572eeba7cb0c0d14000f1679
full marquess
97
False
What class did individuals who served as officials in the government belong to?
572eeba7cb0c0d14000f167a
commoner social
337
False
What was considered to be more important to some than serving the local government?
572eeba7cb0c0d14000f167b
cultivation of morally grounded personal relationships
838
False
What rank is below that of full marquess?
572eeba7cb0c0d14000f167c
ordinary marquess
212
False
Each successive rank gave its holder greater pensions and legal privileges. The highest rank, of full marquess, came with a state pension and a territorial fiefdom. Holders of the rank immediately below, that of ordinary marquess, received a pension, but had no territorial rule. Officials who served in government belonged to the wider commoner social class and were ranked just below nobles in social prestige. The highest government officials could be enfeoffed as marquesses. By the Eastern Han period, local elites of unattached scholars, teachers, students, and government officials began to identify themselves as members of a larger, nationwide gentry class with shared values and a commitment to mainstream scholarship. When the government became noticeably corrupt in mid-to-late Eastern Han, many gentrymen even considered the cultivation of morally grounded personal relationships more important than serving in public office.
Who were considered to be below the social rank that scholars held?
572eee7903f9891900756aeb
The farmer
0
False
What color of clothing were merchants that had registered with the state forced to wear?
572eee7903f9891900756aec
white-colored
425
False
Who would retainers in the employ of nobles occasionally have to fight?
572eee7903f9891900756aed
bandits
987
False
Who was commonly considered by some to be social parasites?
572eee7903f9891900756aee
State-registered merchants
366
False
How could a merchant prevent having to register as one?
572eee7903f9891900756aef
working between a network of cities
669
False
The farmer, or specifically the small landowner-cultivator, was ranked just below scholars and officials in the social hierarchy. Other agricultural cultivators were of a lower status, such as tenants, wage laborers, and in rare cases slaves. Artisans and craftsmen had a legal and socioeconomic status between that of owner-cultivator farmers and common merchants. State-registered merchants, who were forced by law to wear white-colored clothes and pay high commercial taxes, were considered by the gentry as social parasites with a contemptible status. These were often petty shopkeepers of urban marketplaces; merchants such as industrialists and itinerant traders working between a network of cities could avoid registering as merchants and were often wealthier and more powerful than the vast majority of government officials. Wealthy landowners, such as nobles and officials, often provided lodging for retainers who provided valuable work or duties, sometimes including fighting bandits or riding into battle. Unlike slaves, retainers could come and go from their master's home as they pleased. Medical physicians, pig breeders, and butchers had a fairly high social status, while occultist diviners, runners, and messengers had low status.
How many family members would commonly live in a single household during the Han era?
572ef06703f9891900756af5
four to five
53
False
Whose opinion on the spouse of an arranged marriage was considered to be more important?
572ef06703f9891900756af6
the father's
501
False
Who were rich enough to afford multiple lovers?
572ef06703f9891900756af7
nobles and high officials
645
False
What type of family was your typical Han era family considered to be?
572ef06703f9891900756af8
patrilineal
23
False
What type of marriage was thought of as a normal occurrence in this era?
572ef06703f9891900756af9
Arranged marriages
464
False
The Han-era family was patrilineal and typically had four to five nuclear family members living in one household. Multiple generations of extended family members did not occupy the same house, unlike families of later dynasties. According to Confucian family norms, various family members were treated with different levels of respect and intimacy. For example, there were different accepted time frames for mourning the death of a father versus a paternal uncle. Arranged marriages were normal, with the father's input on his offspring's spouse being considered more important than the mother's. Monogamous marriages were also normal, although nobles and high officials were wealthy enough to afford and support concubines as additional lovers. Under certain conditions dictated by custom, not law, both men and women were able to divorce their spouses and remarry.
Which family member commonly sent an adult married offspring away with their portion of the families fortune?
572f69a8947a6a140053c926
the father
199
False
What type of document could be produced to distribute some of an inheritance?
572f69a8947a6a140053c927
a will
500
False
How did daughters get their portion of the family fortune?
572f69a8947a6a140053c928
marriage dowries
359
False
Was is guaranteed that a first born son would receive all of the family's fortune?
572f69a8947a6a140053c929
inheritance practices did not involve primogeniture
49
False
What type of title could be passed down?
572f69a8947a6a140053c92a
noble
26
False
Apart from the passing of noble titles or ranks, inheritance practices did not involve primogeniture; each son received an equal share of the family property. Unlike the practice in later dynasties, the father usually sent his adult married sons away with their portions of the family fortune. Daughters received a portion of the family fortune through their marriage dowries, though this was usually much less than the shares of sons. A different distribution of the remainder could be specified in a will, but it is unclear how common this was.
Which gender was exempt from performing the yearly corvee labor duties?
572f6c2304bcaa1900d76917
Women
336
False
What emotional state would empresses commonly place their immediate family members in?
572f6c2304bcaa1900d76918
openly humiliated
290
False
What type of occupation did women commonly take part in?
572f6c2304bcaa1900d76919
income-earning
423
False
Who were women obligated to obey in their old age?
572f6c2304bcaa1900d7691a
their adult son
83
False
Which parental figures often avoided the common familial rules?
572f6c2304bcaa1900d7691b
mothers
228
False
Women were expected to obey the will of their father, then their husband, and then their adult son in old age. However, it is known from contemporary sources that there were many deviations to this rule, especially in regard to mothers over their sons, and empresses who ordered around and openly humiliated their fathers and brothers. Women were exempt from the annual corvée labor duties, but often engaged in a range of income-earning occupations aside from their domestic chores of cooking and cleaning.
What philosophy was given exclusivity in the court during the rule of Emperor Wu?
572f6dde04bcaa1900d7693f
Confucianism
230
False
Who put an end to all erudites?
572f6dde04bcaa1900d76940
Emperor Wu
214
False
How many students were in the Imperial University by the second century?
572f6dde04bcaa1900d76941
over 30,000
1057
False
What type of philosophy was available for individuals at the commanderies?
572f6dde04bcaa1900d76942
Confucian
1094
False
Where did teachers make their money from at private schools?
572f6dde04bcaa1900d76943
tuition payments
1262
False
The early Western Han court simultaneously accepted the philosophical teachings of Legalism, Huang-Lao Daoism, and Confucianism in making state decisions and shaping government policy. However, the Han court under Emperor Wu gave Confucianism exclusive patronage. He abolished all academic chairs or erudites (bóshì 博士) not dealing with the Confucian Five Classics in 136 BC and encouraged nominees for office to receive a Confucian-based education at the Imperial University that he established in 124 BC. Unlike the original ideology espoused by Confucius, or Kongzi (551–479 BC), Han Confucianism in Emperor Wu's reign was the creation of Dong Zhongshu (179–104 BC). Dong was a scholar and minor official who aggregated the ethical Confucian ideas of ritual, filial piety, and harmonious relationships with five phases and yin-yang cosmologies. Much to the interest of the ruler, Dong's synthesis justified the imperial system of government within the natural order of the universe. The Imperial University grew in importance as the student body grew to over 30,000 by the 2nd century AD. A Confucian-based education was also made available at commandery-level schools and private schools opened in small towns, where teachers earned respectable incomes from tuition payments.
Who had produced biographies of individuals of significant importance?
572f6f7004bcaa1900d76951
various gentrymen
752
False
What type of poetry had much influence in the Han dynasty?
572f6f7004bcaa1900d76952
fu
811
False
Who had written the dictionary Fangyan?
572f6f7004bcaa1900d76953
Yang Xiong
691
False
Which person had authored the Book of Han?
572f6f7004bcaa1900d76954
Ban Biao
505
False
What was the name of Ban Biao's female offspring?
572f6f7004bcaa1900d76955
Ban Zhao
569
False
Some important texts were created and studied by scholars. Philosophical works written by Yang Xiong (53 BC – 18 AD), Huan Tan (43 BC – 28 AD), Wang Chong (27–100 AD), and Wang Fu (78–163 AD) questioned whether human nature was innately good or evil and posed challenges to Dong's universal order. The Records of the Grand Historian by Sima Tan (d. 110 BC) and his son Sima Qian (145–86 BC) established the standard model for all of imperial China's Standard Histories, such as the Book of Han written by Ban Biao (3–54 AD), his son Ban Gu (32–92 AD), and his daughter Ban Zhao (45–116 AD). There were dictionaries such as the Shuowen Jiezi by Xu Shen (c. 58 – c. 147 AD) and the Fangyan by Yang Xiong. Biographies on important figures were written by various gentrymen. Han dynasty poetry was dominated by the fu genre, which achieved its greatest prominence during the reign of Emperor Wu.
What type of torture was acquired from Qin law?
572f7858a23a5019007fc655
mutilation
432
False
What eventually replaced torturous mutilation as a type of punishment?
572f7858a23a5019007fc656
progressively less-severe beatings
529
False
What type of extreme punishment was likely to be laid upon those who committed the harshest of crimes?
572f7858a23a5019007fc657
death by beheading
377
False
What could a criminal in this era expect not to happen if he was convicted of a crime?
572f7858a23a5019007fc658
criminals were never imprisoned
231
False
What did women commonly have less of?
572f7858a23a5019007fc659
rights
113
False
Various cases for rape, physical abuse and murder were prosecuted in court. Women, although usually having fewer rights by custom, were allowed to level civil and criminal charges against men. While suspects were jailed, convicted criminals were never imprisoned. Instead, punishments were commonly monetary fines, periods of forced hard labor for convicts, and the penalty of death by beheading. Early Han punishments of torturous mutilation were borrowed from Qin law. A series of reforms abolished mutilation punishments with progressively less-severe beatings by the bastinado.
What type of crop was rice considered to be during this period?
572f79b4a23a5019007fc669
staple crops
16
False
What were dogs in this era most likely to be considered?
572f79b4a23a5019007fc66a
pets
493
False
What type of partridge was commonly consumed?
572f79b4a23a5019007fc66b
Chinese bamboo
620
False
Where were turtles acquired from?
572f79b4a23a5019007fc66c
streams and lakes
533
False
What was the color of the bayberries?
572f79b4a23a5019007fc66d
red
228
False
The most common staple crops consumed during Han were wheat, barley, foxtail millet, proso millet, rice, and beans. Commonly eaten fruits and vegetables included chestnuts, pears, plums, peaches, melons, apricots, strawberries, red bayberries, jujubes, calabash, bamboo shoots, mustard plant and taro. Domesticated animals that were also eaten included chickens, Mandarin ducks, geese, cows, sheep, pigs, camels and dogs (various types were bred specifically for food, while most were used as pets). Turtles and fish were taken from streams and lakes. Commonly hunted game, such as owl, pheasant, magpie, sika deer, and Chinese bamboo partridge were consumed. Seasonings included sugar, honey, salt and soy sauce. Beer and wine were regularly consumed.
What type of decoration was often seen in tombs?
572f7b06b2c2fd1400568173
hollow clay tiles
552
False
What could be used to prevent a door from closing in a place of burial?
572f7b06b2c2fd1400568174
hollow clay tiles
552
False
What was the afterlife of the immortals called during this period?
572f7b06b2c2fd1400568175
xian
347
False
What is the commonly held notion regarding the dual nature of the soul called?
572f7b06b2c2fd1400568176
two-part soul
252
False
What function did the holes in the top and bottom of the tomb tiles enable them to do?
572f7b06b2c2fd1400568177
allowing it to pivot
711
False
Families throughout Han China made ritual sacrifices of animals and food to deities, spirits, and ancestors at temples and shrines, in the belief that these items could be utilized by those in the spiritual realm. It was thought that each person had a two-part soul: the spirit-soul (hun 魂) which journeyed to the afterlife paradise of immortals (xian), and the body-soul (po 魄) which remained in its grave or tomb on earth and was only reunited with the spirit-soul through a ritual ceremony. These tombs were commonly adorned with uniquely decorated hollow clay tiles that function also as a doorjamb to the tomb. Otherwise known as tomb tiles, these artifacts feature holes in the top and bottom of the tile allowing it to pivot. Similar tiles have been found in the Chengdu area of Sichuan province in south-central China.
Who made sacrifices to the main deities in this period?
572f7c53947a6a140053c9aa
the emperor
37
False
What type of geological event was feared could be caused by the morals of the emperor?
572f7c53947a6a140053c9ab
earthquakes
518
False
What is another term that could be used to label the main deities?
572f7c53947a6a140053c9ac
the Five Powers
146
False
How many realms were commonly thought of as being linked by a natural cycle?
572f7c53947a6a140053c9ad
three realms
238
False
What type of swarm was a concern because of the emperor's ethics?
572f7c53947a6a140053c9ae
locusts
574
False
In addition to his many other roles, the emperor acted as the highest priest in the land who made sacrifices to Heaven, the main deities known as the Five Powers, and the spirits (shen 神) of mountains and rivers. It was believed that the three realms of Heaven, Earth, and Mankind were linked by natural cycles of yin and yang and the five phases. If the emperor did not behave according to proper ritual, ethics, and morals, he could disrupt the fine balance of these cosmological cycles and cause calamities such as earthquakes, floods, droughts, epidemics, and swarms of locusts.
What was the purpose of breathing exercises to a Daoist?
572f7de2947a6a140053c9c8
achieve immortality
198
False
What type of religion did the society of the Way of the Five Pecks of Rice practice?
572f7de2947a6a140053c9c9
Daoists
316
False
What could the prophet Laozi offer in return for the confession of sins?
572f7de2947a6a140053c9ca
salvation and good health
524
False
What literal work were followers of Laozi expected to chant?
572f7de2947a6a140053c9cb
Daodejing
687
False
What could be earned if an individual had reached the lands of the Queen Mother of the West?
572f7de2947a6a140053c9cc
immortality
21
False
It was believed that immortality could be achieved if one reached the lands of the Queen Mother of the West or Mount Penglai. Han-era Daoists assembled into small groups of hermits who attempted to achieve immortality through breathing exercises, sexual techniques and use of medical elixirs. By the 2nd century AD, Daoists formed large hierarchical religious societies such as the Way of the Five Pecks of Rice. Its followers believed that the sage-philosopher Laozi (fl. 6th century BC) was a holy prophet who would offer salvation and good health if his devout followers would confess their sins, ban the worship of unclean gods who accepted meat sacrifices and chant sections of the Daodejing.
During was era did Buddhism first appear in the region?
572f809da23a5019007fc6a3
Eastern Han
40
False
When did Emperor Ming of Han's reign end?
572f809da23a5019007fc6a4
75 AD
152
False
What philosophical practice did Liu Ying believe in?
572f809da23a5019007fc6a5
Buddhism
0
False
What is believed to be the first Buddhist temple in this area?
572f809da23a5019007fc6a6
the White Horse Temple
326
False
During which century were important Buddhist notions translated to Chinese?
572f809da23a5019007fc6a7
2nd century AD
449
False
Buddhism first entered China during the Eastern Han and was first mentioned in 65 AD. Liu Ying (d. 71 AD), a half-brother to Emperor Ming of Han (r. 57–75 AD), was one of its earliest Chinese adherents, although Chinese Buddhism at this point was heavily associated with Huang-Lao Daoism. China's first known Buddhist temple, the White Horse Temple, was erected during Ming's reign. Important Buddhist canons were translated into Chinese during the 2nd century AD, including the Sutra of Forty-two Chapters, Perfection of Wisdom, Shurangama Sutra, and Pratyutpanna Sutra.
Who was responsible for nominations of local administrators in the government?
572f827604bcaa1900d76a41
the emperor
19
False
Was the emperor able to reject an opinion that was made by the court conference?
572f827604bcaa1900d76a42
sometimes did reject the majority opinion
689
False
Who often placed pressure on the emperor in regards to local policies?
572f827604bcaa1900d76a43
court conference
392
False
What did the emperor risk if he did not accept the decisions of the court conference?
572f827604bcaa1900d76a44
alienating his high ministers
635
False
Who was considered to be the supreme judge in Han government?
572f827604bcaa1900d76a45
the emperor
19
False
In Han government, the emperor was the supreme judge and lawgiver, the commander-in-chief of the armed forces and sole designator of official nominees appointed to the top posts in central and local administrations; those who earned a 600-dan salary-rank or higher. Theoretically, there were no limits to his power. However, state organs with competing interests and institutions such as the court conference (tingyi 廷議)—where ministers were convened to reach majority consensus on an issue—pressured the emperor to accept the advice of his ministers on policy decisions. If the emperor rejected a court conference decision, he risked alienating his high ministers. Nevertheless, emperors sometimes did reject the majority opinion reached at court conferences.
Which individual had a duty to maintain the imperial stables?
572f8446947a6a140053ca04
The Minister Coachman
557
False
Which Minister had the responsibility to interpret laws in this period?
572f8446947a6a140053ca05
The Minister of Justice
768
False
Which Minister could an honored guest of the court be expected to see?
572f8446947a6a140053ca06
The Minister Herald
880
False
Who provided  the emperor with sustenance and medical aid?
572f8446947a6a140053ca07
The Minister Steward
1353
False
Which individual held the responsibility to oversee the interactions of the empire's nobles with the court?
572f8446947a6a140053ca08
The Minister of the Imperial Clan
1024
False
Ranked below the Three Councillors of State were the Nine Ministers, who each headed a specialized ministry. The Minister of Ceremonies was the chief official in charge of religious rites, rituals, prayers and the maintenance of ancestral temples and altars. The Minister of the Household was in charge of the emperor's security within the palace grounds, external imperial parks and wherever the emperor made an outing by chariot. The Minister of the Guards was responsible for securing and patrolling the walls, towers, and gates of the imperial palaces. The Minister Coachman was responsible for the maintenance of imperial stables, horses, carriages and coach-houses for the emperor and his palace attendants, as well as the supply of horses for the armed forces. The Minister of Justice was the chief official in charge of upholding, administering, and interpreting the law. The Minister Herald was the chief official in charge of receiving honored guests at the imperial court, such as nobles and foreign ambassadors. The Minister of the Imperial Clan oversaw the imperial court's interactions with the empire's nobility and extended imperial family, such as granting fiefs and titles. The Minister of Finance was the treasurer for the official bureaucracy and the armed forces who handled tax revenues and set standards for units of measurement. The Minister Steward served the emperor exclusively, providing him with entertainment and amusements, proper food and clothing, medicine and physical care, valuables and equipment.
What individual was typically in charge of a commandery?
572f87eba23a5019007fc6f9
an Administrator
65
False
Around how many households was a Prefect responsible for?
572f87eba23a5019007fc6fa
10,000
365
False
What individual was responsible for law and maintaining order in the county?
572f87eba23a5019007fc6fb
A Magistrate
507
False
What Emperor initially created the quota system?
572f87eba23a5019007fc6fc
Emperor Wu
317
False
Who was in charge of counties that had fewer than 10,000 people in them?
572f87eba23a5019007fc6fd
Chiefs
453
False
A commandery consisted of a group of counties, and was headed by an Administrator. He was the top civil and military leader of the commandery and handled defense, lawsuits, seasonal instructions to farmers and recommendations of nominees for office sent annually to the capital in a quota system first established by Emperor Wu. The head of a large county of about 10,000 households was called a Prefect, while the heads of smaller counties were called Chiefs, and both could be referred to as Magistrates. A Magistrate maintained law and order in his county, registered the populace for taxation, mobilized commoners for annual corvée duties, repaired schools and supervised public works.
What gender was expected to be conscripted into the military?
572f8918947a6a140053ca3a
male
43
False
At what age could a male common expect to be conscripted into the military?
572f8918947a6a140053ca3b
twenty-three
62
False
How long could a conscripted soldier expect to be in training for?
572f8918947a6a140053ca3c
one year
256
False
What was the lowest age a soldier could be conscripted after the end of Emperor Zhao's tenure?
572f8918947a6a140053ca3d
twenty
176
False
Which Minister could a conscripted soldier expect to serve under during his year of service?
572f8918947a6a140053ca3e
Minister of the Guards
529
False
At the beginning of the Han dynasty, every male commoner aged twenty-three was liable for conscription into the military. The minimum age for the military draft was reduced to twenty after Emperor Zhao's (r. 87–74 BC) reign. Conscripted soldiers underwent one year of training and one year of service as non-professional soldiers. The year of training was served in one of three branches of the armed forces: infantry, cavalry or navy. The year of active service was served either on the frontier, in a king's court or under the Minister of the Guards in the capital. A small professional (paid) standing army was stationed near the capital.
How could conscription into military service be avoided?
572f8f36a23a5019007fc753
one paid a commutable tax
57
False
What army was based near the capital?
572f8f36a23a5019007fc754
Northern Army
277
False
What army was considered to be the volunteer army?
572f8f36a23a5019007fc755
Southern Army
184
False
How many regiments were in the Northern Army?
572f8f36a23a5019007fc756
five
365
False
Around how many soldiers were in each regiment of the Northern Army?
572f8f36a23a5019007fc757
several thousand soldiers
398
False
During the Eastern Han, conscription could be avoided if one paid a commutable tax. The Eastern Han court favored the recruitment of a volunteer army. The volunteer army comprised the Southern Army (Nanjun 南軍), while the standing army stationed in and near the capital was the Northern Army (Beijun 北軍). Led by Colonels (Xiaowei 校尉), the Northern Army consisted of five regiments, each composed of several thousand soldiers. When central authority collapsed after 189 AD, wealthy landowners, members of the aristocracy/nobility, and regional military-governors relied upon their retainers to act as their own personal troops (buqu 部曲).
Where did the Han dynasty receive their coin type from?
572f90a604bcaa1900d76a83
the Qin
55
False
Who closed the government mint?
572f90a604bcaa1900d76a84
Emperor Gaozu
93
False
In what year was the decision reversing the closure of the government mint implemented?
572f90a604bcaa1900d76a85
186 BC
202
False
Who released new lighter coinage that caused significant amounts of inflation because of it's weight?
572f90a604bcaa1900d76a86
Lü Zhi
306
False
In what year were private manufactures allowed to create coins that were exactly 2.6g in mass?
572f90a604bcaa1900d76a87
175 BC
447
False
The Han dynasty inherited the ban liang coin type from the Qin. In the beginning of the Han, Emperor Gaozu closed the government mint in favor of private minting of coins. This decision was reversed in 186 BC by his widow Grand Empress Dowager Lü Zhi (d. 180 BC), who abolished private minting. In 182 BC, Lü Zhi issued a bronze coin that was much lighter in weight than previous coins. This caused widespread inflation that was not reduced until 175 BC when Emperor Wen allowed private minters to manufacture coins that were precisely 2.6 g (0.09 oz) in weight.
Who introduced new coinage in the year of 120 BC?
572f91f3a23a5019007fc77b
Emperor Wu
141
False
What coin replaced the ban liangs after only a year of distribution?
572f91f3a23a5019007fc77c
wuzhu
252
False
During what dynasty did the wuzhu stop being the standard coin?
572f91f3a23a5019007fc77d
Tang dynasty
344
False
What was the mass of the wuzhu coin?
572f91f3a23a5019007fc77e
3.2 g
278
False
What interrupted the use of the wuzhu coin during the reign of Wang Mang?
572f91f3a23a5019007fc77f
several new currencies
406
False
In 144 BC Emperor Jing abolished private minting in favor of central-government and commandery-level minting; he also introduced a new coin. Emperor Wu introduced another in 120 BC, but a year later he abandoned the ban liangs entirely in favor of the wuzhu (五銖) coin, weighing 3.2 g (0.11 oz). The wuzhu became China's standard coin until the Tang dynasty (618–907 AD). Its use was interrupted briefly by several new currencies introduced during Wang Mang's regime until it was reinstated in 40 AD by Emperor Guangwu.
Which group made up the bulk of the Han tax base?
572f9394a23a5019007fc78f
landowner-cultivators
10
False
Who made reductions in the taxes that landowner-cultivators were forced to pay?
572f9394a23a5019007fc790
The Han government
239
False
During what period did a large number of peasants incur debt?
572f9394a23a5019007fc791
Eastern Han
127
False
What type of housing did the Han government provide to landless indebted peasants?
572f9394a23a5019007fc792
temporary
472
False
What did the Han government do to help out smaller landowners?
572f9394a23a5019007fc793
enacted reforms
258
False
The small landowner-cultivators formed the majority of the Han tax base; this revenue was threatened during the latter half of Eastern Han when many peasants fell into debt and were forced to work as farming tenants for wealthy landlords. The Han government enacted reforms in order to keep small landowner-cultivators out of debt and on their own farms. These reforms included reducing taxes, temporary remissions of taxes, granting loans and providing landless peasants temporary lodging and work in agricultural colonies until they could recover from their debts.
In which year did Emperor Wu monopolize several industries?
572f95d004bcaa1900d76aab
117 BC
452
False
Who allowed industrialists to become officials in the newly state sanctioned industries?
572f95d004bcaa1900d76aac
Emperor Wu
396
False
During what period did the governmental monopolies become privatized once again?
572f95d004bcaa1900d76aad
Eastern Han
558
False
What did Emperor Wu do to negate the influence of private entrepreneurs?
572f95d004bcaa1900d76aae
nationalized the salt and iron industries
407
False
During what era could a wealthy iron industrialist be able to rival the treasury in funds?
572f95d004bcaa1900d76aaf
Western Han
13
False
In the early Western Han, a wealthy salt or iron industrialist, whether a semi-autonomous king or wealthy merchant, could boast funds that rivaled the imperial treasury and amass a peasant workforce of over a thousand. This kept many peasants away from their farms and denied the government a significant portion of its land tax revenue. To eliminate the influence of such private entrepreneurs, Emperor Wu nationalized the salt and iron industries in 117 BC and allowed many of the former industrialists to become officials administering the monopolies. By Eastern Han times, the central government monopolies were repealed in favor of production by commandery and county administrations, as well as private businessmen.
What industry was monopolized by the government in 98 BC?
572f96f0947a6a140053ca98
Liquor
0
False
In what year did the liquor industry once again become privatized?
572f96f0947a6a140053ca99
81 BC
126
False
What was mostly missing during the Eastern Han?
572f96f0947a6a140053ca9a
price control regulations
577
False
What did Emperor Wu sell that offended the merchants?
572f96f0947a6a140053ca9b
grain
312
False
What office did Emperor Ming create?
572f96f0947a6a140053ca9c
Office for Price Adjustment and Stabilization
481
False
Liquor was another profitable private industry nationalized by the central government in 98 BC. However, this was repealed in 81 BC and a property tax rate of two coins for every 0.2 L (0.05 gallons) was levied for those who traded it privately. By 110 BC Emperor Wu also interfered with the profitable trade in grain when he eliminated speculation by selling government-stored grain at a lower price than demanded by merchants. Apart from Emperor Ming's creation of a short-lived Office for Price Adjustment and Stabilization, which was abolished in 68 AD, central-government price control regulations were largely absent during the Eastern Han.
What type of furnace was functional in China in 722 BC?
572f9a2ba23a5019007fc7c9
blast
23
False
What element was used in the production of wrought iron?
572f9a2ba23a5019007fc7ca
oxygen
378
False
What type of iron could pig iron be converted into?
572f9a2ba23a5019007fc7cb
wrought
476
False
What type of process was used to convert various metals into steel?
572f9a2ba23a5019007fc7cc
fining
507
False
What can iron ore be converted into in a blast furnace?
572f9a2ba23a5019007fc7cd
pig iron
70
False
Evidence suggests that blast furnaces, that convert raw iron ore into pig iron, which can be remelted in a cupola furnace to produce cast iron by means of a cold blast and hot blast, were operational in China by the late Spring and Autumn period (722–481 BC). The bloomery was nonexistent in ancient China; however, the Han-era Chinese produced wrought iron by injecting excess oxygen into a furnace and causing decarburization. Cast iron and pig iron could be converted into wrought iron and steel using a fining process.
What was an invention that allowed farmers to place their crops into rows?
572f9b7a04bcaa1900d76ad7
The three-legged iron seed drill
235
False
How many animals were neccessary to pull an iron plow?
572f9b7a04bcaa1900d76ad8
two oxen
494
False
How many acres of land could succesfully be sowed with a seed box in a day?
572f9b7a04bcaa1900d76ad9
11.3 acres
634
False
What methodology allowed the production of new agricultural tools?
572f9b7a04bcaa1900d76ada
improved iron-smelting techniques
154
False
How many persons were necessary to operate an iron plow?
572f9b7a04bcaa1900d76adb
one man
471
False
The Han-era Chinese used bronze and iron to make a range of weapons, culinary tools, carpenters' tools and domestic wares. A significant product of these improved iron-smelting techniques was the manufacture of new agricultural tools. The three-legged iron seed drill, invented by the 2nd century BC, enabled farmers to carefully plant crops in rows instead of casting seeds out by hand. The heavy moldboard iron plow, also invented during the Han dynasty, required only one man to control it, two oxen to pull it. It had three plowshares, a seed box for the drills, a tool which turned down the soil and could sow roughly 45,730 m2 (11.3 acres) of land in a single day.
What helped insure the safety of crops from wind?
572f9cc104bcaa1900d76ae1
the alternating fields system
82
False
What was the name of the system that for growing crops that did not require plows?
572f9cc104bcaa1900d76ae2
pit field system
399
False
What were paddy fields used for primarily to grow in smaller areas?
572f9cc104bcaa1900d76ae3
rice
654
False
What system did the government recommend the usage of?
572f9cc104bcaa1900d76ae4
alternating fields system
86
False
What was the name of the Grain Intendant?
572f9cc104bcaa1900d76ae5
Zhao Guo
60
False
To protect crops from wind and drought, the Grain Intendant Zhao Guo (趙過) created the alternating fields system (daitianfa 代田法) during Emperor Wu's reign. This system switched the positions of furrows and ridges between growing seasons. Once experiments with this system yielded successful results, the government officially sponsored it and encouraged peasants to use it. Han farmers also used the pit field system (aotian 凹田) for growing crops, which involved heavily fertilized pits that did not require plows or oxen and could be placed on sloping terrain. In southern and small parts of central Han-era China, paddy fields were chiefly used to grow rice, while farmers along the Huai River used transplantation methods of rice production.
What building material was used primarily during the Han dynasty?
572f9e8204bcaa1900d76af5
Timber
0
False
What dynasty can the oldest wooden buildings in China be dated to?
572f9e8204bcaa1900d76af6
Tang
352
False
What is considered to be the last year of the Tang dynasty?
572f9e8204bcaa1900d76af7
907 AD
370
False
What type of object is the only evidence of Han's wooden constructions?
572f9e8204bcaa1900d76af8
ceramic roof tiles
277
False
What was the primary component of a palace hall during the Han dynasty?
572f9e8204bcaa1900d76af9
Timber
0
False
Timber was the chief building material during the Han dynasty; it was used to build palace halls, multi-story residential towers and halls and single-story houses. Because wood decays rapidly, the only remaining evidence of Han wooden architecture is a collection of scattered ceramic roof tiles. The oldest surviving wooden halls in China date to the Tang dynasty (618–907 AD). Architectural historian Robert L. Thorp points out the scarcity of Han-era archaeological remains, and claims that often unreliable Han-era literary and artistic sources are used by historians for clues about lost Han architecture.
How many stone pillar-gates survive from the Han era?
572f9ff2a23a5019007fc7dd
twenty-nine
585
False
What architectural feature contained an imitation of a balustrade?
572f9ff2a23a5019007fc7de
stone pillar-gates
565
False
What building material were tomb chambers constructed with?
572f9ff2a23a5019007fc7df
brick
149
False
What were the walls that encompassed the city of Luoyang comprised of?
572f9ff2a23a5019007fc7e0
rammed-earth
382
False
What type of system used ceramic water pipes?
572f9ff2a23a5019007fc7e1
drainage systems
486
False
Though Han wooden structures decayed, some Han-dynasty ruins made of brick, stone, and rammed earth remain intact. This includes stone pillar-gates, brick tomb chambers, rammed-earth city walls, rammed-earth and brick beacon towers, rammed-earth sections of the Great Wall, rammed-earth platforms where elevated halls once stood, and two rammed-earth castles in Gansu. The ruins of rammed-earth walls that once surrounded the capitals Chang'an and Luoyang still stand, along with their drainage systems of brick arches, ditches, and ceramic water pipes. Monumental stone pillar-gates, twenty-nine of which survive from the Han period, formed entrances of walled enclosures at shrine and tomb sites. These pillars feature artistic imitations of wooden and ceramic building components such as roof tiles, eaves, and balustrades.
What type of scholars have provided proof that mechanical engineering was prominent during the Han period?
572fa326b2c2fd1400568269
Confucian
123
False
Which philosopher described the invention of a belt drive?
572fa326b2c2fd140056826a
Yang Xiong
510
False
Which engineer was responsible for first inventing the zoetrope lamp?
572fa326b2c2fd140056826b
Ding Huan
688
False
What can be used as a support structure in incense burners?
572fa326b2c2fd140056826c
gimbals
893
False
What type of invention was used to provide air conditioning for the palace buildings?
572fa326b2c2fd140056826d
rotary fan
816
False
Evidence of Han-era mechanical engineering comes largely from the choice observational writings of sometimes disinterested Confucian scholars. Professional artisan-engineers (jiang 匠) did not leave behind detailed records of their work. Han scholars, who often had little or no expertise in mechanical engineering, sometimes provided insufficient information on the various technologies they described. Nevertheless, some Han literary sources provide crucial information. For example, in 15 BC the philosopher Yang Xiong described the invention of the belt drive for a quilling machine, which was of great importance to early textile manufacturing. The inventions of the artisan-engineer Ding Huan (丁緩) are mentioned in the Miscellaneous Notes on the Western Capital. Around 180 AD, Ding created a manually operated rotary fan used for air conditioning within palace buildings. Ding also used gimbals as pivotal supports for one of his incense burners and invented the world's first known zoetrope lamp.
During which period was the odometer cart first created?
572fa4aeb2c2fd1400568287
Han
341
False
What item was used to make very small measurements during this era?
572fa4aeb2c2fd1400568288
sliding metal calipers
713
False
What has allowed us to discover long lost inventions of the Han era?
572fa4aeb2c2fd1400568289
artwork
51
False
What was used to separate parts of grain?
572fa4aeb2c2fd140056828a
winnowing machines
254
False
What use did the odometer cart provide?
572fa4aeb2c2fd140056828b
measured journey lengths
346
False
Modern archaeology has led to the discovery of Han artwork portraying inventions which were otherwise absent in Han literary sources. As observed in Han miniature tomb models, but not in literary sources, the crank handle was used to operate the fans of winnowing machines that separated grain from chaff. The odometer cart, invented during Han, measured journey lengths, using mechanical figures banging drums and gongs to indicate each distance traveled. This invention is depicted in Han artwork by the 2nd century AD, yet detailed written descriptions were not offered until the 3rd century AD. Modern archaeologists have also unearthed specimens of devices used during the Han dynasty, for example a pair of sliding metal calipers used by craftsmen for making minute measurements. These calipers contain inscriptions of the exact day and year they were manufactured. These tools are not mentioned in any Han literary sources.
What was used to power chain pumps to raise water to irrigation ditches?
572fa64db2c2fd14005682ab
Waterwheels
462
False
What commandery was the creator of the waterwheel-powered reciprocator from?
572fa64db2c2fd14005682ac
Nanyang
319
False
Who was the author of the essay entitled Balance Discourse?
572fa64db2c2fd14005682ad
Wang Chong
621
False
During what century is it likely that the watermill made an appearance in China?
572fa64db2c2fd14005682ae
about the 5th century
292
False
During what era did the waterwheel first appear in recordings?
572fa64db2c2fd14005682af
Han
54
False
The waterwheel appeared in Chinese records during the Han. As mentioned by Huan Tan in about 20 AD, they were used to turn gears that lifted iron trip hammers, and were used in pounding, threshing and polishing grain. However, there is no sufficient evidence for the watermill in China until about the 5th century. The Nanyang Commandery Administrator Du Shi (d. 38 AD) created a waterwheel-powered reciprocator that worked the bellows for the smelting of iron. Waterwheels were also used to power chain pumps that lifted water to raised irrigation ditches. The chain pump was first mentioned in China by the philosopher Wang Chong in his 1st-century-AD Balanced Discourse.
Who was responsible for the invention of the seismometer?
572fa7c3b2c2fd14005682c9
Zhang Heng
224
False
In what year was the seismometer first invented?
572fa7c3b2c2fd14005682ca
132 AD
570
False
What invention included an inverted pendulum?
572fa7c3b2c2fd14005682cb
seismometer
529
False
How many dragons were represented in Zhang Heng's invention of the seismometer?
572fa7c3b2c2fd14005682cc
eight
818
False
What was exchanged from mouth to mouth in the usage of the seismometer?
572fa7c3b2c2fd14005682cd
metal ball
795
False
The armillary sphere, a three-dimensional representation of the movements in the celestial sphere, was invented in Han China by the 1st century BC. Using a water clock, waterwheel and a series of gears, the Court Astronomer Zhang Heng (78–139 AD) was able to mechanically rotate his metal-ringed armillary sphere. To address the problem of slowed timekeeping in the pressure head of the inflow water clock, Zhang was the first in China to install an additional tank between the reservoir and inflow vessel. Zhang also invented a seismometer (Houfeng didong yi 候风地动仪) in 132 AD to detect the exact cardinal or ordinal direction of earthquakes from hundreds of kilometers away. This employed an inverted pendulum that, when disturbed by ground tremors, would trigger a set of gears that dropped a metal ball from one of eight dragon mouths (representing all eight directions) into a metal toad's mouth.
What type of treatise is the Book on Numbers and Computation considered to be?
572fa95c947a6a140053cb30
mathematical
10
False
How many mathematical treatises have still managed to survive to this day?
572fa95c947a6a140053cb31
Three
0
False
What achievement of the Han era can be used to help solve linear equations?
572fa95c947a6a140053cb32
Gaussian elimination
476
False
During what era was the Nine Chapters on the Mathematical Art from?
572fa95c947a6a140053cb33
Han
6
False
What can be used to help find the roots of equations?
572fa95c947a6a140053cb34
continued fractions
528
False
Three Han mathematical treatises still exist. These are the Book on Numbers and Computation, the Arithmetical Classic of the Gnomon and the Circular Paths of Heaven and the Nine Chapters on the Mathematical Art. Han-era mathematical achievements include solving problems with right-angle triangles, square roots, cube roots, and matrix methods, finding more accurate approximations for pi, providing mathematical proof of the Pythagorean theorem, use of the decimal fraction, Gaussian elimination to solve linear equations, and continued fractions to find the roots of equations.
In what treatise did negative numbers first appear?
572faa5304bcaa1900d76b95
the Nine Chapters on the Mathematical Art
134
False
How were negative numbers first described during the Han period?
572faa5304bcaa1900d76b96
as black counting rods
176
False
In what century were negative numbers more commonly accepted in Europe?
572faa5304bcaa1900d76b97
16th century AD
516
False
What Indian manuscript also contains the useage of negative numbers?
572faa5304bcaa1900d76b98
Bakhshali
295
False
What were positive numbers portayed as in the treatise of the Nine Chapters on the Mathematical Art?
572faa5304bcaa1900d76b99
red counting rods
243
False
One of the Han's greatest mathematical advancements was the world's first use of negative numbers. Negative numbers first appeared in the Nine Chapters on the Mathematical Art as black counting rods, where positive numbers were represented by red counting rods. Negative numbers are used in the Bakhshali manuscript of ancient India, but its exact date of compilation is unknown. Negative numbers were also used by the Greek mathematician Diophantus in about 275 AD, but were not widely accepted in Europe until the 16th century AD.
In what era was a geocentric view of the universe adopted?
572fac1d04bcaa1900d76bbd
Han
0
False
Who was able to describe the process of evaporation?
572fac1d04bcaa1900d76bbe
Wang Chong
536
False
What object was assumed to block sunlight during a lunar eclipse?
572fac1d04bcaa1900d76bbf
the Earth
348
False
What did astronomers believe the shape of the Sun to be during this era?
572fac1d04bcaa1900d76bc0
spherical
195
False
What did astronomers during this area believe to be the center of the universe?
572fac1d04bcaa1900d76bc1
the earth
120
False
Han-era astronomers adopted a geocentric model of the universe, theorizing that it was shaped like a sphere surrounding the earth in the center. They assumed that the Sun, Moon, and planets were spherical and not disc-shaped. They also thought that the illumination of the Moon and planets was caused by sunlight, that lunar eclipses occurred when the Earth obstructed sunlight falling onto the Moon, and that a solar eclipse occurred when the Moon obstructed sunlight from reaching the Earth. Although others disagreed with his model, Wang Chong accurately described the water cycle of the evaporation of water into clouds.
What textile were some of the early Han maps made from?
572fad40b2c2fd1400568321
silk
179
False
In what type of building were silken maps found?
572fad40b2c2fd1400568322
tomb
248
False
Which individual created the very first raised relief map?
572fad40b2c2fd1400568323
Ma Yuan
266
False
What food stable was the first raised relief map created from?
572fad40b2c2fd1400568324
rice
329
False
Evidence found in Chinese literature, and archaeological evidence, show that cartography existed in China before the Han. Some of the earliest Han maps discovered were ink-penned silk maps found amongst the Mawangdui Silk Texts in a 2nd-century-BC tomb. The general Ma Yuan created the world's first known raised-relief map from rice in the 1st century AD. This date could be revised if the tomb of Qin Shi Huang is excavated and the account in the Records of the Grand Historian concerning a model map of the empire is proven to be true.
What type of boat design was first invented during the Han era?
572fb04d947a6a140053cb78
The junk design
112
False
In what areas were Han ships able to be sailed in part due to the stern rudder?
572fb04d947a6a140053cb79
high seas
560
False
What ship design contained a flat-bottomed hull?
572fb04d947a6a140053cb7a
Junks
167
False
What type of transport was the steering oar most likely to be used during?
572fb04d947a6a140053cb7b
riverine transport
511
False
The Han-era Chinese sailed in a variety of ships differing from those of previous eras, such as the tower ship. The junk design was developed and realized during Han. Junks featured a square-ended bow and stern, a flat-bottomed hull or carvel-shaped hull with no keel or sternpost, and solid transverse bulkheads in the place of structural ribs found in Western vessels. Moreover, Han ships were the first in the world to be steered using a rudder at the stern, in contrast to the simpler steering oar used for riverine transport, allowing them to sail on the high seas.
Who believed that the same forces that controlled the universe also controlled the human body?
572fb186a23a5019007fc8b5
Han-era medical physicians
0
False
What was used during surgery to relieve patients of their pain?
572fb186a23a5019007fc8b6
anesthesia
1128
False
What profession was the individual Zhang Zhongjing involved in?
572fb186a23a5019007fc8b7
physician
675
False
How did Zhang Zhongjing attempt to cure various illnesses?
572fb186a23a5019007fc8b8
prescribed regulated diets
720
False
When did Hua Tuo die?
572fb186a23a5019007fc8b9
208 AD
1111
False
Han-era medical physicians believed that the human body was subject to the same forces of nature that governed the greater universe, namely the cosmological cycles of yin and yang and the five phases. Each organ of the body was associated with a particular phase. Illness was viewed as a sign that qi or "vital energy" channels leading to a certain organ had been disrupted. Thus, Han-era physicians prescribed medicine that was believed to counteract this imbalance. For example, since the wood phase was believed to promote the fire phase, medicinal ingredients associated with the wood phase could be used to heal an organ associated with the fire phase. To this end, the physician Zhang Zhongjing (c. 150–c. 219 AD) prescribed regulated diets rich in certain foods that were thought to cure specific illnesses. These are now known to be nutrition disorders caused by the lack of certain vitamins consumed in one's diet. Besides dieting, Han physicians also prescribed moxibustion, acupuncture, and calisthenics as methods of maintaining one's health. When surgery was performed by the physician Hua Tuo (d. 208 AD), he used anesthesia to numb his patients' pain and prescribed a rubbing ointment that allegedly sped the process of healing surgical wounds.
Quran
Which angel is believed to have communicated the Quran to Muhammad?
572e9b93cb0c0d14000f134a
Gabriel
85
False
On which date did Muhammad begin receiving the Quran?
572e9b93cb0c0d14000f134b
22 December 609 CE
167
False
In which year CE did Muhammad die?
572e9b93cb0c0d14000f134c
632
227
False
What is the Arabic variant of Gabriel?
572e9b93cb0c0d14000f134d
Jibril
94
False
How many times is the word "Quran" used in the Quran?
572e9b93cb0c0d14000f134e
70
504
False
Gabriel
85
Which devil is believed to have communicated the Quran to Muhammad?
5ad211f9d7d075001a4282e6
True
22 December 609 CE
167
On which date did Muhammad stop receiving the Quran?
5ad211f9d7d075001a4282e7
True
632
227
In which year CE did Muhammad get sick?
5ad211f9d7d075001a4282e8
True
Jibril
94
What is the Jewish variant of Gabriel?
5ad211f9d7d075001a4282e9
True
70
504
How many times isn't the word "Quran" used in the Quran?
5ad211f9d7d075001a4282ea
True
Muslims believe the Quran was verbally revealed by God to Muhammad through the angel Gabriel (Jibril), gradually over a period of approximately 23 years, beginning on 22 December 609 CE, when Muhammad was 40, and concluding in 632, the year of his death. Muslims regard the Quran as the most important miracle of Muhammad, a proof of his prophethood, and the culmination of a series of divine messages that started with the messages revealed to Adam and ended with Muhammad. The word "Quran" occurs some 70 times in the text of the Quran, although different names and words are also said to be references to the Quran.
Who first recorded Muhammad revelations?
572e9c8cc246551400ce43e6
companions of Muhammad
48
False
Who first standardized the earliest versions of the Quran?
572e9c8cc246551400ce43e7
Caliph Uthman
308
False
By what name is the first standardized version of the Quran known?
572e9c8cc246551400ce43e8
Uthman's codex
367
False
companions of Muhammad
48
Who last recorded Muhammad revelations?
5ad21242d7d075001a4282f8
True
Caliph Uthman
308
Who last standardized the earliest versions of the Quran?
5ad21242d7d075001a4282f9
True
Caliph Uthman
308
Who first standardized the latest versions of the Quran?
5ad21242d7d075001a4282fa
True
Uthman's codex
367
By what name is the last standardized version of the Quran known?
5ad21242d7d075001a4282fb
True
Uthman's codex
367
By what name is the first standardized version of the Quran unknown?
5ad21242d7d075001a4282fc
True
According to the traditional narrative, several companions of Muhammad served as scribes and were responsible for writing down the revelations. Shortly after Muhammad's death, the Quran was compiled by his companions who wrote down and memorized parts of it. These codices had differences that motivated the Caliph Uthman to establish a standard version now known as Uthman's codex, which is generally considered the archetype of the Quran known today. There are, however, variant readings, with mostly minor differences in meaning.
In which language is the Quran spoken during prayer?
572e9e07cb0c0d14000f1380
Arabic
535
False
The Quran is used in the interpretation of which form of law?
572e9e07cb0c0d14000f1381
sharia
478
False
What accounts are form the basis of much of the accounts in the Quran?
572e9e07cb0c0d14000f1382
Biblical scriptures
69
False
Which religious text calls itself a book of guidance?
572e9e07cb0c0d14000f1383
Quran
222
False
Arabic
535
In which language is the Quran unspoken during prayer?
5ad2129bd7d075001a42830a
True
sharia
478
The Quran isn't used in the interpretation of which form of law?
5ad2129bd7d075001a42830b
True
sharia
478
The Quran is unused in the interpretation of which form of law?
5ad2129bd7d075001a42830c
True
Biblical scriptures
69
What accounts are form the basis of none of the accounts in the Quran?
5ad2129bd7d075001a42830d
True
Quran
222
Which scientific text calls itself a book of guidance?
5ad2129bd7d075001a42830e
True
The Quran assumes familiarity with major narratives recounted in the Biblical scriptures. It summarizes some, dwells at length on others and, in some cases, presents alternative accounts and interpretations of events. The Quran describes itself as a book of guidance. It sometimes offers detailed accounts of specific historical events, and it often emphasizes the moral significance of an event over its narrative sequence. The Quran is used along with the hadith to interpret sharia law. During prayers, the Quran is recited only in Arabic.
From which Arabic verb might "Quran" be derived?
572e9f6ddfa6aa1500f8d20d
qaraʼa
135
False
What Syriac word might be related to "Quran"?
572e9f6ddfa6aa1500f8d20e
qeryānā
217
False
The words from which the name "Quran" might be described are related to which act?
572e9f6ddfa6aa1500f8d20f
reciting
546
False
Which word do most Muslim scholars point to as the origin of the Quran's name?
572e9f6ddfa6aa1500f8d210
qaraʼa
418
False
qaraʼa
135
From which Arabic noun might "Quran" be derived?
5ad21351d7d075001a428328
True
qaraʼa
135
From which Arabic verb might not "Quran" be derived?
5ad21351d7d075001a428329
True
qeryānā
217
What Syriac word might be unrelated to "Quran"?
5ad21351d7d075001a42832a
True
reciting
546
The words from which the name "Quran" might be described are unrelated to which act?
5ad21351d7d075001a42832b
True
qaraʼa
418
Which word don't any Muslim scholars point to as the origin of the Quran's name?
5ad21351d7d075001a42832c
True
The word qurʼān appears about 70 times in the Quran itself, assuming various meanings. It is a verbal noun (maṣdar) of the Arabic verb qaraʼa (قرأ), meaning "he read" or "he recited". The Syriac equivalent is (ܩܪܝܢܐ) qeryānā, which refers to "scripture reading" or "lesson". While some Western scholars consider the word to be derived from the Syriac, the majority of Muslim authorities hold the origin of the word is qaraʼa itself. Regardless, it had become an Arabic term by Muhammad's lifetime. An important meaning of the word is the "act of reciting", as reflected in an early Quranic passage: "It is for Us to collect it and to recite it (qurʼānahu)."
Which term used in the Quran to indicate itself means "book"?
572ea0bdc246551400ce442c
kitāb
217
False
Which term does the Quran use to refer to itself as "scripture"?
572ea0bdc246551400ce442d
sūrah
248
False
What meaning does the Quran take when it calls itself hikmah?
572ea0bdc246551400ce442e
wisdom
627
False
What name does the Quran use for itself that means "revelation"?
572ea0bdc246551400ce442f
waḥy
440
False
kitāb
217
Which term isn't used in the Quran to indicate itself means "book"?
5ad213b8d7d075001a428350
True
sūrah
248
Which term doesn't the Quran use to refer to itself as "scripture"?
5ad213b8d7d075001a428351
True
sūrah
248
Which term does the Quran use to refer to itself as "puncture"?
5ad213b8d7d075001a428352
True
wisdom
627
What meaning doesn't the Quran take when it calls itself hikmah?
5ad213b8d7d075001a428353
True
waḥy
440
What name doesn't the Quran use for itself that means "revelation"?
5ad213b8d7d075001a428354
True
The term also has closely related synonyms that are employed throughout the Quran. Each synonym possesses its own distinct meaning, but its use may converge with that of qurʼān in certain contexts. Such terms include kitāb (book); āyah (sign); and sūrah (scripture). The latter two terms also denote units of revelation. In the large majority of contexts, usually with a definite article (al-), the word is referred to as the "revelation" (waḥy), that which has been "sent down" (tanzīl) at intervals. Other related words are: dhikr (remembrance), used to refer to the Quran in the sense of a reminder and warning, and ḥikmah (wisdom), sometimes referring to the revelation or part of it.
Which term meaning "the mother book" does the Quran apply to itself?
572ea250c246551400ce443e
umm al-kitāb
80
False
What term is used in the Quran to indicate previous revelations?
572ea250c246551400ce443f
mus'haf
596
False
What is the Arabic term commonly used to refer to works like the Torah or the Gospels?
572ea250c246551400ce4440
al-kitāb
304
False
What is an English translation of huda?
572ea250c246551400ce4441
the guide
96
False
umm al-kitāb
80
Which term meaning "the mother book" doesn't the Quran apply to itself?
5ad21446d7d075001a428380
True
al-kitāb
304
What term is unused in the Quran to indicate previous revelations?
5ad21446d7d075001a428381
True
al-kitāb
304
What term is used in the Quran to indicate future revelations?
5ad21446d7d075001a428382
True
the guide
96
What isn't an English translation of huda?
5ad21446d7d075001a428383
True
The Quran describes itself as "the discernment" (al-furqān), "the mother book" (umm al-kitāb), "the guide" (huda), "the wisdom" (hikmah), "the remembrance" (dhikr) and "the revelation" (tanzīl; something sent down, signifying the descent of an object from a higher place to lower place). Another term is al-kitāb (The Book), though it is also used in the Arabic language for other scriptures, such as the Torah and the Gospels. The adjective of "Quran" has multiple transliterations including "quranic", "koranic", and "qur'anic", or capitalised as "Qur'anic", "Koranic", and "Quranic". The term mus'haf ('written work') is often used to refer to particular Quranic manuscripts but is also used in the Quran to identify earlier revealed books. Other transliterations of "Quran" include "al-Coran", "Coran", "Kuran", and "al-Qurʼan".
In which mountain cave did Mohammad experience his first revelation?
572ea39dcb0c0d14000f13be
Cave of Hira
77
False
Where did Mohammad move to found a separate Muslim community?
572ea39dcb0c0d14000f13bf
Medina
276
False
Prisoners from which battle are thought to have helped Muslims learn to write?
572ea39dcb0c0d14000f13c0
Badr
522
False
Vegetation from which tree served as an early recording medium for the Quran?
572ea39dcb0c0d14000f13c1
date palm
772
False
When Muhammad dies, what had not yet been compiled as a book?
572ea39dcb0c0d14000f13c2
Quran
1033
False
Cave of Hira
77
In which mountain cave did Mohammad experience his last revelation?
5ad214c7d7d075001a42839c
True
Medina
276
Where didn't Mohammad move to find a separate Muslim community?
5ad214c7d7d075001a42839d
True
Badr
522
Prisoners from which battle are thought to have helped Muslims learn to sing?
5ad214c7d7d075001a42839e
True
date palm
772
Vegetation from which tree served as an later recording medium for the Quran?
5ad214c7d7d075001a42839f
True
Quran
1033
When Muhammad dies, what had been compiled as a book?
5ad214c7d7d075001a4283a0
True
Islamic tradition relates that Muhammad received his first revelation in the Cave of Hira during one of his isolated retreats to the mountains. Thereafter, he received revelations over a period of 23 years. According to hadith and Muslim history, after Muhammad immigrated to Medina and formed an independent Muslim community, he ordered many of his companions to recite the Quran and to learn and teach the laws, which were revealed daily. It is related that some of the Quraysh who were taken prisoners at the battle of Badr regained their freedom after they had taught some of the Muslims the simple writing of the time. Thus a group of Muslims gradually became literate. As it was initially spoken, the Quran was recorded on tablets, bones, and the wide, flat ends of date palm fronds. Most suras were in use amongst early Muslims since they are mentioned in numerous sayings by both Sunni and Shia sources, relating Muhammad's use of the Quran as a call to Islam, the making of prayer and the manner of recitation. However, the Quran did not exist in book form at the time of Muhammad's death in 632. There is agreement among scholars that Muhammad himself did not write down the revelation.
What is the most common interpretation of the word "ummi" that the Quran applies to Muhammad?
572ea5f5dfa6aa1500f8d249
illiterate
79
False
Because Mohammed was "ummi," what would he not have known about that lent credence to his prophethood?
572ea5f5dfa6aa1500f8d24a
earlier sacred texts
757
False
What term does the Quran use to describe Mohammad's lack of exposure to scripture?
572ea5f5dfa6aa1500f8d24b
ummi
33
False
What skills would have made others more suspicious that Mohammad was not getting his revelations in the way he said?
572ea5f5dfa6aa1500f8d24c
writing and reading
544
False
illiterate
79
What is the most uncommon interpretation of the word "ummi" that the Quran applies to Muhammad?
5ad215d8d7d075001a4283b0
True
illiterate
79
What is the most common misinterpretation of the word "ummi" that the Quran applies to Muhammad?
5ad215d8d7d075001a4283b1
True
earlier sacred texts
757
Because Mohammed was "ummi," what would he have known about that lent credence to his prophethood?
5ad215d8d7d075001a4283b2
True
ummi
705
What term doesn't the Quran use to describe Mohammad's lack of exposure to scripture?
5ad215d8d7d075001a4283b3
True
writing and reading
544
What skills would have made others more suspicious that Mohammad was getting his revelations in the way he said?
5ad215d8d7d075001a4283b4
True
The Quran describes Muhammad as "ummi", which is traditionally interpreted as "illiterate," but the meaning is rather more complex. Medieval commentators such as Al-Tabari maintained that the term induced two meanings: first, the inability to read or write in general; second, the inexperience or ignorance of the previous books or scriptures (but they gave priority to the first meaning). Muhammad's illiteracy was taken as a sign of the genuineness of his prophethood. For example, according to Fakhr al-Din al-Razi, if Muhammad had mastered writing and reading he possibly would have been suspected of having studied the books of the ancestors. Some scholars such as Watt prefer the second meaning of "ummi" - they take it to indicate unfamiliarity with earlier sacred texts.
Which caliph decided to preserve the Quran as a single book after some of Muhammad's companions were killed in battle?
572ea78ec246551400ce4476
Abu Bakr
195
False
Which scribe led the production of the first written Quran?
572ea78ec246551400ce4477
Zayd ibn Thabit
286
False
In which year did Abu Bakr die?
572ea78ec246551400ce4478
634
208
False
Who took possession of the first Quran manuscript after Abu Bakr?
572ea78ec246551400ce4479
Hafsa bint Umar
834
False
Which caliph ordered the Quran manuscript copied and standardized?
572ea78ec246551400ce447a
Uthman ibn Affan
935
False
Abu Bakr
195
Which caliph decided to preserve the Quran as a single book after some of Muhammad's companions were saved in battle?
5ad216f6d7d075001a4283cc
True
Zayd ibn Thabit
286
Which scribe led the production of the last written Quran?
5ad216f6d7d075001a4283cd
True
d. 634
205
In which year did Abu Bakr survive?
5ad216f6d7d075001a4283ce
True
Hafsa bint Umar
834
Who took possession of the last Quran manuscript after Abu Bakr?
5ad216f6d7d075001a4283cf
True
Uthman ibn Affan
935
Which caliph ordered the Quran manuscript copied and destroyed?
5ad216f6d7d075001a4283d0
True
Based on earlier transmitted reports, in the year 632, after the demise of Muhammad a number of his companions who knew the Quran by heart were killed in a battle by Musaylimah, the first caliph Abu Bakr (d. 634) decided to collect the book in one volume so that it could be preserved. Zayd ibn Thabit (d. 655) was the person to collect the Quran since "he used to write the Divine Inspiration for Allah's Apostle". Thus, a group of scribes, most importantly Zayd, collected the verses and produced a hand-written manuscript of the complete book. The manuscript according to Zayd remained with Abu Bakr until he died. Zayd's reaction to the task and the difficulties in collecting the Quranic material from parchments, palm-leaf stalks, thin stones and from men who knew it by heart is recorded in earlier narratives. After Abu Bakr, Hafsa bint Umar, Muhammad's widow, was entrusted with the manuscript. In about 650, the third Caliph Uthman ibn Affan (d. 656) began noticing slight differences in pronunciation of the Quran as Islam expanded beyond the Arabian Peninsula into Persia, the Levant, and North Africa. In order to preserve the sanctity of the text, he ordered a committee headed by Zayd to use Abu Bakr's copy and prepare a standard copy of the Quran. Thus, within 20 years of Muhammad's death, the Quran was committed to written form. That text became the model from which copies were made and promulgated throughout the urban centers of the Muslim world, and other versions are believed to have been destroyed. The present form of the Quran text is accepted by Muslim scholars to be the original version compiled by Abu Bakr.
What is the term for recycled parchments used in ancient manuscripts?
572ea993cb0c0d14000f1416
palimpsests
197
False
Before which year were the Sana'a manuscripts produced?
572ea993cb0c0d14000f1417
671 AD
711
False
In which city was evidence of pre-Uthmanic Quranic writing discovered in 1972?
572ea993cb0c0d14000f1418
Sana'a, Yemen
36
False
What version of the Quran was the scriptio superior of the Sana'a manuscripts?
572ea993cb0c0d14000f1419
Uthmanic
603
False
palimpsests
197
What is the term for recycled parchments unused in ancient manuscripts?
5ad2183dd7d075001a4283f4
True
palimpsests
197
What is the term for recycled parchments used in modern manuscripts?
5ad2183dd7d075001a4283f5
True
671 AD
711
After which year were the Sana'a manuscripts produced?
5ad2183dd7d075001a4283f6
True
Sana'a, Yemen
36
In which city was evidence of pre-Uthmanic Quranic writing discovered in 1927?
5ad2183dd7d075001a4283f7
True
Uthmanic
603
What version of the Quran was the scriptio inferior of the Sana'a manuscripts?
5ad2183dd7d075001a4283f8
True
In 1972, in a mosque in the city of Sana'a, Yemen, manuscripts were discovered that were later proved to be the most ancient Quranic text known to exist at the time. The Sana'a manuscripts contain palimpsests, a manuscript page from which the text has been washed off to make the parchment reusable again—a practice which was common in ancient times due to scarcity of writing material. However, the faint washed-off underlying text (scriptio inferior) is still barely visible and believed to be "pre-Uthmanic" Quranic content, while the text written on top (scriptio superior) is believed to belong to Uthmanic time. Studies using radiocarbon dating indicate that the parchments are dated to the period before 671 AD with a 99 percent probability.
How many years old were the Quran fragments discovered in Birmingham in 2015?
572eaae1dfa6aa1500f8d287
1370
57
False
What script were the Birmingham Quran fragments written in?
572eaae1dfa6aa1500f8d288
Hijazi
344
False
Which modern script descends from the script on the Birmingham Quran fragments?
572eaae1dfa6aa1500f8d289
Arabic
384
False
What feature of the Birmingham Quran fragments' text make some doubt that it is older than other known versions of the Quran?
572eaae1dfa6aa1500f8d28a
dots and chapter separators
676
False
1370
57
How many years old were the Quran fragments discovered in Birmingham in 1915?
5ad218cfd7d075001a428406
True
1370
57
How many years old were the Quran fragments lost in Birmingham in 2015?
5ad218cfd7d075001a428407
True
Hijazi
344
What script weren't the Birmingham Quran fragments written in?
5ad218cfd7d075001a428408
True
Arabic
384
Which unmodern script descends from the script on the Birmingham Quran fragments?
5ad218cfd7d075001a428409
True
dots and chapter separators
676
What feature of the Birmingham Quran fragments' text make some doubt that it is newer than other known versions of the Quran?
5ad218cfd7d075001a42840a
True
In 2015, fragments of a very early Quran, dating back to 1370 years ago, were discovered in the library of the University of Birmingham, England. According to the tests carried out by Oxford University Radiocarbon Accelerator Unit, "with a probability of more than 95%, the parchment was from between 568 and 645". The manuscript is written in Hijazi script, an early form of written Arabic. This is possibly the earliest extant exemplar of the Quran, but as the tests allow a range of possible dates, it cannot be said with certainty which of the existing versions is the oldest. Saudi scholar Saud al-Sarhan has expressed doubt over the age of the fragments as they contain dots and chapter separators that are believed to have originated later.
Which section of the Quran inspires some Muslims to ritually wash themselves before touching their copy?
572eabfd03f9891900756903
56:79
200
False
What is done with the ashes of burned copies of the Quran?
572eabfd03f9891900756904
buried or scattered over water
558
False
In what state are copies of the Quran sometime wrapped in cloth and buried?
572eabfd03f9891900756905
Worn-out
400
False
Which are the safest places to inter an older copy of the Quran?
572eabfd03f9891900756906
a mosque or a Muslim cemetery
503
False
56:79
200
Which section of the Quran inspires all Muslims to ritually wash themselves before touching their copy?
5ad219b0d7d075001a428410
True
56:79
200
Which section of the Quran inspires some Jews to ritually wash themselves before touching their copy?
5ad219b0d7d075001a428411
True
buried or scattered over water
558
What isn't done with the ashes of burned copies of the Quran?
5ad219b0d7d075001a428412
True
Worn-out
400
In what state are copies of the Quran never wrapped in cloth and buried?
5ad219b0d7d075001a428413
True
a mosque or a Muslim cemetery
503
Which are the safest places to inter an newer copy of the Quran?
5ad219b0d7d075001a428414
True
Respect for the written text of the Quran is an important element of religious faith by many Muslims, and the Quran is treated with reverence. Based on tradition and a literal interpretation of Quran 56:79 ("none shall touch but those who are clean"), some Muslims believe that they must perform a ritual cleansing with water before touching a copy of the Quran, although this view is not universal. Worn-out copies of the Quran are wrapped in a cloth and stored indefinitely in a safe place, buried in a mosque or a Muslim cemetery, or burned and the ashes buried or scattered over water.
What term indicates that the contents of the Quran cannot be reproduced in speech?
572ead72cb0c0d14000f144a
I'jaz
32
False
Until what day is the Quran believed to be in effect?
572ead72cb0c0d14000f144b
Day of Resurrection
198
False
In which year did the Medieval Muslim scholar al-Baqillani die?
572ead72cb0c0d14000f144c
1013
921
False
Which Muslim scholar studied the Quran's inimitability until his death in 1078?
572ead72cb0c0d14000f144d
al-Jurjani
879
False
I'jaz
32
What term indicates that the contents of the Quran should be reproduced in speech?
5ad21b4ad7d075001a42842c
True
until the Day of Resurrection
188
Until what day is the Quran believed to not be in effect?
5ad21b4ad7d075001a42842d
True
1013
921
In which year did the Medieval Muslim scholar al-Baqillani survive illness?
5ad21b4ad7d075001a42842e
True
al-Jurjani
879
Which Muslim scholar studied the Quran's inimitability until his death in 1087?
5ad21b4ad7d075001a42842f
True
al-Jurjani
879
Which Jewish scholar studied the Quran's inimitability until his death in 1078?
5ad21b4ad7d075001a428430
True
Inimitability of the Quran (or "I'jaz") is the belief that no human speech can match the Quran in its content and form. The Quran is considered an inimitable miracle by Muslims, effective until the Day of Resurrection—and, thereby, the central proof granted to Muhammad in authentication of his prophetic status. The concept of inimitability originates in the Quran where in five different verses opponents are challenged to produce something like the Quran: "If men and sprites banded together to produce the like of this Quran they would never produce its like not though they backed one another." So the suggestion is that if there are doubts concerning the divine authorship of the Quran, come forward and create something like it. From the ninth century, numerous works appeared which studied the Quran and examined its style and content. Medieval Muslim scholars including al-Jurjani (d. 1078) and al-Baqillani (d. 1013) have written treatises on the subject, discussed its various aspects, and used linguistic approaches to study the Quran. Others argue that the Quran contains noble ideas, has inner meanings, maintained its freshness through the ages and has caused great transformations in individual level and in the history. Some scholars state that the Quran contains scientific information that agrees with modern science. The doctrine of miraculousness of the Quran is further emphasized by Muhammad's illiteracy since the unlettered prophet could not have been suspected of composing the Quran.
What is a chapter of the Quran called?
572eae8bcb0c0d14000f1462
sura
71
False
How many suras are in the Quran?
572eae8bcb0c0d14000f1463
114
22
False
What two city-related categories divide the Quran's suras?
572eae8bcb0c0d14000f1464
Meccan or Medinan
101
False
What determines the order in which suras are placed in the Quran?
572eae8bcb0c0d14000f1465
size
485
False
Which Arabic phrase opens almost all suras?
572eae8bcb0c0d14000f1466
Bismillah
608
False
sura
71
What is a chapter of the Quran not called?
5ad21bd8d7d075001a428440
True
114
22
How many suras aren't in the Quran?
5ad21bd8d7d075001a428441
True
Meccan or Medinan
101
What three city-related categories divide the Quran's suras?
5ad21bd8d7d075001a428442
True
Meccan or Medinan
101
What two city-related categories multiply the Quran's suras?
5ad21bd8d7d075001a428443
True
decreasing size
474
What determines the order in which suras aren't placed in the Quran?
5ad21bd8d7d075001a428444
True
The Quran consists of 114 chapters of varying lengths, each known as a sura. Suras are classified as Meccan or Medinan, depending on whether the verses were revealed before or after the migration of Muhammad to the city of Medina. However, a sura classified as Medinan may contain Meccan verses in it and vice versa. Sura titles are derived from a name or quality discussed in the text, or from the first letters or words of the sura. Suras are arranged roughly in order of decreasing size. The sura arrangement is thus not connected to the sequence of revelation. Each sura except the ninth starts with the Bismillah (بسم الله الرحمن الرحيم), an Arabic phrase meaning "In the name of God". There are, however, still 114 occurrences of the Bismillah in the Quran, due to its presence in Quran 27:30 as the opening of Solomon's letter to the Queen of Sheba.
What division of the Quran is used for a month-long reading?
572eafd1c246551400ce4504
juz'
180
False
How many ajzā cover the entire Quran?
572eafd1c246551400ce4505
30
177
False
How many ahzab are in a juz'?
572eafd1c246551400ce4506
two
393
False
What is the term for a subdivision of a hizb?
572eafd1c246551400ce4507
rubʻ al-ahzab
453
False
What division is used for a week-long recital of the Quran?
572eafd1c246551400ce4508
manzil
532
False
juz'
180
What division of the Quran is unused for a month-long reading?
5ad21c6ad7d075001a428452
True
30
177
How many ajzā cover the partial Quran?
5ad21c6ad7d075001a428453
True
two
393
How many ahzab aren't in a juz'?
5ad21c6ad7d075001a428454
True
rubʻ al-ahzab
453
What isn't the term for a subdivision of a hizb?
5ad21c6ad7d075001a428455
True
manzil
532
What division is unused for a week-long recital of the Quran?
5ad21c6ad7d075001a428456
True
In addition to and independent of the division into suras, there are various ways of dividing the Quran into parts of approximately equal length for convenience in reading. The 30 juz' (plural ajzāʼ) can be used to read through the entire Quran in a month. Some of these parts are known by names—which are the first few words by which the juzʼ starts. A juz' is sometimes further divided into two ḥizb (plural aḥzāb), and each hizb subdivided into four rubʻ al-ahzab. The Quran is also divided into seven approximately equal parts, manzil (plural manāzil), for it to be recited in a week.
Quranic verses concerning which phenomena are thought by Muslims to authenticate its contents?
572eb10103f9891900756969
natural
421
False
What types of events are related in the Quran in support of its moral teachings?
572eb10103f989190075696a
historical
336
False
Historical narratives from whose time period are unique to the Quran among holy books?
572eb10103f989190075696b
Muhammad's
196
False
natural
421
Quranic verses concerning which phenomena are thought by Muslims to unauthenticate its contents?
5ad21d6ed7d075001a428464
True
natural
421
Quranic verses concerning which phenomena are thought by Jews to authenticate its contents?
5ad21d6ed7d075001a428465
True
historical
336
What types of events aren't related in the Quran in support of its moral teachings?
5ad21d6ed7d075001a428466
True
historical
336
What types of events are unrelated in the Quran in support of its moral teachings?
5ad21d6ed7d075001a428467
True
Muhammad's
196
Historical narratives from whose time period aren't unique to the Quran among holy books?
5ad21d6ed7d075001a428468
True
The Quranic content is concerned with basic Islamic beliefs including the existence of God and the resurrection. Narratives of the early prophets, ethical and legal subjects, historical events of Muhammad's time, charity and prayer also appear in the Quran. The Quranic verses contain general exhortations regarding right and wrong and historical events are related to outline general moral lessons. Verses pertaining to natural phenomena have been interpreted by Muslims as an indication of the authenticity of the Quranic message.
What fraction of the Quran deals with eschatology?
572eb23f03f989190075696f
one-third
172
False
What general topic is eschatology about?
572eb23f03f9891900756970
the final fate of the universe
46
False
Which natural disaster features in Sura 22?
572eb23f03f9891900756971
earthquake
803
False
What topic do suras 44, 56, 75, and 101 have in common?
572eb23f03f9891900756972
afterlife
601
False
one-third
172
What fraction of the Quran deals with emmatology?
5ad21e56d7d075001a428476
True
the final fate of the universe
46
What general topic isn't eschatology about?
5ad21e56d7d075001a428477
True
earthquake
803
Which unnatural disaster features in Sura 22?
5ad21e56d7d075001a428478
True
earthquake
803
Which natural disaster features in Sura 32?
5ad21e56d7d075001a428479
True
afterlife
601
What topic do suras 44, 65, 75, and 101 have in common?
5ad21e56d7d075001a42847a
True
The doctrine of the last day and eschatology (the final fate of the universe) may be reckoned as the second great doctrine of the Quran. It is estimated that approximately one-third of the Quran is eschatological, dealing with the afterlife in the next world and with the day of judgment at the end of time. There is a reference to the afterlife on most pages of the Quran and belief in the afterlife is often referred to in conjunction with belief in God as in the common expression: "Believe in God and the last day". A number of suras such as 44, 56, 75, 78, 81 and 101 are directly related to the afterlife and its preparations. Some suras indicate the closeness of the event and warn people to be prepared for the imminent day. For instance, the first verses of Sura 22, which deal with the mighty earthquake and the situations of people on that day, represent this style of divine address: "O People! Be respectful to your Lord. The earthquake of the Hour is a mighty thing."
In what form does the Quran say God sends his messages to people?
572eb39bc246551400ce4532
signs and revelations
82
False
Who intermediates between God and prophets?
572eb39bc246551400ce4533
Angels
465
False
Which part of the Quran describes God's use of intermediaries between himself and his prophets?
572eb39bc246551400ce4534
42:51
562
False
How does the Quran describe the similarity of messages God has delivered throughout human history?
572eb39bc246551400ce4535
identical
213
False
Which humans are the messengers of God?
572eb39bc246551400ce4536
Prophets
105
False
signs and revelations
82
In what form doesn't the Quran say God sends his messages to people?
5ad21eedd7d075001a428490
True
Angels
465
Who intermediates between Jesus and prophets?
5ad21eedd7d075001a428491
True
42:51
562
Which part of the Quran describes Mohammed's use of intermediaries between himself and his prophets?
5ad21eedd7d075001a428492
True
identical
213
How does the Quran describe the differences of messages God has delivered throughout human history?
5ad21eedd7d075001a428493
True
Prophets
105
Which nonhumans are the messengers of God?
5ad21eedd7d075001a428494
True
According to the Quran, God communicated with man and made his will known through signs and revelations. Prophets, or 'Messengers of God', received revelations and delivered them to humanity. The message has been identical and for all humankind. "Nothing is said to you that was not said to the messengers before you, that your lord has at his Command forgiveness as well as a most Grievous Penalty." The revelation does not come directly from God to the prophets. Angels acting as God's messengers deliver the divine revelation to them. This comes out in Quran 42:51, in which it is stated: "It is not for any mortal that God should speak to them, except by revelation, or from behind a veil, or by sending a messenger to reveal by his permission whatsoever He will."
What mental state is the foundation of morality as described by the Quran?
572eb523dfa6aa1500f8d2dd
Belief
0
False
What finance-related acts are forbidden by the Quran?
572eb523dfa6aa1500f8d2de
usury and gambling
790
False
What is the name of the formal prayer proscribed by the Quran?
572eb523dfa6aa1500f8d2df
salat
1000
False
Which month is designated for fasting in the Quran?
572eb523dfa6aa1500f8d2e0
Ramadan
1035
False
The Quran uses a term that also means purification for what social act?
572eb523dfa6aa1500f8d2e1
charity
1148
False
Belief
0
What physical state is the foundation of morality as described by the Quran?
5ad22270d7d075001a4284f0
True
usury and gambling
790
What finance-unrelated acts are forbidden by the Quran?
5ad22270d7d075001a4284f1
True
salat
1000
What is the name of the informal prayer proscribed by the Quran?
5ad22270d7d075001a4284f2
True
Ramadan
1035
Which month is no longer designated for fasting in the Quran?
5ad22270d7d075001a4284f3
True
charity
433
The Quran uses a term that also means impurification for what social act?
5ad22270d7d075001a4284f4
True
Belief is a fundamental aspect of morality in the Quran, and scholars have tried to determine the semantic contents of "belief" and "believer" in the Quran. The ethico-legal concepts and exhortations dealing with righteous conduct are linked to a profound awareness of God, thereby emphasizing the importance of faith, accountability, and the belief in each human's ultimate encounter with God. People are invited to perform acts of charity, especially for the needy. Believers who "spend of their wealth by night and by day, in secret and in public" are promised that they "shall have their reward with their Lord; on them shall be no fear, nor shall they grieve". It also affirms family life by legislating on matters of marriage, divorce, and inheritance. A number of practices, such as usury and gambling, are prohibited. The Quran is one of the fundamental sources of Islamic law (sharia). Some formal religious practices receive significant attention in the Quran including the formal prayers (salat) and fasting in the month of Ramadan. As for the manner in which the prayer is to be conducted, the Quran refers to prostration. The term for charity, zakat, literally means purification. Charity, according to the Quran, is a means of self-purification.
Which astrophysicist has written about the ways the Quran encourages scientific thinking?
572eb6a103f9891900756985
Nidhal Guessoum
19
False
Verse 2:111 of the Quran supports which aspect of scientific thought and practice?
572eb6a103f9891900756986
proof
473
False
Whose scholarship on the concept of proof in the Quran does Guessoum cite?
572eb6a103f9891900756987
Ghaleb Hasan
585
False
Which philosopher believed the Quran had a rational and empirical basis like science?
572eb6a103f9891900756988
Muhammad Iqbal
1245
False
Nidhal Guessoum
19
Which astrobiologist has written about the ways the Quran encourages scientific thinking?
5ad22304d7d075001a428504
True
Nidhal Guessoum
19
Which astrophysicist has written about the ways the Quran discourages scientific thinking?
5ad22304d7d075001a428505
True
proof
620
Verse 2:111 of the Quran supports which aspect of nonscientific thought and practice?
5ad22304d7d075001a428506
True
Ghaleb Hasan
585
Whose scholarship on the concept of proof in the Quran doesn't Guessoum cite?
5ad22304d7d075001a428507
True
Muhammad Iqbal
1245
Which philosopher believed the Quran had a irrational and empirical basis like science?
5ad22304d7d075001a428508
True
The astrophysicist Nidhal Guessoum while being highly critical of pseudo-scientific claims made about the Quran, has highlighted the encouragement for sciences that the Quran provides by developing "the concept of knowledge.". He writes: "The Qur'an draws attention to the danger of conjecturing without evidence (And follow not that of which you have not the (certain) knowledge of... 17:36) and in several different verses asks Muslims to require proofs (Say: Bring your proof if you are truthful 2:111), both in matters of theological belief and in natural science." Guessoum cites Ghaleb Hasan on the definition of "proof" according the Quran being "clear and strong... convincing evidence or argument." Also, such a proof cannot rely on an argument from authority, citing verse 5:104. Lastly, both assertions and rejections require a proof, according to verse 4:174. Ismail al-Faruqi and Taha Jabir Alalwani are of the view that any reawakening of the Muslim civilization must start with the Quran; however, the biggest obstacle on this route is the "centuries old heritage of tafseer (exegesis) and other classical disciplines" which inhibit a "universal, epidemiological and systematic conception" of the Quran's message. The philosopher Muhammad Iqbal, considered the Quran's methodology and epistemology to be empirical and rational.
Nature and its phenomena are mentioned in approximately how many of the Quran's verses?
572eb83fcb0c0d14000f14b8
750
46
False
Al-Battani is an example of a Muslim scientist who drew inspiration from which text?
572eb83fcb0c0d14000f14b9
Quran
296
False
Who recommended science as a way to achieve the goals of the Quran?
572eb83fcb0c0d14000f14ba
Mohammad Hashim Kamali
303
False
Who argued that the Quran inspired the first practitioners of the scientific method we use today?
572eb83fcb0c0d14000f14bb
Ziauddin Sardar
505
False
Al-Biruni is a example of a scientists of which religion?
572eb83fcb0c0d14000f14bc
Muslim
850
False
750
46
Nature and its phenomena aren't mentioned in approximately how many of the Quran's verses?
5ad228d0d7d075001a42856a
True
Quran
296
Al-Battani is an example of a Muslim scientist who rejected inspiration from which text?
5ad228d0d7d075001a42856b
True
Mohammad Hashim Kamali
303
Who rejected science as a way to achieve the goals of the Quran?
5ad228d0d7d075001a42856c
True
Ziauddin Sardar
505
Who argued that the Quran inspired the last practitioners of the scientific method we use today?
5ad228d0d7d075001a42856d
True
Muslim
850
Al-Biruni is a example of a artist of which religion?
5ad228d0d7d075001a42856e
True
It's generally accepted that there are around 750 verses in the Quran dealing with natural phenomenon. In many of these verses the study of nature is "encouraged and highly recommended," and historical Islamic scientists like Al-Biruni and Al-Battani derived their inspiration from verses of the Quran. Mohammad Hashim Kamali has the stated that "scientific observation, experimental knowledge and rationality" are the primary tools with which humanity can achieve the goals laid out for it in the Quran. Ziauddin Sardar built a case for Muslims having developed the foundations of modern science, by highlighting the repeated calls of the Quran to observe and reflect upon natural phenomenon. "The 'scientific method,' as it is understood today, was first developed by Muslim scientists" like Ibn al-Haytham and Al-Biruni, along with numerous other Muslim scientists.
Which physicist quoted the Quran in his address after receiving the Nobel Prize?
572eb9a703f98919007569a5
Abdus Salam
14
False
Which verse from the Quran did Abdus Salam quote at his Nobel banquet?
572eb9a703f98919007569a6
67:3-4
105
False
Which two Muslim scientists did Salam celebrate as inventors of empirical methods?
572eb9a703f98919007569a7
Ibn al-Haytham and Al-Biruni
640
False
Salam suggests physics and science be kept separate from which topics which are more suited to religion?
572eb9a703f98919007569a8
metaphysics
871
False
Abdus Salam
14
Which biologist quoted the Quran in his address after receiving the Nobel Prize?
5ad2292fd7d075001a42857c
True
67:3-4
105
Which verse from the Quran didn't Abdus Salam quote at his Nobel banquet?
5ad2292fd7d075001a42857d
True
Ibn al-Haytham and Al-Biruni
640
Which two Muslim scientists did Salam celebrate as inventors of unempirical methods?
5ad2292fd7d075001a42857e
True
metaphysics
871
Salam suggests physics and science be kept together from which topics which are more suited to religion?
5ad2292fd7d075001a42857f
True
metaphysics
871
Salam suggests physics and science be kept separate from which topics which are less suited to religion?
5ad2292fd7d075001a428580
True
The physicist Abdus Salam, in his Nobel Prize banquet address, quoted a well known verse from the Quran (67:3-4) and then stated: "This in effect is the faith of all physicists: the deeper we seek, the more is our wonder excited, the more is the dazzlement of our gaze". One of Salam's core beliefs was that there is no contradiction between Islam and the discoveries that science allows humanity to make about nature and the universe. Salam also held the opinion that the Quran and the Islamic spirit of study and rational reflection was the source of extraordinary civilizational development. Salam highlights, in particular, the work of Ibn al-Haytham and Al-Biruni as the pioneers of empiricism who introduced the experimental approach, breaking way from Aristotle's influence, and thus giving birth to modern science. Salam was also careful to differentiate between metaphysics and physics, and advised against empirically probing certain matters on which "physics is silent and will remain so," such as the doctrine of "creation from nothing" which in Salam's view is outside the limits of science and thus "gives way" to religious considerations.
What description of the writing in the Quran highlights its poetic aspect?
572ebb02cb0c0d14000f14de
rhymed prose
49
False
Which suras in the Quran are particularly rhythmic?
572ebb02cb0c0d14000f14df
earlier Meccan suras
344
False
What often changes along with the rhyming of Quranic verses?
572ebb02cb0c0d14000f14e0
subject of discussion
683
False
Which parts of the Quran are the least poetic?
572ebb02cb0c0d14000f14e1
Later
706
False
rhymed prose
49
What description of the reading in the Quran highlights its poetic aspect?
5ad2298ed7d075001a428590
True
rhymed prose
49
What description of the writing in the Quran highlights its unpoetic aspect?
5ad2298ed7d075001a428591
True
earlier Meccan suras
344
Which suras in the Quran are particularly non-rhythmic?
5ad2298ed7d075001a428592
True
subject of discussion
683
What often stays the same  along with the rhyming of Quranic verses?
5ad2298ed7d075001a428593
True
Later
706
Which parts of the Quran are the most poetic?
5ad2298ed7d075001a428594
True
The language of the Quran has been described as "rhymed prose" as it partakes of both poetry and prose; however, this description runs the risk of failing to convey the rhythmic quality of Quranic language, which is more poetic in some parts and more prose-like in others. Rhyme, while found throughout the Quran, is conspicuous in many of the earlier Meccan suras, in which relatively short verses throw the rhyming words into prominence. The effectiveness of such a form is evident for instance in Sura 81, and there can be no doubt that these passages impressed the conscience of the hearers. Frequently a change of rhyme from one set of verses to another signals a change in the subject of discussion. Later sections also preserve this form but the style is more expository.
What is lacking in the arrangement of the Quranic text?
572ebc97dfa6aa1500f8d333
continuity
180
False
To which critic does Michael Sells refer on the subject of the Quran's disorganization?
572ebc97dfa6aa1500f8d334
Norman O. Brown
305
False
How does Sells describe the Quran's repetitiveness?
572ebc97dfa6aa1500f8d335
a literary device
774
False
Which scholar believes the Quran's fragmentary writing style is an effective literary device for a prophetic message?
572ebc97dfa6aa1500f8d336
Michael Sells
260
False
continuity
180
What is prominent in the arrangement of the Quranic text?
5ad229fcd7d075001a4285ac
True
Norman O. Brown
305
To which critic does Michael Sells not refer on the subject of the Quran's disorganization?
5ad229fcd7d075001a4285ad
True
Norman O. Brown
305
To which critic does Michael Sells refer on the subject of the Quran's organization?
5ad229fcd7d075001a4285ae
True
a literary device
500
How does Sells describe the Quran's non-repetitiveness?
5ad229fcd7d075001a4285af
True
Michael Sells
260
Which scholar believes the Quran's fragmentary writing style isn't an effective literary device for a prophetic message?
5ad229fcd7d075001a4285b0
True
The Quranic text seems to have no beginning, middle, or end, its nonlinear structure being akin to a web or net. The textual arrangement is sometimes considered to exhibit lack of continuity, absence of any chronological or thematic order and repetitiousness. Michael Sells, citing the work of the critic Norman O. Brown, acknowledges Brown's observation that the seeming disorganization of Quranic literary expression – its scattered or fragmented mode of composition in Sells's phrase – is in fact a literary device capable of delivering profound effects as if the intensity of the prophetic message were shattering the vehicle of human language in which it was being communicated. Sells also addresses the much-discussed repetitiveness of the Quran, seeing this, too, as a literary device.
What metatextual character does Stefan Wild focus on in his discussion of the Quran?
572ebe14cb0c0d14000f14ee
Self-referentiality
240
False
What quality does the Quran claim in the different ways in which it refers to itself?
572ebe14cb0c0d14000f14ef
Divinity
455
False
Which term that the Quran uses for itself means "news"?
572ebe14cb0c0d14000f14f0
naba'
373
False
The Quran is more self-referential in which of its suras?
572ebe14cb0c0d14000f14f1
early Meccan suras
839
False
self-referential
10
What metatextual character doesn't Stefan Wild focus on in his discussion of the Quran?
5ad22a5cd7d075001a4285c6
True
Divinity
455
What quality doesn't the Quran claim in the different ways in which it refers to itself?
5ad22a5cd7d075001a4285c7
True
Divinity
455
What quality does the Quran claim in the same ways in which it refers to itself?
5ad22a5cd7d075001a4285c8
True
naba'
373
Which term that the Quran uses for itself doesn't mean "news"?
5ad22a5cd7d075001a4285c9
True
early Meccan suras
839
The Quran is less self-referential in which of its suras?
5ad22a5cd7d075001a4285ca
True
A text is self-referential when it speaks about itself and makes reference to itself. According to Stefan Wild, the Quran demonstrates this metatextuality by explaining, classifying, interpreting and justifying the words to be transmitted. Self-referentiality is evident in those passages where the Quran refers to itself as revelation (tanzil), remembrance (dhikr), news (naba'), criterion (furqan) in a self-designating manner (explicitly asserting its Divinity, "And this is a blessed Remembrance that We have sent down; so are you now denying it?"), or in the frequent appearance of the "Say" tags, when Muhammad is commanded to speak (e.g., "Say: 'God's guidance is the true guidance' ", "Say: 'Would you then dispute with us concerning God?' "). According to Wild the Quran is highly self-referential. The feature is more evident in early Meccan suras.
What is the name of the activity of explaining what Quranic verses mean?
572ebf63c246551400ce45ee
Tafsir
0
False
Who was the first practitioner of Tafsir?
572ebf63c246551400ce45ef
Muhammad
86
False
What is the Arabic term for Quranic exegesis?
572ebf63c246551400ce45f0
Tafsir
0
False
Who were 'Ali ibn Abi Talib and 'Abdullah ibn 'Abbas?
572ebf63c246551400ce45f1
Companions of Muhammad
208
False
Tafsir
0
What is the name of the activity of not explaining what Quranic verses mean?
5ad22d0ed7d075001a428628
True
Muhammad
86
Who was the last practitioner of Tafsir?
5ad22d0ed7d075001a428629
True
Muhammad
86
Who was the first rejecter of Tafsir?
5ad22d0ed7d075001a42862a
True
Tafsir
0
What isn't the Arabic term for Quranic exegesis?
5ad22d0ed7d075001a42862b
True
Companions of Muhammad
208
Who weren't 'Ali ibn Abi Talib and 'Abdullah ibn 'Abbas?
5ad22d0ed7d075001a42862c
True
Tafsir is one of the earliest academic activities of Muslims. According to the Quran, Muhammad was the first person who described the meanings of verses for early Muslims. Other early exegetes included a few Companions of Muhammad, like ʻAli ibn Abi Talib, ʻAbdullah ibn Abbas, ʻAbdullah ibn Umar and Ubayy ibn Kaʻb. Exegesis in those days was confined to the explanation of literary aspects of the verse, the background of its revelation and, occasionally, interpretation of one verse with the help of the other. If the verse was about a historical event, then sometimes a few traditions (hadith) of Muhammad were narrated to make its meaning clear.
In which language is the Quran recited?
572ec0e903f98919007569f5
classical Arabic
31
False
What is the Arabic term for the cancellation of one part of the Quran by another?
572ec0e903f98919007569f6
nāsikh
611
False
What is the name of the Ahmadiyya Muslim Community's published Quran commentary?
572ec0e903f98919007569f7
Tafseer e Kabir
832
False
In which language is the Tafseer e Kabir written?
572ec0e903f98919007569f8
Urdu
788
False
What is the term for earlier portions of the Quran that may have been superseded by later parts?
572ec0e903f98919007569f9
mansūkh
637
False
classical Arabic
31
In which language is the Quran unrecited?
5ad22d9ad7d075001a428646
True
classical Arabic
31
In which language isn't the Quran recited?
5ad22d9ad7d075001a428647
True
nāsikh
611
What is the Arabic term for the continuation of one part of the Quran by another?
5ad22d9ad7d075001a428648
True
Tafseer e Kabir
832
What is the name of the Ahmadiyya Jewish Community's published Quran commentary?
5ad22d9ad7d075001a428649
True
mansūkh
637
What is the term for later portions of the Quran that may have been superseded by earlier parts?
5ad22d9ad7d075001a42864a
True
Because the Quran is spoken in classical Arabic, many of the later converts to Islam (mostly non-Arabs) did not always understand the Quranic Arabic, they did not catch allusions that were clear to early Muslims fluent in Arabic and they were concerned with reconciling apparent conflict of themes in the Quran. Commentators erudite in Arabic explained the allusions, and perhaps most importantly, explained which Quranic verses had been revealed early in Muhammad's prophetic career, as being appropriate to the very earliest Muslim community, and which had been revealed later, canceling out or "abrogating" (nāsikh) the earlier text (mansūkh). Other scholars, however, maintain that no abrogation has taken place in the Quran. The Ahmadiyya Muslim Community has published a ten-volume Urdu commentary on the Quran, with the name Tafseer e Kabir.
What is another term for Sufi Quranic interpretation?
572ec29403f98919007569ff
Esoteric
0
False
What Arabic word describes the aspects of Quranic verses that Sufism tries to push beyond?
572ec29403f9891900756a00
zahir
118
False
Sands says Sufi interpretations tend to use which literary device rather than direct explanation?
572ec29403f9891900756a01
allusions
365
False
What is an Arabic term for allusions?
572ec29403f9891900756a02
isharat
376
False
Esoteric
0
What is another term for Sufi Quranic misinterpretation?
5ad22e28d7d075001a428658
True
Esoteric
0
What isn't another term for Sufi Quranic interpretation?
5ad22e28d7d075001a428659
True
zahir
118
What Arabic word describes the aspects of Biblical verses that Sufism tries to push beyond?
5ad22e28d7d075001a42865a
True
allusions
365
Sands says Sufi interpretations tend to use which literary device rather than indirect explanation?
5ad22e28d7d075001a42865b
True
isharat
376
What isn't an Arabic term for allusions?
5ad22e28d7d075001a42865c
True
Esoteric or Sufi interpretation attempts to unveil the inner meanings of the Quran. Sufism moves beyond the apparent (zahir) point of the verses and instead relates Quranic verses to the inner or esoteric (batin) and metaphysical dimensions of consciousness and existence. According to Sands, esoteric interpretations are more suggestive than declarative, they are allusions (isharat) rather than explanations (tafsir). They indicate possibilities as much as they demonstrate the insights of each writer.
Beloved is a term for God used by which style of Quranic interpretation?
572ec43bdfa6aa1500f8d365
Sufi
544
False
Which Quranic verse describes Moses' encounter with God at the mountain?
572ec43bdfa6aa1500f8d366
7:143
10
False
In Sufi thought, what experiences bring one closer to truth?
572ec43bdfa6aa1500f8d367
longing and suffering
613
False
Who wrote that Moses had lost the Moses in himself along the way to his encounter with God?
572ec43bdfa6aa1500f8d368
Qushayri
314
False
Sufi
544
Beloved is a term for God used by which style of Quranic misinterpretation?
5ad22e94d7d075001a428674
True
Sufi
544
Beloved is a term for God used by which style of Biblical interpretation?
5ad22e94d7d075001a428675
True
7:143
10
Which Biblical verse describes Moses' encounter with God at the mountain?
5ad22e94d7d075001a428676
True
longing and suffering
613
In Sufi thought, what experiences bring one farther from the truth?
5ad22e94d7d075001a428677
True
Qushayri
314
Who wrote that Moses had found the Moses in himself along the way to his encounter with God?
5ad22e94d7d075001a428678
True
Moses, in 7:143, comes the way of those who are in love, he asks for a vision but his desire is denied, he is made to suffer by being commanded to look at other than the Beloved while the mountain is able to see God. The mountain crumbles and Moses faints at the sight of God's manifestation upon the mountain. In Qushayri's words, Moses came like thousands of men who traveled great distances, and there was nothing left to Moses of Moses. In that state of annihilation from himself, Moses was granted the unveiling of the realities. From the Sufi point of view, God is the always the beloved and the wayfarer's longing and suffering lead to realization of the truths.
Who was an important esoteric interpreter of the Quran in the 11th century?
572ec65ccb0c0d14000f153e
Sulami
83
False
What is the English name of Sulami's major work?
572ec65ccb0c0d14000f153f
Truths of Exegesis
256
False
In which language did Maybudi write?
572ec65ccb0c0d14000f1540
Persian
609
False
In which year did the poet Rumi die?
572ec65ccb0c0d14000f1541
1273
713
False
Which Sufi commentator wrote the Spirit of Elucidation?
572ec65ccb0c0d14000f1542
Ismail Hakki Bursevi
1438
False
Sulami
83
Who was an important esoteric interpreter of the Quran in the 10th century?
5ad2309dd7d075001a4286d0
True
Truths of Exegesis
256
What is the English name of Sulami's minor work?
5ad2309dd7d075001a4286d1
True
Persian
609
In which language did Maybudi not write?
5ad2309dd7d075001a4286d2
True
1273
713
In which year didn't the poet Rumi die?
5ad2309dd7d075001a4286d3
True
Ismail Hakki Bursevi
1438
Which Sufi commentator read the Spirit of Elucidation?
5ad2309dd7d075001a4286d4
True
One of the notable authors of esoteric interpretation prior to the 12th century is Sulami (d. 1021) without whose work the majority of very early Sufi commentaries would not have been preserved. Sulami's major commentary is a book named haqaiq al-tafsir ("Truths of Exegesis") which is a compilation of commentaries of earlier Sufis. From the 11th century onwards several other works appear, including commentaries by Qushayri (d. 1074), Daylami (d. 1193), Shirazi (d. 1209) and Suhrawardi (d. 1234). These works include material from Sulami's books plus the author's contributions. Many works are written in Persian such as the works of Maybudi (d. 1135) kash al-asrar ("the unveiling of the secrets"). Rumi (d. 1273) wrote a vast amount of mystical poetry in his book Mathnawi. Rumi makes heavy use of the Quran in his poetry, a feature that is sometimes omitted in translations of Rumi's work. A large number of Quranic passages can be found in Mathnawi, which some consider a kind of Sufi interpretation of the Quran. Rumi's book is not exceptional for containing citations from and elaboration on the Quran, however, Rumi does mention Quran more frequently. Simnani (d. 1336) wrote two influential works of esoteric exegesis on the Quran. He reconciled notions of God's manifestation through and in the physical world with the sentiments of Sunni Islam. Comprehensive Sufi commentaries appear in the 18th century such as the work of Ismail Hakki Bursevi (d. 1725). His work ruh al-Bayan (the Spirit of Elucidation) is a voluminous exegesis. Written in Arabic, it combines the author's own ideas with those of his predecessors (notably Ibn Arabi and Ghazali), all woven together in Hafiz, a Persian poetry form.
What is the Arabic term for the surface-level aspects of a text?
572ec7e8dfa6aa1500f8d3a7
zahir
30
False
What Arabic term applies to interpretations aimed at the deeper, esoteric meanings of a text?
572ec7e8dfa6aa1500f8d3a8
ta'wil
161
False
Who is the only one who ever knows the full meaning of Quranic verses in the esoteric view?
572ec7e8dfa6aa1500f8d3a9
God
359
False
Which two groups are examples of Muslims who advocate a very literal reading of the Quran?
572ec7e8dfa6aa1500f8d3aa
Salafis and Zahiris
409
False
zahir
30
What is the Jewish term for the surface-level aspects of a text?
5ad23157d7d075001a428702
True
zahir
30
What is the Arabic term for the surface-level aspects of a song?
5ad23157d7d075001a428703
True
ta'wil
161
What Arabic term applies to misinterpretations aimed at the deeper, esoteric meanings of a text?
5ad23157d7d075001a428704
True
God
359
Who is the only one who ever knows the partial meaning of Quranic verses in the esoteric view?
5ad23157d7d075001a428705
True
Salafis and Zahiris
409
Which two groups are examples of Muslims who advocate a very unliteral reading of the Quran?
5ad23157d7d075001a428706
True
Commentaries dealing with the zahir (outward aspects) of the text are called tafsir, and hermeneutic and esoteric commentaries dealing with the batin are called ta'wil ("interpretation" or "explanation"), which involves taking the text back to its beginning. Commentators with an esoteric slant believe that the ultimate meaning of the Quran is known only to God. In contrast, Quranic literalism, followed by Salafis and Zahiris, is the belief that the Quran should only be taken at its apparent meaning.[citation needed]
In which language was the Quran first translated?
572ec9a7cb0c0d14000f156c
Persian
109
False
Which work did scribes from Khorasan translate in the 10th century?
572ec9a7cb0c0d14000f156d
Tafsir al-Tabari
215
False
Whose student wrote a Persian tafsir of the Quran in the 11th century?
572ec9a7cb0c0d14000f156e
Abu Mansur Abdullah al-Ansari
319
False
Who wrote a Persian translation of the Quran in the 12th century?
572ec9a7cb0c0d14000f156f
Najm al-Din Abu Hafs al-Nasafi
419
False
To which dynasty did the king who commissioned the first translation of Quranic texts belong?
572ec9a7cb0c0d14000f1570
Samanid
122
False
Persian
260
In which language was the Quran last translated?
5ad231b7d7d075001a428728
True
Tafsir al-Tabari
215
Which work did scribes from Khorasan translate in the 11th century?
5ad231b7d7d075001a428729
True
Abu Mansur Abdullah al-Ansari
319
Whose student wrote a Persian tafsir of the Quran in the 10th century?
5ad231b7d7d075001a42872a
True
Najm al-Din Abu Hafs al-Nasafi
419
Who wrote a Persian translation of the Quran in the 11th century?
5ad231b7d7d075001a42872b
True
Samanid
122
To which dynasty did the king who commissioned the last translation of Quranic texts belong?
5ad231b7d7d075001a42872c
True
The first fully attested complete translations of the Quran were done between the 10th and 12th centuries in Persian. The Samanid king, Mansur I (961-976), ordered a group of scholars from Khorasan to translate the Tafsir al-Tabari, originally in Arabic, into Persian. Later in the 11th century, one of the students of Abu Mansur Abdullah al-Ansari wrote a complete tafsir of the Quran in Persian. In the 12th century, Najm al-Din Abu Hafs al-Nasafi translated the Quran into Persian. The manuscripts of all three books have survived and have been published several times.[citation needed]
In which year was the Quran first translated into a Western language?
572ecaddc246551400ce4692
1143
19
False
Who completed the first Latin version of the Quran?
572ecaddc246551400ce4693
Robert of Ketton
0
False
Whose French translation of the Quran was the model for the first English version?
572ecaddc246551400ce4694
Andre du Ryer
269
False
Which organization offers versions of the Quran in 50 languages?
572ecaddc246551400ce4695
Ahmadiyya Muslim Community
561
False
In which language was Alexander Ross' version of the Quran published in 1649?
572ecaddc246551400ce4696
English
182
False
1143
19
In which year was the Quran last translated into a Western language?
5ad23219d7d075001a42874e
True
Robert of Ketton
0
Who completed the last Latin version of the Quran?
5ad23219d7d075001a42874f
True
Andre du Ryer
269
Whose French translation of the Quran was the model for the last English version?
5ad23219d7d075001a428750
True
Ahmadiyya Muslim Community
561
Which organization offers versions of the Quran in 60 languages?
5ad23219d7d075001a428751
True
English
182
In which language was Alexander Ross' version of the Quran published in 1694?
5ad23219d7d075001a428752
True
Robert of Ketton's 1143 translation of the Quran for Peter the Venerable, Lex Mahumet pseudoprophete, was the first into a Western language (Latin). Alexander Ross offered the first English version in 1649, from the French translation of L'Alcoran de Mahomet (1647) by Andre du Ryer. In 1734, George Sale produced the first scholarly translation of the Quran into English; another was produced by Richard Bell in 1937, and yet another by Arthur John Arberry in 1955. All these translators were non-Muslims. There have been numerous translations by Muslims. The Ahmadiyya Muslim Community has published translations of the Quran in 50 different languages besides a five-volume English commentary and an English translation of the Quran.
What discipline concerns the way the Quran is correctly recited?
572eccf7cb0c0d14000f1590
tajwid
81
False
Tajwid deals with what aspect of the phonemes in the Quran?
572eccf7cb0c0d14000f1591
pronunciation
560
False
Tajwid describes rules for what noiseless aspect of articulating Quranic verses?
572eccf7cb0c0d14000f1592
pause in recitation
656
False
Rhythm is an example of which features of Quranic recitation covered by tajwid?
572eccf7cb0c0d14000f1593
musical and melodious
717
False
tajwid
81
What discipline concerns the way the Quran is incorrectly recited?
5ad232a3d7d075001a42876c
True
tajwid
81
What discipline concerns the way the Quran is correctly unrecited?
5ad232a3d7d075001a42876d
True
pause in recitation
656
Tajwid describes rules for what noiseless aspect of inarticulating Quranic verses?
5ad232a3d7d075001a42876e
True
pronunciation
560
Tajwid deals with what aspect of the phonemes in the Bible?
5ad232a3d7d075001a42876f
True
musical and melodious
717
Rhythm is an example of which features of Quranic recitation uncovered by tajwid?
5ad232a3d7d075001a428770
True
The proper recitation of the Quran is the subject of a separate discipline named tajwid which determines in detail how the Quran should be recited, how each individual syllable is to be pronounced, the need to pay attention to the places where there should be a pause, to elisions, where the pronunciation should be long or short, where letters should be sounded together and where they should be kept separate, etc. It may be said that this discipline studies the laws and methods of the proper recitation of the Quran and covers three main areas: the proper pronunciation of consonants and vowels (the articulation of the Quranic phonemes), the rules of pause in recitation and of resumption of recitation, and the musical and melodious features of recitation.
The absence of which language feature made early Quranic recitation more diverse?
572ecf2503f9891900756a3f
Vocalization markers
0
False
Which Baghdad scholar identified justified seven different Quranic readings?
572ecf2503f9891900756a40
Ibn Mujāhid
433
False
Which recitation is the original basis of the Quran of Cairo?
572ecf2503f9891900756a41
ʻAsim's
1311
False
Which century produced the seven readings selected by Ibn Mujāhid?
572ecf2503f9891900756a42
8th
591
False
Which city corresponds to Asim's recitation of the Quran?
572ecf2503f9891900756a43
Kufa
1361
False
Vocalization markers
0
The absence of which language feature made later Quranic recitation more diverse?
5ad23316d7d075001a42878a
True
Ibn Mujāhid
433
Which Baghdad scholar identified unjustified seven different Quranic readings?
5ad23316d7d075001a42878b
True
ʻAsim's
1311
Which recitation is the later basis of the Quran of Cairo?
5ad23316d7d075001a42878c
True
8th
591
Which century produced the eight readings selected by Ibn Mujāhid?
5ad23316d7d075001a42878d
True
Kufa
1361
Which city doesn't correspond to Asim's recitation of the Quran?
5ad23316d7d075001a42878e
True
Vocalization markers indicating specific vowel sounds were introduced into the Arabic language by the end of the 9th century. The first Quranic manuscripts lacked these marks, therefore several recitations remain acceptable. The variation in readings of the text permitted by the nature of the defective vocalization led to an increase in the number of readings during the 10th century. The 10th-century Muslim scholar from Baghdad, Ibn Mujāhid, is famous for establishing seven acceptable textual readings of the Quran. He studied various readings and their trustworthiness and chose seven 8th-century readers from the cities of Mecca, Medina, Kufa, Basra and Damascus. Ibn Mujahid did not explain why he chose seven readers, rather than six or ten, but this may be related to a prophetic tradition (Muhammad's saying) reporting that the Quran had been revealed in seven "ahruf" (meaning seven letters or modes). Today, the most popular readings are those transmitted by Ḥafṣ (d.796) and Warsh (d. 812) which are according to two of Ibn Mujahid's reciters, Aasim ibn Abi al-Najud (Kufa, d. 745) and Nafi‘ al-Madani (Medina, d. 785), respectively. The influential standard Quran of Cairo (1924) uses an elaborate system of modified vowel-signs and a set of additional symbols for minute details and is based on ʻAsim's recitation, the 8th-century recitation of Kufa. This edition has become the standard for modern printings of the Quran.
Who created Quranic manuscripts before the 19th century?
572ed0afc246551400ce46e0
calligraphers and copyists
105
False
What is the name of the thicker-stroked writing used for the Quran beginning in the 9th century?
572ed0afc246551400ce46e1
Kufic scripts
417
False
Which was the most widely used script by copyists in the 11th century?
572ed0afc246551400ce46e2
naskh
827
False
Where was the Maghribi script most commonly used by Quran copyists?
572ed0afc246551400ce46e3
North Africa and Spain
934
False
Which script was only used to copy the Quran by people in northern India?
572ed0afc246551400ce46e4
Bihari
1011
False
calligraphers and copyists
105
Who created Quranic manuscripts before the 18th century?
5ad23365d7d075001a428794
True
Kufic scripts
417
What is the name of the thicker-stroked writing used for the Quran beginning in the 8th century?
5ad23365d7d075001a428795
True
naskh
827
Which was the most widely used script by copyists in the 10th century?
5ad23365d7d075001a428796
True
North Africa and Spain
934
Where was the Maghribi script least commonly used by Quran copyists?
5ad23365d7d075001a428797
True
Bihari
1011
Which script was never used to copy the Quran by people in northern India?
5ad23365d7d075001a428798
True
Before printing was widely adopted in the 19th century, the Quran was transmitted in manuscripts made by calligraphers and copyists. The earliest manuscripts were written in Ḥijāzī-type script. The Hijazi style manuscripts nevertheless confirm that transmission of the Quran in writing began at an early stage. Probably in the ninth century, scripts began to feature thicker strokes, which are traditionally known as Kufic scripts. Toward the end of the ninth century, new scripts began to appear in copies of the Quran and replace earlier scripts. The reason for discontinuation in the use of the earlier style was that it took too long to produce and the demand for copies was increasing. Copyists would therefore chose simpler writing styles. Beginning in the 11th century, the styles of writing employed were primarily the naskh, muhaqqaq, rayḥānī and, on rarer occasions, the thuluth script. Naskh was in very widespread use. In North Africa and Spain, the Maghribī style was popular. More distinct is the Bihari script which was used solely in the north of India. Nastaʻlīq style was also rarely used in Persian world.
In which century were vocalization marking added to the Quran?
572ed1eec246551400ce46ea
ninth century
166
False
Where were Quran copies kept for those who could not afford their own?
572ed1eec246551400ce46eb
mosques
293
False
What are the parts of the Quran called that are 30 in total?
572ed1eec246551400ce46ec
juzʼ
410
False
Which group of Quran copyists produced the most in-demand manuscripts?
572ed1eec246551400ce46ed
Ottoman
446
False
ninth century
166
In which century were vocalization marking taken from the Quran?
5ad233afd7d075001a4287b2
True
mosques
293
Where were Quran copies kept for those who could afford their own?
5ad233afd7d075001a4287b3
True
mosques
293
Where weren't Quran copies kept for those who could not afford their own?
5ad233afd7d075001a4287b4
True
juzʼ
410
What are the parts of the Quran called that are 33 in total?
5ad233afd7d075001a4287b5
True
Ottoman
446
Which group of Quran copyists produced the least in-demand manuscripts?
5ad233afd7d075001a4287b6
True
In the beginning, the Quran did not have vocalization markings. The system of vocalization, as we know it today, seems to have been introduced towards the end of the ninth century. Since it would have been too costly for most Muslims to purchase a manuscript, copies of the Quran were held in mosques in order to make them accessible to people. These copies frequently took the form of a series of 30 parts or juzʼ. In terms of productivity, the Ottoman copyists provide the best example. This was in response to widespread demand, unpopularity of printing methods and for aesthetic reasons.
Which Biblical character is the most often mentioned person in the Quran?
572ed3f503f9891900756a67
Moses
684
False
Who has claimed that Christians and Jews had heard and discussed the Quran before it took on its standardized Arabic form?
572ed3f503f9891900756a68
Sahih al-Bukhari
13
False
Which older language is thought to strongly resemble that of the Quran?
572ed3f503f9891900756a69
Syriac
180
False
Which relative of Jesus appears more often in the Quran than the New Testament?
572ed3f503f9891900756a6a
Mary
812
False
What do devout Muslims believe is the reason for the overlap of events and characters in the Bible and Quran?
572ed3f503f9891900756a6b
common divine source
1024
False
Moses
684
Which Biblical character is the least often mentioned person in the Quran?
5ad23431d7d075001a4287c4
True
Sahih al-Bukhari
13
Who hasn't claimed that Christians and Jews had heard and discussed the Quran before it took on its standardized Arabic form?
5ad23431d7d075001a4287c5
True
Syriac
180
Which older language is thought to weakly resemble that of the Quran?
5ad23431d7d075001a4287c6
True
Mary
812
Which relative of Jesus appears less often in the Quran than the New Testament?
5ad23431d7d075001a4287c7
True
common divine source
1024
What do devout Muslims believe is the reason for no overlap of events and characters in the Bible and Quran?
5ad23431d7d075001a4287c8
True
According to Sahih al-Bukhari, the Quran was recited among Levantines and Iraqis, and discussed by Christians and Jews, before it was standardized. Its language was similar to the Syriac language.[citation needed] The Quran recounts stories of many of the people and events recounted in Jewish and Christian sacred books (Tanakh, Bible) and devotional literature (Apocrypha, Midrash), although it differs in many details. Adam, Enoch, Noah, Eber, Shelah, Abraham, Lot, Ishmael, Isaac, Jacob, Joseph, Job, Jethro, David, Solomon, Elijah, Elisha, Jonah, Aaron, Moses, Zechariah, John the Baptist and Jesus are mentioned in the Quran as prophets of God (see Prophets of Islam). In fact, Moses is mentioned more in the Quran than any other individual. Jesus is mentioned more often in the Quran than Muhammad, while Mary is mentioned in the Quran more than the New Testament. Muslims believe the common elements or resemblances between the Bible and other Jewish and Christian writings and Islamic dispensations is due to their common divine source,[citation needed] and that the original Christian or Jewish texts were authentic divine revelations given to prophets.
What are the two type of ta'wil?
572ed583c246551400ce46fc
acceptable and unacceptable
35
False
Which type of esoteric interpretation involves a transfer by proof of a verse's meaning?
572ed583c246551400ce46fd
Unacceptable
455
False
The implicit meaning of a Quranic verse that is known fully only by God is which type of ta'wil?
572ed583c246551400ce46fe
Acceptable
89
False
acceptable and unacceptable
35
What are the three type of ta'wil?
5ad23010d7d075001a4286ac
True
acceptable and unacceptable
35
What aren't the two type of ta'wil?
5ad23010d7d075001a4286ad
True
Unacceptable
455
Which type of esoteric misinterpretation involves a transfer by proof of a verse's meaning?
5ad23010d7d075001a4286ae
True
Unacceptable
455
Which type of unesoteric interpretation involves a transfer by proof of a verse's meaning?
5ad23010d7d075001a4286af
True
Acceptable
89
The explicit meaning of a Quranic verse that is known fully only by God is which type of ta'wil?
5ad23010d7d075001a4286b0
True
According to Tabatabaei, there are acceptable and unacceptable esoteric interpretations. Acceptable ta'wil refers to the meaning of a verse beyond its literal meaning; rather the implicit meaning, which ultimately is known only to God and can't be comprehended directly through human thought alone. The verses in question here refer to the human qualities of coming, going, sitting, satisfaction, anger and sorrow, which are apparently attributed to God. Unacceptable ta'wil is where one "transfers" the apparent meaning of a verse to a different meaning by means of a proof; this method is not without obvious inconsistencies. Although this unacceptable ta'wil has gained considerable acceptance, it is incorrect and cannot be applied to the Quranic verses. The correct interpretation is that reality a verse refers to. It is found in all verses, the decisive and the ambiguous alike; it is not a sort of a meaning of the word; it is a fact that is too sublime for words. God has dressed them with words to bring them a bit nearer to our minds; in this respect they are like proverbs that are used to create a picture in the mind, and thus help the hearer to clearly grasp the intended idea.
Who had begun memorizing Muhammad's revelations in his lifetime?
572ed854dfa6aa1500f8d443
his companions
159
False
What was done to the Quranic text early in its history leaving few markedly different variants?
572ed854dfa6aa1500f8d444
standardized
816
False
Which which university is Fred Donner affiliated?
572ed854dfa6aa1500f8d445
University of Chicago
545
False
The Quran is widely accepted by historians to contain a relatively accurate record of whose words?
572ed854dfa6aa1500f8d446
Muhammad
436
False
his companions
159
Who had begun forgetting Muhammad's revelations in his lifetime?
5ad217e1d7d075001a4283ea
True
standardized
816
What was done to the Quranic text late in its history leaving few markedly different variants?
5ad217e1d7d075001a4283eb
True
standardized
816
What was done to the Quranic text early in its history leaving few markedly same variants?
5ad217e1d7d075001a4283ec
True
University of Chicago
545
Which which university isn't Fred Donner affiliated?
5ad217e1d7d075001a4283ed
True
Muhammad
436
The Quran is widely rejected by historians to contain a relatively accurate record of whose words?
5ad217e1d7d075001a4283ee
True
The Quran most likely existed in scattered written form during Muhammad's lifetime. Several sources indicate that during Muhammad's lifetime a large number of his companions had memorized the revelations. Early commentaries and Islamic historical sources support the above-mentioned understanding of the Quran's early development. The Quran in its present form is generally considered by academic scholars to record the words spoken by Muhammad because the search for variants has not yielded any differences of great significance.[page needed] University of Chicago professor Fred Donner states that "...there was a very early attempt to establish a uniform consonantal text of the Qurʾān from what was probably a wider and more varied group of related texts in early transmission. [...] After the creation of this standardized canonical text, earlier authoritative texts were suppressed, and all extant manuscripts—despite their numerous variants—seem to date to a time after this standard consonantal text was established." Although most variant readings of the text of the Quran have ceased to be transmitted, some still are. There has been no critical text produced on which a scholarly reconstruction of the Quranic text could be based. Historically, controversy over the Quran's content has rarely become an issue, although debates continue on the subject.
What physical symptom accompanied Muhammad's revelations?
572eda2cdfa6aa1500f8d451
seizures
861
False
What measure of distance described the nearness of the Angel's approach to Mohammad?
572eda2cdfa6aa1500f8d452
two bows' length
560
False
In which work did Welch express his belief that Mohammad's physical reaction to the revelation was historically accurate?
572eda2cdfa6aa1500f8d453
Encyclopaedia of Islam
642
False
Which people would Mohammad's critics have compared him to at the time?
572eda2cdfa6aa1500f8d454
a possessed man, a soothsayer or a magician
1037
False
seizures
861
What mental symptom accompanied Muhammad's revelations?
5ad21569d7d075001a4283a6
True
two bows' length
560
What measure of time described the nearness of the Angel's approach to Mohammad?
5ad21569d7d075001a4283a7
True
Encyclopaedia of Islam
642
In which work did Welch express his belief that Mohammad's physical reaction to the revelation was historically inaccurate?
5ad21569d7d075001a4283a8
True
a possessed man, a soothsayer or a magician
1037
Which people wouldn't Mohammad's critics have compared him to at the time?
5ad21569d7d075001a4283a9
True
a possessed man, a soothsayer or a magician
1037
Which people would Mohammad's critics haven't compared him to at the time?
5ad21569d7d075001a4283aa
True
Sahih al-Bukhari narrates Muhammad describing the revelations as, "Sometimes it is (revealed) like the ringing of a bell" and Aisha reported, "I saw the Prophet being inspired Divinely on a very cold day and noticed the sweat dropping from his forehead (as the Inspiration was over)." Muhammad's first revelation, according to the Quran, was accompanied with a vision. The agent of revelation is mentioned as the "one mighty in power", the one who "grew clear to view when he was on the uppermost horizon. Then he drew nigh and came down till he was (distant) two bows' length or even nearer." The Islamic studies scholar Welch states in the Encyclopaedia of Islam that he believes the graphic descriptions of Muhammad's condition at these moments may be regarded as genuine, because he was severely disturbed after these revelations. According to Welch, these seizures would have been seen by those around him as convincing evidence for the superhuman origin of Muhammad's inspirations. However, Muhammad's critics accused him of being a possessed man, a soothsayer or a magician since his experiences were similar to those claimed by such figures well known in ancient Arabia. Welch additionally states that it remains uncertain whether these experiences occurred before or after Muhammad's initial claim of prophethood.
What can interpretation find that lies the behind the apparent events referred to in a Quranic story?
572edbdacb0c0d14000f161c
a spiritual reality
1022
False
What was the original meaning of ta'wil?
572edbdacb0c0d14000f161d
"to return" or "the returning place"
445
False
What philosophical term corresponds to the type of interpretation in ta'wil?
572edbdacb0c0d14000f161e
hermeneutic
545
False
a spiritual reality
1022
What can misinterpretation find that lies the behind the apparent events referred to in a Quranic story?
5ad22f2dd7d075001a42867e
True
a spiritual reality
1022
What can interpretation find that lies the behind the inapparent events referred to in a Quranic story?
5ad22f2dd7d075001a42867f
True
"to return" or "the returning place"
445
What was the final meaning of ta'wil?
5ad22f2dd7d075001a428680
True
"to return" or "the returning place"
445
What wasn't the original meaning of ta'wil?
5ad22f2dd7d075001a428681
True
hermeneutic
545
What biographical term corresponds to the type of interpretation in ta'wil?
5ad22f2dd7d075001a428682
True
Muhammad Husayn Tabatabaei says that according to the popular explanation among the later exegetes, ta'wil indicates the particular meaning a verse is directed towards. The meaning of revelation (tanzil), as opposed to ta'wil, is clear in its accordance to the obvious meaning of the words as they were revealed. But this explanation has become so widespread that, at present, it has become the primary meaning of ta'wil, which originally meant "to return" or "the returning place". In Tabatabaei's view, what has been rightly called ta'wil, or hermeneutic interpretation of the Quran, is not concerned simply with the denotation of words. Rather, it is concerned with certain truths and realities that transcend the comprehension of the common run of men; yet it is from these truths and realities that the principles of doctrine and the practical injunctions of the Quran issue forth. Interpretation is not the meaning of the verse—rather it transpires through that meaning, in a special sort of transpiration. There is a spiritual reality—which is the main objective of ordaining a law, or the basic aim in describing a divine attribute—and then there is an actual significance that a Quranic story refers to.
Who do Shia Muslims believe can approach Quranic truths besides God and Muhammad?
572edcb1c246551400ce4752
imams
90
False
According to Shia Muslims, who is the only one who can fully know the a Quranic interpretation?
572edcb1c246551400ce4753
God
204
False
How must God have treated those who are qualified to know Quranic sectets?
572edcb1c246551400ce4754
purified
444
False
imams
90
Who do Shia Muslims believe can approach Quranic falsehoods besides God and Muhammad?
5ad22fa8d7d075001a428690
True
imams
90
Who do Sunni Muslims believe can approach Quranic truths besides God and Muhammad?
5ad22fa8d7d075001a428691
True
God
204
According to Sunni Muslims, who is the only one who can fully know the a Quranic interpretation?
5ad22fa8d7d075001a428692
True
God
204
According to Shia Muslims, who is the only one who can never know the a Quranic interpretation?
5ad22fa8d7d075001a428693
True
purified
444
How must God have treated those who are unqualified to know Quranic sectets?
5ad22fa8d7d075001a428694
True
According to Shia beliefs, those who are firmly rooted in knowledge like Muhammad and the imams know the secrets of the Quran. According to Tabatabaei, the statement "none knows its interpretation except God" remains valid, without any opposing or qualifying clause. Therefore, so far as this verse is concerned, the knowledge of the Quran's interpretation is reserved for God. But Tabatabaei uses other verses and concludes that those who are purified by God know the interpretation of the Quran to a certain extent.
Geography_of_the_United_States
During the period from 1989 - 1996, what was the total are of the US in miles?
572eb7d5dfa6aa1500f8d303
3,618,780 sq mi
78
False
According to the CIA World Factbook, what is the total area of the US in miles?
572eb7d5dfa6aa1500f8d304
3,794,100 sq mi
459
False
According to the Encyclopedia Britannica, what is the total area of the US in miles?
572eb7d5dfa6aa1500f8d305
3,676,486 sq mi
608
False
1989 through 1996,
5
The total square miles of land only in the United States was 9,372,610 km² during what time period?
5a0f1b18d7c8500018864585
True
9,826,675 km2
444
Currently the World encyclopedia mileage of the United States is what?
5a0f1b18d7c8500018864586
True
Encyclopædia Britannica
563
What encyclopedia includes both the Great Lakes and coastal waters in the United States square mileage?
5a0f1b18d7c8500018864587
True
the Federal District
721
These sources consider overseas territories all fifty states and what?
5a0f1b18d7c8500018864588
True
From 1989 through 1996, the total area of the US was listed as 9,372,610 km2 (3,618,780 sq mi) (land + inland water only). The listed total area changed to 9,629,091 km2 (3,717,813 sq mi) in 1997 (Great Lakes area and coastal waters added), to 9,631,418 km2 (3,718,711 sq mi) in 2004, to 9,631,420 km2 (3,718,710 sq mi) in 2006, and to 9,826,630 km2 (3,794,080 sq mi) in 2007 (territorial waters added). Currently, the CIA World Factbook gives 9,826,675 km2 (3,794,100 sq mi), the United Nations Statistics Division gives 9,629,091 km2 (3,717,813 sq mi), and the Encyclopædia Britannica gives 9,522,055 km2 (3,676,486 sq mi)(Great Lakes area included but not coastal waters). These source consider only the 50 states and the Federal District, and exclude overseas territories.
Compared to other countries, how large is the US?
572eb84fc246551400ce455e
third or fourth largest country
153
False
Which country is the worlds fourth largest?
572eb84fc246551400ce455f
Canada
418
False
Who may also be the third largest country?
572eb84fc246551400ce4560
China
454
False
People's Republic of China
103
By land area only the United States is slightly larger or smaller than what other country?
5a0f1cc0d7c850001886458d
True
Canada
242
China and the United States are larger than Russia and what other country in total area?
5a0f1cc0d7c850001886458e
True
The validity of China's claim on Aksai Chin and Trans-Karakoram Tract
531
My total area land and water whether the United States is the third-largest country depends on what?
5a0f1cc0d7c850001886458f
True
updated the total area of United States a number of times
784
Since the initial publication of the world factbook Guinness has done what?
5a0f1cc0d7c8500018864590
True
China and the United States
186
Brazil is larger than what other two countries?
5a0f1cc0d7c8500018864591
True
By total area (water as well as land), the United States is either slightly larger or smaller than the People's Republic of China, making it the world's third or fourth largest country. China and the United States are smaller than Russia and Canada in total area, but are larger than Brazil. By land area only (exclusive of waters), the United States is the world's third largest country, after Russia and China, with Canada in fourth. Whether the US or China is the third largest country by total area depends on two factors: (1) The validity of China's claim on Aksai Chin and Trans-Karakoram Tract. Both these territories are also claimed by India, so are not counted; and (2) How US calculates its own surface area. Since the initial publishing of the World Factbook, the CIA has updated the total area of United States a number of times.
Who does the US share land borders with?
572eb8af03f989190075699d
Canada (to the north) and Mexico (to the south),
43
False
Who does the US share water borders with in the northwest?
572eb8af03f989190075699e
Russia
128
False
How many contiguous states are there?
572eb8af03f989190075699f
forty-eight
274
False
Which ocean does Alaska border to the south?
572eb8af03f98919007569a0
Pacific Ocean
441
False
Mexico
69
United States shares land borders with Russia Canada and what other country?
5a0f1de8d7c8500018864597
True
Atlantic Ocean
353
The contiguous forty-eight states are bound by the Pacific on the east and what ocean on the West?
5a0f1de8d7c8500018864598
True
Alaska
422
What state borders the bearing straight on the east?
5a0f1de8d7c8500018864599
True
Pacific Ocean
597
Hawaii lays far to the north east in what ocean?
5a0f1de8d7c850001886459a
True
United States
4
The Gulf of Mexico lies to the southwest of what country?
5a0f1de8d7c850001886459b
True
The United States shares land borders with Canada (to the north) and Mexico (to the south), and a territorial water border with Russia in the northwest, and two territorial water borders in the southeast between Florida and Cuba, and Florida and the Bahamas. The contiguous forty-eight states are otherwise bounded by the Pacific Ocean on the west, the Atlantic Ocean on the east, and the Gulf of Mexico to the southeast. Alaska borders the Pacific Ocean to the south, the Bering Strait to the west, and the Arctic Ocean to the north, while Hawaii lies far to the southwest of the mainland in the Pacific Ocean.
What is the capital city of the US?
572eb90fc246551400ce456c
Washington, District of Columbia
18
False
Which US state donated Washington, D.C.?
572eb90fc246551400ce456d
Maryland
114
False
What are the US territories overseas located in the Pacific?
572eb90fc246551400ce456e
Guam, American Samoa, and the Northern Mariana Islands
414
False
Which US state also donated territory to Washington, D.C., but had it returned?
572eb90fc246551400ce456f
Virginia
125
False
District of Columbia,
30
What is the capital state of the United States?
5a0f2044d7c85000188645a1
True
Maryland. (Virginia
114
The District of Columbia is on land donated by what two states?
5a0f2044d7c85000188645a2
True
Guam, American Samoa, and the Northern Mariana Islands
414
What are the uninhabited territories the US has in the Pacific?
5a0f2044d7c85000188645a3
True
Caribbean
296
US territories of Puerto Rico Virgin Islands and Cuba are located where?
5a0f2044d7c85000188645a4
True
The capital city, Washington, District of Columbia, is a federal district located on land donated by the state of Maryland. (Virginia had also donated land, but it was returned in 1849.) The United States also has overseas territories with varying levels of independence and organization: in the Caribbean the territories of Puerto Rico and the U.S. Virgin Islands, and in the Pacific the inhabited territories of Guam, American Samoa, and the Northern Mariana Islands, along with a number of uninhabited island territories.
How many Great Lakes form a border with Canada?
572eb9dbc246551400ce4588
four
78
False
Which of the Great Lakes is entirely located in US territory?
572eb9dbc246551400ce4589
Lake Michigan
136
False
Which major river is located west of the Appalachian mountains?
572eb9dbc246551400ce458a
Mississippi River
348
False
What type of land makes up the Ohio and Tennessee valleys?
572eb9dbc246551400ce458b
rolling hills and productive farmland
513
False
Which section of the US contains subtropical forests and mangrove wetlands?
572eb9dbc246551400ce458c
southeast United States
194
False
Canada
123
The five Great Lakes formal border with what country?
5a0f2254d7c85000188645a9
True
Lake Michigan
136
Which great Lake is located entirely outside of US territory?
5a0f2254d7c85000188645aa
True
Mississippi River
348
Which major river is located east of the Appalachian Mountains
5a0f2254d7c85000188645ab
True
Ohio River and the Tennessee River
411
What are the two large Western tributaries of the Mississippi River?
5a0f2254d7c85000188645ac
True
The southeast
190
Which section of the US contains tropical forests and mangrove wetlands?
5a0f2254d7c85000188645ad
True
The five Great Lakes are located in the north-central portion of the country, four of them forming part of the border with Canada, only Lake Michigan situated entirely within United States. The southeast United States contain subtropical forests and, near the gulf coast, mangrove wetlands, especially in Florida. West of the Appalachians lies the Mississippi River basin and two large eastern tributaries, the Ohio River and the Tennessee River. The Ohio and Tennessee Valleys and the Midwest consist largely of rolling hills and productive farmland, stretching south to the Gulf Coast.
What area is located in between the Mississippi River and the Rocky Mountains?
572eba5fdfa6aa1500f8d32b
The Great Plains
0
False
In which area are a large number of the country's agricultural products grown?
572eba5fdfa6aa1500f8d32c
the Great Plains
152
False
How high does elevation rise in the Great Plains?
572eba5fdfa6aa1500f8d32d
a mile high
469
False
What is the only major mountain ranged located between the Appalachian Mountains and the Rocky Mountains?
572eba5fdfa6aa1500f8d32e
Interior Highlands
639
False
The Great Plains
0
What area is located between the Mississippi River and the appellation Mountains?
5a0f250dd7c85000188645b3
True
agricultural products
117
A small portion of the countries what is grown in the Great Plains?
5a0f250dd7c85000188645b4
True
the Great Plains
215
The elevation of what is more than a mile high near the Mississippi River?
5a0f250dd7c85000188645b5
True
Ozark and Ouachita Mountains
589
What are the only mountains between the Rocky Mountains and Appellation Mountains?
5a0f250dd7c85000188645b6
True
farmland
205
Before being converted to grassland the Great Plains were known for what?
5a0f250dd7c85000188645b7
True
The Great Plains lie west of the Mississippi River and east of the Rocky Mountains. A large portion of the country's agricultural products are grown in the Great Plains. Before their general conversion to farmland, the Great Plains were noted for their extensive grasslands, from tallgrass prairie in the eastern plains to shortgrass steppe in the western High Plains. Elevation rises gradually from less than a few hundred feet near the Mississippi River to more than a mile high in the High Plains. The generally low relief of the plains is broken in several places, most notably in the Ozark and Ouachita Mountains, which form the U.S. Interior Highlands, the only major mountainous region between the Rocky Mountains and the Appalachian Mountains.
Which northern country do the Rocky Mountains begin at?
572ebac003f98919007569ad
Canada
139
False
Which northern country do the Rocky Mountains terminate at?
572ebac003f98919007569ae
Mexico
171
False
In the US, which region is the highest by elevation?
572ebac003f98919007569af
The Rocky Mountain
179
False
In which state are the highest peaks of the Rocky Mountains found?
572ebac003f98919007569b0
Colorado
540
False
the Rocky Mountains
42
Where did the Great Plains come to a gradual and at?
5a0f25d8d7c85000188645bd
True
the United States
230
The appellation Mountains are the highest region of what?
5a0f25d8d7c85000188645be
True
The Rocky Mountain
179
What mountains generally contain steep slopes and narrow peaks?
5a0f25d8d7c85000188645bf
True
Mount Elbert
573
The Lowes peak of the Rockies is found in what state?
5a0f25d8d7c85000188645c0
True
Mount Elbert
573
What is a low speak of the Rockies?
5a0f25d8d7c85000188645c1
True
The Great Plains come to an abrupt end at the Rocky Mountains. The Rocky Mountains form a large portion of the Western U.S., entering from Canada and stretching nearly to Mexico. The Rocky Mountain region is the highest region of the United States by average elevation. The Rocky Mountains generally contain fairly mild slopes and wider peaks compared to some of the other great mountain ranges, with a few exceptions (such as the Teton Mountains in Wyoming and the Sawatch Range in Colorado). The highest peaks of the Rockies are found in Colorado, the tallest peak being Mount Elbert at 14,440 ft (4,400 m). The Rocky Mountains contain some of the most spectacular, and well known scenery in the world. In addition, instead of being one generally continuous and solid mountain range, it is broken up into a number of smaller, intermittent mountain ranges, forming a large series of basins and valleys.
What is the name of the plateau that lies west of the Rocky Mountains?
572ec7a5dfa6aa1500f8d39f
Intermontane Plateaus
37
False
What is the name of the large southern portion of the Intermontane Plateaus?
572ec7a5dfa6aa1500f8d3a0
the Great Basin
226
False
What type of flats compose the Great Basin?
572ec7a5dfa6aa1500f8d3a1
salt flats
255
False
What region is centered around the Four Corners?
572ec7a5dfa6aa1500f8d3a2
Colorado Plateau
409
False
Intermontane Plateaus
37
What is the name of the plateau that lies east of the Rocky Mountains?
5a0f2cdddecec9001847548d
True
the Cascades
150
A large semi arid desert lies between Rockies and what?
5a0f2cdddecec9001847548e
True
Great Basin,
230
The large northern portion is known as what?
5a0f2cdddecec9001847548f
True
a low-lying desert region
359
The South East is predominantly what?
5a0f2cdddecec90018475490
True
West of the Rocky Mountains lies the Intermontane Plateaus (also known as the Intermountain West), a large, arid desert lying between the Rockies and the Cascades and Sierra Nevada ranges. The large southern portion, known as the Great Basin, consists of salt flats, drainage basins, and many small north-south mountain ranges. The Southwest is predominantly a low-lying desert region. A portion known as the Colorado Plateau, centered around the Four Corners region, is considered to have some of the most spectacular scenery in the world. It is accentuated in such national parks as Grand Canyon, Arches, Mesa Verde National Park and Bryce Canyon, among others. Other smaller Intermontane areas include the Columbia Plateau covering eastern Washington, western Idaho and northeast Oregon and the Snake River Plain in Southern Idaho.
What is the name of the range where the Intermontane plateaus end?
572ec835c246551400ce4660
Cascade Range
48
False
What type of mountains compose the Cascades?
572ec835c246551400ce4661
volcanic mountains
131
False
Which mountain range contains Mount Whitney?
572ec835c246551400ce4662
Sierra Nevada
211
False
What is the largest point in the Sierra Nevadas?
572ec835c246551400ce4663
Mount Whitney
345
False
How tall is Mount Whitney?
572ec835c246551400ce4664
14,505 ft
360
False
Cascade Range
48
What is the name of the range where theIntermontane plateau begins?
5a0f2e01decec90018475495
True
volcanic mountains
131
The Cascades consist largely of overlapping what?
5a0f2e01decec90018475496
True
Sierra Nevada
211
What is the name of the high gentle dense mountain range?
5a0f2e01decec90018475497
True
Sierra Nevada
211
What mountain range contains the lowest point in a contagious forty-eight states
5a0f2e01decec90018475498
True
Badwater
543
The highest point in North America is and what basin?
5a0f2e01decec90018475499
True
The Intermontane Plateaus come to an end at the Cascade Range and the Sierra Nevada. The Cascades consist of largely intermittent, volcanic mountains, many rising prominently from the surrounding landscape. The Sierra Nevada, further south, is a high, rugged, and dense mountain range. It contains the highest point in the contiguous 48 states, Mount Whitney (14,505 ft or 4,421 m) It is located at the boundary between California's Inyo and Tulare counties, just 84.6 mi or 136.2 km west-northwest of the lowest point in North America at the Badwater Basin in Death Valley National Park at 279 ft or 85 m below sea level.
What are two national parks located in the mountainous regions?
572ec95603f9891900756a1b
Yosemite and Mount Rainier
93
False
What is the name of the famous valley located in California?
572ec95603f9891900756a1c
Central Valley
196
False
What is the name of the famous valley located in Oregon?
572ec95603f9891900756a1d
Willamette Valley
233
False
What are the low mountain ranges that are located along the pacific coast called?
572ec95603f9891900756a1e
Pacific Coast Ranges
326
False
What are the tallest trees in the world?
572ec95603f9891900756a1f
Redwoods
500
False
Yosemite and Mount Rainier
93
What two national parks are located on the planes?
5a0f2f51decec9001847549f
True
valleys
175
East of the Cascades Sierra Nevada is a series of what?
5a0f2f51decec900184754a0
True
Pacific Coast Ranges
326
What is the name of the high mountain range along the coast?
5a0f2f51decec900184754a1
True
Redwoods
500
What are the skinniest trees in the world?
5a0f2f51decec900184754a2
True
These areas contain some spectacular scenery as well, as evidenced by such national parks as Yosemite and Mount Rainier. West of the Cascades and Sierra Nevada is a series of valleys, such as the Central Valley in California and the Willamette Valley in Oregon. Along the coast is a series of low mountain ranges known as the Pacific Coast Ranges. Much of the Pacific Northwest coast is inhabited by some of the densest vegetation outside of the Tropics, and also the tallest trees in the world (the Redwoods).
Why does the Appalachian Highland have the terrain it does?
572ecac2dfa6aa1500f8d3c5
crustal deformations
142
False
During what geological period did the Appalachian mountains reach their highest formation point?
572ecac2dfa6aa1500f8d3c6
Permian time
341
False
What is the name of the mountaneous region along the Atlantic cost.
572ecac2dfa6aa1500f8d3c7
The Appalachian Highland
71
False
United States
26
The Atlantic Coast of what country is high with minor exceptions?
5a0f31d5decec900184754a7
True
elevation
849
What made to see advance on the land in the southeasternAppalachian?
5a0f31d5decec900184754a8
True
crustal
142
What kind of deformation created in northwest Southeast trend in the Appalachian
5a0f31d5decec900184754a9
True
Permian time
341
During what geological. That the Appalachian Mountains reach their lowest point
5a0f31d5decec900184754aa
True
crustal movement,
682
The of Appalachian Mountains are low today because of modern what?
5a0f31d5decec900184754ab
True
The Atlantic coast of the United States is low, with minor exceptions. The Appalachian Highland owes its oblique northeast-southwest trend to crustal deformations which in very early geological time gave a beginning to what later came to be the Appalachian mountain system. This system had its climax of deformation so long ago (probably in Permian time) that it has since then been very generally reduced to moderate or low relief. It owes its present-day altitude either to renewed elevations along the earlier lines or to the survival of the most resistant rocks as residual mountains. The oblique trend of this coast would be even more pronounced but for a comparatively modern crustal movement, causing a depression in the northeast resulting in an encroachment of the sea upon the land. Additionally, the southeastern section has undergone an elevation resulting in the advance of the land upon the sea.
What originally covered the east coast of the Appalachians?
572ecb56c246551400ce469c
forest
46
False
What are the two branches of the Cordilleran system?
572ecb56c246551400ce469d
Rocky Mountain System and the Pacific Mountain System
282
False
Which two major rivers are located in the Cordilleran system?
572ecb56c246551400ce469e
Columbia River and Colorado River
412
False
Which region of the Appalachians is the most arid?
572ecb56c246551400ce469f
southwest
820
False
Appalachian system
15
What system is relatively high and wide?
5a0f3387decec900184754b1
True
an important coastal plain
137
The Appalachian system is bordered on the southwest and south by what?
5a0f3387decec900184754b2
True
lofty, broad and complicated
228
The Cordilleran system on the eastern side of the continent is what?
5a0f3387decec900184754b3
True
The Cordilleran system
165
What has three branches including the Rocky Mountains system?
5a0f3387decec900184754b4
True
northwest coast
607
Light force cover what coast?
5a0f3387decec900184754b5
True
The east coast Appalachian system, originally forest covered, is relatively low and narrow and is bordered on the southeast and south by an important coastal plain. The Cordilleran system on the western side of the continent is lofty, broad and complicated having two branches, the Rocky Mountain System and the Pacific Mountain System. In between these mountain systems lie the Intermontaine Plateaus. Both the Columbia River and Colorado River rise far inland near the easternmost members of the Cordilleran system, and flow through plateaus and intermontaine basins to the ocean. Heavy forests cover the northwest coast, but elsewhere trees are found only on the higher ranges below the Alpine region. The intermontane valleys, plateaus and basins range from treeless to desert with the most arid region being in the southwest.
What is one of the two major highlands that stretch from the gulf of mexico to the Arctic ocean?
572ecc0fcb0c0d14000f157e
Laurentian Highlands
4
False
How far north do the Interior Highlands reach?
572ecc0fcb0c0d14000f157f
Arctic Ocean
188
False
Which two nations are the central plains divided in?
572ecc0fcb0c0d14000f1580
Canadian and a United States
279
False
Where does the Mississippi discharge?
572ecc0fcb0c0d14000f1581
Gulf of Mexico
414
False
Laurentian Highlands, the Interior Plains and the Interior Highlands
4
What is the name of the three highlands that stretched from the Gulf of Mexico to the Arctic Ocean?
5a0f34b3decec900184754bb
True
semi-arid prairie
486
The lower Mississippi and some of the Ohio basin are what type of region?
5a0f34b3decec900184754bc
True
prairie region
496
Originally trees covered all of what?
5a0f34b3decec900184754bd
True
Interior Highlands
54
What Highland stop at the national boundary?
5a0f34b3decec900184754be
True
Gulf of Mexico
414
The Ohio River discharges where?
5a0f34b3decec900184754bf
True
The Laurentian Highlands, the Interior Plains and the Interior Highlands lie between the two coasts, stretching from the Gulf of Mexico northward, far beyond the national boundary, to the Arctic Ocean. The central plains are divided by a hardly perceptible height of land into a Canadian and a United States portion. It is from the United States side, that the great Mississippi system discharges southward to the Gulf of Mexico. The upper Mississippi and some of the Ohio basin is the semi-arid prairie region, with trees originally only along the watercourses. The uplands towards the Appalachians were included in the great eastern forested area, while the western part of the plains has so dry a climate that its native plant life is scanty, and in the south it is practically barren.
What is the climate like in the Southern United States?
572ecc85cb0c0d14000f1586
subtropical
169
False
Hawaii has what type of climate?
572ecc85cb0c0d14000f1587
tropical
212
False
Which state is known for its Mediterranean climate?
572ecc85cb0c0d14000f1588
California
352
False
What contributed to the rise of the US as a world power?
572ecc85cb0c0d14000f1589
agricultural climate
420
False
What is the climate like in most areas of the US?
572ecc85cb0c0d14000f158a
temperate
144
False
United States
65
The southwestern part of what country is subtropical
5a0f35acdecec900184754c5
True
Florida
244
Hawaii and what other state or subtropical?
5a0f35acdecec900184754c6
True
100th
311
The Great Plains are erred west of what Meridian?
5a0f35acdecec900184754c7
True
the country's rise as a world power
466
The United States favorable agricultural climate hindered what?
5a0f35acdecec900184754c8
True
flooding
598
The United States has frequent droughts and widespread what?
5a0f35acdecec900184754c9
True
Due to its large size and wide range of geographic features, the United States contains examples of nearly every global climate. The climate is temperate in most areas, subtropical in the Southern United States, tropical in Hawaii and southern Florida, polar in Alaska, semiarid in the Great Plains west of the 100th meridian, Mediterranean in coastal California and arid in the Great Basin. Its comparatively favorable agricultural climate contributed (in part) to the country's rise as a world power, with infrequent severe drought in the major agricultural regions, a general lack of widespread flooding, and a mainly temperate climate that receives adequate precipitation.
Which areas have arid regions?
572ecd39dfa6aa1500f8d3db
The Great Basin and Columbia Plateau
0
False
What is the precipitation average in the Intermontane plateaus?
572ecd39dfa6aa1500f8d3dc
15 inches
190
False
In the southwest, how high do temperatures get?
572ecd39dfa6aa1500f8d3dd
100 °F (37.8 °C)
268
False
During which months are portions of the US affected by the monsoon from the Gulf of California?
572ecd39dfa6aa1500f8d3de
July to September
424
False
What type of weather do monsoons bring?
572ecd39dfa6aa1500f8d3df
severe thunderstorms
476
False
Columbia Plateau
20
The great basin and what other region are semiarid?
5a0f3653decec900184754cf
True
15 inches
190
The cascade Sierra Nevada receive how much precipitation on average
5a0f3653decec900184754d0
True
100 °F (37.8 °C)
268
South-central United States is a hot desert with temperatures exceeding what?
5a0f3653decec900184754d1
True
monsoon from the Gulf of California
383
The Southeast and great basin are affected by what?
5a0f3653decec900184754d2
True
thunderstorms
483
Monsoons bring widespread what to the region?
5a0f3653decec900184754d3
True
The Great Basin and Columbia Plateau (the Intermontane Plateaus) are arid or semiarid regions that lie in the rain shadow of the Cascades and Sierra Nevada. Precipitation averages less than 15 inches (38 cm). The Southwest is a hot desert, with temperatures exceeding 100 °F (37.8 °C) for several weeks at a time in summer. The Southwest and the Great Basin are also affected by the monsoon from the Gulf of California from July to September, which brings localized but often severe thunderstorms to the region.
What is the most prevalent type of climate nCalifornia?
572ecda5cb0c0d14000f1598
Mediterranean
33
False
During what time of the year does California receive the most rainfall?
572ecda5cb0c0d14000f1599
October–April
95
False
Which region of the US experiences rain year round?
572ecda5cb0c0d14000f159a
Pacific Northwest
157
False
Which region in the US is also one of the most snowiest places in the world?
572ecda5cb0c0d14000f159b
The Cascades
326
False
How many inches of snow do regions of the Cascades receive?
572ecda5cb0c0d14000f159c
600 inches
416
False
Mediterranean climate
33
California has little rainfall and what type of climate?
5a0f38d4decec900184754d9
True
October–April
95
California receives the least amount of rainfall during what months?
5a0f38d4decec900184754da
True
mountains of the west
248
The what mountains receive little precipitation and light snowfall?
5a0f38d4decec900184754db
True
The Cascades
326
What mountain range averages under 600 inches of snow year?
5a0f38d4decec900184754dc
True
Much of California consists of a Mediterranean climate, with sometimes excessive rainfall from October–April and nearly no rain the rest of the year. In the Pacific Northwest rain falls year-round, but is much heavier during winter and spring. The mountains of the west receive abundant precipitation and very heavy snowfall. The Cascades are one of the snowiest places in the world, with some places averaging over 600 inches (1,524 cm) of snow annually, but the lower elevations closer to the coast receive very little snow.
Which mountainous region receives the highest snowfall on Earth?
572ece1adfa6aa1500f8d3ef
mountains of the western states
16
False
Which mountain in Washington receives the most amount of snowfall?
572ece1adfa6aa1500f8d3f0
Mount Rainier
138
False
What is the record amount of snowfall at Mount Rainer?
572ece1adfa6aa1500f8d3f1
1,122 inches
214
False
In what year did Mount Rainer receive a record amount of snowfall?
572ece1adfa6aa1500f8d3f2
1998-99
399
False
The Sierra Nevadas are located near which lake?
572ece1adfa6aa1500f8d3f3
Lake Tahoe
606
False
snowfall on Earth
78
On average the mountains of the Western states receive the lowest levels of what?
5a0f39abdecec900184754e1
True
Mount Rainier
138
The lowest annual snowfall level is on what mountain?
5a0f39abdecec900184754e2
True
1,122 inches
214
Mount Baker had the highest recorded snowfall and how many inches?
5a0f39abdecec900184754e3
True
1971–72
255
In what year did Mount Baker receive the highest recorded snowfall?
5a0f39abdecec900184754e4
True
Wasatch Mountains, near the Great Salt Lake, the San Juan Mountains in Colorado, and the Sierra Nevada, near Lake Tahoe.
497
Other places significant snowfall in the cascade Range or what?
5a0f39abdecec900184754e5
True
On average, the mountains of the western states receive the highest levels of snowfall on Earth. The greatest annual snowfall level is at Mount Rainier in Washington, at 692 inches (1,758 cm); the record there was 1,122 inches (2,850 cm) in the winter of 1971–72. This record was broken by the Mt. Baker Ski Area in northwestern Washington which reported 1,140 inches (2,896 cm) of snowfall for the 1998-99 snowfall season. Other places with significant snowfall outside the Cascade Range are the Wasatch Mountains, near the Great Salt Lake, the San Juan Mountains in Colorado, and the Sierra Nevada, near Lake Tahoe.
Which regions in the East receives the most amount of snowfall?
572ecf3bcb0c0d14000f15be
Great Lakes and the mountains of the Northeast
82
False
Which region of the US receives the most amount of rainfall?
572ecf3bcb0c0d14000f15bf
northwestern Pacific coast
157
False
What is the average amount of rainfall that the Quinault rainforest in Washington receives?
572ecf3bcb0c0d14000f15c0
137 inches
309
False
Which state receives an average of 460 inches of rainfall per year?
572ecf3bcb0c0d14000f15c1
Hawaii
330
False
What is the name of the desert that is located in the driest region in the US?
572ecf3bcb0c0d14000f15c2
Mojave Desert
436
False
Great Lakes and the mountains of the Northeast
82
Which region of the East receives the least amount of snowfall?
5a0f3becdecec900184754f5
True
northwestern Pacific coast
157
Which region of the US receives the least amount of rainfall
5a0f3becdecec900184754f6
True
Quinault Rainforest
254
Was named the rain force in Oregon?
5a0f3becdecec900184754f7
True
Hawaii
330
What state receives an average of 400 inches of rainfall per year?
5a0f3becdecec900184754f8
True
Mojave Desert
436
What is the name of the joys desert in the world?
5a0f3becdecec900184754f9
True
In the east, while snowfall does not approach western levels, the region near the Great Lakes and the mountains of the Northeast receive the most. Along the northwestern Pacific coast, rainfall is greater than anywhere else in the continental U.S., with Quinault Rainforest in Washington having an average of 137 inches (348 cm). Hawaii receives even more, with 460 inches (1,168 cm) measured annually on Mount Waialeale, in Kauai. The Mojave Desert, in the southwest, is home to the driest locale in the U.S. Yuma, Arizona, has an average of 2.63 inches (6.7 cm) of precipitation each year.
Where are tornadoes most common on Earth?
572ed039c246551400ce46d6
central portions of the U.S.
3
False
During which seasons are tornados most common?
572ed039c246551400ce46d7
spring and summer
123
False
Which regions experience the worst flooding in the US?
572ed039c246551400ce46d8
Appalachian region and the Midwest
256
False
Which region experiences the worst droughts in the US?
572ed039c246551400ce46d9
Southwest
384
False
What type of disasters affects the western US every year?
572ed039c246551400ce46da
wildfires
536
False
central portions of the U.S.
3
Where tornadoes least common on earth?
5a0f3f1cdecec90018475509
True
tornadoes
33
What are most common in the summer and fall?
5a0f3f1cdecec9001847550a
True
Gulf of Mexico
236
Destructive hurricanes occur along the West Coast and where else?
5a0f3f1cdecec9001847550b
True
Midwest
283
The Northwest and what other region experienced the worst flooding in the US?
5a0f3f1cdecec9001847550c
True
wildfires
536
What disaster affects the Southwest every year?
5a0f3f1cdecec9001847550d
True
In central portions of the U.S., tornadoes are more common than anywhere else on Earth and touch down most commonly in the spring and summer. Deadly and destructive hurricanes occur almost every year along the Atlantic seaboard and the Gulf of Mexico. The Appalachian region and the Midwest experience the worst floods, though virtually no area in the U.S. is immune to flooding. The Southwest has the worst droughts; one is thought to have lasted over 500 years and to have hurt Ancestral Pueblo peoples. The West is affected by large wildfires each year.
The Great Mississippi occurred during what year?
572ed0fadfa6aa1500f8d3f9
1927
84
False
What fuels wildfires and causes them to spread in the west?
572ed0fadfa6aa1500f8d3fa
desert shrub
391
False
What type of storms can cause most activity to stop?
572ed0fadfa6aa1500f8d3fb
Nor'Easter snowstorms
613
False
What is the name of the event that caused major flooding in the western US?
572ed0fadfa6aa1500f8d3fc
El Niño
177
False
El Niño
177
What is the name of the major event that caused flooding in the eastern United States?
5a0f3f22decec90018475513
True
1927
84
The Mississippi did not flood during what year?
5a0f3f22decec90018475514
True
flash floods
585
The narrow canyons of many mounds can lead to what?
5a0f3f22decec90018475515
True
Nor'Easter
613
What type of storms occur all over the East Coast?
5a0f3f22decec90018475516
True
Occasional severe flooding is experienced. There was the Great Mississippi Flood of 1927, the Great Flood of 1993, and widespread flooding and mudslides caused by the 1982-1983 El Niño event in the western United States. Localized flooding can, however, occur anywhere, and mudslides from heavy rain can cause problems in any mountainous area, particularly the Southwest. Large stretches of desert shrub in the west can fuel the spread of wildfires. The narrow canyons of many mountain areas in the west and severe thunderstorm activity during the summer lead to sometimes devastating flash floods as well, while Nor'Easter snowstorms can bring activity to a halt throughout the Northeast (although heavy snowstorms can occur almost anywhere).
What is the area in the pacific known for heavy volcanic activity?
572ed29703f9891900756a53
Pacific Ring of Fire
171
False
The Pacific Ring of Fire contains what percentage of the earthquakes on Earth?
572ed29703f9891900756a54
90%
263
False
Which Hawaiin volcano has been erupting since 1983?
572ed29703f9891900756a55
Kilauea
562
False
When was the last time that the Hawaiin islands experienced a life threatening volcanic eruption?
572ed29703f9891900756a56
17th century
764
False
What year did Mt St. Helens erupt causing devastating damage?
572ed29703f9891900756a57
1980
845
False
Mount St. Helens
862
What volcano erupted in 1990?
5a0f4038decec90018475525
True
Pacific Ring of Fire,
171
What is the source of 80% of the world's earthquakes?
5a0f4039decec90018475526
True
Kilauea
562
What Hawaiian volcano has been erupting since 1985?
5a0f4039decec90018475527
True
17th century
764
When was the first time the Hawaiian Islands experienced a life-threatening volcanic eruption?
5a0f4039decec90018475528
True
active volcanoes in the United States
369
The American Southwest sees the highest concentration of what?
5a0f4039decec90018475529
True
The West Coast of the continental United States and areas of Alaska (including the Aleutian Islands, the Alaskan Peninsula and southern Alaskan coast) make up part of the Pacific Ring of Fire, an area of heavy tectonic and volcanic activity that is the source of 90% of the world's earthquakes.[citation needed] The American Northwest sees the highest concentration of active volcanoes in the United States, in Washington, Oregon and northern California along the Cascade Mountains. There are several active volcanoes located in the islands of Hawaii, including Kilauea in ongoing eruption since 1983, but they do not typically adversely affect the inhabitants of the islands. There has not been a major life-threatening eruption on the Hawaiian islands since the 17th century. Volcanic eruptions can occasionally be devastating, such as in the 1980 eruption of Mount St. Helens in Washington.
Compact_disc
When did Audio CDs become available for purchase?
572ec5f7cb0c0d14000f1536
1982
513
False
What does CD stand for?
572ec5f7cb0c0d14000f1537
Compact Disc
0
False
What were CD's originally created to store?
572ec5f7cb0c0d14000f1539
sound recordings
124
False
What does SVCD stand for?
572f5fe6947a6a140053c8db
Super Video Compact Disc
352
False
In what year were compact discs realesed for purchase?
572f5fe6947a6a140053c8dc
1982
513
False
What was the original intended format for CDs?
572f5fe6947a6a140053c8de
data storage
44
False
1982
513
What year were CDs changed so that they could store data?
5a5671d26349e2001acdcd56
True
Compact Disc
0
What does ROM in CD-ROM stand for?
5a5671d26349e2001acdcd57
True
CD-R
293
Which was released first; CD-R or CD-RW?
5a5671d26349e2001acdcd58
True
commercially available since October 1982
476
Who created the CD?
5a5671d26349e2001acdcd59
True
Audio CDs
435
What does CD-i stand for?
5a5671d26349e2001acdcd5a
True
Compact Disc (CD) is a digital optical disc data storage format. The format was originally developed to store and play only sound recordings but was later adapted for storage of data (CD-ROM). Several other formats were further derived from these, including write-once audio and data storage (CD-R), rewritable media (CD-RW), Video Compact Disc (VCD), Super Video Compact Disc (SVCD), Photo CD, PictureCD, CD-i, and Enhanced Music CD. Audio CDs and audio CD players have been commercially available since October 1982.
In what year were digital and physical music sales the same?
572ec816c246551400ce4656
2014
409
False
How many CDs had been distrubuted worldwide by 2007?
572ec816c246551400ce4657
200 billion
98
False
What percent decrease did audio CD sales experience?
572ec816c246551400ce4658
50%
300
False
How many CDs had been distrubuted around the world by 2007?
572f6096b2c2fd140056808c
200 billion
98
False
In 2004 how many CDs had been sold around the world?
572f6096b2c2fd140056808d
30 billion
71
False
2014
409
What year did digital media begin to replace CDs?
5a5672ad6349e2001acdcd68
True
200 billion
98
How many CDs had been sold in the US by 2007?
5a5672ad6349e2001acdcd69
True
2007
92
In what year did CD sales peak?
5a5672ad6349e2001acdcd6a
True
they remain one of the primary distribution methods
330
Why are CD sales doing better than digital storage services?
5a5672ad6349e2001acdcd6b
True
dropped about 50%
286
How have CD sales changed internationally?
5a5672ad6349e2001acdcd6c
True
In 2004, worldwide sales of audio CDs, CD-ROMs and CD-Rs reached about 30 billion discs. By 2007, 200 billion CDs had been sold worldwide. CDs are increasingly being replaced by other forms of digital storage and distribution, with the result that audio CD sales rates in the U.S. have dropped about 50% from their peak; however, they remain one of the primary distribution methods for the music industry. In 2014, revenues from digital music services matched those from physical format sales for the first time.
Who created Compact Disc prototypes in the 1970s?
572ec92bdfa6aa1500f8d3b5
Philips and Sony
213
False
How lond did the creation of Red Book CD-DA standard take?
572ec92bdfa6aa1500f8d3b6
a year
370
False
How many CD players were sold in the United States in their first year?
572ec92bdfa6aa1500f8d3b8
400,000
594
False
What did the CD evolve from?
572f6c84b2c2fd1400568101
LaserDisc
36
False
What made it possible for CDs to be played on any companies CD player?
572f6c84b2c2fd1400568102
unified design
831
False
To what does the compact disc owe its prosperity?
572f6c84b2c2fd1400568103
cooperation between Philips and Sony
724
False
What year did CD players become available for purchase?
572f6c84b2c2fd1400568104
1982
497
False
Philips
213
Which company created the CD first?
5a5673a56349e2001acdcd72
True
400,000
594
How many CD players sold in 1984?
5a5673a56349e2001acdcd73
True
late 1970s
251
What year was the LaserDisc created?
5a5673a56349e2001acdcd74
True
between 1983 and 1984
644
How long was the Red Book CD-DA in print?
5a5673a56349e2001acdcd75
True
the CD to dominate the at-home music market unchallenged.
945
How were customers disadvantaged by the Philips and Sony merger?
5a5673a56349e2001acdcd76
True
The Compact Disc is an evolution of LaserDisc technology, where a focused laser beam is used that enables the high information density required for high-quality digital audio signals. Prototypes were developed by Philips and Sony independently in the late 1970s. In 1979, Sony and Philips set up a joint task force of engineers to design a new digital audio disc. After a year of experimentation and discussion, the Red Book CD-DA standard was published in 1980. After their commercial release in 1982, compact discs and their players were extremely popular. Despite costing up to $1,000, over 400,000 CD players were sold in the United States between 1983 and 1984. The success of the compact disc has been credited to the cooperation between Philips and Sony, who came together to agree upon and develop compatible hardware. The unified design of the compact disc allowed consumers to purchase any disc or player from any company, and allowed the CD to dominate the at-home music market unchallenged.
In what year did Philips institute a laboratory to create a digital audio disc?
572ecc7bdfa6aa1500f8d3d3
1977
368
False
What was the proposed diameter for the original compact disc?
572ecc7bdfa6aa1500f8d3d4
11.5 cm
523
False
What year did Philips propse the idea of a digital audio format?
572ecc7bdfa6aa1500f8d3d5
1974
359
False
Who was the director of the Philips audio division in 1974?
572ecc7bdfa6aa1500f8d3d6
L. Ottens
9
False
L. Ottens
9
What Philips engineer recommended a digital format?
5a56743b6349e2001acdcd82
True
the diagonal of an audio cassette
532
What was the 20cm diameter based on?
5a56743b6349e2001acdcd83
True
1977
368
What year was the digital audio disc released?
5a56743b6349e2001acdcd84
True
two
290
How many engineer recommended the 11.5 cm diameter?
5a56743b6349e2001acdcd85
True
L. Ottens
9
Who was the director of Philips by 1977?
5a56743b6349e2001acdcd86
True
In 1974, L. Ottens, director of the audio division of Philips, started a small group with the aim to develop an analog optical audio disc with a diameter of 20 cm and a sound quality superior to that of the vinyl record. However, due to the unsatisfactory performance of the analog format, two Philips research engineers recommended a digital format in March 1974. In 1977, Philips then established a laboratory with the mission of creating a digital audio disc. The diameter of Philips's prototype compact disc was set at 11.5 cm, the diagonal of an audio cassette.
Where was the 62nd AES Convention held?
572ecf7acb0c0d14000f15c8
Brussels
1069
False
Who was the general manger of Sony's audio department in 1971?
572ecf7bcb0c0d14000f15c9
Heitaro Nakajima
0
False
What year did Sony first exhibit the use of an optical digital audio disc?
572ecf7bcb0c0d14000f15ca
1976
460
False
Where was the Philips Introduce Compact disc conference held?
572ecf7bcb0c0d14000f15cc
Eindhoven, Netherlands
1303
False
What did Nakajima's team use to create a digital PCM adaptor audio tape recorder?
572f62b404bcaa1900d768b5
Betamax video recorder
262
False
When did Sony release it's AES technical paper?
572f62b404bcaa1900d768b9
1 March 1979
1123
False
Brussels
1069
What Japanese city is NHK located in?
5a5676156349e2001acdcd8c
True
Heitaro Nakajima
0
Who was Sony's general manager in 1970?
5a5676156349e2001acdcd8d
True
1976
460
When was the Betamax video recorder created?
5a5676156349e2001acdcd8e
True
60 minutes
550
How many minutes could Sony's 1976 optical digital disk play?
5a5676156349e2001acdcd8f
True
44,056 Hz
754
What was the sampling rate of Philips' 1979 optical digital dic?
5a5676156349e2001acdcd90
True
Heitaro Nakajima, who developed an early digital audio recorder within Japan's national public broadcasting organization NHK in 1970, became general manager of Sony's audio department in 1971. His team developed a digital PCM adaptor audio tape recorder using a Betamax video recorder in 1973. After this, in 1974 the leap to storing digital audio on an optical disc was easily made. Sony first publicly demonstrated an optical digital audio disc in September 1976. A year later, in September 1977, Sony showed the press a 30 cm disc that could play 60 minutes of digital audio (44,100 Hz sampling rate and 16-bit resolution) using MFM modulation. In September 1978, the company demonstrated an optical digital audio disc with a 150-minute playing time, 44,056 Hz sampling rate, 16-bit linear resolution, and cross-interleaved error correction code—specifications similar to those later settled upon for the standard Compact Disc format in 1980. Technical details of Sony's digital audio disc were presented during the 62nd AES Convention, held on 13–16 March 1979, in Brussels. Sony's AES technical paper was published on 1 March 1979. A week later, on 8 March, Philips publicly demonstrated a prototype of an optical digital audio disc at a press conference called "Philips Introduce Compact Disc" in Eindhoven, Netherlands.
In what year did Sony and Philips band together to design a new digital audio disc?
572ed1a3dfa6aa1500f8d401
1979
16
False
What year was the Red Book CD-DA standard released?
572ed1a3dfa6aa1500f8d402
1980
356
False
When did the IEC isntigate the Red Book CD-DA as an international standard?
572ed1a3dfa6aa1500f8d403
1987
439
False
Who headed the 1979 Sony and Philips digital audio disc task force?
572ed1a3dfa6aa1500f8d404
Kees Schouhamer Immink and Toshitada Doi
131
False
Sony
22
Which company did Kees Schouhamer Immink work for?
5a5678176349e2001acdcd96
True
Red Book CD-DA standard
312
What did the team create five years after joining?
5a5678176349e2001acdcd97
True
international standard
413
What does IEC stand for?
5a5678176349e2001acdcd98
True
IEC
403
Who wrote the amendments in 1996?
5a5678176349e2001acdcd99
True
laser and optical disc technology
201
What did CD-DA stand for?
5a5678176349e2001acdcd9a
True
As a result, in 1979, Sony and Philips set up a joint task force of engineers to design a new digital audio disc. Led by engineers Kees Schouhamer Immink and Toshitada Doi, the research pushed forward laser and optical disc technology. After a year of experimentation and discussion, the task force produced the Red Book CD-DA standard. First published in 1980, the standard was formally adopted by the IEC as an international standard in 1987, with various amendments becoming part of the standard in 1996.
Who first sold a million copies on CD?
572ed426dfa6aa1500f8d41b
Dire Straits
645
False
Which artist was the first to have their full catalogue converted to CD?
572ed426dfa6aa1500f8d41c
David Bowie
771
False
What year was the Dire Straits album Brothers in Arms released?
572ed426dfa6aa1500f8d41d
1985
670
False
How many CDs were mass produced in 1988?
572ed426dfa6aa1500f8d41f
400 million
907
False
How many studio albums did David Bowie release in February 1985?
572f63fc04bcaa1900d768cb
15
790
False
The Japanese launch was followed in March 1983 by the introduction of CD players and discs to Europe and North America (where CBS Records released sixteen titles). This event is often seen as the "Big Bang" of the digital audio revolution. The new audio disc was enthusiastically received, especially in the early-adopting classical music and audiophile communities, and its handling quality received particular praise. As the price of players gradually came down, and with the introduction of the portable Walkman the CD began to gain popularity in the larger popular and rock music markets. The first artist to sell a million copies on CD was Dire Straits, with their 1985 album Brothers in Arms. The first major artist to have his entire catalogue converted to CD was David Bowie, whose 15 studio albums were made available by RCA Records in February 1985, along with four greatest hits albums. In 1988, 400 million CDs were manufactured by 50 pressing plants around the world.
What does ROM stand for?
572ed6a6dfa6aa1500f8d439
read-only memory
412
False
What year did Sony and Philips release CD-Recordable?
572ed6a6dfa6aa1500f8d43a
1990
438
False
What year was the 73rd AES Convention?
572ed6a6dfa6aa1500f8d43c
1983
220
False
What was the CDs predecessor?
572f6486b2c2fd14005680af
gramophone record
46
False
1983
220
When was the gramophone released?
5a567a6f6349e2001acdcda0
True
defects introduced in compression
615
What was the problem with recordable CDs?
5a567a6f6349e2001acdcda1
True
1990
438
When was the DVD first released?
5a567a6f6349e2001acdcda2
True
both Sony and Philips
493
Who created the DVD and Blu-ray discs?
5a567a6f6349e2001acdcda3
True
Immink and Braat
259
Who created the gramophone?
5a567a6f6349e2001acdcda4
True
The CD was planned to be the successor of the gramophone record for playing music, rather than primarily as a data storage medium. From its origins as a musical format, CDs have grown to encompass other applications. In 1983, following the CD's introduction, Immink and Braat presented the first experiments with erasable compact discs during the 73rd AES Convention. In June 1985, the computer-readable CD-ROM (read-only memory) and, in 1990, CD-Recordable were introduced, also developed by both Sony and Philips. Recordable CDs were a new alternative to tape for recording music and copying music albums without defects introduced in compression used in other digital recording methods. Other newer video formats such as DVD and Blu-ray use the same physical geometry as CD, and most DVD and Blu-ray players are backward compatible with audio CD.
What portion of music sales did CDs and DVDs account for in the United States as of 2012?
572eda3ec246551400ce4727
34 percent
516
False
Which country attributes over 80 percent of its music sales to physical formats?
572eda3ec246551400ce4728
Japan
567
False
How are MP3s compressed?
572eda3ec246551400ce4729
lossily-compressed
85
False
When did CD sales experience their original decline?
572f657cb2c2fd14005680c4
2000s
168
False
What has caused a decrease in CD sales?
572f657cb2c2fd14005680c5
Internet-based distribution of files
45
False
2008
203
In what year did CDs have an unusual spike in sales?
5a567c226349e2001acdcdb0
True
34
516
What percentage of music sales do MP3s make up?
5a567c226349e2001acdcdb1
True
lossily-compressed
85
How are CDs compressed?
5a567c226349e2001acdcdb2
True
20%
324
By what percentage have DIY and independent CDs increased?
5a567c226349e2001acdcdb3
True
2015
659
When did MP3 sales take off in Japan?
5a567c226349e2001acdcdb4
True
Meanwhile, with the advent and popularity of Internet-based distribution of files in lossily-compressed audio formats such as MP3, sales of CDs began to decline in the 2000s. For example, between 2000 - 2008, despite overall growth in music sales and one anomalous year of increase, major-label CD sales declined overall by 20%, although independent and DIY music sales may be tracking better according to figures released 30 March 2009, and CDs still continue to sell greatly. As of 2012, CDs and DVDs made up only 34 percent of music sales in the United States. In Japan, however, over 80 percent of music was bought on CDs and other physical formats as of 2015.
How are CDs mass produced?
572f6665a23a5019007fc5d7
hydraulic press
51
False
What type of material is used to make CDs?
572f6665a23a5019007fc5d8
raw polycarbonate plastic
93
False
What size is the diameter of the center hole in a CD?
572f6665a23a5019007fc5d9
15 mm
397
False
How long does it take to stamp out one CD?
572f6665a23a5019007fc5da
two to three seconds
508
False
What is the term for the center hole in a CD?
572f6665a23a5019007fc5db
stacking ring
434
False
15 mm diameter
397
How large is the screw that forces the plastic into the cavity?
5a568fd86349e2001acdce34
True
two to three seconds
508
How long does it take the plastic to cool?
5a568fd86349e2001acdce35
True
a stacking ring
432
What is the robotic arm called?
5a568fd86349e2001acdce36
True
raw polycarbonate plastic
93
What is a hydraulic press made out of?
5a568fd86349e2001acdce37
True
a robotic arm
376
What closes the mold?
5a568fd86349e2001acdce38
True
Replicated CDs are mass-produced initially using a hydraulic press. Small granules of heated raw polycarbonate plastic are fed into the press. A screw forces the liquefied plastic into the mold cavity. The mold closes with a metal stamper in contact with the disc surface. The plastic is allowed to cool and harden. Once opened, the disc substrate is removed from the mold by a robotic arm, and a 15 mm diameter center hole (called a stacking ring) is created. The time it takes to "stamp" one CD is usually two to three seconds.
What materials can be used to make the reflective layer on a CD?
572f671cb2c2fd14005680dd
usually aluminium, but sometimes gold or other metal
98
False
What type of light is used to cure CDs?
572f671cb2c2fd14005680de
UV
215
False
What is a glass master?
572f671cb2c2fd14005680df
positive image of the desired CD surface
402
False
How are glass masters created?
572f671cb2c2fd14005680e0
high-powered laser
325
False
aluminium, but sometimes gold or other metal
106
What is the clear blank side made out of?
5a5690796349e2001acdce46
True
UV light
215
What is used to apply the reflecting layer to the clear layer?
5a5690796349e2001acdce47
True
a positive image of the desired CD surface
400
How is a CD writer made?
5a5690796349e2001acdce48
True
The glass master
380
How is a positive image made of the CD made?
5a5690796349e2001acdce49
True
pressing it against a metal disc
533
How are the pits and lands made?
5a5690796349e2001acdce4a
True
This method produces the clear plastic blank part of the disc. After a metallic reflecting layer (usually aluminium, but sometimes gold or other metal) is applied to the clear blank substrate, the disc goes under a UV light for curing and it is ready to go to press. To prepare to press a CD, a glass master is made, using a high-powered laser on a device similar to a CD writer. The glass master is a positive image of the desired CD surface (with the desired microscopic pits and lands). After testing, it is used to make a die by pressing it against a metal disc.
What is the term for a negative image of the glass master?
572f67c704bcaa1900d768e5
die
4
False
How is the positive image on a CD protected?
572f67c704bcaa1900d768e6
lacquer
294
False
How is lacquer distrubted on a CD?
572f67c704bcaa1900d768e7
rapid spinning
358
False
die
4
What is the name of the positive image?
5a569e7f6349e2001acdce98
True
lacquer
294
What is liquid is applied to the blank CD?
5a569e7f6349e2001acdce99
True
A small amount of lacquer
276
How much edge protection lacquer is needed for the finished disc?
5a569e7f6349e2001acdce9a
True
rapid spinning
358
How is the physical image placed on the blank CD?
5a569e7f6349e2001acdce9b
True
The die is a negative image of the glass master: typically, several are made, depending on the number of pressing mills that are to make the CD. The die then goes into a press, and the physical image is transferred to the blank CD, leaving a final positive image on the disc. A small amount of lacquer is applied as a ring around the center of the disc, and rapid spinning spreads it evenly over the surface. Edge protection lacquer is applied before the disc is finished. The disc can then be printed and packed.
What is the priciest component of a CD?
572f68b3a23a5019007fc5e1
jewel case
39
False
Why did the cost of audio music increase when the production costs decreased?
572f68b3a23a5019007fc5e2
value increased
604
False
What did CDs retail for in 1995?
572f68b3a23a5019007fc5e3
$16.98
200
False
Who received the most profit from the sale of CDs?
572f68b3a23a5019007fc5e4
the store
220
False
How much did a jewel case cost in 1995?
572f68b3a23a5019007fc5e5
30 cents
80
False
the cost to produce the media was reduced
526
Why were successive formats less expensive than their predecessors?
5a569f636349e2001acdcea0
True
1995
54
When did Apple place MP3s on the market?
5a569f636349e2001acdcea1
True
10 to 15 cents
112
What was the wholesale cost of a cassette tape?
5a569f636349e2001acdcea2
True
the jewel case
93
What was the most expensive part of an MP3?
5a569f636349e2001acdcea3
True
13 percent
342
What percentage of an MP3 does Apple receive?
5a569f636349e2001acdcea4
True
The most expensive part of a CD is the jewel case. In 1995, material costs were 30 cents for the jewel case and 10 to 15 cents for the CD. Wholesale cost of CDs was $0.75 to $1.15, which retailed for $16.98. On average, the store received 35 percent of the retail price, the record company 27 percent, the artist 16 percent, the manufacturer 13 percent, and the distributor 9 percent. When 8-track tapes, cassette tapes, and CDs were introduced, each was marketed at a higher price than the format they succeeded, even though the cost to produce the media was reduced. This was done because the apparent value increased. This continued from vinyl to CDs but was broken when Apple marketed MP3s for $0.99, and albums for $9.99. The incremental cost, though, to produce an MP3 is very small.
How long are CDs expected to last?
572f696704bcaa1900d768fd
20 to 100 years
232
False
What can cause sudden disc degradation?
572f696704bcaa1900d768fe
disc rot
495
False
Are CDs meant for permanent or temporary use?
572f696704bcaa1900d768ff
permanent
35
False
physical characteristics may change
67
What can the aluminium on a disc cause reading errors?
5a56a17e6349e2001acdceb6
True
The design life is from 20 to 100 years
208
Why does disc rot allow CD-Rs to last for years?
5a56a17e6349e2001acdceb7
True
degradation of some discs in as little as 18 months
385
Why are CD-Rs considered temporary?
5a56a17e6349e2001acdceb8
True
testing
355
What company discovered disc rot?
5a56a17e6349e2001acdceb9
True
normal storage conditions
443
What type of environment is best for a CD-R?
5a56a17e6349e2001acdceba
True
CD-R recordings are designed to be permanent. Over time, the dye's physical characteristics may change causing read errors and data loss until the reading device cannot recover with error correction methods. The design life is from 20 to 100 years, depending on the quality of the discs, the quality of the writing drive, and storage conditions. However, testing has demonstrated such degradation of some discs in as little as 18 months under normal storage conditions. This failure is known as disc rot, for which there are several, mostly environmental, reasons.
What does SCMS stand for?
572f6a6504bcaa1900d76903
Serial Copy Management System
189
False
What does DRM stand for?
572f6a6504bcaa1900d76904
digital rights management
244
False
What does AHRA stand for?
572f6a6504bcaa1900d76905
Audio Home Recording Act
310
False
What type of CD is intended to be used in a Consumer audio CD Recorder?
572f6a6504bcaa1900d76906
ReWritable Audio CD
4
False
Which is less expensive, the ReWritable Audio CD or a CD-RW?
572f6a6504bcaa1900d76907
CD-RW
409
False
consumer audio CD recorder
52
What plays standard CD-RW discs without changes?
5a56ac736349e2001acdced0
True
3%
449
What royalties does a CD-RW have?
5a56ac736349e2001acdced1
True
early
230
What year was the digital rights management published?
5a56ac736349e2001acdced2
True
United States' Audio Home Recording Act
295
What is the international standard for home recordings?
5a56ac736349e2001acdced3
True
(a) lower volume and (b) a 3% AHRA royalty
422
Why is the CD-RW more expensive than the ReWritable CD?
5a56ac736349e2001acdced4
True
The ReWritable Audio CD is designed to be used in a consumer audio CD recorder, which will not (without modification) accept standard CD-RW discs. These consumer audio CD recorders use the Serial Copy Management System (SCMS), an early form of digital rights management (DRM), to conform to the United States' Audio Home Recording Act (AHRA). The ReWritable Audio CD is typically somewhat more expensive than CD-RW due to (a) lower volume and (b) a 3% AHRA royalty used to compensate the music industry for the making of a copy.
How fast could the first ReWritable CD be written?
572f6b14a23a5019007fc5f3
4x speed
89
False
Which CD has writing speeds betwen 4x and 12x?
572f6b14a23a5019007fc5f4
High Speed ReWritable CD
99
False
How fast can Ultra Speed+ CDs write?
572f6b14a23a5019007fc5f5
32x
514
False
How fast can Ultra Speed CDs write?
572f6b14a23a5019007fc5f6
16x to 24x
472
False
original ReWritable CD
34
What has only a 1x write speed?
5a56aed56349e2001acdceda
True
Both
376
Which type of CD-RW cannot be read on a CD drive?
5a56aed56349e2001acdcedb
True
High Speed ReWritable CDs
349
Does a High Speed CD-RW drive write faster on ReWriteable CDs or High Speed ReWritable CDs?
5a56aed56349e2001acdcedc
True
High Speed ReWritable CDs
349
Which ReWriteable CD is most common?
5a56aed56349e2001acdcedd
True
technical limitations
7
Why was the original ReWriteable CD written only at speeds faster than 4x?
5a56aed56349e2001acdcede
True
Due to technical limitations, the original ReWritable CD could be written no faster than 4x speed. High Speed ReWritable CD has a different design, which permits writing at speeds ranging from 4x to 12x. Original CD-RW drives can only write to original ReWritable CDs. High Speed CD-RW drives can typically write to both original ReWritable CDs and High Speed ReWritable CDs. Both types of CD-RW discs can be read in most CD drives. Higher speed CD-RW discs, Ultra Speed (16x to 24x write speed) and Ultra Speed+ (32x write speed) are now available.
Where is the semiconductor laser found in a CD player?
572f6eacb2c2fd1400568109
on a swing arm
435
False
What wavelenght is used to pull data from a CD?
572f6eacb2c2fd140056810a
780 nm
27
False
In what pattern is data stored on a CD?
572f6eacb2c2fd140056810b
spiral
377
False
What is used to discern the change of intensity in light on a CD?
572f6eacb2c2fd140056810c
photodiode
301
False
What createds the change in light reflected off of a CD?
572f6eacb2c2fd140056810d
change in height between pits and lands
161
False
780 nm
27
How long is the swing arm?
5a567d306349e2001acdcdc4
True
the bottom of the polycarbonate layer
118
How many layers of polycarbonate are there?
5a567d306349e2001acdcdc5
True
without having to interrupt the spinning of the disc itself.
580
Why is the data arranged in a spiral pattern?
5a567d306349e2001acdcdc6
True
within the disc tray
450
Where is the photodiode?
5a567d306349e2001acdcdc7
True
the way the light is reflected
228
What does the width of a pit indicate?
5a567d306349e2001acdcdc8
True
A CD is read by focusing a 780 nm wavelength (near infrared) semiconductor laser housed within the CD player, through the bottom of the polycarbonate layer. The change in height between pits and lands results in a difference in the way the light is reflected. By measuring the intensity change with a photodiode, the data can be read from the disc. In order to accommodate the spiral pattern of data, the semiconductor laser is placed on a swing arm within the disc tray of any CD player. This swing arm allows the laser to read information from the centre to the edge of a disc, without having to interrupt the spinning of the disc itself.
What type of encoding do CDs implement?
572f6f8fb2c2fd1400568113
non-return-to-zero
100
False
Where can one find the encoding techniques for CDs?
572f6f8fb2c2fd1400568114
Red Book
618
False
What type of result from a CD will return a one?
572f6f8fb2c2fd1400568115
change from pit to land or land to pit
149
False
What type of modulation is implemented when a disc is mastered?
572f6f8fb2c2fd1400568116
eight-to-fourteen
406
False
at least two and no more than ten
264
How many ones are there between each zero?
5a56836e6349e2001acdcdce
True
the Red Book
614
What decodes the eight-to-fourteen modulation?
5a56836e6349e2001acdcdcf
True
eight-to-fourteen modulation
406
What is Reed-Solomon coding?
5a56836e6349e2001acdcdd0
True
Reed–Solomon
504
Who designed the CD Digital Audio coding techniques?
5a56836e6349e2001acdcdd1
True
one
200
What does a land represent?
5a56836e6349e2001acdcdd2
True
The pits and lands themselves do not directly represent the zeros and ones of binary data. Instead, non-return-to-zero, inverted encoding is used: a change from pit to land or land to pit indicates a one, while no change indicates a series of zeros. There must be at least two and no more than ten zeros between each one, which is defined by the length of the pit. This in turn is decoded by reversing the eight-to-fourteen modulation used in mastering the disc, and then reversing the cross-interleaved Reed–Solomon coding, finally revealing the raw data stored on the disc. These encoding techniques (defined in the Red Book) were originally designed for CD Digital Audio, but they later became a standard for almost all CD formats (such as CD-ROM).
Where can one expect to find damage on a disc?
572f7039947a6a140053c95e
label side of the disc
275
False
How are scratches on a CD fixed?
572f7039947a6a140053c95f
refilling them with similar refractive plastic or by careful polishing
346
False
What eats at the plastic and aluminum found in CDs?
572f7039947a6a140053c960
fungus Geotrichum candidum
597
False
Where does the fungus Geotrichum candidum originate from?
572f7039947a6a140053c961
Belize
634
False
Belize
634
Where is polycarbonate plastic created?
5a56842a6349e2001acdcdd8
True
the label side of a disc
103
What are lands closer to?
5a56842a6349e2001acdcdd9
True
refilling them with similar refractive plastic or by careful polishing
346
How are scratches on the labeled side of a disc fixed?
5a56842a6349e2001acdcdda
True
Geotrichum candidum
604
What causes edges of CDs to be incorrectly sealed?
5a56842a6349e2001acdcddb
True
the clear side
166
Where is the metal reflective layer located?
5a56842a6349e2001acdcddc
True
CDs are susceptible to damage during handling and from environmental exposure. Pits are much closer to the label side of a disc, enabling defects and contaminants on the clear side to be out of focus during playback. Consequently, CDs are more likely to suffer damage on the label side of the disc. Scratches on the clear side can be repaired by refilling them with similar refractive plastic or by careful polishing. The edges of CDs are sometimes incompletely sealed, allowing gases and liquids to corrode the metal reflective layer and to interfere with the focus of the laser on the pits. The fungus Geotrichum candidum, found in Belize, has been found to consume the polycarbonate plastic and aluminium found in CDs.
Where is the start of data on a CD?
572f7102a23a5019007fc631
the center
35
False
What size CD is most frequently used?
572f7102a23a5019007fc632
120 millimetres (4.7 in)
221
False
What is the size of a Mini CD?
572f7102a23a5019007fc633
Eighty-millimeter
930
False
What is the size of a Maxi Single?
572f7102a23a5019007fc634
120 mm
1152
False
Who was the Sony Executive in 1980?
572f7102a23a5019007fc635
Norio Ohga
410
False
Norio Ohga
410
Who named the Maxi single?
5a5685066349e2001acdcde2
True
97 minutes
737
How many minutes does a Super Audio CD hold?
5a5685066349e2001acdcde3
True
1980
658
When were Mini-CDs released?
5a5685066349e2001acdcde4
True
The digital data on a CD begins at the center of the disc and proceeds toward the edge
0
Why are CDs limited to one size?
5a5685066349e2001acdcde5
True
May 1980
654
When was the London Philharmonic Orchestra's recording of the Ninth Symphony created?
5a5685066349e2001acdcde6
True
The digital data on a CD begins at the center of the disc and proceeds toward the edge, which allows adaptation to the different size formats available. Standard CDs are available in two sizes. By far, the most common is 120 millimetres (4.7 in) in diameter, with a 74- or 80-minute audio capacity and a 650 or 700 MiB (737,280,000-byte) data capacity. This capacity was reportedly specified by Sony executive Norio Ohga in May 1980 so as to be able to contain the entirety of the London Philharmonic Orchestra's recording of Beethoven's Ninth Symphony on one disc. This is a myth according to Kees Immink, as the code format had not yet been decided in May 1980. The adoption of EFM one month later would have allowed a playing time of 97 minutes for 120 mm diameter or 74 minutes for a disc as small as 100 mm. The 120 mm diameter has been adopted by subsequent formats, including Super Audio CD, DVD, HD DVD, and Blu-ray Disc. Eighty-millimeter discs ("Mini CDs") were originally designed for CD singles and can hold up to 24 minutes of music or 210 MiB of data but never became popular.[citation needed] Today, nearly every single is released on a 120 mm CD, called a Maxi single.[citation needed]
Where does the Red Book get it's name from?
572f71df04bcaa1900d76965
the colour of its cover
240
False
What is the formal name for a CD?
572f71df04bcaa1900d76966
Compact Disc Digital Audio
46
False
Do CDs have a two or four channel format?
572f71df04bcaa1900d76967
two-channel
281
False
What format has never been implemented on CDs?
572f71df04bcaa1900d76968
Four-channel sound
354
False
44.1 kHz
318
What was the sampling rate for the four-channel sound?
5a5686346349e2001acdcdec
True
1980
122
When was four-channel sound implemented?
5a5686346349e2001acdcded
True
16-bit PCM encoding at a 44.1 kHz
293
What is the Red Book format for monaural audio?
5a5686346349e2001acdcdee
True
The logical format of an audio CD
0
What is the official name of the Red Book?
5a5686346349e2001acdcdef
True
16-bit
293
What is the PCM for an MP3 mono sound chanel?
5a5686346349e2001acdcdf0
True
The logical format of an audio CD (officially Compact Disc Digital Audio or CD-DA) is described in a document produced in 1980 by the format's joint creators, Sony and Philips. The document is known colloquially as the Red Book CD-DA after the colour of its cover. The format is a two-channel 16-bit PCM encoding at a 44.1 kHz sampling rate per channel. Four-channel sound was to be an allowable option within the Red Book format, but has never been implemented. Monaural audio has no existing standard on a Red Book CD; thus, mono source material is usually presented as two identical channels in a standard Red Book stereo track (i.e., mirrored mono); an MP3 CD, however, can have audio file formats with mono sound.
What is the primary use of Compact Disc + Graphics?
572f72d8a23a5019007fc63b
to display lyrics on a television set for karaoke
382
False
How is graphics information read from a CD+ Graphics?
572f72d8a23a5019007fc63c
television set or a computer monitor
300
False
Which channels does the CD+G use to hold graphics data?
572f72d8a23a5019007fc63d
channels R through W
502
False
it can output a graphics signal
222
Why can a CD+G not play on an audio CD player?
5a5686d86349e2001acdcdfe
True
six
530
How many bits does a normal CD use?
5a5686d86349e2001acdcdff
True
hooked up to a television set or a computer monitor
285
Why are CD-G players not useful for karaoke?
5a5686d86349e2001acdce00
True
R through W
511
What channels does a normal CD use?
5a5686d86349e2001acdce01
True
Compact Disc + Graphics is a special audio compact disc that contains graphics data in addition to the audio data on the disc. The disc can be played on a regular audio CD player, but when played on a special CD+G player, it can output a graphics signal (typically, the CD+G player is hooked up to a television set or a computer monitor); these graphics are almost exclusively used to display lyrics on a television set for karaoke performers to sing along with. The CD+G format takes advantage of the channels R through W. These six bits store the graphics information.
How much video can a CD-R contain?
572f73b704bcaa1900d7696d
60 minutes
114
False
Which has better resolution, a VCD or SVCD?
572f73b704bcaa1900d7696e
SVCD
0
False
How are lengthy videos fit onto SVCDs?
572f73b704bcaa1900d7696f
lower the video bit rate
252
False
What is the maximum amount of video a SVCD can properly hold?
572f73b704bcaa1900d76970
100 minutes
380
False
60 minutes
114
How much can a VCD hold?
5a56886d6349e2001acdce06
True
one must lower the video bit rate, and therefore quality
243
Why is there a video length limit on SVCD?
5a56886d6349e2001acdce07
True
300 to 600 kilobits per second
552
What is the kilobit rate for a DVD?
5a56886d6349e2001acdce08
True
two-thirds the resolution
9
How does a VCN compare to a DVD?
5a56886d6349e2001acdce09
True
significant quality loss
433
Why is it difficult to put more than 60 minutes on a DVD?
5a56886d6349e2001acdce0a
True
SVCD has two-thirds the resolution of DVD, and over 2.7 times the resolution of VCD. One CD-R disc can hold up to 60 minutes of standard quality SVCD-format video. While no specific limit on SVCD video length is mandated by the specification, one must lower the video bit rate, and therefore quality, to accommodate very long videos. It is usually difficult to fit much more than 100 minutes of video onto one SVCD without incurring significant quality loss, and many hardware players are unable to play video with an instantaneous bit rate lower than 300 to 600 kilobits per second.
Who created Photo CDs?
572f748904bcaa1900d7697f
Kodak
33
False
When were Photo CDs initially released?
572f748904bcaa1900d76980
1992
94
False
How many images could Photo CDs initially contain?
572f748904bcaa1900d76981
100
139
False
What type of paper can Photo CD images be produced on?
572f748904bcaa1900d76982
photographic paper
515
False
In what book are Photo CD standards defined?
572f748904bcaa1900d76983
Beige Book
255
False
1992
94
When was the Beige Book published?
5a5689d46349e2001acdce1a
True
100 high-quality images
139
How many photos does the CD-ROM XA hold?
5a5689d46349e2001acdce1b
True
Kodak
33
Who invented CD-i Players?
5a5689d46349e2001acdce1c
True
special Kodak machine
541
Why can't Photo CDs work on any computer?
5a5689d46349e2001acdce1d
True
1992
94
When was the Kodak Picture CD released?
5a5689d46349e2001acdce1e
True
Photo CD is a system designed by Kodak for digitizing and storing photos on a CD. Launched in 1992, the discs were designed to hold nearly 100 high-quality images, scanned prints and slides using special proprietary encoding. Photo CDs are defined in the Beige Book and conform to the CD-ROM XA and CD-i Bridge specifications as well. They are intended to play on CD-i players, Photo CD players and any computer with the suitable software irrespective of the operating system. The images can also be printed out on photographic paper with a special Kodak machine. This format is not to be confused with Kodak Picture CD, which is a consumer product in CD-ROM format.
When did record companies first attempt to protect their CDs from copying?
572f757a04bcaa1900d76993
2001
167
False
Who said that protected CDs are not allowed to carry the CDDA logo?
572f757a04bcaa1900d76994
Philips
513
False
Where does the Red Book mention copy protection?
572f757a04bcaa1900d76995
in the subcode
76
False
2001
167
When was the "anti-copy" subcode written in the Red Book?
5a56b1046349e2001acdcee4
True
Philips
513
Who created the anti-protection systems software?
5a56b1046349e2001acdcee5
True
2001
167
When was the Compact Disc Digital Audio logo copyrighted?
5a56b1046349e2001acdcee6
True
computer CD-ROM drives or some standalone CD players that use CD-ROM mechanisms
432
What devices do standard CDs not play on?
5a56b1046349e2001acdcee7
True
they violate the Red Book specifications
630
Why does Philips want non-standard discs to have the trademarked logo?
5a56b1046349e2001acdcee8
True
The Red Book audio specification, except for a simple "anti-copy" statement in the subcode, does not include any copy protection mechanism. Known at least as early as 2001, attempts were made by record companies to market "copy-protected" non-standard compact discs, which cannot be ripped, or copied, to hard drives or easily converted to MP3s. One major drawback to these copy-protected discs is that most will not play on either computer CD-ROM drives or some standalone CD players that use CD-ROM mechanisms. Philips has stated that such discs are not permitted to bear the trademarked Compact Disc Digital Audio logo because they violate the Red Book specifications. Numerous copy-protection systems have been countered by readily available, often free, software.
Transistor
What is the use of a transistor?
572ed956c246551400ce471c
to amplify or switch electronic signals and electrical power
44
False
What is a transistor made of?
572ed956c246551400ce471d
semiconductor material
124
False
What is the minimum amount of external connection terminals to call an item a transistor?
572ed956c246551400ce471e
three
161
False
Why does a transistor increase a signal?
572ed956c246551400ce471f
the controlled (output) power can be higher than the controlling (input) power
350
False
Where are most transistors found?
572ed956c246551400ce4720
embedded in integrated circuits
540
False
to amplify or switch electronic signals and electrical power
44
What is an integrated circuit used for?
5a7b4e5d21c2de001afe9e96
True
embedded in integrated circuits
540
Where are most semiconductor devices found?
5a7b4e5d21c2de001afe9e97
True
semiconductor material
124
What are integrated circuits made of?
5a7b4e5d21c2de001afe9e98
True
three
161
How many transistors are embedded in most integrated circuits?
5a7b4e5d21c2de001afe9e99
True
the controlled (output) power
350
What controls how strong a signal is?
5a7b4e5d21c2de001afe9e9a
True
A transistor is a semiconductor device used to amplify or switch electronic signals and electrical power. It is composed of semiconductor material with at least three terminals for connection to an external circuit. A voltage or current applied to one pair of the transistor's terminals changes the current through another pair of terminals. Because the controlled (output) power can be higher than the controlling (input) power, a transistor can amplify a signal. Today, some transistors are packaged individually, but many more are found embedded in integrated circuits.
When was the first transistor created?
572edac4dfa6aa1500f8d46b
1926
167
False
Who invented the first transistor?
572edac4dfa6aa1500f8d46c
Julius Lilienfeld
146
False
When was the first transistor implemented for practical use?
572edac4dfa6aa1500f8d46d
1947
203
False
When did the implementers receive a Nobel Prize for making the transistor?
572edac4dfa6aa1500f8d46e
1956
550
False
What list is the transistor on?
572edac4dfa6aa1500f8d46f
list of IEEE milestones in electronics
463
False
1956
550
When were smaller, cheaper radios introduced?
5a7b538421c2de001afe9ec6
True
computers
407
What besides the transistor is on the IEEE list of milestones in electronics?
5a7b538421c2de001afe9ec7
True
Nobel Prize in Physics
555
What did Julius Lilienfeld receive for inventing the transistor?
5a7b538421c2de001afe9ec8
True
William Shockley
266
Who was the first person to use transistors in calculators?
5a7b538421c2de001afe9ec9
True
smaller and cheaper
362
Why were transistors in 1947 easier to practically implement than transistors in 1926?
5a7b538421c2de001afe9eca
True
The transistor is the fundamental building block of modern electronic devices, and is ubiquitous in modern electronic systems. First conceived by Julius Lilienfeld in 1926 and practically implemented in 1947 by American physicists John Bardeen, Walter Brattain, and William Shockley, the transistor revolutionized the field of electronics, and paved the way for smaller and cheaper radios, calculators, and computers, among other things. The transistor is on the list of IEEE milestones in electronics, and Bardeen, Brattain, and Shockley shared the 1956 Nobel Prize in Physics for their achievement.
When was the thermionic triode invented?
572edbc103f9891900756a95
1907
49
False
What was the purpose of the thermionic triode?
572edbc103f9891900756a96
amplified radio technology and long-distance telephony
63
False
Who filed a patent for the field-effect transistor?
572edbc103f9891900756a97
Physicist Julius Edgar Lilienfeld
191
False
Where did Lilienfeld file his patent?
572edbc103f9891900756a98
Canada
279
False
What year did Lilienfeld file his patent?
572edbc103f9891900756a99
1925
289
False
the United States
405
Where did Oskar Heil file a patent?
5a7b571321c2de001afe9f02
True
decades
661
How long would it take for a practical field-effect transistor be built?
5a7b571321c2de001afe9f03
True
Lilienfeld did not publish any research articles about his devices
450
Why did Oskar Heil invent a device similar to Lilienfeld's?
5a7b571321c2de001afe9f04
True
consumed a lot of power
166
Why were field-effect transistors not practical without high quality semiconductor materials?
5a7b571321c2de001afe9f05
True
Canada
279
Where was the thermionic triode invented?
5a7b571321c2de001afe9f06
True
The thermionic triode, a vacuum tube invented in 1907, enabled amplified radio technology and long-distance telephony. The triode, however, was a fragile device that consumed a lot of power. Physicist Julius Edgar Lilienfeld filed a patent for a field-effect transistor (FET) in Canada in 1925, which was intended to be a solid-state replacement for the triode. Lilienfeld also filed identical patents in the United States in 1926 and 1928. However, Lilienfeld did not publish any research articles about his devices nor did his patents cite any specific examples of a working prototype. Because the production of high-quality semiconductor materials was still decades away, Lilienfeld's solid-state amplifier ideas would not have found practical use in the 1920s and 1930s, even if such a device had been built. In 1934, German inventor Oskar Heil patented a similar device.
At what time did Bardeen and Brattain experiment on increasing signal output?
572edd9ecb0c0d14000f1636
November 17, 1947 to December 23, 1947
5
False
What were gold contacts attached to to increase signal output?
572edd9ecb0c0d14000f1637
germanium
217
False
Who was the Solid State Physics Group Leader?
572edd9ecb0c0d14000f1638
William Shockley
329
False
Who came up with the term transistor?
572edd9ecb0c0d14000f1639
John R. Pierce
494
False
Why was the term transistor used?
572edd9ecb0c0d14000f163a
a contraction of the term transresistance
512
False
1947
1077
When did lawyers at Bell Labs find Lilienfeld's patents?
5a7b5b9a21c2de001afe9f64
True
William Shockley
329
Who thought of the term semiconductor?
5a7b5b9a21c2de001afe9f65
True
two
164
How many patents did Lilienfeld file?
5a7b5b9a21c2de001afe9f66
True
1947
39
When was the term transistor first used?
5a7b5b9a21c2de001afe9f67
True
the United States
101
Where was the biography of John Bardeen written?
5a7b5b9a21c2de001afe9f68
True
From November 17, 1947 to December 23, 1947, John Bardeen and Walter Brattain at AT&T's Bell Labs in the United States performed experiments and observed that when two gold point contacts were applied to a crystal of germanium, a signal was produced with the output power greater than the input. Solid State Physics Group leader William Shockley saw the potential in this, and over the next few months worked to greatly expand the knowledge of semiconductors. The term transistor was coined by John R. Pierce as a contraction of the term transresistance. According to Lillian Hoddeson and Vicki Daitch, authors of a biography of John Bardeen, Shockley had proposed that Bell Labs' first patent for a transistor should be based on the field-effect and that he be named as the inventor. Having unearthed Lilienfeld’s patents that went into obscurity years earlier, lawyers at Bell Labs advised against Shockley's proposal because the idea of a field-effect transistor that used an electric field as a "grid" was not new. Instead, what Bardeen, Brattain, and Shockley invented in 1947 was the first point-contact transistor. In acknowledgement of this accomplishment, Shockley, Bardeen, and Brattain were jointly awarded the 1956 Nobel Prize in Physics "for their researches on semiconductors and their discovery of the transistor effect."
In what year was the point-contact transistor invented?
572edf1e03f9891900756a9f
1948
3
False
Who invented the point-contact transistor?
572edf1e03f9891900756aa0
Herbert Mataré and Heinrich Welker
86
False
Where were Matare and Welker working when inventing the point-contact transistor?
572edf1e03f9891900756aa1
Compagnie des Freins et Signaux
142
False
What was the name of Matare and Welker's transistor?
572edf1e03f9891900756aa2
transistron
788
False
What was the transistron used for?
572edf1e03f9891900756aa3
amplified use in France's telephone network
821
False
silicon and germanium
288
What were Matare and Welker's transistors made of?
5a7b5edd21c2de001afe9f82
True
during World War II
337
When did Heinrich Welker start researching electronics?
5a7b5edd21c2de001afe9f83
True
1948
451
When did Matare and Welker realize that Bell Labs had invented a transistor?
5a7b5edd21c2de001afe9f84
True
Paris
212
Where were the "transistrons" produced?
5a7b5edd21c2de001afe9f85
True
Westinghouse
177
Who was in charge of France's telephone network?
5a7b5edd21c2de001afe9f86
True
In 1948, the point-contact transistor was independently invented by German physicists Herbert Mataré and Heinrich Welker while working at the Compagnie des Freins et Signaux, a Westinghouse subsidiary located in Paris. Mataré had previous experience in developing crystal rectifiers from silicon and germanium in the German radar effort during World War II. Using this knowledge, he began researching the phenomenon of "interference" in 1947. By June 1948, witnessing currents flowing through point-contacts, Mataré produced consistent results using samples of germanium produced by Welker, similar to what Bardeen and Brattain had accomplished earlier in December 1947. Realizing that Bell Labs' scientists had already invented the transistor before them, the company rushed to get its "transistron" into production for amplified use in France's telephone network.
How many transistors make up a logic gate?
572ee0cc03f9891900756ab3
up to about twenty transistors
387
False
How many transistors make up a microprocessor?
572ee0cc03f9891900756ab4
as many as 3 billion transistors
474
False
How many transistors were made in 2002?
572ee0cc03f9891900756ab5
60 million transistors were built in 2002… for [each] man, woman, and child
525
False
How many individually packaged transistors are produced each year?
572ee0cc03f9891900756ab6
over a billion
40
False
What are some abbreviations for integrated circuits?
572ee0cc03f9891900756ab7
IC, microchips or simply chips
214
False
60 million
525
How many integrated circuits are produced every year?
5a7b60ef21c2de001afe9fa0
True
over a billion
40
How many men, women, and children are on Earth?
5a7b60ef21c2de001afe9fa1
True
twenty
399
How many logic gates are in a microchip?
5a7b60ef21c2de001afe9fa2
True
several companies
9
What produces electronic components?
5a7b60ef21c2de001afe9fa3
True
Earth
604
Where are transistors being produced?
5a7b60ef21c2de001afe9fa4
True
Although several companies each produce over a billion individually packaged (known as discrete) transistors every year, the vast majority of transistors are now produced in integrated circuits (often shortened to IC, microchips or simply chips), along with diodes, resistors, capacitors and other electronic components, to produce complete electronic circuits. A logic gate consists of up to about twenty transistors whereas an advanced microprocessor, as of 2009, can use as many as 3 billion transistors (MOSFETs). "About 60 million transistors were built in 2002… for [each] man, woman, and child on Earth."
Why is a transistor so useful?
572ee21dc246551400ce476c
gain
214
False
What is gain?
572ee21dc246551400ce476d
it can act as an amplifier
340
False
What is an additional use of the transistor?
572ee21dc246551400ce476e
turn current on or off in a circuit
413
False
What determines the amount of current in an electrically controlled switch?
572ee21dc246551400ce476f
other circuit elements
532
False
the amount of current
493
What controls how strong the output signal is?
5a7b64e521c2de001afe9fbe
True
terminals
118
Where are transistors located?
5a7b64e521c2de001afe9fbf
True
small
73
How large is a transistor in comparison to a terminal?
5a7b64e521c2de001afe9fc0
True
weaker
310
What does a signal become when the transistor does not work properly?
5a7b64e521c2de001afe9fc1
True
terminals
179
Where would an electrically controlled switch be located?
5a7b64e521c2de001afe9fc2
True
The essential usefulness of a transistor comes from its ability to use a small signal applied between one pair of its terminals to control a much larger signal at another pair of terminals. This property is called gain. It can produce a stronger output signal, a voltage or current, which is proportional to a weaker input signal; that is, it can act as an amplifier. Alternatively, the transistor can be used to turn current on or off in a circuit as an electrically controlled switch, where the amount of current is determined by other circuit elements.
How many types of transistors are there?
572ee3c7c246551400ce4788
two
10
False
What are the components of a bipolar transistor?
572ee3c7c246551400ce4789
base, collector, and emitter
144
False
What controls the large current between the collector and emitter?
572ee3c7c246551400ce478a
A small current at the base terminal
174
False
What are the components of a field-effect transistor?
572ee3c7c246551400ce478b
gate, source, and drain
409
False
In a field-effect transistor, what controls the current between the source and drain?
572ee3c7c246551400ce478c
a voltage at the gate
438
False
can control or switch a much larger current
263
Why would someone use a bipolar transistor instead of a field-effect transistor?
5a7b6a0a21c2de001afe9fe6
True
field-effect
358
What is the most common kind of transistor?
5a7b6a0a21c2de001afe9fe7
True
switch
278
What controls the voltage at the gate of a field-effect transistor?
5a7b6a0a21c2de001afe9fe8
True
between the base and the emitter
229
Where is the collector terminal located?
5a7b6a0a21c2de001afe9fe9
True
between source and drain
482
Where is the gate terminal located?
5a7b6a0a21c2de001afe9fea
True
There are two types of transistors, which have slight differences in how they are used in a circuit. A bipolar transistor has terminals labeled base, collector, and emitter. A small current at the base terminal (that is, flowing between the base and the emitter) can control or switch a much larger current between the collector and emitter terminals. For a field-effect transistor, the terminals are labeled gate, source, and drain, and a voltage at the gate can control a current between source and drain.
Why does the collector voltage drop in grounded-emitter transistor circuits?
572ee52903f9891900756ac7
reduced resistance from collector to emitter
203
False
What would happen if the voltage difference from collector and emitter were zero?
572ee52903f9891900756ac8
the collector current would be limited only by the load resistance (light bulb) and the supply voltage
335
False
What is the term for a zero difference between collector and emitter?
572ee52903f9891900756ac9
saturation
454
False
Why is the term saturation named as such?
572ee52903f9891900756aca
current is flowing from collector to emitter freely
473
False
What position is the switch in when saturated?
572ee52903f9891900756acb
on
567
False
the switch
542
What causes reduced resistance from collector to emitter?
5a7b6e4f21c2de001afea004
True
flowing from collector to emitter
484
Why does "current" have that name?
5a7b6e4f21c2de001afea005
True
the base voltage
85
What changes the most in a grounded-emitter transistor circuit?
5a7b6e4f21c2de001afea006
True
near zero
323
What is the load resistance in a light bulb?
5a7b6e4f21c2de001afea007
True
The collector voltage
164
What changes the amount of supply voltage?
5a7b6e4f21c2de001afea008
True
In a grounded-emitter transistor circuit, such as the light-switch circuit shown, as the base voltage rises, the emitter and collector currents rise exponentially. The collector voltage drops because of reduced resistance from collector to emitter. If the voltage difference between the collector and emitter were zero (or near zero), the collector current would be limited only by the load resistance (light bulb) and the supply voltage. This is called saturation because current is flowing from collector to emitter freely. When saturated, the switch is said to be on.
What is a major problem with using bipolar transistors as switches?
572ee71203f9891900756adb
Providing sufficient base drive current
0
False
What does the transistor provide?
572ee71203f9891900756adc
current gain
128
False
What determines the current ratio in transistors?
572ee71203f9891900756add
the type of transistor
308
False
If the type of transistor is the same what determines the current ratio?
572ee71203f9891900756ade
collector current
388
False
the type of transistor
308
What controls how much gain a transistor provides?
5a7b728721c2de001afea01e
True
a relatively large current
151
How much current is needed to saturate a light-switch?
5a7b728721c2de001afea01f
True
the resistor
450
What determines how much collector current there is?
5a7b728721c2de001afea020
True
The ratio of these currents
260
What fluctuates the most in a transistor?
5a7b728721c2de001afea021
True
Providing sufficient base drive current is a key problem in the use of bipolar transistors as switches. The transistor provides current gain, allowing a relatively large current in the collector to be switched by a much smaller current into the base terminal. The ratio of these currents varies depending on the type of transistor, and even for a particular type, varies depending on the collector current. In the example light-switch circuit shown, the resistor is chosen to provide enough base current to ensure the transistor will be saturated.
How are parameters chosen in a switching circuit?
572f4fb704bcaa1900d76839
the "off" output is limited to leakage currents too small to affect connected circuitry
246
False
What is a switching circuit trying to simulate when on?
572f4fb704bcaa1900d7683a
short circuit
135
False
What is a switching circuit trying to simulate when off?
572f4fb704bcaa1900d7683b
open circuit
112
False
How quickly does the change from open circuit to short circuit happen?
572f4fb704bcaa1900d7683c
instantaneous
165
False
leakage currents
277
What might stop a switch from transitioning quickly?
5a7b749521c2de001afea030
True
connected circuitry
314
What can help a switch work more efficiently?
5a7b749521c2de001afea031
True
short circuit
135
What kind of circuit has the least amount of resistance?
5a7b749521c2de001afea032
True
open circuit
112
What kind of circuit has the most resistance?
5a7b749521c2de001afea033
True
the transition between the two states
424
When is a circuit most likely to fail?
5a7b749521c2de001afea034
True
In a switching circuit, the idea is to simulate, as near as possible, the ideal switch having the properties of open circuit when off, short circuit when on, and an instantaneous transition between the two states. Parameters are chosen such that the "off" output is limited to leakage currents too small to affect connected circuitry; the resistance of the transistor in the "on" state is too small to affect circuitry; and the transition between the two states is fast enough not to have a detrimental effect.
What gives bipolar transistors their name?
572f50cbb2c2fd1400568001
they conduct by using both majority and minority carriers
41
False
What was the first mass-produced transistor?
572f50cbb2c2fd1400568002
bipolar junction transistor
104
False
What is the bipolar junction transistor a combination of?
572f50cbb2c2fd1400568003
two junction diodes
203
False
What is the name for a layer of p-type semiconductor set between two n-type semiconductors?
572f50cbb2c2fd1400568004
n–p–n transistor
334
False
What is the name for a layer of n-type semiconductor set between two p-type semiconductors?
572f50cbb2c2fd1400568005
p–n–p transistor
441
False
Bipolar transistors
0
What kind of transistor is used the most?
5a7b775521c2de001afea042
True
sandwiched between two n-type semiconductors
285
Where do junction diodes get their name?
5a7b775521c2de001afea043
True
an n–p–n transistor
331
What is the most common type of bipolar transistor?
5a7b775521c2de001afea044
True
wired together
651
How are bipolar transistors mass produced?
5a7b775521c2de001afea045
True
Bipolar transistors are so named because they conduct by using both majority and minority carriers. The bipolar junction transistor, the first type of transistor to be mass-produced, is a combination of two junction diodes, and is formed of either a thin layer of p-type semiconductor sandwiched between two n-type semiconductors (an n–p–n transistor), or a thin layer of n-type semiconductor sandwiched between two p-type semiconductors (a p–n–p transistor). This construction produces two p–n junctions: a base–emitter junction and a base–collector junction, separated by a thin region of semiconductor known as the base region (two junction diodes wired together without sharing an intervening semiconducting region will not make a transistor).
How many terminals do BJTs have?
572f53ca04bcaa1900d76853
three
10
False
How many layers of semiconductor do BJTs have?
572f53ca04bcaa1900d76854
three
48
False
What are the layers of semiconductor in a BJT?
572f53ca04bcaa1900d76855
an emitter, a base, and a collector
78
False
How can one find the amount of collector current?
572f53ca04bcaa1900d76856
β (common-emitter current gain) times the base current
945
False
What is the usual collector current for small-signal transistors?
572f53ca04bcaa1900d76857
greater than 100
1017
False
controllable by a relatively small base current
199
Why is the base of a BJT narrow?
5a7b79c621c2de001afea04a
True
small-signal transistors
1038
Where are BJT amplifiers most commonly used?
5a7b79c621c2de001afea04b
True
the emitter–base junction
303
What controls how many electrons are injected into the base region?
5a7b79c621c2de001afea04c
True
greater than 100
1017
How many electrons are injected into the base region?
5a7b79c621c2de001afea04d
True
BJTs have three terminals, corresponding to the three layers of semiconductor—an emitter, a base, and a collector. They are useful in amplifiers because the currents at the emitter and collector are controllable by a relatively small base current. In an n–p–n transistor operating in the active region, the emitter–base junction is forward biased (electrons and holes recombine at the junction), and electrons are injected into the base region. Because the base is narrow, most of these electrons will diffuse into the reverse-biased (electrons and holes are formed at, and move away from the junction) base–collector junction and be swept into the collector; perhaps one-hundredth of the electrons will recombine in the base, which is the dominant mechanism in the base current. By controlling the number of electrons that can leave the base, the number of electrons entering the collector can be controlled. Collector current is approximately β (common-emitter current gain) times the base current. It is typically greater than 100 for small-signal transistors but can be smaller in transistors designed for high-power applications.
What determines the conductivity in a FET?
572f5b1004bcaa1900d7689b
electric field that is produced when a voltage is applied between the gate and source terminals
156
False
What controls the current between the drain and source?
572f5b1004bcaa1900d7689c
the voltage applied between the gate and source
325
False
At what rate is the drain-source current increased when the gate-source current is increased?
572f5b1004bcaa1900d7689d
a roughly quadratic rate
513
False
Where is a quadratic behavior not observed?
572f5b1004bcaa1900d7689e
in modern devices
715
False
the drain-to-source current
10
What controls the voltage applied between the gate and the source terminals?
5a7b7c6b21c2de001afea064
True
The conductivity is varied by the electric field
122
Why is quadratic behavior not observed in modern devices?
5a7b7c6b21c2de001afea065
True
between the drain and source
279
Where does current fluctuate the most?
5a7b7c6b21c2de001afea066
True
exponentially
462
How quickly does the voltage increase?
5a7b7c6b21c2de001afea067
True
In a FET, the drain-to-source current flows via a conducting channel that connects the source region to the drain region. The conductivity is varied by the electric field that is produced when a voltage is applied between the gate and source terminals; hence the current flowing between the drain and source is controlled by the voltage applied between the gate and source. As the gate–source voltage (VGS) is increased, the drain–source current (IDS) increases exponentially for VGS below threshold, and then at a roughly quadratic rate (IGS ∝ (VGS − VT)2) (where VT is the threshold voltage at which drain current begins) in the "space-charge-limited" region above threshold. A quadratic behavior is not observed in modern devices, for example, at the 65 nm technology node.
How many groups are FETs split into?
572f8c1fa23a5019007fc721
two
22
False
What are the names of the groups of FETs
572f8c1fa23a5019007fc722
junction FET (JFET) and insulated gate FET (IGFET)
36
False
What is the common term for an IFGET?
572f8c1fa23a5019007fc723
a metal–oxide–semiconductor FET (MOSFET)
124
False
How is a JFET different from an IGFET?
572f8c1fa23a5019007fc724
the JFET gate forms a p–n diode with the channel
294
False
What mode do both JFET and IGFET operate in?
572f8c1fa23a5019007fc725
depletion mode
577
False
semiconductor
264
What is a vacuum tube triode made from?
5a7b7d8621c2de001afea07e
True
the gate
225
What controls the amount of input voltage?
5a7b7d8621c2de001afea07f
True
two
22
How many layers of metal are in the gate of an IGFET?
5a7b7d8621c2de001afea080
True
both devices
549
What kind of FET is mass produced?
5a7b7d8621c2de001afea082
True
FETs are divided into two families: junction FET (JFET) and insulated gate FET (IGFET). The IGFET is more commonly known as a metal–oxide–semiconductor FET (MOSFET), reflecting its original construction from layers of metal (the gate), oxide (the insulation), and semiconductor. Unlike IGFETs, the JFET gate forms a p–n diode with the channel which lies between the source and drain. Functionally, this makes the n-channel JFET the solid-state equivalent of the vacuum tube triode which, similarly, forms a diode between its grid and cathode. Also, both devices operate in the depletion mode, they both have a high input impedance, and they both conduct current under the control of an input voltage.
How are FET's separated?
572f9165a23a5019007fc771
depletion-mode and enhancement-mode types
30
False
At what point is a channel off in enhancement-mode?
572f9165a23a5019007fc772
at zero bias
201
False
At what point is a channel on in depletion-mode?
572f9165a23a5019007fc773
at zero bias
308
False
What channel corresponds with high current?
572f9165a23a5019007fc774
n-channel devices
500
False
What channel corresponds with low current?
572f9165a23a5019007fc775
p-channel devices
542
False
enhancement-mode types
49
What type of FET is more common?
5a7b7f7621c2de001afea09c
True
gate potential
328
What controls how positive the gate voltage is?
5a7b7f7621c2de001afea09d
True
higher current
481
What controls the gate potential of a FET?
5a7b7f7621c2de001afea09e
True
depletion-mode
582
What type of FET usually has a higher voltage?
5a7b7f7621c2de001afea09f
True
FETs are further divided into depletion-mode and enhancement-mode types, depending on whether the channel is turned on or off with zero gate-to-source voltage. For enhancement mode, the channel is off at zero bias, and a gate potential can "enhance" the conduction. For the depletion mode, the channel is on at zero bias, and a gate potential (of the opposite polarity) can "deplete" the channel, reducing conduction. For either mode, a more positive gate voltage corresponds to a higher current for n-channel devices and a lower current for p-channel devices. Nearly all JFETs are depletion-mode because the diode junctions would forward bias and conduct if they were enhancement-mode devices; most IGFETs are enhancement-mode types.
What was the most frequently used transistor in the 1960s and 70s?
572f958ca23a5019007fc7b7
bipolar junction transistor
4
False
Why were BJTs so popular?
572f958ca23a5019007fc7b8
their greater linearity and ease of manufacture
239
False
What are some applications of discrete MOSFETs?
572f958ca23a5019007fc7b9
transistor applications, including analog circuits, voltage regulators, amplifiers, power transmitters and motor drivers
453
False
What were the most popular digital circuits of the time?
572f958ca23a5019007fc7ba
MOSFETs
340
False
the 1960s
79
When did MOSFETs become widely available?
5a7b80b421c2de001afea0ae
True
ease of manufacture
267
What are the desirable properties of MOSFETs?
5a7b80b421c2de001afea0af
True
amplifiers
525
What was the most common application of MOSFETs?
5a7b80b421c2de001afea0b0
True
analog circuits
193
Which type of circuit is older?
5a7b80b421c2de001afea0b1
True
digital circuits
400
What kind of circuit is used more in the present?
5a7b80b421c2de001afea0b2
True
The bipolar junction transistor (BJT) was the most commonly used transistor in the 1960s and 70s. Even after MOSFETs became widely available, the BJT remained the transistor of choice for many analog circuits such as amplifiers because of their greater linearity and ease of manufacture. In integrated circuits, the desirable properties of MOSFETs allowed them to capture nearly all market share for digital circuits. Discrete MOSFETs can be applied in transistor applications, including analog circuits, voltage regulators, amplifiers, power transmitters and motor drivers.
What is the Pro Electron standard?
572f97a804bcaa1900d76abf
European Electronic Component Manufacturers Association part numbering scheme
31
False
How many letters does the part numbering scheme begin with?
572f97a804bcaa1900d76ac0
two letters
122
False
What is the first letter in the part numbering scheme?
572f97a804bcaa1900d76ac1
the semiconductor type
151
False
What is the second letter in the part numbering scheme?
572f97a804bcaa1900d76ac2
the intended use
265
False
What follows the 2 letters in the part numbering scheme?
572f97a804bcaa1900d76ac3
A 3-digit sequence number
337
False
silicon
198
What is the most common semiconductor type?
5a7b827f21c2de001afea0da
True
diode
289
What is the most common intended use for transistors?
5a7b827f21c2de001afea0db
True
industrial types
397
What kinds of transistor are more likely to use a suffix?
5a7b827f21c2de001afea0dc
True
early devices
429
What devices are more likely to have a code with a voltage rating?
5a7b827f21c2de001afea0dd
True
voltage rating
619
What is the most common reason to have a suffix on a device's number?
5a7b827f21c2de001afea0de
True
The Pro Electron standard, the European Electronic Component Manufacturers Association part numbering scheme, begins with two letters: the first gives the semiconductor type (A for germanium, B for silicon, and C for materials like GaAs); the second letter denotes the intended use (A for diode, C for general-purpose transistor, etc.). A 3-digit sequence number (or one letter then 2 digits, for industrial types) follows. With early devices this indicated the case type. Suffixes may be used, with a letter (e.g. "C" often means high hFE, such as in: BC549C) or other codes may follow to show gain (e.g. BC327-25) or voltage rating (e.g. BUK854-800A). The more common prefixes are:
What does the JEDEC EIA370 transistor number start with?
572f9c99a23a5019007fc7d3
2N
63
False
what does the 2N is the JEDEC EIA370 mean?
572f9c99a23a5019007fc7d4
a three-terminal device
79
False
What follows the 2N in a JEDEC EIA370?
572f9c99a23a5019007fc7d5
a 2, 3 or 4-digit sequential number with no significance as to device properties
190
False
What does a letter at the end of a device number mean?
572f9c99a23a5019007fc7d6
a newer variant
502
False
What does the number 2N1301 indicate?
572f9c99a23a5019007fc7d7
a p–n–p germanium switching transistor
402
False
germanium
410
What were most early devices made from?
5a7b83a521c2de001afea0e4
True
3
195
What is the most common amount of extra digits in a device number?
5a7b83a521c2de001afea0e5
True
early devices
281
Which devices usually have the shortest transistor device numbers?
5a7b83a521c2de001afea0e6
True
silicon
360
What are most modern devices made from?
5a7b83a521c2de001afea0e7
True
A
468
What is the most common letter suffix?
5a7b83a521c2de001afea0e8
True
The JEDEC EIA370 transistor device numbers usually start with "2N", indicating a three-terminal device (dual-gate field-effect transistors are four-terminal devices, so begin with 3N), then a 2, 3 or 4-digit sequential number with no significance as to device properties (although early devices with low numbers tend to be germanium). For example, 2N3055 is a silicon n–p–n power transistor, 2N1301 is a p–n–p germanium switching transistor. A letter suffix (such as "A") is sometimes used to indicate a newer variant, but rarely gain groupings.
What was once an indicator of the devices creator?
572fab9fb2c2fd14005682fb
a manufacturer's prefix
127
False
What makes a manufacturer's prefix less reliable?
572fab9fb2c2fd14005682fc
devices are second-sourced
99
False
What is the marking for a 2N2222A in a plastic case?
572fab9fb2c2fd14005682fd
PN2222A
358
False
What is a plastic version of a BC108?
572fab9fb2c2fd14005682fe
PN108
439
False
Motorola
206
What manufacturer creates the most devices?
5a7b853f21c2de001afea0f6
True
CK722
86
What is the marking for a 2N108 in a plastic case?
5a7b853f21c2de001afea0f7
True
plastic
419
What kind of case is most common?
5a7b853f21c2de001afea0f8
True
Some
275
How many naming schemes use an accurate manufacturer's prefix?
5a7b853f21c2de001afea0f9
True
Manufacturers of devices
0
Who decided what letters were in the manufacturer's prefixes?
5a7b853f21c2de001afea0fa
True
Manufacturers of devices may have their own proprietary numbering system, for example CK722. Since devices are second-sourced, a manufacturer's prefix (like "MPF" in MPF102, which originally would denote a Motorola FET) now is an unreliable indicator of who made the device. Some proprietary naming schemes adopt parts of other naming schemes, for example a PN2222A is a (possibly Fairchild Semiconductor) 2N2222A in a plastic case (but a PN108 is a plastic version of a BC108, not a 2N108, while the PN100 is unrelated to other xx100 devices).
What is the junction forward voltage?
572faff7b2c2fd1400568351
the voltage applied to the emitter–base junction of a BJT
32
False
What is the purpose of a junction forward voltage?
572faff7b2c2fd1400568352
to make the base conduct a specified current
99
False
What is the ideal junction forward voltage?
572faff7b2c2fd1400568353
lower
344
False
Why is the ideal junction forward voltage lower?
572faff7b2c2fd1400568354
less power is required to "drive" the transistor
410
False
When happens to the junction forward voltage when temperature is raised?
572faff7b2c2fd1400568355
decreases
509
False
semiconductor diodes
317
What applies voltage to the emitter-base junction?
5a7b878021c2de001afea100
True
silicon
563
What are most BJTs made of?
5a7b878021c2de001afea101
True
semiconductor
317
What are sensistors made of?
5a7b878021c2de001afea102
True
semiconductor diodes
317
What kind of circuit needs special compensating elements the most?
5a7b878021c2de001afea103
True
The junction forward voltage is the voltage applied to the emitter–base junction of a BJT in order to make the base conduct a specified current. The current increases exponentially as the junction forward voltage is increased. The values given in the table are typical for a current of 1 mA (the same values apply to semiconductor diodes). The lower the junction forward voltage the better, as this means that less power is required to "drive" the transistor. The junction forward voltage for a given current decreases with increase in temperature. For a typical silicon junction the change is −2.1 mV/°C. In some circuits special compensating elements (sensistors) must be used to compensate for such changes.
What is quicker, a bipolar n-p-n transistor or a p-n-p transistor?
572fb38ea23a5019007fc8c7
a given bipolar n–p–n transistor
96
False
What semiconductor has the highest electron mobility?
572fb38ea23a5019007fc8c8
GaAs
186
False
What is the common application of GaAs?
572fb38ea23a5019007fc8c9
high-frequency applications
297
False
What does HEMT stand for?
572fb38ea23a5019007fc8ca
high-electron-mobility transistor
367
False
What are common applications of HEMT?
572fb38ea23a5019007fc8cb
satellite receivers
680
False
GaAs
186
What is the most common kind of semiconductor?
5a7b897a21c2de001afea110
True
the highest electron mobility of the three semiconductors
195
What causes HEMTs to have high speed and low noise?
5a7b897a21c2de001afea111
True
aluminium gallium nitride
773
Which material has the highest electron mobility?
5a7b897a21c2de001afea113
True
high-frequency applications
297
Where are HEMTs most commonly used?
5a7b897a21c2de001afea114
True
Because the electron mobility is higher than the hole mobility for all semiconductor materials, a given bipolar n–p–n transistor tends to be swifter than an equivalent p–n–p transistor. GaAs has the highest electron mobility of the three semiconductors. It is for this reason that GaAs is used in high-frequency applications. A relatively recent FET development, the high-electron-mobility transistor (HEMT), has a heterostructure (junction between different semiconductor materials) of aluminium gallium arsenide (AlGaAs)-gallium arsenide (GaAs) which has twice the electron mobility of a GaAs-metal barrier junction. Because of their high speed and low noise, HEMTs are used in satellite receivers working at frequencies around 12 GHz. HEMTs based on gallium nitride and aluminium gallium nitride (AlGaN/GaN HEMTs) provide a still higher electron mobility and are being developed for various applications.
What is a discrete transistor?
572fb569947a6a140053cbca
individually packaged transistors
25
False
What are the two most common types of transistor?
572fb569947a6a140053cbcb
through-hole (or leaded), and surface-mount
159
False
What is another name for the surface-mount transistor?
572fb569947a6a140053cbcc
surface-mount device (SMD)
218
False
What is the newest surface-mount transistor?
572fb569947a6a140053cbcd
ball grid array (BGA)
250
False
What is a ball grid array composed of?
572fb569947a6a140053cbce
solder "balls" on the underside in place of leads
363
False
Discrete transistors
0
What is the most common type of transistor?
5a7b8af721c2de001afea12a
True
two
135
How many solder "balls" does a Ball Grid Array have?
5a7b8af721c2de001afea12b
True
through-hole
159
What is the most common type of semiconductor package?
5a7b8af721c2de001afea12c
True
power rating
532
What is the most important attribute for a transistor to have?
5a7b8af721c2de001afea12d
True
through-hole
159
What is the oldest type of semiconductor package?
5a7b8af721c2de001afea12e
True
Discrete transistors are individually packaged transistors. Transistors come in many different semiconductor packages (see image). The two main categories are through-hole (or leaded), and surface-mount, also known as surface-mount device (SMD). The ball grid array (BGA) is the latest surface-mount package (currently only for large integrated circuits). It has solder "balls" on the underside in place of leads. Because they are smaller and have shorter interconnections, SMDs have better high-frequency characteristics but lower power rating.
Modern_history
What did many people in the Pre-Modern era express their faith through?
572eda4a03f9891900756a79
via a faith in some form of deity
83
False
What were Religious officials perceived as in the Pre-Modern era?
572eda4a03f9891900756a7a
spiritual intermediaries
321
False
Through whom did the general masses have access to the divine?
572eda4a03f9891900756a7b
Religious officials
256
False
What belief did ancient cultures consider sacred?
572eda4a03f9891900756a7c
Tradition
459
False
How were the moral standards of ancient cultures enforced?
572eda4a03f9891900756a7d
strictly
585
False
Peoples sense of worth was expressed through what in the Pre-modern era?
572ef2fcdfa6aa1500f8d4e7
via a faith in some form of deity
83
False
Who were spiritual intermediates?
572ef2fcdfa6aa1500f8d4e8
Religious officials
256
False
Through who did the masses have access to the divine?
572ef2fcdfa6aa1500f8d4e9
spiritual intermediaries
321
False
What belief was considered sacred by ancient civilizations?
572ef2fcdfa6aa1500f8d4ea
Tradition
459
False
What did social order mandate be strictly enforced?
572ef2fcdfa6aa1500f8d4eb
ceremony and morals
543
False
In the Pre-Modern era, many people's sense of self and purpose was often expressed via a faith in some form of deity, be that in a single God or in many gods. Pre-modern cultures have not been thought of creating a sense of distinct individuality, though. Religious officials, who often held positions of power, were the spiritual intermediaries to the common person. It was only through these intermediaries that the general masses had access to the divine. Tradition was sacred to ancient cultures and was unchanging and the social order of ceremony and morals in a culture could be strictly enforced.
What term was coined in the 16th century to indicate present time?
572edcc8cb0c0d14000f162c
modern
10
False
The term "modern" was derived from what Latin adverb?
572edcc8cb0c0d14000f162d
modo
127
False
What caused the transition between the middle ages and early modern times?
572edcc8cb0c0d14000f162e
The European Renaissance
153
False
In what country did The European Renaissance start?
572edcc8cb0c0d14000f162f
Italy
289
False
What two instruments were invented during The European Renaissance?
572edcc8cb0c0d14000f1630
telescope and microscope
461
False
What phrase was coined in the 16th century to reference recent times?
572ef423dfa6aa1500f8d4f1
modern
10
False
The phrase modern originated form what?
572ef423dfa6aa1500f8d4f2
Latin adverb modo
114
False
What did The European renaissance mark?
572ef423dfa6aa1500f8d4f3
transition between the Late Middle Ages and Early Modern times
214
False
Through what time period did The European renaissance last?
572ef423dfa6aa1500f8d4f4
1420–1630)
185
False
In what country did The European renaissance begin?
572ef423dfa6aa1500f8d4f5
Italy
289
False
The term "modern" was coined in the 16th century to indicate present or recent times (ultimately derived from the Latin adverb modo, meaning "just now). The European Renaissance (about 1420–1630), which marked the transition between the Late Middle Ages and Early Modern times, started in Italy and was spurred in part by the rediscovery of classical art and literature, as well as the new perspectives gained from the Age of Discovery and the invention of the telescope and microscope, expanding the borders of thought and knowledge.
What term was created in the 1930's to separate the middle ages form the 1800's?
572edf43cb0c0d14000f164a
Early Modern
10
False
The 1800"s are referred to as?
572edf43cb0c0d14000f164b
time of the late Enlightenment
138
False
What do the terms "Early Modern" and  'Modern Ages" originate from?
572edf43cb0c0d14000f164c
European history
308
False
What are the terms "Early Modern" and "Modern Ages" used for i other countries?
572edf43cb0c0d14000f164d
in the context with their contact with European culture in the Age of Discovery.
463
False
When was the term "Early Modern" implemented into the English language?
572ef585cb0c0d14000f169c
1930s
70
False
What does the term "Early Modern" mean?
572ef585cb0c0d14000f169d
to distinguish the time between what we call Middle Ages and time of the late Enlightenment
77
False
What time period is referred to as The Late Enlightenment?
572ef585cb0c0d14000f169e
1800
170
False
Where do the terms "Middle Ages" and "Modern Ages" originate from?
572ef585cb0c0d14000f169f
European history
308
False
What are the terms "Middle Ages" and "Modern Ages" used for in other countries?
572ef585cb0c0d14000f16a0
in the context with their contact with European culture in the Age of Discovery.
463
False
The term "Early Modern" was introduced in the English language in the 1930s. to distinguish the time between what we call Middle Ages and time of the late Enlightenment (1800) (when the meaning of the term Modern Ages was developing its contemporary form). It is important to note that these terms stem from European history. In usage in other parts of the world, such as in Asia, and in Muslim countries, the terms are applied in a very different way, but often in the context with their contact with European culture in the Age of Discovery.
In what era were there many socio-technological trends?
572ee12fcb0c0d14000f165c
Contemporary era
7
False
The 21st century is refereed to as what?
572ee12fcb0c0d14000f165d
the Information age
126
False
What device was used most during the The Information age?
572ee12fcb0c0d14000f165e
computers
150
False
What was a major concern for Western civilization during the 21 century?
572ee12fcb0c0d14000f165f
terrorist acts
584
False
In what time were there many socio-technological trends?
572ef68ec246551400ce47e8
Contemporary era
7
False
What is the 21st century also known as?
572ef68ec246551400ce47e9
the Information age
126
False
What device was used most during 21st century?
572ef68ec246551400ce47ea
computers
150
False
What was considered a threat to Western civilization?
572ef68ec246551400ce47eb
terrorist acts
584
False
In the Contemporary era, there were various socio-technological trends. Regarding the 21st century and the late modern world, the Information age and computers were forefront in use, not completely ubiquitous but often present in daily life. The development of Eastern powers was of note, with China and India becoming more powerful. In the Eurasian theater, the European Union and Russian Federation were two forces recently developed. A concern for Western world, if not the whole world, was the late modern form of terrorism and the warfare that has resulted from the contemporary terrorist acts.
Who controlled the Asian Sphere during the period between 1600-1868?
572ee375dfa6aa1500f8d499
Chinese dynasties and Japanese shogunates
17
False
What is the period between 1600-1868 referred to as?
572ee375dfa6aa1500f8d49a
the Edo period
98
False
What is the Edo period also known as?
572ee375dfa6aa1500f8d49b
the early modern period
154
False
What is time is considered the "Modern Period" in Korea?
572ee375dfa6aa1500f8d49c
from the rising of Joseon Dynasty to the enthronement of King Gojong
193
False
Name one of the tribes Native Americans established in the Americas.
572ee375dfa6aa1500f8d49d
Aztec Empire
396
False
What two groups controlled the Asian Sphere?
572ef802dfa6aa1500f8d4fb
Chinese dynasties and Japanese shogunates
17
False
What time is referred to as the Edo period?
572ef802dfa6aa1500f8d4fc
1600 to 1868
118
False
What is the 'Early Modern period" known as in Japan?
572ef802dfa6aa1500f8d4fe
the rising of Joseon Dynasty to the enthronement of King Gojong
198
False
Name one of the tribes Native Americans formed in the Americas?
572ef802dfa6aa1500f8d4ff
Aztec Empire
396
False
In Asia, various Chinese dynasties and Japanese shogunates controlled the Asian sphere. In Japan, the Edo period from 1600 to 1868 is also referred to as the early modern period. And in Korea, from the rising of Joseon Dynasty to the enthronement of King Gojong is referred to as the early modern period. In the Americas, Native Americans had built a large and varied civilization, including the Aztec Empire and alliance, the Inca civilization, the Mayan Empire and cities, and the Chibcha Confederation. In the west, the European kingdoms and movements were in a movement of reformation and expansion. Russia reached the Pacific coast in 1647 and consolidated its control over the Russian Far East in the 19th century.
Name one of the reasons urbanization grew in China.
572ee58003f9891900756ad1
population grew
40
False
What did Nanjing and Beijing contribute to?
572ee58003f9891900756ad2
growth of private industry
178
False
What are Nanjing and Beijing?
572ee58003f9891900756ad3
Large urban centers
104
False
Under what rule was China not isolated?
572ee58003f9891900756ad4
the early Ming dynasty
650
False
During The Early MIng Dynasty Chinese merchants explored all of what?
572ee58003f9891900756ad5
Indian Ocean
830
False
What caused urbanization to increase in China?
572ef91ac246551400ce47fa
the population grew
36
False
Where did Chinese merchants explore?
572ef91ac246551400ce47fe
all of the Indian Ocean
819
False
In China, urbanization increased as the population grew and as the division of labor grew more complex. Large urban centers, such as Nanjing and Beijing, also contributed to the growth of private industry. In particular, small-scale industries grew up, often specializing in paper, silk, cotton, and porcelain goods. For the most part, however, relatively small urban centers with markets proliferated around the country. Town markets mainly traded food, with some necessary manufactures such as pins or oil. Despite the xenophobia and intellectual introspection characteristic of the increasingly popular new school of neo-Confucianism, China under the early Ming dynasty was not isolated. Foreign trade and other contacts with the outside world, particularly Japan, increased considerably. Chinese merchants explored all of the Indian Ocean, reaching East Africa with the treasure voyages of Zheng He.
What was founded after the fall of the Ming?
572ee763cb0c0d14000f1664
The Qing dynasty
0
False
The Qing dynasty lasted through what time period?
572ee763cb0c0d14000f1665
1644–1911
18
False
What were the Manchus originally known as?
572ee763cb0c0d14000f1666
the Jurchens
150
False
Why did the last Ming Emperor commit suicide?
572ee763cb0c0d14000f1667
Beijing was captured by Li Zicheng's peasant rebels
169
False
Who became allies with the Manchus to seize control over Beijing?
572ee763cb0c0d14000f1668
former Ming general Wu Sangui
324
False
The Qing dynasty formed after what event?
572efb66c246551400ce4816
after the fall of the Ming
41
False
During what time period did the Qing dynasty rule?
572efb66c246551400ce4817
1644–1911
18
False
What were the Manchus originally named?
572efb66c246551400ce4818
Jurchens
154
False
Who was Beijing captured by in 1644?
572efb66c246551400ce4819
Li Zicheng's peasant rebels
193
False
Who did the Manchus make an Ally with to seize control of Beijing?
572efb66c246551400ce481a
former Ming general Wu Sangui
324
False
The Qing dynasty (1644–1911) was founded after the fall of the Ming, the last Han Chinese dynasty, by the Manchus. The Manchus were formerly known as the Jurchens. When Beijing was captured by Li Zicheng's peasant rebels in 1644, the Chongzhen Emperor, the last Ming emperor, committed suicide. The Manchus then allied with former Ming general Wu Sangui and seized control of Beijing, which became the new capital of the Qing dynasty. The Mancus adopted the Confucian norms of traditional Chinese government in their rule of China proper. Schoppa, the editor of The Columbia Guide to Modern Chinese History argues, "A date around 1780 as the beginning of modern China is thus closer to what we know today as historical 'reality'. It also allows us to have a better baseline to understand the precipitous decline of the Chinese polity in the nineteenth and twentieth centuries."
What was society based on during the Tukugawa period?
572ee920dfa6aa1500f8d4c1
strict class hierarchy
107
False
Strict class hierarchy was established by who?
572ee920dfa6aa1500f8d4c2
Toyotomi Hideyoshi
156
False
What group were considered to be at the top of the Strict Class Hierarchy?
572ee920dfa6aa1500f8d4c3
The daimyo, or lords
176
False
How were taxes charged during the Tukugawa period?
572ee920dfa6aa1500f8d4c4
set at fixed amounts
645
False
What effect did  having taxes charged at a fixed amount have on it's revenue?
572ee920dfa6aa1500f8d4c5
tax revenues collected by the samurai landowners were worth less and less over time.
755
False
What is the Tokugawa period also known as?
572efd2003f9891900756b23
Edo society
43
False
What was society in  the Tokugawa period based in?
572efd2003f9891900756b24
strict class hierarchy
107
False
What group was considered at the top of the Strict Class Society?
572efd2003f9891900756b25
The daimyo, or lords,
176
False
How were taxes charged in the Tokugawa period?
572efd2003f9891900756b26
set at fixed amounts
645
False
What effect did the way the taxes were charged have on it's revenue.
572efd2003f9891900756b27
revenues collected by the samurai landowners were worth less and less over time.
759
False
Society in the Japanese "Tokugawa period" (Edo society), unlike the shogunates before it, was based on the strict class hierarchy originally established by Toyotomi Hideyoshi. The daimyo, or lords, were at the top, followed by the warrior-caste of samurai, with the farmers, artisans, and traders ranking below. In some parts of the country, particularly smaller regions, daimyo and samurai were more or less identical, since daimyo might be trained as samurai, and samurai might act as local lords. Otherwise, the largely inflexible nature of this social stratification system unleashed disruptive forces over time. Taxes on the peasantry were set at fixed amounts which did not account for inflation or other changes in monetary value. As a result, the tax revenues collected by the samurai landowners were worth less and less over time. This often led to numerous confrontations between noble but impoverished samurai and well-to-do peasants, ranging from simple local disturbances to much bigger rebellions. None, however, proved compelling enough to seriously challenge the established order until the arrival of foreign powers.
Who ruled most of India in the early 18th century?
572eeae6cb0c0d14000f166e
Mughal Empire
32
False
How did the "Classic Period" end?
572eeae6cb0c0d14000f166f
the death and defeat of Emperor Aurangzeb in 1707
125
False
Who was behind the death off Emperor Aurangzeb?
572eeae6cb0c0d14000f1670
Hindu Maratha Empire
189
False
Where was the The Maratha Empire centralized?
572eeae6cb0c0d14000f1671
south west of present-day India
672
False
What happened when the  Maratha Army lost the third battle of Panipat?
572eeae6cb0c0d14000f1672
the empire was then divided into a confederacy of Maratha states.
894
False
Who ruled most of India in the 18 century?
572efe68dfa6aa1500f8d535
Mughal Empire
32
False
What event ended the "classic period"?
572efe68dfa6aa1500f8d536
the death and defeat of Emperor Aurangzeb
125
False
What caused the death of Emperor Auranzeb?
572efe68dfa6aa1500f8d537
the rising Hindu Maratha Empire,
178
False
Where was the Maratha Empire centralized?
572efe68dfa6aa1500f8d538
south west of present-day India
672
False
What caused the Maratha Empire to split in 1761?
572efe68dfa6aa1500f8d539
the Maratha army lost the Third Battle of Panipat
808
False
On the Indian subcontinent, the Mughal Empire ruled most of India in the early 18th century. The "classic period" ended with the death and defeat of Emperor Aurangzeb in 1707 by the rising Hindu Maratha Empire, although the dynasty continued for another 150 years. During this period, the Empire was marked by a highly centralized administration connecting the different regions. All the significant monuments of the Mughals, their most visible legacy, date to this period which was characterised by the expansion of Persian cultural influence in the Indian subcontinent, with brilliant literary, artistic, and architectural results. The Maratha Empire was located in the south west of present-day India and expanded greatly under the rule of the Peshwas, the prime ministers of the Maratha empire. In 1761, the Maratha army lost the Third Battle of Panipat which halted imperial expansion and the empire was then divided into a confederacy of Maratha states.
What did the development of new imperialism cause?
572f0002cb0c0d14000f16f6
the conquest of nearly all eastern hemisphere territories by colonial powers.
39
False
When did the commercial colonization of India begin?
572f0002cb0c0d14000f16f7
1757
167
False
What happened n the battle of Plassey?
572f0002cb0c0d14000f16f8
Nawab of Bengal surrendered his dominions to the British East India Company
211
False
When was the British East Company given the right to collect revenue?
572f0002cb0c0d14000f16f9
1765
291
False
What is the term used to describe the "Right to collect revenue"?
572f0002cb0c0d14000f16fa
diwani
330
False
The development of New Imperialism saw the conquest of nearly all eastern hemisphere territories by colonial powers. The commercial colonization of India commenced in 1757, after the Battle of Plassey, when the Nawab of Bengal surrendered his dominions to the British East India Company, in 1765, when the Company was granted the diwani, or the right to collect revenue, in Bengal and Bihar, or in 1772, when the Company established a capital in Calcutta, appointed its first Governor-General, Warren Hastings, and became directly involved in governance.
In what year did the Maratha states lose to the British East Company?
572f01f3c246551400ce4834
1818
107
False
What was the name of the war lost by the Maratha states in 1818?
572f01f3c246551400ce4835
the Third Anglo-Maratha War
117
False
How long did the British east Indian Company rule last after the war?
572f01f3c246551400ce4836
1858
168
False
What caused the British east Indian Company rule to end?
572f01f3c246551400ce4837
the Indian rebellion of 1857 and consequent of the Government of India Act 1858
186
False
What did Britain establish in 1824?
572f01f3c246551400ce4838
Singapore as a key trading post
400
False
The Maratha states, following the Anglo-Maratha wars, eventually lost to the British East India Company in 1818 with the Third Anglo-Maratha War. The rule lasted until 1858, when, after the Indian rebellion of 1857 and consequent of the Government of India Act 1858, the British government assumed the task of directly administering India in the new British Raj. In 1819 Stamford Raffles established Singapore as a key trading post for Britain in their rivalry with the Dutch. However, their rivalry cooled in 1824 when an Anglo-Dutch treaty demarcated their respective interests in Southeast Asia. From the 1850s onwards, the pace of colonization shifted to a significantly higher gear.
What dispatched of The Dutch East India Company and the British East India Company?
572f02fbcb0c0d14000f1708
their respective governments
92
False
What country did not have to succumb to forign rule?
572f02fbcb0c0d14000f1709
Thailand
246
False
Who also profited from Southeast Asia resources?
572f02fbcb0c0d14000f170a
colonial powers
398
False
The Dutch East India Company (1800) and British East India Company (1858) were dissolved by their respective governments, who took over the direct administration of the colonies. Only Thailand was spared the experience of foreign rule, although, Thailand itself was also greatly affected by the power politics of the Western powers. Colonial rule had a profound effect on Southeast Asia. While the colonial powers profited much from the region's vast resources and large market, colonial rule did develop the region to a varying extent.
In what year did the fall of Constantinople happen?
572f043f03f9891900756b47
1453
124
False
When is the modern period dated in England?
572f043f03f9891900756b48
Battle of Bosworth in 1485
381
False
Who was defeated by Henry Vll at the battle of Bosworth?
572f043f03f9891900756b49
Richard III
362
False
Many major events caused Europe to change around the start of the 16th century, starting with the Fall of Constantinople in 1453, the fall of Muslim Spain and the discovery of the Americas in 1492, and Martin Luther's Protestant Reformation in 1517. In England the modern period is often dated to the start of the Tudor period with the victory of Henry VII over Richard III at the Battle of Bosworth in 1485. Early modern European history is usually seen to span from the start of the 15th century, through the Age of Reason and the Age of Enlightenment in the 17th and 18th centuries, until the beginning of the Industrial Revolution in the late 18th century.
When did Russia experience territorial growth?
572f054fc246551400ce4848
the 17th century
46
False
The 17th century is also known as?
572f054fc246551400ce4849
age of Cossacks.
78
False
Who are Cossacks?
572f054fc246551400ce484a
warriors organized into military communities
109
False
Who joined the Cossacks in 1648?
572f054fc246551400ce484b
peasants of Ukraine
218
False
Why dd the Peasants of Ukraine join the Cossacks?
572f054fc246551400ce484c
in rebellion against Poland-Lithuania
270
False
Russia experienced territorial growth through the 17th century, which was the age of Cossacks. Cossacks were warriors organized into military communities, resembling pirates and pioneers of the New World. In 1648, the peasants of Ukraine joined the Zaporozhian Cossacks in rebellion against Poland-Lithuania during the Khmelnytsky Uprising, because of the social and religious oppression they suffered under Polish rule. In 1654 the Ukrainian leader, Bohdan Khmelnytsky, offered to place Ukraine under the protection of the Russian Tsar, Aleksey I. Aleksey's acceptance of this offer led to another Russo-Polish War (1654–1667). Finally, Ukraine was split along the river Dnieper, leaving the western part (or Right-bank Ukraine) under Polish rule and eastern part (Left-bank Ukraine and Kiev) under Russian. Later, in 1670–71 the Don Cossacks led by Stenka Razin initiated a major uprising in the Volga region, but the Tsar's troops were successful in defeating the rebels. In the east, the rapid Russian exploration and colonisation of the huge territories of Siberia was led mostly by Cossacks hunting for valuable furs and ivory. Russian explorers pushed eastward primarily along the Siberian river routes, and by the mid-17th century there were Russian settlements in the Eastern Siberia, on the Chukchi Peninsula, along the Amur River, and on the Pacific coast. In 1648 the Bering Strait between Asia and North America was passed for the first time by Fedot Popov and Semyon Dezhnyov.
What bridged the middle ages to the modern era?
572f0682c246551400ce4852
European intellectual transformation
19
False
What is regarded as the start of modern philosophy?
572f0682c246551400ce4853
The Age of Reason
129
False
What is 17th century philosophy also referred to as?
572f0682c246551400ce4854
the Age of Rationalism
347
False
What does the Age of Rationalism succeed?
572f0682c246551400ce4855
Renaissance philosophy
399
False
What did the beginning of the 18th century mark the beginning of in Europe?
572f0682c246551400ce4856
secularization
617
False
Traditionally, the European intellectual transformation of and after the Renaissance bridged the Middle Ages and the Modern era. The Age of Reason in the Western world is generally regarded as being the start of modern philosophy, and a departure from the medieval approach, especially Scholasticism. Early 17th-century philosophy is often called the Age of Rationalism and is considered to succeed Renaissance philosophy and precede the Age of Enlightenment, but some consider it as the earliest part of the Enlightenment era in philosophy, extending that era to two centuries. The 18th century saw the beginning of secularization in Europe, rising to notability in the wake of the French Revolution.
What was the age of Enlightenment centered on?
572f0842cb0c0d14000f1720
the 18th century in which reason was advocated as the primary source and legitimacy for authority.
89
False
Where did Enlightenment gain momentum?
572f0842cb0c0d14000f1721
Europe and America
263
False
What is the basic training of a humanist?
572f0842cb0c0d14000f1722
speak well and write
437
False
From where does the phrase humanist originate?
572f0842cb0c0d14000f1723
the 15th century
544
False
What were the studia humanitatis competing against?
572f0842cb0c0d14000f1724
quadrivium and scholastic logic.
665
False
The Age of Enlightenment is a time in Western philosophy and cultural life centered upon the 18th century in which reason was advocated as the primary source and legitimacy for authority. Enlightenment gained momentum more or less simultaneously in many parts of Europe and America. Developing during the Enlightenment era, Renaissance humanism as an intellectual movement spread across Europe. The basic training of the humanist was to speak well and write (typically, in the form of a letter). The term umanista comes from the latter part of the 15th century. The people were associated with the studia humanitatis, a novel curriculum that was competing with the quadrivium and scholastic logic.
What did renaissance humanism reference?
572f0964c246551400ce4866
Latin and Greek classical texts
47
False
renaissance humanism was antagonistic to what?
572f0964c246551400ce4867
scholasticism
118
False
What did renaissance humanism place an emphasis on?
572f0964c246551400ce4868
accumulated commentaries
157
False
Renaissance humanism took a close study of the Latin and Greek classical texts, and was antagonistic to the values of scholasticism with its emphasis on the accumulated commentaries; and humanists were involved in the sciences, philosophies, arts and poetry of classical antiquity. They self-consciously imitated classical Latin and deprecated the use of medieval Latin. By analogy with the perceived decline of Latin, they applied the principle of ad fontes, or back to the sources, across broad areas of learning.
What was the basis of the quarrel between the Ancients and the moderns?
572f0ab9cb0c0d14000f173e
literary and artistic
50
False
In what time period did the quarrel between the Ancients and the Moderns peak?
572f0ab9cb0c0d14000f173f
early 1690s
102
False
Moderns support the merits of whom?
572f0ab9cb0c0d14000f1740
authors of the century of Louis XIV. Fontenelle
341
False
What did Louis XIV believe about the modern man?
572f0ab9cb0c0d14000f1741
modern scholarship allowed modern man to surpass the ancients in knowledge.
527
False
The quarrel of the Ancients and the Moderns was a literary and artistic quarrel that heated up in the early 1690s and shook the Académie française. The opposing two sides were, the Ancients (Anciens) who constrain choice of subjects to those drawn from the literature of Antiquity and the Moderns (Modernes), who supported the merits of the authors of the century of Louis XIV. Fontenelle quickly followed with his Digression sur les anciens et les modernes (1688), in which he took the Modern side, pressing the argument that modern scholarship allowed modern man to surpass the ancients in knowledge.
What s the Scientific Revolution?
572f0de5c246551400ce4876
a period when European ideas in classical physics, astronomy, biology, human anatomy, chemistry, and other classical sciences were rejected
30
False
What did the Scientific Revolution cause?
572f0de5c246551400ce4877
a transition to modern science
287
False
What did the Scientific Revolution force people to do?
572f0de5c246551400ce4878
question all manners of things
553
False
What did Scientific Revolution form?
572f0de5c246551400ce4879
several modern scientific fields.
738
False
The Scientific Revolution was a period when European ideas in classical physics, astronomy, biology, human anatomy, chemistry, and other classical sciences were rejected and led to doctrines supplanting those that had prevailed from Ancient Greece to the Middle Ages which would lead to a transition to modern science. This period saw a fundamental transformation in scientific ideas across physics, astronomy, and biology, in institutions supporting scientific investigation, and in the more widely held picture of the universe. Individuals started to question all manners of things and it was this questioning that led to the Scientific Revolution, which in turn formed the foundations of contemporary sciences and the establishment of several modern scientific fields.
What happened to the king after the trial?
572f0ef8cb0c0d14000f1758
execution of the king
77
False
Who else was involved in the warfare?
572f0ef8cb0c0d14000f1759
every other major European power.
180
False
name an event that can be contributed to the revolution.
572f0ef8cb0c0d14000f175a
the Napoleonic Wars
277
False
The changes were accompanied by violent turmoil which included the trial and execution of the king, vast bloodshed and repression during the Reign of Terror, and warfare involving every other major European power. Subsequent events that can be traced to the Revolution include the Napoleonic Wars, two separate restorations of the monarchy, and two additional revolutions as modern France took shape. In the following century, France would be governed at one point or another as a republic, constitutional monarchy, and two different empires.
What characterized the Napoleonic Era?
572f104d03f9891900756b69
The campaigns of French Emperor and General Napoleon Bonaparte
0
False
Where was Napoleon Bonaparte born?
572f104d03f9891900756b6a
Corsica
105
False
Where was Napoleon Bonaparte die?
572f104d03f9891900756b6b
St. Helena
189
False
From where did the French empire rule a large portion of Europe?
572f104d03f9891900756b6c
Paris
321
False
Why were Europe's Empires and Kingdoms dispatched?
572f104d03f9891900756b6d
surge of Republicanism
615
False
The campaigns of French Emperor and General Napoleon Bonaparte characterized the Napoleonic Era. Born on Corsica as the French invaded, and dying suspiciously on the tiny British Island of St. Helena, this brilliant commander, controlled a French Empire that, at its height, ruled a large portion of Europe directly from Paris, while many of his friends and family ruled countries such as Spain, Poland, several parts of Italy and many other Kingdoms Republics and dependencies. The Napoleonic Era changed the face of Europe forever, and old Empires and Kingdoms fell apart as a result of the mighty and "Glorious" surge of Republicanism.
What is Italian Unification?
572f11a2dfa6aa1500f8d5b7
social movement that annexed different states of the Italian peninsula into the single state of Italy
42
False
When did the Italian Unification occur?
572f11a2dfa6aa1500f8d5b8
in the 19th century
144
False
In what year do most  Scholars agree the Italian Unification began?
572f11a2dfa6aa1500f8d5b9
1815
368
False
In what year do most  Scholars agree the Italian Unification ended?
572f11a2dfa6aa1500f8d5ba
1871
430
False
After what event did the last citta irredente join Italy?
572f11a2dfa6aa1500f8d5bb
World War I.
514
False
Italian unification was the political and social movement that annexed different states of the Italian peninsula into the single state of Italy in the 19th century. There is a lack of consensus on the exact dates for the beginning and the end of this period, but many scholars agree that the process began with the end of Napoleonic rule and the Congress of Vienna in 1815, and approximately ended with the Franco-Prussian War in 1871, though the last città irredente did not join the Kingdom of Italy until after World War I.
What event did the American revolution cause?
572f140403f9891900756b7d
British monarchy itself to become the sovereign United States of America.
257
False
How did the Thirteen Colonies become The United States Of America?
572f140403f9891900756b7e
overthrow the governance of the Parliament of Great Britain, and then reject the British monarchy
176
False
Why did the United States form independent states?
572f140403f9891900756b7f
the colonies first rejected the authority of the Parliament to govern them without representation
346
False
Who did the Second Continental Congress join together against?
572f140403f9891900756b80
the British
552
False
What is the armed conflict form 1775 to 1783 is known as?
572f140403f9891900756b81
American Revolutionary War
648
False
Beginning the Age of Revolution, the American Revolution and the ensuing political upheaval during the last half of the 18th century saw the Thirteen Colonies of North America overthrow the governance of the Parliament of Great Britain, and then reject the British monarchy itself to become the sovereign United States of America. In this period the colonies first rejected the authority of the Parliament to govern them without representation, and formed self-governing independent states. The Second Continental Congress then joined together against the British to defend that self-governance in the armed conflict from 1775 to 1783 known as the American Revolutionary War (also called American War of Independence).
Where did the American Revolution start?
572f1534c246551400ce4892
Lexington and Concord
47
False
What was issued on July 4, 1776?
572f1534c246551400ce4893
Declaration of Independence
103
False
What did the Declaration Of Independence proclaim?
572f1534c246551400ce4894
independence from Great Britain and their formation of a cooperative union.
155
False
What position was Ben Franklin appointed in 1776?
572f1534c246551400ce4895
member of the Committee of Five that drafted the Declaration of Independence.
279
False
What was Ben Franklin disabled by?
572f1534c246551400ce4896
gout
397
False
The American Revolution begun with fighting at Lexington and Concord. On July 4, 1776, they issued the Declaration of Independence, which proclaimed their independence from Great Britain and their formation of a cooperative union. In June 1776, Benjamin Franklin was appointed a member of the Committee of Five that drafted the Declaration of Independence. Although he was temporarily disabled by gout and unable to attend most meetings of the Committee, Franklin made several small changes to the draft sent to him by Thomas Jefferson.
What is the decolonization of the Americas?
572f1678cb0c0d14000f1768
the process by which the countries in the Americas gained their independence from European rule.
39
False
When did the decolonization of the Americas begin?
572f1678cb0c0d14000f1769
18th and early-to-mid-19th centuries.
198
False
When did the wars against Spanish rule occur?
572f1678cb0c0d14000f176a
1808 until 1829
393
False
What were the Spanish wars directly linked to?
572f1678cb0c0d14000f176b
Napoleonic French invasion of Spain.
434
False
How did the Spanish conflict begin?
572f1678cb0c0d14000f176c
short-lived governing juntas established in Chuquisaca and Quito opposing the composition of the Supreme Central Junta of Seville.
497
False
The decolonization of the Americas was the process by which the countries in the Americas gained their independence from European rule. Decolonization began with a series of revolutions in the late 18th and early-to-mid-19th centuries. The Spanish American wars of independence were the numerous wars against Spanish rule in Spanish America that took place during the early 19th century, from 1808 until 1829, directly related to the Napoleonic French invasion of Spain. The conflict started with short-lived governing juntas established in Chuquisaca and Quito opposing the composition of the Supreme Central Junta of Seville.
Who did the central Junta fall to?
572f19dc03f9891900756b8f
the French
31
False
What king died in 1833?
572f19dc03f9891900756b90
king Ferdinand VII
257
False
After King Ferdinand died, who remained under Spanish rule?
572f19dc03f9891900756b91
Cuba and Puerto Rico
291
False
When did the Spanish-American war occur?
572f19dc03f9891900756b92
in 1898
372
False
Where were the Portuguese capacities centralized?
572f19dc03f9891900756b93
Salvador
545
False
When the Central Junta fell to the French, numerous new Juntas appeared all across the Americas, eventually resulting in a chain of newly independent countries stretching from Argentina and Chile in the south, to Mexico in the north. After the death of the king Ferdinand VII, in 1833, only Cuba and Puerto Rico remained under Spanish rule, until the Spanish–American War in 1898. Unlike the Spanish, the Portuguese did not divide their colonial territory in America. The captaincies they created were subdued to a centralized administration in Salvador (later relocated to Rio de Janeiro) which reported directly to the Portuguese Crown until its independence in 1822, becoming the Empire of Brazil.
When did the first industrial revolution merge into the second?
572f1b26cb0c0d14000f177c
around 1850
77
False
What caused technological and economical progress?
572f1b26cb0c0d14000f177d
development of steam-powered ships and railways
156
False
The 19th century was also known as?
572f1b26cb0c0d14000f177e
the internal combustion engine and electric power generation.
240
False
What was the second industrial revolution was labeled?
572f1b26cb0c0d14000f177f
separate Technical Revolution
392
False
The first Industrial Revolution merged into the Second Industrial Revolution around 1850, when technological and economic progress gained momentum with the development of steam-powered ships and railways, and later in the 19th century with the internal combustion engine and electric power generation. The Second Industrial Revolution was a phase of the Industrial Revolution; labeled as the separate Technical Revolution. From a technological and a social point of view there is no clean break between the two. Major innovations during the period occurred in the chemical, electrical, petroleum, and steel industries. Specific advancements included the introduction of oil fired steam turbine and internal combustion driven steel ships, the development of the airplane, the practical commercialization of the automobile, mass production of consumer goods, the perfection of canning, mechanical refrigeration and other food preservation techniques, and the invention of the telephone.
What is industrialization?
572f1cbca23a5019007fc49b
social and economic change
36
False
During industrialization a human group is turned into what?
572f1cbca23a5019007fc49c
from a pre-industrial society into an industrial one.
100
False
industrialization is a subdivision of what general process?
572f1cbca23a5019007fc49d
technological innovation
285
False
Industrialization is the process of social and economic change whereby a human group is transformed from a pre-industrial society into an industrial one. It is a subdivision of a more general modernization process, where social change and economic development are closely related with technological innovation, particularly with the development of large-scale energy and metallurgy production. It is the extensive organization of an economy for the purpose of manufacturing. Industrialization also introduces a form of philosophical change, where people obtain a different attitude towards their perception of nature.
When did the modern petroleum industry start?
572f1de804bcaa1900d7674f
1846
41
False
What started the modern petroleum industry ?
572f1de804bcaa1900d76750
the discovery of the process of refining kerosene from coal
51
False
Who discovered the process of refining kerosene from coal?
572f1de804bcaa1900d76751
Nova Scotian Abraham Pineo Gesner
114
False
Who improved Gesner's  of refining kerosene from coal?
572f1de804bcaa1900d76752
Ignacy Łukasiewicz
149
False
Where was the first Rock Oil mine built?
572f1de804bcaa1900d76753
Bóbrka
346
False
The modern petroleum industry started in 1846 with the discovery of the process of refining kerosene from coal by Nova Scotian Abraham Pineo Gesner. Ignacy Łukasiewicz improved Gesner's method to develop a means of refining kerosene from the more readily available "rock oil" ("petr-oleum") seeps in 1852 and the first rock oil mine was built in Bóbrka, near Krosno in Galicia in the following year. In 1854, Benjamin Silliman, a science professor at Yale University in New Haven, was the first to fractionate petroleum by distillation. These discoveries rapidly spread around the world.
In what fields did achievements occur during the revolution?
572f1f9004bcaa1900d76759
electrification to developments in materials science.
55
False
What did the advancements during the revolution improve for people?
572f1f9004bcaa1900d7675a
quality of life
159
False
What did Lewis Paul invent?
572f1f9004bcaa1900d7675b
roller spinning, the basis of the water frame for spinning cotton in a cotton mill.
241
False
In what period did James Lewis invent the 'Roller Spinning"?
572f1f9004bcaa1900d7675c
the first revolution
179
False
Who improved the steam engine?
572f1f9004bcaa1900d7675d
Matthew Boulton and James Watt
325
False
Engineering achievements of the revolution ranged from electrification to developments in materials science. The advancements made a great contribution to the quality of life. In the first revolution, Lewis Paul was the original inventor of roller spinning, the basis of the water frame for spinning cotton in a cotton mill. Matthew Boulton and James Watt's improvements to the steam engine were fundamental to the changes brought by the Industrial Revolution in both the Kingdom of Great Britain and the world.
Thomas Edison is credited with?
572f20af04bcaa1900d76763
the creation of the first industrial research laboratory
160
False
What Did Thomas Edison switch to in 1882?
572f20af04bcaa1900d76764
the world's first large-scale electrical supply network
246
False
How many volts did Thomas Edison's electrical supply provide?
572f20af04bcaa1900d76765
110 volts
316
False
How many customers were supplied by Thomas Edison's electrical supply network?
572f20af04bcaa1900d76766
fifty-nine
344
False
Where was Thomas Edison's electrical supply network located?
572f20af04bcaa1900d76767
lower Manhattan
368
False
In the latter part of the second revolution, Thomas Alva Edison developed many devices that greatly influenced life around the world and is often credited with the creation of the first industrial research laboratory. In 1882, Edison switched on the world's first large-scale electrical supply network that provided 110 volts direct current to fifty-nine customers in lower Manhattan. Also toward the end of the second industrial revolution, Nikola Tesla made many contributions in the field of electricity and magnetism in the late 19th and early 20th centuries.
When did the European revolutions occur?
572f21aea23a5019007fc4ab
1848
28
False
What are European revolutions known as in other countries?
572f21aea23a5019007fc4ac
Spring of Nations or the Year of Revolution
65
False
In what country did the revolutions begin?
572f21aea23a5019007fc4ad
France
247
False
How many people were estimated to be killed in the revolutions?
572f21aea23a5019007fc4ae
tens of thousands
470
False
The European Revolutions of 1848, known in some countries as the Spring of Nations or the Year of Revolution, were a series of political upheavals throughout the European continent. Described as a revolutionary wave, the period of unrest began in France and then, further propelled by the French Revolution of 1848, soon spread to the rest of Europe. Although most of the revolutions were quickly put down, there was a significant amount of violence in many areas, with tens of thousands of people tortured and killed. While the immediate political effects of the revolutions were reversed, the long-term reverberations of the events were far-reaching.
What did the reformers look to to solve social problems?
572f2a9bb2c2fd1400567f51
Scientific Revolution and industrial progress
65
False
What is Newton Natural philosophy?
572f2a9bb2c2fd1400567f52
a coherent system of verifiable predictions
307
False
What did Newton's Nataural philosophy replace?
572f2a9bb2c2fd1400567f53
reliance on revelation and inspired truth.
376
False
What did Newton's philosophy do when applied to life,
572f2a9bb2c2fd1400567f54
yielded several successful campaigns for changes in social policy.
457
False
Following the Enlightenment's ideas, the reformers looked to the Scientific Revolution and industrial progress to solve the social problems which arose with the Industrial Revolution. Newton's natural philosophy combined a mathematics of axiomatic proof with the mechanics of physical observation, yielding a coherent system of verifiable predictions and replacing a previous reliance on revelation and inspired truth. Applied to public life, this approach yielded several successful campaigns for changes in social policy.
Under whom was Russia declared an empire?
572f2be3b2c2fd1400567f59
Peter I
6
False
In what year was Russia declared an empire?
572f2be3b2c2fd1400567f5a
1721
62
False
Through what period did Peter I rule?
572f2be3b2c2fd1400567f5b
1682 to 1725
119
False
Who did Peter I defeat in the Great Northern War?
572f2be3b2c2fd1400567f5c
Sweden
148
False
What did Peter I found on the Baltic Sea?
572f2be3b2c2fd1400567f5d
a new capital called Saint Petersburg
394
False
Under Peter I (the Great), Russia was proclaimed an Empire in 1721 and became recognized as a world power. Ruling from 1682 to 1725, Peter defeated Sweden in the Great Northern War, forcing it to cede West Karelia and Ingria (two regions lost by Russia in the Time of Troubles), as well as Estland and Livland, securing Russia's access to the sea and sea trade. On the Baltic Sea Peter founded a new capital called Saint Petersburg, later known as Russia's Window to Europe. Peter the Great's reforms brought considerable Western European cultural influences to Russia. Catherine II (the Great), who ruled in 1762–96, extended Russian political control over the Polish-Lithuanian Commonwealth and incorporated most of its territories into Russia during the Partitions of Poland, pushing the Russian frontier westward into Central Europe. In the south, after successful Russo-Turkish Wars against the Ottoman Empire, Catherine advanced Russia's boundary to the Black Sea, defeating the Crimean khanate.
What was the Victorian era of the United Kingdom?
572f2d7e04bcaa1900d7676d
the period of Queen Victoria's reign
44
False
Through what Period did Queen Victoria reign?
572f2d7e04bcaa1900d7676e
1837 to January 1901
91
False
What did the people consider Queen Victoria reign to be?
572f2d7e04bcaa1900d7676f
a long period of prosperity for the British people
122
False
How far back would some scholars extend Victoria's reign?
572f2d7e04bcaa1900d76770
five years to the passage of the Reform Act 1832.
499
False
The Victorian era of the United Kingdom was the period of Queen Victoria's reign from June 1837 to January 1901. This was a long period of prosperity for the British people, as profits gained from the overseas British Empire, as well as from industrial improvements at home, allowed a large, educated middle class to develop. Some scholars would extend the beginning of the period—as defined by a variety of sensibilities and political games that have come to be associated with the Victorians—back five years to the passage of the Reform Act 1832.
What did defeating Napoleon leave Britain without?
572f2fa3a23a5019007fc4bb
any serious international rival
76
False
Why did Britain adopt the role of Global Policemen?
572f2fa3a23a5019007fc4bc
Unchallenged at sea
144
False
Britain adopting the role as global policeman is known as
572f2fa3a23a5019007fc4bd
Pax Britannica
249
False
What was Britain's foreign policy called?
572f2fa3a23a5019007fc4be
splendid isolation
290
False
Britain's dominant position in the world trade allowed them to do what?
572f2fa3a23a5019007fc4bf
effectively controlled the economies of many nominally independent countries, such as China, Argentina and Siam
431
False
In Britain's "imperial century", victory over Napoleon left Britain without any serious international rival, other than Russia in central Asia. Unchallenged at sea, Britain adopted the role of global policeman, a state of affairs later known as the Pax Britannica, and a foreign policy of "splendid isolation". Alongside the formal control it exerted over its own colonies, Britain's dominant position in world trade meant that it effectively controlled the economies of many nominally independent countries, such as China, Argentina and Siam, which has been generally characterized as "informal empire". Of note during this time was the Anglo-Zulu War, which was fought in 1879 between the British Empire and the Zulu Empire.
What was British imperial strength replace by?
572f30b604bcaa1900d7677f
steamship and the telegraph
49
False
When were the steamship and the telegraph invented?
572f30b604bcaa1900d76780
the second half of the 19th century
107
False
What was the British Empire linked by in 1982?
572f30b604bcaa1900d76781
a network of telegraph cables
241
False
How many people were added to the British Empire by 1922?
572f30b604bcaa1900d76782
458 million
393
False
When did the British establish colonies in Australia?
572f30b604bcaa1900d76783
1788
495
False
British imperial strength was underpinned by the steamship and the telegraph, new technologies invented in the second half of the 19th century, allowing it to control and defend the Empire. By 1902, the British Empire was linked together by a network of telegraph cables, the so-called All Red Line. Growing until 1922, around 13,000,000 square miles (34,000,000 km2) of territory and roughly 458 million people were added to the British Empire. The British established colonies in Australia in 1788, New Zealand in 1840 and Fiji in 1872, with much of Oceania becoming part of the British Empire.
The Bourbon Restoration followed what event?
572f3211b2c2fd1400567f6d
Napoleon I of France
48
False
What is the Bourbon Restoration?
572f3211b2c2fd1400567f6e
Allies restored the Bourbon Dynasty to the French throne.
82
False
What is the July Monarchy?
572f3211b2c2fd1400567f6f
a period of liberal constitutional monarchy in France under King Louis-Philippe
371
False
What is the second empires?
572f3211b2c2fd1400567f70
the Imperial Bonapartist regime of Napoleon III
580
False
Through what period did the second empire last?
572f3211b2c2fd1400567f71
1852 to 1870
633
False
The Bourbon Restoration followed the ousting of Napoleon I of France in 1814. The Allies restored the Bourbon Dynasty to the French throne. The ensuing period is called the Restoration, following French usage, and is characterized by a sharp conservative reaction and the re-establishment of the Roman Catholic Church as a power in French politics. The July Monarchy was a period of liberal constitutional monarchy in France under King Louis-Philippe starting with the July Revolution (or Three Glorious Days) of 1830 and ending with the Revolution of 1848. The Second Empire was the Imperial Bonapartist regime of Napoleon III from 1852 to 1870, between the Second Republic and the Third Republic, in France.
What countries were involved in the Franco-Russian war?
572f3522a23a5019007fc4e3
France and Prussia
47
False
Name one of the groups who backed Prussia in the Franco-Russian war?
572f3522a23a5019007fc4e4
North German Confederation
102
False
What did the Prussian and German victory mark?
572f3522a23a5019007fc4e5
final unification of Germany under King Wilhelm I of Prussia.
278
False
Prussia claimed almost all of what territory?
572f3522a23a5019007fc4e6
Alsace-Lorraine
525
False
Prussia retained most of Alsace-Lorraine up until what event?
572f3522a23a5019007fc4e7
World War I.
630
False
The Franco-Prussian War was a conflict between France and Prussia, while Prussia was backed up by the North German Confederation, of which it was a member, and the South German states of Baden, Württemberg and Bavaria. The complete Prussian and German victory brought about the final unification of Germany under King Wilhelm I of Prussia. It also marked the downfall of Napoleon III and the end of the Second French Empire, which was replaced by the Third Republic. As part of the settlement, almost all of the territory of Alsace-Lorraine was taken by Prussia to become a part of Germany, which it would retain until the end of World War I.
Why did European powers lay claim to areas Africa?
572f3766b2c2fd1400567f8b
exhibit a sphere of influence over the area
77
False
What did the European powers need to make their claim over these areas legitimate?
572f3766b2c2fd1400567f8c
These claims did not have to have any substantial land holdings or treaties to be legitimate.
122
False
What do European powers that exibit their control ovet an area accept?
572f3766b2c2fd1400567f8d
mandate to rule that region as a national colony.
295
False
How did the claims on the areas in Africa benefit the European powers?
572f3766b2c2fd1400567f8e
colony’s commercial interests without having to fear rival European competition.
420
False
What was the colonial experience for Africans described as?
572f3766b2c2fd1400567f8f
hell on earth.
1011
False
The major European powers laid claim to the areas of Africa where they could exhibit a sphere of influence over the area. These claims did not have to have any substantial land holdings or treaties to be legitimate. The European power that demonstrated its control over a territory accepted the mandate to rule that region as a national colony. The European nation that held the claim developed and benefited from their colony’s commercial interests without having to fear rival European competition. With the colonial claim came the underlying assumption that the European power that exerted control would use its mandate to offer protection and provide welfare for its colonial peoples, however, this principle remained more theory than practice. There were many documented instances of material and moral conditions deteriorating for native Africans in the late nineteenth and early twentieth centuries under European colonial rule, to the point where the colonial experience for them has been described as "hell on earth."
What percent of the worlds population did Africa posses at the Berlin Conference?
572f394ba23a5019007fc4ed
one-fifth
55
False
What was Europe's perspective o Africa containing one-fifth of the worlds population?
572f394ba23a5019007fc4ee
they were dividing an unknown continent.
175
False
When did European countries establish colonies in Africa?
572f394ba23a5019007fc4ef
the mid-nineteenth century,
283
False
Europe did not feel the need to posses territory in Africa until?
572f394ba23a5019007fc4f0
1880s
544
False
How did maps show Africa Before 1880?
572f394ba23a5019007fc4f1
generally showing blank spaces for the continent’s interior.
621
False
At the time of the Berlin Conference, Africa contained one-fifth of the world’s population living in one-quarter of the world’s land area. However, from Europe's perspective, they were dividing an unknown continent. European countries established a few coastal colonies in Africa by the mid-nineteenth century, which included Cape Colony (Great Britain), Angola (Portugal), and Algeria (France), but until the late nineteenth century Europe largely traded with free African states without feeling the need for territorial possession. Until the 1880s most of Africa remained unchartered, with western maps from the period generally showing blank spaces for the continent’s interior.
Through what period did European powers expand control in Africa?
572f3b98b2c2fd1400567f95
1880s to 1914
9
False
What was Europe competing for?
572f3b98b2c2fd1400567f96
Africa’s land and resources.
127
False
What did Great Britain control?
572f3b98b2c2fd1400567f97
various colonial holdings in East Africa
181
False
Where in Africa did the French have control?
572f3b98b2c2fd1400567f98
West Africa
346
False
Where in Africa did Portuguese have control?
572f3b98b2c2fd1400567f99
southern Africa
395
False
From the 1880s to 1914, the European powers expanded their control across the African continent, competing with each other for Africa’s land and resources. Great Britain controlled various colonial holdings in East Africa that spanned the length of the African continent from Egypt in the north to South Africa. The French gained major ground in West Africa, and the Portuguese held colonies in southern Africa. Germany, Italy, and Spain established a small number of colonies at various points throughout the continent, which included German East Africa (Tanganyika) and German Southwest Africa for Germany, Eritrea and Libya for Italy, and the Canary Islands and Rio de Oro in northwestern Africa for Spain. Finally, for King Leopold (ruled from 1865–1909), there was the large “piece of that great African cake” known as the Congo, which, unfortunately for the native Congolese, became his personal fiefdom to do with as he pleased in Central Africa. By 1914, almost the entire continent was under European control. Liberia, which was settled by freed American slaves in the 1820s, and Abyssinia (Ethiopia) in eastern Africa were the last remaining independent African states. (John Merriman, A History of Modern Europe, Volume Two: From the French Revolution to the Present, Third Edition (New York: W. W. Norton & Company, 2010), pp. 819–859).
What was the Meija era marked by?
572f3d1f04bcaa1900d767b1
the reign of the Meiji Emperor
90
False
How did Japan rise to be a world power during the Meja era?
572f3d1f04bcaa1900d767b2
modernization
158
False
What does "Meija era"
572f3d1f04bcaa1900d767b3
Enlightened Rule
225
False
When did the Meija restoration begin?
572f3d1f04bcaa1900d767b4
1860s
291
False
What did Irokawa Daikichi act out against?
572f3d1f04bcaa1900d767b5
bureaucratic superstate
573
False
Around the end of the 19th century and into the 20th century, the Meiji era was marked by the reign of the Meiji Emperor. During this time, Japan started its modernization and rose to world power status. This era name means "Enlightened Rule". In Japan, the Meiji Restoration started in the 1860s, marking the rapid modernization by the Japanese themselves along European lines. Much research has focused on the issues of discontinuity versus continuity with the previous Tokugawa Period. In the 1960s younger Japanese scholars led by Irokawa Daikichi, reacted against the bureaucratic superstate, and began searching for the historic role of the common people . They avoided the elite, and focused not on political events but on social forces and attitudes. They rejected both Marxism and modernization theory as alien and confining. They stressed the importance of popular energies in the development of modern Japan. They enlarged history by using the methods of social history. It was not until the beginning of the Meiji Era that the Japanese government began taking modernization seriously. Japan expanded its military production base by opening arsenals in various locations. The hyobusho (war office) was replaced with a War Department and a Naval Department. The samurai class suffered great disappointment the following years.
Laws mandated that every able bodies Japanese citizen do what?
572f3f15947a6a140053c80c
serve a mandatory term of three years with the first reserves and two additional years with the second reserves.
100
False
Who initially rejected the Japanese laws mandating military service?
572f3f15947a6a140053c80d
peasant and warrior alike.
335
False
What did the peasant class name the mandatory military service law?
572f3f15947a6a140053c80e
ketsu-eki
423
False
Who did the Japanese form their military  forces after?
572f3f15947a6a140053c80f
French military
581
False
Where was the military academy located?
572f3f15947a6a140053c810
Kyoto
724
False
Laws were instituted that required every able-bodied male Japanese citizen, regardless of class, to serve a mandatory term of three years with the first reserves and two additional years with the second reserves. This action, the deathblow for the samurai warriors and their daimyo feudal lords, initially met resistance from both the peasant and warrior alike. The peasant class interpreted the term for military service, ketsu-eki (blood tax) literally, and attempted to avoid service by any means necessary. The Japanese government began modelling their ground forces after the French military. The French government contributed greatly to the training of Japanese officers. Many were employed at the military academy in Kyoto, and many more still were feverishly translating French field manuals for use in the Japanese ranks.
What is the antebellum age?
572f403e04bcaa1900d767d7
a period of increasing division in the country based on the growth of slavery
23
False
When did the civil was begin?
572f403e04bcaa1900d767d8
1861
218
False
When was the Antebellum age considered to have begun?
572f403e04bcaa1900d767d9
with the Kansas–Nebraska Act of 1854
280
False
What did The Antebellum age mark?
572f403e04bcaa1900d767da
the transition of American manufacturing to the industrial revolution.
430
False
The Antebellum Age was a period of increasing division in the country based on the growth of slavery in the American South and in the western territories of Kansas and Nebraska that eventually lead to the Civil War in 1861. The Antebellum Period is often considered to have begun with the Kansas–Nebraska Act of 1854,[citation needed] although it may have begun as early as 1812. This period is also significant because it marked the transition of American manufacturing to the industrial revolution.[citation needed]
What did northern leaders agree on about slavery?
572f427604bcaa1900d767f1
all forms of slavery or quasi-slavery had to be eliminated.
153
False
What did Lincoln do well in the war?
572f427604bcaa1900d767f2
mobilizing support for the war goals
241
False
Why couldn't the confederacy defend their ports?
572f427604bcaa1900d767f3
The Confederacy had a larger area than it could defend
393
False
The south could barely do what for their souldiers?
572f427604bcaa1900d767f4
feed and clothe
565
False
General Robert E. Lee controlled what sect of the confederacy?
572f427604bcaa1900d767f5
the East
629
False
Northern leaders agreed that victory would require more than the end of fighting. Secession and Confederate nationalism had to be totally repudiated and all forms of slavery or quasi-slavery had to be eliminated. Lincoln proved effective in mobilizing support for the war goals, raising large armies and supplying them, avoiding foreign interference, and making the end of slavery a war goal. The Confederacy had a larger area than it could defend, and it failed to keep its ports open and its rivers clear. The North kept up the pressure as the South could barely feed and clothe its soldiers. Its soldiers, especially those in the East under the command of General Robert E. Lee proved highly resourceful until they finally were overwhelmed by Generals Ulysses S. Grant and William T. Sherman in 1864–65, The Reconstruction Era (1863–77) began with the Emancipation proclamation in 1863, and included freedom, full citizenship and the vote for the Southern blacks. It was followed by a reaction that left the blacks in a second class status legally, politically, socially and economically until the 1960s.
What happened in the Glided Age/
572f4433b2c2fd1400567fa9
extravagant displays of wealth and excess of America's upper-class
91
False
In what time period did the Glided Age occur?
572f4433b2c2fd1400567faa
late 19th century
220
False
Where did the wealth of the Glided Age come form?
572f4433b2c2fd1400567fab
industrial and population expansion.
286
False
What did Financiers refer to rich industrialist as?
572f4433b2c2fd1400567fac
robber barons
625
False
What type of practices did John D. Rockefeller exhibit in the oil industry?
572f4433b2c2fd1400567fad
effective tactics and aggressive practices
765
False
During the Gilded Age, there was substantial growth in population in the United States and extravagant displays of wealth and excess of America's upper-class during the post-Civil War and post-Reconstruction era, in the late 19th century. The wealth polarization derived primarily from industrial and population expansion. The businessmen of the Second Industrial Revolution created industrial towns and cities in the Northeast with new factories, and contributed to the creation of an ethnically diverse industrial working class which produced the wealth owned by rising super-rich industrialists and financiers called the "robber barons". An example is the company of John D. Rockefeller, who was an important figure in shaping the new oil industry. Using highly effective tactics and aggressive practices, later widely criticized, Standard Oil absorbed or destroyed most of its competition.
What creations brought in the modern industrial economy?
572f466bb2c2fd1400567fbd
transportation and communication infrastructure
79
False
What became the dominant form of business organization?
572f466bb2c2fd1400567fbe
the corporation
128
False
What transformed business organization in 1890?
572f466bb2c2fd1400567fbf
managerial revolution
200
False
The Sherman Antitrust Act is the source of what?
572f466bb2c2fd1400567fc0
all American anti-monopoly laws.
320
False
What was he Standard Oil Group determined to be by the courts?
572f466bb2c2fd1400567fc1
an "unreasonable" monopoly
884
False
The creation of a modern industrial economy took place. With the creation of a transportation and communication infrastructure, the corporation became the dominant form of business organization and a managerial revolution transformed business operations. In 1890, Congress passed the Sherman Antitrust Act—the source of all American anti-monopoly laws. The law forbade every contract, scheme, deal, or conspiracy to restrain trade, though the phrase "restraint of trade" remained subjective. By the beginning of the 20th century, per capita income and industrial production in the United States exceeded that of any other country except Britain. Long hours and hazardous working conditions led many workers to attempt to form labor unions despite strong opposition from industrialists and the courts. But the courts did protect the marketplace, declaring the Standard Oil group to be an "unreasonable" monopoly under the Sherman Antitrust Act in 1911. It ordered Standard to break up into 34 independent companies with different boards of directors.
When did modern physics arise?
572f47a7a23a5019007fc4f7
early 20th century
111
False
What is the old Quantum  theory?
572f47a7a23a5019007fc4f8
a collection of results which predate modern quantum mechanics, but were never complete or self-consistent.
327
False
The "fifth element" was disproved by what?
572f47a7a23a5019007fc4f9
Michelson-Morley experiment
726
False
What is the Michelson-Morley experiment?
572f47a7a23a5019007fc4fa
an attempt to detect the motion of earth through the aether
754
False
What does Darwinism promote?
572f47a7a23a5019007fc4fb
the theory of natural selection.
895
False
Replacing the classical physics in use since the end of the scientific revolution, modern physics arose in the early 20th century with the advent of quantum physics, substituting mathematical studies for experimental studies and examining equations to build a theoretical structure.[citation needed] The old quantum theory was a collection of results which predate modern quantum mechanics, but were never complete or self-consistent. The collection of heuristic prescriptions for quantum mechanics were the first corrections to classical mechanics. Outside the realm of quantum physics, the various aether theories in classical physics, which supposed a "fifth element" such as the Luminiferous aether, were nullified by the Michelson-Morley experiment—an attempt to detect the motion of earth through the aether. In biology, Darwinism gained acceptance, promoting the concept of adaptation in the theory of natural selection. The fields of geology, astronomy and psychology also made strides and gained new insights. In medicine, there were advances in medical theory and treatments.
Why did Chinese philosophy begin to mix with western concepts?
572f494104bcaa1900d7680d
as steps toward modernization
88
False
When did the Xinhai Revolution begin?
572f494104bcaa1900d7680e
1911
159
False
What is the May Forth Movement?
572f494104bcaa1900d7680f
to completely abolish the old imperial institutions and practices of China
221
False
What did Marxist-Leninst add to Chinese philosophy?
572f494104bcaa1900d76810
Marxist-Leninist thought
541
False
During what event was Legalism abolished?
572f494104bcaa1900d76811
the Cultural Revolution
732
False
The assertions of Chinese philosophy began to integrate concepts of Western philosophy, as steps toward modernization. By the time of the Xinhai Revolution in 1911, there were many calls, such as the May Fourth Movement, to completely abolish the old imperial institutions and practices of China. There were attempts to incorporate democracy, republicanism, and industrialism into Chinese philosophy, notably by Sun Yat-Sen (Sūn yì xiān, in one Mandarin form of the name) at the beginning of the 20th century. Mao Zedong (Máo zé dōng) added Marxist-Leninist thought. When the Communist Party of China took over power, previous schools of thought, excepting notably Legalism, were denounced as backward, and later even purged during the Cultural Revolution.
When was the enlightenment of spiritual philosophy challenged?
572f4dbdb2c2fd1400567ff7
in various quarters around the 1900s.
106
False
What were Humanist ethical philosophy's developed from?
572f4dbdb2c2fd1400567ff8
earlier secular traditions
159
False
Why did Kari Marx criticize Humanist Philosophy's?
572f4dbdb2c2fd1400567ff9
it to be symptomatic of the very dehumanization it was supposed to oppose
789
False
What did Friedrinch Netzsche consider Humanism to be?
572f4dbdb2c2fd1400567ffa
a secular version of theism
920
False
Why does Friedrinch Netzsche believe human rights exist?
572f4dbdb2c2fd1400567ffb
as a means for the weak to collectively constrain the strong.
1011
False
Starting one-hundred years before the 20th century, the enlightenment spiritual philosophy was challenged in various quarters around the 1900s. Developed from earlier secular traditions, modern Humanist ethical philosophies affirmed the dignity and worth of all people, based on the ability to determine right and wrong by appealing to universal human qualities, particularly rationality, without resorting to the supernatural or alleged divine authority from religious texts. For liberal humanists such as Rousseau and Kant, the universal law of reason guided the way toward total emancipation from any kind of tyranny. These ideas were challenged, for example by the young Karl Marx, who criticized the project of political emancipation (embodied in the form of human rights), asserting it to be symptomatic of the very dehumanization it was supposed to oppose. For Friedrich Nietzsche, humanism was nothing more than a secular version of theism. In his Genealogy of Morals, he argues that human rights exist as a means for the weak to collectively constrain the strong. On this view, such rights do not facilitate emancipation of life, but rather deny it. In the 20th century, the notion that human beings are rationally autonomous was challenged by the concept that humans were driven by unconscious irrational desires.
What is Albert Einstein known for?
572f4f3304bcaa1900d76831
his theories of special relativity and general relativity
29
False
What did Einstein add to the Brownman Motion?
572f4f3304bcaa1900d76832
mathematical treatment
166
False
What did Einstein discover a resolution to?
572f4f3304bcaa1900d76833
the paradox of specific heats
227
False
What theory  did Einstein have reservations about?
572f4f3304bcaa1900d76834
quantum field theory
432
False
Albert Einstein is known for his theories of special relativity and general relativity. He also made important contributions to statistical mechanics, especially his mathematical treatment of Brownian motion, his resolution of the paradox of specific heats, and his connection of fluctuations and dissipation. Despite his reservations about its interpretation, Einstein also made contributions to quantum mechanics and, indirectly, quantum field theory, primarily through his theoretical studies of the photon.
What is the federation of Australia?
572f527db2c2fd140056801d
six separate British self-governing colonies of New South Wales, Queensland, South Australia, Tasmania, Victoria and Western Australia formed one nation.
66
False
What was the federal Government responsible for?
572f527db2c2fd140056801e
matters concerning the whole nation.
367
False
When did the colonies collectively become a part of the Commonwealth  of Australia?
572f527db2c2fd140056801f
When the Constitution of Australia came into force
404
False
In 1901, the Federation of Australia was the process by which the six separate British self-governing colonies of New South Wales, Queensland, South Australia, Tasmania, Victoria and Western Australia formed one nation. They kept the systems of government that they had developed as separate colonies but also would have a federal government that was responsible for matters concerning the whole nation. When the Constitution of Australia came into force, the colonies collectively became states of the Commonwealth of Australia.
What were the last days of the Qing dynasty marked by?
572f538ca23a5019007fc53f
civil unrest and foreign invasions.
49
False
What did the Qing dynasty attempt to do n the face of civil unrest?
572f538ca23a5019007fc540
attempt to reform the government in various
164
False
What happened to The reformers in the Qing dynasty?
572f538ca23a5019007fc541
either imprisoned or executed outright.
486
False
What caused the revolution against the Qing dynasty?
572f538ca23a5019007fc542
failures of the Imperial Court to enact such reforming measures of political liberalization and modernization
530
False
The last days of the Qing Dynasty were marked by civil unrest and foreign invasions. Responding to these civil failures and discontent, the Qing Imperial Court did attempt to reform the government in various ways, such as the decision to draft a constitution in 1906, the establishment of provincial legislatures in 1909, and the preparation for a national parliament in 1910. However, many of these measures were opposed by the conservatives of the Qing Court, and many reformers were either imprisoned or executed outright. The failures of the Imperial Court to enact such reforming measures of political liberalization and modernization caused the reformists to steer toward the road of revolution.
When was the Republic of China established?
572f54dba23a5019007fc551
1912
3
False
Who was Inaugurated in Nanjing as the first provisional president?
572f54dba23a5019007fc552
Sun Yat-sen
51
False
Who had control of the Beiyang army?
572f54dba23a5019007fc553
Yuan Shikai
169
False
What did China agree to avoid the undermining of the Republic?
572f54dba23a5019007fc554
agreed to Army's demand that China be united under a Beijing government.
385
False
Who was sworn in as the second provisional president of the republic of China?
572f54dba23a5019007fc555
Beijing, Shikai
474
False
In 1912, the Republic of China was established and Sun Yat-sen was inaugurated in Nanjing as the first Provisional President. But power in Beijing already had passed to Yuan Shikai, who had effective control of the Beiyang Army, the most powerful military force in China at the time. To prevent civil war and possible foreign intervention from undermining the infant republic, leaders agreed to Army's demand that China be united under a Beijing government. On March 10, in Beijing, Shikai was sworn in as the second Provisional President of the Republic of China.
What happened to China after the 20th century revolutions?
572f56ddb2c2fd1400568049
shifting alliances of China's regional warlords waged war for control of the Beijing government.
42
False
Who ultimately gained control of the Beijing government?
572f56ddb2c2fd140056804a
various warlords
161
False
Why was there not a new era of governance in Beijing?
572f56ddb2c2fd140056804b
because other warlords did not acknowledge the transitory governments in this period and were a law unto themselves.
306
False
What were the military dominated governments known as?
572f56ddb2c2fd140056804c
the Beiyang government
487
False
When did the warlord era end?
572f56ddb2c2fd140056804d
around 1927
533
False
After the early 20th century revolutions, shifting alliances of China's regional warlords waged war for control of the Beijing government. Despite the fact that various warlords gained control of the government in Beijing during the warlord era, this did not constitute a new era of control or governance, because other warlords did not acknowledge the transitory governments in this period and were a law unto themselves. These military-dominated governments were collectively known as the Beiyang government. The warlord era ended around 1927.
When dd the Russo-Japanese war take place?
572f588204bcaa1900d76877
Four years into the 20th century
0
False
What did the battle of Port Arthur establish?
572f588204bcaa1900d76878
the Empire of Japan as a world power.
104
False
What were the Russians hoping to find in the pacific ocean?
572f588204bcaa1900d76879
warm water port
185
False
Why did the Manchurian Campaign fight the Russians.
572f588204bcaa1900d7687a
over Manchuria and Korea.
347
False
How were the Japanese victories over the Russians views around the world?
572f588204bcaa1900d7687b
unexpected
696
False
Four years into the 20th century saw the Russo-Japanese War with the Battle of Port Arthur establishing the Empire of Japan as a world power. The Russians were in constant pursuit of a warm water port on the Pacific Ocean, for their navy as well as for maritime trade. The Manchurian Campaign of the Russian Empire was fought against the Japanese over Manchuria and Korea. The major theatres of operations were Southern Manchuria, specifically the area around the Liaodong Peninsula and Mukden, and the seas around Korea, Japan, and the Yellow Sea. The resulting campaigns, in which the fledgling Japanese military consistently attained victory over the Russian forces arrayed against them, were unexpected by world observers. These victories, as time transpired, would dramatically transform the distribution of power in East Asia, resulting in a reassessment of Japan's recent entry onto the world stage. The embarrassing string of defeats increased Russian popular dissatisfaction with the inefficient and corrupt Tsarist government.
What is the Edwardian era?
572f59f204bcaa1900d76891
the period spanning the reign of King Edward VII up to the end of the First World War,
43
False
What event split the United Kingdom into two groups?
572f59f204bcaa1900d76892
Second Boer War
232
False
In what year did the Liberals win huge in the general election?
572f59f204bcaa1900d76893
1906
417
False
What led to a reduction in the power of the peers?
572f59f204bcaa1900d76894
Conflict between the two Houses of Parliament over the People's Budget
611
False
Who held the balance of power in the 1910 election?
572f59f204bcaa1900d76895
Labour and Irish Nationalist members.
839
False
The Edwardian era in the United Kingdom is the period spanning the reign of King Edward VII up to the end of the First World War, including the years surrounding the sinking of the RMS Titanic. In the early years of the period, the Second Boer War in South Africa split the country into anti- and pro-war factions. The imperial policies of the Conservatives eventually proved unpopular and in the general election of 1906 the Liberals won a huge landslide. The Liberal government was unable to proceed with all of its radical programme without the support of the House of Lords, which was largely Conservative. Conflict between the two Houses of Parliament over the People's Budget led to a reduction in the power of the peers in 1910. The general election in January that year returned a hung parliament with the balance of power held by Labour and Irish Nationalist members.
What is The Triple Entente?
572f5c00947a6a140053c8be
the name given to the loose alignment between the United Kingdom, France, and Russia after the signing of the Anglo-Russian Entente in 1907.
155
False
When was the Anglo -Russia Entente signed?
572f5c00947a6a140053c8bf
1907.
290
False
The Triple Entente served as a counter to what agreement?
572f5c00947a6a140053c8c0
Triple Alliance of Germany, Austria-Hungary, and Italy,
452
False
What was the origin of the war?
572f5c00947a6a140053c8c1
the decisions taken by statesmen and generals during the July Crisis of 1914
755
False
Who was murdered in Austria?
572f5c00947a6a140053c8c2
Archduke Franz Ferdinand
895
False
The causes of World War I included many factors, including the conflicts and antagonisms of the four decades leading up to the war. The Triple Entente was the name given to the loose alignment between the United Kingdom, France, and Russia after the signing of the Anglo-Russian Entente in 1907. The alignment of the three powers, supplemented by various agreements with Japan, the United States, and Spain, constituted a powerful counterweight to the Triple Alliance of Germany, Austria-Hungary, and Italy, the third having concluded an additional secret agreement with France effectively nullifying her Alliance commitments. Militarism, alliances, imperialism, and nationalism played major roles in the conflict. The immediate origins of the war lay in the decisions taken by statesmen and generals during the July Crisis of 1914, the spark (or casus belli) for which was the assassination of Archduke Franz Ferdinand of Austria.
Where was the Baghdad Railway Suppose to connect?
572f5f7a947a6a140053c8d0
Ottoman Empire cities of Konya and Baghdad with a line through modern-day Turkey, Syria and Iraq
373
False
What fundamental cause started the war in 1914?
572f5f7a947a6a140053c8d1
tensions over territory in the Balkans.
774
False
Who did Austria-Hungary war with over territory?
572f5f7a947a6a140053c8d2
Serbia and Russia
844
False
Where did the Balkan wars take place?
572f5f7a947a6a140053c8d3
South-eastern Europe
1046
False
Why did Albania fall out with Thessaly, Macedonia and Epirus?
572f5f7a947a6a140053c8d4
over the division of the spoils
1284
False
However, the crisis did not exist in a void; it came after a long series of diplomatic clashes between the Great Powers over European and colonial issues in the decade prior to 1914 which had left tensions high. The diplomatic clashes can be traced to changes in the balance of power in Europe since 1870. An example is the Baghdad Railway which was planned to connect the Ottoman Empire cities of Konya and Baghdad with a line through modern-day Turkey, Syria and Iraq. The railway became a source of international disputes during the years immediately preceding World War I. Although it has been argued that they were resolved in 1914 before the war began, it has also been argued that the railroad was a cause of the First World War. Fundamentally the war was sparked by tensions over territory in the Balkans. Austria-Hungary competed with Serbia and Russia for territory and influence in the region and they pulled the rest of the great powers into the conflict through their various alliances and treaties. The Balkan Wars were two wars in South-eastern Europe in 1912–1913 in the course of which the Balkan League (Bulgaria, Montenegro, Greece, and Serbia) first captured Ottoman-held remaining part of Thessaly, Macedonia, Epirus, Albania and most of Thrace and then fell out over the division of the spoils, with incorporation of Romania this time.
When did the first World War begin?
572f6140947a6a140053c8f4
1914
29
False
Who led the Allied powers?
572f6140947a6a140053c8f5
British Empire, France, Russia
107
False
Who defeated the Central Powers led by the German Empire Austro-Hungarian Empire and the Ottoman Empire??
572f6140947a6a140053c8f6
Japan and the United States
156
False
What were the Allied powers referred to before 1917?
572f6140947a6a140053c8f7
Triple Entente
521
False
How many Empires did the war cause destruction to?
572f6140947a6a140053c8f8
four empires
336
False
The First World War began in 1914 and lasted to the final Armistice in 1918. The Allied Powers, led by the British Empire, France, Russia until March 1918, Japan and the United States after 1917, defeated the Central Powers, led by the German Empire, Austro-Hungarian Empire and the Ottoman Empire. The war caused the disintegration of four empires—the Austro-Hungarian, German, Ottoman, and Russian ones—as well as radical change in the European and West Asian maps. The Allied powers before 1917 are referred to as the Triple Entente, and the Central Powers are referred to as the Triple Alliance.
Where did most of the fighting in World War I take place?
572f6309b2c2fd140056809d
along the Western Front
47
False
What is the Western Front?
572f6309b2c2fd140056809e
a system of opposing manned trenches and fortifications (separated by a "No man's land") running from the North Sea to the border of Switzerland.
79
False
What prevented a trench warfare stalemate?
572f6309b2c2fd140056809f
On the Eastern Front, the vast eastern plains and limited rail network
225
False
How many soldiers died? in World War I?
572f6309b2c2fd14005680a0
More than 9 million
488
False
Where did hostiles appear for the first time during the war?
572f6309b2c2fd14005680a1
from the air.
474
False
Much of the fighting in World War I took place along the Western Front, within a system of opposing manned trenches and fortifications (separated by a "No man's land") running from the North Sea to the border of Switzerland. On the Eastern Front, the vast eastern plains and limited rail network prevented a trench warfare stalemate from developing, although the scale of the conflict was just as large. Hostilities also occurred on and under the sea and—for the first time—from the air. More than 9 million soldiers died on the various battlefields, and nearly that many more in the participating countries' home fronts on account of food shortages and genocide committed under the cover of various civil wars and internal conflicts. Notably, more people died of the worldwide influenza outbreak at the end of the war and shortly after than died in the hostilities. The unsanitary conditions engendered by the war, severe overcrowding in barracks, wartime propaganda interfering with public health warnings, and migration of so many soldiers around the world helped the outbreak become a pandemic.
In what century did the Nationalistic revolutions occur?
572f64c9a23a5019007fc5c3
mid-19th century's
144
False
How many years after world war I did world war II start?
572f64c9a23a5019007fc5c4
20 years later.
293
False
What withdrew the political boundaries of West Asia?
572f64c9a23a5019007fc5c5
partitioning of the Ottoman Empire
341
False
What did the partitioning of the Otto Empire bring about?
572f64c9a23a5019007fc5c6
the modern Arab world and the Republic of Turkey.
630
False
Who did The League of Nations grant  France mandates over?
572f64c9a23a5019007fc5c7
Syria and Lebanon
731
False
Ultimately, World War I created a decisive break with the old world order that had emerged after the Napoleonic Wars, which was modified by the mid-19th century's nationalistic revolutions. The results of World War I would be important factors in the development of World War II approximately 20 years later. More immediate to the time, the partitioning of the Ottoman Empire was a political event that redrew the political boundaries of West Asia. The huge conglomeration of territories and peoples formerly ruled by the Sultan of the Ottoman Empire was divided into several new nations. The partitioning brought the creation of the modern Arab world and the Republic of Turkey. The League of Nations granted France mandates over Syria and Lebanon and granted the United Kingdom mandates over Mesopotamia and Palestine (which was later divided into two regions: Palestine and Transjordan). Parts of the Ottoman Empire on the Arabian Peninsula became parts of what are today Saudi Arabia and Yemen.
What is the Russian Revolution?
572f6ea004bcaa1900d76949
the series of revolutions in Russia in 1917, which destroyed the Tsarist autocracy and led to the creation of the Soviet Union.
26
False
What happened when Nicholas II was removed from power?
572f6ea004bcaa1900d7694a
the Russian Provisional Government was established.
205
False
What event happened in October of 1917?
572f6ea004bcaa1900d7694b
a red faction revolution
274
False
What happened during the red faction revolution?
572f6ea004bcaa1900d7694c
armed groups of workers and deserting soldiers directed by the Bolshevik Party, seized control of Saint Petersburg
332
False
The Russian Revolution is the series of revolutions in Russia in 1917, which destroyed the Tsarist autocracy and led to the creation of the Soviet Union. Following the abdication of Nicholas II of Russia, the Russian Provisional Government was established. In October 1917, a red faction revolution occurred in which the Red Guard, armed groups of workers and deserting soldiers directed by the Bolshevik Party, seized control of Saint Petersburg (then known as Petrograd) and began an immediate armed takeover of cities and villages throughout the former Russian Empire.
When was the armistice signed between Russia and Central powers?
572f714b04bcaa1900d7695b
1917
18
False
What did Central powers concede in exchange for peace?
572f714b04bcaa1900d7695c
huge portions of the former Russian Empire to Imperial Germany and the Ottoman Empire
188
False
Who did the Bolsheviks make peace with?
572f714b04bcaa1900d7695d
the German Empire
356
False
What were Vladimir Lenin's decisions caused by?
572f714b04bcaa1900d7695e
his sponsorship by the foreign office of Wilhelm II
512
False
Who did the German sponsorship of Lenin's Petrograd upset?
572f714b04bcaa1900d7695f
Western Allies
786
False
Another action in 1917 that is of note was the armistice signed between Russia and the Central Powers at Brest-Litovsk. As a condition for peace, the treaty by the Central Powers conceded huge portions of the former Russian Empire to Imperial Germany and the Ottoman Empire, greatly upsetting nationalists and conservatives. The Bolsheviks made peace with the German Empire and the Central Powers, as they had promised the Russian people prior to the Revolution. Vladimir Lenin's decision has been attributed to his sponsorship by the foreign office of Wilhelm II, German Emperor, offered by the latter in hopes that with a revolution, Russia would withdraw from World War I. This suspicion was bolstered by the German Foreign Ministry's sponsorship of Lenin's return to Petrograd. The Western Allies expressed their dismay at the Bolsheviks, upset at:
Where did Soviets under the rule of the  Bolshevik first assume power during the Russian Civil War?
572f74b6947a6a140053c97a
Petrograd (St. Petersburg)
226
False
In the wake of the October resolution, what happened to the Russian Imperial Army?
572f74b6947a6a140053c97b
demobilized
357
False
What was Bolshevik's main military force?
572f74b6947a6a140053c97c
volunteer-based Red Guard
374
False
How did the Red red Army overcome their foes?
572f74b6947a6a140053c97d
by taking hostages and shooting them when necessary in order to force compliance.
698
False
How were former Tsarist Officers utilized?
572f74b6947a6a140053c97e
as "military specialists"
818
False
The Russian Civil War was a multi-party war that occurred within the former Russian Empire after the Russian provisional government collapsed and the Soviets under the domination of the Bolshevik party assumed power, first in Petrograd (St. Petersburg) and then in other places. In the wake of the October Revolution, the old Russian Imperial Army had been demobilized; the volunteer-based Red Guard was the Bolsheviks' main military force, augmented by an armed military component of the Cheka, the Bolshevik state security apparatus. There was an instituted mandatory conscription of the rural peasantry into the Red Army. Opposition of rural Russians to Red Army conscription units was overcome by taking hostages and shooting them when necessary in order to force compliance. Former Tsarist officers were utilized as "military specialists" (voenspetsy), taking their families hostage in order to ensure loyalty. At the start of the war, three-fourths of the Red Army officer corps was composed of former Tsarist officers. By its end, 83% of all Red Army divisional and corps commanders were ex-Tsarist soldiers.
Who was the principal fighting between?
572f766d04bcaa1900d769ab
Bolshevik Red Army and the forces of the White Army.
44
False
In what time period did the most brutal battles occur?
572f766d04bcaa1900d769ac
1918 to 1920
514
False
When did the major military operation end?
572f766d04bcaa1900d769ad
25 October 1922
563
False
What general was defeated in 1920?
572f766d04bcaa1900d769ae
General Pyotr Wrangel
825
False
Where did the last Resistance from the White movement occur?
572f766d04bcaa1900d769af
Far East
1041
False
The principal fighting occurred between the Bolshevik Red Army and the forces of the White Army. Many foreign armies warred against the Red Army, notably the Allied Forces, yet many volunteer foreigners fought in both sides of the Russian Civil War. Other nationalist and regional political groups also participated in the war, including the Ukrainian nationalist Green Army, the Ukrainian anarchist Black Army and Black Guards, and warlords such as Ungern von Sternberg. The most intense fighting took place from 1918 to 1920. Major military operations ended on 25 October 1922 when the Red Army occupied Vladivostok, previously held by the Provisional Priamur Government. The last enclave of the White Forces was the Ayano-Maysky District on the Pacific coast. The majority of the fighting ended in 1920 with the defeat of General Pyotr Wrangel in the Crimea, but a notable resistance in certain areas continued until 1923 (e.g., Kronstadt Uprising, Tambov Rebellion, Basmachi Revolt, and the final resistance of the White movement in the Far East).
What did the May Fourth movement help do?
572f78e104bcaa1900d769c7
rekindle the then-fading cause of republican revolution.
34
False
Sun Yat-Sen became the leader of what military group.
572f78e104bcaa1900d769c8
a rival military government in Guangzhou
144
False
What did Sun Yat-Sen hope to get from western democracies?
572f78e104bcaa1900d769c9
aid
250
False
Who did Sun Yet-Sen turn in 1930 for help?
572f78e104bcaa1900d769ca
the Soviet Union
331
False
How did the Soviets try to befriend  the Chinese Revolutionist?
572f78e104bcaa1900d769cb
by offering scathing attacks on Western imperialism.
455
False
The May Fourth Movement helped to rekindle the then-fading cause of republican revolution. In 1917 Sun Yat-sen had become commander-in-chief of a rival military government in Guangzhou in collaboration with southern warlords. Sun's efforts to obtain aid from the Western democracies were ignored, however, and in 1920 he turned to the Soviet Union, which had recently achieved its own revolution. The Soviets sought to befriend the Chinese revolutionists by offering scathing attacks on Western imperialism. But for political expediency, the Soviet leadership initiated a dual policy of support for both Sun and the newly established Chinese Communist Party (CCP).
What is the "Roaring Twenties" ?
572f7b31b2c2fd140056817d
social and societal upheaval
132
False
Where did the "Roaring Twenties" begin?
572f7b31b2c2fd140056817e
North America
200
False
Where did the "Roaring Twenties"  spread to after the war?
572f7b31b2c2fd140056817f
Europe
228
False
What is the "Roaring Twenties" also known as?
572f7b31b2c2fd1400568180
The Jazz Age
304
False
what did the "Jazz Age" usher in?
572f7b31b2c2fd1400568181
an exposition of social, artistic, and cultural dynamism.
323
False
In North America, especially the first half of this period, people experienced considerable prosperity in the Roaring Twenties. The social and societal upheaval known as the Roaring Twenties began in North America and spread to Europe in the aftermath of World War I. The Roaring Twenties, often called "The Jazz Age", saw an exposition of social, artistic, and cultural dynamism. 'Normalcy' returned to politics, jazz music blossomed, the flapper redefined modern womanhood, Art Deco peaked. The spirit of the Roaring Twenties was marked by a general feeling of discontinuity associated with modernity, a break with traditions. Everything seemed to be feasible through modern technology. New technologies, especially automobiles, movies and radio proliferated 'modernity' to a large part of the population. The 1920s saw the general favor of practicality, in architecture as well as in daily life. The 1920s was further distinguished by several inventions and discoveries, extensive industrial growth and the rise in consumer demand and aspirations, and significant changes in lifestyle.
When did the hyperinflation of  1923 occur?
572f7d4d04bcaa1900d76a13
1923
323
False
Who invested in European debts?
572f7d4d04bcaa1900d76a14
Wall Street
429
False
Europe has a large market for what?
572f7d4d04bcaa1900d76a15
American mass-produced goods
543
False
Europe spent these years rebuilding and coming to terms with the vast human cost of the conflict. The economy of the United States became increasingly intertwined with that of Europe. In Germany, the Weimar Republic gave way to episodes of political and economic turmoil, which culminated with the German hyperinflation of 1923 and the failed Beer Hall Putsch of that same year. When Germany could no longer afford war payments, Wall Street invested heavily in European debts to keep the European economy afloat as a large consumer market for American mass-produced goods. By the middle of the decade, economic development soared in Europe, and the Roaring Twenties broke out in Germany, Britain and France, the second half of the decade becoming known as the "Golden Twenties". In France and francophone Canada, they were also called the "années folles" ("Crazy Years").
What changed worldwide property drasrically?
572f83ae947a6a140053c9fa
the onset of the Great Depression
47
False
In what year did The wall Street crash occur?
572f83ae947a6a140053c9fb
1929
115
False
What is the Great Depression?
572f83ae947a6a140053c9fc
a worldwide economic downturn
226
False
When did the great Depression end?
572f83ae947a6a140053c9fd
1930s or early 1940s
325
False
The great depression is the worst economic downturn of what century?
572f83ae947a6a140053c9fe
20th century
436
False
Worldwide prosperity changed dramatically with the onset of the Great Depression in 1929. The Wall Street Crash of 1929 served to punctuate the end of the previous era, as The Great Depression set in. The Great Depression was a worldwide economic downturn starting in most places in 1929 and ending at different times in the 1930s or early 1940s for different countries. It was the largest and most important economic depression in the 20th century, and is used in the 21st century as an example of how far the world's economy can fall.
Where did the depression cause negative effects?
572f8493a23a5019007fc6c9
virtually every country
42
False
How much did international trade fall?
572f8493a23a5019007fc6ca
by half to two-thirds,
109
False
What happened to construction during the Depression?
572f8493a23a5019007fc6cb
virtually halted in many countries
295
False
How far did crop prices fall?
572f8493a23a5019007fc6cc
60 percent
395
False
The depression had devastating effects in virtually every country, rich or poor. International trade plunged by half to two-thirds, as did personal income, tax revenue, prices and profits. Cities all around the world were hit hard, especially those dependent on heavy industry. Construction was virtually halted in many countries. Farming and rural areas suffered as crop prices fell by roughly 60 percent. Facing plummeting demand with few alternate sources of jobs, areas dependent on primary sector industries suffered the most.
When did Americas Great Depression end?
572f8622947a6a140053ca18
1941
148
False
In some world states who did the people turn to?
572f8622947a6a140053ca19
nationalist demagogues
389
False
Who was the most notable Nationalist Demagogue the people turned to?
572f8622947a6a140053ca1a
Adolf Hitler
436
False
What did the Convulsion caused by the global depression resul in?
572f8622947a6a140053ca1b
the rise of Nazism
558
False
The Great Depression ended at different times in different countries with the effect lasting into the next era. America's Great Depression ended in 1941 with America's entry into World War II. The majority of countries set up relief programs, and most underwent some sort of political upheaval, pushing them to the left or right. In some world states, the desperate citizens turned toward nationalist demagogues—the most infamous being Adolf Hitler—setting the stage for the next era of war. The convulsion brought on by the worldwide depression resulted in the rise of Nazism. In Asia, Japan became an ever more assertive power, especially with regards to China.
What was the Interwar period marked by?
572f87ec947a6a140053ca2a
radical change in the international order
41
False
What institution was meant to bring stability?
572f87ec947a6a140053ca2b
the League of Nations
217
False
When was The League of Nations created?
572f87ec947a6a140053ca2c
after the First World War
258
False
Who undermined  The League Of Nations?
572f87ec947a6a140053ca2d
bellicosity of Nazi Germany, Imperial Japan, the Soviet Union, and Mussolini's Italy, and by the non-participation of the United States
434
False
What effect did the  undermining of The league of Nations have on the people?
572f87ec947a6a140053ca2e
leading many to question its effectiveness and legitimacy.
571
False
The interwar period was also marked by a radical change in the international order, away from the balance of power that had dominated pre–World War I Europe. One main institution that was meant to bring stability was the League of Nations, which was created after the First World War with the intention of maintaining world security and peace and encouraging economic growth between member countries. The League was undermined by the bellicosity of Nazi Germany, Imperial Japan, the Soviet Union, and Mussolini's Italy, and by the non-participation of the United States, leading many to question its effectiveness and legitimacy.
Who was first to invade Manchuria?
572f896da23a5019007fc70d
Japan
116
False
What is the Abyssinian crisis?
572f896da23a5019007fc70e
Italy invaded Abyssinia
168
False
What is Abyssinia?
572f896da23a5019007fc70f
one of the only free African nations at that time
193
False
When did the Abyssinian crisis occur?
572f896da23a5019007fc710
1935/36
151
False
Who did The League try to force economic sanctions on?
572f896da23a5019007fc711
Italy
296
False
A series of international crises strained the League to its limits, the earliest being the invasion of Manchuria by Japan and the Abyssinian crisis of 1935/36 in which Italy invaded Abyssinia, one of the only free African nations at that time. The League tried to enforce economic sanctions upon Italy, but to no avail. The incident highlighted French and British weakness, exemplified by their reluctance to alienate Italy and lose her as their ally. The limited actions taken by the Western powers pushed Mussolini's Italy towards alliance with Hitler's Germany anyway. The Abyssinian war showed Hitler how weak the League was and encouraged the remilitarization of the Rhineland in flagrant disregard of the Treaty of Versailles. This was the first in a series of provocative acts culminating in the invasion of Poland in September 1939 and the beginning of the Second World War.
When did the seizure of Manchuria occur?
572f8bd3a23a5019007fc717
September 1931
169
False
Who was named the head of the puppet state after the seizure of Manchuria?
572f8bd3a23a5019007fc718
ex-Qing emperor Puyi
200
False
What dealt a blow to the Kuomintang economy?
572f8bd3a23a5019007fc719
loss of Manchuria, and its vast potential for industrial development and war industries,
317
False
In what year did conflict between the Kuomintang and Communist intensify?
572f8bd3a23a5019007fc71a
1940
568
False
What was Kuomintang's main goal pertaining to Communist?
572f8bd3a23a5019007fc71b
neutralize the spread of Communist influence.
914
False
Few Chinese had any illusions about Japanese designs on China. Hungry for raw materials and pressed by a growing population, Japan initiated the seizure of Manchuria in September 1931 and established ex-Qing emperor Puyi as head of the puppet state of Manchukuo in 1932. During the Sino-Japanese War (1937–1945), the loss of Manchuria, and its vast potential for industrial development and war industries, was a blow to the Kuomintang economy. The League of Nations, established at the end of World War I, was unable to act in the face of the Japanese defiance. After 1940, conflicts between the Kuomintang and Communists became more frequent in the areas not under Japanese control. The Communists expanded their influence wherever opportunities presented themselves through mass organizations, administrative reforms, and the land- and tax-reform measures favoring the peasants—while the Kuomintang attempted to neutralize the spread of Communist influence.
What war saw tensions arise between between Imperial Japan and the United States?
572f8e33a23a5019007fc73f
The Second Sino-Japanese War
0
False
What did the United States place on Japans war efforts?
572f8e33a23a5019007fc740
embargoes
331
False
What did the American Embargoes prevent Japan from aquiring?
572f8e33a23a5019007fc741
strategic materials such as scrap metal and oil
353
False
Who did Imperial Japan sign a Tripartite pact with?
572f8e33a23a5019007fc742
Nazi Germany and Fascist Italy.
794
False
The Second Sino-Japanese War had seen tensions rise between Imperial Japan and the United States; events such as the Panay incident and the Nanking Massacre turned American public opinion against Japan. With the occupation of French Indochina in the years of 1940–41, and with the continuing war in China, the United States placed embargoes on Japan of strategic materials such as scrap metal and oil, which were vitally needed for the war effort. The Japanese were faced with the option of either withdrawing from China and losing face or seizing and securing new sources of raw materials in the resource-rich, European-controlled colonies of South East Asia—specifically British Malaya and the Dutch East Indies (modern-day Indonesia). In 1940, Imperial Japan signed the Tripartite Pact with Nazi Germany and Fascist Italy.
Where did Japan attack the United States?
572f91c704bcaa1900d76a8d
Pearl Harbor
57
False
When did the attack on Pearl Harbor occur?
572f91c704bcaa1900d76a8e
December 7, 1941
3
False
What countries were referred to as "The Trusteeship Of The Powerful"?
572f91c704bcaa1900d76a8f
The United Kingdom, the United States, the Soviet Union and China
544
False
What did The United Nations name "The Trusteeship Of The Powerful"
572f91c704bcaa1900d76a90
"Four Policemen"
806
False
Who were the victors of World War II?
572f91c704bcaa1900d76a91
The United Kingdom, the United States, the Soviet Union and China
544
False
On December 7, 1941, Japan attacked the United States at Pearl Harbor, bringing it too into the war on the Allied side. China also joined the Allies, as eventually did most of the rest of the world. China was in turmoil at the time, and attacked Japanese armies through guerilla-type warfare. By the beginning of 1942, the major combatants were aligned as follows: the British Commonwealth, the United States, and the Soviet Union were fighting Germany and Italy; and the British Commonwealth, China, and the United States were fighting Japan. The United Kingdom, the United States, the Soviet Union and China were referred as a "trusteeship of the powerful" during the World War II  and were recognized as the Allied "Big Four" in Declaration by United Nations These four countries were considered as the "Four Policemen" or "Four Sheriffs" of the Allies power and primary victors of World War II. From then through August 1945, battles raged across all of Europe, in the North Atlantic Ocean, across North Africa, throughout Southeast Asia, throughout China, across the Pacific Ocean and in the air over Japan.
What Was estimated amount of deaths during the war?
572f9314b2c2fd1400568211
62 million
27
False
What percent of the deaths during the war were civilians?
572f9314b2c2fd1400568212
About 60%
86
False
What countries suffered the most casualties in the war?
572f9314b2c2fd1400568213
The former Soviet Union and China
236
False
What percentage of it's population did Poland lose in the war?
572f9314b2c2fd1400568214
16%,
499
False
How many deaths did the Soviet Union suffer in the war?
572f9314b2c2fd1400568215
23 million
353
False
It is possible that around 62 million people died in the war; estimates vary greatly. About 60% of all casualties were civilians, who died as a result of disease, starvation, genocide (in particular, the Holocaust), and aerial bombing. The former Soviet Union and China suffered the most casualties. Estimates place deaths in the Soviet Union at around 23 million, while China suffered about 10 million. No country lost a greater portion of its population than Poland: approximately 5.6 million, or 16%, of its pre-war population of 34.8 million died.
What is the Holocaust?
572f950ca23a5019007fc7a3
was the deliberate and systematic murder of millions of Jews and other "unwanted"
50
False
During what word event did the Holocaust happen?
572f950ca23a5019007fc7a4
during World War II
132
False
Who is responsible for the Holocaust?
572f950ca23a5019007fc7a5
Nazi regime in Germany.
159
False
How did the Nazis conjure up anti-Semitic feelings in civilians?
572f950ca23a5019007fc7a6
propaganda
467
False
When did the suffering of the Jews begin?
572f950ca23a5019007fc7a7
before the war even started
369
False
The Holocaust (which roughly means "burnt whole") was the deliberate and systematic murder of millions of Jews and other "unwanted" during World War II by the Nazi regime in Germany. Several differing views exist regarding whether it was intended to occur from the war's beginning, or if the plans for it came about later. Regardless, persecution of Jews extended well before the war even started, such as in the Kristallnacht (Night of Broken Glass). The Nazis used propaganda to great effect to stir up anti-Semitic feelings within ordinary Germans.
What was Europe split into after World War II?
572f96ce947a6a140053ca8e
Western and Soviet spheres of influence.
53
False
What does the term NATO represent?
572f96ce947a6a140053ca8f
North Atlantic Treaty Organization
130
False
Who battled in the cold war?
572f96ce947a6a140053ca90
United States and the Soviet Union.
313
False
What did the defeat of Japan mean for Asia?
572f96ce947a6a140053ca91
led to its democratization.
433
False
What did China name themselves after the war?
572f96ce947a6a140053ca92
the People's Republic of China.
561
False
After World War II, Europe was informally split into Western and Soviet spheres of influence. Western Europe later aligned as the North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO) and Eastern Europe as the Warsaw Pact. There was a shift in power from Western Europe and the British Empire to the two new superpowers, the United States and the Soviet Union. These two rivals would later face off in the Cold War. In Asia, the defeat of Japan led to its democratization. China's civil war continued through and after the war, resulting eventually in the establishment of the People's Republic of China. The former colonies of the European powers began their road to independence.
By what percentage did the world's per-capita gross domestic product grow by during the 20th century?
572f98fa04bcaa1900d76ac9
a factor of five
91
False
What has Modern medicine increased the average life expectancy by?
572f98fa04bcaa1900d76aca
two decades
442
False
What happened to the income gap between the rich and the poor?
572f98fa04bcaa1900d76acb
the gulf between the world's rich and poor grew wider
547
False
Over the course of the 20th century, the world's per-capita gross domestic product grew by a factor of five, much more than all earlier centuries combined (including the 19th with its Industrial Revolution). Many economists make the case that this understates the magnitude of growth, as many of the goods and services consumed at the end of the 20th century, such as improved medicine (causing world life expectancy to increase by more than two decades) and communications technologies, were not available at any price at its beginning. However, the gulf between the world's rich and poor grew wider, and the majority of the global population remained in the poor side of the divide.
What did the media industry make possible in the middle of the century?
572f9c0bb2c2fd1400568243
brutal dictatorships
143
False
What did the brutal dictatorships caused by the media lead to?
572f9c0bb2c2fd1400568244
wars
240
False
What did increased communications lead contribute to?
572f9c0bb2c2fd1400568245
democratization
328
False
What time period did technological advances lead to?
572f9c0bb2c2fd1400568246
the Information Age
497
False
Still, advancing technology and medicine has had a great impact even in the Global South. Large-scale industry and more centralized media made brutal dictatorships possible on an unprecedented scale in the middle of the century, leading to wars that were also unprecedented. However, the increased communications contributed to democratization. Technological developments included the development of airplanes and space exploration, nuclear technology, advancement in genetics, and the dawning of the Information Age.
what did the Soviet Union annex some of it's territory as?
572fa080947a6a140053cade
Soviet Socialist Republics
90
False
What did the territory the Soviet Union maintained as satellite states, later became known as?
572fa080947a6a140053cadf
the Warsaw Pact
182
False
The United States and many Western countries began what policy to fight communism?
572fa080947a6a140053cae0
"containment"
274
False
What did the soviets opposed rebuilding?
572fa080947a6a140053cae1
rebuilding of western Europe
432
False
What actions of the Soviet Union did The United States oppose?
572fa080947a6a140053cae2
the Soviet Union fostered communist revolutionary movements,
589
False
The Soviet Union created the Eastern Bloc of countries that it occupied, annexing some as Soviet Socialist Republics and maintaining others as satellite states that would later form the Warsaw Pact. The United States and various western European countries began a policy of "containment" of communism and forged myriad alliances to this end, including NATO. Several of these western countries also coordinated efforts regarding the rebuilding of western Europe, including western Germany, which the Soviets opposed. In other regions of the world, such as Latin America and Southeast Asia, the Soviet Union fostered communist revolutionary movements, which the United States and many of its allies opposed and, in some cases, attempted to "roll back". Many countries were prompted to align themselves with the nations that would later form either NATO or the Warsaw Pact, though other movements would also emerge.
What types of periods did the cold war see?
572fa269a23a5019007fc7f1
heightened tension and relative calm.
33
False
Through what time period did the Berlin Blockade  last?
572fa269a23a5019007fc7f2
1948–1949
128
False
Through what time period did the Korean War last?
572fa269a23a5019007fc7f3
1950–1953)
156
False
Through what time period did the Vietnam war last?
572fa269a23a5019007fc7f4
1959–1975
212
False
When did the Cuban Missile crisis happen?
572fa269a23a5019007fc7f5
1962
250
False
The Cold War saw periods of both heightened tension and relative calm. International crises arose, such as the Berlin Blockade (1948–1949), the Korean War (1950–1953), the Berlin Crisis of 1961, the Vietnam War (1959–1975), the Cuban Missile Crisis (1962), the Soviet war in Afghanistan (1979–1989) and NATO exercises in November 1983. There were also periods of reduced tension as both sides sought détente. Direct military attacks on adversaries were deterred by the potential for mutual assured destruction using deliverable nuclear weapons. In the Cold War era, the Generation of Love and the rise of computers changed society in very different, complex ways, including higher social and local mobility.
During what time was the cold war close to happening?
572fa58904bcaa1900d76b2f
1980s and the early 1990s
41
False
What did  the Reagan administration increase on the Soviet Union?
572fa58904bcaa1900d76b30
diplomatic, military, and economic pressure
126
False
What was  the Soviet Union suffering from in the 1980's?
572fa58904bcaa1900d76b31
severe economic stagnation
224
False
What did Mikhail Gorbachev introduce?
572fa58904bcaa1900d76b32
introduced the perestroika and glasnost reforms.
333
False
In what year did the Soviet Union collapse?
572fa58904bcaa1900d76b33
1991
412
False
The Cold War drew to a close in the late 1980s and the early 1990s. The United States under President Ronald Reagan increased diplomatic, military, and economic pressure on the Soviet Union, which was already suffering from severe economic stagnation. In the second half of the 1980s, newly appointed Soviet leader Mikhail Gorbachev introduced the perestroika and glasnost reforms. The Soviet Union collapsed in 1991, leaving the United States as the dominant military power, though Russia retained much of the massive Soviet nuclear arsenal.
What caused Latin America's right-wing authorities to support coup o'etats?
572fac0904bcaa1900d76bb3
in the 1970s, leftists acquired a significant political influence
17
False
Why did the Latin Americas Upper class support coup o'etats?
572fac0904bcaa1900d76bb4
to avoid what they perceived as a communist threat.
225
False
The regimes in the southern cone collaborated in killing of who?
572fac0904bcaa1900d76bb5
leftist dissidents
609
False
What did all countries restore in the 1990's
572fac0904bcaa1900d76bb6
their democracies.
717
False
Where did the United States support dictatorships in the 1970"s?
572fac0904bcaa1900d76bb7
South American countries
385
False
In Latin America in the 1970s, leftists acquired a significant political influence which prompted the right-wing, ecclesiastical authorities and a large portion of the individual country's upper class to support coup d'états to avoid what they perceived as a communist threat. This was further fueled by Cuban and United States intervention which led to a political polarization. Most South American countries were in some periods ruled by military dictatorships that were supported by the United States of America. In the 1970s, the regimes of the Southern Cone collaborated in Operation Condor killing many leftist dissidents, including some urban guerrillas. However, by the early 1990s all countries had restored their democracies.
What is the space age?
572faf0e04bcaa1900d76be7
a period encompassing the activities related to the Space Race, space exploration, space technology, and the cultural developments influenced by these events.
17
False
Who launched  Sputnik 1?
572faf0e04bcaa1900d76be8
the Soviet Union.
289
False
How long does did it take for the Sputnik 1 to orbit the earth?
572faf0e04bcaa1900d76be9
98.1 minutes
378
False
What did Sputnik 1 usher in?
572faf0e04bcaa1900d76bea
The Space Age
693
False
How many people watched the Apollo 11 landing?
572faf0e04bcaa1900d76beb
500 million
936
False
The Space Age is a period encompassing the activities related to the Space Race, space exploration, space technology, and the cultural developments influenced by these events. The Space Age began with the development of several technologies that culminated with the launch of Sputnik 1 by the Soviet Union. This was the world's first artificial satellite, orbiting the Earth in 98.1 minutes and weighing in at 83 kg. The launch of Sputnik 1 ushered a new era of political, scientific and technological achievements that became known as the Space Age. The Space Age was characterized by rapid development of new technology in a close race mostly between the United States and the Soviet Union. The Space Age brought the first human spaceflight during the Vostok programme and reached its peak with the Apollo program which captured the imagination of much of the world's population. The landing of Apollo 11 was an event watched by over 500 million people around the world and is widely recognized as one of the defining moments of the 20th century. Since then and with the end of the space race due to the dissolution of the Soviet Union, public attention has largely moved to other areas.
51st_state
What types of control are considered when labeling a country with the perjorative "51st state" label?
572eedffc246551400ce47ba
excessive American cultural or military influence or control
281
False
Sometimes, when a country refers to themselves as the 51st state, what has happened to their culture?
572eedffc246551400ce47bb
their local or national culture has become too Americanized
401
False
What reasoning would cause a country to be referred to as the "51st state" in a positive way?
572eedffc246551400ce47bc
a region or territory is so aligned, supportive, and conducive with the United States, that it is like a U.S. state
70
False
What is a positive connotation of the label "51st state"?
572efc9b03f9891900756b1d
a region or territory is so aligned, supportive, and conducive with the United States
70
False
What is a reason for one negative connotation of the term?
572efc9b03f9891900756b1e
an area or region is perceived to be under excessive American cultural or military influence or control
238
False
If a country refers to themselves as the "51st state" after cultural changes, what can we assume has changed?
572efc9b03f9891900756b1f
their local or national culture has become too Americanized
401
False
excessive American cultural or military influence or control
281
What types of control are considered when labeling a country with the pejorative "American" label?
5a8a1cc13b2508001a72a5ed
True
their local or national culture has become too Americanized
401
Sometimes, when a city refers to themselves as the "51st state" what has happened to their culture?
5a8a1cc13b2508001a72a5ee
True
a region or territory is so aligned, supportive, and conducive with the United States, that it is like a U.S. state
70
What reasoning would cause a country to be referred to as the "American state" in a positive way?
5a8a1cc13b2508001a72a5ef
True
a region or territory is so aligned, supportive, and conducive with the United States
70
What is a positive connotation of the label "American state"?
5a8a1cc13b2508001a72a5f0
True
an area or region is perceived to be under excessive American cultural or military influence or control
238
What is a reason for one negative connotation of "American state"?
5a8a1cc13b2508001a72a5f1
True
The phrase "51st state" can be used in a positive sense, meaning that a region or territory is so aligned, supportive, and conducive with the United States, that it is like a U.S. state. It can also be used in a pejorative sense, meaning an area or region is perceived to be under excessive American cultural or military influence or control. In various countries around the world, people who believe their local or national culture has become too Americanized sometimes use the term "51st state" in reference to their own countries.
What does Article IV, Section three of the US Constitution outline?
572ef028c246551400ce47ca
the relationship among the states
82
False
Article IV, Section Three of th United States Constitution gives Congress the power to do what?
572ef028c246551400ce47cb
the power to admit new states to the union
130
False
What does the states' requirement to give "full faith and credit" help recognize?
572ef028c246551400ce47cc
legal contracts, marriages, and criminal judgments
337
False
What are all states guaranteed by the federal government?
572ef028c246551400ce47cd
military and civil defense
415
False
What does Article 4, Section 4 guarantee?
572ef028c246551400ce47ce
guarantee to every state in this union a republican form of government
524
False
What part of the US Constitution outlines the relationship among the states?
572efdd7dfa6aa1500f8d521
Article IV, Section Three
6
False
Article IV, Section Three allows Congress to do what?
572efdd7dfa6aa1500f8d522
admit new states to the union
143
False
What does the concept of "full faith and credit" protect?
572efdd7dfa6aa1500f8d523
the recognition of legal contracts, marriages, and criminal judgments
318
False
What is guaranteed to the states by the federal government?
572efdd7dfa6aa1500f8d524
military and civil defense
415
False
the relationship among the states
82
What does article V, Section three of the US Constitution outline?
5a8a1f723b2508001a72a613
True
the power to admit new states to the union
130
What does Article V, Section Three of the United States Constitution give Congress the power to do?
5a8a1f723b2508001a72a614
True
legal contracts, marriages, and criminal judgments
337
What does the states' requirement to give "full government guarantee" help recognize?
5a8a1f723b2508001a72a615
True
military and civil defense
415
What are all states guaranteed by the republican form?
5a8a1f723b2508001a72a616
True
guarantee to every state in this union a republican form of government
524
What does Article V, Section 4 guarantee?
5a8a1f723b2508001a72a617
True
Under Article IV, Section Three of the United States Constitution, which outlines the relationship among the states, Congress has the power to admit new states to the union. The states are required to give "full faith and credit" to the acts of each other's legislatures and courts, which is generally held to include the recognition of legal contracts, marriages, and criminal judgments. The states are guaranteed military and civil defense by the federal government, which is also obliged by Article IV, Section Four, to "guarantee to every state in this union a republican form of government".
What country has been regarded as a potential new addition to the United States?
572ef128c246551400ce47d4
Puerto Rico has been discussed as a potential 51st state of the United States
0
False
What percentage of voters expressed dissatisfaction with their current political relationship?
572ef128c246551400ce47d5
54%
129
False
What percentage of voters supported statehood?
572ef128c246551400ce47d6
61%
225
False
When did Puerto Rico resolve to request that the United States act on these results?
572ef128c246551400ce47d7
December 11, 2012
322
False
What would be an ideal reaction from the United States, according to Puerto Rico?
572ef128c246551400ce47d8
end the current form of territorial status and begin the process of admitting Puerto Rico to the Union as a state
448
False
What territory has been suggested as a new addition to the United States?
572efe86cb0c0d14000f16de
Puerto Rico
0
False
What percentages of voters expressed unhappiness with the current political relationship between the U.S. and Puerto Rico?
572efe86cb0c0d14000f16df
54%
129
False
When did the legislature of Puerto Rico request that they be considered for statehood?
572efe86cb0c0d14000f16e1
December 11, 2012
322
False
54%
129
What percentage of voters expressed dissatisfaction with their current territorial relationship?
5a8a22833b2508001a72a64c
True
61%
225
What percentage of voters supported Congress?
5a8a22833b2508001a72a64d
True
December 11, 2012
322
When did Puerto Rico resolve to request that voters act on these results?
5a8a22833b2508001a72a64e
True
end the current form of territorial status and begin the process of admitting Puerto Rico to the Union as a state
448
What would be an ideal reaction from voters, according to Peurto Rico?
5a8a22833b2508001a72a64f
True
Puerto Rico
0
What territory has been suggested as a new addition to Canada?
5a8a22833b2508001a72a650
True
Puerto Rico has been discussed as a potential 51st state of the United States. In a 2012 status referendum a majority of voters, 54%, expressed dissatisfaction with the current political relationship. In a separate question, 61% of voters supported statehood (excluding the 26% of voters who left this question blank). On December 11, 2012, Puerto Rico's legislature resolved to request that the President and the U.S. Congress act on the results, end the current form of territorial status and begin the process of admitting Puerto Rico to the Union as a state.
How long has Puerto Rico had representation in Congress?
572eff62dfa6aa1500f8d53f
Since 1898
0
False
Who represents Puerto Rico in Congress?
572eff62dfa6aa1500f8d540
a Resident Commissioner
86
False
Which Congress gave the commissioner the power to vote?
572eff62dfa6aa1500f8d541
The 110th Congress
133
False
What is the commissioner not allowed to vote on?
572eff62dfa6aa1500f8d542
on matters where the vote would represent a decisive participation
233
False
1898
6
How long has Puerto Rico had Commissioner representation?
5a8a23513b2508001a72a66f
True
a Resident Commissioner
86
Who represents the Democratic Party in Congress?
5a8a23513b2508001a72a670
True
The 110th Congress
133
Which Congress gave the democrats the power to vote?
5a8a23513b2508001a72a671
True
on matters where the vote would represent a decisive participation
233
What are democrats not allowed to vote on?
5a8a23513b2508001a72a672
True
Puerto Rico
301
Who has elections on the Electoral College?
5a8a23513b2508001a72a673
True
Since 1898, Puerto Rico has had limited representation in the Congress in the form of a Resident Commissioner, a nonvoting delegate. The 110th Congress returned the Commissioner's power to vote in the Committee of the Whole, but not on matters where the vote would represent a decisive participation. Puerto Rico has elections on the United States presidential primary or caucus of the Democratic Party and the Republican Party to select delegates to the respective parties' national conventions although presidential electors are not granted on the Electoral College. As American citizens, Puerto Ricans can vote in U.S. presidential elections, provided they reside in one of the 50 states or the District of Columbia and not in Puerto Rico itself.
What types of taxes do Puerto Ricans pay?
572f000003f9891900756b3f
U.S. federal taxes
29
False
What makes up the federal taxes Puerto Rican citizens pay?
572f000003f9891900756b40
import/export taxes, federal commodity taxes, social security taxes
49
False
How else can they serve the U.S.?
572f000003f9891900756b41
Puerto Ricans may enlist in the U.S. military.
479
False
How many Puerto Ricans have died in the Iraq War and War in Afghanistan?
572f000003f9891900756b42
52
591
False
U.S. federal taxes
29
What types of taxes does Afghanistan pay for?
5a8a24f73b2508001a72a69c
True
import/export taxes, federal commodity taxes, social security taxes
49
What makes up the federal taxes Afghanistan citizens pay?
5a8a24f73b2508001a72a69d
True
enlist in the U.S. military
497
How else can Afghanistan serve the U.S.?
5a8a24f73b2508001a72a69e
True
52
591
How many Afghans have died in the Iraq War and War in Afghanistan?
5a8a24f73b2508001a72a69f
True
federal income tax
207
What do most Afghanistan residents pay?
5a8a24f73b2508001a72a6a0
True
Residents of Puerto Rico pay U.S. federal taxes: import/export taxes, federal commodity taxes, social security taxes, therefore contributing to the American Government. Most Puerto Rico residents do not pay federal income tax but do pay federal payroll taxes (Social Security and Medicare). However, federal employees, those who do business with the federal government, Puerto Rico–based corporations that intend to send funds to the U.S. and others do pay federal income taxes. Puerto Ricans may enlist in the U.S. military. Puerto Ricans have participated in all American wars since 1898; 52 Puerto Ricans had been killed in the Iraq War and War in Afghanistan by November 2012.
In the aftermath of which war was the U.S. granted Puerto Rico?
572f00bdcb0c0d14000f1700
Spanish–American War
127
False
What country handed over Puerto Rico to the US?
572f00bdcb0c0d14000f1701
Spain
96
False
How long have Puerto Ricans been U.S. citizens?
572f00bdcb0c0d14000f1702
since 1917
191
False
What form of government do the Puerto Ricans have?
572f00bdcb0c0d14000f1703
republican
541
False
Spanish–American War
127
In the aftermath of which war was the U.S. granted Congress?
5a8a25983b2508001a72a6af
True
Spain
96
What country handed over Congress to the US?
5a8a25983b2508001a72a6b0
True
since 1917
191
How long has Congress been U.S. citizens?
5a8a25983b2508001a72a6b1
True
republican
541
What form of government does Spain have?
5a8a25983b2508001a72a6b2
True
over a century
48
How long has Spain been under U.S. sovereignty?
5a8a25983b2508001a72a6b3
True
Puerto Rico has been under U.S. sovereignty for over a century when it was ceded to the U.S. by Spain following the end of the Spanish–American War, and Puerto Ricans have been U.S. citizens since 1917. The island's ultimate status has not been determined as of 2012[update], its residents do not have voting representation in their federal government. Puerto Rico has limited representation in the U.S. Congress in the form of a Resident Commissioner, a delegate with limited no voting rights. Like the states, Puerto Rico has self-rule, a republican form of government organized pursuant to a constitution adopted by its people, and a bill of rights.
How was the Puerto Rican constitution brought about?
5730401c04bcaa1900d7740d
the U.S. Congress directed local government to organize a constitutional convention to write the Puerto Rico Constitution
35
False
When was the Puerto Rican constitution written?
5730401c04bcaa1900d7740e
1951
160
False
When was the constitution accepted by the electorate, U.S. Congress, and U.S. President?
5730401c04bcaa1900d7740f
1952
285
False
What clause gives Puerto Rican citizens the same rights as US citizens?
5730401c04bcaa1900d77410
Privileges and Immunities Clause
513
False
the U.S. Congress directed local government to organize a constitutional convention
35
How was the Puerto Rican Congress brought about?
5a8a267d3b2508001a72a6c1
True
1951
160
When was the Puerto Rican Congress established?
5a8a267d3b2508001a72a6c2
True
1952
285
When was the constitution accepted by the electorate, Puerto Rico Congress, and U.S. President?
5a8a267d3b2508001a72a6c3
True
Privileges and Immunities Clause
513
What clause gives Congress the same rights as Puerto Rican citizens?
5a8a267d3b2508001a72a6c4
True
when the U.S. Congress directed local government to organize a constitutional convention
30
When were the express citizens created?
5a8a267d3b2508001a72a6c5
True
This constitution was created when the U.S. Congress directed local government to organize a constitutional convention to write the Puerto Rico Constitution in 1951. The acceptance of that constitution by Puerto Rico's electorate, the U.S. Congress, and the U.S. president occurred in 1952. In addition, the rights, privileges and immunities attendant to United States citizens are "respected in Puerto Rico to the same extent as though Puerto Rico were a state of the union" through the express extension of the Privileges and Immunities Clause of the U.S. Constitution by the U.S. Congress in 1948.
How is Puerto Rico designated in its constitution?
57304103947a6a140053d344
Commonwealth of Puerto Rico
54
False
What title does the country have?
57304103947a6a140053d345
Estado Libre Asociado (literally translated as "Free Associated State")
167
False
What is the island under jurisdiction of?
57304103947a6a140053d346
Territorial Clause of the U.S. Constitution
358
False
What act was approved on April 29th, 2010?
57304103947a6a140053d347
The Puerto Rico Democracy Act (H.R. 2499)
818
False
Commonwealth of Puerto
54
How is Puerto Rico designated by its representatives?
5a8a27493b2508001a72a6cb
True
Estado Libre Asociado (literally translated as "Free Associated State")
167
What title does the Federal level have?
5a8a27493b2508001a72a6cc
True
Territorial Clause of the U.S. Constitution
358
What is the determination process under jurisdiction of?
5a8a27493b2508001a72a6cd
True
The Puerto Rico Democracy Act (H.R. 2499)
818
What act was approved on April 29th, 2007?
5a8a27493b2508001a72a6ce
True
citizens of the U.S.
541
What do all English people become?
5a8a27493b2508001a72a6cf
True
Puerto Rico is designated in its constitution as the "Commonwealth of Puerto Rico". The Constitution of Puerto Rico which became effective in 1952 adopted the name of Estado Libre Asociado (literally translated as "Free Associated State"), officially translated into English as Commonwealth, for its body politic. The island is under the jurisdiction of the Territorial Clause of the U.S. Constitution, which has led to doubts about the finality of the Commonwealth status for Puerto Rico. In addition, all people born in Puerto Rico become citizens of the U.S. at birth (under provisions of the Jones–Shafroth Act in 1917), but citizens residing in Puerto Rico cannot vote for president nor for full members of either house of Congress. Statehood would grant island residents full voting rights at the Federal level. The Puerto Rico Democracy Act (H.R. 2499) was approved on April 29, 2010, by the United States House of Representatives 223–169, but was not approved by the Senate before the end of the 111th Congress. It would have provided for a federally sanctioned self-determination process for the people of Puerto Rico. This act would provide for referendums to be held in Puerto Rico to determine the island's ultimate political status. It had also been introduced in 2007.
What percentage of voters rejected the status of territory?
5730429d04bcaa1900d77437
54 percent
43
False
What percentage of voters preferred statehood?
5730429d04bcaa1900d77438
61 percent
196
False
What percentage of voters abstained from voting on a preferred alternative status?
5730429d04bcaa1900d77439
one in four voters
483
False
What argument do those opposing statehood use?
5730429d04bcaa1900d7743a
the statehood option garnered only 45 percent of the votes if abstentions are included
614
False
54 percent
43
What percentage of voters rejected the status of a statehood?
5a8a28a93b2508001a72a6de
True
61 percent
196
What percentage of voters preferred the territorial clause?
5a8a28a93b2508001a72a6df
True
one in four voters
483
What percentage of voters abstained from voting on a majority percent status?
5a8a28a93b2508001a72a6e0
True
the statehood option garnered only 45 percent of the votes if abstentions are included
614
What argument do those opposing the territorial clause use?
5a8a28a93b2508001a72a6e1
True
The 2012 referendum
303
What was the most inclusive referendum?
5a8a28a93b2508001a72a6e2
True
In November 2012, a referendum resulted in 54 percent of respondents voting to reject the current status under the territorial clause of the U.S. Constitution, while a second question resulted in 61 percent of voters identifying statehood as the preferred alternative to the current territorial status. The 2012 referendum was by far the most successful referendum for statehood advocates and support for statehood has risen in each successive popular referendum. However, more than one in four voters abstained from answering the question on the preferred alternative status. Statehood opponents have argued that the statehood option garnered only 45 percent of the votes if abstentions are included. If abstentions are considered, the result of the referendum is much closer to 44 percent for statehood, a number that falls under the 50 percent majority mark.
What newspapers have published opinion pieces expressing support for Puerto Rico's statehood?
57304372a23a5019007fd01f
The Washington Post, The New York Times and the Boston Herald
0
False
What newspaper suggested that Congress would ignore Puerto Rico's referendum?
57304372a23a5019007fd020
The Hill
193
False
When was that article published?
57304372a23a5019007fd021
November 8, 2012
148
False
What Congress members agreed with the Hill's assesment?
57304372a23a5019007fd022
U.S. Congressman Luis Gutiérrez U.S. Congresswoman Nydia Velázquez
340
False
The Washington Post, The New York Times and the Boston Herald
0
What newspapers have published opinion pieces expressing support for Serrano's statehood?
5a8a2a4e3b2508001a72a701
True
The Hill
193
What newspaper suggested that Congress would ignore Serrano's referendum?
5a8a2a4e3b2508001a72a702
True
November 8, 2012
148
When was Velazquez's article published?
5a8a2a4e3b2508001a72a703
True
U.S. Congressman Luis Gutiérrez U.S. Congresswoman Nydia Velázquez
340
What Congress members agreed with Serrano's assessment?
5a8a2a4e3b2508001a72a704
True
The Hill
193
Who published an article saying that Puerto Rico will likely ignore the results of the referendum?
5a8a2a4e3b2508001a72a705
True
The Washington Post, The New York Times and the Boston Herald have published opinion pieces expressing support for the statehood of Puerto Rico. On November 8, 2012, Washington, D.C. newspaper The Hill published an article saying that Congress will likely ignore the results of the referendum due to the circumstances behind the votes. and U.S. Congressman Luis Gutiérrez U.S. Congresswoman Nydia Velázquez, both of Puerto Rican ancestry, agreed with the The Hill 's statements. Shortly after the results were published Puerto Rico-born U.S. Congressman José Enrique Serrano commented "I was particularly impressed with the outcome of the 'status' referendum in Puerto Rico. A majority of those voting signaled the desire to change the current territorial status. In a second question an even larger majority asked to become a state. This is an earthquake in Puerto Rican politics. It will demand the attention of Congress, and a definitive answer to the Puerto Rican request for change. This is a history-making moment where voters asked to move forward."
What politicians pushed for statehood for Puerto Rico?
573044ce947a6a140053d386
Resident Commissioner Pedro Pierluisi, Governor Luis Fortuño
39
False
What politician fought against statehood for Puerto Rico?
573044ce947a6a140053d387
Governor-elect Alejandro García Padilla
105
False
How did these politicians voice their concerns?
573044ce947a6a140053d388
wrote separate letters to the President of the United States Barack Obama
145
False
What was the White House stance?
573044ce947a6a140053d389
the results were clear, the people of Puerto Rico want the issue of status resolved
575
False
Resident Commissioner Pedro Pierluisi
39
What politicians pushed for statehood for Padilla?
5a8a2f143b2508001a72a77d
True
Governor-elect Alejandro García Padilla
105
What politician fought against statehood for Pierluisi?
5a8a2f143b2508001a72a77e
True
wrote separate letters to the President of the United States Barack Obama
145
How did Congress voice their concerns?
5a8a2f143b2508001a72a77f
True
the results were clear, the people of Puerto Rico want the issue of status resolved
575
What was the Congress stance?
5a8a2f143b2508001a72a780
True
Former White House director of Hispanic media stated
715
Who stated "Now it is time for Puerto Rico to act"?
5a8a2f143b2508001a72a781
True
Several days after the referendum, the Resident Commissioner Pedro Pierluisi, Governor Luis Fortuño, and Governor-elect Alejandro García Padilla wrote separate letters to the President of the United States Barack Obama addressing the results of the voting. Pierluisi urged Obama to begin legislation in favor of the statehood of Puerto Rico, in light of its win in the referendum. Fortuño urged him to move the process forward. García Padilla asked him to reject the results because of their ambiguity. The White House stance related to the November 2012 plebiscite was that the results were clear, the people of Puerto Rico want the issue of status resolved, and a majority chose statehood in the second question. Former White House director of Hispanic media stated, "Now it is time for Congress to act and the administration will work with them on that effort, so that the people of Puerto Rico can determine their own future."
When was H.R. 2000 introduced?
573045e4b2c2fd1400568b4b
On May 15, 2013
0
False
What would H.R. 2000 do?
573045e4b2c2fd1400568b4c
set forth the process for Puerto Rico to be admitted as a state of the Union
86
False
What did Senator Heinrich's bill require?
573045e4b2c2fd1400568b4d
a binding referendum to be held in Puerto Rico asking whether the territory wants to be admitted as a state.
342
False
What would happen in the event of a yes vote in this referendum?
573045e4b2c2fd1400568b4e
the president would be asked to submit legislation to Congress to admit Puerto Rico as a state
479
False
On May 15, 2013
0
When was H.R. 2014 introduced?
5a8a2ffa3b2508001a72a7a3
True
set forth the process for Puerto Rico to be admitted as a state of the Union
86
What would H.R. 2014 do?
5a8a2ffa3b2508001a72a7a4
True
a binding referendum to be held in Puerto Rico asking whether the territory wants to be admitted as a state
342
What did Senator H.R. Heinrich's bill require?
5a8a2ffa3b2508001a72a7a5
True
the president would be asked to submit legislation to Congress to admit Puerto Rico as a state
479
What would happen in the event of a no vote in this referendum?
5a8a2ffa3b2508001a72a7a6
True
Congress
176
Who was asked to ratify the Puerto Rico Senate?
5a8a2ffa3b2508001a72a7a7
True
On May 15, 2013, Resident Commissioner Pierluisi introduced H.R. 2000 to Congress to "set forth the process for Puerto Rico to be admitted as a state of the Union," asking for Congress to vote on ratifying Puerto Rico as the 51st state. On February 12, 2014, Senator Martin Heinrich introduced a bill in the US Senate. The bill would require a binding referendum to be held in Puerto Rico asking whether the territory wants to be admitted as a state. In the event of a yes vote, the president would be asked to submit legislation to Congress to admit Puerto Rico as a state.
Who considered the implications of the definition of the seat of government in the Constitution?
573047ca947a6a140053d396
James Madison
113
False
Where are these ideas located in the Federalist Papers?
573047ca947a6a140053d397
Federalist No. 43
69
False
What limits does the constitution have for the size of Washington, D.C.?
573047ca947a6a140053d398
the Constitution does not set a minimum size for the District
865
False
What caused the size of Washington, D.C. to change?
573047ca947a6a140053d399
Virginia reclaimed the portion of the District south of the Potomac
975
False
James Madison
113
Who considered the implications of the definition of the seat of government south of the Potomac?
5a8a31143b2508001a72a7c0
True
Federalist No. 43
69
Where are these ideas located south of the Potomac?
5a8a31143b2508001a72a7c1
True
the Constitution does not set a minimum size
865
What limits does the constitution have for the size of Virginia?
5a8a31143b2508001a72a7c2
True
Virginia reclaimed the portion of the District south of the Potomac
975
What caused the Federalist No. 43 to change?
5a8a31143b2508001a72a7c3
True
Congress
471
Who can admit the District as a Federalist No. 43?
5a8a31143b2508001a72a7c4
True
Washington, D.C. is often mentioned as a candidate for statehood. In Federalist No. 43 of The Federalist Papers, James Madison considered the implications of the definition of the "seat of government" found in the United States Constitution. Although he noted potential conflicts of interest, and the need for a "municipal legislature for local purposes," Madison did not address the district's role in national voting. Legal scholars disagree on whether a simple act of Congress can admit the District as a state, due to its status as the seat of government of the United States, which Article I, Section 8 of the Constitution requires to be under the exclusive jurisdiction of Congress; depending on the interpretation of this text, admission of the full District as a state may require a Constitutional amendment, which is much more difficult to enact. However, the Constitution does not set a minimum size for the District. Its size has already changed once before, when Virginia reclaimed the portion of the District south of the Potomac. So the constitutional requirement for a federal district can be satisfied by reducing its size to the small central core of government buildings and monuments, giving the rest of the territory to the new state.
What Revolutionary War motto have Washington, D.C. statehood supporters modified and used?
57304a372461fd1900a9ccf3
"No taxation without representation", omitting the initial "No"
135
False
What does the phrase protest?
57304a372461fd1900a9ccf4
their lack of Congressional representation
209
False
In what way has the phrase been spread wide?
57304a372461fd1900a9ccf5
the phrase is now printed on newly issued Washington, D.C. license plates
253
False
When did  Obama have the protest plates put on his Presidential limousine?
57304a372461fd1900a9ccf6
at the beginning of his second term
722
False
"No taxation without representation", omitting the initial "No"
135
What Revolutionary War motto have Congressional supporters modified and used?
5a8a32ab3b2508001a72a7e5
True
their lack of Congressional representation
209
What does the phrase shortened beginning mean?
5a8a32ab3b2508001a72a7e6
True
the phrase is now printed on newly issued Washington, D.C. license plates
253
In what way has the phrase been protested?
5a8a32ab3b2508001a72a7e7
True
at the beginning of his second term
722
When did George W. Bush have the protest plates put on his Presidential limousine?
5a8a32ab3b2508001a72a7e8
True
Bill Clinton
422
Which president had the "Taxation with representation" license plate late in his term?
5a8a32ab3b2508001a72a7e9
True
Washington, D.C. residents who support the statehood movement sometimes use a shortened version of the Revolutionary War protest motto "No taxation without representation", omitting the initial "No", denoting their lack of Congressional representation; the phrase is now printed on newly issued Washington, D.C. license plates (although a driver may choose to have the Washington, D.C. website address instead). President Bill Clinton's presidential limousine had the "Taxation without representation" license plate late in his term, while President George W. Bush had the vehicle's plates changed shortly after beginning his term in office. President Barack Obama had the license plates changed back to the protest style at the beginning of his second term.
What party carried the position of D.C. Statehood?
57304ae58ab72b1400f9c3f4
D.C. Statehood Party
33
False
What party did the D.C. Statehood Party merge when?
57304ae58ab72b1400f9c3f5
the local Green Party affiliate
99
False
When did the movement get closest to success?
57304ae58ab72b1400f9c3f6
1978
225
False
What would be the new name of the D.C. State?
57304ae58ab72b1400f9c3f7
New Columbia
499
False
When did the drive for statehood falter?
57304ae58ab72b1400f9c3f8
1985
548
False
D.C. Statehood Party
33
What party carried the position of Columbia statehood?
5a8a33bd3b2508001a72a7f8
True
the local Green Party affiliate
99
What party did the Washington Party merge with?
5a8a33bd3b2508001a72a7f9
True
1978
225
When did Columbia get closest to success?
5a8a33bd3b2508001a72a7fa
True
New Columbia
499
What would be the new name of the Columbia state?
5a8a33bd3b2508001a72a7fb
True
1985
548
When did the drive for Columbian statehood falter?
5a8a33bd3b2508001a72a7fc
True
This position was carried by the D.C. Statehood Party, a political party; it has since merged with the local Green Party affiliate to form the D.C. Statehood Green Party. The nearest this movement ever came to success was in 1978, when Congress passed the District of Columbia Voting Rights Amendment. Two years later in 1980, local citizens passed an initiative calling for a constitutional convention for a new state. In 1982, voters ratified the constitution of the state, which was to be called New Columbia. The drive for statehood stalled in 1985, however, when the Washington, D.C. Voting Rights Amendment failed because not enough states ratified the amendment within the seven-year span specified.
What is another likely country for statehood?
573071c5069b5314008320d8
United States Virgin Islands
46
False
What entity reported on Guam and the Northern Mariana Islands becoming one again?
573071c5069b5314008320d9
Radio Australia
1266
False
United States Virgin Islands
46
What is another likely country for free association?
5a8a35233b2508001a72a80c
True
Radio Australia
1266
What entity reported on Guam and the Virgin Islands becoming one again?
5a8a35233b2508001a72a80d
True
state
948
What would have a slightly larger population than Wyoming?
5a8a35233b2508001a72a80e
True
May 2008
1291
When did Radio Australia report on Guam and the Virgin Islands becoming one again?
5a8a35233b2508001a72a80f
True
Other less likely contenders are Guam and the United States Virgin Islands, both of which are unincorporated organized territories of the United States. Also, the Northern Mariana Islands and American Samoa, an unorganized, unincorporated territory, could both attempt to gain statehood. Some proposals call for the Virgin Islands to be admitted with Puerto Rico as one state (often known as the proposed "Commonwealth of Prusvi", for Puerto Rico/U.S. Virgin Islands, or as "Puerto Virgo"), and for the amalgamation of U.S. territories or former territories in the Pacific Ocean, in the manner of the "Greater Hawaii" concept of the 1960s. Guam and the Northern Mariana Islands would be admitted as one state, along with Palau, the Federated States of Micronesia, and the Marshall Islands (although these latter three entities are now separate sovereign nations, which have Compact of Free Association relationships with the United States). Such a state would have a population of 412,381 (slightly lower than Wyoming's population) and a land area of 911.82 square miles (2,361.6 km2) (slightly smaller than Rhode Island). American Samoa could possibly be part of such a state, increasing the population to 467,900 and the area to 988.65 square miles (2,560.6 km2). Radio Australia, in late May 2008, issued signs of Guam and the Northern Mariana Islands becoming one again and becoming the 51st state.
What country had small grassroots movement for US Statehood?
5730722b069b5314008320dd
The Philippines
0
False
What party used to be known as the Federalista Party?
5730722b069b5314008320de
Federalista Party
147
False
What was the most recent year of the Phillipines pushing for statehood?
5730722b069b5314008320df
2004
249
False
The Philippines
0
What country had small grassroots movement for Commonwealth statehoods
5a8a36f13b2508001a72a828
True
Federalista Party
147
What party used to be known  as the Armed Forces Party?
5a8a36f13b2508001a72a829
True
2004
249
What was the most recent year of the Commonwealth pushing for statehood?
5a8a36f13b2508001a72a82a
True
the concept of the Philippines becoming a U.S. state
255
What has been part of a political platform in the Fillipinos Party?
5a8a36f13b2508001a72a82b
True
Filipinos who believe that the quality of life in the Philippines would be higher
402
What does supporters of the movement to make the Commonwealth a state include?
5a8a36f13b2508001a72a82c
True
The Philippines has had small grassroots movements for U.S. statehood. Originally part of the platform of the Progressive Party, then known as the Federalista Party, the party dropped it in 1907, which coincided with the name change. As recently as 2004, the concept of the Philippines becoming a U.S. state has been part of a political platform in the Philippines. Supporters of this movement include Filipinos who believe that the quality of life in the Philippines would be higher and that there would be less poverty there if the Philippines were an American state or territory. Supporters also include Filipinos that had fought as members of the United States Armed Forces in various wars during the Commonwealth period.
What is another connotation for the 51st state label?
57307298396df9190009610a
if a certain political course is taken, Canada's destiny will be as little more than a part of the United States
86
False
When was the Canada-US Free Trade Agreement enacted?
57307298396df9190009610b
1988
266
False
When was the Charlottetown Accord signed?
57307298396df9190009610c
1992
470
False
When did the Clarity Act go into effect?
57307298396df9190009610d
1999
498
False
if a certain political course is taken, Canada's destiny will be as little more than a part of the United States
86
What is another connotation for the 1999 label?
5a8a37a53b2508001a72a845
True
1988
266
When was the Canada-Quebec Free Trade Agreement enacted?
5a8a37a53b2508001a72a846
True
1992
470
When was the Canada-US Accord signed?
5a8a37a53b2508001a72a847
True
1999
498
When did the Charlottetown Act go into effect?
5a8a37a53b2508001a72a848
True
debate over the creation of a common defense perimeter
276
What was a consequence of adopting proposals intended to resolve the issue of Quebec sovereignty?
5a8a37a53b2508001a72a849
True
In Canada, "the 51st state" is a phrase generally used in such a way as to imply that if a certain political course is taken, Canada's destiny will be as little more than a part of the United States. Examples include the Canada-United States Free Trade Agreement in 1988, the debate over the creation of a common defense perimeter, and as a potential consequence of not adopting proposals intended to resolve the issue of Quebec sovereignty, the Charlottetown Accord in 1992 and the Clarity Act in 1999.
Who suggested that the Free Trade Agreement amounted to an American takeover of Canada?
5730730a069b5314008320e3
Liberals
308
False
When was this campaign ran?
5730730a069b5314008320e4
In the 1988 federal election
274
False
Who erased the border in the ad?
5730730a069b5314008320e5
Progressive Conservative (PC) strategists
446
False
What was the slogan of this ad?
5730730a069b5314008320e6
"Here's where we draw the line."
745
False
Liberals
308
Who suggested that the Progressive Conservative amounted to an American takeover of Canada?
5a8a39133b2508001a72a861
True
In the 1988 federal election
274
When was the campaign to run ads of a map of Progressive Conservatives run?
5a8a39133b2508001a72a862
True
Progressive Conservative (PC) strategists
446
Who erased the border in political parties?
5a8a39133b2508001a72a863
True
"Here's where we draw the line."
745
What was the slogan of this takeover?
5a8a39133b2508001a72a864
True
Liberals
308
Who asserted that the proposed Canada-US border amounted to an American permanent marker?
5a8a39133b2508001a72a865
True
The phrase is usually used in local political debates, in polemic writing or in private conversations. It is rarely used by politicians themselves in a public context, although at certain times in Canadian history political parties have used other similarly loaded imagery. In the 1988 federal election, the Liberals asserted that the proposed Free Trade Agreement amounted to an American takeover of Canada—notably, the party ran an ad in which Progressive Conservative (PC) strategists, upon the adoption of the agreement, slowly erased the Canada-U.S. border from a desktop map of North America. Within days, however, the PCs responded with an ad which featured the border being drawn back on with a permanent marker, as an announcer intoned "Here's where we draw the line."
When did Quebec land in British hands?
5730739e2461fd1900a9ce1d
1763
326
False
When did Ontario land in British hands?
5730739e2461fd1900a9ce1e
1763
326
False
During which the US invade Canada?
5730739e2461fd1900a9ce1f
the War of 1812
1121
False
What did several US politicians suggest doing in the 19th century?
5730739e2461fd1900a9ce20
annexing Canada
1499
False
1763
326
When did the United States land in British hands?
5a8a3a1a3b2508001a72a874
True
1763
326
When New York land in British hands?
5a8a3a1a3b2508001a72a875
True
War of 1812
1125
During which did the British invade Canada?
5a8a3a1a3b2508001a72a876
True
annexing Canada
1499
What did several British politicians suggest doing in the 19th century?
5a8a3a1a3b2508001a72a877
True
Continental Army
657
Who recruited two British regiments?
5a8a3a1a3b2508001a72a878
True
The implication has historical basis and dates to the breakup of British America during the American Revolution. The colonies that had confederated to form the United States invaded Canada (at the time a term referring specifically to the modern-day provinces of Quebec and Ontario, which had only been in British hands since 1763) at least twice, neither time succeeding in taking control of the territory. The first invasion was during the Revolution, under the assumption that French-speaking Canadians' presumed hostility towards British colonial rule combined with the Franco-American alliance would make them natural allies to the American cause; the Continental Army successfully recruited two Canadian regiments for the invasion. That invasion's failure forced the members of those regiments into exile, and they settled mostly in upstate New York. The Articles of Confederation, written during the Revolution, included a provision for Canada to join the United States, should they ever decide to do so, without needing to seek U.S. permission as other states would. The United States again invaded Canada during the War of 1812, but this effort was made more difficult due to the large number of Loyalist Americans that had fled to what is now Ontario and still resisted joining the republic. The Hunter Patriots in the 1830s and the Fenian raids after the American Civil War were private attacks on Canada from the U.S. Several U.S. politicians in the 19th century also spoke in favour of annexing Canada.
When were the last days of the Dominion of Newfoundland?
5730740e396df9190009611c
In the late 1940s
0
False
What was the result of the 1948 referendum?
5730740e396df9190009611d
The movement ultimately failed
430
False
What did the Economic Union Party support?
5730740e396df9190009611e
an independent "responsible government"
574
False
In the late 1940s
0
When were the last days of the U.S.-British alliance?
5a8a3d0e3b2508001a72a88b
True
The movement ultimately failed
430
What was the result of the 1940 referendum?
5a8a3d0e3b2508001a72a88c
True
an independent "responsible government"
574
What did the U.S.-British alliance support?
5a8a3d0e3b2508001a72a88d
True
Dominion of Newfoundland
47
What was a dominion-dependency in the U.S.?
5a8a3d0e3b2508001a72a88e
True
Newfoundland to form an economic union with the United States
212
What was there majority support for?
5a8a3d0e3b2508001a72a88f
True
In the late 1940s, during the last days of the Dominion of Newfoundland (at the time a dominion-dependency in the Commonwealth and independent of Canada), there was mainstream support, although not majority, for Newfoundland to form an economic union with the United States, thanks to the efforts of the Economic Union Party and significant U.S. investment in Newfoundland stemming from the U.S.-British alliance in World War II. The movement ultimately failed when, in a 1948 referendum, voters narrowly chose to confederate with Canada (the Economic Union Party supported an independent "responsible government" that they would then push toward their goals).
What does Canada being referred to as the 51st state in a positive way mean in the US, generally?
573074888ab72b1400f9c4f8
can serve to highlight the similarities and close relationship between the United States and Canada
71
False
What is a negative connotation of the term?
573074888ab72b1400f9c4f9
to deride Canada as an unimportant neighbor
223
False
How man votes did Parti 51 attract in 1989?
573074888ab72b1400f9c4fa
just 3,846 votes
537
False
What did the other parties receive that year?
573074888ab72b1400f9c4fb
40.16% (PQ) and 1.22% (NPDQ)
695
False
can serve to highlight the similarities and close relationship between the United States and Canada
71
What does Quebec being referred to as the 51st state in a joking way mean in the US, generally/
5a8a3e4f3b2508001a72a89e
True
to deride Canada as an unimportant neighbor
223
What is a negative connotation of Andre Perron?
5a8a3e4f3b2508001a72a89f
True
3,846 votes
542
How many votes did the United States attract in 1989?
5a8a3e4f3b2508001a72a8a0
True
40.16% (PQ) and 1.22% (NPDQ)
695
What did the other parties receive in 1988?
5a8a3e4f3b2508001a72a8a1
True
1989
300
When did the political party Parti 51 run 51 candidates on a platform of Quebec seceding from Canada to join the United States?
5a8a3e4f3b2508001a72a8a2
True
In the United States, the term "the 51st state" when applied to Canada can serve to highlight the similarities and close relationship between the United States and Canada. Sometimes the term is used disparagingly, intended to deride Canada as an unimportant neighbor. In the Quebec general election, 1989, the political party Parti 51 ran 11 candidates on a platform of Quebec seceding from Canada to join the United States (with its leader, André Perron, claiming Quebec could not survive as an independent nation). The party attracted just 3,846 votes across the province, 0.11% of the total votes cast. In comparison, the other parties in favour of sovereignty of Quebec in that election got 40.16% (PQ) and 1.22% (NPDQ).
When did Panama have the US-ruled Canal Zone Territory?
573074ee069b5314008320f5
from 1903 to 1979
450
False
When did the British Honduras become Belize?
573074ee069b5314008320f6
since 1981
509
False
When did El Salvador adopt the US Dollar as its currency?
573074ee069b5314008320f7
2001
662
False
from 1903 to 1979
450
When did the British have the US-ruled Canal Zone Territory?
5a8a3f623b2508001a72a8c1
True
since 1981
509
When did the United States Honduras become Belize?
5a8a3f623b2508001a72a8c2
True
2001
662
When did Panama adopt the US Dollar as its currency?
5a8a3f623b2508001a72a8c3
True
19th and 20th
216
When were proposals made to annex some or all of Panama with Britain?
5a8a3f623b2508001a72a8c4
True
Panama
727
Who has used British currency for decades?
5a8a3f623b2508001a72a8c5
True
Due to geographical proximity of the Central American countries to the U.S. which has powerful military, economic, and political influences, there were several movements and proposals by the United States during the 19th and 20th centuries to annex some or all of the Central American republics (Costa Rica, El Salvador, Guatemala, Honduras with the formerly British-ruled Bay Islands, Nicaragua, Panama which had the U.S.-ruled Canal Zone territory from 1903 to 1979, and formerly British Honduras or Belize since 1981). However, the U.S. never acted on these proposals from some U.S. politicians; some of which were never delivered or considered seriously. In 2001, El Salvador adopted the U.S. dollar as its currency, while Panama has used it for decades due to its ties to the Canal Zone.
What country was Cuba a territory of?
57307554069b5314008320fb
Spain
63
False
What battleship sunk in the Havana Harbor?
57307554069b5314008320fc
Maine
297
False
When did Fidel Castro overthrow the Cuban government?
57307554069b5314008320fd
1959
572
False
What government did Castro install?
57307554069b5314008320fe
Marxist–Leninist government
691
False
Spain
416
What country was Maine a territory of?
5a8a402c3b2508001a72a8cb
True
Maine
297
What battleship sunk in the Spain Harbor?
5a8a402c3b2508001a72a8cc
True
1959
572
When did Fulgencio Batista overthrow the Cuban government?
5a8a402c3b2508001a72a8cd
True
Marxist–Leninist government
691
What government did Batista install?
5a8a402c3b2508001a72a8ce
True
Cuba
0
Who wanted to break from the U.S.?
5a8a402c3b2508001a72a8cf
True
Cuba, like many Spanish territories, wanted to break free from Spain. A pro-independence movement in Cuba was supported by the U.S., and Cuban guerrilla leaders wanted annexation to the United States, but Cuban revolutionary leader José Martí called for Cuban nationhood. When the U.S. battleship Maine sank in Havana Harbor, the U.S. blamed Spain and the Spanish–American War broke out in 1898. After the U.S. won, Spain relinquished claim of sovereignty over territories, including Cuba. The U.S. administered Cuba as a protectorate until 1902. Several decades later in 1959, the corrupt Cuban government of U.S.-backed Fulgencio Batista was overthrown by Fidel Castro. Castro installed a Marxist–Leninist government allied with the Soviet Union, which has been in power ever since.
Why is Israel referred to as the 51st state?
573075b12461fd1900a9ce25
the annual funding and defense support it receives from the United States
61
False
What book did Martine Rothblatt publish?
573075b12461fd1900a9ce26
Two Stars for Peace
231
False
When was Two Stars for Peace published?
573075b12461fd1900a9ce27
2003
179
False
Who wrote the book The American State of Canaan?
573075b12461fd1900a9ce28
Alfred de Grazia
428
False
the annual funding and defense support it receives from the United States
61
Why is Israel referred to as Canaan?
5a8a41783b2508001a72a8f3
True
Two Stars for Peace
231
What book did Alfred de Grazia publish?
5a8a41783b2508001a72a8f4
True
2003
179
When was Alfred de Grazia supported by the United States?
5a8a41783b2508001a72a8f5
True
Alfred de Grazia
428
Who wrote the book Martine Rothblatt?
5a8a41783b2508001a72a8f6
True
Two Stars for Peace
231
What argued for the addition United States books?
5a8a41783b2508001a72a8f7
True
Several websites assert that Israel is the 51st state due to the annual funding and defense support it receives from the United States. An example of this concept can be found in 2003 when Martine Rothblatt published a book called Two Stars for Peace that argued for the addition of Israel and the Palestinian territories surrounding it as the 51st state in the Union. The American State of Canaan, is a book published by Prof. Alfred de Grazia, political science and sociologist, in March 2009, proposing the creation of the 51st and 52nd states from Israel and the Palestinian territories.
When did Artcle 3 of the Treaty of San Francisco come into effect?
573076172461fd1900a9ce2d
April 1952
106
False
How many people lived on the island of Okinawa?
573076172461fd1900a9ce2e
over 1 million
208
False
When was Okinawa finally returned?
573076172461fd1900a9ce2f
May 15, 1972
423
False
Why did the US have troops on Okinawa?
573076172461fd1900a9ce30
as a defense for Japan.
488
False
April 1952
106
When did Article 2 of the Treaty of San Francisco come into effect?
5a8a42993b2508001a72a917
True
over 1 million
208
How many people lived on the island of Bonin?
5a8a42993b2508001a72a918
True
May 15, 1972
423
When was San Francisco finally returned?
5a8a42993b2508001a72a919
True
as a defense for Japan
488
Why did the Japanese have troops on Okinawa?
5a8a42993b2508001a72a91a
True
the U.S.
118
Who put the outlying islands of the Ryukyus into Bonin trusteeship?
5a8a42993b2508001a72a91b
True
In Article 3 of the Treaty of San Francisco between the Allied Powers and Japan, which came into force in April 1952, the U.S. put the outlying islands of the Ryukyus, including the island of Okinawa—home to over 1 million Okinawans related to the Japanese—and the Bonin Islands, the Volcano Islands, and Iwo Jima into U.S. trusteeship. All these trusteeships were slowly returned to Japanese rule. Okinawa was returned on May 15, 1972, but the U.S. stations troops in the island's bases as a defense for Japan.
When did the 51st State Party attempt to register in New Zealand?
57307685396df9190009612a
2010
3
False
What does the 51st State Party advocate?
57307685396df9190009612b
The party advocates New Zealand becoming the 51st state of the United States of America
103
False
Who is the secretary of the 51st State Party?
57307685396df9190009612c
Paulus Telfer
217
False
Can people in New Zealand vote for the 51st State Party?
57307685396df9190009612d
the party remains unregistered and cannot appear on a ballot.
534
False
2010
3
When did the 51st State Party attempt to register with Paulus Telfer?
5a8a485d3b2508001a72a984
True
The party advocates New Zealand becoming the 51st state of the United States of America
103
What does the Electoral Commission Party advocate?
5a8a485d3b2508001a72a985
True
Paulus Telfer
217
Who is the secretary of the Electoral Commission?
5a8a485d3b2508001a72a986
True
the party remains unregistered and cannot appear on a ballot
534
Can people in New Zealand vote for the Electoral Commission Party?
5a8a485d3b2508001a72a987
True
a US flag with 51 stars
373
What is the logo of the Electoral Commission Party?
5a8a485d3b2508001a72a988
True
In 2010 there was an attempt to register a 51st State Party with the New Zealand Electoral Commission. The party advocates New Zealand becoming the 51st state of the United States of America. The party's secretary is Paulus Telfer, a former Christchurch mayoral candidate. On February 5, 2010, the party applied to register a logo with the Electoral Commission. The logo – a US flag with 51 stars – was rejected by the Electoral Commission on the grounds that it was likely to cause confusion or mislead electors. As of 2014[update], the party remains unregistered and cannot appear on a ballot.
Who is the mayor of Tirana?
573076f78ab72b1400f9c514
Edi Rama,
217
False
Who said that Albania is the most pro-American country in Europe?
573076f78ab72b1400f9c515
Edi Rama
217
False
When did James Baker visit Albania as Secretary of State?
573076f78ab72b1400f9c516
1992
580
False
What is the name of the largest US military base outside of US territory?
573076f78ab72b1400f9c517
Camp Bondsteel
895
False
Edi Rama
217
Who is the mayor of Albania?
5a8a491d3b2508001a72a997
True
Edi Rama
217
Who said that Albania is the most pro-Bondsteel country in Europe?
5a8a491d3b2508001a72a998
True
1992
580
When did James Baker visit the United States as Secretary of State?
5a8a491d3b2508001a72a999
True
Camp Bondsteel
895
What is the name of the largest Albanian military base outside of Albanian territory?
5a8a491d3b2508001a72a99a
True
Edi Rama
217
Who is the leader of the Socialists?
5a8a491d3b2508001a72a99b
True
Albania has often been called the 51st state for its perceived strongly pro-American positions, mainly because of the United States' policies towards it. In reference to President George W. Bush's 2007 European tour, Edi Rama, Tirana's mayor and leader of the opposition Socialists, said: "Albania is for sure the most pro-American country in Europe, maybe even in the world ... Nowhere else can you find such respect and hospitality for the President of the United States. Even in Michigan, he wouldn't be as welcome." At the time of ex-Secretary of State James Baker's visit in 1992, there was even a move to hold a referendum declaring the country as the 51st American state. In addition to Albania, Kosovo which is predominately Albanian is seen as a 51st state due to the heavily presence and influence of the United States. The US has had troops and the largest base outside US territory, Camp Bondsteel in the territory since 1999.
When did the US control Greenland?
573077742461fd1900a9ce35
when Denmark was occupied by Nazi Germany
21
False
How much did the US offer to pay for Greenland?
573077742461fd1900a9ce36
$100 million
213
False
What university is professor Gudmundur Alfredssson from?
573077742461fd1900a9ce37
University of Akureyri
501
False
What is one reason the US would be interested in Greenland?
573077742461fd1900a9ce38
the vast expected hydrocarbons off the Greenlandic coast.
770
False
when Denmark was occupied by Nazi Germany
21
When did the US control Akureyri?
5a8a4a423b2508001a72a9c6
True
$100 million
213
How much did the US offer to pay for Akureyri?
5a8a4a423b2508001a72a9c7
True
University of Akureyri
501
Where was Gudmundur Alfredsson a professor at in 1946?
5a8a4a423b2508001a72a9c8
True
the vast expected hydrocarbons off the Greenlandic coast
770
What is one reason Alfredsson would be interested in Greenland?
5a8a4a423b2508001a72a9c9
True
Several politicians and others
279
Who have argued that Greenland could not hypothetically be in a better financial situation as part of the United States?
5a8a4a423b2508001a72a9ca
True
During World War II, when Denmark was occupied by Nazi Germany, the United States briefly controlled Greenland for battlefields and protection. In 1946, the United States offered to buy Greenland from Denmark for $100 million ($1.2 billion today) but Denmark refused to sell it. Several politicians and others have in recent years argued that Greenland could hypothetically be in a better financial situation as a part of the United States; for instance mentioned by professor Gudmundur Alfredsson at University of Akureyri in 2014. One of the actual reasons behind US interest in Greenland could be the vast natural resources of the island. According to Wikileaks, the U.S. appears to be highly interested in investing in the resource base of the island and in tapping the vast expected hydrocarbons off the Greenlandic coast.
What had been Poland's stance towards the US, historically?
573077e1396df9190009613a
staunchly pro-American
29
False
What led to the creation of an independent Poland?
573077e1396df9190009613b
favorable American intervention in World War I
207
False
What did Poland contribute to the "Coalition of the Willing"?
573077e1396df9190009613c
a large force
406
False
staunchly pro-American
29
What had been Soviet stance towards the US, historically?
5a8a4b583b2508001a72a9ec
True
favorable American intervention in World War I
207
What led to the creation of independent Soviets?
5a8a4b583b2508001a72a9ed
True
a large force
406
What did the soviets contribute to the "Coalition of the Willing"?
5a8a4b583b2508001a72a9ee
True
James Pavitt
534
To who was a quote referring to Poland as a Soviet state attributed?
5a8a4b583b2508001a72a9ef
True
Cold War
313
What culminated in a Polish state dependent on Soviet influence?
5a8a4b583b2508001a72a9f0
True
Poland has historically been staunchly pro-American, dating back to General Tadeusz Kościuszko and Casimir Pulaski's involvement in the American Revolution. This pro-American stance was reinforced following favorable American intervention in World War I (leading to the creation of an independent Poland) and the Cold War (culminating in a Polish state independent of Soviet influence). Poland contributed a large force to the "Coalition of the Willing" in Iraq. A quote referring to Poland as "the 51st state" has been attributed to James Pavitt, then Central Intelligence Agency Deputy Director for Operations, especially in connection to extraordinary rendition.
How many members did the Party of Reconstruction in Sicily have in 1944?
573078662461fd1900a9ce3d
40,000 members
53
False
What did the Party of Reconstruction in Sicily campaign for?
573078662461fd1900a9ce3e
for Sicily to be admitted as a U.S. state
88
False
When did the Allied invasion of Sicily occur?
573078662461fd1900a9ce3f
July–August 1943
504
False
When did the annexation of Sicily by Italy happen?
573078662461fd1900a9ce40
1861
332
False
40,000 members
53
How many members did the Kingdom of the Two Sicilies have in 1944?
5a8a4c4d3b2508001a72aa09
True
for Sicily to be admitted as a U.S. state
88
What did the Kingdom of the Two Sicilies campaign for?
5a8a4c4d3b2508001a72aa0a
True
July–August 1943
504
When did the Sicilian invasion of the Allies occur?
5a8a4c4d3b2508001a72aa0b
True
1861
332
When did the annexation of Naples by Italy happen?
5a8a4c4d3b2508001a72aa0c
True
The Party of Reconstruction in Sicily
0
Who campaigned for Naples to be a U.S. state?
5a8a4c4d3b2508001a72aa0d
True
The Party of Reconstruction in Sicily, which claimed 40,000 members in 1944, campaigned for Sicily to be admitted as a U.S. state. This party was one of several Sicilian separatist movements active after the downfall of Italian Fascism. Sicilians felt neglected or underrepresented by the Italian government after the annexation of 1861 that ended the rule of the Kingdom of the Two Sicilies based in Naples. The large population of Sicilians in America and the American-led Allied invasion of Sicily in July–August 1943 may have contributed to the sentiment.
What are the four categories of terra nullius?
573078ee069b531400832103
the small unclaimed territory of Bir Tawil between Egypt and Sudan, Antarctica, the oceans, and celestial bodies
81
False
What three treaties exist for unclaimed lands?
573078ee069b531400832104
the Antarctic Treaty, the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea, and the Outer Space Treaty
272
False
What do the treaties defend against?
573078ee069b531400832105
prevent colonization and potential statehood of any of these uninhabited (and, given current technology, not permanently inhabitable) territories.
388
False
Where is Bir Tawil located?
573078ee069b531400832106
between Egypt and Sudan
124
False
the small unclaimed territory of Bir Tawil between Egypt and Sudan, Antarctica, the oceans, and celestial bodies
81
What are the four categories of the Outer Space Treaty?
5a8a4d893b2508001a72aa43
True
the Antarctic Treaty, the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea, and the Outer Space Treaty
272
What three treaties exist for claimed lands?
5a8a4d893b2508001a72aa44
True
prevent colonization and potential statehood of any of these uninhabited (and, given current technology, not permanently inhabitable) territories
388
What does terra nullius defend against?
5a8a4d893b2508001a72aa45
True
between Egypt and Sudan
124
Where was the United Nations Convention located?
5a8a4d893b2508001a72aa46
True
four
10
How many categories of outer space are there?
5a8a4d893b2508001a72aa47
True
There are four categories of terra nullius, land that is unclaimed by any state: the small unclaimed territory of Bir Tawil between Egypt and Sudan, Antarctica, the oceans, and celestial bodies such as the Moon or Mars. In the last three of these, international treaties (the Antarctic Treaty, the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea, and the Outer Space Treaty respectively) prevent colonization and potential statehood of any of these uninhabited (and, given current technology, not permanently inhabitable) territories.
Antenna_(radio)
What device is able to change electric powerinto radio waves and also do the reverse?
572ef1abcb0c0d14000f168a
An antenna
0
False
What device is often used in conjuntion with the antenna?
572ef1abcb0c0d14000f168b
radio transmitter or radio receiver
167
False
What process associated with antennas produces a high frequency alternating current?
572ef1abcb0c0d14000f168c
transmission
207
False
What else can radio waves be called?
572ef1abcb0c0d14000f168d
electromagnetic waves
434
False
When does an antenna catch electromagnetic waves?
572ef1abcb0c0d14000f168e
reception
474
False
An antenna (plural antennae or antennas), or aerial, is an electrical device which converts electric power into radio waves, and vice versa. It is usually used with a radio transmitter or radio receiver. In transmission, a radio transmitter supplies an electric current oscillating at radio frequency (i.e. a high frequency alternating current (AC)) to the antenna's terminals, and the antenna radiates the energy from the current as electromagnetic waves (radio waves). In reception, an antenna intercepts some of the power of an electromagnetic wave in order to produce a tiny voltage at its terminals, that is applied to a receiver to be amplified.
What is frequently used to connect elements to the receiver?
572ef9b8c246551400ce4804
transmission line
123
False
What particles are pushed through the antenna by a transmitter?
572ef9b8c246551400ce4805
electrons
200
False
During transmission does the electric field wave move closer to the antenna?
572ef9b8c246551400ce4806
radiate away
448
False
During what process would electrons be vacillating in the antenna?
572ef9b8c246551400ce4807
reception
559
False
Typically an antenna consists of an arrangement of metallic conductors (elements), electrically connected (often through a transmission line) to the receiver or transmitter. An oscillating current of electrons forced through the antenna by a transmitter will create an oscillating magnetic field around the antenna elements, while the charge of the electrons also creates an oscillating electric field along the elements. These time-varying fields radiate away from the antenna into space as a moving transverse electromagnetic field wave. Conversely, during reception, the oscillating electric and magnetic fields of an incoming radio wave exert force on the electrons in the antenna elements, causing them to move back and forth, creating oscillating currents in the antenna.
What is an acceptable synonym for antenna?
572efc88cb0c0d14000f16c4
aerial
130
False
What can sometimes be meant by the term aerial specifically?
572efc88cb0c0d14000f16c5
wire antenna
212
False
What is one way of referring to more than one antenna?
572efc88cb0c0d14000f16c6
antennae
81
False
What is the most widely accepted term for an electrical device that converts electric power into radio waves?
572efc88cb0c0d14000f16c7
antenna
451
False
The words antenna (plural: antennas in US English, although both "antennas" and "antennae" are used in International English) and aerial are used interchangeably. Occasionally the term "aerial" is used to mean a wire antenna. However, note the important international technical journal, the IEEE Transactions on Antennas and Propagation. In the United Kingdom and other areas where British English is used, the term aerial is sometimes used although 'antenna' has been universal in professional use for many years.
Who is most associated with the emergence of the word antenna?
572eff08cb0c0d14000f16e6
Guglielmo Marconi
101
False
When did experimentation with electromagnetic waves begin?
572eff08cb0c0d14000f16e7
1895
137
False
What is a way to increase the strength of a radio transmission?
572eff08cb0c0d14000f16e8
raising the "aerial" wire
312
False
How far was Marconi able to get his signal to go using this technique?
572eff08cb0c0d14000f16e9
1.5 mi
547
False
The origin of the word antenna relative to wireless apparatus is attributed to Italian radio pioneer Guglielmo Marconi. In the summer of 1895, Marconi began testing his wireless system outdoors on his father's estate near Bologna and soon began to experiment with long wire "aerials". Marconi discovered that by raising the "aerial" wire above the ground and connecting the other side of his transmitter to ground, the transmission range was increased. Soon he was able to transmit signals over a hill, a distance of approximately 2.4 kilometres (1.5 mi). In Italian a tent pole is known as l'antenna centrale, and the pole with the wire was simply called l'antenna. Until then wireless radiating transmitting and receiving elements were known simply as aerials or terminals.
What is essential for the mating of the elements that create radio waves?
572f0580dfa6aa1500f8d575
Antennas
0
False
How fast are signals produced by antenna transmitted?
572f0580dfa6aa1500f8d576
speed of light
225
False
What is one system that uses electromagnetic waves?
572f0580dfa6aa1500f8d577
mobile telephones
406
False
What mobile locator and direction finder technology takes advantage of radio waves?
572f0580dfa6aa1500f8d578
GPS
743
False
What often inconspicuous part of a laptop computer allows for internet usage?
572f0580dfa6aa1500f8d579
antennas
841
False
Antennas are required by any radio receiver or transmitter to couple its electrical connection to the electromagnetic field. Radio waves are electromagnetic waves which carry signals through the air (or through space) at the speed of light with almost no transmission loss. Radio transmitters and receivers are used to convey signals (information) in systems including broadcast (audio) radio, television, mobile telephones, Wi-Fi (WLAN) data networks, trunk lines and point-to-point communications links (telephone, data networks), satellite links, many remote controlled devices such as garage door openers, and wireless remote sensors, among many others. Radio waves are also used directly for measurements in technologies including radar, GPS, and radio astronomy. In each and every case, the transmitters and receivers involved require antennas, although these are sometimes hidden (such as the antenna inside an AM radio or inside a laptop computer equipped with Wi-Fi).
What is the main element of an omnidirectional antenna?
572f08f703f9891900756b4d
metal rod
108
False
What type of antenna would most likely be a half a wavelength long?
572f08f703f9891900756b4e
dipole
177
False
In which direction would you expect to find a dipole?
572f08f703f9891900756b4f
horizontally
384
False
What is meant by the area where signals cannot be accepted well along the conductor?
572f08f703f9891900756b50
null
628
False
One example of omnidirectional antennas is the very common vertical antenna or whip antenna consisting of a metal rod (often, but not always, a quarter of a wavelength long). A dipole antenna is similar but consists of two such conductors extending in opposite directions, with a total length that is often, but not always, a half of a wavelength long. Dipoles are typically oriented horizontally in which case they are weakly directional: signals are reasonably well radiated toward or received from all directions with the exception of the direction along the conductor itself; this region is called the antenna blind cone or null.
Are basic antennas expensive?
572f0de1dfa6aa1500f8d59b
relatively inexpensive
69
False
What is the foundation most often used when creating new antenna models?
572f0de1dfa6aa1500f8d59c
dipole antenna
97
False
What category do vertical antennas fall under?
572f0de1dfa6aa1500f8d59d
monopole antenna
404
False
What is used to close the circuit of a dipole antenna?
572f0de1dfa6aa1500f8d59e
large conductive surface
619
False
Both the vertical and dipole antennas are simple in construction and relatively inexpensive. The dipole antenna, which is the basis for most antenna designs, is a balanced component, with equal but opposite voltages and currents applied at its two terminals through a balanced transmission line (or to a coaxial transmission line through a so-called balun). The vertical antenna, on the other hand, is a monopole antenna. It is typically connected to the inner conductor of a coaxial transmission line (or a matching network); the shield of the transmission line is connected to ground. In this way, the ground (or any large conductive surface) plays the role of the second conductor of a dipole, thereby forming a complete circuit. Since monopole antennas rely on a conductive ground, a so-called grounding structure may be employed to provide a better ground contact to the earth or which itself acts as a ground plane to perform that function regardless of (or in absence of) an actual contact with the earth.
What are different designs aimed at increasing?
572f3f63947a6a140053c816
gain of the antenna
128
False
What is different from a monopole antenna with most other antenna types?
572f3f63947a6a140053c817
balanced line
283
False
Gain when referring to an antenna refers to what about radiated power?
572f3f63947a6a140053c818
concentration
483
False
Where is the power that is distributed originating from?
572f3f63947a6a140053c819
the transmitter
824
False
Antennas more complex than the dipole or vertical designs are usually intended to increase the directivity and consequently the gain of the antenna. This can be accomplished in many different ways leading to a plethora of antenna designs. The vast majority of designs are fed with a balanced line (unlike a monopole antenna) and are based on the dipole antenna with additional components (or elements) which increase its directionality. Antenna "gain" in this instance describes the concentration of radiated power into a particular solid angle of space, as opposed to the spherically uniform radiation of the ideal radiator. The increased power in the desired direction is at the expense of that in the undesired directions. Power is conserved, and there is no net power increase over that delivered from the power source (the transmitter.)
How many antenna would make up a phased array?
572f425b04bcaa1900d767e9
two or more
41
False
How are antennas oriented when arranged with specific spacing?
572f425b04bcaa1900d767ea
parallel
161
False
What are the two standard antenna types?
572f425b04bcaa1900d767eb
omnidirectional or weakly directional
516
False
What determines if the antenna creates a broadside array or an end fire array?
572f425b04bcaa1900d767ec
relative phase
227
False
For instance, a phased array consists of two or more simple antennas which are connected together through an electrical network. This often involves a number of parallel dipole antennas with a certain spacing. Depending on the relative phase introduced by the network, the same combination of dipole antennas can operate as a "broadside array" (directional normal to a line connecting the elements) or as an "end-fire array" (directional along the line connecting the elements). Antenna arrays may employ any basic (omnidirectional or weakly directional) antenna type, such as dipole, loop or slot antennas. These elements are often identical.
What type of antenna formation is made up of multiple dipole elements of varying lengths?
572f4583947a6a140053c84a
log-periodic dipole array
10
False
What is the benefit of this formation type?
572f4583947a6a140053c84b
extremely wide bandwidth
157
False
What is the main application of these set ups?
572f4583947a6a140053c84c
television reception
213
False
What is a variation of this antenna type?
572f4583947a6a140053c84d
Yagi-Uda Antenna
465
False
However a log-periodic dipole array consists of a number of dipole elements of different lengths in order to obtain a somewhat directional antenna having an extremely wide bandwidth: these are frequently used for television reception in fringe areas. The dipole antennas composing it are all considered "active elements" since they are all electrically connected together (and to the transmission line). On the other hand, a superficially similar dipole array, the Yagi-Uda Antenna (or simply "Yagi"), has only one dipole element with an electrical connection; the other so-called parasitic elements interact with the electromagnetic field in order to realize a fairly directional antenna but one which is limited to a rather narrow bandwidth. The Yagi antenna has similar looking parasitic dipole elements but which act differently due to their somewhat different lengths. There may be a number of so-called "directors" in front of the active element in the direction of propagation, and usually a single (but possibly more) "reflector" on the opposite side of the active element.
For radio broadcast that one would hear in their car what type of towers are used?
572f5908b2c2fd140056805b
vertical
53
False
Why is this specific antenna type used?
572f5908b2c2fd140056805c
achieve directionality
81
False
If one wished to take an antenna to different locations, which type would be best?
572f5908b2c2fd140056805d
short vertical antenna
256
False
What is a problem one might encounter when using a portable antenna?
572f5908b2c2fd140056805e
impedance matching
358
False
At low frequencies (such as AM broadcast), arrays of vertical towers are used to achieve directionality  and they will occupy large areas of land. For reception, a long Beverage antenna can have significant directivity. For non directional portable use, a short vertical antenna or small loop antenna works well, with the main design challenge being that of impedance matching. With a vertical antenna a loading coil at the base of the antenna may be employed to cancel the reactive component of impedance; small loop antennas are tuned with parallel capacitors for this purpose.
What is mainly responsible for the connection of the antenna to its end destinations?
572f5a60b2c2fd140056806b
antenna lead-in
3
False
What is the group of elements used to join the elements of an antenna?
572f5a60b2c2fd140056806c
antenna feed
120
False
What are the type of antennas used with satellite television called?
572f5a60b2c2fd140056806d
aperture antenna
307
False
What can be used in place of  a standard transmission line?
572f5a60b2c2fd140056806e
microwave antenna
577
False
An antenna lead-in is the transmission line (or feed line) which connects the antenna to a transmitter or receiver. The antenna feed may refer to all components connecting the antenna to the transmitter or receiver, such as an impedance matching network in addition to the transmission line. In a so-called aperture antenna, such as a horn or parabolic dish, the "feed" may also refer to a basic antenna inside the entire system (normally at the focus of the parabolic dish or at the throat of a horn) which could be considered the one active element in that antenna system. A microwave antenna may also be fed directly from a waveguide in place of a (conductive) transmission line.
Monopole antennas consist of what element?
572fdec904bcaa1900d76e0d
metal rod
66
False
What the most common form?
572fdec904bcaa1900d76e0e
quarter-wave monopole
309
False
What are small monopoles used as?
572fdec904bcaa1900d76e0f
nondirectional antennas
775
False
What has vertical polarization?
572fdec904bcaa1900d76e10
Monopoles
434
False
Monopole antennas consist of a single radiating element such as a metal rod, often mounted over a conducting surface, a ground plane. One side of the feedline from the receiver or transmitter is connected to the rod, and the other side to the ground plane, which may be the Earth. The most common form is the quarter-wave monopole which is one-quarter of a wavelength long and has a gain of 5.12 dBi when mounted over a ground plane. Monopoles have an omnidirectional radiation pattern, so they are used for broad coverage of an area, and have vertical polarization. The ground waves used for broadcasting at low frequencies must be vertically polarized, so large vertical monopole antennas are used for broadcasting in the MF, LF, and VLF bands. Small monopoles are used as nondirectional antennas on portable radios in the HF, VHF, and UHF bands.
What is the most widley used antenna class?
572fdefb947a6a140053cd8c
dipole antenna
41
False
What radiates two lobes perpendicular to the antennas axis?
572fdefb947a6a140053cd8d
horizontal dipole
215
False
Besides low gain antennas, what is also used as driven elements in complicated higher gain types of antennas?
572fdefb947a6a140053cd8e
dipoles
455
False
How much gain does a half-wave dipole have?
572fdefb947a6a140053cd8f
2.15 dBi
405
False
The most widely used class of antenna, a dipole antenna consists of two symmetrical radiators such as metal rods or wires, with one side of the balanced feedline from the transmitter or receiver attached to each. A horizontal dipole radiates in two lobes perpendicular to the antenna's axis. A half-wave dipole the most common type, has two collinear elements each a quarter wavelength long and a gain of 2.15 dBi. Used individually as low gain antennas, dipoles are also used as driven elements in many more complicated higher gain types of antennas.
What must be true of the antenna and transmission medium for the repiprocity rule to apply ?
572fe7e6a23a5019007fcb1b
linear and reciprocal
131
False
What is called when the direction of the elctrical current does not make a difference to the current?
572fe7e6a23a5019007fcb1c
Reciprocal
154
False
What is one material that does not have this quality?
572fe7e6a23a5019007fcb1d
ferrite
529
False
How can the lack of this quality be used in an everyday way?
572fe7e6a23a5019007fcb1e
radar
680
False
A necessary condition for the aforementioned reciprocity property is that the materials in the antenna and transmission medium are linear and reciprocal. Reciprocal (or bilateral) means that the material has the same response to an electric current or magnetic field in one direction, as it has to the field or current in the opposite direction. Most materials used in antennas meet these conditions, but some microwave antennas use high-tech components such as isolators and circulators, made of nonreciprocal materials such as ferrite. These can be used to give the antenna a different behavior on receiving than it has on transmitting, which can be useful in applications like radar.
How could one deide what type of antenna is nedded for a project?
572fe81ab2c2fd14005685a9
performance measures
42
False
What would most likely be the main concern in making this decision?
572fe81ab2c2fd14005685aa
directional characteristics
199
False
How would you distribute power to allow for a greater gain?
572fe81ab2c2fd14005685ab
horizontal directions
432
False
What is often the most imprtant crediting factor of antennas?
572fe81ab2c2fd14005685ac
efficiency
591
False
Antennas are characterized by a number of performance measures which a user would be concerned with in selecting or designing an antenna for a particular application. Chief among these relate to the directional characteristics (as depicted in the antenna's radiation pattern) and the resulting gain. Even in omnidirectional (or weakly directional) antennas, the gain can often be increased by concentrating more of its power in the horizontal directions, sacrificing power radiated toward the sky and ground. The antenna's power gain (or simply "gain") also takes into account the antenna's efficiency, and is often the primary figure of merit.
Which antenna type would be best for a project requiring a specific frequency?
572fe85db2c2fd14005685b1
Resonant antennas
0
False
How could an antenna be made to coordinate with the needed frequency?
572fe85db2c2fd14005685b2
built or ordered
111
False
What factor would result in a desired feedback independence?
572fe85db2c2fd14005685b3
particular antenna design
188
False
If you were unable to choose the antenna you wanted how could you still achieve this result?
572fe85db2c2fd14005685b4
matching network
403
False
Resonant antennas are expected to be used around a particular resonant frequency; an antenna must therefore be built or ordered to match the frequency range of the intended application. A particular antenna design will present a particular feedpoint impedance. While this may affect the choice of an antenna, an antenna's impedance can also be adapted to the desired impedance level of a system using a matching network while maintaining the other characteristics (except for a possible loss of efficiency).
What is the essential difference in radio waves transmitted by an antenna?
572fe8da04bcaa1900d76e8b
polarization
64
False
How can this be adjusted more easily than changing antenna types?
572fe8da04bcaa1900d76e8c
tilting the axis
104
False
When might the size of an antenna cause an issue?
572fe8da04bcaa1900d76e8d
at lower frequencies
238
False
There is a relationship between the size of the antenna and the size of the wavelength with what antenna type?
572fe8da04bcaa1900d76e8e
Highly directional
281
False
What size antenna would not be good when the antenna needs to be directional?
572fe8da04bcaa1900d76e8f
small
609
False
An antenna transmits and receives radio waves with a particular polarization which can be reoriented by tilting the axis of the antenna in many (but not all) cases. The physical size of an antenna is often a practical issue, particularly at lower frequencies (longer wavelengths). Highly directional antennas need to be significantly larger than the wavelength. Resonant antennas usually use a linear conductor (or element), or pair of such elements, each of which is about a quarter of the wavelength in length (an odd multiple of quarter wavelengths will also be resonant). Antennas that are required to be small compared to the wavelength sacrifice efficiency and cannot be very directional. Fortunately at higher frequencies (UHF, microwaves) trading off performance to obtain a smaller physical size is usually not required.
What is the basis for the way most antennas are developed?
572fe936b2c2fd14005685bf
resonance principle
49
False
What particle's migration does the resonance principle rely on?
572fe936b2c2fd14005685c0
electrons
109
False
What type of surface is formed by the tip of a conductor?
572fe936b2c2fd14005685c1
reflective
287
False
How would you place the conductor in relation to the signal you wished to obtain?
572fe936b2c2fd14005685c2
perpendicular
590
False
The majority of antenna designs are based on the resonance principle. This relies on the behaviour of moving electrons, which reflect off surfaces where the dielectric constant changes, in a fashion similar to the way light reflects when optical properties change. In these designs, the reflective surface is created by the end of a conductor, normally a thin metal wire or rod, which in the simplest case has a feed point at one end where it is connected to a transmission line. The conductor, or element, is aligned with the electrical field of the desired signal, normally meaning it is perpendicular to the line from the antenna to the source (or receiver in the case of a broadcast antenna).
What part of the radio signal creates voltage?
572fe97ca23a5019007fcb23
electrical component
19
False
What would the electric current always gravitate to?
572fe97ca23a5019007fcb24
instantaneous field
160
False
What is the outcome when a curren is reflected>
572fe97ca23a5019007fcb25
180 degree change in phase
280
False
What amount of phase change would return a signal to its originial state?
572fe97ca23a5019007fcb26
360 degree
580
False
The radio signal's electrical component induces a voltage in the conductor. This causes an electrical current to begin flowing in the direction of the signal's instantaneous field. When the resulting current reaches the end of the conductor, it reflects, which is equivalent to a 180 degree change in phase. If the conductor is 1⁄4 of a wavelength long, current from the feed point will undergo 90 degree phase change by the time it reaches the end of the conductor, reflect through 180 degrees, and then another 90 degrees as it travels back. That means it has undergone a total 360 degree phase change, returning it to the original signal. The current in the element thus adds to the current being created from the source at that instant. This process creates a standing wave in the conductor, with the maximum current at the feed.
What is the most popular antenna type?
572fe9e4b2c2fd14005685c7
half-wave dipole
13
False
Elements in a half wave dipole and on an identical axis are said to be what?
572fe9e4b2c2fd14005685c8
collinear
191
False
What is the current usually beng put into it or pulled out of?
572fe9e4b2c2fd14005685c9
transmission line
432
False
What antenna type is a portion of the half wave dipole?
572fe9e4b2c2fd14005685ca
Monopoles
676
False
What popular type combines more that one antenna?
572fe9e4b2c2fd14005685cb
folded dipole
847
False
The ordinary half-wave dipole is probably the most widely used antenna design. This consists of two 1⁄4-wavelength elements arranged end-to-end, and lying along essentially the same axis (or collinear), each feeding one side of a two-conductor transmission wire. The physical arrangement of the two elements places them 180 degrees out of phase, which means that at any given instant one of the elements is driving current into the transmission line while the other is pulling it out. The monopole antenna is essentially one half of the half-wave dipole, a single 1⁄4-wavelength element with the other side connected to ground or an equivalent ground plane (or counterpoise). Monopoles, which are one-half the size of a dipole, are common for long-wavelength radio signals where a dipole would be impractically large. Another common design is the folded dipole, which is essentially two dipoles placed side-by-side and connected at their ends to make a single one-wavelength antenna.
What frequency are antennas normally designed to be?
572fea66b2c2fd14005685d1
f0
75
False
What can be added to f0 to create a standing wave pattern?
572fea66b2c2fd14005685d2
3f0
166
False
What multiple is essential for wavelengths?
572fea66b2c2fd14005685d3
1⁄4
370
False
How are waves which are used in the ways discussed controlled?
572fea66b2c2fd14005685d4
harmonically
518
False
The standing wave forms with this desired pattern at the design frequency, f0, and antennas are normally designed to be this size. However, feeding that element with 3f0 (whose wavelength is 1⁄3 that of f0) will also lead to a standing wave pattern. Thus, an antenna element is also resonant when its length is 3⁄4 of a wavelength. This is true for all odd multiples of 1⁄4 wavelength. This allows some flexibility of design in terms of antenna lengths and feed points. Antennas used in such a fashion are known to be harmonically operated.
How do quarter wave elements act in relation to a series relevant electrical element?
572feda5b2c2fd14005685ed
imitate
26
False
What frequency develops a current peak?
572feda5b2c2fd14005685ee
resonant frequency
132
False
How would you describe a current that has maximum efficiency?
572feda5b2c2fd14005685ef
minimum reactance
277
False
What could be the best possible output versus input ratio?
572feda5b2c2fd14005685f0
lossless
504
False
The quarter-wave elements imitate a series-resonant electrical element due to the standing wave present along the conductor. At the resonant frequency, the standing wave has a current peak and voltage node (minimum) at the feed. In electrical terms, this means the element has minimum reactance, generating the maximum current for minimum voltage. This is the ideal situation, because it produces the maximum output for the minimum input, producing the highest possible efficiency. Contrary to an ideal (lossless) series-resonant circuit, a finite resistance remains (corresponding to the relatively small voltage at the feed-point) due to the antenna's radiation resistance as well as any actual electrical losses.
What could be coupled with an antenna to form pure resistance?
572ff30304bcaa1900d76f12
inductance
178
False
What element would this pure resistance be coupled with?
572ff30304bcaa1900d76f13
transmission line
360
False
What phrase describes the process of purposely using a lower standing antenna at a less than peak frequency?
572ff30304bcaa1900d76f14
electrical lengthening
617
False
It is possible to use the impedance matching concepts to construct vertical antennas substantially shorter than the 1⁄4 wavelength at which the antenna is resonant. By adding an inductance in series with the antenna, a so-called loading coil, the capacitive reactance of this antenna can be cancelled leaving a pure resistance which can then be matched to the transmission line. Sometimes the resulting resonant frequency of such a system (antenna plus matching network) is described using the construct of electrical length and the use of a shorter antenna at a lower frequency than its resonant frequency is termed electrical lengthening.
If your were unable to match the source frequency with the design frequency of the antenna what could you use?
572ff31bb2c2fd140056863b
resonant multiples
213
False
What is the most common application of resonant antennas?
572ff31bb2c2fd140056863c
single target signal
331
False
What antenna setup type is generally used for TV viewing?
572ff31bb2c2fd140056863d
resonant
244
False
For use with more than one channel changes are made to increase what property?
572ff31bb2c2fd140056863e
bandwidth
702
False
The end result is that the resonant antenna will efficiently feed a signal into the transmission line only when the source signal's frequency is close to that of the design frequency of the antenna, or one of the resonant multiples. This makes resonant antenna designs inherently narrowband, and they are most commonly used with a single target signal. They are particularly common on radar systems, where the same antenna is used for both broadcast and reception, or for radio and television broadcasts, where the antenna is working with a single frequency. They are less commonly used for reception where multiple channels are present, in which case additional modifications are used to increase the bandwidth, or entirely different antenna designs are used.
What accounts for the geometry involved in the use of an antenna?
572ff545a23a5019007fcbb3
inverse square law
111
False
How is the compactness of the signal measured?
572ff545a23a5019007fcbb5
Watts per square metre
368
False
What type of project would call for more than one element used together?
572ff545a23a5019007fcbb6
higher performance
716
False
The amount of signal received from a distant transmission source is essentially geometric in nature due to the inverse square law, and this leads to the concept of effective area. This measures the performance of an antenna by comparing the amount of power it generates to the amount of power in the original signal, measured in terms of the signal's power density in Watts per square metre. A half-wave dipole has an effective area of 0.13 2. If more performance is needed, one cannot simply make the antenna larger. Although this would intercept more energy from the signal, due to the considerations above, it would decrease the output significantly due to it moving away from the resonant length. In roles where higher performance is needed, designers often use multiple elements combined together.
What is a half wave dipole need to be coupled with in most instances?
572ff659b2c2fd1400568661
feed point
130
False
What part of the current is usually strongest?
572ff659b2c2fd1400568662
center
338
False
What does this result in?
572ff659b2c2fd1400568663
standing wave pattern
411
False
Element used to provide support to the original signal are called?
572ff659b2c2fd1400568664
passive elements
883
False
Returning to the basic concept of current flows in a conductor, consider what happens if a half-wave dipole is not connected to a feed point, but instead shorted out. Electrically this forms a single 1⁄2-wavelength element. But the overall current pattern is the same; the current will be zero at the two ends, and reach a maximum in the center. Thus signals near the design frequency will continue to create a standing wave pattern. Any varying electrical current, like the standing wave in the element, will radiate a signal. In this case, aside from resistive losses in the element, the rebroadcast signal will be significantly similar to the original signal in both magnitude and shape. If this element is placed so its signal reaches the main dipole in-phase, it will reinforce the original signal, and increase the current in the dipole. Elements used in this way are known as passive elements.
What can take advantage of these elements to add more gain?
572ff739b2c2fd140056866f
Yagi-Uda array
2
False
Does this device improve the operation of the antenna?
572ff739b2c2fd1400568670
does not contribute
169
False
What is the name for passive elements nearer to the source of the signal?
572ff739b2c2fd1400568671
directors
404
False
Adding more elements to a Yagi-Uda would have what effect?
572ff739b2c2fd1400568672
increasingly directional
524
False
A Yagi-Uda array uses passive elements to greatly increase gain. It is built along a support boom that is pointed toward the signal, and thus sees no induced signal and does not contribute to the antenna's operation. The end closer to the source is referred to as the front. Near the rear is a single active element, typically a half-wave dipole or folded dipole. Passive elements are arranged in front (directors) and behind (reflectors) the active element along the boom. The Yagi has the inherent quality that it becomes increasingly directional, and thus has higher gain, as the number of elements increases. However, this also makes it increasingly sensitive to changes in frequency; if the signal frequency changes, not only does the active element receive less energy directly, but all of the passive elements adding to that signal also decrease their output as well and their signals no longer reach the active element in-phase.
What can be paired with transmission lines to create phases that would support output?
572ff872b2c2fd140056868b
active elements
36
False
What is the most common element used to create a single in phase signal?
572ff872b2c2fd140056868c
half-wave dipoles
275
False
What must be precise in order to create this signal at output?
572ff872b2c2fd140056868d
phase lengths
373
False
What is a more complicated occurrence of the single in-phase producing antenna?
572ff872b2c2fd140056868e
log-periodic
442
False
It is also possible to use multiple active elements and combine them together with transmission lines to produce a similar system where the phases add up to reinforce the output. The antenna array and very similar reflective array antenna consist of multiple elements, often half-wave dipoles, spaced out on a plane and wired together with transmission lines with specific phase lengths to produce a single in-phase signal at the output. The log-periodic antenna is a more complex design that uses multiple in-line elements similar in appearance to the Yagi-Uda but using transmission lines between the elements to produce the output.
If you wanted to somehow clone the original signal you could use?
572ff92704bcaa1900d76f8d
extended conductive surface
62
False
What effect would the use of a reflector have on a signal?
572ff92704bcaa1900d76f8e
increase
157
False
What allowance can be made for gaps without loss of performance?
572ff92704bcaa1900d76f8f
less than 1⁄10
396
False
What is the most recognized type of an antenna that has its basis in reflection?
572ff92704bcaa1900d76f90
parabolic reflector
603
False
Reflection of the original signal also occurs when it hits an extended conductive surface, in a fashion similar to a mirror. This effect can also be used to increase signal through the use of a reflector, normally placed behind the active element and spaced so the reflected signal reaches the element in-phase. Generally the reflector will remain highly reflective even if it is not solid; gaps less than 1⁄10 generally have little effect on the outcome. For this reason, reflectors often take the form of wire meshes or rows of passive elements, which makes them lighter and less subject to wind. The parabolic reflector is perhaps the best known example of a reflector-based antenna, which has an effective area far greater than the active element alone.
What magnifies the small radiation resistance of a loop?
572ffb1ba23a5019007fcbf3
a capacitor at the frequency of operation
230
False
What is used in most AM broadcaster receivers?
572ffb1ba23a5019007fcbf4
loop
371
False
What is resonated by a capacitor along with the receiver tuning that maintains resonance over the AM broadcast band?
572ffb1ba23a5019007fcbf5
small ferrite loop antenna
453
False
When using a small loop antenna at a low frequency, what may occur?
572ffb1ba23a5019007fcbf6
impedance matching
24
False
Another extreme case of impedance matching occurs when using a small loop antenna (usually, but not always, for receiving) at a relatively low frequency where it appears almost as a pure inductor. Resonating such an inductor with a capacitor at the frequency of operation not only cancels the reactance but greatly magnifies the very small radiation resistance of such a loop.[citation needed] This is implemented in most AM broadcast receivers, with a small ferrite loop antenna resonated by a capacitor which is varied along with the receiver tuning in order to maintain resonance over the AM broadcast band
Where does cancellation of any reactance seen?
573001d0b2c2fd1400568721
antenna terminals
77
False
What is left after antenna tuning?
573001d0b2c2fd1400568722
resistive impedance
111
False
What can be used to cancel a inductibe reactance or residual capacitative?
573001d0b2c2fd1400568723
parallel capacitance
586
False
What is an antenna designed to have?
573001d0b2c2fd1400568724
purely resistive feedpoint
268
False
Antenna tuning generally refers to cancellation of any reactance seen at the antenna terminals, leaving only a resistive impedance which might or might not be exactly the desired impedance (that of the transmission line). Although an antenna may be designed to have a purely resistive feedpoint impedance (such as a dipole 97% of a half wavelength long) this might not be exactly true at the frequency that it is eventually used at. In some cases the physical length of the antenna can be "trimmed" to obtain a pure resistance. On the other hand, the addition of a series inductance or parallel capacitance can be used to cancel a residual capacitative or inductive reactance, respectively.
What type of antenna has impedance at a specific frequency?
5730073c04bcaa1900d77037
resonant
11
False
What term can be used to refer to the usable spectrum of an antennas frequency?
5730073c04bcaa1900d77038
bandwidth
198
False
What causes the frequencies outside of the bandwidth to be unusable?
5730073c04bcaa1900d77039
impedance match
300
False
What is lessened by the Yagi-Uda design?
5730073c04bcaa1900d7703a
directivity
440
False
Although a resonant antenna has a purely resistive feed-point impedance at a particular frequency, many (if not most) applications require using an antenna over a range of frequencies. An antenna's bandwidth specifies the range of frequencies over which its performance does not suffer due to a poor impedance match. Also in the case of a Yagi-Uda array, the use of the antenna very far away from its design frequency reduces the antenna's directivity, thus reducing the usable bandwidth regardless of impedance matching.
What characteristic would be better if it were steady?
57300832a23a5019007fcc73
reactance
147
False
What characteristic of the conductor changes the amount of reactance?
57300832a23a5019007fcc74
diameter
269
False
What would be used to create a half wave or quarter wave dipole?
57300832a23a5019007fcc75
A long thin wire
301
False
Instead, it is often desired to have an antenna whose impedance does not vary so greatly over a certain bandwidth. It turns out that the amount of reactance seen at the terminals of a resonant antenna when the frequency is shifted, say, by 5%, depends very much on the diameter of the conductor used. A long thin wire used as a half-wave dipole (or quarter wave monopole) will have a reactance significantly greater than the resistive impedance it has at resonance, leading to a poor match and generally unacceptable performance. Making the element using a tube of a diameter perhaps 1/50 of its length, however, results in a reactance at this altered frequency which is not so great, and a much less serious mismatch which will only modestly damage the antenna's net performance. Thus rather thick tubes are typically used for the solid elements of such antennas, including Yagi-Uda arrays.
What type of tubes are generally used for sturdier always of antennas?
573008dba23a5019007fcc7b
cages
132
False
What effect do cages have on the spectrum of usable frequencies?
573008dba23a5019007fcc7c
widens
174
False
How could one achieve the task of creating an antenna that can be Used over various bands?
573008dba23a5019007fcc7d
connecting resonant elements
375
False
What is an essential for dealing with directing the flow of power?
573008dba23a5019007fcc7e
trap's
1104
False
Rather than just using a thick tube, there are similar techniques used to the same effect such as replacing thin wire elements with cages to simulate a thicker element. This widens the bandwidth of the resonance. On the other hand, amateur radio antennas need to operate over several bands which are widely separated from each other. This can often be accomplished simply by connecting resonant elements for the different bands in parallel. Most of the transmitter's power will flow into the resonant element while the others present a high (reactive) impedance and draw little current from the same voltage. A popular solution uses so-called traps consisting of parallel resonant circuits which are strategically placed in breaks along each antenna element. When used at one particular frequency band the trap presents a very high impedance (parallel resonance) effectively truncating the element at that length, making it a proper resonant antenna. At a lower frequency the trap allows the full length of the element to be employed, albeit with a shifted resonant frequency due to the inclusion of the trap's net reactance at that lower frequency.
What is an acknowledgement of the range of possible direction for and antenna?
57300a9f947a6a140053cfca
gain
104
False
What is another way to refer to an antennas gain?
57300a9f947a6a140053cfcb
power gain
254
False
What is the meaning of intensity?
57300a9f947a6a140053cfcc
power per unit surface area
321
False
What type of an antenna would offer the same level of power to each possible destination?
57300a9f947a6a140053cfcd
isotropic
515
False
Gain is a parameter which measures the degree of directivity of the antenna's radiation pattern. A high-gain antenna will radiate most of its power in a particular direction, while a low-gain antenna will radiate over a wider angle. The antenna gain, or power gain of an antenna is defined as the ratio of the intensity (power per unit surface area)  radiated by the antenna in the direction of its maximum output, at an arbitrary distance, divided by the intensity  radiated at the same distance by a hypothetical isotropic antenna which radiates equal power in all directions. This dimensionless ratio is usually expressed logarithmically in decibels, these units are called "decibels-isotropic" (dBi)
Antennas with higher gain have what positive feature?
57300b4ba23a5019007fccb5
longer range
41
False
Dish network Tv takes example of what type of antenna?
57300b4ba23a5019007fccb6
parabolic dish
170
False
What type of antenna would be best if placement was tricky?
57300b4ba23a5019007fccb7
Low-gain
225
False
What is a measure of how much efficient is improved by adding a device designed to make something stronger?
57300b4ba23a5019007fccb8
amplifier gain
465
False
High-gain antennas have the advantage of longer range and better signal quality, but must be aimed carefully at the other antenna. An example of a high-gain antenna is a parabolic dish such as a satellite television antenna. Low-gain antennas have shorter range, but the orientation of the antenna is relatively unimportant. An example of a low-gain antenna is the whip antenna found on portable radios and cordless phones. Antenna gain should not be confused with amplifier gain, a separate parameter measuring the increase in signal power due to an amplifying device.
What must the relationship of an antenna and the receiving area be due to reciprocity?
5730129f947a6a140053d040
proportional
90
False
what could an antenna with complete electrical efficiency be said to have?
5730129f947a6a140053d041
no loss
175
False
hat could an antenna with complete electrical efficiency be said to have?
5730129f947a6a140053d042
1
487
False
Another term for the effective area is?
5730129f947a6a140053d043
Aeff
520
False
Due to reciprocity (discussed above) the gain of an antenna used for transmitting must be proportional to its effective area when used for receiving. Consider an antenna with no loss, that is, one whose electrical efficiency is 100%. It can be shown that its effective area averaged over all directions must be equal to λ2/4π, the wavelength squared divided by 4π. Gain is defined such that the average gain over all directions for an antenna with 100% electrical efficiency is equal to 1. Therefore, the effective area Aeff in terms of the gain G in a given direction is given by:
A plot of the radiation behaviors of an antenna would show what?
57301377947a6a140053d05c
relative field strength
53
False
What type of pictoral aid is often used to show this?
57301377947a6a140053d05d
three-dimensional graph
173
False
A sphere shows what type of antennas radiation?
57301377947a6a140053d05e
isotropic
284
False
Dipoles are considered to be what antenna type?
57301377947a6a140053d05f
nondirectional
376
False
What would an omnidirectional antenna look like if plotted?
57301377947a6a140053d060
donut
616
False
The radiation pattern of an antenna is a plot of the relative field strength of the radio waves emitted by the antenna at different angles. It is typically represented by a three-dimensional graph, or polar plots of the horizontal and vertical cross sections. The pattern of an ideal isotropic antenna, which radiates equally in all directions, would look like a sphere. Many nondirectional antennas, such as monopoles and dipoles, emit equal power in all horizontal directions, with the power dropping off at higher and lower angles; this is called an omnidirectional pattern and when plotted looks like a torus or donut.
What is the term that refers to areas where an antennas radiation is zero?
573014c3a23a5019007fcd25
nulls
101
False
What do radio waves do that account for maxima or nulls in an antenna pattern?
573014c3a23a5019007fcd26
interfere
235
False
If you desired to project radio waves to the south, what part of the antenna would you build larger in that direction?
573014c3a23a5019007fcd27
lobe
494
False
What is the main distinction of side lobes?
573014c3a23a5019007fcd28
represent unwanted radiation
607
False
The radiation of many antennas shows a pattern of maxima or "lobes" at various angles, separated by "nulls", angles where the radiation falls to zero. This is because the radio waves emitted by different parts of the antenna typically interfere, causing maxima at angles where the radio waves arrive at distant points in phase, and zero radiation at other angles where the radio waves arrive out of phase. In a directional antenna designed to project radio waves in a particular direction, the lobe in that direction is designed larger than the others and is called the "main lobe". The other lobes usually represent unwanted radiation and are called "sidelobes". The axis through the main lobe is called the "principal axis" or "boresight axis".
What is one piece that makes up an antenna system?
5730159ca23a5019007fcd37
radio
87
False
What is created by a portion of a radio waves energy reversing?
5730159ca23a5019007fcd38
standing wave
317
False
A term that refers to the highs and lows of power in electro magnetic waves is?
5730159ca23a5019007fcd39
standing wave ratio
439
False
Impedance matching makes an important difference in what antenna function?
5730159ca23a5019007fcd3a
power transfer
785
False
As an electro-magnetic wave travels through the different parts of the antenna system (radio, feed line, antenna, free space) it may encounter differences in impedance (E/H, V/I, etc.). At each interface, depending on the impedance match, some fraction of the wave's energy will reflect back to the source, forming a standing wave in the feed line. The ratio of maximum power to minimum power in the wave can be measured and is called the standing wave ratio (SWR). A SWR of 1:1 is ideal. A SWR of 1.5:1 is considered to be marginally acceptable in low power applications where power loss is more critical, although an SWR as high as 6:1 may still be usable with the right equipment. Minimizing impedance differences at each interface (impedance matching) will reduce SWR and maximize power transfer through each part of the antenna system.
A measure of the power that is useable and the power absorbed by the terminals?
57301633a23a5019007fcd3f
Efficiency
0
False
What happens to the power that is not absorbed by the antenna?
57301633a23a5019007fcd40
heat
229
False
What can cause that reaction?
57301633a23a5019007fcd42
transmitter
494
False
Efficiency of a transmitting antenna is the ratio of power actually radiated (in all directions) to the power absorbed by the antenna terminals. The power supplied to the antenna terminals which is not radiated is converted into heat. This is usually through loss resistance in the antenna's conductors, but can also be due to dielectric or magnetic core losses in antennas (or antenna systems) using such components. Such loss effectively robs power from the transmitter, requiring a stronger transmitter in order to transmit a signal of a given strength.
What would need to be placed into the transmitter to create ten W oh warmth?
57301ce7b2c2fd14005688a3
100 W
40
False
What factor may play a hand in lessened power from a transmitter?
57301ce7b2c2fd14005688a4
impedance matching
336
False
What would need to be investigated to determine how much power was radiated?
57301ce7b2c2fd14005688a5
electrical measurements
699
False
For instance, if a transmitter delivers 100 W into an antenna having an efficiency of 80%, then the antenna will radiate 80 W as radio waves and produce 20 W of heat. In order to radiate 100 W of power, one would need to use a transmitter capable of supplying 125 W to the antenna. Note that antenna efficiency is a separate issue from impedance matching, which may also reduce the amount of power radiated using a given transmitter. If an SWR meter reads 150 W of incident power and 50 W of reflected power, that means that 100 W have actually been absorbed by the antenna (ignoring transmission line losses). How much of that power has actually been radiated cannot be directly determined through electrical measurements at (or before) the antenna terminals, but would require (for instance) careful measurement of field strength. Fortunately the loss resistance of antenna conductors such as aluminum rods can be calculated and the efficiency of an antenna using such materials predicted.
What can increase the feedpoint impedance of a component?
57301dc304bcaa1900d771b3
loss resistance
8
False
The addition of Rr and Rloss equals what?
57301dc304bcaa1900d771b4
resistance
118
False
What equation an determine an antennas effectiveness?
57301dc304bcaa1900d771b5
Rr / (Rr + Rloss)
415
False
What is the single factor that can be precisely measured?
57301dc304bcaa1900d771b6
total resistance
453
False
However loss resistance will generally affect the feedpoint impedance, adding to its resistive (real) component. That resistance will consist of the sum of the radiation resistance Rr and the loss resistance Rloss. If an rms current I is delivered to the terminals of an antenna, then a power of I2Rr will be radiated and a power of I2Rloss will be lost as heat. Therefore, the efficiency of an antenna is equal to Rr / (Rr + Rloss). Of course only the total resistance Rr + Rloss can be directly measured.
In what type of programs would low efficiency antennas not make a difference in effectiveness?
57301ea7947a6a140053d13a
receiving
65
False
At lesser frequencies what can account for incorrect assumptions about efficiency?
57301ea7947a6a140053d13b
man-made noise
397
False
What is the median level for measuring atmospheric noise?
57301ea7947a6a140053d13c
thermal noise floor
557
False
What is SNR?
57301ea7947a6a140053d13d
signal to noise ratio
824
False
According to reciprocity, the efficiency of an antenna used as a receiving antenna is identical to the efficiency as defined above. The power that an antenna will deliver to a receiver (with a proper impedance match) is reduced by the same amount. In some receiving applications, the very inefficient antennas may have little impact on performance. At low frequencies, for example, atmospheric or man-made noise can mask antenna inefficiency. For example, CCIR Rep. 258-3 indicates man-made noise in a residential setting at 40 MHz is about 28 dB above the thermal noise floor. Consequently, an antenna with a 20 dB loss (due to inefficiency) would have little impact on system noise performance. The loss within the antenna will affect the intended signal and the noise/interference identically, leading to no reduction in signal to noise ratio (SNR).
What else is also known as power gain?
573021e4a23a5019007fce0b
antenna gain
18
False
What is used to signal toward a reciever?
573021e4a23a5019007fce0c
transmitter
176
False
Which gain does not iclude the effect of an antenna?
573021e4a23a5019007fce0d
directive gain
811
False
Wats divided by the antennas efficiency?
573021e4a23a5019007fce0e
published gain
945
False
The definition of antenna gain or power gain already includes the effect of the antenna's efficiency. Therefore, if one is trying to radiate a signal toward a receiver using a transmitter of a given power, one need only compare the gain of various antennas rather than considering the efficiency as well. This is likewise true for a receiving antenna at very high (especially microwave) frequencies, where the point is to receive a signal which is strong compared to the receiver's noise temperature. However, in the case of a directional antenna used for receiving signals with the intention of rejecting interference from different directions, one is no longer concerned with the antenna efficiency, as discussed above. In this case, rather than quoting the antenna gain, one would be more concerned with the directive gain which does not include the effect of antenna (in)efficiency. The directive gain of an antenna can be computed from the published gain divided by the antenna's efficiency.
Small and minimal frequency antennas are know to be what?
57302439a23a5019007fce37
inefficient
139
False
What is added to to increase ability for reception?
57302439a23a5019007fce38
small loop antenna
310
False
How would this antenna rate in the greater scheme of things?
57302439a23a5019007fce39
little effect
463
False
When talking about much larger network what effect can reduced antenna effectiveness have?
57302439a23a5019007fce3a
substantial cost
794
False
This is fortunate, since antennas at lower frequencies which are not rather large (a good fraction of a wavelength in size) are inevitably inefficient (due to the small radiation resistance Rr of small antennas). Most AM broadcast radios (except for car radios) take advantage of this principle by including a small loop antenna for reception which has an extremely poor efficiency. Using such an inefficient antenna at this low frequency (530–1650 kHz) thus has little effect on the receiver's net performance, but simply requires greater amplification by the receiver's electronics. Contrast this tiny component to the massive and very tall towers used at AM broadcast stations for transmitting at the very same frequency, where every percentage point of reduced antenna efficiency entails a substantial cost.
What is another name for electric-field?
57302473947a6a140053d188
E-plane
80
False
How many polarizations will a antenna have when mounted vertically?
57302473947a6a140053d189
one
355
False
Whats understood in reference of direction of an E-plane?
57302473947a6a140053d18a
polarization
601
False
When is a magnetic fields right angles to a electrical field?
57302473947a6a140053d18b
transverse wave
458
False
The polarization of an antenna refers to the orientation of the electric field (E-plane) of the radio wave with respect to the Earth's surface and is determined by the physical structure of the antenna and by its orientation; note that this designation is totally distinct from the antenna's directionality. Thus, a simple straight wire antenna will have one polarization when mounted vertically, and a different polarization when mounted horizontally. As a transverse wave, the magnetic field of a radio wave is at right angles to that of the electric field, but by convention, talk of an antenna's "polarization" is understood to refer to the direction of the electric field.
What mostly affects polarization?
573026ab04bcaa1900d7724b
Reflections
0
False
What reflector can change the waves polarization?
573026ab04bcaa1900d7724c
ionosphere
91
False
What will you be matching with the  receiving antenna's polarization?
573026ab04bcaa1900d7724d
transmitter
522
False
What stays the same regarding polarization state at the recieving location?
573026ab04bcaa1900d7724e
polarized transmissions
356
False
What is the name used for signals recieved following reflection by the ionosphere?
573026ab04bcaa1900d7724f
a skywave
210
False
Reflections generally affect polarization. For radio waves, one important reflector is the ionosphere which can change the wave's polarization. Thus for signals received following reflection by the ionosphere (a skywave), a consistent polarization cannot be expected. For line-of-sight communications or ground wave propagation, horizontally or vertically polarized transmissions generally remain in about the same polarization state at the receiving location. Matching the receiving antenna's polarization to that of the transmitter can make a very substantial difference in received signal strength.
Whats predictable about an antenna's geometry?
573028d604bcaa1900d7727f
Polarization
0
False
What is a more complicated type of polarization from an antenna's geometry?
573028d604bcaa1900d77280
quad antenna
121
False
The polarization of what antenna is essential specification?
573028d604bcaa1900d77281
commercial antenna
829
False
Most rooftop antenna's are polarized in which direction?
573028d604bcaa1900d77282
horizontal
593
False
Polarization is predictable from an antenna's geometry, although in some cases it is not at all obvious (such as for the quad antenna). An antenna's linear polarization is generally along the direction (as viewed from the receiving location) of the antenna's currents when such a direction can be defined. For instance, a vertical whip antenna or Wi-Fi antenna vertically oriented will transmit and receive in the vertical polarization. Antennas with horizontal elements, such as most rooftop TV antennas in the United States, are horizontally polarized (broadcast TV in the U.S. usually uses horizontal polarization). Even when the antenna system has a vertical orientation, such as an array of horizontal dipole antennas, the polarization is in the horizontal direction corresponding to the current flow. The polarization of a commercial antenna is an essential specification.
What are electrical fields projected on to?
57302c9aa23a5019007fcefd
imaginary plane
80
False
What is the imagenary plane perpindicular to?
57302c9aa23a5019007fcefe
radio wave
144
False
What is the name to describe polarization of radio waves varies over times?
57302c9aa23a5019007fceff
elliptical
198
False
How many directions does the E-plane of the radio waves oscillates back and forth?
57302c9aa23a5019007fcf00
one direction
551
False
Polarization is the sum of the E-plane orientations over time projected onto an imaginary plane perpendicular to the direction of motion of the radio wave. In the most general case, polarization is elliptical, meaning that the polarization of the radio waves varies over time. Two special cases are linear polarization (the ellipse collapses into a line) as we have discussed above, and circular polarization (in which the two axes of the ellipse are equal). In linear polarization the electric field of the radio wave oscillates back and forth along one direction; this can be affected by the mounting of the antenna but usually the desired direction is either horizontal or vertical polarization. In circular polarization, the electric field (and magnetic field) of the radio wave rotates at the radio frequency circularly around the axis of propagation. Circular or elliptically polarized radio waves are designated as right-handed or left-handed using the "thumb in the direction of the propagation" rule. Note that for circular polarization, optical researchers use the opposite right hand rule from the one used by radio engineers.
What is the best for an recieving antenna for optimum reception?
57302ef4b2c2fd1400568a13
match the polarization
40
False
What loses signal strength?
57302ef4b2c2fd1400568a14
Intermediate matchings
110
False
What is used to match vertical and horizontal linear polarizations?
57302ef4b2c2fd1400568a15
circularly polarized
207
False
A transmission can cause reduction in what?
57302ef4b2c2fd1400568a16
signal-to-noise ratio
449
False
It is best for the receiving antenna to match the polarization of the transmitted wave for optimum reception. Intermediate matchings will lose some signal strength, but not as much as a complete mismatch. A circularly polarized antenna can be used to equally well match vertical or horizontal linear polarizations. Transmission from a circularly polarized antenna received by a linearly polarized antenna (or vice versa) entails a 3 dB reduction in signal-to-noise ratio as the received power has thereby been cut in half.
What requires matching of the empedance to an antenna system?
57303157b2c2fd1400568a37
Maximum power transfer
0
False
What is the desired design value for transmmiting circuitry?
57303157b2c2fd1400568a38
50 ohms
410
False
Why would a transmitter have additional adjustments?
57303157b2c2fd1400568a39
"tweak" the match
660
False
What is SWR?
57303157b2c2fd1400568a3a
standing wave ratio
930
False
Maximum power transfer requires matching the impedance of an antenna system (as seen looking into the transmission line) to the complex conjugate of the impedance of the receiver or transmitter. In the case of a transmitter, however, the desired matching impedance might not correspond to the dynamic output impedance of the transmitter as analyzed as a source impedance but rather the design value (typically 50 ohms) required for efficient and safe operation of the transmitting circuitry. The intended impedance is normally resistive but a transmitter (and some receivers) may have additional adjustments to cancel a certain amount of reactance in order to "tweak" the match. When a transmission line is used in between the antenna and the transmitter (or receiver) one generally would like an antenna system whose impedance is resistive and near the characteristic impedance of that transmission line in order to minimize the standing wave ratio (SWR) and the increase in transmission line losses it entails, in addition to supplying a good match at the transmitter or receiver itself.
What can be shorter than 1/4 wavelength long?
573031aa04bcaa1900d77333
whip antenna
243
False
What is the opposite of inductive reactance?
573031aa04bcaa1900d77334
capacitative reactance
505
False
What is at the base of the antenna?
573031aa04bcaa1900d77335
loading coil
377
False
Where is the resistance seen on the loading foil?
573031aa04bcaa1900d77336
feedpoint
637
False
In some cases this is done in a more extreme manner, not simply to cancel a small amount of residual reactance, but to resonate an antenna whose resonance frequency is quite different from the intended frequency of operation. For instance, a "whip antenna" can be made significantly shorter than 1/4 wavelength long, for practical reasons, and then resonated using a so-called loading coil. This physically large inductor at the base of the antenna has an inductive reactance which is the opposite of the capacitative reactance that such a vertical antenna has at the desired operating frequency. The result is a pure resistance seen at feedpoint of the loading coil; unfortunately that resistance is somewhat lower than would be desired to match commercial coax.[citation needed]
What is not adjustable when it comes to a transformer?
5730340d04bcaa1900d77361
turns ratio
241
False
A general matching network needs a minimum of how many adjustments to correct all components of impedance?
5730340d04bcaa1900d77362
two adjustments
330
False
How many ohms are in are in a standard coax?
5730340d04bcaa1900d77363
50 or 75
746
False
What is included between the transmission line and the antenna element?
5730340d04bcaa1900d77364
balun
839
False
A balun should be integrated into what?
5730340d04bcaa1900d77365
matching network
937
False
So an additional problem beyond canceling the unwanted reactance is of matching the remaining resistive impedance to the characteristic impedance of the transmission line. In principle this can always be done with a transformer, however the turns ratio of a transformer is not adjustable. A general matching network with at least two adjustments can be made to correct both components of impedance. Matching networks using discrete inductors and capacitors will have losses associated with those components, and will have power restrictions when used for transmitting. Avoiding these difficulties, commercial antennas are generally designed with fixed matching elements or feeding strategies to get an approximate match to standard coax, such as 50 or 75 Ohms. Antennas based on the dipole (rather than vertical antennas) should include a balun in between the transmission line and antenna element, which may be integrated into any such matching network.
What antenna's are nonresonant?
573036c4947a6a140053d2b2
traveling wave antennas
27
False
How long are the wire antenna's that the voltage and current waves travel in the same direction?
573036c4947a6a140053d2b3
one direction
222
False
What antenna does not have linear polarization?
573036c4947a6a140053d2b4
helical antenna
366
False
What are undirectional traveling wave directions terminated by?
573036c4947a6a140053d2b5
resistor
443
False
What is the resistor equal to?
573036c4947a6a140053d2b6
antenna's characteristic resistance
476
False
Unlike the above antennas, traveling wave antennas are nonresonant so they have inherently broad bandwidth. They are typically wire antennas multiple wavelengths long, through which the voltage and current waves travel in one direction, instead of bouncing back and forth to form standing waves as in resonant antennas. They have linear polarization (except for the helical antenna). Unidirectional traveling wave antennas are terminated by a resistor at one end equal to the antenna's characteristic resistance, to absorb the waves from one direction. This makes them inefficient as transmitting antennas.
What is the radiation patter influenced by?
5730380804bcaa1900d7739f
dielectric constant
98
False
The ground is important for what antenna?
5730380804bcaa1900d773a0
terrestrial antenna
171
False
Whats another name for the ground?
5730380804bcaa1900d773a1
artificial ground plane
461
False
What does the artificial ground plane do for the antenna current?
5730380804bcaa1900d773a2
return connection
500
False
The radiation pattern and even the driving point impedance of an antenna can be influenced by the dielectric constant and especially conductivity of nearby objects. For a terrestrial antenna, the ground is usually one such object of importance. The antenna's height above the ground, as well as the electrical properties (permittivity and conductivity) of the ground, can then be important. Also, in the particular case of a monopole antenna, the ground (or an artificial ground plane) serves as the return connection for the antenna current thus having an additional effect, particularly on the impedance seen by the feed line.
What is the net quality of the ground dependent of?
57303cc6947a6a140053d2f4
topography
54
False
What is the reason for the receiver seeing both the ral antenna and image of the antenna?
57303cc6947a6a140053d2f5
reflection
299
False
What frequencies is associated with shorter wavelengths?
57303cc6947a6a140053d2f6
higher frequencies
475
False
When will reflections not be coherent?
57303cc6947a6a140053d2f7
ground has irregularities
322
False
The net quality of a ground reflection depends on the topography of the surface. When the irregularities of the surface are much smaller than the wavelength, we are in the regime of specular reflection, and the receiver sees both the real antenna and an image of the antenna under the ground due to reflection. But if the ground has irregularities not small compared to the wavelength, reflections will not be coherent but shifted by random phases. With shorter wavelengths (higher frequencies), this is generally the case.
What is the refractive index of the ground?
57303df4a23a5019007fcfe3
n=2
158
False
What is the refractive index of air?
57303df4a23a5019007fcfe4
n=1
180
False
When is polarized radiation reversed?
57303df4a23a5019007fcfe5
reflection
249
False
Besides a ground, what has these phases apply well to?
57303df4a23a5019007fcfe6
electrical conductor
500
False
The phase of reflection of electromagnetic waves depends on the polarization of the incident wave. Given the larger refractive index of the ground (typically n=2) compared to air (n=1), the phase of horizontally polarized radiation is reversed upon reflection (a phase shift of  radians or 180°). On the other hand, the vertical component of the wave's electric field is reflected at grazing angles of incidence approximately in phase. These phase shifts apply as well to a ground modelled as a good electrical conductor.
what is reflected and transmitted into the ground when a plane surface is struck?
57303f5eb2c2fd1400568ae9
electromagnetic wave
8
False
Who proposed this theory?
57303f5eb2c2fd1400568aea
Fresnel coefficients
167
False
Is the ground has a great conductor, how much of the wave will be reflected?
57303f5eb2c2fd1400568aeb
180° out of phase
270
False
What depends on the polarization and waves angle?
57303f5eb2c2fd1400568aec
power remaining
390
False
When an electromagnetic wave strikes a plane surface such as the ground, part of the wave is transmitted into the ground and part of it is reflected, according to the Fresnel coefficients. If the ground is a very good conductor then almost all of the wave is reflected (180° out of phase), whereas a ground modeled as a (lossy) dielectric can absorb a large amount of the wave's power. The power remaining in the reflected wave, and the phase shift upon reflection, strongly depend on the wave's angle of incidence and polarization. The dielectric constant and conductivity (or simply the complex dielectric constant) is dependent on the soil type and is a function of frequency.
What is the portion of something that is reached by the radio transmission called?
5730404a947a6a140053d32a
aperture
32
False
What is a measure of the power of an antenna?
5730404a947a6a140053d32b
microvolts
437
False
What effects the function of signals received by an antenna?
5730404a947a6a140053d32c
direction
599
False
How much power will be delivered to the reciever if the antenna has an effective area of 12 m/2?
5730404a947a6a140053d32d
12 pW of RF power
399
False
The effective area or effective aperture of a receiving antenna expresses the portion of the power of a passing electromagnetic wave which it delivers to its terminals, expressed in terms of an equivalent area. For instance, if a radio wave passing a given location has a flux of 1 pW / m2 (10−12 watts per square meter) and an antenna has an effective area of 12 m2, then the antenna would deliver 12 pW of RF power to the receiver (30 microvolts rms at 75 ohms). Since the receiving antenna is not equally sensitive to signals received from all directions, the effective area is a function of the direction to the source.
The properties of a usable radio frequency can be called its?
5730409004bcaa1900d77415
Q
98
False
What is a measure of the comparison between reactance and resistance?
5730409004bcaa1900d77416
Q
664
False
What is the largest Q that could be achieved with a slimmer band antenna?
5730409004bcaa1900d77417
15
980
False
What type of element would be used to encounter less reactance?
5730409004bcaa1900d77418
thick
1005
False
The bandwidth characteristics of a resonant antenna element can be characterized according to its Q, just as one uses to characterize the sharpness of an L-C resonant circuit. However it is often assumed that there is an advantage in an antenna having a high Q. After all, Q is short for "quality factor" and a low Q typically signifies excessive loss (due to unwanted resistance) in a resonant L-C circuit. However this understanding does not apply to resonant antennas where the resistance involved is the radiation resistance, a desired quantity which removes energy from the resonant element in order to radiate it (the purpose of an antenna, after all!). The Q is a measure of the ratio of reactance to resistance, so with a fixed radiation resistance (an element's radiation resistance is almost independent of its diameter) a greater reactance off-resonance corresponds to the poorer bandwidth of a very thin conductor. The Q of such a narrowband antenna can be as high as 15. On the other hand, a thick element presents less reactance at an off-resonant frequency, and consequently a Q as low as 5. These two antennas will perform equivalently at the resonant frequency, but the second antenna will perform over a bandwidth 3 times as wide as the "hi-Q" antenna consisting of a thin conductor.
What can be added to allow for an antenna shorter than the needed height to produce desired results?
573041e3947a6a140053d360
loading coil
188
False
How would the resistive impedance from this scenario compare to if the antenna was the proper height?
573041e3947a6a140053d361
lower
382
False
The coil has lengthed the antenna to reach how much length electrically?
573041e3947a6a140053d362
2.5 meters
298
False
What is the major thing that sets the size of antennas at lower frequencies?
573041e3947a6a140053d363
reactance
525
False
For example, at 30 MHz (10 m wavelength) a true resonant 1⁄4-wavelength monopole would be almost 2.5 meters long, and using an antenna only 1.5 meters tall would require the addition of a loading coil. Then it may be said that the coil has lengthened the antenna to achieve an electrical length of 2.5 meters. However, the resulting resistive impedance achieved will be quite a bit lower than the impedance of a resonant monopole, likely requiring further impedance matching. In addition to a lower radiation resistance, the reactance becomes higher as the antenna size is reduced, and the resonant circuit formed by the antenna and the tuning coil has a Q factor that rises and eventually causes the bandwidth of the antenna to be inadequate for the signal being transmitted. This is the major factor that sets the size of antennas at 1 MHz and lower frequencies.
How big would an antenna be used to with with one m wavelengths?
573042dfb2c2fd1400568b15
50 cm
117
False
How could the rection of output be adressed by?
573042dfb2c2fd1400568b16
changing the matching system
971
False
What unit is used to measure current?
573042dfb2c2fd1400568b17
ampere
387
False
What effect occurs when the signal is reflected back into the antenna?
573042dfb2c2fd1400568b18
reducing output
927
False
Consider a half-wave dipole designed to work with signals 1 m wavelength, meaning the antenna would be approximately 50 cm across. If the element has a length-to-diameter ratio of 1000, it will have an inherent resistance of about 63 ohms. Using the appropriate transmission wire or balun, we match that resistance to ensure minimum signal loss. Feeding that antenna with a current of 1 ampere will require 63 volts of RF, and the antenna will radiate 63 watts (ignoring losses) of radio frequency power. Now consider the case when the antenna is fed a signal with a wavelength of 1.25 m; in this case the reflected current would arrive at the feed out-of-phase with the signal, causing the net current to drop while the voltage remains the same. Electrically this appears to be a very high impedance. The antenna and transmission line no longer have the same impedance, and the signal will be reflected back into the antenna, reducing output. This could be addressed by changing the matching system between the antenna and transmission line, but that solution only works well at the new design frequency.
What sort of changes in material would a current reflect?
5730435ab2c2fd1400568b1d
electrical
65
False
What must match between the transmission line and elements?
5730435ab2c2fd1400568b1e
impedance
447
False
What technique is used to prevent unintentional decrease in signal?
5730435ab2c2fd1400568b1f
Impedance matching
513
False
How is this process usually used for transmission lines and antennas?
5730435ab2c2fd1400568b20
balun
613
False
Recall that a current will reflect when there are changes in the electrical properties of the material. In order to efficiently send the signal into the transmission line, it is important that the transmission line has the same impedance as the elements, otherwise some of the signal will be reflected back into the antenna. This leads to the concept of impedance matching, the design of the overall system of antenna and transmission line so the impedance is as close as possible, thereby reducing these losses. Impedance matching between antennas and transmission lines is commonly handled through the use of a balun, although other solutions are also used in certain roles. An important measure of this basic concept is the standing wave ratio, which measures the magnitude of the reflected signal.
What is used to allow one to control the function of wave fronts moving through an antenna?
573044d5a23a5019007fd031
selectively delay
124
False
What changes the structuak traits of a wave on either side?
573044d5a23a5019007fd032
refractor
24
False
What is the main purpose of a refractor?
573044d5a23a5019007fd033
spatial characteristics
240
False
A refractor can be compared to what type of viewing?
573044d5a23a5019007fd034
optical lens
508
False
An electromagnetic wave refractor in some aperture antennas is a component which due to its shape and position functions to selectively delay or advance portions of the electromagnetic wavefront passing through it. The refractor alters the spatial characteristics of the wave on one side relative to the other side. It can, for instance, bring the wave to a focus or alter the wave front in other ways, generally in order to maximize the directivity of the antenna system. This is the radio equivalent of an optical lens.
What can receive a stron signal by transmitting an original wave?
57304708a23a5019007fd057
actual antenna
4
False
Where will the additional current be induced?
57304708a23a5019007fd058
antenna element
179
False
What is altered because of the proximity to the ground?
57304708a23a5019007fd059
antenna's impedance
274
False
what happens to the reflected wave which allows the antenna to reach its asympotic feedpoint impedance?
57304708a23a5019007fd05a
reduced power
549
False
The actual antenna which is transmitting the original wave then also may receive a strong signal from its own image from the ground. This will induce an additional current in the antenna element, changing the current at the feedpoint for a given feedpoint voltage. Thus the antenna's impedance, given by the ratio of feedpoint voltage to current, is altered due to the antenna's proximity to the ground. This can be quite a significant effect when the antenna is within a wavelength or two of the ground. But as the antenna height is increased, the reduced power of the reflected wave (due to the inverse square law) allows the antenna to approach its asymptotic feedpoint impedance given by theory. At lower heights, the effect on the antenna's impedance is very sensitive to the exact distance from the ground, as this affects the phase of the reflected wave relative to the currents in the antenna. Changing the antenna's height by a quarter wavelength, then changes the phase of the reflection by 180°, with a completely different effect on the antenna's impedance.
What is between recieving and transmitting antenna's?
57304a52069b531400831fef
horizontal propagation
4
False
When is the emission at maximized recieved signal?
57304a52069b531400831ff0
polarized vertically
265
False
Where is the radiation patterns in the vertical plane shown?
57304a52069b531400831ff1
image at right
537
False
What is also increased along with the antenna's height?
57304a52069b531400831ff2
lobes
962
False
For horizontal propagation between transmitting and receiving antennas situated near the ground reasonably far from each other, the distances traveled by tne direct and reflected rays are nearly the same. There is almost no relative phase shift. If the emission is polarized vertically, the two fields (direct and reflected) add and there is maximum of received signal. If the signal is polarized horizontally, the two signals subtract and the received signal is largely cancelled. The vertical plane radiation patterns are shown in the image at right. With vertical polarization there is always a maximum for θ=0, horizontal propagation (left pattern). For horizontal polarization, there is cancellation at that angle. Note that the above formulae and these plots assume the ground as a perfect conductor. These plots of the radiation pattern correspond to a distance between the antenna and its image of 2.5λ. As the antenna height is increased, the number of lobes increases as well.
What is another name for classical television transmissions?
57304bf5069b531400832013
analog
30
False
Buildings can create ghost images because of what?
57304bf5069b531400832014
multipath propagation
201
False
When is ghosting reduced?
57304bf5069b531400832015
horizontal polarization
230
False
What cause less problems in digital terrestrial television?
57304bf5069b531400832016
Vertically polarized analog television
472
False
On the other hand, classical (analog) television transmissions are usually horizontally polarized, because in urban areas buildings can reflect the electromagnetic waves and create ghost images due to multipath propagation. Using horizontal polarization, ghosting is reduced because the amount of reflection of electromagnetic waves in the p polarization (horizontal polarization off the side of a building) is generally less than s (vertical, in this case) polarization. Vertically polarized analog television has nevertheless been used in some rural areas. In digital terrestrial television such reflections are less problematic, due to robustness of binary transmissions and error correction.
Where are the indiviual array elements known?
57304eac8ab72b1400f9c41c
antenna arrays
208
False
What induces a feedpoint to antennas nearby?
57304eac8ab72b1400f9c41d
Current circulating
0
False
What are the mathmatic useful towards?
57304eac8ab72b1400f9c41e
electrical behaviour
184
False
What cause mutual interactions between the elements electric and magnetic fields?
57304eac8ab72b1400f9c41f
proximity
566
False
Current circulating in one antenna generally induces a voltage across the feedpoint of nearby antennas or antenna elements. The mathematics presented below are useful in analyzing the electrical behaviour of antenna arrays, where the properties of the individual array elements (such as half wave dipoles) are already known. If those elements were widely separated and driven in a certain amplitude and phase, then each would act independently as that element is known to. However, because of the mutual interaction between their electric and magnetic fields due to proximity, the currents in each element are not simply a function of the applied voltage (according to its driving point impedance), but depend on the currents in the other nearby elements. Note that this now is a near field phenomenon which could not be properly accounted for using the Friis transmission equation for instance.
a antenna element not connected to anything is circuited how?
573051562461fd1900a9cd1d
open circuited
97
False
When is the element not allowed voltage?
573051562461fd1900a9cd1e
short circuited
158
False
What element absorbs and reradiate RF-energy?
573051562461fd1900a9cd1f
Parasitic
442
False
What antenna can the solid rod be viewed as a dipole antenna?
573051562461fd1900a9cd20
Yagi-Uda
341
False
Where can this solid rod be viewed?
573051562461fd1900a9cd21
feedpoint
431
False
This is a consequence of Lorentz reciprocity. For an antenna element  not connected to anything (open circuited) one can write . But for an element  which is short circuited, a current is generated across that short but no voltage is allowed, so the corresponding . This is the case, for instance, with the so-called parasitic elements of a Yagi-Uda antenna where the solid rod can be viewed as a dipole antenna shorted across its feedpoint. Parasitic elements are unpowered elements that absorb and reradiate RF energy according to the induced current calculated using such a system of equations.
What type of programmin relies on vertical polarization?
57306bf68ab72b1400f9c4da
broadcasting
80
False
If you were to position your receiver closer to the ground what might be a negative of this placement?
57306bf68ab72b1400f9c4db
cancellation
236
False
What is one use that would require an antenna to receive signals in various ways at once?
57306bf68ab72b1400f9c4dc
mobile phones
427
False
If you were to develop a signal to be used with mobile phones what would be an effective antenna type?
57306bf68ab72b1400f9c4dd
circular polarization.
582
False
What would the antenna you are using take advantage of to allow it to work in multiple locations?
57306bf68ab72b1400f9c4de
mixed polarization
472
False
The difference in the above factors for the case of θ=0 is the reason that most broadcasting (transmissions intended for the public) uses vertical polarization. For receivers near the ground, horizontally polarized transmissions suffer cancellation. For best reception the receiving antennas for these signals are likewise vertically polarized. In some applications where the receiving antenna must work in any position, as in mobile phones, the base station antennas use mixed polarization, such as linear polarization at an angle (with both vertical and horizontal components) or circular polarization.
What type of antenna can be formed by a circular segment of wire?
57306d712461fd1900a9ce0b
Loop antennas
0
False
What is a loop antenna compared with to determine its beahvior?
57306d712461fd1900a9ce0c
circumference of a wavelength
60
False
If you needed to place an antenna somewhere with a large amount of interference, which type would be best?
57306d712461fd1900a9ce0d
loops small
142
False
Why would this type be good for receiving but not transmtting?
57306d712461fd1900a9ce0e
low radiation resistance
389
False
What else would be an effective application of this antenna type?
57306d712461fd1900a9ce0f
direction finding
524
False
Loop antennas consist of a loop or coil of wire. Loops with circumference of a wavelength or larger act similarly to dipole antennas. However loops small in comparison to a wavelength act differently. They interact with the magnetic field of the radio wave instead of the electric field as other antennas do, and so are relatively insensitive to nearby electrical noise. However they have low radiation resistance, and so are inefficient for transmitting. They are used as receiving antennas at low frequencies, and also as direction finding antennas.
Are essential properties of an antenna changed based on what fungtion they are performing
57306e47069b5314008320cf
the same
218
False
What proposition explains the equivalency of the recieving pattern of an antenna?
57306e47069b5314008320d0
reciprocity theorem of electromagnetics
522
False
Can the antenna serve more than one fungtion at a time?
57306e47069b5314008320d1
either transmitting or receiving
723
False
What is one electrical trait of an antenna?
57306e47069b5314008320d2
radiation pattern
136
False
It is a fundamental property of antennas that the electrical characteristics of an antenna described in the next section, such as gain, radiation pattern, impedance, bandwidth, resonant frequency and polarization, are the same whether the antenna is transmitting or receiving. For example, the "receiving pattern" (sensitivity as a function of direction) of an antenna when used for reception is identical to the radiation pattern of the antenna when it is driven and functions as a radiator. This is a consequence of the reciprocity theorem of electromagnetics. Therefore, in discussions of antenna properties no distinction is usually made between receiving and transmitting terminology, and the antenna can be viewed as either transmitting or receiving, whichever is more convenient.
Flowering_plant
What are the most diverse group of land plants?
572ef96cdfa6aa1500f8d50d
angiosperms
22
False
How many species of flowering plants are there about?
572ef96cdfa6aa1500f8d50e
350,000
135
False
What do angiosperms have in common with gymnosperms?
572ef96cdfa6aa1500f8d50f
seed-producing plants
186
False
What does an angiosperm produce its seeds within?
572ef96cdfa6aa1500f8d510
an enclosure
436
False
What is the Greek word for "case" or "casing"?
572ef96cdfa6aa1500f8d511
angeion
543
False
the Greek composite word (angeion-, "case" or "casing", and sperma, "seed") meaning "enclosed seeds"
517
Where does the term gymnosperm originate?
5a3abfc23ff257001ab8424b
True
The flowering plants
0
What are gymnosperms known as?
5a3abfc23ff257001ab8424c
True
seed-producing plants
186
What do angeion have in common with angiosperms?
5a3abfc23ff257001ab8424d
True
by characteristics including flowers, endosperm within the seeds, and the production of fruits that contain the seeds
249
How is production of fruits distinguished from a fruiting plant?
5a3abfc23ff257001ab8424e
True
a plant that produces seeds within an enclosure
401
What does gymnosperm mean etymologically?
5a3abfc23ff257001ab8424f
True
The flowering plants (angiosperms), also known as Angiospermae or Magnoliophyta, are the most diverse group of land plants, with about 350,000 species. Like gymnosperms, angiosperms are seed-producing plants; they are distinguished from gymnosperms by characteristics including flowers, endosperm within the seeds, and the production of fruits that contain the seeds. Etymologically, angiosperm means a plant that produces seeds within an enclosure, in other words, a fruiting plant. The term "angiosperm" comes from the Greek composite word (angeion-, "case" or "casing", and sperma, "seed") meaning "enclosed seeds", after the enclosed condition of the seeds.
How long have higher plants lived on land?
572efadd03f9891900756b09
at least 475 million years
83
False
How did early plants reproduce sexually?
572efadd03f9891900756b0a
with flagellated, swimming sperm
149
False
Upright meisporangia allowed what to be dispersed to new habitats?
572efadd03f9891900756b0b
spores
327
False
What are the nearest algal relatives existing today?
572efadd03f9891900756b0c
Charophycean green algae
432
False
What is the common name for Selaginella?
572efadd03f9891900756b0d
the spike-moss
836
False
flowers
1039
What do the first green algae not produce?
5a3ac45b3ff257001ab8425f
True
a pair of flagellated, mobile sperm cells
1103
What does the pollen of spike-moss produce for reproduction?
5a3ac45b3ff257001ab84260
True
"swim" down the developing pollen tube
1150
What does the pollen of spike-moss do to reach the female?
5a3ac45b3ff257001ab84261
True
Fossilized spores
0
What suggests that confiers have lived on land for 475 million years?
5a3ac45b3ff257001ab84262
True
upright meiosporangia
288
What did Charophycean green algae develop to disperse by spores into new habitats?
5a3ac45b3ff257001ab84263
True
Fossilized spores suggest that higher plants (embryophytes) have lived on land for at least 475 million years. Early land plants reproduced sexually with flagellated, swimming sperm, like the green algae from which they evolved. An adaptation to terrestrialization was the development of upright meiosporangia for dispersal by spores to new habitats. This feature is lacking in the descendants of their nearest algal relatives, the Charophycean green algae. A later terrestrial adaptation took place with retention of the delicate, avascular sexual stage, the gametophyte, within the tissues of the vascular sporophyte. This occurred by spore germination within sporangia rather than spore release, as in non-seed plants. A current example of how this might have happened can be seen in the precocious spore germination in Selaginella, the spike-moss. The result for the ancestors of angiosperms was enclosing them in a case, the seed. The first seed bearing plants, like the ginkgo, and conifers (such as pines and firs), did not produce flowers. The pollen grains (males) of Ginkgo and cycads produce a pair of flagellated, mobile sperm cells that "swim" down the developing pollen tube to the female and her eggs.
What did Charles Darwin call the sudden appearance of nearly modern flowers in the fossil record?
572efb9cc246551400ce4820
abominable mystery
161
False
What type of fossil is the recently discovered Archaefructus?
572efb9cc246551400ce4821
angiosperm
300
False
What fossil evidence is lacking when it comes to flowers?
572efb9cc246551400ce4822
evidence showing exactly how flowers evolved
636
False
From what period does fossilized pollen suggest an older date for angiosperm origin?
572efb9cc246551400ce4823
Middle Triassic
978
False
What relationship proposed on the basis of morphological evidence has recently been disputed?
572efb9cc246551400ce4824
relationship between angiosperms and gnetophytes
1060
False
an "abominable mystery"
157
What was ancestors of angiosperms suddenly appearing called by Charles Darwin?
5a3ac9553ff257001ab84271
True
the ancestors of flowering plants
567
What have several groups of Archaefructus been proposed to be?
5a3ac9553ff257001ab84272
True
continuous fossil evidence
618
What is missing to show how ancestors of angiosperms diverged from an unknown group?
5a3ac9553ff257001ab84273
True
on the basis of molecular evidence
1191
Why has the relationship between gnetophytes and gymnosperms been disputed?
5a3ac9553ff257001ab84274
True
angiosperm
300
What type of fossil is the recently discovered Sanmiguelia?
5a3ac9553ff257001ab84275
True
The apparently sudden appearance of nearly modern flowers in the fossil record initially posed such a problem for the theory of evolution that it was called an "abominable mystery" by Charles Darwin. However, the fossil record has considerably grown since the time of Darwin, and recently discovered angiosperm fossils such as Archaefructus, along with further discoveries of fossil gymnosperms, suggest how angiosperm characteristics may have been acquired in a series of steps. Several groups of extinct gymnosperms, in particular seed ferns, have been proposed as the ancestors of flowering plants, but there is no continuous fossil evidence showing exactly how flowers evolved. Some older fossils, such as the upper Triassic Sanmiguelia, have been suggested. Based on current evidence, some propose that the ancestors of the angiosperms diverged from an unknown group of gymnosperms in the Triassic period (245–202 million years ago). Fossil angiosperm-like pollen from the Middle Triassic (247.2–242.0 Ma) suggests an older date for their origin. A close relationship between angiosperms and gnetophytes, proposed on the basis of morphological evidence, has more recently been disputed on the basis of molecular evidence that suggest gnetophytes are instead more closely related to other gymnosperms.[citation needed]
How many distinct rounds of genome duplication events are suspected in the evolution of seed plants?
572efc3503f9891900756b13
two
79
False
When did the first whole genome duplication event occur?
572efc3503f9891900756b14
319 million years ago
153
False
What type of event perhaps created the line which led to modern flowering plants?
572efc3503f9891900756b15
whole genome duplication
219
False
How are duplication events studied?
572efc3503f9891900756b16
by sequencing the genome of an ancient flowering plant
374
False
Who coined the term "abominable mystery"?
572efc3503f9891900756b17
Darwin
475
False
two distinct rounds of whole genome duplication events
79
What appears to be the cause of duplicaton of seed plants?
5a3acb0f3ff257001ab8428b
True
319 million years ago
153
When did Darwin's "abominable mystery first appear?
5a3acb0f3ff257001ab8428c
True
160 million years ago
253
When was the ancient plant used in the study dated to?
5a3acb0f3ff257001ab8428d
True
sequencing the genome
377
How are modern plants studied?
5a3acb0f3ff257001ab8428e
True
Darwin
475
Who coined the term duplication event?
5a3acb0f3ff257001ab8428f
True
The evolution of seed plants and later angiosperms appears to be the result of two distinct rounds of whole genome duplication events. These occurred at 319 million years ago and 192 million years ago. Another possible whole genome duplication event at 160 million years ago perhaps created the ancestral line that led to all modern flowering plants. That event was studied by sequencing the genome of an ancient flowering plant, Amborella trichopoda, and directly addresses Darwin's "abominable mystery."
When is the earliest known macrofossil identified as an angiosperm dated?
572f1c4203f9891900756b99
about 125 million years BP
113
False
What is the earliest known angiosperm?
572f1c4203f9891900756b9a
Archaefructus liaoningensis
72
False
What pushes the age of angiosperm 5 million years further back?
572f1c4203f9891900756b9b
pollen
173
False
How long ago has circumstantial evidence has been found for the existence of angiosperms?
572f1c4203f9891900756b9c
250 million years ago
580
False
What group of now extinct seed plants had many of the traits of what are now flowering plants?
572f1c4203f9891900756b9d
Gigantopterids
759
False
a type of ginkgo
388
What is Oleanne, the earliest macrofossil, traditionally considered to be?
5a3acff23ff257001ab84295
True
circumstantial chemical evidence
487
What evidence has shown that flowering plants existed 125 million years BP?
5a3acff23ff257001ab84296
True
Oleanane
603
What has been found in ginko deposits of that age with gigantopterid fossils?
5a3acff23ff257001ab84297
True
flowering plants
851
What do Oleanne share morphological traits with?
5a3acff23ff257001ab84298
True
Gigantopterids
759
What are not known to have Permian deposits themselves?
5a3acff23ff257001ab84299
True
The earliest known macrofossil confidently identified as an angiosperm, Archaefructus liaoningensis, is dated to about 125 million years BP (the Cretaceous period), whereas pollen considered to be of angiosperm origin takes the fossil record back to about 130 million years BP. However, one study has suggested that the early-middle Jurassic plant Schmeissneria, traditionally considered a type of ginkgo, may be the earliest known angiosperm, or at least a close relative. In addition, circumstantial chemical evidence has been found for the existence of angiosperms as early as 250 million years ago. Oleanane, a secondary metabolite produced by many flowering plants, has been found in Permian deposits of that age together with fossils of gigantopterids. Gigantopterids are a group of extinct seed plants that share many morphological traits with flowering plants, although they are not known to have been flowering plants themselves.
When does a great diversity of angiosperms appear in the fossil record?
572f3442b2c2fd1400567f81
approximately 100 million years ago
132
False
What is the appearance of a large amount of angiosperms in the fossil record known as?
572f3442b2c2fd1400567f82
great angiosperm radiation,
4
False
When did the division of the eight main groups of angiosperms occur?
572f3442b2c2fd1400567f83
40 million years ago
390
False
What were the angiosperms up to by the late Cretaceous?
572f3442b2c2fd1400567f84
dominated environments
463
False
Beech and maple had already appeared by what period?
572f3442b2c2fd1400567f85
Cretaceous
919
False
in the mid-Cretaceous (approximately 100 million years ago)
109
When does a diversity of magnoliids appear in the fossil record?
5a3ad3d43ff257001ab8429f
True
great angiosperm radiation
4
What is the appearance of ferns in the fossil record called?
5a3ad3d43ff257001ab842a0
True
environments formerly occupied by ferns and cycadophytes
473
By the end of the Tertiary, what did angiosperms dominate?
5a3ad3d43ff257001ab842a1
True
close to the end of the Cretaceous 66 million years ago
607
When did eudicots replace conifers as dominant trees?
5a3ad3d43ff257001ab842a2
True
by the late Cretaceous
907
When had eight main groups of Chloranthaceae recognizable as belonging to modern families appear?
5a3ad3d43ff257001ab842a3
True
The great angiosperm radiation, when a great diversity of angiosperms appears in the fossil record, occurred in the mid-Cretaceous (approximately 100 million years ago). However, a study in 2007 estimated that the division of the five most recent (the genus Ceratophyllum, the family Chloranthaceae, the eudicots, the magnoliids, and the monocots) of the eight main groups occurred around 140 million years ago. By the late Cretaceous, angiosperms appear to have dominated environments formerly occupied by ferns and cycadophytes, but large canopy-forming trees replaced conifers as the dominant trees only close to the end of the Cretaceous 66 million years ago or even later, at the beginning of the Tertiary. The radiation of herbaceous angiosperms occurred much later. Yet, many fossil plants recognizable as belonging to modern families (including beech, oak, maple, and magnolia) had already appeared by the late Cretaceous.
What is one proposed explanation for the instant appearance of flowering plants?
572f376004bcaa1900d76789
Island genetics
0
False
What is island genetics thought to be a default source of?
572f376004bcaa1900d7678a
speciation
167
False
What did radical adaptations seem to have required?
572f376004bcaa1900d7678b
inferior transitional forms
265
False
How did an isolated setting like an island help flowering plants evolve?
572f376004bcaa1900d7678c
highly specialized relationship with some specific animal
436
False
What are bees descended from?
572f376004bcaa1900d7678d
wasps
903
False
wasps
903
What are transitional forms descended from?
5a3ad5f03ff257001ab842a9
True
Island genetics
0
What is an explanation for the sudden appearance of fig wasps?
5a3ad5f03ff257001ab842aa
True
the development of a high degree of specialization
654
What does a relationship between bees and wasps result in?
5a3ad5f03ff257001ab842ab
True
speciation
167
What is carrying pollen thought to be a common source of?
5a3ad5f03ff257001ab842ac
True
a highly specialized relationship with some specific animal
434
How did flowering plants help transitional forms evolve?
5a3ad5f03ff257001ab842ad
True
Island genetics provides one proposed explanation for the sudden, fully developed appearance of flowering plants. Island genetics is believed to be a common source of speciation in general, especially when it comes to radical adaptations that seem to have required inferior transitional forms. Flowering plants may have evolved in an isolated setting like an island or island chain, where the plants bearing them were able to develop a highly specialized relationship with some specific animal (a wasp, for example). Such a relationship, with a hypothetical wasp carrying pollen from one plant to another much the way fig wasps do today, could result in the development of a high degree of specialization in both the plant(s) and their partners. Note that the wasp example is not incidental; bees, which, it is postulated, evolved specifically due to mutualistic plant relationships, are descended from wasps.
What are animals also a part of?
572f39d804bcaa1900d7679d
distribution of seeds
33
False
What did the enlargement of flower parts evolve to form?
572f39d804bcaa1900d7679e
Fruit
56
False
What does a plant get out of forming fruit?
572f39d804bcaa1900d7679f
seed-dispersal
131
False
What are many mutualistic relationships, thus failing to survive competition?
572f39d804bcaa1900d767a0
fragile
324
False
What turned out to be unusually effective for plants to reproduce?
572f39d804bcaa1900d767a1
flowering
377
False
means of reproduction
423
What did competition prove to be effective at doing?
5a3ad7933ff257001ab842b3
True
the dominant form of land plant life
488
What did mutualistic relationships spread to eventually become?
5a3ad7933ff257001ab842b4
True
seed-dispersal
131
How does a plant benefit from competition?
5a3ad7933ff257001ab842b5
True
flowering
377
What reproductive method spread widely but made plants fragile?
5a3ad7933ff257001ab842b6
True
Fruit
56
What did accidentally scattering seeds help flower parts evolve to form?
5a3ad7933ff257001ab842b7
True
Animals are also involved in the distribution of seeds. Fruit, which is formed by the enlargement of flower parts, is frequently a seed-dispersal tool that attracts animals to eat or otherwise disturb it, incidentally scattering the seeds it contains (see frugivory). Although many such mutualistic relationships remain too fragile to survive competition and to spread widely, flowering proved to be an unusually effective means of reproduction, spreading (whatever its origin) to become the dominant form of land plant life.
What uses a combination of genes to form new shoots?
572f3c9604bcaa1900d767a7
Flower ontogeny
0
False
What were plant parts like in their primitive days?
572f3c9604bcaa1900d767a8
separate from (but in contact with) each other
170
False
How did flowers become bixsexual?
572f3c9604bcaa1900d767a9
grow in a spiral pattern
240
False
What did some plant parts do as they evolved?
572f3c9604bcaa1900d767aa
fused together
452
False
What is a term for a plant with a specific sex per flower?
572f3c9604bcaa1900d767ab
"ovary-inferior"
576
False
flowers
222
What was dominated by the male parts?
5a3ad94f3ff257001ab842bd
True
in a spiral pattern
245
How did flowers tend to grow when they were male dominant?
5a3ad94f3ff257001ab842be
True
fused together
452
What did some plant parts do when the flower had only male parts?
5a3ad94f3ff257001ab842bf
True
"ovary-inferior"
576
During flower ontogeny, what was a plant of a specific sex called?
5a3ad94f3ff257001ab842c0
True
a combination of genes
21
What do ovary inferior plants use to form new shoots?
5a3ad94f3ff257001ab842c1
True
Flower ontogeny uses a combination of genes normally responsible for forming new shoots. The most primitive flowers probably had a variable number of flower parts, often separate from (but in contact with) each other. The flowers tended to grow in a spiral pattern, to be bisexual (in plants, this means both male and female parts on the same flower), and to be dominated by the ovary (female part). As flowers evolved, some variations developed parts fused together, with a much more specific number and design, and with either specific sexes per flower or plant or at least "ovary-inferior".
How long has flower evolution occurred?
572f3e7d04bcaa1900d767bb
present day
34
False
Humans have effected some flowers so much they can no longer do what in nature?
572f3e7d04bcaa1900d767bc
pollinated
135
False
What heritage do many modern domesticated flower species have?
572f3e7d04bcaa1900d767bd
formerly simple weeds
202
False
Why did weeds grow with human crops?
572f3e7d04bcaa1900d767be
symbiotic companion plant relationships
345
False
What feature helped flowers not get plucked?
572f3e7d04bcaa1900d767bf
prettiest
404
False
cannot be pollinated in nature
125
What has happened to weeds due to human influence?
5a3ade493ff257001ab842c7
True
to the present day
27
How long has weed evolution occurred?
5a3ade493ff257001ab842c8
True
domesticated flower species
169
What was the origin of many simple weeds?
5a3ade493ff257001ab842c9
True
human affection
514
What have weeds developed a dependence on?
5a3ade493ff257001ab842ca
True
their beauty
445
What characteristic caused crops not to be harvested?
5a3ade493ff257001ab842cb
True
Flower evolution continues to the present day; modern flowers have been so profoundly influenced by humans that some of them cannot be pollinated in nature. Many modern domesticated flower species were formerly simple weeds, which sprouted only when the ground was disturbed. Some of them tended to grow with human crops, perhaps already having symbiotic companion plant relationships with them, and the prettiest did not get plucked because of their beauty, developing a dependence upon and special adaptation to human affection.
What three groups were the first to diverge from angiosperm?
572f4374947a6a140053c832
Amborellales, Nymphaeales, and Austrobaileyales
170
False
What term refers to the first three groups to diverge from angiosperm?
572f4374947a6a140053c833
basal
228
False
How clear is the relationship between the broadest of the three non-basal angiosperm groups?
572f4374947a6a140053c834
unclear
397
False
What group do some analyses seem to indicate diverged first?
572f4374947a6a140053c835
magnoliids
429
False
Amborellales, Nymphaeales, and Austrobaileyales
170
What were the first three groups to diverge from magnoliids?
5a3ae0193ff257001ab842d1
True
the eudicots
517
What do Amborellales tend to group with instead of monocots?
5a3ae0193ff257001ab842d2
True
not yet clear
53
What is the status of the relationship between Nymphaeales and monocots?
5a3ae0193ff257001ab842d3
True
agreement
86
What attitude is there about the first magnoliids diverging from the ancestral angiosperm?
5a3ae0193ff257001ab842d4
True
magnoliids
429
What do some eudicots indicate diverged first?
5a3ae0193ff257001ab842d5
True
The exact relationship between these eight groups is not yet clear, although there is agreement that the first three groups to diverge from the ancestral angiosperm were Amborellales, Nymphaeales, and Austrobaileyales. The term basal angiosperms refers to these three groups. Among the rest, the relationship between the three broadest of these groups (magnoliids, monocots, and eudicots) remains unclear. Some analyses make the magnoliids the first to diverge, others the monocots. Ceratophyllum seems to group with the eudicots rather than with the monocots.
What term did Paul Hermann come up with in 1690?
572f4440947a6a140053c83a
Angiosperm
20
False
What did Hermann use the term angiosperm a primary division of in the plant kingdom?
572f4440947a6a140053c83b
primary
197
False
Who restricted the application of the angiosperm term?
572f4440947a6a140053c83c
Carl Linnaeus
526
False
What did Robert Brown establish the existence of in Cycadeae and Coniferae?
572f4440947a6a140053c83d
naked ovules
777
False
What is the group-name angiosperm has been used for by botanical writers?
572f4440947a6a140053c83e
other dicotyledonous plants
1103
False
Paul Hermann
149
Who coined the term dicotyledonous?
5a3ae50f3ff257001ab84303
True
in 1690
162
In what year was the term dicotyledonous created?
5a3ae50f3ff257001ab84304
True
as the name of one of his primary divisions of the plant kingdom
171
Why did Robert Brown use the term dicotyledonous?
5a3ae50f3ff257001ab84305
True
with the same sense, but with restricted application, in the names of the orders of his class Didynamia
540
How was the term angeion maintained by Robert Brown?
5a3ae50f3ff257001ab84306
True
established the existence of truly naked ovules in the Cycadeae and Coniferae, and applied to them the name Gymnosperms
742
In 1690 what happened to the term angeion as used by Robert Brown?
5a3ae50f3ff257001ab84307
True
The botanical term "Angiosperm", from the Ancient Greek αγγείον, angeíon (bottle, vessel) and σπέρμα, (seed), was coined in the form Angiospermae by Paul Hermann in 1690, as the name of one of his primary divisions of the plant kingdom. This included flowering plants possessing seeds enclosed in capsules, distinguished from his Gymnospermae, or flowering plants with achenial or schizo-carpic fruits, the whole fruit or each of its pieces being here regarded as a seed and naked. The term and its antonym were maintained by Carl Linnaeus with the same sense, but with restricted application, in the names of the orders of his class Didynamia. Its use with any approach to its modern scope became possible only after 1827, when Robert Brown established the existence of truly naked ovules in the Cycadeae and Coniferae, and applied to them the name Gymnosperms.[citation needed] From that time onward, as long as these Gymnosperms were, as was usual, reckoned as dicotyledonous flowering plants, the term Angiosperm was used antithetically by botanical writers, with varying scope, as a group-name for other dicotyledonous plants.
In taxonomies, what type of group are flowering plants treated?
572f44e8b2c2fd1400567fb3
coherent
58
False
What does anthophyta mean?
572f44e8b2c2fd1400567fb4
flowering plants
163
False
What do the Wettstein and Engler systems use at the assigned rank of subdivision?
572f44e8b2c2fd1400567fb5
Angiospermae
295
False
How does the APG system of 1998, with its 2003 and 2009 revisions, treat flowering plants?
572f44e8b2c2fd1400567fb6
a clade called angiosperms
907
False
What formal subclass classification were flowering plants given in 2009?
572f44e8b2c2fd1400567fb7
Magnoliidae
1090
False
any rank
229
What are coherent groups not linked to?
5a3aed493ff257001ab84329
True
Angiospermae
295
What do Anthophyta and Magnoliophytina use as the assigned rank of subdivision?
5a3aed493ff257001ab8432a
True
as a clade called angiosperms without a formal botanical name
904
How does the APG system of 1996 treat flowering plants?
5a3aed493ff257001ab8432b
True
a formal classification
976
What taxonomy was published alongside the 2003 revision?
5a3aed493ff257001ab8432c
True
("flowering plants")
161
What does Magnoliophytina mean?
5a3aed493ff257001ab8432d
True
In most taxonomies, the flowering plants are treated as a coherent group. The most popular descriptive name has been Angiospermae (Angiosperms), with Anthophyta ("flowering plants") a second choice. These names are not linked to any rank. The Wettstein system and the Engler system use the name Angiospermae, at the assigned rank of subdivision. The Reveal system treated flowering plants as subdivision Magnoliophytina (Frohne & U. Jensen ex Reveal, Phytologia 79: 70 1996), but later split it to Magnoliopsida, Liliopsida, and Rosopsida. The Takhtajan system and Cronquist system treat this group at the rank of division, leading to the name Magnoliophyta (from the family name Magnoliaceae). The Dahlgren system and Thorne system (1992) treat this group at the rank of class, leading to the name Magnoliopsida. The APG system of 1998, and the later 2003 and 2009 revisions, treat the flowering plants as a clade called angiosperms without a formal botanical name. However, a formal classification was published alongside the 2009 revision in which the flowering plants form the Subclass Magnoliidae.
What internal component has undergone considerable revision?
572f45a004bcaa1900d76805
classification
13
False
What system did Arthur Cronquist put forth in 1968, but not publish in full form until 1981?
572f45a004bcaa1900d76806
The Cronquist system
79
False
What consensus is the AGP trying to reach?
572f45a004bcaa1900d76807
how the flowering plants should be arranged
276
False
Who published an influential reclassification of the angiosperms in 1998?
572f45a004bcaa1900d76808
APG
401
False
The Cronquist system
79
What classification system was published by APG II in 1968?
5a3aee583ff257001ab84333
True
in 1981
169
When was the APG II system published fully?
5a3aee583ff257001ab84334
True
no longer believed to accurately reflect phylogeny
206
What is no longer believed about the APG system?
5a3aee583ff257001ab84335
True
about how the flowering plants should be arranged
270
What consensus has emerged through the work of Arthur Cronquist?
5a3aee583ff257001ab84336
True
an influential reclassification of the angiosperms
423
What did Arthur Cronquist publish about angiosperms in 1998?
5a3aee583ff257001ab84337
True
The internal classification of this group has undergone considerable revision. The Cronquist system, proposed by Arthur Cronquist in 1968 and published in its full form in 1981, is still widely used but is no longer believed to accurately reflect phylogeny. A consensus about how the flowering plants should be arranged has recently begun to emerge through the work of the Angiosperm Phylogeny Group (APG), which published an influential reclassification of the angiosperms in 1998. Updates incorporating more recent research were published as APG II in 2003 and as APG III in 2009.
What type of groups do monocots form, based on a recent APG studies?
572f46d8947a6a140053c852
monophyletic
61
False
Eudicots or tricolpates are part of a monophyletic group formed by what species?
572f46d8947a6a140053c853
dicot
170
False
What third major clade can many dicot species be found in?
572f46d8947a6a140053c854
magnoliids
330
False
How many species dicot species are magnoliids?
572f46d8947a6a140053c855
about 9,000
353
False
Basal angiosperms are what type of grouping of primitive species?
572f46d8947a6a140053c856
paraphyletic
393
False
about 9,000
353
How many species of Chloranthaceae are eudicots?
5a3af15f3ff257001ab84347
True
monocots form a monophyletic group (clade) but that the dicots do not (they are paraphyletic).
45
What do studies by the monophyletic group show?
5a3af15f3ff257001ab84348
True
a monophyletic group, called the eudicots or tricolpates
192
What do a majority of monocot Ceratophyllaceae species form?
5a3af15f3ff257001ab84349
True
a third major clade
297
What do the remaining monocot species belong to?
5a3af15f3ff257001ab8434a
True
the magnoliids
326
What is the group known as that remainig monocot species belong to?
5a3af15f3ff257001ab8434b
True
Recent studies, as by the APG, show that the monocots form a monophyletic group (clade) but that the dicots do not (they are paraphyletic). Nevertheless, the majority of dicot species do form a monophyletic group, called the eudicots or tricolpates. Of the remaining dicot species, most belong to a third major clade known as the magnoliids, containing about 9,000 species. The rest include a paraphyletic grouping of primitive species known collectively as the basal angiosperms, plus the families Ceratophyllaceae and Chloranthaceae.
What is the estimated range for the number of flowering plants?
572f473f947a6a140053c85c
250,000 to 400,000
77
False
How many species of moss is there?
572f473f947a6a140053c85d
12,000
121
False
What does the large number of flowering plant species indicate is true of them in general?
572f473f947a6a140053c85e
diverse
228
False
What are the minimum number of families in the APG system?
572f473f947a6a140053c85f
402
455
False
How many families are in AGP III?
572f473f947a6a140053c860
415
488
False
much more diverse
218
How is moss seen more than families in the system?
5a3af3163ff257001ab8435b
True
diverse
228
What is true about families more than moss or pteridophytes?
5a3af3163ff257001ab8435c
True
462
278
How many flowering plants are in APG in 1998?
5a3af3163ff257001ab8435d
True
402
455
What are the minimum number of species of moss in the APG system?
5a3af3163ff257001ab8435e
True
415
488
In APG III how many species of flowering plants are there?
5a3af3163ff257001ab8435f
True
The number of species of flowering plants is estimated to be in the range of 250,000 to 400,000. This compares to around 12,000 species of moss or 11,000 species of pteridophytes, showing that the flowering plants are much more diverse. The number of families in APG (1998) was 462. In APG II (2003) it is not settled; at maximum it is 457, but within this number there are 55 optional segregates, so that the minimum number of families in this system is 402. In APG III (2009) there are 415 families.
What shape are the bundles in the young stem of dicotyledons arranged in?
572f47e7b2c2fd1400567fd1
an open ring
72
False
What does the cambium separate?
572f47e7b2c2fd1400567fd2
xylem and phloem
165
False
What is a layer of meristem or formative tissue known as?
572f47e7b2c2fd1400567fd3
cambium
242
False
What results from the development of xylem on the inside and phloem on the outside?
572f47e7b2c2fd1400567fd4
increase in thickness
389
False
What's another name for the concentric rings in trees?
572f47e7b2c2fd1400567fd5
annual rings
827
False
a complete ring
337
What is formed  when a layer of dicotyledons is formed between the bundles?
5a3af49f3ff257001ab8436d
True
the development of xylem on the inside and phloem on the outside
424
What causes a regular increase in young stems?
5a3af49f3ff257001ab8436e
True
the hard wood persists and forms the bulk of the stem and branches of the woody perennial
527
What happens when the annual rings are crushed?
5a3af49f3ff257001ab8436f
True
into concentric rings
766
How is soft phloem marked for each growth season?
5a3af49f3ff257001ab84370
True
in an open ring
69
How are bundles in young stems arranged in branches?
5a3af49f3ff257001ab84371
True
In the dicotyledons, the bundles in the very young stem are arranged in an open ring, separating a central pith from an outer cortex. In each bundle, separating the xylem and phloem, is a layer of meristem or active formative tissue known as cambium. By the formation of a layer of cambium between the bundles (interfascicular cambium), a complete ring is formed, and a regular periodical increase in thickness results from the development of xylem on the inside and phloem on the outside. The soft phloem becomes crushed, but the hard wood persists and forms the bulk of the stem and branches of the woody perennial. Owing to differences in the character of the elements produced at the beginning and end of the season, the wood is marked out in transverse section into concentric rings, one for each season of growth, called annual rings.
What is the defining feature of angiosperms?
572f49a2b2c2fd1400567fdb
flower
49
False
What characteristic flowers show variation in?
572f49a2b2c2fd1400567fdc
form and elaboration
94
False
What do flowers provide the best external feature for doing?
572f49a2b2c2fd1400567fdd
establishing relationships among angiosperm species
178
False
What is it the function of the flower to ensure fertilization of?
572f49a2b2c2fd1400567fde
the ovule
288
False
What is the name of a branch system?
572f49a2b2c2fd1400567fdf
inflorescence
744
False
the flower
45
What is a main feature of vegatative portion of a plant?
5a3af68c3ff257001ab84377
True
an inflorescence
741
What does the foliage-bearing part of the plant form to bear flowers?
5a3af68c3ff257001ab84378
True
remarkable variation in form and elaboration
70
What are some things that an elaborate branch system shows?
5a3af68c3ff257001ab84379
True
the most trustworthy external characteristics
128
What does fruit with seeds provide to establish relationships among species?
5a3af68c3ff257001ab8437a
True
to ensure fertilization of the ovule and development of fruit containing seeds
261
What is the function of the petiole?
5a3af68c3ff257001ab8437b
True
The characteristic feature of angiosperms is the flower. Flowers show remarkable variation in form and elaboration, and provide the most trustworthy external characteristics for establishing relationships among angiosperm species. The function of the flower is to ensure fertilization of the ovule and development of fruit containing seeds. The floral apparatus may arise terminally on a shoot or from the axil of a leaf (where the petiole attaches to the stem). Occasionally, as in violets, a flower arises singly in the axil of an ordinary foliage-leaf. More typically, the flower-bearing portion of the plant is sharply distinguished from the foliage-bearing or vegetative portion, and forms a more or less elaborate branch-system called an inflorescence.
What is a willow's flower comprised of?
572f4a5fb2c2fd1400567fe5
only a few stamens or two carpels
86
False
What have some structures evolved to protect?
572f4a5fb2c2fd1400567fe6
the sporophylls
180
False
Individual members of enveloping structures are known by what terms?
572f4a5fb2c2fd1400567fe7
sepals and petals
315
False
What appearance are calyx of sepals typically?
572f4a5fb2c2fd1400567fe8
green and leaf-like
484
False
The features of flowers which attract pollinators also attract what other creature?
572f4a5fb2c2fd1400567fe9
humans
953
False
an envelope
208
What do sporophylls form that is attractive to pollinators?
5a3afa3c3ff257001ab84381
True
Magnolia
363
In what flower are stamens and sporophylls not able to be distinguished from each other?
5a3afa3c3ff257001ab84382
True
the rest of the flower, especially the bud
530
What do corolla of petals function to protect?
5a3afa3c3ff257001ab84383
True
in general, white or brightly colored
615
What color is the more delicate willow?
5a3afa3c3ff257001ab84384
True
color, scent, and nectar
767
What characteristics of the flower attract sporophylls?
5a3afa3c3ff257001ab84385
True
The flower may consist only of these parts, as in willow, where each flower comprises only a few stamens or two carpels. Usually, other structures are present and serve to protect the sporophylls and to form an envelope attractive to pollinators. The individual members of these surrounding structures are known as sepals and petals (or tepals in flowers such as Magnolia where sepals and petals are not distinguishable from each other). The outer series (calyx of sepals) is usually green and leaf-like, and functions to protect the rest of the flower, especially the bud. The inner series (corolla of petals) is, in general, white or brightly colored, and is more delicate in structure. It functions to attract insect or bird pollinators. Attraction is effected by color, scent, and nectar, which may be secreted in some part of the flower. The characteristics that attract pollinators account for the popularity of flowers and flowering plants among humans.
What sexual feature do a majority of flowers demonstrate?
572f4f1ba23a5019007fc50d
hermaphrodite
45
False
Why did flowering plants develop numerous morphological and physiological mechanisms?
572f4f1ba23a5019007fc50e
reduce or prevent self-fertilization
223
False
Why are a heteromorphic flower's carpels and stamens different lengths?
572f4f1ba23a5019007fc50f
so animal pollinators cannot easily transfer pollen to the pistil
335
False
What type of mechanism might homomorphic flowers use to tell the difference between foreign and self pollen grains?
572f4f1ba23a5019007fc510
biochemical
466
False
How are some male and female parts separated for some species?
572f4f1ba23a5019007fc511
different flowers
678
False
hermaphrodite
45
What feature do a majority of biochemical mechanisms have?
5a3b04c43ff257001ab84393
True
a biochemical (physiological) mechanism called self-incompatibility
464
What do hermaphrodite flowers use to discriminate between self and non-self pollination?
5a3b04c43ff257001ab84394
True
morphologically separated
637
What happens to male and female parts of carpels that are hermaphrodites?
5a3b04c43ff257001ab84395
True
to reduce or prevent self-fertilization
220
Why did long stamens develop numerous morphological and physiological mechanisms?
5a3b04c43ff257001ab84396
True
short carpels and long stamens
288
What do homomorphic flowers have to make it harder to be pollinated by animals?
5a3b04c43ff257001ab84397
True
While the majority of flowers are perfect or hermaphrodite (having both pollen and ovule producing parts in the same flower structure), flowering plants have developed numerous morphological and physiological mechanisms to reduce or prevent self-fertilization. Heteromorphic flowers have short carpels and long stamens, or vice versa, so animal pollinators cannot easily transfer pollen to the pistil (receptive part of the carpel). Homomorphic flowers may employ a biochemical (physiological) mechanism called self-incompatibility to discriminate between self and non-self pollen grains. In other species, the male and female parts are morphologically separated, developing on different flowers.
What process does double fertilization refer to?
572f50f8b2c2fd140056800b
two sperm cells fertilize cells in the ovary
50
False
What does a pollen grain adhere to, to start the process of double fertilization?
572f50f8b2c2fd140056800c
the stigma of the pistil
147
False
What type of cell travels down the pollen tube while it's growing?
572f50f8b2c2fd140056800d
haploid generative
284
False
Where does the pollen tube release its sperm cells?
572f50f8b2c2fd140056800e
one of the synergids
610
False
What serves as the embryo's food supply?
572f50f8b2c2fd140056800f
endosperm
1001
False
Double fertilization
0
When a pollen tube fertilizes cells in the ovary, what is it called?
5a3b08053ff257001ab843a5
True
when a pollen grain adheres to the stigma of the pistil (female reproductive structure), germinates, and grows a long pollen tube
116
What begins the process of synergid?
5a3b08053ff257001ab843a6
True
the stigma of the pistil
147
What does a sperm cell adhere to to start double fertilization?
5a3b08053ff257001ab843a7
True
The synergid
688
What degenerates as a pollen grain adheres to the stigma?
5a3b08053ff257001ab843a8
True
both central cell nuclei
868
What does the zygote fuse with to produce a triploid?
5a3b08053ff257001ab843a9
True
Double fertilization refers to a process in which two sperm cells fertilize cells in the ovary. This process begins when a pollen grain adheres to the stigma of the pistil (female reproductive structure), germinates, and grows a long pollen tube. While this pollen tube is growing, a haploid generative cell travels down the tube behind the tube nucleus. The generative cell divides by mitosis to produce two haploid (n) sperm cells. As the pollen tube grows, it makes its way from the stigma, down the style and into the ovary. Here the pollen tube reaches the micropyle of the ovule and digests its way into one of the synergids, releasing its contents (which include the sperm cells). The synergid that the cells were released into degenerates and one sperm makes its way to fertilize the egg cell, producing a diploid (2n) zygote. The second sperm cell fuses with both central cell nuclei, producing a triploid (3n) cell. As the zygote develops into an embryo, the triploid cell develops into the endosperm, which serves as the embryo's food supply. The ovary now will develop into fruit and the ovule will develop into seed.
The appearance of the seed coat bears a definite relation to that of what?
572f516fb2c2fd1400568015
the fruit
68
False
What does the seed coat protect?
572f516fb2c2fd1400568016
embryo
96
False
What does the fruit of the flower secure?
572f516fb2c2fd1400568017
dissemination
280
False
How developed is the seed coat when it's used for dissemination?
572f516fb2c2fd1400568018
slightly
331
False
the fruit
68
What is the embryo character related to?
5a3b0dac3ff257001ab843c1
True
germination
160
What do dehiscent fruits directly promote?
5a3b0dac3ff257001ab843c2
True
the embryo
257
What does the exposed seed protect?
5a3b0dac3ff257001ab843c3
True
dissemination
280
What does the embryo in an indehiscent fruit secure?
5a3b0dac3ff257001ab843c4
True
discharge the functions otherwise executed by the fruit
456
What must a indehiscent fruit do that is usually done by the fruit?
5a3b0dac3ff257001ab843c5
True
The character of the seed coat bears a definite relation to that of the fruit. They protect the embryo and aid in dissemination; they may also directly promote germination. Among plants with indehiscent fruits, in general, the fruit provides protection for the embryo and secures dissemination. In this case, the seed coat is only slightly developed. If the fruit is dehiscent and the seed is exposed, in general, the seed-coat is well developed, and must discharge the functions otherwise executed by the fruit.
On what is agriculture almost completely dependent?
572f51f5a23a5019007fc535
angiosperms
44
False
What family of plants is most important for human sustenance?
572f51f5a23a5019007fc536
Poaceae
195
False
What is the more common name of the Fabaceae?
572f51f5a23a5019007fc537
legume
397
False
What family do potatoes, tomatoes and peppers belong to?
572f51f5a23a5019007fc538
Solanaceae
467
False
What family would you find cherries in?
572f51f5a23a5019007fc539
Rosaceae
907
False
providing the bulk of all feedstocks
260
What does the legume family provide as the most important of all the plant families?
5a3b164e3ff257001ab843cb
True
legume family
397
What is the more common name of the Solanaceae family that is second place?
5a3b164e3ff257001ab843cc
True
a significant amount of livestock feed
120
What does the rue family provide that is needed for livestock?
5a3b164e3ff257001ab843cd
True
rice, corn — maize, wheat, barley, rye
298
What are some examples of what the nightshade family provides as the most important group?
5a3b164e3ff257001ab843ce
True
(potatoes, tomatoes, and peppers, among others)
500
What does the rue family provide that makes it one group of high importance?
5a3b164e3ff257001ab843cf
True
Agriculture is almost entirely dependent on angiosperms, which provide virtually all plant-based food, and also provide a significant amount of livestock feed. Of all the families of plants, the Poaceae, or grass family (grains), is by far the most important, providing the bulk of all feedstocks (rice, corn — maize, wheat, barley, rye, oats, pearl millet, sugar cane, sorghum). The Fabaceae, or legume family, comes in second place. Also of high importance are the Solanaceae, or nightshade family (potatoes, tomatoes, and peppers, among others), the Cucurbitaceae, or gourd family (also including pumpkins and melons), the Brassicaceae, or mustard plant family (including rapeseed and the innumerable varieties of the cabbage species Brassica oleracea), and the Apiaceae, or parsley family. Many of our fruits come from the Rutaceae, or rue family (including oranges, lemons, grapefruits, etc.), and the Rosaceae, or rose family (including apples, pears, cherries, apricots, plums, etc.).
cotyledons
714
What do monocots usually have two of within each seed?
5a3aefb33ff257001ab8433d
True
neither a particularly handy nor a reliable character
903
According to the Cronquist system how is the number of cotyledons viewed?
5a3aefb33ff257001ab8433e
True
Dicotyledones or Dicotyledoneae, and Monocotyledones or Monocotyledoneae
329
What other descriptive names are allowed by the English system?
5a3aefb33ff257001ab8433f
True
two
53
How many groups are flowering plants divided into in the English system?
5a3aefb33ff257001ab84340
True
Magnoliopsida
106
What is one group that is used under the English system?
5a3aefb33ff257001ab84341
True
Traditionally, the flowering plants are divided into two groups, which in the Cronquist system are called Magnoliopsida (at the rank of class, formed from the family name Magnoliaceae) and Liliopsida (at the rank of class, formed from the family name Liliaceae). Other descriptive names allowed by Article 16 of the ICBN include Dicotyledones or Dicotyledoneae, and Monocotyledones or Monocotyledoneae, which have a long history of use. In English a member of either group may be called a dicotyledon (plural dicotyledons) and monocotyledon (plural monocotyledons), or abbreviated, as dicot (plural dicots) and monocot (plural monocots). These names derive from the observation that the dicots most often have two cotyledons, or embryonic leaves, within each seed. The monocots usually have only one, but the rule is not absolute either way. From a diagnostic point of view, the number of cotyledons is neither a particularly handy nor a reliable character.
Hyderabad
Which city is the capital of Telangana?
572efa9ecb0c0d14000f16ba
Hyderabad (i/ˈhaɪdərəˌbæd/ HY-dər-ə-bad; often /ˈhaɪdrəˌbæd/) is the capital of the southern Indian state of Telangana
0
False
How many square miles does Hyderabad cover?
572efa9ecb0c0d14000f16bb
250 sq mi
194
False
What river is Hyderabad next to?
572efa9ecb0c0d14000f16bc
the Musi River
224
False
What is the population of Hyderabad?
572efa9ecb0c0d14000f16bd
about 6.7 million
263
False
At what altitude is Hyderabad, in meters?
572efa9ecb0c0d14000f16be
an average altitude of 542 metres
431
False
Hyderabad (i/ˈhaɪdərəˌbæd/ HY-dər-ə-bad; often /ˈhaɪdrəˌbæd/) is the capital of the southern Indian state of Telangana and de jure capital of Andhra Pradesh.[A] Occupying 650 square kilometres (250 sq mi) along the banks of the Musi River, it has a population of about 6.7 million and a metropolitan population of about 7.75 million, making it the fourth most populous city and sixth most populous urban agglomeration in India. At an average altitude of 542 metres (1,778 ft), much of Hyderabad is situated on hilly terrain around artificial lakes, including Hussain Sagar—predating the city's founding—north of the city centre.
In what year was Hyderabad established?
572efb57dfa6aa1500f8d517
Established in 1591
0
False
Who is the person that established Hyderabad?
572efb57dfa6aa1500f8d518
Muhammad Quli Qutb Shah
23
False
What dynasty controlled Hyderabad until the early 18th century?
572efb57dfa6aa1500f8d519
the Qutb Shahi dynasty
85
False
Which Mughal viceroy created a dynasty in early 18th century Hyderabad?
572efb57dfa6aa1500f8d51a
Mughal viceroy Asif Jah I declared his sovereignty and created his own dynasty
178
False
Which dynasty did Asif Jah I create?
572efb57dfa6aa1500f8d51b
Nizams of Hyderabad
271
False
Established in 1591 by Muhammad Quli Qutb Shah, Hyderabad remained under the rule of the Qutb Shahi dynasty for nearly a century before the Mughals captured the region. In 1724, Mughal viceroy Asif Jah I declared his sovereignty and created his own dynasty, known as the Nizams of Hyderabad. The Nizam's dominions became a princely state during the British Raj, and remained so for 150 years, with the city serving as its capital. The Nizami influence can still be seen in the culture of the Hyderabadi Muslims. The city continued as the capital of Hyderabad State after it was brought into the Indian Union in 1948, and became the capital of Andhra Pradesh after the States Reorganisation Act, 1956. Since 1956, Rashtrapati Nilayam in the city has been the winter office of the President of India. In 2014, the newly formed state of Telangana split from Andhra Pradesh and the city became joint capital of the two states, a transitional arrangement scheduled to end by 2025.
Which individual commissioned Chaminar?
572efd6403f9891900756b2d
Muhammad Quli Qutb
93
False
When did Hyderabad become important culturally in India?
572efd6403f9891900756b2e
the mid-19th century
561
False
Which two groups had an influence in making Hyderabad a cultural center?
572efd6403f9891900756b2f
The Qutb Shahis and Nizams
330
False
What culture is most represented in the food of Hyderabad?
572efd6403f9891900756b30
Mughlai culture
206
False
Hyderabad has India's second biggest film production industry, what is it called?
572efd6403f9891900756b31
Telugu film industry
737
False
Relics of Qutb Shahi and Nizam rule remain visible today, with the Charminar—commissioned by Muhammad Quli Qutb Shah—coming to symbolise Hyderabad. Golconda fort is another major landmark. The influence of Mughlai culture is also evident in the city's distinctive cuisine, which includes Hyderabadi biryani and Hyderabadi haleem. The Qutb Shahis and Nizams established Hyderabad as a cultural hub, attracting men of letters from different parts of the world. Hyderabad emerged as the foremost centre of culture in India with the decline of the Mughal Empire in the mid-19th century, with artists migrating to the city from the rest of the Indian subcontinent. While Hyderabad is losing its cultural pre-eminence, it is today, due to the Telugu film industry, the country's second-largest producer of motion pictures.
What items had been historically traded in Hyderabad?
572efe44dfa6aa1500f8d52b
pearl and diamond
38
False
What is a nickname for Hyderabad?
572efe44dfa6aa1500f8d52c
City of Pearls
108
False
What are three historic bazaars in Hyderabad?
572efe44dfa6aa1500f8d52d
Laad Bazaar, Begum Bazaar and Sultan Bazaar
174
False
What is the economic output of Hyderabad?
572efe44dfa6aa1500f8d52e
US$74 billion
816
False
What is the rank of Hyderabad among cities contributing to India's GDP?
572efe44dfa6aa1500f8d52f
fifth-largest
848
False
Hyderabad was historically known as a pearl and diamond trading centre, and it continues to be known as the City of Pearls. Many of the city's traditional bazaars, including Laad Bazaar, Begum Bazaar and Sultan Bazaar, have remained open for centuries. However, industrialisation throughout the 20th century attracted major Indian manufacturing, research and financial institutions, including Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited, the National Geophysical Research Institute and the Centre for Cellular and Molecular Biology. Special economic zones dedicated to information technology have encouraged companies from across India and around the world to set up operations and the emergence of pharmaceutical and biotechnology industries in the 1990s led to the area's naming as India's "Genome Valley". With an output of US$74 billion, Hyderabad is the fifth-largest contributor to India's overall gross domestic product.
What does the Oxford Concise Dictionary of World Place Names say Hyderabad means?
572f6358a23a5019007fc5b9
"Haydar's city" or "lion city"
111
False
Hyderabad was named in honor of someone, who was it?
572f6358a23a5019007fc5ba
Caliph Ali Ibn Abi Talib
206
False
What does Andrew Petersen say that Hyderabad was originally known as?
572f6358a23a5019007fc5bb
Baghnagar (city of gardens).
393
False
Who founded what came to be known Hyderabad?
572f6358a23a5019007fc5bc
Muhammad Quli Qutb Shah
455
False
What person is Hyderabad said to have been renamed for?
572f6358a23a5019007fc5bd
"Bhagyanagar" or "Bhāgnagar" after Bhagmati, a local nautch (dancing) girl
514
False
According to John Everett-Heath, the author of Oxford Concise Dictionary of World Place Names, Hyderabad means "Haydar's city" or "lion city", from haydar (lion) and ābād (city). It was named to honour the Caliph Ali Ibn Abi Talib, who was also known as Haydar because of his lion-like valour in battles. Andrew Petersen, a scholar of Islamic architecture, says the city was originally called Baghnagar (city of gardens). One popular theory suggests that Muhammad Quli Qutb Shah, the founder of the city, named it "Bhagyanagar" or "Bhāgnagar" after Bhagmati, a local nautch (dancing) girl with whom he had fallen in love. She converted to Islam and adopted the title Hyder Mahal. The city was renamed Hyderabad in her honour. According to another source, the city was named after Haidar, the son of Quli Qutb Shah.
There may be Iron Age findings near Hyderabad, what age are they thought to be from?
572f6b6104bcaa1900d7690d
500 BCE
89
False
What was the Hyderabad region known as under the Chalukya dynasty?
572f6b6104bcaa1900d7690e
Golkonda (Golla Konda-"shepherd's hill")
171
False
What time period did the Chalukya dynasty rule the Hyderabad region?
572f6b6104bcaa1900d7690f
624 CE to 1075 CE
256
False
When did the Calukya empire split into four?
572f6b6104bcaa1900d76910
the 11th century
343
False
What was the capital of Golkonda in the mid 12th century?
572f6b6104bcaa1900d76911
Warangal
455
False
Archaeologists excavating near the city have unearthed Iron Age sites that may date from 500 BCE. The region comprising modern Hyderabad and its surroundings was known as Golkonda (Golla Konda-"shepherd's hill"), and was ruled by the Chalukya dynasty from 624 CE to 1075 CE. Following the dissolution of the Chalukya empire into four parts in the 11th century, Golkonda came under the control of the Kakatiya dynasty from 1158, whose seat of power was at Warangal, 148 km (92 mi) northeast of modern Hyderabad.
Who defeated the Kakatiya dynasty in 1310?
572f6c2cb2c2fd14005680f7
Sultan Alauddin Khilji
95
False
Which entity subsumed the Kakatiya dynasty?
572f6c2cb2c2fd14005680f8
Khilji dynasty
52
False
What did the Malik Kafur do to the Kakatiya dynasty in 1321?
572f6c2cb2c2fd14005680f9
the Kakatiya dynasty was annexed
171
False
In what year did Muhammad bin Tughluq succeed the Delhi sultanate?
572f6c2cb2c2fd14005680fa
1325
447
False
When was the Behmani Sultanate established?
572f6c2cb2c2fd14005680fb
1347
515
False
The Kakatiya dynasty was reduced to a vassal of the Khilji dynasty in 1310 after its defeat by Sultan Alauddin Khilji of the Delhi Sultanate. This lasted until 1321, when the Kakatiya dynasty was annexed by Malik Kafur, Allaudin Khilji's general. During this period, Alauddin Khilji took the Koh-i-Noor diamond, which is said to have been mined from the Kollur Mines of Golkonda, to Delhi. Muhammad bin Tughluq succeeded to the Delhi sultanate in 1325, bringing Warangal under the rule of the Tughlaq dynasty until 1347 when Ala-ud-Din Bahman Shah, a governor under bin Tughluq, rebelled against Delhi and established the Bahmani Sultanate in the Deccan Plateau, with Gulbarga, 200 km (124 mi) west of Hyderabad, as its capital. The Bahmani kings ruled the region until 1518 and were the first independent Muslim rulers of the Deccan.
What position did Sultan Quli hold?
572f6d1104bcaa1900d7692b
governor of Golkonda
15
False
Whom did Sultan Quli rebel against?
572f6d1104bcaa1900d7692c
the Bahmani Sultanate
54
False
In what year did the establishment of the Qutb dynasty occur?
572f6d1104bcaa1900d7692d
1518
118
False
When was Hyderabad founded?
572f6d1104bcaa1900d7692e
1591
296
False
In the late 17th century the capital of Deccan Suba was moved, to where?
572f6d1104bcaa1900d7692f
Aurangabad
675
False
Sultan Quli, a governor of Golkonda, revolted against the Bahmani Sultanate and established the Qutb Shahi dynasty in 1518; he rebuilt the mud-fort of Golconda and named the city "Muhammad nagar". The fifth sultan, Muhammad Quli Qutb Shah, established Hyderabad on the banks of the Musi River in 1591, to avoid the water shortages experienced at Golkonda. During his rule, he had the Charminar and Mecca Masjid built in the city. On 21 September 1687, the Golkonda Sultanate came under the rule of the Mughal emperor Aurangzeb after a year-long siege of the Golkonda fort. The annexed area was renamed Deccan Suba (Deccan province) and the capital was moved from Golkonda to Aurangabad, about 550 km (342 mi) northwest of Hyderabad.
What position did Farrukhsiyar hold?
572f6da8a23a5019007fc617
emperor
33
False
Who was the Viceroy of the Deccan under Farrukhsiyar?
572f6da8a23a5019007fc618
Asif Jah I
52
False
What official title did the Viceroy of Deccan hold?
572f6da8a23a5019007fc619
Nizam-ul-Mulk (Administrator of the Realm)
107
False
In what year was Mubariz Khan defeated by Asif Jah I?
572f6da8a23a5019007fc61a
1724
154
False
What did Asif Jah I rename Deccan Suba to?
572f6da8a23a5019007fc61b
Hyderabad Deccan
254
False
In 1713 Farrukhsiyar, the Mughal emperor, appointed Asif Jah I to be Viceroy of the Deccan, with the title Nizam-ul-Mulk (Administrator of the Realm). In 1724, Asif Jah I defeated Mubariz Khan to establish autonomy over the Deccan Suba, named the region Hyderabad Deccan, and started what came to be known as the Asif Jahi dynasty. Subsequent rulers retained the title Nizam ul-Mulk and were referred to as Asif Jahi Nizams, or Nizams of Hyderabad. The death of Asif Jah I in 1748 resulted in a period of political unrest as his sons, backed by opportunistic neighbouring states and colonial foreign forces, contended for the throne. The accession of Asif Jah II, who reigned from 1762 to 1803, ended the instability. In 1768 he signed the treaty of Masulipatnam, surrendering the coastal region to the East India Company in return for a fixed annual rent.
In what year did Hyderabad become the capital of Nizams?
572f75bd04bcaa1900d76999
1769
3
False
Whom did the Nizam ally with in the late 18th century?
572f75bd04bcaa1900d7699a
East India Company
323
False
Which military occupied Hyderabad city in a protection role?
572f75bd04bcaa1900d7699b
British Indian Army
364
False
What was the title of Baji Rao I?
572f75bd04bcaa1900d7699c
Peshwa of the Maratha Empire
142
False
What was the title of Hyder Ali?
572f75bd04bcaa1900d7699d
Dalwai of Mysore
111
False
In 1769 Hyderabad city became the formal capital of the Nizams. In response to regular threats from Hyder Ali (Dalwai of Mysore), Baji Rao I (Peshwa of the Maratha Empire), and Basalath Jung (Asif Jah II's elder brother, who was supported by the Marquis de Bussy-Castelnau), the Nizam signed a subsidiary alliance with the East India Company in 1798, allowing the British Indian Army to occupy Bolarum (modern Secunderabad) to protect the state's borders, for which the Nizams paid an annual maintenance to the British.
On what date did the Indian Army take control of Hyderabad?
572f7697a23a5019007fc64b
1948. On 17 September
283
False
What was the code name for the Indian Army invasion of Hyderabad?
572f7697a23a5019007fc64c
Operation Polo
392
False
Which Nizam defeated by the Indian Army?
572f7697a23a5019007fc64d
Nizam VII
439
False
Which uprising occurred from 1946 to 1951?
572f7697a23a5019007fc64e
the Telangana uprising
667
False
On what date did the constitution of India become active?
572f7697a23a5019007fc64f
26 January 1950
793
False
After India gained independence, the Nizam declared his intention to remain independent rather than become part of the Indian Union. The Hyderabad State Congress, with the support of the Indian National Congress and the Communist Party of India, began agitating against Nizam VII in 1948. On 17 September that year, the Indian Army took control of Hyderabad State after an invasion codenamed Operation Polo. With the defeat of his forces, Nizam VII capitulated to the Indian Union by signing an Instrument of Accession, which made him the Rajpramukh (Princely Governor) of the state until 31 October 1956. Between 1946 and 1951, the Communist Party of India fomented the Telangana uprising against the feudal lords of the Telangana region. The Constitution of India, which became effective on 26 January 1950, made Hyderabad State one of the part B states of India, with Hyderabad city continuing to be the capital. In his 1955 report Thoughts on Linguistic States, B. R. Ambedkar, then chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Indian Constitution, proposed designating the city of Hyderabad as the second capital of India because of its amenities and strategic central location. Since 1956, the Rashtrapati Nilayam in Hyderabad has been the second official residence and business office of the President of India; the President stays once a year in winter and conducts official business particularly relating to Southern India.
On what date was Hyderabad state divided into three?
572f7788947a6a140053c98e
1 November 1956
3
False
Which three states was Hyderabad state divided into?
572f7788947a6a140053c98f
Maharashtra, Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh
185
False
Hyderabad city became the capital of what state in the mid 20th century?
572f7788947a6a140053c990
Andhra Pradesh
376
False
When was Telangana state announced?
572f7788947a6a140053c991
30 July 2013
847
False
What date was the official formation of Telangana state?
572f7788947a6a140053c992
June 2014
1319
False
On 1 November 1956 the states of India were reorganised by language. Hyderabad state was split into three parts, which were merged with neighbouring states to form the modern states of Maharashtra, Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh. The nine Telugu- and Urdu-speaking districts of Hyderabad State in the Telangana region were merged with the Telugu-speaking Andhra State to create Andhra Pradesh, with Hyderabad as its capital. Several protests, known collectively as the Telangana movement, attempted to invalidate the merger and demanded the creation of a new Telangana state. Major actions took place in 1969 and 1972, and a third began in 2010. The city suffered several explosions: one at Dilsukhnagar in 2002 claimed two lives; terrorist bombs in May and August 2007 caused communal tension and riots; and two bombs exploded in February 2013. On 30 July 2013 the government of India declared that part of Andhra Pradesh would be split off to form a new Telangana state, and that Hyderabad city would be the capital city and part of Telangana, while the city would also remain the capital of Andhra Pradesh for no more than ten years. On 3 October 2013 the Union Cabinet approved the proposal, and in February 2014 both houses of Parliament passed the Telangana Bill. With the final assent of the President of India in June 2014, Telangana state was formed.
How far south of Delhi, in miles, is Hyderabad?
572f7cb0b2c2fd1400568187
973 mi
97
False
In what region of the Deccan Plateau is Hyderabad?
572f7cb0b2c2fd1400568188
northern part
269
False
How large in square kilometers is Greater Hyderabad?
572f7cb0b2c2fd1400568189
650 km2
331
False
What are the highest hills in Hyderabad?
572f7cb0b2c2fd140056818a
Banjara Hills
578
False
When was Hussain Sagar lake built?
572f7cb0b2c2fd140056818b
1562
778
False
Situated in the southern part of Telangana in southeastern India, Hyderabad is 1,566 kilometres (973 mi) south of Delhi, 699 kilometres (434 mi) southeast of Mumbai, and 570 kilometres (350 mi) north of Bangalore by road. It lies on the banks of the Musi River, in the northern part of the Deccan Plateau. Greater Hyderabad covers 650 km2 (250 sq mi), making it one of the largest metropolitan areas in India. With an average altitude of 542 metres (1,778 ft), Hyderabad lies on predominantly sloping terrain of grey and pink granite, dotted with small hills, the highest being Banjara Hills at 672 metres (2,205 ft). The city has numerous lakes referred to as sagar, meaning "sea". Examples include artificial lakes created by dams on the Musi, such as Hussain Sagar (built in 1562 near the city centre), Osman Sagar and Himayat Sagar. As of 1996, the city had 140 lakes and 834 water tanks (ponds).
What is the mean yearly temperature in Hyderabad in Celsius?
572f7d6f04bcaa1900d76a19
26.6 °C
139
False
Köppen Aw refers to what kind of climate?
572f7d6f04bcaa1900d76a1a
tropical wet and dry climate
16
False
During what months does summer occur in Hyderabad?
572f7d6f04bcaa1900d76a1b
March–June
218
False
What is the typical lowest temperature in Celsius during winter in Hyderabad?
572f7d6f04bcaa1900d76a1c
10 °C
478
False
What is generally the hottest month in Hyderabad?
572f7d6f04bcaa1900d76a1d
May
493
False
Hyderabad has a tropical wet and dry climate (Köppen Aw) bordering on a hot semi-arid climate (Köppen BSh). The annual mean temperature is 26.6 °C (79.9 °F); monthly mean temperatures are 21–33 °C (70–91 °F). Summers (March–June) are hot and humid, with average highs in the mid-to-high 30s Celsius; maximum temperatures often exceed 40 °C (104 °F) between April and June. The coolest temperatures occur in December and January, when the lowest temperature occasionally dips to 10 °C (50 °F). May is the hottest month, when daily temperatures range from 26 to 39 °C (79–102 °F); December, the coldest, has temperatures varying from 14.5 to 28 °C (57–82 °F).
What is the name of the largest zoo in Hyderabad?
572f7f3f04bcaa1900d76a23
Nehru Zoological Park
312
False
Hyderabad's largest zoo is known as India's first to have what two kinds of animals in a safari park setting?
572f7f3f04bcaa1900d76a24
lion and tiger
393
False
How many national parks does Hyderabad have?
572f7f3f04bcaa1900d76a25
three
435
False
Two of the national parks in Hyderabad are Mrugavani National Park, Mahavir Harina Vanasthali National Park, what is the third?
572f7f3f04bcaa1900d76a26
Kasu Brahmananda Reddy National Park
526
False
Which environmental preserve in Hyderabad is known to be a home for migratory birds?
572f7f3f04bcaa1900d76a27
Patancheru Lake
795
False
Hyderabad's lakes and the sloping terrain of its low-lying hills provide habitat for an assortment of flora and fauna. The forest region in and around the city encompasses areas of ecological and biological importance, which are preserved in the form of national parks, zoos, mini-zoos and a wildlife sanctuary. Nehru Zoological Park, the city's one large zoo, is the first in India to have a lion and tiger safari park. Hyderabad has three national parks (Mrugavani National Park, Mahavir Harina Vanasthali National Park and Kasu Brahmananda Reddy National Park), and the Manjira Wildlife Sanctuary is about 50 km (31 mi) from the city. Hyderabad's other environmental reserves are: Kotla Vijayabhaskara Reddy Botanical Gardens, Shamirpet Lake, Hussain Sagar, Fox Sagar Lake, Mir Alam Tank and Patancheru Lake, which is home to regional birds and attracts seasonal migratory birds from different parts of the world. Organisations engaged in environmental and wildlife preservation include the Telangana Forest Department, Indian Council of Forestry Research and Education, the International Crops Research Institute for the Semi-Arid Tropics (ICRISAT), the Animal Welfare Board of India, the Blue Cross of Hyderabad and the University of Hyderabad.
What is the entity that controls the infrastructure of Hyderabad?
572f8015a23a5019007fc699
The Greater Hyderabad Municipal Corporation (GHMC)
0
False
How many municipal wards are within Hyderabad?
572f8015a23a5019007fc69a
150
138
False
In what year did the GHMC form?
572f8015a23a5019007fc69b
2007
848
False
How much area, in square miles, does the GHMC oversee?
572f8015a23a5019007fc69c
250 sq mi
1016
False
Which board oversees military areas within Hyderabad?
572f8015a23a5019007fc69d
The Secunderabad Cantonment Board
1155
False
The Greater Hyderabad Municipal Corporation (GHMC) oversees the civic infrastructure of the city's 18 "circles", which together encompass 150 municipal wards. Each ward is represented by a corporator, elected by popular vote. The corporators elect the Mayor, who is the titular head of GHMC; executive powers rest with the Municipal Commissioner, appointed by the state government. The GHMC carries out the city's infrastructural work such as building and maintenance of roads and drains, town planning including construction regulation, maintenance of municipal markets and parks, solid waste management, the issuing of birth and death certificates, the issuing of trade licences, collection of property tax, and community welfare services such as mother and child healthcare, and pre-school and non-formal education. The GHMC was formed in April 2007 by merging the Municipal Corporation of Hyderabad (MCH) with 12 municipalities of the Hyderabad, Ranga Reddy and Medak districts covering a total area of 650 km2 (250 sq mi).:3 In the 2016 municipal election, the Telangana Rashtra Samithi formed the majority and the present Mayor is Bonthu Ram Mohan. The Secunderabad Cantonment Board is a civic administration agency overseeing an area of 40.1 km2 (15.5 sq mi),:93 where there are several military camps.:2 The Osmania University campus is administered independently by the university authority.:93
Which Hyderabad agency is responsible for the largest area?
572f8123a23a5019007fc6ad
Hyderabad Police
93
False
What is the HMDA mainly responsible for?
572f8123a23a5019007fc6ae
urban planning
271
False
What does the acronym HMDA stand for?
572f8123a23a5019007fc6af
Hyderabad Metropolitan Development Authority
192
False
What does the acronym HMWSSB represent?
572f8123a23a5019007fc6b0
Hyderabad Metropolitan Water Supply and Sewerage Board
525
False
Hyderabad city can be referred to as something else as administrative agencies are concerned, what?
572f8123a23a5019007fc6b1
GHMC area
140
False
The jurisdictions of the city's administrative agencies are, in ascending order of size: the Hyderabad Police area, Hyderabad district, the GHMC area ("Hyderabad city") and the area under the Hyderabad Metropolitan Development Authority (HMDA). The HMDA is an apolitical urban planning agency that covers the GHMC and its suburbs, extending to 54 mandals in five districts encircling the city. It coordinates the development activities of GHMC and suburban municipalities and manages the administration of bodies such as the Hyderabad Metropolitan Water Supply and Sewerage Board (HMWSSB).
What dam began to provide water to Hyderabad in 2005?
572f81e104bcaa1900d76a2d
Nagarjuna Sagar Dam
232
False
Along with dealing with sewerage and the water supply, what is one other thing the HMWSSB regulates?
572f81e104bcaa1900d76a2e
rainwater harvesting
21
False
How long is the pipeline from the Nagarjuna Sagar Dam which the HMWSSB operates?
572f81e104bcaa1900d76a2f
116-kilometre-long (72 mi)
178
False
Which company is responsible for electricity in Hyderabad?
572f81e104bcaa1900d76a30
Telangana Southern Power Distribution Company Limited
283
False
Which entity is responsible for the fire stations in Hyderabad?
572f81e104bcaa1900d76a31
Telangana State Disaster and Fire Response Department
442
False
The HMWSSB regulates rainwater harvesting, sewerage services and water supply, which is sourced from several dams located in the suburbs. In 2005, the HMWSSB started operating a 116-kilometre-long (72 mi) water supply pipeline from Nagarjuna Sagar Dam to meet increasing demand. The Telangana Southern Power Distribution Company Limited manages electricity supply. As of October 2014, there were 15 fire stations in the city, operated by the Telangana State Disaster and Fire Response Department. The government-owned India Post has five head post offices and many sub-post offices in Hyderabad, which are complemented by private courier services.
Where is the site where Hyderabad's solid waste is dumped?
572f82f1947a6a140053c9f0
Jawaharnagar
166
False
Which entity is responsible for disposing Hyderabad's solid waste?
572f82f1947a6a140053c9f1
Integrated Solid Waste Management project
207
False
What percentage of the air pollution in Hyderabad comes solely from vehicles?
572f82f1947a6a140053c9f2
20–50%
551
False
How many deaths are believed to be caused in Hyderabad due to air pollution each year?
572f82f1947a6a140053c9f3
1,700–3,000
788
False
What is the rating for the hardness of Hyderabad's water?
572f82f1947a6a140053c9f4
1000 ppm
872
False
Hyderabad produces around 4,500 tonnes of solid waste daily, which is transported from collection units in Imlibun, Yousufguda and Lower Tank Bund to the dumpsite in Jawaharnagar. Disposal is managed by the Integrated Solid Waste Management project which was started by the GHMC in 2010. Rapid urbanisation and increased economic activity has also led to increased industrial waste, air, noise and water pollution, which is regulated by the Telangana Pollution Control Board (TPCB). The contribution of different sources to air pollution in 2006 was: 20–50% from vehicles, 40–70% from a combination of vehicle discharge and road dust, 10–30% from industrial discharges and 3–10% from the burning of household rubbish. Deaths resulting from atmospheric particulate matter are estimated at 1,700–3,000 each year. Ground water around Hyderabad, which has a hardness of up to 1000 ppm, around three times higher than is desirable, is the main source of drinking water but the increasing population and consequent increase in demand has led to a decline in not only ground water but also river and lake levels. This shortage is further exacerbated by inadequately treated effluent discharged from industrial treatment plants polluting the water sources of the city.
Which agency is in charge of health and wellness services in Hyderabad?
572f83f3b2c2fd14005681a5
Commissionerate of Health and Family Welfare
4
False
How many government hospitals did Hyderabad have in 2010?
572f83f3b2c2fd14005681a6
50
205
False
How many beds are available in all of Hyderabad's hospitals and nursing homes combined?
572f83f3b2c2fd14005681a7
12,000
303
False
How many nurses per 10,000 persons are there in Hyderabad?
572f83f3b2c2fd14005681a8
14 nurses
451
False
People choose to use what type of facility due to long distances and poor care at Government hospitals?
572f83f3b2c2fd14005681a9
Private clinics
564
False
The Commissionerate of Health and Family Welfare is responsible for planning, implementation and monitoring of all facilities related to health and preventive services. As of 2010[update]–11, the city had 50 government hospitals, 300 private and charity hospitals and 194 nursing homes providing around 12,000 hospital beds, fewer than half the required 25,000. For every 10,000 people in the city, there are 17.6 hospital beds, 9 specialist doctors, 14 nurses and 6 physicians. The city also has about 4,000 individual clinics and 500 medical diagnostic centres. Private clinics are preferred by many residents because of the distance to, poor quality of care at and long waiting times in government facilities,:60–61 despite the high proportion of the city's residents being covered by government health insurance: 24% according to a National Family Health Survey in 2005.:41 As of 2012[update], many new private hospitals of various sizes were opened or being built. Hyderabad also has outpatient and inpatient facilities that use Unani, homeopathic and Ayurvedic treatments.
What percentage of the children in Hyderabad city had basic vaccinations in 2005?
572f84bcb2c2fd14005681af
61%
149
False
What is the only city that had a lower vaccination rate for children than Hyderabad in the 2005 National Family Health Survey?
572f84bcb2c2fd14005681b0
Meerut
304
False
What was the fertility rate of Hyderabad according to a 2005 survey?
572f86ea947a6a140053ca20
1.8
99
False
What was the child vaccination rate according to a 2005 survey of Hyderabad?
572f86ea947a6a140053ca21
61%
149
False
Only one city, according to a 2005 survey, had a lower child vaccination rate than Hyderabad, what was it?
572f86ea947a6a140053ca22
Meerut
304
False
According to a 2005 survey what was in Hyderabad?
572f86ea947a6a140053ca23
35 per 1,000 live births
345
False
What percentage of children in a 2005 survey of people in Hyderabad were underweight?
572f86ea947a6a140053ca24
20%
597
False
In the 2005 National Family Health Survey, it was reported that the city's total fertility rate is 1.8,:47 which is below the replacement rate. Only 61% of children had been provided with all basic vaccines (BCG, measles and full courses of polio and DPT), fewer than in all other surveyed cities except Meerut.:98 The infant mortality rate was 35 per 1,000 live births, and the mortality rate for children under five was 41 per 1,000 live births.:97 The survey also reported that a third of women and a quarter of men are overweight or obese, 49% of children below 5 years are anaemic, and up to 20% of children are underweight,:44, 55–56 while more than 2% of women and 3% of men suffer from diabetes.:57
What was the area of Hyderabad before the GHMC?
572f87a704bcaa1900d76a4b
175 km2 (68 sq mi)
88
False
What was the population of Hyderabad in the 2011 census?
572f87a704bcaa1900d76a4c
6,809,970
215
False
What was the population density in Hyderabad in 2011?
572f87a704bcaa1900d76a4d
18,480/km2 (47,900/sq mi)
401
False
How many females were in Hyderabad for the 2011 census?
572f87a704bcaa1900d76a4e
3,309,168
813
False
What is the literacy rate of Hyderabad?
572f87a704bcaa1900d76a4f
82.96%
1046
False
When the GHMC was created in 2007, the area occupied by the municipality increased from 175 km2 (68 sq mi) to 650 km2 (250 sq mi). Consequently, the population increased by 87%, from 3,637,483 in the 2001 census to 6,809,970 in the 2011 census, 24% of which are migrants from elsewhere in India,:2 making Hyderabad the nation's fourth most populous city. As of 2011[update], the population density is 18,480/km2 (47,900/sq mi). At the same 2011 census, the Hyderabad Urban Agglomeration had a population of 7,749,334, making it the sixth most populous urban agglomeration in the country. The population of the Hyderabad urban agglomeration has since been estimated by electoral officials to be 9.1 million as of early 2013 but is expected to exceed 10 million by the end of the year. There are 3,500,802 male and 3,309,168 female citizens—a sex ratio of 945 females per 1000 males, higher than the national average of 926 per 1000. Among children aged 0–6 years, 373,794 are boys and 352,022 are girls—a ratio of 942 per 1000. Literacy stands at 82.96% (male 85.96%; female 79.79%), higher than the national average of 74.04%. The socio-economic strata consist of 20% upper class, 50% middle class and 30% working class.
What are the people who live in Hyderabad called?
572f88c2a23a5019007fc703
Hyderabadi
16
False
There are two main languages spoken by the people of Hyderabad, what are they?
572f88c2a23a5019007fc704
Telugu and Urdu
74
False
What is the main language of most Muslims from Hyderabad?
572f88c2a23a5019007fc705
Hyderabadi Urdu
324
False
Which is the largest ethnic community in Hyderabad?
572f88c2a23a5019007fc706
Hadhrami
707
False
Hyderabadi is a type of what langauge?
572f88c2a23a5019007fc707
Dakhini
360
False
Referred to as "Hyderabadi", the residents of Hyderabad are predominantly Telugu and Urdu speaking people, with minority Bengali, Gujarati (including Memon), Kannada (including Nawayathi), Malayalam, Marathi, Marwari, Odia, Punjabi, Tamil and Uttar Pradeshi communities. Hyderabad is home to a unique dialect of Urdu called Hyderabadi Urdu, which is a type of Dakhini, and is the mother tongue of most Hyderabadi Muslims, a unique community who owe much of their history, language, cuisine, and culture to Hyderabad, and the various dynasties who previously ruled. Hadhrami Arabs, African Arabs, Armenians, Abyssinians, Iranians, Pathans and Turkish people are also present; these communities, of which the Hadhrami are the largest, declined after Hyderabad State became part of the Indian Union, as they lost the patronage of the Nizams.
Which percentage of Hyderabad's population is below the poverty line?
572f8a0d947a6a140053ca44
13%
34
False
What population of Hyderabad lived in slums in 2012?
572f8a0d947a6a140053ca45
1.7 million
202
False
What is the literacy rate in the slums of Hyderabad?
572f8a0d947a6a140053ca46
60–80%
618
False
In the slums of Hyderabad how many private schools are there?
572f8a0d947a6a140053ca47
175
853
False
What percentage of children in Hyderabad are working hazardous jobs?
572f8a0d947a6a140053ca48
35%
1571
False
In the greater metropolitan area, 13% of the population live below the poverty line. According to a 2012 report submitted by GHMC to the World Bank, Hyderabad has 1,476 slums with a total population of 1.7 million, of whom 66% live in 985 slums in the "core" of the city (the part that formed Hyderabad before the April 2007 expansion) and the remaining 34% live in 491 suburban tenements. About 22% of the slum-dwelling households had migrated from different parts of India in the last decade of the 20th century, and 63% claimed to have lived in the slums for more than 10 years.:55 Overall literacy in the slums is 60–80% and female literacy is 52–73%. A third of the slums have basic service connections, and the remainder depend on general public services provided by the government. There are 405 government schools, 267 government aided schools, 175 private schools and 528 community halls in the slum areas.:70 According to a 2008 survey by the Centre for Good Governance, 87.6% of the slum-dwelling households are nuclear families, 18% are very poor, with an income up to ₹20000 (US$300) per annum, 73% live below the poverty line (a standard poverty line recognised by the Andhra Pradesh Government is ₹24000 (US$360) per annum), 27% of the chief wage earners (CWE) are casual labour and 38% of the CWE are illiterate. About 3.72% of the slum children aged 5–14 do not go to school and 3.17% work as child labour, of whom 64% are boys and 36% are girls. The largest employers of child labour are street shops and construction sites. Among the working children, 35% are engaged in hazardous jobs.:59
In what region of Hyderabad is Mecca Masjid?
572f8b9b947a6a140053ca4e
south central Hyderabad
39
False
On what side of the river is Begum Bazaar?
572f8b9b947a6a140053ca4f
North
266
False
South central Hyderabad is generally the home to what attractions?
572f8b9b947a6a140053ca50
historic and tourist sites
5
False
Many historic and tourist sites lie in south central Hyderabad, such as the Charminar, the Mecca Masjid, the Salar Jung Museum, the Nizam's Museum, the Falaknuma Palace, and the traditional retail corridor comprising the Pearl Market, Laad Bazaar and Madina Circle. North of the river are hospitals, colleges, major railway stations and business areas such as Begum Bazaar, Koti, Abids, Sultan Bazaar and Moazzam Jahi Market, along with administrative and recreational establishments such as the Reserve Bank of India, the Telangana Secretariat, the Hyderabad Mint, the Telangana Legislature, the Public Gardens, the Nizam Club, the Ravindra Bharathi, the State Museum, the Birla Temple and the Birla Planetarium.
Where in Hyderabad is the Secunderabad Railway Station?
572f8cdcb2c2fd14005681e9
North of central Hyderabad
0
False
In what region of Hyderabad city is Jubilee Hills located?
572f8cdcb2c2fd14005681ea
the northwest part
284
False
Where in Hyderabad would one find defence centres?
572f8cdcb2c2fd14005681eb
the eastern part
608
False
What area in Hyderabad contains the Hyderabad Airport?
572f8cdcb2c2fd14005681ec
Cyberabad
698
False
Cyberabad contains a national park, what is it?
572f8cdcb2c2fd14005681ed
Kasu Brahmananda Reddy National Park
933
False
North of central Hyderabad lie Hussain Sagar, Tank Bund Road, Rani Gunj and the Secunderabad Railway Station. Most of the city's parks and recreational centres, such as Sanjeevaiah Park, Indira Park, Lumbini Park, NTR Gardens, the Buddha statue and Tankbund Park are located here. In the northwest part of the city there are upscale residential and commercial areas such as Banjara Hills, Jubilee Hills, Begumpet, Khairatabad and Miyapur. The northern end contains industrial areas such as Sanathnagar, Moosapet, Balanagar, Patancheru and Chanda Nagar. The northeast end is dotted with residential areas. In the eastern part of the city lie many defence research centres and Ramoji Film City. The "Cyberabad" area in the southwest and west of the city has grown rapidly since the 1990s. It is home to information technology and bio-pharmaceutical companies and to landmarks such as Hyderabad Airport, Osman Sagar, Himayath Sagar and Kasu Brahmananda Reddy National Park.
After a flood in what year did Hyderabad expand?
572f8dec947a6a140053ca54
1908
165
False
Which river flooded in 1908, preceding the expansion of Hyderabad?
572f8dec947a6a140053ca55
Musi River
186
False
The Mir Osman Ali Khan had a title, what was it?
572f8dec947a6a140053ca56
the VIIth Nizam
305
False
What did India declare Hyderabad om 2012?
572f8dec947a6a140053ca57
Best heritage city of India
481
False
What type of heritage architecture is mainly displayed in Hyderabad?
572f8dec947a6a140053ca58
Indo-Islamic architecture
77
False
Heritage buildings constructed during the Qutb Shahi and Nizam eras showcase Indo-Islamic architecture influenced by Medieval, Mughal and European styles. After the 1908 flooding of the Musi River, the city was expanded and civic monuments constructed, particularly during the rule of Mir Osman Ali Khan (the VIIth Nizam), whose patronage of architecture led to him being referred to as the maker of modern Hyderabad. In 2012, the government of India declared Hyderabad the first "Best heritage city of India".
What influence did Qutb Shahi architecture borrow from?
572f8f33947a6a140053ca68
classical Persian architecture
70
False
What is the oldest piece of Qutb Shahi architecture in Hyderabad?
572f8f33947a6a140053ca69
the ruins of Golconda fort
196
False
What iconic historic structure is in the center of old Hyderabad?
572f8f33947a6a140053ca6a
the Charminar
368
False
The government of India proposed that The Charminar become a UNESCO World Heritage site, what other two monuments were suggested for the same status?
572f8f33947a6a140053ca6b
Qutb Shahi tombs and Golconda fort
738
False
How high are the minarets on the Charminar?
572f8f33947a6a140053ca6c
56 m (184 ft)
574
False
Qutb Shahi architecture of the 16th and early 17th centuries followed classical Persian architecture featuring domes and colossal arches. The oldest surviving Qutb Shahi structure in Hyderabad is the ruins of Golconda fort built in the 16th century. The Charminar, Mecca Masjid, Charkaman and Qutb Shahi tombs are other existing structures of this period. Among these the Charminar has become an icon of the city; located in the centre of old Hyderabad, it is a square structure with sides 20 m (66 ft) long and four grand arches each facing a road. At each corner stands a 56 m (184 ft)-high minaret. Most of the historical bazaars that still exist were constructed on the street north of Charminar towards Golconda fort. The Charminar, Qutb Shahi tombs and Golconda fort are considered to be monuments of national importance in India; in 2010 the Indian government proposed that the sites be listed for UNESCO World Heritage status.:11–18
The Chowmahalla Palace represents what type of architecture?
572f92be04bcaa1900d76a97
Nizam architecture
39
False
The royal court of Chowmahalla palace is an example what style of architecture?
572f92be04bcaa1900d76a98
Neoclassical
217
False
Which palace in Hyderabad did the work of Andrea Palladio influence?
572f92be04bcaa1900d76a99
Falaknuma Palace
269
False
What century was Bella Vista Palace built?
572f92be04bcaa1900d76a9a
19th century
436
False
Which family constructed the Basheer Bagh Palace?
572f92be04bcaa1900d76a9b
Paigah family
993
False
Among the oldest surviving examples of Nizam architecture in Hyderabad is the Chowmahalla Palace, which was the seat of royal power. It showcases a diverse array of architectural styles, from the Baroque Harem to its Neoclassical royal court. The other palaces include Falaknuma Palace (inspired by the style of Andrea Palladio), Purani Haveli, King Kothi and Bella Vista Palace all of which were built at the peak of Nizam rule in the 19th century. During Mir Osman Ali Khan's rule, European styles, along with Indo-Islamic, became prominent. These styles are reflected in the Falaknuma Palace and many civic monuments such as the Hyderabad High Court, Osmania Hospital, Osmania University, the State Central Library, City College, the Telangana Legislature, the State Archaeology Museum, Jubilee Hall, and Hyderabad and Kachiguda railway stations. Other landmarks of note are Paigah Palace, Asman Garh Palace, Basheer Bagh Palace, Errum Manzil and the Spanish Mosque, all constructed by the Paigah family.:16–17
Where was Hyderabad ranked in 2012 as a producer of GDP in Talangana?
572f9463947a6a140053ca84
the largest
13
False
Where was Hyderabad ranked in India in 2012 in terms of deposits?
572f9463947a6a140053ca85
sixth largest
120
False
What was the GDP of Hyderabad in US dollars in 2011-2012?
572f9463947a6a140053ca86
$74 billion
259
False
How many people were employed by the Andhra Pradesh government in 2006?
572f9463947a6a140053ca87
113,098
505
False
What percentage of females in Hyderabad were employed in 2005?
572f9463947a6a140053ca88
19%
589
False
Hyderabad is the largest contributor to the gross domestic product (GDP), tax and other revenues, of Telangana, and the sixth largest deposit centre and fourth largest credit centre nationwide, as ranked by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) in June 2012. Its US$74 billion GDP made it the fifth-largest contributor city to India's overall GDP in 2011–12. Its per capita annual income in 2011 was ₹44300 (US$660). As of 2006[update], the largest employers in the city were the governments of Andhra Pradesh (113,098 employees) and India (85,155). According to a 2005 survey, 77% of males and 19% of females in the city were employed. The service industry remains dominant in the city, and 90% of the employed workforce is engaged in this sector.
In the 18th century there was one global trading hub for large diamonds, what was it?
572f96dd04bcaa1900d76ab5
Hyderabad
0
False
When did railway expansion in Hyderabad occur?
572f96dd04bcaa1900d76ab6
the late 19th century
219
False
During what era was The Defence Research and Development Organisation founded?
572f96dd04bcaa1900d76ab7
From the 1950s to the 1970s
312
False
What did the Hyderabad Stock Exchange come to be known as?
572f96dd04bcaa1900d76ab8
Hyderabad Securities
858
False
At the end of 2014 what entity would handle the the transaction services for BSE-Mumbai?
572f96dd04bcaa1900d76ab9
Bombay Stock Exchange (BSE)
1027
False
Hyderabad's role in the pearl trade has given it the name "City of Pearls" and up until the 18th century, the city was also the only global trading centre for large diamonds. Industrialisation began under the Nizams in the late 19th century, helped by railway expansion that connected the city with major ports. From the 1950s to the 1970s, Indian enterprises, such as Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited (BHEL), Nuclear Fuel Complex (NFC), National Mineral Development Corporation (NMDC), Bharat Electronics (BEL), Electronics Corporation of India Limited (ECIL), Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO), Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL), Centre for Cellular and Molecular Biology (CCMB), Centre for DNA Fingerprinting and Diagnostics (CDFD), State Bank of Hyderabad (SBH) and Andhra Bank (AB) were established in the city. The city is home to Hyderabad Securities formerly known as Hyderabad Stock Exchange (HSE), and houses the regional office of the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI). In 2013, the Bombay Stock Exchange (BSE) facility in Hyderabad was forecast to provide operations and transactions services to BSE-Mumbai by the end of 2014. The growth of the financial services sector has helped Hyderabad evolve from a traditional manufacturing city to a cosmopolitan industrial service centre. Since the 1990s, the growth of information technology (IT), IT-enabled services (ITES), insurance and financial institutions has expanded the service sector, and these primary economic activities have boosted the ancillary sectors of trade and commerce, transport, storage, communication, real estate and retail.
In what year was Indian Drugs and Pharmaceuticals Limited established?
572f97da947a6a140053caa2
1961
102
False
In 2010 what percentage of India's bulk pharmaceuticals were produced in Hyderabad?
572f97da947a6a140053caa3
one third
276
False
What percentage of Andhra Pradesh's IT infrastructure exports originated from Cyberabad in 2013?
572f97da947a6a140053caa4
98%
603
False
How many ITES and IT companies are located in HITEC city?
572f97da947a6a140053caa5
more than 1300
892
False
What rank within India was HITEC City given by the World Bank Group in 2009?
572f97da947a6a140053caa6
second best
1228
False
The establishment of Indian Drugs and Pharmaceuticals Limited (IDPL), a public sector undertaking, in 1961 was followed over the decades by many national and global companies opening manufacturing and research facilities in the city. As of 2010[update], the city manufactured one third of India's bulk drugs and 16% of biotechnology products, contributing to its reputation as "India's pharmaceutical capital" and the "Genome Valley of India". Hyderabad is a global centre of information technology, for which it is known as Cyberabad (Cyber City). As of 2013[update], it contributed 15% of India's and 98% of Andhra Pradesh's exports in IT and ITES sectors and 22% of NASSCOM's total membership is from the city. The development of HITEC City, a township with extensive technological infrastructure, prompted multinational companies to establish facilities in Hyderabad. The city is home to more than 1300 IT and ITES firms, including global conglomerates such as Microsoft (operating its largest R&D campus outside the US), Google, IBM, Yahoo!, Dell, Facebook,:3 and major Indian firms including Tech Mahindra, Infosys, Tata Consultancy Services (TCS), Polaris and Wipro.:3 In 2009 the World Bank Group ranked the city as the second best Indian city for doing business. The city and its suburbs contain the highest number of special economic zones of any Indian city.
What percentage of Hyderabad's employed are employed informally?
572f99a7a23a5019007fc7bf
30%
76
False
In 2007 how many street vendors did Hyderabad have?
572f99a7a23a5019007fc7c0
40–50,000
152
False
What percentage of the street vendors in Hyderabad were male in 2007?
572f99a7a23a5019007fc7c1
84%
241
False
Of the street vendors in Hyderabad what percentage owned their own stall in 2007?
572f99a7a23a5019007fc7c2
four fifths
277
False
In 2007 what percentage of street vendors in Hyderabad borrowed money to finance their operations?
572f99a7a23a5019007fc7c3
8%
427
False
Like the rest of India, Hyderabad has a large informal economy that employs 30% of the labour force.:71 According to a survey published in 2007, it had 40–50,000 street vendors, and their numbers were increasing.:9 Among the street vendors, 84% are male and 16% female,:12 and four fifths are "stationary vendors" operating from a fixed pitch, often with their own stall.:15–16 Most are financed through personal savings; only 8% borrow from moneylenders.:19 Vendor earnings vary from ₹50 (74¢ US) to ₹800 (US$12) per day.:25 Other unorganised economic sectors include dairy, poultry farming, brick manufacturing, casual labour and domestic help. Those involved in the informal economy constitute a major portion of urban poor.:71
What event pushed Hyderabad to the top of India's cultural centres?
572f9c93b2c2fd140056824b
the decline of the Mughal Empire
66
False
What major event in India in 1857 caused migration of peformance artists into Hyderabad?
572f9c93b2c2fd140056824c
the fall of Delhi
106
False
What are the official languages of Telangana?
572f9c93b2c2fd140056824d
Telugu and Urdu
581
False
Which religious group holds the Eid ul-Fitr festival in Hyderabad?
572f9c93b2c2fd140056824e
Muslims
822
False
The festival of Diwali is a tradition of what faith?
572f9c93b2c2fd140056824f
Hindu
771
False
Hyderabad emerged as the foremost centre of culture in India with the decline of the Mughal Empire. After the fall of Delhi in 1857, the migration of performing artists to the city particularly from the north and west of the Indian sub continent, under the patronage of the Nizam, enriched the cultural milieu. This migration resulted in a mingling of North and South Indian languages, cultures and religions, which has since led to a co-existence of Hindu and Muslim traditions, for which the city has become noted.:viii A further consequence of this north–south mix is that both Telugu and Urdu are official languages of Telangana. The mixing of religions has also resulted in many festivals being celebrated in Hyderabad such as Ganesh Chaturthi, Diwali and Bonalu of Hindu tradition and Eid ul-Fitr and Eid al-Adha by Muslims.
What are mushairas?
572fa631b2c2fd14005682a1
poetic symposia
216
False
Which dynasty supported the Deccani Urdu literature movement?
572fa631b2c2fd14005682a2
The Qutb Shahi dynasty
234
False
When was Lazzat Un Nisa completed?
572fa631b2c2fd14005682a3
the 15th century
477
False
At what location did Lazzat Un Nisa get compiled?
572fa631b2c2fd14005682a4
Qutb Shahi courts
497
False
Who wrote Gulzar-e-Mahlaqa?
572fa631b2c2fd14005682a5
Mah Laqa Bai
850
False
In the past, Qutb Shahi rulers and Nizams attracted artists, architects and men of letters from different parts of the world through patronage. The resulting ethnic mix popularised cultural events such as mushairas (poetic symposia). The Qutb Shahi dynasty particularly encouraged the growth of Deccani Urdu literature leading to works such as the Deccani Masnavi and Diwan poetry, which are among the earliest available manuscripts in Urdu. Lazzat Un Nisa, a book compiled in the 15th century at Qutb Shahi courts, contains erotic paintings with diagrams for secret medicines and stimulants in the eastern form of ancient sexual arts. The reign of the Nizams saw many literary reforms and the introduction of Urdu as a language of court, administration and education. In 1824, a collection of Urdu Ghazal poetry, named Gulzar-e-Mahlaqa, authored by Mah Laqa Bai—the first female Urdu poet to produce a Diwan—was published in Hyderabad.
In what year did the Hyderabad Literary Festival start?
572fa6e204bcaa1900d76b41
2010
100
False
In what year was the biggest public library in Hyderabad created?
572fa6e204bcaa1900d76b42
1891
581
False
What is the name of the largest public library in Hyderabad?
572fa6e204bcaa1900d76b43
State Central Library
493
False
What is one of the activities Telugu Academy is credited with encouraging?
572fa6e204bcaa1900d76b44
the advancement of literature
187
False
Hyderabad has continued with these traditions in its annual Hyderabad Literary Festival, held since 2010, showcasing the city's literary and cultural creativity. Organisations engaged in the advancement of literature include the Sahitya Akademi, the Urdu Academy, the Telugu Academy, the National Council for Promotion of Urdu Language, the Comparative Literature Association of India, and the Andhra Saraswata Parishad. Literary development is further aided by state institutions such as the State Central Library, the largest public library in the state which was established in 1891, and other major libraries including the Sri Krishna Devaraya Andhra Bhasha Nilayam, the British Library and the Sundarayya Vignana Kendram.
What is the Deccan region known for culturally?
572fa7a8b2c2fd14005682bf
music and dances such as the Kuchipudi and Bharatanatyam
13
False
During the rule of what two groups did dance and music from North India become popular?
572fa7a8b2c2fd14005682c0
the Mughals and Nizams
216
False
What is a tawaif?
572fa7a8b2c2fd14005682c1
courtesans
358
False
What kind of music is dholak ke geet?
572fa7a8b2c2fd14005682c2
songs based on local Folklore
761
False
What entity is responsible for the Taramati Music Festival?
572fa7a8b2c2fd14005682c3
The state government
870
False
South Indian music and dances such as the Kuchipudi and Bharatanatyam styles are popular in the Deccan region. As a result of their culture policies, North Indian music and dance gained popularity during the rule of the Mughals and Nizams, and it was also during their reign that it became a tradition among the nobility to associate themselves with tawaif (courtesans). These courtesans were revered as the epitome of etiquette and culture, and were appointed to teach singing, poetry and classical dance to many children of the aristocracy. This gave rise to certain styles of court music, dance and poetry. Besides western and Indian popular music genres such as filmi music, the residents of Hyderabad play city-based marfa music, dholak ke geet (household songs based on local Folklore), and qawwali, especially at weddings, festivals and other celebratory events. The state government organises the Golconda Music and Dance Festival, the Taramati Music Festival and the Premavathi Dance Festival to further encourage the development of music.
What type of art might one encounter at Lalithakala Thoranam?
572fa925947a6a140053cb1c
theatre and drama
48
False
What is Numaish?
572fa925947a6a140053cb1d
annual exhibition of local and national consumer products
291
False
What is a popular name for the Telugu film industry?
572fa925947a6a140053cb1e
Tollywood
455
False
Where was the Telugu film industry ranked in 2012 in India in comparison to Bollywood?
572fa925947a6a140053cb1f
second largest
502
False
What did Guinness World Records say of Ramoji Film City was in 20015?
572fa925947a6a140053cb20
world's largest film studio
881
False
Although the city is not particularly noted for theatre and drama, the state government promotes theatre with multiple programmes and festivals in such venues as the Ravindra Bharati, Shilpakala Vedika and Lalithakala Thoranam. Although not a purely music oriented event, Numaish, a popular annual exhibition of local and national consumer products, does feature some musical performances. The city is home to the Telugu film industry, popularly known as Tollywood and as of 2012[update], produces the second largest number of films in India behind Bollywood. Films in the local Hyderabadi dialect are also produced and have been gaining popularity since 2005. The city has also hosted international film festivals such as the International Children's Film Festival and the Hyderabad International Film Festival. In 2005, Guinness World Records declared Ramoji Film City to be the world's largest film studio.
Golconda is a type of what kind of painting?
572fa9b5a23a5019007fc84f
Deccani painting
94
False
In what century did Golconda painting develop?
572fa9b5a23a5019007fc850
16th century
133
False
What type of colors would one generally find in Golconda painting?
572fa9b5a23a5019007fc851
luminous gold and white
313
False
In what century did Hyderabad style painting develop?
572fa9b5a23a5019007fc852
17th century
425
False
What types of scenes does Hyderabad style painting generally contain?
572fa9b5a23a5019007fc853
regional landscape, culture, costumes and jewellery
552
False
The region is well known for its Golconda and Hyderabad painting styles which are branches of Deccani painting. Developed during the 16th century, the Golconda style is a native style blending foreign techniques and bears some similarity to the Vijayanagara paintings of neighbouring Mysore. A significant use of luminous gold and white colours is generally found in the Golconda style. The Hyderabad style originated in the 17th century under the Nizams. Highly influenced by Mughal painting, this style makes use of bright colours and mostly depicts regional landscape, culture, costumes and jewellery.
In which century did metalwork become popular in Hyderabad?
572fab7da23a5019007fc859
the 18th century
260
False
Under which act is the Geographical Indication tag granted?
572fab7da23a5019007fc85a
the WTO act
361
False
What is Zardozi an example of?
572fab7da23a5019007fc85b
embroidery works on textile
396
False
What is Kalamkari?
572fab7da23a5019007fc85c
a hand-painted or block-printed cotton textile
571
False
In what style is Kalamkari made?
572fab7da23a5019007fc85d
a Hindu style, known as Srikalahasti
703
False
Although not a centre for handicrafts itself, the patronage of the arts by the Mughals and Nizams attracted artisans from the region to Hyderabad. Such crafts include: Bidriware, a metalwork handicraft from neighbouring Karnataka, which was popularised during the 18th century and has since been granted a Geographical Indication (GI) tag under the auspices of the WTO act; and Zari and Zardozi, embroidery works on textile that involve making elaborate designs using gold, silver and other metal threads. Another example of a handicraft drawn to Hyderabad is Kalamkari, a hand-painted or block-printed cotton textile that comes from cities in Andhra Pradesh. This craft is distinguished in having both a Hindu style, known as Srikalahasti and entirely done by hand, and an Islamic style, known as Machilipatnam that uses both hand and block techniques. Examples of Hyderabad's arts and crafts are housed in various museums including the Salar Jung Museum (housing "one of the largest one-man-collections in the world"), the AP State Archaeology Museum, the Nizam Museum, the City Museum and the Birla Science Museum.
What type of foods are generally thought of as a part of Hyderabadi cuisine?
572fae0304bcaa1900d76bd7
rice, wheat and meat dishes
51
False
What is a large influence on Hyderabadi food?
572fae0304bcaa1900d76bd8
Mughlai
286
False
What is kaddu ki kheer?
572fae0304bcaa1900d76bd9
a sweet porridge made with sweet gourd
532
False
What types of cuisine are noted within Hyderabadi haleem?
572fae0304bcaa1900d76bda
Mughlai and Arab
180
False
Hyderabadi cuisine comprises a broad repertoire of rice, wheat and meat dishes and the skilled use of various spices. Hyderabadi biryani and Hyderabadi haleem, with their blend of Mughlai and Arab cuisines, have become iconic dishes of India. Hyderabadi cuisine is highly influenced by Mughlai and to some extent by French, Arabic, Turkish, Iranian and native Telugu and Marathwada cuisines. Other popular native dishes include nihari, chakna, baghara baingan and the desserts qubani ka meetha, double ka meetha and kaddu ki kheer (a sweet porridge made with sweet gourd).
When was The Deccan Times founded?
572fb05804bcaa1900d76bf1
the 1780s
77
False
What is The Deccan Chronicle?
572fb05804bcaa1900d76bf2
major English papers
220
False
What type of paper is The Siasat Daily?
572fb05804bcaa1900d76bf3
major Urdu papers
305
False
What year was the first radio station in Hyderabad formed?
572fb05804bcaa1900d76bf4
around 1919
572
False
On what date did the first public radio station in Hyderabad begin broadcasting?
572fb05804bcaa1900d76bf5
starting on 3 February 1935
655
False
One of Hyderabad's earliest newspapers, The Deccan Times, was established in the 1780s. In modern times, the major Telugu dailies published in Hyderabad are Eenadu, Andhra Jyothy, Sakshi and Namaste Telangana, while the major English papers are The Times of India, The Hindu and The Deccan Chronicle. The major Urdu papers include The Siasat Daily, The Munsif Daily and Etemaad. Many coffee table magazines, professional magazines and research journals are also regularly published. The Secunderabad Cantonment Board established the first radio station in Hyderabad State around 1919. Deccan Radio was the first radio public broadcast station in the city starting on 3 February 1935, with FM broadcasting beginning in 2000. The available channels in Hyderabad include All India Radio, Radio Mirchi, Radio City, Red FM and Big FM.
When did Doordarshan begin broadcasting in Hyderabad?
572fbe94947a6a140053cc22
1974
46
False
What satellite network began broadcasting to Hyderabad in July 1992?
572fbe94947a6a140053cc23
Star TV
295
False
In what year did the general public first get access to the internet in Hyderabad?
572fbe94947a6a140053cc24
1995
610
False
The first private company to offer Hyderabad internet service began offering it in what year?
572fbe94947a6a140053cc25
1998
701
False
What is Doordarshan?
572fbe94947a6a140053cc26
the Government of India's public service broadcaster
83
False
Television broadcasting in Hyderabad began in 1974 with the launch of Doordarshan, the Government of India's public service broadcaster, which transmits two free-to-air terrestrial television channels and one satellite channel. Private satellite channels started in July 1992 with the launch of Star TV. Satellite TV channels are accessible via cable subscription, direct-broadcast satellite services or internet-based television. Hyderabad's first dial-up internet access became available in the early 1990s and was limited to software development companies. The first public internet access service began in 1995, with the first private sector internet service provider (ISP) starting operations in 1998. In 2015, high-speed public WiFi was introduced in parts of the city.
What entity controls the schools in Hyderabad?
572fc0b5a23a5019007fc971
Central Board of Secondary Education
60
False
What percentage of students are in private schools in Hyderabad?
572fc0b5a23a5019007fc972
two-thirds
131
False
Which languages are used for teaching in the schools of Hyderabad?
572fc0b5a23a5019007fc973
English, Hindi, Telugu and Urdu
220
False
What type of educational plan does the Central Board of Secondary Education use in Hyderabad?
572fc0b5a23a5019007fc974
a "10+2+3" plan
108
False
Students in Hyderabad may be required to acquire one of two different certificates, one is  the Secondary School Certificate, what is the other?
572fc0b5a23a5019007fc975
Indian Certificate of Secondary Education
352
False
Public and private schools in Hyderabad are governed by the Central Board of Secondary Education and follow a "10+2+3" plan. About two-thirds of pupils attend privately run institutions. Languages of instruction include English, Hindi, Telugu and Urdu. Depending on the institution, students are required to sit the Secondary School Certificate or the Indian Certificate of Secondary Education. After completing secondary education, students enroll in schools or junior colleges with a higher secondary facility. Admission to professional graduation colleges in Hyderabad, many of which are affiliated with either Jawaharlal Nehru Technological University Hyderabad (JNTUH) or Osmania University (OU), is through the Engineering Agricultural and Medical Common Entrance Test (EAM-CET).
How many universities are in Hyderabad?
572fc145a23a5019007fc983
13
10
False
Of the universities in Hyderabad how many are state run?
572fc145a23a5019007fc984
six
91
False
Maulana Azad National Urdu University is a type of university that represents what type of university?
572fc145a23a5019007fc985
central universities
150
False
What year was Osmania University formed?
572fc145a23a5019007fc986
1918
327
False
In 1982 the first long distance university was opened in India, what is it's name?
572fc145a23a5019007fc987
The Dr. B. R. Ambedkar Open University
465
False
There are 13 universities in Hyderabad: two private universities, two deemed universities, six state universities and three central universities. The central universities are the University of Hyderabad, Maulana Azad National Urdu University and the English and Foreign Languages University. Osmania University, established in 1918, was the first university in Hyderabad and as of 2012[update] is India's second most popular institution for international students. The Dr. B. R. Ambedkar Open University, established in 1982, is the first distance learning open university in India.
How many medical schools are in Hyderabad?
572fc1c904bcaa1900d76c87
five
281
False
What type of medicine is taught at The Government Nizamia Tibbi College?
572fc1c904bcaa1900d76c88
Unani medicine
565
False
What non-profit cardiovascular educational association is headquartered in Hyderabad?
572fc1c904bcaa1900d76c89
Indian Heart Association
623
False
Hyderabad is also home to a number of centres specialising in particular fields such as biomedical sciences, biotechnology and pharmaceuticals, such as the National Institute of Pharmaceutical Education and Research (NIPER) and National Institute of Nutrition (NIN). Hyderabad has five major medical schools—Osmania Medical College, Gandhi Medical College, Nizam's Institute of Medical Sciences, Deccan College of Medical Sciences and Shadan Institute of Medical Sciences—and many affiliated teaching hospitals. The Government Nizamia Tibbi College is a college of Unani medicine. Hyderabad is also the headquarters of the Indian Heart Association, a non-profit foundation for cardiovascular education.
What type of school is Raffles Millennium International?
572fc292b2c2fd140056840b
fashion design
710
False
What is the school otherwise known as IIT-H?
572fc292b2c2fd140056840c
Indian Institute of Technology, Hyderabad
443
False
There is a research institute in Hyderabad known as ICRISAT, what does the acronym represent?
572fc292b2c2fd140056840d
International Crops Research Institute for the Semi-Arid Tropics
552
False
What type of is Wigan and Leigh College?
572fc292b2c2fd140056840e
fashion design
710
False
Institutes in Hyderabad include the National Institute of Rural Development, the Indian School of Business, the Institute of Public Enterprise, the Administrative Staff College of India and the Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel National Police Academy. Technical and engineering schools include the International Institute of Information Technology, Hyderabad (IIITH), Birla Institute of Technology and Science, Pilani – Hyderabad (BITS Hyderabad) and Indian Institute of Technology, Hyderabad (IIT-H) as well as agricultural engineering institutes such as the International Crops Research Institute for the Semi-Arid Tropics (ICRISAT) and the Acharya N. G. Ranga Agricultural University. Hyderabad also has schools of fashion design including Raffles Millennium International, NIFT Hyderabad and Wigan and Leigh College. The National Institute of Design, Hyderabad (NID-H), will offer undergraduate and postgraduate courses from 2015.
Two of the most popular sports played in Hyderabad include association football, what is the other?
572fc34fb2c2fd1400568413
cricket
48
False
What two world championships were held in Hyderabad in 2009?
572fc34fb2c2fd1400568414
the 2009 World Badminton Championships and the 2009 IBSF World Snooker Championship
332
False
What sport is played at the Swarnandhra Pradesh Sports Complex?
572fc34fb2c2fd1400568415
field hockey
540
False
Where is the G.M.C. Balayohi Stadium located?
572fc34fb2c2fd1400568416
Gachibowli
587
False
What is the home stadium of the Hyderabad cricket association?
572fc34fb2c2fd1400568417
Rajiv Gandhi International Cricket Stadium
679
False
The most popular sports played in Hyderabad are cricket and association football. At the professional level, the city has hosted national and international sports events such as the 2002 National Games of India, the 2003 Afro-Asian Games, the 2004 AP Tourism Hyderabad Open women's tennis tournament, the 2007 Military World Games, the 2009 World Badminton Championships and the 2009 IBSF World Snooker Championship. The city hosts a number of venues suitable for professional competition such as the Swarnandhra Pradesh Sports Complex for field hockey, the G. M. C. Balayogi Stadium in Gachibowli for athletics and football, and for cricket, the Lal Bahadur Shastri Stadium and Rajiv Gandhi International Cricket Stadium, home ground of the Hyderabad Cricket Association. Hyderabad has hosted many international cricket matches, including matches in the 1987 and the 1996 ICC Cricket World Cups. The Hyderabad cricket team represents the city in the Ranji Trophy—a first-class cricket tournament among India's states and cities. Hyderabad is also home to the Indian Premier League franchise Sunrisers Hyderabad. A previous franchise was the Deccan Chargers, which won the 2009 Indian Premier League held in South Africa.
At what time was Secunderabad an important sport center?
572fc3f3947a6a140053cc76
During British rule
0
False
What type of racing is the Hyderabad Race Club popular for?
572fc3f3947a6a140053cc77
horse racing
291
False
What organization holds the TSD Rally?
572fc3f3947a6a140053cc78
Andhra Pradesh Motor Sports Club
415
False
Under whom did the Secunderabad Club and the Nizam Club form?
572fc3f3947a6a140053cc79
the Nizams and the British
166
False
Which annual derby is held at the Hyderabad Race Club?
572fc3f3947a6a140053cc7a
Deccan derby
326
False
During British rule, Secunderabad became a well-known sporting centre and many race courses, parade grounds and polo fields were built.:18 Many elite clubs formed by the Nizams and the British such as the Secunderabad Club, the Nizam Club and the Hyderabad Race Club, which is known for its horse racing especially the annual Deccan derby, still exist. In more recent times, motorsports has become popular with the Andhra Pradesh Motor Sports Club organising popular events such as the Deccan ¼ Mile Drag, TSD Rallies and 4x4 off-road rallying.
Ghulam Ahmed and Shivlal Yadav are what kind of sportsmen?
572fc4f204bcaa1900d76cd5
cricketers
57
False
What sport does Sania Mirza play?
572fc4f204bcaa1900d76cd6
tennis
282
False
Gagan Narang does what sporting activity?
572fc4f204bcaa1900d76cd7
rifle shooters
468
False
Who is a notable bodybuilder from Hyderabad?
572fc4f204bcaa1900d76cd8
Mir Mohtesham Ali Khan
528
False
Pullela Gopichand and Saina Nehwal are known in Hyderabad for being what?
572fc4f204bcaa1900d76cd9
badminton players
309
False
International-level sportspeople from Hyderabad include: cricketers Ghulam Ahmed, M. L. Jaisimha, Mohammed Azharuddin, V. V. S. Laxman, Venkatapathy Raju, Shivlal Yadav, Arshad Ayub, Syed Abid Ali and Noel David; football players Syed Abdul Rahim, Syed Nayeemuddin and Shabbir Ali; tennis player Sania Mirza; badminton players S. M. Arif, Pullela Gopichand, Saina Nehwal, P. V. Sindhu, Jwala Gutta and Chetan Anand; hockey players Syed Mohammad Hadi and Mukesh Kumar; rifle shooters Gagan Narang and Asher Noria and bodybuilder Mir Mohtesham Ali Khan.
What type of transport that is not government owned is commonly used in Hyderabad?
572fc58204bcaa1900d76cdf
taxis and auto rickshaws
169
False
How many people are carried each day by the bus service network in Hyderabad?
572fc58204bcaa1900d76ce0
130 million
286
False
What is the light rail system in Hyderabad known as?
572fc58204bcaa1900d76ce1
Multi-Modal Transport System (MMTS)
395
False
How many passengers use the Hyderabad light rail system each day?
572fc58204bcaa1900d76ce2
160,000
483
False
What is Setwin otherwise known as?
572fc58204bcaa1900d76ce3
Society for Employment Promotion & Training in Twin Cities
588
False
The most commonly used forms of medium distance transport in Hyderabad include government owned services such as light railways and buses, as well as privately operated taxis and auto rickshaws. Bus services operate from the Mahatma Gandhi Bus Station in the city centre and carry over 130 million passengers daily across the entire network.:76 Hyderabad's light rail transportation system, the Multi-Modal Transport System (MMTS), is a three line suburban rail service used by over 160,000 passengers daily. Complementing these government services are minibus routes operated by Setwin (Society for Employment Promotion & Training in Twin Cities). Intercity rail services also operate from Hyderabad; the main, and largest, station is Secunderabad Railway Station, which serves as Indian Railways' South Central Railway zone headquarters and a hub for both buses and MMTS light rail services connecting Secunderabad and Hyderabad. Other major railway stations in Hyderabad are Hyderabad Deccan Station, Kachiguda Railway Station, Begumpet Railway Station, Malkajgiri Railway Station and Lingampally Railway Station. The Hyderabad Metro, a new rapid transit system, is to be added to the existing public transport infrastructure and is scheduled to operate three lines by 2015.
In 2012 how many vehicles were driving in Hyderabad?
572fc652a23a5019007fc9cb
3.5 million
35
False
What percentage of the vehicles in Hyderabad were cars in 2012?
572fc652a23a5019007fc9cc
15%
110
False
What percentage of Hyderabad city was covered by roads in 2012?
572fc652a23a5019007fc9cd
9.5%
289
False
In 2012 what percentage of Hyderabad freight was moved by road?
572fc652a23a5019007fc9ce
60%
400
False
What is the maximum speed for buses in Hyderabad?
572fc652a23a5019007fc9cf
40 km/h (25 mph)
762
False
As of 2012[update], there are over 3.5 million vehicles operating in the city, of which 74% are two-wheelers, 15% cars and 3% three-wheelers. The remaining 8% include buses, goods vehicles and taxis. The large number of vehicles coupled with relatively low road coverage—roads occupy only 9.5% of the total city area:79—has led to widespread traffic congestion especially since 80% of passengers and 60% of freight are transported by road.:3 The Inner Ring Road, the Outer Ring Road, the Hyderabad Elevated Expressway, the longest flyover in India, and various interchanges, overpasses and underpasses were built to ease the congestion. Maximum speed limits within the city are 50 km/h (31 mph) for two-wheelers and cars, 35 km/h (22 mph) for auto rickshaws and 40 km/h (25 mph) for light commercial vehicles and buses.
How many national highways form a junction in Hyderabad?
572fc6fbb2c2fd1400568451
three
34
False
How many states are linked to from highways in Hyderabad?
572fc6fbb2c2fd1400568452
six
72
False
How many miles long is NH-7?
572fc6fbb2c2fd1400568453
1,472 mi
110
False
How many state highways pass through or begin in Hyderabad?
572fc6fbb2c2fd1400568454
Five
418
False
What road connects Hyderabad to Bhopalpatnam?
572fc6fbb2c2fd1400568455
NH-163
328
False
Hyderabad sits at the junction of three National Highways linking it to six other states: NH-7 runs 2,369 km (1,472 mi) from Varanasi, Uttar Pradesh, in the north to Kanyakumari, Tamil Nadu, in the south; NH-9, runs 841 km (523 mi) east-west between Machilipatnam, Andhra Pradesh, and Pune, Maharashtra; and the 280 km (174 mi) NH-163 links Hyderabad to Bhopalpatnam, Chhattisgarh NH-765 links Hyderabad to Srisailam. Five state highways, SH-1, SH-2, SH-4, SH-5 and SH-6, either start from, or pass through, Hyderabad.:58
Santa_Monica,_California
What type of city is Santa Monica?
572f1aaecb0c0d14000f1772
beachfront
18
False
What part of Los Angeles County is it located in?
572f1aaecb0c0d14000f1773
western
37
False
What is Santa Monica named after?
572f1aaecb0c0d14000f1774
Christian saint, Monica
120
False
Approximately how many residents of Santa Monica rent their property?
572f1aaecb0c0d14000f1775
two-thirds
531
False
What was the population in 2010 according to the Census Bureau?
572f1aaecb0c0d14000f1776
89,736
641
False
89,736
641
How many renters are there in Santa Monica?
5a2d5130f28ef0001a52646d
True
Brentwood
266
What lies to the west of Santa Monica?
5a2d5130f28ef0001a52646e
True
89,736
641
How many condominiums are there in Santa Monica?
5a2d5130f28ef0001a52646f
True
89,736
641
What's the population of Brentwood?
5a2d5130f28ef0001a526470
True
beachfront
18
What type of city is Pacific Palisades?
5a2d5130f28ef0001a526471
True
Santa Monica is a beachfront city in western Los Angeles County, California, United States. The city is named after the Christian saint, Monica. Situated on Santa Monica Bay, it is bordered on three sides by the city of Los Angeles – Pacific Palisades to the north, Brentwood on the northeast, Sawtelle on the east, Mar Vista on the southeast, and Venice on the south. Santa Monica is well known for its affluent single-family neighborhoods but also has many neighborhoods consisting primarily of condominiums and apartments. Over two-thirds of Santa Monica's residents are renters. The Census Bureau population for Santa Monica in 2010 was 89,736.
What did indigenous people that lived in Santa Monica call it previously?
572f1c7da23a5019007fc491
Kecheek
78
False
What was the local population called indigenous to the Santa Monica Area?
572f1c7da23a5019007fc492
Tongva
39
False
What was the first explorers name that came in contact with the natives?
572f1c7da23a5019007fc493
Gaspar de Portolà
191
False
What day is the Santa Monica Feast held on?
572f1c7da23a5019007fc494
May 4
493
False
What date did the explorer reach Santa Monica?
572f1c7da23a5019007fc495
August 3, 1769
289
False
Tongva
93
What language did Gaspar de Portola speak?
5a2d5213f28ef0001a526477
True
1769
299
In what year was Ohio Avenue first laid down?
5a2d5213f28ef0001a526478
True
August 3, 1769
289
On what date did Saint Monica die?
5a2d5213f28ef0001a526479
True
1769
299
In what year did Juan Crespi visit the area that Santa Monica is now in?
5a2d5213f28ef0001a52647a
True
Tongva
39
What language did Juan Crespi speak?
5a2d5213f28ef0001a52647b
True
Santa Monica was long inhabited by the Tongva people. Santa Monica was called Kecheek in the Tongva language. The first non-indigenous group to set foot in the area was the party of explorer Gaspar de Portolà, who camped near the present day intersection of Barrington and Ohio Avenues on August 3, 1769. There are two different versions of the naming of the city. One says that it was named in honor of the feast day of Saint Monica (mother of Saint Augustine), but her feast day is actually May 4. Another version says that it was named by Juan Crespí on account of a pair of springs, the Kuruvungna Springs (Serra Springs), that were reminiscent of the tears that Saint Monica shed over her son's early impiety.
What ethic group grew in the 20th century?
572f2049a23a5019007fc4a1
Asian
62
False
What type of Village was located on the Long Wharf?
572f2049a23a5019007fc4a2
Japanese fishing
122
False
What other ethic minority did white american's treat poorly?
572f2049a23a5019007fc4a3
Chinese
414
False
How many ethnic minorities were looked at differently in Santa Monica?
572f2049a23a5019007fc4a4
two
263
False
What role did the fishing village play in Santa Monica?
572f2049a23a5019007fc4a5
economic part
471
False
20th century
24
In what century did White Americans start living in Santa Monica?
5a2d535af28ef0001a526481
True
condescending
388
How did Japanese people treat Chinese people in Santa Monica?
5a2d535af28ef0001a526482
True
Venice
112
In what city is the Long Wharf?
5a2d535af28ef0001a526483
True
Santa Monica
234
In what city did more Chinese people live?
5a2d535af28ef0001a526484
True
20th century
24
In what century was the Santa Monica Bay community established?
5a2d535af28ef0001a526485
True
Around the start of the 20th century, a growing population of Asian Americans lived in or near Santa Monica and Venice. A Japanese fishing village was located near the Long Wharf while small numbers of Chinese lived or worked in both Santa Monica and Venice. The two ethnic minorities were often viewed differently by White Americans who were often well-disposed towards the Japanese but condescending towards the Chinese. The Japanese village fishermen were an integral economic part of the Santa Monica Bay community.
Who built a plant in Clover field?
572f21e6b2c2fd1400567f3d
Donald Wills Douglas, Sr
0
False
What company was the structure at Clover Field for?
572f21e6b2c2fd1400567f3e
Douglas Aircraft
95
False
What did Clover Field built airplanes attempt the first of?
572f21e6b2c2fd1400567f3f
aerial circumnavigation of the world
204
False
The Douglas Company had facilities in Santa Monica through what decade?
572f21e6b2c2fd1400567f40
1960s
509
False
How Many Planes returned from the circumnavigation in 1924?
572f21e6b2c2fd1400567f41
Two
242
False
1922
43
In what year was Donald Wills Douglas, Sr. born?
5a2d5455f28ef0001a52648b
True
200,000
393
How many people worked for the Douglas Company?
5a2d5455f28ef0001a52648c
True
1924
124
In what year was the Douglas Company renamed as McDonnell Douglas?
5a2d5455f28ef0001a52648d
True
Donald Wills Douglas, Sr
0
Who was one of the pilots that flew four Douglas-built planes attempting the first aerial circumnavigation of the world?
5a2d5455f28ef0001a52648e
True
1960s
509
In what decade did Donald Wills Douglas, Jr. die?
5a2d5455f28ef0001a52648f
True
Donald Wills Douglas, Sr. built a plant in 1922 at Clover Field (Santa Monica Airport) for the Douglas Aircraft Company. In 1924, four Douglas-built planes took off from Clover Field to attempt the first aerial circumnavigation of the world. Two planes made it back, after having covered 27,553 miles (44,342 km) in 175 days, and were greeted on their return September 23, 1924, by a crowd of 200,000 (generously estimated). The Douglas Company (later McDonnell Douglas) kept facilities in the city until the 1960s.
What brought on the Douglas business's company growth?
572f332ba23a5019007fc4d9
World War II
57
False
How many people did the company employ in 1943?
572f332ba23a5019007fc4da
44,000
92
False
The company used camouflage from what designers?
572f332ba23a5019007fc4db
Warner Brothers Studios
167
False
What was the camouflage designed to do?
572f332ba23a5019007fc4dc
defend against air attack
118
False
What company started as a project in 1945?
572f332ba23a5019007fc4dd
RAND
266
False
44,000
92
How many people worked for Warner Brothers Studio?
5a2d54d8f28ef0001a526495
True
1945
328
In what year was the Douglas Company founded?
5a2d54d8f28ef0001a526496
True
1943
109
In what year did World War II end?
5a2d54d8f28ef0001a526497
True
15-acre
422
How big was Warner Brother Studios' campus?
5a2d54d8f28ef0001a526498
True
44,000
92
How many people were employed by RAND?
5a2d54d8f28ef0001a526499
True
Douglas's business grew astronomically with the onset of World War II, employing as many as 44,000 people in 1943. To defend against air attack set designers from the Warner Brothers Studios prepared elaborate camouflage that disguised the factory and airfield. The RAND Corporation began as a project of the Douglas Company in 1945, and spun off into an independent think tank on May 14, 1948. RAND eventually acquired a 15-acre (61,000 m²) campus centrally located between the Civic Center and the pier entrance.
What year was the Sanat Monica Pier buildt?
572f384404bcaa1900d76793
1909
131
False
What historic landmark is located on the Pier?
572f384404bcaa1900d76794
Looff Hippodrome
17
False
La Monica Ballroom used to be what type of ballroom in the United States?
572f384404bcaa1900d76795
largest
185
False
Where were the Academy Awards held in the 1960's?
572f384404bcaa1900d76796
Santa Monica Civic Auditorium
284
False
What place is still considered a prominent acoustic performance area?
572f384404bcaa1900d76797
McCabe's Guitar Shop
407
False
1909
131
In what year was the Santa Monica Looff Hippodrome built?
5a2d5683f28ef0001a52649f
True
1960s
400
In what decade was the Santa Monica Civic Auditorium built?
5a2d5683f28ef0001a5264a0
True
1909
131
In what year was the California Heritage Museum established?
5a2d5683f28ef0001a5264a1
True
Bergamot Station
500
In what building is the Angels Attic dollhouse?
5a2d5683f28ef0001a5264a2
True
1909
131
In what year was the toy museum built?
5a2d5683f28ef0001a5264a3
True
The Santa Monica Looff Hippodrome (carousel) is a National Historic Landmark. It sits on the Santa Monica Pier, which was built in 1909. The La Monica Ballroom on the pier was once the largest ballroom in the US and the source for many New Year's Eve national network broadcasts. The Santa Monica Civic Auditorium was an important music venue for several decades and hosted the Academy Awards in the 1960s. McCabe's Guitar Shop is still a leading acoustic performance space as well as retail outlet. Bergamot Station is a city-owned art gallery compound that includes the Santa Monica Museum of Art. The city is also home to the California Heritage Museum and the Angels Attic dollhouse and toy museum.
The Third Street Promenade is located in what part of Santa Monica?
572f3a0e947a6a140053c7f8
Downtown District
4
False
How large is the Third Street Promenade?
572f3a0e947a6a140053c7f9
three blocks
134
False
What is Third Street access shut off from?
572f3a0e947a6a140053c7fa
vehicles
268
False
What two major department stores are located at the Third Street Promenade?
572f3a0e947a6a140053c7fb
Bloomingdale's and Nordstrom
403
False
What year did the mall reopen?
572f3a0e947a6a140053c7fc
2010
582
False
three blocks
134
How long is Wilshire Blvd.?
5a2d5706f28ef0001a5264a9
True
2010
582
In what year was Third Street closed to vehicles?
5a2d5706f28ef0001a5264aa
True
2010
582
In what year did Nordstrom open its store?
5a2d5706f28ef0001a5264ab
True
Bloomingdale's
403
What's at the north end of the Promenade?
5a2d5706f28ef0001a5264ac
True
three blocks
134
How long is Broadway?
5a2d5706f28ef0001a5264ad
True
The Downtown District is the home of the Third Street Promenade, a major outdoor pedestrian-only shopping district that stretches for three blocks between Wilshire Blvd. and Broadway (not the same Broadway in downtown and south Los Angeles). Third Street is closed to vehicles for those three blocks to allow people to stroll, congregate, shop and enjoy street performers. Santa Monica Place, featuring Bloomingdale's and Nordstrom in a three-level outdoor environment, is located at the south end of the Promenade. After a period of redevelopment, the mall reopened in the fall of 2010 as a modern shopping, entertainment and dining complex with more outdoor space.
What event does the Chamber of commerce host in the fall?
572f3b8b947a6a140053c802
The Taste of Santa Monica
54
False
Where is the Taste of Santa Monica held each year?
572f3b8b947a6a140053c803
Santa Monica Pier
87
False
What can visitors do at the Taste of Santa Monica?
572f3b8b947a6a140053c804
sample food and drinks
119
False
Who provides the guests with these samples at the event?
572f3b8b947a6a140053c805
Santa Monica restaurants
147
False
What hotel offers a trip to the famer's market to influence dinner?
572f3b8b947a6a140053c806
The swanky Shutters
337
False
fall
6
In what season is the Business and Consumer Expo?
5a2d57bef28ef0001a5264b3
True
fall
6
In what season is the State of the City held?
5a2d57bef28ef0001a5264b4
True
fall
6
The Sustainable Quality Awards is held in what season?
5a2d57bef28ef0001a5264b5
True
Shutters on the Beach Hotel
348
What's one of the restaurants that is part of The Taste of Santa Monica?
5a2d57bef28ef0001a5264b6
True
Santa Monica Pier
87
Where is the Santa Monica Cares Health and Wellness Festival held?
5a2d57bef28ef0001a5264b7
True
Every fall the Santa Monica Chamber of Commerce hosts The Taste of Santa Monica on the Santa Monica Pier. Visitors can sample food and drinks from Santa Monica restaurants. Other annual events include the Business and Consumer Expo, Sustainable Quality Awards, Santa Monica Cares Health and Wellness Festival, and the State of the City. The swanky Shutters on the Beach Hotel offers a trip to the famous Santa Monica Farmers Market to select and influence the materials that will become that evening's special "Market Dinner."
Roughly how many days of sunshine does Santa Monica get annually?
572f3f8f04bcaa1900d767cd
310
98
False
What USDA hardiness zone is Santa Monica located in?
572f3f8f04bcaa1900d767ce
11a
170
False
What commonly occurs on the mornings in May?
572f3f8f04bcaa1900d767cf
fog
255
False
What have locals coined the morning time in May?
572f3f8f04bcaa1900d767d0
"May Gray"
486
False
What is the beach temperature in Fahrenheit during the summer ?
572f3f8f04bcaa1900d767d1
5 to 10 degrees
1050
False
morning fog
247
What type of weather is common in April?
5a2d593cf28ef0001a5264bd
True
10 degrees Fahrenheit
1055
What's the average temperature during the summer at night in Santa Monica?
5a2d593cf28ef0001a5264be
True
5
1050
What the average temperature in winter in fahrenheit?
5a2d593cf28ef0001a5264bf
True
310 days
98
How many days is it foggy in Santa Monica each year?
5a2d593cf28ef0001a5264c0
True
310 days
98
How many days each year is is the beach area overcast?
5a2d593cf28ef0001a5264c1
True
Classified as a Subtropical Mediterranean climate (Köppen Csb), Santa Monica enjoys an average of 310 days of sunshine a year. It is located in USDA plant hardiness zone 11a. Because of its location, nestled on the vast and open Santa Monica Bay, morning fog is a common phenomenon in May, June and early July (caused by ocean temperature variations and currents). Like other inhabitants of the greater Los Angeles area, residents have a particular terminology for this phenomenon: the "May Gray" and the "June Gloom". Overcast skies are common during June mornings, but usually the strong sun burns the fog off by noon. In the late winter/early summer, daily fog is a phenomenon too. It happens suddenly and it may last some hours or past sunset time. Nonetheless, it will sometimes stay cloudy and cool all day during June, even as other parts of the Los Angeles area enjoy sunny skies and warmer temperatures. At times, the sun can be shining east of 20th Street, while the beach area is overcast. As a general rule, the beach temperature is from 5 to 10 degrees Fahrenheit (3 to 6 degrees Celsius) cooler than it is inland during summer days, and 5–10 degrees warmer during winter nights.
In what two years were the first Sustainable City Plan's introduced?
572f417d04bcaa1900d767df
1992 and in 1994
140
False
Water conservation policies have been adopted by what two sectors?
572f417d04bcaa1900d767e0
public and private
320
False
What percent of the city's public work's vehicles use alternate fuels?
572f417d04bcaa1900d767e1
Eighty-two
404
False
What percent of the bus systems use alternate fuels?
572f417d04bcaa1900d767e2
100%
506
False
What company provides the city with natural gas?
572f417d04bcaa1900d767e3
Redeem
668
False
1994
152
In what year did Santa Monica convert almost 100% of its municipal bus system to alternative fuels?
5a2d5a8af28ef0001a5264c7
True
1992
140
In what year was Redeem founded?
5a2d5a8af28ef0001a5264c8
True
Santa Monica
0
In what city is Redeem headquartered?
5a2d5a8af28ef0001a5264c9
True
Santa Monica
0
In what city is the organic landwill that Redeem obtains its non-fracked methane biogas?
5a2d5a8af28ef0001a5264ca
True
1992
140
How many city public works vehicles are there in total in Santa Monica?
5a2d5a8af28ef0001a5264cb
True
Santa Monica is one of the most environmentally activist municipalities in the nation. The city first proposed its Sustainable City Plan in 1992 and in 1994, was one of the first cities in the nation to formally adopt a comprehensive sustainability plan, setting waste reduction and water conservation policies for both public and private sector through its Office of Sustainability and the Environment. Eighty-two percent of the city's public works vehicles now run on alternative fuels, including nearly 100% of the municipal bus system, making it among the largest such fleets in the country. Santa Monica fleet vehicles and Buses now source their natural gas from Redeem, a Southern California-based supplier of renewable and sustainable natural gas obtained from non-fracked methane biogas generated from organic landfill waste.
What is the name of the urban runoff facility?
572f435f947a6a140053c828
(SMURFF)
25
False
How many gallons of water does (SMURFF) treat every week?
572f435f947a6a140053c829
3.5 million
87
False
Santa Monica plans on water independence by what year?
572f435f947a6a140053c82a
2020
554
False
How much money do residents get back for participating in water conservation per square foot?
572f435f947a6a140053c82b
$1.50
669
False
If (SMURFF) did not collect water where would it go?
572f435f947a6a140053c82c
into the bay
167
False
$1.50
669
How much does SMURFF charge per gallon for its gray water?
5a2d5be4f28ef0001a5264d1
True
3.5 million US gallons
87
How much rainwater falls in Santa Monica each week?
5a2d5be4f28ef0001a5264d2
True
3.5 million US gallons
87
How much water is used by water intensive lawns each week?
5a2d5be4f28ef0001a5264d3
True
2020
554
What's the establishment year for the Sustainable Water Master Plan?
5a2d5be4f28ef0001a5264d4
True
3.5 million US gallons
87
How much water a week is used by local drought-tolerant gardens?
5a2d5be4f28ef0001a5264d5
True
An urban runoff facility (SMURFF), the first of its kind in the US, catches and treats 3.5 million US gallons (13,000 m3) of water each week that would otherwise flow into the bay via storm-drains and sells it back to end-users within the city for reuse as gray-water, while bio-swales throughout the city allow rainwater to percolate into and replenish the groundwater supply. The groundwater supply in turn plays an important role in the city's Sustainable Water Master Plan, whereby Santa Monica has set a goal of attaining 100% water independence by 2020. The city has numerous programs designed to promote water conservation among residents, including a rebate of $1.50 per square foot for those who convert water intensive lawns to more local drought-tolerant gardens that require less water.
What year does the city plan on having a bicycle infrastructure?
572f457104bcaa1900d767fb
2030
158
False
The city's bus system is being over hauled to work with what other program?
572f457104bcaa1900d767fc
Expo Line
645
False
The city has two bike Action Plans of how many years?
572f457104bcaa1900d767fd
5-year and 20
50
False
What percentages does the city Bike transportation mode's target?
572f457104bcaa1900d767fe
14 to 35%
111
False
What type of business certification do they plan on expanding?
572f457104bcaa1900d767ff
green
519
False
2030
158
In what year will the Expo Line be opened?
5a2d5caff28ef0001a5264db
True
2030
158
In what year is the urban forest initiative expected to meet its goal?
5a2d5caff28ef0001a5264dc
True
20 year
61
For how long has Santa Monica had curbside recycling?
5a2d5caff28ef0001a5264dd
True
35%
117
What percentage of yard-waste is recycled?
5a2d5caff28ef0001a5264de
True
14 to 35%
111
In what percentage range is trash put into recycle bins?
5a2d5caff28ef0001a5264df
True
The city is also in the process of implementing a 5-year and 20 year Bike Action Plan with a goal of attaining 14 to 35% bicycle transportation mode share by 2030 through the installation of enhanced bicycle infrastructure throughout the city. Other environmentally focused initiatives include curbside recycling, curbside composting bins (in addition to trash, yard-waste, and recycle bins), farmers' markets, community gardens, garden-share, an urban forest initiative, a hazardous materials home-collection service, green business certification, and a municipal bus system which is currently being revamped to integrate with the soon-to-open Expo Line.
What was the total average family size?
5730283fa23a5019007fceb1
2.79
661
False
What percent of households were made of one person?
5730283fa23a5019007fceb2
48.4%
430
False
What percent of households had someone over 65 living in it?
5730283fa23a5019007fceb3
11.8%
476
False
Roughly how many same-sex couples were there?
5730283fa23a5019007fceb4
416
358
False
What percent of household have children under 18?
5730283fa23a5019007fceb5
16.7%
50
False
7,835
43
How many people under 18 are there in Santa Monica?
5a2d5d6df28ef0001a5264e5
True
46,917
11
How many people under 65 are there in Santa Monica?
5a2d5d6df28ef0001a5264e6
True
416
358
How many same-sex female married couples are there?
5a2d5d6df28ef0001a5264e7
True
1.87
573
What is the average household size for those 65 and older?
5a2d5d6df28ef0001a5264e8
True
2.79
661
What is the average family size for same-sex married couples?
5a2d5d6df28ef0001a5264e9
True
There were 46,917 households, out of which 7,835 (16.7%) had children under the age of 18 living in them, 13,092 (27.9%) were opposite-sex married couples living together, 3,510 (7.5%) had a female householder with no husband present, 1,327 (2.8%) had a male householder with no wife present. There were 2,867 (6.1%) unmarried opposite-sex partnerships, and 416 (0.9%) same-sex married couples or partnerships. 22,716 households (48.4%) were made up of individuals and 5,551 (11.8%) had someone living alone who was 65 years of age or older. The average household size was 1.87. There were 17,929 families (38.2% of all households); the average family size was 2.79.
How many citizen's were in the year 2000 census?
57302968a23a5019007fcec5
84,084
36
False
How many urban families were there?
57302968a23a5019007fcec6
16,775
74
False
What is the population density per square mile?
57302968a23a5019007fcec7
10,178.7
129
False
What percent in the 2000 census had persons under the age of 18?
57302968a23a5019007fcec8
15.8%
568
False
From 2000 what was the average family size?
57302968a23a5019007fcec9
2.80
922
False
44,497
51
How many children under the age of 18 live in Santa Monica?
5a2d5e54f28ef0001a5264ef
True
2.80
922
What's the average family size for Latino's?
5a2d5e54f28ef0001a5264f0
True
1.83
886
What's the average household size for Pacific Islander's?
5a2d5e54f28ef0001a5264f1
True
2,237.3/km²
262
How big is Santa Monica in regards to land space?
5a2d5e54f28ef0001a5264f2
True
7.5%
652
What population percentage is male householder with no wife present?
5a2d5e54f28ef0001a5264f3
True
As of the census of 2000, there are 84,084 people, 44,497 households, and 16,775 families in the city. The population density is 10,178.7 inhabitants per square mile (3,930.4/km²). There are 47,863 housing units at an average density of 5,794.0 per square mile (2,237.3/km²). The racial makeup of the city is 78.29% White, 7.25% Asian, 3.78% African American, 0.47% Native American, 0.10% Pacific Islander, 5.97% from other races, and 4.13% from two or more races. 13.44% of the population are Hispanic or Latino of any race. There are 44,497 households, out of which 15.8% have children under the age of 18, 27.5% are married couples living together, 7.5% have a female householder with no husband present, and 62.3% are non-families. 51.2% of all households are made up of individuals and 10.6% have someone living alone who is 65 years of age or older. The average household size is 1.83 and the average family size is 2.80.
What year was the Santa Monica junior college founded?
57302bd0a23a5019007fceed
1929
63
False
How many acres of land is the Santa Monica Junior College?
57302bd0a23a5019007fceee
35
149
False
By what area is the Art institute in Santa Monica?
57302bd0a23a5019007fceef
Airport
448
False
There are a plethora of colleges and universities within what radius of Santa Monica?
57302bd0a23a5019007fcef0
22-mile
492
False
How many students enroll to the SMC annually?
57302bd0a23a5019007fcef1
30,000
184
False
1929
63
In what year was the Frederick S. Pardee RAND Graduate School established?
5a2d5f04f28ef0001a5264f9
True
35 acres
149
How many acres is the Frederick S. Pardee RAND Graduate School  campus?
5a2d5f04f28ef0001a5264fa
True
30,000 students annually
184
How many students attend the Frederick S. Pardee RAND Graduate School?
5a2d5f04f28ef0001a5264fb
True
35 acres
149
What's the campus size of The Art Institute of California - Los Angeles?
5a2d5f04f28ef0001a5264fc
True
30,000 students annually
184
How many students attend the Emperor's College of Traditional Oriental Medicine?
5a2d5f04f28ef0001a5264fd
True
Santa Monica College is a junior college originally founded in 1929. Many SMC graduates transfer to the University of California system. It occupies 35 acres (14 hectares) and enrolls 30,000 students annually. The Frederick S. Pardee RAND Graduate School, associated with the RAND Corporation, is the U.S.'s largest producer of public policy PhDs. The Art Institute of California – Los Angeles is also located in Santa Monica near the Santa Monica Airport. Universities and colleges within a 22-mile (35 km) radius from Santa Monica include Santa Monica College, Antioch University Los Angeles, Loyola Marymount University, Mount St. Mary's College, Pepperdine University, California State University, Northridge, California State University, Los Angeles, UCLA, USC, West Los Angeles College, California Institute of Technology (Caltech), Occidental College (Oxy), Los Angeles City College, Los Angeles Southwest College, Los Angeles Valley College, and Emperor's College of Traditional Oriental Medicine.
What plan launched a Bicycle sharing system?
57302e1c947a6a140053d224
bike action
19
False
When was Santa Monica's Bicycle sharing system launched?
57302e1c947a6a140053d225
November 2015
86
False
What is the name of the bike trail that goes through Santa Monica?
57302e1c947a6a140053d226
Marvin Braude
130
False
When was the most recent Bicycle Friendly Community Award given to Santa Monica?
57302e1c947a6a140053d227
2013
246
False
What other year did Santa Monica receive the Bicycle Friendly Community award?
57302e1c947a6a140053d228
2009
230
False
2015
95
When was the Marvin Braude Bike Trail built?
5a2d5fa3f28ef0001a526503
True
November
86
In what month in 2009 did Santa Monica receive the Bronze Bicycle Friendly Community Award?
5a2d5fa3f28ef0001a526504
True
2013
246
In what year was the League of American Bicyclists founded?
5a2d5fa3f28ef0001a526505
True
Los Angeles
378
Where is the headquarters for the League of American Bicyclists?
5a2d5fa3f28ef0001a526506
True
Marvin Braude
130
Who was the founder of the League of American Bicyclists?
5a2d5fa3f28ef0001a526507
True
Santa Monica has a bike action plan and recently launched a Bicycle sharing system in November 2015. The city is traversed by the Marvin Braude Bike Trail. Santa Monica has received the Bicycle Friendly Community Award (Bronze in 2009, Silver in 2013) by the League of American Bicyclists. Local bicycle advocacy organizations include Santa Monica Spoke, a local chapter of the Los Angeles County Bicycle Coalition. Santa Monica is thought to be one of the leaders for bicycle infrastructure and programming in Los Angeles County.[citation needed]
What is the name of the Santa Monica Freeway?
57303143a23a5019007fcf47
Interstate 10
26
False
Where does the Santa Monica Freeway begin around?
57303143a23a5019007fcf48
Pacific Ocean
73
False
How many more states aside from California does the interstate 10 run through?
57303143a23a5019007fcf49
seven more
306
False
What city and state does the interstate 10 end at?
57303143a23a5019007fcf4a
Jacksonville, Florida
340
False
What road does state route 2 begin on?
57303143a23a5019007fcf4b
Santa Monica Boulevard
493
False
405
1039
How many miles is State Route 2?
5a2d6060f28ef0001a52650d
True
Lincoln Boulevard
573
On what street does the Santa Monica Freeway begin?
5a2d6060f28ef0001a52650e
True
10
37
How many miles is the Angeles National Forest from Santa Monica?
5a2d6060f28ef0001a52650f
True
10
37
How long is Interstate 405 in miles?
5a2d6060f28ef0001a526510
True
Sepulveda Boulevard
893
On what street does State Route 1 originate?
5a2d6060f28ef0001a526511
True
The Santa Monica Freeway (Interstate 10) begins in Santa Monica near the Pacific Ocean and heads east. The Santa Monica Freeway between Santa Monica and downtown Los Angeles has the distinction of being one of the busiest highways in all of North America. After traversing Los Angeles County, I-10 crosses seven more states, terminating at Jacksonville, Florida. In Santa Monica, there is a road sign designating this route as the Christopher Columbus Transcontinental Highway. State Route 2 (Santa Monica Boulevard) begins in Santa Monica, barely grazing State Route 1 at Lincoln Boulevard, and continues northeast across Los Angeles County, through the Angeles National Forest, crossing the San Gabriel Mountains as the Angeles Crest Highway, ending in Wrightwood. Santa Monica is also the western (Pacific) terminus of historic U.S. Route 66. Close to the eastern boundary of Santa Monica, Sepulveda Boulevard reaches from Long Beach at the south, to the northern end of the San Fernando Valley. Just east of Santa Monica is Interstate 405, the "San Diego Freeway", a major north-south route in Los Angeles County and Orange County, California.
Beginning in what decade did the Santa Monica  Expo Air Line host freight and passenger services?
57303380a23a5019007fcf67
1920s
228
False
What year did the Santa Monica freight and passenger service stop running?
57303380a23a5019007fcf68
1953
263
False
Diesel powered freight deliveries continued through what date?
57303380a23a5019007fcf69
March 11, 1988
352
False
What was the result from the discontinuation of using the line for deliveries?
57303380a23a5019007fcf6a
was purchased
462
False
Who bought the Expo line from Southern Pacific?
57303380a23a5019007fcf6b
Southern Pacific by Los Angeles Metropolitan Transportation Authority
481
False
1953
263
In what year were diesel-powered freight deliveries to warehouses first used on the Expo Line?
5a2d6267f28ef0001a526517
True
1953
263
In what year did the Los Angeles Metropolitan Transportation Authority by the Expo Line from Southern Pacific?
5a2d6267f28ef0001a526518
True
1875
574
In what year were electric-powered freight trains invented?
5a2d6267f28ef0001a526519
True
1920s
228
It was decade was the Los Angeles Metropolitan Transportation Authority established?
5a2d6267f28ef0001a52651a
True
1875
574
In what year was Santa Monica harbor built?
5a2d6267f28ef0001a52651b
True
Historical aspects of the Expo line route are noteworthy. It uses the right-of-way for the Santa Monica Air Line that provided electric-powered freight and passenger service between Los Angeles and Santa Monica beginning in the 1920s. Service was discontinued in 1953 but diesel-powered freight deliveries to warehouses along the route continued until March 11, 1988. The abandonment of the line spurred concerns within the community and the entire right-of-way was purchased from Southern Pacific by Los Angeles Metropolitan Transportation Authority. The line was built in 1875 as the steam-powered Los Angeles and Independence Railroad to bring mining ore to ships in Santa Monica harbor and as a passenger excursion train to the beach.
In 2006 what percent of the population was impacted by crime?
573035cd947a6a140053d294
4.41%
40
False
In 2006 what was crime mostly comprised of?
573035cd947a6a140053d295
property
162
False
What percent of crime was strictly property in 2006?
573035cd947a6a140053d296
3.74%
193
False
How are the Santa Monica per-capita crime rates calculated?
573035cd947a6a140053d297
computed based
401
False
The Santa Monica Police Department suggests that the per-capita crime rate sways in what way?
573035cd947a6a140053d298
much lower
566
False
2006
231
How many officers are there in the Santa Monica Police Department?
5a2d6359f28ef0001a526521
True
4.41%
40
In 2006, what was the average crime rate for Los Angeles County?
5a2d6359f28ef0001a526522
True
4.48%
130
In 2006, what was the average crime rate for California?
5a2d6359f28ef0001a526523
True
250,000
669
How many beachgoers are there each day in Santa Monica?
5a2d6359f28ef0001a526524
True
450,000
681
How many workers are there each day in Santa Monica?
5a2d6359f28ef0001a526525
True
In 2006, crime in Santa Monica affected 4.41% of the population, slightly lower than the national average crime rate that year of 4.48%. The majority of this was property crime, which affected 3.74% of Santa Monica's population in 2006; this was higher than the rates for Los Angeles County (2.76%) and California (3.17%), but lower than the national average (3.91%). These per-capita crime rates are computed based on Santa Monica's full-time population of about 85,000. However, the Santa Monica Police Department has suggested the actual per-capita crime rate is much lower, as tourists, workers, and beachgoers can increase the city's daytime population to between 250,000 and 450,000 people.
In what year was there a double homicide?
5730370004bcaa1900d77385
1999
3
False
Where was this homicide perpetrated?
5730370004bcaa1900d77386
Westside Clothing store
44
False
What gang is mentioned in connection with this crime?
5730370004bcaa1900d77387
Culver City
111
False
What two people were killed inside the store?
5730370004bcaa1900d77388
Anthony and Michael Juarez
241
False
Where is the getaway driver of the Culver city gang murder?
5730370004bcaa1900d77389
in custody
371
False
Michael Juarez
253
What was the name of the third Culver City gang member?
5a2d6428f28ef0001a52652b
True
David "Puppet" Robles
136
What was the name of the Westside Clothing store's owner?
5a2d6428f28ef0001a52652c
True
Jesse "Psycho" Garcia
162
Which Santa Monica 13 gang member committed a shooting just days prior?
5a2d6428f28ef0001a52652d
True
Santa Monica
714
What city were the victims from?
5a2d6428f28ef0001a52652e
True
1999
3
In what year was Westside Clothing founded?
5a2d6428f28ef0001a52652f
True
In 1999, there was a double homicide in the Westside Clothing store on Lincoln Boulevard. During the incident, Culver City gang members David "Puppet" Robles and Jesse "Psycho" Garcia entered the store masked and began opening fire, killing Anthony and Michael Juarez. They then ran outside to a getaway vehicle driven by a third Culver City gang member, who is now also in custody. The clothing store was believed to be a local hang out for Santa Monica gang members. The dead included two men from Northern California who had merely been visiting the store's owner, their cousin, to see if they could open a similar store in their area. Police say the incident was in retaliation for a shooting committed by the Santa Monica 13 gang days before the Juarez brothers were gunned down.
What is one of the oldest exterior shots in Santa Monica?
573038ab04bcaa1900d773a7
Buster Keaton's Spite Marriage
134
False
What does this iconic exterior shot display?
573038ab04bcaa1900d773a8
much of 2nd Street
184
False
What 1982 movie includes Sylvester Stallone running on the Santa Monica Beach?
573038ab04bcaa1900d773a9
Rocky III
427
False
What 1996 movie was set completely in Santa Monica?
573038ab04bcaa1900d773aa
The Truth About Cats & Dogs
852
False
What movie was shot at Samohi?
573038ab04bcaa1900d773ab
17 Again
1032
False
2nd Street
192
What is one of the Santa Monica streets seen in It's a Mad, Mad, Mad, World?
5a2d64e1f28ef0001a526535
True
Sylvester Stallone
403
Who played the role of Apollo Creed?
5a2d64e1f28ef0001a526536
True
Henry Jaglom
618
Who directed It's a Mad, Mad, Mad, World?
5a2d64e1f28ef0001a526537
True
1982
438
In what year did John Adams Middle School first open its doors?
5a2d64e1f28ef0001a526538
True
Sylvester Stallone
403
Who plays the part of Iron Man?
5a2d64e1f28ef0001a526539
True
Hundreds of movies have been shot or set in part within the city of Santa Monica. One of the oldest exterior shots in Santa Monica is Buster Keaton's Spite Marriage (1929) which shows much of 2nd Street. The comedy It's a Mad, Mad, Mad, Mad World (1963) included several scenes shot in Santa Monica, including those along the California Incline, which led to the movie's treasure spot, "The Big W". The Sylvester Stallone film Rocky III (1982) shows Rocky Balboa and Apollo Creed training to fight Clubber Lang by running on the Santa Monica Beach, and Stallone's Demolition Man (1993) includes Santa Monica settings. Henry Jaglom's indie Someone to Love (1987), the last film in which Orson Welles appeared, takes place in Santa Monica's venerable Mayfair Theatre. Heathers (1989) used Santa Monica's John Adams Middle School for many exterior shots. The Truth About Cats & Dogs (1996) is set entirely in Santa Monica, particularly the Palisades Park area, and features a radio station that resembles KCRW at Santa Monica College. 17 Again (2009) was shot at Samohi. Other films that show significant exterior shots of Santa Monica include Fletch (1985), Species (1995), Get Shorty (1995), and Ocean's Eleven (2001). Richard Rossi's biopic Aimee Semple McPherson opens and closes at the beach in Santa Monica. Iron Man features the Santa Monica pier and surrounding communities as Tony Stark tests his experimental flight suit.
What type of games is Santa Monica featured in?
57303a4904bcaa1900d773d7
video
32
False
In what year did Tony hawk's American Wasteland release?
57303a4904bcaa1900d773d8
2005
264
False
What video game features Santa Monica in 2003?
57303a4904bcaa1900d773d9
True Crime: Streets of LA
44
False
Grand theft Auto V was released in what year?
57303a4904bcaa1900d773da
2013
369
False
What video game featured Santa Monica in 2015?
57303a4904bcaa1900d773db
Need for Speed
512
False
2005
282
In what year is Vampire: The Masquerade - Bloodlines set?
5a2d656bf28ef0001a52653f
True
Tony Hawk
232
Who was the main character in Grand Theft Auto V?
5a2d656bf28ef0001a526540
True
Tony Hawk
232
Who was the lead designer of Cars Race-O-Rama?
5a2d656bf28ef0001a526541
True
Santa Monica
0
What city is Tony Hawk from?
5a2d656bf28ef0001a526542
True
2009
342
In what year is Destroy All Humans! set?
5a2d656bf28ef0001a526543
True
Santa Monica is featured in the video games True Crime: Streets of LA (2003), Vampire: The Masquerade – Bloodlines (2004), Grand Theft Auto San Andreas (2004) as a fictional district - Santa Maria Beach, Destroy All Humans! (2004), Tony Hawk's American Wasteland (2005), L.A. Rush (2005), Midnight Club: Los Angeles (2008), Cars Race-O-Rama (2009), Grand Theft Auto V (2013) as a fictional district – Del Perro, Call of Duty: Ghosts (2013) as a fictional U.S. military base – Fort Santa Monica, The Crew (2014), Need for Speed (2015)
Washington_University_in_St._Louis
When was Washington University founded?
572f2d2ab2c2fd1400567f63
1853
147
False
How many Nobel laureates have been affiliated with Washington University?
572f2d2ab2c2fd1400567f64
Twenty-five
281
False
Where is Washington University ranked among Academic Ranking of World Universities?
572f2d2ab2c2fd1400567f65
32nd
555
False
For whom is Washington University named?
572f2d2ab2c2fd1400567f66
George Washington
169
False
How many different countries comprise the makeup of faculty and students of Washington University?
572f2d2ab2c2fd1400567f67
120
266
False
Washington University
0
What undergraduate program is ranked first in the United States?
5ace0f1f32bba1001ae49a03
True
1853
147
In what was U.S. News and World Report first published?
5ace0f1f32bba1001ae49a04
True
1853
147
In what year did the first Nobel laureate graduate from Washington University?
5ace0f1f32bba1001ae49a05
True
Washington University
0
Which university is ranked 1st in the world by the Academic Ranking of World Universities?
5ace0f1f32bba1001ae49a06
True
1853
147
In what year did the first international student at Washington University?
5ace0f1f32bba1001ae49a07
True
Washington University in St. Louis (Wash. U., or WUSTL) is a private research university located in St. Louis, Missouri, United States. Founded in 1853, and named after George Washington, the university has students and faculty from all 50 U.S. states and more than 120 countries. Twenty-five Nobel laureates have been affiliated with Washington University, nine having done the major part of their pioneering research at the university. Washington University's undergraduate program is ranked 15th by U.S. News and World Report. The university is ranked 32nd in the world by the Academic Ranking of World Universities.
Who was the first chancellor of Washington University?
572f31b3a23a5019007fc4cf
Joseph Gibson Hoyt.
38
False
When did Washington University secure its charter?
572f31b3a23a5019007fc4d0
1853
132
False
What makes Washington University unique among other American universities?
572f31b3a23a5019007fc4d1
not having had a prior financial endowment
419
False
Who was the first president of Washington University?
572f31b3a23a5019007fc4d2
Eliot
142
False
What local businessman help provide support for the Washington University?
572f31b3a23a5019007fc4d3
John O'Fallon
284
False
1853
132
In what year was Joseph Gibson Hoyt born?
5ace0fce32bba1001ae49a15
True
John O'Fallon
284
Who was one of the members of the Missouri General Assembly in 1853?
5ace0fce32bba1001ae49a16
True
chancellor
23
What did did John O'Fallon do for a living?
5ace0fce32bba1001ae49a17
True
Washington University
349
What was one of the major American universities that started with a prior financial endowment?
5ace0fce32bba1001ae49a18
True
Joseph Gibson Hoyt
38
Who named it Washington University?
5ace0fce32bba1001ae49a19
True
The university's first chancellor was Joseph Gibson Hoyt. Crow secured the university charter from the Missouri General Assembly in 1853, and Eliot was named President of the Board of Trustees. Early on, Eliot solicited support from members of the local business community, including John O'Fallon, but Eliot failed to secure a permanent endowment. Washington University is unusual among major American universities in not having had a prior financial endowment. The institution had no backing of a religious organization, single wealthy patron, or earmarked government support.
What was one of the names that was initially considered for Washington University in St. Louis?
572f34be947a6a140053c7ee
Eliot Seminary
117
False
What name was selected by the Board of Trustees in 1854 for Washington University?
572f34be947a6a140053c7ef
Washington Institute
415
False
Why did the Board of Trustees choose to name Washing University after George Washington?
572f34be947a6a140053c7f0
The Board of Trustees believed that the university should be a force of unity in a strongly divided Missouri
785
False
When was the name Washington University amended?
572f34be947a6a140053c7f1
1856
898
False
When was the suffix "in St. Louis" added to Washington University?
572f34be947a6a140053c7f2
1976
1009
False
1854
366
In what year was Washington University founded?
5ace116d32bba1001ae49a25
True
William Eliot
138
Who was one of Washington University's trustees in 1976?
5ace116d32bba1001ae49a26
True
William Eliot
138
Who initially wanted Washington University to be a seminary?
5ace116d32bba1001ae49a27
True
George Washington
449
Who was the nation's second president?
5ace116d32bba1001ae49a28
True
William Eliot
138
Who was one of the Board of Trustees members in 1854?
5ace116d32bba1001ae49a29
True
During the three years following its inception, the university bore three different names. The board first approved "Eliot Seminary," but William Eliot was uncomfortable with naming a university after himself and objected to the establishment of a seminary, which would implicitly be charged with teaching a religious faith. He favored a nonsectarian university. In 1854, the Board of Trustees changed the name to "Washington Institute" in honor of George Washington. Naming the University after the nation's first president, only seven years before the American Civil War and during a time of bitter national division, was no coincidence. During this time of conflict, Americans universally admired George Washington as the father of the United States and a symbol of national unity. The Board of Trustees believed that the university should be a force of unity in a strongly divided Missouri. In 1856, the University amended its name to "Washington University." The university amended its name once more in 1976, when the Board of Trustees voted to add the suffix "in St. Louis" to distinguish the university from the nearly two dozen other universities bearing Washington's name.
Where was Washington University located?
572f552a947a6a140053c88a
17th Street and Washington Avenue
123
False
When did classes first begin at Washington University?
572f552a947a6a140053c88b
October 22, 1854
303
False
What building was first used for classes at Washington University?
572f552a947a6a140053c88c
Benton School building.
328
False
What three departments were Washington University divided?
572f552a947a6a140053c88d
the Manual Training School, Smith Academy, and the Mary Institute
659
False
What type of school did Washington University first function?
572f552a947a6a140053c88e
a night school
97
False
17th Street
123
On what road was the Benton School building?
5ace129b32bba1001ae49a4d
True
Washington Avenue
139
On what road was Academic Hall?
5ace129b32bba1001ae49a4e
True
1854
315
In what year did the university divide into three departments?
5ace129b32bba1001ae49a4f
True
October 22, 1854
303
On what date did the first school year end?
5ace129b32bba1001ae49a50
True
1854
315
In what year did Washington University become a day school?
5ace129b32bba1001ae49a51
True
Although chartered as a university, for many years Washington University functioned primarily as a night school located on 17th Street and Washington Avenue in the heart of downtown St. Louis. Owing to limited financial resources, Washington University initially used public buildings. Classes began on October 22, 1854, at the Benton School building. At first the university paid for the evening classes, but as their popularity grew, their funding was transferred to the St. Louis Public Schools. Eventually the board secured funds for the construction of Academic Hall and a half dozen other buildings. Later the university divided into three departments: the Manual Training School, Smith Academy, and the Mary Institute.
When was did Washington University open its law school?
572f8ead04bcaa1900d76a73
1867
3
False
When did Washington University establish its medical school?
572f8ead04bcaa1900d76a74
1891
290
False
Who was Robert Somers Brookings?
572f8ead04bcaa1900d76a75
the president of the Board of Trustees
454
False
When did St. Louis Medical college affiliate itself with Washington University?
572f8ead04bcaa1900d76a76
1891
290
False
1867
3
In what year was Robert Sommers Brookings born?
5ace143532bba1001ae49a61
True
1882
107
In what year was the St. Louis Medical College founded?
5ace143532bba1001ae49a62
True
Washington University
113
What was the first private sectarian law school west of the Mississippi River?
5ace143532bba1001ae49a63
True
Washington University
113
What was the first public law school west of the Mississippi River?
5ace143532bba1001ae49a64
True
Washington University
113
What was the first private sectarian school west of the Mississippi River?
5ace143532bba1001ae49a65
True
In 1867, the university opened the first private nonsectarian law school west of the Mississippi River. By 1882, Washington University had expanded to numerous departments, which were housed in various buildings across St. Louis. Medical classes were first held at Washington University in 1891 after the St. Louis Medical College decided to affiliate with the University, establishing the School of Medicine. During the 1890s, Robert Sommers Brookings, the president of the Board of Trustees, undertook the tasks of reorganizing the university's finances, putting them onto a sound foundation, and buying land for a new campus.
Where was Washington University located during the first half of the 1800's.
572f90e2a23a5019007fc767
downtown St. Louis
54
False
When did Washington University begin to expand west?
572f90e2a23a5019007fc768
the 1890s
136
False
What architecture firm was hired by the Board of Directors at Washington University?
572f90e2a23a5019007fc769
Olmsted, Olmsted & Eliot of Boston
393
False
Who was on the committee that found a new site for Washington University?
572f90e2a23a5019007fc76a
Robert S. Brookings, Henry Ware Eliot, and William Huse
444
False
What nickname was given to the new campus site?
572f90e2a23a5019007fc76b
"Hilltop" campus
707
False
1890s
140
In what decade was the Manual School established?
5ace156432bba1001ae49a6b
True
Robert Brookings
224
Who was one of the university's Board of Directors members in the 1890s?
5ace156432bba1001ae49a6c
True
St. Louis
63
What city was Robert Brookings originally from?
5ace156432bba1001ae49a6d
True
Olmsted, Olmsted & Eliot of Boston
393
Who designed the Manual School?
5ace156432bba1001ae49a6e
True
Lucas Place
101
What is one of the streets that the Danforth campus now lies next to?
5ace156432bba1001ae49a6f
True
Washington University spent its first half century in downtown St. Louis bounded by Washington Ave., Lucas Place, and Locust Street. By the 1890s, owing to the dramatic expansion of the Manual School and a new benefactor in Robert Brookings, the University began to move west. The University Board of Directors began a process to find suitable ground and hired the landscape architecture firm Olmsted, Olmsted & Eliot of Boston. A committee of Robert S. Brookings, Henry Ware Eliot, and William Huse found a site of 103 acres (41.7 ha) just beyond Forest Park, located west of the city limits in St. Louis County. The elevation of the land was thought to resemble the Acropolis and inspired the nickname of "Hilltop" campus, renamed the Danforth campus in 2006 to honor former chancellor William H. Danforth.
When did Washington University hold a national design contest for the new campus?
572f9553b2c2fd1400568225
1899
3
False
What firm won the Washington University national design contest?
572f9553b2c2fd1400568226
Cope & Stewardson
108
False
When was the cornerstone laid for Busch Hall?
572f9553b2c2fd1400568227
October 20, 1900
309
False
What were the names of the three buildings constructed after Busch Hall?
572f9553b2c2fd1400568228
Brookings Hall, Ridgley, and Cupples
347
False
Why did Washington University delay occupying of the new campus buildings until 1905?
572f9553b2c2fd1400568229
to accommodate the 1904 World's Fair and Olympics
466
False
1899
3
In what year was Oxford founded?
5ace165632bba1001ae49a7d
True
October 20, 1900
309
On what date did Brookings Hall have its cornerstone laid?
5ace165632bba1001ae49a7e
True
October 20, 1900
309
On what date did construction begin on the Cupples building?
5ace165632bba1001ae49a7f
True
October 20, 1900
309
On what date was construction completed on Ridgley?
5ace165632bba1001ae49a80
True
1899
3
In what year was Cope & Stewardson founded?
5ace165632bba1001ae49a81
True
In 1899, the university opened a national design contest for the new campus. The renowned Philadelphia firm Cope & Stewardson won unanimously with its plan for a row of Collegiate Gothic quadrangles inspired by Oxford and Cambridge Universities. The cornerstone of the first building, Busch Hall, was laid on October 20, 1900. The construction of Brookings Hall, Ridgley, and Cupples began shortly thereafter. The school delayed occupying these buildings until 1905 to accommodate the 1904 World's Fair and Olympics. The delay allowed the university to construct ten buildings instead of the seven originally planned. This original cluster of buildings set a precedent for the development of the Danforth Campus; Cope & Stewardson’s original plan and its choice of building materials have, with few exceptions, guided the construction and expansion of the Danforth Campus to the present day.
What role did Arthur Holly Compton serve at Washington University?
572f986a947a6a140053cab6
chancellor
152
False
Who reestablished Washington University's football team?
572f986a947a6a140053cab7
Arthur Holly Compton
59
False
What helped lead to the increase of enrollment at Washington University during Arthur Holly Compton's term as chancellor?
572f986a947a6a140053cab8
World War II veterans' use of their GI Bill benefits
451
False
What declaration did Arthur Holly Compton make about athletics at Washington University?
572f986a947a6a140053cab9
athletics were to be henceforth played on a "strictly amateur" basis with no athletic scholarships.
255
False
Where did Arthur Holly Compton work before returning to Washington University?
572f986a947a6a140053caba
the University of Chicago
32
False
Arthur Holly Compton
59
Who was Washington University's eight chancellor?
5ace16e932bba1001ae49a91
True
1946
105
In what year did Washington University's first football program get shut down?
5ace16e932bba1001ae49a92
True
1946
105
In what year did World War II start?
5ace16e932bba1001ae49a93
True
chancellor
152
What position did Arthur Holly Compton have at the University of Chicago?
5ace16e932bba1001ae49a94
True
1946
105
In what year did the University of Chicago get founded?
5ace16e932bba1001ae49a95
True
After working for many years at the University of Chicago, Arthur Holly Compton returned to St. Louis in 1946 to serve as Washington University's ninth chancellor. Compton reestablished the Washington University football team, making the declaration that athletics were to be henceforth played on a "strictly amateur" basis with no athletic scholarships. Under Compton’s leadership, enrollment at the University grew dramatically, fueled primarily by World War II veterans' use of their GI Bill benefits.
When did Washington University begin desegregation?
572f9b7f947a6a140053cac0
1947
63
False
What were the first schools to become integrated at Washington University?
572f9b7f947a6a140053cac1
the School of Medicine and the School of Social Work
73
False
What student group campaigned for full integration at Washington University in 1949?
572f9b7f947a6a140053cac2
the Student Committee for the Admission of Negroes (SCAN)
439
False
What organization sought to strip Washington University of its tax-exempt status in the 1940's?
572f9b7f947a6a140053cac3
the NAACP
333
False
When did the Board of Trustees pass a resolution to desegregate the Washington University undergraduate division?
572f9b7f947a6a140053cac4
May 1952
548
False
1949
394
In what year was the Student Committee for Admission of Negroes established?
5ace17a332bba1001ae49aa3
True
School of Medicine
77
What was one of the last school's at Washington University to be desegregated?
5ace17a332bba1001ae49aa4
True
1947
63
In what year was the School of Social Work established at Washington University?
5ace17a332bba1001ae49aa5
True
Student Committee for the Admission of Negroes
443
What is NAACP and acronym of?
5ace17a332bba1001ae49aa6
True
1947
63
In what year was the local Urban League established?
5ace17a332bba1001ae49aa7
True
The process of desegregation at Washington University began in 1947 with the School of Medicine and the School of Social Work. During the mid and late 1940s, the University was the target of critical editorials in the local African American press, letter-writing campaigns by churches and the local Urban League, and legal briefs by the NAACP intended to strip its tax-exempt status. In spring 1949, a Washington University student group, the Student Committee for the Admission of Negroes (SCAN), began campaigning for full racial integration. In May 1952, the Board of Trustees passed a resolution desegregating the school's undergraduate divisions.
When did Washington University begin construction of a complex of residential halls?
572f9e64947a6a140053cad4
1957
152
False
What name was given to the new residential complex constructed at Washington University?
572f9e64947a6a140053cad5
South 40
202
False
How did the construction of the new residential complex at Washington University affect the student population?
572f9e64947a6a140053cad6
began to attract a more national pool of applicants
387
False
What proportion of students at Washington University came from outside the St. Louis area by 1964?
572f9e64947a6a140053cad7
over two-thirds
449
False
When did Washington University transition to a national research institution?
572f9e64947a6a140053cad8
During the latter half of the 20th century,
0
False
1957
152
In what year did construction start on the "South 40"?
5ace1a7c32bba1001ae49ad3
True
1957
152
In what year was construction completed on the "South 40"?
5ace1a7c32bba1001ae49ad4
True
over two-thirds
449
What percentage of incoming students came from outside the St. Louis area in 1957?
5ace1a7c32bba1001ae49ad5
True
on-campus housing
272
In what type of housing did the commuter students live in?
5ace1a7c32bba1001ae49ad6
True
During the latter half of the 20th century, Washington University transitioned from a strong regional university to a national research institution. In 1957, planning began for the construction of the “South 40,” a complex of modern residential halls. With the additional on-campus housing, Washington University, which had been predominantly a “streetcar college” of commuter students, began to attract a more national pool of applicants. By 1964, over two-thirds of incoming students came from outside the St. Louis area.
What years were presidential debates held at Washington University?
572fa79aa23a5019007fc839
1992, 2000, 2004, and 2016
280
False
What building at Washington University was used to host the presidential debates?
572fa79aa23a5019007fc83a
Washington University Athletic Complex
238
False
Why was the presidential debate canceled in 1996 at Washington University?
572fa79aa23a5019007fc83b
scheduling difficulties between the candidates
373
False
When was the only vice presidential debate held at Washington University?
572fa79aa23a5019007fc83c
October 2, 2008
566
False
Who were the candidates in the vice presidential debate at Washington University?
572fa79aa23a5019007fc83d
Republican Sarah Palin and Democrat Joe Biden
516
False
1992
280
In what year was the Washington University Athletic Complex built?
5ace1b9532bba1001ae49adb
True
Sarah Palin
527
Who was one of the presidential candidates to debate in 1992?
5ace1b9532bba1001ae49adc
True
Joe Biden
552
Who was one of the presidential candidates to debate in 2000?
5ace1b9532bba1001ae49add
True
Joe Biden
552
Who was one of the presidential candidates in 1996?
5ace1b9532bba1001ae49ade
True
vice-presidential
112
Was it presidential or vice presidential debate held at Washington University in 2000?
5ace1b9532bba1001ae49adf
True
Washington University has been selected by the Commission on Presidential Debates to host more presidential and vice-presidential debates than any other institution in history. United States presidential election debates were held at the Washington University Athletic Complex in 1992, 2000, 2004, and 2016. A presidential debate was planned to occur in 1996, but owing to scheduling difficulties between the candidates, the debate was canceled. The university hosted the only 2008 vice presidential debate, between Republican Sarah Palin and Democrat Joe Biden, on October 2, 2008, also at the Washington University Athletic Complex.
What was Chancellor Wrighton's initial sentiment to hosting another presidential debate at Washington University after 2004?
572fa962a23a5019007fc849
it would be "improbable" that the university will host another debate and was not eager to commit to the possibility
66
False
What did  Chancellor Wrighton state as one of the reasons for hosting another debate at Washington University?
572fa962a23a5019007fc84a
These one-of-a-kind events are great experiences for our students, they contribute to a national understanding of important issues
275
False
What year did Chancellor Wrighton submit another bid for a presidential debate at Washington University after 2004?
572fa962a23a5019007fc84b
2008
260
False
2004
49
In what year did Wrighton become Chancellor?
5ace1c9032bba1001ae49b05
True
Chancellor Wrighton
9
Who said it would be "probable" that their university would ask to host another debate in 2004?
5ace1c9032bba1001ae49b06
True
Chancellor Wrighton
9
Who said "These common events are a great experience for our students..." in 2008?
5ace1c9032bba1001ae49b07
True
debate
129
What type of events bring local attention to the St. Louis region?
5ace1c9032bba1001ae49b08
True
2004
49
What was the very first year that Washington University hosted a presidential debate?
5ace1c9032bba1001ae49b09
True
Although Chancellor Wrighton had noted after the 2004 debate that it would be "improbable" that the university will host another debate and was not eager to commit to the possibility, he subsequently changed his view and the university submitted a bid for the 2008 debates. "These one-of-a-kind events are great experiences for our students, they contribute to a national understanding of important issues, and they allow us to help bring national and international attention to the St. Louis region as one of America's great metropolitan areas," said Wrighton.
How many freshman class applications did Washington University receive in 2013?
572faba604bcaa1900d76b9f
30,117
49
False
What percentage of incoming freshman at Washington University were in the top %10 of their class in 2013?
572faba604bcaa1900d76ba0
More than 90% of incoming freshmen
133
False
Where did Washington University rank among private universities for National Merit Scholar freshman in 2006?
572faba604bcaa1900d76ba1
second among private universities
301
False
When was Washington University ranked #1 for quality of life?
572faba604bcaa1900d76ba2
In 2008
463
False
What percent of applicants were admitted to Olin Business School in 2007?
572faba604bcaa1900d76ba3
14%
796
False
Washington University
9
What private university had the most enrolled National Merit Scholar freshman in 2006?
5ace1dda32bba1001ae49b29
True
#1
505
What was Washington University's rank in 2006 for quality of life?
5ace1dda32bba1001ae49b2a
True
14%
796
What percentage applicants did the Olin Business School accept in 2006?
5ace1dda32bba1001ae49b2b
True
30,117
49
How many applications did Washington University receive in 2006?
5ace1dda32bba1001ae49b2c
True
1,500
93
How many were in the freshmen class of 2006?
5ace1dda32bba1001ae49b2d
True
In 2013, Washington University received a record 30,117 applications for a freshman class of 1,500 with an acceptance rate of 13.7%. More than 90% of incoming freshmen whose high schools ranked were ranked in the top 10% of their high school classes. In 2006, the university ranked fourth overall and second among private universities in the number of enrolled National Merit Scholar freshmen, according to the National Merit Scholar Corporation's annual report. In 2008, Washington University was ranked #1 for quality of life according to The Princeton Review, among other top rankings. In addition, the Olin Business School's undergraduate program is among the top 4 in the country. The Olin Business School's undergraduate program is also among the country's most competitive, admitting only 14% of applicants in 2007 and ranking #1 in SAT scores with an average composite of 1492 M+CR according to BusinessWeek.
What is the current national rank of the School of Medicine at Washington University?
572fadc5947a6a140053cb5e
sixth in the nation
66
False
What is the current national rank of Brown School of Social Work?
572fadc5947a6a140053cb5f
currently ranked first
138
False
What program at Washington University ranks first in the 2016 in the U.S. News & World Reports rankings?
572fadc5947a6a140053cb60
The program in occupational therapy
162
False
Where did the School of Law rank in  2015 by the U.S. News & World Reports?
572fadc5947a6a140053cb61
18th
416
False
What year did the Graduate School of Architecture and Urban Design rank ninth by Designintellence?
572fadc5947a6a140053cb62
2013
605
False
Washington University
201
What School of Medicine is ranked first in the nation?
5ace1f1732bba1001ae49b39
True
ninth
544
What is the Graduate School of Architecture and Urban Designs rank as of 2016?
5ace1f1732bba1001ae49b3a
True
DesignIntelligence
579
Who ranked the George Warren Brown School of Social Work first in the nation?
5ace1f1732bba1001ae49b3b
True
U.S. News & World Report rankings
270
Who ranked the Washington University School of Medicine sixth in the nation?
5ace1f1732bba1001ae49b3c
True
first
246
What was the School of Medicine's rank in 2013?
5ace1f1732bba1001ae49b3d
True
Graduate schools include the School of Medicine, currently ranked sixth in the nation, and the George Warren Brown School of Social Work, currently ranked first. The program in occupational therapy at Washington University currently occupies the first spot for the 2016 U.S. News & World Report rankings, and the program in physical therapy is ranked first as well. For the 2015 edition, the School of Law is ranked 18th and the Olin Business School is ranked 19th. Additionally, the Graduate School of Architecture and Urban Design was ranked ninth in the nation by the journal DesignIntelligence in its 2013 edition of "America's Best Architecture & Design Schools."
Where is Washington University's north campus located?
572fb0d1947a6a140053cb8a
St. Louis City near the Delmar Loop
147
False
When was the building and property for the north campus of Washington University acquired?
572fb0d1947a6a140053cb8b
2004
246
False
What previously occupied the building used at the north campus of Washington University?
572fb0d1947a6a140053cb8c
Angelica Uniform Factory
273
False
For what department does the north campus location of Washington University provide off-site storage?
572fb0d1947a6a140053cb8d
Performing Arts Department
615
False
Who is Washington University's food provider on campus?
572fb0d1947a6a140053cb8e
Bon Appétit Management Company
752
False
North Campus
24
On what campuses are the student focused administrative functions located?
5ace241532bba1001ae49b9b
True
Delmar Loop
171
What does the West Campus lie near?
5ace241532bba1001ae49b9c
True
2004
246
In what year did the school acquire the West Campus building?
5ace241532bba1001ae49b9d
True
2004
246
In what year did Bob Appetit Management Company become the on-campus food provider?
5ace241532bba1001ae49b9e
True
Family Learning Center
880
What is something based in the West Campus?
5ace241532bba1001ae49b9f
True
Washington University's North Campus and West Campus principally house administrative functions that are not student focused. North Campus lies in St. Louis City near the Delmar Loop. The University acquired the building and adjacent property in 2004, formerly home to the Angelica Uniform Factory. Several University administrative departments are located at the North Campus location, including offices for Quadrangle Housing, Accounting and Treasury Services, Parking and Transportation Services, Army ROTC, and Network Technology Services. The North Campus location also provides off-site storage space for the Performing Arts Department. Renovations are still ongoing; recent additions to the North Campus space include a small eatery operated by Bon Appétit Management Company, the University's on-campus food provider, completed during spring semester 2007, as well as the Family Learning Center, operated by Bright Horizons and opened in September 2010.
Where is the West Campus of Washington University located?
572fd15da23a5019007fca35
Clayton, Missouri
89
False
What was previously located at the West Campus of Washington University?
572fd15da23a5019007fca36
the Clayton branch of the Famous-Barr department store
254
False
When did the university acquire the property for the West Campus?
572fd15da23a5019007fca37
1990
315
False
What is located in the basement level of the West Campus?
572fd15da23a5019007fca38
the West Campus Library, the University Archives, the Modern Graphic History Library, and conference space
452
False
What department located at the West Campus provides IT services?
572fd15da23a5019007fca39
Center for the Application of Information Technologies (CAIT)
874
False
second floor
824
On what floor are the information system offices?
5ace255a32bba1001ae49baf
True
Clayton, Missouri
89
In what city is the Danforth Campus?
5ace255a32bba1001ae49bb0
True
1990
315
In what year did the Famous-Barr department store but a location in Clayton, Missouri?
5ace255a32bba1001ae49bb1
True
second floor
824
On what floor is capital gifts?
5ace255a32bba1001ae49bb2
True
second floor
824
On what floor is portions of alumni and development?
5ace255a32bba1001ae49bb3
True
The West Campus is located about one mile (1.6 km) to the west of the Danforth Campus in Clayton, Missouri, and primarily consists of a four-story former department store building housing mostly administrative space. The West Campus building was home to the Clayton branch of the Famous-Barr department store until 1990, when the University acquired the property and adjacent parking and began a series of renovations. Today, the basement level houses the West Campus Library, the University Archives, the Modern Graphic History Library, and conference space. The ground level still remains a retail space. The upper floors house consolidated capital gifts, portions of alumni and development, and information systems offices from across the Danforth and Medical School campuses. There is also a music rehearsal room on the second floor. The West Campus is also home to the Center for the Application of Information Technologies (CAIT), which provides IT training services.
Where is Tyson Research Center located?
572fd2e504bcaa1900d76d8d
west of St. Louis on the Meramec River
69
False
When did Washington University acquire the property for Tyson Research Center?
572fd2e504bcaa1900d76d8e
1963
197
False
What is the function of Tyson Research Center?
572fd2e504bcaa1900d76d8f
a biological field station and research/education center.
235
False
When was the Living Learning Center accredited as a "living building"?
572fd2e504bcaa1900d76d90
2010
296
False
Who previously owned the property where Tyson Research Center is located?
572fd2e504bcaa1900d76d91
the federal government
171
False
1963
197
In what year was the Living Learning Center established?
5ace270832bba1001ae49bd5
True
2,000-acre
27
How big is the Washington University campus?
5ace270832bba1001ae49bd6
True
Tyson Research Center
0
Besides the Living Learning Center what was the other building accredited as a "living building"?
5ace270832bba1001ae49bd7
True
2010
296
In what year was the Living Building Challenge issued?
5ace270832bba1001ae49bd8
True
Tyson Research Center is a 2,000-acre (809 ha) field station located west of St. Louis on the Meramec River. Washington University obtained Tyson as surplus property from the federal government in 1963. It is used by the University as a biological field station and research/education center. In 2010 the Living Learning Center was named one of the first two buildings accredited nationwide as a "living building" under the Living Building Challenge, opened to serve as a biological research station and classroom for summer students.
How many divisions make up Arts & Sciences at Washington University?
572fd551a23a5019007fca5f
three divisions
51
False
Who is the Dean of Faculty of Arts & Sciences at Washington University?
572fd551a23a5019007fca60
Barbara Schaal
183
False
What positions did James Mcleod hold at Washington University?
572fd551a23a5019007fca61
Vice Chancellor for Students and Dean of the College of Arts & Sciences
265
False
When did James Mcleod pass away?
572fd551a23a5019007fca62
September 6, 2011
440
False
What position does Richard J. Smith hold at Washington University?
572fd551a23a5019007fca63
Dean of the Graduate School of Arts & Sciences.
548
False
2011
453
In what year did Barbara Schaal become the Dean of the Faculty of Arts & Science?
5ace281f32bba1001ae49bf1
True
2011
453
In what year did Jame E. McLeod become Vice Chancellor for Students?
5ace281f32bba1001ae49bf2
True
2011
453
In what year did Jame E. McLeod become Dean of the College of Arts & Sciences?
5ace281f32bba1001ae49bf3
True
Richard J. Smith
528
Who is the current Dean of the College of Arts & Sciences?
5ace281f32bba1001ae49bf4
True
Barbara Schaal
183
Who is the current Vice Chancellor for Students?
5ace281f32bba1001ae49bf5
True
Arts & Sciences at Washington University comprises three divisions: the College of Arts & Sciences, the Graduate School of Arts & Sciences, and University College in Arts & Sciences. Barbara Schaal is Dean of the Faculty of Arts & Sciences. James E. McLeod was the Vice Chancellor for Students and Dean of the College of Arts & Sciences; according to a University news release he died at the University's Barnes-Jewish Hospital on Tuesday, September 6, 2011 of renal failure as a result of a two-year-long struggle with cancer. Richard J. Smith is Dean of the Graduate School of Arts & Sciences.
When was Olin Business School founded?
572fd7e304bcaa1900d76db1
1917
49
False
What was the original name of Olin Business School?
572fd7e304bcaa1900d76db2
the School of Commerce and Finance
11
False
After whom is Olin Business School named?
572fd7e304bcaa1900d76db3
John M. Olin
109
False
When was Olin Business School named?
572fd7e304bcaa1900d76db4
1988
125
False
Where was an Executive MBA program established by Washington University in 2002?
572fd7e304bcaa1900d76db5
Shanghai
488
False
1917
49
When was John M. Olin born?
5ace28e732bba1001ae49c17
True
1917
49
In what year was Fudan University established?
5ace28e732bba1001ae49c18
True
Accounting
310
In what field was John M. Olin an entrepreneur in?
5ace28e732bba1001ae49c19
True
1988
125
In what year did the Olin Business School start offering its MS in Finance degree?
5ace28e732bba1001ae49c1a
True
1988
125
In what year did John M. Olin die?
5ace28e732bba1001ae49c1b
True
Founded as the School of Commerce and Finance in 1917, the Olin Business School was named after entrepreneur John M. Olin in 1988. The school's academic programs include BSBA, MBA, Professional MBA (PMBA), Executive MBA (EMBA), MS in Finance, MS in Supply Chain Management, MS in Customer Analytics, Master of Accounting, Global Master of Finance Dual Degree program, and Doctorate programs, as well as non-degree executive education. In 2002, an Executive MBA program was established in Shanghai, in cooperation with Fudan University.
How many alumni does Olin Business School have worldwide?
572fd9b4a23a5019007fca89
more than 16,000 alumni
22
False
What is the amount of Olin Business School's endowment as of 2004?
572fd9b4a23a5019007fca8a
$213 million
126
False
When was Simon Hall opened?
572fd9b4a23a5019007fca8b
1986
235
False
Who provided the donation that enabled the opening  Simon Hall?
572fd9b4a23a5019007fca8c
John E. Simon
262
False
When were Knight and Bauer Halls dedicated?
572fd9b4a23a5019007fca8d
May 2, 2014
280
False
$12 million
171
How much money did John E. Simon donate?
5ace2a4532bba1001ae49c51
True
2014
287
In what year was the Bauer Foundation established?
5ace2a4532bba1001ae49c52
True
$90 million
297
How much did Simon Hall cost to build?
5ace2a4532bba1001ae49c53
True
$15 million
370
How much did the Knight Hall cost to build?
5ace2a4532bba1001ae49c54
True
$10 million
434
How much did the Bauer Hall cost to build?
5ace2a4532bba1001ae49c55
True
Olin has a network of more than 16,000 alumni worldwide. Over the last several years, the school’s endowment has increased to $213 million (2004) and annual gifts average $12 million per year.[citation needed] Simon Hall was opened in 1986 after a donation from John E. Simon. On May 2, 2014, the $90 million conjoined Knight and Bauer Halls were dedicated, following a $15 million gift from Charles F. Knight and Joanne Knight and a $10 million gift from George and Carol Bauer through the Bauer Foundation.
How many majors are available to students in the business school at Washington University?
572fde5e04bcaa1900d76dfd
eight
127
False
What options are available for graduate students in pursuing an MBA at Washington University?
572fde5e04bcaa1900d76dfe
full-time or part-time
401
False
Who is the Dean of the Olin Business School?
572fde5e04bcaa1900d76dff
Mahendra R. Gupta
551
False
What percent of coursework is done at the business school by undergraduate students at Washington University?
572fde5e04bcaa1900d76e00
40–60%
33
False
Washington University
491
What university did Mahendra R. Gupta graduate from?
5ace2b5c32bba1001ae49c79
True
eight
127
How many types of MBA's does Washington University offer?
5ace2b5c32bba1001ae49c7a
True
full-time or part-time
401
How can undergraduate students attend BSBA?
5ace2b5c32bba1001ae49c7b
True
40–60%
33
What percentage of an MBA students courses are at the business school?
5ace2b5c32bba1001ae49c7c
True
Undergraduate BSBA students take 40–60% of their courses within the business school and are able to formally declare majors in eight areas: accounting, entrepreneurship, finance, healthcare management, marketing, managerial economics and strategy, organization and human resources, international business, and operations and supply chain management. Graduate students are able to pursue an MBA either full-time or part-time. Students may also take elective courses from other disciplines at Washington University, including law and many other fields. Mahendra R. Gupta is the Dean of the Olin Business School.
With what schools does the Washington University School of Law offer joint-degree programs?
572fe109a23a5019007fcacd
Olin Business School, the Graduate School of Arts and Sciences, the School of Medicine, and the School of Social Work
74
False
What LLM degree programs are offered by the Washington University School of Law?
572fe109a23a5019007fcace
LLM in Intellectual Property and Technology Law, an LLM in Taxation, an LLM in US Law for Foreign Lawyers
211
False
How many semesters of courses are offered by Washington University School of Law?
572fe109a23a5019007fcacf
3 semesters
415
False
How many hours of coursework are required to obtain a JD at the Washington University School of Law?
572fe109a23a5019007fcad0
85 hours
493
False
During what seasons are courses offered at the Washington University School of Law?
572fe109a23a5019007fcad1
Spring, Summer, and Fall
445
False
School of Social Work
170
What school does someone need to attend to get a LLM in Taxation?
5ace2c9b32bba1001ae49ca9
True
3 semesters
415
How many semesters does it take to complete a LLM in Taxation?
5ace2c9b32bba1001ae49caa
True
Graduate School of Arts and Sciences
100
What school does a student need to attend to get a Master of Juridicial Studies?
5ace2c9b32bba1001ae49cab
True
3 semesters
415
How many semesters does it take to earn a LLM in Intellectual Property and Technology Law?
5ace2c9b32bba1001ae49cac
True
School of Medicine
142
What is one of the schools a Juris Scientiae Doctoris attends?
5ace2c9b32bba1001ae49cad
True
Washington University School of Law offers joint-degree programs with the Olin Business School, the Graduate School of Arts and Sciences, the School of Medicine, and the School of Social Work. It also offers an LLM in Intellectual Property and Technology Law, an LLM in Taxation, an LLM in US Law for Foreign Lawyers, a Master of Juridical Studies (MJS), and a Juris Scientiae Doctoris (JSD). The law school offers 3 semesters of courses in the Spring, Summer, and Fall, and requires at least 85 hours of coursework for the JD.
Where is the Washington University School of Law ranked in the 2015 US News & World Report America's Best Graduate Schools?
572fe372b2c2fd1400568567
18th
93
False
Where do students in the Washington University School of Law place among test takers on average?
572fe372b2c2fd1400568568
96th percentile
286
False
When does full-time coursework J.D. begin at the  Washington University School of Law begin?
572fe372b2c2fd1400568569
August
378
False
What building provides the location of the Washington University School of Law?
572fe372b2c2fd140056856a
Anheuser-Busch Hall
465
False
Where does the Washington University School of Law rank among "25 Most Wired Law Schools"?
572fe372b2c2fd140056856b
4th
723
False
Washington University
701
In 2015 what graduate school was ranked best by US News & World Report?
5ace2d7a32bba1001ae49cc5
True
Washington University
701
What university was ranked as the 1st among the "25 Most Wired Law Schools"?
5ace2d7a32bba1001ae49cc6
True
1997
496
In what year did National Jurist ranked Washington University among the "25 most Wired Law Schools"?
5ace2d7a32bba1001ae49cc7
True
1997
496
In what year was the Clinical Education Program established?
5ace2d7a32bba1001ae49cc8
True
1997
496
In what year was the Clinical Education Program ranked 4th in the nation?
5ace2d7a32bba1001ae49cc9
True
In the 2015 US News & World Report America's Best Graduate Schools, the law school is ranked 18th nationally, out of over 180 law schools. In particular, its Clinical Education Program is currently ranked 4th in the nation. This year, the median score placed the average student in the 96th percentile of test takers. The law school offers a full-time day program, beginning in August, for the J.D. degree. The law school is located in a state-of-the-art building, Anheuser-Busch Hall (opened in 1997). The building combines traditional architecture, a five-story open-stacks library, an integration of indoor and outdoor spaces, and the latest wireless and other technologies. National Jurist ranked Washington University 4th among the "25 Most Wired Law Schools."
When was the Washington University School of Medicine founded?
572fe4fbb2c2fd1400568577
1891
57
False
Where does the Washington University School of Medicine rank in student selectivity?
572fe4fbb2c2fd1400568578
first
172
False
Who is the director of the Genome Center at Washington University?
572fe4fbb2c2fd1400568579
Richard K. Wilson
307
False
How much of a contribution did the Genome Center at Washington University make in sequencing the Human Genome Project?
572fe4fbb2c2fd140056857a
25%
396
False
What hospitals partner with the Washington University School of Medicine?
572fe4fbb2c2fd140056857b
St. Louis Children's Hospital and Barnes-Jewish Hospital
576
False
Richard K. Wilson
307
Who directs the Washington University School of Medicine?
5ace2e9932bba1001ae49cff
True
1891
57
In what year did the Washington University School of Medicine partner with St. Louis Children's Hospital?
5ace2e9932bba1001ae49d00
True
1891
57
In what year did the Washington University School of Medicine partner with Barnes-Jewish Hospital?
5ace2e9932bba1001ae49d01
True
1891
57
In what year was St. Louis Children's Hospital founded?
5ace2e9932bba1001ae49d02
True
1891
57
In what year was Barnes-Jewish Hospital founded?
5ace2e9932bba1001ae49d03
True
The Washington University School of Medicine, founded in 1891, is highly regarded as one of the world's leading centers for medical research and training. The School ranks first in the nation in student selectivity. Among its many recent initiatives, The Genome Center at Washington University (directed by Richard K. Wilson) played a leading role in the Human Genome Project, having contributed 25% of the finished sequence. The School pioneered bedside teaching and led in the transformation of empirical knowledge into scientific medicine. The medical school partners with St. Louis Children's Hospital and Barnes-Jewish Hospital (part of BJC HealthCare), where all physicians are members of the school's faculty.
When was the George Warren Brown School of Social Work founded?
572fe6e3a23a5019007fcb11
1925
182
False
By what other names is the George Warren Brown School of Social Work known?
572fe6e3a23a5019007fcb12
Brown School or Brown
144
False
What degree programs are offered by the George Warren Brown School of Social Work?
572fe6e3a23a5019007fcb13
Master of Social Work (MSW), a Master of Public Health (MPH), a PhD in Social Work, and a PhD in Public Health Sciences
232
False
What roles was George Warren Brown known?
572fe6e3a23a5019007fcb14
St. Louis philanthropist and co-founder of the Brown Shoe Company
539
False
What facilities house the  George Warren Brown School of Social Work?
572fe6e3a23a5019007fcb15
Brown and Goldfarb Halls
829
False
1925
182
In what year was the  Association of Schools and Programs of Public Health established?
5ace2f5732bba1001ae49d1b
True
1925
182
In what year did Brown start offering a Master of Social Work?
5ace2f5732bba1001ae49d1c
True
1909
26
In what year did George Warren Brown die?
5ace2f5732bba1001ae49d1d
True
1925
182
In what year was Goldfarb Hall built?
5ace2f5732bba1001ae49d1e
True
105,000 square feet
1069
How large is Brown Hall?
5ace2f5732bba1001ae49d1f
True
With roots dating back to 1909 in the university's School of Social Economy, the George Warren Brown School of Social Work (commonly called the Brown School or Brown) was founded in 1925. Brown's academic degree offerings include a Master of Social Work (MSW), a Master of Public Health (MPH), a PhD in Social Work, and a PhD in Public Health Sciences. It is currently ranked first among Master of Social Work programs in the United States. The school was endowed by Bettie Bofinger Brown and named for her husband, George Warren Brown, a St. Louis philanthropist and co-founder of the Brown Shoe Company. The school was the first in the country to have a building for the purpose of social work education, and it is also a founding member of the Association of Schools and Programs of Public Health. The school is housed within Brown and Goldfarb Halls, but a third building expansion is currently in progress and slated to be completed in summer 2015. The new building, adjacent to Brown and Goldfarb Halls, targets LEED Gold certification and will add approximately 105,000 square feet, more than doubling the school's teaching, research, and program space.
Who is the Brown School's current Dean?
572ffca0a23a5019007fcc0b
Edward F. Lawlor
305
False
How many research centers are housed by the Brown School?
572ffca0a23a5019007fcc0c
12 research centers.
416
False
What topics of emphasis are contained in the Brown School Library collection?
572ffca0a23a5019007fcc0d
children, youth, and families; gerontology; health; mental health; social and economic development; family therapy; and management.
524
False
To how many academic journals does the Brown School Library subscribe?
572ffca0a23a5019007fcc0e
over 450 academic journals
695
False
What areas does the Brown School Library have represented scholars?
572ffca0a23a5019007fcc0f
social security, health care, health disparities, communication, social and health policy, and individual and family development
73
False
12
416
How many academic journal subscriptions does the Brown School Library have for mental health issues?
5ace311b32bba1001ae49d61
True
450
700
How many nationally and internationally acclaimed scholars work for Brown?
5ace311b32bba1001ae49d62
True
12
416
How many academic journal subscriptions does the Brown School Library have for gerontology?
5ace311b32bba1001ae49d63
True
450
700
How many of the facility have trained in both social work and public health?
5ace311b32bba1001ae49d64
True
12
416
How many academic journal subscriptions does the Brown School Library have for family therapy?
5ace311b32bba1001ae49d65
True
The school has many nationally and internationally acclaimed scholars in social security, health care, health disparities, communication, social and health policy, and individual and family development. Many of the faculty have training in both social work and public health. The school's current dean is Edward F. Lawlor. In addition to affiliation with the university-wide Institute of Public Health, Brown houses 12 research centers. The Brown School Library collects materials on many topics, with specific emphasis on: children, youth, and families; gerontology; health; mental health; social and economic development; family therapy; and management. The library maintains subscriptions to over 450 academic journals.
When was the Mildred Lane Kemper Art Museum established?
572ffe3504bcaa1900d76fd1
1881
51
False
From what centuries does  the Mildred Lane Kemper Art Museum have collections?
572ffe3504bcaa1900d76fd2
19th, 20th, and 21st century
146
False
When did the Mildred Lane Kemper Art Museum changed locations?
572ffe3504bcaa1900d76fd3
2006
465
False
Who designed the new location of  the Mildred Lane Kemper Art Museum?
572ffe3504bcaa1900d76fd4
Fumihiko Maki
597
False
What facility was Fumihiko Maki's first commission?
572ffe3504bcaa1900d76fd5
Steinberg Hall
685
False
Mildred Lane Kemper Art Museum
4
What is the oldest teaching museum in the country?
5ace31a732bba1001ae49d87
True
1881
51
In what year was George Caleb Bingham born?
5ace31a732bba1001ae49d88
True
2006
465
In what year was the Newman Money Museum established?
5ace31a732bba1001ae49d89
True
3,000 sq ft
412
How big is the Kemper Art Museum?
5ace31a732bba1001ae49d8a
True
Fumihiko Maki
597
Who designed the Newman Money Museum?
5ace31a732bba1001ae49d8b
True
The Mildred Lane Kemper Art Museum, established in 1881, is one of the oldest teaching museums in the country. The collection includes works from 19th, 20th, and 21st century American and European artists, including George Caleb Bingham, Thomas Cole, Pablo Picasso, Max Ernst, Alexander Calder, Jackson Pollock, Rembrandt, Robert Rauschenberg, Barbara Kruger, and Christian Boltanski. Also in the complex is the 3,000 sq ft (300 m2) Newman Money Museum. In October 2006, the Kemper Art Museum moved from its previous location, Steinberg Hall, into a new facility designed by former faculty member Fumihiko Maki. Interestingly, the new Kemper Art Museum is located directly across from Steinberg Hall, which was Maki's very first commission in 1959.
How many schools does Washington University have?
572fffe804bcaa1900d76ff9
seven
193
False
What percent of undergraduate students are involved in faculty research?
572fffe804bcaa1900d76ffa
60%
421
False
How does the Center for Measuring University performance rank Washington University?
572fffe804bcaa1900d76ffb
one of the top 10 private research universities in the nation
681
False
Where is the Office of Undergraduate Research located?
572fffe804bcaa1900d76ffc
the Danforth Campus
803
False
60%
421
What percentage of faculty members at Washington University engage in academic research?
5ace330032bba1001ae49dc9
True
the Danforth Campus
803
Where is the Center for Measuring University Performance located?
5ace330032bba1001ae49dca
True
Washington University
33
What is considered the top 10 private research university in the nation?
5ace330032bba1001ae49dcb
True
Washington University
33
What university is known for interdisciplinarity and departmental noncooperation?
5ace330032bba1001ae49dcc
True
Virtually all faculty members at Washington University engage in academic research,[citation needed] offering opportunities for both undergraduate and graduate students across the university's seven schools. Known for its interdisciplinarity and departmental collaboration, many of Washington University's research centers and institutes are collaborative efforts between many areas on campus.[citation needed] More than 60% of undergraduates are involved in faculty research across all areas; it is an institutional priority for undergraduates to be allowed to participate in advanced research. According to the Center for Measuring University Performance, it is considered to be one of the top 10 private research universities in the nation. A dedicated Office of Undergraduate Research is located on the Danforth Campus and serves as a resource to post research opportunities, advise students in finding appropriate positions matching their interests, publish undergraduate research journals, and award research grants to make it financially possible to perform research.
How much money in financial support did Washington University receive in 2007?
57300ba3947a6a140053cfd2
$537.5 million
25
False
How many inventions does Washington University have funded by the National Institute of health?
57300ba3947a6a140053cfd3
150
151
False
What percentage of NH grants in Missouri went to Washington University?
57300ba3947a6a140053cfd4
80%
541
False
What percentage of the sequencing did the Washington University Medical School contribute to the Human Genome Project?
57300ba3947a6a140053cfd5
25%
772
False
What  are some organisms for which  the Genome Sequencing Center at  Washington University Medical provided genome decoding?
57300ba3947a6a140053cfd6
platypus, chimpanzee, cat, and corn
917
False
$537.5 million
25
How much money did Washington University receive in fiscal year 2006 for total research support?
5ace33f332bba1001ae49e09
True
$537.5 million
25
How much in federal obligations was spent in total research support in fiscal year 2007?
5ace33f332bba1001ae49e0a
True
2007
639
In what year was the Human Genome Project started?
5ace33f332bba1001ae49e0b
True
80%
541
What percentage of plants have had their genome sequenced?
5ace33f332bba1001ae49e0c
True
25%
772
What percentage of animals have had their genome sequenced?
5ace33f332bba1001ae49e0d
True
During fiscal year 2007, $537.5 million was received in total research support, including $444 million in federal obligations. The University has over 150 National Institutes of Health funded inventions, with many of them licensed to private companies. Governmental agencies and non-profit foundations such as the NIH, United States Department of Defense, National Science Foundation, and NASA provide the majority of research grant funding, with Washington University being one of the top recipients in NIH grants from year-to-year. Nearly 80% of NIH grants to institutions in the state of Missouri went to Washington University alone in 2007. Washington University and its Medical School play a large part in the Human Genome Project, where it contributes approximately 25% of the finished sequence. The Genome Sequencing Center has decoded the genome of many animals, plants, and cellular organisms, including the platypus, chimpanzee, cat, and corn.
How many student organizations does Washington University have on campus?
57300d78b2c2fd14005687b1
300
31
False
How are most student organizations at Washington University funded?
57300d78b2c2fd14005687b2
by the Washington University Student Union
98
False
What is the amount of the Washington University Student Union annual budget?
57300d78b2c2fd14005687b3
$2 million
154
False
How many fraternities are located at Washington University?
57300d78b2c2fd14005687b4
11
901
False
What percentage of students are involved in Greek life at Washington University?
57300d78b2c2fd14005687b5
35%
954
False
35%
954
What percentage of undergraduate student organizations are funded by the Washington University Student Union?
5ace34e132bba1001ae49e3b
True
$2 million
154
How much does the Washington University radio program take to run per year?
5ace34e132bba1001ae49e3c
True
2003
766
In what year did the radio station KWUR first air?
5ace34e132bba1001ae49e3d
True
$2 million
154
How much does it cost to run the Congress of the South 40 annually?
5ace34e132bba1001ae49e3e
True
300
31
How many weekly lecture series are there on the Washington University campus each year?
5ace34e132bba1001ae49e3f
True
Washington University has over 300 undergraduate student organizations on campus. Most are funded by the Washington University Student Union, which has a $2 million plus annual budget that is completely student-controlled and is one of the largest student government budgets in the country. Known as SU for short, the Student Union sponsors large-scale campus programs including WILD (a semesterly concert in the quad) and free copies of the New York Times, USA Today, and the St. Louis Post-Dispatch through The Collegiate Readership Program; it also contributes to the Assembly Series, a weekly lecture series produced by the University, and funds the campus television station, WUTV, and the radio station, KWUR. KWUR was named best radio station in St. Louis of 2003 by the Riverfront Times despite the fact that its signal reaches only a few blocks beyond the boundaries of the campus. There are 11 fraternities and 9 sororities, with approximately 35% of the student body being involved in Greek life. The Congress of the South 40 (CS40) is a Residential Life and Events Programming Board, which operates outside of the SU sphere. CS40's funding comes from the Housing Activities Fee of each student living on the South 40.
How many a cappella groups does Washington University have?
57300eee947a6a140053d00e
12
92
False
What is the name of the oldest a cappella group at Washington University?
57300eee947a6a140053d00f
The Pikers
123
False
What is the oldest female a cappella group at Washington University?
57300eee947a6a140053d010
The Greenleafs
190
False
When was the oldest co-ed  a cappella group at Washington University founded?
57300eee947a6a140053d011
1991
598
False
When did the group After Dark perform MSNBC?
57300eee947a6a140053d012
2008
816
False
9
369
How many member are there in The Pikers a cappella group?
5ace35d632bba1001ae49e6b
True
1991
307
In what year were the Greenleafs founded?
5ace35d632bba1001ae49e6c
True
9
369
How many albums have The Pikers produced?
5ace35d632bba1001ae49e6d
True
Washington University
0
Which university did Nobel Laureate Douglass North graduate from?
5ace35d632bba1001ae49e6e
True
seven
623
How many albums have The Greenleafs produced?
5ace35d632bba1001ae49e6f
True
Washington University has a large number of student-run musical groups on campus, including 12 official a cappella groups. The Pikers, an all-male group, is the oldest such group on campus. The Greenleafs, an all-female group is the oldest (and only) female group on campus. The Mosaic Whispers, founded in 1991, is the oldest co-ed group on campus. They have produced 9 albums and have appeared on a number of compilation albums, including Ben Folds' Ben Folds Presents: University A Cappella! The Amateurs, who also appeared on this album, is another co-ed a cappella group on campus, founded in 1991. They have recorded seven albums and toured extensively. After Dark is a co-ed a cappella group founded in 2001. It has released three albums and has won several Contemporary A Capella Recording (CARA) awards. In 2008 the group performed on MSNBC during coverage of the vice presidential debate with specially written songs about Joe Biden and Sarah Palin. The Ghost Lights, founded in 2010, is the campus's newest and only Broadway, Movies, and Television soundtrack group. They have performed multiple philanthropic concerts in the greater St. Louis area and were honored in November 2010 with the opportunity to perform for Nobel Laureate Douglass North at his birthday celebration.
What percent of undergraduate students live on campus at Washington University?
5730107c947a6a140053d022
Over 50%
0
False
Where are most residence halls located at Washington University?
5730107c947a6a140053d023
the South 40,
104
False
How did the South 40 get its name?
5730107c947a6a140053d024
because of its adjacent location on the south side of the Danforth Campus and its size of 40 acres
124
False
Where are all freshman residence buildings at Washington University located?
5730107c947a6a140053d025
the South 40
104
False
What is the gender make-up of the residence halls at Washington University?
5730107c947a6a140053d026
co-ed
427
False
50%
5
What percentage of the residence halls are located on the South 40?
5ace36f432bba1001ae49eab
True
40 acres
214
How large is the Danforth Campus?
5ace36f432bba1001ae49eac
True
Danforth Campus
182
Besides the South 40 where else are upperclassman buildings at?
5ace36f432bba1001ae49ead
True
pedestrian-friendly
465
What type of environment is the Danforth Campus?
5ace36f432bba1001ae49eae
True
40
444
How many student owned businesses are there in the South 40?
5ace36f432bba1001ae49eaf
True
Over 50% of undergraduate students live on campus. Most of the residence halls on campus are located on the South 40, named because of its adjacent location on the south side of the Danforth Campus and its size of 40 acres (160,000 m2). It is the location of all the freshman buildings as well as several upperclassman buildings, which are set up in the traditional residential college system. All of the residential halls are co-ed. The South 40 is organized as a pedestrian-friendly environment wherein residences surround a central recreational lawn known as the Swamp. Bear's Den (the largest dining hall on campus), the Habif Health and Wellness Center (Student Health Services), the Residential Life Office, University Police Headquarters, various student-owned businesses (e.g. the laundry service, Wash U Wash), and the baseball, softball, and intramural fields are also located on the South 40.
Where is the Village located at Washington University?
573012c004bcaa1900d77103
the northwest corner of Danforth Campus
65
False
What students are allowed in the North Side residences at Washington University?
573012c004bcaa1900d77104
upperclassmen and January Scholars
119
False
How many students are composed in Blocs?
573012c004bcaa1900d77105
groups of 4 to 24
562
False
What residences comprise the North Side of Washington University?
573012c004bcaa1900d77106
Millbrook Apartments, The Village, Village East on-campus apartments
182
False
How are students grouped in BLOCS at  the Village residences?
573012c004bcaa1900d77107
students who have similar interests or academic goals
493
False
Millbrook Apartments
182
Which North Side structure is closest to the Zeta Beta Tau fraternity house?
5ace37ff32bba1001ae49eed
True
The Village
204
What is to the northeast of Washington University?
5ace37ff32bba1001ae49eee
True
4
572
How many sororities are there at Washington University?
5ace37ff32bba1001ae49eef
True
24
577
How many fraternities are there at Washington University?
5ace37ff32bba1001ae49ef0
True
24
577
How many January Scholars are there typically at Washington University?
5ace37ff32bba1001ae49ef1
True
Another group of residences, known as the Village, is located in the northwest corner of Danforth Campus. Only open to upperclassmen and January Scholars, the North Side consists of Millbrook Apartments, The Village, Village East on-campus apartments, and all fraternity houses except the Zeta Beta Tau house, which is off campus and located just northwest of the South 40. Sororities at Washington University do not have houses by their own accord. The Village is a group of residences where students who have similar interests or academic goals apply as small groups of 4 to 24, known as BLOCs, to live together in clustered suites along with non-BLOCs. Like the South 40, the residences around the Village also surround a recreational lawn.
How many media outlets does Washington University support?
57301454a23a5019007fcd1b
four
31
False
What is the official student radio station at Washington University?
57301454a23a5019007fcd1c
KWUR (90.3 FM)
146
False
What is the name of Washington University's political publication?
57301454a23a5019007fcd1d
Washington University Political Review
466
False
What is Washington University's closed circuit television network?
57301454a23a5019007fcd1e
WUTV
343
False
What are the names of the art journals published by Washington University?
57301454a23a5019007fcd1f
The Eliot Review and Spires Intercollegiate Arts and Literary Magazine
652
False
four
31
How many student-run political publications are there at Washington University?
5ace39eb32bba1001ae49f51
True
monthly
558
How often do Washington University undergraduates publish their literary and art journals?
5ace39eb32bba1001ae49f52
True
eclectic and free-form
299
What has the surrounding community called the content of Student Life?
5ace39eb32bba1001ae49f53
True
monthly
558
How often are in-house academic journals published typically?
5ace39eb32bba1001ae49f54
True
monthly
558
How often are glossy alumni magazines sent out to former students?
5ace39eb32bba1001ae49f55
True
Washington University supports four major student-run media outlets. The university's student newspaper, Student Life, is available for students. KWUR (90.3 FM) serves as the students' official radio station; the station also attracts an audience in the immediately surrounding community due to its eclectic and free-form musical programming. WUTV is the university's closed-circuit television channel. The university's main student-run political publication is the Washington University Political Review (nicknamed "WUPR"), a self-described "multipartisan" monthly magazine. Washington University undergraduates publish two literary and art journals, The Eliot Review and Spires Intercollegiate Arts and Literary Magazine. A variety of other publications also serve the university community, ranging from in-house academic journals to glossy alumni magazines to WUnderground, campus' student-run satirical newspaper.
What is the name of the Washington University sports teams?
573015da04bcaa1900d77155
the Bears
48
False
At what division level does the Washington University sports teams compete?
573015da04bcaa1900d77156
Division III
186
False
How many NCAA division championships have the Washington University sports teams won?
573015da04bcaa1900d77157
19
225
False
In what years did the Washington University men's basketball teams win division championships?
573015da04bcaa1900d77158
2008, 2009
351
False
Who is the head of the Washington University Athletic Department?
573015da04bcaa1900d77159
John Schael
558
False
1978
616
When did Washington University become part of the University Athletic Association?
5ace3ada32bba1001ae49f8b
True
one
261
How many women's tennis NCAA Division III championships have they won?
5ace3ada32bba1001ae49f8c
True
two
326
How many men's cross country NCAA Division III championships have they won?
5ace3ada32bba1001ae49f8d
True
basketball
380
What sport did John Schael play when he was in college?
5ace3ada32bba1001ae49f8e
True
five
364
how many men's volleyball NCAA Division III championships have they won?
5ace3ada32bba1001ae49f8f
True
Washington University's sports teams are called the Bears. They are members of the National Collegiate Athletic Association and participate in the University Athletic Association at the Division III level. The Bears have won 19 NCAA Division III Championships— one in women's cross country (2011), one in men's tennis (2008), two in men's basketball (2008, 2009), five in women's basketball (1998–2001, 2010), and ten in women's volleyball (1989, 1991–1996, 2003, 2007, 2009) – and 144 UAA titles in 15 different sports. The Athletic Department is headed by John Schael who has served as director of athletics since 1978. The 2000 Division III Central Region winner of the National Association of Collegiate Directors of Athletics/Continental Airlines Athletics Director of the Year award, Schael has helped orchestrate the Bears athletics transformation into one of the top departments in Division III.
Central_Intelligence_Agency
What is the CIA's main focus?
572f4a7a947a6a140053c866
overseas intelligence gathering
149
False
What does FBI stand for?
572f4a7a947a6a140053c867
Federal Bureau of Investigation
11
False
What is the only agency that is authorized to carry out action on behalf of the president?
572f4a7a947a6a140053c868
CIA
437
False
Unlike the Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI), which is a domestic security service, CIA has no law enforcement function and is mainly focused on overseas intelligence gathering, with only limited domestic collection. Though it is not the only U.S. government agency specializing in HUMINT, CIA serves as the national manager for coordination and deconfliction of HUMINT activities across the entire intelligence community. Moreover, CIA is the only agency authorized by law to carry out and oversee covert action on behalf of the President, unless the President determines that another agency is better suited for carrying out such action. It can, for example, exert foreign political influence through its tactical divisions, such as the Special Activities Division.
Who is in charge of the day to day operation of the CIA?
572f4bcd04bcaa1900d76821
The Executive Director
199
False
What is the title of the person who manages the relationship between the CIA and the Unified Combatant Commands?
572f4bcd04bcaa1900d76822
The Associate Director of military affairs
328
False
What three ways does the Executive office support the U.S. military?
572f4bcd04bcaa1900d76823
providing it with information it gathers, receiving information from military intelligence organizations, and cooperating on field activities
56
False
The Executive Office also supports the U.S. military by providing it with information it gathers, receiving information from military intelligence organizations, and cooperating on field activities. The Executive Director is in charge of the day to day operation of the CIA, and each branch of the service has its own Director. The Associate Director of military affairs, a senior military officer, manages the relationship between the CIA and the Unified Combatant Commands, who produce regional/operational intelligence and consume national intelligence.
Who produces all source intelligence investigations?
572f4d2d04bcaa1900d76827
The Directorate of Analysis
0
False
How many regional analytic groups does the Directorate of Analysis have?
572f4d2d04bcaa1900d76828
four
194
False
How many groups does the Directorate of Analysis have for transnational issues?
572f4d2d04bcaa1900d76829
six
225
False
The Directorate of Analysis has an office dedicated to what country?
572f4d2d04bcaa1900d7682a
Iraq
352
False
How many groups of the Directorate of Analysis focus on policy, collection and staff support?
572f4d2d04bcaa1900d7682b
three
266
False
The Directorate of Analysis produces all-source intelligence investigation on key foreign and intercontinental issues relating to powerful and sometimes anti-government sensitive topics. It has four regional analytic groups, six groups for transnational issues, and three focus on policy, collection, and staff support. There is an office dedicated to Iraq, and regional analytical Offices covering the Near Eastern and South Asian Analysis, the Office of Russian and European Analysis, and the Office of Asian Pacific, Asian Pacific, Latin American, and African Analysis and African Analysis.
What office is in charge of collecting foreign intelligence?
572f4e74947a6a140053c86c
The Directorate of Operations
0
False
What is the main reason the Directorate of Operations was created?
572f4e74947a6a140053c86d
to end years of rivalry
359
False
What intelligence service did the Department of Defense recently create?
572f4e74947a6a140053c86e
the Defense Clandestine Service
600
False
What does DIA stand for?
572f4e74947a6a140053c86f
Defense Intelligence Agency
649
False
What is DOD short for?
572f4e74947a6a140053c870
Department of Defense
447
False
The Directorate of Operations is responsible for collecting foreign intelligence, mainly from clandestine HUMINT sources, and covert action. The name reflects its role as the coordinator of human intelligence activities among other elements of the wider U.S. intelligence community with their own HUMINT operations. This Directorate was created in an attempt to end years of rivalry over influence, philosophy and budget between the United States Department of Defense (DOD) and the CIA. In spite of this, the Department of Defense recently organized its own global clandestine intelligence service, the Defense Clandestine Service (DCS), under the Defense Intelligence Agency (DIA).
In what year did the CIA establish its first training facility?
572f4f74a23a5019007fc517
1950
90
False
What was the name of the first training facility that was established by the CIA?
572f4f74a23a5019007fc518
the Office of Training and Education
49
False
What event decreased the CIA's training budget?
572f4f74a23a5019007fc519
the Cold War
117
False
Who was the Director of Central Intelligence in 2002?
572f4f74a23a5019007fc51a
George Tenet
267
False
How many annual courses does the CIA University have?
572f4f74a23a5019007fc51b
between 200 and 300
337
False
The CIA established its first training facility, the Office of Training and Education, in 1950. Following the end of the Cold War, the CIA's training budget was slashed, which had a negative effect on employee retention. In response, Director of Central Intelligence George Tenet established CIA University in 2002. CIA University holds between 200 and 300 courses each year, training both new hires and experienced intelligence officers, as well as CIA support staff. The facility works in partnership with the National Intelligence University, and includes the Sherman Kent School for Intelligence Analysis, the Directorate of Analysis' component of the university.
What year was the Central Intelligence Agency Act created?
572f508fa23a5019007fc521
1949
118
False
Who is the only federal employee that can spend un-vouched for money?
572f508fa23a5019007fc522
the Director of Central Intelligence
124
False
How much money was spent on non-military intelligence in 2013?
572f508fa23a5019007fc523
$52.6 billion
373
False
What was the 2013 annual budget for the CIA's HUMINT?
572f508fa23a5019007fc524
$2.3 billion
597
False
What two major things does the CIA's "Covert action programs" include?
572f508fa23a5019007fc525
drone fleet and anti-Iranian nuclear program activities
797
False
Details of the overall United States intelligence budget are classified. Under the Central Intelligence Agency Act of 1949, the Director of Central Intelligence is the only federal government employee who can spend "un-vouchered" government money. The government has disclosed a total figure for all non-military intelligence spending since 2007; the fiscal 2013 figure is $52.6 billion. According to the 2013 mass surveillance disclosures, the CIA's fiscal 2013 budget is $14.7 billion, 28% of the total and almost 50% more than the budget of the National Security Agency. CIA's HUMINT budget is $2.3 billion, the SIGINT budget is $1.7 billion, and spending for security and logistics of CIA missions is $2.5 billion. "Covert action programs", including a variety of activities such as the CIA's drone fleet and anti-Iranian nuclear program activities, accounts for $2.6 billion.
What was the first year the CIA's budget was disclosed?
572f51a8a23a5019007fc52b
1963
155
False
Who disclosed the CIA's budget for 2005?
572f51a8a23a5019007fc52c
Mary Margaret Graham
395
False
What group accidentally published the non CIA budget in 1994?
572f51a8a23a5019007fc52d
Congress
578
False
What plan appropriated $13.7 billion over five years?
572f51a8a23a5019007fc52e
the Marshall Plan
756
False
What percent of the $13.7 billion did the CIA receive?
572f51a8a23a5019007fc52f
5%
833
False
There were numerous previous attempts to obtain general information about the budget. As a result, it was revealed that CIA's annual budget in Fiscal Year 1963 was US $550 million (inflation-adjusted US$ 4.3 billion in 2016), and the overall intelligence budget in FY 1997 was US $26.6 billion (inflation-adjusted US$ 39.2 billion in 2016). There have been accidental disclosures; for instance, Mary Margaret Graham, a former CIA official and deputy director of national intelligence for collection in 2005, said that the annual intelligence budget was $44 billion, and in 1994 Congress accidentally published a budget of $43.4 billion (in 2012 dollars) in 1994 for the non-military National Intelligence Program, including $4.8 billion for the CIA. After the Marshall Plan was approved, appropriating $13.7 billion over five years, 5% of those funds or $685 million were made available to the CIA.
What is the UK's equivalent to the CIA?
572f52b1947a6a140053c876
Secret Intelligence Service
90
False
What does ASIS stand for?
572f52b1947a6a140053c877
Australian Secret Intelligence Service
140
False
What is the name of Israel's intelligence agency?
572f52b1947a6a140053c878
Mossad
505
False
What is the acronym for French's intelligence service?
572f52b1947a6a140053c879
DGSE
486
False
What is the acronym for India's Research and Analysis Wing?
572f52b1947a6a140053c87a
RAW
345
False
The role and functions of the CIA are roughly equivalent to those of the United Kingdom's Secret Intelligence Service (the SIS or MI6), the Australian Secret Intelligence Service (ASIS), the Egyptian General Intelligence Service, the Russian Foreign Intelligence Service (Sluzhba Vneshney Razvedki) (SVR), the Indian Research and Analysis Wing (RAW), the Pakistani Inter-Services Intelligence (ISI), the French foreign intelligence service Direction Générale de la Sécurité Extérieure (DGSE) and Israel's Mossad. While the preceding agencies both collect and analyze information, some like the U.S. State Department's Bureau of Intelligence and Research are purely analytical agencies.[citation needed]
Which four countries can share communications with the U.S. IC?
572f554ea23a5019007fc565
Australia, Canada, New Zealand, and the United Kingdom
101
False
What does NOFORN stand for?
572f554ea23a5019007fc566
No Foreign Nationals
501
False
What is the special marking that shows messages can be shared with these other five countries?
572f554ea23a5019007fc567
USA/AUS/CAN/GBR/NZL Five Eyes
646
False
The closest links of the U.S. IC to other foreign intelligence agencies are to Anglophone countries: Australia, Canada, New Zealand, and the United Kingdom. There is a special communications marking that signals that intelligence-related messages can be shared with these four countries. An indication of the United States' close operational cooperation is the creation of a new message distribution label within the main U.S. military communications network. Previously, the marking of NOFORN (i.e., No Foreign Nationals) required the originator to specify which, if any, non-U.S. countries could receive the information. A new handling caveat, USA/AUS/CAN/GBR/NZL Five Eyes, used primarily on intelligence messages, gives an easier way to indicate that the material can be shared with Australia, Canada, United Kingdom, and New Zealand.
What president authorized the creation of the intelligence service?
572f5607b2c2fd1400568035
Franklin D. Roosevelt
81
False
Who's secret intelligence service was the US's modeled after?
572f5607b2c2fd1400568036
British
174
False
What does OSS stand for?
572f5607b2c2fd1400568037
Office of Strategic Services
283
False
Who signed the order to get rid of the OSS?
572f5607b2c2fd1400568038
Harry S. Truman
381
False
In what year was the OSS dissolved?
572f5607b2c2fd1400568039
1945
458
False
The success of the British Commandos during World War II prompted U.S. President Franklin D. Roosevelt to authorize the creation of an intelligence service modeled after the British Secret Intelligence Service (MI6), and Special Operations Executive. This led to the creation of the Office of Strategic Services (OSS). On September 20, 1945, shortly after the end of World War II, Harry S. Truman signed an executive order dissolving the OSS, and by October 1945 its functions had been divided between the Departments of State and War. The division lasted only a few months. The first public mention of the "Central Intelligence Agency" appeared on a command-restructuring proposal presented by Jim Forrestal and Arthur Radford to the U.S. Senate Military Affairs Committee at the end of 1945. Despite opposition from the military establishment, the United States Department of State and the Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI), Truman established the National Intelligence Authority in January 1946, which was the direct predecessor of the CIA. Its operational extension was known as the Central Intelligence Group (CIG)
Which act got rid of the NIA and the CIG?
572f570b04bcaa1900d7685d
National Security Act
97
False
What program handled "essential aliens" that did not fall under normal immigration policies?
572f570b04bcaa1900d7685e
PL-110
663
False
Lawrence Houston helped to draft what act in 1949?
572f570b04bcaa1900d7685f
Central Intelligence Agency Act
290
False
Lawrence Houston, head counsel of the SSU, CIG, and, later CIA, was a principle draftsman of the National Security Act of 1947 which dissolved the NIA and the CIG, and established both the National Security Council and the Central Intelligence Agency. In 1949, Houston would help draft the Central Intelligence Agency Act, (Public law 81-110) which authorized the agency to use confidential fiscal and administrative procedures, and exempted it from most limitations on the use of Federal funds. It also exempted the CIA from having to disclose its "organization, functions, officials, titles, salaries, or numbers of personnel employed." It created the program "PL-110", to handle defectors and other "essential aliens" who fell outside normal immigration procedures.
Who was appointed to be the new Director of the CIA in 1950?
572f580c947a6a140053c894
Walter Bedell Smith
453
False
Where was most of the CIA's intelligence coming from before 1950?
572f580c947a6a140053c895
the Office of Reports and Estimates
153
False
What president announced the new CIA director?
572f580c947a6a140053c896
Truman
436
False
At the outset of the Korean War the CIA still only had a few thousand employees, a thousand of whom worked in analysis. Intelligence primarily came from the Office of Reports and Estimates, which drew its reports from a daily take of State Department telegrams, military dispatches, and other public documents. The CIA still lacked its own intelligence gathering abilities. On 21 August 1950, shortly after the invasion of South Korea, Truman announced Walter Bedell Smith as the new Director of the CIA to correct what was seen as a grave failure of Intelligence.[clarification needed]
Who wanted the CIA to have a central group that organized information for him?
572f58d704bcaa1900d76881
Truman
82
False
What did the Department of defense want from the CIA?
572f58d704bcaa1900d76882
military intelligence and covert action
195
False
What was the State Department hoping for the CIA to do?
572f58d704bcaa1900d76883
create global political change favorable to the US
271
False
What was one of the main targets of intelligence gathering?
572f58d704bcaa1900d76884
the Soviet Union
471
False
The CIA had different demands placed on it by the different bodies overseeing it. Truman wanted a centralized group to organize the information that reached him, the Department of Defense wanted military intelligence and covert action, and the State Department wanted to create global political change favorable to the US. Thus the two areas of responsibility for the CIA were covert action and covert intelligence. One of the main targets for intelligence gathering was the Soviet Union, which had also been a priority of the CIA's predecessors.
Who created the Office of Special Operations?
572f59d8b2c2fd1400568063
Hoyt Vandenberg
16
False
What was the Office of Special Operations initial budget?
572f59d8b2c2fd1400568064
$15 million
244
False
Who was the OSO trying to track and gain intelligence on?
572f59d8b2c2fd1400568065
the Soviet forces
413
False
What does ORE stand for?
572f59d8b2c2fd1400568066
Office of Reports and Estimates
123
False
US army general Hoyt Vandenberg, the CIG's second director, created the Office of Special Operations (OSO), as well as the Office of Reports and Estimates (ORE). Initially the OSO was tasked with spying and subversion overseas with a budget of $15 million, the largesse of a small number of patrons in congress. Vandenberg's goals were much like the ones set out by his predecessor; finding out "everything about the Soviet forces in Eastern and Central Europe - their movements, their capabilities, and their intentions." This task fell to the 228 overseas personnel covering Germany, Austria, Switzerland, Poland, Czechoslovakia, and Hungary.
Directive 10/2 called for actions against who?
572f5ad0b2c2fd1400568073
the USSR
103
False
In what year was directive 10/2 issued?
572f5ad0b2c2fd1400568074
1948
11
False
Who was the head of the OPC?
572f5ad0b2c2fd1400568075
Frank Wisner
376
False
Most CIA stations had how many chiefs?
572f5ad0b2c2fd1400568076
two
589
False
On 18 June 1948, the National Security Council issued Directive 10/2 calling for covert action against the USSR, and granting the authority to carry out covert operations against "hostile foreign states or groups" that could, if needed, be denied by the U.S. government. To this end, the Office of Policy Coordination was created inside the new CIA. The OPC was quite unique; Frank Wisner, the head of the OPC, answered not to the CIA Director, but to the secretaries of defense, state, and the NSC, and the OPC's actions were a secret even from the head of the CIA. Most CIA stations had two station chiefs, one working for the OSO, and one working for the OPC.
How many troops did the Chinese enter into the Korean War?
572f5c68a23a5019007fc5a1
300,000
314
False
Who compromised hundreds of airdrops?
572f5c68a23a5019007fc5a2
Kim Philby
354
False
Who was a Russian translator and Soviet Spy?
572f5c68a23a5019007fc5a3
Bill Weisband
602
False
The early track record of the CIA was poor, with the agency unable to provide sufficient intelligence about the Soviet takeovers of Romania and Czechoslovakia, the Soviet blockade of Berlin, and the Soviet atomic bomb project. In particular, the agency failed to predict the Chinese entry into the Korean War with 300,000 troops. The famous double agent Kim Philby was the British liaison to American Central Intelligence. Through him the CIA coordinated hundreds of airdrops inside the iron curtain, all compromised by Philby. Arlington Hall, the nerve center of CIA cryptanalysisl was compromised by Bill Weisband, a Russian translator and Soviet spy. The CIA would reuse the tactic of dropping plant agents behind enemy lines by parachute again on China, and North Korea. This too would be fruitless.
Pain
What type of stimuli causes pain?
572f52dc947a6a140053c880
intense or damaging
46
False
What type of feeling is pain?
572f52dc947a6a140053c881
distressing
10
False
Why has defining pain been a challenge?
572f52dc947a6a140053c882
complex, subjective phenomenon
189
False
What organization's definition is widely used?
572f52dc947a6a140053c883
The International Association for the Study of Pain
257
False
In medical diagnosis, what is pain considered?
572f52dc947a6a140053c884
a symptom
518
False
Pain is an unpleasant sensory and emotional experience associated with actual or potential tissue damage, or described in terms of such damage." In
343
What definition does the International Association for the Pain Study use for pain?
5accfe0d07355d001abf3136
True
a symptom
518
What is pain in complex diagnosis?
5accfe0d07355d001abf3137
True
Pain is an unpleasant sensory and emotional experience associated with actual or potential tissue damage, or described in terms of such damage."
343
What is the National Association  for the Study of Pain's definition for pain?
5accfe0d07355d001abf3138
True
pain
230
What is an intense phenomenon?
5accfe0d07355d001abf3139
True
Pain is a distressing feeling often caused by intense or damaging stimuli, such as stubbing a toe, burning a finger, putting alcohol on a cut, and bumping the "funny bone". Because it is a complex, subjective phenomenon, defining pain has been a challenge. The International Association for the Study of Pain's widely used definition states: "Pain is an unpleasant sensory and emotional experience associated with actual or potential tissue damage, or described in terms of such damage." In medical diagnosis, pain is a symptom.
What is the most common reason people go to the doctor in first world countries?
572f539cb2c2fd1400568023
Pain
0
False
How can pain effect a person's quality of life and general functioning?
572f539cb2c2fd1400568024
interfere
145
False
Excitement and distraction are what type of factors which affect pain's intensity?
572f539cb2c2fd1400568025
Psychological
212
False
What has pain sometimes been used as an argument to allow terminally ill patients the right to do?
572f539cb2c2fd1400568026
end their lives
519
False
Pain
0
What is a developed symptom in most medical conditions?
5accff6407355d001abf3148
True
Psychological factors
212
What are social suggestion, hypnotic excitement and distraction?
5accff6407355d001abf3149
True
pain
448
What has been used in argument for patient-assisted suicide?
5accff6407355d001abf314a
True
Pain
0
What is the most common reason for physician euthanasia?
5accff6407355d001abf314b
True
Pain is the most common reason for physician consultation in most developed countries. It is a major symptom in many medical conditions, and can interfere with a person's quality of life and general functioning. Psychological factors such as social support, hypnotic suggestion, excitement, or distraction can significantly affect pain's intensity or unpleasantness. In some arguments put forth in physician-assisted suicide or euthanasia debates, pain has been used as an argument to permit terminally ill patients to end their lives.
What year did the IASP respond to the need to create a more useful system for describing pain?
572f5441a23a5019007fc547
1994
3
False
How many classes of pain does the IASP system note?
572f5441a23a5019007fc548
5
430
False
Who has criticized the IASP's system?
572f5441a23a5019007fc549
Clifford J. Woolf and others
487
False
What do some people feel the IASP's system is inadequate for?
572f5441a23a5019007fc54a
guiding research and treatment
534
False
How many classes of research does Woolf encourage?
572f5441a23a5019007fc54b
three
581
False
classified pain according to specific characteristics
145
What did the ISAP do in 1949?
5acd009507355d001abf3160
True
three
581
How many classes of pain does J. Woolf Clifford suggest?
5acd009507355d001abf3161
True
disease state caused by damage to the nervous system or by its abnormal function (e.g.
763
What is the definition of pathological dysfunction?
5acd009507355d001abf3162
True
(IASP) classified pain
138
What system did Woolf J. Clifford criticize?
5acd009507355d001abf3163
True
a more useful system for describing chronic pain,
36
What was needed in 1949?
5acd009507355d001abf3164
True
In 1994, responding to the need for a more useful system for describing chronic pain, the International Association for the Study of Pain (IASP) classified pain according to specific characteristics: (1) region of the body involved (e.g. abdomen, lower limbs), (2) system whose dysfunction may be causing the pain (e.g., nervous, gastrointestinal), (3) duration and pattern of occurrence, (4) intensity and time since onset, and (5) etiology. However, this system has been criticized by Clifford J. Woolf and others as inadequate for guiding research and treatment. Woolf suggests three classes of pain : (1) nociceptive pain, (2) inflammatory pain which is associated with tissue damage and the infiltration of immune cells, and (3) pathological pain which is a disease state caused by damage to the nervous system or by its abnormal function (e.g. fibromyalgia, irritable bowel syndrome, tension type headache, etc.).
What is usually temporary?
572f6c5904bcaa1900d76921
Pain
0
False
How long does pain tend to last?
572f6c5904bcaa1900d76922
only until the noxious stimulus is removed
36
False
What is pain which resolves quickly called?
572f6c5904bcaa1900d76923
acute
364
False
What has the distinction between acute and chronic pain been arbitrarily measured by?
572f6c5904bcaa1900d76924
interval of time from onset
462
False
What might chronic pain sometimes be referred to as?
572f6c5904bcaa1900d76925
cancer pain
1040
False
rheumatoid arthritis, peripheral neuropathy, cancer and idiopathic pain
166
What types of transitory pain persist for years?
5acd021207355d001abf3192
True
chronic or persistent,
300
What is acute pain lasting a long time called?
5acd021207355d001abf3193
True
12 months
674
How many months does acute pain last?
5acd021207355d001abf3194
True
pain that extends beyond the expected period of healing
948
What is a popular definition that used an arbitrarily fixed duration of time?
5acd021207355d001abf3195
True
Pain is usually transitory, lasting only until the noxious stimulus is removed or the underlying damage or pathology has healed, but some painful conditions, such as rheumatoid arthritis, peripheral neuropathy, cancer and idiopathic pain, may persist for years. Pain that lasts a long time is called chronic or persistent, and pain that resolves quickly is called acute. Traditionally, the distinction between acute and chronic pain has relied upon an arbitrary interval of time from onset; the two most commonly used markers being 3 months and 6 months since the onset of pain, though some theorists and researchers have placed the transition from acute to chronic pain at 12 months.:93 Others apply acute to pain that lasts less than 30 days, chronic to pain of more than six months' duration, and subacute to pain that lasts from one to six months. A popular alternative definition of chronic pain, involving no arbitrarily fixed durations, is "pain that extends beyond the expected period of healing". Chronic pain may be classified as cancer pain or else as benign.
Stimulating nociceptors will induce which type of pain?
572f6d0aa23a5019007fc603
Nociceptive
0
False
How is nociceptive pain classified?
572f6d0aa23a5019007fc604
according to the mode of noxious stimulation
173
False
The thermal category of pain deals with which two temperature ranges?
572f6d0aa23a5019007fc605
heat or cold
266
False
Crushing, tearing and shearing are examples of which type of pain?
572f6d0aa23a5019007fc606
mechanical
282
False
What is the term for nociceptors which respond to more than one type of stimuli?
572f6d0aa23a5019007fc607
polymodal
510
False
Nociceptive pain
0
What type of pain is caused by stimulation of fiber?
5acd035f07355d001abf31a4
True
"thermal" (e.g. heat or cold), "mechanical" (e.g. crushing, tearing, shearing, etc.) and "chemical"
250
What are the common categories of modalities pain?
5acd035f07355d001abf31a5
True
heat
266
What does mechanical pain refer to along with cold?
5acd035f07355d001abf31a6
True
Nociceptive pain is caused by stimulation of peripheral nerve fibers that respond to stimuli approaching or exceeding harmful intensity (nociceptors), and may be classified according to the mode of noxious stimulation. The most common categories are "thermal" (e.g. heat or cold), "mechanical" (e.g. crushing, tearing, shearing, etc.) and "chemical" (e.g. iodine in a cut or chemicals released during inflammation). Some nociceptors respond to more than one of these modalities and are consequently designated polymodal.
What type of of pain is visceral a division of?
572f6db904bcaa1900d76935
Nociceptive
0
False
What type of structures are sensitive to being stretched but not very sensitive to burning?
572f6db904bcaa1900d76936
Visceral
101
False
What can visceral pain be accompanied by?
572f6db904bcaa1900d76937
nausea and vomiting
436
False
Which type of pain is dull, aching and hard to pin-point?
572f6db904bcaa1900d76938
Deep somatic
518
False
What type of pain are first degree burns classified as causing?
572f6db904bcaa1900d76939
Superficial
732
False
"visceral", "deep somatic" and "superficial somatic" pain. V
42
What categories is visceral pain divided into?
5acd04a907355d001abf31b4
True
stimulation of nociceptors
552
What is deep visceral pain initiated by?
5acd04a907355d001abf31b5
True
sprains and broken bones
706
What are some examples of deep visceral pain?
5acd04a907355d001abf31b6
True
activation of nociceptors in the skin or other superficial tissue,
765
What is superficial somatic pain initiated by?
5acd04a907355d001abf31b7
True
Nociceptive pain may also be divided into "visceral", "deep somatic" and "superficial somatic" pain. Visceral structures are highly sensitive to stretch, ischemia and inflammation, but relatively insensitive to other stimuli that normally evoke pain in other structures, such as burning and cutting. Visceral pain is diffuse, difficult to locate and often referred to a distant, usually superficial, structure. It may be accompanied by nausea and vomiting and may be described as sickening, deep, squeezing, and dull. Deep somatic pain is initiated by stimulation of nociceptors in ligaments, tendons, bones, blood vessels, fasciae and muscles, and is dull, aching, poorly-localized pain. Examples include sprains and broken bones. Superficial pain is initiated by activation of nociceptors in the skin or other superficial tissue, and is sharp, well-defined and clearly located. Examples of injuries that produce superficial somatic pain include minor wounds and minor (first degree) burns.
What percentage of people who've had upper limbs amputated feel phantom pain?
572f6f8b947a6a140053c954
nearly 82%
57
False
What is the percentage of of phantom pain felt by lower limb amputees?
572f6f8b947a6a140053c955
54%
99
False
After six months, what percentage of people who had limbs amputated still felt pain in those limbs?
572f6f8b947a6a140053c956
65 percent
222
False
What may happen with intact body parts if there is continuous pain for a long period?
572f6f8b947a6a140053c957
become sensitized
548
False
What may accompany urination for amputees?
572f6f8b947a6a140053c958
phantom limb pain
625
False
phantom pain
18
What do 54% of upper limb amputees experience?
5acd055507355d001abf31c6
True
phantom pain
18
What do 82% of lower limb amputees experience?
5acd055507355d001abf31c7
True
phantom limb pain
181
What did 72% of patients experience six days after amputation?
5acd055507355d001abf31c8
True
phantom limb pain
181
What did 65% of patients report eight months after amputation?
5acd055507355d001abf31c9
True
The prevalence of phantom pain in upper limb amputees is nearly 82%, and in lower limb amputees is 54%. One study found that eight days after amputation, 72 percent of patients had phantom limb pain, and six months later, 65 percent reported it. Some amputees experience continuous pain that varies in intensity or quality; others experience several bouts a day, or it may occur only once every week or two. It is often described as shooting, crushing, burning or cramping. If the pain is continuous for a long period, parts of the intact body may become sensitized, so that touching them evokes pain in the phantom limb, or phantom limb pain may accompany urination or defecation.
What happens when an anesthetic injection is directed into the nerves a limb stump?
572f706ab2c2fd140056811b
may relieve pain
76
False
How long can an anesthetic, at max, relieve pain for, despite wearing off in only hours?
572f706ab2c2fd140056811c
permanently
123
False
What is injected in small amounts into the soft tissue between vertebrae to produce local pain?
572f706ab2c2fd140056811d
hypertonic saline
211
False
Vibrating the stump of an amputee's limb can produce what in some patients?
572f706ab2c2fd140056811e
relief
584
False
relieve pain for days, weeks, or sometimes permanently
80
What happens when an injection is placed into nerves?
5acd07ab07355d001abf31e2
True
the nerves or sensitive areas of the stump
33
Where is anesthetic saline injected?
5acd07ab07355d001abf31e3
True
relief in some patients
584
What does vigorous stimulation provide?
5acd07ab07355d001abf31e4
True
relief in some patients
584
What does electrical vibration provide?
5acd07ab07355d001abf31e5
True
Local anesthetic injections into the nerves or sensitive areas of the stump may relieve pain for days, weeks, or sometimes permanently, despite the drug wearing off in a matter of hours; and small injections of hypertonic saline into the soft tissue between vertebrae produces local pain that radiates into the phantom limb for ten minutes or so and may be followed by hours, weeks or even longer of partial or total relief from phantom pain. Vigorous vibration or electrical stimulation of the stump, or current from electrodes surgically implanted onto the spinal cord, all produce relief in some patients.
What is paraplegia?
572f70f1b2c2fd1400568123
loss of sensation and voluntary motor control
16
False
What can cause paraplegia?
572f70f1b2c2fd1400568124
serious spinal cord damage,
68
False
What is the initial phantom body pain sensation experienced by people with spinal cord damage?
572f70f1b2c2fd1400568125
burning or tingling
368
False
The sensation of a knife twisting in the flesh is an example of what type of pain?
572f70f1b2c2fd1400568126
phantom body
324
False
What is an inefficient treatment for chronic pain which rarely provides any sort of true relief?
572f70f1b2c2fd1400568127
Surgical
606
False
Paraplegia
0
What is the loss of voluntary sensation?
5acd091307355d001abf31ea
True
burning or tingling
368
How is phantom spinal pain initially described?
5acd091307355d001abf31eb
True
Surgical treatment
606
What treatment provides lasting relief?
5acd091307355d001abf31ec
True
Paraplegia, the loss of sensation and voluntary motor control after serious spinal cord damage, may be accompanied by girdle pain at the level of the spinal cord damage, visceral pain evoked by a filling bladder or bowel, or, in five to ten per cent of paraplegics, phantom body pain in areas of complete sensory loss. This phantom body pain is initially described as burning or tingling but may evolve into severe crushing or pinching pain, or the sensation of fire running down the legs or of a knife twisting in the flesh. Onset may be immediate or may not occur until years after the disabling injury. Surgical treatment rarely provides lasting relief.
When people have long-term pain, what do they frequently display?
572f71d1b2c2fd140056812d
psychological disturbance
46
False
What triad are the inventory scales of hysteria, depression and hypochondriasis classified as?
572f71d1b2c2fd140056812e
neurotic
202
False
Clinical evidence indicates that neuroticism is caused by what?
572f71d1b2c2fd140056812f
chronic pain
366
False
If long-term pain can be relieved by therapy, what does a person's neurotic triad score do?
572f71d1b2c2fd1400568130
fall
502
False
What shows improvement in many patients once their pain has been resolved?
572f71d1b2c2fd1400568131
Self-esteem
532
False
pain
22
What do people with long-term psychological disturbance display?
5acd0acd07355d001abf321a
True
hysteria, depression and hypochondriasis
155
What are the scales of the Multiphasic Minnesota Personality Inventory?
5acd0acd07355d001abf321b
True
hysteria, depression and hypochondriasis
155
What is the triad neurotic?
5acd0acd07355d001abf321c
True
neuroticism
387
What is acute pain said to cause?
5acd0acd07355d001abf321d
True
People with long-term pain frequently display psychological disturbance, with elevated scores on the Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory scales of hysteria, depression and hypochondriasis (the "neurotic triad"). Some investigators have argued that it is this neuroticism that causes acute pain to turn chronic, but clinical evidence points the other way, to chronic pain causing neuroticism. When long-term pain is relieved by therapeutic intervention, scores on the neurotic triad and anxiety fall, often to normal levels. Self-esteem, often low in chronic pain patients, also shows improvement once pain has resolved.
What is the term for pain which is acute and note alleviated by normal pain management?
572f742404bcaa1900d76975
Breakthrough
0
False
How do cancer patients usually control their background pain?
572f742404bcaa1900d76976
medications
229
False
Who is breakthrough pain common among?
572f742404bcaa1900d76977
cancer patients
145
False
What class of medication is fentanyl an example of?
572f742404bcaa1900d76978
opioids
516
False
What activity in relation to breakthrough pain requires heavy use of opiods?
572f742404bcaa1900d76979
Management
456
False
Breakthrough pain
0
What is acute transitory pain also known as?
5acd0bd607355d001abf3236
True
intensive use of opioids, including fentanyl.
499
What does management of acute transitory pain entail?
5acd0bd607355d001abf3237
True
suddenly
57
How does acute transitory pain come on?
5acd0bd607355d001abf3238
True
Breakthrough pain is transitory acute pain that comes on suddenly and is not alleviated by the patient's normal pain management. It is common in cancer patients who often have background pain that is generally well-controlled by medications, but who also sometimes experience bouts of severe pain that from time to time "breaks through" the medication. The characteristics of breakthrough cancer pain vary from person to person and according to the cause. Management of breakthrough pain can entail intensive use of opioids, including fentanyl.
IASP's definition of pain includes what aspect as an essential part?
572f7534a23a5019007fc641
unpleasantness
9
False
What is it possible to induce which is, contrary to expectations, devoid of unpleasantness?
572f7534a23a5019007fc642
a state described as intense pain
102
False
Which type of injection has caused patients to report they have pain but aren't bothered by it?
572f7534a23a5019007fc643
morphine
184
False
How much do some patients going through psychosurgery suffer from the sensation of pain?
572f7534a23a5019007fc644
little, or not at all
338
False
What perspective towards pain are some people with perfectly normal nerves born with?
572f7534a23a5019007fc645
Indifference
361
False
unpleasantness
9
What is an essential part of the AISP definition of pain?
5acd0d6307355d001abf326c
True
intense pain devoid of unpleasantness
123
What is the result of psychosurgery injection?
5acd0d6307355d001abf326d
True
Indifference to pain
361
What is present from birth?
5acd0d6307355d001abf326e
True
Although unpleasantness is an essential part of the IASP definition of pain, it is possible to induce a state described as intense pain devoid of unpleasantness in some patients, with morphine injection or psychosurgery. Such patients report that they have pain but are not bothered by it; they recognize the sensation of pain but suffer little, or not at all. Indifference to pain can also rarely be present from birth; these people have normal nerves on medical investigations, and find pain unpleasant, but do not avoid repetition of the pain stimulus.
An abnormality of the nervous system can render a small number of people insensitive to what?
572f75edb2c2fd1400568149
pain
51
False
What is it known as when someone is born without being able to feel pain because of their nervous system?
572f75edb2c2fd140056814a
congenital insensitivity to pain
118
False
What happens to children with congenital insensitivity to pain?
572f75edb2c2fd140056814b
repeated damage to their tongues, eyes, joints, skin, and muscles
199
False
What is the life expectancy for people who can't feel pain?
572f75edb2c2fd140056814c
reduced
311
False
What gene is responsible for coding for a sodium channel necessary for conducting pain nerve stimuli?
572f75edb2c2fd140056814d
SCN9A
814
False
an inborn abnormality of the nervous system
63
What is an insensitivity to congenital pain?
5acd0ee407355d001abf32ae
True
hereditary sensory and autonomic neuropathies
420
What do most people with congenital insensitivity to pain have five of?
5acd0ee407355d001abf32af
True
hereditary sensory and autonomic neuropathies
420
What is congenital dysautonomia a type of?
5acd0ee407355d001abf32b0
True
A very rare syndrome with isolated congenital insensitivity to pain
708
What has been linked to mutations of the SCA9N gene?
5acd0ee407355d001abf32b1
True
codes for a sodium channel (Nav1.7) necessary in conducting pain nerve stimuli.
832
What does the SCA9N gene do?
5acd0ee407355d001abf32b2
True
A much smaller number of people are insensitive to pain due to an inborn abnormality of the nervous system, known as "congenital insensitivity to pain". Children with this condition incur carelessly-repeated damage to their tongues, eyes, joints, skin, and muscles. Some die before adulthood, and others have a reduced life expectancy.[citation needed] Most people with congenital insensitivity to pain have one of five hereditary sensory and autonomic neuropathies (which includes familial dysautonomia and congenital insensitivity to pain with anhidrosis). These conditions feature decreased sensitivity to pain together with other neurological abnormalities, particularly of the autonomic nervous system. A very rare syndrome with isolated congenital insensitivity to pain has been linked with mutations in the SCN9A gene, which codes for a sodium channel (Nav1.7) necessary in conducting pain nerve stimuli.
When was Descartes pontificating about his theories regarding pain?
572f7a2704bcaa1900d769d1
1644
3
False
What did Descartes think pain was?
572f7a2704bcaa1900d769d2
a disturbance
48
False
What theory perceives pain as being a specific sensation?
572f7a2704bcaa1900d769d3
Specificity
389
False
What state does the intensive theory conceive pain as being?
572f7a2704bcaa1900d769d4
emotional
671
False
Who migrated to the theory of specificity en mass?
572f7a2704bcaa1900d769d5
psychologists
1018
False
René Descartes
9
Who theorized about pain in 1464?
5acd0ffa07355d001abf32d6
True
a disturbance that passed down along nerve fibers until the disturbance reached the brain,
48
What did Descartes Rene theorize about pain?
5acd0ffa07355d001abf32d7
True
Avicenna
314
Who prefigured the 18th-century development of specificity theory?
5acd0ffa07355d001abf32d8
True
specificity was backed mostly by physiologists and physicians
794
How was specificity regarded by the mid-1980s?
5acd0ffa07355d001abf32d9
True
clinical observations
945
What did Henry von Frey and Max Head make?
5acd0ffa07355d001abf32da
True
In 1644, René Descartes theorized that pain was a disturbance that passed down along nerve fibers until the disturbance reached the brain, a development that transformed the perception of pain from a spiritual, mystical experience to a physical, mechanical sensation[citation needed]. Descartes's work, along with Avicenna's, prefigured the 19th-century development of specificity theory. Specificity theory saw pain as "a specific sensation, with its own sensory apparatus independent of touch and other senses". Another theory that came to prominence in the 18th and 19th centuries was intensive theory, which conceived of pain not as a unique sensory modality, but an emotional state produced by stronger than normal stimuli such as intense light, pressure or temperature. By the mid-1890s, specificity was backed mostly by physiologists and physicians, and the intensive theory was mostly backed by psychologists. However, after a series of clinical observations by Henry Head and experiments by Max von Frey, the psychologists migrated to specificity almost en masse, and by century's end, most textbooks on physiology and psychology were presenting pain specificity as fact.
What year was peripheral pattern theory developed?
572f7ad604bcaa1900d769e5
1955
4
False
Whose suggestion prompted the development of peripheral pattern theory?
572f7ad604bcaa1900d769e6
John Paul Nafe
103
False
What did DC Sinclair and G Weddell propose a property of all skin fiber endings is?
572f7ad604bcaa1900d769e7
identical
218
False
What does the gate control theory specify the diameter of which is responsible for the amount of pain sensation?
572f7ad604bcaa1900d769e8
nerve fibers
546
False
Why were peripheral pattern theory and gate control theory left behind?
572f7ad604bcaa1900d769e9
superseded by more modern theories of pain
843
False
peripheral pattern theory
46
What did DC Sinclair develop in 1934?
5acd111707355d001abf3312
True
peripheral pattern theory
46
What did DC Weddell and G Sinclair develop?
5acd111707355d001abf3313
True
suggestion by John Paul Nafe
89
What is the 1934 peripheral pattern theory based on?
5acd111707355d001abf3314
True
"Pain Mechanisms: A New Theory"
422
What article was introduced in 1956?
5acd111707355d001abf3315
True
gate control theory
327
What did Ronald Wall and Patrick Melzack introduce?
5acd111707355d001abf3316
True
In 1955, DC Sinclair and G Weddell developed peripheral pattern theory, based on a 1934 suggestion by John Paul Nafe. They proposed that all skin fiber endings (with the exception of those innervating hair cells) are identical, and that pain is produced by intense stimulation of these fibers. Another 20th-century theory was gate control theory, introduced by Ronald Melzack and Patrick Wall in the 1965 Science article "Pain Mechanisms: A New Theory". The authors proposed that both thin (pain) and large diameter (touch, pressure, vibration) nerve fibers carry information from the site of injury to two destinations in the dorsal horn of the spinal cord, and that the more large fiber activity relative to thin fiber activity at the inhibitory cell, the less pain is felt. Both peripheral pattern theory and gate control theory have been superseded by more modern theories of pain[citation needed].
How many dimensions did Melzack and Casey describe pain in terms of?
572f7b9704bcaa1900d769f7
three
72
False
The affective-motivational dimension of pain is characterized by what urge?
572f7b9704bcaa1900d769f8
urge to escape the unpleasantness
230
False
What did Melzack and Casey theorize could influence the perception of the magnitude of pain?
572f7b9704bcaa1900d769f9
cognitive activities
592
False
War game excitement appears to block what aspect of pain?
572f7b9704bcaa1900d769fa
dimensions
860
False
What did Melack's and Casey's paper end with a call towards?
572f7b9704bcaa1900d769fb
action
1071
False
Ronald Melzack and Kenneth Casey
8
Who described pain in 1986?
5acd120507355d001abf3344
True
three
72
How many dimensions did Ronald Casey and Kenneth Melzack describe pain in?
5acd120507355d001abf3345
True
three
72
How many dimensions of pain are described by Ronald Casey and Kenneth Melzack?
5acd120507355d001abf3346
True
with a call to action
1056
How does Ronald Casey's paper end?
5acd120507355d001abf3347
True
In 1968 Ronald Melzack and Kenneth Casey described pain in terms of its three dimensions: "sensory-discriminative" (sense of the intensity, location, quality and duration of the pain), "affective-motivational" (unpleasantness and urge to escape the unpleasantness), and "cognitive-evaluative" (cognitions such as appraisal, cultural values, distraction and hypnotic suggestion). They theorized that pain intensity (the sensory discriminative dimension) and unpleasantness (the affective-motivational dimension) are not simply determined by the magnitude of the painful stimulus, but "higher" cognitive activities can influence perceived intensity and unpleasantness. Cognitive activities "may affect both sensory and affective experience or they may modify primarily the affective-motivational dimension. Thus, excitement in games or war appears to block both dimensions of pain, while suggestion and placebos may modulate the affective-motivational dimension and leave the sensory-discriminative dimension relatively undisturbed." (p. 432) The paper ends with a call to action: "Pain can be treated not only by trying to cut down the sensory input by anesthetic block, surgical intervention and the like, but also by influencing the motivational-affective and cognitive factors as well." (p. 435)
What type of signal can be generated by intense enough stimulation of any sensory receptor?
572f849e947a6a140053ca0e
pain
48
False
What types of stimuli can't some sensory fibers differentiate between?
572f849e947a6a140053ca0f
noxious and non-noxious
209
False
What type of stimuli do nociceptors response to?
572f849e947a6a140053ca10
noxious, high intensity
285
False
What does stimuli generate to send signals along a nerve fiber?
572f849e947a6a140053ca11
currents
384
False
How many different types of ion channels have so far been identified?
572f849e947a6a140053ca12
Dozens
679
False
Wilhelm Erb
0
Who came up with the intensive theory in 1784?
5acd131107355d001abf335e
True
"intensive" theory
21
What did Wilhelm Erb come up with in 1784?
5acd131107355d001abf335f
True
that a pain signal can be generated by intense enough stimulation of any sensory receptor
41
What is Erb Wilhelm's intensive theory?
5acd131107355d001abf3360
True
has been soundly disproved.
132
What happened to Erb Wilhelm's theory?
5acd131107355d001abf3361
True
Dozens
679
How many different types of nociceptor chemical channels have been identified?
5acd131107355d001abf3362
True
Wilhelm Erb's (1874) "intensive" theory, that a pain signal can be generated by intense enough stimulation of any sensory receptor, has been soundly disproved. Some sensory fibers do not differentiate between noxious and non-noxious stimuli, while others, nociceptors, respond only to noxious, high intensity stimuli. At the peripheral end of the nociceptor, noxious stimuli generate currents that, above a given threshold, begin to send signals along the nerve fiber to the spinal cord. The "specificity" (whether it responds to thermal, chemical or mechanical features of its environment) of a nociceptor is determined by which ion channels it expresses at its peripheral end. Dozens of different types of nociceptor ion channels have so far been identified, and their exact functions are still being determined.
How does the pain signal travel from the periphery to the spinal cord?
572f8609a23a5019007fc6db
along an A-delta or C fiber
62
False
Which fiber is thicker?
572f8609a23a5019007fc6dc
A-delta
103
False
What is the electrically insulting material that sheaths a-delta fiber?
572f8609a23a5019007fc6dd
myelin
209
False
What is pain evoked by a-delta fibers described as?
572f8609a23a5019007fc6de
sharp and is felt first
360
False
How do first order neurons enter the spinal cord?
572f8609a23a5019007fc6df
via Lissauer's tract
521
False
pain signal
4
What travels along a C-delta or A fiber?
5acd149907355d001abf33b8
True
myelin
209
What is the name for an insulating material?
5acd149907355d001abf33b9
True
Pain
301
What is evoked by the faster C deltas?
5acd149907355d001abf33ba
True
duller pain
407
What do A fibers carry?
5acd149907355d001abf33bb
True
The pain signal travels from the periphery to the spinal cord along an A-delta or C fiber. Because the A-delta fiber is thicker than the C fiber, and is thinly sheathed in an electrically insulating material (myelin), it carries its signal faster (5–30 m/s) than the unmyelinated C fiber (0.5–2 m/s). Pain evoked by the (faster) A-delta fibers is described as sharp and is felt first. This is followed by a duller pain, often described as burning, carried by the C fibers. These first order neurons enter the spinal cord via Lissauer's tract.
What are some spinal cord fibers exclusive to?
572f8a4904bcaa1900d76a69
A-delta
41
False
Pain signals travel first to what region of the brain?
572f8a4904bcaa1900d76a6a
thalamus
155
False
What are dynamic range neurons?
572f8a4904bcaa1900d76a6b
spinal cord fibers
205
False
Where does pain-related activity in the thalamus spread to?
572f8a4904bcaa1900d76a6c
the insular cortex
430
False
Pain which is distinctly located also activates what cortices?
572f8a4904bcaa1900d76a6d
somatosensory
764
False
the spinal cord
132
Where do pain signals travel up to from the thalamus?
5acd38ac07355d001abf3980
True
Other spinal cord fibers
199
What are dynamic wide range neurons?
5acd38ac07355d001abf3981
True
touch, pressure and vibration
342
What signals do the A-delta fibers carry?
5acd38ac07355d001abf3982
True
the motivational element of pain
652
What does the cingulate cortex anterior embody?
5acd38ac07355d001abf3983
True
Melzack and Casey
788
Whose 1986 picture of pain is influential today?
5acd38ac07355d001abf3984
True
Spinal cord fibers dedicated to carrying A-delta fiber pain signals, and others that carry both A-delta and C fiber pain signals up the spinal cord to the thalamus in the brain have been identified. Other spinal cord fibers, known as wide dynamic range neurons, respond to A-delta and C fibers, but also to the large A-beta fibers that carry touch, pressure and vibration signals. Pain-related activity in the thalamus spreads to the insular cortex (thought to embody, among other things, the feeling that distinguishes pain from other homeostatic emotions such as itch and nausea) and anterior cingulate cortex (thought to embody, among other things, the motivational element of pain); and pain that is distinctly located also activates the primary and secondary somatosensory cortices. Melzack and Casey's 1968 picture of the dimensions of pain is as influential today as ever, firmly framing theory and guiding research in the functional neuroanatomy and psychology of pain.
Who wrote "The Greatest Show on Earth: The Evidence for Evolution"?
572f8b45b2c2fd14005681d5
Richard Dawkins
79
False
What does Dawkins explain must compete with each other in living begins?
572f8b45b2c2fd14005681d6
drives
307
False
What would be the most fit creature?
572f8b45b2c2fd14005681d7
one whose pains are well balanced
400
False
What might the relative intensities of pain resemble?
572f8b45b2c2fd14005681d8
risk
608
False
What type of designer is natural selection?
572f8b45b2c2fd14005681d9
poor
831
False
The Greatest Show on Earth: The Evidence for Evolution
13
What book did Dawkins Richard write?
5acd39c307355d001abf398a
True
biologist
69
What profession does Dawkins Richard hold?
5acd39c307355d001abf398b
True
glitches in animals
866
What is red flag supernatural stimuli?
5acd39c307355d001abf398c
True
In his book, The Greatest Show on Earth: The Evidence for Evolution, biologist Richard Dawkins grapples with the question of why pain has to be so very painful. He describes the alternative as a simple, mental raising of a "red flag". To argue why that red flag might be insufficient, Dawkins explains that drives must compete with each other within living beings. The most fit creature would be the one whose pains are well balanced. Those pains which mean certain death when ignored will become the most powerfully felt. The relative intensities of pain, then, may resemble the relative importance of that risk to our ancestors (lack of food, too much cold, or serious injuries are felt as agony, whereas minor damage is felt as mere discomfort). This resemblance will not be perfect, however, because natural selection can be a poor designer. The result is often glitches in animals, including supernormal stimuli. Such glitches help explain pains which are not, or at least no longer directly adaptive (e.g. perhaps some forms of toothache, or injury to fingernails).
Along with with ethnicity and genetics, what is the other factor associated with differences in pain perception?
572f8ddea23a5019007fc735
sex
123
False
What might some people of Mediterranean origin report as painful that people of this origin wouldn't?
572f8ddea23a5019007fc736
Europeans
221
False
What nationality can tolerate the least amount of electric shock?
572f8ddea23a5019007fc737
Italian
259
False
What do some individuals in all cultures have significantly higher than normal?
572f8ddea23a5019007fc738
pain perception
419
False
Patients who have painless heart attacks have higher what?
572f8ddea23a5019007fc739
pain thresholds
534
False
ethnicity, genetics, and sex
98
What are pain thresholds and tolerance perception associated with?
5acd415907355d001abf3a9c
True
Jewish
315
Who do Native American women tolerate less intense electric shock than?
5acd415907355d001abf3a9d
True
northern Europeans
212
Who do Italian woman report more painful radiant heat intensities than?
5acd415907355d001abf3a9e
True
Differences in pain perception and tolerance thresholds are associated with, among other factors, ethnicity, genetics, and sex. People of Mediterranean origin report as painful some radiant heat intensities that northern Europeans describe as nonpainful. And Italian women tolerate less intense electric shock than Jewish or Native American women. Some individuals in all cultures have significantly higher than normal pain perception and tolerance thresholds. For instance, patients who experience painless heart attacks have higher pain thresholds for electric shock, muscle cramp and heat.
What is the most reliable measure of pain?
572f8f2eb2c2fd14005681fd
person's self-report
2
False
What do health-care professionals tend to underestimate?
572f8f2eb2c2fd14005681fe
severity
117
False
What did Margo McCaffery introduce in 1968?
572f8f2eb2c2fd14005681ff
definition of pain
129
False
What scale might a patient be asked to locate their pain on?
572f8f2eb2c2fd1400568200
0 to 10
473
False
What are patients asked to use the McGill Pain Questionnaire to indicate?
572f8f2eb2c2fd1400568201
which words best describe their pain
653
False
the most reliable measure of pain
26
What is a person's health care report?
5acd43b207355d001abf3b22
True
Margo McCaffery
277
Who defined pain in 1986?
5acd43b207355d001abf3b23
True
Pain is whatever the experiencing person says it is, existing whenever he says it does"
303
What is the definition Margo McCaffery gave for pain in 1986?
5acd43b207355d001abf3b24
True
0 to 10
473
What is the number range on the McCaffery Pain scale?
5acd43b207355d001abf3b25
True
A person's self-report is the most reliable measure of pain, with health care professionals tending to underestimate severity. A definition of pain widely employed in nursing, emphasizing its subjective nature and the importance of believing patient reports, was introduced by Margo McCaffery in 1968: "Pain is whatever the experiencing person says it is, existing whenever he says it does". To assess intensity, the patient may be asked to locate their pain on a scale of 0 to 10, with 0 being no pain at all, and 10 the worst pain they have ever felt. Quality can be established by having the patient complete the McGill Pain Questionnaire indicating which words best describe their pain.
What is MPI an abbreviation for?
572f926ab2c2fd1400568207
Multidimensional Pain Inventory
4
False
How many classes of chronic pain patients are there?
572f926ab2c2fd1400568208
three
188
False
What do dysfunctional people perceive the severity of their pain to be?
572f926ab2c2fd1400568209
high
301
False
What do interpersonally distressed people feel their significant others aren't supportive of?
572f926ab2c2fd140056820a
their pain problems
583
False
What should MPI characterization of a person be combined with for deriving the most useful case descriptions?
572f926ab2c2fd140056820b
their IASP five-category pain profile
835
False
a questionnaire designed to assess the psychosocial state of a person with chronic pain
45
What is the MIP?
5acd451107355d001abf3b6a
True
Multidimensional Pain Inventory
4
What does MIP stand for?
5acd451107355d001abf3b6b
True
three
188
How many classes of chronic pain patient did Turk and Rudy find in 1898?
5acd451107355d001abf3b6c
True
people who perceived the severity of their pain to be high, reported that pain interfered with much of their lives
247
What is the definition of a dysfunctional pain patient according to the 1898 results of Turk and Rudy?
5acd451107355d001abf3b6d
True
patients who reported high levels of social support, relatively low levels of pain and perceived interference, and relatively high levels of activity
629
What is the definition of adaptive copers according to the 1898 results by Turk and Rudy?
5acd451107355d001abf3b6e
True
The Multidimensional Pain Inventory (MPI) is a questionnaire designed to assess the psychosocial state of a person with chronic pain. Analysis of MPI results by Turk and Rudy (1988) found three classes of chronic pain patient: "(a) dysfunctional, people who perceived the severity of their pain to be high, reported that pain interfered with much of their lives, reported a higher degree of psychological distress caused by pain, and reported low levels of activity; (b) interpersonally distressed, people with a common perception that significant others were not very supportive of their pain problems; and (c) adaptive copers, patients who reported high levels of social support, relatively low levels of pain and perceived interference, and relatively high levels of activity." Combining the MPI characterization of the person with their IASP five-category pain profile is recommended for deriving the most useful case description.
What become critical when a person is non-verbal?
572f94bca23a5019007fc799
observation
57
False
What can be monitored as pain indicators?
572f94bca23a5019007fc79a
specific behaviors
91
False
Facial grimacing and guarding indicate what?
572f94bca23a5019007fc79b
pain
204
False
What type of social behavior might patients experiencing pain exhibit?
572f94bca23a5019007fc79c
withdrawn
366
False
How can patients with dementia indicate discomfort exists?
572f94bca23a5019007fc79d
signal
844
False
When a person is non-verbal and cannot self-report pain
0
When does grimacing become critical?
5acd496e07355d001abf3c0c
True
patients who possess language but are incapable of expressing themselves effectively
652
In what patients does a decrease in confusion signal pain?
5acd496e07355d001abf3c0d
True
potential pain indicators
622
What is an increased range of motion a sign of?
5acd496e07355d001abf3c0e
True
pain
349
What can a change in baseline that deviates from the condition be a sign of?
5acd496e07355d001abf3c0f
True
When a person is non-verbal and cannot self-report pain, observation becomes critical, and specific behaviors can be monitored as pain indicators. Behaviors such as facial grimacing and guarding indicate pain, as well as an increase or decrease in vocalizations, changes in routine behavior patterns and mental status changes. Patients experiencing pain may exhibit withdrawn social behavior and possibly experience a decreased appetite and decreased nutritional intake. A change in condition that deviates from baseline such as moaning with movement or when manipulating a body part, and limited range of motion are also potential pain indicators. In patients who possess language but are incapable of expressing themselves effectively, such as those with dementia, an increase in confusion or display of aggressive behaviors or agitation may signal that discomfort exists, and further assessment is necessary.
What does the experience of pain have throughout cultures?
572f98e5b2c2fd140056822f
dimensions
41
False
What might an aging adult not respond to the same way as a younger person would?
572f98e5b2c2fd1400568230
pain
236
False
Aging adult's ability to recognize pain may be blunted by what?
572f98e5b2c2fd1400568231
illness
331
False
Why may older adults quit doing activities the love?
572f98e5b2c2fd1400568232
because it hurts too much
513
False
An older adult may also not report pain because they're scared they may be put on what?
572f98e5b2c2fd1400568233
a drug
795
False
many
27
How many dimensions does the cultural experience of pain have?
5acd4cb207355d001abf3c60
True
gender, ethnicity, and age.
174
What are examples of sociocharacteristics?
5acd4cb207355d001abf3c61
True
Depression
382
What condition may cause an older adult to report they are in pain?
5acd4cb207355d001abf3c62
True
they are afraid they will have to have surgery or will be put on a drug they might become addicted to
730
What are reasons a younger adult might refrain from reporting pain?
5acd4cb207355d001abf3c63
True
The experience of pain has many cultural dimensions. For instance, the way in which one experiences and responds to pain is related to sociocultural characteristics, such as gender, ethnicity, and age. An aging adult may not respond to pain in the way that a younger person would. Their ability to recognize pain may be blunted by illness or the use of multiple prescription drugs. Depression may also keep the older adult from reporting they are in pain. The older adult may also quit doing activities they love because it hurts too much. Decline in self-care activities (dressing, grooming, walking, etc.) may also be indicators that the older adult is experiencing pain. The older adult may refrain from reporting pain because they are afraid they will have to have surgery or will be put on a drug they might become addicted to. They may not want others to see them as weak, or may feel there is something impolite or shameful in complaining about pain, or they may feel the pain is deserved punishment for past transgressions.
What kind of barriers can prevent a person from telling someone they're in pain?
572fa359947a6a140053cae8
Cultural
0
False
How can religious beliefs contribute to a person remaining in pain?
572fa359947a6a140053cae9
prevent the individual from seeking help
102
False
Some people may not report pain because they think it's a sign what is near?
572fa359947a6a140053caea
death
269
False
What do many people fear pain treatment will lead to?
572fa359947a6a140053caeb
potentially addicting drugs
377
False
What is an issue of reporting pain specific to Asians?
572fa359947a6a140053caec
do not want to lose respect in society by admitting they are in pain
418
False
telling someone they are in pain
46
What can cultural beliefs keep a person from doing?
5acd4df707355d001abf3c8e
True
may prevent the individual from seeking help
98
What can religious barriers prevent?
5acd4df707355d001abf3c8f
True
Asians
411
What race feels they should report pain right away to not lose respect in society?
5acd4df707355d001abf3c90
True
keeping pain to themselves
822
What do stoic women do about pain?
5acd4df707355d001abf3c91
True
pain
802
What are men expected to show while being emotional?
5acd4df707355d001abf3c92
True
Cultural barriers can also keep a person from telling someone they are in pain. Religious beliefs may prevent the individual from seeking help. They may feel certain pain treatment is against their religion. They may not report pain because they feel it is a sign that death is near. Many people fear the stigma of addiction and avoid pain treatment so as not to be prescribed potentially addicting drugs. Many Asians do not want to lose respect in society by admitting they are in pain and need help, believing the pain should be borne in silence, while other cultures feel they should report pain right away and get immediate relief. Gender can also be a factor in reporting pain. Sexual differences can be the result of social and cultural expectations, with women expected to be emotional and show pain and men stoic, keeping pain to themselves.
What does the IASP advocate that the relief of pain should be recognized as?
572fa484a23a5019007fc80d
a human right
110
False
What should chronic pain be considered in its own right?
572fa484a23a5019007fc80e
a disease
164
False
What two countries is treating pain a specialty in?
572fa484a23a5019007fc80f
China and Australia
285
False
What is pain medicine often under disciplines like physiatry, neurology, etc?
572fa484a23a5019007fc810
subspecialty
349
False
As of 2011, how many people worldwide are still denied access to inexpensive medications for severe pain?
572fa484a23a5019007fc811
tens of millions
503
False
the relief of pain should be recognized as a human right
67
What does the International Association for Pain Study advocate for?
5acd50df07355d001abf3cfa
True
should be considered a disease in its own right,
143
What does the International Association for Pain Study believe about chronic pain?
5acd50df07355d001abf3cfb
True
pain medicine should have the full status of a specialty.
201
What does the International Association for Pain Study believe about pain medicine?
5acd50df07355d001abf3cfc
True
alerted that tens of millions of people worldwide are still denied access to inexpensive medications for severe pain
490
What did Human Rights Watch do in 2101?
5acd50df07355d001abf3cfd
True
The International Association for the Study of Pain advocates that the relief of pain should be recognized as a human right, that chronic pain should be considered a disease in its own right, and that pain medicine should have the full status of a specialty. It is a specialty only in China and Australia at this time. Elsewhere, pain medicine is a subspecialty under disciplines such as anesthesiology, physiatry, neurology, palliative medicine and psychiatry. In 2011, Human Rights Watch alerted that tens of millions of people worldwide are still denied access to inexpensive medications for severe pain.
What, when taken orally, can reduce total crying time of newsborns undergoing a painful procedure?
572fa514947a6a140053cafc
Sugar
1
False
What doesn't sugar change the effect of pain on?
572fa514947a6a140053cafd
heart rate
206
False
Sugar also doesn't measurably change what type of electrical activity in the brains of newborns a second after the heel lance procedure?
572fa514947a6a140053cafe
pain-related
289
False
A sweet oral liquid does moderately reduce the incidence and duration of what?
572fa514947a6a140053caff
crying
458
False
Sugar taken orally
1
What reduces the duration of the first cry in newborns undergoing painful procedures?
5acd528a07355d001abf3d34
True
Sweet oral liquid
391
What reduces the duration of crying in children between one and twelve years of age?
5acd528a07355d001abf3d35
True
the effect of pain on heart rate
184
What does sugar moderate the effect of pain on?
5acd528a07355d001abf3d36
True
Sugar taken orally reduces the total crying time but not the duration of the first cry in newborns undergoing a painful procedure (a single lancing of the heel). It does not moderate the effect of pain on heart rate and a recent single study found that sugar did not significantly affect pain-related electrical activity in the brains of newborns one second after the heel lance procedure. Sweet oral liquid moderately reduces the incidence and duration of crying caused by immunization injection in children between one and twelve months of age.
Clinical hypnosis may be effective in doing what with pain associated with surgical procedures in adults and children?
572fa775947a6a140053cb0a
controlling
74
False
How many studies in 2007 found evidence for the efficacy of hypnosis in the reduction of chronic pain?
572fa775947a6a140053cb0b
13
243
False
What did the studies regarding the effectiveness of hypnosis lack?
572fa775947a6a140053cb0c
credible controls for placebo and/or expectation
487
False
What is considerable more research needed to determine for different chronic pain conditions?
572fa775947a6a140053cb0d
effects of hypnosis
744
False
evidence for the efficacy of hypnosis in the reduction of chronic pain in some conditions
260
What did a 2013 review of 7 studies find?
5acd557707355d001abf3d88
True
clinical hypnosis
37
What did meta-analyses find to be effective in controlling surgical procedures?
5acd557707355d001abf3d89
True
the number of patients enrolled in the studies was low,
358
What was found about the number of participants in 7 studies?
5acd557707355d001abf3d8a
True
A number of meta-analyses have found clinical hypnosis to be effective in controlling pain associated with diagnostic and surgical procedures in both adults and children, as well as pain associated with cancer and childbirth. A 2007 review of 13 studies found evidence for the efficacy of hypnosis in the reduction of chronic pain in some conditions, though the number of patients enrolled in the studies was low, bringing up issues of power to detect group differences, and most lacked credible controls for placebo and/or expectation. The authors concluded that "although the findings provide support for the general applicability of hypnosis in the treatment of chronic pain, considerably more research will be needed to fully determine the effects of hypnosis for different chronic-pain conditions."
What is the most common reason people seek out alternative medicine?
572fa8c9947a6a140053cb12
Pain
0
False
What did an analysis of the 13 studies of pain treatment conclude about the effect of real treament versus sham treatments?
572fa8c9947a6a140053cb13
little difference in the effect
217
False
Some contradictory reviews of 13 high quality studies found actual what?
572fa8c9947a6a140053cb14
benefit
316
False
What medicine is there tentative evidence for the efficacy of?
572fa8c9947a6a140053cb15
herbal
377
False
Other than in osteomalacia, what is there no evidence of a relationship between pain and?
572fa8c9947a6a140053cb16
vitamin D
440
False
concluded there is little difference in the effect of real, sham and no acupuncture
198
What did a January 2013 study find?
5acd56f007355d001abf3dca
True
acupuncture
158
What was the treatment method of the 9 studies published in 2013?
5acd56f007355d001abf3dcb
True
pain
454
What is the other interest in the relationship with vitamins?
5acd56f007355d001abf3dcc
True
Pain is the most common reason for people to use complementary and alternative medicine. An analysis of the 13 highest quality studies of pain treatment with acupuncture, published in January 2009, concluded there is little difference in the effect of real, sham and no acupuncture. However other reviews have found benefit. Additionally, there is tentative evidence for a few herbal medicine. There is interest in the relationship between vitamin D and pain, but the evidence so far from controlled trials for such a relationship, other than in osteomalacia, is unconvincing.
What type of topic is physical pain important in relation to many issues?
572fa99c04bcaa1900d76b81
political
30
False
Corporal punishment is a form of what type of pain?
572fa99c04bcaa1900d76b82
deliberate infliction
213
False
What is corporal punishment used as retribution for?
572fa99c04bcaa1900d76b83
an offence
305
False
How does pain inform attitudes deemed unacceptable?
572fa99c04bcaa1900d76b84
deter
384
False
What kind of practices do some cultures highly regard?
572fa99c04bcaa1900d76b85
extreme
452
False
an important political topic
17
What is animal rights in relation to various issues?
5acd593707355d001abf3e28
True
pain management policy, drug control, animal rights or animal welfare, torture, and pain compliance
87
What important political issues relate to infliction of pain?
5acd593707355d001abf3e29
True
used as retribution for an offence, or for the purpose of disciplining or reforming a wrongdoer, or to deter attitudes or behaviour deemed unacceptable
281
What reasons are given for pain?
5acd593707355d001abf3e2a
True
mortification of the flesh or painful rites of passage
478
What cultural practices are highly regarded as torture?
5acd593707355d001abf3e2b
True
Physical pain is an important political topic in relation to various issues, including pain management policy, drug control, animal rights or animal welfare, torture, and pain compliance. In various contexts, the deliberate infliction of pain in the form of corporal punishment is used as retribution for an offence, or for the purpose of disciplining or reforming a wrongdoer, or to deter attitudes or behaviour deemed unacceptable. In some cultures, extreme practices such as mortification of the flesh or painful rites of passage are highly regarded.
What is the most reliable method of learning about pain in a human?
572faa1c04bcaa1900d76b8b
asking a question
65
False
What can't animals answer?
572faa1c04bcaa1900d76b8c
whether they feel pain
271
False
What did Descartes argue animals lack?
572faa1c04bcaa1900d76b8d
consciousness
505
False
What university is Bernard Rollin associated with?
572faa1c04bcaa1900d76b8e
Colorado State University
615
False
Can invertebrate species of animals like insects feel pain and suffering?
572faa1c04bcaa1900d76b8f
unclear
1568
False
unable to speak
214
What is the word "infants" mean in Latin?
5acd5a4b07355d001abf3e6c
True
that animals lack consciousness and therefore do not experience pain and suffering in the way that humans do
487
What did Rene Rollin argue about animals and pain?
5acd5a4b07355d001abf3e6d
True
researchers remained unsure into the 1980s as to whether animals experience pain,
736
What was Bernard Descartes' opinion on animals and pain?
5acd5a4b07355d001abf3e6e
True
that the view that animals feel pain differently is now a minority view
1138
What did Rene Carbone write about animals and pain?
5acd5a4b07355d001abf3e6f
True
unclear
1568
How clear is the ability of vertebrae species to feel pain?
5acd5a4b07355d001abf3e70
True
The most reliable method for assessing pain in most humans is by asking a question: a person may report pain that cannot be detected by any known physiological measure. However, like infants (Latin infans meaning "unable to speak"), animals cannot answer questions about whether they feel pain; thus the defining criterion for pain in humans cannot be applied to them. Philosophers and scientists have responded to this difficulty in a variety of ways. René Descartes for example argued that animals lack consciousness and therefore do not experience pain and suffering in the way that humans do. Bernard Rollin of Colorado State University, the principal author of two U.S. federal laws regulating pain relief for animals, writes that researchers remained unsure into the 1980s as to whether animals experience pain, and that veterinarians trained in the U.S. before 1989 were simply taught to ignore animal pain. In his interactions with scientists and other veterinarians, he was regularly asked to "prove" that animals are conscious, and to provide "scientifically acceptable" grounds for claiming that they feel pain. Carbone writes that the view that animals feel pain differently is now a minority view. Academic reviews of the topic are more equivocal, noting that although the argument that animals have at least simple conscious thoughts and feelings has strong support, some critics continue to question how reliably animal mental states can be determined. The ability of invertebrate species of animals, such as insects, to feel pain and suffering is also unclear.
What about pain in an animal isn't able to be known with certainty?
572faad8b2c2fd14005682e7
presence
4
False
An animals physical and behavioral reactions may be inferred to indicate the presence of what?
572faad8b2c2fd14005682e8
pain
16
False
Who do specialists believe can feel pain?
572faad8b2c2fd14005682e9
vertebrates
168
False
No mechanism is known by which what organisms would be able to have a feeling such as pain?
572faad8b2c2fd14005682ea
plants
278
False
What do fungi and fruit flies seem to lack?
572faad8b2c2fd14005682eb
nociceptors
494
False
The presence of pain
0
What can be known for certain in animals?
5acd5ad807355d001abf3e92
True
pain
189
What do specialists say all invertebrates can feel?
5acd5ad807355d001abf3e93
True
nociceptors
494
What does a fruit fly not have?
5acd5ad807355d001abf3e94
True
The presence of pain in an animal cannot be known for certain, but it can be inferred through physical and behavioral reactions. Specialists currently believe that all vertebrates can feel pain, and that certain invertebrates, like the octopus, might too. As for other animals, plants, or other entities, their ability to feel physical pain is at present a question beyond scientific reach, since no mechanism is known by which they could have such a feeling. In particular, there are no known nociceptors in groups such as plants, fungi, and most insects, except for instance in fruit flies.
Database
What does DBMS stand for?
572f59fc947a6a140053c8a4
database management system
2
False
What is the purpose of a DBMS?
572f59fc947a6a140053c8a5
to allow the definition, creation, querying, update, and administration of databases
209
False
How are DBMSs classified?
572f59fc947a6a140053c8a6
according to the database model that they support
657
False
What is the most popular DBMS?
572f59fc947a6a140053c8a7
SQL language
820
False
database management system
2
What does DBMS stand against?
5a8c2e86fd22b3001a8d8607
True
the definition, creation, querying, update, and administration of databases
218
What is a DBMS designed to avoid?
5a8c2e86fd22b3001a8d8608
True
database
402
What is generally portable across different DBMSs?
5a8c2e86fd22b3001a8d8609
True
SQL language
820
What is the least popular DBMS?
5a8c2e86fd22b3001a8d860a
True
1980s
752
When did popular database systems stop releasing updates?
5a8c2e86fd22b3001a8d860b
True
A database management system (DBMS) is a computer software application that interacts with the user, other applications, and the database itself to capture and analyze data. A general-purpose DBMS is designed to allow the definition, creation, querying, update, and administration of databases. Well-known DBMSs include MySQL, PostgreSQL, Microsoft SQL Server, Oracle, Sybase, SAP HANA, and IBM DB2. A database is not generally portable across different DBMSs, but different DBMS can interoperate by using standards such as SQL and ODBC or JDBC to allow a single application to work with more than one DBMS. Database management systems are often classified according to the database model that they support; the most popular database systems since the 1980s have all supported the relational model as represented by the SQL language.[disputed – discuss] Sometimes a DBMS is loosely referred to as a 'database'.
How is data accessed?
572f5bcfa23a5019007fc59b
by a "database management system" (DBMS)
125
False
A DBMS consists of what?
572f5bcfa23a5019007fc59c
an integrated set of computer software
180
False
How much data can a DBMS store?
572f5bcfa23a5019007fc59d
large quantities
492
False
a set of related data and the way it is organized
33
What does a database refer to informally?
5a8c2f77fd22b3001a8d8611
True
DBMS
160
What requires a user to use more than one database?
5a8c2f77fd22b3001a8d8612
True
database management system
131
What allows the entry, storage and retrieval of only small quantities of information?
5a8c2f77fd22b3001a8d8613
True
large quantities
492
How much data is typically lost by a DBMS?
5a8c2f77fd22b3001a8d8614
True
Formally, a "database" refers to a set of related data and the way it is organized. Access to these data is usually provided by a "database management system" (DBMS) consisting of an integrated set of computer software that allows users to interact with one or more databases and provides access to all of the data contained in the database (although restrictions may exist that limit access to particular data). The DBMS provides various functions that allow entry, storage and retrieval of large quantities of information and provides ways to manage how that information is organized.
What is used to recover data if disks suffer a failure?
572f5d6ea23a5019007fc5a7
RAID
208
False
How can large quantities of data be accessed?
572f5d6ea23a5019007fc5a8
Hardware database accelerators
310
False
What do most database applications contain?
572f5d6ea23a5019007fc5a9
DBMSs
528
False
What is required for a modern DBMS to function?
572f5d6ea23a5019007fc5aa
standard operating system
654
False
RAID
208
What is used to destroy data if disks suffer a failure?
5a8c3023fd22b3001a8d8619
True
Hardware database accelerators
310
How can no quantities of data be accessed?
5a8c3023fd22b3001a8d861a
True
DBMS
101
What do most database applications not integrate?
5a8c3023fd22b3001a8d861b
True
standard operating system
654
What is required for a broken DBMS to function?
5a8c3023fd22b3001a8d861c
True
database servers
12
What are non-dedicated computers that hold databases called?
5a8c3023fd22b3001a8d861d
True
Physically, database servers are dedicated computers that hold the actual databases and run only the DBMS and related software. Database servers are usually multiprocessor computers, with generous memory and RAID disk arrays used for stable storage. RAID is used for recovery of data if any of the disks fail. Hardware database accelerators, connected to one or more servers via a high-speed channel, are also used in large volume transaction processing environments. DBMSs are found at the heart of most database applications. DBMSs may be built around a custom multitasking kernel with built-in networking support, but modern DBMSs typically rely on a standard operating system to provide these functions. from databases before the inception of Structured Query Language (SQL). The data recovered was disparate, redundant and disorderly, since there was no proper method to fetch it and arrange it in a concrete structure.[citation needed]
How long can it take to create a DBMS?
572f5ebd947a6a140053c8c8
thousands of human years
89
False
Name three DBMSs that have been used since the 1970s.
572f5ebd947a6a140053c8c9
Adabas, Oracle and DB2
175
False
How is the cost to create a DBMS distributed?
572f5ebd947a6a140053c8ca
spread over a large number of users
409
False
Name an example of a general-purpose DBMS.
572f5ebd947a6a140053c8cb
an email system
748
False
thousands of human years
89
How long can it take to search for a DBMS?
5a8c30bafd22b3001a8d8623
True
Adabas, Oracle and DB2
175
What are three DBMSs that have been used during the 1960s?
5a8c30bafd22b3001a8d8624
True
spread over a large number of users
409
How is the cost to remove a DBMS distributed?
5a8c30bafd22b3001a8d8625
True
a general-purpose DBMS
514
What is always the optimal solution to manage databases?
5a8c30bafd22b3001a8d8626
True
A DBMS has evolved into a complex software system and its development typically requires thousands of human years of development effort.[a] Some general-purpose DBMSs such as Adabas, Oracle and DB2 have been undergoing upgrades since the 1970s. General-purpose DBMSs aim to meet the needs of as many applications as possible, which adds to the complexity. However, the fact that their development cost can be spread over a large number of users means that they are often the most cost-effective approach. However, a general-purpose DBMS is not always the optimal solution: in some cases a general-purpose DBMS may introduce unnecessary overhead. Therefore, there are many examples of systems that use special-purpose databases. A common example is an email system that performs many of the functions of a general-purpose DBMS such as the insertion and deletion of messages composed of various items of data or associating messages with a particular email address; but these functions are limited to what is required to handle email and don't provide the user with all of the functionality that would be available using a general-purpose DBMS.
How are many databases accessed?
572f6041947a6a140053c8e4
application software
26
False
How do administrators work with the DBMS?
572f6041947a6a140053c8e5
through dedicated interfaces
333
False
What is a way for programmers to use the DBMS?
572f6041947a6a140053c8e6
wire protocol
178
False
application software
26
How are no databases accessed?
5a8c3197fd22b3001a8d862b
True
through dedicated interfaces
333
How do administrators no longer work with the DBMS?
5a8c3197fd22b3001a8d862c
True
wire protocol
178
What is a way for programmers to avoid DBMS?
5a8c3197fd22b3001a8d862d
True
Database designers and database administrators
263
Who is not typically allowed to interact with a DBMS?
5a8c3197fd22b3001a8d862e
True
Database designers and database administrators
263
Who needs less knowledge and understanding about how DBMSs operate?
5a8c3197fd22b3001a8d862f
True
Many other databases have application software that accesses the database on behalf of end-users, without exposing the DBMS interface directly. Application programmers may use a wire protocol directly, or more likely through an application programming interface. Database designers and database administrators interact with the DBMS through dedicated interfaces to build and maintain the applications' databases, and thus need some more knowledge and understanding about how DBMSs operate and the DBMSs' external interfaces and tuning parameters.
Who created the relational model of DBMS?
572f61e8b2c2fd1400568093
Edgar F. Codd
48
False
Instead of using links, how was information found in a relational model?
572f61e8b2c2fd1400568094
by content
146
False
In what decade did computer hardware become able to handle a relational system?
572f61e8b2c2fd1400568095
1980s
306
False
What type of system in still prominent to this day?
572f61e8b2c2fd1400568096
relational systems
465
False
What database language is the most prominent?
572f61e8b2c2fd1400568097
SQL
700
False
Edgar F. Codd
48
Who was falsely misrepresented as having created the relational model of DBMS?
5a8c3282fd22b3001a8d8635
True
by content
146
How was information lost in a relational model?
5a8c3282fd22b3001a8d8636
True
1990s
449
What decade did computer hardware lose the ability to handle a relational system?
5a8c3282fd22b3001a8d8637
True
relational systems
465
What type of system in rarely seen to this day?
5a8c3282fd22b3001a8d8638
True
SQL
700
What database language is now outlawed?
5a8c3282fd22b3001a8d8639
True
The relational model, first proposed in 1970 by Edgar F. Codd, departed from this tradition by insisting that applications should search for data by content, rather than by following links. The relational model employs sets of ledger-style tables, each used for a different type of entity. Only in the mid-1980s did computing hardware become powerful enough to allow the wide deployment of relational systems (DBMSs plus applications). By the early 1990s, however, relational systems dominated in all large-scale data processing applications, and as of 2015[update] they remain dominant : IBM DB2, Oracle, MySQL and Microsoft SQL Server are the top DBMS. The dominant database language, standardised SQL for the relational model, has influenced database languages for other data models.[citation needed]
When were DBMSs first used commercially?
572f661fa23a5019007fc5cd
mid-1960s
104
False
What group discovered COBOL?
572f661fa23a5019007fc5ce
Database Task Group
302
False
Why was COBOL created?
572f661fa23a5019007fc5cf
Interest in a standard
169
False
What was the standard protocol called?
572f661fa23a5019007fc5d0
CODASYL approach
503
False
When was the standard protocol completed?
572f661fa23a5019007fc5d1
1971
411
False
mid-1960s
104
When were DBMSs last used commercially?
5a8c3316fd22b3001a8d863f
True
Database Task Group
302
What group destroyed COBOL?
5a8c3316fd22b3001a8d8640
True
Interest in a standard began to grow
169
Why was COBOL removed?
5a8c3316fd22b3001a8d8641
True
1971
411
When was the standard taken away?
5a8c3316fd22b3001a8d8642
True
CODASYL approach
503
What was the name of the incomplete standard?
5a8c3316fd22b3001a8d8643
True
As computers grew in speed and capability, a number of general-purpose database systems emerged; by the mid-1960s a number of such systems had come into commercial use. Interest in a standard began to grow, and Charles Bachman, author of one such product, the Integrated Data Store (IDS), founded the "Database Task Group" within CODASYL, the group responsible for the creation and standardization of COBOL. In 1971 the Database Task Group delivered their standard, which generally became known as the "CODASYL approach", and soon a number of commercial products based on this approach entered the market.
What was the DBMS created by IBM called?
572f678604bcaa1900d768dd
Information Management System (IMS)
46
False
What was the purpose of the IBM DBMS?
572f678604bcaa1900d768de
the Apollo program
129
False
What is the classification of IMS?
572f678604bcaa1900d768df
hierarchical database
517
False
What was the name of Bachman's Turing Award presentation in 1973?
572f678604bcaa1900d768e0
The Programmer as Navigator
455
False
Information Management System (IMS)
46
What was the DBMS designed for IBM by a third-party called?
5a8c33c9fd22b3001a8d8649
True
the Apollo program
129
What was irrelevant to the IBM DBMS?
5a8c33c9fd22b3001a8d864a
True
hierarchical database
517
What is the classification of IMS not considered?
5a8c33c9fd22b3001a8d864b
True
The Programmer as Navigator
455
What was the name of Bachman's Turing Award presentation in 1972?
5a8c33c9fd22b3001a8d864c
True
1966
31
When did IBM lose their own DBMS?
5a8c33c9fd22b3001a8d864d
True
IBM also had their own DBMS in 1966, known as Information Management System (IMS). IMS was a development of software written for the Apollo program on the System/360. IMS was generally similar in concept to CODASYL, but used a strict hierarchy for its model of data navigation instead of CODASYL's network model. Both concepts later became known as navigational databases due to the way data was accessed, and Bachman's 1973 Turing Award presentation was The Programmer as Navigator. IMS is classified[by whom?] as a hierarchical database. IDMS and Cincom Systems' TOTAL database are classified as network databases. IMS remains in use as of 2014[update].
Who proposed using a table to store data?
572f692804bcaa1900d768f5
Codd
183
False
How is data accessed in a table?
572f692804bcaa1900d768f6
A linked-list system
294
False
What model solved the problem of databases where information was missing?
572f692804bcaa1900d768f7
relational
440
False
What system assists a user in seeing a table?
572f692804bcaa1900d768f8
DBMS
722
False
Codd
183
Who proposed using a table to remove data?
5a8c34a2fd22b3001a8d8653
True
A linked-list system
294
How is data lost in a table?
5a8c34a2fd22b3001a8d8654
True
relational
440
What model couldn't solve the problem of databases where information was missing?
5a8c34a2fd22b3001a8d8655
True
DBMS
722
What system can't assist a user in seeing a table?
5a8c34a2fd22b3001a8d8656
True
In this paper, he described a new system for storing and working with large databases. Instead of records being stored in some sort of linked list of free-form records as in CODASYL, Codd's idea was to use a "table" of fixed-length records, with each table used for a different type of entity. A linked-list system would be very inefficient when storing "sparse" databases where some of the data for any one record could be left empty. The relational model solved this by splitting the data into a series of normalized tables (or relations), with optional elements being moved out of the main table to where they would take up room only if needed. Data may be freely inserted, deleted and edited in these tables, with the DBMS doing whatever maintenance needed to present a table view to the application/user.
How was the relational model able to improve over time?
572f6a98947a6a140053c930
without constant rewriting of links and pointers
72
False
What is the relationship called in a hierarchical model?
572f6a98947a6a140053c931
one-to-many
209
False
What is the relationship called in a navigational model?
572f6a98947a6a140053c932
many-to-many
278
False
What is a third type of model that can be combined with heirarchical and navigation models?
572f6a98947a6a140053c933
tabular
444
False
without constant rewriting of links and pointers
72
How was the relational model able to degrade over time?
5a8c4178fd22b3001a8d865b
True
one-to-many
209
What is the only kind of relationship called?
5a8c4178fd22b3001a8d865c
True
many-to-many
278
What is the relationship that is avoided in a navigational model?
5a8c4178fd22b3001a8d865d
True
tabular
444
What is a third type of model that can't be combined with hierarchical and navigation models?
5a8c4178fd22b3001a8d865e
True
The relational model also allowed the content of the database to evolve without constant rewriting of links and pointers. The relational part comes from entities referencing other entities in what is known as one-to-many relationship, like a traditional hierarchical model, and many-to-many relationship, like a navigational (network) model. Thus, a relational model can express both hierarchical and navigational models, as well as its native tabular model, allowing for pure or combined modeling in terms of these three models, as the application requires.
How is a database system frequently used?
572f6be0947a6a140053c938
to track information about users
51
False
How is information stored in a navigational system?
572f6be0947a6a140053c939
in a single record
215
False
What happens to blank data fields in a navigational system?
572f6be0947a6a140053c93a
not be placed in the database
265
False
How is information stored in a relational system?
572f6be0947a6a140053c93b
normalized into a user table
342
False
to track information about users
51
How is a database system rarely used?
5a8c424cfd22b3001a8d8663
True
in a single record
215
How is information discarded in a navigational system?
5a8c424cfd22b3001a8d8664
True
not be placed in the database
265
What happens to full data fields in a navigational system?
5a8c424cfd22b3001a8d8665
True
normalized into a user table
342
How is information lost in a relational system?
5a8c424cfd22b3001a8d8666
True
For instance, a common use of a database system is to track information about users, their name, login information, various addresses and phone numbers. In the navigational approach all of this data would be placed in a single record, and unused items would simply not be placed in the database. In the relational approach, the data would be normalized into a user table, an address table and a phone number table (for instance). Records would be created in these optional tables only if the address or phone numbers were actually provided.
How is information accessed in a relational model?
572f703ca23a5019007fc629
a "key"
126
False
What is a key used for?
572f703ca23a5019007fc62a
uniquely defining a particular record
135
False
What technique is used to collect into one place?
572f703ca23a5019007fc62b
re-linking
467
False
How is data in an optional table accessed?
572f703ca23a5019007fc62c
by searching for this key
282
False
a "key"
126
How is information hidden in a relational model?
5a8c42cdfd22b3001a8d866b
True
uniquely defining a particular record
135
What is a key no longer used for?
5a8c42cdfd22b3001a8d866c
True
re-linking
467
What technique is used to collect into nowhere?
5a8c42cdfd22b3001a8d866d
True
by searching for this key
282
How is data in an optional table removed?
5a8c42cdfd22b3001a8d866e
True
Linking the information back together is the key to this system. In the relational model, some bit of information was used as a "key", uniquely defining a particular record. When information was being collected about a user, information stored in the optional tables would be found by searching for this key. For instance, if the login name of a user is unique, addresses and phone numbers for that user would be recorded with the login name as its key. This simple "re-linking" of related data back into a single collection is something that traditional computer languages are not designed for.
How does a program collect information using a navigational system?
572f7193947a6a140053c970
require programs to loop
40
False
What is used to solve the problem of looping?
572f7193947a6a140053c971
a set-oriented language
228
False
What computer language came about as a result of the looping problem?
572f7193947a6a140053c972
SQL
304
False
What type of math was used to create a system to find data sets?
572f7193947a6a140053c973
tuple calculus
348
False
Who used tuple calculus to show the functionality of databases?
572f7193947a6a140053c974
Codd
183
False
require programs to loop
40
How does a program collect information using a normalized system?
5a8c4347fd22b3001a8d8673
True
a set-oriented language
228
What is used to create the problem of looping?
5a8c4347fd22b3001a8d8674
True
SQL
304
What computer language lost popularity as a result of the looping problem?
5a8c4347fd22b3001a8d8675
True
tuple calculus
348
What type of physics was used to create a system to find data sets?
5a8c4347fd22b3001a8d8676
True
Codd
183
Who used tuple calculus to hide the functionality of databases?
5a8c4347fd22b3001a8d8677
True
Just as the navigational approach would require programs to loop in order to collect records, the relational approach would require loops to collect information about any one record. Codd's solution to the necessary looping was a set-oriented language, a suggestion that would later spawn the ubiquitous SQL. Using a branch of mathematics known as tuple calculus, he demonstrated that such a system could support all the operations of normal databases (inserting, updating etc.) as well as providing a simple system for finding and returning sets of data in a single operation.
Who used Codd's paper at Berkeley to improve a geographical database?
572f72aeb2c2fd1400568137
Eugene Wong and Michael Stonebraker
54
False
What was the name of the project to create a geographical database?
572f72aeb2c2fd1400568138
INGRES
272
False
When was INGRES first tested?
572f72aeb2c2fd1400568139
1973
266
False
What computer language was used in INGRES to access data?
572f72aeb2c2fd140056813a
QUEL
480
False
Is QUEL still used to access data in INGRES?
572f72aeb2c2fd140056813b
INGRES moved to the emerging SQL standard
497
False
Eugene Wong and Michael Stonebraker
54
Who used Codd's paper at Yale to improve a geographical database?
5a8c43befd22b3001a8d867d
True
INGRES
272
What was the name of the project to steal a geographical database?
5a8c43befd22b3001a8d867e
True
1973
266
When was INGRES first avoided?
5a8c43befd22b3001a8d867f
True
QUEL
480
What computer language was used in INGRES to fabricate data?
5a8c43befd22b3001a8d8680
True
1979
362
What year did INGRES stop widespread use?
5a8c43befd22b3001a8d8681
True
Codd's paper was picked up by two people at Berkeley, Eugene Wong and Michael Stonebraker. They started a project known as INGRES using funding that had already been allocated for a geographical database project and student programmers to produce code. Beginning in 1973, INGRES delivered its first test products which were generally ready for widespread use in 1979. INGRES was similar to System R in a number of ways, including the use of a "language" for data access, known as QUEL. Over time, INGRES moved to the emerging SQL standard.
What is a CAFS accelerator?
572f73dfb2c2fd1400568141
a hardware disk controller with programmable search capabilities
89
False
Did the CAFS accelerator work as planned?
572f73dfb2c2fd1400568142
efforts were generally unsuccessful
179
False
How are today's database systems run?
572f73dfb2c2fd1400568143
general-purpose hardware
411
False
Name a company that is still working on the CAFS accellerator?
572f73dfb2c2fd1400568144
Netezza and Oracle (Exadata)
565
False
a hardware disk controller with programmable search capabilities
89
What is a CAFS decelerator?
5a8c4494fd22b3001a8d8687
True
general-purpose hardware
411
What is no longer used in modern database systems?
5a8c4494fd22b3001a8d8688
True
Netezza and Oracle (Exadata)
565
What companies still work on the CAFS decelerator?
5a8c4494fd22b3001a8d8689
True
software systems running on general-purpose hardware
383
What are rarely seen nowadays?
5a8c4494fd22b3001a8d868a
True
ICL's CAFS accelerator
65
What was a failed approach to hardware support for database management?
5a8c4494fd22b3001a8d868b
True
Another approach to hardware support for database management was ICL's CAFS accelerator, a hardware disk controller with programmable search capabilities. In the long term, these efforts were generally unsuccessful because specialized database machines could not keep pace with the rapid development and progress of general-purpose computers. Thus most database systems nowadays are software systems running on general-purpose hardware, using general-purpose computer data storage. However this idea is still pursued for certain applications by some companies like Netezza and Oracle (Exadata).
What is the system IBM created using Codd's research?
572f753604bcaa1900d76989
System R
78
False
When was IBM's system released?
572f753604bcaa1900d7698a
1974/5
138
False
What did System R work on to change the way data was stored?
572f753604bcaa1900d7698b
multi-table systems
171
False
When customers first tested IBM's system, what computer language had been added?
572f753604bcaa1900d7698c
SQL
462
False
What was the name of the database product created by IBM?
572f753604bcaa1900d7698d
SQL/DS, and, later, Database 2 (DB2)
656
False
System R
78
What is the system IBM lost using Codd's research?
5a8c452afd22b3001a8d8691
True
1974/5
138
When was IBM's system stolen?
5a8c452afd22b3001a8d8692
True
multi-table systems
171
What did System R avoid to change the way data was stored?
5a8c452afd22b3001a8d8693
True
SQL
462
When customers first tested IBM's system, what computer language had been removed?
5a8c452afd22b3001a8d8694
True
SQL/DS, and, later, Database 2 (DB2)
656
What was the name of the database product created by IBN?
5a8c452afd22b3001a8d8695
True
IBM started working on a prototype system loosely based on Codd's concepts as System R in the early 1970s. The first version was ready in 1974/5, and work then started on multi-table systems in which the data could be split so that all of the data for a record (some of which is optional) did not have to be stored in a single large "chunk". Subsequent multi-user versions were tested by customers in 1978 and 1979, by which time a standardized query language – SQL[citation needed] – had been added. Codd's ideas were establishing themselves as both workable and superior to CODASYL, pushing IBM to develop a true production version of System R, known as SQL/DS, and, later, Database 2 (DB2).
Who created dBASE?
572f762404bcaa1900d769a3
C. Wayne Ratliff
255
False
Why was dBASE successful?
572f762404bcaa1900d769a4
lightweight and easy for any computer user to understand out of the box
182
False
Why was dBASE unique?
572f762404bcaa1900d769a5
data manipulation is done by dBASE
429
False
What is a benefit of using dBASE?
572f762404bcaa1900d769a6
managing space allocation
631
False
C. Wayne Ratliff
255
Who created BASE?
5a8c7a0efd22b3001a8d88a6
True
lightweight and easy for any computer user to understand out of the box
182
Why was dBASE unsuccessful?
5a8c7a0efd22b3001a8d88a7
True
data manipulation is done by dBASE
429
Why was dBASE considered common?
5a8c7a0efd22b3001a8d88a8
True
managing space allocation
631
What is the only benefit of using dBASE?
5a8c7a0efd22b3001a8d88a9
True
1980s and early 1990s
715
When was BASE the top selling software title?
5a8c7a0efd22b3001a8d88aa
True
The 1980s ushered in the age of desktop computing. The new computers empowered their users with spreadsheets like Lotus 1-2-3 and database software like dBASE. The dBASE product was lightweight and easy for any computer user to understand out of the box. C. Wayne Ratliff the creator of dBASE stated: "dBASE was different from programs like BASIC, C, FORTRAN, and COBOL in that a lot of the dirty work had already been done. The data manipulation is done by dBASE instead of by the user, so the user can concentrate on what he is doing, rather than having to mess with the dirty details of opening, reading, and closing files, and managing space allocation." dBASE was one of the top selling software titles in the 1980s and early 1990s.
In the 1990s, what type of programming changed the handling of databases?
572f77f4b2c2fd1400568159
object-oriented
32
False
What term is used for the difficulty in database table and programmed object translation?
572f77f4b2c2fd140056815a
object-relational impedance mismatch
539
False
How is the problem of object-relational impedance mismatch corrected?
572f77f4b2c2fd140056815b
object-oriented language
763
False
What is the library programmers use to solve object-relational impedance mismatch?
572f77f4b2c2fd140056815c
object-relational mappings (ORMs)
931
False
object-oriented
32
What type of programming did not influence databases?
5a8c839afd22b3001a8d89d6
True
object-relational impedance mismatch
539
What term is no longer used for the difficulty in database table and programmed object translation?
5a8c839afd22b3001a8d89d7
True
object-oriented language
763
How is the problem of object-relational impedance mismatch started?
5a8c839afd22b3001a8d89d8
True
object-relational mappings (ORMs)
931
What is the hardware programmers use to solve object-relational impedance mismatch?
5a8c839afd22b3001a8d89d9
True
The 1990s, along with a rise in object-oriented programming, saw a growth in how data in various databases were handled. Programmers and designers began to treat the data in their databases as objects. That is to say that if a person's data were in a database, that person's attributes, such as their address, phone number, and age, were now considered to belong to that person instead of being extraneous data. This allows for relations between data to be relations to objects and their attributes and not to individual fields. The term "object-relational impedance mismatch" described the inconvenience of translating between programmed objects and database tables. Object databases and object-relational databases attempt to solve this problem by providing an object-oriented language (sometimes as extensions to SQL) that programmers can use as alternative to purely relational SQL. On the programming side, libraries known as object-relational mappings (ORMs) attempt to solve the same problem.
What kind of database is XML?
572f78f5b2c2fd1400568161
structured document-oriented database
29
False
Where are XML databases frequently used?
572f78f5b2c2fd1400568162
enterprise database management
155
False
How is XML used in enterprise database management?
572f78f5b2c2fd1400568163
machine-to-machine data
218
False
What type of processing is used in enterprise database software?
572f78f5b2c2fd1400568164
ACID-compliant transaction processing
512
False
structured document-oriented database
29
What kind of database is ZML?
5a8c840bfd22b3001a8d89de
True
enterprise database management
155
Where are XML databases never used?
5a8c840bfd22b3001a8d89df
True
machine-to-machine data
218
How is XML bypassed in enterprise database management?
5a8c840bfd22b3001a8d89e0
True
ACID-compliant transaction processing
512
What type of processing is forbidden in enterprise database software?
5a8c840bfd22b3001a8d89e1
True
XML databases are a type of structured document-oriented database that allows querying based on XML document attributes. XML databases are mostly used in enterprise database management, where XML is being used as the machine-to-machine data interoperability standard. XML database management systems include commercial software MarkLogic and Oracle Berkeley DB XML, and a free use software Clusterpoint Distributed XML/JSON Database. All are enterprise software database platforms and support industry standard ACID-compliant transaction processing with strong database consistency characteristics and high level of database security.
What explains the difficulty in a system containing availability, consistency, and partition tolerance guarantees?
572fa578947a6a140053cb04
the CAP theorem
123
False
How many guarantees will most databases tolerate?
572fa578947a6a140053cb05
two
306
False
What is used to offer a balance in guarantees?
572fa578947a6a140053cb06
eventual consistency
429
False
the CAP theorem
123
What can't explain the difficulty in a system containing availability, consistency, and partition tolerance guarantees?
5a8c8519fd22b3001a8d89e6
True
two
306
How many guarantees will most databases destroy?
5a8c8519fd22b3001a8d89e7
True
A distributed system
269
What can satisfy all guarantees at the same time?
5a8c8519fd22b3001a8d89e8
True
NoSQL databases
388
What is used to discourage eventual consistency?
5a8c8519fd22b3001a8d89e9
True
massively distributed databases with high partition tolerance
44
What has had low demand in recent years?
5a8c8519fd22b3001a8d89ea
True
In recent years there was a high demand for massively distributed databases with high partition tolerance but according to the CAP theorem it is impossible for a distributed system to simultaneously provide consistency, availability and partition tolerance guarantees. A distributed system can satisfy any two of these guarantees at the same time, but not all three. For that reason many NoSQL databases are using what is called eventual consistency to provide both availability and partition tolerance guarantees with a reduced level of data consistency.
What should a conceptual data model do?
572fa97e04bcaa1900d76b79
reflects the structure of the information to be held
81
False
What makes a successful data model?
572fa97e04bcaa1900d76b7a
accurately reflect the possible state of the external world being modeled
346
False
What must one understand in order to create a successful data model?
572fa97e04bcaa1900d76b7b
the application domain
600
False
Asking questions about an organization's needs will help to create what?
572fa97e04bcaa1900d76b7c
definitions of the terminology used for entities
1027
False
reflects the structure of the information to be held
81
What does a conceptual data model never do?
5a8c870efd22b3001a8d8a18
True
Unified Modeling Language
290
What data model is no longer a popular approach?
5a8c870efd22b3001a8d8a19
True
the application domain
600
What must one have no knowledge of in order to create a successful data model?
5a8c870efd22b3001a8d8a1a
True
a database designer
18
Who is not allowed to produce a conceptual data model?
5a8c870efd22b3001a8d8a1b
True
Designing a good conceptual data model
528
What involves asking shallow questions to improve a data model?
5a8c870efd22b3001a8d8a1c
True
The first task of a database designer is to produce a conceptual data model that reflects the structure of the information to be held in the database. A common approach to this is to develop an entity-relationship model, often with the aid of drawing tools. Another popular approach is the Unified Modeling Language. A successful data model will accurately reflect the possible state of the external world being modeled: for example, if people can have more than one phone number, it will allow this information to be captured. Designing a good conceptual data model requires a good understanding of the application domain; it typically involves asking deep questions about the things of interest to an organisation, like "can a customer also be a supplier?", or "if a product is sold with two different forms of packaging, are those the same product or different products?", or "if a plane flies from New York to Dubai via Frankfurt, is that one flight or two (or maybe even three)?". The answers to these questions establish definitions of the terminology used for entities (customers, products, flights, flight segments) and their relationships and attributes.
In what form is the output of a logical database design?
572fabfe947a6a140053cb4e
schema
303
False
Which data model is displayed as a specific model that uses DBMS?
572fabfe947a6a140053cb4f
logical
423
False
A conceptual data model in separate from the choice of what?
572fabfe947a6a140053cb50
database technology
398
False
schema
110
What form is the input of a logical database design?
5a8c8a11fd22b3001a8d8a5c
True
logical
257
Which data model is displayed as a nonspecific model that uses DBMS?
5a8c8a11fd22b3001a8d8a5d
True
the choice of database technology
384
What is the conceptual data model dependent on?
5a8c8a11fd22b3001a8d8a5e
True
data model and database model
541
What terms are no longer used interchangeably?
5a8c8a11fd22b3001a8d8a5f
True
Having produced a conceptual data model that users are happy with, the next stage is to translate this into a schema that implements the relevant data structures within the database. This process is often called logical database design, and the output is a logical data model expressed in the form of a schema. Whereas the conceptual data model is (in theory at least) independent of the choice of database technology, the logical data model will be expressed in terms of a particular database model supported by the chosen DBMS. (The terms data model and database model are often used interchangeably, but in this article we use data model for the design of a specific database, and database model for the modelling notation used to express that design.)
What decisions must be made in the last stage of database design?
572facde04bcaa1900d76bd1
performance, scalability, recovery, security
72
False
What is an important goal in in this final stage?
572facde04bcaa1900d76bd2
data independence
211
False
What factor is reflected in performance requirements?
572facde04bcaa1900d76bd3
Physical design
351
False
performance, scalability, recovery, security
72
What decisions are optional in the last stage of database design?
5a8c8aacfd22b3001a8d8a64
True
data independence
211
What is an irrelevant goal in the final stage?
5a8c8aacfd22b3001a8d8a65
True
Physical design
351
What factor is not reflected in performance requirements?
5a8c8aacfd22b3001a8d8a66
True
Physical design
351
What requires no knowledge of the expected workload?
5a8c8aacfd22b3001a8d8a67
True
data independence
211
What is no longer a key goal during the final stage?
5a8c8aacfd22b3001a8d8a68
True
The final stage of database design is to make the decisions that affect performance, scalability, recovery, security, and the like. This is often called physical database design. A key goal during this stage is data independence, meaning that the decisions made for performance optimization purposes should be invisible to end-users and applications. Physical design is driven mainly by performance requirements, and requires a good knowledge of the expected workload and access patterns, and a deep understanding of the features offered by the chosen DBMS.
How many conceptual or physical views of data are there?
572fae08a23a5019007fc877
one
30
False
How many different external views of data are there?
572fae08a23a5019007fc878
any number
116
False
What is the benefit of external views of data?
572fae08a23a5019007fc879
see database information in a more business-related way
177
False
one
30
How many conceptual or physical views of data do not exist?
5a8c8c1cfd22b3001a8d8a8c
True
any number
116
How many duplicated external views of data are there?
5a8c8c1cfd22b3001a8d8a8d
True
see database information in a more business-related way
177
What is the disadvantage of external views of data?
5a8c8c1cfd22b3001a8d8a8e
True
users
168
Who is not allowed to see database information?
5a8c8c1cfd22b3001a8d8a8f
True
While there is typically only one conceptual (or logical) and physical (or internal) view of the data, there can be any number of different external views. This allows users to see database information in a more business-related way rather than from a technical, processing viewpoint. For example, a financial department of a company needs the payment details of all employees as part of the company's expenses, but does not need details about employees that are the interest of the human resources department. Thus different departments need different views of the company's database.
What does the conceptual view offer?
572fafeca23a5019007fc89b
a level of indirection between internal and external
29
False
How does the conceptual view handle how data is managed?
572fafeca23a5019007fc89c
abstracts away details
214
False
What type of view does the conceptual view offer?
572fafeca23a5019007fc89d
common
109
False
a level of indirection between internal and external
29
What does the conceptual view ignore?
5a8c8de2fd22b3001a8d8ac2
True
abstracts away details
214
How does the conceptual view handle how data is erased?
5a8c8de2fd22b3001a8d8ac3
True
common
109
What type of view does the conceptual view degrade?
5a8c8de2fd22b3001a8d8ac4
True
every external view
328
What view can't be presented by a different data model?
5a8c8de2fd22b3001a8d8ac5
True
The conceptual view provides a level of indirection between internal and external. On one hand it provides a common view of the database, independent of different external view structures, and on the other hand it abstracts away details of how the data are stored or managed (internal level). In principle every level, and even every external view, can be presented by a different data model. In practice usually a given DBMS uses the same data model for both the external and the conceptual levels (e.g., relational model). The internal level, which is hidden inside the DBMS and depends on its implementation, requires a different level of detail and uses its own types of data structure types.
What is responsible for putting information into permanent storage?
572fb19f04bcaa1900d76bfb
database engine
435
False
What is database storage?
572fb19f04bcaa1900d76bfc
physical materialization of a database
41
False
What do database administrators closely monitor?
572fb19f04bcaa1900d76bfd
storage properties and configuration setting
647
False
While working, does DBMS store information in one place?
572fb19f04bcaa1900d76bfe
several types of storage
881
False
What are huge quantities of information stored as?
572fb19f04bcaa1900d76bff
bits
1047
False
database engine
435
What is responsible for losing information in permanent storage?
5a8c8e7dfd22b3001a8d8ad4
True
physical materialization of a database
41
What is no longer considered database storage?
5a8c8e7dfd22b3001a8d8ad5
True
storage properties and configuration setting
647
What do database administrators loosely monitor?
5a8c8e7dfd22b3001a8d8ad6
True
several types of storage
881
How many types of storage are not utilized for DBMS?
5a8c8e7dfd22b3001a8d8ad7
True
bits
1047
What are no quantities of information stored as?
5a8c8e7dfd22b3001a8d8ad8
True
Database storage is the container of the physical materialization of a database. It comprises the internal (physical) level in the database architecture. It also contains all the information needed (e.g., metadata, "data about the data", and internal data structures) to reconstruct the conceptual level and external level from the internal level when needed. Putting data into permanent storage is generally the responsibility of the database engine a.k.a. "storage engine". Though typically accessed by a DBMS through the underlying operating system (and often utilizing the operating systems' file systems as intermediates for storage layout), storage properties and configuration setting are extremely important for the efficient operation of the DBMS, and thus are closely maintained by database administrators. A DBMS, while in operation, always has its database residing in several types of storage (e.g., memory and external storage). The database data and the additional needed information, possibly in very large amounts, are coded into bits. Data typically reside in the storage in structures that look completely different from the way the data look in the conceptual and external levels, but in ways that attempt to optimize (the best possible) these levels' reconstruction when needed by users and programs, as well as for computing additional types of needed information from the data (e.g., when querying the database).
What does database access limit?
572fb248947a6a140053cba4
who (a person or a certain computer program) is allowed to access what information
47
False
What are examples of database objects?
572fb248947a6a140053cba5
record types, specific records, data structures
209
False
Who sets database access?
572fb248947a6a140053cba6
special authorized (by the database owner) personnel
507
False
who (a person or a certain computer program) is allowed to access what information in the database
47
What does database access have no influence on?
5a8c8f2afd22b3001a8d8afc
True
record types, specific records, data structures
209
What are examples of the only kind of database errors?
5a8c8f2afd22b3001a8d8afd
True
special authorized (by the database owner) personnel
507
Who has no database access?
5a8c8f2afd22b3001a8d8afe
True
special authorized (by the database owner) personnel
507
Who uses dedicated unprotected security DBMS interfaces?
5a8c8f2afd22b3001a8d8aff
True
Database access control deals with controlling who (a person or a certain computer program) is allowed to access what information in the database. The information may comprise specific database objects (e.g., record types, specific records, data structures), certain computations over certain objects (e.g., query types, or specific queries), or utilizing specific access paths to the former (e.g., using specific indexes or other data structures to access information). Database access controls are set by special authorized (by the database owner) personnel that uses dedicated protected security DBMS interfaces.
What does data security avoid?
572fb32704bcaa1900d76c05
unauthorized users from viewing or updating the database
267
False
What is a subset of a database called that can be accessed by using a password?
572fb32704bcaa1900d76c06
subschemas
415
False
What is possible when a DBMS interrogate and update a database?
572fb32704bcaa1900d76c07
managing personal databases
785
False
unauthorized users from viewing or updating the database
267
What does data security support?
5a8c9049fd22b3001a8d8b0c
True
subschemas
415
What is a subset of a database called that can be accessed by using a spell?
5a8c9049fd22b3001a8d8b0d
True
managing personal databases
785
What is possible when a DBMS corrupts a database?
5a8c9049fd22b3001a8d8b0e
True
an individual employee
493
Who can view the entire contents of an employee database?
5a8c9049fd22b3001a8d8b0f
True
This may be managed directly on an individual basis, or by the assignment of individuals and privileges to groups, or (in the most elaborate models) through the assignment of individuals and groups to roles which are then granted entitlements. Data security prevents unauthorized users from viewing or updating the database. Using passwords, users are allowed access to the entire database or subsets of it called "subschemas". For example, an employee database can contain all the data about an individual employee, but one group of users may be authorized to view only payroll data, while others are allowed access to only work history and medical data. If the DBMS provides a way to interactively enter and update the database, as well as interrogate it, this capability allows for managing personal databases.
What is a unit of work called in a database?
572fb513947a6a140053cbc4
transaction
136
False
How can database transactions ensure accuracy after a crash?
572fb513947a6a140053cbc5
fault tolerance
61
False
Are transactions limited?
572fb513947a6a140053cbc6
Each transaction has well defined boundaries
357
False
transaction
136
What is a unit of play called in a database?
5a8c90e0fd22b3001a8d8b2e
True
fault tolerance
61
How can database transactions lower accuracy after a crash?
5a8c90e0fd22b3001a8d8b2f
True
Each transaction
357
What has poorly defined boundaries in a database?
5a8c90e0fd22b3001a8d8b30
True
data integrity
81
What has no ability to recover from a crash?
5a8c90e0fd22b3001a8d8b31
True
database transaction
127
What always encapsulates only one transaction?
5a8c90e0fd22b3001a8d8b32
True
Database transactions can be used to introduce some level of fault tolerance and data integrity after recovery from a crash. A database transaction is a unit of work, typically encapsulating a number of operations over a database (e.g., reading a database object, writing, acquiring lock, etc.), an abstraction supported in database and also other systems. Each transaction has well defined boundaries in terms of which program/code executions are included in that transaction (determined by the transaction's programmer via special transaction commands).
Can a DBMS be transfered to a different DBMS?
572fb6f904bcaa1900d76c27
ano
50
False
Why would someone attempt to unite two different databases?
572fb6f904bcaa1900d76c28
primarily economical
215
False
In order to merge, what must the database maintain?
572fb6f904bcaa1900d76c29
database related application
523
False
What are the important parts of the database related application that should be moved?
572fb6f904bcaa1900d76c2a
conceptual and external architectural levels
622
False
How can a DBMS database migration be made easier?
572fb6f904bcaa1900d76c2b
vendor provides tools
1064
False
A database built with one
0
What is portable from one DBMS to another?
5a8c91a5fd22b3001a8d8b42
True
DBMS
58
What kind of database is migration impossible from?
5a8c91a5fd22b3001a8d8b43
True
A complex or large database migration
803
What is always an easy and cheap project for an individual?
5a8c91a5fd22b3001a8d8b44
True
tools
989
What no longer exist to help migration between specific DBMSs?
5a8c91a5fd22b3001a8d8b45
True
tools to help importing databases from other popular DBMSs
1080
What is not typically provided by a DBMS vendor?
5a8c91a5fd22b3001a8d8b46
True
A database built with one DBMS is not portable to another DBMS (i.e., the other DBMS cannot run it). However, in some situations it is desirable to move, migrate a database from one DBMS to another. The reasons are primarily economical (different DBMSs may have different total costs of ownership or TCOs), functional, and operational (different DBMSs may have different capabilities). The migration involves the database's transformation from one DBMS type to another. The transformation should maintain (if possible) the database related application (i.e., all related application programs) intact. Thus, the database's conceptual and external architectural levels should be maintained in the transformation. It may be desired that also some aspects of the architecture internal level are maintained. A complex or large database migration may be a complicated and costly (one-time) project by itself, which should be factored into the decision to migrate. This in spite of the fact that tools may exist to help migration between specific DBMSs. Typically a DBMS vendor provides tools to help importing databases from other popular DBMSs.
Name a reason to take a database backward in time?
572fb814a23a5019007fc8db
database is found corrupted
109
False
Is each database backup kept in the same file?
572fb814a23a5019007fc8dc
dedicated backup files
413
False
Who can restore a database that has been corrupted?
572fb814a23a5019007fc8dd
database administrator
541
False
What parameter is requiret to restore a database?
572fb814a23a5019007fc8de
desired point in time
642
False
database is found corrupted due to a software error
109
What is not a reason to take a database backward in time?
5a8c92c4fd22b3001a8d8b60
True
backup files
423
What type of file has no dedicated ones involved?
5a8c92c4fd22b3001a8d8b61
True
database administrator
541
Who can restore a database that has been deleted?
5a8c92c4fd22b3001a8d8b62
True
a database
33
What can't be restored to a previous date?
5a8c92c4fd22b3001a8d8b63
True
backup operation
228
What operation can be done only once per year?
5a8c92c4fd22b3001a8d8b64
True
Sometimes it is desired to bring a database back to a previous state (for many reasons, e.g., cases when the database is found corrupted due to a software error, or if it has been updated with erroneous data). To achieve this a backup operation is done occasionally or continuously, where each desired database state (i.e., the values of its data and their embedding in database's data structures) is kept within dedicated backup files (many techniques exist to do this effectively). When this state is needed, i.e., when it is decided by a database administrator to bring the database back to this state (e.g., by specifying this state by a desired point in time when the database was in this state), these files are utilized to restore that state.
How can static analysis be useful with query languages?
572fb959947a6a140053cbe6
software verification
31
False
What do query languages support in abstract interpretation frameworks?
572fb959947a6a140053cbe7
sound approximation techniques
258
False
What is a security measure that uses a relational database system?
572fb959947a6a140053cbe8
watermarking
559
False
Can query languages be adjusted?
572fb959947a6a140053cbe9
according to suitable abstractions of the concrete domain of data
336
False
software verification
31
Why is static analysis impossible with query languages?
5a8c935dfd22b3001a8d8b72
True
sound approximation techniques
258
What do query languages oppose in abstract interpretation frameworks?
5a8c935dfd22b3001a8d8b73
True
watermarking
559
What is a security measure that no longer uses a relational database system?
5a8c935dfd22b3001a8d8b74
True
The abstraction of relational database system
403
What has very few interesting applications?
5a8c935dfd22b3001a8d8b75
True
Static analysis techniques
0
What techniques are now forbidden for software verification?
5a8c935dfd22b3001a8d8b76
True
Static analysis techniques for software verification can be applied also in the scenario of query languages. In particular, the *Abstract interpretation framework has been extended to the field of query languages for relational databases as a way to support sound approximation techniques. The semantics of query languages can be tuned according to suitable abstractions of the concrete domain of data. The abstraction of relational database system has many interesting applications, in particular, for security purposes, such as fine grained access control, watermarking, etc.
Tucson,_Arizona
What is the largest populated city in Arizona?
572f62ff947a6a140053c908
Phoenix
513
False
How many miles is Tuscon from the U.S.- Mexico border?
572f62ff947a6a140053c909
60
634
False
What nickname does Tuscon have because of their many companies involved in optics?
572f62ff947a6a140053c90a
Optics Valley
913
False
What was the population of Tuscon according to the 2010 U.S. Census?
572f62ff947a6a140053c90b
520,116
190
False
What was the estimated population of the entire Tuscan area in 2013?
572f62ff947a6a140053c90c
996,544
296
False
Which county is Tucson in?
57340842d058e614000b6819
Pima County
62
False
Which university is in Tucson?
57340842d058e614000b681a
University of Arizona
115
False
How far is Tucson from Phoenix?
57340842d058e614000b681b
108 miles (174 km)
590
False
How far is Tucson from Mexico?
57340842d058e614000b681c
60 mi (97 km)
634
False
What industry-based nickname does Tucson have?
57340842d058e614000b681d
Optics Valley
913
False
Tucson (/ˈtuːsɒn/ /tuːˈsɒn/) is a city and the county seat of Pima County, Arizona, United States, and home to the University of Arizona. The 2010 United States Census put the population at 520,116, while the 2013 estimated population of the entire Tucson metropolitan statistical area (MSA) was 996,544. The Tucson MSA forms part of the larger Tucson-Nogales combined statistical area (CSA), with a total population of 980,263 as of the 2010 Census. Tucson is the second-largest populated city in Arizona behind Phoenix, both of which anchor the Arizona Sun Corridor. The city is  located 108 miles (174 km) southeast of Phoenix and 60 mi (97 km) north of the U.S.-Mexico border. Tucson is the 33rd largest city and the 59th largest metropolitan area in the United States. Roughly 150 Tucson companies are involved in the design and manufacture of optics and optoelectronics systems, earning Tucson the nickname Optics Valley.
What was Tuscon known as 12,000 years ago?
572f688b04bcaa1900d768eb
southern Arizona
74
False
What group lived in the area that were known for their red-on-brown pottery?
572f688b04bcaa1900d768ec
Hohokam
635
False
Near what river was a village site dating from 2100 BC found?
572f688b04bcaa1900d768ed
Santa Cruz River
158
False
Who were probably the first group of people in Tuscan?
572f688b04bcaa1900d768ee
Paleo-Indians
37
False
How long ago did Tuscan have their first visitors?
572f688b04bcaa1900d768ef
12,000 years ago
97
False
How long ago were Paleo-Indians known to be in the Tucson area?
573409114776f4190066175f
about 12,000 years ago
91
False
How old was the village site found near the Santa Cruz River?
573409114776f41900661760
2100 BC
215
False
When was the Early Agricultural period?
573409114776f41900661761
1200 BC to AD 150
347
False
What happened in the Early Ceramic period?
573409114776f41900661762
the first extensive use of pottery vessels for cooking and storage
538
False
When did the Hohokam live in the Tucson area?
573409114776f41900661763
from AD 600 to 1450
661
False
Tucson was probably first visited by Paleo-Indians, known to have been in southern Arizona about 12,000 years ago. Recent archaeological excavations near the Santa Cruz River have located a village site dating from 2100 BC.[citation needed] The floodplain of the Santa Cruz River was extensively farmed during the Early Agricultural period, circa 1200 BC to AD 150. These people constructed irrigation canals and grew corn, beans, and other crops while gathering wild plants and hunting. The Early Ceramic period occupation of Tucson saw the first extensive use of pottery vessels for cooking and storage. The groups designated as the Hohokam lived in the area from AD 600 to 1450 and are known for their vast irrigation canal systems and their red-on-brown pottery.[citation needed]
Who is considered the founding father of Tuscan?
572feb4a04bcaa1900d76ea9
Hugo O'Conor
333
False
What year did Mexico gain independence from Spain?
572feb4a04bcaa1900d76eaa
1821
812
False
Who founded the Mission San Xavier del Bac?
572feb4a04bcaa1900d76eab
Eusebio Francisco Kino
18
False
How many miles was Mission San Xavier del Bac from Tuscon?
572feb4a04bcaa1900d76eac
7
143
False
Which missionary came to the Santa Cruz River area in 1692?
573409784776f41900661769
Eusebio Francisco Kino
18
False
What religion was Kino?
573409784776f4190066176a
Jesuit
0
False
What mission did Kino found?
573409784776f4190066176b
Mission San Xavier del Bac
102
False
When did Kino found the del Bac mission?
573409784776f4190066176c
1700
132
False
Who is Tucson's 'founding father'?
573409784776f4190066176d
Hugo O'Conor
333
False
Jesuit missionary Eusebio Francisco Kino visited the Santa Cruz River valley in 1692, and founded the Mission San Xavier del Bac in 1700 about 7 mi (11 km) upstream from the site of the settlement of Tucson. A separate Convento settlement was founded downstream along the Santa Cruz River, near the base of what is now "A" mountain. Hugo O'Conor, the founding father of the city of Tucson, Arizona authorized the construction of a military fort in that location, Presidio San Agustín del Tucsón, on August 20, 1775 (near the present downtown Pima County Courthouse). During the Spanish period of the presidio, attacks such as the Second Battle of Tucson were repeatedly mounted by Apaches. Eventually the town came to be called "Tucson" and became a part of Sonora after Mexico gained independence from Spain in 1821.
What was the date when Arizona was bought?
572febdb04bcaa1900d76eb1
June 8, 1854
91
False
What year did the Overland Mail Corporation end operations?
572febdb04bcaa1900d76eb2
1861
618
False
What was the name of the deal in which Arizona was bought?
572febdb04bcaa1900d76eb3
Gadsden Purchase
71
False
Arizona is south of which river?
572febdb04bcaa1900d76eb4
Gila River
22
False
In what year did Tuscon become a stage station?
572febdb04bcaa1900d76eb5
1857
246
False
When was the Gadsden Purchase?
573409fbd058e614000b6847
June 8, 1854
91
False
Where did the US buy land from in the Gadsden Purchase?
573409fbd058e614000b6848
Mexico
57
False
When did the US formally take control of the Tucson area?
573409fbd058e614000b6849
March 1856
231
False
When did the mail stagecoaches stop running?
573409fbd058e614000b684a
August 1861
611
False
Why did the mail stagecoaches stop running?
573409fbd058e614000b684b
devastating Apache attacks on the stations and coaches
536
False
Arizona, south of the Gila River was legally bought from Mexico in the Gadsden Purchase on June 8, 1854. Tucson became a part of the United States of America, although the American military did not formally take over control until March 1856. In 1857 Tucson became a stage station on the San Antonio-San Diego Mail Line and in 1858 became 3rd division headquarters of the Butterfield Overland Mail until the line shut down in March 1861. The Overland Mail Corporation attempted to continue running, however following the Bascom Affair, devastating Apache attacks on the stations and coaches ended operations in August 1861.[citation needed]
What date did William Whitney Brazelton Die?
572ff1ada23a5019007fcb81
August 19, 1878
426
False
What is the name of the sheriff who shot William Whitney Brazelton?
572ff1ada23a5019007fcb82
Charles A. Shibell
545
False
Who was held responsible for the murder of Morgan Earp?
572ff1ada23a5019007fcb83
Frank Stilwell
996
False
What was Wyatt Earp's job title?
572ff1ada23a5019007fcb84
Deputy U.S. Marshal
1318
False
What Deputy was responsible for the death of Frank Stiwell?
572ff1ada23a5019007fcb85
Wyatt Earp
1338
False
What crime increased in the Tucson area in 1877?
57340aabd058e614000b6857
stagecoach robberies
47
False
Who was the most famous stagecoach robber in the Tucson area?
57340aabd058e614000b6858
William Whitney Brazelton
144
False
When was Brazelton killed?
57340aabd058e614000b6859
August 19, 1878
426
False
Who killed Brazelton?
57340aabd058e614000b685a
Charles A. Shibell and his citizen's posse
545
False
What was Shibell's job?
57340aabd058e614000b685b
Pima County Sheriff
525
False
From 1877 to 1878, the area suffered a rash of stagecoach robberies. Most notable, however, were the two holdups committed by masked road-agent William Whitney Brazelton. Brazelton held up two stages in the summer of 1878 near Point of Mountain Station approximately 17 mi (27 km) northwest of Tucson. John Clum, of Tombstone, Arizona fame was one of the passengers. Brazelton was eventually tracked down and killed on Monday August 19, 1878, in a mesquite bosque along the Santa Cruz River 3 miles (5 km) south of Tucson by Pima County Sheriff Charles A. Shibell and his citizen's posse. Brazelton had been suspected of highway robbery not only in the Tucson area, but also in the Prescott region and Silver City, New Mexico area as well. Brazelton's crimes prompted John J. Valentine, Sr. of Wells, Fargo & Co. to send special agent and future Pima County sheriff Bob Paul to investigate. Fort Lowell, then east of Tucson, was established to help protect settlers from Apache attacks. In 1882, Frank Stilwell was implicated in the murder of Morgan Earp by Cowboy Pete Spence's wife, Marietta, at the coroner's inquest on Morgan Earp's shooting. The coroner's jury concluded that Spence, Stilwell, Frederick Bode, and Florentino "Indian Charlie" Cruz were the prime suspects in the assassination of Morgan Earp. :250 Deputy U.S. Marshal Wyatt Earp gathered a few trusted friends and accompanied Virgil Earp and his family as they traveled to Benson for a train ride to California. They found Stilwell lying in wait for Virgil in the Tucson station and killed him on the tracks. After killing Stilwell, Wyatt deputized others and rode on a vendetta, killing three more cowboys over the next few days before leaving the state.
What county is Tuscon located in?
572ff318a23a5019007fcb95
Pima County
506
False
What was the population of Tuscon in 2006?
572ff318a23a5019007fcb96
535,000
608
False
what were veterans in need of after World War I?
572ff318a23a5019007fcb97
respiratory therapy
274
False
What did the U.S. Veterans Administration build around 1910?
572ff318a23a5019007fcb98
Veterans Hospital
186
False
What was the population of Tuscon in 1940?
572ff318a23a5019007fcb99
36,818
464
False
What was Tucson's population in 1900?
57340b224776f41900661799
7,531
9
False
What was Tucson's population in 1910?
57340b224776f4190066179a
13,913
79
False
What was Tucson's population in 1920?
57340b224776f4190066179b
20,292
445
False
What was Tucson's population in 1940?
57340b224776f4190066179c
36,818
464
False
What was Tucson's population in 2006?
57340b224776f4190066179d
535,000
608
False
By 1900, 7,531 people lived in the city. The population increased gradually to 13,913 in 1910. At about this time, the U.S. Veterans Administration had begun construction on the present Veterans Hospital. Many veterans who had been gassed in World War I and were in need of respiratory therapy began coming to Tucson after the war, due to the clean dry air. Over the following years the city continued to grow, with the population increasing to 20,292 in 1920 and 36,818 in 1940. In 2006 the population of Pima County, in which Tucson is located, passed one million while the City of Tucson's population was 535,000.
Which Mountain has the Highest point surrounding Tuscon?
572ff55cb2c2fd140056864d
Mount Wrightson
640
False
Which desert is Tuscon in?
572ff55cb2c2fd140056864e
Sonoran
155
False
How many mountain ranges is Tuscon surrounded by?
572ff55cb2c2fd140056864f
five
185
False
How above sea level is Wasson Peak in feet?
572ff55cb2c2fd1400568650
4,687 ft
575
False
What direction are the Tortolita Mountains from Tuscon?
572ff55cb2c2fd1400568651
north
281
False
How high is Tucson's airport?
57341fd5d058e614000b6978
2,643 ft (806 m) above sea level
24
False
What desert is Tucson in?
57341fd5d058e614000b6979
Sonoran
155
False
What mountain range is east of Tucson?
57341fd5d058e614000b697a
Rincon Mountains
331
False
What mountain range is north of Tucson?
57341fd5d058e614000b697b
Tortolita Mountains
254
False
What mountain range is west of Tucson?
57341fd5d058e614000b697c
Tucson Mountains
369
False
The city's elevation is 2,643 ft (806 m) above sea level (as measured at the Tucson International Airport). Tucson is situated on an alluvial plain in the Sonoran desert, surrounded by five minor ranges of mountains: the Santa Catalina Mountains and the Tortolita Mountains to the north, the Santa Rita Mountains to the south, the Rincon Mountains to the east, and the Tucson Mountains to the west. The high point of the Santa Catalina Mountains is 9,157 ft (2,791 m) Mount Lemmon, the southernmost ski destination in the continental U.S., while the Tucson Mountains include 4,687 ft (1,429 m) Wasson Peak. The highest point in the area is Mount Wrightson, found in the Santa Rita Mountains at 9,453 ft (2,881 m) above sea level.
How many miles is Tuscon from Phoenix?
572ff6f7a23a5019007fcbc3
118
18
False
How many miles is Tuscon from the US - Mexico border?
572ff6f7a23a5019007fcbc4
60
59
False
What is the second largest city in Arizona?
572ff6f7a23a5019007fcbc5
Tucson
380
False
Where does Tuscon rank in terms of the largest city in the U.S. in 2009?
572ff6f7a23a5019007fcbc6
32nd
263
False
What area exceeded 1 million people in 2015?
572ff6f7a23a5019007fcbc7
Greater Tucson Metro
556
False
What is Tucson's city population in 2010?
573420364776f419006618dd
520,116
177
False
What is Tucson's metro area population in 2010?
573420364776f419006618de
980,263
224
False
How does Tucson rank among US cities?
573420364776f419006618df
32nd largest
263
False
How does Tucson rank among US metro areas?
573420364776f419006618e0
52nd largest
285
False
What is Tucson's metro area population in 2015?
573420364776f419006618e1
1 million
611
False
Tucson is located 118 mi (190 km) southeast of Phoenix and 60 mi (97 km) north of the United States - Mexico border. The 2010 United States Census puts the city's population at 520,116 with a metropolitan area population at 980,263. In 2009, Tucson ranked as the 32nd largest city and 52nd largest metropolitan area in the United States. A major city in the Arizona Sun Corridor, Tucson is the largest city in southern Arizona, the second largest in the state after Phoenix. It is also the largest city in the area of the Gadsden Purchase. As of 2015, The Greater Tucson Metro area has exceeded a population of 1 million.
Which interstate is the only one that uses kilometer posts instead of mileposts?
572fff11947a6a140053cf1e
I-19
345
False
Are the speed limits on I-19 marked in miles or kilometers?
572fff11947a6a140053cf1f
miles
473
False
What border does I-19 come close to?
572fff11947a6a140053cf20
U.S.-Mexico border
325
False
Which interstate would you take to go to Jackson Florida from Tuscon Arizona?
572fff11947a6a140053cf21
Interstate 10
0
False
Which direction does I-10 run through Tucson?
573421e94776f41900661903
southeast to northwest
26
False
What is the next major town to the west on I-10?
573421e94776f41900661904
Phoenix
82
False
What is the next major town to the east on I-10?
573421e94776f41900661905
Las Cruces, New Mexico
178
False
Which direction does I-19 run from Tucson?
573421e94776f41900661906
south
284
False
What is unusual about I-19?
573421e94776f41900661907
the only Interstate highway that uses "kilometer posts" instead of "mileposts"
353
False
Interstate 10, which runs southeast to northwest through town, connects Tucson to Phoenix to the northwest on the way to its western terminus in Santa Monica, California, and to Las Cruces, New Mexico and El Paso, Texas toward its eastern terminus in Jacksonville, Florida. I-19 runs south from Tucson toward Nogales and the U.S.-Mexico border. I-19 is the only Interstate highway that uses "kilometer posts" instead of "mileposts", although the speed limits are marked in miles per hour instead of kilometers per hour.
What was the Union Pacific once known as?
5730023eb2c2fd1400568733
Southern Pacific
454
False
What year was Locomotive #1673 made in?
5730023eb2c2fd1400568734
1900
555
False
What was the name of the retail and community center that took longer than a decade to build?
5730023eb2c2fd1400568735
Rio Nuevo
171
False
When did a revitalization of downtown Tucson begin?
573422784776f41900661913
At the end of the first decade of the 21st century
0
False
What is Rio Nuevo?
573422784776f41900661914
a large retail and community center
182
False
What is the southern edge of Tucson's downtown?
573422784776f41900661915
17th Street
332
False
What is the western edge of Tucson's downtown?
573422784776f41900661916
I-10
358
False
What is the northern edge of Tucson's downtown?
573422784776f41900661917
6th Street
380
False
At the end of the first decade of the 21st century, downtown Tucson underwent a revitalization effort by city planners and the business community. The primary project was Rio Nuevo, a large retail and community center that has been stalled in planning for more than ten years. Downtown is generally regarded as the area bordered by 17th Street to the south, I-10 to the west, and 6th Street to the north, and Toole Avenue and the Union Pacific (formerly Southern Pacific) railroad tracks, site of the historic train depot and "Locomotive #1673", built in 1900. Downtown is divided into the Presidio District, the Barrio Viejo, and the Congress Street Arts and Entertainment District. Some authorities include the 4th Avenue shopping district, which is set just northeast of the rest of downtown and connected by an underpass beneath the UPRR tracks.
Which architect designed the Broadway Village shopping Center?
573003ad04bcaa1900d7700b
Josias Joesler
131
False
Which part of Tuscon is Broadway Village shopping center located in?
573003ad04bcaa1900d7700c
Central
36
False
What mall is located in midtown?
573003ad04bcaa1900d7700d
El Con Mall
522
False
Who designed the Broadway Village shopping center?
573422f0d058e614000b69c6
Josias Joesler
131
False
Where is Broadway Village shopping center?
573422f0d058e614000b69c7
at the intersection of Broadway Boulevard and Country Club Road
146
False
Where is the Lost Barrio?
573422f0d058e614000b69c8
just East of downtown
300
False
Where is the El Con Mall?
573422f0d058e614000b69c9
in the eastern part of midtown
550
False
Where is the 4th Avenue Shopping District?
573422f0d058e614000b69ca
between downtown and the University
244
False
As one of the oldest parts of town, Central Tucson is anchored by the Broadway Village shopping center designed by local architect Josias Joesler at the intersection of Broadway Boulevard and Country Club Road. The 4th Avenue Shopping District between downtown and the University and the Lost Barrio just East of downtown, also have many unique and popular stores. Local retail business in Central Tucson is densely concentrated along Fourth Avenue and the Main Gate Square on University Boulevard near the UA campus. The El Con Mall is also located in the eastern part of midtown.
What is Tuscon's largest Park?
57300588a23a5019007fcc55
Reid Park
23
False
What was once named the "ugliest street in America" by Life magazine?
57300588a23a5019007fcc56
Speedway Boulevard
105
False
What mayor was quoted in calling Speedway Boulevard "the ugliest street in America?
57300588a23a5019007fcc57
James Corbett
276
False
Which newspaper did David Leighton work for?
57300588a23a5019007fcc58
Arizona Daily Star
451
False
What city is the Harlem River Speedway in?
57300588a23a5019007fcc59
New York City
624
False
What is Tucson's biggest park?
573423444776f41900661937
Reid Park
23
False
What sports field is in Reid Park?
573423444776f41900661938
Hi Corbett Field
87
False
What zoo is in Reid Park?
573423444776f41900661939
Reid Park Zoo
69
False
What was the "ugliest street in America" in the 1970s?
573423444776f4190066193a
Speedway Boulevard
105
False
What was Speedway Blvd called in the 1990s?
573423444776f4190066193b
"Street of the Year"
336
False
Tucson's largest park, Reid Park, is located in midtown and includes Reid Park Zoo and Hi Corbett Field. Speedway Boulevard, a major east-west arterial road in central Tucson, was named the "ugliest street in America" by Life magazine in the early 1970s, quoting Tucson Mayor James Corbett. Despite this, Speedway Boulevard was awarded "Street of the Year" by Arizona Highways in the late 1990s. According to David Leighton, historical writer for the Arizona Daily Star newspaper, Speedway Boulevard derives its name from an old horse racetrack, known as "The Harlem River Speedway," more commonly called "The Speedway," in New York City. The street was called "The Speedway," from 1904 to about 1906 before the word "The" was taken out.
Where does E.University Blvd. lead to?
5730103fa23a5019007fcce3
Fourth Avenue Shopping District
244
False
What neighborhood has historic homes?
5730103fa23a5019007fcce4
Sam Hughes neighborhood
169
False
What mode of transport is encouraged in Central Tuscon?
5730103fa23a5019007fcce5
bicycle
18
False
Of the 3.5 miles from N. Mountain Avenue to Rillito River Park, how many are bike-only?
5730103fa23a5019007fcce6
half
340
False
Which Tucson street is devoted to bicycles?
573423e9d058e614000b69da
Third Street
78
False
How long does N Mountain Ave have a bike lane?
573423e9d058e614000b69db
half of the 3.5 miles (5.6 km) to the Rillito River Park
340
False
Which park has a multi-use path?
573423e9d058e614000b69dc
Rillito River Park
378
False
Which bike path does Highland lead to?
573423e9d058e614000b69dd
Barraza-Aviation Parkway
473
False
Which shopping area is on East University?
573423e9d058e614000b69de
Fourth Avenue Shopping District
244
False
Central Tucson is bicycle-friendly. To the east of the University of Arizona, Third Street is bike-only except for local traffic and passes by the historic homes of the Sam Hughes neighborhood. To the west, E. University Boulevard leads to the Fourth Avenue Shopping District. To the North, N. Mountain Avenue has a full bike-only lane for half of the 3.5 miles (5.6 km) to the Rillito River Park bike and walk multi-use path. To the south, N. Highland Avenue leads to the Barraza-Aviation Parkway bicycle path.
What is the percentage of Native Americans in South Tuscon?
573011bba23a5019007fccf5
10%
343
False
What kind of restaurants are widely known in South Tuscon?
573011bba23a5019007fccf6
Mexican
416
False
What are painted do to city policy?
573011bba23a5019007fccf7
outdoor murals
486
False
What percentage of the South Tuscon Population is Mexican-American?
573011bba23a5019007fccf8
83%
318
False
What year was South Tuscon reincorperated?
573011bba23a5019007fccf9
1940
279
False
When was South Tucson first incorporated?
573425204776f4190066194f
1936
245
False
When was South Tucson reincorporated?
573425204776f41900661950
1940
279
False
How large is South Tucson?
573425204776f41900661951
1 sq mi (2.6 km2)
74
False
How much of South Tucson is Mexican-American?
573425204776f41900661952
83%
318
False
How much of South Tucson is Native American?
573425204776f41900661953
10%
343
False
South Tucson is actually the name of an independent, incorporated town of 1 sq mi (2.6 km2), completely surrounded by the city of Tucson, sitting just south of downtown. South Tucson has a colorful, dynamic history. It was first incorporated in 1936, and later reincorporated in 1940. The population consists of about 83% Mexican-American and 10% Native American residents. South Tucson is widely known for its many Mexican restaurants and the architectural styles which include bright outdoor murals, many of which have been painted over due to city policy.
What interstate is the West side west of?
573013ad947a6a140053d066
I-10
104
False
What is the name of the movie set in Old West Tuscon?
573013ad947a6a140053d067
Old Tucson Studios
740
False
What is the name of the national park in Old West Tuscon?
573013ad947a6a140053d068
Saguaro National Park West
670
False
What is the museum in Old West Tuscon?
573013ad947a6a140053d069
Arizona-Sonora Desert Museum
702
False
The Marriott Starr Pass Resort & Spa is located where?
573013ad947a6a140053d06a
Starr Pass
359
False
What part of Tucson is considered the West Side?
573426bed058e614000b6a16
the area west of I-10
87
False
What museum is in Western Tucson?
573426bed058e614000b6a17
International Wildlife Museum
231
False
What resort is in Western Tucson?
573426bed058e614000b6a18
Marriott Starr Pass Resort & Spa
285
False
What neighborhood is the Marriott Starr Pass Resort & Spa in?
573426bed058e614000b6a19
Starr Pass
359
False
What theme park is in Old West Tucson?
573426bed058e614000b6a1a
Old Tucson Studios
740
False
A combination of urban and suburban development, the West Side is generally defined as the area west of I-10. Western Tucson encompasses the banks of the Santa Cruz River and the foothills of the Tucson Mountains, and includes the International Wildlife Museum, Sentinel Peak, and the Marriott Starr Pass Resort & Spa, located in the wealthy enclave known as Starr Pass. Moving past the Tucson Mountains, travelers find themselves in the area commonly referred to as "west of" Tucson or "Old West Tucson". A large undulating plain extending south into the Altar Valley, rural residential development predominates, but here you will also find major attractions including Saguaro National Park West, the Arizona-Sonora Desert Museum, and the Old Tucson Studios movie set/theme park.
What else is Sentinel Peak also known as?
57301702b2c2fd1400568845
'A' Mountain
33
False
What is the giant letter downtown in honor of?
57301702b2c2fd1400568846
University of Arizona
109
False
What year did the tradition of freshmen whitewashing the "A" begin?
57301702b2c2fd1400568847
1916
150
False
during the Iraq war, what color did anti-war activists paint the "A"?
57301702b2c2fd1400568848
black
322
False
Who intervened when the "A" was painted various colors?
57301702b2c2fd1400568849
city council
417
False
Why is there a giant letter A on a Tucson mountain?
573427834776f4190066199b
in honor of the University of Arizona
93
False
Where is there a giant letter A on a Tucson mountain?
573427834776f4190066199c
On Sentinel Peak (also known as "'A' Mountain"), just west of downtown
0
False
What color did college freshmen paint the A?
573427834776f4190066199d
white
201
False
What color did Iraq War protesters paint the A?
573427834776f4190066199e
black
322
False
How did City Council decide to paint the A?
573427834776f4190066199f
red, white and blue
452
False
On Sentinel Peak (also known as "'A' Mountain"), just west of downtown, there is a giant "A" in honor of the University of Arizona. Starting in about 1916, a yearly tradition developed for freshmen to whitewash the "A", which was visible for miles. However, at the beginning of the Iraq War, anti-war activists painted it black. This was followed by a paint scuffle where the "A" was painted various colors until the city council intervened. It is now red, white and blue except when it is white or another color decided by a biennial election. Because of the three-color paint scheme often used, the shape of the A can be vague and indistinguishable from the rest of the peak. The top of Sentinel Peak, which is accessible by road, offers an outstanding scenic view of the city looking eastward. A parking lot located near the summit of Sentinel Peak was formerly a popular place to watch sunsets or view the city lights at night.
What is the Foothills west of?
5730187d947a6a140053d0d2
Sabino Creek
359
False
Where are some of the major resorts of Tuscon?
5730187d947a6a140053d0d3
Catalina Foothills
432
False
What is the Foothills east of?
5730187d947a6a140053d0d4
Oracle Road
334
False
What is La Encantada?
5730187d947a6a140053d0d5
upscale outdoor shopping mall
579
False
What community is north of Tucson's city limits?
573428154776f419006619b5
Catalina Foothills
52
False
Where are the most expensive homes in the Tucson metro area?
573428154776f419006619b6
Catalina Foothills
52
False
What is the southern edge of the Catalina Foothills area?
573428154776f419006619b7
River Road
314
False
What outdoor mall is in Catalina Foothills?
573428154776f419006619b8
La Encantada
562
False
Which big resorts are in Catalina Foothills?
573428154776f419006619b9
Hacienda Del Sol, Westin La Paloma Resort, Loews Ventana Canyon Resort and Canyon Ranch Resort
466
False
Also on the north side is the suburban community of Catalina Foothills, located in the foothills of the Santa Catalina Mountains just north of the city limits. This community includes among the area's most expensive homes, sometimes multimillion-dollar estates. The Foothills area is generally defined as north of River Road, east of Oracle Road, and west of Sabino Creek. Some of the Tucson area's major resorts are located in the Catalina Foothills, including the Hacienda Del Sol, Westin La Paloma Resort, Loews Ventana Canyon Resort and Canyon Ranch Resort. La Encantada, an upscale outdoor shopping mall, is also in the Foothills.
How many residents live in the master-planned communities?
57301a30b2c2fd140056886d
thousands
492
False
What mountains is Oro Valley next to?
57301a30b2c2fd140056886e
Santa Catalina Mountains
239
False
Which town is Rancho Vistoso located?
57301a30b2c2fd140056886f
Oro Valley
414
False
Which town would you find Dove Mountain and Continental Ranch?
57301a30b2c2fd1400568870
Marana
385
False
Where is Oro Valley?
573428b44776f419006619c9
in the western foothills of the Santa Catalina Mountains
207
False
Where is the Continental Ranch planned community?
573428b44776f419006619ca
Marana
361
False
Where is the Dove Mountain planned community?
573428b44776f419006619cb
Marana
385
False
Where is the Rancho Vistoso planned community?
573428b44776f419006619cc
Oro Valley
414
False
Which direction from Tucson is Picture Rocks?
573428b44776f419006619cd
northwest
19
False
The expansive area northwest of the city limits is diverse, ranging from the rural communities of Catalina and parts of the town of Marana, the small suburb of Picture Rocks, the affluent town of Oro Valley in the western foothills of the Santa Catalina Mountains, and residential areas in the northeastern foothills of the Tucson Mountains. Continental Ranch (Marana), Dove Mountain (Marana), and Rancho Vistoso (Oro Valley) are all masterplanned communities located in the Northwest, where thousands of residents live.
What is considered Tuscon's first suburb?
57301b53947a6a140053d10a
Casas Adobes
17
False
When was the Casas Adobes Plaza established?
57301b53947a6a140053d10b
1948
215
False
What nature preserve is in Casas Adobes?
57301b53947a6a140053d10c
Tohono Chul Park
251
False
What representative was almost assassinated at the La Toscana Village?
57301b53947a6a140053d10d
Gabrielle Giffords
396
False
What mall is located in Casas Adobes?
57301b53947a6a140053d10e
Foothills Mall
596
False
When was the Casas Adobes Plaza built?
5734291d4776f419006619d3
1948
215
False
What was Tucson's first suburb?
5734291d4776f419006619d4
Casas Adobes
17
False
Where is Tohono Chul Park?
5734291d4776f419006619d5
near the intersection of North Oracle Road and West Ina Road
288
False
Who was nearly assassinated in Casas Adobes?
5734291d4776f419006619d6
Representative Gabrielle Giffords
381
False
What was John Roll's job title?
5734291d4776f419006619d7
chief judge for the U.S. District Court for Arizona
435
False
The community of Casas Adobes is also on the Northwest Side, with the distinction of being Tucson's first suburb, established in the late 1940s. Casas Adobes is centered on the historic Casas Adobes Plaza (built in 1948). Casas Adobes is also home to Tohono Chul Park (a nature preserve) near the intersection of North Oracle Road and West Ina Road. The attempted assassination of Representative Gabrielle Giffords, and the murders of chief judge for the U.S. District Court for Arizona, John Roll and five other people on January 8, 2011, occurred at the La Toscana Village in Casas Adobes. The Foothills Mall is also located on the northwest side in Casas Adobes.
What park was developed between the 1950's and 1970's?
57301c8ea23a5019007fcd93
Desert Palms Park
153
False
What park is in East Tuscon?
57301c8ea23a5019007fcd94
Saguaro National Park East
411
False
Which estates were named after a ranch of a famous author?
57301c8ea23a5019007fcd95
Harold Bell Wright Estates
631
False
What year was Tuscon's largest office building built?
57301c8ea23a5019007fcd96
1975
942
False
What shopping center is located along Broadway?
57301c8ea23a5019007fcd97
Park Place
1079
False
What part of Tucson is Saguaro National Park East in?
57342ca74776f41900661a03
East
390
False
When was East Tucson developed?
57342ca74776f41900661a04
between the 1950s and the 1970s
77
False
What is the boundary of East Tucson?
57342ca74776f41900661a05
Swan Road
231
False
What is the biggest office building in Tucson?
57342ca74776f41900661a06
5151 East Broadway
894
False
Where is Park Place?
57342ca74776f41900661a07
along Broadway (west of Wilmot Road)
1145
False
East Tucson is relatively new compared to other parts of the city, developed between the 1950s and the 1970s,[citation needed] with developments such as Desert Palms Park. It is generally classified as the area of the city east of Swan Road, with above-average real estate values relative to the rest of the city. The area includes urban and suburban development near the Rincon Mountains. East Tucson includes Saguaro National Park East. Tucson's "Restaurant Row" is also located on the east side, along with a significant corporate and financial presence. Restaurant Row is sandwiched by three of Tucson's storied Neighborhoods: Harold Bell Wright Estates, named after the famous author's ranch which occupied some of that area prior to the depression; the Tucson Country Club (the third to bear the name Tucson Country Club), and the Dorado Country Club. Tucson's largest office building is 5151 East Broadway in east Tucson, completed in 1975. The first phases of Williams Centre, a mixed-use, master-planned development on Broadway near Craycroft Road, were opened in 1987. Park Place, a recently renovated shopping center, is also located along Broadway (west of Wilmot Road).
Who bought The sanitarium in 1928?
57301e40a23a5019007fcdbb
Harvey Adkins
401
False
Jack Kerouac authored what iconic book?
57301e40a23a5019007fcdbc
On the Road
1168
False
What year where three officer building bought and used for a sanitarium?
57301e40a23a5019007fcdbd
1900
292
False
Alan Harrington is considered part of what generation?
57301e40a23a5019007fcdbe
beat generation
1074
False
Which month does the neighborhood celebrates its history in the City Landmark?
57301e40a23a5019007fcdbf
February
1293
False
When was Fort Lowell shut down?
57342e41d058e614000b6aa4
1891
164
False
What were some buildings of Fort Lowell bought to be used for in 1900?
57342e41d058e614000b6aa5
a sanitarium
355
False
Who bought the Fort Lowell sanitarium in 1928?
57342e41d058e614000b6aa6
Harvey Adkins
401
False
Who renovated Fort Lowell's adobe buildings?
57342e41d058e614000b6aa7
The Bolsius family Pete, Nan and Charles Bolsius
424
False
In what book did Jack Kerouac write about visiting Tucson?
57342e41d058e614000b6aa8
On the Road
1168
False
Near the intersection of Craycroft and Ft. Lowell Roads are the remnants of the Historic Fort Lowell. This area has become one of Tucson's iconic neighborhoods. In 1891, the Fort was abandoned and much of the interior was stripped of their useful components and it quickly fell into ruin. In 1900, three of the officer buildings were purchased for use as a sanitarium. The sanitarium was then sold to Harvey Adkins in 1928. The Bolsius family Pete, Nan and Charles Bolsius purchased and renovated surviving adobe buildings of the Fort – transforming them into spectacular artistic southwestern architectural examples. Their woodwork, plaster treatment and sense of proportion drew on their Dutch heritage and New Mexican experience. Other artists and academics throughout the middle of the 20th century, including: Win Ellis, Jack Maul, Madame Cheruy, Giorgio Belloli, Charels Bode, Veronica Hughart, Edward and Rosamond Spicer, Hazel Larson Archer and Ruth Brown, renovated adobes, built homes and lived in the area. The artist colony attracted writers and poets including beat generation Alan Harrington and Jack Kerouac whose visit is documented in his iconic book On the Road. This rural pocket in the middle of the city is listed on the National Register of Historic Places. Each year in February the neighborhood celebrates its history in the City Landmark it owns and restored the San Pedro Chapel.
Where is a great place to bird watch in Southeast Tuscon?
57302410947a6a140053d174
The Atterbury Wash
366
False
Where do a lot of the families from Davis-Monthan Air Force Base live at?
57302410947a6a140053d175
Rita Ranch
500
False
Rita Ranch also has a planned development called what?
57302410947a6a140053d176
Civano
697
False
What is the name of the lake in Southeast Tuscon?
57302410947a6a140053d177
Lakeside Lake
250
False
What is the name of the High School in the area of Southeast Tuscon?
57302410947a6a140053d178
Santa Rita High School
193
False
What Air Force base is in Tucson?
573431a04776f41900661a45
Davis-Monthan Air Force Base
90
False
What is the alternate name of Chuck Ford Park?
573431a04776f41900661a46
Lakeside Park
234
False
What community college is in southeast Tucson?
573431a04776f41900661a47
Pima Community College East Campus
330
False
Where do many Air Force families live?
573431a04776f41900661a48
Rita Ranch
500
False
What is the goal of Civano?
573431a04776f41900661a49
showcase ecologically sound building practices and lifestyles
736
False
Southeast Tucson continues to experience rapid residential development. The area includes Davis-Monthan Air Force Base. The area is considered to be south of Golf Links Road. It is the home of Santa Rita High School, Chuck Ford Park (Lakeside Park), Lakeside Lake, Lincoln Park (upper and lower), The Lakecrest Neighborhoods, and Pima Community College East Campus. The Atterbury Wash with its access to excellent bird watching is also located in the Southeast Tucson area. The suburban community of Rita Ranch houses many of the military families from Davis-Monthan, and is near the southeastern-most expansion of the current city limits. Close by Rita Ranch and also within the city limits lies Civano, a planned development meant to showcase ecologically sound building practices and lifestyles.
What area has a ski lift?
5730257ea23a5019007fce65
Ski Valley
431
False
How many miles is Catalina Highway?
5730257ea23a5019007fce66
25
27
False
What town is near the top of Mt. Lemmon?
5730257ea23a5019007fce67
Summerhaven
257
False
What two winter sports would you do at the mountain range?
5730257ea23a5019007fce68
snowboarding and skiing
190
False
How long is Catalina Highway?
5734323bd058e614000b6aea
25 miles (40 km)
27
False
What activities are popular in the mountains of Tucson?
5734323bd058e614000b6aeb
cycling, hiking, rock climbing, camping, birding, and wintertime snowboarding and skiing
125
False
Where is Summerhaven?
5734323bd058e614000b6aec
Near the top of Mt. Lemmon
215
False
What is in Ski Valley?
5734323bd058e614000b6aed
a ski lift, several runs, a giftshop, and nearby restaurant
454
False
What is in Summerhaven?
5734323bd058e614000b6aee
log houses and cabins, a general store, and various shops, as well as numerous hiking trails
305
False
Catalina Highway stretches 25 miles (40 km) and the entire mountain range is one of Tucson's most popular vacation spots for cycling, hiking, rock climbing, camping, birding, and wintertime snowboarding and skiing. Near the top of Mt. Lemmon is the town of Summerhaven. In Summerhaven, visitors will find log houses and cabins, a general store, and various shops, as well as numerous hiking trails. Near Summerhaven is the road to Ski Valley which hosts a ski lift, several runs, a giftshop, and nearby restaurant.
What kind of climate is Tuscon?
5730396404bcaa1900d773bb
desert
13
False
What is the average amount of  yearly precipitation in Tuscon in inches?
5730396404bcaa1900d773bc
11.8
158
False
What other city is similar to Tuscon in precipitation and climate?
5730396404bcaa1900d773bd
Alice Springs
407
False
What does Tuscon have more than most desert climates?
5730396404bcaa1900d773be
precipitation
184
False
What does Tuscon have a high net loss of?
5730396404bcaa1900d773bf
water
370
False
What is Tucson's climate type?
57343294d058e614000b6af4
desert
13
False
How much rain does Tucson get each year?
57343294d058e614000b6af5
11.8 inches (299.7 mm)
158
False
What is evapotranspiration?
57343294d058e614000b6af6
net loss of water
358
False
Which Australian town has a similar climate as Tucson?
57343294d058e614000b6af7
Alice Springs
407
False
What is Alice Springs's average rainfall?
57343294d058e614000b6af8
11 inches (279.4 mm)
448
False
Tucson has a desert climate (Köppen BWh), with two major seasons, summer and winter; plus three minor seasons: fall, spring, and the monsoon. Tucson averages 11.8 inches (299.7 mm) of precipitation per year, more than most other locations with desert climates, but it still qualifies due to its high evapotranspiration; in other words, it experiences a high net loss of water. A similar scenario is seen in Alice Springs, Australia, which averages 11 inches (279.4 mm) a year, but has a desert climate.
What year did the "Stupid Motorist Law" come in effect?
57303bcda23a5019007fcfd1
1995
847
False
How much can a motorist be charged for needing to be rescued after ignoring safety precautions?
57303bcda23a5019007fcfd2
2000
1020
False
A monsoon can last into what month?
57303bcda23a5019007fcfd3
September
158
False
What is usually higher during a monsoon compared throughout the rest of the year?
57303bcda23a5019007fcfd4
humidity
193
False
What could you say is the average start for a monsoon?
57303bcda23a5019007fcfd5
July 3
93
False
When was the "Stupid Motorist Law" passed?
5734338bd058e614000b6b08
1995
847
False
What is the legal name of the "Stupid Motorist Law"?
5734338bd058e614000b6b09
Arizona traffic code Title 28-910
757
False
How much can the "Stupid Motorist Law" charge people for being rescued?
5734338bd058e614000b6b0a
up to $2000
1013
False
When does Tucson's monsoon usually start?
5734338bd058e614000b6b0b
around July 3
86
False
How long does Tucson's monsoon last?
5734338bd058e614000b6b0c
through August and sometimes into September
124
False
The monsoon can begin any time from mid-June to late July, with an average start date around July 3. It typically continues through August and sometimes into September. During the monsoon, the humidity is much higher than the rest of the year. It begins with clouds building up from the south in the early afternoon followed by intense thunderstorms and rainfall, which can cause flash floods. The evening sky at this time of year is often pierced with dramatic lightning strikes. Large areas of the city do not have storm sewers, so monsoon rains flood the main thoroughfares, usually for no longer than a few hours. A few underpasses in Tucson have "feet of water" scales painted on their supports to discourage fording by automobiles during a rainstorm. Arizona traffic code Title 28-910, the so-called "Stupid Motorist Law", was instituted in 1995 to discourage people from entering flooded roadways. If the road is flooded and a barricade is in place, motorists who drive around the barricade can be charged up to $2000 for costs involved in rescuing them. Despite all warnings and precautions, however, three Tucson drivers have drowned between 2004 and 2010.
What are Tucson's typical winter high temperatures?
573434054776f41900661a63
between 64 and 75 °F (18 and 24 °C)
107
False
What are Tucson's typical winter low temperatures?
573434054776f41900661a64
between 30 and 44 °F (−1 and 7 °C)
164
False
What do Tucson's hard freeze temperatures dip to?
573434054776f41900661a65
the mid or low-20s (−7 to −4 °C)
290
False
How much snow did Tucson get on Feb 20, 2013?
573434054776f41900661a66
2.0 inches
539
False
When had Tucson last had as much snow as 2013?
573434054776f41900661a67
1987
605
False
Winters in Tucson are mild relative to other parts of the United States. Daytime highs in the winter range between 64 and 75 °F (18 and 24 °C), with overnight lows between 30 and 44 °F (−1 and 7 °C). Tucson typically averages one hard freeze per winter season, with temperatures dipping to the mid or low-20s (−7 to −4 °C), but this is typically limited to only a very few nights. Although rare, snow has been known to fall in Tucson, usually a light dusting that melts within a day. The most recent snowfall was on February 20, 2013 when 2.0 inches of snow blanketed the city, the largest snowfall since 1987.
On what two occasions was Tucson's record high?
5734346a4776f41900661a6d
June 19, 1960, and July 28, 1995
124
False
What was Tucson's record high?
5734346a4776f41900661a6e
115 °F (46 °C)
106
False
What was Tucson's record low?
5734346a4776f41900661a6f
6 °F (−14 °C)
197
False
When was Tucson's record low?
5734346a4776f41900661a70
January 7, 1913
214
False
What was Tucson's wettest year?
5734346a4776f41900661a71
1905
522
False
At the University of Arizona, where records have been kept since 1894, the record maximum temperature was 115 °F (46 °C) on June 19, 1960, and July 28, 1995, and the record minimum temperature was 6 °F (−14 °C) on January 7, 1913. There are an average of 150.1 days annually with highs of 90 °F (32 °C) or higher and an average of 26.4 days with lows reaching or below the freezing mark. Average annual precipitation is 11.15 in (283 mm). There is an average of 49 days with measurable precipitation. The wettest year was 1905 with 24.17 in (614 mm) and the driest year was 1924 with 5.07 in (129 mm). The most precipitation in one month was 7.56 in (192 mm) in July 1984. The most precipitation in 24 hours was 4.16 in (106 mm) on October 1, 1983. Annual snowfall averages 0.7 in (1.8 cm). The most snow in one year was 7.2 in (18 cm) in 1987. The most snow in one month was 6.0 in (15 cm) in January 1898 and March 1922.
In what month did Tucson get the most rain?
573434c54776f41900661a77
August 1955
585
False
When did Tucson get the most rain in 24 hours?
573434c54776f41900661a78
July 29, 1958
652
False
In what month did Tucson get the most snow?
573434c54776f41900661a79
December 1971
834
False
In what year did Tucson get the most rain?
573434c54776f41900661a7a
1983
432
False
In what year did Tucson get the least rain?
573434c54776f41900661a7b
1953
502
False
At the airport, where records have been kept since 1930, the record maximum temperature was 117 °F (47 °C) on June 26, 1990, and the record minimum temperature was 16 °F (−9 °C) on January 4, 1949. There is an average of 145.0 days annually with highs of 90 °F (32 °C) or higher and an average of 16.9 days with lows reaching or below the freezing mark. Measurable precipitation falls on an average of 53 days. The wettest year was 1983 with 21.86 in (555 mm) of precipitation, and the driest year was 1953 with 5.34 in (136 mm). The most rainfall in one month was 7.93 in (201 mm) in August 1955. The most rainfall in 24 hours was 3.93 in (100 mm) on July 29, 1958. Snow at the airport averages only 1.1 in (2.8 cm) annually. The most snow received in one year was 8.3 in (21 cm) and the most snow in one month was 6.8 in (17 cm) in December 1971.
How many households are there in Tucson as of 2010?
573435354776f41900661a81
229,762
53
False
How many families are there in Tucson as of 2010?
573435354776f41900661a82
112,455
77
False
How many residents are there in Tucson as of 2010?
573435354776f41900661a83
520,116
37
False
How many people per square mile are there in Tucson?
573435354776f41900661a84
2,500.1
143
False
How much of Tucson was non-Hispanic Whites in 1970?
573435354776f41900661a85
72.8%
635
False
As of the census of 2010, there were 520,116 people, 229,762 households, and 112,455 families residing in the city. The population density was 2,500.1 inhabitants per square mile (965.3/km²). There were 209,609 housing units at an average density of 1,076.7 per square mile (415.7/km²). The racial makeup of the city was 69.7% White (down from 94.8% in 1970), 5.0% Black or African-American, 2.7% Native American, 2.9% Asian, 0.2% Pacific Islander, 16.9% from other races, and 3.8% from two or more races. Hispanic or Latino of any race were 41.6% of the population. Non-Hispanic Whites were 47.2% of the population in 2010, down from 72.8% in 1970.
What is the second-largest employer in Tucson?
573435f44776f41900661a8b
University of Arizona
82
False
Where is the US Army Intelligence Center?
573435f44776f41900661a8c
Sierra Vista
421
False
What railroad route passes through Tucson?
573435f44776f41900661a8d
Union Pacific Railroad's Sunset Route
606
False
Where does the Sunset Route connect to the west coast?
573435f44776f41900661a8e
Los Angeles ports
659
False
Much of Tucson's economic development has been centered on the development of the University of Arizona, which is currently the second largest employer in the city. Davis-Monthan Air Force Base, located on the southeastern edge of the city, also provides many jobs for Tucson residents. Its presence, as well as the presence of the US Army Intelligence Center (Fort Huachuca, the largest employer in the region in nearby Sierra Vista), has led to the development of a significant number of high-tech industries, including government contractors, in the area. The city of Tucson is also a major hub for the Union Pacific Railroad's Sunset Route that links the Los Angeles ports with the South/Southeast regions of the country.
What was Raytheon previously called?
573436f6d058e614000b6b1c
Hughes Aircraft Co.
254
False
What drug company has a major presence in Tucson?
573436f6d058e614000b6b1d
Sanofi-Aventis
384
False
How many optics-related companies are in Tucson?
573436f6d058e614000b6b1e
150
507
False
What do the 'Optics Valley' companies do?
573436f6d058e614000b6b1f
design and manufacture of optics and optoelectronics systems
548
False
What accounting software company has a major presence in Tucson?
573436f6d058e614000b6b20
Intuit Inc.
300
False
The City of Tucson, Pima County, the State of Arizona, and the private sector have all made commitments to create a growing, healthy economy[citation needed] with advanced technology industry sectors as its foundation. Raytheon Missile Systems (formerly Hughes Aircraft Co.), Texas Instruments, IBM, Intuit Inc., Universal Avionics, Honeywell Aerospace, Sunquest Information Systems, Sanofi-Aventis, Ventana Medical Systems, Inc., and Bombardier Aerospace all have a significant presence in Tucson. Roughly 150 Tucson companies are involved in the design and manufacture of optics and optoelectronics systems, earning Tucson the nickname "Optics Valley".
When did the Tucson Festival of Books begin?
57343746d058e614000b6b26
2009
6
False
When is the Tucson Festival of Books held?
57343746d058e614000b6b27
a two-day period in March
69
False
How many people came to the Tucson Festival of Books in 2010?
57343746d058e614000b6b28
80,000
223
False
What award did the Tucson Festival of Books give to R. L. Stine?
57343746d058e614000b6b29
Founder's Award
485
False
Since 2009, the Tucson Festival of Books has been held annually over a two-day period in March at the University of Arizona. By 2010 it had become the fourth largest book festival in the United States, with 450 authors and 80,000 attendees. In addition to readings and lectures, it features a science fair, varied entertainment, food, and exhibitors ranging from local retailers and publishers to regional and national nonprofit organizations. In 2011, the Festival began presenting a Founder's Award; recipients include Elmore Leonard and R.L. Stine.
When is the Tucson Folk Festival held?
573437afd058e614000b6b2e
the first Saturday and Sunday of May
64
False
Where is the Tucson Folk Festival held?
573437afd058e614000b6b2f
El Presidio Park
122
False
How many performers are in the Tucson Folk Festival?
573437afd058e614000b6b30
over 100
224
False
How much does the Tucson Folk Festival cost to get in?
573437afd058e614000b6b31
free
299
False
Who runs the Tucson Folk Festival?
573437afd058e614000b6b32
Tucson Kitchen Musicians Association
392
False
For the past 25 years, the Tucson Folk Festival has taken place the first Saturday and Sunday of May in downtown Tucson's El Presidio Park. In addition to nationally known headline acts each evening, the Festival highlights over 100 local and regional musicians on five stages is one of the largest free festivals in the country. All stages are within easy walking distance. Organized by the Tucson Kitchen Musicians Association, volunteers make this festival possible. KXCI 91.3-FM, Arizona's only community radio station, is a major partner, broadcasting from the Plaza Stage throughout the weekend. In addition, there are numerous workshops, events for children, sing-alongs, and a popular singer/songwriter contest. Musicians typically play 30-minute sets, supported by professional audio staff volunteers. A variety of food and crafts are available at the festival, as well as local micro-brews. All proceeds from sales go to fund future festivals.
What season is February in Tucson?
57343812d058e614000b6b38
spring
55
False
What is the Fiesta de los Vaqueros?
57343812d058e614000b6b39
rodeo week
107
False
What month is the Fiesta de los Vaqueros held in?
57343812d058e614000b6b3a
February
30
False
Who started the Fiesta de los Vaqueros?
57343812d058e614000b6b3b
Leighton Kramer
146
False
How much time do Tucson schools give students off to attend the Fiesta de los Vaqueros?
57343812d058e614000b6b3c
two rodeo days off
346
False
Another popular event held in February, which is early spring in Tucson, is the Fiesta de los Vaqueros, or rodeo week, founded by winter visitor, Leighton Kramer. While at its heart the Fiesta is a sporting event, it includes what is billed as "the world's largest non-mechanized parade". The Rodeo Parade is a popular event as most schools give two rodeo days off instead of Presidents Day. The exception to this is Presidio High (a non-public charter school), which doesn't get either. Western wear is seen throughout the city as corporate dress codes are cast aside during the Fiesta. The Fiesta de los Vaqueros marks the beginning of the rodeo season in the United States.
What time of day is The Procession?
573438bbd058e614000b6b42
sundown
24
False
What is burned at The Procession?
573438bbd058e614000b6b43
an urn in which written prayers have been collected from participants and spectators
285
False
What group runs The Procession?
573438bbd058e614000b6b44
Many Mouths One Stomach
441
False
What kind of group runs The Procession?
573438bbd058e614000b6b45
non-profit arts organization
412
False
What kind of parade is The Procession?
573438bbd058e614000b6b46
non-motorized
47
False
The Procession, held at sundown, consists of a non-motorized parade through downtown Tucson featuring many floats, sculptures, and memorials, in which the community is encouraged to participate. The parade is followed by performances on an outdoor stage, culminating in the burning of an urn in which written prayers have been collected from participants and spectators. The event is organized and funded by the non-profit arts organization Many Mouths One Stomach, with the assistance of many volunteers and donations from the public and local businesses.
What famous writers have lived in Tucson?
57343917d058e614000b6b4c
Edward Abbey, Erskine Caldwell, Barbara Kingsolver and David Foster Wallace
121
False
What is the Chax Press?
57343917d058e614000b6b4d
a publisher of poetry books in trade and book arts editions
460
False
What does the University of Arizona Poetry Center offer?
57343917d058e614000b6b4e
a sizable poetry library and presents readings, conferences, and workshops
576
False
What university were some of Tucson's famous writers associated with?
57343917d058e614000b6b4f
University of Arizona
228
False
The accomplished and awarded writers (poets, novelists, dramatists, nonfiction writers) who have lived in Tucson include Edward Abbey, Erskine Caldwell, Barbara Kingsolver and David Foster Wallace. Some were associated with the University of Arizona, but many were independent writers who chose to make Tucson their home. The city is particularly active in publishing and presenting contemporary innovative poetry in various ways. Examples are the Chax Press, a publisher of poetry books in trade and book arts editions, and the University of Arizona Poetry Center, which has a sizable poetry library and presents readings, conferences, and workshops.
Who is thought to have led to calling Tucson 'The Old Pueblo'?
573439c8d058e614000b6b54
Mayor R. N. "Bob" Leatherwood
130
False
When did Tucson get a railroad?
573439c8d058e614000b6b55
March 20, 1880
210
False
What did Leatherwood call Tucson in a telegram?
573439c8d058e614000b6b56
"ancient and honorable pueblo"
378
False
How did newspapers abbreviate Leatherwood's phrase?
573439c8d058e614000b6b57
"A. and H. Pueblo"
542
False
Who were among the recipients of Leatherwood's telegram?
573439c8d058e614000b6b58
the President of the United States and the Pope
309
False
Tucson is commonly known as "The Old Pueblo". While the exact origin of this nickname is uncertain, it is commonly traced back to Mayor R. N. "Bob" Leatherwood. When rail service was established to the city on March 20, 1880, Leatherwood celebrated the fact by sending telegrams to various leaders, including the President of the United States and the Pope, announcing that the "ancient and honorable pueblo" of Tucson was now connected by rail to the outside world. The term became popular with newspaper writers who often abbreviated it as "A. and H. Pueblo". This in turn transformed into the current form of "The Old Pueblo".
How many times has the University of Arizona men's basketball team won NCAA tournaments?
57343a484776f41900661a9d
25
267
False
How many times has the University of Arizona women's softball team gone to NCAA National Championships?
57343a484776f41900661a9e
12
408
False
How many times has the University of Arizona women's softball team won NCAA National Championships?
57343a484776f41900661a9f
8
429
False
Who coaches the University of Arizona's swim team?
57343a484776f41900661aa0
Frank Busch
605
False
Who coaches the University of Arizona men's basketball team?
57343a484776f41900661aa1
Sean Miller
245
False
The University of Arizona Wildcats sports teams, most notably the men's basketball and women's softball teams have strong local interest. The men's basketball team, formerly coached by Hall of Fame head coach Lute Olson and currently coached by Sean Miller, has made 25 straight NCAA Tournaments and won the 1997 National Championship. Arizona's Softball team has reached the NCAA National Championship game 12 times and has won 8 times, most recently in 2007. The university's swim teams have gained international recognition, with swimmers coming from as far as Japan and Africa to train with the coach Frank Busch who has also worked with the U.S. Olympic swim team for a number of years. Both men and women's swim teams recently[when?] won the NCAA National Championships.
Where did the Tucson Sidewinders move to?
57343bc94776f41900661abb
Reno, Nevada
728
False
What team played at Kino Veterans Memorial Stadium in 2011-2013?
57343bc94776f41900661abc
Tucson Padres
4
False
Why were the Tucson Padres temporarily in Tucson?
57343bc94776f41900661abd
awaiting the building of a new stadium in Escondido
242
False
Where did the Padres move when the Escondido stadium fell through?
57343bc94776f41900661abe
El Paso, Texas
376
False
What is the new name of the Tucson Sidewinders?
57343bc94776f41900661abf
Reno Aces
788
False
The Tucson Padres played at Kino Veterans Memorial Stadium from 2011 to 2013. They served as the AAA affiliate of the San Diego Padres. The team, formerly known as the Portland Beavers, was temporarily relocated to Tucson from Portland while awaiting the building of a new stadium in Escondido. Legal issues derailed the plans to build the Escondido stadium, so they moved to El Paso, Texas for the 2014 season. Previously, the Tucson Sidewinders, a triple-A affiliate of the Arizona Diamondbacks, won the Pacific Coast League championship and unofficial AAA championship in 2006. The Sidewinders played in Tucson Electric Park and were in the Pacific Conference South of the PCL. The Sidewinders were sold in 2007 and moved to Reno, Nevada after the 2008 season. They now compete as the Reno Aces.
Where does Tucson hold NASCAR races?
57343c494776f41900661ac5
Tucson Raceway Park
54
False
What kind of races does Rillito Downs hold?
57343c494776f41900661ac6
quarter horse races
305
False
What former Tucson horse racetrack no longer exists?
57343c494776f41900661ac7
Moltacqua racetrack
420
False
What is on the former site of the Moltacqua track now?
57343c494776f41900661ac8
Sabino Canyon Road and Vactor Ranch Trail
501
False
How many asphalt short tracks are in Arizona?
57343c494776f41900661ac9
two
136
False
Tracks include Tucson Raceway Park and Rillito Downs. Tucson Raceway Park hosts NASCAR-sanctioned auto racing events and is one of only two asphalt short tracks in Arizona. Rillito Downs is an in-town destination on weekends in January and February each year. This historic track held the first organized quarter horse races in the world, and they are still racing there. The racetrack is threatened by development. The Moltacqua racetrack, was another historic horse racetrack located on what is now Sabino Canyon Road and Vactor Ranch Trail, but it no longer exists.
Who said Tucson is bicycle-friendly, in 2007?
57343cc24776f41900661acf
The League of American Bicyclists
0
False
When does El Tour de Tucson happen?
57343cc24776f41900661ad0
in November on the Saturday before Thanksgiving
220
False
Who runs El Tour de Tucson?
57343cc24776f41900661ad1
Perimeter Bicycling
312
False
How many people participate in El Tour de Tucson?
57343cc24776f41900661ad2
as many as 10,000
336
False
How many US cities have at least a gold rating for bicycle-friendliness?
57343cc24776f41900661ad3
nine
424
False
The League of American Bicyclists gave Tucson a gold rating for bicycle friendliness in late April 2007. Tucson hosts the largest perimeter cycling event in the United States. The ride called "El Tour de Tucson" happens in November on the Saturday before Thanksgiving. El Tour de Tucson produced and promoted by Perimeter Bicycling has as many as 10,000 participants from all over the world, annually. Tucson is one of only nine cities in the U.S. to receive a gold rating or higher for cycling friendliness from the League of American Bicyclists. The city is known for its winter cycling opportunities. Both road and mountain biking are popular in and around Tucson with trail areas including Starr Pass and Fantasy Island.
Which political party does Tucson usually support?
57343d20d058e614000b6b68
Democratic
47
False
Which political party does Phoenix usually support?
57343d20d058e614000b6b69
Republican
151
False
How many Federal Congressional districts was Tucson split into in 2013?
57343d20d058e614000b6b6a
three
281
False
Who represents Tucson's city center in Congress?
57343d20d058e614000b6b6b
Raul Grijalva
416
False
Who represent's Tucson's wealthy areas in Congress?
57343d20d058e614000b6b6c
Martha McSally
570
False
In general, Tucson and Pima County support the Democratic Party, as opposed the state's largest metropolitan area, Phoenix, which usually supports the Republican Party. Congressional redistricting in 2013, following the publication of the 2010 Census, divided the Tucson area into three Federal Congressional districts (the first, second and third of Arizona). The city center is in the 3rd District, represented by Raul Grijalva, a Democrat, since 2003, while the more affluent residential areas to the south and east are in the 2nd District, represented by Republican Martha McSally since 2015, and the exurbs north and west between Tucson and Phoenix in the 3rd District are represented by Democrat Ann Kirkpatrick since 2008. The United States Postal Service operates post offices in Tucson. The Tucson Main Post Office is located at 1501 South Cherrybell Stravenue.
When is Tucson's city council primary?
57343e54d058e614000b6b72
September
163
False
How long are Tucson's city council terms?
57343e54d058e614000b6b73
four-year
45
False
When is Tucson's city council general election?
57343e54d058e614000b6b74
November
262
False
Which wards elect city council members in the same year as the mayor?
57343e54d058e614000b6b75
1, 2, and 4
412
False
Which wards elect city council members in the alternate year from the mayor?
57343e54d058e614000b6b76
3, 5, and 6
518
False
Both the council members and the mayor serve four-year terms; none face term limits. Council members are nominated by their wards via a ward-level primary held in September. The top vote-earners from each party then compete at-large for their ward's seat on the November ballot. In other words, on election day the whole city votes on all the council races up for that year. Council elections are severed: Wards 1, 2, and 4 (as well as the mayor) are up for election in the same year (most recently 2011), while Wards 3, 5, and 6 share another year (most recently 2013).
When did Tucson begin offering city council candidates public funding?
57343f804776f41900661af7
1985
96
False
What is the spending limit for Tucson city council candidates to get public funding?
57343f804776f41900661af8
33¢ for every registered Tucson voter
372
False
What is the spending limit for Tucson mayoral candidates to get public funding?
57343f804776f41900661af9
64¢ per registered voter
471
False
What major cities later adopted Tucson's city council public funding system?
57343f804776f41900661afa
San Francisco and New York City
757
False
How many $10+ donations must Tucson city council candidates receive to get public funding?
57343f804776f41900661afb
200
257
False
Tucson is known for being a trailblazer in voluntary partial publicly financed campaigns. Since 1985, both mayoral and council candidates have been eligible to receive matching public funds from the city. To become eligible, council candidates must receive 200 donations of $10 or more (300 for a mayoral candidate). Candidates must then agree to spending limits equal to 33¢ for every registered Tucson voter, or $79,222 in 2005 (the corresponding figures for mayor are 64¢ per registered voter, or $142,271 in 2003). In return, candidates receive matching funds from the city at a 1:1 ratio of public money to private donations. The only other limitation is that candidates may not exceed 75% of the limit by the date of the primary. Many cities, such as San Francisco and New York City, have copied this system, albeit with more complex spending and matching formulas.
What is Tucson's daily general newspaper?
57343fcfd058e614000b6b84
Arizona Daily Star
44
False
What is Tucson's daily legal paper?
57343fcfd058e614000b6b85
The Daily Territorial
116
False
Who publishes Tucson Weekly?
57343fcfd058e614000b6b86
10/13 Communications
166
False
Where is 10/13 based?
57343fcfd058e614000b6b87
Boulder, Colo.
145
False
What is the University of Arizona's student newspaper?
57343fcfd058e614000b6b88
The Arizona Daily Wildcat
555
False
Tucson has one daily newspaper, the morning Arizona Daily Star. Wick Communications publishes the daily legal paper The Daily Territorial, while Boulder, Colo.-based 10/13 Communications publishes Tucson Weekly (an "alternative" publication), Inside Tucson Business and the Explorer. TucsonSentinel.com is a nonprofit independent online news organization. Tucson Lifestyle Magazine, Lovin' Life News, DesertLeaf, and Zócalo Magazine are monthly publications covering arts, architecture, decor, fashion, entertainment, business, history, and other events. The Arizona Daily Wildcat is the University of Arizona's student newspaper, and the Aztec News is the Pima Community College student newspaper. The New Vision is the newspaper for the Roman Catholic Diocese of Tucson, and the Arizona Jewish Post is the newspaper of the Jewish Federation of Southern Arizona.
What is Tucson's NBC station?
573440114776f41900661b01
KVOA 4
319
False
What is Tucson's ABC station?
573440114776f41900661b02
KGUN 9
333
False
What is Tucson's Fox station?
573440114776f41900661b03
KMSB-TV 11
347
False
What is Tucson's CBS station?
573440114776f41900661b04
KOLD-TV 13
365
False
What is Tucson's PBS station?
573440114776f41900661b05
KUAT-TV 6
429
False
The Tucson metro area is served by many local television stations and is the 68th largest designated market area (DMA) in the U.S. with 433,310 homes (0.39% of the total U.S.). It is limited to the three counties of southeastern Arizona (Pima, Santa Cruz, and Cochise) The major television networks serving Tucson are: KVOA 4 (NBC), KGUN 9 (ABC), KMSB-TV 11 (Fox), KOLD-TV 13 (CBS), KTTU 18 (My Network TV) and KWBA 58 (The CW). KUAT-TV 6 is a PBS affiliate run by the University of Arizona (as is sister station KUAS 27).
Who runs Tucson's main power plant?
5734415c879d6814001ca40f
Tucson Electric Power
90
False
What highway is Tucson's main power plant near?
5734415c879d6814001ca410
Interstate-10
226
False
What does Tucson's main power plant use for fuel?
5734415c879d6814001ca411
coal and natural gas
46
False
When did Tucson's main power plant begin operation?
5734415c879d6814001ca412
1962
347
False
How many days of sunshine does Tucson get each year?
5734415c879d6814001ca413
over 300
479
False
Tucson's primary electrical power source is a coal and natural gas power-plant managed by Tucson Electric Power that is situated within the city limits on the south-western boundary of Davis-Monthan Air-force base adjacent to Interstate-10. The air pollution generated has raised some concerns as the Sundt operating station has been online since 1962 as is exempt from many pollution standards and controls due to its age. Solar has been gaining ground in Tucson with its ideal over 300 days of sunshine climate. Federal, state, and even local utility credits and incentives have also enticed residents to equip homes with solar systems. Davis-Monthan AFB has a 3.3 Megawatt (MW) ground-mounted solar photovoltaic (PV) array and a 2.7 MW rooftop-mounted PV array, both of which are located in the Base Housing area. The base will soon have the largest solar-generating capacity in the United States Department of Defense after awarding a contract on September 10, 2010, to SunEdison to construct a 14.5 MW PV field on the northwestern side of the base.
How is most of Tucson's water used?
57344401879d6814001ca42d
Agriculture (including golf courses)
239
False
How much of Tucson's water is used on agriculture?
57344401879d6814001ca42e
69%
298
False
How much of Tucson's water is used on residential/city use?
57344401879d6814001ca42f
25%
378
False
How many days of full sun does Tucson get each year?
57344401879d6814001ca430
over 300
473
False
What agency manages Tucson's water?
57344401879d6814001ca431
Arizona Department of Water Resources
160
False
Perhaps the biggest sustainability problem in Tucson, with its high desert climate, is potable water supply. The state manages all water in Arizona through its Arizona Department of Water Resources (ADWR). The primary consumer of water is Agriculture (including golf courses), which consumes about 69% of all water. Municipal (which includes residential use) accounts for about 25% of use. Energy consumption and availability is another sustainability issue. However, with over 300 days of full sun a year, Tucson has demonstrated its potential to be an ideal solar energy producer.
How is Tucson replenishing its groundwater?
57344471879d6814001ca437
running part of its share of CAP water into various open portions of local rivers to seep into their aquifer
77
False
What does Tucson use reclaimed water for?
57344471879d6814001ca438
irrigation, dust control, and industrial uses
452
False
How long has Tucson's water conservation efforts been underway?
57344471879d6814001ca439
more than 27 years
539
False
In an effort to conserve water, Tucson is recharging groundwater supplies by running part of its share of CAP water into various open portions of local rivers to seep into their aquifer. Additional study is scheduled to determine the amount of water that is lost through evaporation from the open areas, especially during the summer. The City of Tucson already provides reclaimed water to its inhabitants, but it is only used for "applications such as irrigation, dust control, and industrial uses." These resources have been in place for more than 27 years, and deliver to over 900 locations.
What is the CAP?
573444c0879d6814001ca447
Central Arizona Project Aqueduct
389
False
How long is the CAP?
573444c0879d6814001ca448
more than 300 mi (480 km)
442
False
What water source feeds the CAP?
573444c0879d6814001ca449
Colorado River
495
False
What aquifer is Tucson starting new wells in?
573444c0879d6814001ca44a
Avra Valley aquifer
322
False
How many wells has Tucson stopped using since 2001?
573444c0879d6814001ca44b
over 80
755
False
To prevent further loss of groundwater, Tucson has been involved in water conservation and groundwater preservation efforts, shifting away from its reliance on a series of Tucson area wells in favor of conservation, consumption-based pricing for residential and commercial water use, and new wells in the more sustainable Avra Valley aquifer, northwest of the city. An allocation from the Central Arizona Project Aqueduct (CAP), which passes more than 300 mi (480 km) across the desert from the Colorado River, has been incorporated into the city's water supply, annually providing over 20 million gallons of "recharged" water which is pumped into the ground to replenish water pumped out. Since 2001, CAP water has allowed the city to remove or turn off over 80 wells.
How long is the Sun Link?
5734453aacc1501500babd59
3.9-mile
183
False
What is Tucson's bus system called?
5734453aacc1501500babd5a
Sun Tran
9
False
What transit systems does Sun Link connect to?
5734453aacc1501500babd5b
the University of Arizona's CatTran shuttles, Amtrak, and Greyhound intercity bus service
502
False
When did Tucson get a 'Best Transit System' award?
5734453aacc1501500babd5c
1988 and 2005
166
False
What kind of vehicles operate on the Sun Link?
5734453aacc1501500babd5d
streetcar
192
False
Tucson's Sun Tran bus system serves greater Tucson with standard, express, regional shuttle, and on-demand shuttle bus service. It was awarded Best Transit System in 1988 and 2005. A 3.9-mile streetcar line, Sun Link, connects the University of Arizona campus with 4th Avenue, downtown, and the Mercado District west of Interstate 10 and the Santa Cruz River. Ten-minute headway passenger service began July 25, 2014. The streetcar utilizes Sun Tran's card payment and transfer system, connecting with the University of Arizona's CatTran shuttles, Amtrak, and Greyhound intercity bus service.
Why is cycling popular in Tucson?
573445bbacc1501500babd6d
its flat terrain and dry climate
36
False
What is The Loop?
573445bbacc1501500babd6e
a network of seven linear parks
254
False
How many miles of trails are in The Loop?
573445bbacc1501500babd6f
over 100
297
False
What organization advises the Tucson government on bike concerns?
573445bbacc1501500babd70
Tucson-Pima County Bicycle Advisory Committee
429
False
What kind of places to ride bikes does Tucson have?
573445bbacc1501500babd71
marked bike routes, signal crossings, on-street bike lanes, mountain-biking trails, and dedicated shared-use paths
126
False
Cycling is popular in Tucson due to its flat terrain and dry climate. Tucson and Pima County maintain an extensive network of marked bike routes, signal crossings, on-street bike lanes, mountain-biking trails, and dedicated shared-use paths. The Loop is a network of seven linear parks comprising over 100 mi (160 km) of paved, vehicle-free trails that encircles the majority of the city with links to Marana and Oro Valley. The Tucson-Pima County Bicycle Advisory Committee (TPCBAC) serves in an advisory capacity to local governments on issues relating to bicycle recreation, transportation, and safety. Tucson was awarded a gold rating for bicycle-friendliness by the League of American Bicyclists in 2006.
Armenia
What kind of government does Armenia have?
572f7c1504bcaa1900d76a01
democratic
35
False
Who brought Armenia to success in the 1st century BC?
572f7c1504bcaa1900d76a02
Tigranes the Great
266
False
What religion did Armenia support?
572f7c1504bcaa1900d76a03
Christianity
339
False
What two empires did Armenia belong to in the beginning of the 5th century?
572f7c1504bcaa1900d76a04
Byzantine and Sasanian
604
False
When was Urartu created?
572f7c1504bcaa1900d76a05
860 BC
120
False
Armenia is a unitary, multi-party, democratic nation-state with an ancient cultural heritage. Urartu was established in 860 BC and by the 6th century BC it was replaced by the Satrapy of Armenia. In the 1st century BC the Kingdom of Armenia reached its height under Tigranes the Great. Armenia became the first state in the world to adopt Christianity as its official religion. In between the late 3rd century to early years of the 4th century, the state became the first Christian nation. The official date of state adoption of Christianity is 301 AD. The ancient Armenian kingdom was split between the Byzantine and Sasanian Empires around the early 5th century.
Which two empires ruled Armenia between the 16 and 19th Century?
572f7d20947a6a140053c9b4
Ottoman and successive Iranian empires
152
False
Who took over Eastern Armenia in the 19th century?
572f7d20947a6a140053c9b5
Russian Empire
313
False
When did the Armenian Genocide occure?
572f7d20947a6a140053c9b6
World War I
434
False
When did Armenia become part of the Transcaucasian Socialist Federative Soviet Republic?
572f7d20947a6a140053c9b7
1920
754
False
When did Armenia gain its independence?
572f7d20947a6a140053c9b8
1991
1123
False
Between the 16th century and 19th century, the traditional Armenian homeland composed of Eastern Armenia and Western Armenia came under the rule of the Ottoman and successive Iranian empires, repeatedly ruled by either of the two over the centuries. By the 19th century, Eastern Armenia had been conquered by the Russian Empire, while most of the western parts of the traditional Armenian homeland remained under Ottoman rule. During World War I, Armenians living in their ancestral lands in the Ottoman Empire were systematically exterminated in the Armenian Genocide. In 1918, after the Russian Revolution, all non-Russian countries declared their independence from the Russian empire, leading to the establishment of the First Republic of Armenia. By 1920, the state was incorporated into the Transcaucasian Socialist Federative Soviet Republic, and in 1922 became a founding member of the Soviet Union. In 1936, the Transcaucasian state was dissolved, transforming its constituent states, including the Armenian Soviet Socialist Republic, into full Union republics. The modern Republic of Armenia became independent in 1991 during the dissolution of the Soviet Union.
What name did Armenia gain it's name from?
572f7e5ca23a5019007fc687
Aram
609
False
When did Xenophon visit Armenia?
572f7e5ca23a5019007fc688
401 BC
390
False
Who first referenced the Armenians?
572f7e5ca23a5019007fc689
Hecataeus of Miletus
200
False
What language does Armenias resemble most?
572f7e5ca23a5019007fc68a
Persians
491
False
The exonym Armenia is attested in the Old Persian Behistun Inscription (515 BC) as Armina (    ). The ancient Greek terms Ἀρμενία (Armenía) and Ἀρμένιοι (Arménioi, "Armenians") are first mentioned by Hecataeus of Miletus (c. 550 BC – c. 476 BC). Xenophon, a Greek general serving in some of the Persian expeditions, describes many aspects of Armenian village life and hospitality in around 401 BC. He relates that the people spoke a language that to his ear sounded like the language of the Persians. According to the histories of both Moses of Chorene and Michael Chamchian, Armenia derives from the name of Aram, a lineal descendant of Hayk.
When was the capital of Armenia established?
572f8355a23a5019007fc6c1
782 BC
594
False
What is the capital of Armenia?
572f8355a23a5019007fc6c2
Yerevan
510
False
Who ruled Armenia in 782 BC?
572f8355a23a5019007fc6c3
King Argishti I
604
False
The founding of which city was the first to be ever recorded?
572f8355a23a5019007fc6c4
Yerevan
621
False
Several bronze-era states flourished in the area of Greater Armenia, including the Hittite Empire (at the height of its power), Mitanni (South-Western historical Armenia), and Hayasa-Azzi (1500–1200 BC). The Nairi people (12th to 9th centuries BC) and the Kingdom of Urartu (1000–600 BC) successively established their sovereignty over the Armenian Highland. Each of the aforementioned nations and tribes participated in the ethnogenesis of the Armenian people. A large cuneiform lapidary inscription found in Yerevan established that the modern capital of Armenia was founded in the summer of 782 BC by King Argishti I. Yerevan is the world's oldest city to have documented the exact date of its foundation.
Under who did Areminia become fully sovereign?
572f871db2c2fd14005681bd
King Artaxias I
325
False
What Empire did the Orontid Dynasty belong to?
572f871db2c2fd14005681be
Achaemenid Empire
166
False
When did Armenia reach it's peak?
572f871db2c2fd14005681bf
between 95 and 66 BC
412
False
Which ruler is responsible for Armenias prosperity?
572f871db2c2fd14005681c0
Tigranes the Great
439
False
During the late 6th century BC, the first geographical entity that was called Armenia by neighboring populations was established under the Orontid Dynasty within the Achaemenid Empire, as part of the latters' territories. The kingdom became fully sovereign from the sphere of influence of the Seleucid Empire in 190 BC under King Artaxias I and begun the rule of the Artaxiad dynasty. Armenia reached its height between 95 and 66 BC under Tigranes the Great, becoming the most powerful kingdom of its time east of the Roman Republic.
Who established the Arsacid dynasty of Armenia?
572f8802947a6a140053ca34
Tiridates I
99
False
What made Armenia so easily invadable?
572f8802947a6a140053ca35
strategic location between two continents
375
False
Who ruled the Assyrians between 669-627 BC?
572f8802947a6a140053ca36
Ashurbanipal
495
False
In the next centuries, Armenia was in the Persian Empire's sphere of influence during the reign of Tiridates I, the founder of the Arsacid dynasty of Armenia, which itself was a branch of the eponymous Arsacid dynasty of Parthia. Throughout its history, the kingdom of Armenia enjoyed both periods of independence and periods of autonomy subject to contemporary empires. Its strategic location between two continents has subjected it to invasions by many peoples, including the Assyrians (under Ashurbanipal, at around 669–627 BC, the boundaries of the Assyrian Empire reached as far as Armenia & the Caucasus Mountains), Medes, Achaemenid Persians, Greeks, Parthians, Romans, Sassanid Persians, Byzantines, Arabs, Seljuks, Mongols, Ottomans, successive Iranian Safavids, Afsharids, and Qajars, and the Russians.
When was the Marzpanate era?
572f892304bcaa1900d76a5f
428–636
29
False
Who ruled the Emirate of Armenia?
572f892304bcaa1900d76a60
Prince of Armenia
244
False
When did the Principality of Armenia end?
572f892304bcaa1900d76a61
884
549
False
Under which ruler did the Principality of Armenia gain its independence?
572f892304bcaa1900d76a62
King Ashot I Bagratuni
624
False
Where was the Principality of Armenia centered?
572f892304bcaa1900d76a63
Dvin
502
False
After the Marzpanate period (428–636), Armenia emerged as the Emirate of Armenia, an autonomous principality within the Arabic Empire, reuniting Armenian lands previously taken by the Byzantine Empire as well. The principality was ruled by the Prince of Armenia, and recognized by the Caliph and the Byzantine Emperor. It was part of the administrative division/emirate Arminiya created by the Arabs, which also included parts of Georgia and Caucasian Albania, and had its center in the Armenian city, Dvin. The Principality of Armenia lasted until 884, when it regained its independence from the weakened Arab Empire under King Ashot I Bagratuni.
Who vanquished Bagratid Armenia?
572f8ba7b2c2fd14005681df
the Byzantine Empire
9
False
When did the Seljuk Turks beat the Byzantines?
572f8ba7b2c2fd14005681e0
1071
170
False
When was Cilicia founded?
572f8ba7b2c2fd14005681e1
6 January 1198
658
False
What was the outcome of the Battle of Manzikert for the Seljuk Turks?
572f8ba7b2c2fd14005681e2
conquered Armenia
216
False
Where did Roupen find refuge?
572f8ba7b2c2fd14005681e3
Tarsus of Cilicia
516
False
In 1045, the Byzantine Empire conquered Bagratid Armenia. Soon, the other Armenian states fell under Byzantine control as well. The Byzantine rule was short lived, as in 1071 Seljuk Turks defeated the Byzantines and conquered Armenia at the Battle of Manzikert, establishing the Seljuk Empire. To escape death or servitude at the hands of those who had assassinated his relative, Gagik II, King of Ani, an Armenian named Roupen, went with some of his countrymen into the gorges of the Taurus Mountains and then into Tarsus of Cilicia. The Byzantine governor of the palace gave them shelter where the Armenian Kingdom of Cilicia was eventually established on 6 January 1198 under King Leo I, a descendant of Prince Roupen.
Which family overthrew the Seljuk Turks?
572f8ee0b2c2fd14005681f3
the Zakarid
91
False
What principality did the Zakarid family form?
572f8ee0b2c2fd14005681f4
Zakarid Armenia
242
False
What area did the Orbelians and Zakarids command together?
572f8ee0b2c2fd14005681f5
Syunik and Vayots Dzor
427
False
What area did the Hasan-jalalians command?
572f8ee0b2c2fd14005681f6
Artsakh and Utik
520
False
When did the Seljuk Empire experience it's decline?
572f8ee0b2c2fd14005681f7
early 12th century
51
False
The Seljuk Empire soon started to collapse. In the early 12th century, Armenian princes of the Zakarid noble family drove out the Seljuk Turks and established a semi-independent Armenian principality in Northern and Eastern Armenia, known as Zakarid Armenia, which lasted under the patronage of the Georgian Kingdom. The noble family of Orbelians shared control with the Zakarids in various parts of the country, especially in Syunik and Vayots Dzor, while the Armenian family of Hasan-Jalalians controlled provinces of Artsakh and Utik as the Kingdom of Artsakh.
Which empires seperated Armenia?
572f905804bcaa1900d76a7b
Ottoman Empire and Safavid Empire
25
False
Who controlled Western Armenia between the 16 and 19th Century?
572f905804bcaa1900d76a7c
Ottoman
669
False
Who controlled Eastern Armenia between the 16 and 19th Century?
572f905804bcaa1900d76a7d
Iranian Safavid, Afsharid and Qajar empires
587
False
How long did the Turco-Iranian rivalry last?
572f905804bcaa1900d76a7e
century
192
False
In the 16th century, the Ottoman Empire and Safavid Empire divided Armenia. From the early 16th century, both Western Armenia and Eastern Armenia fell under Iranian Safavid rule. Owing to the century long Turco-Iranian geo-political rivalry that would last in Western Asia, significant parts of the region were frequently fought over between the two rivalling empires. From the mid 16th century with the Peace of Amasya, and decisively from the first half of the 17th century with the Treaty of Zuhab until the first half of the 19th century, Eastern Armenia was ruled by the successive Iranian Safavid, Afsharid and Qajar empires, while Western Armenia remained under Ottoman rule.
How many Armenians were slaughtered between 1894-1896
572f91a0947a6a140053ca72
80,000 to 300,000
552
False
What prompted the state-sponsored slaughter of Armenians?
572f91a0947a6a140053ca73
pushing for more rights
342
False
What nicknames was Sultan 'Abdu'l-Hamid II given?
572f91a0947a6a140053ca74
"Red Sultan" or "Bloody Sultan."
667
False
What was the name given to the slaughter of the Armenians between 1894-1896?
572f91a0947a6a140053ca75
Hamidian massacres
582
False
What type of social system was in place under the Ottoman Empire?
572f91a0947a6a140053ca76
Muslim
262
False
While Western Armenia still remained under Ottoman rule, the Armenians were granted considerable autonomy within their own enclaves and lived in relative harmony with other groups in the empire (including the ruling Turks). However, as Christians under a strict Muslim social system, Armenians faced pervasive discrimination. When they began pushing for more rights within the Ottoman Empire, Sultan ‘Abdu’l-Hamid II, in response, organized state-sponsored massacres against the Armenians between 1894 and 1896, resulting in an estimated death toll of 80,000 to 300,000 people. The Hamidian massacres, as they came to be known, gave Hamid international infamy as the "Red Sultan" or "Bloody Sultan."
What is another name for the Armenian Revolutionary Federation?
572f9299947a6a140053ca7c
Dashnaktsutyun
75
False
What was the Dashnaks objective?
572f9299947a6a140053ca7d
creating a "free, independent and unified" Armenia
505
False
When did the Dashnaktsutyun originate?
572f9299947a6a140053ca7e
1890s
11
False
Which Dashnak groups helped protect Armenian citizens?
572f9299947a6a140053ca7f
fedayi
385
False
During the 1890s, the Armenian Revolutionary Federation, commonly known as Dashnaktsutyun, became active within the Ottoman Empire with the aim of unifying the various small groups in the empire that were advocating for reform and defending Armenian villages from massacres that were widespread in some of the Armenian-populated areas of the empire. Dashnaktsutyun members also formed fedayi groups that defended Armenian civilians through armed resistance. The Dashnaks also worked for the wider goal of creating a "free, independent and unified" Armenia, although they sometimes set aside this goal in favor of a more realistic approach, such as advocating autonomy.
When did the Adana massacre take place?
572f93e604bcaa1900d76aa1
April 1909
122
False
How many Armenians died in the Adana Massacre?
572f93e604bcaa1900d76aa2
20,000–30,000
243
False
When was the Armenian Reform package introduced?
572f93e604bcaa1900d76aa3
1914
415
False
When was Sultan Hamid unseated?
572f93e604bcaa1900d76aa4
1908
45
False
Who unseated Sultan Hamid?
572f93e604bcaa1900d76aa5
Young Turk Revolution
55
False
The Ottoman Empire began to collapse, and in 1908, the Young Turk Revolution overthrew the government of Sultan Hamid. In April 1909, the Adana massacre occurred in the Adana Vilayet of the Ottoman Empire resulting in the deaths of as many as 20,000–30,000 Armenians. The Armenians living in the empire hoped that the Committee of Union and Progress would change their second-class status. Armenian reform package (1914) was presented as a solution by appointing an inspector general over Armenian issues.
What instigated conflict between the Ottoman and Russian Empire?
572fa6bca23a5019007fc831
World War I
5
False
When did the Tehcir Law come to fruition?
572fa6bca23a5019007fc832
29 May 1915
426
False
Where did the Armenian Genocide occur?
572fa6bca23a5019007fc833
Anatolia
493
False
Which army had a group of Armenian volunteers fighting for them?
572fa6bca23a5019007fc834
Russian Army
262
False
When World War I broke out leading to confrontation between the Ottoman Empire and the Russian Empire in the Caucasus and Persian Campaigns, the new government in Istanbul began to look on the Armenians with distrust and suspicion. This was because the Imperial Russian Army contained a contingent of Armenian volunteers. On 24 April 1915, Armenian intellectuals were arrested by Ottoman authorities and, with the Tehcir Law (29 May 1915), eventually a large proportion of Armenians living in Anatolia perished in what has become known as the Armenian Genocide.
What do the Armenians see the events of 1915-1917 as?
572fa81904bcaa1900d76b5d
state-sponsored mass killings, or genocide
642
False
How many phases were there to the Armenian Genocide?
572fa81904bcaa1900d76b5e
two phases
32
False
What did the first phase of the Armenian Genocide involve?
572fa81904bcaa1900d76b5f
killing of the able-bodied male population
58
False
What did the second phase of the Armenian Genocide involve?
572fa81904bcaa1900d76b60
deportation of women, children, the elderly and infirm
186
False
Where did the Armenian Genocide death marches push the deportees to?
572fa81904bcaa1900d76b61
Syrian desert
273
False
The genocide was implemented in two phases: the wholesale killing of the able-bodied male population through massacre and subjection of army conscripts to forced labour, followed by the deportation of women, children, the elderly and infirm on death marches leading to the Syrian desert. Driven forward by military escorts, the deportees were deprived of food and water and subjected to periodic robbery, rape, and massacre. There was local Armenian resistance in the region, developed against the activities of the Ottoman Empire. The events of 1915 to 1917 are regarded by Armenians and the vast majority of Western historians to have been state-sponsored mass killings, or genocide.
How many Armenians died during the second phase of the Armenian Genocide between 1915-1916??
572fa947947a6a140053cb26
600,000
219
False
What is the estimated sum of people who died during the Armenian Genocide?
572fa947947a6a140053cb27
between 1 and 1.5 million
629
False
Who contests the existence of the Armenian Genocide?
572fa947947a6a140053cb28
Turkish authorities
0
False
Who put together a report about the Armenian Genocide?
572fa947947a6a140053cb29
Arnold J. Toynbee
187
False
When was Toynbee's report put together?
572fa947947a6a140053cb2a
24th May 1916
447
False
Turkish authorities deny the genocide took place to this day. The Armenian Genocide is acknowledged to have been one of the first modern genocides. According to the research conducted by Arnold J. Toynbee, an estimated 600,000 Armenians died during deportation from 1915–16). This figure, however, accounts for solely the first year of the Genocide and does not take into account those who died or were killed after the report was compiled on the 24th May 1916. The International Association of Genocide Scholars places the death toll at "more than a million". The total number of people killed has been most widely estimated at between 1 and 1.5 million.
Who was in charge of the Russian Caucasus Army of Imperial forces?
572fab15b2c2fd14005682f1
Nikolai Yudenich
67
False
Who was the leader of the Armenian militia?
572fab15b2c2fd14005682f2
Andranik Ozanian
145
False
When was the Bolshevik Revolution?
572fab15b2c2fd14005682f3
1917
305
False
Who formed the Transcaucasian Democratic Federative Republic?
572fab15b2c2fd14005682f4
Eastern Armenia, Georgia, and Azerbaijan
360
False
When did the Dashnaktsutyun declare independence?
572fab15b2c2fd14005682f5
May 1918
537
False
Although the Russian Caucasus Army of Imperial forces commanded by Nikolai Yudenich and Armenians in volunteer units and Armenian militia led by Andranik Ozanian and Tovmas Nazarbekian succeeded in gaining most of Ottoman Armenia during World War I, their gains were lost with the Bolshevik Revolution of 1917.[citation needed] At the time, Russian-controlled Eastern Armenia, Georgia, and Azerbaijan attempted to bond together in the Transcaucasian Democratic Federative Republic. This federation, however, lasted from only February to May 1918, when all three parties decided to dissolve it. As a result, the Dashnaktsutyun government of Eastern Armenia declared its independence on 28 May as the First Republic of Armenia under the leadership of Aram Manukian.
When was the Treaty of Sevres signed?
572fac9304bcaa1900d76bc7
10 August 1920
165
False
What is another name for Ottoman Armenia?
572fac9304bcaa1900d76bc8
Wilsonian Armenia
461
False
Which US president specified the new Armenian borders?
572fac9304bcaa1900d76bc9
President Woodrow Wilson
394
False
When did Cilicia declare independence?
572fac9304bcaa1900d76bca
5 August 1920
514
False
Who signed the Treaty of Sevres?
572fac9304bcaa1900d76bcb
Allied and Associated Powers and Ottoman Empire
104
False
At the end of the war, the victorious powers sought to divide up the Ottoman Empire. Signed between the Allied and Associated Powers and Ottoman Empire at Sèvres on 10 August 1920, the Treaty of Sèvres promised to maintain the existence of the Armenian republic and to attach the former territories of Ottoman Armenia to it. Because the new borders of Armenia were to be drawn by United States President Woodrow Wilson, Ottoman Armenia was also referred to as "Wilsonian Armenia." In addition, just days prior, on 5 August 1920, Mihran Damadian of the Armenian National Union, the de facto Armenian administration in Cilicia, declared the independence of Cilicia as an Armenian autonomous republic under French protectorate.
When was the Treaty of Alexandropol sanctioned?
572fae41a23a5019007fc87d
2 December 1920
387
False
What city did current day Gyumri used to be called?
572fae41a23a5019007fc87e
Alexandropol
278
False
Who led the Soviet Eleventh Army?
572fae41a23a5019007fc87f
Grigoriy Ordzhonikidze
684
False
When did the Armenian republic breakdown?
572fae41a23a5019007fc880
4 December
780
False
What year did Turkish nationalists seize the Armenian Republic?
572fae41a23a5019007fc881
1920
3
False
In 1920, Turkish nationalist forces invaded the fledgling Armenian republic from the east. Turkish forces under the command of Kazım Karabekir captured Armenian territories that Russia had annexed in the aftermath of the 1877–1878 Russo-Turkish War and occupied the old city of Alexandropol (present-day Gyumri). The violent conflict finally concluded with the Treaty of Alexandropol on 2 December 1920. The treaty forced Armenia to disarm most of its military forces, cede all former Ottoman territory granted to it by the Treaty of Sèvres, and to give up all the "Wilsonian Armenia" granted to it at the Sèvres treaty. Simultaneously, the Soviet Eleventh Army, under the command of Grigoriy Ordzhonikidze, invaded Armenia at Karavansarai (present-day Ijevan) on 29 November. By 4 December, Ordzhonikidze's forces entered Yerevan and the short-lived Armenian republic collapsed.
When was the Transcaucasian SFSR formed?
572fb156947a6a140053cb94
4 March 1922
168
False
The Soviet Union gained control over which city following the Treaty of Kars?
572fb156947a6a140053cb95
Batumi
386
False
What did Turkey gain from the Treaty of Kars?
572fb156947a6a140053cb96
sovereignty over the cities of Kars, Ardahan, and Iğdır
407
False
Who annexed Armenia?
572fb156947a6a140053cb97
Bolshevist Russia
23
False
Armenia was annexed by Bolshevist Russia and along with Georgia and Azerbaijan, it was incorporated into the Soviet Union as part of the Transcaucasian SFSR (TSFSR) on 4 March 1922. With this annexation, the Treaty of Alexandropol was superseded by the Turkish-Soviet Treaty of Kars. In the agreement, Turkey allowed the Soviet Union to assume control over Adjara with the port city of Batumi in return for sovereignty over the cities of Kars, Ardahan, and Iğdır, all of which were part of Russian Armenia.
Who succeeded Vladimir Lenin?
572fb217947a6a140053cb9c
Joseph Stalin
497
False
Which three parts make up the TSFSR?
572fb217947a6a140053cb9d
Armenian SSR, Azerbaijan SSR, and Georgian SSR
90
False
When did the TSFSR break up into three parts?
572fb217947a6a140053cb9e
1936
31
False
Who provided the Armenians with supplies?
572fb217947a6a140053cb9f
Moscow
263
False
The TSFSR existed from 1922 to 1936, when it was divided up into three separate entities (Armenian SSR, Azerbaijan SSR, and Georgian SSR). Armenians enjoyed a period of relative stability under Soviet rule. They received medicine, food, and other provisions from Moscow, and communist rule proved to be a soothing balm in contrast to the turbulent final years of the Ottoman Empire. The situation was difficult for the church, which struggled under Soviet rule. After the death of Vladimir Lenin, Joseph Stalin took the reins of power and began an era of renewed fear and terror for Armenians.
Who succeeded Stalin?
572fb2fb947a6a140053cbaa
Nikita Khruschev
45
False
When did Stalin pass away?
572fb2fb947a6a140053cbab
1953
36
False
When did Vazgen acquire his position?
572fb2fb947a6a140053cbac
1955
287
False
Where is the memorial for the Armenian Genocide?
572fb2fb947a6a140053cbad
Yerevan
418
False
When was the Armenian Genocide Memorial constructed?
572fb2fb947a6a140053cbae
1967
296
False
Fears decreased when Stalin died in 1953 and Nikita Khruschev emerged as the Soviet Union's new leader. Soon, life in Soviet Armenia began to see rapid improvement. The church, which suffered greatly under Stalin, was revived when Catholicos Vazgen I assumed the duties of his office in 1955. In 1967, a memorial to the victims of the Armenian Genocide was built at the Tsitsernakaberd hill above the Hrazdan gorge in Yerevan. This occurred after mass demonstrations took place on the tragic event's fiftieth anniversary in 1965.
How man Armenians resided in Azerbaijan in 1970?
572fb43c947a6a140053cbb4
484,000
390
False
In what year did Armenia suffer from a catastrophic earthquake?
572fb43c947a6a140053cbb5
1988
703
False
When was Nagorno-Karabakh removed from Armenia?
572fb43c947a6a140053cbb6
1923
378
False
Who partitioned Nagorno-Karabakh from Armenia?
572fb43c947a6a140053cbb7
Stalin
355
False
During the Gorbachev era of the 1980s, with the reforms of Glasnost and Perestroika, Armenians began to demand better environmental care for their country, opposing the pollution that Soviet-built factories brought. Tensions also developed between Soviet Azerbaijan and its autonomous district of Nagorno-Karabakh, a majority-Armenian region separated by Stalin from Armenia in 1923. About 484,000 Armenians lived in Azerbaijan in 1970. The Armenians of Karabakh demanded unification with Soviet Armenia. Peaceful protests in Yerevan supporting the Karabakh Armenians were met with anti-Armenian pogroms in the Azerbaijani city of Sumgait. Compounding Armenia's problems was a devastating earthquake in 1988 with a moment magnitude of 7.2.
What does NAA stand for?
572fb50004bcaa1900d76c1f
New Armenian Army
165
False
When was the NAA formed?
572fb50004bcaa1900d76c20
May 1990
151
False
Who started the fight between the MVD and the NAA in 1918?
572fb50004bcaa1900d76c21
the MVD
609
False
How many people died as a result of the MVD and NAA clash in 1918?
572fb50004bcaa1900d76c22
five Armenians
507
False
Gorbachev's inability to alleviate any of Armenia's problems created disillusionment among the Armenians and fed a growing hunger for independence. In May 1990, the New Armenian Army (NAA) was established, serving as a defence force separate from the Soviet Red Army. Clashes soon broke out between the NAA and Soviet Internal Security Forces (MVD) troops based in Yerevan when Armenians decided to commemorate the establishment of the 1918 First Republic of Armenia. The violence resulted in the deaths of five Armenians killed in a shootout with the MVD at the railway station. Witnesses there claimed that the MVD used excessive force and that they had instigated the fighting.
Continued fighting transpired between the Armenians and Soviets in which city?
572fb97d04bcaa1900d76c3b
Sovetashen
77
False
Where did the Armenians living in Baku escape to during the January 1990 massacre?
572fb97d04bcaa1900d76c3c
Armenia
304
False
When did Armenia reject the referendum proposing the retention of the Soviet Union?
572fb97d04bcaa1900d76c3d
17 March 1991
316
False
Further firefights between Armenian militiamen and Soviet troops occurred in Sovetashen, near the capital and resulted in the deaths of over 26 people, mostly Armenians. The pogrom of Armenians in Baku in January 1990 forced almost all of the 200,000 Armenians in the Azerbaijani capital Baku to flee to Armenia. On 17 March 1991, Armenia, along with the Baltic states, Georgia and Moldova, boycotted a nationwide referendum in which 78% of all voters voted for the retention of the Soviet Union in a reformed form.
When did Turkey decide to become part of the blockade against Armenia?
572fbae9a23a5019007fc8ed
1993
495
False
How does Armenia get most of it's commodities?
572fbae9a23a5019007fc8ee
rail traffic
478
False
Who did Armenia fight in teh Nagorno-Karabakh War?
572fbae9a23a5019007fc8ef
Azerbaijan
119
False
What prevented Armenia from getting it's commodities?
572fbae9a23a5019007fc8f0
a railway and air blockade
339
False
What percent of Armenias commodities were transported via rail traffic?
572fbae9a23a5019007fc8f1
85%
435
False
Ter-Petrosyan led Armenia alongside Defense Minister Vazgen Sargsyan through the Nagorno-Karabakh War with neighboring Azerbaijan. The initial post-Soviet years were marred by economic difficulties, which had their roots early in the Karabakh conflict when the Azerbaijani Popular Front managed to pressure the Azerbaijan SSR to instigate a railway and air blockade against Armenia. This move effectively crippled Armenia's economy as 85% of its cargo and goods arrived through rail traffic. In 1993, Turkey joined the blockade against Armenia in support of Azerbaijan.
When did the Karabakh War end?
572fbbe6a23a5019007fc913
1994
79
False
What does OSCE stand for?
572fbbe6a23a5019007fc914
Organisation for Security and Co-operation in Europe
329
False
Armenia has closed borders with which two countries?
572fbbe6a23a5019007fc915
Turkey and Azerbaijan
553
False
How many people died as a result of the fighting betwen Armenia and Azerbaijan?
572fbbe6a23a5019007fc916
30,000
686
False
Who gained the most from the Karabakh War?
572fbbe6a23a5019007fc917
Karabakh Armenian forces
115
False
The Karabakh war ended after a Russian-brokered cease-fire was put in place in 1994. The war was a success for the Karabakh Armenian forces who managed to capture 16% of Azerbaijan's internationally recognised territory including Nagorno-Karabakh itself. Since then, Armenia and Azerbaijan have held peace talks, mediated by the Organisation for Security and Co-operation in Europe (OSCE). The status of Karabakh has yet to be determined. The economies of both countries have been hurt in the absence of a complete resolution and Armenia's borders with Turkey and Azerbaijan remain closed. By the time both Azerbaijan and Armenia had finally agreed to a ceasefire in 1994, an estimated 30,000 people had been killed and over a million had been displaced.
What is the lowest score on the Democracy Score scale?
572fbd3fa23a5019007fc92f
7
584
False
What Democracy Score does Armenia have?
572fbd3fa23a5019007fc930
5.21
569
False
What does the Freedom House classify Armenia as?
572fbd3fa23a5019007fc931
Semi-consolidated Authoritarian Regime
394
False
What makes Armenia's presidential elections faulty?
572fbd3fa23a5019007fc932
polling deficiencies, lack of cooperation by the Electoral Commission, and poor maintenance of electoral lists and polling places
204
False
International observers of Council of Europe and US Department of State have questioned the fairness of Armenia's parliamentary and presidential elections and constitutional referendum since 1995, citing polling deficiencies, lack of cooperation by the Electoral Commission, and poor maintenance of electoral lists and polling places. Freedom House categorized Armenia in its 2008 report as a "Semi-consolidated Authoritarian Regime" (along with Moldova, Kosovo, Kyrgyzstan, and Russia) and ranked Armenia 20th among 29 nations in transition, with a Democracy Score of 5.21 out of 7 (7 represents the lowest democratic progress).
With who does Armenia have bad relations?
572fbde9947a6a140053cc1c
Turkey and Azerbaijan
141
False
Is the border between Armenia and Azerbaijan open or closed?
572fbde9947a6a140053cc1d
closed
400
False
When was the Nagorno-Karabakh War?
572fbde9947a6a140053cc1e
1990s
342
False
Armenia presently maintains good relations with almost every country in the world, with two major exceptions being its immediate neighbours, Turkey and Azerbaijan. Tensions were running high between Armenians and Azerbaijanis during the final years of the Soviet Union. The Nagorno-Karabakh War dominated the region's politics throughout the 1990s. The border between the two rival countries remains closed up to this day, and a permanent solution for the conflict has not been reached despite the mediation provided by organisations such as the OSCE.
When did Turkey close off its border with Armenia?
572fbf52947a6a140053cc40
1993
599
False
Which country claims the Armenian Genocide didn't occur?
572fbf52947a6a140053cc41
Turkey
0
False
When did Armenia gain independence from the USSR?
572fbf52947a6a140053cc42
1991
251
False
Who wants the border between Turkey and Armenia opened?
572fbf52947a6a140053cc43
Turkish business lobby
671
False
Turkey also has a long history of poor relations with Armenia over its refusal to acknowledge the Armenian Genocide. Turkey was one of the first countries to recognize the Republic of Armenia (the 3rd republic) after its independence from the USSR in 1991. Despite this, for most of the 20th century and early 21st century, relations remain tense and there are no formal diplomatic relations between the two countries due to Turkey's refusal to establish them for numerous reasons. During the Nagorno-Karabakh War and citing it as the reason, Turkey illegally closed its land border with Armenia in 1993. It has not lifted its blockade despite pressure from the powerful Turkish business lobby interested in Armenian markets.
When did Armenia and Turkey initiate an attempt to reopen their border?
572fc225a23a5019007fc9a1
10 October 2009
3
False
Who made it difficult to ratify the protocols to reopen the Armenian/Turkey border?
572fc225a23a5019007fc9a2
Turkey
651
False
Who ratifies protocols in Armenia?
572fc225a23a5019007fc9a3
national parliaments
225
False
How did Turkey thwart the ratification of these protocols?
572fc225a23a5019007fc9a4
continuously added more preconditions to its ratification
658
False
On 10 October 2009, Armenia and Turkey signed protocols on normalisation of relationships, which set a timetable for restoring diplomatic ties and reopening their joint border. The ratification of those had to be made in the national parliaments. In Armenia it passed through the required by legislation approval of the Constitutional Court and was sent to the parliament for the final ratification. The President had made multiple public announcements, both in Armenia and abroad, that as the leader of the political majority of Armenia he assured the ratification of the protocols if Turkey also ratified them. Despite this, the process stopped, as Turkey continuously added more preconditions to its ratification and also "delayed it beyond any reasonable time-period".
Russia has a military base in which city in Armenia?
572fc34c947a6a140053cc6e
Gyumri
213
False
How many Armenians reside in the United States?
572fc34c947a6a140053cc6f
427,822
499
False
Why does Russia have a miltary base In Gyumri?
572fc34c947a6a140053cc70
as a deterrent against Turkey
220
False
Who gave Russia permission to have a military base in Gyumri?
572fc34c947a6a140053cc71
Armenian government
122
False
Due to its position between two unfriendly neighbours, Armenia has close security ties with Russia. At the request of the Armenian government, Russia maintains a military base in the northwestern Armenian city of Gyumri as a deterrent against Turkey.[citation needed] Despite this, Armenia has also been looking toward Euro-Atlantic structures in recent years. It maintains good relations with the United States especially through its Armenian diaspora. According to the US Census Bureau, there are 427,822 Armenians living in the country.
How many of Armenias inhabitants approve of becoming part of the EU?
572fc4abb2c2fd1400568425
64%
196
False
What is KFOR?
572fc4abb2c2fd1400568426
a NATO-led international force in Kosovo
514
False
What are some states join Armenia in the Council of Europe?
572fc4abb2c2fd1400568427
France and Greece
149
False
When can the EU expect Armenia to attempt to join it?
572fc4abb2c2fd1400568428
in a few years
449
False
Armenia is also a member of the Council of Europe, maintaining friendly relations with the European Union, especially with its member states such as France and Greece. A 2005 survey reported that 64% of Armenia's population would be in favor of joining the EU. Several Armenian officials have also expressed the desire for their country to eventually become an EU member state, some[who?] predicting that it will make an official bid for membership in a few years.[citation needed] In 2004 its forces joined KFOR, a NATO-led international force in Kosovo. It is also an observer member of the Eurasian Economic Community and the Non-Aligned Movement.
What are the four branches of the Armenian Armed Forces?
572fc623947a6a140053cc94
The Armenian Army, Air Force, Air Defence, and Border Guard
0
False
When was the Armenian military created?
572fc623947a6a140053cc95
1991
210
False
When was the Ministry of Defence founded?
572fc623947a6a140053cc96
1992
272
False
Who is in charge of the the Armenian military?
572fc623947a6a140053cc97
Colonel General Yuri Khatchaturov
589
False
Who is in charge of the Ministry of Defence?
572fc623947a6a140053cc98
Colonel General Seyran Ohanyan
444
False
The Armenian Army, Air Force, Air Defence, and Border Guard comprise the four branches of the Armed Forces of the Republic of Armenia. The Armenian military was formed after the collapse of the Soviet Union in 1991 and with the establishment of the Ministry of Defence in 1992. The Commander-in-Chief of the military is the President of Armenia, Serzh Sargsyan. The Ministry of Defence is in charge of political leadership, currently headed by Colonel General Seyran Ohanyan, while military command remains in the hands of the General Staff, headed by the Chief of Staff, who is currently Colonel General Yuri Khatchaturov.
What does CSTO stand for?
572fc71504bcaa1900d76cff
Collective Security Treaty Organisation
21
False
What does EAPC stand for?
572fc71504bcaa1900d76d00
Euro-Atlantic Partnership Council
246
False
Who else joins Armenia in the CSTO?
572fc71504bcaa1900d76d01
Belarus, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Russia, Tajikistan and Uzbekistan
79
False
When did Armenia remove its peacekeepers from Iraq?
572fc71504bcaa1900d76d02
October 2008
513
False
Armenia is member of Collective Security Treaty Organisation (CSTO) along with Belarus, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Russia, Tajikistan and Uzbekistan. It participates in NATO's Partnership for Peace (PiP) program and is in a NATO organisation called Euro-Atlantic Partnership Council (EAPC). Armenia has engaged in a peacekeeping mission in Kosovo as part of non-NATO KFOR troops under Greek command. Armenia also had 46 members of its military peacekeeping forces as a part of the Coalition Forces in Iraq War until October 2008.
How many hamaynkner does Armenia have?
572fc827b2c2fd1400568461
915
325
False
How many districts does Yerevan have?
572fc827b2c2fd1400568463
twelve
501
False
Does Armenia have more rural or uban hamaynker?
572fc827b2c2fd1400568464
rural
398
False
What is the Armenian term for settlment?
572fc827b2c2fd1400568465
bnakavayr
165
False
Within each province are communities (hamaynkner, singular hamaynk). Each community is self-governing and consists of one or more settlements (bnakavayrer, singular bnakavayr). Settlements are classified as either towns (kaghakner, singular kaghak) or villages (gyugher, singular gyugh). As of 2007[update], Armenia includes 915 communities, of which 49 are considered urban and 866 are considered rural. The capital, Yerevan, also has the status of a community. Additionally, Yerevan is divided into twelve semi-autonomous districts.
What group is opening a research center in Armenia?
572fcc32a23a5019007fc9fb
Intel Corporation
465
False
As opposed to an industry-based economy, what industry is Armenia moving to?
572fcc32a23a5019007fc9fc
technology industry
600
False
The Arnmenian economy depends primarily on what?
572fcc32a23a5019007fc9fd
investment and support from Armenians abroad
30
False
What did Armenias industry-based economy consist of?
572fcc32a23a5019007fc9fe
chemicals, electronics, machinery, processed food, synthetic rubber, and textile
144
False
The economy relies heavily on investment and support from Armenians abroad. Before independence, Armenia's economy was largely industry-based – chemicals, electronics, machinery, processed food, synthetic rubber, and textile – and highly dependent on outside resources. The republic had developed a modern industrial sector, supplying machine tools, textiles, and other manufactured goods to sister republics in exchange for raw materials and energy. Recently, the Intel Corporation agreed to open a research center in Armenia, in addition to other technology companies, signalling the growth of the technology industry in Armenia.
Why did agriculture become so significant for Armenia's economy?
572fce1404bcaa1900d76d67
food security needs
398
False
Was agriculture more important before or after Armenia left the Soviet Union?
572fce1404bcaa1900d76d68
After
142
False
How much of total employment did agriculture account for at the end of the 1990s?
572fce1404bcaa1900d76d69
40%
306
False
How much of the GDP has agriculture accounted for most recently?
572fce1404bcaa1900d76d6a
20%
699
False
Agriculture accounted for less than 20% of both net material product and total employment before the dissolution of the Soviet Union in 1991. After independence, the importance of agriculture in the economy increased markedly, its share at the end of the 1990s rising to more than 30% of GDP and more than 40% of total employment. This increase in the importance of agriculture was attributable to food security needs of the population in the face of uncertainty during the first phases of transition and the collapse of the non-agricultural sectors of the economy in the early 1990s. As the economic situation stabilized and growth resumed, the share of agriculture in GDP dropped to slightly over 20% (2006 data), although the share of agriculture in employment remained more than 40%.
How many people died because of the Spitak earthquake?
572fcf08a23a5019007fca1b
more than 25,000
352
False
When was the Spitak earthquake?
572fcf08a23a5019007fca1c
1988
315
False
How much did the Armenian GDP decrease from 1989-1993
572fcf08a23a5019007fca1d
60%
739
False
What is the national currency of Armenia?
572fcf08a23a5019007fca1e
the dram
821
False
Like other newly independent states of the former Soviet Union, Armenia's economy suffers from the breakdown of former Soviet trading patterns. Soviet investment in and support of Armenian industry has virtually disappeared, so that few major enterprises are still able to function. In addition, the effects of the 1988 Spitak earthquake, which killed more than 25,000 people and made 500,000 homeless, are still being felt. The conflict with Azerbaijan over Nagorno-Karabakh has not been resolved. The closure of Azerbaijani and Turkish borders has devastated the economy, because Armenia depends on outside supplies of energy and most raw materials. Land routes through Georgia and Iran are inadequate or unreliable. The GDP fell nearly 60% between 1989 and 1993, but then resumed robust growth. The national currency, the dram, suffered hyperinflation for the first years after its introduction in 1993.
What did Armenia declare a cease-fire to in 1994?
572fd04b04bcaa1900d76d75
Nagorno-Karabakh conflict
168
False
Since when has Armenia experienced a positive growth in their economy?
572fd04b04bcaa1900d76d76
1995
268
False
What is one of the newer sectors Armenia has in addition to agriculture?
572fd04b04bcaa1900d76d77
precious-stone processing
414
False
What helped Armenia decrease inflation and create study growth in the economy?
572fd04b04bcaa1900d76d78
economic reforms
59
False
Nevertheless, the government was able to make wide-ranging economic reforms that paid off in dramatically lower inflation and steady growth. The 1994 cease-fire in the Nagorno-Karabakh conflict has also helped the economy. Armenia has had strong economic growth since 1995, building on the turnaround that began the previous year, and inflation has been negligible for the past several years. New sectors, such as precious-stone processing and jewellery making, information and communication technology, and even tourism are beginning to supplement more traditional sectors of the economy, such as agriculture.
What does IMF stand for?
572fd0f8947a6a140053cce4
International Monetary Fund
105
False
What dos EBRD stand for?
572fd0f8947a6a140053cce5
European Bank for Reconstruction and Development
152
False
What does IFI stand for?
572fd0f8947a6a140053cce6
international financial institutions
219
False
How much in loans has Armenia received since 1993?
572fd0f8947a6a140053cce7
$1.1 billion
365
False
When did Armenia become a part of the World Trade Organization?
572fd0f8947a6a140053cce8
5 February 2003
689
False
This steady economic progress has earned Armenia increasing support from international institutions. The International Monetary Fund (IMF), World Bank, European Bank for Reconstruction and Development (EBRD), and other international financial institutions (IFIs) and foreign countries are extending considerable grants and loans. Loans to Armenia since 1993 exceed $1.1 billion. These loans are targeted at reducing the budget deficit and stabilizing the currency; developing private businesses; energy; agriculture; food processing; transportation; the health and education sectors; and ongoing rehabilitation in the earthquake zone. The government joined the World Trade Organization on 5 February 2003. But one of the main sources of foreign direct investments remains the Armenian diaspora, which finances major parts of the reconstruction of infrastructure and other public projects. Being a growing democratic state, Armenia also hopes to get more financial aid from the Western World.
What is the unemployment rate in Armenia?
572fd240a23a5019007fca3f
15%
440
False
To what does Armenia attribute it's high unemployment rate?
572fd240a23a5019007fca40
refugees from the Karabakh conflict
509
False
When did Armenia establish a foreign investment law?
572fd240a23a5019007fca41
June 1994
49
False
When did Armenia establish a law on privatisation?
572fd240a23a5019007fca42
1997
102
False
A liberal foreign investment law was approved in June 1994, and a law on privatisation was adopted in 1997, as well as a program of state property privatisation. Continued progress will depend on the ability of the government to strengthen its macroeconomic management, including increasing revenue collection, improving the investment climate, and making strides against corruption. However, unemployment, which currently stands at around 15%, still remains a major problem due to the influx of thousands of refugees from the Karabakh conflict.
What percent of Armenian children go to preschool?
572fd34a947a6a140053cd16
35%
588
False
What is Armenia's biggest University?
572fd34a947a6a140053cd17
Yerevan State University
692
False
When did the National Polytechnic University of Armenia open?
572fd34a947a6a140053cd18
1933
957
False
How many students did Yerevan State University have in 1992?
572fd34a947a6a140053cd19
10,000
874
False
How many teachers did Yerevan State University have in 1992?
572fd34a947a6a140053cd1a
1,300
826
False
In the 1988–89 school year, 301 students per 10,000 population were in specialized secondary or higher education, a figure slightly lower than the Soviet average. In 1989 some 58% of Armenians over age fifteen had completed their secondary education, and 14% had a higher education. In the 1990–91 school year, the estimated 1,307 primary and secondary schools were attended by 608,800 students. Another seventy specialized secondary institutions had 45,900 students, and 68,400 students were enrolled in a total of ten postsecondary institutions that included universities. In addition, 35% of eligible children attended preschools. In 1992 Armenia's largest institution of higher learning, Yerevan State University, had eighteen departments, including ones for social sciences, sciences, and law. Its faculty numbered about 1,300 teachers and its student population about 10,000 students. The National Polytechnic University of Armenia is operating since 1933.
Who founded the Armenian Medical school in Cilician Armenia?
572fd497b2c2fd14005684d9
Mkhitar Heratsi
593
False
When was Yerevan State Medical University awarded the Order of Labor red Banner?
572fd497b2c2fd14005684da
1980
241
False
When was the Medical Institute formed?
572fd497b2c2fd14005684db
1930
183
False
When was Yerevan State Medical Institute renamed to Yerevan State Medical University?
572fd497b2c2fd14005684dc
1995
479
False
Which doctor did the YSMU rename itself after?
572fd497b2c2fd14005684dd
Mkhitar Heratsi
593
False
On the basis of the expansion and development of Yerevan State University a number of higher educational independent Institutions were formed including Medical Institute separated in 1930 which was set up on the basis of medical faculty. In 1980 Yerevan State Medical University was awarded one of the main rewards of the former USSR – the Order of Labor red Banner for training qualified specialists in health care and valuable service in the development of Medical Science. In 1995 YSMI was renamed to YSMU and since 1989 it has been named after Mkhitar Heratsi, the famous medieval doctor. Mkhitar Heratsi was the founder of Armenian Medical school in Cilician Armenia. The great doctor played the same role in Armenian Medical Science as Hippocrates in Western, Galen in Roman, Ibn Sīnā in Arabic medicine.
Who is in charge of releasing the World Directory of Medical Schools?
572fd587b2c2fd14005684e3
WHO
683
False
When was the foreign student department for Armenian diaspora created?
572fd587b2c2fd14005684e4
1957
66
False
Armenian students attend YMSU with foreign students from where?
572fd587b2c2fd14005684e5
India, Nepal, Sri Lanka, the USA and Russian Federation
424
False
Foreign students' department for Armenian diaspora established in 1957 later was enlarged and the enrollment of foreign students began. Nowadays the YSMU is a Medical Institution corresponding to international requirements, trains medical staff for not only Armenia and neighbor countries, i.e. Iran, Syria, Lebanon, Georgia, but also many other leading countries all over the world. A great number of foreign students from India, Nepal, Sri Lanka, the USA and Russian Federation study together with Armenian students. Nowadays the university is ranked among famous higher Medical Institutions and takes its honorable place in the World Directory of Medical Schools published by the WHO.
What does OLPC stand for?
572fd6a6b2c2fd14005684f3
One Laptopschool Per child
590
False
What are the names of some of the other higher education organizations in Armenia?
572fd6a6b2c2fd14005684f4
American University of Armenia and the QSI International School of Yerevan
54
False
What are some of the graduate programs available at AUA?
572fd6a6b2c2fd14005684f5
Business and Law
190
False
Other educational institutions in Armenia include the American University of Armenia and the QSI International School of Yerevan. The American University of Armenia has graduate programs in Business and Law, among others. The institution owes its existence to the combined efforts of the Government of Armenia, the Armenian General Benevolent Union, U.S. Agency for International Development, and the University of California. The extension programs and the library at AUA form a new focal point for English-language intellectual life in the city. Armenia also hosts a deployment of OLPC – One Laptopschool Per child XO laptop-tablet schools.
What are some examples of Armenian folk music instruments?
572fd7b804bcaa1900d76da9
the duduk, the dhol, the zurna, and the kanun
17
False
Who created the Armenian alphabet?
572fd7b804bcaa1900d76daa
Saint Mesrop Mashtots
479
False
Who composed the Sabre Dance?
572fd7b804bcaa1900d76dab
Aram Khatchaturian
601
False
What is known as one of the most prolific type of religious music in Armenia?
572fd7b804bcaa1900d76dac
the Armenian chant
255
False
Instruments like the duduk, the dhol, the zurna, and the kanun are commonly found in Armenian folk music. Artists such as Sayat Nova are famous due to their influence in the development of Armenian folk music. One of the oldest types of Armenian music is the Armenian chant which is the most common kind of religious music in Armenia. Many of these chants are ancient in origin, extending to pre-Christian times, while others are relatively modern, including several composed by Saint Mesrop Mashtots, the inventor of the Armenian alphabet. Whilst under Soviet rule, Armenian classical music composer Aram Khatchaturian became internationally well known for his music, for various ballets and the Sabre Dance from his composition for the ballet Gayane.
What is kef?
572fd8b9a23a5019007fca7d
Armenian dance music, using Armenian and Middle Eastern folk instruments
303
False
What did kef help do?
572fd8b9a23a5019007fca7e
preserved the folk songs and dances of Western Armenia
460
False
Where did the Armenians emigrate from?
572fd8b9a23a5019007fca7f
Turkey and other Middle Eastern countries
579
False
The Armenian Genocide caused widespread emigration that led to the settlement of Armenians in various countries in the world. Armenians kept to their traditions and certain diasporans rose to fame with their music. In the post-Genocide Armenian community of the United States, the so-called "kef" style Armenian dance music, using Armenian and Middle Eastern folk instruments (often electrified/amplified) and some western instruments, was popular. This style preserved the folk songs and dances of Western Armenia, and many artists also played the contemporary popular songs of Turkey and other Middle Eastern countries from which the Armenians emigrated.
Who is the most well know kef artist?
572fd977947a6a140053cd4e
Richard Hagopian
0
False
What type of music had the biggest impact on the kef of the Vosbikian Band?
572fd977947a6a140053cd4f
American Big Band Jazz
220
False
Who were some Armenian pop artists?
572fd977947a6a140053cd50
Adiss Harmandian and Harout Pamboukjian
470
False
When did Armenian pop music become popular?
572fd977947a6a140053cd51
the 1960s and 1970s
429
False
Richard Hagopian is perhaps the most famous artist of the traditional "kef" style and the Vosbikian Band was notable in the 1940s and 1950s for developing their own style of "kef music" heavily influenced by the popular American Big Band Jazz of the time. Later, stemming from the Middle Eastern Armenian diaspora and influenced by Continental European (especially French) pop music, the Armenian pop music genre grew to fame in the 1960s and 1970s with artists such as Adiss Harmandian and Harout Pamboukjian performing to the Armenian diaspora and Armenia; also with artists such as Sirusho, performing pop music combined with Armenian folk music in today's entertainment industry.
What type of musician is Sahan Arzruni?
572fda8ab2c2fd1400568515
pianist
161
False
What type of band was System of a Down?
572fda8ab2c2fd1400568516
heavy metal
351
False
What type of songs do armenian youth prefer?
572fda8ab2c2fd1400568517
Armenian revolutionary songs
532
False
What topics do armenian revolutionary songs usually encompass?
572fda8ab2c2fd1400568518
Armenian history and national heroes
655
False
Other Armenian diasporans that rose to fame in classical or international music circles are world-renowned French-Armenian singer and composer Charles Aznavour, pianist Sahan Arzruni, prominent opera sopranos such as Hasmik Papian and more recently Isabel Bayrakdarian and Anna Kasyan. Certain Armenians settled to sing non-Armenian tunes such as the heavy metal band System of a Down (which nonetheless often incorporates traditional Armenian instrumentals and styling into their songs) or pop star Cher. In the Armenian diaspora, Armenian revolutionary songs are popular with the youth. These songs encourage Armenian patriotism and are generally about Armenian history and national heroes.
What is Obsidian used for?
572fdbc3947a6a140053cd60
jewellery and ornamental objects
400
False
What are some examples of soviet memorabilia that can be purchased at Vernissage?
572fdbc3947a6a140053cd61
nesting dolls, watches, enamel boxes
610
False
What types of crafts can be purchased at Vernissage?
572fdbc3947a6a140053cd62
woodcarving, antiques, fine lace, and the hand-knotted wool carpets and kilims
226
False
What is Vernissage?
572fdbc3947a6a140053cd63
arts and crafts market
20
False
Yerevan Vernissage (arts and crafts market), close to Republic Square, bustles with hundreds of vendors selling a variety of crafts on weekends and Wednesdays (though the selection is much reduced mid-week). The market offers woodcarving, antiques, fine lace, and the hand-knotted wool carpets and kilims that are a Caucasus specialty. Obsidian, which is found locally, is crafted into assortment of jewellery and ornamental objects. Armenian gold smithery enjoys a long tradition, populating one corner of the market with a selection of gold items. Soviet relics and souvenirs of recent Russian manufacture – nesting dolls, watches, enamel boxes and so on – are also available at the Vernisage.
How many pieces can be found in the Yerevan National Art Gallery?
572fdc7c04bcaa1900d76ded
more than 16,000
40
False
Where other than the National Art Gallery can one find art on display in Yerevan?
572fdc7c04bcaa1900d76dee
The Modern Art Museum, the Children’s Picture Gallery, and the Martiros Saryan Museum
214
False
What is the earliest period the National Art Gallery has pieces from?
572fdc7c04bcaa1900d76def
the Middle Ages
81
False
The National Art Gallery in Yerevan has more than 16,000 works that date back to the Middle Ages, which indicate Armenia's rich tales and stories of the times. It houses paintings by many European masters as well. The Modern Art Museum, the Children’s Picture Gallery, and the Martiros Saryan Museum are only a few of the other noteworthy collections of fine art on display in Yerevan. Moreover, many private galleries are in operation, with many more opening every year, featuring rotating exhibitions and sales.
Which lake is most popular for water sports in Armenia?
572fddea947a6a140053cd7c
Lake Sevan
346
False
What international sports has Armenia done well at?
572fddea947a6a140053cd7d
chess, weightlifting and wrestling
404
False
What does IIHF stand for?
572fddea947a6a140053cd7e
Ice Hockey Federation
632
False
Which Games does Armenia hold?
572fddea947a6a140053cd7f
Pan-Armenian Games
680
False
A wide array of sports are played in Armenia, the most popular among them being wrestling, weightlifting, judo, association football, chess, and boxing. Armenia's mountainous terrain provides great opportunities for the practice of sports like skiing and climbing. Being a landlocked country, water sports can only be practiced on lakes, notably Lake Sevan. Competitively, Armenia has been successful in chess, weightlifting and wrestling at the international level. Armenia is also an active member of the international sports community, with full membership in the Union of European Football Associations (UEFA) and International Ice Hockey Federation (IIHF). It also hosts the Pan-Armenian Games.
What Olympic Sport did Hrant Shahinyan compete in?
572fde9204bcaa1900d76e05
gymnastics
410
False
What medals did Hrant Shahinyan win at the 1952 Summer Olympics?
572fde9204bcaa1900d76e06
two golds and two silvers
381
False
Where were the 1952 Summer Olympics held?
572fde9204bcaa1900d76e07
Helsinki
452
False
What year did Armenia begin competiting in the Olympics seperate from the USSR?
572fde9204bcaa1900d76e08
1992
9
False
Prior to 1992, Armenians would participate in the Olympics representing the USSR. As part of the Soviet Union, Armenia was very successful, winning plenty of medals and helping the USSR win the medal standings at the Olympics on numerous occasions. The first medal won by an Armenian in modern Olympic history was by Hrant Shahinyan (sometimes spelled as Grant Shaginyan), who won two golds and two silvers in gymnastics at the 1952 Summer Olympics in Helsinki. To highlight the level of success of Armenians in the Olympics, Shahinyan was quoted as saying:
What team won the Soviet football Cup in 1973 and 1975?
572fdf3904bcaa1900d76e1f
FC Ararat Yerevan team
70
False
Which team did the FC Ararat lose to in the European Cup?
572fdf3904bcaa1900d76e20
FC Bayern Munich
369
False
What FIFA ranking did Armenia hold in 2011?
572fdf3904bcaa1900d76e21
44th
666
False
How many teams does the Armenian Premier League have?
572fdf3904bcaa1900d76e22
eight teams
967
False
Football is also popular in Armenia. The most successful team was the FC Ararat Yerevan team of the 1970s who won the Soviet Cup in 1973 and 1975 and the Soviet Top League in 1973. The latter achievement saw FC Ararat gain entry to the European Cup where – despite a home victory in the second leg – they lost on aggregate at the quarter final stage to eventual winner FC Bayern Munich. Armenia competed internationally as part of the USSR national football team until the Armenian national football team was formed in 1992 after the split of the Soviet Union. Armenia have never qualified for a major tournament although recent improvements saw the team to achieve 44th position in the FIFA World Rankings in September 2011. The national team is controlled by the Football Federation of Armenia. The Armenian Premier League is the highest level football competition in Armenia, and has been dominated by FC Pyunik in recent seasons. The league currently consists of eight teams and relegates to the Armenian First League.
Who provided the funds to rebuild the Armenian sports schools?
572fdfffa23a5019007fcab9
the Armenian government
255
False
What year did Yerevan create a cyclying center?
572fdfffa23a5019007fcaba
2005
455
False
What prize do Armenians receive from the government if they win a gold medal?
572fdfffa23a5019007fcabb
$700,000
613
False
How much money was spent to revamp Tsaghkadzor for winter sports?
572fdfffa23a5019007fcabc
$9.3 million
280
False
How much did Armenia spend to fix up their sports schools?
572fdfffa23a5019007fcabd
$1.9 million
186
False
Due to the lack of success lately on the international level, in recent years, Armenia has rebuilt 16 Soviet-era sports schools and furnished them with new equipment for a total cost of $1.9 million. The rebuilding of the regional schools was financed by the Armenian government. $9.3 million has been invested in the resort town of Tsaghkadzor to improve the winter sports infrastructure because of dismal performances at recent winter sports events. In 2005, a cycling center was opened in Yerevan with the aim of helping produce world class Armenian cyclists. The government has also promised a cash reward of $700,000 to Armenians who win a gold medal at the Olympics.
What type of food is Armenian food most similair to?
572fe10e04bcaa1900d76e2f
eastern and Mediterranean cuisine
166
False
What does Armenian cuisine place an emphasis on?
572fe10e04bcaa1900d76e30
quality of the ingredients
347
False
What does Armenian cuisine use to create its distinctive dishes?
572fe10e04bcaa1900d76e31
various spices, vegetables, fish, and fruits
201
False
What different uses does fruit have in Armenian food?
572fe10e04bcaa1900d76e32
main ingredient as well as to sour food
500
False
Armenian cuisine is as ancient as the history of Armenia, a combination of different tastes and aromas. The food often has quite a distinct aroma. Closely related to eastern and Mediterranean cuisine, various spices, vegetables, fish, and fruits combine to present unique dishes. The main characteristics of Armenian cuisine are a reliance on the quality of the ingredients rather than heavily spicing food, the use of herbs, the use of wheat in a variety of forms, of legumes, nuts, and fruit (as a main ingredient as well as to sour food), and the stuffing of a wide variety of leaves.
Bacteria
What is a large domain of prokaryotic microorganisms?
572f876aa23a5019007fc6ef
Bacteria
0
False
What configurations can bacteria can bacteria take?
572f876aa23a5019007fc6f0
spheres to rods and spirals
189
False
When is the typical lenght  for bacteria?
572f876aa23a5019007fc6f1
few micrometres
115
False
What environments can bacteria live?
572f876aa23a5019007fc6f2
present in most of its habitats
287
False
What is the relationships between plants animals and bacteria?
572f876aa23a5019007fc6f3
symbiotic and parasitic relationships
451
False
Bacteria (i/bækˈtɪəriə/; singular: bacterium) constitute a large domain of prokaryotic microorganisms. Typically a few micrometres in length, bacteria have a number of shapes, ranging from spheres to rods and spirals. Bacteria were among the first life forms to appear on Earth, and are present in most of its habitats. Bacteria inhabit soil, water, acidic hot springs, radioactive waste, and the deep portions of Earth's crust. Bacteria also live in symbiotic and parasitic relationships with plants and animals. They are also known to have flourished in manned spacecraft.
What amount of bacteria can be found in a gram of soil?
572f8f15a23a5019007fc749
40 million bacterial cells
20
False
How many bacteria cells can be in a milliltre of fresh water?
572f8f15a23a5019007fc74a
million bacterial cells
71
False
How does bacteria help to sustain life in hydrothermal vents and cold seeps?
572f8f15a23a5019007fc74b
by converting dissolved compounds
559
False
What deepest part of the ocean was bacteria found?
572f8f15a23a5019007fc74c
Mariana Trench
738
False
Can bacteria survive inside rocks under the sea level?
572f8f15a23a5019007fc74d
thrive inside rocks
896
False
There are typically 40 million bacterial cells in a gram of soil and a million bacterial cells in a millilitre of fresh water. There are approximately 5×1030 bacteria on Earth, forming a biomass which exceeds that of all plants and animals. Bacteria are vital in recycling nutrients, with many of the stages in nutrient cycles dependent on these organisms, such as the fixation of nitrogen from the atmosphere and putrefaction. In the biological communities surrounding hydrothermal vents and cold seeps, bacteria provide the nutrients needed to sustain life by converting dissolved compounds, such as hydrogen sulphide and methane, to energy. On 17 March 2013, researchers reported data that suggested bacterial life forms thrive in the Mariana Trench, which with a depth of up to 11 kilometres is the deepest part of the Earth's oceans. Other researchers reported related studies that microbes thrive inside rocks up to 580 metres below the sea floor under 2.6 kilometres of ocean off the coast of the northwestern United States. According to one of the researchers, "You can find microbes everywhere — they're extremely adaptable to conditions, and survive wherever they are."
What is the ratio of human/bacteria cells in human flora?
572f9551a23a5019007fc7ad
ten times as many bacterial cells
24
False
What keeps bacteria at bay in human body?
572f9551a23a5019007fc7ae
the immune system
311
False
What type of bacteria can cause infectious diseases?
572f9551a23a5019007fc7af
pathogenic
396
False
What are the deadliest diseases caused by bacteria?
572f9551a23a5019007fc7b0
respiratory infections
550
False
What makes bacteria resistant to antibiotic treatment?
572f9551a23a5019007fc7b1
farming
765
False
There are approximately ten times as many bacterial cells in the human flora as there are human cells in the body, with the largest number of the human flora being in the gut flora, and a large number on the skin. The vast majority of the bacteria in the body are rendered harmless by the protective effects of the immune system, and some are beneficial. However, several species of bacteria are pathogenic and cause infectious diseases, including cholera, syphilis, anthrax, leprosy, and bubonic plague. The most common fatal bacterial diseases are respiratory infections, with tuberculosis alone killing about 2 million people per year, mostly in sub-Saharan Africa. In developed countries, antibiotics are used to treat bacterial infections and are also used in farming, making antibiotic resistance a growing problem. In industry, bacteria are important in sewage treatment and the breakdown of oil spills, the production of cheese and yogurt through fermentation, and the recovery of gold, palladium, copper and other metals in the mining sector, as well as in biotechnology, and the manufacture of antibiotics and other chemicals.
What living organisms are bacteria being reffered as?
572f9adf04bcaa1900d76acf
prokaryotes
93
False
What vital part is missing in bacteria to eukaryotes?
572f9adf04bcaa1900d76ad0
nucleus
185
False
When did the scientific classification change?
572f9adf04bcaa1900d76ad1
1990s
371
False
What are two main groups prokaryotes can be divided into?
572f9adf04bcaa1900d76ad2
Bacteria and Archaea
528
False
Once regarded as plants constituting the class Schizomycetes, bacteria are now classified as prokaryotes. Unlike cells of animals and other eukaryotes, bacterial cells do not contain a nucleus and rarely harbour membrane-bound organelles. Although the term bacteria traditionally included all prokaryotes, the scientific classification changed after the discovery in the 1990s that prokaryotes consist of two very different groups of organisms that evolved from an ancient common ancestor. These evolutionary domains are called Bacteria and Archaea.
When did the first antecedents of bacteria appear on Earth?
572f9ceab2c2fd1400568255
4 billion years ago
125
False
Why were bacteria and archaea dominant forms of life?
572f9ceab2c2fd1400568256
most organisms were microscopic
173
False
What are Stromatolites?
572f9ceab2c2fd1400568257
bacterial fossils
362
False
What pre-historic group did bacteria evolve from?
572f9ceab2c2fd1400568258
archaeal/eukaryotic lineage
730
False
How did chloroplast appear in first vegetation?
572f9ceab2c2fd1400568259
mitochondria also engulfed cyanobacterial-like organisms
1366
False
The ancestors of modern bacteria were unicellular microorganisms that were the first forms of life to appear on Earth, about 4 billion years ago. For about 3 billion years, most organisms were microscopic, and bacteria and archaea were the dominant forms of life. In 2008, fossils of macroorganisms were discovered and named as the Francevillian biota. Although bacterial fossils exist, such as stromatolites, their lack of distinctive morphology prevents them from being used to examine the history of bacterial evolution, or to date the time of origin of a particular bacterial species. However, gene sequences can be used to reconstruct the bacterial phylogeny, and these studies indicate that bacteria diverged first from the archaeal/eukaryotic lineage. Bacteria were also involved in the second great evolutionary divergence, that of the archaea and eukaryotes. Here, eukaryotes resulted from the entering of ancient bacteria into endosymbiotic associations with the ancestors of eukaryotic cells, which were themselves possibly related to the Archaea. This involved the engulfment by proto-eukaryotic cells of alphaproteobacterial symbionts to form either mitochondria or hydrogenosomes, which are still found in all known Eukarya (sometimes in highly reduced form, e.g. in ancient "amitochondrial" protozoa). Later on, some eukaryotes that already contained mitochondria also engulfed cyanobacterial-like organisms. This led to the formation of chloroplasts in algae and plants. There are also some algae that originated from even later endosymbiotic events. Here, eukaryotes engulfed a eukaryotic algae that developed into a "second-generation" plastid. This is known as secondary endosymbiosis.
What is the common name for shapes and forms of bacteria?
572f9e5504bcaa1900d76aeb
morphologies
62
False
Are bacteria cells smaller than eukaryotic cells?
572f9e5504bcaa1900d76aec
one-tenth the size
102
False
How big is Epulopiscium bacteria?
572f9e5504bcaa1900d76aed
0.7 mm
353
False
What are one of the smallest bacteria?
572f9e5504bcaa1900d76aee
genus Mycoplasma
408
False
Is ultramicrobacteria is well examined?
572f9e5504bcaa1900d76aef
not well-studied
563
False
Bacteria display a wide diversity of shapes and sizes, called morphologies. Bacterial cells are about one-tenth the size of eukaryotic cells and are typically 0.5–5.0 micrometres in length. However, a few species are visible to the unaided eye — for example, Thiomargarita namibiensis is up to half a millimetre long and Epulopiscium fishelsoni reaches 0.7 mm. Among the smallest bacteria are members of the genus Mycoplasma, which measure only 0.3 micrometres, as small as the largest viruses. Some bacteria may be even smaller, but these ultramicrobacteria are not well-studied.
What shape does usually cocci type of bacteria can be?
572fa02704bcaa1900d76b09
spherical
34
False
What type of bacteria usually takes rod-shaped form?
572fa02704bcaa1900d76b0a
bacilli
128
False
What shape Spirochaetes are?
572fa02704bcaa1900d76b0b
tightly coiled
354
False
What shape was newly discovered bacteria from deep under Earth?
572fa02704bcaa1900d76b0c
branching filamentous types with a star-shaped cross-section
542
False
Can shape of bacteria be beneficial to their survival?
572fa02704bcaa1900d76b0d
can influence the ability of bacteria to acquire nutrients
845
False
Most bacterial species are either spherical, called cocci (sing. coccus, from Greek kókkos, grain, seed), or rod-shaped, called bacilli (sing. bacillus, from Latin baculus, stick). Elongation is associated with swimming. Some bacteria, called vibrio, are shaped like slightly curved rods or comma-shaped; others can be spiral-shaped, called spirilla, or tightly coiled, called spirochaetes. A small number of species even have tetrahedral or cuboidal shapes. More recently, some bacteria were discovered deep under Earth's crust that grow as branching filamentous types with a star-shaped cross-section. The large surface area to volume ratio of this morphology may give these bacteria an advantage in nutrient-poor environments. This wide variety of shapes is determined by the bacterial cell wall and cytoskeleton, and is important because it can influence the ability of bacteria to acquire nutrients, attach to surfaces, swim through liquids and escape predators.
What is the usual form for Neiserria bacteria?
572fa1f9a23a5019007fc7e7
diploids (pairs)
113
False
What well known bacteria structure chains?
572fa1f9a23a5019007fc7e8
Streptococcus
131
False
What does typically Staphylococcus look like?
572fa1f9a23a5019007fc7e9
clusters
213
False
What type of bacteria is surrounded by a capsule?
572fa1f9a23a5019007fc7ea
Filamentous bacteria
305
False
Formation of what can be related to fungal mycelia?
572fa1f9a23a5019007fc7eb
branched filaments
469
False
Many bacterial species exist simply as single cells, others associate in characteristic patterns: Neisseria form diploids (pairs), Streptococcus form chains, and Staphylococcus group together in "bunch of grapes" clusters. Bacteria can also be elongated to form filaments, for example the Actinobacteria. Filamentous bacteria are often surrounded by a sheath that contains many individual cells. Certain types, such as species of the genus Nocardia, even form complex, branched filaments, similar in appearance to fungal mycelia.
What does bacteria use to adhere to surfaces?
572fa3e9b2c2fd140056827d
biofilms
69
False
How extent can biofilm be?
572fa3e9b2c2fd140056827e
up to half a meter in depth
158
False
What is part of secondary structure in the complex formation of bacteria?
572fa3e9b2c2fd140056827f
microcolonies,
390
False
What is the purpose of networks of channels in microcolonies?
572fa3e9b2c2fd1400568280
to enable better diffusion of nutrients
450
False
Which bacteria is more difficult to eradicate?
572fa3e9b2c2fd1400568281
bacteria protected within biofilms
782
False
Bacteria often attach to surfaces and form dense aggregations called biofilms or bacterial mats. These films can range from a few micrometers in thickness to up to half a meter in depth, and may contain multiple species of bacteria, protists and archaea. Bacteria living in biofilms display a complex arrangement of cells and extracellular components, forming secondary structures, such as microcolonies, through which there are networks of channels to enable better diffusion of nutrients. In natural environments, such as soil or the surfaces of plants, the majority of bacteria are bound to surfaces in biofilms. Biofilms are also important in medicine, as these structures are often present during chronic bacterial infections or in infections of implanted medical devices, and bacteria protected within biofilms are much harder to kill than individual isolated bacteria.
What is the vital nutriment for Myxobacteria?
572fa576b2c2fd1400568299
amino acids
93
False
Why do cells of Myxobacteria migrate towards each other?
572fa576b2c2fd140056829a
aggregate to form fruiting bodies
213
False
How hard to treat bacteria cells in a passive state?
572fa576b2c2fd140056829b
more resistant
623
False
What bacteria do in fruiting bodies?
572fa576b2c2fd140056829c
multicellular organisation
436
False
Even more complex morphological changes are sometimes possible. For example, when starved of amino acids, Myxobacteria detect surrounding cells in a process known as quorum sensing, migrate toward each other, and aggregate to form fruiting bodies up to 500 micrometres long and containing approximately 100,000 bacterial cells. In these fruiting bodies, the bacteria perform separate tasks; this type of cooperation is a simple type of multicellular organisation. For example, about one in 10 cells migrate to the top of these fruiting bodies and differentiate into a specialised dormant state called myxospores, which are more resistant to drying and other adverse environmental conditions than are ordinary cells.
What is a cell membrane?
572fa77004bcaa1900d76b49
lipid
69
False
What does membrane accomplish?
572fa77004bcaa1900d76b4a
barrier to hold nutrients, proteins and other essential components
171
False
Do bacteria have membrabe-bound organelles in their cytoplasm?
572fa77004bcaa1900d76b4b
do not
306
False
Absence of what make bacteria belong to prokaryotes?
572fa77004bcaa1900d76b4c
true nucleus, mitochondria, chloroplasts and the other organelles
437
False
What bacteria was observed as before prokaryotic cytoskeleton was discovered?
572fa77004bcaa1900d76b4d
simple bags of cytoplasm
559
False
The bacterial cell is surrounded by a cell membrane (also known as a lipid, cytoplasmic or plasma membrane). This membrane encloses the contents of the cell and acts as a barrier to hold nutrients, proteins and other essential components of the cytoplasm within the cell. As they are prokaryotes, bacteria do not usually have membrane-bound organelles in their cytoplasm, and thus contain few large intracellular structures. They lack a true nucleus, mitochondria, chloroplasts and the other organelles present in eukaryotic cells. Bacteria were once seen as simple bags of cytoplasm, but structures such as the prokaryotic cytoskeleton and the localization of proteins to specific locations within the cytoplasm that give bacteria some complexity have been discovered. These subcellular levels of organization have been called "bacterial hyperstructures".
What is crucial for biochemical reactions?
572fa91e04bcaa1900d76b67
concentration gradients across membranes
69
False
How does electron transit occur in bacteria?
572fa91e04bcaa1900d76b68
between the cytoplasm and the periplasmic space
236
False
What kind of membrane do bacteria cells are filled with?
572fa91e04bcaa1900d76b69
light-gathering membrane
405
False
Can membrane of bacteria create lipid structure?
572fa91e04bcaa1900d76b6a
light-gathering complexes may even form lipid-enclosed structures
437
False
Many important biochemical reactions, such as energy generation, use concentration gradients across membranes. The general lack of internal membranes in bacteria means reactions such as electron transport occur across the cell membrane between the cytoplasm and the periplasmic space. However, in many photosynthetic bacteria the plasma membrane is highly folded and fills most of the cell with layers of light-gathering membrane. These light-gathering complexes may even form lipid-enclosed structures called chlorosomes in green sulfur bacteria. Other proteins import nutrients across the cell membrane, or expel undesired molecules from the cytoplasm.
What is genetic make of bacteria?
572fab18947a6a140053cb3a
a single circular DNA chromosome
87
False
Where is DNA chromosome of bacteria located?
572fab18947a6a140053cb3b
in the cytoplasm
128
False
How does nucleoid look?
572fab18947a6a140053cb3c
irregularly shaped body
151
False
What are the exceptions of non-internal membrane bacteria?
572fab18947a6a140053cb3d
phylum Planctomycetes and candidate phylum Poribacteria
275
False
What is the purpose of polyribosomes in bacteria?
572fab18947a6a140053cb3e
production of proteins
639
False
Bacteria do not have a membrane-bound nucleus, and their genetic material is typically a single circular DNA chromosome located in the cytoplasm in an irregularly shaped body called the nucleoid. The nucleoid contains the chromosome with its associated proteins and RNA. The phylum Planctomycetes and candidate phylum Poribacteria may be exceptions to the general absence of internal membranes in bacteria, because they appear to have a double membrane around their nucleoids and contain other membrane-bound cellular structures. Like all living organisms, bacteria contain ribosomes, often grouped in chains called polyribosomes, for the production of proteins, but the structure of the bacterial ribosome is different from that of eukaryotes and Archaea. Bacterial ribosomes have a sedimentation rate of 70S (measured in Svedberg units): their subunits have rates of 30S and 50S. Some antibiotics bind specifically to 70S ribosomes and inhibit bacterial protein synthesis. Those antibiotics kill bacteria without affecting the larger 80S ribosomes of eukaryotic cells and without harming the host.
What types of intracellar nutrient can bacteria produce?
572fad2cb2c2fd1400568317
glycogen, polyphosphate, sulfur or polyhydroxyalkanoates
85
False
How does gas vesicles produced by Cyanobacteria help her to move in water?
572fad2cb2c2fd1400568318
move up or down into water layers with different light intensities
304
False
What are chromatophores used for?
572fad2cb2c2fd1400568319
photosynthesis
511
False
What are the most common nonliving compositions in bacteria?
572fad2cb2c2fd140056831a
glycogen, lipid droplets, crystals, and pigments
954
False
What gas vacuoles are respoonsible for in bacteria?
572fad2cb2c2fd140056831b
to control their buoyancy
1418
False
Some bacteria produce intracellular nutrient storage granules for later use, such as glycogen, polyphosphate, sulfur or polyhydroxyalkanoates. Certain bacterial species, such as the photosynthetic Cyanobacteria, produce internal gas vesicles, which they use to regulate their buoyancy – allowing them to move up or down into water layers with different light intensities and nutrient levels. Intracellular membranes called chromatophores are also found in membranes of phototrophic bacteria. Used primarily for photosynthesis, they contain bacteriochlorophyll pigments and carotenoids. An early idea was that bacteria might contain membrane folds termed mesosomes, but these were later shown to be artifacts produced by the chemicals used to prepare the cells for electron microscopy. Inclusions are considered to be nonliving components of the cell that do not possess metabolic activity and are not bounded by membranes. The most common inclusions are glycogen, lipid droplets, crystals, and pigments. Volutin granules are cytoplasmic inclusions of complexed inorganic polyphosphate. These granules are called metachromatic granules due to their displaying the metachromatic effect; they appear red or blue when stained with the blue dyes methylene blue or toluidine blue. Gas vacuoles, which are freely permeable to gas, are membrane-bound vesicles present in some species of Cyanobacteria. They allow the bacteria to control their buoyancy. Microcompartments are widespread, membrane-bound organelles that are made of a protein shell that surrounds and encloses various enzymes. Carboxysomes are bacterial microcompartments that contain enzymes involved in carbon fixation. Magnetosomes are bacterial microcompartments, present in magnetotactic bacteria, that contain magnetic crystals.
What composes the cell envelope?
572faebea23a5019007fc887
cell membrane and cell wall
82
False
What is most common cell wall material?
572faebea23a5019007fc888
peptidoglycan
179
False
Are cell walls of bacteria similar to cell walls of plants and fungi?
572faebea23a5019007fc889
Bacterial cell walls are different
321
False
What are the main materials of cell walls of plants and fungi?
572faebea23a5019007fc88a
cellulose and chitin
415
False
How can antibiotic penicillin destroy bacteria?
572faebea23a5019007fc88b
by inhibiting a step in the synthesis of peptidoglycan
668
False
In most bacteria, a cell wall is present on the outside of the cell membrane. The cell membrane and cell wall comprise the cell envelope. A common bacterial cell wall material is peptidoglycan (called "murein" in older sources), which is made from polysaccharide chains cross-linked by peptides containing D-amino acids. Bacterial cell walls are different from the cell walls of plants and fungi, which are made of cellulose and chitin, respectively. The cell wall of bacteria is also distinct from that of Archaea, which do not contain peptidoglycan. The cell wall is essential to the survival of many bacteria, and the antibiotic penicillin is able to kill bacteria by inhibiting a step in the synthesis of peptidoglycan.
What does gram-positive bacteria have?
572fb096a23a5019007fc8a1
thick cell wall containing many layers of peptidoglycan and teichoic acids
33
False
What can be endotoxins called?
572fb096a23a5019007fc8a2
Lipopolysaccharides
309
False
Why gram-negative cell bacteria is more toxic than gram-positive bacteria?
572fb096a23a5019007fc8a3
polysaccharides and lipid A
370
False
What can different structure of the cell walls of bacteria effect?
572fb096a23a5019007fc8a4
differences in antibiotic susceptibility
757
False
What is the main defense of human body against eye infections?
572fb096a23a5019007fc8a5
enzyme lysozyme, found in human tears
1235
False
Gram-positive bacteria possess a thick cell wall containing many layers of peptidoglycan and teichoic acids. In contrast, gram-negative bacteria have a relatively thin cell wall consisting of a few layers of peptidoglycan surrounded by a second lipid membrane containing lipopolysaccharides and lipoproteins. Lipopolysaccharides, also called endotoxins, are composed of polysaccharides and lipid A that is responsible for much of the toxicity of gram-negative bacteria. Most bacteria have the gram-negative cell wall, and only the Firmicutes and Actinobacteria have the alternative gram-positive arrangement. These two groups were previously known as the low G+C and high G+C Gram-positive bacteria, respectively. These differences in structure can produce differences in antibiotic susceptibility; for instance, vancomycin can kill only gram-positive bacteria and is ineffective against gram-negative pathogens, such as Haemophilus influenzae or Pseudomonas aeruginosa. If the bacterial cell wall is entirely removed, it is called a protoplast, whereas if it is partially removed, it is called a spheroplast. β-Lactam antibiotics, such as penicillin, inhibit the formation of peptidoglycan cross-links in the bacterial cell wall. The enzyme lysozyme, found in human tears, also digests the cell wall of bacteria and is the body's main defense against eye infections.
What helps Mycobacteria be resistant to decolorization?
572fb31fa23a5019007fc8bf
high mycolic acid content
115
False
What is mycolic acid is responsible for in Mycobacteria?
572fb31fa23a5019007fc8c0
staining pattern of poor absorption followed by high retention.
181
False
What is the most typical staining technique used to identify acid-fast bacteria?
572fb31fa23a5019007fc8c1
Ziehl-Neelsen stain
323
False
What is the main pathogenic bacteria in L-form class ?
572fb31fa23a5019007fc8c2
Mycoplasma
574
False
Acid-fast bacteria, such as Mycobacteria, are resistant to decolorization by acids during staining procedures. The high mycolic acid content of Mycobacteria, is responsible for the staining pattern of poor absorption followed by high retention. The most common staining technique used to identify acid-fast bacteria is the Ziehl-Neelsen stain or acid-fast stain, in which the acid-fast bacilli are stained bright-red and stand out clearly against a blue background. L-form bacteria are strains of bacteria that lack cell walls. The main pathogenic bacteria in this class is Mycoplasma (not to be confused with Mycobacteria).
What are fimbriae?
572fb448947a6a140053cbbc
fine filaments of protein
50
False
What is the diameter of fimbriae?
572fb448947a6a140053cbbd
2–10 nanometres
85
False
What are fimbriae liable for?
572fb448947a6a140053cbbe
involved in attachment to solid surfaces or to other cells
298
False
What are pili?
572fb448947a6a140053cbbf
cellular appendages
446
False
Fimbriae (sometimes called "attachment pili") are fine filaments of protein, usually 2–10 nanometres in diameter and up to several micrometers in length. They are distributed over the surface of the cell, and resemble fine hairs when seen under the electron microscope. Fimbriae are believed to be involved in attachment to solid surfaces or to other cells, and are essential for the virulence of some bacterial pathogens. Pili (sing. pilus) are cellular appendages, slightly larger than fimbriae, that can transfer genetic material between bacterial cells in a process called conjugation where they are called conjugation pili or "sex pili" (see bacterial genetics, below). They can also generate movement where they are called type IV pili (see movement, below).
What are highly resistant dormant structures of certain gram-positive bacteria called?
572fb5b0b2c2fd1400568395
endospores
177
False
Is creating endospore a reproductive process?
572fb5b0b2c2fd1400568396
is not a reproductive process
243
False
What are ribosomes in endospores are enclosed in?
572fb5b0b2c2fd1400568397
cortex layer
435
False
What chemical compound comprises 5% to 15% of the dry weight of bacterial spores?
572fb5b0b2c2fd1400568398
Dipicolinic acid
496
False
Certain genera of Gram-positive bacteria, such as Bacillus, Clostridium, Sporohalobacter, Anaerobacter, and Heliobacterium, can form highly resistant, dormant structures called endospores. In almost all cases, one endospore is formed and this is not a reproductive process, although Anaerobacter can make up to seven endospores in a single cell. Endospores have a central core of cytoplasm containing DNA and ribosomes surrounded by a cortex layer and protected by an impermeable and rigid coat. Dipicolinic acid is a chemical compound that composes 5% to 15% of the dry weight of bacterial spores. It is implicated as responsible for the heat resistance of the endospore.
Is there a metabolism in endospores?
572fb798b2c2fd14005683b1
show no detectable metabolism
11
False
What extreme physical and chemical stresses can endospores endure?
572fb798b2c2fd14005683b2
UV light, gamma radiation, detergents, disinfectants, heat, freezing, pressure
120
False
How long can endospores of bacteria stay alive in dormant state?
572fb798b2c2fd14005683b3
for millions of years
274
False
What endospore-forming bacteria can cause tetanus disease?
572fb798b2c2fd14005683b4
Clostridium tetani
771
False
Endospores show no detectable metabolism and can survive extreme physical and chemical stresses, such as high levels of UV light, gamma radiation, detergents, disinfectants, heat, freezing, pressure, and desiccation. In this dormant state, these organisms may remain viable for millions of years, and endospores even allow bacteria to survive exposure to the vacuum and radiation in space. According to scientist Dr. Steinn Sigurdsson, "There are viable bacterial spores that have been found that are 40 million years old on Earth — and we know they're very hardened to radiation." Endospore-forming bacteria can also cause disease: for example, anthrax can be contracted by the inhalation of Bacillus anthracis endospores, and contamination of deep puncture wounds with Clostridium tetani endospores causes tetanus.
What is commonly used to determine taxonomy of bacteria?
572fb921947a6a140053cbde
The distribution of metabolic traits
63
False
How is bacterial metabolism determined?
572fb921947a6a140053cbdf
nutritional groups
299
False
What are three main criterias of bacterial metabolism?
572fb921947a6a140053cbe0
the kind of energy used for growth, the source of carbon, and the electron donors
356
False
What are electron acceptors accountable for?
572fb921947a6a140053cbe1
aerobic or anaerobic respiration
545
False
Bacteria exhibit an extremely wide variety of metabolic types. The distribution of metabolic traits within a group of bacteria has traditionally been used to define their taxonomy, but these traits often do not correspond with modern genetic classifications. Bacterial metabolism is classified into nutritional groups on the basis of three major criteria: the kind of energy used for growth, the source of carbon, and the electron donors used for growth. An additional criterion of respiratory microorganisms are the electron acceptors used for aerobic or anaerobic respiration.
How does heterotrophic carbon metabolism occur?
572fbb81947a6a140053cbf6
organic carbon compounds are used as carbon sources
61
False
When carbon metabolism is called autotrophic?
572fbb81947a6a140053cbf7
cellular carbon is obtained by fixing carbon dioxide
143
False
What category do parasitic bacteria fall into?
572fbb81947a6a140053cbf8
Heterotrophic bacteria
197
False
Green sulfur-bacteria is typical representative of what type of bacteria?
572fbb81947a6a140053cbf9
autotrophic bacteria
253
False
What is chemotrophy ?
572fbb81947a6a140053cbfa
the use of chemical substances for energy
572
False
Carbon metabolism in bacteria is either heterotrophic, where organic carbon compounds are used as carbon sources, or autotrophic, meaning that cellular carbon is obtained by fixing carbon dioxide. Heterotrophic bacteria include parasitic types. Typical autotrophic bacteria are phototrophic cyanobacteria, green sulfur-bacteria and some purple bacteria, but also many chemolithotrophic species, such as nitrifying or sulfur-oxidising bacteria. Energy metabolism of bacteria is either based on phototrophy, the use of light through photosynthesis, or based on chemotrophy, the use of chemical substances for energy, which are mostly oxidised at the expense of oxygen or alternative electron acceptors (aerobic/anaerobic respiration).
What do lithotrophs use ?
572fbcc4947a6a140053cc0a
inorganic electron donors
55
False
What type of electron donors organotrophs use?
572fbcc4947a6a140053cc0b
organic compounds
107
False
What do respiratory organisms use as electron donors?
572fbcc4947a6a140053cc0c
chemical compounds
436
False
In what organisms is oxygen used as eelectron acceptor?
572fbcc4947a6a140053cc0d
anaerobic organisms
752
False
Bacteria are further divided into lithotrophs that use inorganic electron donors and organotrophs that use organic compounds as electron donors. Chemotrophic organisms use the respective electron donors for energy conservation (by aerobic/anaerobic respiration or fermentation) and biosynthetic reactions (e.g., carbon dioxide fixation), whereas phototrophic organisms use them only for biosynthetic purposes. Respiratory organisms use chemical compounds as a source of energy by taking electrons from the reduced substrate and transferring them to a terminal electron acceptor in a redox reaction. This reaction releases energy that can be used to synthesise ATP and drive metabolism. In aerobic organisms, oxygen is used as the electron acceptor. In anaerobic organisms other inorganic compounds, such as nitrate, sulfate or carbon dioxide are used as electron acceptors. This leads to the ecologically important processes of denitrification, sulfate reduction, and acetogenesis, respectively.
What is sulfate-reducing bacteria accountable for?
572fbdb704bcaa1900d76c55
the production of the highly toxic forms of mercury
140
False
What is the by-product of non-repiratory anaerobes?
572fbdb704bcaa1900d76c56
ethanol
365
False
How can anaerobes adjust to the surrounding environment?
572fbdb704bcaa1900d76c57
can switch between fermentation and different terminal electron acceptors
417
False
These processes are also important in biological responses to pollution; for example, sulfate-reducing bacteria are largely responsible for the production of the highly toxic forms of mercury (methyl- and dimethylmercury) in the environment. Non-respiratory anaerobes use fermentation to generate energy and reducing power, secreting metabolic by-products (such as ethanol in brewing) as waste. Facultative anaerobes can switch between fermentation and different terminal electron acceptors depending on the environmental conditions in which they find themselves.
What are hydrogen and carbon monoxide for Lithotrophic bacteria?
572fbf5a04bcaa1900d76c6d
Common inorganic electron donors
73
False
How can gas methane be used in exceptional set of conditions by methanotrophic bacteria?
572fbf5a04bcaa1900d76c6e
both a source of electrons and a substrate for carbon anabolism
338
False
What is the main element for aerobic photorophy?
572fbf5a04bcaa1900d76c6f
oxygen
453
False
Lithotrophic bacteria can use inorganic compounds as a source of energy. Common inorganic electron donors are hydrogen, carbon monoxide, ammonia (leading to nitrification), ferrous iron and other reduced metal ions, and several reduced sulfur compounds. In unusual circumstances, the gas methane can be used by methanotrophic bacteria as both a source of electrons and a substrate for carbon anabolism. In both aerobic phototrophy and chemolithotrophy, oxygen is used as a terminal electron acceptor, whereas under anaerobic conditions inorganic compounds are used instead. Most lithotrophic organisms are autotrophic, whereas organotrophic organisms are heterotrophic.
How can bacteria obtain raw materials from the environment?
572fc0d2a23a5019007fc97b
in the form of relatively small molecules
121
False
What chemical process  helps bacteria to absorb raw materials?
572fc0d2a23a5019007fc97c
diffusion
188
False
What process is used by eukaryotic cells to absorb external items?
572fc0d2a23a5019007fc97d
endocytosis
484
False
What part of bacteria cell is used during diffusion?
572fc0d2a23a5019007fc97e
molecular channels in cell membranes
209
False
Regardless of the type of metabolic process they employ, the majority of bacteria are able to take in raw materials only in the form of relatively small molecules, which enter the cell by diffusion or through molecular channels in cell membranes. The Planctomycetes are the exception (as they are in possessing membranes around their nuclear material). It has recently been shown that Gemmata obscuriglobus is able to take in large molecules via a process that in some ways resembles endocytosis, the process used by eukaryotic cells to engulf external items.
How size and reproduction are linked in bacteria?
572fc5c004bcaa1900d76ce9
Bacteria grow to a fixed size and then reproduce
151
False
How does bacteria reproduce?
572fc5c004bcaa1900d76cea
through binary fission
200
False
If the conditions are right how long does it take for bacteria to reproduce?
572fc5c004bcaa1900d76ceb
divide extremely rapidly
304
False
What are produced in cell division?
572fc5c004bcaa1900d76cec
two identical clone daughter cells
418
False
Unlike in multicellular organisms, increases in cell size (cell growth) and reproduction by cell division are tightly linked in unicellular organisms. Bacteria grow to a fixed size and then reproduce through binary fission, a form of asexual reproduction. Under optimal conditions, bacteria can grow and divide extremely rapidly, and bacterial populations can double as quickly as every 9.8 minutes. In cell division, two identical clone daughter cells are produced. Some bacteria, while still reproducing asexually, form more complex reproductive structures that help disperse the newly formed daughter cells. Examples include fruiting body formation by Myxobacteria and aerial hyphae formation by Streptomyces, or budding. Budding involves a cell forming a protrusion that breaks away and produces a daughter cell.
In what environment are bacteria being cultivated in labs?
572fc771947a6a140053ccae
solid or liquid media
52
False
What is typical solid setting?
572fc771947a6a140053ccaf
agar plates
103
False
Which media is preffered to grow larger volumes of bacteria?
572fc771947a6a140053ccb0
liquid growth media
182
False
Which environment is better to isolate a single example of bacteria strain?
572fc771947a6a140053ccb1
agar plates
103
False
What can help to indentify specific bacteria?
572fc771947a6a140053ccb2
The use of selective media
460
False
In the laboratory, bacteria are usually grown using solid or liquid media. Solid growth media, such as agar plates, are used to isolate pure cultures of a bacterial strain. However, liquid growth media are used when measurement of growth or large volumes of cells are required. Growth in stirred liquid media occurs as an even cell suspension, making the cultures easy to divide and transfer, although isolating single bacteria from liquid media is difficult. The use of selective media (media with specific nutrients added or deficient, or with antibiotics added) can help identify specific organisms.
What is the simple way of producing large volume of bacteria cells?
572fc90704bcaa1900d76d27
high levels of nutrients
52
False
What caused the evolution of different growth strategies in bacteria?
572fc90704bcaa1900d76d28
nutrients are limited
166
False
What do algal bacteria if nutrients are available?
572fc90704bcaa1900d76d29
grow extremely rapidly
379
False
What can create a subsequent increase of nutrients in natural environment?
572fc90704bcaa1900d76d2a
biofilms
764
False
Most laboratory techniques for growing bacteria use high levels of nutrients to produce large amounts of cells cheaply and quickly. However, in natural environments, nutrients are limited, meaning that bacteria cannot continue to reproduce indefinitely. This nutrient limitation has led the evolution of different growth strategies (see r/K selection theory). Some organisms can grow extremely rapidly when nutrients become available, such as the formation of algal (and cyanobacterial) blooms that often occur in lakes during the summer. Other organisms have adaptations to harsh environments, such as the production of multiple antibiotics by Streptomyces that inhibit the growth of competing microorganisms. In nature, many organisms live in communities (e.g., biofilms) that may allow for increased supply of nutrients and protection from environmental stresses. These relationships can be essential for growth of a particular organism or group of organisms (syntrophy).
How many phase are in the growth of bacteria?
572fcaa9947a6a140053ccc0
four phases
25
False
What is the first stage of bacteria adaptation?
572fcaa9947a6a140053ccc1
lag phase
211
False
What is the second phase of bacteria growth known for?
572fcaa9947a6a140053ccc2
rapid exponential growth
558
False
What is called the third statge of growth of bacteria?
572fcaa9947a6a140053ccc3
stationary phase
904
False
The absence of what causes the last stage of bacteria growth?
572fcaa9947a6a140053ccc4
nutrients
1306
False
Bacterial growth follows four phases. When a population of bacteria first enter a high-nutrient environment that allows growth, the cells need to adapt to their new environment. The first phase of growth is the lag phase, a period of slow growth when the cells are adapting to the high-nutrient environment and preparing for fast growth. The lag phase has high biosynthesis rates, as proteins necessary for rapid growth are produced. The second phase of growth is the log phase, also known as the logarithmic or exponential phase. The log phase is marked by rapid exponential growth. The rate at which cells grow during this phase is known as the growth rate (k), and the time it takes the cells to double is known as the generation time (g). During log phase, nutrients are metabolised at maximum speed until one of the nutrients is depleted and starts limiting growth. The third phase of growth is the stationary phase and is caused by depleted nutrients. The cells reduce their metabolic activity and consume non-essential cellular proteins. The stationary phase is a transition from rapid growth to a stress response state and there is increased expression of genes involved in DNA repair, antioxidant metabolism and nutrient transport. The final phase is the death phase where the bacteria run out of nutrients and die.
What shape is chromosome of bacteria?
572fcc11947a6a140053ccd2
circular chromosome
28
False
What bacteria is an exception to single circular chromosome rule?
572fcc11947a6a140053ccd3
Spirochaetes of the genus Borrelia
237
False
What bacteria is responsible for Lyme disease?
572fcc11947a6a140053ccd4
Borrelia burgdorferi
339
False
How does chromosome of Borrelia burgdoferi look like?
572fcc11947a6a140053ccd5
single linear chromosome
401
False
Most bacteria have a single circular chromosome that can range in size from only 160,000 base pairs in the endosymbiotic bacteria Candidatus Carsonella ruddii, to 12,200,000 base pairs in the soil-dwelling bacteria Sorangium cellulosum. Spirochaetes of the genus Borrelia are a notable exception to this arrangement, with bacteria such as Borrelia burgdorferi, the cause of Lyme disease, containing a single linear chromosome. The genes in bacterial genomes are usually a single continuous stretch of DNA and although several different types of introns do exist in bacteria, these are much rarer than in eukaryotes.
What makes bacteria an asexual organism?
572fcd8204bcaa1900d76d57
inherit identical copies of their parent's genes
32
False
What can cause mutation in bacteria?
572fcd8204bcaa1900d76d58
changes to their genetic material DNA
155
False
What are two ways changes to DNA of bacteria can occur?
572fcd8204bcaa1900d76d59
random mutation during replication or "stress-directed mutation"
513
False
Bacteria, as asexual organisms, inherit identical copies of their parent's genes (i.e., they are clonal). However, all bacteria can evolve by selection on changes to their genetic material DNA caused by genetic recombination or mutations. Mutations come from errors made during the replication of DNA or from exposure to mutagens. Mutation rates vary widely among different species of bacteria and even among different clones of a single species of bacteria. Genetic changes in bacterial genomes come from either random mutation during replication or "stress-directed mutation", where genes involved in a particular growth-limiting process have an increased mutation rate.
What is the aftermath of infrequent errors during intracellular assembly of virus particles?
572fcf88a23a5019007fca23
Transduction of bacterial genes
0
False
What is the result of bacterial adaptation of E.coli bacteria host and plasmid of another bacteria?
572fcf88a23a5019007fca24
Conjugation
184
False
How does conjugation take place?
572fcf88a23a5019007fca25
conjugative plasmid integrates into the host bacterial chromosome
380
False
Is conjugation a common bacterial adaptation?
572fcf88a23a5019007fca26
It is seldom
360
False
Transduction of bacterial genes by bacteriophage appears to be a consequence of infrequent errors during intracellular assembly of virus particles, rather than a bacterial adaptation. Conjugation, in the much-studied E. coli system is determined by plasmid genes, and is an adaptation for transferring copies of the plasmid from one bacterial host to another. It is seldom that a conjugative plasmid integrates into the host bacterial chromosome, and subsequently transfers part of the host bacterial DNA to another bacterium. Plasmid-mediated transfer of host bacterial DNA also appears to be an accidental process rather than a bacterial adaptation.
What does transformation of bacteria depends on?
572fd132947a6a140053ccee
numerous bacterial gene products
63
False
How simple is the process of transformation?
572fd132947a6a140053ccef
this complex process
134
False
What is the first requirement in order for bacteria to bind and recombine with other bacteria's DNA
572fd132947a6a140053ccf0
enter a special physiological state termed competence
337
False
How big can be the transformation level?
572fd132947a6a140053ccf1
between a third of a chromosome up to the whole chromosome
573
False
How rare is the transformation among bacteria organisms?
572fd132947a6a140053ccf2
common
662
False
Transformation, unlike transduction or conjugation, depends on numerous bacterial gene products that specifically interact to perform this complex process, and thus transformation is clearly a bacterial adaptation for DNA transfer. In order for a bacterium to bind, take up and recombine donor DNA into its own chromosome, it must first enter a special physiological state termed competence (see Natural competence). In Bacillus subtilis, about 40 genes are required for the development of competence. The length of DNA transferred during B. subtilis transformation can be between a third of a chromosome up to the whole chromosome. Transformation appears to be common among bacterial species, and thus far at least 60 species are known to have the natural ability to become competent for transformation. The development of competence in nature is usually associated with stressful environmental conditions, and seems to be an adaptation for facilitating repair of DNA damage in recipient cells.
Between what species do usually transduction, conjugation and transformation take place?
572fd29ea23a5019007fca47
the same species
128
False
What are the consequences of transfer between different species of bacteria?
572fd29ea23a5019007fca48
transfer of antibiotic resistance
289
False
What is horizontal gene transfer?
572fd29ea23a5019007fca49
gene acquisition from other bacteria or the environment
339
False
In ordinary circumstances, transduction, conjugation, and transformation involve transfer of DNA between individual bacteria of the same species, but occasionally transfer may occur between individuals of different bacterial species and this may have significant consequences, such as the transfer of antibiotic resistance. In such cases, gene acquisition from other bacteria or the environment is called horizontal gene transfer and may be common under natural conditions. Gene transfer is particularly important in antibiotic resistance as it allows the rapid transfer of resistance genes between different pathogens.
What are Bacteriophages?
572fd46404bcaa1900d76d97
viruses that infect bacteria
19
False
What can viruses do to bacteria?
572fd46404bcaa1900d76d98
infect and lyse their host bacteria
96
False
What can happen if Bacteriophage contain genes of host's phenotype?
572fd46404bcaa1900d76d99
lethal pathogen
431
False
How can bacteria resist virus DNA?
572fd46404bcaa1900d76d9a
CRISPR system provides bacteria with acquired immunity
776
False
Bacteriophages are viruses that infect bacteria. Many types of bacteriophage exist, some simply infect and lyse their host bacteria, while others insert into the bacterial chromosome. A bacteriophage can contain genes that contribute to its host's phenotype: for example, in the evolution of Escherichia coli O157:H7 and Clostridium botulinum, the toxin genes in an integrated phage converted a harmless ancestral bacterium into a lethal pathogen. Bacteria resist phage infection through restriction modification systems that degrade foreign DNA, and a system that uses CRISPR sequences to retain fragments of the genomes of phage that the bacteria have come into contact with in the past, which allows them to block virus replication through a form of RNA interference. This CRISPR system provides bacteria with acquired immunity to infection.
What is monotrichous?
572fd628a23a5019007fca69
single flagellum
97
False
If bacteria has flagellum at each end what is the name of the species?
572fd628a23a5019007fca6a
amphitrichous
155
False
When flagellum is distributed throughout the surface of the cell?
572fd628a23a5019007fca6b
peritrichous
310
False
How many proteins is typical flagellum consist os?
572fd628a23a5019007fca6c
20 proteins
427
False
How does flagellum function within the cell?
572fd628a23a5019007fca6d
uses the electrochemical gradient across the membrane
605
False
Bacterial species differ in the number and arrangement of flagella on their surface; some have a single flagellum (monotrichous), a flagellum at each end (amphitrichous), clusters of flagella at the poles of the cell (lophotrichous), while others have flagella distributed over the entire surface of the cell (peritrichous). The bacterial flagella is the best-understood motility structure in any organism and is made of about 20 proteins, with approximately another 30 proteins required for its regulation and assembly. The flagellum is a rotating structure driven by a reversible motor at the base that uses the electrochemical gradient across the membrane for power. This motor drives the motion of the filament, which acts as a propeller.
How can we classify the vast variety of bacterial species?
572fd85704bcaa1900d76dbb
grouping organisms based on similarities
82
False
Can classification be helpful in determining differences between distinct species?
572fd85704bcaa1900d76dbc
unclear
395
False
What supports the uncertainty in classification between the same kind of bacteria?
572fd85704bcaa1900d76dbd
lack of distinctive structures in most bacteria,
548
False
What can lateral gene transfer create in bacteria?
572fd85704bcaa1900d76dbe
different morphologies and metabolisms
731
False
What is the way modern classification tries to determine species?
572fd85704bcaa1900d76dbf
emphasizes molecular systematics
833
False
Classification seeks to describe the diversity of bacterial species by naming and grouping organisms based on similarities. Bacteria can be classified on the basis of cell structure, cellular metabolism or on differences in cell components, such as DNA, fatty acids, pigments, antigens and quinones. While these schemes allowed the identification and classification of bacterial strains, it was unclear whether these differences represented variation between distinct species or between strains of the same species. This uncertainty was due to the lack of distinctive structures in most bacteria, as well as lateral gene transfer between unrelated species. Due to lateral gene transfer, some closely related bacteria can have very different morphologies and metabolisms. To overcome this uncertainty, modern bacterial classification emphasizes molecular systematics, using genetic techniques such as guanine cytosine ratio determination, genome-genome hybridization, as well as sequencing genes that have not undergone extensive lateral gene transfer, such as the rRNA gene. Classification of bacteria is determined by publication in the International Journal of Systematic Bacteriology, and Bergey's Manual of Systematic Bacteriology. The International Committee on Systematic Bacteriology (ICSB) maintains international rules for the naming of bacteria and taxonomic categories and for the ranking of them in the International Code of Nomenclature of Bacteria.
What would original term "bacteria" determine?
572fd9ccb2c2fd1400568503
all microscopic, single-cell prokaryotes
49
False
What are two main groups of prokaryotic organisms are divided into?
572fd9ccb2c2fd1400568504
Eubacteria and Archaebacteria
200
False
What groups of organisms are closely related to each other?
572fd9ccb2c2fd1400568505
archaea and eukaryotes
331
False
What domain system is commonly used nowdays to classify microorganisms?
572fd9ccb2c2fd1400568506
three-domain system
485
False
The term "bacteria" was traditionally applied to all microscopic, single-cell prokaryotes. However, molecular systematics showed prokaryotic life to consist of two separate domains, originally called Eubacteria and Archaebacteria, but now called Bacteria and Archaea that evolved independently from an ancient common ancestor. The archaea and eukaryotes are more closely related to each other than either is to the bacteria. These two domains, along with Eukarya, are the basis of the three-domain system, which is currently the most widely used classification system in microbiolology. However, due to the relatively recent introduction of molecular systematics and a rapid increase in the number of genome sequences that are available, bacterial classification remains a changing and expanding field. For example, a few biologists argue that the Archaea and Eukaryotes evolved from Gram-positive bacteria.
What was developed by Hans Christian  Gram?
572fdb47947a6a140053cd56
The Gram stain
0
False
What year was the Grahm stain was developed?
572fdb47947a6a140053cd57
1884
29
False
What color do Gram positive bacteria cell walls turn to after being stained?
572fdb47947a6a140053cd58
purple
215
False
What color is typical for Gram-negative bacteria after staining?
572fdb47947a6a140053cd59
pink
272
False
What stain shows better test results on Norcadia bacteria?
572fdb47947a6a140053cd5a
Ziehl–Neelsen
620
False
The Gram stain, developed in 1884 by Hans Christian Gram, characterises bacteria based on the structural characteristics of their cell walls. The thick layers of peptidoglycan in the "Gram-positive" cell wall stain purple, while the thin "Gram-negative" cell wall appears pink. By combining morphology and Gram-staining, most bacteria can be classified as belonging to one of four groups (Gram-positive cocci, Gram-positive bacilli, Gram-negative cocci and Gram-negative bacilli). Some organisms are best identified by stains other than the Gram stain, particularly mycobacteria or Nocardia, which show acid-fastness on Ziehl–Neelsen or similar stains. Other organisms may need to be identified by their growth in special media, or by other techniques, such as serology.
What technique has becoming more popular in classification of bacteria?
572fde67947a6a140053cd84
molecular methods
83
False
What tool does DNA based diagnostics use?
572fde67947a6a140053cd85
polymerase chain reaction
145
False
What else can molecular methods of classification reveal?
572fde67947a6a140053cd86
identification of "viable but nonculturable" cells
311
False
Can new methods determine a total number of bacteria species?
572fde67947a6a140053cd87
cannot even be estimated with any certainty
509
False
As with bacterial classification, identification of bacteria is increasingly using molecular methods. Diagnostics using DNA-based tools, such as polymerase chain reaction, are increasingly popular due to their specificity and speed, compared to culture-based methods. These methods also allow the detection and identification of "viable but nonculturable" cells that are metabolically active but non-dividing. However, even using these improved methods, the total number of bacterial species is not known and cannot even be estimated with any certainty. Following present classification, there are a little less than 9,300 known species of prokaryotes, which includes bacteria and archaea; but attempts to estimate the true number of bacterial diversity have ranged from 107 to 109 total species – and even these diverse estimates may be off by many orders of magnitude.
Why are certain bacteria called predatory?
572fdfbda23a5019007fcab1
bacteria kill and then consume other microorganisms
16
False
Which way do Vampirovibrio absorb nutrients of other microorganisms?
572fdfbda23a5019007fcab2
attach to their prey in order to digest them
277
False
What technique do Daptobacter use in order to kill other microorganism?
572fdfbda23a5019007fcab3
invade another cell and multiply inside the cytosol
385
False
Where do Daptobacter bacteria come from?
572fdfbda23a5019007fcab4
saprophages
517
False
Some species of bacteria kill and then consume other microorganisms, these species are called predatory bacteria. These include organisms such as Myxococcus xanthus, which forms swarms of cells that kill and digest any bacteria they encounter. Other bacterial predators either attach to their prey in order to digest them and absorb nutrients, such as Vampirovibrio chlorellavorus, or invade another cell and multiply inside the cytosol, such as Daptobacter. These predatory bacteria are thought to have evolved from saprophages that consumed dead microorganisms, through adaptations that allowed them to entrap and kill other organisms.
What helps bacteria to survive?
572fe0c2b2c2fd140056854d
close spatial associations
22
False
What kind of bacteria can form interspecies hydrogen transfer?
572fe0c2b2c2fd140056854e
anaerobic bacteria
188
False
What do anaerobic bacteria consume?
572fe0c2b2c2fd140056854f
butyric acid or propionic acid
243
False
Certain bacteria form close spatial associations that are essential for their survival. One such mutualistic association, called interspecies hydrogen transfer, occurs between clusters of anaerobic bacteria that consume organic acids, such as butyric acid or propionic acid, and produce hydrogen, and methanogenic Archaea that consume hydrogen. The bacteria in this association are unable to consume the organic acids as this reaction produces hydrogen that accumulates in their surroundings. Only the intimate association with the hydrogen-consuming Archaea keeps the hydrogen concentration low enough to allow the bacteria to grow.
Where do bacteria stay in soil?
572fe23504bcaa1900d76e41
rhizosphere
43
False
What do bacteria do in soil?
572fe23504bcaa1900d76e42
converting nitrogen gas to nitrogenous compounds
183
False
How does the conversion help the vegetation?
572fe23504bcaa1900d76e43
provide an easily absorbable form of nitrogen
248
False
What is the amount of bacteria in human intestines?
572fe23504bcaa1900d76e44
over 1,000 bacterial species
452
False
How does gut flora prevent growth of pathogenic bacteria?
572fe23504bcaa1900d76e45
through competitive exclusion
833
False
In soil, microorganisms that reside in the rhizosphere (a zone that includes the root surface and the soil that adheres to the root after gentle shaking) carry out nitrogen fixation, converting nitrogen gas to nitrogenous compounds. This serves to provide an easily absorbable form of nitrogen for many plants, which cannot fix nitrogen themselves. Many other bacteria are found as symbionts in humans and other organisms. For example, the presence of over 1,000 bacterial species in the normal human gut flora of the intestines can contribute to gut immunity, synthesise vitamins, such as folic acid, vitamin K and biotin, convert sugars to lactic acid (see Lactobacillus), as well as fermenting complex undigestible carbohydrates. The presence of this gut flora also inhibits the growth of potentially pathogenic bacteria (usually through competitive exclusion) and these beneficial bacteria are consequently sold as probiotic dietary supplements.
What are the pathogenes?
572fe3adb2c2fd1400568571
bacteria form a parasitic association with other organisms
3
False
What can pathogenes cause?
572fe3adb2c2fd1400568572
human death and disease
135
False
Can cause for most pathogenic diseases be found soon?
572fe3adb2c2fd1400568573
may only be discovered many years after
335
False
If bacteria form a parasitic association with other organisms, they are classed as pathogens. Pathogenic bacteria are a major cause of human death and disease and cause infections such as tetanus, typhoid fever, diphtheria, syphilis, cholera, foodborne illness, leprosy and tuberculosis. A pathogenic cause for a known medical disease may only be discovered many years after, as was the case with Helicobacter pylori and peptic ulcer disease. Bacterial diseases are also important in agriculture, with bacteria causing leaf spot, fire blight and wilts in plants, as well as Johne's disease, mastitis, salmonella and anthrax in farm animals.
How pathogenes interact with it's human host?
572fe57704bcaa1900d76e73
pathogen has a characteristic spectrum of interactions
16
False
Can all bacteria in human body  be harmful?
572fe57704bcaa1900d76e74
exist on the skin or in the nose without causing any disease
383
False
Which bacteria cause Rocky Mountain spotted fever disiease?
572fe57704bcaa1900d76e75
species of Rickettsia
644
False
Each species of pathogen has a characteristic spectrum of interactions with its human hosts. Some organisms, such as Staphylococcus or Streptococcus, can cause skin infections, pneumonia, meningitis and even overwhelming sepsis, a systemic inflammatory response producing shock, massive vasodilation and death. Yet these organisms are also part of the normal human flora and usually exist on the skin or in the nose without causing any disease at all. Other organisms invariably cause disease in humans, such as the Rickettsia, which are obligate intracellular parasites able to grow and reproduce only within the cells of other organisms. One species of Rickettsia causes typhus, while another causes Rocky Mountain spotted fever. Chlamydia, another phylum of obligate intracellular parasites, contains species that can cause pneumonia, or urinary tract infection and may be involved in coronary heart disease. Finally, some species, such as Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Burkholderia cenocepacia, and Mycobacterium avium, are opportunistic pathogens and cause disease mainly in people suffering from immunosuppression or cystic fibrosis.
What type of antibiotics called bacterocidal?
572fe75e04bcaa1900d76e79
if they kill bacteria
92
False
What kind of antibiotics are used for prevention of bacterial growth
572fe75e04bcaa1900d76e7a
bacteriostatic
118
False
Besides in treating human disease where else are antibiotics used?
572fe75e04bcaa1900d76e7b
in intensive farming to promote animal growth
547
False
What is the drawback of using antibiotics if agriculture?
572fe75e04bcaa1900d76e7c
rapid development of antibiotic resistance in bacterial populations
632
False
What is common prevention method of infections in medicine?
572fe75e04bcaa1900d76e7d
sterilizing
760
False
Bacterial infections may be treated with antibiotics, which are classified as bacteriocidal if they kill bacteria, or bacteriostatic if they just prevent bacterial growth. There are many types of antibiotics and each class inhibits a process that is different in the pathogen from that found in the host. An example of how antibiotics produce selective toxicity are chloramphenicol and puromycin, which inhibit the bacterial ribosome, but not the structurally different eukaryotic ribosome. Antibiotics are used both in treating human disease and in intensive farming to promote animal growth, where they may be contributing to the rapid development of antibiotic resistance in bacterial populations. Infections can be prevented by antiseptic measures such as sterilizing the skin prior to piercing it with the needle of a syringe, and by proper care of indwelling catheters. Surgical and dental instruments are also sterilized to prevent contamination by bacteria. Disinfectants such as bleach are used to kill bacteria or other pathogens on surfaces to prevent contamination and further reduce the risk of infection.
What quality of bacteria is being widely used re-cyling?
572fe8d0b2c2fd14005685b9
ability of bacteria to degrade a variety of organic compounds
4
False
What is being used in cleaning up oil spills?
572fe8d0b2c2fd14005685ba
Bacteria
138
False
What other way is bacteria aiding to nature?
572fe8d0b2c2fd14005685bb
used for the bioremediation
518
False
The ability of bacteria to degrade a variety of organic compounds is remarkable and has been used in waste processing and bioremediation. Bacteria capable of digesting the hydrocarbons in petroleum are often used to clean up oil spills. Fertilizer was added to some of the beaches in Prince William Sound in an attempt to promote the growth of these naturally occurring bacteria after the 1989 Exxon Valdez oil spill. These efforts were effective on beaches that were not too thickly covered in oil. Bacteria are also used for the bioremediation of industrial toxic wastes. In the chemical industry, bacteria are most important in the production of enantiomerically pure chemicals for use as pharmaceuticals or agrichemicals.
What sciences use bacteria?
572fea3d04bcaa1900d76ea7
molecular biology, genetics and biochemistry
145
False
Because of their ability to quickly grow and the relative ease with which they can be manipulated, bacteria are the workhorses for the fields of molecular biology, genetics and biochemistry. By making mutations in bacterial DNA and examining the resulting phenotypes, scientists can determine the function of genes, enzymes and metabolic pathways in bacteria, then apply this knowledge to more complex organisms. This aim of understanding the biochemistry of a cell reaches its most complex expression in the synthesis of huge amounts of enzyme kinetic and gene expression data into mathematical models of entire organisms. This is achievable in some well-studied bacteria, with models of Escherichia coli metabolism now being produced and tested. This understanding of bacterial metabolism and genetics allows the use of biotechnology to bioengineer bacteria for the production of therapeutic proteins, such as insulin, growth factors, or antibodies.
When was the first time bacteria were observed?
572febaaa23a5019007fcb3f
1676
82
False
Who discovered bacteria?
572febaaa23a5019007fcb40
Dutch microscopist Antonie van Leeuwenhoek
36
False
How was he able to see bacteria?
572febaaa23a5019007fcb41
using a single-lens microscope of his own design
88
False
How long did it take for his discovery to be taken seriously?
572febaaa23a5019007fcb42
over a century
470
False
Bacteria were first observed by the Dutch microscopist Antonie van Leeuwenhoek in 1676, using a single-lens microscope of his own design. He then published his observations in a series of letters to the Royal Society of London. Bacteria were Leeuwenhoek's most remarkable microscopic discovery. They were just at the limit of what his simple lenses could make out and, in one of the most striking hiatuses in the history of science, no one else would see them again for over a century. Only then were his by-then-largely-forgotten observations of bacteria — as opposed to his famous "animalcules" (spermatozoa) — taken seriously.
When was the first antibiotic discovered?
572fed76a23a5019007fcb47
In 1910
146
False
Who was the creator of antibiotic?
572fed76a23a5019007fcb48
Paul Ehrlich
155
False
What bacteria did he treat first?
572fed76a23a5019007fcb49
Treponema pallidum
242
False
How was his discovery aknowledged?
572fed76a23a5019007fcb4a
had been awarded a 1908 Nobel Prize
363
False
Who based their research on Enrlich's stains works?
572fed76a23a5019007fcb4b
Gram stain and the Ziehl–Neelsen
529
False
Though it was known in the nineteenth century that bacteria are the cause of many diseases, no effective antibacterial treatments were available. In 1910, Paul Ehrlich developed the first antibiotic, by changing dyes that selectively stained Treponema pallidum — the spirochaete that causes syphilis — into compounds that selectively killed the pathogen. Ehrlich had been awarded a 1908 Nobel Prize for his work on immunology, and pioneered the use of stains to detect and identify bacteria, with his work being the basis of the Gram stain and the Ziehl–Neelsen stain.
Printed_circuit_board
What's the more appropriate, but mostly unused, name for a printed circuit board when it doesn't have embedded components?
572f8d4da23a5019007fc72b
printed wiring board
72
False
What's the abbreviation for a printed wiring board?
572f8d4da23a5019007fc72c
PWB
94
False
What would we call a printed circuit board with embedded electronics, abbreviated PCA?
572f8d4da23a5019007fc72d
printed circuit assembly
241
False
What organization likes the term "circuit card assembly" for boards that have already been assembled?
572f8d4da23a5019007fc72e
IPC
332
False
What abbreviation would the IPC use for an assembled circuit board?
572f8d4da23a5019007fc72f
CCA
398
False
a printed wiring board (PWB)
70
When the board has embedded components it is called what?
5ace62d032bba1001ae4a50d
True
etched wiring board
102
A painted wiring board can also be called what?
5ace62d032bba1001ae4a50e
True
disuse
178
The term painted wiring board has fallen into what?
5ace62d032bba1001ae4a50f
True
circuit card assembly (CCA)
375
The IPC preferred term for assembled bags is what?
5ace62d032bba1001ae4a510
True
backplane assemblies
439
The IPC preferred term for assembled backplates is what?
5ace62d032bba1001ae4a511
True
When the board has no embedded components it is more correctly called a printed wiring board (PWB) or etched wiring board. However, the term printed wiring board has fallen into disuse. A PCB populated with electronic components is called a printed circuit assembly (PCA), printed circuit board assembly or PCB assembly (PCBA). The IPC preferred term for assembled boards is circuit card assembly (CCA), and for assembled backplanes it is backplane assemblies. The term PCB is used informally both for bare and assembled boards.
What did PCB designers used to employ on a mylar sheet?
572f8ec5947a6a140053ca5e
photomask
52
False
In the old PCB design method, what was used to connect component pin pads?
572f8ec5947a6a140053ca5f
traces
225
False
What were traces originally made out of?
572f8ec5947a6a140053ca60
self-adhesive tape
361
False
Designers would rub on a dry transfer of what to make the process of laying out components simpler?
572f8ec5947a6a140053ca61
common component footprints
289
False
What kind of metal coated the blank boards used to make PCBs?
572f8ec5947a6a140053ca62
copper
572
False
by creating a photomask on a clear mylar sheet
38
Initially PCBs were designed mechanically how?
5ace638f32bba1001ae4a53f
True
traces were routed to connect the pads
225
Pin pads were laid out on the nylon and then what?
5ace638f32bba1001ae4a540
True
Traces
339
Self-adhesive mylar was used to make what?
5ace638f32bba1001ae4a541
True
layout
440
Pre-printed reproducing grids on the mylar assisted in what?
5ace638f32bba1001ae4a542
True
the finished photomask
472
Printed copper-clad boards were used to make what?
5ace638f32bba1001ae4a543
True
Initially PCBs were designed manually by creating a photomask on a clear mylar sheet, usually at two or four times the true size. Starting from the schematic diagram the component pin pads were laid out on the mylar and then traces were routed to connect the pads. Rub-on dry transfers of common component footprints increased efficiency. Traces were made with self-adhesive tape. Pre-printed non-reproducing grids on the mylar assisted in layout. To fabricate the board, the finished photomask was photolithographically reproduced onto a photoresist coating on the blank copper-clad boards.
What process groups PCBs before transfer to a panel?
572f9268a23a5019007fc785
Panelization
0
False
Is it more common for panels to have a single design or many designs?
572f9268a23a5019007fc786
a single design
144
False
What type of panels can also be referred to as an "array?'
572f9268a23a5019007fc787
assembly panels
251
False
Besides assembly panels, what's the other type of panel?
572f9268a23a5019007fc788
bare board manufacturing panels
295
False
What step of the bare board manufacture would be impossible if panels weren't always used?
572f9268a23a5019007fc789
the plating process
532
False
multiple designs are mixed on a single panel.
174
Usually a panel consists of multiple designs, but sometimes what?
5ace644132bba1001ae4a563
True
assembly panels - often called arrays - and bare board manufacturing panels
251
The two types of portals are what?
5ace644132bba1001ae4a564
True
grouping of individual PCBs or of arrays
597
Depending on what must be discussed, a manufacturing panel can consist of what?
5ace644132bba1001ae4a565
True
this is efficient
408
Assemblers often mount components on portals rather than single PCBs why?
5ace644132bba1001ae4a566
True
Panelization is a procedure whereby a number of PCBs are grouped for manufacturing onto a larger board - the panel. Usually a panel consists of a single design but sometimes multiple designs are mixed on a single panel. There are two types of panels: assembly panels - often called arrays - and bare board manufacturing panels. The assemblers often mount components on panels rather than single PCBs because this is efficient. The bare board manufactures always uses panels, not only for efficiency, but because of the requirements the plating process. Thus a manufacturing panel can consist of a grouping of individual PCBs or of arrays, depending on what must be delivered.
What is the process called whereby the individual PCBs are separated?
572f94e7b2c2fd140056821b
depaneling
74
False
What boundaries would you follow to separate PCBs on a panel?
572f94e7b2c2fd140056821c
individual circuits
201
False
What technology has made depaneling possible without needing to physically interact with the board?
572f94e7b2c2fd140056821d
lasers
474
False
What does the V-shaped groove method save?
572f94e7b2c2fd140056821e
space
292
False
What delicate component is less likely to be damaged if laser depanelization is used?
572f94e7b2c2fd140056821f
circuits
567
False
individual PCBs
42
The panel is eventually merged into what?
5ace64bc32bba1001ae4a56b
True
The panel is eventually broken apart into individual PCBs
0
The process of deadpanning is what?
5ace64bc32bba1001ae4a56c
True
line of weakness
422
Individual PCBs can be merged along what line?
5ace64bc32bba1001ae4a56d
True
by lasers which cut the board with no contact
471
In the old days, depaneling was often done how?
5ace64bc32bba1001ae4a56e
True
The panel is eventually broken apart into individual PCBs; this is called depaneling. Separating the individual PCBs is frequently aided by drilling or routing perforations along the boundaries of the individual circuits, much like a sheet of postage stamps. Another method, which takes less space, is to cut V-shaped grooves across the full dimension of the panel. The individual PCBs can then be broken apart along this line of weakness. Today depaneling is often done by lasers which cut the board with no contact. Laser panelization reduces stress on the fragile circuits.
Do additive or subtractive methods use less raw materials?
572f97ee947a6a140053caac
additive
230
False
What chemical element is often present in the bath used to sensitive exposed film after it's been imaged?
572f97ee947a6a140053caad
palladium
566
False
What object is used to expose selected parts of the photosensitive film to light?
572f97ee947a6a140053caae
mask
435
False
In subtractive methods, what metal covers the board and is then partially removed?
572f97ee947a6a140053caaf
copper
27
False
In the additive method, which parts of the laminate are plated with copper?
572f97ee947a6a140053cab0
sensitized areas
733
False
material is needed and less waste is produced
259
The advantage of the subtractive method is that less what?
5ace65c132bba1001ae4a591
True
the full additive process
309
Bare laminate is placed on top of photosensitive film in what process?
5ace65c132bba1001ae4a592
True
the full additive process
309
The exposed areas are sensitized using plutonium in what process?
5ace65c132bba1001ae4a593
True
the full additive process
309
The laminate is plated with silver during what process?
5ace65c132bba1001ae4a594
True
the mask
756
When the PCB is stripped, what is finished?
5ace65c132bba1001ae4a595
True
Subtractive methods remove copper from an entirely copper-coated board to leave only the desired copper pattern. In additive methods the pattern is electroplated onto a bare substrate using a complex process. The advantage of the additive method is that less material is needed and less waste is produced. In the full additive process the bare laminate is covered with a photosensitive film which is imaged (exposed to light through a mask and then developed which removes the unexposed film). The exposed areas are sensitized in a chemical bath, usually containing palladium and similar to that used for through hole plating which makes the exposed area capable of bonding metal ions. The laminate is then plated with copper in the sensitized areas. When the mask is stripped, the PCB is finished.
In the semi-additive process, what do the areas exposed by the mask become at the end?
572f9d1db2c2fd140056825f
traces
253
False
What metal is used to plate the unmasked parts of the board in the semi-additive method?
572f9d1db2c2fd1400568260
copper
273
False
After the mask comes off of the board, what step takes off the original plating?
572f9d1db2c2fd1400568261
etching
468
False
What company used to make radios with additive boards in the mid-20th century?
572f9d1db2c2fd1400568262
General Electric
663
False
What weight of plating is possible with copper?
572f9d1db2c2fd1400568263
any
357
False
process
33
Fully additive is the most common what?
5ace687232bba1001ae4a5d1
True
the board in the unmasked areas; copper may be plated to any desired weight
300
Additional silver is plated onto what?
5ace687232bba1001ae4a5d2
True
General Electric
663
Who made consumer radio sets in the late 1940s using additive boards?
5ace687232bba1001ae4a5d3
True
copper
84
The patterned board has a thin layer of what already on it?
5ace687232bba1001ae4a5d4
True
Semi-additive is the most common process: The unpatterned board has a thin layer of copper already on it. A reverse mask is then applied. (Unlike a subtractive process mask, this mask exposes those parts of the substrate that will eventually become the traces.) Additional copper is then plated onto the board in the unmasked areas; copper may be plated to any desired weight. Tin-lead or other surface platings are then applied. The mask is stripped away and a brief etching step removes the now-exposed bare original copper laminate from the board, isolating the individual traces. Some single-sided boards which have plated-through holes are made in this way. General Electric made consumer radio sets in the late 1960s using additive boards.
What non-professionals might use immersion etching, since it's the easiest way to make a PCB?
572f9fd104bcaa1900d76aff
hobbyists
66
False
Is the immersion etching process long or short compared to other production methods?
572f9fd104bcaa1900d76b00
long
244
False
If you wanted to speed up the etching process, you could agitate the bath up or add what to it?
572f9fd104bcaa1900d76b01
Heat
250
False
What funny name is used for the etching process where air is blown through the etching solution to get it moving around?
572f9fd104bcaa1900d76b02
bubble etching
326
False
What's the fastest and most easily controlled process for etching?
572f9fd104bcaa1900d76b03
spray etching
590
False
the board is submerged in etching solution such as ferric chloride
108
Immaculate etching is the process where what?
5ace694132bba1001ae4a601
True
methods used for mass production
190
Etching time is short compared to what?
5ace694132bba1001ae4a602
True
Adjustment of the nozzle pattern, flow rate, temperature, and etchant composition
696
What gives unpredictable control of etching rates and high production rates?
5ace694132bba1001ae4a603
True
bubble etching
326
Air is passed through the etchant bath to slow the etching in what process?
5ace694132bba1001ae4a604
True
The simplest method, used for small-scale production and often by hobbyists, is immersion etching, in which the board is submerged in etching solution such as ferric chloride. Compared with methods used for mass production, the etching time is long. Heat and agitation can be applied to the bath to speed the etching rate. In bubble etching, air is passed through the etchant bath to agitate the solution and speed up etching. Splash etching uses a motor-driven paddle to splash boards with etchant; the process has become commercially obsolete since it is not as fast as spray etching. In spray etching, the etchant solution is distributed over the boards by nozzles, and recirculated by pumps. Adjustment of the nozzle pattern, flow rate, temperature, and etchant composition gives predictable control of etching rates and high production rates.
If you started with a two-sided laminate etched on either side, laminated to the top and bottom, and processed it again to get traces on the outside layers, how many layers would your final PCB have?
572fa22c04bcaa1900d76b1d
four
251
False
What makes up the inside of a multi-layer PCB?
572fa22c04bcaa1900d76b1e
trace layers
40
False
Pressure is one thing you need to apply to make a multi-layer PCB; what's the other thing?
572fa22c04bcaa1900d76b1f
heat
159
False
What tool is used to push the trace layers in a multi-layer PCB together?
572fa22c04bcaa1900d76b20
press
128
False
inside the board
53
Single-layer printed circuit boards have trace layers where?
5ace6a0e32bba1001ae4a619
True
by starting from a two-sided copper-clad laminate, etch the circuitry on both sides, then laminate to the top and bottom pre-preg and copper foil
284
A five-layer PCB can be fabricated how?
5ace6a0e32bba1001ae4a61a
True
Multi-layer printed circuit boards
0
What kind of circuit boards result from applying pressure and cold air for a period of time?
5ace6a0e32bba1001ae4a61b
True
Multi-layer printed circuit boards
0
A silver-clad laminate can be found in what kind of circuit board?
5ace6a0e32bba1001ae4a61c
True
copper
418
A five-layer PCB uses what kind of foil?
5ace6a0e32bba1001ae4a61d
True
Multi-layer printed circuit boards have trace layers inside the board. This is achieved by laminating a stack of materials in a press by applying pressure and heat for a period of time. This results in an inseparable one piece product. For example, a four-layer PCB can be fabricated by starting from a two-sided copper-clad laminate, etch the circuitry on both sides, then laminate to the top and bottom pre-preg and copper foil. It is then drilled, plated, and etched again to get traces on top and bottom layers.
What kind of drill bit do you need to drill holes in a PCB?
572fa37304bcaa1900d76b25
coated tungsten carbide
87
False
What kind of material sometimes used for drilling will lose sharpness quickly if used for PCBs?
572fa37304bcaa1900d76b26
high-speed-steel
347
False
What property do PCBs have that makes them tough to drill through?
572fa37304bcaa1900d76b27
abrasive
187
False
What does the "NCD" in "NCD files" mean?
572fa37304bcaa1900d76b28
numerically controlled drill
633
False
What's another name for NCD files that has an "x" in it?
572fa37304bcaa1900d76b29
Excellon files
678
False
with small-diameter drill bits
42
Holes through a PBC are drilled how?
5ace6a8532bba1001ae4a62d
True
so as not to mar or tear the traces
296
Drill bits must remain dull why?
5ace6a8532bba1001ae4a62e
True
since the drill bits will dull quickly and thus tear the copper and ruin the boards
387
Drilling with high-speed-steel is feasible why?
5ace6a8532bba1001ae4a62f
True
the location and size of each drilled hole
720
The dull file describes what?
5ace6a8532bba1001ae4a630
True
cost effective
246
Drilling must be low RPM and high feed to be what?
5ace6a8532bba1001ae4a631
True
Holes through a PCB are typically drilled with small-diameter drill bits made of solid coated tungsten carbide. Coated tungsten carbide is recommended since many board materials are very abrasive and drilling must be high RPM and high feed to be cost effective. Drill bits must also remain sharp so as not to mar or tear the traces. Drilling with high-speed-steel is simply not feasible since the drill bits will dull quickly and thus tear the copper and ruin the boards. The drilling is performed by automated drilling machines with placement controlled by a drill tape or drill file. These computer-generated files are also called numerically controlled drill (NCD) files or "Excellon files". The drill file describes the location and size of each drilled hole.
What do the hole walls in two-layer PCBs have to be before they can be electroplated?
572fa92fb2c2fd14005682d3
conductive
62
False
What's the minimum number of layers a PCB can have to be considered "multi-layer"?
572fa92fb2c2fd14005682d4
three
241
False
What process does a multi-layer PCB usually undergo before plating to make sure the layers have good connectivity with each other?
572fa92fb2c2fd14005682d5
de-smear
509
False
What type of boards undergo the etch-back process?
572fa92fb2c2fd14005682d6
high reliability
622
False
Etch-back removes glass fibers and what other material?
572fa92fb2c2fd14005682d7
resin
774
False
holes
145
What connects the conducting layers of the PAB?
5ace6b3e32bba1001ae4a641
True
process
477
Smears are removed with a chemical smear what?
5ace6b3e32bba1001ae4a642
True
etch-back
663
The process used on low-reliability boards is called what?
5ace6b3e32bba1001ae4a643
True
resin and the glass fibers
774
The back-etch removes what?
5ace6b3e32bba1001ae4a644
True
the hole
855
What becomes integral with the deposited silver?
5ace6b3e32bba1001ae4a645
True
The hole walls for boards with two or more layers can be made conductive and then electroplated with copper to form plated-through holes.  These holes electrically connect the conducting layers of the PCB. For multi-layer boards, those with three layers or more, drilling typically produces a smear of the high temperature decomposition products of bonding agent in the laminate system. Before the holes can be plated through, this smear must be removed by a chemical de-smear process, or by plasma-etch. The de-smear process ensures that a good connection is made to the copper layers when the hole is plated through. On high reliability boards a process called etch-back is performed chemically with a potassium permanganate based etchant or plasma. The etch-back removes resin and the glass fibers so that the copper layers extend into the hole and as the hole is plated become integral with the deposited copper.
What happens to untreated copper that makes it difficult to solder?
572fb2d4b2c2fd140056836d
oxidizes
275
False
What chemical treatment will prevent bare copper from oxidizing?
572fb2d4b2c2fd140056836e
benzimidazolethiol
114
False
What's the process by which bare copper gets covered in solder?
572fb2d4b2c2fd140056836f
hot air solder levelling
394
False
What does hot air solder leveling ensure the coated copper will have?
572fb2d4b2c2fd1400568370
solderable surface
513
False
What alloy can no longer be used in HASL because of restrictions on the use of one of its metal components?
572fb2d4b2c2fd1400568371
tin-lead
551
False
provide a better bonding surface or stripped to bare copper
33
Shiny solder is usually fused to do what?
5ace6bfc32bba1001ae4a655
True
benzimidazolethiol
114
What encourages surface oxidation of bare copper?
5ace6bfc32bba1001ae4a656
True
solder
384
Traditionally, any exposed silver was coated with what?
5ace6bfc32bba1001ae4a657
True
the underlying copper
467
The HASL finish encourages oxidation from what?
5ace6bfc32bba1001ae4a658
True
new solder compounds
575
What is now used in compliance with the RoHS directive in the EU and China?
5ace6bfc32bba1001ae4a659
True
Matte solder is usually fused to provide a better bonding surface or stripped to bare copper. Treatments, such as benzimidazolethiol, prevent surface oxidation of bare copper. The places to which components will be mounted are typically plated, because untreated bare copper oxidizes quickly, and therefore is not readily solderable. Traditionally, any exposed copper was coated with solder by hot air solder levelling (HASL). The HASL finish prevents oxidation from the underlying copper, thereby guaranteeing a solderable surface. This solder was a tin-lead alloy, however new solder compounds are now used to achieve compliance with the RoHS directive in the EU and US, which restricts the use of lead. One of these lead-free compounds is SN100CL, made up of 99.3% tin, 0.7% copper, 0.05% nickel, and a nominal of 60ppm germanium.
What does OSP stand for?
572fb4cfb2c2fd1400568381
organic surface protectant
29
False
What metal is often under the gold plating on edge connectors?
572fb4cfb2c2fd1400568382
nickel
321
False
What's the abbreviation for immersion silver plating?
572fb4cfb2c2fd1400568383
IAg
76
False
Ag3Cu is one intermetallic that tin forms; what's the other one?
572fb4cfb2c2fd1400568384
Cu5Sn6
469
False
What might the rapid diffusion of coating metal into tin solder leave in the surface coating?
572fb4cfb2c2fd1400568385
voids
577
False
nickel plated then gold plated
321
Main connectors, placed along one edge of some boards, are often what?
5ace700032bba1001ae4a6b7
True
rapid diffusion of coating metal into Tin solder
386
The only coating consideration is what?
5ace700032bba1001ae4a6b8
True
Tin
436
What forms intermetallics such a Cu66n6?
5ace700032bba1001ae4a6b9
True
plating
233
Electroless silver with immersion gold coating (ENIG) is an example of what?
5ace700032bba1001ae4a6ba
True
plating
233
Electroless silver electroless palladium immersion gold (ENEPIG) is an example of what?
5ace700032bba1001ae4a6bb
True
Other platings used are OSP (organic surface protectant), immersion silver (IAg), immersion tin, electroless nickel with immersion gold coating (ENIG), electroless nickel electroless palladium immersion gold (ENEPIG) and direct gold plating (over nickel). Edge connectors, placed along one edge of some boards, are often nickel plated then gold plated. Another coating consideration is rapid diffusion of coating metal into Tin solder. Tin forms intermetallics such as Cu5Sn6 and Ag3Cu that dissolve into the Tin liquidus or solidus(@50C), stripping surface coating or leaving voids.
What's the process whereby metal filaments are grown on or in a PCB via DC voltage?
572fb648b2c2fd140056839d
Electrochemical migration
0
False
Along with silver and aluminum, what metal grows metal filaments when exposed to an electric field?
572fb648b2c2fd140056839e
zinc
165
False
In addition to "whiskers," what does silver sprout around ions like halide?
572fb648b2c2fd140056839f
conducting surface paths
271
False
What do scientist call the function whereby tin changes when it's very cold?
572fb648b2c2fd14005683a0
tin pest
651
False
What's present in plated surfaces that causes tin to grow metal filaments?
572fb648b2c2fd14005683a1
tension
415
False
Silver
253
What material is a good choice for electronics use?
5ace7ceb32bba1001ae4a7ed
True
coating
634
Tin plast is what type of issue?
5ace7ceb32bba1001ae4a7ee
True
tin pest
651
The transformation of silver to a powdery allotrope at low temperature is know as what?
5ace7ceb32bba1001ae4a7ef
True
conductive metal filaments
49
AC voltage bias helps promote the growth of what?
5ace7ceb32bba1001ae4a7f0
True
Electrochemical migration (ECM) is the growth of conductive metal filaments on or in a printed circuit board (PCB) under the influence of a DC voltage bias. Silver, zinc, and aluminum are known to grow whiskers under the influence of an electric field. Silver also grows conducting surface paths in the presence of halide and other ions, making it a poor choice for electronics use. Tin will grow "whiskers" due to tension in the plated surface. Tin-Lead or solder plating also grows whiskers, only reduced by the percentage Tin replaced. Reflow to melt solder or tin plate to relieve surface stress lowers whisker incidence. Another coating issue is tin pest, the transformation of tin to a powdery allotrope at low temperature.
If part of a PCB isn't solderable, what can be used instead?
572fd395b2c2fd14005684bd
solder resist
54
False
What's another term used for "solder resist"?
572fd395b2c2fd14005684be
solder mask
69
False
What solder resist with a four-word name is a popular choice in the industry?
572fd395b2c2fd14005684bf
liquid photoimageable solder mask
149
False
What kind of coating gets applied to the PWB before light exposure?
572fd395b2c2fd14005684c0
photo-sensitive
188
False
What solder resist is so inaccurate that few choose it anymore?
572fd395b2c2fd14005684c1
screen print epoxy ink
630
False
solder resist
54
Areas that should be soldered may be covered with what?
5ace7db532bba1001ae4a807
True
the PWB
241
A photo-sensitive coating is applied beneath the surface of what?
5ace7db532bba1001ae4a808
True
the dry film used to image the PWB for plating or etching
408
Wet film solder mask is similar to what?
5ace7db532bba1001ae4a809
True
because of its low accuracy and resolution
581
Screen print epoxy ink is commonly used why?
5ace7db532bba1001ae4a80a
True
Solder resist
654
What doesn't provide protection from the environment?
5ace7db532bba1001ae4a80b
True
Areas that should not be soldered may be covered with solder resist (solder mask). One of the most common solder resists used today is called "LPI" (liquid photoimageable solder mask).  A photo-sensitive coating is applied to the surface of the PWB, then exposed to light through the solder mask image film, and finally developed where the unexposed areas are washed away. Dry film solder mask is similar to the dry film used to image the PWB for plating or etching. After being laminated to the PWB surface it is imaged and develop as LPI. Once common but no longer commonly used because of its low accuracy and resolution is to screen print epoxy ink. Solder resist also provides protection from the environment.
What are bare-board tests looking for besides "opens"?
572fd62fb2c2fd14005684e9
"shorts"
53
False
What's an absent connection that needs to be linked up on an unpopulated board called?
572fd62fb2c2fd14005684ea
An open
148
False
What conductive metal are the lands on a circuit board made out of?
572fd62fb2c2fd14005684eb
copper
605
False
What does a flying probe tester deliver to the contact points during testing?
572fd62fb2c2fd14005684ec
voltage
677
False
What system tells the flying probe where to go and what to do?
572fd62fb2c2fd14005684ed
CAM system
623
False
bare-board tested for "shorts" and "opens"
31
Populated boards are usually what?
5ace7e1b32bba1001ae4a811
True
two points that should not be connected
107
A long is a connection between what?
5ace7e1b32bba1001ae4a812
True
points that should be connected
188
A closed is a missing connection between what?
5ace7e1b32bba1001ae4a813
True
high-volume or high-value production
416
Building the adapter is low cost and economical for?
5ace7e1b32bba1001ae4a814
True
Unpopulated boards are usually bare-board tested for "shorts" and "opens". A short is a connection between two points that should not be connected. An open is a missing connection between points that should be connected. For high-volume production a fixture or a rigid needle adapter is used to make contact with copper lands on the board. Building the adapter is a significant fixed cost and is only economical for high-volume or high-value production. For small or medium volume production flying probe testers are used where test probes are moved over the board by an XY drive to make contact with the copper lands. The CAM system instructs the electrical tester to apply a voltage to each contact point as required and to check that this voltage appears on the appropriate contact points and only on these.
Surface-mount is one type of construction used in PCB assembly; what's the other one?
572fdf4104bcaa1900d76e27
through-hole
7
False
Which type of construction makes components that use more space?
572fdf4104bcaa1900d76e28
through-hole
269
False
Which of the two kinds of construction is weaker under strain?
572fdf4104bcaa1900d76e29
surface-mount
449
False
If you're building a circuit board that has a lot of components that won't be used, which construction would be better?
572fdf4104bcaa1900d76e2a
surface-mount
449
False
through-hole and surface-mount construction
7
What must be combined in a multiple assembly?
5ace7e9f32bba1001ae4a823
True
components likely to endure physical stress
323
Surface mount mounting can provide needed strength for what?
5ace7e9f32bba1001ae4a824
True
less space
432
Components that are expected to be touched will take up what?
5ace7e9f32bba1001ae4a825
True
surface-mount packages
144
All required components are available only in what?
5ace7e9f32bba1001ae4a826
True
Often, through-hole and surface-mount construction must be combined in a single assembly because some required components are available only in surface-mount packages, while others are available only in through-hole packages. Another reason to use both methods is that through-hole mounting can provide needed strength for components likely to endure physical stress, while components that are expected to go untouched will take up less space using surface-mount techniques. For further comparison, see the SMT page.
Do test circuits create permanent or temporary connections between traces?
572fe0d1947a6a140053cd9c
temporary
86
False
What's the most frequently used test configuration procedure for ICs?
572fe0d1947a6a140053cd9d
Joint Test Action Group
311
False
What would you avoid by using the Joint Test Action Group standard?
572fe0d1947a6a140053cd9e
physical test probes
471
False
What component of the printed circuit board is appraised with boundary scan testing?
572fe0d1947a6a140053cd9f
ICs
148
False
To whom would you go to acquire the algorithms you'd use for the Joint Test Action Group procedures?
572fe0d1947a6a140053cda0
JTAG tool vendors
493
False
that all the ICs to be tested use a standard test configuration procedure
206
Bouncing scan testing requires what?
5ace82d832bba1001ae4a8e7
True
the Joint Test Action Group (JTAG) standard
307
The least common standard test configuration procedure is what?
5ace82d832bba1001ae4a8e8
True
stimulus
536
JAG tool vendors provide various types of what?
5ace82d832bba1001ae4a8e9
True
test interconnects between integrated circuits on a board without using physical test probes
399
The JAG test architecture provides a means to what?
5ace82d832bba1001ae4a8ea
True
In boundary scan testing, test circuits integrated into various ICs on the board form temporary connections between the PCB traces to test that the ICs are mounted correctly. Boundary scan testing requires that all the ICs to be tested use a standard test configuration procedure, the most common one being the Joint Test Action Group (JTAG) standard. The JTAG test architecture provides a means to test interconnects between integrated circuits on a board without using physical test probes. JTAG tool vendors provide various types of stimulus and sophisticated algorithms, not only to detect the failing nets, but also to isolate the faults to specific nets, devices, and pins.
If a PCB is intended for use in an setting with extreme conditions, what would probably be applied?
572fe1edb2c2fd1400568553
conformal coating
52
False
A conformal coating can be applied by spraying the PCB or by doing what else to it?
572fe1edb2c2fd1400568554
dipping
91
False
The conformal coating can prevent leaking, shorts, and what other type of moisture damage?
572fe1edb2c2fd1400568555
corrosion
170
False
What material was first used for conformal coating?
572fe1edb2c2fd1400568556
wax
268
False
What action is made much more difficult for boards that have a conformal coating?
572fe1edb2c2fd1400568557
servicing
555
False
extreme
18
PABs are intended for what type of environment?
5ace83bd32bba1001ae4a915
True
a conformal coating
50
What type of coat encourages corrosion?
5ace83bd32bba1001ae4a916
True
servicing of the board is rendered extremely difficult
555
The chief advantage to conformal coatings is what?
5ace83bd32bba1001ae4a917
True
modern conformal coats
273
Which coatings are usually dips of dilute solutions of wax rubber?
5ace83bd32bba1001ae4a918
True
PCBs intended for extreme environments often have a conformal coating, which is applied by dipping or spraying after the components have been soldered. The coat prevents corrosion and leakage currents or shorting due to condensation. The earliest conformal coats were wax; modern conformal coats are usually dips of dilute solutions of silicone rubber, polyurethane, acrylic, or epoxy. Another technique for applying a conformal coating is for plastic to be sputtered onto the PCB in a vacuum chamber. The chief disadvantage of conformal coatings is that servicing of the board is rendered extremely difficult.
What special protection are most PCBs shipped in?
572fe399a23a5019007fcae1
antistatic bags
74
False
What's another term for "grounded" in the context of PCBs?
572fe399a23a5019007fcae2
earthed
163
False
What force can easily change or even completely destroy an etch on a PCB?
572fe399a23a5019007fcae3
static charge
470
False
What class of PCBs are even more susceptible to static than standard ones?
572fe399a23a5019007fcae4
non-traditional
512
False
Non-traditional PCBs include microwave PCBs and what other type of board?
572fe399a23a5019007fcae5
MCMs
541
False
static
24
Many assembled PABs are sensitive to what?
5ace846a32bba1001ae4a941
True
an accumulated static charge through the board
217
Proper handling techniques might transmit what?
5ace846a32bba1001ae4a942
True
assembled PCBs
5
What must be placed in static bags during transport?
5ace846a32bba1001ae4a943
True
Improper handling techniques
173
An accumulated static charge though the user happens when what is done?
5ace846a32bba1001ae4a944
True
Many assembled PCBs are static sensitive, and therefore must be placed in antistatic bags during transport. When handling these boards, the user must be grounded (earthed). Improper handling techniques might transmit an accumulated static charge through the board, damaging or destroying components. Even bare boards are sometimes static sensitive. Traces have become so fine that it's quite possible to blow an etch off the board (or change its characteristics) with a static charge. This is especially true on non-traditional PCBs such as MCMs and microwave PCBs.
If a lead wasn't soldered manually, what device was used?
572fe51904bcaa1900d76e5f
wave soldering machine
743
False
Which type of PCB construction technique was used first?
572fe51904bcaa1900d76e60
through-hole
20
False
In through-hole construction, what are the leads on the front attached to on the back?
572fe51904bcaa1900d76e61
copper traces
151
False
For boards with two sides, to what angle are leads bent to in order to install them horizontally?
572fe51904bcaa1900d76e62
90 degrees
462
False
What is improved by bending leads in opposite directions on the back of double-sided PCBs?
572fe51904bcaa1900d76e63
mechanical strength
627
False
by bending the leads 90 degrees in the same direction
441
Vertical installation of through-hole parts with two axial leads in done how?
5ace918632bba1001ae4aa51
True
90
462
Vertical installation is done by bending the leads what degrees?
5ace918632bba1001ae4aa52
True
manually
726
Leads have to be soldered in what way?
5ace918632bba1001ae4aa53
True
Leads
697
A wave sewing machine can solder the what?
5ace918632bba1001ae4aa54
True
The first PCBs used through-hole technology, mounting electronic components by leads inserted through holes on one side of the board and soldered onto copper traces on the other side. Boards may be single-sided, with an unplated component side, or more compact double-sided boards, with components soldered on both sides. Horizontal installation of through-hole parts with two axial leads (such as resistors, capacitors, and diodes) is done by bending the leads 90 degrees in the same direction, inserting the part in the board (often bending leads located on the back of the board in opposite directions to improve the part's mechanical strength), soldering the leads, and trimming off the ends. Leads may be soldered either manually or by a wave soldering machine.
Which type of construction is more expensive?
572fe9d5a23a5019007fcb2b
Through-hole
0
False
What type of boards end up with limited routing space in through-hole manufacture?
572fe9d5a23a5019007fcb2c
multi-layer
195
False
What force might damage a PCB if large components are surface mounted?
572fe9d5a23a5019007fcb2d
mechanical stress
522
False
What components can be surface mounted to save space?
572fe9d5a23a5019007fcb2e
small-sized SMD components
318
False
A component might not be able to be made any smaller because of its mechanical limitations or what other need?
572fe9d5a23a5019007fcb2f
power requirements
462
False
mechanical stress
522
What will not damage the PCB?
5ace91de32bba1001ae4aa63
True
PCB
563
Mechanical signs will damage the what?
5ace91de32bba1001ae4aa64
True
Through-hole manufacture
0
What increases the available routing area?
5ace91de32bba1001ae4aa65
True
Once surface-mounting came into use
281
Large-sized SMD components were used when?
5ace91de32bba1001ae4aa66
True
Through-hole manufacture adds to board cost by requiring many holes to be drilled accurately, and limits the available routing area for signal traces on layers immediately below the top layer on multi-layer boards since the holes must pass through all layers to the opposite side. Once surface-mounting came into use, small-sized SMD components were used where possible, with through-hole mounting only of components unsuitably large for surface-mounting due to power requirements or mechanical limitations, or subject to mechanical stress which might damage the PCB.
When did surface-mount become a commonly used manufacturing process?
572ff7d704bcaa1900d76f5b
mid-1990s
112
False
What did the new components with end tabs replace?
572ff7d704bcaa1900d76f5c
wire leads
265
False
What improvement is possible with surface-mounting that enables higher production and lower labor costs?
572ff7d704bcaa1900d76f5d
automation
561
False
What are SMDs?
572ff7d704bcaa1900d76f5e
surface mount devices
863
False
Is it the chip or the package that influences the price of an SMD more?
572ff7d704bcaa1900d76f5f
chip
919
False
Surface-mount technology
0
What kind of technology emerged in the 1950s?
5ace925332bba1001ae4aa6b
True
Surface-mount technology
0
What became widely used in the 2090s?
5ace925332bba1001ae4aa6c
True
Components
123
What was redesigned to have small plastic tabs?
5ace925332bba1001ae4aa6d
True
Surface mounting
506
What lends itself well to a low degree of automation?
5ace925332bba1001ae4aa6e
True
Some wire-ended components, such as 1N4148 small-signal switch diodes
999
What are more expensive than SMD equivalents?
5ace925332bba1001ae4aa6f
True
Surface-mount technology emerged in the 1960s, gained momentum in the early 1980s and became widely used by the mid-1990s. Components were mechanically redesigned to have small metal tabs or end caps that could be soldered directly onto the PCB surface, instead of wire leads to pass through holes. Components became much smaller and component placement on both sides of the board became more common than with through-hole mounting, allowing much smaller PCB assemblies with much higher circuit densities. Surface mounting lends itself well to a high degree of automation, reducing labor costs and greatly increasing production rates. Components can be supplied mounted on carrier tapes. Surface mount components can be about one-quarter to one-tenth of the size and weight of through-hole components, and passive components much cheaper; prices of semiconductor surface mount devices (SMDs) are determined more by the chip itself than the package, with little price advantage over larger packages. Some wire-ended components, such as 1N4148 small-signal switch diodes, are actually significantly cheaper than SMD equivalents.
What process is a trace left over from?
572ff9bf04bcaa1900d76f95
etching
81
False
Along with thickness, what determines the resistance of a trace?
572ff9bf04bcaa1900d76f96
width
120
False
What type of trace is often narrower than a ground trace?
572ff9bf04bcaa1900d76f97
signal
272
False
In a multi-layer board, what metal would a ground plane be mostly made out of?
572ff9bf04bcaa1900d76f98
copper
347
False
What type of circuits use a stripline and microstrip format?
572ff9bf04bcaa1900d76f99
microwave circuits
415
False
Each trace
0
What consists of a wide, curved part of copper foil?
5ace92d332bba1001ae4aa89
True
Power and ground traces
222
What needs to be narrower than signal traces?
5ace92d332bba1001ae4aa8a
True
in the form of stripline and microstrip
470
For microwave boards, transmission can be laid out how?
5ace92d332bba1001ae4aa8b
True
copper foil
50
What does not remain after etching?
5ace92d332bba1001ae4aa8c
True
Each trace consists of a flat, narrow part of the copper foil that remains after etching. The resistance, determined by width and thickness, of the traces must be sufficiently low for the current the conductor will carry. Power and ground traces may need to be wider than signal traces. In a multi-layer board one entire layer may be mostly solid copper to act as a ground plane for shielding and power return. For microwave circuits, transmission lines can be laid out in the form of stripline and microstrip with carefully controlled dimensions to assure a consistent impedance. In radio-frequency and fast switching circuits the inductance and capacitance of the printed circuit board conductors become significant circuit elements, usually undesired; but they can be used as a deliberate part of the circuit design, obviating the need for additional discrete components.
What element of a laminate is designated by the cloth to resin ratio, among other things?
572ffb33a23a5019007fcbfb
type designation
104
False
What's the name for the measurement of a laminate's change in thickness as its temperature changes?
572ffb33a23a5019007fcbfc
Z-axis expansion coefficient
429
False
What's the abbreviation for the glass transition temperature of a laminate?
572ffb33a23a5019007fcbfd
Tg
416
False
The cloth or fiber material used, resin material, and the cloth to resin ratio
0
What determine's the silver's type designation?
5ace939432bba1001ae4aaad
True
the level to which the laminate is fire retardant, the dielectric constant (er), the loss factor
237
What is not considered an important characteristic?
5ace939432bba1001ae4aaae
True
how much the thickness changes with temperature
459
The Z-axis expansion coagulant is what?
5ace939432bba1001ae4aaaf
True
characteristics
217
The gain factor is one of the important what?
5ace939432bba1001ae4aab0
True
characteristics
217
The shear sector is one of the important what?
5ace939432bba1001ae4aab1
True
The cloth or fiber material used, resin material, and the cloth to resin ratio determine the laminate's type designation (FR-4, CEM-1, G-10, etc.) and therefore the characteristics of the laminate produced. Important characteristics are the level to which the laminate is fire retardant, the dielectric constant (er), the loss factor (tδ), the tensile strength, the shear strength, the glass transition temperature (Tg), and the Z-axis expansion coefficient (how much the thickness changes with temperature).
What's the common name of polytetrafluoroethylene?
572fffeb947a6a140053cf38
Teflon
203
False
What pre-preg material is designated by "FR-2"?
572fffeb947a6a140053cf39
phenolic cotton paper
305
False
To what type of packaging is thermal expansion particularly critical?
572fffeb947a6a140053cf3a
ball grid array
713
False
What material delivers optimum dimensional stability?
572fffeb947a6a140053cf3b
glass fiber
767
False
What dielectric is matte glass and polyester?
572fffeb947a6a140053cf3c
FR-6
420
False
consideration
683
Thermal closure is an important what?
5ace942432bba1001ae4aacb
True
provide different insulating values depending on the requirements of the circuit
66
There is only one dielectric that can be chosen to do what?
5ace942432bba1001ae4aacc
True
Well known pre-preg materials
240
FR-A is one of the what?
5ace942432bba1001ae4aacd
True
consideration
683
The ball gasket array (BGA) is an important what?
5ace942432bba1001ae4aace
True
There are quite a few different dielectrics that can be chosen to provide different insulating values depending on the requirements of the circuit. Some of these dielectrics are polytetrafluoroethylene (Teflon), FR-4, FR-1, CEM-1 or CEM-3. Well known pre-preg materials used in the PCB industry are FR-2 (phenolic cotton paper), FR-3 (cotton paper and epoxy), FR-4 (woven glass and epoxy), FR-5 (woven glass and epoxy), FR-6 (matte glass and polyester), G-10 (woven glass and epoxy), CEM-1 (cotton paper and epoxy), CEM-2 (cotton paper and epoxy), CEM-3 (non-woven glass and epoxy), CEM-4 (woven glass and epoxy), CEM-5 (woven glass and polyester). Thermal expansion is an important consideration especially with ball grid array (BGA) and naked die technologies, and glass fiber offers the best dimensional stability.
Along with the non-woven class, what makes up the reinforcement type materials?
57301001947a6a140053d018
woven
64
False
Which is the more expensive reinforcement type?
57301001947a6a140053d019
non-woven
74
False
What type of structure do woven reinforcements have that cause them to have variation in their electrical parameters?
57301001947a6a140053d01a
spatially nonhomogeneous
226
False
Which ratio varies because of the structure of woven reinforcements?
57301001947a6a140053d01b
resin/glass
337
False
For what kind of applications are non-woven reinforcement materials better than woven ones?
57301001947a6a140053d01c
RF/analog
510
False
woven and non-woven
64
The reinforcement type defines which two minor classes of materials?
5ace953032bba1001ae4aaef
True
Nonwoven reinforcements
396
What is less expensive but more suitable for some RF/analog application?
5ace953032bba1001ae4aaf0
True
Nonwoven reinforcements
396
Materials with low or no refinement are called what?
5ace953032bba1001ae4aaf1
True
many higher-frequency applications
186
The high diode constant of glass may not be favorable for what?
5ace953032bba1001ae4aaf2
True
The reinforcement type defines two major classes of materials - woven and non-woven. Woven reinforcements are cheaper, but the high dielectric constant of glass may not be favorable for many higher-frequency applications. The spatially nonhomogeneous structure also introduces local variations in electrical parameters, due to different resin/glass ratio at different areas of the weave pattern. Nonwoven reinforcements, or materials with low or no reinforcement, are more expensive but more suitable for some RF/analog applications.
What's the temperature at which resin softens and expands called?
57301192a23a5019007fcceb
glass transition temperature
7
False
Along with vias, what makes up the components of a board?
57301192a23a5019007fccec
joints
198
False
What will happen to the components when the temperature of resin goes above that of glass transition?
57301192a23a5019007fcced
mechanical overload
143
False
When resin stays below Tg, its thermal expansion is similar to that of copper and what other material?
57301192a23a5019007fccee
glass
290
False
What do thick boards require to resist plating failure?
57301192a23a5019007fccef
high Tg matrix
655
False
At the glass transition temperature
0
The resin in the composite hardens when?
5ace95bf32bba1001ae4ab13
True
the thickness and stresses the plated-through holes
443
Virtually no volume expansion projects to where?
5ace95bf32bba1001ae4ab14
True
Tg matrix
660
Thin boards require high what?
5ace95bf32bba1001ae4ab15
True
the plating
579
Exposition to lower temperatures can cause failure of what?
5ace95bf32bba1001ae4ab16
True
At the glass transition temperature the resin in the composite softens and significantly increases thermal expansion; exceeding Tg then exerts mechanical overload on the board components - e.g. the joints and the vias. Below Tg the thermal expansion of the resin roughly matches copper and glass, above it gets significantly higher. As the reinforcement and copper confine the board along the plane, virtually all volume expansion projects to the thickness and stresses the plated-through holes. Repeated soldering or other exposition to higher temperatures can cause failure of the plating, especially with thicker boards; thick boards therefore require high Tg matrix.
What will happen to the materials when a board gets wet or is in a humid area?
5730132704bcaa1900d7711d
Moisture absorption
0
False
If materials absorb moisture and then are heated enough to vaporize the water, the board might show delamination or what other type of damage?
5730132704bcaa1900d7711e
cracking
765
False
What percentage absorption do F-4 epoxies have?
5730132704bcaa1900d7711f
0.15%
321
False
What's the approximate relative dielectric constant of most materials in circuit boards?
5730132704bcaa1900d77120
4
671
False
What material has an absorption rate of only 0.01%?
5730132704bcaa1900d77121
Teflon
328
False
the resin and the reinforcement
88
What may also repel water?
5ace963332bba1001ae4ab25
True
0.01%
362
Teflon has a high absorption rate of what?
5ace963332bba1001ae4ab26
True
Polyimides and cyanate esters
369
What suffers from low water absorption?
5ace963332bba1001ae4ab27
True
significant degradation of key parameters
481
Repelled water can lead to what?
5ace963332bba1001ae4ab28
True
required
922
Careful barking of the substrates may be what?
5ace963332bba1001ae4ab29
True
Moisture absorption occurs when the material is exposed to high humidity or water. Both the resin and the reinforcement may absorb water; water may be also soaked by capillary forces through voids in the materials and along the reinforcement. Epoxies of the FR-4 materials aren't too susceptible, with absorption of only 0.15%. Teflon has very low absorption of 0.01%. Polyimides and cyanate esters, on the other side, suffer from high water absorption. Absorbed water can lead to significant degradation of key parameters; it impairs tracking resistance, breakdown voltage, and dielectric parameters. Relative dielectric constant of water is about 73, compared to about 4 for common circuitboard materials. Absorbed moisture can also vaporize on heating and cause cracking and delamination, the same effect responsible for "popcorning" damage on wet packaging of electronic parts. Careful baking of the substrates may be required.
What's the minimum amount of copper a layer in a PCB can have to be considered "heavy copper"?
57301519b2c2fd1400568827
three ounces
76
False
About how thick would a PCB layer be if it contained three oz. of copper?
57301519b2c2fd1400568828
0.0042 inches
117
False
What will a circuit board with heavy copper carry very well?
57301519b2c2fd1400568829
current
276
False
What would a PCB designer use heavy copper to make their circuit board resist?
57301519b2c2fd140056882a
thermal strains
327
False
Where does the heat go when it leaves heavy copper-plated vias?
57301519b2c2fd140056882b
external heat sinks
386
False
layers exceeding three ounces of copper
59
The printed circuit board industry defines light copper as what?
5ace96bf32bba1001ae4ab4d
True
design and manufacturing circuit boards in order to increase current-carrying capacity as well as resistance to thermal strains
215
PCB designers and fabricators often use light copper when?
5ace96bf32bba1001ae4ab4e
True
IPC 2152
407
What is the standard for determining current-carrying capacity of printed circuit board trees?
5ace96bf32bba1001ae4ab4f
True
determining current-carrying capacity of printed circuit board traces
434
IAC 2152 is the standard for what?
5ace96bf32bba1001ae4ab50
True
The printed circuit board industry defines heavy copper as layers exceeding three ounces of copper, or approximately 0.0042 inches (4.2 mils, 105 μm) thick. PCB designers and fabricators often use heavy copper when design and manufacturing circuit boards in order to increase current-carrying capacity as well as resistance to thermal strains. Heavy copper plated vias transfer heat to external heat sinks. IPC 2152 is a standard for determining current-carrying capacity of printed circuit board traces.
What arduous aspect of the process can designers skip in Multiwire?
573016ea04bcaa1900d7715f
routing of wires
149
False
What does the machine create by drawing a straight line between two points on the board?
573016ea04bcaa1900d77160
a connection
246
False
Along with quick design times, what problem does Multiwire cut down on?
573016ea04bcaa1900d77161
crosstalk
456
False
What makes Multiwire impractical to use when large quantities of a board are needed?
573016ea04bcaa1900d77162
cost
573
False
In simple language, what are the interconnections in an embedding matrix?
573016ea04bcaa1900d77163
wires
51
False
the embedding matrix
65
It was difficult to stack interconnections inside of what?
5ace973b32bba1001ae4ab65
True
another
331
The machine will draw a wire in a curved line from one location/ to where?
5ace973b32bba1001ae4ab66
True
the machine
260
What led to long design times?
5ace973b32bba1001ae4ab67
True
the machine
260
What led to increased crosstalk?
5ace973b32bba1001ae4ab68
True
Since it was quite easy to stack interconnections (wires) inside the embedding matrix, the approach allowed designers to forget completely about the routing of wires (usually a time-consuming operation of PCB design): Anywhere the designer needs a connection, the machine will draw a wire in straight line from one location/pin to another. This led to very short design times (no complex algorithms to use even for high density designs) as well as reduced crosstalk (which is worse when wires run parallel to each other—which almost never happens in Multiwire), though the cost is too high to compete with cheaper PCB technologies when large quantities are needed.
What type of construction is best for applications that need to portion space carefully?
57301cee947a6a140053d11e
Cordwood
0
False
What gets mounted in the middle of two parallel planes in a cordwood construction?
57301cee947a6a140053d11f
axial-leaded components
279
False
What do insulating cards prevent between interconnection layers?
57301cee947a6a140053d120
shorting
531
False
What type of component has to be used in cordwood construction to its detriment?
57301cee947a6a140053d121
nickel-leaded
793
False
What force caused the physical damage to components that affected the Apollo program?
57301cee947a6a140053d122
Differential thermal expansion
880
False
Cordwood construction
0
What does not save significant space?
5ace978d32bba1001ae4ab77
True
The components
345
What was not soldered together?
5ace978d32bba1001ae4ab78
True
special nickel-leaded components had to be used to allow the interconnecting welds to be made
785
What was one advantage of this system?
5ace978d32bba1001ae4ab79
True
difficult to replace
1132
Components located on the exterior are what?
5ace978d32bba1001ae4ab7a
True
Cordwood construction can save significant space and was often used with wire-ended components in applications where space was at a premium (such as missile guidance and telemetry systems) and in high-speed computers, where short traces were important. In cordwood construction, axial-leaded components were mounted between two parallel planes. The components were either soldered together with jumper wire, or they were connected to other components by thin nickel ribbon welded at right angles onto the component leads. To avoid shorting together different interconnection layers, thin insulating cards were placed between them. Perforations or holes in the cards allowed component leads to project through to the next interconnection layer. One disadvantage of this system was that special nickel-leaded components had to be used to allow the interconnecting welds to be made. Differential thermal expansion of the component could put pressure on the leads of the components and the PCB traces and cause physical damage (as was seen in several modules on the Apollo program). Additionally, components located in the interior are difficult to replace. Some versions of cordwood construction used soldered single-sided PCBs as the interconnection method (as pictured), allowing the use of normal-leaded components.
Who was the German inventor who wrote in 1903 about conductors being laminated in layers to a board?
57301ef4a23a5019007fcdcf
Albert Hanson
128
False
What material did Thomas Edison experiment with by trying to chemically attach conductors to it?
57301ef4a23a5019007fcdd0
linen paper
304
False
What year did Arthur Berry patent his print-and-etch method?
57301ef4a23a5019007fcdd1
1913
341
False
In Max Schoop's method, what was used to create the flame-sprayed pattern on the board?
57301ef4a23a5019007fcdd2
a patterned mask
487
False
Who obtained a patent in 1927 for his method of electroplating circuit patterns?
57301ef4a23a5019007fcdd3
Charles Ducas
505
False
in the 20th century
79
development of the methods used in ancient printed circuit boards started when?
5ace988a32bba1001ae4abd9
True
flat foil conductors laminated to an insulating board, in multiple layers
153
Albert Hanson described what in 1913?
5ace988a32bba1001ae4abda
True
a print-and-etch method
355
Arthur Berry patented what in 1923?
5ace988a32bba1001ae4abdb
True
1913
341
Thomas Edison patented a print-and-etch method in what year?
5ace988a32bba1001ae4abdc
True
flame-spray metal onto a board through a patterned mask
448
In Germany Max Schoop obtained a patent to do what?
5ace988a32bba1001ae4abdd
True
Development of the methods used in modern printed circuit boards started early in the 20th century. In 1903, a German inventor, Albert Hanson, described flat foil conductors laminated to an insulating board, in multiple layers. Thomas Edison experimented with chemical methods of plating conductors onto linen paper in 1904. Arthur Berry in 1913 patented a print-and-etch method in Britain, and in the United States Max Schoop obtained a patent to flame-spray metal onto a board through a patterned mask. Charles Ducas in 1927 patented a method of electroplating circuit patterns.
What was Paul Eisler making when he came up with the printed circuit?
57302051947a6a140053d14c
a radio set
74
False
What event prompted the United States to adopt the printed circuit to make proximity fuses?
57302051947a6a140053d14d
World War II
224
False
When was the printed circuit released for commercial use in the U.S.?
57302051947a6a140053d14e
1948
256
False
Who was working on the same type of large-scale application of printed circuits as the U.S. in Britain in the mid-1950s?
57302051947a6a140053d14f
Geoffrey Dummer
552
False
What process was created by the U.S. Army that led to innovation in consumer electronics?
57302051947a6a140053d150
Auto-Sembly
412
False
the printed circuit as part of a radio set
43
The German engineer Paul Eisler invented what?
5ace991432bba1001ae4ac0b
True
1936
118
Paul Eisler invented the printed circuit in Germany in what year?
5ace991432bba1001ae4ac0c
True
1943
131
England began using the technology on a large scale in what year?
5ace991432bba1001ae4ac0d
True
commercial use
297
In 1958, the USA released the invention for what?
5ace991432bba1001ae4ac0e
True
mid-1950s
391
The Auto-Sembly process was developed by England in what year?
5ace991432bba1001ae4ac0f
True
The Austrian engineer Paul Eisler invented the printed circuit as part of a radio set while working in England around 1936. Around 1943 the USA began to use the technology on a large scale to make proximity fuses for use in World War II. After the war, in 1948, the USA released the invention for commercial use. Printed circuits did not become commonplace in consumer electronics until the mid-1950s, after the Auto-Sembly process was developed by the United States Army. At around the same time in Britain work along similar lines was carried out by Geoffrey Dummer, then at the RRDE.
What company developed the first electronic circuit that could be mass produced and was durable enough to be fired from a gun?
5730221db2c2fd1400568909
Globe Union
210
False
What was the plate used for anti-aircraft proximity fuses in World War II made out of?
5730221db2c2fd140056890a
ceramic
273
False
Who was in charge of the Centralab Division of Globe Union when the PCB used in anti-aircraft fuses was invented?
5730221db2c2fd140056890b
Harry W. Rubinstein
696
False
What award did Rubinstein win in 1984 for his contributions?
5730221db2c2fd140056890c
Cledo Brunetti Award
782
False
Where did Harry Rubinstein attend college?
5730221db2c2fd140056890d
University of Wisconsin-Madison
988
False
an electronic circuit that could withstand being fired from a gun, and could be produced in quantity
82
During World War I, the development of the anti-aircraft proximity fuse required what?
5ace99c932bba1001ae4ac45
True
Mr. Harry W. Rubinstein
692
In 1994, the IEEE awarded whom the Cledo Brunetti Award?
5ace99c932bba1001ae4ac46
True
Globe Union's Centralab Division
736
Ms. Harriet W. Rubenstein was the former head of which division?
5ace99c932bba1001ae4ac47
True
the University of Wisconsin-Madison
984
Mr. Rubenstein was honored in 1994 by which university?
5ace99c932bba1001ae4ac48
True
During World War II, the development of the anti-aircraft proximity fuse required an electronic circuit that could withstand being fired from a gun, and could be produced in quantity. The Centralab Division of Globe Union submitted a proposal which met the requirements: a ceramic plate would be screenprinted with metallic paint for conductors and carbon material for resistors, with ceramic disc capacitors and subminiature vacuum tubes soldered in place. The technique proved viable, and the resulting patent on the process, which was classified by the U.S. Army, was assigned to Globe Union. It was not until 1984 that the Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) awarded Mr. Harry W. Rubinstein, the former head of Globe Union's Centralab Division, its coveted Cledo Brunetti Award for early key contributions to the development of printed components and conductors on a common insulating substrate. As well, Mr. Rubinstein was honored in 1984 by his alma mater, the University of Wisconsin-Madison, for his innovations in the technology of printed electronic circuits and the fabrication of capacitors.
What type of construction was originally used for all electronic components?
57302364b2c2fd1400568927
through-hole
240
False
In what year was the Auto-Sembly process created?
57302364b2c2fd1400568928
1949
270
False
Although two men developed the Auto-Sembly process, to whom was the patent officially granted?
57302364b2c2fd1400568929
U.S. Army
539
False
What year was the patent for the Auto-Sembly process granted?
57302364b2c2fd140056892a
1956
514
False
Which part of the Auto-Sembly manufacturing process is the most costly?
57302364b2c2fd140056892b
drilling holes
887
False
leads
48
Originally, no electronic component had what?
5ace9a6332bba1001ae4ac69
True
Moe Abramson and Stanislaus F. Danko
276
Who developed the Auto-State process in which component leads were inserted into a copper foil?
5ace9a6332bba1001ae4ac6a
True
a wave-soldering machine
813
Soldering could be done manually by passing the board over a ripple, or wave, of molten silver in what?
5ace9a6332bba1001ae4ac6b
True
the wires and holes
848
What is considered not wasteful?
5ace9a6332bba1001ae4ac6c
True
Originally, every electronic component had wire leads, and the PCB had holes drilled for each wire of each component. The components' leads were then passed through the holes and soldered to the PCB trace. This method of assembly is called through-hole construction. In 1949, Moe Abramson and Stanislaus F. Danko of the United States Army Signal Corps developed the Auto-Sembly process in which component leads were inserted into a copper foil interconnection pattern and dip soldered. The patent they obtained in 1956 was assigned to the U.S. Army. With the development of board lamination and etching techniques, this concept evolved into the standard printed circuit board fabrication process in use today. Soldering could be done automatically by passing the board over a ripple, or wave, of molten solder in a wave-soldering machine. However, the wires and holes are wasteful since drilling holes is expensive and the protruding wires are merely cut off.
Greeks
Where are Greek States believed to have been settled ?
572fa78c04bcaa1900d76b53
Greek colonies and communities have been historically established on the shores of the Mediterranean Sea and Black Sea
0
False
Which two bodies of water are believed to be central to the establishment of the Greek society ?
572fa78c04bcaa1900d76b54
Greek people have always been centered around the Aegean and Ionian seas
128
False
When was the emergence of the Greek spoken dialect believed to have started ?
572fa78c04bcaa1900d76b55
the Greek language has been spoken since the Bronze Age.
208
False
Where have the centers of culture been located for the Grecian world historically ?
572fa78c04bcaa1900d76b56
The cultural centers of the Greeks have included Athens, Thessalonica, Alexandria, Smyrna, and Constantinople at various periods.
665
False
What other culture did the Greek states share boarders with ?
572fa78c04bcaa1900d76b57
these regions coincided to a large extent with the borders of the Byzantine Empire of the late 11th century
490
False
on the shores of the Mediterranean Sea and Black Sea
66
Where have Egyptian colonies been historically established?
5ad23ae0d7d075001a428854
True
Aegean and Ionian
178
What two seas have the Egyptian people always lived close to?
5ad23ae0d7d075001a428855
True
since the Bronze Age
243
How long has the Egyptian language been spoken?
5ad23ae0d7d075001a428856
True
11th century
585
In what century was the Egyptian empire prominent?
5ad23ae0d7d075001a428857
True
Athens, Thessalonica
714
What are two cities associated with the formation of Egyptian culture?
5ad23ae0d7d075001a428858
True
Aegean and Ionian seas
178
Which two seas have been least central to Greek history?
5ad26d13d7d075001a4293b6
True
Bronze
253
During which prehistoric age was the Latin language invented?
5ad26d13d7d075001a4293b7
True
Constantinople
466
Which city in modern Turkey was once a minor center of Greek culture?
5ad26d13d7d075001a4293b8
True
Byzantine Empire
556
What tenth century empire had roughly the same extent as ancient Greece's?
5ad26d13d7d075001a4293b9
True
Egypt
434
Which area of South Africa has hosted Greek communities in the past?
5ad26d13d7d075001a4293ba
True
Aegean and Ionian seas
178
Which two seas have been least central to Greek history?
5ad27a22d7d075001a4295de
True
Bronze
253
During which prehistoric age was the Greek language rejected?
5ad27a22d7d075001a4295df
True
Constantinople
466
Which city in modern Iran was once a major center of Greek culture?
5ad27a22d7d075001a4295e0
True
Egypt
434
Which area of North Africa has hosted Irish communities in the past?
5ad27a22d7d075001a4295e1
True
Byzantine Empire
556
What twelfth century empire had roughly the same extent as ancient Greece's?
5ad27a22d7d075001a4295e2
True
Greek colonies and communities have been historically established on the shores of the Mediterranean Sea and Black Sea, but the Greek people have always been centered around the Aegean and Ionian seas, where the Greek language has been spoken since the Bronze Age. Until the early 20th century, Greeks were distributed between the Greek peninsula, the western coast of Asia Minor, the Black Sea coast, Cappadocia in central Anatolia, Egypt, the Balkans, Cyprus, and Constantinople. Many of these regions coincided to a large extent with the borders of the Byzantine Empire of the late 11th century and the Eastern Mediterranean areas of ancient Greek colonization. The cultural centers of the Greeks have included Athens, Thessalonica, Alexandria, Smyrna, and Constantinople at various periods.
What progression coincided with the the early Greek states that makes it difficult to give credit for the language and differences ?
572fa95304bcaa1900d76b6f
Paleo-Balkan sprachbund that makes it difficult to delineate exact boundaries between individual languages.
81
False
What is commonly seen in the Greek language that is not a constant ?
572fa95304bcaa1900d76b70
The characteristically Greek representation of word-initial laryngeals by prothetic vowels
189
False
What other language has this same trait ?
572fa95304bcaa1900d76b71
word-initial laryngeals by prothetic vowels is shared, for one, by the Armenian language
236
False
What other things do the two languages seem to have in common ?
572fa95304bcaa1900d76b72
phonological and morphological peculiarities of Greek; this has led some linguists to propose a hypothetical closer relationship between Greek and Armenian
363
False
How much evidence of the link between the languages is currently available ?
572fa95304bcaa1900d76b73
linguists to propose a hypothetical closer relationship between Greek and Armenian, although evidence remains scant.
436
False
an early Paleo-Balkan sprachbund
72
What context should the evolution of the Armenian language be viewed within?
5ad23d22d7d075001a42888e
True
The characteristically Greek representation of word-initial laryngeals by prothetic vowels
189
What was developed by some linguists that is not a constant?
5ad23d22d7d075001a42888f
True
the Armenian language
303
What other language wasn't used outside of Armenia?
5ad23d22d7d075001a428890
True
scant
546
How much evidence is there that Proto-Greek was spoken in Armenia?
5ad23d22d7d075001a428891
True
Armenian
510
What other country could Greeks be found to have settled in?
5ad23d22d7d075001a428892
True
Paleo-Balkan sprachbund that makes it difficult to delineate exact boundaries between individual languages
81
What progression coincided with the the early Greek states that makes it easy to give credit for the language and differences ?
5ad26d84d7d075001a4293ca
True
The characteristically Greek representation of word-initial laryngeals by prothetic vowels
189
What is uncommonly seen in the Greek language that is not a constant ?
5ad26d84d7d075001a4293cb
True
word-initial laryngeals by prothetic vowels is shared, for one, by the Armenian language
236
What other language hasn't this same trait ?
5ad26d84d7d075001a4293cc
True
phonological and morphological peculiarities of Greek
363
What other things do the two languages not seem to have in common ?
5ad26d84d7d075001a4293cd
True
linguists to propose a hypothetical closer relationship between Greek and Armenian, although evidence remains scant
436
How much evidence of the link between the languages is currently unavailable ?
5ad26d84d7d075001a4293ce
True
Paleo-Balkan sprachbund that makes it difficult to delineate exact boundaries between individual languages
81
What progression coincided with the the late Greek states that makes it difficult to give credit for the language and differences ?
5ad27a8bd7d075001a429602
True
characteristically Greek representation of word-initial laryngeals by prothetic vowels is shared
193
What is uncommonly seen in the Greek language that is not a constant ?
5ad27a8bd7d075001a429603
True
word-initial laryngeals by prothetic vowels is shared, for one, by the Armenian language
236
What other language doesn't have this same trait ?
5ad27a8bd7d075001a429604
True
phonological and morphological peculiarities of Greek
363
What other things do the three languages seem to have in common ?
5ad27a8bd7d075001a429605
True
linguists to propose a hypothetical closer relationship between Greek and Armenian
436
How much evidence of the link between the languages is not currently available ?
5ad27a8bd7d075001a429606
True
The evolution of Proto-Greek should be considered within the context of an early Paleo-Balkan sprachbund that makes it difficult to delineate exact boundaries between individual languages. The characteristically Greek representation of word-initial laryngeals by prothetic vowels is shared, for one, by the Armenian language, which also seems to share some other phonological and morphological peculiarities of Greek; this has led some linguists to propose a hypothetical closer relationship between Greek and Armenian, although evidence remains scant.
What group of people came with others who left the geographical and historical region in southeastern Europe, now a mutual  region between Greece and Albania ?
572fab80947a6a140053cb44
the Dorians
16
False
When did these groups make the migration ?
572fab80947a6a140053cb45
Around 1200 BC
0
False
What civilization is the group credited with putting an end to ?
572fab80947a6a140053cb46
the Mycenaean civilization,
170
False
Is it believed that they truly are responsible in full for the collapse ?
572fab80947a6a140053cb47
it is likely the main attack was made by seafaring raiders (sea peoples)
202
False
What areas were being explored by others in  by sea faring vessels and when are they believed to have arrived  ?
572fab80947a6a140053cb48
seafaring raiders (sea peoples) who sailed into the eastern Mediterranean around 1180 BC
243
False
Epirus
74
Where did the Mycenaean's originiate from in 1200 BC?
5ad23ef7d7d075001a4288e2
True
Dorian
131
What civilization did the Mycenaean invastion cause to collapse?
5ad23ef7d7d075001a4288e3
True
1180 BC
324
At what time were the Mycenaeans considered raiders that dominated the Mediterranean?
5ad23ef7d7d075001a4288e4
True
Greek Dark Ages
434
What was the period of time called when the Mycenaeans were considered sea raiders?
5ad23ef7d7d075001a4288e5
True
Greece
504
What country was most affected by the Mycenaean raids in 800 BC?
5ad23ef7d7d075001a4288e6
True
the Dorians
16
What group of people never came with others who left the geographical and historical region in southeastern Europe, now a mutual region between Greece and Albania ?
5ad26f4dd7d075001a429418
True
Around 1200 BC
0
When didn't these groups make the migration ?
5ad26f4dd7d075001a429419
True
the Mycenaean civilization
170
What civilization is the group credited with starting ?
5ad26f4dd7d075001a42941a
True
it is likely the main attack was made by seafaring raiders (sea peoples)
202
Is it believed that they truly aren't responsible in full for the collapse ?
5ad26f4dd7d075001a42941b
True
seafaring raiders (sea peoples) who sailed into the eastern Mediterranean around 1180 BC
243
What areas weren't being explored by others in by sea faring vessels and when are they believed to have arrived ?
5ad26f4dd7d075001a42941c
True
Dorian
337
What group of people came with others who left the geographical and historical region in southeastern Europe, now a mutual region between England and Albania ?
5ad27b10d7d075001a429634
True
Around 1200 BC
0
When did these groups reject the migration?
5ad27b10d7d075001a429635
True
Mycenaean civilization
174
What civilization is the group credited with starting?
5ad27b10d7d075001a429636
True
it is likely the main attack was made by seafaring raiders
202
Is it believed that they truly aren't responsible in full for the collapse?
5ad27b10d7d075001a429637
True
seafaring raiders (sea peoples) who sailed into the eastern Mediterranean around 1180 BC.
243
What areas were being explored by others in by sea faring vessels and when are they believed to have left?
5ad27b10d7d075001a429638
True
Around 1200 BC, the Dorians, another Greek-speaking people, followed from Epirus. Traditionally, historians have believed that the Dorian invasion caused the collapse of the Mycenaean civilization, but it is likely the main attack was made by seafaring raiders (sea peoples) who sailed into the eastern Mediterranean around 1180 BC. The Dorian invasion was followed by a poorly attested period of migrations, appropriately called the Greek Dark Ages, but by 800 BC the landscape of Archaic and Classical Greece was discernible.
How did the Greeks look upon their forebears ?
572faeefa23a5019007fc891
Greeks of classical antiquity idealized their Mycenaean ancestors
4
False
How did they believe their forebears lived ?
572faeefa23a5019007fc892
Mycenaean period as a glorious era of heroes, closeness of the gods and material wealth
78
False
What literary events were believed to be a fact of truth ?
572faeefa23a5019007fc893
The Homeric Epics (i.e. Iliad and Odyssey) were especially and generally accepted as part of the Greek past
167
False
Who was the author of these tales ?
572faeefa23a5019007fc894
Homer
345
False
What were the names of some of the figures for the established religion that are based on ancestral ties ?
572faeefa23a5019007fc895
Zeus, Poseidon and Hades
477
False
a glorious era of heroes, closeness of the gods and material wealth
98
How did the Mycenaeans view their relationship to the Greeks?
5ad24140d7d075001a428954
True
Iliad and Odyssey
191
What two epics were written to honor Zeus?
5ad24140d7d075001a428955
True
19th century
300
In what century were the Homeric Epics first discovered?
5ad24140d7d075001a428956
True
Hades
496
What name is usually associated with the underworld?
5ad24140d7d075001a428957
True
Zeus
477
What god is the most powerful in the Olympian Panthenon?
5ad24140d7d075001a428958
True
idealized their Mycenaean ancestors
34
How did the Greeks not look upon their forebears ?
5ad26fb8d7d075001a429436
True
Mycenaean period as a glorious era of heroes, closeness of the gods and material wealth.
78
How did they believe their forebears died ?
5ad26fb8d7d075001a429437
True
The Homeric Epics (i.e. Iliad and Odyssey) were especially and generally accepted as part of the Greek past
167
What literary events were believed to be a fact of lies ?
5ad26fb8d7d075001a429438
True
Homer
345
Who wasn't the author of these tales ?
5ad26fb8d7d075001a429439
True
Zeus, Poseidon and Hades
477
What were the names of some of the figures for the established religion that aren't based on ancestral ties ?
5ad26fb8d7d075001a42943a
True
idealized their Mycenaean ancestors
34
How did the Greeks reject their forebears?
5ad27baad7d075001a42965c
True
Mycenaean period as a glorious era of heroes, closeness of the gods and material wealth
78
How did they not believe their forebears lived?
5ad27baad7d075001a42965d
True
The Homeric Epics
167
What literary events were believed to not be a fact of truth?
5ad27baad7d075001a42965e
True
Homer
345
Who was the author of these poems?
5ad27baad7d075001a42965f
True
Zeus, Poseidon and Hades
477
What were the names of some of the figures for the established religion that aren't based on ancestral ties?
5ad27baad7d075001a429660
True
The Greeks of classical antiquity idealized their Mycenaean ancestors and the Mycenaean period as a glorious era of heroes, closeness of the gods and material wealth. The Homeric Epics (i.e. Iliad and Odyssey) were especially and generally accepted as part of the Greek past and it was not until the 19th century that scholars began to question Homer's historicity. As part of the Mycenaean heritage that survived, the names of the gods and goddesses of Mycenaean Greece (e.g. Zeus, Poseidon and Hades) became major figures of the Olympian Pantheon of later antiquity.
What event is believed to be the ethnic basis of the Greeks society?
572fb178a23a5019007fc8ab
The ethnogenesis of the Greek nation is linked to the development of Pan-Hellenism
0
False
When did this event occur ?
572fb178a23a5019007fc8ac
development of Pan-Hellenism in the 8th century BC.
54
False
What national sporting event was held during this time period still goes on in celebration today ?
572fb178a23a5019007fc8ad
the foundational event was the Olympic Games in 776 BC,
134
False
What was the foundation for spirituality and church ?
572fb178a23a5019007fc8ae
The works of Homer (i.e. Iliad and Odyssey) and Hesiod (i.e. Theogony)
360
False
What famous spiritual guide and God was a devotional temple made to in the 8th century ?
572fb178a23a5019007fc8af
Oracle of Apollo at Delphi
546
False
Olympic Games
165
What event was used to celebrate the birth of Homer in the same year?
5ad24400d7d075001a428a32
True
Pan-Hellenism
69
What did the city of Delphi cause the development of in 776 BC?
5ad24400d7d075001a428a33
True
the national religion, ethos, history and mythology
489
What did the city of Delphi inspire the development of in Greek culture?
5ad24400d7d075001a428a34
True
8th century
90
In what century was the Odyssey first written in Greek?
5ad24400d7d075001a428a35
True
776 BC
182
In what year was Homer born?
5ad24400d7d075001a428a36
True
The ethnogenesis of the Greek nation is linked to the development of Pan-Hellenism
0
What event isn't believed to be the ethnic basis of the Greeks society?
5ad2705bd7d075001a42944a
True
8th century BC.
90
When didn't this event occur ?
5ad2705bd7d075001a42944b
True
the Olympic Games
161
What national sporting event wasn't held during this time period still goes on in celebration today ?
5ad2705bd7d075001a42944c
True
The works of Homer (i.e. Iliad and Odyssey) and Hesiod (i.e. Theogony)
360
What wasn't the foundation for spirituality and church ?
5ad2705bd7d075001a42944d
True
Oracle of Apollo at Delphi
546
What famous spiritual guide and God was a devotional temple made to in the 7th century ?
5ad2705bd7d075001a42944e
True
ethnogenesis of the Greek nation is linked to the development of Pan-Hellenism in the 8th century BC
4
What event is believed to be the ethnic basis of the French society?
5ad27c2ed7d075001a429684
True
8th century BC
90
When did this event stop?
5ad27c2ed7d075001a429685
True
foundational event was the Olympic Games in 776 BC
138
What national sporting event wasn't held during this time period still goes on in celebration today?
5ad27c2ed7d075001a429686
True
works of Homer
364
What was the foundation for non-spirituality and non-church?
5ad27c2ed7d075001a429687
True
The ethnogenesis of the Greek nation is linked to the development of Pan-Hellenism in the 8th century BC. According to some scholars, the foundational event was the Olympic Games in 776 BC, when the idea of a common Hellenism among the Greek tribes was first translated into a shared cultural experience and Hellenism was primarily a matter of common culture. The works of Homer (i.e. Iliad and Odyssey) and Hesiod (i.e. Theogony) were written in the 8th century BC, becoming the basis of the national religion, ethos, history and mythology. The Oracle of Apollo at Delphi was established in this period.
The time span that is counted as the classical for the Greeks is from eras ?
572fb308b2c2fd1400568377
classical period of Greek civilization covers a time spanning from the early 5th century BC to the death of Alexander the Great, in 323 BC
4
False
Are there some discrepancies among scholars for the distinction of the period ?
572fb308b2c2fd1400568378
this period into 'Classical', from the end of the Persian wars to the end of the Peloponnesian War, and 'Fourth Century', up to the death of Alexander
173
False
What is so well known about this period ?
572fb308b2c2fd1400568379
It is so named because it set the standards by which Greek civilization would be judged in later eras
326
False
What shiny other name is this time also called ?
572fb308b2c2fd140056837a
The Classical period is also described as the "Golden Age" of Greek civilization
429
False
What did the Greeks do that made it possible for the expansion and growth of the opposite of the Eastern Civilization ?
572fb308b2c2fd140056837b
civilization, and its art, philosophy, architecture and literature would be instrumental in the formation and development of Western culture.
497
False
5th century BC
81
What century marked the formation of Western civilization?
5ad24894d7d075001a428b70
True
"Golden Age"
475
In what was the time period called when Persia was a dominant force in the world?
5ad24894d7d075001a428b71
True
323 BC
136
What year marked the beginning of the Peloponnesian war?
5ad24894d7d075001a428b72
True
it set the standards by which Greek civilization would be judged in later eras
349
What is well known about the Peloponnesian war?
5ad24894d7d075001a428b73
True
Western
622
What culture was influenced by the results of the Peloponnesian war?
5ad24894d7d075001a428b74
True
early 5th century BC to the death of Alexander the Great, in 323 BC
75
The time span that is counted as the non-classical for the Greeks is from eras ?
5ad271ead7d075001a42947c
True
some authors prefer to split this period
144
Are there some discrepancies among students for the distinction of the period ?
5ad271ead7d075001a42947d
True
set the standards by which Greek civilization would be judged in later eras
352
What is so unknown about this period ?
5ad271ead7d075001a42947e
True
Golden Age
476
What shiny other name is this time not called ?
5ad271ead7d075001a42947f
True
Greek civilization, and its art, philosophy, architecture and literature would be instrumental in the formation and development of Western culture
491
What did the Greeks do that made it possible for the contraction of the opposite of the Western Civilization ?
5ad271ead7d075001a429480
True
classical period of Greek civilization
4
The time span that isn't counted as the classical for the Greeks is from eras?
5ad27d40d7d075001a4296b4
True
from the end of the Persian wars to the end of the Peloponnesian War, and 'Fourth Century', up to the death of Alexander).
203
Why aren't there some discrepancies among scholars for the distinction of the period?
5ad27d40d7d075001a4296b5
True
set the standards by which Greek civilization would be judged in later eras
352
What isn't so well known about this period?
5ad27d40d7d075001a4296b6
True
Golden
476
What dull other name is this time also called?
5ad27d40d7d075001a4296b7
True
The classical period of Greek civilization covers a time spanning from the early 5th century BC to the death of Alexander the Great, in 323 BC (some authors prefer to split this period into 'Classical', from the end of the Persian wars to the end of the Peloponnesian War, and 'Fourth Century', up to the death of Alexander). It is so named because it set the standards by which Greek civilization would be judged in later eras. The Classical period is also described as the "Golden Age" of Greek civilization, and its art, philosophy, architecture and literature would be instrumental in the formation and development of Western culture.
What Macedonian ruler helped to advance Greek beliefs and ways of life ?
572fb550a23a5019007fc8d1
Alexander
13
False
How was this achievement of advancing culture undertaken ?
572fb550a23a5019007fc8d2
provided an important outlet for Greek culture, via the creation of colonies and trade routes along the way
195
False
What types of cities did the expansion of the great ruler inspire ?
572fb550a23a5019007fc8d3
Hellenistic cities
597
False
Are any relatives of the first people of  the Grecian world still around ?
572fb550a23a5019007fc8d4
there are still communities in Pakistan and Afghanistan, like the Kalash, who claim to be descended from Greek settlers.
681
False
Name a city that the Greeks nested in ?
572fb550a23a5019007fc8d5
cities like Alexandria, Antioch and Seleucia.
609
False
Alexander's
13
What Macedonian ruler didn't help to advance Greek beliefs and ways of life?
5ad27d83d7d075001a4296d0
True
provided an important outlet for Greek culture, via the creation of colonies and trade routes along the way
195
How wasn't this achievement of advancing culture undertaken?
5ad27d83d7d075001a4296d1
True
Hellenism
420
What types of cities didn't the expansion of the great ruler inspire?
5ad27d83d7d075001a4296d2
True
there are still communities in Pakistan and Afghanistan, like the Kalash, who claim to be descended from Greek settlers
681
Are any relatives of the first people of the Grecian world no longer around?
5ad27d83d7d075001a4296d3
True
In any case, Alexander's toppling of the Achaemenid Empire, after his victories at the battles of the Granicus, Issus and Gaugamela, and his advance as far as modern-day Pakistan and Tajikistan, provided an important outlet for Greek culture, via the creation of colonies and trade routes along the way. While the Alexandrian empire did not survive its creator's death intact, the cultural implications of the spread of Hellenism across much of the Middle East and Asia were to prove long lived as Greek became the lingua franca, a position it retained even in Roman times. Many Greeks settled in Hellenistic cities like Alexandria, Antioch and Seleucia. Two thousand years later, there are still communities in Pakistan and Afghanistan, like the Kalash, who claim to be descended from Greek settlers.
With the secession away from the smaller communities in the Grecian world, what living situation became of great importance ?
572fb70e947a6a140053cbd4
the Greeks move towards larger cities and a reduction in the importance of the city-state.
13
False
The kingdoms of Diadochi was comprised of what ?
572fb70e947a6a140053cbd5
larger cities were parts of the still larger Kingdoms of the Diadochi.
110
False
How did the cites remind themselves of their beginnings ?
572fb70e947a6a140053cbd6
Greeks, however, remained aware of their past, chiefly through the study of the works of Homer and the classical authors.
181
False
What did the Greeks wants to be imparted to their descendants ?
572fb70e947a6a140053cbd7
the transmission of the Hellenic paideia to the next generation.
551
False
What academia was heightened during this time of Hellenism ?
572fb70e947a6a140053cbd8
Greek science, technology and mathematics are generally considered to have reached their peak during the Hellenistic period.
616
False
Greeks move towards larger cities and a reduction in the importance of the city-state
17
With the secession away from the smaller communities in the Grecian world, what living situation wasn't of great importance?
5ad27de3d7d075001a4296e2
True
larger cities
110
The kingdoms of Diadochi wasn't comprised of what?
5ad27de3d7d075001a4296e3
True
through the study of the works of Homer and the classical authors
236
How did the cites remind themselves of their end?
5ad27de3d7d075001a4296e4
True
transmission of the Hellenic paideia to the next generation
555
What did the Greeks not want to be imparted to their descendants?
5ad27de3d7d075001a4296e5
True
Greek science, technology and mathematics are generally considered to have reached their peak during the Hellenistic period
616
What academia wasn't heightened during this time of Hellenism?
5ad27de3d7d075001a4296e6
True
This age saw the Greeks move towards larger cities and a reduction in the importance of the city-state. These larger cities were parts of the still larger Kingdoms of the Diadochi. Greeks, however, remained aware of their past, chiefly through the study of the works of Homer and the classical authors. An important factor in maintaining Greek identity was contact with barbarian (non-Greek) peoples, which was deepened in the new cosmopolitan environment of the multi-ethnic Hellenistic kingdoms. This led to a strong desire among Greeks to organize the transmission of the Hellenic paideia to the next generation. Greek science, technology and mathematics are generally considered to have reached their peak during the Hellenistic period.
When did the religions of the past begin to dissipate ?
572fb85804bcaa1900d76c31
decline beginning in the 3rd century BC
151
False
What encouraged the change of faith ?
572fb85804bcaa1900d76c32
with the introduction of new religious movements from the East.
201
False
What religions form of worship came from the Eastern sects ?
572fb85804bcaa1900d76c33
The cults of deities like Isis and Mithra were introduced into the Greek world.
265
False
What group was significant in the expansion of the Christian faith ?
572fb85804bcaa1900d76c34
Hellenized East were instrumental in the spread of early Christianity
379
False
What language are the Apostle's namely believed to have spoken ?
572fb85804bcaa1900d76c35
Christianity's early leaders and writers (notably St Paul) were generally Greek-speaking
483
False
3rd century BC
176
When did the religions of the past begin to rise?
5ad27ecdd7d075001a429724
True
introduction of new religious movements from the East
210
What discouraged the change of faith?
5ad27ecdd7d075001a429725
True
The cults of deities like Isis and Mithra were introduced into the Greek world
265
What religions form of worship came from the Western sects?
5ad27ecdd7d075001a429726
True
Hellenized East were instrumental in the spread of early Christianity
379
What group was significant in the expansion of the Catholic faith?
5ad27ecdd7d075001a429727
True
Christianity's early leaders and writers (notably St Paul) were generally Greek-speaking
483
What language are the Apostle's namely believed to not have spoken?
5ad27ecdd7d075001a429728
True
In the religious sphere, this was a period of profound change. The spiritual revolution that took place, saw a waning of the old Greek religion, whose decline beginning in the 3rd century BC continued with the introduction of new religious movements from the East. The cults of deities like Isis and Mithra were introduced into the Greek world. Greek-speaking communities of the Hellenized East were instrumental in the spread of early Christianity in the 2nd and 3rd centuries, and Christianity's early leaders and writers (notably St Paul) were generally Greek-speaking, though none were from Greece. However, Greece itself had a tendency to cling to paganism and was not one of the influential centers of early Christianity: in fact, some ancient Greek religious practices remained in vogue until the end of the 4th century, with some areas such as the southeastern Peloponnese remaining pagan until well into the 10th century AD.
What alternative name were the Greeks known by ?
572fba31947a6a140053cbee
the Greeks identified as Romaioi ("Romans")
144
False
What did the label of  Hellenes come to stand for during the Common Era of Greece ?
572fba31947a6a140053cbef
the name ‘Hellenes’ denoted pagans
202
False
Did the Roman world consider one ethnocentric lineage to be a great concern ?
572fba31947a6a140053cbf0
secondary to religious considerations
311
False
What imperative value was extolled from the Christian community to the Roman world ?
572fba31947a6a140053cbf1
Greco-Roman educational system, although it was from Christianity that the culture's essential values were drawn.
583
False
Romaioi
169
What alternative name weren't the Greeks known by?
5ad27f0ad7d075001a42974a
True
denoted pagans
222
What did the label of Hellenes come to not stand for during the Common Era of Greece?
5ad27f0ad7d075001a42974b
True
secondary to religious considerations
311
id the Roman world consider two ethnocentric lineage to be a great concern?
5ad27f0ad7d075001a42974c
True
Greco-Roman educational system, although it was from Christianity that the culture's essential values were drawn
583
What imperative value was extolled from the Christian community from the Roman world?
5ad27f0ad7d075001a42974d
True
Of the new eastern religions introduced into the Greek world, the most successful was Christianity. From the early centuries of the Common Era, the Greeks identified as Romaioi ("Romans"), by that time the name ‘Hellenes’ denoted pagans. While ethnic distinctions still existed in the Roman Empire, they became secondary to religious considerations and the renewed empire used Christianity as a tool to support its cohesion and promoted a robust Roman national identity. Concurrently the secular, urban civilization of late antiquity survived in the Eastern Mediterranean along with Greco-Roman educational system, although it was from Christianity that the culture's essential values were drawn.
When did the Byzantine Kingdom come under the impact of the Greeks.
572fbc0804bcaa1900d76c41
influenced by Greek culture after the 7th century,
136
False
Who ruled Rome during this time period ?
572fbc0804bcaa1900d76c42
Emperor Heraclius (AD 575 - 641)
192
False
What decision did he make that influenced the culture in an attempt to make things more homogeneous ?
572fbc0804bcaa1900d76c43
decided to make Greek the empire's official language.
225
False
What made the Eastern Empire be known as the Imperium Graecorum ?
572fbc0804bcaa1900d76c44
Pope Leo III crowned Charlemagne, king of the Franks, as the "Roman Emperor"
517
False
Who was favored by those who lived in the west and mainly used another form of well know verbal language ?
572fbc0804bcaa1900d76c45
the Latin West started to favour the Franks
685
False
after the 7th
164
When did the Byzantine Kingdom not come under the impact of the Greeks?
5ad27f75d7d075001a429770
True
Emperor Heraclius
192
Who didn't rule Rome during this time period?
5ad27f75d7d075001a429771
True
make Greek the empire's official language
236
What decision did he make that influenced the culture in an attempt to make things less homogeneous?
5ad27f75d7d075001a429772
True
Pope Leo III
517
What made the Eastern Empire be known as the non-Imperium Graecorum?
5ad27f75d7d075001a429773
True
Latin West
689
Who was favored by those who lived in the west and mainly used another form of not well known verbal language?
5ad27f75d7d075001a429774
True
The Eastern Roman Empire – today conventionally named the Byzantine Empire, a name not in use during its own time – became increasingly influenced by Greek culture after the 7th century, when Emperor Heraclius (AD 575 - 641) decided to make Greek the empire's official language. Certainly from then on, but likely earlier, the Roman and Greek cultures were virtually fused into a single Greco-Roman world. Although the Latin West recognized the Eastern Empire's claim to the Roman legacy for several centuries, after Pope Leo III crowned Charlemagne, king of the Franks, as the "Roman Emperor" on 25 December 800, an act which eventually led to the formation of the Holy Roman Empire, the Latin West started to favour the Franks and began to refer to the Eastern Roman Empire largely as the Empire of the Greeks (Imperium Graecorum).
What caused the resurface of the Grecian monotony in politics ?
572fbf48a23a5019007fc941
the fall of Constantinople to the Crusaders of the Fourth Crusade in 1204
118
False
When did the nation reestablish itself ?
572fbf48a23a5019007fc942
empire was revived in 1261
210
False
What was the specialty of great Pietho and what is famous for ?
572fbf48a23a5019007fc943
philosopher Gemistus Pletho, who abandoned Christianity.
409
False
What was bolstered by the the final downward spiral of the Empire of Trebizond ?
572fbf48a23a5019007fc944
interest in the Classical Greek heritage was complemented by a renewed emphasis on Greek Orthodox identity
639
False
Which factoring war was on gong in 1828 and shares the of a previous scuttle ? ?
572fbf48a23a5019007fc945
second Russo-Turkish War
989
False
fall of Constantinople to the Crusaders of the Fourth Crusade in 1204
122
What caused the unsurface of the Grecian monotony in politics?
5ad28619d7d075001a4298c8
True
1261
232
When did the nation not reestablish itself?
5ad28619d7d075001a4298c9
True
Gemistus Pletho, who abandoned Christianity
421
What was the specialty of great Pietho and what is it not famous for?
5ad28619d7d075001a4298ca
True
interest in the Classical Greek heritage
639
What was bolstered by the the first downward spiral of the Empire of Trebizond?
5ad28619d7d075001a4298cb
True
second Russo-Turkish War
989
Which factoring war wasn't ongoing in 1828 and shares the of a previous scuttle?
5ad28619d7d075001a4298cc
True
A distinct Greek political identity re-emerged in the 11th century in educated circles and became more forceful after the fall of Constantinople to the Crusaders of the Fourth Crusade in 1204, so that when the empire was revived in 1261, it became in many ways a Greek national state. That new notion of nationhood engendered a deep interest in the classical past culminating in the ideas of the Neoplatonist philosopher Gemistus Pletho, who abandoned Christianity. However, it was the combination of Orthodox Christianity with a specifically Greek identity that shaped the Greeks' notion of themselves in the empire's twilight years. The interest in the Classical Greek heritage was complemented by a renewed emphasis on Greek Orthodox identity, which was reinforced in the late Medieval and Ottoman Greeks' links with their fellow Orthodox Christians in the Russian Empire. These were further strengthened following the fall of the Empire of Trebizond in 1461, after which and until the second Russo-Turkish War of 1828-29 hundreds of thousands of Pontic Greeks fled or migrated from the Pontic Alps and Armenian Highlands to southern Russia and the Russian South Caucasus (see also Greeks in Russia, Greeks in Armenia, Greeks in Georgia, and Caucasian Greeks).
When did the emperor Constantine  lose rule over in 1453 ?
572fc0c9b2c2fd14005683e5
Fall of Constantinople on 29 May 1453
14
False
What did the populace do in response to the loss ?
572fc0c9b2c2fd14005683e6
many Greeks sought better employment and education opportunities by leaving for the West
53
False
What type of position did Greeks come to hold in the Ottoman Empire ?
572fc0c9b2c2fd14005683e7
in part to the fact that the central hub of the empire, politically, culturally, and socially, was based on Western Thrace and Greek Macedonia
395
False
Who made up the majority of soldiers in the Ottoman Empire ?
572fc0c9b2c2fd14005683e8
men of Greek origin made up a significant proportion of the Ottoman army, navy
892
False
What type of work were must young boys antiquated with in the Ottoman Empire ?
572fc0c9b2c2fd14005683e9
levied as adolescents (along with especially Albanians and Serbs) into Ottoman service through the devshirme.
1007
False
29 May 1453
40
When did the emperor Constantine lose rule over in 1483?
5ad2870fd7d075001a429908
True
sought better employment and education opportunities
65
What did the populace do in response to the win?
5ad2870fd7d075001a429909
True
based on Western Thrace and Greek Macedonia
494
What type of position did Greeks come to hold in the non-Ottoman Empire?
5ad2870fd7d075001a42990a
True
men of Greek origin
892
Who made up the majority of soldiers in the non-Ottoman Empire?
5ad2870fd7d075001a42990b
True
levied as adolescents
1007
What type of work were must young boys non-antiquated with in the Ottoman Empire
5ad2870fd7d075001a42990c
True
Following the Fall of Constantinople on 29 May 1453, many Greeks sought better employment and education opportunities by leaving for the West, particularly Italy, Central Europe, Germany and Russia. Greeks are greatly credited for the European cultural revolution, later called, the Renaissance. In Greek-inhabited territory itself, Greeks came to play a leading role in the Ottoman Empire, due in part to the fact that the central hub of the empire, politically, culturally, and socially, was based on Western Thrace and Greek Macedonia, both in Northern Greece, and of course was centred on the mainly Greek-populated, former Byzantine capital, Constantinople. As a direct consequence of this situation, Greek-speakers came to play a hugely important role in the Ottoman trading and diplomatic establishment, as well as in the church. Added to this, in the first half of the Ottoman period men of Greek origin made up a significant proportion of the Ottoman army, navy, and state bureaucracy, having been levied as adolescents (along with especially Albanians and Serbs) into Ottoman service through the devshirme. Many Ottomans of Greek (or Albanian or Serb) origin were therefore to be found within the Ottoman forces which governed the provinces, from Ottoman Egypt, to Ottomans occupied Yemen and Algeria, frequently as provincial governors.
How were the population factions of the Ottoman Empire classified ?
572fc26a04bcaa1900d76c8d
religion was the defining characteristic of national groups
66
False
What did it mean to be classified as a Greek by the millet command ?
572fc26a04bcaa1900d76c8e
was applied by the Ottomans to all members of the Orthodox Church, regardless of their language or ethnic origin.
194
False
What moniker did the Greeks grant themselves for distinction ?
572fc26a04bcaa1900d76c8f
The Greek speakers were the only ethnic group to actually call themselves Romioi
308
False
What did the literate segment of Greeks consider to be a part of their ethic lines ?
572fc26a04bcaa1900d76c90
those educated, considered their ethnicity (genos) to be Hellenic
445
False
Were Christian prized among the Ottomans ?
572fc26a04bcaa1900d76c91
second-class status of Christians inherent in the Ottoman millet system
561
False
religion
66
How weren't the population factions of the Ottoman Empire classified
5ad28875d7d075001a42995c
True
the exonym "Greeks" (Rumlar from the name Rhomaioi) was applied by the Ottomans to all members of the Orthodox Church
142
What did it mean to not be classified as a Greek by the millet command ?
5ad28875d7d075001a42995d
True
Romioi
382
What moniker did the Greeks grant themselves for distinction?
5ad28875d7d075001a42995e
True
Hellenic
502
What did the literate segment of Greeks consider not to be a part of their ethic lines ?
5ad28875d7d075001a42995f
True
second-class status
561
Were Christian prized among the non-Ottomans
5ad28875d7d075001a429960
True
For those that remained under the Ottoman Empire's millet system, religion was the defining characteristic of national groups (milletler), so the exonym "Greeks" (Rumlar from the name Rhomaioi) was applied by the Ottomans to all members of the Orthodox Church, regardless of their language or ethnic origin. The Greek speakers were the only ethnic group to actually call themselves Romioi, (as opposed to being so named by others) and, at least those educated, considered their ethnicity (genos) to be Hellenic. There were, however, many Greeks who escaped the second-class status of Christians inherent in the Ottoman millet system, according to which Muslims were explicitly awarded senior status and preferential treatment. These Greeks either emigrated, particularly to their fellow Greek Orthodox protector, the Russian Empire, or simply converted to Islam, often only very superficially and whilst remaining crypto-Christian. The most notable examples of large-scale conversion to Turkish Islam among those today defined as Greek Muslims - excluding those who had to convert as a matter of course on being recruited through the devshirme - were to be found in Crete (Cretan Turks), Greek Macedonia (for example among the Vallahades of western Macedonia), and among Pontic Greeks in the Pontic Alps and Armenian Highlands. Several Ottoman sultans and princes were also of part Greek origin, with mothers who were either Greek concubines or princesses from Byzantine noble families, one famous example being sultan Selim the Grim, whose mother Gülbahar Hatun was a Pontic Greek.
What did the Greeks offer to the Ottoman Empire that was a superb benefit ?
572fc3b7a23a5019007fc9b9
the Greek tradition of education and commerce
66
False
Who held much of the wealth in the Greek society ?
572fc3b7a23a5019007fc9ba
the wealth of the extensive merchant class
120
False
What three cities were imperative for the scholarly and economic exchanges ?
572fc3b7a23a5019007fc9bb
the three most important centres of Greek learning were situated in Chios, Smyrna and Aivali, all three major centres of Greek commerce
405
False
What other area fields were overshadowed by Greek influence ?
572fc3b7a23a5019007fc9bc
Greek domination of the Christian Orthodox church.
577
False
tradition of education and commerce
76
What did the Greeks offer to the Ottoman Empire that wasn't a superb benefit ?
5ad291e8d7d075001a429ab0
True
extensive merchant class
138
Who held none of the wealth in the Greek society?
5ad291e8d7d075001a429ab1
True
Chios, Smyrna and Aivali
473
What three cities were not imperative for the scholarly and economic exchanges
5ad291e8d7d075001a429ab2
True
Greek domination of the Christian Orthodox church
577
What other area fields were not overshadowed by Greek influence?
5ad291e8d7d075001a429ab3
True
The roots of Greek success in the Ottoman Empire can be traced to the Greek tradition of education and commerce. It was the wealth of the extensive merchant class that provided the material basis for the intellectual revival that was the prominent feature of Greek life in the half century and more leading to the outbreak of the Greek War of Independence in 1821. Not coincidentally, on the eve of 1821, the three most important centres of Greek learning were situated in Chios, Smyrna and Aivali, all three major centres of Greek commerce. Greek success was also favoured by Greek domination of the Christian Orthodox church.
When was the Greece that we know today officially formed ?
572fc5aba23a5019007fc9c1
creation of the Modern Greek state in 1830
95
False
When was the original Grecian constitution formed ?
572fc5aba23a5019007fc9c2
first Greek constitution of 1822
178
False
How did the original  Constitution identify its society members ?
572fc5aba23a5019007fc9c3
a Greek was defined as any Christian resident of the Kingdom of Greece
212
False
Is this identifying factor for official citizens of Greece still in effect today ?
572fc5aba23a5019007fc9c4
clause removed by 1840
286
False
What factor was used to expel or include citizens in the  Lausanne Treaty ?
572fc5aba23a5019007fc9c5
agreed to use religion as the determinant for ethnic identity for the purposes of population exchange
419
False
1830
133
When was the Greece that we know today unofficially formed?
5ad29277d7d075001a429ab8
True
1822
206
When was the original Grecian constitution not formed?
5ad29277d7d075001a429ab9
True
any Christian resident of the Kingdom of Greece
235
How did the original Constitution not identify its society members?
5ad29277d7d075001a429aba
True
Kingdom of Greece
265
Who removed this clause?
5ad29277d7d075001a429abb
True
agreed to use religion as the determinant for ethnic identity for the purposes of population exchange
419
What factor was used to expel or include citizens outside of the Lausanne Treaty?
5ad29277d7d075001a429abc
True
The relationship between ethnic Greek identity and Greek Orthodox religion continued after the creation of the Modern Greek state in 1830. According to the second article of the first Greek constitution of 1822, a Greek was defined as any Christian resident of the Kingdom of Greece, a clause removed by 1840. A century later, when the Treaty of Lausanne was signed between Greece and Turkey in 1923, the two countries agreed to use religion as the determinant for ethnic identity for the purposes of population exchange, although most of the Greeks displaced (over a million of the total 1.5 million) had already been driven out by the time the agreement was signed.[note 1] The Greek genocide, in particular the harsh removal of Pontian Greeks from the southern shore area of the Black Sea, contemporaneous with and following the failed Greek Asia Minor Campaign, was part of this process of Turkification of the Ottoman Empire and the placement of its economy and trade, then largely in Greek hands under ethnic Turkish control.
What do Westerners believe it means to belong to the Greek heritage ?
572fc73c947a6a140053cca6
Western standards, the term Greeks has traditionally referred to any native speakers of the Greek language, whether Mycenaean, Byzantine or modern Greek.
151
False
What do the Grecian Romioi  descendants of the Constantine rule  believe to be true in regards to the status as beneficiaries ?
572fc73c947a6a140053cca7
considered themselves the political heirs of Rome
351
False
What other cultures do the Romioi  clam to be their birthright ?
572fc73c947a6a140053cca8
deemed themselves the heirs of ancient Greece as well
471
False
What is an alternative word used by Greeks to mean those who worship and alternative religion to the mainstreams ?
572fc73c947a6a140053cca9
Hellene" still meant pagan
568
False
any native speakers of the Greek language
216
What do Easterners believe it means to belong to the Greek heritage
5ad292bad7d075001a429acc
True
political heirs of Rome
377
What do the Grecian Romioi descendants of the Constantine rule believe to be false in regards to the status as beneficiaries
5ad292bad7d075001a429acd
True
political heirs of Rome
377
What other cultures do the Romioi clam to not be their birthright
5ad292bad7d075001a429ace
True
Hellene
568
What is an alternative word used by Greeks to mean those who don't worship and alternative religion to the mainstreams
5ad292bad7d075001a429acf
True
The terms used to define Greekness have varied throughout history but were never limited or completely identified with membership to a Greek state. By Western standards, the term Greeks has traditionally referred to any native speakers of the Greek language, whether Mycenaean, Byzantine or modern Greek. Byzantine Greeks called themselves Romioi and considered themselves the political heirs of Rome, but at least by the 12th century a growing number of those educated, deemed themselves the heirs of ancient Greece as well, although for most of the Greek speakers, "Hellene" still meant pagan. On the eve of the Fall of Constantinople the Last Emperor urged his soldiers to remember that they were the descendants of Greeks and Romans.
From what era is the Rigas Feraios believed to be a part of ?
572fc855b2c2fd140056846b
Greek Enlightenment
129
False
When was the Greek state of modern times birthed into exsistence ?
572fc855b2c2fd140056846c
The modern Greek state was created in 1829,
280
False
What did Greeks do that caused  the formation of the new state ?
572fc855b2c2fd140056846d
the Greeks liberated a part of their historic homelands, Peloponnese, from the Ottoman Empire
329
False
What foundation was laid that is the demographics of Modern Greek Enlightenment Era ?
572fc855b2c2fd140056846e
instrumental in transmitting the ideas of western romantic nationalism and philhellenism, which together with the conception of Hellenism,
473
False
Greek Enlightenment
129
From what era is the Rigas Feraios believed to not be a part of?
5ad296edd7d075001a429b0e
True
1829
318
When was the Greek state of modern times dead to exsistence?
5ad296edd7d075001a429b0f
True
Greeks liberated a part of their historic homelands, Peloponnese, from the Ottoman Empire
333
What did Greeks do that caused the formation of the old state?
5ad296edd7d075001a429b10
True
ideas of western romantic nationalism and philhellenism, which together with the conception of Hellenism
506
What foundation was laid that is the demographics of Modern Irish Enlightenment Era
5ad296edd7d075001a429b11
True
Before the establishment of the Modern Greek state, the link between ancient and modern Greeks was emphasized by the scholars of Greek Enlightenment especially by Rigas Feraios. In his "Political Constitution", he addresses to the nation as "the people descendant of the Greeks". The modern Greek state was created in 1829, when the Greeks liberated a part of their historic homelands, Peloponnese, from the Ottoman Empire. The large Greek diaspora and merchant class were instrumental in transmitting the ideas of western romantic nationalism and philhellenism, which together with the conception of Hellenism, formulated during the last centuries of the Byzantine Empire, formed the basis of the Diafotismos and the current conception of Hellenism.
What area is given to be the nesting point of a small group of pagans by a infamous philosopher from Greek ?
572fca32a23a5019007fc9df
Hellenes" (/ˈhɛliːnz/) as a relatively small tribe settled in Thessalic Phthia,
21
False
Who is this small group named for ?
572fca32a23a5019007fc9e0
Hellen, the patriarch of Hellenes
316
False
From what mystical lineage does this name benefactor ascend from ?
572fca32a23a5019007fc9e1
was son of Pyrrha and Deucalion, who ruled around Phthia, the only survivors after the great deluge.
351
False
Is the name more ancient than other group names in the area ?
572fca32a23a5019007fc9e2
The name Hellenes seems to be older and it was probably used by the Greeks with the establishment of the Great Amphictyonic League.
1292
False
How many orginal founding patrons are there of the Great Amphictyonic League ?
572fca32a23a5019007fc9e3
with twelve founders
1472
False
Hellenes
21
What area is given to be the nesting point of a small group of pagans by a very famous philosopher from Greek?
5ad297e4d7d075001a429b32
True
Hellen, the patriarch of Hellenes
316
Who is this small group not named for?
5ad297e4d7d075001a429b33
True
Pyrrha and Deucalion
362
From what mystical lineage does this name benefactor descend from
5ad297e4d7d075001a429b34
True
twelve founders
1477
How many orginal founding patrons are there of the Great Emphictyonic League
5ad297e4d7d075001a429b35
True
Homer refers to the "Hellenes" (/ˈhɛliːnz/) as a relatively small tribe settled in Thessalic Phthia, with its warriors under the command of Achilleus. The Parian Chronicle says that Phthia was the homeland of the Hellenes and that this name was given to those previously called Greeks (Γραικοί). In Greek mythology, Hellen, the patriarch of Hellenes, was son of Pyrrha and Deucalion, who ruled around Phthia, the only survivors after the great deluge. It seems that the myth was invented when the Greek tribes started to separate from each other in certain areas of Greece and it indicates their common origin. Aristotle names ancient Hellas as an area in Epirus between Dodona and the Achelous river, the location of the great deluge of Deucalion, a land occupied by the Selloi and the "Greeks" who later came to be known as "Hellenes". Selloi were the priests of Dodonian Zeus and the word probably means "sacrificers" (compare Gothic saljan, "present, sacrifice"). There is currently no satisfactory etymology of the name Hellenes. Some scholars assert that the name Selloi changed to Sellanes and then to Hellanes-Hellenes. However this etymology connects the name Hellenes with the Dorians who occupied Epirus and the relation with the name Greeks given by the Romans becomes uncertain. The name Hellenes seems to be older and it was probably used by the Greeks with the establishment of the Great Amphictyonic League. This was an ancient association of Greek tribes with twelve founders which was organized to protect the great temples of Apollo in Delphi (Phocis) and of Demeter near Thermopylae (Locris). According to the legend it was founded after the Trojan War by the eponymous Amphictyon, brother of Hellen.
what does the author of the mortal female focused early example hexameter poetry say of the Hellenic protector ?
572fccbda23a5019007fca09
Hellen was the son of Deucalion who ruled around Phthia in central Greece.
136
False
What caused a name change according to the Chronicles of Parian ?
572fccbda23a5019007fca0a
the previously called Graikoi were named Hellenes.
284
False
Where do modern theorist believe the name of Greek originated from ?
572fccbda23a5019007fca0b
A modern theory derives the name Greek (Latin Graeci) from Graikos, "inhabitant of Graia/Graea," a town on the coast of Boeotia.
733
False
What  is the origins of the term "old woman " ?
572fccbda23a5019007fca0c
word γραῖα graia "old woman" comes from the PIE root *ǵerh2-/*ǵreh2-, "to grow old" via Proto-Greek *gera-/grau-iu
1071
False
Hellen was the son of Deucalion who ruled around Phthia in central Greece
136
what does the author of the mortal female focused late example hexameter poetry say of the Hellenic protector?
5ad29850d7d075001a429b3a
True
previously called Graikoi were named Hellenes
288
What didn't cause a name change according to the Chronicles of Parian
5ad29850d7d075001a429b3b
True
inhabitant of Graia/Graea
802
Where do ancient theorist believe the name of Greek originated from
5ad29850d7d075001a429b3c
True
γραῖα graia "old woman" comes from the PIE root *ǵerh2-/*ǵreh2-, "to grow old"
1076
What is the origins of the term "old man "?
5ad29850d7d075001a429b3d
True
In the Hesiodic Catalogue of Women, Graecus is presented as the son of Zeus and Pandora II, sister of Hellen the patriarch of Hellenes. Hellen was the son of Deucalion who ruled around Phthia in central Greece. The Parian Chronicle mentions that when Deucalion became king of Phthia, the previously called Graikoi were named Hellenes. Aristotle notes that the Hellenes were related with Grai/Greeks (Meteorologica I.xiv) a native name of a Dorian tribe in Epirus which was used by the Illyrians. He also claims that the great deluge must have occurred in the region around Dodona, where the Selloi dwelt. However, according to the Greek tradition it is more possible that the homeland of the Greeks was originally in central Greece. A modern theory derives the name Greek (Latin Graeci) from Graikos, "inhabitant of Graia/Graea," a town on the coast of Boeotia. Greek colonists from Graia helped to found Cumae (900 BC) in Italy, where they were called Graeces. When the Romans encountered them they used this name for the colonists and then for all Greeks (Graeci.) The word γραῖα graia "old woman" comes from the PIE root *ǵerh2-/*ǵreh2-, "to grow old" via Proto-Greek *gera-/grau-iu; the same root later gave γέρας geras (/keras/), "gift of honour" in Mycenean Greek. The Germanic languages borrowed the word Greeks with an initial "k" sound which probably was their initial sound closest to the Latin "g" at the time (Goth. Kreks). The area out of ancient Attica including Boeotia was called Graïke and is connected with the older deluge of Ogyges, the mythological ruler of Boeotia. The region was originally occupied by the Minyans who were autochthonous or Proto-Greek speaking people. In ancient Greek the name Ogygios came to mean "from earliest days".
What interchangeable terms did Homer use in his poems for Greeks ?
572fda3004bcaa1900d76dcf
Achaeans and Danaans
21
False
What is believed to be the derivative of these names ?
572fda3004bcaa1900d76dd0
pre-Dorian
190
False
What was redefined in the 5th century about the people of these names?
572fda3004bcaa1900d76dd1
redefined as contemporary speakers of Aeolic Greek
369
False
Where was this origin of this redefinition ?
572fda3004bcaa1900d76dd2
spoken mainly in Thessaly, Boeotia and Lesbos
430
False
What was the age in 1300 BC named ?
572fda3004bcaa1900d76dd3
early Iron age
676
False
Achaeans and Danaans
21
What interchangeable terms did Homer use in his songs for Greeks?
5ad298c5d7d075001a429b56
True
pre-Dorian
190
What is believed to not be the derivative of these names?
5ad298c5d7d075001a429b57
True
redefined as contemporary speakers of Aeolic Greek
369
What was redefined in the 4th century about the people of these names?
5ad298c5d7d075001a429b58
True
Iron age
682
What was the age in 1400 BC named?
5ad298c5d7d075001a429b59
True
Homer uses the terms Achaeans and Danaans (Δαναοί) as a generic term for Greeks in Iliad, and they were probably a part of the Mycenean civilization. The names Achaioi and Danaoi seem to be pre-Dorian belonging to the people who were overthrown. They were forced to the region that later bore the name Achaea after the Dorian invasion. In the 5th century BC, they were redefined as contemporary speakers of Aeolic Greek which was spoken mainly in Thessaly, Boeotia and Lesbos. There are many controversial theories on the origin of the Achaeans. According to one view, the Achaeans were one of the fair-headed tribes of upper Europe, who pressed down over the Alps during the early Iron age (1300 BC) to southern Europe. Another theory suggests that the Peloponnesian Dorians were the Achaeans. These theories are rejected by other scholars who, based on linguistic criteria, suggest that the Achaeans were mainland pre-Dorian Greeks. There is also the theory that there was an Achaean ethnos that migrated from Asia minor to lower Thessaly prior to 2000 BC. Some Hittite texts mention a nation lying to the west called Ahhiyava or Ahhiya. Egyptian documents refer to Ekwesh, one of the groups of sea peoples who attached Egypt during the reign of Merneptah (1213-1203 BCE), who may have been Achaeans.
In Homer's poems who were the Greeks at odds with ?
572fdc43947a6a140053cd72
Trojans
141
False
From where did the basis of the Argos tales originate ?
572fdc43947a6a140053cd73
Egypt
186
False
What did the female descendants of Argos have to accomplish ?
572fdc43947a6a140053cd74
His daughters Danaides, were forced in Tartarus to carry a jug to fill a bathtub without a bottom
226
False
What community did the Denyen live in ?
572fdc43947a6a140053cd75
Denyen
748
False
What country is spoken of in the inscriptions of a country in Northern Africa from 1390-1352 BC ?
572fdc43947a6a140053cd76
A country Danaja with a city Mukana (propaply: Mycenea) is mentioned in inscriptions from Egypt
1601
False
Trojans
141
In Homer's poems who were the Greeks not at odds with?
5ad2996ad7d075001a429b68
True
Egypt
186
From where did the basis of the Argos tales not originate?
5ad2996ad7d075001a429b69
True
carry a jug to fill a bathtub without a bottom
277
What did the male descendants of Argos have to accomplish?
5ad2996ad7d075001a429b6a
True
inscriptions from Egypt
1673
What country is spoken of in the inscriptions of a country in Northern Africa from 1390-1352 AD?
5ad2996ad7d075001a429b6b
True
In Homer's Iliad, the names Danaans (or Danaoi: Δαναοί) and Argives (Argives: Αργείοι) are used to designate the Greek forces opposed to the Trojans. The myth of Danaus, whose origin is Egypt, is a foundation legend of Argos. His daughters Danaides, were forced in Tartarus to carry a jug to fill a bathtub without a bottom. This myth is connected with a task that can never be fulfilled (Sisyphos) and the name can be derived from the PIE root *danu: "river". There is not any satisfactory theory on their origin. Some scholars connect Danaans with the Denyen, one of the groups of the sea peoples who attacked Egypt during the reign of Ramesses III (1187-1156 BCE). The same inscription mentions the Weshesh who might have been the Achaeans. The Denyen seem to have been inhabitants of the city Adana in Cilicia. Pottery similar to that of Mycenae itself has been found in Tarsus of Cilicia and it seems that some refugees from the Aegean went there after the collapse of the Mycenean civilization. These Cilicians seem to have been called Dananiyim, the same word as Danaoi who attacked Egypt in 1191 BC along with the Quaouash (or Weshesh) who may be Achaeans. They were also called Danuna according to a Hittite inscription and the same name is mentioned in the Amarna letters. Julius Pokorny reconstructs the name from the PIE root da:-: "flow, river", da:-nu: "any moving liquid, drops", da: navo "people living by the river, Skyth. nomadic people (in Rigveda water-demons, fem.Da:nu primordial goddess), in Greek Danaoi, Egypt. Danuna". It is also possible that the name Danaans is pre-Greek. A country Danaja with a city Mukana (propaply: Mycenea) is mentioned in inscriptions from Egypt from Amenophis III (1390-1352 BC), Thutmosis III (1437 BC).
What is the easiest connection between the Greeks of old and those of today ?
572fdf30a23a5019007fcaa7
most obvious link between modern and ancient Greeks is their language
4
False
How log did the age of darkness last for the Greeks ?
572fdf30a23a5019007fcaa8
Greek Dark Ages (lasting from the 11th to the 8th century BC)
193
False
Who else has a history as long standing as those of the Greeks ?
572fdf30a23a5019007fcaa9
continuity of tradition to Chinese alone
277
False
When did most of the Eastward sector of the Roman expanse choose to have a rebirth of Greek traditions and appreciations ?
572fdf30a23a5019007fcaaa
During the later years of the Eastern Roman Empire
642
False
What aspects of the Greek culture have remained steadfast throughout the years ?
572fdf30a23a5019007fcaab
retained their language and alphabet, certain values and cultural traditions, customs, a sense of religious and cultural difference and exclusion
1122
False
language
65
What is the most difficult connection between the Greeks of old and those of today?
5ad299cbd7d075001a429b7a
True
from the 11th to the 8th century BC
218
How log did the age of lightness last for the Greeks?
5ad299cbd7d075001a429b7b
True
continuity of tradition to Chinese
277
Who else has a history as long standing as those of the Irish?
5ad299cbd7d075001a429b7c
True
Eastern Roman Empire
672
When did most of the Westward sector of the Roman expanse choose to have a rebirth of Greek traditions and appreciations?
5ad299cbd7d075001a429b7d
True
The most obvious link between modern and ancient Greeks is their language, which has a documented tradition from at least the 14th century BC to the present day, albeit with a break during the Greek Dark Ages (lasting from the 11th to the 8th century BC). Scholars compare its continuity of tradition to Chinese alone. Since its inception, Hellenism was primarily a matter of common culture and the national continuity of the Greek world is a lot more certain than its demographic. Yet, Hellenism also embodied an ancestral dimension through aspects of Athenian literature that developed and influenced ideas of descent based on autochthony. During the later years of the Eastern Roman Empire, areas such as Ionia and Constantinople experienced a Hellenic revival in language, philosophy, and literature and on classical models of thought and scholarship. This revival provided a powerful impetus to the sense of cultural affinity with ancient Greece and its classical heritage. The cultural changes undergone by the Greeks are, despite a surviving common sense of ethnicity, undeniable. At the same time, the Greeks have retained their language and alphabet, certain values and cultural traditions, customs, a sense of religious and cultural difference and exclusion, (the word barbarian was used by 12th-century historian Anna Komnene to describe non-Greek speakers), a sense of Greek identity and common sense of ethnicity despite the global political and social changes of the past two millennia.
In the Rupublic of Hellenic who is the ethnic majority and what percentage of the populace do they represent ?
572fe045a23a5019007fcac3
Greeks are the majority ethnic group in the Hellenic Republic, where they constitute 93% of the country's population
7
False
What's the estimated populace of Greeks on the isle of Cyprus ?
572fe045a23a5019007fcac4
Republic of Cyprus where they make up 78% of the island's population
133
False
Are Greeks in danger of contributing vastly to the problem of population control ?
572fe045a23a5019007fcac5
Greek populations have not traditionally exhibited high rates of growth
268
False
Is the Greek populace on a whole increasing or decreasing in numbers ?
572fe045a23a5019007fcac6
Greece has shown regular increase since the country's first census in 1828.
372
False
Where there any significances that contributed to the increase or decrease in population numbers ?
572fe045a23a5019007fcac7
influx of 1.5 million Greek refugees after the 1923 population exchange between Greece and Turkey.
577
False
93% of the country's population
92
In the Republic of Hellenic who is the ethnic majority and what percentage of the populace don't they represent?
5ad29a11d7d075001a429b94
True
78% of the island's population
171
What's the estimated populace of Irish on the isle of Cyprus?
5ad29a11d7d075001a429b95
True
exhibited high rates of growth
309
How has the population decreased since 1828?
5ad29a11d7d075001a429b96
True
exhibited high rates of growth
309
How has the population decreased since 1829?
5ad29a11d7d075001a429b97
True
Today, Greeks are the majority ethnic group in the Hellenic Republic, where they constitute 93% of the country's population, and the Republic of Cyprus where they make up 78% of the island's population (excluding Turkish settlers in the occupied part of the country). Greek populations have not traditionally exhibited high rates of growth; nonetheless, the population of Greece has shown regular increase since the country's first census in 1828. A large percentage of the population growth since the state's foundation has resulted from annexation of new territories and the influx of 1.5 million Greek refugees after the 1923 population exchange between Greece and Turkey. About 80% of the population of Greece is urban, with 28% concentrated in the city of Athens
Which colonial enterprise for land was the Greek Isles a part of
5730704c396df919000960f8
British Empire
139
False
Who was living on with the Greeks in Cyprus s 1974 ?
5730704c396df919000960f9
Turkish
188
False
Whee these new inhabitants welcomed ?
5730704c396df919000960fa
Turkish invasion of Cyprus
188
False
During the early seventies where did most Cyprus Greeks decide to go ?
5730704c396df919000960fb
the Middle East
526
False
British Empire
139
Which colonial enterprise for land was the Greek Isles not a part of?
5ad29a55d7d075001a429b9c
True
Turkish
188
Who was living on with the Irish in Cyprus in 1974?
5ad29a55d7d075001a429b9d
True
Turkish invasion of Cyprus
188
Who invaded Turkey?
5ad29a55d7d075001a429b9e
True
Middle East
530
During the early eighties where did most Cyprus Greeks decide to go
5ad29a55d7d075001a429b9f
True
Greeks from Cyprus have a similar history of emigration, usually to the English-speaking world because of the island's colonization by the British Empire. Waves of emigration followed the Turkish invasion of Cyprus in 1974, while the population decreased between mid-1974 and 1977 as a result of emigration, war losses, and a temporary decline in fertility. After the ethnic cleansing of a third of the Greek population of the island in 1974, there was also an increase in the number of Greek Cypriots leaving, especially for the Middle East, which contributed to a decrease in population that tapered off in the 1990s. Today more than two-thirds of the Greek population in Cyprus is urban.
What other countries boast of a Greek populace ?
573071f02461fd1900a9ce15
105,000 (disputed, sources claim higher) people, in Albania. The Greek minority of Turkey
44
False
What acts have caused the population of Greeks to be numbered so few in the country who name is reminiscent of a big American holiday?
573071f02461fd1900a9ce16
1955 Constantinople Pogrom and other state sponsored violence and discrimination.
247
False
How long was there a Greek influence represented in "little" Asia ?
573071f02461fd1900a9ce17
the three-thousand-year-old presence of Hellenism in Asia Minor
374
False
Are there any Greek who still live in the area around the dark sea in any majority of numbers?
573071f02461fd1900a9ce18
smaller Greek minorities in the rest of the Balkan countries, the Levant and the Black Sea states,
449
False
105,000
44
What other countries don't boast of a Greek populace?
5ad29ac9d7d075001a429ba4
True
1955
247
What year was the Constantine Progom?
5ad29ac9d7d075001a429ba5
True
Constantinople Pogrom
252
What happened in 1956?
5ad29ac9d7d075001a429ba6
True
three-thousand-year-old presence
378
How long was there a Greek influence represented in "little" Africa?
5ad29ac9d7d075001a429ba7
True
smaller Greek minorities
449
Are there any Greek who still live in the area around the light sea in any majority of numbers?
5ad29ac9d7d075001a429ba8
True
There is a sizeable Greek minority of about 105,000 (disputed, sources claim higher) people, in Albania. The Greek minority of Turkey, which numbered upwards of 200,000 people after the 1923 exchange, has now dwindled to a few thousand, after the 1955 Constantinople Pogrom and other state sponsored violence and discrimination. This effectively ended, though not entirely, the three-thousand-year-old presence of Hellenism in Asia Minor. There are smaller Greek minorities in the rest of the Balkan countries, the Levant and the Black Sea states, remnants of the Old Greek Diaspora (pre-19th century).
How many people that are of Greek ascendancy live elsewhere than Greece ?
57307352069b5314008320eb
total number of Greeks living outside Greece and Cyprus today is a contentious issue
4
False
Who provided the contradictory  population numbers for Greeks abroad ?
57307352069b5314008320ec
World Council of Hellenes Abroad
219
False
How many Greeks do they believe would be an accurate number for census numbers ?
57307352069b5314008320ed
World Council of Hellenes Abroad put the figure at around 7 million worldwide
219
False
At what university is this issue of accurate consensus for Greeks living elsewhere being debated an
57307352069b5314008320ee
Sorbonne University
332
False
Who has presented the contradictory number to the census groups ?
57307352069b5314008320ef
George Prevelakis of Sorbonne University, the number is closer to just below 5 million
311
False
total number of Greeks living outside Greece and Cyprus today is a contentious issue
4
How many people that are of Greek ascendancy live elsewhere than Italy?
5ad29b2ed7d075001a429bc2
True
World Council of Hellenes Abroad
219
Who provided the contradictory population numbers for Irish abroad?
5ad29b2ed7d075001a429bc3
True
7 million worldwide
277
How many Greeks do they believe would be an inaccurate number for census numbers?
5ad29b2ed7d075001a429bc4
True
below 5 million
382
Who has presented the contradictory number to the non-census groups ?
5ad29b2ed7d075001a429bc5
True
The total number of Greeks living outside Greece and Cyprus today is a contentious issue. Where Census figures are available, they show around 3 million Greeks outside Greece and Cyprus. Estimates provided by the SAE - World Council of Hellenes Abroad put the figure at around 7 million worldwide. According to George Prevelakis of Sorbonne University, the number is closer to just below 5 million. Integration, intermarriage, and loss of the Greek language influence the self-identification of the Omogeneia. Important centres of the New Greek Diaspora today are London, New York, Melbourne and Toronto. In 2010, the Hellenic Parliament introduced a law that enables Diaspora Greeks in Greece to vote in the elections of the Greek state. This law was later repealed in early 2014.
What helped to advance the Greek way of life beyond its boarders ?
573076bd396df91900096132
the trading and colonizing activities of the Greek tribes and city states spread the Greek culture, religion and language
18
False
What other close by countries have been greatly influenced by the Greek way of life ?
573076bd396df91900096133
Sicily and southern Italy (also known as Magna Grecia), Spain, the south of France and the Black sea coasts.
201
False
How were the rulers of social class picked to be representatives in the now traditionally Arabic speaking part of the world and in Northern Africa ?
573076bd396df91900096134
Under Alexander the Great's empire and successor states, Greek and Hellenizing ruling classes were established in the Middle East, India and in Egypt.
310
False
What period marked the expansion of Greek thinking and expression ?
573076bd396df91900096135
The Hellenistic period
461
False
trading and colonizing activities
22
What helped to advance the Greek way of life inside its boarders?
5ad29b99d7d075001a429bd2
True
Sicily and southern Italy
201
What other close by countries have been greatly influenced by the French way of life?
5ad29b99d7d075001a429bd3
True
established in the Middle East, India and in Egypt
409
How were the rulers of social class picked to be representatives in the now traditionally Arabic speaking part of the world and in Northern America?
5ad29b99d7d075001a429bd4
True
Hellenistic
465
What period didn't mark the expansion of Greek thinking and expression?
5ad29b99d7d075001a429bd5
True
In ancient times, the trading and colonizing activities of the Greek tribes and city states spread the Greek culture, religion and language around the Mediterranean and Black Sea basins, especially in Sicily and southern Italy (also known as Magna Grecia), Spain, the south of France and the Black sea coasts. Under Alexander the Great's empire and successor states, Greek and Hellenizing ruling classes were established in the Middle East, India and in Egypt. The Hellenistic period is characterized by a new wave of Greek colonization that established Greek cities and kingdoms in Asia and Africa. Under the Roman Empire, easier movement of people spread Greeks across the Empire and in the eastern territories, Greek became the lingua franca rather than Latin. The modern-day Griko community of southern Italy, numbering about 60,000, may represent a living remnant of the ancient Greek populations of Italy.
After freedom was won by the Greeks who was of import to forming the rules  ?
57307b79069b531400832115
Greek War of Independence, Greeks of the diaspora were important in establishing the fledgling state
21
False
What did they do that contributed to the Greek's success of establishment?
57307b79069b531400832116
important in establishing the fledgling state, raising funds and awareness abroad
76
False
Who already had contact over a network of countries ready to offer assistance to the Greeks ?
57307b79069b531400832117
Greek merchant families already had contacts in other countries
159
False
What countries did they settle in ?
57307b79069b531400832118
Marseilles in France, Livorno in Italy, Alexandria in Egypt), Russia (Odessa and Saint Petersburg), and Britain (London and Liverpool)
302
False
How were these relationships with the other countries most likely established ?
57307b79069b531400832119
from where they traded, typically in textiles and grain.
437
False
Greeks of the diaspora were important in establishing the fledgling state
48
Before freedom was won by the Greeks who was of import to forming the rules?
5ad29becd7d075001a429bda
True
important in establishing the fledgling state, raising funds and awareness abroad
76
What did they do that contributed to the French's success of establishment?
5ad29becd7d075001a429bdb
True
Greek merchant families
159
Who already had contact over a network of countries ready to offer assistance to the French?
5ad29becd7d075001a429bdc
True
Marseilles in France, Livorno in Italy, Alexandria in Egypt), Russia
302
What countries did they not settle in?
5ad29becd7d075001a429bdd
True
During and after the Greek War of Independence, Greeks of the diaspora were important in establishing the fledgling state, raising funds and awareness abroad. Greek merchant families already had contacts in other countries and during the disturbances many set up home around the Mediterranean (notably Marseilles in France, Livorno in Italy, Alexandria in Egypt), Russia (Odessa and Saint Petersburg), and Britain (London and Liverpool) from where they traded, typically in textiles and grain. Businesses frequently comprised the extended family, and with them they brought schools teaching Greek and the Greek Orthodox Church.
What is considered the start of the Grecian cultural world ?
57307d192461fd1900a9ce59
beginning in the Mycenaean civilization
60
False
Which devotion of time was heavily influenced by the religious followers of the  Son of God ?
57307d192461fd1900a9ce5a
the Roman and Eastern Roman periods and was profoundly affected by Christianity
142
False
In what centennial was the massacre of the Greeks of Ottoman descent ?
57307d192461fd1900a9ce5b
genocide in the 20th century
350
False
Was there anything good that could be found from the divergence into exchange ?
57307d192461fd1900a9ce5c
included cultural exchanges and enriched both cultures.
396
False
Who was given the merit for the reemergence of the Greek way of life ?
57307d192461fd1900a9ce5d
Diafotismos is credited with revitalizing Greek culture
456
False
beginning in the Mycenaean civilization
60
What is considered the end of the Grecian cultural world?
5ad29c57d7d075001a429bf6
True
Roman and Eastern Roman periods
146
Which devotion of time wa didn't heavily influence by the religious followers of the Son of God?
5ad29c57d7d075001a429bf7
True
genocide in the 20th century
350
In what centennial was the massacre of the French of Ottoman descent?
5ad29c57d7d075001a429bf8
True
cultural exchanges
405
Was there anything good that could not be found from the divergence into exchange?
5ad29c57d7d075001a429bf9
True
Diafotismos
456
Who was given the merit for the reemergence of the french way of life ?
5ad29c57d7d075001a429bfa
True
Greek culture has evolved over thousands of years, with its beginning in the Mycenaean civilization, continuing through the Classical period, the Roman and Eastern Roman periods and was profoundly affected by Christianity, which it in turn influenced and shaped. Ottoman Greeks had to endure through several centuries of adversity that culminated in genocide in the 20th century but nevertheless included cultural exchanges and enriched both cultures. The Diafotismos is credited with revitalizing Greek culture and giving birth to the synthesis of ancient and medieval elements that characterize it today.
What other dialects share a thread with the Greek language.
57308f8e2461fd1900a9ce97
other Balkan languages, such as Albanian, Bulgarian and Eastern Romance languages (see Balkan sprachbund),
68
False
What radical political changes occurred during the 19th century ?
57308f8e2461fd1900a9ce98
the movements of Philhellenism and the Diafotismos in the 19th century
273
False
What did these changes highlight ?
57308f8e2461fd1900a9ce99
emphasized the modern Greeks' ancient heritage
351
False
What became the official dialect of Greeks and what was it missing ?
57308f8e2461fd1900a9ce9a
Katharevousa, a somewhat artificial form of Greek purged of all foreign influence and words, as the official language of the Greek state.
476
False
What choices in 1976 made a change to the decisions concerning the official dialect ?
57308f8e2461fd1900a9ce9b
In 1976, however, the Hellenic Parliament voted to make the spoken Dimotiki the official language
614
False
Balkan languages
74
What other dialects share a thread with the French language?
5ad29cb9d7d075001a429c00
True
Philhellenism and the Diafotismos
290
What non-radical political changes occurred during the 19th century?
5ad29cb9d7d075001a429c01
True
emphasized the modern Greeks' ancient heritage
351
What did these changes not highlight?
5ad29cb9d7d075001a429c02
True
Katharevousa
476
What became the official dialect of Greeks and what was it not missing?
5ad29cb9d7d075001a429c03
True
Greek demonstrates several linguistic features that are shared with other Balkan languages, such as Albanian, Bulgarian and Eastern Romance languages (see Balkan sprachbund), and has absorbed many foreign words, primarily of Western European and Turkish origin. Because of the movements of Philhellenism and the Diafotismos in the 19th century, which emphasized the modern Greeks' ancient heritage, these foreign influences were excluded from official use via the creation of Katharevousa, a somewhat artificial form of Greek purged of all foreign influence and words, as the official language of the Greek state. In 1976, however, the Hellenic Parliament voted to make the spoken Dimotiki the official language, making Katharevousa obsolete.
What is different about the use of Greek language today as opposed to the language of the past ?
573091522461fd1900a9cea1
Modern Greek has, in addition to Standard Modern Greek or Dimotiki, a wide variety of dialects
0
False
What are some of the local jargon used in Greek speaking?
573091522461fd1900a9cea2
wide variety of dialects of varying levels of mutual intelligibility, including Cypriot, Pontic, Cappadocian, Griko and Tsakonian
70
False
What language still survives as the representation of the one of the three religious orders of historic Greece ?
573091522461fd1900a9cea3
Tsakonian (the only surviving representative of ancient Doric Greek)
190
False
What ancient language is still in use today in some of the minuscule societies in the Grecian world ?
573091522461fd1900a9cea4
Yevanic is the language of the Romaniotes, and survives in small communities in Greece, New York and Israel.
260
False
Do the people of Greek ascendancy only speak Grecian languages ?
573091522461fd1900a9cea5
bilingual in other languages or dialects such as English, Arvanitika/Albanian, Aromanian, Macedonian Slavic, Russian and Turkish.
434
False
a wide variety of dialects
68
What is different about the use of Greek language today as opposed to the language of the future?
5ad29d1ad7d075001a429c08
True
Cypriot, Pontic, Cappadocian, Griko and Tsakonian
150
What are some of the non-local jargon used in Greek speaking?
5ad29d1ad7d075001a429c09
True
Tsakonian
190
What language still survives as the representation of the one of the four religious orders of historic Greece?
5ad29d1ad7d075001a429c0a
True
Yevanic
260
What ancient language is still in use today in some of the minuscule societies in the non-Grecian world?
5ad29d1ad7d075001a429c0b
True
bilingual in other languages
434
Do the people of French ascendancy only speak Grecian languages?
5ad29d1ad7d075001a429c0c
True
Modern Greek has, in addition to Standard Modern Greek or Dimotiki, a wide variety of dialects of varying levels of mutual intelligibility, including Cypriot, Pontic, Cappadocian, Griko and Tsakonian (the only surviving representative of ancient Doric Greek). Yevanic is the language of the Romaniotes, and survives in small communities in Greece, New York and Israel. In addition to Greek, many Greeks in Greece and the Diaspora are bilingual in other languages or dialects such as English, Arvanitika/Albanian, Aromanian, Macedonian Slavic, Russian and Turkish.
What is the religion of the Greek majority ?
573092c08ab72b1400f9c5a4
Christians
16
False
What denominational variance do they adhere to for the most part ?
573092c08ab72b1400f9c5a5
belonging to the Greek Orthodox Church
28
False
What language was the second half of the Bible originally written in ?
573092c08ab72b1400f9c5a6
the New Testament was originally written in Koine Greek
115
False
This language is the official dialect of worship for the traditional sect for church worshipers of Greece ?
573092c08ab72b1400f9c5a7
Koine Greek, which remains the liturgical language of the Greek Orthodox Church
159
False
What other varieties of Christianity can be found among the Grecian people ?
573092c08ab72b1400f9c5a8
Catholics, Greek Evangelicals, Pentecostals, and groups adhering to other religions including Romaniot and Sephardic Jews and Greek Muslims.
406
False
Christians
16
What is the religion of the Greek minority?
5ad29d55d7d075001a429c1c
True
Greek Orthodox Church
217
What denominational variance do they not adhere to for the most part ?
5ad29d55d7d075001a429c1d
True
Koine Greek
159
What language was the second half of the Bible not written in?
5ad29d55d7d075001a429c1e
True
Koine Greek
159
This language is the official dialect of worship for the traditional sect for church worshipers of France?
5ad29d55d7d075001a429c1f
True
Most Greeks are Christians, belonging to the Greek Orthodox Church. During the first centuries after Jesus Christ, the New Testament was originally written in Koine Greek, which remains the liturgical language of the Greek Orthodox Church, and most of the early Christians and Church Fathers were Greek-speaking. There are small groups of ethnic Greeks adhering to other Christian denominations like Greek Catholics, Greek Evangelicals, Pentecostals, and groups adhering to other religions including Romaniot and Sephardic Jews and Greek Muslims. About 2,000 Greeks are members of Hellenic Polytheistic Reconstructionism congregations.
What input did the Greeks have on artistry of the world ?
5730953e8ab72b1400f9c5c8
visual, literary and performing arts.
72
False
What period in Europe was full of an appreciation for earlier cultures ?
5730953e8ab72b1400f9c5c9
the Renaissance in Europe
236
False
What important heritage of art  from Greece was celebrated during this time ?
5730953e8ab72b1400f9c5ca
the humanist aesthetic and the high technical standards of Greek art inspired generations of European artists.
263
False
What enacted the transactions of customs and ways of life for the people of the Asian continent and the Grecian people ?
5730953e8ab72b1400f9c5cb
In the East, Alexander the Great's conquests initiated several centuries of exchange between Greek, Central Asian and Indian cultures
504
False
In the Land of the Rising Sun, what influence was of Greek descent ?
5730953e8ab72b1400f9c5cc
Greco-Buddhist art, whose influence reached as far as Japan.
652
False
visual, literary and performing arts
72
What input did the French have on artistry of the world?
5ad29db4d7d075001a429c24
True
Renaissance in Europe
240
What period in Asia was full of an appreciation for earlier cultures?
5ad29db4d7d075001a429c25
True
humanist aesthetic and the high technical standards
267
What important heritage of art from France was celebrated during this time?
5ad29db4d7d075001a429c26
True
In the East, Alexander the Great's conquests initiated several centuries of exchange between Greek, Central Asian and Indian cultures
504
What enacted the transactions of customs and ways of life for the people of the Asian continent and the French people
5ad29db4d7d075001a429c27
True
Greco-Buddhist
652
In the Land of the Rising Sun, what influence was of non-Greek descent ?
5ad29db4d7d075001a429c28
True
Greek art has a long and varied history. Greeks have contributed to the visual, literary and performing arts. In the West, ancient Greek art was influential in shaping the Roman and later the modern western artistic heritage. Following the Renaissance in Europe, the humanist aesthetic and the high technical standards of Greek art inspired generations of European artists. Well into the 19th century, the classical tradition derived from Greece played an important role in the art of the western world. In the East, Alexander the Great's conquests initiated several centuries of exchange between Greek, Central Asian and Indian cultures, resulting in Greco-Buddhist art, whose influence reached as far as Japan.
Who was one of the old masters from the Greeks ?
5730969b396df919000961cc
Greek artists include Renaissance painter Dominikos Theotokopoulos (El Greco), Panagiotis Do
15
False
Who was one the most well known modern decorative modelers of the Greeks ?
5730969b396df919000961cd
sculptors such as Leonidas Drosis, Georgios Bonanos, Yannoulis Chalepas and Joannis Avramidis
227
False
Who sang in a voice that is in the high octave range from the Modern Greek Era ?
5730969b396df919000961ce
soprano Maria Callas
353
False
Name one of the poetic authors who was also nominated for the Nobel Peace Award from the Greeks ?
5730969b396df919000961cf
Nobel laureates Giorgos Seferis and Odysseas Elytis are among the most important poets of the 20th century.
688
False
Dominikos Theotokopoulos
57
Who was one of the old masters from the French?
5ad29e36d7d075001a429c42
True
Leonidas Drosis, Georgios Bonanos, Yannoulis Chalepas and Joannis Avramidis
245
Who was one the most well known modern decorative modelers of the French?
5ad29e36d7d075001a429c43
True
Maria Callas
361
Who sang in a voice that is in the low octave range from the Modern Greek Era?
5ad29e36d7d075001a429c44
True
Giorgos Seferis
704
Name one of the poetic authors who was never nominated for the Nobel Peace Award from the Greeks
5ad29e36d7d075001a429c45
True
Notable modern Greek artists include Renaissance painter Dominikos Theotokopoulos (El Greco), Panagiotis Doxaras, Nikolaos Gyzis, Nikiphoros Lytras, Yannis Tsarouchis, Nikos Engonopoulos, Constantine Andreou, Jannis Kounellis, sculptors such as Leonidas Drosis, Georgios Bonanos, Yannoulis Chalepas and Joannis Avramidis, conductor Dimitri Mitropoulos, soprano Maria Callas, composers such as Mikis Theodorakis, Nikos Skalkottas, Iannis Xenakis, Manos Hatzidakis, Eleni Karaindrou, Yanni and Vangelis, one of the best-selling singers worldwide Nana Mouskouri and poets such as Kostis Palamas, Dionysios Solomos, Angelos Sikelianos and Yannis Ritsos. Alexandrian Constantine P. Cavafy and Nobel laureates Giorgos Seferis and Odysseas Elytis are among the most important poets of the 20th century. Novel is also represented by Alexandros Papadiamantis and Nikos Kazantzakis.
What contribution to the scientific community have the Greeks left the world ?
5730985d396df919000961ec
science and helped lay the foundations of several western scientific traditions, like philosophy, historiography and mathematics
70
False
What school practices were kept by the Roman world after the fall of Greece ?
5730985d396df919000961ed
scholarly tradition of the Greek academies was maintained during Roman times with several academic institutions
204
False
What has been maintained by the Greeks throughout their extended history ?
5730985d396df919000961ee
Greeks have a long tradition of valuing and investing in paideia (education
472
False
What is one the most elevated values among the Grecian society ?
5730985d396df919000961ef
Paideia was one of the highest societal values in the Greek and Hellenistic world
550
False
At what location did education begin for the first set of people to be eligible to earn and advanced degree in a particular subject ?
5730985d396df919000961f0
first European institution described as a university was founded in 5th century Constantinople and operated in various incarnations
642
False
science and helped lay the foundations of several western scientific traditions, like philosophy
70
What contribution to the scientific community have the French left the world?
5ad29ea6d7d075001a429c4a
True
Greek academies
231
What school practices were kept by the French world after the fall of Greece?
5ad29ea6d7d075001a429c4b
True
valuing and investing in paideia
504
What has been not maintained by the Greeks throughout their extended history
5ad29ea6d7d075001a429c4c
True
paideia
529
What is one the least elevated values among the Grecian society?
5ad29ea6d7d075001a429c4d
True
The Greeks of the Classical era made several notable contributions to science and helped lay the foundations of several western scientific traditions, like philosophy, historiography and mathematics. The scholarly tradition of the Greek academies was maintained during Roman times with several academic institutions in Constantinople, Antioch, Alexandria and other centres of Greek learning while Eastern Roman science was essentially a continuation of classical science. Greeks have a long tradition of valuing and investing in paideia (education). Paideia was one of the highest societal values in the Greek and Hellenistic world while the first European institution described as a university was founded in 5th century Constantinople and operated in various incarnations until the city's fall to the Ottomans in 1453. The University of Constantinople was Christian Europe's first secular institution of higher learning since no theological subjects were taught, and considering the original meaning of the world university as a corporation of students, the world’s first university as well.
According to recent research who is enrolled in the Universities in Greece in higher number men or women ?
57309c8e2461fd1900a9cf09
the percentages for female students being higher than for male
95
False
Do those who from Greek descent desire an education from other parts of the world ?
57309c8e2461fd1900a9cf0a
Hundreds of thousands of Greek students attend western universities every year
234
False
Are university  educators from he Greek world working as professors and teachers  in other countries ?
57309c8e2461fd1900a9cf0b
the faculty lists of leading Western universities contain a striking number of Greek names
319
False
Who made significant addition to a charming little quirky  scientific deviant that lead to the winning of a prestigious award of recognition and gave birth to a model ?
57309c8e2461fd1900a9cf0c
John Iliopoulos (2007 Dirac Prize for his contributions on the physics of the charm quark, a major contribution to the birth of the Standard Model,
656
False
female
115
According to recent research who is enrolled in the Universities in France in higher number men or women?
5ad29ee8d7d075001a429c5a
True
contain a striking number of Greek names.
369
Do those who from France descent desire an education from other parts of the world?
5ad29ee8d7d075001a429c5b
True
John Iliopoulos
656
Who made an insignificant addition to a charming little quirky scientific deviant that lead to the winning of a prestigious award of recognition and gave birth to a model
5ad29ee8d7d075001a429c5c
True
As of 2007, Greece had the eighth highest percentage of tertiary enrollment in the world (with the percentages for female students being higher than for male) while Greeks of the Diaspora are equally active in the field of education. Hundreds of thousands of Greek students attend western universities every year while the faculty lists of leading Western universities contain a striking number of Greek names. Notable modern Greek scientists of modern times include Dimitrios Galanos, Georgios Papanikolaou (inventor of the Pap test), Nicholas Negroponte, Constantin Carathéodory, Manolis Andronikos, Michael Dertouzos, John Argyris, Panagiotis Kondylis, John Iliopoulos (2007 Dirac Prize for his contributions on the physics of the charm quark, a major contribution to the birth of the Standard Model, the modern theory of Elementary Particles), Joseph Sifakis (2007 Turing Award, the "Nobel Prize" of Computer Science), Christos Papadimitriou (2002 Knuth Prize, 2012 Gödel Prize), Mihalis Yannakakis (2005 Knuth Prize) and Dimitri Nanopoulos.
What are the representations of the Greek reference freedom or death that are held on a cloth symbol of the nation ?
57309e2e8ab72b1400f9c5f6
flag of Greece, which features nine equal horizontal stripes of blue alternating with white
35
False
This reference also holds significance as what the the Grecian people ?
57309e2e8ab72b1400f9c5f7
motto of the Greek War of Independence
243
False
Is religion also represented on this cloth symbol of the Greek?
57309e2e8ab72b1400f9c5f8
bears a white cross, which represents Greek Orthodoxy
330
False
Have the people of Turkey held any feeling towards the cloth symbol of the Greeks ?
57309e2e8ab72b1400f9c5f9
ethnic tensions with the Turkish Cypriot minority
500
False
Have the people of Greece done anything to make the matter more palatable for the people of Turkey ?
57309e2e8ab72b1400f9c5fa
Cyprus has officially adopted a neutral flag
447
False
flag of Greece
35
What aren't the representations of the Greek reference freedom or death that are held on a cloth symbol of the nation?
5ad29f2ed7d075001a429c60
True
motto of the Greek War of Independence
243
This reference also holds insignificance as what the the Grecian people?
5ad29f2ed7d075001a429c61
True
The blue square in the upper hoist-side corner bears a white cross, which represents Greek Orthodoxy
283
Is religion also represented on this cloth symbol of the French?
5ad29f2ed7d075001a429c62
True
Cyprus has officially adopted a neutral flag
447
Have the people of Greece done anything to make the matter more palatable for the people of Asia?
5ad29f2ed7d075001a429c63
True
The most widely used symbol is the flag of Greece, which features nine equal horizontal stripes of blue alternating with white representing the nine syllables of the Greek national motto Eleftheria i thanatos (freedom or death), which was the motto of the Greek War of Independence. The blue square in the upper hoist-side corner bears a white cross, which represents Greek Orthodoxy. The Greek flag is widely used by the Greek Cypriots, although Cyprus has officially adopted a neutral flag to ease ethnic tensions with the Turkish Cypriot minority – see flag of Cyprus).
What names are used that are typically from  a father and have usually added a suffix or prefix ?
5730a045069b5314008321cf
Greek surnames are most commonly patronymics
123
False
What letter of the alphabet do most of the last names the men of Greecs end with ?
5730a045069b5314008321d0
Greek male surnames end in -s, which is the common ending
179
False
What other beginnings of origination do some of the last names of the Greeks share ?
5730a045069b5314008321d1
many have Latin, Turkish and Italian origin.
795
False
What does it mean to have the letters OU added to the ending of a males last name ?
5730a045069b5314008321d2
some end in -ou, indicating the genitive case of this proper noun for patronymic reasons.
309
False
patronymics
156
What names are used that are typically from a mother and have usually added a suffix or prefix?
5ad29f83d7d075001a429c7a
True
-s
206
What letter of the alphabet do most of the last names the men of France end with?
5ad29f83d7d075001a429c7b
True
Latin, Turkish and Italian origin
805
What other beginnings of origination do some of the last names of the French share?
5ad29f83d7d075001a429c7c
True
proper noun
363
What does it mean to have the letters OU added to the ending of a females last name?
5ad29f83d7d075001a429c7d
True
Greek surnames were widely in use by the 9th century supplanting the ancient tradition of using the father’s name, however Greek surnames are most commonly patronymics. Commonly, Greek male surnames end in -s, which is the common ending for Greek masculine proper nouns in the nominative case. Exceptionally, some end in -ou, indicating the genitive case of this proper noun for patronymic reasons. Although surnames in mainland Greece are static today, dynamic and changing patronymic usage survives in middle names where the genitive of father's first name is commonly the middle name (this usage having been passed on to the Russians). In Cyprus, by contrast, surnames follow the ancient tradition of being given according to the father’s name. Finally, in addition to Greek-derived surnames many have Latin, Turkish and Italian origin.
What are considered to be the motherland of the Greeks ?
5730a1eb396df9190009622a
Greek peninsula and the Aegean Sea, the Southern Italy (Magna Graecia), the Black Sea, the Ionian coasts of Asia Minor and the islands of Cyprus and Sicily
46
False
What statement of note was given by a great philosopher from Greece written by another great philosopher ?
5730a1eb396df9190009622b
Plato's Phaidon, Socrates remarks, "we (Greeks) live around a sea like frogs around a pond
206
False
What is the name of the ancient map of the Greek world  named  ?
5730a1eb396df9190009622c
map of the Old Greek Diaspora
391
False
When did changes of this ancient map become notable ?
5730a1eb396df9190009622d
corresponded to the Greek world until the creation of the Greek state in 183
428
False
Are there many product available from farm cultivation on the Greek lands ?
5730a1eb396df9190009622e
Greek peninsula is rocky and does not offer good prospects for agriculture
567
False
Greek peninsula and the Aegean Sea
46
What are considered to be the motherland of the French?
5ad29fdfd7d075001a429c82
True
we (Greeks) live around a sea like frogs around a pond
242
What statement of note was given by a great philosopher from France written by another great philosopher?
5ad29fdfd7d075001a429c83
True
map of the Old Greek Diaspora
391
What is the name of the ancient map of the French world named?
5ad29fdfd7d075001a429c84
True
1832
501
When did changes of this ancient map not become notable?
5ad29fdfd7d075001a429c85
True
Greek peninsula is rocky and does not offer good prospects for agriculture
567
Are there many product available from farm cultivation on the French lands?
5ad29fdfd7d075001a429c86
True
The traditional Greek homelands have been the Greek peninsula and the Aegean Sea, the Southern Italy (Magna Graecia), the Black Sea, the Ionian coasts of Asia Minor and the islands of Cyprus and Sicily. In Plato's Phaidon, Socrates remarks, "we (Greeks) live around a sea like frogs around a pond" when describing to his friends the Greek cities of the Aegean. This image is attested by the map of the Old Greek Diaspora, which corresponded to the Greek world until the creation of the Greek state in 1832. The sea and trade were natural outlets for Greeks since the Greek peninsula is rocky and does not offer good prospects for agriculture.
Who was the well known sea vessel captain of the Greeks who sailed to Asia  ?
5730a36a2461fd1900a9cf17
Cosmas Indicopleustes (Cosmas who sailed to India)
172
False
What else is this particular captain known for doing ?
5730a36a2461fd1900a9cf18
the explorer of the Northwestern passage Juan de Fuca
227
False
What did Greeks do that caused a later deal to be made with the Italians ?
5730a36a2461fd1900a9cf19
plied the sea-lanes of the Mediterranean and controlled trade
309
False
Who proposed that change was needed in the way business with the Greeks was to be conducted  ?
5730a36a2461fd1900a9cf1a
trade until an embargo imposed by the Roman Emperor on trade with the Caliphate
365
False
Cosmas Indicopleustes
172
Who was the well known sea vessel captain of the Greeks who sailed to France?
5ad2a02cd7d075001a429c8c
True
sailed to Iberia and beyond
93
What else is this particular captain known for not doing?
5ad2a02cd7d075001a429c8d
True
plied the sea-lanes of the Mediterranean
309
What did French do that caused a later deal to be made with the Italians?
5ad2a02cd7d075001a429c8e
True
trade until an embargo imposed by the Roman Emperor
365
Who proposed that change wasn't needed in the way business with the Greeks was to be conducted
5ad2a02cd7d075001a429c8f
True
Notable Greek seafarers include people such as Pytheas of Marseilles, Scylax of Caryanda who sailed to Iberia and beyond, Nearchus, the 6th century merchant and later monk Cosmas Indicopleustes (Cosmas who sailed to India) and the explorer of the Northwestern passage Juan de Fuca. In later times, the Romioi plied the sea-lanes of the Mediterranean and controlled trade until an embargo imposed by the Roman Emperor on trade with the Caliphate opened the door for the later Italian pre-eminence in trade.
What was brought about by the Ottomans that caused and uplift in the classes of Greek society ?
5730a4bc396df9190009623e
Greek shipping tradition recovered during Ottoman rule when a substantial merchant middle class developed
4
False
What did the development of these changes lead to for the Greeks under Ottoman rulers ?
5730a4bc396df9190009623f
Greek War of Independence
149
False
Is the seafaring business still of any relevancy to the Greek economy ?
5730a4bc396df91900096240
Greek shipping continues to prosper to the extent that Greece has the largest merchant fleet in the world
183
False
What was the last husband of Jacquelyn Kennedy known for ?
5730a4bc396df91900096241
most notable shipping magnate of the 20th century was Aristotle Onassis
364
False
shipping tradition
10
What was brought about by the Ottomans that caused and uplift in the classes of French society
5ad2a075d7d075001a429c94
True
Greek War of Independence
149
What did the development of these changes lead to for the French under Ottoman rulers?
5ad2a075d7d075001a429c95
True
Greek shipping continues to prosper to the extent that Greece has the largest merchant fleet in the world
183
Is the seafaring business still of any relevancy to the french economy?
5ad2a075d7d075001a429c96
True
Aristotle Onassis
418
What was the first husband of Jacquelyn Kennedy known for?
5ad2a075d7d075001a429c97
True
The Greek shipping tradition recovered during Ottoman rule when a substantial merchant middle class developed, which played an important part in the Greek War of Independence. Today, Greek shipping continues to prosper to the extent that Greece has the largest merchant fleet in the world, while many more ships under Greek ownership fly flags of convenience. The most notable shipping magnate of the 20th century was Aristotle Onassis, others being Yiannis Latsis, George Livanos, and Stavros Niarchos.
What dominant hair color is to believed to be prevalent among Greeks
5730a5962461fd1900a9cf33
conclusion the hair colour of young Greeks are mostly brown, ranging from light to dark brown
334
False
Which colors lay outside of the nor for those of Greek descent ?
5730a5962461fd1900a9cf34
significant minorities having black and blonde hair
434
False
What eye color is believed to be the norm among Greeks ?
5730a5962461fd1900a9cf35
57.4% dark brown
601
False
What eye color shows the least presence among those of Greek heritage ?
5730a5962461fd1900a9cf36
14.6% blue/green
554
False
brown
274
What dominant hair color is not believed to be prevalent among Greeks
5ad2a0b9d7d075001a429c9c
True
black and blonde hair.
464
Which colors lay outside of the nor for those of French descent?
5ad2a0b9d7d075001a429c9d
True
brown
388
What eye color is not believed to be the norm among Greeks?
5ad2a0b9d7d075001a429c9e
True
blue/green
560
What eye color shows the most presence among those of Greek heritage
5ad2a0b9d7d075001a429c9f
True
Another study from 2012 included 150 dental school students from University of Athens, the result showed that light hair colour (blonde/light ash brown) was predominant in 10.7% of the students. 36% had medium hair colour (Light brown/Medium darkest brown). 32% had darkest brown and 21% black (15.3 off black, 6% midnight black). In conclusion the hair colour of young Greeks are mostly brown, ranging from light to dark brown. with significant minorities having black and blonde hair. The same study also showed that the eye colour of the students was 14.6% blue/green, 28% medium (light brown) and 57.4% dark brown.
During what period of domination were many Greeks unable to interact with it's central location ?
5730a767396df91900096246
Ottoman rule of Greece
147
False
What location did many of the Greek people decide to live in other than Greece after the 19th century ?
5730a767396df91900096247
Asia Minor (now Turkey)
402
False
What has lead to the current situation of vast dispersion of the Greek people ?
5730a767396df91900096248
a huge wave of migration to the United States, Australia, Canada and elsewhere created the modern Greek diaspora.
452
False
After the 19th century about how much of the Greek population resided in little Asia ?
5730a767396df91900096249
By the early 20th century, over half of the overall Greek-speaking population was settled in Asia Minor (now Turkey)
309
False
The anthology of the Greek world is intimately joined with what areas of the world ?
5730a767396df9190009624a
history of the Greek people is closely associated with the history of Greece, Cyprus, Constantinople, Asia Minor and the Black Sea.
4
False
Ottoman rule of Greece
147
During what period of domination were many Greeks able to interact with it's central location
5ad2a11fd7d075001a429cbe
True
Asia Minor
402
What location did many of the Greek people decide to live in other than France after the 17th century?
5ad2a11fd7d075001a429cbf
True
huge wave of migration to the United States, Australia, Canada and elsewhere created the modern Greek diaspora
454
What has lead to the current situation of vast dispersion of the French people?
5ad2a11fd7d075001a429cc0
True
over half of the overall Greek-speaking population was settled in Asia Minor
336
After the 19th century about how much of the Greek population resided in little Africa?
5ad2a11fd7d075001a429cc1
True
Greece, Cyprus, Constantinople, Asia Minor and the Black Sea
74
The anthology of the Greek world is intimately did not join with what areas of the world?
5ad2a11fd7d075001a429cc2
True
The history of the Greek people is closely associated with the history of Greece, Cyprus, Constantinople, Asia Minor and the Black Sea. During the Ottoman rule of Greece, a number of Greek enclaves around the Mediterranean were cut off from the core, notably in Southern Italy, the Caucasus, Syria and Egypt. By the early 20th century, over half of the overall Greek-speaking population was settled in Asia Minor (now Turkey), while later that century a huge wave of migration to the United States, Australia, Canada and elsewhere created the modern Greek diaspora.
Premier_League
How many club members are there?
572fb14eb2c2fd1400568363
The Premier League is a corporation in which the 20 member clubs act as shareholders
0
False
How many matches does each team play?
572fb14eb2c2fd1400568364
Teams play 38 matches each (playing each team in the league twice, home and away), totalling 380 matches in the season.
118
False
What days are most games played?
572fb14eb2c2fd1400568365
Most games are played on Saturday and Sunday afternoons; others during weekday evenings
238
False
Who sponsors the Premier League?
572fb14eb2c2fd1400568366
It is currently sponsored by Barclays Bank and thus officially known as the Barclays Premier League and is colloquially known as the Premiership.
327
False
What name is the Premier League known as outside of the United Kingdom?
572fb14eb2c2fd1400568367
Outside the UK it is commonly referred to as the English Premier League (EPL).
473
False
How many member clubs are shareholders in the Premier League?
5733dfd24776f419006613e8
20
49
False
When do Premier League seasons run from?
5733dfd24776f419006613e9
August to May
103
False
How many matches do each team play?
5733dfd24776f419006613ea
38
129
False
Who sponsors the Premier League?
5733dfd24776f419006613eb
Barclays Bank
356
False
What is the Premier League commonly referred to outside the UK?
5733dfd24776f419006613ec
English Premier League
522
False
The Premier League
0
Teams play each other 3 times in which league?
5ad0b6aa645df0001a2d0124
True
shareholders
72
In the Premier League, what do the 38 member clubs act as?
5ad0b6aa645df0001a2d0125
True
Seasons
86
What runs from May to August?
5ad0b6aa645df0001a2d0126
True
games
243
What are mostly played on Sunday mornings?
5ad0b6aa645df0001a2d0127
True
Barclays Premier League
403
Because it is sponsored by the shareholders, what is the league officially known as?
5ad0b6aa645df0001a2d0128
True
The Premier League is a corporation in which the 20 member clubs act as shareholders. Seasons run from August to May. Teams play 38 matches each (playing each team in the league twice, home and away), totalling 380 matches in the season. Most games are played on Saturday and Sunday afternoons; others during weekday evenings. It is currently sponsored by Barclays Bank and thus officially known as the Barclays Premier League and is colloquially known as the Premiership. Outside the UK it is commonly referred to as the English Premier League (EPL).
What date was the Premier League formed?
572fb39e04bcaa1900d76c0b
The competition formed as the FA Premier League on 20 February 1992
0
False
How much was the deal worth?
572fb39e04bcaa1900d76c0c
The deal was worth £1 billion a year domestically as of 2013–14
274
False
Who secured the domestic rights to broadcast games 116 and 38 respectively?
572fb39e04bcaa1900d76c0d
BSkyB and BT Group securing the domestic rights to broadcast 116 and 38 games respectively.
344
False
How much revenue does the league generate in domestic and international television rights?
572fb39e04bcaa1900d76c0e
The league generates €2.2 billion per year in domestic and international television rights
436
False
In 2014/15, how much were the teams apportioned in revenues?
572fb39e04bcaa1900d76c0f
In 2014/15, teams were apportioned revenues of £1.6 billion.
528
False
When was the Premier League originally formed?
5733e07dd058e614000b6491
20 February 1992
51
False
When was the Football League originally founded?
5733e07dd058e614000b6492
1888
210
False
How many games were secured to broadcast by BSkyB?
5733e07dd058e614000b6493
116
405
False
How many games were secured to broadcast by BT Group?
5733e07dd058e614000b6494
38
413
False
How much income does the Premier League generate per year in worldwide television rights?
5733e07dd058e614000b6495
€2.2 billion
457
False
Football League First Division
107
Which club did the Football League decide to break away from?
5ad0b768645df0001a2d0142
True
1888
210
In what year was the Football League First Division founded?
5ad0b768645df0001a2d0143
True
20 February 1992
51
On which date was the Football Premier League formed?
5ad0b768645df0001a2d0144
True
€2.2 billion
457
As of 2013, how much has the league generated in domestic and international television rights?
5ad0b768645df0001a2d0145
True
£1.6 billion.
575
How much revenue were teams given during 2013/14?
5ad0b768645df0001a2d0146
True
The competition formed as the FA Premier League on 20 February 1992 following the decision of clubs in the Football League First Division to break away from the Football League, which was originally founded in 1888, and take advantage of a lucrative television rights deal. The deal was worth £1 billion a year domestically as of 2013–14, with BSkyB and BT Group securing the domestic rights to broadcast 116 and 38 games respectively. The league generates €2.2 billion per year in domestic and international television rights. In 2014/15, teams were apportioned revenues of £1.6 billion.
Is the Premier League the most watched football league in the world?
572fb545b2c2fd140056838b
The Premier League is the most-watched football league in the world,
0
False
How many territories is the Premier League broadcast to?
572fb545b2c2fd140056838c
broadcast in 212 territories
69
False
What is the potential television audience of the Premier League?
572fb545b2c2fd140056838d
a potential TV audience of 4.7 billion people
123
False
What is the average game attendance for the league?
572fb545b2c2fd140056838e
the average Premier League match attendance exceeded 36,000
193
False
What is the Premier League's UEFA co-efficients of leagues rank?
572fb545b2c2fd140056838f
The Premier League rank second in the UEFA coefficients of leagues
381
False
To how many homes is the Premier League broadcast to?
5733e19dd058e614000b64a9
643 million
101
False
What average attendance number was exceeded by the Premier League in the 2014-15 season?
5733e19dd058e614000b64aa
36,000
246
False
Which league has the highest average attendance in professional football?
5733e19dd058e614000b64ab
Bundesliga
316
False
To how many territories is the Premier League broadcast to?
5733e19dd058e614000b64ac
212
82
False
What is the potential television audience of the Premier League?
5733e19dd058e614000b64ad
4.7 billion
150
False
The Premier League
0
Which league is the least watched in the world?
5ad0b828645df0001a2d0154
True
The Premier League
0
Which league is the most watched football league in the United States?
5ad0b828645df0001a2d0155
True
212
82
The Premier League broadcasts in 643 territories to how many million homes?
5ad0b828645df0001a2d0156
True
643
101
The Premier League is broadcast in 212 million homes and how many territories?
5ad0b828645df0001a2d0157
True
4.7 billion people
150
What is the potential TV audience of the UEFA league?
5ad0b828645df0001a2d0158
True
The Premier League is the most-watched football league in the world, broadcast in 212 territories to 643 million homes and a potential TV audience of 4.7 billion people. In the 2014–15 season, the average Premier League match attendance exceeded 36,000, second highest of any professional football league behind the Bundesliga's 43,500. Most stadium occupancies are near capacity. The Premier League rank second in the UEFA coefficients of leagues based on performances in European competitions over the past five seasons.
When was the low point for English football?
572fbb02b2c2fd14005683b9
the late '80s had marked a low point for English football
71
False
Why was there a low point for English football?
572fbb02b2c2fd14005683ba
Stadiums were crumbling, supporters endured poor facilities, hooliganism was rife
130
False
Why were the English clubs banned from European competition in the 1980's?
572fbb02b2c2fd14005683bb
English clubs were banned from European competition for five years following the Heysel Stadium disaster in 1985.
217
False
Had the Football League First Division ever been in the top level?
572fbb02b2c2fd14005683bc
The Football League First Division, which had been the top level of English football since 1888
331
False
In which year were English football clubs banned from competition in Europe?
5733e2794776f4190066141a
1985
325
False
How long were the clubs banned for?
5733e2794776f4190066141b
five years
273
False
What did English players do after the ban?
5733e2794776f4190066141c
moved abroad
561
False
When attendance dropped to the Football League First Division, what else decreased?
5733e2794776f4190066141d
revenues
515
False
80s
81
Because of European success, which decade marked a high point for English football?
5ad0bf6e645df0001a2d019e
True
marked a low point
89
Despite English success during the 70s and 80s, what did the 80's mean for European football?
5ad0bf6e645df0001a2d019f
True
80s
81
In which decade was the high point for English football?
5ad0bf6e645df0001a2d01a0
True
the Heysel Stadium disaster in 1985
294
Why were English clubs asked to join the European competition for five years?
5ad0bf6e645df0001a2d01a1
True
1888
422
Since which year has the Football League First Division been the low level of English football?
5ad0bf6e645df0001a2d01a2
True
Despite significant European success during the 1970s and early 1980s, the late '80s had marked a low point for English football. Stadiums were crumbling, supporters endured poor facilities, hooliganism was rife, and English clubs were banned from European competition for five years following the Heysel Stadium disaster in 1985. The Football League First Division, which had been the top level of English football since 1888, was well behind leagues such as Italy's Serie A and Spain's La Liga in attendances and revenues, and several top English players had moved abroad.
When did the downward trend of the English Football start to turn around?
572fbc8604bcaa1900d76c4b
by the turn of the 1990s the downward trend was starting to reverse
9
False
Was England successful in the 1990 FIFA World Cup?
572fbc8604bcaa1900d76c4c
England had been successful in the 1990 FIFA World Cup, reaching the semi-finals.
78
False
Did the UEFA remove the 5 year ban on English clubs playing in European competitions in 1990?
572fbc8604bcaa1900d76c4d
UEFA, European football's governing body, lifted the five-year ban on English clubs playing in European competitions in 1990
160
False
What did the removal of the ban result in?
572fbc8604bcaa1900d76c4e
(resulting in Manchester United lifting the UEFA Cup Winners' Cup in 1991
285
False
Did the Taylor Report on stadiums safety standards propose expensive upgrades to stadiums?
572fbc8604bcaa1900d76c4f
proposed expensive upgrades to create all-seater stadiums in the aftermath of the Hillsborough disaster
417
False
In which year did English football's downward trend stop thanks to England making it to the FIFA World Cup semi-finals?
5733e3164776f41900661428
1990
113
False
In which year was the English club ban lifted by UEFA?
5733e3164776f41900661429
1990
280
False
In which year shortly thereafter did Manchester United win the UEFA Winners' Cup?
5733e3164776f4190066142a
1991
354
False
In which month was the Taylor Report published?
5733e3164776f4190066142b
January
539
False
In which year was the Taylor Report published?
5733e3164776f4190066142c
1990
280
False
1990s
28
By the turn of which decade was the upward trend beginning to reverse?
5ad0c009645df0001a2d01b2
True
1990
113
In which FIFA World Cup was Europe successful?
5ad0c009645df0001a2d01b3
True
1990
280
In which year did the Premier League live the five year ban on English clubs?
5ad0c009645df0001a2d01b4
True
five-year ban on English clubs playing in European competitions
213
Which ban was lifted in 1991?
5ad0c009645df0001a2d01b5
True
1990
280
In which year was the ninety year ban on English clubs lifted?
5ad0c009645df0001a2d01b6
True
However, by the turn of the 1990s the downward trend was starting to reverse; England had been successful in the 1990 FIFA World Cup, reaching the semi-finals. UEFA, European football's governing body, lifted the five-year ban on English clubs playing in European competitions in 1990 (resulting in Manchester United lifting the UEFA Cup Winners' Cup in 1991) and the Taylor Report on stadium safety standards, which proposed expensive upgrades to create all-seater stadiums in the aftermath of the Hillsborough disaster, was published in January of that year.
How much money did the Football League receive in revenues from television money for a two year agreement in 1986?
572fbd86b2c2fd14005683c9
the Football League received £6.3 million for a two-year agreement in 1986
54
False
In 1998, the deal was renewed for what amount over four years?
572fbd86b2c2fd14005683ca
deal was renewed in 1988, the price rose to £44 million over four years.
144
False
In 1988, how many clubs threateded to leave and form another league?
572fbd86b2c2fd14005683cb
ten clubs threatened to leave and form a "super league"
283
False
Why did some of the top teams consider leaving the Football league?
572fbd86b2c2fd14005683cc
to capitalise on the growing influx of money being pumped into the sport.
518
False
What did the Football League's television agreement price rise to in 1988?
5733e3bfd058e614000b64e0
£44 million
188
False
When was the first year that clubs threatened to leave the Football League?
5733e3bfd058e614000b64e1
1988
221
False
What price was set for Football League television rights in 1986?
5733e3bfd058e614000b64e2
£6.3 million
83
False
For how many years was the 1986 television rights contract?
5733e3bfd058e614000b64e3
two
102
False
For how many years was the 1988 television rights contract?
5733e3bfd058e614000b64e4
four
205
False
£44 million over four years.
188
How much was the deal worth when it was renewed in 1986?
5ad0c13c645df0001a2d01d0
True
super league
325
What did 12 clubs threaten they would leave to form?
5ad0c13c645df0001a2d01d1
True
Television money
0
What type of money became less important?
5ad0c13c645df0001a2d01d2
True
£6.3 million
83
In 1986, how much was the four year deal worth?
5ad0c13c645df0001a2d01d3
True
£44 million
188
In 1988, how much was the two year deal worth?
5ad0c13c645df0001a2d01d4
True
Television money had also become much more important; the Football League received £6.3 million for a two-year agreement in 1986, but when that deal was renewed in 1988, the price rose to £44 million over four years. The 1988 negotiations were the first signs of a breakaway league; ten clubs threatened to leave and form a "super league", but were eventually persuaded to stay. As stadiums improved and match attendance and revenues rose, the country's top teams again considered leaving the Football League in order to capitalise on the growing influx of money being pumped into the sport.
In 1991, was a proposal for a new league postponed?
572fbed0947a6a140053cc36
At the close of the 1991 season, a proposal was tabled
0
False
When was the Founder Members Agreement signed?
572fbed0947a6a140053cc37
The Founder Members Agreement, signed on 17 July 1991
144
False
What did this agreement establish?
572fbed0947a6a140053cc38
established the basic principles for setting up the FA Premier League.
230
False
Would the new top division have commerical independence from the Football Association as well as the Football League?
572fbed0947a6a140053cc39
The newly formed top division would have commercial independence from The Football Association and the Football League
301
False
Would the FA Premier League be able to negotiate their broadcasting and sponsorship agreements?
572fbed0947a6a140053cc3a
giving the FA Premier League licence to negotiate its own broadcast and sponsorship agreements.
421
False
On which day was the Founder Members Agreement signed?
5733e473d058e614000b64f3
17 July 1991
185
False
What was the argument made for the splitting off of the FA Premier League which would lead to being able to compete across Europe?
5733e473d058e614000b64f4
extra income
561
False
In which year was the proposal for a new league tabled?
5733e473d058e614000b64f5
1991
20
False
17 July 1991
185
When was the FA Premier League Agreement signed?
5ad0c1f3645df0001a2d01ec
True
Founder Members Agreement
148
The FA Premier League established the basic principles for which agreement?
5ad0c1f3645df0001a2d01ed
True
The Football Association and the Football League
371
The new division would be dependent on which association and league?
5ad0c1f3645df0001a2d01ee
True
compete with teams across Europe.
603
What would the extra income allow European clubs to do?
5ad0c1f3645df0001a2d01ef
True
establishment of a new league
63
What was proposed at the beginning of the 1991 season?
5ad0c1f3645df0001a2d01f0
True
At the close of the 1991 season, a proposal was tabled for the establishment of a new league that would bring more money into the game overall. The Founder Members Agreement, signed on 17 July 1991 by the game's top-flight clubs, established the basic principles for setting up the FA Premier League. The newly formed top division would have commercial independence from The Football Association and the Football League, giving the FA Premier League licence to negotiate its own broadcast and sponsorship agreements. The argument given at the time was that the extra income would allow English clubs to compete with teams across Europe.
Why did Greg Dyke of London Weekend Television meet with representatives of the biggest five English football clubs in 1990?
572fc024a23a5019007fc955
The meeting was to pave the way for a break away from The Football League.
151
False
Why did Dyke only want the larger clubs featured on national television?
572fc024a23a5019007fc956
Dyke believed that it would be more lucrative for LWT if only the larger clubs in the country were featured on national television
226
False
Did the five clubs think this was a good idea?
572fc024a23a5019007fc957
The five clubs decided it was a good idea and decided to press ahead with it
465
False
Were talks held with the Football Association to see if they were okay with this plan?
572fc024a23a5019007fc958
David Dein of Arsenal held talks to see whether the FA were receptive to the idea
644
False
Who was the London Weekend Television's managing director?
5733e4f4d058e614000b6506
Greg Dyke
58
False
In which year did the managing director meet with the representatives of the "big five" football clubs?
5733e4f4d058e614000b6507
1990
145
False
In which country did the managing director meet with the representatives of the "big five" football clubs?
5733e4f4d058e614000b6508
England
134
False
Which Arsenal representative held talks with the Football Association about getting their backing for the new league?
5733e4f4d058e614000b6509
David Dein
644
False
What did the Football Association want to do through building a relationship with the new league?
5733e4f4d058e614000b650a
weaken the Football League's position
840
False
Greg Dyke
58
Who is the managing director of The Football League?
5ad0c28e645df0001a2d021e
True
1990
145
In what year did David Dein meet with the "big five" clubs?
5ad0c28e645df0001a2d021f
True
Greg Dyke
58
In 1990, who met with representatives from the big five Football Association?
5ad0c28e645df0001a2d0220
True
it would be more lucrative for LWT if only the larger clubs in the country were featured on national television
245
What did Dyke believe about the smaller clubs?
5ad0c28e645df0001a2d0221
True
The five clubs
465
Which clubs decided it wasn't a good idea?
5ad0c28e645df0001a2d0222
True
The managing director of London Weekend Television (LWT), Greg Dyke, met with the representatives of the "big five" football clubs in England in 1990. The meeting was to pave the way for a break away from The Football League. Dyke believed that it would be more lucrative for LWT if only the larger clubs in the country were featured on national television and wanted to establish whether the clubs would be interested in a larger share of television rights money. The five clubs decided it was a good idea and decided to press ahead with it; however, the league would have no credibility without the backing of The Football Association and so David Dein of Arsenal held talks to see whether the FA were receptive to the idea. The FA did not enjoy an amicable relationship with the Football League at the time and considered it as a way to weaken the Football League's position.
When did the First Division clubs resign from the Football League?
572fc108947a6a140053cc48
In 1992, the First Division clubs resigned from the Football League en masse
0
False
When was the FA Premier League formed as a limited company?
572fc108947a6a140053cc49
on 27 May 1992 the FA Premier League was formed as a limited company working out of an office at the Football Association's then headquarters in Lancaster Gate.
81
False
How many divisions did the Premier League start out with at this time?
572fc108947a6a140053cc4a
the Premier League would operate with a single division
350
False
How many divisions did the Football League after the the Premier League was founded?
572fc108947a6a140053cc4b
the Football League with three
410
False
Was there a change in the competition format after the Premier League was formed?
572fc108947a6a140053cc4c
There was no change in competition format; the same number of teams competed in the top flight
442
False
On which date was the FA Premier League formed legally?
5733e5f54776f41900661465
27 May 1992
84
False
Out of which organization's headquarters did the original FA Premier League staff operate out of?
5733e5f54776f41900661466
Football Association
182
False
How old was the Football League when the break-up happened?
5733e5f54776f41900661467
104
271
False
How many divisions were left in the Football League after the split?
5733e5f54776f41900661468
three
435
False
How many divisions did the Premier League start with after the split?
5733e5f54776f41900661469
a single division
388
False
Lancaster Gate
226
Where were the Football Association's headquarters located in 1904?
5ad0c33c645df0001a2d0228
True
three
435
The Football League would have a single division and the Premier league would have how many?
5ad0c33c645df0001a2d0229
True
a single division
388
The Premier league would have three divisions and the Football League would have how many?
5ad0c33c645df0001a2d022a
True
104
271
For how many years did the Football League operate with five divisions?
5ad0c33c645df0001a2d022b
True
four
334
The Football League operated for 105 years with how many divisions?
5ad0c33c645df0001a2d022c
True
In 1992, the First Division clubs resigned from the Football League en masse and on 27 May 1992 the FA Premier League was formed as a limited company working out of an office at the Football Association's then headquarters in Lancaster Gate. This meant a break-up of the 104-year-old Football League that had operated until then with four divisions; the Premier League would operate with a single division and the Football League with three. There was no change in competition format; the same number of teams competed in the top flight, and promotion and relegation between the Premier League and the new First Division remained the same as the old First and Second Divisions with three teams relegated from the league and three promoted.
When did the Premier League hold its first season?
572fc1dd947a6a140053cc5c
The league held its first season in 1992–93
0
False
Originally, how many clubs did the Premier League have?
572fc1dd947a6a140053cc5d
was originally composed of 22 clubs.
48
False
Who scored the first ever goal for the Premier League
572fc1dd947a6a140053cc5e
The first ever Premier League goal was scored by Brian Deane of Sheffield United in a 2–1 win against Manchester United.
85
False
Which blubs were relegated from the old first division at the end of the 1991-1992 season and didn't take part in the first Premier League season?
572fc1dd947a6a140053cc5f
Luton Town, Notts County and West Ham United were the three teams relegated from the old first division
598
False
In which years were the first season?
5733e6a54776f41900661472
1992–93
36
False
How many clubs originally made up the league?
5733e6a54776f41900661473
22
75
False
Who scored the first goal in the Premier League?
5733e6a54776f41900661474
Brian Deane
134
False
For which team was the first goal scored?
5733e6a54776f41900661475
Sheffield United
149
False
Against which team was the first goal scored?
5733e6a54776f41900661476
Manchester United
187
False
22
75
During the leagues first season in 1991 how many clubs was it made up of?
5ad0c457645df0001a2d026c
True
1992–93
36
In which year was the league made up of 21 clubs and had its first season?
5ad0c457645df0001a2d026d
True
1992–93
36
In what years was the Leagues second season held?
5ad0c457645df0001a2d026e
True
Brian Deane
134
Who is known for scoring the last ever goal int he Premier League?
5ad0c457645df0001a2d026f
True
first ever Premier League goal
89
What is Brian Deane of Crystal Palace known for?
5ad0c457645df0001a2d0270
True
The league held its first season in 1992–93 and was originally composed of 22 clubs. The first ever Premier League goal was scored by Brian Deane of Sheffield United in a 2–1 win against Manchester United. The 22 inaugural members of the new Premier League were Arsenal, Aston Villa, Blackburn Rovers, Chelsea, Coventry City, Crystal Palace, Everton, Ipswich Town, Leeds United, Liverpool, Manchester City, Manchester United, Middlesbrough, Norwich City, Nottingham Forest, Oldham Athletic, Queens Park Rangers, Sheffield United, Sheffield Wednesday, Southampton, Tottenham Hotspur, and Wimbledon. Luton Town, Notts County and West Ham United were the three teams relegated from the old first division at the end of the 1991–92 season, and did not take part in the inaugural Premier League season.
What was an important feature of the Premier League in the mid-2000s?
572fc3a7b2c2fd140056841d
the dominance of the so-called "Big Four" clubs: Arsenal, Chelsea, Liverpool and Manchester United
67
False
Which team had no losses in 2003-2004 and ended up winning the league?
572fc3a7b2c2fd140056841e
Arsenal going as far as winning the league without losing a single game in 2003–04
400
False
Why was Kevin Keegan concerned about the league in May of 2008?
572fc3a7b2c2fd140056841f
Kevin Keegan stated that "Big Four" dominance threatened the division,
554
False
Since 2003-04, has any club won all of its games like Arsenal did?
572fc3a7b2c2fd1400568420
Arsenal going as far as winning the league without losing a single game in 2003–04, the only time it has ever happened in the Premier League.
400
False
In how many season from 2003 to 2009 did the "Big Four" take all four top places in the UEFA Champions League?
5733e7a2d058e614000b654d
5
341
False
Which of the "Big Four" teams did not lose a single game in the 2003-04 season?
5733e7a2d058e614000b654e
Arsenal
400
False
Who stated that "Big Four" dominance was a threat to the division?
5733e7a2d058e614000b654f
Kevin Keegan
554
False
Who said that all of the tussles in the Premier League made it interesting, even if only four teams dominated?
5733e7a2d058e614000b6550
Richard Scudamore
750
False
What was Richard Scudamore's job?
5733e7a2d058e614000b6551
Premier League chief executive
719
False
dominance of the so-called "Big Four" clubs
71
What was a significant feature of the Premier League in the May 2008?
5ad0c4fe645df0001a2d0294
True
Arsenal, Chelsea, Liverpool and Manchester United
116
Name the members of the "Big Five"?
5ad0c4fe645df0001a2d0295
True
Manchester United
148
Along with Arsenal, Chelsea and UEFA, who else is a member of the Big Four?
5ad0c4fe645df0001a2d0296
True
2002 to 2009
209
During which time frame did the Big Four dominate the top five spots?
5ad0c4fe645df0001a2d0297
True
Kevin Keegan
554
Who is quoted as saying the dominance of the Big Five is threatening the league?
5ad0c4fe645df0001a2d0298
True
One significant feature of the Premier League in the mid-2000s was the dominance of the so-called "Big Four" clubs: Arsenal, Chelsea, Liverpool and Manchester United. During this decade, and particularly from 2002 to 2009, they dominated the top four spots, which came with UEFA Champions League qualification, taking all top four places in 5 out of 6 seasons from 2003–04 to 2008–09 inclusive, with Arsenal going as far as winning the league without losing a single game in 2003–04, the only time it has ever happened in the Premier League. In May 2008 Kevin Keegan stated that "Big Four" dominance threatened the division, "This league is in danger of becoming one of the most boring but great leagues in the world." Premier League chief executive Richard Scudamore said in defence: "There are a lot of different tussles that go on in the Premier League depending on whether you're at the top, in the middle or at the bottom that make it interesting."
Which team finished fourth in the 2009-10 season?
572fc540b2c2fd140056842d
In the 2009–10 season, Tottenham finished fourth and became the first team to break the top four since Everton in 2005
151
False
Why was there critcism of the elite clubs?
572fc540b2c2fd140056842e
due to their increasing ability to spend more than the other Premier League clubs.
400
False
Since 1994-95, who was the first club out side of the "Big Four" to win the title
572fc540b2c2fd140056842f
Manchester City won the title in the 2011–12 season, becoming the first club outside the "Big Four" to win since 1994–95.
483
False
Which two "Big Four" clubs did not finish in the top four in the 2011-12 season?
572fc540b2c2fd1400568430
That season also saw two of the Big Four (Chelsea and Liverpool) finish outside the top four
605
False
In the 2009-10 season, which team was the first to break into the "Big Four" since 2005?
5733e8cb4776f419006614b3
Tottenham
174
False
In which position did Tottenham finish in the 2009-10 season?
5733e8cb4776f419006614b4
fourth
193
False
In 2011-12, which club was the first non-"Big Four" team to win since 1994-95?
5733e8cb4776f419006614b5
Manchester City
483
False
In 2011-12, how many "Big Four" clubs finished outside the top four places in the league?
5733e8cb4776f419006614b6
two
626
False
In 2005, which was the only non-"Big Four" team to break the top four?
5733e8cb4776f419006614b7
Everton
254
False
2009–10
158
In which season did Tottenham finish third?
5ad0c7b1645df0001a2d02f6
True
2009–10
158
During which season did Tottenham become the second team to enter the top four since 2005?
5ad0c7b1645df0001a2d02f7
True
Chelsea and Liverpool
647
During the 2011–12 season, which two teams finished inside the top four for the first time since 1994-95?
5ad0c7b1645df0001a2d02f8
True
increasing ability to spend more than the other Premier League clubs
413
Why were the elite clubs praised?
5ad0c7b1645df0001a2d02f9
True
2011–12 season
520
In which season did Tottenham City win the title?
5ad0c7b1645df0001a2d02fa
True
The years following 2009 marked a shift in the structure of the "Big Four" with Tottenham Hotspur and Manchester City both breaking into the top four. In the 2009–10 season, Tottenham finished fourth and became the first team to break the top four since Everton in 2005. Criticism of the gap between an elite group of "super clubs" and the majority of the Premier League has continued, nevertheless, due to their increasing ability to spend more than the other Premier League clubs. Manchester City won the title in the 2011–12 season, becoming the first club outside the "Big Four" to win since 1994–95. That season also saw two of the Big Four (Chelsea and Liverpool) finish outside the top four places for the first time since 1994–95.
In 1995, who requested that domestic leagues lower the amount of games played.
572fc61f04bcaa1900d76cf1
Due to insistence by the International Federation of Association Football (FIFA), the international governing body of football
0
False
What was the number of clubs reduced to in 1995.
572fc61f04bcaa1900d76cf2
the number of clubs was reduced to 20 in 1995
191
False
Who insisted that the number of games played in each domestic league must be reduced?
5733e94e4776f419006614c2
FIFA
75
False
In 1995, what was the number of clubs in the league reduced to?
5733e94e4776f419006614c3
20
226
False
On which date did FIFA request that all European leagues reduce the number of teams within themselves to 18?
5733e94e4776f419006614c4
8 June 2006
316
False
In the 2007-08 season, how many teams was the Premier League left with?
5733e94e4776f419006614c5
20
622
False
How many teams were relegated from the Premier League in 1995?
5733e94e4776f419006614c6
four
242
False
1995
232
In which year the number of games played increased to 20?
5ad0c91e645df0001a2d033c
True
20
226
In 2007, the league reduced the number of games played to how many?
5ad0c91e645df0001a2d033d
True
International Federation of Association Football (FIFA),
25
Which entity is the national governing body of football?
5ad0c91e645df0001a2d033e
True
1995
232
Since which year has FIFA been the governing body of football?
5ad0c91e645df0001a2d033f
True
International Federation of Association Football
25
Who suggested increasing the number of games played?
5ad0c91e645df0001a2d0340
True
Due to insistence by the International Federation of Association Football (FIFA), the international governing body of football, that domestic leagues reduce the number of games clubs played, the number of clubs was reduced to 20 in 1995 when four teams were relegated from the league and only two teams promoted. On 8 June 2006, FIFA requested that all major European leagues, including Italy's Serie A and Spain's La Liga be reduced to 18 teams by the start of the 2007–08 season. The Premier League responded by announcing their intention to resist such a reduction. Ultimately, the 2007–08 season kicked off again with 20 teams.
How many votes does each Football Association Premier League Ltd (FAPL) club have on issues?
572fc92904bcaa1900d76d2f
Each club is a shareholder, with one vote each on issues such as rule changes and contracts.
117
False
Who is the chairman of the FAPL and when was he appointed?
572fc92904bcaa1900d76d30
The current chairman is Sir Dave Richards, who was appointed in April 199
325
False
Why did John Quinton and Peter Leaver resign as chairman and chief excutive?
572fc92904bcaa1900d76d31
John Quinton and Peter Leaver, were forced to resign in March 1999 after awarding consultancy contracts to former Sky executives Sam Chisholm and David Chance.
516
False
Does the Football Association say about the management of the Premier League?
572fc92904bcaa1900d76d32
has veto power as a special shareholder during the election of the chairman and chief executive and when new rules are adopted by the league.
782
False
Who owns the Football Association Premier League?
5733eb23d058e614000b65c2
member clubs
103
False
How many votes do the member clubs of the Premier League have each?
5733eb23d058e614000b65c3
one
150
False
What do the people each club elect oversee?
5733eb23d058e614000b65c4
the daily operations of the league
289
False
Who is the current chairman of the Premier League?
5733eb23d058e614000b65c5
Sir Dave Richards
349
False
Who is the current CEO of the Premier League?
5733eb23d058e614000b65c6
Richard Scudamore
428
False
20
100
By how many member clubs are the shareholders owned?
5ad0ccde645df0001a2d03b6
True
20
100
The FAPL is owned by how many chief executives?
5ad0ccde645df0001a2d03b7
True
Football Association Premier League
4
Who is owned by over 20 member clubs?
5ad0ccde645df0001a2d03b8
True
a shareholder
130
Having two votes, what is each club considered?
5ad0ccde645df0001a2d03b9
True
oversee the daily operations of the league
281
For what reason does FAPL select a chairman, chief executive and vice president?
5ad0ccde645df0001a2d03ba
True
The Football Association Premier League Ltd (FAPL) is operated as a corporation and is owned by the 20 member clubs. Each club is a shareholder, with one vote each on issues such as rule changes and contracts. The clubs elect a chairman, chief executive, and board of directors to oversee the daily operations of the league. The current chairman is Sir Dave Richards, who was appointed in April 1999, and the chief executive is Richard Scudamore, appointed in November 1999. The former chairman and chief executive, John Quinton and Peter Leaver, were forced to resign in March 1999 after awarding consultancy contracts to former Sky executives Sam Chisholm and David Chance. The Football Association is not directly involved in the day-to-day operations of the Premier League, but has veto power as a special shareholder during the election of the chairman and chief executive and when new rules are adopted by the league.
Who decides on how many Premeir League representatives there are for the European Club Association?
572fd08804bcaa1900d76d7d
the number of clubs and the clubs themselves chosen according to UEFA coefficients.
78
False
How many representatives does the Premier League have for the European Club Association for 2012-13?
572fd08804bcaa1900d76d7e
For the 2012–13 season the Premier League has 10 representatives in the Association
162
False
How many members does the European Club Association elect for the UEFA's Club Competitions Committee?
572fd08804bcaa1900d76d7f
The European Club Association is responsible for electing three members to UEFA's Club Competitions Committee
382
False
Which competitions does the Club Competitions Committee have a say in?
572fd08804bcaa1900d76d80
Club Competitions Committee, which is involved in the operations of UEFA competitions such as the Champions League and UEFA Europa League.
464
False
According to what are the number of and which clubs chosen to attend the European Club Association?
5733ebb84776f419006614fc
UEFA coefficients
143
False
How many representatives did the Premier League have in the European Club Association during the 2012-13 season?
5733ebb84776f419006614fd
10
208
False
How many members is the European Club Association responsible for electing to the UEFA Club Competitions Committee?
5733ebb84776f419006614fe
three
440
False
10
208
During the 2020 season how many Premier League representatives were there in the Association?
5ad0cd6c645df0001a2d03e2
True
2012–13 season
170
During which season were there 100 Premier League representatives in the Association?
5ad0cd6c645df0001a2d03e3
True
European Club Association
51
To where does the UEFA send representatives?
5ad0cd6c645df0001a2d03e4
True
European Club Association
51
Representatives are sent to the Premier League by which Association?
5ad0cd6c645df0001a2d03e5
True
The European Club Association
382
Which association is responsible for electing 10 members to the UEFA's Club Competitions Committee?
5ad0cd6c645df0001a2d03e6
True
The Premier League sends representatives to UEFA's European Club Association, the number of clubs and the clubs themselves chosen according to UEFA coefficients. For the 2012–13 season the Premier League has 10 representatives in the Association: Arsenal, Aston Villa, Chelsea, Everton, Fulham, Liverpool, Manchester City, Manchester United, Newcastle United and Tottenham Hotspur. The European Club Association is responsible for electing three members to UEFA's Club Competitions Committee, which is involved in the operations of UEFA competitions such as the Champions League and UEFA Europa League.
When does the Premier League have its playing season?
572fd179947a6a140053ccf8
During the course of a season (from August to May)
42
False
How many games does each club play each season?
572fd179947a6a140053ccf9
each club plays the others twice (a double round-robin system), once at their home stadium and once at that of their opponents, for a total of 38 games.
93
False
How many points does each club receive for each win?
572fd179947a6a140053ccfa
Teams receive three points for a win
246
False
Which criteria is used to rank the clubs?
572fd179947a6a140053ccfb
Teams are ranked by total points, then goal difference, and then goals scored.
343
False
How is a tie for the championship handled?
572fd179947a6a140053ccfc
If there is a tie for the championship, for relegation, or for qualification to other competitions, a play-off match at a neutral venue decides rank.
484
False
How many clubs are currently in the Premier League?
5733ec05d058e614000b65e1
20
10
False
Which month marks the start of a Premier League season?
5733ec05d058e614000b65e3
May
88
False
How many times does each club play every other club?
5733ec05d058e614000b65e4
twice
120
False
How many total games does each club in the Premier League play per season?
5733ec05d058e614000b65e5
38
236
False
20
10
How many clubs are in the Premier Championship League?
5ad0cece645df0001a2d044c
True
August
78
A Premier League season runs from May to when?
5ad0cece645df0001a2d044d
True
from August to May
73
During which months does a Premier Championship League take place?
5ad0cece645df0001a2d044e
True
a season
63
Each team plays the others three times during the course of what?
5ad0cece645df0001a2d044f
True
20
10
Each season, the 38 clubs in the Premier League play a total of how many games?
5ad0cece645df0001a2d0450
True
There are 20 clubs in the Premier League. During the course of a season (from August to May) each club plays the others twice (a double round-robin system), once at their home stadium and once at that of their opponents, for a total of 38 games. Teams receive three points for a win and one point for a draw. No points are awarded for a loss. Teams are ranked by total points, then goal difference, and then goals scored. If still equal, teams are deemed to occupy the same position. If there is a tie for the championship, for relegation, or for qualification to other competitions, a play-off match at a neutral venue decides rank. The three lowest placed teams are relegated into the Football League Championship, and the top two teams from the Championship, together with the winner of play-offs involving the third to sixth placed Championship clubs, are promoted in their place.
What will a fifth place Premier League team qualify for?
572fd390a23a5019007fca4d
The team placed fifth in the Premier League automatically qualifies for the UEFA Europa League
0
False
What places are reserved for the FA Cup and the League Cup winners?
572fd390a23a5019007fca4e
Two Europa League places are reserved for the winners of each tournament;
269
False
Why is it important to have a high Fair Play ranking?
572fd390a23a5019007fca4f
will automatically qualify for the UEFA Europa League first qualifying round
788
False
If a team already qualifies for the Champions League and they winner the FA Cup or the League Cup will another team get to qualify for the Champions League?
572fd390a23a5019007fca50
that place will go to the next-best placed finisher in the Premier League.
433
False
How many Europa League places are reserved for domestic tournament winners?
5733ed1fd058e614000b65fa
Two
269
False
To which league is the fifth place Premier League team automatically qualified for?
5733ed1fd058e614000b65fb
UEFA Europa League
76
False
The team which has the highest ranking in the Fair Play standings is guaranteed qualification for which qualifying round in the Europa League?
5733ed1fd058e614000b65fc
first
842
False
UEFA Europa League
76
What does the team who places third automatically qualify for?
5ad0d00c645df0001a2d0498
True
the FA Cup and the Capital One Cup
220
Thre Europa League places are reserved for the winners of what?
5ad0d00c645df0001a2d0499
True
Two Europa League places
269
What places are reserved for the winners of the Fair Play Initiative and the FA Cup?
5ad0d00c645df0001a2d049a
True
Two
269
How many places are reserved for the winners of the UEFA Europa League?
5ad0d00c645df0001a2d049b
True
The team placed fifth in the Premier League automatically qualifies for the UEFA Europa League, and the sixth and seventh-placed teams can also qualify, depending on the winners of the two domestic cup competitions i.e. the FA Cup and the Capital One Cup (League Cup). Two Europa League places are reserved for the winners of each tournament; if the winner of either the FA Cup or League Cup qualifies for the Champions League, then that place will go to the next-best placed finisher in the Premier League. A further place in the UEFA Europa League is also available via the Fair Play initiative. If the Premier League has one of the three highest Fair Play rankings in Europe, the highest ranked team in the Premier League Fair Play standings which has not already qualified for Europe will automatically qualify for the UEFA Europa League first qualifying round.
Which team did not qualifty for Champions League in 2005 but was able to particpate?
572fd7db947a6a140053cd44
UEFA gave special dispensation for Liverpool to enter the Champions League
228
False
Did the Liverpool Club place in the Champions League in 2005?
572fd7db947a6a140053cd45
in 2005, after Liverpool won the Champions League the year before, but did not finish in a Champions League qualification place
65
False
How many qualifiers did England have for the Champions League in 2005?
572fd7db947a6a140053cd46
UEFA gave special dispensation for Liverpool to enter the Champions League, giving England five qualifiers.
228
False
Do defending champtions get to play in the following year's Champions League if they don't have enough wins to qualify
572fd7db947a6a140053cd47
UEFA subsequently ruled that the defending champions qualify for the competition the following year regardless of their domestic league placing.
336
False
How many winning teams from an association can participate in the Champions League?
572fd7db947a6a140053cd48
No association can have more than four entrants in the Champions League
726
False
Which team received special dispensation from the UEFA in 2005 so they could enter the Champions League?
5733eddad058e614000b6605
Liverpool
80
False
Who did UEFA rule should automatically qualify for the Champions League?
5733eddad058e614000b6606
the defending champions
365
False
At which team's expense does the previous champion's automatic entry into the Champions League without placing in the top four come?
5733eddad058e614000b6607
the fourth-placed team
688
False
In 2012, which team was automatically qualified for the champion's league even though they did not place in the top four?
5733eddad058e614000b6608
Chelsea
827
False
Which team was denied entry into the Champions League in 2012 due to being bumped out of the running by the defending champion?
5733eddad058e614000b6609
Tottenham Hotspur
971
False
Champions League
286
During the 2012 season, Liverpool was given special dispensation to enter which league?
5ad0d0e5645df0001a2d04c4
True
Champions League
781
Associations can have no more than five entrants in which league?
5ad0d0e5645df0001a2d04c5
True
2005
68
In which year did an exception to the usual Chelsea qualifying system happen?
5ad0d0e5645df0001a2d04c6
True
Chelsea
827
Who did Tottenham Hotspur qualify in place of?
5ad0d0e5645df0001a2d04c7
True
Tottenham Hotspur
971
In 2005, Chelsea qualified for the Champions League in place of who?
5ad0d0e5645df0001a2d04c8
True
An exception to the usual European qualification system happened in 2005, after Liverpool won the Champions League the year before, but did not finish in a Champions League qualification place in the Premier League that season. UEFA gave special dispensation for Liverpool to enter the Champions League, giving England five qualifiers. UEFA subsequently ruled that the defending champions qualify for the competition the following year regardless of their domestic league placing. However, for those leagues with four entrants in the Champions League, this meant that if the Champions League winner finished outside the top four in its domestic league, it would qualify at the expense of the fourth-placed team in the league. No association can have more than four entrants in the Champions League. This occurred in 2012, when Chelsea – who had won the Champions League the previous year, but finished sixth in the league – qualified for the Champions League in place of Tottenham Hotspur, who went into the Europa League.
How many times have Premier League teams have won the Champions League since 1992-2013?
572fd905a23a5019007fca83
Premier League clubs had won the UEFA Champions League four times
51
False
How many times has the Premier League won the World Cup (FIFA Club) during that same time period?
572fd905a23a5019007fca84
won by Premier league clubs once (Manchester United in 2008)
421
False
How many times have Premier League teams been runners up in the World Cup?
572fd905a23a5019007fca85
they have also been runners-up twice,
487
False
How many times did Premier League clubs win the Champions League between 1992 and 2013?
5733ee434776f41900661539
four
106
False
How many runners up in the Champions League were from the Premier League between 1992 and 2013?
5733ee434776f4190066153a
five
139
False
Which league had the most Champions League wins between 1992 and 2013?
5733ee434776f4190066153b
La Liga
179
False
Which league had the second most Champions League wins between 1992 and 2013?
5733ee434776f4190066153c
Serie A
214
False
Which league had only three Champions League wins between 1992 and 2013?
5733ee434776f4190066153d
Bundesliga
276
False
six
192
Between 1992 and 2013, Spain's La Liga won the UEFA Champions League four times and the Premier League won how many times?
5ad0d1a7645df0001a2d0500
True
five
227
Between 1992 and 2013, Spain's La Liga won the UEFA Champions League four times and Italy's Serie A won how many times?
5ad0d1a7645df0001a2d0501
True
four
106
Between 1992 and 2013, UEFA won Spain's La Liga four times and the Premier League won how many times?
5ad0d1a7645df0001a2d0502
True
three
292
Between 1992 and 2013, the Premier League won Spain's La Liga four times and Germany's Bundesliga won how many times?
5ad0d1a7645df0001a2d0503
True
three
292
Between 1992 and 2013, the Premier League won the UEFA Champions League four times and Germany's Bundesliga won how many times?
5ad0d1a7645df0001a2d0504
True
Between the 1992–93 season and the 2012–13 season, Premier League clubs had won the UEFA Champions League four times (as well as supplying five of the runners-up), behind Spain's La Liga with six wins, and Italy's Serie A with five wins, and ahead of, among others, Germany's Bundesliga with three wins (see table here). The FIFA Club World Cup (or the FIFA Club World Championship, as it was originally called) has been won by Premier league clubs once (Manchester United in 2008), and they have also been runners-up twice, behind Brazil's Brasileirão with four wins, and Spain's La Liga and Italy's Serie A with two wins each (see table here).
What are the Premier League's revenues for 2009-10?
572fd9cd04bcaa1900d76dc5
total club revenues of €2.48 billion in 2009–10.
85
False
What were some of the reasons for the increased revenues in 2013-14?
572fd9cd04bcaa1900d76dc6
the Premier League had net profits in excess of £78 million, exceeding all other football leagues
201
False
Which award did the Premier League win in 2010?
572fd9cd04bcaa1900d76dc7
In 2010 the Premier League was awarded the Queen's Award for Enterprise in the International Trade category
300
False
Why did it receive this award?
572fd9cd04bcaa1900d76dc8
for its outstanding contribution to international trade and the value it brings to English football and the United Kingdom's broadcasting industry.
408
False
What were the Premier League's net profits in 2013-14?
572fd9cd04bcaa1900d76dc9
the Premier League had net profits in excess of £78 million, exceeding all other football leagues
201
False
Which league has the highest revenue in the world?
5733eeae4776f41900661543
Premier League
4
False
What were the total revenues of the Premier League in the 2009-10 season?
5733eeae4776f41900661544
€2.48 billion
108
False
What were the net profits of the Premier League in 2013-14?
5733eeae4776f41900661545
£78 million
249
False
In which year was the Premier League awarded an International Trade award?
5733eeae4776f41900661546
2010
303
False
The Premier League
0
Which league has the lowest revenue of any football league in the world?
5ad0d418645df0001a2d05d4
True
The Premier League
0
With revenues of 78 million, which football league has the highest revenue in the world?
5ad0d418645df0001a2d05d5
True
Queen's Award for Enterprise
343
What award was the Premier League given in 2013?
5ad0d418645df0001a2d05d6
True
Queen's Award for Enterprise
343
Which Award is presented for outstanding contribution to national trade?
5ad0d418645df0001a2d05d7
True
2010
303
In what year was the Premier League given the United Kingdom Award?
5ad0d418645df0001a2d05d8
True
The Premier League has the highest revenue of any football league in the world, with total club revenues of €2.48 billion in 2009–10. In 2013–14, due to improved television revenues and cost controls, the Premier League had net profits in excess of £78 million, exceeding all other football leagues. In 2010 the Premier League was awarded the Queen's Award for Enterprise in the International Trade category for its outstanding contribution to international trade and the value it brings to English football and the United Kingdom's broadcasting industry.
When was Swansea City's home match played against Wigan Athletic?
572fdefc04bcaa1900d76e15
Swansea City's home match at the Liberty Stadium against Wigan Athletic on 20 August 2011.
177
False
Did Swansea qualify for the Europa Leaque in 2012-13?
572fdefc04bcaa1900d76e16
In 2012–13, Swansea qualified for the Europa League
268
False
How did Swansea qualify for the Europa League?
572fdefc04bcaa1900d76e17
Swansea qualified for the Europa League by winning the League Cup.
280
False
In 2013-14, how much did the Premier League's Welsh clubs increase by?
572fdefc04bcaa1900d76e18
The number of Welsh clubs in the Premier League increased to two for the first time in 2013–14,
347
False
Which team gained promotion then but was relegated after its first season?
572fdefc04bcaa1900d76e19
in 2013–14, as Cardiff City gained promotion, but Cardiff City was relegated after its maiden season.
431
False
In which year did a Welsh club participate in the Premier League for the first time?
5733eefdd058e614000b6621
2011
3
False
Which team was promoted to the Premier League in 2011?
5733eefdd058e614000b6622
Swansea City
82
False
In which stadium was the first Premier League match played outside of England?
5733eefdd058e614000b6623
Liberty Stadium
210
False
On which date did Swansea City play its first Premier League game?
5733eefdd058e614000b6624
20 August 2011
252
False
Against which team did Swansea City play its first Premier League game?
5733eefdd058e614000b6625
Wigan Athletic
234
False
a Welsh club
9
After Europa City gained promotion, which club participated in the Premier League for the first time?
5ad0d84b645df0001a2d068a
True
2011
3
In which year did a Europa city gain promotion and a Welsh club join the league?
5ad0d84b645df0001a2d068b
True
Swansea City
82
After which city gained promotion did a Europa club join the Premier League?
5ad0d84b645df0001a2d068c
True
Cardiff City
446
Which city gained promotion in August 2011?
5ad0d84b645df0001a2d068d
True
Swansea
280
Who qualified for the league by being the winner of Wigan Athletic?
5ad0d84b645df0001a2d068e
True
In 2011, a Welsh club participated in the Premier League for the first time after Swansea City gained promotion. The first Premier League match to be played outside England was Swansea City's home match at the Liberty Stadium against Wigan Athletic on 20 August 2011. In 2012–13, Swansea qualified for the Europa League by winning the League Cup. The number of Welsh clubs in the Premier League increased to two for the first time in 2013–14, as Cardiff City gained promotion, but Cardiff City was relegated after its maiden season.
Are there any clubs Scotland or Ireland in the Premier League?
572fdf8d947a6a140053cd94
Participation in the Premier League by some Scottish or Irish clubs has sometimes been discussed, but without result.
0
False
Which team received permission to move to Dublin, Ireland in 1998?
572fdf8d947a6a140053cd95
in 1998, when Wimbledon received Premier League approval to relocate to Dublin, Ireland,
151
False
Why didn't they move to Dublin?
572fdf8d947a6a140053cd96
the move was blocked by the Football Association of Ireland.
244
False
What are Scotland's two largest teams?
572fdf8d947a6a140053cd97
Scotland's two biggest teams, Celtic and Rangers,
366
False
Which team received Premier League approval to relocate to Dublin?
5733ef4b4776f41900661551
Wimbledon
165
False
In which year did a Premier League team consider relocating to Ireland?
5733ef4b4776f41900661552
1998
154
False
Who occasionally discusses a Scottish team joining the Premier League?
5733ef4b4776f41900661553
the media
319
False
Scottish or Irish clubs
44
Discussion about which clubs has led to them joining the Premier League?
5ad0dbc9645df0001a2d06cc
True
Celtic and Rangers
396
What is the names of Scotland's two smallest teams?
5ad0dbc9645df0001a2d06cd
True
Scotland's
366
The Celtic and Rangers are the two smallest teams of which country?
5ad0dbc9645df0001a2d06ce
True
1998
154
In which year did the Rangers get Premier League approval to relocate?
5ad0dbc9645df0001a2d06cf
True
1998
154
In which year did Wimbledon  get Premier League approval to relocate to Scotland?
5ad0dbc9645df0001a2d06d0
True
Participation in the Premier League by some Scottish or Irish clubs has sometimes been discussed, but without result. The idea came closest to reality in 1998, when Wimbledon received Premier League approval to relocate to Dublin, Ireland, but the move was blocked by the Football Association of Ireland. Additionally, the media occasionally discusses the idea that Scotland's two biggest teams, Celtic and Rangers, should or will take part in the Premier League, but nothing has come of these discussions.
Who received broadcasting rights to the Premier League in 1992?
572fe03bb2c2fd140056853b
The League's decision to assign broadcasting rights to BSkyB in 1992
73
False
Why was this a unique decision?
572fe03bb2c2fd140056853c
pay television was an almost untested proposition in the UK market,
217
False
What happened to the Premier League's televsion rights after this decision?
572fe03bb2c2fd140056853d
the value of the Premier League's TV rights soar.
469
False
What was the cause of this?
572fe03bb2c2fd140056853e
a combination of Sky's strategy, the quality of Premier League football and the public's appetite for the game
349
False
In which year did the Premier League decide to give BSkyB broadcasting rights?
5733efac4776f4190066155f
1992
137
False
What sort of television was BSkyB that made it such a radical broadcaster to choose for the Premier League?
5733efac4776f41900661560
pay television
217
False
Premier League
57
In which league has television played a minor role?
5ad0dcf5645df0001a2d06fa
True
1992
137
In which year did BSkyB assign broadcasting rights to the League?
5ad0dcf5645df0001a2d06fb
True
1992
137
In which year did The Premier League give the UK market broadcasting rights?
5ad0dcf5645df0001a2d06fc
True
Television
0
What has played a minor role in the history of the Premier League?
5ad0dcf5645df0001a2d06fd
True
Television
0
What has played a major role in BSkyB?
5ad0dcf5645df0001a2d06fe
True
Television has played a major role in the history of the Premier League. The League's decision to assign broadcasting rights to BSkyB in 1992 was at the time a radical decision, but one that has paid off. At the time pay television was an almost untested proposition in the UK market, as was charging fans to watch live televised football. However, a combination of Sky's strategy, the quality of Premier League football and the public's appetite for the game has seen the value of the Premier League's TV rights soar.
Do European Leagues sell their television rights per a collective level?
572fe161947a6a140053cdb0
other European Leagues, including La Liga, in which each club sells its rights individually
98
False
What happens when European Leagues sell their televsion rights individually?
572fe161947a6a140053cdb1
a much higher share of the total income going to the top few clubs
202
False
How is the teleivsion revenue distributed in the Premier League?
572fe161947a6a140053cdb2
The money is divided into three parts:
270
False
How is half of the money distributed?
572fe161947a6a140053cdb3
half is divided equally between the clubs
309
False
How is the final quarter of the money distributed?
572fe161947a6a140053cdb4
the final quarter is paid out as facilities fees for games that are shown on television, with the top clubs generally receiving the largest shares of this.
530
False
On what sort of basis does the Premier League sell its television rights?
5733f0354776f41900661563
collective basis
52
False
How does La Liga sell its broadcasting rights?
5733f0354776f41900661564
individually
177
False
Which clubs get the greatest share of broadcasting income when rights are sold individually?
5733f0354776f41900661565
the top few clubs
251
False
What percentage of broadcasting revenue is divided equally by all La Liga clubs?
5733f0354776f41900661566
half
309
False
What percentage of broadcasting revenue is awarded on a merit basis according to ranking at the end of the season?
5733f0354776f41900661567
one quarter
352
False
on a collective basis
47
On what kind of basis do the twenty clubs sell their rights?
5ad0dd62645df0001a2d070c
True
individually
177
La Liga sells its rights collectively while the Premier League sells how?
5ad0dd62645df0001a2d070d
True
equally
729
How is the income from domestic rights divided between the twenty clubs?
5ad0dd62645df0001a2d070e
True
equally
729
How is the revenue from overseas rights divided between the 40 clubs?
5ad0dd62645df0001a2d070f
True
twenty
749
The revenue from overseas rights is divided unequally between how many clubs?
5ad0dd62645df0001a2d0710
True
The Premier League sells its television rights on a collective basis. This is in contrast to some other European Leagues, including La Liga, in which each club sells its rights individually, leading to a much higher share of the total income going to the top few clubs. The money is divided into three parts: half is divided equally between the clubs; one quarter is awarded on a merit basis based on final league position, the top club getting twenty times as much as the bottom club, and equal steps all the way down the table; the final quarter is paid out as facilities fees for games that are shown on television, with the top clubs generally receiving the largest shares of this. The income from overseas rights is divided equally between the twenty clubs.
How much was the amount of first five seasons of the Sky television rights?
572fe288b2c2fd140056855d
The first Sky television rights agreement was worth £304 million over five seasons.
0
False
How much many did the Premier League make from selling its internation rights during 2004-07?
572fe288b2c2fd140056855e
The league brought in £320 million from the sale of its international rights for the three-year period from 2004–05 to 2006–07
291
False
What happened to Sky's agreement in 2006.
572fe288b2c2fd140056855f
Sky's monopoly was broken from August 2006 when Setanta Sports was awarded rights to show two out of the six packages of matches available.
480
False
Why did this happen?
572fe288b2c2fd1400568560
This occurred following an insistence by the European Commission that exclusive rights should not be sold to one television company.
620
False
What was the average income from media from 2007-2010 for the Premier League?
572fe288b2c2fd1400568561
giving Premier League clubs an average media income from league games of around £40 million-a-year from 2007 to 2010.
1643
False
How many seasons did the first television rights contract award to Sky?
5733f3234776f41900661589
five
70
False
How much was the first television rights contract awarded to Sky worth?
5733f3234776f4190066158a
£304 million
52
False
How much was the second television rights contract awarded to Sky worth?
5733f3234776f4190066158b
£670 million
156
False
How much was the third television rights contract awarded to Sky worth?
5733f3234776f4190066158c
£1.024 billion
213
False
By being awarded television rights, which other network broke Sky's monopoly on Premier League coverage?
5733f3234776f4190066158d
Setanta Sports
528
False
£304 million
52
The first Sky television rights agreement was worth how much money over a six year period?
5ad0dde9645df0001a2d071e
True
five seasons
70
The first Sky television rights agreement was worth 105 million over what time period?
5ad0dde9645df0001a2d071f
True
£670 million over four seasons
156
The second contract began in the 1996 season and was worth how much?
5ad0dde9645df0001a2d0720
True
£670 million
156
How much was the second contract worth over a three season period?
5ad0dde9645df0001a2d0721
True
£1.024 billion
213
How much was the third contract worth over a four season period?
5ad0dde9645df0001a2d0722
True
The first Sky television rights agreement was worth £304 million over five seasons. The next contract, negotiated to start from the 1997–98 season, rose to £670 million over four seasons. The third contract was a £1.024 billion deal with BSkyB for the three seasons from 2001–02 to 2003–04. The league brought in £320 million from the sale of its international rights for the three-year period from 2004–05 to 2006–07. It sold the rights itself on a territory-by-territory basis. Sky's monopoly was broken from August 2006 when Setanta Sports was awarded rights to show two out of the six packages of matches available. This occurred following an insistence by the European Commission that exclusive rights should not be sold to one television company. Sky and Setanta paid a total of £1.7 billion, a two-thirds increase which took many commentators by surprise as it had been widely assumed that the value of the rights had levelled off following many years of rapid growth. Setanta also hold rights to a live 3 pm match solely for Irish viewers. The BBC has retained the rights to show highlights for the same three seasons (on Match of the Day) for £171.6 million, a 63 per cent increase on the £105 million it paid for the previous three-year period. Sky and BT have agreed to jointly pay £84.3 million for delayed television rights to 242 games (that is the right to broadcast them in full on television and over the internet) in most cases for a period of 50 hours after 10 pm on matchday. Overseas television rights fetched £625 million, nearly double the previous contract. The total raised from these deals is more than £2.7 billion, giving Premier League clubs an average media income from league games of around £40 million-a-year from 2007 to 2010.
Why has there been a several court cases against Sky and Premier League?
572fe3d7a23a5019007fcaeb
The TV rights agreement between the Premier League and Sky has faced accusations of being a cartel
0
False
What did the Office of Fair Trading decide regarding the claim that Sky abuses their position in 2002.
572fe3d7a23a5019007fcaec
Office of Fair Trading in 2002 found BSkyB to be dominant within the pay TV sports market, but concluded that there were insufficient grounds for the claim
177
False
Who investigated the Premier League's collective selling rights in 1999?
572fe3d7a23a5019007fcaed
In July 1999 the Premier League's method of selling rights collectively for all member clubs was investigated by the UK Restrictive Practices Court,
378
False
What did they decide about the collective selling issue?
572fe3d7a23a5019007fcaee
the UK Restrictive Practices Court, who concluded that the agreement was not contrary to the public interest.
491
False
What has the agreement between the Premier League and Sky been accused of being?
5733f3694776f41900661593
a cartel
90
False
Who investigated the agreement between the Premier League and Sky in 2002?
5733f3694776f41900661594
the Office of Fair Trading
173
False
Who investigated how the Premier League sold television rights in 1999?
5733f3694776f41900661595
the UK Restrictive Practices Court
491
False
a cartel
90
Agreements between UK Restrictive Practices Court and the Premier League have been accused of being what?
5ad0dfae645df0001a2d0756
True
number of court cases
106
What has arisen as a result of TV rights agreements between the Premier League and the Office of Fair Trading?
5ad0dfae645df0001a2d0757
True
2002
203
In which year did the UK Restrictive Practices Court find BSkyB to be dominant in the pay TV sports market?
5ad0dfae645df0001a2d0758
True
2002
203
In which year did the Office of Fair Trading find sufficient grounds to claim BSkyB abused its dominant position within the pay TV sports market?
5ad0dfae645df0001a2d0759
True
The TV rights agreement between the Premier League and Sky has faced accusations of being a cartel, and a number of court cases have arisen as a result. An investigation by the Office of Fair Trading in 2002 found BSkyB to be dominant within the pay TV sports market, but concluded that there were insufficient grounds for the claim that BSkyB had abused its dominant position. In July 1999 the Premier League's method of selling rights collectively for all member clubs was investigated by the UK Restrictive Practices Court, who concluded that the agreement was not contrary to the public interest.
How much money did Premier League earn regarding television rights in 2010-13?
572fe534a23a5019007fcaf3
Television rights alone for the period 2010 to 2013 have been purchased for £1.782 billion.
130
False
How many games did BT show in 2013-16?
572fe534a23a5019007fcaf4
BT had been awarded 38 games a season for the 2013–14 through 2015–16 seasons at £246 million-a-year.
617
False
Who will show 116 games for that same time period?
572fe534a23a5019007fcaf5
The remaining 116 games were retained by Sky who paid £760 million-a-year.
719
False
How much have the domestic televsion rights increased from 2010-12 to 2012-13?
572fe534a23a5019007fcaf6
The total domestic rights have raised £3.018 billion, an increase of 70.2% over the 2010–11 to 2012–13 rights.
794
False
How much did BT and Sky pay for their rights up to the 2018-19 season?
572fe534a23a5019007fcaf7
Sky and BT paid a total of £5.136 billion to renew their contracts with the Premier League for another three years up to the 2018–19 season.
973
False
When will the BBC's weekend highlights package run out?
5733f3f3d058e614000b6659
2016
124
False
How much were Premier League television rights from 2010 to 2013 purchased for?
5733f3f3d058e614000b665a
£1.782 billion
206
False
When did Setanta Sports fail to meet their payments deadline?
5733f3f3d058e614000b665b
22 June 2009
225
False
When Setanta Sports could not pay their bill to the league, which network took over broadcast rights from them?
5733f3f3d058e614000b665c
ESPN
376
False
On which date was it announced that BT was awarded a broadcasting contract?
5733f3f3d058e614000b665d
13 June 2012
569
False
£760 million-a-year.
773
For how much did Sky retain the remaining 23 matches?
5ad0e051645df0001a2d0771
True
BBC's
4
Which channel's package on Monday nights  will run until 2016?
5ad0e051645df0001a2d0772
True
BBC's highlights package
4
Which package on Saturday and Sunday nights will run through 2009?
5ad0e051645df0001a2d0773
True
until 2016
118
For how long will the Premier League highlights package run?
5ad0e051645df0001a2d0774
True
The BBC's highlights package on Saturday and Sunday nights, as well as other evenings when fixtures justify, will run until 2016. Television rights alone for the period 2010 to 2013 have been purchased for £1.782 billion. On 22 June 2009, due to troubles encountered by Setanta Sports after it failed to meet a final deadline over a £30 million payment to the Premier League, ESPN was awarded two packages of UK rights containing a total of 46 matches that were available for the 2009–10 season as well as a package of 23 matches per season from 2010–11 to 2012–13. On 13 June 2012, the Premier League announced that BT had been awarded 38 games a season for the 2013–14 through 2015–16 seasons at £246 million-a-year. The remaining 116 games were retained by Sky who paid £760 million-a-year. The total domestic rights have raised £3.018 billion, an increase of 70.2% over the 2010–11 to 2012–13 rights. The value of the licensing deal rose by another 70.2% in 2015, when Sky and BT paid a total of £5.136 billion to renew their contracts with the Premier League for another three years up to the 2018–19 season.
What country is the Premier League the most distributed televised sports broadcast?
572fe613a23a5019007fcb07
The Premier League is particularly popular in Asia, where it is the most widely distributed sports programme
0
False
Who broadcasts the Premier League's games in India?
572fe613a23a5019007fcb08
In India, the matches are broadcast live on STAR Sports. In China
279
False
Who broadcasts the Premier League's games in China?
572fe613a23a5019007fcb09
In China, the broadcast rights were awarded to Super Sports in a six-year agreement that began in the 2013–14 season.
336
False
Who broadcasts the Premier League's games in Canada?
572fe613a23a5019007fcb0a
As of the 2013–14 season, Canadian broadcast rights to the Premier League are jointly owned by Sportsnet and TSN
454
False
How many games does each of them broadcast?
572fe613a23a5019007fcb0b
both rival networks holding rights to 190 matches per season.
573
False
On which continent other than Europe is the Premier League especially popular?
5733f46dd058e614000b666b
Asia
46
False
Which network is the main live broadcaster of Premier League in Australia?
5733f46dd058e614000b666c
Fox Sports
124
False
Which network in Australia offers viewers the choice of which Saturday afternoon match they watch?
5733f46dd058e614000b666d
Foxtel
195
False
Which network broadcasts Premier League live in India?
5733f46dd058e614000b666e
STAR Sports
323
False
Which Chinese broadcaster has Premier League rights?
5733f46dd058e614000b666f
Super Sports
383
False
Asia
46
Where is the Premier League particularly unpopular?
5ad0e10f645df0001a2d078c
True
Asia
46
Where is the Premier League the least widely distributed sports program?
5ad0e10f645df0001a2d078d
True
almost all of the season's 380 matches live
146
What does Fox Sports broadcast in Asia?
5ad0e10f645df0001a2d078e
True
2013
438
In what year where the broadcast rights in China given to Sportsnet?
5ad0e10f645df0001a2d078f
True
Canadian broadcast rights
480
Who jointly owns Sportsnet and TSN?
5ad0e10f645df0001a2d0790
True
The Premier League is particularly popular in Asia, where it is the most widely distributed sports programme. In Australia, Fox Sports broadcasts almost all of the season's 380 matches live, and Foxtel gives subscribers the option of selecting which Saturday 3pm match to watch. In India, the matches are broadcast live on STAR Sports. In China, the broadcast rights were awarded to Super Sports in a six-year agreement that began in the 2013–14 season. As of the 2013–14 season, Canadian broadcast rights to the Premier League are jointly owned by Sportsnet and TSN, with both rival networks holding rights to 190 matches per season.
Who broadcasts the Premier League's games in the United States?
572fe742947a6a140053cdcc
The Premier League is broadcast in the United States through NBC Sports.
0
False
What was the average viewership in the United States during the 2014-15 season?
572fe742947a6a140053cdcd
with NBC and NBCSN averaging a record 479,000 viewers in the 2014–15 season
122
False
How many years did NBC Sports receive an extension for with the Premier League in 2015?
572fe742947a6a140053cdce
NBC Sports reached a six-year extension with the Premier League in 2015
351
False
What was the value of this extension?
572fe742947a6a140053cdcf
in a deal valued at $1 billion (£640 million).
474
False
When will this extension end?
572fe742947a6a140053cdd0
through the 2021–22 season
447
False
Which American broadcaster shows the Premier League currently?
5733f4e2d058e614000b6675
NBC Sports
61
False
By what percentage has viewership in the US risen from 2012 to 2015?
5733f4e2d058e614000b6676
118%
202
False
How many viewers on average watched the Premier League 2014-15 season in the US?
5733f4e2d058e614000b6677
479,000
160
False
In which year did NBC Sports secure an extension of six years with the Premier League?
5733f4e2d058e614000b6678
2015
418
False
How much was the NBC broadcasting deal with the Premier League worth in 2015?
5733f4e2d058e614000b6679
$1 billion
494
False
NBC Sports
61
Through which channel is the Fox Sports league broadcast in the US?
5ad0e248645df0001a2d07b2
True
2015
418
In what year did Fox Sports and the Premier League come to a six year extension?
5ad0e248645df0001a2d07b3
True
$1 billion
494
How much was the seven year deal between NBC Sports and the Premier League valued at?
5ad0e248645df0001a2d07b4
True
United States
39
In which country is the Premier League broadcast through ESPN Sports?
5ad0e248645df0001a2d07b5
True
six-year
372
For how many years was the extension between ESPN and Fox Soccer?
5ad0e248645df0001a2d07b6
True
The Premier League is broadcast in the United States through NBC Sports. Premier League viewership has increased rapidly, with NBC and NBCSN averaging a record 479,000 viewers in the 2014–15 season, up 118% from 2012–13 when coverage still aired on Fox Soccer and ESPN/ESPN2 (220,000 viewers), and NBC Sports has been widely praised for its coverage. NBC Sports reached a six-year extension with the Premier League in 2015 to broadcast the league through the 2021–22 season in a deal valued at $1 billion (£640 million).
Why has their been distance between the Premier League and the Football League?
572fe9d104bcaa1900d76e9f
in large part to the disparity in revenue from television rights between the leagues,
257
False
Did many new teams in the Premier League have any difficulties in their initial season?
572fe9d104bcaa1900d76ea0
many newly promoted teams have found it difficult to avoid relegation in their first season in the Premier League.
343
False
Was it unusual for a new team to go back to the Football League after their first season in the Premier League?
572fe9d104bcaa1900d76ea1
In every season except 2001–02 and 2011–12, at least one Premier League newcomer has been relegated back to the Football League.
458
False
In the 1997-98 season how many new teams had to go back to the Football League?
572fe9d104bcaa1900d76ea2
In 1997–98 all three promoted clubs were relegated at the end of the season.
587
False
Due to the disparity in television rights revenue between leagues, who struggles to avoid relegation in their Premier League first season?
5733f58f4776f419006615b5
newly promoted teams
348
False
In every season but 2001-02 and 2011-12, at least how many Premier League teams have been relegated?
5733f58f4776f419006615b6
one
511
False
How many newly promoted clubs were relegated from the Premier League in 1997-98?
5733f58f4776f419006615b7
three
602
False
Premier League and the Football League
46
Between which leagues has there been a decreasing gulf?
5ad0e3e2645df0001a2d07c6
True
Football League
69
The Premier League and which other league have been noticing a decreasing gulf?
5ad0e3e2645df0001a2d07c7
True
Football League
111
From which league did the television split from?
5ad0e3e2645df0001a2d07c8
True
end of the season
645
When in 1997-98 were the four promoted clubs relegated?
5ad0e3e2645df0001a2d07c9
True
every season except 2001–02 and 2011–12
461
In which season has there been at least one Football League newcomer relegated back to the Premier League?
5ad0e3e2645df0001a2d07ca
True
There has been an increasing gulf between the Premier League and the Football League. Since its split with the Football League, many established clubs in the Premier League have managed to distance themselves from their counterparts in lower leagues. Owing in large part to the disparity in revenue from television rights between the leagues, many newly promoted teams have found it difficult to avoid relegation in their first season in the Premier League. In every season except 2001–02 and 2011–12, at least one Premier League newcomer has been relegated back to the Football League. In 1997–98 all three promoted clubs were relegated at the end of the season.
If a team is relegated in the Premier League what type of tv payment do they receive?
572febe6b2c2fd14005685e3
The Premier League distributes a portion of its television revenue to clubs that are relegated from the league in the form of "parachute payments".
0
False
What do critics have to say about this payment?
572febe6b2c2fd14005685e4
critics maintain that the payments actually widen the gap between teams that have reached the Premier League and those that have not,
445
False
What has happened to some of the clubs who weren't able to get back into the Premier League right away?
572febe6b2c2fd14005685e5
financial problems
752
False
How much does a Football League club receive on average for their television revenues?
572febe6b2c2fd14005685e6
the average Football League Championship club receives £2 million
377
False
How does this compare an average Premier League team?
572febe6b2c2fd14005685e7
the average Premier League team receives £55 million
318
False
To which type of team are parachute payments distributed to in the Premier League?
5733f6204776f419006615c9
relegated
85
False
Starting in the 2013-14 season, parachute payments are in excess of what amount of revenue?
5733f6204776f419006615ca
£60 million
214
False
What is said to widen between clubs who reach the Premier League and those who do not thanks to parachute payments?
5733f6204776f419006615cb
the gap
495
False
distributes a portion of its television revenue to clubs that are relegated from the league in the form of "parachute payments
19
What does the Football League Championship club do with a portion of TV revenue?
5ad0e4d6645df0001a2d07da
True
widen the gap between teams that have reached the Premier League and those that have not
489
What do supporters say about the parachute payments?
5ad0e4d6645df0001a2d07db
True
clubs that are relegated from the league
70
To what type of team does the Football League Championship club distribute parachute payments?
5ad0e4d6645df0001a2d07dc
True
£60 million over four seasons.
214
How much to the "bouncing back" payments exceed?
5ad0e4d6645df0001a2d07dd
True
The Premier League distributes a portion of its television revenue to clubs that are relegated from the league in the form of "parachute payments". Starting with the 2013–14 season, these payments are in excess of £60 million over four seasons. Though designed to help teams adjust to the loss of television revenues (the average Premier League team receives £55 million while the average Football League Championship club receives £2 million), critics maintain that the payments actually widen the gap between teams that have reached the Premier League and those that have not, leading to the common occurrence of teams "bouncing back" soon after their relegation. For some clubs who have failed to win immediate promotion back to the Premier League, financial problems, including in some cases administration or even liquidation have followed. Further relegations down the footballing ladder have ensued for several clubs unable to cope with the gap.
What did the Taylor Report recommend at the the Hillsborough disaster in 1989?
572fed0e04bcaa1900d76ec5
a recommendation that standing terraces should be abolished
203
False
What was the result of their recommendation?
572fed0e04bcaa1900d76ec6
as a result all stadiums in the Premier League are all-seater
264
False
How many stadiums have been closed down since Premier League started?
572fed0e04bcaa1900d76ec7
Nine stadiums that have seen Premier League football have now been demolished.
504
False
What was the total seating capacity of stadiums in the Premier League in the 2010-11 season.
572fed0e04bcaa1900d76ec8
The combined total capacity of the Premier League in the 2010–11 season is 770,477 with an average capacity of 38,523.
798
False
In how many stadiums had Premier League been played as of the 2015-16 season?
5733f6a4d058e614000b668f
53
69
False
What did the Taylor Report recommend to abolish from all stadiums?
5733f6a4d058e614000b6690
standing terraces
225
False
How many stadiums in which the Premier League has been played have been demolished as of 2016?
5733f6a4d058e614000b6691
Nine
504
False
What is the capacity of Bloomfield Road stadium?
5733f6a4d058e614000b6692
16,220
790
False
What is the combined total capacity of all stadiums in the Premier League as of 2011?
5733f6a4d058e614000b6693
770,477
873
False
53
69
Since the leagues beginnings in 2015, how many stadiums have there been games in?
5ad0e553645df0001a2d07e2
True
1992
126
The Premier league has played in 75,957 stadiums since which year?
5ad0e553645df0001a2d07e3
True
1989
161
In which year was the Taylor Report disaster?
5ad0e553645df0001a2d07e4
True
Premier League
354
Since which leagues creation have football grounds in Old Trafford seen steady improvements?
5ad0e553645df0001a2d07e5
True
been demolished
566
What has happened to ten stadiums that have hosted Premier League football?
5ad0e553645df0001a2d07e6
True
As of the 2015–16 season, Premier League football has been played in 53 stadiums since the formation of the Premier League in 1992. The Hillsborough disaster in 1989 and the subsequent Taylor Report saw a recommendation that standing terraces should be abolished; as a result all stadiums in the Premier League are all-seater. Since the formation of the Premier League, football grounds in England have seen constant improvements to capacity and facilities, with some clubs moving to new-build stadiums. Nine stadiums that have seen Premier League football have now been demolished. The stadiums for the 2010–11 season show a large disparity in capacity: Old Trafford, the home of Manchester United has a capacity of 75,957 with Bloomfield Road, the home of Blackpool, having a capacity of 16,220. The combined total capacity of the Premier League in the 2010–11 season is 770,477 with an average capacity of 38,523.
Are attendance remittances that important to the Premier League?
572fee1ea23a5019007fcb65
Stadium attendances are a significant source of regular income for Premier League clubs.
0
False
What was the Premier Leagues standard attendance in the 2007-08 season?
572fee1ea23a5019007fcb66
The Premier League's record average attendance of 36,144 was set during the 2007–08 season.
574
False
What was the league's first year attendance average?
572fee1ea23a5019007fcb67
the average attendance of 21,126 recorded in the league's first season (1992–93).
295
False
Attendance for the 2013-14 season set a new record of how much?
572fee1ea23a5019007fcb68
in the 2013–14 season recording an average attendance of 36,695 with a total attendance of just under 14 million,
694
False
What was the average attendance for all Premier League clubs during the 2009-10 season?
5733f72d4776f419006615d9
34,215
162
False
What was the total attendance of all Premier League games during the 2009-10 season?
5733f72d4776f419006615da
13,001,616
240
False
By how many attendees did the average Premier League attendance increase between 1992 and 2009?
5733f72d4776f419006615db
13,089
283
False
For when did the Taylor Report set the deadline for replacing terraces with seats in stadiums?
5733f72d4776f419006615dc
1994–95
532
False
During which season did the Premier League set a record average attendance of over 36,000 people?
5733f72d4776f419006615dd
2007–08
650
False
Stadium attendances
0
What is a significant source of revenue for the Taylor Report?
5ad0e612645df0001a2d07ec
True
regular income
48
Stadium attendances provide what for the Taylor Report clubs?
5ad0e612645df0001a2d07ed
True
13,001,616
240
With a total aggregate attendance of 34,215, how much was the average attendance across clubs for the 2009-10 season?
5ad0e612645df0001a2d07ee
True
2013–14
701
In which year was the record beaten when average attendance was recorded at just under 14 million?
5ad0e612645df0001a2d07ef
True
just under 14 million
785
What is the highest total in England's top flight since 1992?
5ad0e612645df0001a2d07f0
True
Stadium attendances are a significant source of regular income for Premier League clubs. For the 2009–10 season, average attendances across the league clubs were 34,215 for Premier League matches with a total aggregate attendance figure of 13,001,616. This represents an increase of 13,089 from the average attendance of 21,126 recorded in the league's first season (1992–93). However, during the 1992–93 season the capacities of most stadiums were reduced as clubs replaced terraces with seats in order to meet the Taylor Report's 1994–95 deadline for all-seater stadiums. The Premier League's record average attendance of 36,144 was set during the 2007–08 season. This record was then beaten in the 2013–14 season recording an average attendance of 36,695 with a total attendance of just under 14 million, the highest average in England's top flight since 1950.
What are some of the every day tasks that a manager of a team has to deal with?
572fef4204bcaa1900d76ee1
Managers in the Premier League are involved in the day-to-day running of the team, including the training, team selection, and player acquisition.
0
False
What type of licence does a manager need?
572fef4204bcaa1900d76ee2
Managers are required to have a UEFA Pro Licence
279
False
Is this licence required on a permanent basis?
572fef4204bcaa1900d76ee3
The UEFA Pro Licence is required by every person who wishes to manage a club in the Premier League on a permanent basis
442
False
What is a caretaker manager?
572fef4204bcaa1900d76ee4
Caretaker appointments are managers that fill the gap between a managerial departure and a new appointment.
670
False
Give an example of someone who was a caretaker manager?
572fef4204bcaa1900d76ee5
examples include Paul Hart at Portsmouth and David Pleat at Tottenham Hotspur.
894
False
What license are managers in the Premier League required to hold?
5733f7b3d058e614000b669f
UEFA Pro Licence
311
False
Which licence follows completion of both the UEFA B and A licences?
5733f7b3d058e614000b66a0
UEFA Pro Licence
311
False
For how long at most is an unlicenced caretaker manager allowed to control a Premier League team for?
5733f7b3d058e614000b66a1
12 weeks
578
False
Which caretaker manager was later promoted to permanent manager at Portsmouth?
5733f7b3d058e614000b66a2
Paul Hart
911
False
Which caretaker manager was later promoted to permanent manager at Tottenham Hotspur?
5733f7b3d058e614000b66a3
David Pleat
939
False
managers that fill the gap between a managerial departure and a new appointment.
697
What is a manager appointment?
5ad0e6c3645df0001a2d07f8
True
permanent managerial post
830
What have numerous fans gone on to secure after doing well as a caretaker?
5ad0e6c3645df0001a2d07f9
True
Paul Hart at Portsmouth and David Pleat at Tottenham Hotspur.
911
Who is an example of a fan who went on to secure a permanent managerial post after doing well as a caretaker?
5ad0e6c3645df0001a2d07fa
True
Managers in the Premier League are involved in the day-to-day running of the team, including the training, team selection, and player acquisition. Their influence varies from club-to-club and is related to the ownership of the club and the relationship of the manager with fans. Managers are required to have a UEFA Pro Licence which is the final coaching qualification available, and follows the completion of the UEFA 'B' and 'A' Licences. The UEFA Pro Licence is required by every person who wishes to manage a club in the Premier League on a permanent basis (i.e. more than 12 weeks – the amount of time an unqualified caretaker manager is allowed to take control). Caretaker appointments are managers that fill the gap between a managerial departure and a new appointment. Several caretaker managers have gone on to secure a permanent managerial post after performing well as a caretaker; examples include Paul Hart at Portsmouth and David Pleat at Tottenham Hotspur.
At the beginning of the Premier League how many foreign players were there for the first  round of games?
572ff10db2c2fd140056861d
At the inception of the Premier League in 1992–93, just eleven players named in the starting line-ups for the first round of matches
0
False
By the 2000-1 season what was the percentage of foreign players?
572ff10db2c2fd140056861e
By 2000–01, the number of foreign players participating in the Premier League was 36 per cent of the total.
187
False
Which team in 1999 had a line-up for starting that was consisted of all foreign players?
572ff10db2c2fd140056861f
On 26 December 1999, Chelsea became the first Premier League side to field an entirely foreign starting line-up,
358
False
Which team in 2005 had all-foreign team players?
572ff10db2c2fd1400568620
on 14 February 2005 Arsenal were the first to name a completely foreign 16-man squad for a match
475
False
In 2009, what percent of the players were English in the Premier League?
572ff10db2c2fd1400568621
By 2009, under 40% of the players in the Premier League were English.
573
False
How many of the original Premier League players in the 1992-93 season hailed from outside the UK or Ireland?
5733f875d058e614000b66bb
eleven
56
False
By 2000-01, what percentage of players in the Premier League were from outside the UK and Ireland?
5733f875d058e614000b66bc
36
269
False
By 2004-05, what percentage of players in the Premier League were from outside the UK and Ireland?
5733f875d058e614000b66bd
45
345
False
On which date did Chelsea host an entirely foreign starting line-up and therefore become the first team to do so?
5733f875d058e614000b66be
26 December 1999
361
False
On which date did Arsenal name a fully foreign 16-man squad for a match?
5733f875d058e614000b66bf
14 February 2005
478
False
eleven
56
How many players were from the UK or Ireland when the Premier League was created?
5ad0e777645df0001a2d0800
True
eleven
56
How many players were from outside the UK or Ireland when the Premier League was created in 2004?
5ad0e777645df0001a2d0801
True
2000–01,
190
By what year was the number of domestic players in the league equal to 36 percent?
5ad0e777645df0001a2d0802
True
Chelsea
379
Who became the first team to field an all domestic starting line up?
5ad0e777645df0001a2d0803
True
2009
576
By what year were over 40% of players in the league English?
5ad0e777645df0001a2d0804
True
At the inception of the Premier League in 1992–93, just eleven players named in the starting line-ups for the first round of matches hailed from outside of the United Kingdom or Ireland. By 2000–01, the number of foreign players participating in the Premier League was 36 per cent of the total. In the 2004–05 season the figure had increased to 45 per cent. On 26 December 1999, Chelsea became the first Premier League side to field an entirely foreign starting line-up, and on 14 February 2005 Arsenal were the first to name a completely foreign 16-man squad for a match. By 2009, under 40% of the players in the Premier League were English.
Why did the Home Office change it rules regardin work permits in 1999?
572ff1a704bcaa1900d76f09
In response to concerns that clubs were increasingly passing over young English players in favour of foreign players
0
False
What was one of their changes?
572ff1a704bcaa1900d76f0a
A non-EU player applying for the permit must have played for his country in at least 75 per cent of its competitive 'A' team matches
246
False
What was another requirement of foreign players?
572ff1a704bcaa1900d76f0b
his country must have averaged at least 70th place in the official FIFA world rankings over the previous two years.
455
False
Could a club appeal a requirement?
572ff1a704bcaa1900d76f0c
If a player does not meet those criteria, the club wishing to sign him may appeal.
571
False
In which year did the Home Office tighten rules on granting work permits to foreign football players?
5733f914d058e614000b66d9
1999
121
False
For what percent must a player play of the competitive A team matches for which he was available for selection in the previous two years to get a work permit from the Home OFfice?
5733f914d058e614000b66da
75
331
False
Over the last two years, what rank must a player's team average at least in order for them to receive a work permit from the Home Office?
5733f914d058e614000b66db
70th place
495
False
What can a club do if a player they wish to sign does not meet the Home Office's work permit requirements?
5733f914d058e614000b66dc
appeal
646
False
Home Office
131
Which entity loosened its rules in response to concerns about the clubs passing over English players?
5ad0e84f645df0001a2d0814
True
Home Office
131
Which entity tightened its rules in response to concerns about the clubs passing over British players?
5ad0e84f645df0001a2d0815
True
1999
121
In what year did the Home Office loosen rules for granting work permits?
5ad0e84f645df0001a2d0816
True
granting work permits to players from countries outside of the European Union.
167
What did the Home Office loosen its rules for in 1999?
5ad0e84f645df0001a2d0817
True
1999
121
In what year did the Home Office tighten its rules for clubs wishing to sign players?
5ad0e84f645df0001a2d0818
True
In response to concerns that clubs were increasingly passing over young English players in favour of foreign players, in 1999, the Home Office tightened its rules for granting work permits to players from countries outside of the European Union. A non-EU player applying for the permit must have played for his country in at least 75 per cent of its competitive 'A' team matches for which he was available for selection during the previous two years, and his country must have averaged at least 70th place in the official FIFA world rankings over the previous two years. If a player does not meet those criteria, the club wishing to sign him may appeal.
When can a player be transferred?
572ff2c7b2c2fd1400568631
Players may only be transferred during transfer windows that are set by the Football Association.
0
False
When are the transfer windows?
572ff2c7b2c2fd1400568632
The two transfer windows run from the last day of the season to 31 August and from 31 December to 31 January.
98
False
Can players be transferred under an emergency outside the transfer windows?
572ff2c7b2c2fd1400568633
Player registrations cannot be exchanged outside these windows except under specific licence from the FA, usually on an emergency basis.
208
False
What new rule was put into practice during the 2010-11 season?
572ff2c7b2c2fd1400568634
As of the 2010–11 season, the Premier League introduced new rules mandating that each club must register a maximum 25-man squad of players aged over 21,
345
False
Why was this new rule put into effect?
572ff2c7b2c2fd1400568635
This was to enable the 'home grown' rule to be enacted,
598
False
During which time can a player be transferred from one European football league to another?
5733f9bcd058e614000b66e1
transfer windows
39
False
How many transfer windows are available each year from the Football Association?
5733f9bcd058e614000b66e2
two
102
False
On which basis are transfers outside of transfer windows licenced?
5733f9bcd058e614000b66e3
emergency
328
False
What is the maximum number of players able to be registered to a Premier League team?
5733f9bcd058e614000b66e4
25
460
False
How many of a 25-member Premier League squad must be from the UK or Ireland?
5733f9bcd058e614000b66e5
8
711
False
the Football Association
72
Who sets the transfer windows in which fans are transferred?
5ad0e8ec645df0001a2d0828
True
two
102
How many transfer windows does the Premier League run?
5ad0e8ec645df0001a2d0829
True
from the last day of the season to 31 August and from 31 December to 31 January
127
From when do t he transfer players run?
5ad0e8ec645df0001a2d082a
True
2010–11
355
In which season was it mandated that each club must have a maximum 21-man squad of players over 25?
5ad0e8ec645df0001a2d082b
True
home grown' rule
622
Which rule stated that at least 21 of the 25 men must be "home grown players"?
5ad0e8ec645df0001a2d082c
True
Players may only be transferred during transfer windows that are set by the Football Association. The two transfer windows run from the last day of the season to 31 August and from 31 December to 31 January. Player registrations cannot be exchanged outside these windows except under specific licence from the FA, usually on an emergency basis. As of the 2010–11 season, the Premier League introduced new rules mandating that each club must register a maximum 25-man squad of players aged over 21, with the squad list only allowed to be changed in transfer windows or in exceptional circumstances. This was to enable the 'home grown' rule to be enacted, whereby the League would also from 2010 require at least 8 of the named 25 man squad to be made up of 'home-grown players'.
Have transfer fees been increasing over the past years?
572ff3cdb2c2fd1400568643
The record transfer fee for a Premier League player has risen steadily over the lifetime of the competition.
0
False
What was the record breaking transfer fee in 1996?
572ff3cdb2c2fd1400568644
Alan Shearer made a record breaking £15 million move to Newcastle United in 1996.
333
False
What was the transfer fee for Gareth Bale in 2013.
572ff3cdb2c2fd1400568645
Tottenham Hotspur selling Gareth Bale to Real Madrid for £85 million in 2013,
516
False
In 2009, what was the transfer fee for Cristiano Ronaldo?
572ff3cdb2c2fd1400568646
Manchester United's sale of Cristiano Ronaldo to Real Madrid for £80 million in 2009,
594
False
What was Luis Suarez's transfer fee in 2014?
572ff3cdb2c2fd1400568647
Liverpool selling Luis Suárez to Barcelona for £75 million in 2014.
684
False
Who was the first British player in the Premier League to receive a transfer fee greater than £3 million?
5733fb0cd058e614000b66f5
Alan Shearer
333
False
Who was the first British player in the Premier League to receive a transfer fee greater than £15 million?
5733fb0cd058e614000b66f6
Alan Shearer
333
False
Who paid £15 million to transfer Alan Shearer to their club?
5733fb0cd058e614000b66f7
Newcastle United
389
False
In which year did Newcastle United pay £15 million to transfer Alan Shearer to their club?
5733fb0cd058e614000b66f8
1996
409
False
For how much did Tottenham Hotspur sell Gareth Bale to Real Madrid for in 2013?
5733fb0cd058e614000b66f9
£85 million
573
False
over the lifetime of the competition
71
For how long has the record transfer fee steadily declined?
5ad0e9b7645df0001a2d0832
True
Alan Shearer
163
Who was the first Manchester player to command a transfer fee greater than 3 million?
5ad0e9b7645df0001a2d0833
True
Alan Shearer
333
Who made a record breaking move to Tottenham Hotspur in 1996?
5ad0e9b7645df0001a2d0834
True
£15 million
369
For how much was the move between Alan Shearer and Manchester United worth in 1996?
5ad0e9b7645df0001a2d0835
True
command a transfer fee of more than £3 million.
211
Alan Shearer became the fifth British player to do what?
5ad0e9b7645df0001a2d0836
True
The record transfer fee for a Premier League player has risen steadily over the lifetime of the competition. Prior to the start of the first Premier League season Alan Shearer became the first British player to command a transfer fee of more than £3 million. The record rose steadily in the Premier League's first few seasons, until Alan Shearer made a record breaking £15 million move to Newcastle United in 1996. The three highest transfer in the sport's history had a Premier League club on the selling end, with Tottenham Hotspur selling Gareth Bale to Real Madrid for £85 million in 2013, Manchester United's sale of Cristiano Ronaldo to Real Madrid for £80 million in 2009, and Liverpool selling Luis Suárez to Barcelona for £75 million in 2014.
Who is the Golden Boot award given to each season?
572ff590947a6a140053ce7a
The Golden Boot is awarded to the top Premier League scorer at the end of each season.
0
False
Who has the record for most goals in the Premier League?
572ff590947a6a140053ce7b
Newcastle United striker Alan Shearer holds the record for most Premier League goals with 260
115
False
How many players have achieved 100 goals?
572ff590947a6a140053ce7c
Twenty-four players have reached the 100-goal mark
210
False
How many different players have won the top scorer title?
572ff590947a6a140053ce7d
14 different players from 10 different clubs have won or shared the top scorers title.
312
False
Who has the record for scoring the most goals in single season?
572ff590947a6a140053ce7e
Andrew Cole and Alan Shearer hold the record for most goals in a season (34) – for Newcastle and Blackburn respectively.
493
False
To whom is the Golden Boot award given to?
5733fcc14776f41900661655
the top Premier League scorer
30
False
Who holds the record for the most goals in the Premier League?
5733fcc14776f41900661656
260
205
False
How many players have 100 goals or more in the Premier League?
5733fcc14776f41900661657
Twenty-four
210
False
How many different players have won or shared the top scorer title in the Premier League?
5733fcc14776f41900661658
14
312
False
Who had scored four overall scoring titles as of the 2006 season?
5733fcc14776f41900661659
Thierry Henry
399
False
The Golden Boot
0
Which award is given to the lowest Premier League scorer each year?
5ad0ea66645df0001a2d0846
True
Alan Shearer
140
Who holds the record for least Premier League goals with 260?
5ad0ea66645df0001a2d0847
True
Alan Shearer
140
Who holds the record for most Premier League goals with 27?
5ad0ea66645df0001a2d0848
True
27
461
How many goals did Thierry Henry score when he won his fifth scoring title?
5ad0ea66645df0001a2d0849
True
Andrew Cole and Alan Shearer
493
Along with Theirry Henry, who else holds the record for most goals in a season?
5ad0ea66645df0001a2d084a
True
The Golden Boot is awarded to the top Premier League scorer at the end of each season. Former Blackburn Rovers and Newcastle United striker Alan Shearer holds the record for most Premier League goals with 260. Twenty-four players have reached the 100-goal mark. Since the first Premier League season in 1992–93, 14 different players from 10 different clubs have won or shared the top scorers title. Thierry Henry won his fourth overall scoring title by scoring 27 goals in the 2005–06 season. Andrew Cole and Alan Shearer hold the record for most goals in a season (34) – for Newcastle and Blackburn respectively. Ryan Giggs of Manchester United holds the record for scoring goals in consecutive seasons, having scored in the first 21 seasons of the league.
What is the Premier League Championship trophy based on?
572ff67204bcaa1900d76f3f
The design of the trophy is based on the heraldry of Three Lions that is associated with English football.
309
False
Where on the trophy can two of the lions be seen?
572ff67204bcaa1900d76f40
Two of the lions are found above the handles on either side of the trophy
416
False
Where can the third lion be seen?
572ff67204bcaa1900d76f41
the third is symbolised by the captain of the title winning team as he raises the trophy, and its gold crown, above his head at the end of the season
492
False
What do the ribbons on the trophy mean?
572ff67204bcaa1900d76f42
The ribbons that drape the handles are presented in the team colours of the league champions that year.
643
False
The Golden Boot is made of sterling silver, silver gilt and which semi-precious stone?
5733fd57d058e614000b672b
malachite
84
False
On what type of metal band are the title-winning clubs listed on the Golden Boot?
5733fd57d058e614000b672c
silver
135
False
What does the green colour of Malachite on the Golden Boot represent?
5733fd57d058e614000b672d
the green field of play
284
False
How many lions are found on the Golden Boot?
5733fd57d058e614000b672e
Two
416
False
Who symbolizes the third lion not found on the Golden Boot trophy?
5733fd57d058e614000b672f
the captain of the title winning team
519
False
English football
398
The trophy is based on Four Lions associated with what?
5ad0eaf1645df0001a2d0850
True
in the team colours of the league champions that year
692
The ribbons draped upon the gold crown are presented how?
5ad0eaf1645df0001a2d0851
True
symbolised by the captain of the title winning team as he raises the trophy
505
How is the second ribbon symbolised?
5ad0eaf1645df0001a2d0852
True
The plinth
118
What has a golden band around its circumference?
5ad0eaf1645df0001a2d0853
True
main body
4
What is made of solid gold and silver gilt?
5ad0eaf1645df0001a2d0854
True
Its main body is solid sterling silver and silver gilt, while its plinth is made of malachite, a semi-precious stone. The plinth has a silver band around its circumference, upon which the names of the title-winning clubs are listed. Malachite's green colour is also representative of the green field of play. The design of the trophy is based on the heraldry of Three Lions that is associated with English football. Two of the lions are found above the handles on either side of the trophy – the third is symbolised by the captain of the title winning team as he raises the trophy, and its gold crown, above his head at the end of the season. The ribbons that drape the handles are presented in the team colours of the league champions that year.
Roman_Republic
When did the Roman Republic begin?
572fb719b2c2fd14005683a7
509 BC
215
False
When did the Roman Republic end?
572fb719b2c2fd14005683a8
27 BC
237
False
What marked the beginning of the Roman Republic?
572fb719b2c2fd14005683a9
the overthrow of the Roman Kingdom
156
False
When was Cleopatra defeated at the Battle of Actium?
572fb719b2c2fd14005683aa
31 BC
1297
False
What do most consider to be the event that ended the Roman Republic?
572fb719b2c2fd14005683ab
Roman Senate's grant of extraordinary powers to Octavian
1378
False
The Roman Republic (Latin: Res publica Romana; Classical Latin: [ˈreːs ˈpuːb.lɪ.ka roːˈmaː.na]) was the period of ancient Roman civilization beginning with the overthrow of the Roman Kingdom, traditionally dated to 509 BC, and ending in 27 BC with the establishment of the Roman Empire. It was during this period that Rome's control expanded from the city's immediate surroundings to hegemony over the entire Mediterranean world. During the first two centuries of its existence, the Roman Republic expanded through a combination of conquest and alliance, from central Italy to the entire Italian peninsula. By the following century, it included North Africa, Spain, and what is now southern France. Two centuries after that, towards the end of the 1st century BC, it included the rest of modern France, Greece, and much of the eastern Mediterranean. By this time, internal tensions led to a series of civil wars, culminating with the assassination of Julius Caesar, which led to the transition from republic to empire. The exact date of transition can be a matter of interpretation. Historians have variously proposed Julius Caesar's crossing of the Rubicon River in 49 BC, Caesar's appointment as dictator for life in 44 BC, and the defeat of Mark Antony and Cleopatra at the Battle of Actium in 31 BC. However, most use the same date as did the ancient Romans themselves, the Roman Senate's grant of extraordinary powers to Octavian and his adopting the title Augustus in 27 BC, as the defining event ending the Republic.
Who elected consuls in the Roman government?
572fbf77b2c2fd14005683db
citizens
68
False
Who eventually became full members of the aristocracy?
572fbf77b2c2fd14005683dc
leading plebeian families
556
False
What were Rome's legislative structures eventually turned into?
572fbf77b2c2fd14005683dd
the Justinian Code
877
False
What was the senate that advised consuls in the Roman government comprised of?
572fbf77b2c2fd14005683de
appointed magistrates
113
False
What went hand and hand with military success?
572fbf77b2c2fd14005683df
political success
769
False
Roman government was headed by two consuls, elected annually by the citizens and advised by a senate composed of appointed magistrates. As Roman society was very hierarchical by modern standards, the evolution of the Roman government was heavily influenced by the struggle between the patricians, Rome's land-holding aristocracy, who traced their ancestry to the founding of Rome, and the plebeians, the far more numerous citizen-commoners. Over time, the laws that gave patricians exclusive rights to Rome's highest offices were repealed or weakened, and leading plebeian families became full members of the aristocracy. The leaders of the Republic developed a strong tradition and morality requiring public service and patronage in peace and war, making military and political success inextricably linked. Many of Rome's legal and legislative structures (later codified into the Justinian Code, and again into the Napoleonic Code) can still be observed throughout Europe and much of the world in modern nation states and international organizations.
What factor is considered by some to be the main driving force behind the expansion of Rome?
572fc1c9a23a5019007fc98d
inter-state factors
326
False
What type of policy is considered by some to be responsible for Rome's many military conflicts?
572fc1c9a23a5019007fc98e
imperialism
189
False
What was a common conclusion to wars in the early days of republican Rome?
572fc1c9a23a5019007fc98f
restoration of the way things were
1137
False
What type of alliance was created between the various Roman city-states?
572fc1c9a23a5019007fc990
mutual self-protection
956
False
What did Roman settlers commonly seek out?
572fc1c9a23a5019007fc991
land
1339
False
The exact causes and motivations for Rome's military conflicts and expansions during the republic are subject to wide debate. While they can be seen as motivated by outright aggression and imperialism, historians typically take a much more nuanced view. They argue that Rome's expansion was driven by short-term defensive and inter-state factors (that is, relations with city-states and kingdoms outside Rome's hegemony), and the new contingencies that these decisions created. In its early history, as Rome successfully defended itself against foreign threats in central and then northern Italy, neighboring city-states sought the protection a Roman alliance would bring. As such, early republican Rome was not an "empire" or "state" in the modern sense, but an alliance of independent city-states (similar to the Greek hegemonies of the same period) with varying degrees of genuine independence (which itself changed over time) engaged in an alliance of mutual self-protection, but led by Rome. With some important exceptions, successful wars in early republican Rome generally led not to annexation or military occupation, but to the restoration of the way things were. But the defeated city would be weakened (sometimes with outright land concessions) and thus less able to resist Romanizing influences, such as Roman settlers seeking land or trade with the growing Roman confederacy. It was also less able to defend itself against its non-Roman enemies, which made attack by these enemies more likely. It was, therefore, more likely to seek an alliance of protection with Rome.
After what war did the alliances start to solidify?
572fc41804bcaa1900d76cbb
Second Punic War
415
False
What helped Rome move closer to a confrontation with several other major powers in the area?
572fc41804bcaa1900d76cbc
This growing coalition
0
False
What towns had chosen Hannibal's side?
572fc41804bcaa1900d76cbd
southern Italian
601
False
What did city-states hope to gain from the Roman confederacy?
572fc41804bcaa1900d76cbe
membership (and protection)
238
False
This growing coalition expanded the potential enemies that Rome might face, and moved Rome closer to confrontation with major powers. The result was more alliance-seeking, on the part of both the Roman confederacy and city-states seeking membership (and protection) within that confederacy. While there were exceptions to this (such as military rule of Sicily after the First Punic War), it was not until after the Second Punic War that these alliances started to harden into something more like an empire, at least in certain locations. This shift mainly took place in parts of the west, such as the southern Italian towns that sided with Hannibal.
What effect did the weakening of Ptolemaic Egypt have on nearby areas?
572fc931947a6a140053ccb8
destabilisation
528
False
Who attempted to find out how Rome dominated the Greek east?
572fc931947a6a140053ccb9
Polybius
288
False
Why was Rome involved in matters in the Greek east?
572fc931947a6a140053ccba
alliance-seeking
192
False
Which countries citie-states attempted to gain the protection of Rome?
572fc931947a6a140053ccbb
Greek
419
False
In contrast, Roman expansion into Spain and Gaul occurred as a mix of alliance-seeking and military occupation. In the 2nd century BC, Roman involvement in the Greek east remained a matter of alliance-seeking, but this time in the face of major powers that could rival Rome. According to Polybius, who sought to trace how Rome came to dominate the Greek east in less than a century, this was mainly a matter of several Greek city-states seeking Roman protection against the Macedonian kingdom and Seleucid Empire in the face of destabilisation created by the weakening of Ptolemaic Egypt. In contrast to the west, the Greek east had been dominated by major empires for centuries, and Roman influence and alliance-seeking led to wars with these empires that further weakened them and therefore created an unstable power vacuum that only Rome could fill. This had some important similarities to (and important differences from) the events in Italy centuries earlier, but this time on a global scale.
What was seen as the behind the Roman influence in the east?
572fcad3947a6a140053ccca
crisis management
137
False
At what point was the entire Roman world joined together under Roman control?
572fcad3947a6a140053cccb
the time of the Roman Empire
554
False
What was not seen as an influence of Rome's influence in the west?
572fcad3947a6a140053cccc
intentional empire-building
95
False
What type of city-states were involved with the Roman Republic?
572fcad3947a6a140053cccd
independent
389
False
Historians see the growing Roman influence over the east, as with the west, as not a matter of intentional empire-building, but constant crisis management narrowly focused on short-term goals within a highly unstable, unpredictable, and inter-dependent network of alliances and dependencies. With some major exceptions of outright military rule, the Roman Republic remained an alliance of independent city-states and kingdoms (with varying degrees of independence, both de jure and de facto) until it transitioned into the Roman Empire. It was not until the time of the Roman Empire that the entire Roman world was organized into provinces under explicit Roman control.
In what battle did Rome claim victory over several Latin cities in?
572fcc0f04bcaa1900d76d47
the Battle of Lake Regillus
510
False
What year did the Battle of Lake Regillus take place?
572fcc0f04bcaa1900d76d48
496 BC
541
False
In what year did Rome claim victory against the city of Veii?
572fcc0f04bcaa1900d76d49
477 BC
687
False
What Roman battle took place in the year 446 BC?
572fcc0f04bcaa1900d76d4a
the Battle of Corbione
587
False
Who initially had control over the Sabines?
572fcc0f04bcaa1900d76d4b
Etruscan control
412
False
The first Roman republican wars were wars of both expansion and defence, aimed at protecting Rome itself from neighbouring cities and nations and establishing its territory in the region. Initially, Rome's immediate neighbours were either Latin towns and villages, or else tribal Sabines from the Apennine hills beyond. One by one Rome defeated both the persistent Sabines and the local cities, both those under Etruscan control and those that had cast off their Etruscan rulers. Rome defeated Latin cities in the Battle of Lake Regillus in 496 BC, the Battle of Mons Algidus in 458 BC, the Battle of Corbione in 446 BC, the Battle of Aricia, and especially the Battle of the Cremera in 477 BC wherein it fought against the most important Etruscan city of Veii.
When did the Battle of Allia River approximately end?
572fcda604bcaa1900d76d5d
387 BC
413
False
How many of the Roman military were involved in the Battle of Allia River?
572fcda604bcaa1900d76d5e
15,000 troops
499
False
Where did the Romans attempt to escape to after their loss against the Gauls?
572fcda604bcaa1900d76d5f
Rome
549
False
What is the name of the chieftan who led his army to victory in the Battle of Allia River?
572fcda604bcaa1900d76d60
Brennus
449
False
Who asked Rome for assistance after being overburdened by their enemies?
572fcda604bcaa1900d76d61
two Etruscan towns
187
False
By 390 BC, several Gallic tribes were invading Italy from the north as their culture expanded throughout Europe. The Romans were alerted to this when a particularly warlike tribe invaded two Etruscan towns close to Rome's sphere of influence. These towns, overwhelmed by the enemy's numbers and ferocity, called on Rome for help. The Romans met the Gauls in pitched battle at the Battle of Allia River around 390–387 BC. The Gauls, led by chieftain Brennus, defeated the Roman army of approximately 15,000 troops, pursued the fleeing Romans back to Rome, and sacked the city before being either driven off or bought off. Romans and Gauls continued to war intermittently in Italy for more than two centuries.[relevant? – discuss]
What country did the Romans continue to expand to after Rome was sacked?
572fcee4b2c2fd1400568495
Italy
112
False
How many battles were conducted by Rome before they were forced to flee in The First Samnite War?
572fcee4b2c2fd1400568496
two battles
217
False
What caused the Romans early withdrawl in The First Samnite War?
572fcee4b2c2fd1400568497
revolt of several of their Latin allies
315
False
When did The First Samnite War end?
572fcee4b2c2fd1400568498
341 BC
156
False
Who did Rome claim victory against in The Battle of Vesuvius?
572fcee4b2c2fd1400568499
Latins
387
False
After recovering surprisingly fast from the sack of Rome, the Romans immediately resumed their expansion within Italy. The First Samnite War from 343 BC to 341 BC was relatively short: the Romans beat the Samnites in two battles, but were forced to withdraw before they could pursue the conflict further due to the revolt of several of their Latin allies in the Latin War. Rome beat the Latins in the Battle of Vesuvius and again in the Battle of Trifanum, after which the Latin cities were obliged to submit to Roman rule.
Who suffered a great amount of losses battling the Roman army?
572fd193b2c2fd140056849f
Pyrrhus
115
False
What did Rome refuse to do in their relations with Pyrrhus?
572fd193b2c2fd14005684a0
negotiate
100
False
What military leader does the term Pyrrhic victory come from?
572fd193b2c2fd14005684a1
Pyrrhus
236
False
What ultimately caused Pyrrhus to vacate completely from the country of Italy?
572fd193b2c2fd14005684a2
Seeing little hope for further gains
502
False
In what year did the Battle of Beneventum take place?
572fd193b2c2fd14005684a3
275 BC
311
False
Despite early victories, Pyrrhus found his position in Italy untenable. Rome steadfastly refused to negotiate with Pyrrhus as long as his army remained in Italy. Facing unacceptably heavy losses from each encounter with the Roman army, Pyrrhus withdrew from the peninsula (hence the term "Pyrrhic victory"). In 275 BC, Pyrrhus again met the Roman army at the Battle of Beneventum. While Beneventum was indecisive, Pyrrhus realised his army had been exhausted and reduced by years of foreign campaigns. Seeing little hope for further gains, he withdrew completely from Italy.
What battles were initially complete disasters for Rome?
572fd2b4b2c2fd14005684b3
naval battles
14
False
What type of engine was invented by the Romans?
572fd2b4b2c2fd14005684b4
grappling engine
106
False
Who did the Carthaginians hire to lead their army after several losses against the Romans?
572fd2b4b2c2fd14005684b5
Xanthippus
252
False
Who claimed victory at the Battle of Aegates Islands?
572fd2b4b2c2fd14005684b6
The Romans
429
False
Who lost access to the Mediterranean after numerous naval losses?
572fd2b4b2c2fd14005684b7
the Carthaginians
714
False
The first few naval battles were disasters for Rome. However, after training more sailors and inventing a grappling engine, a Roman naval force was able to defeat a Carthaginian fleet, and further naval victories followed. The Carthaginians then hired Xanthippus of Carthage, a Spartan mercenary general, to reorganise and lead their army. He cut off the Roman army from its base by re-establishing Carthaginian naval supremacy. The Romans then again defeated the Carthaginians in naval battle at the Battle of the Aegates Islands and left Carthage with neither a fleet nor sufficient coin to raise one. For a maritime power the loss of their access to the Mediterranean stung financially and psychologically, and the Carthaginians sued for peace.
What was the name of Hannibal's family member that wanted to join his army in battle?
572fd44fb2c2fd14005684cf
Hasdrubal Barca
144
False
At what river was Hasdrubal Barca defeated at?
572fd44fb2c2fd14005684d0
Metaurus River
321
False
In which battle was Hannibal clearly defeated at?
572fd44fb2c2fd14005684d1
the Battle of Zama
531
False
Who had led the army that the Romans had sent to Africa?
572fd44fb2c2fd14005684d2
Scipio Africanus
427
False
Why did the Romans send an army to Africa?
572fd44fb2c2fd14005684d3
to threaten the Carthaginian capital
444
False
The Romans held off Hannibal in three battles, but then Hannibal smashed a succession of Roman consular armies. By this time Hannibal's brother Hasdrubal Barca sought to cross the Alps into Italy and join his brother with a second army. Hasdrubal managed to break through into Italy only to be defeated decisively on the Metaurus River. Unable to defeat Hannibal on Italian soil, the Romans boldly sent an army to Africa under Scipio Africanus to threaten the Carthaginian capital. Hannibal was recalled to Africa, and defeated at the Battle of Zama.
What had prevented Carthage from defending their territory from pirates?
572fd5f8947a6a140053cd28
Treaties
256
False
What type of colony was Carthage primarily comprised of?
572fd5f8947a6a140053cd29
punic colonies
857
False
What cities flourished after they were conquered by the Romans?
572fd5f8947a6a140053cd2a
punic cities
1033
False
What was the main request of the Romans that Carthage turned down?
572fd5f8947a6a140053cd2b
complete surrender
514
False
Who did the Numidians form an alliance with?
572fd5f8947a6a140053cd2c
Rome
211
False
Carthage never recovered militarily after the Second Punic War, but quickly economically and the Third Punic War that followed was in reality a simple punitive mission after the neighbouring Numidians allied to Rome robbed/attacked Carthaginian merchants. Treaties had forbidden any war with Roman allies, and defense against robbing/pirates was considered as "war action": Rome decided to annihilate the city of Carthage. Carthage was almost defenceless, and submitted when besieged. However, the Romans demanded complete surrender and moval of the city into the (desert) inland far off any coastal or harbour region, and the Carthaginians refused. The city was besieged, stormed, and completely destroyed. Ultimately, all of Carthage's North African and Iberian territories were acquired by Rome. Note that "Carthage" was not an 'empire', but a league of punic colonies (port cities in the western mediterranean) like the 1st and 2nd Athenian ("attic") leagues, under leadership of Carthage. Punic Carthago was gone, but the other punic cities in the western mediterranean flourished under Roman rule.
What kingdom sent an ambassador to Italy in an attempt to form an alliance against Rome?
572fdbd404bcaa1900d76de3
Macedonia
103
False
Where did Philip V want to extend his control to?
572fdbd404bcaa1900d76de4
westward
190
False
What peninsula was the kingdom of Macedonia able to be found in?
572fdbd404bcaa1900d76de5
Greek peninsula
142
False
Who did Philip V seek an alliance with?
572fdbd404bcaa1900d76de6
Hannibal
227
False
At what point did Rome discover that an alliance between Philip V and Hannibal had been achieved?
572fdbd404bcaa1900d76de7
Philip's emissaries were captured by a Roman fleet
349
False
Rome's preoccupation with its war with Carthage provided an opportunity for Philip V of the kingdom of Macedonia, located in the north of the Greek peninsula, to attempt to extend his power westward. Philip sent ambassadors to Hannibal's camp in Italy, to negotiate an alliance as common enemies of Rome. However, Rome discovered the agreement when Philip's emissaries were captured by a Roman fleet. The First Macedonian War saw the Romans involved directly in only limited land operations, but they ultimately achieved their objective of pre-occupying Philip and preventing him from aiding Hannibal.
What was declared by the Romans now that the Philip had been defeated?
572fddc804bcaa1900d76df3
"Peace of the Greeks"
1381
False
Where did the Romans remove their troops from after Philip's loss?
572fddc804bcaa1900d76df4
Greece
1493
False
What request of Rome was ignored by Philip V that quickly led to the start of the Second Macedonian War?
572fddc804bcaa1900d76df5
an ultimatum to cease his campaigns against Rome's new Greek allies
779
False
In what year did Philip lose the Battle of Cynoscephalae?
572fddc804bcaa1900d76df6
197 BC
1218
False
What was Philip forced to return after his loss in the Battle of Cynoscephalae?
572fddc804bcaa1900d76df7
his recent Greek conquests
1329
False
The past century had seen the Greek world dominated by the three primary successor kingdoms of Alexander the Great's empire: Ptolemaic Egypt, Macedonia and the Seleucid Empire. In 202 BC, internal problems led to a weakening of Egypt's position, thereby disrupting the power balance among the successor states. Macedonia and the Seleucid Empire agreed to an alliance to conquer and divide Egypt. Fearing this increasingly unstable situation, several small Greek kingdoms sent delegations to Rome to seek an alliance. The delegation succeeded, even though prior Greek attempts to involve Rome in Greek affairs had been met with Roman apathy. Our primary source about these events, the surviving works of Polybius, do not state Rome's reason for getting involved. Rome gave Philip an ultimatum to cease his campaigns against Rome's new Greek allies. Doubting Rome's strength (a reasonable doubt, given Rome's performance in the First Macedonian War) Philip ignored the request, and Rome sent an army of Romans and Greek allies, beginning the Second Macedonian War. Despite his recent successes against the Greeks and earlier successes against Rome, Philip's army buckled under the pressure from the Roman-Greek army. In 197 BC, the Romans decisively defeated Philip at the Battle of Cynoscephalae, and Philip was forced to give up his recent Greek conquests. The Romans declared the "Peace of the Greeks", believing that Philip's defeat now meant that Greece would be stable. They pulled out of Greece entirely, maintaining minimal contacts with their Greek allies.
Who had now been appointed as a military advisor to the emperor of Seleucid?
572fe7abb2c2fd1400568595
Hannibal
304
False
What was thought to be the plan of Hannibal and the emperor of Seleucid?
572fe7abb2c2fd1400568596
an outright conquest not just of Greece, but of Rome itself
412
False
Which empire currently controlled the majority of the former Persian Empire?
572fe7abb2c2fd1400568597
Seleucids
477
False
Who had managed to recreate nearly the entirety of the empire of Alexander the Great?
572fe7abb2c2fd1400568598
Seleucids
477
False
Which former enemy wanted an alliance with the Romans?
572fe7abb2c2fd1400568599
Philip
195
False
With Egypt and Macedonia weakened, the Seleucid Empire made increasingly aggressive and successful attempts to conquer the entire Greek world. Now not only Rome's allies against Philip, but even Philip himself, sought a Roman alliance against the Seleucids. The situation was made worse by the fact that Hannibal was now a chief military advisor to the Seleucid emperor, and the two were believed to be planning an outright conquest not just of Greece, but of Rome itself. The Seleucids were much stronger than the Macedonians had ever been, because they controlled much of the former Persian Empire, and by now had almost entirely reassembled Alexander the Great's former empire.
Which town in Italy now housed a large Roman garrison?
572fe971947a6a140053cdd6
Sicily
157
False
Why was a garrison implented in Italy by the Romans?
572fe971947a6a140053cdd7
in case the Seleucids ever got to Italy
164
False
Who had been defeated in the Battle of Thermopylae?
572fe971947a6a140053cdd8
the Seleucids
801
False
Why did the Romans decide to withdraw their forces from Greece?
572fe971947a6a140053cdd9
assuming (or hoping) that the lack of a major Greek power would ensure a stable peace
1570
False
What loss started a decline of the Seleucids Empire?
572fe971947a6a140053cdda
Battle of Magnesia
1035
False
Fearing the worst, the Romans began a major mobilization, all but pulling out of recently pacified Spain and Gaul. They even established a major garrison in Sicily in case the Seleucids ever got to Italy. This fear was shared by Rome's Greek allies, who had largely ignored Rome in the years after the Second Macedonian War, but now followed Rome again for the first time since that war. A major Roman-Greek force was mobilized under the command of the great hero of the Second Punic War, Scipio Africanus, and set out for Greece, beginning the Roman-Syrian War. After initial fighting that revealed serious Seleucid weaknesses, the Seleucids tried to turn the Roman strength against them at the Battle of Thermopylae (as they believed the 300 Spartans had done centuries earlier). Like the Spartans, the Seleucids lost the battle, and were forced to evacuate Greece. The Romans pursued the Seleucids by crossing the Hellespont, which marked the first time a Roman army had ever entered Asia. The decisive engagement was fought at the Battle of Magnesia, resulting in a complete Roman victory. The Seleucids sued for peace, and Rome forced them to give up their recent Greek conquests. Although they still controlled a great deal of territory, this defeat marked the decline of their empire, as they were to begin facing increasingly aggressive subjects in the east (the Parthians) and the west (the Greeks). Their empire disintegrated into a rump over the course of the next century, when it was eclipsed by Pontus. Following Magnesia, Rome again withdrew from Greece, assuming (or hoping) that the lack of a major Greek power would ensure a stable peace. In fact, it did the opposite.
In what year did Philip pass away?
572feac7a23a5019007fcb35
179 BC
3
False
Who was next in line to the throne at the time of Philip's death?
572feac7a23a5019007fcb36
Perseus
55
False
In what year were did the Macedonians lose The Battle of Pydna?
572feac7a23a5019007fcb37
168 BC
449
False
How did Rome respond to their successive losses against the Macedonians?
572feac7a23a5019007fcb38
by sending a stronger army
333
False
Who had initially begun the Third Macedonian War?
572feac7a23a5019007fcb39
Rome
181
False
In 179 BC Philip died. His talented and ambitious son, Perseus, took the throne and showed a renewed interest in conquering Greece. With her Greek allies facing a major new threat, Rome declared war on Macedonia again, starting the Third Macedonian War. Perseus initially had some success against the Romans. However, Rome responded by sending a stronger army. This second consular army decisively defeated the Macedonians at the Battle of Pydna in 168 BC and the Macedonians duly capitulated, ending the war.
How many republics was the Kingdom of Macedonia splintered into?
572fec5d947a6a140053cdfc
four client republics
222
False
In what year did the Fourt Macedonian War end?
572fec5d947a6a140053cdfd
148 BC
316
False
Who did Rome fight in the Fourth Macedonian War?
572fec5d947a6a140053cdfe
a Macedonian pretender to the throne
343
False
What effect did the establishment of the kingdom of Macedonia have on Greece?
572fec5d947a6a140053cdff
destabilizing
394
False
Who could claim victory at the Second Battle of Pydna?
572fec5d947a6a140053ce00
The Romans
458
False
Convinced now that the Greeks (and therefore the rest of the region) would not have peace if left alone, Rome decided to establish its first permanent foothold in the Greek world, and divided the Kingdom of Macedonia into four client republics. Yet, Macedonian agitation continued. The Fourth Macedonian War, 150 to 148 BC, was fought against a Macedonian pretender to the throne who was again destabilizing Greece by trying to re-establish the old kingdom. The Romans swiftly defeated the Macedonians at the Second battle of Pydna.
What war is considered to be the last Roman pacification in Northern Africa?
572fee59b2c2fd14005685f5
The Jugurthine War
0
False
What eventually caused Jugurtha to become a captive?
572fee59b2c2fd14005685f6
treachery
545
False
When did the Jugurthine War end?
572fee59b2c2fd14005685f7
104 BC
26
False
Who attempted to usurp the throne of Numidia?
572fee59b2c2fd14005685f8
Jugurtha
425
False
Who did Jugurtha have to bribe in order for them to accept him as the new leader of Numidia?
572fee59b2c2fd14005685f9
the Romans
452
False
The Jugurthine War of 111–104 BC was fought between Rome and Jugurtha of the North African kingdom of Numidia. It constituted the final Roman pacification of Northern Africa, after which Rome largely ceased expansion on the continent after reaching natural barriers of desert and mountain. Following Jugurtha's usurpation of the throne of Numidia, a loyal ally of Rome since the Punic Wars, Rome felt compelled to intervene. Jugurtha impudently bribed the Romans into accepting his usurpation. Jugurtha was finally captured not in battle but by treachery.
When did the Cimbrian War end?
572fefcb947a6a140053ce2e
101 BC
161
False
In what year did Rome come into contact with a couple Celtic tribes?
572fefcb947a6a140053ce2f
121 BC
3
False
What war began in the year 113 BC?
572fefcb947a6a140053ce30
The Cimbrian War
139
False
Where did the tribes that were almost annihilated in the Battle of Vercellae hail from?
572fefcb947a6a140053ce31
northern Europe
299
False
In 121 BC, Rome came into contact with two Celtic tribes (from a region in modern France), both of which they defeated with apparent ease. The Cimbrian War (113–101 BC) was a far more serious affair than the earlier clashes of 121 BC. The Germanic tribes of the Cimbri and the Teutons migrated from northern Europe into Rome's northern territories, and clashed with Rome and her allies. At the Battle of Aquae Sextiae and the Battle of Vercellae both tribes were virtually annihilated, which ended the threat.
How were soldiers rewarded by Roman generals?
572ff12ea23a5019007fcb77
with plunder
82
False
Who saw increased loyalty from the Roman soldiers?
572ff12ea23a5019007fcb78
their generals
181
False
Who was greater in numbers than the Roman slave masters?
572ff12ea23a5019007fcb79
the slaves
373
False
Around how many rebellious uprisings and civil wars happened in the 1st century BC?
572ff12ea23a5019007fcb7a
twelve
456
False
Which individual later became princeps after having challenged the senate?
572ff12ea23a5019007fcb7b
Octavian
540
False
The extensive campaigning abroad by Roman generals, and the rewarding of soldiers with plunder on these campaigns, led to a general trend of soldiers becoming increasingly loyal to their generals rather than to the state. Rome was also plagued by several slave uprisings during this period, in part because vast tracts of land had been given over to slave farming in which the slaves greatly outnumbered their Roman masters. In the 1st century BC at least twelve civil wars and rebellions occurred. This pattern continued until 27 BC, when Octavian (later Augustus) successfully challenged the Senate's authority, and was made princeps (first citizen).
How many slaves at most were under the command of Spartacus?
572ff287a23a5019007fcb8b
150,000
200
False
When was the beginning of the Social War?
572ff287a23a5019007fcb8c
91 BC
264
False
How many Italians became citizens after the loss of the Social War?
572ff287a23a5019007fcb8d
more than 500,000
565
False
How many slave uprisings were there between the years of 135 BC and 71 BC?
572ff287a23a5019007fcb8e
three
36
False
Ultimately what started the Social War?
572ff287a23a5019007fcb8f
allies complained that they shared the risk of Rome's military campaigns, but not its rewards
348
False
Between 135 BC and 71 BC there were three "Servile Wars" involving slave uprisings against the Roman state. The third and final uprising was the most serious, involving ultimately between 120,000 and 150,000 slaves under the command of the gladiator Spartacus. In 91 BC the Social War broke out between Rome and its former allies in Italy when the allies complained that they shared the risk of Rome's military campaigns, but not its rewards. Although they lost militarily, the allies achieved their objectives with legal proclamations which granted citizenship to more than 500,000 Italians.
What type of war was caused by the clash of two generals?
572ff5d8947a6a140053ce84
civil wars
72
False
In what year did Marius and Sull begin to clash?
572ff5d8947a6a140053ce85
88 BC
184
False
In what specific section of Rome did the Battle of the Colline Gate take place?
572ff5d8947a6a140053ce86
very door of the city
232
False
Who was defeated in the Battle of the Colline Gate?
572ff5d8947a6a140053ce87
an army of the Marius supporters
295
False
What can be considered one of the causes that led to the downfall of the Roman Republic?
572ff5d8947a6a140053ce88
the willingness of Roman troops to wage war against one another
388
False
The internal unrest reached its most serious state, however, in the two civil wars that were caused by the clash between generals Gaius Marius and Lucius Cornelius Sulla starting from 88 BC. In the Battle of the Colline Gate at the very door of the city of Rome, a Roman army under Sulla bested an army of the Marius supporters and entered the city. Sulla's actions marked a watershed in the willingness of Roman troops to wage war against one another that was to pave the way for the wars which ultimately overthrew the Republic, and caused the founding of the Roman Empire.
Who was the leader of Pontus in the year 85 BC?
572ff73b04bcaa1900d76f47
Mithridates the Great
0
False
With which individual did Lucius Cornelius have a rivalry?
572ff73b04bcaa1900d76f48
Gaius Marius
649
False
How did the ruler of Pontus anger Rome?
572ff73b04bcaa1900d76f49
by seeking to expand his kingdom
142
False
When was the last year of Mithridates the Great's reign?
572ff73b04bcaa1900d76f4a
63 BC
106
False
How many Romans lived in Mithridate the Great's kingdom in 88 BC?
572ff73b04bcaa1900d76f4b
80,000
339
False
Mithridates the Great was the ruler of Pontus, a large kingdom in Asia Minor (modern Turkey), from 120 to 63 BC. Mithridates antagonised Rome by seeking to expand his kingdom, and Rome for her part seemed equally eager for war and the spoils and prestige that it might bring. In 88 BC, Mithridates ordered the killing of a majority of the 80,000 Romans living in his kingdom. The massacre was the official reason given for the commencement of hostilities in the First Mithridatic War. The Roman general Lucius Cornelius Sulla forced Mithridates out of Greece proper, but then had to return to Italy to answer the internal threat posed by his rival, Gaius Marius. A peace was made between Rome and Pontus, but this proved only a temporary lull.
Who held  a term as praetor in the Iberian Peninsula?
572ff8e304bcaa1900d76f79
Julius Caesar
103
False
Why did Julius Caesar wish to invade Gaul?
572ff8e304bcaa1900d76f7a
would give him the dramatic military success he sought
509
False
When did Julius Caesar's term as consul end?
572ff8e304bcaa1900d76f7b
59 BC
182
False
What military leader was Julius Caesar a contemporary of?
572ff8e304bcaa1900d76f7c
Pompey
81
False
What was the reasoning Julius Caesar used to start the Gallic Wars?
572ff8e304bcaa1900d76f7d
two local tribes began to migrate on a route that would take them near (not into) the Roman province of Transalpine Gaul
570
False
During his term as praetor in the Iberian Peninsula (modern Portugal and Spain), Pompey's contemporary Julius Caesar defeated two local tribes in battle. After his term as consul in 59 BC, he was appointed to a five-year term as the proconsular Governor of Cisalpine Gaul (part of current northern Italy), Transalpine Gaul (current southern France) and Illyria (part of the modern Balkans). Not content with an idle governorship, Caesar strove to find reason to invade Gaul (modern France and Belgium), which would give him the dramatic military success he sought. When two local tribes began to migrate on a route that would take them near (not into) the Roman province of Transalpine Gaul, Caesar had the barely sufficient excuse he needed for his Gallic Wars, fought between 58 BC and 49 BC.
When was the invasion of the Parthian Empire begun?
572ffa3da23a5019007fcbdf
53 BC
219
False
Who started the invasion of the Parthian Empire?
572ffa3da23a5019007fcbe0
Crassus
226
False
In what battle did Marcus Licinius Crassus die?
572ffa3da23a5019007fcbe1
the Battle of Carrhae
459
False
Who was believed to have had a secret allegiance with enemies of Julius Caesar?
572ffa3da23a5019007fcbe2
Pompey
677
False
What did the senators request of Caesar in order for him to stand for consul?
572ffa3da23a5019007fcbe3
turned over control of his armies to the state
952
False
By 59 BC an unofficial political alliance known as the First Triumvirate was formed between Gaius Julius Caesar, Marcus Licinius Crassus, and Gnaeus Pompeius Magnus ("Pompey the Great") to share power and influence. In 53 BC, Crassus launched a Roman invasion of the Parthian Empire (modern Iraq and Iran). After initial successes, he marched his army deep into the desert; but here his army was cut off deep in enemy territory, surrounded and slaughtered at the Battle of Carrhae in which Crassus himself perished. The death of Crassus removed some of the balance in the Triumvirate and, consequently, Caesar and Pompey began to move apart. While Caesar was fighting in Gaul, Pompey proceeded with a legislative agenda for Rome that revealed that he was at best ambivalent towards Caesar and perhaps now covertly allied with Caesar's political enemies. In 51 BC, some Roman senators demanded that Caesar not be permitted to stand for consul unless he turned over control of his armies to the state, which would have left Caesar defenceless before his enemies. Caesar chose civil war over laying down his command and facing trial.
During what year did Caesar's armies cross the river Rubicon?
572ffb1eb2c2fd14005686bf
49 BC
17
False
Who would be seen as having been defeated in the Battle of Pharsalus?
572ffb1eb2c2fd14005686c0
Pompey
402
False
In which year did The Battle of Pharsalus take place?
572ffb1eb2c2fd14005686c1
48 BC
534
False
In what country did Pompey die in?
572ffb1eb2c2fd14005686c2
Egypt
659
False
Who decided to attack Pompey in Greece?
572ffb1eb2c2fd14005686c3
Caesar
272
False
By the spring of 49 BC, the hardened legions of Caesar crossed the river Rubicon, the legal boundary of Roman Italy beyond which no commander might bring his army, and swept down the Italian peninsula towards Rome, while Pompey ordered the abandonment of Rome. Afterwards Caesar turned his attention to the Pompeian stronghold of Hispania (modern Spain) but decided to tackle Pompey himself in Greece. Pompey initially defeated Caesar, but failed to follow up on the victory, and was decisively defeated at the Battle of Pharsalus in 48 BC, despite outnumbering Caesar's forces two to one, albeit with inferior quality troops. Pompey fled again, this time to Egypt, where he was murdered.
Who was now considered to be the primary figure in the Roman state?
572ffc9bb2c2fd14005686db
Caesar
0
False
Which group of people conspired against Caesar in order to have him assassinated?
572ffc9bb2c2fd14005686dc
senators
222
False
When did Julius Caesar die?
572ffc9bb2c2fd14005686dd
March 44 BC
306
False
Which former lieutenant of Caesar was considered a public threat after Caesar was assassinated?
572ffc9bb2c2fd14005686de
Mark Antony
320
False
Why did the Roman senators wish to have Caesar assassinated?
572ffc9bb2c2fd14005686df
the Roman Republic was in danger
177
False
Caesar was now the primary figure of the Roman state, enforcing and entrenching his powers. His enemies feared that he had ambitions to become an autocratic ruler. Arguing that the Roman Republic was in danger, a group of senators hatched a conspiracy and assassinated Caesar at a meeting of the Senate in March 44 BC.  Mark Antony, Caesar's lieutenant, condemned Caesar's assassination, and war broke out between the two factions. Antony was denounced as a public enemy, and Caesar's adopted son and chosen heir, Gaius Octavianus, was entrusted with the command of the war against him. At the Battle of Mutina Mark Antony was defeated by the consuls Hirtius and Pansa, who were both killed.
What failure caused the the flares of civil war to spark up again?
572fffb8a23a5019007fcc29
Second Triumvirate of Octavian
41
False
Who defeated Cleopatra and Mark Antony at the Battle of Actium?
572fffb8a23a5019007fcc2a
Octavian
265
False
In what year was Octavian first allowed to use the names Augustus and Princeps?
572fffb8a23a5019007fcc2b
27 BC
560
False
Who has been designated as the first Emperor of Rome?
572fffb8a23a5019007fcc2c
Octavian
566
False
Which individual was granted permanent consular powers?
572fffb8a23a5019007fcc2d
Octavian
316
False
However, civil war flared again when the Second Triumvirate of Octavian, Lepidus and Mark Antony failed. The ambitious Octavian built a power base of patronage and then launched a campaign against Mark Antony. At the naval Battle of Actium off the coast of Greece, Octavian decisively defeated Antony and Cleopatra. Octavian was granted a series of special powers including sole "imperium" within the city of Rome, permanent consular powers and credit for every Roman military victory, since all future generals were assumed to be acting under his command. In 27 BC Octavian was granted the use of the names "Augustus" and "Princeps", indicating his primary status above all other Romans, and he adopted the title "Imperator Caesar" making him the first Roman Emperor.
Who was considered to be the last king of the Roman Kingdom?
573002eda23a5019007fcc33
Lucius Tarquinius Superbus
36
False
When did the last king of the Roman Kingdom lose his seat of power?
573002eda23a5019007fcc34
509 BC
82
False
Who would elect a king in the Roman Kingdom prior to the revolution?
573002eda23a5019007fcc35
senators
539
False
What was the length of a term that a king would be elected for in the Roman Kingdom?
573002eda23a5019007fcc36
life term
554
False
Who were the joint consulars considered to be an equal of politically?
573002eda23a5019007fcc37
old king
896
False
The last king of the Roman Kingdom, Lucius Tarquinius Superbus, was overthrown in 509 BC by a group of noblemen led by Lucius Junius Brutus. Tarquin made a number of attempts to retake the throne, including the Tarquinian conspiracy, the war with Veii and Tarquinii and finally the war between Rome and Clusium, all of which failed to achieve Tarquin's objectives. The most important constitutional change during the transition from kingdom to republic concerned the chief magistrate. Before the revolution, a king would be elected by the senators for a life term. Now, two consuls were elected by the citizens for an annual term. Each consul would check his colleague, and their limited term in office would open them up to prosecution if they abused the powers of their office. Consular political powers, when exercised conjointly with a consular colleague, were no different from those of the old king.
In what year was the city in conflict with two nearby tribes?
5730048804bcaa1900d77019
494 BC
3
False
Which group of people requested the ability to elect officials?
5730048804bcaa1900d7701a
The plebeians
160
False
Who used the vetoes that they had been given to prevent the appointment of magistrates?
5730048804bcaa1900d7701b
the tribunes
708
False
What were the assistants to the plebeian tribunes named?
5730048804bcaa1900d7701c
plebeian aediles
403
False
During what century were reformed passed that allowed laws passed by the plebeians to have the full force of the law?
5730048804bcaa1900d7701d
5th century BC
433
False
In 494 BC, the city was at war with two neighboring tribes. The plebeian soldiers refused to march against the enemy, and instead seceded to the Aventine Hill. The plebeians demanded the right to elect their own officials. The patricians agreed, and the plebeians returned to the battlefield. The plebeians called these new officials "plebeian tribunes". The tribunes would have two assistants, called "plebeian aediles". During the 5th century BC, a series of reforms were passed. The result of these reforms was that any law passed by the plebeian would have the full force of law. In 443 BC, the censorship was created. From 375 BC to 371 BC, the republic experienced a constitutional crisis during which the tribunes used their vetoes to prevent the election of senior magistrates.
What year were limits placed upon plebeians that prevented them from holding more than one office concurrently?
573005e3a23a5019007fcc5f
342 BC
144
False
What could no longer be associated with debt after laws were passed preventing it?
573005e3a23a5019007fcc60
interest
402
False
What year saw the election of a plebeian to the office of praetor?
573005e3a23a5019007fcc61
337 BC
424
False
How did senators attempt to gain the favor of the tribunes?
573005e3a23a5019007fcc62
gave the tribunes a great deal of power
670
False
What was considered a pathway to holding a higher office?
573005e3a23a5019007fcc63
the tribunate
914
False
After the consulship had been opened to the plebeians, the plebeians were able to hold both the dictatorship and the censorship. Plebiscites of 342 BC placed limits on political offices; an individual could hold only one office at a time, and ten years must elapse between the end of his official term and his re-election. Further laws attempted to relieve the burden of debt from plebeians by banning interest on loans. In 337 BC, the first plebeian praetor was elected. During these years, the tribunes and the senators grew increasingly close. The senate realised the need to use plebeian officials to accomplish desired goals. To win over the tribunes, the senators gave the tribunes a great deal of power and the tribunes began to feel obligated to the senate. As the tribunes and the senators grew closer, plebeian senators were often able to secure the tribunate for members of their own families. In time, the tribunate became a stepping stone to higher office.
In what year was the Plebiscitum Ovinium initiative enacted?
5730077fb2c2fd1400568757
before 312 BCE
8
False
Who had already held a large amount of magisterial offices?
5730077fb2c2fd1400568758
plebeians
309
False
Who was allowed to be elected to high office positions?
5730077fb2c2fd1400568759
only patricians
680
False
What initiative provided censors with the abillity to appoint new senators?
5730077fb2c2fd140056875a
Plebiscitum Ovinium
57
False
Who could a newly elected magistrate expect to be appointed by?
5730077fb2c2fd140056875b
the censor
228
False
Shortly before 312 BCE, the Plebeian Council enacted the Plebiscitum Ovinium. During the early republic, only consuls could appoint new senators. This initiative, however, transferred this power to the censors. It also required the censor to appoint any newly elected magistrate to the senate. By this point, plebeians were already holding a significant number of magisterial offices. Thus, the number of plebeian senators probably increased quickly. However, it remained difficult for a plebeian to enter the senate if he was not from a well-known political family, as a new patrician-like plebeian aristocracy emerged. The old nobility existed through the force of law, because only patricians were allowed to stand for high office. The new nobility existed due to the organization of society. As such, only a revolution could overthrow this new structure.
What was the economic status of your typical plebeian in 287 BC?
5730094a04bcaa1900d77047
poor
69
False
Who refused to concern themselves with the plebeians debt situation?
5730094a04bcaa1900d77048
senators
183
False
What law was passed that allowed the Plebeian Council to consider a bill without the approval of the patrician senators?
5730094a04bcaa1900d77049
the Lex Hortensia
393
False
What did the patrician senators refusal to address the accumulating debt of the plebeians lead to?
5730094a04bcaa1900d7704a
the final plebeian secession
243
False
By 287 BC, the economic condition of the average plebeian had become poor. The problem appears to have centered around widespread indebtedness. The plebeians demanded relief, but the senators refused to address their situation. The result was the final plebeian secession. The plebeians seceded to the Janiculum hill. To end the secession, a dictator was appointed. The dictator passed a law (the Lex Hortensia), which ended the requirement that the patrician senators must agree before any bill could be considered by the Plebeian Council. This was not the first law to require that an act of the Plebeian Council have the full force of law. The Plebeian Council acquired this power during a modification to the original Valerian law in 449 BC. The significance of this law was in the fact that it robbed the patricians of their final weapon over the plebeians. The result was that control over the state fell, not onto the shoulders of voters, but to the new plebeian nobility.
Which group of people were now considered to be politically equal with the plebeians?
57300ba704bcaa1900d77075
patricians
63
False
Which group of people rebelled by vacating Rome?
57300ba704bcaa1900d77076
The plebeians
404
False
How many plebeian families had an identical standing as the old aristocratic patrician families?
57300ba704bcaa1900d77077
A small number
136
False
What did the rebelling plebeians want before they returned to Rome?
57300ba704bcaa1900d77078
more rights
481
False
The plebeians had finally achieved political equality with the patricians. However, the plight of the average plebeian had not changed. A small number of plebeian families achieved the same standing that the old aristocratic patrician families had always had, but the new plebeian aristocrats became as uninterested in the plight of the average plebeian as the old patrician aristocrats had always been. The plebeians rebelled by leaving Rome and refusing to return until they had more rights. The patricians then noticed how much they needed the plebeians and accepted their terms. The plebeians then returned to Rome and continued their work.
Why was the senate considered to be supreme during this time?
57300d2e04bcaa1900d770a3
because the era was dominated by questions of foreign and military policy
425
False
What years did no important political changes happen during?
57300d2e04bcaa1900d770a4
287 BC and 133 BC
204
False
What group of people often failed to use the power that was given to them?
57300d2e04bcaa1900d770a5
the plebeians
299
False
Who enacted crucial laws during this period of time?
57300d2e04bcaa1900d770a6
the senate
276
False
What was a political element that satiated the plebeians?
57300d2e04bcaa1900d770a7
the possession of power
333
False
The Hortensian Law deprived the patricians of their last weapon against the plebeians, and thus resolved the last great political question of the era. No such important political changes occurred between 287 BC and 133 BC. The important laws of this era were still enacted by the senate. In effect, the plebeians were satisfied with the possession of power, but did not care to use it. The senate was supreme during this era because the era was dominated by questions of foreign and military policy. This was the most militarily active era of the Roman Republic.
What had caused citizens to vacate their farms?
57300e8a04bcaa1900d770c1
long military campaigns
65
False
How could a candidate assure the vote of a poverty stricken plebeian?
57300e8a04bcaa1900d770c2
offered them the most
581
False
What type of culture was a side effect of the rampant poverty of the average plebeian?
57300e8a04bcaa1900d770c3
culture of dependency
610
False
What caused the bankruptcy of many farmers during this era?
57300e8a04bcaa1900d770c4
commodity prices fell
257
False
Who had bought the now bankrupt farms?
57300e8a04bcaa1900d770c5
landed aristocracy
183
False
In the final decades of this era many plebeians grew poorer. The long military campaigns had forced citizens to leave their farms to fight, while their farms fell into disrepair. The landed aristocracy began buying bankrupted farms at discounted prices. As commodity prices fell, many farmers could no longer operate their farms at a profit. The result was the ultimate bankruptcy of countless farmers. Masses of unemployed plebeians soon began to flood into Rome, and thus into the ranks of the legislative assemblies. Their poverty usually led them to vote for the candidate who offered them the most. A new culture of dependency was emerging, in which citizens would look to any populist leader for relief.
To what position was Tiberius Gracchus elected?
57300fb0a23a5019007fccd9
tribune
30
False
Who had tried to enact a law that places a limit on the amount of property any single individual could possess?
57300fb0a23a5019007fccda
Tiberius Gracchus
0
False
When was Tiberius Gracchus murdered?
57300fb0a23a5019007fccdb
when he stood for reelection to the tribunate
844
False
Which tribune was impeached by the Plebeian Council?
57300fb0a23a5019007fccdc
Marcus Octavius
351
False
What was considered to be the opposite of Roman constitutional theory?
57300fb0a23a5019007fccdd
that a representative of the people ceases to be one when he acts against the wishes of the people
441
False
Tiberius Gracchus was elected tribune in 133 BC. He attempted to enact a law which would have limited the amount of land that any individual could own. The aristocrats, who stood to lose an enormous amount of money, were bitterly opposed to this proposal. Tiberius submitted this law to the Plebeian Council, but the law was vetoed by a tribune named Marcus Octavius. Tiberius then used the Plebeian Council to impeach Octavius. The theory, that a representative of the people ceases to be one when he acts against the wishes of the people, was counter to Roman constitutional theory. If carried to its logical end, this theory would remove all constitutional restraints on the popular will, and put the state under the absolute control of a temporary popular majority. His law was enacted, but Tiberius was murdered with 300 of his associates when he stood for reelection to the tribunate.
In what year was Gaius elected to office?
5730113a947a6a140053d02c
123 BC
47
False
What is considered to be the end game of Gaius Gracchus?
5730113a947a6a140053d02d
weaken the senate and to strengthen the democratic forces
92
False
Who brought forward a law that would given citizenship right to Italian allies of Rome?
5730113a947a6a140053d02e
Gaius
559
False
Which elected official lost the election in 121 BC?
5730113a947a6a140053d02f
Gaius
559
False
What was the location of the Gaius Gracchus murder?
5730113a947a6a140053d030
Capitoline Hill in Rome
884
False
Tiberius' brother Gaius was elected tribune in 123 BC. Gaius Gracchus' ultimate goal was to weaken the senate and to strengthen the democratic forces. In the past, for example, the senate would eliminate political rivals either by establishing special judicial commissions or by passing a senatus consultum ultimum ("ultimate decree of the senate"). Both devices would allow the Senate to bypass the ordinary due process rights that all citizens had. Gaius outlawed the judicial commissions, and declared the senatus consultum ultimum to be unconstitutional. Gaius then proposed a law which would grant citizenship rights to Rome's Italian allies. This last proposal was not popular with the plebeians and he lost much of his support. He stood for election to a third term in 121 BC, but was defeated and then murdered by representatives of the senate with 3,000 of his supporters on Capitoline Hill in Rome. Though the senate retained control, the Gracchi had strengthened the political influence of the plebeians.
Who was the illegitimate offspring of the King Micipsa of Numidia?
5730124ca23a5019007fccff
Jugurtha
164
False
Who was Jugurtha's rival?
5730124ca23a5019007fcd00
Gaius Marius
645
False
When was Gaius Marius elected to the position of consul?
5730124ca23a5019007fcd01
107 BC
771
False
Who did not agree with the election of Gaius Marius?
5730124ca23a5019007fcd02
aristocratic senators
805
False
Which individual did the populares part have an allegiance with?
5730124ca23a5019007fcd03
Marius
1106
False
In 118 BC, King Micipsa of Numidia (current-day Algeria and Tunisia) died. He was succeeded by two legitimate sons, Adherbal and Hiempsal, and an illegitimate son, Jugurtha. Micipsa divided his kingdom between these three sons. Jugurtha, however, turned on his brothers, killing Hiempsal and driving Adherbal out of Numidia. Adherbal fled to Rome for assistance, and initially Rome mediated a division of the country between the two brothers. Eventually, Jugurtha renewed his offensive, leading to a long and inconclusive war with Rome. He also bribed several Roman commanders, and at least two tribunes, before and during the war. His nemesis, Gaius Marius, a legate from a virtually unknown provincial family, returned from the war in Numidia and was elected consul in 107 BC over the objections of the aristocratic senators. Marius invaded Numidia and brought the war to a quick end, capturing Jugurtha in the process. The apparent incompetence of the Senate, and the brilliance of Marius, had been put on full display. The populares party took full advantage of this opportunity by allying itself with Marius.
In what year was a Roman army dispatched to terminate the King of Pontus?
57301640b2c2fd1400568831
88 BC
24
False
Who was ordered by the senate to become commander in the conflict with King Mithridates?
57301640b2c2fd1400568832
Lucius Cornelius Sulla
181
False
Who had successfully passed a law whose sole purpose was to lessen the power of the tribunate?
57301640b2c2fd1400568833
Sulla
544
False
What political party did Lucius Cornelius Sulla belong to?
57301640b2c2fd1400568834
populares
348
False
What happened after Sulla returned to the conflict with Mithridates?
57301640b2c2fd1400568835
Marius and Lucius Cornelius Cinna soon took control of the city
735
False
Several years later, in 88 BC, a Roman army was sent to put down an emerging Asian power, king Mithridates of Pontus. The army, however, was defeated. One of Marius' old quaestors, Lucius Cornelius Sulla, had been elected consul for the year, and was ordered by the senate to assume command of the war against Mithridates. Marius, a member of the "populares" party, had a tribune revoke Sulla's command of the war against Mithridates. Sulla, a member of the aristocratic ("optimates") party, brought his army back to Italy and marched on Rome. Sulla was so angry at Marius' tribune that he passed a law intended to permanently weaken the tribunate. He then returned to his war against Mithridates. With Sulla gone, the populares under Marius and Lucius Cornelius Cinna soon took control of the city.
How many years was normal to span between offices prior to the populares controlling the city?
57301781b2c2fd140056884f
ten-year interval
167
False
In what year did Sulla succesfully take over the populares controlled city?
57301781b2c2fd1400568850
83 BC
416
False
Who were slaughtered upon the arrival of Sulla in Rome?
57301781b2c2fd1400568851
most of Marius' supporters
536
False
In what year did Sulla die?
57301781b2c2fd1400568852
78 BC
888
False
Which leader had achieved peace with Mithridates?
57301781b2c2fd1400568853
Sulla
373
False
During the period in which the populares party controlled the city, they flouted convention by re-electing Marius consul several times without observing the customary ten-year interval between offices. They also transgressed the established oligarchy by advancing unelected individuals to magisterial office, and by substituting magisterial edicts for popular legislation. Sulla soon made peace with Mithridates. In 83 BC, he returned to Rome, overcame all resistance, and recaptured the city. Sulla and his supporters then slaughtered most of Marius' supporters. Sulla, having observed the violent results of radical popular reforms, was naturally conservative. As such, he sought to strengthen the aristocracy, and by extension the senate. Sulla made himself dictator, passed a series of constitutional reforms, resigned the dictatorship, and served one last term as consul. He died in 78 BC.
Where in the year 77 BC was an uprising?
573018e604bcaa1900d7717d
Spain
133
False
Which former lieutenant of Sulla had dismantled most of the constitution that Sulla had crafted?
573018e604bcaa1900d7717e
Pompey
541
False
In what year was the election held that let Pompey and Crassus obtain the seat of consul?
573018e604bcaa1900d7717f
70 BC
583
False
Who was the instigator in the slave revolt in Italy?
573018e604bcaa1900d77180
Spartacus
318
False
When did Pompey return to Rome after having quelled the uprising in Spain?
573018e604bcaa1900d77181
71 BC
143
False
In 77 BC, the senate sent one of Sulla's former lieutenants, Gnaeus Pompeius Magnus ("Pompey the Great"), to put down an uprising in Spain. By 71 BC, Pompey returned to Rome after having completed his mission. Around the same time, another of Sulla's former lieutenants, Marcus Licinius Crassus, had just put down the Spartacus-led gladiator/slave revolt in Italy. Upon their return, Pompey and Crassus found the populares party fiercely attacking Sulla's constitution. They attempted to forge an agreement with the populares party. If both Pompey and Crassus were elected consul in 70 BC, they would dismantle the more obnoxious components of Sulla's constitution. The two were soon elected, and quickly dismantled most of Sulla's constitution.
When did the movement that considered the use of peaceful means to solve the plight of lesser classes begin?
57301ab104bcaa1900d771a9
Around 66 BC
0
False
How many former consuls in Rome were executed as a result of a conspiracy?
57301ab104bcaa1900d771aa
one former consul
846
False
What town was a common site of agitation within the area?
57301ab104bcaa1900d771ab
Faesulae
355
False
Who can lay claim to the destruction of Lucius Sergius Catilina's forces?
57301ab104bcaa1900d771ac
Cicero
982
False
Which individual had planned an uprising that ideally would see the death of most of the Roman senators?
57301ab104bcaa1900d771ad
Lucius Sergius Catilina
292
False
Around 66 BC, a movement to use constitutional, or at least peaceful, means to address the plight of various classes began. After several failures, the movement's leaders decided to use any means that were necessary to accomplish their goals. The movement coalesced under an aristocrat named Lucius Sergius Catilina. The movement was based in the town of Faesulae, which was a natural hotbed of agrarian agitation. The rural malcontents were to advance on Rome, and be aided by an uprising within the city. After assassinating the consuls and most of the senators, Catiline would be free to enact his reforms. The conspiracy was set in motion in 63 BC. The consul for the year, Marcus Tullius Cicero, intercepted messages that Catiline had sent in an attempt to recruit more members. As a result, the top conspirators in Rome (including at least one former consul) were executed by authorisation (of dubious constitutionality) of the senate, and the planned uprising was disrupted. Cicero then sent an army, which cut Catiline's forces to pieces.
In which year would Julius Caesar hope to be elected to the position of consul?
57301bf5b2c2fd1400568885
59 BC
526
False
What was the name of the private agreement between Caesar, Pompey, and Crassus?
57301bf5b2c2fd1400568886
First Triumvirate
411
False
What was Crassus agree to receive in the First Triumvirate agreement?
57301bf5b2c2fd1400568887
a future consulship
611
False
When did Julius Caesar return to Rome?
57301bf5b2c2fd1400568888
61 BC
262
False
What provided the Roman senate with exuberance?
57301bf5b2c2fd1400568889
successes against Catiline
74
False
In 62 BC, Pompey returned victorious from Asia. The Senate, elated by its successes against Catiline, refused to ratify the arrangements that Pompey had made. Pompey, in effect, became powerless. Thus, when Julius Caesar returned from a governorship in Spain in 61 BC, he found it easy to make an arrangement with Pompey. Caesar and Pompey, along with Crassus, established a private agreement, now known as the First Triumvirate. Under the agreement, Pompey's arrangements would be ratified. Caesar would be elected consul in 59 BC, and would then serve as governor of Gaul for five years. Crassus was promised a future consulship.
Who had tried to prevent the enactment of the laws that Caesar had proposed?
57301d28b2c2fd14005688a9
Bibulus
173
False
What type of case saw Cicero testify against Clodius?
57301d28b2c2fd14005688aa
sacrilege case
645
False
Who enacted a law that would increase the partial grain subsidy?
57301d28b2c2fd14005688ab
Clodius
981
False
Which individual lost his home to a fire?
57301d28b2c2fd14005688ac
Cicero
777
False
Who was elected to the tribunate in 58 BC?
57301d28b2c2fd14005688ad
Publius Clodius Pulcher
392
False
Caesar became consul in 59 BC. His colleague, Marcus Calpurnius Bibulus, was an extreme aristocrat. Caesar submitted the laws that he had promised Pompey to the assemblies. Bibulus attempted to obstruct the enactment of these laws, and so Caesar used violent means to ensure their passage. Caesar was then made governor of three provinces. He facilitated the election of the former patrician Publius Clodius Pulcher to the tribunate for 58 BC. Clodius set about depriving Caesar's senatorial enemies of two of their more obstinate leaders in Cato and Cicero. Clodius was a bitter opponent of Cicero because Cicero had testified against him in a sacrilege case. Clodius attempted to try Cicero for executing citizens without a trial during the Catiline conspiracy, resulting in Cicero going into self-imposed exile and his house in Rome being burnt down. Clodius also passed a bill that forced Cato to lead the invasion of Cyprus which would keep him away from Rome for some years. Clodius also passed a law to expand the previous partial grain subsidy to a fully free grain dole for citizens.
Who was responsible for the attacks on followers of Pompey?
57301e6bb2c2fd14005688bd
Clodius
0
False
What political position were Pompey and Crassus assured they would receive in 55 BC?
57301e6bb2c2fd14005688be
consul
411
False
What caused the death of Julius Caesar's female offspring?
57301e6bb2c2fd14005688bf
childbirth
739
False
Which individual ran for consul in 55 BC?
57301e6bb2c2fd14005688c0
Domitius Ahenobarbus
226
False
Who was responsible for an expedition against the Parthian Kingdom?
57301e6bb2c2fd14005688c1
Crassus
491
False
Clodius formed armed gangs that terrorised the city and eventually began to attack Pompey's followers, who in response funded counter-gangs formed by Titus Annius Milo. The political alliance of the triumvirate was crumbling. Domitius Ahenobarbus ran for the consulship in 55 BC promising to take Caesar's command from him. Eventually, the triumvirate was renewed at Lucca. Pompey and Crassus were promised the consulship in 55 BC, and Caesar's term as governor was extended for five years. Crassus led an ill-fated expedition with legions led by his son, Caesar's lieutenant, against the Kingdom of Parthia. This resulted in his defeat and death at the Battle of Carrhae. Finally, Pompey's wife, Julia, who was Caesar's daughter, died in childbirth. This event severed the last remaining bond between Pompey and Caesar.
In which year did Clodius die?
5730239eb2c2fd1400568931
52 BC
132
False
Who was responsible for the death of Clodius?
5730239eb2c2fd1400568932
Milo
182
False
Who did the senators decide would aid them in their conflict with Caesar?
5730239eb2c2fd1400568933
Pompey
492
False
What type of powers were granted to Pompey by the senate?
5730239eb2c2fd1400568934
dictatorial
632
False
Ultimately what forced the senate to abandon Rome and flee to Greece?
5730239eb2c2fd1400568935
Caesar's rapid advance
840
False
Beginning in the summer of 54 BC, a wave of political corruption and violence swept Rome. This chaos reached a climax in January of 52 BC, when Clodius was murdered in a gang war by Milo. On 1 January 49 BC, an agent of Caesar presented an ultimatum to the senate. The ultimatum was rejected, and the senate then passed a resolution which declared that if Caesar did not lay down his arms by July of that year, he would be considered an enemy of the Republic. Meanwhile, the senators adopted Pompey as their new champion against Caesar. On 7 January of 49 BC, the senate passed a senatus consultum ultimum, which vested Pompey with dictatorial powers. Pompey's army, however, was composed largely of untested conscripts. On 10 January, Caesar crossed the Rubicon with his veteran army (in violation of Roman laws) and marched towards Rome. Caesar's rapid advance forced Pompey, the consuls and the senate to abandon Rome for Greece. Caesar entered the city unopposed.
In Rome during this time who was considered to hold both the dictatorship and the position of the tribunate?
573024cc04bcaa1900d7721d
Caesar
0
False
What power could Caesar use against the senate should he choose?
573024cc04bcaa1900d7721e
power to veto
217
False
In what year was Caesar given the power of a censor?
573024cc04bcaa1900d7721f
46 BC
296
False
What is considered to have counteracted the prestige of the senatorial aristocracy?
573024cc04bcaa1900d77220
raised the membership of the Senate to 900
407
False
Caesar held both the dictatorship and the tribunate, and alternated between the consulship and the proconsulship. In 48 BC, Caesar was given permanent tribunician powers. This made his person sacrosanct, gave him the power to veto the senate, and allowed him to dominate the Plebeian Council. In 46 BC, Caesar was given censorial powers, which he used to fill the senate with his own partisans. Caesar then raised the membership of the Senate to 900. This robbed the senatorial aristocracy of its prestige, and made it increasingly subservient to him. While the assemblies continued to meet, he submitted all candidates to the assemblies for election, and all bills to the assemblies for enactment. Thus, the assemblies became powerless and were unable to oppose him.
On what date was Caesar killed?
5730260904bcaa1900d7722d
March 15, 44 BC
27
False
Who comprised most of the members of the conspiracy to assassinate Caesar?
5730260904bcaa1900d7722e
senators
136
False
What did some members of the conspiracy believe Caesar would bring back?
5730260904bcaa1900d7722f
the monarchy
298
False
Who did Gaius Cassius and Marcus Brutus lead the conspiracy against?
5730260904bcaa1900d77230
Caesar
0
False
Why did many members of the senate flee the city after Caesar's death?
5730260904bcaa1900d77231
fear of retaliation
522
False
Caesar was assassinated on March 15, 44 BC. The assassination was led by Gaius Cassius and Marcus Brutus. Most of the conspirators were senators, who had a variety of economic, political, or personal motivations for carrying out the assassination. Many were afraid that Caesar would soon resurrect the monarchy and declare himself king. Others feared loss of property or prestige as Caesar carried out his land reforms in favor of the landless classes. Virtually all the conspirators fled the city after Caesar's death in fear of retaliation. The civil war that followed destroyed what was left of the Republic.
Who was soon allied with Caesar's adopted son following his death?
573027a5b2c2fd1400568981
Mark Antony
25
False
In what year did the Battle of Philippi end?
573027a5b2c2fd1400568982
42 BC
464
False
How did Mark Antony die?
573027a5b2c2fd1400568983
he committed suicide
622
False
What was the alliance that was formed with Marcus Lepidus named?
573027a5b2c2fd1400568984
the Second Triumvirate
176
False
In what battle did Mark Antony see defeat?
573027a5b2c2fd1400568985
Battle of Actium
591
False
After the assassination, Mark Antony formed an alliance with Caesar's adopted son and great-nephew, Gaius Octavian. Along with Marcus Lepidus, they formed an alliance known as the Second Triumvirate. They held powers that were nearly identical to the powers that Caesar had held under his constitution. As such, the Senate and assemblies remained powerless, even after Caesar had been assassinated. The conspirators were then defeated at the Battle of Philippi in 42 BC. Eventually, however, Antony and Octavian fought against each other in one last battle. Antony was defeated in the naval Battle of Actium in 31 BC, and he committed suicide with his lover, Cleopatra. In 29 BC, Octavian returned to Rome as the unchallenged master of the Empire and later accepted the title of Augustus ("Exalted One"). He was convinced that only a single strong ruler could restore order in Rome.
Who in Rome was responsible for imposing tribute on nations that they had conquered?
57302972b2c2fd140056899d
Rome's military
36
False
What could be considered a trait of Rome's military campaigns?
57302972b2c2fd140056899e
obstinate persistence
952
False
What was considered a problem in the Roman Republic during its last century?
57302972b2c2fd140056899f
civil war
464
False
What would often lead Rome to wage war in foreign lands?
57302972b2c2fd14005689a0
defense of an ally
426
False
As with most ancient civilizations, Rome's military served the triple purposes of securing its borders, exploiting peripheral areas through measures such as imposing tribute on conquered peoples, and maintaining internal order. From the outset, Rome's military typified this pattern and the majority of Rome's wars were characterized by one of two types. The first is the foreign war, normally begun as a counter-offensive or defense of an ally. The second is the civil war, which plagued the Roman Republic in its final century. Roman armies were not invincible, despite their formidable reputation and host of victories. Over the centuries the Romans "produced their share of incompetents" who led Roman armies into catastrophic defeats. Nevertheless, it was generally the fate of the greatest of Rome's enemies, such as Pyrrhus and Hannibal, to win early battles but lose the war. The history of Rome's campaigning is, if nothing else, a history of obstinate persistence overcoming appalling losses.
Who introduced the phalanx formation into Rome's army?
57302aab04bcaa1900d772a5
Servius Tullius
301
False
Were Roman soldiers expected to purchase their own equipment?
57302aab04bcaa1900d772a6
wealthiest citizens, who were able to purchase the best equipment
425
False
Who were contained in the first rank of the phalanx formation?
57302aab04bcaa1900d772a7
wealthiest citizens
425
False
From what people did it appear the Etruscans had model their form of warfare on?
57302aab04bcaa1900d772a8
Greeks
172
False
Where did Dionysius hail from?
57302aab04bcaa1900d772a9
Halicarnassus
375
False
During this period, Roman soldiers seem to have been modelled after those of the Etruscans to the north, who themselves seem to have copied their style of warfare from the Greeks. Traditionally, the introduction of the phalanx formation into the Roman army is ascribed to the city's penultimate king, Servius Tullius (ruled 578 to 534 BC). According to Livy and Dionysius of Halicarnassus, the front rank was composed of the wealthiest citizens, who were able to purchase the best equipment. Each subsequent rank consisted of those with less wealth and poorer equipment than the one before it.
What was a detriment of using the phalanx formation?
57302c1e04bcaa1900d772cd
only effective when fighting in large, open spaces
48
False
In what century was the phalanx formation finally discarded by the Roman people?
57302c1e04bcaa1900d772ce
4th century BC
212
False
What fighting formation would eventually replace the phalanx in battle?
57302c1e04bcaa1900d772cf
manipular formation
292
False
Where is the likely source of the change to the manipular formation?
57302c1e04bcaa1900d772d0
copied from Rome's Samnite enemies
474
False
What type of ground could be found in the central Italian peninsula?
57302c1e04bcaa1900d772d1
hilly terrain
161
False
One disadvantage of the phalanx was that it was only effective when fighting in large, open spaces, which left the Romans at a disadvantage when fighting in the hilly terrain of central Italian peninsula. In the 4th century BC, the Romans abandoned the phalanx in favour of the more flexible manipular formation. This change is sometimes attributed to Marcus Furius Camillus and placed shortly after the Gallic invasion of 390 BC; it is more likely, however, that they were copied from Rome's Samnite enemies to the south, possibly as a result of Samnite victories during the Second Samnite War (326 to 304 BC).
How many horseman were likely to be found in a single manipular legion?
57302da5b2c2fd1400568a09
300 horsemen
110
False
Where could you expect the extensive amount of cavalry troops to be sourced from?
57302da5b2c2fd1400568a0a
richest class of equestrians
186
False
What often neglected social class was the light infantry comprised of?
57302da5b2c2fd1400568a0b
lower social classes.
562
False
Small shields could be found in what section of the infantry?
57302da5b2c2fd1400568a0c
light infantry
470
False
What type of infantry joined light, and the cavalry in battle?
57302da5b2c2fd1400568a0d
heavy infantry
4
False
The heavy infantry of the maniples were supported by a number of light infantry and cavalry troops, typically 300 horsemen per manipular legion. The cavalry was drawn primarily from the richest class of equestrians. There was an additional class of troops who followed the army without specific martial roles and were deployed to the rear of the third line. Their role in accompanying the army was primarily to supply any vacancies that might occur in the maniples. The light infantry consisted of 1,200 unarmoured skirmishing troops drawn from the youngest and lower social classes. They were armed with a sword and a small shield, as well as several light javelins.
Where did Rome receive half of their army from?
57302f5e947a6a140053d24a
the Socii
125
False
How many calvary did Rome's Italian allies use?
57302f5e947a6a140053d24b
900 cavalry
547
False
How many soldiers were available to Rome at the start of the Second Punic War?
57302f5e947a6a140053d24c
770,000 men
297
False
What did Rome's Italian allies call their battle formation?
57302f5e947a6a140053d24d
alae
471
False
What allowed Rome to source some of their military from other nearby areas?
57302f5e947a6a140053d24e
military confederation with the other peoples
7
False
Rome's military confederation with the other peoples of the Italian peninsula meant that half of Rome's army was provided by the Socii, such as the Etruscans, Umbrians, Apulians, Campanians, Samnites, Lucani, Bruttii, and the various southern Greek cities. Polybius states that Rome could draw on 770,000 men at the beginning of the Second Punic War, of which 700,000 were infantry and 70,000 met the requirements for cavalry. Rome's Italian allies would be organized in alae, or wings, roughly equal in manpower to the Roman legions, though with 900 cavalry instead of 300.
During what century did Roman controlled areas see a decline in their populations?
573035d7b2c2fd1400568a85
2nd century BC
362
False
What caused the Roman state to provide armaments to their army?
573035d7b2c2fd1400568a86
greater collapse of the middle classes
550
False
What were soldiers expected to own prior to the year 217 BC?
573035d7b2c2fd1400568a87
property
334
False
What was considered an attributing factor to the decline of the Roman population?
573035d7b2c2fd1400568a88
huge losses incurred during various wars
453
False
The extraordinary demands of the Punic Wars, in addition to a shortage of manpower, exposed the tactical weaknesses of the manipular legion, at least in the short term. In 217 BC, near the beginning of the Second Punic War, Rome was forced to effectively ignore its long-standing principle that its soldiers must be both citizens and property owners. During the 2nd century BC, Roman territory saw an overall decline in population, partially due to the huge losses incurred during various wars. This was accompanied by severe social stresses and the greater collapse of the middle classes. As a result, the Roman state was forced to arm its soldiers at the expense of the state, which it had not had to do in the past.
Who was now able to join military service in 107 BC?
5730382aa23a5019007fcfa9
all citizens
134
False
Where would legionaries in the Roman army likely to be sourced from?
5730382aa23a5019007fcfaa
citizen stock
590
False
Who would likely make up the majority of the Roman army's light infantry?
5730382aa23a5019007fcfab
non-citizens
611
False
Which consul was responsible for the reforms that allowed all citizens access to join the Roman army?
5730382aa23a5019007fcfac
Gaius Marius
53
False
What was the process that removed the property requirement for the Roman military called?
5730382aa23a5019007fcfad
Marian reforms
24
False
In process known as the Marian reforms, Roman consul Gaius Marius carried out a programme of reform of the Roman military. In 107 BC, all citizens, regardless of their wealth or social class, were made eligible for entry into the Roman army. This move formalised and concluded a gradual process that had been growing for centuries, of removing property requirements for military service. The distinction between the three heavy infantry classes, which had already become blurred, had collapsed into a single class of heavy legionary infantry. The heavy infantry legionaries were drawn from citizen stock, while non-citizens came to dominate the ranks of the light infantry. The army's higher-level officers and commanders were still drawn exclusively from the Roman aristocracy.
Around how many units could be expected to be contained within a cohort?
573039c004bcaa1900d773c5
480 infantrymen
163
False
How many troops were placed into each tent group?
573039c004bcaa1900d773c6
8 men
370
False
Who would now be used as scouts instead of fighting alongside the army in the battlefield?
573039c004bcaa1900d773c7
cavalry troops
386
False
What designation of troops was considered to make up the majority of a legion?
573039c004bcaa1900d773c8
cohort
125
False
The legions of the late Republic were, structurally, almost entirely heavy infantry. The legion's main sub-unit was called a cohort and consisted of approximately 480 infantrymen. The cohort was therefore a much larger unit than the earlier maniple sub-unit, and was divided into six centuries of 80 men each. Each century was separated further into 10 "tent groups" of 8 men each. The cavalry troops were used as scouts and dispatch riders rather than battlefield cavalry. Legions also contained a dedicated group of artillery crew of perhaps 60 men. Each legion was normally partnered with an approximately equal number of allied (non-Roman) troops.
In which sea was a large amount of naval vessels sent in order to remove Cilician pirates?
57303b58947a6a140053d2e0
Mediterranean Sea
344
False
Around how many ships were sent into service from Greek cities?
57303b58947a6a140053d2e1
as many as a thousand ships
436
False
Who was ultimately responsible for the naval ships that were sent to the English Channel?
57303b58947a6a140053d2e2
Caesar
199
False
What was the driving force behind the revitalization of the Roman naval forces?
57303b58947a6a140053d2e3
to meet several new demands
164
False
What aspect of the Roman military saw a decline in size after the subjugation of the Mediterranean?
57303b58947a6a140053d2e4
Roman navy
82
False
After having declined in size following the subjugation of the Mediterranean, the Roman navy underwent short-term upgrading and revitalisation in the late Republic to meet several new demands. Under Caesar, an invasion fleet was assembled in the English Channel to allow the invasion of Britannia; under Pompey, a large fleet was raised in the Mediterranean Sea to clear the sea of Cilician pirates. During the civil war that followed, as many as a thousand ships were either constructed or pressed into service from Greek cities.
What was the general source of the Roman senate's authority?
57303d0fb2c2fd1400568ab1
the esteem and prestige of the senators
45
False
Who was responsible for overseeing a military action?
57303d0fb2c2fd1400568ab2
the senate
560
False
What was a motion that was enacted by the senate called?
57303d0fb2c2fd1400568ab3
senatus consulta
251
False
What area was the likely focal point of the Roman senate?
57303d0fb2c2fd1400568ab4
foreign policy
461
False
What governing Roman body would self-select their own members during times of great distress?
57303d0fb2c2fd1400568ab5
the senate itself would select its members
1109
False
The senate's ultimate authority derived from the esteem and prestige of the senators. This esteem and prestige was based on both precedent and custom, as well as the caliber and reputation of the senators. The senate passed decrees, which were called senatus consulta. These were officially "advice" from the senate to a magistrate. In practice, however, they were usually followed by the magistrates. The focus of the Roman senate was usually directed towards foreign policy. Though it technically had no official role in the management of military conflict, the senate ultimately was the force that oversaw such affairs. The power of the senate expanded over time as the power of the legislative assemblies declined, and the senate took a greater role in ordinary law-making. Its members were usually appointed by Roman Censors, who ordinarily selected newly elected magistrates for membership in the senate, making the senate a partially elected body. During times of military emergency, such as the civil wars of the 1st century BC, this practice became less prevalent, as the Roman Dictator, Triumvir or the senate itself would select its members.
What was the main requirement of seeking a trial in the Roman courts?
57303f17b2c2fd1400568adf
legal status of Roman citizenship
4
False
Who would be expected to oversee a capital case in the Roman courts?
57303f17b2c2fd1400568ae0
assemblies
413
False
Which designation of people made up the entirety of the members of a comitia?
57303f17b2c2fd1400568ae1
optimo jure
682
False
Who did the assemblies elected by the optimo jure elect?
57303f17b2c2fd1400568ae2
magistrates
432
False
What type of assembly could specific groupings of optimo jure be found in?
57303f17b2c2fd1400568ae3
concilia
714
False
The legal status of Roman citizenship was limited and was a vital prerequisite to possessing many important legal rights such as the right to trial and appeal, to marry, to vote, to hold office, to enter binding contracts, and to special tax exemptions. An adult male citizen with the full complement of legal and political rights was called "optimo jure." The optimo jure elected their assemblies, whereupon the assemblies elected magistrates, enacted legislation, presided over trials in capital cases, declared war and peace, and forged or dissolved treaties. There were two types of legislative assemblies. The first was the comitia ("committees"), which were assemblies of all optimo jure. The second was the concilia ("councils"), which were assemblies of specific groups of optimo jure.
What Roman assembly elected both magistrates and censors?
57304103b2c2fd1400568afb
Comitia Centuriata
232
False
What profession of people made up the entireity of the Comitia Centuriata?
57304103b2c2fd1400568afc
centuries
184
False
Would the Comitia Centuriata occasionally be called upon to serve as the highest court of appeal?
57304103b2c2fd1400568afd
It also served as the highest court of appeal in certain judicial cases
584
False
Which elected official had imperium powers?
57304103b2c2fd1400568afe
magistrates
416
False
Citizens were organized on the basis of centuries and tribes, which would each gather into their own assemblies. The Comitia Centuriata ("Centuriate Assembly") was the assembly of the centuries (i.e. soldiers). The president of the Comitia Centuriata was usually a consul. The centuries would vote, one at a time, until a measure received support from a majority of the centuries. The Comitia Centuriata would elect magistrates who had imperium powers (consuls and praetors). It also elected censors. Only the Comitia Centuriata could declare war, and ratify the results of a census. It also served as the highest court of appeal in certain judicial cases.
How many tribes were considered to be in the Comitia Tributa?
5730426f04bcaa1900d7742d
35 tribes
128
False
How were the assembly of tribes segregated into specific tribes?
5730426f04bcaa1900d7742e
geographical subdivisions
196
False
What assembly was responsible for the election of quaestors?
5730426f04bcaa1900d7742f
the Comitia Tributa
423
False
When would the assembly of tribes cease voting?
5730426f04bcaa1900d77430
Once a measure received support from a majority of the tribes
305
False
Who would be responsible for the election of a plebeian tribune?
5730426f04bcaa1900d77431
a plebeian
746
False
The assembly of the tribes (i.e. the citizens of Rome), the Comitia Tributa, was presided over by a consul, and was composed of 35 tribes. The tribes were not ethnic or kinship groups, but rather geographical subdivisions. The order that the thirty-five tribes would vote in was selected randomly by lot. Once a measure received support from a majority of the tribes, the voting would end. While it did not pass many laws, the Comitia Tributa did elect quaestors, curule aediles, and military tribunes. The Plebeian Council was identical to the assembly of the tribes, but excluded the patricians (the elite who could trace their ancestry to the founding of Rome). They elected their own officers, plebeian tribunes and plebeian aediles. Usually a plebeian tribune would preside over the assembly. This assembly passed most laws, and could also act as a court of appeal.
Who had the right to grant powers to a magistrate?
573043a9947a6a140053d37c
People of Rome
72
False
What is considered to be the most authoritative constitutional power?
573043a9947a6a140053d37d
imperium
229
False
What did the constitutional power of imperium grant a magistrate?
573043a9947a6a140053d37e
authority to command a military force
318
False
What would be one of the duties that a newly elected magistrate could expect to perform?
573043a9947a6a140053d37f
to look for omens
622
False
What power was in possession of every single magistrate in Rome?
573043a9947a6a140053d380
power of coercion
386
False
Each republican magistrate held certain constitutional powers. Only the People of Rome (both plebeians and patricians) had the right to confer these powers on any individual magistrate. The most powerful constitutional power was imperium. Imperium was held by both consuls and praetors. Imperium gave a magistrate the authority to command a military force. All magistrates also had the power of coercion. This was used by magistrates to maintain public order. While in Rome, all citizens had a judgement against coercion. This protection was called provocatio (see below). Magistrates also had both the power and the duty to look for omens. This power would often be used to obstruct political opponents.
How long concurrently could an elected magistrate serve in office?
573045afa23a5019007fd039
one-year
430
False
How many people would serve concurrently in a single magisterial office?
573045afa23a5019007fd03a
at least two people
110
False
What form of due process was a harbinger of our vary own habeas corpus?
573045afa23a5019007fd03b
Provocatio
166
False
What would you call a magistrate who had his powers of imperium continued?
573045afa23a5019007fd03c
promagistrate
716
False
Who would a Roman go see in an attempt to reverse the decision of a magistrate?
573045afa23a5019007fd03d
a tribune
386
False
One check on a magistrate's power was his collegiality. Each magisterial office would be held concurrently by at least two people. Another such check was provocatio. Provocatio was a primordial form of due process. It was a precursor to habeas corpus. If any magistrate tried to use the powers of the state against a citizen, that citizen could appeal the decision of the magistrate to a tribune. In addition, once a magistrate's one-year term of office expired, he would have to wait ten years before serving in that office again. This created problems for some consuls and praetors, and these magistrates would occasionally have their imperium extended. In effect, they would retain the powers of the office (as a promagistrate), without officially holding that office.
Which official had supremacy in both civil and military matters?
57304721b2c2fd1400568b5b
Consuls
114
False
Who was responsible for the adminstration of civil laws?
57304721b2c2fd1400568b5c
Praetors
405
False
Who was responsible for the handling of the Roman census?
57304721b2c2fd1400568b5d
two censors
488
False
How long could an elected censor remain in office for?
57304721b2c2fd1400568b5e
18-month term
520
False
What officer primarily had duties over finance matters?
57304721b2c2fd1400568b5f
quaestors
781
False
The consuls of the Roman Republic were the highest ranking ordinary magistrates; each consul served for one year. Consuls had supreme power in both civil and military matters. While in the city of Rome, the consuls were the head of the Roman government. They would preside over the senate and the assemblies. While abroad, each consul would command an army. His authority abroad would be nearly absolute. Praetors administered civil law and commanded provincial armies. Every five years, two censors were elected for an 18-month term, during which they would conduct a census. During the census, they could enroll citizens in the senate, or purge them from the senate. Aediles were officers elected to conduct domestic affairs in Rome, such as managing public games and shows. The quaestors would usually assist the consuls in Rome, and the governors in the provinces. Their duties were often financial.
How long could a dictator be appointed for in times of certain emergencies?
57304904947a6a140053d39e
six months
530
False
What would happen during the commencement of a dictator's term?
57304904947a6a140053d39f
Constitutional government would be dissolved
542
False
What type of offense was the harm of a tribute treated as?
57304904947a6a140053d3a0
capital offense
364
False
What was the ultimate source of the tribunes powers?
57304904947a6a140053d3a1
their sacrosanctity
298
False
Since the tribunes were considered to be the embodiment of the plebeians, they were sacrosanct. Their sacrosanctity was enforced by a pledge, taken by the plebeians, to kill any person who harmed or interfered with a tribune during his term of office. All of the powers of the tribune derived from their sacrosanctity. One consequence was that it was considered a capital offense to harm a tribune, to disregard his veto, or to interfere with a tribune. In times of military emergency, a dictator would be appointed for a term of six months. Constitutional government would be dissolved, and the dictator would be the absolute master of the state. When the dictator's term ended, constitutional government would be restored.
Where did the bulk of the cities populace live?
57304a87069b531400831ff7
the city center
463
False
What type of housing could be located in the city center?
57304a87069b531400831ff8
apartment blocks
492
False
From what local area in Rome is the word palace borrowed from?
57304a87069b531400831ff9
Palatine Hill
362
False
How many areas in Rome could be called hills?
57304a87069b531400831ffa
seven
75
False
Life in the Roman Republic revolved around the city of Rome, and its famed seven hills. The city also had several theatres, gymnasiums, and many taverns, baths and brothels. Throughout the territory under Rome's control, residential architecture ranged from very modest houses to country villas, and in the capital city of Rome, to the residences on the elegant Palatine Hill, from which the word "palace" is derived. The vast majority of the population lived in the city center, packed into apartment blocks.[citation needed]
What culture did Rome have an extreme amount of influence on?
57304c75069b53140083201b
European cultures
277
False
What language was commonly used in scholarly mathematical writings prior to the 19th century?
57304c75069b53140083201c
Latin
464
False
From which people were many facets of Roman culture copied from?
57304c75069b53140083201d
Greeks
53
False
What was considered to be the dominant language in the Roman Republic?
57304c75069b53140083201e
Latin
464
False
Many aspects of Roman culture were borrowed from the Greeks. In architecture and sculpture, the difference between Greek models and Roman paintings are apparent. The chief Roman contributions to architecture were the arch and the dome. Rome has also had a tremendous impact on European cultures following it. Its significance is perhaps best reflected in its endurance and influence, as is seen in the longevity and lasting importance of works of Virgil and Ovid. Latin, the Republic's primary language, remains used for liturgical purposes by the Roman Catholic Church, and up to the 19th century was used extensively in scholarly writings in, for example, science and mathematics. Roman law laid the foundations for the laws of many European countries and their colonies.[citation needed]
Around what percentage of the Roman populace were thought to be slaves?
57304e458ab72b1400f9c408
over 25%
665
False
Where in the Roman Republic could slaves be acquired?
57304e458ab72b1400f9c409
slave markets
61
False
Were slave masters allowed to free their slaves in the Roman Republic?
57304e458ab72b1400f9c40a
Many slaves were freed by the masters for services rendered
112
False
What branch of law did Rome lack?
57304e458ab72b1400f9c40b
law enforcement
327
False
Who was responsible for seeking justice in the Roman courts?
57304e458ab72b1400f9c40c
an accuser who was forced to prove the entire case himself
407
False
Slavery and slaves were part of the social order; there were slave markets where they could be bought and sold. Many slaves were freed by the masters for services rendered; some slaves could save money to buy their freedom. Generally, mutilation and murder of slaves was prohibited by legislation. However, Rome did not have a law enforcement arm. All actions were treated as "torts," which were brought by an accuser who was forced to prove the entire case himself. If the accused were a noble and the victim, not a noble, the likelihood of finding for the accused was small. At most, the accused might have to pay a fine for killing a slave. It is estimated that over 25% of the Roman population was enslaved.
What article of clothing could generally be found on a male Roman?
573050168ab72b1400f9c436
a toga
19
False
What garment was worn by male gendered adults to convey their status as a citizen of Rome?
573050168ab72b1400f9c437
toga virilis
731
False
What was typically worn after the loss of a loved one in the Roman Republic?
573050168ab72b1400f9c438
The toga pulla
934
False
Which official would wear a garment containing broad red striping?
573050168ab72b1400f9c439
Senators
477
False
How did a womans garment typically vary from a mans in the Roman Republic?
573050168ab72b1400f9c43a
usually brightly coloured
103
False
Men typically wore a toga, and women a stola. The woman's stola differed in looks from a toga, and was usually brightly coloured. The cloth and the dress distinguished one class of people from the other class. The tunic worn by plebeians, or common people, like shepherds and slaves, was made from coarse and dark material, whereas the tunic worn by patricians was of linen or white wool. A knight or magistrate would wear an augusticlavus, a tunic bearing small purple studs. Senators wore tunics with broad red stripes, called tunica laticlavia. Military tunics were shorter than the ones worn by civilians. Boys, up until the festival of Liberalia, wore the toga praetexta, which was a toga with a crimson or purple border. The toga virilis, (or toga pura) was worn by men over the age of 16 to signify their citizenship in Rome. The toga picta was worn by triumphant generals and had embroidery of their skill on the battlefield. The toga pulla was worn when in mourning.[citation needed]
When were the staple foods in the Roman republic typically eaten at?
5730519a8ab72b1400f9c450
11 o'clock
48
False
What did people in the Roman Republic use to consume solid foods?
5730519a8ab72b1400f9c451
Fingers were used
449
False
What type of food was cheese considered to be in Rome?
5730519a8ab72b1400f9c452
staple
4
False
What form of expression did the Roman Horace practice?
5730519a8ab72b1400f9c453
poet
200
False
What did Romans sit on when they had a meal at home?
5730519a8ab72b1400f9c454
stools
426
False
The staple foods were generally consumed around 11 o'clock, and consisted of bread, lettuce, cheese, fruits, nuts, and cold meat left over from the dinner the night before.[citation needed] The Roman poet Horace mentions another Roman favorite, the olive, in reference to his own diet, which he describes as very simple: "As for me, olives, endives, and smooth mallows provide sustenance." The family ate together, sitting on stools around a table. Fingers were used to eat solid foods and spoons were used for soups.[citation needed]
What beverage was consumed by all the classes in the Roman Republic?
57305311396df9190009606c
Wine
0
False
What was considered a compelling way to defame poltical rivals?
57305311396df9190009606d
An accurate accusation of being an alcoholic
450
False
During what meals was wine commonly drank?
57305311396df9190009606e
all meals
49
False
What was considered an indication of alcoholism in the Roman Republic?
57305311396df9190009606f
Drinking on an empty stomach
278
False
Wine was considered the basic drink, consumed at all meals and occasions by all classes and was quite inexpensive. Cato the Elder once advised cutting his rations in half to conserve wine for the workforce. Many types of drinks involving grapes and honey were consumed as well. Drinking on an empty stomach was regarded as boorish and a sure sign for alcoholism, the debilitating physical and psychological effects of which were known to the Romans. An accurate accusation of being an alcoholic was an effective way to discredit political rivals. Prominent Roman alcoholics included Mark Antony, and Cicero's own son Marcus (Cicero Minor). Even Cato the Younger was known to be a heavy drinker.[citation needed]
How did Romans develop their male children as Roman citizens?
573054b8396df9190009607e
physical training
152
False
Who could be expected to obtain guidance in the art of weaving?
573054b8396df9190009607f
Girls
316
False
What Roman art involved speeches made to the public?
573054b8396df91900096080
Oratory
761
False
When did academic schooling begin in the Roman Republic?
573054b8396df91900096081
around 200 BC
460
False
What caused the Romans to conform several educational concepts to their own system?
573054b8396df91900096082
various military conquests in the Greek East
10
False
Following various military conquests in the Greek East, Romans adapted a number of Greek educational precepts to their own fledgling system. They began physical training to prepare the boys to grow as Roman citizens and for eventual recruitment into the army. Conforming to discipline was a point of great emphasis. Girls generally received instruction from their mothers in the art of spinning, weaving, and sewing. Schooling in a more formal sense was begun around 200 BC. Education began at the age of around six, and in the next six to seven years, boys and girls were expected to learn the basics of reading, writing and counting. By the age of twelve, they would be learning Latin, Greek, grammar and literature, followed by training for public speaking. Oratory was an art to be practiced and learnt, and good orators commanded respect.[citation needed]
What was the primary language of the Romans?
5730564b069b53140083207b
Latin
38
False
What type of language is French considered to be?
5730564b069b53140083207c
Romance languages
534
False
What type of Latin was likely spoken in Rome?
5730564b069b53140083207d
Vulgar Latin
247
False
How would Vulgar Latin eventually differ from Classical Latin?
5730564b069b53140083207e
pronunciation
350
False
Which Germanic originating language densely acquired aspects from Latin?
5730564b069b53140083207f
English
716
False
The native language of the Romans was Latin. Although surviving Latin literature consists almost entirely of Classical Latin, an artificial and highly stylised and polished literary language from the 1st century BC, the actual spoken language was Vulgar Latin, which significantly differed from Classical Latin in grammar, vocabulary, and eventually pronunciation. Rome's expansion spread Latin throughout Europe, and over time Vulgar Latin evolved and dialectised in different locations, gradually shifting into a number of distinct Romance languages. Many of these languages, including French, Italian, Portuguese, Romanian and Spanish, flourished, the differences between them growing greater over time. Although English is Germanic rather than Roman in origin, English borrows heavily from Latin and Latin-derived words.[citation needed]
Who was responsible for massively affecting Roman literature?
573057fc2461fd1900a9cd95
Greek authors
67
False
Who was the author of the epic poem Aeneid?
573057fc2461fd1900a9cd96
Virgil
277
False
What style of literature could commonly be found in Roman works?
573057fc2461fd1900a9cd97
poetry
322
False
Which epic poem tells the tale of the founding of the city that one day would become Rome?
573057fc2461fd1900a9cd98
Aeneid
334
False
What Roman poet attempted to develop science in their poetry?
573057fc2461fd1900a9cd99
Lucretius
459
False
Roman literature was from its very inception influenced heavily by Greek authors. Some of the earliest works we possess are of historical epics telling the early military history of Rome. As the republic expanded, authors began to produce poetry, comedy, history, and tragedy. Virgil represents the pinnacle of Roman epic poetry. His Aeneid tells the story of flight of Aeneas from Troy and his settlement of the city that would become Rome.[citation needed] Lucretius, in his On the Nature of Things, attempted to explicate science in an epic poem. The genre of satire was common in Rome, and satires were written by, among others, Juvenal and Persius. The rhetorical works of Cicero are considered[by whom?] to be some of the best bodies of correspondence recorded in antiquity.[citation needed]
What was considered to be dominant part of normal life?
573059f08ab72b1400f9c490
Music
0
False
What language does the word Music see it's origins in?
573059f08ab72b1400f9c491
Greek
87
False
Could events in the Roman Republic often include music?
573059f08ab72b1400f9c492
Many private and public events were accompanied by music
134
False
What do many people consider to be the source of our modern musics familiarity with us?
573059f08ab72b1400f9c493
developments only within the last 1,000 years
436
False
Music was a major part of everyday life.[citation needed] The word itself derives from Greek μουσική (mousike), "(art) of the Muses". Many private and public events were accompanied by music, ranging from nightly dining to military parades and manoeuvres. In a discussion of any ancient music, however, non-specialists and even many musicians have to be reminded that much of what makes our modern music familiar to us is the result of developments only within the last 1,000 years; thus, our ideas of melody, scales, harmony, and even the instruments we use may not have been familiar to Romans who made and listened to music many centuries earlier.[citation needed]
What was a primary cause of the modification of Roman architectural elements?
57305ba3396df919000960ae
urban requirements changed
52
False
What Roman construction material has continued to be a mystery to this day?
57305ba3396df919000960af
Roman concrete
177
False
Do any Roman structures still exist in our time?
57305ba3396df919000960b0
even after more than 2,000 years some Roman structures still stand magnificently
219
False
What facet of the capital city was emulated by other urban centers in the Roman Republic?
57305ba3396df919000960b1
The architectural style
301
False
Over time, Roman architecture was modified as their urban requirements changed, and the civil engineering and building construction technology became developed and refined. The Roman concrete has remained a riddle, and even after more than 2,000 years some Roman structures still stand magnificently. The architectural style of the capital city was emulated by other urban centers under Roman control and influence. Roman cities were well planned, efficiently managed and neatly maintained.[citation needed]
What was the name of the area in which youth played and exercised?
57305d5e396df919000960b6
Campus Martius
40
False
What could you also call Rome's Campus Maritus?
57305d5e396df919000960b7
Field of Mars
57
False
What is the Roman board game Tabula a precursor to?
57305d5e396df919000960b8
backgammon
691
False
What was Roman version of Chess called?
57305d5e396df919000960b9
Latrunculi
565
False
The city of Rome had a place called the Campus Martius ("Field of Mars"), which was a sort of drill ground for Roman soldiers. Later, the Campus became Rome's track and field playground. In the campus, the youth assembled to play and exercise, which included jumping, wrestling, boxing and racing.[citation needed] Equestrian sports, throwing, and swimming were also preferred physical activities.[citation needed] In the countryside, pastimes included fishing and hunting.[citation needed] Board games played in Rome included dice (Tesserae or Tali), Roman Chess (Latrunculi), Roman Checkers (Calculi), Tic-tac-toe (Terni Lapilli), and Ludus duodecim scriptorum and Tabula, predecessors of backgammon. Other activities included chariot races, and musical and theatrical performances.[citation needed]
When did the Roman religion that is generally identified with the republic first established?
57305ed58ab72b1400f9c4a8
around 500 BC
177
False
Who did the Romans adapt several of their religious convictions from?
57305ed58ab72b1400f9c4a9
Greek
264
False
Where did a large amount of the deities that were worshiped in Roman civilization come from?
57305ed58ab72b1400f9c4aa
Proto-Indo-European pantheon
614
False
What religious element could be found in all Roman households?
57305ed58ab72b1400f9c4ab
an altar
438
False
What in Roman society was considered to be a temple to the gods?
57305ed58ab72b1400f9c4ac
each household
378
False
Roman religious beliefs date back to the founding of Rome, around 800 BC. However, the Roman religion commonly associated with the republic and early empire did not begin until around 500 BC, when Romans came in contact with Greek culture, and adopted many of the Greek religious beliefs. Private and personal worship was an important aspect of religious practices. In a sense, each household was a temple to the gods. Each household had an altar (lararium), at which the family members would offer prayers, perform rites, and interact with the household gods. Many of the gods that Romans worshiped came from the Proto-Indo-European pantheon, others were based on Greek gods. The two most famous deities were Jupiter (the king God) and Mars (the god of war). With its cultural influence spreading over most of the Mediterranean, Romans began accepting foreign gods into their own culture, as well as other philosophical traditions such as Cynicism and Stoicism.
Pacific_War
When do most people believe the Pacific War began?
572fbb69a23a5019007fc8ff
early December 1941
626
False
On what date did Japan attack Pearl Harbor?
572fbb69a23a5019007fc900
7/8 December 1941
57
False
When did the Second Sino-Japanese War begin?
572fbb69a23a5019007fc901
7 July 1937
351
False
Which countries did the Second Sino-Japanese War encompass?
572fbb69a23a5019007fc902
Empire of Japan and the Republic of China
426
False
Has Japan ever attacked Thailand?
572fbb69a23a5019007fc903
Japan invaded Thailand
90
False
What is the generally accepted date the Pacific War started?
5731b1060fdd8d15006c6465
7/8 December 1941
57
False
When did Japan invade Manchuria?
5731b1060fdd8d15006c6466
19 September 1931
481
False
What nation initiated hostilities?
5731b1060fdd8d15006c6467
Japan
90
False
What was the Pacific War theater part of after December 1941?
5731b1060fdd8d15006c6468
World War II
727
False
When did Japan invade China?
5731b1060fdd8d15006c6469
7 July 1937
351
False
It is generally considered that the Pacific War began on 7/8 December 1941, on which date Japan invaded Thailand and attacked the British possessions of Malaya, Singapore, and Hong Kong as well as the United States military bases in Hawaii, Wake Island, Guam and the Philippines. Some historians contend that the conflict in Asia can be dated back to 7 July 1937 with the beginning of the Second Sino-Japanese War between the Empire of Japan and the Republic of China, or possibly 19 September 1931, beginning with the Japanese invasion of Manchuria. However, it is more widely accepted that the Pacific War itself started in early December 1941, with the Sino-Japanese War then becoming part of it as a theater of the greater World War II.[nb 9]
What events ended the war with Japan?
572fc1d6a23a5019007fc997
atomic bombings of Hiroshima and Nagasaki
204
False
On what date did Japan surrender?
572fc1d6a23a5019007fc998
2 September 1945
573
False
Where did Japan's surrender occur?
572fc1d6a23a5019007fc999
aboard the battleship USS Missouri in Tokyo Bay
522
False
What changed in the ruling of Japan after the war?
572fc1d6a23a5019007fc99a
a new liberal-democratic constitution
855
False
What was the process called whereby the leader of Japan stepped down?
572fc1d6a23a5019007fc99b
Shinto Directive
682
False
What nation were the allies against?
5731b3cab9d445190005e47f
Japan
67
False
What nations comprised the Axis?
5731b3cab9d445190005e480
Germany and Italy
159
False
What cities were destroyed by atom bombs?
5731b3cab9d445190005e481
Hiroshima and Nagasaki
223
False
When did the Soviet Union invade Manchuria?
5731b3cab9d445190005e482
8 August 1945
372
False
The Pacific War saw the Allied powers pitted against the Empire of Japan, the latter briefly aided by Thailand and to a much lesser extent by its Axis allies, Germany and Italy. The war culminated in the atomic bombings of Hiroshima and Nagasaki, and other large aerial bomb attacks by the United States Army Air Forces, accompanied by the Soviet invasion of Manchuria on 8 August 1945, resulting in the Japanese announcement of intent to surrender on 15 August 1945. The formal and official surrender of Japan took place aboard the battleship USS Missouri in Tokyo Bay on 2 September 1945. Following its defeat, Japan's Shinto Emperor stepped down as the divine leader through the Shinto Directive, because the Allied Powers believed this was the major political cause of Japan's military aggression and deconstruction process soon took place to install a new liberal-democratic constitution to the Japanese public as the current Constitution of Japan.
By what name was the war with Japan referred?
572fc27ea23a5019007fc9a9
Greater East Asia War
20
False
What did Japanese officials call the war?
572fc27ea23a5019007fc9aa
Japan–China Incident
476
False
What was the reason Japan gave for the war?
572fc27ea23a5019007fc9ab
achieving their independence from the Western powers
304
False
What date was the new name of the war released?
572fc27ea23a5019007fc9ac
12 December
240
False
What name did Japan call the war?
5731b5c6e99e3014001e61fa
Greater East Asia War
20
False
When did Japan adobt the name for the war?
5731b5c6e99e3014001e61fb
10 December 1941
103
False
What was Japan's publicised war goal?
5731b5c6e99e3014001e61fc
independence from the Western powers
320
False
What did Japan call the occupied group of Asian nations?
5731b5c6e99e3014001e61fd
Greater East Asia Co-Prosperity Sphere
385
False
How was the name of the war chosen by Japan?
5731b5c6e99e3014001e61fe
by a cabinet decision
78
False
Japan used the name Greater East Asia War (大東亜戦争, Dai Tō-A Sensō?), as chosen by a cabinet decision on 10 December 1941, to refer to both the war with the Western Allies and the ongoing war in China. This name was released to the public on 12 December, with an explanation that it involved Asian nations achieving their independence from the Western powers through armed forces of the Greater East Asia Co-Prosperity Sphere. Japanese officials integrated what they called the Japan–China Incident (日支事変, Nisshi Jihen?) into the Greater East Asia War.
What role did Thailand play in the war?
572fc32da23a5019007fc9b1
temporary alliance
127
False
Which group controlled Chinese costal regions?
572fc32da23a5019007fc9b2
Wang Jingwei regime
576
False
Which army invaded Burma?
572fc32da23a5019007fc9b3
Phayap Army
258
False
Burma was formerly annexed by what country?
572fc32da23a5019007fc9b4
Britain
380
False
What states assisting Japan was Thailand a part of?
5731b7dce17f3d1400422307
Axis
4
False
What year did Thailand form an alliance with Japan?
5731b7dce17f3d1400422308
1941
167
False
What army invaded northeastern Burma?
5731b7dce17f3d1400422309
Phayap Army
258
False
What were the Japanese puppet states?
5731b7dce17f3d140042230a
Manchukuo and Mengjiang
451
False
Who controlled the coast of China?
5731b7dce17f3d140042230b
Wang Jingwei regime
576
False
The Axis states which assisted Japan included the authoritarian government of Thailand in World War II, which quickly formed a temporary alliance with the Japanese in 1941, as the Japanese forces were already invading the peninsula of southern Thailand. The Phayap Army sent troops to invade and occupy northeastern Burma, which was former Thai territory that had been annexed by Britain much earlier. Also involved were the Japanese puppet states of Manchukuo and Mengjiang (consisting of most of Manchuria and parts of Inner Mongolia respectively), and the collaborationist Wang Jingwei regime (which controlled the coastal regions of China).
Did the U.S. believe that Thailand was an Axis ally?
572fc3d204bcaa1900d76cab
not an ally
64
False
What does the U.S. believe caused Thailand to help Japan?
572fc3d204bcaa1900d76cac
blackmail
325
False
Is Thailand treated differently than other Axis countries?
572fc3d204bcaa1900d76cad
the same way
428
False
According to the USA, what country did Japan blackmail?
5731bc330fdd8d15006c64bb
Thailand
51
False
What nations were occupied by the Axis?
5731bc330fdd8d15006c64bc
Belgium, Czechoslovakia, Denmark, Greece, Norway, Poland, and the Netherlands
482
False
After 1945, how did the USA treat Thailand?
5731bc330fdd8d15006c64bd
not as a former enemy
223
False
Who occupied Thailand according to the USA?
5731bc330fdd8d15006c64be
Japanese troops
361
False
The official policy of the U.S. Government is that Thailand was not an ally of the Axis, and that the United States was not at war with Thailand. The policy of the U.S. Government ever since 1945 has been to treat Thailand not as a former enemy, but rather as a country which had been forced into certain actions by Japanese blackmail, before being occupied by Japanese troops. Thailand has been treated by the United States in the same way as such other Axis-occupied countries as Belgium, Czechoslovakia, Denmark, Greece, Norway, Poland, and the Netherlands.
Where did many of Japan's soldiers come from?
572fc767b2c2fd140056845b
Korea and Formosa
53
False
What type of soldiers came from Hong Kong?
572fc767b2c2fd140056845c
Collaborationist units
218
False
What other Asian country, a group of islands, helped the Japanese?
572fc767b2c2fd140056845d
Philippines
287
False
What colonies did Japan conscript soldiers from?
5731bdd7e17f3d140042236b
Korea and Formosa
53
False
What French forces assisted Japan?
5731bdd7e17f3d140042236c
Vichy
105
False
Who were the collaborators assisting Japan in Hong King?
5731bdd7e17f3d140042236d
ex-colonial police
266
False
Japan conscripted many soldiers from its colonies of Korea and Formosa (Taiwan). To a small extent, some Vichy French, Indian National Army, and Burmese National Army forces were active in the area of the Pacific War. Collaborationist units from Hong Kong (reformed ex-colonial police), Philippines, Dutch East Indies (the PETA) and Dutch Guinea, British Malaya and British Borneo, Inner Mongolia and former French Indochina (after the overthrow of Vichy French regime) as well as Timorese militia also assisted Japanese war efforts.
Did Mexico play a part in the war?
572fc83804bcaa1900d76d19
took part
446
False
On which side of the war were the Chinese?
572fc83804bcaa1900d76d1a
United States
39
False
What other major continent participated as an ally of the U.S.?
572fc83804bcaa1900d76d1b
Australia
174
False
What colonies did the Netherlands possess?
5731bfc80fdd8d15006c64f1
Dutch East Indies and the western part of New Guinea
263
False
What large Asian country was allied with the United States?
5731bfc80fdd8d15006c64f2
Republic of China
58
False
What was the name of the Philippines nation?
5731bfc80fdd8d15006c64f3
Commonwealth of the Philippines
189
False
What nation possessed the Dutch East Indies?
5731bfc80fdd8d15006c64f4
Netherlands
226
False
What nation possessed west New Guinea?
5731bfc80fdd8d15006c64f5
Netherlands
226
False
The major Allied participants were the United States, the Republic of China, the United Kingdom (including the armed forces of British India, the Fiji Islands, Samoa, etc.), Australia, the Commonwealth of the Philippines, the Netherlands (as the possessor of the Dutch East Indies and the western part of New Guinea), New Zealand, and Canada, all of whom were members of the Pacific War Council. Mexico, Free France and many other countries also took part, especially forces from other British colonies.
What incident occured on July 7, 1937?
572fc958a23a5019007fc9d5
Marco Polo Bridge Incident
81
False
Who supplied assistance to the Chinese military?
572fc958a23a5019007fc9d6
Soviet Union
286
False
When did the Nanking Massacre occur?
572fc958a23a5019007fc9d7
December 1937
639
False
Where was the first Nationalist victory?
572fc958a23a5019007fc9d8
Taierzhuang
765
False
How did people around the world react to Japan's Panay Incident?
572fc958a23a5019007fc9d9
condemned
1031
False
When was the Marco Polo Bridge Incident?
5731c137e99e3014001e6248
7 July 1937
111
False
What incident started the war between China and Japan?
5731c137e99e3014001e6249
Marco Polo Bridge Incident
81
False
What nation provided material support to China?
5731c137e99e3014001e624a
Soviet Union
286
False
What was the capital of China?
5731c137e99e3014001e624b
Nanking
628
False
When was Nanking captured?
5731c137e99e3014001e624c
December 1937
639
False
By 1937, Japan controlled Manchuria and was ready to move deeper into China. The Marco Polo Bridge Incident on 7 July 1937 provoked full-scale war between China and Japan. The Nationalist and Communist Chinese suspended their civil war to form a nominal alliance against Japan, and the Soviet Union quickly lent support by providing large amount of materiel to Chinese troops. In August 1937, Generalissimo Chiang Kai-shek deployed his best army to fight about 300,000 Japanese troops in Shanghai, but, after three months of fighting, Shanghai fell. The Japanese continued to push the Chinese forces back, capturing the capital Nanking in December 1937 and committed which was known as Nanking Massacre. In March 1938, Nationalist forces won their first victory at Taierzhuang. but then the city of Xuzhou was taken by Japanese in May. In June 1938, Japan deployed about 350,000 troops to invade Wuhan and captured it in October. The Japanese achieved major military victories, but world opinion—in particular in the United States—condemned Japan, especially after the Panay Incident.
Who controled Indochina in 1940?
572fca2d04bcaa1900d76d37
Vichy France
142
False
When did Japan invade Indochina?
572fca2d04bcaa1900d76d38
September 1940
3
False
Who were the Axis Powers along with Japan in 1940?
572fca2d04bcaa1900d76d39
Germany and Italy
332
False
Did Japan and Germany work closely together prior to 1944?
572fca2d04bcaa1900d76d3a
little coordination
413
False
When did Japan take over Indochina?
5731c82ee99e3014001e626e
September 1940
3
False
Who controlled Indochina before the Japanese takeover?
5731c82ee99e3014001e626f
Vichy France
142
False
When did Japan become an Axis power?
5731c82ee99e3014001e6270
27 September
281
False
How many nations comprised the Axis powers?
5731c82ee99e3014001e6271
three
371
False
How much coordination was there between Japan and Germany?
5731c82ee99e3014001e6272
little
413
False
In September 1940, Japan decided to cut China's only land line to the outside world by seizing Indochina, which was controlled at the time by Vichy France. Japanese forces broke their agreement with the Vichy administration and fighting broke out, ending in a Japanese victory. On 27 September Japan signed a military alliance with Germany and Italy, becoming one of the three Axis Powers. In practice, there was little coordination between Japan and Germany until 1944, by which time the U.S. was deciphering their secret diplomatic correspondence.
Why did the Chinese ultimately fail in its counter offensives?
572fcb7b04bcaa1900d76d3f
low military-industrial capacity
257
False
What policy did Japan adopt to retaliate against China?
572fcb7b04bcaa1900d76d40
"Three Alls Policy" ("Kill all, Burn all, Loot all")
459
False
What slowed the Japanese in their attacks on China?
572fcb7b04bcaa1900d76d41
mountainous terrain
1262
False
In what city did Japan set up a provisional capital?
572fcb7b04bcaa1900d76d42
Chungking
802
False
What was Japan's "Three Alls Policy"?
5731ca06e17f3d14004223f5
"Kill all, Burn all, Loot all"
480
False
What year did China and Japan reach a stalemate?
5731ca06e17f3d14004223f6
1941
592
False
Where was the Chinese provisional capital?
5731ca06e17f3d14004223f7
Chungking
802
False
What natural obsticles stalled the Japanese offensive against the Chinese?
5731ca06e17f3d14004223f8
mountainous terrain
1262
False
What group organised guerrilla warfare against the Japanese in China?
5731ca06e17f3d14004223f9
Communists
1314
False
The war entered a new phase with the unprecedented defeat of the Japanese at Battle of Suixian-Zaoyang and 1st Battle of Changsha. After these victories, Chinese nationalist forces launched a large-scale counter-offensive in early 1940; however, due to its low military-industrial capacity, it was repulsed by Japanese army in late March 1940. In August of 1940, Chinese communists launched an offensive in Central China; in retaliation, Japan instituted the "Three Alls Policy" ("Kill all, Burn all, Loot all") in occupied areas to reduce human and material resources for the communists. By 1941 the conflict had become a stalemate. Although Japan had occupied much of northern, central, and coastal China, the Nationalist Government had retreated to the interior with a provisional capital set up at Chungking while the Chinese communists remained in control of base areas in Shaanxi. In addition, Japanese control of northern and central China was somewhat tenuous, in that Japan was usually able to control railroads and the major cities ("points and lines"), but did not have a major military or administrative presence in the vast Chinese countryside. The Japanese found its aggression against the retreating and regrouping Chinese army was stalled by the mountainous terrain in southwestern China while the Communists organised widespread guerrilla and saboteur activities in northern and eastern China behind the Japanese front line.
Who was the leader of the Nationalist government?
572fcc4ba23a5019007fca03
Chiang Kai-shek
329
False
When did cooperation between communist and nationalist forces end?
572fcc4ba23a5019007fca04
January 1941
489
False
Did Japan support rival governments?
572fcc4ba23a5019007fca05
supporting several
207
False
When did the co-operation between Chinese nationalist forces and communists end?
5731cb260fdd8d15006c6531
January 1941
489
False
What was Wang Jingwei's government considered?
5731cb260fdd8d15006c6532
puppet
24
False
What government did Chiang Kai-shek lead?
5731cb260fdd8d15006c6533
Nationalist government
299
False
Japan sponsored several puppet governments, one of which was headed by Wang Jingwei. However, its policies of brutality toward the Chinese population, of not yielding any real power to these regimes, and of supporting several rival governments failed to make any of them a viable alternative to the Nationalist government led by Chiang Kai-shek. Conflicts between Chinese communist and nationalist forces vying for territory control behind enemy lines culminated in a major armed clash in January 1941, effectively ending their co-operation.
Which Japanese Admiral felt it was necessary to go to war with the U.S.?
572fcd1004bcaa1900d76d51
Sankichi Takahashi
461
False
Why was the Dutch East Indies important to Japan?
572fcd1004bcaa1900d76d52
oil reserves
111
False
In what year did the Greater East Asia Co-Prosperity Sphere expand?
572fcd1004bcaa1900d76d53
1940
165
False
What was the importance of the Dutch East Indies to Japan?
5731cd5be17f3d1400422423
oil reserves
111
False
Who said a showdown between Japan and the United States would be necessary?
5731cd5be17f3d1400422424
Admiral Sankichi Takahashi
453
False
By what year did Japanese strategists expand their concept of the Greater East Asia Co-Prosperity Sphere?
5731cd5be17f3d1400422425
1940
165
False
From as early as 1935 Japanese military strategists had concluded the Dutch East Indies were, because of their oil reserves, of considerable importance to Japan. By 1940 they had expanded this to include Indo-China, Malaya, and the Philippines within their concept of the Greater East Asia Co-Prosperity Sphere. Japanese troop build ups in Hainan, Taiwan, and Haiphong were noted, Japanese Army officers were openly talking about an inevitable war, and Admiral Sankichi Takahashi was reported as saying a showdown with the United States was necessary.
What did The West do to disuade Japan in China and French Indochina?
572fcdcab2c2fd1400568485
stopped selling oil, iron ore, and steel to Japan
202
False
Why was denying supplies important to the western countries?
572fcdcab2c2fd1400568486
denying it the raw materials needed to continue its activities
253
False
What were these embargoes called by the Japanese media?
572fcdcab2c2fd1400568487
"ABCD ("American-British-Chinese-Dutch")
672
False
Why did Western powers stop selling resources to Japan?
5731ced00fdd8d15006c655d
to discourage Japanese militarism
13
False
How did Japan view Western embargos?
5731ced00fdd8d15006c655e
as acts of aggression
411
False
What percent of oil made up Japan's domestic consumption?
5731ced00fdd8d15006c655f
about 80%
455
False
What did the Japanese media refer to the embargoes as?
5731ced00fdd8d15006c6560
"ABCD line"
730
False
In an effort to discourage Japanese militarism, Western powers including Australia, the United States, Britain, and the Dutch government in exile, which controlled the petroleum-rich Dutch East Indies, stopped selling oil, iron ore, and steel to Japan, denying it the raw materials needed to continue its activities in China and French Indochina. In Japan, the government and nationalists viewed these embargos as acts of aggression; imported oil made up about 80% of domestic consumption, without which Japan's economy, let alone its military, would grind to a halt. The Japanese media, influenced by military propagandists,[nb 10] began to refer to the embargoes as the "ABCD ("American-British-Chinese-Dutch") encirclement" or "ABCD line".
What would Japan accomplish by peace after their early victories?
572fcebd04bcaa1900d76d6f
recognize Japanese hegemony in Asia.
209
False
What was Japan's strategic goal in attacking America?
572fcebd04bcaa1900d76d70
defeated by reaching limited military objectives, not by total conquest
650
False
Did The Japanese believe they could defeate the U.S.?
572fcebd04bcaa1900d76d71
impossible
107
False
What did the Japanese military leadership think the chances were of complete military victory ove the United States?
5731d0ebe99e3014001e62e4
impossible
107
False
What did Japan want recognised in planned peace negotiations after their initial victories?
5731d0ebe99e3014001e62e5
Japanese hegemony in Asia
219
False
If acceptable negotiations btween Japan and the United States were reached, what would be done regarding the attacks?
5731d0ebe99e3014001e62e6
canceled
364
False
What was the conduct of the war against the United States based on?
5731d0ebe99e3014001e62e7
historical experiences
510
False
The Japanese leadership was aware that a total military victory in a traditional sense against the USA was impossible; the alternative would be negotiating for peace after their initial victories, which would recognize Japanese hegemony in Asia. In fact, the Imperial GHQ noted, should acceptable negotiations be reached with the Americans, the attacks were to be canceled—even if the order to attack had already been given. The Japanese leadership looked to base the conduct of the war against America on the historical experiences of the successful wars against China (1894–95) and Russia (1904–05), in both of which a strong continental power was defeated by reaching limited military objectives, not by total conquest.
How many U.S. battleships were incapacitated in the Pearl Harbor attacks?
572fd2e7947a6a140053cd0c
eight
196
False
How many Americans died in the Pearl Harbor attacks?
572fd2e7947a6a140053cd0d
2,403
275
False
Was America at war when Japan attacked Pearl Harbor?
572fd2e7947a6a140053cd0e
not officially at war
345
False
Why did Japan attack America?
572fd2e7947a6a140053cd0f
allow Japan free rein in Asia
661
False
What were the most vital American ships at the time of the attack?
572fd2e7947a6a140053cd10
aircraft carriers
792
False
When did Japan launch the aattack on Pearl Harbor?
5731d25ae17f3d140042244b
7 December
22
False
How many American battleships were put out of action in the attack on Pearl Harbor by Japan?
5731d25ae17f3d140042244c
eight
196
False
How many US citizens were killed in the attack on Pearl Harbor by Japan?
5731d25ae17f3d140042244d
2,403
275
False
How many aircraft did the United States lose in the attack on Pearl Harbor by Japan?
5731d25ae17f3d140042244e
188
238
False
Where were the American aircraft carriers during the attack on Pearl Harbor by Japan?
5731d25ae17f3d140042244f
at sea
873
False
In the early hours of 7 December (Hawaiian time), Japan launched a major surprise carrier-based air strike on Pearl Harbor without explicit warning, which crippled the U.S. Pacific Fleet, leaving eight American battleships out of action, 188 American aircraft destroyed, and 2,403 American citizens dead. At the time of the attack, the U.S. was not officially at war anywhere in the world, which means that the people killed or property destroyed at Pearl Harbor by the Japanese attack had a non-combatant status.[nb 11] The Japanese had gambled that the United States, when faced with such a sudden and massive blow, would agree to a negotiated settlement and allow Japan free rein in Asia. This gamble did not pay off. American losses were less serious than initially thought: The American aircraft carriers, which would prove to be more important than battleships, were at sea, and vital naval infrastructure (fuel oil tanks, shipyard facilities, and a power station), submarine base, and signals intelligence units were unscathed. Japan's fallback strategy, relying on a war of attrition to make the U.S. come to terms, was beyond the IJN's capabilities.
What program allowed America to sell military supplies to Britain and the Soviet Union?
572fd400b2c2fd14005684c7
Lend-Lease
227
False
On what day did the U.S. and its allies declar war on Japan?
572fd400b2c2fd14005684c8
8 December
307
False
How long after the Pearl Harbor attacks did Germany and Italy declare war?
572fd400b2c2fd14005684c9
Four days
455
False
Was Germany's declaration of war with the U.S. considered to be sound strategy?
572fd400b2c2fd14005684ca
strategic blunder
631
False
how many members did the America First Committee have?
5731e83d0fdd8d15006c6637
800,000
39
False
What group was opposed to American involvement in the war in Europe?
5731e83d0fdd8d15006c6638
America First Committee
54
False
When did the United States declare war on Japan?
5731e83d0fdd8d15006c6639
8 December
307
False
How many days after the attack on Pearl Harbor did Germany wait to declare war on the United States?
5731e83d0fdd8d15006c663a
Four
455
False
Who predicted Germany's declaration of war against the United States months before?
5731e83d0fdd8d15006c663b
Commander Arthur McCollum
766
False
Before the attack on Pearl Harbor, the 800,000-member America First Committee vehemently opposed any American intervention in the European conflict, even as America sold military aid to Britain and the Soviet Union through the Lend-Lease program. Opposition to war in the U.S. vanished after the attack. On 8 December, the United States, the United Kingdom, Canada, and the Netherlands declared war on Japan, followed by China and Australia the next day. Four days after Pearl Harbor, Nazi Germany and Fascist Italy declared war on the United States, drawing the country into a two-theater war. This is widely agreed to be a grand strategic blunder, as it abrogated the benefit Germany gained by Japan's distraction of the U.S. (predicted months before in a memo by Commander Arthur McCollum)[nb 12] and the reduction in aid to Britain, which both Congress and Hitler had managed to avoid during over a year of mutual provocation, which would otherwise have resulted.
What date was the first official use of the term United Nations?
5731ea33e17f3d140042253d
1 January 1942
99
False
Who was appointed to command the Allied forces in Southeast Asia in 1942?
5731ea33e17f3d140042253e
General Sir Archibald Wavell
160
False
When did General Wavell assume control of the Southheast Asia Allied forces?
5731ea33e17f3d140042253f
15 January
548
False
How spread out were the Allied forces in Southeastern Asia?
5731ea33e17f3d1400422540
thinly
361
False
Where did General Wavell command the Allied forces from?
5731ea33e17f3d1400422541
Bandung
575
False
Following the Declaration by United Nations (the first official use of the term United Nations) on 1 January 1942, the Allied governments appointed the British General Sir Archibald Wavell to the American-British-Dutch-Australian Command (ABDACOM), a supreme command for Allied forces in Southeast Asia. This gave Wavell nominal control of a huge force, albeit thinly spread over an area from Burma to the Philippines to northern Australia. Other areas, including India, Hawaii, and the rest of Australia remained under separate local commands. On 15 January Wavell moved to Bandung in Java to assume control of ABDACOM.
What islands did Japan invade?
5731ec3fe99e3014001e63ce
Solomon Islands
72
False
When did Allied forces surrender Singapore to the Japanese?
5731ec3fe99e3014001e63cf
15 February 1942
294
False
How many Allied prisoners did Japan take after the Battle of Singapore?
5731ec3fe99e3014001e63d0
about 130,000
312
False
When did General Wavell resign as commander of the Allied forces of Southeastern Asia?
5731ec3fe99e3014001e63d1
25 February
580
False
After Wavell resigned from ABDACOM, What post did he return to?
5731ec3fe99e3014001e63d2
Commander-in-Chief, India
675
False
In January, Japan invaded Burma, the Dutch East Indies, New Guinea, the Solomon Islands and captured Manila, Kuala Lumpur and Rabaul. After being driven out of Malaya, Allied forces in Singapore attempted to resist the Japanese during the Battle of Singapore but surrendered to the Japanese on 15 February 1942; about 130,000 Indian, British, Australian and Dutch personnel became prisoners of war. The pace of conquest was rapid: Bali and Timor also fell in February. The rapid collapse of Allied resistance had left the "ABDA area" split in two. Wavell resigned from ABDACOM on 25 February, handing control of the ABDA Area to local commanders and returning to the post of Commander-in-Chief, India.
When did the Chinese attack Burma?
5731f290e99e3014001e6400
March 1942
209
False
How many British soldiers were rescued by the Chinese 38th Division on April 16??
5731f290e99e3014001e6401
7,000
315
False
Who led the rescue of British forces during the Battle of Yenangyaung?
5731f290e99e3014001e6402
Sun Li-jen
464
False
How many of Chiang Kai-Shek's troops were controlled by warlords?
5731f290e99e3014001e6403
550,000
1162
False
What was Chiang Kai-Shek's strongest army?
5731f290e99e3014001e6404
Szechuan army
1260
False
In Burma the British, under intense pressure, made a fighting retreat from Rangoon to the Indo-Burmese border. This cut the Burma Road which was the western Allies' supply line to the Chinese Nationalists. In March 1942, Chinese Expeditionary Force started to attack Japanese forces in northern Burma. On 16 April, 7,000 British soldiers were encircled by the Japanese 33rd Division during the Battle of Yenangyaung and rescued by the Chinese 38th Division led by Sun Li-jen. Cooperation between the Chinese Nationalists and the Communists had waned from its zenith at the Battle of Wuhan, and the relationship between the two had gone sour as both attempted to expand their area of operations in occupied territories. Most of the Nationalist guerrilla areas were eventually overtaken by the Communists. On the other hand, some Nationalist units were deployed to blockade the Communists and not the Japanese. Furthermore, many of the forces of the Chinese Nationalists were warlords allied to Chiang Kai-Shek, but not directly under his command. "Of the 1,200,000 troops under Chiang's control, only 650,000 were directly controlled by his generals, and another 550,000 controlled by warlords who claimed loyalty to his government; the strongest force was the Szechuan army of 320,000 men. The defeat of this army would do much to end Chiang's power." The Japanese exploited this lack of unity to press ahead in their offensives.
How many Australian divisions steamed from the Mid-East for Singapore?
5731f87ae17f3d1400422593
Two
0
False
Where did Churchill want the Australian divisions bound for Singapore to be diverted to?
5731f87ae17f3d1400422594
Burma
122
False
What Japanese group opposed an invasion of Australia?
5731f87ae17f3d1400422595
Japanese Army
267
False
What was the capital of Papua?
5731f87ae17f3d1400422596
Port Moresby
488
False
What country did Japan isolate Australia from with a blockade?
5731f87ae17f3d1400422597
United States
372
False
Two battle-hardened Australian divisions were steaming from the Mid-East for Singapore. Churchill wanted them diverted to Burma, but Curtin insisted on a return to Australia. In early 1942 elements of the Imperial Japanese Navy proposed an invasion of Australia. The Japanese Army opposed the plan and it was rejected in favour of a policy of isolating Australia from the United States via blockade by advancing through the South Pacific. The Japanese decided upon a seaborne invasion of Port Moresby, capital of the Australian Territory of Papua which would put Northern Australia within range of Japanese bomber aircraft.
Who ordered General MacArthur to make a defense plan with Australia?
5731fa3c0fdd8d15006c66b1
President Franklin Roosevelt
0
False
When was General MacArthur ordered to make a defense plan with Australia?
5731fa3c0fdd8d15006c66b2
March 1942
136
False
Who was the Supreme Commander of the South West Allied forces?
5731fa3c0fdd8d15006c66b3
MacArthur
210
False
Where was MacArthur's headquarters moved to in March of 1942?
5731fa3c0fdd8d15006c66b4
Melbourne
306
False
How many Japanese submarines shelled Sydney on June 8, 1942?
5731fa3c0fdd8d15006c66b5
two
522
False
President Franklin Roosevelt ordered General Douglas MacArthur in the Philippines to formulate a Pacific defence plan with Australia in March 1942. Curtin agreed to place Australian forces under the command of MacArthur who became Supreme Commander, South West Pacific. MacArthur moved his headquarters to Melbourne in March 1942 and American troops began massing in Australia. Enemy naval activity reached Sydney in late May 1942, when Japanese midget submarines launched a daring raid on Sydney Harbour. On 8 June 1942, two Japanese submarines briefly shelled Sydney's eastern suburbs and the city of Newcastle.
When was the Pacific War Council formed in Washingto D.C.?
5731fe53e17f3d14004225bb
1 April 1942
344
False
What American president was a member of the Pacific War Council?
5731fe53e17f3d14004225bc
President Franklin D. Roosevelt
363
False
Who was President Roosevelt's key advisor?
5731fe53e17f3d14004225bd
Harry Hopkins
412
False
Where was the U.S.-UK Combined Chiefs of Staff located?
5731fe53e17f3d14004225be
Washington
739
False
Where was the Australian and Dutch guerilla campaign led?
5731fe53e17f3d14004225bf
Portuguese Timor
895
False
In early 1942, the governments of smaller powers began to push for an inter-governmental Asia-Pacific war council, based in Washington, D.C.. A council was established in London, with a subsidiary body in Washington. However, the smaller powers continued to push for an American-based body. The Pacific War Council was formed in Washington, on 1 April 1942, with President Franklin D. Roosevelt, his key advisor Harry Hopkins, and representatives from Britain, China, Australia, the Netherlands, New Zealand, and Canada. Representatives from India and the Philippines were later added. The council never had any direct operational control, and any decisions it made were referred to the U.S.-UK Combined Chiefs of Staff, which was also in Washington. Allied resistance, at first symbolic, gradually began to stiffen. Australian and Dutch forces led civilians in a prolonged guerilla campaign in Portuguese Timor.
What American carrier joined the USS Yorktown to stop the Japanese attack on Port Moresby in 1942?
573201de0fdd8d15006c66d9
USS Lexington
629
False
What admiral was the USS Lexington under?
573201de0fdd8d15006c66da
Admiral Fletcher
649
False
When was the Battle of the Coral Sea fought?
573201de0fdd8d15006c66db
May 1942
803
False
What American carrier was sunk in the Battle of the Coral Sea?
573201de0fdd8d15006c66dc
Lexington
953
False
What Japanese carrier was lost in the Battle of the Coral Sea?
573201de0fdd8d15006c66dd
Shōhō
1034
False
By mid-1942, the Japanese found themselves holding a vast area from the Indian Ocean to the Central Pacific, even though they lacked the resources to defend or sustain it. Moreover, Combined Fleet doctrine was inadequate to execute the proposed "barrier" defence. Instead, Japan decided on additional attacks in both the south and central Pacific. While she had the element of surprise at Pearl Harbor, Allied codebreakers had now turned the tables. They discovered an attack was planned against Port Moresby; if it fell, Japan would control the seas to the north and west of Australia and could isolate the country. The carrier USS Lexington under Admiral Fletcher joined USS Yorktown and an American-Australian task force to stop the Japanese advance. The resulting Battle of the Coral Sea, fought in May 1942, was the first naval battle in which ships involved never sighted each other and only aircraft were used to attack opposing forces. Although Lexington was sunk and Yorktown seriously damaged, the Japanese lost the carrier Shōhō, and suffered extensive damage to Shōkaku and heavy losses to the air wing of Zuikaku, both of which missed the operation against Midway the following month. Although Allied losses were heavier than Japanese, the attack on Port Moresby was thwarted and the Japanese invasion force turned back, a strategic victory for the Allies. The Japanese were forced to abandon their attempts to isolate Australia. Moreover, Japan lacked the capacity to replace losses in ships, planes and trained pilots.
In Yamamoto's plan, what northern islands were to be attacked?
5732034c0fdd8d15006c66e3
Aleutian Islands
46
False
What was the second stage objective of Yamaoto's plan?
5732034c0fdd8d15006c66e4
capture of Midway
106
False
How many planes did Nagumo have for the Midway invasion?
5732034c0fdd8d15006c66e5
272
676
False
How many planes did the United States have in the Battle of Midway?
5732034c0fdd8d15006c66e6
348
730
False
How many U.S. planes were land-based?
5732034c0fdd8d15006c66e7
115
735
False
A Japanese force was sent north to attack the Aleutian Islands. The next stage of the plan called for the capture of Midway, which would give him an opportunity to destroy Nimitz's remaining carriers. In May, Allied codebreakers discovered his intentions. Nagumo was again in tactical command but was focused on the invasion of Midway; Yamamoto's complex plan had no provision for intervention by Nimitz before the Japanese expected him. Planned surveillance of the U.S. fleet by long range seaplane did not happen (as a result of an abortive identical operation in March), so Fletcher's carriers were able to proceed to a flanking position without being detected. Nagumo had 272 planes operating from his four carriers, the U.S. 348 (115 land-based).
When did the Japanese fleet arrive off Midway?
573204dab9d445190005e731
4 June
67
False
How many TBD Devastator torpedo bombers were lauched from the Hornet?
573204dab9d445190005e732
15
466
False
How many carriers did Nagumo have at the Battle of Midway?
573204dab9d445190005e733
four
999
False
How many times did Nagumo change orders for arming his aircraft?
573204dab9d445190005e734
twice
1360
False
What were on the decks of the Japanese aircraft carriers when the American dive bobers attacked?
573204dab9d445190005e735
munitions
1509
False
As anticipated by Nimitz, the Japanese fleet arrived off Midway on 4 June and was spotted by PBY patrol aircraft. Nagumo executed a first strike against Midway, while Fletcher launched his aircraft, bound for Nagumo's carriers. At 09:20 the first U.S. carrier aircraft arrived, TBD Devastator torpedo bombers from Hornet, but their attacks were poorly coordinated and ineffectual; thanks in part to faulty aerial torpedoes, they failed to score a single hit and all 15 were wiped out by defending Zero fighters. At 09:35, 15 additional TBDs from Enterprise attacked in which 14 were lost, again with no hits. Thus far, Fletcher's attacks had been disorganized and seemingly ineffectual, but they succeeded in drawing Nagumo's defensive fighters down to sea level where they expended much of their fuel and ammunition repulsing the two waves of torpedo bombers. As a result, when U.S. dive bombers arrived at high altitude, the Zeros were poorly positioned to defend. To make matters worse, Nagumo's four carriers had drifted out of formation in their efforts to avoid torpedoes, reducing the concentration of their anti-aircraft fire. Nagumo's indecision had also created confusion aboard his carriers. Alerted to the need of a second strike on Midway, but also wary of the need to deal with the American carriers that he now knew were in the vicinity, Nagumo twice changed the arming orders for his aircraft. As a result, the American dive bombers found the Japanese carriers with their decks cluttered with munitions as the crews worked hastily to properly re-arm their air groups.
At what altitude did the American dive bombers commence their attck on the Japanese carriers?
57320a3eb9d445190005e771
10,000 feet
153
False
Which Japanese carrier survived the first wave of American dive bombers in the Battle of Midway.
57320a3eb9d445190005e772
Hiryū
367
False
Who won the Battle of Midway?
57320a3eb9d445190005e773
Allies
944
False
How many fleet carriers were lost by the Japanese in the Battle of Midway?
57320a3eb9d445190005e774
four
1085
False
With the Japanese CAP out of position and the carriers at their most vulnerable, SBD Dauntlesses from Enterprise and Yorktown appeared at an altitude of 10,000 feet (3,000 m) and commenced their attack, quickly dealing fatal blows to three fleet carriers: Sōryū, Kaga, and Akagi. Within minutes, all three were ablaze and had to be abandoned with great loss of life. Hiryū managed to survive the wave of dive bombers and launched a counter-attack against the American carriers which caused severe damage to Yorktown (which was later finished off by a Japanese submarine). However, a second attack from the U.S. carriers a few hours later found and destroyed Hiryū, the last remaining fleet carrier available to Nagumo. With his carriers lost and the Americans withdrawn out of range of his powerful battleships, Yamamoto was forced to call off the operation, leaving Midway in American hands. The battle proved to be a decisive victory for the Allies. For the second time, Japanese expansion had been checked and its formidable Combined Fleet was significantly weakened by the loss of four fleet carriers and many highly trained, virtually irreplaceable, personnel. Japan would be largely on the defensive for the rest of the war.
What mountains did the Australian battalions fight a rearguard action over on the Kokoda Track?
57320c95e99e3014001e6494
Owen Stanley Ranges
312
False
What forces releived the worn Australian reserve battalions?
57320c95e99e3014001e6495
Second Australian Imperial Force
448
False
In 1942, what Australian Air Force base was attacked by Japanese marines?
57320c95e99e3014001e6496
Milne Bay
631
False
Where was Milne Bay located in New Guinea?
57320c95e99e3014001e6497
eastern tip
651
False
What theater did the Second Australian Imperial Force come from before they relieved the reserve battalions in New Guinea?
57320c95e99e3014001e6498
Mediterranean
511
False
Japanese land forces continued to advance in the Solomon Islands and New Guinea. From July 1942, a few Australian reserve battalions, many of them very young and untrained, fought a stubborn rearguard action in New Guinea, against a Japanese advance along the Kokoda Track, towards Port Moresby, over the rugged Owen Stanley Ranges. The militia, worn out and severely depleted by casualties, were relieved in late August by regular troops from the Second Australian Imperial Force, returning from action in the Mediterranean theater. In early September 1942 Japanese marines attacked a strategic Royal Australian Air Force base at Milne Bay, near the eastern tip of New Guinea. They were beaten back by Allied (primarily Australian Army) forces.
Where were most of the Japanese aircraft in the South Pacific redeployed to defend?
57320f73e99e3014001e64a8
Guadalcanal
292
False
Where did Japanese ground attack repeatedly?forces
57320f73e99e3014001e64a9
Henderson Field
531
False
What did the Allies call the Japanese convoys supplying the ground forces attacking Henderson Field?
57320f73e99e3014001e64aa
"Tokyo Express"
679
False
What was the reason for the name "Ironbottom Sound" of the water stretches new Guadalcanal?
57320f73e99e3014001e64ab
the multitude of ships sunk
1012
False
When did the Japanese give up trying to recapture Henderson Field?
57320f73e99e3014001e64ac
February 1943
1304
False
With Japanese and Allied forces occupying various parts of the island, over the following six months both sides poured resources into an escalating battle of attrition on land, at sea, and in the sky. Most of the Japanese aircraft based in the South Pacific were redeployed to the defense of Guadalcanal. Many were lost in numerous engagements with the Allied air forces based at Henderson Field as well as carrier based aircraft. Meanwhile, Japanese ground forces launched repeated attacks on heavily defended US positions around Henderson Field, in which they suffered appalling casualties. To sustain these offensives, resupply was carried out by Japanese convoys, termed the "Tokyo Express" by the Allies. The convoys often faced night battles with enemy naval forces in which they expended destroyers that the IJN could ill-afford to lose. Later fleet battles involving heavier ships and even daytime carrier battles resulted in a stretch of water near Guadalcanal becoming known as "Ironbottom Sound" from the multitude of ships sunk on both sides. However, the Allies were much better able to replace these losses. Finally recognizing that the campaign to recapture Henderson Field and secure Guadalcanal had simply become too costly to continue, the Japanese evacuated the island and withdrew in February 1943. In the sixth month war of attrition, the Japanese had lost as a result of failing to commit enough forces in sufficient time.
Where were the 40th, 3rd, and 6th divisions massed at in China?
57321329e17f3d1400422669
Yueyang
71
False
What is the first river that the 40th, 3rd, and 6th Japanese divisions crossed while advancing southward?
57321329e17f3d140042266a
Xinqiang River
135
False
What is the river that the 40th, 3rd, and 6th Japanese divisions tried crossing to reach Changsha?
57321329e17f3d140042266b
Miluo River
180
False
How many Chinese civilians were estimated to have died during the Japanese Zhejiang-Jiangxi Campaign?
57321329e17f3d140042266c
250,000
951
False
Who commanded the Imperial Japanese 11th Army on November, 1943?
57321329e17f3d140042266d
Isamu Yokoyama
1162
False
In mainland China, the Japanese 3rd, 6th, and 40th Divisions massed at Yueyang and advanced southward in three columns and crossed the Xinqiang River, and tried again to cross the Miluo River to reach Changsha. In January 1942, Chinese forces got a victory at Changsha which was the first Allied success against Japan. After the Doolittle Raid, the Japanese army conducted a massive sweep through Zhejiang and Jiangxi of China, now known as the Zhejiang-Jiangxi Campaign, with the goal of searching out the surviving American airmen, applying retribution on the Chinese who aided them and destroying air bases. This operation started on 15 May 1942 with 40 infantry battalions and 15–16 artillery battalions but was repelled by Chinese forces in September. During this campaign, The Imperial Japanese Army left behind a trail of devastation and had also spread cholera, typhoid, plague and dysentery pathogens. Chinese estimates put the death toll at 250,000 civilians. Around 1,700 Japanese troops died out of a total 10,000 Japanese soldiers who fell ill with disease when their own biological weapons attack rebounded on their own forces. On 2 November 1943, Isamu Yokoyama, commander of the Imperial Japanese 11th Army, deployed the 39th, 58th, 13th, 3rd, 116th and 68th divisions, a grand total of around 100,000 troops, to attack Changde of China. During the seven-week Battle of Changde, the Chinese forced Japan to fight a costly war of attrition. Although the Japanese army initially successfully captured the city, the Chinese 57th division was able to pin them down long enough for reinforcements to arrive and encircle the Japanese. The Chinese army then cut off the Japanese supply lines, forcing them into retreat, whereupon the Chinese pursued their enemy. During the battle, in an act of desperation, Japan used chemical weapons. In the aftermath of the Japanese conquest of Burma, there was widespread disorder in eastern India, and a disastrous famine in Bengal, which ultimately caused up to 3 million deaths. In spite of these, and inadequate lines of communication, British and Indian forces attempted limited counter-attacks in Burma in early 1943. An offensive in Arakan failed, while a long distance raid mounted by the Chindits under Brigadier Orde Wingate suffered heavy losses, but was publicized to bolster Allied morale. It also provoked the Japanese to mount major offensives themselves the following year.
What Allied command replaced the British India Command in August, 1943?
573215140fdd8d15006c6771
South East Asia Command
39
False
Who was appointed Supreme Commander of the SEAC in October, 1943?
573215140fdd8d15006c6772
Admiral Lord Louis Mountbatten
220
False
Who was deputy commander to Mountbatten?
573215140fdd8d15006c6773
General Joseph Stilwell
460
False
What was the name of the new link between India and China by land?
573215140fdd8d15006c6774
Ledo Road
642
False
The British and Indian Fourteenth Army was formed to take on what force?
573215140fdd8d15006c6775
Japanese in Burma
339
False
In August 1943 the Allies formed a new South East Asia Command (SEAC) to take over strategic responsibilities for Burma and India from the British India Command, under Wavell. In October 1943 Winston Churchill appointed Admiral Lord Louis Mountbatten as its Supreme Commander. The British and Indian Fourteenth Army was formed to face the Japanese in Burma. Under Lieutenant General William Slim, its training, morale and health greatly improved. The American General Joseph Stilwell, who also was deputy commander to Mountbatten and commanded U.S. forces in the China Burma India Theater, directed aid to China and prepared to construct the Ledo Road to link India and China by land.
What did the United States turn it's industry to in the two years folloing the Battle of Midway?
573216a9e99e3014001e64ec
increased numbers of ships, planes, and trained aircrew
148
False
How were the bypassed Japanese strongholds neutralized?
573216a9e99e3014001e64ed
air attack
628
False
What blockade against Japan  was to be improved on?
573216a9e99e3014001e64ee
submarine blockade
751
False
Midway proved to be the last great naval battle for two years. The United States used the ensuing period to turn its vast industrial potential into increased numbers of ships, planes, and trained aircrew. At the same time, Japan, lacking an adequate industrial base or technological strategy, a good aircrew training program, or adequate naval resources and commerce defense, fell further and further behind. In strategic terms the Allies began a long movement across the Pacific, seizing one island base after another. Not every Japanese stronghold had to be captured; some, like Truk, Rabaul, and Formosa, were neutralized by air attack and bypassed. The goal was to get close to Japan itself, then launch massive strategic air attacks, improve the submarine blockade, and finally (only if necessary) execute an invasion.
What type of vessels were part of a major role in defeating Japan?
573217e8e17f3d140042267d
submarines
5
False
What percent did submarines make up in the US Navy fighting Japan?
573217e8e17f3d140042267e
two percent
336
False
What did submarines sinking Japanese ships do?
573217e8e17f3d140042267f
strangled Japan
387
False
What happened to the Japanese fleet when nearly all oil imports were cut off?
573217e8e17f3d1400422680
virtually stranded
641
False
U.S. submarines, as well as some British and Dutch vessels, operating from bases at Cavite in the Philippines (1941–42); Fremantle and Brisbane, Australia; Pearl Harbor; Trincomalee, Ceylon; Midway; and later Guam, played a major role in defeating Japan, even though submarines made up a small proportion of the Allied navies—less than two percent in the case of the US Navy. Submarines strangled Japan by sinking its merchant fleet, intercepting many troop transports, and cutting off nearly all the oil imports essential to weapons production and military operations. By early 1945 Japanese oil supplies were so limited that its fleet was virtually stranded.
What percentage of Japanese merchantmen were sunk by U.S. submarines?
573218e70fdd8d15006c679d
56%
30
False
What percentage of Japanese warships were sunk by U.S. submarines?
573218e70fdd8d15006c679e
28%
142
False
What future U.S. president was rescued by a submarine?
573218e70fdd8d15006c679f
George H.W. Bush
551
False
What was one of the important roles submarine played in the war?
573218e70fdd8d15006c67a0
reconnaissance roles
213
False
U.S. submarines accounted for 56% of the Japanese merchantmen sunk; mines or aircraft destroyed most of the rest. US submariners also claimed 28% of Japanese warships destroyed. Furthermore, they played important reconnaissance roles, as at the battles of the Philippine Sea (June 1944) and Leyte Gulf (October 1944) (and, coincidentally,[clarification needed] at Midway in June 1942), when they gave accurate and timely warning of the approach of the Japanese fleet. Submarines also rescued hundreds of downed fliers, including future U.S. president George H.W. Bush.
What doctrine did Roosevelt give for submarines against Japan?
57321a7fb9d445190005e7eb
unrestricted submarine warfare
198
False
Who was the Dutch Admiral in charge of the East Indies?
57321a7fb9d445190005e7ec
Conrad Helfrich
505
False
What was the nickname given to the Dutch Admiral in charge of the East Indies?
57321a7fb9d445190005e7ed
"Ship-a-day Helfrich"
740
False
What was the first Japanese warship to be sunk by submarine?
57321a7fb9d445190005e7ee
Sagiri
903
False
When was the first Japanese warship sunk by a submarine?
57321a7fb9d445190005e7ef
24 December 1941
831
False
Allied submarines did not adopt a defensive posture and wait for the enemy to attack. Within hours after the Pearl Harbor attack, in retribution against Japan, Roosevelt promulgated a new doctrine: unrestricted submarine warfare against Japan. This meant sinking any warship, commercial vessel, or passenger ship in Axis-controlled waters, without warning and without help to survivors.[nb 13] At the outbreak of the war in the Pacific the Dutch Admiral in charge of the naval defense of the East Indies, Conrad Helfrich, gave instructions to wage war aggressively. His small force of submarines sank more Japanese ships in the first weeks of the war than the entire British and US navies together, an exploit which earned him the nickname "Ship-a-day Helfrich". The Dutch force were in fact the first to sink an enemy warship; On 24 December 1941, HNLMS K XVI torpedoed and sank the Japanese destroyer Sagiri.
What doctrine stated that only fleet battles could win naval campaigns?
57321d690fdd8d15006c67af
Imperial Japanese Navy
202
False
What was commerce raiding refered to as?
57321d690fdd8d15006c67b0
guerre de course
293
False
What was the primary use of Japanese submarines?
57321d690fdd8d15006c67b1
long-range reconnaissance
534
False
When was the Japanese submarine offensive against Australia?
57321d690fdd8d15006c67b2
1942 and 1943
664
False
What did the Japanese submarine offensive against Austrailia achieve?
57321d690fdd8d15006c67b3
little
692
False
While Japan had a large number of submarines, they did not make a significant impact on the war. In 1942, the Japanese fleet subs performed well, knocking out or damaging many Allied warships. However, Imperial Japanese Navy (and pre-war U.S.) doctrine stipulated that only fleet battles, not guerre de course (commerce raiding) could win naval campaigns. So, while the US had an unusually long supply line between its west coast and frontline areas, leaving it vulnerable to submarine attack, Japan used its submarines primarily for long-range reconnaissance and only occasionally attacked U.S. supply lines. The Japanese submarine offensive against Australia in 1942 and 1943 also achieved little.
What did the US Navy rely on?
57321ec20fdd8d15006c67c3
commerce raiding
38
False
What led to guerrilla submarine missions in early 1942?
57321ec20fdd8d15006c67c4
Allied forces surrounded in the Philippines
96
False
What did Admiral Nimitze rely on submarines for?
57321ec20fdd8d15006c67c5
close surveillance of enemy bases
402
False
When were the defective torpedo problems of the US Navy corrected?
57321ec20fdd8d15006c67c6
September 1943
573
False
What was the "maru code"?
57321ec20fdd8d15006c67c7
Japanese merchant marine code
677
False
The U.S. Navy, by contrast, relied on commerce raiding from the outset. However, the problem of Allied forces surrounded in the Philippines, during the early part of 1942, led to diversion of boats to "guerrilla submarine" missions. As well, basing in Australia placed boats under Japanese aerial threat while en route to patrol areas, reducing their effectiveness, and Nimitz relied on submarines for close surveillance of enemy bases. Furthermore, the standard-issue Mark 14 torpedo and its Mark VI exploder both proved defective, problems which were not corrected until September 1943. Worst of all, before the war, an uninformed US Customs officer had seized a copy of the Japanese merchant marine code (called the "maru code" in the USN), not knowing that the Office of Naval Intelligence (ONI) had broken it. The Japanese promptly changed it, and the new code was not broken again by OP-20G until 1943.
When did the US Navy begin to use it's submarines to maximum effect?
5732201b0fdd8d15006c67d7
1944
14
False
How many Japanese ships were sunk in 1942 by United States submarines?
5732201b0fdd8d15006c67d8
180
561
False
How many Japanese merchant ships did Allied submarines sink during the war?
5732201b0fdd8d15006c67d9
1,200
778
False
How many Japanese carriers were sunk during the war?
5732201b0fdd8d15006c67da
eight
1260
False
How many Japanese ships were sunk in 1944 by United States submarines?
5732201b0fdd8d15006c67db
603
614
False
Thus, only in 1944 did the U.S. Navy begin to use its 150 submarines to maximum effect: installing effective shipboard radar, replacing commanders deemed lacking in aggression, and fixing the faults in the torpedoes. Japanese commerce protection was "shiftless beyond description,"[nb 14] and convoys were poorly organized and defended compared to Allied ones, a product of flawed IJN doctrine and training – errors concealed by American faults as much as Japanese overconfidence. The number of U.S. submarines patrols (and sinkings) rose steeply: 350 patrols (180 ships sunk) in 1942, 350 (335) in 1943, and 520 (603) in 1944. By 1945, sinkings of Japanese vessels had decreased because so few targets dared to venture out on the high seas. In all, Allied submarines destroyed 1,200 merchant ships – about five million tons of shipping. Most were small cargo-carriers, but 124 were tankers bringing desperately needed oil from the East Indies. Another 320 were passenger ships and troop transports. At critical stages of the Guadalcanal, Saipan, and Leyte campaigns, thousands of Japanese troops were killed or diverted from where they were needed. Over 200 warships were sunk, ranging from many auxiliaries and destroyers to one battleship and no fewer than eight carriers.
What was the code name for the mid-1944 offensive across China?
573221bb0fdd8d15006c67e1
Operation Ichi-Go
112
False
What was the largest Japanese offensive in World War II?
573221bb0fdd8d15006c67e2
Operation Ichi-Go
112
False
Where did the Chinese stop the Operation Ichi-Go incursion?
573221bb0fdd8d15006c67e3
Guangxi
699
False
Who was able to take advantage of the social confusion created by Operation Ichi-Go?
573221bb0fdd8d15006c67e4
Chinese Communist guerrillas
1304
False
How many casualties did the Japanese suffer during Operation Ichi-Go?
573221bb0fdd8d15006c67e5
about 100,000
551
False
In mid-1944 Japan mobilized over 500,000 men  and launched a massive operation across China under the code name Operation Ichi-Go, their largest offensive of World War II, with the goal of connecting Japanese-controlled territory in China and French Indochina and capturing airbases in southeastern China where American bombers were based. During this time, many of the newest American-trained Chinese units and supplies were forcibly locked in the Burmese theater under Joseph Stilwell set by terms of the Lend-Lease Agreement. Though Japan suffered about 100,000 casualties, these attacks, the biggest in several years, gained much ground for Japan before Chinese forces stopped the incursions in Guangxi. Despite major tactical victories, the operation overall failed to provide Japan with any significant strategic gains. A great majority of the Chinese forces were able to retreat out of the area, and later come back to attack Japanese positions such as Battle of West Hunan. Japan was not any closer in defeating China after this operation, and the constant defeats the Japanese suffered in the Pacific meant that Japan never got the time and resources needed to achieve final victory over China. Operation Ichi-go created a great sense of social confusion in the areas of China that it affected. Chinese Communist guerrillas were able to exploit this confusion to gain influence and control of greater areas of the countryside in the aftermath of Ichi-go.
What command prepared offensives into Burma after the Allied setbacks in 1943?
573223b8b9d445190005e833
South East Asia command
39
False
Who led Chinese and American troops for NCAC?
573223b8b9d445190005e834
Joseph Stilwell
254
False
What road did the NCAC extend into northern Burma?
573223b8b9d445190005e835
Ledo Road
291
False
Who advanced aling the Arakan Province coast?
573223b8b9d445190005e836
XV Corps
343
False
Who did aircraft drop supplies to isolated units until they could be relieved?
573223b8b9d445190005e837
XV Corps
577
False
After the Allied setbacks in 1943, the South East Asia command prepared to launch offensives into Burma on several fronts. In the first months of 1944, the Chinese and American troops of the Northern Combat Area Command (NCAC), commanded by the American Joseph Stilwell, began extending the Ledo Road from India into northern Burma, while the XV Corps began an advance along the coast in the Arakan Province. In February 1944 the Japanese mounted a local counter-attack in the Arakan. After early Japanese success, this counter-attack was defeated when the Indian divisions of XV Corps stood firm, relying on aircraft to drop supplies to isolated forward units until reserve divisions could relieve them.
What month did the Japanese launch an offensive into India?
5732253be99e3014001e6558
March
112
False
Who commanded the Japanese Fifteenth Army in Operation U-Go?
5732253be99e3014001e6559
Lieutenant General Renya Mutaguchi
229
False
Where had the Japanese advanced to?
5732253be99e3014001e655a
Kohima in Nagaland
649
False
What did the Japanese cut?
5732253be99e3014001e655b
main road to Imphal
676
False
What had the Japanese failed to capture?
5732253be99e3014001e655c
defences at Kohima
736
False
The Japanese responded to the Allied attacks by launching an offensive of their own into India in the middle of March, across the mountainous and densely forested frontier. This attack, codenamed Operation U-Go, was advocated by Lieutenant General Renya Mutaguchi, the recently promoted commander of the Japanese Fifteenth Army; Imperial General Headquarters permitted it to proceed, despite misgivings at several intervening headquarters. Although several units of the British Fourteenth Army had to fight their way out of encirclement, by early April they had concentrated around Imphal in Manipur state. A Japanese division which had advanced to Kohima in Nagaland cut the main road to Imphal, but failed to capture the whole of the defences at Kohima. During April, the Japanese attacks against Imphal failed, while fresh Allied formations drove the Japanese from the positions they had captured at Kohima.
What happened to Mutaguchi's troops?
573225ede99e3014001e6562
starved
189
False
When was the Japanese siege of Imphal broken?
573225ede99e3014001e6563
22 June
355
False
How many troops had the Japanese lost?
573225ede99e3014001e6564
50,000
478
False
What was the main cause of death of the Japanese troops?
573225ede99e3014001e6565
starvation and disease
503
False
As many Japanese had feared, Japan's supply arrangements could not maintain her forces. Once Mutaguchi's hopes for an early victory were thwarted, his troops, particularly those at Kohima, starved. During May, while Mutaguchi continued to order attacks, the Allies advanced southwards from Kohima and northwards from Imphal. The two Allied attacks met on 22 June, breaking the Japanese siege of Imphal. The Japanese finally broke off the operation on 3 July. They had lost over 50,000 troops, mainly to starvation and disease. This represented the worst defeat suffered by the Japanese Army to that date.[citation needed]
What battle was the advance in the Arakan halted to release troops for?
5732275d0fdd8d15006c67f5
Battle of Imphal
90
False
Who aided the Americans and Chinese during the advance in northern Burma?
5732275d0fdd8d15006c67f6
Chindits
191
False
When did the Chinese invade northern Burma?
5732275d0fdd8d15006c67f7
middle of 1944
262
False
What fortified position was captured by the Chinese Expeditionary Force?
5732275d0fdd8d15006c67f8
Mount Song
392
False
What airfield was taken by the NCAC in August, 1944?
5732275d0fdd8d15006c67f9
Myitkyina
502
False
Although the advance in the Arakan had been halted to release troops and aircraft for the Battle of Imphal, the Americans and Chinese had continued to advance in northern Burma, aided by the Chindits operating against the Japanese lines of communication. In the middle of 1944 the Chinese Expeditionary Force invaded northern Burma from Yunnan province. They captured a fortified position at Mount Song. By the time campaigning ceased during the monsoon rains, the NCAC had secured a vital airfield at Myitkyina (August 1944), which eased the problems of air resupply from India to China over "The Hump".
What was it imperative for the Japanese to hold?
573228eab9d445190005e86f
Saipan
50
False
How many fleet carriers did the U.S. Fifth Fleet have?
573228eab9d445190005e870
15
129
False
How many fleet planes did the U.S. Fifth Fleet have?
573228eab9d445190005e871
956
151
False
What was the search radius of U.S. Navy Hellcat fighters?
573228eab9d445190005e872
325-mile
998
False
How many carriers did Ozawa have?
573228eab9d445190005e873
nine
353
False
It was imperative for Japanese commanders to hold Saipan. The only way to do this was to destroy the U.S. Fifth Fleet, which had 15 fleet carriers and 956 planes, 7 battleships, 28 submarines, and 69 destroyers, as well as several light and heavy cruisers. Vice Admiral Jisaburo Ozawa attacked with nine-tenths of Japan's fighting fleet, which included nine carriers with 473 planes, 5 battleships, several cruisers, and 28 destroyers. Ozawa's pilots were outnumbered 2:1 and their aircraft were becoming or were already obsolete. The Japanese had considerable antiaircraft defenses but lacked proximity fuzes or good radar. With the odds against him, Ozawa devised an appropriate strategy. His planes had greater range because they were not weighed down with protective armor; they could attack at about 480 km (300 mi)[citation needed], and could search a radius of 900 km[citation needed] (560 mi). U.S. Navy Hellcat fighters could only attack within 200 miles (320 km) and only search within a 325-mile (523 km)[citation needed] radius. Ozawa planned to use this advantage by positioning his fleet 300 miles (480 km)[citation needed] out. The Japanese planes would hit the U.S. carriers, land at Guam to refuel, then hit the enemy again when returning to their carriers. Ozawa also counted on about 500 land-based planes at Guam and other islands.
How many of Ozawa's submarines were sunk by American destroyers?
57322a65b9d445190005e889
17
139
False
How many American warships were damaged during the Great Marianas Turkey Shoot?
57322a65b9d445190005e88a
one
707
False
In what sequence did Japanese planes arrive at their targets?
57322a65b9d445190005e88b
staggered
350
False
Where did the radio interception orders to U.S> Hellcat fighters come from?
57322a65b9d445190005e88c
combat information centers
431
False
Who gave the directive for all carriers in the US Navy to have combat information centers?
57322a65b9d445190005e88d
Nimitz
397
False
The forces converged in the largest sea battle of World War II up to that point. Over the previous month American destroyers had destroyed 17 of 25 submarines out of Ozawa's screening force. Repeated U.S. raids destroyed the Japanese land-based planes. Ozawa's main attack lacked coordination, with the Japanese planes arriving at their targets in a staggered sequence. Following a directive from Nimitz, the U.S. carriers all had combat information centers, which interpreted the flow of radar data and radioed interception orders to the Hellcats. The result was later dubbed the Great Marianas Turkey Shoot. The few attackers to reach the U.S. fleet encountered massive AA fire with proximity fuzes. Only one American warship was slightly damaged.
On what day did U.S> planes located Ozawa's fleet?
57322b3ce17f3d14004226d9
second
7
False
How many miles away was Ozawa's fleet located?
57322b3ce17f3d14004226da
275
69
False
How many planes did the U.S. lose?
57322b3ce17f3d14004226db
130
528
False
How many planes did Japan lose?
57322b3ce17f3d14004226dc
450
575
False
How many U.S. aircrews were lost?
57322b3ce17f3d14004226dd
76
543
False
On the second day, U.S. reconnaissance planes located Ozawa's fleet, 275 miles (443 km)[citation needed] away, and submarines sank two Japanese carriers. Mitscher launched 230 torpedo planes and dive bombers. He then discovered the enemy was actually another 60 miles (97 km)[citation needed] further off, out of aircraft range (based on a roundtrip flight). Mitscher decided this chance to destroy the Japanese fleet was worth the risk of aircraft losses due to running out of fuel on the return flight. Overall, the U.S. lost 130 planes and 76 aircrew; however, Japan lost 450 planes, three carriers, and 445 aircrew. The Imperial Japanese Navy's carrier force was effectively destroyed.
What is argued to be the largest naval battle in history?
57322fdf0fdd8d15006c6827
Battle of Leyte Gulf
4
False
What was the largest naval battle in World War II?
57322fdf0fdd8d15006c6828
Battle of Leyte Gulf
4
False
When did the Battle of Leyte Gulf occur?
57322fdf0fdd8d15006c6829
23 to 26 October 1944
216
False
When did Nimitz launch a carrier raid against Formosa?
57322fdf0fdd8d15006c682a
12 October
998
False
What did Nimitz favor blockading?
57322fdf0fdd8d15006c682b
Philippines
568
False
The Battle of Leyte Gulf was arguably the largest naval battle in history and was the largest naval battle of World War II. It was a series of four distinct engagements fought off the Philippine island of Leyte from 23 to 26 October 1944. Leyte Gulf featured the largest battleships ever built, was the last time in history that battleships engaged each other, and was also notable as the first time that kamikaze aircraft were used. Allied victory in the Philippine Sea established Allied air and sea superiority in the western Pacific. Nimitz favored blockading the Philippines and landing on Formosa. This would give the Allies control of the sea routes to Japan from southern Asia, cutting off substantial Japanese garrisons. MacArthur favored an invasion of the Philippines, which also lay across the supply lines to Japan. Roosevelt adjudicated in favor of the Philippines. Meanwhile, Japanese Combined Fleet Chief Toyoda Soemu prepared four plans to cover all Allied offensive scenarios. On 12 October Nimitz launched a carrier raid against Formosa to make sure that planes based there could not intervene in the landings on Leyte. Toyoda put Plan Sho-2 into effect, launching a series of air attacks against the U.S. carriers. However the Japanese lost 600 planes in three days, leaving them without air cover.
What was the namee of the plan where Ozawa's force would lure the U.S. 3rd Fleet away from Leyte?
5732310c0fdd8d15006c6831
Sho-1
0
False
Who would enter Leyte Gulf to attack the Allied landing forces?
5732310c0fdd8d15006c6832
V. Adm. Takeo Kurita
259
False
How many Japanese forces were likely to be destroyed?
5732310c0fdd8d15006c6833
one or more
496
False
Sho-1 called for V. Adm. Jisaburo Ozawa's force to use an apparently vulnerable carrier force to lure the U.S. 3rd Fleet away from Leyte and remove air cover from the Allied landing forces, which would then be attacked from the west by three Japanese forces: V. Adm. Takeo Kurita's force would enter Leyte Gulf and attack the landing forces; R. Adm. Shoji Nishimura's force and V. Adm. Kiyohide Shima's force would act as mobile strike forces. The plan was likely to result in the destruction of one or more of the Japanese forces, but Toyoda justified it by saying that there would be no sense in saving the fleet and losing the Philippines.
How many battleships were in Kurita's "Center Force"?
57323202e17f3d140042270f
five
37
False
How many cruisers were in Kurita's "Center Force"?
57323202e17f3d1400422710
12
55
False
How many destroyers were in Kurita's "Center Force"?
57323202e17f3d1400422711
13
71
False
When did Kurita's force enter the Sibuyan Sea?
57323202e17f3d1400422712
24 October
282
False
Kurita's "Center Force" consisted of five battleships, 12 cruisers and 13 destroyers. It included the two largest battleships ever built: Yamato and Musashi. As they passed Palawan Island after midnight on 23 October the force was spotted, and U.S. submarines sank two cruisers. On 24 October, as Kurita's force entered the Sibuyan Sea, USS Intrepid and USS Cabot launched 260 planes, which scored hits on several ships. A second wave of planes scored many direct hits on Musashi. A third wave, from USS Enterprise and USS Franklin hit Musashi with 11 bombs and eight torpedoes. Kurita retreated but in the evening turned around to head for San Bernardino Strait. Musashi sank at about 19:30.
How many battleships were in Nishimura's force?
57323785b9d445190005e8db
two
31
False
Which Japanese admiral was a  rival of Nishimura?
57323785b9d445190005e8dc
Shima
197
False
How many miles was Shima's fleet behind Nishimura?
57323785b9d445190005e8dd
22
419
False
Who set the trap for the Japanese forces as they sailed by Panaon Island?
57323785b9d445190005e8de
R. Adm. Jesse Oldendorf
655
False
How many battleships did the U.S.-Australian 7th Fleet have?
57323785b9d445190005e8df
six
683
False
Nishimura's force consisted of two battleships, one cruiser and four destroyers. Because they were observing radio silence, Nishimura was unable to synchronize with Shima and Kurita. Nishimura and Shima had failed to even coordinate their plans before the attacks – they were long-time rivals and neither wished to have anything to do with the other. When he entered the narrow Surigao Strait at about 02:00, Shima was 22 miles (40 km) behind him, and Kurita was still in the Sibuyan Sea, several hours from the beaches at Leyte. As they passed Panaon Island, Nishimura's force ran into a trap set for them by the U.S.-Australian 7th Fleet Support Force. R. Adm. Jesse Oldendorf had six battleships, four heavy cruisers, four light cruisers, 29 destroyers and 39 PT boats. To pass the strait and reach the landings, Nishimura had to run the gauntlet. At about 03:00 the Japanese battleship Fusō and three destroyers were hit by torpedoes and Fusō broke in two. At 03:50 the U.S. battleships opened fire. Radar fire control meant they could hit targets from a much greater distance than the Japanese. The battleship Yamashiro, a cruiser and a destroyer were crippled by 16-inch (406 mm) shells; Yamashiro sank at 04:19. Only one of Nishimura's force of seven ships survived the engagement. At 04:25 Shima's force of two cruisers and eight destroyers reached the battle. Seeing Fusō and believing her to be the wrecks of two battleships, Shima ordered a retreat, ending the last battleship-vs-battleship action in history.
How many aircraft carriers were in Ozawa's "Northern Force"?
5732388ae99e3014001e6598
four
29
False
When did the allies spot Ozawa's "Northern Force"?
5732388ae99e3014001e6599
16:40 on 24 October
224
False
How many planes were in the U.S. 3rd Fleet?
5732388ae99e3014001e659a
1,000
520
False
How many destroyers were in the U.S. Third Fleet?
5732388ae99e3014001e659b
63
502
False
How many cruisers were in the U.S. Third Fleet?
5732388ae99e3014001e659c
17
489
False
Ozawa's "Northern Force" had four aircraft carriers, two obsolete battleships partly converted to carriers, three cruisers and nine destroyers. The carriers had only 108 planes. The force was not spotted by the Allies until 16:40 on 24 October. At 20:00 Toyoda ordered all remaining Japanese forces to attack. Halsey saw an opportunity to destroy the remnants of the Japanese carrier force. The U.S. Third Fleet was formidable – nine large carriers, eight light carriers, six battleships, 17 cruisers, 63 destroyers and 1,000 planes – and completely outgunned Ozawa's force. Halsey's ships set out in pursuit of Ozawa just after midnight. U.S. commanders ignored reports that Kurita had turned back towards San Bernardino Strait. They had taken the bait set by Ozawa. On the morning of 25 October Ozawa launched 75 planes. Most were shot down by U.S. fighter patrols. By 08:00 U.S. fighters had destroyed the screen of Japanese fighters and were hitting ships. By evening, they had sunk the carriers Zuikaku, Zuihō, and Chiyoda, and a destroyer. The fourth carrier, Chitose, and a cruiser were disabled and later sank.
When did Kurita pass through the San Bernardino Strait?
573239e0e17f3d1400422747
03:00 on 25 October
47
False
Where did Kurit head after passing through the San Bernardino Strait?
573239e0e17f3d1400422748
along the coast of Samar
78
False
Admiral Kincaid commanded what three groups of the Seventh Fleet?
573239e0e17f3d1400422749
Taffy 1, 2 and 3
159
False
What broke the Japanes formations under Kurita?
573239e0e17f3d140042274a
Destroyer attacks
1580
False
How many of Kurita's heavy cruisers were sunk?
573239e0e17f3d140042274b
Three
1663
False
Kurita passed through San Bernardino Strait at 03:00 on 25 October and headed along the coast of Samar. The only thing standing in his path were three groups (Taffy 1, 2 and 3) of the Seventh Fleet, commanded by Admiral Thomas Kinkaid. Each group had six escort carriers, with a total of more than 500 planes, and seven or eight destroyers or destroyer escorts (DE). Kinkaid still believed that Lee's force was guarding the north, so the Japanese had the element of surprise when they attacked Taffy 3 at 06:45. Kurita mistook the Taffy carriers for large fleet carriers and thought he had the whole Third Fleet in his sights. Since escort carriers stood little chance against a battleship, Adm. Clifton Sprague directed the carriers of Taffy 3 to turn and flee eastward, hoping that bad visibility would reduce the accuracy of Japanese gunfire, and used his destroyers to divert the Japanese battleships. The destroyers made harassing torpedo attacks against the Japanese. For ten minutes Yamato was caught up in evasive action. Two U.S. destroyers and a DE were sunk, but they had bought enough time for the Taffy groups to launch planes. Taffy 3 turned and fled south, with shells scoring hits on some of its carriers and sinking one of them. The superior speed of the Japanese force allowed it to draw closer and fire on the other two Taffy groups. However, at 09:20 Kurita suddenly turned and retreated north. Signals had disabused him of the notion that he was attacking the Third Fleet, and the longer Kurita continued to engage, the greater the risk of major air strikes. Destroyer attacks had broken the Japanese formations, shattering tactical control. Three of Kurita's heavy cruisers had been sunk and another was too damaged to continue the fight. The Japanese retreated through the San Bernardino Strait, under continuous air attack. The Battle of Leyte Gulf was over; and a large part of the Japanese surface fleet destroyed.
What were the Leyte beachheads of the U.S. Sixth Army secured from?
57323af4b9d445190005e8f9
attack from the sea
74
False
When did Operation Ten-Go occur?
57323af4b9d445190005e8fa
April 1945
295
False
How many battleships did Kurita begin Operation Ten-Go with?
57323af4b9d445190005e8fb
five
348
False
What was the last battleship in history to engage in combat with another battleship?
57323af4b9d445190005e8fc
Yamashiro
443
False
Which battleship was still capable of combat when Kurita returned to Japan?
57323af4b9d445190005e8fd
Yamato
398
False
The battle secured the beachheads of the U.S. Sixth Army on Leyte against attack from the sea, broke the back of Japanese naval power and opened the way for an advance to the Ryukyu Islands in 1945. The only significant Japanese naval operation afterwards was the disastrous Operation Ten-Go in April 1945. Kurita's force had begun the battle with five battleships; when he returned to Japan, only Yamato was combat-worthy. Nishimura's sunken Yamashiro was the last battleship in history to engage another in combat.
When did the U.S. Sixth Army land on the eastern shore of Leyte?
57323c0ce99e3014001e65bc
20 October 1944
3
False
Where did the Japanese rush reinforcments to on the western side of Leyte?
57323c0ce99e3014001e65bd
Ormoc Bay area
249
False
What force devastated resupply attempts by the Japanese?
57323c0ce99e3014001e65be
U.S. Fifth Air Force
353
False
What was the neighboring island to the north of Leyte.
57323c0ce99e3014001e65bf
Samar
544
False
Fighting continued on Leyte for how long?
57323c0ce99e3014001e65c0
months
762
False
On 20 October 1944 the U.S. Sixth Army, supported by naval and air bombardment, landed on the favorable eastern shore of Leyte, north of Mindanao. The U.S. Sixth Army continued its advance from the east, as the Japanese rushed reinforcements to the Ormoc Bay area on the western side of the island. While the Sixth Army was reinforced successfully, the U.S. Fifth Air Force was able to devastate the Japanese attempts to resupply. In torrential rains and over difficult terrain, the advance continued across Leyte and the neighboring island of Samar to the north. On 7 December U.S. Army units landed at Ormoc Bay and, after a major land and air battle, cut off the Japanese ability to reinforce and supply Leyte. Although fierce fighting continued on Leyte for months, the U.S. Army was in control.
Landings were made on the beaches of what island on December 15, 1944?
57323ce2e17f3d1400422765
Mindoro
107
False
Lingayen Gulf operations supported what landings?
57323ce2e17f3d1400422766
Luzon
214
False
Who led the Sixth Army?
57323ce2e17f3d1400422767
General Krueger
307
False
Clark field was how many miles northwest of Manila?
57323ce2e17f3d1400422768
40
518
False
On 15 December 1944 landings against minimal resistance were made on the southern beaches of the island of Mindoro, a key location in the planned Lingayen Gulf operations, in support of major landings scheduled on Luzon. On 9 January 1945, on the south shore of Lingayen Gulf on the western coast of Luzon, General Krueger's Sixth Army landed his first units. Almost 175,000 men followed across the twenty-mile (32 km) beachhead within a few days. With heavy air support, Army units pushed inland, taking Clark Field, 40 miles (64 km) northwest of Manila, in the last week of January.
What island was between Borneo and Mindoro?
57323deae17f3d1400422777
Palawan
0
False
What island was invaded by the Eighth Army on February 28?
57323deae17f3d1400422778
Palawan
0
False
Where did the Eighth Army land?
57323deae17f3d1400422779
Puerto Princesa
161
False
Who aided U.S. forces in finding Japanese holdouts in the Philippines?
57323deae17f3d140042277a
Filipino guerrillas
467
False
What is the western-most Philippine island?
57323deae17f3d140042277b
Palawan
0
False
Palawan Island, between Borneo and Mindoro, the fifth largest and western-most Philippine Island, was invaded on 28 February with landings of the Eighth Army at Puerto Princesa. The Japanese put up little direct defense of Palawan, but cleaning up pockets of Japanese resistance lasted until late April, as the Japanese used their common tactic of withdrawing into the mountain jungles, dispersed as small units. Throughout the Philippines, U.S. forces were aided by Filipino guerrillas to find and dispatch the holdouts.
What was "Operation Detachment"?
57323efae17f3d140042278b
battle of Iwo Jima
4
False
When did "Operation Detachment" occur?
57323efae17f3d140042278c
February 1945
51
False
How many square miles is the island of Iwo Jima?
57323efae17f3d140042278d
8
158
False
Iwo Jima is halfway between the Mariana Islands and what city?
57323efae17f3d140042278e
Tokyo
209
False
How many airfields were on Iwo Jima?
57323efae17f3d140042278f
three
337
False
The battle of Iwo Jima ("Operation Detachment") in February 1945 was one of the bloodiest battles fought by the Americans in the Pacific War. Iwo Jima was an 8 sq mile (21 km2) island situated halfway between Tokyo and the Mariana Islands. Holland Smith, the commander of the invasion force, aimed to capture the island, and utilize its three airfields as bases to carry out air attacks against the Home Islands. Lt. General Tadamichi Kuribayashi, the commander of the island's defense, knew that he could not win the battle, but he hoped to make the Americans suffer far more than they could endure.
How many miles of hidden tunnel were on the island?
57323fc60fdd8d15006c687b
11
146
False
Who transformed the island into a fortress?
57323fc60fdd8d15006c687c
Kuribayashi
59
False
What were the pillboxes and bunkers connected by?
57323fc60fdd8d15006c687d
underground tunnels
163
False
Who did the network of fortifications on the island favor?
57323fc60fdd8d15006c687e
the defender
495
False
From early 1944 until the days leading up to the invasion, Kuribayashi transformed the island into a massive network of bunkers, hidden guns, and 11 mi (18 km) of underground tunnels. The heavy American naval and air bombardment did little but drive the Japanese further underground, making their positions impervious to enemy fire. Their pillboxes and bunkers were all connected so that if one was knocked out, it could be reoccupied again. The network of bunkers and pillboxes greatly favored the defender.
When did Iwo Jima come under bombardment?
573240a4b9d445190005e91f
mid-June 1944
12
False
How many men landed on Iwo Jima on February 19, 1945?
573240a4b9d445190005e920
some 30,000
226
False
What was the name of the mountain on Iwo Jima?
573240a4b9d445190005e921
Mount Suribachi
333
False
How many U.S. Marines were killed by the time thhey reached the west coast of the island?
573240a4b9d445190005e922
almost 2,000
798
False
Starting in mid-June 1944, Iwo Jima came under sustained aerial bombardment and naval artillery fire. However, Kuribayashi's hidden guns and defenses survived the constant bombardment virtually unscathed. On 19 February 1945, some 30,000 men of the 3rd, 4th, and 5th Marine Divisions landed on the southeast coast of Iwo, just under Mount Suribachi; where most of the island's defenses were concentrated. For some time, they did not come under fire. This was part of Kuribayashi's plan to hold fire until the landing beaches were full. As soon as the Marines pushed inland to a line of enemy bunkers, they came under devastating machine gun and artillery fire which cut down many of the men. By the end of the day, the Marines reached the west coast of the island, but their losses were appalling; almost 2,000 men killed or wounded.
What marine regiment reached the summit of Mount Suribachi?
573241c5e17f3d1400422795
28th
20
False
When was the summit of Mount Suribachi reached by U.S. marines?
573241c5e17f3d1400422796
23 February
3
False
Who said "there will be a Marine Corps for the next 500 years"?
573241c5e17f3d1400422797
Navy Secretary James Forrestal
137
False
When was the island of Iwo Jima secured by the Americans?
573241c5e17f3d1400422798
26 March
557
False
How many Japanese prisoners were taken on Iwo Jima?
573241c5e17f3d1400422799
1,083
761
False
On 23 February, the 28th Marine Regiment reached the summit of Suribachi, prompting the now famous Raising the Flag on Iwo Jima picture. Navy Secretary James Forrestal, upon seeing the flag, remarked "there will be a Marine Corps for the next 500 years." The flag raising is often cited as the most reproduced photograph of all time and became the archetypal representation not only of that battle, but of the entire Pacific War. For the rest of February, the Americans pushed north, and by 1 March, had taken two-thirds of the island. But it was not until 26 March that the island was finally secured. The Japanese fought to the last man, killing 6,800 Marines and wounding nearly 20,000 more. The Japanese losses totaled well over 20,000 men killed, and only 1,083 prisoners were taken. Historians debate whether it was strategically worth the casualties sustained.
What was the capital of Burma?
573242cf0fdd8d15006c6897
Rangoon
72
False
What was the principle port of Burma?
573242cf0fdd8d15006c6898
Rangoon
72
False
When was Operation Dracula launched?
573242cf0fdd8d15006c6899
1 May
530
False
What force was delayed by Japanese rearguards north of Rangoon?
573242cf0fdd8d15006c689a
Fourteenth Army
14
False
What month was a delay caused by Japanese rearguards north of Rangoon?
573242cf0fdd8d15006c689b
April
7
False
During April, Fourteenth Army advanced 300 miles (480 km) south towards Rangoon, the capital and principal port of Burma, but was delayed by Japanese rearguards 40 miles (64 km) north of Rangoon at the end of the month. Slim feared that the Japanese would defend Rangoon house-to-house during the monsoon, placing his army in a disastrous supply situation, and in March he had asked that a plan to capture Rangoon by an amphibious force, Operation Dracula, which had been abandoned earlier, be reinstated. Dracula was launched on 1 May, but Rangoon was found to have been abandoned. The troops which occupied Rangoon linked up with Fourteenth Army five days later, securing the Allies' lines of communication.
How many British and Australian prisoners survived out of about 2500 around Sandakan?
5732439ab9d445190005e94f
six
472
False
Sandakan was located in what providence?
5732439ab9d445190005e950
Borneo
459
False
Although the campaign was criticized in Australia at the time, and in subsequent years, as pointless or a "waste" of the lives of soldiers, it did achieve a number of objectives, such as increasing the isolation of significant Japanese forces occupying the main part of the Dutch East Indies, capturing major oil supplies and freeing Allied prisoners of war, who were being held in deteriorating conditions. At one of the very worst sites, around Sandakan in Borneo, only six of some 2,500 British and Australian prisoners survived.
In 1945, how many years had Japan already been at war with China?
57324501b9d445190005e95d
seven
70
False
What battle did the Japanese Army begin to prepare for in March 1945?
57324501b9d445190005e95e
Battle of West Hunan
393
False
How many Japanese soldiers were mobilized to capture the Chinese airfields and railroads in West Hunan?
57324501b9d445190005e95f
80,000
548
False
Who was the Chinese commander-in-chief of the 10th and 27th Army Groups?
57324501b9d445190005e960
He Yingqin
757
False
When did Chinese forces retake Guangxi?
57324501b9d445190005e961
August 1945
1463
False
By April 1945, China had already been at war with Japan for more than seven years. Both nations were exhausted by years of battles, bombings and blockades. After Japanese victories in Operation Ichi-Go, Japan were losing the battle in Burma and facing constant attacks from Chinese Nationalists forces and Communist guerrillas in the country side. The Japanese army began preparations for the Battle of West Hunan in March 1945. Japanese mobilized 34th, 47th, 64th, 68th and 116th Divisions, as well as the 86th Independent Brigade, for a total of 80,000 men to seize Chinese airfields and secure railroads in West Hunan by early April. In response, the Chinese National Military Council dispatched the 4th Front Army and the 10th and 27th Army Groups with He Yingqin as commander-in-chief. At the same time, it airlifted the entire Chinese New 6th Corps, an American-equipped corps and veterans of the Burma Expeditionary Force, from Kunming to Zhijiang. Chinese forces totaled 110,000 men in 20 divisions. They were supported by about 400 aircraft from Chinese and American air forces. Chinese forces achieved a decisive victory and launched a large counterattack in this campaign. Concurrently, the Chinese managed to repel a Japanese offensive in Henan and Hubei. Afterwards, Chinese forces retook Hunan and Hubei provinces in South China. Chinese launched a counter offensive to retake Guangxi which was the last major Japanese stronghold in South China. In August 1945, Chinese forces successfully retook Guangxi.[citation needed]
How many B-29 bombers were airbases need for in Okinawa?
573245f7b9d445190005e97b
3,000
91
False
How many squadrons of B=17 bombers were airbases need for in Okinawa?
573245f7b9d445190005e97c
240
114
False
How many Japanese troops were on Okinawa?
573245f7b9d445190005e97d
115,000
270
False
When did the United States land forces on Okinawa?
573245f7b9d445190005e97e
1 April 1945
553
False
How many U.S. ships were lost at Okinawa?
573245f7b9d445190005e97f
38
716
False
The largest and bloodiest American battle came at Okinawa, as the U.S. sought airbases for 3,000 B-29 bombers and 240 squadrons of B-17 bombers for the intense bombardment of Japan's home islands in preparation for a full-scale invasion in late 1945. The Japanese, with 115,000 troops augmented by thousands of civilians on the heavily populated island, did not resist on the beaches—their strategy was to maximize the number of soldier and Marine casualties, and naval losses from Kamikaze attacks. After an intense bombardment the Americans landed on 1 April 1945 and declared victory on 21 June. The supporting naval forces were the targets for 4,000 sorties, many by Kamikaze suicide planes. U.S. losses totaled 38 ships of all types sunk and 368 damaged with 4,900 sailors killed. The Americans suffered 75,000 casualties on the ground; 94% of the Japanese soldiers died along with many civilians.
What percent of Japanese troops died on Okinawa?
57324709e17f3d14004227bd
94
218
False
Using a total blockade and air raids, what did the US Navy hope to force?
57324709e17f3d14004227be
Japanese surrender
448
False
How many Japanese troops defended Okinawa?
57324709e17f3d14004227bf
117,000
175
False
How did the Japanese attempt to cause high Allied casualties?
57324709e17f3d14004227c0
kamikaze tactics
328
False
Hard-fought battles on the Japanese home islands of Iwo Jima, Okinawa, and others resulted in horrific casualties on both sides but finally produced a Japanese defeat. Of the 117,000 Japanese troops defending Okinawa, 94 percent died. Faced with the loss of most of their experienced pilots, the Japanese increased their use of kamikaze tactics in an attempt to create unacceptably high casualties for the Allies. The U.S. Navy proposed to force a Japanese surrender through a total naval blockade and air raids.
Who was over the new U.S. Strategic Air Forces in the Pacific command?
5732485de99e3014001e663e
General Curtis LeMay
251
False
How many people were killed in the incendry attack on Tokyo on March 9-10, 1945?
5732485de99e3014001e663f
100,000
436
False
Who oversaw Operation Starvation?
5732485de99e3014001e6640
General Curtis LeMay
251
False
When was the Potsdam Declaration issued?
5732485de99e3014001e6641
26 July 1945
713
False
What ultimatum stated that Japan would face "prompt and utter destruction" if it did not surrender?
5732485de99e3014001e6642
Potsdam Declaration
917
False
Towards the end of the war as the role of strategic bombing became more important, a new command for the U.S. Strategic Air Forces in the Pacific was created to oversee all U.S. strategic bombing in the hemisphere, under United States Army Air Forces General Curtis LeMay. Japanese industrial production plunged as nearly half of the built-up areas of 67 cities were destroyed by B-29 firebombing raids. On 9–10 March 1945 alone, about 100,000 people were killed in a conflagration caused by an incendiary attack on Tokyo. LeMay also oversaw Operation Starvation, in which the inland waterways of Japan were extensively mined by air, which disrupted the small amount of remaining Japanese coastal sea traffic. On 26 July 1945, the President of the United States Harry S. Truman, the President of the Nationalist Government of China Chiang Kai-shek and the Prime Minister of Great Britain Winston Churchill issued the Potsdam Declaration, which outlined the terms of surrender for the Empire of Japan as agreed upon at the Potsdam Conference. This ultimatum stated that, if Japan did not surrender, it would face "prompt and utter destruction."
America dropped what on August 6, 1945?
57324b84e17f3d14004227fb
atomic bomb
38
False
What was the forst Japenese city nuked by the United States?
57324b84e17f3d14004227fc
Hiroshima
74
False
When did American drop a nuclear bomb on Nagasaki?
57324b84e17f3d14004227fd
9 August
340
False
What was the name of the blockade and bombing of Japan planed to make them surrender?
57324b84e17f3d14004227fe
Operation Downfall
946
False
Who wrote that a Soviet invasion of Japan was unlikely?
57324b84e17f3d14004227ff
Richard B. Frank
1103
False
On 6 August 1945, the U.S. dropped an atomic bomb on the Japanese city of Hiroshima in the first nuclear attack in history. In a press release issued after the atomic bombing of Hiroshima, Truman warned Japan to surrender or "...expect a rain of ruin from the air, the like of which has never been seen on this earth." Three days later, on 9 August, the U.S. dropped another atomic bomb on Nagasaki, the last nuclear attack in history. More than 140,000–240,000 people died as a direct result of these two bombings. The necessity of the atomic bombings has long been debated, with detractors claiming that a naval blockade and aerial bombing campaign had already made invasion, hence the atomic bomb, unnecessary. However, other scholars have argued that the bombings shocked the Japanese government into surrender, with Emperor finally indicating his wish to stop the war. Another argument in favor of the atomic bombs is that they helped avoid Operation Downfall, or a prolonged blockade and bombing campaign, any of which would have exacted much higher casualties among Japanese civilians. Historian Richard B. Frank wrote that a Soviet invasion of Japan was never likely because they had insufficient naval capability to mount an amphibious invasion of Hokkaidō.
When did the soviet Union invade Manchukuo?
57324d08e99e3014001e667a
9 August 1945
54
False
What was the last campaign of World War II?
57324d08e99e3014001e667b
Manchurian Strategic Offensive Operation
4
False
What was the largest campaign of the Soviets against Japan?
57324d08e99e3014001e667c
Manchurian Strategic Offensive Operation
4
False
Who gained Manchukuo, Mengjiang, and northern Korea after the Manchurian Strategic Offensive Campaign?
57324d08e99e3014001e667d
Soviet Union
272
False
When did hostilities between Japan and the Soviet Union resum after six years of peace?
57324d08e99e3014001e667e
9 August 1945
54
False
The Manchurian Strategic Offensive Operation began on 9 August 1945, with the Soviet invasion of the Japanese puppet state of Manchukuo and was the last campaign of the Second World War and the largest of the 1945 Soviet–Japanese War which resumed hostilities between the Soviet Union and the Empire of Japan after almost six years of peace. Soviet gains on the continent were Manchukuo, Mengjiang (Inner Mongolia) and northern Korea. The rapid defeat of Japan's Kwantung Army has been argued to be a significant factor in the Japanese surrender and the end of World War II, as Japan realized the Soviets were willing and able to take the cost of invasion of its Home Islands, after their rapid conquest of Manchuria and Invasion of South Sakhalin island.
How did the Japanese refer to the atomic bombings and the Soviet invasion?
57324e4cb9d445190005ea07
"Twin Shocks"
19
False
When did Japan surrender?
57324e4cb9d445190005ea08
15 August
264
False
What was the one condition Japan wanted before accepting the Potsdam terms?
57324e4cb9d445190005ea09
"prerogative of His Majesty as a Sovereign Ruler"
202
False
What was the reply to Japan about the surrender condition?
57324e4cb9d445190005ea0a
"authority" of the emperor "shall be subject to the Supreme Commander of the Allied Powers"
355
False
What was it called when the Japanese Cabinet accepted the Potsdam terms?
57324e4cb9d445190005ea0b
"sacred decision"
105
False
The effects of the "Twin Shocks"—the Soviet entry and the atomic bombing—were profound. On 10 August the "sacred decision" was made by Japanese Cabinet to accept the Potsdam terms on one condition: the "prerogative of His Majesty as a Sovereign Ruler". At noon on 15 August, after the American government's intentionally ambiguous reply, stating that the "authority" of the emperor "shall be subject to the Supreme Commander of the Allied Powers", the Emperor broadcast to the nation and to the world at large the rescript of surrender, ending the Second World War.
What date does Japan consider the end of the Pacific War?
57324f67b9d445190005ea25
14 August
10
False
What day is know in the United States as "V-J Day"?
57324f67b9d445190005ea26
15 August
127
False
When did Japan formally have signed the surrender?
57324f67b9d445190005ea27
2 September 1945
285
False
On what battleship was the surrender document signed by the Japanese delagation?
57324f67b9d445190005ea28
USS Missouri
321
False
Who accepted the Japanese surrender?
57324f67b9d445190005ea29
General Douglas MacArthur
379
False
In Japan, 14 August is considered to be the day that the Pacific War ended. However, as Imperial Japan actually surrendered on 15 August, this day became known in the English-speaking countries as "V-J Day" (Victory in Japan). The formal Japanese Instrument of Surrender was signed on 2 September 1945, on the battleship USS Missouri, in Tokyo Bay. The surrender was accepted by General Douglas MacArthur as Supreme Commander for the Allied Powers, with representatives of several Allied nations, from a Japanese delegation led by Mamoru Shigemitsu and Yoshijiro Umezu.
How many women are believed to have been sexual slaves for the Japenese Army?
57325111e17f3d1400422851
200,000
105
False
In 1948, how many Dutch women brought a case to the Batavia Military Tribunal?
57325111e17f3d1400422852
35
215
False
In 2001 which Japanese Prime <Minister apologized for the brothels.
57325111e17f3d1400422853
Junichiro Koizumi
502
False
In 2007 which Japenese Prime Minister said there was no proof of coercion of women to be sexual slaves?
57325111e17f3d1400422854
Shinzō Abe
558
False
Where were the sexual slave women mostly from?
57325111e17f3d1400422855
Korea and China
132
False
A widely publicised example of institutionalised sexual slavery are "comfort women", a euphemism for the 200,000 women, mostly from Korea and China, who served in the Japanese army's camps during World War II. Some 35 Dutch comfort women brought a successful case before the Batavia Military Tribunal in 1948. In 1993, Chief Cabinet Secretary Yohei Kono said that women were coerced into brothels run by Japan's wartime military. Other Japanese leaders have apologized, including former Prime Minister Junichiro Koizumi in 2001. In 2007, then-Prime Minister Shinzō Abe claimed: "The fact is, there is no evidence to prove there was coercion."
About how many Australians were taken prisoner after the fall of Singapore and British Malaya?
57329efbcc179a14009dab7c
15,000
106
False
In what year did Japan establish a base in New Guinea?
57329efbcc179a14009dab7d
1942
314
False
What date was the Australian mainland first attacked?
57329efbcc179a14009dab7e
19 February
323
False
What mainland Australian city was attacked by the Japanese on February 19?
57329efbcc179a14009dab7f
Darwin
336
False
For how many months was Australia attacked from the air by Japan?
57329efbcc179a14009dab80
19
453
False
Australia had been shocked by the speedy collapse of British Malaya and Fall of Singapore in which around 15,000 Australian soldiers became prisoners of war. Curtin predicted that the "battle for Australia" would now follow. The Japanese established a major base in the Australian Territory of New Guinea in early 1942. On 19 February, Darwin suffered a devastating air raid, the first time the Australian mainland had been attacked. Over the following 19 months, Australia was attacked from the air almost 100 times.
San_Diego
Which city in Mexico does San Diego border?
572fc5b8b2c2fd140056843d
Tijuana
182
False
Of all military branches, which one has the strongest presence in San Diego?
572fc5b8b2c2fd140056843e
United States Navy
509
False
Aside from healthcare, which employment sector has strongly emerged in San Diego?
572fc5b8b2c2fd140056843f
biotechnology development
569
False
Of the top 10 largest cities in the country, which place does San Diego rank?
572fc5b8b2c2fd1400568440
eighth
79
False
What is unique about San Diego's harbors?
572fc5b8b2c2fd1400568441
deep-water
445
False
Tijuana
182
Which city in Mexico doesn't San Diego border?
5ad4a71eba00c4001a268ede
True
United States Navy
509
Of all military branches, which one has the weakest presence in San Diego?
5ad4a71eba00c4001a268edf
True
biotechnology development
569
Aside from healthcare, which employment sector has weakly emerged in San Diego?
5ad4a71eba00c4001a268ee0
True
eighth-largest
79
Of the top 5 largest cities in the country, which place does San Diego rank?
5ad4a71eba00c4001a268ee1
True
deep-water
445
What isn't unique about San Diego's harbors?
5ad4a71eba00c4001a268ee2
True
With an estimated population of 1,381,069 as of July 1, 2014, San Diego is the eighth-largest city in the United States and second-largest in California. It is part of the San Diego–Tijuana conurbation, the second-largest transborder agglomeration between the US and a bordering country after Detroit–Windsor, with a population of 4,922,723 people. San Diego is the birthplace of California and is known for its mild year-round climate, natural deep-water harbor, extensive beaches, long association with the United States Navy and recent emergence as a healthcare and biotechnology development center.
Who claimed the San Diego Bay area for Spain in 1542?
572fca74a23a5019007fc9e9
Juan Rodríguez Cabrillo
183
False
In what year did San Diego become part of the United States?
572fca74a23a5019007fc9ea
1850
571
False
What native people lived in the San Diego area before the Europeans arrived?
572fca74a23a5019007fc9eb
Kumeyaay
25
False
After the land was claimed for Spain, how many years passed before the settlement of Alta began?
572fca74a23a5019007fc9ec
200
298
False
Juan Rodríguez Cabrillo
183
Who claimed the San Diego Bay area for Spain in 1524?
5ad4a79cba00c4001a268efc
True
1850
571
In what year didn't San Diego become part of the United States?
5ad4a79cba00c4001a268efd
True
Kumeyaay
25
What native people never lived in the San Diego area before the Europeans arrived?
5ad4a79cba00c4001a268efe
True
Kumeyaay
25
What native people lived in the San Diego area before the Mexicans arrived?
5ad4a79cba00c4001a268eff
True
200
298
After the land was claimed for Spain, how many years passed before the settlement of Atlanta began?
5ad4a79cba00c4001a268f00
True
Historically home to the Kumeyaay people, San Diego was the first site visited by Europeans on what is now the West Coast of the United States. Upon landing in San Diego Bay in 1542, Juan Rodríguez Cabrillo claimed the entire area for Spain, forming the basis for the settlement of Alta California 200 years later. The Presidio and Mission San Diego de Alcalá, founded in 1769, formed the first European settlement in what is now California. In 1821, San Diego became part of the newly-independent Mexico, which reformed as the First Mexican Republic two years later. In 1850, it became part of the United States following the Mexican–American War and the admission of California to the union.
Who was sent to survey the California coast in 1602?
572fce07b2c2fd140056848b
Sebastián Vizcaíno
294
False
What was the name of Juan Rodriguez Cabrillo's ship?
572fce07b2c2fd140056848c
San Salvador
148
False
Who was the harbor named for?
572fce07b2c2fd140056848d
Catholic Saint Didacus
487
False
Who conducted the first Christian service to be recorded in Alta?
572fce07b2c2fd140056848e
Friar Antonio de la Ascensión
672
False
Where did Cabrillo leave from to embark on his journey to the West Coast?
572fce07b2c2fd140056848f
Navidad, New Spain
166
False
Sebastián Vizcaíno
294
Who was sent to survey the California coast in 1620?
5ad4a7fc5b96ef001a109d14
True
San Salvador
148
What was the name of Juan Rodriguez Cabrillo's car?
5ad4a7fc5b96ef001a109d15
True
Catholic Saint Didacus
487
Who wasn't the harbor named for?
5ad4a7fc5b96ef001a109d16
True
Friar Antonio de la Ascensión
672
Who conducted the last Christian service to be recorded in Alta?
5ad4a7fc5b96ef001a109d17
True
Navidad, New Spain
166
Where did Cabrillo leave from to embark on his journey to the East Coast?
5ad4a7fc5b96ef001a109d18
True
The first European to visit the region was Portuguese-born explorer Juan Rodríguez Cabrillo sailing under the flag of Castile. Sailing his flagship San Salvador from Navidad, New Spain, Cabrillo claimed the bay for the Spanish Empire in 1542, and named the site 'San Miguel'. In November 1602, Sebastián Vizcaíno was sent to map the California coast. Arriving on his flagship San Diego, Vizcaíno surveyed the harbor and what are now Mission Bay and Point Loma and named the area for the Catholic Saint Didacus, a Spaniard more commonly known as San Diego de Alcalá. On November 12, 1602, the first Christian religious service of record in Alta California was conducted by Friar Antonio de la Ascensión, a member of Vizcaíno's expedition, to celebrate the feast day of San Diego.
Who did Junipero Serra commission to found the Mission San Diego de Alcala in 1769?
572fd0e3a23a5019007fca2b
Franciscan friars
260
False
What historic trail starting point developed at Mission San Diego?
572fd0e3a23a5019007fca2c
El Camino Real
532
False
What was developed on a hill by the San Diego River?
572fd0e3a23a5019007fca2d
Fort Presidio of San Diego
47
False
How many neophytes resided in the San Diego area in 1797?
572fd0e3a23a5019007fca2e
1,400
389
False
What are the Presidio and Mission considered today?
572fd0e3a23a5019007fca2f
National Historic Landmarks
586
False
Franciscan friars
260
Who did Junipero Serra commission to found the Mission San Diego de Alcala in 1796?
5ad4b0115b96ef001a109d9e
True
El Camino Real
532
What historic trail ending point developed at Mission San Diego?
5ad4b0115b96ef001a109d9f
True
Fort Presidio of San Diego
47
What was developed on a hill by the San Francisco River?
5ad4b0115b96ef001a109da0
True
1,400
389
How many neophytes resided in the San Diego area in 1799?
5ad4b0115b96ef001a109da1
True
National Historic Landmarks
586
What are the Presidio and Mission considered in history?
5ad4b0115b96ef001a109da2
True
In May 1769, Gaspar de Portolà established the Fort Presidio of San Diego on a hill near the San Diego River. It was the first settlement by Europeans in what is now the state of California. In July of the same year, Mission San Diego de Alcalá was founded by Franciscan friars under Junípero Serra. By 1797, the mission boasted the largest native population in Alta California, with over 1,400 neophytes living in and around the mission proper. Mission San Diego was the southern anchor in California of the historic mission trail El Camino Real. Both the Presidio and the Mission are National Historic Landmarks.
Who was elected as the Mission's first municipal magistrate?
572fd71ba23a5019007fca73
Juan María Osuna
561
False
What was the name of the Mexican territory San Diego became part of in 1821?
572fd71ba23a5019007fca74
Alta California
103
False
Why did San Diego lose its pueblo status in 1838?
572fd71ba23a5019007fca75
its size dropped to an estimated 100 to 150 residents
835
False
What happened as the population shifted to more level ground below Presidio Hill?
572fd71ba23a5019007fca76
The fort on Presidio Hill was gradually abandoned
224
False
Who was in the running for the first alcalde position, but was defeated in the election?
572fd71ba23a5019007fca77
Pío Pico
644
False
Juan María Osuna
561
Who was elected as the Mission's last municipal magistrate?
5ad4b0685b96ef001a109da8
True
Alta California
103
What was the name of the Mexican territory San Diego became part of in 1812?
5ad4b0685b96ef001a109da9
True
its size dropped to an estimated 100 to 150 residents
835
Why did San Diego lose its pueblo status in 1883?
5ad4b0685b96ef001a109daa
True
The fort on Presidio Hill was gradually abandoned
224
What happened as the population shifted to more level ground above Presidio Hill?
5ad4b0685b96ef001a109dab
True
Pío Pico
644
Who was in the running for the last alcalde position, but was defeated in the election?
5ad4b0685b96ef001a109dac
True
In 1821, Mexico won its independence from Spain, and San Diego became part of the Mexican territory of Alta California. In 1822, Mexico began attempting to extend its authority over the coastal territory of Alta California. The fort on Presidio Hill was gradually abandoned, while the town of San Diego grew up on the level land below Presidio Hill. The Mission was secularized by the Mexican government in 1833, and most of the Mission lands were sold to wealthy Californio settlers. The 432 residents of the town petitioned the governor to form a pueblo, and Juan María Osuna was elected the first alcalde ("municipal magistrate"), defeating Pío Pico in the vote. (See, List of pre-statehood mayors of San Diego.) However, San Diego had been losing population throughout the 1830s and in 1838 the town lost its pueblo status because its size dropped to an estimated 100 to 150 residents. Beyond town Mexican land grants expanded the number of California ranchos that modestly added to the local economy.
Who commissioned Captain Archibald Gillespie to lead 50 men on horseback to the north?
572fdc72b2c2fd1400568527
Commodore Robert F. Stockton
895
False
What battle took place in the San Pasqual Valley?
572fdc72b2c2fd1400568528
Battle of San Pasqual
1139
False
Who led the group from San Diego that rescued Kearny's men?
572fdc72b2c2fd1400568529
Lieutenant Gray
1327
False
What extreme measure did the Californios take to try to draw the Americans out of the pueblo?
572fdc72b2c2fd140056852a
The Californios drove cattle away from the pueblo
660
False
How many weeks did Mexican partisans hold San Diego before it was recaptured by Americans?
572fdc72b2c2fd140056852b
three weeks
444
False
Commodore Robert F. Stockton
895
Who commissioned Captain Archibald Gillespie to lead 500 men on horseback to the north?
5ad4b0e15b96ef001a109db2
True
Battle of San Pasqual
1139
What battle took place in the San Francisco Valley?
5ad4b0e15b96ef001a109db3
True
Lieutenant Gray
1327
Who led the group from San Francisco that rescued Kearny's men?
5ad4b0e15b96ef001a109db4
True
The Californios drove cattle away from the pueblo hoping to starve the Americans
660
What extreme measure did the Californios take to try to draw the Natives out of the pueblo?
5ad4b0e15b96ef001a109db5
True
three weeks
444
How many weeks did Mexican partisans hold San Francisco before it was recaptured by Americans?
5ad4b0e15b96ef001a109db6
True
In 1846, the United States went to war against Mexico and sent a naval and land expedition to conquer Alta California. At first they had an easy time of it capturing the major ports including San Diego, but the Californios in southern Alta California struck back. Following the successful revolt in Los Angeles, the American garrison at San Diego was driven out without firing a shot in early October 1846. Mexican partisans held San Diego for three weeks until October 24, 1846, when the Americans recaptured it. For the next several months the Americans were blockaded inside the pueblo. Skirmishes occurred daily and snipers shot into the town every night. The Californios drove cattle away from the pueblo hoping to starve the Americans and their Californio supporters out. On December 1 the Americans garrison learned that the dragoons of General Stephen W. Kearney were at Warner's Ranch. Commodore Robert F. Stockton sent a mounted force of fifty under Captain Archibald Gillespie to march north to meet him. Their joint command of 150 men, returning to San Diego, encountered about 93 Californios under Andrés Pico. In the ensuing Battle of San Pasqual, fought in the San Pasqual Valley which is now part of the city of San Diego, the Americans suffered their worst losses in the campaign. Subsequently a column led by Lieutenant Gray arrived from San Diego, rescuing Kearny's battered and blockaded command.
What treaty was used by Stockton and Kearny on January 1, 1847?
572fe048b2c2fd1400568543
Treaty of Cahuenga
107
False
What was established after negotiations over San Diego between the Mexcians and Americans?
572fe048b2c2fd1400568544
Mexican-American border
587
False
Which war played a role in ceding San Diego to the United States?
572fe048b2c2fd1400568545
Mexican–American War of 1846–48
167
False
What was the name of the treaty developed between Mexico and the United States in 1848?
572fe048b2c2fd1400568546
Treaty of Guadalupe Hidalgo
320
False
Why was the border between Mexico and the United States established one league south of San Diego Bay's most southern tip?
572fe048b2c2fd1400568547
to include the entire bay within the United States
711
False
Treaty of Cahuenga
107
What treaty was used by Stockton and Kearny on January 1, 1874?
5ad4b3765b96ef001a109de4
True
Mexican-American border
587
What was established after negotiations over San Francisco between the Mexcians and Americans?
5ad4b3765b96ef001a109de5
True
Mexican–American War of 1846–48
167
Which war played a role in ceding San Francisco to the United States?
5ad4b3765b96ef001a109de6
True
Treaty of Guadalupe Hidalgo
320
What was the name of the treaty developed between Mexico and the United States in 1884?
5ad4b3765b96ef001a109de7
True
to include the entire bay within the United States
711
Why was the border between Mexico and the United States established one league south of San Diego Bay's most northern tip?
5ad4b3765b96ef001a109de8
True
Stockton and Kearny went on to recover Los Angeles and force the capitulation of Alta California with the "Treaty of Cahuenga" on January 13, 1847. As a result of the Mexican–American War of 1846–48, the territory of Alta California, including San Diego, was ceded to the United States by Mexico, under the terms of the Treaty of Guadalupe Hidalgo in 1848. The Mexican negotiators of that treaty tried to retain San Diego as part of Mexico, but the Americans insisted that San Diego was "for every commercial purpose of nearly equal importance to us with that of San Francisco," and the Mexican-American border was eventually established to be one league south of the southernmost point of San Diego Bay, so as to include the entire bay within the United States.
In what year did San Diego officially become a city?
572fe604a23a5019007fcafd
1850
61
False
Who was San Diego's first mayor?
572fe604a23a5019007fcafe
Joshua H. Bean
190
False
What happened two years after San Diego elected it's first mayor?
572fe604a23a5019007fcaff
the city was bankrupt
282
False
Who controlled San Diego's charter for 2 years after it was revoked by California legislature?
572fe604a23a5019007fcb00
a board of trustees
390
False
When was San Diego's current charter adopted?
572fe604a23a5019007fcb01
1931
523
False
1850
61
In what year did San Francisco officially become a city?
5ad4b3b65b96ef001a109dee
True
Joshua H. Bean
190
Who was San Diego's last mayor?
5ad4b3b65b96ef001a109def
True
the city was bankrupt
282
What happened two years after San Diego elected it's last mayor?
5ad4b3b65b96ef001a109df0
True
a board of trustees
390
Who controlled San Diego's charter for 4 years after it was revoked by California legislature?
5ad4b3b65b96ef001a109df1
True
1931
523
When was San Francisco's current charter adopted?
5ad4b3b65b96ef001a109df2
True
The state of California was admitted to the United States in 1850. That same year San Diego was designated the seat of the newly established San Diego County and was incorporated as a city. Joshua H. Bean, the last alcalde of San Diego, was elected the first mayor. Two years later the city was bankrupt; the California legislature revoked the city's charter and placed it under control of a board of trustees, where it remained until 1889. A city charter was re-established in 1889 and today's city charter was adopted in 1931.
What was the main flaw of San Diego's original location?
572fe7ccb2c2fd140056859f
several miles away from navigable water
172
False
Who developed New San Diego that was south of the first location?
572fe7ccb2c2fd14005685a0
William Heath Davis
222
False
Who was largely responsible for the population growth of Downtown San Diego?
572fe7ccb2c2fd14005685a1
Alonzo Horton
481
False
What happened in 1878 that played a role in San Diego's economic growth?
572fe7ccb2c2fd14005685a2
the arrival of a railroad connection
948
False
What was San Diego's downtown area originally called?
572fe7ccb2c2fd14005685a3
New Town
549
False
several miles away from navigable water
172
What was the main flaw of San Francisco's original location?
5ad4b42c5b96ef001a109df8
True
William Heath Davis
222
Who developed New San Diego that was north of the first location?
5ad4b42c5b96ef001a109df9
True
Alonzo Horton
481
Who was largely responsible for the population growth of Downtown San Francisco?
5ad4b42c5b96ef001a109dfa
True
the arrival of a railroad connection
948
What happened in 1887 that played a role in San Diego's economic growth?
5ad4b42c5b96ef001a109dfb
True
New Town
549
What was San Francisco's downtown area originally called?
5ad4b42c5b96ef001a109dfc
True
The original town of San Diego was located at the foot of Presidio Hill, in the area which is now Old Town San Diego State Historic Park. The location was not ideal, being several miles away from navigable water. In 1850, William Heath Davis promoted a new development by the Bay shore called "New San Diego", several miles south of the original settlement; however, for several decades the new development consisted only a few houses, a pier and an Army depot. In the late 1860s, Alonzo Horton promoted a move to the bayside area, which he called "New Town" and which became Downtown San Diego. Horton promoted the area heavily, and people and businesses began to relocate to New Town because of its location on San Diego Bay convenient to shipping. New Town soon eclipsed the original settlement, known to this day as Old Town, and became the economic and governmental heart of the city. Still, San Diego remained a relative backwater town until the arrival of a railroad connection in 1878.
What park in San Diego hosted two World Fairs near the beginning of the 20th century?
572feabcb2c2fd14005685d9
Balboa Park
207
False
Where did many of the San Diego Zoo's exotic animals come from?
572feabcb2c2fd14005685da
Panama-California Exposition in 1915
79
False
What festival was celebrated in the 1950s in recognition of the city's Mexican and Spanish past?
572feabcb2c2fd14005685db
Fiesta del Pacifico
760
False
What happened to many of the structures developed for the World Fairs?
572feabcb2c2fd14005685dc
Most were eventually rebuilt, using castings of the original façades to retain the architectural style.
496
False
Which World Fair was hosted in San Diego in 1935?
572feabcb2c2fd14005685dd
California Pacific International Exposition
124
False
Balboa Park
207
What park in San Diego hosted two World Fairs near the beginning of the 19th century?
5ad4b4a95b96ef001a109e0c
True
Panama-California Exposition in 1915
79
Where did many of the San Francisco Zoo's exotic animals come from?
5ad4b4a95b96ef001a109e0d
True
Fiesta del Pacifico
760
What festival was celebrated in the 1960s in recognition of the city's Mexican and Spanish past?
5ad4b4a95b96ef001a109e0e
True
Most were eventually rebuilt, using castings of the original façades to retain the architectural style.
496
What happened to many of the structures developed for the State Fairs?
5ad4b4a95b96ef001a109e0f
True
California Pacific International Exposition
124
Which World Fair was hosted in San Diego in 1953?
5ad4b4a95b96ef001a109e10
True
In the early part of the 20th century, San Diego hosted two World's Fairs: the Panama-California Exposition in 1915 and the California Pacific International Exposition in 1935. Both expositions were held in Balboa Park, and many of the Spanish/Baroque-style buildings that were built for those expositions remain to this day as central features of the park. The buildings were intended to be temporary structures, but most remained in continuous use until they progressively fell into disrepair. Most were eventually rebuilt, using castings of the original façades to retain the architectural style. The menagerie of exotic animals featured at the 1915 exposition provided the basis for the San Diego Zoo. During the 1950s there was a citywide festival called Fiesta del Pacifico highlighting the area's Spanish and Mexican past. In the 2010s there was a proposal for a large-scale celebration of the 100th anniversary of Balboa Park, but the plans were abandoned when the organization tasked with putting on the celebration went out of business.
What names was given to coastal artillery batteries erected shortly after 1852?
572fec9504bcaa1900d76ebb
Fort Rosecrans
208
False
What was the name of Charles A. Lindbergh's plane that was built in San Diego by Ryan Airlines?
572fec9504bcaa1900d76ebc
Spirit of St. Louis
918
False
What was the original name of today's Marine Corps Air Station Miramar?
572fec9504bcaa1900d76ebd
Camp Kearny
504
False
What branch of the military began to have a strong presence in San Diego in 1901?
572fec9504bcaa1900d76ebe
U.S. Navy
236
False
What airplane developer was founded in San Diego in 1923?
572fec9504bcaa1900d76ebf
Consolidated Aircraft
829
False
Fort Rosecrans
208
What names was given to coastal artillery batteries erected shortly after 1825?
5ad4bed45b96ef001a109f12
True
The Spirit of St. Louis
914
What was the name of Charles A. Lindbergh's plane that was built in San Francisco by Ryan Airlines?
5ad4bed45b96ef001a109f13
True
Camp Kearny
504
What was the final name of today's Marine Corps Air Station Miramar?
5ad4bed45b96ef001a109f14
True
U.S. Navy
236
What branch of the military began to have a strong presence in San Diego in 1910?
5ad4bed45b96ef001a109f15
True
Consolidated Aircraft
829
What airplane developer was founded in San Diego in 1932?
5ad4bed45b96ef001a109f16
True
The southern portion of the Point Loma peninsula was set aside for military purposes as early as 1852. Over the next several decades the Army set up a series of coastal artillery batteries and named the area Fort Rosecrans. Significant U.S. Navy presence began in 1901 with the establishment of the Navy Coaling Station in Point Loma, and expanded greatly during the 1920s. By 1930, the city was host to Naval Base San Diego, Naval Training Center San Diego, San Diego Naval Hospital, Camp Matthews, and Camp Kearny (now Marine Corps Air Station Miramar). The city was also an early center for aviation: as early as World War I, San Diego was proclaiming itself "The Air Capital of the West". The city was home to important airplane developers and manufacturers like Ryan Airlines (later Ryan Aeronautical), founded in 1925, and Consolidated Aircraft (later Convair), founded in 1923. Charles A. Lindbergh's plane The Spirit of St. Louis was built in San Diego in 1927 by Ryan Airlines.
When did San Diego's population grow so rapidly that it nearly doubled?
572fee2f04bcaa1900d76ed7
during and after World War II
200
False
What was the name of the attack the Japanese had planned against San Diego?
572fee2f04bcaa1900d76ed8
Operation Cherry Blossoms at Night
453
False
What were the Japanese originally going to drop on San Diego from their kamikaze planes?
572fee2f04bcaa1900d76ed9
fleas infected with plague (Yersinia pestis)
532
False
Why didn't the Japanese launch their planned attack on September 22, 1945?
572fee2f04bcaa1900d76eda
Japan surrendered five weeks earlier
809
False
How many civilians were the Japanese hoping to kill during their planned attack on San Diego?
572fee2f04bcaa1900d76edb
tens of thousands of civilians
689
False
during and after World War II
200
When did San Diego's population grow so rapidly that it nearly tripled?
5ad4bdaa5b96ef001a109ece
True
Operation Cherry Blossoms at Night
453
What was the name of the attack the Japanese had planned against San Francisco?
5ad4bdaa5b96ef001a109ecf
True
fleas infected with plague (Yersinia pestis)
532
What were the Japanese originally going to drop on San Francisco from their kamikaze planes?
5ad4bdaa5b96ef001a109ed0
True
Japan surrendered five weeks earlier
809
Why didn't the Japanese launch their planned attack on September 20, 1945?
5ad4bdaa5b96ef001a109ed1
True
tens of thousands
689
How many civilians were the Japanese hoping to kill during their planned attack on San Francisco?
5ad4bdaa5b96ef001a109ed2
True
During World War II, San Diego became a major hub of military and defense activity, due to the presence of so many military installations and defense manufacturers. The city's population grew rapidly during and after World War II, more than doubling between 1930 (147,995) and 1950 (333,865). During the final months of the war, the Japanese had a plan to target multiple U.S. cities for biological attack, starting with San Diego. The plan was called "Operation Cherry Blossoms at Night" and called for kamikaze planes filled with fleas infected with plague (Yersinia pestis) to crash into civilian population centers in the city, hoping to spread plague in the city and effectively kill tens of thousands of civilians. The plan was scheduled to launch on September 22, 1945, but was not carried out because Japan surrendered five weeks earlier.
What nickname was San Diego given by the tuna canning industry in the 1970s?
572ff077b2c2fd1400568613
the tuna capital of the world
138
False
How many jobs were created by the mid-1930s thanks to San Diego's tuna cannery that was developed in 1911?
572ff077b2c2fd1400568614
more than 1,000
266
False
Why were the canneries ultimately closed by the early 1980s?
572ff077b2c2fd1400568615
rising costs and foreign competition
522
False
Immigrants from what country were primarily hired by the fishing fleets that supported the canneries??
572ff077b2c2fd1400568616
Japan
380
False
From what region in Portugal did immigrants come from to work in San Diego's fishing industry?
572ff077b2c2fd1400568617
Portuguese Azores
406
False
the tuna capital of the world
138
What nickname was San Diego given by the tuna canning industry in the 1960s?
5ad4bda75b96ef001a109ec4
True
more than 1,000 people
266
How many jobs were created by the mid-1930s thanks to San Diego's tuna cannery that was developed in 1921?
5ad4bda75b96ef001a109ec5
True
rising costs and foreign competition
522
Why were the canneries ultimately closed by the early 1970s?
5ad4bda75b96ef001a109ec6
True
Japan
380
Immigrants from what country were primarily fired by the fishing fleets that supported the canneries??
5ad4bda75b96ef001a109ec7
True
Portuguese Azores
406
From what region in Portugal did immigrants come from to work in San Francisco's fishing industry?
5ad4bda75b96ef001a109ec8
True
From the start of the 20th century through the 1970s, the American tuna fishing fleet and tuna canning industry were based in San Diego, "the tuna capital of the world". San Diego's first tuna cannery was founded in 1911, and by the mid-1930s the canneries employed more than 1,000 people. A large fishing fleet supported the canneries, mostly staffed by immigrant fishermen from Japan, and later from the Portuguese Azores and Italy whose influence is still felt in neighborhoods like Little Italy and Point Loma. Due to rising costs and foreign competition, the last of the canneries closed in the early 1980s.
In what direction does the San Diego River run through the city?
572ff3d3a23a5019007fcb9f
east to west
554
False
What bodies of water can be found separating different developed areas of the city?
572ff3d3a23a5019007fcba0
reservoirs
797
False
What is created by the many canyons and hills throughout San Diego?
572ff3d3a23a5019007fcba1
small pockets of natural open space
89
False
What divides the city's northern and southern segments?
572ff3d3a23a5019007fcba2
San Diego River
496
False
Where did the San Diego River once flow to?
572ff3d3a23a5019007fcba3
San Diego Bay
689
False
east to west
554
In what direction does the San Francisco River run through the city?
5ad4bda35b96ef001a109eba
True
reservoirs
797
What bodies of water can't be found separating different developed areas of the city?
5ad4bda35b96ef001a109ebb
True
small pockets of natural open space
89
What is created by the many canyons and hills throughout San Francisco?
5ad4bda35b96ef001a109ebc
True
The San Diego River
492
What divides the city's eastern and western segments?
5ad4bda35b96ef001a109ebd
True
San Diego Bay
689
Where did the San Francisco River once flow to?
5ad4bda35b96ef001a109ebe
True
The city lies on approximately 200 deep canyons and hills separating its mesas, creating small pockets of natural open space scattered throughout the city and giving it a hilly geography. Traditionally, San Diegans have built their homes and businesses on the mesas, while leaving the urban canyons relatively wild. Thus, the canyons give parts of the city a segmented feel, creating gaps between otherwise proximate neighborhoods and contributing to a low-density, car-centered environment. The San Diego River runs through the middle of San Diego from east to west, creating a river valley which serves to divide the city into northern and southern segments. The river used to flow into San Diego Bay and its fresh water was the focus of the earliest Spanish explorers.[citation needed] Several reservoirs and Mission Trails Regional Park also lie between and separate developed areas of the city.
What community covers the area from Downtown San Diego to the peninsula?
572ff5ea04bcaa1900d76f37
Point Loma
1023
False
Where is Otay Mesa found within the city?
572ff5ea04bcaa1900d76f38
next to the Mexico–United States border
1175
False
What is the only coastal community in San Diego without the word "beach" in its name?
572ff5ea04bcaa1900d76f39
La Jolla
966
False
Which valley is encompassed by the most northeast portion of San Diego?
572ff5ea04bcaa1900d76f3a
San Pasqual Valley
684
False
Point Loma
1023
What community covers the area from Downtown San Francisco to the peninsula?
5ad4c6f05b96ef001a10a024
True
next to the Mexico–United States border
1175
Where is Otay Mesa found outside the city?
5ad4c6f05b96ef001a10a025
True
La Jolla
966
What is the only coastal community in San Francisco without the word "beach" in its name?
5ad4c6f05b96ef001a10a026
True
La Jolla
966
What is the only coastal community in San Diego with the word "beach" in its name?
5ad4c6f05b96ef001a10a027
True
San Pasqual Valley
684
Which valley is encompassed by the most southeast portion of San Diego?
5ad4c6f05b96ef001a10a028
True
Downtown San Diego is located on San Diego Bay. Balboa Park encompasses several mesas and canyons to the northeast, surrounded by older, dense urban communities including Hillcrest and North Park. To the east and southeast lie City Heights, the College Area, and Southeast San Diego. To the north lies Mission Valley and Interstate 8. The communities north of the valley and freeway, and south of Marine Corps Air Station Miramar, include Clairemont, Kearny Mesa, Tierrasanta, and Navajo. Stretching north from Miramar are the northern suburbs of Mira Mesa, Scripps Ranch, Rancho Peñasquitos, and Rancho Bernardo. The far northeast portion of the city encompasses Lake Hodges and the San Pasqual Valley, which holds an agricultural preserve. Carmel Valley and Del Mar Heights occupy the northwest corner of the city. To their south are Torrey Pines State Reserve and the business center of the Golden Triangle. Further south are the beach and coastal communities of La Jolla, Pacific Beach, Mission Beach, and Ocean Beach. Point Loma occupies the peninsula across San Diego Bay from downtown. The communities of South San Diego, such as San Ysidro and Otay Mesa, are located next to the Mexico–United States border, and are physically separated from the rest of the city by the cities of National City and Chula Vista. A narrow strip of land at the bottom of San Diego Bay connects these southern neighborhoods with the rest of the city.
What was the first skyscraper built in San Diego that was over 300-feet tall?
572ff88d947a6a140053ceaa
El Cortez Hotel
106
False
How tall is One America Plaza?
572ff88d947a6a140053ceab
500 feet
415
False
What played a role in determining the maximum height skyscrapers can be in San Diego?
572ff88d947a6a140053ceac
San Diego International Airport
674
False
What organization regulates building heights in San Diego?
572ff88d947a6a140053cead
Federal Aviation Administration
549
False
What bank spent time as being the tallest building in San Diego?
572ff88d947a6a140053ceae
Union Bank of California Building
285
False
El Cortez Hotel
106
What was the first skyscraper built in San Diego that was over 200-feet tall?
5ad4c7425b96ef001a10a038
True
500 feet
415
How tall is Two America Plaza?
5ad4c7425b96ef001a10a039
True
San Diego International Airport
674
What played a role in determining the maximum height skyscrapers can be in San Francisco?
5ad4c7425b96ef001a10a03a
True
Federal Aviation Administration
549
What organization regulates building heights in San Francisco?
5ad4c7425b96ef001a10a03b
True
Union Bank of California Building
285
What bank spent time as being the shortest building in San Diego?
5ad4c7425b96ef001a10a03c
True
The development of skyscrapers over 300 feet (91 m) in San Diego is attributed to the construction of the El Cortez Hotel in 1927, the tallest building in the city from 1927 to 1963. As time went on multiple buildings claimed the title of San Diego's tallest skyscraper, including the Union Bank of California Building and Symphony Towers. Currently the tallest building in San Diego is One America Plaza, standing 500 feet (150 m) tall, which was completed in 1991. The downtown skyline contains no super-talls, as a regulation put in place by the Federal Aviation Administration in the 1970s set a 500 feet (152 m) limit on the height of buildings due to the proximity of San Diego International Airport. An iconic description of the skyline includes its skyscrapers being compared to the tools of a toolbox.
When does San Diego receive most of its precipitation?
572ffbb004bcaa1900d76fb3
between December and March
543
False
How many days of the year does San Diego typically experience temperatures above 70 degrees Fahrenheit ?
572ffbb004bcaa1900d76fb4
201 days
630
False
What ranked San Diego as having the country's best summer climate?
572ffbb004bcaa1900d76fb5
Weather Channel
141
False
What type of climate is San Diego classified as having?
572ffbb004bcaa1900d76fb6
semi-arid climate
282
False
What type of weather can one expect to experience in San Diego in the winter?
572ffbb004bcaa1900d76fb7
mild
484
False
between December and March.
543
When does San Francisco receive most of its precipitation?
5ad4c7b75b96ef001a10a05e
True
201 days
630
How many days of the year does San Diego typically experience temperatures above 60 degrees Fahrenheit ?
5ad4c7b75b96ef001a10a05f
True
The Weather Channel
137
What ranked San Diego as having the country's worst summer climate?
5ad4c7b75b96ef001a10a060
True
semi-arid climate
282
What type of climate is San Francisco classified as having?
5ad4c7b75b96ef001a10a061
True
mild
484
What type of weather can one expect to experience in San Francisco in the winter?
5ad4c7b75b96ef001a10a062
True
San Diego is one of the top-ten best climates in the Farmers' Almanac and is one of the two best summer climates in America as scored by The Weather Channel. Under the Köppen–Geiger climate classification system, the San Diego area has been variously categorized as having either a semi-arid climate (BSh in the original classification and BSkn in modified Köppen classification) or a Mediterranean climate (Csa and Csb). San Diego's climate is characterized by warm, dry summers and mild winters with most of the annual precipitation falling between December and March. The city has a mild climate year-round, with an average of 201 days above 70 °F (21 °C) and low rainfall (9–13 inches [230–330 mm] annually). Dewpoints in the summer months range from 57.0 °F (13.9 °C) to 62.4 °F (16.9 °C).
What areas experience the most significant temperature variations?
5730032ba23a5019007fcc3d
inland areas
671
False
What is the average high temperature in El Cajon in August?
5730032ba23a5019007fcc3e
88 °F
1064
False
What frequently blankets San Diego in May and June?
5730032ba23a5019007fcc3f
a thick "marine layer" cloud cover
336
False
What is the average January low temperature in downtown San Diego?
5730032ba23a5019007fcc40
50 °F (10 °C)
881
False
What effect does the springtime cloud cover have on the temperature?
5730032ba23a5019007fcc41
keep the air cool and damp
376
False
inland areas
671
What areas experience the most insignificant temperature variations?
5ad4c8cc5b96ef001a10a07a
True
88 °F
1064
What is the average high temperature in El Cajon in July?
5ad4c8cc5b96ef001a10a07b
True
a thick "marine layer" cloud cover
336
What frequently blankets San Francisco in May and June?
5ad4c8cc5b96ef001a10a07c
True
50 °F (10 °C)
881
What is the average January high temperature in downtown San Diego?
5ad4c8cc5b96ef001a10a07d
True
keep the air cool and damp
376
What effect does the summertime cloud cover have on the temperature?
5ad4c8cc5b96ef001a10a07e
True
The climate in San Diego, like most of Southern California, often varies significantly over short geographical distances resulting in microclimates. In San Diego, this is mostly because of the city's topography (the Bay, and the numerous hills, mountains, and canyons). Frequently, particularly during the "May gray/June gloom" period, a thick "marine layer" cloud cover will keep the air cool and damp within a few miles of the coast, but will yield to bright cloudless sunshine approximately 5–10 miles (8.0–16.1 km) inland. Sometimes the June gloom can last into July, causing cloudy skies over most of San Diego for the entire day. Even in the absence of June gloom, inland areas tend to experience much more significant temperature variations than coastal areas, where the ocean serves as a moderating influence. Thus, for example, downtown San Diego averages January lows of 50 °F (10 °C) and August highs of 78 °F (26 °C). The city of El Cajon, just 10 miles (16 km) inland from downtown San Diego, averages January lows of 42 °F (6 °C) and August highs of 88 °F (31 °C).
What is the average rainfall in February along the coast?
5730055004bcaa1900d77023
2 inches (51 mm)
333
False
What is significant about the weather that San Diego experienced in December 1921?
5730055004bcaa1900d77024
wettest month on record
938
False
What is the average annual precipitation along San Diego's coast?
5730055004bcaa1900d77025
10.65 inches (271 mm)
117
False
What months are nearly completely dry in San Diego?
5730055004bcaa1900d77026
May through September
381
False
What areas of San Diego typically experienced the greatest rainfall?
5730055004bcaa1900d77027
higher elevation areas
622
False
2 inches (51 mm)
333
What is the average rainfall in January along the coast?
5ad4c9205b96ef001a10a08e
True
wettest month on record
938
What is significant about the weather that San Diego experienced in December 1912?
5ad4c9205b96ef001a10a08f
True
10.65 inches (271 mm)
117
What is the average annual precipitation along San Francisco's coast?
5ad4c9205b96ef001a10a090
True
May through September
381
What months are nearly completely dry in San Francisco?
5ad4c9205b96ef001a10a091
True
higher elevation areas
622
What areas of San Francisco typically experienced the greatest rainfall?
5ad4c9205b96ef001a10a092
True
Rainfall along the coast averages about 10 inches (250 mm) of precipitation annually. The average (mean) rainfall is 10.65 inches (271 mm) and the median is 9.6 inches (240 mm). Most of the rainfall occurs during the cooler months. The months of December through March supply most of the rain, with February the only month averaging 2 inches (51 mm) or more of rain. The months of May through September tend to be almost completely dry. Though there are few wet days per month during the rainy period, rainfall can be heavy when it does fall. Rainfall is usually greater in the higher elevations of San Diego; some of the higher elevation areas of San Diego can receive 11–15 inches (280–380 mm) of rain a year. Variability of rainfall can be extreme: in the wettest years of 1883/1884 and 1940/1941 more than 24 inches (610 mm) fell in the city, whilst in the driest years as little as 3.2 inches (80 mm) has fallen for a full year. The wettest month on record has been December 1921 with 9.21 inches (234 mm).
What trees are protected along the coast of San Diego?
573006b4947a6a140053cf86
Torrey pine
190
False
What drought-resistant shrub is San Diego known for?
573006b4947a6a140053cf87
chaparral
102
False
Where can one find the most sage scrub in San Diego?
573006b4947a6a140053cf88
low elevations
504
False
What disadvantage comes along with sage scrub habitats?
573006b4947a6a140053cf89
prone to wildfire
539
False
How is San Diego able to offer everything from tidal marsh to canyons?
573006b4947a6a140053cf8a
The steep and varied topography and proximity to the ocean create a number of different habitats
299
False
Torrey pine
190
What trees are protected along the coast of San Francisco?
5ad4d03b5b96ef001a10a182
True
chaparral
459
What drought-resistant shrub is San Francisco known for?
5ad4d03b5b96ef001a10a183
True
low elevations
504
Where can one find the most sage scrub in San Francisco?
5ad4d03b5b96ef001a10a184
True
prone to wildfire
539
What advantage comes along with sage scrub habitats?
5ad4d03b5b96ef001a10a185
True
The steep and varied topography and proximity to the ocean create a number of different habitats
299
How is San Francisco able to offer everything from tidal marsh to canyons?
5ad4d03b5b96ef001a10a186
True
Like most of southern California, the majority of San Diego's current area was originally occupied by chaparral, a plant community made up mostly of drought-resistant shrubs. The endangered Torrey pine has the bulk of its population in San Diego in a stretch of protected chaparral along the coast. The steep and varied topography and proximity to the ocean create a number of different habitats within the city limits, including tidal marsh and canyons. The chaparral and coastal sage scrub habitats in low elevations along the coast are prone to wildfire, and the rates of fire have increased in the 20th century, due primarily to fires starting near the borders of urban and wild areas.
How many bird species have been observed in San Diego?
573009aca23a5019007fcc8d
492
277
False
What birding event does the Audubon Society host every year?
573009aca23a5019007fcc8e
Christmas Bird Count
425
False
What is special about the animal and plant species found in San Diego?
573009aca23a5019007fcc8f
highest counts of animal and plant species that appear on the endangered species list
32
False
What flyway contributes to the diverse bird population in San Diego County?
573009aca23a5019007fcc90
Pacific Flyway
215
False
What word describes San Diego County due to the many birds residing there?
573009aca23a5019007fcc91
birdiest
512
False
492
277
How many bird species have been observed in San Francisco?
5ad4d1d35b96ef001a10a1bc
True
Christmas Bird Count
425
What birding event does the Audubon Society host some years?
5ad4d1d35b96ef001a10a1bd
True
highest counts of animal and plant species that appear on the endangered species list
32
What is special about the animal and plant species found in San Francisco?
5ad4d1d35b96ef001a10a1be
True
Pacific Flyway
215
What flyway contributes to the diverse bird population in San Francisco County?
5ad4d1d35b96ef001a10a1bf
True
birdiest
512
What word describes San Diego County due to the few birds residing there?
5ad4d1d35b96ef001a10a1c0
True
San Diego County has one of the highest counts of animal and plant species that appear on the endangered species list among counties in the United States. Because of its diversity of habitat and its position on the Pacific Flyway, San Diego County has recorded the presence of 492 bird species, more than any other region in the country. San Diego always scores very high in the number of bird species observed in the annual Christmas Bird Count, sponsored by the Audubon Society, and it is known as one of the "birdiest" areas in the United States.
When did California's largest wildfire of the century take place?
57300c6a04bcaa1900d77099
October 2003
68
False
How many acres were burned in the historic Cedar Fire of 2003?
57300c6a04bcaa1900d7709a
280,000 acres (1,100 km2)
220
False
Why did San Diego schools close during the Cedar Fire?
57300c6a04bcaa1900d7709b
poor air quality
489
False
How many years after the Cedar Fire did additional fires destroy Rancho Santa Fe?
57300c6a04bcaa1900d7709c
four years later
569
False
How many homes were destroyed in the Cedar Fire?
57300c6a04bcaa1900d7709d
more than 2,200
279
False
October 2003
68
When did California's smallest wildfire of the century take place?
5ad4d2705b96ef001a10a1d0
True
280,000 acres
220
How many acres were burned in the historic Cedar Fire of 2002?
5ad4d2705b96ef001a10a1d1
True
poor air quality
489
Why did San Francisco schools close during the Cedar Fire?
5ad4d2705b96ef001a10a1d2
True
four years later
569
How many years after the Cedar Fire did additional fires destroy Rancho Francisco Fe?
5ad4d2705b96ef001a10a1d3
True
more than 2,200
279
How many homes were saved in the Cedar Fire?
5ad4d2705b96ef001a10a1d4
True
San Diego and its backcountry are subject to periodic wildfires. In October 2003, San Diego was the site of the Cedar Fire, which has been called the largest wildfire in California over the past century. The fire burned 280,000 acres (1,100 km2), killed 15 people, and destroyed more than 2,200 homes. In addition to damage caused by the fire, smoke resulted in a significant increase in emergency room visits due to asthma, respiratory problems, eye irritation, and smoke inhalation; the poor air quality caused San Diego County schools to close for a week. Wildfires four years later destroyed some areas, particularly within the communities of Rancho Bernardo, Rancho Santa Fe, and Ramona.
In the top five largest urban areas in California, where does San Diego rank?
5730100d04bcaa1900d770db
third-largest
262
False
What area does Los Angeles and San Francisco merge with to form metropolitan areas larger than San Diego?
5730100d04bcaa1900d770dc
Riverside–San Bernardino
407
False
What was the population of San Diego at the time of the 2010 census?
5730100d04bcaa1900d770dd
1,307,402
29
False
How many square miles does San Diego cover?
5730100d04bcaa1900d770de
372.1
101
False
What is the population of San Diego's urgan area?
5730100d04bcaa1900d770df
2,956,746
237
False
third-largest
262
In the top ten smallest urban areas in California, where does San Diego rank?
5ad4d2d45b96ef001a10a1ee
True
Riverside–San Bernardino
407
What area does Los Angeles and San Francisco merge with to form metropolitan areas smaller than San Diego?
5ad4d2d45b96ef001a10a1ef
True
1,307,402
29
What was the population of San Diego at the time of the 2000 census?
5ad4d2d45b96ef001a10a1f0
True
372.1
101
How many square miles does San Francisco cover?
5ad4d2d45b96ef001a10a1f1
True
2,956,746
237
What is the population of San Francisco's urban area?
5ad4d2d45b96ef001a10a1f2
True
The city had a population of 1,307,402 according to the 2010 census, distributed over a land area of 372.1 square miles (963.7 km2). The urban area of San Diego extends beyond the administrative city limits and had a total population of 2,956,746, making it the third-largest urban area in the state, after that of the Los Angeles metropolitan area and San Francisco metropolitan area. They, along with the Riverside–San Bernardino, form those metropolitan areas in California larger than the San Diego metropolitan area, with a total population of 3,095,313 at the 2010 census.
What was the population density of San Diego in 2009?
573012fab2c2fd1400568809
3,771.9 people per square mile (1,456.4/km2)
308
False
What ethnicity made up 15.9.% of San Diego's population in 2009?
573012fab2c2fd140056880a
Asian
453
False
In 2009, what percentage of the population was Hispanic?
573012fab2c2fd140056880b
28.8%
755
False
What was San Diego's population at the time of the 2010 census?
573012fab2c2fd140056880c
1,307,402
37
False
What was the population increase in San Diego from 2009 to 2010?
573012fab2c2fd140056880d
just under 7%
128
False
3,771.9 people per square mile (1,456.4/km2)
308
What was the population density of San Diego in 2008?
5ad4d34c5b96ef001a10a20a
True
Asian
453
What ethnicity made up 19.5.% of San Diego's population in 2009?
5ad4d34c5b96ef001a10a20b
True
28.8%
755
In 2008, what percentage of the population was Hispanic?
5ad4d34c5b96ef001a10a20c
True
1,307,402
37
What was San Diego's population at the time of the 2012 census?
5ad4d34c5b96ef001a10a20d
True
just under 7%
128
What was the population increase in San Diego from 2009 to 2011?
5ad4d34c5b96ef001a10a20e
True
As of the Census of 2010, there were 1,307,402 people living in the city of San Diego. That represents a population increase of just under 7% from the 1,223,400 people, 450,691 households, and 271,315 families reported in 2000. The estimated city population in 2009 was 1,306,300. The population density was 3,771.9 people per square mile (1,456.4/km2). The racial makeup of San Diego was 45.1% White, 6.7% African American, 0.6% Native American, 15.9% Asian (5.9% Filipino, 2.7% Chinese, 2.5% Vietnamese, 1.3% Indian, 1.0% Korean, 0.7% Japanese, 0.4% Laotian, 0.3% Cambodian, 0.1% Thai). 0.5% Pacific Islander (0.2% Guamanian, 0.1% Samoan, 0.1% Native Hawaiian), 12.3% from other races, and 5.1% from two or more races. The ethnic makeup of the city was 28.8% Hispanic or Latino (of any race); 24.9% of the total population were Mexican American, and 0.6% were Puerto Rican.
In what year was the household median income in San Diego at $45,733?
573014b3947a6a140053d084
2000
227
False
What was the median age of non-Hispanic whites in 2008?
573014b3947a6a140053d085
41.6
491
False
In 2008, which racial group had the most individuals under the age of 18?
573014b3947a6a140053d086
Hispanics
529
False
Of the population of individuals 55 and older, what percentage were non-Hispanic whites in 2008?
573014b3947a6a140053d087
63.1%
620
False
What did the average salary increase to at the time of the 2008 census?
573014b3947a6a140053d088
$66,715
140
False
2000
227
In what year was the household median income in San Francisco at $45,733?
5ad4d3bf5b96ef001a10a214
True
41.6
491
What was the median age of non-Hispanic whites in 2009?
5ad4d3bf5b96ef001a10a215
True
Hispanics
529
In 2008, which racial group had the most individuals under the age of 16?
5ad4d3bf5b96ef001a10a216
True
63.1%
620
Of the population of individuals 65 and older, what percentage were non-Hispanic whites in 2008?
5ad4d3bf5b96ef001a10a217
True
$66,715
140
What did the average salary decrease to at the time of the 2008 census?
5ad4d3bf5b96ef001a10a218
True
As of January 1, 2008 estimates by the San Diego Association of Governments revealed that the household median income for San Diego rose to $66,715, up from $45,733, and that the city population rose to 1,336,865, up 9.3% from 2000. The population was 45.3% non-Hispanic whites, down from 78.9% in 1970, 27.7% Hispanics, 15.6% Asians/Pacific Islanders, 7.1% blacks, 0.4% American Indians, and 3.9% from other races. Median age of Hispanics was 27.5 years, compared to 35.1 years overall and 41.6 years among non-Hispanic whites; Hispanics were the largest group in all ages under 18, and non-Hispanic whites constituted 63.1% of population 55 and older.
What regional planning agency offers graphs and tables of census information for San Diego?
57301733947a6a140053d0be
SANDAG
415
False
What percentage of San Diego's population was under the age of 18 in 2000?
57301733947a6a140053d0bf
24.0%
46
False
Which age group accounted for 10.5% of the population in 2000?
57301733947a6a140053d0c0
65 and over
105
False
In what year was the median age of residents in San Diego 35.6?
57301733947a6a140053d0c1
2011
124
False
What percentage of the population in 2011 were millenials?
57301733947a6a140053d0c2
27.1%
283
False
SANDAG
415
What regional planning agency offers graphs and tables of census information for San Francisco?
5ad4d3f95b96ef001a10a21e
True
24.0%
46
What percentage of San Diego's population was under the age of 18 in 2002?
5ad4d3f95b96ef001a10a21f
True
65 and over
105
Which age group accounted for 10.5% of the population in 2002?
5ad4d3f95b96ef001a10a220
True
2011
124
In what year was the median age of residents in San Diego 36.5?
5ad4d3f95b96ef001a10a221
True
27.1%
283
What percentage of the population in 2010 were millenials?
5ad4d3f95b96ef001a10a222
True
The U.S. Census Bureau reported that in 2000, 24.0% of San Diego residents were under 18, and 10.5% were 65 and over. As of 2011[update] the median age was 35.6; more than a quarter of residents were under age 20 and 11% were over age 65. Millennials (ages 18 through 34) constitute 27.1% of San Diego's population, the second-highest percentage in a major U.S. city. The San Diego County regional planning agency, SANDAG, provides tables and graphs breaking down the city population into 5-year age groups.
What percentage of the population fell below the poverty line in San Diego in 2005?
573019ca04bcaa1900d77195
14.6%
335
False
What did Money magazine rate San Diego as being in 2006?
573019ca04bcaa1900d77196
fifth-best place to live in the United States
497
False
What magazine rated San Diego as being the country's fifth wealthiest city?
573019ca04bcaa1900d77197
Forbes
242
False
In 2000,  what was the median salary for females in San Diego?
573019ca04bcaa1900d77198
$31,076
160
False
What percentage of familes were below the poverty line in 2005?
573019ca04bcaa1900d77199
10.6%
313
False
14.6%
335
What percentage of the population fell below the poverty line in San Diego in 2006?
5ad4d4415b96ef001a10a228
True
fifth-best place to live in the United States
497
What did Money magazine rate San Diego as being in 2005?
5ad4d4415b96ef001a10a229
True
Forbes
242
What magazine rated San Diego as being the country's fourth wealthiest city?
5ad4d4415b96ef001a10a22a
True
$31,076
160
In 2010, what was the median salary for females in San Diego?
5ad4d4415b96ef001a10a22b
True
10.6%
313
What percentage of familes were below the poverty line in 2015?
5ad4d4415b96ef001a10a22c
True
In 2000, the median income for a household in the city was $45,733, and the median income for a family was $53,060. Males had a median income of $36,984 versus $31,076 for females. The per capita income for the city was $23,609. According to Forbes in 2005, San Diego was the fifth wealthiest U.S. city but about 10.6% of families and 14.6% of the population were below the poverty line, including 20.0% of those under age 18 and 7.6% of those age 65 or over. Nonetheless, San Diego was rated the fifth-best place to live in the United States in 2006 by Money magazine.
What type of tours attract a large number of visitors to San Diego?
57301b33a23a5019007fcd6d
beer tours
478
False
What big event takes place in San Diego in November?
57301b33a23a5019007fcd6e
San Diego Beer Week
505
False
What historical mission is a major tourist attraction in San Diego?
57301b33a23a5019007fcd6f
Mission San Diego de Alcala
320
False
What popular park in San Diego is home to the San Diego Zoo, SeaWorld, and countless museums?
57301b33a23a5019007fcd70
Balboa Park
111
False
What nickname has the city  been given as a result of its extensive craft beer industry?
57301b33a23a5019007fcd71
America's Craft Beer Capital
565
False
beer tours
478
What type of tours attract a large number of visitors to San Francisco?
5ad4d4bd5b96ef001a10a244
True
San Diego Beer Week
505
What big event takes place in San Diego in December?
5ad4d4bd5b96ef001a10a245
True
Mission San Diego de Alcala
320
What historical mission is a minor tourist attraction in San Diego?
5ad4d4bd5b96ef001a10a246
True
Balboa Park
111
What popular park in San Francisco is home to the San Diego Zoo, SeaWorld, and countless museums?
5ad4d4bd5b96ef001a10a247
True
America's Craft Beer Capital.
565
What nickname has the city been given as a result of its extensive craft wine industry?
5ad4d4bd5b96ef001a10a248
True
Tourism is a major industry owing to the city's climate, its beaches, and numerous tourist attractions such as Balboa Park, Belmont amusement park, San Diego Zoo, San Diego Zoo Safari Park, and SeaWorld San Diego. San Diego's Spanish and Mexican heritage is reflected in the many historic sites across the city, such as Mission San Diego de Alcala and Old Town San Diego State Historic Park. Also, the local craft brewing industry attracts an increasing number of visitors for "beer tours" and the annual San Diego Beer Week in November; San Diego has been called "America's Craft Beer Capital."
Where is San Diego's border crossing?
57301d1da23a5019007fcda7
the San Ysidro neighborhood at the San Ysidro Port of Entry
164
False
How long is the border that San Diego shares with Mexico?
57301d1da23a5019007fcda8
15-mile (24 km)
18
False
Where is the next nearest commercial crossing at the border?
57301d1da23a5019007fcda9
Otay Mesa
288
False
What is the volumte of trucks handled at the Otay Mesa crossing?
57301d1da23a5019007fcdaa
the third-highest volume of trucks and dollar value of trade among all United States-Mexico land crossings.
395
False
How many border crossings does San Diego share with Mexico?
57301d1da23a5019007fcdab
two
67
False
the San Ysidro neighborhood at the San Ysidro Port of Entry
164
Where is San Francisco's border crossing?
5ad4d50b5b96ef001a10a256
True
15-mile (24 km)
18
How long is the border that San Francisco shares with Mexico?
5ad4d50b5b96ef001a10a257
True
Otay Mesa
288
Where is the farthest commercial crossing at the border?
5ad4d50b5b96ef001a10a258
True
third-highest volume of trucks and dollar value of trade among all United States-Mexico land crossings
399
What is the volumte of bikes handled at the Otay Mesa crossing?
5ad4d50b5b96ef001a10a259
True
two
67
How many border crossings does San Francisco share with Mexico?
5ad4d50b5b96ef001a10a25a
True
The city shares a 15-mile (24 km) border with Mexico that includes two border crossings. San Diego hosts the busiest international border crossing in the world, in the San Ysidro neighborhood at the San Ysidro Port of Entry. A second, primarily commercial border crossing operates in the Otay Mesa area; it is the largest commercial crossing on the California-Baja California border and handles the third-highest volume of trucks and dollar value of trade among all United States-Mexico land crossings.
Why is San Diego known as an iHub Innovation Center?
57301f43b2c2fd14005688c7
for collaboration potentially between wireless and life sciences
577
False
What cellular  company is one of the city's largest private-sector employers?
57301f43b2c2fd14005688c8
Qualcomm
73
False
What cellular company is headquartered in San Diego that uses the AT&T network?
57301f43b2c2fd14005688c9
Cricket Communications
306
False
What is San Diego's largest software company?
57301f43b2c2fd14005688ca
Websense Inc
422
False
What sector does ESET fall under?
57301f43b2c2fd14005688cb
security
495
False
for collaboration potentially between wireless and life sciences
577
Why is San Francisco known as an iHub Innovation Center?
5ad4d5565b96ef001a10a26a
True
Qualcomm
73
What cellular company is one of the city's smallest private-sector employers?
5ad4d5565b96ef001a10a26b
True
Cricket Communications
306
What cellular company is headquartered in San Francisco that uses the AT&T network?
5ad4d5565b96ef001a10a26c
True
Websense Inc.
422
What is San Diego's smallest software company?
5ad4d5565b96ef001a10a26d
True
security
495
What sector does SEET fall under?
5ad4d5565b96ef001a10a26e
True
San Diego hosts several major producers of wireless cellular technology. Qualcomm was founded and is headquartered in San Diego, and is one of the largest private-sector employers in San Diego. Other wireless industry manufacturers headquartered here include Nokia, LG Electronics, Kyocera International., Cricket Communications and Novatel Wireless. The largest software company in San Diego is security software company Websense Inc. San Diego also has the U.S. headquarters for the Slovakian security company ESET. San Diego has been designated as an iHub Innovation Center for collaboration potentially between wireless and life sciences.
What institution has contributed to the growth of fuel biotechnology?
573020aeb2c2fd14005688ed
University of California
20
False
What city does San Diego come in second to in the biotech industry?
573020aeb2c2fd14005688ee
Boston
219
False
How many contract research organizations are in San Diego?
573020aeb2c2fd14005688ef
140
710
False
What two areas have the numerous research facilities and offices for biotech companies?
573020aeb2c2fd14005688f0
La Jolla and nearby Sorrento Valley
349
False
What two major biotech companies are headquartered in San Diego?
573020aeb2c2fd14005688f1
Illumina and Neurocrine Biosciences
508
False
University of California
20
What institution has contributed to the decline of fuel biotechnology?
5ad4d5a45b96ef001a10a288
True
Boston
219
What city does San Diego come in third to in the biotech industry?
5ad4d5a45b96ef001a10a289
True
140
710
How many contract research organizations are in San Francisco?
5ad4d5a45b96ef001a10a28a
True
La Jolla and nearby Sorrento Valley
349
What two areas have the few research facilities and offices for biotech companies?
5ad4d5a45b96ef001a10a28b
True
Illumina and Neurocrine Biosciences
508
What two major biotech companies are headquartered in San Francisco?
5ad4d5a45b96ef001a10a28c
True
The presence of the University of California, San Diego and other research institutions has helped to fuel biotechnology growth. In 2013, San Diego has the second-largest biotech cluster in the United States, below the Boston area and above the San Francisco Bay Area. There are more than 400 biotechnology companies in the area. In particular, the La Jolla and nearby Sorrento Valley areas are home to offices and research facilities for numerous biotechnology companies. Major biotechnology companies like Illumina and Neurocrine Biosciences are headquartered in San Diego, while many biotech and pharmaceutical companies have offices or research facilities in San Diego. San Diego is also home to more than 140 contract research organizations (CROs) that provide a variety of contract services for pharmaceutical and biotechnology companies.
What museum has a branch at the Santa Fe Depot?
573021e1947a6a140053d160
Museum of Contemporary Art San Diego (MCASD)
277
False
In what district can historic ship exhibits be found?
573021e1947a6a140053d161
Columbia district downtown
476
False
Where can one find the San Diego Zoo?
573021e1947a6a140053d162
Balboa Park
211
False
Which museum houses the USS Midway aircraft carrier?
573021e1947a6a140053d163
San Diego Aircraft Carrier Museum
638
False
What space-focused museum is in Balboa Park?
573021e1947a6a140053d164
San Diego Air & Space Museum
167
False
The Museum of Contemporary Art San Diego (MCASD)
273
What museum has no branch at the Santa Fe Depot?
5ad4d61a5b96ef001a10a2a2
True
Columbia district downtown
476
In what district can't historic ship exhibits be found?
5ad4d61a5b96ef001a10a2a3
True
Balboa Park
211
Where can one find the San Francisco Zoo?
5ad4d61a5b96ef001a10a2a4
True
San Diego Aircraft Carrier Museum
638
Which museum houses the USA Midway aircraft carrier?
5ad4d61a5b96ef001a10a2a5
True
San Diego Air & Space Museum
167
What space-focused museum is in Rocky Balboa Park?
5ad4d61a5b96ef001a10a2a6
True
Many popular museums, such as the San Diego Museum of Art, the San Diego Natural History Museum, the San Diego Museum of Man, the Museum of Photographic Arts, and the San Diego Air & Space Museum are located in Balboa Park, which is also the location of the San Diego Zoo. The Museum of Contemporary Art San Diego (MCASD) is located in La Jolla and has a branch located at the Santa Fe Depot downtown. The downtown branch consists of two building on two opposite streets. The Columbia district downtown is home to historic ship exhibits belonging to the San Diego Maritime Museum, headlined by the Star of India, as well as the unrelated San Diego Aircraft Carrier Museum featuring the USS Midway aircraft carrier.
Who is the director of the San Diego Symphony?
573022f604bcaa1900d7720b
Jahja Ling
89
False
Where can one enjoy a performance directed by Christopher Ashley?
573022f604bcaa1900d7720c
La Jolla Playhouse at UCSD
341
False
Which theater is known for hosting a variety of musicals and plays?
573022f604bcaa1900d7720d
San Diego Repertory Theatre at the Lyceum Theatres
737
False
How far back to San Diego's roots in the arts and theater sector go?
573022f604bcaa1900d7720e
1898
950
False
What did Opera America call the San Diego Opera at the Civic Center Plaza?
573022f604bcaa1900d7720f
one of the top 10 opera companies in the United States
201
False
Jahja Ling
89
Who is the director of the San Francisco Symphony?
5ad4d6685b96ef001a10a2b4
True
La Jolla Playhouse at UCSD
341
Where can one enjoy a performance acted by Christopher Ashley?
5ad4d6685b96ef001a10a2b5
True
San Diego Repertory Theatre at the Lyceum Theatres
737
Which theater is unknown for hosting a variety of musicals and plays?
5ad4d6685b96ef001a10a2b6
True
1898
950
How far back to San Francisco's roots in the arts and theater sector go?
5ad4d6685b96ef001a10a2b7
True
one of the top 10 opera companies in the United States
201
What did Opera America call the San Francisco Opera at the Civic Center Plaza?
5ad4d6685b96ef001a10a2b8
True
The San Diego Symphony at Symphony Towers performs on a regular basis and is directed by Jahja Ling. The San Diego Opera at Civic Center Plaza, directed by Ian Campbell, was ranked by Opera America as one of the top 10 opera companies in the United States. Old Globe Theatre at Balboa Park produces about 15 plays and musicals annually. The La Jolla Playhouse at UCSD is directed by Christopher Ashley. Both the Old Globe Theatre and the La Jolla Playhouse have produced the world premieres of plays and musicals that have gone on to win Tony Awards or nominations on Broadway. The Joan B. Kroc Theatre at Kroc Center's Performing Arts Center is a 600-seat state-of-the-art theatre that hosts music, dance, and theatre performances. The San Diego Repertory Theatre at the Lyceum Theatres in Horton Plaza produces a variety of plays and musicals. Hundreds of movies and a dozen TV shows have been filmed in San Diego, a tradition going back as far as 1898.
What tournament used to be known as the Buick Invitational?
573023d8b2c2fd140056893b
Farmers Insurance Open
93
False
How many times were the America's Cup yacht races hosted by the San Diego Yacht Club from 1988 to 1955?
573023d8b2c2fd140056893c
three times
351
False
What beach sport was inveted in San Diego?
573023d8b2c2fd140056893d
Over-the-line
419
False
What yacht-related event is held annually in Mission Bay?
573023d8b2c2fd140056893e
Over-the-line championships
481
False
What golf course hosts the Farmers Insurance Open?
573023d8b2c2fd140056893f
Torrey Pines Golf Course
192
False
Farmers Insurance Open
93
What tournament used to be known as the Dodge Invitational?
5ad4d6c55b96ef001a10a2d0
True
three times
351
How many times were the America's Cup yacht races hosted by the San Diego Yacht Club from 1988 to 1945?
5ad4d6c55b96ef001a10a2d1
True
Over-the-line
419
What beach sport was invented in San Francisco?
5ad4d6c55b96ef001a10a2d2
True
Over-the-line championships
481
What yacht-related event is held biannually in Mission Bay?
5ad4d6c55b96ef001a10a2d3
True
Torrey Pines Golf Course
192
What golf course hosts the Farmers Insurance Closed?
5ad4d6c55b96ef001a10a2d4
True
The San Diego Surf of the American Basketball Association is located in the city. The annual Farmers Insurance Open golf tournament (formerly the Buick Invitational) on the PGA Tour occurs at Torrey Pines Golf Course. This course was also the site of the 2008 U.S. Open Golf Championship. The San Diego Yacht Club hosted the America's Cup yacht races three times during the period 1988 to 1995. The amateur beach sport Over-the-line was invented in San Diego, and the annual world Over-the-line championships are held at Mission Bay every year.
In what year did the city vote to change to a strong mayor government?
5730256db2c2fd1400568963
2004
223
False
How many employees are there in San Diego for every 137 residents?
5730256db2c2fd1400568964
one
638
False
What is the number of members on the city's council?
5730256db2c2fd1400568965
9
38
False
Despite being a sanctuary city, what program does San Diego county participate in?
5730256db2c2fd1400568966
Secure Communities program
577
False
What is the county's payroll?
5730256db2c2fd1400568967
greater than $733 million.
691
False
2004
223
In what year did the city vote to change to a weak mayor government?
5ad4d70a5b96ef001a10a2da
True
one
638
How many employees are there in San Diego for every 37 residents?
5ad4d70a5b96ef001a10a2db
True
9
38
What is the number of members on the county's council?
5ad4d70a5b96ef001a10a2dc
True
Secure Communities program
577
Despite being a sanctuary city, what program does San Francisco county participate in?
5ad4d70a5b96ef001a10a2dd
True
greater than $733 million
691
What is the city's payroll?
5ad4d70a5b96ef001a10a2de
True
The city is governed by a mayor and a 9-member city council. In 2006, the city's form of government changed from a council–manager government to a strong mayor government. The change was brought about by a citywide vote in 2004. The mayor is in effect the chief executive officer of the city, while the council is the legislative body. The City of San Diego is responsible for police, public safety, streets, water and sewer service, planning and zoning, and similar services within its borders. San Diego is a sanctuary city, however, San Diego County is a participant of the Secure Communities program. As of 2011[update], the city had one employee for every 137 residents, with a payroll greater than $733 million.
Who votes in the city's attorney and mayor?
5730267504bcaa1900d77241
voters of the entire city
151
False
How long is the term for council members?
5730267504bcaa1900d77242
four-year terms,
239
False
Were there more Democrats or Republicans in 2007?
5730267504bcaa1900d77243
Democrats outnumbered Republicans by about 7 to 6
460
False
Who is Kevin Faulconer?
5730267504bcaa1900d77244
current mayor
613
False
Who elects members of city council?
5730267504bcaa1900d77245
single member districts within the city
54
False
voters of the entire city
151
Who votes in the city's attorney and general?
5ad4d7655b96ef001a10a2fe
True
four-year terms
239
How long is the term for security members?
5ad4d7655b96ef001a10a2ff
True
Democrats outnumbered Republicans by about 7 to 6
460
Were there more Democrats or Republicans in 2017?
5ad4d7655b96ef001a10a300
True
current mayor
613
Who isn't Kevin Faulconer?
5ad4d7655b96ef001a10a301
True
single member districts within the city
54
Who fires members of city council?
5ad4d7655b96ef001a10a302
True
The members of the city council are each elected from single member districts within the city. The mayor and city attorney are elected directly by the voters of the entire city. The mayor, city attorney, and council members are elected to four-year terms, with a two-term limit. Elections are held on a non-partisan basis per California state law; nevertheless, most officeholders do identify themselves as either Democrats or Republicans. In 2007, registered Democrats outnumbered Republicans by about 7 to 6 in the city, and Democrats currently (as of 2015[update]) hold a 5-4 majority in the city council. The current mayor, Kevin Faulconer, is a Republican.
What two members of city council were convicted of extortion in 2005?
573027d5947a6a140053d1be
Ralph Inzunza and Deputy Mayor Michael Zucchet
34
False
What strip club-related law were the council members trying to repeal?
573027d5947a6a140053d1bf
no touch
354
False
In what year were Zucchet's seven out of nine counts acquitted?
573027d5947a6a140053d1c0
2009
462
False
How long was Inzunza's  prison sentence?
573027d5947a6a140053d1c1
21 months
438
False
Who did Inzunza and Zucche accept money from?
573027d5947a6a140053d1c2
a strip club owner and his associates
260
False
Ralph Inzunza and Deputy Mayor Michael Zucchet
34
What two members of city council were convicted of extortion in 2015?
5ad4d7b65b96ef001a10a312
True
no touch
354
What strip club-related law were the council members trying to repeat?
5ad4d7b65b96ef001a10a313
True
2009
462
In what year were Zucchet's seven out of ten counts acquitted?
5ad4d7b65b96ef001a10a314
True
21 months
438
How long was Inzunza's hopital sentence?
5ad4d7b65b96ef001a10a315
True
strip club owner and his associates
262
Who did Inzunza and Zucche reject money from?
5ad4d7b65b96ef001a10a316
True
In 2005 two city council members, Ralph Inzunza and Deputy Mayor Michael Zucchet – who briefly took over as acting mayor when Murphy resigned – were convicted of extortion, wire fraud, and conspiracy to commit wire fraud for taking campaign contributions from a strip club owner and his associates, allegedly in exchange for trying to repeal the city's "no touch" laws at strip clubs. Both subsequently resigned. Inzunza was sentenced to 21 months in prison. In 2009, a judge acquitted Zucchet on seven out of the nine counts against him, and granted his petition for a new trial on the other two charges; the remaining charges were eventually dropped.
Why was Mayor Bob Filner asked to resign?
573028d9a23a5019007fcebb
allegations of repeated sexual harassment
89
False
How many women claimed to be sexually harassed by Filner?
573028d9a23a5019007fcebc
18
160
False
What was Filner's sentence?
573028d9a23a5019007fcebd
house arrest and probation
649
False
When did a mediation process begin between Filner and a city representative?
573028d9a23a5019007fcebe
August 19
305
False
How long did Filner's trial last?
573028d9a23a5019007fcebf
six weeks
149
False
allegations of repeated sexual harassment
89
Why was Mayor Bob Filner asked to re-sign for longer?
5ad4d8125b96ef001a10a31c
True
18
160
How many men claimed to be sexually harassed by Filner?
5ad4d8125b96ef001a10a31d
True
house arrest and probation
649
What wasn't Filner's sentence?
5ad4d8125b96ef001a10a31e
True
August 19
305
When did a mediation process begin between Filner and a county representative?
5ad4d8125b96ef001a10a31f
True
six weeks
149
How long did Filner's term last?
5ad4d8125b96ef001a10a320
True
In July 2013, three former supporters of Mayor Bob Filner asked him to resign because of allegations of repeated sexual harassment. Over the ensuing six weeks, 18 women came forward to publicly claim that Filner had sexually harassed them, and multiple individuals and groups called for him to resign. On August 19 Filner and city representatives entered a mediation process, as a result of which Filner agreed to resign, effective August 30, 2013, while the city agreed to limit his legal and financial exposure. Filner subsequently pleaded guilty to one felony count of false imprisonment and two misdemeanor battery charges, and was sentenced to house arrest and probation.
What happened to the crime rate in San Diego between 1990 and 2000?
57302a3d947a6a140053d202
San Diego had a declining crime rate from 1990 to 2000
232
False
What did Business Insider call San Diego in 2013?
57302a3d947a6a140053d203
20th-safest city in America
28
False
In what place did Forbes rank San Diego on it's top 10 list?
57302a3d947a6a140053d204
ninth
133
False
What percentage did the crime rate in San Diego drop from 2002 to 2006?
57302a3d947a6a140053d205
0.8%
491
False
What type of crime increased between 2002 and 2006?
57302a3d947a6a140053d206
property crime
584
False
San Diego had a declining crime rate
232
What happened to the crime rate in San Diego between 1990 and 2010?
5ad4d86e5b96ef001a10a33a
True
20th-safest city in America
28
What did Business Insider call San Diego in 2003?
5ad4d86e5b96ef001a10a33b
True
ninth
133
In what place did Forbes rank San Diego on it's top 5 list?
5ad4d86e5b96ef001a10a33c
True
0.8%
491
What percentage did the crime rate in San Diego drop from 2002 to 2016?
5ad4d86e5b96ef001a10a33d
True
property crime
584
What type of crime increased between 2002 and 2016?
5ad4d86e5b96ef001a10a33e
True
San Diego was ranked as the 20th-safest city in America in 2013 by Business Insider. According to Forbes magazine, San Diego was the ninth-safest city in the top 10 list of safest cities in the U.S. in 2010. Like most major cities, San Diego had a declining crime rate from 1990 to 2000. Crime in San Diego increased in the early 2000s. In 2004, San Diego had the sixth lowest crime rate of any U.S. city with over half a million residents. From 2002 to 2006, the crime rate overall dropped 0.8%, though not evenly by category. While violent crime decreased 12.4% during this period, property crime increased 1.1%. Total property crimes per 100,000 people were lower than the national average in 2008.
Which television station began broadcasting  on May 16, 1949?
57302da4a23a5019007fcf0f
KFMB
41
False
What is San Diego's cable penetration rate?
57302da4a23a5019007fcf10
80.6 percent
1004
False
Why was San Diego eligible for two VHF channels?
57302da4a23a5019007fcf11
because of its relative proximity to the larger city
236
False
In what year did UHF channels beging being licensed by the FCC?
57302da4a23a5019007fcf12
1952
293
False
What independent station is in San Diego?
57302da4a23a5019007fcf13
KUSI 51
903
False
KFMB
41
Which television station began broadcasting on May 16, 1994?
5ad4d90a5b96ef001a10a36c
True
80.6 percent
1004
What is San Francisco's cable penetration rate?
5ad4d90a5b96ef001a10a36d
True
because of its relative proximity to the larger city
236
Why was San Diego ineligible for two VHF channels?
5ad4d90a5b96ef001a10a36e
True
1952
293
In what year did VHF channels beging being licensed by the FCC?
5ad4d90a5b96ef001a10a36f
True
KUSI 51
903
What dependent station is in San Diego?
5ad4d90a5b96ef001a10a370
True
San Diego's first television station was KFMB, which began broadcasting on May 16, 1949. Since the Federal Communications Commission (FCC) licensed seven television stations in Los Angeles, two VHF channels were available for San Diego because of its relative proximity to the larger city. In 1952, however, the FCC began licensing UHF channels, making it possible for cities such as San Diego to acquire more stations. Stations based in Mexico (with ITU prefixes of XE and XH) also serve the San Diego market. Television stations today include XHTJB 3 (Once TV), XETV 6 (CW), KFMB 8 (CBS), KGTV 10 (ABC), XEWT 12 (Televisa Regional), KPBS 15 (PBS), KBNT-CD 17 (Univision), XHTIT-TDT 21 (Azteca 7), XHJK-TDT 27 (Azteca 13), XHAS 33 (Telemundo), K35DG-D 35 (UCSD-TV), KDTF-LD 51 (Telefutura), KNSD 39 (NBC), KZSD-LP 41 (Azteca America), KSEX-CD 42 (Infomercials), XHBJ-TDT 45 (Gala TV), XHDTV 49 (MNTV), KUSI 51 (Independent), XHUAA-TDT 57 (Canal de las Estrellas), and KSWB-TV 69 (Fox). San Diego has an 80.6 percent cable penetration rate.
How many duopolies does the Mexico side of San Diego-Tijuana have?
57302f1fa23a5019007fcf23
two
895
False
What company owns XHDTV-TV and XHAS-TV?
57302f1fa23a5019007fcf24
Entravision Communications
927
False
Which station is ran by Bay City Television?
57302f1fa23a5019007fcf25
XETV-TV
1105
False
What two stations are owned by Azteca?
57302f1fa23a5019007fcf26
XHJK-TV and XHTIT-TV
998
False
two
895
How many duopolies doesn't the Mexico side of San Diego-Tijuana have?
5ad4d96b5b96ef001a10a394
True
Entravision Communications
927
What company disowns XHDTV-TV and XHAS-TV?
5ad4d96b5b96ef001a10a395
True
XETV-TV
1105
Which station is ran by Ray City Television?
5ad4d96b5b96ef001a10a396
True
XETV-TV
1105
Which station isn't ran by Bay City Television?
5ad4d96b5b96ef001a10a397
True
XHJK-TV and XHTIT-TV
998
What three stations are owned by Azteca?
5ad4d96b5b96ef001a10a398
True
Due to the ratio of U.S. and Mexican-licensed stations, San Diego is the largest media market in the United States that is legally unable to support a television station duopoly between two full-power stations under FCC regulations, which disallow duopolies in metropolitan areas with fewer than nine full-power television stations and require that there must be eight unique station owners that remain once a duopoly is formed (there are only seven full-power stations on the California side of the San Diego-Tijuana market).[citation needed] Though the E. W. Scripps Company owns KGTV and KZSD-LP, they are not considered a duopoly under the FCC's legal definition as common ownership between full-power and low-power television stations in the same market is permitted regardless to the number of stations licensed to the area. As a whole, the Mexico side of the San Diego-Tijuana market has two duopolies and one triopoly (Entravision Communications owns both XHAS-TV and XHDTV-TV, Azteca owns XHJK-TV and XHTIT-TV, and Grupo Televisa owns XHUAA-TV and XHWT-TV along with being the license holder for XETV-TV, which is run by California-based subsidiary Bay City Television).
What is another name Free Radio San Diego is known by?
57303032a23a5019007fcf2b
Pirate Radio San Diego
461
False
In addition to Free Radio San Diego, what other pirate station is in San Diego?
57303032a23a5019007fcf2c
106.9FM
614
False
What is the largest nationwide broadcaster in San Diego?
57303032a23a5019007fcf2d
Clear Channel Communications
64
False
Which language are some local radio stations available in?
57303032a23a5019007fcf2e
Spanish
652
False
What is the exact setting for FM News & Talk?
57303032a23a5019007fcf2f
95.7
408
False
Pirate Radio San Diego
461
What is another name Free Radio San Francisco is known by?
5ad4d9bb5b96ef001a10a3a6
True
Spanish
652
Which language are all local radio stations available in?
5ad4d9bb5b96ef001a10a3a7
True
106.9FM
614
In addition to Free Radio San Diego, what other pirate station is in San Francisco?
5ad4d9bb5b96ef001a10a3a8
True
Clear Channel Communications
64
What is the largest nationwide broadcaster in San Francisco?
5ad4d9bb5b96ef001a10a3a9
True
95.7
408
What is the exact setting for AM News & Talk?
5ad4d9bb5b96ef001a10a3aa
True
The radio stations in San Diego include nationwide broadcaster, Clear Channel Communications; CBS Radio, Midwest Television, Lincoln Financial Media, Finest City Broadcasting, and many other smaller stations and networks. Stations include: KOGO AM 600, KFMB AM 760, KCEO AM 1000, KCBQ AM 1170, K-Praise, KLSD AM 1360 Air America, KFSD 1450 AM, KPBS-FM 89.5, Channel 933, Star 94.1, FM 94/9, FM News and Talk 95.7, Q96 96.1, KyXy 96.5, Free Radio San Diego (AKA Pirate Radio San Diego) 96.9FM FRSD, KSON 97.3/92.1, KXSN 98.1, Jack-FM 100.7, 101.5 KGB-FM, KLVJ 102.1, Rock 105.3, and another Pirate Radio station at 106.9FM, as well as a number of local Spanish-language radio stations.
What major interstate runs from Tijuana to Los Angeles?
5730314e04bcaa1900d77329
Interstate 8
241
False
Where does Interstate 805 split from I-5?
5730314e04bcaa1900d7732a
near the Mexican border
457
False
Which interstate directly connects the east with the Arizona Sun Corridor and Imperial County?
5730314e04bcaa1900d7732b
Interstate 8
241
False
What two major cities are Inland Empire connected to via Interstate 15?
5730314e04bcaa1900d7732c
Las Vegas and Salt Lake City
385
False
What percentage of San Diego's residents rely on theri automobile as a primary source of transportation?
5730314e04bcaa1900d7732d
over 80 percent
66
False
Interstate 8
241
What minor interstate runs from Tijuana to Los Angeles?
5ad4da115b96ef001a10a3c2
True
near the Mexican border
457
Where does Interstate 805 split from I-6?
5ad4da115b96ef001a10a3c3
True
Las Vegas and Salt Lake City
385
What two major cities are Inland Empire connected to via Interstate 51?
5ad4da115b96ef001a10a3c4
True
over 80 percent
66
What percentage of San Francisco's residents rely on their automobile as a primary source of transportation?
5ad4da115b96ef001a10a3c5
True
With the automobile being the primary means of transportation for over 80 percent of its residents, San Diego is served by a network of freeways and highways. This includes Interstate 5, which runs south to Tijuana and north to Los Angeles; Interstate 8, which runs east to Imperial County and the Arizona Sun Corridor; Interstate 15, which runs northeast through the Inland Empire to Las Vegas and Salt Lake City; and Interstate 805, which splits from I-5 near the Mexican border and rejoins I-5 at Sorrento Valley.
What highway connects the I-805 with the downtown area?
57303222947a6a140053d272
SR 94
29
False
Where does SR 94 merge with I-15?
57303222947a6a140053d273
at Miramar
201
False
Where does SR 75 flow primarily through?
57303222947a6a140053d274
San Diego Bay
389
False
SR 94
29
What highway connects the I-905 with the downtown area?
5ad4da4a5b96ef001a10a3d2
True
SR 94
29
What highway connects the I-805 with the uptown area?
5ad4da4a5b96ef001a10a3d3
True
Miramar
204
Where does SR 49 merge with I-15?
5ad4da4a5b96ef001a10a3d4
True
Miramar
204
Where does SR 94 merge with I-51?
5ad4da4a5b96ef001a10a3d5
True
San Diego Bay
389
Where does SR 57 flow primarily through?
5ad4da4a5b96ef001a10a3d6
True
Major state highways include SR 94, which connects downtown with I-805, I-15 and East County; SR 163, which connects downtown with the northeast part of the city, intersects I-805 and merges with I-15 at Miramar; SR 52, which connects La Jolla with East County through Santee and SR 125; SR 56, which connects I-5 with I-15 through Carmel Valley and Rancho Peñasquitos; SR 75, which spans San Diego Bay as the San Diego-Coronado Bridge, and also passes through South San Diego as Palm Avenue; and SR 905, which connects I-5 and I-805 to the Otay Mesa Port of Entry.
In what year was San Diego rated as the country's best densely populated city for cycling?
5730338eb2c2fd1400568a61
2006
770
False
Why are older neighborhoods in San Diego popular with cyclists?
5730338eb2c2fd1400568a62
the grid street patterns
503
False
What makes San Diego the ideal city to commute via bike?
5730338eb2c2fd1400568a63
dry and mild climate
94
False
Why are average trip distances so lengthy in San Diego?
5730338eb2c2fd1400568a64
the city's hilly, canyon-like terrain
205
False
2006
770
In what year was San Diego rated as the country's worst densely populated city for cycling?
5ad4daa15b96ef001a10a3fa
True
the grid street patterns
503
Why are older neighborhoods in San Diego unpopular with cyclists?
5ad4daa15b96ef001a10a3fb
True
the grid street patterns
503
Why are older neighborhoods in San Francisco popular with cyclists?
5ad4daa15b96ef001a10a3fc
True
dry and mild climate
94
What makes San Francisco the ideal city to commute via bike?
5ad4daa15b96ef001a10a3fd
True
the city's hilly, canyon-like terrain
205
Why are average trip distances so lengthy in San Francisco?
5ad4daa15b96ef001a10a3fe
True
San Diego's roadway system provides an extensive network of routes for travel by bicycle. The dry and mild climate of San Diego makes cycling a convenient and pleasant year-round option. At the same time, the city's hilly, canyon-like terrain and significantly long average trip distances—brought about by strict low-density zoning laws—somewhat restrict cycling for utilitarian purposes. Older and denser neighborhoods around the downtown tend to be utility cycling oriented. This is partly because of the grid street patterns now absent in newer developments farther from the urban core, where suburban style arterial roads are much more common. As a result, a vast majority of cycling-related activities are recreational. Testament to San Diego's cycling efforts, in 2006, San Diego was rated as the best city for cycling for U.S. cities with a population over 1 million.
What areas of San Diego are primarily served by the trolley?
5730349204bcaa1900d7736b
downtown and surrounding urban communities
251
False
What public transportation is in the works to be completed by 2018?
5730349204bcaa1900d7736c
A planned Mid-Coast extension of the Trolley
347
False
How many Amtrak stations are in San Diego?
5730349204bcaa1900d7736d
two
746
False
What number can you dial from any phone for public transportation information in San Diego?
5730349204bcaa1900d7736e
511
937
False
Where do the Amtrak and Coaster trains primarily run?
5730349204bcaa1900d7736f
along the coastline
581
False
downtown and surrounding urban communities
251
What areas of San Francisco are primarily served by the trolley?
5ad4db0c5b96ef001a10a40c
True
A planned Mid-Coast extension of the Trolley
347
What public transportation is in the works to be completed by 2019?
5ad4db0c5b96ef001a10a40d
True
two
746
How many Amtrak stations are in San Francisco?
5ad4db0c5b96ef001a10a40e
True
511
937
What number can you dial from any phone for public transportation information in San Francisco?
5ad4db0c5b96ef001a10a40f
True
along the coastline
581
Where do the Amtrak and Coaster trains primarily never run?
5ad4db0c5b96ef001a10a410
True
San Diego is served by the San Diego Trolley light rail system, by the SDMTS bus system, and by Coaster and Amtrak Pacific Surfliner commuter rail; northern San Diego county is also served by the Sprinter light rail line. The Trolley primarily serves downtown and surrounding urban communities, Mission Valley, east county, and coastal south bay. A planned Mid-Coast extension of the Trolley will operate from Old Town to University City and the University of California, San Diego along the I-5 Freeway, with planned operation by 2018. The Amtrak and Coaster trains currently run along the coastline and connect San Diego with Los Angeles, Orange County, Riverside, San Bernardino, and Ventura via Metrolink and the Pacific Surfliner. There are two Amtrak stations in San Diego, in Old Town and the Santa Fe Depot downtown. San Diego transit information about public transportation and commuting is available on the Web and by dialing "511" from any phone in the area.
What is the more popular name of Lindbergh Field?
573035c8b2c2fd1400568a7b
San Diego International Airport (SAN)
45
False
What independent agency operates San Diego International Airport?
573035c8b2c2fd1400568a7c
San Diego Regional Airport Authority
569
False
What is the purpose of the Tijuana Cross-border Terminal?
573035c8b2c2fd1400568a7d
give direct access to Tijuana International Airport
783
False
How many passengers did San Diego Internatonal Airport serve in 2005?
573035c8b2c2fd1400568a7e
17 million
192
False
What two general aviation airports are operated by the San Diego Regional Airport Authority?
573035c8b2c2fd1400568a7f
Montgomery Field (MYF) and Brown Field (SDM)
676
False
San Diego International Airport
45
What is the less popular name of Lindbergh Field?
5ad4db545b96ef001a10a420
True
San Diego Regional Airport Authority
569
What independent agency operates San Francisco International Airport?
5ad4db545b96ef001a10a421
True
give direct access to Tijuana International Airport,
783
What isn't the purpose of the Tijuana Cross-border Terminal?
5ad4db545b96ef001a10a422
True
17 million
192
How many passengers did San Diego Internatonal Airport serve in 2015?
5ad4db545b96ef001a10a423
True
Montgomery Field (MYF) and Brown Field (SDM)
676
What two general aviation airports are operated by the San Francisco Regional Airport Authority?
5ad4db545b96ef001a10a424
True
The city's primary commercial airport is the San Diego International Airport (SAN), also known as Lindbergh Field. It is the busiest single-runway airport in the United States. It served over 17 million passengers in 2005, and is dealing with an increasingly larger number every year. It is located on San Diego Bay three miles (4.8 km) from downtown. San Diego International Airport maintains scheduled flights to the rest of the United States including Hawaii, as well as to Mexico, Canada, Japan, and the United Kingdom. It is operated by an independent agency, the San Diego Regional Airport Authority. In addition, the city itself operates two general-aviation airports, Montgomery Field (MYF) and Brown Field (SDM). By 2015, the Tijuana Cross-border Terminal in Otay Mesa will give direct access to Tijuana International Airport, with passengers walking across the U.S.–Mexico border on a footbridge to catch their flight on the Mexican side.
What is the name given to the highly congested spot where Interstates 5 and 805 meet?
573036ea947a6a140053d2bc
The Merge
333
False
What tollway connects Otay Mesa with SR 54?
573036ea947a6a140053d2bd
The South Bay Expressway
551
False
Which terminal was expanded in the San Diego International Airport in 2013?
573036ea947a6a140053d2be
Terminal 2
966
False
What type of special lanes were added to Interstate 15?
573036ea947a6a140053d2bf
high-occupancy-vehicle (HOV) "managed lanes"
485
False
In 2007, what percentage of the roads in San Diego were considered acceptable?
573036ea947a6a140053d2c0
37 percent
666
False
The Merge
333
What is the name given to the highly congested spot where Interstates 85 and 805 meet?
5ad4dbaa5b96ef001a10a450
True
The South Bay Expressway
551
What tollway connects Otay Mesa with SR 45?
5ad4dbaa5b96ef001a10a451
True
Terminal 2
966
Which terminal was expanded in the San Diego International Airport in 2003?
5ad4dbaa5b96ef001a10a452
True
37 percent
666
What type of special lanes were added to Interstate 51?
5ad4dbaa5b96ef001a10a453
True
37 percent
666
In 2017, what percentage of the roads in San Diego were considered acceptable?
5ad4dbaa5b96ef001a10a454
True
Numerous regional transportation projects have occurred in recent years to mitigate congestion in San Diego. Notable efforts are improvements to San Diego freeways, expansion of San Diego Airport, and doubling the capacity of the cruise ship terminal of the port. Freeway projects included expansion of Interstates 5 and 805 around "The Merge," a rush-hour spot where the two freeways meet. Also, an expansion of Interstate 15 through the North County is underway with the addition of high-occupancy-vehicle (HOV) "managed lanes". There is a tollway (The South Bay Expressway) connecting SR 54 and Otay Mesa, near the Mexican border. According to a 2007 assessment, 37 percent of streets in San Diego were in acceptable driving condition. The proposed budget fell $84.6 million short of bringing the city's streets to an acceptable level. Port expansions included a second cruise terminal on Broadway Pier which opened in 2010. Airport projects include expansion of Terminal 2, currently under construction and slated for completion in summer 2013.
University of San Diego
54
What is a college in San Francisco?
5ad4d8c15b96ef001a10a358
True
Coleman University
338
What is another college in San Francisco?
5ad4d8c15b96ef001a10a35c
True
Private colleges and universities in the city include University of San Diego (USD), Point Loma Nazarene University (PLNU), Alliant International University (AIU), National University, California International Business University (CIBU), San Diego Christian College, John Paul the Great Catholic University, California College San Diego, Coleman University, University of Redlands School of Business, Design Institute of San Diego (DISD), Fashion Institute of Design & Merchandising's San Diego campus, NewSchool of Architecture and Design, Pacific Oaks College San Diego Campus, Chapman University's San Diego Campus, The Art Institute of California – San Diego, Platt College, Southern States University (SSU), UEI College, and Woodbury University School of Architecture's satellite campus.
Muslim_world
Islamic World is another way to refer to what?
572fe570947a6a140053cdc4
Muslim world
9
False
When speaking of religion, what does Ummah refer to?
572fe570947a6a140053cdc5
those who adhere to the teachings of Islam
187
False
When speaking about culture, what does Ummah refer to?
572fe570947a6a140053cdc6
Islamic civilization
303
False
Community, or Nation are direct translations of what word in reference to Islam?
572fe570947a6a140053cdc7
Ummah
59
False
Ummah
59
World and group are the same as what Aribic word?
5a53f0debdaabd001a38680c
True
Islamic
303
What civilization does Ummah refer to when used in a religious sense?
5a53f0debdaabd001a38680d
True
teachings of Islam
211
What teachings does Ummah refer to when used in a cultural sense?
5a53f0debdaabd001a38680e
True
"Islamic Nation"
420
What term refers to all countries where Muslims live?
5a53f0debdaabd001a38680f
True
The term Muslim world, also known as Islamic world and the Ummah (Arabic: أمة‎, meaning "nation" or "community") has different meanings. In a religious sense, the Islamic Ummah refers to those who adhere to the teachings of Islam, referred to as Muslims. In a cultural sense, the Muslim Ummah refers to Islamic civilization, exclusive of non-Muslims living in that civilization. In a modern geopolitical sense, the term "Islamic Nation" usually refers collectively to Muslim-majority countries, states, districts, or towns.
When did the Islamic Golden age start?
572fed4e04bcaa1900d76ecd
622
155
False
What other age occurred at the same time as the Islamic Golden Age?
572fed4e04bcaa1900d76ece
the Middle Ages
38
False
There what is the latest year for the end of the Islamic Golden Age?
572fed4e04bcaa1900d76ecf
1492
245
False
What years did Abbasid caliph Harun ar-Rashid reign?
572fed4e04bcaa1900d76ed0
786 to 809
415
False
Where was the House of Wisdom held?
572fed4e04bcaa1900d76ed1
Baghdad
477
False
first Islamic state
132
What State was first established in the 6th century?
5a540616bdaabd001a38681e
True
The Islamic Golden Age
0
What golden age occurred at the same time as the Middle Ages?
5a540616bdaabd001a38681f
True
Baghdad
233
What did the Mongolians sack in the 12th century?
5a540616bdaabd001a386820
True
the Emirate of Granada in Al-Andalus, Iberian Peninsula
302
What did the Christians reconquer in 1492?
5a540616bdaabd001a386821
True
Harun ar-Rashid
398
What caliph reigned in the 7th and 8th century?
5a540616bdaabd001a386822
True
The Islamic Golden Age coincided with the Middle Ages in the Muslim world, starting with the rise of Islam and establishment of the first Islamic state in 622. The end of the age is variously given as 1258 with the Mongolian Sack of Baghdad, or 1492 with the completion of the Christian Reconquista of the Emirate of Granada in Al-Andalus, Iberian Peninsula. During the reign of the Abbasid caliph Harun ar-Rashid (786 to 809), the legendary House of Wisdom was inaugurated in Baghdad where scholars from various parts of the world sought to translate and gather all the known world's knowledge into Arabic. The Abbasids were influenced by the Quranic injunctions and hadiths, such as "the ink of a scholar is more holy than the blood of a martyr," that stressed the value of knowledge. The major Islamic capital cities of Baghdad, Cairo, and Córdoba became the main intellectual centers for science, philosophy, medicine, and education. During this period, the Muslim world was a collection of cultures; they drew together and advanced the knowledge gained from the ancient Greek, Roman, Persian, Chinese, Indian, Egyptian, and Phoenician civilizations.
What type of ceramic art was popular from the 8th to the 18th century in the art of Islam?
572fedf6947a6a140053ce1a
glazed ceramics
47
False
Which ceramic glazing was developed by those potters which were Islamic?
572fedf6947a6a140053ce1b
Tin-opacified glazing
141
False
Where would one find the earliest examples of opaque glazes in the Muslim world?
572fedf6947a6a140053ce1c
Basra
307
False
Around when were the first opaque glazes developed?
572fedf6947a6a140053ce1d
8th century
335
False
Where were stone-paste ceramics invented?
572fedf6947a6a140053ce1e
9th century Iraq
431
False
glazed ceramics
47
What was used in Islamic art from the 800's to the 1800's?
5a540f0bbdaabd001a386828
True
glazed ceramics
47
What is often formed into utilitarian pottery?
5a540f0bbdaabd001a386829
True
Tin-opacified glazing
141
What ceramic glazing was adopted by islamic potters?
5a540f0bbdaabd001a38682a
True
Basra
307
Where can you find the latest examples of opaque glazes in the Muslim world?
5a540f0bbdaabd001a38682b
True
Tabriz
587
What was a center for innovative ceramic pottery in the 14th and 15th century?
5a540f0bbdaabd001a38682c
True
Between the 8th and 18th centuries, the use of glazed ceramics was prevalent in Islamic art, usually assuming the form of elaborate pottery. Tin-opacified glazing was one of the earliest new technologies developed by the Islamic potters. The first Islamic opaque glazes can be found as blue-painted ware in Basra, dating to around the 8th century. Another contribution was the development of stone-paste ceramics, originating from 9th century Iraq. Other centers for innovative ceramic pottery in the Old world included Fustat (from 975 to 1075), Damascus (from 1100 to around 1600) and Tabriz (from 1470 to 1550).
What is the most widely known fictional work from the Islamic world?
572feebca23a5019007fcb6d
One Thousand and One Nights
57
False
Arabian nights was originally based upon what Persian work?
572feebca23a5019007fcb6e
Hezār Afsān (Thousand Fables)
408
False
In what century was One Thousand and One Nights completed?
572feebca23a5019007fcb6f
14th century
514
False
When did One Thousand and One Nights first get translated in the West?
572feebca23a5019007fcb70
18th century
862
False
Who was the first westerner to translate One Thousand and One Nights?
572feebca23a5019007fcb71
Antoine Galland
885
False
One Thousand and One Nights
57
What is the earliest Islamic work of fiction?
5a54183abdaabd001a386832
True
One Thousand and One Nights
57
What reached its final for in the 1400's?
5a54183abdaabd001a386833
True
Hezār Afsān
408
Arabian nights was originally based on what Arabian work?
5a54183abdaabd001a386834
True
English
689
What language was One Thousand and One Nights translated to in the 1800's?
5a54183abdaabd001a386835
True
The best known work of fiction from the Islamic world is One Thousand and One Nights (In Persian: hezār-o-yek šab > Arabic: ʔalf-layl-at-wa-l’-layla= One thousand Night and (one) Night) or *Arabian Nights, a name invented by early Western translators, which is a compilation of folk tales from Sanskrit, Persian, and later Arabian fables. The original concept is derived from a pre-Islamic Persian prototype Hezār Afsān (Thousand Fables) that relied on particular Indian elements. It reached its final form by the 14th century; the number and type of tales have varied from one manuscript to another. All Arabian fantasy tales tend to be called Arabian Nights stories when translated into English, regardless of whether they appear in The Book of One Thousand and One Nights or not. This work has been very influential in the West since it was translated in the 18th century, first by Antoine Galland. Imitations were written, especially in France. Various characters from this epic have themselves become cultural icons in Western culture, such as Aladdin, Sinbad the Sailor and Ali Baba.
Layla and Majnun is an example of what kind of poetry?
572fef5e947a6a140053ce24
Arabic poetry and Persian poetry
20
False
Which era is Layla and Majnun from?
572fef5e947a6a140053ce25
Umayyad era
111
False
In what century does Layla and Majnun originate?
572fef5e947a6a140053ce26
7th century
130
False
What kind of story is told in Shahnameh?
572fef5e947a6a140053ce27
a mythical and heroic retelling of Persian history
367
False
Who wrote Shahnameh?
572fef5e947a6a140053ce28
Ferdowsi
315
False
Umayyad
111
What ers dates to the 700's?
5a541b8cbdaabd001a38683a
True
Layla and Majnun
74
What Arabic and Persian poetry dates to the 700's?
5a541b8cbdaabd001a38683b
True
Layla and Majnun
74
What was inspired by Romeo and Juliet?
5a541b8cbdaabd001a38683c
True
Shahnameh
326
What is the national epic of Persia?
5a541b8cbdaabd001a38683d
True
Ferdowsi's
315
Who wrote the national epic of Persia?
5a541b8cbdaabd001a38683e
True
A famous example of Arabic poetry and Persian poetry on romance (love) is Layla and Majnun, dating back to the Umayyad era in the 7th century. It is a tragic story of undying love much like the later Romeo and Juliet, which was itself said to have been inspired by a Latin version of Layla and Majnun to an extent. Ferdowsi's Shahnameh, the national epic of Iran, is a mythical and heroic retelling of Persian history. Amir Arsalan was also a popular mythical Persian story, which has influenced some modern works of fantasy fiction, such as The Heroic Legend of Arslan.
What is another name for Ibn Tufail?
572ff02b04bcaa1900d76eeb
Abubacer
12
False
What Arabic book is Ibn Tufail noted for writing?
572ff02b04bcaa1900d76eec
Hayy ibn Yaqdhan (Philosophus Autodidactus)
121
False
Who wrote Theologus Autodidactus?
572ff02b04bcaa1900d76eed
Ibn al-Nafis
241
False
What person wrote The Incoherence of the Philosophers?
572ff02b04bcaa1900d76eee
Al-Ghazali
182
False
Who was the main chracter of Philosophus Autodidactus?
572ff02b04bcaa1900d76eef
Hayy
395
False
Ibn Tufail (Abubacer) and Ibn al-Nafis
0
Who where pioneers of the fictional novel?
5a5422f6bdaabd001a386844
True
Hayy ibn Yaqdhan
121
What did Ibn Tufil write in response to the novel by Ibn al-Nafis
5a5422f6bdaabd001a386845
True
The Incoherence of the Philosophers
195
What did Al-Ghazali's write in response to Ibn Tufail's novel?
5a5422f6bdaabd001a386846
True
Philosophus Autodidactus,
696
What book by Ibn al-Nafis write about kamil?
5a5422f6bdaabd001a386847
True
Ibn Tufail (Abubacer) and Ibn al-Nafis were pioneers of the philosophical novel. Ibn Tufail wrote the first Arabic novel Hayy ibn Yaqdhan (Philosophus Autodidactus) as a response to Al-Ghazali's The Incoherence of the Philosophers, and then Ibn al-Nafis also wrote a novel Theologus Autodidactus as a response to Ibn Tufail's Philosophus Autodidactus. Both of these narratives had protagonists (Hayy in Philosophus Autodidactus and Kamil in Theologus Autodidactus) who were autodidactic feral children living in seclusion on a desert island, both being the earliest examples of a desert island story. However, while Hayy lives alone with animals on the desert island for the rest of the story in Philosophus Autodidactus, the story of Kamil extends beyond the desert island setting in Theologus Autodidactus, developing into the earliest known coming of age plot and eventually becoming the first example of a science fiction novel.
What was the life span of Ibn al-Nafis?
572ff126947a6a140053ce40
1213–1288
70
False
What type of book is Theologus Autodidactus the first type of?
572ff126947a6a140053ce41
science fiction
108
False
What did Ibn al-Nafis use to explain the events in Theologus Autodidactus?
572ff126947a6a140053ce42
scientific knowledge
433
False
Theologus Autodidactus
0
What did Ibn al-Nafis write in the 12th century?
5a54243bbdaabd001a38684c
True
Ibn al-Nafis
56
Who wrote a science fiction novel in the 12th century?
5a54243bbdaabd001a38684d
True
spontaneous generation, futurology, the end of the world and doomsday, resurrection, and the afterlife
186
What events did Ibn al-Nafis give supernatural or mythological explanations?
5a54243bbdaabd001a38684e
True
Ibn al-Nafis
518
Who used mythology to explain Islamic teachings?
5a54243bbdaabd001a38684f
True
Theologus Autodidactus, written by the Arabian polymath Ibn al-Nafis (1213–1288), is the first example of a science fiction novel. It deals with various science fiction elements such as spontaneous generation, futurology, the end of the world and doomsday, resurrection, and the afterlife. Rather than giving supernatural or mythological explanations for these events, Ibn al-Nafis attempted to explain these plot elements using the scientific knowledge of biology, astronomy, cosmology and geology known in his time. Ibn al-Nafis' fiction explained Islamic religious teachings via science and Islamic philosophy.
Which year did a translation of Philosophus Autodidactus in Latin come to be?
572ff1df947a6a140053ce48
1671
86
False
Who first translated Philosophus Autodidactus into latin?
572ff1df947a6a140053ce49
Edward Pococke the Younger
104
False
Simon Ockley translated Philosophus Autodidactus into English, in what year did he do that?
572ff1df947a6a140053ce4a
1708
186
False
Who wrote Robinson Crusoe?
572ff1df947a6a140053ce4b
Daniel Defoe
279
False
What book is Robert Boyle believe to have written after being inspired by Philosophus Autodidactus?
572ff1df947a6a140053ce4c
The Aspiring Naturalist
538
False
Philosophus Autodidactus
42
What work by Tufail was translated in the 16th century?
5a54263bbdaabd001a386854
True
Philosophus Autodidactus
42
What did Edward Pococke the Younger translate in the 16th century?
5a54263bbdaabd001a386855
True
Simon Ockley
170
Who translated Tufail's work to English in the 17th century?
5a54263bbdaabd001a386856
True
The Aspiring Naturalist
538
What was Robert Boyle inspired to write by Tufail's work?
5a54263bbdaabd001a386857
True
A Latin translation of Ibn Tufail's work, Philosophus Autodidactus, first appeared in 1671, prepared by Edward Pococke the Younger, followed by an English translation by Simon Ockley in 1708, as well as German and Dutch translations. These translations might have later inspired Daniel Defoe to write Robinson Crusoe, regarded as the first novel in English. Philosophus Autodidactus, continuing the thoughts of philosophers such as Aristotle from earlier ages, inspired Robert Boyle to write his own philosophical novel set on an island, The Aspiring Naturalist.
In what year was Kitab al-Miraj likely translated into Latin?
572ff2f6947a6a140053ce5c
in 1264 or shortly before
178
False
Who wrote the Divine Comedy?
572ff2f6947a6a140053ce5d
Dante Alighieri
0
False
Which works by Shakespeare is believed to be inspired by The Moors?
572ff2f6947a6a140053ce5e
Merchant of Venice, Titus Andronicus and Othello
524
False
In what century is it believed that delegations of Moors began to influence western works by the likes of Shakespeare?
572ff2f6947a6a140053ce5f
17th century
765
False
What aspects from Islamic works did the Divine Comedy feature?
572ff2f6947a6a140053ce60
episodes about Bolgia from Arabic works on Islamic eschatology
57
False
Kitab al-Miraj
140
What was translated to Latin in the 12th century?
5a542777bdaabd001a38685c
True
George Peele and William Shakespeare
377
Whose works influenced the Moors?
5a542777bdaabd001a38685d
True
several Moorish delegations from Morocco
677
Who visited Elizabethan England in the 1700's?
5a542777bdaabd001a38685e
True
George Peele and William Shakespeare
377
Whose works featured Arabian Characters?
5a542777bdaabd001a38685f
True
Dante Alighieri's Divine Comedy, derived features of and episodes about Bolgia from Arabic works on Islamic eschatology: the Hadith and the Kitab al-Miraj (translated into Latin in 1264 or shortly before as Liber Scale Machometi) concerning the ascension to Heaven of Muhammad, and the spiritual writings of Ibn Arabi. The Moors also had a noticeable influence on the works of George Peele and William Shakespeare. Some of their works featured Moorish characters, such as Peele's The Battle of Alcazar and Shakespeare's The Merchant of Venice, Titus Andronicus and Othello, which featured a Moorish Othello as its title character. These works are said to have been inspired by several Moorish delegations from Morocco to Elizabethan England at the beginning of the 17th century.
What was the life span of Ibn Sina?
572ff38604bcaa1900d76f19
980–1037
310
False
How many books were said to have been written by Ibn Sina?
572ff38604bcaa1900d76f1a
450
334
False
What subjects did Ibn Sina mainly write about?
572ff38604bcaa1900d76f1b
philosophy and medicine
427
False
What medical book is Ibn Sina most noted for in European universities?
572ff38604bcaa1900d76f1c
The Canon of Medicine
473
False
What philosophical encyclopedia is Ibn Sina known for writing?
572ff38604bcaa1900d76f1d
The Book of Healing
579
False
"Islamic philosophy"
34
What is defined as a philosopy influenced by Islam?
5a543660134fea001a0e16b6
True
Islamic philosophy
134
What philosophy is strictly produced by Muslims?
5a543660134fea001a0e16b7
True
Ibn Sina
289
What scholar lived from the 9th to the 10th century?
5a543660134fea001a0e16b8
True
The Canon of Medicine
473
What book was used in Universities around the world?
5a543660134fea001a0e16b9
True
European universities
528
Where was The Book of Healing the standard test?
5a543660134fea001a0e16ba
True
One of the common definitions for "Islamic philosophy" is "the style of philosophy produced within the framework of Islamic culture." Islamic philosophy, in this definition is neither necessarily concerned with religious issues, nor is exclusively produced by Muslims. The Persian scholar Ibn Sina (Avicenna) (980–1037) had more than 450 books attributed to him. His writings were concerned with various subjects, most notably philosophy and medicine. His medical textbook The Canon of Medicine was used as the standard text in European universities for centuries. He also wrote The Book of Healing, an influential scientific and philosophical encyclopedia.
Which philosopher from the Muslim world influenced modern philosophy?
572ff8b5b2c2fd1400568693
Ibn Tufail
82
False
Who wrote Hayy ibn Yaqdha?
572ff8b5b2c2fd1400568694
Ibn Tufail
82
False
In what year was Hayy ibn Yaqdha translated to the Latin language?
572ff8b5b2c2fd1400568695
1671
189
False
What kind of book is Hayy ibn Yaqdha?
572ff8b5b2c2fd1400568696
philosophical novel
98
False
Hayy ibn Yaqdha
119
What philosophical novel was written in the 16th century?
5a543be4134fea001a0e16c0
True
Latin
152
What was Hayy ibn Yaqdha translated to in the 16th century?
5a543be4134fea001a0e16c1
True
John Locke, Gottfried Leibniz, Melchisédech Thévenot, John Wallis, Christiaan Huygens, George Keith, Robert Barclay, the Quakers, and Samuel Hartlib
393
What European scholars influenced Tufail?
5a543be4134fea001a0e16c2
True
empiricism, tabula rasa, nature versus nurture, condition of possibility, materialism, and Molyneux's problem
219
What themes were developed in Tufail's 16th century novel?
5a543be4134fea001a0e16c3
True
Yet another influential philosopher who had an influence on modern philosophy was Ibn Tufail. His philosophical novel, Hayy ibn Yaqdha, translated into Latin as Philosophus Autodidactus in 1671, developed the themes of empiricism, tabula rasa, nature versus nurture, condition of possibility, materialism, and Molyneux's problem. European scholars and writers influenced by this novel include John Locke, Gottfried Leibniz, Melchisédech Thévenot, John Wallis, Christiaan Huygens, George Keith, Robert Barclay, the Quakers, and Samuel Hartlib.
Which philosopher of the Muslim world is considered an important author of work on evolution?
572ff982b2c2fd14005686a3
al-Jahiz
46
False
Ibn al-Haytham can be known by another name, what is it?
572ff982b2c2fd14005686a4
Alhazen
107
False
What type of work is Ibn al-Haytham known to have pioneered?
572ff982b2c2fd14005686a5
phenomenology and the philosophy of science
130
False
Who is considered to have been the one that founded Illuminationist philosophy?
572ff982b2c2fd14005686a6
Shahab al-Din Suhrawardi
386
False
Which philosopher in the Muslim world championed inductive logic in their works?
572ff982b2c2fd14005686a7
Fakhr al-Din al-Razi
451
False
Shahab al-Din Suhrawardi,
386
Who is credited with further developing Illuinationist philosophy?
5a54407c134fea001a0e16c8
True
Aristotelian natural philosophy
287
What natural philosophy did Tufail ctiticize?
5a54407c134fea001a0e16c9
True
Aristotelian logic
485
What logic did AlpBiruni criticize?
5a54407c134fea001a0e16ca
True
Other influential Muslim philosophers include al-Jahiz, a pioneer in evolutionary thought; Ibn al-Haytham (Alhazen), a pioneer of phenomenology and the philosophy of science and a critic of Aristotelian natural philosophy and Aristotle's concept of place (topos); Al-Biruni, a critic of Aristotelian natural philosophy; Ibn Tufail and Ibn al-Nafis, pioneers of the philosophical novel; Shahab al-Din Suhrawardi, founder of Illuminationist philosophy; Fakhr al-Din al-Razi, a critic of Aristotelian logic and a pioneer of inductive logic; and Ibn Khaldun, a pioneer in the philosophy of history.
Ibn al-Haytham experimented with what around the year 1000?
572ffa8cb2c2fd14005686ad
optics
305
False
Ibn al-Haytham wrote about his work around the year 1000, what was it?
572ffa8cb2c2fd14005686ae
Book of Optics
336
False
Regarding the intromission theory of light, who showed the first proof?
572ffa8cb2c2fd14005686af
Ibn al-Haytham
571
False
Which Muslim scientist worked on trigonometry?
572ffa8cb2c2fd14005686b0
al-Khwarzimi
766
False
Who is believed to have discovered decagonal quasicrystal geometry?
572ffa8cb2c2fd14005686b1
Medieval Muslim artists
954
False
Muslim scientists
0
Who placed more emphasis on observation than the Greeks did?
5a54420d134fea001a0e16ce
True
an early scientific method
139
What method was developed in the Greek world?
5a54420d134fea001a0e16cf
True
Ibn al-Haytham
277
who experimented on optics in the 10th century?
5a54420d134fea001a0e16d0
True
Book of Optics
336
What did Ibn al-Haytham write in the 10th century
5a54420d134fea001a0e16d1
True
quasicrystal geometry
1011
What type of geometry was first discovered in the West?
5a54420d134fea001a0e16d2
True
Muslim scientists contributed to advances in the sciences. They placed far greater emphasis on experiment than had the Greeks. This led to an early scientific method being developed in the Muslim world, where progress in methodology was made, beginning with the experiments of Ibn al-Haytham (Alhazen) on optics from circa 1000, in his Book of Optics. The most important development of the scientific method was the use of experiments to distinguish between competing scientific theories set within a generally empirical orientation, which began among Muslim scientists. Ibn al-Haytham is also regarded as the father of optics, especially for his empirical proof of the intromission theory of light. Some have also described Ibn al-Haytham as the "first scientist." al-Khwarzimi's invented the log base systems that are being used today, he also contributed theorems in trigonometry as well as limits. Recent studies show that it is very likely that the Medieval Muslim artists were aware of advanced decagonal quasicrystal geometry (discovered half a millennium later in the 1970s and 1980s in the West) and used it in intricate decorative tilework in the architecture.
What work is Mansur ibn Muhammad ibn al-Faqih Ilyas known for writing?
572ffb3ea23a5019007fcc01
Tashrih al-badan (Anatomy of the body)
198
False
In what century did Tashrih al-badan come into being?
572ffb3ea23a5019007fcc02
15th century
121
False
Who theorized about pulmonary circulation?
572ffb3ea23a5019007fcc03
Ibn al-Nafis
376
False
Who wrote The Canon of Medicine?
572ffb3ea23a5019007fcc04
Avicenna
440
False
Who wrote Kitab al-Tasrif?
572ffb3ea23a5019007fcc05
Abu al-Qasim al-Zahrawi
550
False
Muslim physicians
0
Who first established the fields of anatomy and phusiology?
5a544428134fea001a0e16d8
True
Mansur ibn Muhammad ibn al-Faqih Ilyas
150
Who wrote Anatomy of the body in the 1500's?
5a544428134fea001a0e16d9
True
the body's structural, nervous and circulatory systems
279
What photos where found in Anatomy of the body?
5a544428134fea001a0e16da
True
The Canon of Medicine
451
What book was a standard text in universities until the 1800's?
5a544428134fea001a0e16db
True
Book of Concessions"
676
What Latin encyclopedia was used in medical schools for centuries?
5a544428134fea001a0e16dc
True
Muslim physicians contributed to the field of medicine, including the subjects of anatomy and physiology: such as in the 15th century Persian work by Mansur ibn Muhammad ibn al-Faqih Ilyas entitled Tashrih al-badan (Anatomy of the body) which contained comprehensive diagrams of the body's structural, nervous and circulatory systems; or in the work of the Egyptian physician Ibn al-Nafis, who proposed the theory of pulmonary circulation. Avicenna's The Canon of Medicine remained an authoritative medical textbook in Europe until the 18th century. Abu al-Qasim al-Zahrawi (also known as Abulcasis) contributed to the discipline of medical surgery with his Kitab al-Tasrif ("Book of Concessions"), a medical encyclopedia which was later translated to Latin and used in European and Muslim medical schools for centuries. Other medical advancements came in the fields of pharmacology and pharmacy.
What field did Muḥammad ibn Jābir al-Ḥarrānī al-Battānī contribute to?
572ffdb7947a6a140053cf00
astronomy
3
False
What work is Muḥammad ibn Jābir al-Ḥarrānī al-Battānī known for as it regards to earth?
572ffdb7947a6a140053cf01
improved the precision of the measurement of the precession of the Earth's axis
55
False
What model did the work of Muslim World astronomers contribute to?
572ffdb7947a6a140053cf02
the Copernican heliocentric model
300
False
Who created the astrolabe?
572ffdb7947a6a140053cf03
the Greeks
547
False
Who is said to have mastered the astrolabe?
572ffdb7947a6a140053cf04
Islamic astronomers and engineers
576
False
the measurement of the precession of the Earth's axis
81
What measurment did Copernicas improve?
5a5445ca134fea001a0e16e2
True
Copernican heliocentric model
304
What model did Copernicas use to measure the earth's axis?
5a5445ca134fea001a0e16e3
True
Greeks,
551
Who perfected the astrolabe originally developed by Islamic astronomers?
5a5445ca134fea001a0e16e4
True
the geocentric model
160
What model did Al-Biruni make corrections to?
5a5445ca134fea001a0e16e5
True
In astronomy, Muḥammad ibn Jābir al-Ḥarrānī al-Battānī improved the precision of the measurement of the precession of the Earth's axis. The corrections made to the geocentric model by al-Battani, Averroes, Nasir al-Din al-Tusi, Mu'ayyad al-Din al-'Urdi and Ibn al-Shatir were later incorporated into the Copernican heliocentric model. Heliocentric theories were also discussed by several other Muslim astronomers such as Al-Biruni, Al-Sijzi, Qotb al-Din Shirazi, and Najm al-Dīn al-Qazwīnī al-Kātibī. The astrolabe, though originally developed by the Greeks, was perfected by Islamic astronomers and engineers, and was subsequently brought to Europe.
What was the windmill used for?
572ffe9ea23a5019007fcc1f
irrigation and farming
22
False
which crops were brought to europe from the Muslim World?
572ffe9ea23a5019007fcc20
almonds and citrus fruit
103
False
Trading in the Indian ocean was mainly controlled by whom?
572ffe9ea23a5019007fcc21
Arab merchants
233
False
When did the Portuguese arrive in the Indian Ocean?
572ffe9ea23a5019007fcc22
16th century
327
False
Where was an important center of Indian Ocean trading in the 16th century?
572ffe9ea23a5019007fcc23
Hormuz
341
False
the windmill
75
What technology was developed from advances in irrigation and farming?
5a5447e0134fea001a0e16ea
True
almonds and citrus fruit
103
What crops were brought from Europe?
5a5447e0134fea001a0e16eb
True
sugar
175
What cultivation was gradually adopted by Muslims>
5a5447e0134fea001a0e16ec
True
Indian Ocean
271
Where did Arab merchants dominate after the 16th century?
5a5447e0134fea001a0e16ed
True
Portuguese
309
Who arrived in the Indian Ocean in the 1600's
5a5447e0134fea001a0e16ee
True
Advances were made in irrigation and farming, using new technology such as the windmill. Crops such as almonds and citrus fruit were brought to Europe through al-Andalus, and sugar cultivation was gradually adopted by the Europeans. Arab merchants dominated trade in the Indian Ocean until the arrival of the Portuguese in the 16th century. Hormuz was an important center for this trade. There was also a dense network of trade routes in the Mediterranean, along which Muslim countries traded with each other and with European powers such as Venice, Genoa and Catalonia. The Silk Road crossing Central Asia passed through Muslim states between China and Europe.
How early did people in the Muslim World start using watermills?
572fff4404bcaa1900d76fe5
7th century
311
False
At what point was the use of watermills common in the Muslim World?
572fff4404bcaa1900d76fe6
9th century
429
False
In what century had mills such as gristmills and sawmills dominate the Islamic world?
572fff4404bcaa1900d76fe7
11th century
660
False
Who invented crankshafts?
572fff4404bcaa1900d76fe8
Muslim engineers
829
False
Who was the inventor of water turbines?
572fff4404bcaa1900d76fe9
Muslim engineers
829
False
watermills
262
What did people in the Muslim world start using in the 700's?
5a544a87134fea001a0e16f4
True
every province throughout the Islamic world
674
Who had watermills by the 1100's?
5a544a87134fea001a0e16f5
True
Industrial Revolution
1349
What revolution impacted the medieval Islamic world?
5a544a87134fea001a0e16f6
True
Muslim engineers
829
Who invented dams?
5a544a87134fea001a0e16f7
True
Muslim engineers in the Islamic world made a number of innovative industrial uses of hydropower, and early industrial uses of tidal power and wind power, fossil fuels such as petroleum, and early large factory complexes (tiraz in Arabic). The industrial uses of watermills in the Islamic world date back to the 7th century, while horizontal-wheeled and vertical-wheeled water mills were both in widespread use since at least the 9th century. A variety of industrial mills were being employed in the Islamic world, including early fulling mills, gristmills, hullers, sawmills, ship mills, stamp mills, steel mills, sugar mills, tide mills and windmills. By the 11th century, every province throughout the Islamic world had these industrial mills in operation, from al-Andalus and North Africa to the Middle East and Central Asia. Muslim engineers also invented crankshafts and water turbines, employed gears in mills and water-raising machines, and pioneered the use of dams as a source of water power, used to provide additional power to watermills and water-raising machines. Such advances made it possible for industrial tasks that were previously driven by manual labour in ancient times to be mechanized and driven by machinery instead in the medieval Islamic world. The transfer of these technologies to medieval Europe had an influence on the Industrial Revolution.
What percentage of the humans in the world are considered Muslim?
572fffab947a6a140053cf30
20%
10
False
How many Muslims are believed to live on earth?
572fffab947a6a140053cf31
1,5 billion
128
False
In how many nations are Muslims in the majority of people?
572fffab947a6a140053cf32
49
169
False
How many languages are spoken by Muslims?
572fffab947a6a140053cf33
hundreds
194
False
20%
10
What percentage of the world is made up of Muslim nations?
5a544b3c134fea001a0e16fc
True
49 countries
169
How many countries are Muslims the minority in?
5a544b3c134fea001a0e16fd
True
Arabic, Urdu, Bengali, Punjabi,
300
What languages are spoken by all Muslims?
5a544b3c134fea001a0e16fe
True
More than 20% of the world's population is Muslim. Current estimates conclude that the number of Muslims in the world is around 1,5 billion. Muslims are the majority in 49 countries, they speak hundreds of languages and come from diverse ethnic backgrounds. Major languages spoken by Muslims include Arabic, Urdu, Bengali, Punjabi, Malay, Javanese, Sundanese, Swahili, Hausa, Fula, Berber, Tuareg, Somali, Albanian, Bosnian, Russian, Turkish, Azeri, Kazakh, Uzbek, Tatar, Persian, Kurdish, Pashto, Balochi, Sindhi and Kashmiri, among many others.
Which Muslim denominations are the most dominant?
57300079b2c2fd140056870d
Sunni and Shia
44
False
What are the two main things differentiating Sunni and Shia?
57300079b2c2fd140056870e
how the life of the ummah ("faithful") should be governed, and the role of the imam
96
False
Who is believed, among Sunnis,  to be the political successor of the Prophet?
57300079b2c2fd140056870f
Abu Bakr
413
False
Who was Abu Bakr?
57300079b2c2fd1400568710
father of the Prophet's favourite wife
423
False
Who was Ali ibn Abi Talib?
57300079b2c2fd1400568711
husband of the Prophet's daughter Fatimah
697
False
Sunni and Shia
44
What are two fringe denominations of Islam?
5a544d4c134fea001a0e1702
True
Sunni and Shia
44
What denominations agree on how the faithful should be governed?
5a544d4c134fea001a0e1703
True
political as well as religious
634
What do the Sunni consider Ibn Abi Talib to the successor of?
5a544d4c134fea001a0e1704
True
true political successor
299
What type of sucessor do the Shia believe Abu Bakr was?
5a544d4c134fea001a0e1705
True
The two main denominations of Islam are the Sunni and Shia sects. They differ primarily upon of how the life of the ummah ("faithful") should be governed, and the role of the imam. These two main differences stem from the understanding of which hadith are to interpret the Quran. Sunnis believe the true political successor of the Prophet in Sunnah is based on ٍShura (consultation) at the Saqifah which selected Abu Bakr, father of the Prophet's favourite wife, 'A'ishah, to lead the Islamic community while the religious succession ceased to exist on account of finality of Prophethood. Shia on the other hand believe that the true political as well as religious successor is Ali ibn Abi Talib, husband of the Prophet's daughter Fatimah (designated by the Prophet).
What is the literacy rate in Kuwait?
57300664947a6a140053cf74
over 97%
116
False
In 2015 it was reported that what percentage of the Muslim World was not literate?
57300664947a6a140053cf75
37%
295
False
What organizations studied literacy in the Muslim World in 2015?
57300664947a6a140053cf76
Organisation of Islamic Cooperation and the Islamic Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization
404
False
Which regions have the lowest rate of literacy in the Muslim world?
57300664947a6a140053cf77
Mali, Afghanistan, Chad and parts of Africa
182
False
Literacy rate
0
What is over 97% across the Muslim world?
5a544e99134fea001a0e170a
True
the International Islamic News Agency
236
Who reported that 97% of the Muslim world was iliterate?
5a544e99134fea001a0e170b
True
37% of the population of the Muslim world is unable to read or write
295
What did the Organization of Islamic Cooperation report in 2015?
5a544e99134fea001a0e170c
True
Literacy rate in the Muslim world varies. Some members such as Kuwait, Kazakhstan, Tajikistan and Turkmenistan have over 97% literacy rates, whereas literacy rates are the lowest in Mali, Afghanistan, Chad and parts of Africa. In 2015, the International Islamic News Agency reported that nearly 37% of the population of the Muslim world is unable to read or write, basing that figure on reports from the Organisation of Islamic Cooperation and the Islamic Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization.
Which organization for scientific publications was established in Pakistan in 2002?
57300707947a6a140053cf90
Higher Education Commission
177
False
How much did the Higher Education Commission impact the number of PhDs in Pakistan?
57300707947a6a140053cf91
5-fold increase
228
False
How many universities were in Pakistan in 2001?
57300707947a6a140053cf92
115
399
False
What science university did Saudi Arabia establish?
57300707947a6a140053cf93
King Abdullah University of Science and Technology
482
False
Where is Zayed University?
57300707947a6a140053cf94
United Arab Emirates
534
False
2002,
208
When did Turkey establish the Higher Education Commission?
5a545001134fea001a0e1710
True
scientific publication
59
What type of publication does Pakistan have a signifigant amount of?
5a545001134fea001a0e1711
True
5-fold increase
228
By how much has Iran increased its PhDs?
5a545001134fea001a0e1712
True
10-fold
272
By how much has Iran increased its number of research papers?
5a545001134fea001a0e1713
True
Zayed University, United Arab Emirates University, and Masdar Institute of Science and Technology
571
What university has the United Arab Emirates established?
5a545001134fea001a0e1714
True
Several Muslim countries like Turkey and Iran exhibit high scientific publication. Some countries have tried to encourage scientific research. In Pakistan, establishment of the Higher Education Commission in 2002, resulted in a 5-fold increase in the number of PhDs and a 10-fold increase in the number of scientific research papers in 10 years with the total number of universities increasing from 115 in 2001 to over 400 in 2012.[citation needed] Saudi Arabia has established the King Abdullah University of Science and Technology. United Arab Emirates has invested in Zayed University, United Arab Emirates University, and Masdar Institute of Science and Technology[clarification needed]
What is considered the most important work of Islamic architecture?
573007b9a23a5019007fcc69
the mosque
326
False
What type of decorations are used in Muslim world decorative art rather than pictures?
573007b9a23a5019007fcc6a
decorative calligraphy
563
False
What is the definition of haram?
573007b9a23a5019007fcc6b
forbidden
624
False
Where in Muslim architecture are pictures forbidden?
573007b9a23a5019007fcc6c
mosque architecture
638
False
Where is one permitted to use representations of humans?
573007b9a23a5019007fcc6d
secular architecture
672
False
construction of buildings and structures
94
What either has a secular or religious style?
5a545163134fea001a0e171a
True
Islamic art
276
What is the tomp an important expression of?
5a545163134fea001a0e171b
True
mosque architecture
638
Where is decrative calligraphy haram?
5a545163134fea001a0e171c
True
Encompasses both secular and religious styles, the design and style made by Muslims and their construction of buildings and structures in Islamic culture included the architectural types: the Mosque, the Tomb, the Palace and the Fort. Perhaps the most important expression of Islamic art is architecture, particularly that of the mosque. Through Islamic architecture, effects of varying cultures within Islamic civilization can be illustrated. Generally, the use of Islamic geometric patterns and foliage based arabesques were striking. There was also the use of decorative calligraphy instead of pictures which were haram (forbidden) in mosque architecture. Note that in secular architecture, human and animal representation was indeed present.
Why is depicting God forbidden in the Islamic world?
57300862947a6a140053cfa2
such artistic depictions may lead to idolatry
93
False
What do Muslims believe of the form of God?
57300862947a6a140053cfa3
God is incorporeal
171
False
How many sura's in the Quran begin with "In the name of God?"
57300862947a6a140053cfa4
All but one
365
False
What is the policy in the Muslim world on depicting Mohammed?
57300862947a6a140053cfa5
prohibited
502
False
What other religions might one find depictions of God, or Prophets forbidden?
57300862947a6a140053cfa6
Jewish and some Christian theology
565
False
may lead to idolatry
118
Why are depictions of God discouraged in Islam?
5a5452c3134fea001a0e1720
True
"In the name of God, the Beneficent, the Merciful".
418
What does one of the Sura in the Quran begin with?
5a5452c3134fea001a0e1721
True
Jewish and some Christian theology
565
What other religions do not have restrictions on depicting God?
5a5452c3134fea001a0e1722
True
Mohammed
480
What prophet is often depicted in the Muslim World?
5a5452c3134fea001a0e1723
True
No Islamic visual images or depictions of God are meant to exist because it is believed that such artistic depictions may lead to idolatry. Moreover, Muslims believe that God is incorporeal, making any two- or three- dimensional depictions impossible. Instead, Muslims describe God by the names and attributes that, according to Islam, he revealed to his creation. All but one sura of the Quran begins with the phrase "In the name of God, the Beneficent, the Merciful". Images of Mohammed are likewise prohibited. Such aniconism and iconoclasm can also be found in Jewish and some Christian theology.
What is the repetitive use of geometric floral designs known as in Islamic art?
57300951947a6a140053cfc0
arabesque
104
False
Islam forbade types of art found in what religions?
57300951947a6a140053cfc1
pre-Islamic pagan religions
217
False
Miniature paintings of the Ottoman empire featured what kind of subjects?
57300951947a6a140053cfc2
people and animals
432
False
In mosques domes may have what kind of scripts decorating them?
57300951947a6a140053cfc3
kufic and naskh scripts
860
False
What is one reason the art of Islam may be abstract?
57300951947a6a140053cfc4
to symbolize the transcendence, indivisible and infinite nature of God
581
False
representational depictions
177
What type of depictions have been forbiden through out the iIslamic World?
5a54546c134fea001a0e1728
True
Muslim societies
307
Who embraces the art of pre-Islamic cultures?
5a54546c134fea001a0e1729
True
the transcendence, indivisible and infinite nature of God,
594
What does depictional art represent about God?
5a54546c134fea001a0e172a
True
Persia
368
Who is known for minature depictions of God?
5a54546c134fea001a0e172b
True
Islamic art frequently adopts the use of geometrical floral or vegetal designs in a repetition known as arabesque. Such designs are highly nonrepresentational, as Islam forbids representational depictions as found in pre-Islamic pagan religions. Despite this, there is a presence of depictional art in some Muslim societies, notably the miniature style made famous in Persia and under the Ottoman Empire which featured paintings of people and animals, and also depictions of Quranic stories and Islamic traditional narratives. Another reason why Islamic art is usually abstract is to symbolize the transcendence, indivisible and infinite nature of God, an objective achieved by arabesque. Islamic calligraphy is an omnipresent decoration in Islamic art, and is usually expressed in the form of Quranic verses. Two of the main scripts involved are the symbolic kufic and naskh scripts, which can be found adorning the walls and domes of mosques, the sides of minbars, and so on.
What are the main distinctive features of Islamic architecture?
573009dfb2c2fd140056877f
ordered repetition, radiating structures, and rhythmic, metric patterns
63
False
What physical characteristics are common in Islamic architecture?
573009dfb2c2fd1400568780
columns, piers and arches
272
False
When did domes first appear in the architecture of the Muslim World?
573009dfb2c2fd1400568781
691
489
False
Which mosque is believed to be the first with a dome?
573009dfb2c2fd1400568782
Dome of the Rock mosque
522
False
When was the Taj Mahal constructed?
573009dfb2c2fd1400568783
17th century
579
False
domes
390
What first appeared in Muslim architecture in the 6th century?
5a5455d2134fea001a0e1730
True
the Rock mosque
530
What mosque was built with a dome in the 6th century?
5a5455d2134fea001a0e1731
True
the Taj Mahal
597
What structure was built using domes in the 1700's?
5a5455d2134fea001a0e1732
True
European architecture
686
Where were Islamic domes used iin the 1900's?
5a5455d2134fea001a0e1733
True
Distinguishing motifs of Islamic architecture have always been ordered repetition, radiating structures, and rhythmic, metric patterns. In this respect, fractal geometry has been a key utility, especially for mosques and palaces. Other features employed as motifs include columns, piers and arches, organized and interwoven with alternating sequences of niches and colonnettes. The role of domes in Islamic architecture has been considerable. Its usage spans centuries, first appearing in 691 with the construction of the Dome of the Rock mosque, and recurring even up until the 17th century with the Taj Mahal. And as late as the 19th century, Islamic domes had been incorporated into European architecture.
What is another name for the Shamsi Hijri calender?
57300a8aa23a5019007fccab
The Solar Hijri calendar
0
False
What is one way to abbreviate the Solar Hiljri calender?
57300a8aa23a5019007fccac
SH
84
False
What is the customary calendar of Iran?
57300a8aa23a5019007fccad
the Shamsi Hijri calendar
38
False
How many months are in the Shamsi Hijri calendar?
57300a8aa23a5019007fccae
twelve months
183
False
What is the first year of the Shamsi Hijri Calender based on?
57300a8aa23a5019007fccaf
Prophet Muhammad's migration to Medina
377
False
Shamsi Hijri calendar
42
What is the modern name for the Solar Hijri calander?
5a5457bf134fea001a0e1738
True
The Solar Hijri calendar
0
What is the official calander of the Islamic world?
5a5457bf134fea001a0e1739
True
Shamsi Hijri calendar
42
What calander ends on the vernal equinox?
5a5457bf134fea001a0e173a
True
March equinox
512
What equinox does the calander end on?
5a5457bf134fea001a0e173b
True
Muhammad
385
What prophets year of birth marks the first year of the calander?
5a5457bf134fea001a0e173c
True
The Solar Hijri calendar, also called the Shamsi Hijri calendar, and abbreviated as SH, is the official calendar of Iran and Afghanistan. It begins on the vernal equinox. Each of the twelve months corresponds with a zodiac sign. The first six months have 31 days, the next five have 30 days, and the last month has 29 days in usual years but 30 days in leap years. The year of Prophet Muhammad's migration to Medina (622 CE) is fixed as the first year of the calendar, and the New Year's Day always falls on the March equinox.
How many Muslim nations require women to cover their legs, shoulders, or whole body?
57300b6404bcaa1900d7706d
a small minority
3
False
What are the restrictions on the dress of Muslim women considered in the West?
57300b6404bcaa1900d7706e
sexist and oppressive
379
False
Why do some Muslims oppose allowing women to reveal more of themselves?
57300b6404bcaa1900d7706f
women to reveal too much in order to be deemed attractive
500
False
In its most strict style what must a woman cover in some Muslim nations?
57300b6404bcaa1900d77070
the face
169
False
women
58
Who are required to cover their bodies throughout the Muslim world?
5a5458e1134fea001a0e1742
True
Western countries
321
In what part of the world do Muslims find these restrictions oppressive and sexist?
5a5458e1134fea001a0e1743
True
reveal too much in order to be deemed attractive
509
What do westerners believe the media pressures women to do?
5a5458e1134fea001a0e1744
True
whole body apart from the face.
117
What type of covering is required of women when living in the West?
5a5458e1134fea001a0e1745
True
In a small minority of Muslim countries, the law requires women to cover either just legs, shoulders and head or the whole body apart from the face. In strictest forms, the face as well must be covered leaving just a mesh to see through. These rules for dressing cause tensions, concerning particularly Muslims living in Western countries, where restrictions are considered both sexist and oppressive. Some Muslims oppose this charge, and instead declare that the media in these countries presses on women to reveal too much in order to be deemed attractive, and that this is itself sexist and oppressive.
Iran
Which country borders Iran to Iran's northwest?
572fed82947a6a140053ce10
Armenia
323
False
What is Iran's land mass in square miles?
572fed82947a6a140053ce11
636,372 sq mi
657
False
How many people live in Iran?
572fed82947a6a140053ce12
78.4 million
765
False
What is the unofficial name for Iran?
572fed82947a6a140053ce13
Persia
90
False
What is Iran's official country name?
572fed82947a6a140053ce14
the Islamic Republic of Iran
134
False
Iran (/aɪˈræn/ or i/ɪˈrɑːn/; Persian: Irān – ایران‎‎ [ʔiːˈɾɒːn] ( listen)), also known as Persia (/ˈpɜːrʒə/ or /ˈpɜːrʃə/), officially the Islamic Republic of Iran (جمهوری اسلامی ایران – Jomhuri ye Eslāmi ye Irān [d͡ʒomhuːˌɾije eslɒːˌmije ʔiːˈɾɒːn]), is a sovereign state in Western Asia. It is bordered to the northwest by Armenia, the de facto Nagorno-Karabakh Republic, and Azerbaijan; to the north by Kazakhstan and Russia across the Caspian Sea; to the northeast by Turkmenistan; to the east by Afghanistan and Pakistan; to the south by the Persian Gulf and the Gulf of Oman; and to the west by Turkey and Iraq. Comprising a land area of 1,648,195 km2 (636,372 sq mi), it is the second-largest country in the Middle East and the 18th-largest in the world. With 78.4 million inhabitants, Iran is the world's 17th-most-populous country. It is the only country that has both a Caspian Sea and an Indian Ocean coastline. Iran has long been of geostrategic importance because of its central location in Eurasia and Western Asia, and its proximity to the Strait of Hormuz.
What civilizations formed in Iran during 3200-2800 BC?
572fee8db2c2fd14005685ff
the Proto-Elamite and Elamite kingdoms
89
False
When did the Iranian Medes first unify an empire in the area?
572fee8db2c2fd1400568600
625 BC
214
False
Who found the Archaemenid Empire in 550 BC?
572fee8db2c2fd1400568601
Cyrus the Great
380
False
When did the Archaemenid Empire collapse?
572fee8db2c2fd1400568602
330 BC
706
False
Who ended the Archaemenid Empire by conquest in 330 BC?
572fee8db2c2fd1400568603
Alexander the Great
740
False
Iran is home to one of the world's oldest civilizations, beginning with the formation of the Proto-Elamite and Elamite kingdoms in 3200–2800 BC. The Iranian Medes unified the area into the first of many empires in 625 BC, after which it became the dominant cultural and political power in the region. Iran reached the pinnacle of its power during the Achaemenid Empire founded by Cyrus the Great in 550 BC, which at its greatest extent comprised major portions of the ancient world, stretching from parts of the Balkans (Thrace-Macedonia, Bulgaria-Paeonia) and Eastern Europe proper in the west, to the Indus Valley in the east, making it the largest empire the world had yet seen. The empire collapsed in 330 BC following the conquests of Alexander the Great. The Parthian Empire emerged from the ashes and was succeeded by the Sassanid Dynasty in 224 AD, under which Iran again became one of the leading powers in the world, along with the Roman-Byzantine Empire, for a period of more than four centuries.
What year did the Rashidun Arabs invade Iran?
572fefaeb2c2fd1400568609
633 AD
3
False
What year did the Rashidun Arabs conquer Iran?
572fefaeb2c2fd140056860a
651 AD
59
False
What religion did the Rashidun Arabs convert the indigenous conquered peoples to?
572fefaeb2c2fd140056860b
Sunni Islam
167
False
Which country took over Iran's territories in the Caucasus in the 19th Century?
572fefaeb2c2fd140056860c
Imperial Russia
1083
False
What movement led to Iran becoming an Islamic republic in 1979?
572fefaeb2c2fd140056860d
1979 Revolution
1555
False
In 633 AD, Rashidun Arabs invaded Iran and conquered it by 651 AD, largely converting Iranian people from their indigenous faiths of Manichaeism and Zoroastrianism to Sunni Islam. Arabic replaced Persian as the official language, while Persian remained the language of both ordinary people and of literature. Iran became a major contributor to the Islamic Golden Age, producing many influential scientists, scholars, artists, and thinkers. Establishment of the Safavid Dynasty in 1501, converted the Iranian people from Sunni Islam to Twelver Shia Islam, and made Twelver Shia Islam the official religion of Iran. Safavid conversion of Iran from Sunnism to Shiism marked one of the most important turning points in Iranian and Muslim history. Starting in 1736 under Nader Shah, Iran reached its greatest territorial extent since the Sassanid Empire, briefly possessing what was arguably the most powerful empire at the time. During the 19th century, Iran irrevocably lost swaths of its territories in the Caucasus which made part of the concept of Iran for centuries, to neighboring Imperial Russia. Popular unrest culminated in the Persian Constitutional Revolution of 1906, which established a constitutional monarchy and the country's first Majles (parliament). Following a coup d'état instigated by the U.K. and the U.S. in 1953, Iran gradually became close allies with the United States and the rest of the West, remained secular, but grew increasingly autocratic. Growing dissent against foreign influence and political repression culminated in the 1979 Revolution, which led to the establishment of an Islamic republic on 1 April 1979.
What city is Iran's capital?
572ff0a2947a6a140053ce36
Tehran
0
False
What resource does Iran have the largest supply of in the world?
572ff0a2947a6a140053ce37
natural gas
303
False
What resource does Iran have the fourth largest supply of in the world?
572ff0a2947a6a140053ce38
proven oil reserves
358
False
How many UNESCO World Heritage Sites does Iran have?
572ff0a2947a6a140053ce39
19
435
False
How does Iran effect the world economy and international energy markets?
572ff0a2947a6a140053ce3a
through its large reserves of fossil fuels
233
False
Tehran is the country's capital and largest city, as well as its leading cultural and economic center. Iran is a major regional and middle power, exerting considerable influence in international energy security and the world economy through its large reserves of fossil fuels, which include the largest natural gas supply in the world and the fourth-largest proven oil reserves. Iran's rich cultural legacy is reflected in part by its 19 UNESCO World Heritage Sites, the fourth-largest number in Asia and 12th-largest in the world.
What century did terms referencing Iran begin to be recorded?
572ff27bb2c2fd1400568627
3rd-century
77
False
What inscription referenced the term Aryan to Iranians?
572ff27bb2c2fd1400568628
Parthian
141
False
What Proto-Indo-European term means "skillful assembler?"
572ff27bb2c2fd1400568629
*ar-yo-
450
False
What other term in the 3rd Century besides Aryan also refer to Iran?
572ff27bb2c2fd140056862a
Ērān
51
False
What is attested as a self-identifier in Iranian languages?
572ff27bb2c2fd140056862b
the gentilic
511
False
The term Iran derives directly from Middle Persian Ērān, first attested in a 3rd-century inscription at Rustam Relief, with the accompanying Parthian inscription using the term Aryān, in reference to Iranians. The Middle Iranian ērān and aryān are oblique plural forms of gentilic ēr- (Middle Persian) and ary- (Parthian), both deriving from Proto-Iranian *arya- (meaning "Aryan," i.e., "of the Iranians"), argued to descend from Proto-Indo-European *ar-yo-, meaning "skillful assembler." In Iranian languages, the gentilic is attested as a self-identifier included in ancient inscriptions and the literature of Avesta,[a] and remains also in other Iranian ethnic names such as Alans (Ossetic: Ир – Ir) and Iron (Ossetic: Ирон – Iron).
Which historians referred to Iran as Persis?
572ff3e2947a6a140053ce70
Greek historians
93
False
What has the West historically referred Iran as?
572ff3e2947a6a140053ce71
Persia
43
False
When did Persians settle on the west shore of Lake Urmia?
572ff3e2947a6a140053ce72
the 9th century BC
497
False
After Lake Urmia, Persis then shifted over to what region?
572ff3e2947a6a140053ce73
the southern end of the Zagros Mountains,
552
False
What is Persis known as today?
572ff3e2947a6a140053ce74
Fars Province
618
False
Historically, Iran has been referred to as Persia by the West, due mainly to the writings of Greek historians who called Iran Persis (Greek: Περσίς), meaning "land of the Persians." As the most extensive interactions the Ancient Greeks had with any outsider was with the Persians, the term persisted, even long after the Persian rule in Greece. However, Persis (Old Persian: Pārśa; Modern Persian: Pārse) was originally referred to a region settled by Persians in the west shore of Lake Urmia, in the 9th century BC. The settlement was then shifted to the southern end of the Zagros Mountains, and is today defined as Fars Province.
When did Reza Shan request that Iran officially be referred to as Iran and not Persia?
572ff633a23a5019007fcbbb
1935
3
False
Which newspaper reported the official name request in 1935?
572ff633a23a5019007fcbbc
New York Times
114
False
Who endorsed a move to use Persia and Iran interchangeably after opposition to the official name change?
572ff633a23a5019007fcbbd
Professor Ehsan Yarshater
415
False
Which name is officially used politically?
572ff633a23a5019007fcbbe
Iran
601
False
In 1935, Reza Shah requested the international community to refer to the country by its native name, Iran. As the New York Times explained at the time, "At the suggestion of the Persian Legation in Berlin, the Tehran government, on the Persian New Year, Nowruz, March 21, 1935, substituted Iran for Persia as the official name of the country." Opposition to the name change led to the reversal of the decision, and Professor Ehsan Yarshater, editor of Encyclopædia Iranica, propagated a move to use Persia and Iran interchangeably. Today, both Persia and Iran are used in cultural contexts; although, Iran is the name used officially in political contexts.
How long ago were the earliest artifacts from that were evidence of humans in Iran?
572ff7df947a6a140053cea2
the Lower Paleolithic era, c. 800,000–200,000 BC
146
False
What region of Iran did Neanderthal artifacts from the Middle Paleolithic Period were found?
572ff7df947a6a140053cea3
the Zagros region
309
False
When did early agricultural communities in Iran begin to appear and prosper?
572ff7df947a6a140053cea4
10th to 8th millennium BC
390
False
What were dug up from the archaeological sites Kashafrud and Ganj Par in Iran?
572ff7df947a6a140053cea5
The earliest archaeological artifacts in Iran
0
False
The earliest archaeological artifacts in Iran, like those excavated at the Kashafrud and Ganj Par sites, attest to a human presence in Iran since the Lower Paleolithic era, c. 800,000–200,000 BC. Iran's Neanderthal artifacts from the Middle Paleolithic period, c. 200,000–40,000 BC, have been found mainly in the Zagros region, at sites such as Warwasi and Yafteh Cave.[page needed] Around 10th to 8th millennium BC, early agricultural communities such as Chogha Golan and Chogha Bonut began to flourish in Iran, as well as Susa and Chogha Mish developing in and around the Zagros region.[page needed]
What ancient city dates back as early as 4395 BC in Iran?
572ff927947a6a140053cebe
Susa
17
False
How long ago did ancient cultures and settlements exist across the Iranian plateau?
572ff927947a6a140053cebf
the 4th millennium BC
237
False
During what Age was Iran the site of several of these ancient civilizations?
572ff927947a6a140053cec0
Bronze Age
271
False
Which ancient civilization in Iran during the 4th Millenium was the most prominent?
572ff927947a6a140053cec1
Elam
365
False
Elam's writing system had paralleled Sumer's cuneiform since what era?
572ff927947a6a140053cec2
the 3rd millennium BC
586
False
The emergence of Susa as a city, as determined by radiocarbon dating, dates back to early 4,395 BC. There are dozens of prehistoric sites across the Iranian plateau, pointing to the existence of ancient cultures and urban settlements in the 4th millennium BC. During the Bronze Age, Iran was home to several civilizations including Elam, Jiroft, and Zayande River. Elam, the most prominent of these civilizations, developed in the southwest of Iran, alongside those in Mesopotamia. The emergence of writing in Elam was paralleled to Sumer, and the Elamite cuneiform was developed since the 3rd millennium BC.
Who dominated the area of Irea between the 10th Century BC to the late 7th Century BC?
572ffa37947a6a140053cec8
the Assyrian Empire
135
False
Who lead the Persians into a coalition with the Medes, Babylon, Scythians, and Cimmerians to fight against the Assyrians?
572ffa37947a6a140053cec9
king Cyaxares
193
False
When did this Civil War take place to free the Iranian peoples from Assyrian rule?
572ffa37947a6a140053ceca
between 616 BC and 605 BC
421
False
How long did the Assyrian Empire control and rule Iran?
572ffa37947a6a140053cecb
three centuries
491
False
When did the Median tribes unify under a single ruler to form the Median Empire?
572ffa37947a6a140053cecc
728 BC
586
False
From the late 10th to late 7th centuries BC, the Iranian peoples, together with the pre-Iranian kingdoms, fell under the domination of the Assyrian Empire, based in northern Mesopotamia. Under king Cyaxares, the Medes and Persians entered into an alliance with Nabopolassar of Babylon, as well as the Scythians and the Cimmerians, and together they attacked the Assyrian Empire. The civil war ravaged the Assyrian Empire between 616 BC and 605 BC, thus freeing their respective peoples from three centuries of Assyrian rule. The unification of the Median tribes under a single ruler in 728 BC led to the foundation of the Median Empire which, by 612 BC, controlled the whole Iran and the eastern Anatolia. This marked the end of the Kingdom of Urartu as well, which was subsequently conquered and dissolved.
Who founded the Achaemenid Empire when the city states in Iran came together in unification?
572ffbc2b2c2fd14005686d3
Cyrus the Great
11
False
When did Cyrus the Great found the Achaemenid Empire?
572ffbc2b2c2fd14005686d4
550 BC
3
False
Who triggered the Persian Revolt?
572ffbc2b2c2fd14005686d5
the Median ruler Astyages
281
False
What resulted from the Persian Revolt?
572ffbc2b2c2fd14005686d6
The conquest of Media
153
False
In 550 BC, Cyrus the Great, son of Mandane and Cambyses I, took over the Median Empire, and founded the Achaemenid Empire by unifying other city states. The conquest of Media was a result of what is called the Persian Revolt. The brouhaha was initially triggered by the actions of the Median ruler Astyages, and was quickly spread to other provinces, as they allied with the Persians. Later conquests under Cyrus and his successors expanded the empire to include Lydia, Babylon, Egypt, parts of the Balkans and Eastern Europe proper, as well as the lands to the west of the Indus and Oxus rivers.
What was the first world goverment the world had seen at the time it existed?
572ffd1b04bcaa1900d76fbd
the Achaemenid Empire
24
False
What was the largest empire the world had seen at the time it existed?
572ffd1b04bcaa1900d76fbe
the Achaemenid Empire
24
False
What sea did the Achaemenid Empire control the majority of the coastal regions of?
572ffd1b04bcaa1900d76fbf
the Black Sea
133
False
The Achaemenid Empire expanded into what part of Asia?
572ffd1b04bcaa1900d76fc0
Central Asia
501
False
The Achaemenid Empire controlled all of the significant settlements of what ancient country during its greatest extent?
572ffd1b04bcaa1900d76fc1
ancient Egypt
372
False
At its greatest extent, the Achaemenid Empire included the modern territories of Iran, Azerbaijan, Armenia, Georgia, Turkey, much of the Black Sea coastal regions, northeastern Greece and southern Bulgaria (Thrace), northern Greece and Macedonia (Paeonia and Ancient Macedon), Iraq, Syria, Lebanon, Jordan, Israel, Palestine, all significant ancient population centers of ancient Egypt as far west as Libya, Kuwait, northern Saudi Arabia, parts of the UAE and Oman, Pakistan, Afghanistan, and much of Central Asia, making it the first world government and the largest empire the world had yet seen.
The Achaemenid Empire was the known enemy of what nation's histories during its existence?
572ffe22947a6a140053cf0a
the Greek city states
273
False
How many people lived in the Archaemenid Empire in 480BC?
572ffe22947a6a140053cf0b
50 million people
32
False
The Achaemenid Empire had what percentage of the word's population in 480BC?
572ffe22947a6a140053cf0c
44% of the world's population
116
False
What was the Achaemenid Empire's official language?
572ffe22947a6a140053cf0d
Imperial Aramaic
466
False
What Seven Wonder of the Ancient world was built by the Archaemenid Empire in the 4th Century BC?
572ffe22947a6a140053cf0e
the Mausoleum at Halicarnassus
745
False
It is estimated that in 480 BC, 50 million people lived in the Achaemenid Empire. The empire at its peak ruled over 44% of the world's population, the highest such figure for any empire in history. In Greek history, the Achaemenid Empire is considered as the antagonist of the Greek city states, for the emancipation of slaves including the Jewish exiles in Babylon, building infrastructures such as road and postal systems, and the use of an official language, the Imperial Aramaic, throughout its territories. The empire had a centralized, bureaucratic administration under the emperor, a large professional army, and civil services, inspiring similar developments in later empires. Furthermore, one of the Seven Wonders of the Ancient World, the Mausoleum at Halicarnassus, was built in the empire between 353 and 350 BC.
Who invaded the Archaemenid Empire in 334BC?
572ffeec04bcaa1900d76fdb
Alexander the Great
11
False
Who was the last Archaemenid Emperor at the time of its defeat by Alexander the Great?
572ffeec04bcaa1900d76fdc
Darius III
101
False
Who controlled the Archaemenid Empire after Alexander the Great died prematurely?
572ffeec04bcaa1900d76fdd
the Hellenistic Seleucid Empire
212
False
When did the Parthian Empire rise to become the main power in Iran?
572ffeec04bcaa1900d76fde
In the middle of the 2nd century BC
245
False
When did the Sassanid Empire succeed the Parthian Empire in control of Iran?
572ffeec04bcaa1900d76fdf
224 CE
548
False
In 334 BC, Alexander the Great invaded the Achaemenid Empire, defeating the last Achaemenid emperor, Darius III, at the Battle of Issus. Following the premature death of Alexander, Iran came under the control of the Hellenistic Seleucid Empire. In the middle of the 2nd century BC, the Parthian Empire rose to become the main power in Iran, and the century-long geopolitical arch-rivalry between Romans and Parthians began, culminating in the Roman–Parthian Wars. The Parthian Empire continued as a feudal monarchy for nearly five centuries, until 224 CE, when it was succeeded by the Sassanid Empire. Together with their neighboring arch-rival, the Roman-Byzantines, they made up the world's two most dominant powers at the time, for over four centuries.
What wars in the 600s CE lead to the weakening of Iran and a subsequent invasion by the Arabs?
5730037bb2c2fd1400568739
Byzantine-Sassanid Wars
14
False
When did the Arabs invade Iran?
5730037bb2c2fd140056873a
the 7th century
211
False
Which Arab Caliphate defeated Iran first?
5730037bb2c2fd140056873b
Arab Rashidun Caliphate
254
False
What special tax did the discriminated Iranians - both converted and nonconverted - have to pay?
5730037bb2c2fd140056873c
Jizya
694
False
What academy was the most important medical center of the world at the time and became Islamicized after the Arab invasions?
5730037bb2c2fd140056873d
Academy of Gunde Shapur
727
False
The prolonged Byzantine-Sassanid Wars, most importantly the climactic Byzantine-Sassanid War of 602-628, as well as the social conflict within the Sassanid Empire, opened the way for an Arab invasion to Iran in the 7th century. Initially defeated by the Arab Rashidun Caliphate, Iran came under the rule of the Arab caliphates of Umayyad and Abbasid. The prolonged and gradual process of the Islamization of Iran began following the conquest. Under the new Arab elite of the Rashidun and later the Umayyad caliphates, both converted (mawali) and non-converted (dhimmi) Iranians were discriminated against, being excluded from the government and military, and having to pay a special tax called Jizya. Gunde Shapur, home of the Academy of Gunde Shapur which was the most important medical center of the world at the time, survived after the invasion, but became known as an Islamic institute thereafter.
What period was known for an era where Iranian civilization blossomed and peaked?
5730048aa23a5019007fcc4d
the Islamic Golden Age
174
False
When did the Islamic Golden Age reach its zenith?
5730048aa23a5019007fcc4e
by the 10th and 11th centuries
238
False
Where was the main area where the peak of scientific activity take place during the Islamic Golden Age?
5730048aa23a5019007fcc4f
Iran
283
False
Prominent Iranian writers during this time of the Islamic Golden Age contributed to what area of writing?
5730048aa23a5019007fcc50
scientific writing
610
False
The blossoming literature, philosophy, medicine, and art of Iran became major elements in the formation of a new age for the Iranian civilization, during the period known as the Islamic Golden Age. The Islamic Golden Age reached its peak by the 10th and 11th centuries, during which Iran was the main theater of the scientific activities. After the 10th century, Persian language, alongside Arabic, was used for the scientific, philosophical, historical, musical, and medical works, whereas the important Iranian writers, such as Tusi, Avicenna, Qotb od Din Shirazi, and Biruni, had major contributions in the scientific writing.
What tribes migranted en masse to the Iranian plateau in the 10th Century?
573005ae947a6a140053cf60
Turkic tribes
41
False
Where did these Turkic tribes come from before the migrated into Iran in the 10th Century?
573005ae947a6a140053cf61
Central Asia
60
False
The Abbasid army replaced Iranian and Arabic men with Turkic tribesmen as what element in their army?
573005ae947a6a140053cf62
mamluks (slave-warriors)
155
False
In what year did the Ghaznavids briefly control large portions of Iran?
573005ae947a6a140053cf63
999
300
False
How were the Ghaznavids different from the original Turkics that migrated into Iran?
573005ae947a6a140053cf64
These Turks had been Persianized and had adopted Persian models of administration and rulership
490
False
The 10th century saw a mass migration of Turkic tribes from Central Asia into the Iranian plateau. Turkic tribesmen were first used in the Abbasid army as mamluks (slave-warriors), replacing Iranian and Arab elements within the army. As a result, the mamluks gained a significant political power. In 999, large portions of Iran came briefly under the rule of the Ghaznavids, whose rulers were of mamluk Turk origin, and longer subsequently under the Turkish Seljuk and Khwarezmian empires. These Turks had been Persianized and had adopted Persian models of administration and rulership. The Seljuks subsequently gave rise to the Sultanate of Rum in Anatolia, while taking their thoroughly Persianized identity with them. The result of the adoption and patronage of Persian culture by Turkish rulers was the development of a distinct Turko-Persian tradition.
Who established an Ilkhanate in Iran after the break up of the Mongol Empire in 1256?
5730067f947a6a140053cf7c
Hulagu Khan
53
False
Timur established the Timurid Empire in Iran in what year?
5730067f947a6a140053cf7d
1370
130
False
How long did the Timurid empire last in Iran?
5730067f947a6a140053cf7e
156 years
255
False
How many citizens were massacred in Isfahan by Timur in 1387?
5730067f947a6a140053cf7f
70,000 citizens
342
False
The Ilkhans and Tumrids had what type of culture when ruling Iran?
5730067f947a6a140053cf80
a culture that was distinctively Iranian
482
False
Following the fracture of the Mongol Empire in 1256, Hulagu Khan, grandson of Genghis Khan, established the Ilkhanate in Iran. In 1370, yet another conqueror, Timur, followed the example of Hulagu, establishing the Timurid Empire which lasted for another 156 years. In 1387, Timur ordered the complete massacre of Isfahan, reportedly killing 70,000 citizens. The Ilkhans and the Timurids soon came to adopt the ways and customs of the Iranians, choosing to surround themselves with a culture that was distinctively Iranian.
Who established the Safavid Dynasty?
5730083f04bcaa1900d7703f
Ismail I from Ardabil
14
False
What was the capital of the Safavid Dynasty?
5730083f04bcaa1900d77040
Tabriz
75
False
Ismail I forced a conversion to what Islamic branch?
5730083f04bcaa1900d77041
Shia Islam
469
False
What country is currently the only official Shia nation of the world?
5730083f04bcaa1900d77042
Iran
609
False
By the 1500s, Ismail I from Ardabil, established the Safavid Dynasty, with Tabriz as the capital. Beginning with Azerbaijan, he subsequently extended his authority over all of the Iranian territories, and established an intermittent Iranian hegemony over the vast relative regions, reasserting the Iranian identity within large parts of the Greater Iran. Iran was predominantly Sunni, but Ismail instigated a forced conversion to the Shia branch of Islam, by which the Shia Islam spread throughout the Safavid territories in the Caucasus, Iran, Anatolia, and Mesopotamia. As a result, thereof, the modern-day Iran is the only official Shia nation of the world, with it holding an absolute majority in Iran and the Republic of Azerbaijan, having there the 1st and 2nd highest number of Shia inhabitants by population percentage in the world.
What Empire neighbored and had a rivalry with Safavid Iran?
57300950a23a5019007fcc83
Ottoman Empire
97
False
Safavid Iran peaked during whose reign?
57300950a23a5019007fcc84
Abbas the Great
190
False
When did the Safavid Empire peak?
57300950a23a5019007fcc85
1587–1629
207
False
Who ended Safavid power in Iran in 1722?
57300950a23a5019007fcc86
Pashtun rebels
854
False
Who was the last Safavid ruler who was defeated in 1722 by the Pashtuns in Isfahan?
57300950a23a5019007fcc87
Soltan Hosein
903
False
The centuries-long geopolitical and ideological rivalry between Safavid Iran and the neighboring Ottoman Empire, led to numerous Ottoman–Persian Wars. The Safavid Era peaked in the reign of Abbas the Great, 1587–1629, surpassing their Ottoman arch rivals in strength, and making the empire a leading hub in Western Eurasia for the sciences and arts. The Safavid Era saw the start of mass integration from Caucasian populations into new layers of the society of Iran, as well as mass resettlement of them within the heartlands of Iran, playing a pivotal role in the history of Iran for centuries onwards. Following a gradual decline in the late 1600s and early 1700s, which was caused by the internal conflicts, the continuous wars with the Ottomans, and the foreign interference (most notably the Russian interference), the Safavid rule was ended by the Pashtun rebels who besieged Isfahan and defeated Soltan Hosein in 1722.
In what year were the Pashtuns defeated and driven out of Iran?
57300a34b2c2fd1400568793
1729
3
False
Who drove out the Pashtuns from Iran in 1729?
57300a34b2c2fd1400568794
Nader Shah
9
False
Where was Nader Shan from?
57300a34b2c2fd1400568795
Khorasan
58
False
Nader Shah expanded Iranian power to its highest peak since what Empire?
57300a34b2c2fd1400568796
the Sassanid Empire
349
False
Nader Shah took back what territories that were annexed by the Ottomans and the Russians?
57300a34b2c2fd1400568797
Caucasian territories
165
False
In 1729, Nader Shah, a chieftain and military genius from Khorasan, successfully drove out and conquered the Pashtun invaders. He subsequently took back the annexed Caucasian territories which were divided among the Ottoman and Russian authorities by the ongoing chaos in Iran. During the reign of Nader Shah, Iran reached its greatest extent since the Sassanid Empire, reestablishing the Iranian hegemony all over the Caucasus, as well as other major parts of the west and central Asia, and briefly possessing what was arguably the most powerful empire at the time.
Whose death in 1779 led to a civil war in Iran?
57300b16b2c2fd140056879d
Karim Khan
44
False
Who founded the following Qajar Empire in 1794?
57300b16b2c2fd140056879e
Aqa Mohammad Khan
77
False
The Qajars defeated the Russians at what battle to take over Tblisi?
57300b16b2c2fd140056879f
Battle of Krtsanisi
273
False
The Qajars drove the Russians out of what entire region?
57300b16b2c2fd14005687a0
the entire Caucasus
324
False
Iran lost territory in the Caucasus during what wars in the early 1800s?
57300b16b2c2fd14005687a1
Russo-Persian wars
414
False
Another civil war ensued after the death of Karim Khan in 1779, out of which Aqa Mohammad Khan emerged, founding the Qajar Dynasty in 1794. In 1795, following the disobedience of the Georgian subjects and their alliance with the Russians, the Qajars captured Tblisi by the Battle of Krtsanisi, and drove the Russians out of the entire Caucasus, reestablishing a short-lived Iranian suzerainty over the region. The Russo-Persian wars of 1804–1813 and 1826–1828 resulted in large irrevocable territorial losses for Iran in the Caucasus, comprising all of Transcaucasia and Dagestan, which made part of the very concept of Iran for centuries, and thus substantial gains for the neighboring Russian Empire.
What wars resulted in Iran losing control of the Caucasus to the Russians?
57300c2a04bcaa1900d77091
the 19th century Russo-Persian wars
15
False
What region consisting of Dagestan, Georgia, Armenia, & Azerbaijan did Iran lose control of to the Russians?
57300c2a04bcaa1900d77092
the Caucasus
75
False
The Gulistan and Turkmenchay treaties between Iran and Russia confirmed what?
57300c2a04bcaa1900d77093
Iran irrevocably lost control over its integral territories in the region
93
False
What century did Iran lose the Caucasus to Russia?
57300c2a04bcaa1900d77094
the 19th century
510
False
As a result of the 19th century Russo-Persian wars, the Russians took over the Caucasus, and Iran irrevocably lost control over its integral territories in the region (comprising modern-day Dagestan, Georgia, Armenia, and Azerbaijan), which got confirmed per the treaties of Gulistan and Turkmenchay. The area to the north of the river Aras, among which the contemporary Republic of Azerbaijan, eastern Georgia, Dagestan, and Armenia, were Iranian territory until they were occupied by Russia in the course of the 19th century.
When did a series of protests over foreign concessions sales in Iran occur?
57300d4fb2c2fd14005687a7
Between 1872 and 1905
0
False
What resulted from the series of protests in Iran over foreign concessions sales?
57300d4fb2c2fd14005687a8
the Iranian Constitutional Revolution
172
False
The first national parliament of Iran was founded in what year?
57300d4fb2c2fd14005687a9
in 1906
297
False
The first Constitution of Iran was founded in what year?
57300d4fb2c2fd14005687aa
in 1906
297
False
The Iranian Constitution did what for Christians, Jews, and Zoroastrians in Iran?
57300d4fb2c2fd14005687ab
official recognition of Iran's three religious minorities
368
False
Between 1872 and 1905, a series of protests took place in response to the sale of concessions to foreigners by Nasser od Din and Mozaffar od Din shahs of Qajar, and led to the Iranian Constitutional Revolution. The first Iranian Constitution and the first national parliament of Iran were founded in 1906, through the ongoing revolution. The Constitution included the official recognition of Iran's three religious minorities, namely Christians, Zoroastrians, and Jews, which has remained a basis in the legislation of Iran since then.
The constitutional movement in Iran lasted from 1906 until what year?
57301248b2c2fd14005687eb
until 1911
62
False
Who was defeated and forced to abdicate at the end of the Iranian constitutional movement?
57301248b2c2fd14005687ec
Mohammad Ali Shah
79
False
In 1911, Russians occupied Northern Iran under what pretext?
57301248b2c2fd14005687ed
restoring order
152
False
The British occupied Western Iran from World War 1 until finally withdrawing in what year?
57301248b2c2fd14005687ee
1921
367
False
Who massacred many Assyrian Iranians around Urmia during World War 1?
57301248b2c2fd14005687ef
Ottoman armies
653
False
The struggle related to the constitutional movement continued until 1911, when Mohammad Ali Shah was defeated and forced to abdicate. On the pretext of restoring order, the Russians occupied Northern Iran in 1911, and maintained a military presence in the region for years to come. During World War I, the British occupied much of Western Iran, and fully withdrew in 1921. The Persian Campaign commenced furthermore during World War I in Northwestern Iran after an Ottoman invasion, as part of the Middle Eastern Theatre of World War I. As a result of Ottoman hostilities across the border, a large amount of the Assyrians of Iran were massacred by the Ottoman armies, notably in and around Urmia. Apart from the rule of Aqa Mohammad Khan, the Qajar rule is characterized as a century of misrule.
When was Reza Shah forced to abdicate in Iran?
5730132eb2c2fd1400568813
1941
3
False
Who succeeded Reza Shah after his abdication?
5730132eb2c2fd1400568814
his son, Mohammad Reza Pahlavi
54
False
Mohammad Reza Pahlavi established what enormous supply route during World War 2?
5730132eb2c2fd1400568815
the Persian Corridor
102
False
Who backed two puppet regimes in/around Iran during WWII?
5730132eb2c2fd1400568816
the Soviet Union
406
False
What happened which ended in two puppet states dissolving and Soviet withdrawal out of Iran after WWII?
5730132eb2c2fd1400568817
the Iran crisis of 1946
477
False
In 1941, Reza Shah was forced to abdicate in favor of his son, Mohammad Reza Pahlavi, and established the Persian Corridor, a massive supply route that would last until the end of the ongoing war. The presence of so many foreign troops in the nation also culminated in the Soviet-backed establishment of two puppet regimes in the nation; the Azerbaijan People's Government, and the Republic of Mahabad. As the Soviet Union refused to relinquish the occupied Iranian territory, the Iran crisis of 1946 was followed, which particularly resulted in the dissolution of both puppet states, and the withdrawal of the Soviets.
What year did oil price spikes in Iran lead to inflation?
573014cc04bcaa1900d77143
1973
11
False
What caused inflation to Iran's economy during the oil price spike in 1973?
573014cc04bcaa1900d77144
economy of Iran was flooded with foreign currency
41
False
Iran's inflation led to what in 1975-1976?
573014cc04bcaa1900d77145
an economic recession
320
False
Why did millions of youth migrate to the urban areas of Iran in the mid 1970s?
573014cc04bcaa1900d77146
construction jobs
459
False
Due to increased unemployment, who mainly opposed the Shah's regime?
573014cc04bcaa1900d77147
millions of youth who had migrated to the cities
390
False
Due to the 1973 spike in oil prices, the economy of Iran was flooded with foreign currency, which caused inflation. By 1974, the economy of Iran was experiencing double digit inflation, and despite many large projects to modernize the country, corruption was rampant and caused large amounts of waste. By 1975 and 1976, an economic recession led to increased unemployment, especially among millions of youth who had migrated to the cities of Iran looking for construction jobs during the boom years of the early 1970s. By the late 1970s, many of these people opposed the Shah's regime and began to organize and join the protests against it.
The new Iranian government following the Shah's downfall dealt with the Kurdish rebellion in what year?
573015d6947a6a140053d0a2
1979
75
False
How did the new Iranian government handle the rebellions and uprisings following their rise to power?
573015d6947a6a140053d0a3
in a violent manner
263
False
The new Iranian government purged itself of what political opposition?
573015d6947a6a140053d0a4
non-Islamist
366
False
What happened to the nationalists and Marxists that had helped the Islamic ruling government to depose the Shah?
573015d6947a6a140053d0a5
were executed
518
False
The immediate nationwide uprisings against the new government began by the 1979 Kurdish rebellion with the Khuzestan uprisings, along with the uprisings in Sistan and Baluchestan Province and other areas. Over the next several years, these uprisings were subdued in a violent manner by the new Islamic government. The new government went about purging itself of the non-Islamist political opposition. Although both nationalists and Marxists had initially joined with Islamists to overthrow the Shah, tens of thousands were executed by the Islamic government afterward.
When was the US Embassy in Iran seized?
5730168bb2c2fd140056883b
November 4, 1979
3
False
Who seized the US Embassy in Iran in 1979?
5730168bb2c2fd140056883c
a group of students
21
False
How many hostages were taken in the US Embassy seizure?
5730168bb2c2fd140056883d
52 personnel and citizens
100
False
Who won the 1980 US Presidential Elections after President Carter's repeated failed attempts to resolve the US Iranian Embassy situation?
5730168bb2c2fd140056883e
Ronald Reagan
418
False
ALl of the hostages were completely freed as the result of what treaty?
5730168bb2c2fd140056883f
Algiers Accords
540
False
On November 4, 1979, a group of students seized the United States Embassy and took the embassy with 52 personnel and citizens hostage, after the United States refused to return Mohammad Reza Pahlavi to Iran to face trial in the court of the new regime. Attempts by the Jimmy Carter administration to negotiate for the release of the hostages, and a failed rescue attempt, helped force Carter out of office and brought Ronald Reagan to power. On Jimmy Carter's final day in office, the last hostages were finally set free as a result of the Algiers Accords.
Who invaded Iran in 1980?
5730175f04bcaa1900d77169
the Iraqi army
23
False
When did the Iranian army push the Iraqis back into Iraq?
5730175f04bcaa1900d7716a
mid 1982
168
False
When did the Iran-Iraq War finally end?
5730175f04bcaa1900d7716b
1988
475
False
Who mediated the truce which ended the Iran-Iraq War?
5730175f04bcaa1900d7716c
the UN
657
False
How many civilians in Iran were killed during the Iran-Iraq War?
5730175f04bcaa1900d7716d
11,000–16,000
763
False
On September 22, 1980, the Iraqi army invaded the Iranian Khuzestan, and the Iran–Iraq War began. Although the forces of Saddam Hussein made several early advances, by mid 1982, the Iranian forces successfully managed to drive the Iraqi army back into Iraq. In July 1982, with Iraq thrown on the defensive, Iran took the decision to invade Iraq and conducted countless offensives in a bid to conquer Iraqi territory and capture cities, such as Basra. The war continued until 1988, when the Iraqi army defeated the Iranian forces inside Iraq and pushed the remaining Iranian troops back across the border. Subsequently, Khomeini accepted a truce mediated by the UN. The total Iranian casualties in the war were estimated to be 123,220–160,000 KIA, 60,711 MIA, and 11,000–16,000 civilians killed.
What is the size of Iran?
573017f7a23a5019007fcd5b
1,648,195 km2 (636,372 sq mi)
20
False
What latitudes does Iran lie between?
573017f7a23a5019007fcd5c
24° and 40° N
79
False
What longitudes does Iran lie between?
573017f7a23a5019007fcd5d
44° and 64° E
109
False
Where does Iran border the Persian Gulf and the Gulf of Oman?
573017f7a23a5019007fcd5e
to the south
565
False
What does Iran border with to its north?
573017f7a23a5019007fcd5f
the Caspian Sea
275
False
Iran has an area of 1,648,195 km2 (636,372 sq mi). Iran lies between latitudes 24° and 40° N, and longitudes 44° and 64° E. Its borders are with Azerbaijan (611 km or 380 mi, with Azerbaijan-Naxcivan exclave, 179 km or 111 mi) and Armenia (35 km or 22 mi) to the north-west; the Caspian Sea to the north; Turkmenistan (992 km or 616 mi) to the north-east; Pakistan (909 km or 565 mi) and Afghanistan (936 km or 582 mi) to the east; Turkey (499 km or 310 mi) and Iraq (1,458 km or 906 mi) to the west; and finally the waters of the Persian Gulf and the Gulf of Oman to the south.
Iran's landscape is dominated by what geographical feature?
57301a69947a6a140053d0f8
rugged mountain ranges
193
False
What is Iran's highest mountain?
57301a69947a6a140053d0f9
Mount Damavand
429
False
How tall is Mount Damavand?
57301a69947a6a140053d0fa
5,610 m (18,406 ft)
447
False
Mount Damavand is located in what range?
57301a69947a6a140053d0fb
Alborz Mountains
371
False
Iran consists of the Iranian Plateau with the exception of the coasts of the Caspian Sea and Khuzestan Province. It is one of the world's most mountainous countries, its landscape dominated by rugged mountain ranges that separate various basins or plateaux from one another. The populous western part is the most mountainous, with ranges such as the Caucasus, Zagros and Alborz Mountains; the last contains Iran's highest point, Mount Damavand at 5,610 m (18,406 ft), which is also the highest mountain on the Eurasian landmass west of the Hindu Kush.
Iran's climate along its Capsian coast and northen forests is?
57301cdea23a5019007fcd9d
subtropical
48
False
During what season does Iran's northern region's temperatures never go higher than 29c?
57301cdea23a5019007fcd9e
Summer
267
False
What is the annual precipitation in Iran's eastern plains?
57301cdea23a5019007fcd9f
680 mm (26.8 in)
342
False
What is the annual precipitation in Iran's western plains?
57301cdea23a5019007fcda0
1,700 mm (66.9 in)
406
False
According to Gary Lewis of the UN, what is the most pressing human security challenge in Iran?
57301cdea23a5019007fcda1
Water scarcity
517
False
Iran's climate ranges from arid or semiarid, to subtropical along the Caspian coast and the northern forests. On the northern edge of the country (the Caspian coastal plain) temperatures rarely fall below freezing and the area remains humid for the rest of the year. Summer temperatures rarely exceed 29 °C (84.2 °F). Annual precipitation is 680 mm (26.8 in) in the eastern part of the plain and more than 1,700 mm (66.9 in) in the western part. United Nations Resident Coordinator for Iran Gary Lewis has said that "Water scarcity poses the most severe human security challenge in Iran today".
In Iran's western Zagros Basin, what are the average daily temperatures during winter?
57301dc9947a6a140053d132
below zero
96
False
In Iran's western Zagros Basin, temperatures do not exceed what level during the summer?
57301dc9947a6a140053d133
38 °C (100.4 °F)
306
False
The eastern and central basins of Iran experience how much annual precipitation?
57301dc9947a6a140053d134
less than 200 mm (7.9 in) of rain
200
False
What is the coastal plains of Iran's annual precipitation ranges?
57301dc9947a6a140053d135
135 to 355 mm (5.3 to 14.0 in)
485
False
To the west, settlements in the Zagros basin experience lower temperatures, severe winters with below zero average daily temperatures and heavy snowfall. The eastern and central basins are arid, with less than 200 mm (7.9 in) of rain, and have occasional deserts. Average summer temperatures rarely exceed 38 °C (100.4 °F). The coastal plains of the Persian Gulf and Gulf of Oman in southern Iran have mild winters, and very humid and hot summers. The annual precipitation ranges from 135 to 355 mm (5.3 to 14.0 in).
How many species of Iranian wildlife are listed by the IUCN as endangered?
5730220f04bcaa1900d771f1
74 species
9
False
The Iranian Parliament lets who exploit mines without guidance from the Department of the Environment?
5730220f04bcaa1900d771f2
Ministry of Industries and Mines
306
False
The Iranian Parliament does not demand environmental impact studies before approving what projects?
5730220f04bcaa1900d771f3
large national development projects
428
False
The Iranian Parliament passes legislation without the involvement of what department to the detriment of wildlife?
5730220f04bcaa1900d771f4
Department of Environment
384
False
At least 74 species of Iranian wildlife are on the red list of the International Union for the Conservation of Nature, a sign of serious threats against the country’s biodiversity. The Iranian Parliament has been showing disregard for wildlife by passing laws and regulations such as the act that lets the Ministry of Industries and Mines exploit mines without the involvement of the Department of Environment, and by approving large national development projects without demanding comprehensive study of their impact on wildlife habitats.
What is the sixth most populous city of Iran?
573023baa23a5019007fce2d
Shiraz
0
False
What is Shiraz' population by the 2011 Census?
573023baa23a5019007fce2e
1.4 million
36
False
Shiraz is the capital of what Province?
573023baa23a5019007fce2f
Fars Province
117
False
What ancient civilization has majorly influenced the Fars Province?
573023baa23a5019007fce30
Babylonian civilization
210
False
Persians have been in the Fars Province since what century?
573023baa23a5019007fce31
9th century BC
363
False
Shiraz, with a population of around 1.4 million (2011 census), is the sixth major city of Iran. It is the capital of Fars Province, and was also a former capital of Iran. The area was greatly influenced by the Babylonian civilization, and after the emergence of the ancient Persians, soon came to be known as Persis. Persians were present in the region since the 9th century BC, and became rulers of a large empire under the reign of the Achaemenid Dynasty in the 6th century BC. The ruins of Persepolis and Pasargadae, two of the four capitals of the Achaemenid Empire, are located around the modern-day city of Shiraz.
The Iranina Islamic Republic is based on what document?
5730247fb2c2fd1400568945
the 1979 Constitution
57
False
What is the Leader of the Revolution also known as?
5730247fb2c2fd1400568946
Supreme Leader
173
False
Who is the Commander in Chief of the Iranian Army?
5730247fb2c2fd1400568947
The Supreme Leader
294
False
The Supreme Leader appoints how many members of the Guardian Council?
5730247fb2c2fd1400568948
six
578
False
Who is responsible for electing and dismissing the Supreme Leader?
5730247fb2c2fd1400568949
The Assembly of Experts
665
False
The political system of the Islamic Republic is based on the 1979 Constitution, and comprises several intricately connected governing bodies. The Leader of the Revolution ("Supreme Leader") is responsible for delineation and supervision of the general policies of the Islamic Republic of Iran. The Supreme Leader is Commander-in-Chief of the armed forces, controls the military intelligence and security operations, and has sole power to declare war or peace. The heads of the judiciary, state radio and television networks, the commanders of the police and military forces and six of the twelve members of the Guardian Council are appointed by the Supreme Leader. The Assembly of Experts elects and dismisses the Supreme Leader on the basis of qualifications and popular esteem.
In Iran, who has the final say in all matters directly related to the Supreme Leader?
57302525a23a5019007fce5b
the Supreme Leader
153
False
Who exercises exective powers in Iran?
57302525a23a5019007fce5c
The President
0
False
The Council of Ministers is appointed and supervised by who?
57302525a23a5019007fce5d
The President
211
False
How many Vice-Presidents serve under the President in Iran?
57302525a23a5019007fce5e
Eight
378
False
The legislature approves the 8 vice presidents and how many cabinet members?
57302525a23a5019007fce5f
twenty-two
451
False
The President is responsible for the implementation of the Constitution and for the exercise of executive powers, except for matters directly related to the Supreme Leader, who has the final say in all matters. The President appoints and supervises the Council of Ministers, coordinates government decisions, and selects government policies to be placed before the legislature. Eight Vice-Presidents serve under the President, as well as a cabinet of twenty-two ministers, who must all be approved by the legislature.
How many jurists are in the Guardian Council?
5730265d04bcaa1900d77237
twelve jurists
31
False
Who can veto Parliament?
5730265d04bcaa1900d77238
The Guardian Council
0
False
What Council acts as a mediator when there are disputes between the Parliament and the Guardian Council?
5730265d04bcaa1900d77239
The Expediency Council
397
False
How long are the terms of local city councils that are present in all Iranian cities and villages?
5730265d04bcaa1900d7723a
four-year terms
675
False
Who is responsible for interpreting the Constitution?
5730265d04bcaa1900d7723b
The Guardian Council
0
False
The Guardian Council comprises twelve jurists including six appointed by the Supreme Leader. The others are elected by the Iranian Parliament from among the jurists nominated by the Head of the Judiciary. The Council interprets the constitution and may veto Parliament. If a law is deemed incompatible with the constitution or Sharia (Islamic law), it is referred back to Parliament for revision. The Expediency Council has the authority to mediate disputes between Parliament and the Guardian Council, and serves as an advisory body to the Supreme Leader, making it one of the most powerful governing bodies in the country. Local city councils are elected by public vote to four-year terms in all cities and villages of Iran.
When crimes are committed by clerics, who handles the cases?
57302728947a6a140053d1a2
The Special Clerical Court
0
False
The Special Clerical Court is accountable to only which body?
57302728947a6a140053d1a3
the Supreme Leader
244
False
How often does the Assembly of Experts meet?
57302728947a6a140053d1a4
one week annually
359
False
The Assembly of Experts has how many clerics?
57302728947a6a140053d1a5
86
388
False
Which body can remove the Supreme Leader at any time by constitutional right?
57302728947a6a140053d1a6
The Assembly of Experts
318
False
The Special Clerical Court handles crimes allegedly committed by clerics, although it has also taken on cases involving lay people. The Special Clerical Court functions independently of the regular judicial framework and is accountable only to the Supreme Leader. The Court's rulings are final and cannot be appealed. The Assembly of Experts, which meets for one week annually, comprises 86 "virtuous and learned" clerics elected by adult suffrage for eight-year terms. As with the presidential and parliamentary elections, the Guardian Council determines candidates' eligibility. The Assembly elects the Supreme Leader and has the constitutional authority to remove the Supreme Leader from power at any time. It has not challenged any of the Supreme Leader's decisions.
Iran's nuclear program has caused discord within the international community since when?
57302839b2c2fd140056898b
Since 2005
0
False
Which country did Iran's leadership was quoted as being a possible target of its atomic weapons?
57302839b2c2fd140056898c
Israel
228
False
Who imposed sanctions against Iran as a result of Iran's nuclear program?
57302839b2c2fd140056898d
UN Security Council
384
False
When was it estimated by the US Director of National Intelligence that Iran would be able to develop a nuclear weapon?
57302839b2c2fd140056898e
2013
671
False
Since 2005, Iran's nuclear program has become the subject of contention with the international community following earlier quotes of Iranian leadership favoring the use of an atomic bomb against Iran's enemies and in particular Israel. Many countries have expressed concern that Iran's nuclear program could divert civilian nuclear technology into a weapons program. This has led the UN Security Council to impose sanctions against Iran which had further isolated Iran politically and economically from the rest of the global community. In 2009, the US Director of National Intelligence said that Iran, if choosing to, would not be able to develop a nuclear weapon until 2013.
What is Iran's volunteer militia force named?
5730295d947a6a140053d1dc
the Basij
73
False
How many full-time members does the Basij have?
5730295d947a6a140053d1dd
90,000
105
False
How many members in total does the Basij have?
5730295d947a6a140053d1de
Up to 11 million men and women
154
False
In 2007 what was Iran spending 2.6% of its GDP on?
5730295d947a6a140053d1df
military spending
414
False
In 2014, Iran spent how much on weapons spending?
5730295d947a6a140053d1e0
$15 billion
616
False
Iran has a paramilitary, volunteer militia force within the IRGC, called the Basij, which includes about 90,000 full-time, active-duty uniformed members. Up to 11 million men and women are members of the Basij who could potentially be called up for service; GlobalSecurity.org estimates Iran could mobilize "up to one million men". This would be among the largest troop mobilizations in the world. In 2007, Iran's military spending represented 2.6% of the GDP or $102 per capita, the lowest figure of the Persian Gulf nations. Iran's military doctrine is based on deterrence. In 2014 arms spending the country spent $15 billion and was outspent by the states of the Gulf Cooperation Council by a factor of 13.
What is Iran's most advanced missile?
57302a7ab2c2fd14005689af
The Fajr-3 (MIRV)
485
False
Since when has Iran developed its domestic military infrastructure?
57302a7ab2c2fd14005689b0
1979 Revolution
10
False
Why did Iran have to build its own military hardware, vehicles, and weapons after the 1979 Revolution?
57302a7ab2c2fd14005689b1
foreign embargoes
39
False
The Fajr-3 missile uses what type of propulsion system?
57302a7ab2c2fd14005689b2
liquid fuel
564
False
Since the 1979 Revolution, to overcome foreign embargoes, Iran has developed its own military industry, produced its own tanks, armored personnel carriers, guided missiles, submarines, military vessels, guided missile destroyer, radar systems, helicopters and fighter planes. In recent years, official announcements have highlighted the development of weapons such as the Hoot, Kowsar, Zelzal, Fateh-110, Shahab-3 and Sejjil missiles, and a variety of unmanned aerial vehicles (UAVs). The Fajr-3 (MIRV) is currently Iran's most advanced ballistic missile, it is a liquid fuel missile with an undisclosed range which was developed and produced domestically.
By 2007, Iran's crude oil exports resulted in how much of its foreign exchange currency?
57302be2947a6a140053d20c
$70 billion
156
False
What is a main cause of Iran's constant budget deficits?
57302be2947a6a140053d20d
large-scale state subsidies
301
False
In 2008, how much was Iran's state subsidy in its energy sector?
57302be2947a6a140053d20e
more than $84 billion
388
False
What year did Iran pass an economic reform plan that would replace subsidies with targeted social assistance programs?
57302be2947a6a140053d20f
2010
450
False
How much of Iran's budget came from oil and natural gas reserves in 2006?
57302be2947a6a140053d210
about 45%
9
False
In 2006, about 45% of the government's budget came from oil and natural gas revenues, and 31% came from taxes and fees. As of 2007[update], Iran had earned $70 billion in foreign exchange reserves mostly (80%) from crude oil exports. Iranian budget deficits have been a chronic problem, mostly due to large-scale state subsidies, that include foodstuffs and especially gasoline, totaling more than $84 billion in 2008 for the energy sector alone. In 2010, the economic reform plan was approved by parliament to cut subsidies gradually and replace them with targeted social assistance. The objective is to move towards free market prices in a 5-year period and increase productivity and social justice.
What is a main goal of Iran's market reform plans?
57302d3ab2c2fd14005689f7
diversify Iran's oil-reliant economy
110
False
What Iranian nationalized industry has been noncompetitive and managed badly?
57302d3ab2c2fd14005689f8
the bonyads
276
False
What, along with a lack of competition, has held back Iran's nationalized industries?
57302d3ab2c2fd14005689f9
lagging corruption in the public sector
525
False
The Global COmpetitiveness Report in 2010 ranked Iran where out of 139 countries?
57302d3ab2c2fd14005689fa
ranked 69
612
False
The administration continues to follow the market reform plans of the previous one and indicated that it will diversify Iran's oil-reliant economy. Iran has also developed a biotechnology, nanotechnology, and pharmaceuticals industry. However, nationalized industries such as the bonyads have often been managed badly, making them ineffective and uncompetitive with years. Currently, the government is trying to privatize these industries, and, despite successes, there are still several problems to be overcome, such as the lagging corruption in the public sector and lack of competitiveness. In 2010, Iran was ranked 69, out of 139 nations, in the Global Competitiveness Report.
How much was 1 US Dollar worth in Iranian Rials in early 2012?
5730301cb2c2fd1400568a23
16,000
239
False
How much was 1 US Dollar worth in Iranian Rials in April 2013?
5730301cb2c2fd1400568a24
36,000
212
False
What year did a nuclear and sanctions relief deal happen for Iran?
5730301cb2c2fd1400568a25
2015
306
False
What economic sanction against Iranian crude oil has adversely affected the Iranian economy?
5730301cb2c2fd1400568a26
embargo
45
False
What would possibly prevent the even spread of relief benefits from Iran's nuclear and sanctions deal of 2015?
5730301cb2c2fd1400568a27
the Islamic Revolutionary Guard Corps
456
False
Economic sanctions against Iran, such as the embargo against Iranian crude oil, have affected the economy. Sanctions have led to a steep fall in the value of the rial, and as of April 2013 one US dollar is worth 36,000 rial, compared with 16,000 in early 2012. Following a successful implementation of the 2015 nuclear and sanctions relief deal, the resulting benefits might not be distributed evenly across the Iranian economy as political elites such as the Islamic Revolutionary Guard Corps have garnered more resources and economic interests.
What does Teheran, Isfahan, Mashhad, and Shiraz have in common?
57303166947a6a140053d25e
the most popular tourist destinations
23
False
How many tourist visas were granted in 2003?
57303166947a6a140053d25f
300,000
251
False
Which group made up the majority of granted tourist visas in 2003?
57303166947a6a140053d260
Asian Muslims
306
False
In 2003, what was Iran's worldwide rank in tourism revenues?
57303166947a6a140053d261
ranked 68th
556
False
What was Iran's rank in the top 10 Middle East destinations according to UNESCO?
57303166947a6a140053d262
rated 4th
708
False
Alongside the capital, the most popular tourist destinations are Isfahan, Mashhad and Shiraz. In the early 2000s, the industry faced serious limitations in infrastructure, communications, industry standards and personnel training. The majority of the 300,000 tourist visas granted in 2003 were obtained by Asian Muslims, who presumably intended to visit important pilgrimage sites in Mashhad and Qom. Several organized tours from Germany, France and other European countries come to Iran annually to visit archaeological sites and monuments. In 2003, Iran ranked 68th in tourism revenues worldwide. According to UNESCO and the deputy head of research for Iran Travel and Tourism Organization (ITTO), Iran is rated 4th among the top 10 destinations in the Middle East. Domestic tourism in Iran is one of the largest in the world. Weak advertising, unstable regional conditions, a poor public image in some parts of the world, and absence of efficient planning schemes in the tourism sector have all hindered the growth of tourism.
How much natural gas reserves does Iran have?
5730322404bcaa1900d77345
33.6 trillion cubic metres
80
False
What is Iran ranked in the world in proved gas reserves?
5730322404bcaa1900d77346
second largest
13
False
How much oil reserves does Iran have?
5730322404bcaa1900d77347
153,600,000,000 barrels
246
False
Where does Iran rank in OPEC's top oil exporting nations?
5730322404bcaa1900d77348
2nd largest
284
False
How much did Iran spend in oil imports in 2005?
5730322404bcaa1900d77349
US$4 billion
358
False
Iran has the second largest proved gas reserves in the world after Russia, with 33.6 trillion cubic metres, and third largest natural gas production in the world after Indonesia, and Russia. It also ranks fourth in oil reserves with an estimated 153,600,000,000 barrels. It is OPEC's 2nd largest oil exporter and is an energy superpower. In 2005, Iran spent US$4 billion on fuel imports, because of contraband and inefficient domestic use. Oil industry output averaged 4 million barrels per day (640,000 m3/d) in 2005, compared with the peak of six million barrels per day reached in 1974. In the early years of the 2000s (decade), industry infrastructure was increasingly inefficient because of technological lags. Few exploratory wells were drilled in 2005.
When did Iran open its first wind-powered plants?
573032da947a6a140053d278
2004
326
False
When did Iran open its first geothermal plants?
573032da947a6a140053d279
2004
326
False
How much did Iran's installed capacity of power increase to after it added new hydroelectric power in 2004?
573032da947a6a140053d27a
33,000 megawatts
210
False
How much of Iran's 33k megawatt installed capacity was based on natural gas?
573032da947a6a140053d27b
75%
250
False
How much of Iran's 33k megawatt installed capacity was based on oil?
573032da947a6a140053d27c
18%
280
False
In 2004, a large share of natural gas reserves in Iran were untapped. The addition of new hydroelectric stations and the streamlining of conventional coal and oil-fired stations increased installed capacity to 33,000 megawatts. Of that amount, about 75% was based on natural gas, 18% on oil, and 7% on hydroelectric power. In 2004, Iran opened its first wind-powered and geothermal plants, and the first solar thermal plant is to come online in 2009. Iran is the third country in the world to have developed GTL technology.
Which Iranian scientist co-invented the first gas laser?
573033c3a23a5019007fcf71
Ali Javan
93
False
When did Ali Javan, an Iranian scientist, co-invent the first gas laser?
573033c3a23a5019007fcf72
1960
87
False
Which Iranian cardiologist developed and invented the first artificial cardiac pump?
573033c3a23a5019007fcf73
Tofy Mussivand
210
False
Which Iranian scientist discovered HbA1c to further treatment and research of diabetes?
573033c3a23a5019007fcf74
Samuel Rahbar
393
False
In 2014, Maryam Mirzakhani became the first women ever and first Iranian to win what prestigious mathematics award?
573033c3a23a5019007fcf75
the Fields Medal
721
False
Iranian scientists outside Iran have also made some major contributions to science. In 1960, Ali Javan co-invented the first gas laser, and fuzzy set theory was introduced by Lotfi Zadeh. Iranian cardiologist, Tofy Mussivand invented and developed the first artificial cardiac pump, the precursor of the artificial heart. Furthering research and treatment of diabetes, HbA1c was discovered by Samuel Rahbar. Iranian physics is especially strong in string theory, with many papers being published in Iran. Iranian-American string theorist Kamran Vafa proposed the Vafa-Witten theorem together with Edward Witten. In August 2014, Maryam Mirzakhani became the first-ever woman, as well as the first-ever Iranian, to receive the Fields Medal, the highest prize in mathematics.
What is Iran's presumed largest ethnic group?
5730346ca23a5019007fcf83
Persians
158
False
What is Iran's presumed 2nd largest ethnic group?
5730346ca23a5019007fcf84
Azerbaijanis
171
False
Persians make up what percentage of Iran's population?
5730346ca23a5019007fcf85
53%
455
False
Ethnic minorities such as Azerbaijanis make up what percentage of Iran's population?
5730346ca23a5019007fcf86
22%
605
False
What percentage of Iran speaks any type of Iranian language?
5730346ca23a5019007fcf87
79%
298
False
As with the spoken languages, the ethnic group composition also remains a point of debate, mainly regarding the largest and second largest ethnic groups, the Persians and Azerbaijanis, due to the lack of Iranian state censuses based on ethnicity. The CIA's World Factbook has estimated that around 79% of the population of Iran are a diverse Indo-European ethno-linguistic group that comprise the speakers of Iranian languages, with Persians constituting 53% of the population, Gilaks and Mazanderanis 7%, Kurds 10%, Lurs 6%, and Balochs 2%. Peoples of the other ethnicities in Iran make up the remaining 22%, with Azerbaijanis constituting 16%, Arabs 2%, Turkmens and Turkic tribes 2%, and others 2% (such as Armenians, Talysh, Georgians, Circassians, Assyrians).
What other branch of Islam is recognized by the Iranian government?
57303660947a6a140053d2a8
Sunni branch
47
False
Are the religious minorities in Iran - Christianity, Judaism, Zoroastrianism, and Sunnis - a part of the Iranian Parliament?
57303660947a6a140053d2a9
have reserved seats
118
False
What religious minority is not officially recognized by the Iranian government?
57303660947a6a140053d2aa
the Bahá'í Faith
169
False
How long has the Bahai Faith been persecuted in Iran?
57303660947a6a140053d2ab
since the 19th century
341
False
Which religious minority since the 1979 Revolution has been persecuted and in some cases executed by the Iranian government?
57303660947a6a140053d2ac
the Bahá'í Faith
169
False
Christianity, Judaism, Zoroastrianism, and the Sunni branch of Islam are officially recognized by the government, and have reserved seats in the Iranian Parliament. But the Bahá'í Faith, which is said to be the largest non-Muslim religious minority in Iran, is not officially recognized, and has been persecuted during its existence in Iran since the 19th century. Since the 1979 Revolution, the persecution of Bahais has increased with executions, the denial of civil rights and liberties, and the denial of access to higher education and employment.
What were the first known examples of Iranian visual art?
5730375fa23a5019007fcfa1
the bas-reliefs of Persepolis
86
False
How far back can the first known examples of Iranian visual art be traced to?
5730375fa23a5019007fcfa2
c. 500 BC
117
False
What city was the ritual center of the Archaemenids?
5730375fa23a5019007fcfa3
Persepolis
128
False
In what era did Iranian visual art reach its peak?
5730375fa23a5019007fcfa4
the Sassanid Era
344
False
The earliest examples of visual representations in Iranian history are traced back to the bas-reliefs of Persepolis, c. 500 BC. Persepolis was the ritual center of the ancient kingdom of Achaemenids, and the figures at Persepolis remain bound by the rules of grammar and syntax of visual language. The Iranian visual arts reached a pinnacle by the Sassanid Era. A bas-relief from this period in Taq Bostan depicts a complex hunting scene. Similar works from the period have been found to articulate movements and actions in a highly sophisticated manner. It is even possible to see a progenitor of the cinema close-up in one of these works of art, which shows a wounded wild pig escaping from the hunting ground.
What decade was significant to Iranian film?
57303815947a6a140053d2c6
1960s
4
False
What Iranian film festival in 1954 was the progenitor of future film festivals in 1969 and 1973?
57303815947a6a140053d2c7
the Golrizan Festival
510
False
How many commercial films were produced yearly on average in the early 1960s in Iran?
57303815947a6a140053d2c8
25 commercial films
60
False
How many commercial films were produced yearly on average by the end of the 1960s in Iran?
57303815947a6a140053d2c9
65
149
False
What Iranian film festival was created in 1973?
57303815947a6a140053d2ca
Tehran World Festival
640
False
The 1960s was a significant decade for Iranian cinema, with 25 commercial films produced annually on average throughout the early 60s, increasing to 65 by the end of the decade. The majority of production focused on melodrama and thrillers. With the screening of the films Kaiser and The Cow, directed by Masoud Kimiai and Dariush Mehrjui respectively in 1969, alternative films established their status in the film industry. Attempts to organize a film festival that had begun in 1954 within the framework of the Golrizan Festival, bore fruits in the form of the Sepas Festival in 1969. The endeavors also resulted in the formation of the Tehran World Festival in 1973.
Which director led off a new age of Iranian film after the 1979 Revolution?
573038f604bcaa1900d773b1
Khosrow Sinai
146
False
What was the name of Sinai's film that ushered in Iran's new era of film after the 1979 Revolution?
573038f604bcaa1900d773b2
Viva...
135
False
Which Iranian director won the Palm d'Or at Cannes in 1997?
573038f604bcaa1900d773b3
Abbas Kiarostami
206
False
What was the name of Kiarostami's film which won the Palm d'Or at Cannes in 1997?
573038f604bcaa1900d773b4
Taste of Cherry
360
False
What year did 6 different Iranian films of six different styles represent at the Berlin International Film Festival?
573038f604bcaa1900d773b5
2006
624
False
After the Revolution of 1979, as the new government imposed new laws and standards, a new age in Iranian cinema emerged, starting with Viva... by Khosrow Sinai and followed by many other directors, such as Abbas Kiarostami and Jafar Panahi. Kiarostami, an admired Iranian director, planted Iran firmly on the map of world cinema when he won the Palme d'Or for Taste of Cherry in 1997. The continuous presence of Iranian films in prestigious international festivals, such as the Cannes Film Festival, the Venice Film Festival, and the Berlin International Film Festival, attracted world attention to Iranian masterpieces. In 2006, six Iranian films, of six different styles, represented Iranian cinema at the Berlin International Film Festival. Critics considered this a remarkable event in the history of Iranian cinema.
When did the Internet arrive in Iran?
573039a3b2c2fd1400568a97
1993
40
False
What percentage of Iran's population were internet users in 2014?
573039a3b2c2fd1400568a98
around 40%
72
False
What is Iran's most popular online social network?
573039a3b2c2fd1400568a99
Instagram
426
False
What percentage of cloud-based instant messaging platform Telegram's users are from Iran?
573039a3b2c2fd1400568a9a
Over 80%
335
False
What site is responsible for around 90% of Iran's online e-commerce?
573039a3b2c2fd1400568a9b
Digikala
978
False
Iran received access to the Internet in 1993. According to 2014 census, around 40% of the population of Iran are Internet users. Iran ranks 24th among countries by number of Internet users. According to the statistics provided by the web information company of Alexa, Google Search and Yahoo! are the most used search engines in Iran. Over 80% of the users of Telegram, a cloud-based instant messaging service, are from Iran. Instagram is the most popular online social networking service in Iran. Direct access to Facebook has been blocked in Iran since the 2009 Iranian presidential election protests, due to organization of the opposition movements on the website; but however, Facebook has around 12 to 17 million users in Iran who are using virtual private networks and proxy servers to access the website. Around 90% of Iran's e-commerce takes place on the Iranian online store of Digikala, which has around 750,000 visitors per day and more than 2.3 million subscribers. Digikala is the most visited online store in the Middle East, and ranks 4th among the most visited websites in Iran.
In Iranian cuisine, what is habitually used with fruits?
57303a86b2c2fd1400568aa1
Herbs
100
False
Iranians usually eat what diet staple with lunch and dinner?
57303a86b2c2fd1400568aa2
plain yogurt
233
False
What delicacy is Iran famous for?
57303a86b2c2fd1400568aa3
caviar
654
False
Why is Iranian cuisine so diverse besides being influenced by other cultures?
57303a86b2c2fd1400568aa4
its variety of ethnic groups
34
False
Iranian cuisine is diverse due to its variety of ethnic groups and the influence of other cultures. Herbs are frequently used along with fruits such as plums, pomegranates, quince, prunes, apricots, and raisins. Iranians usually eat plain yogurt with lunch and dinner; it is a staple of the diet in Iran. To achieve a balanced taste, characteristic flavourings such as saffron, dried limes, cinnamon, and parsley are mixed delicately and used in some special dishes. Onions and garlic are normally used in the preparation of the accompanying course, but are also served separately during meals, either in raw or pickled form. Iran is also famous for its caviar.
Iran has the highest population of what group in the world?
57303aa604bcaa1900d773e1
Azerbaijanis
511
False
What is the percentage range of Iran's total population is seemingly comprised of Azerbaijanis?
57303aa604bcaa1900d773e2
between 21.6–30%
391
False
What is the majority of organizational estimations of Azerbaijanis' percentage of Iran's population?
57303aa604bcaa1900d773e3
25%
465
False
Other non-governmental estimations regarding the groups other than the Persians and Azerbaijanis roughly congruate with the World Factbook and the Library of Congress. However, many scholarly and organisational estimations regarding the number of these two groups differ significantly from the mentioned census. According to many of them, the number of ethnic Azerbaijanis in Iran comprises between 21.6–30% of the total population, with the majority holding it on 25%.cd In any case, the largest population of Azerbaijanis in the world live in Iran.
What melon is Iran a Top 5 producer in the world in 2012?
57303b5e04bcaa1900d773e7
watermelons
492
False
How many agricultural products in 2012 was Iran a top 5 producer in the world? Answer: 12
57303b5e04bcaa1900d773e8
apricots, cherries, sour cherries, cucumbers and gherkins, dates, eggplants, figs, pistachios, quinces, walnuts, and watermelons.
375
False
What type of materials is Iran a leading manufacturer of in the Middle East?
57303b5e04bcaa1900d773e9
construction materials
95
False
What type of appliances is Iran a leading manufacturer of in the Middle East?
57303b5e04bcaa1900d773ea
home appliances
119
False
What type of chemicals is Iran a leading manufacturer of in the Middle East?
57303b5e04bcaa1900d773eb
petrochemicals
227
False
Iran has leading manufacturing industries in the fields of car-manufacture and transportation, construction materials, home appliances, food and agricultural goods, armaments, pharmaceuticals, information technology, power and petrochemicals in the Middle East. According to FAO, Iran has been a top five producer of the following agricultural products in the world in 2012: apricots, cherries, sour cherries, cucumbers and gherkins, dates, eggplants, figs, pistachios, quinces, walnuts, and watermelons.
The Achaemind Empire along with what other group became the foundation for the art in later Iranian history?
57303cafb2c2fd1400568aa9
The Median
139
False
A blend of Iranian and what other type of artwork were the Parthians' art comprised of?
57303cafb2c2fd1400568aaa
Hellenistic
328
False
What Iranian art played a major role in the formation of medieval art from Europe and Asia?
57303cafb2c2fd1400568aab
Sassanid art
437
False
The Sassanid became a cornerstone of what type of learning?
57303cafb2c2fd1400568aac
Islamic learning
615
False
Iranian art encompasses many disciplines, including architecture, painting, weaving, pottery, calligraphy, metalworking, and stonemasonry. The Median and Achaemenid empires left a significant classical art scene which remained as basic influences for the art of the later eras. Art of the Parthians was a mixture of Iranian and Hellenistic artworks, with their main motifs being scenes of royal hunting expeditions and investitures. The Sassanid art played a prominent role in the formation of both European and Asian medieval art, which carried forward to the Islamic world, and much of what later became known as Islamic learning, such as philology, literature, jurisprudence, philosophy, medicine, architecture, and science, were of Sassanid basis.
British_Isles
What is two islands that are part of the British Isles?
57300a5fa23a5019007fcca1
Great Britain, Ireland
122
False
Where are the British Isles located?
57300a5fa23a5019007fcca2
North Atlantic,
198
False
How many people live in the British Isles?
57300a5fa23a5019007fcca3
just under 70 million
303
False
What is one of the three Crown Dependencies of the British Isles?
57300a5fa23a5019007fcca4
Isle of Man
574
False
Where are the Bailiwick of Jersey and the Bailiwick of Guernsey located?
57300a5fa23a5019007fcca5
in the Channel Islands
659
False
Great Britain, Ireland
122
What are the only teo islands belonging to the British Isles
5acd190e07355d001abf34a4
True
Great Britain, Ireland
122
What countries border the ATlantic Ocean?
5acd190e07355d001abf34a5
True
Ireland
137
Which Island has just under 70 million people?
5acd190e07355d001abf34a6
True
British Isles
4
What group of Islands has just over 70 million people?
5acd190e07355d001abf34a7
True
The British Isles
0
What archipelago are the Bailicick of Jersey and the Bailiwick of Guernsey part of?
5acd190e07355d001abf34a8
True
Europe
84
The British Isles are a group of islands located off the southwestern coast of which continent?
5acd66ae07355d001abf40c2
True
Ireland
137
The British Isles consist of over 9,000 small islands, Great Britain and which other country?
5acd66ae07355d001abf40c3
True
315,159 km2
261
With a total population of just over 75 million, what is the total area of the islands?
5acd66ae07355d001abf40c4
True
Europe
84
The Channel Islands are a group of islands located off the northwestern coast of which continent?
5acd66ae07355d001abf40c5
True
just under 70 million.
303
The Bailiwick of Jersey has a total area of 31,5,159 km squared and a total population of how many?
5acd66ae07355d001abf40c6
True
The British Isles are a group of islands off the north-western coast of continental Europe that consist of the islands of Great Britain, Ireland and over six thousand smaller isles. Situated in the North Atlantic, the islands have a total area of approximately 315,159 km2, and a combined population of just under 70 million. Two sovereign states are located on the islands: Ireland (which covers roughly five-sixths of the island with the same name) and the United Kingdom of Great Britain and Northern Ireland. The British Isles also include three Crown Dependencies: the Isle of Man and, by tradition, the Bailiwick of Jersey and the Bailiwick of Guernsey in the Channel Islands, although the latter are not physically a part of the archipelago.
What is the age of the oldest rocks in the north western part of Scotland?
57300bb5947a6a140053cfdc
2,700 million years old
97
False
What is the elevation of Ben Nevis?
57300bb5947a6a140053cfdd
1,344 metres (4,409 ft
371
False
What type of climate does this area have?
57300bb5947a6a140053cfde
temperate marine
525
False
Around 12,000 BC, Great Britain was still a peninsula on what continent?
57300bb5947a6a140053cfdf
European continent.
1009
False
When is it believed that Ireland became inhabited?
57300bb5947a6a140053cfe0
after 8000 BC
1099
False
2,700 million years
97
what is the age of the oldest rocks in Europe?
5acd1a1a07355d001abf34fc
True
1,344 metres
371
How far below sea level is Ben Nevis?
5acd1a1a07355d001abf34fd
True
Lough Neagh
400
What is the largest lake in Europe?
5acd1a1a07355d001abf34fe
True
European continent
1009
What continent is Great Britian a peninsula of?
5acd1a1a07355d001abf34ff
True
Ireland
1029
What Island was inhabited in 12,000 B.C.
5acd1a1a07355d001abf3500
True
north west of Scotland, Ireland and North Wales
41
The oldest rocks are 1,500 years old and located where?
5acd68e807355d001abf40fe
True
2,700 million years
97
Located in the North Atlantic, how old are the oldest rocks?
5acd68e807355d001abf40ff
True
an island
1135
By 4600 BC, Great Britain was established as what?
5acd68e807355d001abf4100
True
390
475
Lough Neagh reaches an elevation of 390 metres and Ben Nevis covers how many square miles?
5acd68e807355d001abf4101
True
after 8000 BC
1099
Ireland became an old reock in 12,000 BC but wasn't inhabited until when?
5acd68e807355d001abf4102
True
The oldest rocks in the group are in the north west of Scotland, Ireland and North Wales and are 2,700 million years old. During the Silurian period the north-western regions collided with the south-east, which had been part of a separate continental landmass. The topography of the islands is modest in scale by global standards. Ben Nevis rises to an elevation of only 1,344 metres (4,409 ft), and Lough Neagh, which is notably larger than other lakes on the isles, covers 390 square kilometres (151 sq mi). The climate is temperate marine, with mild winters and warm summers. The North Atlantic Drift brings significant moisture and raises temperatures 11 °C (20 °F) above the global average for the latitude. This led to a landscape which was long dominated by temperate rainforest, although human activity has since cleared the vast majority of forest cover. The region was re-inhabited after the last glacial period of Quaternary glaciation, by 12,000 BC when Great Britain was still a peninsula of the European continent. Ireland, which became an island by 12,000 BC, was not inhabited until after 8000 BC. Great Britain became an island by 5600 BC.
Which is one of the tribes that spoke Insular Celtic?
57300da0947a6a140053cffa
Pictish (northern Britain)
19
False
When did the Pictish tribe start to inhabit the islands?
57300da0947a6a140053cffb
beginning of the 1st millennium AD
143
False
Who foreign group conquered Britain around AD 43?
57300da0947a6a140053cffc
Roman Empire
237
False
When did the Vikings invade Britain?
57300da0947a6a140053cffd
9th century
421
False
What are the six counties in Ireland called that are still part of the United Kingdom?
57300da0947a6a140053cffe
Northern Ireland
1698
False
Pictish
19
Wich was the first tribe to speak Insular Celtic?
5acd1c9c07355d001abf357e
True
AD 43
255
Whaen did Britian conquer the Roman Empire?
5acd1c9c07355d001abf357f
True
Anglo-Saxons
272
What group arrived with the Romans?
5acd1c9c07355d001abf3580
True
Britain
37
Where did the Romans invade in the 9th century?
5acd1c9c07355d001abf3581
True
six counties
1662
How many counties fought with the UK during the Irish War of Independence?
5acd1c9c07355d001abf3582
True
Insular Celtic
98
The Hiberni tribes of northern Britain speak which language?
5acd6a7807355d001abf4126
True
beginning of the 1st millennium AD
143
The Pictish tribe of Southern Ireland inhabited the islands when?
5acd6a7807355d001abf4127
True
AD 43
255
The Anglo-Saxon empire was conquered by the Roman Empire from when?
5acd6a7807355d001abf4128
True
England.
382
The Anglo Saxons arrived in the 3rd century and would end up dominated what is modernly known as what country?
5acd6a7807355d001abf4129
True
1919–1922
1645
The Anglo-Viking treaty is associated with which time frame?
5acd6a7807355d001abf412a
True
Hiberni (Ireland), Pictish (northern Britain) and Britons (southern Britain) tribes, all speaking Insular Celtic, inhabited the islands at the beginning of the 1st millennium AD. Much of Brittonic-controlled Britain was conquered by the Roman Empire from AD 43. The first Anglo-Saxons arrived as Roman power waned in the 5th century and eventually dominated the bulk of what is now England. Viking invasions began in the 9th century, followed by more permanent settlements and political change—particularly in England. The subsequent Norman conquest of England in 1066 and the later Angevin partial conquest of Ireland from 1169 led to the imposition of a new Norman ruling elite across much of Britain and parts of Ireland. By the Late Middle Ages, Great Britain was separated into the Kingdoms of England and Scotland, while control in Ireland fluxed between Gaelic kingdoms, Hiberno-Norman lords and the English-dominated Lordship of Ireland, soon restricted only to The Pale. The 1603 Union of the Crowns, Acts of Union 1707 and Acts of Union 1800 attempted to consolidate Britain and Ireland into a single political unit, the United Kingdom of Great Britain and Ireland, with the Isle of Man and the Channel Islands remaining as Crown Dependencies. The expansion of the British Empire and migrations following the Irish Famine and Highland Clearances resulted in the distribution of the islands' population and culture throughout the world and a rapid de-population of Ireland in the second half of the 19th century. Most of Ireland seceded from the United Kingdom after the Irish War of Independence and the subsequent Anglo-Irish Treaty (1919–1922), with six counties remaining in the UK as Northern Ireland.
Why is the name the British Isles disputed in Ireland?
57300f7fb2c2fd14005687c5
association of the word British
103
False
Does the Government of Ireland use the British Isle term?
57300f7fb2c2fd14005687c6
does not recognise or use the term
175
False
What is the alternative name that Government of Ireland uses instead of British Isles?
57300f7fb2c2fd14005687c7
Atlantic Archipelago
333
False
Does the Government of Ireland's London embassy use the name British Isles?
57300f7fb2c2fd14005687c8
its embassy in London discourages its use
214
False
due to the association of the word British with Ireland
92
Why does Britian dispute the name British Isles?
5acd2ad307355d001abf3796
True
British Isles
9
What term does the British government not recognize?
5acd2ad307355d001abf3797
True
Britain and Ireland
270
What name does the government of Britian use instead of the British Isles?
5acd2ad307355d001abf3798
True
British Isles
9
What does Britian prefer to refer to as the Atlantic Archipelago?
5acd2ad307355d001abf3799
True
Ireland
43
The term Atlantic Archipelago is considered controversial in which country?
5acd6b4907355d001abf4156
True
British Isles
9
Which term does the Atlantic government not recognize?
5acd6b4907355d001abf4157
True
British Isles
9
The embassy in Paris discourages the use of what term?lon
5acd6b4907355d001abf4158
True
Britain and Ireland
270
Which country names are used as an alternative to the phrase Atlantic Archipelago?
5acd6b4907355d001abf4159
True
The term British Isles is controversial in Ireland, where there are objections to its usage due to the association of the word British with Ireland. The Government of Ireland does not recognise or use the term and its embassy in London discourages its use. As a result, Britain and Ireland is used as an alternative description, and Atlantic Archipelago has had limited use among a minority in academia, although British Isles is still commonly employed. Within them, they are also sometimes referred to as these islands.
Where did the first known occurrence of the British Isle name appear in written material?
5730115b04bcaa1900d770e5
writings of sea-farers
72
False
What is one of the earliest surviving records that mention the name British Isles?
5730115b04bcaa1900d770e6
Massaliote Periplus (6th century BC)
250
False
What language do most historians agree upon where the Greek names for the British Isles came from?
5730115b04bcaa1900d770e7
native Celtic-language
756
False
What did the ancient Greeks call the people that lived in the British Isles?
5730115b04bcaa1900d770e8
Πρεττανοί (Priteni or Pretani)
872
False
When did the "P" sound of Pretannia change to the "B" sound of Britannia?
5730115b04bcaa1900d770e9
during the time of Julius Caesar
987
False
the British Island
416
What group of islands was first discovered my the Greek colony of Massalia.
5acd31c707355d001abf38c0
True
Celtic-language
763
What languages bored from the Greeks when they named the islands?
5acd31c707355d001abf38c1
True
Julius Caesar
1006
What Roman named the Islands?
5acd31c707355d001abf38c2
True
Romans
971
Who changed Britannia to Pretannia?
5acd31c707355d001abf38c3
True
in the writings of sea-farers from the ancient Greek colony of Massalia.
65
The oldest known references to the agreements as a whole appeared where?
5acd852307355d001abf454e
True
Celtic
763
Most historians today agree that these British names most likely originated from what native languages names?
5acd852307355d001abf454f
True
Pretannia
930
During the time of Julius Caesar, the shift from the B of Britannia to the P of what occurred?
5acd852307355d001abf4550
True
the Massaliote Periplus (6th century BC) and from Pytheas's On the Ocean
246
Although the original records have since been found, later writings that quoted from what are lost?
5acd852307355d001abf4551
True
The earliest known references to the islands as a group appeared in the writings of sea-farers from the ancient Greek colony of Massalia. The original records have been lost; however, later writings, e.g. Avienus's Ora maritima, that quoted from the Massaliote Periplus (6th century BC) and from Pytheas's On the Ocean (circa 325–320 BC) have survived. In the 1st century BC, Diodorus Siculus has Prettanikē nēsos, "the British Island", and Prettanoi, "the Britons". Strabo used Βρεττανική (Brettanike), and Marcian of Heraclea, in his Periplus maris exteri, used αἱ Πρεττανικαί νῆσοι (the Prettanic Isles) to refer to the islands. Historians today, though not in absolute agreement, largely agree that these Greek and Latin names were probably drawn from native Celtic-language names for the archipelago. Along these lines, the inhabitants of the islands were called the Πρεττανοί (Priteni or Pretani). The shift from the "P" of Pretannia to the "B" of Britannia by the Romans occurred during the time of Julius Caesar.
What did name did Claudius Ptolemy (Greco-Egyptian scientist) use for Ireland?
5730130904bcaa1900d77117
little Britain (μικρής Βρεττανίας - mikris Brettanias)
153
False
In later writings, what did Claudius Ptolemy called the British Isles?
5730130904bcaa1900d77118
Alwion, Iwernia, and Mona
317
False
After the Romans conqured the British Isles what became the more common name for the country?
5730130904bcaa1900d77119
Great Britain
652
False
Claudius Ptolemy
29
Who refered to the islands as little Britian?
5acd335907355d001abf3928
True
Almagest
220
What did Claudis Ptolemy write in the 1st century AD
5acd335907355d001abf3929
True
Claudius Ptolemy
29
Who wrote Geography in the 1st century AD?
5acd335907355d001abf392a
True
Roman
544
Who's conquest lead to the more common use of the name Albion?
5acd335907355d001abf392b
True
Alwion, Iwernia, and Mona
317
What islands were descovered in 150 AD?
5acd335907355d001abf392c
True
great Britain
79
What did the German scientist call the larger island?
5acd86d507355d001abf45b4
True
little Britain
153
What did the German scientist refer to Ireland as?
5acd86d507355d001abf45b5
True
Alwion, Iwernia, and Mona
317
What names did the British scientist give the islands in his later work?
5acd86d507355d001abf45b6
True
147–148 AD
230
During what years did the British scientist Claudius Ptolemy complete his work, Almagest?
5acd86d507355d001abf45b7
True
c. 150 AD
273
In what year did the British scientist Claudius Ptolemy complete his work, Geography?
5acd86d507355d001abf45b8
True
The Greco-Egyptian scientist Claudius Ptolemy referred to the larger island as great Britain (μεγάλης Βρεττανίας - megális Brettanias) and to Ireland as little Britain (μικρής Βρεττανίας - mikris Brettanias) in his work Almagest (147–148 AD). In his later work, Geography (c. 150 AD), he gave these islands the names Alwion, Iwernia, and Mona (the Isle of Man), suggesting these may have been names of the individual islands not known to him at the time of writing Almagest. The name Albion appears to have fallen out of use sometime after the Roman conquest of Great Britain, after which Britain became the more commonplace name for the island called Great Britain.
What is the earliest English usage of the term Brytish Illes?
5730144a04bcaa1900d7713b
a work by John Dee
91
False
When was this Brytish Illes name used in the English language by John Dee?
5730144a04bcaa1900d7713c
1577
83
False
What is another name that is used for the British Isles?
5730144a04bcaa1900d7713d
Anglo-Celtic Isles
267
False
What is the common term that the Government of Ireland uses when documents are written jointly with the British?
5730144a04bcaa1900d7713e
"these islands
646
False
Brytish Iles
37
What phrase can be dated back to the 15th century?
5acd37bf07355d001abf3978
True
John Dee
101
Who used the phrase Brytish Iles in the 15th century?
5acd37bf07355d001abf3979
True
British Isles
514
What term is not used by the UK?
5acd37bf07355d001abf397a
True
British and Irish governments
574
What two countries use the term British Isles when drawing up documents together?
5acd37bf07355d001abf397b
True
1577
83
John Doe cites the earliest known use of Brytish Iles as occurring in what year?
5acd87c007355d001abf45e6
True
Anglo-Celtic Isles, Atlantic archipelago, British-Irish Isles, Britain and Ireland, UK and Ireland, and British Isles and Ireland.
267
What are some other names used to describe the phrases?
5acd87c007355d001abf45e7
True
British Isles
676
The most widely accepted term for Ireland is what?
5acd87c007355d001abf45e8
True
Brytish Iles
37
What name is seen by some as having Atlantic overtones?
5acd87c007355d001abf45e9
True
British Isles
514
What term does the British government not use?
5acd87c007355d001abf45ea
True
The earliest known use of the phrase Brytish Iles in the English language is dated 1577 in a work by John Dee. Today, this name is seen by some as carrying imperialist overtones although it is still commonly used. Other names used to describe the islands include the Anglo-Celtic Isles, Atlantic archipelago, British-Irish Isles, Britain and Ireland, UK and Ireland, and British Isles and Ireland. Owing to political and national associations with the word British, the Government of Ireland does not use the term British Isles and in documents drawn up jointly between the British and Irish governments, the archipelago is referred to simply as "these islands". Nonetheless, British Isles is still the most widely accepted term for the archipelago.
When did the Caledonian Orogeny occur?
573017b304bcaa1900d77173
c. 488–444 Ma and early Silurian period
283
False
What happened during the c. 488–444 Ma and early Silurian period?
573017b304bcaa1900d77174
craton Baltica collided with the terrane Avalonia
333
False
What formed after the craton Baltica and the terrane Avalonia collision?
573017b304bcaa1900d77175
mountains and hills
395
False
What formed the hills of Munster and the southern part of Wales?
573017b304bcaa1900d77176
Variscan orogeny
548
False
In which direction have the British Isles been drifting?
573017b304bcaa1900d77177
northwest
753
False
Caledonian Orogeny
234
What orogeny occurred in the 4th century?
5acd5cce07355d001abf3ee2
True
craton Baltica
333
What collided in the 4th century?
5acd5cce07355d001abf3ee3
True
mountains and hills
395
What formed before the craton Baltica and Avalonia collision?
5acd5cce07355d001abf3ee4
True
the land that forms the islands
709
What has been drifting north east for the last 500 million years?
5acd5cce07355d001abf3ee5
True
Baltica
340
The hills in northern England and Ireland were formed when what collided with Avalonia?
5acd88d507355d001abf4618
True
Baltica
448
What formed the southwestern half of Ireland and Scotland?
5acd88d507355d001abf4619
True
Scotland
508
Avalonia formed the northwestern half of Ireland and what other country?
5acd88d507355d001abf461a
True
c. 488–444
283
During what time span was the Orogenic Period?
5acd88d507355d001abf461b
True
Avalonia
374
What did Baltica collide with to form the equator?
5acd88d507355d001abf461c
True
The British Isles lie at the juncture of several regions with past episodes of tectonic mountain building. These orogenic belts form a complex geology that records a huge and varied span of Earth's history. Of particular note was the Caledonian Orogeny during the Ordovician Period, c. 488–444 Ma and early Silurian period, when the craton Baltica collided with the terrane Avalonia to form the mountains and hills in northern Britain and Ireland. Baltica formed roughly the northwestern half of Ireland and Scotland. Further collisions caused the Variscan orogeny in the Devonian and Carboniferous periods, forming the hills of Munster, southwest England, and southern Wales. Over the last 500 million years the land that forms the islands has drifted northwest from around 30°S, crossing the equator around 370 million years ago to reach its present northern latitude.
What was the most recent glaciation that has shaped the British Isles?
5730192604bcaa1900d77187
Devensian
109
False
What happened with the Devensian glaciation ended?
5730192604bcaa1900d77188
the English Channel flooded
194
False
When did sea levels reach their current highth?
5730192604bcaa1900d77189
4,000 to 5,000 years ago
269
False
What covered the sea between Ireland and Great Britian during the last glacier?
5730192604bcaa1900d7718a
a single ice sheet
479
False
4,000 to 5,000 years ago,
269
When did sea levels rise to prehistoric levels?
5acd89d907355d001abf4658
True
Ireland
409
It is undisputed that there was a land bridge between Great Britain and what country?
5acd89d907355d001abf4659
True
ice
488
Multiple sheets and layers of what covered the entire sea?
5acd89d907355d001abf465a
True
Quaternary Period
64
During which Period have the land bridges been shaped by glaciations?
5acd89d907355d001abf465b
True
Ireland
409
During this period, it is certain a land bridge existed between England and which country?
5acd89d907355d001abf465c
True
The islands have been shaped by numerous glaciations during the Quaternary Period, the most recent being the Devensian.[citation needed] As this ended, the central Irish Sea was deglaciated and the English Channel flooded, with sea levels rising to current levels some 4,000 to 5,000 years ago, leaving the British Isles in their current form. Whether or not there was a land bridge between Great Britain and Ireland at this time is somewhat disputed, though there was certainly a single ice sheet covering the entire sea.
What is the lowest elevation in the British Isles?
573019f0b2c2fd1400568863
Holme, Cambridgeshire at −2.75 m
152
False
Where is the highest point in the British Isles?
573019f0b2c2fd1400568864
Ben Nevis
280
False
Where are other mountain areas in the British Isles?
573019f0b2c2fd1400568865
Wales and parts of Ireland
384
False
What is the longest river in Ireland?
573019f0b2c2fd1400568866
the Shannon
957
False
What is the weather like in the summer time in the British Isles?
573019f0b2c2fd1400568867
mild and also wet
1389
False
−9.02 ft)
186
The highest point of the islands is Holme, at how many feet?
5acd8ad607355d001abf468a
True
the islands
137
At, 1700 feet, Holme, Cambridgeshire is the lowest point in what?
5acd8ad607355d001abf468b
True
Ben Nevis
280
At 9,000 feet tall, what is the highest point on the islands?
5acd8ad607355d001abf468c
True
Ireland
563
Covering 250 square miles, Lough Neagh is located in which country?
5acd8ad607355d001abf468d
True
Loch Lomond
700
At 33.5 square miles, what is the largest freshwater body in Great Britain?
5acd8ad607355d001abf468e
True
The islands are at relatively low altitudes, with central Ireland and southern Great Britain particularly low lying: the lowest point in the islands is Holme, Cambridgeshire at −2.75 m (−9.02 ft). The Scottish Highlands in the northern part of Great Britain are mountainous, with Ben Nevis being the highest point on the islands at 1,343 m (4,406 ft). Other mountainous areas include Wales and parts of Ireland, however only seven peaks in these areas reach above 1,000 m (3,281 ft). Lakes on the islands are generally not large, although Lough Neagh in Northern Ireland is an exception, covering 150 square miles (390 km2).[citation needed] The largest freshwater body in Great Britain (by area) is Loch Lomond at 27.5 square miles (71 km2), and Loch Ness, by volume whilst Loch Morar is the deepest freshwater body in the British Isles, with a maximum depth of 310 m (1,017 ft). There are a number of major rivers within the British Isles. The longest is the Shannon in Ireland at 224 mi (360 km).[citation needed] The river Severn at 220 mi (354 km)[citation needed] is the longest in Great Britain. The isles have a temperate marine climate. The North Atlantic Drift ("Gulf Stream") which flows from the Gulf of Mexico brings with it significant moisture and raises temperatures 11 °C (20 °F) above the global average for the islands' latitudes. Winters are cool and wet, with summers mild and also wet. Most Atlantic depressions pass to the north of the islands, combined with the general westerly circulation and interactions with the landmass, this imposes an east-west variation in climate.
Which continent has similar plant and animal life as the British Isles?
57301aeaa23a5019007fcd65
European continent
160
False
In Ireland where does the native animal and plant species mostly come from?
57301aeaa23a5019007fcd66
Europe, and Great Britain
348
False
When did the land bridge between Ireland and Britain disappear?
57301aeaa23a5019007fcd67
about 8,000 years ago
572
False
When did the last Ice Age end in the British Isles?
57301aeaa23a5019007fcd68
about 12,000 years ago
476
False
mild
20
The islands have no soil and what kind of climate?
5acd8cac07355d001abf46d8
True
Animal and plant life
99
What type of life is similar to life in southern Asia?
5acd8cac07355d001abf46d9
True
8,000
578
The land bridge connecting two European continents was flooded by see about how many years ago?
5acd8cac07355d001abf46da
True
about 12,000 years ago
476
The beginning of the last Ice Age occurred when?
5acd8cac07355d001abf46db
True
European continent.
160
Plant and animal life varies greatly from that of life in which continent?
5acd8cac07355d001abf46dc
True
The islands enjoy a mild climate and varied soils, giving rise to a diverse pattern of vegetation. Animal and plant life is similar to that of the northwestern European continent. There are however, fewer numbers of species, with Ireland having even less. All native flora and fauna in Ireland is made up of species that migrated from elsewhere in Europe, and Great Britain in particular. The only window when this could have occurred was between the end of the last Ice Age (about 12,000 years ago) and when the land bridge connecting the two islands was flooded by sea (about 8,000 years ago).
When did the clearing of swamp land and forests begin in the British Isles?
57301c06947a6a140053d114
around 6000 BC
107
False
When did the clearing of the swamp land and forest begain to rapidly increase?
57301c06947a6a140053d115
medieval times
141
False
Why was Britain able to keep its ancient forests longer than Europe?
57301c06947a6a140053d116
due to a small population
236
False
When did lumber shortages start to occur in Britain?
57301c06947a6a140053d117
17th century
355
False
What are three of the most typical type of tress that can be found in Ireland?
57301c06947a6a140053d118
oak, ash, wych elm
944
False
Ireland
48
Ice and snow covered prehistoric Britain and what other country?
5acd8d4907355d001abf46f6
True
Britain
36
Ice and snow covered prehistoric Ireland and what other country?
5acd8d4907355d001abf46f7
True
Britain
171
Due to a large population, which country's primeval forests lasted longer than most?
5acd8d4907355d001abf46f8
True
17th
355
During which century did swamp shortages become a problem?
5acd8d4907355d001abf46f9
True
state forestation programmes
610
Who maintains most barren land in Ireland?
5acd8d4907355d001abf46fa
True
As with most of Europe, prehistoric Britain and Ireland were covered with forest and swamp. Clearing began around 6000 BC and accelerated in medieval times. Despite this, Britain retained its primeval forests longer than most of Europe due to a small population and later development of trade and industry, and wood shortages were not a problem until the 17th century. By the 18th century, most of Britain's forests were consumed for shipbuilding or manufacturing charcoal and the nation was forced to import lumber from Scandinavia, North America, and the Baltic. Most forest land in Ireland is maintained by state forestation programmes. Almost all land outside urban areas is farmland. However, relatively large areas of forest remain in east and north Scotland and in southeast England. Oak, elm, ash and beech are amongst the most common trees in England. In Scotland, pine and birch are most common. Natural forests in Ireland are mainly oak, ash, wych elm, birch and pine. Beech and lime, though not native to Ireland, are also common there. Farmland hosts a variety of semi-natural vegetation of grasses and flowering plants. Woods, hedgerows, mountain slopes and marshes host heather, wild grasses, gorse and bracken.
Which two animals became extinct in the British Isles?
57302340b2c2fd140056891d
wolf, bear
29
False
Which species of deer is protected in the British Isles?
57302340b2c2fd140056891e
red deer
110
False
How many bird species does the British Isles have?
57302340b2c2fd140056891f
Over 200 species of bird
485
False
What are three of the most common birds in the British Isles?
57302340b2c2fd1400568920
chaffinch, common blackbird, house sparrow
582
False
What kinds of fish are abundent in the British Isles?
57302340b2c2fd1400568921
salmon, trout, perch and pike
833
False
extinct
71
Small animals like wolves or bears are what today?
5acd8e2b07355d001abf4700
True
protected
123
What status does the brown deer have?
5acd8e2b07355d001abf4701
True
Scotland
292
The Asian beaver was reintroduced into parts of which country?
5acd8e2b07355d001abf4702
True
England
361
The northern part of this country has been reintroduced to the wild boar?
5acd8e2b07355d001abf4703
True
on coasts
474
Where are seals and otters uncommon?
5acd8e2b07355d001abf4704
True
Many larger animals, such as wolf, bear and the European elk are today extinct. However, some species such as red deer are protected. Other small mammals, such as rabbits, foxes, badgers, hares, hedgehogs, and stoats, are very common and the European beaver has been reintroduced in parts of Scotland. Wild boar have also been reintroduced to parts of southern England, following escapes from boar farms and illegal releases. Many rivers contain otters and seals are common on coasts. Over 200 species of bird reside permanently and another 200 migrate. Common types are the common chaffinch, common blackbird, house sparrow and common starling; all small birds. Large birds are declining in number, except for those kept for game such as pheasant, partridge, and red grouse. Fish are abundant in the rivers and lakes, in particular salmon, trout, perch and pike. Sea fish include dogfish, cod, sole, pollock and bass, as well as mussels, crab and oysters along the coast. There are more than 21,000 species of insects.
Which snakes are considered native to the British Isles but not Ireland?
5730246604bcaa1900d77215
European adder, the grass snake and the smooth snake
135
False
What is the name of the slug that is native to both Britain and Ireland?
5730246604bcaa1900d77216
Kerry slug
498
False
Is the grass nake or the smooth snake native to Ireland?
5730246604bcaa1900d77217
none are native to Ireland
189
False
What type of wild life are not native to Ireland but are in Britain?
5730246604bcaa1900d77218
water voles, roe deer and common toads
347
False
the common European adder, the grass snake and the smooth snake
124
Which four snakes are native to Ireland?
5acd915107355d001abf474e
True
Ireland
68
In Great Britain and what other country are there a large number of reptile species?
5acd915107355d001abf474f
True
Ireland
552
Certain species of wood lice are native to Great Britain but not where?
5acd915107355d001abf4750
True
Ireland
68
In Great Britain and what other country are there a large number of amphibian species?
5acd915107355d001abf4751
True
Great Britain
51
In Ireland and what other country are there a large number of reptile species?
5acd915107355d001abf4752
True
Few species of reptiles or amphibians are found in Great Britain or Ireland. Only three snakes are native to Great Britain: the common European adder, the grass snake and the smooth snake; none are native to Ireland. In general, Great Britain has slightly more variation and native wild life, with weasels, polecats, wildcats, most shrews, moles, water voles, roe deer and common toads also being absent from Ireland. This pattern is also true for birds and insects. Notable exceptions include the Kerry slug and certain species of wood lice native to Ireland but not Great Britain.
Which area in the British Isles is s the most populated?
57302564b2c2fd1400568959
England
107
False
What percentage of the population does England have compared to the other areas in the British Isles?
57302564b2c2fd140056895a
80%
142
False
How many people live in the area of London?
57302564b2c2fd140056895b
9 million
388
False
What are two other major populated cities in England?
57302564b2c2fd140056895c
Greater Manchester Urban Area (2.4 million), West Midlands conurbation (2.4 million)
451
False
What is the most populated city in Ireland?
57302564b2c2fd140056895d
Greater Dublin Area (1.1 million)
635
False
British Isles
24
England accounts for almost 25% of the total population of where?
5acd935e07355d001abf477e
True
Greater London Urban Area
357
Which is the smallest urban area with only 9 million people?
5acd935e07355d001abf477f
True
Greater London Urban Area
357
Which area is the largest urban area, with a population of 27,000 civilians?
5acd935e07355d001abf4780
True
80
142
There is a low population density in England, which accounts for what percent of the total population?
5acd935e07355d001abf4781
True
The demographics of the British Isles today are characterised by a generally high density of population in England, which accounts for almost 80% of the total population of the islands. In elsewhere on Great Britain and on Ireland, high density of population is limited to areas around, or close to, a few large cities. The largest urban area by far is the Greater London Urban Area with 9 million inhabitants. Other major populations centres include Greater Manchester Urban Area (2.4 million), West Midlands conurbation (2.4 million), West Yorkshire Urban Area (1.6 million) in England, Greater Glasgow (1.2 million) in Scotland and Greater Dublin Area (1.1 million) in Ireland.[citation needed]
Which two areas in the British Isles hasn't experienced a large population growth in the last one hundred years?
573026db947a6a140053d19a
Scotland and Wales
101
False
How does Ireland's population compare to the rest of the British Isles?
573026db947a6a140053d19b
less than one tenth of the population of the British Isles
444
False
How long did the Great Irish Famine cause a population decline in Ireland?
573026db947a6a140053d19c
century-long population decline
531
False
How large is the Irish diaspora that was caused by the Great Irish Famine?
573026db947a6a140053d19d
fifteen times the current population of the island
762
False
19th and 20th centuries
50
The population in England declined fast during which centuries?
5acd945207355d001abf478c
True
rose rapidly
26
During the 17th and 18th centuries, what happened to the population in England?
5acd945207355d001abf478d
True
Wales
114
The population in Scotland and what other country have increased rapidly?
5acd945207355d001abf478e
True
1951
230
The population of Scotland has experienced a significant change in every year since when?
5acd945207355d001abf478f
True
the British Isles
485
The Great British Famine caused the population of Ireland to fall below one tenth of the population of?
5acd945207355d001abf4790
True
The population of England rose rapidly during the 19th and 20th centuries whereas the populations of Scotland and Wales have shown little increase during the 20th century, with the population of Scotland remaining unchanged since 1951. Ireland for most of its history comprised a population proportionate to its land area (about one third of the total population). However, since the Great Irish Famine, the population of Ireland has fallen to less than one tenth of the population of the British Isles. The famine, which caused a century-long population decline, drastically reduced the Irish population and permanently altered the demographic make-up of the British Isles. On a global scale, this disaster led to the creation of an Irish diaspora that numbers fifteen times the current population of the island.
How many groups do these languages belong to?
573027e804bcaa1900d77265
six groups
81
False
What are the three Insular Celtic languages?
573027e804bcaa1900d77266
Irish, Manx and Scottish Gaelic
198
False
What are the remaining Cetic languages that are still used today?
573027e804bcaa1900d77267
Cornish, Welsh and Breton
260
False
Which cant is often used by Irish Travellers?
573027e804bcaa1900d77268
Shelta
566
False
became extinct
855
In 1980, what happened to the Norn language of Orkney and Shetland?
5acd95c207355d001abf479c
True
Channel Islands
512
Where are the Norman languages, similar to German, spoken?
5acd95c207355d001abf479d
True
Norn language
818
Which language of Gaelic and Shetland became extinct in 1880?
5acd95c207355d001abf479e
True
Brittonic sub-group
239
The Insular Travellers languages of the Goidelic subgroup, along with what other sub group are the only Celtic languages remaining?
5acd95c207355d001abf479f
True
The linguistic heritage of the British Isles is rich, with twelve languages from six groups across four branches of the Indo-European family. The Insular Celtic languages of the Goidelic sub-group (Irish, Manx and Scottish Gaelic) and the Brittonic sub-group (Cornish, Welsh and Breton, spoken in north-western France) are the only remaining Celtic languages—the last of their continental relations becoming extinct before the 7th century. The Norman languages of Guernésiais, Jèrriais and Sarkese spoken in the Channel Islands are similar to French. A cant, called Shelta, is spoken by Irish Travellers, often as a means to conceal meaning from those outside the group. However, English, sometimes in the form of Scots, is the dominant language, with few monoglots remaining in the other languages of the region. The Norn language of Orkney and Shetland became extinct around 1880.
What mainland was the British Isles once connected to?
57302a1204bcaa1900d7729b
European mainland
82
False
What happened to British Isles area when the ice melted after the last ice age?
57302a1204bcaa1900d7729c
sea levels rose
380
False
When sea levels rose what occured in the British Isles area?
57302a1204bcaa1900d7729d
separating Ireland from Great Britain
396
False
When did the British Isles area become separated from the European continent?
57302a1204bcaa1900d7729e
two to four millennia
475
False
Did Britain become populated with people again before or after the ice came to an end?
57302a1204bcaa1900d7729f
before the ice age ended
602
False
Europe
82
During the start of the first ice age, the British Isles were connected to which continent as a mass of land?
5acd96e107355d001abf47b8
True
Great Britain
420
When sea levels rose, Scotlan was separated from what other country to create the Isle of Man?
5acd96e107355d001abf47b9
True
the mainland.
540
Nearly 6 millennia later, what did Great Britain separate from?
5acd96e107355d001abf47ba
True
sea
731
After it was already a continent, Ireland probably became settled by what?
5acd96e107355d001abf47bb
True
Scotland, most of Ireland and Wales, and the hills of northern England
256
Which countries were covered almost entirely by coastlines?
5acd96e107355d001abf47bc
True
At the end of the last ice age, what are now the British Isles were joined to the European mainland as a mass of land extending north west from the modern-day northern coastline of France, Belgium and the Netherlands. Ice covered almost all of what is now Scotland, most of Ireland and Wales, and the hills of northern England. From 14,000 to 10,000 years ago, as the ice melted, sea levels rose separating Ireland from Great Britain and also creating the Isle of Man. About two to four millennia later, Great Britain became separated from the mainland. Britain probably became repopulated with people before the ice age ended and certainly before it became separated from the mainland. It is likely that Ireland became settled by sea after it had already become an island.
The people that lived in the British Isles during the Roman Empire era spoke which language?
57302bc5b2c2fd14005689d1
Celtic dialects of the Insular Celtic group
91
False
What was the name of the wall that the Romans built to mark their northern territory in the British Isles in 122AD?
57302bc5b2c2fd14005689d2
Hadrian's Wall
290
False
During the Roman Empire occupation in the British Isles, what was the name of the people that lived in Ireland?
57302bc5b2c2fd14005689d3
Hiberni
419
False
The northern area of Great Britain was populated by what native people during the Roman Empire occupation?
57302bc5b2c2fd14005689d4
Picts
491
False
What was the name of the native people that lived in the southern parts of the British Isles during the Roman Empire occupation?
57302bc5b2c2fd14005689d5
Britons
528
False
Celtic dialects of the Insular Celtic group
91
During the Briton Empire, tribes spoke which dialect?
5acd98a507355d001abf47cc
True
122 AD
354
What year did the British build Hadrian's Wall?
5acd98a507355d001abf47cd
True
122 AD
354
In what year was Hadrian's wall constructed to mark the southern frontier of the Roman Empire?
5acd98a507355d001abf47ce
True
Roman
19
Which empire expanded to control southern Spain?
5acd98a507355d001abf47cf
True
Britons
528
The northern third of Ireland was inhabited by Picts, while the southern two thirds by who?
5acd98a507355d001abf47d0
True
At the time of the Roman Empire, about two thousand years ago, various tribes, which spoke Celtic dialects of the Insular Celtic group, were inhabiting the islands. The Romans expanded their civilisation to control southern Great Britain but were impeded in advancing any further, building Hadrian's Wall to mark the northern frontier of their empire in 122 AD. At that time, Ireland was populated by a people known as Hiberni, the northern third or so of Great Britain by a people known as Picts and the southern two thirds by Britons.
Which people arrived in the British Isles when the Roman Empire's power was diminishing?
57302db9a23a5019007fcf19
Anglo-Saxons
0
False
What area did the Anglo-Saxons begin to dominate in the British Isles?
57302db9a23a5019007fcf1a
southern Great Britain
315
False
What happened to the British Isles and Europe after the Roman Empire ended?
57302db9a23a5019007fcf1b
the Dark Ages
856
False
What era did Ireland enter when the Roman Empire ended?
57302db9a23a5019007fcf1c
golden age
889
False
What did the Irish build during the Golden Age?
57302db9a23a5019007fcf1d
monasteries and universities
996
False
Anglo-Saxons
0
Who arrived during the 7th century as Roman power expanded?
5acd99ca07355d001abf47d6
True
recent genetic evidence
346
What suggests Picts made up most of the population?
5acd99ca07355d001abf47d7
True
southern Great Britain,
315
What area did Cornwall dominate in the British Isles?
5acd99ca07355d001abf47d8
True
the Dark Ages
856
While Europe entered the golden age, Ireland was entering what ages?
5acd99ca07355d001abf47d9
True
monasteries and universities
996
What were the British founding during the golden age?
5acd99ca07355d001abf47da
True
Anglo-Saxons arrived as Roman power waned in the 5th century AD. Initially, their arrival seems to have been at the invitation of the Britons as mercenaries to repulse incursions by the Hiberni and Picts. In time, Anglo-Saxon demands on the British became so great that they came to culturally dominate the bulk of southern Great Britain, though recent genetic evidence suggests Britons still formed the bulk of the population. This dominance creating what is now England and leaving culturally British enclaves only in the north of what is now England, in Cornwall and what is now known as Wales. Ireland had been unaffected by the Romans except, significantly, having been Christianised, traditionally by the Romano-Briton, Saint Patrick. As Europe, including Britain, descended into turmoil following the collapse of Roman civilisation, an era known as the Dark Ages, Ireland entered a golden age and responded with missions (first to Great Britain and then to the continent), the founding of monasteries and universities. These were later joined by Anglo-Saxon missions of a similar nature.
When did Viking invasions begin in the British Isles?
57302f4004bcaa1900d77307
9th century
30
False
What is one area where the Vikings created a permanent settlement in the British Isles?
57302f4004bcaa1900d77308
east coast of Ireland
106
False
England became a possession of which country when it became conquered after the first millennium?
57302f4004bcaa1900d77309
Denmark
462
False
When did the Norman Conquest occur?
57302f4004bcaa1900d7730a
1066
666
False
In 1169, Ireland was invaded by which people?
57302f4004bcaa1900d7730b
Angevins
1087
False
Viking
0
During the 10th century, who was invading?
5acd9b0807355d001abf47fa
True
England
336
Around the turn of the first millennium AD, which country was quickly conquered?
5acd9b0807355d001abf47fb
True
1066
666
The Norman conquest of Spain took place during which year?
5acd9b0807355d001abf47fc
True
Eleanor of Aquitaine
877
The Angevin Empire was created by the marriage between Henry VI and who?
5acd9b0807355d001abf47fd
True
1169
1115
In what year did the Angevins invade Adrian?
5acd9b0807355d001abf47fe
True
Viking invasions began in the 9th century, followed by more permanent settlements, particularly along the east coast of Ireland, the west coast of modern-day Scotland and the Isle of Man. Though the Vikings were eventually neutralised in Ireland, their influence remained in the cities of Dublin, Cork, Limerick, Waterford and Wexford. England however was slowly conquered around the turn of the first millennium AD, and eventually became a feudal possession of Denmark. The relations between the descendants of Vikings in England and counterparts in Normandy, in northern France, lay at the heart of a series of events that led to the Norman conquest of England in 1066. The remnants of the Duchy of Normandy, which conquered England, remain associated to the English Crown as the Channel Islands to this day. A century later the marriage of the future Henry II of England to Eleanor of Aquitaine created the Angevin Empire, partially under the French Crown. At the invitation of a provincial king and under the authority of Pope Adrian IV (the only Englishman to be elected pope), the Angevins invaded Ireland in 1169. Though initially intended to be kept as an independent kingdom, the failure of the Irish High King to ensure the terms of the Treaty of Windsor led Henry II, as King of England, to rule as effective monarch under the title of Lord of Ireland. This title was granted to his younger son but when Henry's heir unexpectedly died the title of King of England and Lord of Ireland became entwined in one person.
During the end of the Middle Ages which two kingdoms was Great Britain divided into?
57303088a23a5019007fcf35
Kingdoms of England and Scotland
62
False
Which king failed to receive a divorce from the Pope in 1534?
57303088a23a5019007fcf36
King Henry VIII
552
False
What was the name of the church that King Henry VIII founded?
57303088a23a5019007fcf37
Church of England
830
False
Since the Norman invasion who had feudal possession of Ireland?
57303088a23a5019007fcf38
the Pope
1065
False
England and Scotland.
74
During the early Golden Age, what was Great Britain separated into?
5acd9c8407355d001abf4816
True
Scotland
86
During the late Middle Ages, Ireland was separated into England and what other country?
5acd9c8407355d001abf4817
True
England
74
During the late Middle Ages, Ireland was separated into Scotland and what other country?
5acd9c8407355d001abf4818
True
Scotland
86
During the late Middle Ages, the Roman Church was separated into England and what other country?
5acd9c8407355d001abf4819
True
Scotland
86
During the late Middle Ages, the Crown of France was separated into England and what other country?
5acd9c8407355d001abf481a
True
By the Late Middle Ages, Great Britain was separated into the Kingdoms of England and Scotland. Power in Ireland fluxed between Gaelic kingdoms, Hiberno-Norman lords and the English-dominated Lordship of Ireland. A similar situation existed in the Principality of Wales, which was slowly being annexed into the Kingdom of England by a series of laws. During the course of the 15th century, the Crown of England would assert a claim to the Crown of France, thereby also releasing the King of England as from being vassal of the King of France. In 1534, King Henry VIII, at first having been a strong defender of Roman Catholicism in the face of the Reformation, separated from the Roman Church after failing to secure a divorce from the Pope. His response was to place the King of England as "the only Supreme Head in Earth of the Church of England", thereby removing the authority of the Pope from the affairs of the English Church. Ireland, which had been held by the King of England as Lord of Ireland, but which strictly speaking had been a feudal possession of the Pope since the Norman invasion was declared a separate kingdom in personal union with England.
Which crown did the King of Scotland inherit in 1603?
57303211b2c2fd1400568a3f
Crown of England
119
False
What happened to Britain during the 17th century?
57303211b2c2fd1400568a40
political upheaval, religious division and war
220
False
Why did the King of England have issues with parliment in the 17th century?
57303211b2c2fd1400568a41
his policy of tolerance towards Catholicism
514
False
The English Civil War brought about what change to Britain?
57303211b2c2fd1400568a42
revolutionary republic in England
629
False
Who where the ruling class after the revolutionary republic was created?
57303211b2c2fd1400568a43
Protestant and British
1073
False
1603
60
In what year did the Queen of Scotland inherit the Crown of England?
5acd9d2807355d001abf482a
True
war
263
The 17th century was full of peace, political upheaval, religious division and what else?
5acd9d2807355d001abf482b
True
War of the Three Kingdoms
594
What is another name for the French Civil War?
5acd9d2807355d001abf482c
True
English Civil War
573
The War of the Four Kingdoms is also known as what?
5acd9d2807355d001abf482d
True
England
655
The English Civil War led to a religious upheaval where?
5acd9d2807355d001abf482e
True
Scotland, meanwhile had remained an independent Kingdom. In 1603, that changed when the King of Scotland inherited the Crown of England, and consequently the Crown of Ireland also. The subsequent 17th century was one of political upheaval, religious division and war. English colonialism in Ireland of the 16th century was extended by large-scale Scottish and English colonies in Ulster. Religious division heightened and the King in England came into conflict with parliament. A prime issue was, inter alia, over his policy of tolerance towards Catholicism. The resulting English Civil War or War of the Three Kingdoms led to a revolutionary republic in England. Ireland, largely Catholic was mainly loyal to the king. Following defeat to the parliaments army, large scale land distributions from loyalist Irish nobility to English commoners in the service of the parliamentary army created the beginnings a new Ascendancy class which over the next hundred years would obliterate the English (Hiberno-Norman) and Gaelic Irish nobility in Ireland. The new ruling class was Protestant and British, whilst the common people were largely Catholic and Irish. This theme would influence Irish politics for centuries to come. When the monarchy was restored in England, the king found it politically impossible to restore all the lands of former land-owners in Ireland. The "Glorious Revolution" of 1688 repeated similar themes: a Catholic king pushing for religious tolerance in opposition to a Protestant parliament in England. The king's army was defeated at the Battle of the Boyne and at the militarily crucial Battle of Aughrim in Ireland. Resistance held out, and a guarantee of religious tolerance was a cornerstone of the Treaty of Limerick. However, in the evolving political climate, the terms of Limerick were superseded, a new monarchy was installed, and the new Irish parliament was packed with the new elite which legislated increasing intolerant Penal Laws, which discommoded both Dissenters and Catholics.
In what year was the Kingdom of Great Britain founded?
5730333d04bcaa1900d7734f
1707
53
False
When did the Kingdoms of Great Britain and Ireland unite?
5730333d04bcaa1900d77350
1801
220
False
How large did the British Empire become by the beginning of the 20th century?
5730333d04bcaa1900d77351
one third of the globe
669
False
What negative factor occurred as a result of the Industrial Revolution in England?
5730333d04bcaa1900d77352
terrible condition for the working class
790
False
What was the result of the Anglo-Irish Treaty in 1919-1922?
5730333d04bcaa1900d77353
Most of Ireland seceded from the United Kingdom
1065
False
England and Scotland
16
Which kingdoms were unified in 2012 to create Great Britain?
5acd9e0007355d001abf4834
True
1707
53
In what year were the kingdoms of England and Ireland unified to create Great Britain?
5acd9e0007355d001abf4835
True
1801
220
In what year were Ireland and England unified to create the United Kingdom?
5acd9e0007355d001abf4836
True
Ireland and Great Britain
178
Which kingdoms were unified in 1707 to create the United KIngdom?
5acd9e0007355d001abf4837
True
Irish War of Independence
1123
After which war did most of Ireland join the United Kingdom?
5acd9e0007355d001abf4838
True
The Kingdoms of England and Scotland were unified in 1707 creating the Kingdom of Great Britain. Following an attempted republican revolution in Ireland in 1798, the Kingdoms of Ireland and Great Britain were unified in 1801, creating the United Kingdom. The Isle of Man and the Channel Islands remaining outside of the United Kingdom but with their ultimate good governance being the responsibility of the British Crown (effectively the British government). Although, the colonies of North American that would become the United States of America were lost by the start of the 19th century, the British Empire expanded rapidly elsewhere. A century later it would cover one third of the globe. Poverty in the United Kingdom remained desperate however and industrialisation in England led to terrible condition for the working class. Mass migrations following the Irish Famine and Highland Clearances resulted in the distribution of the islands' population and culture throughout the world and a rapid de-population of Ireland in the second-half of the 19th century. Most of Ireland seceded from the United Kingdom after the Irish War of Independence and the subsequent Anglo-Irish Treaty (1919–1922), with the six counties that formed Northern Ireland remaining as an autonomous region of the UK.
What are the names of the two states that are sovereign in the British Isles today?
573034a1947a6a140053d28a
Ireland and the United Kingdom of Great Britain and Northern Ireland
45
False
What is another name that Ireland is also called?
573034a1947a6a140053d28b
Republic of Ireland
145
False
Northern Ireland is part of which country?
573034a1947a6a140053d28c
United Kingdom of Great Britain and Northern Ireland
305
False
What is another name for the  United Kingdom of Great Britain and Northern Ireland?
573034a1947a6a140053d28d
United Kingdom
391
False
Which three states in the United Kingdom have devolved governements?
573034a1947a6a140053d28e
Scotland, Wales and Northern Ireland
1079
False
Ireland
115
The Republic of Channel Islands refers to which country?
5acd9f2e07355d001abf4848
True
four
928
Ireland is made up of how many constituent parts?
5acd9f2e07355d001abf4849
True
Wales, forming Great Britain, and Northern Ireland
974
The four constituent parts of the United Kingdom are: England, Wales, Spain and what other country?
5acd9f2e07355d001abf484a
True
Jersey and Guernsey
576
The Isle of Man and what else are known as the United Kingdom?
5acd9f2e07355d001abf484b
True
separate legal jurisdiction
1377
For legislative purposes, Scotland, Southern Ireland, England and Wales form what?
5acd9f2e07355d001abf484c
True
There are two sovereign states in the isles: Ireland and the United Kingdom of Great Britain and Northern Ireland. Ireland, sometimes called the Republic of Ireland, governs five sixths of the island of Ireland, with the remainder of the island forming Northern Ireland. Northern Ireland is a part of the United Kingdom of Great Britain and Northern Ireland, usually shortened to simply the United Kingdom, which governs the remainder of the archipelago with the exception of the Isle of Man and the Channel Islands. The Isle of Man and the two states of the Channel Islands, Jersey and Guernsey, are known as the Crown Dependencies. They exercise constitutional rights of self-government and judicial independence; responsibility for international representation rests largely upon the UK (in consultation with the respective governments); and responsibility for defence is reserved by the UK. The United Kingdom is made up of four constituent parts: England, Scotland and Wales, forming Great Britain, and Northern Ireland in the north-east of the island of Ireland. Of these, Scotland, Wales and Northern Ireland have "devolved" governments meaning that they have their own parliaments/assemblies and are self-governing with respect to certain areas set down by law. For judicial purposes, Scotland, Northern Ireland and England and Wales (the latter being one entity) form separate legal jurisdiction, with there being no single law for the UK as a whole.
Which state send members to the parliament in Edinburgh?
5730360004bcaa1900d77375
Scotland
236
False
What type of government does the United Kingdom and the Crown Dependencies have?
5730360004bcaa1900d77376
parliamentary democracies
69
False
Who shares power in Northern Ireland?
5730360004bcaa1900d77377
unionists and nationalists
481
False
Unionists in Northern Ireland want to remain part of which country?
5730360004bcaa1900d77378
United Kingdom
763
False
Nationalist in Northern Ireland want to join which country?
5730360004bcaa1900d77379
the rest of Ireland
841
False
their own separate parliaments
101
Ireland, the UK and the 3 Crown Dependencies are socialistic democracies with what?
5acda0a307355d001abf4870
True
their own separate parliaments
101
Ireland, the UK and Great Britain are parliamentary democracies with what?
5acda0a307355d001abf4871
True
a system of power sharing
447
What type of system does Southern Ireland use to make decisions?
5acda0a307355d001abf4872
True
the Republic of Ireland
942
The Irish monarch is the head of state for all parts of the isles except?
5acda0a307355d001abf4873
True
Republic of Ireland,
946
The President of the United Kingdom is the head of state for which Republic?
5acda0a307355d001abf4874
True
Ireland, the United Kingdom and the three Crown Dependencies are all parliamentary democracies, with their own separate parliaments. All parts of the United Kingdom return members to parliament in London. In addition to this, voters in Scotland, Wales and Northern Ireland return members to a parliament in Edinburgh and to assemblies in Cardiff and Belfast respectively. Governance in the norm is by majority rule, however, Northern Ireland uses a system of power sharing whereby unionists and nationalists share executive posts proportionately and where the assent of both groups are required for the Northern Ireland Assembly to make certain decisions. (In the context of Northern Ireland, unionists are those who want Northern Ireland to remain a part of the United Kingdom and nationalists are those who want Northern Ireland join with the rest of Ireland.) The British monarch is the head of state for all parts of the isles except for the Republic of Ireland, where the head of state is the President of Ireland.
The United Kingdom is part of what union?
5730376e04bcaa1900d77397
European Union (EU)
52
False
What does the Schengen area allow in the European Union?
5730376e04bcaa1900d77398
passport-free travel between EU members states
307
False
When was a free-travel area created betwen Northern Ireland and Ireland?
5730376e04bcaa1900d77399
1997
459
False
This free-travel area in Ireland is now called what?
5730376e04bcaa1900d7739a
Common Travel Area
608
False
European Union
52
Ireland and the Crown Dependencies are part of what union?
5acda1b107355d001abf4884
True
passport-free travel between EU members states.
307
What type of travel does the Amsterdam Treaty area allow?
5acda1b107355d001abf4885
True
Schengen area
281
Both the United Kingdom and Ireland are part of what area?
5acda1b107355d001abf4886
True
the partition of Ireland
370
A formal free-travel area has existed across the region since when?
5acda1b107355d001abf4887
True
the Common Travel Area.
604
Since 1997 the area has required informal recognition and has become known as what?
5acda1b107355d001abf4888
True
Ireland and the United Kingdom are both part of the European Union (EU). The Crown Dependencies are not a part of the EU however do participate in certain aspects that were negotiated as a part of the UK's accession to the EU. Neither the United Kingdom or Ireland are part of the Schengen area, that allow passport-free travel between EU members states. However, since the partition of Ireland, an informal free-travel area had existed across the region. In 1997, this area required formal recognition during the course of negotiations for the Amsterdam Treaty of the European Union and is now known as the Common Travel Area.
What are the two exceptions to the voting rights in United Kingdom of Great Britain and Northern Irelandand Britain?
57303a2d947a6a140053d2d8
presidential elections and constitutional referendums
121
False
In what elections are other Europeans who are living in the United Kingdom or Ireland, allowed to vote in?
57303a2d947a6a140053d2d9
local and European Parliament elections
440
False
Which ministry wants to end this type of voting of EU nationals?
57303a2d947a6a140053d2da
UK Ministry of Justice
535
False
What type of arrangement let British and Irish citizens vote in each other's elections?
57303a2d947a6a140053d2db
Reciprocal arrangements
0
False
Reciprocal
0
What type of arrangements restrict British and Irish voting rights?
5acda32a07355d001abf4898
True
2008
527
In what year did a UK Ministry of Justice report propose to begin the arrangement?
5acda32a07355d001abf4899
True
Reciprocal arrangements
0
British and Irish voters are allowed full voting rights, including presidential elections, due to what?
5acda32a07355d001abf489a
True
Republic of Ireland,
182
Exceptions include presidential elections and European Parliament elections where?
5acda32a07355d001abf489b
True
UK Ministry of Justice
535
Which entity supports that the right to vote is a hallmark of economic status?
5acda32a07355d001abf489c
True
Reciprocal arrangements allow British and Irish citizens to full voting rights in the two states. Exceptions to this are presidential elections and constitutional referendums in the Republic of Ireland, for which there is no comparable franchise in the other states. In the United Kingdom, these pre-date European Union law, and in both jurisdictions go further than that required by European Union law. Other EU nationals may only vote in local and European Parliament elections while resident in either the UK or Ireland. In 2008, a UK Ministry of Justice report investigating how to strengthen the British sense of citizenship proposed to end this arrangement arguing that, "the right to vote is one of the hallmarks of the political status of citizens; it is not a means of expressing closeness between countries."
What has caused several uncommon arrangements between the various states in the United Kingdom?
57303bb004bcaa1900d773f1
The Northern Ireland Peace Process
0
False
What type of citizenship can Northern Ireland people have?
57303bb004bcaa1900d773f2
choice of Irish or British citizenship or both
215
False
The 1998 Good Friday Agreement resulted in what arrangement?
57303bb004bcaa1900d773f3
policies common across the island of Ireland
504
False
The Northern Ireland Executive meets with what other government to develop policies for the island of Ireland?
57303bb004bcaa1900d773f4
Government of Ireland
422
False
Republic of Ireland, Northern Ireland and the United Kingdom
91
The Northern Atlantic Peace Process involves arrangements between which kingdoms?
5acda46b07355d001abf48a2
True
arrangements
556
What was made following the Black Friday Agreement of what year?
5acda46b07355d001abf48a3
True
unusual
58
What type of arrangements has the Northern Ireland Executive led to between the Republic of Ireland, Northern ireland and the UK?
5acda46b07355d001abf48a4
True
Irish or British citizenship or both
225
What type of citizenship are people from Britain entitled to?
5acda46b07355d001abf48a5
True
Government of Ireland
422
The Northern Ireland Executive and what other entity meet as the East/West Ministerial Council?
5acda46b07355d001abf48a6
True
The Northern Ireland Peace Process has led to a number of unusual arrangements between the Republic of Ireland, Northern Ireland and the United Kingdom. For example, citizens of Northern Ireland are entitled to the choice of Irish or British citizenship or both and the Governments of Ireland and the United Kingdom consult on matters not devolved to the Northern Ireland Executive. The Northern Ireland Executive and the Government of Ireland also meet as the North/South Ministerial Council to develop policies common across the island of Ireland. These arrangements were made following the 1998 Good Friday Agreement.
What was one of organizations that was founded because of the Good Friday Agreement?
57303e52b2c2fd1400568ad5
British–Irish Council
62
False
Which states belong to the British-Irish Council?
57303e52b2c2fd1400568ad6
all of the states and territories of the British Isles
99
False
How many Oireachtas members where there in the original British-Irish Parliamentary Assembly?
57303e52b2c2fd1400568ad7
25
346
False
How many members of the United Kingdom Parliament were in the British-Irish Parliamentary Assembly originally?
57303e52b2c2fd1400568ad8
25
402
False
The British-Irish Council has added representatives from which parliament?
57303e52b2c2fd1400568ad9
Scottish Parliament
638
False
British–Irish Council
62
Which body, also established under the Tionol Agreement, is made up of the states and territories of the British Isles?
5acda5cd07355d001abf48b6
True
British–Irish Council,
62
What body was established by the Good Friday Agreement and is made up of the states of Wales and Scotland?
5acda5cd07355d001abf48b7
True
1990
316
In what year was the British-Scottish Parliamentary Assembly formed?
5acda5cd07355d001abf48b8
True
British–Irish Parliamentary Assembly (
159
Establishing a mutual understanding between Britain and Ireland is the purpose of what body?
5acda5cd07355d001abf48b9
True
the Scottish Parliament,
634
Representatives from where have been removed from the role and scope of the body?
5acda5cd07355d001abf48ba
True
Another body established under the Good Friday Agreement, the British–Irish Council, is made up of all of the states and territories of the British Isles. The British–Irish Parliamentary Assembly (Irish: Tionól Pharlaiminteach na Breataine agus na hÉireann) predates the British–Irish Council and was established in 1990. Originally it comprised 25 members of the Oireachtas, the Irish parliament, and 25 members of the parliament of the United Kingdom, with the purpose of building mutual understanding between members of both legislatures. Since then the role and scope of the body has been expanded to include representatives from the Scottish Parliament, the National Assembly for Wales, the Northern Ireland Assembly, the States of Jersey, the States of Guernsey and the High Court of Tynwald (Isle of Man).
How often does the British-Irish Council meet?
57303fedb2c2fd1400568af1
biannually
53
False
What does the British-Irish Council discuss?
57303fedb2c2fd1400568af2
issues of mutual importance
75
False
Does the Parliamentary Assembly had any kinds of legislative authority?
57303fedb2c2fd1400568af3
no
146
False
What does the British-Irish Council do?
57303fedb2c2fd1400568af4
investigates and collects witness evidence
172
False
Who recommended that the British-Irish Inter-Parliamentary Assembly should look very closely at the work that the British-Irish Council does?
57303fedb2c2fd1400568af5
Niall Blaney
663
False
biannually
53
The council has executive powers and meets how often?
5acda81f07355d001abf48d4
True
biannually
53
How often does the Council meet to discuss civil service issues?
5acda81f07355d001abf48d5
True
evidence
206
The Parliamentary Assembly also has legislative powers and collects what?
5acda81f07355d001abf48d6
True
United Kingdom
352
Reports on the Parliamentary Assembly's findings are presented to the governments of Spain, Ireland and what other country?
5acda81f07355d001abf48d7
True
2008
388
During the March meeting of what year, was it agreed to set up a permanent civil service for the council?
5acda81f07355d001abf48d8
True
The Council does not have executive powers but meets biannually to discuss issues of mutual importance. Similarly, the Parliamentary Assembly has no legislative powers but investigates and collects witness evidence from the public on matters of mutual concern to its members. Reports on its findings are presented to the Governments of Ireland and the United Kingdom. During the February 2008 meeting of the British–Irish Council, it was agreed to set up a standing secretariat that would serve as a permanent 'civil service' for the Council. Leading on from developments in the British–Irish Council, the chair of the British–Irish Inter-Parliamentary Assembly, Niall Blaney, has suggested that the body should shadow the British–Irish Council's work.
What types of media give the people of Ireland information about what is going on in Britain?
57304141b2c2fd1400568b03
British television, newspapers and magazines
61
False
What is available to the people in Northern Ireland so they have access to the media?
57304141b2c2fd1400568b04
private television
304
False
What is one of the most popoular television shows in the United Kingdom?
57304141b2c2fd1400568b05
The X Factor
458
False
Who can receive the Costa Book Award?
57304141b2c2fd1400568b06
authors resident in the UK or Ireland
793
False
Ireland
23
The United Kingdom and which country have combined media?
5acda90807355d001abf48de
True
United Kingdom
4
Ireland and which country have combined media outlets?
5acda90807355d001abf48df
True
Dublin
522
The X Factor seasons 1, 2 and 3 held auditions where?
5acda90807355d001abf48e0
True
The Man Booker Prize
832
Authors from the Commonwealth of Nations and the United Kingdom may be presented with which award?
5acda90807355d001abf48e1
True
the best album from a British or Irish musician or group.
973
The Mercury Music Prize is given out weekly for?
5acda90807355d001abf48e2
True
The United Kingdom and Ireland have separate media, although British television, newspapers and magazines are widely available in Ireland, giving people in Ireland a high level of familiarity with cultural matters in the United Kingdom. Irish newspapers are also available in the UK, and Irish state and private television is widely available in Northern Ireland.[citation needed] Certain reality TV shows have embraced the whole of the islands, for example The X Factor, seasons 3, 4 and 7 of which featured auditions in Dublin and were open to Irish voters, whilst the show previously known as Britain's Next Top Model became Britain and Ireland's Next Top Model in 2011. A few cultural events are organised for the island group as a whole. For example, the Costa Book Awards are awarded to authors resident in the UK or Ireland. The Man Booker Prize is awarded to authors from the Commonwealth of Nations and Ireland. The Mercury Music Prize is handed out every year to the best album from a British or Irish musician or group.
What are some of the minor sports in the United Kingdom?
5730427fb2c2fd1400568b0b
croquet, bowls, pitch and putt
187
False
What is the most popular sport in the United Kingdom?
5730427fb2c2fd1400568b0c
association football
336
False
How many national Ruby teams are there in the United Kingdom?
5730427fb2c2fd1400568b0d
four
588
False
In which hemisphere do the rugby playing countries meet once every four years?
5730427fb2c2fd1400568b0e
southern hemisphere
748
False
How often do the national rugby teams play for the Triple Crown?
5730427fb2c2fd1400568b0f
each year
950
False
Ireland, Scotland, Wales and Italy
1069
Beginning in 2011, teams of which countries compete in the RaboDirect Pro12?
5acdab1b07355d001abf48e8
True
2001
1033
Since what year have teams from Ireland, Scotland, Wales and Italy been competing in the Rugby Pro12 league?
5acdab1b07355d001abf48e9
True
national rugby teams
913
As part of the Seven Nations Championship, which rugby teams play for the Triple Crown each year?
5acdab1b07355d001abf48ea
True
England, Ireland, Scotland and Wales.
613
Rugby union is widely disliked where?
5acdab1b07355d001abf48eb
True
Many globally popular sports had modern rules codified in the British Isles, including golf, association football, cricket, rugby, snooker and darts, as well as many minor sports such as croquet, bowls, pitch and putt, water polo and handball. A number of sports are popular throughout the British Isles, the most prominent of which is association football. While this is organised separately in different national associations, leagues and national teams, even within the UK, it is a common passion in all parts of the islands. Rugby union is also widely enjoyed across the islands with four national teams from England, Ireland, Scotland and Wales. The British and Irish Lions is a team chosen from each national team and undertakes tours of the southern hemisphere rugby playing nations every four years. Ireland play as a united team, represented by players from both Northern Ireland and the Republic. These national rugby teams play each other each year for the Triple Crown as part of the Six Nations Championship. Also since 2001 the professional club teams of Ireland, Scotland, Wales and Italy compete against each other in the RaboDirect Pro12.
The Irish Sea tunnel was first purposed in what year?
573043eeb2c2fd1400568b39
1895
72
False
What is the name of the recent proposal of a tunnel between Rosslare and Fishguard ports?
573043eeb2c2fd1400568b3a
Tusker Tunnel
192
False
Who proposed the Tusker Tunnel?
573043eeb2c2fd1400568b3b
The Institute of Engineers of Ireland
262
False
What is the estimated cost to build the Tusker Tunnel?
573043eeb2c2fd1400568b3c
£15 billion or €20 billion
535
False
In what year was a bridge proposed between County Antrim in Northern Ireland to Galloway, Scotland?
573043eeb2c2fd1400568b3d
2007
577
False
1895
72
Since which year has the idea of a tunnel through the Antrim Sea been raised?
5acdabd307355d001abf48f0
True
Tusker Tunnel
192
Which British Sea tunnel has most recently been proposed?
5acdabd307355d001abf48f1
True
Fishguard
240
The Tusker Tunnel is located between the islands of Rosslare and?
5acdabd307355d001abf48f2
True
1997
339
In what year was a rail tunnel rejected on a different route?
5acdabd307355d001abf48f3
True
£15 billion or €20 billion.
535
Either of the tunnels, would be the shortest in the world and are estimated to cost how much?
5acdabd307355d001abf48f4
True
The idea of building a tunnel under the Irish Sea has been raised since 1895, when it was first investigated. Several potential Irish Sea tunnel projects have been proposed, most recently the Tusker Tunnel between the ports of Rosslare and Fishguard proposed by The Institute of Engineers of Ireland in 2004. A rail tunnel was proposed in 1997 on a different route, between Dublin and Holyhead, by British engineering firm Symonds. Either tunnel, at 50 mi (80 km), would be by far the longest in the world, and would cost an estimated £15 billion or €20 billion. A proposal in 2007, estimated the cost of building a bridge from County Antrim in Northern Ireland to Galloway in Scotland at £3.5bn (€5bn).
Association_football
What Museum has a vase with an image of an episkyros player?
57300a6a04bcaa1900d77059
National Archaeological Museum of Athens
119
False
What game did Athenaeus reference in 228 AD?
57300a6a04bcaa1900d7705a
harpastum
268
False
What is the name of a similar, non-competitive game in Japan called?
57300a6a04bcaa1900d7705b
kemari
659
False
What country is the game chuck-guk from?
57300a6a04bcaa1900d7705c
Korea
688
False
What country is the game wogabaliri from?
57300a6a04bcaa1900d7705d
Australia
713
False
National Archaeological Museum of Athens
119
What Museum has a plant with an image of an episkyros player?
5a79cd8f17ab25001a8a0082
True
harpastum
268
What game did Athenaeus reference in 218 AD?
5a79cd8f17ab25001a8a0083
True
kemari
659
What is the name of a similar, competitive game in Japan called?
5a79cd8f17ab25001a8a0084
True
Korea
688
What country is the game chuck-guk banned in?
5a79cd8f17ab25001a8a0085
True
Australia
713
What country is the game wogabaliri no longer played?
5a79cd8f17ab25001a8a0086
True
Phaininda and episkyros were Greek ball games. An image of an episkyros player depicted in low relief on a vase at the National Archaeological Museum of Athens appears on the UEFA European Championship Cup. Athenaeus, writing in 228 AD, referenced the Roman ball game harpastum. Phaininda, episkyros and harpastum were played involving hands and violence. They all appear to have resembled rugby football, wrestling and volleyball more than what is recognizable as modern football. As with pre-codified "mob football", the antecedent of all modern football codes, these three games involved more handling the ball than kicking. Non-competitive games included kemari in Japan, chuk-guk in Korea and woggabaliri in Australia.
What year did the Football Association arrange The Laws of the Game?
57300b6ea23a5019007fccbd
1863
591
False
Who Organizes the World Cups?
57300b6ea23a5019007fccbe
International Federation of Association Football
653
False
About how many years between World Cups?
57300b6ea23a5019007fccbf
four
825
False
What country did the Laws of the Game come from?
57300b6ea23a5019007fccc0
England
552
False
Who are the only players allowed to touch the ball with their hands?
57300b6ea23a5019007fccc1
goalkeepers
4
False
England
552
What country was the Laws of the Game banned from?
5a79cce217ab25001a8a0078
True
1863
591
What year did the Football Association remove The Laws of the Game?
5a79cce217ab25001a8a0079
True
International Federation of Association Football
653
Who never organizes the World Cups?
5a79cce217ab25001a8a007a
True
four
825
About how many years long are World Cups?
5a79cce217ab25001a8a007b
True
goalkeepers
4
Who are the only players allowed to touch the ball with their feet?
5a79cce217ab25001a8a007c
True
The goalkeepers are the only players allowed to touch the ball with their hands or arms while it is in play and only in their penalty area. Outfield players mostly use their feet to strike or pass the ball, but may also use their head or torso to do so instead. The team that scores the most goals by the end of the match wins. If the score is level at the end of the game, either a draw is declared or the game goes into extra time and/or a penalty shootout depending on the format of the competition. The Laws of the Game were originally codified in England by The Football Association in 1863. Association football is governed internationally by the International Federation of Association Football (FIFA; French: Fédération Internationale de Football Association), which organises World Cups for both men and women every four years.
What century does football in England date back to?
57300c50a23a5019007fccc7
eighth century AD
489
False
What organization has said that there is no historical connection to association football with any other game outside of Europe?
57300c50a23a5019007fccc8
FIFA
143
False
In what century did the modern rules of association football come from?
57300c50a23a5019007fccc9
mid-19th century
309
False
What country did kids play football in public schools in the 19th century?
57300c50a23a5019007fccca
England
418
False
eighth century AD
489
What century does football in England not exist in?
5a79ce7517ab25001a8a008c
True
FIFA
143
What organization has said that there is historical connections to association football with other games outside of Europe?
5a79ce7517ab25001a8a008d
True
mid-19th century
309
What century did the modern rules of association football end?
5a79ce7517ab25001a8a008e
True
England
418
What country did kids play football in private schools in the 18th century?
5a79ce7517ab25001a8a008f
True
Association football in itself does not have a classical history. Notwithstanding any similarities to other ball games played around the world FIFA have recognised that no historical connection exists with any game played in antiquity outside Europe. The modern rules of association football are based on the mid-19th century efforts to standardise the widely varying forms of football played in the public schools of England. The history of football in England dates back to at least the eighth century AD.
Which rules were influential to the codes of association football?
573014f1a23a5019007fcd2d
Cambridge Rules
4
False
Which college where the Cambridge Rules written at?
573014f1a23a5019007fcd2e
Trinity College
207
False
In what year did John Charles Thring come up with rules that were influential?
573014f1a23a5019007fcd2f
1862
721
False
What year did the Sheffield FA form?
573014f1a23a5019007fcd30
1867
712
False
What year were the Cambridge Rules first drawn up?
573014f1a23a5019007fcd31
1848
63
False
Cambridge Rules
4
Which rules were not influential to the codes of association football?
5a79cef317ab25001a8a009e
True
Trinity College
207
Which college were the Cambridge Rules unknown?
5a79cef317ab25001a8a009f
True
1862
721
What year did John Charles Thring come up with rules that were not influential?
5a79cef317ab25001a8a00a0
True
1867
712
What year did the Sheffield FA disband?
5a79cef317ab25001a8a00a1
True
1848
63
What year were the Cambridge Rules ignored?
5a79cef317ab25001a8a00a2
True
The Cambridge Rules, first drawn up at Cambridge University in 1848, were particularly influential in the development of subsequent codes, including association football. The Cambridge Rules were written at Trinity College, Cambridge, at a meeting attended by representatives from Eton, Harrow, Rugby, Winchester and Shrewsbury schools. They were not universally adopted. During the 1850s, many clubs unconnected to schools or universities were formed throughout the English-speaking world, to play various forms of football. Some came up with their own distinct codes of rules, most notably the Sheffield Football Club, formed by former public school pupils in 1857, which led to formation of a Sheffield FA in 1867. In 1862, John Charles Thring of Uppingham School also devised an influential set of rules.
What is the only position specified by the Laws of the Game
57303dae947a6a140053d302
goalkeeper
239
False
The focus of strikers and forwards are to do what?
57303dae947a6a140053d303
score goals
390
False
Who's job is to prevent the opponents from scoring?
57303dae947a6a140053d304
defenders
403
False
A team players layout is a what?
57303dae947a6a140053d305
formation
1388
False
Who's the most responsible for the teams tactics?
57303dae947a6a140053d306
team's manager
1475
False
goalkeeper
239
What is the only position not specified by the Laws of the Game?
5a79dc6717ab25001a8a0108
True
score goals
390
What do strikers and forwards try to avoid doing?
5a79dc6717ab25001a8a0109
True
defenders
403
Who's job is to prevent their team from scoring?
5a79dc6717ab25001a8a010a
True
formation
1388
What is a layout for team players never called?
5a79dc6717ab25001a8a010b
True
team's manager
1475
Who is the least responsible for the teams tactics?
5a79dc6717ab25001a8a010c
True
At a professional level, most matches produce only a few goals. For example, the 2005–06 season of the English Premier League produced an average of 2.48 goals per match. The Laws of the Game do not specify any player positions other than goalkeeper, but a number of specialised roles have evolved. Broadly, these include three main categories: strikers, or forwards, whose main task is to score goals; defenders, who specialise in preventing their opponents from scoring; and midfielders, who dispossess the opposition and keep possession of the ball to pass it to the forwards on their team. Players in these positions are referred to as outfield players, to distinguish them from the goalkeeper. These positions are further subdivided according to the area of the field in which the player spends most time. For example, there are central defenders, and left and right midfielders. The ten outfield players may be arranged in any combination. The number of players in each position determines the style of the team's play; more forwards and fewer defenders creates a more aggressive and offensive-minded game, while the reverse creates a slower, more defensive style of play. While players typically spend most of the game in a specific position, there are few restrictions on player movement, and players can switch positions at any time. The layout of a team's players is known as a formation. Defining the team's formation and tactics is usually the prerogative of the team's manager.
What year did the Football Association form?
57303df3947a6a140053d30c
1863
91
False
At what establishment did the Football Association have their first Meeting?
57303df3947a6a140053d30d
Freemasons' Tavern
154
False
What year did the Rugby Football Union form?
57303df3947a6a140053d30e
1871
846
False
How many clubs ended up ratifying the original laws of the game?
57303df3947a6a140053d30f
eleven
888
False
Who played by their own rules till the 1870's?
57303df3947a6a140053d310
The Sheffield FA
1203
False
1863
91
What year did the Football Association end?
5a79cfce17ab25001a8a00b2
True
Freemasons' Tavern
154
What establishment did the Football Association have their last meeting?
5a79cfce17ab25001a8a00b3
True
1871
846
What year did the Rugby Football Union remove?
5a79cfce17ab25001a8a00b4
True
eleven
888
How many clubs never ratified the original laws of the game?
5a79cfce17ab25001a8a00b5
True
The Sheffield FA
1203
Who played by their own rules till the 1890's?
5a79cfce17ab25001a8a00b6
True
These ongoing efforts contributed to the formation of The Football Association (The FA) in 1863, which first met on the morning of 26 October 1863 at the Freemasons' Tavern in Great Queen Street, London. The only school to be represented on this occasion was Charterhouse. The Freemason's Tavern was the setting for five more meetings between October and December, which eventually produced the first comprehensive set of rules. At the final meeting, the first FA treasurer, the representative from Blackheath, withdrew his club from the FA over the removal of two draft rules at the previous meeting: the first allowed for running with the ball in hand; the second for obstructing such a run by hacking (kicking an opponent in the shins), tripping and holding. Other English rugby clubs followed this lead and did not join the FA and instead in 1871 formed the Rugby Football Union. The eleven remaining clubs, under the charge of Ebenezer Cobb Morley, went on to ratify the original thirteen laws of the game. These rules included handling of the ball by "marks" and the lack of a crossbar, rules which made it remarkably similar to Victorian rules football being developed at that time in Australia. The Sheffield FA played by its own rules until the 1870s with the FA absorbing some of its rules until there was little difference between the games.
What is C.W. Alcock responsible for founding?
57303dfeb2c2fd1400568abb
FA Cup
47
False
How long has the FA Cup been contested?
57303dfeb2c2fd1400568abc
1872
135
False
Who founded the worlds first football league?
57303dfeb2c2fd1400568abd
William McGregor
420
False
How many clubs where in the first football league?
57303dfeb2c2fd1400568abe
12
468
False
What country is the home of the first football league?
57303dfeb2c2fd1400568abf
England
235
False
FA Cup
47
What is C.W. Alcock responsible for eliminating?
5a79d04b17ab25001a8a00bc
True
1872
135
How long has the FA Cup been uncontested?
5a79d04b17ab25001a8a00bd
True
William McGregor
420
Who founded the worlds smallest football league?
5a79d04b17ab25001a8a00be
True
12
468
How many clubs were in the last football league?
5a79d04b17ab25001a8a00bf
True
England
508
What country is the first football league forgotten in?
5a79d04b17ab25001a8a00c0
True
The world's oldest football competition is the FA Cup, which was founded by C. W. Alcock and has been contested by English teams since 1872. The first official international football match also took place in 1872, between Scotland and England in Glasgow, again at the instigation of C. W. Alcock. England is also home to the world's first football league, which was founded in Birmingham in 1888 by Aston Villa director William McGregor. The original format contained 12 clubs from the Midlands and Northern England.
What does the abbreviation IFAB stand for?
57303e0704bcaa1900d773f9
International Football Association Board
43
False
What year was the IFAB formed?
57303e0704bcaa1900d773fa
1886
116
False
What city was FIFA formed?
57303e0704bcaa1900d773fb
Paris
339
False
How many representatives did FIFA have in the IFAB?
57303e0704bcaa1900d773fc
four
612
False
How many different British associations where part of the IFAB?
57303e0704bcaa1900d773fd
four
683
False
International Football Association Board
43
What does the abbreviation IFAB not stand for?
5a79d0f317ab25001a8a00d0
True
1886
116
What year was the IFAB ignored?
5a79d0f317ab25001a8a00d1
True
Paris
339
What city was FIFA banned?
5a79d0f317ab25001a8a00d2
True
four
612
How many representatives did FIFA fire in the IFAB?
5a79d0f317ab25001a8a00d3
True
four
683
How many different British associations were not involved with the IFAB?
5a79d0f317ab25001a8a00d4
True
The laws of the game are determined by the International Football Association Board (IFAB). The Board was formed in 1886 after a meeting in Manchester of The Football Association, the Scottish Football Association, the Football Association of Wales, and the Irish Football Association. FIFA, the international football body, was formed in Paris in 1904 and declared that they would adhere to Laws of the Game of the Football Association. The growing popularity of the international game led to the admittance of FIFA representatives to the International Football Association Board in 1913. The board consists of four representatives from FIFA and one representative from each of the four British associations.
In 2006, which team helps secure a truce during a civil war?
57303e10b2c2fd1400568ac5
Côte d'Ivoire
291
False
What city did a peaceful match between two armies take place in 2007?
57303e10b2c2fd1400568ac6
Bouaké
509
False
When did the Football War happen?
57303e10b2c2fd1400568ac7
June 1969
700
False
Football made which wars more tense in the 1990's?
57303e10b2c2fd1400568ac8
Yugoslav Wars
804
False
Côte d'Ivoire
291
Which team helped remove a truce during a civil war in 2006?
5a79d86917ab25001a8a00da
True
Bouaké
509
What city did a peaceful match between two armies take place in 2005?
5a79d86917ab25001a8a00db
True
Yugoslav Wars
804
Which wars were more tense in the 1980's due to football?
5a79d86917ab25001a8a00dc
True
Dinamo Zagreb and Red Star Belgrade
853
What match degenerated into rioting in July 1990?
5a79d86917ab25001a8a00dd
True
In many parts of the world football evokes great passions and plays an important role in the life of individual fans, local communities, and even nations. R. Kapuscinski says that Europeans who are polite, modest, or humble fall easily into rage when playing or watching football games. The Côte d'Ivoire national football team helped secure a truce to the nation's civil war in 2006 and it helped further reduce tensions between government and rebel forces in 2007 by playing a match in the rebel capital of Bouaké, an occasion that brought both armies together peacefully for the first time. By contrast, football is widely considered to have been the final proximate cause for the Football War in June 1969 between El Salvador and Honduras. The sport also exacerbated tensions at the beginning of the Yugoslav Wars of the 1990s, when a match between Dinamo Zagreb and Red Star Belgrade degenerated into rioting in May 1990.
What decade is considered the "golden age" of women's football?
57303e14947a6a140053d316
1920s
248
False
Since what year has women's football been an Olympic event?
57303e14947a6a140053d317
1996
690
False
Who voted to ban women's football from its grounds in 1921?
57303e14947a6a140053d318
England's Football Association
339
False
In 1971, who officially recognized women's football?
57303e14947a6a140053d319
UEFA
480
False
What year was the FIFA Women's first World cup?
57303e14947a6a140053d31a
1991
588
False
1920s
248
What decade is considered the "golden age" of men's football?
5a79d8d417ab25001a8a00e2
True
1996
690
What year was women's football not an Olympic event?
5a79d8d417ab25001a8a00e3
True
England's Football Association
339
Who voted to ban women's football from its grounds in 1919?
5a79d8d417ab25001a8a00e4
True
UEFA
480
Who officially recognized women's football in 1970?
5a79d8d417ab25001a8a00e5
True
1991
588
What year was the FIFA Women's last World cup?
5a79d8d417ab25001a8a00e6
True
The growth in women's football has seen major competitions being launched at both national and international level mirroring the male competitions. Women's football has faced many struggles. It had a "golden age" in the United Kingdom in the early 1920s when crowds reached 50,000 at some matches; this was stopped on 5 December 1921 when England's Football Association voted to ban the game from grounds used by its member clubs. The FA's ban was rescinded in December 1969 with UEFA voting to officially recognise women's football in 1971. The FIFA Women's World Cup was inaugurated in 1991 and has been held every four years since, while women's football has been an Olympic event since 1996.
What would you describe the shape of the football?
57303e18a23a5019007fcff3
spherical
123
False
How many players are on each team?
57303e18a23a5019007fcff4
eleven
237
False
What happens when both teams score the same amount of points?
57303e18a23a5019007fcff5
a draw
513
False
What is the captain a part of before the start of the game?
57303e18a23a5019007fcff6
the coin toss
647
False
What is another name for the football?
57303e18a23a5019007fcff7
soccer ball
210
False
spherical
123
What would not describe the shape of the football?
5a79d98717ab25001a8a00ec
True
eleven
237
How many players are excluded from each team?
5a79d98717ab25001a8a00ed
True
a draw
513
What happens when both teams score different amounts of points?
5a79d98717ab25001a8a00ee
True
the coin toss
647
What is the captain a part of after the end of the game?
5a79d98717ab25001a8a00ef
True
soccer ball
210
What is a banned name for the football?
5a79d98717ab25001a8a00f0
True
Association football is played in accordance with a set of rules known as the Laws of the Game. The game is played using a spherical ball of 68.5–69.5 cm (27.0–27.4 in) circumference, known as the football (or soccer ball). Two teams of eleven players each compete to get the ball into the other team's goal (between the posts and under the bar), thereby scoring a goal. The team that has scored more goals at the end of the game is the winner; if both teams have scored an equal number of goals then the game is a draw. Each team is led by a captain who has only one official responsibility as mandated by the Laws of the Game: to be involved in the coin toss prior to kick-off or penalty kicks.
Who can only handle the ball with their hands or arms during play?
57303e1db2c2fd1400568acd
goalkeepers
43
False
When is it okay for regular players to use their hands?
57303e1db2c2fd1400568ace
throw-in restart
170
False
A ball cannot be received in what type of position?
57303e1db2c2fd1400568acf
offside
507
False
throughout when can players move the ball in any direction?
57303e1db2c2fd1400568ad0
the pitch
455
False
goalkeepers
43
Who can only handle the ball with their feet during play?
5a79da7317ab25001a8a00f6
True
throw-in restart
170
When is it okay for irregular players to use their hands?
5a79da7317ab25001a8a00f7
True
offside
507
What type of position can a ball always be received in?
5a79da7317ab25001a8a00f8
True
the pitch
455
When can players move the ball in no direction?
5a79da7317ab25001a8a00f9
True
The primary law is that players other than goalkeepers may not deliberately handle the ball with their hands or arms during play, though they do use their hands during a throw-in restart. Although players usually use their feet to move the ball around, they may use any part of their body (notably, "heading" with the forehead) other than their hands or arms. Within normal play, all players are free to play the ball in any direction and move throughout the pitch, though the ball cannot be received in an offside position.
Who guards the goal?
57303edfa23a5019007fd005
goalkeeper
228
False
Who is the only one who has the authority to stop the game when something is wron?
57303edfa23a5019007fd006
referee
576
False
what is allowed but restricted?
57303edfa23a5019007fd007
physical contact
387
False
Besides a referee interfering, when else is play stopped?
57303edfa23a5019007fd008
when the ball has left the field of play
504
False
goalkeeper
228
Who is not allowed to guard the goal?
5a79dbb517ab25001a8a00fe
True
referee
576
Who is the only one who does not have the authority to stop the game when something is wrong?
5a79dbb517ab25001a8a00ff
True
physical contact
387
What is not allowed but restricted?
5a79dbb517ab25001a8a0100
True
when the ball has left the field of play
504
When is play not allowed to be stopped?
5a79dbb517ab25001a8a0101
True
play recommences with a specified restart
636
What happens before a stoppage?
5a79dbb517ab25001a8a0102
True
In game play, players attempt to create goal-scoring opportunities through individual control of the ball, such as by dribbling, passing the ball to a team-mate, and by taking shots at the goal, which is guarded by the opposing goalkeeper. Opposing players may try to regain control of the ball by intercepting a pass or through tackling the opponent in possession of the ball; however, physical contact between opponents is restricted. Football is generally a free-flowing game, with play stopping only when the ball has left the field of play or when play is stopped by the referee for an infringement of the rules. After a stoppage, play recommences with a specified restart.
How many laws are there in the official Laws of the Game?
573040c2a23a5019007fd00d
17
10
False
Who maintains the Laws of the Game?
573040c2a23a5019007fd00e
International Football Association Board (IFAB)
496
False
Broad terms in the laws allow for what?
573040c2a23a5019007fd00f
flexibility
356
False
Who publishes the Laws of the Game?
573040c2a23a5019007fd010
FIFA
464
False
17
10
How many laws are excluded from the official Laws of the Game?
5a79dcdc17ab25001a8a0112
True
International Football Association Board (IFAB)
496
Who avoids the Laws of the Game?
5a79dcdc17ab25001a8a0113
True
flexibility
356
What do broad terms in the laws help eliminate?
5a79dcdc17ab25001a8a0114
True
FIFA
464
Who doesn't read the Laws of the Game?
5a79dcdc17ab25001a8a0115
True
17
10
How many people follow the official Laws of the Game?
5a79dcdc17ab25001a8a0116
True
There are 17 laws in the official Laws of the Game, each containing a collection of stipulation and guidelines. The same laws are designed to apply to all levels of football, although certain modifications for groups such as juniors, seniors, women and people with physical disabilities are permitted. The laws are often framed in broad terms, which allow flexibility in their application depending on the nature of the game. The Laws of the Game are published by FIFA, but are maintained by the International Football Association Board (IFAB). In addition to the seventeen laws, numerous IFAB decisions and other directives contribute to the regulation of football.
Out of the maximum amount of players allowed, one must be a what?
573041b7947a6a140053d356
goalkeeper
99
False
The maximum amount of players exclude what?
573041b7947a6a140053d357
substitutes
61
False
What is the maximum amount of players allowed?
573041b7947a6a140053d358
eleven
35
False
If there's a minimum amount of players it's usually what?
573041b7947a6a140053d359
seven
215
False
Players are usually strategically placed by who?
573041b7947a6a140053d35a
coach
495
False
goalkeeper
99
What position is not required for either team?
5a79df0417ab25001a8a012c
True
substitutes
61
What is not excluded from the maximum amount of players?
5a79df0417ab25001a8a012d
True
eleven
35
What amount of players is not allowed?
5a79df0417ab25001a8a012e
True
coach
495
Who does not usually place players strategically?
5a79df0417ab25001a8a012f
True
outfield
431
What position is not allowed on either team?
5a79df0417ab25001a8a0130
True
Each team consists of a maximum of eleven players (excluding substitutes), one of whom must be the goalkeeper. Competition rules may state a minimum number of players required to constitute a team, which is usually seven. Goalkeepers are the only players allowed to play the ball with their hands or arms, provided they do so within the penalty area in front of their own goal. Though there are a variety of positions in which the outfield (non-goalkeeper) players are strategically placed by a coach, these positions are not defined or required by the Laws.
The equipment a player wears is also called a what?
573045c504bcaa1900d77449
kit
23
False
What is highly recommended by medical experts for male players?
573045c504bcaa1900d7744a
An athletic supporter and protective cup
124
False
Who wears clothing that easily sets them apart from everyone else on the field?
573045c504bcaa1900d7744b
goalkeeper
506
False
wearing anything that could be dangerous is what?
573045c504bcaa1900d7744c
forbidden
387
False
What is not required but can be chosen to protect a player from head injuries?
573045c504bcaa1900d7744d
Headgear
242
False
kit
23
What is the equipment a player wears never called?
5a79dfc117ab25001a8a0136
True
An athletic supporter and protective cup
124
What is highly recommended by medical experts for female players?
5a79dfc117ab25001a8a0137
True
goalkeeper
506
Who wears clothing that matches everyone else on the field?
5a79dfc117ab25001a8a0138
True
forbidden
387
Wearing anything that could be dangerous is never what?
5a79dfc117ab25001a8a0139
True
Headgear
242
What is required to protect a player from head injuries?
5a79dfc117ab25001a8a013a
True
The basic equipment or kit players are required to wear includes a shirt, shorts, socks, footwear and adequate shin guards. An athletic supporter and protective cup is highly recommended for male players by medical experts and professionals. Headgear is not a required piece of basic equipment, but players today may choose to wear it to protect themselves from head injury. Players are forbidden to wear or use anything that is dangerous to themselves or another player, such as jewellery or watches. The goalkeeper must wear clothing that is easily distinguishable from that worn by the other players and the match officials.
Imperial units where once used to express the dimensions of a what?
573048dcb2c2fd1400568b6f
football pitch
163
False
Laws were formulated in what country?
573048dcb2c2fd1400568b70
England
31
False
What unit of measurement is now expressed by the Laws?
573048dcb2c2fd1400568b71
metric
272
False
The use of imperial units is still popular in what kind of countries?
573048dcb2c2fd1400568b72
English-speaking
384
False
football pitch
163
What have imperial units never been used to express the dimensions of?
5a79e26d17ab25001a8a0148
True
England
31
What country never formulated laws?
5a79e26d17ab25001a8a0149
True
metric
272
What unit of measurement can't be expressed by the Laws?
5a79e26d17ab25001a8a014a
True
English-speaking
384
What kind of countries are imperial units not considered popular?
5a79e26d17ab25001a8a014b
True
As the Laws were formulated in England, and were initially administered solely by the four British football associations within IFAB, the standard dimensions of a football pitch were originally expressed in imperial units. The Laws now express dimensions with approximate metric equivalents (followed by traditional units in brackets), though use of imperial units remains popular in English-speaking countries with a relatively recent history of metrication (or only partial metrication), such as Britain.
What is the range for the length for international matches in meters?
57304ae8396df9190009603e
100–110 m
75
False
In what year did the IFAB initially approve a fixed size as a standard pitch dimension for international matches?
57304ae8396df9190009603f
2008
309
False
When was the IFAB's decision on the fixed size of the pitch become implemented?
57304ae8396df91900096040
never
512
False
What is the range for the length of fields for non international matches in meters?
57304ae8396df91900096041
90–120 m
195
False
What is the range for the width for international matches in meters?
57304ae8396df91900096042
64–75 m
131
False
100–110 m
75
What is the range for the height for local matches in meters?
5a79e31817ab25001a8a015a
True
2008
309
What year did the IFAB initially reject a fixed size as a standard pitch dimension for international matches?
5a79e31817ab25001a8a015b
True
64–75 m
131
What is the range for the depth for international matches in meters?
5a79e31817ab25001a8a015c
True
a fixed size of 105 m (344 ft) long and 68 m (223 ft) wide as a standard pitch dimension for international matches
343
What decision was recently implemented?
5a79e31817ab25001a8a015d
True
100–110 m
75
What is the length of the pitch for international child matches?
5a79e31817ab25001a8a015e
True
The length of the pitch for international adult matches is in the range of 100–110 m (110–120 yd) and the width is in the range of 64–75 m (70–80 yd). Fields for non-international matches may be 90–120 m (100–130 yd) length and 45–90 m (50–100 yd) in width, provided that the pitch does not become square. In 2008, the IFAB initially approved a fixed size of 105 m (344 ft) long and 68 m (223 ft) wide as a standard pitch dimension for international matches; however, this decision was later put on hold and was never actually implemented.
What is the penalty area marked by?
57304d5c069b531400832027
goal line
69
False
a penalty foul by the defending team can be punishable by a what?
57304d5c069b531400832028
penalty kick
445
False
how many meters from the goalpost does a penalty area extend?
57304d5c069b531400832029
16.5 m
116
False
Only who can handle the ball with his hands?
57304d5c069b53140083202a
goalkeeper
331
False
goal line
106
What is the penalty area hidden by?
5a79e44817ab25001a8a016e
True
penalty kicks
543
What can not be used to punish a penalty foul?
5a79e44817ab25001a8a016f
True
16.5
164
How many miles from the goalpost does a penalty area extend?
5a79e44817ab25001a8a0170
True
goalkeeper
331
Who can't handle the ball with his hands?
5a79e44817ab25001a8a0171
True
at kick-offs, goal kicks, penalty kicks and corner kicks
517
Where do markings not define the position of the ball?
5a79e44817ab25001a8a0172
True
In front of the goal is the penalty area. This area is marked by the goal line, two lines starting on the goal line 16.5 m (18 yd) from the goalposts and extending 16.5 m (18 yd) into the pitch perpendicular to the goal line, and a line joining them. This area has a number of functions, the most prominent being to mark where the goalkeeper may handle the ball and where a penalty foul by a member of the defending team becomes punishable by a penalty kick. Other markings define the position of the ball or players at kick-offs, goal kicks, penalty kicks and corner kicks.
How many periods are in a standard football match?
57304e618ab72b1400f9c412
two
44
False
How long are each period in a standard football match?
57304e618ab72b1400f9c413
45
59
False
What are the periods in a football match called?
57304e618ab72b1400f9c414
halves
85
False
Who gets to decide how long stoppage time can go on for?
57304e618ab72b1400f9c415
referee
706
False
In what year did an incident help introduce added time?
57304e618ab72b1400f9c416
1891
1150
False
two
44
How many periods are in a non-standard football match?
5a79e4bf17ab25001a8a0182
True
45
59
How long are each period in a non-standard football match?
5a79e4bf17ab25001a8a0183
True
halves
85
What are the periods in a football match never called?
5a79e4bf17ab25001a8a0184
True
referee
299
Who has no influence on how long stoppage time can go on for?
5a79e4bf17ab25001a8a0185
True
1891
1150
What year did an incident reduce additional time?
5a79e4bf17ab25001a8a0186
True
A standard adult football match consists of two periods of 45 minutes each, known as halves. Each half runs continuously, meaning that the clock is not stopped when the ball is out of play. There is usually a 15-minute half-time break between halves. The end of the match is known as full-time. The referee is the official timekeeper for the match, and may make an allowance for time lost through substitutions, injured players requiring attention, or other stoppages. This added time is called additional time in FIFA documents, but is most commonly referred to as stoppage time or injury time, while loss time can also be used as a synonym. The duration of stoppage time is at the sole discretion of the referee. The referee alone signals the end of the match. In matches where a fourth official is appointed, toward the end of the half the referee signals how many minutes of stoppage time he intends to add. The fourth official then informs the players and spectators by holding up a board showing this number. The signalled stoppage time may be further extended by the referee. Added time was introduced because of an incident which happened in 1891 during a match between Stoke and Aston Villa. Trailing 1–0 and with just two minutes remaining, Stoke were awarded a penalty. Villa's goalkeeper kicked the ball out of the ground, and by the time the ball had been recovered, the 90 minutes had elapsed and the game was over. The same law also states that the duration of either half is extended until the penalty kick to be taken or retaken is completed, thus no game shall end with a penalty to be taken.
Matches where a winner must be decided is called what type of competitions?
5730507b8ab72b1400f9c440
knockout
52
False
Extra time has two periods which each are how long in minutes?
5730507b8ab72b1400f9c441
15
293
False
What are penalty shootouts officially known as in the Laws of the Game?
5730507b8ab72b1400f9c442
kicks from the penalty mark
456
False
Which goals count to the final score of the game?
5730507b8ab72b1400f9c443
Goals scored during extra time
561
False
knockout
52
When a winner must not be decided what type of match is this?
5a79ea1b17ab25001a8a01b2
True
15
293
How long are extra time periods in hours?
5a79ea1b17ab25001a8a01b3
True
kicks from the penalty mark
646
What are penalty shootouts not known as in the Laws of the Game?
5a79ea1b17ab25001a8a01b4
True
Goals scored during extra time
561
Which goals do not count toward the final score of the game?
5a79ea1b17ab25001a8a01b5
True
In league competitions, games may end in a draw. In knockout competitions where a winner is required various methods may be employed to break such a deadlock, some competitions may invoke replays. A game tied at the end of regulation time may go into extra time, which consists of two further 15-minute periods. If the score is still tied after extra time, some competitions allow the use of penalty shootouts (known officially in the Laws of the Game as "kicks from the penalty mark") to determine which team will progress to the next stage of the tournament. Goals scored during extra time periods count toward the final score of the game, but kicks from the penalty mark are only used to decide the team that progresses to the next part of the tournament (with goals scored in a penalty shootout not making up part of the final score).
Who experimented with creating winners without requiring penalty shootouts?
57305257069b531400832049
the IFAB
35
False
What is the golden goal?
57305257069b53140083204a
the first goal in extra time
253
False
Who was the first team to win using the golden goal to their advantage?
57305257069b53140083204b
France
505
False
What team did France beat in 1998?
57305257069b53140083204c
Paraguay
527
False
What year did the Czech Republic lose in the final of Euro?
57305257069b53140083204d
1996
665
False
the IFAB
35
Who experimented with creating losers by requiring penalty shootouts?
5a79ea8f17ab25001a8a01ba
True
the first goal in extra time
253
What is the golden goat?
5a79ea8f17ab25001a8a01bb
True
France
505
Who was the last team to win using the golden goal to their advantage?
5a79ea8f17ab25001a8a01bc
True
Paraguay
527
What team did France beat in 1995?
5a79ea8f17ab25001a8a01bd
True
1996
665
What year did the Czech Republic win in the final of Euro?
5a79ea8f17ab25001a8a01be
True
In the late 1990s and early 2000s, the IFAB experimented with ways of creating a winner without requiring a penalty shootout, which was often seen as an undesirable way to end a match. These involved rules ending a game in extra time early, either when the first goal in extra time was scored (golden goal), or if one team held a lead at the end of the first period of extra time (silver goal). Golden goal was used at the World Cup in 1998 and 2002. The first World Cup game decided by a golden goal was France's victory over Paraguay in 1998. Germany was the first nation to score a golden goal in a major competition, beating Czech Republic in the final of Euro 1996. Silver goal was used in Euro 2004. Both these experiments have been discontinued by IFAB.
Which card does a referee use to signal a caution to a player?
573054172461fd1900a9cd2f
yellow card
75
False
How many yellow cards lead to a red card?
573054172461fd1900a9cd30
A second
113
False
What does a red card mean?
573054172461fd1900a9cd31
dismissal
91
False
A referee gives out a yellow card and writes down the players name in his notebook which is called being what?
573054172461fd1900a9cd32
booked
253
False
Managers and support staff is considered what and thus cannot be shown a card?
573054172461fd1900a9cd33
Non-players
793
False
yellow card
75
Which card does a referee avoid to signal a caution to a player?
5a79eb0117ab25001a8a01c4
True
A second
113
How many yellow cards lead to a blue card?
5a79eb0117ab25001a8a01c5
True
dismissal
191
What does a blue card mean?
5a79eb0117ab25001a8a01c6
True
booked
253
What is it called when a referee gives out a green card?
5a79eb0117ab25001a8a01c7
True
managers and support staff
813
Who can always be shown a card?
5a79eb0117ab25001a8a01c8
True
The referee may punish a player's or substitute's misconduct by a caution (yellow card) or dismissal (red card). A second yellow card at the same game leads to a red card, and therefore to a dismissal. A player given a yellow card is said to have been "booked", the referee writing the player's name in his official notebook. If a player has been dismissed, no substitute can be brought on in their place. Misconduct may occur at any time, and while the offences that constitute misconduct are listed, the definitions are broad. In particular, the offence of "unsporting behaviour" may be used to deal with most events that violate the spirit of the game, even if they are not listed as specific offences. A referee can show a yellow or red card to a player, substitute or substituted player. Non-players such as managers and support staff cannot be shown the yellow or red card, but may be expelled from the technical area if they fail to conduct themselves in a responsible manner.
Players who are sent off in a game are often faced with what?
573057c82461fd1900a9cd8f
mandatory suspensions
299
False
Sometimes clubs can do what if they feel that a punishment was too harsh?
573057c82461fd1900a9cd90
appeals
592
False
Football associations enforce what kind of conduct?
573057c82461fd1900a9cd91
good
114
False
mandatory suspensions
299
What do players who are sent off in a game never faced with?
5a79eb9a17ab25001a8a01ce
True
match fixing
259
What can clubs do if they feel that a punishment was not harsh enough?
5a79eb9a17ab25001a8a01cf
True
allegations of racial abuse
422
What kind of conduct is never enforced by Football associations?
5a79eb9a17ab25001a8a01d0
True
appeals
592
What is never allowed as recourse for player suspensions?
5a79eb9a17ab25001a8a01d1
True
Along with the general administration of the sport, football associations and competition organisers also enforce good conduct in wider aspects of the game, dealing with issues such as comments to the press, clubs' financial management, doping, age fraud and match fixing. Most competitions enforce mandatory suspensions for players who are sent off in a game. Some on-field incidents, if considered very serious (such as allegations of racial abuse), may result in competitions deciding to impose heavier sanctions than those normally associated with a red card. Some associations allow for appeals against player suspensions incurred on-field if clubs feel a referee was incorrect or unduly harsh.
Which year was there not a Summer Olympic Game?
573057cc8ab72b1400f9c486
1932
93
False
In what year was a women's tournament added to the Summer Olympics?
573057cc8ab72b1400f9c487
1996
642
False
What year were professional players allowed to play in the  Summer Olympics?
573057cc8ab72b1400f9c488
1984
304
False
What is the age limit on the Olympic men's tournament?
573057cc8ab72b1400f9c489
Under-23
504
False
What was the first year that there was a football tournament at the Summer Olympics?
573057cc8ab72b1400f9c48a
1900
73
False
1932
93
Which year was there not a Winter Olympic Game?
5a79ec0417ab25001a8a01d6
True
1996
642
What year was a men's tournament added to the Summer Olympics?
5a79ec0417ab25001a8a01d7
True
1984
304
What year were novice players allowed to play in the Summer Olympics?
5a79ec0417ab25001a8a01d8
True
23
510
What is the age requirement on the Olympic men's tournament?
5a79ec0417ab25001a8a01d9
True
1900
73
What was the last year that there was a football tournament at the Winter Olympics?
5a79ec0417ab25001a8a01da
True
There has been a football tournament at every Summer Olympic Games since 1900, except at the 1932 games in Los Angeles. Before the inception of the World Cup, the Olympics (especially during the 1920s) had the same status as the World Cup. Originally, the event was for amateurs only; however, since the 1984 Summer Olympics, professional players have been permitted, albeit with certain restrictions which prevent countries from fielding their strongest sides. The Olympic men's tournament is played at Under-23 level. In the past the Olympics have allowed a restricted number of over-age players per team. A women's tournament was added in 1996; in contrast to the men's event, full international sides without age restrictions play the women's Olympic tournament.
What does UEFA Stand for?
57305970069b53140083209f
European Championship
217
False
The FIFA Confederations Cups is usually considered a warm-up for what?
57305970069b5314008320a0
FIFA World Cup
647
False
What do winners of the continental competition get to do?
57305970069b5314008320a1
contest the FIFA Club World Cup
1015
False
What does CAF stand for?
57305970069b5314008320a2
African Cup of Nations
276
False
the European Championship
213
What does UEFA Stand against?
5a79ecea17ab25001a8a01e0
True
FIFA World Cup
497
What is considered a warm-up for the FIFA Confederations Cups?
5a79ecea17ab25001a8a01e1
True
contest the FIFA Club World Cup
1015
What do losers of the continental competition get to do?
5a79ecea17ab25001a8a01e2
True
African Cup of Nations
276
What does CAF oppose?
5a79ecea17ab25001a8a01e3
True
continental championships
794
What are the least prestigious competitions called?
5a79ecea17ab25001a8a01e4
True
After the World Cup, the most important international football competitions are the continental championships, which are organised by each continental confederation and contested between national teams. These are the European Championship (UEFA), the Copa América (CONMEBOL), African Cup of Nations (CAF), the Asian Cup (AFC), the CONCACAF Gold Cup (CONCACAF) and the OFC Nations Cup (OFC). The FIFA Confederations Cup is contested by the winners of all six continental championships, the current FIFA World Cup champions and the country which is hosting the Confederations Cup. This is generally regarded as a warm-up tournament for the upcoming FIFA World Cup and does not carry the same prestige as the World Cup itself. The most prestigious competitions in club football are the respective continental championships, which are generally contested between national champions, for example the UEFA Champions League in Europe and the Copa Libertadores in South America. The winners of each continental competition contest the FIFA Club World Cup.
What do teams gain for doing well throughout the season?
57305b3f8ab72b1400f9c498
points
145
False
What is the name for the type of tournament teams play in regular season?
57305b3f8ab72b1400f9c499
round-robin
377
False
What could happen to the top few teams at the end of the season?
57305b3f8ab72b1400f9c49a
promoted to a higher division
489
False
What happens to the teams at the bottom of the ranks at the end of the season?
57305b3f8ab72b1400f9c49b
relegated to a lower division
577
False
Who operate league systems?
57305b3f8ab72b1400f9c49c
governing bodies
4
False
points
145
What do teams lose for doing well throughout the season?
5a79ed7f17ab25001a8a01ea
True
round-robin
377
What is the name for the type of tournament teams play in off-season?
5a79ed7f17ab25001a8a01eb
True
governing bodies
4
Who avoid league systems?
5a79ed7f17ab25001a8a01ec
True
promoted to a higher division
489
What happens to the worst team at the end of the season?
5a79ed7f17ab25001a8a01ed
True
top few teams
468
Which teams are banned from competition?
5a79ed7f17ab25001a8a01ee
True
The governing bodies in each country operate league systems in a domestic season, normally comprising several divisions, in which the teams gain points throughout the season depending on results. Teams are placed into tables, placing them in order according to points accrued. Most commonly, each team plays every other team in its league at home and away in each season, in a round-robin tournament. At the end of a season, the top team is declared the champion. The top few teams may be promoted to a higher division, and one or more of the teams finishing at the bottom are relegated to a lower division.
What is one who replaces a player during a game called?
57305b548ab72b1400f9c4a2
substitutes
39
False
What is the maximum number of substitutions during most professional games?
57305b548ab72b1400f9c4a3
three
191
False
Who decides on who's rewarded points for abandoned games?
57305b548ab72b1400f9c4a4
individual football associations
706
False
substitutes
39
What is one who injures a player during a game called?
5a79e18717ab25001a8a0140
True
three
191
What is the minimum number of substitutions during most professional games?
5a79e18717ab25001a8a0141
True
individual football associations
706
Who decides on who's rewarded points for completed games?
5a79e18717ab25001a8a0142
True
players
12
Who can not be replaced during the course of the game?
5a79e18717ab25001a8a0143
True
A number of players may be replaced by substitutes during the course of the game. The maximum number of substitutions permitted in most competitive international and domestic league games is three, though the permitted number may vary in other competitions or in friendly matches. Common reasons for a substitution include injury, tiredness, ineffectiveness, a tactical switch, or timewasting at the end of a finely poised game. In standard adult matches, a player who has been substituted may not take further part in a match. IFAB recommends "that a match should not continue if there are fewer than seven players in either team." Any decision regarding points awarded for abandoned games is left to the individual football associations.
Georgian_architecture
Who were the British monarchs of the House of Hanover from August 1714 to June 1830?
57300bb704bcaa1900d7707d
George I, George II, George III, and George IV
217
False
What was the 19th century revival of Georgian architecture in the United States referred to as?
57300bb704bcaa1900d7707e
Colonial Revival
403
False
Between what years was Georgian architecture in style?
57300bb704bcaa1900d7707f
between 1714 and 1830
118
False
What was the name given to the 20th century Great British revival Georgian architecture.
57300bb704bcaa1900d77080
Neo-Georgian
483
False
What was the name of the house of the monarchs in power from 1714 and 1830?
57300bb704bcaa1900d77081
House of Hanover
200
False
Georgian architecture
0
What type of architecture was current before 1714?
5a134df7c8eab200188dc959
True
Colonial Revival
403
What was the name of the 20th centry revival in the United States?
5a134df7c8eab200188dc95a
True
Colonial Revival architecture
403
What was the name of the 19th century revival in Great Britian?
5a134df7c8eab200188dc95b
True
buildings that are "architectural in intention", and have stylistic characteristics that are typical of the period
720
What is the American term Georgian restricted to?
5a134df7c8eab200188dc95c
True
Georgian architecture is the name given in most English-speaking countries to the set of architectural styles current between 1714 and 1830. It is eponymous for the first four British monarchs of the House of Hanover—George I, George II, George III, and George IV—who reigned in continuous succession from August 1714 to June 1830. The style was revived in the late 19th century in the United States as Colonial Revival architecture and in the early 20th century in Great Britain as Neo-Georgian architecture; in both it is also called Georgian Revival architecture. In America the term "Georgian" is generally used to describe all building from the period, regardless of style; in Britain it is generally restricted to buildings that are "architectural in intention", and have stylistic characteristics that are typical of the period, though that covers a wide range.
What classical architecture is Georgian architecture based on?
57300eeb04bcaa1900d770cb
Greece and Rome
139
False
What type of architecture did Georgian replace?
57300eeb04bcaa1900d770cc
English vernacular architecture
477
False
Where is ornament typically not found in Georgian architecture?
57300eeb04bcaa1900d770cd
the exterior
325
False
symmetry and proportion
76
What does Georgian architecture have a distaste for?
5a136e9dc8eab200188dc961
True
exterior
329
Where is ornament typically found one Georgian architecture?
5a136e9dc8eab200188dc962
True
classical tradition
229
And what type of architecture is ornament normally not restrained?
5a136e9dc8eab200188dc963
True
smaller and more modest buildings
402
What type of building to do Georgian. Bring Renaissance architecture to?
5a136e9dc8eab200188dc964
True
The style of Georgian buildings is very variable, but marked by a taste for symmetry and proportion based on the classical architecture of Greece and Rome, as revived in Renaissance architecture. Ornament is also normally in the classical tradition, but typically rather restrained, and sometimes almost completely absent on the exterior. The period brought the vocabulary of classical architecture to smaller and more modest buildings than had been the case before, replacing English vernacular architecture (or becoming the new vernacular style) for almost all new middle-class homes and public buildings by the end of the period.
During the period of Georgian architecture what did landowners turn into?
5730106ab2c2fd14005687cd
property developers
75
False
Where do many buildings constructed during the period of Georgian architecture still exist today?
5730106ab2c2fd14005687ce
London, Edinburgh, Dublin and Bristol
599
False
What benefit convinced many wealthy people to move into town during this time?
5730106ab2c2fd14005687cf
a square of garden
237
False
What part of the world was mostly dominated by Georgian architecture?
5730106ab2c2fd14005687d0
all over the English-speaking world
335
False
What quality were the buildings constructed during that time?
5730106ab2c2fd14005687d1
generally high
411
False
property developers
75
Who did landowner sell to during the Georgian period?
5a1370b9c8eab200188dc969
True
Georgian
481
During what period did rows of unique terraced houses become the norm?
5a1370b9c8eab200188dc96a
True
rows of identical terraced houses
100
Where were the wealthy and poor persuaded to live?
5a1370b9c8eab200188dc96b
True
English-speaking world
348
In what part of the world was there moderate amount of building
5a1370b9c8eab200188dc96c
True
the standards of construction were generally high
376
Why did so few Georgian buildings survived for two centuries or more?
5a1370b9c8eab200188dc96d
True
In towns, which expanded greatly during the period, landowners turned into property developers, and rows of identical terraced houses became the norm. Even the wealthy were persuaded to live in these in town, especially if provided with a square of garden in front of the house. There was an enormous amount of building in the period, all over the English-speaking world, and the standards of construction were generally high. Where they have not been demolished, large numbers of Georgian buildings have survived two centuries or more, and they still form large parts of the core of cities such as London, Edinburgh, Dublin and Bristol.
What high sounding title was adopted by anyone who could get away with it?
573011ac947a6a140053d036
architect
128
False
How did most Georgian design styles disseminate?
573011ac947a6a140053d037
pattern books and inexpensive suites of engravings
393
False
How did styles disseminate before Georgian architecture?
573011ac947a6a140053d038
the apprenticeship system
565
False
Which American author received editions of Georgian architecture?
573011ac947a6a140053d039
William Halfpenny
621
False
What years were William Halfpenny active?
573011ac947a6a140053d03a
1723–1755
647
False
architect
128
What high sounding title was reserved for professionals before the mid-century??
5a1371e4c8eab200188dc973
True
mid-century
89
After what time did anybody you could get away with using the title architect do so?
5a1371e4c8eab200188dc974
True
buildings
199
What did landowners still design?
5a1371e4c8eab200188dc975
True
Georgian styles
319
What style of architecture disseminated through the new professional architecture?
5a1371e4c8eab200188dc976
True
mid-18th century
716
From what century on the architect's and craftsmen stop learning the Georgian style?
5a1371e4c8eab200188dc977
True
The period saw the growth of a distinct and trained architectural profession; before the mid-century "the high-sounding title, 'architect' was adopted by anyone who could get away with it". But most buildings were still designed by builders and landlords together, and the wide spread of Georgian architecture, and the Georgian styles of design more generally, came from dissemination through pattern books and inexpensive suites of engravings. This contrasted with earlier styles, which were primarily disseminated among craftsmen through the direct experience of the apprenticeship system. Authors such as the prolific William Halfpenny (active 1723–1755) received editions in America as well as Britain. From the mid-18th century, Georgian styles were assimilated into an architectural vernacular that became part and parcel of the training of every architect, designer, builder, carpenter, mason and plasterer, from Edinburgh to Maryland.
What style did Georgian succeed?
573012f504bcaa1900d7710d
English Baroque
23
False
Which architect was a transitional figure?
573012f504bcaa1900d7710e
James Gibbs
251
False
Which book did Colen Campbell write?
573012f504bcaa1900d7710f
Vitruvius Britannicus
544
False
What became very popular with wealthy patrons during this period?
573012f504bcaa1900d77110
The European Grand Tour
866
False
What Venetian spent most of his career in England?
573012f504bcaa1900d77111
Giacomo Leoni
692
False
English Baroque
23
What style succeeded Georgian?
5a1376b9c8eab200188dc97d
True
Venetian Giacomo
683
What was the name of the Venetian who is prominent in the early Georgian period?
5a1376b9c8eab200188dc97e
True
The European Grand Tour
866
What common tour was not popular among wealthy patrons?
5a1376b9c8eab200188dc97f
True
Vitruvius Britannicus
544
What book did Richard Boyle right?
5a1376b9c8eab200188dc980
True
England
739
What country continues to have a dominant influence?
5a1376b9c8eab200188dc981
True
Georgian succeeded the English Baroque of Sir Christopher Wren, Sir John Vanbrugh, Thomas Archer, William Talman, and Nicholas Hawksmoor; this in fact continued into at least the 1720s, overlapping with a more restrained Georgian style. The architect James Gibbs was a transitional figure, his earlier buildings are Baroque, reflecting the time he spent in Rome in the early 18th century, but he adjusted his style after 1720. Major architects to promote the change in direction from baroque were Colen Campbell, author of the influential book Vitruvius Britannicus (1715-1725); Richard Boyle, 3rd Earl of Burlington and his protégé William Kent; Isaac Ware; Henry Flitcroft and the Venetian Giacomo Leoni, who spent most of his career in England. Other prominent architects of the early Georgian period include James Paine, Robert Taylor, and John Wood, the Elder. The European Grand Tour became very common for wealthy patrons in the period, and Italian influence remained dominant, though at the start of the period Hanover Square, Westminster (1713 on), developed and occupied by Whig supporters of the new dynasty, seems to have deliberately adopted German stylisic elements in their honour, especially vertical bands connecting the windows.
What are the whimsical alternatives of Palladian architecture?
5730146f947a6a140053d07a
Gothic and Chinoiserie
159
False
Gothic and Chinoiserie were the English-speaking world's equivalent of what style?
5730146f947a6a140053d07b
European Rococo
237
False
John Nash was one of the most prolific architects of which style?
5730146f947a6a140053d07c
The Regency style
565
False
Who were two leading exponent of the Greek Revival style?
5730146f947a6a140053d07d
William Wilkins and Robert Smirke
782
False
Around what year was the Greek Revival added to the repertory?
5730146f947a6a140053d07e
around 1750
705
False
European Rococo
237
What style was the English-speaking world's equivalent of the Georgian style?
5a1378cec8eab200188dc987
True
Gothic and Chinoiserie
159
Palladian architecture is a whimsical alternative to what other two styles?
5a1378cec8eab200188dc988
True
Neoclassical modes
284
What modes were fashionable before the mid-1760s?
5a1378cec8eab200188dc989
True
The Regency style
565
What style of the early Georgian era was John Nash known for?
5a1378cec8eab200188dc98a
True
Greek Revival
640
What style architecture lost popularity after 1800?
5a1378cec8eab200188dc98b
True
The styles that resulted fall within several categories. In the mainstream of Georgian style were both Palladian architecture— and its whimsical alternatives, Gothic and Chinoiserie, which were the English-speaking world's equivalent of European Rococo. From the mid-1760s a range of Neoclassical modes were fashionable, associated with the British architects Robert Adam, James Gibbs, Sir William Chambers, James Wyatt, George Dance the Younger, Henry Holland and Sir John Soane. John Nash was one of the most prolific architects of the late Georgian era known as The Regency style, he was responsible for designing large areas of London. Greek Revival architecture was added to the repertory, beginning around 1750, but increasing in popularity after 1800. Leading exponents were William Wilkins and Robert Smirke.
Georgian architecture is characterized by?
5730154204bcaa1900d7714d
its proportion and balance
42
False
What was a desirable feature of Georgian town planning?
5730154204bcaa1900d7714e
Regularity of housefronts
530
False
What decorative vocabulary did Georgian designs draw from?
5730154204bcaa1900d7714f
ancient Rome or Greece
810
False
What was considered a deep flaw of Georgian architecture?
5730154204bcaa1900d77150
lack of symmetry
341
False
Georgian
0
What type of architecture was known for its asymmetry and balance?
5a1379ecc8eab200188dc991
True
Regularity of housefronts
530
What was an undesirable feature of Georgian town planning?
5a1379ecc8eab200188dc992
True
lack of symmetry
341
Why were Georgian additions where earlier structures remained visible so approved of?
5a1379ecc8eab200188dc993
True
Georgian designs
687
What type of designs laid in the classical orders after the Gothic revival?
5a1379ecc8eab200188dc994
True
mathematical ratios
77
What kind of ratios were used in Gothic revival architecture?
5a1379ecc8eab200188dc995
True
Georgian architecture is characterized by its proportion and balance; simple mathematical ratios were used to determine the height of a window in relation to its width or the shape of a room as a double cube. Regularity, as with ashlar (uniformly cut) stonework, was strongly approved, imbuing symmetry and adherence to classical rules: the lack of symmetry, where Georgian additions were added to earlier structures remaining visible, was deeply felt as a flaw, at least before Nash began to introduce it in a variety of styles. Regularity of housefronts along a street was a desirable feature of Georgian town planning. Until the start of the Gothic Revival in the early 19th century, Georgian designs usually lay within the Classical orders of architecture and employed a decorative vocabulary derived from ancient Rome or Greece.
What revived style dominated English country house architecture?
57301616947a6a140053d0aa
Palladian
20
False
What was done to make houses look more impressive from a distance?
57301616947a6a140053d0ab
made wide and relatively shallow
183
False
Where was the height generally highest in Palladian architecture?
57301616947a6a140053d0ac
the centre
300
False
Where were areas such as kitchens, offices, and service areas generally found?
57301616947a6a140053d0ad
basement area
543
False
What floor were the main receptions rooms generally located?
57301616947a6a140053d0ae
mezzanine floor
476
False
Palladian
20
What revised style dominated urban English architecture?
5a137e29c8eab200188dc99b
True
made wide and relatively shallow
183
What was done to make houses look more impressive from close-up?
5a137e29c8eab200188dc99c
True
the centre
300
Where was the height generally lowest in Palladian architecture?
5a137e29c8eab200188dc99d
True
an entrance hall
422
What led to steps going down to a mezzanine floor in grand houses?
5a137e29c8eab200188dc99e
True
the basement area or "rustic"
539
What area had high windows just below ground level?
5a137e29c8eab200188dc99f
True
Versions of revived Palladian architecture dominated English country house architecture. Houses were increasingly placed in grand landscaped settings, and large houses were generally made wide and relatively shallow, largely to look more impressive from a distance. The height was usually highest in the centre, and the Baroque emphasis on corner pavilions often found on the continent generally avoided. In grand houses, an entrance hall led to steps up to a piano nobile or mezzanine floor where the main reception rooms were. Typically the basement area or "rustic", with kitchens, offices and service areas, as well as male guests with muddy boots, came some way above ground, and was lit by windows that were high on the inside, but just above ground level outside. A single block was typical, with a perhaps a small court for carriages at the front marked off by railings and a gate, but rarely a stone gatehouse, or side wings around the court.
What tax was in force throughout the United Kingdom during this time?
573016e1a23a5019007fcd51
window tax
105
False
When was the sash window developed?
573016e1a23a5019007fcd52
the 1670s
546
False
What plans became universal inside larger houses?
573016e1a23a5019007fcd53
Corridor plans
581
False
What cannot be generally deduced from the outside?
573016e1a23a5019007fcd54
the internal plan and function of the rooms
389
False
What aspect of windows generally varied between floors?
573016e1a23a5019007fcd55
Their height
224
False
window tax
105
What tax was maximized by building large and regularly spaced windows
5a137f8bc8eab200188dc9a5
True
windows
186
What increasingly began above waist height in the main rooms?
5a137f8bc8eab200188dc9a6
True
internal plan and function of the rooms
393
Before this. What could generally be deduced from the outside
5a137f8bc8eab200188dc9a7
True
Corridor plans
581
What plans were not universal inside large houses?
5a137f8bc8eab200188dc9a8
True
sash window
512
What type of window was required before 1670?
5a137f8bc8eab200188dc9a9
True
Windows in all types of buildings were large and regularly placed on a grid; this was partly to minimize window tax, which was in force throughout the period in the United Kingdom. Some windows were subsequently bricked-in. Their height increasingly varied between the floors, and they increasingly began below waist-height in the main rooms, making a small balcony desirable. Before this the internal plan and function of the rooms can generally not be deduced from the outside. To open these large windows the sash window, already developed by the 1670s, became very widespread. Corridor plans became universal inside larger houses.
What was often used to hide functional parts of buildings?
573017ff947a6a140053d0c8
trees
174
False
What was occasionally visible in grander buildings?
573017ff947a6a140053d0c9
domes
373
False
What often topped pilasters of columns?
573017ff947a6a140053d0ca
pediment
559
False
What designs did ornament use to avoid using the human figure?
573017ff947a6a140053d0cb
geometrical or plant-based
644
False
What aspect of buildings became very rare?
573017ff947a6a140053d0cc
Internal courtyards
0
False
trees
174
What was often used too accentuate functional parts of buildings?
5a13828ec8eab200188dc9af
True
Internal courtyards
0
What type of courtyard became more popular at this time
5a13828ec8eab200188dc9b0
True
The roof
316
What was typically visible from the ground?
5a13828ec8eab200188dc9b1
True
Columns or pilasters,
519
What type of ornament was popular outside but not inside?
5a13828ec8eab200188dc9b2
True
ornament
621
What was the human figure often used for?
5a13828ec8eab200188dc9b3
True
Internal courtyards became more rare, except beside the stables, and the functional parts of the building were placed at the sides, or in separate buildings nearby hidden by trees. The views to and from the front and rear of the main block were concentrated on, with the side approaches usually much less important. The roof was typically invisible from the ground, though domes were sometimes visible in grander buildings. The roofline was generally clear of ornament except for a balustrade or the top of a pediment. Columns or pilasters, often topped by a pediment, were popular for ornament inside and out, and other ornament was generally geometrical or plant-based, rather than using the human figure.
Where could sometimes overwhelming ornament be found?
573018c0b2c2fd1400568859
Inside ornament
0
False
What was the typical main focus of rooms?
573018c0b2c2fd140056885a
chimneypiece
80
False
What type of ceilings became commonplace?
573018c0b2c2fd140056885b
Plasterwork ceilings
232
False
What fell out of favor during this time?
573018c0b2c2fd140056885c
Wood-panelling
424
False
Where was very expensive wallpaper imported from?
573018c0b2c2fd140056885d
China
562
False
overwhelming
62
What could overgenerous outside ornaments be sometimes?
5a1388bac8eab200188dc9b9
True
The chimneypiece
76
What became the new main focus of rooms?
5a1388bac8eab200188dc9ba
True
The chimneypiece
76
What was no longer topped with a painting or mirror?
5a1388bac8eab200188dc9bb
True
Plasterwork ceilings
232
What type of ceilings became rare?
5a1388bac8eab200188dc9bc
True
Wood-panelling
424
What type of wood paneling became very common after 1500?
5a1388bac8eab200188dc9bd
True
Inside ornament was far more generous, and could sometimes be overwhelming. The chimneypiece continued to be the usual main focus of rooms, and was now given a classical treatment, and increasingly topped by a painting or a mirror. Plasterwork ceilings, carved wood, and bold schemes of wallpaint formed a backdrop to increasingly rich collections of furniture, paintings, porcelain, mirrors, and objets d'art of all kinds. Wood-panelling, very common since about 1500, fell from favour around the mid-century, and wallpaper included very expensive imports from China.
Most town people lived in what type of houses?
5730199d04bcaa1900d7718f
terraced houses
46
False
What was used to protect the "area"?
5730199d04bcaa1900d77190
iron railings
195
False
Due to new entry styles what rooms were often moved down a floor?
5730199d04bcaa1900d77191
main reception rooms
460
False
terraced houses
46
What did most wealthy townspeople live in?
5a1389b6c8eab200188dc9c3
True
the main reception rooms
456
Due to the new entry style what rooms were moved up one floor?
5a1389b6c8eab200188dc9c4
True
servants and deliveries
302
What people were not allowed to use the discrete entrance to the area?
5a1389b6c8eab200188dc9c5
True
gardens or yards
627
What were put behind the house on the same level?
5a1389b6c8eab200188dc9c6
True
In towns even most better-off people lived in terraced houses, which typically opened straight onto the street, often with a few steps up to the door. There was often an open space, protected by iron railings, dropping down to the basement level, with a discreet entrance down steps off the street for servants and deliveries; this is known as the "area". This meant that the ground floor front was now removed and protected from the street and encouraged the main reception rooms to move there from the floor above. Where, as often, a new street or set of streets was developed, the road and pavements were raised up, and the gardens or yards behind the houses at a lower level, usually representing the original one.
What shape and size did most town terraced houses take on?
57301aed947a6a140053d100
tall and narrow
64
False
Well-off continental dwellings consisted of?
57301aed947a6a140053d101
wide apartments occupying only one or two floors of a building
232
False
What year did The Albany convert?
57301aed947a6a140053d102
1802
476
False
What was the only city where working class purpose built tenements common?
57301aed947a6a140053d103
Edinburgh
517
False
What was popular for terraces where there was enough space?
57301aed947a6a140053d104
A curving crescent
622
False
Town terraced houses
0
What kind of town houses were tall and wide?
5a13966cc8eab200188dc9cb
True
well-off continental dwellings
160
What type of dwellings formed wide apartments occupying whole buildings?
5a13966cc8eab200188dc9cc
True
curving crescent
624
What shape looking out over the street was popular for terraces?
5a13966cc8eab200188dc9cd
True
curving crescent
624
What was popular for terraces where space was lacking?
5a13966cc8eab200188dc9ce
True
Town terraced houses for all social classes remained resolutely tall and narrow, each dwelling occupying the whole height of the building. This contrasted with well-off continental dwellings, which had already begun to be formed of wide apartments occupying only one or two floors of a building; such arrangements were only typical in England when housing groups of batchelors, as in Oxbridge colleges, the lawyers in the Inns of Court or The Albany after it was converted in 1802. In the period in question, only in Edinburgh were working-class purpose-built tenements common, though lodgers were common in other cities. A curving crescent, often looking out at gardens or a park, was popular for terraces where space allowed. In early and central schemes of development, plots were sold and built on individually, though there was often an attempt to enforce some uniformity, but as development reached further out schemes were increasingly built as a uniform scheme and then sold.
What cities contest to being the original home of the semi?
57301c50a23a5019007fcd8b
Blackheath, Chalk Farm and St John's Wood
455
False
Who conferred primacy to the Eyre Estate of St John's Wood?
57301c50a23a5019007fcd8c
Sir John Summerson
565
False
A plan for a semi-detached houses was dated for what year?
57301c50a23a5019007fcd8d
1794
664
False
What put an end to the scheme of semi-detached houses?
57301c50a23a5019007fcd8e
the French Wars
816
False
Blackheath, Chalk Farm
455
Which city is agreed to be the first to have semi detached houses?
5a139a81c8eab200188dc9d3
True
detached "villas
164
What was this semi detached house modeled after?
5a139a81c8eab200188dc9d4
True
whole development consists of pairs of semi-detached houses,
681
What plans date back to the early 1700s?
5a139a81c8eab200188dc9d5
True
French Wars
820
What ward to disking become popular?
5a139a81c8eab200188dc9d6
True
the semi-detached house
42
What type of house was born in the early Georgian period?
5a139a81c8eab200188dc9d7
True
The late Georgian period saw the birth of the semi-detached house, planned systematically, as a suburban compromise between the terraced houses of the city and the detached "villas" further out, where land was cheaper. There had been occasional examples in town centres going back to medieval times. Most early suburban examples are large, and in what are now the outer fringes of Central London, but were then in areas being built up for the first time. Blackheath, Chalk Farm and St John's Wood are among the areas contesting being the original home of the semi. Sir John Summerson gave primacy to the Eyre Estate of St John's Wood. A plan for this exists dated 1794, where "the whole development consists of pairs of semi-detached houses, So far as I know, this is the first recorded scheme of the kind". In fact the French Wars put an end to this scheme, but when the development was finally built it retained the semi-detached form, "a revolution of striking significance and far-reaching effect".
What act spurred to building of new churches in Britain?
57301d42947a6a140053d128
Church Building Act of 1818
10
False
The later years of the period saw the demand for which places of worship increase?
57301d42947a6a140053d129
Non-conformist and Roman Catholic
186
False
What were Anglican churches internally designed for?
57301d42947a6a140053d12a
maximum audibility, and visibility
325
False
What were common in new churches?
57301d42947a6a140053d12b
Galleries
486
False
Churches filled up with monuments to what?
57301d42947a6a140053d12c
monuments to the prosperous
987
False
the Church Building Act of 1818
6
What act slowed the building of churches in Britain?
5a139e17c8eab200188dc9dd
True
churches
963
What were filled with monuments to God?
5a139e17c8eab200188dc9de
True
Non-conformist and Roman Catholic
186
What places of worship were in demand in the early years of this period?
5a139e17c8eab200188dc9df
True
Galleries
486
What was uncommon in the new churches?
5a139e17c8eab200188dc9e0
True
portico with columns and a pediment
854
What was used in front of the church when funds were limited?
5a139e17c8eab200188dc9e1
True
Until the Church Building Act of 1818, the period saw relatively few churches built in Britain, which was already well-supplied, although in the later years of the period the demand for Non-conformist and Roman Catholic places of worship greatly increased. Anglican churches that were built were designed internally to allow maximum audibility, and visibility, for preaching, so the main nave was generally wider and shorter than in medieval plans, and often there were no side-aisles. Galleries were common in new churches. Especially in country parishes, the external appearance generally retained the familiar signifiers of a Gothic church, with a tower or spire, a large west front with one or more doors, and very large windows along the nave, but all with any ornament drawn from the classical vocabulary. Where funds permitted, a classical temple portico with columns and a pediment might be used at the west front. Decoration inside was very limited, but churches filled up with monuments to the prosperous.
Somerset House was designed by whom?
57301e1604bcaa1900d771bb
Sir William Chambers
185
False
In what year was Somerset House designed?
57301e1604bcaa1900d771bc
1776
209
False
Commercial projects in the late period tended to be "architectural" in what way?
57301e1604bcaa1900d771bd
"architectural in intention"
604
False
What was considered a lesser class of designers?
57301e1604bcaa1900d771be
surveyors
695
False
Somerset House in London
147
What government building was finished in 1776?
5a13a6e6c8eab200188dc9e7
True
Barracks
326
All what types of prestigious buildings worse functional as mills and factories?
5a13a6e6c8eab200188dc9e8
True
architectural in intention
605
What do commercial projects early in them. Tend to be?
5a13a6e6c8eab200188dc9e9
True
Public buildings
0
What type of building like Renaissance palaces regardless of budget?
5a13a6e6c8eab200188dc9ea
True
Public buildings generally varied between the extremes of plain boxes with grid windows and Italian Late Renaissance palaces, depending on budget. Somerset House in London, designed by Sir William Chambers in 1776 for government offices, was as magnificent as any country house, though never quite finished, as funds ran out. Barracks and other less prestigious buildings could be as functional as the mills and factories that were growing increasingly large by the end of the period. But as the period came to an end many commercial projects were becoming sufficiently large, and well-funded, to become "architectural in intention", rather than having their design left to the lesser class of "surveyors".
American buildings in the Georgian period were frequently constructed of which materials?
57301ea404bcaa1900d771c3
wood with clapboards
168
False
What was difficult to obtain and transport during the Georgian period?
57301ea404bcaa1900d771c4
brick or stone
344
False
Which colleges are considered examples of Georgian architecture in America?
57301ea404bcaa1900d771c5
Dartmouth College, Harvard University, and the College of William and Mary
456
False
wood with clapboards
168
What material was rarely used for Georgian period American buildings?
5a13aadbc8eab200188dc9ef
True
brick or stone
344
What comment material was easy to transport in this period?
5a13aadbc8eab200188dc9f0
True
Georgian architecture
0
What type of architecture was sparsely scattered through the English colonies during the Georgian era
5a13aadbc8eab200188dc9f1
True
Georgian architecture was widely disseminated in the English colonies during the Georgian era. American buildings of the Georgian period were very often constructed of wood with clapboards; even columns were made of timber, framed up, and turned on an over-sized lathe. At the start of the period the difficulties of obtaining and transporting brick or stone made them a common alternative only in the larger cities, or where they were obtainable locally. Dartmouth College, Harvard University, and the College of William and Mary, offer leading examples of Georgian architecture in the Americas.
What style did was little represented in British colonies?
57301f78b2c2fd14005688d1
Baroque
11
False
Baroque style was mostly used for which buildings?
57301f78b2c2fd14005688d2
palaces and churches
69
False
What is considered to be the best remaining example of a house from the Georgian period and style?
57301f78b2c2fd14005688d3
Hammond-Harwood House
269
False
What year was the Hammond-Harwood House built?
57301f78b2c2fd14005688d4
1774
292
False
What building did William Buckland model the Hammon-Harwood House?
57301f78b2c2fd14005688d5
Villa Pisani at Montagnana, Italy
394
False
Baroque style
11
What style was widely represented in British colonies?
5a13abdbc8eab200188dc9f5
True
palaces
69
What other building besides churches were calmly done in the Georgian style
5a13abdbc8eab200188dc9f6
True
Hammond-Harwood House
269
What is considered to be the best remaining example of the Baroque style?
5a13abdbc8eab200188dc9f7
True
colonial architect William Buckland
338
Who built the Villa Pisani at Montagnana?
5a13abdbc8eab200188dc9f8
True
Unlike the Baroque style that it replaced, which was mostly used for palaces and churches, and had little representation in the British colonies, simpler Georgian styles were widely used by the upper and middle classes. Perhaps the best remaining house is the pristine Hammond-Harwood House (1774) in Annapolis, Maryland, designed by the colonial architect William Buckland and modelled on the Villa Pisani at Montagnana, Italy as depicted in Andrea Palladio's I quattro libri dell'architettura ("Four Books of Architecture").
What year did Georgian architecture begin to be abandoned?
57302099b2c2fd14005688e5
1840
12
False
What was the rivalry between Gothic Revival and Neoclassical referred to as?
57302099b2c2fd14005688e6
the Battle of the Styles
374
False
What style from the United States used many elements of Georgian style but with revolutionary symbols?
57302099b2c2fd14005688e7
Federalist Style
455
False
When was the Battle of the Styles contested?
57302099b2c2fd14005688e8
early Victorian period
406
False
1840
12
What year to Georgian architecture become even more popular?
5a13afa1c8eab200188dc9fd
True
Battle of the Styles
378
What was the rivalry between Gothic Revival and Classical called?
5a13afa1c8eab200188dc9fe
True
Federalist Style
455
What style had many elements of Gothic along with revolutionary symbols?
5a13afa1c8eab200188dc9ff
True
Gothic Revival
102
Georgian and what other style were known as revival?
5a13afa1c8eab200188dca00
True
After about 1840, Georgian conventions were slowly abandoned as a number of revival styles, including Gothic Revival, that had originated in the Georgian period, developed and contested in Victorian architecture, and in the case of Gothic became better researched, and closer to their originals. Neoclassical architecture remained popular, and was the opponent of Gothic in the Battle of the Styles of the early Victorian period. In the United States the Federalist Style contained many elements of Georgian style, but incorporated revolutionary symbols.
What was the revival of Georgian style in twentieth century United States called?
5730219bb2c2fd1400568901
Colonial Revival
188
False
Which Canadian group embraced Georgian architecture as a sign of fealty to Britain?
5730219bb2c2fd1400568902
United Empire Loyalists
220
False
What Toronto building was built in 1817?
5730219bb2c2fd1400568903
The Grange
412
False
What English born architect designed the Old Montreal Custom House?
5730219bb2c2fd1400568904
John Ostell
518
False
Colonial Revival.
188
What was the Georgian style cold in the colonies?
5a13b059c8eab200188dca05
True
Loyalists
234
Who embraced Georgian architecture as a sign of their British heritage
5a13b059c8eab200188dca06
True
Georgian architecture
253
What style was dominant in the country for the second half of the nineteenth century?
5a13b059c8eab200188dca07
True
The Grange
412
What manner was built in Montréal in 1870?
5a13b059c8eab200188dca08
True
1817
476
When did John Ostell build the Grange?
5a13b059c8eab200188dca09
True
In the early decades of the twentieth century when there was a growing nostalgia for its sense of order, the style was revived and adapted and in the United States came to be known as the Colonial Revival. In Canada the United Empire Loyalists embraced Georgian architecture as a sign of their fealty to Britain, and the Georgian style was dominant in the country for most of the first half of the 19th century. The Grange, for example, a manor built in Toronto, was built in 1817. In Montreal, English born architect John Ostell worked on a significant number of remarkable constructions in the Georgian style such as the Old Montreal Custom House and the Grand séminaire de Montréal.
The British revival of Georgian architecture in the 20th century is generally referred to as?
5730229d04bcaa1900d771f9
Neo-Georgian
114
False
Neo-Georgain style was common in Britain until the end of which decade?
5730229d04bcaa1900d771fa
1950s
298
False
Which police headquarters was constructed in 1958?
5730229d04bcaa1900d771fb
Bradshaw Gass & Hope's Police Headquarters
305
False
Which architects in the US and Britain still employ the Georgian style for private residences?
5730229d04bcaa1900d771fc
Quinlan Terry Julian Bicknell and Fairfax and Sammons
484
False
Neo-Georgian
114
The US revival of Georgian architecture is referred to as was
5a13b0fec8eab200188dca0f
True
Britain
235
Where was neo-Georgian style common after the 1950s?
5a13b0fec8eab200188dca10
True
Bradshaw Gass & Hope's Police Headquarters in Salford
305
What police headquarters was built in 1950?
5a13b0fec8eab200188dca11
True
Quinlan Terry Julian Bicknell and Fairfax and Sammons
484
Who still uses the Georgian style for public buildings?
5a13b0fec8eab200188dca12
True
The revived Georgian style that emerged in Britain at the beginning of the 20th century is usually referred to as Neo-Georgian; the work of Edwin Lutyens includes many examples. Versions of the Neo-Georgian style were commonly used in Britain for certain types of urban architecture until the late 1950s, Bradshaw Gass & Hope's Police Headquarters in Salford of 1958 being a good example. In both the United States and Britain, the Georgian style is still employed by architects like Quinlan Terry Julian Bicknell and Fairfax and Sammons for private residences.
Liberia
How did the republic of liberia begin?
5730115eb2c2fd14005687e1
as a settlement of the American Colonization Society (ACS)
35
False
When did the Republic of Liberia declare it's independence?
5730115eb2c2fd14005687e2
July 26, 1847
124
False
When did the united states recognize the republic of Liberia's independence?
5730115eb2c2fd14005687e3
February 5, 1862. Between January 7, 182
237
False
How many slaves were freed in the american civil war?
5730115eb2c2fd14005687e4
more than 15,000
307
False
What was the Liberian flag and constitution modeled after?
5730115eb2c2fd14005687e5
the United States
560
False
The Republic of Liberia
0
What is the oldest country in Africa?
5a629d06f8d794001af1c15c
True
February 5, 1862
237
When did the American Civil War end?
5a629d06f8d794001af1c15d
True
15,000
317
How many Liberians fled to the United States during the Civil War?
5a629d06f8d794001af1c15e
True
Joseph Jenkins Roberts
598
Who led a coup to overthrow the Liberian government in 1948?
5a629d06f8d794001af1c15f
True
United States
564
What country did Liberia gain independence from?
5a629d06f8d794001af1c160
True
The Republic of Liberia, beginning as a settlement of the American Colonization Society (ACS), declared its independence on July 26, 1847. The United States did not recognize Liberia's independence until during the American Civil War on February 5, 1862. Between January 7, 1822 and the American Civil War, more than 15,000 freed and free-born Black Americans from United States and 3,198 Afro-Caribbeans relocated to the settlement. The Black American settlers carried their culture with them to Liberia. The Liberian constitution and flag were modeled after the United States. In January 3, 1848 Joseph Jenkins Roberts, a wealthy free-born Black American from Virginia who settled in Liberia, was elected as Liberia's first president after the people proclaimed independence.
How long did william tubman rule?
57301295b2c2fd14005687ff
27 year
41
False
In what year did a military coupe overthrow leadership leading to william tubmans death?
57301295b2c2fd1400568800
1980
103
False
How long was the rule of the peoples redemption council?
57301295b2c2fd1400568801
five years
275
False
How long was the rule of the national democratic party?
57301295b2c2fd1400568802
five years
275
False
What did the liberian civil war result in?
57301295b2c2fd1400568803
the deaths and displacement of more than half a million people and devastated Liberia's economy.
424
False
27
41
How old did William Tubman live to be?
5a629b57f8d794001af1c152
True
more than half a million people
455
How many people live in the capitol of Liberia?
5a629b57f8d794001af1c153
True
2003
542
When were the first democratic elections held in Liberia?
5a629b57f8d794001af1c154
True
National Democratic Party of Liberia
310
What started the First Liberian Civil War?
5a629b57f8d794001af1c155
True
85%
612
What percentage of Liberians live in poverty?
5a629b57f8d794001af1c156
True
Longstanding political tensions from the 27 year rule of William Tubman resulted in a military coup in 1980 that overthrew the leadership soon after his death, marking the beginning of political instability. Five years of military rule by the People's Redemption Council and five years of civilian rule by the National Democratic Party of Liberia were followed by the First and Second Liberian Civil Wars. These resulted in the deaths and displacement of more than half a million people and devastated Liberia's economy. A peace agreement in 2003 led to democratic elections in 2005. Recovery proceeds but about 85% of the population live below the international poverty line.
What empire was o the decline on 1375?
57301409a23a5019007fcd13
Western Sudanic Mali Empire
49
False
What happened when regions underwent desertification?
57301409a23a5019007fcd14
inhabitants moved to the wetter coast
176
False
Where did the people of the Mali empire immigrate to?
57301409a23a5019007fcd15
the Grand Cape Mount region.
512
False
Who opposed the influx of vai forming an alliance with maine?
57301409a23a5019007fcd16
The ethnic Kru
541
False
1375
80
When did the Western Sudanic Mali Empire begin?
5a629fa4f8d794001af1c166
True
1591
111
When did the Songhai Empire Begin?
5a629fa4f8d794001af1c167
True
the Mane
424
Who conquered Mongolia?
5a629fa4f8d794001af1c168
True
The ethnic Kru
541
What group wanted to extend the influence of the Vai?
5a629fa4f8d794001af1c169
True
cotton spinning, cloth weaving, iron smelting, rice and sorghum cultivation, and social and political institutions
260
What skills were the Yun Song Empire known for?
5a629fa4f8d794001af1c16a
True
This influx was compounded by the decline of the Western Sudanic Mali Empire in 1375 and the Songhai Empire in 1591. Additionally, as inland regions underwent desertification, inhabitants moved to the wetter coast. These new inhabitants brought skills such as cotton spinning, cloth weaving, iron smelting, rice and sorghum cultivation, and social and political institutions from the Mali and Songhai empires. Shortly after the Mane conquered the region, the Vai people of the former Mali Empire immigrated into the Grand Cape Mount region. The ethnic Kru opposed the influx of Vai, forming an alliance with the Mane to stop further influx of Vai.[citation needed]
What is "the american colonization society"?
57301558947a6a140053d098
a movement to resettle American free blacks and freed slaves in Africa.
32
False
When was the "american colonization society founded"?
57301558947a6a140053d099
1816
153
False
The "american colonization society" consisted mostly of whom"
57301558947a6a140053d09a
people who supported abolition of slavery
290
False
What did slave holders want to do?
57301558947a6a140053d09b
to get free people of color out of the South
353
False
rather than emigrate African Americans wanted to do what?
57301558947a6a140053d09c
improve conditions in the United States
738
False
The American Colonization Society
104
What group colonized Central America?
5a62a317f8d794001af1c17a
True
Washington, DC
161
What city helped enfranchise former slaves?
5a62a317f8d794001af1c17b
True
believed they would never be accepted in the larger society
608
How did many African Americans feel after the abolition of slavery?
5a62a317f8d794001af1c17c
True
Most African Americans
669
Who preferred to live in the North?
5a62a317f8d794001af1c17d
True
to get free people of color out of the South
353
What did leading activists in the North want to do?
5a62a317f8d794001af1c17e
True
In the United States, there was a movement to resettle American free blacks and freed slaves in Africa. The American Colonization Society was founded in 1816 in Washington, DC for this purpose, by a group of prominent politicians and slaveholders. But its membership grew to include mostly people who supported abolition of slavery. Slaveholders wanted to get free people of color out of the South, where they were thought to threaten the stability of the slave societies. Some abolitionists collaborated on relocation of free blacks, as they were discouraged by discrimination against them in the North and believed they would never be accepted in the larger society. Most African Americans, who were native-born by this time, wanted to improve conditions in the United States rather than emigrate. Leading activists in the North strongly opposed the ACS, but some free blacks were ready to try a different environment.
African  Americans were sent to the pepper coast to do what?
573018a5947a6a140053d0da
establish a colony for freed African Americans.
108
False
By 1837 the ACS had assisted in moving how many african americans to liberia?
573018a5947a6a140053d0db
13,000
245
False
What did African Americans who were moved to Liberia identify as?
573018a5947a6a140053d0dc
Americo-Liberians
388
False
Who did Americo-Liberians not identify with?
573018a5947a6a140053d0dd
indigenous natives of the tribes they encountered
496
False
What did African Americans moved to Liberia keep from America?
573018a5947a6a140053d0de
cultural tradition
642
False
1822
3
In what year did volunteers leave the Pepper Coast?
5a62a550f8d794001af1c184
True
the American Colonization Society
9
What organization was formed by Americo-Liberians?
5a62a550f8d794001af1c185
True
13,000
245
How many African Americans migrated to Liberia in 1867?
5a62a550f8d794001af1c186
True
cultural tradition
642
What did African Americans moved to Liberia keep secret from the ACS?
5a62a550f8d794001af1c187
True
Americo-Liberians
388
What were natives of the Pepper Coast called?
5a62a550f8d794001af1c188
True
In 1822, the American Colonization Society began sending African-American volunteers to the Pepper Coast to establish a colony for freed African Americans. By 1867, the ACS (and state-related chapters) had assisted in the migration of more than 13,000 African Americans to Liberia. These free African Americans and their descendants married within their community and came to identify as Americo-Liberians. Many were of mixed race and educated in American culture; they did not identify with the indigenous natives of the tribes they encountered. They intermarried largely within the colonial community, developing an ethnic group that had a cultural tradition infused with American notions of political republicanism and Protestant Christianity.
The americo-liberians did not identify with who?
57301a88b2c2fd1400568875
indigenous peoples they encountered,
56
False
What were americo-liberians encounters like with tribal Africans"
57301a88b2c2fd1400568876
violent confrontations.
285
False
Who raided the colonial settlements?
57301a88b2c2fd1400568877
the Kru and Grebo people from their inland chiefdoms.
349
False
What did Americo-liberians exclude tribes from?
57301a88b2c2fd1400568878
citizenship in their own lands
638
False
Americo-Liberians set up missions and schools to do what?
57301a88b2c2fd1400568879
to educate the indigenous peoples.
1024
False
indigenous peoples they encountered
56
Who did the Americo-Liberian settlers raid?
5a62a75ff8d794001af1c18e
True
Kru and Grebo people
353
What groups killed the Americo-Liberian children?
5a62a75ff8d794001af1c18f
True
a western-style state to which the tribesmen should assimilate
889
What did the indigenous peoples envision creating?
5a62a75ff8d794001af1c190
True
educate the indigenous peoples
1027
The indigenous tribesmen set up missions and schools to do what?
5a62a75ff8d794001af1c191
True
1904
675
In what year were indigenous tribesmen allowed to become Liberian citizens?
5a62a75ff8d794001af1c192
True
The Americo-Liberian settlers did not identify with the indigenous peoples they encountered, especially those in communities of the more isolated "bush." They knew nothing of their cultures, languages or animist religion. Encounters with tribal Africans in the bush often developed as violent confrontations. The colonial settlements were raided by the Kru and Grebo people from their inland chiefdoms. Because of feeling set apart and superior by their culture and education to the indigenous peoples, the Americo-Liberians developed as a small elite that held on to political power. It excluded the indigenous tribesmen from birthright citizenship in their own lands until 1904, in a repetition of the United States' treatment of Native Americans. Because of the cultural gap between the groups and assumption of superiority of western culture, the Americo-Liberians envisioned creating a western-style state to which the tribesmen should assimilate. They encouraged religious organizations to set up missions and schools to educate the indigenous peoples.
Who was responsible for the death of William R. Tolbert?
57301c4fb2c2fd140056888f
a military coup led by Master Sergeant Samuel Doe of the Krahn ethnic group
19
False
On what date was William R. Tolbert killed?
57301c4fb2c2fd1400568890
April 12, 1980
3
False
Who was also executed on the day of William R. Tolbert's death?
57301c4fb2c2fd1400568891
majority of Tolbert's cabinet and other Americo-Liberian government officials and True Whig Party members.
195
False
The coup leaders later became known as?
57301c4fb2c2fd1400568892
the People's Redemption Council
326
False
What was the PRC criticized for ?
57301c4fb2c2fd1400568893
corruption and political repression
528
False
Master Sergeant Samuel Doe
42
Who led a military coup that killed the American ambassador?
5a62a976f8d794001af1c198
True
April 12, 1980
3
On what date did Master Sergeant Samuel Doe become president?
5a62a976f8d794001af1c199
True
a majority of Tolbert's cabinet and other Americo-Liberian government officials and True Whig Party members
193
Who tried to stop President Tolbert's assasination?
5a62a976f8d794001af1c19a
True
corruption and political repression
528
What did the United States criticize the PRC for?
5a62a976f8d794001af1c19b
True
the People's Redemption Council (PRC)
326
Who provided financial backing to the United States?
5a62a976f8d794001af1c19c
True
On April 12, 1980, a military coup led by Master Sergeant Samuel Doe of the Krahn ethnic group overthrew and killed President William R. Tolbert, Jr.. Doe and the other plotters later executed a majority of Tolbert's cabinet and other Americo-Liberian government officials and True Whig Party members. The coup leaders formed the People's Redemption Council (PRC) to govern the country. A strategic Cold War ally of the West, Doe received significant financial backing from the United States while critics condemned the PRC for corruption and political repression.
What eventually happened to the rebels?
57301d82b2c2fd14005688b3
split into various factions fighting one another.
16
False
Who intervened in the rebel crisis?
57301d82b2c2fd14005688b4
The Economic Community Monitoring Group under the Economic Community of West African States
66
False
What did the economic community monitoring group do to intervene in the crisis?
57301d82b2c2fd14005688b5
organized a military task force
158
False
During what period did the African civil war last?
57301d82b2c2fd14005688b6
1989 to 1996
223
False
How many liberians died in the civil war?
57301d82b2c2fd14005688b7
200,000
313
False
split into various factions fighting one another
16
What did the Economic Community Monitorig Group cause the rebels to do?
5a62ac2bf8d794001af1c1a2
True
1989
223
In what year did rebels kill 200,000 refugees?
5a62ac2bf8d794001af1c1a3
True
Taylor
477
Who was the leader of the Economic Community Monitoring Group?
5a62ac2bf8d794001af1c1a4
True
organized a military task force
158
What did Taylor do to intervene in the crisis?
5a62ac2bf8d794001af1c1a5
True
a million
346
How many refugees were sent home after a the crisis?
5a62ac2bf8d794001af1c1a6
True
The rebels soon split into various factions fighting one another. The Economic Community Monitoring Group under the Economic Community of West African States organized a military task force to intervene in the crisis. From 1989 to 1996 one of Africa's bloodiest civil wars ensued, claiming the lives of more than 200,000 Liberians and displacing a million others into refugee camps in neighboring countries. A peace deal between warring parties was reached in 1995, leading to Taylor's election as president in 1997.
What is "Movement For democracy in Liberia"?
57301f0704bcaa1900d771c9
a second rebel group,
15
False
Movement For democracy in Liberia launched attacks against who?
57301f0704bcaa1900d771ca
Taylor
104
False
where did peace talks begin between Movement For democracy in Liberia and Taylor?
57301f0704bcaa1900d771cb
Accra in June of that year
173
False
Why was Taylor indicted by a special court ?
57301f0704bcaa1900d771cc
for crimes against humanity
263
False
Who did the rebels launch an assault on in July, 2003?
57301f0704bcaa1900d771cd
Monrovia.
360
False
March 2003
3
When did the Movement for Democracy in Liberia begin launching attacks against Taylor from the Southwest?
5a62afaff8d794001af1c1ac
True
June of that year
182
When did peace talks between factions begin in Nigeria?
5a62afaff8d794001af1c1ad
True
Taylor
205
Who was indicted by the Women of Liberia Mass Action for Peace Movement?
5a62afaff8d794001af1c1ae
True
July 2003
311
When did the rebels surrender Monrovia?
5a62afaff8d794001af1c1af
True
August 2003
509
When did Taylor go into exile in Accra?
5a62afaff8d794001af1c1b0
True
In March 2003, a second rebel group, Movement for Democracy in Liberia, began launching attacks against Taylor from the southeast. Peace talks between the factions began in Accra in June of that year, and Taylor was indicted by the Special Court for Sierra Leone for crimes against humanity that same month. By July 2003, the rebels had launched an assault on Monrovia. Under heavy pressure from the international community and the domestic Women of Liberia Mass Action for Peace movement, Taylor resigned in August 2003 and went into exile in Nigeria.
The 2005 elections were known as what?
573020b2947a6a140053d156
the most free and fair in Liberian history
63
False
Who is ellen johnson sirleaf?
573020b2947a6a140053d157
a Harvard-trained economist and former Minister of Finance
130
False
Who was elected the first female president of Africa?
573020b2947a6a140053d158
Ellen Johnson Sirleaf
107
False
Movement For democracy in Liberia requested the extradition of whom"
573020b2947a6a140053d159
Taylor from Nigeria
303
False
What was created to address the causes of civil war?
573020b2947a6a140053d15a
Truth and Reconciliation Commission
417
False
The subsequent 2005 elections
0
What elections saw the defeat of Sirleaf?
5a62b160f8d794001af1c1b6
True
2006
382
In what year was Taylor extradited from Nigeria?
5a62b160f8d794001af1c1b7
True
Ellen Johnson Sirleaf
107
Who was the first non-African president in Africa?
5a62b160f8d794001af1c1b8
True
Truth and Reconciliation Commission
417
What was created to address the inauguration of Sirleaf?
5a62b160f8d794001af1c1b9
True
Taylor
303
Who was transferred from The Hague for trial in the NIgeria?
5a62b160f8d794001af1c1ba
True
The subsequent 2005 elections were internationally regarded as the most free and fair in Liberian history. Ellen Johnson Sirleaf, a Harvard-trained economist and former Minister of Finance, was elected as the first female president in Africa. Upon her inauguration, Sirleaf requested the extradition of Taylor from Nigeria and transferred him to the SCSL for trial in The Hague. In 2006, the government established a Truth and Reconciliation Commission to address the causes and crimes of the civil war.
How many counties is liberia divided into?
573021a304bcaa1900d771e7
fifteen
24
False
How many districts are the 15 counties of liberia divided into?
573021a304bcaa1900d771e8
90
89
False
What is the oldest county in liberia?
573021a304bcaa1900d771e9
Grand Bassa
161
False
When was Grand Bassa founded?
573021a304bcaa1900d771ea
1839
206
False
What is Liberia's newest county?
573021a304bcaa1900d771eb
Gbarpolu
243
False
90
89
How many clans is Liberia divided into?
5a62b298f8d794001af1c1c0
True
1839
206
In what year was Liberia liberated from Nimba?
5a62b298f8d794001af1c1c1
True
Gbarpolu
243
What county became the capitol in 2001?
5a62b298f8d794001af1c1c2
True
Montserrado
371
What county was shown to be the most populous in the 2006 census?
5a62b298f8d794001af1c1c3
True
Grand Bassa and Montserrado
161
What counties were the first to be founded after Liberian independence?
5a62b298f8d794001af1c1c4
True
Liberia is divided into fifteen counties, which, in turn, are subdivided into a total of 90 districts and further subdivided into clans. The oldest counties are Grand Bassa and Montserrado, both founded in 1839 prior to Liberian independence. Gbarpolu is the newest county, created in 2001. Nimba is the largest of the counties in size at 11,551 km2 (4,460 sq mi), while Montserrado is the smallest at 1,909 km2 (737 sq mi). Montserrado is also the most populous county with 1,144,806 residents as of the 2008 census.
What is the legislature composed of?
573022c004bcaa1900d77201
the Senate and the House of Representatives
31
False
Who is the house led by?
573022c004bcaa1900d77202
a speaker
94
False
How many members are in a house?
573022c004bcaa1900d77203
73
109
False
What are the 73 members of the house are appropriated among?
573022c004bcaa1900d77204
the 15 counties on the basis of the national census
138
False
What is the senate made up of?
573022c004bcaa1900d77205
two senators from each county for a total of 30 senators.
472
False
two members
231
What is the minimum number of members in a Legislature session?
5a62b4eaf8d794001af1c1ca
True
a plurality of the popular vote of their district
375
What is a speaker elected by?
5a62b4eaf8d794001af1c1cb
True
The vice president
622
Who serves also serves as the speaker?
5a62b4eaf8d794001af1c1cc
True
a President pro tempore
685
Who takes the place of the speaker when he or she is absent?
5a62b4eaf8d794001af1c1cd
True
15
142
How many members are in a county?
5a62b4eaf8d794001af1c1ce
True
The Legislature is composed of the Senate and the House of Representatives. The House, led by a speaker, has 73 members apportioned among the 15 counties on the basis of the national census, with each county receiving a minimum of two members. Each House member represents an electoral district within a county as drawn by the National Elections Commission and is elected by a plurality of the popular vote of their district into a six-year term. The Senate is made up of two senators from each county for a total of 30 senators. Senators serve nine-year terms and are elected at-large by a plurality of the popular vote. The vice president serves as the President of the Senate, with a President pro tempore serving in their absence.
What is Liberia's highest judicial authority?
5730242f947a6a140053d17e
Supreme Court
44
False
How many members are in the Supreme court?
5730242f947a6a140053d17f
five
70
False
Who is the head of the supreme court?
5730242f947a6a140053d180
the Chief Justice of Liberia
97
False
How are members chosen for the court?
5730242f947a6a140053d181
Members are nominated to the court by the president and are confirmed by the Senate
127
False
How long do members of the supreme court serve?
5730242f947a6a140053d182
until the age of 70
220
False
Supreme Court
44
What is the highest judicial authority in Anglo-America?
5a62b6eff8d794001af1c1d4
True
The judicial system
355
What is a blend of common law and supreme law?
5a62b6eff8d794001af1c1d5
True
within the rural areas of the country
503
Where does customary law still exist?
5a62b6eff8d794001af1c1d6
True
five members
70
How many members is the magistrate court made up of?
5a62b6eff8d794001af1c1d7
True
70
237
To what age are Senators guaranteed salary?
5a62b6eff8d794001af1c1d8
True
Liberia's highest judicial authority is the Supreme Court, made up of five members and headed by the Chief Justice of Liberia. Members are nominated to the court by the president and are confirmed by the Senate, serving until the age of 70. The judiciary is further divided into circuit and speciality courts, magistrate courts and justices of the peace. The judicial system is a blend of common law, based on Anglo-American law, and customary law. An informal system of traditional courts still exists within the rural areas of the country, with trial by ordeal remaining common despite being officially outlawed.
What was liberia's score on the 2010 Corruption Perceptions index?
573026f5b2c2fd1400568977
3.3
17
False
What was Liberia's ranking compared to the other 176 countries?
573026f5b2c2fd1400568978
87th
142
False
What did Liberia's score  and ranking  on the 2010 Corruption Perceptions index represent?
573026f5b2c2fd1400568979
a significant improvement since 2007
235
False
What was Liberia's score and rank on the 2007 Corruption Perceptions index?
573026f5b2c2fd140056897a
scored 2.1 and ranked 150th of 180 countries
290
False
In 2007, when seeking attention, selection or service . What percent of Liberians had to pay a bribe?
573026f5b2c2fd140056897b
89%
418
False
2007
267
When was the Corruption Perceptions Index implemented?
5a62b8ccf8d794001af1c1de
True
150th of 180 countries
312
What rank is does Liberia come in for gender equality?
5a62b8ccf8d794001af1c1df
True
3.3
17
What did Liberia score on the 2011 Corruption Perceptions Index?
5a62b8ccf8d794001af1c1e0
True
89%
418
What percentage of Liberians are from Sub-Saharan Africa?
5a62b8ccf8d794001af1c1e1
True
2007
267
I what year did Liberia score a 1.9 on the Corruption Perceptions Index?
5a62b8ccf8d794001af1c1e2
True
Liberia scored a 3.3 on a scale from 10 (highly clean) to 0 (highly corrupt) on the 2010 Corruption Perceptions Index. This gave it a ranking 87th of 178 countries worldwide and 11th of 47 in Sub-Saharan Africa. This score represented a significant improvement since 2007, when the country scored 2.1 and ranked 150th of 180 countries. When seeking attention of a selection of service[clarification needed] providers, 89% of Liberians had to pay a bribe, the highest national percentage in the world according to the organization's 2010 Global Corruption Barometer.
What is the central bank of Liberia responsible for?
57302834a23a5019007fcea7
printing and maintaining the Liberian dollar
47
False
What is Liberia considered around the world economically?
57302834a23a5019007fcea8
one of the world's poorest countries
154
False
What is Liberia's employment rate?
57302834a23a5019007fcea9
15%
225
False
The GDP peaked in 1980 at what amount?
57302834a23a5019007fceaa
US$496
263
False
What does Liberia's economy heavily depends on?
57302834a23a5019007fceab
foreign aid
513
False
The Central Bank of Liberia
0
What is responsible for printing $1.154 billion Liberian dollars each year?
5a62ba07f8d794001af1c1e8
True
15%
225
What is Liberia's rate of isolation?
5a62ba07f8d794001af1c1e9
True
foreign aid
513
What has The Central Bank of Liberia depended heavily on historically?
5a62ba07f8d794001af1c1ea
True
1980
255
In what year was the Liberian dollar equal to 496 US dollars?
5a62ba07f8d794001af1c1eb
True
US$297
415
What was the GDP per capita of Liberia in 2012?
5a62ba07f8d794001af1c1ec
True
The Central Bank of Liberia is responsible for printing and maintaining the Liberian dollar, which is the primary form of currency in Liberia. Liberia is one of the world's poorest countries, with a formal employment rate of 15%. GDP per capita peaked in 1980 at US$496, when it was comparable to Egypt's (at the time). In 2011, the country's nominal GDP was US$1.154 billion, while nominal GDP per capita stood at US$297, the third-lowest in the world. Historically, the Liberian economy has depended heavily on foreign aid, foreign direct investment and exports of natural resources such as iron ore, rubber and timber.
When did the Liberian economy hit it's peak growth?
573029e904bcaa1900d77291
1979
30
False
Why did the Liberian economy decline after 1980?
573029e904bcaa1900d77292
economic mismanagement following the 1980 coup.
87
False
By what percentage did Liberia's GDP reduced by during the civil war?
573029e904bcaa1900d77293
90%
234
False
Why was Liberia's GDP growth stalled in 2007?
573029e904bcaa1900d77294
The global financial crisis
389
False
In 2011 Liberia's economy was considered what?
573029e904bcaa1900d77295
one of the 20 fastest growing in the world.
610
False
1979
30
When did the Liberian economy reach peak timber exports?
5a62bc3bf8d794001af1c1f2
True
The global financial crisis
389
Why was Liberia's GDP growth stalled prior to 2007?
5a62bc3bf8d794001af1c1f3
True
one of the 20 fastest growing in the world
610
In 2011 Liberia's exports were considered what?
5a62bc3bf8d794001af1c1f4
True
between 1989 and 1995
238
When was the GDP reduced by 95%?
5a62bc3bf8d794001af1c1f5
True
2010
556
In what year did GDP growth reach 5.1%?
5a62bc3bf8d794001af1c1f6
True
Following a peak in growth in 1979, the Liberian economy began a steady decline due to economic mismanagement following the 1980 coup. This decline was accelerated by the outbreak of civil war in 1989; GDP was reduced by an estimated 90% between 1989 and 1995, one of the fastest declines in history. Upon the end of the war in 2003, GDP growth began to accelerate, reaching 9.4% in 2007. The global financial crisis slowed GDP growth to 4.6% in 2009, though a strengthening agricultural sector led by rubber and timber exports increased growth to 5.1% in 2010 and an expected 7.3% in 2011, making the economy one of the 20 fastest growing in the world.
What were UN sanctions place placed on 2003?
57302bbda23a5019007fcee3
Liberian timber exports
48
False
Why were sanctions place on Liberian timber exports?
57302bbda23a5019007fcee4
were believed to be funding rebels in Sierra Leone.
150
False
When were the timber export sanctions lifted for Liberia?
57302bbda23a5019007fcee5
in 2006
230
False
Liberia's account deficit peaked at what percentage in 2008?
57302bbda23a5019007fcee6
60%
390
False
When was Liberia was granted observer status with the world trade organization>
57302bbda23a5019007fcee7
2010
471
False
2003
3
In what year did UN sanctions prohibit membership in the World Trade Organization?
5a62be8af8d794001af1c1fc
True
1997
110
In what year were rubber exports US$5 million
5a62be8af8d794001af1c1fd
True
peaked at nearly 60% in 2008
373
What happened to Liberia's large export deficit?
5a62be8af8d794001af1c1fe
True
2006
233
In what year were World Trade Organization sanctions lifted?
5a62be8af8d794001af1c1ff
True
Liberia maintains a large account deficit
324
What was due in large part to foreign rebels in Sierra Leone?
5a62be8af8d794001af1c200
True
In 2003, additional UN sanctions were placed on Liberian timber exports, which had risen from US$5 million in 1997 to over US$100 million in 2002 and were believed to be funding rebels in Sierra Leone. These sanctions were lifted in 2006. Due in large part to foreign aid and investment inflow following the end of the war, Liberia maintains a large account deficit, which peaked at nearly 60% in 2008. Liberia gained observer status with the World Trade Organization in 2010 and is in the process of acquiring full member status.
Liberia has the highest ratio of what?
57302cecb2c2fd14005689e5
of foreign direct investment to GDP in the world
30
False
How much money has the US invested in Liberia since 2006?
57302cecb2c2fd14005689e6
16 billion
88
False
What agreement did Liberia sign n 2006?
57302cecb2c2fd14005689e7
several multibillion-dollar concession agreements
206
False
How long has Firestone tire and rubber company ran a rubber plantation in Liberia?
57302cecb2c2fd14005689e8
since 1926
722
False
2006
119
In what year did Liberia invest US$16billion in foreign markets?
5a62c07df8d794001af1c206
True
iron ore and palm oil industries
263
What industries grew under the Sirleaf Administration?
5a62c07df8d794001af1c207
True
The Firestone Tire and Rubber Company
622
Who operated the world's first rubber plantation in Liberia since 1926?
5a62c07df8d794001af1c208
True
several multibillion-dollar concession agreements
206
What agreement did foreign investors sign in 2006?
5a62c07df8d794001af1c209
True
of foreign direct investment to GDP in the world
30
Liberia has the lowest ratio of what?
5a62c07df8d794001af1c20a
True
Liberia has the highest ratio of foreign direct investment to GDP in the world, with US$16 billion in investment since 2006. Following the inauguration of the Sirleaf administration in 2006, Liberia signed several multibillion-dollar concession agreements in the iron ore and palm oil industries with numerous multinational corporations, including BHP Billiton, ArcelorMittal, and Sime Darby. Especially palm oil companies like Sime Darby (Malaysia) and Golden Veroleum (USA) are being accused by critics of the destruction of livelihoods and the displacement of local communities, enabled through government concessions. The Firestone Tire and Rubber Company has operated the world's largest rubber plantation in Liberia since 1926.
What is the largest ethnic group in liberia?
57302ebc04bcaa1900d772eb
The Kpelle
0
False
What percentage of the population are the Kpelle?
57302ebc04bcaa1900d772ec
20%
30
False
Where do the Kpelle reside?
57302ebc04bcaa1900d772ed
mostly in Bong County and adjacent areas in central Liberia.
106
False
When did the decedents of the Congo and Afro-Caribbean arrive in liberia?
57302ebc04bcaa1900d772ee
1825
372
False
Congo descendants and Afro-Caribbean make of what percentage of liberia's population?
57302ebc04bcaa1900d772ef
2.5%
399
False
Bong County
116
What county contains 20% of Liberia's population?
5a62c355f8d794001af1c210
True
The Kpelle
0
What is the largest ethnic group in Congo?
5a62c355f8d794001af1c211
True
1825
372
When did the decendents of West Indian settlers arrive in Liberia?
5a62c355f8d794001af1c212
True
2.5%
278
Americo-Liberian descendants make up what percentage of African Americans?
5a62c355f8d794001af1c213
True
Congo people, descendants of repatriated Congo and Afro-Caribbean slaves who arrived in 1825
284
Who established political control in the 18th century?
5a62c355f8d794001af1c214
True
The Kpelle comprise more than 20% of the population and are the largest ethnic group in Liberia, residing mostly in Bong County and adjacent areas in central Liberia. Americo-Liberians, who are descendants of African American and West Indian, mostly Barbadian settlers, make up 2.5%. Congo people, descendants of repatriated Congo and Afro-Caribbean slaves who arrived in 1825, make up an estimated 2.5%. These latter two groups established political control in the 19th century which they kept well into the 20th century.
There is high percentage of interracial marriage between what two groups?
5730337a04bcaa1900d77359
Liberians and the Lebanese
223
False
The interracial couples in Liberia result in what?
5730337a04bcaa1900d7735a
a significant mixed-race population
264
False
Where do Liberians of European decent live?
5730337a04bcaa1900d7735b
in the country
392
False
The Liberian constitution restricts citizenship of whom?
5730337a04bcaa1900d7735c
Black African descent.
491
False
Numerous immigrants
0
Who became a part of the athletic community?
5a62c613f8d794001af1c21a
True
interracial marriage
187
What is there is a high percentage of between Liberians and West African Nationals?
5a62c613f8d794001af1c21b
True
in the country
392
Where do Liberians of Black African descent live?
5a62c613f8d794001af1c21c
True
a significant mixed-race population
264
The business community results in what?
5a62c613f8d794001af1c21d
True
in the country
392
Where do A small minority of Indians live?
5a62c613f8d794001af1c21e
True
Numerous immigrants have come as merchants and become a major part of the business community, including Lebanese, Indians, and other West African nationals. There is a high percentage of interracial marriage between ethnic Liberians and the Lebanese, resulting in a significant mixed-race population especially in and around Monrovia. A small minority of Liberians of European descent reside in the country.[better source needed] The Liberian constitution restricts citizenship to people of Black African descent.
What was the literacy rate in Liberia in 2010?
5730345ea23a5019007fcf7b
60.8%
55
False
How intense is the enforcement of school attendance?
5730345ea23a5019007fcf7c
lax.
233
False
On average children attain how many years of education?
5730345ea23a5019007fcf7d
10 years
342
False
What is Liberia's education system hampered by?
5730345ea23a5019007fcf7e
inadequate schools and supplies, as well as a lack of qualified teachers.
441
False
60.8%
55
What was he literacy rate of Liberia prior to 2010?
5a62c7a2f8d794001af1c224
True
secondary education
128
What is free and compulsory from the ages of 6 to 18?
5a62c7a2f8d794001af1c225
True
inadequate schools and supplies, as well as a lack of qualified teachers
441
What is the country's environmental sector hampered by?
5a62c7a2f8d794001af1c226
True
10 years
342
For how many years do children play sports on average?
5a62c7a2f8d794001af1c227
True
lax
233
How intense is the enforcement of school dress code?
5a62c7a2f8d794001af1c228
True
In 2010, the literacy rate of Liberia was estimated at 60.8% (64.8% for males and 56.8% for females). In some areas primary and secondary education is free and compulsory from the ages of 6 to 16, though enforcement of attendance is lax. In other areas children are required to pay a tuition fee to attend school. On average, children attain 10 years of education (11 for boys and 8 for girls). The country's education sector is hampered by inadequate schools and supplies, as well as a lack of qualified teachers.
What is the name of the hospital in Monrova?
5730359aa23a5019007fcf8d
John F. Kennedy Medical Center
33
False
What is the life expectancy in Liberia?
5730359aa23a5019007fcf8e
57.4 years
142
False
What was the fertility rate of women in 2012?
5730359aa23a5019007fcf8f
5.9 births per woman
187
False
What was the maternal mortality rate in 2010?
5730359aa23a5019007fcf90
990 per 100,000 births
246
False
What were the HIV infection rates in 2007?
5730359aa23a5019007fcf91
2%
433
False
57.4 years
142
What is the life expectancy in Monrovia?
5a62c950f8d794001af1c22e
True
5.9 births per woman
187
What was the fertility rate of women in 2010?
5a62c950f8d794001af1c22f
True
990 per 100,000 births
246
What was the maternal mortality rate in 2012?
5a62c950f8d794001af1c230
True
100,000
516
How many cases of HIV were reported in 2008?
5a62c950f8d794001af1c231
True
58.2% – 66%
554
What percentage of men are estimated to have undergone male genital mutilation?
5a62c950f8d794001af1c232
True
Hospitals in Liberia include the John F. Kennedy Medical Center in Monrovia and several others. Life expectancy in Liberia is estimated to be 57.4 years in 2012. With a fertility rate of 5.9 births per woman, the maternal mortality rate stood at 990 per 100,000 births in 2010. A number of highly communicable diseases are widespread, including tuberculosis, diarrheal diseases and malaria. In 2007, the HIV infection rates stood at 2% of the population aged 15–49  whereas the incidence of tuberculosis was 420 per 100,000 people in 2008. Approximately 58.2% – 66% of women are estimated to have undergone female genital mutilation.
What arts does Liberia have a rich history of?
57303756a23a5019007fcf97
textile arts and quilting
36
False
In what years did Liberia host national fairs?
57303756a23a5019007fcf98
1857 and 1858
164
False
Who is Martha Ann Ricks?
57303756a23a5019007fcf99
the most well-known Liberian quilters
239
False
Who did Martha Ann Ricks present the famed Liberian coffee tree to?
57303756a23a5019007fcf9a
Queen Victoria
365
False
What did President Ellen Johnson Sirleaf have installed in her presidential office?
57303756a23a5019007fcf9b
Liberian-made quilt
481
False
1857 and 1858
164
In what years did Liberia host coffee festivals?
5a62cab1f8d794001af1c238
True
Queen Victoria
365
Who did Martha Ann Ricks present the quilting skills to?
5a62cab1f8d794001af1c239
True
textile arts and quilting
36
What arts were brought to Liberia by Queen Victoria?
5a62cab1f8d794001af1c23a
True
Liberian coffee tree
341
What kind of tree did Ellen Johnson Sirleaf own?
5a62cab1f8d794001af1c23b
True
her presidential office
514
Where did Queen Victoria install her quilt?
5a62cab1f8d794001af1c23c
True
Liberia has a long, rich history in textile arts and quilting, as the settlers brought with them their sewing and quilting skills. Liberia hosted National Fairs in 1857 and 1858 in which prizes were awarded for various needle arts. One of the most well-known Liberian quilters was Martha Ann Ricks, who presented a quilt featuring the famed Liberian coffee tree to Queen Victoria in 1892. When President Ellen Johnson Sirleaf moved into the Executive Mansion, she reportedly had a Liberian-made quilt installed in her presidential office.
Alfred_North_Whitehead
What did Whitehead first study?
573013b0b2c2fd140056881d
mathematics
91
False
What was Whitehead's second area of study?
573013b0b2c2fd140056881e
philosophy
106
False
What was Whitehead's final area of study?
573013b0b2c2fd140056881f
metaphysics
144
False
What type of system did he develop?
573013b0b2c2fd1400568820
metaphysical
186
False
What did Whitehead argue reality consists of?
573013b0b2c2fd1400568821
processes
306
False
During which decade did Whitehead's focus start shifting away from mathematics?
57331b0dd058e614000b56fa
1910s
22
False
After moving away from mathematics, what subjects did Whitehead explore?
57331b0dd058e614000b56fb
philosophy of science, and finally to metaphysics
106
False
As opposed to physical objects, what did Whitehead believe reality is composed of?
57331b0dd058e614000b56fc
processes
306
False
What was the predominant theory of reality that Whitehead opposed?
57331b0dd058e614000b56fd
reality is fundamentally constructed by bits of matter that exist independently of one another
454
False
What book of Whitehead's is now considered a primary source of process philosophy?
57331b0dd058e614000b56fe
Process and Reality
603
False
1910s
22
During which decade did Whitehead's focus start shifting away from science?
5ad3c8e4604f3c001a3ff081
True
Process
603
As opposed to physical objects, what did Whitehead believe nonreality is composed of?
5ad3c8e4604f3c001a3ff082
True
Process and Reality
603
What song of Whitehead's is now considered a primary source of process philosophy?
5ad3c8e4604f3c001a3ff083
True
philosophy of science
106
After moving away from mathematics, what subjects did Whitehead reject?
5ad3c8e4604f3c001a3ff084
True
reality is fundamentally constructed by bits of matter that exist independently of one another.
454
What was the predominant theory of reality that Whitehead agreed with?
5ad3c8e4604f3c001a3ff085
True
Beginning in the late 1910s and early 1920s, Whitehead gradually turned his attention from mathematics to philosophy of science, and finally to metaphysics. He developed a comprehensive metaphysical system which radically departed from most of western philosophy. Whitehead argued that reality consists of processes rather than material objects, and that processes are best defined by their relations with other processes, thus rejecting the theory that reality is fundamentally constructed by bits of matter that exist independently of one another. Today Whitehead's philosophical works – particularly Process and Reality – are regarded as the foundational texts of process philosophy.
Where was Alfred North Whitehead born?
57301444947a6a140053d070
Ramsgate, Kent, England
35
False
What year was Whitehead born?
57301444947a6a140053d071
1861
63
False
What was Whitehead's father's profession?
57301444947a6a140053d072
minister and schoolmaster
105
False
What was Whitehead's mother's name?
57301444947a6a140053d073
Maria Sarah Whitehead,
407
False
What was Whitehead's wife's name?
57301444947a6a140053d074
Evelyn
623
False
Where was Alfred North Whitehead born?
57331bdad058e614000b5704
Ramsgate, Kent, England
35
False
In what year was Whitehead born?
57331bdad058e614000b5705
1861
63
False
Who founded Chatham House Academy?
57331bdad058e614000b5706
Thomas Whitehead, Alfred North's grandfather
201
False
What was Whitehead's father's profession?
57331bdad058e614000b5707
minister and schoolmaster of Chatham House Academy
105
False
Who was Whitehead's mother?
57331bdad058e614000b5708
Maria Sarah Whitehead, formerly Maria Sarah Buckmaster
407
False
Ramsgate, Kent, England
35
Where was Alfred West Whitehead born?
5ad3c91f604f3c001a3ff08b
True
Alfred North Whitehead was born
0
What happened in 1864?
5ad3c91f604f3c001a3ff08c
True
Thomas Whitehead
201
Who destroyed Chatham House Academy?
5ad3c91f604f3c001a3ff08d
True
minister and schoolmaster of Chatham House Academy
105
What was Whitehead's father's hobbies?
5ad3c91f604f3c001a3ff08e
True
Maria Sarah Whitehead, formerly Maria Sarah Buckmaster
407
Who was Whitehead's aunt?
5ad3c91f604f3c001a3ff08f
True
Alfred North Whitehead was born in Ramsgate, Kent, England, in 1861. His father, Alfred Whitehead, was a minister and schoolmaster of Chatham House Academy, a successful school for boys established by Thomas Whitehead, Alfred North's grandfather. Whitehead himself recalled both of them as being very successful schoolmasters, but that his grandfather was the more extraordinary man. Whitehead's mother was Maria Sarah Whitehead, formerly Maria Sarah Buckmaster. Whitehead was apparently not particularly close with his mother, as he never mentioned her in any of his writings, and there is evidence that Whitehead's wife, Evelyn, had a low opinion of her.
When did Whitehead accept administrative positions?
5730289204bcaa1900d77277
1918
3
False
Where did Whitehead accept administrative positions?
5730289204bcaa1900d77278
University of London
140
False
What was he elected at the University of London?
5730289204bcaa1900d77279
Dean of the Faculty of Science
243
False
When did Whitehead go to America?
5730289204bcaa1900d7727a
1924
525
False
In which educational system was Whitehead employed in the late 1910s?
57331ea14776f419006606f4
University of London system
140
False
What was Whitehead's title at the University of London in late 1918?
57331ea14776f419006606f5
Dean of the Faculty of Science
243
False
What was Whitehead's last position before he traveled to America?
57331ea14776f419006606f6
chairman of the Senate's Academic (leadership) Council
407
False
In which year did Whitehead relocate to America?
57331ea14776f419006606f7
1924
525
False
What degree program did Whitehead contribute to establishing at University of London?
57331ea14776f419006606f8
Bachelor of Science
662
False
1924
525
In which year did Whitehead relocate to Africa?
5ad3dd30604f3c001a3ff42f
True
Bachelor of Science
662
What degree program did Whitehead contribute to unestablishing at University of London?
5ad3dd30604f3c001a3ff430
True
University of London
281
What was Whitehead's title at the University of France in late 1918?
5ad3dd30604f3c001a3ff431
True
chairman of the Senate's Academic
407
What was Whitehead's last position before he traveled to Africa?
5ad3dd30604f3c001a3ff432
True
In 1918 Whitehead's academic responsibilities began to seriously expand as he accepted a number of high administrative positions within the University of London system, of which Imperial College London was a member at the time. He was elected Dean of the Faculty of Science at the University of London in late 1918 (a post he held for four years), a member of the University of London's Senate in 1919, and chairman of the Senate's Academic (leadership) Council in 1920, a post which he held until he departed for America in 1924. Whitehead was able to exert his newfound influence to successfully lobby for a new history of science department, help establish a Bachelor of Science degree (previously only Bachelor of Arts degrees had been offered), and make the school more accessible to less wealthy students.
How many volumes is the biography of Whitehead?
57302ae6b2c2fd14005689bf
two
4
False
Who wrote the biography of Whitehead?
57302ae6b2c2fd14005689c0
Victor Lowe
41
False
What was Whitehead's wish upon his death for his family?
57302ae6b2c2fd14005689c1
all of his papers be destroyed after his death.
246
False
What did Whitehead believe in so profusely that it was difficult to write a biography on him?
57302ae6b2c2fd14005689c2
right to privacy
368
False
Who authored Whitehead's biography that is considered to be the most reliable description of Whitehead's life?
57332015d058e614000b570e
Victor Lowe
41
False
Why was no Nachlass left behind after Whitehead's death?
57332015d058e614000b570f
his family carried out his instructions that all of his papers be destroyed after his death
201
False
What was Whitehead's opinion on privacy?
57332015d058e614000b5710
almost fanatical belief in the right to privacy
337
False
What did the author of Whitehead's biography comment on the first page regarding the difficulty of obtaining information about Whitehead?
57332015d058e614000b5711
"No professional biographer in his right mind would touch him."
565
False
Victor Lowe
41
Who authored Whitehead's biography that is considered to be the least reliable description of Whitehead's life?
5ad3c964604f3c001a3ff095
True
his family carried out his instructions that all of his papers be destroyed after his death
201
Why was every Nachlass left behind after Whitehead's death?
5ad3c964604f3c001a3ff096
True
almost fanatical belief in the right to privacy
337
What was Whitehead's opinion on public matters?
5ad3c964604f3c001a3ff097
True
No professional biographer in his right mind would touch him
566
What did the author of Whitehead's biography comment on the first page regarding the ease of obtaining information about Whitehead?
5ad3c964604f3c001a3ff098
True
two
4
How many pages is the biography of Whitehead?
5ad3c964604f3c001a3ff099
True
The two volume biography of Whitehead by Victor Lowe is the most definitive presentation of the life of Whitehead. However, many details of Whitehead's life remain obscure because he left no Nachlass; his family carried out his instructions that all of his papers be destroyed after his death. Additionally, Whitehead was known for his "almost fanatical belief in the right to privacy", and for writing very few personal letters of the kind that would help to gain insight on his life. This led to Lowe himself remarking on the first page of Whitehead's biography, "No professional biographer in his right mind would touch him."
What did Whitehead publish numerous articles about?
57302b8004bcaa1900d772b9
mathematics
36
False
How many books on mathematics did Whitehead write?
57302b8004bcaa1900d772ba
three
65
False
Who co-wrote Principia Mathematica with Whitehead?
57302b8004bcaa1900d772bb
Bertrand Russell
178
False
Which of Whitehead's books is known as one of the most important works in mathematical logical?
57302b8004bcaa1900d772bc
Principia Mathematica
498
False
When did Whitehead write his first book?
57302b8004bcaa1900d772bd
1898
132
False
What was Whitehead's first published book on mathematics?
5733229dd058e614000b5716
A Treatise on Universal Algebra
99
False
With what mathematician and philosopher did Whitehead collaborate to write Principia Mathematica?
5733229dd058e614000b5717
Bertrand Russell
178
False
Who was the intended audience of Whitehead's first two mathematics books?
5733229dd058e614000b5718
professional mathematicians
340
False
What was Whitehead's final book on mathematics?
5733229dd058e614000b5719
An Introduction to Mathematics
254
False
What is the significance of Principia Mathematica currently?
5733229dd058e614000b571a
regarded as one of the most important works in mathematical logic of the 20th century
537
False
A Treatise on Universal Algebra
99
What was Whitehead's first unpublished book on mathematics?
5ad3c9a9604f3c001a3ff0a9
True
Bertrand Russell
178
With what mathematician and philosopher did Whitehead reject to write Principia Mathematica?
5ad3c9a9604f3c001a3ff0aa
True
An Introduction to Mathematics
254
What was Whitehead's last unpublished book on mathematics?
5ad3c9a9604f3c001a3ff0ab
True
regarded as one of the most important works in mathematical logic of the 20th century
537
What is the insignificance of Principia Mathematica currently?
5ad3c9a9604f3c001a3ff0ac
True
Principia Mathematica
498
Who was the intended audience of Whitehead's last mathematics books?
5ad3c9a9604f3c001a3ff0ad
True
In addition to numerous articles on mathematics, Whitehead wrote three major books on the subject: A Treatise on Universal Algebra (1898), Principia Mathematica (co-written with Bertrand Russell and published in three volumes between 1910 and 1913), and An Introduction to Mathematics (1911). The former two books were aimed exclusively at professional mathematicians, while the latter book was intended for a larger audience, covering the history of mathematics and its philosophical foundations. Principia Mathematica in particular is regarded as one of the most important works in mathematical logic of the 20th century.
Lie algebras and hypobolic quanternions drew attention to the need for what?
57302cc5947a6a140053d216
expand algebraic structures
101
False
What did reviewer GB Mathews say algebraic structures possessed?
57302cc5947a6a140053d217
unity of design
470
False
Reviewer Alexander Macfarlane believed that the main idea of the work is a comparative study of what?
57302cc5947a6a140053d218
several structures
390
False
What did Lie algebras and hyperbolic quaternions demonstrate a need for?
573324c9d058e614000b572a
the need to expand algebraic structures beyond the associatively multiplicative class
89
False
How did Alexander Macfarlane summarize the relationship between different methods in "A Treatise on Algebra" in his review?
573324c9d058e614000b572b
comparative study of their several structures
363
False
What was G.B. Matthew's opinion of "A Treatise on Algebra"?
573324c9d058e614000b572c
"It possesses a unity of design which is really remarkable, considering the variety of its themes."
454
False
comparative study of their several structures
363
How did Alexander Macfarlane summarize the relationship between similar methods in "A Treatise on Algebra" in his review?
5ad3ca05604f3c001a3ff0bd
True
It possesses a unity of design which is really remarkable, considering the variety of its themes
455
What wasnt' G.B. Matthew's opinion of "A Treatise on Algebra"?
5ad3ca05604f3c001a3ff0be
True
algebraic structures beyond the associatively multiplicative class
108
What did Lie algebras and hyperbolic quaternions not demonstrate a need for?
5ad3ca05604f3c001a3ff0bf
True
expand algebraic structures
101
Lie algebras and hypobolic quanternions drew attention to the lack of need for what?
5ad3ca05604f3c001a3ff0c0
True
unity of design
470
What did reviewer GB Mathews say algebraic structures did not possess?
5ad3ca05604f3c001a3ff0c1
True
At the time structures such as Lie algebras and hyperbolic quaternions drew attention to the need to expand algebraic structures beyond the associatively multiplicative class. In a review Alexander Macfarlane wrote: "The main idea of the work is not unification of the several methods, nor generalization of ordinary algebra so as to include them, but rather the comparative study of their several structures." In a separate review, G. B. Mathews wrote, "It possesses a unity of design which is really remarkable, considering the variety of its themes."
How long did Whitehead and Russell think it would take them to complete Principia Mathematica?
57302d8ea23a5019007fcf05
a year
83
False
How long did it actually take Whitehead and Russell to complete Principia Mathematica?
57302d8ea23a5019007fcf06
ten years
127
False
How many volumes was Principia Mathematica?
57302d8ea23a5019007fcf07
three
202
False
How many pages was Principia Mathematica?
57302d8ea23a5019007fcf08
2,000
246
False
Who paid to publish Principia Mathematica?
57302d8ea23a5019007fcf09
Cambridge University Press
398
False
How long did Whitehead and Russell expect to spend creating Principia Mathematica?
573326c84776f4190066071c
a year
83
False
How long did it actually take to complete Principia Mathematica?
573326c84776f4190066071d
ten years
127
False
Why was there a funding shortfall for the publishing of Princpia Mathematica?
573326c84776f4190066071e
the three-volume work was so massive (more than 2,000 pages) and its audience so narrow (professional mathematicians)
198
False
Who supplied the funding to cover the shortfall?
573326c84776f4190066071f
00 of which was paid by Cambridge University Press, 200 by the Royal Society of London, and 50 apiece by Whitehead and Russell
374
False
How prevalent is Principia Mathematica today?
573326c84776f41900660720
today there is likely no major academic library in the world which does not hold a copy of Principia Mathematica
539
False
a year
83
How long did Whitehead and Russell not expect to spend creating Principia Mathematica?
5ad3ca55604f3c001a3ff0d1
True
three-volume work was so massive
202
Why was there a funding burst for the publishing of Princpia Mathematica?
5ad3ca55604f3c001a3ff0d2
True
Cambridge University Press
398
Who didn't supply the funding to cover the shortfall?
5ad3ca55604f3c001a3ff0d3
True
no major academic library in the world which does not hold a copy
561
How prevalent is Principia Mathematica when it came out?
5ad3ca55604f3c001a3ff0d4
True
Whitehead and Russell had thought originally that Principia Mathematica would take a year to complete; it ended up taking them ten years. To add insult to injury, when it came time for publication, the three-volume work was so massive (more than 2,000 pages) and its audience so narrow (professional mathematicians) that it was initially published at a loss of 600 pounds, 300 of which was paid by Cambridge University Press, 200 by the Royal Society of London, and 50 apiece by Whitehead and Russell themselves. Despite the initial loss, today there is likely no major academic library in the world which does not hold a copy of Principia Mathematica.
When was Kurt Godel's incompleteness theorem?
57302ed0947a6a140053d242
1931
136
False
What did Kurt Godel's theorem demonstrate about axioms and the inference rules?
57302ed0947a6a140053d243
some truths of mathematics which could not be deduced from them
274
False
Godel couldn't have come to his conclusion without what book?
57302ed0947a6a140053d244
Principia Mathematica
511
False
Besides logic and epistemology, what else did Principia Mathematica connect?
57302ed0947a6a140053d245
metaphysics
793
False
What is the general consensus of the axioms and inference rules declared in Principia Mathematica?
57332caa4776f41900660744
mixed
60
False
Who discovered the incompleteness theorem of 1931?
57332caa4776f41900660745
Kurt Gödel
97
False
What did the incompleteness theorem of 1931 indicate regarding Principia Mathematica?
57332caa4776f41900660746
for any set of axioms and inference rules proposed to encapsulate mathematics, there would in fact be some truths of mathematics which could not be deduced
172
False
Why was Gödels finding ironic?
57332caa4776f41900660747
Gödel could not have come to this conclusion without Whitehead and Russell's book
415
False
Despite its imperfection, what are now considered valuable achievements of Principia Mathematica?
57332caa4776f41900660748
the book popularized modern mathematical logic and drew important connections between logic, epistemology, and metaphysics
682
False
mixed
60
What is the general consensus of the axioms and inference rules not declared in Principia Mathematica?
5ad3de8b604f3c001a3ff46f
True
Kurt Gödel's
97
Who discovered the incompleteness theorem of 1961?
5ad3de8b604f3c001a3ff470
True
axioms and inference rules proposed
187
What did the incompleteness theorem of 1955 indicate regarding Principia Mathematica?
5ad3de8b604f3c001a3ff471
True
The ultimate substantive legacy of Principia Mathematica is mixed. It is generally accepted that Kurt Gödel's incompleteness theorem of 1931 definitively demonstrated that for any set of axioms and inference rules proposed to encapsulate mathematics, there would in fact be some truths of mathematics which could not be deduced from them, and hence that Principia Mathematica could never achieve its aims. However, Gödel could not have come to this conclusion without Whitehead and Russell's book. In this way, Principia Mathematica's legacy might be described as its key role in disproving the possibility of achieving its own stated goals. But beyond this somewhat ironic legacy, the book popularized modern mathematical logic and drew important connections between logic, epistemology, and metaphysics.
What year was The Aims of Education and Other Essays published?
5730303c04bcaa1900d7731b
1929
51
False
What was the Aims of Education and Other Essays comprised of?
5730303c04bcaa1900d7731c
numerous essays and addresses
117
False
What teaching did Whitehead caution against teaching?
5730303c04bcaa1900d7731d
inert ideas
443
False
When was "The Aims of Education and Other Essays" published?
57332e96d058e614000b576c
1929
51
False
During what periods of time were the essays and address contained in "The Aims of Education and Other Essays" composed?
57332e96d058e614000b576d
between 1912 and 1927
185
False
What is the origin of the title of the book?
57332e96d058e614000b576e
The essay from which Aims of Education derived its name was delivered as an address in 1916
208
False
How did Whitehead define "inert ideas"?
57332e96d058e614000b576f
ideas that are disconnected scraps of information, with no application to real life or culture
458
False
What was Whitehead's criticism of the use of inert ideas in education?
57332e96d058e614000b5770
"education with inert ideas is not only useless: it is, above all things, harmful."
569
False
1929
51
When was "The Aims of DeEducation and Other Essays" published?
5ad3ca9e604f3c001a3ff0d9
True
1912 and 1927
193
During what periods of time were the essays and address contained in "The Aims of Education and Other Essays" destroyed?
5ad3ca9e604f3c001a3ff0da
True
The essay from which Aims of Education derived its name was delivered as an address in 1916
208
What is the origin of the title of the song?
5ad3ca9e604f3c001a3ff0db
True
ideas that are disconnected scraps of information
458
How didn't Whitehead define "inert ideas"?
5ad3ca9e604f3c001a3ff0dc
True
education with inert ideas is not only useless: it is, above all things, harmful
570
What was Whitehead's criticism of the use of inert ideas in noneducation?
5ad3ca9e604f3c001a3ff0dd
True
Whitehead's most complete work on education is the 1929 book The Aims of Education and Other Essays, which collected numerous essays and addresses by Whitehead on the subject published between 1912 and 1927. The essay from which Aims of Education derived its name was delivered as an address in 1916 when Whitehead was president of the London Branch of the Mathematical Association. In it, he cautioned against the teaching of what he called "inert ideas" – ideas that are disconnected scraps of information, with no application to real life or culture. He opined that "education with inert ideas is not only useless: it is, above all things, harmful."
Whitehead's education style was to teach what?
57303159a23a5019007fcf51
a relatively few important concepts
90
False
What should Whitehead's students organically link due to his teaching methods?
57303159a23a5019007fcf52
different areas of knowledge, discovering their application in actual life.
174
False
Whitehead believed education should be the opposite of what?
57303159a23a5019007fcf53
value-free school model
330
False
What did Whitehead believe regarding the variety of subjects in education?
573330eb4776f41900660762
Whitehead advocated teaching a relatively few important concepts
61
False
How did Whitehead propose that students would expand their knowledge beyond the subjects taught in school?
573330eb4776f41900660763
important concepts that the student could organically link to many different areas of knowledge, discovering their application in actual life
107
False
What was Whitehead's general opinion of what the school model should be?
573330eb4776f41900660764
For Whitehead, education should be the exact opposite of the multidisciplinary, value-free school model
250
False
What was Whitehead's opinion on the inclusion of values and general principles in education?
573330eb4776f41900660765
it should be transdisciplinary, and laden with values and general principles that provide students with a bedrock of wisdom
356
False
important concepts that the student could organically link
107
How did Whitehead reject that students would expand their knowledge beyond the subjects taught in school?
5ad3cb1a604f3c001a3ff0f7
True
should be transdisciplinary
359
What was Whitehead's opinion on the inclusion of values and general principles in noneducation?
5ad3cb1a604f3c001a3ff0f8
True
advocated teaching a relatively few important concepts that the student could organically link to many different areas of knowledge
71
What did Whitehead believe regarding the lack of variety of subjects in education?
5ad3cb1a604f3c001a3ff0f9
True
education should be the exact opposite of the multidisciplinary
265
What was Whitehead's general opinion of what the school model shouldn't be?
5ad3cb1a604f3c001a3ff0fa
True
Rather than teach small parts of a large number of subjects, Whitehead advocated teaching a relatively few important concepts that the student could organically link to many different areas of knowledge, discovering their application in actual life. For Whitehead, education should be the exact opposite of the multidisciplinary, value-free school model – it should be transdisciplinary, and laden with values and general principles that provide students with a bedrock of wisdom and help them to make connections between areas of knowledge that are usually regarded as separate.
What is the highest Whitehead was trained in philosophy?
57303233a23a5019007fcf57
undergraduate
120
False
What did Whitehead consider himself as a philosopher?
57303233a23a5019007fcf58
rank amateur
282
False
What is the relationship between Whitehead and Russell?
57303233a23a5019007fcf59
friend and former student
317
False
What was Whitehead considered as a metaphysician?
57303233a23a5019007fcf5a
one of the 20th century's foremost metaphysicians.
631
False
What was the extent of Whitehead's education in philosophy?
573332b94776f4190066077e
he never had any formal training in philosophy beyond his undergraduate education
62
False
With what friend and former student did Whitehead correspond regarding the goals of science?
573332b94776f4190066077f
Bertrand Russell
343
False
What was Whitehead's opinion of his own knowledge of metaphysics in that correspondence?
573332b94776f41900660780
"This further question lands us in the ocean of metaphysic, onto which my profound ignorance of that science forbids me to enter."
451
False
How did Whitehead eventually become regarded in the field of metaphysics?
573332b94776f41900660781
in later life Whitehead would become one of the 20th century's foremost metaphysicians
594
False
never had any formal training in philosophy
65
What was the extent of Whitehead's noneducation in philosophy?
5ad3cb4c604f3c001a3ff109
True
Bertrand Russell
343
With what friend and former student did Whitehead not correspond regarding the goals of science?
5ad3cb4c604f3c001a3ff10a
True
This further question lands us in the ocean of metaphysic, onto which my profound ignorance of that science forbids me to enter
452
What wasn't Whitehead's opinion of his own knowledge of metaphysics in that correspondence?
5ad3cb4c604f3c001a3ff10b
True
Whitehead would become one of the 20th century's foremost metaphysicians
608
How did Whitehead eventually become regarded in the field of science?
5ad3cb4c604f3c001a3ff10c
True
Whitehead did not begin his career as a philosopher. In fact, he never had any formal training in philosophy beyond his undergraduate education. Early in his life he showed great interest in and respect for philosophy and metaphysics, but it is evident that he considered himself a rank amateur. In one letter to his friend and former student Bertrand Russell, after discussing whether science aimed to be explanatory or merely descriptive, he wrote: "This further question lands us in the ocean of metaphysic, onto which my profound ignorance of that science forbids me to enter." Ironically, in later life Whitehead would become one of the 20th century's foremost metaphysicians.
What do philosophers do, in Whitehead's view?
5730938d069b53140083219d
make metaphysical assumptions about how the universe works
336
False
Assumptions of how the universe works are difficult to see precisely because of what?
5730938d069b53140083219e
they remain unexamined and unquestioned
468
False
What did Whitehead ask people to reimagine in order for philosophy to make progress?
5730938d069b53140083219f
basic assumptions about how the universe works
690
False
What did Whitehead regard as essential to good science and good philosophy?
5730938d069b5314008321a0
metaphysical investigations
883
False
What quotation of Whitehead's was noted by a student in 1927?
5733349d4776f41900660790
"Every scientific man in order to preserve his reputation has to say he dislikes metaphysics. What he means is he dislikes having his metaphysics criticized."
128
False
What was Whitehead's opinion of basic assumptions in metaphysics?
5733349d4776f41900660791
such assumptions are not easily seen precisely because they remain unexamined and unquestioned
413
False
What did Whitehead feel was necessary regarding basic assumptions in metaphysics?
5733349d4776f41900660792
people need to continually re-imagine their basic assumptions about how the universe works if philosophy and science are to make any real progress
646
False
What was Whitehead's opinion of metaphysical investigations?
5733349d4776f41900660793
Whitehead regarded metaphysical investigations as essential to both good science and good philosophy
864
False
Every scientific man in order to preserve his reputation has to say he dislikes metaphysics. What he means is he dislikes having his metaphysics criticized
129
What quotation of Whitehead's was noted by a student in 1977?
5ad3cb8e604f3c001a3ff125
True
people need to continually re-imagine their basic assumptions about how the universe works
646
What did Whitehead feel was necessary regarding complex assumptions in metaphysics?
5ad3cb8e604f3c001a3ff126
True
regarded metaphysical investigations as essential to both good science and good philosophy
874
What was Whitehead's opinion of nonmetaphysical investigations?
5ad3cb8e604f3c001a3ff127
True
Whitehead was unimpressed by this objection. In the notes of one his students for a 1927 class, Whitehead was quoted as saying: "Every scientific man in order to preserve his reputation has to say he dislikes metaphysics. What he means is he dislikes having his metaphysics criticized." In Whitehead's view, scientists and philosophers make metaphysical assumptions about how the universe works all the time, but such assumptions are not easily seen precisely because they remain unexamined and unquestioned. While Whitehead acknowledged that "philosophers can never hope finally to formulate these metaphysical first principles," he argued that people need to continually re-imagine their basic assumptions about how the universe works if philosophy and science are to make any real progress, even if that progress remains permanently asymptotic. For this reason Whitehead regarded metaphysical investigations as essential to both good science and good philosophy.
What idea states that reality is fundamentally constructed of bits of matter?
5730956e396df919000961c2
Cartesian idea
89
False
Whitehead rejected the Cartesian idea in favor of what?
5730956e396df919000961c3
an event-based or "process" ontology
243
False
Whitehead believed instead of matter existing independently of each other, it did what?
5730956e396df919000961c4
interrelated and dependent
330
False
Whitehead believed that reality should be regarded as what?
5730956e396df919000961c5
experiential
451
False
Whitehead's system as "philosophy of organism" became widely known as what term?
5730956e396df919000961c6
process philosophy
937
False
What Cartesian concept did Whitehead believe to be erroneous?
573338734776f419006607a2
reality is fundamentally constructed of bits of matter that exist totally independently of one another
109
False
What theory did Whitehead prefer to the Cartesian concept?
573338734776f419006607a3
event-based or "process" ontology in which events are primary and are fundamentally interrelated and dependent on one another
246
False
How did whitehead define "experience"?
573338734776f419006607a4
He used the term "experience" very broadly, so that even inanimate processes such as electron collisions are said to manifest some degree of experience
522
False
How did Descartes' distinguish types of existence?
573338734776f419006607a5
two different kinds of real existence, either exclusively material or else exclusively mental
725
False
How did Whitehead identify his system of metaphysics?
573338734776f419006607a6
"philosophy of organism"
869
False
fundamentally constructed of bits of matter that exist totally independently of one another
120
What Cartesian concept did Whitehead believe to be correct?
5ad3cbbe604f3c001a3ff12b
True
event-based or "process" ontology in which events are primary and are fundamentally interrelated and dependent on one another
246
What theory did Whitehead not prefer to the Cartesian concept?
5ad3cbbe604f3c001a3ff12c
True
inanimate processes such as electron collisions are said to manifest some degree of experience
579
How did whitehead define "inexperience"?
5ad3cbbe604f3c001a3ff12d
True
philosophy of organism
870
How did Whitehead identify his system of math?
5ad3cbbe604f3c001a3ff12e
True
Perhaps foremost among what Whitehead considered faulty metaphysical assumptions was the Cartesian idea that reality is fundamentally constructed of bits of matter that exist totally independently of one another, which he rejected in favor of an event-based or "process" ontology in which events are primary and are fundamentally interrelated and dependent on one another. He also argued that the most basic elements of reality can all be regarded as experiential, indeed that everything is constituted by its experience. He used the term "experience" very broadly, so that even inanimate processes such as electron collisions are said to manifest some degree of experience. In this, he went against Descartes' separation of two different kinds of real existence, either exclusively material or else exclusively mental. Whitehead referred to his metaphysical system as "philosophy of organism", but it would become known more widely as "process philosophy."
In all of the western canon, what is Whitehead's work considered?
573096d2396df919000961d4
the most difficult to understand
148
False
Who also struggled to follow Whitehead's writings?
573096d2396df919000961d5
professional philosophers
215
False
When did Whitehead delivery the Gifford lectures?
573096d2396df919000961d6
1927–28
426
False
Following Arthur Eddington's lectures, what did Whitehead  publish?
573096d2396df919000961d7
Process and Reality
536
False
What is the general opinion of the difficulty level of Whitehead's work in philosophy?
57333a74d058e614000b579e
generally considered to be among the most difficult to understand in all of the western canon
115
False
What lectures did Whitehead present in 1927-28?
57333a74d058e614000b579f
Gifford lectures
406
False
Under what name were those lectures later published?
57333a74d058e614000b57a0
Process and Reality
536
False
difficult to understand in all of the western canon
157
What is the general opinion of the difficulty level of Whitehead's work in math?
5ad3cbf4604f3c001a3ff133
True
Gifford lectures
406
What lectures did Whitehead not present in 1927-28?
5ad3cbf4604f3c001a3ff134
True
Process and Reality
536
Under what name were those lectures first published?
5ad3cbf4604f3c001a3ff135
True
the most difficult to understand
148
In all of the western canon, what is Whitehead's work never considered?
5ad3cbf4604f3c001a3ff136
True
This is not to say that Whitehead's thought was widely accepted or even well-understood. His philosophical work is generally considered to be among the most difficult to understand in all of the western canon. Even professional philosophers struggled to follow Whitehead's writings. One famous story illustrating the level of difficulty of Whitehead's philosophy centers around the delivery of Whitehead's Gifford lectures in 1927–28 – following Arthur Eddington's lectures of the year previous – which Whitehead would later publish as Process and Reality:
Who was frustrated in Whitehead's books but still interested?
5730976a069b5314008321b9
Mathews
9
False
What school recognized the importance of Whitehead's work?
5730976a069b5314008321ba
Chicago's Divinity School
154
False
Who was invited to the Chicago Divinity school as one of Whitehead's only experts?
5730976a069b5314008321bb
Henry Nelson Wieman
361
False
When was Henry Nelson Wieman invited to the Chicago Divinity school?
5730976a069b5314008321bc
1927
301
False
What happened after Henry Nelson Wieman gave a lecture about Whitehead?
5730976a069b5314008321bd
hired
499
False
What affect did Matthews' opinion of the difficulty of Whitehead's works have on his interest in them?
57333c754776f419006607b6
Mathews' frustration with Whitehead's books did not negatively affect his interest
9
False
How did many philosophers and theologians at Chicago's Divinity School view Whitehead's work?
57333c754776f419006607b7
perceived the importance of what Whitehead was doing without fully grasping all of the details and implications
185
False
What expert on Whitehead delivered a lecture at the school to explain Whitehead's ideas?
57333c754776f419006607b8
Henry Nelson Wieman
361
False
What was the result of that lecture?
57333c754776f419006607b9
Wieman's lecture was so brilliant that he was promptly hired to the faculty and taught there for twenty years
444
False
Mathews' frustration with Whitehead's books did not negatively affect his interest
9
What affect did Matthews' opinion of the ease of Whitehead's works have on his interest in them?
5ad3cc25604f3c001a3ff13b
True
perceived the importance of what Whitehead was doing without fully grasping all of the details and implications
185
How did many philosophers and theologians at Illinois Divinity School view Whitehead's work?
5ad3cc25604f3c001a3ff13c
True
Henry Nelson Wieman
361
What expert on Whitehead delivered a lecture at the school to reject Whitehead's ideas?
5ad3cc25604f3c001a3ff13d
True
Mathews
9
Who was amused in Whitehead's books but still interested?
5ad3cc25604f3c001a3ff13e
True
However, Mathews' frustration with Whitehead's books did not negatively affect his interest. In fact, there were numerous philosophers and theologians at Chicago's Divinity School that perceived the importance of what Whitehead was doing without fully grasping all of the details and implications. In 1927 they invited one of America's only Whitehead experts – Henry Nelson Wieman – to Chicago to give a lecture explaining Whitehead's thought. Wieman's lecture was so brilliant that he was promptly hired to the faculty and taught there for twenty years, and for at least thirty years afterward Chicago's Divinity School was closely associated with Whitehead's thought.
Which publication is considered the most impressive metaphysical text?
573098542461fd1900a9cedb
Process and Reality
40
False
Who thought Process and Reality was little-read because the reader has to separate them from normal thought?
573098542461fd1900a9cedc
Isabelle Stengers
236
False
What philosophy in the west was challenged by Whitehead?
573098542461fd1900a9cedd
how the universe works
444
False
What was Whitehead's philosophy able to anticipate for the 21st century?
573098542461fd1900a9cede
scientific and philosophical problems
534
False
What was the outcome of anticipating the scientific and philosophical problems Whitehead proposed?
573098542461fd1900a9cedf
novel solutions
584
False
How has "Process and Reality" been described?
57333dc4d058e614000b57ae
"arguably the most impressive single metaphysical text of the twentieth century,"
76
False
What did Isabelle Stengers say is the reason that "Process and Reality" is not commonly read and understood?
57333dc4d058e614000b57af
it demands – as Isabelle Stengers puts it – "that its readers accept the adventure of the questions that will separate them from every consensus."
220
False
What effect did Whitehead have on the future of metaphysics?
57333dc4d058e614000b57b0
he managed to anticipate a number of 21st century scientific and philosophical problems and provide novel solutions.
484
False
most impressive single metaphysical text of the twentieth century
90
How has "Process and Reality" been rejected?
5ad3cc51604f3c001a3ff14d
True
readers accept the adventure of the questions that will separate them from every consensus
274
What did Isabelle Stengers say is the reason that "Process and Reality" is commonly read and understood?
5ad3cc51604f3c001a3ff14e
True
21st century scientific and philosophical problems
521
What effect did Whitehead have on the past of metaphysics?
5ad3cc51604f3c001a3ff14f
True
Process and Reality
40
Which publication is considered the least impressive metaphysical text?
5ad3cc51604f3c001a3ff150
True
Wieman's words proved prophetic. Though Process and Reality has been called "arguably the most impressive single metaphysical text of the twentieth century," it has been little-read and little-understood, partly because it demands – as Isabelle Stengers puts it – "that its readers accept the adventure of the questions that will separate them from every consensus." Whitehead questioned western philosophy's most dearly held assumptions about how the universe works, but in doing so he managed to anticipate a number of 21st century scientific and philosophical problems and provide novel solutions.
Concepts such as quality, matter, and form fail to account for what?
5730991d2461fd1900a9ceed
change
151
False
What concepts overlook the experiential nature of basic elements?
5730991d2461fd1900a9ceee
quality", "matter", and "form"
45
False
What are the concepts quality, matter, and form considered?
5730991d2461fd1900a9ceef
"classical" concepts
99
False
Instead of being a single person, what does Whitehead view a person as?
5730991d2461fd1900a9cef0
continuum of overlapping events
425
False
What does Whitehead call experiences that are progressively connected?
5730991d2461fd1900a9cef1
society
692
False
What basic concepts did Whitehead believe were questionable?
57333fbad058e614000b57d2
"quality", "matter", and "form"
44
False
Why did he believe those concepts were inaccurate?
57333fbad058e614000b57d3
These "classical" concepts fail to adequately account for change, and overlook the active and experiential nature of the most basic elements of the world.
93
False
How did Whitehead classify what is usually seen as an individual person?
57333fbad058e614000b57d4
a continuum of overlapping events
423
False
How did Whitehead refer to the combination of a person's separate experiences?
57333fbad058e614000b57d5
a "society" of events
689
False
How did Whitehead define the "fallacy of misplaced concreteness"?
57333fbad058e614000b57d6
By assuming that enduring objects are the most real and fundamental things in the universe, materialists have mistaken the abstract for the concrete
712
False
"quality", "matter", and "form"
44
What basic concepts did Whitehead believe were not questionable?
5ad3ccb6604f3c001a3ff155
True
These "classical" concepts fail to adequately account for change
93
Why did he believe those concepts were accurate?
5ad3ccb6604f3c001a3ff156
True
society" of events
692
How did Whitehead refer to the combination of a person's not separate experiences?
5ad3ccb6604f3c001a3ff157
True
continuum of overlapping events
425
How did Whitehead classify what is usually seen as a nonindividual person?
5ad3ccb6604f3c001a3ff158
True
By assuming that enduring objects are the most real and fundamental things in the universe
712
How did Whitehead define the "fallacy of well placed concreteness"?
5ad3ccb6604f3c001a3ff159
True
In Whitehead's view, then, concepts such as "quality", "matter", and "form" are problematic. These "classical" concepts fail to adequately account for change, and overlook the active and experiential nature of the most basic elements of the world. They are useful abstractions, but are not the world's basic building blocks. What is ordinarily conceived of as a single person, for instance, is philosophically described as a continuum of overlapping events. After all, people change all the time, if only because they have aged by another second and had some further experience. These occasions of experience are logically distinct, but are progressively connected in what Whitehead calls a "society" of events. By assuming that enduring objects are the most real and fundamental things in the universe, materialists have mistaken the abstract for the concrete (what Whitehead calls the "fallacy of misplaced concreteness").
The idea that people are unchanging and stay the same even through changes is considered what?
57309b8f396df91900096206
defining essence
68
False
In Whitehead's cosmology, what are the only things that fundamentally exist?
57309b8f396df91900096207
occasions of experience
518
False
Where do occasions of experience overlap?
57309b8f396df91900096208
time and space
571
False
In Whitehead's view, identities do not define people, but what?
57309b8f396df91900096209
people define identities
913
False
Instead of having an enduring essence, what does Whitehead believe?
57309b8f396df9190009620a
all things flow"
1060
False
Regarding the idea that individuals or objects don't fundamentally change, what terms can be used to describe what an object or individual actually is?
573344744776f419006607dc
"defining essence" or a "core identity"
67
False
In that line of thinking, how are changes described?
573344744776f419006607dd
qualitative and secondary to their core identity
292
False
What did Whitehead believe were essentially the only things that truly exist?
573344744776f419006607de
discrete "occasions of experience" that overlap one another in time and space, and jointly make up the enduring person or thing
508
False
defining essence" or a "core identity
68
Regarding the idea that individuals or objects fundamentally change, what terms can be used to describe what an object or individual actually is?
5ad3cd00604f3c001a3ff171
True
qualitative and secondary to their core identity
292
In that line of thinking, how are changes never described?
5ad3cd00604f3c001a3ff172
True
discrete "occasions of experience" that overlap one another in time and space
508
What did Whitehead believe were not essentially the only things that truly exist?
5ad3cd00604f3c001a3ff173
True
essence
1029
The idea that people are changing and stay the same even through changes is considered what?
5ad3cd00604f3c001a3ff174
True
occasions of experience
518
In Whitehead's cosmology, what are the only things that fundamentally dont exist?
5ad3cd00604f3c001a3ff175
True
To put it another way, a thing or person is often seen as having a "defining essence" or a "core identity" that is unchanging, and describes what the thing or person really is. In this way of thinking, things and people are seen as fundamentally the same through time, with any changes being qualitative and secondary to their core identity (e.g. "Mark's hair has turned gray as he has gotten older, but he is still the same person"). But in Whitehead's cosmology, the only fundamentally existent things are discrete "occasions of experience" that overlap one another in time and space, and jointly make up the enduring person or thing. On the other hand, what ordinary thinking often regards as "the essence of a thing" or "the identity/core of a person" is an abstract generalization of what is regarded as that person or thing's most important or salient features across time. Identities do not define people, people define identities. Everything changes from moment to moment, and to think of anything as having an "enduring essence" misses the fact that "all things flow", though it is often a useful way of speaking.
What did Whitehead believe was a culprit in maintaining a materialistic way of thinking?
57309dbb8ab72b1400f9c5f0
limitations of language
25
False
Why couldn't each moment of each person's life be given a different proper name?
57309dbb8ab72b1400f9c5f1
limitations of language
25
False
Whitehead's main philosophy on humans changing is what?
57309dbb8ab72b1400f9c5f2
each thing is a different thing from what it was a moment ago
462
False
What did Whitehead believe was one of the biggest reasons materialistic thinking endured?
57335187d058e614000b5854
limitations of language
25
False
Why did Whitehead think people continued to subscribe to materialistic thinking?
57335187d058e614000b5855
it is easy and convenient to think of people and objects as remaining fundamentally the same things
317
False
What did Whitehead believe regarding factors that limit people's understanding of his concepts?
57335187d058e614000b5856
should not prevent people from realizing that "material substances" or "essences" are a convenient generalized description of a continuum
584
False
What did Whitehead state about the belief that a person is exactly the same from moment to moment?
57335187d058e614000b5857
it is not philosophically or ontologically sound
940
False
easy and convenient to think of people and objects as remaining fundamentally the same things
323
Why did Whitehead think people continued to subscribe to nonmaterialistic thinking?
5ad3cd43604f3c001a3ff18d
True
should not prevent people from realizing that "material substances" or "essences" are a convenient generalized description
584
What did Whitehead believe regarding factors that don't limit people's understanding of his concepts?
5ad3cd43604f3c001a3ff18e
True
limitations of language
25
What did Whitehead believe was one of the biggest reasons materialistic thinking did not endure?
5ad3cd43604f3c001a3ff18f
True
Whitehead pointed to the limitations of language as one of the main culprits in maintaining a materialistic way of thinking, and acknowledged that it may be difficult to ever wholly move past such ideas in everyday speech. After all, each moment of each person's life can hardly be given a different proper name, and it is easy and convenient to think of people and objects as remaining fundamentally the same things, rather than constantly keeping in mind that each thing is a different thing from what it was a moment ago. Yet the limitations of everyday living and everyday speech should not prevent people from realizing that "material substances" or "essences" are a convenient generalized description of a continuum of particular, concrete processes. No one questions that a ten-year-old person is quite different by the time he or she turns thirty years old, and in many ways is not the same person at all; Whitehead points out that it is not philosophically or ontologically sound to think that a person is the same from one second to the next.
What obscures the importance of relations according to Whitehead?
57309e35069b5314008321c9
materialism
22
False
What does Materialism see each object as?
57309e35069b5314008321ca
distinct and discrete
107
False
How is each object related to other things?
57309e35069b5314008321cb
externally
213
False
What is another issue that Whitehead had with materialism?
573352f9d058e614000b585c
it obscures the importance of relations
42
False
What is the general materialistic view of an object?
573352f9d058e614000b585d
Each object is simply an inert clump of matter that is only externally related to other things
153
False
How the fundamental concept of matter influence people to view objects?
573352f9d058e614000b585e
The idea of matter as primary makes people think of objects as being fundamentally separate in time and space, and not necessarily related to anything
249
False
What is Whitehead's belief regarding the importance of relations?
573352f9d058e614000b585f
in Whitehead's view, relations take a primary role, perhaps even more important than the relata themselves
405
False
What is the materialistic view of matter in relation to other objects?
573352f9d058e614000b5860
It sees every object as distinct and discrete from all other objects.
83
False
The idea of matter as primary makes people think of objects as being fundamentally separate in time and space, and not necessarily related to anything
249
How the fundamental concept of matter influence people to not view objects?
5ad3cd8e604f3c001a3ff193
True
obscures the importance of relations
45
What is another issue that Whitehead had without materialism?
5ad3cd8e604f3c001a3ff194
True
Each object is simply an inert clump of matter that is only externally related to other things
153
What is the general non-materialistic view of an object?
5ad3cd8e604f3c001a3ff195
True
in Whitehead's view, relations take a primary role
405
What is Whitehead's non-belief regarding the importance of relations?
5ad3cd8e604f3c001a3ff196
True
materialism
22
What is the materialistic view of matter in relation to no ohter objects?
5ad3cd8e604f3c001a3ff197
True
A second problem with materialism is that it obscures the importance of relations. It sees every object as distinct and discrete from all other objects. Each object is simply an inert clump of matter that is only externally related to other things. The idea of matter as primary makes people think of objects as being fundamentally separate in time and space, and not necessarily related to anything. But in Whitehead's view, relations take a primary role, perhaps even more important than the relata themselves. A student taking notes in one of Whitehead's fall 1924 classes wrote that:
Whitehead believes any entity is in some sense what?
57309ede396df91900096218
nothing more and nothing less than the sum of its relations to other entities
57
False
If an object made no difference to any other entity, what could be said about it?
57309ede396df91900096219
not be said to really exist.
430
False
If relations are not secondary to what a thing is, what is it?
57309ede396df9190009621a
they are what the thing is
507
False
What makes up the sum of relations to an entity?
57309ede396df9190009621b
rld around it
176
False
A real object forces the universe to do what?
57309ede396df9190009621c
in some way conform to it
258
False
How does Whitehead characterize anything that exists?
5733541ed058e614000b5866
in some sense nothing more and nothing less than the sum of its relations to other entities – its synthesis of and reaction to the world around it
43
False
How does he describe what makes something real?
5733541ed058e614000b5867
A real thing is just that which forces the rest of the universe to in some way conform to it
191
False
In Whitehead's thinking, what could be said about something that has no effect on any other person or object?
5733541ed058e614000b5868
if theoretically a thing made strictly no difference to any other entity (i.e. it was not related to any other entity), it could not be said to really exist
301
False
What did Whitehead believe about the concept of relations in the context of defining an entity?
5733541ed058e614000b5869
Relations are not secondary to what a thing is, they are what the thing is.
459
False
some sense nothing more and nothing less
46
How does Whitehead not characterize anything that exists?
5ad3cdc5604f3c001a3ff19d
True
A real thing is just that which forces the rest of the universe to in some way conform to it
191
How does he describe what makes something fake?
5ad3cdc5604f3c001a3ff19e
True
strictly no difference to any other entity
331
In Whitehead's thinking, what could be said about something that has a lot of effect on any other person or object?
5ad3cdc5604f3c001a3ff19f
True
Relations are not secondary to what a thing is, they are what the thing is
459
What did Whitehead believe about the concept of relations in the context of not defining an entity?
5ad3cdc5604f3c001a3ff1a0
True
In fact, Whitehead describes any entity as in some sense nothing more and nothing less than the sum of its relations to other entities – its synthesis of and reaction to the world around it. A real thing is just that which forces the rest of the universe to in some way conform to it; that is to say, if theoretically a thing made strictly no difference to any other entity (i.e. it was not related to any other entity), it could not be said to really exist. Relations are not secondary to what a thing is, they are what the thing is.
An entity is a sum of relations, a valuation of them and what else?
57309fa8396df91900096222
reaction to them.
118
False
Most entities do not have what?
57309fa8396df91900096223
consciousness
434
False
All entities, being unable to predict behavior, are because of what?
57309fa8396df91900096224
the fundamental creativity/freedom of all entities
762
False
Not being able to predict what any entity is going to do is what principle b Whitehead?
57309fa8396df91900096225
creativity is the absolute principle of existence
151
False
Other than the combination of its relations, what else defines an entity?
573358f2d058e614000b58a9
an entity is not merely a sum of its relations, but also a valuation of them and reaction to them
37
False
What did Whitehead believe regarding creativity?
573358f2d058e614000b58aa
creativity is the absolute principle of existence
151
False
What did Whitehead believe about an entity's relation to other entities?
573358f2d058e614000b58ab
has some degree of novelty in how it responds to other entities, and is not fully determined by causal or mechanistic laws
273
False
entity is not merely a sum of its relations
40
Other than the combination of its relations, what else does not define an entity?
5ad3ce26604f3c001a3ff1af
True
absolute principle of existence
169
What did Whitehead believe regarding non-creativity?
5ad3ce26604f3c001a3ff1b0
True
reaction to them
118
An entity is not a sum of relations, a valuation of them and what else?
5ad3ce26604f3c001a3ff1b1
True
It must be emphasized, however, that an entity is not merely a sum of its relations, but also a valuation of them and reaction to them. For Whitehead, creativity is the absolute principle of existence, and every entity (whether it is a human being, a tree, or an electron) has some degree of novelty in how it responds to other entities, and is not fully determined by causal or mechanistic laws. Of course, most entities do not have consciousness. As a human being's actions cannot always be predicted, the same can be said of where a tree's roots will grow, or how an electron will move, or whether it will rain tomorrow. Moreover, inability to predict an electron's movement (for instance) is not due to faulty understanding or inadequate technology; rather, the fundamental creativity/freedom of all entities means that there will always remain phenomena that are unpredictable.
What term did Whitehead describe that perception is not limited to the living?
5730a0a98ab72b1400f9c614
prehension
209
False
What language does the term "prehensio" come from?
5730a0a98ab72b1400f9c615
Latin
243
False
What does the word "Prehensio" translate into?
5730a0a98ab72b1400f9c616
to seize
269
False
What entities does the term prehension apply to?
5730a0a98ab72b1400f9c617
conscious or unconscious
343
False
How many modes does perception occur in according to Whitehead?
5730a0a98ab72b1400f9c618
two
872
False
What is the origin of the word "prehension"?
57335ac6d058e614000b58ce
comes from the Latin prehensio, meaning "to seize."
228
False
What is prehension used to define?
57335ac6d058e614000b58cf
a kind of perception that can be conscious or unconscious, applying to people as well as electrons
310
False
What is a basic description of the theory of representative perception?
57335ac6d058e614000b58d0
the mind only has private ideas about other entities
519
False
What does the term "prehension" signify regarding an entities perceptions and relations?
57335ac6d058e614000b58d1
entities are constituted by their perceptions and relations, rather than being independent of them
718
False
What did Whitehead state are the two types of perception?
57335ac6d058e614000b58d2
causal efficacy (or "physical prehension") and presentational immediacy (or "conceptual prehension")
883
False
entities are constituted by their perceptions and relations
718
What does the term "prehension" signify regarding an entities nonperceptions and nonrelations?
5ad3ce75604f3c001a3ff1c7
True
mind only has private ideas about other entities
523
What is a basic description of the theory of non-representative perception?
5ad3ce75604f3c001a3ff1c8
True
to seize
269
What is not the origin of the word "prehension"?
5ad3ce75604f3c001a3ff1c9
True
perception that can be conscious or unconscious, applying to people as well as electrons
320
What is prehension used to not define?
5ad3ce75604f3c001a3ff1ca
True
Since Whitehead's metaphysics described a universe in which all entities experience, he needed a new way of describing perception that was not limited to living, self-conscious beings. The term he coined was "prehension", which comes from the Latin prehensio, meaning "to seize." The term is meant to indicate a kind of perception that can be conscious or unconscious, applying to people as well as electrons. It is also intended to make clear Whitehead's rejection of the theory of representative perception, in which the mind only has private ideas about other entities. For Whitehead, the term "prehension" indicates that the perceiver actually incorporates aspects of the perceived thing into itself. In this way, entities are constituted by their perceptions and relations, rather than being independent of them. Further, Whitehead regards perception as occurring in two modes, causal efficacy (or "physical prehension") and presentational immediacy (or "conceptual prehension").
What is the term for the experience dominating primitive organisms that have a sense for fate?
5730a11b2461fd1900a9cf11
causal efficacy
20
False
What is the other term for "pure sense perception"?
5730a11b2461fd1900a9cf12
Presentational immediacy
369
False
What is it called if you mistake a reflection in a mirror for the real thing?
5730a11b2461fd1900a9cf13
Presentational immediacy
369
False
How does Whitehead define causal efficacy?
57335d8dd058e614000b591f
"the experience dominating the primitive living organisms, which have a sense for the fate from which they have emerged, and the fate towards which they go."
39
False
How do the senses affect causal efficacy?
57335d8dd058e614000b5920
unmediated by the senses
343
False
How does Whitehead define presentational immediacy?
57335d8dd058e614000b5921
"pure sense perception", unmediated by any causal or symbolic interpretation, even unconscious interpretation
448
False
What can be said about the accuracy of presentational immediacy?
57335d8dd058e614000b5922
it is pure appearance, which may or may not be delusive
575
False
it is pure appearance
575
What can be said about the inaccuracy of presentational immediacy?
5ad3d017604f3c001a3ff1d9
True
the experience dominating the primitive living organisms, which have a sense for the fate from which they have emerged, and the fate towards which they go.
40
How does Whitehead define noncausal efficacy?
5ad3d017604f3c001a3ff1da
True
unmediated by the senses
343
How do the senses affect non-causal efficacy?
5ad3d017604f3c001a3ff1db
True
"pure sense perception", unmediated by any causal or symbolic interpretation, even unconscious interpretation.
448
How does Whitehead define unpresentational immediacy?
5ad3d017604f3c001a3ff1dc
True
Whitehead describes causal efficacy as "the experience dominating the primitive living organisms, which have a sense for the fate from which they have emerged, and the fate towards which they go." It is, in other words, the sense of causal relations between entities, a feeling of being influenced and affected by the surrounding environment, unmediated by the senses. Presentational immediacy, on the other hand, is what is usually referred to as "pure sense perception", unmediated by any causal or symbolic interpretation, even unconscious interpretation. In other words, it is pure appearance, which may or may not be delusive (e.g. mistaking an image in a mirror for "the real thing").
What is Whitehead's term for the two modes of perceptions combining?
5730a33f8ab72b1400f9c628
symbolic reference
100
False
What does symbolic reference link appearance with?
5730a33f8ab72b1400f9c629
causation
149
False
What dominates more basic mentality in symbolic reference?
5730a33f8ab72b1400f9c62a
causal relationships
1126
False
What does having sense perceptions conclude about a person?
5730a33f8ab72b1400f9c62b
higher grade mentality
1263
False
What is the purpose of symbolic reference?
57335f23d058e614000b595c
links appearance with causation in a process that is so automatic that both people and animals have difficulty refraining from it
127
False
How does Whitehead describe the process of a typical person noticing a chair?
57335f23d058e614000b595d
An ordinary person looks up, sees a colored shape, and immediately infers that it is a chair
347
False
How might an artist view a chair differently than a typical person?
57335f23d058e614000b595e
"might have stopped at the mere contemplation of a beautiful color and a beautiful shape."
543
False
How does Whitehead say a dog may interpret the presence of a chair?
57335f23d058e614000b595f
"would have acted immediately on the hypothesis of a chair and would have jumped onto it by way of using it as such."
861
False
Which concept does Whitehead state is more dominant in a lower mentality?
57335f23d058e614000b5960
causal relationships
1126
False
An ordinary person looks up, sees a colored shape, and immediately infers that it is a chair
347
How does Whitehead describe the process of an atypical person noticing a chair?
5ad3d14f604f3c001a3ff1f5
True
might not have jumped to the notion of a chair
482
How might an artist view a chair the same as a typical person?
5ad3d14f604f3c001a3ff1f6
True
would have acted immediately on the hypothesis of a chair and would have jumped onto it by way of using it as such
862
How does Whitehead say a dog may not interpret the presence of a chair?
5ad3d14f604f3c001a3ff1f7
True
causation
149
Which concept does Whitehead state is less dominant in a lower mentality?
5ad3d14f604f3c001a3ff1f8
True
In higher organisms (like people), these two modes of perception combine into what Whitehead terms "symbolic reference", which links appearance with causation in a process that is so automatic that both people and animals have difficulty refraining from it. By way of illustration, Whitehead uses the example of a person's encounter with a chair. An ordinary person looks up, sees a colored shape, and immediately infers that it is a chair. However, an artist, Whitehead supposes, "might not have jumped to the notion of a chair", but instead "might have stopped at the mere contemplation of a beautiful color and a beautiful shape." This is not the normal human reaction; most people place objects in categories by habit and instinct, without even thinking about it. Moreover, animals do the same thing. Using the same example, Whitehead points out that a dog "would have acted immediately on the hypothesis of a chair and would have jumped onto it by way of using it as such." In this way symbolic reference is a fusion of pure sense perceptions on the one hand and causal relations on the other, and that it is in fact the causal relationships that dominate the more basic mentality (as the dog illustrates), while it is the sense perceptions which indicate a higher grade mentality (as the artist illustrates).
Whitehead observes that life is deficient in what?
5730a3b12461fd1900a9cf1f
survival value
83
False
What are higher life forms actively engaged in?
5730a3b12461fd1900a9cf20
modifying their environment
491
False
How many goals of living is there?
5730a3b12461fd1900a9cf21
three
574
False
Whitehead sees life as directed towards what purpose?
5730a3b12461fd1900a9cf22
increasing its own satisfaction
703
False
Without Whitehead's proposed purpose, life would be what?
5730a3b12461fd1900a9cf23
unintelligible
793
False
What observation did Whitehead make about life?
573360a4d058e614000b5987
"life is comparatively deficient in survival value."
47
False
What was Whitehead's response to questions about why complex life evolved?
573360a4d058e614000b5988
"they certainly did not appear because they were better at that game than the rocks around them."
301
False
What did Whitehead state was the biggest indicator of a higher form of life?
573360a4d058e614000b5989
they are actively engaged in modifying their environment
462
False
What did Whitehead believe are the goals f life?
573360a4d058e614000b598a
living, living well, and living better
593
False
What did Whitehead believe was the fundamental purpose of life?
573360a4d058e614000b598b
increasing its own satisfaction
703
False
living, living well, and living better
593
What did Whitehead believe are not the goals of life?
5ad3ded0604f3c001a3ff487
True
survival value
83
Whitehead observes that life is never deficient in what?
5ad3ded0604f3c001a3ff488
True
modifying their environment
491
What are higher life forms never actively engaged in?
5ad3ded0604f3c001a3ff489
True
unintelligible
793
Whitehead sees life as directed away from what purpose?
5ad3ded0604f3c001a3ff48a
True
Whitehead makes the startling observation that "life is comparatively deficient in survival value." If humans can only exist for about a hundred years, and rocks for eight hundred million, then one is forced to ask why complex organisms ever evolved in the first place; as Whitehead humorously notes, "they certainly did not appear because they were better at that game than the rocks around them." He then observes that the mark of higher forms of life is that they are actively engaged in modifying their environment, an activity which he theorizes is directed toward the three-fold goal of living, living well, and living better. In other words, Whitehead sees life as directed toward the purpose of increasing its own satisfaction. Without such a goal, he sees the rise of life as totally unintelligible.
What is Whitehead's most well-known critical statement regarding the Christian notion of God?
573361a8d058e614000b599e
"the Church gave unto God the attributes which belonged exclusively to Caesar."
160
False
What qualities dis Whitehead state that Christians attributed to their version of God?
573361a8d058e614000b599f
primarily a divine king who imposes his will on the world, and whose most important attribute is power
303
False
What was Whitehead's description of God?
573361a8d058e614000b59a0
"the brief Galilean vision of humility"
520
False
the brief Galilean
521
What was Whitehead's description of The Devil?
5ad3d1bc604f3c001a3ff211
True
the Church gave unto God the attributes which belonged exclusively to Caesar
161
What is Whitehead's least well-known critical statement regarding the Christian notion of God?
5ad3d1bc604f3c001a3ff212
True
primarily a divine king who imposes his will on the world, and whose most important attribute is power
303
What qualities dis Whitehead not state that Christians attributed to their version of God?
5ad3d1bc604f3c001a3ff213
True
Whitehead's idea of God differs from traditional monotheistic notions. Perhaps his most famous and pointed criticism of the Christian conception of God is that "the Church gave unto God the attributes which belonged exclusively to Caesar." Here Whitehead is criticizing Christianity for defining God as primarily a divine king who imposes his will on the world, and whose most important attribute is power. As opposed to the most widely accepted forms of Christianity, Whitehead emphasized an idea of God that he called "the brief Galilean vision of humility":
What was Whitehead's belief about God in relation to religion?
573363194776f41900660987
God is not necessarily tied to religion
53
False
Why did Whitehead view the existence of God as a necessity for his metaphysical system?
573363194776f41900660988
His system required that an order exist among possibilities, an order that allowed for novelty in the world and provided an aim to all entities.
208
False
In what did Whitehead believe that those concepts existed?
573363194776f41900660989
primordial nature of God
429
False
What did Whitehead view as the second nature of God?
573363194776f4190066098a
the consequent nature
604
False
What type of God did Whitehead believe existed?
573363194776f4190066098b
dipolar
663
False
primordial nature of God
429
What was Whitehead's belief about God in relation to nonreligion?
5ad3d1ff604f3c001a3ff22b
True
consequent nature
608
What did Whitehead view as the first nature of God?
5ad3d1ff604f3c001a3ff22c
True
dipolar
663
What type of God did Whitehead believe never existed?
5ad3d1ff604f3c001a3ff22d
True
His system required that an order exist among possibilities
208
Why did Whitehead view the existence of God as a necessity for his mathematical system?
5ad3d1ff604f3c001a3ff22e
True
It should be emphasized, however, that for Whitehead God is not necessarily tied to religion. Rather than springing primarily from religious faith, Whitehead saw God as necessary for his metaphysical system. His system required that an order exist among possibilities, an order that allowed for novelty in the world and provided an aim to all entities. Whitehead posited that these ordered potentials exist in what he called the primordial nature of God. However, Whitehead was also interested in religious experience. This led him to reflect more intensively on what he saw as the second nature of God, the consequent nature. Whitehead's conception of God as a "dipolar" entity has called for fresh theological thinking.
How does Whitehead define he consequent nature of God?
573364444776f4190066099f
God's reception of the world's activity
79
False
How does Whitehead describe the judgment of God?
573364444776f419006609a0
It is the judgment of a tenderness which loses nothing that can be saved.
214
False
What does Whitehead say that God does with all experiences?
573364444776f419006609a1
God saves and cherishes all experiences forever
305
False
What effect does Whitehead claim that experiences have on God?
573364444776f419006609a2
those experiences go on to change the way God interacts with the world
358
False
What conclusion does Whitehead draw about God's treatment of humans' experiences?
573364444776f419006609a3
God is really changed by what happens in the world and the wider universe, lending the actions of finite creatures an eternal significance.
443
False
God's reception of the world's activity
79
How does Whitehead define inconsequent nature of God?
5ad3d265604f3c001a3ff245
True
It is the judgment of a tenderness which loses nothing that can be saved
214
How does Whitehead not describe the judgment of God?
5ad3d265604f3c001a3ff246
True
God saves and cherishes all experiences forever
305
What does Whitehead say that God does with no experiences?
5ad3d265604f3c001a3ff247
True
God is really changed by what happens in the world and the wider universe
443
What conclusion does Whitehead draw about God's treatment of humans' inexperiences?
5ad3d265604f3c001a3ff248
True
God's consequent nature, on the other hand, is anything but unchanging – it is God's reception of the world's activity. As Whitehead puts it, "[God] saves the world as it passes into the immediacy of his own life. It is the judgment of a tenderness which loses nothing that can be saved." In other words, God saves and cherishes all experiences forever, and those experiences go on to change the way God interacts with the world. In this way, God is really changed by what happens in the world and the wider universe, lending the actions of finite creatures an eternal significance.
How does Whitehead view the relationship between God an the world?
573366074776f419006609e3
Whitehead thus sees God and the world as fulfilling one another
0
False
How does he define entities' need for God?
573366074776f419006609e4
He sees entities in the world as fluent and changing things that yearn for a permanence which only God can provide
65
False
How dis Whitehead believe God provided permanence to entities?
573366074776f419006609e5
by taking them into God's self, thereafter changing God and affecting the rest of the universe throughout time
180
False
In what way did Whitehead view God as deficient?
573366074776f419006609e6
deficient in actuality and change
343
False
What did Whitehead claim God would be without the world?
573366074776f419006609e7
merely eternally unrealized possibilities
392
False
He sees entities in the world as fluent and changing things that yearn for a permanence which only God can provide
65
How does he define entities' lack of God?
5ad3d5b3604f3c001a3ff2d9
True
by taking them into God's self, thereafter changing God and affecting the rest of the universe throughout time
180
How dis Whitehead believe God provided impermanence to entities?
5ad3d5b3604f3c001a3ff2da
True
eternally unrealized possibilities
399
What did Whitehead claim God would be with the world?
5ad3d5b3604f3c001a3ff2db
True
Whitehead thus sees God and the world as fulfilling one another. He sees entities in the world as fluent and changing things that yearn for a permanence which only God can provide by taking them into God's self, thereafter changing God and affecting the rest of the universe throughout time. On the other hand, he sees God as permanent but as deficient in actuality and change: alone, God is merely eternally unrealized possibilities, and requires the world to actualize them. God gives creatures permanence, while the creatures give God actuality and change. Here it is worthwhile to quote Whitehead at length:
What did Whitehead believe was the basis of religion?
573367034776f41900660a0b
individual
39
False
What is Whitehead's most famous statement on religion?
573367034776f41900660a0c
"religion is what the individual does with his own solitariness ... and if you are never solitary, you are never religious."
291
False
How did Whitehead define religion?
573367034776f41900660a0d
a system of general truths that transformed a person's character
442
False
How did Whitehead define "dangerous delusion" as it relates to religion?
573367034776f41900660a0e
while religion is often a good influence, it is not necessarily good
542
False
individual
39
What did Whitehead believe was the basis of nonreligion?
5ad3d617604f3c001a3ff2e7
True
religion is what the individual does with his own solitariness
292
What is Whitehead's most famous statement on nonreligion?
5ad3d617604f3c001a3ff2e8
True
general truths that transformed a person's character
454
How did Whitehead define nonreligion?
5ad3d617604f3c001a3ff2e9
True
while religion is often a good influence, it is not necessarily good
542
How did Whitehead define "dangerous delusion" as it doesn't relate to religion?
5ad3d617604f3c001a3ff2ea
True
For Whitehead the core of religion was individual. While he acknowledged that individuals cannot ever be fully separated from their society, he argued that life is an internal fact for its own sake before it is an external fact relating to others. His most famous remark on religion is that "religion is what the individual does with his own solitariness ... and if you are never solitary, you are never religious." Whitehead saw religion as a system of general truths that transformed a person's character. He took special care to note that while religion is often a good influence, it is not necessarily good – an idea which he called a "dangerous delusion" (e.g., a religion might encourage the violent extermination of a rival religion's adherents).
In what state did Whitehead believe religion began?
573368ba4776f41900660a49
solitariness
54
False
What realization did Whitehead believe religion made necessary?
573368ba4776f41900660a4a
"the value of the objective world which is a community derivative from the interrelations of its component individuals."
264
False
What did Whitehead believe was necessary for an entity to have meaning and value?
573368ba4776f41900660a4b
meaning and value do not exist for the individual alone, but only in the context of the universal community
524
False
How does Whitehead describe religion as world-loyalty?
573368ba4776f41900660a4c
The spirit at once surrenders itself to this universal claim and appropriates it for itself
803
False
What did Whitehead believe was the relationship between the individual and social aspects of religion?
573368ba4776f41900660a4d
the individual and universal/social aspects of religion are mutually dependent
909
False
spirit at once surrenders itself to this universal claim and appropriates it for itself
807
How does Whitehead describe religion as non-world-loyalty?
5ad3d6cd604f3c001a3ff317
True
solitariness
54
In what state did Whitehead believe religion not begin?
5ad3d6cd604f3c001a3ff318
True
meaning and value do not exist for the individual alone
524
What did Whitehead believe was not necessary for an entity to have meaning and value?
5ad3d6cd604f3c001a3ff319
True
individual and universal/social aspects
913
What did Whitehead believe was the relationship between the individual and nonsocial aspects of religion?
5ad3d6cd604f3c001a3ff31a
True
However, while Whitehead saw religion as beginning in solitariness, he also saw religion as necessarily expanding beyond the individual. In keeping with his process metaphysics in which relations are primary, he wrote that religion necessitates the realization of "the value of the objective world which is a community derivative from the interrelations of its component individuals." In other words, the universe is a community which makes itself whole through the relatedness of each individual entity to all the others – meaning and value do not exist for the individual alone, but only in the context of the universal community. Whitehead writes further that each entity "can find no such value till it has merged its individual claim with that of the objective universe. Religion is world-loyalty. The spirit at once surrenders itself to this universal claim and appropriates it for itself." In this way the individual and universal/social aspects of religion are mutually dependent.
What was Whitehead's technical definition of religion?
573369bd4776f41900660a6a
"an ultimate craving to infuse into the insistent particularity of emotion that non-temporal generality which primarily belongs to conceptual thought alone."
54
False
What did Whitehead believe religion did with strong emotions?
573369bd4776f41900660a6b
religion takes deeply felt emotions and contextualizes them within a system of general truths about the world
228
False
What purpose did Whitehead believe religion served?
573369bd4776f41900660a6c
a kind of bridge between philosophy and the emotions and purposes of a particular society
438
False
What did Whitehead believe was the job of religion regarding philosophy?
573369bd4776f41900660a6d
It is the task of religion to make philosophy applicable to the everyday lives of ordinary people.
529
False
ultimate craving to infuse into the insistent particularity of emotion that non-temporal generality which primarily belongs to conceptual thought alone
58
What was Whitehead's technical definition of nonreligion?
5ad3d723604f3c001a3ff333
True
religion takes deeply felt emotions and contextualizes them within a system of general truths about the world
228
What did Whitehead believe religion did with weak emotions?
5ad3d723604f3c001a3ff334
True
bridge between philosophy and the emotions
448
What purpose did Whitehead believe religion never served?
5ad3d723604f3c001a3ff335
True
It is the task of religion to make philosophy applicable to the everyday lives of ordinary people
529
What did Whitehead believe was the job of religion not regarding philosophy?
5ad3d723604f3c001a3ff336
True
Whitehead also described religion more technically as "an ultimate craving to infuse into the insistent particularity of emotion that non-temporal generality which primarily belongs to conceptual thought alone." In other words, religion takes deeply felt emotions and contextualizes them within a system of general truths about the world, helping people to identify their wider meaning and significance. For Whitehead, religion served as a kind of bridge between philosophy and the emotions and purposes of a particular society. It is the task of religion to make philosophy applicable to the everyday lives of ordinary people.
According to Isabelle Stengers, what are unifying factors in diverse practices (like ecology and feminism) that have become interested in Whitehead's work?
57337336d058e614000b5b26
practices that unite political struggle and spirituality with the sciences of education
208
False
In what areas of the world has interest in Whitehead's work spread in recent decades?
57337336d058e614000b5b27
Europe and China
426
False
What other fields have shown more recent interest in Whitehead's work?
57337336d058e614000b5b28
ecology, physics, biology, education, economics, and psychology
483
False
Who was one of the first theologians to try to interact with Whitehead's ideas?
57337336d058e614000b5b29
William Temple
666
False
What was the basis for "Nature, Man and God"?
57337336d058e614000b5b2a
Temple's Gifford Lectures of 1932-1934
685
False
practices that unite political struggle and spirituality with the sciences of education
208
According to Isabelle Stengers, what are non unifying factors in diverse practices (like ecology and feminism) that have become interested in Whitehead's work?
5ad3d77b604f3c001a3ff34d
True
Europe and China
426
In what areas of the world has interest in Whitehead's work spread in past decades?
5ad3d77b604f3c001a3ff34e
True
ecology, physics, biology, education, economics, and psychology
483
What other fields have shown less recent interest in Whitehead's work?
5ad3d77b604f3c001a3ff34f
True
William Temple
666
Who was one of the last theologians to try to interact with Whitehead's ideas?
5ad3d77b604f3c001a3ff350
True
Isabelle Stengers wrote that "Whiteheadians are recruited among both philosophers and theologians, and the palette has been enriched by practitioners from the most diverse horizons, from ecology to feminism, practices that unite political struggle and spirituality with the sciences of education." Indeed, in recent decades attention to Whitehead's work has become more widespread, with interest extending to intellectuals in Europe and China, and coming from such diverse fields as ecology, physics, biology, education, economics, and psychology. One of the first theologians to attempt to interact with Whitehead's thought was the future Archbishop of Canterbury, William Temple. In Temple's Gifford Lectures of 1932-1934 (subsequently published as "Nature, Man and God"), Whitehead is one of a number of philosophers of the emergent evolution approach Temple interacts with. However, it was not until the 1970s and 1980s that Whitehead's thought drew much attention outside of a small group of philosophers and theologians, primarily Americans, and even today he is not considered especially influential outside of relatively specialized circles.
Where were the first followers mainly found?
57337479d058e614000b5b3f
at the University of Chicago's Divinity School
50
False
Who began the interest in Whitehead at Chicago's Divinity School?
57337479d058e614000b5b40
Henry Nelson Wieman
104
False
What professors established the importance of Whitehead's work?
57337479d058e614000b5b41
Wieman, Charles Hartshorne, Bernard Loomer, Bernard Meland, and Daniel Day Williams
225
False
Who id the most well-known Whitehead scholar?
57337479d058e614000b5b42
John B. Cobb
498
False
University of Chicago's Divinity School
57
Where were the last followers mainly found?
5ad3d7b8604f3c001a3ff355
True
Henry Nelson Wieman
104
Who lost the interest in Whitehead at Chicago's Divinity School?
5ad3d7b8604f3c001a3ff356
True
Wieman, Charles Hartshorne, Bernard Loomer, Bernard Meland, and Daniel Day Williams
225
What professors established the unimportance of Whitehead's work?
5ad3d7b8604f3c001a3ff357
True
John B. Cobb, Jr
498
Who is the least well-known Whitehead scholar?
5ad3d7b8604f3c001a3ff358
True
Early followers of Whitehead were found primarily at the University of Chicago's Divinity School, where Henry Nelson Wieman initiated an interest in Whitehead's work that would last for about thirty years. Professors such as Wieman, Charles Hartshorne, Bernard Loomer, Bernard Meland, and Daniel Day Williams made Whitehead's philosophy arguably the most important intellectual thread running through the Divinity School. They taught generations of Whitehead scholars, the most notable of which is John B. Cobb, Jr.
Where is interest in Whitehead's work growing the fastest today?
5733766ed058e614000b5b60
China
169
False
What challenges are China using Whitehead's ideas to help manage?
5733766ed058e614000b5b61
modernization and industrialization
214
False
What types of traditions are China blending with Whitehead's "constructive post-modern" philosophy?
5733766ed058e614000b5b62
traditions of Taoism, Buddhism, and Confucianism
276
False
What philosphers' writings are becoming required reading for graduate students in China?
5733766ed058e614000b5b63
John Cobb and David Ray Griffin
605
False
Why does John Cobb believe China has become interested in process philosophy?
5733766ed058e614000b5b64
interdependence of humanity and nature, as well as his emphasis on an educational system that includes the teaching of values rather than simply bare facts
800
False
China
169
Where is interest in Whitehead's work growing the slowest today?
5ad3d7ef604f3c001a3ff367
True
modernization and industrialization
214
What challenges are Japan using Whitehead's ideas to help manage?
5ad3d7ef604f3c001a3ff368
True
Taoism, Buddhism, and Confucianism
290
What types of traditions are China blending with Whitehead's "constructive pre-modern" philosophy?
5ad3d7ef604f3c001a3ff369
True
John Cobb and David Ray Griffin
605
What philosphers' writings are becoming not required reading for graduate students in China?
5ad3d7ef604f3c001a3ff36a
True
But while Claremont remains the most concentrated hub of Whiteheadian activity, the place where Whitehead's thought currently seems to be growing the most quickly is in China. In order to address the challenges of modernization and industrialization, China has begun to blend traditions of Taoism, Buddhism, and Confucianism with Whitehead's "constructive post-modern" philosophy in order to create an "ecological civilization." To date, the Chinese government has encouraged the building of twenty-three university-based centers for the study of Whitehead's philosophy, and books by process philosophers John Cobb and David Ray Griffin are becoming required reading for Chinese graduate students. Cobb has attributed China's interest in process philosophy partly to Whitehead's stress on the mutual interdependence of humanity and nature, as well as his emphasis on an educational system that includes the teaching of values rather than simply bare facts.
Where are Whitehead's works primarily studied in English-speaking countries?
57337cc94776f41900660ba7
Claremont and a select number of liberal graduate-level theology and philosophy programs
154
False
Where has interest outside of those areas mainly come from?
57337cc94776f41900660ba8
through the work of his students and admirers rather
347
False
Who are two of Whitehead's students that have gone on to become renowned in the field of analytic philosophy?
57337cc94776f41900660ba9
Bertrand Russell, and he also taught and supervised the dissertation of Willard Van Orman Quine
503
False
What did Gilles Deleuze say about Whitehead?
57337cc94776f41900660baa
"he stands provisionally as the last great Anglo-American philosopher before Wittgenstein's disciples spread their misty confusion, sufficiency, and terror."
924
False
What French sociologist and anthropologist stated that Whitehead was "the greatest philosopher of the 20th century"?
57337cc94776f41900660bab
Bruno Latour
1120
False
Claremont and a select number of liberal graduate-level theology and philosophy programs
154
Where are Whitehead's works was not primarily studied in English-speaking countries?
5ad3d82d604f3c001a3ff36f
True
through the work of his students and admirers
347
Where has no interest outside of those areas mainly come from?
5ad3d82d604f3c001a3ff370
True
Bertrand Russell, and he also taught and supervised the dissertation of Willard Van Orman Quine
503
Who are two of Whitehead's students that have not gone on to become renowned in the field of analytic philosophy?
5ad3d82d604f3c001a3ff371
True
he stands provisionally as the last great Anglo-American philosopher before Wittgenstein's disciples spread their misty confusion, sufficiency, and terror
925
What did Gilles Deleuze hate about Whitehead?
5ad3d82d604f3c001a3ff372
True
Overall, however, Whitehead's influence is very difficult to characterize. In English-speaking countries, his primary works are little-studied outside of Claremont and a select number of liberal graduate-level theology and philosophy programs. Outside of these circles his influence is relatively small and diffuse, and has tended to come chiefly through the work of his students and admirers rather than Whitehead himself. For instance, Whitehead was a teacher and long-time friend and collaborator of Bertrand Russell, and he also taught and supervised the dissertation of Willard Van Orman Quine, both of whom are important figures in analytic philosophy – the dominant strain of philosophy in English-speaking countries in the 20th century. Whitehead has also had high-profile admirers in the continental tradition, such as French post-structuralist philosopher Gilles Deleuze, who once dryly remarked of Whitehead that "he stands provisionally as the last great Anglo-American philosopher before Wittgenstein's disciples spread their misty confusion, sufficiency, and terror." French sociologist and anthropologist Bruno Latour even went so far as to call Whitehead "the greatest philosopher of the 20th century."
What is the general opinion of Whitehead in most philosophical schools?
57337e8f4776f41900660bc8
Whitehead has not been recognized as particularly influential within the most dominant philosophical schools
64
False
what is an example of Whitehead's ideas being counter-intuitive?
57337e8f4776f41900660bc9
his assertion that matter is an abstraction
357
False
What is a common opinion of metaphysics?
57337e8f4776f41900660bca
perception of metaphysics itself as passé
467
False
Why do some people believe Whitehead's writings may have restricted his influence?
57337e8f4776f41900660bcb
the sheer difficulty and density of his prose
520
False
not been recognized as particularly influential
78
What is the general opinion of Whitehead in less philosophical schools?
5ad3d8e4604f3c001a3ff38b
True
assertion that matter is an abstraction
361
what is an example of Whitehead's ideas not being counter-intuitive?
5ad3d8e4604f3c001a3ff38c
True
metaphysics itself as passé
481
What is an uncommon opinion of metaphysics?
5ad3d8e4604f3c001a3ff38d
True
sheer difficulty and density of his prose
524
Why do some people believe Whitehead's writings may have not restricted his influence?
5ad3d8e4604f3c001a3ff38e
True
Deleuze's and Latour's opinions, however, are minority ones, as Whitehead has not been recognized as particularly influential within the most dominant philosophical schools. It is impossible to say exactly why Whitehead's influence has not been more widespread, but it may be partly due to his metaphysical ideas seeming somewhat counter-intuitive (such as his assertion that matter is an abstraction), or his inclusion of theistic elements in his philosophy, or the perception of metaphysics itself as passé, or simply the sheer difficulty and density of his prose.
In what field of study has Whitehead's work been most influential in the United States?
5733801f4776f41900660c03
American progressive theology
72
False
Who was the most important early supporter of Whitehead's work in the context of theology?
5733801f4776f41900660c04
Charles Hartshorne
190
False
What advancement of Whitehead's process philosophy is attributed to Charles Hartshorne?
5733801f4776f41900660c05
developing Whitehead's process philosophy into a full-blown process theology
313
False
Who are some other distinguished process theologians?
5733801f4776f41900660c06
John B. Cobb, Jr., David Ray Griffin, Marjorie Hewitt Suchocki, C. Robert Mesle, Roland Faber, and Catherine Keller
433
False
American progressive theology
72
In what field of study has Whitehead's work been less influential in the United States?
5ad3d949604f3c001a3ff39b
True
Charles Hartshorne
190
Who was the least important early supporter of Whitehead's work in the context of theology?
5ad3d949604f3c001a3ff39c
True
developing Whitehead's process philosophy into a full-blown process theology
313
What advancement of Whitehead's process philosophy is not attributed to Charles Hartshorne?
5ad3d949604f3c001a3ff39d
True
Historically Whitehead's work has been most influential in the field of American progressive theology. The most important early proponent of Whitehead's thought in a theological context was Charles Hartshorne, who spent a semester at Harvard as Whitehead's teaching assistant in 1925, and is widely credited with developing Whitehead's process philosophy into a full-blown process theology. Other notable process theologians include John B. Cobb, Jr., David Ray Griffin, Marjorie Hewitt Suchocki, C. Robert Mesle, Roland Faber, and Catherine Keller.
What aspect of God is usually emphasized in process theology?
573384984776f41900660c71
God's relational nature
36
False
How is God usually perceived by process theologians?
573384984776f41900660c72
"the fellow sufferer who understands", and as the being who is supremely affected by temporal events
145
False
Why did Hartshorne feel that God must be affected by people?
573384984776f41900660c73
people would not praise a human ruler who was unaffected by either the joys or sorrows of his followers – so why would this be a praise-worthy quality in God?
274
False
Why would God being substantially affected by the world be beneficial?
573384984776f41900660c74
as the being who is most affected by the world, God is the being who can most appropriately respond to the world
442
False
What type of process theology does C. Robert Mesle promote?
573384984776f41900660c75
"process naturalism", i.e. a process theology without God.
672
False
God's relational nature
36
What aspect of God is not emphasized in process theology?
5ad3d99d604f3c001a3ff3a1
True
the fellow sufferer who understands
146
How is God usually never perceived by process theologians?
5ad3d99d604f3c001a3ff3a2
True
people would not praise a human ruler who was unaffected by either the joys or sorrows of his followers
274
Why did Hartshorne feel that God must not be affected by people?
5ad3d99e604f3c001a3ff3a4
True
Process theology typically stresses God's relational nature. Rather than seeing God as impassive or emotionless, process theologians view God as "the fellow sufferer who understands", and as the being who is supremely affected by temporal events. Hartshorne points out that people would not praise a human ruler who was unaffected by either the joys or sorrows of his followers – so why would this be a praise-worthy quality in God? Instead, as the being who is most affected by the world, God is the being who can most appropriately respond to the world. However, process theology has been formulated in a wide variety of ways. C. Robert Mesle, for instance, advocates a "process naturalism", i.e. a process theology without God.
Why is there difficulty in defining process theology ?
573386274776f41900660c91
process theologians are so diverse and transdisciplinary in their views and interests
57
False
What subjects has John B. Cobb, Jr. written books on other than process theology?
573386274776f41900660c92
biology and economics
216
False
What theories do Roland Faber and Catherine Keller combine with Whitehead's ideas?
573386274776f41900660c93
poststructuralist, postcolonialist, and feminist theory
298
False
What was Charles Birch's profession besides theologian?
573386274776f41900660c94
geneticist
397
False
Who authored "Syntheism - Creating God in the Internet Age"?
573386274776f41900660c95
Alexander Bard and Jan Söderqvist
533
False
process theologian
167
Why is there no difficulty in defining process theology?
5ad3d9ea604f3c001a3ff3b3
True
biology and economics
216
What subjects has John B. Cobb, Jr. burned books on other than process theology?
5ad3d9ea604f3c001a3ff3b4
True
poststructuralist, postcolonialist, and feminist theory
298
What theories do Roland Faber and Catherine Keller not combine with Whitehead's ideas?
5ad3d9ea604f3c001a3ff3b5
True
geneticist
397
What wasnt Charles Birch's profession besides theologian?
5ad3d9ea604f3c001a3ff3b6
True
In fact, process theology is difficult to define because process theologians are so diverse and transdisciplinary in their views and interests. John B. Cobb, Jr. is a process theologian who has also written books on biology and economics. Roland Faber and Catherine Keller integrate Whitehead with poststructuralist, postcolonialist, and feminist theory. Charles Birch was both a theologian and a geneticist. Franklin I. Gamwell writes on theology and political theory. In Syntheism - Creating God in The Internet Age, futurologists Alexander Bard and Jan Söderqvist repeatedly credit Whitehead for the process theology they see rising out of the participatory culture expected to dominate the digital era.
What philosophy is closely related to process philosophy?
57338802d058e614000b5cbb
American pragmatism
100
False
What pragmatists did Whitehead acknowledge in the preface to "Process and Reality"?
57338802d058e614000b5cbc
William James and John Dewey
157
False
What founder of pragmatism's collected papers did Charles Hartshorne ans Paul Weiss edit?
57338802d058e614000b5cbd
Charles Sanders Peirce
342
False
What important neopragmatist was Harthorne's student?
57338802d058e614000b5cbe
Richard Rorty
421
False
Who is a philosopher that promotes process philosophy and pragmatism currently?
57338802d058e614000b5cbf
Nicholas Rescher
479
False
William James and John Dewey
157
What pragmatists did Whitehead not acknowledge in the preface to "Process and Reality"?
5ad3dbbc604f3c001a3ff3d7
True
Charles Sanders Peirce
342
What founder of pragmatism's collected papers did Charles Hartshorne and Paul Weiss not edit?
5ad3dbbc604f3c001a3ff3d8
True
Richard Rorty
421
What unimportant neopragmatist was Harthorne's student?
5ad3dbbc604f3c001a3ff3d9
True
Nicholas Rescher
479
Who is a philosopher that doesn't promote process philosophy and pragmatism currently?
5ad3dbbc604f3c001a3ff3da
True
One philosophical school which has historically had a close relationship with process philosophy is American pragmatism. Whitehead himself thought highly of William James and John Dewey, and acknowledged his indebtedness to them in the preface to Process and Reality. Charles Hartshorne (along with Paul Weiss) edited the collected papers of Charles Sanders Peirce, one of the founders of pragmatism. Noted neopragmatist Richard Rorty was in turn a student of Hartshorne. Today, Nicholas Rescher is one example of a philosopher who advocates both process philosophy and pragmatism.
How was Whitehead's theory of gravitation received?
573392424776f41900660d83
It has been severely criticized
190
False
What affect  did the discovery of gravitational waves have on Whitehead's theory?
573392424776f41900660d84
Whitehead's view has now been rendered obsolete, with the discovery of gravitational waves
401
False
What are gravitational waves?
573392424776f41900660d85
phenonena observed locally that largely violate the kind of local flatness of space that Whitehead assumes
502
False
How must Whiteheads cosmology now be considered?
573392424776f41900660d86
Whitehead's cosmology must be regarded as a local approximation
624
False
What physicists in the field of quantum theory have been influenced by Whitehead?
573392424776f41900660d87
Henry Stapp and David Bohm
1078
False
severely criticized
202
How was Whitehead's theory of non-gravitation received?
5ad3dc10604f3c001a3ff3f1
True
Whitehead's view has now been rendered obsolete, with the discovery of gravitational waves.
401
What affect did the discovery of gravitational waves not have on Whitehead's theory?
5ad3dc10604f3c001a3ff3f2
True
phenonena observed locally that largely violate the kind of local flatness of space that Whitehead assumes
502
What are non-gravitational waves?
5ad3dc10604f3c001a3ff3f3
True
In physics, Whitehead's thought has had some influence. He articulated a view that might perhaps be regarded as dual to Einstein's general relativity, see Whitehead's theory of gravitation. It has been severely criticized. Yutaka Tanaka, who suggests that the gravitational constant disagrees with experimental findings, proposes that Einstein's work does not actually refute Whitehead's formulation. Whitehead's view has now been rendered obsolete, with the discovery of gravitational waves. They are phenonena observed locally that largely violate the kind of local flatness of space that Whitehead assumes. Consequently, Whitehead's cosmology must be regarded as a local approximation, and his assumption of a uniform spatio-temporal geometry, Minkowskian in particular, as an often-locally-adequate approximation. An exact replacement of Whitehead's cosmology would need to admit a Riemannian geometry. Also, although Whitehead himself gave only secondary consideration to quantum theory, his metaphysics of processes has proved attractive to some physicists in that field. Henry Stapp and David Bohm are among those whose work has been influenced by Whitehead.
What was the first book on environmental ethics by an individual author?
5733938f4776f41900660db9
Is It Too Late? A Theology of Ecology
62
False
On which economics book did Cobb collaborate with Herman Daly?
5733938f4776f41900660dba
For the Common Good: Redirecting the Economy toward Community, the Environment, and a Sustainable Future
232
False
What award did Cobb and Daly receive for the book?
5733938f4776f41900660dbb
Grawemeyer Award for Ideas Improving World Order
410
False
What other economics book did Cobb go on to author?
5733938f4776f41900660dbc
Sustaining the Common Good: A Christian Perspective on the Global Economy
499
False
What was the goal of Cobb's second book on economics?
5733938f4776f41900660dbd
to challenge "economists' zealous faith in the great god of growth."
593
False
Is It Too Late? A Theology of Ecology
62
What was the last book on environmental ethics by an individual author?
5ad3dc50604f3c001a3ff3f7
True
the Common Good: A Christian Perspective on the Global Economy
510
On which economics book did Cobb kick out Herman Daly?
5ad3dc50604f3c001a3ff3f8
True
Grawemeyer Award for Ideas Improving World Order
410
What award did Cobb and Daly lose for the book?
5ad3dc50604f3c001a3ff3f9
True
Sustaining the Common Good: A Christian Perspective on the Global Economy
499
What other science book did Cobb go on to author?
5ad3dc50604f3c001a3ff3fa
True
This work has been pioneered by John B. Cobb, Jr., whose book Is It Too Late? A Theology of Ecology (1971) was the first single-authored book in environmental ethics. Cobb also co-authored a book with economist Herman Daly entitled For the Common Good: Redirecting the Economy toward Community, the Environment, and a Sustainable Future (1989), which applied Whitehead's thought to economics, and received the Grawemeyer Award for Ideas Improving World Order. Cobb followed this with a second book, Sustaining the Common Good: A Christian Perspective on the Global Economy (1994), which aimed to challenge "economists' zealous faith in the great god of growth."
Who established the FEELS model in China?
5733948e4776f41900660dd2
Xie Bangxiu
46
False
What does "FEELS" stand for?
5733948e4776f41900660dd3
Flexible-goals, Engaged-learner, Embodied-knowledge, Learning-through-interactions, and Supportive-teacher
154
False
What is the purpose of the FEELS model?
5733948e4776f41900660dd4
It is used for understanding and evaluating educational curriculum under the assumption that the purpose of education is to "help a person become whole."
262
False
What entities are working together to promote the FEELS model?
5733948e4776f41900660dd5
Chinese government organizations and the Institute for the Postmodern Development of China
472
False
Xie Bangxiu
46
Who established the HEELS model in China?
5ad3dc78604f3c001a3ff409
True
Flexible-goals, Engaged-learner, Embodied-knowledge, Learning-through-interactions, and Supportive-teacher
154
What does "HEELS" stand for?
5ad3dc78604f3c001a3ff40a
True
Chinese government organizations and the Institute for the Postmodern Development of China
472
What entities are working together to promote the HEELS model?
5ad3dc78604f3c001a3ff40b
True
Another model is the FEELS model developed by Xie Bangxiu and deployed successfully in China. "FEELS" stands for five things in curriculum and education: Flexible-goals, Engaged-learner, Embodied-knowledge, Learning-through-interactions, and Supportive-teacher. It is used for understanding and evaluating educational curriculum under the assumption that the purpose of education is to "help a person become whole." This work is in part the product of cooperation between Chinese government organizations and the Institute for the Postmodern Development of China.
What business fields has Whitehead influenced?
5733971d4776f41900660e08
philosophy of business administration and organizational theory
36
False
What prominent business professor has been heavily influenced by Whitehead?
5733971d4776f41900660e09
Mark Dibben
507
False
What does Dibben call his philosophy on management and business administration?
5733971d4776f41900660e0a
"applied process thought"
547
False
According to Dibben, what are the benefits of applying process metaphysics to examining management and business administration as a component of social science?
5733971d4776f41900660e0b
this allows "a comprehensive exploration of life as perpetually active experiencing, as opposed to occasional – and thoroughly passive – happening."
749
False
In what fields has Dibben published two books and other papers?
5733971d4776f41900660e0c
philosophy of management and business ethics
1155
False
philosophy of business administration and organizational theory
36
What business fields has Whitehead not influenced?
5ad3dca0604f3c001a3ff40f
True
Mark Dibben
507
What prominent business professor has not been heavily influenced by Whitehead?
5ad3dca0604f3c001a3ff410
True
Applied Process Thought II
1040
What does Dibben call his philosophy on science and math administration?
5ad3dca0604f3c001a3ff411
True
Whitehead has had some influence on philosophy of business administration and organizational theory. This has led in part to a focus on identifying and investigating the effect of temporal events (as opposed to static things) within organizations through an “organization studies” discourse that accommodates a variety of 'weak' and 'strong' process perspectives from a number of philosophers. One of the leading figures having an explicitly Whiteheadian and panexperientialist stance towards management is Mark Dibben, who works in what he calls "applied process thought" to articulate a philosophy of management and business administration as part of a wider examination of the social sciences through the lens of process metaphysics. For Dibben, this allows "a comprehensive exploration of life as perpetually active experiencing, as opposed to occasional – and thoroughly passive – happening." Dibben has published two books on applied process thought, Applied Process Thought I: Initial Explorations in Theory and Research (2008), and Applied Process Thought II: Following a Trail Ablaze (2009), as well as other papers in this vein in the fields of philosophy of management and business ethics.
What is Mary Parker Follett known for?
57339840d058e614000b5e4c
pioneer in the fields of organizational theory and organizational behavior
127
False
What do Margaret Stout and Carrie M. Staton view as commonalities between Whitehead and Follett?
57339840d058e614000b5e4d
ontology that "understands becoming as a relational process; difference as being related, yet unique; and the purpose of becoming as harmonizing difference."
265
False
What book did Stout and Jeanine M. Love author that further examines the on between Whitehead and Follett?
57339840d058e614000b5e4e
Integrative Process: Follettian Thinking from Ontology to Administration
492
False
pioneer in the fields of organizational theory and organizational behavior
127
What is Mary Parker Follett not known for?
5ad3dce8604f3c001a3ff41f
True
ontology that "understands becoming as a relational process; difference as being related, yet unique; and the purpose of becoming as harmonizing difference
265
What do Margaret Stout and Carrie M. Staton view as differences between Whitehead and Follett?
5ad3dce8604f3c001a3ff420
True
Integrative Process: Follettian Thinking from Ontology to Administration
492
What book did Stout and Jeanine M. Love author that does not examine between Whitehead and Follett?
5ad3dce8604f3c001a3ff421
True
Margaret Stout and Carrie M. Staton have also written recently on the mutual influence of Whitehead and Mary Parker Follett, a pioneer in the fields of organizational theory and organizational behavior. Stout and Staton see both Whitehead and Follett as sharing an ontology that "understands becoming as a relational process; difference as being related, yet unique; and the purpose of becoming as harmonizing difference." This connection is further analyzed by Stout and Jeannine M. Love in Integrative Process: Follettian Thinking from Ontology to Administration
Antibiotics
What is one disease that has been nearly eradicated thanks to vaccines and antibiotics?
573016fb947a6a140053d0b4
tuberculosis
140
False
What is one issue that can arise from overuse of antibiotics?
573016fb947a6a140053d0b5
overuse, especially in livestock raising, prompting bacteria to develop resistance
220
False
In which century were antibiotics first introduced?
573016fb947a6a140053d0b6
20th century
43
False
What organization called antimicrobial resistance a 'serious threat?'
573016fb947a6a140053d0b7
World Health Organization
411
False
What can be affected by issues resulting from overuse of antibiotics?
573016fb947a6a140053d0b8
anyone, of any age, in any country
631
False
In what century did antibiotics revolutionized medicine?
5730ba2f396df919000962ec
20th
43
False
What other medicine worked along antibiotics to eradicate diseases like tuberculosis?
5730ba2f396df919000962ed
vaccination
80
False
What does there medicines do for livestock?
5730ba2f396df919000962ee
develop resistance
284
False
What organization classifies this as a current serious threat in the whole world??
5730ba2f396df919000962ef
World Health Organization
411
False
Besides antimicrobial, what did the overused medicine cause?
5730ba2f396df919000962f0
antibiotic resistance
363
False
When did antibiotics revolutinzed medicine?
5731bbe8e17f3d1400422341
20th century
43
False
What happened when antibiotics was over used in livestock?
5731bbe8e17f3d1400422342
develop resistance
284
False
What organization stated that the world has this serious problem?
5731bbe8e17f3d1400422343
World Health Organization
411
False
What regions in the world does this apply in?
5731bbe8e17f3d1400422344
every region of the world
573
False
When were antibiotics created?
5732843bb3a91d1900202df7
20th century
43
False
What disease did antibiotics help eliminate?
5732843bb3a91d1900202df8
tuberculosis
140
False
Who else uses antibiotics besides the medical industry?
5732843bb3a91d1900202df9
livestock raising
243
False
What is a common problem in antibiotic use?
5732843bb3a91d1900202dfa
antimicrobial and antibiotic resistance
345
False
tuberculosis
140
What is one disease that has been widespread thanks to vaccines and antibiotics?
5a65ba22c2b11c001a425d13
True
overuse, especially in livestock raising, prompting bacteria to develop resistance.
220
What is one issue that can arise from overuse of predictions?
5a65ba22c2b11c001a425d14
True
20th century
43
In which century was tuberculosis first introduced?
5a65ba22c2b11c001a425d15
True
World Health Organization
411
What organization called bacteria a 'serious threat?'
5a65ba22c2b11c001a425d16
True
vaccination
80
What other medicine worked along antibiotics to classify diseases like tuberculosis?
5a65ba22c2b11c001a425d17
True
Antibiotics revolutionized medicine in the 20th century, and have together with vaccination led to the near eradication of diseases such as tuberculosis in the developed world. Their effectiveness and easy access led to overuse, especially in livestock raising, prompting bacteria to develop resistance. This has led to widespread problems with antimicrobial and antibiotic resistance, so much as to prompt the World Health Organization to classify antimicrobial resistance as a "serious threat [that] is no longer a prediction for the future, it is happening right now in every region of the world and has the potential to affect anyone, of any age, in any country".
What is one kind of therapy that may be used when a patience has an infection, but it has not been identified?
573018d5947a6a140053d0e4
empirical therapy
3
False
Where do doctors perform microorganism identification testing?
573018d5947a6a140053d0e5
laboratory
523
False
What kinds of antibiotics are most commonly used for empirical therapy?
573018d5947a6a140053d0e6
broad spectrum antibiotic
309
False
At what stage does a doctor begin empirical therapy?
573018d5947a6a140053d0e7
While the microorgainsim is being identified
126
False
How long does the identification process take?
573018d5947a6a140053d0e8
several days
503
False
What happens when a doctor doesn't know the microorganism yet?
573288ce57eb1f1400fd2d82
broad spectrum antibiotic
309
False
What happens in empirical therapy?
573288ce57eb1f1400fd2d83
a patient has proven or suspected infection, but the responsible microorganism is not yet unidentified
22
False
When is empirical started?
573288ce57eb1f1400fd2d84
before the doctor knows the exact identification of microorgansim
375
False
empirical therapy
3
What is one kind of microorganism that may be used when a patient has an infection but it has not yet been identified?
5a65bb37c2b11c001a425d1d
True
laboratory
523
Where do doctors perform empirical therapy testing?
5a65bb37c2b11c001a425d1e
True
broad spectrum antibiotic
309
What kinds of infections are most commonly used for empirical therapy?
5a65bb37c2b11c001a425d1f
True
While the microorgainsim is being identified
126
At what age does a microorganism begin empirical therapy?
5a65bb37c2b11c001a425d20
True
several days
503
How long does the infection process take?
5a65bb37c2b11c001a425d21
True
In empirical therapy, a patient has proven or suspected infection, but the responsible microorganism is not yet unidentified. While the microorgainsim is being identified the doctor will usually administer the best choice of antibiotic that will be most active against the likely cause of infection usually a broad spectrum antibiotic. Empirical therapy is usually initiated before the doctor knows the exact identification of microorgansim causing the infection as the identification process make take several days in the laboratory.
What are two examples of minor side effects caused by some antibiotics?
57301a6b04bcaa1900d7719f
fever and nausea
686
False
What causes diarrhea?
57301a6b04bcaa1900d771a0
disruption of the species composition in the intestinal flora
828
False
What negative effects can antibiotics have on the vaginal area?
57301a6b04bcaa1900d771a1
yeast
1064
False
What is one example of antibiotics that may have a possible side effect of tendon damage?
57301a6b04bcaa1900d771a2
a quinolone antibiotic with a systemic corticosteroid
1258
False
What is one possible serious side effect of over-using antibiotics?
57301a6b04bcaa1900d771a3
alter the host microbiota
1390
False
What are antibiotics screened for on mammals and humans?
5730ee6405b4da19006bcc4e
negative effects
33
False
What do antibiotics need approval for?
5730ee6405b4da19006bcc4f
clinical use
97
False
What besides the individual patient is targeted when antibiotics is being used?
5730ee6405b4da19006bcc50
microbial organisms
341
False
Photodermatitis, nausea, allergic reactions and anaphylaxis are all what type of side effect?
5730ee6405b4da19006bcc51
Adverse effects
659
False
What was altered during the hypothesis of indiscriminate use of antibiotics?
5730ee6405b4da19006bcc52
host microbiota
1400
False
Why are antibiotics checked before use?
57328a33b3a91d1900202e29
negative effects on humans or other mammals
33
False
Name some adverse effects?
57328a33b3a91d1900202e2a
fever and nausea to major allergic reactions, including photodermatitis and anaphylaxis
686
False
Name some side-effects?
57328a33b3a91d1900202e2b
diarrhea
803
False
What can happen to vaginal flora?
57328a33b3a91d1900202e2c
overgrowth of yeast
1050
False
What can happen when antibiotics are used with other drugs?
57328a33b3a91d1900202e2d
Additional side-effects
1126
False
fever and nausea
686
What are two examples of anitbacterials caused by some antibiotics?
5a65bdbfc2b11c001a425d27
True
disruption of the species composition in the intestinal flora,
828
What causes anaphylaxis?
5a65bdbfc2b11c001a425d28
True
a quinolone antibiotic with a systemic corticosteroid
1258
What is one possible side effect of antibiotics that do not have a side effect of tendon damage?
5a65bdbfc2b11c001a425d29
True
negative effects
33
What are antibiotics screened for on microbiota and chronic disease?
5a65bdbfc2b11c001a425d2a
True
Antibiotics are screened for any negative effects on humans or other mammals before approval for clinical use, and are usually considered safe and most are well tolerated. However, some antibiotics have been associated with a range of adverse side effects. Side-effects range from mild to very serious depending on the antibiotics used, the microbial organisms targeted, and the individual patient. Side effects may reflect the pharmacological or toxicological properties of the antibiotic or may involve hypersensitivity reactions or anaphylaxis. Safety profiles of newer drugs are often not as well established as for those that have a long history of use. Adverse effects range from fever and nausea to major allergic reactions, including photodermatitis and anaphylaxis. Common side-effects include diarrhea, resulting from disruption of the species composition in the intestinal flora, resulting, for example, in overgrowth of pathogenic bacteria, such as Clostridium difficile. Antibacterials can also affect the vaginal flora, and may lead to overgrowth of yeast species of the genus Candida in the vulvo-vaginal area. Additional side-effects can result from interaction with other drugs, such as elevated risk of tendon damage from administration of a quinolone antibiotic with a systemic corticosteroid. Some scientists have hypothesized that the indiscriminate use of antibiotics alter the host microbiota and this has been associated with chronic disease.
What is one common result of using antibiotics from a young age?
57301bfca23a5019007fcd81
increased body mass
57
False
What does STAT stand for?
57301bfca23a5019007fcd82
subtherapeutic antibiotic treatment
235
False
What are some antibiotics can be used for STAT?
57301bfca23a5019007fcd83
penicillin, vancomycin, penicillin and vancomycin, or chlortetracycline
291
False
Do antibiotics cause obesity in humans?
57301bfca23a5019007fcd84
unclear
858
False
Why do physicians use antibiotics on infants when the relationship has been proven?
57301bfca23a5019007fcd85
weighed against the beneficial effects
1541
False
What can happen if people are exposed to antibiotics at a young age?
57328cf2b3a91d1900202e33
increased body mass
57
False
When do intestinal microbiota develop?
57328cf2b3a91d1900202e34
Early life
105
False
Do antibiotics increase the chance of getting fat for humans?
57328cf2b3a91d1900202e35
unclear
858
False
increased body mass
57
What is one common result of using genes from a young age?
5a65bfbec2b11c001a425d2f
True
penicillin, vancomycin, penicillin and vancomycin, or chlortetracycline
291
What are some microbiota that can be used for STAT?
5a65bfbec2b11c001a425d30
True
unclear
1391
Do antibiotics cause fasting in humans?
5a65bfbec2b11c001a425d31
True
weighed against the beneficial effects
1541
Why do physicians use antibiotics on mice when the relationship has been proven?
5a65bfbec2b11c001a425d32
True
Early life
105
When do models develop?
5a65bfbec2b11c001a425d33
True
Exposure to antibiotics early in life is associated with increased body mass in humans and mouse models. Early life is a critical period for the establishment of the intestinal microbiota and for metabolic development. Mice exposed to subtherapeutic antibiotic treatment (STAT)– with either penicillin, vancomycin, penicillin and vancomycin, or chlortetracycline had altered composition of the gut microbiota as well as its metabolic capabilities. Moreover, research have shown that mice given low-dose penicillin (1 μg/g body weight) around birth and throughout the weaning process had an increased body mass and fat mass, accelerated growth, and increased hepatic expression of genes involved in adipogenesis, compared to controlled mice. In addition, penicillin in combination with a high-fat diet increased fasting insulin levels in mice. However, it is unclear whether or not antibiotics cause obesity in humans. Studies have found a correlation between early exposure of antibiotics (<6 months) and increased body mass (at 10 and 20 months). Another study found that the type of antibiotic exposure was also significant with the highest risk of being overweight in those given macrolides compared to penicillin and cephalosporin. Therefore, there is correlation between antibiotic exposure in early life and obesity in humans, but whether or not there is a causal relationship remains unclear. Although there is a correlation between antibiotic use in early life and obesity, the effect of antibiotics on obesity in humans needs to be weighed against the beneficial effects of clinically indicated treatment with antibiotics in infancy.
Do antibiotics interact with birth control pills?
57302106a23a5019007fcdf7
The majority of studies indicate antibiotics do interfere with contraceptive pills
0
False
What percentage of birth control pill failure is attributed to antibiotics?
57302106a23a5019007fcdf8
about 1%
197
False
What are the potential effects on intestinal flora?
57302106a23a5019007fcdf9
reduced absorption of estrogens in the colon
563
False
Have these potential effects been proven through testing?
57302106a23a5019007fcdfa
inconclusive and controversial
666
False
What do physicians recommend to counteract this potential issue?
57302106a23a5019007fcdfb
extra contraceptive measures
731
False
What do antibiotics interfere with?
5731bd47e99e3014001e6236
contraceptive pills
63
False
What percent is the  failure rate of contraceptive pills?
5731bd47e99e3014001e6237
about 1%
197
False
Whhat does intestinal flora reduce?
5731bd47e99e3014001e6238
absorption of estrogens
571
False
In therapy, what does the antibacterial interact with?
5731bd47e99e3014001e6239
oral contraceptives
845
False
Do antibiotics mess with birth control pills?
573296880342181400a2027d
antibiotics do interfere
33
False
What is birth control failure rate due to antibiotics?
573296880342181400a2027e
about 1%
197
False
What should women do if they are using antibiotics and birth control pills?
573296880342181400a2027f
extra contraceptive measures
731
False
The majority of studies indicate antibiotics do interfere with contraceptive pills,
0
Do antibiotics interact with intestinal flora?
5a65c185c2b11c001a425d39
True
1%
203
What percentage of birth control pill failure is attributed to estrogens?
5a65c185c2b11c001a425d3a
True
inconclusive and controversial
666
What are the potential effects on antibacterials?
5a65c185c2b11c001a425d3b
True
extra contraceptive measures
731
What do control pills recommend to counteract this potential issue?
5a65c185c2b11c001a425d3c
True
absorption of estrogens
571
What do oral contraceptives reduce?
5a65c185c2b11c001a425d3d
True
The majority of studies indicate antibiotics do interfere with contraceptive pills, such as clinical studies that suggest the failure rate of contraceptive pills caused by antibiotics is very low (about 1%). In cases where antibacterials have been suggested to affect the efficiency of birth control pills, such as for the broad-spectrum antibacterial rifampicin, these cases may be due to an increase in the activities of hepatic liver enzymes' causing increased breakdown of the pill's active ingredients. Effects on the intestinal flora, which might result in reduced absorption of estrogens in the colon, have also been suggested, but such suggestions have been inconclusive and controversial. Clinicians have recommended that extra contraceptive measures be applied during therapies using antibacterials that are suspected to interact with oral contraceptives.
What is one potential issue with drinking alcohol while taking antibiotics?
57302230a23a5019007fce13
decreased effectiveness
94
False
Do all antibiotics interact dangerously with alcohol?
57302230a23a5019007fce14
moderate alcohol consumption is unlikely to interfere with many common antibiotics
147
False
Is it OK to drink alcohol while taking any antibiotic?
57302230a23a5019007fce15
there are specific types of antibiotics with which alcohol consumption may cause serious side-effects
231
False
How common is the belief that alcohol and antibiotics should never be mixed?
57302230a23a5019007fce16
widespread
560
False
What can alcohol and certain antibiotics cause?
5731be590fdd8d15006c64e1
decreased effectiveness of antibiotic therapy
94
False
What is unlikely to interfere with  with many common antibiotics?
5731be590fdd8d15006c64e2
alcohol consumption
156
False
What belief should bever be mixed widespread?
5731be590fdd8d15006c64e3
alcohol and antibiotics
511
False
What common drug can reduce antibiotic effectiveness?
573299421d5d2e14009ff861
alcohol
21
False
What type of antibiotic is most likely to be a problem with alcohol?
573299421d5d2e14009ff862
specific types of antibiotics with which alcohol consumption may cause serious side-effects
241
False
Should alcohol be used while on antibiotics?
573299421d5d2e14009ff863
alcohol and antibiotics should never be mixed
511
False
decreased effectiveness
94
What is one potential issue with drinking alcohols while in therapy?
5a65c323c2b11c001a425d43
True
moderate alcohol consumption is unlikely to interfere with many common antibiotics
147
Do all antibiotics interact dangerously with conterindication?
5a65c323c2b11c001a425d44
True
there are specific types of antibiotics with which alcohol consumption may cause serious side-effects
231
Is it OK to drink alcohol while taking any risks?
5a65c323c2b11c001a425d45
True
alcohol consumption
156
What is unlikely to interfere with many common side-effects?
5a65c323c2b11c001a425d46
True
alcohol
21
What common drug can reduce interactions?
5a65c323c2b11c001a425d47
True
Interactions between alcohol and certain antibiotics may occur and may cause side-effects and decreased effectiveness of antibiotic therapy. While moderate alcohol consumption is unlikely to interfere with many common antibiotics, there are specific types of antibiotics with which alcohol consumption may cause serious side-effects. Therefore, potential risks of side-effects and effectiveness depend on the type of antibiotic administered. Despite the lack of a categorical counterindication, the belief that alcohol and antibiotics should never be mixed is widespread.
What does the bactericidal activitty of antibacterials depend on what?
5731bff5e17f3d1400422397
bacterial growth phase
308
False
What does this eliminate?
5731bff5e17f3d1400422398
bacterial infection
521
False
What besides ongoing metabolic activity is required in bactericidal activity?
5731bff5e17f3d1400422399
division of bacterial cells
385
False
What does the activity of antibacterials depends on?
5731bff5e17f3d140042239a
concentration
605
False
What does a successful treatment using antibiotics entail?
5733b31dd058e614000b609e
host defense mechanisms, the location of infection, and the pharmacokinetic and pharmacodynamic properties of the antibacterial
119
False
What does the potency of antibacterials depend upon?
5733b31dd058e614000b609f
concentration
605
False
How do you predict the clinical result?
5733b31dd058e614000b60a0
several pharmacological parameters are used as markers of drug efficacy
942
False
bacterial growth phase
308
What does the infection activity of antibacterials depends on?
5a65cdabc2b11c001a425d4d
True
division of bacterial cells
385
What besides ongoing metabolic activity is required in drug efficacy?
5a65cdabc2b11c001a425d4e
True
concentration
605
What does the activity of defense mechanisms depend on?
5a65cdabc2b11c001a425d4f
True
host defense mechanisms, the location of infection, and the pharmacokinetic and pharmacodynamic properties of the antibacterial
119
What does a successful treatment using pharmacological parameters entail?
5a65cdabc2b11c001a425d50
True
several pharmacological parameters are used as markers of drug efficacy
942
How do you predict the cell division?
5a65cdabc2b11c001a425d51
True
The successful outcome of antimicrobial therapy with antibacterial compounds depends on several factors. These include host defense mechanisms, the location of infection, and the pharmacokinetic and pharmacodynamic properties of the antibacterial. A bactericidal activity of antibacterials may depend on the bacterial growth phase, and it often requires ongoing metabolic activity and division of bacterial cells. These findings are based on laboratory studies, and in clinical settings have also been shown to eliminate bacterial infection. Since the activity of antibacterials depends frequently on its concentration, in vitro characterization of antibacterial activity commonly includes the determination of the minimum inhibitory concentration and minimum bactericidal concentration of an antibacterial. To predict clinical outcome, the antimicrobial activity of an antibacterial is usually combined with its pharmacokinetic profile, and several pharmacological parameters are used as markers of drug efficacy.
Besides sprectrum of activity and chemical structure, how can antibacterial antibiotics classified?
5731c1260fdd8d15006c6503
mechanism of action
65
False
What is another name used for bacterial cell wall?
5731c1260fdd8d15006c6504
penicillins and cephalosporins
227
False
whats another word for cell membrane?
5731c1260fdd8d15006c6505
polymyxins
281
False
How many new classes of antibacterial antibiotics was introduced in the late 2000's/
5731c1260fdd8d15006c6506
four
928
False
What three ways are antibiotics classified?
5733b4cf4776f419006610c9
mechanism of action, chemical structure, or spectrum of activity
65
False
What do anitibiotics mostly target?
5733b4cf4776f419006610ca
bacterial functions or growth processes
143
False
Which two types of antibiotics target the cell wall?
5733b4cf4776f419006610cb
penicillins and cephalosporins
227
False
Which type of antibiotic goes after the cell membrane?
5733b4cf4776f419006610cc
polymyxins
281
False
What 3 types go after protein synthesis?
5733b4cf4776f419006610cd
(macrolides, lincosamides and tetracyclines
463
False
mechanism of action
65
Besides spectrum of activity and chemical structure, how can protein synthesis be classified?
5a65cfcfc2b11c001a425d57
True
penicillins and cephalosporins
227
What is another name used for target specificity?
5a65cfcfc2b11c001a425d58
True
polymyxins
281
What is another word for interfere?
5a65cfcfc2b11c001a425d59
True
four
928
How many new classes of glycylcyclines was introduced in the late 2000's?
5a65cfcfc2b11c001a425d5a
True
mechanism of action, chemical structure, or spectrum of activity
65
What three ways are bacteria classified?
5a65cfcfc2b11c001a425d5b
True
Antibacterial antibiotics are commonly classified based on their mechanism of action, chemical structure, or spectrum of activity. Most target bacterial functions or growth processes. Those that target the bacterial cell wall (penicillins and cephalosporins) or the cell membrane (polymyxins), or interfere with essential bacterial enzymes (rifamycins, lipiarmycins, quinolones, and sulfonamides) have bactericidal activities. Those that target protein synthesis (macrolides, lincosamides and tetracyclines) are usually bacteriostatic (with the exception of bactericidal aminoglycosides). Further categorization is based on their target specificity. "Narrow-spectrum" antibacterial antibiotics target specific types of bacteria, such as Gram-negative or Gram-positive bacteria, whereas broad-spectrum antibiotics affect a wide range of bacteria. Following a 40-year hiatus in discovering new classes of antibacterial compounds, four new classes of antibacterial antibiotics have been brought into clinical use in the late 2000s and early 2010s: cyclic lipopeptides (such as daptomycin), glycylcyclines (such as tigecycline), oxazolidinones (such as linezolid), and lipiarmycins (such as fidaxomicin).
Besides semisytetic modifications, what advances in medicinal chemistry regarding antibacterials?
5731c2fd0fdd8d15006c6515
various natural compounds
100
False
What is the molecular weight loss of antibacterial compounds?
5731c2fd0fdd8d15006c6516
2000 atomic mass units
621
False
What is included in the beta-lactam antibiotics?
5731c2fd0fdd8d15006c6517
penicillins
202
False
What is penicillins produced by?
5731c2fd0fdd8d15006c6518
fungi
227
False
What are antibiotics in chemical terms?
5733b6a2d058e614000b6122
semisynthetic modifications
69
False
What type of antibiotics include penicilin?
5733b6a2d058e614000b6123
beta-lactam antibiotics
159
False
What are the type of antibiotics which are taken from still living things?
5733b6a2d058e614000b6124
aminoglycosides
365
False
How are the slufonamides,quinolones, and oxazolidinones created?
5733b6a2d058e614000b6125
synthesis
513
False
2000 atomic mass units
621
What is the molecular weight loss of chemical synthesis?
5a65d0fec2b11c001a425d61
True
penicillins
202
What is included in the natural compounds?
5a65d0fec2b11c001a425d62
True
fungi
227
What are cephalosporins produced by?
5a65d0fec2b11c001a425d63
True
semisynthetic modifications
69
What are compounds in chemical terms?
5a65d0fec2b11c001a425d64
True
beta-lactam antibiotics
159
What type of antibiotics include sulfonamides?
5a65d0fec2b11c001a425d65
True
With advances in medicinal chemistry, most modern antibacterials are semisynthetic modifications of various natural compounds. These include, for example, the beta-lactam antibiotics, which include the penicillins (produced by fungi in the genus Penicillium), the cephalosporins, and the carbapenems. Compounds that are still isolated from living organisms are the aminoglycosides, whereas other antibacterials—for example, the sulfonamides, the quinolones, and the oxazolidinones—are produced solely by chemical synthesis. Many antibacterial compounds are relatively small molecules with a molecular weight of less than 2000 atomic mass units.[citation needed]
What does emergence of resistance reflect?
5731c593e17f3d14004223c5
evolutionary processes
118
False
What is the purpose of antibiotic treatment?
5731c593e17f3d14004223c6
survive high doses of antibiotics
299
False
When was antibacterial-resistance demonstrated?
5731c593e17f3d14004223c7
1943
610
False
Who made the demonstration in 1943?
5731c593e17f3d14004223c8
Luria–Delbrück
622
False
What is a modern common occurence with antibiotics?
5733bc38d058e614000b6187
resistance of bacteria
17
False
What is resistance to antibiotics a cause of?
5733bc38d058e614000b6188
evolution
118
False
When was the Luria-Delbruck experiment?
5733bc38d058e614000b6189
1943
610
False
Which two antibiotics that have high efficacy are much less useful now?
5733bc38d058e614000b618a
penicillin and erythromycin
669
False
evolutionary processes
118
What does emergence of bacteria reflect?
5a65d2b2c2b11c001a425d6b
True
survive high doses of antibiotics
299
What is the purpose of bacterial strains?
5a65d2b2c2b11c001a425d6c
True
1943
610
When were bacterial species and strains invented?
5a65d2b2c2b11c001a425d6d
True
resistant bacteria
400
What is a modern occurrence with high doeses?
5a65d2b2c2b11c001a425d6e
True
evolution
118
What is resistance to genes a cause of?
5a65d2b2c2b11c001a425d6f
True
The emergence of resistance of bacteria to antibiotics is a common phenomenon. Emergence of resistance often reflects evolutionary processes that take place during antibiotic therapy. The antibiotic treatment may select for bacterial strains with physiologically or genetically enhanced capacity to survive high doses of antibiotics. Under certain conditions, it may result in preferential growth of resistant bacteria, while growth of susceptible bacteria is inhibited by the drug. For example, antibacterial selection for strains having previously acquired antibacterial-resistance genes was demonstrated in 1943 by the Luria–Delbrück experiment. Antibiotics such as penicillin and erythromycin, which used to have a high efficacy against many bacterial species and strains, have become less effective, due to the increased resistance of many bacterial strains.
What is part of hje the make up of bacterial strains?
5731c904b9d445190005e551
Intrinsic antibacterial resistance
64
False
What can be absent from the bacterial genome?
5731c904b9d445190005e552
antibiotic target
171
False
When does the spread of antibacterial resistance frequently occurs/
5731c904b9d445190005e553
vertical transmission
581
False
What is exchanged between between bacterial strains or species via plasmids that have this resistance?
5731c904b9d445190005e554
antibacterial resistance genes
712
False
What does some resistance come from?
5733c3f34776f419006611d4
mutation
265
False
What method of spread can occur in antibacterial resistance?
5733c3f34776f419006611d5
vertical transmission of mutations
581
False
What do plasmids do in resistance?
5733c3f34776f419006611d6
carry several different resistance genes
869
False
Intrinsic antibacterial resistance
64
What is part of the makeup of bacterial strains?
5a65dc17c2b11c001a425d75
True
antibiotic target
171
What can be absent from the resistance genes?
5a65dc17c2b11c001a425d76
True
vertical transmission
581
When does the spread of DNA frequently occur?
5a65dc17c2b11c001a425d77
True
antibacterial resistance genes
712
What is exchanged between bacterial stains of species via mutations that have this resistance?
5a65dc17c2b11c001a425d78
True
carry several different resistance genes
869
What do plasmids do in bacterial chromosomes?
5a65dc17c2b11c001a425d79
True
Several molecular mechanisms of antibacterial resistance exist. Intrinsic antibacterial resistance may be part of the genetic makeup of bacterial strains. For example, an antibiotic target may be absent from the bacterial genome. Acquired resistance results from a mutation in the bacterial chromosome or the acquisition of extra-chromosomal DNA. Antibacterial-producing bacteria have evolved resistance mechanisms that have been shown to be similar to, and may have been transferred to, antibacterial-resistant strains. The spread of antibacterial resistance often occurs through vertical transmission of mutations during growth and by genetic recombination of DNA by horizontal genetic exchange. For instance, antibacterial resistance genes can be exchanged between different bacterial strains or species via plasmids that carry these resistance genes. Plasmids that carry several different resistance genes can confer resistance to multiple antibacterials. Cross-resistance to several antibacterials may also occur when a resistance mechanism encoded by a single gene conveys resistance to more than one antibacterial compound.
What are strains that are resistant to antibiotics called sometimes?
5733c4ca4776f419006611e4
superbugs
71
False
What was a once almost controlled disease that is coming back do to resistance?
5733c4ca4776f419006611e5
tuberculosis
214
False
How many new infections of resistant TB are reported per year?
5733c4ca4776f419006611e6
half a million
353
False
What is the acronym used to describe resistant TB?
5733c4ca4776f419006611e7
MDR-TB
415
False
superbugs
71
What are strains that are resistant to tuberculosis called sometimes?
5a65ddfcc2b11c001a425d7f
True
tuberculosis
401
What was a once almost controlled antibiotic that is coming back to do resistance?
5a65ddfcc2b11c001a425d80
True
half a million
353
How many new infections of bacteria are reported per year?
5a65ddfcc2b11c001a425d81
True
MDR-TB
415
What is the acronym used to describe enzymes?
5a65ddfcc2b11c001a425d82
True
NDM-1
470
What is a newly identified enzyme conveying bacterial resistance to a broad range of strains and species?
5a65ddfcc2b11c001a425d83
True
Antibacterial-resistant strains and species, sometimes referred to as "superbugs", now contribute to the emergence of diseases that were for a while well controlled. For example, emergent bacterial strains causing tuberculosis (TB) that are resistant to previously effective antibacterial treatments pose many therapeutic challenges. Every year, nearly half a million new cases of multidrug-resistant tuberculosis (MDR-TB) are estimated to occur worldwide. For example, NDM-1 is a newly identified enzyme conveying bacterial resistance to a broad range of beta-lactam antibacterials. The United Kingdom's Health Protection Agency has stated that "most isolates with NDM-1 enzyme are resistant to all standard intravenous antibiotics for treatment of severe infections."
What are the two biggest reasons for resistance?
5733c6d84776f41900661208
Inappropriate antibiotic treatment and overuse
0
False
What is a common method of misuse?
5733c6d84776f41900661209
Self prescription
130
False
What is an example of bad treatment causing resistance?
5733c6d84776f4190066120a
overuse of antibiotics
440
False
Inappropriate antibiotic treatment and overuse
0
What are the two biggest reasons for antibiotics?
5a65deebc2b11c001a425d89
True
Self prescription
130
What is a common method of hospitals?
5a65deebc2b11c001a425d8a
True
overuse of antibiotics
440
What is an example of bad treatment causing infections?
5a65deebc2b11c001a425d8b
True
Widespread usage of antibiotics
571
What as been associated with increases in suboptimal antibiotics?
5a65deebc2b11c001a425d8c
True
the 1950s
560
Since when have symptoms and diseases been associated with emerging antibiotic resistance?
5a65deebc2b11c001a425d8d
True
Inappropriate antibiotic treatment and overuse of antibiotics have contributed to the emergence of antibiotic-resistant bacteria. Self prescription of antibiotics is an example of misuse. Many antibiotics are frequently prescribed to treat symptoms or diseases that do not respond to antibiotics or that are likely to resolve without treatment. Also, incorrect or suboptimal antibiotics are prescribed for certain bacterial infections. The overuse of antibiotics, like penicillin and erythromycin, has been associated with emerging antibiotic resistance since the 1950s. Widespread usage of antibiotics in hospitals has also been associated with increases in bacterial strains and species that no longer respond to treatment with the most common antibiotics.
What is a way of improperly using antibiotics for those traveling?
5733c81c4776f4190066121c
prophylactic antibiotics
59
False
What can happen if a doctor doesn't prescribe to a person's weight and prior use?
5733c81c4776f4190066121d
failure of medical professionals to prescribe the correct dosage
101
False
What are 3 other common forms of bad antibiotic practices?
5733c81c4776f4190066121e
failure to take the entire prescribed course of the antibiotic, incorrect dosage and administration, or failure to rest for sufficient recovery
274
False
What happens when a cold is treated with antibiotics?
5733c81c4776f4190066121f
Inappropriate antibiotic treatment
419
False
What do doctors usually do when a patient seems to want antibiotics even though they may not be right?
5733c81c4776f41900661220
prescribe antibiotics
621
False
prophylactic antibiotics
59
What is a way of improperly using rest for those traveling?
5a65dfc9c2b11c001a425d93
True
failure of medical professionals to prescribe the correct dosage
101
What can happen if a doctor doesn't prescribe to a person's traveling?
5a65dfc9c2b11c001a425d94
True
failure to take the entire prescribed course of the antibiotic, incorrect dosage and administration, or failure to rest for sufficient recovery
274
What are 3 other common forms of bad viral infections?
5a65dfc9c2b11c001a425d95
True
Inappropriate antibiotic treatment
419
What happens when a physician is treated with antibiotics?
5a65dfc9c2b11c001a425d96
True
prescribe antibiotics
621
What do doctors usually do when a patient seems to want the common cold even though they may not be right?
5a65dfc9c2b11c001a425d97
True
Common forms of antibiotic misuse include excessive use of prophylactic antibiotics in travelers and failure of medical professionals to prescribe the correct dosage of antibiotics on the basis of the patient's weight and history of prior use. Other forms of misuse include failure to take the entire prescribed course of the antibiotic, incorrect dosage and administration, or failure to rest for sufficient recovery. Inappropriate antibiotic treatment, for example, is their prescription to treat viral infections such as the common cold. One study on respiratory tract infections found "physicians were more likely to prescribe antibiotics to patients who appeared to expect them". Multifactorial interventions aimed at both physicians and patients can reduce inappropriate prescription of antibiotics.
What is the name of a US government agency tasked with trying to stop improper use of antibiotics?
5733cb484776f41900661256
US Interagency Task Force on Antimicrobial Resistance
216
False
Which agencies control this task force?
5733cb484776f41900661257
US Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, the Food and Drug Administration (FDA), and the National Institutes of Health (NIH)
364
False
When did the French start going after overuse of antibiotics?
5733cb484776f41900661258
2002
654
False
US Interagency Task Force on Antimicrobial Resistance
216
What is the name of a US government agency tasked with trying to stop the FDA?
5a65e0f1c2b11c001a425d9d
True
US Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, the Food and Drug Administration (FDA), and the National Institutes of Health (NIH)
364
Which agencies control France?
5a65e0f1c2b11c001a425d9e
True
2002
654
When did the French start going after children?
5a65e0f1c2b11c001a425d9f
True
The issues of misuse and overuse of antibiotics
124
What has been adressed by an NGO campaign group?
5a65e0f1c2b11c001a425da0
True
antimicrobial resistance
37
What are organizations who are lobbying to other US agencies concerned with?
5a65e0f1c2b11c001a425da1
True
Several organizations concerned with antimicrobial resistance are lobbying to eliminate the unnecessary use of antibiotics. The issues of misuse and overuse of antibiotics have been addressed by the formation of the US Interagency Task Force on Antimicrobial Resistance. This task force aims to actively address antimicrobial resistance, and is coordinated by the US Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, the Food and Drug Administration (FDA), and the National Institutes of Health (NIH), as well as other US agencies. An NGO campaign group is Keep Antibiotics Working. In France, an "Antibiotics are not automatic" government campaign started in 2002 and led to a marked reduction of unnecessary antibiotic prescriptions, especially in children.
When did the EU ban antibiotics for speeding up growth?
5733cd2bd058e614000b62b3
2003
197
False
What report caused the UK to worry about resistance?
5733cd2bd058e614000b62b4
Swann report 1969
97
False
What 3 US organizations have called for the banning of antibiotics in the production of food animals?
5733cd2bd058e614000b62b5
American Society for Microbiology (ASM), American Public Health Association (APHA) and the American Medical Association (AMA)
246
False
Name two US bills that want to ban antibiotics in food production?
5733cd2bd058e614000b62b6
S.742 and H.R. 2562
830
False
What 3 medical associations supported the bills?
5733cd2bd058e614000b62b7
American Holistic Nurses' Association, the American Medical Association, and the American Public Health Association (APHA)
1045
False
2003
197
When did the EU ban bills for speeding up growth?
5a65e1c2c2b11c001a425da7
True
Swann report 1969
97
What report caused the UK to worry about industries?
5a65e1c2c2b11c001a425da8
True
American Society for Microbiology (ASM), American Public Health Association (APHA) and the American Medical Association (AMA)
246
What 3 US organizations have called for the banning of medical organizations and the production of food animals?
5a65e1c2c2b11c001a425da9
True
S.742 and H.R. 2562
830
Name two AMA bills that want to ban antibiotics in food production.
5a65e1c2c2b11c001a425daa
True
American Society for Microbiology (ASM), American Public Health Association (APHA) and the American Medical Association (AMA)
246
What 3 medical associations supported antibiotics?
5a65e1c2c2b11c001a425dab
True
The emergence of antibiotic resistance has prompted restrictions on their use in the UK in 1970 (Swann report 1969), and the EU has banned the use of antibiotics as growth-promotional agents since 2003. Moreover, several organizations (e.g., The American Society for Microbiology (ASM), American Public Health Association (APHA) and the American Medical Association (AMA)) have called for restrictions on antibiotic use in food animal production and an end to all nontherapeutic uses.[citation needed] However, commonly there are delays in regulatory and legislative actions to limit the use of antibiotics, attributable partly to resistance against such regulation by industries using or selling antibiotics, and to the time required for research to test causal links between their use and resistance to them. Two federal bills (S.742 and H.R. 2562) aimed at phasing out nontherapeutic use of antibiotics in US food animals were proposed, but have not passed. These bills were endorsed by public health and medical organizations, including the American Holistic Nurses' Association, the American Medical Association, and the American Public Health Association (APHA).
What besides sick people are antibiotics used for?
5733d178d058e614000b6321
animal husbandry
47
False
When was resistance first discussed as a problem in the raising of farm animals?
5733d178d058e614000b6322
1977
253
False
When did a district court order the FDA to stop approving antibiotics in animals?
5733d178d058e614000b6323
March 2012
262
False
animal husbandry
47
What besides sick people are bacterial strains used for?
5a65e2dec2b11c001a425db1
True
1977
253
When was resistance first discussed as a problem in the raising of the United States?
5a65e2dec2b11c001a425db2
True
March 2012
262
When did a district court order the FDA to stop approving animals?
5a65e2dec2b11c001a425db3
True
approvals for the use of antibiotics in livestock
453
What violated Natural Resources Defense Council regulations?
5a65e2dec2b11c001a425db4
True
the United States District Court for the Southern District of New York
274
Who ordered the FDA to use antibiotics?
5a65e2dec2b11c001a425db5
True
There has been extensive use of antibiotics in animal husbandry. In the United States, the question of emergence of antibiotic-resistant bacterial strains due to use of antibiotics in livestock was raised by the US Food and Drug Administration (FDA) in 1977. In March 2012, the United States District Court for the Southern District of New York, ruling in an action brought by the Natural Resources Defense Council and others, ordered the FDA to revoke approvals for the use of antibiotics in livestock, which violated FDA regulations.
What methods did people use before antibiotics to treat infections?
5733d2444776f419006612d8
medicinal folklore
81
False
When were some kinds of antimicrobials first used?
5733d2444776f419006612d9
over 2000 years ago
198
False
What type of things did Egyptians and Greeks use?
5733d2444776f419006612da
mold and plant materials and extracts
318
False
What does antibiosis mean?
5733d2444776f419006612db
against life
727
False
Who came up with the term antibiosis?
5733d2444776f419006612dc
Jean Paul Vuillemin
786
False
medicinal folklore
81
What methods did people use before Robert Koch to treat infections?
5a65e3e3c2b11c001a425dbb
True
over 2000 years ago
198
When were some kinds of dyes first used?
5a65e3e3c2b11c001a425dbc
True
mold and plant materials and extracts
318
What type of things did American microbiologists use?
5a65e3e3c2b11c001a425dbd
True
Paul Ehrlich
1263
Who came up with the term salvarsan?
5a65e3e3c2b11c001a425dbe
True
Selman Waksman
1107
Who renamed drugs therapudics?
5a65e3e3c2b11c001a425dbf
True
Before the early 20th century, treatments for infections were based primarily on medicinal folklore. Mixtures with antimicrobial properties that were used in treatments of infections were described over 2000 years ago. Many ancient cultures, including the ancient Egyptians and ancient Greeks, used specially selected mold and plant materials and extracts to treat infections. More recent observations made in the laboratory of antibiosis between microorganisms led to the discovery of natural antibacterials produced by microorganisms. Louis Pasteur observed, "if we could intervene in the antagonism observed between some bacteria, it would offer perhaps the greatest hopes for therapeutics". The term 'antibiosis', meaning "against life", was introduced by the French bacteriologist Jean Paul Vuillemin as a descriptive name of the phenomenon exhibited by these early antibacterial drugs. Antibiosis was first described in 1877 in bacteria when Louis Pasteur and Robert Koch observed that an airborne bacillus could inhibit the growth of Bacillus anthracis. These drugs were later renamed antibiotics by Selman Waksman, an American microbiologist, in 1942. Synthetic antibiotic chemotherapy as a science and development of antibacterials began in Germany with Paul Ehrlich in the late 1880s. Ehrlich noted certain dyes would color human, animal, or bacterial cells, whereas others did not. He then proposed the idea that it might be possible to create chemicals that would act as a selective drug that would bind to and kill bacteria without harming the human host. After screening hundreds of dyes against various organisms, in 1907, he discovered a medicinally useful drug, the synthetic antibacterial salvarsan now called arsphenamine.
What type of organism has been reported to have worked on infections?
5733d3334776f419006612e2
mold
29
False
Who noticed in a lab the antibacterial characteristics of mold?
5733d3334776f419006612e3
Alexander Fleming
141
False
What mold did Fleming notice had antibacterial properties?
5733d3334776f419006612e4
penicillin
378
False
What did Fleming initially think a good use would be for it?
5733d3334776f419006612e5
chemotherapy
451
False
mold
29
What type of organism has been reported to have worked on penicillin?
5a65e4c6c2b11c001a425dc5
True
Alexander Fleming
141
Who noticed in a lab the development of chemists?
5a65e4c6c2b11c001a425dc6
True
penicillin
378
What mold did Fleming notice had chemotherapy?
5a65e4c6c2b11c001a425dc7
True
chemotherapy
451
What did Fleming initially think a good use for chemists would be?
5a65e4c6c2b11c001a425dc8
True
crude preparation
550
What did Fleming use to treat a Petri dish?
5a65e4c6c2b11c001a425dc9
True
The effects of some types of mold on infection had been noticed many times over the course of history (see: History of penicillin). In 1928, Alexander Fleming noticed the same effect in a Petri dish, where a number of disease-causing bacteria were killed by a fungus of the genus Penicillium. Fleming postulated that the effect is mediated by an antibacterial compound he named penicillin, and that its antibacterial properties could be exploited for chemotherapy. He initially characterized some of its biological properties, and attempted to use a crude preparation to treat some infections, but he was unable to pursue its further development without the aid of trained chemists.
What was the first available antibiotic?
5733d4364776f419006612f2
Prontosil
70
False
What company developed Prontosil?
5733d4364776f419006612f3
IG Farben
177
False
Who led the team that came up with Prontosil?
5733d4364776f419006612f4
Gerhard Domagk
121
False
What prize did Domagk get for his work?
5733d4364776f419006612f5
1939 Nobel Prize for Medicine
232
False
Prontosil
70
What was the first available cocci?
5a65e56ac2b11c001a425dcf
True
IG Farben
177
What company developed enterobacteria?
5a65e56ac2b11c001a425dd0
True
Gerhard Domagk
121
Who led the team that came up with Bayer Laboratories?
5a65e56ac2b11c001a425dd1
True
1939 Nobel Prize for Medicine
232
What prize did Prontosil get for its work?
5a65e56ac2b11c001a425dd2
True
development of this sulfonamide drug
444
What opened the era of Germany?
5a65e56ac2b11c001a425dd3
True
The first sulfonamide and first commercially available antibacterial, Prontosil, was developed by a research team led by Gerhard Domagk in 1932 at the Bayer Laboratories of the IG Farben conglomerate in Germany. Domagk received the 1939 Nobel Prize for Medicine for his efforts. Prontosil had a relatively broad effect against Gram-positive cocci, but not against enterobacteria. Research was stimulated apace by its success. The discovery and development of this sulfonamide drug opened the era of antibacterials.
What was the first antibiotic developed from nature?
5733d4c24776f41900661304
tyrothricin
129
False
When was tyrothricin created?
5733d4c24776f41900661305
1939
3
False
What also happened in 1939 besides tyrothricin?
5733d4c24776f41900661306
start of World War II,
29
False
Who discovered tyrothricin?
5733d4c24776f41900661307
Rene Dubos
52
False
What was tyrothricin used for during the war?
5733d4c24776f41900661308
wounds and ulcers
316
False
tyrothricin
129
What was the first antibiotic developed from wounds?
5a65e676c2b11c001a425dd9
True
1939
3
When was Gramicidin created?
5a65e676c2b11c001a425dda
True
Rene Dubos
52
Who discovered systematic usage?
5a65e676c2b11c001a425ddb
True
wounds and ulcers
316
What was tyrothricin used for during toxicity?
5a65e676c2b11c001a425ddc
True
the Axis and the Allied powers
550
Rene Dubos was not shared between who?
5a65e676c2b11c001a425ddd
True
In 1939, coinciding with the start of World War II, Rene Dubos reported the discovery of the first naturally derived antibiotic, tyrothricin, a compound of 20% gramicidin and 80% tyrocidine, from B. brevis. It was one of the first commercially manufactured antibiotics universally and was very effective in treating wounds and ulcers during World War II. Gramicidin, however, could not be used systemically because of toxicity. Tyrocidine also proved too toxic for systemic usage. Research results obtained during that period were not shared between the Axis and the Allied powers during the war.
When was penicillin G first purified?
5733d5f24776f41900661314
1942
79
False
When did penicillin G become available outside of military use?
5733d5f24776f41900661315
1945
159
False
Who came up with a way to quickly produce penicillin?
5733d5f24776f41900661316
Norman Heatley
172
False
When was the chemical make-up of penicillin discovered?
5733d5f24776f41900661317
1945
356
False
Who discovered the chemical structure of penicillin?
5733d5f24776f41900661318
Dorothy Crowfoot Hodgkin
328
False
1942
79
When was the Nobel Prize first Purified?
5a65e768c2b11c001a425de3
True
1945
159
When did penicillin G become available as a therapeudic drug?
5a65e768c2b11c001a425de4
True
Norman Heatley
172
Who came up with a way to quickly produce pus?
5a65e768c2b11c001a425de5
True
1945
356
When was the chemical make-up of bacteria discovered?
5a65e768c2b11c001a425de6
True
Dorothy Crowfoot Hodgkin
328
Who discovered the chemical structure of bacteria?
5a65e768c2b11c001a425de7
True
Florey and Chain succeeded in purifying the first penicillin, penicillin G, in 1942, but it did not become widely available outside the Allied military before 1945. Later, Norman Heatley developed the back extraction technique for efficiently purifying penicillin in bulk. The chemical structure of penicillin was determined by Dorothy Crowfoot Hodgkin in 1945. Purified penicillin displayed potent antibacterial activity against a wide range of bacteria and had low toxicity in humans. Furthermore, its activity was not inhibited by biological constituents such as pus, unlike the synthetic sulfonamides. The discovery of such a powerful antibiotic was unprecedented, and the development of penicillin led to renewed interest in the search for antibiotic compounds with similar efficacy and safety. For their successful development of penicillin, which Fleming had accidentally discovered but could not develop himself, as a therapeutic drug, Ernst Chain and Howard Florey shared the 1945 Nobel Prize in Medicine with Fleming. Florey credited Dubos with pioneering the approach of deliberately and systematically searching for antibacterial compounds, which had led to the discovery of gramicidin and had revived Florey's research in penicillin.
What do vaccines need to work?
5733d670d058e614000b6379
immune modulation or augmentation
17
False
What type of vaccines have saved millions of lives?
5733d670d058e614000b637a
Antibacterial vaccines
270
False
What types of vaccines have been phased out?
5733d670d058e614000b637b
Vaccines made from attenuated whole cells or lysates
369
False
immune modulation or augmentation
17
What do polysaccharides need to work?
5a65e8ebc2b11c001a425ded
True
Antibacterial vaccines
270
What type of polysaccharides have saved millions of lives?
5a65e8ebc2b11c001a425dee
True
Vaccines made from attenuated whole cells or lysates
369
What types of polysaccharides have been phased out?
5a65e8ebc2b11c001a425def
True
attenuated whole cells or lysates
388
Vaccines made from what have been replaced by less protein carriers?
5a65e8ebc2b11c001a425df0
True
activation of macrophages, the production of antibodies, inflammation, and other classic immune reactions
163
What happens when a host includes polysaccharides?
5a65e8ebc2b11c001a425df1
True
Vaccines rely on immune modulation or augmentation. Vaccination either excites or reinforces the immune competence of a host to ward off infection, leading to the activation of macrophages, the production of antibodies, inflammation, and other classic immune reactions. Antibacterial vaccines have been responsible for a drastic reduction in global bacterial diseases. Vaccines made from attenuated whole cells or lysates have been replaced largely by less reactogenic, cell-free vaccines consisting of purified components, including capsular polysaccharides and their conjugates, to protein carriers, as well as inactivated toxins (toxoids) and proteins.
What has been talked about to treat resistant bacteria?
5733d6e64776f41900661328
Phage therapy
0
False
How have researchers been doing this?
5733d6e64776f41900661329
infecting pathogenic bacteria
148
False
What is a worry of using phages?
5733d6e64776f4190066132a
phages will infect "good" bacteria
801
False
Phage therapy
0
What has been talked about to treat bateriophages?
5a65ebb4c2b11c001a425df7
True
infecting pathogenic bacteria
148
How have bacterium been doing this?
5a65ebb4c2b11c001a425df8
True
phages will infect "good" bacteria
801
What is a worry of using DNA?
5a65ebb4c2b11c001a425df9
True
studies have proven that phages are very specific
923
What makes researchers confident that phages fight pathogens?
5a65ebb4c2b11c001a425dfa
True
By disrupting the lytic cycles of bacterium
384
By what method do phages destroy antibiotics?
5a65ebb4c2b11c001a425dfb
True
Phage therapy is another option that is being looked into for treating resistant strains of bacteria. The way that researchers are doing this is by infecting pathogenic bacteria with their own viruses, more specifically, bacteriophages. Bacteriophages, also known simply as phages, are precisely bacterial viruses that infect bacteria by disrupting pathogenic bacterium lytic cycles. By disrupting the lytic cycles of bacterium, phages destroy their metabolism, which eventually results in the cell's death. Phages will insert their DNA into the bacterium, allowing their DNA to be transcribed. Once their DNA is transcribed the cell will proceed to make new phages and as soon as they are ready to be released, the cell will lyse. One of the worries about using phages to fight pathogens is that the phages will infect "good" bacteria, or the bacteria that are important in the everyday function of human beings. However, studies have proven that phages are very specific when they target bacteria, which makes researchers confident that bacteriophage therapy is the definite route to defeating antibiotic resistant bacteria.
How many antibiotics have been created in the last 7 years?
5733d88b4776f41900661344
2
192
False
How many are in the pipelin to fight GNB?
5733d88b4776f41900661345
seven
353
False
What year did the Infectious Disease Society of America say that production of new antibiotics does not keep up with resistance?
5733d88b4776f41900661346
2013
9
False
2
192
How many bacilli have been created in the last 7 years?
5a65ed7bc2b11c001a425e01
True
seven
353
How many are in the pipeline to fight IDSA?
5a65ed7bc2b11c001a425e02
True
2013
9
What year did the Infectious Diseases of America say that production of GNB does not keep up with resistance?
5a65ed7bc2b11c001a425e03
True
declines continuously
308
What happens to the umber of new resistance?
5a65ed7bc2b11c001a425e04
True
antibiotics
359
What drugs address teh entire spectrum of resistance of GNB?
5a65ed7bc2b11c001a425e05
True
In April 2013, the Infectious Disease Society of America (IDSA) reported that the weak antibiotic pipeline does not match bacteria's increasing ability to develop resistance. Since 2009, only 2 new antibiotics were approved in the United States. The number of new antibiotics approved for marketing per year declines continuously. The report identified seven antibiotics against the Gram-negative bacilli (GNB) currently in phase 2 or phase 3 clinical trials. However, these drugs do not address the entire spectrum of resistance of GNB. Some of these antibiotics are combination of existent treatments:
Who regulates antibiotic approval?
5733d91e4776f4190066134a
FDA
77
False
What could help to spur pharmaceuticals to make new antibiotics?
5733d91e4776f4190066134b
economic incentives
107
False
What are resistant bacteria called in the media?
5733d91e4776f4190066134c
superbugs
332
False
Who is a director at the Pew Charitable Trusts?
5733d91e4776f4190066134d
Allan Coukell,
763
False
FDA
77
Who regulates infection approval?
5a65eeb2c2b11c001a425e0b
True
economic incentives
107
What could help to spur pharmaceuticals to make new infections?
5a65eeb2c2b11c001a425e0c
True
Allan Coukell
763
Who is a director at the FDA?
5a65eeb2c2b11c001a425e0d
True
The CDC
475
Who will monitor the use of economic incentives?
5a65eeb2c2b11c001a425e0e
True
Antibiotic Development to Advance Patient Treatment
195
Who aims to fast track healthcare professionals?
5a65eeb2c2b11c001a425e0f
True
Possible improvements include clarification of clinical trial regulations by FDA. Furthermore, appropriate economic incentives could persuade pharmaceutical companies to invest in this endeavor. Antibiotic Development to Advance Patient Treatment (ADAPT) Act aims to fast track the drug development to combat the growing threat of 'superbugs'. Under this Act, FDA can approve antibiotics and antifungals treating life-threatening infections based on smaller clinical trials. The CDC will monitor the use of antibiotics and the emerging resistance, and publish the data. The FDA antibiotics labeling process, 'Susceptibility Test Interpretive Criteria for Microbial Organisms' or 'breakpoints', will provide accurate data to healthcare professionals. According to Allan Coukell, senior director for health programs at The Pew Charitable Trusts, "By allowing drug developers to rely on smaller datasets, and clarifying FDA's authority to tolerate a higher level of uncertainty for these drugs when making a risk/benefit calculation, ADAPT would make the clinical trials more feasible."
Windows_8
Who are Windows main operating system competitors?
573019dc947a6a140053d0ee
Android and iOS
205
False
What new security features does Windows 8 have?
573019dc947a6a140053d0ef
built-in antivirus software, integration with Microsoft SmartScreen phishing filtering service and support for UEFI Secure Boot
855
False
What USB version is Windows 8 compatible with?
573019dc947a6a140053d0f0
3.0
719
False
What can be found on the Start screen?
573019dc947a6a140053d0f1
displays programs and dynamically updated content on a grid of tiles
362
False
What services does the Windows Store provide?
573019dc947a6a140053d0f2
an online store for downloading and purchasing new software
626
False
Android and iOS
205
Who are Windows lesser operating system competitors?
5ad4918bba00c4001a268c36
True
built-in antivirus software, integration with Microsoft SmartScreen phishing filtering service and support for UEFI Secure Boot
855
What new security features does Windows 9 have?
5ad4918bba00c4001a268c37
True
displays programs and dynamically updated content on a grid of tiles
362
What can be found on the End screen?
5ad4918bba00c4001a268c38
True
USB 3.0
715
What USB version is Windows 9 compatible with?
5ad4918bba00c4001a268c39
True
an online store for downloading and purchasing new software
626
What services doesn't the Windows Store provide?
5ad4918bba00c4001a268c3a
True
Windows 8 introduced major changes to the operating system's platform and user interface to improve its user experience on tablets, where Windows was now competing with mobile operating systems, including Android and iOS. In particular, these changes included a touch-optimized Windows shell based on Microsoft's "Metro" design language, the Start screen (which displays programs and dynamically updated content on a grid of tiles), a new platform for developing apps with an emphasis on touchscreen input, integration with online services (including the ability to sync apps and settings between devices), and Windows Store, an online store for downloading and purchasing new software. Windows 8 added support for USB 3.0, Advanced Format hard drives, near field communications, and cloud computing. Additional security features were introduced, such as built-in antivirus software, integration with Microsoft SmartScreen phishing filtering service and support for UEFI Secure Boot on supported devices with UEFI firmware, to prevent malware from infecting the boot process.
What about Windows 8 was well received?
57301aafb2c2fd140056887f
its performance improvements, security enhancements, and improved support for touchscreen devices
80
False
What were the perceived problems with the new Windows 8 user interface?
57301aafb2c2fd1400568880
being potentially confusing and difficult to learn
265
False
How many Windows 8 licenses were purchased by January 2013?
57301aafb2c2fd1400568881
60 million
419
False
its performance improvements, security enhancements, and improved support for touchscreen devices
80
What about Windows 9 was well received?
5ad491ebba00c4001a268c40
True
its performance improvements, security enhancements, and improved support for touchscreen devices
80
What about Windows 8 was poorly received?
5ad491ebba00c4001a268c41
True
being potentially confusing and difficult to learn
265
What were the perceived problems with the old Windows 8 user interface?
5ad491ebba00c4001a268c42
True
being potentially confusing and difficult to learn
265
What were the perceived problems with the new Windows 9 user interface?
5ad491ebba00c4001a268c43
True
60 million
419
How many Windows 8 licenses were purchased by January 2012?
5ad491ebba00c4001a268c44
True
Windows 8 was released to a mixed critical reception. Although reaction towards its performance improvements, security enhancements, and improved support for touchscreen devices was positive, the new user interface of the operating system was widely criticized for being potentially confusing and difficult to learn (especially when used with a keyboard and mouse instead of a touchscreen). Despite these shortcomings, 60 million Windows 8 licenses have been sold through January 2013, a number which included both upgrades and sales to OEMs for new PCs.
When did Microsoft start creating Windows 8?
57301b71a23a5019007fcd77
before Windows 7 had shipped in 2009
30
False
Who is Windows division president?
57301b71a23a5019007fcd78
Steven Sinofsky
322
False
Who is Microsofts CEO?
57301b71a23a5019007fcd79
Steve Ballmer
420
False
Where were the Windows 8 plans initially announced?
57301b71a23a5019007fcd7a
Consumer Electronics Show
75
False
What is jupiter?
57301b71a23a5019007fcd7b
new application framework for Windows 8
576
False
Steven Sinofsky
322
Who is Windows division vice president?
5ad49230ba00c4001a268c4a
True
before Windows 7 had shipped in 2009
30
When did Microsoft start creating Windows 9?
5ad49230ba00c4001a268c4b
True
Steve Ballmer
420
Who is Microsofts CFO?
5ad49230ba00c4001a268c4c
True
Consumer Electronics Show
75
Where were the Windows 9 plans initially announced?
5ad49230ba00c4001a268c4d
True
new application framework for Windows 8
576
What isn't jupiter?
5ad49230ba00c4001a268c4e
True
Windows 8 development started before Windows 7 had shipped in 2009. At the Consumer Electronics Show in January 2011, it was announced that the next version of Windows would add support for ARM system-on-chips alongside the existing x86 processors produced by vendors, especially AMD and Intel. Windows division president Steven Sinofsky demonstrated an early build of the port on prototype devices, while Microsoft CEO Steve Ballmer announced the company's goal for Windows to be "everywhere on every kind of device without compromise." Details also began to surface about a new application framework for Windows 8 codenamed "Jupiter", which would be used to make "immersive" applications using XAML (similarly to Windows Phone and Silverlight) that could be distributed via a new packaging system and a rumored application store.
What does BSoD stand for?
57301c9bb2c2fd1400568899
Blue Screen of Death
609
False
When was Milestone 1 divulged?
57301c9bb2c2fd140056889a
April 12, 2011
107
False
What was special about Milestone 1?
57301c9bb2c2fd140056889b
It was the first build where the text of a window was written centered
123
False
When was Milestone 2 divulged?
57301c9bb2c2fd140056889c
April 25, 2011
577
False
When was Build 7959 divulged?
57301c9bb2c2fd140056889d
May 1, 2011
838
False
Blue Screen of Death
609
What does BSoB stand for?
5ad4928bba00c4001a268c54
True
April 12, 2011
107
When was Milestone 11 divulged?
5ad4928bba00c4001a268c55
True
It was the first build where the text of a window was written centered instead of aligned to the left
123
What was special about Milestone 11?
5ad4928bba00c4001a268c56
True
April 25, 2011
577
When was Milestone 12 divulged?
5ad4928bba00c4001a268c57
True
May 1, 2011
838
When was Build 7995 divulged?
5ad4928bba00c4001a268c58
True
Three milestone releases of Windows 8 leaked to the general public. Milestone 1, Build 7850, was leaked on April 12, 2011. It was the first build where the text of a window was written centered instead of aligned to the left. It was also probably the first appearance of the Metro-style font, and its wallpaper had the text shhh... let's not leak our hard work. However, its detailed build number reveals that the build was created on September 22, 2010. The leaked copy edition was Enterprise edition. The OS still reads as "Windows 7". Milestone 2, Build 7955, was leaked on April 25, 2011. The traditional Blue Screen of Death (BSoD) was replaced by a new Black screen, although this was later scrapped. This build introduced a new ribbon in Windows Explorer. Build 7959, with minor changes but the first 64-bit version, was leaked on May 1, 2011. The "Windows 7" logo was temporarily replaced with text displaying "Microsoft Confidential". On June 17, 2011, build 7989 64-bit edition was leaked. It introduced a new boot screen featuring the same fish as the default Windows 7 Beta wallpaper, which was later scrapped, and the circling dots as featured in the final (although the final version comes with smaller circling dots throbber). It also had the text Welcome below them, although this was also scrapped.
What 3 versions of the build did Microsoft first release?
57301ed8a23a5019007fcdc5
standard 32-bit and 64-bit versions, plus a special 64-bit version which included SDKs and developer tools
56
False
What developer tools did the build have?
57301ed8a23a5019007fcdc6
Visual Studio Express and Expression Blend
164
False
How many downloads occured in the first 12 hours?
57301ed8a23a5019007fcdc7
535,000
376
False
When did the developer preview expire?
57301ed8a23a5019007fcdc8
January 15, 2013
573
False
When was the Developer preview initially intended to expire?
57301ed8a23a5019007fcdc9
March 11, 2012
489
False
32-bit and 64-bit versions, plus a special 64-bit version which included SDKs and developer tools
65
What 4 versions of the build did Microsoft first release?
5ad49407ba00c4001a268c5e
True
Visual Studio Express and Expression Blend
164
What developer tools didn't the build have?
5ad49407ba00c4001a268c5f
True
535,000
376
How many downloads occured in the first 21 hours?
5ad49407ba00c4001a268c60
True
January 15, 2013
573
When didn't the developer preview expire?
5ad49407ba00c4001a268c61
True
March 11, 2012
489
When wasn't the Developer preview initially intended to expire?
5ad49407ba00c4001a268c62
True
The build was released for download later in the day in standard 32-bit and 64-bit versions, plus a special 64-bit version which included SDKs and developer tools (Visual Studio Express and Expression Blend) for developing Metro-style apps. The Windows Store was announced during the presentation, but was not available in this build. According to Microsoft, there were about 535,000 downloads of the developer preview within the first 12 hours of its release. Originally set to expire on March 11, 2012, in February 2012 the Developer Preview's expiry date was changed to January 15, 2013.
When was the beta version of Windows 8 made available to the public?
57302039b2c2fd14005688db
February 29, 2012
3
False
Who is the Windows Manager?
57302039b2c2fd14005688dc
Chaitanya Sareen
268
False
How many things were altered after developer version release?
57302039b2c2fd14005688dd
100,000
493
False
When was the Consumer Preview set to expire?
57302039b2c2fd14005688de
January 15, 2013
722
False
How many times was the Consumer Preview downloaded in the first 24 hours?
57302039b2c2fd14005688df
over one million times
638
False
February 29, 2012
3
When was the beta version of Windows 9 made available to the public?
5ad4944bba00c4001a268c68
True
Chaitanya Sareen
268
Who isn't the Windows Manager?
5ad4944bba00c4001a268c69
True
100,000
493
How many things were altered before developer version release?
5ad4944bba00c4001a268c6a
True
January 15, 2013.
722
When wasn't the Consumer Preview set to expire?
5ad4944bba00c4001a268c6b
True
over one million times
638
How many times was the Consumer Preview downloaded in the first 42 hours?
5ad4944bba00c4001a268c6c
True
On February 29, 2012, Microsoft released Windows 8 Consumer Preview, the beta version of Windows 8, build 8250. Alongside other changes, the build removed the Start button from the taskbar for the first time since its debut on Windows 95; according to Windows manager Chaitanya Sareen, the Start button was removed to reflect their view that on Windows 8, the desktop was an "app" itself, and not the primary interface of the operating system. Windows president Steven Sinofsky said more than 100,000 changes had been made since the developer version went public. The day after its release, Windows 8 Consumer Preview had been downloaded over one million times. Like the Developer Preview, the Consumer Preview expired on January 15, 2013.
When was the Release Preview revealed to consumers?
5730215004bcaa1900d771dd
May 31, 2012
391
False
When was the release preview set to expire?
5730215004bcaa1900d771de
January 15, 2013
724
False
What were the main components of the Release preview?
5730215004bcaa1900d771df
addition of Sports, Travel, and News apps, along with an integrated version of Adobe Flash Player
520
False
What was the build number of the Windows 8 Release Preview?
5730215004bcaa1900d771e0
8400
146
False
When was the Windows 8 Release Preview accidentally revealed?
5730215004bcaa1900d771e1
May 28, 2012
204
False
May 31, 2012
391
When was the Release Preview unrevealed to consumers?
5ad4949fba00c4001a268c72
True
January 15, 2013
724
When wasn't the release preview set to expire?
5ad4949fba00c4001a268c73
True
addition of Sports, Travel, and News apps, along with an integrated version of Adobe Flash Player
520
What were the side components of the Release preview?
5ad4949fba00c4001a268c74
True
8400
320
What was the build number of the Windows 9 Release Preview?
5ad4949fba00c4001a268c75
True
May 28, 2012
204
When was the Windows 9 Release Preview accidentally revealed?
5ad4949fba00c4001a268c76
True
Many other builds were released until the Japan's Developers Day conference, when Steven Sinofsky announced that Windows 8 Release Preview (build 8400) would be released during the first week of June. On May 28, 2012, Windows 8 Release Preview (Standard Simplified Chinese x64 edition, not China-specific version, build 8400) was leaked online on various Chinese and BitTorrent websites. On May 31, 2012, Windows 8 Release Preview was released to the public by Microsoft. Major items in the Release Preview included the addition of Sports, Travel, and News apps, along with an integrated version of Adobe Flash Player in Internet Explorer. Like the Developer Preview and the Consumer Preview, the release preview expired on January 15, 2013.
When did Windows 8 manufacturing begin?
57302231b2c2fd1400568913
August 1, 2012
3
False
What was the final build Microsoft decided to manufacture?
57302231b2c2fd1400568914
9200
36
False
When was Microsoft supposed to officially launch Windows 8?
57302231b2c2fd1400568915
October 25, 2012
155
False
What version of Windows 8 is Enterprise N?
57302231b2c2fd1400568916
a version for European markets lacking bundled media players
347
False
When were Software Assurance consumers allowed access to Windows 8?
57302231b2c2fd1400568917
August 16, 2012
703
False
August 1, 2012
3
When did Windows 9 manufacturing begin?
5ad494e6ba00c4001a268c7c
True
9200
36
What was the first build Microsoft decided to manufacture?
5ad494e6ba00c4001a268c7d
True
October 25, 2012
155
When was Microsoft supposed to officially launch Windows 9?
5ad494e6ba00c4001a268c7e
True
a version for European markets lacking bundled media players to comply with a court ruling
347
What version of Windows 9 is Enterprise N?
5ad494e6ba00c4001a268c7f
True
August 16, 2012
703
When were Software Assurance consumers allowed access to Windows 9?
5ad494e6ba00c4001a268c80
True
On August 1, 2012, Windows 8 (build 9200) was released to manufacturing with the build number 6.2.9200.16384 . Microsoft planned to hold a launch event on October 25, 2012 and release Windows 8 for general availability on the next day. However, only a day after its release to manufacturing, a copy of the final version of Windows 8 Enterprise N (a version for European markets lacking bundled media players to comply with a court ruling) leaked online, followed by leaks of the final versions of Windows 8 Pro and Enterprise a few days later. On August 15, 2012, Windows 8 was made available to download for MSDN and TechNet subscribers. Windows 8 was made available to Software Assurance customers on August 16, 2012. Windows 8 was made available for students with a DreamSpark Premium subscription on August 22, 2012, earlier than advertised.
How many things did Microsoft alter after Release Preview?
5730233fa23a5019007fce1b
Relatively few
0
False
When was the General Availablity Cumulative Update provided?
5730233fa23a5019007fce1c
October 9, 2012
650
False
How are system improvements released through Windows 8?
5730233fa23a5019007fce1d
through Windows Update
814
False
What name did Windows Explorer change to?
5730233fa23a5019007fce1e
File Explorer
172
False
Relatively few
0
How many things did Microsoft alter before Release Preview?
5ad49528ba00c4001a268c86
True
October 9, 2012
650
When wasn't the General Availablity Cumulative Update provided?
5ad49528ba00c4001a268c87
True
Windows Update
822
How aren't system improvements released through Windows 8?
5ad49528ba00c4001a268c88
True
Windows Update
822
How are system improvements released through Windows 9?
5ad49528ba00c4001a268c89
True
File Explorer
172
What name did Windows Explorer stay as?
5ad49528ba00c4001a268c8a
True
Relatively few changes were made from the Release Preview to the final version; these included updated versions of its pre-loaded apps, the renaming of Windows Explorer to File Explorer, the replacement of the Aero Glass theme from Windows Vista and 7 with a new flat and solid-colored theme, and the addition of new background options for the Start screen, lock screen, and desktop. Prior to its general availability on October 26, 2012, updates were released for some of Windows 8's bundled apps, and a "General Availability Cumulative Update" (which included fixes to improve performance, compatibility, and battery life) was released on Tuesday, October 9, 2012. Microsoft indicated that due to improvements to its testing infrastructure, general improvements of this nature are to be released more frequently through Windows Update instead of being relegated to OEMs and service packs only.
How much money was allocated to advertise Windows 8?
5730245ca23a5019007fce3f
$1.5–1.8 billion
223
False
How much money was allocated to advertise Windows 95?
5730245ca23a5019007fce40
$200 million
276
False
What is the name of the character Microsoft used to make Windows 8 seem more personable?
5730245ca23a5019007fce41
Allison Brown
753
False
When did Microsoft begin promoting Windows 8?
5730245ca23a5019007fce42
October 2012
92
False
How many pop up stores did Microsoft set up to help promote Windows 8?
5730245ca23a5019007fce43
34
368
False
US$1.5–1.8 billion
221
How much money was allocated to advertise Windows 9?
5ad4956cba00c4001a268c90
True
US$200
274
How much money was allocated to advertise Windows 98?
5ad4956cba00c4001a268c91
True
Allison Brown
753
What is the name of the character Microsoft used to make Windows 9 seem more personable?
5ad4956cba00c4001a268c92
True
October 2012
92
When did Microsoft begin promoting Windows 9?
5ad4956cba00c4001a268c93
True
34
368
How many pop up stores did Microsoft set up to help promote Windows 9?
5ad4956cba00c4001a268c94
True
Microsoft began an advertising campaign centered around Windows 8 and its Surface tablet in October 2012, starting with its first television advertisement premiering on October 14, 2012. Microsoft's advertising budget of US$1.5–1.8 billion was significantly larger than the US$200 million campaign used to promote Windows 95. As part of its campaign, Microsoft set up 34 pop-up stores inside malls (primarily focusing on Surface), provided training for retail employees in partnership with Intel, and collaborated with the electronics store chain Best Buy to design expanded spaces to showcase devices. In an effort to make retail displays of Windows 8 devices more "personal", Microsoft also developed a character known in English-speaking markets as "Allison Brown", whose fictional profile (including personal photos, contacts, and emails) is also featured on demonstration units of Windows 8 devices.
When was the first game of the 2013 Stanley Cup Finals?
5730258e04bcaa1900d77225
June 12, 2013
285
False
Who did Windows 8 mock in their television campaign?
5730258e04bcaa1900d77226
the iPad
152
False
What was the name of the Windows 8 advertising campaign?
5730258e04bcaa1900d77227
Windows Everywhere
386
False
What three things did the Windows Everywhere campaign emphasize on?
5730258e04bcaa1900d77228
Windows 8, Windows Phone 8, and the company's suite of online services
431
False
June 12, 2013
285
When was the first game of the 2014 Stanley Cup Finals?
5ad495c5ba00c4001a268c9a
True
June 12, 2013
285
When was the last game of the 2014 Stanley Cup Finals?
5ad495c5ba00c4001a268c9b
True
the iPad
208
Who did Windows 9 mock in their television campaign?
5ad495c5ba00c4001a268c9c
True
Windows Everywhere
386
What was the name of the Windows 9 advertising campaign?
5ad495c5ba00c4001a268c9d
True
Windows 8, Windows Phone 8, and the company's suite of online services
431
What four things did the Windows Everywhere campaign emphasize on?
5ad495c5ba00c4001a268c9e
True
In May 2013, Microsoft launched a new television campaign for Windows 8 illustrating the capabilities and pricing of Windows 8 tablets in comparison to the iPad, which featured the voice of Siri remarking on the iPad's limitations in a parody of Apple's "Get a Mac" advertisements. On June 12, 2013 during game 1 of the 2013 Stanley Cup Finals, Microsoft premiered the first ad in its "Windows Everywhere" campaign, which promoted Windows 8, Windows Phone 8, and the company's suite of online services as an interconnected platform.
What happens during Hybrid Boot mode?
57302668947a6a140053d190
hibernates the Windows kernel on shutdown to speed up the subsequent boot
132
False
What is Windows to Go?
57302668947a6a140053d191
live USB versions of Windows
305
False
What are the benefits of USB 3.0?
57302668947a6a140053d192
faster data transfers and improved power management
432
False
What is the point of near field communications?
57302668947a6a140053d193
to facilitate sharing and communication between devices
600
False
What features were added to the lock screen?
57302668947a6a140053d194
clock and notifications
233
False
hibernates the Windows kernel on shutdown to speed up the subsequent boot
132
What never happens during Hybrid Boot mode?
5ad49618ba00c4001a268ca4
True
live USB versions of Windows
305
What is Windows to Stay?
5ad49618ba00c4001a268ca5
True
faster data transfers and improved power management
432
What are the benefits of USB 2.0?
5ad49618ba00c4001a268ca6
True
to facilitate sharing and communication between devices
600
What is the point of far field communications?
5ad49618ba00c4001a268ca7
True
clock and notifications
233
What features were taken away to the lock screen?
5ad49618ba00c4001a268ca8
True
New features and functionality in Windows 8 include a faster startup through UEFI integration and the new "Hybrid Boot" mode (which hibernates the Windows kernel on shutdown to speed up the subsequent boot), a new lock screen with a clock and notifications, and the ability for enterprise users to create live USB versions of Windows (known as Windows To Go). Windows 8 also adds native support for USB 3.0 devices, which allow for faster data transfers and improved power management with compatible devices, and hard disk 4KB Advanced Format support, as well as support for near field communication to facilitate sharing and communication between devices.
What replaced the Windows Explorer comman bar?
573027b6947a6a140053d1b6
a ribbon
69
False
What is the new name of Windows Explorer?
573027b6947a6a140053d1b7
File Explorer
41
False
What did the update of operation dalog boxes help with?
573027b6947a6a140053d1b8
provide more detailed statistics, the ability to pause file transfers, and improvements in the ability to manage conflicts when copying files
156
False
What does file history make possible?
573027b6947a6a140053d1b9
allows incremental revisions of files to be backed up to and restored from a secondary storage device
329
False
a ribbon
69
What never replaced the Windows Explorer common bar?
5ad49663ba00c4001a268cae
True
File Explorer
41
What is the old name of Windows Explorer?
5ad49663ba00c4001a268caf
True
provide more detailed statistics, the ability to pause file transfers, and improvements
156
What did the update of operation dalog boxes hurt with?
5ad49663ba00c4001a268cb0
True
provide more detailed statistics, the ability to pause file transfers, and improvements
156
What didn't the update of operation dalog boxes help with?
5ad49663ba00c4001a268cb1
True
allows incremental revisions of files to be backed up to and restored from a secondary storage device
329
What does file history make impossible?
5ad49663ba00c4001a268cb2
True
Windows Explorer, which has been renamed File Explorer, now includes a ribbon in place of the command bar. File operation dialog boxes have been updated to provide more detailed statistics, the ability to pause file transfers, and improvements in the ability to manage conflicts when copying files. A new "File History" function allows incremental revisions of files to be backed up to and restored from a secondary storage device, while Storage Spaces allows users to combine different sized hard disks into virtual drives and specify mirroring, parity, or no redundancy on a folder-by-folder basis.
What is the point of using different colors on a heat map?
573029cd947a6a140053d1f0
indicating the level of resource usage
197
False
What changes were made to the BSoD?
573029cd947a6a140053d1f1
a simpler and modern design with less technical information displayed
543
False
What are some of the process type groups Windows 8 implemented?
573029cd947a6a140053d1f2
applications, background processes and Windows processes
295
False
How can users find out more about obscure Windows 8 processes?
573029cd947a6a140053d1f3
search the web
422
False
indicating the level of resource usage
197
What is the point of using same colors on a heat map?
5ad496b5ba00c4001a268cb8
True
indicating the level of resource usage
197
What is the point of using different colors on a cool map?
5ad496b5ba00c4001a268cb9
True
a simpler and modern design with less technical information displayed
543
What changes were made to the BSoB?
5ad496b5ba00c4001a268cba
True
applications, background processes and Windows processes
295
What are some of the process type groups Windows 9 implemented?
5ad496b5ba00c4001a268cbb
True
search the web
422
How can users find out more about obscure Windows 9 processes?
5ad496b5ba00c4001a268cbc
True
Task Manager has been redesigned, including a new processes tab with the option to display fewer or more details of running applications and background processes, a heat map using different colors indicating the level of resource usage, network and disk counters, grouping by process type (e.g. applications, background processes and Windows processes), friendly names for processes and a new option which allows users to search the web to find information about obscure processes. Additionally, the Blue Screen of Death has been updated with a simpler and modern design with less technical information displayed.
What new security features did Windows 8 provide?
57302b2ab2c2fd14005689c7
PINs and picture passwords
105
False
What were the new security features in Windows 8 geared at?
57302b2ab2c2fd14005689c8
touchscreens
91
False
What options do Parental controls provide?
57302b2ab2c2fd14005689c9
allows parents to monitor and manage their children's activities on a device with activity reports and safety controls
346
False
What new recovery options did Windows 8 implement?
57302b2ab2c2fd14005689ca
"Refresh" and "Reset" functions, including system recovery from USB drive
533
False
When was the first Windows 8 patch sent out?
57302b2ab2c2fd14005689cb
November 13, 2012
664
False
PINs and picture passwords
105
What new security features did Windows 9 provide?
5ad4971eba00c4001a268cc2
True
touchscreens
91
What were the new security features in Windows 9 geared at?
5ad4971eba00c4001a268cc3
True
allows parents to monitor and manage their children's activities on a device with activity reports and safety controls
346
What options don't Parental controls provide?
5ad4971eba00c4001a268cc4
True
"Refresh" and "Reset" functions, including system recovery from USB drive
533
What new recovery options did Windows 9 implement?
5ad4971eba00c4001a268cc5
True
November 13, 2012
664
When was the first Windows 9 patch sent out?
5ad4971eba00c4001a268cc6
True
New security features in Windows 8 include two new authentication methods tailored towards touchscreens (PINs and picture passwords), the addition of antivirus capabilities to Windows Defender (bringing it in parity with Microsoft Security Essentials). SmartScreen filtering integrated into Windows, Family Safety offers Parental controls, which allows parents to monitor and manage their children's activities on a device with activity reports and safety controls. Windows 8 also provides integrated system recovery through the new "Refresh" and "Reset" functions, including system recovery from USB drive. Windows 8's first security patches would be released on November 13, 2012; it would contain three fixes deemed "critical" by the company.
How does secure boot help avert boot process infections?
57302c0ca23a5019007fcef7
uses a public-key infrastructure to verify the integrity of the operating system
85
False
What requirements do Microsoft certified devices have?
57302c0ca23a5019007fcef8
must have secure boot enabled by default, and provide ways for users to disable or re-configure the feature
334
False
What must always be enable in ARM-based Windows RT devices?
57302c0ca23a5019007fcef9
secure boot
482
False
uses a public-key infrastructure to verify the integrity of the operating system
85
How doesn't secure boot help avert boot process infections?
5ad4978fba00c4001a268cd6
True
uses a public-key infrastructure to verify the integrity of the operating system
85
How does insecure boot help avert boot process infections?
5ad4978fba00c4001a268cd7
True
must have secure boot enabled by default, and provide ways for users to disable or re-configure the feature
334
What requirements don't Microsoft certified devices have?
5ad4978fba00c4001a268cd8
True
must have secure boot enabled by default, and provide ways for users to disable or re-configure the feature
334
What requirements do Microsoft uncertified devices have?
5ad4978fba00c4001a268cd9
True
secure boot
482
What must always be enable in ARM-based Windows TR devices?
5ad4978fba00c4001a268cda
True
Windows 8 supports a feature of the UEFI specification known as "Secure boot", which uses a public-key infrastructure to verify the integrity of the operating system and prevent unauthorized programs such as bootkits from infecting the device's boot process. Some pre-built devices may be described as "certified" by Microsoft; these must have secure boot enabled by default, and provide ways for users to disable or re-configure the feature. ARM-based Windows RT devices must have secure boot permanently enabled.
What is SkyDrive?
57302d90b2c2fd14005689ff
cloud storage service
306
False
What features does Xbox Live hub offer?
57302d90b2c2fd1400568a00
allows users to view their profile and gamerscore
724
False
When was Facebook support turned off?
57302d90b2c2fd1400568a01
June 8, 2015
943
False
What Xbox apps were bundled together?
57302d90b2c2fd1400568a02
Xbox Music, Xbox Video, and the Xbox SmartGlass
574
False
What service options does Windows online now offer?
57302d90b2c2fd1400568a03
can be used to access services and synchronize applications and settings between devices.
152
False
cloud storage service
306
What isn't SkyDrive?
5ad497fcba00c4001a268ce0
True
also allows users to view their profile and gamerscore
719
What features doesn't Xbox Live hub offer?
5ad497fcba00c4001a268ce1
True
June 8, 2015
943
When was Facebook support turned on?
5ad497fcba00c4001a268ce2
True
Xbox Music, Xbox Video, and the Xbox SmartGlass
574
What Xbox One apps were bundled together?
5ad497fcba00c4001a268ce3
True
can be used to access services and synchronize applications and settings between devices
152
What service options does Windows offline now offer?
5ad497fcba00c4001a268ce4
True
Windows 8 provides heavier integration with online services from Microsoft and others. A user can now log in to Windows with a Microsoft account, which can be used to access services and synchronize applications and settings between devices. Windows 8 also ships with a client app for Microsoft's SkyDrive cloud storage service, which also allows apps to save files directly to SkyDrive. A SkyDrive client for the desktop and File Explorer is not included in Windows 8, and must be downloaded separately. Bundled multimedia apps are provided under the Xbox brand, including Xbox Music, Xbox Video, and the Xbox SmartGlass companion for use with an Xbox 360 console. Games can integrate into an Xbox Live hub app, which also allows users to view their profile and gamerscore. Other bundled apps provide the ability to link Flickr and Facebook. Due to Facebook Connect service changes, Facebook support is disabled in all bundled apps effective June 8, 2015.
What forms is Internet Exploer 10 available as?
57302f1504bcaa1900d772ff
a desktop program and a touch-optimized app
41
False
What limitations were put on Adobe flash to begin with?
57302f1504bcaa1900d77300
a "Compatibility View" whitelist
389
False
What improvements were made to Internet Explorer?
57302f1504bcaa1900d77301
increased support for HTML5, CSS3, and hardware acceleration
99
False
Where can Adobe Flash now be used?
57302f1504bcaa1900d77302
most sites by default
646
False
a desktop program and a touch-optimized app
41
What forms is Internet Explorer 11 available as?
5ad4984cba00c4001a268cf2
True
a desktop program and a touch-optimized app
41
What forms is Internet Explorer 10 unavailable as?
5ad4984cba00c4001a268cf3
True
a "Compatibility View" whitelist
389
What limitations weren't put on Adobe flash to begin with?
5ad4984cba00c4001a268cf4
True
increased support for HTML5, CSS3, and hardware acceleration
99
What improvements weren't made to Internet Explorer?
5ad4984cba00c4001a268cf5
True
most sites by default
646
Where can Adobe Flash not be used?
5ad4984cba00c4001a268cf6
True
Internet Explorer 10 is included as both a desktop program and a touch-optimized app, and includes increased support for HTML5, CSS3, and hardware acceleration. The Internet Explorer app does not support plugins or ActiveX components, but includes a version of Adobe Flash Player that is optimized for touch and low power usage. Initially, Adobe Flash would only work on sites included on a "Compatibility View" whitelist; however, after feedback from users and additional compatibility tests, an update in March 2013 changed this behavior to use a smaller blacklist of sites with known compatibility issues instead, allowing Flash to be used on most sites by default. The desktop version does not contain these limitations.
What does airplone mode do?
573030d304bcaa1900d77321
disable all wireless connectivity
368
False
Where can Carrier account management systems be found?
573030d304bcaa1900d77322
Windows Store apps
470
False
What registers the insertion of a SIM card?
573030d304bcaa1900d77323
the operating system
67
False
What are some connection settings in Windows 8?
573030d304bcaa1900d77324
APNs and carrier branding
190
False
disable all wireless connectivity
368
What doesn't airplane mode do?
5ad498b4ba00c4001a268cfc
True
Windows Store apps
470
Where can't Carrier account management systems be found?
5ad498b4ba00c4001a268cfd
True
the operating system
67
What never registers the insertion of a SIM card?
5ad498b4ba00c4001a268cfe
True
the operating system
67
What registers the insertion of a SMI card?
5ad498b4ba00c4001a268cff
True
APNs and carrier branding
190
What are some connection settings in Windows 9?
5ad498b4ba00c4001a268d00
True
Windows 8 also incorporates improved support for mobile broadband; the operating system can now detect the insertion of a SIM card and automatically configure connection settings (including APNs and carrier branding), and reduce its internet usage in order to conserve bandwidth on metered networks. Windows 8 also adds an integrated airplane mode setting to globally disable all wireless connectivity as well. Carriers can also offer account management systems through Windows Store apps, which can be automatically installed as a part of the connection process and offer usage statistics on their respective tile.
Who is Jensen Harris?
573031bb04bcaa1900d7733b
Microsoft developer
82
False
What apps can one expect the People app to match with?
573031bb04bcaa1900d7733c
Facebook, Skype, and People service
736
False
What apps can one expect the Photos app to match with?
573031bb04bcaa1900d7733d
Facebook and Flickr
838
False
What makes Windows Store apps unique?
573031bb04bcaa1900d7733e
apps are to be optimized for touchscreen environments and are more specialized than current desktop applications.
123
False
What are contracts?
573031bb04bcaa1900d7733f
collection of hooks to provide common functionality that can integrate with other apps
459
False
Microsoft developer
82
Who isn't Jensen Harris?
5ad49966ba00c4001a268d18
True
Facebook, Skype, and People service
736
What apps can't one expect the People app to match with?
5ad49966ba00c4001a268d19
True
Facebook and Flickr
838
What apps can't one expect the Photos app to match with?
5ad49966ba00c4001a268d1a
True
apps are to be optimized for touchscreen environments and are more specialized than current desktop applications
123
What makes Windows Store apps un-unique?
5ad49966ba00c4001a268d1b
True
a collection of hooks to provide common functionality that can integrate with other apps
457
What aren't contracts?
5ad49966ba00c4001a268d1c
True
Windows 8 introduces a new style of application, Windows Store apps. According to Microsoft developer Jensen Harris, these apps are to be optimized for touchscreen environments and are more specialized than current desktop applications. Apps can run either in a full-screen mode, or be snapped to the side of a screen. Apps can provide toast notifications on screen or animate their tiles on the Start screen with dynamic content. Apps can use "contracts"; a collection of hooks to provide common functionality that can integrate with other apps, including search and sharing. Apps can also provide integration with other services; for example, the People app can connect to a variety of different social networks and services (such as Facebook, Skype, and People service), while the Photos app can aggregate photos from services such as Facebook and Flickr.
What programming languages does Windows Runtime work with?
573032bba23a5019007fcf5f
C, C++, Visual Basic .NET, C#, along with HTML5 and JavaScript
119
False
What makes Windows apps binary code compatible?
573032bba23a5019007fcf60
If written in some "high-level" languages
183
False
What does compiling components as Windows Runtime make possible?
573032bba23a5019007fcf61
permitting consumption by all compatible languages
427
False
What kind of environment provides Windows apps extra security?
573032bba23a5019007fcf62
sandboxed environment
531
False
C, C++, Visual Basic .NET, C#, along with HTML5 and JavaScript
119
What programming languages does Windows Downtime work with?
5ad499c5ba00c4001a268d22
True
C, C++, Visual Basic .NET, C#, along with HTML5 and JavaScript
119
What programming languages does Windows Runtime work without?
5ad499c5ba00c4001a268d23
True
written in some "high-level" languages
186
What makes Windows apps unary code compatible?
5ad499c5ba00c4001a268d24
True
permitting consumption by all compatible languages
427
What does compiling components as Windows Runtime make impossible?
5ad499c5ba00c4001a268d25
True
sandboxed environment
531
What kind of environment provides Windows apps less security?
5ad499c5ba00c4001a268d26
True
Windows Store apps run within a new set of APIs known as Windows Runtime, which supports programming languages such as C, C++, Visual Basic .NET, C#, along with HTML5 and JavaScript. If written in some "high-level" languages, apps written for Windows Runtime can be compatible with both Intel and ARM versions of Windows, otherwise they are not binary code compatible. Components may be compiled as Windows Runtime Components, permitting consumption by all compatible languages. To ensure stability and security, apps run within a sandboxed environment, and require permissions to access certain functionality, such as accessing the Internet or a camera.
Where can Windows 8 install apps from?
57303379b2c2fd1400568a5b
Windows Store
73
False
How do devices with Windows 8 Enterprise attain apps outside of the Windows Store?
57303379b2c2fd1400568a5c
sideload apps
234
False
What other devices can sideload apps?
57303379b2c2fd1400568a5d
Windows 8 Pro and Windows RT devices
352
False
Windows Store
73
Where can't Windows 8 install apps from?
5ad49a0aba00c4001a268d2c
True
Windows Store
73
Where can Windows 9 install apps from?
5ad49a0aba00c4001a268d2d
True
sideload apps
234
How do devices with Windows 9 Enterprise attain apps outside of the Windows Store?
5ad49a0aba00c4001a268d2e
True
sideload apps
234
How do devices with Windows 8 Enterprise attain apps inside of the Windows Store?
5ad49a0aba00c4001a268d2f
True
Windows 8 Pro and Windows RT devices
352
What other devices can't sideload apps?
5ad49a0aba00c4001a268d30
True
Retail versions of Windows 8 are only able to install these apps through Windows Store—a namesake distribution platform which offers both apps, and listings for desktop programs certified for comparability with Windows 8. A method to sideload apps from outside Windows Store is available to devices running Windows 8 Enterprise and joined to a domain; Windows 8 Pro and Windows RT devices that are not part of a domain can also sideload apps, but only after special product keys are obtained through volume licensing.
What does immersive app stand for?
5730342e947a6a140053d282
the apps prior to the first official presentation of Windows 8
86
False
What are apps after the introduction of Windows 8 called?
5730342e947a6a140053d283
Metro-style apps
188
False
Who is Soma Somasegar?
5730342e947a6a140053d284
vice president of Microsoft's development software division
734
False
When did Windows Store apps become the real term for the apps?
5730342e947a6a140053d285
September 12, 2012
698
False
the apps prior to the first official presentation of Windows 8
86
What does unimmersive app stand for?
5ad49a4fba00c4001a268d36
True
the apps prior to the first official presentation of Windows 8
86
What doesn't immersive app stand for?
5ad49a4fba00c4001a268d37
True
Metro-style apps
188
What are apps after the introduction of Windows 9 called?
5ad49a4fba00c4001a268d38
True
vice president of Microsoft's development software division
734
Who is Noma Somasegar?
5ad49a4fba00c4001a268d39
True
September 12, 2012
698
When didn't Windows Store apps become the real term for the apps?
5ad49a4fba00c4001a268d3a
True
The term "Immersive app" had been used internally by Microsoft developers to refer to the apps prior to the first official presentation of Windows 8, after which they were referred to as "Metro-style apps" in reference to the Metro design language. The term was phased out in August 2012; a Microsoft spokesperson denied rumors that the change was related to a potential trademark issue, and stated that "Metro" was only a codename that would be replaced prior to Windows 8's release. Following these reports, the terms "Modern UI-style apps", "Windows 8-style apps" and "Windows Store apps" began to be used by various Microsoft documents and material to refer to the new apps. In an interview on September 12, 2012, Soma Somasegar (vice president of Microsoft's development software division) confirmed that "Windows Store apps" would be the official term for the apps. An MSDN page explaining the Metro design language uses the term "Modern design" to refer to the language as a whole.
What code did Windows 8 change to?
5730368a04bcaa1900d7737f
API code instead of WinRT
363
False
What term did Microsoft give to its exception privilige for web browsing?
5730368a04bcaa1900d77380
New experience enabled
586
False
What different options did the desktop version have?
5730368a04bcaa1900d77381
able to permanently run in the background, use multiple background processes, and use Windows API code
269
False
Windows API code instead of WinRT
355
What code did Windows 9 change to?
5ad49a99ba00c4001a268d4a
True
Windows API code instead of WinRT
355
What code didn't Windows 8 change to?
5ad49a99ba00c4001a268d4b
True
New experience enabled
586
What term didn't Microsoft give to its exception privilige for web browsing?
5ad49a99ba00c4001a268d4c
True
New experience enabled
586
What term did Microsoft give to its exception privilige for file browsing?
5ad49a99ba00c4001a268d4d
True
able to permanently run in the background, use multiple background processes, and use Windows API code
269
What different options didn't the desktop version have?
5ad49a99ba00c4001a268d4e
True
Exceptions to the restrictions faced by Windows Store apps are given to web browsers. The user's default browser can distribute a Metro-style web browser in same package as the desktop version, which has access to functionality unavailable to other apps, such as being able to permanently run in the background, use multiple background processes, and use Windows API code instead of WinRT (allowing for code to be re-used with the desktop version, while still taking advantage of features available to Windows Store apps, such as charms). Microsoft advertises this exception privilege "New experience enabled" (formerly "Metro-style enabled").
Which two browsers promised to develop Metro-style versions of their browsers?
5730374704bcaa1900d7738f
Chrome and Firefox
23
False
What does Chromes version for Windows 8 do?
5730374704bcaa1900d77390
uses a full-screen version of the existing desktop interface
138
False
What does Firefox's version for Windows 8 do?
5730374704bcaa1900d77391
uses a touch-optimized interface
301
False
When was Firefox's version of Windows 8 made accesible?
5730374704bcaa1900d77392
September 2013
285
False
Chrome and Firefox
23
Which three browsers promised to develop Metro-style versions of their browsers?
5ad49ae7ba00c4001a268d54
True
uses a full-screen version of the existing desktop interface
138
What doesn't Chromes version for Windows 8 do?
5ad49ae7ba00c4001a268d55
True
uses a full-screen version of the existing desktop interface
138
What does Chromes version for Windows 9 do?
5ad49ae7ba00c4001a268d56
True
uses a touch-optimized interface
301
What does Firefox's version for Windows 9 do?
5ad49ae7ba00c4001a268d57
True
September 2013
285
When was Firefox's version of Windows 9 made accesible?
5ad49ae7ba00c4001a268d58
True
The developers of both Chrome and Firefox committed to developing Metro-style versions of their browsers; while Chrome's "Windows 8 mode" uses a full-screen version of the existing desktop interface, Firefox's version (which was first made available on the "Aurora" release channel in September 2013) uses a touch-optimized interface inspired by the Android version of Firefox. In October 2013, Chrome's app was changed to mimic the desktop environment used by Chrome OS. Development of the Firefox app for Windows 8 has since been cancelled, citing a lack of user adoption for the beta versions.
What is found on the Start Screen?
573038afb2c2fd1400568a8d
a customizable array of tiles linking to various apps and desktop programs
389
False
What do live tiles do?
573038afb2c2fd1400568a8e
display constantly updated information and content
483
False
What is the primary function of the PC Settings app?
573038afb2c2fd1400568a8f
used for basic configuration and user settings
746
False
Where can advanced settings options be found?
573038afb2c2fd1400568a90
Control Panel
876
False
What is the new System User interface built on?
573038afb2c2fd1400568a91
Microsoft's Metro design language
221
False
a customizable array of tiles linking to various apps and desktop programs
389
What is found on the Stop Screen?
5ad49b3eba00c4001a268d5e
True
used for basic configuration and user settings
746
What is the primary function of the CP Settings app?
5ad49b3eba00c4001a268d5f
True
display constantly updated information
483
What do dead tiles do?
5ad49b3eba00c4001a268d60
True
Control Panel
876
Where can basic settings options be found?
5ad49b3eba00c4001a268d61
True
Microsoft's Metro design language
221
What is the old System User interface built on?
5ad49b3eba00c4001a268d62
True
Windows 8 introduces significant changes to the operating system's user interface, many of which are aimed at improving its experience on tablet computers and other touchscreen devices. The new user interface is based on Microsoft's Metro design language, and uses a Start screen similar to that of Windows Phone 7 as the primary means of launching applications. The Start screen displays a customizable array of tiles linking to various apps and desktop programs, some of which can display constantly updated information and content through "live tiles". As a form of multi-tasking, apps can be snapped to the side of a screen. Alongside the traditional Control Panel, a new simplified and touch-optimized settings app known as "PC Settings" is used for basic configuration and user settings. It does not include many of the advanced options still accessible from the normal Control Panel.
What is charms?
573039d104bcaa1900d773cd
A vertical toolbar
0
False
What is the purpose of charms?
573039d104bcaa1900d773ce
provides access to system and app-related functions, such as search, sharing, device management, settings, and a Start button
167
False
How is an active list of apps accessed?
573039d104bcaa1900d773cf
Pointing the cursor in the top-left corner of the screen and moving down
762
False
What does swiping from the left edge of the screen do?
573039d104bcaa1900d773d0
allows one to switch between apps and Desktop
715
False
How is the traditional desktop evironment opened?
573039d104bcaa1900d773d1
via a tile on the Start screen
375
False
A vertical toolbar
0
What aren't charms?
5ad49b90ba00c4001a268d72
True
provides access to system and app-related functions, such as search, sharing, device management, settings, and a Start button
167
What isn't the purpose of charms?
5ad49b90ba00c4001a268d73
True
Pointing the cursor in the top-left corner of the screen and moving down
762
How is an inactive list of apps accessed?
5ad49b90ba00c4001a268d74
True
allows one to switch between apps and Desktop
715
What does swiping from the right edge of the screen do?
5ad49b90ba00c4001a268d75
True
via a tile on the Start screen
375
How is the traditional desktop evironment closed?
5ad49b90ba00c4001a268d76
True
A vertical toolbar known as the charms (accessed by swiping from the right edge of a touchscreen, or pointing the cursor at hotspots in the right corners of a screen) provides access to system and app-related functions, such as search, sharing, device management, settings, and a Start button. The traditional desktop environment for running desktop applications is accessed via a tile on the Start screen. The Start button on the taskbar from previous versions of Windows has been converted into a hotspot in the lower-left corner of the screen, which displays a large tooltip displaying a thumbnail of the Start screen. Swiping from the left edge of a touchscreen or clicking in the top-left corner of the screen allows one to switch between apps and Desktop. Pointing the cursor in the top-left corner of the screen and moving down reveals a thumbnail list of active apps. Aside from the removal of the Start button and the replacement of the Aero Glass theme with a flatter and solid-colored design, the desktop interface on Windows 8 is similar to that of Windows 7.
Why was the ability to play DVD-Video taken off of Windows Media Player?
57303ce2947a6a140053d2fc
the cost of licensing the necessary decoders
175
False
What does the Pro Pack do?
57303ce2947a6a140053d2fd
upgrades the system to Windows 8 Pro
518
False
Which main feature was removed in Windows 8?
57303ce2947a6a140053d2fe
the traditional Start menu
72
False
cost of licensing the necessary decoders
179
Why was the ability to play BR-Video taken off of Windows Media Player?
5ad49bdeba00c4001a268d86
True
cost of licensing the necessary decoders
179
Why was the ability to play DVD-Video taken off of Windows Picture Player?
5ad49bdeba00c4001a268d87
True
upgrades the system to Windows 8 Pro
518
What doesn't the Pro Pack do?
5ad49bdeba00c4001a268d88
True
upgrades the system to Windows 8 Pro
518
What does the Mod Pack do?
5ad49bdeba00c4001a268d89
True
traditional Start menu
76
Which main feature was removed in Windows 9?
5ad49bdeba00c4001a268d8a
True
Several notable features have been removed in Windows 8, beginning with the traditional Start menu. Support for playing DVD-Video was removed from Windows Media Player due to the cost of licensing the necessary decoders (especially for devices which do not include optical disc drives at all) and the prevalence of online streaming services. For the same reasons, Windows Media Center is not included by default on Windows 8, but Windows Media Center and DVD playback support can be purchased in the "Pro Pack" (which upgrades the system to Windows 8 Pro) or "Media Center Pack" add-on for Windows 8 Pro. As with prior versions, third-party DVD player software can still be used to enable DVD playback.
What backup element is still found on Windows 8?
57303e5ea23a5019007fcffd
Backup and Restore
0
False
How is Backup and Restore opened?
57303e5ea23a5019007fcffe
through a Control Panel applet called "Windows 7 File Recovery"
198
False
What does :76 Shadow Copy do?
57303e5ea23a5019007fcfff
access previous versions of shared files stored on a Windows Server computer
419
False
What is :74 used for?
57303e5ea23a5019007fd000
other software
580
False
Backup and Restore
0
What backup element isn't still found on Windows 8?
5ad49c1fba00c4001a268d90
True
Backup and Restore
0
What backup element is still found on Windows 9?
5ad49c1fba00c4001a268d91
True
through a Control Panel applet called "Windows 7 File Recovery"
198
How isn't Backup and Restore opened?
5ad49c1fba00c4001a268d92
True
through a Control Panel applet called "Windows 7 File Recovery"
198
How is Backup and Restore closed?
5ad49c1fba00c4001a268d93
True
access previous versions of shared files stored on a Windows Server computer
419
What does :67 Shadow Copy do?
5ad49c1fba00c4001a268d94
True
Backup and Restore, the backup component of Windows, is deprecated. It still ships with Windows 8 and continues to work on preset schedules, but is pushed to the background and can only be accessed through a Control Panel applet called "Windows 7 File Recovery".:76 Shadow Copy, a component of Windows Explorer that once saved previous versions of changed files, no longer protects local files and folders. It can only access previous versions of shared files stored on a Windows Server computer.:74 The subsystem on which these components worked, however, is still available for other software to use.:74
What did Microsoft change the tablet resolution requirements on March 12, 2013?
5730408b947a6a140053d332
1024×768
600
False
Why did Microsoft decrease the required resoultion for tablets?
5730408b947a6a140053d333
to allow "greater design flexibility" for future products
680
False
What is a convertible form factor?
5730408b947a6a140053d334
a standalone device that combines the PC, display and rechargeable power source with a mechanically attached keyboard and pointing device in a single chassis
153
False
How does a convertible become a tablet?
5730408b947a6a140053d335
attached input devices are hidden or removed leaving the display as the only input mechanism
369
False
1024×768
600
What didn't Microsoft change the tablet resolution requirements on March 12, 2013?
5ad49c78ba00c4001a268da4
True
1024×768
600
What did Microsoft change the tablet resolution requirements on March 21, 2013?
5ad49c78ba00c4001a268da5
True
allow "greater design flexibility" for future products
683
Why did Microsoft increase the required resoultion for tablets?
5ad49c78ba00c4001a268da6
True
a standalone device that combines the PC, display and rechargeable power source with a mechanically attached keyboard and pointing device in a single chassis
153
What is an inconvertible form factor?
5ad49c78ba00c4001a268da7
True
attached input devices are hidden or removed leaving the display as the only input mechanism
369
How does an inconvertible become a tablet?
5ad49c78ba00c4001a268da8
True
Microsoft released minimum hardware requirements for tablet and laplet devices to be "certified" for Windows 8, and defined a convertible form factor as a standalone device that combines the PC, display and rechargeable power source with a mechanically attached keyboard and pointing device in a single chassis. A convertible can be transformed into a tablet where the attached input devices are hidden or removed leaving the display as the only input mechanism. On March 12, 2013, Microsoft amended its certification requirements to only require that screens on tablets have a minimum resolution of 1024×768 (down from the previous 1366×768). The amended requirement is intended to allow "greater design flexibility" for future products.
How many Windows 8 editions are there?
5730413904bcaa1900d7741d
three
26
False
What extras does Windows 8 Pro have?
5730413904bcaa1900d7741e
BitLocker, Hyper-V, the ability to join a domain, and the ability to install Windows Media Center as a paid add-on
401
False
What extras do Windows 8 Enterprise have?
5730413904bcaa1900d7741f
features aimed towards business environments
737
False
How would one get Windows RT?
5730413904bcaa1900d77420
as pre-loaded software on devices specifically developed for it
947
False
three
26
How many Windows 8 editions aren't there?
5ad49cc1ba00c4001a268db6
True
three
26
How many Windows 9 editions are there?
5ad49cc1ba00c4001a268db7
True
BitLocker, Hyper-V, the ability to join a domain, and the ability to install Windows Media Center as a paid add-on
401
What extras does Windows 9 Pro have?
5ad49cc1ba00c4001a268db8
True
features aimed towards business environments
737
What extras do Windows 9 Enterprise have?
5ad49cc1ba00c4001a268db9
True
as pre-loaded software on devices specifically developed for it
947
How would one get Windows TR?
5ad49cc1ba00c4001a268dba
True
Windows 8 is available in three different editions, of which the lowest version, branded simply as Windows 8, and Windows 8 Pro, were sold at retail in most countries, and as pre-loaded software on new computers. Each edition of Windows 8 includes all of the capabilities and features of the edition below it, and add additional features oriented towards their market segments. For example, Pro added BitLocker, Hyper-V, the ability to join a domain, and the ability to install Windows Media Center as a paid add-on. Users of Windows 8 can purchase a "Pro Pack" license that upgrades their system to Windows 8 Pro through Add features to Windows. This license also includes Windows Media Center. Windows 8 Enterprise contains additional features aimed towards business environments, and is only available through volume licensing. A port of Windows 8 for ARM architecture, Windows RT, is marketed as an edition of Windows 8, but was only included as pre-loaded software on devices specifically developed for it.
During it's launch how much was a Windows 8 upgrade?
57304225947a6a140053d368
$39.99 online, or $69.99 for retail box
243
False
What is the Windows 8 price?
57304225947a6a140053d369
$119.99
362
False
What is the Windows 8 Pro price?
57304225947a6a140053d36a
$199.99
388
False
Which PC owners could purchase a Windows 8 Pro uprgrade for $14.99?
57304225947a6a140053d36b
PCs pre-loaded with Windows 7 Home Basic, Home Premium, Professional, or Ultimate
421
False
How much was the Windows Media Center add-on during the original Windows 8 promotion?
57304225947a6a140053d36c
free
946
False
US$39.99 online, or $69.99 for retail box
241
During it's launch how much was a Windows 9 upgrade?
5ad49d1dba00c4001a268dca
True
$119.99
362
What is the Windows 9 price?
5ad49d1dba00c4001a268dcb
True
$199.99
388
What is the Windows 9 Pro price?
5ad49d1dba00c4001a268dcc
True
PCs pre-loaded with Windows 7 Home Basic, Home Premium, Professional, or Ultimate
421
Which PC owners could purchase a Windows 9 Pro uprgrade for $14.99?
5ad49d1dba00c4001a268dcd
True
free
946
How much was the Windows Media Center add-on during the original Windows 9 promotion?
5ad49d1dba00c4001a268dce
True
Windows 8 was distributed as a retail box product on DVD, and through a digital download that could be converted into DVD or USB install media. As part of a launch promotion, Microsoft offered Windows 8 Pro upgrades at a discounted price of US$39.99 online, or $69.99 for retail box from its launch until January 31, 2013; afterward the Windows 8 price has been $119.99 and the Pro price $199.99. Those who purchased new PCs pre-loaded with Windows 7 Home Basic, Home Premium, Professional, or Ultimate between June 2, 2012 and January 31, 2013 could digitally purchase a Windows 8 Pro upgrade for US$14.99. Several PC manufacturers offered rebates and refunds on Windows 8 upgrades obtained through the promotion on select models, such as Hewlett-Packard (in the U.S. and Canada on select models), and Acer (in Europe on selected Ultrabook models). During these promotions, the Windows Media Center add-on for Windows 8 Pro was also offered for free.
What restrictions do Windows upgrade licenses have?
573043c2b2c2fd1400568b2f
require an existing version of Windows to install
107
False
What did Windows offer in place of a full version of the software?
573043c2b2c2fd1400568b30
specialized "System Builder" SKU
336
False
What did the System Builder SKU take the place of?
573043c2b2c2fd1400568b31
(OEM) SKU
455
False
What does OEM stand for?
573043c2b2c2fd1400568b32
original equipment manufacturer
423
False
What did the Personal Use License allow?
573043c2b2c2fd1400568b33
purchase and personal use by users on homebuilt computers
598
False
require an existing version of Windows to install
107
What restrictions don't Windows upgrade licenses have?
5ad49d7cba00c4001a268dde
True
specialized "System Builder" SKU
336
What did Windows offer in place of a preview version of the software?
5ad49d7cba00c4001a268ddf
True
(OEM) SKU
455
What did the System Builder SUK take the place of?
5ad49d7cba00c4001a268de0
True
original equipment manufacturer
423
What does OME stand for
5ad49d7cba00c4001a268de1
True
purchase and personal use by users on homebuilt computers
598
What did the Personal Use License disallow?
5ad49d7cba00c4001a268de2
True
Unlike previous versions of Windows, Windows 8 was distributed at retail in "Upgrade" licenses only, which require an existing version of Windows to install. The "full version software" SKU, which was more expensive but could be installed on computers without an eligible OS or none at all, was discontinued. In lieu of full version, a specialized "System Builder" SKU was introduced. The "System Builder" SKU replaced the original equipment manufacturer (OEM) SKU, which was only allowed to be used on PCs meant for resale, but added a "Personal Use License" exemption that officially allowed its purchase and personal use by users on homebuilt computers.
What replaced Windows 8?
57304603b2c2fd1400568b53
Windows 8.1
73
False
What is the primary difference in Windows 8.1?
57304603b2c2fd1400568b54
8.1 is available as "full version software"
96
False
What exemption was removed from Windows 8.1?
57304603b2c2fd1400568b55
Personal Use License
385
False
What is Windows 8.1 with Bing?
57304603b2c2fd1400568b56
a special OEM-specific SKU of Windows 8.1 subsidized by Microsoft's Bing search engine
628
False
Windows 8.1
73
What replaced Windows 9?
5ad49dc7ba00c4001a268df2
True
available as "full version software"
103
What is the primary difference in Windows 9.1?
5ad49dc7ba00c4001a268df3
True
available as "full version software"
103
What is the primary similarity in Windows 8.1?
5ad49dc7ba00c4001a268df4
True
Personal Use License
385
What exemption was removed from Windows 9.1?
5ad49dc7ba00c4001a268df5
True
a special OEM-specific SKU of Windows 8.1 subsidized by Microsoft's Bing search engine
628
What is Windows 9.1 with Bing?
5ad49dc7ba00c4001a268df6
True
Retail distribution of Windows 8 has since been discontinued in favor of Windows 8.1. Unlike 8, 8.1 is available as "full version software" at both retail and online for download that does not require a previous version of Windows in order to be installed. Pricing for these new copies remain identical. With the retail release returning to full version software for Windows 8.1, the "Personal Use License" exemption was removed from the OEM SKU, meaning that end users building their own PCs for personal use must use the full retail version in order to satisfy the Windows 8.1 licensing requirements. Windows 8.1 with Bing is a special OEM-specific SKU of Windows 8.1 subsidized by Microsoft's Bing search engine.
What architecture types does Windows 8 support?
573047b604bcaa1900d77465
32-bit and 64-bit
48
False
What is 16-bit support intended for?
573047b604bcaa1900d77466
CPUs compatible with x86 2nd generation
535
False
When was x86 2nd generation created?
573047b604bcaa1900d77467
1978
595
False
How does the online Windows installer know which version to install?
573047b604bcaa1900d77468
automatically installs the version corresponding with the architecture of the system's existing Windows installation
180
False
32-bit and 64-bit
48
What architecture types does Windows 9 support?
5ad49e1fba00c4001a268dfc
True
32-bit and 64-bit
48
What architecture types doesn't Windows 8 support?
5ad49e1fba00c4001a268dfd
True
CPUs compatible with x86 2nd generation
535
What is 61-bit support intended for?
5ad49e1fba00c4001a268dfe
True
1978
595
When was x68 2nd generation created?
5ad49e1fba00c4001a268dff
True
automatically installs the version corresponding with the architecture of the system's existing Windows installation
180
How does the online Windows installer know which version to uninstall?
5ad49e1fba00c4001a268e00
True
The three desktop editions of Windows 8 support 32-bit and 64-bit architectures; retail copies of Windows 8 include install DVDs for both architectures, while the online installer automatically installs the version corresponding with the architecture of the system's existing Windows installation. The 32-bit version runs on CPUs compatible with x86 architecture 3rd generation (known as IA-32) or newer, and can run 32-bit and 16-bit applications, although 16-bit support must be enabled first. (16-bit applications are developed for CPUs compatible with x86 2nd generation, first conceived in 1978. Microsoft started moving away from this architecture after Windows 95.)
What Windows version is compatible with ARM processors?
5730485304bcaa1900d77477
Windows RT
0
False
What apps work on Windows RT?
5730485304bcaa1900d77478
only supports applications included with the system
75
False
Why does Windows RT only work with apps included with the system?
5730485304bcaa1900d77479
to ensure that the system only runs applications that are optimized for the architecture
227
False
Windows RT
0
What Windows version is incompatible with ARM processors?
5ad49e74ba00c4001a268e06
True
Windows RT
0
What Windows version is compatible with AMR processors?
5ad49e74ba00c4001a268e07
True
supports applications included with the system
80
What apps don't work on Windows RT?
5ad49e74ba00c4001a268e08
True
supports applications included with the system
80
What apps work on Windows TR?
5ad49e74ba00c4001a268e09
True
to ensure that the system only runs applications that are optimized for the architecture
227
Why does Windows RT only work with apps excluded with the system?
5ad49e74ba00c4001a268e0a
True
Windows RT, the only edition of Windows 8 for systems with ARM processors, only supports applications included with the system (such as a special version of Office 2013), supplied through Windows Update, or Windows Store apps, to ensure that the system only runs applications that are optimized for the architecture. Windows RT does not support running IA-32 or x64 applications. Windows Store apps can either support both the x86 and ARM architectures, or compiled to support a specific architecture.
Who is Tony Mangefeste?
57304982a23a5019007fd07b
Microsoft developer
439
False
What ideology does Microsoft follow?
57304982a23a5019007fd07c
to provide customers with the best experience first, and allow them to make decisions themselves
647
False
Who condemned Microsoft for requiring devices to have secure boot enabled by default?
57304982a23a5019007fd07d
free software supporters
83
False
What resolution did Microsoft come to in their certificiation guidelines?
57304982a23a5019007fd07e
vendors would be required to provide means for users to re-configure or disable secure boot
822
False
Microsoft developer
439
Who isn't Tony Mangefeste?
5ad49f01ba00c4001a268e10
True
to provide customers with the best experience first, and allow them to make decisions themselves
647
What ideology doesn't Microsoft follow?
5ad49f01ba00c4001a268e11
True
to provide customers with the best experience first, and allow them to make decisions themselves
647
What ideology does Apple follow?
5ad49f01ba00c4001a268e12
True
free software supporters
83
Who condemned Microsoft for requiring devices to have secure boot disabled by default?
5ad49f01ba00c4001a268e13
True
vendors would provide means to customize secure boot
490
What resolution didn't Microsoft come to in their certificiation guidelines?
5ad49f01ba00c4001a268e14
True
Following the unveiling of Windows 8, Microsoft faced criticism (particularly from free software supporters) for mandating that devices receiving its optional certification for Windows 8 have secure boot enabled by default using a key provided by Microsoft. Concerns were raised that secure boot could prevent or hinder the use of alternate operating systems such as Linux. In a post discussing secure boot on the Building Windows 8 blog, Microsoft developer Tony Mangefeste indicated that vendors would provide means to customize secure boot, stating that "At the end of the day, the customer is in control of their PC. Microsoft's philosophy is to provide customers with the best experience first, and allow them to make decisions themselves." Microsoft's certification guidelines for Windows 8 ultimately revealed that vendors would be required to provide means for users to re-configure or disable secure boot in their device's UEFI firmware. It also revealed that ARM devices (Windows RT) would be required to have secure boot permanently enabled, with no way for users to disable it. However, Tom Warren of The Verge noted that other vendors have implemented similar hardware restrictions on their own ARM-based tablet and smartphone products (including those running Microsoft's own Windows Phone platform), but still argued that Microsoft should "keep a consistent approach across ARM and x86, though, not least because of the number of users who'd love to run Android alongside Windows 8 on their future tablets." No mandate is made regarding the installation of third-party certificates that would enable running alternative programs.
Who criticized Microsofts closed platform Windows Store?
57304af1069b531400831fff
video game developers
16
False
Who created Minecraft?
57304af1069b531400832000
Markus "Notch" Persson
202
False
Who developed Steam?
57304af1069b531400832001
Gabe Newell
264
False
What company is Rob Pardo associated with?
57304af1069b531400832002
Activision Blizzard
384
False
What was the main reasoning behind the creation of the Windows Store?
57304af1069b531400832003
responding to the success of both Apple and Google in pursuing the "curated application store approach."
555
False
video game developers
16
Who criticized Microsofts open platform Windows Store?
5ad49f51ba00c4001a268e1a
True
Markus "Notch" Persson
202
Who hated Minecraft?
5ad49f51ba00c4001a268e1b
True
Gabe Newell
264
Who developed Dream?
5ad49f51ba00c4001a268e1c
True
Activision Blizzard
384
What company is Rob Pardo unassociated with?
5ad49f51ba00c4001a268e1d
True
responding to the success of both Apple and Google in pursuing the "curated application store approach."
555
What wasn't the main reasoning behind the creation of the Windows Store?
5ad49f51ba00c4001a268e1e
True
Several notable video game developers criticized Microsoft for making its Windows Store a closed platform subject to its own regulations, as it conflicted with their view of the PC as an open platform. Markus "Notch" Persson (creator of the indie game Minecraft), Gabe Newell (co-founder of Valve Corporation and developer of software distribution platform Steam), and Rob Pardo from Activision Blizzard voiced concern about the closed nature of the Windows Store. However, Tom Warren of The Verge stated that Microsoft's addition of the Store was simply responding to the success of both Apple and Google in pursuing the "curated application store approach."
Who equated windos 8 as the first desktop operating system that understand what a computer is supposed to do?
57304f698ab72b1400f9c42e
David Pierce
372
False
Why did Pierce give the Start Screen such glowing reviews?
57304f698ab72b1400f9c42f
because it allows users to interact with dynamic information
804
False
Which improvements were most well regarded?
57304f698ab72b1400f9c430
File History, Storage Spaces, and the updated Task Manager
1240
False
Who else uses a closed distribution platform?
57304f698ab72b1400f9c431
Apple
1807
False
David Pierce
372
Who equated windows 9 as the first desktop operating system that understand what a computer is supposed to do?
5ad49fe8ba00c4001a268e2e
True
David Pierce
372
Who equated windows 8 as the last desktop operating system that understand what a computer is supposed to do?
5ad49fe8ba00c4001a268e2f
True
because it allows users to interact with dynamic information
804
Why did Pierce give the Start Screen such poor reviews?
5ad49fe8ba00c4001a268e30
True
File History, Storage Spaces, and the updated Task Manager
1240
Which improvements were least well regarded?
5ad49fe8ba00c4001a268e31
True
Apple
1807
Who else uses an open distribution platform?
5ad49fe8ba00c4001a268e32
True
Reviews of the various editions of Windows 8 have been mixed. Tom Warren of The Verge said that although Windows 8's emphasis on touch computing was significant and risked alienating desktop users, a "tablet PC with Windows 8 makes an iPad feel immediately out of date" due to the capabilities of the operating system's hybrid model and increased focus on cloud services. David Pierce of The Verge described Windows 8 as "the first desktop operating system that understands what a computer is supposed to do in 2012" and praised Microsoft's "no compromise" approach and the operating system's emphasis on Internet connectivity and cloud services. Pierce also considered the Start Screen to be a "brilliant innovation for desktop computers" when compared with "folder-littered desktops on every other OS" because it allows users to interact with dynamic information. In contrast, an ExtremeTech article said it was Microsoft "flailing" and a review in PC Magazine condemned the Metro-style user interface. Some of the included apps in Windows 8 were considered to be basic and lacking in functionality, but the Xbox apps were praised for their promotion of a multi-platform entertainment experience. Other improvements and features (such as File History, Storage Spaces, and the updated Task Manager) were also regarded as positive changes. Peter Bright of Ars Technica wrote that while its user interface changes may overshadow them, Windows 8's improved performance, updated file manager, new storage functionality, expanded security features, and updated Task Manager were still positive improvements for the operating system. Bright also said that Windows 8's duality towards tablets and traditional PCs was an "extremely ambitious" aspect of the platform as well, but criticized Microsoft for emulating Apple's model of a closed distribution platform when implementing the Windows Store.
What makes the Windows 8 interface difficult to use?
573051012461fd1900a9cd17
the lack of instructions provided by the operating system on the functions accessed through the user interface
157
False
Who said the Windows 8 interface was clumsy and impractical?
573051012461fd1900a9cd18
Adrian Kingsley-Hughes
1112
False
What kind of feedback has Windows 8 received?
573051012461fd1900a9cd19
mixed
51
False
lack of instructions provided by the operating system on the functions accessed through the user interface
161
What makes the Windows 9 interface difficult to use?
5ad4a032ba00c4001a268e38
True
lack of instructions provided by the operating system on the functions accessed through the user interface
161
What makes the Windows 8 interface easy to use?
5ad4a032ba00c4001a268e39
True
Adrian Kingsley-Hughes
1112
Who said the Windows 9 interface was clumsy and impractical?
5ad4a032ba00c4001a268e3a
True
Adrian Kingsley-Hughes
1112
Who said the Windows 8 interface was practical?
5ad4a032ba00c4001a268e3b
True
mixed
51
What kind of feedback has Windows 9 received?
5ad4a032ba00c4001a268e3c
True
The interface of Windows 8 has been the subject of mixed reaction. Bright wrote that its system of hot corners and edge swiping "wasn't very obvious" due to the lack of instructions provided by the operating system on the functions accessed through the user interface, even by the video tutorial added on the RTM release (which only instructed users to point at corners of the screen or swipe from its sides). Despite this "stumbling block", Bright said that Windows 8's interface worked well in some places, but began to feel incoherent when switching between the "Metro" and desktop environments, sometimes through inconsistent means. Tom Warren of The Verge wrote that the new interface was "as stunning as it is surprising", contributing to an "incredibly personal" experience once it is customized by the user, but had a steep learning curve, and was awkward to use with a keyboard and mouse. He noted that while forcing all users to use the new touch-oriented interface was a risky move for Microsoft as a whole, it was necessary in order to push development of apps for the Windows Store. Others, such as Adrian Kingsley-Hughes from ZDNet, considered the interface to be "clumsy and impractical" due to its inconsistent design (going as far as considering it "two operating systems unceremoniously bolted together"), and concluded that "Windows 8 wasn't born out of a need or demand; it was born out of a desire on Microsoft's part to exert its will on the PC industry and decide to shape it in a direction—touch and tablets -- that allows it to compete against, and remain relevant in the face of Apple's iPad."
What is IDC?
573051df2461fd1900a9cd27
market research firm
279
False
What is the decline in PC sales attributed to?
573051df2461fd1900a9cd28
consumers bought more mobile devices
588
False
How much of a decrease in sales have Windows devices experienced?
573051df2461fd1900a9cd29
21 percent
109
False
While Windows sales went down, which company experienced an increase in sales?
573051df2461fd1900a9cd2a
Apple
247
False
market research firm
279
What is ICD?
5ad4a079ba00c4001a268e4c
True
market research firm
279
What isn't IDC?
5ad4a079ba00c4001a268e4d
True
consumers bought more mobile devices
588
What is the increase in PC sales attributed to?
5ad4a079ba00c4001a268e4e
True
21 percent
109
How much of a increase in sales have Windows devices experienced?
5ad4a079ba00c4001a268e4f
True
Apple
247
While Windows sales went up, which company experienced an decrease in sales?
5ad4a079ba00c4001a268e50
True
However, according to research firm NPD, sales of devices running Windows in the United States have declined 21 percent compared to the same time period in 2011. As the holiday shopping season wrapped up, Windows 8 sales continued to lag, even as Apple reported brisk sales. The market research firm IDC reported an overall drop in PC sales for the quarter, and said the drop may have been partly due to consumer reluctance to embrace the new features of the OS and poor support from OEM for these features. This capped the first year of declining PC sales to the Asia Pacific region, as consumers bought more mobile devices than Windows PCs.
What percent of tablets were running Windows in Q1 2013/
57305291069b531400832053
7.4
372
False
What was Androids market share in 2013?
57305291069b531400832054
43.4%
548
False
What was teh iOS market share in 2013?
57305291069b531400832055
48.2%
558
False
What does Strategy Analytics say Windows tablets are lacking?
57305291069b531400832056
top tier apps
720
False
When did Windows 8 surpass Windows Vistas market share?
57305291069b531400832057
July 2013
104
False
7.4%
372
What percent of tablets were running Windows in Q1 2012?
5ad4a0cbba00c4001a268e56
True
43.4%
548
What was Androids market share in 2012?
5ad4a0cbba00c4001a268e57
True
48.2%
558
What was the iOS market share in 2012?
5ad4a0cbba00c4001a268e58
True
top tier apps
720
What doesn't Strategy Analytics say Windows tablets are lacking?
5ad4a0cbba00c4001a268e59
True
July 2013
104
When did Windows 9 surpass Windows Vistas market share?
5ad4a0cbba00c4001a268e5a
True
Windows 8 surpassed Windows Vista in market share with a 5.1% usage rate according to numbers posted in July 2013 by Net Applications, with usage on a steady upward trajectory. However, intake of Windows 8 still lags behind that of Windows Vista and Windows 7 at the same point in their release cycles. Windows 8's tablet market share has also been growing steadily, with 7.4% of tablets running Windows in Q1 2013 according to Strategy Analytics, up from nothing just a year before. However, this is still well below Android and iOS, which posted 43.4% and 48.2% market share respectively, although both operating systems have been on the market much longer than Windows 8. Strategy Analytics also noted "a shortage of top tier apps" for Windows tablets despite Microsoft strategy of paying developers to create apps for the operating system (in addition to for Windows Phone).
What changes did Microsoft make to its certification requirements in March 2013?
573053ea8ab72b1400f9c46e
amended its certification requirements to allow tablets to use the 1024×768 resolution as a minimum
30
False
Why did Microsoft change the tablet resolution minimum?
573053ea8ab72b1400f9c46f
to allow the production of certified Windows 8 tablets in smaller form factors
155
False
How many licenses did Microsoft sell in the first six months?
573053ea8ab72b1400f9c470
100 million
378
False
What controlled the small form tablet market at this time?
573053ea8ab72b1400f9c471
Android-based tablets
275
False
amended its certification requirements to allow tablets to use the 1024×768 resolution as a minimum
30
What changes did Microsoft make to its recertification requirements in March 2013?
5ad4a115ba00c4001a268e6a
True
amended its certification requirements to allow tablets to use the 1024×768 resolution as a minimum
30
What changes did Microsoft make to its certification requirements in March 2012?
5ad4a115ba00c4001a268e6b
True
to allow the production of certified Windows 8 tablets in smaller form factors
155
Why did Microsoft change the tablet resolution maximum?
5ad4a115ba00c4001a268e6c
True
100 million
378
How many licenses did Microsoft sell in the first nine months?
5ad4a115ba00c4001a268e6d
True
Android-based tablets
275
What controlled the large form tablet market at this time?
5ad4a115ba00c4001a268e6e
True
In March 2013, Microsoft also amended its certification requirements to allow tablets to use the 1024×768 resolution as a minimum; this change is expected to allow the production of certified Windows 8 tablets in smaller form factors—a market which is currently dominated by Android-based tablets. Despite the reaction of industry experts, Microsoft reported that they had sold 100 million licenses in the first six months. This matched sales of Windows 7 over a similar period. This statistic includes shipments to channel warehouses which now need to be sold in order to make way for new shipments.
When did Microsoft make the existence of Windows 8.1 with Bing OEM SKU official?
573055012461fd1900a9cd41
May 23, 2014
1174
False
When did Microsoft remove license fees on device screens less than 9 inches?
573055012461fd1900a9cd42
April 2, 2014
960
False
When did Windows 8 decrease the price of Windows 8 for devices that cost less than $250?
573055012461fd1900a9cd43
February 2014
3
False
What was the benefit of Windows 8.1 with Bing?
573055012461fd1900a9cd44
cheaper Windows 8 licenses to OEMs in exchange for setting Internet Explorer's default search engine to Bing
630
False
May 23, 2014
1174
When did Microsoft make the existence of Windows 9.1 with Bing OEM SKU official?
5ad4a169ba00c4001a268e74
True
May 23, 2014
1174
When did Microsoft make the existence of Windows 8.1 with Bing OME SKU official?
5ad4a169ba00c4001a268e75
True
April 2, 2014
960
When did Microsoft remove license fees on device screens less than 8 inches?
5ad4a169ba00c4001a268e76
True
February 2014
3
When did Windows 9 decrease the price of Windows 8 for devices that cost less than $250?
5ad4a169ba00c4001a268e77
True
cheaper Windows 8 licenses to OEMs
630
What was the benefit of Windows 9.1 with Bing?
5ad4a169ba00c4001a268e78
True
In February 2014, Bloomberg reported that Microsoft would be lowering the price of Windows 8 licenses by 70% for devices that retail under US$250; alongside the announcement that an update to the operating system would allow OEMs to produce devices with as little as 1 GB of RAM and 16 GB of storage, critics felt that these changes would help Windows compete against Linux-based devices in the low-end market, particularly those running Chrome OS. Microsoft had similarly cut the price of Windows XP licenses to compete against the early waves of Linux-based netbooks. Reports also indicated that Microsoft was planning to offer cheaper Windows 8 licenses to OEMs in exchange for setting Internet Explorer's default search engine to Bing. Some media outlets falsely reported that the SKU associated with this plan, "Windows 8.1 with Bing", was a variant which would be a free or low-cost version of Windows 8 for consumers using older versions of Windows. On April 2, 2014, Microsoft ultimately announced that it would be removing license fees entirely for devices with screens smaller than 9 inches, and officially confirmed the rumored "Windows 8.1 with Bing" OEM SKU on May 23, 2014.
When did the Chinese government ban the purchase of Windows 8 products?
573055ee8ab72b1400f9c47e
May 2014
3
False
Why did the Chinese government ban Windows 8 based products?
573055ee8ab72b1400f9c47f
in protest of Microsoft's support lifecycle policy and the end of support for Windows XP
222
False
What market share did Windows XP have in Chine?
573055ee8ab72b1400f9c480
49%
361
False
Who claimed that the Windows 8 would allow the US Government to spy on its users?
573055ee8ab72b1400f9c481
Ni Guangnan
497
False
May 2014
3
When did the Chinese government approve the purchase of Windows 8 products?
5ad4a1b7ba00c4001a268e7e
True
May 2014
3
When did the Chinese government ban the purchase of Windows 9 products?
5ad4a1b7ba00c4001a268e7f
True
in protest of Microsoft's support lifecycle policy and the end of support for Windows XP
222
Why did the Chinese government ban Windows 9 based products?
5ad4a1b7ba00c4001a268e80
True
49%
361
What market share did Windows PX have in China?
5ad4a1b7ba00c4001a268e81
True
Ni Guangnan
497
Who claimed that the Windows 9 would allow the US Government to spy on its users?
5ad4a1b7ba00c4001a268e82
True
In May 2014, the Government of China banned the internal purchase of Windows 8-based products under government contracts requiring "energy-efficient" devices. The Xinhua News Agency claimed that Windows 8 was being banned in protest of Microsoft's support lifecycle policy and the end of support for Windows XP (which, as of January 2014, had a market share of 49% in China), as the government "obviously cannot ignore the risks of running OS [sic] without guaranteed technical support." However, Ni Guangnan of the Chinese Academy of Sciences had also previously warned that Windows 8 could allegedly expose users to surveillance by the United States government due to its heavy use of internet-based services.
What does CCTV stand for?
573056f1069b531400832085
China Central Television
32
False
What is the name of the Chinese social network?
573056f1069b531400832086
Sina Weibo
875
False
Who claimed that the Window 8 OS could gather sensitive user information?
573056f1069b531400832087
Ni Guangnan
191
False
Where did Yang Min practice as a computer scientiest?
573056f1069b531400832088
Fudan University
557
False
China Central Television
32
What doesn't CCTV stand for?
5ad4a204ba00c4001a268e88
True
China Central Television
32
What does CTCV stand for?
5ad4a204ba00c4001a268e89
True
Sina Weibo
875
What isn't the name of the Chinese social network?
5ad4a204ba00c4001a268e8a
True
Ni Guangnan
191
Who claimed that the Window 9 OS could gather sensitive user information?
5ad4a204ba00c4001a268e8b
True
Fudan University
557
Where didn't Yang Min practice as a computer scientest?
5ad4a204ba00c4001a268e8c
True
In June 2014, state broadcaster China Central Television (CCTV) broadcast a news story further characterizing Windows 8 as a threat to national security. The story featured an interview with Ni Guangnan, who stated that operating systems could aggregate "sensitive user information" that could be used to "understand the conditions and activities of our national economy and society", and alleged that per documents leaked by Edward Snowden, the U.S. government had worked with Microsoft to retrieve encrypted information. Yang Min, a computer scientist at Fudan University, also stated that "the security features of Windows 8 are basically to the benefit of Microsoft, allowing them control of the users' data, and that poses a big challenge to the national strategy for information security." Microsoft denied the claims in a number of posts on the Chinese social network Sina Weibo, which stated that the company had never "assisted any government in an attack of another government or clients" or provided client data to the U.S. government, never "provided any government the authority to directly visit" or placed any backdoors in its products and services, and that it had never concealed government requests for client data.
When was Windows 8.1 introduced?
573057ab2461fd1900a9cd89
May 14, 2013
86
False
When did Microsoft release the beta version of Windows 8.1?
573057ab2461fd1900a9cd8a
June 26, 2013
216
False
When did MSDN and TechNet users gain access to Windows 8.1?
573057ab2461fd1900a9cd8b
September 9, 2013
768
False
May 14, 2013
86
When was Windows 9.1 introduced?
5ad4a24aba00c4001a268e92
True
May 14, 2013
86
When was Windows 8.1 scrapped?
5ad4a24aba00c4001a268e93
True
June 26, 2013
216
When did Microsoft release the beta version of Windows 9.1?
5ad4a24aba00c4001a268e94
True
June 26, 2013
216
When did Microsoft release the alpha version of Windows 8.1?
5ad4a24aba00c4001a268e95
True
September 9, 2013
768
When did MSDN and TechNet users gain access to Windows 9.1?
5ad4a24aba00c4001a268e96
True
An upgrade to Windows 8 known as Windows 8.1 was officially announced by Microsoft on May 14, 2013. Following a presentation devoted to the upgrade at Build 2013, a public beta version of the upgrade was released on June 26, 2013. Windows 8.1 was released to OEM hardware partners on August 27, 2013, and released publicly as a free download through Windows Store on October 17, 2013. Volume license customers and subscribers to MSDN Plus and TechNet Plus were initially unable to obtain the RTM version upon its release; a spokesperson said the policy was changed to allow Microsoft to work with OEMs "to ensure a quality experience at general availability." However, after criticism, Microsoft reversed its decision and released the RTM build on MSDN and TechNet on September 9, 2013.
What search engine was added in Windows 8.1?
573058df069b531400832097
Bing-based unified search system
373
False
How did the Windows 8.1 upgrade enhance desktop startup?
573058df069b531400832098
ability to boot to the desktop instead of the Start screen
265
False
What main feature was added back to the desktop?
573058df069b531400832099
a visible Start button
161
False
How many apps did the WIndows 8.1 update allow to be snapped onto a signular display?
573058df069b53140083209a
up to four
220
False
Bing-based unified search system
373
What search engine was added in Windows 9.1?
5ad4a2a9ba00c4001a268e9c
True
Bing
373
What search engine was taken away in Windows 8.1?
5ad4a2a9ba00c4001a268e9d
True
ability to boot to the desktop instead of the Start screen
265
How did the Windows 9.1 upgrade enhance desktop startup?
5ad4a2a9ba00c4001a268e9e
True
a visible Start button
161
What main feature was taken away from the desktop?
5ad4a2a9ba00c4001a268e9f
True
up to four
220
How many apps did the WIndows 9.1 update allow to be snapped onto a signular display?
5ad4a2a9ba00c4001a268ea0
True
The upgrade addressed a number of criticisms faced by Windows 8 upon its release, with additional customization options for the Start screen, the restoration of a visible Start button on the desktop, the ability to snap up to four apps on a single display, and the ability to boot to the desktop instead of the Start screen. Windows 8's stock apps were also updated, a new Bing-based unified search system was added, SkyDrive was given deeper integration with the operating system, and a number of new stock apps, along with a tutorial, were added. Windows 8.1 also added support for 3D printing, Miracast media streaming, NFC printing, and Wi-Fi Direct.
Swaziland
How wide is Swaziland in miles??
57301fc6947a6a140053d142
81 mi
75
False
In terms of size where does Swaziland rank within Africa in terms of country size?
57301fc6947a6a140053d143
one of the smallest
109
False
What is the primary language spoken by the people in Swaziland?
57301fc6947a6a140053d144
siSwati
347
False
When did the ethnic Swazis establish a kingdom?
57301fc6947a6a140053d145
mid-18th century
394
False
Who was the leader of the 18th century Swazi kingdom?
57301fc6947a6a140053d146
Ngwane III
435
False
Swaziland
96
What country is measures 200 mi north to south?
5a56382f6349e2001acdccea
True
Swaziland
96
What is one of the smalloest countries in the world?
5a56382f6349e2001acdcceb
True
siSwati
347
What is the official language of Swaziland?
5a56382f6349e2001acdccec
True
Swazis
322
Who established a kingdom in the 1800's
5a56382f6349e2001acdcced
True
Ngwane III
435
Who was the leader of the Swazi kingdom in the 1800's?
5a56382f6349e2001acdccee
True
At no more than 200 kilometres (120 mi) north to south and 130 kilometres (81 mi) east to west, Swaziland is one of the smallest countries in Africa. Despite its size, however, its climate and topography is diverse, ranging from a cool and mountainous highveld to a hot and dry lowveld. The population is primarily ethnic Swazis whose language is siSwati. They established their kingdom in the mid-18th century under the leadership of Ngwane III; the present boundaries were drawn up in 1881. After the Anglo-Boer War, Swaziland was a British protectorate from 1903 until 1967. It regained its independence on 6 September 1968.
What is the per capita GDP of Swaziland?
5730204ba23a5019007fcde3
$9,714
78
False
What is the SACU?
5730204ba23a5019007fcde4
Southern African Customs Union
168
False
What does the acronym COMESA represent?
5730204ba23a5019007fcde5
Common Market for Eastern and Southern Africa
210
False
What is the lilangeni?
5730204ba23a5019007fcde6
Swaziland's currency
314
False
What form of currency is the lilangeni fixed to?
5730204ba23a5019007fcde7
South African rand
368
False
South Africa
300
Who is Swazilands main global trading partner?
5a563c056349e2001acdccf4
True
rand
382
What is the currency of both Swaziland and South Africa?
5a563c056349e2001acdccf5
True
Swaziland
578
where is agriculture the top employer?
5a563c056349e2001acdccf6
True
Swaziland
0
What nation is considered developed despite its small economy?
5a563c056349e2001acdccf7
True
Swaziland is a developing country with a small economy. Its GDP per capita of $9,714 means it is classified as a country with a lower-middle income. As a member of the Southern African Customs Union (SACU) and Common Market for Eastern and Southern Africa (COMESA), its main local trading partner is South Africa. Swaziland's currency, the lilangeni, is pegged to the South African rand. Swaziland's major overseas trading partners are the United States and the European Union. The majority of the country's employment is provided by its agricultural and manufacturing sectors. Swaziland is a member of the Southern African Development Community (SADC), the African Union, the Commonwealth of Nations and the United Nations.
What is the literal translation of Nkhosi?
5730211904bcaa1900d771d3
king
212
False
In terms of the most successful Swaziland kings in battle, who was the best?
5730211904bcaa1900d771d4
Mswati II
219
False
What did Mswati II do to the land controlled by Swaziland during his reign?
5730211904bcaa1900d771d5
greatly extended the area of the country
289
False
What groups did Mswati attack in the mid 19th century?
5730211904bcaa1900d771d6
Emakhandzambili clans
361
False
Where does the name Swaziland originate?
5730211904bcaa1900d771d7
Mswati II. KaNgwane
51
False
Ngwane III
82
What country got its name from Ngwane III?
5a5658136349e2001acdcd24
True
fighting kings of Swaziland
253
What was Ngwane the greatest of?
5a5658136349e2001acdcd25
True
greatly extended the area of the country
289
What did Ngwane III do to the land controlled by Swaziland during his reign?
5a5658136349e2001acdcd26
True
Emakhandzambili clans
361
Who did Ngwane attack and subdue?
5a5658136349e2001acdcd27
True
Mswati
577
Who attacked the Emakhandzambili in the 18th century?
5a5658136349e2001acdcd28
True
Swaziland derives its name from a later king named Mswati II. KaNgwane, named for Ngwane III, is an alternative name for Swaziland the surname of whose royal house remains Nkhosi Dlamini. Nkhosi literally means "king". Mswati II was the greatest of the fighting kings of Swaziland, and he greatly extended the area of the country to twice its current size. The Emakhandzambili clans were initially incorporated into the kingdom with wide autonomy, often including grants of special ritual and political status. The extent of their autonomy however was drastically curtailed by Mswati, who attacked and subdued some of them in the 1850s.
In what year did the British take Swaziland on as a protectorate?
57302226947a6a140053d16a
1903
3
False
What 1903 conflict involving the British caused Swaziland to become a protectorate?
57302226947a6a140053d16b
Anglo-Boer war
38
False
In what year was Swaziland given self governance?
57302226947a6a140053d16c
1906
201
False
How much of Swaziland did the European area contain after the portioning?
57302226947a6a140053d16d
two-thirds of the total land
383
False
When was Sobhuza coronated?
57302226947a6a140053d16e
December 1921
450
False
British
73
Who did Swaziland become a protectorate of in the 19th century?
5a565d366349e2001acdcd2e
True
the Anglo-Boer war
34
What war did Swaziland loose in the 19th century?
5a565d366349e2001acdcd2f
True
South Africa
182
Who started carrying out Sazilands administration in 1906?
5a565d366349e2001acdcd30
True
Swaziland
54
Who was granted self-government in the 19th century?
5a565d366349e2001acdcd31
True
In 1903, after British victory in the Anglo-Boer war, Swaziland became a British protectorate. Much of its early administration (for example, postal services) being carried out from South Africa until 1906 when the Transvaal colony was granted self-government. Following this, Swaziland was partitioned into European and non-European (or native reserves) areas with the former being two-thirds of the total land. Sobhuza's official coronation was in December 1921 after the regency of Labotsibeni after which he led an unsuccessful deputation to the Privy council in London in 1922 regarding the issue of the land.
When did the Swaziland constitution come to be?
573024eda23a5019007fce53
November 1963
73
False
What is another way to refer to the Swazi National Council?
573024eda23a5019007fce54
liqoqo
225
False
When was the Legislative Council of Swaziland first created?
573024eda23a5019007fce55
9 September 1964
346
False
When did elections that provided for a House of Assembly for Swaziland occur?
573024eda23a5019007fce56
1967
591
False
The constitution for independent Swaziland
0
What constitution did Britian put into effect in the 19th century?
5a5660c76349e2001acdcd36
True
The constitution
0
What established a judicial and executive council in Swaziland?
5a5660c76349e2001acdcd37
True
Swazi National Council
201
Who supported the legislative council?
5a5660c76349e2001acdcd38
True
elections
259
What provided for a House Assembly in 1964?
5a5660c76349e2001acdcd39
True
The constitution for independent Swaziland was promulgated by Britain in November 1963 under the terms of which legislative and executive councils were established. This development was opposed by the Swazi National Council (liqoqo). Despite such opposition, elections took place and the first Legislative Council of Swaziland was constituted on 9 September 1964. Changes to the original constitution proposed by the Legislative Council were accepted by Britain and a new constitution providing for a House of Assembly and Senate was drawn up. Elections under this constitution were held in 1967.
In what year was the constitution of Swaziland suspended?
57302590b2c2fd140056896d
1973
27
False
Who ruled Swaziland in the late 1970s?
57302590b2c2fd140056896e
King Sobhuza II
80
False
When did King Sobhuza II die?
57302590b2c2fd140056896f
1982
158
False
Who was the head of state of Swaziland after King Sobhuza II
57302590b2c2fd1400568970
Queen Regent Dzeliwe Shongwe
308
False
Which monarch of Swaziland was crownd in April 1986?
57302590b2c2fd1400568971
Mswati III
444
False
King Sobhuza II
80
who suspended Swazilands constitution in the 19th century?
5a566c836349e2001acdcd3e
True
25 April 1986
496
When was the son ofDzeliwe Shongwe crowned king?
5a566c836349e2001acdcd3f
True
King Sobhuza II
80
Who ruled Swaziland starting in 1973 and ending 1982?
5a566c836349e2001acdcd40
True
Queen Regent Dzeliwe Shongwe
308
What rerent ruled for 61 years in Swaziland?
5a566c836349e2001acdcd41
True
Following the elections of 1973, the constitution of Swaziland was suspended by King Sobhuza II who thereafter ruled the country by decree until his death in 1982. At this point Sobhuza II had ruled Swaziland for 61 years, making him the longest ruling monarch in history. A regency followed his death, with Queen Regent Dzeliwe Shongwe being head of state until 1984 when she was removed by Liqoqo and replaced by Queen Mother Ntfombi Tfwala. Mswati III, the son of Ntfombi, was crowned king on 25 April 1986 as King and Ingwenyama of Swaziland.
Who appoints the prime minister of Swaziland?
5730265da23a5019007fce77
The king
0
False
What is the parliament of Swaziland known as?
5730265da23a5019007fce78
the Libandla
122
False
What part of the Swaziland parliament is appointed by the King?
5730265da23a5019007fce79
a minority
76
False
Why is the king allowed to appoint members of parliament?
5730265da23a5019007fce7a
to balance views in parliament
445
False
the legislature
42
Who does the prime minister appoint?
5a566e5a6349e2001acdcd46
True
The king
0
who appoints the advisory council?
5a566e5a6349e2001acdcd47
True
The king
0
Who appoints both chambers of the Libandla?
5a566e5a6349e2001acdcd48
True
to balance views in parliament
445
Why are special intrests left out of parliment?
5a566e5a6349e2001acdcd49
True
The king appoints the prime minister from the legislature and also appoints a minority of legislators to both chambers of the Libandla (parliament) with help from an advisory council. The king is allowed by the constitution to appoint some members to parliament for special interests. These special interests are citizens who might have been left out by the electorate during the course of elections or did not enter as candidates. This is done to balance views in parliament. Special interests could be people of gender, race, disability, the business community, civic society, scholars, chiefs and so on.
How many seats are in the Senate of Swaziland?
573026e0a23a5019007fce7f
30 seats
67
False
How many members are there in the Swazi House of Assembly?
573026e0a23a5019007fce80
65
209
False
How many members of the Swazi House of Assembly are chosen by the king?
573026e0a23a5019007fce81
10
219
False
When were the most recent elections in Swaziland?
573026e0a23a5019007fce82
20 September 2013
431
False
Which group looks over elections in Swaziland?
573026e0a23a5019007fce83
the elections and boundaries commission
552
False
the monarch;
143
Who appoints the house of assembly?
5a566f9e6349e2001acdcd4e
True
every five years
337
How often does the king dissolve the constitution?
5a566f9e6349e2001acdcd4f
True
The balloting
450
What is done on a party basis?
5a566f9e6349e2001acdcd50
True
the elections and boundaries commission.
552
What group decides when elections will be held?
5a566f9e6349e2001acdcd51
True
The Swazi bicameral Parliament or Libandla consists of the Senate (30 seats; 10 members appointed by the House of Assembly and 20 appointed by the monarch; to serve five-year terms) and the House of Assembly (65 seats; 10 members appointed by the monarch and 55 elected by popular vote; to serve five-year terms). The elections are held every five years after dissolution of parliament by the king. The last elections were held on 20 September 2013. The balloting is done on a non-party basis in all categories. All election procedures are overseen by the elections and boundaries commission.
When did people begin to disputre royal hegenomy in Swaziland?
573027ba04bcaa1900d7725f
the early seventies
128
False
What portion of Swaziland is said to support the monarchy of Swaziland?
573027ba04bcaa1900d77260
the majority
327
False
What entity took submissions about whether or not Swazi citizens wanted to change support of the monarchy?
573027ba04bcaa1900d77261
the constitutional draft committee
455
False
the constitution
9
What was reformed in 2005?
5a56727b6349e2001acdcd60
True
the constitution
9
What has been debated since the 1970's?
5a56727b6349e2001acdcd61
True
the monarchy
260
What do progressive formations support besides the current political system?
5a56727b6349e2001acdcd62
True
the monarchy and the current political system
260
What do the majority of citizens complain about?
5a56727b6349e2001acdcd63
True
In 2005, the constitution was put into effect. There is still much debate in the country about the constitutional reforms. From the early seventies, there was active resistance to the royal hegemony. Despite complaints from progressive formations, support for the monarchy and the current political system remains strong among the majority of the population.[citation needed] Submissions were made by citizens around the country to commissions, including the constitutional draft committee, indicating that they would prefer to maintain the current situation.
How does a nominee for parliament in Swaziland get decided?
573028c2b2c2fd1400568993
a show of hand
104
False
What is the minimum number of members that must support a nominee to parliament in Swaziland?
573028c2b2c2fd1400568994
at least ten
269
False
What is an Indvuna as it relates to the Parliament of Swaziland?
573028c2b2c2fd1400568995
Constituency Headman
370
False
In the Swazi Parliament, what is the Bucopho?
573028c2b2c2fd1400568996
Constituency Executive Committee
409
False
What is the minimum amount of nominees taken on the day of nomination in the Swazi Parliament?
573028c2b2c2fd1400568997
four
487
False
chiefdoms.
30
Where are ballots cast members of parliment?
5a5674126349e2001acdcd7c
True
chiefdoms
30
Who elects parliment?
5a5674126349e2001acdcd7d
True
number of nominees
465
What has a minimum of 10?
5a5674126349e2001acdcd7e
True
Nominations take place at the chiefdoms. On the day of nomination, the name of the nominee is raised by a show of hand and the nominee is given an opportunity to indicate whether he or she accepts the nomination. If he or she accepts it, he or she must be supported by at least ten members of that chiefdom. The nominations are for the position of Member of Parliament, Constituency Headman (Indvuna) and the Constituency Executive Committee (Bucopho). The minimum number of nominees is four and the maximum is ten.
How many representatives does each tinkhundla elect to the Swazi House of Assembly?
57302991947a6a140053d1e6
one
69
False
What is a single term of a Swazi development committee?
57302991947a6a140053d1e7
a five-year term
244
False
To whom do Bucopho take the decisions and concerns?
57302991947a6a140053d1e8
the chiefdoms
374
False
Where is the Bucopho chairman elected?
57302991947a6a140053d1e9
at the inkhundla
459
False
What is the chairman of the bucopho also called?
57302991947a6a140053d1ea
indvuna ye nkhundla
490
False
55
26
How many members are there of the House Assembly?
5a567aca6349e2001acdcdaa
True
all matters of interest and concern to their various chiefdoms
293
What do the tinkhundla bring to the House Assembly?
5a567aca6349e2001acdcdab
True
the decisions of the inkhundla
388
What do the inkhundla give to the chiefdoms?
5a567aca6349e2001acdcdac
True
As noted above, there are 55 tinkhundla in Swaziland and each elects one representative to the House of Assembly of Swaziland. Each inkhundla has a development committee (bucopho) elected from the various constituency chiefdoms in its area for a five-year term. Bucopho bring to the inkhundla all matters of interest and concern to their various chiefdoms, and take back to the chiefdoms the decisions of the inkhundla. The chairman of the bucopho is elected at the inkhundla and is called indvuna ye nkhundla.
What nation is to the east of Swaziland?
57302a10947a6a140053d1f8
Mozambique
119
False
What nation is on the north, east, and western borders of Swaziland?
57302a10947a6a140053d1f9
Republic of South Africa
87
False
How large in square kilometers is Swaziland?
57302a10947a6a140053d1fa
17,364 km2
172
False
How many geographical regions are within Swaziland?
57302a10947a6a140053d1fb
four
198
False
In which region is there rain forest in Swaziland?
57302a10947a6a140053d1fc
the northwest
486
False
South Africa
99
What country completely surrounds Swaziland?
5a567cbb6349e2001acdcdba
True
Swaziland
184
What country is east of Mozambique?
5a567cbb6349e2001acdcdbb
True
Swaziland
143
What country has a land area of 17,364 square miles?
5a567cbb6349e2001acdcdbc
True
four
198
How many seperate privinces does Swaziland have?
5a567cbb6349e2001acdcdbd
True
rain forest
471
What kind of forest does Swaziland have in the east?
5a567cbb6349e2001acdcdbe
True
A small, landlocked kingdom, Swaziland is bordered in the North, West and South by the Republic of South Africa and by Mozambique in the East. Swaziland has a land area of 17,364 km2. Swaziland has four separate geographical regions. These run from North to South and are determined by altitude. Swaziland is located at approximately 26°30'S, 31°30'E. Swaziland has a wide variety of landscapes, from the mountains along the Mozambican border to savannas in the east and rain forest in the northwest. Several rivers flow through the country, such as the Great Usutu River.
What portion of the Swazi population are subsistence farmers?
57302a9bb2c2fd14005689b7
About 75%
0
False
In terms of Swaziland, what does SNL refer to?
57302a9bb2c2fd14005689b8
Swazi Nation Land
72
False
Outside of agriculture what provides to the Swazi economy?
57302a9bb2c2fd14005689b9
textile manufacturing
265
False
What are the problems with Swazi Nation Land?
57302a9bb2c2fd14005689ba
low productivity and investment
167
False
subsistence agriculture
43
Where does the population get 75% of its income?
5a568ac36349e2001acdce24
True
commercial farms,
118
What has low productivity compared to Swazi Nation Land?
5a568ac36349e2001acdce25
True
textile manufacturing
265
What other industries have low productivity besides agriculture?
5a568ac36349e2001acdce26
True
Swazi Nation Land
136
Where is commercial farming productivity declining?
5a568ac36349e2001acdce27
True
About 75% of the population is employed in subsistence agriculture upon Swazi Nation Land (SNL). In contrast with the commercial farms, Swazi Nation Land suffers from low productivity and investment. This dual nature of the Swazi economy, with high productivity in textile manufacturing and in the industrialised agricultural TDLs on the one hand, and declining productivity subsistence agriculture (on SNL) on the other, may well explain the country's overall low growth, high inequality and unemployment.
What has the Real growth in GDP since 2001 in Swaziland in percentage?
57302d33947a6a140053d21c
2.8%
111
False
How much lower is the Swazi Real GDP growth in comparison to other Southern African Customs Union members is Swaziland?
57302d33947a6a140053d21d
nearly 2 percentage points
117
False
When did the public finances in Swaziland decline?
57302d33947a6a140053d21e
the late 1990s
455
False
What led to Swazi budget cuts?
57302d33947a6a140053d21f
declining revenues and increased spending
534
False
Economic growth
0
What have Swaziland's neighbors lagged behind in?
5a568f726349e2001acdce2c
True
2.8%
111
What is the average GDP of SACU member countries?
5a568f726349e2001acdce2d
True
2 percentage
124
How much higher is the Swazi GDP growth compared to the rest of the SACU?
5a568f726349e2001acdce2e
True
public finances
423
What did Swaziland have a surplus of in the 1990's?
5a568f726349e2001acdce2f
True
Economic growth in Swaziland has lagged behind that of its neighbours. Real GDP growth since 2001 has averaged 2.8%, nearly 2 percentage points lower than growth in other Southern African Customs Union (SACU) member countries. Low agricultural productivity in the SNLs, repeated droughts, the devastating effect of HIV/AIDS and an overly large and inefficient government sector are likely contributing factors. Swaziland's public finances deteriorated in the late 1990s following sizeable surpluses a decade earlier. A combination of declining revenues and increased spending led to significant budget deficits.
What amount of total public spending in Swaziland is going to wages?
573045e2947a6a140053d38e
55%
244
False
What amount of government revenue in Swaziland is from the SACU?
573045e2947a6a140053d38f
60% of total government revenues
508
False
What has happened to debt external onus  in Swaziland in the past two decades?
573045e2947a6a140053d390
declined markedly
593
False
What percentage of the GDP was represented by outside debt in Swaziland in 2006?
573045e2947a6a140053d391
less than 20%
713
False
the poor
74
Who did the spending benefit?
5a5690656349e2001acdce3e
True
spending
17
What led to considerable growth?
5a5690656349e2001acdce3f
True
The wage bill
192
What makes up 15% of total public spending?
5a5690656349e2001acdce40
True
reversed the fiscal situation
392
What has a decline in SACU revenues done?
5a5690656349e2001acdce41
True
The considerable spending did not lead to more growth and did not benefit the poor. Much of the increased spending has gone to current expenditures related to wages, transfers, and subsidies. The wage bill today constitutes over 15% of GDP and 55% of total public spending; these are some of the highest levels on the African continent. The recent rapid growth in SACU revenues has, however, reversed the fiscal situation, and a sizeable surplus was recorded since 2006. SACU revenues today account for over 60% of total government revenues. On the positive side, the external debt burden has declined markedly over the last 20 years, and domestic debt is almost negligible; external debt as a percent of GDP was less than 20% in 2006.
Which nations economy is Swaziland most linked with?
573046d4a23a5019007fd04d
South Africa
59
False
What quantity of imports does Swaziland get from South Africa?
573046d4a23a5019007fd04e
over 90%
96
False
What percentage of exported goods from Swaziland end up in South Africa?
573046d4a23a5019007fd04f
70%
148
False
What happened to Swazi exports of textiles from 2000 to 2005?
573046d4a23a5019007fd050
exports grew by over 200%
548
False
Between 2000 and 2005 what percentage did Swazi sugar exports increase by?
573046d4a23a5019007fd051
more than 50%
628
False
Swaziland
168
Where does South africa recieve 90% of its imorts from?
5a56941d6349e2001acdce50
True
South Africa
59
Who sends Swaziland 70% of their exports?
5a56941d6349e2001acdce51
True
African Growth and Opportunity Act
325
What act gives the US and EU trade preference with Swaziland?
5a56941d6349e2001acdce52
True
2000 and 2005
582
During what period did Swazi sugar imports increase 200%?
5a56941d6349e2001acdce53
True
The Swazi economy is very closely linked to the economy of South Africa, from which it receives over 90% of its imports and to which it sends about 70% of its exports. Swaziland's other key trading partners are the United States and the EU, from whom the country has received trade preferences for apparel exports (under the African Growth and Opportunity Act – AGOA – to the US) and for sugar (to the EU). Under these agreements, both apparel and sugar exports did well, with rapid growth and a strong inflow of foreign direct investment. Textile exports grew by over 200% between 2000 and 2005 and sugar exports increasing by more than 50% over the same period.
What currency is Swaziland bound to?
57304749a23a5019007fd05f
South African Rand
38
False
Which nation does Swazi defer to when it comes to monetary policy?
57304749a23a5019007fd060
South Africa
99
False
Duties from customs represent what amount of Swaziland government revenue?
57304749a23a5019007fd061
as much as 70%
185
False
From where does Swaziland get customs revenue?
57304749a23a5019007fd062
Southern African Customs Union
137
False
Rand
52
What is the currency in Swaziland and South Africa?
5a56950b6349e2001acdce58
True
South Africa.
99
What country defers to Swaziland when it comes to monetary policy?
5a56950b6349e2001acdce59
True
70%
196
What percentage of SACU income is from customs duties?
5a56950b6349e2001acdce5a
True
Southern African Customs Union
137
Who does Swaziland pay duties to?
5a56950b6349e2001acdce5b
True
Swaziland's currency is pegged to the South African Rand, subsuming Swaziland's monetary policy to South Africa. Customs duties from the Southern African Customs Union, which may equal as much as 70% of government revenue this year, and worker remittances from South Africa substantially supplement domestically earned income. Swaziland is not poor enough to merit an IMF program; however, the country is struggling to reduce the size of the civil service and control costs at public enterprises. The government is trying to improve the atmosphere for foreign direct investment.
What percentage of the Swazi population are Christian?
573047e404bcaa1900d7746d
83%
0
False
Which religious belief is most prevelant in Swaziland?
573047e404bcaa1900d7746e
Christianity
39
False
What amount of Swazi Christians are Roman Catholic?
573047e404bcaa1900d7746f
20%
265
False
Who is the Anglican Bishop of Swaziland?
573047e404bcaa1900d77470
Ellinah Wamukoya
305
False
How many Jewish families are there in Swaziland?
573047e404bcaa1900d77471
14
600
False
Swaziland
91
What country makes up 83% of Africa's Christians?
5a5698266349e2001acdce6a
True
Anglican, Protestant and indigenous African churches
102
What protestant denominations make up 20% of the population?
5a5698266349e2001acdce6b
True
Roman Catholicism
244
What Catholic Rite  makes up 40% of the population?
5a5698266349e2001acdce6c
True
14
600
How many Hindu families are there?
5a5698266349e2001acdce6d
True
83% of the total population adheres to Christianity, making it the most common religion in Swaziland. Anglican, Protestant and indigenous African churches, including African Zionist, constitute the majority of the Christians (40%), followed by Roman Catholicism at 20% of the population. On 18 July 2012, Ellinah Wamukoya, was elected Anglican Bishop of Swaziland, becoming the first woman to be a bishop in Africa. 15% of the population follows traditional religions; other non-Christian religions practised in the country include Islam (1%), the Bahá'í Faith (0.5%), and Hinduism (0.2%). There are 14 Jewish families.
Of pregnant women, how many are believed to be infected with HIV?
5730487aa23a5019007fd071
38.8%
104
False
Who was the prime minister of Swaziland in 2004?
5730487aa23a5019007fd072
Themba Dlamini
199
False
What does UNAIDS consider universal access to HIV/AIDS treatment?
5730487aa23a5019007fd073
80% coverage or greater
455
False
What percentage of HIV/AIDS infected in Swaziland are believed to be treated?
5730487aa23a5019007fd074
70% to 80%
523
False
What is the rate of mortality for those with tuberculosis in Swaziland?
5730487aa23a5019007fd075
18%
675
False
AIDS crisis
86
What crisis began in 2004?
5a56991a6349e2001acdce72
True
38.8%
104
What percentage of women have HIV?
5a56991a6349e2001acdce73
True
Prime Minister Themba Dlamini
184
Who declared a humanitarian crisis in Africa?
5a56991a6349e2001acdce74
True
61 years
585
What has the life expectancy risen to since 2000?
5a56991a6349e2001acdce75
True
In 2004, the Swaziland government acknowledged for the first time that it suffered an AIDS crisis, with 38.8% of tested pregnant women infected with HIV (see AIDS in Africa). The then Prime Minister Themba Dlamini declared a humanitarian crisis due to the combined effect of drought, land degradation, increased poverty, and HIV/AIDS. According to the 2011 UNAIDS Report, Swaziland is close to achieving universal access to HIV/AIDS treatment, defined as 80% coverage or greater. Estimates of treatment coverage range from 70% to 80% of those infected. Life expectancy had fallen from 61 years in 2000 to 32 years in 2009. Tuberculosis is also a significant problem, with an 18% mortality rate. Many patients have a multi-drug resistant strain, and 83% are co-infected with HIV.
What age attends pre-school in Swaziland?
5730492d947a6a140053d3a6
5-year or younger
250
False
What percentage of children of age for preschool have access to education in Swaziland?
5730492d947a6a140053d3a7
21.6%
493
False
In reference to education in Swaziland, hat is an NCP otherwise known as?
5730492d947a6a140053d3a8
neighbourhood care points
444
False
What is does ECCE refer to in the Swazi educational system?
5730492d947a6a140053d3a9
early childhood care and education
361
False
anywhere in the country
323
Where do 5 year-olds attend primary school at?
5a5699d06349e2001acdce7a
True
21.6%
493
What percentage of preschool children do not have acess to early education?
5a5699d06349e2001acdce7b
True
21.6%
493
What percentage of children have acess to primary school at NCPs?
5a5699d06349e2001acdce7c
True
Education in Swaziland begins with pre-school education for infants, primary, secondary and high school education for general education and training (GET), and universities and colleges at tertiary level. Pre-school education is usually for children 5-year or younger after that the students can enroll in a primary school anywhere in the country. In Swaziland early childhood care and education (ECCE) centres are in the form of preschools or neighbourhood care points (NCPs). In the country 21.6% of preschool age children have access to early childhood education.
How many years does a student spend in secondary and high school in Swaziland?
57305116396df91900096058
five
65
False
For how many years is a Swazi student in junior secondary school?
57305116396df91900096059
three
98
False
What is the ECOS within the Swazi education system?
57305116396df9190009605a
Examination Council of Swaziland
329
False
What do students finishing senior secondary school get?
57305116396df9190009605b
Swaziland General Certificate of Secondary Education
484
False
What institution does the accreditation for the IGCSE in Swaziland?
57305116396df9190009605c
Cambridge International Examination
641
False
The secondary and high school
0
What education system is divided into 3 years?
5a569abf6349e2001acdce80
True
Junior Certificate
200
What is the name of the private axamination taken at the end of junior secondary?
5a569abf6349e2001acdce81
True
The Examination Council of Swaziland
325
Who determines if students can go to senior secondary?
5a569abf6349e2001acdce82
True
the Swaziland General Certificate of Secondary Education
480
What private examination do students sit for at the end of senior secondary?
5a569abf6349e2001acdce83
True
The secondary and high school education system in Swaziland is a five-year programme divided into three years junior secondary and two years senior secondary. There is an external public examination (Junior Certificate) at the end of the junior secondary that learners have to pass to progress to the senior secondary level. The Examination Council of Swaziland (ECOS) administers this examination. At the end of the senior secondary level, learners sit for a public examination, the Swaziland General Certificate of Secondary Education (SGCSE) and International General Certificate of Secondary Education (IGCSE) which is accredited by the Cambridge International Examination (CIE). A few schools offer the Advanced Studies (AS) programme in their curriculum.
The University of Swaziland, Southern Nazarene University, offer higher learning in Swaziland, what is one other University?
5730537d396df91900096074
Swaziland Christian University
67
False
Where can one find the Limkoking University of Creative Technology?
5730537d396df91900096075
Sidvwashini
240
False
What is the capital of Swaziland?
5730537d396df91900096076
Mbabane
277
False
Where in Swaziland is The Good shepherd Hospital?
5730537d396df91900096077
Siteki
481
False
What nursing school does The Good Shepherd Hospital contain?
5730537d396df91900096078
College for Nursing Assistants
503
False
The University of Swaziland, Southern African Nazarene University, Swaziland Christian University
0
What are the 3 schools that offer a university education on the continent?
5a569b7c6349e2001acdce88
True
Limkokwing University of Creative Technology
179
What campus can be found in the capital?
5a569b7c6349e2001acdce89
True
The Good Shepherd Hospital in Siteki
451
What is the nursing and teaching college?
5a569b7c6349e2001acdce8a
True
Swaziland
18
What is Siteki the capital of?
5a569b7c6349e2001acdce8b
True
The University of Swaziland, Southern African Nazarene University, Swaziland Christian University are the institutions that offer university education in the country. A campus of Limkokwing University of Creative Technology can be found at Sidvwashini, a suburb of the capital Mbabane. There are some teaching and nursing assistant colleges around the country. Ngwane Teacher's College and William Pitcher College are the country's teaching colleges. The Good Shepherd Hospital in Siteki is home to the College for Nursing Assistants.
Which school is the main location for technical education in Swaziland?
5730544c8ab72b1400f9c476
Swaziland College of Technology
59
False
What types of education does the Swaziland College of Technology offer?
5730544c8ab72b1400f9c477
technology and business studies
210
False
What is the location of the Gwamile Vocational and Commercial Training Institute?
5730544c8ab72b1400f9c478
Matsapha
427
False
There is an educational facility in Manzini within Swaziland known by the acronym MITC, what does it stand for?
5730544c8ab72b1400f9c479
Manzini Industrial and Training Centre
444
False
Swaziland College of Technology
59
What university offers technical training?
5a569d8d6349e2001acdce90
True
technology and business studies
210
What types of education will the Swaziland College of of Technology when it becomes a university?
5a569d8d6349e2001acdce91
True
Gwamile Vocational and Commercial Training Institute
363
What is the name of the commercial trainning institute in Manzini?
5a569d8d6349e2001acdce92
True
Siteki Industrial Training Centre
590
What training center is located in Siteki?
5a569d8d6349e2001acdce93
True
The main centre for technical training in Swaziland is the Swaziland College of Technology which is slated to become a full university. It aims to provide and facilitating high quality training and learning in technology and business studies in collaboration with the Commercial, Industrial and Public Sectors. Other technical and vocational institutions are the Gwamile Vocational and Commercial Training Institute located in Matsapha and the Manzini Industrial and Training Centre (MITC) in Manzini. Other vocational institutions include Nhlangano Agricultural Skills Training Center and Siteki Industrial Training Centre.
In terms of education in Swaziland what does the acronym SIMPA represent?
573054f0069b531400832067
Swaziland Institute of Management and Public Administration
58
False
In Swaziland, what is SIMPA?
573054f0069b531400832068
a government owned management and development institute
182
False
In which locations is the Institute of Development Management?
573054f0069b531400832069
Botswana, Lesotho and Swaziland
276
False
What service does the IDM provide?
573054f0069b53140083206a
training, consultancy, and research in management
322
False
In what year was the Mananga Management Centre founded?
573054f0069b53140083206b
1972
464
False
1972
464
When was the SIMPA established?
5a569fda6349e2001acdceaa
True
SIMPA
173
What development and management istitute is privatly owned?
5a569fda6349e2001acdceab
True
In addition to these institutions, Swaziland also has the Swaziland Institute of Management and Public Administration (SIMPA) and Institute of Development Management (IDM). SIMPA is a government owned management and development institute and IDM is a regional organisation in Botswana, Lesotho and Swaziland that provides training, consultancy, and research in management. The Mananga management centre was established as Mananga Agricultural Management Centre in 1972 as an International Management Development Centre catering for middle and senior managers, it is located at Ezulwini.
In Swaziland, what is kwetfwasa?
573055dc2461fd1900a9cd53
training of the Sangoma
92
False
What is a Sangoma in Swaziland?
573055dc2461fd1900a9cd54
a traditional diviner
15
False
Why might one want to discover when consulting a sangoma in Swaziland?
573055dc2461fd1900a9cd55
the cause of sickness or even death
320
False
How does a sangoma in Swaziland communicate?
573055dc2461fd1900a9cd56
kubhula
384
False
What is kushaya ematsambo used for?
573055dc2461fd1900a9cd57
to determine the cause of the sickness
600
False
The Sangoma
0
Who is chosen by their chiefdom?
5a56a0936349e2001acdceae
True
a graduation ceremony
167
What ceremony involves the whole village?
5a56a0936349e2001acdceaf
True
The Sangoma
0
Who puts their patients in a trance?
5a56a0936349e2001acdceb0
True
bone
553
What is thrown to cure the sick?
5a56a0936349e2001acdceb1
True
The Sangoma is a traditional diviner chosen by the ancestors of that particular family. The training of the Sangoma is called "kwetfwasa". At the end of the training, a graduation ceremony takes place where all the local sangoma come together for feasting and dancing. The diviner is consulted for various reasons, such the cause of sickness or even death. His diagnosis is based on "kubhula", a process of communication, through trance, with the natural superpowers. The Inyanga (a medical and pharmaceutical specialist in western terms) possesses the bone throwing skill ("kushaya ematsambo") used to determine the cause of the sickness.
What is the most widely known event in Swazi culture?
5730568a2461fd1900a9cd67
Umhlanga Reed Dance.
57
False
How long is the Umhlanga Reed Dance?
5730568a2461fd1900a9cd68
eight
85
False
During what time of year is the Umhlanga Reed Dance?
5730568a2461fd1900a9cd69
late August or early September
222
False
What individuals can take part in the Umhlanga Reed Dance?
5730568a2461fd1900a9cd6a
childless, unmarried girls
259
False
As it relates to girls, what is the purpose of the Umhlanga Reed Dance?
5730568a2461fd1900a9cd6b
to preserve girls' chastity
330
False
Umhlanga Reed Dance
57
What is Swazilands oldest cultural event?
5a56a1a56349e2001acdcec0
True
girls
105
Who cuts reeds and then dances for their mothers?
5a56a1a56349e2001acdcec1
True
the King's
668
Who's daughter becomes the Induna?
5a56a1a56349e2001acdcec2
True
Umhlanga Reed Dance
57
What fosters loyalty to the Queen Mother?
5a56a1a56349e2001acdcec3
True
Swaziland's most well-known cultural event is the annual Umhlanga Reed Dance. In the eight-day ceremony, girls cut reeds and present them to the queen mother and then dance. (There is no formal competition.) It is done in late August or early September. Only childless, unmarried girls can take part. The aims of the ceremony are to preserve girls' chastity, provide tribute labour for the Queen mother, and to encourage solidarity by working together. The royal family appoints a commoner maiden to be "induna" (captain) of the girls and she announces over the radio the dates of the ceremony. She will be an expert dancer and knowledgeable on royal protocol. One of the King's daughters will be her counterpart.
Until what date was Swaziland bound by umchwasho?
573057502461fd1900a9cd77
19 August 2005
493
False
What occurs during the custom of umchwaso in Swaziland?
573057502461fd1900a9cd78
If any girl became pregnant outside of marriage, her family paid a fine
167
False
Who became bound by umchwaso in Swaziland?
573057502461fd1900a9cd79
all young girls
113
False
From where did the Reed Dance originate?
573057502461fd1900a9cd7a
the old "umchwasho" custom
69
False
What would the end of umchwasho be marked with?
573057502461fd1900a9cd7b
dancing and feasting
410
False
The Reed Dance
0
What is an ancient ceremony?
5a56a25c6349e2001acdcec8
True
the local chief
253
Who pays a fine to a girls parents if she becomes pregnant?
5a56a25c6349e2001acdcec9
True
the chastity rite of "umchwasho"
454
What was first practiced in 2005?
5a56a25c6349e2001acdceca
True
girls
304
Who preformed labour for the chieften?
5a56a25c6349e2001acdcecb
True
The Reed Dance today is not an ancient ceremony but a development of the old "umchwasho" custom. In "umchwasho", all young girls were placed in a female age-regiment. If any girl became pregnant outside of marriage, her family paid a fine of one cow to the local chief. After a number of years, when the girls had reached a marriageable age, they would perform labour service for the Queen Mother, ending with dancing and feasting. The country was under the chastity rite of "umchwasho" until 19 August 2005.
Translation
What Latin word does the English word translation come from?
573055f2069b531400832071
translatio
54
False
What languages use equivalents of the English term "translation" that come from the same Latin source?
573055f2069b531400832072
Romance
219
False
What does Latin's traducere mean in English?
573055f2069b531400832073
"to lead across"
373
False
Slavic and Germanic languages also use a similar loanword from what source?
573055f2069b531400832074
Latin
555
False
What does the Dutch word "vertaling" roughly translate to?
573055f2069b531400832075
"re-language-ing"
506
False
translatio
54
What French word does the English word translation come from?
5a7e08cf70df9f001a87544d
True
Romance
219
What languages use equivalents of the German term "translation" that come from the same Latin source?
5a7e08cf70df9f001a87544e
True
to lead across
374
What does Russia's traducere mean in English?
5a7e08cf70df9f001a87544f
True
re-language-ing
507
What does the American word "vertaling" roughly translate to?
5a7e08cf70df9f001a875450
True
English
4
What language is always derived from Latin?
5a7e08cf70df9f001a875451
True
The English word "translation" derives from the Latin translatio (which itself comes from trans- and from fero, the supine form of which is latum—together meaning "a carrying across" or "a bringing across"). The modern Romance languages use equivalents of the English term "translation" that are derived from that same Latin source or from the alternative Latin traducere ("to lead across" or "to bring across"). The Slavic and Germanic languages (except in the case of the Dutch equivalent, "vertaling"—a "re-language-ing") likewise use calques of these Latin sources.
How much has translation changed since antiquity?
573058992461fd1900a9cd9f
hardly
81
False
What kind of diversity has the practice of translation had?
573058992461fd1900a9cda0
theoretical
19
False
When were there some extreme metaphrasers?
573058992461fd1900a9cda1
early Christian period and the Middle Ages
157
False
What have general been prudent about?
573058992461fd1900a9cda2
seeking equivalents
344
False
For crucial values, what type of values do translators use where possible?
573058992461fd1900a9cda3
literal
367
False
hardly
81
How much has translation stayed the same since antiquity?
5a7e0b2c70df9f001a875461
True
theoretical
19
What kind of segregation has the practice of translation had?
5a7e0b2c70df9f001a875462
True
early Christian period and the Middle Ages
157
When were there some minor metaphrasers?
5a7e0b2c70df9f001a875463
True
seeking equivalents
344
What have translators generally been awful at doing?
5a7e0b2c70df9f001a875464
True
literal
367
What type of values do translators avoid where possible?
5a7e0b2c70df9f001a875465
True
Despite occasional theoretical diversity, the actual practice of translation has hardly changed since antiquity. Except for some extreme metaphrasers in the early Christian period and the Middle Ages, and adapters in various periods (especially pre-Classical Rome, and the 18th century), translators have generally shown prudent flexibility in seeking equivalents — "literal" where possible, paraphrastic where necessary — for the original meaning and other crucial "values" (e.g., style, verse form, concordance with musical accompaniment or, in films, with speech articulatory movements) as determined from context.
What have translators tried to preserve?
57305b0b069b5314008320a7
context itself
52
False
How do translators preserve context?
57305b0b069b5314008320a8
reproducing the original order of sememes
70
False
What is it sometimes necessary to reinterpret when translating?
57305b0b069b5314008320a9
grammatical structure
178
False
What is the active voice sometimes shifted to when needed?
57305b0b069b5314008320aa
passive
241
False
What are the syntax characteristics of a text's source language adjusted to for a target language?
57305b0b069b5314008320ab
syntactic requirements
584
False
context itself
52
What have translators tried to get rid of?
5a7e138a70df9f001a87547f
True
reproducing the original order of sememes
70
How do translators obfuscate context?
5a7e138a70df9f001a875480
True
grammatical structure
178
What is it sometimes unnecessary to reinterpret when translating?
5a7e138a70df9f001a875481
True
passive
241
What is the active voice never shifted to when needed?
5a7e138a70df9f001a875482
True
In general, translators have sought to preserve the context itself by reproducing the original order of sememes, and hence word order — when necessary, reinterpreting the actual grammatical structure, for example, by shifting from active to passive voice, or vice versa. The grammatical differences between "fixed-word-order" languages (e.g. English, French, German) and "free-word-order" languages (e.g., Greek, Latin, Polish, Russian) have been no impediment in this regard. The particular syntax (sentence-structure) characteristics of a text's source language are adjusted to the syntactic requirements of the target language.
A greater ratio of metaphrase to paraphrase can be used translating when there as been greater what between languages?
57305bb7069b5314008320b1
contact and exchange
27
False
What is a common etymology sometimes misleading as?
57305bb7069b5314008320b2
guide to current meaning
332
False
What does the French "actuel" mean in English?
57305bb7069b5314008320b3
present
475
False
How would you convey that something is "presently of importance" in Swedish?
57305bb7069b5314008320b4
aktuell
586
False
To indicate something is feasible in Polish, what word could be used?
57305bb7069b5314008320b5
aktualny
508
False
guide to current meaning
332
What is a common etymology sometimes clarified as?
5a7e146a70df9f001a875487
True
present
519
What does the German "actuel" mean in English?
5a7e146a70df9f001a875488
True
aktuell
586
How would you convey that something is "presently of importance" in Hebrew?
5a7e146a70df9f001a875489
True
aktualny
508
What word can't be used to indicate something is impossible in Polish?
5a7e146a70df9f001a87548a
True
contact and exchange
27
What never exists between two different languages?
5a7e146a70df9f001a87548b
True
Generally, the greater the contact and exchange that have existed between two languages, or between those languages and a third one, the greater is the ratio of metaphrase to paraphrase that may be used in translating among them. However, due to shifts in ecological niches of words, a common etymology is sometimes misleading as a guide to current meaning in one or the other language. For example, the English actual should not be confused with the cognate French actuel ("present", "current"), the Polish aktualny ("present", "current," "topical," "timely," "feasible"), the Swedish aktuell ("topical", "presently of importance"), the Russian актуальный ("urgent", "topical") or the Dutch actueel.
How long has a translator's part in bridging values between cultures been discussed?
57305fc38ab72b1400f9c4b2
at least since Terence
99
False
What did Terence adapt from the Greek's?
57305fc38ab72b1400f9c4b3
comedies
166
False
A translator's role is less like a robot and more like a what?
57305fc38ab72b1400f9c4b4
artist
294
False
Where was the concept of parallel creation found?
57305fc38ab72b1400f9c4b5
Cicero
388
False
Who remarked about Alexander Pope playing Homer on a flageolet?
57305fc38ab72b1400f9c4b6
Samuel Johnson
542
False
at least since Terence
99
How long has a translator's part in bridging values between cultures been avoided?
5a7e154070df9f001a87549b
True
comedies
166
What did Terence destroy from the Greek's?
5a7e154070df9f001a87549c
True
artist
294
What is a translator's role never like?
5a7e154070df9f001a87549d
True
Cicero
388
Where was the concept of parallel creation lost?
5a7e154070df9f001a87549e
True
Samuel Johnson
542
Who remained silent about Alexander Pope playing Homer on a flageolet?
5a7e154070df9f001a87549f
True
The translator's role as a bridge for "carrying across" values between cultures has been discussed at least since Terence, the 2nd-century-BCE Roman adapter of Greek comedies. The translator's role is, however, by no means a passive, mechanical one, and so has also been compared to that of an artist. The main ground seems to be the concept of parallel creation found in critics such as Cicero. Dryden observed that "Translation is a type of drawing after life..." Comparison of the translator with a musician or actor goes back at least to Samuel Johnson’s remark about Alexander Pope playing Homer on a flageolet, while Homer himself used a bassoon.
When it comes to translation, what is less commonly used today?
5730609f396df919000960be
earlier approaches
7
False
When do earlier approaches to translation still have relevance for historians?
5730609f396df919000960bf
when historians view ancient or medieval records
131
False
What do historians try to piece together from pre-Western environments?
5730609f396df919000960c0
events
198
False
What do Chinese and related translations retain unique to their tradition?
5730609f396df919000960c1
theories and philosophies
449
False
earlier approaches
7
When it comes to translation what is illegally used today?
5a7e15e570df9f001a8754a5
True
when historians view ancient or medieval records
131
When do earlier approaches to translation lose relevance for historians?
5a7e15e570df9f001a8754a6
True
events
198
What do historians try to take apart from pre-Western environments?
5a7e15e570df9f001a8754a7
True
theories and philosophies
449
What do Chinese and related translations have none of for their tradition?
5a7e15e570df9f001a8754a8
True
Though earlier approaches to translation are less commonly used today, they retain importance when dealing with their products, as when historians view ancient or medieval records to piece together events which took place in non-Western or pre-Western environments. Also, though heavily influenced by Western traditions and practiced by translators taught in Western-style educational systems, Chinese and related translation traditions retain some theories and philosophies unique to the Chinese tradition.
When did translation of material into Arabic begin to increase?
5730612b396df919000960c6
5th century
88
False
What allowed the expansion of Arabic translations during the 5th century?
5730612b396df919000960c7
creation of Arabic script
55
False
What material was initial Arab translations primarily focused on?
5730612b396df919000960c8
politics
221
False
What cultures' classical works were later translated into Arabic?
5730612b396df919000960c9
Greek and Persian
356
False
What type of translation drew heavily on earlier Near Eastern traditions?
5730612b396df919000960ca
Arabic
609
False
5th century
88
When did translation of material into Arabic begin to stop?
5a7e169d70df9f001a8754ad
True
creation of Arabic script
55
What allowed the reduction of Arabic translations during the 5th century?
5a7e169d70df9f001a8754ae
True
politics
221
What material was initial Arab translations rarely focused on?
5a7e169d70df9f001a8754af
True
Greek and Persian
356
What cultures' classical works were never translated into Arabic?
5a7e169d70df9f001a8754b0
True
Arabic
609
What type of translation had no influence from earlier Near Eastern traditions?
5a7e169d70df9f001a8754b1
True
Translation of material into Arabic expanded after the creation of Arabic script in the 5th century, and gained great importance with the rise of Islam and Islamic empires. Arab translation initially focused primarily on politics, rendering Persian, Greek, even Chinese and Indic diplomatic materials into Arabic. It later focused on translating classical Greek and Persian works, as well as some Chinese and Indian texts, into Arabic for scholarly study at major Islamic learning centers, such as the Al-Karaouine (Fes, Morocco), Al-Azhar (Cairo, Egypt), and the Al-Nizamiyya of Baghdad. In terms of theory, Arabic translation drew heavily on earlier Near Eastern traditions as well as more contemporary Greek and Persian traditions.
Why are Arabic translation efforts important to Western translation traditions?
5730621f2461fd1900a9cded
centuries of close contacts and exchanges
97
False
When did Europeans begin more intense studying of Arabic translations of classical works?
5730621f2461fd1900a9cdee
after the Renaissance
151
False
What did Arabic, and to a less extent Persian, become to Europeans?
5730621f2461fd1900a9cdef
important sources of material
388
False
What helped revitalize Western translation traditions from Arabic?
5730621f2461fd1900a9cdf0
techniques
433
False
What would Western traditions eventually do?
5730621f2461fd1900a9cdf1
overtake the Islamic and oriental traditions
500
False
centuries of close contacts and exchanges
97
Why are Arabic translation efforts pointless to Western translation traditions?
5a7e1ad270df9f001a8754b7
True
after the Renaissance
151
When did Europeans begin less intense studying of Arabic translations of classical works?
5a7e1ad270df9f001a8754b8
True
Europeans
174
Who never studied Arabic and Persian translations?
5a7e1ad270df9f001a8754b9
True
techniques
433
What helped ruin Western translation traditions from Arabic?
5a7e1ad270df9f001a8754ba
True
overtake the Islamic and oriental traditions
500
What would Western traditions eventually avoid?
5a7e1ad270df9f001a8754bb
True
Arabic translation efforts and techniques are important to Western translation traditions due to centuries of close contacts and exchanges. Especially after the Renaissance, Europeans began more intensive study of Arabic and Persian translations of classical works as well as scientific and philosophical works of Arab and oriental origins. Arabic and, to a lesser degree, Persian became important sources of material and perhaps of techniques for revitalized Western traditions, which in time would overtake the Islamic and oriental traditions.
What transformed Arabic languages?
573062ec396df919000960da
movement to translate English and European texts
4
False
What came to be valued over previous convolutions?
573062ec396df919000960db
new words, simplified syntax, and directness
111
False
Who expressed skepticism regarding the transformation of Arabic?
573062ec396df919000960dc
Educated Arabs and Turks
206
False
What was legitimate knowledge no longer defined by?
573062ec396df919000960dd
texts in the religious schools
439
False
What was a neologism expressing the introduction of new ideas via translation?
573062ec396df919000960de
Darwinism
738
False
The movement to translate English and European texts
0
What kept Arabic languages the same?
5a7e1b7370df9f001a8754c1
True
new words, simplified syntax, and directness
111
What came to be hated over previous convolutions?
5a7e1b7370df9f001a8754c2
True
Educated Arabs and Turks
206
Who expressed hostility regarding the transformation of Arabic?
5a7e1b7370df9f001a8754c3
True
texts in the religious schools
439
What was fake knowledge no longer defined by?
5a7e1b7370df9f001a8754c4
True
Darwinism
738
What was not considered a neologism expressing the introduction of new ideas via translation?
5a7e1b7370df9f001a8754c5
True
The movement to translate English and European texts transformed the Arabic and Ottoman Turkish languages, and new words, simplified syntax, and directness came to be valued over the previous convolutions. Educated Arabs and Turks in the new professions and the modernized civil service expressed skepticism, writes Christopher de Bellaigue, "with a freedom that is rarely witnessed today.... No longer was legitimate knowledge defined by texts in the religious schools, interpreted for the most part with stultifying literalness. It had come to include virtually any intellectual production anywhere in the world." One of the neologisms that, in a way, came to characterize the infusion of new ideas via translation was "darwiniya", or "Darwinism".
What two countries divvied up the Middle East's countries after WWI?
57306408069b5314008320c5
Britain and France
24
False
What was the dividing up of the Middle Eastern countries in violation of?
57306408069b5314008320c6
solemn wartime promises of postwar Arab autonomy
170
False
A reaction to Britain and France's actions was the emergence of what group in Egypt?
57306408069b5314008320c7
Muslim Brotherhood
257
False
de Bellaigne attributed the growth of Islamism and militarism to what Western catalyst?
57306408069b5314008320c8
empire-builders
540
False
What did the aspirations of the Muslim world's translators find themselves yielding to?
57306408069b5314008320c9
retrograde currents
729
False
Britain and France
24
What two countries abandoned Middle East's countries after WWI?
5a7e1c5c70df9f001a8754cb
True
solemn wartime promises of postwar Arab autonomy
170
What was the merging of Middle Eastern countries in violation of?
5a7e1c5c70df9f001a8754cc
True
Muslim Brotherhood
257
What group's emergence in Egypt was a punishment to Britain and Korea's actions?
5a7e1c5c70df9f001a8754cd
True
retrograde currents
729
What did the aspirations of the Muslim world's translators find themselves immune to?
5a7e1c5c70df9f001a8754ce
True
Muhammad Abduh
689
Who was not interested in being a translator?
5a7e1c5c70df9f001a8754cf
True
After World War I, when Britain and France divided up the Middle East's countries, apart from Turkey, between them, pursuant to the Sykes-Picot agreement—in violation of solemn wartime promises of postwar Arab autonomy—there came an immediate reaction: the Muslim Brotherhood emerged in Egypt, the House of Saud took over the Hijaz, and regimes led by army officers came to power in Iran and Turkey. "[B]oth illiberal currents of the modern Middle East," writes de Bellaigne, "Islamism and militarism, received a major impetus from Western empire-builders." As often happens in countries undergoing social crisis, the aspirations of the Muslim world's translators and modernizers, such as Muhammad Abduh, largely had to yield to retrograde currents.
Where do many non-transparent translation theories delve for concepts?
57306625396df919000960e4
German Romanticism
64
False
What nationality was Friedrich Schleiermacher?
57306625396df919000960e5
German
121
False
When did Schleiermacher publish his lecture "On the Different Methods of Translation"?
57306625396df919000960e6
1813
247
False
Moving the writer toward the reader would be an example of what type of translation method?
57306625396df919000960e7
transparency
348
False
What method of translation did Schleiermacher favor?
57306625396df919000960e8
extreme fidelity to the foreignness of the source text
425
False
German Romanticism
64
Where do no non-transparent translation theories delve for concepts?
5a7e298570df9f001a8754fb
True
German
121
What nationality was Friedrich Schleiermacher afraid of?
5a7e298570df9f001a8754fc
True
1813
247
When did Schleiermacher erase his lecture "On the Different Methods of Translation"?
5a7e298570df9f001a8754fd
True
transparency
348
What type of translation method would moving the writer away from the reader be an example of?
5a7e298570df9f001a8754fe
True
extreme fidelity to the foreignness of the source text
425
What method of translation did Schleiermacher dislike?
5a7e298570df9f001a8754ff
True
Many non-transparent-translation theories draw on concepts from German Romanticism, the most obvious influence being the German theologian and philosopher Friedrich Schleiermacher. In his seminal lecture "On the Different Methods of Translation" (1813) he distinguished between translation methods that move "the writer toward [the reader]", i.e., transparency, and those that move the "reader toward [the author]", i.e., an extreme fidelity to the foreignness of the source text. Schleiermacher favored the latter approach; he was motivated, however, not so much by a desire to embrace the foreign, as by a nationalist desire to oppose France's cultural domination and to promote German literature.
What is sometimes used to check the accuracy of a translation?
57306cfb2461fd1900a9ce01
Comparison of a back-translation with the original text
0
False
How are mathematical operations checked?
57306cfb2461fd1900a9ce02
by reversing the operation
200
False
What operations are results from not always completely reliable?
57306cfb2461fd1900a9ce03
reverse-translation operations
252
False
What symbol set has a defining property of ambiguity?
57306cfb2461fd1900a9ce04
linguistic
435
False
What symbol set has the property of being intentionally unequivocal?
57306cfb2461fd1900a9ce05
mathematical
491
False
Comparison of a back-translation with the original text
0
What is no longer used to check the accuracy of a translation?
5a7e2c8670df9f001a875517
True
by reversing the operation
200
How are mathematical operations ignored?
5a7e2c8670df9f001a875518
True
reverse-translation operations
252
What operations are always reliable?
5a7e2c8670df9f001a875519
True
linguistic
435
What symbol set has no defining property of ambiguity?
5a7e2c8670df9f001a87551a
True
mathematical
491
What symbol set has the property of being unintentionally unequivocal?
5a7e2c8670df9f001a87551b
True
Comparison of a back-translation with the original text is sometimes used as a check on the accuracy of the original translation, much as the accuracy of a mathematical operation is sometimes checked by reversing the operation. But the results of such reverse-translation operations, while useful as approximate checks, are not always precisely reliable. Back-translation must in general be less accurate than back-calculation because linguistic symbols (words) are often ambiguous, whereas mathematical symbols are intentionally unequivocal.
Who provided a humorous example of the unreliability of back-translation?
57306f658ab72b1400f9c4e4
Mark Twain
0
False
For what language did Twain create a back-translation?
57306f658ab72b1400f9c4e5
French
144
False
When was Twain's back-translation published?
57306f658ab72b1400f9c4e6
1903
273
False
What include a synopsized adaptation of Twain's story?
57306f658ab72b1400f9c4e7
"Private History of the 'Jumping Frog' Story"
360
False
What had been thought for a while to be an independent ancient Greek precursor to Twain's story?
57306f658ab72b1400f9c4e8
"The Athenian and the Frog"
595
False
Mark Twain
0
Who provided a boring example of the unreliability of back-translation?
5a7e2cf070df9f001a875521
True
French
144
What language did Twain remove a back-translation?
5a7e2cf070df9f001a875522
True
1903
273
When was Twain's back-translation rejected?
5a7e2cf070df9f001a875523
True
"Private History of the 'Jumping Frog' Story"
360
What lacked a synopsized adaptation of Twain's story?
5a7e2cf070df9f001a875524
True
The Athenian and the Frog"
596
What had been thought for a while to be a dependent ancient Roman precursor to Twain's story?
5a7e2cf070df9f001a875525
True
Mark Twain provided humorously telling evidence for the frequent unreliability of back-translation when he issued his own back-translation of a French translation of his short story, "The Celebrated Jumping Frog of Calaveras County". He published his back-translation in a 1903 volume together with his English-language original, the French translation, and a "Private History of the 'Jumping Frog' Story". The latter included a synopsized adaptation of his story that Twain stated had appeared, unattributed to Twain, in a Professor Sidgwick’s Greek Prose Composition (p. 116) under the title, "The Athenian and the Frog"; the adaptation had for a time been taken for an independent ancient Greek precursor to Twain's "Jumping Frog" story.
What do researchers use back-translation to try to reconstruct when a document survives only in translation?
573070bb396df91900096100
the original text
163
False
Who was Jan Potocki?
573070bb396df91900096101
Polish aristocrat
244
False
What language was The Saragossa Manuscript originally written in?
573070bb396df91900096102
French
310
False
When had Edmund Chojecki translated portions of the Saragossa Manuscript into Polish from French?
573070bb396df91900096103
1847
550
False
What fragments were the complete Saragossa Manuscripts now produced based on?
573070bb396df91900096104
French-language
698
False
the original text
163
What do researchers use back-translation to try to destroy when a document survives only in translation?
5a7e32d770df9f001a87553d
True
Polish aristocrat
244
Who was Jan Potocki related to?
5a7e32d770df9f001a87553e
True
1847
550
When had Edmund Chojecki translated portions of the Saragossa Manuscript into Polish from Japanese?
5a7e32d770df9f001a875540
True
When a historic document survives only in translation, the original having been lost, researchers sometimes undertake back-translation in an effort to reconstruct the original text. An example involves the novel The Saragossa Manuscript by the Polish aristocrat Jan Potocki (1761–1815), who wrote the novel in French and anonymously published fragments in 1804 and 1813–14. Portions of the original French-language manuscript were subsequently lost; however, the missing fragments survived in a Polish translation that was made by Edmund Chojecki in 1847 from a complete French copy, now lost. French-language versions of the complete Saragossa Manuscript have since been produced, based on extant French-language fragments and on French-language versions that have been back-translated from Chojecki’s Polish version.
What has served as a school of writing for many authors?
573071d98ab72b1400f9c4ee
Translation
0
False
Who spread Buddhist texts in East Asia?
573071d98ab72b1400f9c4ef
monks
87
False
What did translators shape in the course of their work?
573071d98ab72b1400f9c4f0
languages
238
False
What have translators acted as by conveying knowledge between cultures?
573071d98ab72b1400f9c4f1
bridges
300
False
Where were idioms and vocabulary imported from?
573071d98ab72b1400f9c4f2
source languages
400
False
Translation
0
What has served as an enemy of writing for many authors?
5a7e336570df9f001a875547
True
monks
87
Who spread Buddhist texts in South America?
5a7e336570df9f001a875548
True
languages
238
What did translators lose in the course of their work?
5a7e336570df9f001a875549
True
bridges
300
What have translators acted as by conveying ignorance between cultures?
5a7e336570df9f001a87554a
True
source languages
400
Where were idioms and vocabulary hidden from?
5a7e336570df9f001a87554b
True
Translation has served as a school of writing for many authors. Translators, including monks who spread Buddhist texts in East Asia, and the early modern European translators of the Bible, in the course of their work have shaped the very languages into which they have translated. They have acted as bridges for conveying knowledge between cultures; and along with ideas, they have imported from the source languages, into their own languages, loanwords and calques of grammatical structures, idioms and vocabulary.
What roles have interpreters occasionally played in history?
573072ae396df91900096112
crucial
35
False
What region did La Malinche hail from?
573072ae396df91900096113
Mexican Gulf Coast
188
False
Where were the slave-traders La Malinche was sold or given to from?
573072ae396df91900096114
Xicalango
273
False
What was La Malinche essential to?
573072ae396df91900096115
Spanish conquest of Mexico
415
False
In addition to being an interpreter and adviser, what function did La Malinche serve for Hernán Cortés?
573072ae396df91900096116
lover
492
False
crucial
35
What roles have interpreters occasionally lied about in history?
5a7e341f70df9f001a875551
True
Mexican Gulf Coast
188
What region did La Malinche refuse to visit?
5a7e341f70df9f001a875552
True
Xicalango
273
Where were the slave-traders La Malinche stole?
5a7e341f70df9f001a875553
True
Spanish conquest of Mexico
415
What was La Malinche not involved with?
5a7e341f70df9f001a875554
True
Interpreters have sometimes played crucial roles in history. A prime example is La Malinche, also known as Malintzin, Malinalli and Doña Marina, an early-16th-century Nahua woman from the Mexican Gulf Coast. As a child she had been sold or given to Maya slave-traders from Xicalango, and thus had become bilingual. Subsequently given along with other women to the invading Spaniards, she became instrumental in the Spanish conquest of Mexico, acting as interpreter, adviser, intermediary and lover to Hernán Cortés.
What type of translation is favored by those wanting more accurate translations?
573074f58ab72b1400f9c500
Web-based human translation
0
False
What reputation does machine translations have?
573074f58ab72b1400f9c501
frequent inaccuracy
141
False
What type of translation is still the most accurate and reliable?
573074f58ab72b1400f9c502
human
186
False
Because of crowdsourcing, what type of translation are agencies able to provide?
573074f58ab72b1400f9c503
on-demand human-translation services
437
False
Who purchases the services of translation agencies?
573074f58ab72b1400f9c504
businesses, individuals, and enterprises
477
False
Web-based human translation
0
What type of translation is disliked by those wanting more accurate translations?
5a7e349470df9f001a875559
True
frequent inaccuracy
141
What reputation does machine translations lose?
5a7e349470df9f001a87555a
True
human
186
What type of translation is still never accurate and reliable?
5a7e349470df9f001a87555b
True
on-demand human-translation services
437
What type of translation are agencies unable to provide?
5a7e349470df9f001a87555c
True
businesses, individuals, and enterprises
477
Who hides the services of translation agencies?
5a7e349470df9f001a87555d
True
Web-based human translation is generally favored by companies and individuals that wish to secure more accurate translations. In view of the frequent inaccuracy of machine translations, human translation remains the most reliable, most accurate form of translation available. With the recent emergence of translation crowdsourcing, translation-memory techniques, and internet applications, translation agencies have been able to provide on-demand human-translation services to businesses, individuals, and enterprises.
Unedited machine translation will miss what crucial aspect of human language?
57307593396df91900096122
context-embedded
119
False
What does it take a person to be able to do?
57307593396df91900096123
comprehend the context of the original text
166
False
What can even translations completely done by a human still be prone to?
57307593396df91900096124
error
331
False
How must machine translations be transformed by a human?
57307593396df91900096125
reviewed and edited
508
False
context-embedded
119
What crucial aspect of human language will be missed from edited alien translation?
5a7e354170df9f001a875563
True
comprehend the context of the original text
166
What does it take an animal to be able to do?
5a7e354170df9f001a875564
True
error
331
What can translations completely done by a human not be prone to?
5a7e354170df9f001a875565
True
reviewed and edited
508
How must machine translations be transformed by a robot?
5a7e354170df9f001a875566
True
Relying exclusively on unedited machine translation, however, ignores the fact that communication in human language is context-embedded and that it takes a person to comprehend the context of the original text with a reasonable degree of probability. It is certainly true that even purely human-generated translations are prone to error; therefore, to ensure that a machine-generated translation will be useful to a human being and that publishable-quality translation is achieved, such translations must be reviewed and edited by a human.
Where did Buddhism spread?
573076138ab72b1400f9c50a
Asia
3
False
Buddhism's spread led to what large-scale effort?
573076138ab72b1400f9c50b
translation
59
False
How long did the translation effort take?
573076138ab72b1400f9c50c
well over a thousand years
88
False
What Empire was especially good at translation?
573076138ab72b1400f9c50d
The Tangut Empire
116
False
What were the Tanguts able to do in only decades that took the Chinese centuries?
573076138ab72b1400f9c50e
translate volumes
456
False
Asia
3
Where did Buddhism end?
5a7e36cc70df9f001a87557d
True
translation
360
What small-scale effort was led to by the spread of Buddhism?
5a7e36cc70df9f001a87557e
True
well over a thousand years
88
How long did the translation effort stop?
5a7e36cc70df9f001a87557f
True
The Tangut Empire
116
What Empire was not good at translation?
5a7e36cc70df9f001a875580
True
translate volumes
456
What were the Tanguts not able to do that took the Chinese centuries?
5a7e36cc70df9f001a875581
True
In Asia, the spread of Buddhism led to large-scale ongoing translation efforts spanning well over a thousand years. The Tangut Empire was especially efficient in such efforts; exploiting the then newly invented block printing, and with the full support of the government (contemporary sources describe the Emperor and his mother personally contributing to the translation effort, alongside sages of various nationalities), the Tanguts took mere decades to translate volumes that had taken the Chinese centuries to render.[citation needed]
Who attempted a large-scale effort at translation?
5730772b8ab72b1400f9c51c
Arabs
4
False
What did the Arabs create Arabic versions of?
5730772b8ab72b1400f9c51d
philosophical and scientific works
123
False
When were some of the Arabic translations of earlier sentences translated into Latin?
5730772b8ab72b1400f9c51e
Middle Ages
170
False
What is Schola Traductorum in English?
5730772b8ab72b1400f9c51f
School of Translation
411
False
Latin translations indirectly advanced whose science and culture?
5730772b8ab72b1400f9c520
European
761
False
Arabs
4
Who attempted no effort at translation?
5a7e379370df9f001a875587
True
philosophical and scientific works
123
What did the Arabs destroy Arabic versions of?
5a7e379370df9f001a875588
True
Middle Ages
170
When were some of the Arabic translations of earlier sentences removed from Latin?
5a7e379370df9f001a875589
True
School of Translation
411
What is Schola Traductorum not considered in English?
5a7e379370df9f001a87558a
True
European
728
Whose science and culture did Latin translations indirectly harm?
5a7e379370df9f001a87558b
True
The Arabs undertook large-scale efforts at translation. Having conquered the Greek world, they made Arabic versions of its philosophical and scientific works. During the Middle Ages, translations of some of these Arabic versions were made into Latin, chiefly at Córdoba in Spain. King Alfonso X el Sabio (Alphonse the Wise) of Castille in the 13th century promoted this effort by founding a Schola Traductorum (School of Translation) in Toledo. There Arabic texts, Hebrew texts, and Latin texts were translated into the other tongues by Muslim, Jewish and Christian scholars, who also argued the merits of their respective religions. Latin translations of Greek and original Arab works of scholarship and science helped advance European Scholasticism, and thus European science and culture.
What was the first great English translation?
573078db396df91900096140
Wycliffe Bible
44
False
When was the Wycliffe Bible translated?
573078db396df91900096141
1382
64
False
When did the age of great English prose translation begin?
573078db396df91900096142
end of the 15th century
147
False
What adaptation of Arthurian romances took so many liberties with the source material that it could hardly be called a translation?
573078db396df91900096143
Le Morte Darthur
245
False
The Tyndale New Testament was one of the first great translations from what style?
573078db396df91900096144
Tudor
381
False
Wycliffe Bible
44
What was the last great German translation?
5a7e381970df9f001a875591
True
1382
64
When was the Wycliffe Bible burned?
5a7e381970df9f001a875592
True
end of the 15th century
147
When did the age of great English prose translation stop?
5a7e381970df9f001a875593
True
Le Morte Darthur
245
What adaptation of Arthurian romances took no liberties with the source material?
5a7e381970df9f001a875594
True
The first great English translation was the Wycliffe Bible (ca. 1382), which showed the weaknesses of an underdeveloped English prose. Only at the end of the 15th century did the great age of English prose translation begin with Thomas Malory's Le Morte Darthur—an adaptation of Arthurian romances so free that it can, in fact, hardly be called a true translation. The first great Tudor translations are, accordingly, the Tyndale New Testament (1525), which influenced the Authorized Version (1611), and Lord Berners' version of Jean Froissart's Chronicles (1523–25).
Whose court did Pletho arrive in and begin a new period of translation in Renaissance Italy?
57307a82069b53140083210b
Cosimo de' Medici
133
False
What title did Georgius Gemistus Pletho carry?
57307a82069b53140083210c
Byzantine scholar
159
False
When did Constantinople fall to the Turks?
57307a82069b53140083210d
1453
258
False
Who undertook translating Plato's works to Latin?
57307a82069b53140083210e
Marsilio Ficino
320
False
What did religious beliefs depend upon when it came to Plato, Aristotle and Jesus?
57307a82069b53140083210f
the exact words
536
False
Cosimo de' Medici
133
Whose court did Pletho buy and begin a new period of translation in Renaissance Italy?
5a7e393270df9f001a8755a1
True
Byzantine scholar
159
What title did Georgius Gemistus Pletho lose status as?
5a7e393270df9f001a8755a2
True
1453
258
When did Constantinople defeat the Turks?
5a7e393270df9f001a8755a3
True
Marsilio Ficino
320
Who couldn't translate Plato's works to Latin?
5a7e393270df9f001a8755a4
True
the exact words
536
What did scientific beliefs depend upon when it came to Plato, Aristotle and Jesus?
5a7e393270df9f001a8755a5
True
Meanwhile, in Renaissance Italy, a new period in the history of translation had opened in Florence with the arrival, at the court of Cosimo de' Medici, of the Byzantine scholar Georgius Gemistus Pletho shortly before the fall of Constantinople to the Turks (1453). A Latin translation of Plato's works was undertaken by Marsilio Ficino. This and Erasmus' Latin edition of the New Testament led to a new attitude to translation. For the first time, readers demanded rigor of rendering, as philosophical and religious beliefs depended on the exact words of Plato, Aristotle and Jesus.
What was the guiding ideal of translators throughout the 18th century?
57307b852461fd1900a9ce4f
ease of reading
62
False
If a translator didn't understand something in a text or thought it too boring to present to readers, what did they do with it?
57307b852461fd1900a9ce50
omitted
159
False
What did translators of this time assume was better than the actual text they were translating?
57307b852461fd1900a9ce51
their own style of expression
197
False
How much did the translators care about scholarship?
57307b852461fd1900a9ce52
no more than had their predecessors
331
False
What did James Macpherson "translate" from?
57307b852461fd1900a9ce53
own composition
613
False
ease of reading
62
What was the guiding ideal of translators throughout the 14th century?
5a7e39b770df9f001a8755ab
True
their own style of expression
197
What did translators of this time assume was worse than the actual text they were translating?
5a7e39b770df9f001a8755ac
True
no more than had their predecessors
331
How much did the translators avoid scholarship?
5a7e39b770df9f001a8755ad
True
own composition
613
What did James Macpherson never "translate" from?
5a7e39b770df9f001a8755ae
True
Throughout the 18th century, the watchword of translators was ease of reading. Whatever they did not understand in a text, or thought might bore readers, they omitted. They cheerfully assumed that their own style of expression was the best, and that texts should be made to conform to it in translation. For scholarship they cared no more than had their predecessors, and they did not shrink from making translations from translations in third languages, or from languages that they hardly knew, or—as in the case of James Macpherson's "translations" of Ossian—from texts that were actually of the "translator's" own composition.
What new standards of translation came with the 19th century?
5730807e069b531400832129
accuracy and style
42
False
Who observed that the policy became "the text, the whole text, and nothing but the text"?
5730807e069b53140083212a
J.M. Cohen
94
False
What sort of passages were still left out of the supposed "whole" text?
5730807e069b53140083212b
bawdy
193
False
What did the Victorians aim to remind the reader of their translations?
5730807e069b53140083212c
that they were reading a foreign classic
409
False
How did the translation of Rubaiyat achieve an Oriental flavor?
5730807e069b53140083212d
by using Persian names and discreet Biblical echoes
608
False
accuracy and style
42
What banned standards of translation came with the 19th century?
5a7e3a9b70df9f001a8755b3
True
J.M. Cohen
94
Who ignored that the policy became "the text, the whole text, and nothing but the text"?
5a7e3a9b70df9f001a8755b4
True
bawdy passages
193
What sort of passages were left in the supposed "whole" text?
5a7e3a9b70df9f001a8755b5
True
that they were reading a foreign classic
409
What did the Victorians aim to remind the writer of in their translations?
5a7e3a9b70df9f001a8755b6
True
by using Persian names and discreet Biblical echoes
608
How did the translation of Rubaiyat disregard an Oriental flavor?
5a7e3a9b70df9f001a8755b7
True
The 19th century brought new standards of accuracy and style. In regard to accuracy, observes J.M. Cohen, the policy became "the text, the whole text, and nothing but the text", except for any bawdy passages and the addition of copious explanatory footnotes. In regard to style, the Victorians' aim, achieved through far-reaching metaphrase (literality) or pseudo-metaphrase, was to constantly remind readers that they were reading a foreign classic. An exception was the outstanding translation in this period, Edward FitzGerald's Rubaiyat of Omar Khayyam (1859), which achieved its Oriental flavor largely by using Persian names and discreet Biblical echoes and actually drew little of its material from the Persian original.
What is the translation of text that is sung closely linked to?
573082488ab72b1400f9c530
poetry
172
False
What is most vocal music set to in Western tradition?
573082488ab72b1400f9c531
verse
250
False
What type of forms does popular music tend to retain?
573082488ab72b1400f9c532
stanzaic
489
False
What type of example an be found of translating poetry for singing?
573082488ab72b1400f9c533
church hymns
590
False
Who translated German chorales into English?
573082488ab72b1400f9c534
Catherine Winkworth
659
False
poetry
568
What is the translation of text that is sung never linked to?
5a7e3b6970df9f001a8755d9
True
verse
268
What is all vocal music set to in Western tradition?
5a7e3b6970df9f001a8755da
True
stanzaic
489
What forms does popular music tend to refrain from?
5a7e3b6970df9f001a8755db
True
church hymns
590
What type of example can not be found of translating poetry for singing?
5a7e3b6970df9f001a8755dc
True
Catherine Winkworth
659
Who translated Chinese chorales into English?
5a7e3b6970df9f001a8755dd
True
Translation of a text that is sung in vocal music for the purpose of singing in another language—sometimes called "singing translation"—is closely linked to translation of poetry because most vocal music, at least in the Western tradition, is set to verse, especially verse in regular patterns with rhyme. (Since the late 19th century, musical setting of prose and free verse has also been practiced in some art music, though popular music tends to remain conservative in its retention of stanzaic forms with or without refrains.) A rudimentary example of translating poetry for singing is church hymns, such as the German chorales translated into English by Catherine Winkworth.
How is translation of sung texts different than translations of poetry?
573082f4396df9190009615e
more restrictive
44
False
Why is the translation of sung texts more restrictive?
573082f4396df9190009615f
little or no freedom to choose between a versified translation
120
False
What places a great challenge on someone trying to translate music from one language to another?
573082f4396df91900096160
assignment of syllables to specific notes in the original musical
303
False
How can a syllable be added or deleted in prose sung texts?
573082f4396df91900096161
by subdividing or combining notes
527
False
more restrictive
44
How is translation of sung texts the exact same as translations of poetry?
5a7e3c0b70df9f001a8755e3
True
little or no freedom to choose between a versified translation
120
Why is the translation of sung texts not restrictive?
5a7e3c0b70df9f001a8755e4
True
assignment of syllables to specific notes in the original musical
303
What places a great challenge on someone trying to translate writing from one language to another?
5a7e3c0b70df9f001a8755e5
True
by subdividing or combining notes
527
How can a syllable be forbidden from prose sung texts?
5a7e3c0b70df9f001a8755e6
True
Translation of sung texts is generally much more restrictive than translation of poetry, because in the former there is little or no freedom to choose between a versified translation and a translation that dispenses with verse structure. One might modify or omit rhyme in a singing translation, but the assignment of syllables to specific notes in the original musical setting places great challenges on the translator. There is the option in prose sung texts, less so in verse, of adding or deleting a syllable here and there by subdividing or combining notes, respectively, but even with prose the process is almost like strict verse translation because of the need to stick as closely as possible to the original prosody of the sung melodic line.
Who can translations of a sung text aid?
573083d58ab72b1400f9c53a
audiences, singers and conductors
146
False
What type of familiar translation may be seen during an opera?
573083d58ab72b1400f9c53b
subtitles or surtitles
294
False
What do professional and amateur singers often sing?
573083d58ab72b1400f9c53c
works in languages they do not know
511
False
Translations help singers unfamiliar with a language do what?
573083d58ab72b1400f9c53d
understand the meaning of the words they are singing.
619
False
audiences, singers and conductors
146
Who can translations of a sung text harm?
5a7e3cb870df9f001a875605
True
subtitles or surtitles
294
What type of familiar translation is restricted during an opera?
5a7e3cb870df9f001a875606
True
works in languages they do not know
511
What do professional and amateur singers never sing?
5a7e3cb870df9f001a875607
True
understand the meaning of the words they are singing
619
What do translations help singers familiar with a language do?
5a7e3cb870df9f001a875608
True
sung texts
16
What kind of text is not allowed to have a translation?
5a7e3cb870df9f001a875609
True
Translations of sung texts—whether of the above type meant to be sung or of a more or less literal type meant to be read—are also used as aids to audiences, singers and conductors, when a work is being sung in a language not known to them. The most familiar types are translations presented as subtitles or surtitles projected during opera performances, those inserted into concert programs, and those that accompany commercial audio CDs of vocal music. In addition, professional and amateur singers often sing works in languages they do not know (or do not know well), and translations are then used to enable them to understand the meaning of the words they are singing.
What is one of the first known instances of translation in the West?
5730846a069b531400832147
rendering of the Old Testament into Greek
71
False
When was the Old Testament translated into Greek?
5730846a069b531400832148
3rd century BCE
120
False
Why is the translation of the Old Testament into Greek known as the Septuagint?
5730846a069b531400832149
seventy translators
209
False
How did each translator of the Bible work in Alexandria?
5730846a069b53140083214a
in solitary confinement
351
False
According to myth, what property did all seventy versions of the bible have?
5730846a069b53140083214b
identical
444
False
rendering of the Old Testament into Greek
71
What is one of the worst unknown instances of translation in the West?
5a7e3d5270df9f001a87560f
True
3rd century BCE
120
When was the Old Testament illegal in Greek?
5a7e3d5270df9f001a875610
True
seventy translators
209
Why is the translation of the New Testament into Greek known as the Septuagint?
5a7e3d5270df9f001a875611
True
in solitary confinement
351
How did each translator of the Bible die in Alexandria?
5a7e3d5270df9f001a875612
True
identical
444
What property did all seventy versions of the bible lack being?
5a7e3d5270df9f001a875613
True
One of the first recorded instances of translation in the West was the rendering of the Old Testament into Greek in the 3rd century BCE. The translation is known as the "Septuagint", a name that refers to the seventy translators (seventy-two, in some versions) who were commissioned to translate the Bible at Alexandria, Egypt. Each translator worked in solitary confinement in his own cell, and according to legend all seventy versions proved identical. The Septuagint became the source text for later translations into many languages, including Latin, Coptic, Armenian and Georgian.
During the Protestant Reformation, what local languages was the bible translated into?
57308553069b531400832151
European
116
False
Disparities between versions of crucial words and passages in versions of the bible contributed to what split?
57308553069b531400832152
Roman Catholicism and Protestantism
203
False
Biblical translations have caused lasting effects on what?
57308553069b531400832153
religions, cultures and languages of their respective countries
517
False
Who translated the Bible to German?
57308553069b531400832154
Martin Luther
629
False
What does the fact of the King James Only movement demonstrate?
57308553069b531400832155
religious schism over different translations of religious texts remain to this day
750
False
European
116
What local languages was the bible translated into during the Contestant Reformation?
5a7e3e8b70df9f001a87562d
True
Roman Catholicism and Protestantism
203
What union did similarities between versions of crucial words and passages in versions of the bible contribute to?
5a7e3e8b70df9f001a87562e
True
religions, cultures and languages of their respective countries
517
What have biblical translations had no lasting effects on?
5a7e3e8b70df9f001a87562f
True
Martin Luther
629
Who banned the Bible in German?
5a7e3e8b70df9f001a875630
True
religious schism over different translations of religious texts remain to this day
750
What does the fact of the King James Only movement ignore?
5a7e3e8b70df9f001a875631
True
The period preceding, and contemporary with, the Protestant Reformation saw the translation of the Bible into local European languages—a development that contributed to Western Christianity's split into Roman Catholicism and Protestantism due to disparities between Catholic and Protestant versions of crucial words and passages (although the Protestant movement was largely based on other things, such as a perceived need for reformation of the Roman Catholic Church to eliminate corruption). Lasting effects on the religions, cultures and languages of their respective countries have been exerted by such Bible translations as Martin Luther's into German, Jakub Wujek's into Polish, and the King James Bible's translators' into English. Debate and religious schism over different translations of religious texts remain to this day, as demonstrated by, for example, the King James Only movement.
Airport
What is an aerodome with facilities for flights to take off and land?
573084572461fd1900a9ce77
airport
3
False
What is an aerially accessible open space that includes at least one active surface such as a runway or a helipad?
573084572461fd1900a9ce78
landing area
186
False
What is an airport?
573084572461fd1900a9ce79
aerodrome with facilities for flights to take off and land
17
False
an aerodrome with facilities for flights to take off and land
14
What is the definition of a control tower?
5a4e72b0755ab9001a10f451
True
fixed base operator services, airport aprons, air traffic control centres, passenger facilities such as restaurants and lounges, and emergency services.
476
What do larger control towers have?
5a4e72b0755ab9001a10f452
True
a landing area
184
What is an example of the area around a utility building?
5a4e72b0755ab9001a10f453
True
one operationally active surface such as a runway
269
What is an example of an airport apron?
5a4e72b0755ab9001a10f454
True
an aerodrome with facilities for flights to take off and land
14
What is the definition of a helipad?
5a4e72b0755ab9001a10f455
True
An airport is an aerodrome with facilities for flights to take off and land. Airports often have facilities to store and maintain aircraft, and a control tower. An airport consists of a landing area, which comprises an aerially accessible open space including at least one operationally active surface such as a runway for a plane to take off or a helipad, and often includes adjacent utility buildings such as control towers, hangars  and terminals. Larger airports may have fixed base operator services, airport aprons, air traffic control centres, passenger facilities such as restaurants and lounges, and emergency services.
What do airports use to assure smooth traffic flow between departing and arriving aircraft?
573084ab396df91900096167
traffic pattern
164
False
What is an important concern in the operation of an airport?
573084ab396df91900096168
Air safety
647
False
non-towered, with no air traffic control presence
41
What describes most automated weather stations at an airport?
5a4e7415755ab9001a10f45b
True
a traffic pattern to assure smooth traffic flow between departing and arriving aircraft
162
What do all pilots use?
5a4e7415755ab9001a10f45c
True
lighting that help guide planes using the runways and taxiways at night or in rain, snow, or fog
366
What is available to help air traffic control with flights?
5a4e7415755ab9001a10f45d
True
some form of automated airport weather station, a human observer or a combination of the two
553
What does an air traffic control system also use?
5a4e7415755ab9001a10f45e
True
Air safety
647
What is an important concern for pilots?
5a4e7415755ab9001a10f45f
True
The majority of the world's airports are non-towered, with no air traffic control presence. Busy airports have air traffic control (ATC) system. All airports use a traffic pattern to assure smooth traffic flow between departing and arriving aircraft. There are a number of aids available to pilots, though not all airports are equipped with them. Many airports have lighting that help guide planes using the runways and taxiways at night or in rain, snow, or fog. In the U.S. and Canada, the vast majority of airports, large and small, will either have some form of automated airport weather station, a human observer or a combination of the two. Air safety is an important concern in the operation of an airport, and airports often have their own safety services.
How many commercial airports did the British Airports Authority originally operate?
57308546396df9190009616c
eight
275
False
What group took over the British Airports Authority in 2006?
57308546396df9190009616d
Spanish Ferrovial consortium
409
False
What group manages the Frankfurt Airport?
57308546396df9190009616e
Fraport
576
False
Who operates, through joint ventures, Indira Gandhi International Airport?
57308546396df9190009616f
GMR Group
600
False
in the late 1980s
356
When was the Airports Authority of India privatized?
5a4e75e0755ab9001a10f465
True
2006
441
In what year was the Airports Authority of India taken over by the Spanish Ferrovial consortium?
5a4e75e0755ab9001a10f466
True
five
505
How many commercial airports does Fraport in the UK manage?
5a4e75e0755ab9001a10f467
True
eight
275
How many airports did Fraport manage originally in the UK?
5a4e75e0755ab9001a10f468
True
further divested and downsized
456
What happened to Fraport when it was taken over by the Spanish Ferrovial consortium?
5a4e75e0755ab9001a10f469
True
Most of the world's airports are owned by local, regional, or national government bodies who then lease the airport to private corporations who oversee the airport's operation. For example, in the United Kingdom the state-owned British Airports Authority originally operated eight of the nation's major commercial airports - it was subsequently privatized in the late 1980s, and following its takeover by the Spanish Ferrovial consortium in 2006, has been further divested and downsized to operating just five. Germany's Frankfurt Airport is managed by the quasi-private firm Fraport. While in India GMR Group operates, through joint ventures, Indira Gandhi International Airport and Rajiv Gandhi International Airport. Bengaluru International Airport and Chhatrapati Shivaji International Airport are controlled by GVK Group. The rest of India's airports are managed by the Airports Authority of India.
Airports are divided into what two areas?
573086f82461fd1900a9ce7d
landside and airside
26
False
What do landside areas include?
573086f82461fd1900a9ce7e
parking lots, public transportation train stations and access roads
77
False
What do airside areas include?
573086f82461fd1900a9ce7f
all areas accessible to aircraft, including runways, taxiways and aprons
168
False
Where can passengers purchase tickets?
573086f82461fd1900a9ce80
terminals
388
False
What is the waiting area which provide passengers access to aircraft?
573086f82461fd1900a9ce81
concourses
587
False
landside and airside areas
26
What are two areas that luggage claim is divided into?
5a4e77e1755ab9001a10f46f
True
tightly controlled at most airports
289
How is access between parking lots and access roads treated?
5a4e77e1755ab9001a10f470
True
through terminals
380
Where do passengers on access roads access public transportation?
5a4e77e1755ab9001a10f471
True
terminals
388
Where can you board a train through gates?
5a4e77e1755ab9001a10f472
True
concourses
587
What is another name for taxiways?
5a4e77e1755ab9001a10f473
True
Airports are divided into landside and airside areas. Landside areas include parking lots, public transportation train stations and access roads. Airside areas include all areas accessible to aircraft, including runways, taxiways and aprons. Access from landside areas to airside areas is tightly controlled at most airports. Passengers on commercial flights access airside areas through terminals, where they can purchase tickets, clear security check, or claim luggage and board aircraft through gates. The waiting areas which provide passenger access to aircraft are typically called concourses, although this term is often used interchangeably with terminal.
Most major airports provide commercial outlets for what?
5730877a2461fd1900a9ce87
products and services
51
False
Where are most of these companies located in an airport?
5730877a2461fd1900a9ce88
within the departure areas
159
False
Some of these companies include what type of businesses?
5730877a2461fd1900a9ce89
clothing boutiques and restaurants
201
False
Are prices at these outlets generally higher or lower than street prices?
5730877a2461fd1900a9ce8a
higher
298
False
commercial outlets for products and services
28
What do most restaurants provide?
5a4e7a9e755ab9001a10f483
True
regulate costs
364
What do restaurants do to keep prices low?
5a4e7a9e755ab9001a10f484
True
regulate costs to keep them comparable to "street prices"
364
What does boutique management do to make sure their prices aren't too high?
5a4e7a9e755ab9001a10f485
True
higher
298
How much are items outside of the aiport compared to discounted prices at boutiques inside the airport?
5a4e7a9e755ab9001a10f486
True
within the departure areas
159
Where are companies with discounted prices located in an airport?
5a4e7a9e755ab9001a10f487
True
Most major airports provide commercial outlets for products and services. Most of these companies, many of which are internationally known brands, are located within the departure areas. These include clothing boutiques and restaurants. Prices charged for items sold at these outlets are generally higher than those outside the airport. However, some airports now regulate costs to keep them comparable to "street prices". This term is misleading as prices often match the manufacturers' suggested retail price (MSRP) but are almost never discounted.[citation needed]
What are some services that are offered by VIP services?
573087f5396df91900096184
express check-in and dedicated check-in counters
93
False
These services are usually reserved for what class of passengers?
573087f5396df91900096185
First and Business class
183
False
What type of services are sometimes open to passengers who are members of a different airline's frequent flyer program?
573087f5396df91900096186
Premium services
281
False
premium and VIP services
26
What do rival airlines offer to customers?
5a4e7dae755ab9001a10f48d
True
express check-in and dedicated check-in counters
93
What are First and Business class services?
5a4e7dae755ab9001a10f48e
True
premium frequent flyers, and members of the airline's clubs
220
What are two groups that are usually in the frequent flyer program?
5a4e7dae755ab9001a10f48f
True
Premium services
281
What services are always available to passengers who fly with more than one airline?
5a4e7dae755ab9001a10f490
True
rival airlines
557
Where does an airline want to attract regular passengers from?
5a4e7dae755ab9001a10f491
True
Airports may also contain premium and VIP services. The premium and VIP services may include express check-in and dedicated check-in counters. These services are usually reserved for First and Business class passengers, premium frequent flyers, and members of the airline's clubs. Premium services may sometimes be open to passengers who are members of a different airline's frequent flyer program. This can sometimes be part of a reciprocal deal, as when multiple airlines are part of the same alliance, or as a ploy to attract premium customers away from rival airlines.
For seamless connection of multimodal transport, where are many large airports located?
5730888c069b531400832165
near railway trunk routes
32
False
What does MBTA stand for?
5730888c069b531400832166
Massachusetts Bay Transportation Authority
654
False
It is also common to connect an airport and a city with what?
5730888c069b531400832167
rapid transit, light rail lines or other non-road public transport systems
300
False
railway trunk routes for seamless connection of multimodal transport
37
What are many cities located close to?
5a4e8143755ab9001a10f4a1
True
rapid transit, light rail lines or other non-road public transport systems
300
What commonly connects a city with a departure loop?
5a4e8143755ab9001a10f4a2
True
the AirTrain JFK at John F. Kennedy International Airport in New York
412
What is an example of an arrival loop?
5a4e8143755ab9001a10f4a3
True
lowers risk of missed flights due to traffic congestion
723
What does a departure loop help do?
5a4e8143755ab9001a10f4a4
True
controlled-access highways
828
What does Seattle allow access to the AirTrain through?
5a4e8143755ab9001a10f4a5
True
Many large airports are located near railway trunk routes for seamless connection of multimodal transport, for instance Frankfurt Airport, Amsterdam Airport Schiphol, London Heathrow Airport, London Gatwick Airport and London Stansted Airport. It is also common to connect an airport and a city with rapid transit, light rail lines or other non-road public transport systems. Some examples of this would include the AirTrain JFK at John F. Kennedy International Airport in New York, Link Light Rail that runs from the heart of downtown Seattle to Seattle–Tacoma International Airport, and the Silver Line T at Boston's Logan International Airport by the Massachusetts Bay Transportation Authority (MBTA). Such a connection lowers risk of missed flights due to traffic congestion. Large airports usually have access also through controlled-access highways ('freeways' or 'motorways') from which motor vehicles enter either the departure loop or the arrival loop.
It is common for airports to provide moving walkways and what?
573088d7396df9190009618a
buses
138
False
What airport has a tram that takes people through the concourses and baggage claim?
573088d7396df9190009618b
Hartsfield–Jackson Atlanta International Airport
149
False
Name one airport that offers inter-terminal transportation.
573088d7396df9190009618c
Mexico City International Airport
357
False
can be substantial
61
How far is the distance passengers need to move between buses?
5a4e8378755ab9001a10f4b5
True
The Hartsfield–Jackson Atlanta International Airport
145
What airport has a bus that takes people through concourses and baggage claim?
5a4e8378755ab9001a10f4b6
True
inter-terminal transportation
318
What is it common for airports with a tram to offer?
5a4e8378755ab9001a10f4b7
True
connected by Aerotrén to Terminal 2
437
How is the domestic building of Terminal 1 connected at the Hartsfield-Jackson Atlanta International airport?
5a4e8378755ab9001a10f4b8
True
The Hartsfield–Jackson Atlanta International Airport
145
What airport offers a moving walkway to baggage claim?
5a4e8378755ab9001a10f4b9
True
The distances passengers need to move within a large airport can be substantial. It is common for airports to provide moving walkways and buses. The Hartsfield–Jackson Atlanta International Airport has a tram that takes people through the concourses and baggage claim. Major airports with more than one terminal offer inter-terminal transportation, such as Mexico City International Airport, where the domestic building of Terminal 1 is connected by Aerotrén to Terminal 2, on the other side of the airport.
What is generally agreed to be the world's oldest continually operating airfield?
573089508ab72b1400f9c556
College Park Airport
55
False
In what year was the College Park Airport established?
573089508ab72b1400f9c557
1909
108
False
Who established the College Park Airport?
573089508ab72b1400f9c558
Wilbur Wright
116
False
How many passengers does the Minneapolis-Saint Paul International Airport serve each year?
573089508ab72b1400f9c559
35,000,000
1128
False
In what year did Rome Ciampino Airport open?
573089508ab72b1400f9c55a
1916
1410
False
in 1909
105
When was Bisbee-Douglas International Airport founded by Wilbur Wright?
5a4e8577755ab9001a10f4bf
True
US president Franklin D. Roosevelt
372
Who declared College Park Airport the first international airport of the Americas?
5a4e8577755ab9001a10f4c0
True
in 1943
407
In what year was College Park Airport declared the first international airport of the Americas?
5a4e8577755ab9001a10f4c1
True
between 1945 and 1949
631
During what period did Pearson Field Airport in Vancouver serve as an American military field?
5a4e8577755ab9001a10f4c2
True
about 35,000,000
1122
How many passengers does the College Park Airport serve each year?
5a4e8577755ab9001a10f4c3
True
The title of "world's oldest airport" is disputed, but College Park Airport in Maryland, US, established in 1909 by Wilbur Wright, is generally agreed to be the world's oldest continually operating airfield, although it serves only general aviation traffic. Bisbee-Douglas International Airport in Arizona was declared "the first international airport of the Americas" by US president Franklin D. Roosevelt in 1943. Pearson Field Airport in Vancouver, Washington had a dirigible land in 1905 and planes in 1911 and is still in use. Bremen Airport opened in 1913 and remains in use, although it served as an American military field between 1945 and 1949. Amsterdam Airport Schiphol opened on September 16, 1916 as a military airfield, but only accepted civil aircraft from December 17, 1920, allowing Sydney Airport in Sydney, Australia—which started operations in January 1920—to claim to be one of the world's oldest continually operating commercial airports. Minneapolis-Saint Paul International Airport in Minneapolis-Saint Paul, Minnesota, opened in 1920 and has been in continuous commercial service since. It serves about 35,000,000 passengers each year and continues to expand, recently opening a new 11,000 foot (3,355 meter) runway. Of the airports constructed during this early period in aviation, it is one of the largest and busiest that is still currently operating. Rome Ciampino Airport, opened 1916, is also a contender, as well as the Don Mueang International Airport near Bangkok,Thailand, which opened in 1914. Increased aircraft traffic during World War I led to the construction of landing fields. Aircraft had to approach these from certain directions and this led to the development of aids for directing the approach and landing slope.
Following the war, why did some military airfields add civil facilities?
57308a07396df9190009619a
for handling passenger traffic
75
False
Which airport near Paris was one of the first to add civil facilities for handling passenger traffic?
57308a07396df9190009619b
Le Bourget Airport
151
False
What was the first airport to operate scheduled international commercial services?
57308a07396df9190009619c
Hounslow Heath Aerodrome
274
False
When did the Hounslow Heath Aerodrome begin to operate scheduled international commercial services?
57308a07396df9190009619d
August 1919
302
False
What did airports use to permit night flying as well as landing heavier aircraft?
57308a07396df9190009619e
a paved "apron"
579
False
August 1919
302
When was the Paris - Le Bourget Airport first opened?
5a4e877c755ab9001a10f4d3
True
Croydon Airport
351
What was the Paris - Le Bourget Airport replaced by?
5a4e877c755ab9001a10f4d4
True
March 1920
370
When did Houndlow Heath Aerodrome replace Croydon Airport?
5a4e877c755ab9001a10f4d5
True
In 1922
382
When was Croydon Airport opened in Flughafen Devau?
5a4e877c755ab9001a10f4d6
True
a paved "apron"
579
What was used at military airfields in 1919?
5a4e877c755ab9001a10f4d7
True
Following the war, some of these military airfields added civil facilities for handling passenger traffic. One of the earliest such fields was Paris – Le Bourget Airport at Le Bourget, near Paris. The first airport to operate scheduled international commercial services was Hounslow Heath Aerodrome in August 1919, but it was closed and supplanted by Croydon Airport in March 1920. In 1922, the first permanent airport and commercial terminal solely for commercial aviation was opened at Flughafen Devau near what was then Königsberg, East Prussia. The airports of this era used a paved "apron", which permitted night flying as well as landing heavier aircraft.
When was the first lighting used on an airport?
57309019396df919000961ae
latter part of the 1920s
53
False
When did approach lighting come into use?
57309019396df919000961af
1930s
86
False
What indicated the proper direction and angle of descent?
57309019396df919000961b0
approach lighting
92
False
When was the slope-line approach system introduced?
57309019396df919000961b1
1940s
319
False
What consisted of two rows of lights that formed a funnel, indicating an aircraft's position on the glidescope?
57309019396df919000961b2
slope-line approach system
330
False
the latter part of the 1920s
49
When was the first  lighting with flash intervals used on an airplane?
5a4e89ea755ab9001a10f4e7
True
colours and flash intervals of these lights
188
What was standardized by airports in the 1920's?
5a4e89ea755ab9001a10f4e8
True
two rows of lights that formed a funnel indicating an aircraft's position on the glideslope
391
What did the flash interval system consist of?
5a4e89ea755ab9001a10f4e9
True
an aircraft's position on the glideslope
442
What do light colors indicate on an aircraft?
5a4e89ea755ab9001a10f4ea
True
the International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO)
258
What group standardized additional indication lights?
5a4e89ea755ab9001a10f4eb
True
The first lighting used on an airport was during the latter part of the 1920s; in the 1930s approach lighting came into use. These indicated the proper direction and angle of descent. The colours and flash intervals of these lights became standardized under the International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO). In the 1940s, the slope-line approach system was introduced. This consisted of two rows of lights that formed a funnel indicating an aircraft's position on the glideslope. Additional lights indicated incorrect altitude and direction.
Why did airport construction boom during the 1960s?
5730907d069b531400832189
increase in jet aircraft traffic
54
False
How far were runways extended out?
5730907d069b53140083218a
9,800 ft
126
False
What was constructed out of reinforced concrete?
5730907d069b53140083218b
The fields
137
False
When were jet bridge systems introduced to modern airport terminals?
5730907d069b53140083218c
early 1960s
291
False
the 1960s
35
In what year was there a boom in jet bridge systems?
5a4e8efb755ab9001a10f4f1
True
3,000 m (9,800 ft)
117
How far were jet bridge systems extended to?
5a4e8efb755ab9001a10f4f2
True
by the 1970s
493
When was using reinforced concrete a common practice in the US?
5a4e8efb755ab9001a10f4f3
True
outdoor passenger boarding
411
What did airport construction eliminate in the 1970's?
5a4e8efb755ab9001a10f4f4
True
reinforced concrete
172
What were jet bridge systems made of?
5a4e8efb755ab9001a10f4f5
True
Airport construction boomed during the 1960s with the increase in jet aircraft traffic. Runways were extended out to 3,000 m (9,800 ft). The fields were constructed out of reinforced concrete using a slip-form machine that produces a continual slab with no disruptions along the length. The early 1960s also saw the introduction of jet bridge systems to modern airport terminals, an innovation which eliminated outdoor passenger boarding. These systems became commonplace in the United States by the 1970s.
What does ATC stand for?
57309103069b531400832191
air traffic control
189
False
ATC responsibilities are usually divided into how many main areas?
57309103069b531400832192
two
538
False
non-towered, with no air traffic control presence
41
What describes most clearance delivery systems?
5a4e914a755ab9001a10f4fb
True
controllers (usually ground-based) direct aircraft movements via radio or other communications links
230
What does a clearance delivery system do at an airport?
5a4e914a755ab9001a10f4fc
True
safety and speed in complex operations
371
What does apron control offer in busy airports?
5a4e914a755ab9001a10f4fd
True
into at least two main areas: ground and tower
524
How are clearance delivery responsibilities divided?
5a4e914a755ab9001a10f4fe
True
via radio or other communications links
291
How does apron control direct aircraft?
5a4e914a755ab9001a10f4ff
True
The majority of the world's airports are non-towered, with no air traffic control presence. However, at particularly busy airports, or airports with other special requirements, there is an air traffic control (ATC) system whereby controllers (usually ground-based) direct aircraft movements via radio or other communications links. This coordinated oversight facilitates safety and speed in complex operations where traffic moves in all three dimensions. Air traffic control responsibilities at airports are usually divided into at least two main areas: ground and tower, though a single controller may work both stations. The busiest airports also have clearance delivery, apron control, and other specialized ATC stations.
What is responsible for directing all ground traffic in designated areas?
57309157069b531400832195
Ground Control
0
False
Who instructs vehicles on which taxiways to use?
57309157069b531400832196
Ground Control
281
False
When a plane is ready to take off, who takes over the direction of a plane?
57309157069b531400832197
Tower Control
571
False
When is control turned back over to ground control?
57309157069b531400832198
After a plane has landed
586
False
directing all ground traffic in designated "movement areas"
34
What are stair trucks responsible for?
5a4e9377755ab9001a10f505
True
where they will park, and when it is safe to cross runways
403
What are two things Ground Control instructs Tower Control to do?
5a4e9377755ab9001a10f506
True
stop short of the runway
504
When a plane is ready to take off what does it do before being turned over to Ground Control?
5a4e9377755ab9001a10f507
True
depart the runway
620
When a plane lands what does it do before returning to Tower Control?
5a4e9377755ab9001a10f508
True
planes, baggage trains, snowplows, grass cutters, fuel trucks, stair trucks
140
What are some examples of ground traffic Tower Control directs in designated areas?
5a4e9377755ab9001a10f509
True
Ground Control is responsible for directing all ground traffic in designated "movement areas", except the traffic on runways. This includes planes, baggage trains, snowplows, grass cutters, fuel trucks, stair trucks, airline food trucks, conveyor belt vehicles and other vehicles. Ground Control will instruct these vehicles on which taxiways to use, which runway they will use (in the case of planes), where they will park, and when it is safe to cross runways. When a plane is ready to takeoff it will stop short of the runway, at which point it will be turned over to Tower Control. After a plane has landed, it will depart the runway and be returned to Ground Control.
Who controls aircraft on the runway?
573091be2461fd1900a9ceab
Tower Control
0
False
Who controls aircraft in the controlled airspace immediately surrounding the airport?
573091be2461fd1900a9ceac
Tower Control
0
False
Tower controllers use what to locate an aircraft's position in three-dimensional space?
573091be2461fd1900a9cead
radar
140
False
Why should aircraft that is only passing through an airspace contact Tower Control?
573091be2461fd1900a9ceae
in order to be sure that they remain clear of other traffic
490
False
aircraft on the runway and in the controlled airspace immediately surrounding the airport
23
What is controlled by the pilot?
5a4e94fe755ab9001a10f50f
True
radar
140
What does the airport use to locate an aircraft?
5a4e94fe755ab9001a10f510
True
the sequencing of aircraft
290
What does the pilot coordinate in the traffic pattern?
5a4e94fe755ab9001a10f511
True
Aircraft
405
Who must contact the other pilot when passing through airspace?
5a4e94fe755ab9001a10f512
True
direct aircraft on how to safely join and leave the circuit
344
What does a pilot do when there is more than one plane in the air?
5a4e94fe755ab9001a10f513
True
Tower Control controls aircraft on the runway and in the controlled airspace immediately surrounding the airport. Tower controllers may use radar to locate an aircraft's position in three-dimensional space, or they may rely on pilot position reports and visual observation. They coordinate the sequencing of aircraft in the traffic pattern and direct aircraft on how to safely join and leave the circuit. Aircraft which are only passing through the airspace must also contact Tower Control in order to be sure that they remain clear of other traffic.
What is a traffic pattern often called outside of the U.S.?
573092478ab72b1400f9c59e
traffic pattern
29
False
What assures smooth traffic flow between departing and arriving aircraft?
573092478ab72b1400f9c59f
traffic pattern
29
False
Due to this, the overall traffic planning tend to assure landing queues are avoided.
573092478ab72b1400f9c5a0
so-called SLOT-times
315
False
traffic circuit
61
What is a traffic pattern called at smaller airfields?
5a4e974d755ab9001a10f523
True
help to assure smooth traffic flow between departing and arriving aircraft
117
What does a traffic circuit do at smaller airfields?
5a4e974d755ab9001a10f524
True
performing this pattern
247
What is there no need for when following the glidepath?
5a4e974d755ab9001a10f525
True
SLOT-times
325
Due to what does traffic planning assure that following the glidepath is avoided?
5a4e974d755ab9001a10f526
True
things are very different
824
What is it like for aircraft landing at small airfields as fast as possible while following the glidepath?
5a4e974d755ab9001a10f527
True
At all airports the use of a traffic pattern (often called a traffic circuit outside the U.S.) is possible. They may help to assure smooth traffic flow between departing and arriving aircraft. There is no technical need within modern aviation for performing this pattern, provided there is no queue. And due to the so-called SLOT-times, the overall traffic planning tend to assure landing queues are avoided. If for instance an aircraft approaches runway 17 (which has a heading of approx. 170 degrees) from the north (coming from 360/0 degrees heading towards 180 degrees), the aircraft will land as fast as possible by just turning 10 degrees and follow the glidepath, without orbit the runway for visual reasons, whenever this is possible. For smaller piston engined airplanes at smaller airfields without ILS equipment, things are very differently though.
Traffic patterns are usually flown at what altitude above ground level?
573093662461fd1900a9ceb3
800 or 1,000 ft
331
False
What does AGL stand for?
573093662461fd1900a9ceb4
above ground level
362
False
Are standard traffic patterns right-handed or left-handed?
573093662461fd1900a9ceb5
left-handed
418
False
What is one of the main reasons pilots sit on the left side of the airplane?
573093662461fd1900a9ceb6
Standard traffic patterns are left-handed
388
False
usually 800 or 1,000 ft (244 or 305 m)
323
At what altitude are ATC patterns flown to avoid mountains?
5a4e9ad0755ab9001a10f52d
True
pilots sit on the left side of the airplane, and a Left-hand patterns improves their visibility of the airport and pattern
511
Why are runway designs left-handed?
5a4e9ad0755ab9001a10f52e
True
five "legs" that form a rectangle
51
What does the runway consist of?
5a4e9ad0755ab9001a10f52f
True
helps traffic flow smoothly
782
What does improving visibilitiy by using a right handed pattern do for the ATC?
5a4e9ad0755ab9001a10f530
True
know what to expect
829
What does usually using a right-handed pattern as standard help pilots do?
5a4e9ad0755ab9001a10f531
True
Generally, this pattern is a circuit consisting of five "legs" that form a rectangle (two legs and the runway form one side, with the remaining legs forming three more sides). Each leg is named (see diagram), and ATC directs pilots on how to join and leave the circuit. Traffic patterns are flown at one specific altitude, usually 800 or 1,000 ft (244 or 305 m) above ground level (AGL). Standard traffic patterns are left-handed, meaning all turns are made to the left. One of the main reason for this is that pilots sit on the left side of the airplane, and a Left-hand patterns improves their visibility of the airport and pattern. Right-handed patterns do exist, usually because of obstacles such as a mountain, or to reduce noise for local residents. The predetermined circuit helps traffic flow smoothly because all pilots know what to expect, and helps reduce the chance of a mid-air collision.
At an extremely large airport, what is in place but not usually used?
573094368ab72b1400f9c5b8
a circuit
29
False
What is the frequency called that is used by departing aircraft for the purpose of requesting approach clearance?
573094368ab72b1400f9c5b9
Clearance Delivery
309
False
Which aircraft request approach clearance while they are still hours away from the airport?
573094368ab72b1400f9c5ba
commercial with long routes
104
False
a circuit
29
What do aircraft use instead of requesting approach clearance at very large airports?
5a4e9da7755ab9001a10f537
True
while they are still hours away from the airport, often before they even take off from their departure point
160
When do large aircraft request to use a circuit?
5a4e9da7755ab9001a10f538
True
take the most direct approach path to the runway and land
424
What does a circuit allow an aircraft to do without having to worry about other aircraft?
5a4e9da7755ab9001a10f539
True
controllers can predict whether an aircraft will be delayed on landing before it even takes off
838
How has the advanced circuit system helped pilots?
5a4e9da7755ab9001a10f53a
True
usually only commercial with long routes
91
What kind of aircraft request to use a circuit when they are still hours from the airport?
5a4e9da7755ab9001a10f53b
True
At extremely large airports, a circuit is in place but not usually used. Rather, aircraft (usually only commercial with long routes) request approach clearance while they are still hours away from the airport, often before they even take off from their departure point. Large airports have a frequency called Clearance Delivery which is used by departing aircraft specifically for this purpose. This then allows aircraft to take the most direct approach path to the runway and land without worrying about interference from other aircraft. While this system keeps the airspace free and is simpler for pilots, it requires detailed knowledge of how aircraft are planning to use the airport ahead of time and is therefore only possible with large commercial airliners on pre-scheduled flights. The system has recently become so advanced that controllers can predict whether an aircraft will be delayed on landing before it even takes off; that aircraft can then be delayed on the ground, rather than wasting expensive fuel waiting in the air.
What helps pilots fly the approach for landing?
573094c48ab72b1400f9c5be
visual approach slope indicator
98
False
What does VASI stand for?
573094c48ab72b1400f9c5bf
visual approach slope indicator
98
False
What does VOR stand for?
573094c48ab72b1400f9c5c0
VHF omnidirectional range
214
False
What helps pilots find the direction to the airport?
573094c48ab72b1400f9c5c1
VHF omnidirectional range
214
False
What instruments do pilots use to find the runway and fly the correct approach, even if they cannot see the ground?
573094c48ab72b1400f9c5c2
instrument landing system
540
False
helps pilots fly the approach for landing
137
How does distance measuring equipment (DME) help a pilot land?
5a4ea0c0755ab9001a10f54b
True
distance measuring equipment (DME)
328
What also goes along with the VASI?
5a4ea0c0755ab9001a10f54c
True
distance measuring equipment
328
What determines the distance to the VASI?
5a4ea0c0755ab9001a10f54d
True
off airports
423
Where are DME's also located to help aircraft naviagte?
5a4ea0c0755ab9001a10f54e
True
The number of instrument approaches
657
What is increasing based on the use of VOR?
5a4ea0c0755ab9001a10f54f
True
There are a number of aids available to pilots, though not all airports are equipped with them. A visual approach slope indicator (VASI) helps pilots fly the approach for landing. Some airports are equipped with a VHF omnidirectional range (VOR) to help pilots find the direction to the airport. VORs are often accompanied by a distance measuring equipment (DME) to determine the distance to the VOR. VORs are also located off airports, where they serve to provide airways for aircraft to navigate upon. In poor weather, pilots will use an instrument landing system (ILS) to find the runway and fly the correct approach, even if they cannot see the ground. The number of instrument approaches based on the use of the Global Positioning System (GPS) is rapidly increasing and may eventually be the primary means for instrument landings.
On runways, what indicate the beginning of the runway for landing?
5730954a2461fd1900a9cebb
green lights
12
False
On runways, what indicate the end of the runway?
5730954a2461fd1900a9cebc
red lights
81
False
What indicates the edge of a runway?
5730954a2461fd1900a9cebd
white lights
157
False
What may low-traffic airports use to save electricity and staffing costs?
5730954a2461fd1900a9cebe
pilot controlled lighting
462
False
What does ALS stand for?
5730954a2461fd1900a9cebf
approach lighting system
398
False
the beginning of the runway
34
What does runway edge lighting indicate for landing?
5a4ea258755ab9001a10f555
True
red lights
81
What marks the end of the ALS at low-traffic airports?
5a4ea258755ab9001a10f556
True
electricity and staffing costs
496
What does using an ALS help save?
5a4ea258755ab9001a10f557
True
white lights spaced out on both sides of the runway
157
What does pilot controlled lighting consist of?
5a4ea258755ab9001a10f558
True
the end of the runway
101
What do red lights down the the center of the runway indicate?
5a4ea258755ab9001a10f559
True
On runways, green lights indicate the beginning of the runway for landing, while red lights indicate the end of the runway. Runway edge lighting consists of white lights spaced out on both sides of the runway, indicating the edge. Some airports have more complicated lighting on the runways including lights that run down the centerline of the runway and lights that help indicate the approach (an approach lighting system, or ALS). Low-traffic airports may use pilot controlled lighting to save electricity and staffing costs.
What includes debris and nesting birds?
573095a62461fd1900a9cec5
Hazards to aircraft
0
False
What is one part of runway maintenance that helps maintain friction levels?
573095a62461fd1900a9cec6
airfield rubber removal
169
False
In adverse weather conditions, what can be used to improve traction on the landing strip?
573095a62461fd1900a9cec7
ice and snow clearing equipment
433
False
environmental conditions such as ice, snow, or rain
86
What is one hazard to nesting birds?
5a4ea42b755ab9001a10f55f
True
airfield rubber removal
169
What helps maintain environmental conditions?
5a4ea42b755ab9001a10f560
True
so that loose material does not become a projectile and enter an engine duct
296
Why must the field be kept clear of nesting birds?
5a4ea42b755ab9001a10f561
True
ice and snow clearing equipment
433
What helps improve traction on airfield rubber?
5a4ea42b755ab9001a10f562
True
waiting aircraft
523
For what kind of aircraft is deicing fluid sprayed on the airfield?
5a4ea42b755ab9001a10f563
True
Hazards to aircraft include debris, nesting birds, and reduced friction levels due to environmental conditions such as ice, snow, or rain. Part of runway maintenance is airfield rubber removal which helps maintain friction levels. The fields must be kept clear of debris using cleaning equipment so that loose material does not become a projectile and enter an engine duct (see foreign object damage). In adverse weather conditions, ice and snow clearing equipment can be used to improve traction on the landing strip. For waiting aircraft, equipment is used to spray special deicing fluids on the wings.
What pulls the aircraft to one of the airbridges?
57309634069b5314008321af
tow tractor
56
False
What keeps the electricity running in the plane when it stands at the terminal?
57309634069b5314008321b0
ground power unit
117
False
The passengers disembark using what?
57309634069b5314008321b1
airbridge
362
False
What can give the ground crew more clearance after the aircraft lands?
57309634069b5314008321b2
Mobile stairs
373
False
How long should it take for an aircraft to be off the airport and in the air?
57309634069b5314008321b3
90 minutes
1645
False
the electricity
288
What do engines generate when planes are standing at the terminal?
5a4ea64baf0d07001ae8cb94
True
the airbridge
358
Where do the ground crew disembark from?
5a4ea64baf0d07001ae8cb95
True
the awkwardly shaped, or late luggage
1397
What does the ground crew use the skybridge to bring in after its pushed on one of the tractor dollies?
5a4ea64baf0d07001ae8cb96
True
tow tractor
56
What pulls an airbridge to the aircraft?
5a4ea64baf0d07001ae8cb97
True
in 90 minutes
1642
When should the ground crew be done removing luggage?
5a4ea64baf0d07001ae8cb98
True
Many ground crew at the airport work at the aircraft. A tow tractor pulls the aircraft to one of the airbridges, The ground power unit is plugged in. It keeps the electricity running in the plane when it stands at the terminal. The engines are not working, therefore they do not generate the electricity, as they do in flight. The passengers disembark using the airbridge. Mobile stairs can give the ground crew more access to the aircraft's cabin. There is a cleaning service to clean the aircraft after the aircraft lands. Flight catering provides the food and drinks on flights. A toilet waste truck removes the human waste from the tank which holds the waste from the toilets in the aircraft. A water truck fills the water tanks of the aircraft. A fuel transfer vehicle transfers aviation fuel from fuel tanks underground, to the aircraft tanks. A tractor and its dollies bring in luggage from the terminal to the aircraft. They also carry luggage to the terminal if the aircraft has landed, and is being unloaded. Hi-loaders lift the heavy luggage containers to the gate of the cargo hold. The ground crew push the luggage containers into the hold. If it has landed, they rise, the ground crew push the luggage container on the hi-loader, which carries it down. The luggage container is then pushed on one of the tractors dollies. The conveyor, which is a conveyor belt on a truck, brings in the awkwardly shaped, or late luggage. The airbridge is used again by the new passengers to embark the aircraft. The tow tractor pushes the aircraft away from the terminal to a taxi area. The aircraft should be off of the airport and in the air in 90 minutes. The airport charges the airline for the time the aircraft spends at the airport.
An airfield is also referred to as what?
573096972461fd1900a9cecb
airbase
3
False
What provides basing and support of military aircraft?
573096972461fd1900a9cecc
airbase
3
False
Where is RAF Brize Norton located?
573096972461fd1900a9cecd
the UK
250
False
Where is Bardufoss Air Station located?
573096972461fd1900a9cece
Norway
605
False
Where is Pune Airport located?
573096972461fd1900a9cecf
India
632
False
an air station or airfield
37
What is a terminal also referred to as?
5a4ea835af0d07001ae8cb9e
True
basing and support of military aircraft
74
What does a terminal provide?
5a4ea835af0d07001ae8cb9f
True
passengers for the Royal Air Force's scheduled TriStar flights to the Falkland Islands
288
What kind of passengers do the Pune Airport in the UK cater to?
5a4ea835af0d07001ae8cba0
True
the same ATC facilities, runways, taxiways and emergency services
437
What does the RAF Brize Norton in India share with a civilian airport?
5a4ea835af0d07001ae8cba1
True
the Falkland Islands
354
Where do Prune Airport's TriStar flights go to?
5a4ea835af0d07001ae8cba2
True
An airbase, sometimes referred to as an air station or airfield, provides basing and support of military aircraft. Some airbases, known as military airports, provide facilities similar to their civilian counterparts. For example, RAF Brize Norton in the UK has a terminal which caters to passengers for the Royal Air Force's scheduled TriStar flights to the Falkland Islands. Some airbases are co-located with civilian airports, sharing the same ATC facilities, runways, taxiways and emergency services, but with separate terminals, parking areas and hangars. Bardufoss Airport , Bardufoss Air Station in Norway and Pune Airport in India are examples of this.
What is the title of the film where a man becomes permanently grounded in an airport terminal?
573096e32461fd1900a9ced5
The Terminal
241
False
When was the movie Airport made?
573096e32461fd1900a9ced6
1970
492
False
When was the movie Final Destination released?
573096e32461fd1900a9ced7
2000
605
False
(1970)
491
In what year was the Langoliers made?
5a4eab0baf0d07001ae8cbb2
True
The Amazing Race
755
What movie is about a man who is trapped in a race to an airport terminal from 1970?
5a4eab0baf0d07001ae8cbb3
True
Lost, The Amazing Race, America's Next Top Model, Cycle 10
749
What tv shows have surviving on food and shelter provided by an airport a main theme?
5a4eab0baf0d07001ae8cbb4
True
due to their very nature as a transport and international hub
66
Why did Good Will Hunting use a certain airport as an image of survival in 2000?
5a4eab0baf0d07001ae8cbb5
True
(2000)
604
In what year was Get Shorty released?
5a4eab0baf0d07001ae8cbb6
True
Airports have played major roles in films and television programs due to their very nature as a transport and international hub, and sometimes because of distinctive architectural features of particular airports. One such example of this is The Terminal, a film about a man who becomes permanently grounded in an airport terminal and must survive only on the food and shelter provided by the airport. They are also one of the major elements in movies such as The V.I.P.s, Airplane!, Airport (1970), Die Hard 2, Soul Plane, Jackie Brown, Get Shorty, Home Alone, Liar Liar, Passenger 57, Final Destination (2000), Unaccompanied Minors, Catch Me If You Can, Rendition and The Langoliers. They have also played important parts in television series like Lost, The Amazing Race, America's Next Top Model, Cycle 10 which have significant parts of their story set within airports. In other programmes and films, airports are merely indicative of journeys, e.g. Good Will Hunting.
Landside, where can filming take place?
57309733396df919000961dc
all public areas
142
False
What are the only airside locations where filming is allowed?
57309733396df919000961dd
Departure Lounge and some outside areas
270
False
What can not be undertaken n Security, at Immigration/Customs or in Baggage Reclaim?
57309733396df919000961de
Filming
503
False
welcome filming
14
How do most passengers feel about filming?
5a4eaf6baf0d07001ae8cbc4
True
a fee
99
What must you pay to film in Baggage Reclaim?
5a4eaf6baf0d07001ae8cbc5
True
the Departure Lounge and some outside areas
266
What visitor locations permit filming with a fee?
5a4eaf6baf0d07001ae8cbc6
True
all visitors must go through security, the same as passengers, and be accompanied by a full airside pass holder and have their passport with them at all times
343
What must all visitors do when there is filming in landside areas?
5a4eaf6baf0d07001ae8cbc7
True
must be agreed in advance
51
What must you do to film in Security, at Immigration/Customs and Baggage Reclaim?
5a4eaf6baf0d07001ae8cbc8
True
Most airports welcome filming on site, although it must be agreed in advance and may be subject to a fee. Landside, filming can take place in all public areas. However airside, filming is heavily restricted, the only airside locations where filming is permitted are the Departure Lounge and some outside areas. To film in an airside location, all visitors must go through security, the same as passengers, and be accompanied by a full airside pass holder and have their passport with them at all times. Filming can not be undertaken in Security, at Immigration/Customs, or in Baggage Reclaim.
Kievan_Rus%27
What year was Kievan Rus became a territory?
573084818ab72b1400f9c542
882
34
False
Who was the ruler at the begining of Kievan?
573084818ab72b1400f9c543
Prince Oleg
46
False
Who achieve the first major expansion of Kievan?
573084818ab72b1400f9c544
Kiev. Sviatoslav I
242
False
Which ruler introduced Christianity in Kievan Rus?
573084818ab72b1400f9c545
Vladimir the Great
397
False
What did Yaroslav sons achieve  during his time in Keivan Rus?
573084818ab72b1400f9c546
issued its first written legal code
629
False
882–912
34
What years did Prince Oleg reign?
5acff5d877cf76001a68663c
True
south along the Dnieper river valley
98
Which way did Prince Oleg extend his rule?
5acff5d877cf76001a68663d
True
Sviatoslav I
248
Who achieved the first minor expansion of Kievan?
5acff5d877cf76001a68663e
True
Vladimir the Great
397
Which ruler introduced Islam in Kievan Rus?
5acff5d877cf76001a68663f
True
issued its first written legal code
629
What did Yaroslav daughters achieve during his time Keivan Rus?
5acff5d877cf76001a686640
True
Kievan Rus' begins with the rule (882–912) of Prince Oleg, who extended his control from Novgorod south along the Dnieper river valley in order to protect trade from Khazar incursions from the east and moved his capital to the more strategic Kiev. Sviatoslav I (died 972) achieved the first major expansion of Kievan Rus' territorial control, fighting a war of conquest against the Khazar Empire. Vladimir the Great (980–1015) introduced Christianity with his own baptism and, by decree, that of all the inhabitants of Kiev and beyond. Kievan Rus' reached its greatest extent under Yaroslav I (1019–1054); his sons assembled and issued its first written legal code, the Rus' Justice, shortly after his death.
When was the term Kievan Rus first coined?
5730855c396df91900096174
19th century
73
False
When did the term Kievan Rus first appear in English?
5730855c396df91900096175
1913
252
False
Who first translated the term Kievan Rus into english from russian?
5730855c396df91900096176
Vasily Klyuchevsky
280
False
Kievan Rus
10
What was invented in the 19th century?
5acff6bf77cf76001a68666e
True
1913
252
When did the term Kievan Rus first appear in Russia?
5acff6bf77cf76001a68666f
True
Vasily Klyuchevsky
280
Who first wrote the term Kievan Rus into english from russian?
5acff6bf77cf76001a686670
True
successor states
359
What type of cities were also known as Rus?
5acff6bf77cf76001a686671
True
The term "Kievan Rus'" (Ки́евская Русь Kievskaya Rus’) was coined in the 19th century in Russian historiography to refer to the period when the centre was in Kiev. In English, the term was introduced in the early 20th century, when it was found in the 1913 English translation of Vasily Klyuchevsky's A History of Russia, to distinguish the early polity from successor states, which were also named Rus. Later, the Russian term was rendered into Belarusian and Ukrainian as Кіеўская Русь Kijeŭskaja Rus’ and Ки́ївська Русь Kyivs'ka Rus’, respectively.
Who populated the area between the Baltic Sea and the Black sea before Kievan Rus?
5730878f2461fd1900a9ce8f
Slavic tribes
144
False
Where were the Limen Slavs located before Kievan Rus?
5730878f2461fd1900a9ce90
Novgorod
189
False
Where was the Finnic Chud Tripe located curing this time period?
5730878f2461fd1900a9ce91
Ladoga and Karelia regions
366
False
Which tribe resided in the south?
5730878f2461fd1900a9ce92
Poliane
470
False
the lands between the Baltic Sea and Black Sea
61
Which lands were primarily populated by western Slavic tribes?
5acff7c077cf76001a68669e
True
Novgorod
189
Where were the Limen Slavs located after Kievan Rus?
5acff7c077cf76001a68669f
True
Ilmen Slavs and neighboring Krivichi
207
Who occupied the headwaters of the East Dvina?
5acff7c077cf76001a6866a0
True
Finnic Chud tribe
403
Which tribe resided in the northwest?
5acff7c077cf76001a6866a1
True
Poliane
470
Which tribe resided in the southeast?
5acff7c077cf76001a6866a2
True
Prior to the emergence of Kievan Rus' in the 9th century AD, the lands between the Baltic Sea and Black Sea were primarily populated by eastern Slavic tribes. In the northern region around Novgorod were the Ilmen Slavs and neighboring Krivichi, who occupied territories surrounding the headwaters of the West Dvina, Dnieper, and Volga Rivers. To their north, in the Ladoga and Karelia regions, were the Finnic Chud tribe. In the south, in the area around Kiev, were the Poliane, a group of Slavicized tribes with Iranian origins, the Drevliane to the west of the Dnieper, and the Severiane to the east. To their north and east were the Vyatichi, and to their south was forested land settled by Slav farmers, giving way to steppelands populated by nomadic herdsmen.
What controversy currently surrounds the Rus?
573089b78ab72b1400f9c560
whether the Rus’ were Varangians (Vikings) or Slavs
26
False
What were the "Rus" accourding to the "Normanist"?
573089b78ab72b1400f9c561
Scandinavians
451
False
What did the Russians beleive the Rus were?
573089b78ab72b1400f9c562
Slavs
563
False
whether the Rus’ were Varangians (Vikings) or Slavs
26
Which controversy surrounded the Rus in the past?
5acff92a77cf76001a6866b2
True
whether the Rus’ were Varangians (Vikings) or Slavs
26
What certainty was largely to contemporary sources/
5acff92a77cf76001a6866b3
True
Slavs
563
What did the Russian believe the Rus were not?
5acff92a77cf76001a6866b4
True
Russian Primary Chronicle
650
What account was written in the 1200's?
5acff92a77cf76001a6866b5
True
Scandinavians
1231
Who formed a majority of the elite ruling class?
5acff92a77cf76001a6866b6
True
Controversy persists over whether the Rus’ were Varangians (Vikings) or Slavs. This uncertainty is due largely to a paucity of contemporary sources. Attempts to address this question instead rely on archaeological evidence, the accounts of foreign observers, legends and literature from centuries later. To some extent the controversy is related to the foundation myths of modern states in the region. According to the "Normanist" view, the Rus' were Scandinavians, while Russian and Ukrainian nationalist historians generally argue that the Rus' were themselves Slavs. Normanist theories focus on the earliest written source for the East Slavs, the Russian Primary Chronicle, although even this account was not produced until the 12th century. Nationalist accounts have suggested that the Rus' were present before the arrival of the Varangians, noting that only a handful of Scandinavian words can be found in modern Russian and that Scandinavian names in the early chronicles were soon replaced by Slavic names. Nevertheless, archaeological evidence from the area suggests that a Scandinavian population was present during the 10th century at the latest. On balance, it seems likely that the Rus' proper were a small minority of Scandinavians who formed an elite ruling class, while the great majority of their subjects were Slavs. Considering the linguistic arguments mounted by nationalist scholars, if the proto-Rus' were Scandinavians, they must have quickly become nativized, adopting Slavic languages and other cultural practices.
Which early traveler provided an early description of the Rus?
57308b138ab72b1400f9c566
Ahmad ibn Fadlan
0
False
What did Ahmad say about the Rus when he described clothing?
57308b138ab72b1400f9c567
garments that only cover half of his body
259
False
Which historian refered to the Rus as "Scythians"?
57308b138ab72b1400f9c568
Leo the Deacon
779
False
Ahmad ibn Fadlan
0
Which late traveler provided a description of the Rus?
5acffa5077cf76001a6866c4
True
garments
259
What covered the majority of the Rus's body?
5acffa5077cf76001a6866c5
True
Leo the Deacon
779
Which scientist is refered to the Rus as "Scythians'?
5acffa5077cf76001a6866c6
True
Leo the Deacon
779
What Arab historian refered to the Rus as "Scythians'?
5acffa5077cf76001a6866c7
True
rituals and customs
922
What did the Rus adopt that was Roman?
5acffa5077cf76001a6866c8
True
Ahmad ibn Fadlan, an Arab traveler during the 10th century, provided one of the earliest written descriptions of the Rus': "They are as tall as a date palm, blond and ruddy, so that they do not need to wear a tunic nor a cloak; rather the men among them wear garments that only cover half of his body and leaves one of his hands free." Liutprand of Cremona, who was twice an envoy to the Byzantine court (949 and 968), identifies the "Russi" with the Norse ("the Russi, whom we call Norsemen by another name") but explains the name as a Greek term referring to their physical traits ("A certain people made up of a part of the Norse, whom the Greeks call [...] the Russi on account of their physical features, we designate as Norsemen because of the location of their origin."). Leo the Deacon, a 10th-century Byzantine historian and chronicler, refers to the Rus' as "Scythians" and notes that they tended to adopt Greek rituals and customs.
Which two groups were divided inn the territories of the East Slavs?
5730de3fb54a4f140068ccb4
Varangians and the Khazars
114
False
In what year did the Varangians impose tribute from the Slavic and Finnic?
5730de3fb54a4f140068ccb5
859
227
False
In what year did the Slavic and Finnic tribes rebel againts the Varangians?
5730de3fb54a4f140068ccb6
862
235
False
Varangians and the Khazars
114
Which two groups were divided between the territories of the West Slavs?
5acffb4b77cf76001a6866de
True
the Primary Chronicle
13
What was written in the 9th century?
5acffb4b77cf76001a6866df
True
862
235
What year did the Slavic and Finnic tribes join the Varagians?
5acffb4b77cf76001a6866e0
True
Varangians
314
Who did the Finnic and Slavic tribes offer tribute to in 862?
5acffb4b77cf76001a6866e1
True
862
235
What year did the Varangians begin to rule the innic and Slavic tribes?
5acffb4b77cf76001a6866e2
True
According to the Primary Chronicle, the territories of the East Slavs in the 9th century were divided between the Varangians and the Khazars. The Varangians are first mentioned imposing tribute from Slavic and Finnic tribes in 859. In 862, the Finnic and Slavic tribes in the area of Novgorod rebelled against the Varangians, driving them "back beyond the sea and, refusing them further tribute, set out to govern themselves." The tribes had no laws, however, and soon began to make war with one another, prompting them to invite the Varangians back to rule them and bring peace to the region:
What were the names of the three brothers that rulled Novgotod, Beloozero, and Izborsk?
5730df1ab54a4f140068ccba
Rurik, Sineus, and Truvor
19
False
Whoch of the three brothers become the sole ruller over all three of the teritories?
5730df1ab54a4f140068ccbb
Rurik
149
False
What was the name of the small city on the hill that was discovered by Rurik's men?
5730df1ab54a4f140068ccbc
Kiev
410
False
Rurik, Sineus, and Truvor
19
What were the names of the three sisters that ruled Novgorod, Beloozero, and Izborsk?
5acffc8b77cf76001a6866f2
True
Rurik
149
Which of the three sisters became the sole ruler over all three of the territories?
5acffc8b77cf76001a6866f3
True
Sineus, and Truvor
26
Which two sisters died?
5acffc8b77cf76001a6866f4
True
Kiev
410
What was the name of the large city on the hill that was discovered by Rurik's men?
5acffc8b77cf76001a6866f5
True
Askold and Dir
271
What two women asked for permission to go to Tsargrad?
5acffc8b77cf76001a6866f6
True
The three brothers—Rurik, Sineus, and Truvor—established themselves in Novgorod, Beloozero, and Izborsk, respectively. Two of the brothers died, and Rurik became the sole ruler of the territory and progenitor of the Rurik Dynasty. A short time later, two of Rurik’s men, Askold and Dir, asked him for permission to go to Tsargrad (Constantinople). On their way south, they discovered "a small city on a hill," Kiev, captured it and the surrounding country from the Khazars, populated the region with more Varangians, and "established their dominion over the country of the Polyanians."
Between what years did Askold and Dir continued to attack Kiev?
5730e0b8b54a4f140068ccc0
863–66
104
False
What did the attack between Rus and Byzantines lead to?
5730e0b8b54a4f140068ccc1
Patriarch to send missionaries north to engage
732
False
Wat was the purpose of the Patriarch when they were sent north?
5730e0b8b54a4f140068ccc2
to convert the Rus' and the Slavs.
791
False
The Chronicle
0
What was written in 863?
5acffdc677cf76001a68670c
True
863–66
104
What years did Askold and Dir make peace with Kiev?
5acffdc677cf76001a68670d
True
convert the Rus' and the Slavs
794
What was was the purpose of the Patriarch when they were sent south?
5acffdc677cf76001a68670e
True
universal
270
What did type of devastation did Patriarch Photius write about the suburbs?
5acffdc677cf76001a68670f
True
The Rus
411
Who immediately attacked the city?
5acffdc677cf76001a686710
True
The Chronicle reports that Askold and Dir continued to Constantinople with a navy to attack the city in 863–66, catching the Byzantines by surprise and ravaging the surrounding area, though other accounts date the attack in 860. Patriarch Photius vividly describes the "universal" devastation of the suburbs and nearby islands, and another account further details the destruction and slaughter of the invasion. The Rus' turned back before attacking the city itself, due either to a storm dispersing their boats, the return of the Emperor, or in a later account, due to a miracle after a ceremonial appeal by the Patriarch and the Emperor to the Virgin. The attack was the first encounter between the Rus' and Byzantines and led the Patriarch to send missionaries north to engage and attempt to convert the Rus' and the Slavs.
When did Ruik past away?
5730f58e05b4da19006bcc98
879
44
False
When Rurik past away, who took over?
5730f58e05b4da19006bcc99
Prince Oleg
89
False
Who declared Kiev "The mother of Rus citis'?
5730f58e05b4da19006bcc9a
Prince Oleg
89
False
What year did Oleg conquer the Drevlians?
5730f58e05b4da19006bcc9b
883
525
False
Rurik
0
Who died in the 800's?
5acffeaa77cf76001a68672a
True
Prince Oleg
89
Who killed Rrik and claimed his kingdom?
5acffeaa77cf76001a68672b
True
Prince Oleg
89
Who wrote that Kiev was "The mother of Rus cities"?
5acffeaa77cf76001a68672c
True
Drevlians
547
Who did Oleg conquer in the 800's?
5acffeaa77cf76001a68672d
True
Oleg
719
Who peaceably asked the Drevlians for a fur tribute?
5acffeaa77cf76001a68672e
True
Rurik led the Rus' until his death in about 879, bequeathing his kingdom to his kinsman, Prince Oleg, as regent for his young son, Igor. In 880-82, Oleg led a military force south along the Dnieper river, capturing Smolensk and Lyubech before reaching Kiev, where he deposed and killed Askold and Dir, proclaimed himself prince, and declared Kiev the "mother of Rus' cities." Oleg set about consolidating his power over the surrounding region and the riverways north to Novgorod, imposing tribute on the East Slav tribes. In 883, he conquered the Drevlians, imposing a fur tribute on them. By 885 he had subjugated the Poliane, Severiane, Vyatichi, and Radimichs, forbidding them to pay further tribute to the Khazars. Oleg continued to develop and expand a network of Rus' forts in Slav lands, begun by Rurik in the north.
Why did the Kievan state prosper?
573104be497a881900248af9
abundant supply of furs, beeswax, honey, and slaves for export
42
False
How many trade routes did the Kievan state control?
573104be497a881900248afa
three
132
False
Which route was a central post in Kiev?
573104be497a881900248afb
Dnieper route
695
False
What other means of pay when purchasing items may have been in place?
573104be497a881900248afc
money-lending system
1125
False
abundant supply of furs, beeswax, honey, and slaves for export
42
What made the Kievan state deteriorate?
5acfffd077cf76001a686734
True
three
132
How many minor trade routes did the Kievan state control?
5acfffd077cf76001a686735
True
Trade
449
What was moved north on a network of rivers and short portages along the Dnieper?
5acfffd077cf76001a686736
True
Kiev
658
What was the hub in the north-south overland trade route?
5acfffd077cf76001a686737
True
The new Kievan state prospered due to its abundant supply of furs, beeswax, honey, and slaves for export, and because it controlled three main trade routes of Eastern Europe. In the north, Novgorod served as a commercial link between the Baltic Sea and the Volga trade route to the lands of the Volga Bulgars, the Khazars, and across the Caspian Sea as far as Baghdad, providing access to markets and products from Central Asia and the Middle East. Trade from the Baltic also moved south on a network of rivers and short portages along the Dnieper known as the "route from the Varangians to the Greeks," continuing to the Black Sea and on to Constantinople. Kiev was a central outpost along the Dnieper route and a hub with the east-west overland trade route between the Khazars and the Germanic lands of Central Europe. These commercial connections enriched Rus' merchants and princes, funding military forces and the construction of churches, palaces, fortifications, and further towns. Demand for luxury goods fostered production of expensive jewelry and religious wares, allowing their export, and an advanced credit and money-lending system may have also been in place.
What led to constant problems with the Khazars?
5731075905b4da19006bccee
rapid expansion of the Rus' to the south
4
False
Which area did the Khazars rule over?
5731075905b4da19006bccef
Black Sea steppe
173
False
Who were allies with the Khazars?
5731075905b4da19006bccf0
Byzantine Empire
254
False
Who were common enimies to both the Khazars and Byzantine Empire?
5731075905b4da19006bccf1
Persians and Arabs
279
False
rapid expansion of the Rus' to the south
4
What led to intermittent problems for the Khazars?
5ad0043f77cf76001a686760
True
Rus
27
Who had rapid expand to the north?
5ad0043f77cf76001a686761
True
Black Sea steppe
173
Which area did the Khazars relinquish?
5ad0043f77cf76001a686762
True
Khazars
151
Who ruled the Black Sea steppe during the 800's?
5ad0043f77cf76001a686763
True
Persians and Arabs
279
Who were the common allies to both the Khazarsand the Byzantine Empire?
5ad0043f77cf76001a686764
True
The rapid expansion of the Rus' to the south led to conflict and volatile relationships with the Khazars and other neighbors on the Pontic steppe. The Khazars dominated the Black Sea steppe during the 8th century, trading and frequently allying with the Byzantine Empire against Persians and Arabs. In the late 8th century, the collapse of the Göktürk Khaganate led the Magyars and the Pechenegs, Ugric and Turkic peoples from Central Asia, to migrate west into the steppe region, leading to military conflict, disruption of trade, and instability within the Khazar Khaganate. The Rus' and Slavs had earlier allied with the Khazars against Arab raids on the Caucasus, but they increasingly worked against them to secure control of the trade routes.
What did the Byzantine empire use to expand its political influence?
5731090ca5e9cc1400cdbbb9
turmoil
55
False
What teritory did the Byzantine empire hit first with their political beliefs?
5731090ca5e9cc1400cdbbba
Khazars
142
False
What did the Byzantines help the Khazars with?
5731090ca5e9cc1400cdbbbb
build a fortress at Sarkel
575
False
the Theme of Cherson
226
What was established in the 800's?
5ad005de77cf76001a686774
True
the Theme of Cherson,
226
What was written in 830?
5ad005de77cf76001a686775
True
vital grain shipments
352
What was being protected in the 800's?
5ad005de77cf76001a686776
True
build a fortress at Sarkel
575
What did the Byzantines refuse to help the Khazars with?
5ad005de77cf76001a686777
True
Cherson
400
What served as a minor diplomatic link with the Khazars and others?
5ad005de77cf76001a686778
True
The Byzantine Empire was able to take advantage of the turmoil to expand its political influence and commercial relationships, first with the Khazars and later with the Rus' and other steppe groups. The Byzantines established the Theme of Cherson, formally known as Klimata, in the Crimea in the 830s to defend against raids by the Rus' and to protect vital grain shipments supplying Constantinople. Cherson also served as a key diplomatic link with the Khazars and others on the steppe, and it became the centre of Black Sea commerce. The Byzantines also helped the Khazars build a fortress at Sarkel on the Don river to protect their northwest frontier against incursions by the Turkic migrants and the Rus', and to control caravan trade routes and the portage between the Don and Volga rivers.
What led to Khazar having to put more strain on its military?
57310bd705b4da19006bcd22
expansion of the Rus
4
False
Who led the war on Dniester and Dnieper?
57310bd705b4da19006bcd23
Oleg
153
False
What year were the Magyars and Pechenges drug into the war?
57310bd705b4da19006bcd24
894
362
False
What year did the Rus raid Baku, Gilan,Mazandaran, and Caucasus?
57310bd705b4da19006bcd25
913
1135
False
expansion of the Rus
4
What led to Khazar having to put less strain on its military?
5ad006ac77cf76001a686788
True
Oleg
153
Who waged a decisive war in 890?
5ad006ac77cf76001a686789
True
the Magyars and Pechenegs
367
Who had a peaceful alliance with the Byzantines and Bulgarian Empires?
5ad006ac77cf76001a68678a
True
The Byzantines
467
Who arranged for Magyars to attack Bulgarian territory to the south?
5ad006ac77cf76001a68678b
True
the Magyars
647
Who was forced to migrate further east?
5ad006ac77cf76001a68678c
True
The expansion of the Rus' put further military and economic pressure on the Khazars, depriving them of territory, tributaries, and trade. In around 890, Oleg waged an indecisive war in the lands of the lower Dniester and Dnieper rivers with the Tivertsi and the Ulichs, who were likely acting as vassals of the Magyars, blocking Rus' access to the Black Sea. In 894, the Magyars and Pechenegs were drawn into the wars between the Byzantines and the Bulgarian Empire. The Byzantines arranged for the Magyars to attack Bulgarian territory from the north, and Bulgaria in turn persuaded the Pechenegs to attack the Magyars from their rear. Boxed in, the Magyars were forced to migrate further west across the Carpathian Mountains into the Hungarian plain, depriving the Khazars of an important ally and a buffer from the Rus'. The migration of the Magyars allowed Rus' access to the Black Sea, and they soon launched excursions into Khazar territory along the sea coast, up the Don river, and into the lower Volga region. The Rus' were raiding and plundering into the Caspian Sea region from 864, with the first large-scale expedition in 913, when they extensively raided Baku, Gilan, Mazandaran and penetrated into the Caucasus.
Around what time did the Khazars unable to no longer command tribute from Volga?
57310d3fe6313a140071cbbc
10th century
7
False
Who did the Byzantium ally with against the Khazar's?
57310d3fe6313a140071cbbd
Pechenegs
206
False
What did the Pechenges trade with the Rus?
57310d3fe6313a140071cbbe
livestock
555
False
the Khazars
32
Who was able to command tribute in the 10th century?
5ad0077f77cf76001a68679a
True
the Byzantines deteriorated
135
Whose relationship with Khazars improved?
5ad0077f77cf76001a68679b
True
Primary Chronicle
826
What was written in 915?
5ad0077f77cf76001a68679c
True
agricultural goods and other products
601
What did the Pechenges refuse to trade with the Rus?
5ad0077f77cf76001a68679d
True
Pecheneg
711
Who was making peace with the Rus in 920?
5ad0077f77cf76001a68679e
True
As the 10th century progressed, the Khazars were no longer able to command tribute from the Volga Bulgars, and their relationship with the Byzantines deteriorated, as Byzantium increasingly allied with the Pechenegs against them. The Pechenegs were thus secure to raid the lands of the Khazars from their base between the Volga and Don rivers, allowing them to expand to the west. Rus' relations with the Pechenegs were complex, as the groups alternately formed alliances with and against one another. The Pechenegs were nomads roaming the steppe raising livestock which they traded with the Rus' for agricultural goods and other products. The lucrative Rus' trade with the Byzantine Empire had to pass through Pecheneg-controlled territory, so the need for generally peaceful relations was essential. Nevertheless, while the Primary Chronicle reports the Pechenegs entering Rus' territory in 915 and then making peace, they were waging war with one another again in 920. Pechenegs are reported assisting the Rus' in later campaigns against the Byzantines, yet allied with the Byzantines against the Rus' at other times.
In what year did the Rus attack Constantinople?
57310ec3e6313a140071cbc2
860
43
False
What had Prince Rastislav requested?
57310ec3e6313a140071cbc3
provide teachers
196
False
What did Cyril and Mehodius come up with to help with the issue of the Slaves not having a written language?
57310ec3e6313a140071cbc4
devised the Glagolitic alphabet
417
False
In what year did the Rus accept a bishop?
57310ec3e6313a140071cbc5
867
913
False
Patriarch Photius
62
Who sent missionaries south?
5ad0085c77cf76001a6867b6
True
The Slavs
366
Who had a written language?
5ad0085c77cf76001a6867b7
True
Cyril and Methodius
270
Who wrote the Glagolitic alphabet in 863?
5ad0085c77cf76001a6867b8
True
867
913
What year was the Byzantine cultural influence spread?
5ad0085c77cf76001a6867b9
True
867
913
What year did Rus accept a pope?
5ad0085c77cf76001a6867ba
True
After the Rus' attack on Constantinople in 860, the Byzantine Patriarch Photius sent missionaries north to convert the Rus' and the Slavs. Prince Rastislav of Moravia had requested the Emperor to provide teachers to interpret the holy scriptures, so in 863 the brothers Cyril and Methodius were sent as missionaries, due to their knowledge of the Slavonic language. The Slavs had no written language, so the brothers devised the Glagolitic alphabet, later developed into Cyrillic, and standardized the language of the Slavs, later known as Old Church Slavonic. They translated portions of the Bible and drafted the first Slavic civil code and other documents, and the language and texts spread throughout Slavic territories, including Kievan Rus’. The mission of Cyril and Methodius served both evangelical and diplomatic purposes, spreading Byzantine cultural influence in support of imperial foreign policy. In 867 the Patriarch announced that the Rus' had accepted a bishop, and in 874 he speaks of an "Archbishop of the Rus'."
When did the relations between the Rus and Byzantines start to become more complicated?
5731102ce6313a140071cbd2
after Oleg took control over Kiev
62
False
What were the primary concerns the Rus and Byzantines had with oleg?
5731102ce6313a140071cbd3
commercial, cultural, and military concerns
108
False
When did the Rus attack the Constantinole once again?
5731102ce6313a140071cbd4
907
790
False
trade with Byzantium
209
What was not depended upon for the wealth and income of Rus?
5ad009e877cf76001a6867d0
True
the annual course
269
What did Constantine Porphyrogentus write about concerning the princes of Kiev?
5ad009e877cf76001a6867d1
True
the Rus' attacked Constantinople again
748
What was written about Rus in 907?
5ad009e877cf76001a6867d2
True
907 and 911
1009
What years was the military prowess and shrewdness of Oleg glorified?
5ad009e877cf76001a6867d3
True
Relations between the Rus' and Byzantines became more complex after Oleg took control over Kiev, reflecting commercial, cultural, and military concerns. The wealth and income of the Rus' depended heavily upon trade with Byzantium. Constantine Porphyrogenitus described the annual course of the princes of Kiev, collecting tribute from client tribes, assembling the product into a flotilla of hundreds of boats, conducting them down the Dnieper to the Black Sea, and sailing to the estuary of the Dniester, the Danube delta, and on to Constantinople. On their return trip they would carry silk fabrics, spices, wine, and fruit. The importance of this trade relationship led to military action when disputes arose. The Primary Chronicle reports that the Rus' attacked Constantinople again in 907, probably to secure trade access. The Chronicle glorifies the military prowess and shrewdness of Oleg, an account imbued with legendary detail. Byzantine sources do not mention the attack, but a pair of treaties in 907 and 911 set forth a trade agreement with the Rus', the terms suggesting pressure on the Byzantines, who granted the Rus' quarters and supplies for their merchants and tax-free trading privileges in Constantinople.
What known document tells of the death of Oleg?
57311c1005b4da19006bcda8
The Chronicle
0
False
What was prophesised by a sorcerer involving Oleg's death?
57311c1005b4da19006bcda9
certain horse
138
False
What does Oleg do to his horse?
57311c1005b4da19006bcdaa
has the horse sequestered
158
False
WHo succeeded Oleg in 913?
57311c1005b4da19006bcdab
Prince Igor
412
False
The Chronicle
0
What known document tells the birth of Oleg?
5ad00aa277cf76001a6867ea
True
913
442
What year did Oleg die?
5ad00aa277cf76001a6867eb
True
Prince Igor
412
Who conquered and killed Oleg?
5ad00aa277cf76001a6867ec
True
Oleg
434
Who dies in the 913?
5ad00aa277cf76001a6867ed
True
The Chronicle provides a mythic tale of Oleg's death. A sorcerer prophesies that the death of the Grand Prince would be associated with a certain horse. Oleg has the horse sequestered, and it later dies. Oleg goes to visit the horse and stands over the carcass, gloating that he had outlived the threat, when a snake strikes him from among the bones, and he soon becomes ill and dies. The Chronicle reports that Prince Igor succeeded Oleg in 913, and after some brief conflicts with the Drevlians and the Pechenegs, a period of peace ensued for over twenty years.
What year did Igot led a Rus attack on Constantinople?
57311df705b4da19006bcdb0
941
3
False
How large was the fleet that attacked the Bithynian coast along with the Pecheneg allies?
57311df705b4da19006bcdb1
10,000 vessels
108
False
Why did the attack by the Rus go so well on the coast at the start?
57311df705b4da19006bcdb2
Byzantine fleet was occupied with the Arabs
295
False
What did the emperor of Byzatine do to some of the old retired ships to help fight the Rus?
57311df705b4da19006bcdb3
outfitted with Greek fire throwers
567
False
941
3
What year did Oleg make peace with Constantinople?
5ad00bca77cf76001a6867fa
True
10,000
108
How many sailing ships attacked the Bithyian coast?
5ad00bca77cf76001a6867fb
True
Byzantine fleet was occupied with the Arabs
295
Why id the attack by the Rus go so poorly on the coast at the start?
5ad00bca77cf76001a6867fc
True
with Greek fire throwers
577
How was the large group of retired ships outfitted?
5ad00bca77cf76001a6867fd
True
911
1436
What year was the Rus fleet defeated?
5ad00bca77cf76001a6867fe
True
In 941, Igor led another major Rus' attack on Constantinople, probably over trading rights again. A navy of 10,000 vessels, including Pecheneg allies, landed on the Bithynian coast and devastated the Asiatic shore of the Bosphorus. The attack was well-timed, perhaps due to intelligence, as the Byzantine fleet was occupied with the Arabs in the Mediterranean, and the bulk of its army was stationed in the east. The Rus’ burned towns, churches, and monasteries, butchering the people and amassing booty. The emperor arranged for a small group of retired ships to be outfitted with Greek fire throwers and sent them out to meet the Rus’, luring them into surrounding the contingent before unleashing the Greek fire. Liutprand of Cremona wrote that "the Rus', seeing the flames, jumped overboard, preferring water to fire. Some sank, weighed down by the weight of their breastplates and helmets; others caught fire." Those captured were beheaded. The ploy dispelled the Rus’ fleet, but their attacks continued into the hinterland as far as Nicomedia, with many atrocities reported as victims were crucified and set up for use as targets. At last a Byzantine army arrived from the Balkans to drive the Rus' back, and a naval contingent reportedly destroyed much of the Rus' fleet on its return voyage (possibly an exaggeration since the Rus' soon mounted another attack). The outcome indicates increased military might by Byzantium since 911, suggesting a shift in the balance of power.
Where did Igor get warriors from after returning to Kiev after being drivin out by the Byzatines?
57311f58497a881900248b77
Slavs and Pecheneg allies
102
False
When did the Rus return to Byzatine seeking revenge?
57311f58497a881900248b78
944
197
False
IN what year was the peace treaty signed between the Rus,  Byzantine and the Bulgarians.
57311f58497a881900248b79
945
464
False
revenge
31
What was Igor not keen on?
5ad00c7c77cf76001a686804
True
Igor
0
Who dismantled a large force of warriors among the Slav and Pecheneg?
5ad00c7c77cf76001a686805
True
944
197
What year did the Rus force retreat again?
5ad00c7c77cf76001a686806
True
gifts and offered tribute
326
What did the Rus reject from the Emperor?
5ad00c7c77cf76001a686807
True
945
464
What year did the Rus defeat the Byzantines the the Bulgarians?
5ad00c7c77cf76001a686808
True
Igor returned to Kiev keen for revenge. He assembled a large force of warriors from among neighboring Slavs and Pecheneg allies, and sent for reinforcements of Varangians from “beyond the sea.” In 944 the Rus' force advanced again on the Greeks, by land and sea, and a Byzantine force from Cherson responded. The Emperor sent gifts and offered tribute in lieu of war, and the Rus' accepted. Envoys were sent between the Rus’, the Byzantines, and the Bulgarians in 945, and a peace treaty was completed. The agreement again focused on trade, but this time with terms less favorable to the Rus’, including stringent regulations on the conduct of Rus’ merchants in Cherson and Constantinople and specific punishments for violations of the law. The Byzantines may have been motivated to enter the treaty out of concern of a prolonged alliance of the Rus', Pechenegs, and Bulgarians against them, though the more favorable terms further suggest a shift in power.
When did Prince Igor past away?
57312584497a881900248bc3
945
44
False
Who ruled in Prince Oleg's place following his death?
57312584497a881900248bc4
his wife Olga
49
False
In what year did Sviatoslav take over as leader?
57312584497a881900248bc5
963
136
False
Where did Sviatoslav move the capital to?
57312584497a881900248bc6
Pereyaslavets
430
False
963
136
When was Rus marked by rapid expansion?
5ad00de177cf76001a68680e
True
969
461
What year did Sviatoslav's mother convert?
5ad00de177cf76001a68680f
True
Sviatoslav's conquests
626
What was consolidated in functioning empire?
5ad00de177cf76001a686810
True
972
621
What year was Sviatoslav's empire consolidated?
5ad00de177cf76001a686811
True
Following the death of Grand Prince Igor in 945, his wife Olga ruled as regent in Kiev until their son Sviatoslav reached maturity (ca. 963). His decade-long reign over Rus' was marked by rapid expansion through the conquest of the Khazars of the Pontic steppe and the invasion of the Balkans. By the end of his short life, Sviatoslav carved out for himself the largest state in Europe, eventually moving his capital from Kiev to Pereyaslavets on the Danube in 969. In contrast with his mother's conversion to Christianity, Sviatoslav, like his druzhina, remained a staunch pagan. Due to his abrupt death in an ambush in 972, Sviatoslav's conquests, for the most part, were not consolidated into a functioning empire, while his failure to establish a stable succession led to a fratricidal feud among his sons, which resulted in two of his three sons being killed.
What year did Sviatoslav pass away?
57312b47497a881900248bf7
972
178
False
How long did the region of Kiev dominate the State of the Rus?
57312b47497a881900248bf8
two centuries
317
False
What years did Vladimir the Great reign as leader?
57312b47497a881900248bf9
980–1015
576
False
972
178
When was the title of Grand Duke introduced?
5ad00eb677cf76001a686820
True
importance of the Kiev principality
92
What was not recognized after the death of Sviatoslav?
5ad00eb677cf76001a686821
True
972
178
What year was the struggle between Vladimir the Great and Yaropolk I?
5ad00eb677cf76001a686822
True
Kiev
264
What region was not dominated by the state of Kievan Rus?
5ad00eb677cf76001a686823
True
lands around the city
391
Where did the Grand King if Kiev control?
5ad00eb677cf76001a686824
True
It is not clearly documented when the title of the Grand Duke was first introduced, but the importance of the Kiev principality was recognized after the death of Sviatoslav I in 972 and the ensuing struggle between Vladimir the Great and Yaropolk I. The region of Kiev dominated the state of Kievan Rus' for the next two centuries. The Grand Prince ("velikiy kniaz'") of Kiev controlled the lands around the city, and his formally subordinate relatives ruled the other cities and paid him tribute. The zenith of the state's power came during the reigns of Vladimir the Great (980–1015) and Prince Yaroslav I the Wise (1019–1054). Both rulers continued the steady expansion of Kievan Rus' that had begun under Oleg.
What territory was Vladimar Prince of before his father died?
57312d4da5e9cc1400cdbccb
Novgorod
28
False
In 976, where did Vladimir have to flee to?
57312d4da5e9cc1400cdbccc
Scandinavia
104
False
When did the Christianization of Kievan begin?
57312d4da5e9cc1400cdbccd
988
505
False
Who did Vladimir marry that was the sister of the Byzantine emperor?
57312d4da5e9cc1400cdbcce
Princess Anna
1537
False
Novgorod
28
Where did Vladimir live in the 900s?
5ad0101877cf76001a68686e
True
976
119
What year did Yaropolk take control of Scandinavia?
5ad0101877cf76001a68686f
True
988
505
What year did Vladimir reconquer Novgorod?
5ad0101877cf76001a686870
True
valued advisors
686
Who accepted Islam because it prohibited consumption of alcohol?
5ad0101877cf76001a686871
True
988
505
What year did Vladimir marry Princess Anna?
5ad0101877cf76001a686872
True
Vladimir had been prince of Novgorod when his father Sviatoslav I died in 972. He was forced to flee to Scandinavia in 976 after his half-brother Yaropolk had murdered his other brother Oleg and taken control of Rus. In Scandinavia, with the help of his relative Earl Håkon Sigurdsson, ruler of Norway, Vladimir assembled a Viking army and reconquered Novgorod and Kiev from Yaropolk. As Prince of Kiev, Vladimir's most notable achievement was the Christianization of Kievan Rus', a process that began in 988. The Primary Chronicle states that when Vladimir had decided to accept a new faith instead of the traditional idol-worship (paganism) of the Slavs, he sent out some of his most valued advisors and warriors as emissaries to different parts of Europe. They visited the Christians of the Latin Rite, the Jews, and the Muslims before finally arriving in Constantinople. They rejected Islam because, among other things, it prohibited the consumption of alcohol, and Judaism because the god of the Jews had permitted his chosen people to be deprived of their country. They found the ceremonies in the Roman church to be dull. But at Constantinople, they were so astounded by the beauty of the cathedral of Hagia Sophia and the liturgical service held there that they made up their minds there and then about the faith they would like to follow. Upon their arrival home, they convinced Vladimir that the faith of the Byzantine Rite was the best choice of all, upon which Vladimir made a journey to Constantinople and arranged to marry Princess Anna, the sister of Byzantine emperor Basil II.
What was considered too be Kiev's most important route for trade?
5731309ce6313a140071cce8
Dnieper River
200
False
What language did the church write  the liturgy in?
5731309ce6313a140071cce9
Cyrillic
347
False
What did this literature help with that was written in Cyrillic?
5731309ce6313a140071ccea
facilitated the conversion to Christianity
459
False
reflected his close personal ties with Constantinople
56
Why did Vladimir chose Western Christianity?
5ad0112777cf76001a686892
True
Dnieper River
200
What was considered the least important route for trade?
5ad0112777cf76001a686893
True
Cyrillic
347
What language were the corpus of translations translated into?
5ad0112777cf76001a686894
True
the conversion to Christianity
471
What did the literature that was written in Cyrillic not help with?
5ad0112777cf76001a686895
True
their own literature and fine arts
960
What did the West Slavs develop?
5ad0112777cf76001a686896
True
Vladimir's choice of Eastern Christianity may also have reflected his close personal ties with Constantinople, which dominated the Black Sea and hence trade on Kiev's most vital commercial route, the Dnieper River. Adherence to the Eastern Church had long-range political, cultural, and religious consequences. The church had a liturgy written in Cyrillic and a corpus of translations from Greek that had been produced for the Slavic peoples. This literature facilitated the conversion to Christianity of the Eastern Slavs and introduced them to rudimentary Greek philosophy, science, and historiography without the necessity of learning Greek (there were some merchants who did business with Greeks and likely had an understanding of contemporary business Greek). In contrast, educated people in medieval Western and Central Europe learned Latin. Enjoying independence from the Roman authority and free from tenets of Latin learning, the East Slavs developed their own literature and fine arts, quite distinct from those of other Eastern Orthodox countries.[citation needed] (See Old East Slavic language and Architecture of Kievan Rus for details ). Following the Great Schism of 1054, the Rus' church maintained communion with both Rome and Constantinople for some time, but along with most of the Eastern churches it eventually split to follow the Eastern Orthodox. That being said, unlike other parts of the Greek world, Kievan Rus' did not have a strong hostility to the Western world.
What was Yaroslav also known as?
5731320605b4da19006bce88
the Wise
20
False
Who was Yaroslav's father?
5731320605b4da19006bce89
Vladimir the Great
79
False
In what year did Yaroslav become the prince of Kiev?
5731320605b4da19006bce8a
1019
510
False
the Wise
20
What was Yaroslav nor known as?
5ad0124077cf76001a6868ae
True
Yaroslav
0
Who did not struggle for power with his brothers?
5ad0124077cf76001a6868af
True
Yaroslav
0
Who was the daughter of Vladimir the Great?
5ad0124077cf76001a6868b0
True
relations with the rest of Europe
628
What was Yaroslav not eager to improve?
5ad0124077cf76001a6868b1
True
1036
577
What year did Yaroslav's sons develop the Kiev Pechersk Lavra?
5ad0124077cf76001a6868b2
True
Yaroslav, known as "the Wise", struggled for power with his brothers. A son of Vladimir the Great, he was vice-regent of Novgorod at the time of his father's death in 1015. Subsequently, his eldest surviving brother, Svyatopolk the Accursed, killed three of his other brothers and seized power in Kiev. Yaroslav, with the active support of the Novgorodians and the help of Viking mercenaries, defeated Svyatopolk and became the grand prince of Kiev in 1019. Although he first established his rule over Kiev in 1019, he did not have uncontested rule of all of Kievan Rus' until 1036. Like Vladimir, Yaroslav was eager to improve relations with the rest of Europe, especially the Byzantine Empire. Yaroslav's granddaughter, Eupraxia the daughter of his son Vsevolod I, Prince of Kiev, was married to Henry III, Holy Roman Emperor. Yaroslav also arranged marriages for his sister and three daughters to the kings of Poland, France, Hungary and Norway. Yaroslav promulgated the first East Slavic law code, Russkaya Pravda; built Saint Sophia Cathedral in Kiev and Saint Sophia Cathedral in Novgorod; patronized local clergy and monasticism; and is said to have founded a school system. Yaroslav's sons developed the great Kiev Pechersk Lavra (monastery), which functioned in Kievan Rus' as an ecclesiastical academy.
What was the name of the UN-conventional system that was implemented?
5731334105b4da19006bcea0
rota system
59
False
What did the rota system do?
5731334105b4da19006bcea1
power was transferred to the eldest member
80
False
What was often deployed when trying to gain power?
5731334105b4da19006bcea2
Familicide
312
False
rota system
59
What was the name of the conventional system that was implemented?
5ad0131077cf76001a6868d2
True
power was transferred to the eldest member
80
What did the rota system not do?
5ad0131077cf76001a6868d3
True
Familicide
312
What was not deployed when trying to gain power?
5ad0131077cf76001a6868d4
True
Yaroslavichi
420
Who developed familicide?
5ad0131077cf76001a6868d5
True
Vladimir II
521
Who improved relations between the Olegovichi and Monomakhs?
5ad0131077cf76001a6868d6
True
An unconventional power succession system was established (rota system) whereby power was transferred to the eldest member of the ruling dynasty rather than from father to son, i.e. in most cases to the eldest brother of the ruler, fomenting constant hatred and rivalry within the royal family.[citation needed] Familicide was frequently deployed in obtaining power and can be traced particularly during the time of the Yaroslavichi rule (sons of Yaroslav) when the established system was skipped in the establishment of Vladimir II Monomakh as the Grand Prince of Kiev,[clarification needed] in turn creating major squabbles between Olegovichi from Chernihiv, Monomakhs from Pereyaslav, Izyaslavichi from Turov/Volhynia, and Polotsk Princes.[citation needed]
What immediately occurred after Yarsolav the Wise past away?
573134c405b4da19006bceba
conflict
46
False
Who was fighting for Tmutarakan following Yarsolav's death?
573134c405b4da19006bcebb
Rostislav Vladimirovich
217
False
What country did the fleeing Grand Prince run off to?
573134c405b4da19006bcebc
Poland
703
False
Where did the first federal council of Rus take place in 1097?
573134c405b4da19006bcebd
city of Liubech
1048
False
the death of Yaroslav the Wise
74
What did not cause a conflict of power?
5ad013b477cf76001a6868e6
True
Principality of Polotsk
119
Who did not contest the power of the Grand Prince?
5ad013b477cf76001a6868e7
True
Poland
703
What country did the Grand Prince avoid?
5ad013b477cf76001a6868e8
True
1068
474
What year did the Grand Prince return to establish order?
5ad013b477cf76001a6868e9
True
The most prominent struggle for power was the conflict that erupted after the death of Yaroslav the Wise. The rivaling Principality of Polotsk was contesting the power of the Grand Prince by occupying Novgorod, while Rostislav Vladimirovich was fighting for the Black Sea port of Tmutarakan belonging to Chernihiv.[citation needed] Three of Yaroslav's sons that first allied together found themselves fighting each other especially after their defeat to the Cuman forces in 1068 at the Battle of the Alta River. At the same time an uprising took place in Kiev, bringing to power Vseslav of Polotsk who supported the traditional Slavic paganism.[citation needed] The ruling Grand Prince Iziaslav fled to Poland asking for support and in couple of years returned to establish the order.[citation needed] The affairs became even more complicated by the end of the 11th century driving the state into chaos and constant warfare. On the initiative of Vladimir II Monomakh in 1097 the first federal council of Kievan Rus took place near Chernihiv]in the city of Liubech with the main intention to find an understanding among the fighting sides. However even though that did not really stop the fighting, it certainly cooled things off.[citation needed]
What played a major role in the decline of the Rus?
573135b1e6313a140071cd28
decline of Constantinople
4
False
What terriroty did the trade from the Varangians to the Greeks route mainly go through?
573135b1e6313a140071cd29
Byzantine
245
False
Which terrirory was the main power in this trade relatinship?
573135b1e6313a140071cd2a
Kiev
343
False
decline of Constantinople
4
What played a minor rule in the decline of the Rus?
5ad0144977cf76001a686902
True
Constantinople
15
Who was not a major trading partner of Kievan Rus?
5ad0144977cf76001a686903
True
Byzantine
245
What territory did the trade fro Varagians to the Greeks mainly avoid?
5ad0144977cf76001a686904
True
trade route from the Varangians to the Greeks
137
What was not a major cornerstone of Kiev wealth and prosperity?
5ad0144977cf76001a686905
True
Kiev
343
Who was a minor power and minor initiator?
5ad0144977cf76001a686906
True
The decline of Constantinople – a main trading partner of Kievan Rus' – played a significant role in the decline of the Kievan Rus'. The trade route from the Varangians to the Greeks, along which the goods were moving from the Black Sea (mainly Byzantine) through eastern Europe to the Baltic, was a cornerstone of Kiev wealth and prosperity. Kiev was the main power and initiator in this relationship, once the Byzantine Empire fell into turmoil and the supplies became erratic, profits dried out, and Kiev lost its appeal.[citation needed]
Who was the last ruller to keep the region united?
5731365ea5e9cc1400cdbceb
Mstislav the Great
44
False
When did Mstislav die?
5731365ea5e9cc1400cdbcec
1169
327
False
When did the Kievan state break up into twelve seperate principalities?
5731365ea5e9cc1400cdbced
12th century,
587
False
Mstislav the Great
44
Who was the first ruler to keep the region united?
5ad014c577cf76001a686920
True
1132
83
What year did Mstislav the Great unit the region?
5ad014c577cf76001a686921
True
12th century
587
When did the Kievan state unit?
5ad014c577cf76001a686922
True
Kievan state
605
What became less fragmented?
5ad014c577cf76001a686923
True
The last ruler to maintain united state was Mstislav the Great. After his death in 1132 the Kievan Rus' fell into recession and a rapid decline, and Mstislav's successor Yaropolk II of Kiev instead of focussing on the external threat of the Cumans was embroiled in conflicts with the growing power of the Novgorod Republic. In 1169, as the Kievan Rus' state was full of internal conflict, Andrei Bogolyubsky of Vladimir sacked the city of Kiev. The sack of the city fundamentally changed the perception of Kiev and was evidence of the fragmentation of the Kievan Rus'. By the end of the 12th century, the Kievan state became even further fragmented and had been divided into roughly twelve different principalities.
What helped speed up the decline of the Kievan Rus?
57313d9fa5e9cc1400cdbd9b
The Crusades
0
False
In what year did the Crusade sack Constantinople?
57313d9fa5e9cc1400cdbd9c
1204
102
False
What group was attacking the the Baltic Region in 1204?
57313d9fa5e9cc1400cdbd9d
Teutonic Knights
225
False
The Crusades
0
What helped restore the Kievam Rus?
5ad0156177cf76001a686932
True
1204
102
What year did the Kievan Rus go into decline?
5ad0156177cf76001a686933
True
Teutonic Knights
225
What group united the Baltic region in 1204?
5ad0156177cf76001a686934
True
Ruthenian Federation
367
What helped the keep the local Orthodox Christianity of Kievan Rus?
5ad0156177cf76001a686935
True
The Crusades brought a shift in European trade routes that accelerated the decline of Kievan Rus'. In 1204 the forces of the Fourth Crusade sacked Constantinople, making the Dnieper trade route marginal. At the same time the Teutonic Knights (of the Northern Crusades) were conquering the Baltic region and threatening the Lands of Novgorod. Concurrently with it the Ruthenian Federation of Kievan Rus' started to disintegrate into smaller principalities as the Rurik dynasty grew. The local Orthodox Christianity of Kievan Rus', while struggling to establish itself in the predominantly pagan state and losing its main base in Constantinople was on the brink of extinction. Some of the main regional centres that developed later were Novgorod, Chernigov, Galich, Kiev, Ryazan, Vladimir-upon-Klyazma, Vladimir of Volyn and Polotsk.
Why was the Republic of Novgorod doing so well while the Kievan Rus declined?
57313e7f497a881900248cbf
it controlled trade routes
57
False
What happened to Novgorod when Kievan Rus began to decline?
57313e7f497a881900248cc0
became more independent
158
False
In what year did Novgorod aquire its own archbishop?
57313e7f497a881900248cc1
1169
399
False
Republic of Novgorod
18
What prospered in the south?
5ad0161a77cf76001a68694e
True
it controlled trade routes
57
Why was the Republic of Novogorod doing so poorly?
5ad0161a77cf76001a68694f
True
1169
399
What year did Novgorod assign its own archbishop?
5ad0161a77cf76001a686950
True
Novgorod acquired its own archbishop
354
What was a sign of decreased important and political independence?
5ad0161a77cf76001a686951
True
1136
502
When was Novgorad established as a democrat form of government?
5ad0161a77cf76001a686952
True
In the north, the Republic of Novgorod prospered because it controlled trade routes from the River Volga to the Baltic Sea. As Kievan Rus' declined, Novgorod became more independent. A local oligarchy ruled Novgorod; major government decisions were made by a town assembly, which also elected a prince as the city's military leader. In the 12th century, Novgorod acquired its own archbishop Ilya in 1169, a sign of increased importance and political independence, while about 30 years prior to that in 1136 in Novgorod was established a republican form of government - elective monarchy. Since then Novgorod enjoyed a wide degree of autonomy although being closely associated with the Kievan Rus.
The Slavs from Kievan would eventually settle in the North East of the region, What would this region later become?
5731403205b4da19006bcf3a
Grand Duchy of Moscow
99
False
What was the name of the oldest city in the north east?
5731403205b4da19006bcf3b
Rostov
211
False
In what year did the mongol invasion begin?
5731403205b4da19006bcf3c
In 1299
833
False
colonized the territory
47
How did the Slavs form the Grand Duchy of Moscow in the southeast?
5ad0178c77cf76001a686990
True
Rostov
211
What is the youngest centre in the southeast?
5ad0178c77cf76001a686991
True
Kiev
558
What city did Prince Andrey Bogolyuskiy sack in the 12th century?
5ad0178c77cf76001a686992
True
Prince Andrey Bogolyubskiy
493
Who did not take the title of Grand Prince?
5ad0178c77cf76001a686993
True
late 12th century
466
When did Vladimir-Suzdal assert itself as a minor power?
5ad0178c77cf76001a686994
True
In the northeast, Slavs from the Kievan region colonized the territory that later would become the Grand Duchy of Moscow by subjugating and merging with the Finnic tribes already occupying the area. The city of Rostov, the oldest centre of the northeast, was supplanted first by Suzdal and then by the city of Vladimir, which become the capital of Vladimir-Suzdal'. The combined principality of Vladimir-Suzdal asserted itself as a major power in Kievan Rus' in the late 12th century. In 1169 Prince Andrey Bogolyubskiy of Vladimir-Suzdal sacked the city of Kiev and took over the title of the (Великий Князь/Velikiy Knyaz/Grand Prince or Grand Duke) to Vladimir, this way claiming the primacy in Rus'. Prince Andrey then installed his younger brother, who ruled briefly in Kiev while Andrey continued to rule his realm from Suzdal. In 1299, in the wake of the Mongol invasion, the metropolitan moved from Kiev to the city of Vladimir and Vladimir-Suzdal.
Which neighbors did Halych develop trade relations with?
5731417005b4da19006bcf5e
Polish, Hungarian and Lithuanian
84
False
Who united the two previously separated principalities?
5731417005b4da19006bcf5f
Prince Roman Mstislavich
188
False
In what year did Mstislavich defeat the Kiev?
5731417005b4da19006bcf60
1202
267
False
Who became metropolitan in 1370?
5731417005b4da19006bcf61
Cyprian
849
False
Polish, Hungarian and Lithuanian
84
Which neighbors did Halych not develop trade relations with?
5ad0185377cf76001a6869ae
True
Prince Roman Mstislavich
188
Who did not unit the two principalities?
5ad0185377cf76001a6869af
True
Prince Roman Mstislavich
188
Who did not conquer Kiev in 1202?
5ad0185377cf76001a6869b0
True
1238–1264
430
When did Prince Daniil rule?
5ad0185377cf76001a6869b1
True
King of Poland a metropolitan for his Russian subjects
697
What did the patriarch of the Western Orthodox Church grant?
5ad0185377cf76001a6869b2
True
To the southwest, the principality of Halych had developed trade relations with its Polish, Hungarian and Lithuanian neighbours and emerged as the local successor to Kievan Rus'. In 1199, Prince Roman Mstislavich united the two previously separate principalities. In 1202 he conquered Kiev, and assumed the title of Grand Duke of Kievan Rus', which was held by the rulers of Vladimir-Suzdal since 1169. His son, Prince Daniil (r. 1238–1264) looked for support from the West. He accepted a crown as a "Rex Rusiae" ("King of Russia") from the Roman papacy, apparently doing so without breaking with Constantinople. In 1370, the patriarch of the Eastern Orthodox Church in Constantinople granted the King of Poland a metropolitan for his Russian subjects. Lithuanian rulers also requested and received a metropolitan for Novagrudok shortly afterwards. Cyprian, a candidate pushed by the Lithuanian rulers, became Metropolitan of Kiev in 1375 and metropolitan of Moscow in 1382; this way the church in the Russian countries was reunited for some time. In 1439, Kiev became the seat of a separate "Metropolitan of Kiev, Galich and all Rus'" for all Greek Orthodox Christians under Polish-Lithuanian rule.
How did the leader of Kiev gain political control?
57314282a5e9cc1400cdbde3
Due to the expansion of trade
0
False
From what did this new princedom emerge from?
57314282a5e9cc1400cdbde4
from a coalition of traditional patriarchic family communes
243
False
What type of government came from the coalition of traditional patriachic family?
57314282a5e9cc1400cdbde5
first notable form of self-government
478
False
expansion of trade
11
What caused the decline of Kiev political power?
5ad0191f77cf76001a6869d2
True
princedom
225
What emerged from a traditional matriarchal family communes?
5ad0191f77cf76001a6869d3
True
in an effort to increase the applicable workforce and expand the productivity of the land
319
Why did the patriarchic family communes not band together?
5ad0191f77cf76001a6869d4
True
communes
526
What became smaller with am emphasis on family holdings?
5ad0191f77cf76001a6869d5
True
Due to the expansion of trade and its geographical proximity, Kiev became the most important trade centre and chief among the communes; therefore the leader of Kiev gained political "control" over the surrounding areas. This princedom emerged from a coalition of traditional patriarchic family communes banded together in an effort to increase the applicable workforce and expand the productivity of the land. This union developed the first major cities in the Rus' and was the first notable form of self-government. As these communes became larger, the emphasis was taken off the family holdings and placed on the territory that surrounded. This shift in ideology became known as the verv'.
Which two groups dominated the society of Kievan Rus?
57314376a5e9cc1400cdbde9
mixture of Slavic and Scandinavian elites
87
False
What was severely lacking in Kievan in the 12th century?
57314376a5e9cc1400cdbdea
class institutions and autonomous towns
320
False
What was the group called that owed labour duty to the princes?
57314376a5e9cc1400cdbdeb
tribute-paying peasants
806
False
mixture of Slavic and Scandinavian elites,
87
Which two groups did not dominate societyof Kievan Rus?
5ad019fb77cf76001a6869ee
True
Leading soldiers and officials
168
Who did not receive income and land from the princes?
5ad019fb77cf76001a6869ef
True
class institutions and autonomous towns
320
What was not lacking in Kievan in the 12th century?
5ad019fb77cf76001a6869f0
True
tribute-paying peasants
806
What was the group called that did not owe labour duty to the princes?
5ad019fb77cf76001a6869f1
True
personal serfdom
883
What was widespread in Eastern Europe?
5ad019fb77cf76001a6869f2
True
In the 11th century and the 12th century, the princes and their retinues, which were a mixture of Slavic and Scandinavian elites, dominated the society of Kievan Rus'. Leading soldiers and officials received income and land from the princes in return for their political and military services. Kievan society lacked the class institutions and autonomous towns that were typical of Western European feudalism. Nevertheless, urban merchants, artisans and labourers sometimes exercised political influence through a city assembly, the veche (council), which included all the adult males in the population. In some cases, the veche either made agreements with their rulers or expelled them and invited others to take their place. At the bottom of society was a stratum of slaves. More important was a class of tribute-paying peasants, who owed labour duty to the princes. The widespread personal serfdom characteristic of Western Europe did not exist in Kievan Rus'.
What eventually led to the creation of the peasant/smerdy class?
57314bb8497a881900248d73
change in political structure
4
False
When did wages on the manors develop?
57314bb8497a881900248d74
1031
221
False
What were the smerdy initially given in the Kievian law code?
57314bb8497a881900248d75
given equality
310
False
change in political structure
4
What lead to the eventual destruction of the peasant/smerdy class?
5ad01abb77cf76001a686a14
True
smerdy
104
Who were the free landed people that worked by labouring for wages?
5ad01abb77cf76001a686a15
True
smerdy
288
Who was not given equality in the Kievian law code?
5ad01abb77cf76001a686a16
True
The smerdy
284
Who was theoretically not equal to the prince?
5ad01abb77cf76001a686a17
True
The smerdy
284
Who began to slowly gain their rights and become more equal in the eyes of the law?
5ad01abb77cf76001a686a18
True
The change in political structure led to the inevitable development of the peasant class or smerdy. The smerdy were free un-landed people that found work by labouring for wages on the manors which began to develop around 1031 as the verv' began to dominate socio-political structure. The smerdy were initially given equality in the Kievian law code, they were theoretically equal to the prince, so they enjoyed as much freedom as can be expected of manual labourers. However, in the 13th century they began to slowly lose their rights and became less equal in the eyes of the law.
Despite being much smaller than wester europe, what they known for being?
57314d1205b4da19006bd004
the largest contemporary European state
82
False
What could you find in Novgorod that you couldn't in most other cities?
57314d1205b4da19006bd005
sewage system and wood paving
343
False
What were some of the rights women had during this time period?
57314d1205b4da19006bd006
property and inheritance rights
561
False
Kievan Rus
0
What area was sparsely populated compared to Northern Europe?
5ad01b9f77cf76001a686a28
True
largest contemporary European state
86
Despite being larger than Western Europe, what was Kievan Rus known for being?
5ad01b9f77cf76001a686a29
True
sewage system and wood paving
343
What couldn't you find in Novgoroad that was available in most other cities?
5ad01b9f77cf76001a686a2a
True
Russkaya Pravda
422
Who did not confine punishment to fines and used capital punishment?
5ad01b9f77cf76001a686a2b
True
property and inheritance rights
561
What rights were denied to women?
5ad01b9f77cf76001a686a2c
True
Kievan Rus', although sparsely populated compared to Western Europe, was not only the largest contemporary European state in terms of area but also culturally advanced. Literacy in Kiev, Novgorod and other large cities was high. As birch bark documents attest, they exchanged love letters and prepared cheat sheets for schools. Novgorod had a sewage system and wood paving not often found in other cities at the time. The Russkaya Pravda confined punishments to fines and generally did not use capital punishment. Certain rights were accorded to women, such as property and inheritance rights.
To which dynasty did Yarolav's step mother belong to?
57314eb2e6313a140071cdfa
Macedonian dynasty
129
False
Which three countried did Yaroslav's daughters become queens of?
57314eb2e6313a140071cdfb
Hungary, France and Norway
291
False
Who did Yaroslav's sons marry?
57314eb2e6313a140071cdfc
daughters of a Polish king and a Byzantine emperor
340
False
Kievan Rus
0
What did not play an important role in European politics?
5ad01c5d77cf76001a686a50
True
Yaroslav the Wise
77
Whose stepmother did not belong to a Macedonian dynasty?
5ad01c5d77cf76001a686a51
True
Yaroslav the Wise
77
Who was not the greatest ruler of Byzantium?
5ad01c5d77cf76001a686a52
True
Hungary, France and Norway
291
Which countries did Yaroslav's sons become kings of?
5ad01c5d77cf76001a686a53
True
daughters of a Polish king and a Byzantine emperor
340
Who did Yaroslav's sons not marry?
5ad01c5d77cf76001a686a54
True
Kievan Rus' also played an important genealogical role in European politics. Yaroslav the Wise, whose stepmother belonged to the Macedonian dynasty, the greatest one to rule Byzantium, married the only legitimate daughter of the king who Christianized Sweden. His daughters became queens of Hungary, France and Norway, his sons married the daughters of a Polish king and a Byzantine emperor (not to mention a niece of the Pope), while his granddaughters were a German Empress and (according to one theory) the queen of Scotland. A grandson married the only daughter of the last Anglo-Saxon king of England. Thus the Rurikids were a well-connected royal family of the time.
How early did the relationship begin between the Pecheneg and the Rus?
57314fb0497a881900248daf
9th century
9
False
What did the Pecheneg frequesntly do over the span of two centuries?
57314fb0497a881900248db0
sporadic raids into the lands of Rus
126
False
What year did the Pechenges attack the city of Kiev?
57314fb0497a881900248db1
968
397
False
Whichgroup was known to support the Pecheneges in their military efforts?
57314fb0497a881900248db2
Byzantine Empire
597
False
9th century
9
How late did the relationship between the Pecheneg and the Rus begin?
5ad01d1777cf76001a686a7e
True
sporadic raids into the lands of Rus
126
What did the Pecheneg frequently not do over the span of two centuries?
5ad01d1777cf76001a686a7f
True
sporadic raids into the lands of Rus
126
What did not escalate in full scale wars?
5ad01d1777cf76001a686a80
True
920
225
What year did the Pecheneg war begin?
5ad01d1777cf76001a686a81
True
968
397
What year did Pechenegs make peace with the city of Kiev?
5ad01d1777cf76001a686a82
True
From the 9th century, the Pecheneg nomads began an uneasy relationship with Kievan Rus′. For over two centuries they launched sporadic raids into the lands of Rus′, which sometimes escalated into full-scale wars (such as the 920 war on the Pechenegs by Igor of Kiev reported in the Primary Chronicle), but there were also temporary military alliances (e.g. the 943 Byzantine campaign by Igor). In 968, the Pechenegs attacked and besieged the city of Kiev. Some speculation exists that the Pechenegs drove off the Tivertsi and the Ulichs to the regions of the upper Dniester river in Bukovina. The Byzantine Empire was known to support the Pechenegs in their military campaigns against the Eastern Slavic states.[citation needed]
Although uncertian, who is considered to be the first head of Kiev?
57315091497a881900248dc5
Michael I
170
False
Who was considered to be the first bishop of the Church of the Titches?
57315091497a881900248dc6
Leontiy
221
False
1038
474
What year was the creation of the Kiev Metropolis?
5ad01e2d77cf76001a686a9c
True
Leontiy
221
Who was the last bishop of the Churchof Tiches?
5ad01e2d77cf76001a686a9d
True
Michael I of Kiev
170
Who was the leader of the church of the Kiev Metropolis?
5ad01e2d77cf76001a686a9e
True
Theopemp
404
Who was confirmed to be the first metropolitan to be confirmed in the 10th century?
5ad01e2d77cf76001a686a9f
True
five
503
How many dioceses were there in the 10th century?
5ad01e2d77cf76001a686aa0
True
The exact date of creation of the Kiev Metropolis is uncertain, as well as who was the first leader of the church. Predominantly it is considered that the first head was Michael I of Kiev, however some sources also claim Leontiy who is often placed after Michael or Anastas Chersonesos, became the first bishop of the Church of the Tithes. The first metropolitan to be confirmed by historical sources is Theopemp, who was appointed by Patriarch Alexius of Constantinople in 1038. Before 1015 there were five dioceses: Kiev, Chernihiv, Bilhorod, Volodymyr, Novgorod, and soon thereafter Yuriy-upon-Ros. The Kiev Metropolitan sent his own delegation to the Council of Bari in 1098.
Super_Nintendo_Entertainment_System
When was the SNES released in the US?
5730a225069b5314008321d7
1991
248
False
Where was the SNES first released?
5730a225069b5314008321d8
Japan and South Korea
225
False
What was the SNES called in Japan?
5730a225069b5314008321d9
Super Famicom
375
False
What was the SNES called in South Korea?
5730a225069b5314008321da
Super Comboy
571
False
When was the SNES released in Australia?
5730a225069b5314008321db
1992
271
False
Super Nintendo[d])
119
What did South Korea develop that was released in 1992?
5a429fb54a4859001aac7243
True
the Super Famicom
371
What is the regional lockout form in Austrailasia?
5a429fb54a4859001aac7244
True
SFC
521
What is another name for the Super Comboy in North America?
5a429fb54a4859001aac7245
True
a 16-bit home video game console
141
What is the definition of the Hepburn released in Brazil in 1990?
5a429fb54a4859001aac7246
True
Playtronic
855
What company developed the Super Comboy in Brazil in 1990?
5a429fb54a4859001aac7247
True
The Super Nintendo Entertainment System (officially abbreviated the Super NES[b] or SNES[c], and commonly shortened to Super Nintendo[d]) is a 16-bit home video game console developed by Nintendo that was released in 1990 in Japan and South Korea, 1991 in North America, 1992 in Europe and Australasia (Oceania), and 1993 in South America. In Japan, the system is called the Super Famicom (Japanese: スーパーファミコン, Hepburn: Sūpā Famikon?, officially adopting the abbreviated name of its predecessor, the Family Computer), or SFC for short. In South Korea, it is known as the Super Comboy (슈퍼 컴보이 Syupeo Keomboi) and was distributed by Hyundai Electronics. Although each version is essentially the same, several forms of regional lockout prevent the different versions from being compatible with one another. It was released in Brazil on September 2, 1992, by Playtronic.
What was NEC's competitor to the NES called in Japan?
5730a2a1069b5314008321e1
PC Engine
88
False
What was Sega's competitor to the NES called in Japan?
5730a2a1069b5314008321e2
Mega Drive
151
False
What was NEC's competitor to the NES called in the US?
5730a2a1069b5314008321e3
TurboGrafx-16
241
False
What was Sega's competitor to the NES called in the US?
5730a2a1069b5314008321e4
Genesis
263
False
What were the Genesis's advantages over the NES?
5730a2a1069b5314008321e5
built on 16-bit architectures and offered improved graphics and sound
303
False
the PC Engine
84
What did SEGA release in 1987?
5a42a1924a4859001aac7257
True
the Mega Drive
147
What did NEC Home Electronics release in 1988?
5a42a1924a4859001aac7258
True
The two platforms
171
What was launched in North America in 1987?
5a42a1924a4859001aac7259
True
built on 16-bit architectures and offered improved graphics and sound
303
How was the 8-bit NES an improvement?
5a42a1924a4859001aac725a
True
several years
410
How long did it take the Family Computer to be successful?
5a42a1924a4859001aac725b
True
To compete with the popular Family Computer in Japan, NEC Home Electronics launched the PC Engine in 1987, and Sega Enterprises followed suit with the Mega Drive in 1988. The two platforms were later launched in North America in 1989 as the TurboGrafx-16 and the Genesis respectively. Both systems were built on 16-bit architectures and offered improved graphics and sound over the 8-bit NES. However, it took several years for Sega's system to become successful. Nintendo executives were in no rush to design a new system, but they reconsidered when they began to see their dominance in the market slipping.
Who designed both the NES and SNES?
5730a3018ab72b1400f9c61e
Masayuki Uemura
12
False
How much in yen did the Super Famicom cost in Japan?
5730a3018ab72b1400f9c61f
¥25,000
143
False
How much in dollars did the Super Famicom cost in Japan?
5730a3018ab72b1400f9c620
US$210
152
False
How many Super Famicoms were produced in the first run?
5730a3018ab72b1400f9c621
300,000
219
False
What criminal group plotted to steal Super Famicoms?
5730a3018ab72b1400f9c622
the Yakuza
452
False
the Super Famicom
67
What did the Japanese government release in Japan on November 21, 1990?
5a42a2bd4a4859001aac7261
True
300,000 units
219
How many units were stolen by the Yakuza?
5a42a2bd4a4859001aac7262
True
¥25,000 (US$210)
143
How much did the original Famicom cost in Japan?
5a42a2bd4a4859001aac7263
True
ask video game manufacturers to schedule future console releases on weekends
324
After the original Famicom sold out, what did the Japanese government do?
5a42a2bd4a4859001aac7264
True
social disturbance
274
What event happened after the Yakuza noticed the sale of the original Famicom?
5a42a2bd4a4859001aac7265
True
Designed by Masayuki Uemura, the designer of the original Famicom, the Super Famicom was released in Japan on Wednesday, November 21, 1990 for ¥25,000 (US$210). It was an instant success; Nintendo's initial shipment of 300,000 units sold out within hours, and the resulting social disturbance led the Japanese government to ask video game manufacturers to schedule future console releases on weekends. The system's release also gained the attention of the Yakuza, leading to a decision to ship the devices at night to avoid robbery.
How much did the SNES cost in the US?
5730a3d08ab72b1400f9c630
US$199
146
False
How much did the SNES cost in the UK?
5730a3d08ab72b1400f9c631
GB£150
228
False
When was the SNES released in the UK?
5730a3d08ab72b1400f9c632
April 1992
213
False
When was the SNES released in Brazil?
5730a3d08ab72b1400f9c633
1993
560
False
Which company distributed the SNES in Brazil?
5730a3d08ab72b1400f9c634
Playtronic
568
False
the Super Famicom
106
What was a redesign of the Super NES?
5a42a5a04a4859001aac726b
True
$199
148
How much did the Super Famicom cost in Germany?
5a42a5a04a4859001aac726c
True
£150
230
How much did the Playtronic cost in the UK and Ireland?
5a42a5a04a4859001aac726d
True
the North American design
484
What kind of design did the Playtronic Super NES use in Ireland?
5a42a5a04a4859001aac726e
True
a joint venture between the toy company Estrela and consumer electronics company Gradiente
580
What venture released the Super Famicom in Brazil in 1991?
5a42a5a04a4859001aac726f
True
On August 23, 1991,[a] Nintendo released the Super Nintendo Entertainment System, a redesigned version of the Super Famicom, in North America for US$199. The SNES was released in the United Kingdom and Ireland in April 1992 for GB£150, with a German release following a few weeks later. Most of the PAL region versions of the console use the Japanese Super Famicom design, except for labeling and the length of the joypad leads. The Playtronic Super NES in Brazil, although PAL, uses the North American design. Both the NES and SNES were released in Brazil in 1993 by Playtronic, a joint venture between the toy company Estrela and consumer electronics company Gradiente.
What market did the Genesis target?
5730a4e0069b5314008321f5
older gamers
230
False
How much sooner than the Genesis did the Street Fighter II game come out for SNES?
5730a4e0069b5314008321f6
over a year
480
False
How much of the US 16-bit console market did the Genesis have in summer 1992?
5730a4e0069b5314008321f7
60%
656
False
What game was key to the SNES's success?
5730a4e0069b5314008321f8
Donkey Kong Country
784
False
How many SNES units were sold in the US overall?
5730a4e0069b5314008321f9
more than 20 million
1017
False
more than 20 million
1017
How many units did SEGA sell in the US?
5a42a72b4a4859001aac7275
True
the SNES ultimately outsold the Genesis in the U.S. market
1132
According to a 1992 report by SEGA, how did the consoles sell in the US?
5a42a72b4a4859001aac7276
True
as the "cool" console
174
How did SEGA position the NES?
5a42a72b4a4859001aac7277
True
more mature titles
202
What kind of game titles did the SNES have?
5a42a72b4a4859001aac7278
True
helped establish the SNES's market prominence in the latter years of the 16-bit generation
820
What did Donkey Kong Country do for video game history?
5a42a72b4a4859001aac7279
True
The rivalry between Nintendo and Sega resulted in what has been described as one of the most notable console wars in video game history, in which Sega positioned the Genesis as the "cool" console, with more mature titles aimed at older gamers, and edgy advertisements that occasionally attacked the competition. Nintendo however, scored an early public relations advantage by securing the first console conversion of Capcom's arcade classic Street Fighter II for SNES, which took over a year to make the transition to Genesis. Despite the Genesis's head start, much larger library of games, and lower price point, the Genesis only represented an estimated 60% of the American 16-bit console market in June 1992, and neither console could maintain a definitive lead for several years. Donkey Kong Country is said to have helped establish the SNES's market prominence in the latter years of the 16-bit generation, and for a time, maintain against the PlayStation and Saturn. According to Nintendo, the company had sold more than 20 million SNES units in the U.S. According to a 2014 Wedbush Securities report based on NPD sales data, the SNES ultimately outsold the Genesis in the U.S. market.
What was Nintendo's limit on games per developer per year on the NES?
5730a569069b5314008321ff
five
185
False
What alternate name did Konami use to get around Nintendo's yearly limit?
5730a569069b531400832200
Ultra Games
293
False
For how many years did Nintendo require exclusivity on NES games?
5730a569069b531400832201
two
374
False
Which competitor caused Nintendo to end its restrictions on game developers?
5730a569069b531400832202
Sega
487
False
Which developer began releasing games for both NES and Sega in 1991?
5730a569069b531400832203
Acclaim
544
False
exclusive control over titles released for the system
40
What kind of control did SEGA maintain during the NES era?
5a42a8ea4a4859001aac727f
True
up to five
179
How many games were released per year by Square?
5a42a8ea4a4859001aac7280
True
games could not be released on another console within two years, and Nintendo was the exclusive manufacturer and supplier of NES cartridges
320
What practice did competition from Capcom end?
5a42a8ea4a4859001aac7281
True
began releasing games for both platforms
552
What did Nintendo do in 1991?
5a42a8ea4a4859001aac7282
True
every game
121
What did SEGA have to approve during the Konami era?
5a42a8ea4a4859001aac7283
True
During the NES era, Nintendo maintained exclusive control over titles released for the system—the company had to approve every game, each third-party developer could only release up to five games per year (but some third parties got around this by using different names, for example Konami's "Ultra Games" brand), those games could not be released on another console within two years, and Nintendo was the exclusive manufacturer and supplier of NES cartridges. However, competition from Sega's console brought an end to this practice; in 1991, Acclaim began releasing games for both platforms, with most of Nintendo's other licensees following suit over the next several years; Capcom (which licensed some games to Sega instead of producing them directly) and Square were the most notable holdouts.
How did Nintendo rank submitted games?
5730a5e02461fd1900a9cf3b
using a 40-point scale
79
False
What game first challenged Nintendo's anti-violence policy?
5730a5e02461fd1900a9cf3c
Mortal Kombat
346
False
When was Mortal Kombat released in arcades?
5730a5e02461fd1900a9cf3d
1992
419
False
Which game console had a full-gore version of Mortal Kombat?
5730a5e02461fd1900a9cf3e
Genesis
554
False
How much did the Genesis version of Mortal Kombat out-sell the SNES version?
5730a5e02461fd1900a9cf3f
three or four-to-one
662
False
a 40-point scale
85
How did Genesis rank submitted titles?
5a42aa7b4a4859001aac7289
True
limited the amount of violence in the games on its systems
276
What was the policy of Genesis about games?
5a42aa7b4a4859001aac728a
True
in 1992
416
When was Mortal Kombat submitted to Nintendo?
5a42aa7b4a4859001aac728b
True
by a ratio of three or four-to-one
648
By how much did the SNES version outsell the Genesis one?
5a42aa7b4a4859001aac728c
True
splashes of blood and finishing moves that often depict one character dismembering the other
448
What were the features that included gore in the SNES version?
5a42aa7b4a4859001aac728d
True
The company continued to carefully review submitted titles, giving them scores using a 40-point scale and allocating Nintendo's marketing resources accordingly. Each region performed separate evaluations. Nintendo of America also maintained a policy that, among other things, limited the amount of violence in the games on its systems. One game, Mortal Kombat, would challenge this policy. A surprise hit in arcades in 1992, Mortal Kombat features splashes of blood and finishing moves that often depict one character dismembering the other. Because the Genesis version retained the gore while the SNES version did not, it outsold the SNES version by a ratio of three or four-to-one.
Which senators held a hearing about video game violence in 1993?
5730a66b2461fd1900a9cf45
Herb Kohl and Joe Lieberman
85
False
What was the focus of the hearing about video game violence in 1993?
5730a66b2461fd1900a9cf46
the marketing of violent video games to children
181
False
What organizations did the hearing about video game violence in 1993 lead to?
5730a66b2461fd1900a9cf47
the Interactive Digital Software Association and the Entertainment Software Rating Board
329
False
What regulatory change did the hearing about video game violence in 1993 lead to?
5730a66b2461fd1900a9cf48
the inclusion of ratings on all video games
423
False
How did video game ratings affect Nintendo?
5730a66b2461fd1900a9cf49
Nintendo decided its censorship policies were no longer needed
497
False
decided its censorship policies were no longer needed
506
How did game players affect Nintendo's policy?
5a42ac754a4859001aac7293
True
the marketing of violent video games to children.
181
What did the Digital Software Association investigate in 1993?
5a42ac754a4859001aac7294
True
the high ground
254
What position did Senator Joe Lieberman take on the issue?
5a42ac754a4859001aac7295
True
moderate success
275
How successful was Senator Herb Kohl during the hearing?
5a42ac754a4859001aac7296
True
the Interactive Digital Software Association and the Entertainment Software Rating Board
329
What organizations were created due to Nintendo taking the high ground?
5a42ac754a4859001aac7297
True
Game players were not the only ones to notice the violence in this game; US Senators Herb Kohl and Joe Lieberman convened a Congressional hearing on December 9, 1993 to investigate the marketing of violent video games to children.[e] While Nintendo took the high ground with moderate success, the hearings led to the creation of the Interactive Digital Software Association and the Entertainment Software Rating Board, and the inclusion of ratings on all video games. With these ratings in place, Nintendo decided its censorship policies were no longer needed.
Which company developed Donkey Kong Country?
5730ac97069b531400832227
Rare
157
False
When was Donkey Kong Country released?
5730ac97069b531400832228
November 1994
142
False
What kind of computers were Donkey Kong Country's graphics rendered on?
5730ac97069b531400832229
SGI workstations
257
False
How many copies of Donkey Kong Country were sold in its first 45 days?
5730ac97069b53140083222a
6.1 million
505
False
How did Donkey Kong Country's quality compare to games on newer consoles?
5730ac97069b53140083222b
detailed graphics, fluid animation and high-quality music
284
False
32-bit systems
40
What was Nintendo moving on to?
5a42af184a4859001aac729d
True
In November 1994
139
When did Nintendo release Donkey Kong Country?
5a42af184a4859001aac729e
True
6.1 million units
505
How many copies of Donkey Kong Country were sold in November 1994?
5a42af184a4859001aac729f
True
detailed graphics, fluid animation and high-quality music
284
What was the quality of Donkey Cong Country compared to games on Rare consoles?
5a42af184a4859001aac72a0
True
that early 32-bit systems had little to offer over the SNES
615
What message did SGI workstations send to Rare about games?
5a42af184a4859001aac72a1
True
While other companies were moving on to 32-bit systems, Rare and Nintendo proved that the SNES was still a strong contender in the market. In November 1994, Rare released Donkey Kong Country, a platform game featuring 3D models and textures pre-rendered on SGI workstations. With its detailed graphics, fluid animation and high-quality music, Donkey Kong Country rivaled the aesthetic quality of games that were being released on newer 32-bit CD-based consoles. In the last 45 days of 1994, the game sold 6.1 million units, making it the fastest-selling video game in history to that date. This game sent a message that early 32-bit systems had little to offer over the SNES, and helped make way for the more advanced consoles on the horizon.
How much did the SNS-101 cost in the US?
5730ad472461fd1900a9cf7d
US$99
107
False
What game was bundled with the SNS-101?
5730ad472461fd1900a9cf7e
Super Mario World 2: Yoshi's Island
156
False
What features were removed in the SNS-101?
5730ad472461fd1900a9cf7f
S-Video and RGB output
325
False
What redesigned console was released in Japan at the time of the SNS-101?
5730ad472461fd1900a9cf80
Super Famicom Jr.
441
False
When was the SNS-101 released in the US?
5730ad472461fd1900a9cf81
October 1997
3
False
$99
109
How much did the Super Famicom Jr. cost in North America?
5a42b1214a4859001aac72a7
True
S-Video and RGB output
325
What was missing from the Super Famicom Jr.?
5a42b1214a4859001aac72a8
True
Super Mario World 2: Yoshi's Island
156
What did the NES-101 model include?
5a42b1214a4859001aac72a9
True
October 1997
3
When was the NES-101 released in Japan?
5a42b1214a4859001aac72aa
True
it was among the last major SNES-related releases in the region
353
How many new releases were offered for the Super Famicom Jr.?
5a42b1214a4859001aac72ab
True
In October 1997, Nintendo released a redesigned model of the SNES (the SNS-101 model) in North America for US$99, which sometimes included the pack-in game Super Mario World 2: Yoshi's Island. Like the earlier redesign of the NES (the NES-101 model), the new model was slimmer and lighter than its predecessor, but it lacked S-Video and RGB output, and it was among the last major SNES-related releases in the region. A similarly redesigned Super Famicom Jr. was released in Japan at around the same time.
How were adapters used to get around PAL region restrictions?
5730ae52069b53140083223b
by inserting the imported cartridge in one slot and a cartridge with the correct region chip in a second slot
310
False
How was hardware modification used to get around PAL region restrictions?
5730ae52069b53140083223c
disconnecting one pin of the console's lockout chip
436
False
What problem did the hardware modification cause with later games?
5730ae52069b53140083223d
hardware in later games can detect this situation, so it later became common to install a switch to reconnect the lockout chip as needed
530
False
prevents PAL region games from being played
83
What does having a cartridge in the console prevent in North American consoles?
5a42b46e4a4859001aac72bb
True
a switch to reconnect the lockout chip
618
What had to be installed when adapters detect the locked console?
5a42b46e4a4859001aac72bc
True
inserting the imported cartridge in one slot and a cartridge with the correct region chip in a second slot
313
How were lockout chips used to get around PAL restrictions?
5a42b46e4a4859001aac72bd
True
can detect this situation
554
What did adapters with later consoles detect that caused a problem with modification?
5a42b46e4a4859001aac72be
True
The Japanese and North American machines
182
What kind of machines have the same adapters?
5a42b46e4a4859001aac72bf
True
Internally, a regional lockout chip (CIC) within the console and in each cartridge prevents PAL region games from being played on Japanese or North American consoles and vice versa. The Japanese and North American machines have the same region chip. This can be overcome through the use of adapters, typically by inserting the imported cartridge in one slot and a cartridge with the correct region chip in a second slot. Alternatively, disconnecting one pin of the console's lockout chip will prevent it from locking the console; hardware in later games can detect this situation, so it later became common to install a switch to reconnect the lockout chip as needed.
What video frequency does NTSC use?
5730aec62461fd1900a9cf87
60 Hz
124
False
What video frequency does PAL use?
5730aec62461fd1900a9cf88
50 Hz
152
False
How much slower do games run on PAL consoles than NTSC due to frequency differences?
5730aec62461fd1900a9cf89
16.7% slower
186
False
What hardware modification could be made to the SNES to support game speed differences?
5730aec62461fd1900a9cf8a
a switch can be added to place the SNES PPU into a 60 Hz mode supported by most newer PAL televisions
511
False
60 Hz
124
What video standard do PPU cartridges use?
5a42bfc04a4859001aac72d9
True
50 Hz
152
What video standard to later games operate at?
5a42bfc04a4859001aac72da
True
16.7% slower
186
How much slower are games on PPU consoles than PAL due to incompatibility?
5a42bfc04a4859001aac72db
True
another incompatibility
18
What do SNES consoles face when facing a 20% speedup?
5a42bfc04a4859001aac72dc
True
letterboxing of the output image
258
What does NTSC higher resolution result in?
5a42bfc04a4859001aac72dd
True
PAL consoles face another incompatibility when playing out-of-region cartridges: the NTSC video standard specifies video at 60 Hz while PAL operates at 50 Hz, resulting in approximately 16.7% slower gameplay. Additionally, PAL's higher resolution results in letterboxing of the output image. Some commercial PAL region releases exhibit this same problem and, therefore, can be played in NTSC systems without issue while others will face a 20% speedup if played in an NTSC console. To mostly correct this issue, a switch can be added to place the SNES PPU into a 60 Hz mode supported by most newer PAL televisions. Later games will detect this setting and refuse to run, requiring the switch to be thrown only after the check completes.
What color is the SNES?
5730af318ab72b1400f9c68c
predominantly gray
29
False
Who designed the North American SNES?
5730af318ab72b1400f9c68d
Lance Barr
175
False
What was Barr's job?
5730af318ab72b1400f9c68e
industrial designer
155
False
What color were the North American SNES's buttons?
5730af318ab72b1400f9c68f
purple
268
False
What color were the Japanese Super Famicom Jr.'s buttons?
5730af318ab72b1400f9c690
gray
827
False
cables
909
What does the Japanese Super Famicom have that is longer than the European and American versions?
5a42d81e4a4859001aac7361
True
predominantly gray
29
What color are all versions of the Super Famicom Jr.?
5a42d81e4a4859001aac7362
True
food or drinks
398
What was placed on the console because of the curved surface of the NES?
5a42d81e4a4859001aac7363
True
gray
827
What color were the buttons for the SNS-100 version from Japan?
5a42d81e4a4859001aac7364
True
interact
371
What does the flat surface of the redesigned SNES invite people to do?
5a42d81e4a4859001aac7365
True
All versions of the SNES are predominantly gray, although the exact shade may differ. The original North American version, designed by Nintendo of America industrial designer Lance Barr (who previously redesigned the Famicom to become the NES), has a boxy design with purple sliding switches and a dark gray eject lever. The loading bay surface is curved, both to invite interaction and to prevent food or drinks from being placed on the console and spilling as had happened with the flat surfaced NES. The Japanese and European versions are more rounded, with darker gray accents and buttons. The North American SNS-101 model and the Japanese Super Famicom Jr. (the SHVC-101 model), all designed by Barr, are both smaller with a rounded contour; however, the SNS-101 buttons are purple where the Super Famicom Jr. buttons are gray. The European and American versions of the SNES controllers have much longer cables compared to the Japanese Super Famicom controllers.
How is the SNES's slot positioned?
5730afba396df9190009627e
top-loading
27
False
What connection types did MULTI OUT support?
5730afba396df9190009627f
composite video, S-Video and RGB signals, as well as RF with an external RF modulator
249
False
How many pins did the SNES expansion port have?
5730afba396df91900096280
28
377
False
What output type was the only one directly supported on the SNS-101?
5730afba396df91900096281
composite
542
False
What other Nintendo systems used MULTI OUT?
5730afba396df91900096282
Nintendo 64 and GameCube
212
False
a top-loading slot
25
What do all versions have for expansion ports?
5a42da674a4859001aac736b
True
to match the different shapes of the cartridges
120
Why does the MULTI OUT connector differ between regions?
5a42da674a4859001aac736c
True
28
377
How many pins were on the RF modulator?
5a42da674a4859001aac736d
True
the Nintendo 64 and GameCube
208
What two systems later used a channel selection switch?
5a42da674a4859001aac736e
True
composite video only
542
What can all models output that requires them to have an external modulator for RF?
5a42da674a4859001aac736f
True
All versions incorporate a top-loading slot for game cartridges, although the shape of the slot differs between regions to match the different shapes of the cartridges. The MULTI OUT connector (later used on the Nintendo 64 and GameCube) can output composite video, S-Video and RGB signals, as well as RF with an external RF modulator. Original versions additionally include a 28-pin expansion port under a small cover on the bottom of the unit and a standard RF output with channel selection switch on the back; the redesigned models output composite video only, requiring an external modulator for RF.
What material is the SNES case made of?
5730b020396df91900096292
ABS plastic
4
False
What chemical process turned some SNES cases yellow?
5730b020396df91900096293
oxidization
112
False
What mixture error in the plastic caused some SNES cases to turn yellow?
5730b020396df91900096294
an incorrect mixture of the stabilizing or flame retarding additives
158
False
How can SNES yellowing sometimes be reversed?
5730b020396df91900096295
with UV light and a hydrogen peroxide solution
485
False
Why would some SNESes be only partly yellow?
5730b020396df91900096296
if the sections of the casing came from different batches of plastic
350
False
yellow
342
What color did affected consoles become after exposure to UV light?
5a42dcf44a4859001aac7375
True
oxidization
112
What are flame retarding additives susceptible to?
5a42dcf44a4859001aac7376
True
a "two-tone" effect
420
What does hydrogen peroxide inside the cases cause if they came from different batches of plastic?
5a42dcf44a4859001aac7377
True
The color
449
What does the light color of additives help restore to a console?
5a42dcf44a4859001aac7378
True
oxidization
112
What is caused due to an incorrect mixture of a hydrogen peroxide solution during manufacturing?
5a42dcf44a4859001aac7379
True
The ABS plastic used in the casing of some older SNES and Super Famicom consoles is particularly susceptible to oxidization on exposure to air, likely due to an incorrect mixture of the stabilizing or flame retarding additives. This, along with the particularly light color of the original plastic, causes affected consoles to quickly become yellow; if the sections of the casing came from different batches of plastic, a "two-tone" effect results. The color can sometimes be restored with UV light and a hydrogen peroxide solution.
What are SNES game cartridges officially called in the US?
5730b0912461fd1900a9cf99
Game Pak
64
False
What are SNES game cartridges officially called in Japan?
5730b0912461fd1900a9cf9a
Cassette
105
False
How much data space can an SNES cartridge use?
5730b0912461fd1900a9cf9b
117.75 Mbit
213
False
What were the largest SNES games?
5730b0912461fd1900a9cf9c
Tales of Phantasia and Star Ocean
518
False
How much data do the smallest SNES games use?
5730b0912461fd1900a9cf9d
2 Mbit
620
False
The cartridge media of the console
0
What is referred to as Cassette in Western regions?
5a42e2b04a4859001aac737f
True
The cartridge media of the console
0
What is referred to as Game Pak in Japan?
5a42e2b04a4859001aac7380
True
2 Mbit
620
How much ROM data do Talesof Phantasia and Star Ocean have as the smallest games released?
5a42e2b04a4859001aac7381
True
mappings of up to 32 Mbit
463
What mappings do most Game Pak support in Japan?
5a42e2b04a4859001aac7382
True
2 Mbit
620
How many Mbit of FastROM are contained in games from Latin America?
5a42e2b04a4859001aac7383
True
The cartridge media of the console is officially referred to as Game Pak in most Western regions, and as Cassette (カセット, Kasetto?) in Japan and parts of Latin America. While the SNES can address 128 Mbit,[f] only 117.75 Mbit are actually available for cartridge use. A fairly normal mapping could easily address up to 95 Mbit of ROM data (48 Mbit at FastROM speed) with 8 Mbit of battery-backed RAM. However, most available memory access controllers only support mappings of up to 32 Mbit. The largest games released (Tales of Phantasia and Star Ocean) contain 48 Mbit of ROM data, while the smallest games contain only 2 Mbit.
What face buttons do SNES controllers have that NES controllers didn't?
5730b0ef396df919000962a6
X and Y
63
False
How many shoulder buttons do SNES controllers have?
5730b0ef396df919000962a7
two
162
False
Who designed the SNES controllers?
5730b0ef396df919000962a8
Lance Barr
224
False
What color are the US SNES controllers' X and Y buttons?
5730b0ef396df919000962a9
lavender
518
False
What color are the US SNES controllers' A and B buttons?
5730b0ef396df919000962aa
purple
575
False
(X and Y)
62
What face buttons do NES controllers have that aren't on the SNES controllers?
5a42e56e4a4859001aac7389
True
NES-102 model controllers
255
What was also designed by Dreamcast?
5a42e56e4a4859001aac738a
True
PlayStation, Dreamcast, Xbox, and Wii Classic Controller
696
What consoles controller designs are inspired by the Japanese system logo?
5a42e56e4a4859001aac738b
True
lavender
518
What color are the shoulder buttons X and Y in Japan?
5a42e56e4a4859001aac738c
True
four
372
How many shoulder buttons are incorporated into the Japanese system logo?
5a42e56e4a4859001aac738d
True
The standard SNES controller adds two additional face buttons (X and Y) to the design of the NES iteration, arranging the four in a diamond shape, and introduces two shoulder buttons. It also features an ergonomic design by Lance Barr, later used for the NES-102 model controllers, also designed by Barr. The Japanese and PAL region versions incorporate the colors of the four action buttons into system's logo. The North American version's buttons are colored to match the redesigned console; the X and Y buttons are lavender with concave faces, and the A and B buttons are purple with convex faces. Several later consoles derive elements of their controller design from the SNES, including the PlayStation, Dreamcast, Xbox, and Wii Classic Controller.
What game accessory was similar to the NES Zapper?
5730b1488ab72b1400f9c6a4
Super Scope
193
False
What game accessory was similar to the NES Advantage?
5730b1488ab72b1400f9c6a5
Super Advantage
323
False
What game used the SNES Mouse?
5730b1488ab72b1400f9c6a6
Mario Paint
487
False
What type of accessory was the Super Scope?
5730b1488ab72b1400f9c6a7
light gun
210
False
What game came with a baseball bat controller?
5730b1488ab72b1400f9c6a8
BatterUP
700
False
a number of peripherals
35
What was released that added to the Hudson Soft functionality?
5a42e7df4a4859001aac7393
True
turbo settings
383
What adjustable settings did the Super Scope have on its joystick?
5a42e7df4a4859001aac7394
True
the Super Multitap
557
What mulit player adapter did Super Scope release under its license from Nintendo?
5a42e7df4a4859001aac7395
True
the NES Zapper
244
What was the BatterUP baseball bat similar to?
5a42e7df4a4859001aac7396
True
Mario Paint
487
What game was the NES Zapper released in conjunction with?
5a42e7df4a4859001aac7397
True
Throughout the course of its life, a number of peripherals were released which added to the functionality of the SNES. Many of these devices were modeled after earlier add-ons for the NES: the Super Scope is a light gun functionally similar to the NES Zapper (though the Super Scope features wireless capabilities) and the Super Advantage is an arcade-style joystick with adjustable turbo settings akin to the NES Advantage. Nintendo also released the SNES Mouse in conjunction with its Mario Paint title. Hudson Soft, under license from Nintendo, released the Super Multitap, a multiplayer adapter for use with its popular series of Bomberman games. Some of the more unusual controllers include the BatterUP baseball bat, the Life Fitness Entertainment System (an exercise bike controller with built-in monitoring software), and the TeeV Golf golf club.
How did Nintendo say an NES and SNES could be used on the same TV?
5730b2e62461fd1900a9cfbb
either daisy chaining the RF switches or using AV outputs for one or both systems
158
False
Which other game system's cartridges could be adapted to the SNES?
5730b2e62461fd1900a9cfbc
Game Boy
325
False
What improvements did the Super Game Boy have over the Game Boy?
5730b2e62461fd1900a9cfbd
palette substitution, custom screen borders, and (for specially enhanced games) access to the SNES console
451
False
Where was the Super Game Boy 2 released?
5730b2e62461fd1900a9cfbe
Japan
559
False
What did the Super Game Boy 2 add?
5730b2e62461fd1900a9cfbf
a communication port to enable a second Game Boy to connect for multiplayer games
623
False
Japan
559
In what country was the SNES released?
5a42ea2c4a4859001aac739d
True
a communication port
623
What did the Game Boy add for multiplayer games?
5a42ea2c4a4859001aac739e
True
palette substitution, custom screen borders, and (for specially enhanced games) access to the SNES console
451
What enhancements did the Game Boy have?
5a42ea2c4a4859001aac739f
True
adapter cartridge
261
What allows Game Boy games to be played in Japan?
5a42ea2c4a4859001aac73a0
True
an adapter
30
What did Super Game Boy never release for playing NES games on the SNES?
5a42ea2c4a4859001aac73a1
True
While Nintendo never released an adapter for playing NES games on the SNES (though the instructions included a way to connect both consoles to the same TV by either daisy chaining the RF switches or using AV outputs for one or both systems), the Super Game Boy adapter cartridge allows games designed for Nintendo's portable Game Boy system to be played on the SNES. The Super Game Boy touted several feature enhancements over the Game Boy, including palette substitution, custom screen borders, and (for specially enhanced games) access to the SNES console. Japan also saw the release of the Super Game Boy 2, which added a communication port to enable a second Game Boy to connect for multiplayer games.
What modem was available for the Japanese SNES?
5730b372069b53140083227b
Satellaview
29
False
What service did the Satellaview connect to?
5730b372069b53140083227c
the St.GIGA satellite radio station
120
False
When did the Satellaview begin operation?
5730b372069b53140083227d
April 23, 1995
381
False
When did the Satellaview end operation?
5730b372069b53140083227e
June 30, 2000
404
False
What was the US equivalent of Satellaview?
5730b372069b53140083227f
XBAND
480
False
June 30, 2000
404
When did dial-up stop broadcasting in the US?
5a42ed244a4859001aac73a7
True
April 23, 1995
381
When did Satellaview start broadcasting in the US?
5a42ed244a4859001aac73a8
True
download gaming news and specially designed games
188
What did users of XBAND do in Japan?
5a42ed244a4859001aac73a9
True
the Super Famicom's expansion port
68
What did an XBAND attach to on consoles in Japan?
5a42ed244a4859001aac73aa
True
remakes of or sequels to older Famicom titles
268
What kind of games were downloaded on XBAND  to compete in Japan?
5a42ed244a4859001aac73ab
True
Japan saw the release of the Satellaview, a modem which attached to the Super Famicom's expansion port and connected to the St.GIGA satellite radio station. Users of the Satellaview could download gaming news and specially designed games, which were frequently either remakes of or sequels to older Famicom titles, released in installments. Satellaview signals were broadcast from April 23, 1995 through June 30, 2000. In the United States, the similar but relatively short-lived XBAND allowed users to connect to a network via a dial-up modem to compete against other players around the country.
Which companies did Nintendo try to get to make a CD add-on for the SNES?
5730b3dd069b531400832285
Sony and Philips
206
False
What was Philips' multimedia system?
5730b3dd069b531400832286
CD-i
387
False
What competing console did Sony release after working with Nintendo?
5730b3dd069b531400832287
PlayStation
504
False
What was Sega's CD add-on?
5730b3dd069b531400832288
Mega-CD
169
False
contracted with two different companies
33
What did Sony do to develop a CD ROM  to compete with Philips?
5a42f4eb4a4859001aac73bf
True
Mega-CD
169
What was the name of Sony's CD ROM?
5a42f4eb4a4859001aac73c0
True
fell through
223
What happened to the deals made with Sega?
5a42f4eb4a4859001aac73c1
True
(the PlayStation)
499
What did Sega develop after its first dealings with Philips?
5a42f4eb4a4859001aac73c2
True
CD-i
387
What was Sega's multimedia player?
5a42f4eb4a4859001aac73c3
True
During the SNES's life, Nintendo contracted with two different companies to develop a CD-ROM-based peripheral for the console to compete with Sega's CD-ROM based addon, Mega-CD. Ultimately, deals with both Sony and Philips fell through, (although a prototype console was produced by Sony) with Philips gaining the right to release a series of titles based on Nintendo franchises for its CD-i multimedia player and Sony going on to develop its own console based on its initial dealings with Nintendo (the PlayStation).
What did Nintendo consider emulators?
5730b4e2396df919000962ba
flagrant software piracy
171
False
What is the term for a software product abandoned by its owners?
5730b4e2396df919000962bb
abandonware
280
False
What device allows backing up SNES games?
5730b4e2396df919000962bc
Retrode
396
False
What is the term for homemade software?
5730b4e2396df919000962bd
homebrew
459
False
flagrant software piracy
171
What did owners of the respective game consider emulators?
5a42fd284a4859001aac73db
True
abandonware status
280
What status did discontinued image files have?
5a42fd284a4859001aac73dc
True
make a personal backup
349
What did Nintendo do under abandonware status via the Retrode?
5a42fd284a4859001aac73dd
True
the distribution of SNES ROM image files
49
What were emulation supporters against regarding files?
5a42fd284a4859001aac73de
True
the NES
130
What other system did supporters of SNES emulation also take the same stance with?
5a42fd284a4859001aac73df
True
Nintendo of America took the same stance against the distribution of SNES ROM image files and the use of emulators as it did with the NES, insisting that they represented flagrant software piracy. Proponents of SNES emulation cite discontinued production of the SNES constituting abandonware status, the right of the owner of the respective game to make a personal backup via devices such as the Retrode, space shifting for private use, the desire to develop homebrew games for the system, the frailty of SNES ROM cartridges and consoles, and the lack of certain foreign imports.
What smartphones have SNES emulators?
5730b55f396df919000962cc
Android devices, Apple's iPhone and iPad
66
False
What portable game systems have SNES emulators?
5730b55f396df919000962cd
Sony's PlayStation Portable (PSP), the Nintendo DS and Game Boy Advance, the Gizmondo, the Dingoo and the GP2X by GamePark Holdings
108
False
What was Nintendo's first approved emulator?
5730b55f396df919000962ce
Nintendo's Virtual Console service for the Wii
339
False
Nintendo's Virtual Console service for the Wii
339
What was Android's first official emulator?
5a43023e4a4859001aac73e5
True
individual games
264
What have been included with emulators on Playstation Portable?
5a43023e4a4859001aac73e6
True
Android devices, Apple's iPhone
66
What smartphones have Gamecube emulators?
5a43023e4a4859001aac73e7
True
Sony's PlayStation Portable (PSP), the Nintendo DS and Game Boy Advance, the Gizmondo, the Dingoo and the GP2X by GamePark Holdings
108
What game systems are officially sanctioned by GameCube to include emulators?
5a43023e4a4859001aac73e8
True
SNES9x
486
What is the GP2X a port of on the Wii?
5a43023e4a4859001aac73e9
True
Emulation of the SNES is now available on handheld units, such as Android devices, Apple's iPhone and iPad, Sony's PlayStation Portable (PSP), the Nintendo DS and Game Boy Advance, the Gizmondo, the Dingoo and the GP2X by GamePark Holdings, as well as PDAs. While individual games have been included with emulators on some GameCube discs, Nintendo's Virtual Console service for the Wii marks the introduction of officially sanctioned general SNES emulation, though SNES9x GX, a port of SNES9x, has been made for the Wii.
Which publication said Nintendo's best console ever was the SNES?
5730b5f4069b53140083229f
GameTrailers
9
False
Which writer said the SNES was the best console ever from any company?
5730b5f4069b5314008322a0
Don Reisinger
418
False
Where did GameTrailers rank the SNES among all consoles?
5730b5f4069b5314008322a1
second-best
44
False
Who said the SNES was "simply the most timeless system ever created"?
5730b5f4069b5314008322a2
GamingExcellence
799
False
Where did IGN rank the SNES?
5730b5f4069b5314008322a3
fourth best
1216
False
its graphic, sound, and library of top-quality games
166
Why did GameTrailers name the SNES second-best console of all time in 2008?
5a4305f04a4859001aac73ef
True
the greatest console of all time
456
What did Will Greenwald proclaim about the Playstation in 2009?
5a4305f04a4859001aac73f0
True
GamingExcellence
799
Who said the Playstation was simply the most timeless system ever created?
5a4305f04a4859001aac73f1
True
for its graphics, audio, controllers, and games
1104
Why did Big N. Technology rate the Playstation fifth of ten?
5a4305f04a4859001aac73f2
True
the fourth best video game console
1212
In 2007 how did GamingExcellence rate the NES?
5a4305f04a4859001aac73f3
True
In 2007, GameTrailers named the SNES as the second-best console of all time in their list of top ten consoles that "left their mark on the history of gaming", citing its graphic, sound, and library of top-quality games. In 2015, they also named it the best Nintendo console of all time, saying, "The list of games we love from this console completely annihilates any other roster from the Big N." Technology columnist Don Reisinger proclaimed "The SNES is the greatest console of all time" in January 2008, citing the quality of the games and the console's dramatic improvement over its predecessor; fellow technology columnist Will Greenwald replied with a more nuanced view, giving the SNES top marks with his heart, the NES with his head, and the PlayStation (for its controller) with his hands. GamingExcellence also gave the SNES first place in 2008, declaring it "simply the most timeless system ever created" with many games that stand the test of time and citing its innovation in controller design, graphics capabilities, and game storytelling. At the same time, GameDaily rated it fifth of ten for its graphics, audio, controllers, and games. In 2009, IGN named the Super Nintendo Entertainment System the fourth best video game console, complimenting its audio and "concentration of AAA titles".
Sumer
Some scholars contest that there was only one what?
5730a6cd2461fd1900a9cf4f
substrate language
78
False
Who do some scholars think the Sumerian language originally belonged to?
5730a6cd2461fd1900a9cf50
hunter and fisher peoples
194
False
Where did the original Sumerians live?
5730a6cd2461fd1900a9cf51
marshland
238
False
What culture did the peoples who would be called Sumerian have a part in?
5730a6cd2461fd1900a9cf52
Arabian bifacial
309
False
When were the earliest historical records of Sumer?
5730a6cd2461fd1900a9cf53
26th century BC
462
False
Sumerian
149
What language is believed to have started among nomadic people?
5a64f5eac2b11c001a425b4f
True
Sumerian
149
What people lived in river region of Arabia?
5a64f5eac2b11c001a425b50
True
Enmebaragesi
445
Who was king in the 2600's BC?
5a64f5eac2b11c001a425b51
True
Professor Juris Zarins
480
Who believes the Sumerians lived in the area of modern Persia?
5a64f5eac2b11c001a425b52
True
However, some scholars contest the idea of a Proto-Euphratean language or one substrate language. It has been suggested by them and others, that the Sumerian language was originally that of the hunter and fisher peoples, who lived in the marshland and the Eastern Arabia littoral region, and were part of the Arabian bifacial culture. Reliable historical records begin much later; there are none in Sumer of any kind that have been dated before Enmebaragesi (c. 26th century BC). Professor Juris Zarins believes the Sumerians were settled along the coast of Eastern Arabia, today's Persian Gulf region, before it flooded at the end of the Ice Age.
How long was there native Sumerian rule during the Third Dynasty of Ur?
5730a771069b531400832209
about a century
36
False
When was the Third Dynasty of Ur?
5730a771069b53140083220a
approximately 2100-2000 BC
125
False
What language was in use in the Neo-Sumerian Empire?
5730a771069b53140083220b
Akkadian
161
False
What is considered to be the world's first city?
5730a771069b53140083220c
Eridu
222
False
How many cultures may have fused together in Eridu?
5730a771069b53140083220d
three
320
False
Neo-Sumerian Empire
59
What Empire was followed by native Sumerian rule?
5a64f832c2b11c001a425b57
True
Third Dynasty of Ur
82
What dynasty was in power from the 21st to the 20th century BC?
5a64f832c2b11c001a425b58
True
Eridu
222
What was the worlds first settlement?
5a64f832c2b11c001a425b59
True
three
320
How many cultures could be found in Arabia at the time?
5a64f832c2b11c001a425b5a
True
Native Sumerian rule re-emerged for about a century in the Neo-Sumerian Empire or Third Dynasty of Ur (Sumerian Renaissance) approximately 2100-2000 BC, but the Akkadian language also remained in use. The Sumerian city of Eridu, on the coast of the Persian Gulf, is considered to have been the world's first city, where three separate cultures may have fused — that of peasant Ubaidian farmers, living in mud-brick huts and practicing irrigation; that of mobile nomadic Semitic pastoralists living in black tents and following herds of sheep and goats; and that of fisher folk, living in reed huts in the marshlands, who may have been the ancestors of the Sumerians.
What is the common name given to the non-Semitic dwellers of Mesopotamia by the Akkadians?
5730a824396df91900096250
Sumerian
10
False
What did the Sumerians refer to themselves as in their language?
5730a824396df91900096251
"the black-headed people"
255
False
How did the Sumerians refer to their land?
5730a824396df91900096252
"place of the noble lords"
355
False
Shumer, an Akkadian word, could reference what type of name?
5730a824396df91900096253
geographical
426
False
What compass point of Mesopotamia did the Hebrew Shinar refer to?
5730a824396df91900096254
southern
609
False
"Sumerian"
9
What is the common name for the Semitic people Mesopotamia?
5a64fdf2c2b11c001a425b7d
True
Sumer
100
What were the Semitic Akkadians called?
5a64fdf2c2b11c001a425b7e
True
the Akkadian term šumerû
500
What did the term Shumer lead to?
5a64fdf2c2b11c001a425b7f
True
The term "Sumerian" is the common name given to the ancient non-Semitic inhabitants of Mesopotamia, Sumer, by the Semitic Akkadians. The Sumerians referred to themselves as ùĝ saĝ gíg-ga (cuneiform: 𒌦 𒊕 𒈪 𒂵), phonetically /uŋ saŋ giga/, literally meaning "the black-headed people", and to their land as ki-en-gi(-r) ('place' + 'lords' + 'noble'), meaning "place of the noble lords". The Akkadian word Shumer may represent the geographical name in dialect, but the phonological development leading to the Akkadian term šumerû is uncertain. Hebrew Shinar, Egyptian Sngr, and Hittite Šanhar(a), all referring to southern Mesopotamia, could be western variants of Shumer.
During what periods did the Sumerican city-states rise to power?
5730a8cc2461fd1900a9cf59
prehistoric Ubaid and Uruk
50
False
What is obscure until the Early Dynastic III period around the 23rd century BC?
5730a8cc2461fd1900a9cf5a
Sumerian written history
86
False
What was developed that has allowed archaeologists to read contemporary records and inscriptions?
5730a8cc2461fd1900a9cf5b
syllabary writing system
284
False
When does Classical Sumer end?
5730a8cc2461fd1900a9cf5c
rise of the Akkadian Empire
434
False
What cut short the Sumerian Renaissance in the 21st century BC?
5730a8cc2461fd1900a9cf5d
Semitic Amorite invasions
613
False
Sumerian
4
What city-states declined during the Ubaid and Uruk periods?
5a64ff22c2b11c001a425b83
True
Sumerian written history
86
What history goes back to 2700's BC?
5a64ff22c2b11c001a425b84
True
the historical record
163
What was obscure until 2300 BC?
5a64ff22c2b11c001a425b85
True
Akkadian Empire
446
What Empire came to power in 2300 BC?
5a64ff22c2b11c001a425b86
True
dynasty of Isin
653
What dynasty lasted until the 17th century BC?
5a64ff22c2b11c001a425b87
True
The Sumerian city-states rose to power during the prehistoric Ubaid and Uruk periods. Sumerian written history reaches back to the 27th century BC and before, but the historical record remains obscure until the Early Dynastic III period, c. the 23rd century BC, when a now deciphered syllabary writing system was developed, which has allowed archaeologists to read contemporary records and inscriptions. Classical Sumer ends with the rise of the Akkadian Empire in the 23rd century BC. Following the Gutian period, there is a brief Sumerian Renaissance in the 21st century BC, cut short in the 20th century BC by Semitic Amorite invasions. The Amorite "dynasty of Isin" persisted until c. 1700 BC, when Mesopotamia was united under Babylonian rule. The Sumerians were eventually absorbed into the Akkadian (Assyro-Babylonian) population.
Fine quality painted pottery is a distinctive style of what period in Sumerian history?
5730a9732461fd1900a9cf63
Ubaid
4
False
Where could the pottery be found spread throughout?
5730a9732461fd1900a9cf64
Mesopotamia and the Persian Gulf
106
False
During the Ubaid, where was the first settlement in southern Mesopotamia established?
5730a9732461fd1900a9cf65
Eridu
222
False
What type of agriculture did the farmers settling at Eridu bring with them?
5730a9732461fd1900a9cf66
irrigation
344
False
Who was the chief god of Eridu?
5730a9732461fd1900a9cf67
Enki
796
False
The Ubaid period
0
What period was marked by a decline in Mesopotamian and Persian fine Art?
5a650f65c2b11c001a425bc5
True
the first settlement in southern Mesopotamia
158
what was established at Eridu in the 53rd century BC?
5a650f65c2b11c001a425bc6
True
the Hadji Muhammed culture
294
What culture adopted and improved on irrigation agriculture?
5a650f65c2b11c001a425bc7
True
Uruk
767
What city became the new religious center after Eridu?
5a650f65c2b11c001a425bc8
True
The Ubaid period is marked by a distinctive style of fine quality painted pottery which spread throughout Mesopotamia and the Persian Gulf. During this time, the first settlement in southern Mesopotamia was established at Eridu (Cuneiform: NUN.KI), c. 5300 BC, by farmers who brought with them the Hadji Muhammed culture, which first pioneered irrigation agriculture. It appears that this culture was derived from the Samarran culture from northern Mesopotamia. It is not known whether or not these were the actual Sumerians who are identified with the later Uruk culture. Eridu remained an important religious center when it was gradually surpassed in size by the nearby city of Uruk. The story of the passing of the me (gifts of civilization) to Inanna, goddess of Uruk and of love and war, by Enki, god of wisdom and chief god of Eridu, may reflect this shift in hegemony.
What facilitated the rise of Sumerian cities?
5730a9ff8ab72b1400f9c63a
trade goods
75
False
How were trade goods transported in southern Mesopotamia?
5730aa008ab72b1400f9c63b
transported along the canals and rivers
87
False
How many people lived in the cities?
5730aa008ab72b1400f9c63c
over 10,000
243
False
During which period did Sumerian cities begin using slave labor?
5730aa008ab72b1400f9c63d
Uruk
371
False
What have been found as far east as central Iran?
5730aa008ab72b1400f9c63e
Artifacts
551
False
Uruk period
19
What period ranged from the 41st to the 29th century BC?
5a65142ac2b11c001a425beb
True
goods
81
What was transported along the rovers and canals of northern Mesopotamia?
5a65142ac2b11c001a425bec
True
centralized administrations
269
Who employed many laborers in the cities?
5a65142ac2b11c001a425bed
True
Uruk period
371
When did Sumerians stop using slave labor?
5a65142ac2b11c001a425bee
True
By the time of the Uruk period (c. 4100–2900 BC calibrated), the volume of trade goods transported along the canals and rivers of southern Mesopotamia facilitated the rise of many large, stratified, temple-centered cities (with populations of over 10,000 people) where centralized administrations employed specialized workers. It is fairly certain that it was during the Uruk period that Sumerian cities began to make use of slave labor captured from the hill country, and there is ample evidence for captured slaves as workers in the earliest texts. Artifacts, and even colonies of this Uruk civilization have been found over a wide area—from the Taurus Mountains in Turkey, to the Mediterranean Sea in the west, and as far east as central Iran.
What is an "ensi"?
5730aa6f8ab72b1400f9c644
priest-king
97
False
What type of leadership did Sumerian cities during the Uruk period probably have?
5730aa6f8ab72b1400f9c645
theocratic
53
False
Who assisted the ensi?
5730aa6f8ab72b1400f9c646
a council of elders
129
False
What was the most urbanized city in the world at the time?
5730aa6f8ab72b1400f9c647
Uruk
427
False
Over how many people lived in Uruk?
5730aa6f8ab72b1400f9c648
50,000
507
False
Uruk period
27
When were Sumerian cities lead by a council of elders?
5a65159cc2b11c001a425bfd
True
Sumerian pantheon
216
What was the Sumerian political structure based on?
5a65159cc2b11c001a425bfe
True
Uruk period
27
During what period did Sumeria develop professional soldiers?
5a65159cc2b11c001a425bff
True
50,000 inhabitants
507
How many inhabitants did Sumeria have during the Uruk period?
5a65159cc2b11c001a425c00
True
Sumerian cities during the Uruk period were probably theocratic and were most likely headed by a priest-king (ensi), assisted by a council of elders, including both men and women. It is quite possible that the later Sumerian pantheon was modeled upon this political structure. There was little evidence of organized warfare or professional soldiers during the Uruk period, and towns were generally unwalled. During this period Uruk became the most urbanized city in the world, surpassing for the first time 50,000 inhabitants.
What is the name of the earliest dynastic Sumerian king?
5730ab3a8ab72b1400f9c65c
Etana
108
False
What dynasty was Etana the 13th king of?
5730ab3a8ab72b1400f9c65d
Kish
149
False
Who is the earliest king that is authenticated by actual physical evidence and not just legend?
5730ab3a8ab72b1400f9c65e
Enmebaragesi
222
False
Where is Enmebaragesi's name mentioned?
5730ab3a8ab72b1400f9c65f
Gilgamesh epic
301
False
What is the period of Enmebaragesi's reign associated with?
5730ab3a8ab72b1400f9c660
increased war
472
False
Etana
108
Who is the first Sumerian king?
5a651902c2b11c001a425c0d
True
Etana
108
Who was the king during the last dynasty o Kish?
5a651902c2b11c001a425c0e
True
Enmebaragesi
222
Who was king of Kish in the 2600's BC?
5a651902c2b11c001a425c0f
True
Enmebaragesi
222
What epic was about Enmebaragesi?
5a651902c2b11c001a425c10
True
Gilgamesh
592
What hero destroyed the walls of Uruk?
5a651902c2b11c001a425c11
True
The earliest dynastic king on the Sumerian king list whose name is known from any other legendary source is Etana, 13th king of the first dynasty of Kish. The earliest king authenticated through archaeological evidence is Enmebaragesi of Kish (c. 26th century BC), whose name is also mentioned in the Gilgamesh epic—leading to the suggestion that Gilgamesh himself might have been a historical king of Uruk. As the Epic of Gilgamesh shows, this period was associated with increased war. Cities became walled, and increased in size as undefended villages in southern Mesopotamia disappeared. (Gilgamesh is credited with having built the walls of Uruk).
What is one of the first empires known in history?
5730ab9c396df9190009626a
Eannatum of Lagash,
76
False
What city-state was the rival of Lagash?
5730ab9c396df9190009626b
Umma
212
False
What did Eannatum annex?
5730ab9c396df9190009626c
practically all of Sumer
108
False
What did Eannatum use to keep the people of the time in line?
5730ab9c396df9190009626d
terror
339
False
What happened to Eannatum's empire after his death?
5730ab9c396df9190009626e
collapsed
496
False
that of Eannatum of Lagash
68
What was the shortest empire in history?
5a651a89c2b11c001a425c17
True
Umma
212
What city was the ally of Lagash?
5a651a89c2b11c001a425c18
True
Kish, Uruk, Ur, and Larsa
144
What cities flocked to Eannatum's empire?
5a651a89c2b11c001a425c19
True
Eannatum
76
Who made Lagash a tribute state?
5a651a89c2b11c001a425c1a
True
Although short-lived, one of the first empires known to history was that of Eannatum of Lagash, who annexed practically all of Sumer, including Kish, Uruk, Ur, and Larsa, and reduced to tribute the city-state of Umma, arch-rival of Lagash. In addition, his realm extended to parts of Elam and along the Persian Gulf. He seems to have used terror as a matter of policy. Eannatum's Stele of the Vultures depicts vultures pecking at the severed heads and other body parts of his enemies. His empire collapsed shortly after his death.
Where is the Semetic Akkadian language first found?
5730ac218ab72b1400f9c666
proper names of the kings of Kish
51
False
Where is the Semetic Akkadian language found preserved after 2800 BC?
5730ac218ab72b1400f9c667
king lists
116
False
During whose rule was the use of Old Akkadian at its peak?
5730ac218ab72b1400f9c668
Sargon the Great
256
False
What language did scribes use over Akkadian?
5730ac218ab72b1400f9c669
Sumerian
361
False
How long did Akkadian and Sumerian coexist as spoken languages?
5730ac218ab72b1400f9c66a
about one thousand years
649
False
Semitic Akkadian language
4
What language was used only to make the king lists?
5a651d20c2b11c001a425c29
True
Akkadian language
12
What language was used for the kings list in the 28th century BC?
5a651d20c2b11c001a425c2a
True
texts written entirely in Old Akkadian
138
What was written in the 25th century BC?
5a651d20c2b11c001a425c2b
True
Sargon the Great
256
Who's reign ended in the 22nd century BC?
5a651d20c2b11c001a425c2c
True
Sumerian
698
What was a literary language by the 18th century BC?
5a651d20c2b11c001a425c2d
True
The Semitic Akkadian language is first attested in proper names of the kings of Kish c. 2800 BC, preserved in later king lists. There are texts written entirely in Old Akkadian dating from c. 2500 BC. Use of Old Akkadian was at its peak during the rule of Sargon the Great (c. 2270–2215 BC), but even then most administrative tablets continued to be written in Sumerian, the language used by the scribes. Gelb and Westenholz differentiate three stages of Old Akkadian: that of the pre-Sargonic era, that of the Akkadian empire, and that of the "Neo-Sumerian Renaissance" that followed it. Akkadian and Sumerian coexisted as vernacular languages for about one thousand years, but by around 1800 BC, Sumerian was becoming more of a literary language familiar mainly only to scholars and scribes. Thorkild Jacobsen has argued that there is little break in historical continuity between the pre- and post-Sargon periods, and that too much emphasis has been placed on the perception of a "Semitic vs. Sumerian" conflict. However, it is certain that Akkadian was also briefly imposed on neighboring parts of Elam that were previously conquered by Sargon.
Which dynasty of Ur was the last great Sumerian renaissance?
5730ad61069b531400832231
3rd
11
False
Who guided Ur during the last gasp of power?
5730ad61069b531400832232
Ur-Nammu and Shulgi
35
False
Even during the 3rd dynasty, what was happening to the racial makeup of the region?
5730ad61069b531400832233
more Semitic than Sumerian
184
False
What was there an influx of waves of coming into Sumerian lands?
5730ad61069b531400832234
Amorites
336
False
How long did the Babylonians and Assyrians continue to teach the Sumerian language in their schools?
5730ad61069b531400832235
for as long as cuneiform was utilized.
792
False
the 3rd dynasty of Ur
7
When was the first Sumerian renaissance?
5a651fb6c2b11c001a425c47
True
Ur-Nammu and Shulgi
35
During who's reign was the area becoming more Sumerian than Semitic?
5a651fb6c2b11c001a425c48
True
Assyria and elsewhere
271
Where was the power of Akkadian speaking Semites declining?
5a651fb6c2b11c001a425c49
True
Semitic Martu
321
What people where leaving the are  to form other powers?
5a651fb6c2b11c001a425c4a
True
Old Assyrian Empire
560
Who dominated northern Mesopotamia in the 2100's?
5a651fb6c2b11c001a425c4b
True
Later, the 3rd dynasty of Ur under Ur-Nammu and Shulgi, whose power extended as far as southern Assyria, was the last great "Sumerian renaissance", but already the region was becoming more Semitic than Sumerian, with the rise in power of the Akkadian speaking Semites in Assyria and elsewhere, and the influx of waves of Semitic Martu (Amorites) who were to found several competing local powers including Isin, Larsa, Eshnunna and eventually Babylon. The last of these eventually came to dominate the south of Mesopotamia as the Babylonian Empire, just as the Old Assyrian Empire had already done so in the north from the late 21st century BC. The Sumerian language continued as a sacerdotal language taught in schools in Babylonia and Assyria, much as Latin was used in the Medieval period, for as long as cuneiform was utilized.
What effect was rising salinity having on the agricultural productivity of the Sumerian lands?
5730aea88ab72b1400f9c678
compromised
196
False
The salinity of what in the region was long recognized as a major problem?
5730aea88ab72b1400f9c679
Soil
240
False
Poorly drained irrigated soils in an arid climate with a good deal of evaporation is responsible for leaving what?
5730aea88ab72b1400f9c67a
dissolved salts
420
False
What did cultivation shift from to salt-tolerant barley during the Ur III phase?
5730aea88ab72b1400f9c67b
wheat
580
False
How much did the population of the region decline due to the decrease in crop productivity?
5730aea88ab72b1400f9c67c
by nearly three fifths
752
False
population
65
What shifted from the north to the south of Mesopotamia?
5a652157c2b11c001a425c5b
True
rising salinity
223
What was increasing agricultural productivity in the area?
5a652157c2b11c001a425c5c
True
wheat
580
What crop was more salt tolerant than barley?
5a652157c2b11c001a425c5d
True
reducing agricultural yields
460
What caused the population to decrease between the 21st and 17th century BC?
5a652157c2b11c001a425c5e
True
the population in this area declined
715
What weakened the areas where Akkadian was spoken?
5a652157c2b11c001a425c5f
True
This period is generally taken to coincide with a major shift in population from southern Mesopotamia toward the north. Ecologically, the agricultural productivity of the Sumerian lands was being compromised as a result of rising salinity. Soil salinity in this region had been long recognized as a major problem. Poorly drained irrigated soils, in an arid climate with high levels of evaporation, led to the buildup of dissolved salts in the soil, eventually reducing agricultural yields severely. During the Akkadian and Ur III phases, there was a shift from the cultivation of wheat to the more salt-tolerant barley, but this was insufficient, and during the period from 2100 BC to 1700 BC, it is estimated that the population in this area declined by nearly three fifths. This greatly upset the balance of power within the region, weakening the areas where Sumerian was spoken, and comparatively strengthening those where Akkadian was the major language. Henceforth Sumerian would remain only a literary and liturgical language, similar to the position occupied by Latin in medieval Europe.
Who were a non-Semitic caucasoid people?
5730af512461fd1900a9cf8f
The Sumerians
0
False
What influences did the Sumerian language seem to retain?
5730af512461fd1900a9cf90
earlier inhabitants
257
False
What do archaeological records clearly show about the Sumerian culture?
5730af512461fd1900a9cf91
uninterrupted cultural continuity
325
False
When were settlements started in southern Mesopotamia?
5730af512461fd1900a9cf92
early Ubaid period
380
False
Why were the lands in the region the Sumerian people settled fertile?
5730af512461fd1900a9cf93
silt deposited by the Tigris and the Euphrates rivers
553
False
The Sumerians
0
What people were Semitic Caucasoid?
5a65223bc2b11c001a425c65
True
Ubaid period
386
What period began in the 53rd century?
5a65223bc2b11c001a425c66
True
Tigris and the Euphrates rivers
575
Where did people fish in the Ubaid period?
5a65223bc2b11c001a425c67
True
The Sumerians were a non-Semitic caucasoid people, and spoke a language isolate; a number of linguists believed they could detect a substrate language beneath Sumerian, because names of some of Sumer's major cities are not Sumerian, revealing influences of earlier inhabitants. However, the archaeological record shows clear uninterrupted cultural continuity from the time of the early Ubaid period (5300 – 4700 BC C-14) settlements in southern Mesopotamia. The Sumerian people who settled here farmed the lands in this region that were made fertile by silt deposited by the Tigris and the Euphrates rivers.
Where do some archaeologists speculate Sumerians originally moved from?
5730b004396df91900096288
the north
96
False
What had the Sumerians perfected before coming south?
5730b004396df91900096289
irrigation agriculture
124
False
Who were the first to practice a primitive form of irrigation agriculture?
5730b004396df9190009628a
the Samarra
266
False
How many levels of pre-Ubaid pottery were excavated by the French in the 1980s?
5730b004396df9190009628b
eight
582
False
What did the temple-centered social organization of the farming peoples allow them to mobilize?
5730b004396df9190009628c
labor
807
False
Sumerian
45
Who perfected irrigation in the south of Mesopotamia?
5a6523aec2b11c001a425c75
True
Sumerian
45
Who moved from south Mesopotamia to the north?
5a6523aec2b11c001a425c76
True
Samarra period culture
270
What cultural period began in the 57th century BC?
5a6523aec2b11c001a425c77
True
irrigation agriculture
383
What type of agriculture was developed along the Euphrates river?
5a6523aec2b11c001a425c78
True
It is speculated by some archaeologists that Sumerian speakers were farmers who moved down from the north, after perfecting irrigation agriculture there. The Ubaid pottery of southern Mesopotamia has been connected via Choga Mami transitional ware to the pottery of the Samarra period culture (c. 5700 – 4900 BC C-14) in the north, who were the first to practice a primitive form of irrigation agriculture along the middle Tigris River and its tributaries. The connection is most clearly seen at Tell Awayli (Oueilli, Oueili) near Larsa, excavated by the French in the 1980s, where eight levels yielded pre-Ubaid pottery resembling Samarran ware. According to this theory, farming peoples spread down into southern Mesopotamia because they had developed a temple-centered social organization for mobilizing labor and technology for water control, enabling them to survive and prosper in a difficult environment.[citation needed]
How were women protected in Sumerian society?
5730b096396df9190009629c
law
45
False
What gender dominated Sumerian culture?
5730b096396df9190009629d
male
157
False
Whose code reveals a bit about the societal structure through Sumerian law?
5730b096396df9190009629e
Ur-Nammu
185
False
Who was at the top of the power pyramid in Sumerian society?
5730b096396df9190009629f
the lu-gal
355
False
How many strata existed in Sumerian society?
5730b096396df919000962a0
two
431
False
women
7
Who had higher status in other cultures that in Sumeria?
5a652498c2b11c001a425c7d
True
Ur-Nammu
185
Who's code protected women above all others?
5a652498c2b11c001a425c7e
True
A woman
572
Who was able to remarry whenever they chose?
5a652498c2b11c001a425c7f
True
Though women were protected by late Sumerian law and were able to achieve a higher status in Sumer than in other contemporary civilizations, the culture was male-dominated. The Code of Ur-Nammu, the oldest such codification yet discovered, dating to the Ur-III "Sumerian Renaissance", reveals a glimpse at societal structure in late Sumerian law. Beneath the lu-gal ("great man" or king), all members of society belonged to one of two basic strata: The "lu" or free person, and the slave (male, arad; female geme). The son of a lu was called a dumu-nita until he married. A woman (munus) went from being a daughter (dumu-mi), to a wife (dam), then if she outlived her husband, a widow (numasu) and she could then remarry.
What were the most important discoveries for archaeologists from Sumer?
5730b14b069b531400832271
tablets written in cuneiform
77
False
What is Sumerian writing considered to be in the development of man's ability to create literature?
5730b14b069b531400832272
milestone
216
False
What followed cuneiform in writing?
5730b14b069b531400832273
Ideograms
495
False
How many texts in the Sumerian language have survived to modern day?
5730b14b069b531400832274
hundreds of thousands
648
False
What was the Sumerian language used for long have their civilization had diminished?
5730b14b069b531400832275
religion and law in Mesopotamia
1113
False
Sumerian writing
107
What are the oldest examples of writing?
5a6525d4c2b11c001a425c8d
True
hieroglyphs
445
What kind of picture writing followed cuneiform?
5a6525d4c2b11c001a425c8e
True
moist clay.
620
were wedge shaped stones used to write on?
5a6525d4c2b11c001a425c8f
True
personal or business letters, receipts, lexical lists, laws, hymns, prayers, stories, daily records, and even libraries full of clay tablets
727
What type of ideogram writings have survived?
5a6525d4c2b11c001a425c90
True
scribes
1051
Who were the only people who could write at the time?
5a6525d4c2b11c001a425c91
True
The most important archaeological discoveries in Sumer are a large number of tablets written in cuneiform. Sumerian writing, while proven to be not the oldest example of writing on earth, is considered to be a great milestone in the development of man's ability to not only create historical records but also in creating pieces of literature both in the form of poetic epics and stories as well as prayers and laws. Although pictures — that is, hieroglyphs — were first used, cuneiform and then Ideograms (where symbols were made to represent ideas) soon followed. Triangular or wedge-shaped reeds were used to write on moist clay. A large body of hundreds of thousands of texts in the Sumerian language have survived, such as personal or business letters, receipts, lexical lists, laws, hymns, prayers, stories, daily records, and even libraries full of clay tablets. Monumental inscriptions and texts on different objects like statues or bricks are also very common. Many texts survive in multiple copies because they were repeatedly transcribed by scribes-in-training. Sumerian continued to be the language of religion and law in Mesopotamia long after Semitic speakers had become dominant.
Why is the Sumerian language usually thought of as a language isolate in linguistics?
5730b4be8ab72b1400f9c6c8
belongs to no known language family
92
False
Akkadian's language can be traced to the Semitic branch of what languages?
5730b4be8ab72b1400f9c6c9
Afroasiatic
189
False
What has been the result of attempts to connect Sumerian to other language groups?
5730b4be8ab72b1400f9c6ca
failed
233
False
What are morphemes?
5730b4be8ab72b1400f9c6cb
"units of meaning"
355
False
In Sumerian, what are morphemes added together to create?
5730b4be8ab72b1400f9c6cc
words
404
False
it belongs to no known language family
89
Why is Akkadian an isolate language?
5a6526ddc2b11c001a425ca1
True
morphemes
443
What are added together to make words in analytic languages?
5a6526ddc2b11c001a425ca2
True
Proto-Euphratean or Proto Tigrean
684
What language has been proven to proceed Sumerian?
5a6526ddc2b11c001a425ca3
True
The Sumerian language is generally regarded as a language isolate in linguistics because it belongs to no known language family; Akkadian, by contrast, belongs to the Semitic branch of the Afroasiatic languages. There have been many failed attempts to connect Sumerian to other language groups. It is an agglutinative language; in other words, morphemes ("units of meaning") are added together to create words, unlike analytic languages where morphemes are purely added together to create sentences. Some authors have proposed that there may be evidence of a sub-stratum or add-stratum language for geographic features and various crafts and agricultural activities, called variously Proto-Euphratean or Proto Tigrean, but this is disputed by others.
How many cosmogenic myths does the religion of the Sumerians appear to be founded upon?
5730b5b4069b531400832295
two
50
False
What does one myth see creation as being the result of?
5730b5b4069b531400832296
a series of hieros gami
121
False
In the Enuma Elish, what is creation seen as the union of?
5730b5b4069b531400832297
fresh and salt water
406
False
What were the titles given to the gate keeps of the E-Abzu temple of Enki?
5730b5b4069b531400832298
the muddy ones
505
False
Who was the Lady Sacred Mountain?
5730b5b4069b531400832299
Ninhursag
1026
False
cosmogenic myths.
63
What influenced world religions?
5a653936c2b11c001a425cbb
True
Sumerian religion seems to have been founded upon two separate cosmogenic myths. The first saw creation as the result of a series of hieros gami or sacred marriages, involving the reconciliation of opposites, postulated as a coming together of male and female divine beings; the gods. This continued to influence the whole Mesopotamian mythos. Thus in the Enuma Elish the creation was seen as the union of fresh and salt water; as male Abzu, and female Tiamat. The product of that union, Lahm and Lahmu, "the muddy ones", were titles given to the gate keepers of the E-Abzu temple of Enki, in Eridu, the first Sumerian city. Describing the way that muddy islands emerge from the confluence of fresh and salty water at the mouth of the Euphrates, where the river deposited its load of silt, a second hieros gamos supposedly created Anshar and Kishar, the "sky-pivot" or axle, and the "earth pivot", parents in turn of Anu (the sky) and Ki (the earth). Another important Sumerian hieros gamos was that between Ki, here known as Ninhursag or "Lady Sacred Mountain", and Enki of Eridu, the god of fresh water which brought forth greenery and pasture.
What did the Sumerian deities form?
5730b6398ab72b1400f9c6d2
a core pantheon
21
False
What could Sumerian gods be associated with?
5730b6398ab72b1400f9c6d3
different cities
134
False
What did the religious importance of city gods wax and wan with?
5730b6398ab72b1400f9c6d4
those cities' political power
210
False
Why did the gods create human beings from clay?
5730b6398ab72b1400f9c6d5
for the purpose of serving them
299
False
How could a citizen avoid their labor duty to their local temple?
5730b6398ab72b1400f9c6d6
a payment of silver
485
False
gods
95
What did each Sumerian city have?
5a653a16c2b11c001a425cbd
True
cities' political power.
216
What changed with a particular gods popularity?
5a653a16c2b11c001a425cbe
True
gods
245
Who made humans for their amusement?
5a653a16c2b11c001a425cbf
True
The temples
332
who organized large building projects?
5a653a16c2b11c001a425cc0
True
These deities formed a core pantheon; there were additionally hundreds of minor ones. Sumerian gods could thus have associations with different cities, and their religious importance often waxed and waned with those cities' political power. The gods were said to have created human beings from clay for the purpose of serving them. The temples organized the mass labour projects needed for irrigation agriculture. Citizens had a labor duty to the temple, though they could avoid it by a payment of silver.
What were Sumerian temples known as?
5730b6e08ab72b1400f9c6dc
Ziggurats
0
False
What was the central pond in the forecourt of a Ziggurat for?
5730b6e08ab72b1400f9c6dd
purification
111
False
Who were the rooms on either side of the aisles in the temple for?
5730b6e08ab72b1400f9c6de
the priests
232
False
What was the mudbrick table in the temple for?
5730b6e08ab72b1400f9c6df
animal and vegetable sacrifices
304
False
Where did the Sumerians usually locate their granaries and storehouses?
5730b6e08ab72b1400f9c6e0
near the temples
384
False
central pond
94
What feature of temples provided fresh drinking water?
5a653ad5c2b11c001a425cc5
True
Granaries and storehouses
337
What was stored away from the temples?
5a653ad5c2b11c001a425cc6
True
Ziggurat
558
what was a precursor to pyramids?
5a653ad5c2b11c001a425cc7
True
Ziggurats (Sumerian temples) each had an individual name and consisted of a forecourt, with a central pond for purification. The temple itself had a central nave with aisles along either side. Flanking the aisles would be rooms for the priests. At one end would stand the podium and a mudbrick table for animal and vegetable sacrifices. Granaries and storehouses were usually located near the temples. After a time the Sumerians began to place the temples on top of multi-layered square constructions built as a series of rising terraces, giving rise to the Ziggurat style.
What type of afterlife could Sumerians look forward to?
5730b7842461fd1900a9cfdd
confined to a gloomy world
53
False
What realm was guarded by gateways containing various monsters?
5730b7842461fd1900a9cfde
Ereshkigal
83
False
Where were dead Sumerians buried?
5730b7842461fd1900a9cfdf
outside the city walls in graveyards
222
False
Who was Queen Puabi accompanied in death by?
5730b7842461fd1900a9cfe0
her servants
526
False
What type of instrument are the Sumerians thought to have invented to use at royal funerals?
5730b7842461fd1900a9cfe1
oboe-like
594
False
It was believed that when people died, they would be confined to a gloomy world of Ereshkigal, whose realm was guarded by gateways with various monsters designed to prevent people entering or leaving. The dead were buried outside the city walls in graveyards where a small mound covered the corpse, along with offerings to monsters and a small amount of food. Those who could afford it sought burial at Dilmun. Human sacrifice was found in the death pits at the Ur royal cemetery where Queen Puabi was accompanied in death by her servants. It is also said that the Sumerians invented the first oboe-like instrument, and used them at royal funerals.
When do the pictograms suggest Sumerians had domesticated livestock?
5730b8338ab72b1400f9c6fa
Uruk period
22
False
What was the primary purpose of oxen for Sumerians?
5730b8338ab72b1400f9c6fb
beasts of burden
155
False
What animal did Sumerians use primary to facilitate transportation?
5730b8338ab72b1400f9c6fc
donkeys
176
False
What might be found by the side of a Sumerian house?
5730b8338ab72b1400f9c6fd
enclosed garden planted with trees and other plants
350
False
Where were plants also grown besides the garden?
5730b8338ab72b1400f9c6fe
pots or vases
554
False
sheep, goats, cattle, and pigs
73
What animals were domesticated following the Uruk period?
5a653cdbc2b11c001a425ccb
True
Sumerian
13
Who used donkeys as beasts of burden?
5a653cdbc2b11c001a425ccc
True
Sumerian
13
Who first grew plants in pots?
5a653cdbc2b11c001a425ccd
True
pictograms
49
What writing form was invented by the Sumerian?
5a653cdbc2b11c001a425cce
True
In the early Sumerian Uruk period, the primitive pictograms suggest that sheep, goats, cattle, and pigs were domesticated. They used oxen as their primary beasts of burden and donkeys or equids as their primary transport animal and "woollen clothing as well as rugs were made from the wool or hair of the animals. ... By the side of the house was an enclosed garden planted with trees and other plants; wheat and probably other cereals were sown in the fields, and the shaduf was already employed for the purpose of irrigation. Plants were also grown in pots or vases."
What was Sumerians one of the first societies known to consume?
5730b8f5396df919000962d8
beer
42
False
What was the key ingredient in early Sumerian brews?
5730b8f5396df919000962d9
Cereals
67
False
What kinds of beer did the Sumerians brew?
5730b8f5396df919000962da
wheat, barley, and mixed grain
188
False
How important was beer brewing to Sumerians?
5730b8f5396df919000962db
very important
243
False
What did Enkidu become and do after consuming seven jugs of beer?
5730b8f5396df919000962dc
expansive and sang with joy
480
False
Sumerians
4
Who invented beer?
5a653d60c2b11c001a425cd3
True
Epic of Gilgamesh
301
What Epic tells how to make beer?
5a653d60c2b11c001a425cd4
True
Gilgamesh
309
What hero refused to drink beer?
5a653d60c2b11c001a425cd5
True
The Sumerians were one of the first known beer drinking societies. Cereals were plentiful and were the key ingredient in their early brew. They brewed multiple kinds of beer consisting of wheat, barley, and mixed grain beers. Beer brewing was very important to the Sumerians. It was referenced in the Epic of Gilgamesh when Enkidu was introduced to the food and beer of Gilgamesh's people: "Drink the beer, as is the custom of the land... He drank the beer-seven jugs! and became expansive and sang with joy!"
How do archaeologists know about Sumerian agricultural practices?
5730b9a8396df919000962e2
from the "Sumerian Farmer's Almanac"
12
False
When would farmers flood their fields?
5730b9a8396df919000962e3
after the Spring Equinox and the Akitu
77
False
Why did the Sumerian farmers make their oxen stomp the ground?
5730b9a8396df919000962e4
kill weeds
256
False
How many times did Sumerian farmers plow, harrow and rake the ground?
5730b9a8396df919000962e5
three times
370
False
The the Ur III period, what crop had Sumerians switched to from wheat for their primary crop?
5730b9a8396df919000962e6
salt-tolerant barley
607
False
Sumerian
22
What people first wrote an Almanac?
5a653e05c2b11c001a425cd9
True
"Sumerian Farmer's Almanac",
21
What was the name of the first Almanac?
5a653e05c2b11c001a425cda
True
their fields
176
What did farmers flood just before the new year?
5a653e05c2b11c001a425cdb
True
By the Ur III period
541
When did farmers switch from barley to wheat?
5a653e05c2b11c001a425cdc
True
As is known from the "Sumerian Farmer's Almanac", after the flood season and after the Spring Equinox and the Akitu or New Year Festival, using the canals, farmers would flood their fields and then drain the water. Next they made oxen stomp the ground and kill weeds. They then dragged the fields with pickaxes. After drying, they plowed, harrowed, and raked the ground three times, and pulverized it with a mattock, before planting seed. Unfortunately the high evaporation rate resulted in a gradual increase in the salinity of the fields. By the Ur III period, farmers had switched from wheat to the more salt-tolerant barley as their principal crop.
What does Archibald Sayce think early Sumerian pictograms suggest about the availability of stone?
5730ba6b8ab72b1400f9c71e
was scarce
113
False
How did the Sumerians fashion the stone they cut?
5730ba6b8ab72b1400f9c71f
into blocks and seals
145
False
What was the ordinary building material of Sumerians?
5730ba6b8ab72b1400f9c720
Brick
168
False
What kind of appearance did Sumerian houses have?
5730ba6b8ab72b1400f9c721
tower-like
366
False
What were the foundation stones of Sumerian houses consecrated by?
5730ba6b8ab72b1400f9c722
objects that were deposited under them
632
False
the primitive pictograms
30
What suggested that stone was common?
5a653ebec2b11c001a425ce1
True
Archibald Sayce,
13
Who claims stone was common in Sumeria since it was used for seals?
5a653ebec2b11c001a425ce2
True
cities, forts, temples
222
Where were towers built from stone?
5a653ebec2b11c001a425ce3
True
According to Archibald Sayce, the primitive pictograms of the early Sumerian (i.e. Uruk) era suggest that "Stone was scarce, but was already cut into blocks and seals. Brick was the ordinary building material, and with it cities, forts, temples and houses were constructed. The city was provided with towers and stood on an artificial platform; the house also had a tower-like appearance. It was provided with a door which turned on a hinge, and could be opened with a sort of key; the city gate was on a larger scale, and seems to have been double. The foundation stones — or rather bricks — of a house were consecrated by certain objects that were deposited under them."
What is the most impressive and famous style of Sumerian buildings?
5730bb058ab72b1400f9c728
the ziggurats
57
False
Sumerians also built houses from reeds not very different from ones built by inhabitants in Iraq as recently as when?
5730bb058ab72b1400f9c729
400 CE
261
False
What development by the Sumerians allowed them to make use of domes?
5730bb058ab72b1400f9c72a
the arch
298
False
How did the Sumerians build their strong domes?
5730bb058ab72b1400f9c72b
by constructing and linking several arches
377
False
Where were the use of advanced materials and techniques on display in Sumer?
5730bb058ab72b1400f9c72c
Sumerian temples and palaces
421
False
ziggurats
61
What are the oldest examples of "Sumerian buildings?
5a653f82c2b11c001a425ce7
True
cylinder seals
130
What type of seals were made with reeds?
5a653f82c2b11c001a425ce8
True
houses built from reeds
157
What type of house was built until the 4th century CE?
5a653f82c2b11c001a425ce9
True
the Marsh Arabs of Southern Iraq
207
Who built reed houses until the 4th century CE?
5a653f82c2b11c001a425cea
True
The most impressive and famous of Sumerian buildings are the ziggurats, large layered platforms which supported temples. Sumerian cylinder seals also depict houses built from reeds not unlike those built by the Marsh Arabs of Southern Iraq until as recently as 400 CE. The Sumerians also developed the arch, which enabled them to develop a strong type of dome. They built this by constructing and linking several arches. Sumerian temples and palaces made use of more advanced materials and techniques,[citation needed] such as buttresses, recesses, half columns, and clay nails.
What did the Sumerians a complex system of around 4000 BC?
5730bbb2069b5314008322cd
metrology
44
False
From the Sumerian metrology sprang forth the creation of what disciplines?
5730bbb2069b5314008322ce
arithmetic, geometry, and algebra
118
False
Where did the Sumerians put their multiplication tables?
5730bbb2069b5314008322cf
on clay tablets
220
False
When was the abacus first seen between?
5730bbb2069b5314008322d0
2700 – 2300 BC
388
False
What were the Sumerians the first to do when it came to mathematics?
5730bbb2069b5314008322d1
use a place value numeral system
596
False
Sumerians
4
Who developed  a complex system of metrology in the 4th century BC?
5a65407fc2b11c001a425cef
True
multiplication tables
198
What type of math did the Sumerians invent by the 26th century BC?
5a65407fc2b11c001a425cf0
True
abacus
435
What tool was invented in the 27th century BC?
5a65407fc2b11c001a425cf1
True
Sumerians
667
Who invented the slide ruler?
5a65407fc2b11c001a425cf2
True
The Sumerians developed a complex system of metrology c. 4000 BC. This advanced metrology resulted in the creation of arithmetic, geometry, and algebra. From c. 2600 BC onwards, the Sumerians wrote multiplication tables on clay tablets and dealt with geometrical exercises and division problems. The earliest traces of the Babylonian numerals also date back to this period. The period c. 2700 – 2300 BC saw the first appearance of the abacus, and a table of successive columns which delimited the successive orders of magnitude of their sexagesimal number system. The Sumerians were the first to use a place value numeral system. There is also anecdotal evidence the Sumerians may have used a type of slide rule in astronomical calculations. They were the first to find the area of a triangle and the volume of a cube.
What were the main types of loans in Sumerian society?
5730bc458ab72b1400f9c746
Commercial credit and agricultural consumer
0
False
What was trade credit backed by when extended by temples?
5730bc458ab72b1400f9c747
silver
188
False
How man shekel per mina was the interest rate for loans?
5730bc458ab72b1400f9c748
one
239
False
For how long was the interest rate of Sumerian loans consistent?
5730bc458ab72b1400f9c749
about two thousand years
319
False
What typically arose as a result of unpaid obligations?
5730bc458ab72b1400f9c74a
Rural loans
345
False
temples
121
Who extended personal credit to citizens?
5a654145c2b11c001a425cf7
True
interest rate
200
What was set at 1/60 a month after 2000 BC?
5a654145c2b11c001a425cf8
True
a temple)
437
Who lent money to farmers to plant crops?
5a654145c2b11c001a425cf9
True
Commercial credit and agricultural consumer loans were the main types of loans. The trade credit was usually extended by temples in order to finance trade expeditions and was nominated in silver. The interest rate was set at 1/60 a month (one shekel per mina) some time before 2000 BC and it remained at that level for about two thousand years. Rural loans commonly arose as a result of unpaid obligations due to an institution (such as a temple), in this case the arrears were considered to be lent to the debtor. They were denominated in barley or other crops and the interest rate was typically much higher than for commercial loans and could amount to 1/3 to 1/2 of the loan principal.
What type of debt did "clean slate" decrees cancel?
5730bd1d396df91900096304
rural
81
False
When did rulers typically proclaim "clean slate" decrees?
5730bd1d396df91900096305
the first full year of their reign
210
False
Who made the first known clean slate decrees?
5730bd1d396df91900096306
Enmetena and Urukagina
361
False
Why were the clean slate decrees useful to the rulers of Sumer?
5730bd1d396df91900096307
to prevent debts mounting to a degree that they threatened fighting force
465
False
What would happen if peasants couldn't repay their debts?
5730bd1d396df91900096308
lost the subsistence land or became bondservants
570
False
rulers
50
Who some times cleared commercial debts?
5a6541cfc2b11c001a425cfd
True
"clean slate" decrees
13
What was it called when rulers cleared commercial debts?
5a6541cfc2b11c001a425cfe
True
Enmetena and Urukagina of Lagash
361
Who made a clean slate decree in the 24th century BC?
5a6541cfc2b11c001a425cff
True
Periodically "clean slate" decrees were signed by rulers which cancelled all the rural (but not commercial) debt and allowed bondservants to return to their homes. Customarily rulers did it at the beginning of the first full year of their reign, but they could also be proclaimed at times of military conflict or crop failure. The first known ones were made by Enmetena and Urukagina of Lagash in 2400-2350 BC. According to Hudson, the purpose of these decrees was to prevent debts mounting to a degree that they threatened fighting force which could happen if peasants lost the subsistence land or became bondservants due to the inability to repay the debt.
What contributed to developing military technology for Sumer?
5730bdce069b5314008322e1
almost constant wars
4
False
How many years were the Sumerian city-states at war?
5730bdce069b5314008322e2
2000 years
60
False
Who was the first war between in 2525 BC?
5730bdce069b5314008322e3
Lagash and Umma
203
False
What did the king of Lagash's army mostly consist of?
5730bdce069b5314008322e4
infantry
351
False
What shape were the shields of the infantry of Lagash?
5730bdce069b5314008322e5
rectangular
426
False
The almost constant wars among the Sumerian city-states for 2000 years helped to develop the military technology and techniques of Sumer to a high level. The first war recorded in any detail was between Lagash and Umma in c. 2525 BC on a stele called the Stele of the Vultures. It shows the king of Lagash leading a Sumerian army consisting mostly of infantry. The infantrymen carried spears, wore copper helmets, and carried rectangular shields. The spearmen are shown arranged in what resembles the phalanx formation, which requires training and discipline; this implies that the Sumerians may have made use of professional soldiers.
When did evidence of wheeled vehicles appear throughout the world?
5730c000396df91900096314
mid 4th millennium BC
45
False
What form did wheels initially take?
5730c000396df91900096315
potter's wheel
204
False
The writing system of the Sumerian's is the second oldest to have what done to it?
5730c000396df91900096316
been deciphered
399
False
What did the Sumerians map stars into?
5730c000396df91900096317
sets of constellations
591
False
How many planets were the Sumerians aware of?
5730c000396df91900096318
five
728
False
wheeled vehicles
12
What type of vehicle was invented in 400 BC?
5a65438fc2b11c001a425d03
True
cuneiform
300
What  writing system predates heiroglphs?
5a65438fc2b11c001a425d04
True
astronomers
555
What science was developed by Greeks?
5a65438fc2b11c001a425d05
True
five
728
How many planets did the Sumerians discover?
5a65438fc2b11c001a425d06
True
Evidence of wheeled vehicles appeared in the mid 4th millennium BC, near-simultaneously in Mesopotamia, the Northern Caucasus (Maykop culture) and Central Europe. The wheel initially took the form of the potter's wheel. The new concept quickly led to wheeled vehicles and mill wheels. The Sumerians' cuneiform writing system is the oldest (or second oldest after the Egyptian hieroglyphs) which has been deciphered (the status of even older inscriptions such as the Jiahu symbols and Tartaria tablets is controversial). The Sumerians were among the first astronomers, mapping the stars into sets of constellations, many of which survived in the zodiac and were also recognized by the ancient Greeks. They were also aware of the five planets that are easily visible to the naked eye.
Sumerians used number systems which included what alternating bases?
5730c2c8b7151e1900c01522
base 10 and base 6
132
False
What type of number system was standard in Sumer and Babylonia?
5730c2c8b7151e1900c01523
sexagesimal
157
False
What type of formations is it possible Sumerians invented?
5730c2c8b7151e1900c01524
military
257
False
What systems did the Sumerians develop which remain the first known these types to this day?
5730c2c8b7151e1900c01525
legal and administrative
392
False
In Sumerian society, who oversaw the operation of the first formal schools?
5730c2c8b7151e1900c01526
a city-state's primary temple
1002
False
sexagesimal system
157
What system did Sumerians borrow from Babylonia?
5a654495c2b11c001a425d0b
True
writing
668
What was being used for private purposes well before the 26th century BC?
5a654495c2b11c001a425d0c
True
formal schools
939
What learning centers were established the temples?
5a654495c2b11c001a425d0d
True
Sumer
213
Who made the first laws?
5a654495c2b11c001a425d0e
True
They invented and developed arithmetic by using several different number systems including a mixed radix system with an alternating base 10 and base 6. This sexagesimal system became the standard number system in Sumer and Babylonia. They may have invented military formations and introduced the basic divisions between infantry, cavalry, and archers. They developed the first known codified legal and administrative systems, complete with courts, jails, and government records. The first true city-states arose in Sumer, roughly contemporaneously with similar entities in what are now Syria and Lebanon. Several centuries after the invention of cuneiform, the use of writing expanded beyond debt/payment certificates and inventory lists to be applied for the first time, about 2600 BC, to messages and mail delivery, history, legend, mathematics, astronomical records, and other pursuits. Conjointly with the spread of writing, the first formal schools were established, usually under the auspices of a city-state's primary temple.
Tuvalu
What is the previous name of Tuvalu?
5730ae26396df91900096274
Ellice Islands
84
False
In which ocean is Tuvalu found?
5730ae26396df91900096275
Pacific Ocean
145
False
Between what land areas is Tuvalu located?
5730ae26396df91900096276
Hawaii and Australia
175
False
According the the 2012 census, how many people live on the Tuvalu islands?
5730ae26396df91900096277
10,640
455
False
What originally formed the Tuvalu islands?
5730ae26396df91900096278
reef
216
False
Tuvalu (i/tuːˈvɑːluː/ too-VAH-loo or /ˈtuːvəluː/ TOO-və-loo), formerly known as the Ellice Islands, is a Polynesian island nation located in the Pacific Ocean, midway between Hawaii and Australia. It comprises three reef islands and six true atolls spread out between the latitude of 5° to 10° south and longitude of 176° to 180°, west of the International Date Line. Its nearest neighbours are Kiribati, Nauru, Samoa and Fiji. Tuvalu has a population of 10,640 (2012 census). The total land area of the islands of Tuvalu is 26 square kilometres (10 sq mi).
In what year was Tuvalu discovered by a European?
5730afad069b531400832255
1568
3
False
Who was the discoverer of Tuvalu?
5730afad069b531400832256
Álvaro de Mendaña
27
False
What land mass was de Mendana actually seeking?
5730afad069b531400832257
Terra Australis
163
False
What was Tuvalu named in 1819?
5730afad069b531400832258
Ellice Islands
447
False
By what means did the British govern Tuvalu?
5730afad069b531400832259
British protectorate
602
False
In 1568, Spanish navigator Álvaro de Mendaña was the first European to sail through the archipelago, sighting the island of Nui during his expedition in search of Terra Australis. In 1819 the island of Funafuti was named Ellice's Island; the name Ellice was applied to all nine islands after the work of English hydrographer Alexander George Findlay. The islands came under Britain's sphere of influence in the late 19th century, when each of the Ellice Islands was declared a British Protectorate by Captain Gibson of HMS Curacoa between 9 and 16 October 1892. The Ellice Islands were administered as British protectorate by a Resident Commissioner from 1892 to 1916 as part of the British Western Pacific Territories (BWPT), and then as part of the Gilbert and Ellice Islands colony from 1916 to 1974.
How many years ago did migrations of people happen in the Pacific area?
5730b108069b531400832267
3000 years
120
False
By what means did locale people travel between Pacific islands?
5730b108069b531400832268
canoe
189
False
How many islands are in the Tuvalu group?
5730b108069b531400832269
nine islands
271
False
On how many of Tuvalu's islands did people live?
5730b108069b53140083226a
Eight
258
False
What is the native language meaning of Tuvalu?
5730b108069b53140083226b
eight standing together
340
False
The origins of the people of Tuvalu are addressed in the theories regarding migration into the Pacific that began about 3000 years ago. During pre-European-contact times there was frequent canoe voyaging between the nearer islands including Samoa and Tonga. Eight of the nine islands of Tuvalu were inhabited; thus the name, Tuvalu, means "eight standing together" in Tuvaluan (compare to *walo meaning "eight" in Proto-Austronesian). Possible evidence of fire in the Caves of Nanumanga may indicate human occupation for thousands of years.
What is the creation myth of Tuvalu?
5730b2b08ab72b1400f9c6b4
te Pusi mo te Ali
72
False
What does the flounder of the Tuvalu myth represent?
5730b2b08ab72b1400f9c6b5
flat atolls
210
False
What does the eel of the Tuvalu creation myth represent?
5730b2b08ab72b1400f9c6b6
coconut palms
280
False
From what land did the people of Niutao believe they came?
5730b2b08ab72b1400f9c6b7
Samoa
498
False
From where did the people of the island of Nanumea think they came?
5730b2b08ab72b1400f9c6b8
Tonga
573
False
An important creation myth of the islands of Tuvalu is the story of the te Pusi mo te Ali (the Eel and the Flounder) who created the islands of Tuvalu; te Ali (the flounder) is believed to be the origin of the flat atolls of Tuvalu and the te Pusin (the Eel) is the model for the coconut palms that are important in the lives of Tuvaluans. The stories as to the ancestors of the Tuvaluans vary from island to island. On Niutao, Funafuti and Vaitupu the founding ancestor is described as being from Samoa; whereas on Nanumea the founding ancestor is described as being from Tonga.
What explorer traveled through the Tuvalu islands in 1764?
5730b4618ab72b1400f9c6be
Captain John Byron
0
False
What was Captain Byron doing when he visited Tuvalu?
5730b4618ab72b1400f9c6bf
circumnavigation of the globe
75
False
How did Byron name the Tuvalu islands?
5730b4618ab72b1400f9c6c0
Lagoon Islands
167
False
Which island of Tuvalu was identified as the one that Mourelle sailed past in 1781?
5730b4618ab72b1400f9c6c1
Niutao
234
False
When were chronometers available for accurate location charting?
5730b4618ab72b1400f9c6c2
late 18th
618
False
Captain John Byron passed through the islands of Tuvalu in 1764 during his circumnavigation of the globe as captain of the Dolphin (1751). Byron charted the atolls as Lagoon Islands. Keith S. Chambers and Doug Munro (1980) identified Niutao as the island that Francisco Mourelle de la Rúa sailed past on 5 May 1781, thus solving what Europeans had called The Mystery of Gran Cocal. Mourelle's map and journal named the island El Gran Cocal ('The Great Coconut Plantation'); however, the latitude and longitude was uncertain. Longitude could only be reckoned crudely as accurate chronometers were unavailable until the late 18th century.
When did Arent Schuyler de Peyster visit Tuvalu?
5730be6a2461fd1900a9d03b
May 1819
209
False
Which of the Tuvalu isalnds did de Peyster see?
5730be6a2461fd1900a9d03c
Nukufetau and Funafuti
238
False
What name did de Peyster give the Tuvalu islands?
5730be6a2461fd1900a9d03d
Ellice's Island
277
False
For whom did de Peyster name Ellice's Island?
5730be6a2461fd1900a9d03e
Edward Ellice
322
False
After Findlay's charting how many islands of the group were named Ellice?
5730be6a2461fd1900a9d03f
all nine islands
444
False
The next European to visit was Arent Schuyler de Peyster, of New York, captain of the armed brigantine or privateer Rebecca, sailing under British colours, which passed through the southern Tuvaluan waters in May 1819; de Peyster sighted Nukufetau and Funafuti, which he named Ellice's Island after an English Politician, Edward Ellice, the Member of Parliament for Coventry and the owner of the Rebecca's cargo. The name Ellice was applied to all nine islands after the work of English hydrographer Alexander George Findlay.
In what years did Peruvian ships seek laborers in the Polynesian islands?
5730c03d069b5314008322fb
1862–63
29
False
What was the name applied to the trade of dealing with labor hunters?
5730c03d069b5314008322fc
blackbirding
95
False
By what means did Blackbirders often get islanders aboard their ships?
5730c03d069b5314008322fd
tricks
452
False
Who was the earliest missionary to Tuvalu?
5730c03d069b5314008322fe
Rev. A. W. Murray
559
False
When did Murray report people missing because of Blackbirders?
5730c03d069b5314008322ff
1863
639
False
For less than a year between 1862–63, Peruvian ships, engaged in what became to be called the "blackbirding" trade, combed the smaller islands of Polynesia from Easter Island in the eastern Pacific to Tuvalu and the southern atolls of the Gilbert Islands (now Kiribati), seeking recruits to fill the extreme labour shortage in Peru. While some islanders were voluntary recruits the "blackbirders" were notorious for enticing islanders on to ships with tricks, such as pretending to be Christian missionaries, as well as kidnapping islanders at gun point. The Rev. A. W. Murray, the earliest European missionary in Tuvalu, reported that in 1863 about 170 people were taken from Funafuti and about 250 were taken from Nukulaelae, as there were fewer than 100 of the 300 recorded in 1861 as living on Nukulaelae.
When did Christianity arrive in Tuvalu?
5730c1ae396df91900096328
1861
31
False
What church deacon was washed ashore on Nukulaelae?
5730c1ae396df91900096329
Elekana
41
False
What missionary was the first European missionary to come to Tuvalu?
5730c1ae396df9190009632b
Rev. A. W. Murray
420
False
Of what nationality were most of the ministers of the Church of Tuvalu?
5730c1ae396df9190009632c
Samoans
820
False
Christianity came to Tuvalu in 1861 when Elekana, a deacon of a Congregational church in Manihiki, Cook Islands became caught in a storm and drifted for 8 weeks before landing at Nukulaelae on 10 May 1861. Elekana began proselytising Christianity. He was trained at Malua Theological College, a London Missionary Society (LMS) school in Samoa, before beginning his work in establishing the Church of Tuvalu. In 1865 the Rev. A. W. Murray of the LMS – a Protestant congregationalist missionary society – arrived as the first European missionary where he too proselytised among the inhabitants of Tuvalu. By 1878 Protestantism was well established with preachers on each island. In the later 19th and early 20th centuries the ministers of what became the Church of Tuvalu (Te Ekalesia Kelisiano Tuvalu) were predominantly Samoans, who influenced the development of the Tuvaluan language and the music of Tuvalu.
In what century did trading companies arrive in Tuvalu?
5730c30bf6cb411900e24460
mid-19th
49
False
What type of traders did the trading companies employ on Tuvalu?
5730c30bf6cb411900e24461
palagi traders
97
False
Who was the first European to permanently settle on Tuvalu?
5730c30bf6cb411900e24462
John (also known as Jack) O'Brien
138
False
Which native did O'Brien marry?
5730c30bf6cb411900e24463
Salai
272
False
What trader turned author established a post on Tuvalu?
5730c30bf6cb411900e24464
Louis Becke
328
False
Trading companies became active in Tuvalu in the mid-19th century; the trading companies engaged palagi traders who lived on the islands. John (also known as Jack) O'Brien was the first European to settle in Tuvalu, he became a trader on Funafuti in the 1850s. He married Salai, the daughter of the paramount chief of Funafuti. Louis Becke, who later found success as a writer, was a trader on Nanumanga from April 1880 until the trading-station was destroyed later that year in a cyclone. He then became a trader on Nukufetau.
What sea captain reported on the Tuvalu trading in 1892?
5730c426aca1c71400fe5a93
Captain Davis
8
False
What was the name of Davis's ship?
5730c426aca1c71400fe5a94
HMS Royalist
29
False
What did palagi traders act as for the trading companies?
5730c426aca1c71400fe5a95
agents
460
False
How many traders did some islands have?
5730c426aca1c71400fe5a96
competing
518
False
What type of islands in the Tuvalu group have few traders?
5730c426aca1c71400fe5a97
dryer
542
False
In 1892 Captain Davis of the HMS Royalist reported on trading activities and traders on each of the islands visited. Captain Davis identified the following traders in the Ellice Group: Edmund Duffy (Nanumea); Jack Buckland (Niutao); Harry Nitz (Vaitupu); John (also known as Jack) O'Brien (Funafuti); Alfred Restieaux and Emile Fenisot (Nukufetau); and Martin Kleis (Nui). During this time, the greatest number of palagi traders lived on the atolls, acting as agents for the trading companies. Some islands would have competing traders while dryer islands might only have a single trader.
What operational changes caused a decline in the numbers of palagi traders in Tuvalu?
5730c960b54a4f140068cc5c
structural changes
62
False
What type of traders did the Pacific trading companies cease to use?
5730c960b54a4f140068cc5d
resident
186
False
How did the trading companies begin to trade with islanders?
5730c960b54a4f140068cc5e
deal directly
316
False
By what year were there no more palagi traders on Tuvalu?
5730c960b54a4f140068cc5f
1909
562
False
What is the term for a ship's cargo manager?
5730c960b54a4f140068cc60
supercargo
261
False
In the later 1890s and into first decade of the 20th century, structural changes occurred in the operation of the Pacific trading companies; they moved from a practice of having traders resident on each island to instead becoming a business operation where the supercargo (the cargo manager of a trading ship) would deal directly with the islanders when a ship visited an island. From 1900 the numbers of palagi traders in Tuvalu declined and the last of the palagi traders were Fred Whibley on Niutao, Alfred Restieaux on Nukufetau, and Martin Kleis on Nui. By 1909 there were no more resident palagi traders representing the trading companies, although both Whibley and Restieaux remained in the islands until their deaths.
What writer visited the Tuvalu Islands in 1890?
5730cac5f6cb411900e244b8
Robert Louis Stevenson
8
False
When did Robert Louis Stevenson sail on the ship Janet Nicoll?
5730cac5f6cb411900e244b9
1890
3
False
What type of ship was the Janet Nicoll?
5730cac5f6cb411900e244ba
trading steamer
125
False
Who recorded the trip aboard the Janet Nicoll?
5730cac5f6cb411900e244bb
Fanny Vandegrift Stevenson
41
False
What was the title of the travel book written by Fanny Vandegrift Stevenson?
5730cac5f6cb411900e244bc
The Cruise of the Janet Nichol
585
False
In 1890 Robert Louis Stevenson, his wife Fanny Vandegrift Stevenson and her son Lloyd Osbourne sailed on the Janet Nicoll, a trading steamer owned by Henderson and Macfarlane of Auckland, New Zealand, which operated between Sydney and Auckland and into the central Pacific. The Janet Nicoll visited three of the Ellice Islands; while Fanny records that they made landfall at Funafuti, Niutao and Nanumea, Jane Resture suggests that it was more likely they landed at Nukufetau rather than Funafuti. An account of this voyage was written by Fanny Stevenson and published under the title The Cruise of the Janet Nichol, together with photographs taken by Robert Louis Stevenson and Lloyd Osbourne.
What are the boreholes on Funafuti called?
5730cc66b54a4f140068cc6c
Darwin's Drill
50
False
What group conducted a study of coral on Funafuti?
5730cc66b54a4f140068cc6d
Royal Society of London
110
False
What formations was the Royal Society studying?
5730cc66b54a4f140068cc6e
coral reefs
184
False
Who's basic work in the area of coral reefs did the Royal Society's investigations follow?
5730cc66b54a4f140068cc6f
Charles Darwin
406
False
What was Darwin's work on coral reefs titled?
5730cc66b54a4f140068cc70
The Structure and Distribution of Coral Reefs
347
False
The boreholes on Funafuti, at the site now called Darwin's Drill, are the result of drilling conducted by the Royal Society of London for the purpose of investigating the formation of coral reefs to determine whether traces of shallow water organisms could be found at depth in the coral of Pacific atolls. This investigation followed the work on The Structure and Distribution of Coral Reefs conducted by Charles Darwin in the Pacific. Drilling occurred in 1896, 1897 and 1898. Professor Edgeworth David of the University of Sydney was a member of the 1896 "Funafuti Coral Reef Boring Expedition of the Royal Society", under Professor William Sollas and lead the expedition in 1897. Photographers on these trips recorded people, communities, and scenes at Funafuti.
What naturalist was on the 1896 expedition to Funafuti?
5730cd10aca1c71400fe5ad5
Charles Hedley
0
False
What type of objects did Hedley collect on Funafuti
5730cd10aca1c71400fe5ad6
invertebrate and ethnological
129
False
Charles Hedley, a naturalist at the Australian Museum, accompanied the 1896 expedition and during his stay on Funafuti collected invertebrate and ethnological objects. The descriptions of these were published in Memoir III of the Australian Museum Sydney between 1896 and 1900. Hedley also wrote the General Account of the Atoll of Funafuti, The Ethnology of Funafuti, and The Mollusca of Funafuti. Edgar Waite was also part of the 1896 expedition and published an account of The mammals, reptiles, and fishes of Funafuti. William Rainbow described the spiders and insects collected at Funafuti in The insect fauna of Funafuti.
For what purpose was Funafuti used during the Pacific War?
5730d28cb54a4f140068cc9c
a base
44
False
What group occupied the Gilbert Islands?
5730d28cb54a4f140068cc9d
Japanese forces
153
False
What action delayed the Japanese occupation of the Gilbert Islands?
5730d28cb54a4f140068cc9e
Battle of the Coral Sea
405
False
From what time span were USN Torpedo Boats stationed at Funafuti?
5730d28cb54a4f140068cc9f
2 November 1942 to 11 May 1944
1103
False
On what islet did US forces build a seaplane ramp?
5730d28cb54a4f140068cca0
Fongafale
820
False
During the Pacific War Funafuti was used as a base to prepare for the subsequent seaborn attacks on the Gilbert Islands (Kiribati) that were occupied by Japanese forces. The United States Marine Corps landed on Funafuti on 2 October 1942 and on Nanumea and Nukufetau in August 1943. The Japanese had already occupied Tarawa and other islands in what is now Kiribati, but were delayed by the losses at the Battle of the Coral Sea. The islanders assisted the American forces to build airfields on Funafuti, Nanumea and Nukufetau and to unload supplies from ships. On Funafuti the islanders shifted to the smaller islets so as to allow the American forces to build the airfield and to build naval bases and port facilities on Fongafale. A Naval Construction Battalion (Seabees) built a sea plane ramp on the lagoon side of Fongafale islet for seaplane operations by both short and long range seaplanes and a compacted coral runway was also constructed on Fongafale, with runways also constructed to create Nanumea Airfield and Nukufetau Airfield. USN Patrol Torpedo Boats (PTs) were based at Funafuti from 2 November 1942 to 11 May 1944.
In what year was ministerial government started in the Gilbert and Ellice islands?
5730d756b7151e1900c0156a
1974
3
False
What document was changed to cause a change in government?
5730d756b7151e1900c0156b
Constitution
111
False
When was a referendum held to determine the government of Ellice?
5730d756b7151e1900c0156c
December 1974
196
False
What was the determination of the referendum?
5730d756b7151e1900c0156d
separation
349
False
What did the Tuvaluan Order 1976 recognize Tuvalu to be?
5730d756b7151e1900c0156e
British dependency
478
False
In 1974 ministerial government was introduced to the Gilbert and Ellice Islands Colony through a change to the Constitution. In that year a general election was held; and a referendum was held in December 1974 to determine whether the Gilbert Islands and Ellice Islands should each have their own administration. As a consequence of the referendum, separation occurred in two stages. The Tuvaluan Order 1975, which took effect on 1 October 1975, recognised Tuvalu as a separate British dependency with its own government. The second stage occurred on 1 January 1976 when separate administrations were created out of the civil service of the Gilbert and Ellice Islands Colony.
When did Tuvalu acquire independence?
5730d8b2f6cb411900e244e2
October 1978
187
False
What was formed in 1974?
5730d8b2f6cb411900e244e3
British colony of Tuvalu
31
False
After independence, what was the Assembly on Tuvalu  named?
5730d8b2f6cb411900e244e4
Parliament of Tuvalu
242
False
What type of parliament does Tuvalu have?
5730d8b2f6cb411900e244e5
unicameral
289
False
In Tuvalu government, what group elect the Prime Minster?
5730d8b2f6cb411900e244e6
members of parliament
368
False
From 1974 (the creation of the British colony of Tuvalu) until independence, the legislative body of Tuvalu was called the House of the Assembly or Fale I Fono. Following independence in October 1978 the House of the Assembly was renamed the Parliament of Tuvalu or Palamene o Tuvalu. The unicameral Parliament has 15 members with elections held every four years. The members of parliament select the Prime Minister (who is the head of government) and the Speaker of Parliament. The ministers that form the Cabinet are appointed by the Governor General on the advice of the Prime Minister.
How many courts are there on Tuvalu?
5730d9d8aca1c71400fe5b0b
eight
10
False
What is the name of the superior court of Tuvalu?
5730d9d8aca1c71400fe5b0c
High Court of Tuvalu
323
False
What is the High Court's right to determine?
5730d9d8aca1c71400fe5b0d
Law of Tuvalu
403
False
What judge is the Chief Justice of the Tuvalu High Court?
5730d9d8aca1c71400fe5b0e
Sir Gordon Ward
460
False
To where can judgments be appealed?
5730d9d8aca1c71400fe5b0f
Court of Appeal of Tuvalu
565
False
There are eight Island Courts and Lands Courts; appeals in relation to land disputes are made to the Lands Courts Appeal Panel. Appeals from the Island Courts and the Lands Courts Appeal Panel are made to the Magistrates Court, which has jurisdiction to hear civil cases involving up to $T10,000. The superior court is the High Court of Tuvalu as it has unlimited original jurisdiction to determine the Law of Tuvalu and to hear appeals from the lower courts. Sir Gordon Ward is the current Chief Justice of Tuvalu. Rulings of the High Court can be appealed to the Court of Appeal of Tuvalu. From the Court of Appeal there is a right of appeal to Her Majesty in Council, i.e., the Privy Council in London.
In what group is Tuvalu involved?
5730db52b7151e1900c01574
Secretariat of the Pacific Community
35
False
In which forum group is Tuvalu a member?
5730db52b7151e1900c01575
Pacific Islands Forum
133
False
In which British group is Tuvalu a member?
5730db52b7151e1900c01576
Commonwealth of Nations
160
False
To what world organization does Tuvalu belong?
5730db52b7151e1900c01577
United Nations
192
False
On what date did Tuvalu join the Pacific Islands Development Forum?
5730db52b7151e1900c01578
18 February 2016
363
False
Tuvalu participates in the work of Secretariat of the Pacific Community, or SPC (sometimes Pacific Community) and is a member of the Pacific Islands Forum, the Commonwealth of Nations and the United Nations. Tuvalu has maintained a mission at the United Nations in New York City since 2000. Tuvalu is a member of the World Bank and the Asian Development Bank. On 18 February 2016 Tuvalu signed the Pacific Islands Development Forum Charter and formally joined the Pacific Islands Development Forum (PIDF).
What crisis is a major concern for Tuvalu at the UN?
5730dd2cb7151e1900c01586
global warming
168
False
In concert with global warming, what is Tuvalu's other envirnmental priority?
5730dd2cb7151e1900c01587
sea level rising
200
False
What agreement does Tuvalu advocate ratification?
5730dd2cb7151e1900c01588
Kyoto Protocol
274
False
What did Tuvalu call for from other nations concerning reduction of carbon emissions?
5730dd2cb7151e1900c01589
binding deals
483
False
What does Tuvalu feel its position to be in climate change?
5730dd2cb7151e1900c0158a
vulnerable
591
False
A major international priority for Tuvalu in the UN, at the 2002 Earth Summit in Johannesburg, South Africa and in other international fora, is promoting concern about global warming and the possible sea level rising. Tuvalu advocates ratification and implementation of the Kyoto Protocol. In December 2009 the islands stalled talks on climate change at the United Nations Climate Change Conference in Copenhagen, fearing some other developing countries were not committing fully to binding deals on a reduction in carbon emissions. Their chief negotiator stated, "Tuvalu is one of the most vulnerable countries in the world to climate change and our future rests on the outcome of this meeting."
Of what alliance is Tuvalu a member?
5730df65f6cb411900e24504
Alliance of Small Island States
27
False
What is the AOSIS'S main concern?
5730df65f6cb411900e24505
climate change
215
False
To what agreement has Tuvalu committed?
5730df65f6cb411900e24506
Majuro Declaration
241
False
What type of energy does the Majuro Declaration advocate?
5730df65f6cb411900e24507
100% renewable
354
False
By what means does Tuvalu plan to produce 95% of its energy?
5730df65f6cb411900e24508
Solar PV
443
False
Tuvalu participates in the Alliance of Small Island States (AOSIS), which is a coalition of small island and low-lying coastal countries that have concerns about their vulnerability to the adverse effects of global climate change. Under the Majuro Declaration, which was signed on 5 September 2013, Tuvalu has commitment to implement power generation of 100% renewable energy (between 2013 and 2020), which is proposed to be implemented using Solar PV (95% of demand) and biodiesel (5% of demand). The feasibility of wind power generation will be considered. Tuvalu participates in the operations of the Pacific Islands Applied Geoscience Commission (SOPAC) and the Secretariat of the Pacific Regional Environment Programme (SPREP).
In what fishery group does Tuvalu participate?
5730e152aca1c71400fe5b33
Pacific Island Forum Fisheries Agency
45
False
Of what fishery treaty is Tuvalu a signatory?
5730e152aca1c71400fe5b34
South Pacific Tuna Treaty
264
False
What is the focus of the Nauru Agreement?
5730e152aca1c71400fe5b35
tuna purse seine fishing
413
False
Of what did Tuvalu agree to the extension ?
5730e152aca1c71400fe5b36
Multilateral Fisheries Treaty
615
False
What did Tuvalu refuse to sell in 2015?
5730e152aca1c71400fe5b37
fishing days
1255
False
Tuvalu participates in the operations of the Pacific Island Forum Fisheries Agency (FFA) and the Western and Central Pacific Fisheries Commission (WCPFC). The Tuvaluan government, the US government, and the governments of other Pacific islands, are parties to the South Pacific Tuna Treaty (SPTT), which entered into force in 1988. Tuvalu is also a member of the Nauru Agreement which addresses the management of tuna purse seine fishing in the tropical western Pacific. In May 2013 representatives from the United States and the Pacific Islands countries agreed to sign interim arrangement documents to extend the Multilateral Fisheries Treaty (which encompasses the South Pacific Tuna Treaty) to confirm access to the fisheries in the Western and Central Pacific for US tuna boats for 18 months. Tuvalu and the other members of the Pacific Island Forum Fisheries Agency (FFA) and the United States have settled a tuna fishing deal for 2015; a longer term deal will be negotiated. The treaty is an extension of the Nauru Agreement and provides for US flagged purse seine vessels to fish 8,300 days in the region in return for a payment of US$90 million made up by tuna fishing industry and US-Government contributions. In 2015 Tuvalu has refused to sell fishing days to certain nations and fleets that have blocked Tuvaluan initiatives to develop and sustain their own fishery.
What trade agreement did Tuvalu sign in 2013?
5730e32fb7151e1900c015ae
Memorandum of Understanding
31
False
What does the Memorandum concern?
5730e32fb7151e1900c015af
Pacific Regional Trade
82
False
What does the trade agreement encompass?
5730e32fb7151e1900c015b0
Economic Partnership Agreement
204
False
With what group does the  agreement form an alliance?
5730e32fb7151e1900c015b1
European Union
276
False
To whom does the Facility seek to deliver aid?
5730e32fb7151e1900c015b2
Pacific island countries
379
False
In July 2013 Tuvalu signed the Memorandum of Understanding (MOU) to establish the Pacific Regional Trade and Development Facility, which Facility originated in 2006, in the context of negotiations for an Economic Partnership Agreement (EPA) between Pacific ACP States and the European Union. The rationale for the creation of the Facility being to improve the delivery of aid to Pacific island countries in support of the Aid-for-Trade (AfT) requirements. The Pacific ACP States are the countries in the Pacific that are signatories to the Cotonou Agreement with the European Union.
What is the Tuvalu high chief on each island called?
5730e4b4b7151e1900c015b8
ulu-aliki
39
False
What is the name of the sub-chiefs in Tuvalu?
5730e4b4b7151e1900c015b9
alikis
74
False
What is the Tuvaluan traditional assembly of elders?
5730e4b4b7151e1900c015ba
Falekaupule
112
False
What was the caste of priests in the past on Tuvalu?
5730e4b4b7151e1900c015bb
tofuga
260
False
With what group do the falekaupule share power on Tuvalu?
5730e4b4b7151e1900c015bc
pule o kaupule
529
False
Each island has its own high-chief, or ulu-aliki, and several sub-chiefs (alikis). The community council is the Falekaupule (the traditional assembly of elders) or te sina o fenua (literally: "grey-hairs of the land"). In the past, another caste, the priests (tofuga), were also amongst the decision-makers. The ulu-aliki and aliki exercise informal authority at the local level. Ulu-aliki are always chosen based on ancestry. Under the Falekaupule Act (1997), the powers and functions of the Falekaupule are now shared with the pule o kaupule (elected village presidents; one on each atoll).
What was the argument against the deportation of a Tuvaluan family from new Zealand?
5730e671b54a4f140068ccc6
climate change refugees
170
False
By what reason was the Tuvaluan family allowed to immigrate?
5730e671b54a4f140068ccc7
humanitarian nature
532
False
What court ruled the claim of climate change refugee to be untenable?
5730e671b54a4f140068ccc8
New Zealand High Court
895
False
What feature was missing in the climate change claims?
5730e671b54a4f140068ccc9
persecution or serious harm
950
False
What document draws out the requirements of refugee status?
5730e671b54a4f140068ccca
Refugee Convention
1016
False
In 2014 attention was drawn to an appeal to the New Zealand Immigration and Protection Tribunal against the deportation of a Tuvaluan family on the basis that they were "climate change refugees", who would suffer hardship resulting from the environmental degradation of Tuvalu. However the subsequent grant of residence permits to the family was made on grounds unrelated to the refugee claim. The family was successful in their appeal because, under the relevant immigration legislation, there were "exceptional circumstances of a humanitarian nature" that justified the grant of resident permits as the family was integrated into New Zealand society with a sizeable extended family which had effectively relocated to New Zealand. Indeed, in 2013 a claim of a Kiribati man of being a "climate change refugee" under the Convention relating to the Status of Refugees (1951) was determined by the New Zealand High Court to be untenable as there was no persecution or serious harm related to any of the five stipulated Refugee Convention grounds. Permanent migration to Australia and New Zealand, such as for family reunification, requires compliance with the immigration legislation of those countries.
What is New Zealand's annual quota of Tuvaluan granted work permits?
5730e7ddf6cb411900e24532
75
35
False
What must a Tuvaluan have to be considered for a work permit in New Zealand?
5730e7ddf6cb411900e24533
job offer
262
False
How many Pacific islander seasonal workers are permitted?
5730e7ddf6cb411900e24534
5,000
522
False
What is the program that allows season employees work permits?
5730e7ddf6cb411900e24535
Australian Pacific Seasonal Worker Program
608
False
What program was introduced in 2007 for season workers in New Zealand?
5730e7ddf6cb411900e24536
Recognised Seasonal Employer (RSE) Work Policy
423
False
New Zealand has an annual quota of 75 Tuvaluans granted work permits under the Pacific Access Category, as announced in 2001. The applicants register for the Pacific Access Category (PAC) ballots; the primary criteria is that the principal applicant must have a job offer from a New Zealand employer. Tuvaluans also have access to seasonal employment in the horticulture and viticulture industries in New Zealand under the Recognised Seasonal Employer (RSE) Work Policy introduced in 2007 allowing for employment of up to 5,000 workers from Tuvalu and other Pacific islands. Tuvaluans can participate in the Australian Pacific Seasonal Worker Program, which allows Pacific Islanders to obtain seasonal employment in the Australian agriculture industry, in particular cotton and cane operations; fishing industry, in particular aquaculture; and with accommodation providers in the tourism industry.
Besides English, what is the national language of Tuvalu?
5730e927aca1c71400fe5b57
Tuvaluan
4
False
What is the language group of the Tuvaluan language?
5730e927aca1c71400fe5b58
Ellicean group
91
False
What other languages is the Tuvaluan language related?
5730e927aca1c71400fe5b59
Polynesian
162
False
To what area's language is Tuvaluan closely related?
5730e927aca1c71400fe5b5a
Micronesia
318
False
From what language does Tuvaluan borrow many linguistic traits?
5730e927aca1c71400fe5b5b
Samoan
400
False
The Tuvaluan language and English are the national languages of Tuvalu. Tuvaluan is of the Ellicean group of Polynesian languages, distantly related to all other Polynesian languages such as Hawaiian, Māori, Tahitian, Samoan and Tongan. It is most closely related to the languages spoken on the Polynesian outliers in Micronesia and northern and central Melanesia. The language has borrowed from the Samoan language, as a consequence of Christian missionaries in the late 19th and early 20th centuries being predominantly Samoan.
What is the only hospital in Tuvalu?
5730ea7df6cb411900e2454e
Princess Margaret Hospital
4
False
On which island in Tuvalu is the hospital?
5730ea7df6cb411900e2454f
Funafuti
34
False
How many nurses does Princess Margaret have on staff?
5730ea7df6cb411900e24550
13
412
False
What kind of nursing services do outer islands nurses provide?
5730ea7df6cb411900e24551
midwifery
682
False
How many nurses are provided to the outer islands?
5730ea7df6cb411900e24552
nine or ten
611
False
The Princess Margaret Hospital on Funafuti is the only hospital in Tuvalu. The Tuvaluan medical staff at PMH in 2011 comprised the Director of Health & Surgeon, the Chief Medical Officer Public Health, an anaesthetist, a paediatric medical officer and an obstetrics and gynaecology medical officer. Allied health staff include two radiographers, two pharmacists, three laboratory technicians, two dieticians and 13 nurses with specialised training in fields including surgical nursing, anaesthesia nursing/ICU, paediatric nursing and midwifery. PMH also employs a dentist. The Department of Health also employs nine or ten nurses on the outer islands to provide general nursing and midwifery services.
What group funds the Augmented Foundation Programme?
5730ec2a497a881900248a53
government of Tuvalu
337
False
Where is the Augmented Programme required for further education?
5730ec2a497a881900248a54
outside of Tuvalu
418
False
In what educational institution is the program found?
5730ec2a497a881900248a55
University of the South Pacific
460
False
Where is the Extension Centre for the USP?
5730ec2a497a881900248a56
Funafuti
518
False
Which students go into the Augmented Foundation Programme?
5730ec2a497a881900248a57
Sixth form
238
False
Fetuvalu offers the Cambridge syllabus. Motufoua offers the Fiji Junior Certificate (FJC) at year 10, Tuvaluan Certificate at Year 11 and the Pacific Senior Secondary Certificate (PSSC) at Year 12, set by the Fiji-based exam board SPBEA. Sixth form students who pass their PSSC go on to the Augmented Foundation Programme, funded by the government of Tuvalu. This program is required for tertiary education programmes outside of Tuvalu and is available at the University of the South Pacific (USP) Extension Centre in Funafuti.
What is the required education for males on Tuvalu?
5730ed3ea5e9cc1400cdbaf1
10 years
33
False
How long are females required to go to school?
5730ed3ea5e9cc1400cdbaf2
11 years
56
False
What was the literacy rate on Tuvalu in 2002?
5730ed3ea5e9cc1400cdbaf3
99.0%
112
False
How many students were in Tuvalu schools in 2010?
5730ed3ea5e9cc1400cdbaf4
1,918
146
False
What si the teacher-student ratio for Tuvalu schools?
5730ed3ea5e9cc1400cdbaf5
1:18
292
False
Required attendance at school is 10 years for males and 11 years for females (2001). The adult literacy rate is 99.0% (2002). In 2010, there were 1,918 students who were taught by 109 teachers (98 certified and 11 uncertified). The teacher-pupil ratio for primary schools in Tuvalu is around 1:18 for all schools with the exception of Nauti School, which has a teacher-student ratio of 1:27. Nauti School on Funafuti is the largest primary in Tuvalu with more than 900 students (45 percent of the total primary school enrolment). The pupil-teacher ratio for Tuvalu is low compared to the Pacific region (ratio of 1:29).
What type of school has Tuvalu set up on each atoll?
57310107a5e9cc1400cdbb87
Community Training Centres
0
False
What from of education do Community Training Centres provide?
57310107a5e9cc1400cdbb88
vocational training
115
False
For what have CTC students failed to qualify ?
57310107a5e9cc1400cdbb89
secondary education
231
False
Besides children, who can Take CTC  classes?
57310107a5e9cc1400cdbb8a
Adults
497
False
What kind of training classes are offered at CTC?
57310107a5e9cc1400cdbb8b
basic
279
False
Community Training Centres (CTCs) have been established within the primary schools on each atoll. The CTCs provide vocational training to students who do not progress beyond Class 8 because they failed the entry qualifications for secondary education. The CTCs offer training in basic carpentry, gardening and farming, sewing and cooking. At the end of their studies the graduates can apply to continue studies either at Motufoua Secondary School or the Tuvalu Maritime Training Institute (TMTI). Adults can also attend courses at the CTCs.
What were the traditional building materials on Tuvalu?
5731023c05b4da19006bccd0
plants and trees
41
False
What type of trees provided lumber for building on Tuvalu?
5731023c05b4da19006bccd1
broadleaf forest
74
False
What building material did coconut provide?
5731023c05b4da19006bccd2
fibre
307
False
What construction feature was lacking in Tuvaluan building?
5731023c05b4da19006bccd3
nails
430
False
From what was rope made for tying buildings together?
5731023c05b4da19006bccd4
dried coconut fibre
520
False
The traditional buildings of Tuvalu used plants and trees from the native broadleaf forest, including timber from: Pouka, (Hernandia peltata); Ngia or Ingia bush, (Pemphis acidula); Miro, (Thespesia populnea); Tonga, (Rhizophora mucronata); Fau or Fo fafini, or woman's fibre tree (Hibiscus tiliaceus). and fibre from: coconut; Ferra, native fig (Ficus aspem); Fala, screw pine or Pandanus. The buildings were constructed without nails and were lashed and tied together with a plaited sennit rope that was handmade from dried coconut fibre.
What sea creatures were used in traditional handicrafts?
573103f2497a881900248aef
shells
41
False
In what item has Tuvalu traditional design been produced?
573103f2497a881900248af0
clothing
161
False
What type of decorative items use traditional Tuvalu designs?
573103f2497a881900248af1
mats and fans
224
False
For what  have objects having traditional design been used?
573103f2497a881900248af2
everyday life
394
False
What traditional purpose are Tuvalu designs still used?
573103f2497a881900248af3
dance songs
639
False
The women of Tuvalu use cowrie and other shells in traditional handicrafts. The artistic traditions of Tuvalu have traditionally been expressed in the design of clothing and traditional handicrafts such as the decoration of mats and fans. Crochet (kolose) is one of the art forms practiced by Tuvaluan women. The material culture of Tuvalu uses traditional design elements in artefacts used in everyday life such as the design of canoes and fish hooks made from traditional materials. The design of women's skirts (titi), tops (teuga saka), headbands, armbands, and wristbands, which continue to be used in performances of the traditional dance songs of Tuvalu, represents contemporary Tuvaluan art and design.
What is the stable protein  of Tuvalu?
573106f5e6313a140071cb6a
fish
80
False
What vegetable features in the Tuvalu diet?
573106f5e6313a140071cb6b
coconut
48
False
What kind of milk has been replaced with coconut milk on Tuvalu?
573106f5e6313a140071cb6c
animal
205
False
What type of meat is eaten on Tuvalu?
573106f5e6313a140071cb6d
seabirds
423
False
At what event is pork traditionally eaten on Tuvalu?
573106f5e6313a140071cb6e
fateles
516
False
The cuisine of Tuvalu is based on the staple of coconut and the many species of fish found in the ocean and lagoons of the atolls. Desserts made on the islands include coconut and coconut milk, instead of animal milk. The traditional foods eaten in Tuvalu are pulaka, taro, bananas, breadfruit and coconut. Tuvaluans also eat seafood, including coconut crab and fish from the lagoon and ocean. A traditional food source is seabirds (taketake or black noddy and akiaki or white tern), with pork being eaten mostly at fateles (or parties with dancing to celebrate events).
What type of structure is the falekaupule?
5731085a05b4da19006bccf6
meeting hall
80
False
Besides meetings, for what other use is the meeting hall used?
5731085a05b4da19006bccf7
celebrations
167
False
Aside from being defined as a meeting hall, what other definition does falekaupule have?
5731085a05b4da19006bccf8
council of elders
304
False
What is the traditional use of the falekaupule?
5731085a05b4da19006bccf9
decision making body
340
False
What is the traditional customs and culture on Tuvalu?
5731085a05b4da19006bccfa
Aganu
516
False
Another important building is the falekaupule or maneapa the traditional island meeting hall, where important matters are discussed and which is also used for wedding celebrations and community activities such as a fatele involving music, singing and dancing. Falekaupule is also used as the name of the council of elders – the traditional decision making body on each island. Under the Falekaupule Act, Falekaupule means "traditional assembly in each island...composed in accordance with the Aganu of each island". Aganu means traditional customs and culture.
What is the traditional sport on Tuvalu?
5731106ee6313a140071cbd8
kilikiti
40
False
To what sport is kilikiti like?
5731106ee6313a140071cbd9
cricket
70
False
What is the Tuvalu version of volley ball?
5731106ee6313a140071cbda
Ano
185
False
What group disliked the traditional war-like sports of Tuvalu?
5731106ee6313a140071cbdb
Christian missionaries
501
False
With what equipment is ano played?
5731106ee6313a140071cbdc
two hard balls
240
False
A traditional sport played in Tuvalu is kilikiti, which is similar to cricket. A popular sport specific to Tuvalu is Ano, which is played with two round balls of 12 cm (5 in) diameter. Ano is a localised version of volleyball, in which the two hard balls made from pandanus leaves are volleyed at great speed with the team members trying to stop the Ano hitting the ground. Traditional sports in the late 19th century were foot racing, lance throwing, quarterstaff fencing and wrestling, although the Christian missionaries disapproved of these activities.
What athlete won Tuvalu's first gold metal in competition?
5731124005b4da19006bcd3a
Tuau Lapua Lapua
311
False
In which competition did Lapua win a metal for Tuvalu?
5731124005b4da19006bcd3b
Pacific Mini Games
291
False
In what contests did Lapua win  metals for Tuvalu?
5731124005b4da19006bcd3c
weightlifting
397
False
Who won a gold metal at the Pacific Games?
5731124005b4da19006bcd3d
Telupe Iosefa
550
False
In what type of competition did Telupe losefa win in 2015?
5731124005b4da19006bcd3e
powerlifting
636
False
The popular sports in Tuvalu include kilikiti, Ano, football, futsal, volleyball, handball, basketball and rugby union. Tuvalu has sports organisations for athletics, badminton, tennis, table tennis, volleyball, football, basketball, rugby union, weightlifting and powerlifting. At the 2013 Pacific Mini Games, Tuau Lapua Lapua won Tuvalu's first gold medal in an international competition in the weightlifting 62 kilogram male snatch. (He also won bronze in the clean and jerk, and obtained the silver medal overall for the combined event.) In 2015 Telupe Iosefa received the first gold medal won by Tuvalu at the Pacific Games in the powerlifting 120 kg male division.
What is a major annual sports event in Tuvalu?
5731142905b4da19006bcd60
Independence Day Sports Festival
31
False
What is the most important sports event held on Tuvalu?
5731142905b4da19006bcd61
Tuvalu Games
160
False
In what year did Tuvalu first appear in the Commonwealth Games?
5731142905b4da19006bcd62
1998
296
False
What type of competitor entered the commonwealth Games in 1998?
5731142905b4da19006bcd63
weightlifter
309
False
What competitions have Tuvalu athletes entered in the World Championships in Athletics?
5731142905b4da19006bcd64
100 metre sprints
890
False
A major sporting event is the "Independence Day Sports Festival" held annually on 1 October. The most important sports event within the country is arguably the Tuvalu Games, which are held yearly since 2008. Tuvalu first participated in the Pacific Games in 1978 and in the Commonwealth Games in 1998, when a weightlifter attended the games held at Kuala Lumpur, Malaysia. Two table tennis players attended the 2002 Commonwealth Games in Manchester, England; Tuvalu entered competitors in shooting, table tennis and weightlifting at the 2006 Commonwealth Games in Melbourne, Australia; three athletes participated in the 2010 Commonwealth Games in Delhi, India, entering the discus, shot put and weightlifting events; and a team of 3 weightlifters and 2 table tennis players attended the 2014 Commonwealth Games in Glasgow. Tuvaluan athletes have also participated in the men's and women's 100 metre sprints at the World Championships in Athletics from 2009.
What was Tuvalu's GDP rate from 1996 to 2002?
57311641e6313a140071cc18
5.6%
155
False
What has been the GDP of Tuvalu in 2008?
57311641e6313a140071cc19
1.5%
229
False
What rises in cost have effected Tuvalu's domestic growth?
57311641e6313a140071cc1a
fuel and food
296
False
What has been the level of domestic growth in 2010 on Tuvalu?
57311641e6313a140071cc1b
zero growth
453
False
What does Tuvalu expect as a return in fishing licenses and foreign aid?
57311641e6313a140071cc1c
large revenues
1158
False
From 1996 to 2002, Tuvalu was one of the best-performing Pacific Island economies and achieved an average real gross domestic product (GDP) growth rate of 5.6% per annum. Since 2002 economic growth has slowed, with GDP growth of 1.5% in 2008. Tuvalu was exposed to rapid rises in world prices of fuel and food in 2008, with the level of inflation peaking at 13.4%. The International Monetary Fund 2010 Report on Tuvalu estimates that Tuvalu experienced zero growth in its 2010 GDP, after the economy contracted by about 2% in 2009. On 5 August 2012, the Executive Board of the International Monetary Fund (IMF) concluded the Article IV consultation with Tuvalu, and assessed the economy of Tuvalu: "A slow recovery is underway in Tuvalu, but there are important risks. GDP grew in 2011 for the first time since the global financial crisis, led by the private retail sector and education spending. We expect growth to rise slowly". The IMF 2014 Country Report noted that real GDP growth in Tuvalu had been volatile averaging only 1 percent in the past decade. The 2014 Country Report describes economic growth prospects as generally positive as the result of large revenues from fishing licenses, together with substantial foreign aid.
What business provides banking services on Tuvalu?
573117cae6313a140071cc34
National Bank of Tuvalu
37
False
What percentage of the Tuvalu workforce is in the public sector?
573117cae6313a140071cc35
65%
98
False
Where are many of those who provide income to residents earning?
573117cae6313a140071cc36
overseas
244
False
How do 15% of male Tuvaluans earn their income?
573117cae6313a140071cc37
seamen
347
False
What are the traditional forms of living employed by Tuvaluans?
573117cae6313a140071cc38
agriculture and fishing.
573
False
Banking services are provided by the National Bank of Tuvalu. Public sector workers make up about 65% of those formally employed. Remittances from Tuvaluans living in Australia and New Zealand, and remittances from Tuvaluan sailors employed on overseas ships are important sources of income for Tuvaluans. Approximately 15% of adult males work as seamen on foreign-flagged merchant ships. Agriculture in Tuvalu is focused on coconut trees and growing pulaka in large pits of composted soil below the water table. Tuvaluans are otherwise involved in traditional subsistence agriculture and fishing.
What school provides maritime education on Tuvalu?
5731196da5e9cc1400cdbc07
Tuvalu Maritime Training Institute
62
False
What is the yearly number of cadets at the Maritime Training Institute?
5731196da5e9cc1400cdbc08
120
169
False
What is the only trade union on Tuvalu?
5731196da5e9cc1400cdbc09
Tuvalu Overseas Seamen's Union
290
False
On what does the Seaman'd Union represent workers?
5731196da5e9cc1400cdbc0a
on foreign ships
396
False
How many Tuvaluan men are active seafarers?
5731196da5e9cc1400cdbc0b
800
462
False
Tuvaluans are well known for their seafaring skills, with the Tuvalu Maritime Training Institute on Amatuku motu (island), Funafuti, providing training to approximately 120 marine cadets each year so that they have the skills necessary for employment as seafarers on merchant shipping. The Tuvalu Overseas Seamen's Union (TOSU) is the only registered trade union in Tuvalu. It represents workers on foreign ships. The Asian Development Bank (ADB) estimates that 800 Tuvaluan men are trained, certified and active as seafarers. The ADB estimates that, at any one time, about 15% of the adult male population works abroad as seafarers. Job opportunities also exist as observers on tuna boats where the role is to monitor compliance with the boat's tuna fishing licence.
How much money does Tuvalu's tv domain name earn each year?
57311acfa5e9cc1400cdbc11
$2.2 million
435
False
What si Tuvalu's tv domain?
57311acfa5e9cc1400cdbc12
Top Level Domain
157
False
What company is managing Tuvalu's tv domain?
57311acfa5e9cc1400cdbc13
Verisign
375
False
How much of the total government revenue comes from the domain name?
57311acfa5e9cc1400cdbc14
ten per cent
489
False
What  income source does Tuvalu earn from shipping?
57311acfa5e9cc1400cdbc15
Tuvalu Ship Registry
749
False
Government revenues largely come from sales of fishing licenses, income from the Tuvalu Trust Fund, and from the lease of its highly fortuitous .tv Internet Top Level Domain (TLD). In 1998, Tuvalu began deriving revenue from the use of its area code for premium-rate telephone numbers and from the commercialisation of its ".tv" Internet domain name, which is now managed by Verisign until 2021. The ".tv" domain name generates around $2.2 million each year from royalties, which is about ten per cent of the government's total revenue. Domain name income paid most of the cost of paving the streets of Funafuti and installing street lighting in mid-2002. Tuvalu also generates income from stamps by the Tuvalu Philatelic Bureau and income from the Tuvalu Ship Registry.
What is the UN developmental designation for Tuvalu?
57311cc8a5e9cc1400cdbc1b
least developed
42
False
What organization sponsors an assistance program for least developed countries?
57311cc8a5e9cc1400cdbc1c
World Trade Organisation
444
False
What did Tuvalu do in 2013 in regards to it least developed country status?
57311cc8a5e9cc1400cdbc1d
deferred its graduation
485
False
What would Tuvalu have lost as a developed country?
57311cc8a5e9cc1400cdbc1e
funding assistance
854
False
What type of problem does the current developed country rating not take into enough consideration?
57311cc8a5e9cc1400cdbc1f
environmental
1172
False
The United Nations designates Tuvalu as a least developed country (LDC) because of its limited potential for economic development, absence of exploitable resources and its small size and vulnerability to external economic and environmental shocks. Tuvalu participates in the Enhanced Integrated Framework for Trade-Related Technical Assistance to Least Developed Countries (EIF), which was established in October 1997 under the auspices of the World Trade Organisation. In 2013 Tuvalu deferred its graduation from least developed country (LDC) status to a developing country to 2015. Prime Minister Enele Sopoaga said that this deferral was necessary to maintain access by Tuvalu to the funds provided by the United Nations's National Adaptation Programme of Action (NAPA), as "Once Tuvalu graduates to a developed country, it will not be considered for funding assistance for climate change adaptation programmes like NAPA, which only goes to LDCs". Tuvalu had met targets so that Tuvalu was to graduate from LDC status. Prime minister, Enele Sopoaga wants the United Nations to reconsider its criteria for graduation from LDC status as not enough weight is given to the environmental plight of small island states like Tuvalu in the application of the Environmental Vulnerability Index (EVI).
What is the radio station on Tuvalu?
57311f8b05b4da19006bcdcc
Radio Tuvalu
65
False
From where does Radio Tuvalu broadcast?
57311f8b05b4da19006bcdcd
Funafuti
100
False
Who gave financial support to Tuvalu to upgrade transmission equipment?
57311f8b05b4da19006bcdce
Japanese government
122
False
What did the new radio equipment replace with AM service?
57311f8b05b4da19006bcdcf
FM radio
378
False
What service got more bandwidth from the transmission upgrade?
57311f8b05b4da19006bcdd0
mobile
453
False
The Tuvalu Media Department of the Government of Tuvalu operates Radio Tuvalu which broadcasts from Funafuti. In 2011 the Japanese government provided financial support to construct a new AM broadcast studio. The installation of upgraded transmission equipment allows Radio Tuvalu to be heard on all nine islands of Tuvalu. The new AM radio transmitter on Funafuti replaced the FM radio service to the outer islands and freed up satellite bandwidth for mobile services. Fenui – news from Tuvalu is a free digital publication of the Tuvalu Media Department that is emailed to subscribers and operates a Facebook page, which publishes news about government activities and news about Tuvaluan events, such as a special edition covering the results of the 2015 general election.
Where is Tuvalu's only port?
573120dda5e9cc1400cdbc49
Funafuti
0
False
Where is there a deep water berth available on Tuvalu?
573120dda5e9cc1400cdbc4a
Nukufetau
76
False
Of how many ships does the merchant marine fleet consist?
573120dda5e9cc1400cdbc4b
two
125
False
What ship did Japan donate to Tuvalu in 2015?
573120dda5e9cc1400cdbc4c
Nivaga III
805
False
What do Tuvalu's merchant fleet carry?
573120dda5e9cc1400cdbc4d
cargo and passengers
196
False
Funafuti is the only port but there is a deep-water berth in the harbour at Nukufetau. The merchant marine fleet consists of two passenger/cargo ships Nivaga III and Manu Folau. These ships carry cargo and passengers between the main atolls and travel between Suva, Fiji and Funafuti 3 to 4 times a year. The Nivaga III and Manu Folau provide round trip visits to the outer islands every three or four weeks. The Manu Folau is a 50-metre vessel that was a gift from Japan to the people of Tuvalu. In 2015 the United Nations Development Program (UNDP) assisted the government of Tuvalu to acquire MV Talamoana, a 30-metre vessel that will be used to implement Tuvalu's National Adaptation Programme of Action (NAPA) to transport government officials and project personnel to the outer islands. In 2015 the Nivaga III was donated by the government of Japan; it replaced the Nivaga II, which had serviced Tuvalu from 1989.
How many reef islands does the Tuvalu group have?
57312a03e6313a140071cca4
three
19
False
What are the number of true atolls are in the Tuvalu islands?
57312a03e6313a140071cca5
six
42
False
What is the total land area of Tuvalu?
57312a03e6313a140071cca6
26 square kilometres
147
False
How does Tuvalu rank in country size as compared to other nations?
57312a03e6313a140071cca7
fourth smallest
200
False
What is the coverage of Tuvalu's economic zone?
57312a03e6313a140071cca8
900,000 km2
502
False
Tuvalu consists of three reef islands and six true atolls. Its small, scattered group of atolls have poor soil and a total land area of only about 26 square kilometres (10 square miles) making it the fourth smallest country in the world. The islets that form the atolls are very low lying. Nanumanga, Niutao, Niulakita are reef islands and the six true atolls are Funafuti, Nanumea, Nui, Nukufetau, Nukulaelae and Vaitupu. Tuvalu's Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ) covers an oceanic area of approximately 900,000 km2.
Which of Tuvalu's atolls is largest?
57312b6205b4da19006bce22
Funafuti
0
False
What type of island grouping is Tuvalu?
57312b6205b4da19006bce23
volcanic island chain
91
False
What are the map coordinates fro Tuvalu?
57312b6205b4da19006bce24
179°7'E and 8°30'S
274
False
How species of creatures inhabit the Tuvalu lagoon?
57312b6205b4da19006bce25
607
702
False
How many new species were were found in the Tuvalu area that had not been previously recorded?
57312b6205b4da19006bce26
66
587
False
Funafuti is the largest atoll of the nine low reef islands and atolls that form the Tuvalu volcanic island chain. It comprises numerous islets around a central lagoon that is approximately 25.1 kilometres (15.6 miles) (N–S) by 18.4 kilometres (11.4 miles) (W-E), centred on 179°7'E and 8°30'S. On the atolls, an annular reef rim surrounds the lagoon with several natural reef channels. Surveys were carried out in May 2010 of the reef habitats of Nanumea, Nukulaelae and Funafuti and a total of 317 fish species were recorded during this Tuvalu Marine Life study. The surveys identified 66 species that had not previously been recorded in Tuvalu, which brings the total number of identified species to 607.
What specific ocean temperature conditions effect Tuvalu?
57312ca0e6313a140071ccc0
El Niño and La Niña
34
False
Which effect causes increases in sea storms like cyclones?
57312ca0e6313a140071ccc1
El Niño
133
False
What temperature effect causes drought?
57312ca0e6313a140071ccc2
La Niña
209
False
What is the usual amount of rainfall per month on Tuvalu?
57312ca0e6313a140071ccc3
200 to 400 mm
306
False
What did a drought in 2011 cause on Funafuti?
57312ca0e6313a140071ccc4
rationing of fresh-water
522
False
Tuvalu experiences the effects of El Niño and La Niña caused by changes in ocean temperatures in the equatorial and central Pacific. El Niño effects increase the chances of tropical storms and cyclones, while La Niña effects increase the chances of drought. Typically the islands of Tuvalu receive between 200 to 400 mm (8 to 16 in) of rainfall per month. However, in 2011 a weak La Niña effect caused a drought by cooling the surface of the sea around Tuvalu. A state of emergency was declared on 28 September 2011; with rationing of fresh-water on the islands of Funafuti and Nukulaelae. Households on Funafuti and Nukulaelae were restricted to two buckets of fresh water per day (40 litres).
What type of device did Australia and New Zealand offer to Tuvalu during the 2011 drought?
57312e3305b4da19006bce5e
desalination plants
109
False
As aprt of what program did Japan fund a new desalination plant at Tuvalu?
57312e3305b4da19006bce5f
Pacific Environment Community
365
False
What did aid from the European Union provide during the drought on Tuvalu?
57312e3305b4da19006bce60
water tanks
475
False
What did Tuvalu's new water tanks make possible to store?
57312e3305b4da19006bce61
fresh water
552
False
In what year had Japan previously donated a desalination plant to Tuvalu?
57312e3305b4da19006bce62
2006
220
False
The governments of Australia and New Zealand responded to the 2011 fresh-water crisis by supplying temporary desalination plants, and assisted in the repair of the existing desalination unit that was donated by Japan in 2006. In response to the 2011 drought, Japan funded the purchase of a 100 m3/d desalination plant and two portable 10 m3/d plants as part of its Pacific Environment Community (PEC) program. Aid programs from the European Union and Australia also provided water tanks as part of the longer term solution for the storage of available fresh water.
What is the modern name for the air field built during WWII?
57313024e6313a140071ccde
Funafuti International Airport
105
False
What was damaged by building of the war time air field?
57313024e6313a140071ccdf
Funafuti Lagoon
25
False
What has the pits from the Tuvalu air runways construction  impacted?
57313024e6313a140071cce0
fresh-water aquifer
260
False
What government funded the restoration of the borrow pits on Tuvalu?
57313024e6313a140071cce1
New Zealand Government
744
False
How much increase in land space did the filling of the borrow pits cause?
57313024e6313a140071cce2
eight per cent
1005
False
The eastern shoreline of Funafuti Lagoon was modified during World War II when the airfield (what is now Funafuti International Airport) was constructed. The coral base of the atoll was used as fill to create the runway. The resulting borrow pits impacted the fresh-water aquifer. In the low areas of Funafuti the sea water can be seen bubbling up through the porous coral rock to form pools with each high tide. Since 1994 a project has been in development to assess the environmental impact of transporting sand from the lagoon to fill all the borrow pits and low-lying areas on Fongafale. In 2014 the Tuvalu Borrow Pits Remediation (BPR) project was approved in order to fill 10 borrow pits, leaving Tafua Pond, which is a natural pond. The New Zealand Government funded the BPR project. The project was carried out in 2015 with 365,000 sqm of sand being dredged from the lagoon to fill the holes and improve living conditions on the island. This project increase the usable land space on Fongafale by eight per cent.
What percentage of the Tuvalu coral has become bleached?
573131d905b4da19006bce7e
80 per cent
49
False
What increase caused by the El Ninos is responsible for the coral bleaching?
573131d905b4da19006bce7f
water temperature
258
False
What type of project has been started to rebuild the reefs at Tuvalu?
573131d905b4da19006bce80
reef restoration
361
False
What has been investigated as a means of rebuilding the reefs at Tuvalu?
573131d905b4da19006bce81
foraminifera
532
False
What is hoped will strengthen the Tuvalu coast against sea level rise?
573131d905b4da19006bce82
ecosystem rehabilitation
694
False
The reefs at Funafuti have suffered damage, with 80 per cent of the coral becoming bleached as a consequence of the increase in ocean temperatures and ocean acidification. The coral bleaching, which includes staghorn corals, is attributed to the increase in water temperature that occurred during the El Niños that occurred from 1998–2000 and from 2000–2001. A reef restoration project has investigated reef restoration techniques; and researchers from Japan have investigated rebuilding the coral reefs through the introduction of foraminifera. The project of the Japan International Cooperation Agency is designed to increase the resilience of the Tuvalu coast against sea level rise through ecosystem rehabilitation and regeneration and through support for sand production.
What has been formed to protect the fish stocks in Tuvalu Lagoon?
5731335fe6313a140071ccf8
Funafuti Conservation Area
127
False
What factor has caused an increased demand for fish?
5731335fe6313a140071ccf9
rising population
4
False
What has growth in population and poor sanitation caused?
5731335fe6313a140071ccfa
pollution
356
False
What organization has funded a waste management control plan on Tuvalu?
5731335fe6313a140071ccfb
European Union
508
False
What do imports produce on Tuvalu?
5731335fe6313a140071ccfc
plastic waste
756
False
The rising population has resulted in an increased demand on fish stocks, which are under stress; although the creation of the Funafuti Conservation Area has provided a fishing exclusion area to help sustain the fish population across the Funafuti lagoon. Population pressure on the resources of Funafuti and inadequate sanitation systems have resulted in pollution. The Waste Operations and Services Act of 2009 provides the legal framework for waste management and pollution control projects funded by the European Union directed at organic waste composting in eco-sanitation systems. The Environment Protection (Litter and Waste Control) Regulation 2013 is intended to improve the management of the importation of non-biodegradable materials. In Tuvalu plastic waste is a problem as much imported food and other commodities are supplied in plastic containers or packaging.
What type of desalination is used on Funafuti?
573134d3e6313a140071cd1e
Reverse osmosis
0
False
How much water does the Funafuti plant produce?
573134d3e6313a140071cd1f
40 m3 per day
161
False
At what storage  point is R/O water production meant to be used?
573134d3e6313a140071cd20
below 30%
237
False
What is the cost of R/O produced water?
573134d3e6313a140071cd21
A$3.50 per m3
428
False
What organization subsidizes the cost of water desalination?
573134d3e6313a140071cd22
government
547
False
Reverse osmosis (R/O) desalination units supplement rainwater harvesting on Funafuti. The 65 m3 desalination plant operates at a real production level of around 40 m3 per day. R/O water is only intended to be produced when storage falls below 30%, however demand to replenish household storage supplies with tanker-delivered water means that the R/O desalination units are continually operating. Water is delivered at a cost of A$3.50 per m3. Cost of production and delivery has been estimated at A$6 per m3, with the difference subsidised by the government.
When did the UN ask Tuvalu to come up with a plan to improve drinking water?
573136bb497a881900248c55
July 2012
3
False
What did Tuvalu develop as a safe water strategy?
573136bb497a881900248c56
National Water Resources Policy
203
False
What is the per person per day targeted use of water for Tuvalu?
573136bb497a881900248c57
50 and 100L
478
False
What organization called for Tuvalu to  improve its water and sanitation systems?
573136bb497a881900248c58
United Nations
15
False
What group ultimately sponsored the Tuvalu water resources policy?
573136bb497a881900248c59
Global Environment Fund
385
False
In July 2012 a United Nations Special Rapporteur called on the Tuvalu Government to develop a national water strategy to improve access to safe drinking water and sanitation. In 2012, Tuvalu developed a National Water Resources Policy under the Integrated Water Resource Management (IWRM) Project and the Pacific Adaptation to Climate Change (PACC) Project, which are sponsored by the Global Environment Fund/SOPAC. Government water planning has established a target of between 50 and 100L of water per person per day accounting for drinking water, cleaning, community and cultural activities.
What geological situation makes Tuvalu prone to storm damage?
57313831497a881900248c71
low elevation
15
False
To what climate change condition does Tuvalu's low elevation make it susceptible?
57313831497a881900248c72
sea level rise
158
False
What is the highest elevation on Tuvalu?
57313831497a881900248c73
4.6 metres
199
False
Where on Tuvalu is the highest elevation?
57313831497a881900248c74
Niulakita
237
False
Where does Tuvalu rank among other countries as to lowest elevation?
57313831497a881900248c75
second-lowest
271
False
Because of the low elevation, the islands that make up this nation are vulnerable to the effects of tropical cyclones and by the threat of current and future sea level rise. The highest elevation is 4.6 metres (15 ft) above sea level on Niulakita, which gives Tuvalu the second-lowest maximum elevation of any country (after the Maldives). The highest elevations are typically in narrow storm dunes on the ocean side of the islands which are prone to overtopping in tropical cyclones, as occurred with Cyclone Bebe, which was a very early-season storm that passed through the Tuvaluan atolls in October 1972. Cyclone Bebe submerged Funafuti, eliminating 90% of structures on the island. Sources of drinking water were contaminated as a result of the system's storm surge and the flooding of the sources of fresh water.
What cyclone badly damaged Funafuti?
573139b9497a881900248c85
Cyclone Bebe
0
False
What islet was damaged by Cyclone Meli in 1979?
573139b9497a881900248c86
Funafuti's Tepuka Vili Vili
55
False
How many cyclones effected Tuvalu during the 1996-97  cyclone season?
573139b9497a881900248c87
three
476
False
What cyclone caused major damage to vegetation on all islands on Tuvalu?
573139b9497a881900248c88
Cyclone Ofa
298
False
What was the first cyclone to strike Tuvalu during the 1996-97 season?
573139b9497a881900248c89
Cyclone Gavin
399
False
Cyclone Bebe in 1972 caused severe damage to Funafuti. Funafuti's Tepuka Vili Vili islet was devastated by Cyclone Meli in 1979, with all its vegetation and most of its sand swept away during the cyclone. Along with a tropical depression that affected the islands a few days later, Severe Tropical Cyclone Ofa had a major impact on Tuvalu with most islands reporting damage to vegetation and crops. Cyclone Gavin was first identified during 2 March 1997, and was the first of three tropical cyclones to affect Tuvalu during the 1996–97 cyclone season with Cyclones Hina and Keli following later in the season.
What were the wave heights during Cyclone Pam on Tuvalu?
57313b9a497a881900248ca3
3 metres (9.8 ft) to 5 metres (16 ft)
85
False
In what year did Cyclone Pam strike Tuvalu?
57313b9a497a881900248ca4
March 2015
3
False
During Cyclone Pam which island had the most damage?
57313b9a497a881900248ca5
Nui
396
False
What percentage of Tuvalu crops were destroyed during  Cyclone Pam?
57313b9a497a881900248ca6
90%
534
False
The loss of what caused the Vasafua islet to become  a sand bar due to Cyclone Pam?
57313b9a497a881900248ca7
coconut palms
831
False
In March 2015, the winds and storm surge created by Cyclone Pam resulted in waves of 3 metres (9.8 ft) to 5 metres (16 ft) breaking over the reef of the outer islands caused damage to houses, crops and infrastructure. On Nui the sources of fresh water were destroyed or contaminated. The flooding in Nui and Nukufetau caused many families to shelter in evacuation centres or with other families. Nui suffered the most damage of the three central islands (Nui, Nukufetau and Vaitupu); with both Nui and Nukufetau suffering the loss of 90% of the crops. Of the three northern islands (Nanumanga, Niutao, Nanumea), Nanumanga suffered the most damage, with 60-100 houses flooded, with the waves also causing damage to the health facility. Vasafua islet, part of the Funafuti Conservation Area, was severely damaged by Cyclone Pam. The coconut palms were washed away, leaving the islet as a sand bar.
What did the Tuvalu government assess after Cyclone Pam?
57313d51e6313a140071cd72
damage
53
False
What event on Tuvalu made assistance to the population necessary?
57313d51e6313a140071cd73
Cyclone Pam
70
False
What assistance did many international groups give to Tuvalu?
57313d51e6313a140071cd74
recovery
320
False
For what action was government assistance necessary after the Tuvalu cyclone??
57313d51e6313a140071cd75
cleaning-up
162
False
The Tuvalu Government carried out assessments of the damage caused by Cyclone Pam to the islands and has provided medical aid, food as well as assistance for the cleaning-up of storm debris. Government and Non-Government Organisations provided assistance technical, funding and material support to Tuvalu to assist with recovery, including WHO, UNICEF, UNDP, OCHA, World Bank, DFAT, New Zealand Red Cross & IFRC, Fiji National University and governments of New Zealand, Netherlands, UAE, Taiwan and the United States.
What subject is arguable concerning Tuvalu?
57313f0aa5e9cc1400cdbdab
sea level
44
False
What was the amount of sea level change on Tuvalu estimated by the 2011 report?
57313f0aa5e9cc1400cdbdac
5 mm
661
False
What device was used to produce the measurements of sea level change on Tuvalu?
57313f0aa5e9cc1400cdbdad
satellite
620
False
Prior to what year were the reports used to assess sea level rise?
57313f0aa5e9cc1400cdbdae
pre-1993
152
False
What is assumed about the sea level reports and records of Tuvalu?
57313f0aa5e9cc1400cdbdaf
degree of uncertainty
300
False
Whether there are measurable changes in the sea level relative to the islands of Tuvalu is a contentious issue. There were problems associated with the pre-1993 sea level records from Funafuti which resulted in improvements in the recording technology to provide more reliable data for analysis. The degree of uncertainty as to estimates of sea level change relative to the islands of Tuvalu was reflected in the conclusions made in 2002 from the available data. The 2011 report of the Pacific Climate Change Science Program published by the Australian Government, concludes: "The sea-level rise near Tuvalu measured by satellite altimeters since 1993 is about 5 mm (0.2 in) per year."
What have the Tuvalu atolls displayed about sea level rise?
5731411605b4da19006bcf54
resilience
22
False
What does gradual sea level rise allow for coral to increase?
5731411605b4da19006bcf55
reefs
329
False
What sea level rise rate could cause more uncertainty to the welfare of coral reefs?
5731411605b4da19006bcf56
faster rate
384
False
What condition besides sea level rise can damage coral reefs?
5731411605b4da19006bcf57
ocean acidification
460
False
Where does sand and coral debris end up because of the action of cyclones?
5731411605b4da19006bcf58
on the islands
221
False
The atolls have shown resilience to gradual sea-level rise, with atolls and reef islands being able to grow under current climate conditions by generating sufficient sand and coral debris that accumulates and gets dumped on the islands during cyclones. Gradual sea-level rise also allows for coral polyp activity to increase the reefs. However, if the increase in sea level occurs at faster rate as compared to coral growth, or if polyp activity is damaged by ocean acidification, then the resilience of the atolls and reef islands is less certain. The 2011 report of Pacific Climate Change Science Program of Australia concludes, in relation to Tuvalu, states the conclusions that over the course of the 21st century:
What do some people want to do with the people of Tuvalu?
573142d9e6313a140071cd98
relocation
44
False
What did the Tuvalu Prime Minster say was not enough of an immediate threat to cause evacuation of the population?
573142d9e6313a140071cd99
rising sea levels
209
False
When did Prime Minster Maatia Toafa make his comments about not evacuating Tuvalu?
573142d9e6313a140071cd9a
2006
124
False
What did Enele Sopoaga think evacuation of the people should be?
573142d9e6313a140071cd9b
never be an option
429
False
While some commentators have called for the relocation of Tuvalu's population to Australia, New Zealand or Kioa in Fiji, in 2006 Maatia Toafa (Prime Minister from 2004–2006) said his government did not regard rising sea levels as such a threat that the entire population would need to be evacuated. In 2013 Enele Sopoaga, the prime minister of Tuvalu, said that relocating Tuvaluans to avoid the impact of sea level rise "should never be an option because it is self defeating in itself. For Tuvalu I think we really need to mobilise public opinion in the Pacific as well as in the [rest of] world to really talk to their lawmakers to please have some sort of moral obligation and things like that to do the right thing."
Immaculate_Conception
What is the Immaculate Conception a representation of the avoidance of ?
5730af4a069b53140083224b
original sin only
55
False
What was Mary prevented from having to endure ?
5730af4a069b53140083224c
Mary was preserved from any stain (in Latin, macula or labes
86
False
Who was believed to have prevented this from occurring to Mary ?
5730af4a069b53140083224d
privilege granted by Almighty God, in view of the merits of Jesus Christ, the Saviour of the human race, was preserved free from all stain
379
False
What was the outcome of preventing Mary from having to endure such an injustice ?
5730af4a069b53140083224e
Jesus Christ, the Saviour of the human race, was preserved free from all stain of original sin."
439
False
What normally followed the delivery of a child by a woman in Mary time period ?
5730af4a069b53140083224f
sanctifying grace that would normally come with baptism after birth.
648
False
original sin
55
What is one of the things regarded by the dogma of the immaculate conception?
5a2716bbc93d92001a4003cb
True
all stain of original sin
508
What did the Catholic Church prevent Mary from having?
5a2716bbc93d92001a4003cc
True
sanctifying grace
648
What did Mary receive at baptism?
5a2716bbc93d92001a4003cd
True
The defined dogma of the Immaculate Conception regards original sin only, saying that Mary was preserved from any stain (in Latin, macula or labes, the second of these two synonymous words being the one used in the formal definition). The proclaimed Roman Catholic dogma states "that the most Blessed Virgin Mary, in the first instance of her conception, by a singular grace and privilege granted by Almighty God, in view of the merits of Jesus Christ, the Saviour of the human race, was preserved free from all stain of original sin." Therefore, being always free from original sin, the doctrine teaches that from her conception Mary received the sanctifying grace that would normally come with baptism after birth.
Is it believed that Mary carried no transgression which would require blame ?
5730b8da2461fd1900a9cff1
makes no declaration about the Church's belief that the Blessed Virgin was sinless in the sense of freedom from actual or personal sin
15
False
How did the Church view Mary in regards to her personal sins ?
5730b8da2461fd1900a9cff2
the Church holds that Mary was also sinless personally, "free from all sin, original or personal
160
False
What important announcement was made by the ecumenical council in  regards to the decision on Mary ?
5730b8da2461fd1900a9cff3
let him be anathema."
620
False
What was the name of the ecumenical council that made the decision ?
5730b8da2461fd1900a9cff4
The Council of Trent
259
False
personal sin
137
What this a definition say Mary was free from?
5a2717adc93d92001a4003d1
True
the Church
160
Who says Mary was only free from Original Sin?
5a2717adc93d92001a4003d2
True
The Council of Trent
259
Who said that all men were capable of avoiding all sins throughout their life?
5a2717adc93d92001a4003d3
True
The Council of Trent
259
Who declared that God did not give Mary a special privilege?
5a2717adc93d92001a4003d4
True
The definition makes no declaration about the Church's belief that the Blessed Virgin was sinless in the sense of freedom from actual or personal sin. However, the Church holds that Mary was also sinless personally, "free from all sin, original or personal". The Council of Trent decreed: "If anyone shall say that a man once justified can sin no more, nor lose grace, and that therefore he who falls and sins was never truly justified; or, on the contrary, that throughout his whole life he can avoid all sins even venial sins, except by a special privilege of God, as the Church holds in regard to the Blessed Virgin: let him be anathema."
Is the view of the impregnation of Mary's pregnancy the same as the one held for the birth of her first child ?
5730ba5c8ab72b1400f9c714
doctrine of the immaculate conception (Mary being conceived free from original sin) is not to be confused with her virginal conception of her son Jesus
4
False
What is the view held at the Vatican regarding how Mary was actually given life into the world ?
5730ba5c8ab72b1400f9c715
Catholics believe that Mary was not the product of a virginal conception herself but was the daughter of a human father and mother
250
False
Who were the parents of Mary believed to be ?
5730ba5c8ab72b1400f9c716
Saint Joachim and Saint Anne
418
False
When were contradictory views to  the belief of Mary's parentage struck down ?
5730ba5c8ab72b1400f9c717
1677, the Holy See condemned the belief that Mary was virginally conceived,
451
False
When did these contradictory views start to emerge ?
5730ba5c8ab72b1400f9c718
since the 4th century
574
False
her virginal conception of her son Jesus
115
What other event is the immaculate conception similar to?
5a271862c93d92001a4003d9
True
the mass media
234
Who often makes a distinction between the conception of Jesus in the conception of Mary?
5a271862c93d92001a4003da
True
Catholics
250
Who believes that Mary is a product of a virginal conception?
5a271862c93d92001a4003db
True
the Holy See
457
Who upheld the belief that Mary was virtually conceived in 1677?
5a271862c93d92001a4003dc
True
8 December,
710
On what date is the virginal conception of Mary celebrated?
5a271862c93d92001a4003dd
True
The doctrine of the immaculate conception (Mary being conceived free from original sin) is not to be confused with her virginal conception of her son Jesus. This misunderstanding of the term immaculate conception is frequently met in the mass media. Catholics believe that Mary was not the product of a virginal conception herself but was the daughter of a human father and mother, traditionally known by the names of Saint Joachim and Saint Anne. In 1677, the Holy See condemned the belief that Mary was virginally conceived, which had been a belief surfacing occasionally since the 4th century. The Church celebrates the Feast of the Immaculate Conception (when Mary was conceived free from original sin) on 8 December, exactly nine months before celebrating the Nativity of Mary. The feast of the Annunciation (which commemorates the virginal conception and the Incarnation of Jesus) is celebrated on 25 March, nine months before Christmas Day.
What did Mary supposedly not require that everyone else also required and why was this so ?
5730bc432461fd1900a9d021
Another misunderstanding is that, by her immaculate conception, Mary did not need a saviour
0
False
What was explained by the man  Giovanni Maria Mastai-Ferretti who later became leader of the Holy Roman Church ?
5730bc432461fd1900a9d022
dogma in Ineffabilis Deus, Pope Pius IX explicitly affirmed that Mary was redeemed in a manner more sublime
111
False
What is the child of Mary known to be famous for according to  Giovanni Maria Mastai-Ferretti ?
5730bc432461fd1900a9d023
Jesus Christ, the Savior of the human race.
368
False
According to the teaching of the Catholic religion is a savior for the world needed ?
5730bc432461fd1900a9d024
Catholic Church has taught that even had man never sinned in the Garden of Eden and was sinless, he would still require God's grace to remain sinless.
607
False
her immaculate conception
37
Why did Mary not need a Savior?
5a2718fec93d92001a4003e3
True
Pope Pius IX
138
Who said that Mary was cleansed after sin?
5a2718fec93d92001a4003e4
True
Mary proclaims: "My spirit has rejoiced in God my Saviour."
426
What is referred to as Mary's redemption by Christ?
5a2718fec93d92001a4003e5
True
Second Council of Orange
552
Who said that if humans had never sinned they would not need God's grace?
5a2718fec93d92001a4003e6
True
Another misunderstanding is that, by her immaculate conception, Mary did not need a saviour. When defining the dogma in Ineffabilis Deus, Pope Pius IX explicitly affirmed that Mary was redeemed in a manner more sublime. He stated that Mary, rather than being cleansed after sin, was completely prevented from contracting Original Sin in view of the foreseen merits of Jesus Christ, the Savior of the human race. In Luke 1:47, Mary proclaims: "My spirit has rejoiced in God my Saviour." This is referred to as Mary's pre-redemption by Christ. Since the Second Council of Orange against semi-pelagianism, the Catholic Church has taught that even had man never sinned in the Garden of Eden and was sinless, he would still require God's grace to remain sinless.
What Empire held  Grecian teachers of the virginity of Mary's conception ?
5730c36ab7151e1900c0152c
Greek theologians of Byzantium
135
False
Who gave a reason for the purging of evil for the Blessed Virgin and her first child ?
5730c36ab7151e1900c0152d
St. Gregory Nazianzen, his explanation of the "purification" of Jesus and Mary
182
False
What procedure was being performed while he gave his reasoning ?
5730c36ab7151e1900c0152e
the circumcision
264
False
Who was compelled to write of this instance that was also an author of one of the book of the Bible ?
5730c36ab7151e1900c0152f
Luke
282
False
What became associated with the celebration of Mary's inception in the womb ?
5730c36ab7151e1900c01530
purification was eventually associated with the feast of Mary's very conception
1743
False
Greek theologians of Byzantium
135
To what theologians was the concept of Mary's complete sinlessness unknown?
5a271a77c93d92001a4003eb
True
"purification"
341
What is a sinless nature cleansed in a moment of grace?
5a271a77c93d92001a4003ec
True
St. Gregory Nazianzen
525
Who did not see the human nature of Jesus and Mary as equally holy?
5a271a77c93d92001a4003ed
True
as a toddler
1866
When was Jesus presented in a temple?
5a271a77c93d92001a4003ee
True
the Mother of God
938
The commemoration of what was growing around by Byzantium?
5a271a77c93d92001a4003ef
True
Mary's complete sinlessness and concomitant exemption from any taint from the first moment of her existence was a doctrine familiar to Greek theologians of Byzantium. Beginning with St. Gregory Nazianzen, his explanation of the "purification" of Jesus and Mary at the circumcision (Luke 2:22) prompted him to consider the primary meaning of "purification" in Christology (and by extension in Mariology) to refer to a perfectly sinless nature that manifested itself in glory in a moment of grace (e.g., Jesus at his Baptism). St. Gregory Nazianzen designated Mary as "prokathartheisa (prepurified)." Gregory likely attempted to solve the riddle of the Purification of Jesus and Mary in the Temple through considering the human natures of Jesus and Mary as equally holy and therefore both purified in this manner of grace and glory. Gregory's doctrines surrounding Mary's purification were likely related to the burgeoning commemoration of the Mother of God in and around Constantinople very close to the date of Christmas. Nazianzen's title of Mary at the Annunciation as "prepurified" was subsequently adopted by all theologians interested in his Mariology to justify the Byzantine equivalent of the Immaculate Conception. This is especially apparent in the Fathers St. Sophronios of Jerusalem and St. John Damascene, who will be treated below in this article at the section on Church Fathers. About the time of Damascene, the public celebration of the "Conception of St. Ann [i.e., of the Theotokos in her womb]" was becoming popular. After this period, the "purification" of the perfect natures of Jesus and Mary would not only mean moments of grace and glory at the Incarnation and Baptism and other public Byzantine liturgical feasts, but purification was eventually associated with the feast of Mary's very conception (along with her Presentation in the Temple as a toddler) by Orthodox authors of the 2nd millennium (e.g., St. Nicholas Cabasilas and Joseph Bryennius).
What proof do some believe is offered as to proof of Mary being the ultimate concept of pure?
5730c671aca1c71400fe5a9d
include original sin as well as actual. Thus in the first five centuries such epithets as "
456
False
What phrases were used to describe Mary ?
5730c671aca1c71400fe5a9e
in every respect holy", "in all things unstained", "super-innocent", and "singularly holy" are applied to her
547
False
Who is often held as the model for all things holy and pure that is not Mary ?
5730c671aca1c71400fe5a9f
Eve before the fall
677
False
Who refused to hear any contradictory views about Mary and her perceived inception ?
5730c671aca1c71400fe5aa0
St. Augustine (d. 430) may be cited: "As regards the mother of God," he says, "I will not allow any question whatever of sin.
801
False
What did this person also state about all of mankind in regards to wayward transgressions  ?
5730c671aca1c71400fe5aa1
his argument is that all men are sinners;
1004
False
the doctrine as defined by Pius IX
20
What was explicitly mooted before the twelfth century?
5a271b60c93d92001a4003f5
True
the dogma
178
What can be proved from Scripture?
5a271b60c93d92001a4003f6
True
the Fathers
307
Whose teachings on the sinlessness of Mary only include Original Sin
5a271b60c93d92001a4003f7
True
"in every respect holy", "in all things unstained", "super-innocent", and "singularly holy"
546
What terms were only applied to Mary after the fifth century?
5a271b60c93d92001a4003f8
True
St. Augustine
801
Who is not sure that Mary had sufficient grace to overcome sin?
5a271b60c93d92001a4003f9
True
It is admitted that the doctrine as defined by Pius IX was not explicitly mooted before the 12th century. It is also agreed that "no direct or categorical and stringent proof of the dogma can be brought forward from Scripture". But it is claimed that the doctrine is implicitly contained in the teaching of the Fathers. Their expressions on the subject of the sinlessness of Mary are, it is pointed out, so ample and so absolute that they must be taken to include original sin as well as actual. Thus in the first five centuries such epithets as "in every respect holy", "in all things unstained", "super-innocent", and "singularly holy" are applied to her; she is compared to Eve before the fall, as ancestress of a redeemed people; she is "the earth before it was accursed". The well-known words of St. Augustine (d. 430) may be cited: "As regards the mother of God," he says, "I will not allow any question whatever of sin." It is true that he is here speaking directly of actual or personal sin. But his argument is that all men are sinners; that they are so through original depravity; that this original depravity may be overcome by the grace of God, and he adds that he does not know but that Mary may have had sufficient grace to overcome sin "of every sort" (omni ex parte).
Where did the majority of the concepts of Mary's birth show themselves the most ?
5730ca8fb7151e1900c01536
Mary's Immaculate Conception appears only later among Latin (and particularly Frankish) theologians
25
False
What Byzantine Ruler ho ruled from from 527 to 565 was also a well trained thinker of concepts ?
5730ca8fb7151e1900c01537
Emperor Justinian I,
305
False
In what way did this Ruler refer to Mary  in his writings ?
5730ca8fb7151e1900c01538
to call Mary "prepurified"
342
False
What event happened to Theotokos that was of significant religious note ?
5730ca8fb7151e1900c01539
she was "purified" at the Annunciation
605
False
How did some view the the person whose name includes a Christian rite of passage from the Bible?
5730ca8fb7151e1900c0153a
holier than all 'Men' born of woman
707
False
Mary's Immaculate Conception
25
What doctrine appeared first among the Latin theologies?
5a27289cc93d92001a4003ff
True
Sophronius'
857
Whose teachings did Emperor Justinian I augment?
5a27289cc93d92001a400400
True
Sophronius
537
Who says that Mary was not immaculate at the Annunciation?
5a27289cc93d92001a400401
True
St. John Damascene
911
Who said that Mary had the honor of being the first to purify the waters of baptism by touching them?
5a27289cc93d92001a400402
True
The Damascene's hymnongraphy and De fide Orthodoxa
1477
What uses Mary's absolute holiness is a key for understanding her pre-purification?
5a27289cc93d92001a400403
True
Although the doctrine of Mary's Immaculate Conception appears only later among Latin (and particularly Frankish) theologians, it became ever more manifest among Byzantine theologians reliant on Gregory Nazianzen's Mariology in the Medieval or Byzantine East. Although hymnographers and scholars, like the Emperor Justinian I, were accustomed to call Mary "prepurified" in their poetic and credal statements, the first point of departure for more fully commenting on Nazianzen's meaning occurs in Sophronius of Jerusalem. In other places Sophronius explains that the Theotokos was already immaculate, when she was "purified" at the Annunciation and goes so far as to note that John the Baptist is literally "holier than all 'Men' born of woman" since Mary's surpassing holiness signifies that she was holier than even John after his sanctification in utero. Sophronius' teaching is augmented and incorporated by St. John Damascene (d. 749/750). John, besides many passages wherein he extolls the Theotokos for her purification at the Annunciation, grants her the unique honor of "purifying the waters of baptism by touching them." This honor was most famously and firstly attributed to Christ, especially in the legacy of Nazianzen. As such, Nazianzen's assertion of parallel holiness between the prepurified Mary and purified Jesus of the New Testament is made even more explicit in Damascene in his discourse on Mary's holiness to also imitate Christ's baptism at the Jordan. The Damascene's hymnongraphy and De fide Orthodoxa explicitly use Mary's "pre purification" as a key to understanding her absolute holiness and unsullied human nature. In fact, Damascene (along with Nazianzen) serves as the source for nearly all subsequent promotion of Mary's complete holiness from her Conception by the "all pure seed" of Joachim and the womb "wider than heaven" of St. Ann.
What was widely observed in the eastern portion of the Byzantine world ?
5730e84cf6cb411900e2453c
the feast of her conception was widely celebrated in the Byzantine East
8
False
What was the name of this festival ?
5730e84cf6cb411900e2453d
under the name of the Conception (active) of Saint Anne
81
False
Was there anything in similarity that happened in the Western portion of the Empire ? If so who was it supported by?
5730e84cf6cb411900e2453e
In the West it was known as the feast of the Conception (passive) of Mary, and was associated particularly with the Normans
138
False
Who was against all of the celebrations of Mary 's her birth ?
5730e84cf6cb411900e2453f
Critics included Saints Bernard of Clairvaux, Albertus Magnus and Thomas Aquinas.
539
False
According to some when is is possible for a Sanctified Mary to have emerged ?
5730e84cf6cb411900e24540
out that sanctification could be conferred at the first moment of conception in view of the foreseen merits of Christ, a view held especially by Franciscans.
697
False
the feast of her conception
8
What was widely celebrated in the West by 750?
5a272fdbc93d92001a400409
True
the Normans
250
What group in the West was the conception of St. Anne associated with
5a272fdbc93d92001a40040a
True
Immaculate
397
What did Thomas Aquinas support attaching to the title conception of Mary?
5a272fdbc93d92001a40040b
True
750
3
When did the Eastern church start to celebrate the conception of Mary?
5a272fdbc93d92001a40040c
True
sanctification
706
What is St. Albertus Magnus say could be conferred at the moment of conception?
5a272fdbc93d92001a40040d
True
By 750, the feast of her conception was widely celebrated in the Byzantine East, under the name of the Conception (active) of Saint Anne. In the West it was known as the feast of the Conception (passive) of Mary, and was associated particularly with the Normans, whether these introduced it directly from the East or took it from English usage. The spread of the feast, by now with the adjective "Immaculate" attached to its title, met opposition on the part of some, on the grounds that sanctification was possible only after conception. Critics included Saints Bernard of Clairvaux, Albertus Magnus and Thomas Aquinas. Other theologians defended the expression "Immaculate Conception", pointing out that sanctification could be conferred at the first moment of conception in view of the foreseen merits of Christ, a view held especially by Franciscans.
What happened on the final day of the month of love that was of significance was authorized by the Holy Roman Church leader ?
5730eac6b7151e1900c015d0
authorized those dioceses that wished to introduce the feast to do so, and introduced it to his own diocese of Rome in 1477
37
False
Who was the Holy Roman Church leader that authorized the change ?
5730eac6b7151e1900c015d1
Pope Sixtus IV, authorized those dioceses
21
False
What document made the authorization official ?
5730eac6b7151e1900c015d2
with a specially composed Mass and Office of the feast. With his bull Cum praeexcelsa of 28 February 1477
162
False
What word substitution did he use in the authorization to appease all of the worshipers and view points when speaking of the inception of Mary  ?
5730eac6b7151e1900c015d3
but applied instead the adjective "miraculous" to her conception.
555
False
What was the opposite of a sinner who committed a venial type? It would be the most grave type of all .
5730eac6b7151e1900c015d4
mortally sinful
763
False
Pope Sixtus IV
21
Which Pope authorized dioceses to introduce the feast in the fourteenth century?
5a27329fc93d92001a400413
True
the feast
88
What was introduced to the Roman diocese in 1476?
5a27329fc93d92001a400414
True
Pope Sixtus IV
21
What Pope in 1477 included the word immaculate in the name of the feast
5a27329fc93d92001a400415
True
Pope Sixtus IV
21
Who said it was sinful and heretical to say that the glorious and immaculate mother of God was conceived without the stain of original sin?
5a27329fc93d92001a400416
True
"immaculate"
533
What term was applied to Mary's conception in 1483?
5a27329fc93d92001a400417
True
On 28 February 1476, Pope Sixtus IV, authorized those dioceses that wished to introduce the feast to do so, and introduced it to his own diocese of Rome in 1477, with a specially composed Mass and Office of the feast. With his bull Cum praeexcelsa of 28 February 1477, in which he referred to the feast as that of the Conception of Mary, without using the word "Immaculate", he granted indulgences to those who would participate in the specially composed Mass or Office on the feast itself or during its octave, and he used the word "immaculate" of Mary, but applied instead the adjective "miraculous" to her conception. On 4 September 1483, referring to the feast as that of "the Conception of Immaculate Mary ever Virgin", he condemned both those who called it mortally sinful and heretical to hold that the "glorious and immaculate mother of God was conceived without the stain of original sin" and those who called it mortally sinful and heretical to hold that "the glorious Virgin Mary was conceived with original sin", since, he said, "up to this time there has been no decision made by the Roman Church and the Apostolic See." This decree was reaffirmed by the Council of Trent.
What did a teacher of religion  from the college that was named after a Dominican friar do in 1839 of historical note ?
5730ed13497a881900248a5d
published Esame Critico sulla dottrina dell’ Angelico Dottore S. Tommaso di Aquino circa il Peccato originale, relativamente alla Beatissima Vergine Maria
97
False
Who was the teacher who committed the act  ?
5730ed13497a881900248a5e
Mariano Spada
8
False
What position was the teacher later given by the Holy Roman Church ?
5730ed13497a881900248a5f
appoint Spada Master of the Sacred Palace in 1867
790
False
Who gave the teacher the new job ?
5730ed13497a881900248a60
Pope Pius IX
765
False
What  problem did the teacher's publication solve for the Holy Roman leader with act that was committed  to do in response to the actions of the teacher  ?
5730ed13497a881900248a61
Pius IX was relieved of the problem of seeming to foster a doctrine not in agreement with the Aquinas' teaching.
652
False
Esame Critico sulla dottrina dell’ Angelico Dottore S. Tommaso di Aquino circa il Peccato originale, relativamente alla Beatissima Vergine Maria
107
What did Mariano Spada publish in 1872?
5a2733a3c93d92001a40041d
True
Mariano Spada
8
Who asserted that Aquinas was referring to the question of the immaculate conception?
5a2733a3c93d92001a40041e
True
Esame Critico sulla dottrina dell’ Angelico Dottore S. Tommaso di Aquino circa il Peccato originale, relativamente alla Beatissima Vergine Maria
107
What work asserted a problem between a doctrine of Pius IX and the teachings of Aquinas?
5a2733a3c93d92001a40041f
True
Pope Pius IX
765
Who appointed Spada master of the sacred palace in the eighteenth century?
5a2733a3c93d92001a400420
True
In 1839 Mariano Spada (1796 - 1872), professor of theology at the Roman College of Saint Thomas, published Esame Critico sulla dottrina dell’ Angelico Dottore S. Tommaso di Aquino circa il Peccato originale, relativamente alla Beatissima Vergine Maria [A critical examination of the doctrine of St. Thomas Aquinas, the Angelic Doctor, regarding original sin with respect to the Most Blessed Virgin Mary], in which Aquinas is interpreted not as treating the question of the Immaculate Conception later formulated in the papal bull Ineffabilis Deus but rather the sanctification of the fetus within Mary's womb. Spada furnished an interpretation whereby Pius IX was relieved of the problem of seeming to foster a doctrine not in agreement with the Aquinas' teaching. Pope Pius IX would later appoint Spada Master of the Sacred Palace in 1867.
Who began to query the position of the conception of Mary following the 11th century ?
5730ef4105b4da19006bcc60
St Bernard of Clairvaux
22
False
Who did the query starter lay blame upon for the festivals that surrounded Mary's inception ?
5730ef4205b4da19006bcc61
St Bernard blames the canons of the metropolitan church of Lyon for instituting such a festival without the permission of the Holy See.
246
False
What did the query starter believe to be the ultimate difficulty in accepting  the a virgin conception of Mary ?
5730ef4205b4da19006bcc62
How can there be absence of sin where there is concupiscence (libido)?
762
False
What did the query starter believe had been done by Mary's direct  maternal line that contradict the conception theory of immaculate for Mary ?
5730ef4205b4da19006bcc63
conception in the active sense of the mother's cooperation
672
False
Did the query starter believe that the festival for Mary's conception had authorization to be held ?
5730ef4205b4da19006bcc64
instituting such a festival without the permission of the Holy See
314
False
St Bernard of Clairvaux
22
Who raised the question of the Immaculate Conception in the 1200s?
5a273563c93d92001a400425
True
A feast of the Conception of the Blessed Virgin
133
What was already being celebrated in some churches of the East?
5a273563c93d92001a400426
True
church of Lyon
295
Who instituted a feast of the conception of the Blessed Virgin with the permission of the Holy See?
5a273563c93d92001a400427
True
Mary
469
Whose conception does St. Bernard say was sinless?
5a273563c93d92001a400428
True
Pope Pius IX
614
What Pope's definition of conception agreed with St. Bernard's?
5a273563c93d92001a400429
True
It seems to have been St Bernard of Clairvaux who, in the 12th century, explicitly raised the question of the Immaculate Conception. A feast of the Conception of the Blessed Virgin had already begun to be celebrated in some churches of the West. St Bernard blames the canons of the metropolitan church of Lyon for instituting such a festival without the permission of the Holy See. In doing so, he takes occasion to repudiate altogether the view that the conception of Mary was sinless. It is doubtful, however, whether he was using the term "conception" in the same sense in which it is used in the definition of Pope Pius IX. Bernard would seem to have been speaking of conception in the active sense of the mother's cooperation, for in his argument he says: "How can there be absence of sin where there is concupiscence (libido)?" and stronger expressions follow, showing that he is speaking of the mother and not of the child.
What did the the monk of minor believe to be true of Mary ?
5730f13e497a881900248a7b
that from a rational point of view it was certainly as little derogatory to the merits of Christ
106
False
What point did his argument attempt to bring to the masses ?
5730f13e497a881900248a7c
to assert that Mary was by him preserved from all taint of sin, as to say that she first contracted it and then was delivered.
203
False
What did the monk of minor believe could alleviate the tension in the matter of the
5730f13e497a881900248a7d
Proposing a solution to the theological problem of reconciling the doctrine with that of universal redemption in Christ
330
False
What consequences did he believe that this would have on Mary's reputation ?
5730f13e497a881900248a7e
immaculate conception did not remove her from redemption by Christ;
473
False
How did monk of minor explain how the change in reputation could be of benefit to Mary ?
5730f13e497a881900248a7f
rather it was the result of a more perfect redemption granted her because of her special role in salvation history.
541
False
that from a rational point of view it was certainly as little derogatory to the merits of Christ to assert that Mary was by him preserved from all taint of sin
106
What did St. Bonaventure argue?
5a2736ffc93d92001a40042f
True
Mary
218
Who did Scotus believe did not have a special role in salvation history?
5a2736ffc93d92001a400430
True
Christ
196
Who is preserved from all taint of sin to the merits of Mary?
5a2736ffc93d92001a400431
True
redemption by Christ;
519
What did Mary's Immaculate Conception remove her from?
5a2736ffc93d92001a400432
True
The celebrated John Duns Scotus (d. 1308), a Friar Minor like Saint Bonaventure, argued, on the contrary, that from a rational point of view it was certainly as little derogatory to the merits of Christ to assert that Mary was by him preserved from all taint of sin, as to say that she first contracted it and then was delivered. Proposing a solution to the theological problem of reconciling the doctrine with that of universal redemption in Christ, he argued that Mary's immaculate conception did not remove her from redemption by Christ; rather it was the result of a more perfect redemption granted her because of her special role in salvation history.
Where did the mass majority stand in relation to having or not having the Mary inception festivals ?
5730f375a5e9cc1400cdbb31
Popular opinion remained firmly behind the celebration of Mary's conception.
0
False
How did the Holy Roman Church rule on the matter of the festivals ?
5730f375a5e9cc1400cdbb32
stated that belief in the immaculate conception of Mary is in accord with the Catholic faith.
153
False
Was the practce behind the meaning of the Mary inception festivals taught at Universities of theology ?
5730f375a5e9cc1400cdbb33
end of the 15th century the belief was widely professed and taught in many theological faculties
254
False
In what year was the famous friar named Tom given a position as a saint of the Holy Roman Catholic Church ?
5730f375a5e9cc1400cdbb34
Thomas Aquinas (who had been canonised in 1323
433
False
What happened to Tom at one of the 1567 that changed his title ?
5730f375a5e9cc1400cdbb35
declared "Doctor Angelicus" of the Church in 1567
484
False
Mary's conception
58
What celebration did popular opinion oppose?
5a27390ac93d92001a400437
True
Council of Basel,
90
Who said that belief in the immaculate conception of Mary is not in accord with Catholic belief?
5a27390ac93d92001a400438
True
Council of Basel
90
What counsel was held in the fourteenth century?
5a27390ac93d92001a400439
True
belief in the immaculate conception of Mary
165
What belief was taught in many theological facilities by the 1500s?
5a27390ac93d92001a40043a
True
Council of Trent
544
What counsel held between 1545 and 1563 affirmed the doctrine?
5a27390ac93d92001a40043b
True
Popular opinion remained firmly behind the celebration of Mary's conception. In 1439, the Council of Basel, which is not reckoned an ecumenical council, stated that belief in the immaculate conception of Mary is in accord with the Catholic faith. By the end of the 15th century the belief was widely professed and taught in many theological faculties, but such was the influence of the Dominicans, and the weight of the arguments of Thomas Aquinas (who had been canonised in 1323 and declared "Doctor Angelicus" of the Church in 1567) that the Council of Trent (1545–63)—which might have been expected to affirm the doctrine—instead declined to take a position.
What holy document takes the view of Mary back to the creation of man and woman ?
5730f90c497a881900248ab3
papal bull defining the dogma, Ineffabilis Deus
4
False
What specific part the Bible does this document reference for Mary ?
5730f90c497a881900248ab4
Genesis 3:15
112
False
According to the document what did the forebears already have knowledge of before Mary came about ?
5730f90c497a881900248ab5
the Fathers saw foreshadowings of Mary's "wondrous abundance of divine gifts and original innocence
255
False
Where was Mary represented (according to the Holy document ) on the vessel that wandered the sea for forty days and forty nights ?
5730f90c497a881900248ab6
in that ark of Noah, which was built by divine command and escaped entirely safe and sound from the common shipwreck of the whole world
357
False
The papal bull defining the dogma, Ineffabilis Deus
0
What holy document says Mary was present in Eden?
5a273d6bc93d92001a400441
True
the evil serpent
194
Who would Mary never be completely triumphant over?
5a273d6bc93d92001a400442
True
Mary's "wondrous abundance of divine gifts and original innocence"
289
What did God have foreshading of?
5a273d6bc93d92001a400443
True
ladder
501
What did Moses see from earth to heaven?
5a273d6bc93d92001a400444
True
The papal bull defining the dogma, Ineffabilis Deus, mentioned in particular the patrististic interpretation of Genesis 3:15 as referring to a woman, Mary, who would be eternally at enmity with the evil serpent and completely triumphing over him. It said the Fathers saw foreshadowings of Mary's "wondrous abundance of divine gifts and original innocence" "in that ark of Noah, which was built by divine command and escaped entirely safe and sound from the common shipwreck of the whole world; in the ladder which Jacob saw reaching from the earth to heaven, by whose rungs the angels of God ascended and descended, and on whose top the Lord himself leaned; in that bush which Moses saw in the holy place burning on all sides, which was not consumed or injured in any way but grew green and blossomed beautifully; in that impregnable tower before the enemy, from which hung a thousand bucklers and all the armor of the strong; in that garden enclosed on all sides, which cannot be violated or corrupted by any deceitful plots; in that resplendent city of God, which has its foundations on the holy mountains; in that most august temple of God, which, radiant with divine splendours, is full of the glory of God; and in very many other biblical types of this kind."
What sect often stands in disagreement over the virginal inception of Mary ?
5730fa52e6313a140071cb26
Contemporary Eastern Orthodox Christians often object to the dogmatic declaration of her immaculate conception
0
False
What does this group believe of the story of a Virgin mother for Mary and those who follow its teaching ?
5730fa52e6313a140071cb27
dogmatic declaration of her immaculate conception as an "over-elaboration"
61
False
What in particular does the group feels is impossible to believe ?
5730fa52e6313a140071cb28
because they see it as too closely connected with a particular interpretation of the doctrine of ancestral sin.
153
False
What is the theological study of Mary called ?
5730fa52e6313a140071cb29
Mariology
321
False
What did this theological study do to set itself apart from the other groups ?
5730fa52e6313a140071cb2a
took its historical point of departure from Sophronios, Damascene, and their imitators.
344
False
Contemporary Eastern Orthodox Christians often object to the dogmatic declaration of her immaculate conception as an "over-elaboration" of the faith and because they see it as too closely connected with a particular interpretation of the doctrine of ancestral sin. All the same, the historical and authentic tradition of Mariology in Byzantium took its historical point of departure from Sophronios, Damascene, and their imitators. The most famous Eastern Orthodox theologian to imply Mary's Immaculate Conception was St. Gregory Palamas. Though many passages from his works were long known to extol and attribute to Mary a Christlike holiness in her human nature, traditional objections to Palamas' disposition toward the Immaculate Conception typically rely on a poor understanding of his doctrine of "the purification of Mary" at the Annunciation. Not only did he explicitly cite St. Gregory Nazianzen for his understanding of Jesus' purification at His baptism and Mary's at the Annunciation, but Theophanes of Nicaea, Joseph Bryennius, and Gennadios Scholarios all explicitly placed Mary's Conception as the first moment of her all-immaculate participation in the divine energies to such a degree that she was always completely without spot and graced. In addition to Emperor Manuel II and Gennadius Scholarius, St. Mark of Ephesus also fervently defended Mary's title as "prepurified" against the Dominican, Manuel Calecas, who was perhaps promoting thomistic Mariology that denied Mary's all-holiness from the first moment of her existence.
Who is the person that started the religion that separated itself from the Catholic Church in the 17th century ?
5730fc20e6313a140071cb30
Martin Luther
0
False
What did he do that sparked the separation from the Catholic Church  ?
5730fc20e6313a140071cb31
Protestant Reformation
33
False
What did this leader of change believe of the conception of Mary ?
5730fc20e6313a140071cb32
Mother Mary, like us, was born in sin of sinful parents, but the Holy Spirit covered her, sanctified and purified her
64
False
What did Mary's child avoid according to the leader of the separation ?
5730fc20e6313a140071cb33
this child was born of flesh and blood, but not with sinful flesh and blood.
190
False
What particular sect is a patron of this belief ?
5730fc20e6313a140071cb34
Some Lutherans, such as the members of the Anglo-Lutheran Catholic Church, support the doctrine.
677
False
Martin Luther,
0
What protestant reformer said that Mary was not born with sinful flesh?
5a2759f7d1a287001a6d0a20
True
remain a true, natural human being of flesh and blood, just as we.
312
What did the immaculate conception permit Mary to do?
5a2759f7d1a287001a6d0a21
True
Anglo-Lutheran Catholic Church,
720
What Lutherans do not support this doctrine?
5a2759f7d1a287001a6d0a22
True
so that this child was born of flesh and blood, but not with sinful flesh
182
Why did the Holy Spirit purify Jesus?
5a2759f7d1a287001a6d0a23
True
Martin Luther, who initiated the Protestant Reformation, said: "Mother Mary, like us, was born in sin of sinful parents, but the Holy Spirit covered her, sanctified and purified her so that this child was born of flesh and blood, but not with sinful flesh and blood. The Holy Spirit permitted the Virgin Mary to remain a true, natural human being of flesh and blood, just as we. However, he warded off sin from her flesh and blood so that she became the mother of a pure child, not poisoned by sin as we are. For in that moment when she conceived, she was a holy mother filled with the Holy Spirit and her fruit is a holy pure fruit, at once God and truly man, in one person." Some Lutherans, such as the members of the Anglo-Lutheran Catholic Church, support the doctrine.
What was written by the a all inclusive group convened by the holy church centered in Rome ?
5731036405b4da19006bccda
Anglican-Roman Catholic International Commission
52
False
What document did this group create once it was convened ?
5731036405b4da19006bccdb
The report "Mary: Faith and Hope in Christ"
0
False
What did the document attempt to clarify ?
5731036405b4da19006bccdc
teaching about Mary in the two definitions
121
False
What was the final conclusion reached in the report by the group ?
5731036405b4da19006bccdd
Assumption and the Immaculate Conception can be said to be consonant with the teaching of the Scriptures and the ancient common traditions.
171
False
What type of interpretation did the group believe was of concern in regard to Mary ?
5731036405b4da19006bccde
The question arises for Anglicans, however, as to whether these doctrines concerning Mary are revealed by God in a way which must be held
456
False
can be said to be consonant with the teaching of the Scriptures and the ancient common traditions.
212
What did the Roman Catholic Church conclude about the teaching on the Assumption and the Immaqculate Conception?
5a275c96d1a287001a6d0a28
True
the teaching of the Scriptures and the ancient common traditions
245
According to the Anglicans what are the teachings on The Assumption and Immaculate conception not cosistant with?
5a275c96d1a287001a6d0a29
True
dogmatic definitions of these concepts
369
What was 5the Roman Catholic church concerned with?
5a275c96d1a287001a6d0a2a
True
God
440
Who did The Anglicans say revealed these concepts?
5a275c96d1a287001a6d0a2b
True
doctrines concerning Mary
520
What doctrine do Anlicans believe is a matte5r of faith?
5a275c96d1a287001a6d0a2c
True
The report "Mary: Faith and Hope in Christ", by the Anglican-Roman Catholic International Commission, concluded that the teaching about Mary in the two definitions of the Assumption and the Immaculate Conception can be said to be consonant with the teaching of the Scriptures and the ancient common traditions. But the report expressed concerns that the Roman Catholic dogmatic definitions of these concepts implies them to be "revealed by God", stating: "The question arises for Anglicans, however, as to whether these doctrines concerning Mary are revealed by God in a way which must be held by believers as a matter of faith."
What  religion is credited by some authors from the west for initiating the story of the conceiving of Mary ?
57310527e6313a140071cb56
claim that the immaculate conception of Mary is a teaching of Islam.
21
False
What do these authors use in the form of proof for credit given to the other religion  ?
57310527e6313a140071cb57
passage in the Qur'an, "I have called her Mary; and I commend her to thy protection, and also her issue, against Satan driven away with stones
122
False
According to the teaching of this other religion what occurred to Mary during the birth of her first child ?
57310527e6313a140071cb58
Mary and her son only excepted; between whom, and the evil spirit God placed a veil, so that his touch did not reach them.
544
False
What does this other religion also state  happens  to everyone besides Mary and her First born child  ?
57310527e6313a140071cb59
every person that comes into the world, is touched at his birth by the devil
441
False
What does the event cause to happen to everyone but Mary and her first born child ?
57310527e6313a140071cb5a
every person that comes into the world, is touched at his birth by the devil, and therefore cries out,
441
False
Western writers
5
Who does Islam claim first taught the immaculate conception of Mary?
5a275f53d1a287001a6d0a32
True
George Sale
267
Who says it is not that the concept of the Immaculat conception is taken from the Qur'an?
5a275f53d1a287001a6d0a33
True
immaculate conception of the virgin Mary
328
What does the Qur'an say is pretended?
5a275f53d1a287001a6d0a34
True
touched at his birth by the devil
484
What does the Bible say happens to every person that comes into the world?
5a275f53d1a287001a6d0a35
True
a veil
621
What did the Holy Spitit place between Mary and the devil?
5a275f53d1a287001a6d0a36
True
Some Western writers claim that the immaculate conception of Mary is a teaching of Islam. Thus, commenting in 1734 on the passage in the Qur'an, "I have called her Mary; and I commend her to thy protection, and also her issue, against Satan driven away with stones", George Sale stated: "It is not improbable that the pretended immaculate conception of the virgin Mary is intimated in this passage. For according to a tradition of Mohammed, every person that comes into the world, is touched at his birth by the devil, and therefore cries out, Mary and her son only excepted; between whom, and the evil spirit God placed a veil, so that his touch did not reach them. And for this reason they say, neither of them were guilty of any sin, like the rest of the children of Adam."
Does everyone agree on the credit that should be given for the story of Mary's inception ?
5731070b05b4da19006bcce4
Others have rejected that the doctrine of Immaculate Conception exists in Islam
0
False
What does the book of Muslim faith state in regards to how every person is born ?
5731070b05b4da19006bcce5
in Islam every human child is born pure and immaculate
168
False
Does this view contradict the belief that Mary was also born to a virgin mother ?
5731070b05b4da19006bcce6
her sinless birth is thus independent of the Christian docrtrine of original sin as no such doctrine exists in Islam
224
False
What view did the Qua-ran take on the sinful ways in which Mary could have been conceived ?
5731070b05b4da19006bcce7
Muslim tradition or hadith, which states that the only children born without the "touch of Satan," were Mary and Jesus.
557
False
What is the name of the prayer that is listed in the Qua-ran  is used to enact a safeguard on kids from the  the devil ?
5731070b05b4da19006bcce8
Hannah's prayer in the Quran for her child to remain protected from Satan
352
False
every human child is born pure and immaculate
177
How does the Qur\an confirm the Immaculat Conception of Mary?
5a2760d5d1a287001a6d0a3c
True
her sinless birth
224
What does the Qur'an say is dependent on Christian doctrine?
5a2760d5d1a287001a6d0a3d
True
after it had already been born
445
When did Mary pray for her child to remain protected from Satan?
5a2760d5d1a287001a6d0a3e
True
The Muslim tradition or hadith
553
What exonerates Mary and Jesus?
5a2760d5d1a287001a6d0a3f
True
Mary and Jesus
924
Who does the hadith refer to as servents?
5a2760d5d1a287001a6d0a40
True
Others have rejected that the doctrine of Immaculate Conception exists in Islam, the Quranic account does not confirm the Immaculate Conception exclusively for Mary as in Islam every human child is born pure and immaculate, her sinless birth is thus independent of the Christian docrtrine of original sin as no such doctrine exists in Islam. Moreover, Hannah's prayer in the Quran for her child to remain protected from Satan (Shayṭān) was said after it had already been born, not before and expresses a natural concern any righteous parent would have. The Muslim tradition or hadith, which states that the only children born without the "touch of Satan," were Mary and Jesus. should therefore not be taken in isolation from the Quran, and is to be interpreted within the specific context of exonerating Mary and her child from the charges that were made against them and is not a general statement. The specific mention of Mary and Jesus in this hadith may also be taken to represent a class of people, in keeping with the Arabic language and the Quranic verse [O Satan] surely thou shalt have no power over My servants, except such of the erring ones as choose to follow thee (15:42)
What did the writer of a 1788 multi-volumed text say concerning plagiarism and the Roman Catholic Church ?
573108b205b4da19006bcd00
The Latin Church has not disdained to borrow from the Koran the immaculate conception of his virgin mother
202
False
Who is the author of the texts entailed in the fifth part of the the collection about the Roman Catholic Church ?
573108b205b4da19006bcd01
Edward Gibbon
180
False
What was the group of volumes titled ?
573108b205b4da19006bcd02
Decline and Fall of the Roman Empire
123
False
Where does the author state that the Roman Catholic Church received her facts and confirmations ?
573108b205b4da19006bcd03
Mohametan Bible
875
False
Roman Catholic Church
34
Who's doctrine does Islam derive its teachings from?
5a2762bad1a287001a6d0a46
True
volume 5 of his Decline and Fall of the Roman Empire
107
What did St Bernard write in 1788?
5a2762bad1a287001a6d0a47
True
"The Latin Church has not disdained to borrow from the Koran the immaculate conception of his virgin mother."
201
What charge did St Bernard repeat in 1854?
5a2762bad1a287001a6d0a48
True
the doctrine which the church of Rome has promulgated, with so much pomp and ceremony
667
What has its origin in the Bible?
5a2762bad1a287001a6d0a49
True
Further claims were made that the Roman Catholic Church derives its doctrine from the Islamic teaching. In volume 5 of his Decline and Fall of the Roman Empire, published in 1788, Edward Gibbon wrote: "The Latin Church has not disdained to borrow from the Koran the immaculate conception of his virgin mother." That he was speaking of her immaculate conception by her mother, not of her own virginal conception of Jesus, is shown by his footnote: "In the xiith century the immaculate conception was condemned by St. Bernard as a presumptuous novelty." In the aftermath of the definition of the dogma in 1854, this charge was repeated: "Strange as it may appear, that the doctrine which the church of Rome has promulgated, with so much pomp and ceremony, 'for the destruction of all heresies, and the confirmation of the faith of her adherents', should have its origin in the Mohametan Bible; yet the testimony of such authorities as Gibbon, and Sale, and Forster, and Gagnier, and Maracci, leave no doubt as to the marvellous fact."
What color garment is used in traditional chants to represent the purity of Mary's conception ?
57310b70497a881900248b23
Your clothing is white as snow,
340
False
The rituals for the correct way to enjoy Mass is listed in what text ?
57310b70497a881900248b24
The Roman Missal
0
False
What official writings give specific prayers for each hours of the day for Catholics ?
57310b70497a881900248b25
Roman Rite Liturgy of the Hours
25
False
What type of  melodic, rhythmic, and harmonic changes have been made by composers but are based on the works that are monophonic and  unaccompanied sacred song?
57310b70497a881900248b26
polyphonic settings have been composed
651
False
The Roman Missal and the Roman Rite Liturgy of the Hours
0
What include refrences to Jesus's Immaculate Conception?
5a2763c3d1a287001a6d0a4e
True
Mary
287
who is purified from original sin by Jesus?
5a2763c3d1a287001a6d0a4f
True
polyphonic settings
651
What did Anton Bruckner compose base on the Litergy of the Hours?
5a2763c3d1a287001a6d0a50
True
The Roman Missal and the Roman Rite Liturgy of the Hours naturally includes references to Mary's immaculate conception in the feast of the Immaculate Conception. An example is the antiphon that begins: "Tota pulchra es, Maria, et macula originalis non est in te" (You are all beautiful, Mary, and the original stain [of sin] is not in you. Your clothing is white as snow, and your face is like the sun. You are all beautiful, Mary, and the original stain [of sin] is not in you. You are the glory of Jerusalem, you are the joy of Israel, you give honour to our people. You are all beautiful, Mary.) On the basis of the original Gregorian chant music, polyphonic settings have been composed by Anton Bruckner, Pablo Casals, Maurice Duruflé, Grzegorz Gerwazy Gorczycki, no:Ola Gjeilo, José Maurício Nunes Garcia, and Nikolaus Schapfl,
What became very popular symbol among the who believed Mary had a Virgin for a mother ?
57310cad05b4da19006bcd2a
in a heavenly realm, moments after her creation, the spirit of Mary (in the form of a young woman) looks up in awe at (or bows her head to) God
185
False
What does Mary stand upon in this symbol?
57310cad05b4da19006bcd2b
moon is under her feet
334
False
What does Mary where atop her hair that twinkles in the symbol ?
57310cad05b4da19006bcd2c
a halo of twelve stars surround her head
361
False
What else can be found in the symbol with Mary that may vary in different versions ?
57310cad05b4da19006bcd2d
clouds, a golden light, and cherubs. In some paintings the cherubim are holding lilies and roses, flowers often associated with Mary.
513
False
The popularity of this particular representation of The Immaculate Conception
0
What spread across Europe and the Near East?
5a276497d1a287001a6d0a54
True
lilies and roses
593
What type of flowers does Mary hold in her hands?
5a276497d1a287001a6d0a55
True
The moon
330
What is under the feet of the Cherubs?
5a276497d1a287001a6d0a56
True
in a heavenly realm
185
Where is Mary depicted before her creation?
5a276497d1a287001a6d0a57
True
The popularity of this particular representation of The Immaculate Conception spread across the rest of Europe, and has since remained the best known artistic depiction of the concept: in a heavenly realm, moments after her creation, the spirit of Mary (in the form of a young woman) looks up in awe at (or bows her head to) God. The moon is under her feet and a halo of twelve stars surround her head, possibly a reference to "a woman clothed with the sun" from Revelation 12:1-2. Additional imagery may include clouds, a golden light, and cherubs. In some paintings the cherubim are holding lilies and roses, flowers often associated with Mary.
Namibia
What is the cost of primary and secondary education in Namibia?
5730b68b069b5314008322a9
free
12
False
How many Namibian students were recorded in 1998 in primary school?
5730b68b069b5314008322aa
400,325
149
False
How many Namibian students were recorded in 1998 in secondary schools?
5730b68b069b5314008322ab
115,237
197
False
What was the pupil-teacher ratio in Namibia in 1999?
5730b68b069b5314008322ac
32:1
285
False
What develops the curriculum as well as other educational resources in Namibia?
5730b68b069b5314008322ad
National Institute for Educational Development
459
False
Okahandja
516
What is the capital of Namibia?
5acfea3877cf76001a68646c
True
115,237
197
How many teachers are there in Namibia in primary and secondary schools?
5acfea3877cf76001a68646d
True
8%
302
How much of Namibia's GDP is spent on defense?
5acfea3877cf76001a68646e
True
32:1
285
What was the pupil-teacher ratio in 2000?
5acfea3877cf76001a68646f
True
115,237
197
What is the population of Okahandja?
5acfea3877cf76001a686470
True
Namibia has free education for both Primary and secondary education levels. Grades 1–7 are primary level, grades 8–12 secondary. In 1998, there were 400,325 Namibian students in primary school and 115,237 students in secondary schools. The pupil-teacher ratio in 1999 was estimated at 32:1, with about 8% of the GDP being spent on education. Curriculum development, educational research, and professional development of teachers is centrally organised by the National Institute for Educational Development (NIED) in Okahandja.
What is the Afrikaans name for Namibia?
5730b76c8ab72b1400f9c6e6
Namibië
131
False
Where in Africa is Namibia?
5730b76c8ab72b1400f9c6e7
southern
156
False
What ocean borders Namibia?
5730b76c8ab72b1400f9c6e8
Atlantic Ocean
200
False
How far away is Namibia to the Zambezi River?
5730b76c8ab72b1400f9c6e9
200 metres
395
False
When did Namibia gain independence from South Africa?
5730b76c8ab72b1400f9c6ea
21 March 1990
590
False
Republiek van Namibië
117
What is the French word for the Republic of Namibia?
5acf97ec77cf76001a6853b2
True
Angola
255
With what country does Namibia share most of its northern border with?
5acf97ec77cf76001a6853b3
True
21 March 1990
590
On what date did the Namibian War of Independence start?
5acf97ec77cf76001a6853b5
True
micro-border
495
What type of border does Namibia share with Angola?
5acf97ec77cf76001a6853b6
True
Namibia (i/nəˈmɪbiə/, /næˈ-/), officially the Republic of Namibia (German:  Republik Namibia (help·info); Afrikaans: Republiek van Namibië) is a country in southern Africa whose western border is the Atlantic Ocean. It shares land borders with Zambia and Angola to the north, Botswana to the east and South Africa to the south and east. Although it does not border Zimbabwe, a part of less than 200 metres of the Zambezi River (essentially a small bulge in Botswana to achieve a Botswana/Zambia micro-border) separates it from that country. Namibia gained independence from South Africa on 21 March 1990, following the Namibian War of Independence. Its capital and largest city is Windhoek, and it is a member state of the United Nations (UN), the Southern African Development Community (SADC), the African Union (AU), and the Commonwealth of Nations.
When did Bantu immigrate to Namibia?
5730b7f28ab72b1400f9c6f0
14th century
107
False
When did Namibia become German Imperial protectorate?
5730b7f28ab72b1400f9c6f1
1884
242
False
When did Namibia stop being a German colony?
5730b7f28ab72b1400f9c6f2
end of World War I
286
False
What year did the League of Nations mandate Namibia to South Africa?
5730b7f28ab72b1400f9c6f3
1920
309
False
When did South Africa impose the apartheid policy on Namibia?
5730b7f28ab72b1400f9c6f4
1948
408
False
South Africa
361
Where did the Bantu come from in the 14th century?
5acf992877cf76001a6853d0
True
1920
309
In what year did World War I end?
5acf992877cf76001a6853d1
True
1920
309
In what year was the League of Nations formed?
5acf992877cf76001a6853d2
True
1948
408
In what year did the League of Nations shut down?
5acf992877cf76001a6853d3
True
1884
242
In what year was the Cape Colony established?
5acf992877cf76001a6853d4
True
The dry lands of Namibia were inhabited since early times by San, Damara, and Namaqua, and since about the 14th century AD by immigrating Bantu who came with the Bantu expansion. Most of the territory became a German Imperial protectorate in 1884 and remained a German colony until the end of World War I. In 1920, the League of Nations mandated the country to South Africa, which imposed its laws and, from 1948, its apartheid policy. The port of Walvis Bay and the offshore Penguin Islands had been annexed by the Cape Colony under the British crown by 1878 and had become an integral part of the new Union of South Africa at its creation in 1910.
What does SWAPO stand for?
5730b8912461fd1900a9cfe7
South West Africa People's Organisation
122
False
When was SWAPO designated as the representative of Namibian people?
5730b8912461fd1900a9cfe8
1973
227
False
When Namibia was under South African administration, what was it called?
5730b8912461fd1900a9cfe9
South-West Africa.
315
False
Why did South Africa install an interim administration in Namibia?
5730b8912461fd1900a9cfea
internal violence
344
False
When did Namibia obtain full independence?
5730b8912461fd1900a9cfeb
1990
488
False
1973
227
In what year was the South West Africa People's Organization formed?
5acf9a7d77cf76001a685430
True
South-West
315
In what region of Namibia is Walvis Bay?
5acf9a7d77cf76001a685431
True
South-West
315
In what region of Namibia is the Penguin Islands?
5acf9a7d77cf76001a685432
True
Walvis Bay
516
Which covers more area, Walvis Bay or the Penguin Islands?
5acf9a7d77cf76001a685433
True
Uprisings and demands by African leaders led the UN to assume direct responsibility over the territory. It recognised the South West Africa People's Organisation (SWAPO) as the official representative of the Namibian people in 1973. Namibia, however, remained under South African administration during this time as South-West Africa. Following internal violence, South Africa installed an interim administration in Namibia in 1985. Namibia obtained full independence from South Africa in 1990, with the exception of Walvis Bay and the Penguin Islands, which remained under South African control until 1994.
Orlam clans crossed which river to migrate to Namibia?
5730be1f8ab72b1400f9c750
Orange River
274
False
What area of Namibia did Orlam clans settle in?
5730be1f8ab72b1400f9c751
southern Namibia
325
False
When did Orlam clans settle in Namibia?
5730be1f8ab72b1400f9c752
18th century
207
False
When did the Nama-Herero war begin?
5730be1f8ab72b1400f9c753
1880
751
False
Who deployed troops to start the Nama-Herero war?
5730be1f8ab72b1400f9c754
Imperial Germany
791
False
nomadic
369
What type of people were the San?
5acf9b5677cf76001a685454
True
1880
751
In what year did the Nama-Herero War hostilities stop?
5acf9b5677cf76001a685455
True
nomadic
369
What type of people were the Damara?
5acf9b5677cf76001a685456
True
nomadic
369
What type of people were the Herero tribe?
5acf9b5677cf76001a685457
True
The dry lands of Namibia were inhabited since early times by San, Damara, Nama and, since about the 14th century AD, by immigrating Bantu who came with the Bantu expansion from central Africa. From the late 18th century onwards, Orlam clans from the Cape Colony crossed the Orange River and moved into the area that today is southern Namibia. Their encounters with the nomadic Nama tribes were largely peaceful. The missionaries accompanying the Orlams were well received by them, the right to use waterholes and grazing was granted against an annual payment. On their way further northwards, however, the Orlams encountered clans of the Herero tribe at Windhoek, Gobabis, and Okahandja which were less accommodating. The Nama-Herero War broke out in 1880, with hostilities ebbing only when Imperial Germany deployed troops to the contested places and cemented the status quo between Nama, Orlams, and Herero.
When did Bartolomeu Dias explore Namibia?
5730cae6aca1c71400fe5acb
1486
128
False
What nationality were the first navigators to explore Namibia come from?
5730cae6aca1c71400fe5acc
Portuguese
65
False
When did Diogo Cao explore Namibia?
5730cae6aca1c71400fe5acd
1485
100
False
Along with Swedish settlers, what other country's settlers inhabited in Namibia first?
5730cae6aca1c71400fe5ace
Germany
360
False
Settlers on their way to Angola settled in Namibia instead of going where?
5730cae6aca1c71400fe5acf
Angola
475
False
1485
100
In what year was Diogo Cao born?
5acf9c1277cf76001a685498
True
1486
128
In what year was Bartolmeu Dias born?
5acf9c1277cf76001a685499
True
Portuguese
65
What nationality were the Dorsland trekkers?
5acf9c1277cf76001a68549a
True
Sweden
372
Which country was the first to have European traders in Sub-Saharan Africa?
5acf9c1277cf76001a68549b
True
Germany
360
What was the first country to have European settlers in Sub-Saharan Africa?
5acf9c1277cf76001a68549c
True
The first Europeans to disembark and explore the region were the Portuguese navigators Diogo Cão in 1485 and Bartolomeu Dias in 1486; still the region was not claimed by the Portuguese crown. However, like most of Sub-Saharan Africa, Namibia was not extensively explored by Europeans until the 19th century, when traders and settlers arrived, principally from Germany and Sweden. In the late 19th century Dorsland trekkers crossed the area on their way from the Transvaal to Angola. Some of them settled in Namibia instead of continuing their journey.
Herero and what other group took action against German occupiers?
5730cea4aca1c71400fe5ad9
Namaqua
38
False
When did two clans take up action against the German occupiers?
5730cea4aca1c71400fe5ada
1904 to 1907
5
False
What was the war against the German occupiers considered?
5730cea4aca1c71400fe5adb
first genocide of the Twentieth Century
143
False
How many Herero's were killed in the war against German occupiers?
5730cea4aca1c71400fe5adc
65,000
287
False
How many Nama's were killed in the war against German occupiers?
5730cea4aca1c71400fe5add
10,000
235
False
1907
13
In what year did the "first genocide of the Twentieth Century" start?
5acf9d1077cf76001a6854ee
True
Nama
242
Which group to German occupiers first start to commit genocide against?
5acf9d1077cf76001a6854ef
True
half the population
248
What percentage of Herero were murdered by Germans?
5acf9d1077cf76001a6854f0
True
about 80% of the population
303
What percentage of Namaqua were murdered by Germans?
5acf9d1077cf76001a6854f1
True
1907
13
In what year did "the first genocide of the Twentieth Century" end?
5acf9d1077cf76001a6854f2
True
From 1904 to 1907, the Herero and the Namaqua took up arms against the Germans and in calculated punitive action by the German occupiers, the 'first genocide of the Twentieth Century' was committed. In the Herero and Namaqua genocide, 10,000 Nama (half the population) and approximately 65,000 Hereros (about 80% of the population) were systematically murdered. The survivors, when finally released from detention, were subjected to a policy of dispossession, deportation, forced labour, racial segregation and discrimination in a system that in many ways anticipated apartheid.
When did South Africa occupy Namibia?
5730cf87b54a4f140068cc76
1915
36
False
When did South Africa refuse to surrender Namibia?
5730cf87b54a4f140068cc77
1946
691
False
Which council submitted petitions for Namibia's independence?
5730cf87b54a4f140068cc78
Herero Chief's Council
936
False
When did European powers grant independence to their colonies in Africa?
5730cf87b54a4f140068cc79
1960s
1075
False
When was the League replaced by the United Nations?
5730cf87b54a4f140068cc7a
1946
691
False
1915
36
In what year did World War I start?
5acf9e4c77cf76001a685560
True
1919
118
In what year was the League of Nations founded?
5acf9e4c77cf76001a685561
True
1919
118
In what year was the Parliament of South Africa formed?
5acf9e4c77cf76001a685562
True
1971
1470
In what year was the International Court of Justice established?
5acf9e4c77cf76001a685563
True
South Africa occupied the colony in 1915 after defeating the German force during World War I and administered it from 1919 onward as a League of Nations mandate territory. Although the South African government desired to incorporate 'South-West Africa' into its territory, it never officially did so, although it was administered as the de facto 'fifth province', with the white minority having representation in the whites-only Parliament of South Africa, as well as electing their own local administration the SWA Legislative Assembly. The South African government also appointed the SWA administrator, who had extensive powers. Following the League's replacement by the United Nations in 1946, South Africa refused to surrender its earlier mandate to be replaced by a United Nations Trusteeship agreement, requiring closer international monitoring of the territory's administration (along with a definite independence schedule). The Herero Chief's Council submitted a number of petitions to the UN calling for it to grant Namibia independence during the 1950s. During the 1960s, when European powers granted independence to their colonies and trust territories in Africa, pressure mounted on South Africa to do so in Namibia. In 1966 the International Court of Justice dismissed a complaint brought by Ethiopia and Liberia against South Africa's continued presence in the territory, but the U.N. General Assembly subsequently revoked South Africa's mandate, while in 1971 the International Court of Justice issued an "advisory opinion" declaring South Africa's continued administration to be illegal.
Which guerrilla group fought for Namibia's independence?
5730d03caca1c71400fe5ae3
People's Liberation Army of Namibia
133
False
When did a guerrilla group fight for Namibia's independence?
5730d03caca1c71400fe5ae4
1966
19
False
When did South Africa end occupation of Namibia?
5730d03caca1c71400fe5ae5
1988
254
False
Why did South Africa end occupation in Namibia?
5730d03caca1c71400fe5ae6
UN peace plan
339
False
What is the central-southern area of Namibia known as?
5730d03caca1c71400fe5ae7
Police Zone
637
False
1966
19
In what year was the South-West Africa People's Organization started?
5acf9f9377cf76001a6855ae
True
0.2%
514
What percentage of the population Of South Africa was white people?
5acf9f9377cf76001a6855af
True
74%
553
How much of South Africa's arable land did white people control?
5acf9f9377cf76001a6855b0
True
1988
254
In what year did the UN start developing a peace plan for the whole region?
5acf9f9377cf76001a6855b1
True
In response to the 1966 ruling by the International Court of Justice, South-West Africa People's Organisation (SWAPO) military wing, People's Liberation Army of Namibia, a guerrilla group began their armed struggle for independence, but it was not until 1988 that South Africa agreed to end its occupation of Namibia, in accordance with a UN peace plan for the entire region. During the South African occupation of Namibia, white commercial farmers, most of whom came as settlers from South Africa and represented 0.2% of the national population, owned 74% of the arable land. Outside the central-southern area of Namibia (known as the "Police Zone" since the German era and which contained the main towns, industries, mines and best arable land), the country was divided into "homelands", the version of South African bantustan applied to Namibia, although only a few were actually established because indigenous Namibians often did not cooperate.
What was Namibia previously called?
5730d0eab54a4f140068cc80
South West Africa
0
False
What date did Namibia get it's official name?
5730d0eab54a4f140068cc81
12 June 1968
136
False
What was the resolution that granted Namibia it's name?
5730d0eab54a4f140068cc82
Resolution 2372 (XXII)
110
False
How long did it take for South Africa to agree to the implantation of Namibia's new name?
5730d0eab54a4f140068cc83
1988
365
False
The diplomatic agreement between South Africa, Angola, and Cuba was observed by the USSR and what other country?
5730d0eab54a4f140068cc84
USA
512
False
12 June
136
On what date  in 1978 did the UN Security Council pass Resolution 2372?
5acfa24977cf76001a685640
True
1978
153
In what year had Cuba sent troops to Angola?
5acfa24977cf76001a685641
True
1968
144
In what year had the MPLA formed?
5acfa24977cf76001a685642
True
1968
144
Since what year had UNITA controlled Angola?
5acfa24977cf76001a685643
True
Angola
473
Among which countries had been trying to persuade South Africa to give Namibia independence?
5acfa24977cf76001a685644
True
South West Africa became known as Namibia by the UN when the General Assembly changed the territory's name by Resolution 2372 (XXII) of 12 June 1968. In 1978 the UN Security Council passed UN Resolution 435 which planned a transition toward independence for Namibia. Attempts to persuade South Africa to agree to the plan's implementation were not successful until 1988 when the transition to independence finally started under a diplomatic agreement between South Africa, Angola and Cuba, with the USSR and the USA as observers, under which South Africa agreed to withdraw and demobilise its forces in Namibia. As a result, Cuba agreed to pull back its troops in southern Angola sent to support the MPLA in its war for control of Angola with UNITA.
What does UNTAG stand for?
5730d151f6cb411900e244cc
United Nations Transition Assistance Group
61
False
Who was the diplomat for UNTAG?
5730d151f6cb411900e244cd
Martti Ahtisaari
128
False
What nationality was the diplomat in UNTAG?
5730d151f6cb411900e244ce
Finnish
111
False
When was the diplomat for UNTAG deployed to supervise withdrawals from Namibia?
5730d151f6cb411900e244cf
April 1989 to March 1990
163
False
What was the official election slogan in the first Namibia election?
5730d151f6cb411900e244d0
Free and Fair Elections
741
False
November
692
In what month in 1989 did campaigning begin for the constitutional assembly election?
5acfa4f277cf76001a6856e0
True
Martti Ahtisaari
128
Who was the head of the SWAPO party?
5acfa4f277cf76001a6856e1
True
South African-backed
860
Who backed SWAPO?
5acfa4f277cf76001a6856e2
True
1989
169
In what year did Martti Ahtisaarsi become a diplomat?
5acfa4f277cf76001a6856e3
True
April 1989
163
When had SWAPO members been exiled?
5acfa4f277cf76001a6856e4
True
A combined UN civilian and peace-keeping force called UNTAG (United Nations Transition Assistance Group) under Finnish diplomat Martti Ahtisaari was deployed from April 1989 to March 1990 to monitor the peace process, elections and supervise military withdrawals. As UNTAG began to deploy peacekeepers, military observers, police, and political workers, hostilities were briefly renewed on the day the transition process was supposed to begin. After a new round of negotiations, a second date was set and the elections process began in earnest. After the return of SWAPO exiles (over 46,000 exiles), Namibia's first one-person one-vote elections for the constitutional assembly took place in November 1989. The official election slogan was "Free and Fair Elections". This was won by SWAPO although it did not gain the two-thirds majority it had hoped for; the South African-backed Democratic Turnhalle Alliance (DTA) became the official opposition. The elections were peaceful and declared free and fair.
When was the Namibian Constitution adopted?
5730f29da5e9cc1400cdbb27
February 1990
37
False
When did the country of Namibia officially become a country?
5730f29da5e9cc1400cdbb28
21 March 1990
307
False
Who was the first President of Namibia?
5730f29da5e9cc1400cdbb29
Sam Nujoma
322
False
Who swore in the first President of Namibia?
5730f29da5e9cc1400cdbb2a
Nelson Mandela
391
False
What was ceded to Namibia in 1994?
5730f29da5e9cc1400cdbb2b
Walvis Bay
530
False
1994
565
Until what year did Sam Nujoma serve as President of Namibia?
5acfa64f77cf76001a68570e
True
1990
46
For how many days had Nelson Mandela been imprisoned?
5acfa64f77cf76001a68570f
True
February 1990
37
In what month and year did Namibian leaders start to develop their constitution?
5acfa64f77cf76001a685710
True
February 1990
37
When was the first Namibian vote held for president?
5acfa64f77cf76001a685711
True
South Africa
599
What was one of the countries that sent a head of state to Namibia for the first presidential swearing-in?
5acfa64f77cf76001a685712
True
The Namibian Constitution adopted in February 1990 incorporated protection for human rights, compensation for state expropriations of private property, an independent judiciary and an executive presidency (the constituent assembly became the national assembly). The country officially became independent on 21 March 1990. Sam Nujoma was sworn in as the first President of Namibia watched by Nelson Mandela (who had been released from prison the previous month) and representatives from 147 countries, including 20 heads of state. Walvis Bay was ceded to Namibia in 1994 upon the end of Apartheid in South Africa.[citation needed]
What did Namibia transition to after white minority apartheid rule?
5730f379497a881900248a8f
parliamentary democracy
107
False
What type of independence was introduced in Namibia after independence?
5730f379497a881900248a90
Multiparty democracy
132
False
What party has won every election in Namibia?
5730f379497a881900248a91
Swapo Party
356
False
How long did president Same Nujoma rule?
5730f379497a881900248a92
15-year
435
False
Who succeeded Sam Nujoma?
5730f379497a881900248a93
Hifikepunye Pohamba
489
False
2005
512
In what year was multiparty democracy introduced to Namibia?
5acfa71377cf76001a685722
True
Swapo
356
What political party was President Sam Nujoma a member of?
5acfa71377cf76001a685723
True
Swapo
356
What political party is Hifikepunye Pohamba a member of?
5acfa71377cf76001a685724
True
2005
512
In what year did Namibia successfully transition to parliamentary democracy?
5acfa71377cf76001a685725
True
15-year
435
What is the presidential term limit in Namibia?
5acfa71377cf76001a685726
True
Since independence Namibia has successfully completed the transition from white minority apartheid rule to parliamentary democracy. Multiparty democracy was introduced and has been maintained, with local, regional and national elections held regularly. Several registered political parties are active and represented in the National Assembly, although the Swapo Party has won every election since independence. The transition from the 15-year rule of President Sam Nujoma to his successor Hifikepunye Pohamba in 2005 went smoothly.
What Desert is shared between South Africa and Botswana?
5730f42ea5e9cc1400cdbb3b
Kalahari Desert
4
False
How many plants species are found in Succulent Karoo?
5730f42ea5e9cc1400cdbb3c
5,000
336
False
How many plants are endemic to the Succulent Karoo?
5730f42ea5e9cc1400cdbb3d
half
368
False
How many of the worlds succulents are found in Karoo?
5730f42ea5e9cc1400cdbb3e
10 percent
404
False
What is probably the reason there are so many unique plants in Karoo?
5730f42ea5e9cc1400cdbb3f
stable nature of precipitation
541
False
Botswana
65
What country lies to the east of Namibia?
5acfa7fc77cf76001a68574e
True
5,000
336
How many species of plants are there in the Kalahari Desert?
5acfa7fc77cf76001a68574f
True
Approximately 10 percent
390
What percentage of the world's succulents are found in all of the Kalahari Desert?
5acfa7fc77cf76001a685750
True
South Africa
48
What country lies north of Namibia?
5acfa7fc77cf76001a685751
True
Botswana
65
What country lies south of Namibia?
5acfa7fc77cf76001a685752
True
The Kalahari Desert, an arid region shared with South Africa and Botswana, is one of Namibia's well-known geographical features. The Kalahari, while popularly known as a desert, has a variety of localised environments, including some verdant and technically non-desert areas. One of these, known as the Succulent Karoo, is home to over 5,000 species of plants, nearly half of them endemic; Approximately 10 percent of the world's succulents are found in the Karoo. The reason behind this high productivity and endemism may be the relatively stable nature of precipitation.
What is the climate range for Namibia?
5730f4a1497a881900248aa3
17°S to 25°S
21
False
What is the overall climate description for Namibia?
5730f4a1497a881900248aa4
arid
98
False
What is the mean rain above in Namibia?
5730f4a1497a881900248aa5
500 mm
185
False
What is the semi-arid measurements in Namibia?
5730f4a1497a881900248aa6
300 and 500 mm
219
False
What is the arid measurement in Namibia?
5730f4a1497a881900248aa7
150 to 300 mm
291
False
17°S
21
At what coordinate is Warmbad?
5acfa8be77cf76001a685776
True
Sub-Humid
158
What is the climate description for the northern half of Namibia?
5acfa8be77cf76001a685777
True
Semi-Arid
201
What is the climate description for the southern half of Namibia?
5acfa8be77cf76001a685778
True
Arid
281
What is the climate description for the middle band of Namibia?
5acfa8be77cf76001a685779
True
Warmbad
529
What is the wettest area of Namibia?
5acfa8be77cf76001a68577a
True
Namibia extends from 17°S to 25°S: climatically the range of the sub-Tropical High Pressure Belt, arid is the overall climate description descending from the Sub-Humid (mean rain above 500 mm) through Semi-Arid between 300 and 500 mm (embracing most of the waterless Kalahari) and Arid from 150 to 300 mm (these three regions are inland from the western escarpment) to the Hyper-Arid coastal plain with less than a 100 mm mean. Temperature maxima are limited by the overall elevation of the entire region: only in the far south, Warmbad for instance, are mid-40 °C maxima recorded.
What is the typical amount of sunshine days in Tropical high pressure belt?
5730f511e6313a140071caf8
300 days
93
False
What feature cuts Namibia in half?
5730f511e6313a140071caf9
the Tropic of Capricorn
176
False
What is the winter in Namibia like?
5730f511e6313a140071cafa
dry
272
False
When is the rainiest season in Namibia?
5730f511e6313a140071cafb
between February and April
380
False
What is humidity like in Namibia?
5730f511e6313a140071cafc
low
420
False
600 mm
505
How much rain fell during the summer of 2006/07?
5acfaa0c77cf76001a6857b2
True
600 mm
505
How much rain typically falls in February each year in the Caprivi Strip?
5acfaa0c77cf76001a6857b3
True
600 mm
505
What is the record amount of rain in the Caprivi Strip?
5acfaa0c77cf76001a6857b4
True
600 mm
505
What is the record rainfall in the coastal desert?
5acfaa0c77cf76001a6857b5
True
zero
465
What is the least amount of rainfall to ever fall in the Caprivi Strip in one year?
5acfaa0c77cf76001a6857b6
True
Typically the sub-Tropical High Pressure Belt, with frequent clear skies, provides more than 300 days of sunshine per year. It is situated at the southern edge of the tropics; the Tropic of Capricorn cuts the country about in half. The winter (June – August) is generally dry, both rainy seasons occur in summer, the small rainy season between September and November, the big one between February and April. Humidity is low, and average rainfall varies from almost zero in the coastal desert to more than 600 mm in the Caprivi Strip. Rainfall is however highly variable, and droughts are common. The last[update] bad rainy season with rainfall far below the annual average occurred in summer 2006/07.
What current dominates the coastal area of Namibia?
5730f654e6313a140071cb02
Benguela
81
False
What direction does the current in the coastal area flow?
5730f654e6313a140071cb03
north
67
False
Which ocean is on the coastal area of Namibia?
5730f654e6313a140071cb04
Atlantic
105
False
What is the condition that happens in winter in Namibia?
5730f654e6313a140071cb05
Bergwind
317
False
What do hot dry winds blowing inland to the coast create?
5730f654e6313a140071cb06
sand storms
521
False
Atlantic Ocean
105
What lies to the east of Namibia?
5acfaad377cf76001a6857c6
True
north
67
What is the wind direction outside of the coastal area?
5acfaad377cf76001a6857c7
True
cold
61
What is the temperature of the wind outside the coastal area?
5acfaad377cf76001a6857c8
True
East weather
375
What is the German expression for Oosweer?
5acfaad377cf76001a6857c9
True
Mountain breeze
335
What is the Afrikaans expression for Bergwind?
5acfaad377cf76001a6857ca
True
Weather and climate in the coastal area are dominated by the cold, north-flowing Benguela current of the Atlantic Ocean which accounts for very low precipitation (50 mm per year or less), frequent dense fog, and overall lower temperatures than in the rest of the country. In Winter, occasionally a condition known as Bergwind (German: Mountain breeze) or Oosweer (Afrikaans: East weather) occurs, a hot dry wind blowing from the inland to the coast. As the area behind the coast is a desert, these winds can develop into sand storms with sand deposits in the Atlantic Ocean visible on satellite images.
What is the driest country in sub-Saharan Africa?
5730f84ce6313a140071cb16
Namibia
0
False
What is the average rainfall in Namibia?
5730f84ce6313a140071cb17
350 mm per annum
122
False
Where does the highest rainfall occur in Namibia?
5730f84ce6313a140071cb18
Caprivi
175
False
How much of the country does dam water supply the rest of the country with?
5730f84ce6313a140071cb19
80%
1109
False
Namibia
0
What is the wettest country in sub-Saharan Africa?
5acfab8877cf76001a6857da
True
600 mm
207
What is the record amount of rain in a year on the coast?
5acfab8877cf76001a6857db
True
50 mm
297
What is the record least amount of rain in a year in the Caprivi?
5acfab8877cf76001a6857dc
True
350 mm
122
What is the average annual rainfall in Zambia?
5acfab8877cf76001a6857dd
True
350 mm
122
What is the average annual rainfall in Angola?
5acfab8877cf76001a6857de
True
Namibia is the driest country in sub-Saharan Africa and depends largely on groundwater. With an average rainfall of about 350 mm per annum, the highest rainfall occurs in the Caprivi in the northeast (about 600 mm per annum) and decreases in a westerly and southwesterly direction to as little as 50 mm and less per annum at the coast. The only perennial rivers are found on the national borders with South Africa, Angola, Zambia, and the short border with Botswana in the Caprivi. In the interior of the country surface water is available only in the summer months when rivers are in flood after exceptional rainfalls. Otherwise, surface water is restricted to a few large storage dams retaining and damming up these seasonal floods and their runoff. Thus, where people don’t live near perennial rivers or make use of the storage dams, they are dependent on groundwater. The advantage of using groundwater sources is that even isolated communities and those economic activities located far from good surface water sources such as mining, agriculture, and tourism can be supplied from groundwater over nearly 80% of the country.
What does Namibia protect in it's constitution?
5730f902a5e9cc1400cdbb5d
natural resources
100
False
What article in the Namibia constitution supports natural conservation?
5730f902a5e9cc1400cdbb5e
Article 95
139
False
What do Namibians believe sustains them?
5730f902a5e9cc1400cdbb5f
utilisation of living natural resources
390
False
conservation and protection of natural resources
69
What is Article 94 about?
5acfac4677cf76001a6857ee
True
maintenance of ecosystems
290
What do Namibians believe destroys them?
5acfac4677cf76001a6857ef
True
Namibia
0
What is the biggest country in the world to address conservation in its constitution?
5acfac4677cf76001a6857f0
True
Namibia
0
What is the smallest country in the world to address conservation in its constitution?
5acfac4677cf76001a6857f1
True
biological diversity of Namibia
353
What is Article 93 about?
5acfac4677cf76001a6857f2
True
Namibia is one of few countries in the world to specifically address conservation and protection of natural resources in its constitution. Article 95 states, "The State shall actively promote and maintain the welfare of the people by adopting international policies aimed at the following: maintenance of ecosystems, essential ecological processes, and biological diversity of Namibia, and utilisation of living natural resources on a sustainable basis for the benefit of all Namibians, both present and future."
When did Namibia receive funding from USAID?
5730f98c05b4da19006bcca0
1993
3
False
What does USAID stands for?
5730f98c05b4da19006bcca1
United States Agency for International Development
74
False
What does LIFE project stand for?
5730f98c05b4da19006bcca2
Living in a Finite Environment
145
False
What does CBNRM stand for?
5730f98c05b4da19006bcca3
Community Based Natural Resource Management
373
False
1993
3
When did the Living in a Finite Environment Project start?
5acfad3077cf76001a685802
True
1993
3
When was the Canadian Ambassador's Fund established?
5acfad3077cf76001a685803
True
1993
3
When was the Endangered Wildlife Trust started?
5acfad3077cf76001a685804
True
1993
3
In what year was the WWF formed?
5acfad3077cf76001a685805
True
tourism
587
What is the primary focus of USAID?
5acfad3077cf76001a685806
True
In 1993, the newly formed government of Namibia received funding from the United States Agency for International Development (USAID) through its Living in a Finite Environment (LIFE) Project. The Ministry of Environment and Tourism with the financial support from organisations such as USAID, Endangered Wildlife Trust, WWF, and Canadian Ambassador's Fund, together form a Community Based Natural Resource Management (CBNRM) support structure. The main goal of this project is promote sustainable natural resource management by giving local communities rights to wildlife management and tourism.
Who does Namibia have affiliation with in their foreign policy?
5730fac8a5e9cc1400cdbb63
states that aided the independence
88
False
What ties does Namibia want to strengthen?
5730fac8a5e9cc1400cdbb64
Southern African
292
False
Which number member is Namibia in the UN?
5730fac8a5e9cc1400cdbb65
160th
462
False
When did Namibia join the UN?
5730fac8a5e9cc1400cdbb66
23 April 1990
488
False
Which number member is Namibia in the Commonwealth of Nations?
5730fac8a5e9cc1400cdbb67
fiftieth
537
False
1990
497
To what year does Namibia and Cuba relationship go back to?
5acfae8377cf76001a685838
True
Namibia
0
Which  sub-Saharan African country has a large army?
5acfae8377cf76001a685839
True
160th member
462
Where did Cuba come in regarding joining the UN?
5acfae8377cf76001a68583a
True
Cuba
143
Besides Namibia what is one other country that is a member of the Commonwealth of Nations?
5acfae8377cf76001a68583b
True
Namibia
0
What sub-Saharan country has a strong economy?
5acfae8377cf76001a68583c
True
Namibia follows a largely independent foreign policy, with persisting affiliations with states that aided the independence struggle, including Cuba. With a small army and a fragile economy, the Namibian Government's principal foreign policy concern is developing strengthened ties within the Southern African region. A dynamic member of the Southern African Development Community, Namibia is a vocal advocate for greater regional integration. Namibia became the 160th member of the UN on 23 April 1990. On its independence it became the fiftieth member of the Commonwealth of Nations.
What is Namibian's unemployment rate?
5730fc04497a881900248abb
27.4%
137
False
What was the highest unemployment rate in Namibia?
5730fc04497a881900248abc
36.7%
388
False
Who is the Labour and Social Welfare Minister?
5730fc04497a881900248abd
Immanuel Ngatjizeko
506
False
When was the lowest unemployment rate in Namibia?
5730fc04497a881900248abe
20.2%
217
False
20.2%
217
What was the "Strict unemployment" figure for Namibia in 2012?
5acfaf7977cf76001a685856
True
2000
226
In what year did Immanuel Ngatjizeko become the Labour and Social Welfare Minister?
5acfaf7977cf76001a685857
True
Immanuel Ngatjizeko
506
Who leads the Namibia Statistics Agency?
5acfaf7977cf76001a685858
True
27.4%
137
What was the unemployment rate in 2000?
5acfaf7977cf76001a685859
True
36.7%
388
What was the unemployment rate in 2012 including people who had given up looking for work?
5acfaf7977cf76001a68585a
True
According to the Namibia Labour Force Survey Report 2012, conducted by the Namibia Statistics Agency, the country's unemployment rate is 27.4%. "Strict unemployment" (people actively seeking a full-time job) stood at 20.2% in 2000, 21.9% in 2004 and spiraled to 29.4% in 2008. Under a broader definition (including people that have given up searching for employment) unemployment rose to 36.7% in 2004. This estimate considers people in the informal economy as employed. Labour and Social Welfare Minister Immanuel Ngatjizeko praised the 2008 study as "by far superior in scope and quality to any that has been available previously", but its methodology has also received criticism.
What did Bloomberg name Namibia?
5730fd7e497a881900248acd
top emerging market economy in Africa
83
False
What rank did Bloomberg name Namibia's economy?
5730fd7e497a881900248ace
13th best in the world
129
False
How many African countries made the list for top Emerging Markets?
5730fd7e497a881900248acf
four
158
False
Namibia
71
Who did Bloomberg name as 2013's best emerging market in the world?
5acfb1c577cf76001a6858f6
True
four
158
How many South American countries made the list for top emerging economies?
5acfb1c577cf76001a6858f7
True
four
158
How many Asian countries made the list for top emerging economies?
5acfb1c577cf76001a6858f8
True
improvement in reducing red tape resulted from excessive government regulatio
842
What was named as one of the reasons Zambia made the list?
5acfb1c577cf76001a6858f9
True
one of the least bureaucratic places to do business in the region
941
Why did South Africa make this list?
5acfb1c577cf76001a6858fa
True
In 2013, global business and financial news provider, Bloomberg, named Namibia the top emerging market economy in Africa and the 13th best in the world. Only four African countries made the Top 20 Emerging Markets list in the March 2013 issue of Bloomberg Markets magazine, and Namibia was rated ahead of Morocco (19th), South Africa (15th) and Zambia (14th). Worldwide, Namibia also fared better than Hungary, Brazil and Mexico. Bloomberg Markets magazine ranked the top 20 based on more than a dozen criteria. The data came from Bloomberg's own financial-market statistics, IMF forecasts and the World Bank. The countries were also rated on areas of particular interest to foreign investors: the ease of doing business, the perceived level of corruption and economic freedom. In order to attract foreign investment, the government has made improvement in reducing red tape resulted from excessive government regulations making the country one of the least bureaucratic places to do business in the region. However, facilitation payments are occasionally demanded by customs due to cumbersome and costly customs procedures. Namibia is also classified as an Upper Middle Income country by the World Bank, and ranks 87th out of 185 economies in terms of ease of doing business.
How much of the population depends on agriculture?
57310199a5e9cc1400cdbb91
half
6
False
How much more is the per capita GDP in Namibia compared to the rest of Africa's countries?
57310199a5e9cc1400cdbb92
five times
181
False
Where does a majority of Namibia's people live?
57310199a5e9cc1400cdbb93
rural
283
False
Namibia has one of the highest rates of what type of income problems in the world?
57310199a5e9cc1400cdbb94
inequality
382
False
How much of Namibia's land is arable?
57310199a5e9cc1400cdbb95
1%
657
False
1%
657
How much of Africa's poorest countries land is arable?
5acfd42477cf76001a686242
True
Africa's poorest countries
214
From where does Namibia import food?
5acfd42477cf76001a686243
True
Africa's poorest countries
214
What countries have an even higher rate of income disparity than Namibia?
5acfd42477cf76001a686244
True
agriculture
40
In Africa's poorest countries in which industry do most people work?
5acfd42477cf76001a686245
True
About half of the population depends on agriculture (largely subsistence agriculture) for its livelihood, but Namibia must still import some of its food. Although per capita GDP is five times the per capita GDP of Africa's poorest countries, the majority of Namibia's people live in rural areas and exist on a subsistence way of life. Namibia has one of the highest rates of income inequality in the world, due in part to the fact that there is an urban economy and a more rural cash-less economy. The inequality figures thus take into account people who do not actually rely on the formal economy for their survival. Although arable land accounts for only 1% of Namibia, nearly half of the population is employed in agriculture.
How much revenue does mining provide Namibia?
573107a2e6313a140071cb74
25%
10
False
Where does Namibia rank in the exportation of uranium?
573107a2e6313a140071cb75
fourth
186
False
Namibia was expected to become the largest exporter of what in 2015?
573107a2e6313a140071cb76
uranium
331
False
What does rich alluvial diamond deposits make Namibia a source of?
573107a2e6313a140071cb77
gem-quality diamonds
413
False
mining
36
What is the second most important contributor to Namibia's economy?
5acfd58e77cf76001a686264
True
Namibia
17
Who is the world's biggest exporter of uranium?
5acfd58e77cf76001a686265
True
2015
342
In what year does Namibia plan to start drilling for oil and gas offshore?
5acfd58e77cf76001a686266
True
Namibia
17
Who is the world's biggest exporter of diamonds?
5acfd58e77cf76001a686267
True
Namibia
17
What country is Africa's biggest exporter of non-fuel minerals?
5acfd58e77cf76001a686268
True
Providing 25% of Namibia's revenue, mining is the single most important contributor to the economy. Namibia is the fourth largest exporter of non-fuel minerals in Africa and the world's fourth largest producer of uranium. There has been significant investment in uranium mining and Namibia is set to become the largest exporter of uranium by 2015. Rich alluvial diamond deposits make Namibia a primary source for gem-quality diamonds. While Namibia is known predominantly for its gem diamond and uranium deposits, a number of other minerals are extracted industrially such as lead, tungsten, gold, tin, fluorspar, manganese, marble, copper and zinc. There are offshore gas deposits in the Atlantic Ocean that are planned to be extracted in the future. According to "The Diamond Investigation", a book about the global diamond market, from 1978, De Beers, the largest diamond company, bought most of the Namibian diamonds, and would continue to do so, because "whatever government eventually comes to power they will need this revenue to survive".
What accounts for almost 14% of total tourism in Namibia?
57310860a5e9cc1400cdbbaf
Sport hunting
64
False
How much economic assistance does Namibia get from tourism from hunting?
57310860a5e9cc1400cdbbb0
$19.6 million US dollars
199
False
What other types of sports are popular in Namibia?
57310860a5e9cc1400cdbbb1
extreme sports
322
False
What is the most visited city in Namibia?
57310860a5e9cc1400cdbbb2
Windhoek
521
False
What type of town is Swakopmund?
57310860a5e9cc1400cdbbb3
coastal
630
False
US
213
From what country do most tourists to Namibia come from?
5acfd67677cf76001a686280
True
US
213
In what country was the extreme sport sandboarding invented?
5acfd67677cf76001a686281
True
14%
157
How much did tourism account for the Namibian economy in 2010?
5acfd67677cf76001a686282
True
Swakopmund
647
What is the most visited city in Namibia by foreign tourists?
5acfd67677cf76001a686283
True
$19.6 million US dollars
199
How much money was tourism bringing into Namibia in 2010?
5acfd67677cf76001a686284
True
There are many lodges and reserves to accommodate eco-tourists. Sport hunting is also a large, and growing component of the Namibian economy, accounting for 14% of total tourism in the year 2000, or $19.6 million US dollars, with Namibia boasting numerous species sought after by international sport hunters. In addition, extreme sports such as sandboarding, skydiving and 4x4ing have become popular, and many cities have companies that provide tours.[citation needed] The most visited places include the capital city of Windhoek, Caprivi Strip, Fish River Canyon, Sossusvlei, the Skeleton Coast Park, Sesriem, Etosha Pan and the coastal towns of Swakopmund, Walvis Bay and Lüderitz.
What is the capital of Namibia?
5731092be6313a140071cb7c
Windhoek
20
False
What is the airport in Namibia?
5731092be6313a140071cb7d
Hosea Kutako International Airport
129
False
What is the most popular hotel in Windhoek?
5731092be6313a140071cb7e
Windhoek Country Club Resort
751
False
Avani Hotels and resorts is a chain resort in Windhoek, what is another?
5731092be6313a140071cb7f
Hilton Hotels and Resorts
879
False
56%
311
What percentage of tourists arrive in Namibia at Hosea Kutako International Airport?
5acfd71977cf76001a686292
True
2013
379
In what year was the Namibia Wildlife Resorts established?
5acfd71977cf76001a686293
True
2012
372
In what year did the Namibia Tourism Board get established?
5acfd71977cf76001a686294
True
56%
311
What percentage of the tourists to Windhoek stay at one of the international hotel chains?
5acfd71977cf76001a686295
True
2012
372
In what year was the HIlton Hotels and Resorts built in Windhoek?
5acfd71977cf76001a686296
True
The capital city of Windhoek plays a very important role in Namibia's tourism due to its central location and close proximity to Hosea Kutako International Airport. According to The Namibia Tourism Exit Survey, which was produced by the Millennium Challenge Corporation for the Namibian Directorate of Tourism, 56% of all tourists visiting Namibia during the time period, 2012 - 2013, visited Windhoek. Many of Namibia's tourism related parastatals and governing bodies such as Namibia Wildlife Resorts, Air Namibia and the Namibia Tourism Board as well as Namibia's tourism related trade associations such as the Hospitality Association of Namibia are also all headquartered in Windhoek. There are also a number of notable hotels in Windhoek such as Windhoek Country Club Resort and some international hotel chains also operate in Windhoek, such as Avani Hotels and Resorts and Hilton Hotels and Resorts.
What does NTB stand for?
57310987e6313a140071cb84
Namibia Tourism Board
54
False
What is act 21 of 2000 in Namibia?
57310987e6313a140071cb85
Namibia Tourism Board Act, 2000
128
False
What does act 21 in Namibia regulate?
57310987e6313a140071cb86
tourism industry
221
False
What market does Act 21 promote?
57310987e6313a140071cb87
tourism
460
False
Namibia Tourism Board Act
128
What was Act 20 of 2000?
5acfd7b877cf76001a68629c
True
2000
155
In what year was the Federation of Namibia Tourism Associations founded?
5acfd7b877cf76001a68629d
True
2000
155
In what year was the Hospitality Association of Namibia established?
5acfd7b877cf76001a68629e
True
2000
155
In what year was the Association of Namibian Travel Agents founded?
5acfd7b877cf76001a68629f
True
2000
155
In what year was the Tour and Safari Association of Namibia founded?
5acfd7b877cf76001a6862a0
True
Namibia's primary tourism related governing body, the Namibia Tourism Board (NTB), was established by an Act of Parliament: the Namibia Tourism Board Act, 2000 (Act 21 of 2000). Its primary objectives are to regulate the tourism industry and to market Namibia as a tourist destination. There are also a number of trade associations that represent the tourism sector in Namibia, such as the Federation of Namibia Tourism Associations (the umbrella body for all tourism associations in Namibia), the Hospitality Association of Namibia, the Association of Namibian Travel Agents, Car Rental Association of Namibia and the Tour and Safari Association of Namibia.
Most residential areas are insufficient in what area of Namibia?
57310a3305b4da19006bcd08
sanitation
61
False
Besides installation cost, why are private flush toilets too expensive for most residents in Namibia?
57310a3305b4da19006bcd09
water consumption
209
False
What do Namibian's use as a toilet?
57310a3305b4da19006bcd0a
flying toilets
484
False
Where do flying toilets end up after use?
57310a3305b4da19006bcd0b
bush
561
False
Urinating and defecating in public has been identified as what?
57310a3305b4da19006bcd0c
major health hazard
683
False
Namibia
339
In what African country is sanitation sufficient for most residential areas?
5acfd89f77cf76001a6862b8
True
Namibia
339
In what African country are private flush toilets reasonably priced?
5acfd89f77cf76001a6862b9
True
1990
429
In what year did Namibia's rural areas have 13% of the population with more than basic sanitation?
5acfd89f77cf76001a6862ba
True
Namibia
339
In what African country is water plentiful?
5acfd89f77cf76001a6862bb
True
Apart from residences for upper and middle class households, sanitation is insufficient in most residential areas. Private flush toilets are too expensive for virtually all residents in townships due to their water consumption and installation cost. As a result, access to improved sanitation has not increased much since independence: In Namibia's rural areas 13% of the population had more than basic sanitation, up from 8% in 1990. Many of Namibia's inhabitants have to resort to "flying toilets", plastic bags to defecate which after use are flung into the bush. The use of open areas close to residential land to urinate and defecate is very common and has been identified as a major health hazard.
Whites make up how much of Namibia's population?
57310aaae6313a140071cb96
4.0 and 7.0%
84
False
What is the language of Namibia?
57310aaae6313a140071cb97
Afrikaans
448
False
Where do a large minority of whites trace their Namibian roots to?
57310aaae6313a140071cb98
German settlers
644
False
What was the population in South-West Africa in 1960?
57310aaae6313a140071cb99
526,004
938
False
How much of the population was white in South-West Africa in 1960?
57310aaae6313a140071cb9a
73,464
1000
False
7.0%
92
How many people of British descent make up the population of Namibia?
5acfd96577cf76001a6862ca
True
4.0
84
What percentage of the Namibia population is German?
5acfd96577cf76001a6862cb
True
Afrikaans
448
What is the most spoken language in Namibia?
5acfd96577cf76001a6862cc
True
73,464
1000
How many white people were there in Namibia in the 2000 census?
5acfd96577cf76001a6862cd
True
526,004
938
How many people in total was there in Namibia in the 2000 census?
5acfd96577cf76001a6862ce
True
Whites (mainly of Afrikaner, German, British and Portuguese origin) make up between 4.0 and 7.0% of the population. Although their percentage of population is decreasing due to emigration and lower birth rates they still form the second-largest population of European ancestry, both in terms of percentage and actual numbers, in Sub-Saharan Africa (after South Africa). The majority of Namibian whites and nearly all those who are mixed race speak Afrikaans and share similar origins, culture, and religion as the white and coloured populations of South Africa. A large minority of whites (around 30,000) trace their family origins back to the German settlers who colonized Namibia prior to the British confiscation of German lands after World War One, and they maintain German cultural and educational institutions. Nearly all Portuguese settlers came to the country from the former Portuguese colony of Angola. The 1960 census reported 526,004 persons in what was then South-West Africa, including 73,464 whites (14%).
How often does Namibia conduct a census?
57310b67e6313a140071cba8
every ten years
26
False
When was the first Population and Housing Census in Namibia?
57310b67e6313a140071cba9
1991
121
False
What is it called when the census counts every person wherever they are the night of the census?
57310b67e6313a140071cbaa
de facto method
319
False
How many enumeration areas are there in Namibia?
57310b67e6313a140071cbab
4,042
392
False
The enumeration areas in Namibia do not overlap with what in order to get reliable data?
57310b67e6313a140071cbac
constituency boundaries
449
False
Population and Housing Census
72
How were people counted in Namibia prior to 1991?
5acfda0077cf76001a6862e6
True
4,042
392
How many enumeration areas are there in a typical nation using the de facto method?
5acfda0077cf76001a6862e7
True
4,042
392
How many census workers were there in the 1991 Population and Housing Census?
5acfda0077cf76001a6862e9
True
Namibia conducts a census every ten years. After independence the first Population and Housing Census was carried out in 1991, further rounds followed in 2001 and 2011. The data collection method is to count every person resident in Namibia on the census reference night, wherever they happen to be. This is called the de facto method. For enumeration purposes the country is demarcated into 4,042 enumeration areas. These areas do not overlap with constituency boundaries to get reliable data for election purposes as well.
German, English, and Afrikaans were the official languages until when in Namibia?
57310bf4a5e9cc1400cdbbd3
1990
6
False
SWAPO thought Namibia should have what type of official language?
57310bf4a5e9cc1400cdbbd4
monolingual
188
False
What is the primary language of Namibia, as SWAPO instituted?
57310bf4a5e9cc1400cdbbd5
English
450
False
How many Namibian's speak English?
57310bf4a5e9cc1400cdbbd6
3%
517
False
There was a high rate of what due to monolingual instruction?
57310bf4a5e9cc1400cdbbd7
school drop-outs
1031
False
German
21
What is one of the 11 official languages of South Africa?
5acfdb1c77cf76001a686300
True
3%
517
What percentage of people speak Afrikaans in Namibia?
5acfdb1c77cf76001a686301
True
3%
517
What percentage of people speak German in Namibia?
5acfdb1c77cf76001a686302
True
Namibia
79
The push for monolingual instruction has been a success in what African country?
5acfdb1c77cf76001a686303
True
3%
517
How many people in Namibia can speak English at all?
5acfdb1c77cf76001a686304
True
Up to 1990, English, German and Afrikaans were official languages. Long before Namibia's independence from South Africa, SWAPO was of the opinion that the country should become officially monolingual, choosing this approach in contrast to that of its neighbour South Africa (which granted all 11 of its major languages official status), which was seen by them as "a deliberate policy of ethnolinguistic fragmentation." Consequently, SWAPO instituted English as the sole official language of Namibia though only about 3% of the population speaks it as a home language. Its implementation is focused on the civil service, education and the broadcasting system. Some other languages have received semi-official recognition by being allowed as medium of instruction in primary schools. It is expected of private schools to follow the same policy as state schools, and "English language" is a compulsory subject. As in other postcolonial African societies, the push for monolingual instruction and policy has resulted in a high rate of school drop-outs and of individuals whose academic competence in any language is low.
What popular sport was first played in Namibia in 1995?
57310c4c497a881900248b2b
Inline hockey
0
False
Which team participated in the 2008 FIRS World Championship?
57310c4c497a881900248b2c
Women's inline hockey National Team
104
False
What is the toughest footrace around the world?
57310c4c497a881900248b2d
Namibian ultra marathon
263
False
Who is the most famous athlete from Namibia?
57310c4c497a881900248b2e
Frankie Fredericks
328
False
What sport does the most famous Namibian athlete participate in?
57310c4c497a881900248b2f
sprinter
348
False
2008
160
When was the Women's inline hockey National Team first formed?
5acfe75d77cf76001a6863dc
True
Namibia
191
Which country won the women's 2008 FIRS World Championships?
5acfe75d77cf76001a6863dd
True
1995
34
In what year was the first Namibian ultra marathon first held?
5acfe75d77cf76001a6863de
True
four
381
How many Olympic silver medals did Frankie Fredericks win at the 1992 Olympics?
5acfe75d77cf76001a6863df
True
four
381
How many medals has Frankie Fredericks won at World Athletic Championships?
5acfe75d77cf76001a6863e0
True
Inline hockey was first played in 1995 and has also become more and more popular in the last years. The Women's inline hockey National Team participated in the 2008 FIRS World Championships. Namibia is the home for one of the toughest footraces in the world, the Namibian ultra marathon. The most famous athlete from Namibia is Frankie Fredericks, sprinter (100 and 200 m). He won four Olympic silver medals (1992, 1996) and also has medals from several World Athletics Championships. He is also known for humanitarian activities in Namibia and beyond.
What was the first Namibian newspaper?
57310c82a5e9cc1400cdbbdd
Windhoeker Anzeiger
55
False
What was the language in which the first Namibian newspaper was printed in?
57310c82a5e9cc1400cdbbde
German
39
False
When was the first Namibian newspaper founded?
57310c82a5e9cc1400cdbbdf
1898
84
False
When was radio introduced in Namibia?
57310c82a5e9cc1400cdbbe0
1969
114
False
When was TV introduced in Namibia?
57310c82a5e9cc1400cdbbe1
1981
126
False
Windhoeker Anzeiger
55
What was the first English newspaper in Namibia?
5acfe81377cf76001a6863fa
True
1981
126
When did South Africa take over ruling Namibia?
5acfe81377cf76001a6863fb
True
1898
84
When did Germany take over ruling Namibia?
5acfe81377cf76001a6863fc
True
Windhoeker Anzeiger
55
What was the first newspaper in Namibia that reflected the realities of the black citizens?
5acfe81377cf76001a6863fd
True
1981
126
When was the first black-focused radio channel introduced?
5acfe81377cf76001a6863fe
True
The first newspaper in Namibia was the German-language Windhoeker Anzeiger, founded 1898. Radio was introduced in 1969, TV in 1981. During German rule, the newspapers mainly reflected the living reality and the view of the white German-speaking minority. The black majority was ignored or depicted as a threat. During South African rule, the white bias continued, with mentionable influence of the Pretoria government on the "South West African" media system. Independent newspapers were seen as a menace to the existing order, critical journalists threatened.
What is a popular tabloid magazine in Namibia?
57310cc9497a881900248b3d
Windhoek Observer
85
False
What is the economical magazine in Namibia?
57310cc9497a881900248b3e
Namibia Economist
115
False
What is the regional magazine in Namibia?
57310cc9497a881900248b3f
Namib Times
158
False
What is the most popular current affairs magazine in Namibia?
57310cc9497a881900248b40
Insight Namibia
205
False
What is the only sport newspaper in Namibia?
57310cc9497a881900248b41
Namibia Sport
371
False
TrustCo
65
Who owns the Windhoek Observer?
5acfe8c677cf76001a686418
True
TrustCo
65
Who owns the Namib Times?
5acfe8c677cf76001a686419
True
TrustCo
65
Who owns Prime FOCUS?
5acfe8c677cf76001a68641a
True
TrustCo
65
Who owns Sister Namibia Magazine?
5acfe8c677cf76001a68641b
True
weekly
108
How often is Informante published?
5acfe8c677cf76001a68641c
True
Other mentionable newspapers are the tabloid Informanté owned by TrustCo, the weekly Windhoek Observer, the weekly Namibia Economist, as well as the regional Namib Times. Current affairs magazines include Insight Namibia, Vision2030 Focus magazine[citation needed] and Prime FOCUS. Sister Namibia Magazine stands out as the longest running NGO magazine in Namibia, while Namibia Sport is the only national sport magazine. Furthermore, the print market is complemented with party publications, student newspapers and PR publications.
Compared to neighbouring countries, what freedom does Namibia have?
57310d33e6313a140071cbb2
media
66
False
Namibia is on par with what country in terms of media and reporting?
57310d33e6313a140071cbb3
Canada
255
False
Where was Namibia ranked on Press Freedom in 2009?
57310d33e6313a140071cbb4
36
549
False
Where was Namibia ranked on Press Freedom in 2013?
57310d33e6313a140071cbb5
19th
596
False
Where was Namibia ranked on Press Freedom in 2014?
57310d33e6313a140071cbb6
22nd
620
False
19th
596
What was Namibia's position on the Press Freedom Index in 2012?
5acfe98a77cf76001a68644a
True
22nd
620
What was Namibia's Press Freedom Index in 2015?
5acfe98a77cf76001a68644b
True
36
549
What was Namibia's Press Freedom Index position in 2008?
5acfe98a77cf76001a68644c
True
2009
515
In what year was the African Media Barometer founded?
5acfe98a77cf76001a68644d
True
2009
515
When was Reporters Without Borders founded?
5acfe98a77cf76001a68644e
True
Compared to neighbouring countries, Namibia has a large degree of media freedom. Over the past years, the country usually ranked in the upper quarter of the Press Freedom Index of Reporters without Borders, reaching position 21 in 2010, being on par with Canada and the best-positioned African country. The African Media Barometer shows similarly positive results.[citation needed] However, as in other countries, there is still mentionable influence of representatives of state and economy on media in Namibia. In 2009, Namibia dropped to position 36 on the Press Freedom Index. In 2013, it was 19th. In 2014 it ranked 22nd
What is the life expectancy in Namibia?
57310d92a5e9cc1400cdbbef
52.2
44
False
What epidemic is a large problem in Namibia?
57310d92a5e9cc1400cdbbf0
AIDS
100
False
How much of the Namibian population is infected with HIV?
57310d92a5e9cc1400cdbbf1
13.1%
257
False
How many people living in 2001 had HIV/AIDS in Namibia?
57310d92a5e9cc1400cdbbf2
210,000
350
False
How many deaths were associated with HIV/AIDS in Namibia in 2003?
57310d92a5e9cc1400cdbbf3
16,000.
428
False
16,000
428
How many orphans are there in Namibia?
5acfeae177cf76001a686494
True
210,000
350
How many people in Botswana have HIV/AIDS?
5acfeae177cf76001a686495
True
13.1%
257
What percentage of the people in Botswana have HIV?
5acfeae177cf76001a686496
True
"appears to be leveling off."
497
What is the HIV/AIDS epidemic numbers doing in Botswana?
5acfeae177cf76001a686497
True
52.2
44
What is the age expectancy in Botswana as of 2012?
5acfeae177cf76001a686498
True
Life expectancy at birth is estimated to be 52.2 years in 2012 – among the lowest in the world. The AIDS epidemic is a large problem in Namibia. Though its rate of infection is substantially lower than that of its eastern neighbour, Botswana, approximately 13.1% of the adult population is[update] infected with HIV. In 2001, there were an estimated 210,000 people living with HIV/AIDS, and the estimated death toll in 2003 was 16,000. According to the 2011 UNAIDS Report, the epidemic in Namibia "appears to be leveling off." As the HIV/AIDS epidemic has reduced the working-aged population, the number of orphans has increased. It falls to the government to provide education, food, shelter and clothing for these orphans.
What health issue is compounded by the AIDS epidemic in Namibia?
57310e01497a881900248b51
malaria
4
False
What is the risk of contracting malaria if an individual is already infected with HIV?
57310e01497a881900248b52
14.5% greater
135
False
The risk of death by malaria raises by how much with a concurrent HIV infection?
57310e01497a881900248b53
50%
251
False
How many physicians did Namibia have in 2002?
57310e01497a881900248b54
598
494
False
598
494
How many physicians did Namibia have as of 2012?
5acfebcd77cf76001a6864ce
True
14.5%
135
What is the risk of contracting malaria in Namibia if a person is healthy?
5acfebcd77cf76001a6864cf
True
14.5%
135
What is the risk of death if a person has HIV but not a concurrent infection?
5acfebcd77cf76001a6864d0
True
598
494
How many health professionals in total did Namibia have in 2002?
5acfebcd77cf76001a6864d1
True
The malaria problem seems to be compounded by the AIDS epidemic. Research has shown that in Namibia the risk of contracting malaria is 14.5% greater if a person is also infected with HIV. The risk of death from malaria is also raised by approximately 50% with a concurrent HIV infection. Given infection rates this large, as well as a looming malaria problem, it may be very difficult for the government to deal with both the medical and economic impacts of this epidemic. The country had only 598 physicians in 2002.
Russian_language
What language sub-family is Russian in?
5730b701069b5314008322b3
East Slavic
86
False
Where is Russian an official language?
5730b701069b5314008322b4
Russia, Belarus, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan and many minor or unrecognised territories
135
False
Where is Russian popular but not an official language?
5730b701069b5314008322b5
Ukraine, Latvia, Estonia
269
False
How many living East Slavic languages are there?
5730b701069b5314008322b6
three
516
False
When was the earliest writing in Old East Slavonic?
5730b701069b5314008322b7
10th century
627
False
East Slavic language
86
What kind of language is Ukranian?
5a8605a3b4e223001a8e73b7
True
Russia, Belarus, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan
135
In what countries is Ukrainian officially spoken?
5a8605a3b4e223001a8e73b8
True
Latvia, Estonia
278
Where is Ukrainian also widely spoken, but not officially?
5a8605a3b4e223001a8e73b9
True
the family of Indo-European languages
460
What family does Ukrainian belong to?
5a8605a3b4e223001a8e73ba
True
from the 10th century
618
When was Ukrainian first officially written?
5a8605a3b4e223001a8e73bb
True
Russian (ру́сский язы́к, russkiy yazyk, pronounced [ˈruskʲɪj jɪˈzɨk] ( listen)) is an East Slavic language and an official language in Russia, Belarus, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan and many minor or unrecognised territories. It is an unofficial but widely-spoken language in Ukraine, Latvia, Estonia, and to a lesser extent, the other countries that were once constituent republics of the Soviet Union and former participants of the Eastern Bloc. Russian belongs to the family of Indo-European languages and is one of the three living members of the East Slavic languages. Written examples of Old East Slavonic are attested from the 10th century onwards.
What kind of phonemes are soft sounds?
5730ba682461fd1900a9cfff
consonant phonemes with palatal secondary articulation
30
False
What kind of accent can mark stress?
5730ba682461fd1900a9d000
optional acute accent
418
False
What kind of words can acute accents distinguish?
5730ba682461fd1900a9d001
homographic words
531
False
What word means both lock and castle, depending on its accent?
5730ba682461fd1900a9d002
zamok
570
False
consonant phonemes with palatal secondary articulation
30
What kind of phenomes are uncommon words?
5a860b6db4e223001a8e73ed
True
between pairs of almost all consonants
166
Where are uncommon words usually found?
5a860b6db4e223001a8e73ee
True
distinguishing
228
What feature of the language is an uncommon word considered?
5a860b6db4e223001a8e73ef
True
unpredictable
350
What are uncommon words or names considered to be and not usually indicated?
5a860b6db4e223001a8e73f0
True
stress
492
What is an uncommon word used to mark?
5a860b6db4e223001a8e73f1
True
Russian distinguishes between consonant phonemes with palatal secondary articulation and those without, the so-called soft and hard sounds. This distinction is found between pairs of almost all consonants and is one of the most distinguishing features of the language. Another important aspect is the reduction of unstressed vowels. Stress, which is unpredictable, is not normally indicated orthographically though an optional acute accent (знак ударения, znak udareniya) may be used to mark stress, such as to distinguish between homographic words, for example замо́к (zamok, meaning a lock) and за́мок (zamok, meaning a castle), or to indicate the proper pronunciation of uncommon words or names.
What language does Russian descend from?
5730bb312461fd1900a9d007
the language used in Kievan Rus'
87
False
What are Russian's closest relatives?
5730bb312461fd1900a9d008
Ukrainian, Belarusian, and Rusyn
194
False
Where is Surzhyk used?
5730bb312461fd1900a9d009
eastern Ukraine
488
False
Where is Trasianka used?
5730bb312461fd1900a9d00a
Belarus
521
False
What was 'Little Russian'?
5730bb312461fd1900a9d00b
Ukrainian
1094
False
the language
87
What is Ukranian a descendant of that is used in Kievan Rus'?
5a860d34b4e223001a8e7409
True
in eastern and southern Ukraine and throughout Belarus
295
In what countries are Surzhyk and Trasianka spoken interchangeably?
5a860d34b4e223001a8e740a
True
during the 15th or 16th century
585
In what centuries is it thought that the Surzhyk language disappeared?
5a860d34b4e223001a8e740b
True
modern Russian
696
What is Ukrainian thought to have played a role in forming?
5a860d34b4e223001a8e740c
True
Ukrainian
194
What language does Trasianka have similar words with?
5a860d34b4e223001a8e740d
True
Russian is a Slavic language of the Indo-European family. It is a lineal descendant of the language used in Kievan Rus'. From the point of view of the spoken language, its closest relatives are Ukrainian, Belarusian, and Rusyn, the other three languages in the East Slavic group. In many places in eastern and southern Ukraine and throughout Belarus, these languages are spoken interchangeably, and in certain areas traditional bilingualism resulted in language mixtures, e.g. Surzhyk in eastern Ukraine and Trasianka in Belarus. An East Slavic Old Novgorod dialect, although vanished during the 15th or 16th century, is sometimes considered to have played a significant role in the formation of modern Russian. Also Russian has notable lexical similarities with Bulgarian due to a common Church Slavonic influence on both languages, as well as because of later interaction in the 19th–20th centuries, although Bulgarian grammar differs markedly from Russian. In the 19th century, the language was often called "Great Russian" to distinguish it from Belarusian, then called "White Russian" and Ukrainian, then called "Little Russian".
What language does the Russian Orthodox Church use?
5730bbbb2461fd1900a9d01b
South Slavic Old Church Slavonic
238
False
What kind of words in Russian have been influenced by Church Slavonic?
5730bbbb2461fd1900a9d01c
mainly abstract and literary words
16
False
What word forms are used together in some cases?
5730bbbb2461fd1900a9d01d
East Slavic and the Church Slavonic
470
False
Russian Orthodox Church
292
What church uses mainly the Russian language?
5a860ef0b4e223001a8e7425
True
rapid decline
431
What has the Russian Orthodox Church been experiencing in attendance recently?
5a860ef0b4e223001a8e7426
True
Church Slavonic
176
What has the vocabulary of East Slavic been influenced by?
5a860ef0b4e223001a8e7427
True
many
529
How many meanings are there in modern forms of Russian?
5a860ef0b4e223001a8e7428
True
Church Slavonic
176
What has the literary style of East Slavic been influenced by?
5a860ef0b4e223001a8e7429
True
The vocabulary (mainly abstract and literary words), principles of word formations, and, to some extent, inflections and literary style of Russian have been also influenced by Church Slavonic, a developed and partly russified form of the South Slavic Old Church Slavonic language used by the Russian Orthodox Church. However, the East Slavic forms have tended to be used exclusively in the various dialects that are experiencing a rapid decline. In some cases, both the East Slavic and the Church Slavonic forms are in use, with many different meanings. For details, see Russian phonology and History of the Russian language.
When did Russian language spread to the peasants?
5730bc42396df919000962fc
the 20th century
6
False
Who spoke Russian before the 20th century?
5730bc42396df919000962fd
the upper noble classes and urban population
76
False
When did the Soviets establish required education?
5730bc42396df919000962fe
the mid-20th century
208
False
What nonstandard feature does Southern Russian use?
5730bc42396df919000962ff
fricative
456
False
By the mid-20th century
205
When did the Soviet government begin only speaking fricative?
5a862691b4e223001a8e747f
True
compulsory
289
What kind of education system was used to teach the history of the noble classes to peasants?
5a862691b4e223001a8e7480
True
the Soviet government
341
Who was responsible for formalizing colloquial speech?
5a862691b4e223001a8e7481
True
fricative
456
What nonstandard feature do the noble classes have?
5a862691b4e223001a8e7482
True
upper noble classes and urban population
80
In the mid 20th century what  group was the only one that used colloquial speech?
5a862691b4e223001a8e7483
True
Until the 20th century, the language's spoken form was the language of only the upper noble classes and urban population, as Russian peasants from the countryside continued to speak in their own dialects. By the mid-20th century, such dialects were forced out with the introduction of the compulsory education system that was established by the Soviet government. Despite the formalization of Standard Russian, some nonstandard dialectal features (such as fricative [ɣ] in Southern Russian dialects) are still observed in colloquial speech.
How much of Estonia is ethnic Russians?
5730bce92461fd1900a9d029
25.5%
27
False
How much of Estonia speaks Russian?
5730bce92461fd1900a9d02a
67.8%
152
False
What is the ratio of young Estonians who speak Russian relative to those who speak English?
5730bce92461fd1900a9d02b
about one-third
514
False
How much of Estonia's native Estonians speaks Russian?
5730bce92461fd1900a9d02c
58.6%
73
False
25.5%
27
What percentage of ethnic Russians speak English?
5a8628b7b4e223001a8e7489
True
58.6%
73
How much of the native Estonian population speaks English?
5a8628b7b4e223001a8e748a
True
Command of Russian language
201
What is decreasing among ethnic Russians?
5a8628b7b4e223001a8e748b
True
53%
355
What percentage of Russians are between 15 and 19?
5a8628b7b4e223001a8e748c
True
19%
500
What has the percentage of 10-14 year olds in Russia fallen to?
5a8628b7b4e223001a8e748d
True
Ethnic Russians constitute 25.5% of the country's current population and 58.6% of the native Estonian population is also able to speak Russian. In all, 67.8% of Estonia's population can speak Russian. Command of Russian language, however, is rapidly decreasing among younger Estonians (primarily being replaced by the command of English). For example, if 53% of ethnic Estonians between 15 and 19 claim to speak some Russian, then among the 10- to 14-year-old group, command of Russian has fallen to 19% (which is about one-third the percentage of those who claim to have command of English in the same age group).
When did Finland join the Russian Empire?
5730bdb32461fd1900a9d031
1809
66
False
When did Finland leave the Russian Empire?
5730bdb32461fd1900a9d032
1918
74
False
What percent of Finns speak Russian?
5730bdb32461fd1900a9d033
0.6%
189
False
How many Finns speak Russian?
5730bdb32461fd1900a9d034
33,400
145
False
How many Russian-speaking Finns are descended from early immigrants?
5730bdb32461fd1900a9d035
Five thousand
213
False
1809 to 1918
66
When did immigrants form the Russian Empire?
5a862a58b4e223001a8e7493
True
Five thousand
213
How many immigrants came to Russia from 1809 to 1918?
5a862a58b4e223001a8e7494
True
33,400
145
What was the population of Russia in 1908?
5a862a58b4e223001a8e7495
True
the World Factbook
509
What book was written in 1918 by a prominent Russian author?
5a862a58b4e223001a8e7496
True
2014
490
In what year was the World Factbook republished?
5a862a58b4e223001a8e7497
True
As the Grand Duchy of Finland was part of the Russian Empire from 1809 to 1918, a number of Russian speakers have remained in Finland. There are 33,400 Russian-speaking Finns, amounting to 0.6% of the population. Five thousand (0.1%) of them are late 19th century and 20th century immigrants or their descendants, and the remaining majority are recent immigrants who moved there in the 1990s and later.[citation needed] Russian is spoken by 1.4% of the population of Finland according to a 2014 estimate from the World Factbook.
How many Ukrainians speak Russian natively as of 2004?
5730bfba069b5314008322f1
14,400,000
202
False
How many Ukrainians speak Russian actively as of 2004?
5730bfba069b5314008322f2
29 million
260
False
What percent of Ukraine is fluent in Russian as of 2006?
5730bfba069b5314008322f3
65%
288
False
What percent of Ukraine use Russian as their main language as of 2006?
5730bfba069b5314008322f4
38%
345
False
What is Russian's legal status in Ukraine?
5730bfba069b5314008322f5
minority language, under the 1996 Constitution of Ukraine
79
False
a language of inter-ethnic communication, and a minority language
31
How does the World Factbook describe Russian as?
5a862d11b4e223001a8e749d
True
20%
510
How many people worldwide read the World Factbook in 2001?
5a862d11b4e223001a8e749e
True
20%
510
How many school students used the World Factbook in school in Ukraine in 2006?
5a862d11b4e223001a8e749f
True
14,400,000
202
What was the population of Russia in 2001?
5a862d11b4e223001a8e74a0
True
29 million
260
How many readers does Demoskop Weekly have in Ukraine?
5a862d11b4e223001a8e74a1
True
In Ukraine, Russian is seen as a language of inter-ethnic communication, and a minority language, under the 1996 Constitution of Ukraine. According to estimates from Demoskop Weekly, in 2004 there were 14,400,000 native speakers of Russian in the country, and 29 million active speakers. 65% of the population was fluent in Russian in 2006, and 38% used it as the main language with family, friends or at work. Russian is spoken by 29.6% of the population according to a 2001 estimate from the World Factbook. 20% of school students receive their education primarily in Russian.
What pact contained many Russian-speaking countries?
5730c16d069b53140083230b
Warsaw Pact
93
False
Where was Russian schooling mandatory in the 20th century?
5730c16d069b53140083230c
Poland, Bulgaria, the Czech Republic, Slovakia, Hungary, Albania, former East Germany and Cuba
207
False
Which countries speak other Slavic languages?
5730c16d069b53140083230d
Poland, Czech Republic, Slovakia, and Bulgaria
657
False
Warsaw Pact
93
What pact was formed by Cuba?
5a862e45b4e223001a8e74a7
True
Poland, Bulgaria, the Czech Republic
207
What three countries are former satellites of East Germany?
5a862e45b4e223001a8e74a8
True
in the school system
401
Where is Polish no longer mandatory?
5a862e45b4e223001a8e74a9
True
fairly high (20–40%)
502
What is the fluency in Polish in some countries according to the Eurobarometer?
5a862e45b4e223001a8e74aa
True
In the 20th century, Russian was mandatorily taught in the schools of the members of the old Warsaw Pact and in other countries that used to be satellites of the USSR. In particular, these countries include Poland, Bulgaria, the Czech Republic, Slovakia, Hungary, Albania, former East Germany and Cuba. However, younger generations are usually not fluent in it, because Russian is no longer mandatory in the school system. According to the Eurobarometer 2005 survey, though, fluency in Russian remains fairly high (20–40%) in some countries, in particular those where the people speak a Slavic language and thereby have an edge in learning Russian (namely, Poland, Czech Republic, Slovakia, and Bulgaria).
In which European countries do many Russian immigrants live?
5730c2302461fd1900a9d045
The United Kingdom, Spain, Portugal, France, Italy, Belgium, Greece, Brazil, Norway, and Austria
196
False
How many people in Ireland speak Russian?
5730c2302461fd1900a9d046
21,639
392
False
How much of Ireland's Russian speakers are Russian citizens?
5730c2302461fd1900a9d047
13%
478
False
How much of Ireland's Russian speakers are Irish citizens?
5730c2302461fd1900a9d048
20%
506
False
How much of Ireland's Russian speakers are Latvian citizens?
5730c2302461fd1900a9d049
27%
540
False
The United Kingdom, Spain, Portugal, France, Italy, Belgium, Greece, Brazil, Norway, and Austria
196
In which countries do Spanish immigrants live?
5a862f27b4e223001a8e74af
True
2011
357
When was the census of Norway taken?
5a862f27b4e223001a8e74b0
True
21,639
392
How many people in Norway speak Russian at home?
5a862f27b4e223001a8e74b1
True
13%
478
How many Russian nationals are there in Norway?
5a862f27b4e223001a8e74b2
True
27% and 14%
540
How many people living in Norway have passports from Latvia and Lithuania?
5a862f27b4e223001a8e74b3
True
Significant Russian-speaking groups also exist in Western Europe. These have been fed by several waves of immigrants since the beginning of the 20th century, each with its own flavor of language. The United Kingdom, Spain, Portugal, France, Italy, Belgium, Greece, Brazil, Norway, and Austria have significant Russian-speaking communities. According to the 2011 Census of Ireland, there were 21,639 people in the nation who use Russian as a home language. However, of this only 13% were Russian nationals. 20% held Irish citizenship, while 27% and 14% were holding the passports of Latvia and Lithuania respectively.
What convention recognizes Russian in Armenia?
5730df7eaca1c71400fe5b1f
Framework Convention for the Protection of National Minorities
96
False
How many Armenians speak Russian natively?
5730df7eaca1c71400fe5b20
15,000
224
False
How many Armenians speak Russian actively?
5730df7eaca1c71400fe5b21
1 million
278
False
What percent of Armenia speaks Russian?
5730df7eaca1c71400fe5b22
30%
305
False
What percent of Armenia uses Russian as their main language?
5730df7eaca1c71400fe5b23
2%
362
False
15,000
224
How many people read Demoskop Weekly in 2004?
5a863032b4e223001a8e74b9
True
30%
305
How much of the population used the World Factbook in school?
5a863032b4e223001a8e74ba
True
2009
486
In what year was the World Factbook first released in Armenia?
5a863032b4e223001a8e74bb
True
1 million
278
What was the population of Armenia in 2009?
5a863032b4e223001a8e74bc
True
2%
362
What percentage of the Armenian population writes articles for the World Factbook?
5a863032b4e223001a8e74bd
True
In Armenia Russian has no official status, but it's recognised as a minority language under the Framework Convention for the Protection of National Minorities. According to estimates from Demoskop Weekly, in 2004 there were 15,000 native speakers of Russian in the country, and 1 million active speakers. 30% of the population was fluent in Russian in 2006, and 2% used it as the main language with family, friends or at work. Russian is spoken by 1.4% of the population according to a 2009 estimate from the World Factbook.
What convention recognizes Russian in Georgia?
5730dfd1aca1c71400fe5b29
Framework Convention for the Protection of National Minorities
96
False
How many Georgians speak Russian natively?
5730dfd1aca1c71400fe5b2a
130,000
224
False
How many Georgians speak Russian actively?
5730dfd1aca1c71400fe5b2b
1.7 million
279
False
What percent of Georgia is fluent in Russian?
5730dfd1aca1c71400fe5b2c
27%
308
False
What percent of Georgia use Russian as their main language?
5730dfd1aca1c71400fe5b2d
1%
365
False
the country's de facto working language
538
What does Demoskop Weekly cite Russian as being in Ethnologue?
5a863120b4e223001a8e74c3
True
1.7 million
279
What was the population of Georgia in 2006?
5a863120b4e223001a8e74c4
True
27%
308
How much of the population of Georgia had read the World Factbook by 2006?
5a863120b4e223001a8e74c5
True
1%
365
What percentage of the population of Georgia works at home?
5a863120b4e223001a8e74c6
True
no official status
23
What status does Ethnologue have in Georgia's government?
5a863120b4e223001a8e74c7
True
In Georgia Russian has no official status, but it's recognised as a minority language under the Framework Convention for the Protection of National Minorities. According to estimates from Demoskop Weekly, in 2004 there were 130,000 native speakers of Russian in the country, and 1.7 million active speakers. 27% of the population was fluent in Russian in 2006, and 1% used it as the main language with family, friends or at work. Russian is the language of 9% of the population according to the World Factook. Ethnologue cites Russian as the country's de facto working language.
What is the legal status of Russian in Kazakhstan?
5730e504f6cb411900e2451e
according to article 7 of the Constitution of Kazakhstan its usage enjoys equal status to that of the Kazakh language in state and local administration
51
False
How many people in Kazakhstan speak Russian natively?
5730e504f6cb411900e2451f
4,200,000
268
False
How many people in Kazakhstan speak Russian actively?
5730e504f6cb411900e24520
10 million
325
False
What percent of people in Kazakhstan speak Russian fluently?
5730e504f6cb411900e24521
63%
353
False
What percent of people in Kazakhstan use Russian as their main language?
5730e504f6cb411900e24522
46%
410
False
equal status
125
According to article 7 of the Constitution of Kazakhstan, what do public employees have the same as the administration?
5a8632c8b4e223001a8e74cd
True
4,200,000
268
What was the population of Kazakhstan in 2004?
5a8632c8b4e223001a8e74ce
True
46%
410
What percentage of the population of Kazakhstan was employed in 2006?
5a8632c8b4e223001a8e74cf
True
25.6%
671
How many people in Kazakhstan were able to read the World Factbook in 2004?
5a8632c8b4e223001a8e74d0
True
84.8%
757
How much of the population aged 15 and above used the World Factbook in school in 2009?
5a8632c8b4e223001a8e74d1
True
In Kazakhstan Russian is not a state language, but according to article 7 of the Constitution of Kazakhstan its usage enjoys equal status to that of the Kazakh language in state and local administration. According to estimates from Demoskop Weekly, in 2004 there were 4,200,000 native speakers of Russian in the country, and 10 million active speakers. 63% of the population was fluent in Russian in 2006, and 46% used it as the main language with family, friends or at work. According to a 2001 estimate from the World Factbook, 95% of the population can speak Russian. Large Russian-speaking communities still exist in northern Kazakhstan, and ethnic Russians comprise 25.6% of Kazakhstan's population. The 2009 census reported that 10,309,500 people, or 84.8% of the population aged 15 and above, could read and write well in Russian, as well as understand the spoken language.
Where did Russian explorers first reach North America?
5730e7c0b54a4f140068ccd0
Alaska
87
False
When did Russian explorers first reach North America?
5730e7c0b54a4f140068ccd1
1700s
131
False
When did the US buy Alaska?
5730e7c0b54a4f140068ccd2
1867
210
False
What portion of Russian-speaking Americans are ethnic Russians?
5730e7c0b54a4f140068ccd3
about 25%
824
False
What is the term for Russian-speaking people?
5730e7c0b54a4f140068ccd4
Russophones
945
False
Alaska
87
What did New York buy in the 1700's?
5a86347ab4e223001a8e74d7
True
1700s
131
When did explorers from North America first reach Russia?
5a86347ab4e223001a8e74d8
True
Russophones
945
What is the term for Jews living in Russia?
5a86347ab4e223001a8e74d9
True
over 850,000
1336
How many Jews lived in Russia in the 1700's?
5a86347ab4e223001a8e74da
True
1960s
811
In what year did Central Asians immigrate to Russia?
5a86347ab4e223001a8e74db
True
The language was first introduced in North America when Russian explorers voyaged into Alaska and claimed it for Russia during the 1700s. Although most colonists left after the United States bought the land in 1867, a handful stayed and preserved the Russian language in this region to this day, although only a few elderly speakers of this unique dialect are left. Sizable Russian-speaking communities also exist in North America, especially in large urban centers of the U.S. and Canada, such as New York City, Philadelphia, Boston, Los Angeles, Nashville, San Francisco, Seattle, Spokane, Toronto, Baltimore, Miami, Chicago, Denver and Cleveland. In a number of locations they issue their own newspapers, and live in ethnic enclaves (especially the generation of immigrants who started arriving in the early 1960s). Only about 25% of them are ethnic Russians, however. Before the dissolution of the Soviet Union, the overwhelming majority of Russophones in Brighton Beach, Brooklyn in New York City were Russian-speaking Jews. Afterward, the influx from the countries of the former Soviet Union changed the statistics somewhat, with ethnic Russians and Ukrainians immigrating along with some more Russian Jews and Central Asians. According to the United States Census, in 2007 Russian was the primary language spoken in the homes of over 850,000 individuals living in the United States.
For which mission did NASA astronauts first learn Russian?
5730e962f6cb411900e24546
Apollo-Soyuz
1172
False
When did Apollo-Soyuz fly?
5730e962f6cb411900e24547
1975
1214
False
What are Russian astronauts called?
5730e962f6cb411900e24548
cosmonauts
1091
False
What math competition has Russian as an official language?
5730e962f6cb411900e24549
International Mathematical Olympiad
910
False
1975
1214
When was the International Space Station launched into space?
5a863812b4e223001a8e74e1
True
1975
1214
In what year was the IMF created?
5a863812b4e223001a8e74e2
True
International Space Station
1017
What did the UN take part in launching in 1975?
5a863812b4e223001a8e74e3
True
World Health Organization
173
What organization supports NASA astronauts?
5a863812b4e223001a8e74e4
True
International Fund for Agricultural Development
402
What organization first began taking donations in 1975?
5a863812b4e223001a8e74e5
True
Russian is one of the official languages (or has similar status and interpretation must be provided into Russian) of the United Nations, International Atomic Energy Agency, World Health Organization, International Civil Aviation Organization, UNESCO, World Intellectual Property Organization, International Telecommunication Union, World Meteorological Organization, Food and Agriculture Organization, International Fund for Agricultural Development, International Criminal Court, International Monetary Fund, International Olympic Committee, Universal Postal Union, World Bank, Commonwealth of Independent States, Organization for Security and Co-operation in Europe, Shanghai Cooperation Organisation, Eurasian Economic Community, Collective Security Treaty Organization, Antarctic Treaty Secretariat, International Organization for Standardization, GUAM Organization for Democracy and Economic Development, International Mathematical Olympiad. The Russian language is also one of two official languages aboard the International Space Station - NASA astronauts who serve alongside Russian cosmonauts usually take Russian language courses. This practice goes back to the Apollo-Soyuz mission, which first flew in 1975.
What is the second-most-popular language online as of 2013?
5730e9bfaca1c71400fe5b69
Russian
36
False
What percent of all websites are in English?
5730e9bfaca1c71400fe5b6a
54.7%
218
False
What percent of all websites are in Russian?
5730e9bfaca1c71400fe5b6b
5.9%
147
False
What percent of all .ru websites are in Russian?
5730e9bfaca1c71400fe5b6c
89.8%
254
False
What percent of Ukraine's websites are in Russian?
5730e9bfaca1c71400fe5b6d
79.0%
419
False
the second-most used language
51
What is Japanese on the internet after English?
5a8639c1b4e223001a8e74eb
True
88.7%
286
What percentage of sites with the .su domain use English?
5a8639c1b4e223001a8e74ec
True
79.0%
419
How many websites in Ukraine use English?
5a8639c1b4e223001a8e74ed
True
81.8%
521
What percentage of websites in Tajikistan use English?
5a8639c1b4e223001a8e74ee
True
5.9%
147
In March 2013 how many people used Japanese on all websites?
5a8639c1b4e223001a8e74ef
True
In March 2013 it was announced that Russian is now the second-most used language on the Internet after English. People use the Russian language on 5.9% of all websites, slightly ahead of German and far behind English (54.7%). Russian is used not only on 89.8% of .ru sites, but also on 88.7% of sites with the former Soviet Union domain .su. The websites of former Soviet Union nations also use high levels of Russian: 79.0% in Ukraine, 86.9% in Belarus, 84.0% in Kazakhstan, 79.6% in Uzbekistan, 75.9% in Kyrgyzstan and 81.8% in Tajikistan. However, Russian is the sixth-most used language on the top 1,000 sites, behind English, Chinese, French, German and Japanese.
What two regions do some linguists divide Russian into?
5730edfaa5e9cc1400cdbb01
"Northern" and "Southern"
207
False
What three regions do some linguists divide Russian into?
5730edfaa5e9cc1400cdbb02
Northern, Central (or Middle) and Southern
344
False
What distinguishes Russian dialects?
5730edfaa5e9cc1400cdbb03
non-standard features of pronunciation and intonation, vocabulary and grammar
802
False
"Northern" and "Southern"
207
What two groupings are linguists divided into?
5a863c46b4e223001a8e74f5
True
zone of transition
259
What does Muscovy lie on between the two divisions?
5a863c46b4e223001a8e74f6
True
dozens
731
How many ancient relics were found in Moscow after 1900?
5a863c46b4e223001a8e74f7
True
two main chronological categories
458
How many categories of ancient relics are there?
5a863c46b4e223001a8e74f8
True
discarded
938
Why were ancient relics lying in the central region of Russia?
5a863c46b4e223001a8e74f9
True
Despite leveling after 1900, especially in matters of vocabulary and phonetics, a number of dialects still exist in Russia. Some linguists divide the dialects of Russian into two primary regional groupings, "Northern" and "Southern", with Moscow lying on the zone of transition between the two. Others divide the language into three groupings, Northern, Central (or Middle) and Southern, with Moscow lying in the Central region. All dialects also divided in two main chronological categories: the dialects of primary formation (the territory of the Eastern Rus' or Muscovy, roughly consists of the modern Central and Northwestern Federal districts); and secondary formation (other territory). Dialectology within Russia recognizes dozens of smaller-scale variants. The dialects often show distinct and non-standard features of pronunciation and intonation, vocabulary and grammar. Some of these are relics of ancient usage now completely discarded by the standard language.
What is okanye?
5730ee8905b4da19006bcc58
pronounce unstressed /o/ clearly
79
False
What articles are similar to Bulgarian?
5730ee8905b4da19006bcc59
post-posed definite article -to, -ta, -te
412
False
What do some Russian dialects do about vowels?
5730ee8905b4da19006bcc5a
absence of vowel reduction
163
False
What region of dialects is the Volga River area in?
5730ee8905b4da19006bcc5b
Northern Russian
4
False
Volga River
57
Along what river is Macedonian spoken?
5a863e3ab4e223001a8e74ff
True
clearly
104
How does Macedonian pronounce unstressed o?
5a863e3ab4e223001a8e7500
True
absence of vowel reduction
163
What do some Macedonian dialects do with vowels?
5a863e3ab4e223001a8e7501
True
high or diphthongal /e~i̯ɛ/
210
In okanye what does Macedonian have in place of -to, -ta, -te?
5a863e3ab4e223001a8e7502
True
Northern Russian
4
What dialects are spoken in Macedonia?
5a863e3ab4e223001a8e7503
True
The Northern Russian dialects and those spoken along the Volga River typically pronounce unstressed /o/ clearly (the phenomenon called okanye/оканье). Besides the absence of vowel reduction, some dialects have high or diphthongal /e~i̯ɛ/ in the place of Proto-Slavic *ě and /o~u̯ɔ/ in stressed closed syllables (as in Ukrainian) instead of Standard Russian /e/ and /o/. An interesting morphological feature is a post-posed definite article -to, -ta, -te similarly to that existing in Bulgarian and Macedonian.
What is pronounced [a] in Southern Russian?
5730eef6a5e9cc1400cdbb07
unstressed /e/ and /a/ following palatalized consonants and preceding a stressed syllable
47
False
What is pronounced [ɪ] in Moscow's dialect?
5730eef6a5e9cc1400cdbb08
unstressed /e/ and /a/ following palatalized consonants and preceding a stressed syllable
47
False
What does Southern Russian have a linguistic continuum with?
5730eef6a5e9cc1400cdbb09
modern Belarusian and some dialects of Ukrainian (Eastern Polesian)
823
False
unstressed /e/ and /a/ following palatalized consonants and preceding a stressed syllable are not reduced to [ɪ]
47
What is called yakanye in Standard and Northern dialects?
5a864143b4e223001a8e7509
True
modern Belarusian and some dialects of Ukrainian (Eastern Polesian)
823
What do Standard dialects have a linguistic continuum with?
5a864143b4e223001a8e750a
True
final /tʲ/ in 3rd person forms of verbs
547
In a semivowel what is unpalatalized?
5a864143b4e223001a8e750b
True
/ɡ/, /v/, and final /l/ and /f/
462
What consonants are included in Belarusian?
5a864143b4e223001a8e750c
True
a fricative /ɣ/, a semivowel /w~u̯/ and /x~xv~xw/
348
What do consonants include in Ukranian?
5a864143b4e223001a8e750d
True
In the Southern Russian dialects, instances of unstressed /e/ and /a/ following palatalized consonants and preceding a stressed syllable are not reduced to [ɪ] (as occurs in the Moscow dialect), being instead pronounced [a] in such positions (e.g. несли is pronounced [nʲaˈslʲi], not [nʲɪsˈlʲi]) – this is called yakanye/яканье. Consonants include a fricative /ɣ/, a semivowel /w~u̯/ and /x~xv~xw/, whereas the Standard and Northern dialects have the consonants /ɡ/, /v/, and final /l/ and /f/, respectively. The morphology features a palatalized final /tʲ/ in 3rd person forms of verbs (this is unpalatalized in the Standard and Northern dialects). Some of these features such as akanye/yakanye, a debuccalized or lenited /ɡ/, a semivowel /w~u̯/ and palatalized final /tʲ/ in 3rd person forms of verbs are also present in modern Belarusian and some dialects of Ukrainian (Eastern Polesian), indicating a linguistic continuum.
Who made the first dialectal Russian dictionary?
5730f09fa5e9cc1400cdbb13
Vladimir Dal
90
False
In what century was the first dialectal Russian dictionary published?
5730f09fa5e9cc1400cdbb14
19th
84
False
When did Lomonosov study Russian dialects?
5730f09fa5e9cc1400cdbb15
18th century
63
False
When were detailed maps of Russian dialects created?
5730f09fa5e9cc1400cdbb16
turn of the 20th century
219
False
How long did it take to compile the Dialectological Atlas of the Russian Language?
5730f09fa5e9cc1400cdbb17
four decades
472
False
the first dictionary
112
What was created by Lomonosov at the turn of the 20th century?
5a8642c0b4e223001a8e7513
True
three
435
How many volumes of the first dictionary were published in the 18th century?
5a8642c0b4e223001a8e7514
True
four decades
472
How long did it take for the first dictionary to be published?
5a8642c0b4e223001a8e7515
True
dialectal
147
What kind of vocabulary did Lomonosov create in the 19th century?
5a8642c0b4e223001a8e7516
True
at the turn of the 20th century
212
When did Lomonosov map Russian dialects?
5a8642c0b4e223001a8e7517
True
Among the first to study Russian dialects was Lomonosov in the 18th century. In the 19th, Vladimir Dal compiled the first dictionary that included dialectal vocabulary. Detailed mapping of Russian dialects began at the turn of the 20th century. In modern times, the monumental Dialectological Atlas of the Russian Language (Диалектологический атлас русского языка [dʲɪɐˌlʲɛktəlɐˈɡʲitɕɪskʲɪj ˈatləs ˈruskəvə jɪzɨˈka]), was published in three folio volumes 1986–1989, after four decades of preparatory work.
What did the old letter ⟨ѣ⟩ become?
5730f1c3e6313a140071cad6
⟨е⟩
67
False
What did the old letters ⟨і⟩ and ⟨ѵ⟩ become?
5730f1c3e6313a140071cad7
⟨и⟩
121
False
What did the old letter ⟨ѳ⟩ become?
5730f1c3e6313a140071cad8
⟨ф⟩
153
False
What did the old letter ⟨ѫ⟩ become?
5730f1c3e6313a140071cad9
⟨у⟩
185
False
What did the old letter ⟨ѭ⟩ become?
5730f1c3e6313a140071cada
⟨ю⟩
217
False
ultra-short or reduced /ŭ/, /ĭ/
518
What  did the ja or a originally indicate the pronunciation of?
5a864535b4e223001a8e751d
True
е⟩ (/je/ or /ʲe/)
68
What did the r become?
5a864535b4e223001a8e751e
True
/ja/ or /ʲa/
324
What did the h become phonetically?
5a864535b4e223001a8e751f
True
/ŭ/, /ĭ/
541
The ja or a indicated the pronunciation of a reduced what?
5a864535b4e223001a8e7520
True
⟨у⟩ (/u/)
185
What was ja merged into?
5a864535b4e223001a8e7521
True
Older letters of the Russian alphabet include ⟨ѣ⟩, which merged to ⟨е⟩ (/je/ or /ʲe/); ⟨і⟩ and ⟨ѵ⟩, which both merged to ⟨и⟩ (/i/); ⟨ѳ⟩, which merged to ⟨ф⟩ (/f/); ⟨ѫ⟩, which merged to ⟨у⟩ (/u/); ⟨ѭ⟩, which merged to ⟨ю⟩ (/ju/ or /ʲu/); and ⟨ѧ/⟨ѩ⟩⟩, which later were graphically reshaped into ⟨я⟩ and merged phonetically to /ja/ or /ʲa/. While these older letters have been abandoned at one time or another, they may be used in this and related articles. The yers ⟨ъ⟩ and ⟨ь⟩ originally indicated the pronunciation of ultra-short or reduced /ŭ/, /ĭ/.
What is 'moroz' a transliteration of?
5730f210a5e9cc1400cdbb1d
мороз
192
False
What is 'mysh' a transliteration of?
5730f210a5e9cc1400cdbb1e
мышь
237
False
What font technology has reduced the need for transliteration?
5730f210a5e9cc1400cdbb1f
Unicode character encoding,
437
False
What does 'moroz' mean?
5730f210a5e9cc1400cdbb20
frost
200
False
What does 'mysh' mean?
5730f210a5e9cc1400cdbb21
mouse
244
False
technical
16
What kind of restrictions are there on Russian speaking typists?
5a864798b4e223001a8e7527
True
Unicode character encoding
437
What coding was created in Russia?
5a864798b4e223001a8e7528
True
Latin
163
What alphabet is used to transliterate English?
5a864798b4e223001a8e7529
True
Latin
163
What language was the QWERTY keyboard first programmed to be used in?
5a864798b4e223001a8e752a
True
the extension of Unicode character encoding
420
What extension fully incorporates the Latin alphabet?
5a864798b4e223001a8e752b
True
Because of many technical restrictions in computing and also because of the unavailability of Cyrillic keyboards abroad, Russian is often transliterated using the Latin alphabet. For example, мороз ('frost') is transliterated moroz, and мышь ('mouse'), mysh or myš'. Once commonly used by the majority of those living outside Russia, transliteration is being used less frequently by Russian-speaking typists in favor of the extension of Unicode character encoding, which fully incorporates the Russian alphabet. Free programs leveraging this Unicode extension are available which allow users to type Russian characters, even on Western 'QWERTY' keyboards.
Who created KOI8-R encoding?
5730f2a1497a881900248a85
the Soviet government
84
False
What system used CP1251 encoding?
5730f2a1497a881900248a86
Microsoft Windows
330
False
What systems used IBM866 encoding?
5730f2a1497a881900248a87
MS-DOS and OS/2
261
False
What encoding did early Macs use?
5730f2a1497a881900248a88
ISO/IEC 8859-5
310
False
In what years was CP1251 encoding used in most Russian online usage?
5730f2a1497a881900248a89
1995–2005
561
False
1995–2005
561
When was KO18-R designed by Microsoft?
5a864973b4e223001a8e7531
True
1995–2005
561
During what period was MS-DOS created?
5a864973b4e223001a8e7532
True
chaos
365
What adverse event did the creation of K018-R create?
5a864973b4e223001a8e7533
True
by establishing different encodings as de facto standards
381
How did the chaos created by the K018-R end?
5a864973b4e223001a8e7534
True
Russian Internet and e-mail communication
490
What did K018-R become a defacto standard in?
5a864973b4e223001a8e7535
True
The Russian alphabet has many systems of character encoding. KOI8-R was designed by the Soviet government and was intended to serve as the standard encoding. This encoding was and still is widely used in UNIX-like operating systems. Nevertheless, the spread of MS-DOS and OS/2 (IBM866), traditional Macintosh (ISO/IEC 8859-5) and Microsoft Windows (CP1251) created chaos and ended by establishing different encodings as de facto standards, with Windows-1251 becoming a de facto standard in Russian Internet and e-mail communication during the period of roughly 1995–2005.
What organization is the Institute of Russian Language part of?
5730f30ce6313a140071cae0
Russian Academy of Sciences
54
False
What can optional acute accents indicate?
5730f30ce6313a140071cae1
stress
167
False
What is distinguished from 'lock' only by an accent, in Russian?
5730f30ce6313a140071cae2
castle
319
False
What is distinguished from 'this is odd' only by an accent, in Russian?
5730f30ce6313a140071cae3
this is marvelous
396
False
What is distinguished from 'wothwhile' only by an accent, in Russian?
5730f30ce6313a140071cae4
standing
358
False
Institute of Russian Language
17
What organization writes books for Russian learners?
5a864adbb4e223001a8e753b
True
lexical dictionaries
922
What should be used to teach Russian learners according to the Russian Academy of Sciences?
5a864adbb4e223001a8e753c
True
stress
167
What do children feel when they are learning Russian?
5a864adbb4e223001a8e753d
True
in lexical dictionaries and books
919
Where is context mandatory for children and Russian learners?
5a864adbb4e223001a8e753e
True
lexical dictionaries
922
Where can a Russian learner usually find uncommon words?
5a864adbb4e223001a8e753f
True
According to the Institute of Russian Language of the Russian Academy of Sciences, an optional acute accent (знак ударения) may, and sometimes should, be used to mark stress. For example, it is used to distinguish between otherwise identical words, especially when context does not make it obvious: замо́к/за́мок (lock/castle), сто́ящий/стоя́щий (worthwhile/standing), чудно́/чу́дно (this is odd/this is marvelous), молоде́ц/мо́лодец (attaboy/fine young man), узна́ю/узнаю́ (I shall learn it/I recognize it), отреза́ть/отре́зать (to be cutting/to have cut); to indicate the proper pronunciation of uncommon words, especially personal and family names (афе́ра, гу́ру, Гарси́я, Оле́ша, Фе́рми), and to show which is the stressed word in a sentence (Ты́ съел печенье?/Ты съе́л печенье?/Ты съел пече́нье? – Was it you who ate the cookie?/Did you eat the cookie?/Was it the cookie that you ate?). Stress marks are mandatory in lexical dictionaries and books for children or Russian learners.
Who says Russian has 6 vowels?
5730f38405b4da19006bcc74
St. Petersburg Phonological School
54
False
When are Russian vowels written differently?
5730f38405b4da19006bcc75
depending on whether or not the preceding consonant is palatalized
132
False
What dialect is standard Russian based on?
5730f38405b4da19006bcc76
Moscow dialect
432
False
What language does Russian treat hard consonants similar to?
5730f38405b4da19006bcc77
Irish
388
False
What is done to unstressed vowels?
5730f38405b4da19006bcc78
reduced to near-close vowels or an unclear schwa
580
False
six
39
How many classes are there at the St. Petersburg Phonological School?
5a865754b4e223001a8e7545
True
depending on whether or not the preceding consonant is palatalized
132
When are Irish vowels written differently?
5a865754b4e223001a8e7546
True
plain vs. palatalized pairs
233
What pairs do vowels come in, in Irish?
5a865754b4e223001a8e7547
True
heavy
458
What kind of stress is there in the Irish language?
5a865754b4e223001a8e7548
True
moderate
475
What is the variation in pitch in Irish?
5a865754b4e223001a8e7549
True
The language possesses five vowels (or six, under the St. Petersburg Phonological School), which are written with different letters depending on whether or not the preceding consonant is palatalized. The consonants typically come in plain vs. palatalized pairs, which are traditionally called hard and soft. (The hard consonants are often velarized, especially before front vowels, as in Irish). The standard language, based on the Moscow dialect, possesses heavy stress and moderate variation in pitch. Stressed vowels are somewhat lengthened, while unstressed vowels tend to be reduced to near-close vowels or an unclear schwa. (See also: vowel reduction in Russian.)
What might /kʲ/ be considered?
5730f3cae6313a140071caea
a phoneme
185
False
What is palatalization?
5730f3cae6313a140071caeb
the center of the tongue is raised during and after the articulation of the consonant
443
False
How are 'dental' sounds pronounced?
5730f3cae6313a140071caec
with the tip of the tongue against the teeth rather than against the alveolar ridge
708
False
a phoneme
185
What might r be considered?
5a866441b4e223001a8e754f
True
distinctive
247
G is considered marginal but not considered what?
5a866441b4e223001a8e7550
True
"это ткёт" ([ˈɛtə tkʲɵt], 'it weaves')/"этот кот" ([ˈɛtət kot], 'this cat'))
339
What is the only minimal pair that shows g is a separate phoneme?
5a866441b4e223001a8e7551
True
that the center of the tongue is raised during and after the articulation of the consonant
438
What does allophone mean?
5a866441b4e223001a8e7552
True
slight frication (affricate sounds)
599
What does the tongue produce with g and x?
5a866441b4e223001a8e7553
True
Russian is notable for its distinction based on palatalization of most of the consonants. While /k/, /ɡ/, /x/ do have palatalized allophones [kʲ, ɡʲ, xʲ], only /kʲ/ might be considered a phoneme, though it is marginal and generally not considered distinctive (the only native minimal pair which argues for /kʲ/ to be a separate phoneme is "это ткёт" ([ˈɛtə tkʲɵt], 'it weaves')/"этот кот" ([ˈɛtət kot], 'this cat')). Palatalization means that the center of the tongue is raised during and after the articulation of the consonant. In the case of /tʲ/ and /dʲ/, the tongue is raised enough to produce slight frication (affricate sounds). These sounds: /t, d, ts, s, z, n and rʲ/ are dental, that is pronounced with the tip of the tongue against the teeth rather than against the alveolar ridge.
When did Eastern Slavs become the dominant group in the area of Ukraine?
5730f434497a881900248a99
approximately 1000 AD
38
False
When was Kievan Rus' formed?
5730f434497a881900248a9a
about 880
290
False
What countries did Kievan Rus' become?
5730f434497a881900248a9b
modern Russia, Ukraine and Belarus
312
False
What was the main language in Kievan Rus'?
5730f434497a881900248a9c
Old East Slavic
380
False
When did Kievan Rus' adopt Christianity?
5730f434497a881900248a9d
988
491
False
a closely related group
192
What group of dialects did Christians speak in 1000 AD?
5a8665b0b4e223001a8e7559
True
988
491
When was Byzantine Greek formed?
5a8665b0b4e223001a8e755a
True
1000 AD
52
When were historic records first kept?
5a8665b0b4e223001a8e755b
True
Old East Slavic
380
What commercial language was adopted by Christians in 880?
5a8665b0b4e223001a8e755c
True
modern Russia, Ukraine and Belarus
312
What countries trace their origins to Greece?
5a8665b0b4e223001a8e755d
True
Judging by the historical records, by approximately 1000 AD the predominant ethnic group over much of modern European Russia, Ukraine and Belarus was the Eastern branch of the Slavs, speaking a closely related group of dialects. The political unification of this region into Kievan Rus' in about 880, from which modern Russia, Ukraine and Belarus trace their origins, established Old East Slavic as a literary and commercial language. It was soon followed by the adoption of Christianity in 988 and the introduction of the South Slavic Old Church Slavonic as the liturgical and official language. Borrowings and calques from Byzantine Greek began to enter the Old East Slavic and spoken dialects at this time, which in their turn modified the Old Church Slavonic as well.
Where did Russian get specialized vocabulary from?
5730f49b05b4da19006bcc88
the languages of Western Europe
231
False
What second language was common among Russian nobles by 1800?
5730f49b05b4da19006bcc89
French
315
False
What third language was common among Russian nobles by 1800?
5730f49b05b4da19006bcc8a
German
333
False
Who wrote 'War and Peace'?
5730f49b05b4da19006bcc8b
Leo Tolstoy
397
False
What language often appeared in Russian novels without translation?
5730f49b05b4da19006bcc8c
French
485
False
1800
267
In what year did Peter the Great come to power?
5a8666a6b4e223001a8e7563
True
War and Peace
426
What did Peter the Great write in 1800?
5a8666a6b4e223001a8e7564
True
secularization and Westernization
145
What was Peter the Great's goal for writing War and Peace?
5a8666a6b4e223001a8e7565
True
a significant portion
273
How many Germans immigrated to France in 1800?
5a8666a6b4e223001a8e7566
True
War and Peace
426
What did Tolstoy write to reform Germany?
5a8666a6b4e223001a8e7567
True
The political reforms of Peter the Great (Пётр Вели́кий, Pyótr Velíkiy) were accompanied by a reform of the alphabet, and achieved their goal of secularization and Westernization. Blocks of specialized vocabulary were adopted from the languages of Western Europe. By 1800, a significant portion of the gentry spoke French daily, and German sometimes. Many Russian novels of the 19th century, e.g. Leo Tolstoy's (Лев Толсто́й) War and Peace, contain entire paragraphs and even pages in French with no translation given, with an assumption that educated readers would not need one.
Who revolutionized modern Russian?
5730f4ede6313a140071caf0
Alexander Pushkin
76
False
What did Pushkin reject from older Russian?
5730f4ede6313a140071caf1
archaic grammar and vocabulary
210
False
What was 'high style'?
5730f4ede6313a140071caf2
archaic grammar and vocabulary
210
False
What happened to some expressions in Pushkin's writing?
5730f4ede6313a140071caf3
became proverbs or sayings which can be frequently found even in modern Russian colloquial speech
786
False
The modern literary language
0
What dates from the time of Lermontov?
5a86678e1d3cee001a6a1012
True
by rejecting archaic grammar and vocabulary
197
How did Lermontov revolutionize Russian literature?
5a86678e1d3cee001a6a1013
True
grammar and vocabulary found in the spoken language of the time
297
What did Lermontov favor instead of archaic grammar and vocabulary?
5a86678e1d3cee001a6a1014
True
slight difficulties
417
What kind of difficulties did Gogol have when reading Lermontov's texts?
5a86678e1d3cee001a6a1015
True
relatively few
488
How many words used by Lermontov have become archaic?
5a86678e1d3cee001a6a1016
True
The modern literary language is usually considered to date from the time of Alexander Pushkin (Алекса́ндр Пу́шкин) in the first third of the 19th century. Pushkin revolutionized Russian literature by rejecting archaic grammar and vocabulary (so-called "высо́кий стиль" — "high style") in favor of grammar and vocabulary found in the spoken language of the time. Even modern readers of younger age may only experience slight difficulties understanding some words in Pushkin's texts, since relatively few words used by Pushkin have become archaic or changed meaning. In fact, many expressions used by Russian writers of the early 19th century, in particular Pushkin, Mikhail Lermontov (Михаи́л Ле́рмонтов), Nikolai Gogol (Никола́й Го́голь), Aleksander Griboyedov (Алекса́ндр Грибое́дов), became proverbs or sayings which can be frequently found even in modern Russian colloquial speech.
When did the USSR dissolve?
5730f53c05b4da19006bcc92
1991
352
False
When did the USSR make Russian the official language?
5730f53c05b4da19006bcc93
1990
308
False
What unofficial status did Russian have in the USSR before 1990?
5730f53c05b4da19006bcc94
the unifying role and superior status
189
False
Russian
244
What was declared the official language of constituent republics in 1991?
5a866b601d3cee001a6a101c
True
the policy toward the languages of the various other ethnic groups
26
What policy fluctuated in practice in 1991?
5a866b601d3cee001a6a101d
True
1990
308
In what year did other ethnic groups discourage native language?
5a866b601d3cee001a6a101e
True
1990
308
In what year did constituent republics not have an official language?
5a866b601d3cee001a6a101f
True
the break-up of the USSR
324
What was the national discourse about in 1990?
5a866b601d3cee001a6a1020
True
During the Soviet period, the policy toward the languages of the various other ethnic groups fluctuated in practice. Though each of the constituent republics had its own official language, the unifying role and superior status was reserved for Russian, although it was declared the official language only in 1990. Following the break-up of the USSR in 1991, several of the newly independent states have encouraged their native languages, which has partly reversed the privileged status of Russian, though its role as the language of post-Soviet national discourse throughout the region has continued.
What department is the Research Center for Sociological Research part of?
5730f5bda5e9cc1400cdbb45
Ministry of Education and Science (Russia)
149
False
Who wrote "Russian language at the turn of the 20th-21st centuries"?
5730f5bda5e9cc1400cdbb46
A. L. Arefyev
324
False
When was "Russian language at the turn of the 20th-21st centuries" published?
5730f5bda5e9cc1400cdbb47
2012
318
False
What does Arefyev say is happening to Russian?
5730f5bda5e9cc1400cdbb48
In the countries of the former Soviet Union the Russian language is gradually being replaced by local languages.
608
False
"Russian language at the turn of the 20th-21st centuries"
360
What study was published in 2006?
5a866d281d3cee001a6a1026
True
2006
34
In what year did A. L. Arefyev work for Demoskop Weekly?
5a866d281d3cee001a6a1027
True
position in the world
252
What are local languages losing in general?
5a866d281d3cee001a6a1028
True
Ministry of Education and Science
149
What department is Demoskop Weekly a part of in Russia?
5a866d281d3cee001a6a1029
True
research deputy director
72
What has A. L. Arefyev's position been at Demoskop Weekly since 2012?
5a866d281d3cee001a6a102a
True
According to figures published in 2006 in the journal "Demoskop Weekly" research deputy director of Research Center for Sociological Research of the Ministry of Education and Science (Russia) Arefyev A. L., the Russian language is gradually losing its position in the world in general, and in Russia in particular. In 2012, A. L. Arefyev published a new study "Russian language at the turn of the 20th-21st centuries", in which he confirmed his conclusion about the trend of further weakening of the Russian language in all regions of the world (findings published in 2013 in the journal "Demoskop Weekly"). In the countries of the former Soviet Union the Russian language is gradually being replaced by local languages. Currently the number speakers of Russian language in the world depends on the number of Russians in the world (as the main sources distribution Russian language) and total population Russia (where Russian is an official language).
United_States_Air_Force
What is the USAF?
5730bbbb8ab72b1400f9c732
the aerial warfare service branch of the United States Armed Forces
38
False
How many uniformed services are there in the United States?
5730bbbb8ab72b1400f9c733
seven
121
False
When did the USAF split from the US Army?
5730bbbb8ab72b1400f9c734
18 September 1947
258
False
What act formed the USAF?
5730bbbb8ab72b1400f9c735
National Security Act of 1947
286
False
What is one of the functions of the USAF?
5730bbbb8ab72b1400f9c736
Nuclear Deterrence Operations
508
False
The United States Air Force (USAF) is the aerial warfare service branch of the United States Armed Forces and one of the seven American uniformed services. Initially part of the United States Army, the USAF was formed as a separate branch of the military on 18 September 1947 under the National Security Act of 1947. It is the most recent branch of the U.S. military to be formed, and is the largest and one of the world's most technologically advanced air forces. The USAF articulates its core functions as Nuclear Deterrence Operations, Special Operations, Air Superiority, Global Integrated ISR, Space Superiority, Command and Control, Cyberspace Superiority, Personnel Recovery, Global Precision Attack, Building Partnerships, Rapid Global Mobility and Agile Combat Support.
How many departments are there in the Department of Defense?
5730be5f8ab72b1400f9c75a
three
102
False
Who does the Secretary of the Air Force currently report to?
5730be5f8ab72b1400f9c75b
Secretary of Defense
246
False
What branch of the government must confirm the President's appointment of the Secretary of the Air Force?
5730be5f8ab72b1400f9c75c
Senate
307
False
Who serves as a member of the Joint Chiefs of Staff?
5730be5f8ab72b1400f9c75d
Chief of Staff of the Air Force
407
False
Who assigns combat missions to the Air Force?
5730be5f8ab72b1400f9c75e
Secretary of Defense
611
False
The U.S. Air Force is a military service organized within the Department of the Air Force, one of the three military departments of the Department of Defense. The Air Force is headed by the civilian Secretary of the Air Force, who reports to the Secretary of Defense, and is appointed by the President with Senate confirmation. The highest-ranking military officer in the Department of the Air Force is the Chief of Staff of the Air Force, who exercises supervision over Air Force units, and serves as a member of the Joint Chiefs of Staff. Air Force combat and mobility forces are assigned, as directed by the Secretary of Defense, to the Combatant Commanders, and neither the Secretary of the Air Force nor the Chief of Staff have operational command authority over them.
How many core functions did the Air Force reduce its duties down to recently?
5730c872aca1c71400fe5ab1
twelve
236
False
What do these core functions of the Air Force express?
5730c872aca1c71400fe5ab2
contribute to national security
493
False
What are not considered doctrinal constructs of the Air Force?
5730c872aca1c71400fe5ab3
core functions
657
False
Recently, the Air Force refined its understanding of the core duties and responsibilities it performs as a Military Service Branch, streamlining what previously were six distinctive capabilities and seventeen operational functions into twelve core functions to be used across the doctrine, organization, training, equipment, leadership, and education, personnel, and facilities spectrum. These core functions express the ways in which the Air Force is particularly and appropriately suited to contribute to national security, but they do not necessarily express every aspect of what the Air Force contributes to the nation. It should be emphasized that the core functions, by themselves, are not doctrinal constructs.
What is the mission set of the Air Force called that includes nuclear strike operations?
5730c9a4f6cb411900e244a6
Assure/Dissuade/Deter
0
False
How does the Air Force promote security to its allies?
5730c9a4f6cb411900e244a7
Dissuading others from acquiring or proliferating WMD
219
False
What do potential adversaries threaten that the US Air Force prevents?
5730c9a4f6cb411900e244a8
US national security
762
False
What is the US Air Force prepared to do to support its allies?
5730c9a4f6cb411900e244a9
carry out the nuclear strike operations mission
81
False
Assure/Dissuade/Deter is a mission set derived from the Air Force's readiness to carry out the nuclear strike operations mission as well as from specific actions taken to assure allies as a part of extended deterrence. Dissuading others from acquiring or proliferating WMD, and the means to deliver them, contributes to promoting security and is also an integral part of this mission. Moreover, different deterrence strategies are required to deter various adversaries, whether they are a nation state, or non-state/transnational actor. The Air Force maintains and presents credible deterrent capabilities through successful visible demonstrations and exercises which assure allies, dissuade proliferation, deter potential adversaries from actions that threaten US national security or the populations and deployed military forces of the US, its allies and friends.
What is the definition of a nuclear strike?
5730cac0b7151e1900c01540
the ability of nuclear forces to rapidly and accurately strike targets
18
False
What action by the US Air Force would deter adversaries from threatening US Security?
5730cac0b7151e1900c01541
deployment of nuclear strike capabilities
197
False
Who has the authorization in the US to terminate a conflict?
5730cac0b7151e1900c01542
President
398
False
What organization does the US Air Force support on its missions?
5730cac0b7151e1900c01543
US NDO objectives
1133
False
What is one of the areas where the US Air Force might operate its missions?
5730cac0b7151e1900c01544
Continental United States
719
False
Nuclear strike is the ability of nuclear forces to rapidly and accurately strike targets which the enemy holds dear in a devastating manner. If a crisis occurs, rapid generation and, if necessary, deployment of nuclear strike capabilities will demonstrate US resolve and may prompt an adversary to alter the course of action deemed threatening to our national interest. Should deterrence fail, the President may authorize a precise, tailored response to terminate the conflict at the lowest possible level and lead to a rapid cessation of hostilities. Post-conflict, regeneration of a credible nuclear deterrent capability will deter further aggression. The Air Force may present a credible force posture in either the Continental United States, within a theater of operations, or both to effectively deter the range of potential adversaries envisioned in the 21st century. This requires the ability to engage targets globally using a variety of methods; therefore, the Air Force should possess the ability to induct, train, assign, educate and exercise individuals and units to rapidly and effectively execute missions that support US NDO objectives. Finally, the Air Force regularly exercises and evaluates all aspects of nuclear operations to ensure high levels of performance.
What ensures the safety of nuclear operations?
5730d135b54a4f140068cc8a
Nuclear surety
0
False
What is a Broken Arrow incident in nuclear security?
5730d135b54a4f140068cc8b
unauthorized or accidental use
758
False
What is the mission of the NDO in regards to nuclear security?
5730d135b54a4f140068cc8c
precise and reliable nuclear operations
1153
False
What is one of the five functions of NDO support?
5730d135b54a4f140068cc8d
effective nuclear weapons security
1302
False
What other US departments does the Air Force coordinate with for nuclear security?
5730d135b54a4f140068cc8e
Departments of Defense or Energy
452
False
Nuclear surety ensures the safety, security and effectiveness of nuclear operations. Because of their political and military importance, destructive power, and the potential consequences of an accident or unauthorized act, nuclear weapons and nuclear weapon systems require special consideration and protection against risks and threats inherent in their peacetime and wartime environments. The Air Force, in conjunction with other entities within the Departments of Defense or Energy, achieves a high standard of protection through a stringent nuclear surety program. This program applies to materiel, personnel, and procedures that contribute to the safety, security, and control of nuclear weapons, thus assuring no nuclear accidents, incidents, loss, or unauthorized or accidental use (a Broken Arrow incident). The Air Force continues to pursue safe, secure and effective nuclear weapons consistent with operational requirements. Adversaries, allies, and the American people must be highly confident of the Air Force's ability to secure nuclear weapons from accidents, theft, loss, and accidental or unauthorized use. This day-to-day commitment to precise and reliable nuclear operations is the cornerstone of the credibility of the NDO mission. Positive nuclear command, control, communications; effective nuclear weapons security; and robust combat support are essential to the overall NDO function.
What does the abbreviation OCA stand for?
5730d22faca1c71400fe5aed
Offensive Counterair
0
False
What is the function or definition of the OCA according to JP 1-02?
5730d22faca1c71400fe5aee
offensive operations to destroy, disrupt, or neutralize enemy aircraft, missiles, launch platforms
42
False
OCA is the preferred method of defeating what kind of attacks?
5730d22faca1c71400fe5aef
air and missile threats
311
False
What is one of the important functions of the OCA in dealing with attacks?
5730d22faca1c71400fe5af0
suppression/destruction of enemy air defense
484
False
Offensive Counterair (OCA) is defined as "offensive operations to destroy, disrupt, or neutralize enemy aircraft, missiles, launch platforms, and their supporting structures and systems both before and after launch, but as close to their source as possible" (JP 1-02). OCA is the preferred method of countering air and missile threats, since it attempts to defeat the enemy closer to its source and typically enjoys the initiative. OCA comprises attack operations, sweep, escort, and suppression/destruction of enemy air defense.
What does the abbreviation DCA stand for?
5730d389b7151e1900c01550
Defensive Counterair
0
False
What sort of airspace is the DCA designed to protect?
5730d389b7151e1900c01551
friendly
187
False
What is active defense, according to the functions of the DCA?
5730d389b7151e1900c01552
employment of limited offensive action and counterattacks
462
False
What kind of missile defense does active defense protect against, according to the DCA?
5730d389b7151e1900c01553
ballistic
599
False
What is one of the many ways the DCA utilizes passive defense to protect from enemy attacks?
5730d389b7151e1900c01554
counter-measures
1126
False
Defensive Counterair (DCA) is defined as "all the defensive measures designed to detect, identify, intercept, and destroy or negate enemy forces attempting to penetrate or attack through friendly airspace" (JP 1-02). A major goal of DCA operations, in concert with OCA operations, is to provide an area from which forces can operate, secure from air and missile threats. The DCA mission comprises both active and passive defense measures. Active defense is "the employment of limited offensive action and counterattacks to deny a contested area or position to the enemy" (JP 1-02). It includes both ballistic missile defense and air breathing threat defense, and encompasses point defense, area defense, and high value airborne asset defense. Passive defense is "measures taken to reduce the probability of and to minimize the effects of damage caused by hostile action without the intention of taking the initiative" (JP 1-02). It includes detection and warning; chemical, biological, radiological, and nuclear defense; camouflage, concealment, and deception; hardening; reconstitution; dispersion; redundancy; and mobility, counter-measures, and stealth.
What is the dominance in space of one force over another?
5730d475aca1c71400fe5afb
Space superiority
0
False
What does Space Superiority encompass?
5730d475aca1c71400fe5afc
localized in time and space, or it may be broad and enduring
321
False
Who does space superiority ensure freedom of action in space for?
5730d475aca1c71400fe5afd
friendly forces
441
False
What areas does Space Superiority operate in?
5730d475aca1c71400fe5afe
land, sea, air, space
150
False
Space superiority is "the degree of dominance in space of one force over another that permits the conduct of operations by the former and its related land, sea, air, space, and special operations forces at a given time and place without prohibitive interference by the opposing force" (JP 1-02). Space superiority may be localized in time and space, or it may be broad and enduring. Space superiority provides freedom of action in space for friendly forces and, when directed, denies the same freedom to the adversary.
What is the definition of Space Control according to the US and its allies?
5730d552b54a4f140068cca6
operations to ensure freedom of action in space
29
False
What is one of the areas of operation that space control serves to protect?
5730d552b54a4f140068cca7
operations conducted to protect friendly space capabilities from attack
197
False
What is the operational environment that Space Control depends on?
5730d552b54a4f140068cca8
space situational awareness
567
False
Space Control is defined as "operations to ensure freedom of action in space for the US and its allies and, when directed, deny an adversary freedom of action in space. This mission area includes: operations conducted to protect friendly space capabilities from attack, interference, or unintentional hazards (defensive space control); operations to deny an adversary's use of space capabilities (offensive space control); and the requisite current and predictive knowledge of the space environment and the operational environment upon which space operations depend (space situational awareness)" (JP 1-02).
Who responds with the employment of capabilities where there is a threat?
5730db0aaca1c71400fe5b15
Air Force
119
False
What is the definition of CND?
5730db0aaca1c71400fe5b16
computer network defense
314
False
What does Cyberspace defense include?
5730db0aaca1c71400fe5b17
CNE, computer network defense (CND), and CNA techniques
309
False
What is one of the things that Cyberspace defense highly dependent on?
5730db0aaca1c71400fe5b18
fused all-source intelligence
448
False
What branch of the military is in charge of Cyberspace defense?
5730db0aaca1c71400fe5b19
Air Force
119
False
This is the passive, active, and dynamic employment of capabilities to respond to imminent or on-going actions against Air Force or Air Force-protected networks, the Air Force's portion of the Global Information Grid, or expeditionary communications assigned to the Air Force. Cyberspace defense incorporates CNE, computer network defense (CND), and CNA techniques and may be a contributor to influence operations. It is highly dependent upon ISR, fused all-source intelligence, automated indications and warning, sophisticated attribution/characterization, situational awareness, assessment, and responsive C2.
What division ensures the Air Force's information integrity and availability?
5730dbfef6cb411900e244f4
Cyberspace Support
0
False
What is ability is critical in Cyberspace Supports mission?
5730dbfef6cb411900e244f5
sustain assigned networks and missions
352
False
What important networks is it the function of Cyberspace support to protect?
5730dbfef6cb411900e244f6
C2 networks/communications links and nuclear C2 networks
472
False
What techniques does the Cyberspace Support branch of the Air Force use?
5730dbfef6cb411900e244f7
CNE and CND
574
False
Cyberspace Support is foundational, continuous, or responsive operations ensuring information integrity and availability in, through, and from Air Force-controlled infrastructure and its interconnected analog and digital portion of the battle space. Inherent in this mission is the ability to establish, extend, secure, protect, and defend in order to sustain assigned networks and missions. This includes protection measures against supply chain components plus critical C2 networks/communications links and nuclear C2 networks. The cyberspace support mission incorporates CNE and CND techniques. It incorporates all elements of Air Force Network Operations, information transport, enterprise management, and information assurance, and is dependent on ISR and all-source intelligence.
What is the definition of Command and Control in the Air Force operations?
5730dce3b7151e1900c0157e
exercise of authority and direction by a properly designated commander over assigned and attached forces
28
False
Who is in charge of the Command and Control operations?
5730dce3b7151e1900c0157f
commander in planning
320
False
What is one of the C2 related functions that the Command and Control mission of the Air Force uses?
5730dce3b7151e1900c01580
agile combat support operations
586
False
What are the main objectives of the Command and Control initiative?
5730dce3b7151e1900c01581
achieve strategic, operational, and tactical objectives
621
False
Command and control is "the exercise of authority and direction by a properly designated commander over assigned and attached forces in the accomplishment of the mission. Command and control functions are performed through an arrangement of personnel, equipment, communications, facilities, and procedures employed by a commander in planning, directing, coordinating, and controlling forces and operations in the accomplishment of the mission" (JP 1-02). This core function includes all of the C2-related capabilities and activities associated with air, space, cyberspace, nuclear, and agile combat support operations to achieve strategic, operational, and tactical objectives.
What agency is in charge of intelligence requirements?
5730df02b7151e1900c01598
Joint and National Intelligence Support to Military Operations
245
False
What is one of the ways that the Air Force uses Planning and Directing in its operations?
5730df02b7151e1900c01599
development of appropriate intelligence architecture
75
False
Who benefits from the process analysis and dissemination of this information?
5730df02b7151e1900c0159a
national and military decision makers
496
False
Planning and Directing is "the determination of intelligence requirements, development of appropriate intelligence architecture, preparation of a collection plan, and issuance of orders and requests to information collection agencies" (JP 2-01, Joint and National Intelligence Support to Military Operations). These activities enable the synchronization and integration of collection, processing, exploitation, analysis, and dissemination activities/resources to meet information requirements of national and military decision makers.
What are Special Operations?
5730dfc8b7151e1900c0159e
operations conducted in hostile, denied, or politically sensitive environments
24
False
What are the goals of Special Operations?
5730dfc8b7151e1900c0159f
achieve military, diplomatic, informational, and/or economic objectives
106
False
What kind of forces can Special Operations missions employ?
5730dfc8b7151e1900c015a0
indigenous or surrogate
573
False
What is one of the ways that Special Operations is different from conventional methods?
5730dfc8b7151e1900c015a1
dependence on detailed operational intelligence
786
False
Special Operations are "operations conducted in hostile, denied, or politically sensitive environments to achieve military, diplomatic, informational, and/or economic objectives employing military capabilities for which there is no broad conventional force requirement. These operations may require covert, clandestine, or low-visibility capabilities. Special operations are applicable across the ROMO. They can be conducted independently or in conjunction with operations of conventional forces or other government agencies and may include operations through, with, or by indigenous or surrogate forces. Special operations differ from conventional operations in degree of physical and political risk, operational techniques, mode of employment, independence from friendly support, and dependence on detailed operational intelligence and indigenous assets" (JP 1-02).
What is the definition of Airlift according to the Air Mobility Operations?
5730e0b7f6cb411900e2450e
operations to transport and deliver forces and materiel through the air
12
False
What objectives does Airlift support?
5730e0b7f6cb411900e2450f
strategic, operational, or tactical
98
False
How does the US employ the global reach capability of airlift?
5730e0b7f6cb411900e24510
delivering forces to crisis locations
448
False
What does this US presence represent during a humanitarian crisis?
5730e0b7f6cb411900e24511
resolve and compassion
532
False
Airlift is "operations to transport and deliver forces and materiel through the air in support of strategic, operational, or tactical objectives" (AFDD 3–17, Air Mobility Operations). The rapid and flexible options afforded by airlift allow military forces and national leaders the ability to respond and operate in a variety of situations and time frames. The global reach capability of airlift provides the ability to apply US power worldwide by delivering forces to crisis locations. It serves as a US presence that demonstrates resolve and compassion in humanitarian crisis.
What is the movement of patients who need medical attention called?
5730e193aca1c71400fe5b3d
Aeromedical Evacuation
0
False
Who coordinates the deployment of thee Aeromedical Evacuation?
5730e193aca1c71400fe5b3e
Health Service Support
165
False
Where does the Aeromedical Evacuation team transport casualties?
5730e193aca1c71400fe5b3f
to and between medical treatment facilities
260
False
Who operates and is able to conduct airland missions?
5730e193aca1c71400fe5b40
Aeromedical evacuation forces
408
False
Aeromedical Evacuation is "the movement of patients under medical supervision to and between medical treatment facilities by air transportation" (JP 1-02). JP 4-02, Health Service Support, further defines it as "the fixed wing movement of regulated casualties to and between medical treatment facilities, using organic and/or contracted mobility airframes, with aircrew trained explicitly for this mission." Aeromedical evacuation forces can operate as far forward as fixed-wing aircraft are able to conduct airland operations.
What does the abbreviation PR stand for in terms of the US military?
5730e287b7151e1900c015a6
Personnel Recovery
0
False
What is the definition of a Personnel Recovery mission?
5730e287b7151e1900c015a7
military, diplomatic, and civil efforts to prepare for and execute the recovery and reintegration of isolated personnel
50
False
What is one of the ways that PR uses its capabilities in a crisis?
5730e287b7151e1900c015a8
deny an adversary's ability to exploit a nation through propaganda
491
False
What are the types of international duties of the PR mission?
5730e287b7151e1900c015a9
crisis response and regional stability
641
False
Personnel Recovery (PR) is defined as "the sum of military, diplomatic, and civil efforts to prepare for and execute the recovery and reintegration of isolated personnel" (JP 1-02). It is the ability of the US government and its international partners to effect the recovery of isolated personnel across the ROMO and return those personnel to duty. PR also enhances the development of an effective, global capacity to protect and recover isolated personnel wherever they are placed at risk; deny an adversary's ability to exploit a nation through propaganda; and develop joint, interagency, and international capabilities that contribute to crisis response and regional stability.
What are programs that are designed to help with natural or manmade disaters?
5730e35df6cb411900e24516
Humanitarian Assistance Operations
0
False
What kinds of endemic conditions do the Human Assistance Operations entail?
5730e35df6cb411900e24517
human pain, disease, hunger, or privation that might present a serious threat to life
160
False
What kind of Humanitarian assistance is supplied by the US Forces?
5730e35df6cb411900e24518
limited
354
False
Who is the Humanitarian support intended to help?
5730e35df6cb411900e24519
host nation civil authorities or agencies
468
False
Humanitarian Assistance Operations are "programs conducted to relieve or reduce the results of natural or manmade disasters or other endemic conditions such as human pain, disease, hunger, or privation that might present a serious threat to life or that can result in great damage to or loss of property. Humanitarian assistance provided by US forces is limited in scope and duration. The assistance provided is designed to supplement or complement the efforts of the host nation civil authorities or agencies that may have the primary responsibility for providing humanitarian assistance" (JP 1-02).
What does Building Partnerships relate to in the Air Force?
5730e690f6cb411900e24528
airmen interacting with international airmen and other relevant actors
38
False
What are the goals of the Building Partnership interactions?
5730e690f6cb411900e24529
develop, guide, and sustain relationships for mutual benefit and security
112
False
What sort of inter-personal relationships does Building Partnerships encourage?
5730e690f6cb411900e2452a
cross-cultural
292
False
What is the major goal of Building Partnerships in these deeds and actions?
5730e690f6cb411900e2452b
building trust-based relationships for mutual benefit
392
False
What are Airmen expected to be competent in for these Building Partnerships missions?
5730e690f6cb411900e2452c
relevant language, region, and culture
735
False
Building Partnerships is described as airmen interacting with international airmen and other relevant actors to develop, guide, and sustain relationships for mutual benefit and security. Building Partnerships is about interacting with others and is therefore an inherently inter-personal and cross-cultural undertaking. Through both words and deeds, the majority of interaction is devoted to building trust-based relationships for mutual benefit. It includes both foreign partners as well as domestic partners and emphasizes collaboration with foreign governments, militaries and populations as well as US government departments, agencies, industry, and NGOs. To better facilitate partnering efforts, Airmen should be competent in the relevant language, region, and culture.
Who created the first version of the US Air Force in 1907?
5730e777aca1c71400fe5b45
U.S. War Department
4
False
When did the US Air Force separate from the War Department?
5730e777aca1c71400fe5b46
40 years later
196
False
How many causalities did the US Air Force suffer during WWII?
5730e777aca1c71400fe5b47
68,000
236
False
What does the USAAF stand for?
5730e777aca1c71400fe5b48
U.S. Army Air Forces
353
False
Who signed the National Security Act of 1947?
5730e777aca1c71400fe5b49
President Harry S Truman
550
False
The U.S. War Department created the first antecedent of the U.S. Air Force in 1907, which through a succession of changes of organization, titles, and missions advanced toward eventual separation 40 years later. In World War II, almost 68,000 U.S airmen died helping to win the war; only the infantry suffered more enlisted casualties. In practice, the U.S. Army Air Forces (USAAF) was virtually independent of the Army during World War II, but officials wanted formal independence. The National Security Act of 1947 was signed on on 26 July 1947 by President Harry S Truman, which established the Department of the Air Force, but it was not not until 18 September 1947, when the first secretary of the Air Force, W. Stuart Symington was sworn into office that the Air Force was officially formed.
What was the National Military Establishment renamed in 1949?
5730e860b54a4f140068ccda
Department of Defense
61
False
How many subordinate divisions did the National Military Establishment contain?
5730e860b54a4f140068ccdb
three
115
False
What does the US Navy's responsibilities include?
5730e860b54a4f140068ccdc
sea-based operations from aircraft carriers and amphibious aircraft
396
False
Who is in charge of closed air support of infantry operations?
5730e860b54a4f140068ccdd
Marine Corps
474
False
What American broke the sound barrier in 1947?
5730e860b54a4f140068ccde
Captain Chuck Yeager
600
False
The act created the National Military Establishment (renamed Department of Defense in 1949), which was composed of three subordinate Military Departments, namely the Department of the Army, the Department of the Navy, and the newly created Department of the Air Force. Prior to 1947, the responsibility for military aviation was shared between the Army (for land-based operations), the Navy (for sea-based operations from aircraft carriers and amphibious aircraft), and the Marine Corps (for close air support of infantry operations). The 1940s proved to be important in other ways as well. In 1947, Captain Chuck Yeager broke the sound barrier in his X-1 rocket-powered aircraft, beginning a new era of aeronautics in America.
When did the USAF have several missteps of aircraft procurement projects?
5730e932b7151e1900c015c2
early 2000s
11
False
Who wrote that these aircraft procurement projects were a failure of intellect and ethics?
5730e932b7151e1900c015c3
Winslow Wheeler
135
False
When were the military leaders replaced after a scandal over failure to maintain its nuclear arsenal?
5730e932b7151e1900c015c4
2008
623
False
During the early 2000s, the USAF fumbled several high profile aircraft procurement projects, such as the missteps on the KC-X program. Winslow Wheeler has written that this pattern represents "failures of intellect and – much more importantly – ethics." As a result, the USAF fleet is setting new records for average aircraft age and needs to replace its fleets of fighters, bombers, airborne tankers, and airborne warning aircraft, in an age of restrictive defense budgets. Finally in the midst of scandal and failure in maintaining its nuclear arsenal, the civilian and military leaders of the air force were replaced in 2008.
What did the USAF strive to improve since 2005?
5730ea0fb7151e1900c015c8
Basic Military Training
69
False
What is the deployment phase of BMT called?
5730ea0fb7151e1900c015c9
BEAST
258
False
What other training do the US Air force Personnel get during BMT?
5730ea0fb7151e1900c015ca
directing search and recovery
546
False
Who acts as a mentor during this deployment phase of the BMT?
5730ea0fb7151e1900c015cb
Military Training Instructors
631
False
Since 2005, the USAF has placed a strong focus on the improvement of Basic Military Training (BMT) for enlisted personnel. While the intense training has become longer, it also has shifted to include a deployment phase. This deployment phase, now called the BEAST, places the trainees in a surreal environment that they may experience once they deploy. While the trainees do tackle the massive obstacle courses along with the BEAST, the other portions include defending and protecting their base of operations, forming a structure of leadership, directing search and recovery, and basic self aid buddy care. During this event, the Military Training Instructors (MTI) act as mentors and enemy forces in a deployment exercise.
What year did the USAF take a Reduction-in-force?
5730eacaaca1c71400fe5b79
2007
3
False
Why did the USAF plan to take a reduction-in-force?
5730eacaaca1c71400fe5b7a
budget constraints
67
False
How many USAF personnel did the reduction end in during 2008?
5730eacaaca1c71400fe5b7b
330,000
359
False
What has there been a sharp reduction in during the years following 2005 in the USAF?
5730eacaaca1c71400fe5b7c
flight hours for crew training
535
False
In 2007, the USAF undertook a Reduction-in-Force (RIF). Because of budget constraints, the USAF planned to reduce the service's size from 360,000 active duty personnel to 316,000. The size of the active duty force in 2007 was roughly 64% of that of what the USAF was at the end of the first Gulf War in 1991. However, the reduction was ended at approximately 330,000 personnel in 2008 in order to meet the demand signal of combatant commanders and associated mission requirements. These same constraints have seen a sharp reduction in flight hours for crew training since 2005 and the Deputy Chief of Staff for Manpower and Personnel directing Airmen's Time Assessments.
Who was Robert Gates?
5730ebd0497a881900248a49
Secretary of Defense
16
False
What Secretary of the Air Force resigned in 2008?
5730ebd0497a881900248a4a
Michael Wynne
117
False
What US Chief of Staff of the US Air Force also resigned in June of 2008?
5730ebd0497a881900248a4b
General T. Michael Moseley
187
False
Where did the US Air Force accidentally ship a component of Nuclear Weapons?
5730ebd0497a881900248a4c
Taiwan
606
False
When was the Air Force Global Strike Command formed?
5730ebd0497a881900248a4d
24 October 2008
895
False
On 5 June 2008, Secretary of Defense Robert Gates, accepted the resignations of both the Secretary of the Air Force, Michael Wynne, and the Chief of Staff of the United States Air Force, General T. Michael Moseley. Gates in effect fired both men for "systemic issues associated with declining Air Force nuclear mission focus and performance." This followed an investigation into two embarrassing incidents involving mishandling of nuclear weapons: specifically a nuclear weapons incident aboard a B-52 flight between Minot AFB and Barksdale AFB, and an accidental shipment of nuclear weapons components to Taiwan. The resignations were also the culmination of disputes between the Air Force leadership, populated primarily by non-nuclear background fighter pilots, versus Gates. To put more emphasis on nuclear assets, the USAF established the nuclear-focused Air Force Global Strike Command on 24 October 2008.
Why was the USAF forced to ground some of its squadrons in 2013?
5730ec8305b4da19006bcc46
Budget sequestration
11
False
Who was the Commander of Air Combat Command in 2013?
5730ec8305b4da19006bcc47
General Mike Hostage
131
False
Why have many US Air Force pilots opted to resign from active service?
5730ec8305b4da19006bcc48
squadron groundings and flight time reductions
326
False
Where have many of these US Air Force pilots chosen to find employment instead?
5730ec8305b4da19006bcc49
careers in the commercial airlines
504
False
Due to the Budget sequestration in 2013, the USAF was forced to ground many of its squadrons. The Commander of Air Combat Command, General Mike Hostage indicated that the USAF must reduce its F-15 and F-16 fleets and eliminate platforms like the A-10 in order to focus on a fifth-generation jet fighter future. In response to squadron groundings and flight time reductions, many Air Force pilots have opted to resign from active duty and enter the Air Force Reserve and Air National Guard while pursuing careers in the commercial airlines where they can find flight hours on more modern aircraft.
What is one of the concerns of the Air Force?
5730ed1ea5e9cc1400cdbaeb
replace its aging fleet
70
False
How did the USAF try to make these adjustments to help with strength and readiness of its fleet?
5730ed1ea5e9cc1400cdbaec
cutting the Air National Guard and Air Force Reserve aircraft fleets
205
False
How much money did Congress give to the USAF to enable them to replace some of the grounded fleet?
5730ed1ea5e9cc1400cdbaed
$208 million
447
False
Specific concerns include a compounded inability for the Air Force to replace its aging fleet, and an overall reduction of strength and readiness. The USAF attempted to make these adjustments by primarily cutting the Air National Guard and Air Force Reserve aircraft fleets and their associated manpower, but Congress reversed this initiative and the majority of the lost manpower will come from the active forces. However, Congress did allow for $208 million of reprogramming from fleet modernization to enable some portion of the third of the grounded fleet to resume operations.
Who is the Department of the Air Force managed by?
5730ee17497a881900248a71
Secretary of the Air Force
134
False
Who does the Secretary of the Air Force report to?
5730ee17497a881900248a72
Secretary of Defense
213
False
Who appoints the top positions in the USAF, including the Assistant Secretaries and General Council?
5730ee17497a881900248a73
President
431
False
Upon whom does the President call on for support in his appointments to the USAF?
5730ee17497a881900248a74
Senate
476
False
Who does the senior leadership roles in the USAF include?
5730ee17497a881900248a75
Chief of Staff of the Air Force and the Vice Chief of Staff of the Air Force
551
False
The Department of the Air Force is one of three military departments within the Department of Defense, and is managed by the civilian Secretary of the Air Force, under the authority, direction, and control of the Secretary of Defense. The senior officials in the Office of the Secretary are the Under Secretary of the Air Force, four Assistant Secretaries of the Air Force and the General Counsel, all of whom are appointed by the President with the advice and consent of the Senate. The senior uniformed leadership in the Air Staff is made up of the Chief of Staff of the Air Force and the Vice Chief of Staff of the Air Force.
Who directs the Secretary of the Air Force during operational missions?
5730f811a5e9cc1400cdbb4d
Secretary of Defense
211
False
What does the abbreviation CHOP stand for?
5730f811a5e9cc1400cdbb4e
Change in Operational Control
301
False
Who is in charge of these Change in Operational Control missions?
5730f811a5e9cc1400cdbb4f
Regional Combatant Commander
421
False
Who does the AMC forces usually retain their componency to?
5730f811a5e9cc1400cdbb50
USTRANSCOM
651
False
The organizational structure as shown above is responsible for the peacetime organization, equipping, and training of aerospace units for operational missions. When required to support operational missions, the Secretary of Defense (SECDEF) directs the Secretary of the Air Force (SECAF) to execute a Change in Operational Control (CHOP) of these units from their administrative alignment to the operational command of a Regional Combatant Commander (CCDR). In the case of AFSPC, AFSOC, PACAF, and USAFE units, forces are normally employed in-place under their existing CCDR. Likewise, AMC forces operating in support roles retain their componency to USTRANSCOM unless chopped to a Regional CCDR.
What are "Chopped" units called in the USAF?
5730f918e6313a140071cb1e
forces
35
False
What is the top level structure of these Chopped forces in the USAF?
5730f918e6313a140071cb1f
Air and Space Expeditionary Task Force
90
False
What does the C-NAF provide support to?
5730f918e6313a140071cb20
planning and execution of aerospace forces
314
False
Who does the C-NAFF coordinate with on ACEE missions?
5730f918e6313a140071cb21
JFC
694
False
"Chopped" units are referred to as forces. The top-level structure of these forces is the Air and Space Expeditionary Task Force (AETF). The AETF is the Air Force presentation of forces to a CCDR for the employment of Air Power. Each CCDR is supported by a standing Component Numbered Air Force (C-NAF) to provide planning and execution of aerospace forces in support of CCDR requirements. Each C-NAF consists of a Commander, Air Force Forces (COMAFFOR) and AFFOR/A-staff, and an Air Operations Center (AOC). As needed to support multiple Joint Force Commanders (JFC) in the COCOM's Area of Responsibility (AOR), the C-NAF may deploy Air Component Coordinate Elements (ACCE) to liaise with the JFC. If the Air Force possesses the preponderance of air forces in a JFC's area of operations, the COMAFFOR will also serve as the Joint Forces Air Component Commander (JFACC).
What kind of AFSC is a JAG?
5730f9b405b4da19006bcca8
judge advocate general
152
False
What is one of the many types of AFSC employed by the USAF?
5730f9b405b4da19006bcca9
missile launch officer
76
False
What is an example of an occupational field position in the USAF?
5730f9b405b4da19006bccaa
computer specialties
441
False
AFSCs range from officer specialties such as pilot, combat systems officer, missile launch officer, intelligence officer, aircraft maintenance officer, judge advocate general (JAG), medical doctor, nurse or other fields, to various enlisted specialties. The latter range from flight combat operations such as a gunner, to working in a dining facility to ensure that members are properly fed. There are additional occupational fields such as computer specialties, mechanic specialties, enlisted aircrew, communication systems, cyberspace operations, avionics technicians, medical specialties, civil engineering, public affairs, hospitality, law, drug counseling, mail operations, security forces, and search and rescue specialties.
What is one of the most dangerous jobs for USAF personnel?
5730fe9da5e9cc1400cdbb6d
Tactical Air Control Party
197
False
What does the abbreviation EOD stand for in the USAF?
5730fe9da5e9cc1400cdbb6e
Explosive Ordnance Disposal
78
False
What do some of these special missions in the USAF who deploy with the infantry do?
5730fe9da5e9cc1400cdbb6f
rescue downed or isolated personnel
315
False
What are these enlisted positions in the USAF complimented by?
5730fe9da5e9cc1400cdbb70
commissioned officers
489
False
What other career fields have seen an increase in active combat missions?
5730fe9da5e9cc1400cdbb71
Air Force Office of Special Investigations
625
False
Beyond combat flight crew personnel, perhaps the most dangerous USAF jobs are Explosive Ordnance Disposal (EOD), Combat rescue officer, Pararescue, Security Forces, Combat Control, Combat Weather, Tactical Air Control Party, and AFOSI agents, who deploy with infantry and special operations units who disarm bombs, rescue downed or isolated personnel, call in air strikes and set up landing zones in forward locations. Most of these are enlisted positions augmented by a smaller number of commissioned officers. Other career fields that have seen increasing exposure to combat include civil engineers, vehicle operators, and Air Force Office of Special Investigations (AFOSI) personnel.
What USAF tech school has 31 days of training?
5730ff8ba5e9cc1400cdbb7f
3M0X1 (Services)
47
False
How long is the training for Explosive Ordnance Disposal in the USAF?
5730ff8ba5e9cc1400cdbb80
one year of training with a preliminary school
146
False
Who conducts the training for Technical Officers in the USAF?
5730ff8ba5e9cc1400cdbb81
Second Air Force
351
False
How long does the flight training for the AETC's Nineteenth Air Force last?
5730ff8ba5e9cc1400cdbb82
excess of one year
505
False
Training programs vary in length; for example, 3M0X1 (Services) has 31 days of tech school training, while 3E8X1 (Explosive Ordnance Disposal) is one year of training with a preliminary school and a main school consisting of over 10 separate divisions, sometimes taking students close to two years to complete. Officer technical training conducted by Second Air Force can also vary by AFSC, while flight training for aeronautically-rated officers conducted by AETC's Nineteenth Air Force can last well in excess of one year.
What groups is the USAF rank divided amoung?
5731005e497a881900248ae7
enlisted airmen, non-commissioned officers, and commissioned officers
29
False
How are Enlisted promotions in the USAF decided?
5731005e497a881900248ae8
based on a combination of test scores, years of experience, and selection board approval
232
False
How are Officer promotions within the USAF decided?
5731005e497a881900248ae9
based on time-in-grade and a promotion selection board
350
False
How is a Commissioned Officer's rank shown?
5731005e497a881900248aea
designated by bars, oak leaves, a silver eagle, and anywhere from one to four stars
570
False
USAF rank is divided between enlisted airmen, non-commissioned officers, and commissioned officers, and ranges from the enlisted Airman Basic (E-1) to the commissioned officer rank of General (O-10). Enlisted promotions are granted based on a combination of test scores, years of experience, and selection board approval while officer promotions are based on time-in-grade and a promotion selection board. Promotions among enlisted personnel and non-commissioned officers are generally designated by increasing numbers of insignia chevrons. Commissioned officer rank is designated by bars, oak leaves, a silver eagle, and anywhere from one to four stars (one to five stars in war-time).[citation needed]
What are Air Force Officer promotions overseen by?
57310a09e6313a140071cb8c
Defense Officer Personnel Management Act of 1980
49
False
Was does ROPMA stand for in the USAF?
57310a09e6313a140071cb8d
Reserve Officer Personnel Management Act
116
False
Who establishes limits on the amount of Air Force officers?
57310a09e6313a140071cb8e
DOPMA
231
False
How long does it usually take to be promoted from second to first lieutenant in the USAF?
57310a09e6313a140071cb8f
virtually guaranteed after two years
405
False
What promotion in the USAF is governed by a formal selection process?
57310a09e6313a140071cb90
Promotion to major through major general
641
False
Air Force officer promotions are governed by the Defense Officer Personnel Management Act of 1980 and its companion Reserve Officer Personnel Management Act (ROPMA) for officers in the Air Force Reserve and the Air National Guard. DOPMA also establishes limits on the number of officers that can serve at any given time in the Air Force. Currently, promotion from second lieutenant to first lieutenant is virtually guaranteed after two years of satisfactory service. The promotion from first lieutenant to captain is competitive after successfully completing another two years of service, with a selection rate varying between 99% and 100%. Promotion to major through major general is through a formal selection board process, while promotions to lieutenant general and general are contingent upon nomination to specific general officer positions and subject to U.S. Senate approval.
Where is an officer's record in the USAF reviewed for a promotion?
57310ae3e6313a140071cba0
Air Force Personnel Center at Randolph Air Force Base
85
False
What state is the Randolph Air Force Base located in?
57310ae3e6313a140071cba1
Texas
155
False
When does promotion from major to lieutenant colonel in the USAF typically occur?
57310ae3e6313a140071cba2
thirteen year
450
False
The promotion process repeats when for officers promoted early in the USAF?
57310ae3e6313a140071cba3
16 year mark
762
False
During the board process an officer's record is reviewed by a selection board at the Air Force Personnel Center at Randolph Air Force Base in San Antonio, Texas. At the 10 to 11 year mark, captains will take part in a selection board to major. If not selected, they will meet a follow-on board to determine if they will be allowed to remain in the Air Force. Promotion from major to lieutenant colonel is similar and occurs approximately between the thirteen year (for officers who were promoted to major early "below the zone") and the fifteen year mark, where a certain percentage of majors will be selected below zone (i.e., "early"), in zone (i.e., "on time") or above zone (i.e., "late") for promotion to lieutenant colonel. This process will repeat at the 16 year mark (for officers previously promoted early to major and lieutenant colonel) to the 21 year mark for promotion to full colonel.
What section in the US Code for the Secretary of the Air Force allows for the appointment of warrant officers?
57310bcda5e9cc1400cdbbc9
Title 10
30
False
When did the USAF inherit warrant officer ranks from the Army?
57310bcda5e9cc1400cdbbca
1947
331
False
When did Congress authorize the creation of two new senior officer grades?
57310bcda5e9cc1400cdbbcb
1958
497
False
When did the USAF stop appointing warrant officers?
57310bcda5e9cc1400cdbbcc
1959
786
False
What is the newest top enlisted grade in the USAF?
57310bcda5e9cc1400cdbbcd
Chief Master Sergeant
868
False
Although provision is made in Title 10 of the United States Code for the Secretary of the Air Force to appoint warrant officers, the Air Force does not currently use warrant officer grades, and is the only one of the U.S. Armed Services not to do so. The Air Force inherited warrant officer ranks from the Army at its inception in 1947, but their place in the Air Force structure was never made clear.[citation needed] When the Congress authorized the creation of two new senior enlisted ranks in 1958, Air Force officials privately concluded that these two new "super grades" could fill all Air Force needs then performed at the warrant officer level, although this was not publicly acknowledged until years later.[citation needed] The Air Force stopped appointing warrant officers in 1959, the same year the first promotions were made to the new top enlisted grade, Chief Master Sergeant. Most of the existing Air Force warrant officers entered the commissioned officer ranks during the 1960s, but small numbers continued to exist in the warrant officer grades for the next 21 years.
What is the lowest pay grade in the USAF?
57310c63497a881900248b35
E-1 (entry level)
50
False
What is the highest pay grade in the USAF?
57310c63497a881900248b36
E-9 (senior enlisted)
71
False
What pay grades are included in the USAF for Senior NCOs?
57310c63497a881900248b37
pay grades E-7 through E-9
462
False
What does junior NCO refer to in the USAF pay grade system?
57310c63497a881900248b38
staff sergeants and technical sergeants
543
False
Enlisted members of the USAF have pay grades from E-1 (entry level) to E-9 (senior enlisted). While all USAF military personnel are referred to as Airmen, the term also refers to the pay grades of E-1 through E-4, which are below the level of non-commissioned officers (NCOs). Above the pay grade of E-4 (i.e., pay grades E-5 through E-9) all ranks fall into the category of NCO and are further subdivided into "NCOs" (pay grades E-5 and E-6) and "Senior NCOs" (pay grades E-7 through E-9); the term "Junior NCO" is sometimes used to refer to staff sergeants and technical sergeants (pay grades E-5 and E-6).
When does NCO status occur in the USAF?
57310d2da5e9cc1400cdbbe7
when an enlisted person reaches the pay grade of E-5
78
False
When does NCO status happen in all other branches of the US Military?
57310d2da5e9cc1400cdbbe8
pay grade of E-4
195
False
What must a Senior Airman do to become a supervisor in the USAF?
57310d2da5e9cc1400cdbbe9
completed Airman Leadership School
617
False
What rank is NCO status achieved in the US Army?
57310d2da5e9cc1400cdbbea
Corporal
221
False
The USAF is the only branch of the U.S. military where NCO status is achieved when an enlisted person reaches the pay grade of E-5. In all other branches, NCO status is generally achieved at the pay grade of E-4 (e.g., a Corporal in the Army and Marine Corps, Petty Officer Third Class in the Navy and Coast Guard). The Air Force mirrored the Army from 1976 to 1991 with an E-4 being either a Senior Airman wearing three stripes without a star or a Sergeant (referred to as "Buck Sergeant"), which was noted by the presence of the central star and considered an NCO. Despite not being an NCO, a Senior Airman who has completed Airman Leadership School can be a supervisor according to the AFI 36-2618.
When was the first USAF dress uniform introduced?
57310deca5e9cc1400cdbbf9
1947
33
False
Where was the Uxbridge Blue dress uniform developed?
57310deca5e9cc1400cdbbfa
former Bachman-Uxbridge Worsted Company
124
False
When was the current USAF dress uniform standardized?
57310deca5e9cc1400cdbbfb
1995
246
False
Where does an officer in the USAF wear their rank insignia?
57310deca5e9cc1400cdbbfc
pinned onto the coat
766
False
The first USAF dress uniform, in 1947, was dubbed and patented "Uxbridge Blue" after "Uxbridge 1683 Blue", developed at the former Bachman-Uxbridge Worsted Company. The current Service Dress Uniform, which was adopted in 1993 and standardized in 1995, consists of a three-button, pocketless coat, similar to that of a men's "sport jacket" (with silver "U.S." pins on the lapels, with a silver ring surrounding on those of enlisted members), matching trousers, and either a service cap or flight cap, all in Shade 1620, "Air Force Blue" (a darker purplish-blue). This is worn with a light blue shirt (Shade 1550) and Shade 1620 herringbone patterned necktie. Enlisted members wear sleeve insignia on both the jacket and shirt, while officers wear metal rank insignia pinned onto the coat, and Air Force Blue slide-on epaulet loops on the shirt. USAF personnel assigned to Base Honor Guard duties wear, for certain occasions, a modified version of the standard service dress uniform, but with silver trim on the sleeves and trousers, with the addition of a ceremonial belt (if necessary), wheel cap with silver trim and Hap Arnold Device, and a silver aiguillette placed on the left shoulder seam and all devices and accoutrement.
What is worn by USAF members to indicate a billet assignment?
57310ecc497a881900248b59
various badges
39
False
What else can Badges be used to designate in the USAF?
57310ecc497a881900248b5a
merit-based or service-based awards
181
False
What is one of the types of Authorized Badges in the USAF?
57310ecc497a881900248b5b
Shields of USAF Fire Protection
328
False
When is the special "pocket rocket" badge given to USAF personnel working in a missile system operation?
57310ecc497a881900248b5c
at least one year
523
False
In addition to basic uniform clothing, various badges are used by the USAF to indicate a billet assignment or qualification-level for a given assignment. Badges can also be used as merit-based or service-based awards. Over time, various badges have been discontinued and are no longer distributed. Authorized badges include the Shields of USAF Fire Protection, and Security Forces, and the Missile Badge (or "pocket rocket"), which is earned after working in a missile system maintenance or missile operations capacity for at least one year.
USAF Officers can be commissioned after graduation from what school?
573112da05b4da19006bcd44
United States Air Force Academy
54
False
What is another program that allows officers to become commissioned in the USAF?
573112da05b4da19006bcd45
Air Force Officer Training School
224
False
Where is the OTS in the US currently located?
573112da05b4da19006bcd46
Maxwell Air Force Base in Montgomery, Alabama
338
False
How many commissioning programs does the OTS offer the USAF?
573112da05b4da19006bcd47
two
416
False
What is a line officer in the USAF?
573112da05b4da19006bcd48
concept of the line of battle and refers to an officer whose role falls somewhere within the "Line of the Air"
730
False
Officers may be commissioned upon graduation from the United States Air Force Academy, upon graduation from another college or university through the Air Force Reserve Officer Training Corps (AFROTC) program, or through the Air Force Officer Training School (OTS). OTS, previously located at Lackland AFB, Texas until 1993 and located at Maxwell Air Force Base in Montgomery, Alabama since 1993, in turn encompasses two separate commissioning programs: Basic Officer Training (BOT), which is for line-officer candidates of the active-duty Air Force and the U.S. Air Force Reserve; and the Academy of Military Science (AMS), which is for line-officer candidates of the Air National Guard. (The term "line officer" derives from the concept of the line of battle and refers to an officer whose role falls somewhere within the "Line of the Air", meaning combat or combat-support operations within the scope of legitimate combatants as defined by the Geneva Conventions.)
What does the Air Force provide for officers of direct to non-line positions?
5731138fe6313a140071cbf8
Commissioned Officer Training
28
False
What fields of study in the COT are included in this area of the USAF?
5731138fe6313a140071cbf9
medicine, law, religion, biological sciences, or healthcare administration
179
False
What is an example of the coursework now offered in the COT in the USAF?
5731138fe6313a140071cbfa
deployed-environment operations
533
False
The Air Force also provides Commissioned Officer Training (COT) for officers of all three components who are direct-commissioned to non-line positions due to their credentials in medicine, law, religion, biological sciences, or healthcare administration. Originally viewed as a "knife and fork school" that covered little beyond basic wear of the uniform, COT in recent years has been fully integrated into the OTS program and today encompasses extensive coursework as well as field exercises in leadership, confidence, fitness, and deployed-environment operations.
What test is designed to test the fitness of airmen in the USAF?
5731148c05b4da19006bcd6a
US Air Force Fitness Test
4
False
What is the more strict program that the USAF adopted in 2010 called?
5731148c05b4da19006bcd6b
Fit to Fight program
191
False
How long is the run that the USAF airmen are tested on for the fitness program?
5731148c05b4da19006bcd6c
1.5-mile
574
False
What is a passing score on the US Air Force Fitness Test?
5731148c05b4da19006bcd6d
75 points
763
False
What score must an airman get on the US Air Force Fitness test to be able to opt out of one of the mandatory twice a year retests?
5731148c05b4da19006bcd6e
90%
961
False
The US Air Force Fitness Test (AFFT) is designed to test the abdominal circumference, muscular strength/endurance and cardiovascular respiratory fitness of airmen in the USAF. As part of the Fit to Fight program, the USAF adopted a more stringent physical fitness assessment; the new fitness program was put into effect on 1 June 2010. The annual ergo-cycle test which the USAF had used for several years had been replaced in 2004. In the AFFT, Airmen are given a score based on performance consisting of four components: waist circumference, the sit-up, the push-up, and a 1.5-mile (2.4 km) run. Airmen can potentially earn a score of 100, with the run counting as 60%, waist circumference as 20%, and both strength test counting as 10% each. A passing score is 75 points. Effective 1 July 2010, the AFFT is administered by the base Fitness Assessment Cell (FAC), and is required twice a year. Personnel may test once a year if he or she earns a score above a 90%. Additionally, only meeting the minimum standards on each one of these tests will not get you a passing score of 75%, and failing any one component will result in a failure for the entire test.
What are the ground-attack aircraft in the USAF usually deployed in support for?
57311e12a5e9cc1400cdbc37
U.S. ground forces
154
False
What does the closeness to friendly troops require of these US Air Force aircraft?
57311e12a5e9cc1400cdbc38
precision strikes
215
False
What part of a battle line are the precision strike aircraft of the USAF deployed?
57311e12a5e9cc1400cdbc39
front of the battle
440
False
What type of aircraft is not appropriate to be used in close proximity of US ground troops?
57311e12a5e9cc1400cdbc3a
bomber aircraft
280
False
The ground-attack aircraft of the USAF are designed to attack targets on the ground and are often deployed as close air support for, and in proximity to, U.S. ground forces. The proximity to friendly forces require precision strikes from these aircraft that are not possible with bomber aircraft listed below. They are typically deployed as close air support to ground forces, their role is tactical rather than strategic, operating at the front of the battle rather than against targets deeper in the enemy's rear.
What are most attack aircraft in the US Air Force designed to do?
57311f3905b4da19006bcdc2
drop bombs
212
False
What type of USAF aircraft is designed for long range airstrike attacks?
57311f3905b4da19006bcdc3
bomber
471
False
What types of aircraft are typically limited to close proximity of battlefield conflict by the USAF?
57311f3905b4da19006bcdc4
fighter bombers and attack aircraft
578
False
What increases the radius of combat missions by the US Air Force?
57311f3905b4da19006bcdc5
aerial refueling
760
False
What countries utilize strategic bomber aircraft in their missions?
57311f3905b4da19006bcdc6
US, Russia, and the People's Republic of China
849
False
In the US Air Force, the distinction between bombers, fighters that are actually fighter-bombers, and attack aircraft has become blurred. Many attack aircraft, even ones that look like fighters, are optimized to drop bombs, with very little ability to engage in aerial combat. Many fighter aircraft, such as the F-16, are often used as 'bomb trucks', despite being designed for aerial combat. Perhaps the one meaningful distinction at present is the question of range: a bomber is generally a long-range aircraft capable of striking targets deep within enemy territory, whereas fighter bombers and attack aircraft are limited to 'theater' missions in and around the immediate area of battlefield combat. Even that distinction is muddied by the availability of aerial refueling, which greatly increases the potential radius of combat operations. The US, Russia, and the People's Republic of China operate strategic bombers.
When did the B-2A aircraft enter into service of the US Air Force?
573126bbe6313a140071cc90
1990s
51
False
When did the USAF introduce the B-1B aircraft?
573126bbe6313a140071cc91
1980s
83
False
What aircraft in the USAF was introduced in the 1960s?
573126bbe6313a140071cc92
B-52H
105
False
How long is the B-52H scheduled to remain in service of the USAF?
573126bbe6313a140071cc93
30 years
352
False
What aircraft is scheduled to replace the B-52 in the USAF?
573126bbe6313a140071cc94
B-21
481
False
The service's B-2A aircraft entered service in the 1990s, its B-1B aircraft in the 1980s and its current B-52H aircraft in the early 1960s. The B-52 Stratofortress airframe design is over 60 years old and the B-52H aircraft currently in the active inventory were all built between 1960 and 1962. The B-52H is scheduled to remain in service for another 30 years, which would keep the airframe in service for nearly 90 years, an unprecedented length of service for any aircraft. The B-21 is projected to replace the B-52 and parts of the B-1B force by the mid-2020s.
What type of aircraft is used to deliver troops and weapons to military operations?
573127e1e6313a140071cc9a
Cargo and transport
0
False
What aircraft are considered the workhorses of the US Air Force?
573127e1e6313a140071cc9b
C-130 Hercules, C-17 Globemaster III, and C-5 Galaxy
311
False
The CV-22 aircraft is used by what section of the USAF?
573127e1e6313a140071cc9c
U.S. Special Operations Command
627
False
What aircraft offers Antarctic Support to the US Air Force?
573127e1e6313a140071cc9d
LC-130H
904
False
What did the USAF use the WC-130H aircraft for before they converted them for transport missions?
573127e1e6313a140071cc9e
weather reconnaissance aircraft
995
False
Cargo and transport aircraft are typically used to deliver troops, weapons and other military equipment by a variety of methods to any area of military operations around the world, usually outside of the commercial flight routes in uncontrolled airspace. The workhorses of the USAF Air Mobility Command are the C-130 Hercules, C-17 Globemaster III, and C-5 Galaxy. These aircraft are largely defined in terms of their range capability as strategic airlift (C-5), strategic/tactical (C-17), and tactical (C-130) airlift to reflect the needs of the land forces they most often support. The CV-22 is used by the Air Force for the U.S. Special Operations Command (USSOCOM). It conducts long-range, special operations missions, and is equipped with extra fuel tanks and terrain-following radar. Some aircraft serve specialized transportation roles such as executive/embassy support (C-12), Antarctic Support (LC-130H), and USSOCOM support (C-27J, C-145A, and C-146A). The WC-130H aircraft are former weather reconnaissance aircraft, now reverted to the transport mission.
What is the purpose of electronic warfare?
5731450de6313a140071cda0
deny the opponent an advantage in the EMS
40
False
What nickname is given to Electronic warfare aircraft?
5731450de6313a140071cda1
The Eye in the Sky
321
False
What does the USAF use Electronic warfare aircraft for?
5731450de6313a140071cda2
to keep airspaces friendly, and send critical information to anyone who needs it
216
False
What is the EC-130H used for by the US Air Force?
5731450de6313a140071cda3
Electronic Warfare/Jamming
421
False
What does the USAF use the E-4B aircraft for?
5731450de6313a140071cda4
Airborne Command Post
552
False
The purpose of electronic warfare is to deny the opponent an advantage in the EMS and ensure friendly, unimpeded access to the EM spectrum portion of the information environment. Electronic warfare aircraft are used to keep airspaces friendly, and send critical information to anyone who needs it. They are often called "The Eye in the Sky." The roles of the aircraft vary greatly among the different variants to include Electronic Warfare/Jamming (EC-130H), Psychological Operations/Communications (EC-130J), Airborne Early Warning and Control (E-3), Airborne Command Post (E-4B), ground targeting radar (E-8C), range control (E-9A), and communications relay (E-11A)
What is the primary function of the USAF fighter aircraft?
57314737497a881900248d3b
air-to-air combat
104
False
What is the name of a type of dual purpose fighter-bomber aircraft used by the US Air Force?
57314737497a881900248d3c
F-16 Fighting Falcon
243
False
What aircraft is used by the US Air Demonstration group The Thunderbirds?
57314737497a881900248d3d
F-16
458
False
What kind of aircraft is utilized by the USAF in Full Scale Aerial Targets?
57314737497a881900248d3e
F-4 Phantom II
596
False
What are the QF-4 aircraft being replaced by the US Air Force?
57314737497a881900248d3f
early model F-16 aircraft converted to QF-16 configuration
799
False
The fighter aircraft of the USAF are small, fast, and maneuverable military aircraft primarily used for air-to-air combat. Many of these fighters have secondary ground-attack capabilities, and some are dual-roled as fighter-bombers (e.g., the F-16 Fighting Falcon); the term "fighter" is also sometimes used colloquially for dedicated ground-attack aircraft. Other missions include interception of bombers and other fighters, reconnaissance, and patrol. The F-16 is currently used by the USAF Air Demonstration squadron, the Thunderbirds, while a small number of both man-rated and non-man-rated F-4 Phantom II are retained as QF-4 aircraft for use as Full Scale Aerial Targets (FSAT) or as part of the USAF Heritage Flight program. These extant QF-4 aircraft are being replaced in the FSAT role by early model F-16 aircraft converted to QF-16 configuration. The USAF has 2,025 fighters in service as of September 2012.
What kind of aircraft is the USAF's KC-135?
57314807497a881900248d45
aerial refueling aircraft
28
False
How does the aerial refueling aircraft supply fuel during flight?
57314807497a881900248d46
tail-mounted refueling boom
152
False
When is air-to-air refueling primarily used by the US Air Force?
57314807497a881900248d47
large-scale operations
288
False
What aircraft will be available for use by the US Air Force in 2017?
57314807497a881900248d48
KC-46A Pegasus
551
False
The USAF's KC-135 and KC-10 aerial refueling aircraft are based on civilian jets. The USAF aircraft are equipped primarily for providing the fuel via a tail-mounted refueling boom, and can be equipped with "probe and drogue" refueling systems. Air-to-air refueling is extensively used in large-scale operations and also used in normal operations; fighters, bombers, and cargo aircraft rely heavily on the lesser-known "tanker" aircraft. This makes these aircraft an essential part of the Air Force's global mobility and the U.S. force projection. The KC-46A Pegasus is undergoing testing and is projected to be delivered to USAF units starting in 2017.
What US Secretary of Defense accepted resignations of top US Air Force officials in June of 2009?
57314c7c05b4da19006bcffc
Robert Gates
95
False
What US Secretary of the Air Force resigned following a nuclear weapons problem ?
57314c7c05b4da19006bcffd
Michael Wynne
177
False
Who was appointed to the Chief of Staff of the Air Force following Mosley's resignation?
57314c7c05b4da19006bcffe
General Norton A. Schwartz
280
False
What newspaper reported on Schwartz's dismantlement of the US Air Force's class system?
57314c7c05b4da19006bcfff
The Washington Post
472
False
In response to the 2007 United States Air Force nuclear weapons incident, Secretary of Defense Robert Gates accepted in June 2009 the resignations of Secretary of the Air Force Michael Wynne and the Chief of Staff of the Air Force General T. Michael Moseley. Moseley's successor, General Norton A. Schwartz, a former tactical airlift and special operations pilot was the first officer appointed to that position who did not have a background as a fighter or bomber pilot. The Washington Post reported in 2010 that General Schwartz began to dismantle the rigid class system of the USAF, particularly in the officer corps.
What author wrote about the US Air Force egalitarian culture?
57314e60a5e9cc1400cdbe49
Major General Charles J. Dunlap, Jr.
160
False
How does the US Air Force differ from other branches of the military?
57314e60a5e9cc1400cdbe4a
an organization in which mostly its officers fought
734
False
How have the enlisted forces of the US Air Force been seen?
57314e60a5e9cc1400cdbe4b
primarily a rear echelon support force
828
False
Daniel L. Magruder, Jr defines USAF culture as a combination of the rigorous application of advanced technology, individualism and progressive airpower theory. Major General Charles J. Dunlap, Jr. adds that the U.S. Air Force's culture also includes an egalitarianism bred from officers perceiving themselves as their service's principal "warriors" working with small groups of enlisted airmen either as the service crew or the onboard crew of their aircraft. Air Force officers have never felt they needed the formal social "distance" from their enlisted force that is common in the other U.S. armed services. Although the paradigm is changing, for most of its history, the Air Force, completely unlike its sister services, has been an organization in which mostly its officers fought, not its enlisted force, the latter being primarily a rear echelon support force. When the enlisted force did go into harm's way, such as members of multi-crewed aircraft, the close comradeship of shared risk in tight quarters created traditions that shaped a somewhat different kind of officer/enlisted relationship than exists elsewhere in the military.
What is the reason for the shortage of UAV operators in the US Air Force?
57314fe6497a881900248db7
Cultural and career issues
0
False
During what war the the USAF establish a new career field for piloting UAVs and drones?
57314fe6497a881900248db8
Iraq War
243
False
Why did the USAF change its training methods on UAVs in 2014?
57314fe6497a881900248db9
large aircraft losses in training
417
False
What branch of the US Military does a cultural divide prevent the US Air Force from adopting their drone protocols?
57314fe6497a881900248dba
US Army
596
False
Cultural and career issues in the U.S. Air Force have been cited as one of the reasons for the shortfall in needed UAV operators. In spite of an urgent need for UAVs or drones to provide round the clock coverage for American troops during the Iraq War, the USAF did not establish a new career field for piloting them until the last year of that war and in 2014 changed its RPA training syllabus again, in the face of large aircraft losses in training, and in response to a GAO report critical of handling of drone programs. Paul Scharre has reported that the cultural divide between the USAF and US Army has kept both services from adopting each other's drone handing innovations.
Where did some of the US Air Force traditions come from?
573156ffe6313a140071ce3a
Royal Air Force
104
False
What traditions does the US Air Force have?
573156ffe6313a140071ce3b
"Friday Name Tags" in flying units
324
False
What organization did the US Air Force adopt "Challenge Coins" from?
573156ffe6313a140071ce3c
U.S. Army
468
False
What does the roof stomp tradition signify in the US Air Force?
573156ffe6313a140071ce3d
welcome a new commander or to commemorate another event, such as a retirement
590
False
Many of the U.S. Air Force's formal and informal traditions are an amalgamation of those taken from the Royal Air Force (e.g., dining-ins/mess nights) or the experiences of its predecessor organizations such as the U.S. Army Air Service, U.S. Army Air Corps and the U.S. Army Air Forces. Some of these traditions range from "Friday Name Tags" in flying units to an annual "Mustache Month." The use of "challenge coins" is a recent innovation that was adopted from the U.S. Army while another cultural tradition unique to the Air Force is the "roof stomp", practiced by Air Force members to welcome a new commander or to commemorate another event, such as a retirement.
What was a recent US Air Force recruiting slogan?
573158b9e6313a140071ce56
"No One Comes Close"
74
False
What does the USAF slogan Uno Ab Alto mean?
573158b9e6313a140071ce57
"One From On High"
112
False
What is the most recent US Air Force recruitment slogan in October 2010?
573158b9e6313a140071ce58
"Aim high" followed with the response, "Fly-Fight-Win"
407
False
Where can individual each USAF wing, group or squadrons individual motto be found?
573158b9e6313a140071ce59
wing, group, or squadron websites
573
False
The United States Air Force has had numerous recruiting slogans including "No One Comes Close" and Uno Ab Alto ("One From On High"). For many years, the U.S. Air Force used "Aim High" as its recruiting slogan; more recently, they have used "Cross into the Blue", "We've been waiting for you" and "Do Something Amazing", "Above All", and the newest one, as of 7 October 2010, considered a call and response, "Aim high" followed with the response, "Fly-Fight-Win" Each wing, group, or squadron usually has its own slogan(s). Information and logos can usually be found on the wing, group, or squadron websites.
Light-emitting_diode
What type of atmosphere can LED lighting be used?
5730c0c0396df9190009631e
environmental
54
False
What is an advantage to using LED lighting over the normal light sources?
5730c0c0396df9190009631f
longer lifetime
181
False
What does LED stand for?
5730c0c0396df91900096320
Light-emitting diodes
264
False
Why are some people hesitant to use LED lighting?
5730c0c0396df91900096321
more expensive
531
False
What is a popular use for LED lighting?
5730c0c0396df91900096322
traffic signals
401
False
environmental
54
What type of atmosphere can't LED lighting be used?
5ad18e7a645df0001a2d1f1c
True
longer lifetime
181
What is an advantage to using non-LED lighting over the normal light sources?
5ad18e7a645df0001a2d1f1d
True
Light-emitting diodes
264
What does LEED stand for?
5ad18e7a645df0001a2d1f1e
True
more expensive
531
Why aren't some people hesitant to use LED lighting?
5ad18e7a645df0001a2d1f1f
True
more precise
559
What is a popular use for non-LED lighting?
5ad18e7a645df0001a2d1f20
True
Recent developments in LEDs permit them to be used in environmental and task lighting. LEDs have many advantages over incandescent light sources including lower energy consumption, longer lifetime, improved physical robustness, smaller size, and faster switching. Light-emitting diodes are now used in applications as diverse as aviation lighting, automotive headlamps, advertising, general lighting, traffic signals, camera flashes and lighted wallpaper. As of 2015[update], LEDs powerful enough for room lighting remain somewhat more expensive, and require more precise current and heat management, than compact fluorescent lamp sources of comparable output.
LED lighting is the end result of what phenomenon?
5730c1d7069b531400832311
Electroluminescence
0
False
When was Electroluminescence discovered?
5730c1d7069b531400832312
1907
54
False
What was the nationality of the man who discovered Electroluminescence?
5730c1d7069b531400832313
British
66
False
What type of detector did H.J. Round use to help him in his discovery?
5730c1d7069b531400832314
cat's-whisker
157
False
Who is the Soviet man that created the first LED?
5730c1d7069b531400832315
Oleg Losev
197
False
Electroluminescence
0
LED lighting is the beginning result of what phenomenon?
5ad18eac645df0001a2d1f26
True
1907
54
When was non-Electroluminescence discovered?
5ad18eac645df0001a2d1f27
True
British
66
What was the nationality of the woman who discovered Electroluminescence?
5ad18eac645df0001a2d1f28
True
cat's-whisker
157
What type of light did H.J. Round use to help him in his discovery?
5ad18eac645df0001a2d1f29
True
Oleg Losev
197
Who is the Soviet man that created the second LED?
5ad18eac645df0001a2d1f2a
True
Electroluminescence as a phenomenon was discovered in 1907 by the British experimenter H. J. Round of Marconi Labs, using a crystal of silicon carbide and a cat's-whisker detector. Soviet inventor Oleg Losev reported creation of the first LED in 1927. His research was distributed in Soviet, German and British scientific journals, but no practical use was made of the discovery for several decades. Kurt Lehovec, Carl Accardo and Edward Jamgochian, explained these first light-emitting diodes in 1951 using an apparatus employing SiC crystals with a current source of battery or pulse generator and with a comparison to a variant, pure, crystal in 1953.
What year was it discovered that early LED instruments could be used for non-radio communication?
5730c3e8f6cb411900e24474
1957
3
False
Who discovered non-radio uses for early LED devices?
5730c3e8f6cb411900e24475
Kroemer Braunstein
149
False
The current in non-radio communication had to go through what type of component?
5730c3e8f6cb411900e24476
a GaAs diode
325
False
What other component was needed to detect the first current of a non-radio signal?
5730c3e8f6cb411900e24477
a PbS diode
373
False
What final device was needed to hear the signal from the initial GaAs diode?
5730c3e8f6cb411900e24478
audio amplifier
433
False
1957
3
What year was it discovered that early LED instruments could be used for radio communication?
5ad18ee6645df0001a2d1f30
True
Kroemer Braunstein
149
Who discovered radio uses for early LED devices?
5ad18ee6645df0001a2d1f31
True
GaAs diode
327
The current in radio communication had to go through what type of component?
5ad18ee6645df0001a2d1f32
True
PbS diode
375
What other component was needed to detect the second current of a radio signal?
5ad18ee6645df0001a2d1f33
True
audio amplifier
433
What first device was needed to hear the signal from the initial GaAs diode?
5ad18ee6645df0001a2d1f34
True
In 1957, Braunstein further demonstrated that the rudimentary devices could be used for non-radio communication across a short distance. As noted by Kroemer Braunstein".. had set up a simple optical communications link: Music emerging from a record player was used via suitable electronics to modulate the forward current of a GaAs diode. The emitted light was detected by a PbS diode some distance away. This signal was fed into an audio amplifier, and played back by a loudspeaker. Intercepting the beam stopped the music. We had a great deal of fun playing with this setup." This setup presaged the use of LEDs for optical communication applications.
In what state what near-infrared light emission discovered?
5730c541f6cb411900e2447e
Texas
65
False
What type of diode was used to help discover near-infrared light emission?
5730c541f6cb411900e2447f
tunnel
160
False
In what year was the patent filed for the Semiconductor Radiant Diode?
5730c541f6cb411900e24480
1962
412
False
What was the first practical LED?
5730c541f6cb411900e24481
GaAs infrared (IR) light-emitting diode
917
False
The two inventors of the first practical diode were employed by what famous company?
5730c541f6cb411900e24482
Texas Instruments (TI)
1044
False
Texas
36
In what state what not-infrared light emission discovered?
5ad18f20645df0001a2d1f44
True
tunnel
160
What type of diode was used to help discover non-infrared light emission?
5ad18f20645df0001a2d1f45
True
1962
412
In what year was the patent filed for the non-Semiconductor Radiant Diode?
5ad18f20645df0001a2d1f46
True
GaAs infrared
917
What was the first non-practical LED?
5ad18f20645df0001a2d1f47
True
Texas Instruments
36
The two inventors of the first practical non-diode were employed by what famous company?
5ad18f20645df0001a2d1f48
True
In September 1961, while working at Texas Instruments in Dallas, Texas, James R. Biard and Gary Pittman discovered near-infrared (900 nm) light emission from a tunnel diode they had constructed on a GaAs substrate. By October 1961, they had demonstrated efficient light emission and signal coupling between a GaAs p-n junction light emitter and an electrically-isolated semiconductor photodetector. On August 8, 1962, Biard and Pittman filed a patent titled "Semiconductor Radiant Diode" based on their findings, which described a zinc diffused p–n junction LED with a spaced cathode contact to allow for efficient emission of infrared light under forward bias. After establishing the priority of their work based on engineering notebooks predating submissions from G.E. Labs, RCA Research Labs, IBM Research Labs, Bell Labs, and Lincoln Lab at MIT, the U.S. patent office issued the two inventors the patent for the GaAs infrared (IR) light-emitting diode (U.S. Patent US3293513), the first practical LED. Immediately after filing the patent, Texas Instruments (TI) began a project to manufacture infrared diodes. In October 1962, TI announced the first LED commercial product (the SNX-100), which employed a pure GaAs crystal to emit a 890 nm light output. In October 1963, TI announced the first commercial hemispherical LED, the SNX-110.
At what global company was the first visible-spectrum LED developed?
5730c6cbf6cb411900e24488
General Electric Company
99
False
What GE employee developed the visible-spectrum LED?
5730c6cbf6cb411900e24489
Nick Holonyak, Jr.
62
False
What color is associated with the visible-spectrum LED?
5730c6cbf6cb411900e2448a
red
28
False
What color LED was later created in 1972?
5730c6cbf6cb411900e2448b
yellow
298
False
What graduate student of Holonyak created the yellow LED?
5730c6cbf6cb411900e2448c
M. George Craford
221
False
General Electric Company
99
At what global company was the first non-visible-spectrum LED developed?
5ad18f59645df0001a2d1f58
True
Nick Holonyak, Jr.
62
What GE employee developed the non-visible-spectrum LED?
5ad18f59645df0001a2d1f59
True
red
28
What color is associated with the non-visible-spectrum LED?
5ad18f59645df0001a2d1f5a
True
yellow
298
What color non-LED was later created in 1972?
5ad18f59645df0001a2d1f5b
True
M. George Craford
221
What graduate student of Holonyak created the yellow non-LED?
5ad18f59645df0001a2d1f5c
True
The first visible-spectrum (red) LED was developed in 1962 by Nick Holonyak, Jr., while working at General Electric Company. Holonyak first reported his LED in the journal Applied Physics Letters on the December 1, 1962. M. George Craford, a former graduate student of Holonyak, invented the first yellow LED and improved the brightness of red and red-orange LEDs by a factor of ten in 1972. In 1976, T. P. Pearsall created the first high-brightness, high-efficiency LEDs for optical fiber telecommunications by inventing new semiconductor materials specifically adapted to optical fiber transmission wavelengths.
What was the first commercial uses of LEDs?
5730c888aca1c71400fe5ab7
replacements for incandescent and neon indicator lamps
48
False
How much did the early LEDs cost?
5730c888aca1c71400fe5ab8
US$200 per unit
409
False
What was one use of early LED light in products?
5730c888aca1c71400fe5ab9
calculators
853
False
What modern company introduced LEDs in 1968?
5730c888aca1c71400fe5aba
Hewlett Packard (HP)
631
False
In what decade were production costs greatly reduced for LEDs to enable successful commercial uses?
5730c888aca1c71400fe5abb
1970s
1041
False
replacements for incandescent and neon indicator lamps
48
What was the first commercial uses of non-LEDs?
5ad18fa2645df0001a2d1f62
True
$200 per unit
411
How much did the early non-LEDs cost?
5ad18fa2645df0001a2d1f63
True
calculators
273
What was one use of early non-LED light in products?
5ad18fa2645df0001a2d1f64
True
Hewlett Packard
631
What modern company introduced non-LEDs in 1968?
5ad18fa2645df0001a2d1f65
True
1970s
1041
In what decade were production costs greatly reduced for non-LEDs to enable successful commercial uses?
5ad18fa2645df0001a2d1f66
True
The first commercial LEDs were commonly used as replacements for incandescent and neon indicator lamps, and in seven-segment displays, first in expensive equipment such as laboratory and electronics test equipment, then later in such appliances as TVs, radios, telephones, calculators, as well as watches (see list of signal uses). Until 1968, visible and infrared LEDs were extremely costly, in the order of US$200 per unit, and so had little practical use. The Monsanto Company was the first organization to mass-produce visible LEDs, using gallium arsenide phosphide (GaAsP) in 1968 to produce red LEDs suitable for indicators. Hewlett Packard (HP) introduced LEDs in 1968, initially using GaAsP supplied by Monsanto. These red LEDs were bright enough only for use as indicators, as the light output was not enough to illuminate an area. Readouts in calculators were so small that plastic lenses were built over each digit to make them legible. Later, other colors became widely available and appeared in appliances and equipment. In the 1970s commercially successful LED devices at less than five cents each were produced by Fairchild Optoelectronics. These devices employed compound semiconductor chips fabricated with the planar process invented by Dr. Jean Hoerni at Fairchild Semiconductor. The combination of planar processing for chip fabrication and innovative packaging methods enabled the team at Fairchild led by optoelectronics pioneer Thomas Brandt to achieve the needed cost reductions. These methods continue to be used by LED producers.
What color LED was demonstrated in 1994?
5730f39205b4da19006bcc7e
blue
26
False
Who demonstrated the first blue LED?
5730f39205b4da19006bcc7f
Shuji Nakamura
55
False
What did Nakamura, Akasaki, and Amano receive for their work?
5730f39205b4da19006bcc80
2014 Nobel prize in physics
350
False
Who investigated the efficiency of high-brightness LED at Cardiff University in 1995?
5730f39205b4da19006bcc81
Alberto Barbieri
403
False
What substance did Barbieri use in his work with high-brightness LED?
5730f39205b4da19006bcc82
indium tin oxide
581
False
blue
26
What color non-LED was demonstrated in 1994?
5ad18fe7645df0001a2d1f74
True
Shuji Nakamura
55
Who demonstrated the first red LED?
5ad18fe7645df0001a2d1f75
True
2014 Nobel prize
350
What did Nakamura, Akasaki, and Amano receive for their study?
5ad18fe7645df0001a2d1f76
True
Alberto Barbieri
403
Who investigated the efficiency of low-brightness LED at Cardiff University in 1995?
5ad18fe7645df0001a2d1f77
True
indium tin oxide
581
What substance did Barbieri use in his work with low-brightness LED?
5ad18fe7645df0001a2d1f78
True
The first high-brightness blue LED was demonstrated by Shuji Nakamura of Nichia Corporation in 1994 and was based on InGaN. In parallel, Isamu Akasaki and Hiroshi Amano in Nagoya were working on developing the important GaN nucleation on sapphire substrates and the demonstration of p-type doping of GaN. Nakamura, Akasaki and Amano were awarded the 2014 Nobel prize in physics for their work. In 1995, Alberto Barbieri at the Cardiff University Laboratory (GB) investigated the efficiency and reliability of high-brightness LEDs and demonstrated a "transparent contact" LED using indium tin oxide (ITO) on (AlGaInP/GaAs).
What LED quickly followed the blue LEDs?
5730f4c0497a881900248aad
white
100
False
What does the YAG phosphor coating produce?
5730f4c0497a881900248aaf
yellow light
239
False
white
100
What LED quickly followed the red LEDs?
5ad1900e645df0001a2d1f7e
True
yellow light
239
What does the YAG phosphor coating not produce?
5ad1900e645df0001a2d1f80
True
The attainment of high efficiency in blue LEDs was quickly followed by the development of the first white LED. In this device a Y 3Al 5O 12:Ce (known as "YAG") phosphor coating on the emitter absorbs some of the blue emission and produces yellow light through fluorescence. The combination of that yellow with remaining blue light appears white to the eye. However using different phosphors (fluorescent materials) it also became possible to instead produce green and red light through fluorescence. The resulting mixture of red, green and blue is not only perceived by humans as white light but is superior for illumination in terms of color rendering, whereas one cannot appreciate the color of red or green objects illuminated only by the yellow (and remaining blue) wavelengths from the YAG phosphor.
What converts absorbed light energy into an electric current?
5730f7c9e6313a140071cb0c
P-N junction
2
False
What is the phenomenon where a P-N junction emits light when an electrical current is applied to it?
5730f7c9e6313a140071cb0d
electroluminescence
234
False
Where are the free electrons located in the production of electroluminescence?
5730f7c9e6313a140071cb0e
the conduction band
546
False
Whose energy levels are lower than the electrons in the electroluminescence process?
5730f7c9e6313a140071cb0f
holes existing in the P-region
492
False
Why is some energy in the electroluminescence process emitted as heat and light?
5730f7c9e6313a140071cb10
to recombine the electrons and the holes
774
False
P-N junction
2
What converts absorbed light energy into an non-electric current?
5ad1904f645df0001a2d1f84
True
electroluminescence
234
What is the phenomenon where a P-N junction emits light when a non-electrical current is applied to it?
5ad1904f645df0001a2d1f85
True
conduction band
550
Where are the free electrons located in the production of non-electroluminescence?
5ad1904f645df0001a2d1f86
True
holes existing in the P-region
492
Whose energy levels are lower than the non-electrons in the electroluminescence process?
5ad1904f645df0001a2d1f87
True
recombine the electrons and the holes
777
Why is some energy in the electroluminescence process emitted as heat and darkness?
5ad1904f645df0001a2d1f88
True
A P-N junction can convert absorbed light energy into a proportional electric current. The same process is reversed here (i.e. the P-N junction emits light when electrical energy is applied to it). This phenomenon is generally called electroluminescence, which can be defined as the emission of light from a semi-conductor under the influence of an electric field. The charge carriers recombine in a forward-biased P-N junction as the electrons cross from the N-region and recombine with the holes existing in the P-region. Free electrons are in the conduction band of energy levels, while holes are in the valence energy band. Thus the energy level of the holes will be lesser than the energy levels of the electrons. Some portion of the energy must be dissipated in order to recombine the electrons and the holes. This energy is emitted in the form of heat and light.
In what year was a new type of blue LED produced?
5730f8caa5e9cc1400cdbb55
2003
13
False
Who demonstrated in 2003 the new type of blue LED?
5730f8caa5e9cc1400cdbb56
Cree
62
False
How much more efficient as standard incandescents was the white LED commercially available in 2003?
5730f8caa5e9cc1400cdbb57
four times
270
False
What is the typical operating current for high-power LEDs?
5730f8caa5e9cc1400cdbb58
350 mA
888
False
2003
13
In what year was a new type of red LED produced?
5ad19089645df0001a2d1f8e
True
Cree
62
Who demonstrated in 2003 the new type of red LED?
5ad19089645df0001a2d1f8f
True
four times
270
How much more efficient as standard incandescents was the red LED commercially available in 2003?
5ad19089645df0001a2d1f90
True
350 mA
888
What is the typical operating current for low-power LEDs?
5ad19089645df0001a2d1f91
True
In September 2003, a new type of blue LED was demonstrated by Cree that consumes 24 mW at 20 milliamperes (mA). This produced a commercially packaged white light giving 65 lm/W at 20 mA, becoming the brightest white LED commercially available at the time, and more than four times as efficient as standard incandescents. In 2006, they demonstrated a prototype with a record white LED luminous efficacy of 131 lm/W at 20 mA. Nichia Corporation has developed a white LED with luminous efficacy of 150 lm/W at a forward current of 20 mA. Cree's XLamp XM-L LEDs, commercially available in 2011, produce 100 lm/W at their full power of 10 W, and up to 160 lm/W at around 2 W input power. In 2012, Cree announced a white LED giving 254 lm/W, and 303 lm/W in March 2014. Practical general lighting needs high-power LEDs, of one watt or more. Typical operating currents for such devices begin at 350 mA.
What is a symptom of LED failure?
5730fa4b05b4da19006bccae
loss of efficiency
101
False
What is rare in LED lighting?
5730fa4b05b4da19006bccaf
Sudden failures
121
False
What was notable in early red LEDs?
5730fa4b05b4da19006bccb0
their short service life
201
False
What could cause early light-output degradation in LEDs?
5730fa4b05b4da19006bccb1
higher junction temperatures
296
False
What is a classification used in LED lighting to describe how much usefulness it will receive?
5730fa4b05b4da19006bccb2
L70 or L50
558
False
loss of efficiency
101
What is a symptom of non-LED failure?
5ad190c3645df0001a2d1f9e
True
Sudden failures
121
What is rare in non-LED lighting?
5ad190c3645df0001a2d1f9f
True
short service life
207
What was notable in early white LEDs?
5ad190c3645df0001a2d1fa0
True
higher junction temperatures
296
What could cause early light-output degradation in non-LEDs?
5ad190c3645df0001a2d1fa1
True
L70 or L50
558
What is a classification used in non-LED lighting to describe how much usefulness it will receive?
5ad190c3645df0001a2d1fa2
True
The most common symptom of LED (and diode laser) failure is the gradual lowering of light output and loss of efficiency. Sudden failures, although rare, can also occur. Early red LEDs were notable for their short service life. With the development of high-power LEDs the devices are subjected to higher junction temperatures and higher current densities than traditional devices. This causes stress on the material and may cause early light-output degradation. To quantitatively classify useful lifetime in a standardized manner it has been suggested to use L70 or L50, which are the runtimes (typically given in thousands of hours) at which a given LED reaches 70% and 50% of initial light output, respectively.
LED efficacy is inversely proportional to what?
5730fb1b05b4da19006bccb8
operating temperature
48
False
Where is LED lighting very well suited?
5730fb1b05b4da19006bccb9
supermarket freezer
105
False
LEDs produce less waste heat than what other device?
5730fb1b05b4da19006bccba
incandescent lamps
177
False
What is LED lighting more susceptible to than incandescent light?
5730fb1b05b4da19006bccbb
frost
301
False
operating temperature
48
LED efficacy is not inversely proportional to what?
5ad190ec645df0001a2d1fa8
True
supermarket
105
Where is LED lighting not very well suited?
5ad190ec645df0001a2d1fa9
True
incandescent lamps
177
LEDs produce less waste cold than what other device?
5ad190ec645df0001a2d1faa
True
frost
301
What is non-LED lighting more susceptible to than incandescent light?
5ad190ec645df0001a2d1fab
True
Since LED efficacy is inversely proportional to operating temperature, LED technology is well suited for supermarket freezer lighting. Because LEDs produce less waste heat than incandescent lamps, their use in freezers can save on refrigeration costs as well. However, they may be more susceptible to frost and snow buildup than incandescent lamps, so some LED lighting systems have been designed with an added heating circuit. Additionally, research has developed heat sink technologies that will transfer heat produced within the junction to appropriate areas of the light fixture.
The first blue-violet LED was developed at what University?
5731085e497a881900248b1b
Stanford
76
False
When was the first blue-violet LED developed?
5731085e497a881900248b1c
1972
99
False
What students developed the first blue-violet LED?
5731085e497a881900248b1d
Herb Maruska and Wally Rhines
107
False
What substance helped demonstrate the first blue electroluminescence?
5731085e497a881900248b1e
zinc-doped gallium nitride
455
False
Stanford
76
The first red-violet LED was developed at what University?
5ad19124645df0001a2d1fba
True
1972
99
When was the first red-violet LED developed?
5ad19124645df0001a2d1fbb
True
Herb Maruska and Wally Rhines
107
What students developed the first red-violet LED?
5ad19124645df0001a2d1fbc
True
zinc-doped gallium nitride
455
What substance helped demonstrate the first red electroluminescence?
5ad19124645df0001a2d1fbd
True
The first blue-violet LED using magnesium-doped gallium nitride was made at Stanford University in 1972 by Herb Maruska and Wally Rhines, doctoral students in materials science and engineering. At the time Maruska was on leave from RCA Laboratories, where he collaborated with Jacques Pankove on related work. In 1971, the year after Maruska left for Stanford, his RCA colleagues Pankove and Ed Miller demonstrated the first blue electroluminescence from zinc-doped gallium nitride, though the subsequent device Pankove and Miller built, the first actual gallium nitride light-emitting diode, emitted green light. In 1974 the U.S. Patent Office awarded Maruska, Rhines and Stanford professor David Stevenson a patent for their work in 1972 (U.S. Patent US3819974 A) and today magnesium-doping of gallium nitride continues to be the basis for all commercial blue LEDs and laser diodes. These devices built in the early 1970s had too little light output to be of practical use and research into gallium nitride devices slowed. In August 1989, Cree introduced the first commercially available blue LED based on the indirect bandgap semiconductor, silicon carbide (SiC). SiC LEDs had very low efficiency, no more than about 0.03%, but did emit in the blue portion of the visible light spectrum.[citation needed]
In what decade were breakthroughs made that brought in the modern era of GaN-based optoelectronic devices?
57310d75497a881900248b47
1980s
12
False
Who first patented a method to produce high-brightness blue LEDs?
57310d75497a881900248b48
Shuji Nakamura
375
False
Who first invented a method to produce high-brightness blue LEDs?
57310d75497a881900248b49
Dr. Moustakas
173
False
What technology was made possible by high-power blue light sources?
57310d75497a881900248b4a
BlueRay
852
False
What is one modern gadget that benefits from high-power blue LED lighting?
57310d75497a881900248b4b
tablets
926
False
1980s
12
In what decade were breakthroughs made that brought in the ancient era of GaN-based optoelectronic devices?
5ad1915b645df0001a2d1fc2
True
Shuji Nakamura
375
Who first patented a method to produce high-brightness red LEDs?
5ad1915b645df0001a2d1fc3
True
Dr. Moustakas
484
Who first invented a method to produce high-brightness red LEDs?
5ad1915b645df0001a2d1fc4
True
BlueRay
852
What technology was made possible by low-power blue light sources?
5ad1915b645df0001a2d1fc5
True
tablets
926
What is one modern gadget that benefits from high-power red LED lighting?
5ad1915b645df0001a2d1fc6
True
In the late 1980s, key breakthroughs in GaN epitaxial growth and p-type doping ushered in the modern era of GaN-based optoelectronic devices. Building upon this foundation, Dr. Moustakas at Boston University patented a method for producing high-brightness blue LEDs using a new two-step process. Two years later, in 1993, high-brightness blue LEDs were demonstrated again by Shuji Nakamura of Nichia Corporation using a gallium nitride growth process similar to Dr. Moustakas's. Both Dr. Moustakas and Mr. Nakamura were issued separate patents, which confused the issue of who was the original inventor (partly because although Dr. Moustakas invented his first, Dr. Nakamura filed first).[citation needed] This new development revolutionized LED lighting, making high-power blue light sources practical, leading to the development of technologies like BlueRay, as well as allowing the bright high resolution screens of modern tablets and phones.[citation needed]
What Nobel Prize did Nakamura, Amano, and Akasaki receive in 2014?
573111b1e6313a140071cbe2
Physics
151
False
What award did Nakamura receive in 2006 for his invention?
573111b1e6313a140071cbe3
Millennium Technology Prize
30
False
How many companies did a judge say infringed on Dr. Moustakas's prior blue light patent in 2015?
573111b1e6313a140071cbe4
three
233
False
What was the fine given to the three companies?
573111b1e6313a140071cbe5
not less than 13 million USD
475
False
Physics
151
What Nobel Prize did Nakamura, Amano, and Akasaki receive in 2013?
5ad1918b645df0001a2d1fcc
True
Millennium Technology Prize
30
What award did Nakamura receive in 2016 for his invention?
5ad1918b645df0001a2d1fcd
True
three
233
How many companies did a judge say infringed on Dr. Moustakas's prior red light patent in 2015?
5ad1918b645df0001a2d1fce
True
13 million USD.
489
What was the fine given to the four companies?
5ad1918b645df0001a2d1fcf
True
Nakamura was awarded the 2006 Millennium Technology Prize for his invention. Nakamura, Hiroshi Amano and Isamu Akasaki were awarded the Nobel Prize in Physics in 2014 for the invention of the blue LED. In 2015, a US court ruled that three companies (i.e. the litigants who had not previously settled out of court) that had licensed Mr. Nakamura's patents for production in the United States had infringed Dr. Moustakas's prior patent, and order them to pay licensing fees of not less than 13 million USD.
What are cladding layers?
573112cae6313a140071cbf0
active region consisting of one or more InGaN quantum wells sandwiched between thicker layers of GaN
67
False
How can light emission be varied from violet to amber?
573112cae6313a140071cbf1
By varying the relative In/Ga fraction in the InGaN quantum wells
193
False
What does AlGaN stand for?
573112cae6313a140071cbf2
Aluminium gallium nitride
325
False
What LEDs are more efficient when produced from the InGaN/GaN systems than without?
573112cae6313a140071cbf3
Green
763
False
active region consisting of one or more InGaN quantum wells sandwiched between thicker layers of GaN
67
What are non-cladding layers?
5ad191b6645df0001a2d1fde
True
By varying the relative In/Ga fraction in the InGaN quantum wells, the light emission can in theory be varied from violet to amber
193
How can light emission be varied from red to amber?
5ad191b6645df0001a2d1fdf
True
Aluminium gallium nitride
325
What does AlGEaN stand for?
5ad191b6645df0001a2d1fe0
True
Green
763
What LEDs are more efficient when produced from the InEGaN/GaEN systems than without?
5ad191b6645df0001a2d1fe1
True
By the late 1990s, blue LEDs became widely available. They have an active region consisting of one or more InGaN quantum wells sandwiched between thicker layers of GaN, called cladding layers. By varying the relative In/Ga fraction in the InGaN quantum wells, the light emission can in theory be varied from violet to amber. Aluminium gallium nitride (AlGaN) of varying Al/Ga fraction can be used to manufacture the cladding and quantum well layers for ultraviolet LEDs, but these devices have not yet reached the level of efficiency and technological maturity of InGaN/GaN blue/green devices. If un-alloyed GaN is used in this case to form the active quantum well layers, the device will emit near-ultraviolet light with a peak wavelength centred around 365 nm. Green LEDs manufactured from the InGaN/GaN system are far more efficient and brighter than green LEDs produced with non-nitride material systems, but practical devices still exhibit efficiency too low for high-brightness applications.[citation needed]
What substance does nitrides contain?
573113d805b4da19006bcd56
aluminium
25
False
What sort of LEDs are becoming more available on the market?
573113d805b4da19006bcd57
Ultraviolet
107
False
What is the range of wavelengths for cheap UV LEDs?
573113d805b4da19006bcd58
375–395 nm
227
False
Shorter wavelength diodes provide wavelengths as low as what?
573113d805b4da19006bcd59
240 nm
531
False
What UV wavelengths are found in sterilization devices?
573113d805b4da19006bcd5a
250–270 nm
683
False
aluminium
25
What substance does nitrides not contain?
5ad191ec645df0001a2d1fe6
True
Ultraviolet
107
What sort of non-LEDs are becoming more available on the market?
5ad191ec645df0001a2d1fe7
True
375–395 nm
227
What is the range of wavelengths for cheap UV LEEDs?
5ad191ec645df0001a2d1fe8
True
240 nm
531
Longer wavelength diodes provide wavelengths as low as what?
5ad191ec645df0001a2d1fe9
True
250–270 nm
683
What UV wavelengths are found in non-sterilization devices?
5ad191ec645df0001a2d1fea
True
With nitrides containing aluminium, most often AlGaN and AlGaInN, even shorter wavelengths are achievable. Ultraviolet LEDs in a range of wavelengths are becoming available on the market. Near-UV emitters at wavelengths around 375–395 nm are already cheap and often encountered, for example, as black light lamp replacements for inspection of anti-counterfeiting UV watermarks in some documents and paper currencies. Shorter-wavelength diodes, while substantially more expensive, are commercially available for wavelengths down to 240 nm. As the photosensitivity of microorganisms approximately matches the absorption spectrum of DNA, with a peak at about 260 nm, UV LED emitting at 250–270 nm are to be expected in prospective disinfection and sterilization devices. Recent research has shown that commercially available UVA LEDs (365 nm) are already effective disinfection and sterilization devices. UV-C wavelengths were obtained in laboratories using aluminium nitride (210 nm), boron nitride (215 nm) and diamond (235 nm).
What colors are used to form white light?
5731151605b4da19006bcd74
red, green, and blue
97
False
What is the method called that mixes red, green, and blue colors to form white light?
5731151605b4da19006bcd75
multi-color white LEDs
152
False
What does the multi-color white LED method need to produce the end result?
5731151605b4da19006bcd76
electronic circuits
231
False
What is another name to reference the multi-color white LED method?
5731151605b4da19006bcd77
RGB LEDs
201
False
red, green, and blue
97
What colors are used to form red light?
5ad1921b645df0001a2d1ff0
True
multi-color white LEDs
152
What is the method called that mixes red, green, and blue colors to form blue light?
5ad1921b645df0001a2d1ff1
True
electronic circuits
231
What does the non-multi-color white LED method need to produce the end result?
5ad1921b645df0001a2d1ff2
True
RGB LEDs
201
What is another name to reference the solo-color white LED method?
5ad1921b645df0001a2d1ff3
True
White light can be formed by mixing differently colored lights; the most common method is to use red, green, and blue (RGB). Hence the method is called multi-color white LEDs (sometimes referred to as RGB LEDs). Because these need electronic circuits to control the blending and diffusion of different colors, and because the individual color LEDs typically have slightly different emission patterns (leading to variation of the color depending on direction) even if they are made as a single unit, these are seldom used to produce white lighting. Nonetheless, this method has many applications because of the flexibility of mixing different colors, and in principle, this mechanism also has higher quantum efficiency in producing white light.[citation needed]
What is one type of multi-color white LED?
5731162005b4da19006bcd7c
tetrachromatic
66
False
What is a factor that may be different in the various types of multi-color white LEDs?
5731162005b4da19006bcd7d
luminous efficacy
211
False
Higher efficiency in multi-color white LEDs may mean what?
5731162005b4da19006bcd7e
lower color rendering
265
False
What type has the best luminous efficacy?
5731162005b4da19006bcd7f
dichromatic white LEDs
379
False
What luminous efficacy does trichromatic white LEDs have?
5731162005b4da19006bcd80
>70 lm/W
692
False
tetrachromatic
66
What is one type of solo-color white LED?
5ad1926d645df0001a2d1ff8
True
luminous efficacy
211
What is a factor that may be different in the various types of multi-color red LEDs?
5ad1926d645df0001a2d1ff9
True
lowest color rendering
454
Higher efficiency in multi-color white LEDs don't mean what?
5ad1926d645df0001a2d1ffa
True
dichromatic white LEDs
379
What type has the worst luminous efficacy?
5ad1926d645df0001a2d1ffb
True
>70 lm/W
692
What luminous efficacy does non-trichromatic white LEDs have?
5ad1926d645df0001a2d1ffc
True
There are several types of multi-color white LEDs: di-, tri-, and tetrachromatic white LEDs. Several key factors that play among these different methods, include color stability, color rendering capability, and luminous efficacy. Often, higher efficiency will mean lower color rendering, presenting a trade-off between the luminous efficacy and color rendering. For example, the dichromatic white LEDs have the best luminous efficacy (120 lm/W), but the lowest color rendering capability. However, although tetrachromatic white LEDs have excellent color rendering capability, they often have poor luminous efficacy. Trichromatic white LEDs are in between, having both good luminous efficacy (>70 lm/W) and fair color rendering capability.
Multi-color LEDs offer what else besides the formation of white light?
57311c03e6313a140071cc44
to form light of different colors
84
False
What problem must be solved before multi-color LEDs can play a role in the market?
57311c03e6313a140071cc45
power decays exponentially with rising temperature
585
False
What problem results when rising temperatures decays power?
57311c03e6313a140071cc46
substantial change in color stability
652
False
to form light of different colors
84
Multi-color LEDs offer what else besides the formation of red light?
5ad192a3645df0001a2d2002
True
power decays exponentially with rising temperature
585
What problem must be solved before non-multi-color LEDs can play a role in the market?
5ad192a3645df0001a2d2003
True
substantial change in color stability
652
What problem results when lowering temperatures decays power?
5ad192a3645df0001a2d2004
True
Multi-color LEDs offer not merely another means to form white light but a new means to form light of different colors. Most perceivable colors can be formed by mixing different amounts of three primary colors. This allows precise dynamic color control. As more effort is devoted to investigating this method, multi-color LEDs should have profound influence on the fundamental method that we use to produce and control light color. However, before this type of LED can play a role on the market, several technical problems must be solved. These include that this type of LED's emission power decays exponentially with rising temperature, resulting in a substantial change in color stability. Such problems inhibit and may preclude industrial use. Thus, many new package designs aimed at solving this problem have been proposed and their results are now being reproduced by researchers and scientists.
What method involves coating LEDs of one color with phosphors of different colors?
57311e4ca5e9cc1400cdbc3f
phosphor-converted white LEDs (pcLEDs)
184
False
In pcLEDs method, a fraction of what light is used?
57311e4ca5e9cc1400cdbc40
blue
242
False
What shift does blue light undergo in the pcLEDs method?
57311e4ca5e9cc1400cdbc41
Stokes
267
False
The different colors of phosphors that can be used is based on what?
57311e4ca5e9cc1400cdbc42
the color of the original LED
347
False
What broadens the emitted spectrum in a pcLEDs method?
57311e4ca5e9cc1400cdbc43
If several phosphor layers of distinct colors are applied
425
False
phosphor-converted white LEDs
184
What method involves coating LEDs of multiple color with phosphors of different colors?
5ad192e6645df0001a2d2010
True
blue
242
In pcLEDs method, a fraction of what light is never used?
5ad192e6645df0001a2d2011
True
Stokes
267
What shift does non-blue light undergo in the pcLEDs method?
5ad192e6645df0001a2d2012
True
the color of the original LED
347
he different colors of phosphors that can't be used is based on what?
5ad192e6645df0001a2d2013
True
This method involves coating LEDs of one color (mostly blue LEDs made of InGaN) with phosphors of different colors to form white light; the resultant LEDs are called phosphor-based or phosphor-converted white LEDs (pcLEDs). A fraction of the blue light undergoes the Stokes shift being transformed from shorter wavelengths to longer. Depending on the color of the original LED, phosphors of different colors can be employed. If several phosphor layers of distinct colors are applied, the emitted spectrum is broadened, effectively raising the color rendering index (CRI) value of a given LED.
Why is efficiency sometimes lost in phosphor-based LEDs?
57311faae6313a140071cc50
heat loss from the Stokes shift
52
False
What do phosphor-based LEDs luminous efficacies depend on?
57311faae6313a140071cc51
the spectral distribution of the resultant light output
196
False
What are some of the luminous efficacies of yellow phosphor based white LED compared to blue?
57311faae6313a140071cc52
3 to 5 times the luminous efficacy
395
False
What is the most popular method for making high-intensity white LEDs?
57311faae6313a140071cc53
phosphor method
609
False
What type of emitter is used in phosphor-based white LED methods?
57311faae6313a140071cc54
monochrome
765
False
heat loss from the Stokes shift
52
Why is efficiency never lost in phosphor-based LEDs?
5ad19312645df0001a2d2018
True
spectral distribution of the resultant light output and the original wavelength
200
What don't phosphor-based LEDs luminous efficacies depend on?
5ad19312645df0001a2d2019
True
phosphor
358
What are some of the luminous efficacies of yellow phosphor based red LED compared to blue?
5ad19312645df0001a2d201a
True
monochrome
765
What type of emitter is used in non-phosphor-based white LED methods?
5ad19312645df0001a2d201b
True
Phosphor-based LED efficiency losses are due to the heat loss from the Stokes shift and also other phosphor-related degradation issues. Their luminous efficacies compared to normal LEDs depend on the spectral distribution of the resultant light output and the original wavelength of the LED itself. For example, the luminous efficacy of a typical YAG yellow phosphor based white LED ranges from 3 to 5 times the luminous efficacy of the original blue LED because of the human eye's greater sensitivity to yellow than to blue (as modeled in the luminosity function). Due to the simplicity of manufacturing the phosphor method is still the most popular method for making high-intensity white LEDs. The design and production of a light source or light fixture using a monochrome emitter with phosphor conversion is simpler and cheaper than a complex RGB system, and the majority of high-intensity white LEDs presently on the market are manufactured using phosphor light conversion.
What can improve the efficiency of LED-based white light?
5731208ee6313a140071cc62
more efficient phosphors
114
False
What is the most efficient yellow phosphor?
5731208ee6313a140071cc63
YAG phosphor
200
False
What is the percentage of stoke shift loss in YAG phosphor?
5731208ee6313a140071cc64
less than 10%
219
False
What area are scientists looking into regarding phosphor LED development?
5731208ee6313a140071cc65
higher operation temperatures
562
False
What is one method that can raise the efficiency of phosphor-based LEDs?
5731208ee6313a140071cc66
adapting better package design
639
False
more efficient phosphors
114
What can improve the efficiency of non-LED-based white light?
5ad1934e645df0001a2d2020
True
YAG phosphor
200
What is the least efficient yellow phosphor?
5ad1934e645df0001a2d2021
True
less than 10%
219
What is the percentage of stoke shift loss in non-YAG phosphor?
5ad1934e645df0001a2d2022
True
higher operation temperatures
562
What area are scientists looking into regarding phosphor non-LED development?
5ad1934e645df0001a2d2023
True
adapting better package design
639
What is one method that can lower the efficiency of phosphor-based LEDs?
5ad1934e645df0001a2d2024
True
Among the challenges being faced to improve the efficiency of LED-based white light sources is the development of more efficient phosphors. As of 2010, the most efficient yellow phosphor is still the YAG phosphor, with less than 10% Stoke shift loss. Losses attributable to internal optical losses due to re-absorption in the LED chip and in the LED packaging itself account typically for another 10% to 30% of efficiency loss. Currently, in the area of phosphor LED development, much effort is being spent on optimizing these devices to higher light output and higher operation temperatures. For instance, the efficiency can be raised by adapting better package design or by using a more suitable type of phosphor. Conformal coating process is frequently used to address the issue of varying phosphor thickness.
White LEDs can be made by coating what?
57312247497a881900248b87
near-ultraviolet (NUV) LEDs
39
False
What are near-ultraviolet LEDs coated with to create white LED?
57312247497a881900248b88
copper and aluminium-doped zinc sulfide (ZnS:Cu, Al)
155
False
What device also works in a similar way as NUV LEDs?
57312247497a881900248b89
fluorescent lamps
264
False
The method of coating NUVs less efficient than what other LEDs?
57312247497a881900248b8a
blue
323
False
What light can harm human eyes or skin?
57312247497a881900248b8b
UV light
647
False
near-ultraviolet (NUV)
39
White LEDs can be made by not coating what?
5ad19379645df0001a2d2034
True
copper and aluminium-doped zinc sulfide
155
What are non-near-ultraviolet LEDs coated with to create white LED?
5ad19379645df0001a2d2035
True
fluorescent lamps
264
What device also works in a similar way as non-NUV LEDs?
5ad19379645df0001a2d2036
True
blue
576
The method of coating NUVs more efficient than what other LEDs?
5ad19379645df0001a2d2037
True
White LEDs can also be made by coating near-ultraviolet (NUV) LEDs with a mixture of high-efficiency europium-based phosphors that emit red and blue, plus copper and aluminium-doped zinc sulfide (ZnS:Cu, Al) that emits green. This is a method analogous to the way fluorescent lamps work. This method is less efficient than blue LEDs with YAG:Ce phosphor, as the Stokes shift is larger, so more energy is converted to heat, but yields light with better spectral characteristics, which render color better. Due to the higher radiative output of the ultraviolet LEDs than of the blue ones, both methods offer comparable brightness. A concern is that UV light may leak from a malfunctioning light source and cause harm to human eyes or skin.
What is being used to produce white LEDs?
5731234a497a881900248b91
wafers composed of gallium-nitride-on-silicon
15
False
What size are the wafers used to create white LEDs?
5731234a497a881900248b92
200-mm
115
False
By using silicon wafers, what is being avoided?
5731234a497a881900248b93
costly sapphire substrate
162
False
What needs to be used to reflect light that would otherwise be wasted?
5731234a497a881900248b94
mirror-like collector
282
False
By what year will% of all GaN LEDs be made with gallium-nitride-on-silicon wafers?
5731234a497a881900248b95
2020
377
False
wafers composed of gallium-nitride-on-silicon
15
What is being used to produce white non-LEDs?
5ad193ad645df0001a2d203c
True
200-mm
115
What size are the wafers used to create red LEDs?
5ad193ad645df0001a2d203d
True
costly sapphire substrate
162
By using silicon wafers, what is not being avoided?
5ad193ad645df0001a2d203e
True
mirror-like collector
282
What needs to not be used to reflect light that would otherwise be wasted?
5ad193ad645df0001a2d203f
True
A new style of wafers composed of gallium-nitride-on-silicon (GaN-on-Si) is being used to produce white LEDs using 200-mm silicon wafers. This avoids the typical costly sapphire substrate in relatively small 100- or 150-mm wafer sizes. The sapphire apparatus must be coupled with a mirror-like collector to reflect light that would otherwise be wasted. It is predicted that by 2020, 40% of all GaN LEDs will be made with GaN-on-Si. Manufacturing large sapphire material is difficult, while large silicon material is cheaper and more abundant. LED companies shifting from using sapphire to silicon should be a minimal investment.
What nanocrystals possess unique optical properties?
5731249ea5e9cc1400cdbc9b
Quantum dots
0
False
Quantum Dot LEDs can do what special skill?
5731249ea5e9cc1400cdbc9c
create almost any color on the CIE diagram
206
False
The narrowing of the emission spectrum in Quantum Dot LEDs allows them to do what?
5731249ea5e9cc1400cdbc9d
better color rendering
287
False
How many types of schemes are there in Quantum Dot LED excitation?
5731249ea5e9cc1400cdbc9e
two
425
False
quantum dot
186
What non-nanocrystals possess unique optical properties?
5ad193e1645df0001a2d2044
True
create almost any color on the CIE diagram
206
Quantum Dot LEDs don't do what special skill?
5ad193e1645df0001a2d2045
True
better color rendering
287
The narrowing of the emission spectrum in Quantum Dot LEDs disallows them to do what?
5ad193e1645df0001a2d2046
True
two
425
How many types of schemes are there in non-Quantum Dot LED excitation?
5ad193e1645df0001a2d2047
True
Quantum dots (QD) are semiconductor nanocrystals that possess unique optical properties. Their emission color can be tuned from the visible throughout the infrared spectrum. This allows quantum dot LEDs to create almost any color on the CIE diagram. This provides more color options and better color rendering than white LEDs since the emission spectrum is much narrower, characteristic of quantum confined states. There are two types of schemes for QD excitation. One uses photo excitation with a primary light source LED (typically blue or UV LEDs are used). The other is direct electrical excitation first demonstrated by Alivisatos et al.
What is one scheme of Quantum Dot excitation?
573125ee497a881900248bcb
electrical-excitation
38
False
What is one material used in electrical-excitation?
573125ee497a881900248bcc
hole-transporting materials
186
False
During the electrical-excitation scheme, what moves into the quantum dot layer?
573125ee497a881900248bcd
electrons and holes
248
False
A Quantum Dot LED has been used in what?
573125ee497a881900248bce
near-field scanning optical microscopy (NSOM)
552
False
electrical-excitation
38
What is one scheme of non-Quantum Dot excitation?
5ad19413645df0001a2d204c
True
hole-transporting materials
186
What is one material used in non-electrical-excitation?
5ad19413645df0001a2d204d
True
electrons and holes
248
During the electrical-excitation scheme, what moves into the non-quantum dot layer?
5ad19413645df0001a2d204e
True
near-field scanning
552
A Quantum Dot non-LED has been used in what?
5ad19413645df0001a2d204f
True
The structure of QD-LEDs used for the electrical-excitation scheme is similar to basic design of OLEDs. A layer of quantum dots is sandwiched between layers of electron-transporting and hole-transporting materials. An applied electric field causes electrons and holes to move into the quantum dot layer and recombine forming an exciton that excites a QD. This scheme is commonly studied for quantum dot display. The tunability of emission wavelengths and narrow bandwidth is also beneficial as excitation sources for fluorescence imaging. Fluorescence near-field scanning optical microscopy (NSOM) utilizing an integrated QD-LED has been demonstrated.
How many lumens can some high-power LEDs emit?
5731304e497a881900248c37
over a thousand
185
False
Up to how many densities have been achieved with LED power?
5731304e497a881900248c38
300 W/cm2
235
False
Why must High-power LEDs be mounted on a heat sink?
5731304e497a881900248c39
to allow for heat dissipation
342
False
What will happen if the heat from a high-power LED is not removed?
5731304e497a881900248c3a
the device will fail in seconds
415
False
What can one high-power LED replace?
5731304e497a881900248c3b
incandescent bulb in a flashlight
480
False
over a thousand
185
How many lumens can some low-power LEDs emit?
5ad19458645df0001a2d2054
True
300 W/cm2
235
Up to how many densities have never been achieved with LED power?
5ad19458645df0001a2d2055
True
allow for heat dissipation
345
Why must High-power LEDs be mounted on a heat rise?
5ad19458645df0001a2d2056
True
device will fail in seconds.
419
What will happen if the heat from a low-power LED is not removed?
5ad19458645df0001a2d2057
True
incandescent bulb
480
What can one low-power LED replace?
5ad19458645df0001a2d2058
True
High-power LEDs (HP-LEDs) or high-output LEDs (HO-LEDs) can be driven at currents from hundreds of mA to more than an ampere, compared with the tens of mA for other LEDs. Some can emit over a thousand lumens. LED power densities up to 300 W/cm2 have been achieved. Since overheating is destructive, the HP-LEDs must be mounted on a heat sink to allow for heat dissipation. If the heat from a HP-LED is not removed, the device will fail in seconds. One HP-LED can often replace an incandescent bulb in a flashlight, or be set in an array to form a powerful LED lamp.
What company has developed LEDs that can operate on AC power?
57313224e6313a140071ccee
Seoul Semiconductor
28
False
What is the efficacy of an AC powered HP-LED?
57313224e6313a140071ccef
40 lm/W
279
False
When did Seoul Semiconductor release the first high DC voltage LED?
57313224e6313a140071ccf0
2009
383
False
What is so good about ac powered HP-LEDs?
57313224e6313a140071ccf1
more flexibility
590
False
What did Seoul Semiconductor name their ac powered HP-LED?
57313224e6313a140071ccf2
Acrich MJT
451
False
Seoul Semiconductor
28
What company has developed non-LEDs that can operate on AC power?
5ad19496645df0001a2d205e
True
40 lm/W
279
What is the efficacy of an non-AC powered HP-LED?
5ad19496645df0001a2d205f
True
2009
383
When did non-Seoul Semiconductor release the first high DC voltage LED?
5ad19496645df0001a2d2060
True
flexibility
595
What is so good about ac powered non-HP-LEDs?
5ad19496645df0001a2d2061
True
LEDs have been developed by Seoul Semiconductor that can operate on AC power without the need for a DC converter. For each half-cycle, part of the LED emits light and part is dark, and this is reversed during the next half-cycle. The efficacy of this type of HP-LED is typically 40 lm/W. A large number of LED elements in series may be able to operate directly from line voltage. In 2009, Seoul Semiconductor released a high DC voltage LED, named as 'Acrich MJT', capable of being driven from AC power with a simple controlling circuit. The low-power dissipation of these LEDs affords them more flexibility than the original AC LED design.
What type of LEDs are available in seven-segment format?
57313c12a5e9cc1400cdbd6b
Alphanumeric
0
False
What is another format that Alphanumeric LEDs are available in?
57313c12a5e9cc1400cdbd6c
dot-matrix
64
False
Which alphanumeric LED display can display all letters?
57313c12a5e9cc1400cdbd6d
Starburst
155
False
What type of pixels does a dot matrix display use?
57313c12a5e9cc1400cdbd6e
5x7
233
False
What has reduced the popularity of numeric LED displays?
57313c12a5e9cc1400cdbd6f
liquid crystal displays
351
False
Alphanumeric
0
What type of LEDs are available in eight-segment format?
5ad194ca645df0001a2d2066
True
dot-matrix
64
What is another format that non-Alphanumeric LEDs are available in?
5ad194ca645df0001a2d2067
True
Starburst
155
Which non-alphanumeric LED display can display all letters?
5ad194ca645df0001a2d2068
True
5x7
233
What type of pixels does a dot matrix display not use?
5ad194ca645df0001a2d2069
True
liquid crystal displays
351
What has reduced the popularity of numeric non-LED displays?
5ad194ca645df0001a2d206a
True
Alphanumeric LEDs are available in seven-segment, starburst and dot-matrix format. Seven-segment displays handle all numbers and a limited set of letters. Starburst displays can display all letters. Dot-matrix displays typically use 5x7 pixels per character. Seven-segment LED displays were in widespread use in the 1970s and 1980s, but rising use of liquid crystal displays, with their lower power needs and greater display flexibility, has reduced the popularity of numeric and alphanumeric LED displays.
What makes RGB LEDs different?
57313d9505b4da19006bcf20
contain their own "smart" control electronics
35
False
How are Digital-RGB LED strobe signals connected?
57313d9505b4da19006bcf21
in a daisy chain
224
False
What object sources the data in of the first LED of a digital rgb LED?
57313d9505b4da19006bcf22
microprocessor
289
False
The microprocessor does what in a digital RGB LED?
57313d9505b4da19006bcf23
control the brightness and color of each LED independently of the others
315
False
What is one example of where Digital RGB LED lights are used?
57313d9505b4da19006bcf24
Christmas
505
False
their own "smart" control electronics
43
What makes RGB LEDs the same?
5ad19511645df0001a2d2070
True
daisy chain
229
How are non-Digital-RGB LED strobe signals connected?
5ad19511645df0001a2d2071
True
microprocessor
289
What object sources the data in of the first non-LED of a digital rgb LED?
5ad19511645df0001a2d2072
True
control the brightness and color
315
The non-microprocessor does what in a digital RGB LED?
5ad19511645df0001a2d2073
True
Christmas
505
What is one example of where non-Digital RGB LED lights are used?
5ad19511645df0001a2d2074
True
Digital-RGB LEDs are RGB LEDs that contain their own "smart" control electronics. In addition to power and ground, these provide connections for data-in, data-out, and sometimes a clock or strobe signal. These are connected in a daisy chain, with the data in of the first LED sourced by a microprocessor, which can control the brightness and color of each LED independently of the others. They are used where a combination of maximum control and minimum visible electronics are needed such as strings for Christmas and LED matrices. Some even have refresh rates in the kHz range, allowing for basic video applications.
What does an LED filament consist of?
57313e89a5e9cc1400cdbda1
multiple LED dice
28
False
How are LED filaments used?
57313e89a5e9cc1400cdbda2
a low cost decorative alternative for traditional light bulbs
198
False
What type of voltage is needed for LED filaments?
57313e89a5e9cc1400cdbda3
high
336
False
What helps LED filaments remain low cost?
57313e89a5e9cc1400cdbda4
a simple rectifier
453
False
Single die LEDs require what?
57313e89a5e9cc1400cdbda5
high current converter
629
False
multiple LED dice
28
What does an non-LED filament consist of?
5ad19549645df0001a2d207a
True
low cost decorative alternative
200
How are non-LED filaments used?
5ad19549645df0001a2d207b
True
high
336
What type of voltage is needed for non-LED filaments?
5ad19549645df0001a2d207c
True
simple rectifier
455
What helps non-LED filaments remain low cost?
5ad19549645df0001a2d207d
True
An LED filament consists of multiple LED dice connected in series on a common longitudinal substrate that form a thin rod reminiscent of a traditional incandescent filament. These are being used as a low cost decorative alternative for traditional light bulbs that are being phased out in many countries. The filaments require a rather high voltage to light to nominal brightness, allowing them to work efficiently and simply with mains voltages. Often a simple rectifier and capacitive current limiting are employed to create a low-cost replacement for a traditional light bulb without the complexity of creating a low voltage, high current converter which is required by single die LEDs. Usually they are packaged in a sealed enclosure with a shape similar to lamps they were designed to replace (e.g. a bulb), and filled with inert nitrogen or carbon dioxide gas to remove heat efficiently.
How are LEDs similar to other diodes?
57313fb0497a881900248ce1
the current is dependent exponentially on the voltage
81
False
What can cause a large change in current in LEDs?
57313fb0497a881900248ce2
a small change in voltage
182
False
What is a solution to preventing an LED failure?
57313fb0497a881900248ce3
use constant-current power supplies
451
False
What feature do most LED fixtures need to have?
57313fb0497a881900248ce4
a power converter
659
False
What is a constant-voltage source?
57313fb0497a881900248ce5
batteries
580
False
current is dependent exponentially
85
How are non-LEDs similar to other diodes?
5ad19592645df0001a2d2082
True
small change in voltage
184
What can cause a large change in current in non-LEDs?
5ad19592645df0001a2d2083
True
constant-current power supplies
455
What is a solution to preventing an non-LED failure?
5ad19592645df0001a2d2084
True
power converter
661
What feature do no LED fixtures need to have?
5ad19592645df0001a2d2085
True
The current–voltage characteristic of an LED is similar to other diodes, in that the current is dependent exponentially on the voltage (see Shockley diode equation). This means that a small change in voltage can cause a large change in current. If the applied voltage exceeds the LED's forward voltage drop by a small amount, the current rating may be exceeded by a large amount, potentially damaging or destroying the LED. The typical solution is to use constant-current power supplies to keep the current below the LED's maximum current rating. Since most common power sources (batteries, mains) are constant-voltage sources, most LED fixtures must include a power converter, at least a current-limiting resistor. However, the high resistance of three-volt coin cells combined with the high differential resistance of nitride-based LEDs makes it possible to power such an LED from such a coin cell without an external resistor.
How are most LEDs classified?
5731405b497a881900248cf5
Class 1 LED product
118
False
What does being a Class 1 LED product mean?
5731405b497a881900248cf6
safe under all conditions of normal use
50
False
What type of LED can possibly cause blindness?
5731405b497a881900248cf7
extremely bright LEDs
183
False
What class are extremely bright LEDs listed as?
5731405b497a881900248cf8
Class 2
337
False
Which government advocated the banning of Class 2 LEDs?
5731405b497a881900248cf9
French
366
False
Class 1 LED product
118
How are most non-LEDs classified?
5ad195f0645df0001a2d208a
True
safe under all conditions of normal use
50
What does being a Class 2 LED product mean?
5ad195f0645df0001a2d208b
True
extremely bright LEDs
183
What type of LED can't cause blindness?
5ad195f0645df0001a2d208c
True
Class 2"
337
What class are extremely dark LEDs listed as?
5ad195f0645df0001a2d208d
True
French
366
Which government advocated the suppoert of Class 2 LEDs?
5ad195f0645df0001a2d208e
True
The vast majority of devices containing LEDs are "safe under all conditions of normal use", and so are classified as "Class 1 LED product"/"LED Klasse 1". At present, only a few LEDs—extremely bright LEDs that also have a tightly focused viewing angle of 8° or less—could, in theory, cause temporary blindness, and so are classified as "Class 2". The opinion of the French Agency for Food, Environmental and Occupational Health & Safety (ANSES) of 2010, on the health issues concerning LEDs, suggested banning public use of lamps which were in the moderate Risk Group 2, especially those with a high blue component in places frequented by children. In general, laser safety regulations—and the "Class 1", "Class 2", etc. system—also apply to LEDs.
What substance does fluorescent lamps contain?
57314138497a881900248cff
mercury
78
False
What dangerous metal can LEDs contain?
57314138497a881900248d00
arsenic
144
False
Which LEDs are considered dangerous by a 2011 study?
57314138497a881900248d01
low-intensity red
308
False
According to a California study, what harmful metal is in most LEDs?
57314138497a881900248d02
lead
533
False
What LEDs are considered safer than any other?
57314138497a881900248d03
low-intensity yellow LEDs
669
False
mercury
78
What substance does non-fluorescent lamps contain?
5ad1963d645df0001a2d2094
True
low-intensity
308
What dangerous metal can non-LEDs contain?
5ad1963d645df0001a2d2095
True
lead
135
According to a California study, what harmful metal is in most non-LEDs?
5ad1963d645df0001a2d2096
True
low-intensity yellow
669
What LEDs are considered riskier than any other?
5ad1963d645df0001a2d2097
True
While LEDs have the advantage over fluorescent lamps that they do not contain mercury, they may contain other hazardous metals such as lead and arsenic. Regarding the toxicity of LEDs when treated as waste, a study published in 2011 stated: "According to federal standards, LEDs are not hazardous except for low-intensity red LEDs, which leached Pb [lead] at levels exceeding regulatory limits (186 mg/L; regulatory limit: 5). However, according to California regulations, excessive levels of copper (up to 3892 mg/kg; limit: 2500), lead (up to 8103 mg/kg; limit: 1000), nickel (up to 4797 mg/kg; limit: 2000), or silver (up to 721 mg/kg; limit: 500) render all except low-intensity yellow LEDs hazardous."
What type of light is ideal for traffic signals?
573143ba497a881900248d23
One-color light
0
False
In what year were luminescence standards set?
573143ba497a881900248d24
1972
273
False
What color LEDs are used when night vision is important?
573143ba497a881900248d25
Red or yellow
394
False
What is an example of a night vision needed area?
573143ba497a881900248d26
astronomy observatories
561
False
What is another use for one-color light?
573143ba497a881900248d27
exit signs
63
False
LED
304
What type of light is not ideal for traffic signals?
5ad19674645df0001a2d209c
True
1972
273
In what year were non-luminescence standards set?
5ad19674645df0001a2d209d
True
Red or yellow
394
What color non-LEDs are used when night vision is important?
5ad19674645df0001a2d209e
True
submarine
533
What is an example of a non-night vision needed area?
5ad19674645df0001a2d209f
True
One-color light is well suited for traffic lights and signals, exit signs, emergency vehicle lighting, ships' navigation lights or lanterns (chromacity and luminance standards being set under the Convention on the International Regulations for Preventing Collisions at Sea 1972, Annex I and the CIE) and LED-based Christmas lights. In cold climates, LED traffic lights may remain snow-covered. Red or yellow LEDs are used in indicator and alphanumeric displays in environments where night vision must be retained: aircraft cockpits, submarine and ship bridges, astronomy observatories, and in the field, e.g. night time animal watching and military field use.
Why are LED lights sought after for various applications?
5731449ea5e9cc1400cdbdef
their long life
11
False
Because of their high output, LED lights are very useful where?
5731449ea5e9cc1400cdbdf0
brake lights for cars
156
False
LED brake lights are how many times faster than incandescent ones?
5731449ea5e9cc1400cdbdf1
0.5 second
444
False
What color LEDs are now starting to be used more?
5731449ea5e9cc1400cdbdf2
White
779
False
What types of light can LEDs form better than incandescent?
5731449ea5e9cc1400cdbdf3
thinner
885
False
their long life
11
Why are non-LED lights sought after for various applications?
5ad196d3645df0001a2d20ae
True
brake lights for cars
156
Because of their low output, LED lights are very useful where?
5ad196d3645df0001a2d20af
True
0.5 second
444
ED brake lights are how many times slower than incandescent ones?
5ad196d3645df0001a2d20b0
True
ghost
700
What color LEDs are now not used more?
5ad196d3645df0001a2d20b1
True
Because of their long life, fast switching times, and their ability to be seen in broad daylight due to their high output and focus, LEDs have been used in brake lights for cars' high-mounted brake lights, trucks, and buses, and in turn signals for some time, but many vehicles now use LEDs for their rear light clusters. The use in brakes improves safety, due to a great reduction in the time needed to light fully, or faster rise time, up to 0.5 second faster[citation needed] than an incandescent bulb. This gives drivers behind more time to react. In a dual intensity circuit (rear markers and brakes) if the LEDs are not pulsed at a fast enough frequency, they can create a phantom array, where ghost images of the LED will appear if the eyes quickly scan across the array. White LED headlamps are starting to be used. Using LEDs has styling advantages because LEDs can form much thinner lights than incandescent lamps with parabolic reflectors.
Where are infrared LEDs used in everday life?
5731458d05b4da19006bcf98
theaters
36
False
How are LEDs used in theaters?
5731458d05b4da19006bcf99
to send sound to listeners' receivers
92
False
LEDs can send data over what type of cable?
5731458d05b4da19006bcf9a
fiber optic
228
False
What type of fiber forms the backbone of the internet?
5731458d05b4da19006bcf9b
very high bandwidth
293
False
theaters
36
Where are infrared non-LEDs used in everyday life?
5ad19707645df0001a2d20b6
True
to send sound to listeners' receivers
92
How are non-LEDs used in theaters?
5ad19707645df0001a2d20b7
True
fiber optic
228
LEDs can't send data over what type of cable?
5ad19707645df0001a2d20b8
True
very high bandwidth
293
What type of fiber doesn't form the backbone of the internet?
5ad19707645df0001a2d20b9
True
Assistive listening devices in many theaters and similar spaces use arrays of infrared LEDs to send sound to listeners' receivers. Light-emitting diodes (as well as semiconductor lasers) are used to send data over many types of fiber optic cable, from digital audio over TOSLINK cables to the very high bandwidth fiber links that form the Internet backbone. For some time, computers were commonly equipped with IrDA interfaces, which allowed them to send and receive data to nearby machines via infrared.
In what country does one kilowatt-hour of electricity causes 1.34 pounds of CO 2 emission?
573146e3e6313a140071cdaa
US
7
False
How much CO2 emission would a 40-watt light bulb produce after 10 hours?
573146e3e6313a140071cdab
196 pounds
203
False
A 6-watt LED left on for 10 hours a day will emit how much CO 2?
573146e3e6313a140071cdac
30 pounds
291
False
How much can a building's carbon footprint be reduced by switching to LEDs?
573146e3e6313a140071cdad
85%
414
False
US
7
In what country does one kilowatt-hour of electricity causes 1.34 pounds of CO 3 emission?
5ad19736645df0001a2d20be
True
196 pounds
203
How much CO2 emission would a 50-watt light bulb produce after 10 hours?
5ad19736645df0001a2d20bf
True
30 pounds
291
A 9-watt LED left on for 10 hours a day will emit how much CO 2?
5ad19736645df0001a2d20c0
True
85%
414
How much can a building's carbon footprint be reduced by switching to non-LEDs?
5ad19736645df0001a2d20c1
True
In the US, one kilowatt-hour (3.6 MJ) of electricity currently causes an average 1.34 pounds (610 g) of CO 2 emission. Assuming the average light bulb is on for 10 hours a day, a 40-watt bulb will cause 196 pounds (89 kg) of CO 2 emission per year. The 6-watt LED equivalent will only cause 30 pounds (14 kg) of CO 2 over the same time span. A building’s carbon footprint from lighting can therefore be reduced by 85% by exchanging all incandescent bulbs for new LEDs if a building previously used only incandescent bulbs.
LEDs are often used for what type of systems?
573147db05b4da19006bcfb2
Machine vision
0
False
Why are LEDs preferred for machine vision systems?
573147db05b4da19006bcfb3
so features of interest are easier to process
74
False
What can help make LEDs more widely used?
573147db05b4da19006bcfb4
price drops
222
False
What is the most common example of a machine vision system?
573147db05b4da19006bcfb5
Barcode scanners
302
False
Where are some LEDs in machine vision systems found?
573147db05b4da19006bcfb6
Optical computer mice
425
False
Machine vision
0
non-LEDs are often used for what type of systems?
5ad19782645df0001a2d20d0
True
illumination uses more widespread
267
Why aren't LEDs preferred for machine vision systems?
5ad19782645df0001a2d20d1
True
price drops
222
What can't help make LEDs more widely used?
5ad19782645df0001a2d20d2
True
Barcode scanners
302
What is the most uncommon example of a machine vision system?
5ad19782645df0001a2d20d3
True
Optical computer mice
425
Where are some LEDs in machine vision systems not found?
5ad19782645df0001a2d20d4
True
Machine vision systems often require bright and homogeneous illumination, so features of interest are easier to process. LEDs are often used for this purpose, and this is likely to remain one of their major uses until the price drops low enough to make signaling and illumination uses more widespread. Barcode scanners are the most common example of machine vision, and many low cost products use red LEDs instead of lasers. Optical computer mice are an example of LEDs in machine vision, as it is used to provide an even light source on the surface for the miniature camera within the mouse. LEDs constitute a nearly ideal light source for machine vision systems for several reasons:
Where are LEDs often used?
573148d2e6313a140071cdc4
free space optics communications
100
False
What is an example of a device that uses free space optic communications?
573148d2e6313a140071cdc5
remote controls
148
False
What does an optoisolator do?
573148d2e6313a140071cdc6
allows information to be transferred between circuits not sharing a common ground potential
716
False
Where are opto-isolators found?
573148d2e6313a140071cdc7
medical equipment
417
False
In what common household item can you find infrared LEDs?
573148d2e6313a140071cdc8
LED Computers
192
False
optical fiber
82
Where are LEDs not often used?
5ad197dc645df0001a2d20da
True
remote controls
148
What is an example of a device that uses not free space optic communications?
5ad197dc645df0001a2d20db
True
allows information to be transferred between circuits not sharing a common ground potential
716
What does an optoisolator don't do?
5ad197dc645df0001a2d20dc
True
The light from LEDs can be modulated very quickly so they are used extensively in optical fiber and free space optics communications. This includes remote controls, such as for TVs, VCRs, and LED Computers, where infrared LEDs are often used. Opto-isolators use an LED combined with a photodiode or phototransistor to provide a signal path with electrical isolation between two circuits. This is especially useful in medical equipment where the signals from a low-voltage sensor circuit (usually battery-powered) in contact with a living organism must be electrically isolated from any possible electrical failure in a recording or monitoring device operating at potentially dangerous voltages. An optoisolator also allows information to be transferred between circuits not sharing a common ground potential.
What video game console uses infrared LEDs?
573149e7e6313a140071cdce
Nintendo Wii
210
False
What device uses infrared LEDs to measure oxygen saturation?
573149e7e6313a140071cdcf
Pulse oximeters
256
False
Some flatbed scanners use what type of LED?
573149e7e6313a140071cdd0
RGB LEDs
350
False
By using LEDs, scanners do not have to what?
573149e7e6313a140071cdd1
warm-up
586
False
Grow lights use LEDs for what process?
573149e7e6313a140071cdd2
increase photosynthesis in plants
1034
False
Nintendo Wii's
210
What video game console doesn't use infrared LEDs?
5ad1981f645df0001a2d20e0
True
Pulse oximeters
256
non- What device uses infrared LEDs to measure oxygen saturation?
5ad1981f645df0001a2d20e1
True
UV LEDs
1147
Some flatbed scanners use what type of what?
5ad1981f645df0001a2d20e2
True
Many sensor systems rely on light as the signal source. LEDs are often ideal as a light source due to the requirements of the sensors. LEDs are used as motion sensors, for example in optical computer mice. The Nintendo Wii's sensor bar uses infrared LEDs. Pulse oximeters use them for measuring oxygen saturation. Some flatbed scanners use arrays of RGB LEDs rather than the typical cold-cathode fluorescent lamp as the light source. Having independent control of three illuminated colors allows the scanner to calibrate itself for more accurate color balance, and there is no need for warm-up. Further, its sensors only need be monochromatic, since at any one time the page being scanned is only lit by one color of light. Since LEDs can also be used as photodiodes, they can be used for both photo emission and detection. This could be used, for example, in a touchscreen that registers reflected light from a finger or stylus. Many materials and biological systems are sensitive to, or dependent on, light. Grow lights use LEDs to increase photosynthesis in plants, and bacteria and viruses can be removed from water and other substances using UV LEDs for sterilization.
What quality has LEDs been used as?
57314ace05b4da19006bcfe2
medium-quality
30
False
What LED has the flattest I/V curve above the knee?
57314ace05b4da19006bcfe3
Red
216
False
What LEDs have a very steep I/V curve?
57314ace05b4da19006bcfe4
Nitride-based LEDs
269
False
LED forward voltage is more current-dependent than what diode?
57314ace05b4da19006bcfe5
Zener
418
False
Zener diodes below what voltage are not widely available?
57314ace05b4da19006bcfe6
3 V
474
False
medium-quality
30
What quality hasn't LEDs been used as?
5ad1985b645df0001a2d20f0
True
Red LEDs have the flattest I/V curve
216
What LED has the least flattest I/V curve above the knee?
5ad1985b645df0001a2d20f1
True
Zener
177
What LEDs have a not very steep I/V curve?
5ad1985b645df0001a2d20f2
True
3 V
474
What LEDs don't have a very steep I/V curve?
5ad1985b645df0001a2d20f3
True
LEDs have also been used as a medium-quality voltage reference in electronic circuits. The forward voltage drop (e.g. about 1.7 V for a normal red LED) can be used instead of a Zener diode in low-voltage regulators. Red LEDs have the flattest I/V curve above the knee. Nitride-based LEDs have a fairly steep I/V curve and are useless for this purpose. Although LED forward voltage is far more current-dependent than a Zener diode, Zener diodes with breakdown voltages below 3 V are not widely available.
Great_power
What was the formalization of the division of small powers and great powers?
5730d9eaf6cb411900e244ec
Treaty of Chaumont
349
False
During the post Napoleonic era where were the first Great Powers concentrated?
5730d9eaf6cb411900e244ed
Europe
166
False
During what 2 wars was the balance of power shift most dramatic?
5730d9eaf6cb411900e244ee
World War I and World War II
477
False
What is another term for Great Power?
5730d9eaf6cb411900e244ef
superpower
741
False
to represent the most important powers in Europe during the post-Napoleonic era
38
Why was the term formalization and division first used?
5a149439a54d42001852926b
True
Treaty of Chaumont
349
Which international balance of power formally created the division between small and great powers?
5a149439a54d42001852926c
True
1814
371
In what year was the definitive list of powers signed?
5a149439a54d42001852926d
True
World War I and World War II
477
For which post Napoleonic era has the balance of power shifted dramatically?
5a149439a54d42001852926e
True
superpower
741
What is another term used in place of international balance of power?
5a149439a54d42001852926f
True
The term "great power" was first used to represent the most important powers in Europe during the post-Napoleonic era. The "Great Powers" constituted the "Concert of Europe" and claimed the right to joint enforcement of the postwar treaties. The formalization of the division between small powers and great powers came about with the signing of the Treaty of Chaumont in 1814. Since then, the international balance of power has shifted numerous times, most dramatically during World War I and World War II. While some nations are widely considered to be great powers, there is no definitive list of them. In literature, alternative terms for great power are often world power or major power, but these terms can also be interchangeable with superpower.
What do great powers usually have?
5730d9efb54a4f140068ccac
military and economic strength, as well as diplomatic and soft power influence
172
False
What are the permanent members of UN Security Council?
5730d9efb54a4f140068ccad
China, France, Russia, the United Kingdom and the United States
704
False
What are the countries in the G7?
5730d9efb54a4f140068ccae
Canada, France, Germany, Italy, Japan, the United Kingdom and the United States of America
930
False
What 3 factors have international relations theorists considered factors for great power status?
5730d9efb54a4f140068ccaf
power capabilities, spatial aspects, and status dimensions
463
False
United Nations Security Council
671
What great power has five permanent members?
5a149249a54d42001852924f
True
A great power
0
What international structure exerts its influence on a global scale?
5a149249a54d420018529250
True
great power status can be characterized into power capabilities, spatial aspects, and status dimensions.
418
What has the United Nations Security Council characterized as comprising great power status?
5a149249a54d420018529251
True
the G7
905
What spatial aspects are Canada, France, Germany, Italy, Japan, the United Kingdom and the United States a part of?
5a149249a54d420018529252
True
Congress of Vienna
610
In what conference are great powers opinions formally considered?
5a149249a54d420018529253
True
A great power is a sovereign state that is recognized as having the ability and expertise to exert its influence on a global scale. Great powers characteristically possess military and economic strength, as well as diplomatic and soft power influence, which may cause middle or small powers to consider the great powers' opinions before taking actions of their own. International relations theorists have posited that great power status can be characterized into power capabilities, spatial aspects, and status dimensions. Sometimes the status of great powers is formally recognized in conferences such as the Congress of Vienna or an international structure such as the United Nations Security Council (China, France, Russia, the United Kingdom and the United States serve as the body's five permanent members). At the same time the status of great powers can be informally recognized in a forum such as the G7 which consists of Canada, France, Germany, Italy, Japan, the United Kingdom and the United States of America.
Who wrote, "The test of a great power is the test of strength for war."?
5730ddeab7151e1900c01590
A. J. P. Taylor
109
False
Whos was the founder of the neorealist theory of international relations?
5730ddeab7151e1900c01591
Kenneth Waltz
335
False
What 5 criteria did neorealist use to determine great powers?
5730ddeab7151e1900c01592
population and territory; resource endowment; economic capability; political stability and competence; and military strength
469
False
What 3 areas can summarize the great power determination?
5730ddeab7151e1900c01593
power capabilities, spatial aspects, and status
652
False
"The test of a great power is the test of strength for war."
144
What did the historian Kenneth Waltz note about great power?
5a1496f2a54d42001852927f
True
in terms of overall military, economic, and political capacity
271
With what terms did later writers define neorealist theory?
5a1496f2a54d420018529280
True
strength for war
186
What term was used in early times to judge a state's political capacity?
5a1496f2a54d420018529281
True
power capabilities, spatial aspects, and status
652
What three groups can political capacity be divided into?
5a1496f2a54d420018529282
True
Kenneth Waltz
335
Who was the founder of the neorealist theory on the test of strength for war?
5a1496f2a54d420018529283
True
Early writings on the subject tended to judge states by the realist criterion, as expressed by the historian A. J. P. Taylor when he noted that "The test of a great power is the test of strength for war." Later writers have expanded this test, attempting to define power in terms of overall military, economic, and political capacity. Kenneth Waltz, the founder of the neorealist theory of international relations, uses a set of five criteria to determine great power: population and territory; resource endowment; economic capability; political stability and competence; and military strength. These expanded criteria can be divided into three heads: power capabilities, spatial aspects, and status.
What do all states have?
5730e8d2aca1c71400fe5b4f
geographic scope of interests, actions, or projected power
18
False
Who stated that "Great power may be defined as a political force exerting an effect co-extensive with the widest range of the society in which it operates. The Great powers of 1914 were 'world-powers"?
5730e8d2aca1c71400fe5b50
Arnold J. Toynbee
373
False
What type of powers should have actual influence throughout the scope of the prevailing international system?
5730e8d2aca1c71400fe5b51
great power
260
False
What type of power is restricted to its region?
5730e8d2aca1c71400fe5b52
regional power
142
False
a geographic scope of interests, actions, or projected power.
16
What three things do all political forces have?
5a149807a54d420018529289
True
actual influence
295
What should a Western society possess?
5a149807a54d42001852928a
True
its region
219
What is a range of society restricted to?
5a149807a54d42001852928b
True
world-powers
590
What were international systems called in 1914?
5a149807a54d42001852928c
True
Western
612
What political force was world-wide in 1914?
5a149807a54d42001852928d
True
All states have a geographic scope of interests, actions, or projected power. This is a crucial factor in distinguishing a great power from a regional power; by definition the scope of a regional power is restricted to its region. It has been suggested that a great power should be possessed of actual influence throughout the scope of the prevailing international system. Arnold J. Toynbee, for example, observes that "Great power may be defined as a political force exerting an effect co-extensive with the widest range of the society in which it operates. The Great powers of 1914 were 'world-powers' because Western society had recently become 'world-wide'."
What discussion should great powers be included on?
5731011b05b4da19006bccca
political and diplomatic questions of the day
128
False
Historically, when would great powers meet?
5731011b05b4da19006bcccb
when major political questions were addressed
245
False
What types of decisions would great powers reach?
5731011b05b4da19006bcccc
political resolution of various geographical and nationalist claims following a major conflict, or other contexts
613
False
enough influence to be included in discussions of political and diplomatic questions of the day, and have influence on the final outcome and resolution
78
What criteria should groups like the UN have?
5a149b9fa54d420018529293
True
when major political questions were addressed
245
In the past when would officially named participants meet?
5a149b9fa54d420018529294
True
deciding the political resolution of various geographical and nationalist claims following a major conflict
600
What is an example of something United Nations did to settle an issue?
5a149b9fa54d420018529295
True
the final outcome and resolution
197
What should geographical and nationalist claims have influence on?
5a149b9fa54d420018529296
True
important questions based on major historical events
530
What did criteria throughout history settle?
5a149b9fa54d420018529297
True
Other important criteria throughout history are that great powers should have enough influence to be included in discussions of political and diplomatic questions of the day, and have influence on the final outcome and resolution. Historically, when major political questions were addressed, several great powers met to discuss them. Before the era of groups like the United Nations, participants of such meetings were not officially named, but were decided based on their great power status. These were conferences which settled important questions based on major historical events. This might mean deciding the political resolution of various geographical and nationalist claims following a major conflict, or other contexts.
When did Lord Castlereagh first use the term Great Powers?
573104ea497a881900248b01
in a letter sent on February 13, 1814
96
False
What position did Lord Castlereagh hold?
573104ea497a881900248b02
British Foreign Secretary
22
False
What did Castlereagh determine as the last resort of great power's influence?
573104ea497a881900248b03
if necessary the general arms against the Power that shall first attempt to disturb the Continental peace
413
False
Lord Castlereagh, the British Foreign Secretary
0
What member of Congress first used the term Great Powers?
5a149d98a54d42001852929d
True
February 13, 1814
116
When did Lord Castleereagh first use the term Continental peace?
5a149d98a54d42001852929e
True
a letter
99
What did the Great powers of Europe send in 1814?
5a149d98a54d42001852929f
True
the arrangement
346
What general influence was agreed upon in the letter sent in 1814?
5a149d98a54d4200185292a0
True
the general arms
426
What is the Great power turning against in the letter sent in 1814?
5a149d98a54d4200185292a1
True
Lord Castlereagh, the British Foreign Secretary, first used the term in its diplomatic context, in a letter sent on February 13, 1814: "It affords me great satisfaction to acquaint you that there is every prospect of the Congress terminating with a general accord and Guarantee between the Great powers of Europe, with a determination to support the arrangement agreed upon, and to turn the general influence and if necessary the general arms against the Power that shall first attempt to disturb the Continental peace."
What 2 powers named in the 5 orignal great powers of the congress of vienna have maintained that status?
573106b7497a881900248b07
only France and the United Kingdom
72
False
What country lost Franco-Prussian war?
573106b7497a881900248b08
France
177
False
What country emerged as the pre-eminent power, due to its navy and the extent of its territories?
573106b7497a881900248b09
British Empire
292
False
Balance of power of great powers was a major influence on what continents politics?
573106b7497a881900248b0a
European
567
False
Who stated that "All politics reduces itself to this formula: try to be one of three, as long as the world is governed by the unstable equilibrium of five great powers.?"
573106b7497a881900248b0b
Otto von Bismarck
596
False
France and the United Kingdom
77
What two powers involved in the Franco-Prussian war have the same status today?
5a149f88a54d4200185292b1
True
the British Empire
288
After WWII which country was the pre-eminent power?
5a149f88a54d4200185292b2
True
The balance of power between the Great Powers
493
What became a main influence for the Congress of Vienna?
5a149f88a54d4200185292b3
True
try to be one of three, as long as the world is governed by the unstable equilibrium of five great powers."
667
By what formula are all great powers reduced?
5a149f88a54d4200185292b4
True
France
177
What pre-eminent power lost the Franco-Prussian war?
5a149f88a54d4200185292b5
True
Of the five original great powers recognised at the Congress of Vienna, only France and the United Kingdom have maintained that status continuously to the present day, although France was defeated in the Franco-Prussian War and occupied during World War II. After the Congress of Vienna, the British Empire emerged as the pre-eminent power, due to its navy and the extent of its territories, which signalled the beginning of the Pax Britannica and of the Great Game between the UK and Russia. The balance of power between the Great Powers became a major influence in European politics, prompting Otto von Bismarck to say "All politics reduces itself to this formula: try to be one of three, as long as the world is governed by the unstable equilibrium of five great powers."
Was the power of the 5 countries constant?
57310a8305b4da19006bcd12
relative power of these five nations fluctuated
15
False
What countries found their economic growth in early 20th century?
57310a8305b4da19006bcd13
United Kingdom and Prussia
181
False
Which of the 5 powers were beginning to stagnate in early 20th century?
57310a8305b4da19006bcd14
Russia and Austria-Hungary
334
False
What agreement replaced the Congress of Vienna?
57310a8305b4da19006bcd15
Eight-Nation Alliance
779
False
What conflict was this agreement in opposition of?
57310a8305b4da19006bcd16
Boxer Rebellion in China.
857
False
the balance of world power
692
During the Risorgimento, what had changed since the Congress of Vienna?
5a14a458a54d4200185292d9
True
emerging and expanding in power
409
What were other states doing through the political power process?
5a14a458a54d4200185292da
True
seeking to attain great power status
508
What was the US seeking to do after the Meiji Restoration?
5a14a458a54d4200185292db
True
The Eight-Nation Alliance
775
What nation alliance was formed to be against the Meiji Restoration?
5a14a458a54d4200185292dc
True
the five Congress powers plus Italy, Japan, and the United States
918
What did the balance of world power consist of after 1900?
5a14a458a54d4200185292dd
True
Over time, the relative power of these five nations fluctuated, which by the dawn of the 20th century had served to create an entirely different balance of power. Some, such as the United Kingdom and Prussia (as the founder of the newly formed German state), experienced continued economic growth and political power. Others, such as Russia and Austria-Hungary, stagnated. At the same time, other states were emerging and expanding in power, largely through the process of industrialization. These countries seeking to attain great power status were: Italy after the Risorgimento, Japan after the Meiji Restoration, and the United States after its civil war. By the dawn of the 20th century, the balance of world power had changed substantially since the Congress of Vienna. The Eight-Nation Alliance was a belligerent alliance of eight nations against the Boxer Rebellion in China. It formed in 1900 and consisted of the five Congress powers plus Italy, Japan, and the United States, representing the great powers at the beginning of 20th century.
What marked the conclusion of The Great War?
57310e2b05b4da19006bcd32
treaties of Versailles, St-Germain, Neuilly, Trianon and Sèvres
132
False
Who were  the chief arbiters of the new world order?
57310e2b05b4da19006bcd33
United Kingdom, France, Italy, Japan and the United States
210
False
Who created the Treaty of Versailles?
57310e2b05b4da19006bcd34
Big Three
1205
False
Who were the big four?
57310e2b05b4da19006bcd35
France, Italy, United Kingdom and the United States
546
False
treaties of Versailles, St-Germain, Neuilly, Trianon and Sèvres
132
What resulted after the end of the new world order?
5a14a60da54d4200185292eb
True
the German Empire
347
What empire was defeated after the Big Four?
5a14a60da54d4200185292ec
True
In the aftermath of World War I
315
When did Austria fall to revolution?
5a14a60da54d4200185292ed
True
France, Italy, United Kingdom and the United States
546
During the Great War which four countries had more power and influence?
5a14a60da54d4200185292ee
True
the decision-making of the Treaty of Versailles
966
When did The United States pull out of the conference temporarily?
5a14a60da54d4200185292ef
True
Shifts of international power have most notably occurred through major conflicts. The conclusion of the Great War and the resulting treaties of Versailles, St-Germain, Neuilly, Trianon and Sèvres witnessed the United Kingdom, France, Italy, Japan and the United States as the chief arbiters of the new world order. In the aftermath of World War I the German Empire was defeated, the Austria-Hungarian empire was divided into new, less powerful states and the Russian Empire fell to a revolution. During the Paris Peace Conference, the "Big Four"—France, Italy, United Kingdom and the United States—held noticeably more power and influence on the proceedings and outcome of the treaties than Japan. The Big Four were leading architects of the Treaty of Versailles which was signed by Germany; the Treaty of St. Germain, with Austria; the Treaty of Neuilly, with Bulgaria; the Treaty of Trianon, with Hungary; and the Treaty of Sèvres, with the Ottoman Empire. During the decision-making of the Treaty of Versailles, Italy pulled out of the conference because a part of its demands were not met and temporarily left the other three countries as the sole major architects of that treaty, referred to as the "Big Three".
Who were the four permanent members of the League of Nations Council?
57310f4ae6313a140071cbca
United Kingdom, France, Italy, and Japan
280
False
Why was United Stated excluded from League of Nations Council?
57310f4ae6313a140071cbcb
against the ratification of the Treaty of Versailles, thus preventing American participation in the League
438
False
When did US Senate vote against treaty of versailles ratification?
57310f4ae6313a140071cbcc
19 March 1920
424
False
What organiztion acted as acknowledgement of status of great powers?
57310f4ae6313a140071cbcd
League of Nations Council
106
False
19 March 1920
424
When did the League of Nations council vote against the Treaty of Versailles ratification?
5a14a7c7a54d4200185292fd
True
against the ratification of the Treaty of Versailles
438
Why was France excluded from the League of Nations Council?
5a14a7c7a54d4200185292fe
True
the United Kingdom, France, Italy, and Japan
276
What four countries were permanent members of the Senate?
5a14a7c7a54d4200185292ff
True
League of Nations Council
106
What council voted against ratification of the Treaty of Versailles?
5a14a7c7a54d420018529300
True
American participation in the League.
508
What did voting against the Assembly of the League prevent?
5a14a7c7a54d420018529301
True
The victorious great powers also gained an acknowledgement of their status through permanent seats at the League of Nations Council, where they acted as a type of executive body directing the Assembly of the League. However, the Council began with only four permanent members—the United Kingdom, France, Italy, and Japan—because the United States, meant to be the fifth permanent member, left because the US Senate voted on 19 March 1920 against the ratification of the Treaty of Versailles, thus preventing American participation in the League.
When did World War II start?
573113f5e6313a140071cbfe
1939
29
False
How many groups were involved in conflict of World War II?
573113f5e6313a140071cbff
two alliances
61
False
Who made up the Axis powers?
573113f5e6313a140071cc00
Germany, Italy and Japan
255
False
Who were the winners of World War II?
573113f5e6313a140071cc01
Allies
660
False
The winners of World War II along with France were allotted permanent seats for what organization?
573113f5e6313a140071cc02
United Nations Security Council
869
False
World War II
5
What trusteeship of the powerful started in 1939?
5a14aafca54d420018529307
True
the Allies (the United Kingdom and France at first in Europe, China in Asia
75
Who made up the permanent seats alliances since 1937?
5a14aafca54d420018529308
True
the Allied "Big Four"
530
What was Germany, Italy and Japan  and France recognized as by the UN in 1942?
5a14aafca54d420018529309
True
"Four Policemen"
636
What were four alliances in WWII referred to?
5a14aafca54d42001852930a
True
Germany, Italy and Japan
255
Who was part of the inclusion powers?
5a14aafca54d42001852930b
True
When World War II started in 1939, it divided the world into two alliances—the Allies (the United Kingdom and France at first in Europe, China in Asia since 1937, followed in 1941 by the Soviet Union, the United States); and the Axis powers consisting of Germany, Italy and Japan.[nb 1] During World War II, the United States, United Kingdom, and Soviet Union controlled Allied policy and emerged as the "Big Three". The Republic of China and the Big Three were referred as a "trusteeship of the powerful"  and were recognized as the Allied "Big Four" in Declaration by United Nations in 1942. These four countries were referred as the "Four Policemen" of the Allies and considered as the primary victors of World War II. The importance of France was acknowledged by their inclusion, along with the other four, in the group of countries allotted permanent seats in the United Nations Security Council.
What is a superpower?
5731173ce6313a140071cc2a
nations with overwhelming power and influence in the rest of the world
194
False
Who first used the term superpower?
5731173ce6313a140071cc2b
William T.R. Fox
297
False
Who were the three original superpowers?
5731173ce6313a140071cc2c
British Empire, the United States, and the Soviet Union
370
False
Who lost their superpower status in 1950s?
5731173ce6313a140071cc2d
British Empire
452
False
What are middle powers?
5731173ce6313a140071cc2e
those nations which exercise a degree of global influence, but are insufficient to be decisive on international affairs
614
False
William T.R. Fox
297
Who first used the term overwhelming influence?
5a14acf9a54d42001852931b
True
the British Empire, the United States, and the Soviet Union
366
What are the regional powers according to William T. R. Fox?
5a14acf9a54d42001852931c
True
the mid-1950s
434
When did the Soviet Union lose its superpower status?
5a14acf9a54d42001852931d
True
three
347
How many original middle powers are there?
5a14acf9a54d42001852931e
True
middle power
585
Which nations have a degree of overwhelming power but are not decisive internationally?
5a14acf9a54d42001852931f
True
Since the end of the World Wars, the term "great power" has been joined by a number of other power classifications. Foremost among these is the concept of the superpower, used to describe those nations with overwhelming power and influence in the rest of the world. It was first coined in 1944 by William T.R. Fox and according to him, there were three superpowers: the British Empire, the United States, and the Soviet Union. But by the mid-1950s the British Empire lost its superpower status, leaving the United States and the Soviet Union as the world's superpowers.[nb 2] The term middle power has emerged for those nations which exercise a degree of global influence, but are insufficient to be decisive on international affairs. Regional powers are those whose influence is generally confined to their region of the world.
During the cold war, what European powers rebuilt their ecomonies?
57311bd5e6313a140071cc3e
United Kingdom, France, and West Germany
77
False
By what year was China beginning to lose its hold as sole legitimate government?
57311bd5e6313a140071cc3f
1949
618
False
When did China lose its permanent seat at UN security council?
57311bd5e6313a140071cc40
1971
808
False
Japan and the European powers of the United Kingdom, France, and West Germany
40
What powers rebuilt their economies during 1949?
5a14c4dca54d420018529339
True
France and the United Kingdom
370
What two countries status as military powers was questioned?
5a14c4dca54d42001852933a
True
1971
808
When did West Germany lose its permanent UN security council seat?
5a14c4dca54d42001852933b
True
the Republic of China
624
After the cold war, which country began to lose its status as sole legitimate government?
5a14c4dca54d42001852933c
True
large defence budgets
270
What did China and Japan maintain to this day?
5a14c4dca54d42001852933d
True
During the Cold War, the Asian power of Japan and the European powers of the United Kingdom, France, and West Germany rebuilt their economies. France and the United Kingdom maintained technologically advanced armed forces with power projection capabilities and maintain large defence budgets to this day. Yet, as the Cold War continued, authorities began to question if France and the United Kingdom could retain their long-held statuses as great powers. China, with the world's largest population, has slowly risen to great power status, with large growth in economic and military power in the post-war period. After 1949, the Republic of China began to lose its recognition as the sole legitimate government of China by the other great powers, in favour of the People's Republic of China. Subsequently, in 1971, it lost its permanent seat at the UN Security Council to the People's Republic of China.
Since what time has military conflicts receded?
57311dbaa5e9cc1400cdbc2f
1960s
113
False
What country has risen above other superpowers?
57311dbaa5e9cc1400cdbc30
United States
343
False
Since what century has there always been parity in powers?
57311dbaa5e9cc1400cdbc31
modern era (the 16th century)
666
False
Who's primacy has factored into maintaining peace among powers?
57311dbaa5e9cc1400cdbc32
American
805
False
since the start of the modern era (the 16th century)
643
Since what time has there been direct military conflicts among countries?
5a14c7bda54d420018529343
True
unique period of American primacy
788
What has been important factor of the great powers receding into the background?
5a14c7bda54d420018529344
True
the Soviet Union
561
Since the 1960's what power was briefly equal in parity with the US?
5a14c7bda54d420018529345
True
the United States
520
What country has been involved in major confrontations among powers?
5a14c7bda54d420018529346
True
direct military conflicts and major confrontations have "receded into the background"
119
What has the Soviet Union mentioned about relations between the great powers?
5a14c7bda54d420018529347
True
According to Joshua Baron – a "researcher, lecturer, and consultant on international conflict" – since the early 1960s direct military conflicts and major confrontations have "receded into the background" with regards to relations among the great powers. Baron argues several reasons why this is the case, citing the unprecedented rise of the United States and its predominant position as the key reason. Baron highlights that since World War Two no other great power has been able to achieve parity or near parity with the United States, with the exception of the Soviet Union for a brief time. This position is unique among the great powers since the start of the modern era (the 16th century), where there has traditionally always been "tremendous parity among the great powers". This unique period of American primacy has been an important factor in maintaining a condition of peace between the great powers.
What formerly effective tool for international disputes is no longer effective among peer powers?
5731200be6313a140071cc5a
military force
83
False
What great powers have maintained peace?
5731200be6313a140071cc5b
France, Germany, Japan, the United Kingdom and the United States
202
False
Where have the powers maintained peace in recent years?
5731200be6313a140071cc5c
United Nations and other forums
517
False
What was the last crisis during cold war to escalate world powers?
5731200be6313a140071cc5d
Cuban missile crisis (1962
366
False
France, Germany, Japan, the United Kingdom and the United States
202
What countries agree that military force is effective to resolve disputes?
5a14cbaba54d42001852934d
True
the Cuban missile crisis (1962) during the Cold War
362
During what event did great powers use military force?
5a14cbaba54d42001852934e
True
Baron
336
Who mentioned that Western great powers still use military force to resolve disputes?
5a14cbaba54d42001852934f
True
military force
83
What formerly effective tool for the Cuban missile crisis is no longer effective?
5a14cbaba54d420018529350
True
the United Nations and other forums
513
Where have western nations discussed using military force?
5a14cbaba54d420018529351
True
Another important factor is the apparent consensus among Western great powers that military force is no longer an effective tool of resolving disputes among their peers. This "subset" of great powers – France, Germany, Japan, the United Kingdom and the United States – consider maintaining a "state of peace" as desirable. As evidence, Baron outlines that since the Cuban missile crisis (1962) during the Cold War, these influential Western nations have resolved all disputes among the great powers peacefully at the United Nations and other forums of international discussion.
What countries are recognized as Nuclear Weapons States?
573121fca5e9cc1400cdbc63
China, France, Russia, the United Kingdom and the United States
0
False
How many countries are permanent seats on the UN Security Council?
573121fca5e9cc1400cdbc64
five
190
False
What other countries are referred to as middle powers?
573121fca5e9cc1400cdbc65
China, France, Russia and the United Kingdom
659
False
What treaty addresses nuclear weapons?
573121fca5e9cc1400cdbc66
Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty
360
False
the Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty
356
What treaty addresses global political and economic dominance?
5a14d437a54d420018529369
True
China, France, Russia, the United Kingdom and the United States
0
What five countries are referred to as middle powers?
5a14d437a54d42001852936a
True
great powers
89
Why Are China, France, Russia, the UK and the US seen as by middle powers?
5a14d437a54d42001852936b
True
as to the current status of these powers or what precisely defines a great power
530
What is there not consensus on among nations regarding powers?
5a14d437a54d42001852936c
True
permanent seats with veto power
231
What do the five nations have as middle powers on the UN Security Council?
5a14d437a54d42001852936d
True
China, France, Russia, the United Kingdom and the United States are often referred to as great powers by academics due to "their political and economic dominance of the global arena". These five nations are the only states to have permanent seats with veto power on the UN Security Council. They are also the only recognized "Nuclear Weapons States" under the Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty, and maintain military expenditures which are among the largest in the world. However, there is no unanimous agreement among authorities as to the current status of these powers or what precisely defines a great power. For example, sources have at times referred to China, France, Russia and the United Kingdom as middle powers.
What countries are great powers mostly based on economic reasons?
573122cea5e9cc1400cdbc7f
Japan and Germany
0
False
Due to lack of strategic and hard power, countries are excluded from what?
573122cea5e9cc1400cdbc80
UN Security Council
259
False
What is the name for the grouping of countries of China, France, Russia and the United Kingdom; Germany and Japan?
573122cea5e9cc1400cdbc81
middle powers
530
False
Japan and Germany
0
What two countries are great powers because of their hard power capabilities?
5a14d7f2a54d42001852937d
True
P5+1 grouping
400
What grouping of world powers has Japan been a member of?
5a14d7f2a54d42001852937e
True
permanent seats and veto power on the UN Security Council
221
What benefits do middle power countries have as permanent members at the UN?
5a14d7f2a54d42001852937f
True
the third and fourth largest economies
93
How large are France and Russia's economies?
5a14d7f2a54d420018529380
True
strategic military reach
282
What are the five permanent Security Council Members lacking militarily?
5a14d7f2a54d420018529381
True
Japan and Germany are great powers too, though due to their large advanced economies (having the third and fourth largest economies respectively) rather than their strategic and hard power capabilities (i.e., the lack of permanent seats and veto power on the UN Security Council or strategic military reach). Germany has been a member together with the five permanent Security Council members in the P5+1 grouping of world powers. Like China, France, Russia and the United Kingdom; Germany and Japan have also been referred to as middle powers.
Zbigniew Brzezinski and Malik Mohan consider what country to be a great power too?
5731239605b4da19006bcde6
India
109
False
Many academics debate the status of this country as a power?
5731239605b4da19006bcde7
India
220
False
Is there agreement on the status of all powers?
5731239605b4da19006bcde8
no collective agreement
318
False
Zbigniew Brzezinski and Malik Mohan
64
Who have recently recognized contemporary great powers?
5a14dad6a54d420018529387
True
a number of academics believe that India is emerging as a great power, while some believe that India remains a middle power.
398
What have observers long considered about India's status?
5a14dad6a54d420018529388
True
a middle power
507
What do academics believe contemporary great powers remain?
5a14dad6a54d420018529389
True
there is no collective agreement among observers as to the status of India
309
What is the consensus about India's status among great powers?
5a14dad6a54d42001852938a
True
some believe that India remains a middle power
475
What is one type of power some world powers view as India's status in the world?
5a14dad6a54d42001852938b
True
In addition to those contemporary great powers mentioned above, Zbigniew Brzezinski and Malik Mohan consider India to be a great power too. Although unlike the contemporary great powers who have long been considered so, India's recognition among authorities as a great power is comparatively recent. However, there is no collective agreement among observers as to the status of India, for example, a number of academics believe that India is emerging as a great power, while some believe that India remains a middle power.
Milena Sterio includes what former axis powers among great powers?
57312538e6313a140071cc7e
Germany, Italy and Japan
86
False
What emerging power is considered a great power?
57312538e6313a140071cc7f
India
116
False
What G7 members are among great powers?
57312538e6313a140071cc80
Germany, Japan and Italy
205
False
Which country is debated as intermittent and/or least of great powers?
57312538e6313a140071cc81
Italy
427
False
Germany, Japan and Italy
205
What international organization members are considered great powers?
5a14e307a54d4200185293af
True
intermittent great power" or as "the least of the great powers".
440
What separate status are Germany, Italy and Japan given by various authors?
5a14e307a54d4200185293b0
True
Italy
378
What permanent member of the UNSC is considered the least of the great powers?
5a14e307a54d4200185293b1
True
Germany, Italy and Japan
86
What former axis powers do various authors include as great powers?
5a14e307a54d4200185293b2
True
due to their G7 membership and because of their influence in regional and international organizations.
249
Why does Milena Sterio consider UNSC members great powers?
5a14e307a54d4200185293b3
True
Milena Sterio, American expert of international law, includes the former axis powers (Germany, Italy and Japan) and India among the great powers along with the permanent members of the UNSC. She considers Germany, Japan and Italy to be great powers due to their G7 membership and because of their influence in regional and international organizations.  Various authors describe Italy as an equal major power, while others view Italy as an "intermittent great power" or as "the least of the great powers".
What organization is often seen as a great power in addition to member counties?
573126ae05b4da19006bcdf4
European Union
42
False
What other tools are used as alternative to military force?
573126ae05b4da19006bcdf5
trade and diplomacy
443
False
How many great powers are members of Europian Union?
573126ae05b4da19006bcdf6
three
735
False
What summits does EU have membership?
573126ae05b4da19006bcdf7
WTO and at G8 and G-20
146
False
in the functional spheres of trade and diplomacy
414
Where does Europe use its military dominance?
5a14e6e1a54d4200185293c3
True
has limited scope in the areas of foreign affairs and defence policy.
580
As a supranational union, what are the UK's limits?
5a14e6e1a54d4200185293c4
True
three
735
How many great powers are members of the WTO?
5a14e6e1a54d4200185293c5
True
WTO and at G8 and G-20 summits
146
At what summits does Germany have representation?
5a14e6e1a54d4200185293c6
True
economic affairs
264
In what area is the WTO exclusively competent?
5a14e6e1a54d4200185293c7
True
With continuing European integration, the European Union is increasingly being seen as a great power in its own right, with representation at the WTO and at G8 and G-20 summits. This is most notable in areas where the European Union has exclusive competence (i.e. economic affairs). It also reflects a non-traditional conception of Europe's world role as a global "civilian power", exercising collective influence in the functional spheres of trade and diplomacy, as an alternative to military dominance. The European Union is a supranational union and not a sovereign state, and has limited scope in the areas of foreign affairs and defence policy. These remain largely with the member states of the European Union, which include the three great powers of France, Germany and the United Kingdom (referred to as the "EU three").
How many wars occured between 1500s and 1953?
573127a7497a881900248bdd
64
312
False
For bout how many years was an average of one great power fighting another each year?
573127a7497a881900248bde
450
454
False
What country had the most conflicts from 1500s through mid 20th century?
573127a7497a881900248bdf
UK
836
False
What span was the Pax Britannica?
573127a7497a881900248be0
between 1815 and 1914
629
False
nineteen such instances against; Russia (8), France (5), Germany/Prussia (5) and Italy (1).
871
Between 1815 and 1914, how many acts of diplomacy were there and with what countries?
5a14cde7a54d420018529357
True
64
312
How many wars occurred pre-1960, that averaged about 5 years?
5a14cde7a54d420018529358
True
the UK
832
Between 1815-1914 what country had the most defining characteristics of diplomacy?
5a14cde7a54d420018529359
True
at least two great powers
486
In the 16th century, how many great powers were fighting each other in every year?
5a14cde7a54d42001852935a
True
between 1815 and 1914
629
During what time frame was diplomacy frequent among the great powers?
5a14cde7a54d42001852935b
True
Referring to great power relations pre-1960, Joshua Baron highlights that starting from around the 16th century and the rise of several European great powers, military conflicts and confrontations was the defining characteristic of diplomacy and relations between such powers. "Between 1500 and 1953, there were 64 wars in which at least one great power was opposed to another, and they averaged little more than five years in length. In approximately a 450-year time frame, on average at least two great powers were fighting one another in each and every year." Even during the period of Pax Britannica (or "the British Peace") between 1815 and 1914, war and military confrontations among the great powers was still a frequent occurrence. In fact, Joshua Baron points out that, in terms of militarized conflicts or confrontations, the UK led the way in this period with nineteen such instances against; Russia (8), France (5), Germany/Prussia (5) and Italy (1).
Bird
What is a group of endothermic vertebrates characterised by feathers and toothless beaked jaws?
5730ed42497a881900248a67
Birds
0
False
What is the smallest bird?
5730ed42497a881900248a68
bee hummingbird
282
False
What is the largest bird?
5730ed42497a881900248a69
ostrich
319
False
What is the size of the smallest bird?
5730ed42497a881900248a6a
5 cm (2 in)
270
False
What is the size of the largest bird?
5730ed42497a881900248a6b
2.75 m (9 ft)
305
False
Birds (Aves) are a group of endothermic vertebrates, characterised by feathers, toothless beaked jaws, the laying of hard-shelled eggs, a high metabolic rate, a four-chambered heart, and a lightweight but strong skeleton. Birds live worldwide and range in size from the 5 cm (2 in) bee hummingbird to the 2.75 m (9 ft) ostrich. They rank as the class of tetrapods with the most living species, at approximately ten thousand, with more than half of these being passerines, sometimes known as perching birds or, less accurately, as songbirds.
What are the last surviving dinosaurs, according o the fossil record?
5730ed91a5e9cc1400cdbafb
birds
33
False
When did true birds first appear?
5730ed91a5e9cc1400cdbafc
Cretaceous period
202
False
Name an example of an early stem-bird.
5730ed91a5e9cc1400cdbafd
Archaeopteryx
772
False
The fossil record indicates that birds are the last surviving dinosaurs, having evolved from feathered ancestors within the theropod group of saurischian dinosaurs. True birds first appeared during the Cretaceous period, around 100 million years ago. DNA-based evidence finds that birds diversified dramatically around the time of the Cretaceous–Paleogene extinction event that killed off all other dinosaurs. Birds in South America survived this event and then migrated to other parts of the world via multiple land bridges while diversifying during periods of global cooling. Primitive bird-like dinosaurs that lie outside class Aves proper, in the broader group Avialae, have been found dating back to the mid-Jurassic period. Many of these early "stem-birds", such as Archaeopteryx, were not yet capable of fully powered flight, and many retained primitive characteristics like toothy jaws in place of beaks, and long bony tails.
What makes birds uniquely adapted for flight?
5730ee0ce6313a140071cac0
digestive and respiratory systems
366
False
What type of bird particularly played an important part in the inception of Darwin's theory of evolution by natural selection?
5730ee0ce6313a140071cac1
Darwin's finches
632
False
Which part of the bird developed from forelimbs?
5730ee0ce6313a140071cac2
Wings
153
False
Birds have wings which are more or less developed depending on the species; the only known groups without wings are the extinct moas and elephant birds. Wings, which evolved from forelimbs, give most birds the ability to fly, although further speciation has led to some flightless birds, including ratites, penguins, and diverse endemic island species of birds. The digestive and respiratory systems of birds are also uniquely adapted for flight. Some bird species of aquatic environments, particularly the aforementioned flightless penguins, and also members of the duck family, have also evolved for swimming. Birds, specifically Darwin's finches, played an important part in the inception of Darwin's theory of evolution by natural selection.
Which type of birds are among the most intelligent animals?
5730ef7ca5e9cc1400cdbb0d
corvids and parrots
23
False
How to birds produce offspring?
5730ef7ca5e9cc1400cdbb0e
by laying eggs which are fertilized through sexual reproduction
738
False
Where are eggs usually laid?
5730ef7ca5e9cc1400cdbb0f
nest
830
False
Some birds, especially corvids and parrots, are among the most intelligent animals; several bird species make and use tools, and many social species pass on knowledge across generations, which is considered a form of culture. Many species annually migrate great distances. Birds are social, communicating with visual signals, calls, and bird songs, and participating in such social behaviours as cooperative breeding and hunting, flocking, and mobbing of predators. The vast majority of bird species are socially monogamous, usually for one breeding season at a time, sometimes for years, but rarely for life. Other species have polygynous ("many females") or, rarely, polyandrous ("many males") breeding systems. Birds produce offspring by laying eggs which are fertilized through sexual reproduction. They are usually laid in a nest and incubated by the parents. Most birds have an extended period of parental care after hatching. Some birds, such as hens, lay eggs even when not fertilized, though unfertilized eggs do not produce offspring.
Which birds are popular as pets?
5730efe2e6313a140071cac6
Songbirds, parrots
158
False
What is guano?
5730efe2e6313a140071cac7
bird excrement
224
False
What is the name of bird excrement?
5730efe2e6313a140071cac8
Guano
217
False
What is harvested for use as fertilizer?
5730efe2e6313a140071cac9
Guano
217
False
How many species of birds have become extinct as a result of human activity?
5730efe2e6313a140071caca
120–130
335
False
Many species of birds are economically important. Domesticated and undomesticated birds (poultry and game) are important sources of eggs, meat, and feathers. Songbirds, parrots, and other species are popular as pets. Guano (bird excrement) is harvested for use as a fertilizer. Birds prominently figure throughout human culture. About 120–130 species have become extinct due to human activity since the 17th century, and hundreds more before then. Human activity threatens about 1,200 bird species with extinction, though efforts are underway to protect them. Recreational birdwatching is an important part of the ecotourism industry.
Besides Aves, what group contains the only living representatives of the reptile clade Archosauria?
5730f10ae6313a140071cad0
clade Crocodilia
29
False
Who defined Aves to include only the crown group of the set of modern birds?
5730f10ae6313a140071cad1
Gauthier
473
False
What is a sister group to Aves?
5730f10ae6313a140071cad2
clade Crocodilia
29
False
Aves and a sister group, the clade Crocodilia, contain the only living representatives of the reptile clade Archosauria. During the late 1990s, Aves was most commonly defined phylogenetically as all descendants of the most recent common ancestor of modern birds and Archaeopteryx lithographica. However, an earlier definition proposed by Jacques Gauthier gained wide currency in the 21st century, and is used by many scientists including adherents of the Phylocode system. Gauthier defined Aves to include only the crown group of the set of modern birds. This was done by excluding most groups known only from fossils, and assigning them, instead, to the Avialae, in part to avoid the uncertainties about the placement of Archaeopteryx in relation to animals traditionally thought of as theropod dinosaurs.
What evidence leads most scientists to accept that birds are a specialized subgroup of theropod dinosaurs?
57310b9a05b4da19006bcd1c
fossil and biological evidence
9
False
What is a group of theropods which include dromaeosaurs and oviraptorids?
57310b9a05b4da19006bcd1d
Maniraptora
168
False
Recent discoveries in what country demonstrate many small theropod feathered dinosaurs.
57310b9a05b4da19006bcd1e
China
471
False
Based on fossil and biological evidence, most scientists accept that birds are a specialized subgroup of theropod dinosaurs, and more specifically, they are members of Maniraptora, a group of theropods which includes dromaeosaurs and oviraptorids, among others. As scientists have discovered more theropods closely related to birds, the previously clear distinction between non-birds and birds has become blurred. Recent discoveries in the Liaoning Province of northeast China, which demonstrate many small theropod feathered dinosaurs, contribute to this ambiguity.
What are the closest relatives of the deinonychosaurs?
5731123fe6313a140071cbea
flying theropods
60
False
What are the closest relatives of flying theropods?
5731123fe6313a140071cbeb
deinonychosaurs
124
False
Dromaeosaurids and troodontids are members of what group?
5731123fe6313a140071cbec
deinonychosaurs
124
False
The consensus view in contemporary paleontology is that the flying theropods, or avialans, are the closest relatives of the deinonychosaurs, which include dromaeosaurids and troodontids. Together, these form a group called Paraves. Some basal members of this group, such as Microraptor, have features which may have enabled them to glide or fly. The most basal deinonychosaurs were very small. This evidence raises the possibility that the ancestor of all paravians may have been arboreal, have been able to glide, or both. Unlike Archaeopteryx and the non-avialan feathered dinosaurs, who primarily ate meat, recent studies suggest that the first avialans were omnivores.
What is known as one of the first transitional fossils to be found?
57311339a5e9cc1400cdbc01
Late Jurassic Archaeopteryx
4
False
What was the first fossil to display both clearly traditional reptilian characteristics?
57311339a5e9cc1400cdbc02
Archaeopteryx
178
False
Fossils with teeth, clawed fingers and a long lizard-like tail have what type of characteristics?
57311339a5e9cc1400cdbc03
reptilian
249
False
The Late Jurassic Archaeopteryx is well known as one of the first transitional fossils to be found, and it provided support for the theory of evolution in the late 19th century. Archaeopteryx was the first fossil to display both clearly traditional reptilian characteristics: teeth, clawed fingers, and a long, lizard-like tail, as well as wings with flight feathers similar to those of modern birds. It is not considered a direct ancestor of birds, though it is possibly closely related to the true ancestor.
The Oxfordian stage is also known as what?
573113b905b4da19006bcd4e
late Jurassic period
108
False
How long ago was the late Jurassic period?
573113b905b4da19006bcd4f
about 160 million years ago
148
False
Avian species such as Anchiornis huxleyi and Xiaotingia zhengi are from which time period?
573113b905b4da19006bcd50
late Jurassic period
108
False
What may have been used in aerial maneuvering?
573113b905b4da19006bcd51
hind wings
692
False
The earliest known avialan fossils come from the Tiaojishan Formation of China, which has been dated to the late Jurassic period (Oxfordian stage), about 160 million years ago. The avialan species from this time period include Anchiornis huxleyi, Xiaotingia zhengi, and Aurornis xui. The well-known early avialan, Archaeopteryx, dates from slightly later Jurassic rocks (about 155 million years old) from Germany. Many of these early avialans shared unusual anatomical features that may be ancestral to modern birds, but were later lost during bird evolution. These features include enlarged claws on the second toe which may have been held clear of the ground in life, and long feathers or "hind wings" covering the hind limbs and feet, which may have been used in aerial maneuvering.
During which time period did avialans diversify into a wide variety of forms?
57311531e6313a140071cc08
Cretaceous Period
61
False
Which forms retained the long bony tails of their ancestors?
57311531e6313a140071cc09
Archaeopteryx and Jeholornis
298
False
When did the ancestor of all modern birds evolve a better sense of smell?
57311531e6313a140071cc0a
late Cretaceous
498
False
How long ago was the late Cretaceous period?
57311531e6313a140071cc0b
around 95 million years ago
515
False
Avialans diversified into a wide variety of forms during the Cretaceous Period. Many groups retained primitive characteristics, such as clawed wings and teeth, though the latter were lost independently in a number of avialan groups, including modern birds (Aves). While the earliest forms, such as Archaeopteryx and Jeholornis, retained the long bony tails of their ancestors, the tails of more advanced avialans were shortened with the advent of the pygostyle bone in the group Pygostylia. In the late Cretaceous, around 95 million years ago, the ancestor of all modern birds also evolved a better sense of smell.
What were the first large, diverse lineage of short-tailed avialans to evolve?
573115ade6313a140071cc10
enantiornithes
77
False
Because of the construction of their shoulder bones, what were the enantiornithes called?
573115ade6313a140071cc11
opposite birds
97
False
What was the dominant group of avialans during the Cretaceous period?
573115ade6313a140071cc12
enantiornithes
433
False
When did enantiornithes become extinct?
573115ade6313a140071cc13
end of the Mesozoic era
508
False
The first large, diverse lineage of short-tailed avialans to evolve were the enantiornithes, or "opposite birds", so named because the construction of their shoulder bones was in reverse to that of modern birds. Enantiornithes occupied a wide array of ecological niches, from sand-probing shorebirds and fish-eaters to tree-dwelling forms and seed-eaters. While they were the dominant group of avialans during the Cretaceous period, enantiornithes became extinct along with many other dinosaur groups at the end of the Mesozoic era.
What does Euornithes mean?
573116a4e6313a140071cc22
true birds
88
False
Why does Euornithes mean "true birds?"
573116a4e6313a140071cc23
because they include the ancestors of modern birds
101
False
What group became the first avialans to develop true pygostyle and a fully mobile fan of tail feathers?
573116a4e6313a140071cc24
Euornithes
917
False
What may have replaced the "hind wing" as the primary mode of aerial maneuverability?
573116a4e6313a140071cc25
fully mobile fan of tail feathers
993
False
Many species of the second major avialan lineage to diversify, the Euornithes (meaning "true birds", because they include the ancestors of modern birds), were semi-aquatic and specialized in eating fish and other small aquatic organisms. Unlike the enantiornithes, which dominated land-based and arboreal habitats, most early euornithes lacked perching adaptations and seem to have included shorebird-like species, waders, and swimming and diving species. The later included the superficially gull-like Ichthyornis, the Hesperornithiformes, which became so well adapted to hunting fish in marine environments that they lost the ability to fly and became primarily aquatic. The early euornithes also saw the development of many traits associated with modern birds, like strongly keeled breastbones, toothless, beaked portions of their jaws (though most non-avian euornithes retained teeth in other parts of the jaws). Euornithes also included the first avialans to develop true pygostyle and a fully mobile fan of tail feathers, which may have replaced the "hind wing" as the primary mode of aerial maneuverability and braking in flight.
All modern birds lie within which crown group?
5731185a05b4da19006bcd90
Aves
44
False
What is another name for Aves?
5731185a05b4da19006bcd91
Neornithes
62
False
The two subdivisions of what group include Palaeognathae and Neognathae?
5731185a05b4da19006bcd92
Aves
44
False
What is the number range of living bird species?
5731185a05b4da19006bcd93
9,800 to 10,050
497
False
All modern birds lie within the crown group Aves (alternately Neornithes), which has two subdivisions: the Palaeognathae, which includes the flightless ratites (such as the ostriches) and the weak-flying tinamous, and the extremely diverse Neognathae, containing all other birds. These two subdivisions are often given the rank of superorder, although Livezey and Zusi assigned them "cohort" rank. Depending on the taxonomic viewpoint, the number of known living bird species varies anywhere from 9,800 to 10,050.
What was the earliest divergence within the Neognathes?
573118d705b4da19006bcd98
Galloanserae
62
False
What is the superorder containing the Anseriformes?
573118d705b4da19006bcd99
Galloanserae
62
False
Ducks, geese, swans and screamers are part of which group?
573118d705b4da19006bcd9a
Anseriformes
106
False
The pheasants, grouse and their allies form which group?
573118d705b4da19006bcd9b
Galliformes
163
False
The earliest divergence within the Neognathes was that of the Galloanserae, the superorder containing the Anseriformes (ducks, geese, swans and screamers) and the Galliformes (the pheasants, grouse, and their allies, together with the mound builders and the guans and their allies). The earliest fossil remains of true birds come from the possible galliform Austinornis lentus, dated to about 85 million years ago, but the dates for the actual splits are much debated by scientists. The Aves are agreed to have evolved in the Cretaceous, and the split between the Galloanseri from other Neognathes occurred before the Cretaceous–Paleogene extinction event, but there are different opinions about whether the radiation of the remaining Neognathes occurred before or after the extinction of the other dinosaurs. This disagreement is in part caused by a divergence in the evidence; molecular dating suggests a Cretaceous radiation, while fossil evidence supports a Cenozoic radiation. Attempts to reconcile the molecular and fossil evidence have proved controversial, but recent results show that all the extant groups of birds originated from only a small handful of species that survived the Cretaceous–Paleogene extinction.
Sibley and Ahlquist' Phylogeny and Classification of Birds is a landmark work on the classification of what animals?
57311971497a881900248b67
birds
163
False
What do scientists disagree about?
57311971497a881900248b68
relationships between the orders themselves
331
False
What do scientists tend to agree on?
57311971497a881900248b69
the assignment of orders is accurate
259
False
The classification of birds is a contentious issue. Sibley and Ahlquist's Phylogeny and Classification of Birds (1990) is a landmark work on the classification of birds, although it is frequently debated and constantly revised. Most evidence seems to suggest the assignment of orders is accurate, but scientists disagree about the relationships between the orders themselves; evidence from modern bird anatomy, fossils and DNA have all been brought to bear on the problem, but no strong consensus has emerged. More recently, new fossil and molecular evidence is providing an increasingly clear picture of the evolution of modern bird orders. The most recent effort is drawn above and is based on whole genome sequencing of 48 representative species.
Birds live on how many continents?
57311a4705b4da19006bcda0
seven
61
False
Highest bird diversity occurs in which regions?
57311a4705b4da19006bcda1
tropical
239
False
Some penguins have been recording diving up to how many feet?
57311a4705b4da19006bcda2
980
707
False
Some seabird species only come ashore for what purpose?
57311a4705b4da19006bcda3
to breed
636
False
Birds live and breed in most terrestrial habitats and on all seven continents, reaching their southern extreme in the snow petrel's breeding colonies up to 440 kilometres (270 mi) inland in Antarctica. The highest bird diversity occurs in tropical regions. It was earlier thought that this high diversity was the result of higher speciation rates in the tropics, however recent studies found higher speciation rates in the high latitudes that were offset by greater extinction rates than in the tropics. Several families of birds have adapted to life both on the world's oceans and in them, with some seabird species coming ashore only to breed and some penguins have been recorded diving up to 300 metres (980 ft).
The ring-necked pheasant has been introduced as what kind of bird?
57311df8e6313a140071cc4a
game bird
242
False
Why have some species spread naturally far beyond their original ranges?
57311df8e6313a140071cc4b
agricultural practices created suitable new habitat
529
False
Where have many birds established breeding populations?
57311df8e6313a140071cc4c
in areas to which they have been introduced by humans
56
False
Many bird species have established breeding populations in areas to which they have been introduced by humans. Some of these introductions have been deliberate; the ring-necked pheasant, for example, has been introduced around the world as a game bird. Others have been accidental, such as the establishment of wild monk parakeets in several North American cities after their escape from captivity. Some species, including cattle egret, yellow-headed caracara and galah, have spread naturally far beyond their original ranges as agricultural practices created suitable new habitat.
What consists of very lightweight bones?
57311ee005b4da19006bcdb8
The skeleton
0
False
What does the skeleton consist of?
57311ee005b4da19006bcdb9
very lightweight bones
25
False
What are pneumatic cavities?
57311ee005b4da19006bcdba
large air-filled cavities
59
False
What are large air-filled cavities that connect to the respiratory system?
57311ee005b4da19006bcdbb
pneumatic cavities
93
False
What is formed when vertebrae are fused with the pelvis?
57311ee005b4da19006bcdbc
synsacrum
569
False
The skeleton consists of very lightweight bones. They have large air-filled cavities (called pneumatic cavities) which connect with the respiratory system. The skull bones in adults are fused and do not show cranial sutures. The orbits are large and separated by a bony septum. The spine has cervical, thoracic, lumbar and caudal regions with the number of cervical (neck) vertebrae highly variable and especially flexible, but movement is reduced in the anterior thoracic vertebrae and absent in the later vertebrae. The last few are fused with the pelvis to form the synsacrum. The ribs are flattened and the sternum is keeled for the attachment of flight muscles except in the flightless bird orders. The forelimbs are modified into wings.
What is it called when a bird's kidneys extract nitrogenous waste from their bloodstream and secrete it as uric acid?
57312110a5e9cc1400cdbc53
uricotelic
39
False
Which bid has a urinary bladder or external urethral opening?
57312110a5e9cc1400cdbc54
ostrich
310
False
What is a multi-purpose opening on birds?
57312110a5e9cc1400cdbc55
cloaca
660
False
How do most birds mate?
57312110a5e9cc1400cdbc56
by joining cloaca
741
False
What aids birds with flight?
57312110a5e9cc1400cdbc57
rapid digestion
1452
False
Like the reptiles, birds are primarily uricotelic, that is, their kidneys extract nitrogenous waste from their bloodstream and excrete it as uric acid instead of urea or ammonia through the ureters into the intestine. Birds do not have a urinary bladder or external urethral opening and (with exception of the ostrich) uric acid is excreted along with feces as a semisolid waste. However, birds such as hummingbirds can be facultatively ammonotelic, excreting most of the nitrogenous wastes as ammonia. They also excrete creatine, rather than creatinine like mammals. This material, as well as the output of the intestines, emerges from the bird's cloaca. The cloaca is a multi-purpose opening: waste is expelled through it, most birds mate by joining cloaca, and females lay eggs from it. In addition, many species of birds regurgitate pellets. Males within Palaeognathae (with the exception of the kiwis), the Anseriformes (with the exception of screamers), and in rudimentary forms in Galliformes (but fully developed in Cracidae) possess a penis, which is never present in Neoaves. The length is thought to be related to sperm competition. When not copulating, it is hidden within the proctodeum compartment within the cloaca, just inside the vent. The digestive system of birds is unique, with a crop for storage and a gizzard that contains swallowed stones for grinding food to compensate for the lack of teeth. Most birds are highly adapted for rapid digestion to aid with flight. Some migratory birds have adapted to use protein from many parts of their bodies, including protein from the intestines, as additional energy during migration.
Which animal has one of the most complex respiratory system of all animal groups?
57312208497a881900248b7d
Birds
0
False
Upon inhalation, what percentage of fresh air bypasses the lungs and flows directly into a posterior air sac?
57312208497a881900248b7e
75%
94
False
Where does the other 25 percent of fresh air go?
57312208497a881900248b7f
directly into the lungs
304
False
Sound production is achieved using what muscular chamber?
57312208497a881900248b80
syrinx
618
False
What is the syrinx?
57312208497a881900248b81
a muscular chamber incorporating multiple tympanic membranes
626
False
Birds have one of the most complex respiratory systems of all animal groups. Upon inhalation, 75% of the fresh air bypasses the lungs and flows directly into a posterior air sac which extends from the lungs and connects with air spaces in the bones and fills them with air. The other 25% of the air goes directly into the lungs. When the bird exhales, the used air flows out of the lung and the stored fresh air from the posterior air sac is simultaneously forced into the lungs. Thus, a bird's lungs receive a constant supply of fresh air during both inhalation and exhalation. Sound production is achieved using the syrinx, a muscular chamber incorporating multiple tympanic membranes which diverges from the lower end of the trachea; the trachea being elongated in some species, increasing the volume of vocalizations and the perception of the bird's size.
The avian circulatory system is driven by what?
5731236de6313a140071cc6c
four-chambered, myogenic heart
44
False
Where is the heart contained in the avian circulatory system?
5731236de6313a140071cc6d
fibrous pericardial sac
90
False
What lubricates the pericardial sac?
5731236de6313a140071cc6e
serous fluid
153
False
Why are Avian hearts larger than mammalian hearts when compared to body mass?
5731236de6313a140071cc6f
allows more blood to be pumped
1216
False
The avian circulatory system is driven by a four-chambered, myogenic heart contained in a fibrous pericardial sac. This pericardial sac is filled with a serous fluid for lubrication. The heart itself is divided into a right and left half, each with an atrium and ventricle. The atrium and ventricles of each side are separated by atrioventricular valves which prevent back flow from one chamber to the next during contraction. Being myogenic, the heart's pace is maintained by pacemaker cells found in the sinoatrial node, located on the right atrium. The sinoatrial node uses calcium to cause a depolarizing signal transduction pathway from the atrium through right and left atrioventricular bundle which communicates contraction to the ventricles. The avian heart also consists of muscular arches that are made up of thick bundles of muscular layers. Much like a mammalian heart, the avian heart is composed of endocardial, myocardial and epicardial layers. The atrium walls tend to be thinner than the ventricle walls, due to the intense ventricular contraction used to pump oxygenated blood throughout the body. Avian hearts are generally larger than mammalian hearts when compared to body mass. This adaptation allows more blood to be pumped to meet the high metabolic need associated with flight.
Why are birds' arteries composed of thick elastic muscles?
573123ff05b4da19006bcdec
to withstand the pressure of the ventricular constriction
302
False
What moves through the arteries?
573123ff05b4da19006bcded
Blood
417
False
What is organized into capillary beds in tissues?
573123ff05b4da19006bcdee
Capillaries
870
False
What is the funneling that occurs that brings blood back to the heart?
573123ff05b4da19006bcdef
vasodilation
1361
False
Birds have a very efficient system for diffusing oxygen into the blood; birds have a ten times greater surface area to gas exchange volume than mammals. As a result, birds have more blood in their capillaries per unit of volume of lung than a mammal. The arteries are composed of thick elastic muscles to withstand the pressure of the ventricular constriction, and become more rigid as they move away from the heart. Blood moves through the arteries, which undergo vasoconstriction, and into arterioles which act as a transportation system to distribute primarily oxygen as well as nutrients to all tissues of the body. As the arterioles move away from the heart and into individual organs and tissues they are further divided to increase surface area and slow blood flow. Travelling through the arterioles blood moves into the capillaries where gas exchange can occur. Capillaries are organized into capillary beds in tissues, it is here that blood exchanges oxygen for carbon dioxide waste. In the capillary beds blood flow is slowed to allow maximum diffusion of oxygen into the tissues. Once the blood has become deoxygenated it travels through venules then veins and back to the heart. Veins, unlike arteries, are thin and rigid as they do not need to withstand extreme pressure. As blood travels through the venules to the veins a funneling occurs called vasodilation bringing blood back to the heart. Once the blood reaches the heart it moves first into the right atrium, then the right ventricle to be pumped through the lungs for further gas exchange of carbon dioxide waste for oxygen. Oxygenated blood then flows from the lungs through the left atrium to the left ventricle where it is pumped out to the body.
Which bird system is large relative to a bird's size?
573124bb497a881900248bb5
nervous system
4
False
What is tetrachromatic?
573124bb497a881900248bb6
possessing ultraviolet (UV) sensitive cone cells in the eye as well as green, red and blue ones
596
False
Why do birds need to perceive ultraviolet light?
573124bb497a881900248bb7
courtship
762
False
What regulates breeding activities?
573124bb497a881900248bb8
photo-receptive cells in
915
False
The nervous system is large relative to the bird's size. The most developed part of the brain is the one that controls the flight-related functions, while the cerebellum coordinates movement and the cerebrum controls behaviour patterns, navigation, mating and nest building. Most birds have a poor sense of smell with notable exceptions including kiwis, New World vultures and tubenoses. The avian visual system is usually highly developed. Water birds have special flexible lenses, allowing accommodation for vision in air and water. Some species also have dual fovea. Birds are tetrachromatic, possessing ultraviolet (UV) sensitive cone cells in the eye as well as green, red and blue ones. This allows them to perceive ultraviolet light, which is involved in courtship. Birds have specialized light-sensing cells deep in their brains that respond to light without input from eyes or other sensory neurons. These photo-receptive cells in the hypothalamus are involved in detecting the longer days of spring, and thus regulate breeding activities.
What covers the eye and acts as a contact lens in many aquatic birds?
573125a9e6313a140071cc86
nictitating membrane
684
False
What is the fan shaped blood supply system in a bird's retina?
573125a9e6313a140071cc87
pecten
839
False
Which birds have a wide visual field?
573125a9e6313a140071cc88
Birds with eyes on the sides of their heads
942
False
What kind of vision do owls have?
573125a9e6313a140071cc89
binocular vision
1082
False
Where is a bird's cochlea located?
573125a9e6313a140071cc8a
inner ear
1313
False
Many birds show plumage patterns in ultraviolet that are invisible to the human eye; some birds whose sexes appear similar to the naked eye are distinguished by the presence of ultraviolet reflective patches on their feathers. Male blue tits have an ultraviolet reflective crown patch which is displayed in courtship by posturing and raising of their nape feathers. Ultraviolet light is also used in foraging—kestrels have been shown to search for prey by detecting the UV reflective urine trail marks left on the ground by rodents. The eyelids of a bird are not used in blinking. Instead the eye is lubricated by the nictitating membrane, a third eyelid that moves horizontally. The nictitating membrane also covers the eye and acts as a contact lens in many aquatic birds. The bird retina has a fan shaped blood supply system called the pecten. Most birds cannot move their eyes, although there are exceptions, such as the great cormorant. Birds with eyes on the sides of their heads have a wide visual field, while birds with eyes on the front of their heads, such as owls, have binocular vision and can estimate the depth of field. The avian ear lacks external pinnae but is covered by feathers, although in some birds, such as the Asio, Bubo and Otus owls, these feathers form tufts which resemble ears. The inner ear has a cochlea, but it is not spiral as in mammals.
What is known to sometimes result in injury or death?
5731339ae6313a140071cd0c
intraspecific conflicts
56
False
What is another name for Anhimidae?
5731339ae6313a140071cd0d
screamers
134
False
What is another name for steamer ducks?
5731339ae6313a140071cd0e
Tachyeres
365
False
What do stone curlews use to punch and hammer opponents?
5731339ae6313a140071cd0f
bony knob on the alular metacarpal
509
False
A dearth of field observations limit our knowledge, but intraspecific conflicts are known to sometimes result in injury or death. The screamers (Anhimidae), some jacanas (Jacana, Hydrophasianus), the spur-winged goose (Plectropterus), the torrent duck (Merganetta) and nine species of lapwing (Vanellus) use a sharp spur on the wing as a weapon. The steamer ducks (Tachyeres), geese and swans (Anserinae), the solitaire (Pezophaps), sheathbills (Chionis), some guans (Crax) and stone curlews (Burhinus) use a bony knob on the alular metacarpal to punch and hammer opponents. The jacanas Actophilornis and Irediparra have an expanded, blade-like radius. The extinct Xenicibis was unique in having an elongate forelimb and massive hand which likely functioned in combat or defence as a jointed club or flail. Swans, for instance, may strike with the bony spurs and bite when defending eggs or young.
What is a feature characteristic of birds?
57313429a5e9cc1400cdbcdb
Feathers
0
False
What feature of a bird facilitate flight?
57313429a5e9cc1400cdbcdc
Feathers
0
False
What is pterylae?
57313429a5e9cc1400cdbcdd
specific tracts of skin
401
False
Feathers are a feature characteristic of birds (though also present in some dinosaurs not currently considered to be true birds). They facilitate flight, provide insulation that aids in thermoregulation, and are used in display, camouflage, and signaling. There are several types of feathers, each serving its own set of purposes. Feathers are epidermal growths attached to the skin and arise only in specific tracts of skin called pterylae. The distribution pattern of these feather tracts (pterylosis) is used in taxonomy and systematics. The arrangement and appearance of feathers on the body, called plumage, may vary within species by age, social status, and sex.
What is regularly moulted?
57314d0e497a881900248d89
Plumage
0
False
What is the standard plumage of a bird that has moulted after breeding?
57314d0e497a881900248d8a
"non-breeding" plumage
109
False
How often does moulting occur in most species?
57314d0e497a881900248d8b
annual
321
False
What type of birds may moult only once every few years?
57314d0e497a881900248d8c
large birds of prey
391
False
Plumage is regularly moulted; the standard plumage of a bird that has moulted after breeding is known as the "non-breeding" plumage, or—in the Humphrey-Parkes terminology—"basic" plumage; breeding plumages or variations of the basic plumage are known under the Humphrey-Parkes system as "alternate" plumages. Moulting is annual in most species, although some may have two moults a year, and large birds of prey may moult only once every few years. Moulting patterns vary across species. In passerines, flight feathers are replaced one at a time with the innermost primary being the first. When the fifth of sixth primary is replaced, the outermost tertiaries begin to drop. After the innermost tertiaries are moulted, the secondaries starting from the innermost begin to drop and this proceeds to the outer feathers (centrifugal moult). The greater primary coverts are moulted in synchrony with the primary that they overlap. A small number of species, such as ducks and geese, lose all of their flight feathers at once, temporarily becoming flightless. As a general rule, the tail feathers are moulted and replaced starting with the innermost pair. Centripetal moults of tail feathers are however seen in the Phasianidae. The centrifugal moult is modified in the tail feathers of woodpeckers and treecreepers, in that it begins with the second innermost pair of feathers and finishes with the central pair of feathers so that the bird maintains a functional climbing tail. The general pattern seen in passerines is that the primaries are replaced outward, secondaries inward, and the tail from center outward. Before nesting, the females of most bird species gain a bare brood patch by losing feathers close to the belly. The skin there is well supplied with blood vessels and helps the bird in incubation.
How often do birds groom their feathers?
57314e18e6313a140071cdec
daily
59
False
What percentage of their day do birds groom their feathers?
57314e18e6313a140071cded
9%
96
False
What do birds use to brush away foreign particles?
57314e18e6313a140071cdee
The bill
128
False
What is the process of removing feather parasites?
57314e18e6313a140071cdef
anting
491
False
Feathers require maintenance and birds preen or groom them daily, spending an average of around 9% of their daily time on this. The bill is used to brush away foreign particles and to apply waxy secretions from the uropygial gland; these secretions protect the feathers' flexibility and act as an antimicrobial agent, inhibiting the growth of feather-degrading bacteria. This may be supplemented with the secretions of formic acid from ants, which birds receive through a behaviour known as anting, to remove feather parasites.
What distinguishes birds from almost all other vertebrate classes?
57314ee9497a881900248d91
Most birds can fly,
0
False
What is the primary means of locomotion for most bird species?
57314ee9497a881900248d92
Flight
87
False
How many large flight muscles do birds have?
57314ee9497a881900248d93
two
298
False
Pectoralis account for what percentage of total mass of a bird?
57314ee9497a881900248d94
15%
359
False
Approximately how many extant bird species are flightless?
57314ee9497a881900248d95
60
651
False
Most birds can fly, which distinguishes them from almost all other vertebrate classes. Flight is the primary means of locomotion for most bird species and is used for breeding, feeding, and predator avoidance and escape. Birds have various adaptations for flight, including a lightweight skeleton, two large flight muscles, the pectoralis (which accounts for 15% of the total mass of the bird) and the supracoracoideus, as well as a modified forelimb (wing) that serves as an aerofoil. Wing shape and size generally determine a bird species' type of flight; many birds combine powered, flapping flight with less energy-intensive soaring flight. About 60 extant bird species are flightless, as were many extinct birds. Flightlessness often arises in birds on isolated islands, probably due to limited resources and the absence of land predators. Though flightless, penguins use similar musculature and movements to "fly" through the water, as do auks, shearwaters and dippers.
What is the term used for birds that employ many strategies to obtain food?
57314f60a5e9cc1400cdbe59
generalists
95
False
What is the term used for birds that concentrate time and effort on specific food items?
57314f60a5e9cc1400cdbe5a
specialists
233
False
What type of birds have specially adapted brushy tongues?
57314f60a5e9cc1400cdbe5b
Nectar feeders
564
False
Birds that employ many strategies to obtain food or feed on a variety of food items are called generalists, while others that concentrate time and effort on specific food items or have a single strategy to obtain food are considered specialists. Birds' feeding strategies vary by species. Many birds glean for insects, invertebrates, fruit, or seeds. Some hunt insects by suddenly attacking from a branch. Those species that seek pest insects are considered beneficial 'biological control agents' and their presence encouraged in biological pest control programs. Nectar feeders such as hummingbirds, sunbirds, lories, and lorikeets amongst others have specially adapted brushy tongues and in many cases bills designed to fit co-adapted flowers. Kiwis and shorebirds with long bills probe for invertebrates; shorebirds' varied bill lengths and feeding methods result in the separation of ecological niches. Loons, diving ducks, penguins and auks pursue their prey underwater, using their wings or feet for propulsion, while aerial predators such as sulids, kingfishers and terns plunge dive after their prey. Flamingos, three species of prion, and some ducks are filter feeders. Geese and dabbling ducks are primarily grazers.
What is the term for stealing food items from other birds?
57315007e6313a140071ce14
kleptoparasitism
66
False
What is kleptoparasitism?
57315007e6313a140071ce15
stealing food items from other birds
84
False
A vulture is what type of bird?
57315007e6313a140071ce16
scavengers
420
False
Some species, including frigatebirds, gulls, and skuas, engage in kleptoparasitism, stealing food items from other birds. Kleptoparasitism is thought to be a supplement to food obtained by hunting, rather than a significant part of any species' diet; a study of great frigatebirds stealing from masked boobies estimated that the frigatebirds stole at most 40% of their food and on average stole only 5%. Other birds are scavengers; some of these, like vultures, are specialised carrion eaters, while others, like gulls, corvids, or other birds of prey, are opportunists.
How do nesting sandgrouse carry water to their young?
573150b7497a881900248dc9
wetting their belly feathers
481
False
What is one family of birds have adaptations to produce a nutritive fluid to their chicks?
573150b7497a881900248dca
The pigeon family
606
False
What is a nutritive fluid that some birds provide to their chicks?
573150b7497a881900248dcb
crop milk
701
False
What is crop milk?
573150b7497a881900248dcc
a nutritive fluid
676
False
Most birds scoop water in their beaks and raise their head to let water run down the throat. Some species, especially of arid zones, belonging to the pigeon, finch, mousebird, button-quail and bustard families are capable of sucking up water without the need to tilt back their heads. Some desert birds depend on water sources and sandgrouse are particularly well known for their daily congregations at waterholes. Nesting sandgrouse and many plovers carry water to their young by wetting their belly feathers. Some birds carry water for chicks at the nest in their crop or regurgitate it along with food. The pigeon family, flamingos and penguins have adaptations to produce a nutritive fluid called crop milk that they provide to their chicks.
Birds preen often with the application of secretions from which gland?
5731dce4e17f3d14004224b1
preen gland
299
False
What do birds bathe in?
5731dce4e17f3d14004224b2
water or dust
332
False
What is anting?
5731dce4e17f3d14004224b3
bird encourages ants to run through their plumage
628
False
What is it called when birds encourage ants to run through their plumage?
5731dce4e17f3d14004224b4
anting
608
False
Feathers being critical to the survival of a bird, require maintenance. Apart from physical wear and tear, feathers face the onslaught of fungi, ectoparasitic feather mites and birdlice. The physical condition of feathers are maintained by preening often with the application of secretions from the preen gland. Birds also bathe in water or dust themselves. While some birds dip into shallow water, more aerial species may make aerial dips into water and arboreal species often make use of dew or rain that collect on leaves. Birds of arid regions make use of loose soil to dust-bathe. A behaviour termed as anting in which the bird encourages ants to run through their plumage is also thought to help them reduce the ectoparasite load in feathers. Many species will spread out their wings and expose them to direct sunlight and this too is thought to help in reducing fungal and ectoparasitic activity that may lead to feather damage.
When do birds substantially increase body fats and reduce the size of some of their organs?
5731dd77e17f3d14004224c3
Before migration
540
False
What is the flight range of landbirds?
5731dd77e17f3d14004224c4
2,500 km (1,600 mi)
815
False
What is the flight range of shoebirds?
5731dd77e17f3d14004224c5
4,000 km (2,500 mi)
864
False
Which bird is capable of non-stop flights of up to 6,300 miles?
5731dd77e17f3d14004224c6
bar-tailed godwit
898
False
Which birds often undertake circumpolar trips between breeding seasons?
5731dd77e17f3d14004224c7
Albatrosses nesting in the Southern Ocean
1351
False
Many bird species migrate to take advantage of global differences of seasonal temperatures, therefore optimising availability of food sources and breeding habitat. These migrations vary among the different groups. Many landbirds, shorebirds, and waterbirds undertake annual long distance migrations, usually triggered by the length of daylight as well as weather conditions. These birds are characterised by a breeding season spent in the temperate or polar regions and a non-breeding season in the tropical regions or opposite hemisphere. Before migration, birds substantially increase body fats and reserves and reduce the size of some of their organs. Migration is highly demanding energetically, particularly as birds need to cross deserts and oceans without refuelling. Landbirds have a flight range of around 2,500 km (1,600 mi) and shorebirds can fly up to 4,000 km (2,500 mi), although the bar-tailed godwit is capable of non-stop flights of up to 10,200 km (6,300 mi). Seabirds also undertake long migrations, the longest annual migration being those of sooty shearwaters, which nest in New Zealand and Chile and spend the northern summer feeding in the North Pacific off Japan, Alaska and California, an annual round trip of 64,000 km (39,800 mi). Other seabirds disperse after breeding, travelling widely but having no set migration route. Albatrosses nesting in the Southern Ocean often undertake circumpolar trips between breeding seasons.
In Australia, what percentage of non-passerine birds were partially migratory
5731ddfa0fdd8d15006c65b9
44%
748
False
In Australia, what percentage of passerine birds were partially migratory
5731ddfa0fdd8d15006c65ba
32%
779
False
What is most often triggered by temperature changes?
5731ddfa0fdd8d15006c65bb
Altitudinal migration
823
False
Which family of birds are neither migratory or sedentary but considered to be dispersive, irruptive or nomadic?
5731ddfa0fdd8d15006c65bc
Parrots
1267
False
Some bird species undertake shorter migrations, travelling only as far as is required to avoid bad weather or obtain food. Irruptive species such as the boreal finches are one such group and can commonly be found at a location in one year and absent the next. This type of migration is normally associated with food availability. Species may also travel shorter distances over part of their range, with individuals from higher latitudes travelling into the existing range of conspecifics; others undertake partial migrations, where only a fraction of the population, usually females and subdominant males, migrates. Partial migration can form a large percentage of the migration behaviour of birds in some regions; in Australia, surveys found that 44% of non-passerine birds and 32% of passerines were partially migratory. Altitudinal migration is a form of short distance migration in which birds spend the breeding season at higher altitudes elevations and move to lower ones during suboptimal conditions. It is most often triggered by temperature changes and usually occurs when the normal territories also become inhospitable due to lack of food. Some species may also be nomadic, holding no fixed territory and moving according to weather and food availability. Parrots as a family are overwhelmingly neither migratory nor sedentary but considered to either be dispersive, irruptive, nomadic or undertake small and irregular migrations.
In which type of migration do birds use the sun to navigate by day and a stellar compass at night?
5731e1c3b9d445190005e607
diurnal migrants
337
False
Some species use specialised photoreceptors to sense what?
5731e1c3b9d445190005e608
the Earth's geomagnetism
716
False
What do birds to compensate for the changing position of the sun during the day?
5731e1c3b9d445190005e609
internal clock
534
False
The ability of birds to return to precise locations across vast distances has been known for some time; in an experiment conducted in the 1950s a Manx shearwater released in Boston returned to its colony in Skomer, Wales, within 13 days, a distance of 5,150 km (3,200 mi). Birds navigate during migration using a variety of methods. For diurnal migrants, the sun is used to navigate by day, and a stellar compass is used at night. Birds that use the sun compensate for the changing position of the sun during the day by the use of an internal clock. Orientation with the stellar compass depends on the position of the constellations surrounding Polaris. These are backed up in some species by their ability to sense the Earth's geomagnetism through specialised photoreceptors.
What do birds sometimes use to assess and assert social dominance?
5731e22ae99e3014001e63ae
plumage
20
False
What allows for the identification of birds, particularly between species?
5731e22ae99e3014001e63af
Variation in plumage
255
False
Visual communication among birds may involve what kind of displays?
5731e22ae99e3014001e63b0
ritualised displays
401
False
Birds sometimes use plumage to assess and assert social dominance, to display breeding condition in sexually selected species, or to make threatening displays, as in the sunbittern's mimicry of a large predator to ward off hawks and protect young chicks. Variation in plumage also allows for the identification of birds, particularly between species. Visual communication among birds may also involve ritualised displays, which have developed from non-signalling actions such as preening, the adjustments of feather position, pecking, or other behaviour. These displays may signal aggression or submission or may contribute to the formation of pair-bonds. The most elaborate displays occur during courtship, where "dances" are often formed from complex combinations of many possible component movements; males' breeding success may depend on the quality of such displays.
What do birds use for evaluation of potential mates and mate attraction?
5731e292b9d445190005e621
Calls
0
False
What do some birds use for auditory communication?
5731e292b9d445190005e622
mechanical sounds
450
False
Which type of birds use tools to drum?
5731e292b9d445190005e623
palm
605
False
Which birds drum territorially?
5731e292b9d445190005e624
woodpeckers
569
False
Calls are used for a variety of purposes, including mate attraction, evaluation of potential mates, bond formation, the claiming and maintenance of territories, the identification of other individuals (such as when parents look for chicks in colonies or when mates reunite at the start of breeding season), and the warning of other birds of potential predators, sometimes with specific information about the nature of the threat. Some birds also use mechanical sounds for auditory communication. The Coenocorypha snipes of New Zealand drive air through their feathers, woodpeckers drum territorially, and palm cockatoos use tools to drum.
What are the principal benefits of flocking?
5731e2de0fdd8d15006c65ff
safety in numbers and increased foraging efficiency
151
False
What is a cost of flocking?
5731e2de0fdd8d15006c6600
bullying of socially subordinate birds by more dominant birds
631
False
What is particularly important in closed habitats like forests?
5731e2de0fdd8d15006c6601
Defence against predators
204
False
While some birds are essentially territorial or live in small family groups, other birds may form large flocks. The principal benefits of flocking are safety in numbers and increased foraging efficiency. Defence against predators is particularly important in closed habitats like forests, where ambush predation is common and multiple eyes can provide a valuable early warning system. This has led to the development of many mixed-species feeding flocks, which are usually composed of small numbers of many species; these flocks provide safety in numbers but increase potential competition for resources. Costs of flocking include bullying of socially subordinate birds by more dominant birds and the reduction of feeding efficiency in certain cases.
Sleeping birds often use a type of sleep known as what?
57320abbb9d445190005e779
vigilant sleep
158
False
What are believed to be able to sleep in flight?
57320abbb9d445190005e77a
Swifts
329
False
Why is communal roosting common?
57320abbb9d445190005e77b
because it lowers the loss of body heat
1016
False
The high metabolic rates of birds during the active part of the day is supplemented by rest at other times. Sleeping birds often use a type of sleep known as vigilant sleep, where periods of rest are interspersed with quick eye-opening "peeks", allowing them to be sensitive to disturbances and enable rapid escape from threats. Swifts are believed to be able to sleep in flight and radar observations suggest that they orient themselves to face the wind in their roosting flight. It has been suggested that there may be certain kinds of sleep which are possible even when in flight. Some birds have also demonstrated the capacity to fall into slow-wave sleep one hemisphere of the brain at a time. The birds tend to exercise this ability depending upon its position relative to the outside of the flock. This may allow the eye opposite the sleeping hemisphere to remain vigilant for predators by viewing the outer margins of the flock. This adaptation is also known from marine mammals. Communal roosting is common because it lowers the loss of body heat and decreases the risks associated with predators. Roosting sites are often chosen with regard to thermoregulation and safety.
These types of birds have a tendon locking mechanism.
57320b3b0fdd8d15006c6709
Perching birds
273
False
Where do many ground birds, such as quails and pheasants, roost?
57320b3b0fdd8d15006c670a
in trees
434
False
A few parrots of what genus roost hanging upside down?
57320b3b0fdd8d15006c670b
Loriculus
471
False
What type of birds go into a nightly state of torpor?
57320b3b0fdd8d15006c670c
Some hummingbirds
508
False
Birds do not have what type of glands:?
57320b3b0fdd8d15006c670d
sweat
830
False
Many sleeping birds bend their heads over their backs and tuck their bills in their back feathers, although others place their beaks among their breast feathers. Many birds rest on one leg, while some may pull up their legs into their feathers, especially in cold weather. Perching birds have a tendon locking mechanism that helps them hold on to the perch when they are asleep. Many ground birds, such as quails and pheasants, roost in trees. A few parrots of the genus Loriculus roost hanging upside down. Some hummingbirds go into a nightly state of torpor accompanied with a reduction of their metabolic rates. This physiological adaptation shows in nearly a hundred other species, including owlet-nightjars, nightjars, and woodswallows. One species, the common poorwill, even enters a state of hibernation. Birds do not have sweat glands, but they may cool themselves by moving to shade, standing in water, panting, increasing their surface area, fluttering their throat or by using special behaviours like urohidrosis to cool themselves.
What percent of bird species are socially monogamous?
57320be2b9d445190005e789
Ninety-five percent
0
False
What is extra-pair copulation?
57320be2b9d445190005e78a
infidelity
432
False
What do female birds have that allow sperm from males to remain viable long after copulation?
57320be2b9d445190005e78b
sperm storage mechanisms
647
False
Why do males that engage in extra-pair copulation closely guard their mates?
57320be2b9d445190005e78c
to ensure the parentage of the offspring that they raise
1088
False
Ninety-five percent of bird species are socially monogamous. These species pair for at least the length of the breeding season or—in some cases—for several years or until the death of one mate. Monogamy allows for both paternal care and biparental care, which is especially important for species in which females require males' assistance for successful brood-rearing. Among many socially monogamous species, extra-pair copulation (infidelity) is common. Such behaviour typically occurs between dominant males and females paired with subordinate males, but may also be the result of forced copulation in ducks and other anatids. Female birds have sperm storage mechanisms that allow sperm from males to remain viable long after copulation, a hundred days in some species. Sperm from multiple males may compete through this mechanism. For females, possible benefits of extra-pair copulation include getting better genes for her offspring and insuring against the possibility of infertility in her mate. Males of species that engage in extra-pair copulations will closely guard their mates to ensure the parentage of the offspring that they raise.
Which gender typically performs some form of courtship display?
57320cb40fdd8d15006c6719
male
85
False
Most courtship displays involve some type of what?
57320cb40fdd8d15006c671a
song
148
False
Which gender generally drive partner selection?:
57320cb40fdd8d15006c671b
Females
312
False
Generally, when is courtship feeding and billing performed between partners?
57320cb40fdd8d15006c671c
after the birds have paired and mated
574
False
Breeding usually involves some form of courtship display, typically performed by the male. Most displays are rather simple and involve some type of song. Some displays, however, are quite elaborate. Depending on the species, these may include wing or tail drumming, dancing, aerial flights, or communal lekking. Females are generally the ones that drive partner selection, although in the polyandrous phalaropes, this is reversed: plainer males choose brightly coloured females. Courtship feeding, billing and allopreening are commonly performed between partners, generally after the birds have paired and mated.
What kind of eggs to all birds lay?
57320e760fdd8d15006c6721
amniotic eggs
14
False
All birds lay eggs with hard shells made mostly out of what?
57320e760fdd8d15006c6722
calcium carbonate
60
False
What kind of eggs do open nesters lay?
57320e760fdd8d15006c6723
camouflaged eggs
166
False
What type of birds lay white or pale eggs?
57320e760fdd8d15006c6724
Hole and burrow nesting species
79
False
All birds lay amniotic eggs with hard shells made mostly of calcium carbonate. Hole and burrow nesting species tend to lay white or pale eggs, while open nesters lay camouflaged eggs. There are many exceptions to this pattern, however; the ground-nesting nightjars have pale eggs, and camouflage is instead provided by their plumage. Species that are victims of brood parasites have varying egg colours to improve the chances of spotting a parasite's egg, which forces female parasites to match their eggs to those of their hosts.
Where do birds usually lay their eggs?
57320f26e17f3d140042264f
nest
32
False
What type of birds lay its eggs on bare rock?
57320f26e17f3d1400422650
cliff-nesting common guillemot
635
False
Where do male emporer penguins keep eggs?
57320f26e17f3d1400422651
between their body and feet
730
False
Which type of bird nests are no more than a scrape on the ground?
57320f26e17f3d1400422652
albatross
203
False
Bird eggs are usually laid in a nest. Most species create somewhat elaborate nests, which can be cups, domes, plates, beds scrapes, mounds, or burrows. Some bird nests, however, are extremely primitive; albatross nests are no more than a scrape on the ground. Most birds build nests in sheltered, hidden areas to avoid predation, but large or colonial birds—which are more capable of defence—may build more open nests. During nest construction, some species seek out plant matter from plants with parasite-reducing toxins to improve chick survival, and feathers are often used for nest insulation. Some bird species have no nests; the cliff-nesting common guillemot lays its eggs on bare rock, and male emperor penguins keep eggs between their body and feet. The absence of nests is especially prevalent in ground-nesting species where the newly hatched young are precocial.
What process optimises temperature for chick development?
57320fc50fdd8d15006c673d
Incubation
0
False
When does incubation begin?
57320fc50fdd8d15006c673e
after the last egg has been laid
78
False
What are areas of bare skin on the abdomen or breast of incubating birds?
57320fc50fdd8d15006c673f
brood patches
296
False
How many days is the incubation period for woodpeckers?
57320fc50fdd8d15006c6740
10 days
685
False
How many days is the incubation period for kiwis?
57320fc50fdd8d15006c6741
over 80 days
742
False
Incubation, which optimises temperature for chick development, usually begins after the last egg has been laid. In monogamous species incubation duties are often shared, whereas in polygamous species one parent is wholly responsible for incubation. Warmth from parents passes to the eggs through brood patches, areas of bare skin on the abdomen or breast of the incubating birds. Incubation can be an energetically demanding process; adult albatrosses, for instance, lose as much as 83 grams (2.9 oz) of body weight per day of incubation. The warmth for the incubation of the eggs of megapodes comes from the sun, decaying vegetation or volcanic sources. Incubation periods range from 10 days (in woodpeckers, cuckoos and passerine birds) to over 80 days (in albatrosses and kiwis).
When does parental care end in megapodes?
57321029e99e3014001e64bc
at hatching
139
False
What type of seabird has the longest period of parental care?
57321029e99e3014001e64bd
frigatebird
387
False
What is the period of breeding during which one of the adult birds is always present at the nest?
57321029e99e3014001e64be
chick guard stage
511
False
The length and nature of parental care varies widely amongst different orders and species. At one extreme, parental care in megapodes ends at hatching; the newly hatched chick digs itself out of the nest mound without parental assistance and can fend for itself immediately. At the other extreme, many seabirds have extended periods of parental care, the longest being that of the great frigatebird, whose chicks take up to six months to fledge and are fed by the parents for up to an additional 14 months. The chick guard stage describes the period of breeding during which one of the adult birds is permanently present at the nest after chicks have hatched. The main purpose of the guard stage is to aid offspring to thermoregulate and protect them from predation.
Alloparenting is particulary common with what species?
57321138e17f3d1400422657
Corvida
354
False
True crows belong to what group?
57321138e17f3d1400422658
Corvida
354
False
What is more common in birds than any other vertebrate class?
57321138e17f3d1400422659
male parental care
549
False
In some species, both parents care for nestlings and fledglings; in others, such care is the responsibility of only one sex. In some species, other members of the same species—usually close relatives of the breeding pair, such as offspring from previous broods—will help with the raising of the young. Such alloparenting is particularly common among the Corvida, which includes such birds as the true crows, Australian magpie and fairy-wrens, but has been observed in species as different as the rifleman and red kite. Among most groups of animals, male parental care is rare. In birds, however, it is quite common—more so than in any other vertebrate class. Though territory and nest site defence, incubation, and chick feeding are often shared tasks, there is sometimes a division of labour in which one mate undertakes all or most of a particular duty.
Which chicks leave the nest the night after they hatch?
573212130fdd8d15006c6751
chicks of the Synthliboramphus murrelets
58
False
Name a species which move their chicks away from the nest at an early age.
573212130fdd8d15006c6752
ducks
289
False
When do most species of chicks leave the nest?
573212130fdd8d15006c6753
just before, or soon after, they are able to fly
389
False
The point at which chicks fledge varies dramatically. The chicks of the Synthliboramphus murrelets, like the ancient murrelet, leave the nest the night after they hatch, following their parents out to sea, where they are raised away from terrestrial predators. Some other species, such as ducks, move their chicks away from the nest at an early age. In most species, chicks leave the nest just before, or soon after, they are able to fly. The amount of parental care after fledging varies; albatross chicks leave the nest on their own and receive no further help, while other species continue some supplementary feeding after fledging. Chicks may also follow their parents during their first migration.
What is it called when an egg-layer leaves her eggs with another individual's brood?
573212a3e17f3d1400422663
Brood parasitism
0
False
How many bird species are obligate parasites?
573212a3e17f3d1400422664
One hundred
641
False
What type of birds lay eggs in the nests of conspecifics to increase their reproductive output?
573212a3e17f3d1400422665
non-obligate brood parasites
467
False
Brood parasitism, in which an egg-layer leaves her eggs with another individual's brood, is more common among birds than any other type of organism. After a parasitic bird lays her eggs in another bird's nest, they are often accepted and raised by the host at the expense of the host's own brood. Brood parasites may be either obligate brood parasites, which must lay their eggs in the nests of other species because they are incapable of raising their own young, or non-obligate brood parasites, which sometimes lay eggs in the nests of conspecifics to increase their reproductive output even though they could have raised their own young. One hundred bird species, including honeyguides, icterids, and ducks, are obligate parasites, though the most famous are the cuckoos. Some brood parasites are adapted to hatch before their host's young, which allows them to destroy the host's eggs by pushing them out of the nest or to kill the host's chicks; this ensures that all food brought to the nest will be fed to the parasitic chicks.
What is the most famous example of sexual selection?
573213bde99e3014001e64d6
peacock tail
59
False
What is intersexual selection also known as?
573213bde99e3014001e64d7
female choice
407
False
What is it called when individuals of the more abundant sex compete with each other for the privilege to mate?
573213bde99e3014001e64d8
intrasexual competition
426
False
Birds have evolved a variety of mating behaviors, with the peacock tail being perhaps the most famous example of sexual selection and the Fisherian runaway. Commonly occurring sexual dimorphisms such as size and color differences are energetically costly attributes that signal competitive breeding situations. Many types of avian sexual selection have been identified; intersexual selection, also known as female choice; and intrasexual competition, where individuals of the more abundant sex compete with each other for the privilege to mate. Sexually selected traits often evolve to become more pronounced in competitive breeding situations until the trait begins to limit the individual’s fitness. Conflicts between an individual fitness and signaling adaptations ensure that sexually selected ornaments such as plumage coloration and courtship behavior are "honest" traits. Signals must be costly to ensure that only good-quality individuals can present these exaggerated sexual ornaments and behaviors.
What is it called when there is greater than 30 percent reduction in hatchability of eggs?
573214a0b9d445190005e7bf
inbreeding depression
108
False
What can reduce the negative effects of inbreeding?
573214a0b9d445190005e7c0
Females paired with related males may undertake extra pair matings
184
False
What percentage of broods produced by incestuously paired females contained extra pair of young?
573214a0b9d445190005e7c1
43%
465
False
Incestuous matings by the purple-crowned fairy wren Malurus coronatus result in severe fitness costs due to inbreeding depression (greater than 30% reduction in hatchability of eggs). Females paired with related males may undertake extra pair matings (see Promiscuity#Other animals for 90% frequency in avian species) that can reduce the negative effects of inbreeding. However, there are ecological and demographic constraints on extra pair matings. Nevertheless, 43% of broods produced by incestuously paired females contained extra pair young.
What occurs when offspring delay dispersal from their natal group?
573215afb9d445190005e7c5
Cooperative breeding
0
False
What leads to the masking of deleterious recesive alleles in progeny?
573215afb9d445190005e7c6
Cross-fertilization between unrelated individuals
495
False
Why is inbreeding avoided?
573215afb9d445190005e7c7
because it leads to a reduction in progeny fitness
345
False
Cooperative breeding in birds typically occurs when offspring, usually males, delay dispersal from their natal group in order to remain with the family to help rear younger kin. Female offspring rarely stay at home, dispersing over distances that allow them to breed independently, or to join unrelated groups. In general, inbreeding is avoided because it leads to a reduction in progeny fitness (inbreeding depression) due largely to the homozygous expression of deleterious recessive alleles. Cross-fertilization between unrelated individuals ordinarily leads to the masking of deleterious recessive alleles in progeny.
What type of birds generally feed by fishing, plant eating or piracy?
57321628b9d445190005e7cb
Aquatic birds
435
False
What type of birds may be either insectivores, frugivores and nectarivores?
57321628b9d445190005e7cc
Forest birds
371
False
What type of birds specialise in hunting mammals or other birds?
57321628b9d445190005e7cd
Birds of prey
522
False
Birds occupy a wide range of ecological positions. While some birds are generalists, others are highly specialised in their habitat or food requirements. Even within a single habitat, such as a forest, the niches occupied by different species of birds vary, with some species feeding in the forest canopy, others beneath the canopy, and still others on the forest floor. Forest birds may be insectivores, frugivores, and nectarivores. Aquatic birds generally feed by fishing, plant eating, and piracy or kleptoparasitism. Birds of prey specialise in hunting mammals or other birds, while vultures are specialised scavengers. Avivores are animals that are specialized at preying on birds.
What are often important to island ecology?
573216f8e99e3014001e64f2
Birds
0
False
What type of birds may also affect the ecology of islands and surrounding areas?
573216f8e99e3014001e64f3
Nesting seabirds
404
False
In New Zealand, what were important browsers, as the kereru and kokako are today?
573216f8e99e3014001e64f4
moas
227
False
Birds are often important to island ecology. Birds have frequently reached islands that mammals have not; on those islands, birds may fulfill ecological roles typically played by larger animals. For example, in New Zealand the moas were important browsers, as are the kereru and kokako today. Today the plants of New Zealand retain the defensive adaptations evolved to protect them from the extinct moa. Nesting seabirds may also affect the ecology of islands and surrounding seas, principally through the concentration of large quantities of guano, which may enrich the local soil and the surrounding seas.
Why have humans had a relationship with birds since the dawn of man?
573217840fdd8d15006c6785
Since birds are highly visible and common animals
0
False
What is it called when the house sparrow has benefited from human activity?
573217840fdd8d15006c6786
commensal
283
False
What have threatened numerous bird species with extinction?
573217840fdd8d15006c6787
Human activities
486
False
Since birds are highly visible and common animals, humans have had a relationship with them since the dawn of man. Sometimes, these relationships are mutualistic, like the cooperative honey-gathering among honeyguides and African peoples such as the Borana. Other times, they may be commensal, as when species such as the house sparrow have benefited from human activities. Several bird species have become commercially significant agricultural pests, and some pose an aviation hazard. Human activities can also be detrimental, and have threatened numerous bird species with extinction (hunting, avian lead poisoning, pesticides, roadkill, and predation by pet cats and dogs are common sources of death for birds).
What are domesticated birds raised for meat and eggs?
573218720fdd8d15006c6795
poultry
52
False
What is the largest source of animal protein eaten by humans?
573218720fdd8d15006c6796
poultry
52
False
In 2003, how many tons of poultry were produced worldwide?
573218720fdd8d15006c6797
76 million tons
128
False
What is primarily a recreational activity except in extremely underdeveloped areas?
573218720fdd8d15006c6798
Bird hunting
386
False
Domesticated birds raised for meat and eggs, called poultry, are the largest source of animal protein eaten by humans; in 2003, 76 million tons of poultry and 61 million tons of eggs were produced worldwide. Chickens account for much of human poultry consumption, though domesticated turkeys, ducks, and geese are also relatively common. Many species of birds are also hunted for meat. Bird hunting is primarily a recreational activity except in extremely undeveloped areas. The most important birds hunted in North and South America are waterfowl; other widely hunted birds include pheasants, wild turkeys, quail, doves, partridge, grouse, snipe, and woodcock. Muttonbirding is also popular in Australia and New Zealand. Though some hunting, such as that of muttonbirds, may be sustainable, hunting has led to the extinction or endangerment of dozens of species.
Why have birds been domesticated by humans?
573218cfb9d445190005e7e5
both as pets and for practical purposes
39
False
What type of birds are bred in captivity or kept as pets?
573218cfb9d445190005e7e6
Colourful birds
80
False
How long have messenger pigeons been used?
573218cfb9d445190005e7e7
since at least 1 AD
348
False
Birds have been domesticated by humans both as pets and for practical purposes. Colourful birds, such as parrots and mynas, are bred in captivity or kept as pets, a practice that has led to the illegal trafficking of some endangered species. Falcons and cormorants have long been used for hunting and fishing, respectively. Messenger pigeons, used since at least 1 AD, remained important as recently as World War II. Today, such activities are more common either as hobbies, for entertainment and tourism, or for sports such as pigeon racing.
What play prominent roles in religion and mythology?
57321963e99e3014001e650c
Birds
0
False
The word auspicious is derived from which word?
57321963e99e3014001e650d
auspex
540
False
What is said to mark the existence of a portal between such worlds, and to transform itself into a llama?
57321963e99e3014001e650e
mythical chullumpi bird
1234
False
Birds play prominent and diverse roles in religion and mythology. In religion, birds may serve as either messengers or priests and leaders for a deity, such as in the Cult of Makemake, in which the Tangata manu of Easter Island served as chiefs or as attendants, as in the case of Hugin and Munin, the two common ravens who whispered news into the ears of the Norse god Odin. In several civilizations of ancient Italy, particularly Etruscan and Roman religion, priests were involved in augury, or interpreting the words of birds while the "auspex" (from which the word "auspicious" is derived) watched their activities to foretell events. They may also serve as religious symbols, as when Jonah (Hebrew: יוֹנָה, dove) embodied the fright, passivity, mourning, and beauty traditionally associated with doves. Birds have themselves been deified, as in the case of the common peacock, which is perceived as Mother Earth by the Dravidians of India. In religious images preserved from the Inca and Tiwanaku empires, birds are depicted in the process of transgressing boundaries between earthly and underground spiritual realms. Indigenous peoples of the central Andes maintain legends of birds passing to and from metaphysical worlds. The mythical chullumpi bird is said to mark the existence of a portal between such worlds, and to transform itself into a llama.
When were birds represented in early cave paintings?
57321a39e99e3014001e651c
since prehistoric times
39
False
What is a mythological giant bird capable of snatching humans?
57321a39e99e3014001e651d
Pouākai
217
False
John James Audubon later lent his name to which group?
57321a39e99e3014001e651e
National Audubon Society
671
False
What did Homer incorporate into his Odyssey?
57321a39e99e3014001e651f
nightingales
773
False
The relationship between an albatross and a sailor is the central theme of what book?
57321a39e99e3014001e6520
The Rime of the Ancient Mariner
972
False
Birds have featured in culture and art since prehistoric times, when they were represented in early cave paintings. Some birds have been perceived as monsters, including the mythological Roc and the Māori's legendary Pouākai, a giant bird capable of snatching humans. Birds were later used as symbols of power, as in the magnificent Peacock Throne of the Mughal and Persian emperors. With the advent of scientific interest in birds, many paintings of birds were commissioned for books. Among the most famous of these bird artists was John James Audubon, whose paintings of North American birds were a great commercial success in Europe and who later lent his name to the National Audubon Society. Birds are also important figures in poetry; for example, Homer incorporated nightingales into his Odyssey, and Catullus used a sparrow as an erotic symbol in his Catullus 2. The relationship between an albatross and a sailor is the central theme of Samuel Taylor Coleridge's The Rime of the Ancient Mariner, which led to the use of the term as a metaphor for a 'burden'. Other English metaphors derive from birds; vulture funds and vulture investors, for instance, take their name from the scavenging vulture.
How many bird species have gone extinct in historical times?
57321ac0e17f3d140042268f
Over a hundred
192
False
How many species are listed as threatened by BirdLife International and the IUCN?
57321ac0e17f3d1400422690
1,227
504
False
When did the most dramatic human-caused avian extinctions occur?
57321ac0e17f3d1400422691
during the human colonisation of Melanesian, Polynesian, and Micronesian islands
370
False
Though human activities have allowed the expansion of a few species, such as the barn swallow and European starling, they have caused population decreases or extinction in many other species. Over a hundred bird species have gone extinct in historical times, although the most dramatic human-caused avian extinctions, eradicating an estimated 750–1800 species, occurred during the human colonisation of Melanesian, Polynesian, and Micronesian islands. Many bird populations are declining worldwide, with 1,227 species listed as threatened by BirdLife International and the IUCN in 2009.
Qing_dynasty
What was the last Chinese dynasty?
573117c505b4da19006bcd86
Great Qing, or the Manchu dynasty
187
False
When did the Manchu dynasty rule?
573117c505b4da19006bcd87
1644 to 1912
274
False
What was the dynasty that ruled before the Manchu?
573117c505b4da19006bcd88
Ming
354
False
What government took over from the Manchu dynasty?
573117c505b4da19006bcd89
Republic of China
388
False
What is another name for the Manchu dynasty?
573117c505b4da19006bcd8a
Qing
4
False
The Qing dynasty (Chinese: 清朝; pinyin: Qīng Cháo; Wade–Giles: Ch'ing Ch'ao; IPA: [tɕʰíŋ tʂʰɑ̌ʊ̯]), officially the Great Qing (Chinese: 大清; pinyin: Dà Qīng), also called the Empire of the Great Qing, or the Manchu dynasty, was the last imperial dynasty of China, ruling from 1644 to 1912 with a brief, abortive restoration in 1917. It was preceded by the Ming dynasty and succeeded by the Republic of China. The Qing multi-cultural empire lasted almost three centuries and formed the territorial base for the modern Chinese state.
Who started the Manchun dynasty?
57311d32a5e9cc1400cdbc25
Jurchen Aisin Gioro clan
31
False
Where did this dynasty form?
57311d32a5e9cc1400cdbc26
Manchuria
59
False
Name a peasant rebel leader?
57311d32a5e9cc1400cdbc27
Li Zicheng
465
False
Where was the ming capital?
57311d32a5e9cc1400cdbc28
Beijing
503
False
What pass was opened to the Banner Armies?
57311d32a5e9cc1400cdbc29
Shanhai Pass
608
False
The dynasty was founded by the Jurchen Aisin Gioro clan in Manchuria. In the late sixteenth century, Nurhaci, originally a Ming vassal, began organizing Jurchen clans into "Banners", military-social units. Nurhaci formed these clans into a unified entity, the subjects of which became known collectively as the Manchu people. By 1636, his son Hong Taiji began driving Ming forces out of Liaodong and declared a new dynasty, the Qing. In 1644, peasant rebels led by Li Zicheng conquered the Ming capital Beijing. Rather than serve them, Ming general Wu Sangui made an alliance with the Manchus and opened the Shanhai Pass to the Banner Armies led by Prince Dorgon, who defeated the rebels and seized Beijing. The conquest of China proper was not completed until 1683 under the Kangxi Emperor (r. 1661–1722). The Ten Great Campaigns of the Qianlong Emperor from the 1750s to the 1790s extended Qing control into Central Asia. While the early rulers maintained their Manchu ways, and while their official title was Emperor they were known as khans to the Mongols and patronized Tibetan Buddhism, they governed using Confucian styles and institutions of bureaucratic government. They retained the imperial examinations to recruit Han Chinese to work under or in parallel with Manchus. They also adapted the ideals of the tributary system in international relations, and in places such as Taiwan, the Qing so-called internal foreign policy closely resembled colonial policy and control.
What years did the Qianlong Emperor rule?
57311e26497a881900248b6d
(1735–1796)
34
False
When was the Taiping rebellion?
57311e26497a881900248b6e
(1850–64)
574
False
When was the Dungan Revolt?
57311e26497a881900248b6f
(1862–77)
602
False
How many people died during the Taiping Rebellion and the Dungan Revolt?
57311e26497a881900248b70
20 million people
654
False
When was the first Sino-Japanese War?
57311e26497a881900248b71
1895
931
False
The reign of the Qianlong Emperor (1735–1796) saw the apogee and initial decline in prosperity and imperial control. The population rose to some 400 million, but taxes and government revenues were fixed at a low rate, virtually guaranteeing eventual fiscal crisis. Corruption set in, rebels tested government legitimacy, and ruling elites did not change their mindsets in the face of changes in the world system. Following the Opium War, European powers imposed unequal treaties, free trade, extraterritoriality and treaty ports under foreign control. The Taiping Rebellion (1850–64) and Dungan Revolt (1862–77) in Central Asia led to the deaths of some 20 million people. In spite of these disasters, in the Tongzhi Restoration of the 1860s, Han Chinese elites rallied to the defense of the Confucian order and the Qing rulers. The initial gains in the Self-Strengthening Movement were destroyed in the First Sino-Japanese War of 1895, in which the Qing lost its influence over Korea and the possession of Taiwan. New Armies were organized, but the ambitious Hundred Days' Reform of 1898 was turned back by Empress Dowager Cixi, a ruthless but capable leader. When, in response to the violently anti-foreign Yihetuan ("Boxers"), foreign powers invaded China, the Empress Dowager declared war on them, leading to defeat and the flight of the Imperial Court to Xi'an.
What started on October 11, 1911?
5731213da5e9cc1400cdbc5d
Xinhai Revolution
570
False
Who was the last Qing emperor?
5731213da5e9cc1400cdbc5e
Puyi
589
False
When did he step down?
5731213da5e9cc1400cdbc5f
February 12, 1912
626
False
After agreeing to sign the Boxer Protocol the government then initiated unprecedented fiscal and administrative reforms, including elections, a new legal code, and abolition of the examination system. Sun Yat-sen and other revolutionaries competed with reformers such as Liang Qichao and monarchists such as Kang Youwei to transform the Qing empire into a modern nation. After the death of Empress Dowager Cixi and the Guangxu Emperor in 1908, the hardline Manchu court alienated reformers and local elites alike. Local uprisings starting on October 11, 1911 led to the Xinhai Revolution. Puyi, the last emperor, abdicated on February 12, 1912.
Who named himself the Bright Khan?
5731223aa5e9cc1400cdbc6b
Nurhaci
0
False
Who renamed the Qing dynasty in 1363?
5731223aa5e9cc1400cdbc6c
Hong Taiji
228
False
What imagery is suggested in the Chinese characters of the dynasties new name?
5731223aa5e9cc1400cdbc6d
water imagery
771
False
What language did the dynasties name come from originall?
5731223aa5e9cc1400cdbc6e
Mongolian
1045
False
What Mongolian word did Qing dynasty get it's name from?
5731223aa5e9cc1400cdbc6f
Mongolian word that means "warrior"
1045
False
Nurhaci declared himself the "Bright Khan" of the Later Jin (lit. "gold") state in honor both of the 12–13th century Jurchen Jin dynasty and of his Aisin Gioro clan (Aisin being Manchu for the Chinese 金 (jīn, "gold")).  His son Hong Taiji renamed the dynasty Great Qing in 1636. There are competing explanations on the meaning of Qīng (lit. "clear" or "pure"). The name may have been selected in reaction to the name of the Ming dynasty (明), which consists of the Chinese characters for "sun" (日) and "moon" (月), both associated with the fire element of the Chinese zodiacal system. The character Qīng (清) is composed of "water" (氵) and "azure" (青), both associated with the water element. This association would justify the Qing conquest as defeat of fire by water. The water imagery of the new name may also have had Buddhist overtones of perspicacity and enlightenment and connections with the Bodhisattva Manjusri. The Manchu name daicing, which sounds like a phonetic rendering of Dà Qīng or Dai Ching, may in fact have been derived from a Mongolian word that means "warrior". Daicing gurun may therefore have meant "warrior state", a pun that was only intelligible to Manchu and Mongol people. In the later part of the dynasty, however, even the Manchus themselves had forgotten this possible meaning.
After taking the bulk of China what did the Manchuse call their state?
573122d205b4da19006bcde0
China
72
False
What does China mean?
573122d205b4da19006bcde1
Middle Kingdom
95
False
What ethnice groups did the Qing thin made up China?
573122d205b4da19006bcde2
Han and non-Han peoples
555
False
After conquering "China proper", the Manchus identified their state as "China" (中國, Zhōngguó; "Middle Kingdom"), and referred to it as Dulimbai Gurun in Manchu (Dulimbai means "central" or "middle," gurun means "nation" or "state"). The emperors equated the lands of the Qing state (including present day Northeast China, Xinjiang, Mongolia, Tibet and other areas) as "China" in both the Chinese and Manchu languages, defining China as a multi-ethnic state, and rejecting the idea that "China" only meant Han areas. The Qing emperors proclaimed that both Han and non-Han peoples were part of "China." They used both "China" and "Qing" to refer to their state in official documents, international treaties (as the Qing was known internationally as "China" or the "Chinese Empire") and foreign affairs, and "Chinese language" (Dulimbai gurun i bithe) included Chinese, Manchu, and Mongol languages, and "Chinese people" (中國之人 Zhōngguó zhī rén; Manchu: Dulimbai gurun i niyalma) referred to all subjects of the empire. In the Chinese-language versions of its treaties and its maps of the world, the Qing government used "Qing" and "China" interchangeably.
What ethnic group make up the most people in China?
57312388e6313a140071cc74
Han Chinese
36
False
Who founded the Qing dynasty?
57312388e6313a140071cc75
Jurchen
151
False
What type of lifestyle did the Jurchen live?
57312388e6313a140071cc76
sedentary farming
113
False
What parts of China did they come from?
57312388e6313a140071cc77
Jilin and Heilongjiang
246
False
Were the Manchu's nomadic?
57312388e6313a140071cc78
farming people
123
False
The Qing dynasty was founded not by Han Chinese, who constitute the majority of the Chinese population, but by a sedentary farming people known as the Jurchen, a Tungusic people who lived around the region now comprising the Chinese provinces of Jilin and Heilongjiang. The Manchus are sometimes mistaken for a nomadic people, which they were not. What was to become the Manchu state was founded by Nurhaci, the chieftain of a minor Jurchen tribe – the Aisin Gioro – in Jianzhou in the early 17th century. Originally a vassal of the Ming emperors, Nurhachi embarked on an intertribal feud in 1582 that escalated into a campaign to unify the nearby tribes. By 1616, he had sufficiently consolidated Jianzhou so as to be able to proclaim himself Khan of the Great Jin in reference to the previous Jurchen dynasty.
Where did Nurhachi move his court to?
57312407a5e9cc1400cdbc95
Liaodong
38
False
Where did Nurhachi move his court from?
57312407a5e9cc1400cdbc96
Jianzhou
26
False
Who posed a threat to the Chinese borders?
57312407a5e9cc1400cdbc97
Mongol nation
226
False
Relocating his court from Jianzhou to Liaodong provided Nurhachi access to more resources; it also brought him in close contact with the Khorchin Mongol domains on the plains of Mongolia. Although by this time the once-united Mongol nation had long since fragmented into individual and hostile tribes, these tribes still presented a serious security threat to the Ming borders. Nurhachi's policy towards the Khorchins was to seek their friendship and cooperation against the Ming, securing his western border from a powerful potential enemy.
What group did the Manchus take over to add strength to their numbers?
57312518497a881900248bbd
Mongols
103
False
What weapon helped the Ming defeat the Manchus?
57312518497a881900248bbe
artillery
369
False
When did the Manchus create their own artillery?
57312518497a881900248bbf
1641
517
False
There were too few ethnic Manchus to conquer China, so they gained strength by defeating and absorbing Mongols, but more importantly, adding Han Chinese to the Eight Banners. The Manchus had to create an entire "Jiu Han jun" (Old Han Army) due to the massive amount of Han Chinese soldiers which were absorbed into the Eight Banners by both capture and defection, Ming artillery was responsible for many victories against the Manchus, so the Manchus established an artillery corps made out of Han Chinese soldiers in 1641 and the swelling of Han Chinese numbers in the Eight Banners led in 1642 of all Eight Han Banners being created. It was defected Ming Han Chinese armies which conquered southern China for the Qing.
When were the first couple Han Banners founded?
573127d505b4da19006bcdfc
1637
66
False
When did the Han Banners grow to eight?
573127d505b4da19006bcdfd
1642
95
False
Which leader defeated the Ming armies?
573127d505b4da19006bcdfe
Hong Taiji
142
False
Who killed Yuan Chonghuan?
573127d505b4da19006bcdff
Chongzhen Emperor
426
False
Where did the Ming armies retreat to?
573127d505b4da19006bce00
north of the Great Wall
552
False
This was followed by the creation of the first two Han Banners in 1637 (increasing to eight in 1642). Together these military reforms enabled Hong Taiji to resoundingly defeat Ming forces in a series of battles from 1640 to 1642 for the territories of Songshan and Jinzhou. This final victory resulted in the surrender of many of the Ming dynasty's most battle-hardened troops, the death of Yuan Chonghuan at the hands of the Chongzhen Emperor (who thought Yuan had betrayed him), and the complete and permanent withdrawal of the remaining Ming forces north of the Great Wall.
Who included newly conquered Ming officials in his government?
57312a3b05b4da19006bce10
Hong Taiji
0
False
Where did a Han revolt occur?
57312a3b05b4da19006bce11
Liaodong
539
False
When did a Han revolt occur?
57312a3b05b4da19006bce12
1623
551
False
What proportion of bannerman were Manchu by 1648?
57312a3b05b4da19006bce13
one-sixth
1082
False
Hong Taiji's bureaucracy was staffed with many Han Chinese, including many newly surrendered Ming officials. The Manchus' continued dominance was ensured by an ethnic quota for top bureaucratic appointments. Hong Taiji's reign also saw a fundamental change of policy towards his Han Chinese subjects. Nurhaci had treated Han in Liaodong differently according to how much grain they had, those with less than 5 to 7 sin were treated like chattel while those with more than that amount were rewarded with property. Due to a revolt by Han in Liaodong in 1623, Nurhachi, who previously gave concessions to conquered Han subjects in Liaodong, turned against them and ordered that they no longer be trusted; He enacted discriminatory policies and killings against them, while ordering that Han who assimilated to the Jurchen (in Jilin) before 1619 be treated equally as Jurchens were and not like the conquered Han in Liaodong. Hong Taiji instead incorporated them into the Jurchen "nation" as full (if not first-class) citizens, obligated to provide military service. By 1648, less than one-sixth of the bannermen were of Manchu ancestry. This change of policy not only increased Hong Taiji's manpower and reduced his military dependence on banners not under his personal control, it also greatly encouraged other Han Chinese subjects of the Ming dynasty to surrender and accept Jurchen rule when they were defeated militarily. Through these and other measures Hong Taiji was able to centralize power unto the office of the Khan, which in the long run prevented the Jurchen federation from fragmenting after his death.
When did Hong Taiji die?
57312af6497a881900248bef
September 1643
28
False
Who was his heir?
57312af6497a881900248bf0
without a designated heir
43
False
Who were the likely heirs?
57312af6497a881900248bf1
Hong Taiji's oldest son Hooge and Hong Taiji' half brother Dorgon
309
False
Who became the emperor?
57312af7497a881900248bf2
Fulin
448
False
Hong Taiji died suddenly in September 1643 without a designated heir. As the Jurchens had traditionally "elected" their leader through a council of nobles, the Qing state did not have in place a clear succession system until the reign of the Kangxi Emperor. The leading contenders for power at this time were Hong Taiji's oldest son Hooge and Hong Taiji' half brother Dorgon. A compromise candidate in the person of Hong Taiji's five-year-old son, Fulin, was installed as the Shunzhi Emperor, with Dorgon as regent and de facto leader of the Manchu nation.
Who raided Beijing in 1644?
57312bb0497a881900248bfd
Li Zicheng
313
False
Who was Li Zicheng?
57312bb0497a881900248bfe
former minor Ming official
327
False
What dynasty did Zicheng form?
57312bb0497a881900248bff
Shun
385
False
Who was the last Ming leader?
57312bb0497a881900248c00
Chongzhen Emperor
424
False
How did the Chongzhen Emporer die?
57312bb0497a881900248c01
suicide
453
False
Ming government officials fought against each other, against fiscal collapse, and against a series of peasant rebellions. They were unable to capitalise on the Manchu succession dispute and installation of a minor as emperor. In April 1644, the capital at Beijing was sacked by a coalition of rebel forces led by Li Zicheng, a former minor Ming official, who established a short-lived Shun dynasty. The last Ming ruler, the Chongzhen Emperor, committed suicide when the city fell, marking the official end of the dynasty.
How big was Li Zicheng's army?
57312c4e497a881900248c07
200,000
58
False
Who did Li Zicheng's army fight?
57312c4e497a881900248c08
Wu Sangui
81
False
What was the name of the general at the Ming fort?
57312c4e497a881900248c09
Wu Sangui
326
False
Who beat Li Zicheng's army?
57312c4e497a881900248c0a
Wu and Dorgon
686
False
When did the battle take place?
57312c4e497a881900248c0b
May 27, 1644
856
False
Li Zicheng then led a coalition of rebel forces numbering 200,000[a] to confront Wu Sangui, the general commanding the Ming garrison at Shanhai Pass. Shanhai Pass is a pivotal pass of the Great Wall, located fifty miles northeast of Beijing, and for years its defenses kept the Manchus from directly raiding the Ming capital. Wu Sangui, caught between a rebel army twice his size and a foreign enemy he had fought for years, decided to cast his lot with the Manchus, with whom he was familiar. Wu Sangui may have been influenced by Li Zicheng's mistreatment of his family and other wealthy and cultured officials; it was said that Li also took Wu's concubine Chen Yuanyuan for himself. Wu and Dorgon allied in the name of avenging the death of the Chongzhen Emperor. Together, the two former enemies met and defeated Li Zicheng's rebel forces in battle on May 27, 1644.
When did Beijing fall?
57312ede497a881900248c2d
June 6
44
False
What was the Shunzi Emperor called?
57312ede497a881900248c2e
"Son of Heaven"
92
False
When did the Shunzhi emperor become the Son of Heaven?
57312ede497a881900248c2f
October 30
111
False
How long did it take for the Manchus to take the rest of China?
57312ede497a881900248c30
seventeen years
393
False
Who did the Manchus struggle against?
57312ede497a881900248c31
Ming loyalists
421
False
The newly allied armies captured Beijing on June 6. The Shunzhi Emperor was invested as the "Son of Heaven" on October 30. The Manchus, who had positioned themselves as political heir to the Ming emperor by defeating the rebel Li Zicheng, completed the symbolic transition by holding a formal funeral for the Chongzhen Emperor. However the process of conquering the rest of China took another seventeen years of battling Ming loyalists, pretenders and rebels. The last Ming pretender, Prince Gui, sought refuge with the King of Burma, but was turned over to a Qing expeditionary army commanded by Wu Sangui, who had him brought back to Yunnan province and executed in early 1662.
Who made up the Han Chinese Banners?
57312f5805b4da19006bce68
Han Chinese
36
False
What percent of bannermen did the Han represent?
57312f5805b4da19006bce69
75%
383
False
Who besides the Manchus and the Han made up the Eight Banners?
57312f5805b4da19006bce6a
Mongol
391
False
Han Chinese Banners were made up of Han Chinese who defected to the Qing up to 1644 and joined the Eight Banners, giving them social and legal privileges in addition to being acculturated to Manchu culture. So many Han defected to the Qing and swelled the ranks of the Eight Banners that ethnic Manchus became a minority, making up only 16% in 1648, with Han Bannermen dominating at 75% and Mongol Bannermen making up the rest. This multi-ethnic force in which Manchus were only a minority conquered China for the Qing.
Who were the three Liandong Han bannermen who were instrumental in the taking of southern China?
573130f305b4da19006bce6e
Shang Kexi, Geng Zhongming, and Kong Youde
338
False
What part of China did Kexi, Zhongming, and Youde rule?
573130f305b4da19006bce6f
southern China
399
False
What was the three Han Bannermen position called?
573130f305b4da19006bce70
viceroys
430
False
The Qing showed that the Manchus valued military skills in propaganda targeted towards the Ming military to get them to defect to the Qing, since the Ming civilian political system discriminated against the military. The three Liaodong Han Bannermen officers who played a massive role in the conquest of southern China from the Ming were Shang Kexi, Geng Zhongming, and Kong Youde and they governed southern China autonomously as viceroys for the Qing after their conquests. Normally the Manchu Bannermen acted only as reserve forces or in the rear and were used predominantly for quick strikes with maximum impact, so as to minimize ethnic Manchu losses; instead, the Qing used defected Han Chinese troops to fight as the vanguard during the entire conquest of China.
Who made Beijing his capital?
5731320c497a881900248c41
Dorgon
188
False
Whose capital was Beijing before the Manchu's?
5731320c497a881900248c42
Ming
304
False
Why did Dorgon keep Beijing as his capital?
5731320c497a881900248c43
stabilize the regime and sped up the conquest of the rest of the country
548
False
First, the Manchus had entered "China proper" because Dorgon responded decisively to Wu Sangui's appeal. Then, after capturing Beijing, instead of sacking the city as the rebels had done, Dorgon insisted, over the protests of other Manchu princes, on making it the dynastic capital and reappointing most Ming officials. Choosing Beijing as the capital had not been a straightforward decision, since no major Chinese dynasty had directly taken over its immediate predecessor's capital. Keeping the Ming capital and bureaucracy intact helped quickly stabilize the regime and sped up the conquest of the rest of the country. However, not all of Dorgon's policies were equally popular nor easily implemented.
What did Dorgon declare in July of 1645?
573132e2a5e9cc1400cdbcd3
the "haircutting order")
40
False
What was the peoples description of the haircutting order?
573132e2a5e9cc1400cdbcd4
"To keep the hair, you lose the head; To keep your head, you cut the hair."
271
False
How did the Ming's typically wear their hair>
573132e2a5e9cc1400cdbcd5
top-knot
793
False
What city was massacred for not wearing the proper haircut?
573132e2a5e9cc1400cdbcd6
Jiading
1173
False
Dorgon's controversial July 1645 edict (the "haircutting order") forced adult Han Chinese men to shave the front of their heads and comb the remaining hair into the queue hairstyle which was worn by Manchu men, on pain of death. The popular description of the order was: "To keep the hair, you lose the head; To keep your head, you cut the hair." To the Manchus, this policy was a test of loyalty and an aid in distinguishing friend from foe. For the Han Chinese, however, it was a humiliating reminder of Qing authority that challenged traditional Confucian values. The Classic of Filial Piety (Xiaojing) held that "a person's body and hair, being gifts from one's parents, are not to be damaged." Under the Ming dynasty, adult men did not cut their hair but instead wore it in the form of a top-knot. The order triggered strong resistance to Qing rule in Jiangnan and massive killing of ethnic Han Chinese. It was Han Chinese defectors who carried out massacres against people refusing to wear the queue.. Li Chengdong, a Han Chinese general who had served the Ming but surrendered to the Qing, ordered his Han troops to carry out three separate massacres in the city of Jiading within a month, resulting in tens of thousands of deaths. At the end of the third massacre, there was hardly any living person left in this city. Jiangyin also held out against about 10,000 Han Chinese Qing troops for 83 days. When the city wall was finally breached on 9 October 1645, the Han Chinese Qing army led by the Han Chinese Ming defector Liu Liangzuo (劉良佐), who had been ordered to "fill the city with corpses before you sheathe your swords," massacred the entire population, killing between 74,000 and 100,000 people. The queue was the only aspect of Manchu culture which the Qing forced on the common Han population. The Qing required people serving as officials to wear Manchu clothing, but allowed non-official Han civilians to continue wearing Hanfu (Han clothing).
Who was a threat to Shunzhi's throne?
5731338e05b4da19006bcea6
Dorgon
61
False
What was Dorgon known as after death?
5731338e05b4da19006bcea7
Emperor Yi
260
False
Who was Shunzhi's oldest brother?
5731338e05b4da19006bcea8
Hooge
628
False
When did Shunzhi's death?
5731338e05b4da19006bcea9
1661
891
False
How old was Shunzhi at his death?
5731338e05b4da19006bceaa
twenty-four
910
False
Although his support had been essential to Shunzhi's ascent, Dorgon had through the years centralised so much power in his hands as to become a direct threat to the throne. So much so that upon his death he was extraordinarily bestowed the posthumous title of Emperor Yi (Chinese: 義皇帝), the only instance in Qing history in which a Manchu "prince of the blood" (Chinese: 親王) was so honored. Two months into Shunzhi's personal rule, Dorgon was not only stripped of his titles, but his corpse was disinterred and mutilated.[b] to atone for multiple "crimes", one of which was persecuting to death Shunzhi’s agnate eldest brother, Hooge. More importantly, Dorgon's symbolic fall from grace also signaled a political purge of his family and associates at court, thus reverting power back to the person of the emperor. After a promising start, Shunzhi's reign was cut short by his early death in 1661 at the age of twenty-four from smallpox. He was succeeded by his third son Xuanye, who reigned as the Kangxi Emperor.
Who did the Manchus send to battle Koxinga's troops?
57313458497a881900248c47
Han Bannermen
17
False
Where did the fight between Ming loyalists and Manchus occur?
57313458497a881900248c48
Fujian
76
False
What were the Manchus accused of being afraid of?
57313458497a881900248c49
water
310
False
The Manchus sent Han Bannermen to fight against Koxinga's Ming loyalists in Fujian. The Qing carried out a massive depopulation policy and seaban forcing people to evacuated the coast in order to deprive Koxinga's Ming loyalists of resources, this has led to a myth that it was because Manchus were "afraid of water". In Fujian, it was Han Bannermen who were the ones carrying out the fighting and killing for the Qing and this disproved the entirely irrelevant claim that alleged fear of the water on part of the Manchus had to do with the coastal evacuation and seaban. Even though a poem refers to the soldiers carrying out massacres in Fujian as "barbarian", both Han Green Standard Army and Han Bannermen were involved in the fighting for the Qing side and carried out the worst slaughter. 400,000 Green Standard Army soldiers were used against the Three Feudatories besides 200,000 Bannermen.
How long was Kangxi Emperor in power?
5731350da5e9cc1400cdbce1
sixty-one year
4
False
Who had the longest rule of any emperor?
5731350da5e9cc1400cdbce2
Kangxi
32
False
What era did Kanxi's rule kick off?
5731350da5e9cc1400cdbce3
High Qing
162
False
How old was Kangxi when he took over?
5731350da5e9cc1400cdbce4
eight
302
False
Who ruled while Kangxi was young?
5731350da5e9cc1400cdbce5
Oboi
871
False
The sixty-one year reign of the Kangxi Emperor was the longest of any Chinese emperor. Kangxi's reign is also celebrated as the beginning of an era known as the "High Qing", during which the dynasty reached the zenith of its social, economic and military power. Kangxi's long reign started when he was eight years old upon the untimely demise of his father. To prevent a repeat of Dorgon's dictatorial monopolizing of power during the regency, the Shunzhi Emperor, on his deathbed, hastily appointed four senior cabinet ministers to govern on behalf of his young son. The four ministers — Sonin, Ebilun, Suksaha, and Oboi — were chosen for their long service, but also to counteract each other's influences. Most important, the four were not closely related to the imperial family and laid no claim to the throne. However, as time passed, through chance and machination, Oboi, the most junior of the four, achieved such political dominance as to be a potential threat. Even though Oboi's loyalty was never an issue, his personal arrogance and political conservatism led him into an escalating conflict with the young emperor. In 1669 Kangxi, through trickery, disarmed and imprisoned Oboi — a significant victory for a fifteen-year-old emperor over a wily politician and experienced commander.
What type of learning did the early Manchu leaders respect?
5731360e497a881900248c4d
Confucian
476
False
What declaration solidified Confucian values?
5731360e497a881900248c4e
Sacred Edict of 1670
506
False
Who did the Manchu appeal to?
5731360e497a881900248c4f
Mongol, Tibetan and Uighur
696
False
What Christians did Kangxi allow in his court?
5731360e497a881900248c50
Jesuit missionaries
1209
False
The early Manchu rulers also established two foundations of legitimacy which help to explain the stability of their dynasty. The first was the bureaucratic institutions and the neo-Confucian culture which they adopted from earlier dynasties. Manchu rulers and Han Chinese scholar-official elites gradually came to terms with each other. The examination system offered a path for ethnic Han to become officials. Imperial patronage of Kangxi Dictionary demonstrated respect for Confucian learning, while the Sacred Edict of 1670 effectively extolled Confucian family values. The second major source of stability was the Central Asian aspect of their Manchu identity which allowed them to appeal to Mongol, Tibetan and Uighur constituents. The Qing used the title of Emperor (Huangdi) in Chinese while among Mongols the Qing monarch was referred to as Bogda khan (wise Khan), and referred to as Gong Ma in Tibet. Qianlong propagated the image of himself as Buddhist sage rulers, patrons of Tibetan Buddhism. In the Manchu language, the Qing monarch was alternately referred to as either Huwangdi (Emperor) or Khan with no special distinction between the two usages. The Kangxi Emperor also welcomed to his court Jesuit missionaries, who had first come to China under the Ming. Missionaries including Tomás Pereira, Martino Martini, Johann Adam Schall von Bell, Ferdinand Verbiest and Antoine Thomas held significant positions as military weapons experts, mathematicians, cartographers, astronomers and advisers to the emperor. The relationship of trust was however lost in the later Chinese Rites controversy.
Who was the most important Ming general?
573136ed497a881900248c5f
Wu Sangui
507
False
What provinces did Sangui control?
573136ed497a881900248c60
Yunnan and Guizhou
549
False
Name the other two important Ming generals?
573136ed497a881900248c61
Shang Kexi and Geng Jingzhong
584
False
Which provinces did Kexi and Jingzhong receive?
573136ed497a881900248c62
Guangdong and Fujian
625
False
Yet controlling the "Mandate of Heaven" was a daunting task. The vastness of China's territory meant that there were only enough banner troops to garrison key cities forming the backbone of a defense network that relied heavily on surrendered Ming soldiers. In addition, three surrendered Ming generals were singled out for their contributions to the establishment of the Qing dynasty, ennobled as feudal princes (藩王), and given governorships over vast territories in Southern China. The chief of these was Wu Sangui, who was given the provinces of Yunnan and Guizhou, while generals Shang Kexi and Geng Jingzhong were given Guangdong and Fujian provinces respectively.
When did Kexi retire?
5731378ba5e9cc1400cdbd0f
1673
121
False
Who did Kexi thing should take over for him?
5731378ba5e9cc1400cdbd10
his son
232
False
What happened when Kexi, and the two other generals all retired?
5731378ba5e9cc1400cdbd11
all three fiefdoms to be reverted to the crown.
598
False
As the years went by, the three feudal lords and their extensive territories became increasingly autonomous. Finally, in 1673, Shang Kexi petitioned Kangxi for permission to retire to his hometown in Liaodong province and nominated his son as his successor. The young emperor granted his retirement, but denied the heredity of his fief. In reaction, the two other generals decided to petition for their own retirements to test Kangxi's resolve, thinking that he would not risk offending them. The move backfired as the young emperor called their bluff by accepting their requests and ordering that all three fiefdoms to be reverted to the crown.
How long did the Revolt of the Three Feudatories last?
5731388f497a881900248c7b
eight years
216
False
Who declared himself emperor?
5731388f497a881900248c7c
Wu
229
False
When did the Qing regain power over southern China?
5731388f497a881900248c7d
1681
765
False
Who did the Qing think were the better soldiers to battle Han Chinese?
5731388f497a881900248c7e
other Han people
1269
False
How many Green Standard Army soldiers  were on the Qing side?
5731388f497a881900248c7f
400,000
2136
False
Faced with the stripping of their powers, Wu Sangui, later joined by Geng Zhongming and by Shang Kexi's son Shang Zhixin, felt they had no choice but to revolt. The ensuing Revolt of the Three Feudatories lasted for eight years. Wu attempted, ultimately in vain, to fire the embers of south China Ming loyalty by restoring Ming customs, ordering that the resented queues be cut, and declaring himself emperor of a new dynasty. At the peak of the rebels' fortunes, they extended their control as far north as the Yangtze River, nearly establishing a divided China. Wu then hesitated to go further north, not being able to coordinate strategy with his allies, and Kangxi was able to unify his forces for a counterattack led by a new generation of Manchu generals. By 1681, the Qing government had established control over a ravaged southern China which took several decades to recover. Manchu Generals and Bannermen were initially put to shame by the better performance of the Han Chinese Green Standard Army, who fought better than them against the rebels and this was noted by Kangxi, leading him to task Generals Sun Sike, Wang Jinbao, and Zhao Liangdong to lead Green Standard Soldiers to crush the rebels. The Qing thought that Han Chinese were superior at battling other Han people and so used the Green Standard Army as the dominant and majority army in crushing the rebels instead of Bannermen. Similarly, in northwestern China against Wang Fuchen, the Qing used Han Chinese Green Standard Army soldiers and Han Chinese Generals such as Zhang Liangdong, Wang Jinbao, and Zhang Yong as the primary military forces. This choice was due to the rocky terrain, which favoured infantry troops over cavalry, to the desire to keep Bannermen in the reserves, and, again, to the belief that Han troops were better at fighting other Han people. These Han generals achieved victory over the rebels. Also due to the mountainous terrain, Sichuan and southern Shaanxi were also retaken by the Han Chinese Green Standard Army under Wang Jinbao and Zhao Liangdong in 1680, with Manchus only participating in dealing with logistics and provisions. 400,000 Green Standard Army soldiers and 150,000 Bannermen served on the Qing side during the war. 213 Han Chinese Banner companies, and 527 companies of Mongol and Manchu Banners were mobilized by the Qing during the revolt. 400,000 Green Standard Army soldiers were used against the Three Feudatories besides 200,000 Bannermen.
When did Wu destroy the Qing armies?
573138f7a5e9cc1400cdbd3d
1673-1674
40
False
How many soldiers did the Qing fight back with?
573138f7a5e9cc1400cdbd3e
900,000
350
False
What happened to Wu's army?
573138f7a5e9cc1400cdbd3f
crushed by the Green Standard Army
479
False
The Qing forces were crushed by Wu from 1673-1674. The Qing had the support of the majority of Han Chinese soldiers and Han elite against the Three Feudatories, since they refused to join Wu Sangui in the revolt, while the Eight Banners and Manchu officers fared poorly against Wu Sangui, so the Qing responded with using a massive army of more than 900,000 Han Chinese (non-Banner) instead of the Eight Banners, to fight and crush the Three Feudatories. Wu Sangui's forces were crushed by the Green Standard Army, made out of defected Ming soldiers.
Where did Kangxi lead an army?
57313a17497a881900248c8f
Outer Mongolia
154
False
Who did Kangxi fight?
57313a17497a881900248c90
Dzungars
142
False
When was Galdan killed?
57313a17497a881900248c91
Dzungar–Qing War
347
False
When did Taiwan fall?
57313a17497a881900248c92
1683
368
False
What European country did Kangxi fight?
57313a17497a881900248c93
Russia
1206
False
To extend and consolidate the dynasty's control in Central Asia, the Kangxi Emperor personally led a series of military campaigns against the Dzungars in Outer Mongolia. The Kangxi Emperor was able to successfully expel Galdan's invading forces from these regions, which were then incorporated into the empire. Galdan was eventually killed in the Dzungar–Qing War. In 1683, Qing forces received the surrender of Taiwan from Zheng Keshuang, grandson of Koxinga, who had conquered Taiwan from the Dutch colonists as a base against the Qing. Zheng Keshuang was awarded the title "Duke Haicheng" (海澄公) and was inducted into the Han Chinese Plain Red Banner of the Eight Banners when he moved to Beijing. Several Ming princes had accompanied Koxinga to Taiwan in 1661-1662, including the Prince of Ningjing Zhu Shugui and Prince Zhu Honghuan (朱弘桓), son of Zhu Yihai, where they lived in the Kingdom of Tungning. The Qing sent the 17 Ming princes still living on Taiwan in 1683 back to mainland China where they spent the rest of their lives in exile since their lives were spared from execution. Winning Taiwan freed Kangxi's forces for series of battles over Albazin, the far eastern outpost of the Tsardom of Russia. Zheng's former soldiers on Taiwan like the rattan shield troops were also inducted into the Eight Banners and used by the Qing against Russian Cossacks at Albazin. The 1689 Treaty of Nerchinsk was China's first formal treaty with a European power and kept the border peaceful for the better part of two centuries. After Galdan's death, his followers, as adherents to Tibetan Buddhism, attempted to control the choice of the next Dalai Lama. Kangxi dispatched two armies to Lhasa, the capital of Tibet, and installed a Dalai Lama sympathetic to the Qing.
When did Kangxi die?
57313a71e6313a140071cd40
1722
50
False
Who took Kangxi's place?
57313a71e6313a140071cd41
Prince Yong
72
False
How old was Yongzheng when he took over?
57313a71e6313a140071cd42
45
751
False
After the Kangxi Emperor's death in the winter of 1722, his fourth son, Prince Yong (雍親王), became the Yongzheng Emperor. In the later years of Kangxi's reign, Yongzheng and his brothers had fought, and there were rumours that he had usurped the throne(most of the rumours believe that Yongzheng's brother Yingzhen (Kangxi's 14th son) is the real successor of Kangxi Emperor, the reason why Yingzhen failed to sit on the throne is because Yongzheng and his confidant Keduo Long tampered the content of Kangxi's testament at the night when Kangxi passed away), a charge for which there is little evidence. In fact, his father had trusted him with delicate political issues and discussed state policy with him. When Yongzheng came to power at the age of 45, he felt a sense of urgency about the problems which had accumulated in his father's later years and did not need instruction in how to exercise power. In the words of one recent historian, he was "severe, suspicious, and jealous, but extremely capable and resourceful," and in the words of another, turned out to be an "early modern state-maker of the first order."
Who did Yongzheng behead?
57313b16e6313a140071cd50
anti-Manchu writer
166
False
What religion did Yongzheng ban?
57313b16e6313a140071cd51
Christianity
230
False
When did Yongzheng ban christianity?
57313b16e6313a140071cd52
1723
213
False
What did Yongzheng crack down on?
57313b16e6313a140071cd53
collection of the land tax
998
False
He moved rapidly. First, he promoted Confucian orthodoxy and reversed what he saw as his father's laxness by cracking down on unorthodox sects and by decapitating an anti-Manchu writer his father had pardoned. In 1723 he outlawed Christianity and expelled Christian missionaries, though some were allowed to remain in the capital. Next, he moved to control the government. He expanded his father's system of Palace Memorials which brought frank and detailed reports on local conditions directly to the throne without being intercepted by the bureaucracy, and created a small Grand Council of personal advisors which eventually grew into the emperor's de facto cabinet for the rest of the dynasty. He shrewdly filled key positions with Manchu and Han Chinese officials who depended on his patronage. When he began to realize that the financial crisis was even greater than he had thought, Yongzheng rejected his father's lenient approach to local landowning elites and mounted a campaign to enforce collection of the land tax. The increased revenues were to be used for "money to nourish honesty" among local officials and for local irrigation, schools, roads, and charity. Although these reforms were effective in the north, in the south and lower Yangzi valley, where Kangxi had wooed the elites, there were long established networks of officials and landowners. Yongzheng dispatched experienced Manchu commissioners to penetrate the thickets of falsified land registers and coded account books, but they were met with tricks, passivity, and even violence. The fiscal crisis persisted.
Who did Yongzheng call Marquis?
57313b7c05b4da19006bcef2
Zhu Zhiliang
112
False
When did Yongzheng give this title?
57313b7c05b4da19006bcef3
1725
3
False
What was Zhu's job?
57313b7c05b4da19006bcef4
perform rituals
195
False
In 1725 Yongzheng bestowed the hereditary title of Marquis on a descendant of the Ming dynasty Imperial family, Zhu Zhiliang, who received a salary from the Qing government and whose duty was to perform rituals at the Ming tombs, and was also inducted the Chinese Plain White Banner in the Eight Banners. Later the Qianlong Emperor bestowed the title Marquis of Extended Grace posthumously on Zhu Zhuliang in 1750, and the title passed on through twelve generations of Ming descendants until the end of the Qing dynasty.
When was the Treaty of Kyakhta written?
57313c06e6313a140071cd62
1727
126
False
Who was the partner in the Treaty of Kyakhta?
57313c06e6313a140071cd63
Russia
178
False
What did the treaty give to the Russians?
57313c06e6313a140071cd64
territory and trading rights
202
False
What did the Qing get from the Treaty of Kyakhta?
57313c06e6313a140071cd65
Mongolia
294
False
Yongzheng also inherited diplomatic and strategic problems. A team made up entirely of Manchus drew up the Treaty of Kyakhta (1727) to solidify the diplomatic understanding with Russia. In exchange for territory and trading rights, the Qing would have a free hand dealing with the situation in Mongolia. Yongzheng then turned to that situation, where the Zunghars threatened to re-emerge, and to the southwest, where local Miao chieftains resisted Qing expansion. These campaigns drained the treasury but established the emperor's control of the military and military finance.
How many books were in the Siku Quanshu?
57313c97e6313a140071cd6a
3,400 books
199
False
How many volumes were in the Siku Quanshu?
57313c97e6313a140071cd6b
36,304 volumes
233
False
Who created the Siku Quanshu?
57313c97e6313a140071cd6c
Qianlong
726
False
How many literary persecutions were there under Qianlongs reign?
57313c97e6313a140071cd6d
53
767
False
Qianlong's reign saw the launch of several ambitious cultural projects, including the compilation of the Siku Quanshu, or Complete Repository of the Four Branches of Literature. With a total of over 3,400 books, 79,000 chapters, and 36,304 volumes, the Siku Quanshu is the largest collection of books in Chinese history. Nevertheless, Qianlong used Literary Inquisition to silence opposition. The accusation of individuals began with the emperor's own interpretation of the true meaning of the corresponding words. If the emperor decided these were derogatory or cynical towards the dynasty, persecution would begin. Literary inquisition began with isolated cases at the time of Shunzhi and Kangxi, but became a pattern under Qianlong's rule, during which there were 53 cases of literary persecution.
What crops helped the Chinese?
57313d3d05b4da19006bcf16
potato and peanut
308
False
What led to overpopulation in China?
57313d3d05b4da19006bcf17
prosperity and internal stability
183
False
How many people lived in China at the start of the 18th century?
57313d3d05b4da19006bcf18
100 million
444
False
How many people lived in China at the end of the 20th century?
57313d3d05b4da19006bcf19
300 million
459
False
What was the last part of China with farmland left?
57313d3d05b4da19006bcf1a
Manchuria
789
False
China also began suffering from mounting overpopulation during this period. Population growth was stagnant for the first half of the 17th century due to civil wars and epidemics, but prosperity and internal stability gradually reversed this trend. The introduction of new crops from the Americas such as the potato and peanut allowed an improved food supply as well, so that the total population of China during the 18th century ballooned from 100 million to 300 million people. Soon all available farmland was used up, forcing peasants to work ever-smaller and more intensely worked plots. The Qianlong Emperor once bemoaned the country's situation by remarking "The population continues to grow, but the land does not." The only remaining part of the empire that had arable farmland was Manchuria, where the provinces of Jilin and Heilongjiang had been walled off as a Manchu homeland. The emperor decreed for the first time that Han Chinese civilians were forbidden to settle. Mongols were forbidden by the Qing from crossing the borders of their banners, even into other Mongol Banners and from crossing into neidi (the Han Chinese 18 provinces) and were given serious punishments if they did in order to keep the Mongols divided against each other to benefit the Qing.
Where did Hans go to to find land?
57313da305b4da19006bcf2a
Manchuria
110
False
How much land did the Han cultivate?
57313da305b4da19006bcf2b
500,000 hectares
389
False
What percent of the population in Manchuria was Han?
57313da305b4da19006bcf2c
80%
600
False
However Qing rule saw an massively increasing amount of Han Chinese both illegally and legally streaming into Manchuria and settling down to cultivate land as Manchu landlords desired Han Chinese peasants to rent on their land and grow grain, most Han Chinese migrants were not evicted as they went over the Great Wall and Willow Palisade, during the eighteenth century Han Chinese farmed 500,000 hectares of privately owned land in Manchuria and 203,583 hectares of lands which were part of coutrier stations, noble estates, and Banner lands, in garrisons and towns in Manchuria Han Chinese made up 80% of the population.
Where were starving Han sent by the Qing?
57313e9a05b4da19006bcf30
Manchuria and Inner Mongolia
478
False
How much land did the Han farm in Inner Mongolia?
57313e9a05b4da19006bcf31
tens of thousands of hectares
568
False
What other types of land were the Han allowed to farm?
57313e9a05b4da19006bcf32
"imperial estates" and Manchu Bannerlands
851
False
Who was the emperor in the later half of the 18th century?
57313e9a05b4da19006bcf33
Qianlong
1077
False
What ethnicity was the majority in urban Manchuria?
57313e9a05b4da19006bcf34
Han Chinese
1280
False
Han Chinese farmers were resettled from north China by the Qing to the area along the Liao River in order to restore the land to cultivation. Wasteland was reclaimed by Han Chinese squatters in addition to other Han who rented land from Manchu landlords. Despite officially prohibiting Han Chinese settlement on the Manchu and Mongol lands, by the 18th century the Qing decided to settle Han refugees from northern China who were suffering from famine, floods, and drought into Manchuria and Inner Mongolia so that Han Chinese farmed 500,000 hectares in Manchuria and tens of thousands of hectares in Inner Mongolia by the 1780s. Qianlong allowed Han Chinese peasants suffering from drought to move into Manchuria despite him issuing edicts in favor of banning them from 1740–1776. Chinese tenant farmers rented or even claimed title to land from the "imperial estates" and Manchu Bannerlands in the area. Besides moving into the Liao area in southern Manchuria, the path linking Jinzhou, Fengtian, Tieling, Changchun, Hulun, and Ningguta was settled by Han Chinese during the Qianlong Emperor's rule, and Han Chinese were the majority in urban areas of Manchuria by 1800. To increase the Imperial Treasury's revenue, the Qing sold formerly Manchu only lands along the Sungari to Han Chinese at the beginning of the Daoguang Emperor's reign, and Han Chinese filled up most of Manchuria's towns by the 1840s according to Abbe Huc.
Which empires grew during the 18th century?
57313f7b497a881900248cd7
European states
89
False
What were the economies of the European empires built on?
57313f7b497a881900248cd8
maritime trade
134
False
What country near China did the Europeans first control?
57313f7b497a881900248cd9
India
333
False
What was the only city the Chinese allowed the Europeans into to trade?
57313f7b497a881900248cda
Canton
453
False
Which two European companies traded in Canton?
57313f7b497a881900248cdb
British East India Company and the Dutch East India Company
580
False
However, the 18th century saw the European empires gradually expand across the world, as European states developed economies built on maritime trade. The dynasty was confronted with newly developing concepts of the international system and state to state relations. European trading posts expanded into territorial control in nearby India and on the islands that are now Indonesia. The Qing response, successful for a time, was in 1756 to establish the Canton System, which restricted maritime trade to that city and gave monopoly trading rights to private Chinese merchants. The British East India Company and the Dutch East India Company had long before been granted similar monopoly rights by their governments.
What products from China did Europeans want?
5731404f497a881900248ceb
silk, tea, and ceramics
43
False
What did the Chinese want in return?
5731404f497a881900248cec
silver
142
False
What were the British and French concerned about?
5731404f497a881900248ced
imbalance of trade and the drain of silver
250
False
What else did the Chinese want from the British?
5731404f497a881900248cee
opium
333
False
Where was opium made?
5731404f497a881900248cef
Bengal
406
False
Demand in Europe for Chinese goods such as silk, tea, and ceramics could only be met if European companies funneled their limited supplies of silver into China. In the late 1700s, the governments of Britain and France were deeply concerned about the imbalance of trade and the drain of silver. To meet the growing Chinese demand for opium, the British East India Company greatly expanded its production in Bengal. Since China's economy was essentially self-sufficient, the country had little need to import goods or raw materials from the Europeans, so the usual way of payment was through silver. The Daoguang Emperor, concerned both over the outflow of silver and the damage that opium smoking was causing to his subjects, ordered Lin Zexu to end the opium trade. Lin confiscated the stocks of opium without compensation in 1839, leading Britain to send a military expedition the following year.
Who fought the Qing in the First Opium War?
57314110e6313a140071cd84
British
198
False
When did the Qing surrender to the British?
57314110e6313a140071cd85
1842
362
False
What treaty marked the end of the First Opium War?
57314110e6313a140071cd86
Treaty of Nanjing,
417
False
What 5 ports did the treaty force open?
57314110e6313a140071cd87
Canton, Amoy, Fuchow, Ningpo and Shanghai
539
False
What island was given to the British?
57314110e6313a140071cd88
Hong Kong Island
628
False
The First Opium War revealed the outdated state of the Chinese military. The Qing navy, composed entirely of wooden sailing junks, was severely outclassed by the modern tactics and firepower of the British Royal Navy. British soldiers, using advanced muskets and artillery, easily outmaneuvered and outgunned Qing forces in ground battles. The Qing surrender in 1842 marked a decisive, humiliating blow to China. The Treaty of Nanjing, the first of the unequal treaties, demanded war reparations, forced China to open up the five ports of Canton, Amoy, Fuchow, Ningpo and Shanghai to western trade and missionaries, and to cede Hong Kong Island to Britain. It revealed many inadequacies in the Qing government and provoked widespread rebellions against the already hugely unpopular regime.
What marked the first occurence of anti-Manchu feeling?
573141b105b4da19006bcf66
The Taiping Rebellion
0
False
Who led the Rebellion?
573141b105b4da19006bcf67
Hong Xiuquan
142
False
When did the Rebellion start?
573141b105b4da19006bcf68
1851
272
False
What entity was established in Guizhou province?
573141b105b4da19006bcf69
Taiping Heavenly Kingdom
359
False
Who was king of Taiping Heavenly Kingdom?
573141b105b4da19006bcf6a
Hong
389
False
The Taiping Rebellion in the mid-19th century was the first major instance of anti-Manchu sentiment threatening the stability of the dynasty. Hong Xiuquan, a failed civil service candidate, led the Taiping Rebellion, amid widespread social unrest and worsening famine. In 1851 Hong Xiuquan and others launched an uprising in Guizhou province, established the Taiping Heavenly Kingdom with Hong himself as king, claiming he often had visions of God and that he was the brother of Jesus Christ. Slavery, concubinage, arranged marriage, opium smoking, footbinding, judicial torture, and the worship of idols were all banned. However, success and subsequent authority and power led to internal feuds, defections and corruption. In addition, British and French troops, equipped with modern weapons, had come to the assistance of the Qing imperial army. It was not until 1864 that Qing armies under Zeng Guofan succeeded in crushing the revolt. The rebellion not only posed the most serious threat towards Qing rulers; it was also "bloodiest civil war of all time." Between 20 and 30 million people died during its fourteen-year course from 1850 to 1864. After the outbreak of this rebellion, there were also revolts by the Muslims and Miao people of China against the Qing dynasty, most notably in the Dungan Revolt (1862–77) in the northwest and the Panthay Rebellion (1856–1873) in Yunnan.
Were the European empires satisfied or unsatisfied by the Treaty of Nanjing?
573145e5497a881900248d35
unsatisfied
28
False
Who did the Europeans support during the Rebellions?
573145e5497a881900248d36
Qing government
97
False
When did the British try to redo the Treaty of Nanjing?
573145e5497a881900248d37
1854
338
False
The Western powers, largely unsatisfied with the Treaty of Nanjing, gave grudging support to the Qing government during the Taiping and Nian Rebellions. China's income fell sharply during the wars as vast areas of farmland were destroyed, millions of lives were lost, and countless armies were raised and equipped to fight the rebels. In 1854, Britain tried to re-negotiate the Treaty of Nanjing, inserting clauses allowing British commercial access to Chinese rivers and the creation of a permanent British embassy at Beijing.
Whed did the British and French invade Beijing?
573146e605b4da19006bcfaa
1860
86
False
Where did the emperor go?
573146e605b4da19006bcfab
Rehe
215
False
What happened to the Old Summer Palace?
573146e605b4da19006bcfac
burnt it to the ground
355
False
What did Prince Gong sign?
573146e605b4da19006bcfad
Convention of Beijing
511
False
Ratification of the treaty the following year led to resumption of hostilities and in 1860, with Anglo-French forces marching on Beijing, the emperor and his court fled the capital for the imperial hunting lodge at Rehe. Once in Beijing, the Anglo-French forces looted the Old Summer Palace, and in an act of revenge for the arrest of several Englishmen, burnt it to the ground. Prince Gong, a younger half-brother of the emperor, who had been left as his brother's proxy in the capital, was forced to sign the Convention of Beijing. Meanwhile, the humiliated emperor died the following year at Rehe.
Who put down the rebellions?
5731486605b4da19006bcfbc
Zuo Zongtang
39
False
How old was Tongzhi when he came to power?
5731486605b4da19006bcfbd
five
174
False
What year did Tongzhi take power?
5731486605b4da19006bcfbe
1861
182
False
What would the Chinese use to continue Confucian values?
5731486605b4da19006bcfbf
western military technology
290
False
What was the name of a modern Chinese Army?
5731486605b4da19006bcfc0
Beiyang Army
852
False
Chinese generals and officials such as Zuo Zongtang led the suppression of rebellions and stood behind the Manchus. When the Tongzhi Emperor came to the throne at the age of five in 1861, these officials rallied around him in what was called the Tongzhi Restoration. Their aim was to adopt western military technology in order to preserve Confucian values. Zeng Guofan, in alliance with Prince Gong, sponsored the rise of younger officials such as Li Hongzhang, who put the dynasty back on its feet financially and instituted the Self-Strengthening Movement. The reformers then proceeded with institutional reforms, including China's first unified ministry of foreign affairs, the Zongli Yamen; allowing foreign diplomats to reside in the capital; establishment of the Imperial Maritime Customs Service; the formation of modernized armies, such as the Beiyang Army, as well as a navy; and the purchase from Europeans of armament factories.
Who did the Chinese lose territory to in exchange for help?
57314900a5e9cc1400cdbe0d
Russian
137
False
When was the Tientsin Massacre?
57314900a5e9cc1400cdbe0e
1870
317
False
What triggered the Tientsin Massacre?
57314900a5e9cc1400cdbe0f
murder of French nuns
348
False
When was the Cochinchina Campaign?
57314900a5e9cc1400cdbe10
1858
467
False
Which territory did France control?
57314900a5e9cc1400cdbe11
Indochina
500
False
The dynasty lost control of peripheral territories bit by bit. In return for promises of support against the British and the French, the Russian Empire took large chunks of territory in the Northeast in 1860. The period of cooperation between the reformers and the European powers ended with the Tientsin Massacre of 1870, which was incited by the murder of French nuns set off by the belligerence of local French diplomats. Starting with the Cochinchina Campaign in 1858, France expanded control of Indochina. By 1883, France was in full control of the region and had reached the Chinese border. The Sino-French War began with a surprise attack by the French on the Chinese southern fleet at Fuzhou. After that the Chinese declared war on the French. A French invasion of Taiwan was halted and the French were defeated on land in Tonkin at the Battle of Bang Bo. However Japan threatened to enter the war against China due to the Gapsin Coup and China chose to end the war with negotiations. The war ended in 1885 with the Treaty of Tientsin (1885) and the Chinese recognition of the French protectorate in Vietnam.
What was the main problem the Qing had in preventing invasion from Europe?
573149cf05b4da19006bcfc6
naval weakness
147
False
Which historian blamed naval weakness for European imperialism in China?
573149cf05b4da19006bcfc7
Edward L. Dreyer
239
False
When was the Arrow War?
573149cf05b4da19006bcfc8
(1856–60)
568
False
Where did the French and English land in 1860?
573149cf05b4da19006bcfc9
Gulf of Zhili
671
False
Historians have judged the Qing dynasty's vulnerability and weakness to foreign imperialism in the 19th century to be based mainly on its maritime naval weakness while it achieved military success against westerners on land, the historian Edward L. Dreyer said that "China’s nineteenth-century humiliations were strongly related to her weakness and failure at sea. At the start of the Opium War, China had no unified navy and no sense of how vulnerable she was to attack from the sea; British forces sailed and steamed wherever they wanted to go......In the Arrow War (1856–60), the Chinese had no way to prevent the Anglo-French expedition of 1860 from sailing into the Gulf of Zhili and landing as near as possible to Beijing. Meanwhile, new but not exactly modern Chinese armies suppressed the midcentury rebellions, bluffed Russia into a peaceful settlement of disputed frontiers in Central Asia, and defeated the French forces on land in the Sino-French War (1884–85). But the defeat of the fleet, and the resulting threat to steamship traffic to Taiwan, forced China to conclude peace on unfavorable terms."
What coup happened in 1884?
57314aae05b4da19006bcfd8
Gapsin Coup
47
False
Who was involved in the Gapsin Coup?
57314aae05b4da19006bcfd9
pro-Japanese Koreans
9
False
What resulted between the Chinese and Japanese after the Coup?
57314aae05b4da19006bcfda
Tensions
60
False
Who signed the Convention of Tientsin?
57314aae05b4da19006bcfdb
Itō Hirobumi and Li Hongzhang
171
False
When did the First Sino-Japanese War happen?
57314aae05b4da19006bcfdc
1895
319
False
In 1884, pro-Japanese Koreans in Seoul led the Gapsin Coup. Tensions between China and Japan rose after China intervened to suppress the uprising. Japanese Prime Minister Itō Hirobumi and Li Hongzhang signed the Convention of Tientsin, an agreement to withdraw troops simultaneously, but the First Sino-Japanese War of 1895 was a military humiliation. The Treaty of Shimonoseki recognized Korean independence and ceded Taiwan and the Pescadores to Japan. The terms might have been harsher, but when Japanese citizen attacked and wounded Li Hongzhang, an international outcry shamed the Japanese into revising them. The original agreement stipulated the cession of Liaodong Peninsula to Japan, but Russia, with its own designs on the territory, along with Germany and France, in what was known as the Triple Intervention, successfully put pressure on the Japanese to abandon the peninsula.
What was the name of Xianfeng's concubine?
57314b4205b4da19006bcfec
Cixi
69
False
Who was Cixi's son?
57314b4205b4da19006bcfed
Tongzhi
273
False
When did Tongzhi Emperor die?
57314b4205b4da19006bcfee
1875
631
False
Who took over from Tongzhi?
57314b4205b4da19006bcfef
Guangxu
656
False
These years saw an evolution in the participation of Empress Dowager Cixi (Wade–Giles: Tz'u-Hsi) in state affairs. She entered the imperial palace in the 1850s as a concubine to the Xianfeng Emperor (r. 1850–1861) and came to power in 1861 after her five-year-old son, the Tongzhi Emperor ascended the throne. She, the Empress Dowager Ci'an (who had been Xianfeng's empress), and Prince Gong (a son of the Daoguang Emperor), staged a coup that ousted several regents for the boy emperor. Between 1861 and 1873, she and Ci'an served as regents, choosing the reign title "Tongzhi" (ruling together). Following the emperor's death in 1875, Cixi's nephew, the Guangxu Emperor, took the throne, in violation of the dynastic custom that the new emperor be of the next generation, and another regency began. In the spring of 1881, Ci'an suddenly died, aged only forty-three, leaving Cixi as sole regent.
Where did the Empress Dowager spend most of her time?
57314c0e05b4da19006bcff4
Summer Palace
152
False
When were two missionaries killed?
57314c0e05b4da19006bcff5
November 1, 1897,
170
False
Where were the missionaries killed?
57314c0e05b4da19006bcff6
Shandong Province
265
False
What was the murders of the missionaries called?
57314c0e05b4da19006bcff7
Juye Incident
288
False
From 1889, when Guangxu began to rule in his own right, to 1898, the Empress Dowager lived in semi-retirement, spending the majority of the year at the Summer Palace. On November 1, 1897, two German Roman Catholic missionaries were murdered in the southern part of Shandong Province (the Juye Incident). In response, Germany used the murders as a pretext for a naval occupation of Jiaozhou Bay. The occupation prompted a "scramble for concessions" in 1898, which included the German lease of Jiazhou Bay, the Russian acquisition of Liaodong, and the British lease of the New Territories of Hong Kong.
Name an advisor to Guangxu?
57314cf3497a881900248d83
Kang Youwei
140
False
What did the emperor do in response to so many defeats by the Europeans?
57314cf3497a881900248d84
Hundred Days' Reform of 1898
73
False
Who took over the policy of China?
57314cf3497a881900248d85
empress dowager
452
False
In the wake of these external defeats, the Guangxu Emperor initiated the Hundred Days' Reform of 1898. Newer, more radical advisers such as Kang Youwei were given positions of influence. The emperor issued a series of edicts and plans were made to reorganize the bureaucracy, restructure the school system, and appoint new officials. Opposition from the bureaucracy was immediate and intense. Although she had been involved in the initial reforms, the empress dowager stepped in to call them off, arrested and executed several reformers, and took over day-to-day control of policy. Yet many of the plans stayed in place, and the goals of reform were implanted.
Where was there a drought?
57314deaa5e9cc1400cdbe3f
North China
22
False
What was another name for the Boxers?
57314deaa5e9cc1400cdbe40
Righteous and Harmonious Fists
188
False
When did the Boxers begin to kill missionaries and Chinese Christians?
57314deaa5e9cc1400cdbe41
1900
236
False
Who invaded China?
57314deaa5e9cc1400cdbe42
A coalition of European, Japanese, and Russian armies
444
False
Where did Cixi go after Beijing fell to the 8 armies?
57314deaa5e9cc1400cdbe43
Xi'an
722
False
Widespread drought in North China, combined with the imperialist designs of European powers and the instability of the Qing government, created conditions that led to the emergence of the Righteous and Harmonious Fists, or "Boxers." In 1900, local groups of Boxers proclaiming support for the Qing dynasty murdered foreign missionaries and large numbers of Chinese Christians, then converged on Beijing to besiege the Foreign Legation Quarter. A coalition of European, Japanese, and Russian armies (the Eight-Nation Alliance) then entered China without diplomatic notice, much less permission. Cixi declared war on all of these nations, only to lose control of Beijing after a short, but hard-fought campaign. She fled to Xi'an. The victorious allies drew up scores of demands on the Qing government, including compensation for their expenses in invading China and execution of complicit officials.
What did Cixi do in 1901?
57314e6ce6313a140071cdf4
issued an imperial edict
148
False
What were the governments New Policies also called?
57314e6ce6313a140071cdf5
"Late Qing Reform"
324
False
When were imperial examinations halted?
57314e6ce6313a140071cdf6
1905
545
False
By the early 20th century, mass civil disorder had begun in China, and it was growing continuously. To overcome such problems, Empress Dowager Cixi issued an imperial edict in 1901 calling for reform proposals from the governors-general and governors and initiated the era of the dynasty's "New Policies", also known as the "Late Qing Reform". The edict paved the way for the most far-reaching reforms in terms of their social consequences, including the creation of a national education system and the abolition of the imperial examinations in 1905.
What year did Guangxu die?
57314f09497a881900248d9b
1908
41
False
What year did Cixi die?
57314f09497a881900248d9c
1908
67
False
Who ruled after Guangxu?
57314f09497a881900248d9d
Prince Chun
311
False
How old was Prince Chun?
57314f09497a881900248d9e
two
407
False
What year was the Republic of China created?
57314f09497a881900248d9f
1911
937
False
The Guangxu Emperor died on November 14, 1908, and on November 15, 1908, Cixi also died. Rumors held that she or Yuan Shikai ordered trusted eunuchs to poison the Guangxu Emperor, and an autopsy conducted nearly a century later confirmed lethal levels of arsenic in his corpse. Puyi, the oldest son of Zaifeng, Prince Chun, and nephew to the childless Guangxu Emperor, was appointed successor at the age of two, leaving Zaifeng with the regency. This was followed by the dismissal of General Yuan Shikai from his former positions of power. In April 1911 Zaifeng created a cabinet in which there were two vice-premiers. Nonetheless, this cabinet was also known by contemporaries as "The Royal Cabinet" because among the thirteen cabinet members, five were members of the imperial family or Aisin Gioro relatives. This brought a wide range of negative opinions from senior officials like Zhang Zhidong. The Wuchang Uprising of October 10, 1911, led to the creation of a new central government, the Republic of China, in Nanjing with Sun Yat-sen as its provisional head. Many provinces soon began "separating" from Qing control. Seeing a desperate situation unfold, the Qing government brought Yuan Shikai back to military power. He took control of his Beiyang Army to crush the revolution in Wuhan at the Battle of Yangxia. After taking the position of Prime Minister and creating his own cabinet, Yuan Shikai went as far as to ask for the removal of Zaifeng from the regency. This removal later proceeded with directions from Empress Dowager Longyu.
Who led the Qing?
57314fae05b4da19006bd030
Yuan Shikai
19
False
Who negotiated with Yuan Shikai to prevent war?
57314fae05b4da19006bd031
Sun Yat-sen
467
False
Who led the Republic of China?
57314fae05b4da19006bd032
Sun Yat-sen,
467
False
Who became the President?
57314fae05b4da19006bd033
Yuan
581
False
With Zaifeng gone, Yuan Shikai and his Beiyang commanders effectively dominated Qing politics. He reasoned that going to war would be unreasonable and costly, especially when noting that the Qing government had a goal for constitutional monarchy. Similarly, Sun Yat-sen's government wanted a republican constitutional reform, both aiming for the benefit of China's economy and populace. With permission from Empress Dowager Longyu, Yuan Shikai began negotiating with Sun Yat-sen, who decided that his goal had been achieved in forming a republic, and that therefore he could allow Yuan to step into the position of President of the Republic of China.
What year did the end of Imperial China occur?
57315058497a881900248dbf
1912
15
False
How long did Imperial China last for?
57315058497a881900248dc0
2,000 years
168
False
When was Manchukuo created?
57315058497a881900248dc1
1932
500
False
On 12 February 1912, after rounds of negotiations, Longyu issued an imperial edict bringing about the abdication of the child emperor Puyi. This brought an end to over 2,000 years of Imperial China and began an extended period of instability of warlord factionalism. The unorganized political and economic systems combined with a widespread criticism of Chinese culture led to questioning and doubt about the future. In the 1930s, the Empire of Japan invaded Northeast China and founded Manchukuo in 1932, with Puyi, as the emperor. After the invasion by the Soviet Union, Manchukuo collapsed in 1945.
Who split the leadership roles in the Qing dynasty?
5731511a05b4da19006bd038
Han Chinese and Manchus
132
False
Where did the Qing find their officials?
5731511a05b4da19006bd039
imperial examination system
262
False
How many ranks were there in civil service in the Qing dynasty?
5731511a05b4da19006bd03a
nine
409
False
The early Qing emperors adopted the bureaucratic structures and institutions from the preceding Ming dynasty but split rule between Han Chinese and Manchus, with some positions also given to Mongols. Like previous dynasties, the Qing recruited officials via the imperial examination system, until the system was abolished in 1905. The Qing divided the positions into civil and military positions, each having nine grades or ranks, each subdivided into a and b categories. Civil appointments ranged from attendant to the emperor or a Grand Secretary in the Forbidden City (highest) to being a prefectural tax collector, deputy jail warden, deputy police commissioner or tax examiner. Military appointments ranged from being a field marshal or chamberlain of the imperial bodyguard to a third class sergeant, corporal or a first or second class private.
Who was the main leader of the Qing?
573151a9e6313a140071ce1a
Emperor
60
False
Which ethnicities made up the Qing government?
573151a9e6313a140071ce1b
Manchu noblemen and Han officials
317
False
What happened to the Grand Secretariat?
573151a9e6313a140071ce1c
evolved into an imperial chancery
541
False
The formal structure of the Qing government centered on the Emperor as the absolute ruler, who presided over six Boards (Ministries[c]), each headed by two presidents[d] and assisted by four vice presidents.[e] In contrast to the Ming system, however, Qing ethnic policy dictated that appointments were split between Manchu noblemen and Han officials who had passed the highest levels of the state examinations. The Grand Secretariat,[f] which had been an important policy-making body under the Ming, lost its importance during the Qing and evolved into an imperial chancery. The institutions which had been inherited from the Ming formed the core of the Qing "Outer Court," which handled routine matters and was located in the southern part of the Forbidden City.
Who controlled the "Inner Court"?
57315370497a881900248ddb
imperial family and Manchu nobility
201
False
Where was the Inner Court?
57315370497a881900248ddc
Forbidden City
287
False
What was the Grand Council?
57315370497a881900248ddd
core institution of the inner court
307
False
In order not to let the routine administration take over the running of the empire, the Qing emperors made sure that all important matters were decided in the "Inner Court," which was dominated by the imperial family and Manchu nobility and which was located in the northern part of the Forbidden City. The core institution of the inner court was the Grand Council.[g] It emerged in the 1720s under the reign of the Yongzheng Emperor as a body charged with handling Qing military campaigns against the Mongols, but it soon took over other military and administrative duties and served to centralize authority under the crown. The Grand Councillors[h] served as a sort of privy council to the emperor.
What shape of emblem signified a Han official?
5731541a497a881900248de1
square emblem
578
False
What shape of emblam signified members of the royal family?
5731541a497a881900248de2
circular
506
False
Which two ethnicities made up each position in government?
5731541a497a881900248de3
Manchu and a Han Chinese
150
False
From the early Qing, the central government was characterized by a system of dual appointments by which each position in the central government had a Manchu and a Han Chinese assigned to it. The Han Chinese appointee was required to do the substantive work and the Manchu to ensure Han loyalty to Qing rule. The distinction between Han Chinese and Manchus extended to their court costumes. During the Qianlong Emperor's reign, for example, members of his family were distinguished by garments with a small circular emblem on the back, whereas Han officials wore clothing with a square emblem.
Who governed the areas of Tibet and Mongolia?
573154bfa5e9cc1400cdbe95
Lifan Yuan
43
False
Who administered the minority groups?
573154bfa5e9cc1400cdbe96
Lifan Yuan
43
False
How many boards were there in the Qing government?
573154bfa5e9cc1400cdbe97
six
19
False
In addition to the six boards, there was a Lifan Yuan unique to the Qing government. This institution was established to supervise the administration of Tibet and the Mongol lands. As the empire expanded, it took over administrative responsibility of all minority ethnic groups living in and around the empire, including early contacts with Russia — then seen as a tribute nation. The office had the status of a full ministry and was headed by officials of equal rank. However, appointees were at first restricted only to candidates of Manchu and Mongol ethnicity, until later open to Han Chinese as well.
What was the foreign service called?
57315596497a881900248e01
Zongli Yamen
361
False
Who performed the tasks of the Zongli Yamen before it was created?
57315596497a881900248e02
Board of Rites and Lifan Yuan
16
False
What was the war called fought between the British and French against the Qing?
57315596497a881900248e03
Second Opium War
204
False
Even though the Board of Rites and Lifan Yuan performed some duties of a foreign office, they fell short of developing into a professional foreign service. It was not until 1861 — a year after losing the Second Opium War to the Anglo-French coalition — that the Qing government bowed to foreign pressure and created a proper foreign affairs office known as the Zongli Yamen. The office was originally intended to be temporary and was staffed by officials seconded from the Grand Council. However, as dealings with foreigners became increasingly complicated and frequent, the office grew in size and importance, aided by revenue from customs duties which came under its direct jurisdiction.
Which emperor followed Shunzhi?
5731564105b4da19006bd05a
Kangxi
284
False
Where were textile factories located?
5731564105b4da19006bd05b
Jiangnan region
655
False
What did China trade with Tibet and Mongolia?
5731564105b4da19006bd05c
jade, ginseng, salt, furs
588
False
There was also another government institution called Imperial Household Department which was unique to the Qing dynasty. It was established before the fall of the Ming, but it became mature only after 1661, following the death of the Shunzhi Emperor and the accession of his son, the Kangxi Emperor. The department's original purpose was to manage the internal affairs of the imperial family and the activities of the inner palace (in which tasks it largely replaced eunuchs), but it also played an important role in Qing relations with Tibet and Mongolia, engaged in trading activities (jade, ginseng, salt, furs, etc.), managed textile factories in the Jiangnan region, and even published books. Relations with the Salt Superintendents and salt merchants, such as those at Yangzhou, were particularly lucrative, especially since they were direct, and did not go through absorptive layers of bureaucracy. The department was manned by booi,[o] or "bondservants," from the Upper Three Banners. By the 19th century, it managed the activities of at least 56 subagencies.
What century did Qing China stretch to its largest?
5731579e497a881900248e2f
18th century
49
False
How many kilometers was Qing China at its height?
5731579e497a881900248e30
13 million km2
233
False
How many provinces were there at the height of Qing China?
5731579e497a881900248e31
22
362
False
When did Japan take over Taiwan?
5731579e497a881900248e32
1895
573
False
How did the Japanese win Taiwan?
5731579e497a881900248e33
First Sino-Japanese
592
False
Qing China reached its largest extent during the 18th century, when it ruled China proper (eighteen provinces) as well as the areas of present-day Northeast China, Inner Mongolia, Outer Mongolia, Xinjiang and Tibet, at approximately 13 million km2 in size. There were originally 18 provinces, all of which in China proper, but later this number was increased to 22, with Manchuria and Xinjiang being divided or turned into provinces. Taiwan, originally part of Fujian province, became a province of its own in the late 19th century, but was ceded to the Empire of Japan in 1895 following the First Sino-Japanese War. In addition, many surrounding countries, such as Korea (Joseon dynasty), Vietnam frequently paid tribute to China during much of this period. Khanate of Kokand were forced to submit as protectorate and pay tribute to the Qing dynasty in China between 1774 and 1798.
What two provinces were formed from Huguang?
5731585ea5e9cc1400cdbec9
Hubei and Hunan
183
False
What was the name of the highest ranking official in a province?
5731585ea5e9cc1400cdbeca
governor
384
False
What were provinces broken up into?
5731585ea5e9cc1400cdbecb
prefectures
477
False
What is another name for the main 18 provinces?
5731585ea5e9cc1400cdbecc
China proper
690
False
How many viceroys were there in China Proper?
5731585ea5e9cc1400cdbecd
eight
828
False
The Qing organization of provinces was based on the fifteen administrative units set up by the Ming dynasty, later made into eighteen provinces by splitting for example, Huguang into Hubei and Hunan provinces. The provincial bureaucracy continued the Yuan and Ming practice of three parallel lines, civil, military, and censorate, or surveillance. Each province was administered by a governor (巡撫, xunfu) and a provincial military commander (提督, tidu). Below the province were prefectures (府, fu) operating under a prefect (知府, zhīfǔ), followed by subprefectures under a subprefect. The lowest unit was the county, overseen by a county magistrate. The eighteen provinces are also known as "China proper". The position of viceroy or governor-general (總督, zongdu) was the highest rank in the provincial administration. There were eight regional viceroys in China proper, each usually took charge of two or three provinces. The Viceroy of Zhili, who was responsible for the area surrounding the capital Beijing, is usually considered as the most honorable and powerful viceroy among the eight.
When did Tibet become part of Qing China?
57315939a5e9cc1400cdbed3
mid-18th century
7
False
What was the main government entity that ran the territories like Tibet?
57315939a5e9cc1400cdbed4
Lifan Yuan
325
False
What is another name for Chinese Turkestan?
57315939a5e9cc1400cdbed5
Xinjiang
398
False
Which emperor allowed Han migration to Dzungaria?
57315939a5e9cc1400cdbed6
Qianlong
760
False
Who first ran Manchuria?
57315939a5e9cc1400cdbed7
military generals
999
False
By the mid-18th century, the Qing had successfully put outer regions such as Inner and Outer Mongolia, Tibet and Xinjiang under its control. Imperial commissioners and garrisons were sent to Mongolia and Tibet to oversee their affairs. These territories were also under supervision of a central government institution called Lifan Yuan. Qinghai was also put under direct control of the Qing court. Xinjiang, also known as Chinese Turkestan, was subdivided into the regions north and south of the Tian Shan mountains, also known today as Dzungaria and Tarim Basin respectively, but the post of Ili General was established in 1762 to exercise unified military and administrative jurisdiction over both regions. Dzungaria was fully opened to Han migration by the Qianlong Emperor from the beginning. Han migrants were at first forbidden from permanently settling in the Tarim Basin but were the ban was lifted after the invasion by Jahangir Khoja in the 1820s. Likewise, Manchuria was also governed by military generals until its division into provinces, though some areas of Xinjiang and Northeast China were lost to the Russian Empire in the mid-19th century. Manchuria was originally separated from China proper by the Inner Willow Palisade, a ditch and embankment planted with willows intended to restrict the movement of the Han Chinese, as the area was off-limits to civilian Han Chinese until the government started colonizing the area, especially since the 1860s.
What title did the emperor hold in Mongolia?
57315a55e6313a140071ce7a
khan
109
False
Who ruled Kashgaria?
57315a55e6313a140071ce7b
Yaqub Beg
335
False
Who supported Beg?
57315a55e6313a140071ce7c
British
402
False
When did the British invade Tibet?
57315a55e6313a140071ce7d
early 20th century
890
False
What was the name of the agreement between Britain and the Chinese that kept the British out of Tibet?
57315a55e6313a140071ce7e
1906 Anglo-Chinese Convention
1077
False
With respect to these outer regions, the Qing maintained imperial control, with the emperor acting as Mongol khan, patron of Tibetan Buddhism and protector of Muslims. However, Qing policy changed with the establishment of Xinjiang province in 1884. During The Great Game era, taking advantage of the Dungan revolt in northwest China, Yaqub Beg invaded Xinjiang from Central Asia with support from the British Empire, and made himself the ruler of the kingdom of Kashgaria. The Qing court sent forces to defeat Yaqub Beg and Xinjiang was reconquered, and then the political system of China proper was formally applied onto Xinjiang. The Kumul Khanate, which was incorporated into the Qing empire as a vassal after helping Qing defeat the Zunghars in 1757, maintained its status after Xinjiang turned into a province through the end of the dynasty in the Xinhai Revolution up until 1930. In early 20th century, Britain sent an expedition force to Tibet and forced Tibetans to sign a treaty. The Qing court responded by asserting Chinese sovereignty over Tibet, resulting in the 1906 Anglo-Chinese Convention signed between Britain and China. The British agreed not to annex Tibetan territory or to interfere in the administration of Tibet, while China engaged not to permit any other foreign state to interfere with the territory or internal administration of Tibet. Furthermore, similar to Xinjiang which was converted into a province earlier, the Qing government also turned Manchuria into three provinces in the early 20th century, officially known as the "Three Northeast Provinces", and established the post of Viceroy of the Three Northeast Provinces to oversee these provinces, making the total number of regional viceroys to nine.
Who created the Eight Banners?
57315af1a5e9cc1400cdbeed
Nurhaci
75
False
How were the 8 banners recognized?
57315af1a5e9cc1400cdbeee
color
194
False
What were the banners called that were under direct leadership of the emperor?
57315af1a5e9cc1400cdbeef
Upper Three Banners
267
False
What ethnicity made up the Upper Three Banners?
57315af1a5e9cc1400cdbef0
Manchus
343
False
What were the rest of the banners called?
57315af1a5e9cc1400cdbef1
Lower Five Banners
555
False
The early Qing military was rooted in the Eight Banners first developed by Nurhaci to organize Jurchen society beyond petty clan affiliations. There were eight banners in all, differentiated by color. The yellow, bordered yellow, and white banners were known as the "Upper Three Banners" and were under the direct command of the emperor. Only Manchus belonging to the Upper Three Banners, and selected Han Chinese who had passed the highest level of martial exams could serve as the emperor's personal bodyguards. The remaining Banners were known as the "Lower Five Banners." They were commanded by hereditary Manchu princes descended from Nurhachi's immediate family, known informally as the "Iron cap princes". Together they formed the ruling council of the Manchu nation as well as high command of the army. Nurhachi's son Hong Taiji expanded the system to include mirrored Mongol and Han Banners. After capturing Beijing in 1644, the relatively small Banner armies were further augmented by the Green Standard Army, made up of those Ming troops who had surrendered to the Qing, which eventually outnumbered Banner troops three to one. They maintained their Ming era organization and were led by a mix of Banner and Green Standard officers.[citation needed]
How were Banner's organized?
57315c28497a881900248e75
along ethnic lines
29
False
Which two ethnicities made up the majority of the Banner Armies?
57315c28497a881900248e76
Manchu and Mongol
56
False
Which ethnicity dominated the army in the reigns of Shunzhi and Kangxi?
57315c28497a881900248e77
Han Bannermen
401
False
What did the Europeans call Han Bannermen?
57315c28497a881900248e78
"Tartarized Chinese" or "Tartarified Chinese"
792
False
When did Manchu ethnicity become important again in the Eight Banners?
57315c28497a881900248e79
Qianlong's reign
849
False
Banner Armies were organized along ethnic lines, namely Manchu and Mongol, but included non-Manchu bondservants registered under the household of their Manchu masters. The years leading up to the conquest increased the number of Han Chinese under Manchu rule, leading Hong Taiji to create the Eight Han Banners (zh), and around the time of the Qing takeover of Beijing, their numbers rapidly swelled. Han Bannermen held high status and power in the early Qing period, especially immediately after the conquest during Shunzhi and Kangxi's reign where they dominated Governor-Generalships and Governorships across China at the expense of both Manchu Bannermen and Han civilians. Han also numerically dominated the Banners up until the mid 18th century. European visitors in Beijing called them "Tartarized Chinese" or "Tartarified Chinese". It was in Qianlong's reign that the Qianlong Emperor, concerned about maintaining Manchu identity, re-emphasized Manchu ethnicity, ancestry, language, and culture in the Eight Banners and started a mass discharge of Han Bannermen from the Eight Banners, either asking them to voluntarily resign from the Banner rolls or striking their names off. This led to a change from Han majority to a Manchu majority within the Banner system, and previous Han Bannermen garrisons in southern China such as at Fuzhou, Zhenjiang, Guangzhou, were replaced by Manchu Bannermen in the purge, which started in 1754. The turnover by Qianlong most heavily impacted Han banner garrisons stationed in the provinces while it less impacted Han Bannermen in Beijing, leaving a larger proportion of remaining Han Bannermen in Beijing than the provinces. Han Bannermen's status was decreased from that point on with Manchu Banners gaining higher status. Han Bannermen numbered 75% in 1648 Shunzhi's reign, 72% in 1723 Yongzheng's reign, but decreased to 43% in 1796 during the first year of Jiaqing's reign, which was after Qianlong's purge. The mass discharge was known as the Disbandment of the Han Banners (zh). Qianlong directed most of his ire at those Han Bannermen descended from defectors who joined the Qing after the Qing passed through the Great Wall at Shanhai Pass in 1644, deeming their ancestors as traitors to the Ming and therefore untrustworthy, while retaining Han Bannermen who were descended from defectors who joined the Qing before 1644 in Liaodong and marched through Shanhai pass, also known as those who "followed the Dragon through the pass" (從龍入關; cong long ru guan).
What caused the Qing armies to lose many battles?
57315d3b05b4da19006bd0e0
Taiping Rebellion
17
False
What city did the Qing lose in 1853?
57315d3b05b4da19006bd0e1
Nanjing
144
False
Who created a new type of army to thwart the Taiping rebels?
57315d3b05b4da19006bd0e2
Zeng Guofan
440
False
What was Zeng Guofan?
57315d3b05b4da19006bd0e3
Xiang Army
637
False
What was the Xiang Army named after?
57315d3b05b4da19006bd0e4
Hunan region where it was raised
665
False
Early during the Taiping Rebellion, Qing forces suffered a series of disastrous defeats culminating in the loss of the regional capital city of Nanjing in 1853. Shortly thereafter, a Taiping expeditionary force penetrated as far north as the suburbs of Tianjin, the imperial heartlands. In desperation the Qing court ordered a Chinese official, Zeng Guofan, to organize regional and village militias into an emergency army called tuanlian. Zeng Guofan's strategy was to rely on local gentry to raise a new type of military organization from those provinces that the Taiping rebels directly threatened. This new force became known as the Xiang Army, named after the Hunan region where it was raised. The Xiang Army was a hybrid of local militia and a standing army. It was given professional training, but was paid for out of regional coffers and funds its commanders — mostly members of the Chinese gentry — could muster. The Xiang Army and its successor, the Huai Army, created by Zeng Guofan's colleague and mentee Li Hongzhang, were collectively called the "Yong Ying" (Brave Camp).
Who inspired Zeng Guofan in creating his army?
57315dcae6313a140071ce98
Qi Jiguang
148
False
What did Qi Jiguang's private army do?
57315dcae6313a140071ce99
repel raiding Japanese pirates
259
False
What was the original plan for the Xiang Army?
57315dcae6313a140071ce9a
eradicate the Taiping rebels
543
False
Zeng Guofan had no prior military experience. Being a classically educated official, he took his blueprint for the Xiang Army from the Ming general Qi Jiguang, who, because of the weakness of regular Ming troops, had decided to form his own "private" army to repel raiding Japanese pirates in the mid-16th century. Qi Jiguang's doctrine was based on Neo-Confucian ideas of binding troops' loyalty to their immediate superiors and also to the regions in which they were raised. Zeng Guofan's original intention for the Xiang Army was simply to eradicate the Taiping rebels. However, the success of the Yongying system led to its becoming a permanent regional force within the Qing military, which in the long run created problems for the beleaguered central government.
What entity became the main Qing troops?
57315e3ca5e9cc1400cdbf0b
Yongying corps
195
False
Who paid for the Yongying?
57315e3ca5e9cc1400cdbf0c
provincial coffers
316
False
Who led the Yongying?
57315e3ca5e9cc1400cdbf0d
regional commanders
351
False
First, the Yongying system signaled the end of Manchu dominance in Qing military establishment. Although the Banners and Green Standard armies lingered on as a drain on resources, henceforth the Yongying corps became the Qing government's de facto first-line troops. Second, the Yongying corps were financed through provincial coffers and were led by regional commanders, weakening central government's grip on the whole country. Finally, the nature of Yongying command structure fostered nepotism and cronyism amongst its commanders, who laid the seeds of regional warlordism in the first half of the 20th century.
When was the Second Opium War?
57315f42497a881900248e91
1860
132
False
What happened to the Summer Palace?
57315f42497a881900248e92
sacked
222
False
How big was the French-British army?
57315f42497a881900248e93
25,000
290
False
What was the Qing governments attempt to create a modern socity called?
57315f42497a881900248e94
Self-Strengthening Movement
506
False
By the late 19th century, the most conservative elements within the Qing court could no longer ignore China's military weakness. In 1860, during the Second Opium War, the capital Beijing was captured and the Summer Palace sacked by a relatively small Anglo-French coalition force numbering 25,000. The advent of modern weaponry resulting from the European Industrial Revolution had rendered China's traditionally trained and equipped army and navy obsolete. The government attempts to modernize during the Self-Strengthening Movement were initially successful, but yielded few lasting results because of the central government's lack of funds, lack of political will, and unwillingness to depart from tradition.
Who beat the Chinese in the First Sino-Japanese War?
5731600fe6313a140071cea8
Japan
65
False
Which fleet did the Japanese destroy?
5731600fe6313a140071cea9
Beiyang Fleet
206
False
When did the Qing decide to modernize their military?
5731600fe6313a140071ceaa
1894
484
False
What was the new modern army called?
5731600fe6313a140071ceab
the New Army
675
False
Who became the President of the Republic of China?
5731600fe6313a140071ceac
General Yuan Shikai
814
False
Losing the First Sino-Japanese War of 1894–1895 was a watershed. Japan, a country long regarded by the Chinese as little more than an upstart nation of pirates, annihilated the Qing government's modernized Beiyang Fleet, then deemed to be the strongest naval force in Asia. The Japanese victory occurred a mere three decades after the Meiji Restoration set a feudal Japan on course to emulate the Western nations in their economic and technological achievements. Finally, in December 1894, the Qing government took concrete steps to reform military institutions and to re-train selected units in westernized drills, tactics and weaponry. These units were collectively called the New Army. The most successful of these was the Beiyang Army under the overall supervision and control of a former Huai Army commander, General Yuan Shikai, who used his position to build networks of loyal officers and eventually become President of the Republic of China.
What happened in early and middle Qing history?
573160a1a5e9cc1400cdbf11
population growth
67
False
How much did the population grow during the 18th century?
573160a1a5e9cc1400cdbf12
doubled
101
False
What were the 2 types of migration during the 18th century?
573160a1a5e9cc1400cdbf13
permanent migration for resettlement, and relocation conceived by the party (in theory at least) as a temporary sojourn
581
False
The most significant fact of early and mid-Qing social history was population growth. The population doubled during the 18th century. People in this period were also remarkably on the move. There is evidence suggesting that the empire's rapidly expanding population was geographically mobile on a scale, which, in term of its volume and its protracted and routinized nature, was unprecedented in Chinese history. Indeed, the Qing government did far more to encourage mobility than to discourage it. Migration took several different forms, though might be divided in two varieties: permanent migration for resettlement, and relocation conceived by the party (in theory at least) as a temporary sojourn. Parties to the latter would include the empire's increasingly large and mobile manual workforce, as well as its densely overlapping internal diaspora of local-origin-based merchant groups. It would also included the patterned movement of Qing subjects overseas, largely to Southeastern Asia, in search of trade and other economic opportunities.
How many estates were there in Qing society?
5731613c05b4da19006bd110
five
121
False
What 2 groups were normal Chinese broken into?
5731613c05b4da19006bd111
the good "commoner" people, the other "mean" people
404
False
What was the legal term for commoner?
5731613c05b4da19006bd112
liangmin
541
False
According to statute, Qing society was divided into relatively closed estates, of which in most general terms there were five. Apart from the estates of the officials, the comparatively minuscule aristocracy, and the degree-holding literati, there also existed a major division among ordinary Chinese between commoners and people with inferior status. They were divided into two categories: one of them, the good "commoner" people, the other "mean" people. The majority of the population belonged to the first category and were described as liangmin, a legal term meaning good people, as opposed to jianmin meaning the mean (or ignoble) people. Qing law explicitly stated that the traditional four occupational groups of scholars, farmers, artisans and merchants were "good", or having a status of commoners. On the other hand, slaves or bondservants, entertainers (including prostitutes and actors), and those low-level employees of government officials were the "mean people". Mean people were considered legally inferior to commoners and suffered unequal treatments, forbidden to take the imperial examination.
What did China export?
573161e105b4da19006bd116
tea, silk and manufactures
626
False
What did the Chinese get paid for their goods?
573161e105b4da19006bd117
silver
735
False
When did the Chinese economy finally recover after the wars with the Mings?
573161e105b4da19006bd118
end of the 17th century
7
False
By the end of the 17th century, the Chinese economy had recovered from the devastation caused by the wars in which the Ming dynasty were overthrown, and the resulting breakdown of order. In the following century, markets continued to expand as in the late Ming period, but with more trade between regions, a greater dependence on overseas markets and a greatly increased population. After the re-opening of the southeast coast, which had been closed in the late 17th century, foreign trade was quickly re-established, and was expanding at 4% per annum throughout the latter part of the 18th century. China continued to export tea, silk and manufactures, creating a large, favorable trade balance with the West. The resulting inflow of silver expanded the money supply, facilitating the growth of competitive and stable markets.
What did the Qing do to reform land ownership?
57316283497a881900248ea3
reduced the tax burden
227
False
What happened to the price of rice during the 18th century?
57316283497a881900248ea4
rise slowly and smoothly
558
False
What was the Great Divergence?
57316283497a881900248ea5
Western world overtook China economically
926
False
The government broadened land ownership by returning land that had been sold to large landowners in the late Ming period by families unable to pay the land tax. To give people more incentives to participate in the market, they reduced the tax burden in comparison with the late Ming, and replaced the corvée system with a head tax used to hire laborers. The administration of the Grand Canal was made more efficient, and transport opened to private merchants. A system of monitoring grain prices eliminated severe shortages, and enabled the price of rice to rise slowly and smoothly through the 18th century. Wary of the power of wealthy merchants, Qing rulers limited their trading licenses and usually refused them permission to open new mines, except in poor areas. These restrictions on domestic resource exploration, as well as on foreign trade, are held by some scholars as a cause of the Great Divergence, by which the Western world overtook China economically.
What was China's population at the end of the 18th century?
573162fbe6313a140071ceba
300 million
59
False
What were the reasons for the population explosion during the 18th century?
573162fbe6313a140071cebb
peace and stability in the 18th century and the import of new crops
221
False
What crops were imported?
573162fbe6313a140071cebc
peanuts, sweet potatoes and maize. New species of rice
333
False
By the end of the 18th century the population had risen to 300 million from approximately 150 million during the late Ming dynasty. The dramatic rise in population was due to several reasons, including the long period of peace and stability in the 18th century and the import of new crops China received from the Americas, including peanuts, sweet potatoes and maize. New species of rice from Southeast Asia led to a huge increase in production. Merchant guilds proliferated in all of the growing Chinese cities and often acquired great social and even political influence. Rich merchants with official connections built up huge fortunes and patronized literature, theater and the arts. Textile and handicraft production boomed.
What arts were the Qing emperors good at?
5731639f497a881900248eb1
poetry and often skilled in painting
42
False
What was the rhyme dictionary called that was published by Kangxi?
5731639f497a881900248eb2
Peiwen Yunfu
298
False
When was the Kangxi Dictionary published?
5731639f497a881900248eb3
1716
389
False
When was the Siku Quanshu finished?
5731639f497a881900248eb4
1782
566
False
The Qing emperors were generally adept at poetry and often skilled in painting, and offered their patronage to Confucian culture. The Kangxi and Qianlong Emperors, for instance, embraced Chinese traditions both to control them and to proclaim their own legitimacy. The Kangxi Emperor sponsored the Peiwen Yunfu, a rhyme dictionary published in 1711, and the Kangxi Dictionary published in 1716, which remains to this day an authoritative reference. The Qianlong Emperor sponsored the largest collection of writings in Chinese history, the Siku Quanshu, completed in 1782. Court painters made new versions of the Song masterpiece, Zhang Zeduan's Along the River During the Qingming Festival whose depiction of a prosperous and happy realm demonstrated the beneficence of the emperor. The emperors undertook tours of the south and commissioned monumental scrolls to depict the grandeur of the occasion. Imperial patronage also encouraged the industrial production of ceramics and Chinese export porcelain.
Name three painters?
57316448e6313a140071ceca
Four Wangs and the individualists Bada Shanren (1626–1705) and Shitao (1641–1707)
349
False
What two schools of art were created in the 19th century?
57316448e6313a140071cecb
Shanghai School and the Lingnan School
483
False
Name two arts of the Four Arts?
57316448e6313a140071cecc
Calligraphy and painting
86
False
Yet the most impressive aesthetic works were done among the scholars and urban elite. Calligraphy and painting remained a central interest to both court painters and scholar-gentry who considered the Four Arts part of their cultural identity and social standing. The painting of the early years of the dynasty included such painters as the orthodox Four Wangs and the individualists Bada Shanren (1626–1705) and Shitao (1641–1707). The nineteenth century saw such innovations as the Shanghai School and the Lingnan School which used the technical skills of tradition to set the stage for modern painting.
What was the sign of a gentleman?
57316532a5e9cc1400cdbf17
Poetry
51
False
Who started writing poety during the Qing dynasty?
57316532a5e9cc1400cdbf18
women
111
False
What was the name of Pu Songling's collection of short stories?
57316532a5e9cc1400cdbf19
Strange Stories
815
False
What was the name of Shen Fu's memoir?
57316532a5e9cc1400cdbf1a
Six Chapters of a Floating Life
950
False
Who wrote the novel Dream of the Red Chamber?
57316532a5e9cc1400cdbf1b
Cao Xueqin
1088
False
Literature grew to new heights in the Qing period. Poetry continued as a mark of the cultivated gentleman, but women wrote in larger and larger numbers and poets came from all walks of life. The poetry of the Qing dynasty is a lively field of research, being studied (along with the poetry of the Ming dynasty) for its association with Chinese opera, developmental trends of Classical Chinese poetry, the transition to a greater role for vernacular language, and for poetry by women in Chinese culture. The Qing dynasty was a period of much literary collection and criticism, and many of the modern popular versions of Classical Chinese poems were transmitted through Qing dynasty anthologies, such as the Quantangshi and the Three Hundred Tang Poems. Pu Songling brought the short story form to a new level in his Strange Stories from a Chinese Studio, published in the mid-18th century, and Shen Fu demonstrated the charm of the informal memoir in Six Chapters of a Floating Life, written in the early 19th century but published only in 1877. The art of the novel reached a pinnacle in Cao Xueqin's Dream of the Red Chamber, but its combination of social commentary and psychological insight were echoed in highly skilled novels such as Wu Jingzi's The Scholars (1750) and Li Ruzhen's Flowers in the Mirror (1827).
Who wrote the Suiyuan Shidan?
573165efe6313a140071cee4
Yuan Mei
119
False
What was the Suiyaun Shidan about?
573165efe6313a140071cee5
recipes
385
False
What was the Manchu Han Imperial Feast?
573165efe6313a140071cee6
appreciation by Han Chinese for Manchu culinary customs
569
False
Cuisine aroused a cultural pride in the accumulated richness of a long and varied past. The gentleman gourmet, such as Yuan Mei, applied aesthetic standards to the art of cooking, eating, and appreciation of tea at a time when New World crops and products entered everyday life. The Suiyuan Shidan written by him, detailed the culinary esthetics and theory, along with a wide range of recipes from the ruling period of Qianlong during Qing Dynasty. The Manchu Han Imperial Feast originated at the court. Although this banquet was probably never common, it reflected an appreciation by Han Chinese for Manchu culinary customs. Nevertheless, culinary traditionalists such as Yuan Mei lambasted the opulent culinary rituals of the Manchu Han Imperial Feast, saying that it is cause in part by "...the vulgar habits of bad chefs" and that "Display this trite are useful only for welcoming new relations through one’s gates or when the boss comes to visit." (皆惡廚陋習。只可用之於新親上門，上司入境)
Indigenous_peoples_of_the_Americas
Who are the indigenous people of the Americas descended from?
573120b505b4da19006bcdd6
pre-Columbian inhabitants of the Americas
66
False
What is a common term in Spanish speaking countries for the indigenous peoples?
573120b505b4da19006bcdd7
Pueblos indígenas
109
False
What term is used in Argentina to refer to the original peoples of a continent?
573120b505b4da19006bcdd8
Aborigen
196
False
In Quebec, The Guianas and places in the Caribbean where English is spoken, what is the preferred term for the indigenous people of the Americas?
573120b505b4da19006bcdd9
Amerindian
256
False
How are the indigenous people most commonly referred to by citizens of the U.S.?
573120b505b4da19006bcdda
Native Americans
524
False
The indigenous peoples of the Americas are the descendants of the pre-Columbian inhabitants of the Americas. Pueblos indígenas (indigenous peoples) is a common term in Spanish-speaking countries. Aborigen (aboriginal/native) is used in Argentina, whereas "Amerindian" is used in Quebec, The Guianas, and the English-speaking Caribbean. Indigenous peoples are commonly known in Canada as Aboriginal peoples, which include First Nations, Inuit, and Métis peoples. Indigenous peoples of the United States are commonly known as Native Americans or American Indians, and Alaska Natives.
Where do most theories today attribute the settlement of the Americas as originating from?
5731225ca5e9cc1400cdbc75
Asia
98
False
How did humans cross over to the Americas from Asia?
5731225ca5e9cc1400cdbc76
Beringia
161
False
What was Beringia?
5731225ca5e9cc1400cdbc77
a land bridge which connected the two continents
171
False
Most experts can at least agree that the earliest pre-modern human migration took place when?
5731225ca5e9cc1400cdbc78
13,500 years ago
366
False
How do the indigenous peoples explain how they came to live in the Americas?
5731225ca5e9cc1400cdbc79
a wide range of creation myths
766
False
According to the prevailing theories of the settlement of the Americas, migrations of humans from Asia (in particular North Asia) to the Americas took place via Beringia, a land bridge which connected the two continents across what is now the Bering Strait. The majority of experts agree that the earliest pre-modern human migration via Beringia took place at least 13,500 years ago, with disputed evidence that people had migrated into the Americas much earlier, up to 40,000 years ago. These early Paleo-Indians spread throughout the Americas, diversifying into many hundreds of culturally distinct nations and tribes. According to the oral histories of many of the indigenous peoples of the Americas, they have been living there since their genesis, described by a wide range of creation myths.
What incorrect term for the indigenous population originated with Christopher Columbus?
57312489497a881900248bab
Indian
25
False
Where did Columbus believe he had arrived?
57312489497a881900248bac
East Indies
135
False
Because of Columbus' mistake, the Americas came to be known as what?
57312489497a881900248bad
West Indies
186
False
What is implied by the global term of "Indian"?
57312489497a881900248bae
some kind of racial or cultural unity
323
False
Despite fitting under the umbrella label of "Indian", Aleuts, Inuit and Yupik peoples are still considered to be what to the Americas?
57312489497a881900248baf
indigenous
709
False
Application of the term "Indian" originated with Christopher Columbus, who, in his search for Asia, thought that he had arrived in the East Indies. The Americas came to be known as the "West Indies", a name still used to refer to the islands of the Caribbean Sea. This led to the names "Indies" and "Indian", which implied some kind of racial or cultural unity among the aboriginal peoples of the Americas. This unifying concept, codified in law, religion, and politics, was not originally accepted by indigenous peoples but has been embraced by many over the last two centuries.[citation needed] Even though the term "Indian" does not include the Aleuts, Inuit, or Yupik peoples, these groups are considered indigenous peoples of the Americas.
What were many of the indigenous people of the Americas traditionally?
57312612497a881900248bd3
hunter-gatherers
68
False
What did many segments of the indigenous population also practice?
57312612497a881900248bd4
aquaculture and agriculture
151
False
What remains as a testament to the time and work the indigenous people spent cultivating the flora of the Americas?
57312612497a881900248bd5
agricultural endowment
200
False
What did many of the societies practice a mix of?
57312612497a881900248bd6
farming, hunting, and gathering
424
False
Large cities, chiefdoms, monuments and empires were just some of the things created by which peoples?
57312612497a881900248bd7
indigenous
477
False
Although some indigenous peoples of the Americas were traditionally hunter-gatherers—and many, especially in Amazonia, still are—many groups practiced aquaculture and agriculture. The impact of their agricultural endowment to the world is a testament to their time and work in reshaping and cultivating the flora indigenous to the Americas. Although some societies depended heavily on agriculture, others practiced a mix of farming, hunting, and gathering. In some regions the indigenous peoples created monumental architecture, large-scale organized cities, chiefdoms, states, and empires.
Where are there still populations of indigenous peoples?
573127b2a5e9cc1400cdbcad
Many parts of the Americas
0
False
Belize, Chile and Greenland are just some countries with sizable populations of what peoples?
573127b2a5e9cc1400cdbcae
indigenous
50
False
How many different indigenous languages are spoken in the Americas?
573127b2a5e9cc1400cdbcaf
At least a thousand
195
False
What do many indigenous cultures still practice to different extends to this day?
573127b2a5e9cc1400cdbcb0
religion, social organization, and subsistence practices
483
False
What have some indigenous peoples managed to remain in relative isolation from?
573127b2a5e9cc1400cdbcb1
Western culture
760
False
Many parts of the Americas are still populated by indigenous peoples; some countries have sizable populations, especially Belize, Bolivia, Chile, Ecuador, Greenland, Guatemala, Mexico, and Peru. At least a thousand different indigenous languages are spoken in the Americas. Some, such as the Quechuan languages, Aymara, Guaraní, Mayan languages, and Nahuatl, count their speakers in millions. Many also maintain aspects of indigenous cultural practices to varying degrees, including religion, social organization, and subsistence practices. Like most cultures, over time, cultures specific to many indigenous peoples have evolved to incorporate traditional aspects, but also cater to modern needs. Some indigenous peoples still live in relative isolation from Western culture and a few are still counted as uncontacted peoples.
How Paleo-Indians migrated to the Americas is still a matter for what type of research?
573128b3497a881900248be5
ongoing
142
False
When did humans inhabit North and South America's continents?
573128b3497a881900248be6
last
258
False
What allowed people to move across Beringia to North America?
573128b3497a881900248be7
falling sea levels
364
False
A small population could exist in Alaska because of it's lack of any significant what?
573128b3497a881900248be8
snowfall
547
False
What confined the nomadic inhabitants to East Beringia for thousands of years?
573128b3497a881900248be9
Laurentide Ice Sheet
599
False
The specifics of Paleo-Indian migration to and throughout the Americas, including the exact dates and routes traveled, provide the subject of ongoing research and discussion. According to archaeological and genetic evidence, North and South America were the last continents in the world with human habitation. During the Wisconsin glaciation, 50–17,000 years ago, falling sea levels allowed people to move across the land bridge of Beringia that joined Siberia to north west North America (Alaska). Alaska was a glacial refugia because it had low snowfall, allowing a small population to exist. The Laurentide Ice Sheet covered most of North America, blocking nomadic inhabitants and confining them to Alaska (East Beringia) for thousands of years.
What do studies on the genetics of the first American inhabitants conclude about their ancestral population?
5731295f05b4da19006bce06
single
86
False
Where did the single ancestral population of all the indigenous peoples of the Americas likely develop?
5731295f05b4da19006bce07
in isolation
134
False
How many years may the isolation of the peoples in Beringia lasted?
5731295f05b4da19006bce08
10–20,000 years
237
False
When did the glaciers begin to melt?
5731295f05b4da19006bce09
16,500 years ago
261
False
What did the people follow in the corridors between the ice sheets?
5731295f05b4da19006bce0a
Pleistocene megafauna
434
False
Indigenous genetic studies suggest that the first inhabitants of the Americas share a single ancestral population, one that developed in isolation, conjectured to be Beringia. The isolation of these peoples in Beringia might have lasted 10–20,000 years. Around 16,500 years ago, the glaciers began melting, allowing people to move south and east into Canada and beyond. These people are believed to have followed herds of now-extinct Pleistocene megafauna along ice-free corridors that stretched between the Laurentide and Cordilleran Ice Sheets.
What does the data indicate about the population the individual was from?
57312a93e6313a140071ccae
directly ancestral
60
False
What populations is the individual closely related to?
57312a93e6313a140071ccaf
present North American Native American
178
False
What type of divergence is implicated to have occurred between North American and South American populations?
57312a93e6313a140071ccb0
early
267
False
Theories that there were invasions which overwhelmed or assimilated previous migrants into the Americas have been what?
57312a93e6313a140071ccb1
ruled out
500
False
The data indicate that the individual was from a population directly ancestral to present South American and Central American Native American populations, and closely related to present North American Native American populations. The implication is that there was an early divergence between North American and Central American plus South American populations. Hypotheses which posit that invasions subsequent to the Clovis culture overwhelmed or assimilated previous migrants into the Americas were ruled out.
The term Pre-Columbian technically refers to which era?
57312b61e6313a140071ccb6
before Christopher Columbus' voyages of 1492
39
False
When was Columbus' first voyage?
57312b61e6313a140071ccb7
1492
79
False
In practice, Pre-Columbian refers to the history of the indigenous cultures of America prior to Europeans doing what to them?
57312b61e6313a140071ccb8
conquered or significantly influenced
198
False
What term is used most often when discussing the great civilizations of the Americas?
57312b61e6313a140071ccb9
"Pre-Columbian"
323
False
What area of the Americas did the Inca Empire, Moche culture and Muisca confederation hail from?
57312b61e6313a140071ccba
Andes
597
False
While technically referring to the era before Christopher Columbus' voyages of 1492 to 1504, in practice the term usually includes the history of American indigenous cultures until Europeans either conquered or significantly influenced them, even if this happened decades or even centuries after Columbus' initial landing. "Pre-Columbian" is used especially often in the context of discussing the great indigenous civilizations of the Americas, such as those of Mesoamerica (the Olmec, the Toltec, the Teotihuacano, the Zapotec, the Mixtec, the Aztec, and the Maya civilizations) and those of the Andes (Inca Empire, Moche culture, Muisca Confederation, Cañaris).
Urban settlements and complex societal hierarchies are just some of the hallmarks established by which civilizations?
57312c7b05b4da19006bce40
pre-Columbian
5
False
What had long faded prior to the first European and African arrivals?
57312c7b05b4da19006bce41
Some of these civilizations
204
False
How do we know about some of the civilizations that were gone by the time of European arrival?
57312c7b05b4da19006bce42
oral history and through archaeological investigations
379
False
What did European colonists destroy on their pyres?
57312c7b05b4da19006bce43
written records
762
False
What gave today's historians a glimpse of the culture and knowledge of the indigenous civilizations?
57312c7b05b4da19006bce44
a few documents
784
False
Many pre-Columbian civilizations established characteristics and hallmarks which included permanent or urban settlements, agriculture, civic and monumental architecture, and complex societal hierarchies. Some of these civilizations had long faded by the time of the first significant European and African arrivals (ca. late 15th–early 16th centuries), and are known only through oral history and through archaeological investigations. Others were contemporary with this period, and are also known from historical accounts of the time. A few, such as the Mayan, Olmec, Mixtec, and Nahua peoples, had their own written records. However, the European colonists of the time worked to eliminate non-Christian beliefs, and Christian pyres destroyed many pre-Columbian written records. Only a few documents remained hidden and survived, leaving contemporary historians with glimpses of ancient culture and knowledge.
What had the civilizations in the Americas achieved by the time the Europeans encountered them?
57312cffa5e9cc1400cdbcc1
many accomplishments
145
False
What had the Aztec civilization constructed?
57312cffa5e9cc1400cdbcc2
one of the largest cities in the world
198
False
How big was the population of the Aztec cit of Tenochtitlan?
57312cffa5e9cc1400cdbcc3
200,000
317
False
Astronomy and mathematics were also accomplishments of which civilizations?
57312cffa5e9cc1400cdbcc4
American
326
False
How many years of selective breeding did it take to domesticate maize?
57312cffa5e9cc1400cdbcc5
thousands
465
False
According to both indigenous American and European accounts and documents, American civilizations at the time of European encounter had achieved many accomplishments. For instance, the Aztecs built one of the largest cities in the world, Tenochtitlan, the ancient site of Mexico City, with an estimated population of 200,000. American civilizations also displayed impressive accomplishments in astronomy and mathematics. The domestication of maize or corn required thousands of years of selective breeding.
What did the European colonization forever change?
57313386e6313a140071cd02
lives and cultures of the peoples of the continents
62
False
How much did the population of the Americas decrease after first contact with the Europeans?
57313386e6313a140071cd03
between 80 and 90%
250
False
What was the leading cause of death for the native population after European contact?
57313386e6313a140071cd04
disease
345
False
What triad of disease epidemics ravaged the American continent?
57313386e6313a140071cd05
smallpox, measles, and cholera
413
False
Why did Native Americans suffer such high mortality rates to the diseases?
57313386e6313a140071cd06
lack of prior exposure
649
False
The European colonization of the Americas forever changed the lives and cultures of the peoples of the continents. Although the exact pre-contact population of the Americas is unknown, scholars estimate that Native American populations diminished by between 80 and 90% within the first centuries of contact with Europeans. The leading cause was disease. The continent was ravaged by epidemics of diseases such as smallpox, measles, and cholera, which were brought from Europe by the early explorers and spread quickly into new areas even before later explorers and colonists reached them. Native Americans suffered high mortality rates due to their lack of prior exposure to these diseases. The loss of lives was exacerbated by conflict between colonists and indigenous people. Colonists also frequently perpetrated massacres on the indigenous groups and enslaved them. According to the U.S. Bureau of the Census (1894), the North American Indian Wars of the 19th century cost the lives of about 19,000 whites and 30,000 Native Americans.
Who was the first group of indigenous people Columbus encountered?
57313428e6313a140071cd14
the 250,000 Taínos of Hispaniola
56
False
What did the Taínos represent in the Greater Antilles and Bahamas?
57313428e6313a140071cd15
dominant culture
109
False
What percentage of the Taínos were dead thirty years after contact with Columbus?
57313428e6313a140071cd16
70%
193
False
Why were outbreaks of measles and smallpox able to so easily decimate the Taínos' population?
57313428e6313a140071cd17
no immunity to European diseases
230
False
What led to the last great Taínos rebellion?
57313428e6313a140071cd18
Increasing punishment
327
False
The first indigenous group encountered by Columbus were the 250,000 Taínos of Hispaniola who represented the dominant culture in the Greater Antilles and the Bahamas. Within thirty years about 70% of the Taínos had died. They had no immunity to European diseases, so outbreaks of measles and smallpox ravaged their population. Increasing punishment of the Taínos for revolting against forced labour, despite measures put in place by the encomienda, which included religious education and protection from warring tribes, eventually led to the last great Taíno rebellion.
What behaviors did the Taínos begin to adopt after years of mistreatment?
5731350505b4da19006bcec2
suicidal
59
False
What did Taínos women start doing to their infants?
5731350505b4da19006bcec3
aborting or killing
90
False
Why would ingesting untreated cassava be a bad idea?
5731350505b4da19006bcec4
violent poison
190
False
How many years was a Taínos Cacique able to hold ou in the Baoruco Mountain Range?
5731350505b4da19006bcec5
thirteen
305
False
Who was sent to negotiate a peace treaty with the rebels?
5731350505b4da19006bcec6
Francisco Barrionuevo
507
False
Following years of mistreatment, the Taínos began to adopt suicidal behaviors, with women aborting or killing their infants and men jumping from the cliffs or ingesting untreated cassava, a violent poison. Eventually, a Taíno Cacique named Enriquillo managed to hold out in the Baoruco Mountain Range for thirteen years, causing serious damage to the Spanish, Carib-held plantations and their Indian auxiliaries. Hearing of the seriousness of the revolt, Emperor Charles V (also King of Spain) sent captain Francisco Barrionuevo to negotiate a peace treaty with the ever-increasing number of rebels. Two months later, after consultation with the Audencia of Santo Domingo, Enriquillo was offered any part of the island to live in peace.
What was the overwhelming reason for the decline of Native American populations?
573147faa5e9cc1400cdbdf9
epidemic disease
226
False
Old World diseases accounted for up to what percentage of deaths among the native New World population?
573147faa5e9cc1400cdbdfa
90 to 95%
428
False
How long did it take for the Old World diseases to decimate the native population to the extent it did?
573147faa5e9cc1400cdbdfb
150 years
497
False
What disease killed almost a third of the population of Hispaniola in 1518?
573147faa5e9cc1400cdbdfc
Smallpox
508
False
How did smallpox cause the Inca Civil War?
573147faa5e9cc1400cdbdfd
By killing the Incan ruler Huayna Capac
588
False
Various theories for the decline of the Native American populations emphasize epidemic diseases, conflicts with Europeans, and conflicts among warring tribes. Scholars now believe that, among the various contributing factors, epidemic disease was the overwhelming cause of the population decline of the American natives. Some believe that after first contacts with Europeans and Africans, Old World diseases caused the death of 90 to 95% of the native population of the New World in the following 150 years. Smallpox killed up to one third of the native population of Hispaniola in 1518. By killing the Incan ruler Huayna Capac, smallpox caused the Inca Civil War. Smallpox was only the first epidemic. Typhus (probably) in 1546, influenza and smallpox together in 1558, smallpox again in 1589, diphtheria in 1614, measles in 1618—all ravaged the remains of Inca culture.
What percent of the Aboriginal population of North America was killed in the first hundred years after first contact by smallpox and measles?
573148a7497a881900248d4d
between 50 and 67 per cent
67
False
How much of the native population near Massachusetts was killed by smallpox in the epidemic between 1617 and 1619?
573148a7497a881900248d4e
90 per cent
204
False
Who were the Native Americans exposed to smallpox because of?
573148a7497a881900248d4f
Europeans
415
False
When did smallpox read the lands of the Iroquois?
573148a7497a881900248d50
by 1679
581
False
What did the Indian Vaccination Act of 1832 establish?
573148a7497a881900248d51
a smallpox vaccination program for Native Americans
902
False
Contact with European diseases such as smallpox and measles killed between 50 and 67 per cent of the Aboriginal population of North America in the first hundred years after the arrival of Europeans. Some 90 per cent of the native population near Massachusetts Bay Colony died of smallpox in an epidemic in 1617–1619. In 1633, in Plymouth, the Native Americans there were exposed to smallpox because of contact with Europeans. As it had done elsewhere, the virus wiped out entire population groups of Native Americans. It reached Lake Ontario in 1636, and the lands of the Iroquois by 1679. During the 1770s, smallpox killed at least 30% of the West Coast Native Americans. The 1775–82 North American smallpox epidemic and 1837 Great Plains smallpox epidemic brought devastation and drastic population depletion among the Plains Indians. In 1832, the federal government of the United States established a smallpox vaccination program for Native Americans (The Indian Vaccination Act of 1832).
What Empire brought horses to the Americas?
57316d92a5e9cc1400cdbf4f
Spanish
4
False
How long had horses been extinct in the Americas prior to their re-introduction?
57316d92a5e9cc1400cdbf50
7500 years
227
False
What kind of impact did the re-emergence of horses have on some Native American cultures?
57316d92a5e9cc1400cdbf51
profound
245
False
What did some tribes achieve by domesticating horses?
57316d92a5e9cc1400cdbf52
great success
401
False
What enabled some tribes to expand territory, increase trade and capture more game?
57316d92a5e9cc1400cdbf53
horses
416
False
The Spanish Empire and other Europeans brought horses to the Americas. Some of these animals escaped and began to breed and increase their numbers in the wild. The re-introduction of the horse, extinct in the Americas for over 7500 years, had a profound impact on Native American culture in the Great Plains of North America and of Patagonia in South America. By domesticating horses, some tribes had great success: horses enabled them to expand their territories, exchange more goods with neighboring tribes, and more easily capture game, especially bison.
What did the indigenous peoples of America cultivate over the course of thousands of years?
57316ed305b4da19006bd14e
a large array of plant species
101
False
What percent of worldwide crops in cultivation derive from the efforts of the America's indigenous people?
57316ed305b4da19006bd14f
50–60%
162
False
How were new species and strains of crops developed?
57316ed305b4da19006bd150
artificial selection
300
False
What was the origin of maize?
57316ed305b4da19006bd151
wild teosinte grasses
386
False
What products sometimes retain their native names in both English and Spanish?
57316ed305b4da19006bd152
agricultural
457
False
Over the course of thousands of years, American indigenous peoples domesticated, bred and cultivated a large array of plant species. These species now constitute 50–60% of all crops in cultivation worldwide. In certain cases, the indigenous peoples developed entirely new species and strains through artificial selection, as was the case in the domestication and breeding of maize from wild teosinte grasses in the valleys of southern Mexico. Numerous such agricultural products retain their native names in the English and Spanish lexicons.
Where was a center of early agriculture?
57316ffc05b4da19006bd16c
South American highlands
4
False
Based on genetic testing, what has been suggested about the origin of the potato?
57316ffc05b4da19006bd16d
single
162
False
Where did the potato originate?
57316ffc05b4da19006bd16e
area of southern Peru
183
False
How long ago was the decedent of 99% of all modern potatoes cultivated as long ago as?
57316ffc05b4da19006bd16f
10,000 years ago
445
False
What event in 850 AD coincided with the collapse of Mayan civilization?
57316ffc05b4da19006bd170
persistent drought
671
False
The South American highlands were a center of early agriculture. Genetic testing of the wide variety of cultivars and wild species suggests that the potato has a single origin in the area of southern Peru, from a species in the Solanum brevicaule complex. Over 99% of all modern cultivated potatoes worldwide are descendants of a subspecies indigenous to south-central Chile, Solanum tuberosum ssp. tuberosum, where it was cultivated as long as 10,000 years ago. According to George Raudzens, "It is clear that in pre-Columbian times some groups struggled to survive and often suffered food shortages and famines, while others enjoyed a varied and substantial diet." The persistent drought around 850 AD coincided with the collapse of Classic Maya civilization, and the famine of One Rabbit (AD 1454) was a major catastrophe in Mexico.
When did the North American natives begin farming?
5731708c497a881900248edd
approximately 4,000 years ago
50
False
What had pottery become 4,000 years ago in the Americas?
5731708c497a881900248ede
common
199
False
What did technology make feasible when it came to trees?
5731708c497a881900248edf
small-scale felling
214
False
How did Archaic Indians use fire?
5731708c497a881900248ee0
a controlled manner
318
False
What was the intentional burning of vegetation intended to mimic?
5731708c497a881900248ee1
effects of natural fires
395
False
Natives of North America began practicing farming approximately 4,000 years ago, late in the Archaic period of North American cultures. Technology had advanced to the point that pottery was becoming common and the small-scale felling of trees had become feasible. Concurrently, the Archaic Indians began using fire in a controlled manner. Intentional burning of vegetation was used to mimic the effects of natural fires that tended to clear forest understories. It made travel easier and facilitated the growth of herbs and berry-producing plants, which were important for both food and medicines.
What global industry owes its existence to having been domesticated by indigenous Americans?
5731716b05b4da19006bd192
Many crops
0
False
What is arguably the most important crop in the world?
5731716b05b4da19006bd193
corn
121
False
Squash, beans, and peppers are all examples of what type of crop?
5731716b05b4da19006bd194
significant
181
False
What type of bean is used to make chocolate?
5731716b05b4da19006bd195
cocoa
420
False
Who do we owe gratitude for even some species of cotton to?
5731716b05b4da19006bd196
indigenous Americans
33
False
Many crops first domesticated by indigenous Americans are now produced and used globally. Chief among these is maize or "corn", arguably the most important crop in the world. Other significant crops include cassava, chia, squash (pumpkins, zucchini, marrow, acorn squash, butternut squash), the pinto bean, Phaseolus beans including most common beans, tepary beans and lima beans, tomatoes, potatoes, avocados, peanuts, cocoa beans (used to make chocolate), vanilla, strawberries, pineapples, Peppers (species and varieties of Capsicum, including bell peppers, jalapeños, paprika and chili peppers) sunflower seeds, rubber, brazilwood, chicle, tobacco, coca, manioc and some species of cotton.
What did geographical zones encourage the sharing of?
57317254497a881900248eed
Cultural practices
0
False
What did people in the same reason adopt?
57317254497a881900248eee
similar technologies and social organizations
125
False
Where did millennia of coexistence produce a culture with advanced agricultural and social patterns?
57317254497a881900248eef
Mesoamerica
210
False
How long was there a homogeneous culture on the North American plains?
57317254497a881900248ef0
until the 19th century
456
False
What creature did the nomadic hunter-gatherers of the plains hunt?
57317254497a881900248ef1
buffalo
560
False
Cultural practices in the Americas seem to have been shared mostly within geographical zones where unrelated peoples adopted similar technologies and social organizations. An example of such a cultural area is Mesoamerica, where millennia of coexistence and shared development among the peoples of the region produced a fairly homogeneous culture with complex agricultural and social patterns. Another well-known example is the North American plains where until the 19th century several peoples shared the traits of nomadic hunter-gatherers based primarily on buffalo hunting.
What was one of the many achievements of the American cultures?
5731732b497a881900248f01
development of writing
4
False
What region produced several writing systems independent of other areas of the world?
5731732b497a881900248f02
the Mesoamerican region
191
False
When were writing systems being created in the Americas?
5731732b497a881900248f03
beginning in the 1st millennium BCE
259
False
What is presumed to be written upon the Cascajal Block?
5731732b497a881900248f04
extensive text
357
False
When has the Olmec tablet been dated to?
5731732b497a881900248f05
900 BCE
538
False
The development of writing is counted among the many achievements and innovations of pre-Columbian American cultures. Independent from the development of writing in other areas of the world, the Mesoamerican region produced several indigenous writing systems beginning in the 1st millennium BCE. What may be the earliest-known example in the Americas of an extensive text thought to be writing is by the Cascajal Block. The Olmec hieroglyphs tablet has been indirectly dated from ceramic shards found in the same context to approximately 900 BCE, around the time that Olmec occupation of San Lorenzo Tenochtitlán began to wane.
What writing system combined phonetic symbols and logograms?
573173f6497a881900248f11
Maya
4
False
What signs play a significant role in the Mayan's writing system?
573173f6497a881900248f12
syllabic
271
False
What is the Mayan writing system the only known pre-Columbian one to completely represent this?
573173f6497a881900248f13
spoken language of its community
389
False
How many different glyphs in total does the Mayan writing system have?
573173f6497a881900248f14
more than one thousand
448
False
How many of the Mayan glyphs had phonetic or syllabic interpretations?
573173f6497a881900248f15
some two hundred
685
False
The Maya writing system (often called hieroglyphs from a superficial resemblance to the Ancient Egyptian writing) was a combination of phonetic symbols and logograms. It is most often classified as a logographic or (more properly) a logosyllabic writing system, in which syllabic signs play a significant role. It is the only pre-Columbian writing system known to represent completely the spoken language of its community. In total, the script has more than one thousand different glyphs although a few are variations of the same sign or meaning and many appear only rarely or are confined to particular localities. At any one time, no more than about five hundred glyphs were in use, some two hundred of which (including variations) had a phonetic or syllabic interpretation.
Who taught indigenous scribes to write their languages?
573174bc05b4da19006bd1c0
Spanish
0
False
When were indigenous scribes taught to use Latin letters?
573174bc05b4da19006bd1c1
the sixteenth century
22
False
What were a large number of the local documents in regards to?
573174bc05b4da19006bd1c2
lawsuits and other legal matters
282
False
What were Spanish translations at the time made for?
573174bc05b4da19006bd1c3
legal cases
548
False
What viewpoint have scholars translated and analyzed documents to writes histories from?
573174bc05b4da19006bd1c4
indigenous
697
False
Spanish mendicants in the sixteenth century taught indigenous scribes in their communities to write their languages in Latin letters and there is a large number of local-level documents in Nahuatl, Zapotec, Mixtec, and Yucatec Maya from the colonial era, many of which were part of lawsuits and other legal matters. Although Spaniards initially taught indigenous scribes alphabetic writing, the tradition became self-perpetuating at the local level. The Spanish crown gathered such documentation and contemporary Spanish translations were made for legal cases. Scholars have translated and analyzed these documents in what is called the New Philology to write histories of indigenous peoples from indigenous viewpoints.
What characteristic did the majority of Native American music have?
5731752de6313a140071cf56
monophonic
58
False
What did traditional Native American music center around?
5731752de6313a140071cf57
drumming
159
False
What are examples of popular percussive instruments of Native Americans?
5731752de6313a140071cf58
Rattles, clappersticks, and rasps
169
False
How were flutes constructed by the Native Americans?
5731752de6313a140071cf59
rivercane, cedar, and other woods
265
False
How many strings did the Apache fiddle have?
5731752de6313a140071cf5a
single
630
False
Native American music in North America is almost entirely monophonic, but there are notable exceptions. Traditional Native American music often centers around drumming. Rattles, clappersticks, and rasps were also popular percussive instruments. Flutes were made of rivercane, cedar, and other woods. The tuning of these flutes is not precise and depends on the length of the wood used and the hand span of the intended player, but the finger holes are most often around a whole step apart and, at least in Northern California, a flute was not used if it turned out to have an interval close to a half step. The Apache fiddle is a single stringed instrument.
What feature did the music of Central America have?
57317628e6313a140071cf60
pentatonic
84
False
What role did music play in the religious festivities?
57317628e6313a140071cf61
inseparable from
163
False
What instruments were used to make music by the Central Americans?
57317628e6313a140071cf62
large variety of percussion and wind
217
False
Where did archaeologists find a depiction of a Mayan stringed instrument?
57317628e6313a140071cf63
a jar in Guatemala
437
False
What did the Mayan's stringed instrument sound like when played?
57317628e6313a140071cf64
a jaguar's growl
791
False
The music of the indigenous peoples of Central Mexico and Central America was often pentatonic. Before the arrival of the Spaniards and other Europeans, music was inseparable from religious festivities and included a large variety of percussion and wind instruments such as drums, flutes, sea snail shells (used as a trumpet) and "rain" tubes. No remnants of pre-Columbian stringed instruments were found until archaeologists discovered a jar in Guatemala, attributed to the Maya of the Late Classic Era (600–900 CE), which depicts a stringed musical instrument which has since been reproduced. This instrument is one of the very few stringed instruments known in the Americas prior to the introduction of European musical instruments; when played it produces a sound virtually identical to a jaguar's growl.
What comprises a major category in the world art collection?
57317711497a881900248f1b
Visual arts by indigenous peoples
0
False
Pottery, weavings and carvings are just some of the contributions to art by which peoples?
57317711497a881900248f1c
indigenous
15
False
Why did the U.S. pass the Indian Arts and Crafts Act of 1990?
57317711497a881900248f1d
too many artists were posing as Native Americans
222
False
What does the Indian Arts and Crafts Act of 1990 require artists to prove they're enrolled in?
57317711497a881900248f1e
a state or federally recognized tribe
473
False
When was a national Native Arts and Cultures Foundation established?
57317711497a881900248f1f
2007
798
False
Visual arts by indigenous peoples of the Americas comprise a major category in the world art collection. Contributions include pottery, paintings, jewellery, weavings, sculptures, basketry, carvings, and beadwork. Because too many artists were posing as Native Americans and Alaska Natives in order to profit from the caché of Indigenous art in the United States, the U.S. passed the Indian Arts and Crafts Act of 1990, requiring artists to prove that they are enrolled in a state or federally recognized tribe. To support the ongoing practice of American Indian, Alaska Native and Native Hawaiian arts and cultures in the United States, the Ford Foundation, arts advocates and American Indian tribes created an endowment seed fund and established a national Native Arts and Cultures Foundation in 2007.
What was the number of indigenous people in Argentina as of 2005?
573177ab05b4da19006bd1d4
about 600,329
83
False
How many Mapuche were there in Argentina in 2005?
573177ab05b4da19006bd1d5
113,680
377
False
Who are the Quechua and Chorote?
573177ab05b4da19006bd1d6
Minor but important peoples
603
False
What indigenous population is now virtually extinct?
573177ab05b4da19006bd1d7
The Selknam
741
False
Who still speaks Southern Tehuelche?
573177ab05b4da19006bd1d8
a handful of elderly people
1084
False
In 2005, Argentina's indigenous population (known as pueblos originarios) numbered about 600,329 (1.6% of total population); this figure includes 457,363 people who self-identified as belonging to an indigenous ethnic group and 142,966 who identified themselves as first-generation descendants of an indigenous people. The ten most populous indigenous peoples are the Mapuche (113,680 people), the Kolla (70,505), the Toba (69,452), the Guaraní (68,454), the Wichi (40,036), the Diaguita-Calchaquí (31,753), the Mocoví (15,837), the Huarpe (14,633), the Comechingón (10,863) and the Tehuelche (10,590). Minor but important peoples are the Quechua (6,739), the Charrúa (4,511), the Pilagá (4,465), the Chané (4,376), and the Chorote (2,613). The Selknam (Ona) people are now virtually extinct in its pure form. The languages of the Diaguita, Tehuelche, and Selknam nations have become extinct or virtually extinct: the Cacán language (spoken by Diaguitas) in the 18th century and the Selknam language in the 20th century; one Tehuelche language (Southern Tehuelche) is still spoken by a handful of elderly people.
What percentage of the residents in Bolivia self-identify as belonging to an indigenous people?
5731785b497a881900248f39
62%
14
False
What percent of people in Bolivia grew up with an indigenous mother tongue yet don't call themselves indigenous?
5731785b497a881900248f3a
3.7%
125
False
In the 2001 census, how much of Bolivia's population was labeled as being indigenous?
5731785b497a881900248f3b
66.4%
275
False
How many cultures does the Constitution of Bolivia recognize?
5731785b497a881900248f3c
36
618
False
How many total groups of indigenous peoples are in Bolivia?
5731785b497a881900248f3d
fifty
880
False
In Bolivia, a 62% majority of residents over the age of 15 self-identify as belonging to an indigenous people, while another 3.7% grew up with an indigenous mother tongue yet do not self-identify as indigenous. Including both of these categories, and children under 15, some 66.4% of Bolivia's population was registered as indigenous in the 2001 Census. The largest indigenous ethnic groups are: Quechua, about 2.5 million people; Aymara, 2.0 million; Chiquitano, 181,000; Guaraní, 126,000; and Mojeño, 69,000. Some 124,000 belong to smaller indigenous groups. The Constitution of Bolivia, enacted in 2009, recognizes 36 cultures, each with its own language, as part of a plurinational state. Some groups, including CONAMAQ (the National Council of Ayllus and Markas of Qullasuyu) draw ethnic boundaries within the Quechua- and Aymara-speaking population, resulting in a total of fifty indigenous peoples native to Bolivia.
Who retained indigenous language and culture after the Spanish conquest?
573179c4a5e9cc1400cdbfa5
Bolivian highland peasants
17
False
What did the highland peasants resist attempts at?
573179c4a5e9cc1400cdbfa6
dissolution of communal landholdings
233
False
What took place frequently until 1953?
573179c4a5e9cc1400cdbfa7
Indigenous revolts
355
False
What re-emerged during the Katarista movement in the 1970s?
573179c4a5e9cc1400cdbfa8
ethnic and class militancy
586
False
What march successfully pressured the national government to sign the ILO Convetion 169?
573179c4a5e9cc1400cdbfa9
March for Territory and Dignity
765
False
Large numbers of Bolivian highland peasants retained indigenous language, culture, customs, and communal organization throughout the Spanish conquest and the post-independence period. They mobilized to resist various attempts at the dissolution of communal landholdings and used legal recognition of "empowered caciques" to further communal organization. Indigenous revolts took place frequently until 1953. While the National Revolutionary Movement government begun in 1952 discouraged self-identification as indigenous (reclassifying rural people as campesinos, or peasants), renewed ethnic and class militancy re-emerged in the Katarista movement beginning in the 1970s. Lowland indigenous peoples, mostly in the east, entered national politics through the 1990 March for Territory and Dignity organized by the CIDOB confederation. That march successfully pressured the national government to sign the ILO Convention 169 and to begin the still-ongoing process of recognizing and titling indigenous territories. The 1994 Law of Popular Participation granted "grassroots territorial organizations" that are recognized by the state certain rights to govern local areas.
Who came up with a policy for indigenous autonomy?
57317b1de6313a140071cf86
Morales
0
False
When did Morales launch his policy in the eastern lowlands?
57317b1de6313a140071cf87
2009
122
False
What was Bolivia the first country in the history of South America to do?
57317b1de6313a140071cf88
affirm the right of indigenous people to govern themselves
196
False
What did the President vow he would never betray?
57317b1de6313a140071cf89
fight
442
False
What effect has the issue of indigenous autonomy had on Bolivia?
57317b1de6313a140071cf8a
divided
632
False
Morales began work on his "indigenous autonomy" policy, which he launched in the eastern lowlands department on August 3, 2009, making Bolivia the first country in the history of South America to affirm the right of indigenous people to govern themselves. Speaking in Santa Cruz Department, the President called it "a historic day for the peasant and indigenous movement", saying that, though he might make errors, he would "never betray the fight started by our ancestors and the fight of the Bolivian people". A vote on further autonomy will take place in referendums which are expected to be held in December 2009. The issue has divided the country.
How much of Brazil's population is comprised of indigenous peoples?
57318080497a881900248f8f
0.4%
37
False
How many Brazillians have some indigenous ancestry?
57318080497a881900248f90
millions
103
False
Where do the majority of the indigenous people of Brazil live?
57318080497a881900248f91
Indian reservations
259
False
How many different uncontacted tribes were confirmed in Brazil in 2007?
57318080497a881900248f92
67
406
False
What country has the largest number of uncontacted tribes?
57318080497a881900248f93
Brazil
488
False
Indigenous peoples of Brazil make up 0.4% of Brazil's population, or about 700,000 people, even though millions of Brazilians have some indigenous ancestry. Indigenous peoples are found in the entire territory of Brazil, although the majority of them live in Indian reservations in the North and Center-Western part of the country. On January 18, 2007, FUNAI reported that it had confirmed the presence of 67 different uncontacted tribes in Brazil, up from 40 in 2005. With this addition Brazil has now overtaken the island of New Guinea as the country having the largest number of uncontacted tribes.
What is the term Eskimo said to mean?
5731812105b4da19006bd1f2
"eater of raw meat."
292
False
First Nations and Inuit are labels for what peoples in Canada?
5731812105b4da19006bd1f3
Aboriginal
0
False
How many Aboriginal nations evolved trade, as well as spiritual and social hierarchies?
5731812105b4da19006bd1f4
Hundreds
313
False
What resulted from First Nation and Inuit people marrying European settlers?
5731812105b4da19006bd1f5
The Métis culture
393
False
What has been enacted between European immigrants and First Nations across Canada?
5731812105b4da19006bd1f6
Various laws, treaties, and legislation
611
False
Aboriginal peoples in Canada comprise the First Nations, Inuit and Métis; the descriptors "Indian" and "Eskimo" are falling into disuse, and other than in neighboring Alaska. "Eskimo" is considered derogatory in many other places because it was given by non-Inuit people and was said to mean "eater of raw meat." Hundreds of Aboriginal nations evolved trade, spiritual and social hierarchies. The Métis culture of mixed blood originated in the mid-17th century when First Nation and native Inuit married European settlers. The Inuit had more limited interaction with European settlers during that early period. Various laws, treaties, and legislation have been enacted between European immigrants and First Nations across Canada. Aboriginal Right to Self-Government provides opportunity to manage historical, cultural, political, health care and economic control aspects within first people's communities.
What were the early interactions between First Nations and Europeans?
573181eee6313a140071cfda
relatively peaceful
114
False
What have Canadian indigenous peoples been able to have a strong influence on?
573181eee6313a140071cfdb
national culture
380
False
How long have European Canadians been encouraging Aboriginals to assimilate into their culture?
573181eee6313a140071cfdc
late 18th century
443
False
What does National Aboriginal Day recognize from the Aboriginal peoples of Canada?
573181eee6313a140071cfdd
cultures and contributions
715
False
How many recognized First Nations governments are spread across Canada?
573181eee6313a140071cfde
over 600
795
False
Although not without conflict, European/Canadian early interactions with First Nations and Inuit populations were relatively peaceful compared to the experience of native peoples in the United States. Combined with a late economic development in many regions, this relatively peaceful history has allowed Canadian Indigenous peoples to have a fairly strong influence on the early national culture while preserving their own identity. From the late 18th century, European Canadians encouraged Aboriginals to assimilate into their own culture, referred to as "Canadian culture". These attempts reached a climax in the late 19th and early 20th centuries with forced integration. National Aboriginal Day recognises the cultures and contributions of Aboriginal peoples of Canada. There are currently over 600 recognized First Nations governments or bands encompassing 1,172,790 2006 people spread across Canada with distinctive Aboriginal cultures, languages, art, and music.
What percent of the Chilean population were indigenous according to the 2002 census?
57318280e6313a140071cfe4
4.6%
30
False
What is the name for the Polynesian people living on Easter Island?
57318280e6313a140071cfe5
the Rapanui
72
False
Who are many of the people of Chile the descendants of?
57318280e6313a140071cfe6
the Mapuche
218
False
How long were the Mapuche able to fight off the Spaniards?
57318280e6313a140071cfe7
350 years
346
False
When did the Mapuche surrender to the Chilean army?
57318280e6313a140071cfe8
1880s
588
False
According to the 2002 Census, 4.6% of the Chilean population, including the Rapanui (a Polynesian people) of Easter Island, was indigenous, although most show varying degrees of mixed heritage. Many are descendants of the Mapuche, and live in Santiago, Araucanía and the lake district. The Mapuche successfully fought off defeat in the first 300–350 years of Spanish rule during the Arauco War. Relations with the new Chilean Republic were good until the Chilean state decided to occupy their lands. During the Occupation of Araucanía the Mapuche surrendered to the country's army in the 1880s. Their land was opened to settlement by Chileans and Europeans. Conflict over Mapuche land rights continues to the present.
What was Ecuador the site of?
57318336a5e9cc1400cdc003
many indigenous cultures
24
False
Where did the Valdivia culture develop?
57318336a5e9cc1400cdc004
coastal region
170
False
What two cultures unified to for an elaborate civilization?
57318336a5e9cc1400cdc005
the Caras and the Quitus
192
False
What culture did the Inca fear the most?
57318336a5e9cc1400cdc006
The Cañaris
305
False
What did the Spaniards and Incas destroy?
57318336a5e9cc1400cdc007
architecture remains
443
False
Ecuador was the site of many indigenous cultures, and civilizations of different proportions. An early sedentary culture, known as the Valdivia culture, developed in the coastal region, while the Caras and the Quitus unified to form an elaborate civilization that ended at the birth of the Capital Quito. The Cañaris near Cuenca were the most advanced, and most feared by the Inca, due to their fierce resistance to the Incan expansion. Their architecture remains were later destroyed by Spaniards and the Incas.
What percentage of Ecuador's indigenous population are Highland Quichuas?
57318409e6313a140071cff8
96.4%
14
False
Where do the Highland Quichuas live?
57318409e6313a140071cff9
valleys of the Sierra region
91
False
Who are the Highland Quichuas primarily descended from?
57318409e6313a140071cffa
Inca
164
False
What language do the Highland Quichuas speak?
57318409e6313a140071cffb
Kichwa
181
False
The Saraguro and Panzaleo are two of the member groups of what population?
57318409e6313a140071cffc
Highland Quichuas
59
False
Approximately 96.4% of Ecuador's Indigenous population are Highland Quichuas living in the valleys of the Sierra region. Primarily consisting of the descendents of Incans, they are Kichwa speakers and include the Caranqui, the Otavalos, the Cayambi, the Quitu-Caras, the Panzaleo, the Chimbuelo, the Salasacan, the Tugua, the Puruhá, the Cañari, and the Saraguro. Linguistic evidence suggests that the Salascan and the Saraguro may have been the descendants of Bolivian ethnic groups transplanted to Ecuador as mitimaes.
El Salvador was home to which indigenous peoples?
57318511e6313a140071d00c
the Pipil, the Lenca, Xinca, and Kakawira
32
False
What was a major Pipil settlement in western El Salvador?
57318511e6313a140071d00d
Cuzcatlan
176
False
What was the language of the Pipil?
57318511e6313a140071d00e
Nawat
121
False
What did the Princes and Princesses see the Spanish as?
57318511e6313a140071d00f
barbaric invaders
781
False
What people resulted from the Spaniards intermarrying with Pipll and Lenca women?
57318511e6313a140071d010
Mestizo
1262
False
Much of El Salvador was home to the Pipil, the Lenca, Xinca, and Kakawira. The Pipil lived in western El Salvador, spoke Nawat, and had many settlements there, most noticeably Cuzcatlan. The Pipil had no precious mineral resources, but they did have rich and fertile land that was good for farming. The Spaniards were disappointed not to find gold or jewels in El Salvador as they had in other lands like Guatemala or Mexico, but upon learning of the fertile land in El Salvador, they attempted to conquer it. Noted Meso-American indigenous warriors to rise militarily against the Spanish included Princes Atonal and Atlacatl of the Pipil people in central El Salvador and Princess Antu Silan Ulap of the Lenca people in eastern El Salvador, who saw the Spanish not as gods but as barbaric invaders. After fierce battles, the Pipil successfully fought off the Spanish army led by Pedro de Alvarado along with their Mexican Indian allies (the Tlaxcalas), sending them back to Guatemala. After many other attacks with an army reinforced with Guatemalan Indian allies, the Spanish were able to conquer Cuzcatlan. After further attacks, the Spanish also conquered the Lenca people. Eventually, the Spaniards intermarried with Pipil and Lenca women, resulting in the Mestizo population which would become the majority of the Salvadoran people. Today many Pipil and other indigenous populations live in the many small towns of El Salvador like Izalco, Panchimalco, Sacacoyo, and Nahuizalco.
How much of the population of Honduras is of full-blooded indigenous descent?
573185bf05b4da19006bd224
About five percent
0
False
What percentage of Hondurans have African blood mixed in with the rest of their ancestry?
573185bf05b4da19006bd225
about ten percent
201
False
Where are the main concentrations of indigenous people in Honduras?
573185bf05b4da19006bd226
rural westernmost areas
317
False
The Lencas, Miskitos, Mayans Pech, Sumos and Tolupan comprise the majority of what in Honduras?
573185bf05b4da19006bd227
indigenous people
444
False
About five percent of the population are of full-blooded indigenous descent, but upwards to eighty percent more or the majority of Hondurans are mestizo or part-indigenous with European admixture, and about ten percent are of indigenous or African descent. The main concentration of indigenous in Honduras are in the rural westernmost areas facing Guatemala and to the Caribbean Sea coastline, as well on the Nicaraguan border. The majority of indigenous people are Lencas, Miskitos to the east, Mayans, Pech, Sumos, and Tolupan.
What was Mexico home to prior to the arrival of the Spaniards?
57318658e6313a140071d02a
indigenous civilizations
56
False
When did the Olmecs flourish?
57318658e6313a140071d02b
from between 1200 BCE to about 400 BCE
160
False
Who held sway in the mountains of Oaxaca?
57318658e6313a140071d02c
the Zapotecs and the Mixtecs
245
False
Who lived in the Yucatan?
57318658e6313a140071d02d
the Maya
348
False
Where was the Aztec's central capital located?
57318658e6313a140071d02e
Tenochtitlan
555
False
The territory of modern-day Mexico was home to numerous indigenous civilizations prior to the arrival of the Spanish conquistadores: The Olmecs, who flourished from between 1200 BCE to about 400 BCE in the coastal regions of the Gulf of Mexico; the Zapotecs and the Mixtecs, who held sway in the mountains of Oaxaca and the Isthmus of Tehuantepec; the Maya in the Yucatan (and into neighbouring areas of contemporary Central America); the Purépecha in present-day Michoacán and surrounding areas, and the Aztecs/Mexica, who, from their central capital at Tenochtitlan, dominated much of the centre and south of the country (and the non-Aztec inhabitants of those areas) when Hernán Cortés first landed at Veracruz.
What grants all indigenous languages spoken in Mexico validity?
5731877f05b4da19006bd236
General Law of Linguistic Rights of the Indigenous Peoples
5
False
What are indigenous peoples entitled to request?
5731877f05b4da19006bd237
some public services and documents in their native languages
274
False
How many languages have been giving the status of "national languages"?
5731877f05b4da19006bd238
more than 60
383
False
What has the Mexican government promoted in some indigenous rural communities?
5731877f05b4da19006bd239
bilingual primary and secondary education
890
False
How many of the indigenous peoples in Mexico speak an indigenous language?
5731877f05b4da19006bd23a
about 67% of them
1025
False
The "General Law of Linguistic Rights of the Indigenous Peoples" grants all indigenous languages spoken in Mexico, regardless of the number of speakers, the same validity as Spanish in all territories in which they are spoken, and indigenous peoples are entitled to request some public services and documents in their native languages. Along with Spanish, the law has granted them — more than 60 languages — the status of "national languages". The law includes all indigenous languages of the Americas regardless of origin; that is, it includes the indigenous languages of ethnic groups non-native to the territory. As such the National Commission for the Development of Indigenous Peoples recognizes the language of the Kickapoo, who immigrated from the United States, and recognizes the languages of the Guatemalan indigenous refugees. The Mexican government has promoted and established bilingual primary and secondary education in some indigenous rural communities. Nonetheless, of the indigenous peoples in Mexico, only about 67% of them (or 5.4% of the country's population) speak an indigenous language and about a sixth do not speak Spanish (1.2% of the country's population).
What percentage of the Nicaraguan population are indigenous?
57318951497a881900248fe7
About 5%
0
False
What is the largest indigenous group in Nicaragua?
57318951497a881900248fe8
Miskito
103
False
How did Creole English come about?
57318951497a881900248fe9
frequent contact with the British
378
False
What didn't the king have in Miskito society?
57318951497a881900248fea
total power
581
False
How many Mayanga people are in Nicaragua?
57318951497a881900248feb
some 10,000
861
False
About 5% of the Nicaraguan population are indigenous. The largest indigenous group in Nicaragua is the Miskito people. Their territory extended from Cape Camarón, Honduras, to Rio Grande, Nicaragua along the Mosquito Coast. There is a native Miskito language, but large groups speak Miskito Coast Creole, Spanish, Rama and other languages. The Creole English came about through frequent contact with the British who colonized the area. Many are Christians. Traditional Miskito society was highly structured with a defined political structure. There was a king, but he did not have total power. Instead, the power was split between himself, a governor, a general, and by the 1750s, an admiral. Historical information on kings is often obscured by the fact that many of the kings were semi-mythical. Another major group is the Mayangna (or Sumu) people, counting some 10,000 people.
What percentage of Peru's population is indigenous?
573189d605b4da19006bd254
45%
45
False
What has shaped the way Peruvians live and see themselves today?
573189d705b4da19006bd255
Native Peruvian traditions
50
False
What is not very well developed in Peru?
573189d705b4da19006bd256
Cultural citizenship
150
False
What regions suffer from state-sponsored abuse and violence?
573189d705b4da19006bd257
Amazonian
392
False
Indigenous population in Peru make up around 45%. Native Peruvian traditions and customs have shaped the way Peruvians live and see themselves today. Cultural citizenship—or what Renato Rosaldo has called, "the right to be different and to belong, in a democratic, participatory sense" (1996:243)—is not yet very well developed in Peru. This is perhaps no more apparent than in the country's Amazonian regions where indigenous societies continue to struggle against state-sponsored economic abuses, cultural discrimination, and pervasive violence.
Where are the indigenous peoples referred to as "American Indians"?
57318a94e6313a140071d074
the contiguous United States
34
False
How many cultures and languages do the indigenous peoples of Alaska have?
57318a94e6313a140071d075
11
242
False
Eyak and Tlingit are some of the peoples who are collectively called what?
57318a94e6313a140071d076
Alaska Natives
438
False
Tahitian and Tongan are two examples of indigenous peoples of what descent?
57318a94e6313a140071d077
Polynesian
465
False
How are Pacific Islands Americans distinct from the indigenous peoples of the Americas?
57318a94e6313a140071d078
geographically and culturally
602
False
Indigenous peoples in what is now the contiguous United States, including their descendants, are commonly called "American Indians", or simply "Indians" domestically, or "Native Americans" by the USCB. In Alaska, indigenous peoples belong to 11 cultures with 11 languages. These include the St. Lawrence Island Yupik, Iñupiat, Athabaskan, Yup'ik, Cup'ik, Unangax, Alutiiq, Eyak, Haida, Tsimshian, and Tlingit, who are collectively called Alaska Natives. Indigenous Polynesian peoples, which include Marshallese, Samoan, Tahitian, and Tongan, are politically considered Pacific Islands American but are geographically and culturally distinct from indigenous peoples of the Americas.
What amoun of the United States population is compromised of Native Americans?
5731a5ede17f3d14004222a5
0.97% to 2%
46
False
How many people identified as Native American in the 2010 census?
5731a5ede17f3d14004222a6
5.2 million
198
False
How many of the self-identified Native Americans are recognized as enrolled tribal members?
5731a5ede17f3d14004222a7
1.8 million
328
False
Where do a minority of US Native Americans live?
5731a5ede17f3d14004222a8
Indian reservations
589
False
What tribe has the legal right to freely cross the US-Canadian border?
5731a5ede17f3d14004222a9
Haudenosaunee
747
False
Native Americans in the United States make up 0.97% to 2% of the population. In the 2010 census, 2.9 million people self-identified as Native American, Native Hawaiian, and Alaska Native alone, and 5.2 million people identified as U.S. Native Americans, either alone or in combination with one or more ethnicity or other races. 1.8 million are recognized as enrolled tribal members.[citation needed] Tribes have established their own criteria for membership, which are often based on blood quantum, lineal descent, or residency. A minority of US Native Americans live in land units called Indian reservations. Some California and Southwestern tribes, such as the Kumeyaay, Cocopa, Pascua Yaqui and Apache span both sides of the US–Mexican border. Haudenosaunee people have the legal right to freely cross the US–Canadian border. Athabascan, Tlingit, Haida, Tsimshian, Iñupiat, Blackfeet, Nakota, Cree, Anishinaabe, Huron, Lenape, Mi'kmaq, Penobscot, and Haudenosaunee, among others live in both Canada and the US.
What do most Venezuelans have?
5731a687e17f3d14004222b9
some indigenous heritage
22
False
How many different languages does the 2% of truly indigenous Venezuelans speak?
5731a687e17f3d14004222ba
around 29
137
False
Why are the languages of the indigenous peoples of Venezuela in danger of becoming extinct?
5731a687e17f3d14004222bb
groups are very small
214
False
Who were the most advanced native people to have lived in what is present-day Venezuela?
5731a687e17f3d14004222bc
Timoto-cuicas
501
False
What made the Timoto-cuicas so advanced?
5731a687e17f3d14004222bd
agricultural techniques used
746
False
Most Venezuelans have some indigenous heritage, but the indigenous population make up only around 2% of the total population. They speak around 29 different languages and many more dialects, but some of the ethnic groups are very small and their languages are in danger of becoming extinct in the next decades. The most important indigenous groups are the Ye'kuana, the Wayuu, the Pemon and the Warao. The most advanced native people to have lived in present-day Venezuela is thought to have been the Timoto-cuicas, who mainly lived in the Venezuelan Andes. In total it is estimated that there were between 350 thousand and 500 thousand inhabitants, the most densely populated area being the Andean region (Timoto-cuicas), thanks to the advanced agricultural techniques used.
What remains a controversy regarding how to refer to the indigenous peoples of the Americas?
5731a7740fdd8d15006c642b
The Native American name
0
False
How may subsets of peoples be named?
5731a7740fdd8d15006c642c
shared language, region, or historical relationship
315
False
Many of what have been used to refer to the indigenous peoples of the Americas?
5731a7740fdd8d15006c642d
English exonyms
373
False
Who used foreign language terms to give names to indigenous peoples?
5731a7740fdd8d15006c642e
earlier explorers and colonists
521
False
Why were pejorative terms sometimes used for the native populations?
5731a7740fdd8d15006c642f
out of prejudice and fear
712
False
The Native American name controversy is an ongoing dispute over the acceptable ways to refer to the indigenous peoples of the Americas and to broad subsets thereof, such as those living in a specific country or sharing certain cultural attributes. When discussing broader subsets of peoples, naming may be based on shared language, region, or historical relationship. Many English exonyms have been used to refer to the indigenous peoples of the Americas. Some of these names were based on foreign-language terms used by earlier explorers and colonists, while others resulted from the colonists' attempt to translate endonyms from the native language into their own, and yet others were pejorative terms arising out of prejudice and fear, during periods of conflict.
What have the peoples in the Americas been more vocal about since the 20th century?
5731a8d20fdd8d15006c6435
the ways they wish to be referred to
95
False
What terms do the indigenous people press to eliminate?
5731a8d20fdd8d15006c6436
obsolete, inaccurate, or racist.
195
False
Who initially proposed using the term "Native American" to recognize the primacy of the native population?
5731a8d20fdd8d15006c6437
United States government
319
False
What naming convention is accepted by all indigenous groups?
5731a8d20fdd8d15006c6438
none
572
False
However, since the 20th century, indigenous peoples in the Americas have been more vocal about the ways they wish to be referred to, pressing for the elimination of terms widely considered to be obsolete, inaccurate, or racist. During the latter half of the 20th century and the rise of the Indian rights movement, the United States government responded by proposing the use of the term "Native American," to recognize the primacy of indigenous peoples' tenure in the nation, but this term was not fully accepted. Other naming conventions have been proposed and used, but none are accepted by all indigenous groups.
Where has there been a rise of indigenous movements in recent years?
5731a9d8e99e3014001e61b6
the Americas (mainly South America)
66
False
What do the organizing groups hope to obtain for themselves?
5731a9d8e99e3014001e61b7
preservation of their culture
219
False
What is an example of a movement which is working to obtain rights for Amazonian populations everywhere?
5731a9d8e99e3014001e61b8
Indian Council of South America
365
False
Where can similar movements for indigenous rights be seen?
5731a9d8e99e3014001e61b9
Canada and the United States,
599
False
In recent years, there has been a rise of indigenous movements in the Americas (mainly South America). These are rights-driven groups that organize themselves in order to achieve some sort of self-determination and the preservation of their culture for their peoples. Organizations like the Coordinator of Indigenous Organizations of the Amazon River Basin and the Indian Council of South America are examples of movements that are breaking the barrier of borders in order to obtain rights for Amazonian indigenous populations everywhere. Similar movements for indigenous rights can also be seen in Canada and the United States, with movements like the International Indian Treaty Council and the accession of native Indian group into the Unrepresented Nations and Peoples Organization.
Who started a forum in support of Morales' legal process of change?
5731aab1b9d445190005e443
Representatives
0
False
What did the meeting condemn plans by the Europeans to do?
5731aab1b9d445190005e444
destabilize the country
282
False
What did the forum express for Morales and his proposed changes?
5731aab1b9d445190005e445
solidarity
332
False
What did the forum question about US interference?
5731aab1b9d445190005e446
diplomats and NGOs
548
False
What was the forum suspicious of?
5731aab1b9d445190005e447
plots against Bolivia and other countries
596
False
Representatives from indigenous and rural organizations from major South American countries, including Bolivia, Ecuador, Colombia, Chile and Brazil, started a forum in support of Morales' legal process of change. The meeting condemned plans by the European "foreign power elite" to destabilize the country. The forum also expressed solidarity with the Morales and his economic and social changes in the interest of historically marginalized majorities. Furthermore, in a cathartic blow to the US-backed elite, it questioned US interference through diplomats and NGOs. The forum was suspicious of plots against Bolivia and other countries, including Cuba, Venezuela, Ecuador, Paraguay and Nicaragua.
What does the genetic history of indigenous peoples of the Americas primarily focus on?
5731ab71e17f3d14004222d7
Human Y-chromosome DNA haplogroups
73
False
How is Y-DNA passed along?
5731ab71e17f3d14004222d8
patrilineal line
184
False
Which type of DNA is passed from the mother to offspring of both genders?
5731ab71e17f3d14004222d9
mtDNA
229
False
What is the only way that Y-DNA and mtDNA change?
5731ab71e17f3d14004222da
chance mutation
373
False
What is AtDNA generally only used to measure?
5731ab71e17f3d14004222db
average continent-of-ancestry
611
False
Genetic history of indigenous peoples of the Americas primarily focus on Human Y-chromosome DNA haplogroups and Human mitochondrial DNA haplogroups. "Y-DNA" is passed solely along the patrilineal line, from father to son, while "mtDNA" is passed down the matrilineal line, from mother to offspring of both sexes. Neither recombines, and thus Y-DNA and mtDNA change only by chance mutation at each generation with no intermixture between parents' genetic material. Autosomal "atDNA" markers are also used, but differ from mtDNA or Y-DNA in that they overlap significantly. AtDNA is generally used to measure the average continent-of-ancestry genetic admixture in the entire human genome and related isolated populations.
Who have studies of the mtDNA of Turkic-speaking peoples shown they're closest to genetically?
5731ac2fe17f3d14004222e1
Amerindians
48
False
What group were the ancestors of the American Indians separated from?
5731ac2fe17f3d14004222e2
Asian population
485
False
When did the ancestors of the American Indians separate from their parent population?
5731ac2fe17f3d14004222e3
Middle Paleolithic
509
False
When did research find evidence for a common ancestry between Native Americans and Altaians?
5731ac2fe17f3d14004222e4
2012
529
False
What DNA analysis indicated the common ancestry of the Native Americans?
5731ac2fe17f3d14004222e5
mitochondrial DNA and Y-Chromosome
645
False
Genetic studies of mitochondrial DNA (mtDNA) of Amerindians and some Siberian and Central Asian peoples also revealed that the gene pool of the Turkic-speaking peoples of Siberia such as Altaians, Khakas, Shors and Soyots, living between the Altai and Lake Baikal along the Sayan mountains, are genetically closest to Amerindians.[citation needed] This view is shared by other researchers who argue that "the ancestors of the American Indians were the first to separate from the great Asian population in the Middle Paleolithic. 2012 research found evidence for a recent common ancestry between Native Americans and indigenous Altaians based on mitochondrial DNA and Y-Chromosome analysis. The paternal lineages of Altaians mostly belong to the subclades of haplogroup P-M45 (xR1a 38-93%; xQ1a 4-32%).
What did human settlement of the New World occur in?
5731acdeb9d445190005e461
stages
46
False
How long of a layover did the human nomads have in Beringia?
5731acdeb9d445190005e462
15,000 to 20,000-year
101
False
What do the diversity and distributions of Y lineage specific to South America indicate about certain peoples there?
5731acdeb9d445190005e463
isolated since the initial colonization of the region
349
False
What population has mtDNA and atDNA mutations, making them distinct from other indigenous peoples of the Americas?
5731acdeb9d445190005e464
Alaskan
438
False
What does the DNA evidence suggest about the migrants into the northern extremes of North America?
5731acdeb9d445190005e465
later migrant populations
717
False
Human settlement of the New World occurred in stages from the Bering sea coast line, with an initial 15,000 to 20,000-year layover on Beringia for the small founding population. The micro-satellite diversity and distributions of the Y lineage specific to South America indicates that certain indigenous peoples of the Americas populations have been isolated since the initial colonization of the region. The Na-Dené, Inuit and Indigenous Alaskan populations exhibit haplogroup Q (Y-DNA) mutations, however are distinct from other indigenous peoples of the Americas with various mtDNA and atDNA mutations. This suggests that the earliest migrants into the northern extremes of North America and Greenland derived from later migrant populations.
When was a study about the DNA of a young boy published in Nature?
5731ad73e17f3d14004222eb
2013
2
False
How old was the young boy's remains?
5731ad73e17f3d14004222ec
24,000-year-old
54
False
What culture was the boy from?
5731ad73e17f3d14004222ed
Mal'ta-Buret'
117
False
What may one-third of the indigenous Americans ancestry be traced back to?
5731ad73e17f3d14004222ee
western Eurasians
241
False
What percent of Native American ancestry may originate through gene flow from the Mal'ta-Buret' population?
5731ad73e17f3d14004222ef
14 to 38 percent
372
False
A 2013 study in Nature reported that DNA found in the 24,000-year-old remains of a young boy from the archaeological Mal'ta-Buret' culture suggest that up to one-third of the indigenous Americans may have ancestry that can be traced back to western Eurasians, who may have "had a more north-easterly distribution 24,000 years ago than commonly thought". "We estimate that 14 to 38 percent of Native American ancestry may originate through gene flow from this ancient population," the authors wrote. Professor Kelly Graf said,
What is more likely than the Solutrean hypothesis?
5731ae4a0fdd8d15006c6447
route through Beringia
2
False
What supports a scenario of dual origin for Paleo-Indians?
5731ae4a0fdd8d15006c6448
similarities in ages and geographical distributions
115
False
What is C4c deeply rooted in the Asian portion of?
5731ae4a0fdd8d15006c6449
the mtDNA phylogeny
353
False
When did Kashani and others make their statement regarding the similarities for C4c distributions?
5731ae4a0fdd8d15006c644a
2012
94
False
Because C4c and X2a are characterized by parallel genetic histories means what controversial hypothesis may be dismissed?
5731ae4a0fdd8d15006c644b
an Atlantic glacial entry route into North America
541
False
A route through Beringia is seen as more likely than the Solutrean hypothesis. Kashani et al. 2012 state that "The similarities in ages and geographical distributions for C4c and the previously analyzed X2a lineage provide support to the scenario of a dual origin for Paleo-Indians. Taking into account that C4c is deeply rooted in the Asian portion of the mtDNA phylogeny and is indubitably of Asian origin, the finding that C4c and X2a are characterized by parallel genetic histories definitively dismisses the controversial hypothesis of an Atlantic glacial entry route into North America."
Red
What spectrum of light is red within?
57312320a5e9cc1400cdbc85
visible light
47
False
Which color is opposite of red on the visible spectrum?
57312320a5e9cc1400cdbc86
violet
89
False
On the spectrum of light, where is red found?
57312320a5e9cc1400cdbc87
620–740 nanometres
153
False
What color is beside red in the visible spectrum of light?
57312320a5e9cc1400cdbc88
orange
69
False
Red Yellow and Blue are what kind of colors?
57312320a5e9cc1400cdbc89
subtractive primary colors
409
False
Red
0
What is the color opposite orange and next to violet on the spectrum of visible light?
5ad4c1a75b96ef001a109f60
True
Red
97
What has a predominant light wavelength of 640-720 nanometres?
5ad4c1a75b96ef001a109f61
True
Red Green Blue
269
What does RBG stand for?
5ad4c1a75b96ef001a109f62
True
Red is the color at the end of the spectrum of visible light next to orange and opposite violet. Red color has a predominant light wavelength of roughly 620–740 nanometres. Red is one of the additive primary colors of visible light, along with green and blue, which in Red Green Blue (RGB) color systems are combined to create all the colors on a computer monitor or television screen. Red is also one of the subtractive primary colors, along with yellow and blue, of the RYB color space and traditional color wheel used by painters and artists.
From where does the color red in blood come from?
57312435497a881900248ba1
hemoglobin
45
False
What does hemoglobin contain?
57312435497a881900248ba2
iron
61
False
What causes the color of hematite and red ochre?
57312435497a881900248ba3
iron oxide
248
False
Why does a sky turn red when the evening comes?
57312435497a881900248ba4
Rayleigh scattering
383
False
What pigment is responsible for the color of leaves in fall?
57312435497a881900248ba5
anthocyanins
566
False
iron-containing protein
61
Where does hemoglobin come from?
5ad4c2ee5b96ef001a109fa8
True
iron oxide
248
What is the Grand Canyon considered a form of?
5ad4c2ee5b96ef001a109fa9
True
Rayleigh scattering
383
What effect is responsible for the red color of Mars?
5ad4c2ee5b96ef001a109faa
True
anthocyanins
566
What are the pigments in the red sky called?
5ad4c2ee5b96ef001a109fab
True
One to two percent
676
What percent of the population has red lips?
5ad4c2ee5b96ef001a109fac
True
In nature, the red color of blood comes from hemoglobin, the iron-containing protein found in the red blood cells of all vertebrates. The red color of the Grand Canyon and other geological features is caused by hematite or red ochre, both forms of iron oxide. It also causes the red color of the planet Mars. The red sky at sunset and sunrise is caused by an optical effect known as Rayleigh scattering, which, when the sun is low or below the horizon, increases the red-wavelength light that reaches the eye. The color of autumn leaves is caused by pigments called anthocyanins, which are produced towards the end of summer, when the green chlorophyll is no longer produced. One to two percent of the human population has red hair; the color is produced by high levels of the reddish pigment pheomelanin (which also accounts for the red color of the lips) and relatively low levels of the dark pigment eumelanin.
During what period did people use Kermes vermilio to make red dye?
5731260ea5e9cc1400cdbca3
Neolithic Period
50
False
What does Kermes vermilio eat to survive?
5731260ea5e9cc1400cdbca4
the sap of certain trees, especially Kermes oak trees
212
False
From where did Romans acquire Kermes?
5731260ea5e9cc1400cdbca5
Spain
455
False
What kind of bural was at Adaoutse, Bouches-du-Rhône?
5731260ea5e9cc1400cdbca6
Neolithic cave-burial
333
False
What was the earliest known writing about dye from Aermenian cochineal?
5731260ea5e9cc1400cdbca7
8th century BC
654
False
by drying and then crushing the bodies of the females of a tiny scale insect
67
How was Kermes made in the 8th century BC?
5ad4c4c65b96ef001a109fec
True
Kermes oak trees
249
The insects only live on what tree in the Mediterranean?
5ad4c4c65b96ef001a109fed
True
Bouches-du-Rhône
368
Where have jars of Kermes been found in Adoutse caves?
5ad4c4c65b96ef001a109fee
True
Spain
455
Who imported Kermes oak trees from the Romans?
5ad4c4c65b96ef001a109fef
True
Porphyrophora hamelii
503
What was mentioed in the 8th century?
5ad4c4c65b96ef001a109ff0
True
A red dye called Kermes was made beginning in the Neolithic Period by drying and then crushing the bodies of the females of a tiny scale insect in the genus Kermes, primarily Kermes vermilio. The insects live on the sap of certain trees, especially Kermes oak trees near the Mediterranean region. Jars of kermes have been found in a Neolithic cave-burial at Adaoutse, Bouches-du-Rhône. Kermes from oak trees was later used by Romans, who imported it from Spain. A different variety of dye was made from Porphyrophora hamelii (Armenian cochineal) scale insects that lived on the roots and stems of certain herbs. It was mentioned in texts as early as the 8th century BC, and it was used by the ancient Assyrians and Persians.
In which book of the Bible did God reference gifts of Blue Purple and Scarlet?
57312968a5e9cc1400cdbcb7
the Book of Exodus
42
False
What does coccumque bis tinctum translate to in english?
57312968a5e9cc1400cdbcb8
colored twice with coccus
302
False
In ancient greek, what is coccus referred to as?
57312968a5e9cc1400cdbcb9
Kokkos
361
False
What does Kokkos mean in english?
57312968a5e9cc1400cdbcba
a tiny grain
375
False
In what century did the latin vulgate bible use the term coccumque bis tinctum?
57312968a5e9cc1400cdbcbb
4th century
212
False
God
62
Who did Moses instruct to bring him cloth?
5ad4c5d05b96ef001a10a000
True
blue, and purple, and scarlet.
147
What color cloth did Moses have the Israelites bring him?
5ad4c5d05b96ef001a10a001
True
colored twice with coccus
302
What does tinctum bis coccumque translate to?
5ad4c5d05b96ef001a10a002
True
Coccus,
330
What Greek word does Kokkos derive from?
5ad4c5d05b96ef001a10a003
True
Kermes is also mentioned in the Bible. In the Book of Exodus, God instructs Moses to have the Israelites bring him an offering including cloth "of blue, and purple, and scarlet." The term used for scarlet in the 4th century Latin Vulgate version of the Bible passage is coccumque bis tinctum, meaning "colored twice with coccus." Coccus, from the ancient Greek Kokkos, means a tiny grain and is the term that was used in ancient times for the Kermes vermilio insect used to make the Kermes dye. This was also the origin of the expression "dyed in the grain."
When did Egyptians start to make red pigment?
57312a8e05b4da19006bce18
4000 BC
231
False
What pigment was used for male skin tone in ancient wall art?
57312a8e05b4da19006bce19
Red ochre
240
False
What root did Egyptians use to source their red pigment alizarin?
57312a8e05b4da19006bce1a
the rubia
511
False
What type of palette was found in Tutankhamun's tomb?
57312a8e05b4da19006bce1b
ivory painter's palette
341
False
What dye did the Egyptians make using the madder plant?
57312a8e05b4da19006bce1c
alizarin
569
False
"Oh Isis, protect me from all things evil and red."
119
What did a prayer to God say in regard to the color red?
5ad4c7715b96ef001a10a04c
True
ancient Egyptians
175
Who began manufacturing pigments in about 400 BC?
5ad4c7715b96ef001a10a04d
True
Red ochre
240
What color was widely used for wall paintings by ivory painters?
5ad4c7715b96ef001a10a04e
True
Egyptians
484
Who used the white alizarin to make crimson pigment?
5ad4c7715b96ef001a10a04f
True
But, like many colors, it also had a negative association, with heat, destruction and evil. A prayer to god Isis said: "Oh Isis, protect me from all things evil and red." The ancient Egyptians began manufacturing pigments in about 4000 BC. Red ochre was widely used as a pigment for wall paintings, particularly as the skin color of men. An ivory painter's palette found inside the tomb of King Tutankhamun had small compartments with pigments of red ochre and five other colors. The Egyptians used the root of the rubia, or madder plant, to make a dye, later known as alizarin, and also used it to color white power to use as a pigment, which became known as madder lake, alizarin or alizarin crimson.
Which color was said to be the Emperor's color in ancient Rome?
57312bcd05b4da19006bce2c
Tyrian purple
17
False
At what time were togas with red were worn by Romans?
57312bcd05b4da19006bce2d
holidays
145
False
What is a flammeum?
57312bcd05b4da19006bce2e
a red shawl
187
False
What color was correlated with the Army in ancient Rome?
57312bcd05b4da19006bce2f
Red
277
False
After what event would a general of the Roman army be painted red?
57312bcd05b4da19006bce30
triumph
663
False
purple
24
What was the color of the emperor in Ancient Tryian?
5ad4cf1c5b96ef001a10a140
True
flammeum.
209
What are the red stripes on togas called?
5ad4cf1c5b96ef001a10a141
True
paludamentum
389
What were the red tunics worn by Roman soldiers called?
5ad4cf1c5b96ef001a10a142
True
The vexilloid of the Roman Empire
549
Where were the gold letters SQRP found?
5ad4cf1c5b96ef001a10a143
True
In Ancient Rome, Tyrian purple was the color of the Emperor, but red had an important religious symbolism. Romans wore togas with red stripes on holidays, and the bride at a wedding wore a red shawl, called a flammeum. Red was used to color statues and the skin of gladiators. Red was also the color associated with army; Roman soldiers wore red tunics, and officers wore a cloak called a paludamentum which, depending upon the quality of the dye, could be crimson, scarlet or purple. In Roman mythology red is associated with the god of war, Mars. The vexilloid of the Roman Empire had a red background with the letters SPQR in gold. A Roman general receiving a triumph had his entire body painted red in honor of his achievement.
What pigment was used to paint villas in ancient Rome?
57312c6005b4da19006bce36
vermilion
143
False
From where did vermilion originate?
57312c6005b4da19006bce37
the mineral cinnabar
171
False
Cinnabar is an ore of what metal?
57312c6005b4da19006bce38
mercury
209
False
What mines did Romans use to acquire cinnabar?
57312c6005b4da19006bce39
Almadén, southwest of Madrid, in Spain
408
False
Along with slaves, who was sent to work in cinnabar mines in Rome?
57312c6005b4da19006bce3a
prisoners
551
False
red
80
What color were Roman villas painted?
5ad4d0325b96ef001a10a170
True
vermilion
143
What was the pigment called that was used for the painting of Roman villas?
5ad4d0325b96ef001a10a171
True
cinnabar
183
What is Mercury a common ore of?
5ad4d0325b96ef001a10a172
True
Madrid
430
What city is southwest of Almaden?
5ad4d0325b96ef001a10a173
True
The Romans liked bright colors, and many Roman villas were decorated with vivid red murals. The pigment used for many of the murals was called vermilion, and it came from the mineral cinnabar, a common ore of mercury. It was one of the finest reds of ancient times – the paintings have retained their brightness for more than twenty centuries. The source of cinnabar for the Romans was a group of mines near Almadén, southwest of Madrid, in Spain. Working in the mines was extremely dangerous, since mercury is highly toxic; the miners were slaves or prisoners, and being sent to the cinnabar mines was a virtual death sentence.
Which European emperor painted their palace red?
57312d2a05b4da19006bce4a
Emperor Charlemagne
78
False
In what year did cardinals in the Roman Catholic church start wearing red?
57312d2a05b4da19006bce4b
1295
235
False
When was Saint Denis Basilica rebuilt?
57312d2a05b4da19006bce4c
12th century
366
False
Who rebuilt the basilica of Saint Denis?
57312d2a05b4da19006bce4d
Abbe Suger
299
False
Christ and which other Christian figure were often painted red in medieval painting?
57312d2a05b4da19006bce4e
Virgin Mary
733
False
Emperor Charlemagne
78
Who wore red shoes as a symbol of authority?
5ad4d31b5b96ef001a10a202
True
Roman Catholic cardinals began to wear red costumes
241
What began in 1259?
5ad4d31b5b96ef001a10a203
True
Saint Denis Basilica
318
What did Suger Abbe rebuild?
5ad4d31b5b96ef001a10a204
True
stained glass windows
389
What did Suger Abbe add to the Saint Denis Basilica?
5ad4d31b5b96ef001a10a205
True
Red was the color of the banner of the Byzantine emperors. In Western Europe, Emperor Charlemagne painted his palace red as a very visible symbol of his authority, and wore red shoes at his coronation. Kings, princes and, beginning in 1295, Roman Catholic cardinals began to wear red costumes. When Abbe Suger rebuilt Saint Denis Basilica outside Paris in the early 12th century, he added stained glass windows colored blue cobalt glass and red glass tinted with copper. Together they flooded the basilica with a mystical light. Soon stained glass windows were being added to cathedrals all across France, England and Germany. In Medieval painting red was used to attract attention to the most important figures; both Christ and the Virgin Mary were commonly painted wearing red mantles.
What status did the wearing of red in medieval times represent?
57312dde05b4da19006bce54
wealth
38
False
On what occasion would townspeople wear red?
57312dde05b4da19006bce55
holidays
157
False
What root was used for red clothing owned by commoners?
57312dde05b4da19006bce56
rubia tinctorum
263
False
Outside of sun exposure in what circumstance did pigment made from rubia tinctorum fade?
57312dde05b4da19006bce57
during washing
365
False
What was carmine made from?
57312dde05b4da19006bce58
the carminic acid in tiny female scale insects
471
False
oak trees
548
What trees are found only in the Mediterranean?
5ad4d5005b96ef001a10a24e
True
Eastern Europe
561
Where in Europe are kermes only found?
5ad4d5005b96ef001a10a24f
True
brick-red,
323
What brick color is produced by kermes?
5ad4d5005b96ef001a10a250
True
the sun or during washing
354
What causes kermes dye to fade easily?
5ad4d5005b96ef001a10a251
True
Red clothing was a sign of status and wealth. It was worn not only by cardinals and princes, but also by merchants, artisans and townpeople, particularly on holidays or special occasions. Red dye for the clothing of ordinary people was made from the roots of the rubia tinctorum, the madder plant. This color leaned toward brick-red, and faded easily in the sun or during washing. The wealthy and aristocrats wore scarlet clothing dyed with kermes, or carmine, made from the carminic acid in tiny female scale insects, which lived on the leaves of oak trees in Eastern Europe and around the Mediterranean. The insects were gathered, dried, crushed, and boiled with different ingredients in a long and complicated process, which produced a brilliant scarlet.
How many elements did the Chinese philosophers think the world was made of?
5731314305b4da19006bce74
five
99
False
What element was red associated with in Chinese philosophy?
5731314305b4da19006bce75
fire
201
False
At the time of the Han dynasty where would one fine the color Red?
5731314305b4da19006bce76
all court ceremonies
438
False
In the time of the Ming Dynasty one would find what color used during sacrificial offerings?
5731314305b4da19006bce77
Red
177
False
Outside of Fire and Earth, what three other elements did Chinese philosophers say the world was composed from?
5731314305b4da19006bce78
metal, wood, water
114
False
Red
0
What is the color of Chinese philosophy?
5ad4d5b75b96ef001a10a292
True
metal, wood, water, fire and earth
114
What five elements is the world made of according to the Ming dynasty?
5ad4d5b75b96ef001a10a293
True
Red
177
What color was associated with water?
5ad4d5b75b96ef001a10a294
True
Red played an important role in Chinese philosophy. It was believed that the world was composed of five elements: metal, wood, water, fire and earth, and that each had a color. Red was associated with fire. Each Emperor chose the color that his fortune-tellers believed would bring the most prosperity and good fortune to his reign. During the Zhou, Han, Jin, Song and Ming Dynasties, red considered a noble color, and it was featured in all court ceremonies, from coronations to sacrificial offerings, and weddings.
During what years did the Song dynasty occur?
5731322905b4da19006bce8e
906–1279
55
False
Which number of ranks wore purple clothing in the Song dynasty?
5731322905b4da19006bce8f
three
87
False
What color did sixth rank Song dynasty officials wear?
5731322905b4da19006bce90
green
203
False
What ranks in the Song dynasty wore blue?
5731322905b4da19006bce91
eighth and ninth
218
False
Song dynasty
41
What dynasty took place from 909-1276?
5ad4d6755b96ef001a10a2be
True
he is so red he becomes purple."
522
What did the Song dynasty say about an official who had talent?
5ad4d6755b96ef001a10a2bf
True
Song dynasty
41
What officials of the top three ranks wore bright red?
5ad4d6755b96ef001a10a2c0
True
Song dynasty
41
What officials of the fourth and fifth rank wore purple?
5ad4d6755b96ef001a10a2c1
True
Red was also a badge of rank. During the Song dynasty (906–1279), officials of the top three ranks wore purple clothes; those of the fourth and fifth wore bright red; those of the sixth and seventh wore green; and the eighth and ninth wore blue. Red was the color worn by the royal guards of honor, and the color of the carriages of the imperial family. When the imperial family traveled, their servants and accompanying officials carried red and purple umbrellas. Of an official who had talent and ambition, it was said "he is so red he becomes purple."
Who painted their mansions red during the Song and Tang dynasties?
573132d505b4da19006bce96
nobles
135
False
who wrote A dream of Red Mansions?
573132d505b4da19006bce97
Cao Xueqin
261
False
During what years was Cao Xueqin alive?
573132d505b4da19006bce98
1715–1763
273
False
Who painted the walls of the Forbidden city red after the fall of the Ming dynasty?
573132d505b4da19006bce99
Qing Dynasty
514
False
In late Chinese dynasties red was used only on what kind of architecture?
573132d505b4da19006bce9a
temples and imperial residences
451
False
A Dream of Red Mansions
234
What did Xueqin Cao write?
5ad4d7395b96ef001a10a2ec
True
1715–1763
273
When was Xueqin Cao alive?
5ad4d7395b96ef001a10a2ed
True
Manchu rulers of the Qing Dynasty
493
Who did the Ming ruler conquer?
5ad4d7395b96ef001a10a2ee
True
the lives of noble women who passed their lives out of public sight within the walls of such mansions
295
What was Xueqin Cao's book about?
5ad4d7395b96ef001a10a2ef
True
Red was also featured in Chinese Imperial architecture. In the Tang and Song Dynasties, gates of palaces were usually painted red, and nobles often painted their entire mansion red. One of the most famous works of Chinese literature, A Dream of Red Mansions by Cao Xueqin (1715–1763), was about the lives of noble women who passed their lives out of public sight within the walls of such mansions. In later dynasties red was reserved for the walls of temples and imperial residences. When the Manchu rulers of the Qing Dynasty conquered the Ming and took over the Forbidden City and Imperial Palace in Beijing, all the walls, gates, beams and pillars were painted in red and gold.
What plant was used to make the most used red dye in Venice?
5731343b05b4da19006bceb0
Rubia
98
False
Which group in Europe used Kermes dye?
5731343b05b4da19006bceb1
the wealthy
248
False
The wealthiest in Europe used what red dye?
5731343b05b4da19006bceb2
Polish Cochineal
411
False
What dye was known as the Blood of Saint John?
5731343b05b4da19006bceb3
Kermes vermilio
443
False
The Blood of Saint John was made from an insect, which one?
5731343b05b4da19006bceb4
Margodes polonicus
527
False
the most common dye
127
What was the Venice plant used to make?
5ad4d9c65b96ef001a10a3ba
True
made by collecting and crushing Porphyophora hamelii
737
How was the finest red of Kermes vermilio made?
5ad4d9c65b96ef001a10a3bb
True
Venice
53
What city was rubia used to make dyes for the wealthy?
5ad4d9c65b96ef001a10a3bc
True
Porphyophora hamelii
769
What insect was found in Persia?
5ad4d9c65b96ef001a10a3bd
True
There were guilds of dyers who specialized in red in Venice and other large Europeans cities. The Rubia plant was used to make the most common dye; it produced an orange-red or brick red color used to dye the clothes of merchants and artisans. For the wealthy, the dye used was Kermes, made from a tiny scale insect which fed on the branches and leaves of the oak tree. For those with even more money there was Polish Cochineal; also known as Kermes vermilio or "Blood of Saint John", which was made from a related insect, the Margodes polonicus. It made a more vivid red than ordinary Kermes. The finest and most expensive variety of red made from insects was the "Kermes" of Armenia (Armenian cochineal, also known as Persian kirmiz), made by collecting and crushing Porphyophora hamelii, an insect which lived on the roots and stems of certain grasses. The pigment and dye merchants of Venice imported and sold all of these products and also manufactured their own color, called Venetian red, which was considered the most expensive and finest red in Europe. Its secret ingredient was arsenic, which brightened the color.
In what century did a new kind of red pigment arrive in Europe from the Aztec Empire?
573135b605b4da19006bcecc
16th
17
False
Which conquistador from Spain conquered the Aztec Empire?
573135b605b4da19006bcecd
Hernán Cortés
101
False
During what years was the Aztec Empire conquered?
573135b605b4da19006bcece
1519-1521
162
False
How often could the Mexican cochineal be harvested?
573135b605b4da19006bcecf
several times a year
525
False
In what year did Cortes send the first cochineal to Spain?
573135b605b4da19006bced0
1523
677
False
Hernán Cortés
101
What Aztec conquistador conquered the Spanish Empire?
5ad4da955b96ef001a10a3f0
True
Spanish conquistador Hernán Cortés and his soldiers conquered the Aztec Empire
80
What happened in 1519?
5ad4da955b96ef001a10a3f1
True
Hernán Cortés
101
Who conquered the Spanish Empire in 1519-1521?
5ad4da955b96ef001a10a3f2
True
Cortes
682
Who sent the first shipment to Spain in 1532?
5ad4da955b96ef001a10a3f3
True
Cortes sent the first shipment to Spain.
682
What happened in 1532?
5ad4da955b96ef001a10a3f4
True
But early in the 16th century, a brilliant new red appeared in Europe. When the Spanish conquistador Hernán Cortés and his soldiers conquered the Aztec Empire in 1519-1521, they discovered slowly that the Aztecs had another treasure beside silver and gold; they had the tiny cochineal, a parasitic scale insect which lived on cactus plants, which, when dried and crushed, made a magnificent red. The cochineal in Mexico was closely related to the Kermes varieties of Europe, but unlike European Kermes, it could be harvested several times a year, and it was ten times stronger than the Kermes of Poland. It worked particularly well on silk, satin and other luxury textiles. In 1523 Cortes sent the first shipment to Spain. Soon cochineal began to arrive in European ports aboard convoys of Spanish galleons.
What was kermes lake made from?
5731366ea5e9cc1400cdbcf1
kermes insects
145
False
What was madder lake made from?
5731366ea5e9cc1400cdbcf2
rubia tinctorum plant
192
False
What did Renaissance painters call the pigment made from cochineal?
5731366ea5e9cc1400cdbcf3
carmine
264
False
During what century did carmine start to see use?
5731366ea5e9cc1400cdbcf4
15th
421
False
What would to the carmine pigment if not used diligently?
5731366ea5e9cc1400cdbcf5
change color
333
False
two traditional lake pigments
43
What was used by all painters?
5ad4dba25b96ef001a10a448
True
Rembrandt, Vermeer, Rubens, Anthony van Dyck, Diego Velázquez and Tintoretto
456
Who were the great painters of the 15th century?
5ad4dba25b96ef001a10a449
True
Thomas Gainsborough, Seurat and J.M.W. Turner.
555
What 16th century painters used carmine?
5ad4dba25b96ef001a10a44a
True
carmine
264
What did J.W.M Turner use?
5ad4dba25b96ef001a10a44b
True
The painters of the early Renaissance used two traditional lake pigments, made from mixing dye with either chalk or alum, kermes lake, made from kermes insects, and madder lake, made from the rubia tinctorum plant. With the arrival of cochineal, they had a third, carmine, which made a very fine crimson, though it had a tendency to change color if not used carefully. It was used by almost all the great painters of the 15th and 16th centuries, including Rembrandt, Vermeer, Rubens, Anthony van Dyck, Diego Velázquez and Tintoretto. Later it was used by Thomas Gainsborough, Seurat and J.M.W. Turner.
During which revolution was red a symbol of liberty?
57313738497a881900248c67
French Revolution
11
False
What kind of cap did the Jacobins wear?
57313738497a881900248c68
red Phrygian cap, or liberty cap
155
False
Women with red caps crowded around guillotines during the Reign of Terror to do what?
57313738497a881900248c69
celebrate
349
False
During what years did the Reign of Terror take place?
57313738497a881900248c6a
1792 and 1793
475
False
Who was Saint Denis?
57313738497a881900248c6b
Christian martyr and patron saint of Paris
816
False
Red
30
What became a symbol of liberty during the Phrygian Revolution?
5ad4dc675b96ef001a10a464
True
liberty and personal freedom
53
What did red become a symbol of during the Phrygian Revolution?
5ad4dc675b96ef001a10a465
True
Jacobins and other more radical parties
94
Who used red as a symbol of liberty and personal freedom during the Phrygian Revolution?
5ad4dc675b96ef001a10a466
True
1792 and 1793
475
When did the Terror Reign take place?
5ad4dc675b96ef001a10a467
True
blue, white and red tricolor,
719
What colors did France go back to during the Reign of Terror?
5ad4dc675b96ef001a10a468
True
During the French Revolution, Red became a symbol of liberty and personal freedom used by the Jacobins and other more radical parties. Many of them wore a red Phrygian cap, or liberty cap, modeled after the caps worn by freed slaves in Ancient Rome. During the height of the Reign of Terror, Women wearing red caps gathered around the guillotine to celebrate each execution. They were called the "Furies of the guillotine". The guillotines used during the Reign of Terror in 1792 and 1793 were painted red, or made of red wood. During the Reign of Terror a statue of a woman titled liberty, painted red, was placed in the square in front of the guillotine. After the end of the Reign of Terror, France went back to the blue, white and red tricolor, whose red was taken from the traditional color of Saint Denis, the Christian martyr and patron saint of Paris.
What was Turkey red called in France?
573137fba5e9cc1400cdbd15
rouge d'Adrinople
289
False
In what years did Turkey red begin to be used to dye cotton in England?
573137fba5e9cc1400cdbd16
the 1740s
321
False
What did turkey red get its color from?
573137fba5e9cc1400cdbd17
madder
451
False
What other pigment was Turkey red compared to?
573137fba5e9cc1400cdbd18
carmine
710
False
In what century did quilts in America commonly use Turkey red?
573137fba5e9cc1400cdbd19
19th
833
False
rouge d'Adrinople
289
What was red known as in Turkey?
5ad4dd725b96ef001a10a4c6
True
Turkey red
258
What popular color was imported from France in the 18th century?
5ad4dd725b96ef001a10a4c7
True
bright red color was used to dye or print cotton
337
What began in 1740?
5ad4dd725b96ef001a10a4c8
True
making the traditional patchwork quilt
877
What was cotton widely used for in 19th century Europe?
5ad4dd725b96ef001a10a4c9
True
As the Industrial Revolution spread across Europe, chemists and manufacturers sought new red dyes that could be used for large-scale manufacture of textiles. One popular color imported into Europe from Turkey and India in the 18th and early 19th century was Turkey red, known in France as rouge d'Adrinople. Beginning in the 1740s, this bright red color was used to dye or print cotton textiles in England, the Netherlands and France. Turkey red used madder as the colorant, but the process was longer and more complicated, involving multiple soaking of the fabrics in lye, olive oil, sheep's dung, and other ingredients. The fabric was more expensive but resulted in a fine bright and lasting red, similar to carmine, perfectly suited to cotton. The fabric was widely exported from Europe to Africa, the Middle East and America. In 19th century America, it was widely used in making the traditional patchwork quilt.
In which century did color theory begin to be systematically studied?
5731388ea5e9cc1400cdbd29
19th
4
False
Who painted the Night Cafe?
5731388ea5e9cc1400cdbd2a
Vincent van Gogh
345
False
In what year was The Night Cafe painted?
5731388ea5e9cc1400cdbd2b
1888
427
False
What was the name of vincent van Gogh's brother?
5731388ea5e9cc1400cdbd2c
Theo
419
False
What occurred when red and green were put next to one another?
5731388ea5e9cc1400cdbd2d
red and green reinforced each other
213
False
19th
4
What century saw red to only imitate nature?
5ad4dfcf5b96ef001a10a506
True
Van Gogh
433
Who did Theo write to in 1888?
5ad4dfcf5b96ef001a10a507
True
"I sought to express with red and green the terrible human passions. T
449
What did Theo write to Van Gogh about human passions in 1888?
5ad4dfcf5b96ef001a10a508
True
Vincent van Gogh
345
Who painted the Cafe Night?
5ad4dfcf5b96ef001a10a509
True
The 19th century also saw the use of red in art to create specific emotions, not just to imitate nature. It saw the systematic study of color theory, and particularly the study of how complementary colors such as red and green reinforced each other when they were placed next to each other. These studies were avidly followed by artists such as Vincent van Gogh. Describing his painting, The Night Cafe, to his brother Theo in 1888, Van Gogh wrote: "I sought to express with red and green the terrible human passions. The hall is blood red and pale yellow, with a green billiard table in the center, and four lamps of lemon yellow, with rays of orange and green. Everywhere it is a battle and antithesis of the most different reds and greens."
During which century did Matisse work?
57313ab1e6313a140071cd46
20th
34
False
Placing red and green next to each other causes their color to be what?
57313ab1e6313a140071cd47
strengthened
310
False
What color did Matisse say could penetate ones soul?
57313ab1e6313a140071cd48
blue
143
False
What color did Matisse claim would impact ones blood pressure?
57313ab1e6313a140071cd49
red
192
False
What part in the paintings of Matisse did color play?
57313ab1e6313a140071cd4a
the central element
69
False
Matisse
0
Who was the first to make color the central element of the painting?
5ad4e0615b96ef001a10a50e
True
scientific theory
423
What theory did Matisse say his choice of colors was based on?
5ad4e0615b96ef001a10a50f
True
Matisse
0
Who was the first 20th century artist to use color for feelings?
5ad4e0615b96ef001a10a510
True
Matisse was also one of the first 20th-century artists to make color the central element of the painting, chosen to evoke emotions. "A certain blue penetrates your soul", he wrote. "A certain red affects your blood pressure." He also was familiar with the way that complementary colors, such as red and green, strengthened each other when they were placed next to each other. He wrote, "My choice of colors is not based on scientific theory; it is based on observation, upon feelings, upon the real nature of each experience ... I just try to find a color which corresponds to my feelings."
In what year did Rothko donate Passion of Christ murals?
57313b47e6313a140071cd58
1962
90
False
To whom did Rothko donate Passion of Christ murals?
57313b47e6313a140071cd59
Harvard University
109
False
What organic reds did Rothko use in the Passion of Christ murals?
57313b47e6313a140071cd5a
Naphtol and Lithol
398
False
In what year had the Passion of Christ murals by Rothko end up ruined?
57313b47e6313a140071cd5b
1979
578
False
What was the result of the change in color in the Rothko Passion of the Christ murals?
57313b47e6313a140071cd5c
ruined and had to be taken down
602
False
1962
90
What year were synthetic pigments first used?
5ad4e1175b96ef001a10a51e
True
Rothko
0
Who first used synthetic pigments in 1962?
5ad4e1175b96ef001a10a51f
True
Harvard University
109
What university did Rothko attend?
5ad4e1175b96ef001a10a520
True
paintings were ruined and had to be taken down.
587
What happened in 1997?
5ad4e1175b96ef001a10a521
True
Rothko also began using the new synthetic pigments, but not always with happy results. In 1962 he donated to Harvard University a series of large murals of the Passion of Christ whose predominant colors were dark pink and deep crimson. He mixed mostly traditional colors to make the pink and crimson; synthetic ultramarine, cerulean blue, and titanium white, but he also used two new organic reds, Naphtol and Lithol. The Naphtol did well, but the Lithol slowly changed color when exposed to light. Within five years the deep pinks and reds had begun to turn light blue, and by 1979 the paintings were ruined and had to be taken down.
What was red ochre composed of?
57313c0a497a881900248cad
minerals
41
False
How were pigments like red lake created?
57313c0a497a881900248cae
mixing organic dyes
81
False
What was red lake composed of?
57313c0a497a881900248caf
insects or plants, with white chalk or alum
112
False
What was the source of color in Red lac?
57313c0a497a881900248cb0
the dark red resinous substance secreted by various scale insects
192
False
The Laccifer lacca was crucial to making what pigment?
57313c0a497a881900248cb1
Red lac
157
False
red
51
What color lake pigments were made from minerals?
5ad4e19e5b96ef001a10a530
True
Red lac
157
What was made from red gum?
5ad4e19e5b96ef001a10a531
True
South America
368
What continent is Laccifer lacca found on?
5ad4e19e5b96ef001a10a532
True
India
296
What country was carmine found?
5ad4e19e5b96ef001a10a533
True
Unlike vermilion or red ochre, made from minerals, red lake pigments are made by mixing organic dyes, made from insects or plants, with white chalk or alum. Red lac was made from the gum lac, the dark red resinous substance secreted by various scale insects, particularly the Laccifer lacca from India. Carmine lake was made from the cochineal insect from Central and South America, Kermes lake came from a different scale insect, kermes vermilio, which thrived on oak trees around the Mediterranean. Other red lakes were made from the rose madder plant and from the brazilwood tree.
Which colors are part of the RGB model?
57313cc0a5e9cc1400cdbd7f
red, green and blue
59
False
What color light is created when one mixes red, green, and blue?
57313cc0a5e9cc1400cdbd80
white
158
False
The RGB color model has three colors in it that are described as what kind of colors?
57313cc0a5e9cc1400cdbd81
additive primary colors
83
False
Which era did Cennino Cennini actively paint in?
57313cc0a5e9cc1400cdbd82
the Renaissance
469
False
What colors are used to create purple on a computer screen?
57313cc0a5e9cc1400cdbd83
red and blue
584
False
red, green and blue
59
What RBG stand for?
5ad4e3ca5b96ef001a10a56a
True
red, green and blue
59
What colors are in the RBG model?
5ad4e3ca5b96ef001a10a56b
True
violet
493
What color did Cennini Cennino make?
5ad4e3ca5b96ef001a10a56c
True
Renaissance
473
When did Cennini Cennino make violet?
5ad4e3ca5b96ef001a10a56d
True
In modern color theory, also known as the RGB color model, red, green and blue are additive primary colors. Red, green and blue light combined together makes white light, and these three colors, combined in different mixtures, can produce nearly any other color. This is the principle that is used to make all of the colors on your computer screen and your television. For example, purple on a computer screen is made by a similar formula to used by Cennino Cennini in the Renaissance to make violet, but using additive colors and light instead of pigment: it is created by combining red and blue light at equal intensity on a black screen. Violet is made on a computer screen in a similar way, but with a greater amount of blue light and less red light.
Over what numerical scale is color measured on a computer screen?
57313d5fa5e9cc1400cdbd89
zero to 255,
292
False
What is the total number of possible sRGB colors?
57313d5fa5e9cc1400cdbd8a
16,777,216
344
False
What is the number used to indicate pure red in sRGB?
57313d5fa5e9cc1400cdbd8b
255, 00, 00
428
False
Crimson is identified by what sRGB number?
57313d5fa5e9cc1400cdbd8c
220, 20, 60
562
False
a code number
117
What is an sRBG?
5ad4e4705b96ef001a10a57c
True
The intensity of each component
234
What is measure on a scale from 0 to 525?
5ad4e4705b96ef001a10a57d
True
distinct colors and shades
355
What are there 16,777,126 of?
5ad4e4705b96ef001a10a57e
True
pure red
402
What color has an sRGB number of 250, 05, 00?
5ad4e4705b96ef001a10a57f
True
crimson
551
What color has an sRBG number of 220, 20, 60?
5ad4e4705b96ef001a10a580
True
So that the maximum number of colors can be accurately reproduced on your computer screen, each color has been given a code number, or sRGB, which tells your computer the intensity of the red, green and blue components of that color. The intensity of each component is measured on a scale of zero to 255, which means the complete list includes 16,777,216 distinct colors and shades. The sRGB number of pure red, for example, is 255, 00, 00, which means the red component is at its maximum intensity, and there is no green or blue. The sRGB number for crimson is 220, 20, 60, which means that the red is slightly less intense and therefore darker, there is some green, which leans it toward orange; and there is a larger amount of blue,which makes it slightly blue-violet.
What type of scattering is responsible for the shift in the color of sunlight?
57314067a5e9cc1400cdbdbf
Rayleigh
166
False
What occurs to colors of short wavelengths in Rayleigh scattering?
57314067a5e9cc1400cdbdc0
scatter more strongly
296
False
What is the effect on blue and green light experiencing Rayleigh scattering during sunrise?
57314067a5e9cc1400cdbdc1
removed almost completely
513
False
In comparison to blue and green, what would describe the wavelength of orange or red light?
57314067a5e9cc1400cdbdc2
longer
552
False
due to Rayleigh scattering
159
Why does white sunlight travel through the atmosphere?
5ad4e5145b96ef001a10a590
True
more strongly
304
How do colors with longer wavelengths scatter?
5ad4e5145b96ef001a10a591
True
blue and green
483
What colors have a longer wavelength than orange and red?
5ad4e5145b96ef001a10a592
True
orange and red
570
What colors have shorter wavelengths than blue and green?
5ad4e5145b96ef001a10a593
True
As a ray of white sunlight travels through the atmosphere to the eye, some of the colors are scattered out of the beam by air molecules and airborne particles due to Rayleigh scattering, changing the final color of the beam that is seen. Colors with a shorter wavelength, such as blue and green, scatter more strongly, and are removed from the light that finally reaches the eye. At sunrise and sunset, when the path of the sunlight through the atmosphere to the eye is longest, the blue and green components are removed almost completely, leaving the longer wavelength orange and red light. The remaining reddened sunlight can also be scattered by cloud droplets and other relatively large particles, which give the sky above the horizon its red glow.
When was the first ruby laser invented?
573140efa5e9cc1400cdbdc7
1960
111
False
In what year did a red helium-neon laser come to be?
573140efa5e9cc1400cdbdc8
1962
120
False
What type of laser is used in a LaserDisc player?
573140efa5e9cc1400cdbdc9
Red helium–neon
284
False
What type of laser diode is used in a DVD player?
573140efa5e9cc1400cdbdca
a 660 nm laser
459
False
What type of laser is used in Raman spectroscopy?
573140efa5e9cc1400cdbdcb
671 nm diode-pumped solid state (DPSS) lasers
711
False
ruby laser
97
What was invented in 1906?
5ad4e5965b96ef001a10a5a2
True
red helium–neon laser
129
What was invented in 1926?
5ad4e5965b96ef001a10a5a3
True
modern DVD players
429
What uses a 606 nm laser diode technology?
5ad4e5965b96ef001a10a5a4
True
diode-pumped solid state (DPSS) lasers
718
What have been introduced with a 617 nm diode-pumped solid state?
5ad4e5965b96ef001a10a5a5
True
diode-pumped solid state
718
What does DSPS stand for?
5ad4e5965b96ef001a10a5a6
True
Lasers emitting in the red region of the spectrum have been available since the invention of the ruby laser in 1960. In 1962 the red helium–neon laser was invented, and these two types of lasers were widely used in many scientific applications including holography, and in education. Red helium–neon lasers were used commercially in LaserDisc players. The use of red laser diodes became widespread with the commercial success of modern DVD players, which use a 660 nm laser diode technology. Today, red and red-orange laser diodes are widely available to the public in the form of extremely inexpensive laser pointers. Portable, high-powered versions are also available for various applications. More recently, 671 nm diode-pumped solid state (DPSS) lasers have been introduced to the market for all-DPSS laser display systems, particle image velocimetry, Raman spectroscopy, and holography.
At which period of the year are phosphates high?
573141b2e6313a140071cd8e
the summer growing season
7
False
What causes sugar created by chlorophyll to breakdown?
573141b2e6313a140071cd8f
phosphate
34
False
Where does phosphate within a leaf move in the fall?
573141b2e6313a140071cd90
the stem of the plant
245
False
What is created in fall when phosphates retreat to the stems of plants?
573141b2e6313a140071cd91
anthocyanin pigments
353
False
What occurs in bright light to leaves during fall?
573141b2e6313a140071cd92
greater the production of anthocyanins
422
False
sugars
108
What does chlorophyll have a vital role in breaking down?
5ad4e6675b96ef001a10a5b6
True
phosphate
34
What moves from the leaf into the stem during the summer?
5ad4e6675b96ef001a10a5b7
True
the production of anthocyanin pigments
335
What does the chloropyll breakdown process lead to?
5ad4e6675b96ef001a10a5b8
True
phosphate, along with the other chemicals and nutrients, moves out of the leaf into the stem of the plant
161
What leads to the production of anthocyanin chlorophyll pigments?
5ad4e6675b96ef001a10a5b9
True
During the summer growing season, phosphate is at a high level. It has a vital role in the breakdown of the sugars manufactured by chlorophyll. But in the fall, phosphate, along with the other chemicals and nutrients, moves out of the leaf into the stem of the plant. When this happens, the sugar-breakdown process changes, leading to the production of anthocyanin pigments. The brighter the light during this period, the greater the production of anthocyanins and the more brilliant the resulting color display. When the days of autumn are bright and cool, and the nights are chilly but not freezing, the brightest colorations usually develop.
What pigment accounts for the majority of color in red hair?
57314244a5e9cc1400cdbdd9
pheomelanin
134
False
There is another part of the face which gets its red color from the pigment pheomelanin, what is it?
57314244a5e9cc1400cdbdda
the lips
188
False
Aside from pheomelanin what color pigment contributes to red hair?
57314244a5e9cc1400cdbddb
eumelanin
244
False
In what year can the earliest used of redhead be traced to?
57314244a5e9cc1400cdbddc
1510
326
False
What type of temper are people with red hair considered to have?
57314244a5e9cc1400cdbddd
fiery
473
False
from a deep burgundy through burnt orange
16
How does copper hair vary?
5ad4e6d95b96ef001a10a5c8
True
n (which also accounts for the red color of the lips) and relatively low levels of the dark pigment eumelanin
144
Copper color is characterized by what?
5ad4e6d95b96ef001a10a5c9
True
redhead
264
What was hede redd the original term for?
5ad4e6d95b96ef001a10a5ca
True
The term redhead
255
What has been in use since 1015?
5ad4e6d95b96ef001a10a5cb
True
Red hair varies from a deep burgundy through burnt orange to bright copper. It is characterized by high levels of the reddish pigment pheomelanin (which also accounts for the red color of the lips) and relatively low levels of the dark pigment eumelanin. The term redhead (originally redd hede) has been in use since at least 1510. Cultural reactions have varied from ridicule to admiration; many common stereotypes exist regarding redheads and they are often portrayed as fiery-tempered. (See red hair).
In alpha male mandrills what party of the body is most red according to their rank?
5731434205b4da19006bcf84
the face
109
False
Wearing red is connected to what result in humans, in terms of sport?
5731434205b4da19006bcf85
increased performance
505
False
In what sport have judges been shown to favor athletes wearing red?
5731434205b4da19006bcf86
tae kwon do
821
False
What is the effect of exposing a human to red when it comes to cognitive skills?
5731434205b4da19006bcf87
decreases performance
1183
False
The amount of red in mandrill males is directly related to levels of what?
5731434205b4da19006bcf88
testosterone
244
False
a physical competition
1042
What are blue shapes most likely to win?
5ad4e7dc5b96ef001a10a5ec
True
cognitive tasks and elicits aversion in psychological tests where subjects are placed in an "achievement" context (e.g. taking an IQ test).
1208
What does exposure to red increase performance in?
5ad4e7dc5b96ef001a10a5ed
True
increased performance in competitions, including professional sport and multiplayer video games
505
What has wearing blue been linked with?
5ad4e7dc5b96ef001a10a5ee
True
dominance
296
What can blue affect the perception of by others?
5ad4e7dc5b96ef001a10a5ef
True
Red is associated with dominance in a number of animal species. For example, in mandrills, red coloration of the face is greatest in alpha males, increasingly less prominent in lower ranking subordinates, and directly correlated with levels of testosterone. Red can also affect the perception of dominance by others, leading to significant differences in mortality, reproductive success and parental investment between individuals displaying red and those not. In humans, wearing red has been linked with increased performance in competitions, including professional sport and multiplayer video games. Controlled tests have demonstrated that wearing red does not increase performance or levels of testosterone during exercise, so the effect is likely to be produced by perceived rather than actual performance. Judges of tae kwon do have been shown to favor competitors wearing red protective gear over blue, and, when asked, a significant majority of people say that red abstract shapes are more "dominant", "aggressive", and "likely to win a physical competition" than blue shapes. In contrast to its positive effect in physical competition and dominance behavior, exposure to red decreases performance in cognitive tasks and elicits aversion in psychological tests where subjects are placed in an "achievement" context (e.g. taking an IQ test).
What trait do people most commonly link red with?
573143cd05b4da19006bcf8e
courage
56
False
Why did the Popes of the middle ages wear red?
573143cd05b4da19006bcf8f
to symbolize the blood of Christ and the Christian martyrs
271
False
What was depicted on the banners of Christians in the First crusade?
573143cd05b4da19006bcf90
a red cross on a white field
393
False
What is the cross on the banners used during the First Crusade known as?
573143cd05b4da19006bcf91
St. George's Cross
427
False
Who was Saint George believed to be?
573143cd05b4da19006bcf92
a Roman soldier
498
False
to symbolize the blood of Christ and the Christian martyrs.
271
Why is the color red worn in the Catholic Church?
5ad4e89a5b96ef001a10a5fe
True
red cross on a white field
395
What was the banner of the Catholic soldiers in the First Crusade?
5ad4e89a5b96ef001a10a5ff
True
the St. George's Cross
423
What is the Catholic cross of the First Crusade called?
5ad4e89a5b96ef001a10a600
True
a Roman soldier who was a member of the guards of the Emperor Diocletian, who refused to renounce his Christian faith and was martyred.
498
Who was Saint George according to Catholic tradition?
5ad4e89a5b96ef001a10a601
True
The Saint George's Cross
634
What cross became the Roman flag in the 16th century?
5ad4e89a5b96ef001a10a602
True
Surveys show that red is the color most associated with courage. In western countries red is a symbol of martyrs and sacrifice, particularly because of its association with blood. Beginning in the Middle Ages, the Pope and Cardinals of the Roman Catholic Church wore red to symbolize the blood of Christ and the Christian martyrs. The banner of the Christian soldiers in the First Crusade was a red cross on a white field, the St. George's Cross. According to Christian tradition, Saint George was a Roman soldier who was a member of the guards of the Emperor Diocletian, who refused to renounce his Christian faith and was martyred. The Saint George's Cross became the Flag of England in the 16th century, and now is part of the Union Flag of the United Kingdom, as well as the Flag of the Republic of Georgia.
When was Saint Valentine martyred?
57314a6f497a881900248d5f
296 AD
77
False
Who was Saint Valentine?
57314a6f497a881900248d60
a Roman Catholic Bishop or priest
17
False
In which century did Saint Valentine's day become connected with lovers?
57314a6f497a881900248d61
14th
256
False
In what kind of countries is the celebration of Valentine's day forbidden?
57314a6f497a881900248d62
Islamic
554
False
Which nation forbade the sale of Valentine's Day products in 2002 and 2011?
57314a6f497a881900248d63
Saudi Arabia
619
False
Saint Valentine
0
Who was martyred in about 269 AD?
5ad4eb5c5b96ef001a10a656
True
Saudi Arabia, Pakistan and Iran
583
Where was Saint Valentine's Day condemned in 2002?
5ad4eb5c5b96ef001a10a657
True
a Christian holiday
785
What type of holiday does China consider Saint Valentine's Day to be?
5ad4eb5c5b96ef001a10a658
True
in the 14th century
249
When did Japan begin to celebrate Saint Valentine's Day?
5ad4eb5c5b96ef001a10a659
True
Saint Valentine, a Roman Catholic Bishop or priest who was martyred in about 296 AD, seems to have had no known connection with romantic love, but the day of his martyrdom on the Roman Catholic calendar, Saint Valentine's Day (February 14), became, in the 14th century, an occasion for lovers to send messages to each other. In recent years the celebration of Saint Valentine' s day has spread beyond Christian countries to Japan and China and other parts of the world. The celebration of Saint Valentine's Day is forbidden or strongly condemned in many Islamic countries, including Saudi Arabia, Pakistan and Iran. In Saudi Arabia, in 2002 and 2011, religious police banned the sale of all Valentine's Day items, telling shop workers to remove any red items, as the day is considered a Christian holiday.
What color gowns are generally worn by recent Doctors of Philosophy at Oxford?
57314b13497a881900248d69
Scarlet
245
False
What good traits is the color red associated with in China?
57314b13497a881900248d6a
good fortune and prosperity
407
False
In what century did Saint Nicholas become the influence for red being worn by Santa Claus?
57314b13497a881900248d6b
4th
589
False
Who was Saint Nicholas?
57314b13497a881900248d6c
the Greek Christian Bishop of Myra
633
False
In what nation is Myra?
57314b13497a881900248d6d
Turkey
683
False
Red
0
What color to brides wear in Christian countries?
5ad4ec5c5b96ef001a10a67c
True
Greek Christian Bishop of Myra
637
Who was the 4th century Santa Claus in Turkey?
5ad4ec5c5b96ef001a10a67d
True
Scarlet
245
What color gowns are worn on red carpets?
5ad4ec5c5b96ef001a10a67e
True
Scarlet academic gowns
245
What do all Doctors of Philosophy wear?
5ad4ec5c5b96ef001a10a67f
True
Red is the color most commonly associated with joy and well being. It is the color of celebration and ceremony. A red carpet is often used to welcome distinguished guests. Red is also the traditional color of seats in opera houses and theaters. Scarlet academic gowns are worn by new Doctors of Philosophy at degree ceremonies at Oxford University and other schools. In China, it is considered the color of good fortune and prosperity, and it is the color traditionally worn by brides. In Christian countries, it is the color traditionally worn at Christmas by Santa Claus, because in the 4th century the historic Saint Nicholas was the Greek Christian Bishop of Myra, in modern-day Turkey, and bishops then dressed in red.
What did a red flag signal in the Middle Ages?
57314bf3497a881900248d79
defenders of a town or castle would fight to defend it
102
False
What was the importance of a red flag flown by a warship in the Middle Ages?
57314bf3497a881900248d7a
they would show no mercy to their enemy
200
False
Which British law forbade cars from following a bearer of a red flag as a warning to horse drawn vehicles?
57314bf3497a881900248d7b
the Locomotives on Highways Act 1896
375
False
Under what circimstance is a red flag flown in auto racing?
57314bf3497a881900248d7c
if there is danger to the drivers
476
False
What is a football player shown before being ejected from a match?
57314bf3497a881900248d7d
a red penalty card
602
False
in the early days of motoring, motor cars had to follow a man with a red flag who would warn horse-drawn vehicles
253
What did the Highway Act of 1869 abolish?
5ad4eefb5b96ef001a10a6a8
True
a player who has made a serious violation of the rules is shown a red penalty card and ejected from the game.
538
What does a red flag signify in football?
5ad4eefb5b96ef001a10a6a9
True
man with a red flag who would warn horse-drawn vehicles
311
What did motor cars have to follow in the Middle Ages?
5ad4eefb5b96ef001a10a6aa
True
Red is the traditional color of warning and danger. In the Middle Ages, a red flag announced that the defenders of a town or castle would fight to defend it, and a red flag hoisted by a warship meant they would show no mercy to their enemy. In Britain, in the early days of motoring, motor cars had to follow a man with a red flag who would warn horse-drawn vehicles, before the Locomotives on Highways Act 1896 abolished this law. In automobile races, the red flag is raised if there is danger to the drivers. In international football, a player who has made a serious violation of the rules is shown a red penalty card and ejected from the game.
In what city did the standardization of red as a color of stop lights occur?
57314cbca5e9cc1400cdbe2b
Vienna
145
False
In what year did nations standardize on red as a color for stop lights?
57314cbca5e9cc1400cdbe2c
1968
192
False
At what event did the color red become the standard color of stop lights?
57314cbca5e9cc1400cdbe2d
Vienna Convention on Road Signs and Signals of 1968
145
False
Red is the color of stoplights due to its universal affiliation with what?
57314cbca5e9cc1400cdbe2e
danger and warning
579
False
At what time is red at its brightest?
57314cbca5e9cc1400cdbe2f
daytime
257
False
Vienna Convention on Road Signs and Signals
145
What took place in 1986?
5ad4efba5b96ef001a10a6d6
True
Red
0
What was standardized as the international color at the Vienna Road Signs Convention?
5ad4efba5b96ef001a10a6d7
True
red
227
What color next to red is the brightest in the daytime?
5ad4efba5b96ef001a10a6d8
True
the most visible color
336
What is orange considered during twilight?
5ad4efba5b96ef001a10a6d9
True
Red is the international color of stop signs and stop lights on highways and intersections. It was standarized as the international color at the Vienna Convention on Road Signs and Signals of 1968. It was chosen partly because red is the brightest color in daytime (next to orange), though it is less visible at twilight, when green is the most visible color. Red also stands out more clearly against a cool natural backdrop of blue sky, green trees or gray buildings. But it was mostly chosen as the color for stoplights and stop signs because of its universal association with danger and warning.
In what way is red used in contemporary fashion?
57314df805b4da19006bd014
to attract the eyes of the viewer to the person
72
False
What is the main impact of people wearing red as it relates to the perception of distance?
57314df805b4da19006bd015
People wearing red seem to be closer
167
False
Why do monarchs sometimes wear red?
57314df805b4da19006bd016
to be visible from a distance in a crowd
370
False
Some professions require employees to wear red because it allows them to be what?
57314df805b4da19006bd017
easily found
492
False
Medieval
53
What older period was red used in fashion?
5ad4f0d05b96ef001a10a6f0
True
Red
0
What color causes people to be seen as further away even though distance is the same?
5ad4f0d05b96ef001a10a6f1
True
Red
0
What color is used in modern fashion so the person can be easily found?
5ad4f0d05b96ef001a10a6f2
True
Monarchs, wives of Presidential candidates and other celebrities
290
What prominent people do not wear red because they can be easily found in a crowd?
5ad4f0d05b96ef001a10a6f3
True
Red is used in modern fashion much as it was used in Medieval painting; to attract the eyes of the viewer to the person who is supposed to be the center of attention. People wearing red seem to be closer than those dressed in other colors, even if they are actually the same distance away. Monarchs, wives of Presidential candidates and other celebrities often wear red to be visible from a distance in a crowd. It is also commonly worn by lifeguards and others whose job requires them to be easily found.
How many heads did the scarlet beast which a woman sat on have?
57314ebde6313a140071ce00
seven heads
146
False
The horned scarlet beast that a woman sat on had how many horns?
57314ebde6313a140071ce01
ten
162
False
What kind of cup did the woman on the scarlet horned beast have?
57314ebde6313a140071ce02
golden
292
False
What was on the forehead of the woman on the scarlet horned beast?
57314ebde6313a140071ce03
a name
398
False
Outside of the blood of the saints, on what did the woman on the scarlet horned beast become drunken?
57314ebde6313a140071ce04
the blood of the martyrs of Jesus
574
False
a scarlet coloured beast
85
What had seven horns?
5ad4f17d5b96ef001a10a716
True
a scarlet coloured beast
85
What had ten heads?
5ad4f17d5b96ef001a10a717
True
forehead
385
Where was "Mother the Great, Babylon of Harlots" written on the woman?
5ad4f17d5b96ef001a10a718
True
"So he carried me away in the spirit into the wilderness: and I saw a woman sit upon a scarlet coloured beast, full of names of blasphemy, having seven heads and ten horns. "And the woman was arrayed in purple and scarlet colour, and decked with gold and precious stones and pearls, having a golden cup in her hand full of abominations and filthiness of her fornication: "And upon her forehead was a name written a mystery: Babylon the Great, the Mother of Harlots and of all the abominations of the earth: And I saw the woman drunken with the blood of the saints, and with the blood of the martyrs of Jesus.
Which cardinal direction is signified by red in China?
573153a7a5e9cc1400cdbe81
south
106
False
What season is red identified with in China?
573153a7a5e9cc1400cdbe82
summer
312
False
Red paper is used to wrap gifts of money during what special celebration in China?
573153a7a5e9cc1400cdbe83
Chinese New Year
657
False
Who wrote the Little Red Book?
573153a7a5e9cc1400cdbe84
Chairman Mao Tse-Tung
1068
False
In what year was the Little Red Book published?
573153a7a5e9cc1400cdbe85
1966
1165
False
courage, loyalty, honor, success, fortune, fertility, happiness, passion, and summer
234
What does red signify in southern cultural traditions?
5ad4f29b5b96ef001a10a73a
True
Special red packets
504
What is hong bao the Cantonese word for?
5ad4f29b5b96ef001a10a73b
True
Special red packets
504
What is lai see the Mandarin word for?
5ad4f29b5b96ef001a10a73c
True
People's Republic of China
1114
What does PCR stand for?
5ad4f29b5b96ef001a10a73d
True
Chairman Mao Tse-Tung
1068
Who does the Red Little Book quote?
5ad4f29b5b96ef001a10a73e
True
In China, red (simplified Chinese: 红; traditional Chinese: 紅; pinyin: hóng) is the symbol of fire and the south (both south in general and Southern China specifically). It carries a largely positive connotation, being associated with courage, loyalty, honor, success, fortune, fertility, happiness, passion, and summer. In Chinese cultural traditions, red is associated with weddings (where brides traditionally wear red dresses) and red paper is frequently used to wrap gifts of money or other objects. Special red packets (simplified Chinese: 红包; traditional Chinese: 紅包; pinyin: hóng bāo in Mandarin or lai see in Cantonese) are specifically used during Chinese New Year celebrations for giving monetary gifts. On the more negative side, obituaries are traditionally written in red ink, and to write someone's name in red signals either cutting them out of one's life, or that they have died. Red is also associated with either the feminine or the masculine (yin and yang respectively), depending on the source. The Little Red Book, a collection of quotations from Chairman Mao Tse-Tung, founding father of the People's Republic of China (PRC), was published in 1966 and widely distributed thereafter.
What central African warriors are said to cover themselves in red for celebrations?
573155a6a5e9cc1400cdbea5
Ndembu warriors
19
False
What does the Ndembu culture believe red symbolizes?
573155a6a5e9cc1400cdbea6
life and health
136
False
What color do the Ndembu believe is better than red?
573155a6a5e9cc1400cdbea7
white
298
False
What alternative colors does the Red Cross use in certain parts of Africa?
573155a6a5e9cc1400cdbea8
green and white
497
False
Ndembu
19
What warriors in Africa rub themselves with red paint during celebrations?
5ad4f3a65b96ef001a10a762
True
ambivalent, better than black but not as good as white
249
How is red seen in Africa?
5ad4f3a65b96ef001a10a763
True
green and white
497
What color did the Red Cross change to in Central Africa?
5ad4f3a65b96ef001a10a764
True
red
55
What color are sick people painted with in Africa?
5ad4f3a65b96ef001a10a765
True
In Central Africa, Ndembu warriors rub themselves with red paint during celebrations. Since their culture sees the color as a symbol of life and health, sick people are also painted with it. Like most Central African cultures, the Ndembu see red as ambivalent, better than black but not as good as white. In other parts of Africa, however, red is a color of mourning, representing death. Because red bears are associated with death in many parts of Africa, the Red Cross has changed its colors to green and white in parts of the continent.
When did the Cincinnati Red Stockings come to be?
5731564c05b4da19006bd060
1869
149
False
What team did the Cincinnati Red Stockings become?
5731564c05b4da19006bd061
the Atlanta Braves
205
False
What political movment was red identified with in the 1950s?
5731564c05b4da19006bd062
communism
365
False
What name did the Cincinnati Red Stockings become known as for a time in the 1950s?
5731564c05b4da19006bd063
Redlegs
421
False
Where did the Cincinnati Red Stockings move after leaving Cincinnati?
5731564c05b4da19006bd064
Boston
187
False
The Cincinnati Red Stockings
62
What is the oldest professional baseball team dating back to 1896?
5ad4f5dc5b96ef001a10a7b0
True
e oldest professional baseball team
97
What dates back to 1896?
5ad4f5dc5b96ef001a10a7b1
True
Boston
187
Where did the 1896 Cincinnati Red Stockings relocate to?
5ad4f5dc5b96ef001a10a7b2
True
1950s
321
What year was red associated with communism?
5ad4f5dc5b96ef001a10a7b3
True
red
603
What color are the Anaheim Angels known for?
5ad4f5dc5b96ef001a10a7b4
True
Major League Baseball is especially well known for red teams. The Cincinnati Red Stockings are the oldest professional baseball team, dating back to 1869. The franchise soon relocated to Boston and is now the Atlanta Braves, but its name survives as the origin for both the Cincinnati Reds and Boston Red Sox. During the 1950s when red was strongly associated with communism, the modern Cincinnati team was known as the "Redlegs" and the term was used on baseball cards. After the red scare faded, the team was known as the "Reds" again. The Los Angeles Angels of Anaheim are also known for their color red, as are the St. Louis Cardinals, Arizona Diamondbacks, and the Philadelphia Phillies.
What color jersey does Bayern Munich wear?
573156d305b4da19006bd074
red
137
False
What is the nickname given to A.C. Milan?
573156d305b4da19006bd075
i rossoneri
235
False
What has to occur for a player in association football to be shown a red penalty card?
573156d305b4da19006bd076
a serious infraction
399
False
What occurs when a player in association football is shown a red penalty card?
573156d305b4da19006bd077
the player is immediately disqualified from further play
421
False
How is an association football team impacted when a player is shown a red penalty card?
573156d305b4da19006bd078
his team must continue with one less player for the game's duration
482
False
Manchester United, Bayern Munich, Liverpool, Arsenal, Toronto FC, and S.L. Benfica
39
What association football teams wear all red jerseys?
5ad4f6815b96ef001a10a7cc
True
AFC Ajax, Olympiacos, River Plate, Atlético Madrid, and Flamengo
280
What other sports teams wear all red jerseys?
5ad4f6815b96ef001a10a7cd
True
red
348
What color card is given for an infraction?
5ad4f6815b96ef001a10a7ce
True
In association football, teams such as Manchester United, Bayern Munich, Liverpool, Arsenal, Toronto FC, and S.L. Benfica primarily wear red jerseys. Other teams that prominently feature red on their kits include A.C. Milan (nicknamed i rossoneri for their red and black shirts), AFC Ajax, Olympiacos, River Plate, Atlético Madrid, and Flamengo. A red penalty card is issued to a player who commits a serious infraction: the player is immediately disqualified from further play and his team must continue with one less player for the game's duration.
In Christian nations what does the color red often become associated with?
5731577d497a881900248e25
Christ's blood
261
False
What cross is on the British flag?
5731577d497a881900248e26
the cross of Saint George
505
False
As it relates to England, who is Saint George?
5731577d497a881900248e27
patron saint of England
532
False
Which US armed force uses red as the main color of its flag?
5731577d497a881900248e28
the United States Marine Corps
1307
False
In terms of a beach, why might one see a red flag?
5731577d497a881900248e29
bad water conditions
1181
False
Red
0
What is the most common color used on national flags?
5ad4f7e35b96ef001a10a804
True
red, white, and blue
471
What colors do all former British colonies use on their flags?
5ad4f7e35b96ef001a10a805
True
red
1072
What color do all of the former colonies of Spain have on their flag?
5ad4f7e35b96ef001a10a806
True
Red
1264
What color is prominently featured in the flag of the United States Corps Marines?
5ad4f7e35b96ef001a10a807
True
red and yellow
1248
What colors are on the Spanish Navy flag?
5ad4f7e35b96ef001a10a808
True
Red is one of the most common colors used on national flags. The use of red has similar connotations from country to country: the blood, sacrifice, and courage of those who defended their country; the sun and the hope and warmth it brings; and the sacrifice of Christ's blood (in some historically Christian nations) are a few examples. Red is the color of the flags of several countries that once belonged to the former British Empire. The British flag bears the colors red, white, and blue; it includes the cross of Saint George, patron saint of England, and the saltire of Saint Patrick, patron saint of Ireland, both of which are red on white. The flag of the United States bears the colors of Britain, the colors of the French tricolore include red as part of the old Paris coat of arms, and other countries' flags, such as those of Australia, New Zealand, and Fiji, carry a small inset of the British flag in memory of their ties to that country. Many former colonies of Spain, such as Mexico, Colombia, Ecuador, Cuba, Puerto Rico, Peru, and Venezuela, also feature red-one of the colors of the Spanish flag-on their own banners. Red flags are also used to symbolize storms, bad water conditions, and many other dangers. Navy flags are often red and yellow. Red is prominently featured in the flag of the United States Marine Corps.
When did the Slavic solidarity movement choose red blue and white as their colors?
5731584905b4da19006bd07e
the late nineteenth century
97
False
In what year did the nation of George get a new national flag?
5731584905b4da19006bd07f
2004
480
False
What is in the middle of the Georgian flag?
5731584905b4da19006bd080
one big red cross
552
False
How many small crosses are on the Georgian flag?
5731584905b4da19006bd081
four
537
False
What were the Pan-Slavic colors originally?
5731584905b4da19006bd082
the colors of the Russian flag
147
False
Red, blue, and white
0
What colors were adopted by the Pan solidarity movement?
5ad4f89c5b96ef001a10a818
True
late nineteenth century
101
When did the Pan solidarity movement take place?
5ad4f89c5b96ef001a10a819
True
for historic heraldic reasons
341
Why do Georgia and Poland use red on their flags?
5ad4f89c5b96ef001a10a81a
True
white
507
What color flag did the Czech Republic adopt in 2004?
5ad4f89c5b96ef001a10a81b
True
Red, blue, and white are also the Pan-Slavic colors adopted by the Slavic solidarity movement of the late nineteenth century. Initially these were the colors of the Russian flag; as the Slavic movement grew, they were adopted by other Slavic peoples including Slovaks, Slovenes, and Serbs. The flags of the Czech Republic and Poland use red for historic heraldic reasons (see Coat of arms of Poland and Coat of arms of the Czech Republic) & not due to Pan-Slavic connotations. In 2004 Georgia adopted a new white flag, which consists of four small and one big red cross in the middle touching all four sides.
During what time period did the German Empire use the colors red white and black?
5731599ee6313a140071ce68
1870 to 1918
64
False
What did red white and black become associated with in Germany?
5731599ee6313a140071ce69
German nationalism
122
False
In what era did red white and black become part of the Nazi flag?
5731599ee6313a140071ce6a
1920s
149
False
Red was chosen as part of the Nazi flag to do what?
5731599ee6313a140071ce6b
attract attention
360
False
Whose design was the Nazi flag?
5731599ee6313a140071ce6c
Hitler's personal design
766
False
Red, white, and black
0
What were the colors of the German Empire from 1818 to 1970?
5ad4fa335b96ef001a10a848
True
Nazi
194
What flag were the colors black, red, and white associated with in 1920?
5ad4fa335b96ef001a10a849
True
Hitler
220
Who explained the colors in Kampf Mein?
5ad4fa335b96ef001a10a84a
True
Nazis
633
What workers was the social program of the Germans aimed at?
5ad4fa335b96ef001a10a84b
True
Red, white, and black were the colors of the German Empire from 1870 to 1918, and as such they came to be associated with German nationalism. In the 1920s they were adopted as the colors of the Nazi flag. In Mein Kampf, Hitler explained that they were "revered colors expressive of our homage to the glorious past." The red part of the flag was also chosen to attract attention - Hitler wrote: "the new flag ... should prove effective as a large poster" because "in hundreds of thousands of cases a really striking emblem may be the first cause of awakening interest in a movement." The red also symbolized the social program of the Nazis, aimed at German workers. Several designs by a number of different authors were considered, but the one adopted in the end was Hitler's personal design.
After the demise of what was the red flag linked to the French Revolution?
57315bfaa5e9cc1400cdbf01
Bastille
92
False
On what date was the Garde Nationale empowered to hoist a red flag to signal their intervention in a riot?
57315bfaa5e9cc1400cdbf02
October 20, 1789
141
False
On what date did the Garde Nationale kill as many as fifty people on Champs de Mars?
57315bfaa5e9cc1400cdbf03
July 17, 1791
336
False
Who wrote the words "Against us they have raised the bloody flag of tyranny?"
57315bfaa5e9cc1400cdbf04
Rouget de Lisle
535
False
In what year did the most ardent revolutionaries in France adopt a red flag to symbolize the blood of their fallen comrades?
57315bfaa5e9cc1400cdbf05
1790
690
False
red flag
4
What appeared after the Bastille Revolution?
5ad4fc2f5b96ef001a10a88c
True
authorized the Garde Nationale to raise the red flag in the event of a riot, to signal that the Garde would imminently intervene
158
What did an October 20, 1879 law state?
5ad4fc2f5b96ef001a10a88d
True
the Garde Nationale fired on the crowd, killed up to fifty people.
351
What happened during a 1971 demonstration?
5ad4fc2f5b96ef001a10a88e
True
"Against us they have raised the bloody flag of tyranny!"
558
What did Lisle de Rouget write?
5ad4fc2f5b96ef001a10a88f
True
the most radical revolutionaries adopted the red flag themselves,
696
What began in 1709?
5ad4fc2f5b96ef001a10a890
True
The red flag appeared as a political symbol during the French Revolution, after the fall of Bastille. A law adopted by the new government on October 20, 1789 authorized the Garde Nationale to raise the red flag in the event of a riot, to signal that the Garde would imminently intervene. During a demonstration on the Champs de Mars on July 17, 1791, the Garde Nationale fired on the crowd, killed up to fifty people. The government was denounced by the more radical revolutionaries. In the words of his famous hymn, the Marseillaise, Rouget de Lisle wrote: "Against us they have raised the bloody flag of tyranny!" (Contre nous de la tyrannie, l'entendard sanglant est leve). Beginning in 1790, the most radical revolutionaries adopted the red flag themselves, to symbolize the blood of those killed in the demonstrations, and to call for the repression of those they considered counter-revolutionary.
When was the Communist Manifesto first created?
57315cc8e6313a140071ce84
February 1848
47
False
Who wrote the Communist Manifesto?
57315cc8e6313a140071ce85
Karl Marx
0
False
The French Revolution resulted in the fall of which monarch?
57315cc8e6313a140071ce86
Louis Philippe
183
False
When did the 19th century workers of Paris construct barricades and hoist red flags to protest their new government?
57315cc8e6313a140071ce87
June 1848
234
False
Who was tasked with stopping the late 19th century worker uprisings in France?
57315cc8e6313a140071ce88
the French Army
366
False
Communist Manifesto
24
What did Karl Marx publish in 1884?
5ad4fde95b96ef001a10a8b2
True
Karl Marx
0
Who published the Communist Manifesto in 1884?
5ad4fde95b96ef001a10a8b3
True
built barricades and raised red flags
298
What did Paris workers do in June 1488?
5ad4fde95b96ef001a10a8b4
True
Karl Marx published the Communist Manifesto in February 1848, with little attention. However, a few days later the French Revolution of 1848 broke out, which replaced the monarchy of Louis Philippe with the Second French Republic. In June 1848, Paris workers, disenchanted with the new government, built barricades and raised red flags. The new government called in the French Army to put down the uprising, the first of many such confrontations between the army and the new worker's movements in Europe.
Who was defeated in the Franco-Prussian war?
57315e0705b4da19006bd0fe
the French Army
42
False
After Paris was seized as a result of the Franco-Prussian war, what did revolutionaries and workers create?
57315e0705b4da19006bd0ff
the Paris Commune
171
False
For how long did the Paris Commune exist?
57315e0705b4da19006bd100
two months
213
False
Next to whom was a a Paris Commune banner placed?
57315e0705b4da19006bd101
Vladimir Lenin
565
False
In what year did people of the French Communist party go to Moscow to give the Soviet government a Paris Commune banner?
57315e0705b4da19006bd102
1921
372
False
the Germans
61
Who did the French Army defeat in 1870?
5ad5014c5b96ef001a10a91c
True
Franco-Prussian War
80
What war did the French Army defeat the Germans in?
5ad5014c5b96ef001a10a91d
True
members of the French Communist Party came to Moscow and presented the new Soviet government with one of the original Commune banners
377
What happened in 1912?
5ad5014c5b96ef001a10a91e
True
In 1870, following the stunning defeat of the French Army by the Germans in the Franco-Prussian War, French workers and socialist revolutionaries seized Paris and created the Paris Commune. The Commune lasted for two months before it was crushed by the French Army, with much bloodshed. The original red banners of the Commune became icons of the socialist revolution; in 1921 members of the French Communist Party came to Moscow and presented the new Soviet government with one of the original Commune banners; it was placed (and is still in place) in the tomb of Vladimir Lenin, next to his open coffin.
In the USA red states are known to do what, in terms of politics?
57316300497a881900248ea9
vote for Republican candidates in presidential elections
98
False
In the United States states that vote for Democratic presidential candidates are known as what?
57316300497a881900248eaa
blue states
161
False
How many days did the recount after the 2000 US election last for?
57316300497a881900248eab
39
441
False
In what year did the concept of red and blue states become relatively fixed?
57316300497a881900248eac
2000
470
False
vote for the Democratic candidate
181
In 2000, what did commentators refer to as blue states?
5ad504d55b96ef001a10a9e4
True
recount
448
What lasted 93 days in 2000?
5ad504d55b96ef001a10a9e5
True
recount
448
What happened in 2000 causing a 93 day ordeal?
5ad504d55b96ef001a10a9e6
True
In the United States, political commentators often refer to the "red states", which traditionally vote for Republican candidates in presidential elections, and "blue states", which vote for the Democratic candidate. This convention is relatively recent: before the 2000 presidential election, media outlets assigned red and blue to both parties, sometimes alternating the allocation for each election. Fixed usage was established during the 39-day recount following the 2000 election, when the media began to discuss the contest in terms of "red states" versus "blue states".
In what year was the Community Party of China created?
5731639ce6313a140071cec0
1920
41
False
The Community Party of China gained power in China, what year did it happen?
5731639ce6313a140071cec1
1949
190
False
Who was the Party leader of the Communist Party of China when it took power?
5731639ce6313a140071cec2
Mao Zedong
215
False
In terms of the Communist Party of China, what is "The East is Red?"
5731639ce6313a140071cec3
the Party anthem
227
False
How many members does the contemporary Communist Part of China have?
5731639ce6313a140071cec4
eighty million members
618
False
Communist Party of China
4
What was founded in 1902?
5ad5046f5b96ef001a10a9b6
True
red flag and hammer and sickle emblem of the Soviet Union,
59
What flag was adopted by China in 1920?
5ad5046f5b96ef001a10a9b7
True
Communist Party of China
4
Who took power of China in 1994?
5ad5046f5b96ef001a10a9b8
True
"The East Is Red"
251
What did the party anthem become under Zedong Mao?
5ad5046f5b96ef001a10a9b9
True
Communist Party of China
533
What has eighty members?
5ad5046f5b96ef001a10a9ba
True
The Communist Party of China, founded in 1920, adopted the red flag and hammer and sickle emblem of the Soviet Union, which became the national symbols when the Party took power in China in 1949. Under Party leader Mao Zedong, the Party anthem became "The East Is Red", and Mao Zedong himself was sometimes referred to as a "red sun". During the Cultural Revolution in China, Party ideology was enforced by the Red Guards, and the sayings of Mao Zedong were published as a small red book in hundreds of millions of copies. Today the Communist Party of China claims to be the largest political party in the world, with eighty million members.
What did the biggest star on the flag of China in 1949 represent?
57316494e6313a140071ced0
the Communist Party
121
False
In the mid 20th century the flag of Laos was primarily what color?
57316494e6313a140071ced1
red
447
False
What does the red color in the Nepalese flag represent?
57316494e6313a140071ced2
the national flower
665
False
In what year during the 20th century did the Chinese flag become red?
57316494e6313a140071ced3
1949
49
False
Which group gained power in China in 1949?
57316494e6313a140071ced4
the Communist Party of China
6
False
Communist Party of China
10
Who took power in China in 1994?
5ad502c35b96ef001a10a972
True
a red flag with a large star
80
What flag symbolizing China was displayed in 1949?
5ad502c35b96ef001a10a973
True
other Communist regimes such as Vietnam and Laos also adopted red flags
385
What happened in 1950?
5ad502c35b96ef001a10a974
True
Cuba
492
What country decided to keep their old flag in 1960?
5ad502c35b96ef001a10a975
True
After the Communist Party of China took power in 1949, the flag of China became a red flag with a large star symbolizing the Communist Party, and smaller stars symbolizing workers, peasants, the urban middle class and rural middle class. The flag of the Communist Party of China became a red banner with a hammer and sickle, similar to that on the Soviet flag. In the 1950s and 1960s, other Communist regimes such as Vietnam and Laos also adopted red flags. Some Communist countries, such as Cuba, chose to keep their old flags; and other countries used red flags which had nothing to do with Communism or socialism; the red flag of Nepal, for instance, represents the national flower.
Egypt
What 2 continents meet at Egypt?
57312d39497a881900248c11
Africa and southwest corner of Asia
191
False
What land bridge between Asian and Africa?
57312d39497a881900248c12
Sinai Peninsula
260
False
How larger is Egypt?
57312d39497a881900248c13
1,010,408 square kilometres
360
False
What Sea borders Egypt to the east?
57312d39497a881900248c14
Red Sea
564
False
What country borders Egypt to the south?
57312d39497a881900248c15
Sudan
595
False
Egypt (i/ˈiːdʒɪpt/; Arabic: مِصر‎ Miṣr, Egyptian Arabic: مَصر Maṣr, Coptic: Ⲭⲏⲙⲓ Khemi), officially the Arab Republic of Egypt, is a transcontinental country spanning the northeast corner of Africa and southwest corner of Asia, via a land bridge formed by the Sinai Peninsula. It is the world's only contiguous Eurafrasian nation. Most of Egypt's territory of 1,010,408 square kilometres (390,000 sq mi) lies within the Nile Valley. Egypt is a Mediterranean country. It is bordered by the Gaza Strip and Israel to the northeast, the Gulf of Aqaba to the east, the Red Sea to the east and south, Sudan to the south and Libya to the west.
How far back does Egypt's history date back?
57313756a5e9cc1400cdbd05
tenth millennium BC
77
False
Why is Egypt considered a cradle of civilisation?
57313756a5e9cc1400cdbd06
earliest developments of writing, agriculture, urbanisation, organised religion and central government
215
False
What were some of Egypt's foreign influences?
57313756a5e9cc1400cdbd07
Greek, Persian, Roman, Arab, Ottoman, and European
725
False
What are iconic monumuents of Egypt?
57313756a5e9cc1400cdbd08
Giza Necropolis and its Great Sphinx
348
False
In what century were islamic conquests of Egypt?
57313756a5e9cc1400cdbd09
seventh century
906
False
Egypt has one of the longest histories of any modern country, arising in the tenth millennium BC as one of the world's first nation states. Considered a cradle of civilisation, Ancient Egypt experienced some of the earliest developments of writing, agriculture, urbanisation, organised religion and central government. Iconic monuments such as the Giza Necropolis and its Great Sphinx, as well the ruins of Memphis, Thebes, Karnak, and the Valley of the Kings, reflect this legacy and remain a significant focus of archaeological study and popular interest worldwide. Egypt's rich cultural heritage is an integral part of its national identity, having endured, and at times assimilated, various foreign influences, including Greek, Persian, Roman, Arab, Ottoman, and European. Although Christianised in the first century of the Common Era, it was subsequently Islamised due to the Islamic conquests of the seventh century.
How many inhabitants does Egypt have?
5731385505b4da19006bcee0
over 90 million
5
False
What is the rank of Egypt popultaion among African nations?
5731385505b4da19006bcee1
third-most populous in Africa
109
False
Majority of Egypt people live near what river?
5731385505b4da19006bcee2
Nile River
275
False
What desert constitutes most of Egypt territory?
5731385505b4da19006bcee3
Sahara desert
407
False
With over 90 million inhabitants, Egypt is the most populous country in North Africa and the Arab World, the third-most populous in Africa (after Nigeria and Ethiopia), and the fifteenth-most populous in the world. The great majority of its people live near the banks of the Nile River, an area of about 40,000 square kilometres (15,000 sq mi), where the only arable land is found. The large regions of the Sahara desert, which constitute most of Egypt's territory, are sparsely inhabited. About half of Egypt's residents live in urban areas, with most spread across the densely populated centres of greater Cairo, Alexandria and other major cities in the Nile Delta.
What leader stepped down in 2011?
57313d70497a881900248cb7
President Hosni Mubarak
371
False
What party rose to power after 2011 resignation of Egypt leader?
57313d70497a881900248cb8
Muslim Brotherhood
464
False
What economic sectors does Egypt have?
57313d70497a881900248cb9
tourism, agriculture, industry and services
274
False
What influence does Egypt have?
57313d70497a881900248cba
cultural, political, and military influence in North Africa, the Middle East and the Muslim world
79
False
Modern Egypt is considered to be a regional and middle power, with significant cultural, political, and military influence in North Africa, the Middle East and the Muslim world. Its economy is one of the largest and most diversified in the Middle East, with sectors such as tourism, agriculture, industry and services at almost equal production levels. In 2011, longtime President Hosni Mubarak stepped down amid mass protests. Later elections saw the rise of the Muslim Brotherhood, which was ousted by the army a year later amid mass protests.
What is the Egyptian Arabic name for Egypt?
57313f1e497a881900248ccf
Miṣr
0
False
What is the Hebrew name for Egypt?
57313f1e497a881900248cd0
מִצְרַיִם
343
False
What is the oldest term for Egypt?
57313f1e497a881900248cd1
Akkadian
419
False
What does the oldest know term for Egypt translate to?
57313f1e497a881900248cd2
"border" or "frontier".
496
False
Miṣr (IPA: [mi̠sˤr] or Egyptian Arabic pronunciation: [mesˤɾ]; Arabic: مِصر‎) is the Classical Quranic Arabic and modern official name of Egypt, while Maṣr (IPA: [mɑsˤɾ]; Egyptian Arabic: مَصر) is the local pronunciation in Egyptian Arabic. The name is of Semitic origin, directly cognate with other Semitic words for Egypt such as the Hebrew מִצְרַיִם (Mitzráyim). The oldest attestation of this name for Egypt is the Akkadian 𒆳 𒈪 𒄑 𒊒 KURmi-iṣ-ru miṣru, related to miṣru/miṣirru/miṣaru, meaning "border" or "frontier".
During 6000 BC what area was occupied by a Neolithic culture?
5731439c497a881900248d1b
Nile Valley
52
False
What culture succeeded the Naqada culture?
5731439c497a881900248d1c
Badarian culture
174
False
When is the earliest hieroglyghics date back?
5731439c497a881900248d1d
3200 BC
730
False
How long did cultures coexist in lower Egypt?
5731439c497a881900248d1e
more than two thousand years
470
False
By about 6000 BC, a Neolithic culture rooted in the Nile Valley. During the Neolithic era, several predynastic cultures developed independently in Upper and Lower Egypt. The Badarian culture and the successor Naqada series are generally regarded as precursors to dynastic Egypt. The earliest known Lower Egyptian site, Merimda, predates the Badarian by about seven hundred years. Contemporaneous Lower Egyptian communities coexisted with their southern counterparts for more than two thousand years, remaining culturally distinct, but maintaining frequent contact through trade. The earliest known evidence of Egyptian hieroglyphic inscriptions appeared during the predynastic period on Naqada III pottery vessels, dated to about 3200 BC.
How long was the upheval of the first Intermediate period?
573144cc497a881900248d2d
150 years
80
False
In 1650 BC Lower Egypt was control by what invaders?
573144cc497a881900248d2e
Hyksos
422
False
What new capital was founded in 1650, lower Egypt?
573144cc497a881900248d2f
Avaris
512
False
What was the first foreign ruling dynasty of Egypt?
573144cc497a881900248d30
Semitic Hyksos
402
False
The First Intermediate Period ushered in a time of political upheaval for about 150 years. Stronger Nile floods and stabilisation of government, however, brought back renewed prosperity for the country in the Middle Kingdom c. 2040 BC, reaching a peak during the reign of Pharaoh Amenemhat III. A second period of disunity heralded the arrival of the first foreign ruling dynasty in Egypt, that of the Semitic Hyksos. The Hyksos invaders took over much of Lower Egypt around 1650 BC and founded a new capital at Avaris. They were driven out by an Upper Egyptian force led by Ahmose I, who founded the Eighteenth Dynasty and relocated the capital from Memphis to Thebes.
What year were the New Kingdom in control?
573147d7e6313a140071cdb2
1550–1070 BC
19
False
What dynasty maked the rise of Egypt as international power?
573147d7e6313a140071cdb3
Eighteenth Dynasty
47
False
Who were some well known Pharaohs of the New Kindom?
573147d7e6313a140071cdb4
Hatshepsut, Thutmose III, Akhenaten and his wife Nefertiti, Tutankhamun and Ramesses II
328
False
Who were some of the invaders to Egypt during the New Kingdom?
573147d7e6313a140071cdb5
Libyans, Nubians and Assyrians
632
False
The New Kingdom c. 1550–1070 BC began with the Eighteenth Dynasty, marking the rise of Egypt as an international power that expanded during its greatest extension to an empire as far south as Tombos in Nubia, and included parts of the Levant in the east. This period is noted for some of the most well known Pharaohs, including Hatshepsut, Thutmose III, Akhenaten and his wife Nefertiti, Tutankhamun and Ramesses II. The first historically attested expression of monotheism came during this period as Atenism. Frequent contacts with other nations brought new ideas to the New Kingdom. The country was later invaded and conquered by Libyans, Nubians and Assyrians, but native Egyptians eventually drove them out and regained control of their country.
Who took control of Egypt in 525 BC?
57314908497a881900248d57
Achaemenid Persians
24
False
What pharaoh was captured by the group led by Camyses II?
57314908497a881900248d58
Psamtik III
129
False
From where did Camyses II rule Egypt?
57314908497a881900248d59
Susa in Persia
255
False
What was the duration of the 27th dynasty of Egypt?
57314908497a881900248d5a
525 BC to 402 BC,
380
False
In 525 BC, the powerful Achaemenid Persians, led by Cambyses II, began their conquest of Egypt, eventually capturing the pharaoh Psamtik III at the battle of Pelusium. Cambyses II then assumed the formal title of pharaoh, but ruled Egypt from his home of Susa in Persia (modern Iran), leaving Egypt under the control of a satrapy. The entire Twenty-seventh Dynasty of Egypt, from 525 BC to 402 BC, save for Petubastis III, was an entirely Persian ruled period, with the Achaemenid kings all being granted the title of pharaoh. A few temporarily successful revolts against the Persians marked the fifth century BC, but Egypt was never able to permanently overthrow the Persians.
What were the reaches of the Ptolemaic Kingdom?
57315327e6313a140071ce20
Syria in the east, to Cyrene to the west, and south to the frontier with Nubia
80
False
What was the capital in the Prolemaic Kingdom?
57315327e6313a140071ce21
Alexandria
160
False
What were leaders known as during Ptolemaic Kingdom?
57315327e6313a140071ce22
Pharaohs
336
False
What religious life was the Ptolemaic Kingdom?
57315327e6313a140071ce23
Egyptian
489
False
The Ptolemaic Kingdom was a powerful Hellenistic state, extending from southern Syria in the east, to Cyrene to the west, and south to the frontier with Nubia. Alexandria became the capital city and a centre of Greek culture and trade. To gain recognition by the native Egyptian populace, they named themselves as the successors to the Pharaohs. The later Ptolemies took on Egyptian traditions, had themselves portrayed on public monuments in Egyptian style and dress, and participated in Egyptian religious life.
Who was last ruler of Ptolemaic Kingdom?
573154ae05b4da19006bd048
Cleopatra VII
43
False
Who captured Alexandria, ending Ptolemaic rule?
573154ae05b4da19006bd049
Octavian
193
False
How did Mark Anthony's love die?
573154ae05b4da19006bd04a
suicide
72
False
What culture annexed Egypt?
573154ae05b4da19006bd04b
Rome
452
False
The last ruler from the Ptolemaic line was Cleopatra VII, who committed suicide following the burial of her lover Mark Antony who had died in her arms (from a self-inflicted stab wound), after Octavian had captured Alexandria and her mercenary forces had fled. The Ptolemies faced rebellions of native Egyptians often caused by an unwanted regime and were involved in foreign and civil wars that led to the decline of the kingdom and its annexation by Rome. Nevertheless, Hellenistic culture continued to thrive in Egypt well after the Muslim conquest.
Who took control of Egypt from Sasanian Persian rule?
57315661e6313a140071ce32
Byzantines
4
False
What war gave Sasanin Persians control of Egypt?
57315661e6313a140071ce33
Byzantine–Sasanian War of 602–628
134
False
How long were Sasanin Persians ruling Egypt?
57315661e6313a140071ce34
ten years
229
False
What religion did Arabs bring to Egypt?
57315661e6313a140071ce35
Sunni Islam
426
False
The Byzantines were able to regain control of the country after a brief Sasanian Persian invasion early in the 7th century amidst the Byzantine–Sasanian War of 602–628 during which they established a new short-lived province for ten years known as Sasanian Egypt, until 639–42, when Egypt was invaded and conquered by the Islamic Empire by the Muslim Arabs. When they defeated the Byzantine Armies in Egypt, the Arabs brought Sunni Islam to the country. Early in this period, Egyptians began to blend their new faith with indigenous beliefs and practices, leading to various Sufi orders that have flourished to this day. These earlier rites had survived the period of Coptic Christianity.
Who modernized Egyptian army?
57315767a5e9cc1400cdbec1
Muhammad Ali Pasha
0
False
In what 2 ways was Army improved?
57315767a5e9cc1400cdbec2
strengthening it with numbers and in skill
249
False
Why did military use barracks?
57315767a5e9cc1400cdbec3
to avoid distraction of their growth
442
False
What traits grew among military men that helped Ali maintain rule?
57315767a5e9cc1400cdbec4
nationalism and pride
630
False
Muhammad Ali Pasha evolved the military from one that convened under the tradition of the corvée to a great modernised army. He introduced conscription of the male peasantry in 19th century Egypt, and took a novel approach to create his great army, strengthening it with numbers and in skill. Education and training of the new soldiers was not an option; the new concepts were furthermore enforced by isolation. The men were held in barracks to avoid distraction of their growth as a military unit to be reckoned with. The resentment for the military way of life eventually faded from the men and a new ideology took hold, one of nationalism and pride. It was with the help of this newly reborn martial unit that Muhammad Ali imposed his rule over Egypt.
Who partnered with Egypt to build Suez Canal?
5731583a497a881900248e44
French
46
False
In what year did Egypt sell its portion of Suez Canal?
5731583a497a881900248e45
1875
212
False
To whom did Egypt sell its interest in Suez Canal?
5731583a497a881900248e46
British Government
277
False
Who sold Egypt's portion of Suez?
5731583a497a881900248e47
Ismail
217
False
The Suez Canal, built in partnership with the French, was completed in 1869. Its construction led to enormous debt to European banks, and caused popular discontent because of the onerous taxation it required. In 1875 Ismail was forced to sell Egypt's share in the canal to the British Government. Within three years this led to the imposition of British and French controllers who sat in the Egyptian cabinet, and, "with the financial power of the bondholders behind them, were the real power in the Government."
When was new constitution drafted?
5731596ee6313a140071ce5e
1923
61
False
What system of government was constitution based on?
5731596ee6313a140071ce5f
parliamentary system
77
False
Who was elected in 1924?
5731596ee6313a140071ce60
Saad Zaghlul
99
False
Who succeeded King Farouk?
5731596ee6313a140071ce61
his son Fuad
495
False
How long did British military presence remain in Egypt?
5731596ee6313a140071ce62
1954
557
False
The new government drafted and implemented a constitution in 1923 based on a parliamentary system. Saad Zaghlul was popularly elected as Prime Minister of Egypt in 1924. In 1936, the Anglo-Egyptian Treaty was concluded. Continued instability due to remaining British influence and increasing political involvement by the king led to the dissolution of the parliament in a military coup d'état known as the 1952 Revolution. The Free Officers Movement forced King Farouk to abdicate in support of his son Fuad. British military presence in Egypt lasted until 1954.
In what year did Egypt and Syria Form a sovereign union?
57315ab9a5e9cc1400cdbee7
1958
3
False
What was the sovereign union with Syria known?
57315ab9a5e9cc1400cdbee8
United Arab Republic
63
False
How long did the union with Syria last?
57315ab9a5e9cc1400cdbee9
1961
122
False
In 1958, Egypt and Syria formed a sovereign union known as the United Arab Republic. The union was short-lived, ending in 1961 when Syria seceded, thus ending the union. During most of its existence, the United Arab Republic was also in a loose confederation with North Yemen (or the Mutawakkilite Kingdom of Yemen), known as the United Arab States. In 1959, the All-Palestine Government of the Gaza Strip, an Egyptian client state, was absorbed into the United Arab Republic under the pretext of Arab union, and was never restored.
Who warned of impending Israeli attack on Syria in May 1967?
57315bf205b4da19006bd0c4
Soviet Union i
21
False
Who found the claims of Israeli attack baseless?
57315bf205b4da19006bd0c5
Mohamed Fawzi
129
False
How many steps did Nasser take in preparation for war?
57315bf205b4da19006bd0c6
three successive steps
184
False
On what day did Nasser state "The battle will be a general one and our basic objective will be to destroy Israel?"
57315bf205b4da19006bd0c7
23 May
420
False
In mid May 1967, the Soviet Union issued warnings to Nasser of an impending Israeli attack on Syria. Although the chief of staff Mohamed Fawzi verified them as "baseless", Nasser took three successive steps that made the war virtually inevitable: On 14 May he deployed his troops in Sinai near the border with Israel, on 19 May he expelled the UN peacekeepers stationed in the Sinai Peninsula border with Israel, and on 23 May he closed the Straits of Tiran to Israeli shipping. On 26 May Nasser declared, "The battle will be a general one and our basic objective will be to destroy Israel".
How many rich, upper class were in Egypt in 1950s?
57315d4be6313a140071ce8e
less than half a million
69
False
How many middle class were in Egypt in 1950s
57315d4be6313a140071ce8f
four million
142
False
How many lower class were in Egypt in 1950s
57315d4be6313a140071ce90
17 million
172
False
What professions made up the buld on middle class under Nasser?
57315d4be6313a140071ce91
Doctors, engineers, teachers, lawyers, journalists
725
False
What direction did the Egypt economy take in the 1960s?
57315d4be6313a140071ce92
went from sluggish to the verge of collapse
889
False
At the time of the fall of the Egyptian monarchy in the early 1950s, less than half a million Egyptians were considered upper class and rich, four million middle class and 17 million lower class and poor. Fewer than half of all primary-school-age children attended school, most of them being boys. Nasser's policies changed this. Land reform and distribution, the dramatic growth in university education, and government support to national industries greatly improved social mobility and flattened the social curve. From academic year 1953-54 through 1965-66, overall public school enrolments more than doubled. Millions of previously poor Egyptians, through education and jobs in the public sector, joined the middle class. Doctors, engineers, teachers, lawyers, journalists, constituted the bulk of the swelling middle class in Egypt under Nasser. During the 1960s, the Egyptian economy went from sluggish to the verge of collapse, the society became less free, and Nasser's appeal waned considerably.
When did Nasser die?
57315e23e6313a140071ce9e
1970
3
False
Who succeeded Nasser?
57315e23e6313a140071ce9f
Anwar Sadat
52
False
Which side of the Cold War was Sadat?
57315e23e6313a140071cea0
United States,
137
False
What was the October War?
57315e23e6313a140071cea1
surprise attack to regain part of the Sinai territory Israel had captured 6 years earlier
354
False
What did Sadat exchange for the remainder of Sinai?
57315e23e6313a140071cea2
peace with Israel
536
False
In 1970, President Nasser died and was succeeded by Anwar Sadat. Sadat switched Egypt's Cold War allegiance from the Soviet Union to the United States, expelling Soviet advisors in 1972. He launched the Infitah economic reform policy, while clamping down on religious and secular opposition. In 1973, Egypt, along with Syria, launched the October War, a surprise attack to regain part of the Sinai territory Israel had captured 6 years earlier. it presented Sadat with a victory that allowed him to regain the Sinai later in return for peace with Israel.
What was encouraged through Infitah?
57315ef905b4da19006bd108
foreign investment
130
False
What tools did Infitah use to attract investment?
57315ef905b4da19006bd109
reduced taxes and import tariffs
221
False
What occured in 1977?
57315ef905b4da19006bd10a
Egyptian Bread Riots.
630
False
What was largely ignored and upset many of Sadat's polidy?
57315ef905b4da19006bd10b
elimination of subsidies on basic foodstuffs
568
False
In 1975, Sadat shifted Nasser's economic policies and sought to use his popularity to reduce government regulations and encourage foreign investment through his program of Infitah. Through this policy, incentives such as reduced taxes and import tariffs attracted some investors, but investments were mainly directed at low risk and profitable ventures like tourism and construction, abandoning Egypt's infant industries. Even though Sadat's policy was intended to modernise Egypt and assist the middle class, it mainly benefited the higher class, and, because of the elimination of subsidies on basic foodstuffs, led to the 1977 Egyptian Bread Riots.
What group dominated the political scene when Mubarak was in power?
57316483497a881900248ec3
National Democratic Party,
65
False
What laws created in 1990s impacted culture?
57316483497a881900248ec4
1993 Syndicates Law, 1995 Press Law, and 1999 Nongovernmental Associations Law
142
False
When did parliamentary politics become irrelevant in Egypt?
57316483497a881900248ec5
late 1990s
379
False
During Mubarak's reign, the political scene was dominated by the National Democratic Party, which was created by Sadat in 1978. It passed the 1993 Syndicates Law, 1995 Press Law, and 1999 Nongovernmental Associations Law which hampered freedoms of association and expression by imposing new regulations and draconian penalties on violations.[citation needed] As a result, by the late 1990s parliamentary politics had become virtually irrelevant and alternative avenues for political expression were curtailed as well.
What did constitutional changes in 2007 prohibit?
57316581a5e9cc1400cdbf21
parties from using religion as a basis for political activity
57
False
What was the long term goal for Egypt?
57316581a5e9cc1400cdbf22
democracy
471
False
What presidential powers were included in 2007 law changes?
57316581a5e9cc1400cdbf23
power to dissolve parliament and end judicial election monitoring
252
False
What was Dr. Ali El Deen Hilal Dessouki's position?
57316581a5e9cc1400cdbf24
Media Secretary of the National Democratic Party
360
False
Constitutional changes voted on 19 March 2007 prohibited parties from using religion as a basis for political activity, allowed the drafting of a new anti-terrorism law, authorised broad police powers of arrest and surveillance, and gave the president power to dissolve parliament and end judicial election monitoring. In 2009, Dr. Ali El Deen Hilal Dessouki, Media Secretary of the National Democratic Party (NDP), described Egypt as a "pharaonic" political system, and democracy as a "long-term goal". Dessouki also stated that "the real center of power in Egypt is the military".
When was interim government instituted?
573166c9e6313a140071ceea
18 January 2014
3
False
What was the support by voters for referendum?
573166c9e6313a140071ceeb
98.1%
105
False
Who was elected President in 2014?
573166c9e6313a140071ceec
Abdel Fattah el-Sisi
315
False
What group boycotted the elections?
573166c9e6313a140071ceed
Muslim Brotherhood and some liberal and secular activist groups
684
False
On 18 January 2014, the interim government instituted a new constitution following a referendum in which 98.1% of voters were supportive. Participation was low with only 38.6% of registered voters participating although this was higher than the 33% who voted in a referendum during Morsi's tenure. On 26 March 2014 Abdel Fattah el-Sisi the head of the Egyptian Armed Forces, who at this time was in control of the country, resigned from the military, announcing he would stand as a candidate in the 2014 presidential election. The poll, held between 26 and 28 May 2014, resulted in a landslide victory for el-Sisi. Sisi was sworn into office as President of Egypt on 8 June 2014. The Muslim Brotherhood and some liberal and secular activist groups boycotted the vote. Even though the military-backed authorities extended voting to a third day, the 46% turnout was lower than the 52% turnout in the 2012 election.
When does most of Egypts rain fall?
57316982a5e9cc1400cdbf29
winter months
34
False
Where does snow fall in Egypt?
57316982a5e9cc1400cdbf2a
Sinai's mountains and some of the north coastal cities
302
False
When was the last snow fall in Cairo?
57316982a5e9cc1400cdbf2b
13 December 2013,
473
False
What is the sunniest county in the world?
57316982a5e9cc1400cdbf2c
Egypt
595
False
Most of Egypt's rain falls in the winter months. South of Cairo, rainfall averages only around 2 to 5 mm (0.1 to 0.2 in) per year and at intervals of many years. On a very thin strip of the northern coast the rainfall can be as high as 410 mm (16.1 in), mostly between October and March. Snow falls on Sinai's mountains and some of the north coastal cities such as Damietta, Baltim, Sidi Barrany, etc. and rarely in Alexandria. A very small amount of snow fell on Cairo on 13 December 2013, the first time Cairo received snowfall in many decades. Frost is also known in mid-Sinai and mid-Egypt. Egypt is the driest and the sunniest country in the world, and most of its land surface is desert.
How many species of plants were recorded in Egypt?
57316c65497a881900248ec9
2426
258
False
How many species of fungi were recorded in Egypt?
57316c65497a881900248eca
627
214
False
How many species of algae were recorded in Egypt?
57316c65497a881900248ecb
1483
111
False
How many species of animals were recorded in Egypt?
57316c65497a881900248ecc
15,000
141
False
How many species of protazoa were recorded in Egypt?
57316c65497a881900248ecd
371
285
False
The plan stated that the following numbers of species of different groups had been recorded from Egypt: algae (1483 species), animals (about 15,000 species of which more than 10,000 were insects), fungi (more than 627 species), monera (319 species), plants (2426 species), protozoans (371 species). For some major groups, for example lichen-forming fungi and nematode worms, the number was not known. Apart from small and well-studied groups like amphibians, birds, fish, mammals and reptiles, the many of those numbers are likely to increase as further species are recorded from Egypt. For the fungi, including lichen-forming species, for example, subsequent work has shown that over 2200 species have been recorded from Egypt, and the final figure of all fungi actually occurring in the country is expected to be much higher.
What branch of government are the House of Representatives focused on?
5731708705b4da19006bd180
legislation
97
False
What tems do House of Representatives serve?
5731708705b4da19006bd181
five-year terms
65
False
What percent of votes did el-Sisi get?
5731708705b4da19006bd182
96.91%
640
False
Who came in second place in election for Egypt president to es-Sisi?
5731708705b4da19006bd183
Hamdeen Sabahi
679
False
The House of Representatives, whose members are elected to serve five-year terms, specialises in legislation. Elections were last held between November 2011 and January 2012 which was later dissolved. The next parliamentary election will be held within 6 months of the constitution's ratification on 18 January 2014. Originally, the parliament was to be formed before the president was elected, but interim president Adly Mansour pushed the date. The Egyptian presidential election, 2014, took place on 26–28 May 2014. Official figures showed a turnout of 25,578,233 or 47.5%, with Abdel Fattah el-Sisi winning with 23.78 million votes, or 96.91% compared to 757,511 (3.09%) for Hamdeen Sabahi.
Who were primary targets of Egypt terrorist attacks?
57317090497a881900248ee7
Christian Copts, foreign tourists and government officials
107
False
What was the name of a high profile terrorist group in Egypt in 1990s?
57317090497a881900248ee8
Al-Gama'a al-Islamiyya
199
False
What sector of economy was plagued by terrorism attacks?
57317090497a881900248ee9
tourism
466
False
In the 1980s, 1990s, and 2000s, terrorist attacks in Egypt became numerous and severe, and began to target Christian Copts, foreign tourists and government officials. In the 1990s an Islamist group, Al-Gama'a al-Islamiyya, engaged in an extended campaign of violence, from the murders and attempted murders of prominent writers and intellectuals, to the repeated targeting of tourists and foreigners. Serious damage was done to the largest sector of Egypt's economy—tourism—and in turn to the government, but it also devastated the livelihoods of many of the people on whom the group depended for support.
When was new constitution institutionalised?
5731715ce6313a140071cf42
18 January 2014
3
False
How long are presidential terms?
5731715ce6313a140071cf43
four-year term
133
False
How many terms may a president serve?
5731715ce6313a140071cf44
2 terms
162
False
Who may impeach the president?
5731715ce6313a140071cf45
parliament
175
False
what may not be basis for political party?
5731715ce6313a140071cf46
religion, race, gender or geography
472
False
On 18 January 2014, the interim government successfully institutionalised a more secular constitution. The president is elected to a four-year term and may serve 2 terms. The parliament may impeach the president. Under the constitution, there is a guarantee of gender equality and absolute freedom of thought. The military retains the ability to appoint the national Minister of Defence for the next 8 years. Under the constitution, political parties may not be based on "religion, race, gender or geography".
Where does Egypt rank for Religious freedom according to Pew Forum?
573173d8497a881900248f0b
fifth worst
59
False
What percentage of Egyptians polled support death penalty for those leaving Islam?
573173d8497a881900248f0c
84%
468
False
What violation could result in stoning and was supported by 82% of Egyptian responders?
573173d8497a881900248f0d
adultery
664
False
The Pew Forum on Religion & Public Life ranks Egypt as the fifth worst country in the world for religious freedom. The United States Commission on International Religious Freedom, a bipartisan independent agency of the US government, has placed Egypt on its watch list of countries that require close monitoring due to the nature and extent of violations of religious freedom engaged in or tolerated by the government. According to a 2010 Pew Global Attitudes survey, 84% of Egyptians polled supported the death penalty for those who leave Islam; 77% supported whippings and cutting off of hands for theft and robbery; and 82% support stoning a person who commits adultery.
What trend has Egypt healthcare made recently?
5731756c05b4da19006bd1ca
great strides forward
88
False
How much of ppopulation can be covered by immunization programs?
5731756c05b4da19006bd1cb
98%
227
False
What was life expectancy in 1960s?
5731756c05b4da19006bd1cc
44.8 years
281
False
What was the life expectancy in 2009?
5731756c05b4da19006bd1cd
72.12 years
312
False
What direction has infant mortality rate taken?
5731756c05b4da19006bd1ce
noticeable decline
345
False
As a result of modernisation efforts over the years, Egypt's healthcare system has made great strides forward. Access to healthcare in both urban and rural areas greatly improved and immunisation programs are now able to cover 98% of the population. Life expectancy increased from 44.8 years during the 1960s to 72.12 years in 2009. There was a noticeable decline of the infant mortality rate (during the 1970s to the 1980s the infant mortality rate was 101-132/1000 live births, in 2000 the rate was 50-60/1000, and in 2008 it was 28-30/1000).
According to QS World University Rankings where does Cairo University rank?
573176cae6313a140071cf6a
551-600
117
False
According to QS World University Rankings, where does American University in Cairo rank?
573176cae6313a140071cf6b
360
210
False
According to QS World University Rankings and Al-Azhar University, Alexandria University and Ain Shams University are all ranked where?
573176cae6313a140071cf6c
701+ range
340
False
What is the aim of new research institutes?
573176cae6313a140071cf6d
modernising research
418
False
Cairo University is ranked as 401-500 according to the Academic Ranking of World Universities (Shanghai Ranking) and 551-600 according to QS World University Rankings. American University in Cairo is ranked as 360 according to QS World University Rankings and Al-Azhar University, Alexandria University and Ain Shams University fall in the 701+ range. Egypt is currently opening new research institutes for the aim of modernising research in the nation, the most recent example of which is Zewail City of Science and Technology.
What do Coptic Christians face?
5731779aa5e9cc1400cdbf95
discrimination at multiple levels of the government,
23
False
When government computerised ID cards who were adversely impacted?
5731779aa5e9cc1400cdbf96
religious minorities
394
False
When did Egyptian court rule that members of other faiths could obtain ID cards without listing faith?
5731779aa5e9cc1400cdbf97
2008
509
False
Coptic Christians face discrimination at multiple levels of the government, ranging from disproportionate representation in government ministries to laws that limit their ability to build or repair churches. Intolerance of Bahá'ís and non-orthodox Muslim sects, such as Sufis, Shi'a and Ahmadis, also remains a problem. When the government moved to computerise identification cards, members of religious minorities, such as Bahá'ís, could not obtain identification documents. An Egyptian court ruled in early 2008 that members of other faiths may obtain identity cards without listing their faiths, and without becoming officially recognised.
what controversial practice does Egypt actively administer as punishment?
573178c3497a881900248f43
capital punishment
25
False
In March 2014 what number of people were sentenced to death in a single hearing?
573178c3497a881900248f44
529
323
False
What was Muslim Brotherhood labelled post coup?
573178c3497a881900248f45
terrorist organisation
813
False
What former president's supporters are set to be executed?
573178c3497a881900248f46
Mohamed Morsi
422
False
Egypt actively practices capital punishment. Egypt's authorities do not release figures on death sentences and executions, despite repeated requests over the years by human rights organisations. The United Nations human rights office and various NGOs expressed "deep alarm" after an Egyptian Minya Criminal Court sentenced 529 people to death in a single hearing on 25 March 2014. Sentenced supporters of former President Mohamed Morsi will be executed for their alleged role in violence following his ousting in July 2013. The judgment was condemned as a violation of international law. By May 2014, approximately 16,000 people (and as high as more than 40,000 by one independent count), mostly Brotherhood members or supporters, have been imprisoned after the coup  after the Muslim Brotherhood was labelled as terrorist organisation by the post-coup interim Egyptian government.
What US president was critical of Egypt's repression of Muslim Brotherhood?
57317a2505b4da19006bd1de
US president Barack Obama
256
False
How many individuals did one judge in Minya governatorate court sentence to death in April 2013?
57317a2505b4da19006bd1df
1,212
410
False
What was the criticism of judge Mohammad NAgi Shatata sentence of 188 member of Muslim Brotherhood for assaulting police station?
57317a2505b4da19006bd1e0
lack of fair trials, that often last only a few minutes
740
False
After Morsi was ousted by the military, the judiciary system aligned itself with the new government, actively suopporting the repression of Muslim Brotherhood members. This resulted in a sharp increase in mass death sentences that arose criticism from the US president Barack Obama and the General Secretary of the UN, Ban Ki Moon. In April 2013, one judge of the Minya governatorate of Upper Egypt, sentenced 1,212 people to death. In December 2014 the judge Mohammed Nagi Shahata, notorious for his fierceness in passing on death sentences, condemened to the capital penalty 188 members of the Muslim Brotherhood, for assaulting a police station. Various Egyptian and international human rights organisations have already pointed out the lack of fair trials, that often last only a few minutes and do not take into consideration the procedural standards of fair trials.
How much military assistance di US give Egypt in 2015?
57317b4d05b4da19006bd1e4
US$1.3 billion
92
False
What event soured relations of US and Egypt in 2013?
57317b4d05b4da19006bd1e5
Egypt's violent crackdown on the Muslim Brotherhood and its supporters
374
False
The United States provides Egypt with annual military assistance, which in 2015 amounted to US$1.3 billion. In 1989, Egypt was designated as a major non-NATO ally of the United States. Nevertheless, ties between the two countries have partially soured since the July 2013 military coup that deposed Islamist president Mohamed Morsi, with the Obama administration condemning Egypt's violent crackdown on the Muslim Brotherhood and its supporters, and cancelling future military exercises involving the two countries. There have been recent attempts, however, to normalise relations between the two, with both governments frequently calling for mutual support in the fight against regional and international terrorism.
Equipment from what country is being replaced?
5731926ca5e9cc1400cdc0df
Soviet Union
211
False
How many factories does Egyptian military have?
5731926ca5e9cc1400cdc0e0
dozens
26
False
After Morsi removal, what country has Egypt improved relations with?
5731926ca5e9cc1400cdc0e1
Russia
430
False
In 2014 what country did Egypt form partnership with?
5731926ca5e9cc1400cdc0e2
China
699
False
The Egyptian military has dozens of factories manufacturing weapons as well as consumer goods. The Armed Forces' inventory includes equipment from different countries around the world. Equipment from the former Soviet Union is being progressively replaced by more modern US, French, and British equipment, a significant portion of which is built under license in Egypt, such as the M1 Abrams tank.[citation needed] Relations with Russia have improved significantly following Mohamed Morsi's removal and both countries have worked since then to strengthen military and trade ties among other aspects of bilateral co-operation. Relations with China have also improved considerably. In 2014, Egypt and China have established a bilateral "comprehensive strategic partnership".
Where is the Arab League headquarters?
57319331497a88190024905b
Cairo
61
False
Who is the leader of Arab League?
57319331497a88190024905c
Nabil el-Araby
192
False
What 2 Gulf monarchies have pledged billions of dollars to help Egypt overcome recent economic difficulties?
57319331497a88190024905d
United Arab Emirates and Saudi Arabia
379
False
The permanent headquarters of the Arab League are located in Cairo and the body's secretary general has traditionally been Egyptian. This position is currently held by former foreign minister Nabil el-Araby. The Arab League briefly moved from Egypt to Tunis in 1978 to protest the Egypt-Israel Peace Treaty, but it later returned to Cairo in 1989. Gulf monarchies, including the United Arab Emirates and Saudi Arabia, have pledged billions of dollars to help Egypt overcome its economic difficulties since the July 2013 coup.
What country has Egypt famously had peace with since 1973 treaty?
5731bbf00fdd8d15006c64b5
Israel
130
False
Is Israel considered a safe state for egyptians?
5731bbf00fdd8d15006c64b6
still widely considered as a hostile
162
False
What rope has Egypt played in Middle East peace efforts?
5731bbf00fdd8d15006c64b7
mediator
275
False
Following the 1973 war and the subsequent peace treaty, Egypt became the first Arab nation to establish diplomatic relations with Israel. Despite that, Israel is still widely considered as a hostile state by the majority of Egyptians. Egypt has played a historical role as a mediator in resolving various disputes in the Middle East, most notably its handling of the Israeli-Palestinian conflict and the peace process. Egypt's ceasefire and truce brokering efforts in Gaza have hardly been challenged following Israel's evacuation of its settlements from the strip in 2005, despite increasing animosity towards the Hamas government in Gaza following the ouster of Mohamed Morsi, and despite recent attempts by countries like Turkey and Qatar to take over this role.
What areas of economy is Egypt dependent on?
5731bcdfe17f3d140042235d
agriculture, media, petroleum imports, natural gas, and tourism
34
False
Where do Egyptians working abroad work mainly?
5731bcdfe17f3d140042235e
Saudi Arabia, the Persian Gulf and Europe
174
False
What lake reulted from completion of Aswan High Dam?
5731bcdfe17f3d140042235f
Lake Nasser
280
False
What year was Aswan High Dam completed?
5731bcdfe17f3d1400422360
1970
257
False
Egypt's economy depends mainly on agriculture, media, petroleum imports, natural gas, and tourism; there are also more than three million Egyptians working abroad, mainly in Saudi Arabia, the Persian Gulf and Europe. The completion of the Aswan High Dam in 1970 and the resultant Lake Nasser have altered the time-honored place of the Nile River in the agriculture and ecology of Egypt. A rapidly growing population, limited arable land, and dependence on the Nile all continue to overtax resources and stress the economy.
What is Egypts energy market based upon?
5731bee9e17f3d1400422385
coal, oil, natural gas, and hydro power
45
False
How much coal is mine yearly in northeast Sinai?
5731bee9e17f3d1400422386
600,000 tonnes
166
False
Is Egypt able to sustain just from its own energy production?
5731bee9e17f3d1400422387
has been a net oil importer since 2008
963
False
What efforts were made in 2013 to maintain sustainability?
5731bee9e17f3d1400422388
cut exports of natural gas and tell major industries to slow output this summer to avoid an energy crisis
525
False
Egypt has a developed energy market based on coal, oil, natural gas, and hydro power. Substantial coal deposits in the northeast Sinai are mined at the rate of about 600,000 tonnes (590,000 long tons; 660,000 short tons) per year. Oil and gas are produced in the western desert regions, the Gulf of Suez, and the Nile Delta. Egypt has huge reserves of gas, estimated at 2,180 cubic kilometres (520 cu mi), and LNG up to 2012 exported to many countries. In 2013, the Egyptian General Petroleum Co (EGPC) said the country will cut exports of natural gas and tell major industries to slow output this summer to avoid an energy crisis and stave off political unrest, Reuters has reported. Egypt is counting on top liquid natural gas (LNG) exporter Qatar to obtain additional gas volumes in summer, while encouraging factories to plan their annual maintenance for those months of peak demand, said EGPC chairman, Tarek El Barkatawy. Egypt produces its own energy, but has been a net oil importer since 2008 and is rapidly becoming a net importer of natural gas.
What has been the trend lately in the Egypt economy?
5731bfcc0fdd8d15006c64fb
improve considerably
36
False
What area of business have boomed lately in Egypt?
5731bfcc0fdd8d15006c64fc
stock market
217
False
What was change made to corporate taxes in 2005?
5731bfcc0fdd8d15006c64fd
decreased corporate taxes from 40% to the current 20%
537
False
What ws the overall impact to tax revenue from change of corporate tax rate?
5731bfcc0fdd8d15006c64fe
100% increase in tax revenue by the year 2006
614
False
Economic conditions have started to improve considerably, after a period of stagnation, due to the adoption of more liberal economic policies by the government as well as increased revenues from tourism and a booming stock market. In its annual report, the International Monetary Fund (IMF) has rated Egypt as one of the top countries in the world undertaking economic reforms. Some major economic reforms undertaken by the government since 2003 include a dramatic slashing of customs and tariffs. A new taxation law implemented in 2005 decreased corporate taxes from 40% to the current 20%, resulting in a stated 100% increase in tax revenue by the year 2006.
How much had FDI increased to in 2006?
5731c223e99e3014001e625c
$6 billion
111
False
Since 2011 direction has Forign direct investment gone?
5731c223e99e3014001e625d
drastic fall
322
False
What has been the change in foreign exhange reserves since 2011?
5731c223e99e3014001e625e
60% drop
398
False
What has been the overall growth of economy since 2011?
5731c223e99e3014001e625f
3% drop
439
False
Foreign direct investment (FDI) in Egypt increased considerably before the removal of Hosni Mubarak, exceeding $6 billion in 2006, due to economic liberalisation and privatisation measures taken by minister of investment Mahmoud Mohieddin.[citation needed] Since the fall of Hosni Mubarak in 2011, Egypt has experienced a drastic fall in both foreign investment and tourism revenues, followed by a 60% drop in foreign exchange reserves, a 3% drop in growth, and a rapid devaluation of the Egyptian pound.
To what extent does wealth reach from affluent down to average population?
5731c45ae17f3d14004223a9
limited trickle down
76
False
Who do Egyptians blame for higher prices, while purchasing power and standard of living are stagnate?
5731c45ae17f3d14004223aa
government
165
False
Where did Egyptian plan to get funds to use for reconstruction of infrastructure?
5731c45ae17f3d14004223ab
newly acquired third mobile license ($3 billion) by Etisalat
483
False
Where did Egypt rank in Corruption perceptions Index in 2013?
5731c45ae17f3d14004223ac
114 out of 177
612
False
Although one of the main obstacles still facing the Egyptian economy is the limited trickle down of wealth to the average population, many Egyptians criticise their government for higher prices of basic goods while their standards of living or purchasing power remains relatively stagnant. Corruption is often cited by Egyptians as the main impediment to further economic growth. The government promised major reconstruction of the country's infrastructure, using money paid for the newly acquired third mobile license ($3 billion) by Etisalat in 2006. In the Corruption Perceptions Index 2013, Egypt was ranked 114 out of 177.
What are Egypt's 2 most prominent multinational compnaies?
5731ccf7e17f3d1400422413
Orascom Group and Raya Contact Center
55
False
What sector has expanded radiply by selling outsourcing services to North America and Europe?
5731ccf7e17f3d1400422414
information technology (IT)
98
False
What has stimulated IT sector?
5731ccf7e17f3d1400422415
new Egyptian entrepreneurs with government encouragement
512
False
Egypt's most prominent multinational companies are the Orascom Group and Raya Contact Center. The information technology (IT) sector has expanded rapidly in the past few years, with many start-ups selling outsourcing services to North America and Europe, operating with companies such as Microsoft, Oracle and other major corporations, as well as many small and medium size enterprises. Some of these companies are the Xceed Contact Center, Raya, E Group Connections and C3. The IT sector has been stimulated by new Egyptian entrepreneurs with government encouragement.[citation needed]
Where are Egyptian beaches situated?
5731cf890fdd8d15006c656f
Mediterranean and the Red Sea
50
False
How far do Egyptian beaches extend?
5731cf890fdd8d15006c6570
3,000 km
100
False
What locations on Egypt's northern coast are major tourist destinations for recreational tourism?
5731cf890fdd8d15006c6571
Dahab, Ras Sidr, Marsa Alam, Safaga
500
False
What Egypt located body of water is known for its serenity?
5731cf890fdd8d15006c6572
Red Sea
114
False
Egypt has a wide range of beaches situated on the Mediterranean and the Red Sea that extend to over 3,000 km. The Red Sea has serene waters, coloured coral reefs, rare fish and beautiful mountains. The Akba Gulf beaches also provide facilities for practising sea sports. Safaga tops the Red Sea zone with its beautiful location on the Suez Gulf. Last but not least, Sharm el-Sheikh (or City of Peace), Hurghada, Luxor (known as world's greatest open-air museum/ or City of the ⅓ of world monuments), Dahab, Ras Sidr, Marsa Alam, Safaga and the northern coast of the Mediterranean are major tourist's destinations of the recreational tourism.
How much oil is Egypt producing in a day?
5731d2a9e99e3014001e6300
691,000 bbl/d
20
False
How much natural gas is Egypt producing in a day?
5731d2a9e99e3014001e6301
2,141.05 Tcf
45
False
Where does Egypt rank among oil and natural gas sonsumers in Africa?
5731d2a9e99e3014001e6302
largest consumer
287
False
Where is Egypt planning to build is first nuclear power plant?
5731d2a9e99e3014001e6303
El Dabaa city
607
False
Egypt was producing 691,000 bbl/d of oil and 2,141.05 Tcf of natural gas (in 2013), which makes Egypt as the largest oil producer not member of the Organization of the Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC) and the second-largest dry natural gas producer in Africa. In 2013, Egypt was the largest consumer of oil and natural gas in Africa, as more than 20% of total oil consumption and more than 40% of total dry natural gas consumption in Africa. Also, Egypt possesses the largest oil refinery capacity in Africa 726,000 bbl/d (in 2012). Egypt is currently planning to build its first nuclear power plant in El Dabaa city, northern Egypt.
What is consideredt the most important part of maritime transport in middle east?
5731d33d0fdd8d15006c658b
The Suez Canal
0
False
Is the Suez Canal natural?
5731d33d0fdd8d15006c658c
artificial sea-level waterway
21
False
What 2 bodies of water does Suez connect?
5731d33d0fdd8d15006c658d
Mediterranean Sea and the Red Sea
158
False
When was Suez canal completed?
5731d33d0fdd8d15006c658e
November 1869
203
False
The Suez Canal is an artificial sea-level waterway in Egypt considered the most important centre of the maritime transport in the Middle East, connecting the Mediterranean Sea and the Red Sea. Opened in November 1869 after 10 years of construction work, it allows ship transport between Europe and Asia without navigation around Africa. The northern terminus is Port Said and the southern terminus is Port Tawfiq at the city of Suez. Ismailia lies on its west bank, 3 km (1.9 mi) from the half-way point.
How long is Suez canal?
5731d3feb9d445190005e593
193.30 km (120.11 mi)
13
False
How deep is Suez canal?
5731d3feb9d445190005e594
24 m (79 ft)
41
False
How wide is Suez canal?
5731d3feb9d445190005e595
205 metres (673 ft)
63
False
How many locks are contained in Suez Canal?
5731d3feb9d445190005e596
no locks
363
False
What direction does the canal north of Bitter lakes flow?
5731d3feb9d445190005e597
north in winter and south in summer
468
False
The canal is 193.30 km (120.11 mi) long, 24 m (79 ft) deep and 205 metres (673 ft) wide as of 2010. It consists of the northern access channel of 22 km (14 mi), the canal itself of 162.25 km (100.82 mi) and the southern access channel of 9 km (5.6 mi). The canal is a single lane with passing places in the "Ballah By-Pass" and the Great Bitter Lake. It contains no locks; seawater flows freely through the canal. In general, the canal north of the Bitter Lakes flows north in winter and south in summer. The current south of the lakes changes with the tide at Suez.
What basic part of civilization has been characterized by achievement and challenges?
5731d53d0fdd8d15006c6593
Drinking water supply and sanitation
0
False
From 1990 to 2010 what was improvement in piped water supply to urban areas?
5731d53d0fdd8d15006c6594
89% to 100%
188
False
From 1990 to 2010 what was improvement in piped water supply to rural areas?
5731d53d0fdd8d15006c6595
39% to 93%
224
False
Currently how much of Egypt's population is connected to sanitary sewers?
5731d53d0fdd8d15006c6596
99%
517
False
Drinking water supply and sanitation in Egypt is characterised by both achievements and challenges. Among the achievements are an increase of piped water supply between 1990 and 2010 from 89% to 100% in urban areas and from 39% to 93% in rural areas despite rapid population growth, the elimination of open defecation in rural areas during the same period, and in general a relatively high level of investment in infrastructure. Access to an improved water source in Egypt is now practically universal with a rate of 99%. About one half of the population is connected to sanitary sewers.
Because of low sanitation coverage 17,000 Egyptian children to die each year from what condition?
5731d666e17f3d1400422485
diarrhoea
89
False
Relative to other countries of world how do Egypts's water tariffs compare?
5731d666e17f3d1400422486
among the lowest in the world
169
False
Due to low waer tariffs, what is required to maintain water treatment operation?
5731d666e17f3d1400422487
government subsidies
222
False
Partly because of low sanitation coverage about 17,000 children die each year because of diarrhoea. Another challenge is low cost recovery due to water tariffs that are among the lowest in the world. This in turn requires government subsidies even for operating costs, a situation that has been aggravated by salary increases without tariff increases after the Arab Spring. Poor operation of facilities, such as water and wastewater treatment plants, as well as limited government accountability and transparency, are also issues.
What is the largest ethnic group in Egypt?
5731d976b9d445190005e5b9
Ethnic Egyptians
0
False
What are the minorities that live in eastern deserts of Egypt?
5731d976b9d445190005e5ba
Abazas, Turks, Greeks, Bedouin Arab tribes
141
False
Where are Dom clans mostly gathered?
5731d976b9d445190005e5bb
Nile Delta and Faiyum
488
False
Ethnic Egyptians are by far the largest ethnic group in the country, constituting 91% of the total population. Ethnic minorities include the Abazas, Turks, Greeks, Bedouin Arab tribes living in the eastern deserts and the Sinai Peninsula, the Berber-speaking Siwis (Amazigh) of the Siwa Oasis, and the Nubian communities clustered along the Nile. There are also tribal Beja communities concentrated in the south-eastern-most corner of the country, and a number of Dom clans mostly in the Nile Delta and Faiyum who are progressively becoming assimilated as urbanisation increases.
Approximately how many rufugees and asylum seekers are in Egypt?
5731daf6b9d445190005e5bf
between 500,000 and 3 million
83
False
How may Palestinian refugees are in Egypt?
5731daf6b9d445190005e5c0
70,000
129
False
How many recent Iraqi refugees are in Egypt?
5731daf6b9d445190005e5c1
150,000
168
False
What cities house several important Jewish archaelogical sites?
5731daf6b9d445190005e5c2
Cairo, Alexandria and other cities
571
False
Egypt also hosts an unknown number of refugees and asylum seekers, estimated to be between 500,000 and 3 million. There are some 70,000 Palestinian refugees, and about 150,000 recently arrived Iraqi refugees, but the number of the largest group, the Sudanese, is contested.[nb 1] The once-vibrant and ancient Greek and Jewish communities in Egypt have almost disappeared, with only a small number remaining in the country, but many Egyptian Jews visit on religious or other occasions and tourism. Several important Jewish archaeological and historical sites are found in Cairo, Alexandria and other cities.
What is official language of Egypt?
5731dbb7e17f3d14004224a9
Modern Standard Arabic
41
False
What are main laguages of immigrants?
5731dbb7e17f3d14004224aa
Greek, Armenian and Italian
342
False
In the 19th century, what city of Egypt was a large community of Italian Egyptians?
5731dbb7e17f3d14004224ab
Alexandria
411
False
What are the three most spoken languages in Egypt?
5731dbb7e17f3d14004224ac
Egyptian Arabic (68%), Sa'idi Arabic (29%), Eastern Egyptian Bedawi Arabic (1.6%)
161
False
The official language of the Republic is Modern Standard Arabic. Arabic was adopted by the Egyptians after the Arab invasion of Egypt. The spoken languages are: Egyptian Arabic (68%), Sa'idi Arabic (29%), Eastern Egyptian Bedawi Arabic (1.6%), Sudanese Arabic (0.6%), Domari (0.3%), Nobiin (0.3%), Beja (0.1%), Siwi and others. Additionally, Greek, Armenian and Italian are the main languages of immigrants. In Alexandria in the 19th century there was a large community of Italian Egyptians and Italian was the "lingua franca" of the city.
Prior to 7th century, what was primary religion of Egypt?
5731dd79b9d445190005e5d1
Christian
30
False
What became the main source of law with increasing Islamic influence in Egypt?
5731dd79b9d445190005e5d2
Sharia
299
False
Under what leader did Islam become official religion of Egypt?
5731dd79b9d445190005e5d3
Anwar Sadat
241
False
Although Egypt was a majority Christian country before the 7th Century, after Islam arrived, the country was slowly Islamified to become a majority Muslim country. Egypt emerged as a centre of politics and culture in the Muslim world. Under Anwar Sadat, Islam became the official state religion and Sharia the main source of law. It is estimated that 15 million Egyptians follow Native Sufi orders, with the Sufi leadership asserting that the numbers are much greater as many Egyptian Sufis are not officially registered with a Sufi order.
What church do 90% of Christian minority in Egypt belong?
5731dfa30fdd8d15006c65df
Coptic Orthodox Church
65
False
Where are other Non-native Christian communities found?
5731dfa30fdd8d15006c65e0
urban regions of Cairo and Alexandria
354
False
What do Syro-Lebanese belong to?
5731dfa30fdd8d15006c65e1
Greek Catholic, Greek Orthodox, and Maronite Catholic denominations
434
False
Of the Christian minority in Egypt over 90% belong to the native Coptic Orthodox Church of Alexandria, an Oriental Orthodox Christian Church. Other native Egyptian Christians are adherents of the Coptic Catholic Church, the Evangelical Church of Egypt and various other Protestant denominations. Non-native Christian communities are largely found in the urban regions of Cairo and Alexandria, such as the Syro-Lebanese, who belong to Greek Catholic, Greek Orthodox, and Maronite Catholic denominations.
What 3 religions does Egypt recognise?
5731e07b0fdd8d15006c65e5
Islam, Christianity, and Judaism
39
False
What recognition do Baha'i and Hmadi community get from Egyptian government?
5731e07b0fdd8d15006c65e6
are not recognised by the state
183
False
Until what year did some minorities need to lie about religion or not get mandatory state issued ID?
5731e07b0fdd8d15006c65e7
2008
652
False
Egypt recognises only three religions: Islam, Christianity, and Judaism. Other faiths and minority Muslim sects practised by Egyptians, such as the small Bahá'í and Ahmadi community, are not recognised by the state and face persecution since they are labelled as far right groups that threaten Egypt's national security. Individuals, particularly Baha'is and atheists, wishing to include their religion (or lack thereof) on their mandatory state issued identification cards are denied this ability (see Egyptian identification card controversy), and are put in the position of either not obtaining required identification or lying about their faith. A 2008 court ruling allowed members of unrecognised faiths to obtain identification and leave the religion field blank.
What color was frequently used in Egyptian designs?
5731e1dce17f3d14004224f5
Egyptian blue
107
False
What art required adherence to rigid code?
5731e1dce17f3d14004224f6
wall paintings done in the service of the Pharaohs
271
False
What is the main performing arts venue in Egyptian capital?
5731e1dce17f3d14004224f7
The Cairo Opera House
859
False
Who designed the Pyramid of Djoser?
5731e1dce17f3d14004224f8
Imhotep
554
False
The Egyptians were one of the first major civilisations to codify design elements in art and architecture. Egyptian blue, also known as calcium copper silicate is a pigment used by Egyptians for thousands of years. It is considered to be the first synthetic pigment. The wall paintings done in the service of the Pharaohs followed a rigid code of visual rules and meanings. Egyptian civilisation is renowned for its colossal pyramids, temples and monumental tombs. Well-known examples are the Pyramid of Djoser designed by ancient architect and engineer Imhotep, the Sphinx, and the temple of Abu Simbel. Modern and contemporary Egyptian art can be as diverse as any works in the world art scene, from the vernacular architecture of Hassan Fathy and Ramses Wissa Wassef, to Mahmoud Mokhtar's sculptures, to the distinctive Coptic iconography of Isaac Fanous. The Cairo Opera House serves as the main performing arts venue in the Egyptian capital.
Who was the first to develop literature?
5731e314e17f3d14004224fd
Egyptians
117
False
What syles did writers in Arabic literature experiment with first?
5731e314e17f3d14004224fe
modern styles
339
False
What was the first modern Egyptian novel?
5731e314e17f3d14004224ff
Zaynab
490
False
When was Munammad Huayn Haykal's first modern novel published?
5731e314e17f3d1400422500
1913
540
False
Egyptian literature traces its beginnings to ancient Egypt and is some of the earliest known literature. Indeed, the Egyptians were the first culture to develop literature as we know it today, that is, the book. It is an important cultural element in the life of Egypt. Egyptian novelists and poets were among the first to experiment with modern styles of Arabic literature, and the forms they developed have been widely imitated throughout the Middle East. The first modern Egyptian novel Zaynab by Muhammad Husayn Haykal was published in 1913 in the Egyptian vernacular. Egyptian novelist Naguib Mahfouz was the first Arabic-language writer to win the Nobel Prize in Literature. Egyptian women writers include Nawal El Saadawi, well known for her feminist activism, and Alifa Rifaat who also writes about women and tradition.
In what year was Studio Misr founded?
5731e624e17f3d1400422519
1936
69
False
Who financed Studio Misr?
5731e624e17f3d140042251a
Talaat Harb
114
False
In more that 100 years how many films have been produced in Egypt?
5731e624e17f3d140042251b
4000 films
244
False
What share of Arab productions have come from Egypt?
5731e624e17f3d140042251c
three quarters
284
False
Egyptian cinema became a regional force with the coming of sound. In 1936, Studio Misr, financed by industrialist Talaat Harb, emerged as the leading Egyptian studio, a role the company retained for three decades. For over 100 years, more than 4000 films have been produced in Egypt, three quarters of the total Arab production.[citation needed] Egypt is considered the leading country in the field of cinema in the Middle East. Actors from all over the Arab World seek to appear in the Egyptian cinema for the sake of fame. The Cairo International Film Festival has been rated as one of 11 festivals with a top class rating worldwide by the International Federation of Film Producers' Associations.
What elements mix for Egyptian music?
5731e810e17f3d1400422535
indigenous, Mediterranean, African and Western
36
False
Who is credited with invention of music by ancient Egyptians?
5731e810e17f3d1400422536
Hathor
208
False
What artist are considered the golden age of Egyptian music?
5731e810e17f3d1400422537
Abdu El Hamouli, Almaz and Mahmoud Osman, who influenced the later work of Sayed Darwish, Umm Kulthum, Mohammed Abdel Wahab and Abdel Halim Hafez
449
False
What is more contemporary Egyptian Pop Singer?
5731e810e17f3d1400422538
Amr Diab and Mohamed Mounir
748
False
Egyptian music is a rich mixture of indigenous, Mediterranean, African and Western elements. It has been an integral part of Egyptian culture since antiquity. The ancient Egyptians credited one of their gods Hathor with the invention of music, which Osiris in turn used as part of his effort to civilise the world. Egyptians used music instruments since then. Contemporary Egyptian music traces its beginnings to the creative work of people such as Abdu El Hamouli, Almaz and Mahmoud Osman, who influenced the later work of Sayed Darwish, Umm Kulthum, Mohammed Abdel Wahab and Abdel Halim Hafez whose age is considered the golden age of music in Egypt and the whole Middle East and North-Africa. Prominent contemporary Egyptian pop singers include Amr Diab and Mohamed Mounir.
What is the oldest era in Egypt?
5731e8aae99e3014001e63c8
prehistoric
170
False
What are some examples of Ages in Egypt?
5731e8aae99e3014001e63c9
Pharonic, Roman, Greek, Islamic
243
False
How many museums are found in Egypt?
5731e8aae99e3014001e63ca
at least 60
434
False
Egypt has one of the oldest civilisations in the world. It has been in contact with many other civilisations and nations and has been through so many eras, starting from prehistoric age to the modern age, passing through so many ages such as; Pharonic, Roman, Greek, Islamic and many other ages. Because of this wide variation of ages, the continuous contact with other nations and the big number of conflicts Egypt had been through, at least 60 museums may be found in Egypt, mainly covering a wide area of these ages and conflicts.
What is koshari?
5731e9a50fdd8d15006c664b
mixture of rice, lentils, and macaroni
25
False
What can be added to koshari?
5731e9a50fdd8d15006c664c
Fried onions
90
False
What beans are used to make falafel?
5731e9a50fdd8d15006c664d
Fava bean
213
False
What is a polular green soup of Egypt?
5731e9a50fdd8d15006c664e
mulukhiyya
403
False
Some consider koshari (a mixture of rice, lentils, and macaroni) to be the national dish. Fried onions can be also added to koshari. In addition, ful medames (mashed fava beans) is one of the most popular dishes. Fava bean is also used in making falafel (also known as "ta'meyya"), which may have originated in Egypt and spread to other parts of the Middle East. Garlic fried with coriander is added to mulukhiyya, a popular green soup made from finely chopped jute leaves, sometimes with chicken or rabbit.
What is the most popular sport in Egypt?
5731ea310fdd8d15006c665d
Football
0
False
What is one of the toughest derbies in the world, run in Egypt?
5731ea310fdd8d15006c665e
The Cairo Derby
54
False
In terms of international trophies, whos is the most successful club?
5731ea310fdd8d15006c665f
Al Ahly
450
False
Football is the most popular national sport of Egypt. The Cairo Derby is one of the fiercest derbies in Africa, and the BBC picked it as one of the 7 toughest derbies in the world. Al Ahly is the most successful club of the 20th century in the African continent according to CAF, closely followed by their rivals Zamalek SC. Al Ahly was named in 2000 by the Confederation of African Football as the "African Club of the Century". With twenty titles, Al Ahly is currently the world's most successful club in terms of international trophies, surpassing Italy's A.C. Milan and Argentina's Boca Juniors, both having eighteen.
What was the last international competition Egypt hosted?
5731eaed0fdd8d15006c6663
2009 FIFA U-20 World Cup
70
False
Who holds Guiness record for Deepest salt water scuba dive?
5731eaed0fdd8d15006c6664
Ahmed Gabr
256
False
How deep did Gabr dive?
5731eaed0fdd8d15006c6665
1,066 feet down
456
False
In what body of water did Gabr dive?
5731eaed0fdd8d15006c6666
Red Sea
527
False
Egypt has hosted several international competitions. the last one was 2009 FIFA U-20 World Cup which took place between 24 September - 16 October 2009. On Friday 19 September of the year 2014, Guinness World Records has announced that Egyptian scuba diver Ahmed Gabr is the new title holder for deepest salt water scuba dive, at 332.35 metres. Ahmed set a new world record Friday when he reached a depth of more than 1,000 feet. The 14-hour feat took Gabr 1,066 feet down into the abyss near the Egyptian town of Dahab in ther Red Sea, where he works as a diving instructor.
Mosaic
What millennium did Mosaic start?
57313a81a5e9cc1400cdbd57
the 3rd millennium BC
54
False
What kind of mosaic were made in Tiryns?
57313a81a5e9cc1400cdbd58
Pebble mosaics
77
False
Who besides the Romans did the Jewish people get influenced by?
57313a81a5e9cc1400cdbd59
Byzantine
695
False
The Norman kingdomwas in what italian city state?
57313a81a5e9cc1400cdbd5a
Sicily
481
False
When did mosaic fall out of fashion?
57313a81a5e9cc1400cdbd5b
the Renaissance
599
False
Mosaic has a long history, starting in Mesopotamia in the 3rd millennium BC. Pebble mosaics were made in Tiryns in Mycenean Greece; mosaics with patterns and pictures became widespread in classical times, both in Ancient Greece and Ancient Rome. Early Christian basilicas from the 4th century onwards were decorated with wall and ceiling mosaics. Mosaic art flourished in the Byzantine Empire from the 6th to the 15th centuries; that tradition was adopted by the Norman kingdom in Sicily in the 12th century, by eastern-influenced Venice, and among the Rus in Ukraine. Mosaic fell out of fashion in the Renaissance, though artists like Raphael continued to practise the old technique. Roman and Byzantine influence led Jews to decorate 5th and 6th century synagogues in the Middle East with floor mosaics.
The pebble mosaics found at Tiyns are from what age?
57313c1205b4da19006bcf02
Bronze age
0
False
The Beauty of Durres is in what country?
57313c1205b4da19006bcf03
Albania
209
False
The famous artists Sosus was from what area?
57313c1205b4da19006bcf04
Pergamon
540
False
When was the Greek figure style mostly formed?
57313c1205b4da19006bcf05
the 3rd century BC
300
False
When was the famous mosaic "The Beauty of Durres" created?
57313c1205b4da19006bcf06
the 4th-century BC
137
False
Bronze age pebble mosaics have been found at Tiryns; mosaics of the 4th century BC are found in the Macedonian palace-city of Aegae, and the 4th-century BC mosaic of The Beauty of Durrës discovered in Durrës, Albania in 1916, is an early figural example; the Greek figural style was mostly formed in the 3rd century BC. Mythological subjects, or scenes of hunting or other pursuits of the wealthy, were popular as the centrepieces of a larger geometric design, with strongly emphasized borders. Pliny the Elder mentions the artist Sosus of Pergamon by name, describing his mosaics of the food left on a floor after a feast and of a group of doves drinking from a bowl. Both of these themes were widely copied.
What common artform is far more prestigious than mosaic?
57313ec3497a881900248cc5
paintings
56
False
Which culture adapted the use of mosaics for large ground coverings in their villas?
57313ec3497a881900248cc6
the Romans
145
False
Most names of Roman mosaic workers are what nationality?
57313ec3497a881900248cc7
Greek
324
False
Often regular everyday craftsman were most likely what?
57313ec3497a881900248cc8
slaves
432
False
Carthage and Tunisia are in what general area?
57313ec3497a881900248cc9
North Africa
496
False
Greek figural mosaics could have been copied or adapted paintings, a far more prestigious artform, and the style was enthusiastically adopted by the Romans so that large floor mosaics enriched the floors of Hellenistic villas and Roman dwellings from Britain to Dura-Europos. Most recorded names of Roman mosaic workers are Greek, suggesting they dominated high quality work across the empire; no doubt most ordinary craftsmen were slaves. Splendid mosaic floors are found in Roman villas across North Africa, in places such as Carthage, and can still be seen in the extensive collection in Bardo Museum in Tunis, Tunisia.
What type of mosaic uses small tesserae?
57313f98a5e9cc1400cdbdb5
opus vermiculatum
54
False
What was the benefit of using small pieces to create a mosaic?
57313f98a5e9cc1400cdbdb6
very fine detail
285
False
What were small panel mosaics known as?
57313f98a5e9cc1400cdbdb7
emblemata
377
False
What was the name of the mosaic technique that used larger tesserae?
57313f98a5e9cc1400cdbdb8
opus tessellatum
499
False
Why were black and white pieces used in most italian mosaics?
57313f98a5e9cc1400cdbdb9
cheaper than fully coloured work
660
False
There were two main techniques in Greco-Roman mosaic: opus vermiculatum used tiny tesserae, typically cubes of 4 millimeters or less, and was produced in workshops in relatively small panels which were transported to the site glued to some temporary support. The tiny tesserae allowed very fine detail, and an approach to the illusionism of painting. Often small panels called emblemata were inserted into walls or as the highlights of larger floor-mosaics in coarser work. The normal technique was opus tessellatum, using larger tesserae, which was laid on site. There was a distinct native Italian style using black on a white background, which was no doubt cheaper than fully coloured work.
Which caesar hired builders to construct the Domus Aurea?
5731408a05b4da19006bcf40
Nero
9
False
When did figure wall mosaics become the highest form of artistic expression?
5731408a05b4da19006bcf41
the Christian era
230
False
The church of Santa Costanza is in what country?
5731408a05b4da19006bcf42
Rome
3
False
When was the Domus Aurea constructed?
5731408a05b4da19006bcf43
64 AD
117
False
The imperial family of Rome used the church of Santa Costanza as what?
5731408a05b4da19006bcf44
a mausoleum
370
False
In Rome, Nero and his architects used mosaics to cover some surfaces of walls and ceilings in the Domus Aurea, built 64 AD, and wall mosaics are also found at Pompeii and neighbouring sites. However it seems that it was not until the Christian era that figural wall mosaics became a major form of artistic expression. The Roman church of Santa Costanza, which served as a mausoleum for one or more of the Imperial family, has both religious mosaic and decorative secular ceiling mosaics on a round vault, which probably represent the style of contemporary palace decoration.
In what area of Italy is the largest collection of mosaics in the world?
573141ed05b4da19006bcf70
Sicily
67
False
Who most likely lived in the large villa rustica?
573141ed05b4da19006bcf71
Emperor Maximian
249
False
What caused the mosaics at the villa rustica to be protected for centuries?
573141ed05b4da19006bcf72
a landslide
367
False
How long is the hunting scene at the villa rustica?
573141ed05b4da19006bcf73
64m
466
False
Where in Sicily were the "Orpheus," and the "Four Seasons" discovered?
573141ed05b4da19006bcf74
Piazza Vittoria in Palermo
865
False
The mosaics of the Villa Romana del Casale near Piazza Armerina in Sicily are the largest collection of late Roman mosaics in situ in the world, and are protected as a UNESCO World Heritage Site. The large villa rustica, which was probably owned by Emperor Maximian, was built largely in the early 4th century. The mosaics were covered and protected for 700 years by a landslide that occurred in the 12th Century. The most important pieces are the Circus Scene, the 64m long Great Hunting Scene, the Little Hunt, the Labours of Hercules and the famous Bikini Girls, showing women undertaking a range of sporting activities in garments that resemble 20th Century bikinis. The peristyle, the imperial apartments and the thermae were also decorated with ornamental and mythological mosaics. Other important examples of Roman mosaic art in Sicily were unearthed on the Piazza Vittoria in Palermo where two houses were discovered. The most important scenes there depicted Orpheus, Alexander the Great's Hunt and the Four Seasons.
What scenes are depicted on the Zliten mosaic?
57314befe6313a140071cde2
gladiatorial contests
74
False
When was the Zliten mosaic discovered?
57314befe6313a140071cde3
1913
3
False
The mosaics uncovered in Libya were from which century?
57314befe6313a140071cde4
1st or 2nd century AD
293
False
How long was the mural discovered in Libya?
57314befe6313a140071cde5
30 ft
236
False
The gladiator mosaic is on par with the Alexander mosaic in which city?
57314befe6313a140071cde6
Pompeii
752
False
In 1913 the Zliten mosaic, a Roman mosaic famous for its many scenes from gladiatorial contests, hunting and everyday life, was discovered in the Libyan town of Zliten. In 2000 archaeologists working in Leptis Magna, Libya, uncovered a 30 ft length of five colorful mosaics created during the 1st or 2nd century AD. The mosaics show a warrior in combat with a deer, four young men wrestling a wild bull to the ground, and a gladiator resting in a state of fatigue, staring at his slain opponent. The mosaics decorated the walls of a cold plunge pool in a bath house within a Roman villa. The gladiator mosaic is noted by scholars as one of the finest examples of mosaic art ever seen — a "masterpiece comparable in quality with the Alexander Mosaic in Pompeii."
Around what century were mosaics adapted for Christian churches?
57314d4205b4da19006bd00a
the late 4th century
44
False
What Christian church besides the Santa Costanza was built in the 4th century?
57314d4205b4da19006bd00b
Santa Pudenziana
227
False
What was the original function of the Santa Costanza church?
57314d4205b4da19006bd00c
a mausoleum
497
False
In which basilica is the Tomb of Julii?
57314d4205b4da19006bd00d
St Peter's Basilica
773
False
Under what period were the 4th century churches built?
57314d4205b4da19006bd00e
Constantinian
567
False
With the building of Christian basilicas in the late 4th century, wall and ceiling mosaics were adopted for Christian uses. The earliest examples of Christian basilicas have not survived, but the mosaics of Santa Constanza and Santa Pudenziana, both from the 4th century, still exist. The winemaking putti in the ambulatory of Santa Constanza still follow the classical tradition in that they represent the feast of Bacchus, which symbolizes transformation or change, and are thus appropriate for a mausoleum, the original function of this building. In another great Constantinian basilica, the Church of the Nativity in Bethlehem the original mosaic floor with typical Roman geometric motifs is partially preserved. The so-called Tomb of the Julii, near the crypt beneath St Peter's Basilica, is a 4th-century vaulted tomb with wall and ceiling mosaics that are given Christian interpretations. The Rotunda of Galerius in Thessaloniki, converted into a Christian church during the course of the 4th century, was embellished with very high artistic quality mosaics. Only fragments survive of the original decoration, especially a band depicting saints with hands raised in prayer, in front of complex architectural fantasies.
Which city besides Ravenna served as the capital of the Western Roman Empire?
57314eae05b4da19006bd01c
Milan
152
False
What is the name of the mosaic in the Basilica of Sant'Ambrogio?
57314eae05b4da19006bd01d
apse
547
False
The shrine of San Vittore in ciel d'oro had mosaics from which century?
57314eae05b4da19006bd01e
the 5th century
1120
False
Who do the mosaics at the the basilica of San Lorenzo depict as being abducted?
57314eae05b4da19006bd01f
Elijah
396
False
When was the baptistry at the Basilica of Sant'Ambrogio demolished?
57314eae05b4da19006bd020
the 15th century
848
False
In the following century Ravenna, the capital of the Western Roman Empire, became the center of late Roman mosaic art (see details in Ravenna section). Milan also served as the capital of the western empire in the 4th century. In the St Aquilinus Chapel of the Basilica of San Lorenzo, mosaics executed in the late 4th and early 5th centuries depict Christ with the Apostles and the Abduction of Elijah; these mosaics are outstanding for their bright colors, naturalism and adherence to the classical canons of order and proportion. The surviving apse mosaic of the Basilica of Sant'Ambrogio, which shows Christ enthroned between Saint Gervasius and Saint Protasius and angels before a golden background date back to the 5th and to the 8th century, although it was restored many times later. The baptistery of the basilica, which was demolished in the 15th century, had a vault covered with gold-leaf tesserae, large quantities of which were found when the site was excavated. In the small shrine of San Vittore in ciel d'oro, now a chapel of Sant'Ambrogio, every surface is covered with mosaics from the second half of the 5th century. Saint Victor is depicted in the center of the golden dome, while figures of saints are shown on the walls before a blue background. The low spandrels give space for the symbols of the four Evangelists.
In the 5th century what was the capital of the Western Roman Empire?
57314fb3e6313a140071ce0a
Ravenna
19
False
What years was the Mausoleum of Galla Placidia decorated with mosaics?
57314fb3e6313a140071ce0b
425–430
200
False
What other famous landmark in Ravenna was established by Galla Placidia?
57314fb3e6313a140071ce0c
the church of San Giovanni Evangelista
444
False
Why did Galla Placidia erect the church of San Giovanni Evangelista?
57314fb3e6313a140071ce0d
fulfillment of a vow
502
False
When were most of the mosaics at the church of San Giovanni Evangelista destroyed?
57314fb3e6313a140071ce0e
1747
853
False
In the 5th-century Ravenna, the capital of the Western Roman Empire, became the center of late Roman mosaic art. The Mausoleum of Galla Placidia was decorated with mosaics of high artistic quality in 425–430. The vaults of the small, cross-shaped structure are clad with mosaics on blue background. The central motif above the crossing is a golden cross in the middle of the starry sky. Another great building established by Galla Placidia was the church of San Giovanni Evangelista. She erected it in fulfillment of a vow that she made having escaped from a deadly storm in 425 on the sea voyage from Constantinople to Ravenna. The mosaics depicted the storm, portraits of members of the western and eastern imperial family and the bishop of Ravenna, Peter Chrysologus. They are known only from Renaissance sources because almost all were destroyed in 1747.
When was Ravenna conquered by the Eastern Roman Empire?
5731514505b4da19006bd03e
After 539
0
False
When did the biggest achievement in Christian mosaics take place?
5731514505b4da19006bd03f
the second half of the 6th century
214
False
What event led up to the creation of the amazing mosaics in in the Basilica of San Vitale?
5731514505b4da19006bd040
the Byzantine conquest
518
False
When were the mosaics at the Basilica of Sant'Apollinare created?
5731514505b4da19006bd041
549
616
False
Where are the remains of the apse mosaic of San Michele?
5731514505b4da19006bd042
Berlin
757
False
After 539 Ravenna was reconquered by the Romans in the form of the Eastern Roman Empire (Byzantine Empire) and became the seat of the Exarchate of Ravenna. The greatest development of Christian mosaics unfolded in the second half of the 6th century. Outstanding examples of Byzantine mosaic art are the later phase mosaics in the Basilica of San Vitale and Basilica of Sant'Apollinare Nuovo. The mosaic depicting Emperor Saint Justinian I and Empress Theodora in the Basilica of San Vitale were executed shortly after the Byzantine conquest. The mosaics of the Basilica of Sant'Apollinare in Classe were made around 549. The anti-Arian theme is obvious in the apse mosaic of San Michele in Affricisco, executed in 545–547 (largely destroyed; the remains in Berlin).
The floor mosaic in Butrint is how much older than that of the Baptistry?
5731525ca5e9cc1400cdbe77
almost a generation
113
False
In what country is Butrint?
5731525ca5e9cc1400cdbe78
Albania
60
False
What type of message was left on the mosaics at Butrint?
5731525ca5e9cc1400cdbe79
prayer
679
False
What was the mosaic at Butrint designed to portray?
5731525ca5e9cc1400cdbe7a
a terrestrial paradise
361
False
The Vrina Plain basilica is in which city?
5731525ca5e9cc1400cdbe7b
Butrint
51
False
The mosaic pavement of the Vrina Plain basilica of Butrint, Albania appear to pre-date that of the Baptistery by almost a generation, dating to the last quarter of the 5th or the first years of the 6th century. The mosaic displays a variety of motifs including sea-creatures, birds, terrestrial beasts, fruits, flowers, trees and abstracts – designed to depict a terrestrial paradise of God’s creation. Superimposed on this scheme are two large tablets, tabulae ansatae, carrying inscriptions. A variety of fish, a crab, a lobster, shrimps, mushrooms, flowers, a stag and two cruciform designs surround the smaller of the two inscriptions, which reads: In fulfilment of the vow (prayer) of those whose names God knows. This anonymous dedicatory inscription is a public demonstration of the benefactors’ humility and an acknowledgement of God’s omniscience.
What was depicted on the Butrint mosaics in abundance?
57315596a5e9cc1400cdbe9b
natural life
24
False
What do the katharos vase and vine refer to?
57315596a5e9cc1400cdbe9c
the eucharist
196
False
What do peacocks represent in Christian symbolism?
57315596a5e9cc1400cdbe9d
paradise and resurrection
295
False
What do most sea-creatures represent in Christina symbolism?
57315596a5e9cc1400cdbe9e
baptism
613
False
What did deers or stags represent in Christian Symbolism?
57315596a5e9cc1400cdbe9f
the faithful aspiring to Christ
448
False
The abundant variety of natural life depicted in the Butrint mosaics celebrates the richness of God’s creation; some elements also have specific connotations. The kantharos vase and vine refer to the eucharist, the symbol of the sacrifice of Christ leading to salvation. Peacocks are symbols of paradise and resurrection; shown eating or drinking from the vase they indicate the route to eternal life. Deer or stags were commonly used as images of the faithful aspiring to Christ: "As a heart desireth the water brook, so my souls longs for thee, O God." Water-birds and fish and other sea-creatures can indicate baptism as well as the members of the Church who are christened.
When did conditions become difficult for mosaic art in Rome?
573156a305b4da19006bd06a
the Early Middle Ages
105
False
When was the mosaic of Sant'Agata dei Goti destroyed?
573156a305b4da19006bd06b
1589
497
False
What was similar between the three most important 5th century mosaics?
573156a305b4da19006bd06c
iconography
1093
False
When was the mosaic at Santa Sabina replaced with a fresco?
573156a305b4da19006bd06d
1559
903
False
Who was the artist that painted the fresco that replaced the mosaic at Santa Sobina?
573156a305b4da19006bd06e
Taddeo Zuccari
885
False
Christian mosaic art also flourished in Rome, gradually declining as conditions became more difficult in the Early Middle Ages. 5th century mosaics can be found over the triumphal arch and in the nave of the basilica of Santa Maria Maggiore. The 27 surviving panels of the nave are the most important mosaic cycle in Rome of this period. Two other important 5th century mosaics are lost but we know them from 17th-century drawings. In the apse mosaic of Sant'Agata dei Goti (462–472, destroyed in 1589) Christ was seated on a globe with the twelve Apostles flanking him, six on either side. At Sant'Andrea in Catabarbara (468–483, destroyed in 1686) Christ appeared in the center, flanked on either side by three Apostles. Four streams flowed from the little mountain supporting Christ. The original 5th-century apse mosaic of the Santa Sabina was replaced by a very similar fresco by Taddeo Zuccari in 1559. The composition probably remained unchanged: Christ flanked by male and female saints, seated on a hill while lambs drinking from a stream at its feet. All three mosaics had a similar iconography.
During which centuries did ROme fall under the influence of Byzantine art?
573157bae6313a140071ce42
the 7th–9th centuries
3
False
The lateran Palace was decorated with what?
573157bae6313a140071ce43
mosaics
362
False
What do most mosaics from the 7th-9th centuries have in common?
573157bae6313a140071ce44
They were all destroyed later
371
False
When was the mosaic at the church of Santo Stefano del Cacco destroyed?
573157bae6313a140071ce45
1607
886
False
Which mosaic survived through the 9th century, and then had a copy made in the 18th?
573157bae6313a140071ce46
Triclinio Leoniano
439
False
In the 7th–9th centuries Rome fell under the influence of Byzantine art, noticeable on the mosaics of Santa Prassede, Santa Maria in Domnica, Sant'Agnese fuori le Mura, Santa Cecilia in Trastevere, Santi Nereo e Achilleo and the San Venanzio chapel of San Giovanni in Laterano. The great dining hall of Pope Leo III in the Lateran Palace was also decorated with mosaics. They were all destroyed later except for one example, the so-called Triclinio Leoniano of which a copy was made in the 18th century. Another great work of Pope Leo, the apse mosaic of Santa Susanna, depicted Christ with the Pope and Charlemagne on one side, and SS. Susanna and Felicity on the other. It was plastered over during a renovation in 1585. Pope Paschal I (817–824) embellished the church of Santo Stefano del Cacco with an apsidal mosaic which depicted the pope with a model of the church (destroyed in 1607).
When were the mosaics at the Great Palace of Constantinople commissioned?
573158c805b4da19006bd092
during Justinian's reign
112
False
What is considered the most important surviving mosaic of the Justinian age?
573158c805b4da19006bd093
The portrait of a moustached man
244
False
What was the small vaulted room in the Great Palace of Constantinople called?
573158c805b4da19006bd094
small sekreton
396
False
Vine Scroll motifs are classified under what kind of tradition?
573158c805b4da19006bd095
Classical
644
False
When were the mosaics at the church in Thessaloniki created?
573158c805b4da19006bd096
5th–6th centuries
757
False
Important fragments survived from the mosaic floor of the Great Palace of Constantinople which was commissioned during Justinian's reign. The figures, animals, plants all are entirely classical but they are scattered before a plain background. The portrait of a moustached man, probably a Gothic chieftain, is considered the most important surviving mosaic of the Justinianian age. The so-called small sekreton of the palace was built during Justin II's reign around 565–577. Some fragments survive from the mosaics of this vaulted room. The vine scroll motifs are very similar to those in the Santa Constanza and they still closely follow the Classical tradition. There are remains of floral decoration in the Church of the Acheiropoietos in Thessaloniki (5th–6th centuries).
How many Byzantine mosaics survived past the 8th century?
573159bca5e9cc1400cdbedd
Very few
0
False
The mosaic in the church in Thessaloniki is know as what?
573159bca5e9cc1400cdbede
Christ in majesty (or Ezekiel's Vision)
135
False
Why was Christ in majesty protected from the iconoclastic destruction?
573159bca5e9cc1400cdbedf
hidden behind mortar
249
False
When were the panels in the Hagios Demetrios Church created?
573159bca5e9cc1400cdbee0
between 634 and 730
367
False
What is common about the surviving mosaics from the 7th-9th centuries?
573159bca5e9cc1400cdbee1
almost all represent Saint Demetrius
424
False
Very few early Byzantine mosaics survived the Iconoclastic destruction of the 8th century. Among the rare examples are the 6th-century Christ in majesty (or Ezekiel's Vision) mosaic in the apse of the Church of Hosios David in Thessaloniki that was hidden behind mortar during those dangerous times. Nine mosaic panels in the Hagios Demetrios Church, which were made between 634 and 730, also escaped destruction. Unusually almost all represent Saint Demetrius of Thessaloniki, often with suppliants before him.
Why were mosaics destroyed in the iconoclastic era?
57315ab705b4da19006bd0a6
condemned as idolatry
51
False
What was the common mosaic theme of iconoclastic churches?
57315ab705b4da19006bd0a7
gold mosaics with only one great cross
128
False
When did the Iconodules  change the cross in the Hagia Sophia?
57315ab705b4da19006bd0a8
787–797
475
False
When was the Dormition church destroyed?
57315ab705b4da19006bd0a9
1922
568
False
When did the Hagia Irene adapt the iconoclastic era mosaics?
57315ab705b4da19006bd0aa
after 740
219
False
In the Iconoclastic era, figural mosaics were also condemned as idolatry. The Iconoclastic churches were embellished with plain gold mosaics with only one great cross in the apse like the Hagia Irene in Constantinople (after 740). There were similar crosses in the apses of the Hagia Sophia Church in Thessaloniki and in the Church of the Dormition in Nicaea. The crosses were substituted with the image of the Theotokos in both churches after the victory of the Iconodules (787–797 and in 8th–9th centuries respectively, the Dormition church was totally destroyed in 1922).
Where is the Nea Moni Monastery located?
57315ba4497a881900248e61
Chios
26
False
Who established the Nea Moni Monastery?
57315ba4497a881900248e62
Constantine Monomachos
51
False
When was the Nea Moni Monastery established?
57315ba4497a881900248e63
1043–1056
77
False
When was the mosaic at the Nea Moni Monastery destroyed?
57315ba4497a881900248e64
1822
198
False
The Nea Moni mosaics are more detailed than what what other famous mosaics?
57315ba4497a881900248e65
Osios Loukas
430
False
The Nea Moni Monastery on Chios was established by Constantine Monomachos in 1043–1056. The exceptional mosaic decoration of the dome showing probably the nine orders of the angels was destroyed in 1822 but other panels survived (Theotokos with raised hands, four evangelists with seraphim, scenes from Christ's life and an interesting Anastasis where King Salomon bears resemblance to Constantine Monomachos). In comparison with Osios Loukas Nea Moni mosaics contain more figures, detail, landscape and setting.
Who restored the Church of the Holy Sepulchre in the 1040's?
57315c6c497a881900248e7f
Constantine Monomachos
29
False
What survives of the mosaics that adorned the walls and dome of the Church of the Holy Sepulchre?
57315c6c497a881900248e80
Nothing
144
False
Who left the only description of the mosaics at the Church of the Holy Sepulchre?
57315c6c497a881900248e81
the Russian abbot Daniel
232
False
Where did the Russian abbot Daniel travel in 1106-07?
57315c6c497a881900248e82
Jerusalem
270
False
Another great undertaking by Constantine Monomachos was the restoration of the Church of the Holy Sepulchre in Jerusalem between 1042 and 1048. Nothing survived of the mosaics which covered the walls and the dome of the edifice but the Russian abbot Daniel, who visited Jerusalem in 1106–1107 left a description: "Lively mosaics of the holy prophets are under the ceiling, over the tribune. The altar is surmounted by a mosaic image of Christ. In the main altar one can see the mosaic of the Exhaltation of Adam. In the apse the Ascension of Christ. The Annunciation occupies the two pillars next to the altar."
When were the Byzantine mosaics of the Hagia Sophia created?
57315da9497a881900248e87
The 9th- and 10th-century
0
False
The tympana under the dome had images of whom displayed?
57315da9497a881900248e88
prophets, saints and patriarchs
187
False
When did the Empress Zoe die?
57315da9497a881900248e89
1055
801
False
What does the Empress give to Christ as depicted by the mosaic?
57315da9497a881900248e8a
a bulging money sack
826
False
Who was depicted with the Empress Zoe on a panel in the gallery of the Hagia Sophia?
57315da9497a881900248e8b
Constantine Monomachos
756
False
The 9th- and 10th-century mosaics of the Hagia Sophia in Constantinople are truly classical Byzantine artworks. The north and south tympana beneath the dome was decorated with figures of prophets, saints and patriarchs. Above the principal door from the narthex we can see an Emperor kneeling before Christ (late 9th or early 10th century). Above the door from the southwest vestibule to the narthex another mosaic shows the Theotokos with Justinian and Constantine. Justinian I is offering the model of the church to Mary while Constantine is holding a model of the city in his hand. Both emperors are beardless – this is an example for conscious archaization as contemporary Byzantine rulers were bearded. A mosaic panel on the gallery shows Christ with Constantine Monomachos and Empress Zoe (1042–1055). The emperor gives a bulging money sack to Christ as a donation for the church.
Why are there so few surviving mosaics from the Komnenian period?
57315fc6497a881900248e99
accidents of survival
94
False
Where is the only existing 12th century mosaic in Constantinople?
57315fc6497a881900248e9a
Hagia Sophia
227
False
What deity does the 12th century mosaic in the Hagia Sophia depict?
57315fc6497a881900248e9b
the Theotokos
290
False
The empress Eirene had what color hair?
57315fc6497a881900248e9c
red
455
False
The only surviving mosaic from the Komnenos dynasty outside Constantinople is in what church?
57315fc6497a881900248e9d
the cathedral of Serres
888
False
There are very few existing mosaics from the Komnenian period but this paucity must be due to accidents of survival and gives a misleading impression. The only surviving 12th-century mosaic work in Constantinople is a panel in Hagia Sophia depicting Emperor John II and Empress Eirene with the Theotokos (1122–34). The empress with her long braided hair and rosy cheeks is especially capturing. It must be a lifelike portrayal because Eirene was really a redhead as her original Hungarian name, Piroska shows. The adjacent portrait of Emperor Alexios I Komnenos on a pier (from 1122) is similarly personal. The imperial mausoleum of the Komnenos dynasty, the Pantokrator Monastery was certainly decorated with great mosaics but these were later destroyed. The lack of Komnenian mosaics outside the capital is even more apparent. There is only a "Communion of the Apostles" in the apse of the cathedral of Serres.
How big were the tesserae in the Komnenian period miniature mosaic icons?
5731628fe6313a140071ceb2
1 mm or less
166
False
What were the tesserae usually set in for miniature mosaic icons?
5731628fe6313a140071ceb3
wax or resin
192
False
The more humanistic conception of Christ appeared when?
5731628fe6313a140071ceb4
in the 12th century
525
False
What was the intended purpose of the miniature mosaic icons?
5731628fe6313a140071ceb5
private devotion
287
False
A striking technical innovation of the Komnenian period was the production of very precious, miniature mosaic icons. In these icons the small tesserae (with sides of 1 mm or less) were set on wax or resin on a wooden panel. These products of extraordinary craftmanship were intended for private devotion. The Louvre Transfiguration is a very fine example from the late 12th century. The miniature mosaic of Christ in the Museo Nazionale at Florence illustrates the more gentle, humanistic conception of Christ which appeared in the 12th century.
When was the Church of the Holy Apostles built?
573163cf497a881900248eb9
1310–14
61
False
Who removed the gold tesserae in the background of the mosaic at the Church of the Holy Apostles?
573163cf497a881900248eba
some vandal
79
False
Where is the Theotokos Paregoritissa Church located?
573163cf497a881900248ebb
Arta
479
False
Who established the Theotokos Paregoritissa Church in 1294-96?
573163cf497a881900248ebc
the Despot of Epirus
515
False
The same team of mosaicists worked on the Church of the Holy Apostles in Thessaloniki as which other building?
573163cf497a881900248ebd
Pammakaristos
289
False
The Church of the Holy Apostles in Thessaloniki was built in 1310–14. Although some vandal systematically removed the gold tesserae of the background it can be seen that the Pantokrator and the prophets in the dome follow the traditional Byzantine pattern. Many details are similar to the Pammakaristos mosaics so it is supposed that the same team of mosaicists worked in both buildings. Another building with a related mosaic decoration is the Theotokos Paregoritissa Church in Arta. The church was established by the Despot of Epirus in 1294–96. In the dome is the traditional stern Pantokrator, with prophets and cherubim below.
where is the greatest mosaic work of the renaissance?
57316587e6313a140071ceda
the Chora Church in Constantinople
84
False
How many mosaic panels from naos have survived?
57316587e6313a140071cedb
three
178
False
The panels of naos are only capped in importance by which other location?
57316587e6313a140071cedc
the Hagia Sophia
322
False
Who commissioned the mosaics at naos?
57316587e6313a140071cedd
Theodore Metochites
389
False
The panels from naos show what influence on Byzantine art.
57316587e6313a140071cede
Italian trecento
942
False
The greatest mosaic work of the Palaeologan renaissance in art is the decoration of the Chora Church in Constantinople. Although the mosaics of the naos have not survived except three panels, the decoration of the exonarthex and the esonarthex constitute the most important full-scale mosaic cycle in Constantinople after the Hagia Sophia. They were executed around 1320 by the command of Theodore Metochites. The esonarthex has two fluted domes, specially created to provide the ideal setting for the mosaic images of the ancestors of Christ. The southern one is called the Dome of the Pantokrator while the northern one is the Dome of the Theotokos. The most important panel of the esonarthex depicts Theodore Metochites wearing a huge turban, offering the model of the church to Christ. The walls of both narthexes are decorated with mosaic cycles from the life of the Virgin and the life of Christ. These panels show the influence of the Italian trecento on Byzantine art especially the more natural settings, landscapes, figures.
When was the last period of Roman mosaic art?
5731671005b4da19006bd11c
the 12th–13th century
46
False
Where is the church of Santa maria?
5731671005b4da19006bd11d
Trastevere
350
False
Who does the facade at the Santa Maria church depict?
5731671005b4da19006bd11e
Christ and Mary
460
False
When were the mosaics at Torriti and Jacopo fully restored?
5731671005b4da19006bd11f
in 1884
832
False
What year was the medallion above the gate of the church of San Tommaso?
5731671005b4da19006bd120
1210
1191
False
The last great period of Roman mosaic art was the 12th–13th century when Rome developed its own distinctive artistic style, free from the strict rules of eastern tradition and with a more realistic portrayal of figures in the space. Well-known works of this period are the floral mosaics of the Basilica di San Clemente, the façade of Santa Maria in Trastevere and San Paolo fuori le Mura. The beautiful apse mosaic of Santa Maria in Trastevere (1140) depicts Christ and Mary sitting next to each other on the heavenly throne, the first example of this iconographic scheme. A similar mosaic, the Coronation of the Virgin, decorates the apse of Santa Maria Maggiore. It is a work of Jacopo Torriti from 1295. The mosaics of Torriti and Jacopo da Camerino in the apse of San Giovanni in Laterano from 1288–94 were thoroughly restored in 1884. The apse mosaic of San Crisogono is attributed to Pietro Cavallini, the greatest Roman painter of the 13th century. Six scenes from the life of Mary in Santa Maria in Trastevere were also executed by Cavallini in 1290. These mosaics are praised for their realistic portrayal and attempts of perspective. There is an interesting mosaic medaillon from 1210 above the gate of the church of San Tommaso in Formis showing Christ enthroned between a white and a black slave. The church belonged to the Order of the Trinitarians which was devoted to ransoming Christian slaves.
Who created the Navicella mosaic in the Old St. Peter's church?
57316811e6313a140071cefc
Giotto di Bondone
93
False
Who commissioned the Navicella mosaic?
57316811e6313a140071cefd
Cardinal Jacopo Stefaneschi
146
False
Who did the navicella mosaic depict walking on water?
57316811e6313a140071cefe
St. Peter
328
False
What century was the majority of the Navicella mosaic destroyed?
57316811e6313a140071ceff
the 17th
456
False
Navicella means what in Italian?
57316811e6313a140071cf00
"little ship"
490
False
The great Navicella mosaic (1305–1313) in the atrium of the Old St. Peter's is attributed to Giotto di Bondone. The giant mosaic, commissioned by Cardinal Jacopo Stefaneschi, was originally situated on the eastern porch of the old basilica and occupied the whole wall above the entrance arcade facing the courtyard. It depicted St. Peter walking on the waters. This extraordinary work was mainly destroyed during the construction of the new St. Peter's in the 17th century. Navicella means "little ship" referring to the large boat which dominated the scene, and whose sail, filled by the storm, loomed over the horizon. Such a natural representation of a seascape was known only from ancient works of art.
when was the height of mosaic art in sicily?
573169afa5e9cc1400cdbf31
the 12th century
87
False
Who adopted the Byzantine mosaic tradition?
573169afa5e9cc1400cdbf32
Norman kings
109
False
Why did the Normans adopt a Byzantine art style?
573169afa5e9cc1400cdbf33
enhance the somewhat dubious legality of their rule
178
False
Who was influenced by Western European and Islamic tendencies?
573169afa5e9cc1400cdbf34
Greek masters working in Sicily
231
False
The Martorana church is an example of the best mosaic art in what part italy?
573169afa5e9cc1400cdbf35
Sicily
256
False
The heyday of mosaic making in Sicily was the age of the independent Norman kingdom in the 12th century. The Norman kings adopted the Byzantine tradition of mosaic decoration to enhance the somewhat dubious legality of their rule. Greek masters working in Sicily developed their own style, that shows the influence of Western European and Islamic artistic tendencies. Best examples of Sicilian mosaic art are the Cappella Palatina of Roger II, the Martorana church in Palermo and the cathedrals of Cefalù and Monreale.
When was the Martorana church decorated?
57316b0de6313a140071cf10
around 1143
32
False
Who is featured in the mosaic at the Martorana church?
57316b0de6313a140071cf11
Christ
197
False
The Martorana church was likely decorated by the same greek masters who decorated which church?
57316b0de6313a140071cf12
the Cappella Palatina
403
False
Who was the founder of the Martorana church?
57316b0de6313a140071cf13
Georgios of Antiochia
627
False
Who is receiving a crown from christ in the mosaic originally in the narthex?
57316b0de6313a140071cf14
Roger II
447
False
The Martorana church (decorated around 1143) looked originally even more Byzantine although important parts were later demolished. The dome mosaic is similar to that of the Cappella Palatina, with Christ enthroned in the middle and four bowed, elongated angels. The Greek inscriptions, decorative patterns, and evangelists in the squinches are obviously executed by the same Greek masters who worked on the Cappella Palatina. The mosaic depicting Roger II of Sicily, dressed in Byzantine imperial robes and receiving the crown by Christ, was originally in the demolished narthex together with another panel, the Theotokos with Georgios of Antiochia, the founder of the church.
What is the name of the largest mosaics in Italy?
57316c1d05b4da19006bd126
The Monreale mosaics
0
False
At least how many tesserae are used in the the Monreale mosaics?
57316c1d05b4da19006bd127
100 million
115
False
Who commissioned the Monreale mosaics between 1176 and 1186?
57316c1d05b4da19006bd128
King William II of Sicily
219
False
Who is displayed getting crowned by christ in the Monreale mosaics?
57316c1d05b4da19006bd129
King William II
500
False
What is the king offering Theotokos in the Monreale mosaics?
57316c1d05b4da19006bd12a
the model of the cathedral
582
False
The Monreale mosaics constitute the largest decoration of this kind in Italy, covering 0,75 hectares with at least 100 million glass and stone tesserae. This huge work was executed between 1176 and 1186 by the order of King William II of Sicily. The iconography of the mosaics in the presbytery is similar to Cefalu while the pictures in the nave are almost the same as the narrative scenes in the Cappella Palatina. The Martorana mosaic of Roger II blessed by Christ was repeated with the figure of King William II instead of his predecessor. Another panel shows the king offering the model of the cathedral to the Theotokos.
What region of italy was part of the Norman empire?
57316e2b497a881900248ed3
Southern
0
False
The only surviving mosaic from Norman held souther Italy is what?
57316e2b497a881900248ed4
pavement of the Otranto Cathedral
121
False
The mosaics in churches of Ravello prove what?
57316e2b497a881900248ed5
mosaic art was widespread
492
False
What survives from the mosaics of Amalfi's Norman Cathedral?
57316e2b497a881900248ed6
Only fragments
347
False
What year were the mosaic pavements installed at the Otranto Cathedral?
57316e2b497a881900248ed7
1166
160
False
Southern Italy was also part of the Norman kingdom but great mosaics did not survive in this area except the fine mosaic pavement of the Otranto Cathedral from 1166, with mosaics tied into a tree of life, mostly still preserved. The scenes depict biblical characters, warrior kings, medieval beasts, allegories of the months and working activity. Only fragments survived from the original mosaic decoration of Amalfi's Norman Cathedral. The mosaic ambos in the churches of Ravello prove that mosaic art was widespread in Southern Italy during the 11th–13th centuries.
Which area in Italy besides Sicily did mosaic art not go out of fashion in the middle ages?
5731703a05b4da19006bd176
Venice
81
False
Which church in Venice is decorated with elaborate golden mosaics?
5731703a05b4da19006bd177
St Mark's Basilica
175
False
When were the oldest scenes in St. Mark's mosaics completed?
5731703a05b4da19006bd178
the late 11th century
296
False
The majority of the mosaics in Venice were created by who?
5731703a05b4da19006bd179
local artists
363
False
When was the sack of Constantinople?
5731703a05b4da19006bd17a
1204
685
False
In parts of Italy, which were under eastern artistic influences, like Sicily and Venice, mosaic making never went out of fashion in the Middle Ages. The whole interior of the St Mark's Basilica in Venice is clad with elaborate, golden mosaics. The oldest scenes were executed by Greek masters in the late 11th century but the majority of the mosaics are works of local artists from the 12th–13th centuries. The decoration of the church was finished only in the 16th century. One hundred and ten scenes of mosaics in the atrium of St Mark's were based directly on the miniatures of the Cotton Genesis, a Byzantine manuscript that was brought to Venice after the sack of Constantinople (1204). The mosaics were executed in the 1220s.
Where is the Cathedral of Santa Maria Assunta?
573170f3a5e9cc1400cdbf63
Torcello
89
False
When were the mosaics in the Cathedral of Santa Maria Assunta built?
573170f3a5e9cc1400cdbf64
the 12th century
103
False
Where is the Basilica of Santi Maria e Donato located?
573170f3a5e9cc1400cdbf65
Murano
169
False
Who purchased the 13th century mosaic from the the San Cipriano Church?
573170f3a5e9cc1400cdbf66
Frederick William IV of Prussia
558
False
Where did Frederick William IV relocate the mural he purchased?
573170f3a5e9cc1400cdbf67
the Friedenskirche of Potsdam
613
False
Other important Venetian mosaics can be found in the Cathedral of Santa Maria Assunta in Torcello from the 12th century, and in the Basilical of Santi Maria e Donato in Murano with a restored apse mosaic from the 12th century and a beautiful mosaic pavement (1140). The apse of the San Cipriano Church in Murano was decorated with an impressive golden mosaic from the early 13th century showing Christ enthroned with Mary, St John and the two patron saints, Cipriano and Cipriana. When the church was demolished in the 19th century, the mosaic was bought by Frederick William IV of Prussia. It was reassembled in the Friedenskirche of Potsdam in the 1840s.
Who hired Byzantine experts to decorate a rebuilt abbey church?
573172d505b4da19006bd1ae
The Abbot of Monte Cassino
0
False
After what time did the Abbot of Monte Cassino send for Byzantine mosaicists?
573172d505b4da19006bd1af
1066
85
False
What animal was on the only surviving mosaics created by the greeks at the rebuilt abbey?
573172d505b4da19006bd1b0
greyhounds
410
False
Where are the only remaining greek mosaic panels now kept?
573172d505b4da19006bd1b1
in the Monte Cassino Museum
426
False
The Abbot of Monte Cassino, Desiderius sent envoys to Constantinople some time after 1066 to hire expert Byzantine mosaicists for the decoration of the rebuilt abbey church. According to chronicler Leo of Ostia the Greek artists decorated the apse, the arch and the vestibule of the basilica. Their work was admired by contemporaries but was totally destroyed in later centuries except two fragments depicting greyhounds (now in the Monte Cassino Museum). "The abbot in his wisdom decided that great number of young monks in the monastery should be thoroughly initiated in these arts" – says the chronicler about the role of the Greeks in the revival of mosaic art in medieval Italy.
What was special about St Mark's Basilica in Venice?
573174c3e6313a140071cf4c
façades were also decorated
40
False
When was the latest addition to the facade at St Mark's Basilica in Venice?
573174c3e6313a140071cf4d
from 1270–75
200
False
the Cathedral of Orvieto has a mosaic facade, done first in which century?
573174c3e6313a140071cf4e
the 14th
315
False
the Basilica di San Frediano in Lucca has a large golden mosaic facade depicting which figure?
573174c3e6313a140071cf4f
Christ
454
False
The Cathedral of Spoleto is signed by who?
573174c3e6313a140071cf50
Solsternus
674
False
Sometimes not only church interiors but façades were also decorated with mosaics in Italy like in the case of the St Mark's Basilica in Venice (mainly from the 17th–19th centuries, but the oldest one from 1270–75, "The burial of St Mark in the first basilica"), the Cathedral of Orvieto (golden Gothic mosaics from the 14th century, many times redone) and the Basilica di San Frediano in Lucca (huge, striking golden mosaic representing the Ascension of Christ with the apostles below, designed by Berlinghiero Berlinghieri in the 13th century). The Cathedral of Spoleto is also decorated on the upper façade with a huge mosaic portraying the Blessing Christ (signed by one Solsternus from 1207).
What proves mosaics were used in the early middle ages?
57317859a5e9cc1400cdbf9b
scant remains
5
False
Where is the Abbey of Saint-Martial?
57317859a5e9cc1400cdbf9c
Limoges
110
False
When was the crypt of the Abbey of Saint-Martial re-discovered?
57317859a5e9cc1400cdbf9d
the 1960s
259
False
What was found under the Basilica of Saint-Quentin?
57317859a5e9cc1400cdbf9e
9th century mosaic
493
False
What common element do mosaic panels from the 11th century have?
57317859a5e9cc1400cdbf9f
simple colors
756
False
Only scant remains prove that mosaics were still used in the Early Middle Ages. The Abbey of Saint-Martial in Limoges, originally an important place of pilgrimage, was totally demolished during the French Revolution except its crypt which was rediscovered in the 1960s. A mosaic panel was unearthed which was dated to the 9th century. It somewhat incongruously uses cubes of gilded glass and deep green marble, probably taken from antique pavements. This could also be the case with the early 9th century mosaic found under the Basilica of Saint-Quentin in Picardy, where antique motifs are copied but using only simple colors. The mosaics in the Cathedral of Saint-Jean at Lyon have been dated to the 11th century because they employ the same non-antique simple colors. More fragments were found on the site of Saint-Croix at Poitiers which might be from the 6th or 9th century.
What would replace the labor intensive technique of mosaic?
5731792de6313a140071cf7c
fresco
6
False
When was the the mosaic at the Royal Basilica of Hungarian Kings destroyed?
5731792de6313a140071cf7d
the 17th century
451
False
Who created the Last judgement mosaic in the St. Vitus Cathedral?
5731792de6313a140071cf7e
Venetian craftsmen
630
False
What is the Royal Basilica of the Hungarian kings also known as?
5731792de6313a140071cf7f
Alba Regia
222
False
Where is the Royal Basilica of the Hungarian kings?
5731792de6313a140071cf80
Székesfehérvár
206
False
Later fresco replaced the more labor-intensive technique of mosaic in Western-Europe, although mosaics were sometimes used as decoration on medieval cathedrals. The Royal Basilica of the Hungarian kings in Székesfehérvár (Alba Regia) had a mosaic decoration in the apse. It was probably a work of Venetian or Ravennese craftsmen, executed in the first decades of the 11th century. The mosaic was almost totally destroyed together with the basilica in the 17th century. The Golden Gate of the St. Vitus Cathedral in Prague got its name from the golden 14th-century mosaic of the Last Judgement above the portal. It was executed by Venetian craftsmen.
What nation influenced the Crusaders mosaic styles?
57317a46497a881900248f5f
Byzantine
74
False
Where is the Church of the Holy Sepulchre located?
57317a46497a881900248f60
Jerusalem
175
False
What is the name of the lone surviving mosaic of the Crusader period?
57317a46497a881900248f61
"Ascension of Christ"
292
False
Where is the mosaic "Ascension of Christ" located?
57317a46497a881900248f62
in the Latin Chapel
314
False
The Byzantine emperor, the king of Jerusalem and the Latin Church came together in what year to redecorate the Church of the Holy Sepulchre?
57317a46497a881900248f63
1169
836
False
The Crusaders in the Holy Land also adopted mosaic decoration under local Byzantine influence. During their 12th-century reconstruction of the Church of the Holy Sepulchre in Jerusalem they complemented the existing Byzantine mosaics with new ones. Almost nothing of them survived except the "Ascension of Christ" in the Latin Chapel (now confusingly surrounded by many 20th-century mosaics). More substantial fragments were preserved from the 12th-century mosaic decoration of the Church of the Nativity in Bethlehem. The mosaics in the nave are arranged in five horizontal bands with the figures of the ancestors of Christ, Councils of the Church and angels. In the apses the Annunciation, the Nativity, Adoration of the Magi and Dormition of the Blessed Virgin can be seen. The program of redecoration of the church was completed in 1169 as a unique collaboration of the Byzantine emperor, the king of Jerusalem and the Latin Church.
when were mosaic pavements uncovered at the Bizere Monastery?
57317b65e6313a140071cf90
2003
3
False
Where would the Bizere Monastery be located today?
57317b65e6313a140071cf91
Romania
134
False
When were the mosaics at Bizere Monastery created?
57317b65e6313a140071cf92
between the 10th and 11th century
321
False
In what kingdom was the Bizere Monastery located?
57317b65e6313a140071cf93
Hungary
568
False
In 2003, the remains of a mosaic pavement were discovered under the ruins of the Bizere Monastery near the River Mureş in present-day Romania. The panels depict real or fantastic animal, floral, solar and geometric representations. Some archeologists supposed that it was the floor of an Orthodox church, built some time between the 10th and 11th century. Other experts claim that it was part of the later Catholic monastery on the site because it shows the signs of strong Italianate influence. The monastery was situated that time in the territory of the Kingdom of Hungary.
How is Raphael portrayed in St. Peter's?
57317c50a5e9cc1400cdbfbf
by a mosaic replica of this last painting
197
False
What year did Pietro Paolo Cristofari die?
57317c50a5e9cc1400cdbfc0
1743
452
False
What was the art of the Fabbrica usually used for?
57317c50a5e9cc1400cdbfc1
papal gifts
500
False
What was the name of the painting used to represent raphael in St. Peter's?
57317c50a5e9cc1400cdbfc2
Transfiguration
244
False
The mosaics of St.Peter's are often based on what?
57317c50a5e9cc1400cdbfc3
designs or canvases
75
False
The mosaics of St. Peter's often show lively Baroque compositions based on designs or canvases from like Ciro Ferri, Guido Reni, Domenichino, Carlo Maratta, and many others. Raphael is represented by a mosaic replica of this last painting, the Transfiguration. Many different artists contributed to the 17th- and 18th-century mosaics in St. Peter's, including Giovanni Battista Calandra, Fabio Cristofari (died 1689), and Pietro Paolo Cristofari (died 1743). Works of the Fabbrica were often used as papal gifts.
What is the most important mosaic piece built by Byzantine Christians?
57317cf3e6313a140071cfa2
the Madaba Map
81
False
When was the the Madaba Map made?
57317cf3e6313a140071cfa3
between 542 and 570
102
False
Where is the church of Saint George?
57317cf3e6313a140071cfa4
Madaba, Jordan
168
False
When was the Madaba Map rediscovered?
57317cf3e6313a140071cfa5
1894
207
False
The Madaba Map depicts as far South as the Nile delta, and as far North as what country?
57317cf3e6313a140071cfa6
Lebanon
317
False
The single most important piece of Byzantine Christian mosaic art in the East is the Madaba Map, made between 542 and 570 as the floor of the church of Saint George at Madaba, Jordan. It was rediscovered in 1894. The Madaba Map is the oldest surviving cartographic depiction of the Holy Land. It depicts an area from Lebanon in the north to the Nile Delta in the south, and from the Mediterranean Sea in the west to the Eastern Desert. The largest and most detailed element of the topographic depiction is Jerusalem, at the center of the map. The map is enriched with many naturalistic features, like animals, fishing boats, bridges and palm trees
What era were the mosaics that adorned Saint Catherine's Monastery?
57317d9be6313a140071cfb6
Justinian
10
False
Where is Saint Catherine's Monastery located?
57317d9be6313a140071cfb7
Mount Sinai in Egypt
77
False
Why have wall mosaics generally not survived in the region?
57317d9be6313a140071cfb8
the destruction of buildings
165
False
Who is depicted in Saint Catherine's Monastery on a mosaic landscape background?
57317d9be6313a140071cfb9
Moses
262
False
When was the mosaic at Saint Catherine's Monastery created?
57317d9be6313a140071cfba
in 565/6
577
False
Important Justinian era mosaics decorated the Saint Catherine's Monastery on Mount Sinai in Egypt. Generally wall mosaics have not survived in the region because of the destruction of buildings but the St. Catherine's Monastery is exceptional. On the upper wall Moses is shown in two panels on a landscape background. In the apse we can see the Transfiguration of Jesus on a golden background. The apse is surrounded with bands containing medallions of apostles and prophets, and two contemporary figure, "Abbot Longinos" and "John the Deacon". The mosaic was probably created in 565/6.
Which city had the highest percentage of mosaic covered churches?
57317e8d497a881900248f85
Jerusalem
0
False
Where was the Armenian Mosaic found in Jerusalem?
57317e8d497a881900248f86
near Damascus Gate
359
False
When was the Armenian Mosaic re-discovered?
57317e8d497a881900248f87
1894
324
False
What was the room under the Armenian Mosaic used for?
57317e8d497a881900248f88
mortuary chapel
905
False
What type of plant is depicted in the Armenian Mosaic?
57317e8d497a881900248f89
a vine with many branches
390
False
Jerusalem with its many holy places probably had the highest concentration of mosaic-covered churches but very few of them survived the subsequent waves of destructions. The present remains do not do justice to the original richness of the city. The most important is the so-called "Armenian Mosaic" which was discovered in 1894 on the Street of the Prophets near Damascus Gate. It depicts a vine with many branches and grape clusters, which springs from a vase. Populating the vine's branches are peacocks, ducks, storks, pigeons, an eagle, a partridge, and a parrot in a cage. The inscription reads: "For the memory and salvation of all those Armenians whose name the Lord knows." Beneath a corner of the mosaic is a small, natural cave which contained human bones dating to the 5th or 6th centuries. The symbolism of the mosaic and the presence of the burial cave indicates that the room was used as a mortuary chapel.
Where would the Byzantine church of the Lazarium be located today?
57317f97e6313a140071cfca
Bethany
83
False
When was the Byzantine church of the Lazarium constructed?
57317f97e6313a140071cfcb
between 333 and 390
151
False
The mosaic at the Byzantine church of the Lazarium most closely resembles mosaics from which area?
57317f97e6313a140071cfcc
Palestine
283
False
A church was built on top of the Byzantine church of the Lazarium in waht century?
57317f98e6313a140071cfcd
the 6th
440
False
An exceptionally well preserved, carpet-like mosaic floor was uncovered in 1949 in Bethany, the early Byzantine church of the Lazarium which was built between 333 and 390. Because of its purely geometrical pattern, the church floor is to be grouped with other mosaics of the time in Palestine and neighboring areas, especially the Constantinian mosaics in the central nave at Bethlehem. A second church was built above the older one during the 6th century with another more simple geometric mosaic floor.
The churches of which desert decorated their monasteries with mosaics?
5731807ea5e9cc1400cdbfe5
the Judean
28
False
When was the Monastery of Martyrius created?
5731807ea5e9cc1400cdbfe6
the end of the 5th century
141
False
When was the Monastery of Martyrius re-discovered?
5731807ea5e9cc1400cdbfe7
in 1982–85
193
False
Where in the Monastery of Martyrius is the most important mosaic work?
5731807ea5e9cc1400cdbfe8
the refectory
281
False
What was the name of the monastery that was discovered in 1930?
5731807ea5e9cc1400cdbfe9
Monastery of Euthymius
398
False
The monastic communities of the Judean Desert also decorated their monasteries with mosaic floors. The Monastery of Martyrius was founded in the end of the 5th century and it was re-discovered in 1982–85. The most important work of art here is the intact geometric mosaic floor of the refectory although the severely damaged church floor was similarly rich. The mosaics in the church of the nearby Monastery of Euthymius are of later date (discovered in 1930). They were laid down in the Umayyad era, after a devastating earthquake in 659. Two six pointed stars and a red chalice are the most important surviving features.
How many Christian churches have been found in the Christian Petra?
57318186a5e9cc1400cdbfef
three
52
False
When was the most important Byzantine church re-discovered?
57318186a5e9cc1400cdbff0
in 1990
131
False
What type of mosaics were present in the church discovered in 1990?
57318186a5e9cc1400cdbff1
only the floor panels
215
False
What century was the oldest known mosaic at the church discovered in 1990?
57318186a5e9cc1400cdbff2
the 5th
358
False
The scenes depicted on the mosaics were both native and what kind of mythological animals?
57318186a5e9cc1400cdbff3
exotic
534
False
Mosaic art also flourished in Christian Petra where three Byzantine churches were discovered. The most important one was uncovered in 1990. It is known that the walls were also covered with golden glass mosaics but only the floor panels survived as usual. The mosaic of the seasons in the southern aisle is from this first building period from the middle of the 5th century. In the first half of the 6th century the mosaics of the northern aisle and the eastern end of the southern aisle were installed. They depict native as well as exotic or mythological animals, and personifications of the Seasons, Ocean, Earth and Wisdom.
Where would the Church of St Stephen be located today?
5731822f05b4da19006bd206
Umm ar-Rasas
70
False
When were the mosaics in the Church of St Stephen created?
5731822f05b4da19006bd207
in 785
94
False
When were the mosaics in the Church of St Stephen re-discovered?
5731822f05b4da19006bd208
1986
119
False
The mosaic floor in the Church of St Stephen is the largest in what country?
5731822f05b4da19006bd209
Jordan
185
False
How many artists signed the frame of the mosaic at the Church of St Stephen?
5731822f05b4da19006bd20a
Six
377
False
The mosaics of the Church of St Stephen in ancient Kastron Mefaa (now Umm ar-Rasas) were made in 785 (discovered after 1986). The perfectly preserved mosaic floor is the largest one in Jordan. On the central panel hunting and fishing scenes are depicted while another panel illustrates the most important cities of the region. The frame of the mosaic is especially decorative. Six mosaic masters signed the work: Staurachios from Esbus, Euremios, Elias, Constantinus, Germanus and Abdela. It overlays another, damaged, mosaic floor of the earlier (587) "Church of Bishop Sergius." Another four churches were excavated nearby with traces of mosaic decoration.
Yaroslav held what title in medieval Russia?
57318320497a881900248fa1
Grand Prince of the Kievan Rus'
115
False
Where did Yaroslav build his Cathedral?
57318320497a881900248fa2
Kiev
187
False
What was used as a model for the church Yaroslav commissioned?
57318320497a881900248fa3
the Hagia Sophia
221
False
What was the name of the church Yaroslav commissioned?
57318320497a881900248fa4
Saint Sophia Cathedral
280
False
Who sent the Byzantine craftsmen that built Yaroslav's cathedral?
57318320497a881900248fa5
Constantine Monomachos
363
False
The craft has also been popular in early medieval Rus, inherited as part of the Byzantine tradition. Yaroslav, the Grand Prince of the Kievan Rus' built a large cathedral in his capital, Kiev. The model of the church was the Hagia Sophia in Constantinople, and it was also called Saint Sophia Cathedral. It was built mainly by Byzantine master craftsmen, sent by Constantine Monomachos, between 1037 and 1046. Naturally the more important surfaces in the interior were decorated with golden mosaics. In the dome we can see the traditional stern Pantokrator supported by angels. Between the 12 windows of the drum were apostles and the four evangelists on the pendentives. The apse is dominated by an orant Theotokos with a Deesis in three medallions above. Below is a Communion of the Apostles.
In what country is the the Gelati Monastery located?
573183f0a5e9cc1400cdc00d
Georgia
75
False
Who started construction on the Gelati Monastery?
573183f0a5e9cc1400cdc00e
king David IV
93
False
Who eventually oversaw completion of the Gelati Monastery?
573183f0a5e9cc1400cdc00f
Demetrius I of Georgia
132
False
Who was the central theme of the mosaics at Tsromi?
573183f0a5e9cc1400cdc010
Christ
925
False
The apse mosaic of the Gelati Monastery is a rare example of mosaic use in Georgia. Began by king David IV and completed by his son Demetrius I of Georgia, the fragmentary panel depicts Theotokos flanked by two archangels. The use of mosaic in Gelati attests to some Byzantine influence in the country and was a demonstration of the imperial ambition of the Bagrationids. The mosaic covered church could compete in magnificence with the churches of Constantinople. Gelati is one of few mosaic creations which survived in Georgia but fragments prove that the early churches of Pitsunda and Tsromi were also decorated with mosaic as well as other, lesser known sites. The destroyed 6th century mosaic floors in the Pitsunda Cathedral have been inspired by Roman prototypes. In Tsromi the tesserae are still visible on the walls of the 7th-century church but only faint lines hint at the original scheme. Its central figure was Christ standing and displaying a scroll with Georgian text.
The remains of what was found at Sepphoris?
57318601e6313a140071d020
a 6th-century synagogue
15
False
Who were the primary inhabitants of Sepphoris in the 3rd through 7th centuries?
57318601e6313a140071d021
Jews
189
False
The mosaic found at Sepphoris display a mix of Jewish and which beliefs?
57318601e6313a140071d022
pagan
274
False
What figure is dominant in the mosaic at Sepphoris?
57318601e6313a140071d023
Helios
347
False
What surrounds Helios in the mosaic at Sepphoris?
57318601e6313a140071d024
a Jewish month
426
False
The remains of a 6th-century synagogue have been uncovered in Sepphoris, which was an important centre of Jewish culture between the 3rd–7th centuries and a multicultural town inhabited by Jews, Christians and pagans. The mosaic reflects an interesting fusion of Jewish and pagan beliefs. In the center of the floor the zodiac wheel was depicted. Helios sits in the middle, in his sun chariot, and each zodiac is matched with a Jewish month. Along the sides of the mosaic are strips depicting Biblical scenes, such as the binding of Isaac, as well as traditional rituals, including a burnt sacrifice and the offering of fruits and grains.
When was the synagogue in Eshtemoa constructed?
57318722e6313a140071d034
around the 4th century
46
False
What patterns are present on the mosaic at the synagogue in Eshtemoa?
57318722e6313a140071d035
only floral and geometric
105
False
When was the synagogue in Khirbet Susiya re-discovered?
57318722e6313a140071d036
in 1971–72
184
False
How many panels are in the synagogue in Khirbet Susiya?
57318722e6313a140071d037
three
239
False
What do the images at synagogue in Khirbet Susiya suggest about the communities views?
57318722e6313a140071d038
rather conservative
861
False
The synagogue in Eshtemoa (As-Samu) was built around the 4th century. The mosaic floor is decorated with only floral and geometric patterns. The synagogue in Khirbet Susiya (excavated in 1971–72, founded in the end of the 4th century) has three mosaic panels, the eastern one depicting a Torah shrine, two menorahs, a lulav and an etrog with columns, deer and rams. The central panel is geometric while the western one is seriously damaged but it has been suggested that it depicted Daniel in the lion’s den. The Roman synagogue in Ein Gedi was remodeled in the Byzantine era and a more elaborate mosaic floor was laid down above the older white panels. The usual geometric design was enriched with birds in the center. It includes the names of the signs of the zodiac and important figures from the Jewish past but not their images suggesting that it served a rather conservative community.
In Byzantine Gaza, Jews were relaxed on what ban?
5731882fe6313a140071d046
figurative depiction
11
False
Where were ancient remains of a synagogue found in 1966?
5731882fe6313a140071d047
in the ancient harbour area
139
False
The mosaic found in 1966 depicts who as the central figure?
5731882fe6313a140071d048
King David as Orpheus
193
False
What is the central figure doing in the mosaic found in 1966?
5731882fe6313a140071d049
playing a lyre
322
False
When was the mosaic floor constructed?
5731882fe6313a140071d04a
in 508/509
557
False
The ban on figurative depiction was not taken so seriously by the Jews living in Byzantine Gaza. In 1966 remains of a synagogue were found in the ancient harbour area. Its mosaic floor depicts King David as Orpheus, identified by his name in Hebrew letters. Near him were lion cubs, a giraffe and a snake listening to him playing a lyre. A further portion of the floor was divided by medallions formed by vine leaves, each of which contains an animal: a lioness suckling her cub, a giraffe, peacocks, panthers, bears, a zebra and so on. The floor was paved in 508/509. It is very similar to that of the synagogue at Maon (Menois) and the Christian church at Shellal, suggesting that the same artist most probably worked at all three places.
A 5th-century building in Huldah is believed to be what?
5731891705b4da19006bd240
a Samaritan synagogue
40
False
What does the mosaic at Huldah contain?
5731891705b4da19006bd241
typical Jewish symbols
89
False
What language are the inscriptions on the mosaic at Huldah?
5731891705b4da19006bd242
Greek
161
False
The synagogue located in Bet She'an had what kind of symbols depicted in its mosaic?
5731891705b4da19006bd243
cultic
330
False
The masters who built the floor in the synagogue at Bet She'an also constructed what other mosaic?
5731891705b4da19006bd244
the floor of the Beit Alfa synagogue
533
False
A 5th-century building in Huldah may be a Samaritan synagogue. Its mosaic floor contains typical Jewish symbols (menorah, lulav, etrog) but the inscriptions are Greek. Another Samaritan synagogue with a mosaic floor was located in Bet She'an (excavated in 1960). The floor had only decorative motifs and an aedicule (shrine) with cultic symbols. The ban on human or animal images was more strictly observed by the Samaritans than their Jewish neighbours in the same town (see above). The mosaic was laid by the same masters who made the floor of the Beit Alfa synagogue. One of the inscriptions was written in Samaritan script.
Who conquered the Eastern Provinces of the Byzantine empire?
57318a1305b4da19006bd25c
Muslim
97
False
In Syria and Egypt, other than early Christians, who influenced their mosaic work?
57318a1305b4da19006bd25d
Roman
235
False
What would later become the main Islamic form of wall decoration?
57318a1305b4da19006bd25e
tile
464
False
The Umayyad Dynasty made mosaic making do what in the Islamic culture?
57318a1305b4da19006bd25f
remained a flourishing art form
314
False
Islamic architecture used mosaic technique to decorate religious buildings and palaces after the Muslim conquests of the eastern provinces of the Byzantine Empire. In Syria and Egypt the Arabs were influenced by the great tradition of Roman and Early Christian mosaic art. During the Umayyad Dynasty mosaic making remained a flourishing art form in Islamic culture and it is continued in the art of zellige and azulejo in various parts of the Arab world, although tile was to become the main Islamic form of wall decoration.
Where is the most important Islamic mosaic work?
57318af105b4da19006bd26c
the Umayyad Mosque
66
False
Where is the the Umayyad Mosque located?
57318af105b4da19006bd26d
Damascus
88
False
What was the significance of Damascus during this time period?
57318af105b4da19006bd26e
capital of the Arab Caliphate
103
False
What is the largest section of mosaic still present in the Umayyad Mosque?
57318af105b4da19006bd26f
the "Barada Panel"
682
False
What happened in 1893 that destroyed most of the mosaics in the mosque?
57318af105b4da19006bd270
a fire
828
False
The most important early Islamic mosaic work is the decoration of the Umayyad Mosque in Damascus, then capital of the Arab Caliphate. The mosque was built between 706 and 715. The caliph obtained 200 skilled workers from the Byzantine Emperor to decorate the building. This is evidenced by the partly Byzantine style of the decoration. The mosaics of the inner courtyard depict Paradise with beautiful trees, flowers and small hill towns and villages in the background. The mosaics include no human figures, which makes them different from the otherwise similar contemporary Byzantine works. The biggest continuous section survives under the western arcade of the courtyard, called the "Barada Panel" after the river Barada. It is thought that the mosque used to have the largest gold mosaic in the world, at over 4 m2. In 1893 a fire damaged the mosque extensively, and many mosaics were lost, although some have been restored since.
Any mosaic having secular designs were likely what?
57318bfd497a881900249005
floor panels
47
False
What were the floor panels of the caliphs and high ranking officials modeled after?
57318bfd497a881900249006
Roman country villas
188
False
Where can the most superb example of Umayyad mosaic floor paneling?
57318bfd497a881900249007
the bath house of Hisham's Palace
292
False
In which present day country would the residence of Al-Walid II in Qasr al-Hallabat be?
57318bfd497a881900249008
Jordan
765
False
At Qastal in 2000 the earliest examples of what were found in Jordan?
57318bfd497a881900249009
Umayyad mosaics
1255
False
Non-religious Umayyad mosaic works were mainly floor panels which decorated the palaces of the caliphs and other high-ranking officials. They were closely modeled after the mosaics of the Roman country villas, once common in the Eastern Mediterranean. The most superb example can be found in the bath house of Hisham's Palace, Palestine which was made around 744. The main panel depicts a large tree and underneath it a lion attacking a deer (right side) and two deers peacefully grazing (left side). The panel probably represents good and bad governance. Mosaics with classical geometric motifs survived in the bath area of the 8th-century Umayyad palace complex in Anjar, Lebanon. The luxurious desert residence of Al-Walid II in Qasr al-Hallabat (in present-day Jordan) was also decorated with floor mosaics that show a high level of technical skill. The best preserved panel at Hallabat is divided by a Tree of Life flanked by "good" animals on one side and "bad" animals on the other. Among the Hallabat representations are vine scrolls, grapes, pomegranates, oryx, wolves, hares, a leopard, pairs of partridges, fish, bulls, ostriches, rabbits, rams, goats, lions and a snake. At Qastal, near Amman, excavations in 2000 uncovered the earliest known Umayyad mosaics in present-day Jordan, dating probably from the caliphate of Abd al-Malik ibn Marwan (685–705). They cover much of the floor of a finely decorated building that probably served as the palace of a local governor. The Qastal mosaics depict geometrical patterns, trees, animals, fruits and rosettes. Except for the open courtyard, entrance and staircases, the floors of the entire palace were covered in mosaics.
Where are some of the best examples of islamic mosaic work found?
57318cad05b4da19006bd290
Moorish Spain
68
False
The mosaics in the Great Mosque in Corduba have what kind of style?
57318cad05b4da19006bd291
Byzantine
185
False
When were the mosaics in the Great Mosque in Corduba created?
57318cad05b4da19006bd292
between 965 and 970
221
False
Who created the mosaics in the Great Mosque in Corduba?
57318cad05b4da19006bd293
local craftsmen
244
False
Who sent the master mosaicist to Spain?
57318cad05b4da19006bd294
the Byzantine Emperor
331
False
Some of the best examples of later Islamic mosaics were produced in Moorish Spain. The golden mosaics in the mihrab and the central dome of the Great Mosque in Corduba have a decidedly Byzantine character. They were made between 965 and 970 by local craftsmen, supervised by a master mosaicist from Constantinople, who was sent by the Byzantine Emperor to the Umayyad Caliph of Spain. The decoration is composed of colorful floral arabesques and wide bands of Arab calligraphy. The mosaics were purported to evoke the glamour of the Great Mosque in Damascus, which was lost for the Umayyad family.
The Cathedral Basilica of St. Louis holds the largest what?
57318db8497a881900249023
mosaic installation
154
False
What along texas interstate Highways contains everyday examples of mosaics?
57318db8497a881900249024
the rest areas
615
False
Which station in the NYC subway has a modern example of mosaic?
57318db8497a881900249025
the Museum of Natural History station
284
False
Edward Burne-Jones is noted for creating mosaics in what century?
57318db8497a881900249026
19th
6
False
Noted 19th-century mosaics include those by Edward Burne-Jones at St Pauls within the Walls in Rome. Another modern mosaic of note is the world's largest mosaic installation located at the Cathedral Basilica of St. Louis, located in St. Louis, Missouri. A modern example of mosaic is the Museum of Natural History station of the New York City Subway (there are many such works of art scattered throughout the New York City subway system, though many IND stations are usually designed with bland mosaics.) Another example of mosaics in ordinary surroundings is the use of locally themed mosaics in some restrooms in the rest areas along some Texas interstate highways.
What has recently seen an expansion of mosaic artwork?
57318e94497a88190024902b
street art
91
False
Who is the most famous street artist who works with mosaics?
57318e94497a88190024902c
the French Invader
228
False
The French invader coined his own style of mosaic named what?
57318e94497a88190024902d
Rubikcubism
494
False
What does the French Invader usually create with the traditional style of mosaic?
57318e94497a88190024902e
8 bit video game character
375
False
How does the French Invader create "Rubikcubism" styled mosaics?
57318e94497a88190024902f
grids of scrambled Rubik's Cubes
551
False
In styles that owe as much to videogame pixel art and popculture as to traditional mosaic, street art has seen a novel reinvention and expansion of mosaic artwork. The most prominent artist working with mosaics in street art is the French Invader. He has done almost all his work in two very distinct mosaic styles, the first of which are small "traditional" tile mosaics of 8 bit video game character, installed in cities across the globe, and the second of which are a style he refers to as "Rubikcubism", which uses a kind of dual layer mosaic via grids of scrambled Rubik's Cubes. Although he is the most prominent, other street and urban artists do work in Mosaic styles as well.
Portuguese pavement is known by what other name?
57318f33a5e9cc1400cdc07f
Calçada Portuguesa
36
False
What is Portuguese pavement?
57318f33a5e9cc1400cdc080
two-tone stone mosaic paving
69
False
What is the most common pattern for Portuguese pavement?
57318f33a5e9cc1400cdc081
geometric
190
False
Which city has almost all of its sidewalks in Portuguese pavement?
57318f33a5e9cc1400cdc082
Lisbon
525
False
What other cityscape is done with Portuguese pavement?
57318f33a5e9cc1400cdc083
streets
491
False
Portuguese pavement (in Portuguese, Calçada Portuguesa) is a kind of two-tone stone mosaic paving created in Portugal, and common throughout the Lusosphere. Most commonly taking the form of geometric patterns from the simple to the complex, it also is used to create complex pictorial mosaics in styles ranging from iconography to classicism and even modern design. In Portuguese-speaking countries, many cities have a large amount of their sidewalks and even, though far more occasionally, streets done in this mosaic form. Lisbon in particular maintains almost all walkways in this style.
How were larger mosaics usually constructed?
5731903ce6313a140071d0a4
face-down to a backing paper
175
False
Why was adding a step i production useful for larger projects?
5731903ce6313a140071d0a5
gives the maker time to rework
345
False
What is the style called of putting tessere on a backing paper?
5731903ce6313a140071d0a6
the indirect method
742
False
What besides benches and tabletops was usually created using the indirect method?
5731903ce6313a140071d0a7
murals
671
False
The indirect method also helped for projects with what kinds of areas?
5731903ce6313a140071d0a8
repetitive
94
False
The indirect method of applying tesserae is often used for very large projects, projects with repetitive elements or for areas needing site specific shapes. Tiles are applied face-down to a backing paper using an adhesive, and later transferred onto walls, floors or craft projects. This method is most useful for extremely large projects as it gives the maker time to rework areas, allows the cementing of the tiles to the backing panel to be carried out quickly in one operation and helps ensure that the front surfaces of the mosaic tiles and mosaic pieces are flat and in the same plane on the front, even when using tiles and pieces of differing thicknesses. Mosaic murals, benches and tabletops are some of the items usually made using the indirect method, as it results in a smoother and more even surface.
When is the double indirect method of mosaic useful?
57319138a5e9cc1400cdc0b7
when it is important to see the work
39
False
What is the most powerful aspect of the double indirect method?
57319138a5e9cc1400cdc0b8
directly controlling the final result of the work
720
False
When was the double indirect method invented?
57319138a5e9cc1400cdc0b9
1989
857
False
Who invented the double indirect method?
57319138a5e9cc1400cdc0ba
Maurizio Placuzzi
865
False
What is used as a backing adhesive for the double indirect method besides putty or paper?
57319138a5e9cc1400cdc0bb
sticky plastic
212
False
The double indirect method can be used when it is important to see the work during the creation process as it will appear when completed. The tesserae are placed face-up on a medium (often adhesive-backed paper, sticky plastic or soft lime or putty) as it will appear when installed. When the mosaic is complete, a similar medium is placed atop it. The piece is then turned over, the original underlying material is carefully removed, and the piece is installed as in the indirect method described above. In comparison to the indirect method, this is a complex system to use and requires great skill on the part of the operator, to avoid damaging the work. Its greatest advantage lies in the possibility of the operator directly controlling the final result of the work, which is important e.g. when the human figure is involved. This method was created in 1989 by Maurizio Placuzzi and registered for industrial use (patent n. 0000222556) under the name of his company, Sicis International Srl, now Sicis The Art Mosaic Factory Srl.
What is the typical size of a ceramic mosaic tile?
573191fe05b4da19006bd2c8
1 in × 1 in
260
False
What is usually the purpose of a tile mosaic in pools?
573191fe05b4da19006bd2c9
express text
493
False
Where is the most common application of tile mosaics?
573191fe05b4da19006bd2ca
on a shower room or bathing pool floor
129
False
How should the tiles be aligned next to each other?
573191fe05b4da19006bd2cb
in a non-overlapping fashion
71
False
A tile mosaic is a digital image made up of individual tiles, arranged in a non-overlapping fashion, e.g. to make a static image on a shower room or bathing pool floor, by breaking the image down into square pixels formed from ceramic tiles (a typical size is 1 in × 1 in (25 mm × 25 mm), as for example, on the floor of the University of Toronto pool, though sometimes larger tiles such as 2 in × 2 in (51 mm × 51 mm) are used). These digital images are coarse in resolution and often simply express text, such as the depth of the pool in various places, but some such digital images are used to show a sunset or other beach theme.
Why has production automation become popular?
573192bca5e9cc1400cdc0e7
high cost of labor in developed countries
5
False
Which software can aid in the design of robotically created mosaics?
573192bca5e9cc1400cdc0e8
CAD
186
False
How much faster is automated creation over handmade?
573192bca5e9cc1400cdc0e9
10 times faster
260
False
How does the robot pick the tiles it places?
573192bca5e9cc1400cdc0ea
a command file
517
False
What is not the same between hand made and robotic amde mosaics?
573192bca5e9cc1400cdc0eb
different look
334
False
With high cost of labor in developed countries, production automation has become increasingly popular. Rather than being assembled by hand, mosaics designed using computer aided design (CAD) software can be assembled by a robot. Production can be greater than 10 times faster with higher accuracy. But these "computer" mosaics have a different look than hand-made "artisanal" mosaics. With robotic production, colored tiles are loaded into buffers, and then the robot picks and places tiles individually according to a command file from the design software.
University
From what language does Universitas come from?
57318751e6313a140071d03e
Latin
13
False
Around the beginning of what two things did word universitas start to become prevalent?
57318751e6313a140071d03f
urban town life and medieval guilds
195
False
What did a universitas have in common with similar guilds?
57318751e6313a140071d040
they were self-regulating
477
False
Which individuals usually approved charters for universitas?
57318751e6313a140071d041
princes, prelates
353
False
"universitas"
24
What is the original greek word for university?
5a536963bdaabd001a3866b0
True
a number of persons associated into one body, a society, company, community, guild, corporation, etc
60
What does the greek work "universitas" mean?
5a536963bdaabd001a3866b1
True
princes, prelates, or the towns in which they were located
353
Who issued charters to guilds?
5a536963bdaabd001a3866b2
True
they were self-regulating and determined the qualifications of their members.
477
How did universities differ from guilds?
5a536963bdaabd001a3866b3
True
Latin
13
From what language does "emergence" come from?
5a7757c22d6d7f001a4a9fd9
True
urban town life and medieval guilds
195
Around the beginning of what two things did the word emergence start to become prevalent?
5a7757c22d6d7f001a4a9fda
True
they were self-regulating
477
What did an emergence have in common with similar guilds?
5a7757c22d6d7f001a4a9fdb
True
princes, prelates
353
Which individuals usually approved charters for generals?
5a7757c22d6d7f001a4a9fdc
True
legal rights
299
What was not guaranteed by charters?
5a7757c22d6d7f001a4a9fdd
True
The original Latin word "universitas" refers in general to "a number of persons associated into one body, a society, company, community, guild, corporation, etc." At the time of the emergence of urban town life and medieval guilds, specialised "associations of students and teachers with collective legal rights usually guaranteed by charters issued by princes, prelates, or the towns in which they were located" came to be denominated by this general term. Like other guilds, they were self-regulating and determined the qualifications of their members.
In terms of academics what is a core requirement of a university?
57318829497a881900248fc9
academic freedom
69
False
What was the first university?
57318829497a881900248fca
University of Bologna
184
False
What charter is said to be the first establishing academic freedom in a university?
57318829497a881900248fcb
the Constitutio Habita
235
False
What did the Constitutio Habita say students were allowed?
57318829497a881900248fcc
unhindered passage in the interests of education
329
False
On what date was the Magna Carta Universitatum signed?
57318829497a881900248fcd
18 September 1988
489
False
academic freedom
69
What kind of freedom was not initially assosiated with universities?
5a536fe3bdaabd001a3866b8
True
the Constitutio Habita
235
What charter was adopted in the 11th century?
5a536fe3bdaabd001a3866b9
True
The University of Bologna
180
What university restricted the right of of scholars to travel?
5a536fe3bdaabd001a3866ba
True
unhindered passage
329
What did the Constitution Habita guarantee to all travelers?
5a536fe3bdaabd001a3866bb
True
academic freedom
69
In terms of academics what is a core requirement of a rector?
5a77c464b73996001af5a571
True
University of Bologna
184
What was the first monestery?
5a77c464b73996001af5a572
True
Constitutio Habita
239
What charter is said to be the first establishing education in a university?
5a77c464b73996001af5a573
True
unhindered passage in the interests of education
329
What did the Magna Charta Universitatum say students were allowed?
5a77c464b73996001af5a574
True
Magna Charta Universitatum
542
What marked the 430th anniversary of Bologna's foundation?
5a77c464b73996001af5a575
True
An important idea in the definition of a university is the notion of academic freedom. The first documentary evidence of this comes from early in the life of the first university. The University of Bologna adopted an academic charter, the Constitutio Habita, in 1158 or 1155, which guaranteed the right of a traveling scholar to unhindered passage in the interests of education. Today this is claimed as the origin of "academic freedom". This is now widely recognised internationally - on 18 September 1988, 430 university rectors signed the Magna Charta Universitatum, marking the 900th anniversary of Bologna's foundation. The number of universities signing the Magna Charta Universitatum continues to grow, drawing from all parts of the world.
What is a scholae monasticae?
573188e1497a881900248fdd
monastic schools
93
False
Who presided over classes at a scholae monasticae?
573188e1497a881900248fde
monks and nuns
141
False
In the chronology of academic institutions, where are Christian cathedral schools compared to universities?
573188e1497a881900248fdf
immediate forerunners
190
False
What church is said to be responsible for the formation of universities?
573188e1497a881900248fe0
Latin Church
346
False
During which era did universities grow out of already extant schools?
573188e1497a881900248fe1
early medieval period
800
False
Christian cathedral schools or monastic schools
62
Where did education originally take place across the world?
5a53729dbdaabd001a3866c0
True
Christian cathedral schools or monastic schools
62
What type of schools forbid women to teach?
5a53729dbdaabd001a3866c1
True
forerunners of the later university
200
What began in the 600's?
5a53729dbdaabd001a3866c2
True
Latin Church
346
What church encouraged but did not get directly involved in forming universities?
5a53729dbdaabd001a3866c3
True
universities
295
What caused most existing schools to decline?
5a53729dbdaabd001a3866c4
True
monks and nuns
141
Who presided over universities?
5a77823c2d6d7f001a4a9fe3
True
early medieval period
800
During which era did universities grow out of monasteries?
5a77823c2d6d7f001a4a9fe4
True
the aegis of the Latin Church by papal bull
329
What were the earliest monasteries developed under?
5a77823c2d6d7f001a4a9fe5
True
University of Naples Federico II, Charles University in Prague, Jagiellonian University in Kraków
618
What are three monasteries started by Kings?
5a77823c2d6d7f001a4a9fe6
True
pre-existing schools
863
Where were most new universities funded from?
5a77823c2d6d7f001a4a9fe7
True
European higher education took place for hundreds of years in Christian cathedral schools or monastic schools (scholae monasticae), in which monks and nuns taught classes; evidence of these immediate forerunners of the later university at many places dates back to the 6th century. The earliest universities were developed under the aegis of the Latin Church by papal bull as studia generalia and perhaps from cathedral schools. It is possible, however, that the development of cathedral schools into universities was quite rare, with the University of Paris being an exception. Later they were also founded by Kings (University of Naples Federico II, Charles University in Prague, Jagiellonian University in Kraków) or municipal administrations (University of Cologne, University of Erfurt). In the early medieval period, most new universities were founded from pre-existing schools, usually when these schools were deemed to have become primarily sites of higher education. Many historians state that universities and cathedral schools were a continuation of the interest in learning promoted by monasteries.
Why did rulers and governments in Europe form universities?
573189a6e6313a140071d05a
to satisfy a European thirst for knowledge
73
False
What outlook developed the creation of the university system?
573189a6e6313a140071d05b
humanism
426
False
Which ancient texts began to see more study after universities were formed?
573189a6e6313a140071d05c
Greek
579
False
What type of governments were involved in creating universities?
573189a6e6313a140071d05d
city governments
246
False
rulers and city governments
16
Who established universities around the world?
5a5373a3bdaabd001a3866ca
True
The emergence of humanism
409
What increased the study of Latin text?
5a5373a3bdaabd001a3866cb
True
Princes
223
Who established unuiversities for their own benefit?
5a5373a3bdaabd001a3866cc
True
humanism
426
What outlook slowed the spread of universities?
5a5373a3bdaabd001a3866cd
True
to satisfy a European thirst for knowledge
73
Why did rulers and governments in Europe form texts?
5a77838c2d6d7f001a4a9fed
True
humanism
426
What outlook developed the creation of the European system?
5a77838c2d6d7f001a4a9fee
True
Greek
579
Which ancient texts began to see more study after governments were formed?
5a77838c2d6d7f001a4a9fef
True
city governments
27
What types of governments were involved in creating rulers?
5a77838c2d6d7f001a4a9ff0
True
Princes and leaders of city governments
223
Who perceived the benefits of rulers?
5a77838c2d6d7f001a4a9ff1
True
All over Europe rulers and city governments began to create universities to satisfy a European thirst for knowledge, and the belief that society would benefit from the scholarly expertise generated from these institutions. Princes and leaders of city governments perceived the potential benefits of having a scholarly expertise develop with the ability to address difficult problems and achieve desired ends. The emergence of humanism was essential to this understanding of the possible utility of universities as well as the revival of interest in knowledge gained from ancient Greek texts.
Roughly how many pages of the works of Aristotle were translated by the 12th century?
57318a93497a881900248ff1
more than 3000 pages
37
False
Richard Dales believes that the work of Aristotle represents the turning point of what?
57318a93497a881900248ff2
Western thought
437
False
What word described the early attempts to understand the work of Aristotle?
57318a93497a881900248ff3
scholasticism
751
False
What faculty did scholars attempt to use to prove the thoughts of Aristotle?
57318a93497a881900248ff4
reason
932
False
What language did 12th century scholars studying Aristotle speak in?
57318a93497a881900248ff5
Latin
535
False
a spirit of inquiry into natural processes
104
What began to emerge in the 1200's?
5a5380cebdaabd001a3866d2
True
The rediscovery of Aristotle's works
0
What is considered one of the most important discoveries in the world?
5a5380cebdaabd001a3866d3
True
Richard Dales
332
Who called the discovery of Aristotle's work a turning point in Western Science?
5a5380cebdaabd001a3866d4
True
a community of scholars
483
Who used Greek to communicate?
5a5380cebdaabd001a3866d5
True
scholasticism
751
What focused on using Aristotelian logic to disprove the bible?
5a5380cebdaabd001a3866d6
True
more than 3000 pages
37
Roughly how many pages of the works of Richard Dales were translated by the 12th century?
5a7784ed2d6d7f001a4a9ff7
True
Western thought
437
What did Aristotle believe that the work of Richard Dales represent the turning point of?
5a7784ed2d6d7f001a4a9ff8
True
scholasticism
751
What word described the early attempts to understand the work of Dales?
5a7784ed2d6d7f001a4a9ff9
True
reason
932
What faculty did scholars attempt to use to prove the thoughts of Aristotle?
5a7784ed2d6d7f001a4a9ffa
True
Latin
535
What language did 12th century scholars studying Dale speak in?
5a7784ed2d6d7f001a4a9ffb
True
The rediscovery of Aristotle's works–more than 3000 pages of it would eventually be translated –fuelled a spirit of inquiry into natural processes that had already begun to emerge in the 12th century. Some scholars believe that these works represented one of the most important document discoveries in Western intellectual history. Richard Dales, for instance, calls the discovery of Aristotle's works "a turning point in the history of Western thought." After Aristotle re-emerged, a community of scholars, primarily communicating in Latin, accelerated the process and practice of attempting to reconcile the thoughts of Greek antiquity, and especially ideas related to understanding the natural world, with those of the church. The efforts of this "scholasticism" were focused on applying Aristotelian logic and thoughts about natural processes to biblical passages and attempting to prove the viability of those passages through reason. This became the primary mission of lecturers, and the expectation of students.
Which language was used in lectures in early European universities?
57318b7605b4da19006bd280
Latin
236
False
For what subjects did professors use the work of Hippocrates?
57318b7605b4da19006bd281
medicine
486
False
What type of subjects did the universities of northern Europe focus on?
57318b7605b4da19006bd282
arts and theology
699
False
What type of degree was given out at a English university?
57318b7605b4da19006bd283
bachelor's degrees
1049
False
The university culture
0
What developed differently in eastern and western Europe?
5a538ca4bdaabd001a3866dc
True
Latin
236
What language was used for university texts and lectures but not disputations and examinations?
5a538ca4bdaabd001a3866dd
True
Professors
339
Who lectured onAvicenna for metaphysics?
5a538ca4bdaabd001a3866de
True
in the south students often went on to professional positions.
1367
Why did southern universities mostly award bachelor's degrees?
5a538ca4bdaabd001a3866df
True
University of Bologna.
1660
Who did universities in southern Italy model their self regulating pattern after?
5a538ca4bdaabd001a3866e0
True
Latin
236
Which language was used in lectures in art universities?
5a7789e52d6d7f001a4aa001
True
medicine
486
For what subjects did professors use the work of Bolonga?
5a7789e52d6d7f001a4aa002
True
arts and theology
699
What types of subjects did the universities of Bolonga focus on?
5a7789e52d6d7f001a4aa003
True
bachelor's degrees
1049
What type of degree was given out at the University of Bolonga?
5a7789e52d6d7f001a4aa004
True
doctorate
1126
What type of degree would one likely get in iberia?
5a7789e52d6d7f001a4aa005
True
The university culture developed differently in northern Europe than it did in the south, although the northern (primarily Germany, France and Great Britain) and southern universities (primarily Italy) did have many elements in common. Latin was the language of the university, used for all texts, lectures, disputations and examinations. Professors lectured on the books of Aristotle for logic, natural philosophy, and metaphysics; while Hippocrates, Galen, and Avicenna were used for medicine. Outside of these commonalities, great differences separated north and south, primarily in subject matter. Italian universities focused on law and medicine, while the northern universities focused on the arts and theology. There were distinct differences in the quality of instruction in these areas which were congruent with their focus, so scholars would travel north or south based on their interests and means. There was also a difference in the types of degrees awarded at these universities. English, French and German universities usually awarded bachelor's degrees, with the exception of degrees in theology, for which the doctorate was more common. Italian universities awarded primarily doctorates. The distinction can be attributed to the intent of the degree holder after graduation – in the north the focus tended to be on acquiring teaching positions, while in the south students often went on to professional positions. The structure of northern universities tended to be modeled after the system of faculty governance developed at the University of Paris. Southern universities tended to be patterned after the student-controlled model begun at the University of Bologna. Among the southern universities, a further distinction has been noted between those of northern Italy, which followed the pattern of Bologna as a "self-regulating, independent corporation of scholars" and those of southern Italy and Iberia, which were "founded by royal and imperial charter to serve the needs of government."
What type of university was an Islamic madrasa akin to?
57318c60a5e9cc1400cdc033
Mediterranean universities
98
False
What type of individual funded a Mediterranean university?
57318c60a5e9cc1400cdc034
prince or monarch
21
False
In which century did Islamic madrasas start to transform into universities?
57318c60a5e9cc1400cdc035
10th
363
False
From where did a degree come in a madrasa?
57318c60a5e9cc1400cdc036
individual teachers
199
False
madrasas
144
What did many towns establish in the Islamic world?
5a539386bdaabd001a3866e6
True
license or degree
264
What did madrasa grant to students?
5a539386bdaabd001a3866e7
True
Arnold H. Green and Hossein Nasr
297
Who said madrasahs developed from universities?
5a539386bdaabd001a3866e8
True
madrasahs
399
What Islamic schools developed from universities in the 10th century?
5a539386bdaabd001a3866e9
True
became universities.
409
What happened to madrasa in the 10000's?
5a539386bdaabd001a3866ea
True
Mediterranean universities
98
What type of university was an a European university akin to?
5a778ed02d6d7f001a4aa00b
True
prince or monarch
21
What type of individual funded a European university?
5a778ed02d6d7f001a4aa00c
True
10th
363
In which century did Islamic madrasas start to transform into Hossein?
5a778ed02d6d7f001a4aa00d
True
individual teachers
199
From where did a degree come in a university?
5a778ed02d6d7f001a4aa00e
True
universities
416
What did some monarchs become in the 10th centurty?
5a778ed02d6d7f001a4aa00f
True
Their endowment by a prince or monarch and their role in training government officials made these Mediterranean universities similar to Islamic madrasas, although madrasas were generally smaller and individual teachers, rather than the madrasa itself, granted the license or degree. Scholars like Arnold H. Green and Hossein Nasr have argued that starting in the 10th century, some medieval Islamic madrasahs became universities. George Makdisi and others, however, argue that the European university has no parallel in the medieval Islamic world. Other scholars regard the university as uniquely European in origin and characteristics.
Madrasas in which specific location are said to have guided the formation of medieval universities?
57318db6a5e9cc1400cdc059
Al-Andalus
125
False
Al-Andalus was an Emirate of which entity?
57318db6a5e9cc1400cdc05a
Sicily
152
False
Some scholars think that universities come from what, rather than solely local influences?
57318db6a5e9cc1400cdc05b
a global context
567
False
During what notable Middle East conflict is it believed by some that Universities received influence from madrasas?
57318db6a5e9cc1400cdc05c
the Crusades
188
False
Makdisi
25
Who argues that many religious madrashas were influenced by medieval universities?
5a539921bdaabd001a3866f0
True
medieval universities
57
What does Lowe argue was influenced by religious madrasa?
5a539921bdaabd001a3866f1
True
scholarship from the Islamic world
326
Who does Yasuhare say was influenced by Western Universities?
5a539921bdaabd001a3866f2
True
Crusades)
192
During what conflict did western universities influence madrasa?
5a539921bdaabd001a3866f3
True
Al-Andalus
125
Madrasas in which specific location are said to have guided the formation of the islamic world?
5a779d9a2d6d7f001a4aa015
True
Sicily
152
Lowe was an Emirate of which entity?
5a779d9a2d6d7f001a4aa016
True
the Crusades
188
During what notable Middle East conflict is it believed by some that Universities received influence from Yasuhara?
5a779d9a2d6d7f001a4aa017
True
Lowe and Yasuhara
251
Who have drawn on the influences of scholarship from the European world?
5a779d9a2d6d7f001a4aa018
True
Many scholars (including Makdisi)
0
Who argued that early madrasahs were influenced by early midieval universities?
5a779d9a2d6d7f001a4aa019
True
Many scholars (including Makdisi) have argued that early medieval universities were influenced by the religious madrasahs in Al-Andalus, the Emirate of Sicily, and the Middle East (during the Crusades). Other scholars see this argument as overstated. Lowe and Yasuhara have recently drawn on the well-documented influences of scholarship from the Islamic world on the universities of Western Europe to call for a reconsideration of the development of higher education, turning away from a concern with local institutional structures to a broader consideration within a global context.
What was the time span of the Early Modern period?
57318e5ea5e9cc1400cdc075
late 15th century to 1800
46
False
At the completion of the Middle Ages how long had universities existed?
57318e5ea5e9cc1400cdc076
about 400 years
211
False
How many universities were within Europe at the closure of the middle ages?
57318e5ea5e9cc1400cdc077
twenty-nine
278
False
How many universities were within Europe by the completion of the 18th century?
57318e5ea5e9cc1400cdc078
143
519
False
The German Empire had how many universities?
57318e5ea5e9cc1400cdc079
34
620
False
Early Modern period
11
what period occured from egan in 1500 and ended in the 18th century?
5a539a8cbdaabd001a3866f8
True
a tremendous amount of growth, productivity and innovative research.
111
What began to happen to universities in the 1500's?
5a539a8cbdaabd001a3866f9
True
400 years
217
How long did it take for the world to establish 29 schools of higher education?
5a539a8cbdaabd001a3866fa
True
twenty-eight
350
How many new universities were created in the 1500's?
5a539a8cbdaabd001a3866fb
True
143
519
How many universities exicted across Europe by the end of the 1800's?
5a539a8cbdaabd001a3866fc
True
late 15th century to 1800
46
What was the time span of the German Empire?
5a77b2e1b73996001af5a50d
True
about 400 years
211
At the completion of the Middle Ages how long had countries existed?
5a77b2e1b73996001af5a50e
True
twenty-nine
278
How many universities were within Germany at the closure of the middle-ages?
5a77b2e1b73996001af5a50f
True
143
519
How many universities were within Northern Europe by the completion of the 18th century?
5a77b2e1b73996001af5a510
True
34
620
The Mediterranean Empire had how many universities?
5a77b2e1b73996001af5a511
True
During the Early Modern period (approximately late 15th century to 1800), the universities of Europe would see a tremendous amount of growth, productivity and innovative research. At the end of the Middle Ages, about 400 years after the first university was founded, there were twenty-nine universities spread throughout Europe. In the 15th century, twenty-eight new ones were created, with another eighteen added between 1500 and 1625. This pace continued until by the end of the 18th century there were approximately 143 universities in Europe and Eastern Europe, with the highest concentrations in the German Empire (34), Italian countries (26), France (25), and Spain (23) – this was close to a 500% increase over the number of universities toward the end of the Middle Ages. This number does not include the numerous universities that disappeared, or institutions that merged with other universities during this time. It should be noted that the identification of a university was not necessarily obvious during the Early Modern period, as the term is applied to a burgeoning number of institutions. In fact, the term "university" was not always used to designate a higher education institution. In Mediterranean countries, the term studium generale was still often used, while "Academy" was common in Northern European countries.
What war most curtailed the spread of universities in the 17th century?
57318f86a5e9cc1400cdc089
the Thirty Years' War
187
False
Which university is said to have started faculty governance?
57318f86a5e9cc1400cdc08a
University of Paris
962
False
Which entity started to appoint the administration of universities in the 17th century?
57318f86a5e9cc1400cdc08b
the state
1263
False
The control of universities by the state can be attributed to the advancement in the development of what?
57318f86a5e9cc1400cdc08c
the nation-state.
803
False
How would one describe the control of universities before nation-states in the 17th century?
57318f86a5e9cc1400cdc08d
student-controlled
1034
False
universities
19
What spread across Europe at a steady pace?
5a539beabdaabd001a386702
True
War, plague, famine, regicide, and changes in religious power
283
What slowed the spread of universities in the 1700's?
5a539beabdaabd001a386703
True
brawling and absentee professors
506
What encouraged the establishment of new niversities in the 17th century?
5a539beabdaabd001a386704
True
Universities
589
Who favored amtempory advancements over the works of Aristotle?
5a539beabdaabd001a386705
True
the Thirty Years' War
187
What war most curtailed the spread of universities in the 18th century?
5a77a1ddb73996001af5a4b7
True
University of Paris
962
Which university is said to have started the arts?
5a77a1ddb73996001af5a4b8
True
the state
1263
Which entity started to appoint the administration of universities in the 18th century?
5a77a1ddb73996001af5a4b9
True
the nation-state
803
The control of science by the state can be attributed to the advancement in the development of what?
5a77a1ddb73996001af5a4ba
True
student-controlled
1034
How would one describe the control of universities before nation-states in the 18th century?
5a77a1ddb73996001af5a4bb
True
The propagation of universities was not necessarily a steady progression, as the 17th century was rife with events that adversely affected university expansion. Many wars, and especially the Thirty Years' War, disrupted the university landscape throughout Europe at different times. War, plague, famine, regicide, and changes in religious power and structure often adversely affected the societies that provided support for universities. Internal strife within the universities themselves, such as student brawling and absentee professors, acted to destabilize these institutions as well. Universities were also reluctant to give up older curricula, and the continued reliance on the works of Aristotle defied contemporary advancements in science and the arts. This era was also affected by the rise of the nation-state. As universities increasingly came under state control, or formed under the auspices of the state, the faculty governance model (begun by the University of Paris) became more and more prominent. Although the older student-controlled universities still existed, they slowly started to move toward this structural organization. Control of universities still tended to be independent, although university leadership was increasingly appointed by the state.
What were the faculty who supervised students in the University of Paris called?
5731934705b4da19006bd2da
masters
116
False
The structure of the University of Paris served as what for other universities?
5731934705b4da19006bd2db
a standard
135
False
How many styles did the University of Paris model end up taking when applied to other universities?
5731934705b4da19006bd2dc
at least three
199
False
Which university had teaching which was more general, and not centralized?
5731934705b4da19006bd2dd
University of Oxford
443
False
What type of student did schools that focus on very specific topics aim to create?
5731934705b4da19006bd2de
specialists
366
False
University of Paris
46
What student run university provided the standard for other universities?
5a53c33ebdaabd001a38670a
True
three different forms
208
How many different forms did the student run model take?
5a53c33ebdaabd001a38670b
True
collegiate or tutorial model
391
What centralized model was used by Oxford?
5a53c33ebdaabd001a38670c
True
a centralized organization
656
What type of organiization was always used with the collegiate model?
5a53c33ebdaabd001a38670d
True
masters
116
What were the faculty who supervised students in Oxford called?
5a77a302b73996001af5a4c1
True
at least three
199
How many styles did the University of Oxford model end up taking when applied to other universities?
5a77a302b73996001af5a4c2
True
University of Oxford
443
Which university had teaching which was more centralized and not general?
5a77a302b73996001af5a4c3
True
specialists
366
What type of student did schools that focus on very controlled topics aim to create?
5a77a302b73996001af5a4c4
True
a very specific curriculum
311
What did the University of Paris address?
5a77a302b73996001af5a4c5
True
Although the structural model provided by the University of Paris, where student members are controlled by faculty "masters," provided a standard for universities, the application of this model took at least three different forms. There were universities that had a system of faculties whose teaching addressed a very specific curriculum; this model tended to train specialists. There was a collegiate or tutorial model based on the system at University of Oxford where teaching and organization was decentralized and knowledge was more of a generalist nature. There were also universities that combined these models, using the collegiate model but having a centralized organization.
What was the source of educational material in Early Modern age universities?
57319465497a881900249075
the curriculum and research of the Middle Ages
46
False
What sources did Early Modern age universities rely on for medical curricula?
57319465497a881900249076
Galen and Arabic scholarship
291
False
The concentration on students to live honorable lives is an example of what form of thought?
57319465497a881900249077
Humanist
555
False
Niccolò Leoniceno was a professor of what subject?
57319465497a881900249078
medicine
964
False
Which individual added a humanist view into the Corpus Juris?
57319465497a881900249079
Andreas Alciatus
1417
False
curriculum and research of the Middle Ages:
50
What curriculum did early modern universities deviate from?
5a53c5e2bdaabd001a386712
True
Early Modern universities
0
Who's curriculumn was not deeply impacted by humanism?
5a53c5e2bdaabd001a386713
True
Aristotle
208
What Greek's teachings encouraged students to live honorable lives?
5a53c5e2bdaabd001a386714
True
a humanist perspective
1464
What did Niccolo Leoniceno ifuse Corpus Juris with?
5a53c5e2bdaabd001a386715
True
humanists
1955
Who aggressivly infultrated the university system?
5a53c5e2bdaabd001a386716
True
the curriculum and research of the Middle Ages
46
What was the source of educational material in Early Modern age scholarships?
5a77a6d5b73996001af5a4cb
True
Galen and Arabic scholarship
291
What sources did Early Modern age universities rely on for Protestant curricula?
5a77a6d5b73996001af5a4cc
True
Humanist
555
The concentration on professors to live honorable lives is an example of what form of thought?
5a77a6d5b73996001af5a4cd
True
medicine
964
Galileo Galilei was a professor of what subject?
5a77a6d5b73996001af5a4ce
True
Andreas Alciatus
1417
Which individual added a humanist view into the Middle Ages?
5a77a6d5b73996001af5a4cf
True
Early Modern universities initially continued the curriculum and research of the Middle Ages: natural philosophy, logic, medicine, theology, mathematics, astronomy (and astrology), law, grammar and rhetoric. Aristotle was prevalent throughout the curriculum, while medicine also depended on Galen and Arabic scholarship. The importance of humanism for changing this state-of-affairs cannot be underestimated. Once humanist professors joined the university faculty, they began to transform the study of grammar and rhetoric through the studia humanitatis. Humanist professors focused on the ability of students to write and speak with distinction, to translate and interpret classical texts, and to live honorable lives. Other scholars within the university were affected by the humanist approaches to learning and their linguistic expertise in relation to ancient texts, as well as the ideology that advocated the ultimate importance of those texts. Professors of medicine such as Niccolò Leoniceno, Thomas Linacre and William Cop were often trained in and taught from a humanist perspective as well as translated important ancient medical texts. The critical mindset imparted by humanism was imperative for changes in universities and scholarship. For instance, Andreas Vesalius was educated in a humanist fashion before producing a translation of Galen, whose ideas he verified through his own dissections. In law, Andreas Alciatus infused the Corpus Juris with a humanist perspective, while Jacques Cujas humanist writings were paramount to his reputation as a jurist. Philipp Melanchthon cited the works of Erasmus as a highly influential guide for connecting theology back to original texts, which was important for the reform at Protestant universities. Galileo Galilei, who taught at the Universities of Pisa and Padua, and Martin Luther, who taught at the University of Wittenberg (as did Melanchthon), also had humanist training. The task of the humanists was to slowly permeate the university; to increase the humanist presence in professorships and chairs, syllabi and textbooks so that published works would demonstrate the humanistic ideal of science and scholarship.
Discovery and exposition were examples of the focus of what type of university scholar?
5731954b497a881900249089
humanist
34
False
A concentration on the study of the self resulted in what field of study?
5731954b497a88190024908a
the humanities
597
False
What work did Vesalius push the study of?
5731954b497a88190024908b
Galen
827
False
What spread the use of texts by Galen within universities?
5731954b497a88190024908c
the printing press
1032
False
humanist
34
Research was an example of the focus of what type of university scholar?
5a77a8f1b73996001af5a4d5
True
the humanities
597
A concentration on the study of classical texts resulted in what field of study?
5a77a8f1b73996001af5a4d6
True
Galen
827
What work did students push the study of?
5a77a8f1b73996001af5a4d7
True
the printing press
1032
What spread the use of texts by Vesalius within universities?
5a77a8f1b73996001af5a4d8
True
disposition toward knowledge
618
What manifested in the adaptation and expansion of discovery?
5a77a8f1b73996001af5a4d9
True
Although the initial focus of the humanist scholars in the university was the discovery, exposition and insertion of ancient texts and languages into the university, and the ideas of those texts into society generally, their influence was ultimately quite progressive. The emergence of classical texts brought new ideas and led to a more creative university climate (as the notable list of scholars above attests to). A focus on knowledge coming from self, from the human, has a direct implication for new forms of scholarship and instruction, and was the foundation for what is commonly known as the humanities. This disposition toward knowledge manifested in not simply the translation and propagation of ancient texts, but also their adaptation and expansion. For instance, Vesalius was imperative for advocating the use of Galen, but he also invigorated this text with experimentation, disagreements and further research. The propagation of these texts, especially within the universities, was greatly aided by the emergence of the printing press and the beginning of the use of the vernacular, which allowed for the printing of relatively large texts at reasonable prices.
In multiple countries in Europe students can attend a university with what kind if financial burden?
573196f9e99e3014001e616a
without tuition fees
104
False
Until what year were public universities in nordic nation free of tuition?
573196f9e99e3014001e616b
around 2005
207
False
What kind of students pay fees in public universities in Denmark?
573196f9e99e3014001e616c
foreign students
292
False
In terms of Universities in Denmark what is the fee status for citizens of EFA states?
573196f9e99e3014001e616d
exempted from tuition fees
384
False
What happened to public grants in nordic universities that continued to allow foreign students?
573196f9e99e3014001e616e
increased
488
False
around 2005
207
Until what year were public universities in the UK free of tuition?
5a77c375b73996001af5a567
True
foreign students
292
What kind of students pay fees in public universities in the UK?
5a77c375b73996001af5a568
True
increased
488
What happened to public grants in nordic universities that continued to allow domestic students?
5a77c375b73996001af5a569
True
Denmark, Sweden and Finland
220
What three countries moved to put in place tuition fees for domestic students?
5a77c375b73996001af5a56a
True
the amounts of public grants granted to promising foreign students
416
What were decreased to offset some of the impact?
5a77c375b73996001af5a56b
True
There are several major exceptions on tuition fees. In many European countries, it is possible to study without tuition fees. Public universities in Nordic countries were entirely without tuition fees until around 2005. Denmark, Sweden and Finland then moved to put in place tuition fees for foreign students. Citizens of EU and EEA member states and citizens from Switzerland remain exempted from tuition fees, and the amounts of public grants granted to promising foreign students were increased to offset some of the impact.
In Ireland what word is mainly used instead of university?
573197890fdd8d15006c63b5
college
146
False
Spain refers to a university in what other way?
573197890fdd8d15006c63b6
uni
361
False
The nation of Ghana shortens university to what?
573197890fdd8d15006c63b7
varsity
432
False
Scotland is said to frequently refer to university as what?
573197890fdd8d15006c63b8
Varsity
590
False
In what century was it believed that the UK used the word varsity to refer to a university?
573197890fdd8d15006c63b9
19th
558
False
college
146
In Scotland what word is mainly used instead of university?
5a77c152b73996001af5a55d
True
uni
361
Mexico refers to a university in what other way?
5a77c152b73996001af5a55e
True
varsity
432
The nation of Congo shortens university to what?
5a77c152b73996001af5a55f
True
19th
558
In what century was it believed that France used the word varsity to refer to a university?
5a77c152b73996001af5a560
True
varsity
432
What has become uncommon in Australia?
5a77c152b73996001af5a561
True
Colloquially, the term university may be used to describe a phase in one's life: "When I was at university..." (in the United States and Ireland, college is often used instead: "When I was in college..."). In Australia, Canada, New Zealand, the United Kingdom, Nigeria, the Netherlands, Spain and the German-speaking countries university is often contracted to uni. In Ghana, New Zealand and in South Africa it is sometimes called "varsity" (although this has become uncommon in New Zealand in recent years). "Varsity" was also common usage in the UK in the 19th century.[citation needed] "Varsity" is still in common usage in Scotland.
A college teaches students for how many years in Canada?
573198110fdd8d15006c63bf
two
43
False
What type of institution is a college in Canada?
573198110fdd8d15006c63c0
non-degree-granting
53
False
How many years does a degree-granting university in Canada spend teaching students?
573198110fdd8d15006c63c1
four
116
False
What is McGill University in Canada an example of?
573198110fdd8d15006c63c2
medical schools
290
False
What type of university is St Francis Xavier in Canada?
573198110fdd8d15006c63c3
undergraduate
466
False
two
43
A college teaches students for how many years in Macleans?
5a77bfb8b73996001af5a553
True
non-degree-granting
53
What type of institution is a college in Macleans?
5a77bfb8b73996001af5a554
True
four
116
How many years does a degree-granting university in Macleans spend teaching students?
5a77bfb8b73996001af5a555
True
Waterloo
432
What is an example of a university geared toward research?
5a77bfb8b73996001af5a556
True
St. Francis Xavier
502
What is an example of a primarily graduate university?
5a77bfb8b73996001af5a557
True
In Canada, "college" generally refers to a two-year, non-degree-granting institution, while "university" connotes a four-year, degree-granting institution. Universities may be sub-classified (as in the Macleans rankings) into large research universities with many PhD granting programs and medical schools (for example, McGill University); "comprehensive" universities that have some PhDs but aren't geared toward research (such as Waterloo); and smaller, primarily undergraduate universities (such as St. Francis Xavier).
How many vice presidents do most universities have?
5731993c0fdd8d15006c63d3
at least one
138
False
What kind of board does a university commonly have?
5731993c0fdd8d15006c63d4
a board of trustees
81
False
What are the different departments of a university called?
5731993c0fdd8d15006c63d5
schools or faculties
306
False
Who controls public universities?
5731993c0fdd8d15006c63d6
government-run higher education boards
372
False
Besides students, what is the source of funds of private universities?
5731993c0fdd8d15006c63d7
business corporations
1037
False
at least one
138
How many vice presidents do most businesses have?
5a77bbb8b73996001af5a53f
True
a board of trustees
81
What kind of board does a business commonly have?
5a77bbb8b73996001af5a540
True
schools or faculties
306
What are the different departments of a business called?
5a77bbb8b73996001af5a541
True
government-run higher education boards
372
Who controls public businesses?
5a77bbb8b73996001af5a542
True
business corporations
1037
Besides students, what is the source of funds of public universities?
5a77bbb8b73996001af5a543
True
Although each institution is organized differently, nearly all universities have a board of trustees; a president, chancellor, or rector; at least one vice president, vice-chancellor, or vice-rector; and deans of various divisions. Universities are generally divided into a number of academic departments, schools or faculties. Public university systems are ruled over by government-run higher education boards. They review financial requests and budget proposals and then allocate funds for each university in the system. They also approve new programs of instruction and cancel or make changes in existing programs. In addition, they plan for the further coordinated growth and development of the various institutions of higher education in the state or country. However, many public universities in the world have a considerable degree of financial, research and pedagogical autonomy. Private universities are privately funded and generally have broader independence from state policies. However, they may have less independence from business corporations depending on the source of their finances.
How does the financial backing of universities around the world differ?
57319c9ee17f3d1400422273
varies widely
45
False
In nations that accept students from through the world what might the university offer to a student?
57319c9ee17f3d1400422274
accommodation
477
False
Outside of state funded schools, and funds coming from donors, how might a university collect funds?
57319c9ee17f3d1400422275
fees which students attending the university
228
False
varies widely
45
How does the financial backing of students around the world differ?
5a77beefb73996001af5a549
True
attract students from all over the world, and may provide university accommodation for their students
408
What do other states do for students?
5a77beefb73996001af5a54a
True
some countries
286
Where do the vast majority of students have funding from their hometown?
5a77beefb73996001af5a54b
True
the state
164
Who are students in some countries predominatly funded by?
5a77beefb73996001af5a54c
True
different countries around the world
67
Where does the funding and organization of students vary?
5a77beefb73996001af5a54d
True
The funding and organization of universities varies widely between different countries around the world. In some countries universities are predominantly funded by the state, while in others funding may come from donors or from fees which students attending the university must pay. In some countries the vast majority of students attend university in their local town, while in other countries universities attract students from all over the world, and may provide university accommodation for their students.
What is a university formed through a bilateral treaty known as?
57319d4eb9d445190005e407
intergovernmental
78
False
In terms of intergovernmental universities, what is EUCLID?
57319d4eb9d445190005e408
Pôle Universitaire Euclide, Euclid University
262
False
What is a mission of EUCLID as it relates to signatory nations?
57319d4eb9d445190005e409
sustainable development
377
False
What type of school is the European University Institute?
57319d4eb9d445190005e40a
post-graduate
629
False
What type of study does the European University Institute focus on?
57319d4eb9d445190005e40b
social sciences
673
False
intergovernmental
78
What is a university formed through a unilateral treaty known as?
5a77bafdb73996001af5a535
True
sustainable development
377
What is a mission of EUCLID as it relates to the United Nations?
5a77bafdb73996001af5a536
True
post-graduate
629
What type of school is the EUCLID?
5a77bafdb73996001af5a537
True
social sciences
673
What type of study does the EUCUD focus on?
5a77bafdb73996001af5a538
True
Academy of European Law
115
What offers training in Asian law?
5a77bafdb73996001af5a539
True
Universities created by bilateral or multilateral treaties between states are intergovernmental. An example is the Academy of European Law, which offers training in European law to lawyers, judges, barristers, solicitors, in-house counsel and academics. EUCLID (Pôle Universitaire Euclide, Euclid University) is chartered as a university and umbrella organisation dedicated to sustainable development in signatory countries, and the United Nations University engages in efforts to resolve the pressing global problems that are of concern to the United Nations, its peoples and member states. The European University Institute, a post-graduate university specialised in the social sciences, is officially an intergovernmental organisation, set up by the member states of the European Union.
What was a focus of the National University of Ireland during the beginning of Irish Independence?
57319e32e99e3014001e6188
Irish language and Irish culture
454
False
In what nation did the University Revolution occur?
57319e32e99e3014001e6189
Argentina
499
False
In what year did Argentina's University Revolution occur?
57319e32e99e3014001e618a
1918
557
False
What was the result of the University Revolution in Argentina?
57319e32e99e3014001e618b
Reforms
488
False
Irish language and Irish culture
454
What was a focus of Argentina during the beginning of Irish independence?
5a77b8beb73996001af5a52b
True
1918
557
In what year did Ireland's University Revolution occur?
5a77b8beb73996001af5a52c
True
Reforms
488
What was the result of the University Revolution in Ireland?
5a77b8beb73996001af5a52d
True
national university
2
What is generally a university created or run by private donors?
5a77b8beb73996001af5a52e
True
National University of Ireland
336
Who collected a large amount of information on the Argentina language?
5a77b8beb73996001af5a52f
True
A national university is generally a university created or run by a national state but at the same time represents a state autonomic institution which functions as a completely independent body inside of the same state. Some national universities are closely associated with national cultural or political aspirations, for instance the National University of Ireland in the early days of Irish independence collected a large amount of information on the Irish language and Irish culture. Reforms in Argentina were the result of the University Revolution of 1918 and its posterior reforms by incorporating values that sought for a more equal and laic higher education system.
In what year did the Robbins report say that universities should have four objectives to remain balanced?
57319f1ee17f3d1400422281
1963
3
False
What nation did the 1963 Robbins Report focus on?
57319f1ee17f3d1400422282
the United Kingdom
47
False
What should a university promote, according to the Robbins Report?
57319f1ee17f3d1400422283
general powers of the mind
220
False
Universities should maintain what, according to the Robbins Report?
57319f1ee17f3d1400422284
research in balance with teaching
334
False
The Robbins Report says universities should transmit what?
57319f1ee17f3d1400422285
a common culture and common standards of citizenship
483
False
1963
3
In what year did the Robbins report say that men and women should have four objectives to remain balanced?
5a77b4a8b73996001af5a521
True
the United Kingdom
47
What nation focused on teaching?
5a77b4a8b73996001af5a522
True
general powers of the mind
220
What should men and women promote, according to the Robbins Report?
5a77b4a8b73996001af5a523
True
research in balance with teaching
334
Men and women should maintain what, according to the Robbins Report?
5a77b4a8b73996001af5a524
True
a common culture and common standards of citizenship
483
The Robbins report says men and women should transmit what?
5a77b4a8b73996001af5a525
True
In 1963, the Robbins Report on universities in the United Kingdom concluded that such institutions should have four main "objectives essential to any properly balanced system: instruction in skills; the promotion of the general powers of the mind so as to produce not mere specialists but rather cultivated men and women; to maintain research in balance with teaching, since teaching should not be separated from the advancement of learning and the search for truth; and to transmit a common culture and common standards of citizenship."
Ending with what century did religion play a smaller part in the curriculum of universities?
57319fb90fdd8d15006c6403
19th
10
False
what model of university structure was being used throughout the world at the finish of the 19th century?
57319fb90fdd8d15006c6404
the German university model
207
False
What was the focus of universities in the 20th century?
57319fb90fdd8d15006c6405
science
293
False
Who was Sir Keith Murray?
57319fb90fdd8d15006c6406
chairman of the University Grants Committee
580
False
What university did Sir Samuel Curran contribute to the creation of?
57319fb90fdd8d15006c6407
the University of Strathclyde
670
False
19th
193
Ending with what century did German play a smaller part in the curriculum of universities?
5a77b3a4b73996001af5a517
True
the German university model
207
What model of university structure was being used throughout the world at the finish of the 20th century?
5a77b3a4b73996001af5a518
True
science
293
What were the focus of grants in the 19th century?
5a77b3a4b73996001af5a519
True
Sir Samuel Curran
629
Who formed a university in Germany?
5a77b3a4b73996001af5a51a
True
Universities
264
What became less accessible to the masses?
5a77b3a4b73996001af5a51b
True
Until the 19th century, religion played a significant role in university curriculum; however, the role of religion in research universities decreased in the 19th century, and by the end of the 19th century, the German university model had spread around the world. Universities concentrated on science in the 19th and 20th centuries and became increasingly accessible to the masses. In Britain, the move from Industrial Revolution to modernity saw the arrival of new civic universities with an emphasis on science and engineering, a movement initiated in 1960 by Sir Keith Murray (chairman of the University Grants Committee) and Sir Samuel Curran, with the formation of the University of Strathclyde. The British also established universities worldwide, and higher education became available to the masses not only in Europe.
At the end of what period would universities become alike to contemporary universities?
5731a0a1b9d445190005e411
the end of the early modern period
3
False
What type of focus did universities have at the end of the early modern period?
5731a0a1b9d445190005e412
mechanistic
280
False
What replaced theological studies in universities at the completion of the early modern period?
5731a0a1b9d445190005e413
humanities
411
False
The change in universities towards the completion of the early modern period is credited with the formation of what entity?
5731a0a1b9d445190005e414
the modern state
593
False
The study of the humanities at the end of the early modern period replaced the study of the work of what individual?
5731a0a1b9d445190005e415
Aristotle
165
False
the end of the early modern period
3
At the end of what period would universities become a fixture?
5a77b0eeb73996001af5a503
True
mechanistic
280
What type of focus did universities have at the end of the modern state?
5a77b0eeb73996001af5a504
True
humanities
411
What replaced theological studies in universities at the completion of the modern state?
5a77b0eeb73996001af5a505
True
the modern state
593
The change in universities towards the completion of the modern period is credited with the formation of what entity?
5a77b0eeb73996001af5a506
True
Aristotle
165
The study of the humanities at the end of the modern state replaced the work of what individual?
5a77b0eeb73996001af5a507
True
By the end of the early modern period, the structure and orientation of higher education had changed in ways that are eminently recognizable for the modern context. Aristotle was no longer a force providing the epistemological and methodological focus for universities and a more mechanistic orientation was emerging. The hierarchical place of theological knowledge had for the most part been displaced and the humanities had become a fixture, and a new openness was beginning to take hold in the construction and dissemination of knowledge that were to become imperative for the formation of the modern state.
Scientists and universities were competing for what?
5731a21de17f3d1400422295
limited resources
213
False
What type of education did private benefactors hope to provide to the public?
5731a21de17f3d1400422296
free
348
False
Governments created universities to serve as what?
5731a21de17f3d1400422297
an alternative to traditional universities
458
False
What type of entity created competition with government created universities?
5731a21de17f3d1400422298
private benefactors
719
False
limited resources
213
Scientists and local governments were competing for what?
5a77ae98b73996001af5a4f9
True
free
348
What type of education did scientists benefactors hope to provide to the public?
5a77ae98b73996001af5a4fa
True
an alternative to traditional universities
458
Governments created knowledge to serve as what?
5a77ae98b73996001af5a4fb
True
to provide a knowledge hungry populace with an alternative to traditional universities
414
Why did local governments establish research?
5a77ae98b73996001af5a4fc
True
the resources available through private benefactors
687
What could scientists not compete with?
5a77ae98b73996001af5a4fd
True
The epistemological tensions between scientists and universities were also heightened by the economic realities of research during this time, as individual scientists, associations and universities were vying for limited resources. There was also competition from the formation of new colleges funded by private benefactors and designed to provide free education to the public, or established by local governments to provide a knowledge hungry populace with an alternative to traditional universities. Even when universities supported new scientific endeavors, and the university provided foundational training and authority for the research and conclusions, they could not compete with the resources available through private benefactors.
What percentage of scientists from 1450–1650 in the Dictionary of Scientific Biography were taught in a university?
5731a318b9d445190005e425
more than 80%
273
False
On the part of universities what was their reaction to giving up the Aristotelian system?
5731a318b9d445190005e426
considerable reluctance
649
False
What university was Melancthon from?
5731a318b9d445190005e427
University of Wittenberg
1059
False
What type of epistemology was adopted for a short period of time in European universities?
5731a318b9d445190005e428
Cartesian
1260
False
The acceptance of new concepts and sciences by universities brought these ideas what?
5731a318b9d445190005e429
legitimacy and respectability
1719
False
more than 80%
273
What percentage of students from 1450-1650 in the Dictionary of Scientific Biography were taught at a university?
5a77ab19b73996001af5a4e9
True
University of Wittenberg
1059
What university was Cartesia from?
5a77ab19b73996001af5a4ea
True
Cartesian
1260
What type of epistemology was adopted for a short period of time in MIddle Eastern universities?
5a77ab19b73996001af5a4eb
True
Other historians find incongruity in the proposition that the very place where the vast number of the scholars that influenced the scientific revolution received their education should also be the place that inhibits their research and the advancement of science. In fact, more than 80% of the European scientists between 1450–1650 included in the Dictionary of Scientific Biography were university trained, of which approximately 45% held university posts. It was the case that the academic foundations remaining from the Middle Ages were stable, and they did provide for an environment that fostered considerable growth and development. There was considerable reluctance on the part of universities to relinquish the symmetry and comprehensiveness provided by the Aristotelian system, which was effective as a coherent system for understanding and interpreting the world. However, university professors still utilized some autonomy, at least in the sciences, to choose epistemological foundations and methods. For instance, Melanchthon and his disciples at University of Wittenberg were instrumental for integrating Copernican mathematical constructs into astronomical debate and instruction. Another example was the short-lived but fairly rapid adoption of Cartesian epistemology and methodology in European universities, and the debates surrounding that adoption, which led to more mechanistic approaches to scientific problems as well as demonstrated an openness to change. There are many examples which belie the commonly perceived intransigence of universities. Although universities may have been slow to accept new sciences and methodologies as they emerged, when they did accept new ideas it helped to convey legitimacy and respectability, and supported the scientific changes through providing a stable environment for instruction and material resources.
What type of epistemology served as the foundation of knowledge constructions and  training scholars in universities?
5731a4580fdd8d15006c6421
Aristotelian
215
False
The scientific revolution contributed to what, in terms of science?
5731a4580fdd8d15006c6422
autonomy
582
False
There was disagreement between universities and scientists over schools focusing on science, and the idea of what?
5731a4580fdd8d15006c6423
a general scholar
949
False
A hierarchy of scientific disciplines came out of what?
5731a4580fdd8d15006c6424
the scientific revolution
448
False
Where did students after the scientific revolution put science on the scale of importance?
5731a4580fdd8d15006c6425
first
814
False
Aristotelian
215
What type of epistemology served as the foundation of knowledge constructions and training students in universities?
5a77acd1b73996001af5a4ef
True
autonomy
582
What did the scientific scholar contribute to, in terms of science?
5a77acd1b73996001af5a4f0
True
the scientific revolution
448
What resulted in a hierarchy of scholars?
5a77acd1b73996001af5a4f1
True
first
814
Where did scholars after the scientific revolution put science on the scale of importance?
5a77acd1b73996001af5a4f2
True
the way that university education was constructed
164
What was there an indiscernible impact on?
5a77acd1b73996001af5a4f3
True
Regardless of the way the tension between universities, individual scientists, and the scientific revolution itself is perceived, there was a discernible impact on the way that university education was constructed. Aristotelian epistemology provided a coherent framework not simply for knowledge and knowledge construction, but also for the training of scholars within the higher education setting. The creation of new scientific constructs during the scientific revolution, and the epistemological challenges that were inherent within this creation, initiated the idea of both the autonomy of science and the hierarchy of the disciplines. Instead of entering higher education to become a "general scholar" immersed in becoming proficient in the entire curriculum, there emerged a type of scholar that put science first and viewed it as a vocation in itself. The divergence between those focused on science and those still entrenched in the idea of a general scholar exacerbated the epistemological tensions that were already beginning to emerge.
The study of humanism among those studying math, astronomy and medicine is said to have caused what?
5731a51fe17f3d140042229d
the scientific revolution
165
False
Resisting what caused many scientists to court private benefactors?
5731a51fe17f3d140042229e
changes in science
705
False
Where might a scientist find a friendly private benefactor?
5731a51fe17f3d140042229f
princely courts
854
False
Which historian argues that traditionalism in a university system hindered attempts to form new views on knowledge and nature?
5731a51fe17f3d14004222a0
Richard S. Westfall
479
False
the scientific revolution
165
The study of humanism among those studying history is said to have caused what?
5a77aa20b73996001af5a4df
True
changes in science
705
Resisting what caused many students to court private benefactors?
5a77aa20b73996001af5a4e0
True
princely courts
854
Where might a student find a friendly private benefactor?
5a77aa20b73996001af5a4e1
True
Richard S. Westfall
479
Which historian argues that traditionalism in a university system hindered attempts to form new views on medicine and mathematics?
5a77aa20b73996001af5a4e2
True
resistance to changes in science
691
What may have been a significant factor in driving students away from the university?
5a77aa20b73996001af5a4e3
True
Examining the influence of humanism on scholars in medicine, mathematics, astronomy and physics may suggest that humanism and universities were a strong impetus for the scientific revolution. Although the connection between humanism and the scientific discovery may very well have begun within the confines of the university, the connection has been commonly perceived as having been severed by the changing nature of science during the scientific revolution. Historians such as Richard S. Westfall have argued that the overt traditionalism of universities inhibited attempts to re-conceptualize nature and knowledge and caused an indelible tension between universities and scientists. This resistance to changes in science may have been a significant factor in driving many scientists away from the university and toward private benefactors, usually in princely courts, and associations with newly forming scientific societies.
Religion_in_ancient_Rome
The members of what class were priests in ancient Rome?
57318c85a5e9cc1400cdc03b
elite
63
False
What kind of political separation did not exist in Rome?
57318c85a5e9cc1400cdc03c
church and state
128
False
What was the time span of the Roman Republic?
57318c85a5e9cc1400cdc03d
509–27 BC
189
False
Which God exemplified just rule for the Romans?
57318c85a5e9cc1400cdc03e
Jupiter
822
False
As a result of what war were many new temples built by victorious generals?
57318c85a5e9cc1400cdc03f
Punic Wars
874
False
The priesthoods of public religion were held by members of the elite classes. There was no principle analogous to separation of church and state in ancient Rome. During the Roman Republic (509–27 BC), the same men who were elected public officials might also serve as augurs and pontiffs. Priests married, raised families, and led politically active lives. Julius Caesar became pontifex maximus before he was elected consul. The augurs read the will of the gods and supervised the marking of boundaries as a reflection of universal order, thus sanctioning Roman expansionism as a matter of divine destiny. The Roman triumph was at its core a religious procession in which the victorious general displayed his piety and his willingness to serve the public good by dedicating a portion of his spoils to the gods, especially Jupiter, who embodied just rule. As a result of the Punic Wars (264–146 BC), when Rome struggled to establish itself as a dominant power, many new temples were built by magistrates in fulfillment of a vow to a deity for assuring their military success.
What characteristics were not inherent in Roman religious practice?
57318f2c05b4da19006bd2ac
faith or dogma
215
False
What was brought forth by religion in Rome?
57318f2c05b4da19006bd2ad
social order
468
False
What religious feature did each Roman home have?
57318f2c05b4da19006bd2ae
household shrine
554
False
What type of celebrations made up the Roman calendar?
57318f2c05b4da19006bd2af
religious observances
773
False
What religious group was in charge of Rome's sacred flame?
57318f2c05b4da19006bd2b0
Vestals
1015
False
Roman religion was thus practical and contractual, based on the principle of do ut des, "I give that you might give." Religion depended on knowledge and the correct practice of prayer, ritual, and sacrifice, not on faith or dogma, although Latin literature preserves learned speculation on the nature of the divine and its relation to human affairs. Even the most skeptical among Rome's intellectual elite such as Cicero, who was an augur, saw religion as a source of social order. For ordinary Romans, religion was a part of daily life. Each home had a household shrine at which prayers and libations to the family's domestic deities were offered. Neighborhood shrines and sacred places such as springs and groves dotted the city. The Roman calendar was structured around religious observances. Women, slaves, and children all participated in a range of religious activities. Some public rituals could be conducted only by women, and women formed what is perhaps Rome's most famous priesthood, the state-supported Vestals, who tended Rome's sacred hearth for centuries, until disbanded under Christian domination.
How deities did the Romans have?
5731906a497a88190024903f
great number
29
False
What group was an influence to Roman culture?
5731906a497a881900249040
Greeks
150
False
What sort  of practices did the Greeks offer to Rome's culture?
5731906a497a881900249041
religious
269
False
What myths did the Romans adapt to their needs?
5731906a497a881900249042
Greek
457
False
What religion influenced augury for the Romans?
5731906a497a881900249043
Etruscan
521
False
The Romans are known for the great number of deities they honored, a capacity that earned the mockery of early Christian polemicists. The presence of Greeks on the Italian peninsula from the beginning of the historical period influenced Roman culture, introducing some religious practices that became as fundamental as the cult of Apollo. The Romans looked for common ground between their major gods and those of the Greeks (interpretatio graeca), adapting Greek myths and iconography for Latin literature and Roman art. Etruscan religion was also a major influence, particularly on the practice of augury.
What was the practice of religion to the Romans?
57319240a5e9cc1400cdc0d5
personal choice
97
False
What was the standard practice in Roman religious life?
57319240a5e9cc1400cdc0d6
public religion
209
False
What part of Roman religious practice involved secrecy?
57319240a5e9cc1400cdc0d7
mysteries
230
False
What group viewed the mysteries as suspicious or subversive?
57319240a5e9cc1400cdc0d8
conservative Romans
304
False
What did the mysteries seem to threaten that made the Romans occasionally attempt to ban them?
57319240a5e9cc1400cdc0d9
morality and unity
538
False
Imported mystery religions, which offered initiates salvation in the afterlife, were a matter of personal choice for an individual, practiced in addition to carrying on one's family rites and participating in public religion. The mysteries, however, involved exclusive oaths and secrecy, conditions that conservative Romans viewed with suspicion as characteristic of "magic", conspiratorial (coniuratio), or subversive activity. Sporadic and sometimes brutal attempts were made to suppress religionists who seemed to threaten traditional morality and unity, as with the senate's efforts to restrict the Bacchanals in 186 BC.
What did the Romans tend to do with local religions and deities in conquered areas?
573193f005b4da19006bd2e4
absorb
106
False
To the Romans what did them think promoted social stability?
573193f005b4da19006bd2e5
preserving tradition
212
False
What facet of a foreign people did Rome add to itself to promote order?
573193f005b4da19006bd2e6
religious heritage
331
False
To what areas of the Roman empire did the Romans take their deities?
573193f005b4da19006bd2e7
remote provinces
721
False
What facet of religion was not an issue for Roman?
573193f005b4da19006bd2e8
tolerance
956
False
As the Romans extended their dominance throughout the Mediterranean world, their policy in general was to absorb the deities and cults of other peoples rather than try to eradicate them, since they believed that preserving tradition promoted social stability. One way that Rome incorporated diverse peoples was by supporting their religious heritage, building temples to local deities that framed their theology within the hierarchy of Roman religion. Inscriptions throughout the Empire record the side-by-side worship of local and Roman deities, including dedications made by Romans to local gods. By the height of the Empire, numerous international deities were cultivated at Rome and had been carried to even the most remote provinces, among them Cybele, Isis, Epona, and gods of solar monism such as Mithras and Sol Invictus, found as far north as Roman Britain. Because Romans had never been obligated to cultivate one god or one cult only, religious tolerance was not an issue in the sense that it is for competing monotheistic systems. The monotheistic rigor of Judaism posed difficulties for Roman policy that led at times to compromise and the granting of special exemptions, but sometimes to intractable conflict. For example, religious disputes helped cause the First Jewish–Roman War and the Bar Kokhba revolt.
After the Republic collapsed,  what addition was made to the religions of Rome?
573195dbe6313a140071d0e0
emperors
100
False
Who was the first Roman emperor?
573195dbe6313a140071d0e1
Augustus
110
False
For whose well being were public vows made in the empire?
573195dbe6313a140071d0e2
emperor
340
False
What did the Romans use as a means of expanding their rule throughout the empire?
573195dbe6313a140071d0e3
Imperial cult
518
False
As what during the time of the Roman empire  was rejection of the state religion viewed?
573195dbe6313a140071d0e4
treason
741
False
In the wake of the Republic's collapse, state religion had adapted to support the new regime of the emperors. Augustus, the first Roman emperor, justified the novelty of one-man rule with a vast program of religious revivalism and reform. Public vows formerly made for the security of the republic now were directed at the wellbeing of the emperor. So-called "emperor worship" expanded on a grand scale the traditional Roman veneration of the ancestral dead and of the Genius, the divine tutelary of every individual. Imperial cult became one of the major ways in which Rome advertised its presence in the provinces and cultivated shared cultural identity and loyalty throughout the Empire. Rejection of the state religion was tantamount to treason. This was the context for Rome's conflict with Christianity, which Romans variously regarded as a form of atheism and novel superstitio.
What mythical figure did the Romans consider to be semi-divine?
57319760e99e3014001e6174
Aeneas
54
False
Of what did Aeneas establish the central feature?
57319760e99e3014001e6175
Roman religion
124
False
Who were the keepers of Aeneas's sacred objects?
57319760e99e3014001e6176
Vestals
288
False
What ancient festival was celebrated until the 5th century?
57319760e99e3014001e6177
Lupercalia
598
False
To whom did Aeneas set up an alter in Rome?
57319760e99e3014001e6178
Hercules
502
False
Rome had a semi-divine ancestor in the Trojan refugee Aeneas, son of Venus, who was said to have established the nucleus of Roman religion when he brought the Palladium, Lares and Penates from Troy to Italy. These objects were believed in historical times to remain in the keeping of the Vestals, Rome's female priesthood. Aeneas had been given refuge by King Evander, a Greek exile from Arcadia, to whom were attributed other religious foundations: he established the Ara Maxima, "Greatest Altar," to Hercules at the site that would become the Forum Boarium, and he was the first to celebrate the Lupercalia, an archaic festival in February that was celebrated as late as the 5th century of the Christian era.
What mythical characters were involved in the founding of Rome?
57319878e17f3d1400422255
Romulus and Remus
178
False
What type of story was the Romulus and Remus tale?
57319878e17f3d1400422256
hero myth
269
False
Who was the mother of Romulus and Remus?
57319878e17f3d1400422257
Rhea Silvia
294
False
What god was the father of Romulus and Remus?
57319878e17f3d1400422258
Mars
534
False
What type of events saved the twins of Roman myth?
57319878e17f3d1400422259
miraculous
638
False
The myth of a Trojan founding with Greek influence was reconciled through an elaborate genealogy (the Latin kings of Alba Longa) with the well-known legend of Rome's founding by Romulus and Remus. The most common version of the twins' story displays several aspects of hero myth. Their mother, Rhea Silvia, had been ordered by her uncle the king to remain a virgin, in order to preserve the throne he had usurped from her father. Through divine intervention, the rightful line was restored when Rhea Silvia was impregnated by the god Mars. She gave birth to twins, who were duly exposed by order of the king but saved through a series of miraculous events.
What type of organization did Romulus establish?
573199ecb9d445190005e3fd
religious
34
False
What religious festival did Romulus found?
573199ecb9d445190005e3fe
Consualia
73
False
According to myth, what god's temple did Romulus found?
573199ecb9d445190005e3ff
Jupiter
370
False
What did Romulus offer to Jupiter in the first Roman Triumph?
573199ecb9d445190005e400
spoils taken in war
428
False
Instead of death, what happened to Romulus?
573199ecb9d445190005e401
deified
564
False
Romulus was credited with several religious institutions. He founded the Consualia festival, inviting the neighbouring Sabines to participate; the ensuing rape of the Sabine women by Romulus's men further embedded both violence and cultural assimilation in Rome's myth of origins. As a successful general, Romulus is also supposed to have founded Rome's first temple to Jupiter Feretrius and offered the spolia opima, the prime spoils taken in war, in the celebration of the first Roman triumph. Spared a mortal's death, Romulus was mysteriously spirited away and deified.
To what were the first kings of Rome associated?
57319b91e17f3d1400422269
religious institutions
81
False
To what group of deities did Lucius Tarquinius Priscus  establish a temple?
57319b91e17f3d140042226a
Jupiter, Juno and Minerva
309
False
Where was the temple to the triad gods established?
57319b91e17f3d140042226b
Capitoline
278
False
What organization did Servius Tullius found?
57319b91e17f3d140042226c
Latin League,
485
False
The removal of whom marked the beginning of the Roman Republic?
57319b91e17f3d140042226d
Tarquinius Superbus
635
False
Each of Rome's legendary or semi-legendary kings was associated with one or more religious institutions still known to the later Republic. Tullus Hostilius and Ancus Marcius instituted the fetial priests. The first "outsider" Etruscan king, Lucius Tarquinius Priscus, founded a Capitoline temple to the triad Jupiter, Juno and Minerva which served as the model for the highest official cult throughout the Roman world. The benevolent, divinely fathered Servius Tullius established the Latin League, its Aventine Temple to Diana, and the Compitalia to mark his social reforms. Servius Tullius was murdered and succeeded by the arrogant Tarquinius Superbus, whose expulsion marked the beginning of Rome as a republic with annually elected magistrates.
What type of myth did Rome not have?
5731a18fe17f3d140042228b
creation
22
False
To the Romans who ruled all aspects of heaven and earth?
5731a18fe17f3d140042228c
immortal gods
224
False
What did the Romans do for those deities that favored Rome?
5731a18fe17f3d140042228d
Rome honoured them
420
False
What did Rome make the myriad various cults?
5731a18fe17f3d140042228e
lawful
633
False
What was basic facet of Roman religious experience?
5731a18fe17f3d140042228f
Change
829
False
Rome offers no native creation myth, and little mythography to explain the character of its deities, their mutual relationships or their interactions with the human world, but Roman theology acknowledged that di immortales (immortal gods) ruled all realms of the heavens and earth. There were gods of the upper heavens, gods of the underworld and a myriad of lesser deities between. Some evidently favoured Rome because Rome honoured them, but none were intrinsically, irredeemably foreign or alien. The political, cultural and religious coherence of an emergent Roman super-state required a broad, inclusive and flexible network of lawful cults. At different times and in different places, the sphere of influence, character and functions of a divine being could expand, overlap with those of others, and be redefined as Roman. Change was embedded within existing traditions.
To the Romans who was the most powerful of the gods?
5731a3b00fdd8d15006c6417
Jupiter
155
False
What did Jupiter personify in regards to Rome's highest offices?
5731a3b00fdd8d15006c6418
divine authority
317
False
What gods did Juno and Minerva replace in Roman religious practice?
5731a3b00fdd8d15006c6419
Mars and Quirinus
536
False
From where does the practice of linking various gods into grouping come?
5731a3b00fdd8d15006c641a
Greek in origin
1057
False
Of what did the linking of Greek and Roman deities promote a feeling?
5731a3b00fdd8d15006c641b
heritage
1284
False
Several versions of a semi-official, structured pantheon were developed during the political, social and religious instability of the Late Republican era. Jupiter, the most powerful of all gods and "the fount of the auspices upon which the relationship of the city with the gods rested", consistently personified the divine authority of Rome's highest offices, internal organization and external relations. During the archaic and early Republican eras, he shared his temple, some aspects of cult and several divine characteristics with Mars and Quirinus, who were later replaced by Juno and Minerva. A conceptual tendency toward triads may be indicated by the later agricultural or plebeian triad of Ceres, Liber and Libera, and by some of the complementary threefold deity-groupings of Imperial cult. Other major and minor deities could be single, coupled, or linked retrospectively through myths of divine marriage and sexual adventure. These later Roman pantheistic hierarchies are part literary and mythographic, part philosophical creations, and often Greek in origin. The Hellenization of Latin literature and culture supplied literary and artistic models for reinterpreting Roman deities in light of the Greek Olympians, and promoted a sense that the two cultures had a shared heritage.
What type of religious practices outnumbered the state observances?
5731a5bfe99e3014001e61a4
commonplace
124
False
To what did the mixture of official and individual religious practices  pertain?
5731a5bfe99e3014001e61a5
lawful Roman
394
False
What were the characteristics of state religious observances?
5731a5bfe99e3014001e61a6
impressive, costly, and centralised
4
False
Who made the choices of personal religious practices in Rome?
5731a5bfe99e3014001e61a7
individual
175
False
What type of deities did Roman communities have?
5731a5bfe99e3014001e61a8
patron
223
False
The impressive, costly, and centralised rites to the deities of the Roman state were vastly outnumbered in everyday life by commonplace religious observances pertaining to an individual's domestic and personal deities, the patron divinities of Rome's various neighborhoods and communities, and the often idiosyncratic blends of official, unofficial, local and personal cults that characterised lawful Roman religion. In this spirit, a provincial Roman citizen who made the long journey from Bordeaux to Italy to consult the Sibyl at Tibur did not neglect his devotion to his own goddess from home:
How many religious celebrations did Rome have?
5731a76fe17f3d14004222c3
forty
29
False
What type of day were there more of in Rome?
5731a76fe17f3d14004222c4
sacred days
118
False
With what were Roman festivals organized in accordance?
5731a76fe17f3d14004222c5
seasonal
308
False
What traditions did the seasonal festivals incorporate?
5731a76fe17f3d14004222c6
local
351
False
Instead of the public, what did some religious rites only require?
5731a76fe17f3d14004222c7
particular groups
732
False
Roman calendars show roughly forty annual religious festivals. Some lasted several days, others a single day or less: sacred days (dies fasti) outnumbered "non-sacred" days (dies nefasti). A comparison of surviving Roman religious calendars suggests that official festivals were organized according to broad seasonal groups that allowed for different local traditions. Some of the most ancient and popular festivals incorporated ludi ("games," such as chariot races and theatrical performances), with examples including those held at Palestrina in honour of Fortuna Primigenia during Compitalia, and the Ludi Romani in honour of Liber. Other festivals may have required only the presence and rites of their priests and acolytes, or particular groups, such as women at the Bona Dea rites.
What type of festivals happened when events warranted them?
5731a97bb9d445190005e439
fulfillment of religious vows
137
False
What is an example of an event organized religious celebration?
5731a97bb9d445190005e43a
The triumph
84
False
In what aspect of the festival did political figures try to out do each other?
5731a97bb9d445190005e43b
public display
340
False
Under what auspices did public displays  come during the Principate?
5731a97bb9d445190005e43c
Imperial
500
False
Who paid for the most lavish of festival events?
5731a97bb9d445190005e43d
emperors
553
False
Other public festivals were not required by the calendar, but occasioned by events. The triumph of a Roman general was celebrated as the fulfillment of religious vows, though these tended to be overshadowed by the political and social significance of the event. During the late Republic, the political elite competed to outdo each other in public display, and the ludi attendant on a triumph were expanded to include gladiator contests. Under the Principate, all such spectacular displays came under Imperial control: the most lavish were subsidised by emperors, and lesser events were provided by magistrates as a sacred duty and privilege of office. Additional festivals and games celebrated Imperial accessions and anniversaries. Others, such as the traditional Republican Secular Games to mark a new era (saeculum), became imperially funded to maintain traditional values and a common Roman identity. That the spectacles retained something of their sacral aura even in late antiquity is indicated by the admonitions of the Church Fathers that Christians should not take part.
What did obscure festivals offer Romans the opportunity to do?
5731ab21b9d445190005e44d
reinterpretation
169
False
What did Augustus wish to do for Roman religion?
5731ab21b9d445190005e44e
reform
248
False
What poet wrote a long poem describing Roman religious holidays?
5731ab21b9d445190005e44f
Ovid
346
False
What was lacking in the presentation of religious events in Rome?
5731ab21b9d445190005e450
authoritative calendar
1207
False
Under whose rule were new Christian festivals added to previous Roman holidays?
5731ab21b9d445190005e451
Christian
1281
False
The meaning and origin of many archaic festivals baffled even Rome's intellectual elite, but the more obscure they were, the greater the opportunity for reinvention and reinterpretation — a fact lost neither on Augustus in his program of religious reform, which often cloaked autocratic innovation, nor on his only rival as mythmaker of the era, Ovid. In his Fasti, a long-form poem covering Roman holidays from January to June, Ovid presents a unique look at Roman antiquarian lore, popular customs, and religious practice that is by turns imaginative, entertaining, high-minded, and scurrilous; not a priestly account, despite the speaker's pose as a vates or inspired poet-prophet, but a work of description, imagination and poetic etymology that reflects the broad humor and burlesque spirit of such venerable festivals as the Saturnalia, Consualia, and feast of Anna Perenna on the Ides of March, where Ovid treats the assassination of the newly deified Julius Caesar as utterly incidental to the festivities among the Roman people. But official calendars preserved from different times and places also show a flexibility in omitting or expanding events, indicating that there was no single static and authoritative calendar of required observances. In the later Empire under Christian rule, the new Christian festivals were incorporated into the existing framework of the Roman calendar, alongside at least some of the traditional festivals.
Around what aspect did the Romans a lot space?
5731aca5e99e3014001e61be
ritual
242
False
What religious practice did Rome use to determine ritual?
5731aca5e99e3014001e61bf
augury
138
False
What Roman word was used to refer to the scared precinct?
5731aca5e99e3014001e61c0
templum
302
False
What common Latin words were used to mean a shrine or building?
5731aca5e99e3014001e61c1
aedes, delubrum, or fanum
376
False
What monuments were the some of most visible of Roman culture?
5731aca5e99e3014001e61c2
temples
453
False
The Latin word templum originally referred not to the temple building itself, but to a sacred space surveyed and plotted ritually through augury: "The architecture of the ancient Romans was, from first to last, an art of shaping space around ritual." The Roman architect Vitruvius always uses the word templum to refer to this sacred precinct, and the more common Latin words aedes, delubrum, or fanum for a temple or shrine as a building. The ruins of temples are among the most visible monuments of ancient Roman culture.
What did each offering require to be valid in Roman religion?
5731ae300fdd8d15006c643d
prayer
54
False
What did Pliny the Elder think that a sacrifice without prayer was?
5731ae300fdd8d15006c643e
useless
153
False
What act alone had power in Roman thought?
5731ae300fdd8d15006c643f
Prayer
205
False
What knowledge was of importance in the potency of prayer?
5731ae300fdd8d15006c6440
correct verbal formulas
342
False
What was missing in the formulas of prayer in Rome?
5731ae300fdd8d15006c6441
personal expression
1104
False
All sacrifices and offerings required an accompanying prayer to be effective. Pliny the Elder declared that "a sacrifice without prayer is thought to be useless and not a proper consultation of the gods." Prayer by itself, however, had independent power. The spoken word was thus the single most potent religious action, and knowledge of the correct verbal formulas the key to efficacy. Accurate naming was vital for tapping into the desired powers of the deity invoked, hence the proliferation of cult epithets among Roman deities. Public prayers (prex) were offered loudly and clearly by a priest on behalf of the community. Public religious ritual had to be enacted by specialists and professionals faultlessly; a mistake might require that the action, or even the entire festival, be repeated from the start. The historian Livy reports an occasion when the presiding magistrate at the Latin festival forgot to include the "Roman people" among the list of beneficiaries in his prayer; the festival had to be started over. Even private prayer by an individual was formulaic, a recitation rather than a personal expression, though selected by the individual for a particular purpose or occasion.
When did the sacrifices to the deities of the heavens occur?
5731af92e99e3014001e61c8
daylight
79
False
What color was the sacrifice mandated to be for heaven deities?
5731af92e99e3014001e61c9
white
154
False
What type of sacrifices were offered to gods with earth connections?
5731af92e99e3014001e61ca
fertile
460
False
What event was held after the sacrifice?
5731af92e99e3014001e61cb
banquet
500
False
Who ate the meat of the sacrifice during the after sacrifice  banquet?
5731af92e99e3014001e61cc
officials and priests
702
False
Sacrifice to deities of the heavens (di superi, "gods above") was performed in daylight, and under the public gaze. Deities of the upper heavens required white, infertile victims of their own sex: Juno a white heifer (possibly a white cow); Jupiter a white, castrated ox (bos mas) for the annual oath-taking by the consuls. Di superi with strong connections to the earth, such as Mars, Janus, Neptune and various genii – including the Emperor's – were offered fertile victims. After the sacrifice, a banquet was held; in state cults, the images of honoured deities took pride of place on banqueting couches and by means of the sacrificial fire consumed their proper portion (exta, the innards). Rome's officials and priests reclined in order of precedence alongside and ate the meat; lesser citizens may have had to provide their own.
When were the gods below and the dead celebrated?
5731b0b30fdd8d15006c645b
nighttime
152
False
What type of sacrifice victims were the dark gods offered?
5731b0b30fdd8d15006c645c
dark, fertile
127
False
How was the sacrifice to the gods below handled?
5731b0b30fdd8d15006c645d
burnt offering
228
False
What daylight event was not celebrated after the dark sacrifice?
5731b0b30fdd8d15006c645e
shared banquet
261
False
What feature had importance in sacrifices?
5731b0b30fdd8d15006c645f
Color
489
False
Chthonic gods such as Dis pater, the di inferi ("gods below"), and the collective shades of the departed (di Manes) were given dark, fertile victims in nighttime rituals. Animal sacrifice usually took the form of a holocaust or burnt offering, and there was no shared banquet, as "the living cannot share a meal with the dead". Ceres and other underworld goddesses of fruitfulness were sometimes offered pregnant female animals; Tellus was given a pregnant cow at the Fordicidia festival. Color had a general symbolic value for sacrifices. Demigods and heroes, who belonged to the heavens and the underworld, were sometimes given black-and-white victims. Robigo (or Robigus) was given red dogs and libations of red wine at the Robigalia for the protection of crops from blight and red mildew.
What elements had the power of benefit or harm in Roman religion?
5731b729b9d445190005e4a7
divine agencies
9
False
What kind of intervention could be sought to avoid disasters?
5731b729b9d445190005e4a8
Divine
121
False
What was expected when the divine intervention benefited the patron?
5731b729b9d445190005e4a9
gratitude
265
False
What act was decreed in times of crisis in Rome?
5731b729b9d445190005e4aa
public rites
378
False
What was the point of public procession to the god's temples?
5731b729b9d445190005e4ab
supplicating the gods
497
False
The same divine agencies who caused disease or harm also had the power to avert it, and so might be placated in advance. Divine consideration might be sought to avoid the inconvenient delays of a journey, or encounters with banditry, piracy and shipwreck, with due gratitude to be rendered on safe arrival or return. In times of great crisis, the Senate could decree collective public rites, in which Rome's citizens, including women and children, moved in procession from one temple to the next, supplicating the gods.
What type of circumstances were called for in times of extreme difficulties?
5731b8a4e17f3d140042231b
Extraordinary
0
False
What offering was Jupiter promised during the Second Punic War?
5731b8a4e17f3d140042231c
every animal born
148
False
From whom was Rome asking for protection?
5731b8a4e17f3d140042231d
Hannibal
252
False
What happened to the sacrifice if the god failed to uphold the agreement?
5731b8a4e17f3d140042231e
withheld
611
False
What was the offering for the Emperor in Pompeii?
5731b8a4e17f3d140042231f
bull
826
False
Extraordinary circumstances called for extraordinary sacrifice: in one of the many crises of the Second Punic War, Jupiter Capitolinus was promised every animal born that spring (see ver sacrum), to be rendered after five more years of protection from Hannibal and his allies. The "contract" with Jupiter is exceptionally detailed. All due care would be taken of the animals. If any died or were stolen before the scheduled sacrifice, they would count as already sacrificed, since they had already been consecrated. Normally, if the gods failed to keep their side of the bargain, the offered sacrifice would be withheld. In the imperial period, sacrifice was withheld following Trajan's death because the gods had not kept the Emperor safe for the stipulated period. In Pompeii, the Genius of the living emperor was offered a bull: presumably a standard practise in Imperial cult, though minor offerings (incense and wine) were also made.
What were the exta of a sacrifice?
5731b9b9e99e3014001e6204
entrails
19
False
How were the exta read in Roman religious practice?
5731b9b9e99e3014001e6205
disciplina Etrusca
277
False
What part of the sacrifice were reserved for the gods?
5731b9b9e99e3014001e6206
exta and blood
334
False
What part of the sacrifice was shared among humans?
5731b9b9e99e3014001e6207
meat
386
False
Into what was the god's portion of the sacrifice placed?
5731b9b9e99e3014001e6208
fire on the altar
708
False
The exta were the entrails of a sacrificed animal, comprising in Cicero's enumeration the gall bladder (fel), liver (iecur), heart (cor), and lungs (pulmones). The exta were exposed for litatio (divine approval) as part of Roman liturgy, but were "read" in the context of the disciplina Etrusca. As a product of Roman sacrifice, the exta and blood are reserved for the gods, while the meat (viscera) is shared among human beings in a communal meal. The exta of bovine victims were usually stewed in a pot (olla or aula), while those of sheep or pigs were grilled on skewers. When the deity's portion was cooked, it was sprinkled with mola salsa (ritually prepared salted flour) and wine, then placed in the fire on the altar for the offering; the technical verb for this action was porricere.
What type of sacrifice was rare in Rome?
5731bb00e99e3014001e6218
Human
0
False
What act was repulsive to Romans?
5731bb00e99e3014001e6219
Human sacrifice
0
False
How were sacrifices of humans carried out in Rome?
5731bb00e99e3014001e621a
buried
120
False
Before the invasion of what area was human sacrifice carried out?
5731bb00e99e3014001e621b
Gaul
478
False
When was the invasion of Gaul by Rome?
5731bb00e99e3014001e621c
113 BC
440
False
Human sacrifice in ancient Rome was rare but documented. After the Roman defeat at Cannae two Gauls and two Greeks were buried under the Forum Boarium, in a stone chamber "which had on a previous occasion [228 BC] also been polluted by human victims, a practice most repulsive to Roman feelings". Livy avoids the word "sacrifice" in connection with this bloodless human life-offering; Plutarch does not. The rite was apparently repeated in 113 BC, preparatory to an invasion of Gaul. Its religious dimensions and purpose remain uncertain.
During what war was the first gladiator munus held?
5731bc54e17f3d1400422349
First Punic War
27
False
How was the gladiatorial combat described?
5731bc54e17f3d140042234a
funeral blood-rite
118
False
What was not the ultimate purpose of gladiatorial rites?
5731bc54e17f3d140042234b
death
275
False
In what way was gladiatorial combat considered?
5731bc54e17f3d140042234c
as an offering
417
False
How did later Christians view Gladiatorial combats?
5731bc54e17f3d140042234d
human sacrifice
578
False
In the early stages of the First Punic War (264 BC) the first known Roman gladiatorial munus was held, described as a funeral blood-rite to the manes of a Roman military aristocrat. The gladiator munus was never explicitly acknowledged as a human sacrifice, probably because death was not its inevitable outcome or purpose. Even so, the gladiators swore their lives to the infernal gods, and the combat was dedicated as an offering to the di manes or other gods. The event was therefore a sacrificium in the strict sense of the term, and Christian writers later condemned it as human sacrifice.
Who was the founder of the Roman Republic?
5731bd96b9d445190005e4ed
L. Junius Brutus
218
False
What were stand-ins for child sacrifices to Mania?
5731bd96b9d445190005e4ee
woolen dolls
10
False
Who was Mania in Roman religion?
5731bd96b9d445190005e4ef
Mother of the Lares
139
False
What leader was the first consul of the Roman Republic?
5731bd96b9d445190005e4f0
L. Junius Brutus
218
False
What acts were sometimes arranged so as to be sacrifices?
5731bd96b9d445190005e4f1
executions
316
False
The small woolen dolls called Maniae, hung on the Compitalia shrines, were thought a symbolic replacement for child-sacrifice to Mania, as Mother of the Lares. The Junii took credit for its abolition by their ancestor L. Junius Brutus, traditionally Rome's Republican founder and first consul. Political or military executions were sometimes conducted in such a way that they evoked human sacrifice, whether deliberately or in the perception of witnesses; Marcus Marius Gratidianus was a gruesome example.
What act did Romans view as obnoxious?
5731bed90fdd8d15006c64e7
human sacrifice
12
False
To whom was human sacrifice usually attributed?
5731bed90fdd8d15006c64e8
enemies
146
False
What did Rome do about human sacrifice?
5731bed90fdd8d15006c64e9
banned it
196
False
As what  did the law of 81 BC view human sacrifice?
5731bed90fdd8d15006c64ea
murder
305
False
What ruler banned human sacrifice empire wide?
5731bed90fdd8d15006c64eb
Hadrian
504
False
Officially, human sacrifice was obnoxious "to the laws of gods and men." The practice was a mark of the "Other", attributed to Rome's traditional enemies such as the Carthaginians and Gauls. Rome banned it on several occasions under extreme penalty. A law passed in 81 BC characterised human sacrifice as murder committed for magical purposes. Pliny saw the ending of human sacrifice conducted by the druids as a positive consequence of the conquest of Gaul and Britain. Despite an empire-wide ban under Hadrian, human sacrifice may have continued covertly in North Africa and elsewhere.
Who was the senior priest of the household in Rome?
5731c01cb9d445190005e501
pater familias
2
False
Which individual in the household was responsible for the Vesta cult?
5731c01cb9d445190005e502
wife
212
False
Which ancient hero brought the lares cult to Rome?
5731c01cb9d445190005e503
Aeneas
474
False
From what city did Aeneas bring the lares cult?
5731c01cb9d445190005e504
Troy
535
False
What was put in the temple of Vesta?
5731c01cb9d445190005e505
Palladium
556
False
A pater familias was the senior priest of his household. He offered daily cult to his lares and penates, and to his di parentes/divi parentes at his domestic shrines and in the fires of the household hearth. His wife (mater familias) was responsible for the household's cult to Vesta. In rural estates, bailiffs seem to have been responsible for at least some of the household shrines (lararia) and their deities. Household cults had state counterparts. In Vergil's Aeneid, Aeneas brought the Trojan cult of the lares and penates from Troy, along with the Palladium which was later installed in the temple of Vesta.
On what kind of system was Roman religious law focused?
5731c1cb0fdd8d15006c650b
ritualised
30
False
What form of religion was atheism considered to be?
5731c1cb0fdd8d15006c650c
Religious neglect
240
False
What results did proper religious practices produce?
5731c1cb0fdd8d15006c650d
harmony and prosperity.
216
False
What could deviations from proper religious practices cause?
5731c1cb0fdd8d15006c650e
divine anger
510
False
What did participation in public religious rites show about the individual?
5731c1cb0fdd8d15006c650f
commitment
819
False
Religious law centered on the ritualised system of honours and sacrifice that brought divine blessings, according to the principle do ut des ("I give, that you might give"). Proper, respectful religio brought social harmony and prosperity. Religious neglect was a form of atheism: impure sacrifice and incorrect ritual were vitia (impious errors). Excessive devotion, fearful grovelling to deities and the improper use or seeking of divine knowledge were superstitio. Any of these moral deviations could cause divine anger (ira deorum) and therefore harm the State. The official deities of the state were identified with its lawful offices and institutions, and Romans of every class were expected to honour the beneficence and protection of mortal and divine superiors. Participation in public rites showed a personal commitment to their community and its values.
What organization payed for the maintenance official cults?
5731c36fb9d445190005e515
state
20
False
Who funded non-official religious cults?
5731c36fb9d445190005e516
private individuals
126
False
What group benefited from non- official cults?
5731c36fb9d445190005e517
own communities
171
False
What group presented the opening ceremonies of the Parentalia festival?
5731c36fb9d445190005e518
Vestals
347
False
What individuals had the right to regulate all cults?
5731c36fb9d445190005e519
censor and pontifices
753
False
Official cults were state funded as a "matter of public interest" (res publica). Non-official but lawful cults were funded by private individuals for the benefit of their own communities. The difference between public and private cult is often unclear. Individuals or collegial associations could offer funds and cult to state deities. The public Vestals prepared ritual substances for use in public and private cults, and held the state-funded (thus public) opening ceremony for the Parentalia festival, which was otherwise a private rite to household ancestors. Some rites of the domus (household) were held in public places but were legally defined as privata in part or whole. All cults were ultimately subject to the approval and regulation of the censor and pontifices.
What was lacking as to the profession of a priest class in Rome?
5731cbc10fdd8d15006c6537
separate priestly caste
12
False
What authority in a community sponsored religious rites?
5731cbc10fdd8d15006c6538
highest
50
False
What type of religious participants were available for consultation?
5731cbc10fdd8d15006c6539
Specialists
198
False
Which member of a family functioned as priest?
5731cbc10fdd8d15006c653a
paterfamilias
343
False
What were the earliest priesthoods?
5731cbc10fdd8d15006c653b
flamines
539
False
Rome had no separate priestly caste or class. The highest authority within a community usually sponsored its cults and sacrifices, officiated as its priest and promoted its assistants and acolytes. Specialists from the religious colleges and professionals such as haruspices and oracles were available for consultation. In household cult, the paterfamilias functioned as priest, and members of his familia as acolytes and assistants. Public cults required greater knowledge and expertise. The earliest public priesthoods were probably the flamines (the singular is flamen), attributed to king Numa: the major flamines, dedicated to Jupiter, Mars and Quirinus, were traditionally drawn from patrician families. Twelve lesser flamines were each dedicated to a single deity, whose archaic nature is indicated by the relative obscurity of some. Flamines were constrained by the requirements of ritual purity; Jupiter's flamen in particular had virtually no simultaneous capacity for a political or military career.
Who supervised sacred rites during the era of kings?
5731cd7fe17f3d1400422429
rex sacrorum
20
False
What type of authority did the rex sacrorum lack?
5731cd7fe17f3d140042242a
civil
203
False
What group's power increased after the rise of the Roman Republic?
5731cd7fe17f3d140042242b
Republican pontifices
293
False
What individual became more powerful during the late Republic?
5731cd7fe17f3d140042242c
pontifex maximus
780
False
By the late Republic, what position had become largely symbolic?
5731cd7fe17f3d140042242d
rex sacrorum
415
False
In the Regal era, a rex sacrorum (king of the sacred rites) supervised regal and state rites in conjunction with the king (rex) or in his absence, and announced the public festivals. He had little or no civil authority. With the abolition of monarchy, the collegial power and influence of the Republican pontifices increased. By the late Republican era, the flamines were supervised by the pontifical collegia. The rex sacrorum had become a relatively obscure priesthood with an entirely symbolic title: his religious duties still included the daily, ritual announcement of festivals and priestly duties within two or three of the latter but his most important priestly role – the supervision of the Vestals and their rites – fell to the more politically powerful and influential pontifex maximus.
What group selected public priests in Rome?
5731cf22e99e3014001e62d0
collegia
37
False
What was the term of office for a priest in Rome?
5731cf22e99e3014001e62d1
lifetime
148
False
What limited an individual's access to religious offices?
5731cf22e99e3014001e62d2
law
223
False
Because of the lack of pay, what was the type of honor in being a priest?
5731cf22e99e3014001e62d3
costly
478
False
What did a priesthood in the Imperial cult gain a provencial?
5731cf22e99e3014001e62d4
Roman citizenship
1298
False
Public priests were appointed by the collegia. Once elected, a priest held permanent religious authority from the eternal divine, which offered him lifetime influence, privilege and immunity. Therefore, civil and religious law limited the number and kind of religious offices allowed an individual and his family. Religious law was collegial and traditional; it informed political decisions, could overturn them, and was difficult to exploit for personal gain. Priesthood was a costly honour: in traditional Roman practice, a priest drew no stipend. Cult donations were the property of the deity, whose priest must provide cult regardless of shortfalls in public funding – this could mean subsidy of acolytes and all other cult maintenance from personal funds. For those who had reached their goal in the Cursus honorum, permanent priesthood was best sought or granted after a lifetime's service in military or political life, or preferably both: it was a particularly honourable and active form of retirement which fulfilled an essential public duty. For a freedman or slave, promotion as one of the Compitalia seviri offered a high local profile, and opportunities in local politics; and therefore business. During the Imperial era, priesthood of the Imperial cult offered provincial elites full Roman citizenship and public prominence beyond their single year in religious office; in effect, it was the first step in a provincial cursus honorum. In Rome, the same Imperial cult role was performed by the Arval Brethren, once an obscure Republican priesthood dedicated to several deities, then co-opted by Augustus as part of his religious reforms. The Arvals offered prayer and sacrifice to Roman state gods at various temples for the continued welfare of the Imperial family on their birthdays, accession anniversaries and to mark extraordinary events such as the quashing of conspiracy or revolt. Every January 3 they consecrated the annual vows and rendered any sacrifice promised in the previous year, provided the gods had kept the Imperial family safe for the contracted time.
How many Vestals were there in Rome?
5731d079e99e3014001e62da
six
40
False
Of what was Vesta the goddess?
5731d079e99e3014001e62db
hearth
102
False
Of what were the Vestals protectors?
5731d079e99e3014001e62dc
vital flame
136
False
What was the benefit of being a Vestal?
5731d079e99e3014001e62dd
political influence
279
False
To whom did the Vestal answer?
5731d079e99e3014001e62de
Pontifex Maximus
536
False
The Vestals were a public priesthood of six women devoted to the cultivation of Vesta, goddess of the hearth of the Roman state and its vital flame. A girl chosen to be a Vestal achieved unique religious distinction, public status and privileges, and could exercise considerable political influence. Upon entering her office, a Vestal was emancipated from her father's authority. In archaic Roman society, these priestesses were the only women not required to be under the legal guardianship of a man, instead answering directly to the Pontifex Maximus.
What vow was required of Vestals?
5731d21ae99e3014001e62f6
chastity
313
False
What was the punishment for the loss of a Vestal's chastity?
5731d21ae99e3014001e62f7
buried alive
416
False
What was a Vestal expected to be to her duties?
5731d21ae99e3014001e62f8
devoted
561
False
How were the Vestals' devotion to Rome's security viewed to be ?
5731d21ae99e3014001e62f9
essential
625
False
What was the honor granted a Vestal ?
5731d21ae99e3014001e62fa
religious
479
False
A Vestal's dress represented her status outside the usual categories that defined Roman women, with elements of both virgin bride and daughter, and Roman matron and wife. Unlike male priests, Vestals were freed of the traditional obligations of marrying and producing children, and were required to take a vow of chastity that was strictly enforced: a Vestal polluted by the loss of her chastity while in office was buried alive. Thus the exceptional honor accorded a Vestal was religious rather than personal or social; her privileges required her to be fully devoted to the performance of her duties, which were considered essential to the security of Rome.
Where could a householder rekindle the home's flame?
5731d3b3e17f3d140042245d
Vesta's flame
167
False
For what state artifacts did the Vestals care?
5731d3b3e17f3d140042245e
Lares and Penates
208
False
What was the Vestal festival called?
5731d3b3e17f3d140042245f
Vestalia
327
False
To what part of official state sacrifices did the Vestals attend?
5731d3b3e17f3d1400422460
mola salsa
522
False
What was the nature of the role of the Vestals in state sacrifices?
5731d3b3e17f3d1400422461
Indirect
416
False
The Vestals embody the profound connection between domestic cult and the religious life of the community. Any householder could rekindle their own household fire from Vesta's flame. The Vestals cared for the Lares and Penates of the state that were the equivalent of those enshrined in each home. Besides their own festival of Vestalia, they participated directly in the rites of Parilia, Parentalia and Fordicidia. Indirectly, they played a role in every official sacrifice; among their duties was the preparation of the mola salsa, the salted flour that was sprinkled on every sacrificial victim as part of its immolation.
What group's status was improved by Augustus' religious reforms?
5731d546e99e3014001e6312
Vestals
78
False
What advantage was there in being a Vestal at games?
5731d546e99e3014001e6313
seating
115
False
For whose cult were the Vestals appointed as priestesses?
5731d546e99e3014001e6314
Livia
224
False
Until what time did the Vestal retain their social distinctions?
5731d546e99e3014001e6315
4th century
330
False
Which emperor disbanded the Vestals?
5731d546e99e3014001e6316
Theodosius I
554
False
Augustus' religious reformations raised the funding and public profile of the Vestals. They were given high-status seating at games and theatres. The emperor Claudius appointed them as priestesses to the cult of the deified Livia, wife of Augustus. They seem to have retained their religious and social distinctions well into the 4th century, after political power within the Empire had shifted to the Christians. When the Christian emperor Gratian refused the office of pontifex maximus, he took steps toward the dissolution of the order. His successor Theodosius I extinguished Vesta's sacred fire and vacated her temple.
In what area did public rites take place in Rome?
5731d6d4e99e3014001e631c
sacred precinct
36
False
What person marked the religious area ritually?
5731d6d4e99e3014001e631d
augur
92
False
What was the original meaning of the templum in Latin?
5731d6d4e99e3014001e631e
sacred space
155
False
Who designated the first boundary of Rome?
5731d6d4e99e3014001e631f
Romulus
306
False
What did augers seek to understand through observances?
5731d6d4e99e3014001e6320
divine will
656
False
Public religion took place within a sacred precinct that had been marked out ritually by an augur. The original meaning of the Latin word templum was this sacred space, and only later referred to a building. Rome itself was an intrinsically sacred space; its ancient boundary (pomerium) had been marked by Romulus himself with oxen and plough; what lay within was the earthly home and protectorate of the gods of the state. In Rome, the central references for the establishment of an augural templum appear to have been the Via Sacra (Sacred Way) and the pomerium. Magistrates sought divine opinion of proposed official acts through an augur, who read the divine will through observations made within the templum before, during and after an act of sacrifice. Divine disapproval could arise through unfit sacrifice, errant rites (vitium) or an unacceptable plan of action. If an unfavourable sign was given, the magistrate could repeat the sacrifice until favourable signs were seen, consult with his augural colleagues, or abandon the project. Magistrates could use their right of augury (ius augurum) to adjourn and overturn the process of law, but were obliged to base their decision on the augur's observations and advice. For Cicero, himself an augur, this made the augur the most powerful authority in the Late Republic. By his time (mid 1st century BC) augury was supervised by the college of pontifices, whose powers were increasingly woven into the magistracies of the cursus honorum.
What process did haruspicy use to divine the will of the gods?
5731d97fe99e3014001e632e
examination of entrails
152
False
Which of the entrails was especially important to augury?
5731d97fe99e3014001e632f
liver
210
False
To which group can haruspicy to traced?
5731d97fe99e3014001e6330
Etruscan
366
False
What type of private  individual had several generals and politicians used to validate their actions?
5731d97fe99e3014001e6331
diviners
764
False
What type of diviners did the armies use to determine the will of the gods?
5731d97fe99e3014001e6332
public haruspices
805
False
Haruspicy was also used in public cult, under the supervision of the augur or presiding magistrate. The haruspices divined the will of the gods through examination of entrails after sacrifice, particularly the liver. They also interpreted omens, prodigies and portents, and formulated their expiation. Most Roman authors describe haruspicy as an ancient, ethnically Etruscan "outsider" religious profession, separate from Rome's internal and largely unpaid priestly hierarchy, essential but never quite respectable. During the mid-to-late Republic, the reformist Gaius Gracchus, the populist politician-general Gaius Marius and his antagonist Sulla, and the "notorious Verres" justified their very different policies by the divinely inspired utterances of private diviners. The senate and armies used the public haruspices: at some time during the late Republic, the Senate decreed that Roman boys of noble family be sent to Etruria for training in haruspicy and divination. Being of independent means, they would be better motivated to maintain a pure, religious practice for the public good. The motives of private haruspices – especially females – and their clients were officially suspect: none of this seems to have troubled Marius, who employed a Syrian prophetess.
What were considered to be natural transgressions by the Romans?
5731daede99e3014001e6342
Prodigies
0
False
What did prodigies show the Romans?
5731daede99e3014001e6343
divine anger
89
False
Of what were prodigies predictors?
5731daede99e3014001e6344
conflict and misfortune
117
False
What did the expiation of a prodigy impose?
5731daede99e3014001e6345
dedicated rites
521
False
What group determined the truth of a prodigy?
5731daede99e3014001e6346
Senate
146
False
Prodigies were transgressions in the natural, predictable order of the cosmos – signs of divine anger that portended conflict and misfortune. The Senate decided whether a reported prodigy was false, or genuine and in the public interest, in which case it was referred to the public priests, augurs and haruspices for ritual expiation. In 207 BC, during one of the Punic Wars' worst crises, the Senate dealt with an unprecedented number of confirmed prodigies whose expiation would have involved "at least twenty days" of dedicated rites.
What author wrote of disaster prodigies?
5731e68eb9d445190005e63d
Livy
0
False
Of what did the greater prodigies require in sacrifice?
5731e68eb9d445190005e63e
greater victims
376
False
What type of sacrifices were required to expiate the minor prodigies ?
5731e68eb9d445190005e63f
lesser victims
540
False
What is the only proof of religious success over prodigies?
5731e68eb9d445190005e640
Rome's victory
854
False
Of what did Livy think the prodigies proved about Roman religion?
5731e68eb9d445190005e641
widespread failure
32
False
Livy presents these as signs of widespread failure in Roman religio. The major prodigies included the spontaneous combustion of weapons, the apparent shrinking of the sun's disc, two moons in a daylit sky, a cosmic battle between sun and moon, a rain of red-hot stones, a bloody sweat on statues, and blood in fountains and on ears of corn: all were expiated by sacrifice of "greater victims". The minor prodigies were less warlike but equally unnatural; sheep become goats, a hen become a cock (and vice versa) – these were expiated with "lesser victims". The discovery of an androgynous four-year-old child was expiated by its drowning and the holy procession of 27 virgins to the temple of Juno Regina, singing a hymn to avert disaster: a lightning strike during the hymn rehearsals required further expiation. Religious restitution is proved only by Rome's victory.
From what source does information of Roman thought about the afterlife come?
5731e806b9d445190005e651
educated elite
70
False
What type of practices were those affecting the care of the dead?
5731e806b9d445190005e652
archaic
270
False
What did the ancient Romans expect after death?
5731e806b9d445190005e653
afterlife
478
False
With whom did the  early Romans expect to associate?
5731e806b9d445190005e654
gods
519
False
What did later Romans invest in rather than grave offerings?
5731e806b9d445190005e655
monumental endowments
675
False
Roman beliefs about an afterlife varied, and are known mostly for the educated elite who expressed their views in terms of their chosen philosophy. The traditional care of the dead, however, and the perpetuation after death of their status in life were part of the most archaic practices of Roman religion. Ancient votive deposits to the noble dead of Latium and Rome suggest elaborate and costly funeral offerings and banquets in the company of the deceased, an expectation of afterlife and their association with the gods. As Roman society developed, its Republican nobility tended to invest less in spectacular funerals and extravagant housing for their dead, and more on monumental endowments to the community, such as the donation of a temple or public building whose donor was commemorated by his statue and inscribed name. Persons of low or negligible status might receive simple burial, with such grave goods as relatives could afford.
What type of rites varied in accordance with status and religion?
5731ea07b9d445190005e679
Funeral and commemorative
0
False
What was the grave sacrifice in Cicero's time?
5731ea07b9d445190005e67a
sow
136
False
What class gave only wine and food as a grave offering?
5731ea07b9d445190005e67b
less well-off
340
False
What was the multi day of remembrance for the dead?
5731ea07b9d445190005e67c
Parentalia
940
False
What goddess was an intermediary  between the dead and the living?
5731ea07b9d445190005e67d
Ceres
437
False
Funeral and commemorative rites varied according to wealth, status and religious context. In Cicero's time, the better-off sacrificed a sow at the funeral pyre before cremation. The dead consumed their portion in the flames of the pyre, Ceres her portion through the flame of her altar, and the family at the site of the cremation. For the less well-off, inhumation with "a libation of wine, incense, and fruit or crops was sufficient". Ceres functioned as an intermediary between the realms of the living and the dead: the deceased had not yet fully passed to the world of the dead and could share a last meal with the living. The ashes (or body) were entombed or buried. On the eighth day of mourning, the family offered further sacrifice, this time on the ground; the shade of the departed was assumed to have passed entirely into the underworld. They had become one of the di Manes, who were collectively celebrated and appeased at the Parentalia, a multi-day festival of remembrance in February.
What group's burial practices over-lapped with the Roman's?
5731ec3db9d445190005e6a1
Christian
69
False
What items were shared among Christian and non- Christians?
5731ec3db9d445190005e6a2
Tombs
110
False
What did St Augustine believe that funeral feasts gave an opportunity for?
5731ec3db9d445190005e6a3
alms of food
518
False
When was Christian attendance at Parentalia become forbidden by the Christians?
5731ec3db9d445190005e6a4
AD 567
682
False
How did the Romans view the corpse of the dead?
5731ec3db9d445190005e6a5
ritual pollution
805
False
In the later Imperial era, the burial and commemorative practises of Christian and non-Christians overlapped. Tombs were shared by Christian and non-Christian family members, and the traditional funeral rites and feast of novemdialis found a part-match in the Christian Constitutio Apostolica. The customary offers of wine and food to the dead continued; St Augustine (following St Ambrose) feared that this invited the "drunken" practices of Parentalia but commended funeral feasts as a Christian opportunity to give alms of food to the poor. Christians attended Parentalia and its accompanying Feralia and Caristia in sufficient numbers for the Council of Tours to forbid them in AD 567. Other funerary and commemorative practices were very different. Traditional Roman practice spurned the corpse as a ritual pollution; inscriptions noted the day of birth and duration of life. The Christian Church fostered the veneration of saintly relics, and inscriptions marked the day of death as a transition to "new life".
How were Roman camps laid out?
5731ed92e99e3014001e63d8
standard pattern
23
False
For what purpose were Roman camps arranged?
5731ed92e99e3014001e63d9
defense and religious ritual
44
False
Of what were Roman camps diminutive versions?
5731ed92e99e3014001e63da
Rome
94
False
What was in the center of each Roman camp?
5731ed92e99e3014001e63db
commander's headquarters
117
False
What does the religious rites performed before battle suggest that the camp has become?
5731ed92e99e3014001e63dc
divine templum
809
False
Roman camps followed a standard pattern for defense and religious ritual; in effect they were Rome in miniature. The commander's headquarters stood at the centre; he took the auspices on a dais in front. A small building behind housed the legionary standards, the divine images used in religious rites and in the Imperial era, the image of the ruling emperor. In one camp, this shrine is even called Capitolium. The most important camp-offering appears to have been the suovetaurilia performed before a major, set battle. A ram, a boar and a bull were ritually garlanded, led around the outer perimeter of the camp (a lustratio exercitus) and in through a gate, then sacrificed: Trajan's column shows three such events from his Dacian wars. The perimeter procession and sacrifice suggest the entire camp as a divine templum; all within are purified and protected.
What type of personnel did every camp have?
5731ef6b0fdd8d15006c6675
religious
22
False
What officer headed the religious personnel of a Roman camp?
5731ef6b0fdd8d15006c6676
senior magistrate-commander
165
False
In the Imperial era, what cult did legionnaires follow?
5731ef6b0fdd8d15006c6677
emperor
656
False
Even in other places, of what did the legions keep observance?
5731ef6b0fdd8d15006c6678
Rome's official festivals
768
False
What person was considered to be "Mother of the camp''?
5731ef6b0fdd8d15006c6679
Empress
1091
False
Each camp had its own religious personnel; standard bearers, priestly officers and their assistants, including a haruspex, and housekeepers of shrines and images. A senior magistrate-commander (sometimes even a consul) headed it, his chain of subordinates ran it and a ferocious system of training and discipline ensured that every citizen-soldier knew his duty. As in Rome, whatever gods he served in his own time seem to have been his own business; legionary forts and vici included shrines to household gods, personal deities and deities otherwise unknown. From the earliest Imperial era, citizen legionaries and provincial auxiliaries gave cult to the emperor and his familia on Imperial accessions, anniversaries and their renewal of annual vows. They celebrated Rome's official festivals in absentia, and had the official triads appropriate to their function – in the Empire, Jupiter, Victoria and Concordia were typical. By the early Severan era, the military also offered cult to the Imperial divi, the current emperor's numen, genius and domus (or familia), and special cult to the Empress as "mother of the camp." The near ubiquitous legionary shrines to Mithras of the later Imperial era were not part of official cult until Mithras was absorbed into Solar and Stoic Monism as a focus of military concordia and Imperial loyalty.
What was a Roman general's most extreme offering?
5731f0ffe99e3014001e63ec
devotio
4
False
What Roman general had a dream of his fate in battle?
5731f0ffe99e3014001e63ed
Decius Mus
233
False
With what does the devotio link to military ethics?
5731f0ffe99e3014001e63ee
Roman gladiator
1021
False
By dying what did Decius avoid for the battle?
5731f0ffe99e3014001e63ef
disastrous consequences
926
False
Who wrote a detailed account of the demise of Decius Mus?
5731f0ffe99e3014001e63f0
Livy
172
False
The devotio was the most extreme offering a Roman general could make, promising to offer his own life in battle along with the enemy as an offering to the underworld gods. Livy offers a detailed account of the devotio carried out by Decius Mus; family tradition maintained that his son and grandson, all bearing the same name, also devoted themselves. Before the battle, Decius is granted a prescient dream that reveals his fate. When he offers sacrifice, the victim's liver appears "damaged where it refers to his own fortunes". Otherwise, the haruspex tells him, the sacrifice is entirely acceptable to the gods. In a prayer recorded by Livy, Decius commits himself and the enemy to the dii Manes and Tellus, charges alone and headlong into the enemy ranks, and is killed; his action cleanses the sacrificial offering. Had he failed to die, his sacrificial offering would have been tainted and therefore void, with possibly disastrous consequences. The act of devotio is a link between military ethics and those of the Roman gladiator.
What general was consul in 249 BC?
5731f24bb9d445190005e6d3
Publius Claudius Pulcher
160
False
What type of campaign did Publius fight?
5731f24bb9d445190005e6d4
sea
212
False
What was Publius's critical mistake in his sea campaign?
5731f24bb9d445190005e6d5
defiance of the omen
298
False
How did Publius fare in his battle?
5731f24bb9d445190005e6d6
defeated
412
False
What was the cause of Publius's failures according to Roman feeling?
5731f24bb9d445190005e6d7
impiety
570
False
The efforts of military commanders to channel the divine will were on occasion less successful. In the early days of Rome's war against Carthage, the commander Publius Claudius Pulcher (consul 249 BC) launched a sea campaign "though the sacred chickens would not eat when he took the auspices." In defiance of the omen, he threw them into the sea, "saying that they might drink, since they would not eat. He was defeated, and on being bidden by the senate to appoint a dictator, he appointed his messenger Glycias, as if again making a jest of his country's peril." His impiety not only lost the battle but ruined his career.
What was the amount of participation by women in religious observances?
5731f389e99e3014001e6414
limited
158
False
What religious act did women not perform?
5731f389e99e3014001e6415
animal sacrifice
199
False
What priesthood was reserved solely for women?
5731f389e99e3014001e6416
Vestals
311
False
What Roman rites excluded men?
5731f389e99e3014001e6417
Bona Dea
387
False
With what are many deities aligned for women in Rome's religions?
5731f389e99e3014001e6418
motherhood
629
False
Roman women were present at most festivals and cult observances. Some rituals specifically required the presence of women, but their active participation was limited. As a rule women did not perform animal sacrifice, the central rite of most major public ceremonies. In addition to the public priesthood of the Vestals, some cult practices were reserved for women only. The rites of the Bona Dea excluded men entirely. Because women enter the public record less frequently than men, their religious practices are less known, and even family cults were headed by the paterfamilias. A host of deities, however, are associated with motherhood. Juno, Diana, Lucina, and specialized divine attendants presided over the life-threatening act of giving birth and the perils of caring for a baby at a time when the infant mortality rate was as high as 40 percent.
What was excessive religious fervor in Rome's religions?
5731f519e17f3d1400422577
superstitio
63
False
Doing what type of actions were considered to be wrong in Rome?
5731f519e17f3d1400422578
more than was necessary
112
False
What was excessive religio equated with in Rome?
5731f519e17f3d1400422579
superstition
373
False
What was the basis of Roman religion?
5731f519e17f3d140042257a
knowledge
455
False
What type of knowledge seeking was superstitio considered to be?
5731f519e17f3d140042257b
inappropriate
518
False
Excessive devotion and enthusiasm in religious observance were superstitio, in the sense of "doing or believing more than was necessary", to which women and foreigners were considered particularly prone. The boundaries between religio and superstitio are perhaps indefinite. The famous tirade of Lucretius, the Epicurean rationalist, against what is usually translated as "superstition" was in fact aimed at excessive religio. Roman religion was based on knowledge rather than faith, but superstitio was viewed as an "inappropriate desire for knowledge"; in effect, an abuse of religio.
What type of diviners were suspect in Rome?
5731f9fa0fdd8d15006c66a7
private diviners
336
False
What was the purpose to be discovered by state sanctioned diviners?
5731f9fa0fdd8d15006c66a8
will of the gods
258
False
What action was not to be sought by state diviners?
5731f9fa0fdd8d15006c66a9
foretelling the future
280
False
What group of people were several times expelled from Rome?
5731f9fa0fdd8d15006c66aa
Astrologers and magicians
493
False
What had an astrologer predicted to warrant from Rome by Tiberius?
5731f9fa0fdd8d15006c66ab
death
695
False
In the everyday world, many individuals sought to divine the future, influence it through magic, or seek vengeance with help from "private" diviners. The state-sanctioned taking of auspices was a form of public divination with the intent of ascertaining the will of the gods, not foretelling the future. Secretive consultations between private diviners and their clients were thus suspect. So were divinatory techniques such as astrology when used for illicit, subversive or magical purposes. Astrologers and magicians were officially expelled from Rome at various times, notably in 139 BC and 33 BC. In 16 BC Tiberius expelled them under extreme penalty because an astrologer had predicted his death. "Egyptian rites" were particularly suspect: Augustus banned them within the pomerium to doubtful effect; Tiberius repeated and extended the ban with extreme force in AD 19. Despite several Imperial bans, magic and astrology persisted among all social classes. In the late 1st century AD, Tacitus observed that astrologers "would always be banned and always retained at Rome".
What word was used by the Romans for practitioners of magic?
5731fb920fdd8d15006c66bb
magi
64
False
To what did the term magi originally refer?
5731fb920fdd8d15006c66bc
Persian priests
108
False
Who wrote a skeptical work outlining magic and its use?
5731fb920fdd8d15006c66bd
Pliny the Elder
414
False
What was the title of Pliny's work on magic?
5731fb920fdd8d15006c66be
"History of magical arts"
460
False
Who was a noted magician who could vanish into thin air?
5731fb920fdd8d15006c66bf
Apollonius of Tyana
688
False
In the Graeco-Roman world, practitioners of magic were known as magi (singular magus), a "foreign" title of Persian priests. Apuleius, defending himself against accusations of casting magic spells, defined the magician as "in popular tradition (more vulgari)... someone who, because of his community of speech with the immortal gods, has an incredible power of spells (vi cantaminum) for everything he wishes to." Pliny the Elder offers a thoroughly skeptical "History of magical arts" from their supposed Persian origins to Nero's vast and futile expenditure on research into magical practices in an attempt to control the gods. Philostratus takes pains to point out that the celebrated Apollonius of Tyana was definitely not a magus, "despite his special knowledge of the future, his miraculous cures, and his ability to vanish into thin air".
Who consulted a witch before the battle of Pharsalus?
5731fd11e17f3d14004225b1
Sextus Pompeius
14
False
What witch was reputed to be able to stop the rotation of the heavens?
5731fd11e17f3d14004225b2
Erichtho
287
False
What natural order was Erichtho accused of undermining?
5731fd11e17f3d14004225b3
order of gods
490
False
How was Erichtho portrayed?
5731fd11e17f3d14004225b4
stereotypical witch
602
False
From what country did Erichtho come?
5731fd11e17f3d14004225b5
Thessaly
550
False
Lucan depicts Sextus Pompeius, the doomed son of Pompey the Great, as convinced "the gods of heaven knew too little" and awaiting the Battle of Pharsalus by consulting with the Thessalian witch Erichtho, who practices necromancy and inhabits deserted graves, feeding on rotting corpses. Erichtho, it is said, can arrest "the rotation of the heavens and the flow of rivers" and make "austere old men blaze with illicit passions". She and her clients are portrayed as undermining the natural order of gods, mankind and destiny. A female foreigner from Thessaly, notorious for witchcraft, Erichtho is the stereotypical witch of Latin literature, along with Horace's Canidia.
What forbid harmful  incantations?
5731ff05e17f3d14004225c5
Twelve Tables
4
False
What deities were on the edge of Roman religious community?
5731ff05e17f3d14004225c6
Chthonic
229
False
What did people seeking the aid of magicians avoid?
5731ff05e17f3d14004225c7
public gaze
480
False
What could public rites and magic easily become in some circumstances?
5731ff05e17f3d14004225c8
indistinguishable
762
False
Where was magic conducted in Rome?
5731ff05e17f3d14004225c9
outside the sacred boundary
384
False
The Twelve Tables forbade any harmful incantation (malum carmen, or 'noisome metrical charm'); this included the "charming of crops from one field to another" (excantatio frugum) and any rite that sought harm or death to others. Chthonic deities functioned at the margins of Rome's divine and human communities; although sometimes the recipients of public rites, these were conducted outside the sacred boundary of the pomerium. Individuals seeking their aid did so away from the public gaze, during the hours of darkness. Burial grounds and isolated crossroads were among the likely portals. The barrier between private religious practices and "magic" is permeable, and Ovid gives a vivid account of rites at the fringes of the public Feralia festival that are indistinguishable from magic: an old woman squats among a circle of younger women, sews up a fish-head, smears it with pitch, then pierces and roasts it to "bind hostile tongues to silence". By this she invokes Tacita, the "Silent One" of the underworld.
What science has confirmed the existence of magic use from early times?
573200880fdd8d15006c66cf
Archaeology
0
False
What was the term for binding spells in the Roman world?
573200880fdd8d15006c66d0
defixiones
59
False
What did the elite use instead of spells and potions to redress a wrong?
573200880fdd8d15006c66d1
law and justice
642
False
Until what era did spells persist in the empire?
573200880fdd8d15006c66d2
7th century AD
737
False
What era produced a decline in the use of spells?
573200880fdd8d15006c66d3
Christian era
767
False
Archaeology confirms the widespread use of binding spells (defixiones), magical papyri and so-called "voodoo dolls" from a very early era. Around 250 defixiones have been recovered just from Roman Britain, in both urban and rural settings. Some seek straightforward, usually gruesome revenge, often for a lover's offense or rejection. Others appeal for divine redress of wrongs, in terms familiar to any Roman magistrate, and promise a portion of the value (usually small) of lost or stolen property in return for its restoration. None of these defixiones seem produced by, or on behalf of the elite, who had more immediate recourse to human law and justice. Similar traditions existed throughout the empire, persisting until around the 7th century AD, well into the Christian era.
What male group dominated all aspects of Rome?
573201d7b9d445190005e713
aristocracy
98
False
Of what class was more than half of Rome's population?
573201d7b9d445190005e714
slave or free non-citizens
153
False
What was the lowest class of Roman citizens?
573201d7b9d445190005e715
plebeians
198
False
How many adult males were able to vote in Rome?
573201d7b9d445190005e716
Less than a quarter
245
False
What organization was Rome's official caretaker?
573201d7b9d445190005e717
the senate
454
False
Rome's government, politics and religion were dominated by an educated, male, landowning military aristocracy. Approximately half Rome's population were slave or free non-citizens. Most others were plebeians, the lowest class of Roman citizens. Less than a quarter of adult males had voting rights; far fewer could actually exercise them. Women had no vote. However, all official business was conducted under the divine gaze and auspices, in the name of the senate and people of Rome. "In a very real sense the senate was the caretaker of the Romans’ relationship with the divine, just as it was the caretaker of their relationship with other humans".
The link between what groups was necessary to Rome?
573203aae99e3014001e644c
religious and political
18
False
Where was the basic power in Rome to be found?
573203aae99e3014001e644d
patrician elite
266
False
What group was excluded from high offices ?
573203aae99e3014001e644e
plebeians
402
False
Who did the Senate select to settle a strike by the lower classes?
573203aae99e3014001e644f
Camillus
725
False
To whom was a temple dedicated at the settlement of the strike?
573203aae99e3014001e6450
Concordia
850
False
The links between religious and political life were vital to Rome's internal governance, diplomacy and development from kingdom, to Republic and to Empire. Post-regal politics dispersed the civil and religious authority of the kings more or less equitably among the patrician elite: kingship was replaced by two annually elected consular offices. In the early Republic, as presumably in the regal era, plebeians were excluded from high religious and civil office, and could be punished for offenses against laws of which they had no knowledge. They resorted to strikes and violence to break the oppressive patrician monopolies of high office, public priesthood, and knowledge of civil and religious law. The senate appointed Camillus as dictator to handle the emergency; he negotiated a settlement, and sanctified it by the dedication of a temple to Concordia. The religious calendars and laws were eventually made public. Plebeian tribunes were appointed, with sacrosanct status and the right of veto in legislative debate. In principle, the augural and pontifical colleges were now open to plebeians. In reality, the patrician and to a lesser extent, plebeian nobility dominated religious and civil office throughout the Republican era and beyond.
What did the patrician electorate keep in spite of a new plebeian nobility?
573207f5e17f3d14004225d9
political traditions and religious cults
161
False
What cult arrived from southern Italy?
573207f5e17f3d14004225da
Dionysus
282
False
During what time did the Dionysus cult become popular?
573207f5e17f3d14004225db
Punic crisis
214
False
To what Roman god was Dionysus similar?
573207f5e17f3d14004225dc
Bacchus
411
False
With loyalty a necessity, what censorship did not need to be enforced?
573207f5e17f3d14004225dd
divine hierarchy
876
False
While the new plebeian nobility made social, political and religious inroads on traditionally patrician preserves, their electorate maintained their distinctive political traditions and religious cults. During the Punic crisis, popular cult to Dionysus emerged from southern Italy; Dionysus was equated with Father Liber, the inventor of plebeian augury and personification of plebeian freedoms, and with Roman Bacchus. Official consternation at these enthusiastic, unofficial Bacchanalia cults was expressed as moral outrage at their supposed subversion, and was followed by ferocious suppression. Much later, a statue of Marsyas, the silen of Dionysus flayed by Apollo, became a focus of brief symbolic resistance to Augustus' censorship. Augustus himself claimed the patronage of Venus and Apollo; but his settlement appealed to all classes. Where loyalty was implicit, no divine hierarchy need be politically enforced; Liber's festival continued.
What appointment was the start of Cesar's political rise?
57320a29e99e3014001e6456
pontifex maximus
555
False
What did the Augustan settlement signify in Rome's classes?
57320a29e99e3014001e6457
cultural shift
37
False
What did the claims of officials imply about the nature of the individuals?
57320a29e99e3014001e6458
divinely inspired
439
False
In what year was Cesar made pontifex maximus?
57320a29e99e3014001e6459
63 BC
517
False
How were opportunities limited in the principate for the citizens of Rome?
57320a29e99e3014001e645a
by law
914
False
The Augustan settlement built upon a cultural shift in Roman society. In the middle Republican era, even Scipio's tentative hints that he might be Jupiter's special protege sat ill with his colleagues. Politicians of the later Republic were less equivocal; both Sulla and Pompey claimed special relationships with Venus. Julius Caesar went further, and claimed her as his ancestress. Such claims suggested personal character and policy as divinely inspired; an appointment to priesthood offered divine validation. In 63 BC, Julius Caesar's appointment as pontifex maximus "signaled his emergence as a major player in Roman politics". Likewise, political candidates could sponsor temples, priesthoods and the immensely popular, spectacular public ludi and munera whose provision became increasingly indispensable to the factional politics of the Late Republic. Under the principate, such opportunities were limited by law; priestly and political power were consolidated in the person of the princeps ("first citizen").
At the end of the regal period, what class was kept out of the state political and priesthood arenas?
57320ba7e99e3014001e6478
plebeian
82
False
With whom did Rome have alliances at the end of the regal period?
57320ba7e99e3014001e6479
neighbours
233
False
What goddess became a part of the Capitoline triad?
57320ba7e99e3014001e647a
Minerva
321
False
In what style was the temple to Minerva built?
57320ba7e99e3014001e647b
Etruscan
487
False
What gods were in the Capitoline triad?
57320ba7e99e3014001e647c
Jupiter, Juno and Minerva
414
False
By the end of the regal period Rome had developed into a city-state, with a large plebeian, artisan class excluded from the old patrician gentes and from the state priesthoods. The city had commercial and political treaties with its neighbours; according to tradition, Rome's Etruscan connections established a temple to Minerva on the predominantly plebeian Aventine; she became part of a new Capitoline triad of Jupiter, Juno and Minerva, installed in a Capitoline temple, built in an Etruscan style and dedicated in a new September festival, Epulum Jovis. These are supposedly the first Roman deities whose images were adorned, as if noble guests, at their own inaugural banquet.
Whose cult appeared from Africa at the time of the Latin League?
57320d61b9d445190005e791
Diana
109
False
To whom was a new temple dedicated on the Alban Mount?
57320d61b9d445190005e792
Jupiter Latiaris
257
False
What cult was formed at the ars maxima in the Forum Boarium ?
57320d61b9d445190005e793
Hercules
490
False
For what group was Castor a patron?
57320d61b9d445190005e794
cavalry
646
False
From where was Venus brought and lodged on the Capitoline Hill?
57320d61b9d445190005e795
Sicily
819
False
Rome's diplomatic agreement with her neighbours of Latium confirmed the Latin league and brought the cult of Diana from Aricia to the Aventine. and established on the Aventine in the "commune Latinorum Dianae templum": At about the same time, the temple of Jupiter Latiaris was built on the Alban mount, its stylistic resemblance to the new Capitoline temple pointing to Rome's inclusive hegemony. Rome's affinity to the Latins allowed two Latin cults within the pomoerium: and the cult to Hercules at the ara maxima in the Forum Boarium was established through commercial connections with Tibur. and the Tusculan cult of Castor as the patron of cavalry found a home close to the Forum Romanum: Juno Sospita and Juno Regina were brought from Italy, and Fortuna Primigenia from Praeneste. In 217, Venus was brought from Sicily and installed in a temple on the Capitoline hill.
What cult appeared from Pessinus in 206 BC?
57320eef0fdd8d15006c6729
Magna Mater
208
False
What cult was brought in to Rome after the Great Mother cult?
57320eef0fdd8d15006c672a
Bacchus
307
False
In what year did the Senate declare the Bacchus subversive?
57320eef0fdd8d15006c672b
186 BC
395
False
In what year was Diana  brought into the pomerium?
57320eef0fdd8d15006c672c
179 BC
530
False
What god was introduced in Rome in 138 BC?
57320eef0fdd8d15006c672d
Mars
538
False
The introduction of new or equivalent deities coincided with Rome's most significant aggressive and defensive military forays. In 206 BC the Sibylline books commended the introduction of cult to the aniconic Magna Mater (Great Mother) from Pessinus, installed on the Palatine in 191 BC. The mystery cult to Bacchus followed; it was suppressed as subversive and unruly by decree of the Senate in 186 BC. Greek deities were brought within the sacred pomerium: temples were dedicated to Juventas (Hebe) in 191 BC, Diana (Artemis) in 179 BC, Mars (Ares) in 138 BC), and to Bona Dea, equivalent to Fauna, the female counterpart of the rural Faunus, supplemented by the Greek goddess Damia. Further Greek influences on cult images and types represented the Roman Penates as forms of the Greek Dioscuri. The military-political adventurers of the Later Republic introduced the Phrygian goddess Ma (identified with Roman Bellona, the Egyptian mystery-goddess Isis and Persian Mithras.)
The spread of all things Greek provided what for the interpretation of Rome's religions?
5732113b0fdd8d15006c6747
model
96
False
What writer defined the development of the gods?
5732113b0fdd8d15006c6748
Euhemerus
244
False
At the end of the Republic, who read the Stoic interpretations of Roman gods and religion?
5732113b0fdd8d15006c6749
literate elite
432
False
What factors sustained the beliefs in gods according to Varro?
5732113b0fdd8d15006c674a
devotion and cult.
1005
False
What theory claims that popular belief was based on fiction?
5732113b0fdd8d15006c674b
Euhemerus' theory
598
False
The spread of Greek literature, mythology and philosophy offered Roman poets and antiquarians a model for the interpretation of Rome's festivals and rituals, and the embellishment of its mythology. Ennius translated the work of Graeco-Sicilian Euhemerus, who explained the genesis of the gods as apotheosized mortals. In the last century of the Republic, Epicurean and particularly Stoic interpretations were a preoccupation of the literate elite, most of whom held - or had held - high office and traditional Roman priesthoods; notably, Scaevola and the polymath Varro. For Varro - well versed in Euhemerus' theory - popular religious observance was based on a necessary fiction; what the people believed was not itself the truth, but their observance led them to as much higher truth as their limited capacity could deal with. Whereas in popular belief deities held power over mortal lives, the skeptic might say that mortal devotion had made gods of mortals, and these same gods were only sustained by devotion and cult.
What did many Romans claim in the Republican era?
573212f70fdd8d15006c675d
divine ancestor
204
False
What style of claim did Romans favor as a link to the gods?
573212f70fdd8d15006c675e
personal claim
229
False
What deity did the Julii claim as an ancestor?
573212f70fdd8d15006c675f
Venus Genetrix
366
False
Of what were such claims of deity relations the start?
573212f70fdd8d15006c6760
Imperial cult
440
False
What author further elaborated on the imperial claim of godhood?
573212f70fdd8d15006c6761
Vergil
505
False
Just as Rome itself claimed the favour of the gods, so did some individual Romans. In the mid-to-late Republican era, and probably much earlier, many of Rome's leading clans acknowledged a divine or semi-divine ancestor and laid personal claim to their favour and cult, along with a share of their divinity. Most notably in the very late Republic, the Julii claimed Venus Genetrix as ancestor; this would be one of many foundations for the Imperial cult. The claim was further elaborated and justified in Vergil's poetic, Imperial vision of the past.
By the end of the Republic, what offices were increasingly joined?
573214afe99e3014001e64e2
religious and political
33
False
What Roman figure was given wide and lifeime powers?
573214afe99e3014001e64e3
Augustus
169
False
How many priesthoods was Augustus given?
573214afe99e3014001e64e4
unprecedented number
349
False
How were Augustus's reforms viewed?
573214afe99e3014001e64e5
adaptive, restorative and regulatory
532
False
As a return to what did Augustus portray the Vestals in his reforms?
573214afe99e3014001e64e6
Roman morality
799
False
Towards the end of the Republic, religious and political offices became more closely intertwined; the office of pontifex maximus became a de facto consular prerogative. Augustus was personally vested with an extraordinary breadth of political, military and priestly powers; at first temporarily, then for his lifetime. He acquired or was granted an unprecedented number of Rome's major priesthoods, including that of pontifex maximus; as he invented none, he could claim them as traditional honours. His reforms were represented as adaptive, restorative and regulatory, rather than innovative; most notably his elevation (and membership) of the ancient Arvales, his timely promotion of the plebeian Compitalia shortly before his election and his patronage of the Vestals as a visible restoration of Roman morality. Augustus obtained the pax deorum, maintained it for the rest of his reign and adopted a successor to ensure its continuation. This remained a primary religious and social duty of emperors.
From what were countries in the empire free?
573217f50fdd8d15006c678b
Roman religious law
322
False
What were Rome's policies in regards to foreign peoples?
573217f50fdd8d15006c678c
inclusionist policies
106
False
What was Rome's policy towards government?
573217f50fdd8d15006c678d
Autonomy and concord
440
False
What did foreign cults gradually begin to display in similarity to Roman cults?
573217f50fdd8d15006c678e
Romanised
936
False
What was Rome not demanding of in religion of foreign areas of the empire?
573217f50fdd8d15006c678f
centralised legal requirement
1144
False
The Roman Empire expanded to include different peoples and cultures; in principle, Rome followed the same inclusionist policies that had recognised Latin, Etruscan and other Italian peoples, cults and deities as Roman. Those who acknowledged Rome's hegemony retained their own cult and religious calendars, independent of Roman religious law. Newly municipal Sabratha built a Capitolium near its existing temple to Liber Pater and Serapis. Autonomy and concord were official policy, but new foundations by Roman citizens or their Romanised allies were likely to follow Roman cultic models. Romanisation offered distinct political and practical advantages, especially to local elites. All the known effigies from the 2nd century AD forum at Cuicul are of emperors or Concordia. By the middle of the 1st century AD, Gaulish Vertault seems to have abandoned its native cultic sacrifice of horses and dogs in favour of a newly established, Romanised cult nearby: by the end of that century, Sabratha’s so-called tophet was no longer in use. Colonial and later Imperial provincial dedications to Rome's Capitoline Triad were a logical choice, not a centralised legal requirement. Major cult centres to "non-Roman" deities continued to prosper: notable examples include the magnificent Alexandrian Serapium, the temple of Aesculapeus at Pergamum and Apollo's sacred wood at Antioch.
To whom did Roman soldiers set up alters?
57321b19b9d445190005e7fb
traditional gods
168
False
What style of religious dedication was not uncommon for outer border areas?
57321b19b9d445190005e7fc
diis deabusque omnibus
283
False
What type of household gods and cults did soldiers bring to outer areas?
57321b19b9d445190005e7fd
domestic
361
False
What act  of provincials brought new gods into the military?
57321b19b9d445190005e7fe
conscription
487
False
What did Rome typically award to provincial members of the empire?
57321b19b9d445190005e7ff
citizenship
450
False
Military settlement within the empire and at its borders broadened the context of Romanitas. Rome's citizen-soldiers set up altars to multiple deities, including their traditional gods, the Imperial genius and local deities – sometimes with the usefully open-ended dedication to the diis deabusque omnibus (all the gods and goddesses). They also brought Roman "domestic" deities and cult practices with them. By the same token, the later granting of citizenship to provincials and their conscription into the legions brought their new cults into the Roman military.
What Roman leader aspired to be a living god?
57321ccfb9d445190005e80f
Julius Caesar
53
False
What form of government did Cesar seem to be attempting?
57321ccfb9d445190005e810
divine monarchy
97
False
To what ruler did foreign allies offer a divine cult?
57321ccfb9d445190005e811
Augustus
268
False
For what was Augustus's reformed system of government notiable?
57321ccfb9d445190005e812
integrated
548
False
By the end of Augustus's reign what was an established fact?
57321ccfb9d445190005e813
Imperial cult
663
False
The first and last Roman known as a living divus was Julius Caesar, who seems to have aspired to divine monarchy; he was murdered soon after. Greek allies had their own traditional cults to rulers as divine benefactors, and offered similar cult to Caesar's successor, Augustus, who accepted with the cautious proviso that expatriate Roman citizens refrain from such worship; it might prove fatal. By the end of his reign, Augustus had appropriated Rome's political apparatus – and most of its religious cults – within his "reformed" and thoroughly integrated system of government. Towards the end of his life, he cautiously allowed cult to his numen. By then the Imperial cult apparatus was fully developed, first in the Eastern Provinces, then in the West. Provincial Cult centres offered the amenities and opportunities of a major Roman town within a local context; bathhouses, shrines and temples to Roman and local deities, amphitheatres and festivals. In the early Imperial period, the promotion of local elites to Imperial priesthood gave them Roman citizenship.
What was the emperor's rule in Rome?
57321f30b9d445190005e823
divinely approved
65
False
As first citizen, what must the emperor's mores represent?
57321f30b9d445190005e824
traditional
147
False
As a living divus, what was the emperor to Rome?
57321f30b9d445190005e825
father of his country
264
False
After his death, how was the emperor's afterlife decided?
57321f30b9d445190005e826
vote in the Senate
481
False
What did emperors before Diocletian try to guarantee in religion?
57321f30b9d445190005e827
traditional cults
1177
False
In Rome, state cult to a living emperor acknowledged his rule as divinely approved and constitutional. As princeps (first citizen) he must respect traditional Republican mores; given virtually monarchic powers, he must restrain them. He was not a living divus but father of his country (pater patriae), its pontifex maximus (greatest priest) and at least notionally, its leading Republican. When he died, his ascent to heaven, or his descent to join the dii manes was decided by a vote in the Senate. As a divus, he could receive much the same honours as any other state deity – libations of wine, garlands, incense, hymns and sacrificial oxen at games and festivals. What he did in return for these favours is unknown, but literary hints and the later adoption of divus as a title for Christian Saints suggest him as a heavenly intercessor. In Rome, official cult to a living emperor was directed to his genius; a small number refused this honour and there is no evidence of any emperor receiving more than that. In the crises leading up to the Dominate, Imperial titles and honours multiplied, reaching a peak under Diocletian. Emperors before him had attempted to guarantee traditional cults as the core of Roman identity and well-being; refusal of cult undermined the state and was treasonous.
What means guaranteed the Jews and Judaism in Rome?
573220fce99e3014001e653a
treaty
130
False
What religious buildings were established in Rome in the imperial period?
573220fce99e3014001e653b
synagogues
297
False
When did Judea become an allied kingdom to Rome?
573220fce99e3014001e653c
63 BC
492
False
Who recognized the Jewish synagogues as being legitimate in Rome?
573220fce99e3014001e653d
Julius Caesar
653
False
In contrast to what religion was Judaism acceptable in Rome?
573220fce99e3014001e653e
Christianity
1002
False
For at least a century before the establishment of the Augustan principate, Jews and Judaism were tolerated in Rome by diplomatic treaty with Judaea's Hellenised elite. Diaspora Jews had much in common with the overwhelmingly Hellenic or Hellenised communities that surrounded them. Early Italian synagogues have left few traces; but one was dedicated in Ostia around the mid-1st century BC and several more are attested during the Imperial period. Judaea's enrollment as a client kingdom in 63 BC increased the Jewish diaspora; in Rome, this led to closer official scrutiny of their religion. Their synagogues were recognised as legitimate collegia by Julius Caesar. By the Augustan era, the city of Rome was home to several thousand Jews. In some periods under Roman rule, Jews were legally exempt from official sacrifice, under certain conditions. Judaism was a superstitio to Cicero, but the Church Father Tertullian described it as religio licita (an officially permitted religion) in contrast to Christianity.
What group was accused of starting the Great Fire of 64 AD?
573222f30fdd8d15006c67eb
Christians
64
False
Who made the accusation that the Christians had started the Great Fire?
573222f30fdd8d15006c67ec
Emperor Nero
39
False
What outcome did the accusations against the Christians produce?
573222f30fdd8d15006c67ed
persecution
217
False
What was the persecution of the Christians by Rome?
573222f30fdd8d15006c67ee
official policy
165
False
How did early Christians view traditional Roman cultism?
573222f30fdd8d15006c67ef
ungodly practices
861
False
After the Great Fire of Rome in 64 AD, Emperor Nero accused the Christians as convenient scapegoats, who were later persecuted and killed. From that point on, Roman official policy towards Christianity tended towards persecution. During the various Imperial crises of the 3rd century, “contemporaries were predisposed to decode any crisis in religious terms”, regardless of their allegiance to particular practices or belief systems. Christianity drew its traditional base of support from the powerless, who seemed to have no religious stake in the well-being of the Roman State, and therefore threatened its existence. The majority of Rome’s elite continued to observe various forms of inclusive Hellenistic monism; Neoplatonism in particular accommodated the miraculous and the ascetic within a traditional Graeco-Roman cultic framework. Christians saw these ungodly practices as a primary cause of economic and political crisis.
Which emperor decreed that all Romans must sacrifice to traditional gods?
57322474e99e3014001e654e
Decius
53
False
What religious group was exempt from sacrifices?
57322474e99e3014001e654f
Jews
228
False
What oath was a requirement of the emperor's decree?
57322474e99e3014001e6550
Decian oath
589
False
What was the Decian decree meant to root out?
57322474e99e3014001e6551
subversives
657
False
What happened to the decree after a year?
57322474e99e3014001e6552
edict expired.
787
False
In the wake of religious riots in Egypt, the emperor Decius decreed that all subjects of the Empire must actively seek to benefit the state through witnessed and certified sacrifice to "ancestral gods" or suffer a penalty: only Jews were exempt. Decius' edict appealed to whatever common mos maiores might reunite a politically and socially fractured Empire and its multitude of cults; no ancestral gods were specified by name. The fulfillment of sacrificial obligation by loyal subjects would define them and their gods as Roman. Roman oaths of loyalty were traditionally collective; the Decian oath has been interpreted as a design to root out individual subversives and suppress their cults, but apostasy was sought, rather than capital punishment. A year after its due deadline, the edict expired.
What did  Valerian call the Christian religion?
573226e1b9d445190005e83d
subversive foreign cult
96
False
What Christian events did Valerian outlaw?
573226e1b9d445190005e83e
assemblies
134
False
To what gods did Valerian tell the Christians to sacrifice?
573226e1b9d445190005e83f
Rome's traditional
182
False
What did Valerian's second edict call the Christians' presence in the empire?
573226e1b9d445190005e840
threat
249
False
What did the Christian church become in the years after Valerian's death?
573226e1b9d445190005e841
stronger
504
False
Valerian's first religious edict singled out Christianity as a particularly self-interested and subversive foreign cult, outlawed its assemblies and urged Christians to sacrifice to Rome's traditional gods. His second edict acknowledged a Christian threat to the Imperial system – not yet at its heart but close to it, among Rome’s equites and Senators. Christian apologists interpreted his disgraceful capture and death as divine judgement. The next forty years were peaceful; the Christian church grew stronger and its literature and theology gained a higher social and intellectual profile, due in part to its own search for political toleration and theological coherence. Origen discussed theological issues with traditionalist elites in a common Neoplatonist frame of reference – he had written to Decius' predecessor Philip the Arab in similar vein – and Hippolytus recognised a “pagan” basis in Christian heresies. The Christian churches were disunited; Paul of Samosata, Bishop of Antioch was deposed by a synod of 268 for "dogmatic reasons – his doctrine on the human nature of Christ was rejected – and for his lifestyle, which reminded his brethren of the habits of the administrative elite". The reasons for his deposition were widely circulated among the churches. Meanwhile, Aurelian (270-75) appealed for harmony among his soldiers (concordia militum), stabilised the Empire and its borders and successfully established an official, Hellenic form of unitary cult to the Palmyrene Sol Invictus in Rome's Campus Martius.
For what reason were Maximillian and Marcellus executed?
573228d1b9d445190005e865
treason
124
False
In what year did Diocletian's edict order the destruction of Christian churches and texts?
573228d1b9d445190005e866
303 AD
378
False
In 303 AD what did Christians begin losing?
573228d1b9d445190005e867
legal rights
587
False
With what were Christian priests threatened in the second edict?
573228d1b9d445190005e868
imprisonment
825
False
To what did the edict of 304 admonish Christians to sacrifice?
573228d1b9d445190005e869
traditional gods
950
False
In 295, a certain Maximilian refused military service; in 298 Marcellus renounced his military oath. Both were executed for treason; both were Christians. At some time around 302, a report of ominous haruspicy in Diocletian's domus and a subsequent (but undated) dictat of placatory sacrifice by the entire military triggered a series of edicts against Christianity. The first (303 AD) "ordered the destruction of church buildings and Christian texts, forbade services to be held, degraded ofﬁcials who were Christians, re-enslaved imperial freedmen who were Christians, and reduced the legal rights of all Christians... [Physical] or capital punishments were not imposed on them" but soon after, several Christians suspected of attempted arson in the palace were executed. The second edict threatened Christian priests with imprisonment and the third offered them freedom if they performed sacrifice. An edict of 304 enjoined universal sacrifice to traditional gods, in terms that recall the Decian edict.
How were the Roman edicts handled in some areas?
57322ed7b9d445190005e8a3
strictly enforced
49
False
In areas of strict enforcement, what happened to Christians?
57322ed7b9d445190005e8a4
imprisoned or martyred
102
False
What were some Christian communities?
57322ed7b9d445190005e8a5
powerful and influential
210
False
What were some provincial governors in enforcement of the Roman edicts?
57322ed7b9d445190005e8a6
lenient
273
False
When did Galerius revoke the anti-Christian policies?
57322ed7b9d445190005e8a7
311
458
False
In some cases and in some places the edicts were strictly enforced: some Christians resisted and were imprisoned or martyred. Others complied. Some local communities were not only pre-dominantly Christian, but powerful and influential; and some provincial authorities were lenient, notably the Caesar in Gaul, Constantius Chlorus, the father of Constantine I. Diocletian's successor Galerius maintained anti-Christian policy until his deathbed revocation in 311, when he asked Christians to pray for him. "This meant an ofﬁcial recognition of their importance in the religious world of the Roman empire, although one of the tetrarchs, Maximinus Daia, still oppressed Christians in his part of the empire up to 313."
Who said the imperial honors were against Christian teachings?
57323080e17f3d14004226ff
St. Jerome
35
False
With what veneration did most Christians have little trouble?
57323080e17f3d1400422700
"pagan" emperors
274
False
To what did the Christian church equate the peace of the emperors?
57323080e17f3d1400422701
peace of God
326
False
What pontifax maximus favored the Catholic church?
57323080e17f3d1400422702
Constantine I
513
False
What Christian group did Constantine I disapprove?
57323080e17f3d1400422703
Donatists
588
False
With the abatement of persecution, St. Jerome acknowledged the Empire as a bulwark against evil but insisted that "imperial honours" were contrary to Christian teaching. His was an authoritative but minority voice: most Christians showed no qualms in the veneration of even "pagan" emperors. The peace of the emperors was the peace of God; as far as the Church was concerned, internal dissent and doctrinal schism were a far greater problem. The solution came from a hitherto unlikely source: as pontifex maximus Constantine I favoured the "Catholic Church of the Christians" against the Donatists because:
What edict defined imperial ideas as being those of toleration?
5732321ce17f3d1400422717
edict of Milan
238
False
How did Constantine accept Christianity?
5732321ce17f3d1400422718
officially
408
False
Besides the acceptance of Christianity, what other religious cults were tolerated?
5732321ce17f3d1400422719
traditional religions
439
False
As what type of ruler did Constantine unite the empire and church?
5732321ce17f3d140042271a
absolute head of state
932
False
As what was Constantine honored when he died?
5732321ce17f3d140042271b
Christian, Imperial, and "divus"
994
False
Constantine successfully balanced his own role as an instrument of the pax deorum with the power of the Christian priesthoods in determining what was (in traditional Roman terms) auspicious - or in Christian terms, what was orthodox. The edict of Milan (313) redefined Imperial ideology as one of mutual toleration. Constantine had triumphed under the signum (sign) of the Christ: Christianity was therefore officially embraced along with traditional religions and from his new Eastern capital, Constantine could be seen to embody both Christian and Hellenic religious interests. He may have officially ended – or attempted to end – blood sacrifices to the genius of living emperors but his Imperial iconography and court ceremonial outstripped Diocletian's in their supra-human elevation of the Imperial hierarch. His later direct intervention in Church affairs proved a political masterstroke. Constantine united the empire as an absolute head of state, and on his death, he was honored as a Christian, Imperial, and "divus".
What group did Constantine call to a meeting?
573233c1b9d445190005e8bd
First Council of Nicaea
275
False
How many bishops attended the First Council?
573233c1b9d445190005e8be
318
215
False
From where were the bishops in attendance at the Council few in number?
573233c1b9d445190005e8bf
Western Empire
246
False
What was the Council of Nicaea meant to define?
573233c1b9d445190005e8c0
Christian orthodoxy
342
False
What agreement was reached a the Council of Nicaea ?
573233c1b9d445190005e8c1
Nicene Creed
453
False
At the time, there were many varying opinions about Christian doctrine, and no centralized way of enforcing orthodoxy. Constantine called all the Christian bishops throughout the Roman Empire to a meeting, and some 318 bishops (very few from the Western Empire) attended the First Council of Nicaea. The purpose of this meeting was to define Christian orthodoxy and clearly differentiate it from Christian heresies. The meeting reached consensus on the Nicene Creed and other statements. Later, Philostorgius criticized Christians who offered sacrifice at statues of the divus Constantine. Constantine nevertheless took great pains to assuage traditionalist and Christian anxieties.
What emperor tried to revive traditional religious practices?
5732354ce17f3d140042272b
Julian
12
False
What was proclaimed the state religion under Theodosius I?
5732354ce17f3d140042272c
Nicene Christianity
169
False
What pleas were rejected by the empire?
5732354ce17f3d140042272d
religious tolerance
255
False
What group was excluded or persecuted by the empire?
5732354ce17f3d140042272e
Heretics
392
False
What aspects of Roman religion influenced Christian forms?
5732354ce17f3d140042272f
ritual
550
False
The emperor Julian made a short-lived attempt to revive traditional and Hellenistic religion and to affirm the special status of Judaism, but in 380 under Theodosius I, Nicene Christianity became the official state religion of the Roman Empire. Pleas for religious tolerance from traditionalists such as the senator Symmachus (d. 402) were rejected. Christianity became increasingly popular. Heretics as well as non-Christians were subject to exclusion from public life or persecution, but Rome's original religious hierarchy and many aspects of its ritual influenced Christian forms, and many pre-Christian beliefs and practices survived in Christian festivals and local traditions.
Who rejected the Christian religion?
573236d2e17f3d1400422735
Julian
21
False
When did Julian become Augustus?
573236d2e17f3d1400422736
361
196
False
What did Julian try to restore to the empire?
573236d2e17f3d1400422737
non-Christian practices
297
False
What building did Julian want to rebuild?
573236d2e17f3d1400422738
Jerusalem's temple
363
False
After Julian's death, under to what type of religion did the empire return?
573236d2e17f3d1400422739
Christian control
688
False
Constantine's nephew Julian rejected the "Galilean madness" of his upbringing for an idiosyncratic synthesis of neo-Platonism, Stoic asceticism and universal solar cult. Julian became Augustus in 361 and actively but vainly fostered a religious and cultural pluralism, attempting a restitution of non-Christian practices and rights. He proposed the rebuilding of Jerusalem's temple as an Imperial project and argued against the "irrational impieties" of Christian doctrine. His attempt to restore an Augustan form of principate, with himself as primus inter pares ended with his death in 363 in Persia, after which his reforms were reversed or abandoned. The empire once again fell under Christian control, this time permanently.
What office did Western emperor Gratian decline?
573238630fdd8d15006c685f
pontifex maximus
50
False
What group did Gratian seek the abolish?
573238630fdd8d15006c6860
Vestals
197
False
Which emperor briefly united the empire again?
573238630fdd8d15006c6861
Theodosius I
206
False
What flame did Theodosius extinguish to remove the Vestals from power?
573238630fdd8d15006c6862
Sacred fire
463
False
Of what was Theodosius the last emperor?
573238630fdd8d15006c6863
East and West
1093
False
The Western emperor Gratian refused the office of pontifex maximus, and against the protests of the senate, removed the altar of Victory from the senate house and began the disestablishment of the Vestals. Theodosius I briefly re-united the Empire: in 391 he officially adopted Nicene Christianity as the Imperial religion and ended official support for all other creeds and cults. He not only refused to restore Victory to the senate-house, but extinguished the Sacred fire of the Vestals and vacated their temple: the senatorial protest was expressed in a letter by Quintus Aurelius Symmachus to the Western and Eastern emperors. Ambrose, the influential Bishop of Milan and future saint, wrote urging the rejection of Symmachus's request for tolerance. Yet Theodosius accepted comparison with Hercules and Jupiter as a living divinity in the panegyric of Pacatus, and despite his active dismantling of Rome's traditional cults and priesthoods could commend his heirs to its overwhelmingly Hellenic senate in traditional Hellenic terms.[clarification needed] He was the last emperor of both East and West.
YouTube
Where is Youtube headquartered?
573196af497a88190024909b
San Bruno, California, United States
59
False
When was Youtube created?
573196af497a88190024909c
February 2005
157
False
How much did Google pay for Youtube in 2006?
573196af497a88190024909d
US$1.65 billion
218
False
Other than video blogging and and educational videos, what content is available on youtube?
573196af497a88190024909e
short original videos
634
False
How does youtube now operate as a business?
573196af497a88190024909f
as one of Google's subsidiaries
256
False
PayPal
137
What company did the three employees that started YouTube in 2006 used to work for?
5ace0f4532bba1001ae49a0d
True
Google
207
Who bought YouTube in 2005 for US$1.65 billion?
5ace0f4532bba1001ae49a0e
True
YouTube
235
Who's subsidiary does Google now operate under?
5ace0f4532bba1001ae49a0f
True
Adobe Flash Video
412
What other technology does YouTube use besides WebM and H.642/MPEG-4 VAC?
5ace0f4532bba1001ae49a10
True
YouTube is a global video-sharing website headquartered in San Bruno, California, United States. The service was created by three former PayPal employees in February 2005. In November 2006, it was bought by Google for US$1.65 billion. YouTube now operates as one of Google's subsidiaries. The site allows users to upload, view, rate, share, and comment on videos, and it makes use of WebM, H.264/MPEG-4 AVC, and Adobe Flash Video technology to display a wide variety of user-generated and corporate media video. Available content includes video clips, TV clips, music videos, movie trailers, and other content such as video blogging, short original videos, and educational videos.
What are the first names of the men that invented youtube?
57319748e17f3d140042224d
Hurley and Chen
64
False
Where did Chen live in 2005?
57319748e17f3d140042224e
San Francisco
257
False
When did the creators have the idea for youtube?
57319748e17f3d140042224f
the early months of 2005
118
False
What was the original stimuli for creating the website?
57319748e17f3d1400422250
difficulty sharing videos
171
False
San Francisco
257
Where did Chen live in 2007?
5acd66ae07355d001abf40ba
True
2005
138
When did the creators have the idea for Google?
5acd66ae07355d001abf40bb
True
sharing videos
182
What wasn't the original reason for creating the website?
5acd66ae07355d001abf40bc
True
Hurley and Chen
64
Who sold YouTube?
5acd66ae07355d001abf40bd
True
during the early months of 2005
111
When did Chen Hurley develop the idea for YouTube?
5ace110c32bba1001ae49a1f
True
San Francisco
257
What city did Chen Hurley live in?
5ace110c32bba1001ae49a20
True
the party
293
What did Karim Hurley not attend?
5ace110c32bba1001ae49a21
True
According to a story that has often been repeated in the media, Hurley and Chen developed the idea for YouTube during the early months of 2005, after they had experienced difficulty sharing videos that had been shot at a dinner party at Chen's apartment in San Francisco. Karim did not attend the party and denied that it had occurred, but Chen commented that the idea that YouTube was founded after a dinner party "was probably very strengthened by marketing ideas around creating a story that was very digestible".
when was the first beta test for the youtube site?
573198280fdd8d15006c63c9
May 2005
54
False
What was the first video to reach a million views?
573198280fdd8d15006c63ca
a Nike advertisement
111
False
How much did Sequoia Capital invest in youtube in November of 2005?
573198280fdd8d15006c63cb
$3.5 million
184
False
What was the official launch date for the youtube website?
573198280fdd8d15006c63cc
December 15, 2005
274
False
As of May 2010 how many total video views had youtube attained?
573198280fdd8d15006c63cd
14 billion
728
False
public a beta test
20
What happened in March 2005?
5acd677a07355d001abf40d6
True
Nike advertisement
113
What was the second video to reach a million views?
5acd677a07355d001abf40d7
True
Ronaldinho
142
What hockey star was in the Nike advertisement?
5acd677a07355d001abf40d8
True
Nike
113
What ad first aired in August 2005?
5acd677a07355d001abf40d9
True
site launched
246
What happened on December 25, 2005?
5acd677a07355d001abf40da
True
beta test of the site
29
What type of public test was offered in May 2006?
5ace125632bba1001ae49a39
True
Nike advertisement featuring Ronaldinho
113
What video first reached one million views in July 2005?
5ace125632bba1001ae49a3a
True
the site launched officially
242
What happened on December 15, 2006?
5ace125632bba1001ae49a3b
True
65,000
430
How many videos were being uploaded every day by July 2010?
5ace125632bba1001ae49a3c
True
YouTube
609
What company has a market share of 14%?
5ace125632bba1001ae49a3d
True
YouTube offered the public a beta test of the site in May 2005. The first video to reach one million views was a Nike advertisement featuring Ronaldinho in September 2005. Following a $3.5 million investment from Sequoia Capital in November, the site launched officially on December 15, 2005, by which time the site was receiving 8 million views a day. The site grew rapidly, and in July 2006 the company announced that more than 65,000 new videos were being uploaded every day, and that the site was receiving 100 million video views per day. According to data published by market research company comScore, YouTube is the dominant provider of online video in the United States, with a market share of around 43% and more than 14 billion views of videos in May 2010.
As of 2014, how many hours of video were being uploaded every  minute?
57319909b9d445190005e3f3
300
26
False
How much content on youtube comes from outside the US?
57319909b9d445190005e3f4
around three quarters
138
False
How many unique visitors a month were tracked as of 2014?
57319909b9d445190005e3f5
800 million
217
False
As of June 2015, how many estimated visitors does youtube have in a month?
57319909b9d445190005e3f6
15 billion
585
False
Youtube is ranked what on the world's list of most visited sites?
57319909b9d445190005e3f7
third
434
False
2014
3
When did YouTube say 400 hours were being uploaded every minute?
5acd693707355d001abf4108
True
800 million
217
How much content on youtube comes from inside the US?
5acd693707355d001abf4109
True
YouTube
419
What is ranked second on the world's list of most visited sites?
5acd693707355d001abf410a
True
YouTube
419
What is ranked fourth on the world's list of most visited sites?
5acd693707355d001abf410b
True
YouTube
419
What has more than 20 billion visitors per month?
5acd693707355d001abf410c
True
300 hours
26
How many hours of new video every minute did YouTube say were uploaded in 2015?
5ace171a32bba1001ae49a9b
True
as much bandwidth as the entire Internet in 2000
297
How much bandwidth did YouTube consume in 2014?
5ace171a32bba1001ae49a9c
True
15 billion visitors per month
585
How many visitors per month did YouTube have as of June 2014?
5ace171a32bba1001ae49a9d
True
YouTube
514
What is the third most visited website in the world as of June 2014?
5ace171a32bba1001ae49a9e
True
In 2014 YouTube said that 300 hours of new videos were uploaded to the site every minute, three times more than one year earlier and that around three quarters of the material comes from outside the U.S. The site has 800 million unique users a month. It is estimated that in 2007 YouTube consumed as much bandwidth as the entire Internet in 2000. According to third-party web analytics providers, Alexa and SimilarWeb, YouTube is the third most visited website in the world, as of June 2015; SimilarWeb also lists YouTube as the top TV and video website globally, attracting more than 15 billion visitors per month.
What did youtube do on March 31 2010?
573199d9e99e3014001e617e
launched a new design
39
False
Who was the Google product manager in 2010?
573199d9e99e3014001e617f
Shiva Rajaraman
176
False
How many videos was youtube serving per day as of May 2010?
573199d9e99e3014001e6180
more than two billion
326
False
How many views per day was youtube receiving as of May 2011?
573199d9e99e3014001e6181
more than three billion
554
False
How many videos per day were streamed as of January 2012?
573199d9e99e3014001e6182
four billion
658
False
launched a new design
39
What happened on March 30 2010?
5acd69a907355d001abf4112
True
Shiva Rajaraman
176
Who was the Google product manager in 2009?
5acd69a907355d001abf4113
True
more than two billion
326
How many videos was youtube serving per day as of May 2011?
5acd69a907355d001abf4114
True
four billion videos
658
How many videos per day were streamed as of January 2014?
5acd69a907355d001abf4115
True
three billion views
564
How many views per day was youtube receiving as of May 2012?
5acd69a907355d001abf4116
True
a new design
48
What did YouTube launch on March 13, 2010?
5ace1a6632bba1001ae49abf
True
"We really felt like we needed to step back and remove the clutter."
203
What did Rajaraman Shiva say about the new design?
5ace1a6632bba1001ae49ac0
True
more than two billion videos
326
How many videos was YouTube serving per day in March 2010?
5ace1a6632bba1001ae49ac1
True
more than three billion views per day
554
How many views was YouTube recieving in March 2011?
5ace1a6632bba1001ae49ac2
True
four billion videos
658
How many videos were being streamed per day in January 2010?
5ace1a6632bba1001ae49ac3
True
On March 31, 2010, the YouTube website launched a new design, with the aim of simplifying the interface and increasing the time users spend on the site. Google product manager Shiva Rajaraman commented: "We really felt like we needed to step back and remove the clutter." In May 2010, it was reported that YouTube was serving more than two billion videos a day, which it described as "nearly double the prime-time audience of all three major US television networks combined". In May 2011, YouTube reported in its company blog that the site was receiving more than three billion views per day. In January 2012, YouTube stated that the figure had increased to four billion videos streamed per day.
What did youtube announce in Feb of 2015?
57319a95e17f3d140042225f
a new app
50
False
what was the name of the new app youtube launched?
57319a95e17f3d1400422260
YouTube Kids
119
False
What platform was launched in Aug of 2015?
57319a95e17f3d1400422261
YouTube Gaming
282
False
What is the name of the youtube feature that removes ads and allows downloading movies?
57319a95e17f3d1400422262
YouTube Red
454
False
On what OS was the YouTube Kids app available?
57319a95e17f3d1400422263
both Android and iOS
226
False
the launch of a new app
36
What happened in March 2015?
5acd6af007355d001abf4144
True
YouTube Gaming
282
What happened on August 25, 2015?
5acd6af007355d001abf4145
True
ad-free content
498
What is YouTube Blue?
5acd6af007355d001abf4146
True
Android and iOS
231
What OS is YouTube kids unavailable?
5acd6af007355d001abf4147
True
YouTube Red
454
What's the name of the program that gives ads?
5acd6af007355d001abf4148
True
YouTube Kids
119
What did YouTube launch in August 2015 for children?
5ace1bcb32bba1001ae49aed
True
YouTube Gaming
282
What was launched on February 26, 2015?
5ace1bcb32bba1001ae49aee
True
YouTube Gaming
282
What was launched to compete with Twitch.VT?
5ace1bcb32bba1001ae49aef
True
YouTube Red
454
What premium service was launched in February 2015?
5ace1bcb32bba1001ae49af0
True
In February 2015, YouTube announced the launch of a new app specifically for use by children visiting the site, called YouTube Kids. It allows parental controls and restrictions on who can upload content, and is available for both Android and iOS devices. Later on August 26, 2015, YouTube Gaming was launched, a platform for video gaming enthusiasts intended to compete with Twitch.tv. 2015 also saw the announcement of a premium YouTube service titled YouTube Red, which provides users with both ad-free content as well as the ability to download videos among other features.
In 2010 youtube launched a version of its site that ran on what standard?
57319b8c0fdd8d15006c63dd
HTML5
148
False
What was the main benefit from the switch to HTML5?
57319b8c0fdd8d15006c63de
allowed videos to be viewed without requiring Adobe Flash Player
169
False
How did users opt into the trial version of youtube's HTML5 site?
57319b8c0fdd8d15006c63df
a page
293
False
What format besides H.264 was playable with HTML5?
57319b8c0fdd8d15006c63e0
WebM
421
False
January 2010
3
When did HTML4 become standard?
5acd6b8a07355d001abf4172
True
YouTube launched an experimental version of the site that used the built-in multimedia capabilities of web browsers supporting the HTML5 standard
17
What happened in January 2009?
5acd6b8a07355d001abf4173
True
WebM
421
What format besides H.264 was playable with HTML4?
5acd6b8a07355d001abf4174
True
allowed videos to be viewed without requiring Adobe Flash Player
169
What was the main benefit from the switch to HTML4?
5acd6b8a07355d001abf4175
True
January 2010
3
When did YouTube launch a version of its site that supported the HMLT5 standard?
5ace1c8332bba1001ae49aff
True
Adobe Flash Player
215
What was no longer required with the support of HMLT5?
5ace1c8332bba1001ae49b00
True
HTML5 Video
390
What were browsers supporting in order to use the H.642 or WemB formats?
5ace1c8332bba1001ae49b01
True
In January 2010, YouTube launched an experimental version of the site that used the built-in multimedia capabilities of web browsers supporting the HTML5 standard. This allowed videos to be viewed without requiring Adobe Flash Player or any other plug-in to be installed. The YouTube site had a page that allowed supported browsers to opt into the HTML5 trial. Only browsers that supported HTML5 Video using the H.264 or WebM formats could play the videos, and not all videos on the site were available.
What is the maximum length of a video on youtube?
57319c770fdd8d15006c63e5
12 hours
206
False
When a user with a new account posts a video, what is the maximum length allowed?
57319c770fdd8d15006c63e6
15 minutes
42
False
When was the time limit on video length first enacted on youtube?
57319c770fdd8d15006c63e7
March 2006
412
False
in 2006 Youtube found that the majority of longer videos were what?
57319c770fdd8d15006c63e8
unauthorized uploads
498
False
What is the upload file size limit on out of date browsers?
57319c770fdd8d15006c63e9
20 GB
674
False
12 hours
206
What is the minimum length of a video on youtube?
5acd6ce007355d001abf4196
True
March 2006
412
When did they do away with the limit for the maximum length allowed?
5acd6ce007355d001abf4197
True
The 10-minute limit was increased to 15 minutes
550
What happened in August 2010?
5acd6ce007355d001abf4198
True
20 GB
674
What is the upload file size limit on up to date browsers?
5acd6ce007355d001abf4199
True
All YouTube users
0
Who can upload videos of 12 minutes in duration?
5ace1d3b32bba1001ae49b0f
True
Users who have a good track record of complying with the site's Community Guidelines
71
Who can upload videos of 15 hours in duration?
5ace1d3b32bba1001ae49b10
True
ten-minute limit
377
What time limit was introduced in March 2005?
5ace1d3b32bba1001ae49b11
True
minute limit
557
What was increased from 10 to 15 in July 2001?
5ace1d3b32bba1001ae49b12
True
All YouTube users can upload videos up to 15 minutes each in duration. Users who have a good track record of complying with the site's Community Guidelines may be offered the ability to upload videos up to 12 hours in length, which requires verifying the account, normally through a mobile phone. When YouTube was launched in 2005, it was possible to upload long videos, but a ten-minute limit was introduced in March 2006 after YouTube found that the majority of videos exceeding this length were unauthorized uploads of television shows and films. The 10-minute limit was increased to 15 minutes in July 2010. If an up-to-date browser version is used, videos greater than 20 GB can be uploaded.
When was 720p HD support added to youtube?
57319d9e0fdd8d15006c63ef
In November 2008
0
False
What did youtube change its screen format to from 4:3?
57319d9e0fdd8d15006c63f0
widescreen 16:9
137
False
What video format support was added in 2009?
57319d9e0fdd8d15006c63f1
1080p HD
283
False
What is the highest resolution of video supported by youtube?
57319d9e0fdd8d15006c63f2
8K resolution
475
False
What is the name of the format that has dimensions of 4096×3072 pixels?
57319d9e0fdd8d15006c63f3
4K
385
False
16:9
148
What ratio was YouTube played changed to in July 2008?
5ace1ffe32bba1001ae49b43
True
November 2008
3
When did YouTube begin a switchover to H.246/MPEG-4?
5ace1ffe32bba1001ae49b44
True
1080p HD support
283
What was added in July 2009?
5ace1ffe32bba1001ae49b45
True
support for 8K resolution was added
463
What was added in November 2015?
5ace1ffe32bba1001ae49b46
True
In November 2008, 720p HD support was added. At the time of the 720p launch, the YouTube player was changed from a 4:3 aspect ratio to a widescreen 16:9. With this new feature, YouTube began a switchover to H.264/MPEG-4 AVC as its default video compression format. In November 2009, 1080p HD support was added. In July 2010, YouTube announced that it had launched a range of videos in 4K format, which allows a resolution of up to 4096×3072 pixels. In June 2015, support for 8K resolution was added, with the videos playing at 7680×4320 pixels.
Peter Bradshaw held what position in youtube?
57319e69e17f3d1400422279
software engineer
44
False
What type of videos did youtube officially start supporting in July 2009?
57319e69e17f3d140042227a
3D
121
False
What is the name for the common method of viewing a 3d movie, with red and blue glasses?
57319e69e17f3d140042227b
anaglyph
205
False
When did HTML5 officially support side-by-side 3D footage?
57319e69e17f3d140042227c
In May 2011
504
False
YouTube users can now upload 3D videos
92
What was announced by Peter Bradshaw on May 21, 2009?
5ace20ee32bba1001ae49b5f
True
side-by-side 3D footage that is compatible with Nvidia 3D Vision.
573
What did YouTube begin supporting in July 2011?
5ace20ee32bba1001ae49b60
True
common anaglyph (cyan/red lens) method which utilizes glasses worn by the viewer to achieve the 3D effect
198
What ways can all YouTube videos be viewed?
5ace20ee32bba1001ae49b61
True
In a video posted on July 21, 2009, YouTube software engineer Peter Bradshaw announced that YouTube users can now upload 3D videos. The videos can be viewed in several different ways, including the common anaglyph (cyan/red lens) method which utilizes glasses worn by the viewer to achieve the 3D effect. The YouTube Flash player can display stereoscopic content interleaved in rows, columns or a checkerboard pattern, side-by-side or anaglyph using a red/cyan, green/magenta or blue/yellow combination. In May 2011, an HTML5 version of the YouTube player began supporting side-by-side 3D footage that is compatible with Nvidia 3D Vision.
Youtube offers users the option to watch content where?
57319f2f0fdd8d15006c63f9
outside their website
65
False
What is used to embed a youtube video to a webpage?
57319f2f0fdd8d15006c63fa
HTML
136
False
What is the most common use of embedded youtube videos?
57319f2f0fdd8d15006c63fb
social networking pages and blogs
254
False
What is a video called when a person records themselves watching a different video?
57319f2f0fdd8d15006c63fc
"video response"
397
False
When did youtube officially remove the response feature?
57319f2f0fdd8d15006c63fd
On August 27, 2013
415
False
embed it on any page on the Web
161
What does the HMTL piece that accompanies each video do?
5ace22f532bba1001ae49b83
True
embed YouTube videos in social networking pages and blogs
230
What is the HMTL functionality often used for?
5ace22f532bba1001ae49b84
True
that it would remove video responses for being an underused feature
453
What did YouTube announce on August 13, 2017?
5ace22f532bba1001ae49b85
True
Embedding, rating, commenting and response posting
522
What are the features video users can disable?
5ace22f532bba1001ae49b86
True
YouTube offers users the ability to view its videos on web pages outside their website. Each YouTube video is accompanied by a piece of HTML that can be used to embed it on any page on the Web. This functionality is often used to embed YouTube videos in social networking pages and blogs. Users wishing to post a video discussing, inspired by or related to another user's video are able to make a "video response". On August 27, 2013, YouTube announced that it would remove video responses for being an underused feature. Embedding, rating, commenting and response posting can be disabled by the video owner.
YOutube does not often post a what for its videos?
5731a004e99e3014001e6190
download link
33
False
Youtube intends for users to watch videos where?
5731a004e99e3014001e6191
through its website
97
False
What was added to the upload options in July of 2012?
5731a004e99e3014001e6192
a Creative Commons license
903
False
Which site removed the option of downloading youtube videos after 2012?
5731a004e99e3014001e6193
Zamzar
673
False
Which videos are often available for download straight from youtube?
5731a004e99e3014001e6194
the weekly addresses by President Barack Obama
162
False
a test service, allowing some partners to offer video downloads for free or for a fee paid through Google Checkout
384
What did YouTube announce in February 2012?
5ace23ca32bba1001ae49b8b
True
cease and desist letters
526
What did Google send in June 2009?
5ace23ca32bba1001ae49b8c
True
President Barack Obama
186
Whose weekly addresses could be downloaded as videos?
5ace23ca32bba1001ae49b8d
True
it has been possible to select a Creative Commons license as the default, allowing other users to reuse and remix the material if it is free of copyright.
872
What has been the status regarding Creative Commons since June 2012?
5ace23ca32bba1001ae49b8e
True
YouTube does not usually offer a download link for its videos, and intends for them to be viewed through its website interface. A small number of videos, such as the weekly addresses by President Barack Obama, can be downloaded as MP4 files. Numerous third-party web sites, applications and browser plug-ins allow users to download YouTube videos. In February 2009, YouTube announced a test service, allowing some partners to offer video downloads for free or for a fee paid through Google Checkout. In June 2012, Google sent cease and desist letters threatening legal action against several websites offering online download and conversion of YouTube videos. In response, Zamzar removed the ability to download YouTube videos from its site. The default settings when uploading a video to YouTube will retain a copyright on the video for the uploader, but since July 2012 it has been possible to select a Creative Commons license as the default, allowing other users to reuse and remix the material if it is free of copyright.
When did youtube become available on Apple products?
5731a0dee99e3014001e619a
June 2007
6
False
When did youtube launch its first app for the iPhone?
5731a0dee99e3014001e619b
September 2012
560
False
What percentage of Smartphone users use the youtube app?
5731a0dee99e3014001e619c
35%
784
False
What is Apple's prefered video standard?
5731a0dee99e3014001e619d
H.264
184
False
How long did it take to transfer Youtube's content to Apple's standard?
5731a0dee99e3014001e619e
several months
211
False
Apple
80
What company's products has YouTube's videos been available on since July 2007?
5ace248c32bba1001ae49ba5
True
preferred video standard
158
What is H.642 to Apple?
5ace248c32bba1001ae49ba6
True
the mobile version of the site
328
What was relaunched in June 2010?
5ace248c32bba1001ae49ba7
True
first app for the iPhone
597
What did YouTube launch in July 2012?
5ace248c32bba1001ae49ba8
True
35%
784
How many smartphone users used YouTube between April and June 2012?
5ace248c32bba1001ae49ba9
True
Since June 2007, YouTube's videos have been available for viewing on a range of Apple products. This required YouTube's content to be transcoded into Apple's preferred video standard, H.264, a process that took several months. YouTube videos can be viewed on devices including Apple TV, iPod Touch and the iPhone. In July 2010, the mobile version of the site was relaunched based on HTML5, avoiding the need to use Adobe Flash Player and optimized for use with touch screen controls. The mobile version is also available as an app for the Android platform. In September 2012, YouTube launched its first app for the iPhone, following the decision to drop YouTube as one of the preloaded apps in the iPhone 5 and iOS 6 operating system. According to GlobalWebIndex, YouTube was used by 35% of smartphone users between April and June 2013, making it the third most used app.
What service was able to search and play youtube videos as of 2008?
5731a1d3b9d445190005e41b
TiVo
2
False
What did youtube launch in Jan of 2009?
5731a1d3b9d445190005e41c
YouTube for TV
124
False
later in 2009 what service replaced youtube for TV
5731a1d3b9d445190005e41d
YouTube XL
352
False
Google made youtube streamable on what gaming console in DEC. of 2013?
5731a1d3b9d445190005e41e
the Roku player
798
False
When did youtube finally become available on the Playstation 4?
5731a1d3b9d445190005e41f
October 2014
842
False
YouTube for TV
124
What did YouTube launch in January 2008?
5ace284a32bba1001ae49bfb
True
YouTube XL
352
What was introduced in June 2008?
5ace284a32bba1001ae49bfc
True
an official app for the Wii
554
What was launched on November 12, 2015?
5ace284a32bba1001ae49bfd
True
YouTube available on the Roku player
777
What was made available on December 13, 2017?
5ace284a32bba1001ae49bfe
True
Sony PlayStation 4
860
What was YouTube made available on during October 2013?
5ace284a32bba1001ae49bff
True
A TiVo service update in July 2008 allowed the system to search and play YouTube videos. In January 2009, YouTube launched "YouTube for TV", a version of the website tailored for set-top boxes and other TV-based media devices with web browsers, initially allowing its videos to be viewed on the PlayStation 3 and Wii video game consoles. In June 2009, YouTube XL was introduced, which has a simplified interface designed for viewing on a standard television screen. YouTube is also available as an app on Xbox Live. On November 15, 2012, Google launched an official app for the Wii, allowing users to watch YouTube videos from the Wii channel. An app is also available for Wii U and Nintendo 3DS, and videos can be viewed on the Wii U Internet Browser using HTML5. Google made YouTube available on the Roku player on December 17, 2013 and in October 2014, the Sony PlayStation 4.
What is youtube red?
5731a25e0fdd8d15006c640d
YouTube's premium subscription service
15
False
When was youtube red originally announced?
5731a25e0fdd8d15006c640e
November 12, 2014
277
False
What was the original title of youtube red?
5731a25e0fdd8d15006c640f
Music Key
300
False
When was youtube red re-launched with its added features?
5731a25e0fdd8d15006c6410
October 28, 2015
455
False
What service was "music key" intended to replace?
5731a25e0fdd8d15006c6411
Google Play Music "All Access"
412
False
subscription service
33
What is YouTube Premium?
5ace294e32bba1001ae49c21
True
advertising-free streaming, access to exclusive content, background and offline video playback on mobile devices
65
What does YouTube Premium offer?
5ace294e32bba1001ae49c22
True
YouTube Red
237
What was originally announced on November 14, 2012?
5ace294e32bba1001ae49c23
True
Music Key
300
What was YouTube Premium originally called in 2014?
5ace294e32bba1001ae49c24
True
Music Key
300
What was relaunched on October 12, 2015?
5ace294e32bba1001ae49c25
True
YouTube Red is YouTube's premium subscription service. It offers advertising-free streaming, access to exclusive content, background and offline video playback on mobile devices, and access to the Google Play Music "All Access" service. YouTube Red was originally announced on November 12, 2014, as "Music Key", a subscription music streaming service, and was intended to integrate with and replace the existing Google Play Music "All Access" service. On October 28, 2015, the service was re-launched as YouTube Red, offering ad-free streaming of all videos, as well as access to exclusive original content.
Other than private individuals, who has used youtube to grow their audience?
5731a60de17f3d14004222af
large production companies
29
False
What is the name of youtube's revenue-sharing program?
5731a60de17f3d14004222b0
Partner Program
560
False
What was the highest earning youtube partner video producer?
5731a60de17f3d14004222b1
$12 million
781
False
Big pop artists account for how what percentage of the views on youtube?
5731a60de17f3d14004222b2
90.3%
1182
False
Which music chart said in 2013 it would start taking youtube data into account for its ratings?
5731a60de17f3d14004222b3
Billboard
1338
False
a free-to-use... promotional platform for the music labels
847
How did a 2012 MCU business editor characterize YouTube?
5ace2c7a32bba1001ae49c9f
True
digital-era artists' work must not only be of high quality, but must elicit reactions on the YouTube platform and social media
954
What did Katheryn Thayer say in 2012 about YouTube videos?
5ace2c7a32bba1001ae49ca0
True
"mega", "mainstream" and "mid-sized"
1136
What were 2.5% of artists categorized as in 2012?
5ace2c7a32bba1001ae49ca1
True
90.3%
1182
How many views did the 2.5% of artists receive in 2012?
5ace2c7a32bba1001ae49ca2
True
announced that it was factoring YouTube streaming data into calculation of the Billboard Hot 100 and related genre charts
1259
What did Billboard do in early 2012?
5ace2c7a32bba1001ae49ca3
True
Both private individuals and large production companies have used YouTube to grow audiences. Independent content creators have built grassroots followings numbering in the thousands at very little cost or effort, while mass retail and radio promotion proved problematic. Concurrently, old media celebrities moved into the website at the invitation of a YouTube management that witnessed early content creators accruing substantial followings, and perceived audience sizes potentially larger than that attainable by television. While YouTube's revenue-sharing "Partner Program" made it possible to earn a substantial living as a video producer—its top five hundred partners each earning more than $100,000 annually and its ten highest-earning channels grossing from $2.5 million to $12 million—in 2012 CMU business editor characterized YouTube as "a free-to-use... promotional platform for the music labels". In 2013 Forbes' Katheryn Thayer asserted that digital-era artists' work must not only be of high quality, but must elicit reactions on the YouTube platform and social media. In 2013, videos of the 2.5% of artists categorized as "mega", "mainstream" and "mid-sized" received 90.3% of the relevant views on YouTube and Vevo. By early 2013 Billboard had announced that it was factoring YouTube streaming data into calculation of the Billboard Hot 100 and related genre charts.
Who is the TED curator?
5731a7c9e99e3014001e61ae
Chris Anderson
149
False
What surprising feature does youtube possibly have the chance to revolutionize?
5731a7c9e99e3014001e61af
face-to-face communication
15
False
Who is the founder of the Khan Academy?
5731a7c9e99e3014001e61b0
Salman Khan
627
False
What other surprising aspect of human development will youtube likely have an impact on?
5731a7c9e99e3014001e61b1
education
532
False
Gutenberg
229
What famous historic figure did DET curator Chris Anderson reference?
5ace2dc532bba1001ae49cde
True
Khan Academy
560
What did Salman Noer found?
5ace2dc532bba1001ae49cdf
True
the largest school in the world
688
What did Michael Khan call the Kahn Academy?
5ace2dc532bba1001ae49ce0
True
Observing that face-to-face communication of the type that online videos convey has been "fine-tuned by millions of years of evolution", TED curator Chris Anderson referred to several YouTube contributors and asserted that "what Gutenberg did for writing, online video can now do for face-to-face communication". Anderson asserted that it's not far-fetched to say that online video will dramatically accelerate scientific advance, and that video contributors may be about to launch "the biggest learning cycle in human history." In education, for example, the Khan Academy grew from YouTube video tutoring sessions for founder Salman Khan's cousin into what Forbes'  Michael Noer called "the largest school in the world", with technology poised to disrupt how people learn.
An activist in the Arab spring said they were using Facebook to what?
5731a8f7e17f3d14004222cd
schedule the protests
489
False
An activist in the Arab spring said they were using Twitter to do what?
5731a8f7e17f3d14004222ce
coordinate
523
False
An activist in the Arab spring said they were using youtube to do what?
5731a8f7e17f3d14004222cf
tell the world
550
False
Who was the co-sponsor of the condemnation by the US Senate over the kony 2012 video?
5731a8f7e17f3d14004222d0
Senator Lindsey Graham
746
False
What year was the first youtube question asked to a presidential nominee?
5731a8f7e17f3d14004222d1
2007
117
False
CNN
83
Who did YouTube partner with to engage people in the 2010 presidential debates?
5ace2eea32bba1001ae49d09
True
organizing the political unrest involved using "Facebook to schedule the protests, Twitter to coordinate, and YouTube to tell the world."
429
What did Philip N. Howard say about 2012's Arab Spring?
5ace2eea32bba1001ae49d0a
True
more than a third of the U.S. Senate introduced a resolution condemning Joseph Kony
576
What happened 12 days after the "Kony 2016" video was posted on YouTube?
5ace2eea32bba1001ae49d0b
True
Senator Lindsey Graham
746
Who spoke about Kony's demise after the "Kony 2016" video?
5ace2eea32bba1001ae49d0c
True
YouTube has enabled people to more directly engage with government, such as in the CNN/YouTube presidential debates (2007) in which ordinary people submitted questions to U.S. presidential candidates via YouTube video, with a techPresident co-founder saying that Internet video was changing the political landscape. Describing the Arab Spring (2010- ), sociologist Philip N. Howard quoted an activist's succinct description that organizing the political unrest involved using "Facebook to schedule the protests, Twitter to coordinate, and YouTube to tell the world." In 2012, more than a third of the U.S. Senate introduced a resolution condemning Joseph Kony 16 days after the "Kony 2012" video was posted to YouTube, with resolution co-sponsor Senator Lindsey Graham remarking that the video "will do more to lead to (Kony's) demise than all other action combined."
How has youtube helped the government?
5731abcbb9d445190005e457
to more easily engage with citizens
48
False
the white house's youtube channel was the what number ranked news channel on youtube in 2012?
5731abcbb9d445190005e458
seventh
138
False
What was deemed necessary by the white house when creating youtube content?
5731abcbb9d445190005e459
creators' new media savvy
790
False
In 2013 who did the healthcare exchange commission to impersonate Obama and post it to youtube?
5731abcbb9d445190005e45a
Iman Crosson
262
False
What was the purpose of Iman Crosson's video?
5731abcbb9d445190005e45b
encourage young Americans to enroll
306
False
seventh top news organization producer
138
Where did the White House's official channel rank in 2013?
5ace2fd632bba1001ae49d2d
True
Iman Crosson
262
Whose 2012 video encouraged young Americans to enroll in the ACA?
5ace2fd632bba1001ae49d2e
True
U.S. President Obama
427
Who held a meeting to promote awareness of Obamacare in February 2013?
5ace2fd632bba1001ae49d2f
True
the "YouTube Generation".
636
Who was the target audience of President Obama's February 2013 YouTube meeting?
5ace2fd632bba1001ae49d30
True
Conversely, YouTube has also allowed government to more easily engage with citizens, the White House's official YouTube channel being the seventh top news organization producer on YouTube in 2012 and in 2013 a healthcare exchange commissioned Obama impersonator Iman Crosson's YouTube music video spoof to encourage young Americans to enroll in the Affordable Care Act (Obamacare)-compliant health insurance. In February 2014, U.S. President Obama held a meeting at the White House with leading YouTube content creators to not only promote awareness of Obamacare but more generally to develop ways for government to better connect with the "YouTube Generation". Whereas YouTube's inherent ability to allow presidents to directly connect with average citizens was noted, the YouTube content creators' new media savvy was perceived necessary to better cope with the website's distracting content and fickle audience.
What is the name of the group that drew responses from the resident and most of his staff regarding anti-bullying?
5731ae9f0fdd8d15006c6451
It Gets Better Project
18
False
How ling did it take the It Gets Better Project video to draw such a huge response?
5731ae9f0fdd8d15006c6452
within two months
131
False
How old was Amanda Todd when she took her own life because of bullying?
5731ae9f0fdd8d15006c6453
fifteen
323
False
What was done after Amanda Todd's death?
5731ae9f0fdd8d15006c6454
legislative action was undertaken
414
False
What was the goal of the actions taken after Amanda Todd's death?
5731ae9f0fdd8d15006c6455
form a national anti-bullying strategy
525
False
It Gets Better Project
18
What project was aimed toward LTBG teens?
5ace308732bba1001ae49d51
True
U.S. President Barack Obama, Vice President Biden, White House staff, and several cabinet secretaries
194
Who did the It Gets Better video draw responses from within 15 months?
5ace308732bba1001ae49d52
True
Amanda Todd
340
Whose video prompted legislative action within two months?
5ace308732bba1001ae49d53
True
The anti-bullying It Gets Better Project expanded from a single YouTube video directed to discouraged or suicidal LGBT teens, that within two months drew video responses from hundreds including U.S. President Barack Obama, Vice President Biden, White House staff, and several cabinet secretaries. Similarly, in response to fifteen-year-old Amanda Todd's video "My story: Struggling, bullying, suicide, self-harm", legislative action was undertaken almost immediately after her suicide to study the prevalence of bullying and form a national anti-bullying strategy.
How much time does the average person spend watching youtube videos each day?
5731af89e17f3d14004222f5
15 minutes
355
False
What is the average time an American watches TV in day?
5731af89e17f3d14004222f6
four or five hours
404
False
What was youtube's estimated ads revenue in 2013?
5731af89e17f3d14004222f7
3.7 billion
547
False
What was youtube's revenue as estimated in 2008?
5731af89e17f3d14004222f8
$200 million
224
False
Youtube's financial records are not reported by who?
5731af89e17f3d14004222f9
Google
0
False
$200 million
224
What did Forbes project as YouTube's revenue in January 2008?
5ace329832bba1001ae49d9b
True
15 minutes a day
355
How much time did visitors spend on YouTube per day in January 2013?
5ace329832bba1001ae49d9c
True
2012
485
What year did YouTube's revenue from its ads program hit 3.6 billion?
5ace329832bba1001ae49d9d
True
2013
563
What year did YouTube double its ad revenue to 5.7 billion dollars?
5ace329832bba1001ae49d9e
True
Google does not provide detailed figures for YouTube's running costs, and YouTube's revenues in 2007 were noted as "not material" in a regulatory filing. In June 2008, a Forbes magazine article projected the 2008 revenue at $200 million, noting progress in advertising sales. In January 2012, it was estimated that visitors to YouTube spent an average of 15 minutes a day on the site, in contrast to the four or five hours a day spent by a typical U.S. citizen watching television. In 2012, YouTube's revenue from its ads program was estimated at 3.7 billion. In 2013 it nearly doubled and estimated to hit 5.6 billion dollars according to eMarketer, others estimated 4.7 billion,
When did youtube enter a partnership with NBC?
5731b2e7e99e3014001e61d2
June 2006
73
False
What is the name of the section in youtube that allows major content publishers to post full length movies and episodes?
5731b2e7e99e3014001e61d3
Shows
328
False
What was the intended purpose of youtube's "shows" section?
5731b2e7e99e3014001e61d4
to create competition
358
False
When did youtube launch the version of "shows" for the UK?
5731b2e7e99e3014001e61d5
In November 2009
459
False
In 2010 how many movies did youtube's rental service offer?
5731b2e7e99e3014001e61d6
over 6,000 films
769
False
YouTube
0
Who entered into a partnership during June 2008 with NBC?
5ace33a232bba1001ae49def
True
MGM, Lions Gate Entertainment, and CBS
136
Who did YouTube reach agreements with in November 2006?
5ace33a232bba1001ae49df0
True
"Shows" available to UK viewers
507
What did YouTube launch in June 2009?
5ace33a232bba1001ae49df1
True
online film rentals service
647
What did YouTube introduce in November 2010?
5ace33a232bba1001ae49df2
True
YouTube entered into a marketing and advertising partnership with NBC in June 2006. In November 2008, YouTube reached an agreement with MGM, Lions Gate Entertainment, and CBS, allowing the companies to post full-length films and television episodes on the site, accompanied by advertisements in a section for US viewers called "Shows". The move was intended to create competition with websites such as Hulu, which features material from NBC, Fox, and Disney. In November 2009, YouTube launched a version of "Shows" available to UK viewers, offering around 4,000 full-length shows from more than 60 partners. In January 2010, YouTube introduced an online film rentals service, which is available only to users in the US, Canada and the UK as of 2010. The service offers over 6,000 films.
What was youtube's 2007 partner program based on?
5731b403e99e3014001e61dc
AdSense
69
False
What percentage of revenue does youtube get for ads on "partner program" channels?
5731b403e99e3014001e61dd
45 percent
198
False
How many people are employed by the partner program?
5731b403e99e3014001e61de
over a million
321
False
As per estimate in 2013 how much would a partner program member earn with ad revenue off of pre-roll advertising per 1000 views?
5731b403e99e3014001e61df
$2.09
756
False
How much ad revenue goes to the original uploader of the youtube video if they're in the partner program?
5731b403e99e3014001e61e0
55 percent
277
False
Partner Program
34
What did YouTube launch in May 2013?
5ace365932bba1001ae49e85
True
videos in the Partner Program
241
YouTube typically takes 55% of the revenue from where?
5ace365932bba1001ae49e86
True
the uploader
297
Who does 45% of the advertising revenue go to?
5ace365932bba1001ae49e87
True
over a million members
321
How many members were in the YouTube Partner Program according to TubeMogul in 2007?
5ace365932bba1001ae49e88
True
In May 2007, YouTube launched its Partner Program, a system based on AdSense which allows the uploader of the video to share the revenue produced by advertising on the site. YouTube typically takes 45 percent of the advertising revenue from videos in the Partner Program, with 55 percent going to the uploader. There are over a million members of the YouTube Partner Program. According to TubeMogul, in 2013 a pre-roll advertisement on YouTube (one that is shown before the video starts) cost advertisers on average $7.60 per 1000 views. Usually no more than half of eligible videos have a pre-roll advertisement, due to a lack of interested advertisers. Assuming pre-roll advertisements on half of videos, a YouTube partner would earn 0.5 X $7.60 X 55% = $2.09 per 1000 views in 2013.
Where does the majority of youtube's revenue go?
5731b52eb9d445190005e489
to the copyright holders
31
False
In 2010 what were the estimates for the amount of videos with advertisements uploaded without the copywriter's consent?
5731b52eb9d445190005e48a
nearly a third
100
False
Which major gaming company claimed copyright ad revenue rights against uploaders?
5731b52eb9d445190005e48b
Nintendo
508
False
When did Nintendo finally agree to share ad profits with the original uploaders?
5731b52eb9d445190005e48c
February 2015
493
False
What option besides removing the video does youtube grant copyright holders?
5731b52eb9d445190005e48d
have them continue running for revenue
294
False
its copyright ownership
372
What did Nintendo start enforcing in 2015?
5ace370d32bba1001ae49eb5
True
revenue
537
What did Nintendo agree to share in 2013?
5ace370d32bba1001ae49eb6
True
nearly a third
100
How many videos with advertisements were uploaded without the copyright holder's permission in 2013?
5ace370d32bba1001ae49eb7
True
Much of YouTube's revenue goes to the copyright holders of the videos. In 2010 it was reported that nearly a third of the videos with advertisements were uploaded without permission of the copyright holders. YouTube gives an option for copyright holders to locate and remove their videos or to have them continue running for revenue. In May 2013, Nintendo began enforcing its copyright ownership and claiming the advertising revenue from video creators who posted screenshots of its games. In February 2015, Nintendo agreed to share the revenue with the video creators.
What does the message when uploading a video ask the user not to do?
5731b629b9d445190005e493
violate copyright laws
87
False
Posting a video without consent of the copyright holder is what according to youtube?
5731b629b9d445190005e494
unauthorized
153
False
How many copyright infringements must an account have before the account is deleted?
5731b629b9d445190005e495
Three
421
False
Youtube doesn't do what to videos before they're posted?
5731b629b9d445190005e496
view
225
False
What kind of notice must a copyright holder issue when trying to take down content?
5731b629b9d445190005e497
DMCA
315
False
issue a DMCA takedown notice
307
What does the Online Copyright Liability Limitation Infringement Act allow copyright holders to do?
5ace37cb32bba1001ae49edd
True
copyright laws
95
What are YouTube users asked to violate when uploading a video?
5ace37cb32bba1001ae49ede
True
Online Copyright Infringement Liability Limitation Act
365
What Act allows for a DCAM takedown notice?
5ace37cb32bba1001ae49edf
True
At the time of uploading a video, YouTube users are shown a message asking them not to violate copyright laws. Despite this advice, there are still many unauthorized clips of copyrighted material on YouTube. YouTube does not view videos before they are posted online, and it is left to copyright holders to issue a DMCA takedown notice pursuant to the terms of the Online Copyright Infringement Liability Limitation Act. Three successful complaints for copyright infringement against a user account will result in the account and all of its uploaded videos being deleted.
Companies including Viacom and Mediaset have done what against youtube?
5731b70ce17f3d14004222ff
filed lawsuits
78
False
How much did Viacom want in damages in their lawsuit against youtube?
5731b70ce17f3d1400422300
$1 billion
215
False
What does youtube do to prevent losing lawsuits involving copyright infringement?
5731b70ce17f3d1400422301
goes far beyond its legal obligations
419
False
How many unauthorized clips did Viacom allegedly find on youtube that infringed its copyrights?
5731b70ce17f3d1400422302
150,000
271
False
Viacom, Mediaset, and the English Premier League
24
What organizations has YouTube filed lawsuits against?
5ace398732bba1001ae49f2f
True
Viacom
197
Who demanded $1.5 billion in damages?
5ace398732bba1001ae49f30
True
Viacom
197
Who found that their content had been viewed "an astounding 1 billion times?"
5ace398732bba1001ae49f31
True
Organizations including Viacom, Mediaset, and the English Premier League have filed lawsuits against YouTube, claiming that it has done too little to prevent the uploading of copyrighted material. Viacom, demanding $1 billion in damages, said that it had found more than 150,000 unauthorized clips of its material on YouTube that had been viewed "an astounding 1.5 billion times". YouTube responded by stating that it "goes far beyond its legal obligations in assisting content owners to protect their works".
How much data did youtube have to hand over to Viacom as a result of the lawsuit?
5731b7dcb9d445190005e4bb
12 terabytes
87
False
Which organization spoke against the courts ruling?
5731b7dcb9d445190005e4bc
Electronic Frontier Foundation
222
False
What did Viacom plan to do after the ruling in 2010?
5731b7dcb9d445190005e4bd
appeal
561
False
What happened to Viacom's lawsuit in 2010?
5731b7dcb9d445190005e4be
rejected in a summary judgment
365
False
Who was the residing judge of the lawsuit?
5731b7dcb9d445190005e4bf
Louis L. Stanton
421
False
Viacom
30
Who won a court ruling requiring YouTube to hand over 10 terabytes of data?
5ace3ae832bba1001ae49f95
True
Viacom
30
Whose lawsuit was rejected in June 2012?
5ace3ae832bba1001ae49f96
True
Viacom
329
Whose lawsuit was rejected when Judge Stanton L. Louis cited protection under the Digital Millennium Copyright Act?
5ace3ae832bba1001ae49f97
True
Google
451
What company did the Millennium Copyright Digital Act end up protecting?
5ace3ae832bba1001ae49f98
True
During the same court battle, Viacom won a court ruling requiring YouTube to hand over 12 terabytes of data detailing the viewing habits of every user who has watched videos on the site. The decision was criticized by the Electronic Frontier Foundation, which called the court ruling "a setback to privacy rights". In June 2010, Viacom's lawsuit against Google was rejected in a summary judgment, with U.S. federal Judge Louis L. Stanton stating that Google was protected by provisions of the Digital Millennium Copyright Act. Viacom announced its intention to appeal the ruling.
In 2007 youtube launched an automated system to detect what?
5731b8df0fdd8d15006c6497
videos that infringe copyright
83
False
Who was Google's CEO in 2007?
5731b8df0fdd8d15006c6498
Eric Schmidt
126
False
Why did the CEO of Google think the new software was necessary?
5731b8df0fdd8d15006c6499
resolving lawsuits
177
False
What is the name of the system that automatically detects copyright violations?
5731b8df0fdd8d15006c649a
Content ID
354
False
What does Content ID do if an upload is too close a match to a known copyright material?
5731b8df0fdd8d15006c649b
flags the video
522
False
Eric Schmidt
126
Who is YouTube's CEO?
5ace3d2232bba1001ae49fdf
True
Content ID
354
What system did Eric Schmidt come up with?
5ace3d2232bba1001ae49fe0
True
June 2007
3
When did Google begin trials of Content ID?
5ace3d2232bba1001ae49fe1
True
In June 2007, YouTube began trials of a system for automatic detection of uploaded videos that infringe copyright. Google CEO Eric Schmidt regarded this system as necessary for resolving lawsuits such as the one from Viacom, which alleged that YouTube profited from content that it did not have the right to distribute. The system, which became known as Content ID, creates an ID File for copyrighted audio and video material, and stores it in a database. When a video is uploaded, it is checked against the database, and flags the video as a copyright violation if a match is found.
What was the ultimate view of Content ID's performance after a 2009 test?
5731b9c0e17f3d1400422339
surprisingly resilient
125
False
As of 2010 what is the maximum length of a video a user can upload given the proper authority?
5731b9c0e17f3d140042233a
unlimited
669
False
How does one dispute the ruling of Content ID?
5731b9c0e17f3d140042233b
fill in a form
466
False
What happened to the sites rules in Dec. 2010?
5731b9c0e17f3d140042233c
were modified
598
False
that while the system was "surprisingly resilient" in finding copyright violations in the audio tracks of videos, it was not infallible
98
What did a 2010 independent test find?
5ace3e0e32bba1001ae4a011
True
the effectiveness of Content ID
523
What is one of the reasons YouTube's rules were modified in December 2009?
5ace3e0e32bba1001ae4a012
True
YouTube
394
What company ran the 2009 test of Content ID?
5ace3e0e32bba1001ae4a013
True
An independent test in 2009 uploaded multiple versions of the same song to YouTube, and concluded that while the system was "surprisingly resilient" in finding copyright violations in the audio tracks of videos, it was not infallible. The use of Content ID to remove material automatically has led to controversy in some cases, as the videos have not been checked by a human for fair use. If a YouTube user disagrees with a decision by Content ID, it is possible to fill in a form disputing the decision. YouTube has cited the effectiveness of Content ID as one of the reasons why the site's rules were modified in December 2010 to allow some users to upload videos of unlimited length.
Youtube depends on who to flag inappropriate videos?
5731ba99e99e3014001e620e
users
22
False
Who checks the flagged videos for unauthorized content?
5731ba99e99e3014001e620f
a YouTube employee
80
False
The United Kingdom stated it was what with youtube's policies with moderating its content?
5731ba99e99e3014001e6210
unimpressed
299
False
When did the UK speak out against youtube's copyright policies?
5731ba99e99e3014001e6211
In July 2008
187
False
Who of the house of commons spoke out on youtube's policies?
5731ba99e99e3014001e6212
the Culture and Media Committee
201
False
the content of videos as inappropriate
36
What do uses rely on YouTube to flag?
5ace42bb32bba1001ae4a0f2
True
the Culture and Media Committee of the House of Commons of the United Kingdom
201
Who said they were impressed in 2008?
5ace42bb32bba1001ae4a0f3
True
proactive review of content should be standard practice for sites hosting user-generated content
376
What did the Media and Culture Committee of the House of Commons of the UK argue?
5ace42bb32bba1001ae4a0f4
True
YouTube relies on its users to flag the content of videos as inappropriate, and a YouTube employee will view a flagged video to determine whether it violates the site's terms of service. In July 2008, the Culture and Media Committee of the House of Commons of the United Kingdom stated that it was "unimpressed" with YouTube's system for policing its videos, and argued that "proactive review of content should be standard practice for sites hosting user-generated content". YouTube responded by stating:
Most videos enable users to do what
5731bb78b9d445190005e4d9
leave comments
28
False
What has attracted negative attention about comments on youtube besides their content?
5731bb78b9d445190005e4da
their form
112
False
Time in 2006 wrote that youtube harnessed the wisdom and what else of humanity?
5731bb78b9d445190005e4db
stupidity
277
False
Which magazine wrote about youtube in a 2009 article on user comments?
5731bb78b9d445190005e4dc
The Guardian
470
False
Some of the positive aspects of youtube might be that it provides what on a scale we've never seen before?
5731bb78b9d445190005e4dd
community and collaboration
180
False
"community and collaboration on a scale never seen before"
179
What did Time say about YouTube in 2009?
5ace461032bba1001ae4a15d
True
Some of the comments on YouTube make you weep for the future of humanity just for the spelling alone, never mind the obscenity and the naked hatred
320
What did the Guardian say about the comments on YouTube in 2006?
5ace461032bba1001ae4a15e
True
Web 2.0
158
What did Time praise in 2009?
5ace461032bba1001ae4a15f
True
comments
34
What can users leave on all videos?
5ace461032bba1001ae4a160
True
Most videos enable users to leave comments, and these have attracted attention for the negative aspects of both their form and content. In 2006, Time praised Web 2.0 for enabling "community and collaboration on a scale never seen before", and added that YouTube "harnesses the stupidity of crowds as well as its wisdom. Some of the comments on YouTube make you weep for the future of humanity just for the spelling alone, never mind the obscenity and the naked hatred". The Guardian in 2009 described users' comments on YouTube as:
When did youtube first require the user to have a google account before posting a comment?
5731bcb1b9d445190005e4e3
November 6, 2013
3
False
The changes to the google+ additions allowed uploaders to better moderate and what to comments?
5731bcb1b9d445190005e4e4
block
363
False
There were better sorting functions put in place in 2013 to make sure what kind of comments appeared on top?
5731bcb1b9d445190005e4e5
more relevant discussions
433
False
What is youtube co-founder Karim's first name?
5731bcb1b9d445190005e4e6
Jawed
637
False
How many thumbs down votes did youtube's official statement about the new commenting system get within two days?
5731bcb1b9d445190005e4e7
20,097
848
False
a new comment system
40
What did Google implement on November 13, 2006?
5ace472c32bba1001ae4a183
True
why the fuck do I need a google+ account to comment on a video?
670
What did Karim Jawed post on his YouTube Channel in response to the policy change?
5ace472c32bba1001ae4a184
True
Google+ is nowhere near as popular a social media network as Facebook, but it's essentially being forced upon millions of YouTube users
997
What did Melvin Chase note about Google+?
5ace472c32bba1001ae4a185
True
Discussion forums across the Internet are already bursting with outcry against the new comment system
1197
What did Melvin Chase say about the discussion forums?
5ace472c32bba1001ae4a186
True
On November 6, 2013, Google implemented a new comment system that requires all YouTube users to use a Google+ account in order to comment on videos and making the comment system Google+ oriented. The changes are in large part an attempt to address the frequent criticisms of the quality and tone of YouTube comments. They give creators more power to moderate and block comments, and add new sorting mechanisms to ensure that better, more relevant discussions appear at the top. The new system restored the ability to include URLs in comments, which had previously been removed due to problems with abuse. In response, YouTube co-founder Jawed Karim posted the question "why the fuck do I need a google+ account to comment on a video?" on his YouTube channel to express his negative opinion of the change. The official YouTube announcement received 20,097 "thumbs down" votes and generated more than 32,000 comments in two days. Writing in the Newsday blog Silicon Island, Chase Melvin noted that "Google+ is nowhere near as popular a social media network as Facebook, but it's essentially being forced upon millions of YouTube users who don't want to lose their ability to comment on videos" and "Discussion forums across the Internet are already bursting with outcry against the new comment system". In the same article Melvin goes on to say:
youtube is completely what in some places?
5731bd48e17f3d1400422365
blocked
41
False
Why besides limited periods of time would youtube not be allowed in a country?
5731bd48e17f3d1400422366
long term standing ban
67
False
What might happen in a restrictive state even if you do have access to the youtube site itself?
5731bd48e17f3d1400422367
specific videos is blocked
319
False
during periods of unrest, the run-up to an election, or in response to upcoming political anniversaries
134
Why was YouTube completely blocked in all countries?
5ace488632bba1001ae4a193
True
agree to remove or limit access to that video in order to restore service.
436
What does YouTube do when a video is banned in all countries?
5ace488632bba1001ae4a194
True
will often agree to remove or limit access to that video in order to restore service.
425
What does YouTube do when the entire is site is blocked in all countries because of one video?
5ace488632bba1001ae4a195
True
In some countries, YouTube is completely blocked, either through a long term standing ban or for more limited periods of time such as during periods of unrest, the run-up to an election, or in response to upcoming political anniversaries. In other countries access to the website as a whole remains open, but access to specific videos is blocked. In cases where the entire site is banned due to one particular video, YouTube will often agree to remove or limit access to that video in order to restore service.
How many independent labels did the Merlin Network represent?
5731becde17f3d140042237b
20,000
1104
False
What was the percentage of labels youtube had signed contracts with prior to the planned launch date?
5731becde17f3d140042237c
90%
705
False
What was youtube planning on doing to labels it did not reach a deal with?
5731becde17f3d140042237d
block all music content
325
False
Why did youtube want to ensure only contractees music was played?
5731becde17f3d140042237e
to launch the enhanced music experience
932
False
Which journalistic organization released the reports of youtube's agreement with the Merlin Network?
5731becde17f3d140042237f
The Financial Times
974
False
Music Key
65
What service launched in May 2014 was a subscription based service?
5ace498c32bba1001ae4a1c9
True
YouTube would block the content of labels who do not negotiate deals to be included in the paid service
501
What did Robert Kyncl confirm in May 2014?
5ace498c32bba1001ae4a1ca
True
"to ensure that all content on the platform is governed by its new contractual terms
605
What reason did Robert Kyncl give in May 2014 for YouTube blocking content labels?
5ace498c32bba1001ae4a1cb
True
deals
731
What did Kyncl say 100% of the labels had reached?
5ace498c32bba1001ae4a1cc
True
In May 2014, prior to the launch of YouTube's subscription-based Music Key service, the independent music trade organization Worldwide Independent Network alleged that YouTube was using non-negotiable contracts with independent labels that were "undervalued" in comparison to other streaming services, and that YouTube would block all music content from labels who do not reach a deal to be included on the paid service. In a statement to the Financial Times in June 2014, Robert Kyncl confirmed that YouTube would block the content of labels who do not negotiate deals to be included in the paid service "to ensure that all content on the platform is governed by its new contractual terms." Stating that 90% of labels had reached deals, he went on to say that "while we wish that we had [a] 100% success rate, we understand that is not likely an achievable goal and therefore it is our responsibility to our users and the industry to launch the enhanced music experience." The Financial Times later reported that YouTube had reached an aggregate deal with Merlin Network—a trade group representing over 20,000 independent labels, for their inclusion in the service. However, YouTube itself has not confirmed the deal.
Separation_of_church_and_state_in_the_United_States
Who made a metaphor about a wall of separation?
5731b311b9d445190005e46b
Jefferson
0
False
What has the U.S. Supreme Court repeatedly cited?
5731b311b9d445190005e46c
metaphor
12
False
When was the case of Reynolds v. United States?
5731b311b9d445190005e46d
1879
128
False
What did the Court write about Jefferson's comments as it related to the scope and effect of the First Amendment?
5731b311b9d445190005e46e
authoritative declaration
206
False
What was the clause against establishment of religion by law intended to erect?
5731b311b9d445190005e46f
a wall of separation between church and state
459
False
Jefferson's
0
Who refused a metaphor about a wall of separation?
5ad138d1645df0001a2d1244
True
metaphor
12
What has the U.S. Supreme Court repeatedly denied?
5ad138d1645df0001a2d1245
True
1879
128
When was the case of Reynolds v. UN?
5ad138d1645df0001a2d1246
True
authoritative declaration
206
What did the Court write about Jefferson's comments as it related to the scope and effect of the Third Amendment?
5ad138d1645df0001a2d1247
True
wall of separation between church and state
461
What was the clause against establishment of non-religion by law intended to erect?
5ad138d1645df0001a2d1248
True
Jefferson's metaphor of a wall of separation has been cited repeatedly by the U.S. Supreme Court. In Reynolds v. United States (1879) the Court wrote that Jefferson's comments "may be accepted almost as an authoritative declaration of the scope and effect of the [First] Amendment." In Everson v. Board of Education (1947), Justice Hugo Black wrote: "In the words of Thomas Jefferson, the clause against establishment of religion by law was intended to erect a wall of separation between church and state."
What was one of the reason early immigrant groups came to America?
5731b3b7b9d445190005e475
to worship freely
48
False
What were Protestant Christians fleeing from?
5731b3b7b9d445190005e476
religious persecution
241
False
Who was persecuting the Puritans?
5731b3b7b9d445190005e477
King of England
281
False
What did William Penn ensure the protection of in his colony?
5731b3b7b9d445190005e478
religious minorities
490
False
What did the Plymouth Colony and Massachusetts Bay Colony both establish?
5731b3b7b9d445190005e479
churches
611
False
worship freely
51
What was one of the reason late immigrant groups came to America?
5ad1395a645df0001a2d126a
True
religious persecution
241
What were Protestant Christians not fleeing from?
5ad1395a645df0001a2d126b
True
King of England
281
Who wasn't persecuting the Puritans?
5ad1395a645df0001a2d126c
True
religious minorities
490
What did William Penn deny the protection of in his colony?
5ad1395a645df0001a2d126d
True
churches
611
What did the Plymouth Colony and Massachusetts Bay Colony both reject?
5ad1395a645df0001a2d126e
True
Many early immigrant groups traveled to America to worship freely, particularly after the English Civil War and religious conflict in France and Germany. They included nonconformists like the Puritans, who were Protestant Christians fleeing religious persecution from the Anglican King of England. Despite a common background, the groups' views on religious toleration were mixed. While some such as Roger Williams of Rhode Island and William Penn of Pennsylvania ensured the protection of religious minorities within their colonies, others like the Plymouth Colony and Massachusetts Bay Colony had established churches. The Dutch colony of New Netherland established the Dutch Reformed Church and outlawed all other worship, though enforcement was sparse. Religious conformity was desired partly for financial reasons: the established Church was responsible for poverty relief, putting dissenting churches at a significant disadvantage.
What may no person within Georgia be deprived of the privilege of doing in any manner agreeable to them?
5731b46ee99e3014001e61e6
worshipping God
189
False
When was the Georgia Constitution amended to add Article IV, Section 10?
5731b46ee99e3014001e61e7
1789
12
False
What can a citizen of Georgia not be compelled to do?
5731b46ee99e3014001e61e8
attend any place of worship contrary to his own faith and judgment
272
False
What is constitutionally forbidden to be established in the state of Georgia?
5731b46ee99e3014001e61e9
No one religious society
591
False
What will no person be denied the enjoyment of in Georgia based on their religious principles?
5731b46ee99e3014001e61ea
any civil right
731
False
worshipping God
189
What may every person within Georgia be deprived of the privilege of doing in any manner agreeable to them?
5ad13994645df0001a2d127e
True
1789
12
When was the Georgia Constitution amended to add Article VI, Section 10?
5ad13994645df0001a2d127f
True
attend any place of worship
272
What can't a citizen of Georgia not be compelled to do?
5ad13994645df0001a2d1280
True
No one religious society
591
What is constitutionally allowed to be established in the state of Georgia?
5ad13994645df0001a2d1281
True
any civil right
731
What will every person be denied the enjoyment of in Georgia based on their religious principles?
5ad13994645df0001a2d1282
True
^Note 2: in 1789 the Georgia Constitution was amended as follows: "Article IV. Section 10. No person within this state shall, upon any pretense, be deprived of the inestimable privilege of worshipping God in any manner agreeable to his own conscience, nor be compelled to attend any place of worship contrary to his own faith and judgment; nor shall he ever be obliged to pay tithes, taxes, or any other rate, for the building or repairing any place of worship, or for the maintenance of any minister or ministry, contrary to what he believes to be right, or hath voluntarily engaged to do. No one religious society shall ever be established in this state, in preference to another; nor shall any person be denied the enjoyment of any civil right merely on account of his religious principles."
When did the North Carolina Constitution disestablish the Anglican church?
5731b510e99e3014001e61f0
1776
44
False
What religious denomination was the only one allowed to hold public office in NC until 1835?
5731b510e99e3014001e61f1
Protestants
133
False
What category did the NC Constitution broaden the people allowed to hold public office to from 1835 to 1876?
5731b510e99e3014001e61f2
Christians
199
False
What part of the NC Constitution forbids atheists from holding public office?
5731b510e99e3014001e61f3
Article VI, Section 8
255
False
When did the U.S. Supreme Court rule clauses forbidding people from holding public office based on their religion was unenforceable?
5731b510e99e3014001e61f4
1961
443
False
1776
44
When did the North Carolina Constitution establish the Anglican church?
5ad139e9645df0001a2d129c
True
Protestants
133
What religious denomination wasn't the only one allowed to hold public office in NC until 1835?
5ad139e9645df0001a2d129d
True
Christians
199
What category did the NC Constitution broaden the people allowed to hold public office to from 1935 to 1976?
5ad139e9645df0001a2d129e
True
Article VI, Section 8
255
What part of the NC Constitution allows atheists to hold public office?
5ad139e9645df0001a2d129f
True
1961
443
When did the U.S. Supreme Court rule clauses allow people to hold public office based on their religion was unenforceable?
5ad139e9645df0001a2d12a0
True
^Note 5: The North Carolina Constitution of 1776 disestablished the Anglican church, but until 1835 the NC Constitution allowed only Protestants to hold public office. From 1835-1876 it allowed only Christians (including Catholics) to hold public office. Article VI, Section 8 of the current NC Constitution forbids only atheists from holding public office. Such clauses were held by the United States Supreme Court to be unenforceable in the 1961 case of Torcaso v. Watkins, when the court ruled unanimously that such clauses constituted a religious test incompatible with First and Fourteenth Amendment protections.
What shows support for the separation of church and state as early as the mid-17th century?
5731b5b50fdd8d15006c646f
The Flushing Remonstrance
0
False
What were the Remonstrance opposed to?
5731b5b50fdd8d15006c6470
religious persecution of any sort
137
False
When did a group of English citizens sign a document condemning hatred, war and bondage?
5731b5b50fdd8d15006c6471
December 27, 1657
472
False
Who were the signers of the document affronted by the persecution of?
5731b5b50fdd8d15006c6472
Quakers
569
False
What had Peter Stuyvesant formally banned all of other than the Dutch Reformed Church?
5731b5b50fdd8d15006c6473
religions
692
False
The Flushing Remonstrance
0
What shows support for the separation of church and state as late as the mid-17th century?
5ad13a2f645df0001a2d12b8
True
religious persecution
137
What were the Remonstrance not opposed to?
5ad13a2f645df0001a2d12b9
True
December 27, 1657
472
When did a group of English citizens reject a document condemning hatred, war and bondage?
5ad13a2f645df0001a2d12ba
True
Quakers
1129
Who were the rejecters of the document affronted by the persecution of?
5ad13a2f645df0001a2d12bb
True
religions
692
What had Peter Stuyvesant formally approved all of other than the Dutch Reformed Church?
5ad13a2f645df0001a2d12bc
True
The Flushing Remonstrance shows support for separation of church and state as early as the mid-17th century, stating their opposition to religious persecution of any sort: "The law of love, peace and liberty in the states extending to Jews, Turks and Egyptians, as they are considered sons of Adam, which is the glory of the outward state of Holland, so love, peace and liberty, extending to all in Christ Jesus, condemns hatred, war and bondage." The document was signed December 27, 1657 by a group of English citizens in America who were affronted by persecution of Quakers and the religious policies of the Governor of New Netherland, Peter Stuyvesant. Stuyvesant had formally banned all religions other than the Dutch Reformed Church from being practiced in the colony, in accordance with the laws of the Dutch Republic. The signers indicated their "desire therefore in this case not to judge lest we be judged, neither to condemn least we be condemned, but rather let every man stand or fall to his own Master." Stuyvesant fined the petitioners and threw them in prison until they recanted. However, John Bowne allowed the Quakers to meet in his home. Bowne was arrested, jailed, and sent to the Netherlands for trial; the Dutch court exonerated Bowne.
What did an established church, even at the state level, have?
5731b690b9d445190005e49d
opponents
16
False
What was Issac Backus' profession?
5731b690b9d445190005e49e
Baptist minister
127
False
What region did Isaac Backus come from?
5731b690b9d445190005e49f
New England
147
False
When did Isaac Backus write against a state sanctioned religion?
5731b690b9d445190005e4a0
1773
95
False
When was Thomas Jefferson's Virginia Statute for Religious Freedom enacted?
5731b690b9d445190005e4a1
1786
707
False
opponents
16
What didn't an established church, even at the state level, have?
5ad13a64645df0001a2d12ca
True
1773
95
When was Issac Backus' born?
5ad13a64645df0001a2d12cb
True
New England
147
What city did Isaac Backus come from?
5ad13a64645df0001a2d12cc
True
1773
95
When did Isaac Backus write supporting a state sanctioned religion?
5ad13a64645df0001a2d12cd
True
1786
707
When was Thomas Jefferson's Virginia Statute for Religious Freedom rejected?
5ad13a64645df0001a2d12ce
True
There were also opponents to the support of any established church even at the state level. In 1773, Isaac Backus, a prominent Baptist minister in New England, wrote against a state sanctioned religion, saying: "Now who can hear Christ declare, that his kingdom is, not of this world, and yet believe that this blending of church and state together can be pleasing to him?" He also observed that when "church and state are separate, the effects are happy, and they do not at all interfere with each other: but where they have been confounded together, no tongue nor pen can fully describe the mischiefs that have ensued." Thomas Jefferson's influential Virginia Statute for Religious Freedom was enacted in 1786, five years before the Bill of Rights.
Who was Roger Williams?
5731b71e0fdd8d15006c6483
Baptist theologian
128
False
What phrase did Roger Williams first use?
5731b71e0fdd8d15006c6484
"[A] hedge or wall of separation between the garden of the church and the wilderness of the world"
11
False
What colony was Roger Williams the founder of?
5731b71e0fdd8d15006c6485
Rhode Island
192
False
When was the book The Bloody Tenent of Persecution published?
5731b71e0fdd8d15006c6486
1644
213
False
Who used William's phrase as a description of the First Amendment and its restriction on the legislative branch?
5731b71e0fdd8d15006c6487
Thomas Jefferson
286
False
Roger Williams
147
Who was a non-Baptist theologian?
5ad13aec645df0001a2d12ee
True
hedge or wall of separation between the garden of the church and the wilderness of the world
16
What phrase did Roger Williams never use?
5ad13aec645df0001a2d12ef
True
Rhode Island
192
What colony did Roger Williams escape from?
5ad13aec645df0001a2d12f0
True
1644
213
When was the book The Bloody Tenent of Persecution burned?
5ad13aec645df0001a2d12f1
True
Thomas Jefferson
286
Who used William's phrase as a description of the Third Amendment and its restriction on the legislative branch?
5ad13aec645df0001a2d12f2
True
The phrase "[A] hedge or wall of separation between the garden of the church and the wilderness of the world" was first used by Baptist theologian Roger Williams, the founder of the colony of Rhode Island, in his 1644 book The Bloody Tenent of Persecution. The phrase was later used by Thomas Jefferson as a description of the First Amendment and its restriction on the legislative branch of the federal government, in an 1802 letter to the Danbury Baptists (a religious minority concerned about the dominant position of the Congregationalist church in Connecticut):
Whose conceptions of separation have long been argued over?
5731b79a0fdd8d15006c648d
Jefferson and James Madison's
0
False
What did Jefferson refuse to issue, when it was sent to him by Congress during his presidency?
5731b79a0fdd8d15006c648e
Proclamations of Thanksgiving
107
False
How many religious proclamations did Madison issue while President?
5731b79a0fdd8d15006c648f
four
283
False
Where did both Jefferson and Madison attend religious services?
5731b79a0fdd8d15006c6490
at the Capitol
474
False
What is essential to the purity of both religion and civil government?
5731b79a0fdd8d15006c6491
practical distinction
940
False
Jefferson and James Madison's
0
Whose conceptions of separation have long been agreed with?
5ad13c20645df0001a2d1326
True
Proclamations of Thanksgiving
107
What did Jefferson approve to issue, when it was sent to him by Congress during his presidency?
5ad13c20645df0001a2d1327
True
four
283
How many non-religious proclamations did Madison issue while President?
5ad13c20645df0001a2d1328
True
Jefferson and James Madison's conceptions of separation have long been debated. Jefferson refused to issue Proclamations of Thanksgiving sent to him by Congress during his presidency, though he did issue a Thanksgiving and Prayer proclamation as Governor of Virginia. Madison issued four religious proclamations while President, but vetoed two bills on the grounds they violated the first amendment. On the other hand, both Jefferson and Madison attended religious services at the Capitol. Years before the ratification of the Constitution, Madison contended "Because if Religion be exempt from the authority of the Society at large, still less can it be subject to that of the Legislative Body." After retiring from the presidency, Madison wrote of "total separation of the church from the state." " "Strongly guarded as is the separation between Religion & Govt in the Constitution of the United States," Madison wrote, and he declared, "practical distinction between Religion and Civil Government is essential to the purity of both, and as guaranteed by the Constitution of the United States." In a letter to Edward Livingston Madison further expanded, "We are teaching the world the great truth that Govts. do better without Kings & Nobles than with them. The merit will be doubled by the other lesson that Religion flourishes in greater purity, without than with the aid of Govt." Madison's original draft of the Bill of Rights had included provisions binding the States, as well as the Federal Government, from an establishment of religion, but the House did not pass them.[citation needed]
What did Jefferson's opponents accuse him of wanting to do to Christianity?
5731b868e17f3d1400422311
destruction
48
False
What did Jefferson encourage the separate sects at the University of Virginia to have of their own?
5731b868e17f3d1400422312
preachers
229
False
How was the state banned from supporting a Professorship of Divinity?
5731b868e17f3d1400422313
Virginia Statute for Religious Freedom
365
False
What scheme did Jefferson apparently support when it came to University students?
5731b868e17f3d1400422314
attend religious worship each morning
629
False
What does Mark David Hall think people focus on way too much?
5731b868e17f3d1400422315
one Jeffersonian letter
889
False
destruction
48
What did Jefferson's opponents not accuse him of wanting to do to Christianity?
5ad14079645df0001a2d13c0
True
preachers
229
What did Jefferson discourage the separate sects at the University of Virginia to have of their own?
5ad14079645df0001a2d13c1
True
Virginia Statute for Religious Freedom
365
How was the state allowed to support a Professorship of Divinity?
5ad14079645df0001a2d13c2
True
attend religious worship each morning
629
What scheme did Jefferson reject when it came to University students?
5ad14079645df0001a2d13c3
True
one Jeffersonian letter
889
What does Mark David Hall think people don't focus on enough?
5ad14079645df0001a2d13c4
True
Jefferson's opponents said his position was the destruction and the governmental rejection of Christianity, but this was a caricature. In setting up the University of Virginia, Jefferson encouraged all the separate sects to have preachers of their own, though there was a constitutional ban on the State supporting a Professorship of Divinity, arising from his own Virginia Statute for Religious Freedom. Some have argued that this arrangement was "fully compatible with Jefferson's views on the separation of church and state;" however, others point to Jefferson's support for a scheme in which students at the University would attend religious worship each morning as evidence that his views were not consistent with strict separation. Still other scholars, such as Mark David Hall, attempt to sidestep the whole issue by arguing that American jurisprudence focuses too narrowly on this one Jeffersonian letter while failing to account for other relevant history
When did Jefferson's letter enter American jurisprudence?
5731b8f8e17f3d1400422325
1878
57
False
What was the case that used Jefferson's letter?
5731b8f8e17f3d1400422326
Reynolds v. U.S.
83
False
What was the topic of Reynolds v. U.S.?
5731b8f8e17f3d1400422327
Mormon polygamy
62
False
What was the court seeking, in using Jefferson's letter?
5731b8f8e17f3d1400422328
legal definition for the word religion
159
False
What did the court rule outlawing polygamy was?
5731b8f8e17f3d1400422329
constitutional
553
False
1878
57
When did Jefferson's letter not enter American jurisprudence?
5ad140c8645df0001a2d13d2
True
Reynolds v. U.S
83
What was the case that denied Jefferson's letter?
5ad140c8645df0001a2d13d3
True
legal definition for the word religion
159
What was the court seeking, in not using Jefferson's letter?
5ad140c8645df0001a2d13d4
True
Mormon polygamy
62
What was the topic of Meynolds v. U.S.?
5ad140c8645df0001a2d13d5
True
constitutional
553
What did the court rule not outlawing polygamy was?
5ad140c8645df0001a2d13d6
True
Jefferson's letter entered American jurisprudence in the 1878 Mormon polygamy case Reynolds v. U.S., in which the court cited Jefferson and Madison, seeking a legal definition for the word religion. Writing for the majority, Justice Stephen Johnson Field cited Jefferson's Letter to the Danbury Baptists to state that "Congress was deprived of all legislative power over mere opinion, but was left free to reach actions which were in violation of social duties or subversive of good order." Considering this, the court ruled that outlawing polygamy was constitutional.
What approach was not the only one taken in the 18th century?
5731b9d9b9d445190005e4c5
Jefferson and Madison's
0
False
What did Jefferson draft his Statute of Religious Freedom in opposition to?
5731b9d9b9d445190005e4c6
a bill
157
False
Who was the chief supporter of the bill that got Jefferson motivated to draft his Statute?
5731b9d9b9d445190005e4c7
Patrick Henry
186
False
What did Patrick Henry want to require Virginians to pay taxes to support?
5731b9d9b9d445190005e4c8
some denomination
306
False
What did the Constitution of Massachusetts express no one would be restrained from doing?
5731b9d9b9d445190005e4c9
worshipping God
514
False
Jefferson and Madison's
0
What approach was the only one taken in the 18th century?
5ad14105645df0001a2d13e4
True
a bill
157
What did Jefferson draft his Statute of Religious Freedom in support of?
5ad14105645df0001a2d13e5
True
Patrick Henry
186
Who was the chief opposition of the bill that got Jefferson motivated to draft his Statute?
5ad14105645df0001a2d13e6
True
some denomination
306
What did Patrick Henry not want to require Virginians to pay taxes to support?
5ad14105645df0001a2d13e7
True
worshipping God
514
What did the Constitution of Massachusetts express everyone would be restrained from doing?
5ad14105645df0001a2d13e8
True
Jefferson and Madison's approach was not the only one taken in the eighteenth century. Jefferson's Statute of Religious Freedom was drafted in opposition to a bill, chiefly supported by Patrick Henry, which would permit any Virginian to belong to any denomination, but which would require him to belong to some denomination and pay taxes to support it. Similarly, the Constitution of Massachusetts originally provided that "no subject shall be hurt, molested, or restrained, in his person, liberty, or estate, for worshipping God in the manner and season most agreeable to the dictates of his own conscience... provided he doth not disturb the public peace, or obstruct others in their religious worship," (Article II) but also that:
What did the Duke of York require every community in his lands to support?
5731ba670fdd8d15006c64ab
some church
103
False
Instead of Anglican, what were the churches most often supported in New York and New Jersey?
5731ba670fdd8d15006c64ac
Dutch Reformed, Quaker or Presbyterian
140
False
What were taxpayers free to do after they paid the Duke of York his local tax?
5731ba670fdd8d15006c64ad
to choose their own church
314
False
Why was the Duke not a friend of Anglicanism?
5731ba670fdd8d15006c64ae
openly divine-right Catholic,
469
False
When did the first Anglican minister arrive in New Jersey?
5731ba670fdd8d15006c64af
1698
582
False
some church
103
What did the Duke of York never require every community in his lands to support?
5ad14149645df0001a2d13ee
True
Dutch Reformed, Quaker or Presbyterian
140
Instead of Anglican, what were the churches never supported in New York and New Jersey?
5ad14149645df0001a2d13ef
True
choose their own church
317
What were taxpayers not free to do after they paid the Duke of York his local tax?
5ad14149645df0001a2d13f0
True
openly divine-right
469
Why was the Duke a friend of Anglicanism?
5ad14149645df0001a2d13f1
True
1698
582
When did the first Anglican minister leave New Jersey?
5ad14149645df0001a2d13f2
True
The Duke of York had required that every community in his new lands of New York and New Jersey support some church, but this was more often Dutch Reformed, Quaker or Presbyterian, than Anglican. Some chose to support more than one church. He also ordained that the tax-payers were free, having paid his local tax, to choose their own church. The terms for the surrender of New Amsterdam had provided that the Dutch would have liberty of conscience, and the Duke, as an openly divine-right Catholic, was no friend of Anglicanism. The first Anglican minister in New Jersey arrived in 1698, though Anglicanism was more popular in New York.
What did the original charter of the Province of East Jersey restrict membership in its Assembly to?
5731bb10b9d445190005e4cf
Christians
97
False
What was the Duke of York's relationship to his religion described as being?
5731bb10b9d445190005e4d0
fervently Catholic
130
False
What religious sect were the proprietors of Perth Amboy?
5731bb10b9d445190005e4d1
Scottish Catholic
202
False
What did the Province of West Jersey specify there would not be for those running for an office, in 1681?
5731bb10b9d445190005e4d2
religious test
302
False
When was an oath requiring militia to abjure the pretensions of the pope replaced?
5731bb10b9d445190005e4d3
1799
548
False
Christians
97
What didn't the original charter of the Province of East Jersey restrict membership in its Assembly to?
5ad141b5645df0001a2d13f8
True
fervently Catholic
130
What was the Duke of York's relationship to his religion described as not being?
5ad141b5645df0001a2d13f9
True
Scottish Catholic
202
What non-religious sect were the proprietors of Perth Amboy?
5ad141b5645df0001a2d13fa
True
religious test
302
What did the Province of West Jersey specify there would be for those running for an office, in 1681?
5ad141b5645df0001a2d13fb
True
1799
548
When was an oath requiring militia to abjure the pretensions of the pope not replaced?
5ad141b5645df0001a2d13fc
True
The original charter of the Province of East Jersey had restricted membership in the Assembly to Christians; the Duke of York was fervently Catholic, and the proprietors of Perth Amboy, New Jersey were Scottish Catholic peers. The Province of West Jersey had declared, in 1681, that there should be no religious test for office. An oath had also been imposed on the militia during the French and Indian War requiring them to abjure the pretensions of the Pope, which may or may not have been applied during the Revolution. That law was replaced by 1799.
What does the first amendment to the US Constitution state?
5731bbb5e99e3014001e622c
"Congress shall make no law respecting an establishment of religion, or prohibiting the free exercise thereof"
50
False
What is the first part of the First Amendment know as?
5731bbb5e99e3014001e622d
"establishment clause"
189
False
What is the last part of the sentence of the First Amendment known as?
5731bbb5e99e3014001e622e
"free exercise clause"
220
False
What do the two clauses of the First Amendment for the basis of?
5731bbb5e99e3014001e622f
the Supreme Court's interpretations of the "separation of church and state" doctrine.
284
False
What are citizens of the United States free to embrace or reject as they choose?
5731bbb5e99e3014001e6230
a faith
677
False
Congress shall make no law respecting an establishment of religion, or prohibiting the free exercise thereof
51
What does the second amendment to the US Constitution state?
5ad141f4645df0001a2d140c
True
establishment clause
190
What is the second part of the First Amendment know as?
5ad141f4645df0001a2d140d
True
free exercise clause
221
What is the first part of the sentence of the First Amendment known as?
5ad141f4645df0001a2d140e
True
Supreme Court's interpretations of the "separation of church and state"
288
What do the four clauses of the First Amendment for the basis of?
5ad141f4645df0001a2d140f
True
faith
679
What are citizens of the United States not free to embrace or reject as they choose?
5ad141f4645df0001a2d1410
True
The first amendment to the US Constitution states "Congress shall make no law respecting an establishment of religion, or prohibiting the free exercise thereof" The two parts, known as the "establishment clause" and the "free exercise clause" respectively, form the textual basis for the Supreme Court's interpretations of the "separation of church and state" doctrine. Three central concepts were derived from the 1st Amendment which became America's doctrine for church-state separation: no coercion in religious matters, no expectation to support a religion against one's will, and religious liberty encompasses all religions. In sum, citizens are free to embrace or reject a faith, any support for religion - financial or physical - must be voluntary, and all religions are equal in the eyes of the law with no special preference or favoritism.
What is John Baker of LSU's profession?
5731bcdc0fdd8d15006c64c3
legal scholars
5
False
Why was a more general "religion" used in the language of the First Amendment?
5731bcdc0fdd8d15006c64c4
to appease the Anti-Federalists
264
False
Why was the word "national" a cause for alarm to both Federalists and Anti-Federalists?
5731bcdc0fdd8d15006c64c5
because of the experience under the British crown
394
False
Who took issue with Madison's language during the debate over the establishment clause?
5731bcdc0fdd8d15006c64c6
Elbridge Gerry
499
False
What was Elbridge Gerry's constituency?
5731bcdc0fdd8d15006c64c7
Massachusetts
517
False
legal scholars
5
What is John Baker of LLU's profession?
5ad1423f645df0001a2d1420
True
appease the Anti-Federalists
267
Why was a more general "religion" used in the language of the Second Amendment?
5ad1423f645df0001a2d1421
True
because of the experience under the British crown
394
Why was the word "national" a cause for alarm to neither Federalists and Anti-Federalists?
5ad1423f645df0001a2d1422
True
Elbridge Gerry
499
Who didn't take issue with Madison's language during the debate over the establishment clause?
5ad1423f645df0001a2d1423
True
Massachusetts
517
What wasn't Elbridge Gerry's constituency?
5ad1423f645df0001a2d1424
True
Some legal scholars, such as John Baker of LSU, theorize that Madison's initial proposed language—that Congress should make no law regarding the establishment of a "national religion"—was rejected by the House, in favor of the more general "religion" in an effort to appease the Anti-Federalists. To both the Anti-Federalists and the Federalists, the very word "national" was a cause for alarm because of the experience under the British crown. During the debate over the establishment clause, Rep. Elbridge Gerry of Massachusetts took issue with Madison's language regarding whether the government was a national or federal government (in which the states retained their individual sovereignty), which Baker suggests compelled Madison to withdraw his language from the debate.
Where was Representative Roger Sherman from?
5731bd5e0fdd8d15006c64cd
Connecticut
38
False
Why did Sherman believe the establishment clause was unnecessary?
5731bd5e0fdd8d15006c64ce
Constitution only gave Congress stated powers
108
False
What power was not granted to Congress by the Constitution?
5731bd5e0fdd8d15006c64cf
establishing a national religion
177
False
Where was Representative Thomas Tucker from?
5731bd5e0fdd8d15006c64d0
South Carolina
258
False
What was Tucker concerned the establishment clause could preempt?
5731bd5e0fdd8d15006c64d1
religious clauses in the state constitutions
354
False
Connecticut
38
Where was Representative Roger Merman from?
5ad142a4645df0001a2d142a
True
Constitution only gave Congress stated powers
108
Why did Sherman believe the establishment clause was necessary?
5ad142a4645df0001a2d142b
True
establishing a national religion
177
What power was granted to Congress by the Constitution?
5ad142a4645df0001a2d142c
True
South Carolina
258
Where was Representative Thomas Pucker from?
5ad142a4645df0001a2d142d
True
religious clauses in the state constitutions
354
What was Tucker concerned the establishment clause could not preempt?
5ad142a4645df0001a2d142e
True
Others, such as Rep. Roger Sherman of Connecticut, believed the clause was unnecessary because the original Constitution only gave Congress stated powers, which did not include establishing a national religion. Anti-Federalists such as Rep. Thomas Tucker of South Carolina moved to strike the establishment clause completely because it could preempt the religious clauses in the state constitutions. However, the Anti-Federalists were unsuccessful in persuading the House of Representatives to drop the clause from the first amendment.
When was the 14th Amendment to the US Constitution created?
5731bde8b9d445190005e4f7
post-Civil War
89
False
What was the intent of the 14th Amendment?
5731bde8b9d445190005e4f8
secure rights for former slaves
128
False
What clauses does the 14th Amendment include?
5731bde8b9d445190005e4f9
due process and equal protection clauses
177
False
What does the 14th Amendment also introduce the concept of?
5731bde8b9d445190005e4fa
incorporation of all relevant federal rights against the states
272
False
What has the doctrine of incorporation been used to ensure?
5731bde8b9d445190005e4fb
application of most of the rights enumerated in the Bill of Rights to the states
506
False
post-Civil War
89
When was the 13th Amendment to the US Constitution created?
5ad142f7645df0001a2d1434
True
secure rights for former slaves
128
What was the intent of the 13th Amendment?
5ad142f7645df0001a2d1435
True
Due Process Clause
445
What clauses does the 13th Amendment include?
5ad142f7645df0001a2d1436
True
incorporation of all relevant federal rights against the states
272
What does the 13th Amendment also introduce the concept of?
5ad142f7645df0001a2d1437
True
application of most of the rights enumerated in the Bill of Rights to the states
506
What has the doctrine of incorporation been used to not ensure?
5ad142f7645df0001a2d1438
True
The Fourteenth Amendment to the United States Constitution (Amendment XIV) is one of the post-Civil War amendments, intended to secure rights for former slaves. It includes the due process and equal protection clauses among others. The amendment introduces the concept of incorporation of all relevant federal rights against the states. While it has not been fully implemented, the doctrine of incorporation has been used to ensure, through the Due Process Clause and Privileges and Immunities Clause, the application of most of the rights enumerated in the Bill of Rights to the states.
What landmark case has impacted all subsequent interpretations of the separation of church and state in regard to state governments?
5731bedce99e3014001e623e
Everson v. Board of Education
86
False
What did the Supreme Court uphold in Everson v. Board of Education?
5731bedce99e3014001e623f
state law
256
False
What did the Supreme Court hold the First Amendment establishment clause was fully applicable to?
5731bedce99e3014001e6240
state governments
440
False
What was a recent case involving the application of the principle of the establishment clause against states?
5731bedce99e3014001e6241
Board of Education of Kiryas Joel Village School District v. Grumet
545
False
When was the case of v. Grumet?
5731bedce99e3014001e6242
1994
614
False
Everson v. Board of Education
86
What landmark case hasn't impacted all subsequent interpretations of the separation of church and state in regard to state governments?
5ad14342645df0001a2d1464
True
state law
256
What didn't the Supreme Court uphold in Everson v. Board of Education?
5ad14342645df0001a2d1465
True
state governments
440
What didn't the Supreme Court hold the First Amendment establishment clause was fully applicable to?
5ad14342645df0001a2d1466
True
Board of Education of Kiryas Joel Village School District v. Grumet
545
What was a past case involving the application of the principle of the establishment clause against states?
5ad14342645df0001a2d1467
True
1994
614
When was the case of v. Prumet?
5ad14342645df0001a2d1468
True
The incorporation of the First Amendment establishment clause in the landmark case of Everson v. Board of Education has impacted the subsequent interpretation of the separation of church and state in regard to the state governments. Although upholding the state law in that case, which provided for public busing to private religious schools, the Supreme Court held that the First Amendment establishment clause was fully applicable to the state governments. A more recent case involving the application of this principle against the states was Board of Education of Kiryas Joel Village School District v. Grumet (1994).
What did Jefferson's concept of 'separation of church and state" became part of what jurisprudence?
5731c1e2e99e3014001e6252
Establishment Clause
79
False
What case was Jefferson's concept apropos to?
5731c1e2e99e3014001e6253
Reynolds v. U.S., 98 U.S. 145
117
False
What does the constitution guarantee when it comes to religion?
5731c1e2e99e3014001e6254
freedom
293
False
What word is not defined in the Constitution?
5731c1e2e99e3014001e6255
religion
313
False
Who had Jefferson's letter been sent to?
5731c1e2e99e3014001e6256
the Danbury Baptists
759
False
Establishment Clause
79
Jefferson's concept of 'separation of church and state" didn't become part of what jurisprudence?
5ad143a8645df0001a2d146e
True
Reynolds v. U.S., 98 U.S. 145
117
What case wasn't Jefferson's concept apropos to?
5ad143a8645df0001a2d146f
True
freedom
293
What doesn't the constitution guarantee when it comes to religion?
5ad143a8645df0001a2d1470
True
religion
313
What word is defined in the Constitution?
5ad143a8645df0001a2d1471
True
Danbury Baptists
763
Who hadn't Jefferson's letter been sent to?
5ad143a8645df0001a2d1472
True
Jefferson's concept of "separation of church and state" first became a part of Establishment Clause jurisprudence in Reynolds v. U.S., 98 U.S. 145 (1878). In that case, the court examined the history of religious liberty in the US, determining that while the constitution guarantees religious freedom, "The word 'religion' is not defined in the Constitution. We must go elsewhere, therefore, to ascertain its meaning, and nowhere more appropriately, we think, than to the history of the times in the midst of which the provision was adopted." The court found that the leaders in advocating and formulating the constitutional guarantee of religious liberty were James Madison and Thomas Jefferson. Quoting the "separation" paragraph from Jefferson's letter to the Danbury Baptists, the court concluded that, "coming as this does from an acknowledged leader of the advocates of the measure, it may be accepted almost as an authoritative declaration of the scope and effect of the amendment thus secured."
When was the centrality of the "separation" concept to the Religion Clauses of the Constitution made explicit?
5731c3a2b9d445190005e51f
1947
151
False
What case was the concept relevant?
5731c3a2b9d445190005e520
Everson v. Board of Education, 330 U.S. 1
108
False
What was the topic of the Everson v. Board of Education?
5731c3a2b9d445190005e521
government funds to pay for transportation of students to both public and Catholic schools
208
False
What was the case of Everson v. Board of Education the first instance of?
5731c3a2b9d445190005e522
court applied the Establishment Clause to the laws of a state
337
False
How must the wall separating church and state be kept?
5731c3a2b9d445190005e523
high and impregnable
683
False
1947
151
When was the centrality of the "separation" concept to the Religion Clauses of the Constitution not made explicit?
5ad143f8645df0001a2d1478
True
Everson v. Board of Education, 330 U.S. 1
108
What case wasn't the concept relevant?
5ad143f8645df0001a2d1479
True
government funds to pay for transportation of students to both public and Catholic schools
208
What wasn't the topic of the Everson v. Board of Education?
5ad143f8645df0001a2d147a
True
court applied the Establishment Clause to the laws of a state
337
What was the case of Everson v. Board of Education the second instance of?
5ad143f8645df0001a2d147b
True
high and impregnable
683
How mustn't the wall separating church and state be kept?
5ad143f8645df0001a2d147c
True
The centrality of the "separation" concept to the Religion Clauses of the Constitution was made explicit in Everson v. Board of Education, 330 U.S. 1 (1947), a case dealing with a New Jersey law that allowed government funds to pay for transportation of students to both public and Catholic schools. This was the first case in which the court applied the Establishment Clause to the laws of a state, having interpreted the due process clause of the Fourteenth Amendment as applying the Bill of Rights to the states as well as the federal legislature. Citing Jefferson, the court concluded that "The First Amendment has erected a wall between church and state. That wall must be kept high and impregnable. We could not approve the slightest breach."
What did the decision ultimately uphold?
5731ca39e99e3014001e6278
state law
62
False
What was the state allowed to continue to fund?
5731ca39e99e3014001e6279
transportation of students to religious schools
96
False
What did both the majority and dissenting opinions reiterate?
5731ca39e99e3014001e627a
that the Constitution has erected a "wall between church and state"
306
False
What was the disagreement between the Justices over whether funding breached what?
5731ca39e99e3014001e627b
that wall
531
False
What did Justice Jackson argue there were no grounds upon which to support what?
5731ca39e99e3014001e627c
the present legislation
1034
False
state law
62
What did the decision not uphold?
5ad14541645df0001a2d14a6
True
transportation of students to religious schools
96
What was the state not allowed to continue to fund?
5ad14541645df0001a2d14a7
True
that the Constitution has erected a "wall between church and state"
306
What did neither the majority and dissenting opinions reiterate?
5ad14541645df0001a2d14a8
True
the wall
667
What was the agreement between the Justices over whether funding breached what?
5ad14541645df0001a2d14a9
True
present legislation
1038
What did Justice Jackson agree there were no grounds upon which to support what?
5ad14541645df0001a2d14aa
True
While the decision (with four dissents) ultimately upheld the state law allowing the funding of transportation of students to religious schools, the majority opinion (by Justice Hugo Black) and the dissenting opinions (by Justice Wiley Blount Rutledge and Justice Robert H. Jackson) each explicitly stated that the Constitution has erected a "wall between church and state" or a "separation of Church from State": their disagreement was limited to whether this case of state funding of transportation to religious schools breached that wall. Rutledge, on behalf of the four dissenting justices, took the position that the majority had indeed permitted a violation of the wall of separation in this case: "Neither so high nor so impregnable today as yesterday is the wall raised between church and state by Virginia's great statute of religious freedom and the First Amendment, now made applicable to all the states by the Fourteenth." Writing separately, Justice Jackson argued that "[T]here are no good grounds upon which to support the present legislation. In fact, the undertones of the opinion, advocating complete and uncompromising separation of Church from State, seem utterly discordant with its conclusion yielding support to their commingling in educational matters."
When did the Supreme Court address the issue of officially sponsored prayer in public schools?
5731cae1b9d445190005e563
1962
3
False
What was the case in 1962 where the Supreme Court addressed the issue of officially sponsored school prayer?
5731cae1b9d445190005e564
Engel v. Vitale, 370 U.S. 421
125
False
By what vote did the Supreme Court determine it unconstitutional for state official to compose an official school prayer?
5731cae1b9d445190005e565
6-1
187
False
Even if a prayer is non-denominational it's still considered what?
5731cae1b9d445190005e566
unconstitutional
206
False
1962
3
When did the Supreme Court address the issue of unofficially sponsored prayer in public schools?
5ad1457e645df0001a2d14ba
True
Engel v. Vitale, 370 U.S. 421 (1962),
125
What was the case in 1962 where the Supreme Court addressed the issue of unofficially sponsored school prayer?
5ad1457e645df0001a2d14bb
True
6-1
187
By what vote did the Supreme Court determine it unconstitutional for state official to compose an unofficial school prayer?
5ad1457e645df0001a2d14bc
True
unconstitutional
206
Even if a prayer is denominational it's still considered what?
5ad1457e645df0001a2d14bd
True
In 1962, the Supreme Court addressed the issue of officially-sponsored prayer or religious recitations in public schools. In Engel v. Vitale, 370 U.S. 421 (1962), the Court, by a vote of 6-1, determined it unconstitutional for state officials to compose an official school prayer and require its recitation in public schools, even when the prayer is non-denominational and students may excuse themselves from participation. (The prayer required by the New York State Board of Regents prior to the Court's decision consisted of: "Almighty God, we acknowledge our dependence upon Thee, and we beg Thy blessings upon us, our parents, our teachers, and our country. Amen.") As the Court stated:
What was one of the reasons early colonists left England to seek religious freedom in America?
5731cb92e99e3014001e628c
governmentally composed prayers for religious services
88
False
Who was the lone dissenter in the Supreme Court's ruling?
5731cb92e99e3014001e628d
Justice Potter Stewart
284
False
What did Stewart object to?
5731cb92e99e3014001e628e
the court's embrace of the "wall of separation" metaphor
320
False
Stewart felt the court was not responsibly aided by the uncritical invocation of what?
5731cb92e99e3014001e628f
metaphors
523
False
Stewart pointed out that the phrase "Wall of separation" was nowhere to be found in what?
5731cb92e99e3014001e6290
the Constitution
596
False
governmentally composed prayers for religious services
88
What wasn't one of the reasons early colonists left England to seek religious freedom in America?
5ad145bb645df0001a2d14cc
True
Justice Potter Stewart
284
Who wasn't the lone dissenter in the Supreme Court's ruling?
5ad145bb645df0001a2d14cd
True
court's embrace of the "wall of separation"
324
What did Stewart agree with?
5ad145bb645df0001a2d14ce
True
metaphor
368
Stewart felt the court was responsibly aided by the uncritical invocation of what?
5ad145bb645df0001a2d14cf
True
Constitution
600
Stewart pointed out that the phrase "Wall of separation" was everywhere to be found in what?
5ad145bb645df0001a2d14d0
True
The court noted that it "is a matter of history that this very practice of establishing governmentally composed prayers for religious services was one of the reasons which caused many of our early colonists to leave England and seek religious freedom in America." The lone dissenter, Justice Potter Stewart, objected to the court's embrace of the "wall of separation" metaphor: "I think that the Court's task, in this as in all areas of constitutional adjudication, is not responsibly aided by the uncritical invocation of metaphors like the "wall of separation," a phrase nowhere to be found in the Constitution."
When did the case of Epperson v. Arkansas take place?
5731cc95e99e3014001e62aa
1968
38
False
What did an Arkansas law make it a crime to teach the theory of?
5731cc95e99e3014001e62ab
that mankind ascended or descended from a lower order of animals
144
False
Who wrote the court's opinion in Epperson v. Arkansas?
5731cc95e99e3014001e62ac
Justice Abe Fortas
380
False
What did the Arkansas law violate the constitutional prohibition of state laws in respect to?
5731cc95e99e3014001e62ad
an establishment of religion or prohibiting the free exercise thereof
494
False
What does the State have no legitimate interest in protecting any or all religions from?
5731cc95e99e3014001e62ae
views distasteful to them
1053
False
1968
38
When did the case of Ipperson v. Kansas take place?
5ad145f4645df0001a2d14e0
True
mankind ascended or descended from a lower order of animals,"
149
What did an Arkansas law make it legal to teach the theory of?
5ad145f4645df0001a2d14e1
True
Justice Abe Fortas
380
Who wrote the court's opinion in Epperson v. Kansas?
5ad145f4645df0001a2d14e2
True
establishment of religion or prohibiting the free exercise thereof
497
What did the Kansas law violate the constitutional prohibition of state laws in respect to?
5ad145f4645df0001a2d14e3
True
views distasteful to them
1053
What does the State have legitimate interest in protecting any or all religions from?
5ad145f4645df0001a2d14e4
True
In Epperson v. Arkansas, 393 U.S. 97 (1968), the Supreme Court considered an Arkansas law that made it a crime "to teach the theory or doctrine that mankind ascended or descended from a lower order of animals," or "to adopt or use in any such institution a textbook that teaches" this theory in any school or university that received public funds. The court's opinion, written by Justice Abe Fortas, ruled that the Arkansas law violated "the constitutional prohibition of state laws respecting an establishment of religion or prohibiting the free exercise thereof. The overriding fact is that Arkansas' law selects from the body of knowledge a particular segment which it proscribes for the sole reason that it is deemed to conflict with a particular religious doctrine; that is, with a particular interpretation of the Book of Genesis by a particular religious group." The court held that the Establishment Clause prohibits the state from advancing any religion, and that "[T]he state has no legitimate interest in protecting any or all religions from views distasteful to them."
When was the case of Lemon v. Kurtzman?
5731cd38e17f3d1400422419
1971
36
False
What state's policy was in question in Lemon v. Kurtzman?
5731cd38e17f3d140042241a
Pennsylvania
71
False
Whose salaries were being reimbursed in private religious schools?
5731cd38e17f3d140042241b
teachers of secular subjects
146
False
What did the state's policy violate?
5731cd38e17f3d140042241c
the Establishment Clause
213
False
What did the court's decision argue that the separation of church and state could never be?
5731cd38e17f3d140042241d
absolute
322
False
1971
36
When was the case of Lime v. Kurtzman?
5ad1462d645df0001a2d14ea
True
Pennsylvania
71
What state's policy was in question in Lime v. Kurtzman?
5ad1462d645df0001a2d14eb
True
teachers of secular subjects
146
Whose salaries were being reimbursed in public religious schools?
5ad1462d645df0001a2d14ec
True
Establishment Clause
217
What did the state's policy not violate?
5ad1462d645df0001a2d14ed
True
absolute
450
What did the court's decision argue that the separation of church and state could always be?
5ad1462d645df0001a2d14ee
True
In Lemon v. Kurtzman, 403 U.S. 602 (1971), the court determined that a Pennsylvania state policy of reimbursing the salaries and related costs of teachers of secular subjects in private religious schools violated the Establishment Clause. The court's decision argued that the separation of church and state could never be absolute: "Our prior holdings do not call for total separation between church and state; total separation is not possible in an absolute sense. Some relationship between government and religious organizations is inevitable," the court wrote. "Judicial caveats against entanglement must recognize that the line of separation, far from being a "wall," is a blurred, indistinct, and variable barrier depending on all the circumstances of a particular relationship."
How many prongs is the Supreme COurt's test to determine if a government action comports with the Establishment Clause?
5731ce3ee99e3014001e62be
three
61
False
What is the three-pronged test regarding the Establishment Clause know as?
5731ce3ee99e3014001e62bf
"Lemon Test"
172
False
To not violate the Establishment Clause, a law must be adopted with neutral or what purpose?
5731ce3ee99e3014001e62c0
non-religious
252
False
What much the primary effect of a law neither advance or inhibit?
5731ce3ee99e3014001e62c1
religion
362
False
Excessive entanglement occurs when a state policy results in a close relationship of what?
5731ce3ee99e3014001e62c2
government with religion
451
False
three
61
How many prongs is the Supreme COurt's test to determine if a government action comports without the Establishment Clause?
5ad14694645df0001a2d14f4
True
Lemon Test
173
What is the four-pronged test regarding the Establishment Clause know as?
5ad14694645df0001a2d14f5
True
non-religious
252
To violate the Establishment Clause, a law must be adopted with neutral or what purpose?
5ad14694645df0001a2d14f6
True
religion
467
What much the primary effect of a law both advance and inhibit?
5ad14694645df0001a2d14f7
True
government with religion
451
Excessive entanglement occurs when a state policy results in a distant relationship of what?
5ad14694645df0001a2d14f8
True
Subsequent to this decision, the Supreme Court has applied a three-pronged test to determine whether government action comports with the Establishment Clause, known as the "Lemon Test". First, the law or policy must have been adopted with a neutral or non-religious purpose. Second, the principle or primary effect must be one that neither advances nor inhibits religion. Third, the statute or policy must not result in an "excessive entanglement" of government with religion. (The decision in Lemon v. Kurtzman hinged upon the conclusion that the government benefits were flowing disproportionately to Catholic schools, and that Catholic schools were an integral component of the Catholic Church's religious mission, thus the policy involved the state in an "excessive entanglement" with religion.) Failure to meet any of these criteria is a proof that the statute or policy in question violates the Establishment Clause.
How many judges were on the panel which held the Pledge of Allegiance in California public schools was unconstitutional?
5731d073b9d445190005e589
three
11
False
When did the three judge panel make their ruling?
5731d073b9d445190005e58a
2002
3
False
What did both houses of Congress pass measures reaffirming their support for?
5731d073b9d445190005e58b
the Pledge of Allegiance
101
False
Why was the case of Elk Grove Unified School District v. Newdow overturned?
5731d073b9d445190005e58c
procedural grounds
574
False
What did the five-justice majority hold that Newdow lacked?
5731d073b9d445190005e58d
standing to sue
759
False
three
11
How many judges weren't on the panel which held the Pledge of Allegiance in California public schools was unconstitutional?
5ad146d9645df0001a2d150e
True
2002
3
When did the three judge panel fail to make their ruling?
5ad146d9645df0001a2d150f
True
Pledge of Allegiance
105
What did neither house of Congress pass measures reaffirming their support for?
5ad146d9645df0001a2d1510
True
procedural grounds
574
Why was the case of Elk Grove Unified School District v. Newdow not overturned?
5ad146d9645df0001a2d1511
True
standing to sue
759
What did the six-justice majority hold that Newdow lacked?
5ad146d9645df0001a2d1512
True
In 2002, a three judge panel on the Ninth Circuit Court of Appeals held that classroom recitation of the Pledge of Allegiance in a California public school was unconstitutional, even when students were not compelled to recite it, due to the inclusion of the phrase "under God." In reaction to the case, Elk Grove Unified School District v. Newdow, both houses of Congress passed measures reaffirming their support for the pledge, and condemning the panel's ruling. The case was appealed to the Supreme Court, where the case was ultimately overturned in June 2004, solely on procedural grounds not related to the substantive constitutional issue. Rather, a five-justice majority held that Newdow, a non-custodial parent suing on behalf of his daughter, lacked standing to sue.
When did the US Court of Appeals rule in the case of ACLU v. Mercer County?
5731d14ee99e3014001e62ec
December 20, 2005
3
False
What was displayed in Kentucky courthouses?
5731d14ee99e3014001e62ed
the Ten Commandments
152
False
Why were the displays of the ten Commandments allowed?
5731d14ee99e3014001e62ee
secular in nature
359
False
When was a ruling handed down on the Mount Soledad cross controversy?
5731d14ee99e3014001e62ef
May 3, 2006
430
False
What did a federal judge rule must be removed from public property?
5731d14ee99e3014001e62f0
the cross
479
False
December 20, 2005
3
When did the US Court of Appeals not rule in the case of ACLU v. Mercer County?
5ad1471b645df0001a2d1518
True
Ten Commandments
156
What was not displayed in Kentucky courthouses?
5ad1471b645df0001a2d1519
True
secular in nature
359
Why were the displays of the ten Commandments disallowed?
5ad1471b645df0001a2d151a
True
May 3, 2006
430
When was a ruling not handed down on the Mount Soledad cross controversy?
5ad1471b645df0001a2d151b
True
cross
483
What did a federal judge rule must be removed from private property?
5ad1471b645df0001a2d151c
True
On December 20, 2005, the United States Court of Appeals for the Sixth Circuit ruled in the case of ACLU v. Mercer County that the continued display of the Ten Commandments as part of a larger display on American legal traditions in a Kentucky courthouse was allowed, because the purpose of the display (educating the public on American legal traditions) was secular in nature. In ruling on the Mount Soledad cross controversy on May 3, 2006, however, a federal judge ruled that the cross on public property on Mount Soledad must be removed.
What case is in regards to whether prayers at town meetings must allow various faiths?
5731d483b9d445190005e59d
Town of Greece v. Galloway
28
False
When did the Supreme Court rule on Town of Greece v. Galloway?
5731d483b9d445190005e59e
May 5, 2014
267
False
What was the Supreme Court's final vote in Town of Greece v. Galloway?
5731d483b9d445190005e59f
5-4
309
False
Who did the Supreme Court rule in favor of?
5731d483b9d445190005e5a0
Town of Greece
329
False
What did the Supreme Court rule the Constitution allowed for?
5731d483b9d445190005e5a1
sectarian prayers
446
False
Town of Greece v. Galloway
28
What case is in regards to whether prayers at town meetings must not allow various faiths?
5ad14755645df0001a2d1522
True
May 5, 2014
267
When did the Supreme Court not rule on Town of Greece v. Galloway?
5ad14755645df0001a2d1523
True
5-4
309
What wasn't the Supreme Court's final vote in Town of Greece v. Galloway?
5ad14755645df0001a2d1524
True
Town of Greece
329
Who did the Supreme Court not rule in favor of?
5ad14755645df0001a2d1525
True
sectarian prayers
446
What did the Supreme Court rule the Constitution disallowed for?
5ad14755645df0001a2d1526
True
In what will be the case is Town of Greece v. Galloway, 12-696, the Supreme Court agreed to hear a case regarding whether prayers at town meetings, which are allowed, must allow various faiths to lead prayer, or whether the prayers can be predominately Christian. On May 5, 2014, the U.S. Supreme Court ruled 5-4 in favor of the Town of Greece by holding that the U.S. Constitution not only allows for prayer at government meetings, but also for sectarian prayers like predominately Christian prayers.
What do some organizations disagree with the notion of?
5731d5eee17f3d140042247b
separation of church and state
61
False
What do scholars also disagree with about the way the Supreme Court has interpreted what?
5731d5eee17f3d140042247c
constitutional limitation on religious establishment
143
False
What do the critics argue the phrase misrepresents?
5731d5eee17f3d140042247d
the textual requirements of the Constitution
256
False
What do critics note were intermingled at the time the Constitution was ratified?
5731d5eee17f3d140042247e
many aspects of church and state
320
False
What do these critics argue couldn't have been intended by the framers of the constitution?
5731d5eee17f3d140042247f
prevalent degree of separation of church and state
443
False
separation of church and state
61
What do some organizations agree with the notion of?
5ad147a6645df0001a2d152c
True
constitutional limitation on religious establishment
143
What do scholars also agree with about the way the Supreme Court has interpreted what?
5ad147a6645df0001a2d152d
True
textual requirements of the Constitution
260
What don't the critics argue the phrase misrepresents?
5ad147a6645df0001a2d152e
True
many aspects of church and state
320
What do critics note were intermingled at the time the Constitution was not ratified?
5ad147a6645df0001a2d152f
True
prevalent degree of separation of church and state
443
What do these critics argue could have been intended by the framers of the constitution?
5ad147a6645df0001a2d1530
True
Some scholars and organizations disagree with the notion of "separation of church and state", or the way the Supreme Court has interpreted the constitutional limitation on religious establishment. Such critics generally argue that the phrase misrepresents the textual requirements of the Constitution, while noting that many aspects of church and state were intermingled at the time the Constitution was ratified. These critics argue that the prevalent degree of separation of church and state could not have been intended by the constitutional framers. Some of the intermingling between church and state include religious references in official contexts, and such other founding documents as the United States Declaration of Independence, which references the idea of a "Creator" and "Nature's God", though these references did not ultimately appear in the Constitution nor do they mention any particular religious view of a "Creator" or "Nature's God."
Critics of modern separation of church and state note there was official establishment of what in several states at the time of ratification?
5731d701e17f3d140042248b
religion
99
False
When was the passage of the 14th Amendment?
5731d701e17f3d140042248c
1868
430
False
What was recognized by the time the 14th Amendment passed?
5731d701e17f3d140042248d
first amendment's application to the state government
455
False
What kind of theory is the doctrine of the Living Constitution?
5731d701e17f3d140042248e
progressivist
638
False
What do some debates center on the law of the land not being just defined by the Constitution's Supremacy Clause but also by what?
5731d701e17f3d140042248f
legal precedence
857
False
religion
99
Critics of modern separation of church and state note there was unofficial establishment of what in several states at the time of ratification?
5ad14806645df0001a2d1536
True
1868
430
When was the passage of the 15th Amendment?
5ad14806645df0001a2d1537
True
first amendment's application to the state government
455
What wasn't recognized by the time the 14th Amendment passed?
5ad14806645df0001a2d1538
True
progressivist
638
What kind of theory is the doctrine of the Dead Constitution?
5ad14806645df0001a2d1539
True
legal precedence
857
What do some debates center on the law of the land being just defined by the Constitution's Supremacy Clause but also by what?
5ad14806645df0001a2d153a
True
These critics of the modern separation of church and state also note the official establishment of religion in several of the states at the time of ratification, to suggest that the modern incorporation of the Establishment Clause as to state governments goes against the original constitutional intent.[citation needed] The issue is complex, however, as the incorporation ultimately bases on the passage of the 14th Amendment in 1868, at which point the first amendment's application to the state government was recognized. Many of these constitutional debates relate to the competing interpretive theories of originalism versus modern, progressivist theories such as the doctrine of the Living Constitution. Other debates center on the principle of the law of the land in America being defined not just by the Constitution's Supremacy Clause, but also by legal precedence, making an accurate reading of the Constitution subject to the mores and values of a given era, and rendering the concept of historical revisionism irrelevant when discussing the Constitution.
What clause are both elected officials and appointed ones covered by?
5731d7dbe99e3014001e6326
religious test
5
False
What type of beliefs are not an allowed job qualification test for federal employees?
5731d7dbe99e3014001e6327
Religious
156
False
How many states violate the religious test clause with language somewhere in their official policies?
5731d7dbe99e3014001e6328
Seven
331
False
What do states violate the clause require state office-holders to possess?
5731d7dbe99e3014001e6329
particular religious beliefs
505
False
religious test
5
What clause are neither elected officials and appointed ones covered by?
5ad14842645df0001a2d1548
True
religious
5
What type of beliefs are an allowed job qualification test for federal employees?
5ad14842645df0001a2d1549
True
Seven
331
How many states violate the religious test clause without language somewhere in their official policies?
5ad14842645df0001a2d154a
True
particular religious beliefs
505
What don't states violate the clause require state office-holders to possess?
5ad14842645df0001a2d154b
True
The "religious test" clause has been interpreted to cover both elected officials and appointed ones, career civil servants as well as political appointees. Religious beliefs or the lack of them have therefore not been permissible tests or qualifications with regard to federal employees since the ratification of the Constitution. Seven states, however, have language included in their Bill of Rights, Declaration of Rights, or in the body of their constitutions that require state office-holders to have particular religious beliefs, though some of these have been successfully challenged in court. These states are Texas, Massachusetts, Maryland, North Carolina, Pennsylvania, South Carolina, and Tennessee.
What do the non-permissible clauses require a belief in?
5731d900b9d445190005e5af
a Supreme Being
56
False
What's one example in Tennessee's constitution?
5731d900b9d445190005e5b0
Article IX, Section 2
153
False
What language do some of the same states specify the oath of office include?
5731d900b9d445190005e5b1
so help me God
274
False
Requiring oaths invoking God are today deemed to be in violation of what?
5731d900b9d445190005e5b2
federal First Amendment
521
False
Because such oaths are in violation of the First Amendment, they're what?
5731d900b9d445190005e5b3
unconstitutional and unenforceable
605
False
Supreme Being
58
What do the permissible clauses require a belief in?
5ad14881645df0001a2d1562
True
Article IX, Section 2
153
What's not one example in Tennessee's constitution?
5ad14881645df0001a2d1563
True
so help me God
274
What language do some of the different states specify the oath of office include?
5ad14881645df0001a2d1564
True
federal First Amendment
521
Requiring oaths invoking God are today deemed to not be in violation of what?
5ad14881645df0001a2d1565
True
unconstitutional and unenforceable
605
Because such oaths are in violation of the Second Amendment, they're what?
5ad14881645df0001a2d1566
True
The required beliefs of these clauses include belief in a Supreme Being and belief in a future state of rewards and punishments. (Tennessee Constitution Article IX, Section 2 is one such example.) Some of these same states specify that the oath of office include the words "so help me God." In some cases these beliefs (or oaths) were historically required of jurors and witnesses in court. At one time, such restrictions were allowed under the doctrine of states' rights; today they are deemed to be in violation of the federal First Amendment, as applied to the states via the 14th amendment, and hence unconstitutional and unenforceable.
Why have perks like relaxed zoning rules and special parking privileges been allowed for churches?
5731da10e17f3d140042249f
beneficial arrangements for the society
277
False
What is the national motto "In God We Trust" officially known as?
5731da10e17f3d14004224a0
ceremonial deism
428
False
What has the Supreme Court ruled about ceremonial deism?
5731da10e17f3d14004224a1
not religious in nature
448
False
What state uses as a motto a passage from the Bible?
5731da10e17f3d14004224a2
Ohio
505
False
Why was Ohio allowed to use a biblical passage as its motto?
5731da10e17f3d14004224a3
because it displayed no preference for a particular religion
601
False
beneficial arrangements for the society
277
Why have perks like relaxed zoning rules and special parking privileges been disallowed for churches?
5ad148d5645df0001a2d156c
True
ceremonial deism
428
What is the national motto "In God We Trust" unofficially known as?
5ad148d5645df0001a2d156d
True
not religious in nature
448
What has the Supreme Court not ruled about ceremonial deism?
5ad148d5645df0001a2d156e
True
Ohio's
505
What state doesn't use a passage from the Bible?
5ad148d5645df0001a2d156f
True
because it displayed no preference for a particular religion
601
Why was Ohio disallowed from using a biblical passage as its motto?
5ad148d5645df0001a2d1570
True
Relaxed zoning rules and special parking privileges for churches, the tax-free status of church property, the fact that Christmas is a federal holiday, etc., have also been questioned, but have been considered examples of the governmental prerogative in deciding practical and beneficial arrangements for the society. The national motto "In God We Trust" has been challenged as a violation, but the Supreme Court has ruled that ceremonial deism is not religious in nature. A circuit court ruling affirmed Ohio's right to use as its motto a passage from the Bible, "With God, all things are possible", because it displayed no preference for a particular religion.
When do Jeffries and Ryan that the modern concept of separation of church and state dates from?
5731dc7ae99e3014001e635c
mid-twentieth century
104
False
What was the central point of the rulings of the Supreme Court's rulings?
5731dc7ae99e3014001e635d
constitutional ban against aid to religious schools
193
False
What was later banned in public education?
5731dc7ae99e3014001e635e
religious observance
273
False
How many propositions make up the separationist position on the Establishment Clause?
5731dc7ae99e3014001e635f
two
350
False
mid-twentieth
104
When don't Jeffries and Ryan that the modern concept of separation of church and state dates from?
5ad14ada645df0001a2d15ce
True
constitutional ban against aid to religious schools
193
What was the non-central point of the rulings of the Supreme Court's rulings?
5ad14ada645df0001a2d15cf
True
religious observance
273
What was later not banned in public education?
5ad14ada645df0001a2d15d0
True
two
350
How many propositions make up the separationist position on the Non-Establishment Clause?
5ad14ada645df0001a2d15d1
True
Jeffries and Ryan (2001) argue that the modern concept of separation of church and state dates from the mid-twentieth century rulings of the Supreme Court. The central point, they argue, was a constitutional ban against aid to religious schools, followed by a later ban on religious observance in public education. Jeffries and Ryan argue that these two propositions—that public aid should not go to religious schools and that public schools should not be religious—make up the separationist position of the modern Establishment Clause.
What position do Jeffries and Ryan argue was the reason for support from a coalition of separationists?
5731dd32e17f3d14004224b9
no-aid
29
False
What type of secularism came to dominate American public life?
5731dd32e17f3d14004224ba
pervasive
125
False
Who supported the ban against government aid to religious schools before 1970?
5731dd32e17f3d14004224bb
most Protestants (and most Jews)
335
False
What diminished after 1980?
5731dd32e17f3d14004224bc
anti-Catholic sentiment
468
False
What is opposed today by members of many Protestant faiths?
5731dd32e17f3d14004224bd
strict separationism
810
False
no-aid
29
What position do Jeffries and Ryan argue wasn't the reason for support from a coalition of separationists?
5ad14b17645df0001a2d15e0
True
pervasive
125
What type of secularism came to dominate Non-American public life?
5ad14b17645df0001a2d15e1
True
most Protestants (and most Jews)
335
Who supported the unban against government aid to religious schools before 1970?
5ad14b17645df0001a2d15e2
True
anti-Catholic sentiment
468
What diminished after 1981?
5ad14b17645df0001a2d15e3
True
strict separationism
810
What is opposed today by members of no Protestant faiths?
5ad14b17645df0001a2d15e4
True
Jeffries and Ryan argue that no-aid position drew support from a coalition of separationist opinion. Most important was "the pervasive secularism that came to dominate American public life," which sought to confine religion to a private sphere. Further, the ban against government aid to religious schools was supported before 1970 by most Protestants (and most Jews), who opposed aid to religious schools, which were mostly Catholic at the time. After 1980, however, anti-Catholic sentiment has diminished among mainline Protestants, and the crucial coalition of public secularists and Protestant churches has collapsed. While mainline Protestant denominations are more inclined towards strict separation of church and state, much evangelical opinion has now largely deserted that position. As a consequence, strict separationism is opposed today by members of many Protestant faiths, even perhaps eclipsing the opposition of Roman Catholics.[citation needed]
What do critics of the concept of separation of church and state argue it's untethered to?
5731ddefb9d445190005e5d7
anything in the text of the constitution
101
False
What is the profession of Philip Hamburger?
5731ddefb9d445190005e5d8
professor
267
False
What school is Philip Hamburger associated with?
5731ddefb9d445190005e5d9
Columbia Law school
247
False
What does Hamburger feel the modern concept of separation of church and state is rooted in?
5731ddefb9d445190005e5da
American anti-Catholicism
465
False
What are state constitutional amendments relating to separation of church and state known as?
5731ddefb9d445190005e5db
Blaine Amendments
712
False
anything in the text of the constitution
101
What do critics of the concept of separation of church and state argue it's tethered to?
5ad14b54645df0001a2d15fc
True
professor
267
What isn't the profession of Philip Hamburger?
5ad14b54645df0001a2d15fd
True
Columbia Law school
247
What school is Philip Hamburger disassociated with?
5ad14b54645df0001a2d15fe
True
American anti-Catholicism
465
What does Hamburger feel the modern concept of separation of church and state is not rooted in?
5ad14b54645df0001a2d15ff
True
Blaine Amendments
712
What are state constitutional amendments relating to separation of church and state never known as?
5ad14b54645df0001a2d1600
True
Critics of the modern concept of the "separation of church and state" argue that it is untethered to anything in the text of the constitution and is contrary to the conception of the phrase as the Founding Fathers understood it. Philip Hamburger, Columbia Law school professor and prominent critic of the modern understanding of the concept, maintains that the modern concept, which deviates from the constitutional establishment clause jurisprudence, is rooted in American anti-Catholicism and Nativism.[citation needed] Briefs before the Supreme Court, including by the U.S. government, have argued that some state constitutional amendments relating to the modern conception of separation of church and state (Blaine Amendments) were motivated by and intended to enact anti-Catholicism.
Who is the Executive Director of the Baptist Joint Committee?
5731dee2e17f3d14004224cd
J. Brent Walker
0
False
What does Walker feel does not impugn the validity of the principle of separation of church and state?
5731dee2e17f3d14004224ce
supported by some who exhibited an anti-Catholic animus or a secularist bent
167
False
Who have argued for the separation of church and state for reasons having nothing to do with a desire for a secular culture?
5731dee2e17f3d14004224cf
Champions of religious liberty
291
False
Separationists opposed the Catholic church when it sought to do what?
5731dee2e17f3d14004224d0
tap into the public till to support its parochial schools
542
False
What does a principled debate on the issues not support a charge of?
5731dee2e17f3d14004224d1
religious bigotry
733
False
J. Brent Walker
0
Who is the former Executive Director of the Baptist Joint Committee?
5ad14baa645df0001a2d161a
True
supported by some who exhibited an anti-Catholic animus or a secularist bent
167
What does Walker feel does impugn the validity of the principle of separation of church and state?
5ad14baa645df0001a2d161b
True
Champions of religious liberty
291
Who have argued for the separation of church and state for reasons having everything to do with a desire for a secular culture?
5ad14baa645df0001a2d161c
True
tap into the public
542
Separationists agreed with the Catholic church when it sought to do what?
5ad14baa645df0001a2d161d
True
religious bigotry
733
What does a principled debate on the issues support a charge of?
5ad14baa645df0001a2d161e
True
J. Brent Walker, Executive Director of the Baptist Joint Committee, responded to Hamburger's claims noting; "The fact that the separation of church and state has been supported by some who exhibited an anti-Catholic animus or a secularist bent does not impugn the validity of the principle. Champions of religious liberty have argued for the separation of church and state for reasons having nothing to do with anti-Catholicism or desire for a secular culture. Of course, separationists have opposed the Catholic Church when it has sought to tap into the public till to support its parochial schools or to argue for on-campus released time in the public schools. But that principled debate on the issues does not support a charge of religious bigotry"
What did evangelicals want to keep apart?
5731df48e99e3014001e6378
the spiritual and secular worlds
207
False
What did religious freedom result from?
5731df48e99e3014001e6379
an alliance of unlikely partners
281
False
What profession does Frank Lambert have?
5731df48e99e3014001e637a
historian
327
False
What is the name of Lambert's book?
5731df48e99e3014001e637b
The Founding Fathers and the Place of Religion in America
363
False
What did Deists and skeptics join together to fight for?
5731df48e99e3014001e637c
a complete separation of church and state
578
False
spiritual and secular worlds
211
What didn't evangelicals want to keep apart?
5ad14c25645df0001a2d1638
True
an alliance of unlikely partners
281
What didn't religious freedom result from?
5ad14c25645df0001a2d1639
True
historian
327
What profession doesn't Frank Lambert have?
5ad14c25645df0001a2d163a
True
The Founding Fathers and the Place of Religion in America
363
What is the name of Mambert's book?
5ad14c25645df0001a2d163b
True
complete separation of church and state.
580
What did Deists and skeptics join together to fight against?
5ad14c25645df0001a2d163c
True
Steven Waldman notes that; "The evangelicals provided the political muscle for the efforts of Madison and Jefferson, not merely because they wanted to block official churches but because they wanted to keep the spiritual and secular worlds apart." "Religious freedom resulted from an alliance of unlikely partners," writes the historian Frank Lambert in his book The Founding Fathers and the Place of Religion in America. "New Light evangelicals such as Isaac Bachus and John Leland joined forces with Deists and skeptics such as James Madison and Thomas Jefferson to fight for a complete separation of church and state."
What does Bellah say the separation of church and state is grounded firmly in?
5731e0ad0fdd8d15006c65eb
constitution of the United States
112
False
What does Bellah use the term "civil religion' to describe?
5731e0ad0fdd8d15006c65ec
the specific relation between politics and religion
296
False
Whose speech does Bellah's 1967 article analyze?
5731e0ad0fdd8d15006c65ed
John F. Kennedy
420
False
What word does Bellah ask how a President is justified to use?
5731e0ad0fdd8d15006c65ee
God
534
False
What has the separation of church and state failed to deny the political realm of?
5731e0ad0fdd8d15006c65ef
a religious dimension
636
False
constitution of the United States
112
What does Bellah say the separation of church and state is not grounded firmly in?
5ad14c5d645df0001a2d164c
True
specific relation between politics and religion in the United States
300
What doesn't Bellah use the term "civil religion' to describe?
5ad14c5d645df0001a2d164d
True
John F. Kennedy
420
Whose speech does Bellah's 1977 article analyze?
5ad14c5d645df0001a2d164e
True
God
534
What word does Bellah ask how a President is justified to not use?
5ad14c5d645df0001a2d164f
True
religious dimension
638
What has the separation of church and state failed to approve the political realm of?
5ad14c5d645df0001a2d1650
True
Robert N. Bellah has in his writings that although the separation of church and state is grounded firmly in the constitution of the United States, this does not mean that there is no religious dimension in the political society of the United States. He used the term "Civil Religion" to describe the specific relation between politics and religion in the United States. His 1967 article analyzes the inaugural speech of John F. Kennedy: "Considering the separation of church and state, how is a president justified in using the word 'God' at all? The answer is that the separation of church and state has not denied the political realm a religious dimension."
Who has argued the United States is a model for the world in separation of church and state is a good thing?
5731e1420fdd8d15006c65f5
Robert S. Wood
0
False
What does having no state-run or state-established allow a variety of religions to do?
5731e1420fdd8d15006c65f6
flourish
242
False
Where is the Center for New Religions located?
5731e1420fdd8d15006c65f7
Toronto
268
False
What does Wood believe the U.S. operates on?
5731e1420fdd8d15006c65f8
a sort of civic religion
542
False
What does Wood call the approach of allowing individuals the freedom to decide what they want to believe?
5731e1420fdd8d15006c65f9
genius of religious sentiment in the United States
807
False
Robert S. Wood
0
Who hasn't argued the United States is a model for the world in separation of church and state is a good thing?
5ad14c96645df0001a2d1660
True
flourish
242
What does having no state-run or state-established allow a variety of non-religions to do?
5ad14c96645df0001a2d1661
True
Toronto
268
Where did the Center for New Religions leave?
5ad14c96645df0001a2d1662
True
a sort of civic religion
542
What does Wood believe the U.K. operates on?
5ad14c96645df0001a2d1663
True
genius of religious sentiment in the United States
807
What does Wood call the approach of allowing individuals the freedom to decide what they don't want to believe?
5ad14c96645df0001a2d1664
True
Robert S. Wood has argued that the United States is a model for the world in terms of how a separation of church and state—no state-run or state-established church—is good for both the church and the state, allowing a variety of religions to flourish. Speaking at the Toronto-based Center for New Religions, Wood said that the freedom of conscience and assembly allowed under such a system has led to a "remarkable religiosity" in the United States that isn't present in other industrialized nations. Wood believes that the U.S. operates on "a sort of civic religion," which includes a generally-shared belief in a creator who "expects better of us." Beyond that, individuals are free to decide how they want to believe and fill in their own creeds and express their conscience. He calls this approach the "genius of religious sentiment in the United States."
Protestantism
What type of faith is Protestantism?
5731b64f0fdd8d15006c6479
Christian
27
False
Whose teachings were once considered to be heretical?
5731b64f0fdd8d15006c647a
Martin Luther
512
False
Other than Protestantism, what are the other two divisions of Christianity?
5731b64f0fdd8d15006c647b
Roman Catholicism and Eastern Orthodoxy
270
False
Who wrote a letter protesting the condemnation of Martin Luther?
5731b64f0fdd8d15006c647c
Lutheran princes
442
False
What was the name of the movement that started Protestantism?
5731b64f0fdd8d15006c647d
the Protestant Reformation
78
False
Protestantism is a form of Christian faith and practice which originated with the Protestant Reformation,[a] a movement against what its followers considered to be errors in the Roman Catholic Church. It is one of the three major divisions of Christendom, together with Roman Catholicism and Eastern Orthodoxy. Anglicanism is sometimes considered to be independent from Protestantism.[b] The term derives from the letter of protestation from Lutheran princes in 1529 against an edict condemning the teachings of Martin Luther as heretical.
What do all Protestantism denominations reject?
5731b75cb9d445190005e4b1
the notion of papal supremacy over the Church universal
36
False
What Catholic doctrine is usually denied in Protestantism?
5731b75cb9d445190005e4b2
transubstantiation,
142
False
What is the term to describe using only faith for justification?
5731b75cb9d445190005e4b3
sola fide
378
False
What is the highest authority in Protestantism for morals?
5731b75cb9d445190005e4b4
the Bible
440
False
What is the term to describe the differences between Protestantism and Catholicism?
5731b75cb9d445190005e4b5
Five solae
573
False
All Protestant denominations reject the notion of papal supremacy over the Church universal and generally deny the Roman Catholic doctrine of transubstantiation, but they disagree among themselves regarding the real presence of Christ in the Eucharist. The various denominations generally emphasize the priesthood of all believers, the doctrine of justification by faith alone (sola fide) rather than by or with good works, and a belief in the Bible alone (rather than with Catholic tradition) as the highest authority in matters of faith and morals (sola scriptura). The "Five solae" summarize the reformers' basic differences in theological beliefs in opposition to the teaching of the Roman Catholic Church of the day.
Where did Lutheranism begin?
5731b919e17f3d140042232f
Germany
80
False
Name three early Protestant reformers.
5731b919e17f3d1400422330
John Calvin, Huldrych Zwingli, and John Knox
432
False
Where did Arminianism take hold?
5731b919e17f3d1400422331
the Netherlands and parts of Germany
514
False
Who ended Catholic supremecy in England?
5731b919e17f3d1400422332
King Henry VIII
561
False
Who made large contributions in the sciences in latter centuries?
5731b919e17f3d1400422333
Protestants
1214
False
Protestantism spread in Europe during the 16th century. Lutheranism spread from Germany into its surrounding areas,[c] Denmark,[d] Norway,[e] Sweden,[f] Finland,[g] Prussia,[h] Latvia,[i], Estonia,[j] and Iceland,[k] as well as other smaller territories. Reformed churches were founded primarily in Germany and its adjacent regions,[l] Hungary,[m] the Netherlands,[n] Scotland,[o] Switzerland,[p] and France[q] by such reformers as John Calvin, Huldrych Zwingli, and John Knox. Arminianism[r] gained supporters in the Netherlands and parts of Germany. In 1534, King Henry VIII put an end to all papal jurisdiction in England[s] after the Pope failed to annul his marriage to Catherine of Aragon; this opened the door to reformational ideas, notably during the following reign of Edward VI, through Thomas Cranmer, Richard Hooker, Matthew Parker and other theologians. There were also reformational efforts throughout continental Europe known as the Radical Reformation—a response to perceived corruption in both the Roman Catholic Church and the expanding Magisterial Reformation led by Luther and various other reformers—which gave rise to Anabaptist, Moravian, and other Pietistic movements. In later centuries, Protestants developed their own culture, which made major contributions in education, the humanities and sciences, the political and social order, the economy and the arts, and other fields.
What percentage of Christians are Protestant?
5731ba0e0fdd8d15006c64a1
nearly forty percent
62
False
Which continents have some form of Protestantism?
5731ba0e0fdd8d15006c64a2
all populated continents
136
False
What types of Protestantism are increasing?
5731ba0e0fdd8d15006c64a3
Nondenominational, evangelical, independent and other churches
605
False
What Protestant church has members around the world?
5731ba0e0fdd8d15006c64a4
the Anglican Communion
432
False
How many people are considered Protestant?
5731ba0e0fdd8d15006c64a5
more than 900 million
26
False
Collectively encompassing more than 900 million adherents, or nearly forty percent of Christians worldwide, Protestantism is present on all populated continents.[t] The movement is more divided theologically and ecclesiastically than either Eastern Orthodoxy or Roman Catholicism, lacking both structural unity and central human authority. Some Protestant churches do have a worldwide scope and distribution of membership (notably, the Anglican Communion), while others are confined to a single country, or even are solitary church bodies or congregations (such as the former Prussian Union of churches). Nondenominational, evangelical, independent and other churches are on the rise, and constitute a significant part of Protestant Christianity.
From what language does the term evangelical originate?
5731bb9de99e3014001e6222
German
103
False
What German word refers to the gospel or being Protestant?
5731bb9de99e3014001e6223
evangelisch
111
False
What English word for a church began with the Puritans in England?
5731bb9de99e3014001e6224
evangelical
543
False
Name two contributors to Reformed churches.
5731bb9de99e3014001e6225
John Calvin, Huldrych Zwingli
964
False
Who brought Evangelicalism to the U.S.?
5731bb9de99e3014001e6226
the Puritans
681
False
During the Reformation, the term was hardly used outside of the German politics. The word evangelical (German: evangelisch), which refers to the gospel, was much more widely used for those involved in the religious movement. Nowadays, this word is still preferred among some of the historical Protestant denominations, above all the ones in the German-speaking area such as the EKD. The German word evangelisch means Protestant, and is different from the German evangelikal, which refers to churches shaped by Evangelicalism. The English word evangelical usually refers to Evangelical Protestant churches, and therefore not to Protestantism as a whole. It traces its roots back to the Puritans in England, where Evangelicalism originated, and then was brought to the United States. The word reformatorisch is used as an alternative for evangelisch in German, and is different from English reformed (German: reformiert), which refers to churches shaped by ideas of John Calvin, Huldrych Zwingli and other Reformed theologians.
What is the term for teaching by only scripture?
5731bcb9e17f3d1400422353
sola scriptura
128
False
How many primary doctrines are focused on the Bible?
5731bcb9e17f3d1400422354
four
188
False
What is the term that means all in the Bible is true?
5731bcb9e17f3d1400422355
inerrancy
413
False
What power can help someone overcome sin?
5731bcb9e17f3d1400422356
the Holy Spirit
438
False
What is the term for needing the Bible for salvation?
5731bcb9e17f3d1400422357
necessity
265
False
The use of the phrases as summaries of teaching emerged over time during the Reformation, based on the overarching principle of sola scriptura (by scripture alone). This idea contains the four main doctrines on the Bible: that its teaching is needed for salvation (necessity); that all the doctrine necessary for salvation comes from the Bible alone (sufficiency); that everything taught in the Bible is correct (inerrancy); and that, by the Holy Spirit overcoming sin, believers may read and understand truth from the Bible itself, though understanding is difficult, so the means used to guide individual believers to the true teaching is often mutual discussion within the church (clarity).
Which ideas had little criticism for the most part?
5731bdcb0fdd8d15006c64d7
necessity and inerrancy
4
False
What is the term for how the church as a whole works?
5731bdcb0fdd8d15006c64d8
ecclesiology
340
False
What group believes that some in the church have a special status to understand the bible?
5731bdcb0fdd8d15006c64d9
Catholics
533
False
At what period was inerrancy debated?
5731bdcb0fdd8d15006c64da
the Enlightenment
141
False
What item could be learned to gain salvation?
5731bdcb0fdd8d15006c64db
the Bible
253
False
The necessity and inerrancy were well-established ideas, garnering little criticism, though they later came under debate from outside during the Enlightenment. The most contentious idea at the time though was the notion that anyone could simply pick up the Bible and learn enough to gain salvation. Though the reformers were concerned with ecclesiology (the doctrine of how the church as a body works), they had a different understanding of the process in which truths in scripture were applied to life of believers, compared to the Catholics' idea that certain people within the church, or ideas that were old enough, had a special status in giving understanding of the text.
What is the second principle of Protestantism?
5731beafe17f3d1400422371
sola fide (by faith alone)
27
False
What was Luther's main principle?
5731beafe17f3d1400422372
sola fide (by faith alone)
27
False
What principle made the Bible the one source for teaching?
5731beafe17f3d1400422373
sola scriptura
291
False
What did reformers considered their beliefs to be, in terms of focus?
5731beafe17f3d1400422374
Christocentric
576
False
Faith can bring what eternal benefit?
5731beafe17f3d1400422375
salvation
115
False
The second main principle, sola fide (by faith alone), states that faith in Christ is sufficient alone for eternal salvation. Though argued from scripture, and hence logically consequent to sola scriptura, this is the guiding principle of the work of Luther and the later reformers. Because sola scriptura placed the Bible as the only source of teaching, sola fide epitomises the main thrust of the teaching the reformers wanted to get back to, namely the direct, close, personal connection between Christ and the believer, hence the reformers' contention that their work was Christocentric.
When did Protestantism begin to split?
5731bfaae17f3d140042238d
the mid-to-late 16th century
75
False
What was one of the main causes of the split in Protestantism?
5731bfaae17f3d140042238e
controversy over the Eucharist
149
False
What Catholic belief did early Protestants not agree with?
5731bfaae17f3d140042238f
transubstantiation
236
False
What two substances are used in a Catholic Mass?
5731bfaae17f3d1400422390
bread and wine
279
False
Whose body and blood is considered present in Holy Communion?
5731bfaae17f3d1400422391
Christ
496
False
The Protestant movement began to diverge into several distinct branches in the mid-to-late 16th century. One of the central points of divergence was controversy over the Eucharist. Early Protestants rejected the Roman Catholic dogma of transubstantiation, which teaches that the bread and wine used in the sacrificial rite of the Mass lose their natural substance by being transformed into the body, blood, soul, and divinity of Christ. They disagreed with one another concerning the presence of Christ and his body and blood in Holy Communion.
Who was one of the first to try to reform the Catholic Church?
5731c09db9d445190005e50b
Arnold of Brescia
19
False
When were the Waldensians created?
5731c09db9d445190005e50c
the early 1170s
377
False
In what year were the Waldensians labeled as heretics?
5731c09db9d445190005e50d
1215
533
False
Where does the Waldensian movement still exist currently?
5731c09db9d445190005e50e
Italy
668
False
What teachings originated with Arnold of Brescia?
5731c09db9d445190005e50f
apostolic poverty
181
False
In the late 1130s, Arnold of Brescia, an Italian canon regular became one of the first theologians to attempt to reform the Roman Catholic Church. After his death, his teachings on apostolic poverty gained currency among Arnoldists, and later more widely among Waldensians and the Spiritual Franciscans, though no written word of his has survived the official condemnation. In the early 1170s, Peter Waldo founded the Waldensians. He advocated an interpretation of the Gospel that led to conflicts with the Roman Catholic Church. By 1215, the Waldensians were declared heretical and subject to persecution. Despite that, the movement continues to exist to this day in Italy, as a part of the wider Reformed tradition.
Who started the Hussite movement?
5731c670b9d445190005e529
Jan Hus
47
False
Whose words were an inspiration for Jan Hus?
5731c670b9d445190005e52a
John Wycliffe
124
False
How many crusades were waged against the Hussites?
5731c670b9d445190005e52b
five
459
False
Who called the crusades against the Hussites?
5731c670b9d445190005e52c
the Pope
511
False
How did Jan Hus die?
5731c670b9d445190005e52d
burned at the stake
275
False
Beginning in first decade of the 15th century, Jan Hus—a Roman Catholic priest, Czech reformist and professor—influenced by John Wycliffe's writings, founded the Hussite movement. He strongly advocated his reformist Bohemian religious denomination. He was excommunicated and burned at the stake in Constance, Bishopric of Constance in 1415 by secular authorities for unrepentant and persistent heresy. After his execution, a revolt erupted. Hussites defeated five continuous crusades proclaimed against them by the Pope.
When did Martin Luther attach his 95 theses on the door of the church?
5731c7ade17f3d14004223d7
31 October 1517
3
False
What did the theses argue against selling?
5731c7ade17f3d14004223d8
indulgences
89
False
What Catholic devotion would Martin Luther write about after the 95 theses/
5731c7ade17f3d14004223d9
Virgin Mary
423
False
Where was All Saints' Church?
5731c7ade17f3d14004223da
Wittenberg
154
False
Who did Martin Luther criticize in the 95 theses?
5731c7ade17f3d14004223db
the Church and the papacy
200
False
On 31 October 1517, Martin Luther supposedly nailed his 95 theses against the selling of indulgences at the door of the All Saints', the Castle Church in Wittenberg. The theses debated and criticised the Church and the papacy, but concentrated upon the selling of indulgences and doctrinal policies about purgatory, particular judgment, and the authority of the pope. He would later write works on the Catholic devotion to Virgin Mary, the intercession of and devotion to the saints, the sacraments, mandatory clerical celibacy, monasticism, further on the authority of the pope, the ecclesiastical law, censure and excommunication, the role of secular rulers in religious matters, the relationship between Christianity and the law, good works, and the sacraments.
Who condemned the Reformation?
5731c848b9d445190005e53d
the Pope
79
False
Who wrote the Ordinances of 1541?
5731c848b9d445190005e53e
John Calvin
114
False
What city became the unofficial capital of the Protestant movement?
5731c848b9d445190005e53f
Geneva
691
False
What type of missionaries were taught in Geneva?
5731c848b9d445190005e540
Calvinist
838
False
When did John Calvin die?
5731c848b9d445190005e541
1563
916
False
Following the excommunication of Luther and condemnation of the Reformation by the Pope, the work and writings of John Calvin were influential in establishing a loose consensus among various groups in Switzerland, Scotland, Hungary, Germany and elsewhere. After the expulsion of its Bishop in 1526, and the unsuccessful attempts of the Bern reformer William Farel, Calvin was asked to use the organisational skill he had gathered as a student of law to discipline the "fallen city" of Geneva. His Ordinances of 1541 involved a collaboration of Church affairs with the City council and consistory to bring morality to all areas of life. After the establishment of the Geneva academy in 1559, Geneva became the unofficial capital of the Protestant movement, providing refuge for Protestant exiles from all over Europe and educating them as Calvinist missionaries. The faith continued to spread after Calvin's death in 1563.
What was the nickname for French Protestants?
5731c971e17f3d14004223e1
Huguenots
98
False
What did the French find alienating about Catholicism?
5731c971e17f3d14004223e2
the obduracy and the complacency of the Catholic establishment
402
False
When were French nobles converted to Protestantism?
5731c971e17f3d14004223e3
the 1550s
599
False
Whose death caused an increase in the French civil wars?
5731c971e17f3d14004223e4
Henry II
765
False
When was the St. Bartholomew's Day massacre?
5731c971e17f3d14004223e5
August 1572
938
False
Protestantism also spread from the German lands into France, where the Protestants were nicknamed Huguenots. Calvin continued to take an interest in the French religious affairs from his base in Geneva. He regularly trained pastors to lead congregations there. Despite heavy persecution, the Reformed tradition made steady progress across large sections of the nation, appealing to people alienated by the obduracy and the complacency of the Catholic establishment. French Protestantism came to acquire a distinctly political character, made all the more obvious by the conversions of nobles during the 1550s. This established the preconditions for a series of conflicts, known as the French Wars of Religion. The civil wars gained impetus with the sudden death of Henry II of France in 1559. Atrocity and outrage became the defining characteristics of the time, illustrated at their most intense in the St. Bartholomew's Day massacre of August 1572, when the Roman Catholic party annihilated between 30,000 and 100,000 Huguenots across France. The wars only concluded when Henry IV of France issued the Edict of Nantes, promising official toleration of the Protestant minority, but under highly restricted conditions. Roman Catholicism remained the official state religion, and the fortunes of French Protestants gradually declined over the next century, culminating in Louis XIV's Edict of Fontainebleau which revoked the Edict of Nantes and made Roman Catholicism the sole legal religion once again. In response to the Edict of Fontainebleau, Frederick William I, Elector of Brandenburg declared the Edict of Potsdam, giving free passage to Huguenot refugees. In the late 17th century many Huguenots fled to England, the Netherlands, Prussia, Switzerland, and the English and Dutch overseas colonies. A significant community in France remained in the Cévennes region.
Who began the Protestant movement in Switzerland?
5731ca8be17f3d14004223ff
Huldrych Zwingli
87
False
Which two areas had a long history of resentment?
5731ca8be17f3d1400422400
the German states and the Swiss Confederation
315
False
What was the name of the meeting to make an alliance between Zwingli and Luther?
5731ca8be17f3d1400422401
the Colloquy of Marburg
590
False
What Prince hosted the Colloquy of Marburg?
5731ca8be17f3d1400422402
Prince Philip of Hesse
446
False
What did the Colloquy of Marburg become infamous for?
5731ca8be17f3d1400422403
its failure
645
False
Parallel to events in Germany, a movement began in Switzerland under the leadership of Huldrych Zwingli. Zwingli was a scholar and preacher, who in 1518 moved to Zurich. Although the two movements agreed on many issues of theology, some unresolved differences kept them separate. A long-standing resentment between the German states and the Swiss Confederation led to heated debate over how much Zwingli owed his ideas to Lutheranism. The German Prince Philip of Hesse saw potential in creating an alliance between Zwingli and Luther. A meeting was held in his castle in 1529, now known as the Colloquy of Marburg, which has become infamous for its failure. The two men could not come to any agreement due to their disputation over one key doctrine.
Under whose reign did the Church of England part from Rome?
5731cbb4b9d445190005e56b
Henry VIII
66
False
When was the Act of Supremacy passed?
5731cbb4b9d445190005e56c
1534
679
False
Who was made the Supreme Head of the Church of England in 1534?
5731cbb4b9d445190005e56d
King Henry
597
False
What made Anglicanism into a more distinct tradition?
5731cbb4b9d445190005e56e
The Elizabethan Religious Settlement
1039
False
In what years were the Dissolution of the Monasteries carried out?
5731cbb4b9d445190005e56f
Between 1535 and 1540
783
False
The political separation of the Church of England from Rome under Henry VIII brought England alongside this broad Reformation movement. Reformers in the Church of England alternated between sympathies for ancient Catholic tradition and more Reformed principles, gradually developing into a tradition considered a middle way (via media) between the Roman Catholic and Protestant traditions. The English Reformation followed a particular course. The different character of the English Reformation came primarily from the fact that it was driven initially by the political necessities of Henry VIII. King Henry decided to remove the Church of England from the authority of Rome. In 1534, the Act of Supremacy recognized Henry as the only Supreme Head on earth of the Church of England. Between 1535 and 1540, under Thomas Cromwell, the policy known as the Dissolution of the Monasteries was put into effect. Following a brief Roman Catholic restoration during the reign of Mary I, a loose consensus developed during the reign of Elizabeth I. The Elizabethan Religious Settlement largely formed Anglicanism into a distinctive church tradition. The compromise was uneasy and was capable of veering between extreme Calvinism on the one hand and Roman Catholicism on the other. It was relatively successful until the Puritan Revolution or English Civil War in the 17th century.
The growth of Puritanism happened during what age?
5731cc840fdd8d15006c6541
the Elizabethan Age
139
False
The Puritan movement worked on reforming what church?
5731cc840fdd8d15006c6542
the Church of England
216
False
What did the Puritans want the Church of England to emulate?
5731cc840fdd8d15006c6543
the Protestant churches of Europe
305
False
What was another name for the later Puritan movement?
5731cc840fdd8d15006c6544
dissenters and nonconformists
408
False
What did the later Puritan movement create?
5731cc840fdd8d15006c6545
various Reformed denominations
474
False
The success of the Counter-Reformation on the Continent and the growth of a Puritan party dedicated to further Protestant reform polarised the Elizabethan Age. The early Puritan movement was a movement for reform in the Church of England. The desire was for the Church of England to resemble more closely the Protestant churches of Europe, especially Geneva. The later Puritan movement, often referred to as dissenters and nonconformists, eventually led to the formation of various Reformed denominations.
When was the Scottish Reformation?
5731cd690fdd8d15006c6553
1560
28
False
The Scottish Reformation decreased what country's influence?
5731cd690fdd8d15006c6554
France
251
False
Who was the leader of the Scottish Reformation?
5731cd690fdd8d15006c6555
John Knox
259
False
Whose regime made possible the Scottish Reformation?
5731cd690fdd8d15006c6556
Mary of Guise
611
False
When was the Papal Jurisdiction Act passed?
5731cd690fdd8d15006c6557
1560
430
False
The Scottish Reformation of 1560 decisively shaped the Church of Scotland. The Reformation in Scotland culminated ecclesiastically in the establishment of a church along Reformed lines, and politically in the triumph of English influence over that of France. John Knox is regarded as the leader of the Scottish Reformation. The Scottish Reformation Parliament of 1560 repudiated the pope's authority by the Papal Jurisdiction Act 1560, forbade the celebration of the Mass and approved a Protestant Confession of Faith. It was made possible by a revolution against French hegemony under the regime of the regent Mary of Guise, who had governed Scotland in the name of her absent daughter.
When was the German Peasants' War?
5731ce3ab9d445190005e575
1524–25
70
False
What war was waged from 1618 to 1648?
5731ce3ab9d445190005e576
the Thirty Years' War
314
False
How much was the German population reduced during the Thirty Years' War?
5731ce3ab9d445190005e577
between 25% and 40%
398
False
What treaty ended the Thirty Years' War?
5731ce3ab9d445190005e578
the Peace of Westphalia
456
False
Where was the German Peasants' War?
5731ce3ab9d445190005e579
the Bavarian, Thuringian and Swabian principalities
92
False
In the course of this religious upheaval, the German Peasants' War of 1524–25 swept through the Bavarian, Thuringian and Swabian principalities. After the Eighty Years' War in the Low Countries and the French Wars of Religion, the confessional division of the states of the Holy Roman Empire eventually erupted in the Thirty Years' War between 1618 and 1648. It devastated much of Germany, killing between 25% and 40% of its population. The main tenets of the Peace of Westphalia, which ended the Thirty Years' War, were:
What movement occurred during the 1730's and 1740's?
5731cf05e17f3d1400422447
The First Great Awakening
0
False
What movement made a permanent mark on Protestantism in the U.S.?
5731cf05e17f3d1400422448
The First Great Awakening
0
False
The First Great Awakening was an evangelical and revitalization movement that swept through Protestant Europe and British America, especially the American colonies in the 1730s and 1740s, leaving a permanent impact on American Protestantism. It resulted from powerful preaching that gave listeners a sense of deep personal revelation of their need of salvation by Jesus Christ. Pulling away from ritual, ceremony, sacramentalism and hierarchy, it made Christianity intensely personal to the average person by fostering a deep sense of spiritual conviction and redemption, and by encouraging introspection and a commitment to a new standard of personal morality.
When did the Second Great Awakening start?
5731d317e99e3014001e6308
around 1790
33
False
Which congregations joined the Second Great Awakening the most after 1820?
5731d317e99e3014001e6309
Baptist and Methodist
116
False
When did the Second Great Awakening lose momentum?
5731d317e99e3014001e630a
by the late 1840s
208
False
What did the Second Great Awakening create?
5731d317e99e3014001e630b
the formation of new denominations
496
False
What was the Second Great Awakening a reaction against?
5731d317e99e3014001e630c
skepticism, deism, and rationalism
271
False
The Second Great Awakening began around 1790. It gained momentum by 1800. After 1820, membership rose rapidly among Baptist and Methodist congregations, whose preachers led the movement. It was past its peak by the late 1840s. It has been described as a reaction against skepticism, deism, and rationalism, although why those forces became pressing enough at the time to spark revivals is not fully understood. It enrolled millions of new members in existing evangelical denominations and led to the formation of new denominations.
When was the Third Great Awakening?
5731d461e17f3d1400422467
the late 1850s to the early 20th century
137
False
What denominations did the Third Great Awakening affect?
5731d461e17f3d1400422468
pietistic Protestant denominations
191
False
What movement was affiliated with the Third Great Awakening?
5731d461e17f3d1400422469
the Social Gospel Movement
436
False
What other movement gained its force from the Third Great Awakening?
5731d461e17f3d140042246a
the worldwide missionary movement
556
False
What new groups were formed as a result of the Third Great Awakening?
5731d461e17f3d140042246b
the Holiness, Nazarene, and Christian Science movements
622
False
The Third Great Awakening refers to a hypothetical historical period that was marked by religious activism in American history and spans the late 1850s to the early 20th century. It affected pietistic Protestant denominations and had a strong element of social activism. It gathered strength from the postmillennial belief that the Second Coming of Christ would occur after mankind had reformed the entire earth. It was affiliated with the Social Gospel Movement, which applied Christianity to social issues and gained its force from the Awakening, as did the worldwide missionary movement. New groupings emerged, such as the Holiness, Nazarene, and Christian Science movements.
What modern movement began in the 20th century?
5731d56fe17f3d1400422471
the modern Pentecostal movement
81
False
What were the roots of the modern Pentecostal movement?
5731d56fe17f3d1400422472
Methodist and Wesleyan
126
False
What movement did Pentecostalism create?
5731d56fe17f3d1400422473
the Charismatic movement
532
False
In what city did the modern Pentecostal movement begin?
5731d56fe17f3d1400422474
Los Angeles
220
False
What type of mission was the birthplace of the modern Pentecostal movement?
5731d56fe17f3d1400422475
urban
187
False
A noteworthy development in 20th-century Protestant Christianity was the rise of the modern Pentecostal movement. Sprung from Methodist and Wesleyan roots, it arose out of meetings at an urban mission on Azusa Street in Los Angeles. From there it spread around the world, carried by those who experienced what they believed to be miraculous moves of God there. These Pentecost-like manifestations have steadily been in evidence throughout the history, such as seen in the two Great Awakenings. Pentecostalism, which in turn birthed the Charismatic movement within already established denominations, continues to be an important force in Western Christianity.
Where has there been a rise in evangelical Protestantism?
5731db10e99e3014001e634c
In the United States and elsewhere in the world
0
False
What type of churches have declined?
5731db10e99e3014001e634d
mainstream liberal churches
222
False
When did Liberal Christianity increase?
5731db10e99e3014001e634e
In the post–World War I era
251
False
When did conservative churches start to increase?
5731db10e99e3014001e634f
In the post–World War II era
410
False
What type of evangelical churches are the most popular?
5731db10e99e3014001e6350
those that are more exclusively evangelical
142
False
In the United States and elsewhere in the world, there has been a marked rise in the evangelical wing of Protestant denominations, especially those that are more exclusively evangelical, and a corresponding decline in the mainstream liberal churches. In the post–World War I era, Liberal Christianity was on the rise, and a considerable number of seminaries held and taught from a liberal perspective as well. In the post–World War II era, the trend began to swing back towards the conservative camp in America's seminaries and church structures.
What direction has Europe moved towards?
5731dc25b9d445190005e5c7
secularism
125
False
What caused the spread of secularism?
5731dc25b9d445190005e5c8
The Enlightenment
137
False
What areas have a higher rate of Christian observance?
5731dc25b9d445190005e5c9
North America, South America and Australia
373
False
What country is more religious than other developed nations?
5731dc25b9d445190005e5ca
United States
478
False
When did South America show an increase in Evangelicals?
5731dc25b9d445190005e5cb
the 20th and 21st centuries
675
False
In Europe, there has been a general move away from religious observance and belief in Christian teachings and a move towards secularism. The Enlightenment is largely responsible for the spread of secularism. Several scholars have argued for a link between the rise of secularism and Protestantism, attributing it to the wide-ranging freedom in the Protestant countries. In North America, South America and Australia Christian religious observance is much higher than in Europe. United States remains particularly religious in comparison to other developed countries. South America, historically Roman Catholic, has experienced a large Evangelical and Pentecostal infusion in the 20th and 21st centuries.
Which reformation was seen as not being effective enough?
5731dceee99e3014001e6364
the Magisterial Reformation
61
False
What did Karlstadt call Lutheran theologians?
5731dceee99e3014001e6365
new papists
238
False
What is another name for magister?
5731dceee99e3014001e6366
teacher
290
False
What were reform movement leaders compared to?
5731dceee99e3014001e6367
Roman Popes
643
False
What has been linked with pacifism?
5731dceee99e3014001e6368
Anabaptism
777
False
In the view of many associated with the Radical Reformation, the Magisterial Reformation had not gone far enough. Radical Reformer, Andreas von Bodenstein Karlstadt, for example, referred to the Lutheran theologians at Wittenberg as the "new papists". Since the term "magister" also means "teacher", the Magisterial Reformation is also characterized by an emphasis on the authority of a teacher. This is made evident in the prominence of Luther, Calvin, and Zwingli as leaders of the reform movements in their respective areas of ministry. Because of their authority, they were often criticized by Radical Reformers as being too much like the Roman Popes. A more political side of the Radical Reformation can be seen in the thought and practice of Hans Hut, although typically Anabaptism has been associated with pacifism.
What type of church do Protestants believe in?
5731ddf6e99e3014001e636e
the invisible church
101
False
Who comprises the invisible church?
5731ddf6e99e3014001e636f
all who profess faith in Jesus Christ
141
False
What is the name of the main principles of Protestantism?
5731ddf6e99e3014001e6370
the five solas
497
False
What other entities are also considered to be Protestant?
5731ddf6e99e3014001e6371
non-denominational groups and organizations
557
False
What Catholic doctrine do Protestants not believe in?
5731ddf6e99e3014001e6372
it is the one true church
61
False
Protestants reject the Roman Catholic Church's doctrine that it is the one true church, believing in the invisible church, which consists of all who profess faith in Jesus Christ. Some Protestant denominations are less accepting of other denominations, and the basic orthodoxy of some is questioned by most of the others. Individual denominations also have formed over very subtle theological differences. Other denominations are simply regional or ethnic expressions of the same beliefs. Because the five solas are the main tenets of the Protestant faith, non-denominational groups and organizations are also considered Protestant.
What type of movements have tried to unite Protestant denominations?
5731dedd0fdd8d15006c65cb
Various ecumenical
0
False
Which is larger, divisions or unions of Protestantism?
5731dedd0fdd8d15006c65cc
divisions
165
False
What beliefs do most denominations agree on?
5731dedd0fdd8d15006c65cd
common beliefs in the major aspects of the Christian faith
354
False
What types of doctrines do denominations not agree on?
5731dedd0fdd8d15006c65ce
secondary
437
False
What type of belief defines what is a major or minor doctrine?
5731dedd0fdd8d15006c65cf
idiosyncratic
518
False
Various ecumenical movements have attempted cooperation or reorganization of the various divided Protestant denominations, according to various models of union, but divisions continue to outpace unions, as there is no overarching authority to which any of the churches owe allegiance, which can authoritatively define the faith. Most denominations share common beliefs in the major aspects of the Christian faith while differing in many secondary doctrines, although what is major and what is secondary is a matter of idiosyncratic belief.
What do national churches bring together?
5731df9ae99e3014001e6382
the ecclesiastical structure with the state
68
False
How long has the Faroe Islands church been independent?
5731df9ae99e3014001e6383
since 2007
313
False
Who has the only Reformed church?
5731df9ae99e3014001e6384
Tuvalu
393
False
Who is the head church of the Anglican Communion?
5731df9ae99e3014001e6385
The Church of England
508
False
What type of church does Tonga have?
5731df9ae99e3014001e6386
Methodist
487
False
Several countries have established their national churches, linking the ecclesiastical structure with the state. Jurisdictions where a Protestant denomination has been established as a state religion include several Nordic countries; Denmark (including Greenland), the Faroe Islands (its church being independent since 2007), Iceland and Norway have established Evangelical Lutheran churches. Tuvalu has the only established church in Reformed tradition in the world, while Tonga—in the Methodist tradition. The Church of England is the officially established religious institution in England, and also the Mother Church of the worldwide Anglican Communion.
What is another name for denominational families?
5731e0acb9d445190005e5f5
branches
374
False
What are the major branches of Protestantism?
5731e0acb9d445190005e5f6
Adventist, Anglican, Baptist, Calvinist (Reformed), Lutheran, Methodist and Pentecostal
467
False
What small branch of Protestantism will also be discussed?
5731e0acb9d445190005e5f7
Anabaptist
593
False
What created the differentiation of Protestant branches?
5731e0acb9d445190005e5f8
how they have been influenced by important movements since the Reformation
47
False
What do some branches share in common?
5731e0acb9d445190005e5f9
lineage
189
False
Protestants can be differentiated according to how they have been influenced by important movements since the Reformation, today regarded as branches. Some of these movements have a common lineage, sometimes directly spawning individual denominations. Due to the earlier stated multitude of denominations, this section discusses only the largest denominational families, or branches, widely considered to be a part of Protestantism. These are, in alphabetical order: Adventist, Anglican, Baptist, Calvinist (Reformed), Lutheran, Methodist and Pentecostal. A small but historically significant Anabaptist branch is also discussed.
The Adventist movement has encouraged examining what in full?
5731e27cb9d445190005e617
the whole Bible
453
False
What Adventist groups observe the Sabbath?
5731e27cb9d445190005e618
Seventh-day Adventists and some smaller Adventist groups
478
False
What is the name of the Seventh-day Adventist's core beliefs?
5731e27cb9d445190005e619
the 28 Fundamental Beliefs
651
False
What is used for justification of the 28 Fundamental Beliefs?
5731e27cb9d445190005e61a
Biblical references
705
False
What belief about ultimate punishment do Adventists disagree on?
5731e27cb9d445190005e61b
annihilation or eternal torment
199
False
Although the Adventist churches hold much in common, their theologies differ on whether the intermediate state is unconscious sleep or consciousness, whether the ultimate punishment of the wicked is annihilation or eternal torment, the nature of immortality, whether or not the wicked are resurrected after the millennium, and whether the sanctuary of Daniel 8 refers to the one in heaven or one on earth. The movement has encouraged the examination of the whole Bible, leading Seventh-day Adventists and some smaller Adventist groups to observe the Sabbath. The General Conference of Seventh-day Adventists has compiled that church's core beliefs in the 28 Fundamental Beliefs (1980 and 2005), which use Biblical references as justification.
What does the word Anabaptist describe?
5731e35d0fdd8d15006c660f
one who baptizes again
30
False
Who named the Anabaptists?
5731e35d0fdd8d15006c6610
their persecutors
73
False
What baptism do Anabaptists reject?
5731e35d0fdd8d15006c6611
baptism of infants
297
False
Who persecuted the Anabaptists in the 16th century?
5731e35d0fdd8d15006c6612
Magisterial Protestants and Roman Catholics
701
False
Hans Denck was considered what type of reformer?
5731e35d0fdd8d15006c6613
Second Front Reformers
1404
False
The name Anabaptist, meaning "one who baptizes again", was given them by their persecutors in reference to the practice of re-baptizing converts who already had been baptized as infants. Anabaptists required that baptismal candidates be able to make their own confessions of faith and so rejected baptism of infants. The early members of this movement did not accept the name Anabaptist, claiming that since infant baptism was unscriptural and null and void, the baptizing of believers was not a re-baptism but in fact their first real baptism. As a result of their views on the nature of baptism and other issues, Anabaptists were heavily persecuted during the 16th century and into the 17th by both Magisterial Protestants and Roman Catholics.[aa] While most Anabaptists adhered to a literal interpretation of the Sermon on the Mount, which precluded taking oaths, participating in military actions, and participating in civil government, some who practiced re-baptism felt otherwise.[ab] They were thus technically Anabaptists, even though conservative Amish, Mennonites, and Hutterites and some historians tend to consider them as outside of true Anabaptism. Anabaptist reformers of the Radical Reformation are diveded into Radical and the so-called Second Front. Some important Radical Reformation theologians were John of Leiden, Thomas Müntzer, Kaspar Schwenkfeld, Sebastian Franck, Menno Simons. Second Front Reformers included Hans Denck, Conrad Grebel, Balthasar Hubmaier and Felix Manz.
What does Anglican mean?
5731e472b9d445190005e633
the English Church
268
False
When did the word Anglican begin?
5731e472b9d445190005e634
1246
252
False
Who do the Anglican churches have communion with?
5731e472b9d445190005e635
the Archbishop of Canterbury
508
False
How many Anglican Communion members are there in the world?
5731e472b9d445190005e636
80 million
660
False
What power does each national or regional church possess?
5731e472b9d445190005e637
full autonomy
404
False
Anglicanism comprises the Church of England and churches which are historically tied to it or hold similar beliefs, worship practices and church structures. The word Anglican originates in ecclesia anglicana, a medieval Latin phrase dating to at least 1246 that means the English Church. There is no single "Anglican Church" with universal juridical authority, since each national or regional church has full autonomy. As the name suggests, the communion is an association of churches in full communion with the Archbishop of Canterbury. The great majority of Anglicans are members of churches which are part of the international Anglican Communion, which has 80 million adherents.
Who did the Church of England split from?
5731e59ee17f3d140042250f
the Catholic Church
53
False
At what time did the Church of England become independent?
5731e59ee17f3d1400422510
the Elizabethan Religious Settlement
88
False
Who headed the Anglican reforms in the middle of the 16th century?
5731e59ee17f3d1400422511
Archbishop of Canterbury Thomas Cranmer
335
False
The Church of England's reforms put it in the middle of what two traditions?
5731e59ee17f3d1400422512
Lutheranism and Calvinism
461
False
What liturgical forms in Anglicanism were considered unacceptable by many progressive Protestants?
5731e59ee17f3d1400422513
traditional
552
False
The Church of England declared its independence from the Catholic Church at the time of the Elizabethan Religious Settlement. Many of the new Anglican formularies of the mid-16th century corresponded closely to those of contemporary Reformed tradition. These reforms were understood by one of those most responsible for them, the then Archbishop of Canterbury Thomas Cranmer, as navigating a middle way between two of the emerging Protestant traditions, namely Lutheranism and Calvinism. By the end of the century, the retention in Anglicanism of many traditional liturgical forms and of the episcopate was already seen as unacceptable by those promoting the most developed Protestant principles.
According to Baptists, who should have baptisms?
5731e667e17f3d1400422521
professing believers
75
False
What type of baptism do Baptists conduct?
5731e667e17f3d1400422522
complete immersion
176
False
What two offices do Baptists have?
5731e667e17f3d1400422523
pastors and deacons
473
False
What type of churches are most Baptists churches considered to be?
5731e667e17f3d1400422524
Protestant
539
False
What is another term for soul competency?
5731e667e17f3d1400422525
liberty
293
False
Baptists subscribe to a doctrine that baptism should be performed only for professing believers (believer's baptism, as opposed to infant baptism), and that it must be done by complete immersion (as opposed to affusion or sprinkling). Other tenets of Baptist churches include soul competency (liberty), salvation through faith alone, Scripture alone as the rule of faith and practice, and the autonomy of the local congregation. Baptists recognize two ministerial offices, pastors and deacons. Baptist churches are widely considered to be Protestant churches, though some Baptists disavow this identity.
Where was the earliest Baptist church founded?
5731edafe17f3d1400422559
Amsterdam
69
False
Who was the pastor of the first Baptist church?
5731edafe17f3d140042255a
John Smyth
104
False
Who believed that Christ's atonement was for everyone?
5731edafe17f3d140042255b
General Baptists
309
False
Who founded the first Baptist group in what is now the United States?
5731edafe17f3d140042255c
Roger Williams
465
False
Who has spread the teachings of the Baptists to each continent?
5731edafe17f3d140042255d
Baptist missionaries
897
False
Historians trace the earliest church labeled Baptist back to 1609 in Amsterdam, with English Separatist John Smyth as its pastor. In accordance with his reading of the New Testament, he rejected baptism of infants and instituted baptism only of believing adults. Baptist practice spread to England, where the General Baptists considered Christ's atonement to extend to all people, while the Particular Baptists believed that it extended only to the elect. In 1638, Roger Williams established the first Baptist congregation in the North American colonies. In the mid-18th century, the First Great Awakening increased Baptist growth in both New England and the South. The Second Great Awakening in the South in the early 19th century increased church membership, as did the preachers' lessening of support for abolition and manumission of slavery, which had been part of the 18th-century teachings. Baptist missionaries have spread their church to every continent.
What is the most well-known summary of Calvin's teachings?
5731eee6b9d445190005e6ab
the five points of Calvinism
316
False
What area does the five points of Calvinism focus on?
5731eee6b9d445190005e6ac
the Calvinist view on soteriology
375
False
What is a brief description of Calvinism?
5731eee6b9d445190005e6ad
the sovereignty or rule of God in all things
493
False
What Calvinism doctrines are examples of the concept of the sovereignty of God?
5731eee6b9d445190005e6ae
predestination and total depravity
627
False
Who was an early leader in the Reformed churches?
5731eee6b9d445190005e6af
Calvin
94
False
Today, this term also refers to the doctrines and practices of the Reformed churches of which Calvin was an early leader. Less commonly, it can refer to the individual teaching of Calvin himself. The particulars of Calvinist theology may be stated in a number of ways. Perhaps the best known summary is contained in the five points of Calvinism, though these points identify the Calvinist view on soteriology rather than summarizing the system as a whole. Broadly speaking, Calvinism stresses the sovereignty or rule of God in all things — in salvation but also in all of life. This concept is seen clearly in the doctrines of predestination and total depravity.
What is one of the largest Protestant branches with 80 million members?
5731f0150fdd8d15006c667f
Lutheranism
7
False
How popular is the branch of Lutheranism?
5731f0150fdd8d15006c6680
third
128
False
What is the largest body of Lutheran churches?
5731f0150fdd8d15006c6681
The Lutheran World Federation
230
False
How many people belong to the Lutheran World Federation?
5731f0150fdd8d15006c6682
over 72 million people
322
False
Name two smaller Lutheran church bodies.
5731f0150fdd8d15006c6683
International Lutheran Council and the Confessional Evangelical Lutheran Conference
407
False
Today, Lutheranism is one of the largest branches of Protestantism. With approximately 80 million adherents, it constitutes the third most common Protestant confession after historically Pentecostal denominations and Anglicanism. The Lutheran World Federation, the largest global communion of Lutheran churches represents over 72 million people. Additionally, there are also many smaller bodies such as the International Lutheran Council and the Confessional Evangelical Lutheran Conference, as well as independent churches.
Who was the inspiration for Methodism?
5731f0f0b9d445190005e6c9
John Wesley
54
False
Who did Methodism originally attract?
5731f0f0b9d445190005e6ca
workers, agricultural workers, and slaves
469
False
What was John Wesley's occupation?
5731f0f0b9d445190005e6cb
Anglican priest
69
False
How many Methodists are there in the world today?
5731f0f0b9d445190005e6cc
approximately 80 million
386
False
How did the Methodist movement spread so far and wide?
5731f0f0b9d445190005e6cd
vigorous missionary activity
259
False
Methodism identifies principally with the theology of John Wesley—an Anglican priest and evangelist. This evangelical movement originated as a revival within the 18th-century Church of England and became a separate Church following Wesley's death. Because of vigorous missionary activity, the movement spread throughout the British Empire, the United States, and beyond, today claiming approximately 80 million adherents worldwide. Originally it appealed especially to workers, agricultural workers, and slaves.
Methodists believe that Christ achieved salvation for whom?
5731f248e17f3d1400422563
every human being
99
False
What do Methodists believe that one must do to receive Christ's salvation?
5731f248e17f3d1400422564
exercise an act of the will
139
False
What is Methodism known for, as far as music goes?
5731f248e17f3d1400422565
its rich musical tradition
456
False
Who wrote most of the Methodist hymns?
5731f248e17f3d1400422566
John Wesley's brother, Charles
484
False
What Calvinist doctrine is focuses on salvation?
5731f248e17f3d1400422567
monergism
234
False
Soteriologically, most Methodists are Arminian, emphasizing that Christ accomplished salvation for every human being, and that humans must exercise an act of the will to receive it (as opposed to the traditional Calvinist doctrine of monergism). Methodism is traditionally low church in liturgy, although this varies greatly between individual congregations; the Wesleys themselves greatly valued the Anglican liturgy and tradition. Methodism is known for its rich musical tradition; John Wesley's brother, Charles, was instrumental in writing much of the hymnody of the Methodist Church, and many other eminent hymn writers come from the Methodist tradition.
Give two examples of spiritual gifts.
573209dfe17f3d14004225f7
speaking in tongues and divine healing
269
False
What are other terms used to describe Pentecostalism?
573209dfe17f3d14004225f8
Apostolic or Full Gospel
662
False
Pentecostals liken their teachings to those of what age?
573209dfe17f3d14004225f9
Apostolic
574
False
Pentecostals believe in baptism with what entity?
573209dfe17f3d14004225fa
the Holy Spirit
76
False
What three things are Pentecostals committed to?
573209dfe17f3d14004225fb
biblical authority, spiritual gifts, and the miraculous
393
False
This branch of Protestantism is distinguished by belief in the baptism with the Holy Spirit as an experience separate from conversion that enables a Christian to live a Holy Spirit–filled and empowered life. This empowerment includes the use of spiritual gifts such as speaking in tongues and divine healing—two other defining characteristics of Pentecostalism. Because of their commitment to biblical authority, spiritual gifts, and the miraculous, Pentecostals tend to see their movement as reflecting the same kind of spiritual power and teachings that were found in the Apostolic Age of the early church. For this reason, some Pentecostals also use the term Apostolic or Full Gospel to describe their movement.
How many denominations were spawned by Pentecostalism?
57320ae60fdd8d15006c66ff
hundreds
34
False
How many Pentecostals are there in the world?
57320ae60fdd8d15006c6700
over 279 million
202
False
What movement has caused non-Pentecostal churches to accept some Pentecostal beliefs?
57320ae60fdd8d15006c6701
Charismatic
595
False
Who can claim over 500 million members?
57320ae60fdd8d15006c6702
Pentecostal and Charismatic Christianity
627
False
Where is Pentecostalism currently growing the most?
57320ae60fdd8d15006c6703
the global South
310
False
Pentecostalism eventually spawned hundreds of new denominations, including large groups such as the Assemblies of God and the Church of God in Christ, both in the United States and elsewhere. There are over 279 million Pentecostals worldwide, and the movement is growing in many parts of the world, especially the global South. Since the 1960s, Pentecostalism has increasingly gained acceptance from other Christian traditions, and Pentecostal beliefs concerning Spirit baptism and spiritual gifts have been embraced by non-Pentecostal Christians in Protestant and Catholic churches through the Charismatic Movement. Together, Pentecostal and Charismatic Christianity numbers over 500 million adherents.
What do some groups of people who believe in basic Protestant principles identify as?
57320bf8e99e3014001e6482
"Christians" or "born-again Christians"
223
False
What denomination do these small groups belong to?
57320bf8e99e3014001e6483
"non-denominational" or "evangelical"
395
False
How much affiliation do these small groups have with historical denominations?
57320bf8e99e3014001e6484
little
481
False
Who has founded these small groups of Christians?
57320bf8e99e3014001e6485
individual pastors
451
False
There are many other Protestant denominations that do not fit neatly into the mentioned branches, and are far smaller in membership. Some groups of individuals who hold basic Protestant tenets identify themselves simply as "Christians" or "born-again Christians". They typically distance themselves from the confessionalism and/or creedalism of other Christian communities by calling themselves "non-denominational" or "evangelical". Often founded by individual pastors, they have little affiliation with historic denominations.
Where do the Plymouth Brethren hail from?
57320e1ee17f3d1400422633
Dublin, Ireland
107
False
What belief is the emphasis of the Plymouth Brethren?
57320e1ee17f3d1400422634
sola scriptura
215
False
Though the Plymouth Brethren do not have a denominational name, what name is generally used for them?
57320e1ee17f3d1400422635
The Brethren
528
False
When did the Plymouth Brethren originate?
57320e1ee17f3d1400422636
late 1820s
131
False
What denomination do the Brethren originate from?
57320e1ee17f3d1400422637
Anglicanism
160
False
The Plymouth Brethren are a conservative, low church, evangelical movement, whose history can be traced to Dublin, Ireland, in the late 1820s, originating from Anglicanism. Among other beliefs, the group emphasizes sola scriptura. Brethren generally see themselves not as a denomination, but as a network, or even as a collection of overlapping networks, of like-minded independent churches. Although the group refused for many years to take any denominational name to itself—a stance that some of them still maintain—the title The Brethren, is one that many of their number are comfortable with in that the Bible designates all believers as brethren.
What is another informal name for Quaker?
57320f0be17f3d1400422645
Friends
12
False
What is the Quakers unifying belief?
57320f0be17f3d1400422646
the priesthood of all believers
176
False
What have the Quakers tried to avoid?
57320f0be17f3d1400422647
creeds and hierarchical structures
522
False
What collective movement are the Quakers associated with?
57320f0be17f3d1400422648
the Religious Society of Friends
90
False
What types of Christianity do Quakers belong to?
57320f0be17f3d1400422649
evangelical, holiness, liberal, and traditional conservative
302
False
Quakers, or Friends, are members of a family of religious movements collectively known as the Religious Society of Friends. The central unifying doctrine of these movements is the priesthood of all believers. Many Friends view themselves as members of a Christian denomination. They include those with evangelical, holiness, liberal, and traditional conservative Quaker understandings of Christianity. Unlike many other groups that emerged within Christianity, the Religious Society of Friends has actively tried to avoid creeds and hierarchical structures.
What is a prominent example of a movement which crosses over denominational lines?
573247b5e99e3014001e6634
Evangelicalism
158
False
Which movement actually affected the Catholic Church?
573247b5e99e3014001e6635
Charismatic Movement
412
False
What groups beliefs does the Charismatic Movement seek to add to branches of Christianity?
573247b5e99e3014001e6636
Pentecostals
493
False
Name a sub-group of the Charismatic Movement.
573247b5e99e3014001e6637
Neo-charismatic churches
549
False
What other types of churches often adopt charismatic or evangelical beliefs?
573247b5e99e3014001e6638
Nondenominational churches
640
False
There are also Christian movements which cross denominational lines and even branches, and cannot be classified on the same level previously mentioned forms. Evangelicalism is a prominent example. Some of those movements are active exclusively within Protestantism, some are Christian-wide. Transdenominational movements are sometimes capable of affecting parts of the Roman Catholic Church, such as does it the Charismatic Movement, which aims to incorporate beliefs and practices similar to Pentecostals into the various branches of Christianity. Neo-charismatic churches are sometimes regarded as a subgroup of the Charismatic Movement. Nondenominational churches often adopt, or are akin to one of these movements.
What period saw a large upswing in Evangelicalism?
573248b9e17f3d14004227d9
the 18th and 19th centuries
28
False
Methodism is part of what movement?
573248b9e17f3d14004227da
Evangelicalism
158
False
Where did the Great Awakenings increase interest in Evangelicalism?
573248b9e17f3d14004227db
Britain and North America
116
False
What man is associated with the beginnings of Evangelicalism?
573248b9e17f3d14004227dc
Nicolaus Zinzendorf
232
False
It gained great momentum in the 18th and 19th centuries with the emergence of Methodism and the Great Awakenings in Britain and North America. The origins of Evangelicalism are usually traced back to the English Methodist movement, Nicolaus Zinzendorf, the Moravian Church, Lutheran pietism, Presbyterianism and Puritanism. Among leaders and major figures of the Evangelical Protestant movement were John Wesley, George Whitefield, Jonathan Edwards, Billy Graham, Harold John Ockenga, John Stott and Martyn Lloyd-Jones.
What American is considered to have been a seminal influence in the charismatic movement?
573249980fdd8d15006c6905
Dennis Bennett
25
False
When was the Massey conference held?
573249980fdd8d15006c6906
1964
278
False
The Massey conference eventually led to developing what seminars?
573249980fdd8d15006c6907
Life in the Spirit
461
False
Name UK influences on the Charismatic movement.
573249980fdd8d15006c6908
Colin Urquhart, Michael Harper, David Watson
138
False
Where was the Massey conference held?
573249980fdd8d15006c6909
New Zealand
265
False
In America, Episcopalian Dennis Bennett is sometimes cited as one of the charismatic movement's seminal influence. In the United Kingdom, Colin Urquhart, Michael Harper, David Watson and others were in the vanguard of similar developments. The Massey conference in New Zealand, 1964 was attended by several Anglicans, including the Rev. Ray Muller, who went on to invite Bennett to New Zealand in 1966, and played a leading role in developing and promoting the Life in the Spirit seminars. Other Charismatic movement leaders in New Zealand include Bill Subritzky.
Who helped Lutherans understand the charismatic movement in the 1960s?
57324a780fdd8d15006c6919
Larry Christenson
0
False
In what state did charismatic Lutheran congregations grow to be quite large?
57324a780fdd8d15006c691a
Minnesota
274
False
Where is an annual event that has quite a bit of charismatic activity?
57324a780fdd8d15006c691b
Huntington Beach
631
False
What was published in 1974?
57324a780fdd8d15006c691c
Touched by the Spirit
669
False
Who wrote Touched by the Spirit?
57324a780fdd8d15006c691d
Richard A. Jensen
649
False
Larry Christenson, a Lutheran theologian based in San Pedro, California, did much in the 1960s and 1970s to interpret the charismatic movement for Lutherans. A very large annual conference regarding that matter was held in Minneapolis. Charismatic Lutheran congregations in Minnesota became especially large and influential; especially "Hosanna!" in Lakeville, and North Heights in St. Paul. The next generation of Lutheran charismatics cluster around the Alliance of Renewal Churches. There is considerable charismatic activity among young Lutheran leaders in California centered around an annual gathering at Robinwood Church in Huntington Beach. Richard A. Jensen's Touched by the Spirit published in 1974, played a major role of the Lutheran understanding to the charismatic movement.
Who heads the Newfrontiers movement?
57324b720fdd8d15006c6923
Terry Virgo
657
False
Where is Every Nations Churches located?
57324b720fdd8d15006c6924
USA
562
False
What tendencies do reformed charismatics avoid?
57324b720fdd8d15006c6925
overemotional
349
False
What is a name for gifts of the Spirit?
57324b720fdd8d15006c6926
charismata
193
False
Name the renewal movements which could be considered overemotional.
57324b720fdd8d15006c6927
Word of Faith, Toronto Blessing, Brownsville Revival and Lakeland Revival
372
False
In Congregational and Presbyterian churches which profess a traditionally Calvinist or Reformed theology there are differing views regarding present-day continuation or cessation of the gifts (charismata) of the Spirit. Generally, however, Reformed charismatics distance themselves from renewal movements with tendencies which could be perceived as overemotional, such as Word of Faith, Toronto Blessing, Brownsville Revival and Lakeland Revival. Prominent Reformed charismatic denominations are the Sovereign Grace Churches and the Every Nation Churches in the USA, in Great Britain there is the Newfrontiers churches and movement, which leading figure is Terry Virgo.
What group was very much hampered in England from making changes?
57324c76e99e3014001e6666
Puritans
0
False
What college was influenced by Puritan beliefs?
57324c76e99e3014001e6667
the University of Cambridge
445
False
What movement influenced the Puritans?
57324c76e99e3014001e6668
millennialism
755
False
What movement did the Puritans adopt in the 17th century?
57324c76e99e3014001e6669
Sabbatarianism
696
False
When was the Synod of Dort?
57324c76e99e3014001e666a
1619
594
False
Puritans were blocked from changing the established church from within, and were severely restricted in England by laws controlling the practice of religion. Their beliefs, however, were transported by the emigration of congregations to the Netherlands (and later to New England), and by evangelical clergy to Ireland (and later into Wales), and were spread into lay society and parts of the educational system, particularly certain colleges of the University of Cambridge. They took on distinctive beliefs about clerical dress and in opposition to the episcopal system, particularly after the 1619 conclusions of the Synod of Dort they were resisted by the English bishops. They largely adopted Sabbatarianism in the 17th century, and were influenced by millennialism.
What type of theology did Puritans accept?
57324d6d0fdd8d15006c6937
Reformed
165
False
When did separatists become powerful in Puritanism?
57324d6d0fdd8d15006c6938
the 1640s
465
False
What types of piety did the Puritans advocate?
57324d6d0fdd8d15006c6939
personal and group
120
False
Where was Calvin criticized?
57324d6d0fdd8d15006c693a
Geneva
265
False
At what gathering were supporters unsuccessful in establishing a new national church?
57324d6d0fdd8d15006c693b
the Westminster Assembly
524
False
They formed, and identified with various religious groups advocating greater purity of worship and doctrine, as well as personal and group piety. Puritans adopted a Reformed theology, but they also took note of radical criticisms of Zwingli in Zurich and Calvin in Geneva. In church polity, some advocated for separation from all other Christians, in favor of autonomous gathered churches. These separatist and independent strands of Puritanism became prominent in the 1640s, when the supporters of a Presbyterian polity in the Westminster Assembly were unable to forge a new English national church.
What religious movement affected education, politics, the economy, and marriage?
57324e68b9d445190005ea11
the Reformation
9
False
What churches let their clergy marry?
57324e68b9d445190005ea12
Protestant
229
False
When did women join the Protestant ministry?
57324e68b9d445190005ea13
1950
437
False
What types of churches have women had leading positions?
57324e68b9d445190005ea14
Protestant
540
False
What priesthood rules do Protestant churches reject?
57324e68b9d445190005ea15
celibate
270
False
Although the Reformation was a religious movement, it also had a strong impact on all other aspects of life: marriage and family, education, the humanities and sciences, the political and social order, the economy, and the arts. Protestant churches reject the idea of a celibate priesthood and thus allow their clergy to marry. Many of their families contributed to the development of intellectual elites in their countries. Since about 1950, women have entered the ministry, and some have assumed leading positions (e.g. bishops), in most Protestant churches.
What did Reformers increase so that their followers could read the Bible?
57324f09e17f3d140042282d
education
80
False
In the middle of the eighteenth century, how many Swedes could read and write?
57324f09e17f3d140042282e
eight of ten men and women
256
False
Who founded Harvard College?
57324f09e17f3d140042282f
the Puritans
368
False
When was Yale founded?
57324f09e17f3d1400422830
1701
553
False
What state became a hub of learning?
57324f09e17f3d1400422831
Pennsylvania
560
False
As the Reformers wanted all members of the church to be able to read the Bible, education on all levels got a strong boost. By the middle of the eighteenth century, the literacy rate in England was about 60 per cent, in Scotland 65 per cent, and in Sweden eight of ten men and women were able to read and to write. Colleges and universities were founded. For example, the Puritans who established Massachusetts Bay Colony in 1628 founded Harvard College only eight years later. About a dozen other colleges followed in the 18th century, including Yale (1701). Pennsylvania also became a centre of learning.
What is the heart of the Protestant moral code?
573250300fdd8d15006c6967
Industry, frugality, calling, discipline, and a strong sense of responsibility
552
False
What did Calvin particular reject?
573250300fdd8d15006c6968
luxury
700
False
What was a strong reason for inventors and investors to work on technical inventions?
573250300fdd8d15006c6969
economic success
1172
False
What work ethic was an influence on capitalism and the Industrial Revolution?
573250300fdd8d15006c696a
Protestant
1277
False
What is another name for the Protestant work ethic?
573250300fdd8d15006c696b
Protestant ethic thesis
1482
False
The Protestant concept of God and man allows believers to use all their God-given faculties, including the power of reason. That means that they are allowed to explore God's creation and, according to Genesis 2:15, make use of it in a responsible and sustainable way. Thus a cultural climate was created that greatly enhanced the development of the humanities and the sciences. Another consequence of the Protestant understanding of man is that the believers, in gratitude for their election and redemption in Christ, are to follow God's commandments. Industry, frugality, calling, discipline, and a strong sense of responsibility are at the heart of their moral code. In particular, Calvin rejected luxury. Therefore, craftsmen, industrialists, and other businessmen were able to reinvest the greater part of their profits in the most efficient machinery and the most modern production methods that were based on progress in the sciences and technology. As a result, productivity grew, which led to increased profits and enabled employers to pay higher wages. In this way, the economy, the sciences, and technology reinforced each other. The chance to participate in the economic success of technological inventions was a strong incentive to both inventors and investors. The Protestant work ethic was an important force behind the unplanned and uncoordinated mass action that influenced the development of capitalism and the Industrial Revolution. This idea is also known as the "Protestant ethic thesis."
Who calculated the Global Value Development Index?
573251210fdd8d15006c697b
Arno Tausch
69
False
What does a good job of combining religion and liberalism?
573251210fdd8d15006c697c
Protestantism
126
False
Who did an analysis of World Values Survey data?
573251210fdd8d15006c697d
Arno Tausch
69
False
What university is Arno Tausch from?
573251210fdd8d15006c697e
Corvinus University of Budapest
82
False
What type of engagement is considered a World Value?
573251210fdd8d15006c697f
environmental activism
615
False
In a factor analysis of the latest wave of World Values Survey data, Arno Tausch (Corvinus University of Budapest) found that Protestantism emerges to be very close to combining religion and the traditions of liberalism. The Global Value Development Index, calculated by Tausch, relies on the World Values Survey dimensions such as trust in the state of law, no support for shadow economy, postmaterial activism, support for democracy, a non-acceptance of violence, xenophobia and racism, trust in transnational capital and Universities, confidence in the market economy, supporting gender justice, and engaging in environmental activism, etc.
What denominations are considered to be wealthier than most other groups?
57325248e99e3014001e66b4
Episcopalians and Presbyterians
0
False
Affluent American families are what type of families?
57325248e99e3014001e66b5
Mainline Protestant
525
False
What denominations are considered to be better educated than most other groups?
57325248e99e3014001e66b6
Episcopalians and Presbyterians
0
False
What political group has a disproportionately large number of Protestants?
57325248e99e3014001e66b7
Republican Party
332
False
Other than politics, what areas have a disproportionately large number of Protestants?
57325248e99e3014001e66b8
American business, law
280
False
Episcopalians and Presbyterians, as well as other WASPs, tend to be considerably wealthier and better educated (having graduate and post-graduate degrees per capita) than most other religious groups in United States, and are disproportionately represented in the upper reaches of American business, law and politics, especially the Republican Party. Numbers of the most wealthy and affluent American families as the Vanderbilts and the Astors, Rockefeller, Du Pont, Roosevelt, Forbes, Whitneys, the Morgans and Harrimans are Mainline Protestant families.
The rise of English Puritanism and German Pietism resulted in a corresponding rise in what?
573253fce17f3d140042286f
early experimental science
200
False
What religions did Merton think caused the scientific revolution of the 17th and 18th centuries?
573253fce17f3d1400422870
English Puritanism and German Pietism
760
False
What other reason did Merton believe causes science to advance?
573253fce17f3d1400422871
an accumulation of observations and improvement in experimental technique and methodology
341
False
What religions were English scientists in the 17th century?
573253fce17f3d1400422872
Puritans or other Protestants
628
False
What values were thought to have a significant synergy?
573253fce17f3d1400422873
ascetic Protestant values and those of modern science
1045
False
Protestantism has had an important influence on science. According to the Merton Thesis, there was a positive correlation between the rise of English Puritanism and German Pietism on the one hand and early experimental science on the other. The Merton Thesis has two separate parts: Firstly, it presents a theory that science changes due to an accumulation of observations and improvement in experimental technique and methodology; secondly, it puts forward the argument that the popularity of science in 17th-century England and the religious demography of the Royal Society (English scientists of that time were predominantly Puritans or other Protestants) can be explained by a correlation between Protestantism and the scientific values. Merton focused on English Puritanism and German Pietism as having been responsible for the development of the scientific revolution of the 17th and 18th centuries. He explained that the connection between religious affiliation and interest in science was the result of a significant synergy between the ascetic Protestant values and those of modern science. Protestant values encouraged scientific research by allowing science to identify God's influence on the world—his creation—and thus providing a religious justification for scientific research.
What was the name of the doctrine that separated church and non-religious affairs?
57325526e17f3d140042288d
doctrine of the two kingdoms
156
False
When was the treatise that allowed a congregation to elect or remove a minister?
57325526e17f3d140042288e
1523
677
False
Who added the election of laymen to church government?
57325526e17f3d140042288f
Calvin
684
False
Who added synods to church government?
57325526e17f3d1400422890
The Huguenots
836
False
What were Luther's followers advised to use when governing worldly affairs?
57325526e17f3d1400422891
reason
221
False
In the Middle Ages, the Church and the worldly authorities were closely related. Martin Luther separated the religious and the worldly realms in principle (doctrine of the two kingdoms). The believers were obliged to use reason to govern the worldly sphere in an orderly and peaceful way. Luther's doctrine of the priesthood of all believers upgraded the role of laymen in the church considerably. The members of a congregation had the right to elect a minister and, if necessary, to vote for his dismissal (Treatise On the right and authority of a Christian assembly or congregation to judge all doctrines and to call, install and dismiss teachers, as testified in Scripture; 1523). Calvin strengthened this basically democratic approach by including elected laymen (church elders, presbyters) in his representative church government. The Huguenots added regional synods and a national synod, whose members were elected by the congregations, to Calvin's system of church self-government. This system was taken over by the other reformed churches.
What political mixture did Calvin prefer?
573255dfb9d445190005ea4b
aristocracy and democracy
42
False
What is the term for checks and balances in a political system?
573255dfb9d445190005ea4c
separation of powers
462
False
Who paved the way for modern democracy to emerge?
573255dfb9d445190005ea4d
Calvin
381
False
Who was allowed to teach a liberal Bible interpretation?
573255dfb9d445190005ea4e
Hugo Grotius
806
False
What philosophers were given asylum?
573255dfb9d445190005ea4f
Baruch Spinoza and Pierre Bayle
773
False
Politically, Calvin favoured a mixture of aristocracy and democracy. He appreciated the advantages of democracy: "It is an invaluable gift, if God allows a people to freely elect its own authorities and overlords." Calvin also thought that earthly rulers lose their divine right and must be put down when they rise up against God. To further protect the rights of ordinary people, Calvin suggested separating political powers in a system of checks and balances (separation of powers). Thus he and his followers resisted political absolutism and paved the way for the rise of modern democracy. Besides England, the Netherlands were, under Calvinist leadership, the freest country in Europe in the seventeenth and eighteenth centuries. It granted asylum to philosophers like Baruch Spinoza and Pierre Bayle. Hugo Grotius was able to teach his natural-law theory and a relatively liberal interpretation of the Bible.
Whose democracies were created by Protestants?
57325885b9d445190005ea71
the English and the American democracies
67
False
Other than the U.S., to what colonies did the British export their democratic beliefs?
57325886b9d445190005ea72
Australia, New Zealand, and India
417
False
What democratic principles were followed by the Plymouth Colony?
57325886b9d445190005ea73
self-rule and separation of powers
567
False
What group believed that democracy was the will of God?
57325886b9d445190005ea74
Congregationalists
609
False
What other group in America practiced self-rule and separation of powers?
57325886b9d445190005ea75
Massachusetts Bay Colony
514
False
Consistent with Calvin's political ideas, Protestants created both the English and the American democracies. In seventeenth-century England, the most important persons and events in this process were the English Civil War, Oliver Cromwell, John Milton, John Locke, the Glorious Revolution, the English Bill of Rights, and the Act of Settlement. Later, the British took their democratic ideals to their colonies, e.g. Australia, New Zealand, and India. In North America, Plymouth Colony (Pilgrim Fathers; 1620) and Massachusetts Bay Colony (1628) practised democratic self-rule and separation of powers. These Congregationalists were convinced that the democratic form of government was the will of God. The Mayflower Compact was a social contract.
What group initiated the right to religious freedom?
573259a4b9d445190005ea8d
Protestants
0
False
Where did Luther refuse to change his beliefs?
573259a4b9d445190005ea8e
Worms
258
False
What persecuted groups followed the separation of church and state?
573259a4b9d445190005ea8f
Anabaptists and Huguenots
390
False
Who wrote about religious freedom in the early 17th century?
573259a4b9d445190005ea90
John Smyth and Thomas Helwys
547
False
How many American Protestants supported independence in America?
573259a4b9d445190005ea91
The great majority
1234
False
Protestants also took the initiative in advocating for religious freedom. Freedom of conscience had high priority on the theological, philosophical, and political agendas since Luther refused to recant his beliefs before the Diet of the Holy Roman Empire at Worms (1521). In his view, faith was a free work of the Holy Spirit and could, therefore, not be forced on a person. The persecuted Anabaptists and Huguenots demanded freedom of conscience, and they practised separation of church and state. In the early seventeenth century, Baptists like John Smyth and Thomas Helwys published tracts in defense of religious freedom. Their thinking influenced John Milton and John Locke's stance on tolerance. Under the leadership of Baptist Roger Williams, Congregationalist Thomas Hooker, and Quaker William Penn, respectively, Rhode Island, Connecticut, and Pennsylvania combined democratic constitutions with freedom of religion. These colonies became safe havens for persecuted religious minorities, including Jews. The United States Declaration of Independence, the United States Constitution, and the American Bill of Rights with its fundamental human rights made this tradition permanent by giving it a legal and political framework. The great majority of American Protestants, both clergy and laity, strongly supported the independence movement. All major Protestant churches were represented in the First and Second Continental Congresses. In the nineteenth and twentieth centuries, the American democracy became a model for numerous other countries and regions throughout the world (e.g., Latin America, Japan, and Germany). The strongest link between the American and French Revolutions was Marquis de Lafayette, an ardent supporter of the American constitutional principles. The French Declaration of the Rights of Man and of the Citizen was mainly based on Lafayette's draft of this document. The United Nations Declaration and Universal Declaration of Human Rights also echo the American constitutional tradition.
What group popularized early Protestant teachings about separation of church and state?
57325ab8e99e3014001e6700
Enlightenment thinkers
209
False
What did John Locke use as a basis for his political beliefs?
57325ab8e99e3014001e6701
a set of Protestant Christian assumptions
548
False
Whose ideas influenced the Declaration of Independence?
57325ab8e99e3014001e6702
John Locke
498
False
What Rights do the Declaration of Independence consider unalienable?
57325ab8e99e3014001e6703
Life, Liberty, and the pursuit of Happiness
1127
False
What scripture did Locke use as a reference for equality?
57325ab8e99e3014001e6704
Genesis 1, 26-28
689
False
Democracy, social-contract theory, separation of powers, religious freedom, separation of church and state – these achievements of the Reformation and early Protestantism were elaborated on and popularized by Enlightenment thinkers. Some of the philosophers of the English, Scottish, German, and Swiss Enlightenment - Thomas Hobbes, John Locke, John Toland, David Hume, Gottfried Wilhelm Leibniz, Christian Wolff, Immanuel Kant, and Jean-Jacques Rousseau - had Protestant backgrounds. For example, John Locke, whose political thought was based on "a set of Protestant Christian assumptions", derived the equality of all humans, including the equality of the genders ("Adam and Eve"), from Genesis 1, 26-28. As all persons were created equally free, all governments needed "the consent of the governed." These Lockean ideas were fundamental to the United States Declaration of Independence, which also deduced human rights from the biblical belief in creation: "We hold these truths to be self-evident, that all men are created equal, that they are endowed by their Creator with certain unalienable Rights, that among these are Life, Liberty, and the pursuit of Happiness."
When did Prussia stop torture?
57325b510fdd8d15006c6a19
1740
114
False
When did Britain end slavery?
57325b510fdd8d15006c6a1a
1834
142
False
Who were the first men to make large contributions to international law?
57325b510fdd8d15006c6a1b
Hugo Grotius and Samuel Pufendorf
274
False
Who founded the Red Cross?
57325b510fdd8d15006c6a1c
Henry Dunant
495
False
What international law was Henry Dunant mostly responsible for?
57325b510fdd8d15006c6a1d
The Geneva Convention
395
False
Also, other human rights were advocated for by some Protestants. For example, torture was abolished in Prussia in 1740, slavery in Britain in 1834 and in the United States in 1865 (William Wilberforce, Harriet Beecher Stowe, Abraham Lincoln - against Southern Protestants). Hugo Grotius and Samuel Pufendorf were among the first thinkers who made significant contributions to international law. The Geneva Convention, an important part of humanitarian international law, was largely the work of Henry Dunant, a reformed pietist. He also founded the Red Cross.
Who first introduced social insurance programs?
57325c4ab9d445190005eaa1
Chancellor Otto von Bismarck
499
False
What did Bismarck consider social insurance programs to be?
57325c4ab9d445190005eaa2
practical Christianity
698
False
What social reform movements were Protestants working toward in the nineteen century?
57325c4ab9d445190005eaa3
the abolition of slavery, prison reforms, and woman suffrage
358
False
What country started programs that led to the welfare state?
57325c4ab9d445190005eaa4
Germany
485
False
What area copied Bismarck's social programs the most?
57325c4ab9d445190005eaa5
the Western world
795
False
Protestants have founded hospitals, homes for disabled or elderly people, educational institutions, organizations that give aid to developing countries, and other social welfare agencies. In the nineteenth century, throughout the Anglo-American world, numerous dedicated members of all Protestant denominations were active in social reform movements such as the abolition of slavery, prison reforms, and woman suffrage. As an answer to the "social question" of the nineteenth century, Germany under Chancellor Otto von Bismarck introduced insurance programs that led the way to the welfare state (health insurance, accident insurance, disability insurance, old-age pensions). To Bismarck this was "practical Christianity". These programs, too, were copied by many other nations, particularly in the Western world.
What did John Milton do for world literature?
57325d03b9d445190005eaab
enrich
21
False
Samuel Taylor is listed as enriching what?
57325d03b9d445190005eaac
World literature
0
False
What women writers were listed as contributors to world literature?
57325d03b9d445190005eaad
Emily Dickinson, Emily Brontë
342
False
Edgar Allen Poe added value to literature in what area?
57325d03b9d445190005eaae
World
0
False
World literature was enriched by the works of Edmund Spenser, John Milton, John Bunyan, John Donne, John Dryden, Daniel Defoe, William Wordsworth, Jonathan Swift, Johann Wolfgang Goethe, Friedrich Schiller, Samuel Taylor Coleridge, Edgar Allan Poe, Matthew Arnold, Conrad Ferdinand Meyer, Theodor Fontane, Washington Irving, Robert Browning, Emily Dickinson, Emily Brontë, Charles Dickens, Nathaniel Hawthorne, Thomas Stearns Eliot, John Galsworthy, Thomas Mann, William Faulkner, John Updike, and many others.
The Roman Catholic Church considers Protestant denominations to be what?
57325e0fe99e3014001e671e
ecclesial communities or specific faith-believing communities
126
False
What is lacking in Protestant priesthood, according to the Roman Catholic Church?
57325e0fe99e3014001e671f
no sacramental ministerial priesthood
332
False
What does the Roman Catholic Church say is not comparable to their sacraments and dogmas?
57325e0fe99e3014001e6720
ordinances and doctrines
202
False
What other Church shares the Roman Catholic view on Protestant churches?
57325e0fe99e3014001e6721
Eastern Orthodox
459
False
What is lacking in Protestantism, according to the Roman Catholic Church?
57325e0fe99e3014001e6722
true apostolic succession
389
False
The view of the Roman Catholic Church is that Protestant denominations cannot be considered churches but rather that they are ecclesial communities or specific faith-believing communities because their ordinances and doctrines are not historically the same as the Catholic sacraments and dogmas, and the Protestant communities have no sacramental ministerial priesthood and therefore lack true apostolic succession. According to Bishop Hilarion (Alfeyev) the Eastern Orthodox Church shares the same view on the subject.
Who were Magisterial reformers?
57325f030fdd8d15006c6a4b
Martin Luther, John Calvin, and Huldrych Zwingli
372
False
What institution did Martin Luther believe he was reforming?
57325f030fdd8d15006c6a4c
the Roman Catholic Church
456
False
Instead of a visible church, what did Protestants believe there was?
57325f030fdd8d15006c6a4d
a spiritual, invisible, and hidden church
879
False
When did the idea of a hidden church begin?
57325f030fdd8d15006c6a4e
in the early days of the Protestant Reformation
939
False
What church did the Reformers claim had left them?
57325f030fdd8d15006c6a4f
the Roman Catholic Church
650
False
Contrary to how the Protestant Reformers were often characterized, the concept of a catholic or universal Church was not brushed aside during the Protestant Reformation. On the contrary, the visible unity of the catholic or universal church was seen by the Protestant reformers as an important and essential doctrine of the Reformation. The Magisterial reformers, such as Martin Luther, John Calvin, and Huldrych Zwingli, believed that they were reforming the Roman Catholic Church, which they viewed as having become corrupted. Each of them took very seriously the charges of schism and innovation, denying these charges and maintaining that it was the Roman Catholic Church that had left them. In order to justify their departure from the Roman Catholic Church, Protestants often posited a new argument, saying that there was no real visible Church with divine authority, only a spiritual, invisible, and hidden church—this notion began in the early days of the Protestant Reformation.
The Reformed churches based their beliefs about ecclesiastical organization on what movement?
57326028e99e3014001e6744
Conciliar
642
False
Who supported the Magisterial Reformation?
57326028e99e3014001e6745
the ruling authorities
66
False
What are the doctrines of the Reformed churches called?
57326028e99e3014001e6746
the five solas
550
False
What ecumenical council did the Reformed churches reject?
57326028e99e3014001e6747
the Council of Trent
785
False
What type of character became central to religious unity in Reformed churches?
57326028e99e3014001e6748
invisible
884
False
Wherever the Magisterial Reformation, which received support from the ruling authorities, took place, the result was a reformed national Protestant church envisioned to be a part of the whole invisible church, but disagreeing, in certain important points of doctrine and doctrine-linked practice, with what had until then been considered the normative reference point on such matters, namely the Papacy and central authority of the Roman Catholic Church. The Reformed churches thus believed in some form of Catholicity, founded on their doctrines of the five solas and a visible ecclesiastical organization based on the 14th and 15th century Conciliar movement, rejecting the papacy and papal infallibility in favor of ecumenical councils, but rejecting the latest ecumenical council, the Council of Trent. Religious unity therefore became not one of doctrine and identity but one of invisible character, wherein the unity was one of faith in Jesus Christ, not common identity, doctrine, belief, and collaborative action.
What group has been unsuccessful in creating a unified church since 1948?
57326123b9d445190005eac7
the World Council of Churches
261
False
What conference was held in 1910?
57326123b9d445190005eac8
the Edinburgh Missionary Conference
99
False
What churches have been strongly engaged in the ecumenical movement?
57326123b9d445190005eac9
Orthodox
890
False
What have Orthodox churches condemned the perception of?
57326123b9d445190005eaca
watering down Orthodox doctrine
1108
False
What types of churches have had rapidly declining memberships?
57326123b9d445190005eacb
united churches
581
False
The ecumenical movement has had an influence on mainline churches, beginning at least in 1910 with the Edinburgh Missionary Conference. Its origins lay in the recognition of the need for cooperation on the mission field in Africa, Asia and Oceania. Since 1948, the World Council of Churches has been influential, but ineffective in creating a united church. There are also ecumenical bodies at regional, national and local levels across the globe; but schisms still far outnumber unifications. One, but not the only expression of the ecumenical movement, has been the move to form united churches, such as the Church of South India, the Church of North India, the US-based United Church of Christ, the United Church of Canada, the Uniting Church in Australia and the United Church of Christ in the Philippines which have rapidly declining memberships. There has been a strong engagement of Orthodox churches in the ecumenical movement, though the reaction of individual Orthodox theologians has ranged from tentative approval of the aim of Christian unity to outright condemnation of the perceived effect of watering down Orthodox doctrine.
If done properly, what Protestant practice does the Catholic Church recognize?
573263bde17f3d140042293d
baptism
13
False
What is the only other sacrament of the Protestants that the Catholic Church recognizes?
573263bde17f3d140042293e
marriage
311
False
Who can become ordained to the Catholic priesthood after a period of study?
573263bde17f3d140042293f
Protestant ministers who become Catholics
528
False
Protestants who want full communion with the Catholic Church do not have to be what?
573263bde17f3d1400422940
re-baptized
482
False
Why does the Catholic Church not recognize the ordination of Protestant ministers?
573263bde17f3d1400422941
the lack of apostolic succession and the disunity from Catholic Church
210
False
A Protestant baptism is held to be valid by the Catholic Church if given with the trinitarian formula and with the intent to baptize. However, as the ordination of Protestant ministers is not recognized due to the lack of apostolic succession and the disunity from Catholic Church, all other sacraments (except marriage) performed by Protestant denominations and ministers are not recognized as valid. Therefore, Protestants desiring full communion with the Catholic Church are not re-baptized (although they are confirmed) and Protestant ministers who become Catholics may be ordained to the priesthood after a period of study.
What document was signed in 1999?
5732648ae99e3014001e676c
the Joint Declaration on the Doctrine of Justification
85
False
Who rejects the statement signed in 1999?
5732648ae99e3014001e676d
Confessional Lutherans
270
False
Who adopted the Joint Declaration in 2006?
5732648ae99e3014001e676e
delegates to the World Methodist Conference
409
False
The Joint Declaration supposedly resolves the conflict which originally led to what movement?
5732648ae99e3014001e676f
the Protestant Reformation
233
False
What two groups originally signed the Joint Declaration?
5732648ae99e3014001e6770
Lutheran World Federation and Catholic Church
32
False
In 1999, the representatives of Lutheran World Federation and Catholic Church signed the Joint Declaration on the Doctrine of Justification, apparently resolving the conflict over the nature of justification which was at the root of the Protestant Reformation, although Confessional Lutherans reject this statement. This is understandable, since there is no compelling authority within them. On 18 July 2006, delegates to the World Methodist Conference voted unanimously to adopt the Joint Declaration.
How many Protestants are there in the world?
573265980fdd8d15006c6a83
more than 900 million
10
False
What is the total population of Christians in the world?
573265980fdd8d15006c6a84
approximately 2.4 billion
65
False
Approximately how much of the world's population are Protestant (in fractions)?
573265980fdd8d15006c6a85
more than one tenth
396
False
What area only had about 2 million Protestants in 2010?
573265980fdd8d15006c6a86
Middle East-North Africa
297
False
What area had the largest Protestant population in 2010?
573265980fdd8d15006c6a87
Sub-Saharan Africa
173
False
There are more than 900 million Protestants worldwide,[ad] among approximately 2.4 billion Christians.[ae] In 2010, a total of more than 800 million included 300 million in Sub-Saharan Africa, 260 million in the Americas, 140 million in Asia-Pacific region, 100 million in Europe and 2 million in Middle East-North Africa. Protestants account for nearly forty percent of Christians worldwide and more than one tenth of the total human population. Various estimates put the percentage of Protestants in relation to the total number of world's Christians at 33%, 36%, 36.7%, and 40%, while in relation to the world's population at 11.6% and 13%.
In what European areas is Protestantism still the most practiced religion?
5732672a0fdd8d15006c6a8d
the Nordic countries and the United Kingdom
151
False
In 2012, what percentage of the EU was thought to be Protestant?
5732672a0fdd8d15006c6a8e
12%
880
False
In what countries is Protestantism one of the most popular (but not THE most popular) religions?
5732672a0fdd8d15006c6a8f
Germany, the Netherlands, Switzerland, Latvia, Estonia and Hungary
247
False
The Pew Research Center estimated Protestants to be what percentage of Europe's Christian population in 2010?
5732672a0fdd8d15006c6a90
17.8%
985
False
What area was once the site of a significant pre-reformation movement, but now only has a small number of Protestants?
5732672a0fdd8d15006c6a91
Czech Republic
370
False
In European countries which were most profoundly influenced by the Reformation, Protestantism still remains the most practiced religion. These include the Nordic countries and the United Kingdom. In other historical Protestant strongholds such as Germany, the Netherlands, Switzerland, Latvia, Estonia and Hungary, it remains one of the most popular religions. Although Czech Republic was the site of one of the most significant pre-reformation movements, there are only few Protestant adherents; mainly due to historical reasons like persecution of Protestants by the Catholic Habsburgs, restrictions during the Communist rule, and also the ongoing secularization. Over the last several decades, religious practice has been declining as secularization has increased. According to a 2012 study about Religiosity in the European Union in 2012 by Eurobarometer, Protestants made up 12% of the EU population. According to Pew Research Center, Protestants constituted nearly one fifth (or 17.8%) of the continent's Christian population in 2010. Clarke and Beyer estimate that Protestants constituted 15% of all Europeans in 2009, while Noll claims that less than 12% of them lived in Europe in 2010.
Where has Protestantism spread quickly since the 1900's?
57326877e17f3d1400422955
Africa, Asia, Oceania and Latin America
128
False
When did much of the spread of Protestantism occur in the 20th century?
57326877e17f3d1400422956
after World War II
274
False
What percentage of Anglicans were in the UK in 1910?
57326877e17f3d1400422957
79%
671
False
In 2010, what percentage of Anglicans were said to be in Africa?
57326877e17f3d1400422958
59%
830
False
In 2010, what country had more Protestants than both the UK and Germany together?
57326877e17f3d1400422959
Brazil
958
False
Changes in worldwide Protestantism over the last century have been significant. Since 1900, Protestantism has spread rapidly in Africa, Asia, Oceania and Latin America. That caused Protestantism to be called a primarily non-Western religion. Much of the growth has occurred after World War II, when decolonization of Africa and abolition of various restrictions against Protestants in Latin American countries occurred. According to one source, Protestants constituted respectively 2.5%, 2%, 0.5% of Latin Americans, Africans and Asians. In 2000, percentage of Protestants on mentioned continents was 17%, more than 27% and 5.5%, respectively. According to Mark A. Noll, 79% of Anglicans lived in the United Kingdom in 1910, while most of the remainder was found in the United States and across the British Commonwealth. By 2010, 59% of Anglicans were found in Africa. In 2010, more Protestants lived in India than in the UK or Germany, while Protestants in Brazil accounted for as many people as Protestants in the UK and Germany combined. Almost as many lived in each of Nigeria and China as in all of Europe. China is home to world's largest Protestant minority.[af]
Bras%C3%ADlia
What is Brazil's capital?
5731d9f3e17f3d1400422495
Brasília
0
False
What region of Brazil is Brasilia in?
5731d9f3e17f3d1400422496
center-western
196
False
What is Brasilia's GDP per capita in US dollars?
5731d9f3e17f3d1400422497
US$36,175
538
False
What is the population of Brasilia's metro area?
5731d9f3e17f3d1400422498
2,556,149
383
False
When was Brasilia founded?
5731d9f3e17f3d1400422499
April 21, 1960
237
False
Brasília
0
What Portugese District is the capital of Brazil?
5a2ee4cda83784001a7d2519
True
atop the Brazilian highlands
150
Where is Brasilia's metro located?
5a2ee4cda83784001a7d251a
True
April 21, 1960
237
When was Brasilia founded to serve as the metro?
5a2ee4cda83784001a7d251b
True
2,556,149
383
What is the population of Brasilia's Federal District?
5a2ee4cda83784001a7d251c
True
2,556,149
383
What was the population of Brasilia and its metro in 1960?
5a2ee4cda83784001a7d251d
True
Brasília (Portuguese pronunciation: [bɾaˈziljɐ]) is the federal capital of Brazil and seat of government of the Federal District. The city is located atop the Brazilian highlands in the country's center-western region. It was founded on April 21, 1960, to serve as the new national capital. Brasília and its metro (encompassing the whole of the Federal District) had a population of 2,556,149 in 2011, making it the 4th most populous city in Brazil. Among major Latin American cities, Brasília has the highest GDP per capita at R$61,915 (US$36,175).
How many administrative regions does the Federal District have?
5731da68e99e3014001e6338
31
278
False
What is Brasilia's proper city population?
5731da68e99e3014001e6339
209,926
364
False
What does Brasilia's metro area consist of?
5731da68e99e3014001e633a
the Federal District
192
False
Which World Cup did Brasilia host?
5731da68e99e3014001e633b
2014
651
False
Which Confederations Cup did Brasilia host?
5731da68e99e3014001e633c
2013
706
False
FIFA Confederations Cup
711
What did Brasilia host in 2011?
5a2ee61ca83784001a7d2523
True
an administrative division rather than a legal municipality
49
What unique status does the Federal District have in Brazil?
5a2ee61ca83784001a7d2524
True
31
278
How many synedoche are in Brazil?
5a2ee61ca83784001a7d2525
True
209,926
364
What was the population of Brazil in 2013?
5a2ee61ca83784001a7d2526
True
2014 FIFA World Cup
651
What was Brasil a main administrative division of in 2014?
5a2ee61ca83784001a7d2527
True
The city has a unique status in Brazil, as it is an administrative division rather than a legal municipality like other cities in Brazil. The name 'Brasília' is commonly used as a synonym for the Federal District through synecdoche; However, the Federal District is composed of 31 administrative regions, only one of which is Brasília proper, with a population of 209,926 in a 2011 survey; Demographic publications generally do not make this distinction and list the population of Brasília as synonymous with the population of the Federal District, considering the whole of it as its metropolitan area. The city was one of the main host cities of the 2014 FIFA World Cup. Additionally, Brasília hosted the 2013 FIFA Confederations Cup.
When did Kubitschek become President of Brazil?
5731dae40fdd8d15006c659b
1956
47
False
When did Kubitschek leave office?
5731dae40fdd8d15006c659c
1961
55
False
Who ordered Brasilia be built?
5731dae40fdd8d15006c659d
Juscelino Kubitschek
0
False
How many people competed to be Brasilia's urban planner?
5731dae40fdd8d15006c659e
5550
337
False
When was Brasilia inaugurated?
5731dae40fdd8d15006c659f
April 21, 1960
538
False
from 1956 to 1961
42
During what time period was Lucio Costa President of Brazil?
5a2ee726a83784001a7d2537
True
Brasília
89
What did Oscar Niemeyer cause to be constructed in Brazil?
5a2ee726a83784001a7d2538
True
5550
337
How many people competed in a contest to help build the city in 1956?
5a2ee726a83784001a7d2539
True
April 21, 1960
538
When was Brasilia's Constitution made official?
5a2ee726a83784001a7d253a
True
"fifty years of prosperity in five" plan
224
What was Lucio Costa's plan to build Brasilia called?
5a2ee726a83784001a7d253b
True
Juscelino Kubitschek, President of Brazil from 1956 to 1961, ordered the construction of Brasília, fulfilling the promise of the Constitution and his own political campaign promise. Building Brasília was part of Juscelino's "fifty years of prosperity in five" plan. Lúcio Costa won a contest and was the main urban planner in 1957, with 5550 people competing. Oscar Niemeyer, a close friend, was the chief architect of most public buildings and Roberto Burle Marx was the landscape designer. Brasília was built in 41 months, from 1956 to April 21, 1960, when it was officially inaugurated.
When did Brazil pass a new Constitution?
5731db93e99e3014001e6356
1988
190
False
What rights did Brasilia gain in 1988?
5731db93e99e3014001e6357
to elect its Governor, and a District Assembly
221
False
What is Brasilia's District Assembly called?
5731db93e99e3014001e6358
Câmara Legislativa
269
False
the Federal Government
71
Until 1988 who was the governor of the Federal District appointed by?
5a2ee86da83784001a7d2541
True
a Judicial Power of its own
367
What does the Federal Government not have?
5a2ee86da83784001a7d2542
True
federal territories
461
What does the Brazilian Federal Senate also serve besides the Federal District?
5a2ee86da83784001a7d2543
True
territories
518
What does the District Assembly not have currently?
5a2ee86da83784001a7d2544
True
only cases from the Federal District
567
For now what kind of cases does the District Assembly serve?
5a2ee86da83784001a7d2545
True
Until the 1980s, the governor of the Federal District was appointed by the Federal Government, and the laws of Brasília were issued by the Brazilian Federal Senate. With the Constitution of 1988 Brasília gained the right to elect its Governor, and a District Assembly (Câmara Legislativa) was elected to exercise legislative power. The Federal District does not have a Judicial Power of its own. The Judicial Power which serves the Federal District also serves federal territories. Currently, Brazil does not have any territories, therefore, for now the courts serve only cases from the Federal District.
What climate type does Brasilia have?
5731dbdf0fdd8d15006c65a5
tropical savanna climate (Aw)
15
False
When is Brasilia's rainy season?
5731dbdf0fdd8d15006c65a6
October to April
127
False
When is Brasilia's dry season?
5731dbdf0fdd8d15006c65a7
May to September
168
False
What is the average maximum temperature in Brasilia in September?
5731dbdf0fdd8d15006c65a8
28.3 °C (82.9 °F)
318
False
Which month does Brasilia have the highest rainfall?
5731dbdf0fdd8d15006c65a9
January
556
False
the highest rainfall of the year
582
How high is the rainfall in Brasilia in September?
5a2ee985a83784001a7d2555
True
the lowest, with only 8.7 mm (0.3 in)
630
How low is the rainfall in Brasilia in April?
5a2ee985a83784001a7d2556
True
a tropical savanna climate
13
What climate type does Koppen have?
5a2ee985a83784001a7d2557
True
a consistent 22 °C (72 °F)
504
What are average temperatures like from May to September?
5a2ee985a83784001a7d2558
True
247.4 mm (9.7 in)
537
How much rain is there during the highest rainfall of the year in October?
5a2ee985a83784001a7d2559
True
Brasília has a tropical savanna climate (Aw) according to the Köppen system, with two distinct seasons: the rainy season, from October to April, and a dry season, from May to September. The average temperature is 20.6 °C (69.1 °F). September, at the end of the dry season, has the highest average maximum temperature, 28.3 °C (82.9 °F), has major and minor lower maximum average temperature, of 25.1 °C (77.2 °F) and 12.9 °C (55.2 °F), respectively. Average temperatures from September through March are a consistent 22 °C (72 °F). With 247.4 mm (9.7 in), January is the month with the highest rainfall of the year, while June is the lowest, with only 8.7 mm (0.3 in).
What is Brazil's official language?
5731dd950fdd8d15006c65af
Portuguese
4
False
What languages besides Portuguese are taught in Brasilia's schools?
5731dd950fdd8d15006c65b0
English and Spanish
102
False
How many international schools are in Brasilia?
5731dd950fdd8d15006c65b1
six
177
False
When will a new international school open in Brasilia?
5731dd950fdd8d15006c65b2
August 2016
397
False
What nationality will the new international school in Brasilia be?
5731dd950fdd8d15006c65b3
British
466
False
in schools
90
Where is English the primary language taught in Brasilia?
5a2eeb0aa83784001a7d2569
True
six
177
How many private colleges are in Brasilia?
5a2eeb0aa83784001a7d256a
True
August 2016
397
In what year will the official curriculum start?
5a2eeb0aa83784001a7d256b
True
The British School of Brasilia
462
What school will the official curriculum be taught in?
5a2eeb0aa83784001a7d256c
True
Portuguese
4
What is the Maple Bear Canadian School's official language?
5a2eeb0aa83784001a7d256d
True
The Portuguese language is the official national language and the primary language taught in schools. English and Spanish are also part of the official curriculum. The city has six international schools: American School of Brasília, Brasília International School (BIS), Escola das Nações, Swiss International School (SIS), Lycée français François-Mitterrand (LfFM) and Maple Bear Canadian School. August 2016 will see the opening of a new international school - The British School of Brasilia. Brasília has two universities, three university centers, and many private colleges.
Who designed the Cathedral of Brasília?
5731de9c0fdd8d15006c65c1
Oscar Niemeyer
113
False
What type of structure is the Cathedral of Brasília?
5731de9c0fdd8d15006c65c2
concrete-framed hyperboloid
134
False
When was the Cathedral of Brasília dedicated?
5731de9c0fdd8d15006c65c3
31 May 1970
707
False
How many identical columns are used in the Cathedral of Brasília?
5731de9c0fdd8d15006c65c4
16
529
False
How much do the Cathedral of Brasília's columns weigh?
5731de9c0fdd8d15006c65c5
90 t
624
False
On 31 May 1970
234
When was the capital of the Federative Republic of Brazil created?
5a2eecaca83784001a7d257d
True
Oscar Niemeyer
113
Who founded the capital of Brazil?
5a2eecaca83784001a7d257e
True
70 m (229.66 ft) diameter of the circular area
303
How many parts of the capital were reaching up to heaven?
5a2eecaca83784001a7d257f
True
31 May 1970
707
When was Brasilia dedicated?
5a2eecaca83784001a7d2580
True
90 t
624
How much does the glass weigh?
5a2eecaca83784001a7d2581
True
The Cathedral of Brasília in the capital of the Federative Republic of Brazil, is an expression of the architect Oscar Niemeyer. This concrete-framed hyperboloid structure, seems with its glass roof reaching up, open, to the heavens. On 31 May 1970, the Cathedral’s structure was finished, and only the 70 m (229.66 ft) diameter of the circular area were visible. Niemeyer's project of Cathedral of Brasília is based in the hyperboloid of revolution which sections are asymmetric. The hyperboloid structure itself is a result of 16 identical assembled concrete columns. These columns, having hyperbolic section and weighing 90 t, represent two hands moving upwards to heaven. The Cathedral was dedicated on 31 May 1970.
What is in the Planalto Palace?
5731df190fdd8d15006c65d5
presidential offices
131
False
Where does Brazil's president live, in Portuguese?
5731df190fdd8d15006c65d6
Palácio da Alvorada
276
False
What does 'Palácio da Alvorada' mean?
5731df190fdd8d15006c65d7
Palace of the Dawn
256
False
Who designed gardens for some of Brasilia's major buildings?
5731df190fdd8d15006c65d8
Roberto Burle Marx
1031
False
What style of gardens did Marx design?
5731df190fdd8d15006c65d9
modernist
1068
False
landmark modernist gardens
1059
What did Planalto design?
5a2eee0ea83784001a7d2587
True
some of the principal buildings
1090
What did Planalto create his designs for?
5a2eee0ea83784001a7d2588
True
16 gracefully curving supports
563
What supports the modernest gardens?
5a2eee0ea83784001a7d2589
True
a subterranean passage
762
Where do you enter the presidential offices instead of a doorway?
5a2eee0ea83784001a7d258a
True
Palace of the Dawn
256
Where does Roberto Burle Marx live?
5a2eee0ea83784001a7d258b
True
A series of low-lying annexes (largely hidden) flank both ends. Also in the square are the glass-faced Planalto Palace housing the presidential offices, and the Palace of the Supreme Court. Farther east, on a triangle of land jutting into the lake, is the Palace of the Dawn (Palácio da Alvorada; the presidential residence). Between the federal and civic buildings on the Monumental Axis is the city's cathedral, considered by many to be Niemeyer's finest achievement (see photographs of the interior). The parabolically shaped structure is characterized by its 16 gracefully curving supports, which join in a circle 115 feet (35 meters) above the floor of the nave; stretched between the supports are translucent walls of tinted glass. The nave is entered via a subterranean passage rather than conventional doorways. Other notable buildings are Buriti Palace, Itamaraty Palace, the National Theater, and several foreign embassies that creatively embody features of their national architecture. The Brazilian landscape architect Roberto Burle Marx designed landmark modernist gardens for some of the principal buildings.
What are 'superquadras' or superblocks?
5731df9ce17f3d14004224d7
groups of apartment buildings along with a prescribed number and type of schools, retail stores, and open spaces
167
False
Where is there a peninsula with luxury homes?
5731df9ce17f3d14004224d8
the northern end of Lake Paranoá
284
False
What did the planners want to have around Lake Paranoa?
5731df9ce17f3d14004224d9
extensive public areas
486
False
What took over Lake Paranoa's shores contrary to the plan?
5731df9ce17f3d14004224da
private clubs, hotels, and upscale residences and restaurants
579
False
What mostly-unplanned cities are around Brasilia?
5731df9ce17f3d14004224db
Gama, Ceilândia, Taguatinga, Núcleo Bandeirante, Sobradinho, and Planaltina
737
False
Both low-cost and luxury
0
What type of private clubs were built by the Brasilian government?
5a2eefa5a83784001a7d2599
True
superquadras
137
How are open spaces arranged in Brasilia?
5a2eefa5a83784001a7d259a
True
groups of apartment buildings along with a prescribed number and type of schools, retail stores, and open spaces
167
What is the definition of a Nucleo?
5a2eefa5a83784001a7d259b
True
a peninsula
352
What is located at the northern end of Bandeirante?
5a2eefa5a83784001a7d259c
True
extensive public areas
486
What did the cuperquadras plan to build near the lake shore?
5a2eefa5a83784001a7d259d
True
Both low-cost and luxury housing were built by the government in the Brasília. The residential zones of the inner city are arranged into superquadras ("superblocks"): groups of apartment buildings along with a prescribed number and type of schools, retail stores, and open spaces. At the northern end of Lake Paranoá, separated from the inner city, is a peninsula with many fashionable homes, and a similar city exists on the southern lakeshore. Originally the city planners envisioned extensive public areas along the shores of the artificial lake, but during early development private clubs, hotels, and upscale residences and restaurants gained footholds around the water. Set well apart from the city are satellite cities, including Gama, Ceilândia, Taguatinga, Núcleo Bandeirante, Sobradinho, and Planaltina. These cities, with the exception of Gama and Sobradinho were not planned.
Who complained that Brasilia was monotonous?
5731dff4e99e3014001e638c
Simone de Beauvoir
45
False
What nationality was de Beauvoir?
5731dff4e99e3014001e638d
French
31
False
What was de Beauvoir's career?
5731dff4e99e3014001e638e
writer
38
False
What is Brasilia famous for?
5731dff4e99e3014001e638f
its cuisine and efficiency of transit
700
False
its superquadras exuded "the same air of elegant monotony,"
87
What did the citizens complain after visiting Brasilia?
5a2ef101a83784001a7d25b3
True
cuisine and efficiency of transit
704
What are superquadras famous for?
5a2ef101a83784001a7d25b4
True
wastelands
231
What have other observers compared forested areas to?
5a2ef101a83784001a7d25b5
True
small commercial areas, bookstores and cafes
631
What is located on either side of the plazas?
5a2ef101a83784001a7d25b6
True
landscaping
337
How have the bookstores and cafes been improved?
5a2ef101a83784001a7d25b7
True
After a visit to Brasília, the French writer Simone de Beauvoir complained that all of its superquadras exuded "the same air of elegant monotony," and other observers have equated the city's large open lawns, plazas, and fields to wastelands. As the city has matured, some of these have gained adornments, and many have been improved by landscaping, giving some observers a sense of "humanized" spaciousness. Although not fully accomplished, the "Brasília utopia" has produced a city of relatively high quality of life, in which the citizens live in forested areas with sporting and leisure structure (the superquadras) flanked by small commercial areas, bookstores and cafes; the city is famous for its cuisine and efficiency of transit.
What services are central to Brasilia's economy?
5731e04ce17f3d14004224e1
government, communications, banking and finance, food production, entertainment, and legal services
49
False
What is Brasilia's most important non-service industry?
5731e04ce17f3d14004224e2
construction
19
False
How much of Brasilia's GDP is from Public Administration?
5731e04ce17f3d14004224e3
54.8%
452
False
How much of Brasilia's GDP is from Services?
5731e04ce17f3d14004224e4
28.7%
468
False
How much of Brasilia's GDP is from Agribusiness?
5731e04ce17f3d14004224e5
0.2%
519
False
major roles of construction and of services (government, communications, banking and finance, food production, entertainment, and legal services)
4
What shows the city's status as an industrial center?
5a2ef2e3a83784001a7d25c3
True
construction, food processing, and furnishings
276
What Public Administration roles are important?
5a2ef2e3a83784001a7d25c4
True
Public Administration 54.8%, Services 28.7%, Industry 10.2%, Commerce 6.1%, Agribusiness 0.2%
430
How is government divided according to percentage?
5a2ef2e3a83784001a7d25c5
True
those associated with publishing, printing, and computer software
345
What other parts of finance are important?
5a2ef2e3a83784001a7d25c6
True
(government, communications, banking and finance, food production, entertainment, and legal services)
48
What major roles of Public Administration and Commerce show Brasilia as governmental rather than industrial?
5a2ef2e3a83784001a7d25c7
True
The major roles of construction and of services (government, communications, banking and finance, food production, entertainment, and legal services) in Brasília's economy reflect the city's status as a governmental rather than an industrial center. Industries connected with construction, food processing, and furnishings are important, as are those associated with publishing, printing, and computer software. GDP is divided in Public Administration 54.8%, Services 28.7%, Industry 10.2%, Commerce 6.1%, Agribusiness 0.2%.
What is Brasilia's GDP?
5731e0fce99e3014001e6394
99.5 billion reais
140
False
How much of Brazil's GDP comes from Brasilia?
5731e0fce99e3014001e6395
3.76%
172
False
What industries is Brasilia trying to encourage?
5731e0fce99e3014001e6396
software, film, video, and gemology
523
False
Brasília
36
What city is an important Federal District?
5a2ef3eda83784001a7d25d3
True
its administrative function
269
Where does the main economic activity of UNESCO come from?
5a2ef3eda83784001a7d25d4
True
UNESCO
413
What is the non-polluting industry registered by?
5a2ef3eda83784001a7d25d5
True
the development of non-polluting industries such as software, film, video, and gemology
471
What does UNESCO encorage in Brasilia?
5a2ef3eda83784001a7d25d6
True
environmental preservation and maintaining ecological balance
590
What does the film industry put emphasis on in Brasilia?
5a2ef3eda83784001a7d25d7
True
Besides being the political center, Brasília is an important economic center. Brasília has the highest city gross domestic product (GDP) of 99.5 billion reais representing 3.76% of the total Brazilian GDP. The main economic activity of the federal capital results from its administrative function. Its industrial planning is studied carefully by the Government of the Federal District. Being a city registered by UNESCO, the government in Brasília has opted to encourage the development of non-polluting industries such as software, film, video, and gemology among others, with emphasis on environmental preservation and maintaining ecological balance, preserving the city property.
Where did Brasilia place hotels?
5731e152b9d445190005e5ff
Hotels Sectors North and South
98
False
What kinds of hotels does Brasilia have?
5731e152b9d445190005e600
from inns, pensions and hostels to larger international chain hotels
312
False
What kinds of restaurants does Brasilia have?
5731e152b9d445190005e601
from local and regional Brazilian dishes to international cuisine
436
False
What lake has some hotels around it?
5731e152b9d445190005e602
Lake Paranoá
252
False
a wide range of foods from local and regional Brazilian dishes to international cuisine.
414
What do Hotel Sectors cater to?
5a2ef61ca83784001a7d25e7
True
areas for almost everything, including accommodation
44
What did the design of hostels include?
5a2ef61ca83784001a7d25e8
True
Sector North
213
Where are restaurants and pensions placed in Brasilia?
5a2ef61ca83784001a7d25e9
True
Lake Paranoá
252
Near what lake is the Sector South located?
5a2ef61ca83784001a7d25ea
True
elsewhere
171
Where are new restaurants being developed?
5a2ef61ca83784001a7d25eb
True
The city's planned design included specific areas for almost everything, including accommodation, Hotels Sectors North and South. New hotel facilities are being developed elsewhere, such as the hotels and tourism Sector North, located on the shores of Lake Paranoá. Brasília has a range of tourist accommodation from inns, pensions and hostels to larger international chain hotels. The city's restaurants cater to a wide range of foods from local and regional Brazilian dishes to international cuisine.
When was 'The World In Grey' published?
5731e1b0e99e3014001e63a4
2008
72
False
Who wrote 'The World In Grey'?
5731e1b0e99e3014001e63a5
Ryan J. Lucero
129
False
Whose prophecy is 'The World In Grey' based on?
5731e1b0e99e3014001e63a6
Don Bosco
251
False
Who is Brasilia's patron saint?
5731e1b0e99e3014001e63a7
Don Bosco
540
False
What lake did Don Bosco predict?
5731e1b0e99e3014001e63a8
Paranoá Lake
514
False
modern-day literature
36
What has Ryan J. Lucero been the focus of recently?
5a2ef77fa83784001a7d25f1
True
2008
72
When was the Promised Land published?
5a2ef77fa83784001a7d25f2
True
"Between parallels 15 and 20, around a lake which shall be formed; A great civilization will thrive, and that will be the Promised Land."
297
What was the prophecy of Ryan J. Lucero?
5a2ef77fa83784001a7d25f3
True
Don Bosco
540
Who is  the patron saint of Italy?
5a2ef77fa83784001a7d25f4
True
between the parallels 15° S and 20° S
449
Where was World In Grey created?
5a2ef77fa83784001a7d25f5
True
Brasília has also been the focus of modern-day literature. Published in 2008, The World In Grey: Dom Bosco's Prophecy, by author Ryan J. Lucero, tells an apocalypticle story based on the famous prophecy from the late 19th century by the Italian saint Don Bosco. According to Don Bosco's prophecy: "Between parallels 15 and 20, around a lake which shall be formed; A great civilization will thrive, and that will be the Promised Land." Brasília lies between the parallels 15° S and 20° S, where an artificial lake (Paranoá Lake) was formed. Don Bosco is Brasília's patron saint.
What does 'Praça dos Três Poderes' mean?
5731e228b9d445190005e60d
Square of the Three Powers
39
False
What does the name 'Praça dos Três Poderes' come from?
5731e228b9d445190005e60e
the three federal branches around the plaza
133
False
What is Brazil's Supreme Court called?
5731e228b9d445190005e60f
Supremo Tribunal Federal
398
False
Who designed the Praça dos Três Poderes?
5731e228b9d445190005e610
Lúcio Costa and Oscar Niemeyer
477
False
What is Brazil's Congress called?
5731e228b9d445190005e611
Congresso Nacional
310
False
Praça dos Três Poderes (Portuguese for Square of the Three Powers)
0
What is a court in the National Congress?
5a2ef89ca83784001a7d25fb
True
Praça dos Três Poderes (Portuguese for Square of the Three Powers)
0
What is a tourist attraction in Lucio?
5a2ef89ca83784001a7d25fc
True
the three federal branches around the plaza
133
Where does the name Lucio Costa come from?
5a2ef89ca83784001a7d25fd
True
Lúcio Costa and Oscar Niemeyer
477
Who designed the Supreme Federal Court?
5a2ef89ca83784001a7d25fe
True
Praça dos Três Poderes (Portuguese for Square of the Three Powers)
0
What is the presidential office designed by Lucio Costa and Oscar Niemeyer called?
5a2ef89ca83784001a7d25ff
True
Praça dos Três Poderes (Portuguese for Square of the Three Powers) is a plaza in Brasília. The name is derived from the encounter of the three federal branches around the plaza: the Executive, represented by the Palácio do Planalto (presidential office); the Legislative, represented by the National Congress (Congresso Nacional); and the Judicial branch, represented by the Supreme Federal Court (Supremo Tribunal Federal). It is a tourist attraction in Brasília, designed by Lúcio Costa and Oscar Niemeyer as a place where the three branches would meet harmoniously.
Where does Brazil's president live?
5731e2a6e99e3014001e63b4
Palácio da Alvorada
4
False
When did Brasilia's presidential residence open?
5731e2a6e99e3014001e63b5
1958
185
False
What principles of architecture was the Alvorada designed with?
5731e2a6e99e3014001e63b6
simplicity and modernity
346
False
How large is the Alvorada?
5731e2a6e99e3014001e63b7
7,000 m2
611
False
How many floors does the Alvorada have?
5731e2a6e99e3014001e63b8
three
625
False
7,000 m2
611
What is the area of the city of Brasilia?
5a2ef9ffa83784001a7d2605
True
1958
185
When was the President of Brazil inaugurated?
5a2ef9ffa83784001a7d2606
True
three
625
How many floors are in the chapel?
5a2ef9ffa83784001a7d2607
True
the "Alvorada"
261
What is the name of one of the first Olympic-sized swimming pools built in the capital city?
5a2ef9ffa83784001a7d2608
True
The principles of simplicity and modernity
328
What principles motivated the President of Brazil?
5a2ef9ffa83784001a7d2609
True
The Palácio da Alvorada is the official residence of the President of Brazil. The palace was designed, along with the rest of the city of Brasília, by Oscar Niemeyer and inaugurated in 1958. One of the first structures built in the republic's new capital city, the "Alvorada" lies on a peninsula at the margins of Lake Paranoá. The principles of simplicity and modernity, that in the past characterized the great works of architecture, motivated Niemeyer. The viewer has an impression of looking at a glass box, softly landed on the ground with the support of thin external columns. The building has an area of 7,000 m2 with three floors consisting of the basement, landing, and second floor. The auditorium, kitchen, laundry, medical center, and administration offices are at basement level. The rooms used by the presidency for official receptions are on the landing. The second floor has four suites, two apartments, and various private rooms which make up the residential part of the palace. The building also has a library, a heated Olympic-sized swimming pool, a music room, two dining rooms and various meeting rooms. A chapel and heliport are in adjacent buildings.
How many floors does the Planalto have?
5731e3480fdd8d15006c6605
four
919
False
How large is the Planalto?
5731e3480fdd8d15006c6606
36,000 m2
957
False
Where are the President's offices?
5731e3480fdd8d15006c6607
Palácio do Planalto
4
False
Who designed the Planalto?
5731e3480fdd8d15006c6608
Oscar Niemeyer
697
False
Where are the VP's offices?
5731e3480fdd8d15006c6609
Palácio do Planalto
4
False
four
919
How many floors are in the Palacio da Alvoarada?
5a2efb58a83784001a7d260f
True
36,000 m2
957
What is the area of the Palacio de Alvorada?
5a2efb58a83784001a7d2610
True
the Vice-President of Brazil and the Chief of Staff
537
Who also has offices in the Alvorada?
5a2efb58a83784001a7d2611
True
The Palácio do Planalto
0
What is the official workplace of Oscar Niemeyer?
5a2efb58a83784001a7d2612
True
"Planalto"
171
What is used as a metonym for the chief of staff of government?
5a2efb58a83784001a7d2613
True
The Palácio do Planalto is the official workplace of the President of Brazil. It is located at the Praça dos Três Poderes in Brasília. As the seat of government, the term "Planalto" is often used as a metonym for the executive branch of government. The main working office of the President of the Republic is in the Palácio do Planalto. The President and his or her family do not live in it, rather in the official residence, the Palácio da Alvorada. Besides the President, senior advisors also have offices in the "Planalto," including the Vice-President of Brazil and the Chief of Staff. The other Ministries are along the Esplanada dos Ministérios. The architect of the Palácio do Planalto was Oscar Niemeyer, creator of most of the important buildings in Brasília. The idea was to project an image of simplicity and modernity using fine lines and waves to compose the columns and exterior structures. The Palace is four stories high, and has an area of 36,000 m2. Four other adjacent buildings are also part of the complex.
When did Brasilia's airport add a second runway?
5731e3b9b9d445190005e629
2006
233
False
How many passengers came through Brasilia's airport in 2007?
5731e3b9b9d445190005e62a
11,119,872
268
False
How many movie theaters are in Brasilia's airport?
5731e3b9b9d445190005e62b
four
399
False
How many vendor spaces are in Brasilia's airport?
5731e3b9b9d445190005e62c
136
502
False
How many parking spaces are there at Brasilia's airport?
5731e3b9b9d445190005e62d
1,200
811
False
a second runway
194
What did Avianca build by following the airport master plan?
5a2efd18a83784001a7d2619
True
2006
233
When did WebJET add a second runway?
5a2efd18a83784001a7d261a
True
11,119,872
268
How many passengers did the airport handle in 2006?
5a2efd18a83784001a7d261b
True
136
502
How many vendor spaces does ENGEVIX have?
5a2efd18a83784001a7d261c
True
up to 40 million passengers a year
1249
In 2007 by how much was the airport expanded to handle?
5a2efd18a83784001a7d261d
True
This makes for a large number of takeoffs and landings and it is not unusual for flights to be delayed in the holding pattern before landing. Following the airport's master plan, Infraero built a second runway, which was finished in 2006. In 2007, the airport handled 11,119,872 passengers. The main building's third floor, with 12 thousand square meters, has a panoramic deck, a food court, shops, four movie theatres with total capacity of 500 people, and space for exhibitions. Brasília Airport has 136 vendor spaces. The airport is located about 11 km (6.8 mi) from the central area of Brasília, outside the metro system. The area outside the airport's main gate is lined with taxis as well as several bus line services which connect the airport to Brasília's central district. The parking lot accommodates 1,200 cars. The airport is serviced by domestic and regional airlines (TAM, GOL, Azul, WebJET, Trip and Avianca), in addition to a number of international carriers. In 2012, Brasília's International Airport was won by the InfrAmerica consortium, formed by the Brazilian engineering company ENGEVIX and the Argentine Corporacion America holding company, with a 50% stake each. During the 25-year concession, the airport may be expanded to up to 40 million passengers a year.
How many boarding bridges does Brasilia's airport have?
5731e50f0fdd8d15006c6619
28
65
False
When did the number of boarding bridges at Brasilia's airport nearly double?
5731e50f0fdd8d15006c661a
2014
3
False
What company now runs Brasilia's airport?
5731e50f0fdd8d15006c661b
Inframerica Group
193
False
Besides boarding bridges, what also doubled in 2014 at Brasilia's airport?
5731e50f0fdd8d15006c661c
the number of parking spaces
296
False
What is Brasilia's airport's annual passenger capacity after 2014's improvements?
5731e50f0fdd8d15006c661d
21 million
620
False
15
30
How many boarding bridges did Miami recieve in 2014?
5a2efeb5a83784001a7d2623
True
28 in all
65
What did the boarding bridges increase to in Buenos Aires in 2014?
5a2efeb5a83784001a7d2624
True
the operation of the terminal
156
What was transferred to Paris after an auction?
5a2efeb5a83784001a7d2625
True
three thousand
343
What did the amount of passengers double to in 2014?
5a2efeb5a83784001a7d2626
True
Inframerica Group
193
What company runs the VIP room?
5a2efeb5a83784001a7d2627
True
In 2014, the airport received 15 new boarding bridges, totalling 28 in all. This was the main requirement made by the federal government, which transferred the operation of the terminal to the Inframerica Group after an auction. The group invested R$750 million in the project. In the same year, the number of parking spaces doubled, reaching three thousand. The airport's entrance have a new rooftop cover and a new access road. Furthermore, a VIP room was created on Terminal 1's third floor. The investments resulted an increase the capacity of Brasília's airport from approximately 15 million passengers per year to 21 million by 2014. Brasília has direct flights to all states of Brazil and direct international flights to Atlanta, Buenos Aires, Lisbon, Miami, Panama City, and Paris.
What is the JK Bridge a nickname for?
5731e90bb9d445190005e665
The Juscelino Kubitschek bridge
0
False
What does the JK Bridge cross?
5731e90bb9d445190005e666
Lake Paranoá
101
False
Who was the JK Bridge named for?
5731e90bb9d445190005e667
Juscelino Kubitschek de Oliveira
145
False
Who was de Oliveira?
5731e90bb9d445190005e668
former president of Brazil
179
False
Who designed the JK Bridge?
5731e90bb9d445190005e669
architect Alexandre Chan and structural engineer Mário Vila Verde
226
False
The Juscelino Kubitschek bridge
0
What did Juscelino Kubitschek de Oliveira design?
5a2f0530a83784001a7d2641
True
Brazil
199
What was Alexandre Chan former president of?
5a2f0530a83784001a7d2642
True
the Gustav Lindenthal Medal
302
What did Mario Vila Verde win in 2003?
5a2f0530a83784001a7d2643
True
Lake Paranoá in Brasília
101
What does the Mario Vila Verde bridge cross?
5a2f0530a83784001a7d2644
True
Pittsburgh
394
Where was the Gustav Lindenthal Conference located?
5a2f0530a83784001a7d2645
True
The Juscelino Kubitschek bridge, also known as the 'President JK Bridge' or the 'JK Bridge', crosses Lake Paranoá in Brasília. It is named after Juscelino Kubitschek de Oliveira, former president of Brazil. It was designed by architect Alexandre Chan and structural engineer Mário Vila Verde. Chan won the Gustav Lindenthal Medal for this project at the 2003 International Bridge Conference in Pittsburgh due to "...outstanding achievement demonstrating harmony with the environment, aesthetic merit and successful community participation".
What is the Rodoviária?
5731ea7eb9d445190005e683
bus station
33
False
As of 2000, how many people lived in Ceilândia?
5731ea7eb9d445190005e684
344,039
376
False
As of 2000, how many people lived in Taguatinga?
5731ea7eb9d445190005e685
243,575
412
False
As of 2000, how many people lived in the Plano Piloto?
5731ea7eb9d445190005e686
approximately 400,000
450
False
What areas does Brasilia's public transit avoid?
5731ea7eb9d445190005e687
most of the political and tourist areas
71
False
goes south
50
Where does the metro go after leaving the satellite cities?
5a2f069ba83784001a7d264b
True
public transportation
539
What do most residents of the Rodoviaria depend on?
5a2f069ba83784001a7d264c
True
Samambaia, Taguatinga and Ceilândia, as well as Guará and Águas Claras
170
What tourist areas does the metro serve?
5a2f069ba83784001a7d264d
True
satellite cities
246
What areas served are more populated than the political areas?
5a2f069ba83784001a7d264e
True
344,039
376
According to the 2000 census, how  many people lived in Guara?
5a2f069ba83784001a7d264f
True
The metro leaves the Rodoviária (bus station) and goes south, avoiding most of the political and tourist areas. The main purpose of the metro is to serve cities, such as Samambaia, Taguatinga and Ceilândia, as well as Guará and Águas Claras. The satellite cities served are more populated in total than the Plano Piloto itself (the census of 2000 indicated that Ceilândia had 344,039 inhabitants, Taguatinga had 243,575, whereas the Plano Piloto had approximately 400,000 inhabitants), and most residents of the satellite cities depend on public transportation.
Where did Brasilia's plan want interstate buses to stop?
5731eb11b9d445190005e68d
Central Station
72
False
What is the older interstate bus station called?
5731eb11b9d445190005e68e
Rodoferroviária
243
False
Where is the older interstate bus station?
5731eb11b9d445190005e68f
the western end of the Eixo Monumental
272
False
What mall is Brasilia's newest bus station near?
5731eb11b9d445190005e690
Parkshopping Mall
452
False
What street is Brasilia's newest bus station on?
5731eb11b9d445190005e691
Saída Sul
424
False
at the Central Station
65
In the original plan where should western end buses stop?
5a2f0868a83784001a7d2655
True
the older interstate station (called Rodoferroviária)
206
Because of the location of the Parkshopping Mall, where do buses leave from today?
5a2f0868a83784001a7d2656
True
in July 2010
401
When was the Rodoferroviaria opened?
5a2f0868a83784001a7d2657
True
on Saída Sul (South Exit) near Parkshopping Mall
421
Where is the Central Station located that opened in July 2010?
5a2f0868a83784001a7d2658
True
an inter-state bus station
512
What is only used to leave the Eixo Monumental?
5a2f0868a83784001a7d2659
True
In the original city plan, the interstate buses should also stop at the Central Station. Because of the growth of Brasília (and corresponding growth in the bus fleet), today the interstate buses leave from the older interstate station (called Rodoferroviária), located at the western end of the Eixo Monumental. The Central Bus Station also contains a main metro station. A new bus station was opened in July 2010. It is on Saída Sul (South Exit) near Parkshopping Mall and with its metro station, and it's also an inter-state bus station, used only to leave the Federal District.
What type of sports are popular in Brasilia?
5731ebb2e17f3d1400422551
unpowered air sports
59
False
What air sports event did Brasilia host in 2003?
5731ebb2e17f3d1400422552
the 14th Hang Gliding World Championship
391
False
What air sports event did Brasilia host in 2005?
5731ebb2e17f3d1400422553
the 2nd stage of the Brazilian Hang Gliding Championship
503
False
Why is Brasilia a good place for air sports?
5731ebb2e17f3d1400422554
strong thermal winds and great "cloud-streets"
243
False
14th Hang Gliding World Championship
395
What category of free flying did Brasilia host in August 2005?
5a2f0b35a83784001a7d265f
True
"cloud-streets"
274
What is the name for paragliding in Brasilia?
5a2f0b35a83784001a7d2660
True
strong thermal winds and great "cloud-streets"
243
What does the city have to offer because of its categories of free flying?
5a2f0b35a83784001a7d2661
True
a departing point for the practice of unpowered air sports
21
What is thermal wind known as?
5a2f0b35a83784001a7d2662
True
"cloud-streets"
274
What is the name of a manoeuvre appreciated by hanggliding?
5a2f0b35a83784001a7d2663
True
Brasília is known as a departing point for the practice of unpowered air sports, sports that may be practiced with hang gliding or paragliding wings. Practitioners of such sports reveal that, because of the city's dry weather, the city offers strong thermal winds and great "cloud-streets", which is also the name for a manoeuvre quite appreciated by practitioners. In 2003, Brasília hosted the 14th Hang Gliding World Championship, one of the categories of free flying. In August 2005, the city hosted the 2nd stage of the Brazilian Hang Gliding Championship.
Economy_of_Greece
What type of country is Greece?
5731e7900fdd8d15006c662d
developed
12
False
What percentage of Greece's economy is based on service?
5731e7900fdd8d15006c662e
82.8%
68
False
How much of Greece's economy is comprised of industrial sectors?
5731e7900fdd8d15006c662f
13.3%
99
False
How much of the national economic output did the agricultural sector of Greece contribute in 2015?
5731e7900fdd8d15006c6630
3.9%
143
False
How many international tourists visited Greece in 2013?
5731e7900fdd8d15006c6631
18 million
247
False
developed
12
What type of continent is Greece?
5a7b28e021c2de001afe9d58
True
82.8%
68
What percentage of Greece's economy is taken from service?
5a7b28e021c2de001afe9d59
True
13.3%
99
How much of Greece's debt is comprised of industrial sectors?
5a7b28e021c2de001afe9d5a
True
3.9%
143
How much of the national economic output did the agricultural sector of Greece eliminate in 2014?
5a7b28e021c2de001afe9d5b
True
18 million
247
How many international tourists were imprisoned in Greece in 2013?
5a7b28e021c2de001afe9d5c
True
Greece is a developed country with an economy based on the service (82.8%) and industrial sectors (13.3%). The agricultural sector contributed 3.9% of national economic output in 2015. Important Greek industries include tourism and shipping. With 18 million international tourists in 2013, Greece was the 7th most visited country in the European Union and 16th in the world. The Greek Merchant Navy is the largest in the world, with Greek-owned vessels accounting for 15% of global deadweight tonnage as of 2013. The increased demand for international maritime transportation between Greece and Asia has resulted in unprecedented investment in the shipping industry.
What is Greece a significant producer of within the EU?
5731e813e99e3014001e63be
agricultural
29
False
Greece has the largest what in the Balkans?
5731e813e99e3014001e63bf
economy
89
False
What was Albania's largest foreign investor in 2013?
5731e813e99e3014001e63c0
Greece
154
False
Who is Greece the most important trading partner to?
5731e813e99e3014001e63c1
Yugoslav Republic of Macedonia
358
False
What Greek telecommunications company has become a strong investor in former Yugoslavia?
5731e813e99e3014001e63c2
OTE
427
False
agricultural
29
What is Greece a significant consumer of outside the EU?
5a7b29b821c2de001afe9d62
True
economy
89
What is the smallest in the Balkans for Greece?
5a7b29b821c2de001afe9d63
True
Greece
154
What was Albania's smallest foreign investor in 2013?
5a7b29b821c2de001afe9d64
True
Yugoslav Republic of Macedonia
358
Who is Greece the least important trading partner to?
5a7b29b821c2de001afe9d65
True
OTE
427
What Greek telecommunications company has become a weak investor in former Yugoslavia?
5a7b29b821c2de001afe9d66
True
The country is a significant agricultural producer within the EU. Greece has the largest economy in the Balkans and is as an important regional investor. Greece was the largest foreign investor in Albania in 2013, the third in Bulgaria, in the top-three in Romania and Serbia and the most important trading partner and largest foreign investor in the former Yugoslav Republic of Macedonia. The Greek telecommunications company OTE has become a strong investor in former Yugoslavia and in other Balkan countries.
What does the abbreviation OECD expand to?
5731e92f0fdd8d15006c6641
Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development
91
False
What organization was Greek a founding member?
5731e92f0fdd8d15006c6642
OECD
147
False
What is Greece's economy classified as?
5731e92f0fdd8d15006c6643
advanced, high-income
27
False
When did Greece join what is now the European Union?
5731e92f0fdd8d15006c6644
1981
276
False
When did Greece adopt the Euro as its currency?
5731e92f0fdd8d15006c6645
2001
285
False
Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development
91
What does the abbreviation OECD shrink to?
5a7b2a1321c2de001afe9d6c
True
OECD
147
What organization was Greek a banned member?
5a7b2a1321c2de001afe9d6d
True
advanced, high-income
27
What is Greece's economy forbidden from?
5a7b2a1321c2de001afe9d6e
True
1981
276
When did Greece leave what is now the European Union?
5a7b2a1321c2de001afe9d6f
True
2001
285
When did Greece remove the Euro as its currency?
5a7b2a1321c2de001afe9d70
True
Greece is classified as an advanced, high-income economy, and was a founding member of the Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD) and of the Organization of the Black Sea Economic Cooperation (BSEC). The country joined what is now the European Union in 1981. In 2001 Greece adopted the euro as its currency, replacing the Greek drachma at an exchange rate of 340.75 drachmae per euro. Greece is a member of the International Monetary Fund and of the World Trade Organization, and ranked 34th on Ernst & Young's Globalization Index 2011.
What years of economic growth was called Greece's economic miracle?
5731e9d1b9d445190005e66f
1950 to 1980
117
False
From what year was Greece's levels of GDP growth above the Eurozone average?
5731e9d1b9d445190005e670
2000
180
False
What was the GDP growth rate of Greece in 2013?
5731e9d1b9d445190005e671
−3.2%
559
False
How much public debt did Greece have in 2011?
5731e9d1b9d445190005e672
€356 billion
617
False
What year did Greece fall back into recession?
5731e9d1b9d445190005e673
2015
961
False
1950 to 1980
117
What years of economic growth were called Greece's economic hell?
5a7b2aeb21c2de001afe9d76
True
2000
180
What year was Greece's levels of GDP growth the same as the Eurozone average?
5a7b2aeb21c2de001afe9d77
True
−3.2%
559
What was the GDP reduction rate of Greece in 2011?
5a7b2aeb21c2de001afe9d78
True
€356 billion
617
How much public profit did Greece have in 2011?
5a7b2aeb21c2de001afe9d79
True
2015
961
What year did Greece become immune to recessions?
5a7b2aeb21c2de001afe9d7a
True
World War II (1939-1945) devastated the country's economy, but the high levels of economic growth that followed from 1950 to 1980 have been called the Greek economic miracle. From 2000 Greece saw high levels of GDP growth above the Eurozone average, peaking at 5.8% in 2003 and 5.7% in 2006. The subsequent Great Recession and Greek government-debt crisis, a central focus of the wider European debt crisis, plunged the economy into a sharp downturn, with real GDP growth rates of −0.3% in 2008, −4.3% in 2009, −5.5% in 2010, −9.1% in 2011, −7.3% in 2012 and −3.2% in 2013. In 2011, the country's public debt reached €356 billion (172% of nominal GDP). After negotiating the biggest debt restructuring in history with the private sector, Greece reduced its sovereign debt burden to €280 billion (137% of GDP) in the first quarter of 2012. Greece achieved a real GDP growth rate of 0.7% in 2014 after 6 years of economic decline, but fell back into recession in 2015.
What transformed a large part of the world in the 19th century?
5731eaa7e17f3d1400422547
Industrial Revolution
127
False
What does recent research from 2006 examine?
5731eaa7e17f3d1400422548
evolution of the Greek economy
4
False
What was Greece's GDP growth between 1833 and 1911 compared other Western European nations?
5731eaa7e17f3d1400422549
slightly lower
415
False
What type of industrial activity was evident in Greece in the period researched?
5731eaa7e17f3d140042254a
shipbuilding
531
False
What did Greece do in 1826, 1843, 1860 and 1894?
5731eaa7e17f3d140042254b
defaulted on its external loans
641
False
Industrial Revolution
127
What paralyzed a large part of the world in the 18th century?
5a7b2ba921c2de001afe9d80
True
evolution of the Greek economy
4
What does recent research from 2006 avoid?
5a7b2ba921c2de001afe9d81
True
slightly lower
415
What was Greece's GDP decline between 1833 and 1911 compared with other Western European nations?
5a7b2ba921c2de001afe9d82
True
shipbuilding
531
What type of industrial activity was unknown in Greece in the period researched?
5a7b2ba921c2de001afe9d83
True
defaulted on its external loans
641
What did Greece avoid in 1826, 1843, 1860 and 1894?
5a7b2ba921c2de001afe9d84
True
The evolution of the Greek economy during the 19th century (a period that transformed a large part of the world because of the Industrial Revolution) has been little researched. Recent research from 2006 examines the gradual development of industry and further development of shipping in a predominantly agricultural economy, calculating an average rate of per capita GDP growth between 1833 and 1911 that was only slightly lower than that of the other Western European nations. Industrial activity, (including heavy industry like shipbuilding) was evident, mainly in Ermoupolis and Piraeus. Nonetheless, Greece faced economic hardships and defaulted on its external loans in 1826, 1843, 1860 and 1894.
How many years of consecutive growth had Greece had?
57320a23b9d445190005e75d
fourteen
6
False
When did Greece go into recession?
57320a23b9d445190005e75e
in 2008
80
False
What did the Greek economy have the highest of at the end of 2009?
57320a23b9d445190005e75f
budget deficit
145
False
What percentage of GDP was the budget deficit of Greece in 2009?
57320a23b9d445190005e760
15.7%
281
False
What type of crisis resulted from the budget deficit and rising debt levels of Greece?
57320a23b9d445190005e761
severe economic
499
False
fourteen
6
How many years of consecutive growth has Greece lost?
5a7b2c6a21c2de001afe9d8a
True
2008
83
When did Greece reverse their recession?
5a7b2c6a21c2de001afe9d8b
True
budget deficit
246
What did the Greek economy have the lowest of at the end of 2009?
5a7b2c6a21c2de001afe9d8c
True
15.7%
281
What percentage of GDP was the budget surplus of Greece in 2009?
5a7b2c6a21c2de001afe9d8d
True
severe economic
499
What type of crisis was averted from the budget surplus and lowering debt levels of Greece?
5a7b2c6a21c2de001afe9d8e
True
After fourteen consecutive years of economic growth, Greece went into recession in 2008. By the end of 2009, the Greek economy faced the highest budget deficit and government debt-to-GDP ratios in the EU. After several upward revisions, the 2009 budget deficit is now estimated at 15.7% of GDP. This, combined with rapidly rising debt levels (127.9% of GDP in 2009) led to a precipitous increase in borrowing costs, effectively shutting Greece out of the global financial markets and resulting in a severe economic crisis.
What was Greece accused of covering up the extent of?
57320b1be17f3d140042260b
its massive budget deficit
55
False
What prompted the allegation of Greece's covering up its budget deficit?
57320b1be17f3d140042260c
massive revision
161
False
Who voted in favor of an official investigation of the accusations?
57320b1be17f3d140042260d
Hellenic Parliament
463
False
When did the Parliament vote in favor of an investigation?
57320b1be17f3d140042260e
February 2012
445
False
What did a former member of the Hellenic Statistical Authority say the deficit had been inflated to justify?
57320b1be17f3d140042260f
harsher austerity measures
674
False
its massive budget deficit
55
What was Greece accused of being transparent about?
5a7b2ce621c2de001afe9d94
True
massive revision
161
What silenced the allegation of Greece's covering up its budget deficit?
5a7b2ce621c2de001afe9d95
True
Hellenic Parliament
463
Who voted against an official investigation of the accusations?
5a7b2ce621c2de001afe9d96
True
February 2012
445
When did the Parliament vote in opposition of an investigation?
5a7b2ce621c2de001afe9d97
True
harsher austerity measures
674
What did a former member of the Hellenic Statistical Authority say the deficit had been decreased to justify?
5a7b2ce621c2de001afe9d98
True
Greece was accused of trying to cover up the extent of its massive budget deficit in the wake of the global financial crisis. The allegation was prompted by the massive revision of the 2009 budget deficit forecast by the new PASOK government elected in October 2009, from "6–8%" (estimated by the previous New Democracy government) to 12.7% (later revised to 15.7%). However, the accuracy of the revised figures has also been questioned, and in February 2012 the Hellenic Parliament voted in favor of an official investigation following accusations by a former member of the Hellenic Statistical Authority that the deficit had been artificially inflated in order to justify harsher austerity measures.
What were the majority of the differences in the revised budget due to the temporary changing of?
57320c0ee17f3d1400422615
accounting practices
96
False
When were expenses recorded by the new government?
57320c0ee17f3d1400422616
when military material was ordered rather than received
165
False
What did retroactively applying the ESA95 methodology result in raising the budget deficit to?
57320c0ee17f3d1400422617
3.38% of GDP
385
False
By how much did the budget deficit of Greece exceed the 3% limit in the reference year of 1999?
57320c0ee17f3d1400422618
.38%
386
False
What other European country were claims similar to those levied against Greece made?
57320c0ee17f3d1400422619
Italy
526
False
accounting practices
96
What had no differences in the revised budget?
5a7b2f4c21c2de001afe9d9e
True
when military material was ordered rather than received
165
When were expenses classified by the new government?
5a7b2f4c21c2de001afe9d9f
True
3.38% of GDP
385
What did retroactively applying the ESA95 methodology result in lowering the budget deficit to?
5a7b2f4c21c2de001afe9da0
True
3.38%
385
How much did the budget deficit of Greece decrease the 3% limit in the reference year of 1994?
5a7b2f4c21c2de001afe9da1
True
Italy
526
What other European country were claims similar to those levied against Greece restricted?
5a7b2f4c21c2de001afe9da2
True
Most of the differences in the revised budget deficit numbers were due to a temporary change of accounting practices by the new government, i.e., recording expenses when military material was ordered rather than received. However, it was the retroactive application of ESA95 methodology (applied since 2000) by Eurostat, that finally raised the reference year (1999) budget deficit to 3.38% of GDP, thus exceeding the 3% limit. This led to claims that Greece (similar claims have been made about other European countries like Italy) had not actually met all five accession criteria, and the common perception that Greece entered the Eurozone through "falsified" deficit numbers.
Who provided a report for Greece in 2005?
57320d07e17f3d140042261f
OECD
12
False
What was the range of the impact of the new accounting rules on the Greek fiscal figures for the years 1997 to 1999?
57320d07e17f3d1400422620
0.7 to 1 percentage point of GDP
160
False
What was the year of Greece's EMU membership qualification?
57320d07e17f3d1400422621
1999
289
False
What methodology was in force when Greece submitted its membership qualification?
57320d07e17f3d1400422622
ESA79
492
False
What did the Greek minister of finance clarify the 1999 budget was below when calculated with the ESA79 methodology?
57320d07e17f3d1400422623
the prescribed 3% limit
443
False
OECD
12
Who burned a report for Greece in 2005?
5a7b395d21c2de001afe9de4
True
0.7 to 1 percentage point of GDP
160
What was the range of the impact of the new accounting rules on the Greek fiscal figures for the years 1990 to 1979?
5a7b395d21c2de001afe9de5
True
1999
289
What was the year of Greece's EMU membership disqualification?
5a7b395d21c2de001afe9de6
True
ESA79
492
What methodology was not in force when Greece submitted its membership qualification?
5a7b395d21c2de001afe9de7
True
the prescribed 3% limit
443
What did the Greek minister of finance clarify the 1999 budget was above when calculated with the ESA79 methodology?
5a7b395d21c2de001afe9de8
True
In the 2005 OECD report for Greece, it was clearly stated that "the impact of new accounting rules on the fiscal figures for the years 1997 to 1999 ranged from 0.7 to 1 percentage point of GDP; this retroactive change of methodology was responsible for the revised deficit exceeding 3% in 1999, the year of [Greece's] EMU membership qualification". The above led the Greek minister of finance to clarify that the 1999 budget deficit was below the prescribed 3% limit when calculated with the ESA79 methodology in force at the time of Greece's application, and thus the criteria had been met.
What error is sometimes made by tying Greece's Eurozone entry with?
57320deab9d445190005e79b
controversy regarding usage of derivatives’ deals
98
False
What banks did Greece use derivatives' deals with?
57320deab9d445190005e79c
U.S. Banks
153
False
What was the result of the deals with the U.S. banks?
57320deab9d445190005e79d
artificially reduce their reported budget deficits
206
False
How many Euros was Greece able to "hide" because of an arrangement with Goldman Sachs?
57320deab9d445190005e79e
2.8 billion
327
False
Why aren't the deficit values affected by the currency swap with Goldman Sachs relevant to Greece's Eurozone entry?
57320deab9d445190005e79f
affected deficit values after 2001
368
False
the confusion of discussion regarding Greece’s Eurozone entry with the controversy regarding usage of derivatives’ deals
27
What error is never made?
5a7b472821c2de001afe9e3e
True
U.S. Banks
153
What banks did Greece lose derivatives' deals with?
5a7b472821c2de001afe9e3f
True
artificially reduce their reported budget deficits
206
What was the result of the rejection with the U.S. banks?
5a7b472821c2de001afe9e40
True
affected deficit values after 2001
368
Why are the deficit values affected by the currency swap with Goldman Sachs relevant to Greece's Eurozone entry?
5a7b472821c2de001afe9e41
True
2.8 billion
327
How many Euros was Greece able to give away because of an arrangement with Goldman Sachs?
5a7b472821c2de001afe9e42
True
An error sometimes made is the confusion of discussion regarding Greece’s Eurozone entry with the controversy regarding usage of derivatives’ deals with U.S. Banks by Greece and other Eurozone countries to artificially reduce their reported budget deficits. A currency swap arranged with Goldman Sachs allowed Greece to "hide" 2.8 billion Euros of debt, however, this affected deficit values after 2001 (when Greece had already been admitted into the Eurozone) and is not related to Greece’s Eurozone entry.
What were credits given to European governments disguised as?
57320eaee99e3014001e649e
swaps
83
False
Why weren't swaps registered as debts by Eurostat at the time?
57320eaee99e3014001e649f
ignored statistics involving financial derivatives
167
False
What rules did a German derivatives dealer say could be quite legally circumvented through swaps?
57320eaee99e3014001e64a0
Maastricht
286
False
What was again revised in May of 2010?
57320eaee99e3014001e64a1
Greek government deficit
680
False
What was Greece's public debt forecast to hit as high of a percentage of GDP of in 2010?
57320eaee99e3014001e64a2
120%
942
False
swaps
83
What were credits taken from European governments disguised as?
5a7b480a21c2de001afe9e48
True
ignored statistics involving financial derivatives
167
Why were swaps registered as debts by Eurostat at the time?
5a7b480a21c2de001afe9e49
True
Maastricht
286
What rules did a German derivatives dealer say could never be quite legally circumvented through swaps?
5a7b480a21c2de001afe9e4a
True
Greek government deficit
680
What was left unchanged in May of 2010?
5a7b480a21c2de001afe9e4b
True
120%
942
What was Greece's public debt forecast to hit as low of a percentage of GDP of in 2000?
5a7b480a21c2de001afe9e4c
True
According to Der Spiegel, credits given to European governments were disguised as "swaps" and consequently did not get registered as debt because Eurostat at the time ignored statistics involving financial derivatives. A German derivatives dealer had commented to Der Spiegel that "The Maastricht rules can be circumvented quite legally through swaps," and "In previous years, Italy used a similar trick to mask its true debt with the help of a different US bank." These conditions had enabled Greek as well as many other European governments to spend beyond their means, while meeting the deficit targets of the European Union and the monetary union guidelines. In May 2010, the Greek government deficit was again revised and estimated to be 13.6% which was the second highest in the world relative to GDP with Iceland in first place at 15.7% and Great Britain third with 12.6%. Public debt was forecast, according to some estimates, to hit 120% of GDP during 2010.
What did the international banks have doubts about Greece's ability to repay?
5732138be17f3d1400422673
sovereign debt
98
False
What was a consequence of the doubt that Greece could pay it's debts?
5732138be17f3d1400422674
rise of the country's borrowing rates
134
False
How much money did the IMF and other Eurozone countries agree to give Greece in 2010?
5732138be17f3d1400422675
€45 billion in bail-out loans
643
False
What was the total amount of the rescue package given to Greece?
5732138be17f3d1400422676
€110 billion
710
False
What organizations are keeping a watchful eye on how Greece is implementing austerity measures?
5732138be17f3d1400422677
the European Commission, the European Central Bank and the IMF
902
False
sovereign debt
98
What did the international banks have no doubts about Greece's ability to repay?
5a7b496721c2de001afe9e66
True
rise of the country's borrowing rates
134
What was avoided by the doubt that Greece could pay it's debts?
5a7b496721c2de001afe9e67
True
€45 billion in bail-out loans
643
How much money did the IMF and other Eurozone countries agree to steal from Greece in 2010?
5a7b496721c2de001afe9e68
True
€110 billion
710
What was the total amount of the rescue package taken from Greece?
5a7b496721c2de001afe9e69
True
the European Commission, the European Central Bank and the IMF
902
What organizations are ignoring how Greece is implementing austerity measures?
5a7b496721c2de001afe9e6a
True
As a consequence, there was a crisis in international confidence in Greece's ability to repay its sovereign debt, as reflected by the rise of the country's borrowing rates (although their slow rise – the 10-year government bond yield only exceeded 7% in April 2010 – coinciding with a large number of negative articles, has led to arguments about the role of international news media in the evolution of the crisis). In order to avert a default (as high borrowing rates effectively prohibited access to the markets), in May 2010 the other Eurozone countries, and the IMF, agreed to a "rescue package" which involved giving Greece an immediate €45 billion in bail-out loans, with more funds to follow, totaling €110 billion. In order to secure the funding, Greece was required to adopt harsh austerity measures to bring its deficit under control. Their implementation will be monitored and evaluated by the European Commission, the European Central Bank and the IMF.
What did Greece have the highest percentage increase in between 2005 and 2011?
57321440b9d445190005e7b5
industrial output
73
False
What was the increase of Greece's industrial output between 2005 and 2011?
57321440b9d445190005e7b6
6%
170
False
What did the industrial production in Greece fall by due to the financial crisis?
57321440b9d445190005e7b7
13.4%.
370
False
What is Greece ranked in the EU in the production of marble?
57321440b9d445190005e7b8
third
405
False
How many tons of marble does Greece produce?
57321440b9d445190005e7b9
920,000 tons
467
False
industrial output
73
What did Greece have the lowest percentage increase in between 2005 and 2011?
5a7b4a4c21c2de001afe9e70
True
6%
170
What was the decrease of Greece's industrial output between 2005 and 2011?
5a7b4a4c21c2de001afe9e71
True
13.4%
370
What did the industrial production in Greece increase by due to the financial crisis?
5a7b4a4c21c2de001afe9e72
True
third
405
What is Greece ranked in the US in the production of marble?
5a7b4a4c21c2de001afe9e73
True
920,000 tons
467
How many tons of marble does Greece destroy?
5a7b4a4c21c2de001afe9e74
True
Between 2005 and 2011, Greece has had the highest percentage increase in industrial output compared to 2005 levels out of all European Union members, with an increase of 6%. Eurostat statistics show that the industrial sector was hit by the Greek financial crisis throughout 2009 and 2010, with domestic output decreasing by 5.8% and industrial production in general by 13.4%. Currently, Greece is ranked third in the European Union in the production of marble (over 920,000 tons), after Italy and Spain.
What does Greece have the largest of in the world?
573214b90fdd8d15006c6767
merchant navy
23
False
Greece's navy accounts for more than what percentage of the world's total deadweight tonnage?
573214b90fdd8d15006c6768
15%
76
False
What is the Greek merchant navy's total dwt?
573214b90fdd8d15006c6769
245 million
241
False
What percentage of the entire EU's dwt does Greece alone represent?
573214b90fdd8d15006c676a
39.52%
364
False
How many ships did Greece's navy have in the late 1970s?
573214b90fdd8d15006c676b
5,000
473
False
merchant navy
23
What does Greece have the smallest of in the world?
5a7b4b5d21c2de001afe9e7a
True
5,000
473
How many ships did Greece's navy lose in the late 1970s?
5a7b4b5d21c2de001afe9e7b
True
39.52%
364
What percentage of the entire EU's dwt does Greece alone avoid?
5a7b4b5d21c2de001afe9e7c
True
245 million
241
What is the Greek merchant navy's incorrect dwt?
5a7b4b5d21c2de001afe9e7d
True
15%
76
What percentage of Greece's navy accounts for less than the world's total deadweight tonnage?
5a7b4b5d21c2de001afe9e7e
True
Greece has the largest merchant navy in the world, accounting for more than 15% of the world's total deadweight tonnage (dwt) according to the United Nations Conference on Trade and Development. The Greek merchant navy's total dwt of nearly 245 million is comparable only to Japan's, which is ranked second with almost 224 million. Additionally, Greece represents 39.52% of all of the European Union's dwt. However, today's fleet roster is smaller than an all-time high of 5,000 ships in the late 1970s.
How many of the world's tankers do Greek companies own?
5732167eb9d445190005e7d1
22.6%
50
False
What percentage of the world's bulk carriers are Greece's?
5732167eb9d445190005e7d2
16.1%
83
False
What percentage of Greece's GDP does shipping account for?
5732167eb9d445190005e7d3
6%
288
False
What did earnings from Greece's shipping amount to in 2011?
5732167eb9d445190005e7d4
€14.1 billion
443
False
How many Greek shipping companies were in operation in 2011?
5732167eb9d445190005e7d5
750
722
False
22.6%
50
How many of the world's tankers do Greek companies punish?
5a7b4bfa21c2de001afe9e84
True
16.1%
83
What percentage of the EU bulk carriers are not Greece's?
5a7b4bfa21c2de001afe9e85
True
6%
288
What percentage of Greece's GDP does shipping not account for?
5a7b4bfa21c2de001afe9e86
True
€14.1 billion
443
What did earnings from Greece's shipping amount to a loss of in 2011?
5a7b4bfa21c2de001afe9e87
True
750
722
How many Greek shipping companies were closed in 2011?
5a7b4bfa21c2de001afe9e88
True
In terms of ship categories, Greek companies have 22.6% of the world's tankers and 16.1% of the world's bulk carriers (in dwt). An additional equivalent of 27.45% of the world's tanker dwt is on order, with another 12.7% of bulk carriers also on order. Shipping accounts for an estimated 6% of Greek GDP, employs about 160,000 people (4% of the workforce), and represents 1/3 of the country's trade deficit. Earnings from shipping amounted to €14.1 billion in 2011, while between 2000 and 2010 Greek shipping contributed a total of €140 billion (half of the country's public debt in 2009 and 3.5 times the receipts from the European Union in the period 2000–2013). The 2011 ECSA report showed that there are approximately 750 Greek shipping companies in operation.
When counting shipping as quasi-exports and in terms of monetary value, what is Greece's global rank?
5732172e0fdd8d15006c677b
4th
81
False
What was the worth Greece's shipping services in 2011?
5732172e0fdd8d15006c677c
17,704.132 million $
144
False
What three countries were ahead of Greece in 2011 with exports?
5732172e0fdd8d15006c677d
Denmark, Germany and South Korea
171
False
What was the shipping services imported by Greece in 2011 worth?
5732172e0fdd8d15006c677e
7,076.605 million US$
502
False
What was Greece's 2011 trade surplus?
5732172e0fdd8d15006c677f
10,712.342 million US$
560
False
4th
81
When counting shipping as quasi-exports and in terms of monetary value, what is Greece's local rank?
5a7b4d6e21c2de001afe9e8e
True
17,704.132 million $
144
What was the worth Greece's shipping services lost in 2011?
5a7b4d6e21c2de001afe9e8f
True
Denmark, Germany and South Korea
171
What seven countries were ahead of Greece in 2011 with exports?
5a7b4d6e21c2de001afe9e90
True
10,712.342 million US$
560
What was Greece's 2011 trade deficit?
5a7b4d6e21c2de001afe9e91
True
Counting shipping as quasi-exports and in terms of monetary value, Greece ranked 4th globally in 2011 having "exported" shipping services worth 17,704.132 million $; only Denmark, Germany and South Korea ranked higher during that year. Similarly counting shipping services provided to Greece by other countries as quasi-imports and the difference between "exports" and "imports" as a "trade balance", Greece in 2011 ranked in the latter second behind Germany, having "imported" shipping services worth 7,076.605 million US$ and having run a "trade surplus" of 10,712.342 million US$.
Who ran the phones in Greece between 1949 and the 1980s?
573217b2e99e3014001e64f8
state
70
False
What was the Hellenic Telecommunications Organization better known by the acronym of?
573217b2e99e3014001e64f9
OTE
163
False
When did the liberalization of the telephone communications in Greece happen?
573217b2e99e3014001e64fa
1980s
245
False
What company has a 40% stake in OTE?
573217b2e99e3014001e64fb
Deutsche Telekom
437
False
How many shares of OTE does the Greek state own?
573217b2e99e3014001e64fc
10%
511
False
state
70
Who removed the phones in Greece between 1949 and the 1980s?
5a7b4f4f21c2de001afe9ea0
True
OTE
252
What was the Hellenic Telecommunications Organization not known as well by the acronym of?
5a7b4f4f21c2de001afe9ea1
True
1980s
245
When did the liberalization of the telephone communications in Greece become impossible?
5a7b4f4f21c2de001afe9ea2
True
Deutsche Telekom
437
What company lost a 40% stake in OTE?
5a7b4f4f21c2de001afe9ea3
True
10%
511
How many shares of OTE does the Greek state sell?
5a7b4f4f21c2de001afe9ea4
True
Between 1949 and the 1980s, telephone communications in Greece were a state monopoly by the Hellenic Telecommunications Organization, better known by its acronym, OTE. Despite the liberalization of telephone communications in the country in the 1980s, OTE still dominates the Greek market in its field and has emerged as one of the largest telecommunications companies in Southeast Europe. Since 2011, the company's major shareholder is Deutsche Telekom with a 40% stake, while the Greek state continues to own 10% of the company's shares. OTE owns several subsidiaries across the Balkans, including Cosmote, Greece's top mobile telecommunications provider, Cosmote Romania and Albanian Mobile Communications.
What does Greece lag behind other EU countries in terms of use?
57321849b9d445190005e7db
Internet
72
False
How much did the percentage of households with access to the internet increase between 2006 and 2013?
57321849b9d445190005e7dc
more than doubled
189
False
What has the been a massive increase in the number of households with in Greece?
57321849b9d445190005e7dd
a broadband connection
394
False
Who has the EU's third highest percentage of people who've never used the Internet?
57321849b9d445190005e7de
Greece
504
False
What percentage of people in Greece had never used the Internet as of 2013?
57321849b9d445190005e7df
36%
598
False
Internet
72
What does Greece do more than other EU countries in terms of use?
5a7b503621c2de001afe9eaa
True
more than doubled
189
How much did the percentage of households with access to the internet decrease between 2003 and 2013?
5a7b503621c2de001afe9eab
True
a broadband connection
394
What has the been a massive deterrent in the number of households within Greece?
5a7b503621c2de001afe9eac
True
Greece
504
Who has the EU's third smallest percentage of people who've never used the Internet?
5a7b503621c2de001afe9ead
True
36%
598
What percentage of people in Greece have never stopped using the Internet as of 2013?
5a7b503621c2de001afe9eae
True
Greece has tended to lag behind its European Union partners in terms of Internet use, with the gap closing rapidly in recent years. The percentage of households with access to the Internet more than doubled between 2006 and 2013, from 23% to 56% respectively (compared with an EU average of 49% and 79%). At the same time, there has been a massive increase in the proportion of households with a broadband connection, from 4% in 2006 to 55% in 2013 (compared with an EU average of 30% and 76%). However, Greece also has the EU's third highest percentage of people who have never used the Internet: 36% in 2013, down from 65% in 2006 (compared with an EU average of 21% and 42%).
How many millions of tourists does Greece attract each year?
573218f9e99e3014001e6502
more than 16 million
16
False
What part of Greece's GDP is accounted for by tourism?
573218f9e99e3014001e6503
18.2%
75
False
What did the 2008 OECD report show the average tourist expenditure while in Greece was?
573218f9e99e3014001e6504
$1,073
218
False
How many jobs in 2008 in Greece were somehow related to the tourism industry?
573218f9e99e3014001e6505
840,000
337
False
How many tourists did Greece welcome in 2009?
573218f9e99e3014001e6506
over 19.3 million
434
False
more than 16 million
16
How many millions of tourists does Greece ban each year?
5a7b526421c2de001afe9eb4
True
18.2%
75
What part of Greece's GDP is unaccounted for by tourism?
5a7b526421c2de001afe9eb5
True
840,000
337
How many jobs in 2008 in Greece were not related to the tourism industry?
5a7b526421c2de001afe9eb6
True
over 19.3 million
434
How many tourists did Greece refuse in 2009?
5a7b526421c2de001afe9eb7
True
Greece attracts more than 16 million tourists each year, thus contributing 18.2% to the nation's GDP in 2008 according to an OECD report. The same survey showed that the average tourist expenditure while in Greece was $1,073, ranking Greece 10th in the world. The number of jobs directly or indirectly related to the tourism sector were 840,000 in 2008 and represented 19% of the country's total labor force. In 2009, Greece welcomed over 19.3 million tourists, a major increase from the 17.7 million tourists the country welcomed in 2008.
What have a number of tourism-related organizations placed Greek destinations at the top of?
573219f50fdd8d15006c67a5
their lists
114
False
What Greek city was rated the world's fifth best ultimate party town by 2009's Lonely Planet?
573219f50fdd8d15006c67a6
Thessaloniki
156
False
What distinction does the city of Thessaloniki have in regards to size in Greece?
573219f50fdd8d15006c67a7
the country's second-largest city
170
False
What did Travel+Leisure vote the island of Santorini as in 2011?
573219f50fdd8d15006c67a8
best island in the world
351
False
What island was ranked as the 5th best in Europe?
573219f50fdd8d15006c67a9
Mykonos
424
False
their lists
114
What have a number of tourism-related organizations placed Greek destinations at the bottom of?
5a7b534b21c2de001afe9ebc
True
Thessaloniki
156
What Greek city was rated the world's worst ultimate party town by 2008's Lonely Planet?
5a7b534b21c2de001afe9ebd
True
the country's second-largest city
170
What distinction does the city of Thessaloniki not have in regards to size in Greece?
5a7b534b21c2de001afe9ebe
True
best island in the world
351
What did Travel+Leisure vote the island of Santorini as in 2005?
5a7b534b21c2de001afe9ebf
True
Mykonos
424
What island was ranked as the most dangerous in Europe?
5a7b534b21c2de001afe9ec0
True
In recent years a number of well-known tourism-related organizations have placed Greek destinations in the top of their lists. In 2009 Lonely Planet ranked Thessaloniki, the country's second-largest city, the world's fifth best "Ultimate Party Town", alongside cities such as Montreal and Dubai, while in 2011 the island of Santorini was voted as the best island in the world by Travel + Leisure. The neighbouring island of Mykonos was ranked as the 5th best island Europe. Thessaloniki was the European Youth Capital in 2014.
What was Olympic Airways known as after 2003?
57321b1ae17f3d1400422695
Olympic Airlines
60
False
What was Olympic Airlines relaunched as in 2009?
57321b1ae17f3d1400422696
Olympic Air
186
False
What airlines was award the "Best regional airline in Europe" award by Skytrax?
57321b1ae17f3d1400422697
Aegean Airlines
298
False
What does Olympic Air hold a silver ERA award for?
57321b1ae17f3d1400422698
"Airline of the Year"
487
False
What year did Olympic Air receive an award as Top Domestic Airline?
57321b1ae17f3d1400422699
2011
544
False
Olympic Airlines
60
What was Olympic Airways known as before 2003?
5a7b545121c2de001afe9ed0
True
Olympic Air
186
What was Olympic Airlines relaunched as in 2012?
5a7b545121c2de001afe9ed1
True
Aegean Airlines
298
What airlines was awarded the "Worst regional airline in Europe" award by Skytrax?
5a7b545121c2de001afe9ed2
True
Airline of the Year
488
What does Olympic Air hold a bronze ERA award for?
5a7b545121c2de001afe9ed3
True
2011
544
What year did Olympic Air lose an award as Top Domestic Airline?
5a7b545121c2de001afe9ed4
True
Between 1975 and 2009, Olympic Airways (known after 2003 as Olympic Airlines) was the country’s state-owned flag carrier, but financial problems led to its privatization and relaunch as Olympic Air in 2009. Both Aegean Airlines and Olympic Air have won awards for their services; in 2009 and 2011, Aegean Airlines was awarded the "Best regional airline in Europe" award by Skytrax, and also has two gold and one silver awards by the ERA, while Olympic Air holds one silver ERA award for "Airline of the Year" as well as a "Condé Nast Traveller 2011 Readers Choice Awards: Top Domestic Airline" award.
How long is Greek's rail network estimated to run?
57321bdce17f3d140042269f
2,548 km
44
False
Who runs the rail transport in Greece?
57321bdce17f3d14004226a0
TrainOSE
94
False
Who is TrainOSE a subsidiary of?
57321bdce17f3d14004226a1
the Hellenic Railways Organization
120
False
What gauge is most of Greece's railway?
57321bdce17f3d14004226a2
standard gauge
195
False
How many kilometers of Greece's railway is electrified?
57321bdce17f3d14004226a3
764
284
False
2,548 km
44
How long is Greek's rail network estimated to be damaged?
5a7b54ff21c2de001afe9eda
True
TrainOSE
94
Who closed the rail transport in Greece?
5a7b54ff21c2de001afe9edb
True
Hellenic Railways Organization
124
Who is TrainOSE an owner of?
5a7b54ff21c2de001afe9edc
True
standard gauge
195
What gauge is none of Greece's railway?
5a7b54ff21c2de001afe9edd
True
764
284
How many kilometers of Greece's railway is gold?
5a7b54ff21c2de001afe9ede
True
Greece's rail network is estimated to be at 2,548 km. Rail transport in Greece is operated by TrainOSE, a subsidiary of the Hellenic Railways Organization (OSE). Most of the country's network is standard gauge (1,565 km), while the country also has 983 km of narrow gauge. A total of 764 km of rail are electrified. Greece has rail connections with Bulgaria, the Republic of Macedonia and Turkey. A total of three suburban railway systems (Proastiakos) are in operation (in Athens, Thessaloniki and Patras), while one metro system is operational in Athens with another under construction.
What was Greece's largest port as measured by good transported in 2010?
57321c80b9d445190005e805
Aghioi Theodoroi
97
False
How many million of tons went through Aghioi Theodoroi in 2010?
57321c80b9d445190005e806
17.38
120
False
How many million tons of goods did port Eleusis transport in 2010?
57321c80b9d445190005e807
12.37 million tons
289
False
How many tons of goods were transported through Greece in 2007?
57321c80b9d445190005e808
164.3 million tons
432
False
What was the port of Piraeus declared to be in 2013?
57321c80b9d445190005e809
fastest-growing port in the world
666
False
Aghioi Theodoroi
97
What was Greece's smallest port as measured by good transported in 2010?
5a7b55e021c2de001afe9eee
True
17.38
120
How many million of feathers went through Aghioi Theodoroi in 2010?
5a7b55e021c2de001afe9eef
True
12.37 million tons
289
How many million tons of goods did port Eleusis steal in 2010?
5a7b55e021c2de001afe9ef0
True
164.3 million tons
432
How many tons of goods were lost in transport through Greece in 2007?
5a7b55e021c2de001afe9ef1
True
fastest-growing port in the world
666
What was the port of Piraeus declared to be in 2011?
5a7b55e021c2de001afe9ef2
True
According to Eurostat, Greece's largest port by tons of goods transported in 2010 is the port of Aghioi Theodoroi, with 17.38 million tons. The Port of Thessaloniki comes second with 15.8 million tons, followed by the Port of Piraeus, with 13.2 million tons, and the port of Eleusis, with 12.37 million tons. The total number of goods transported through Greece in 2010 amounted to 124.38 million tons, a considerable drop from the 164.3 million tons transported through the country in 2007. Since then, Piraeus has grown to become the Mediterranean's third-largest port thanks to heavy investment by Chinese logistics giant COSCO. In 2013, Piraeus was declared the fastest-growing port in the world.
How many TEUs did Piraeus handle in 2010?
57321d1eb9d445190005e819
513,319
24
False
What amount of TEUs did Thessaloniki handle in 2010?
57321d1eb9d445190005e81a
273,282
78
False
How many million of people passed through Greece's ports in 2010?
57321d1eb9d445190005e81b
83.9 million
110
False
What record amount of TEUs did Piraeus handle in 2013?
57321d1eb9d445190005e81c
3.16 million
355
False
What organization owns Pier II in Piraeus?
57321d1eb9d445190005e81d
COSCO
486
False
513,319
24
How many TEUs did Piraeus remove in 2010?
5a7b578321c2de001afe9f0c
True
273,282
78
What amount of TEUs did Thessaloniki destroy in 2010?
5a7b578321c2de001afe9f0d
True
83.9 million
110
How many millions of people couldn't pass through Greece's ports in 2010?
5a7b578321c2de001afe9f0e
True
3.16 million
355
What record amount of TEUs did Piraeus lose in 2013?
5a7b578321c2de001afe9f0f
True
COSCO
486
What organization is owned by Pier II in Piraeus?
5a7b578321c2de001afe9f10
True
In 2010 Piraeus handled 513,319 TEUs, followed by Thessaloniki, which handled 273,282 TEUs. In the same year, 83.9 million people passed through Greece's ports, 12.7 million through the port of Paloukia in Salamis, another 12.7 through the port of Perama, 9.5 million through Piraeus and 2.7 million through Igoumenitsa. In 2013, Piraeus handled a record 3.16 million TEUs, the third-largest figure in the Mediterranean, of which 2.52 million were transported through Pier II, owned by COSCO and 644,000 were transported through Pier I, owned by the Greek state.
Who dominates energy production in Greece?
57321d900fdd8d15006c67b9
Public Power Corporation
48
False
How much of all of Greece's energy demand was supplied by DEI in 2009?
57321d900fdd8d15006c67ba
85.6%
152
False
What is almost half of DEI's power output generated by the use of?
57321d900fdd8d15006c67bb
lignite
289
False
How much of DEI's energy output is from natural gas?
57321d900fdd8d15006c67bc
20%
391
False
What percentage did independent companies' energy production increase between 2009 and 2010?
57321d900fdd8d15006c67bd
56%
490
False
Public Power Corporation
48
Who has no energy production in Greece?
5a7b580921c2de001afe9f20
True
85.6%
152
How much of all of Greece's energy demand was removed by DEI in 2005?
5a7b580921c2de001afe9f21
True
lignite
289
What is almost a quarter of DEI's power output generated by the use of?
5a7b580921c2de001afe9f22
True
20%
391
How much of DEI's energy output is lost from natural gas?
5a7b580921c2de001afe9f23
True
56%
490
What percentage did independent companies' energy production decrease between 2007 and 2010?
5a7b580921c2de001afe9f24
True
Energy production in Greece is dominated by the Public Power Corporation (known mostly by its acronym ΔΕΗ, or in English DEI). In 2009 DEI supplied for 85.6% of all energy demand in Greece, while the number fell to 77.3% in 2010. Almost half (48%) of DEI's power output is generated using lignite, a drop from the 51.6% in 2009. Another 12% comes from Hydroelectric power plants and another 20% from natural gas. Between 2009 and 2010, independent companies' energy production increased by 56%, from 2,709 Gigawatt hour in 2009 to 4,232 GWh in 2010.
How much of Greece's energy consumption came from renewable sources in 2008?
57321ed80fdd8d15006c67cd
8%
39
False
What was EU average amount of energy from renewable sources in 2008?
57321ed80fdd8d15006c67ce
10%
166
False
Where does most of Greece's renewable energy come from?
57321ed80fdd8d15006c67cf
biomass and waste recycling
263
False
How much of Greece's energy is targeted to be from renewable sources by 2020?
57321ed80fdd8d15006c67d0
18%
381
False
Who suggested research into the possibility of a Greek nuclear power plant should begin?
57321ed80fdd8d15006c67d1
Academy of Athens
664
False
8%
39
How much of Greece's energy consumption was eliminated from renewable sources in 2008?
5a7b58ee21c2de001afe9f2a
True
10%
179
What was EU's lowest amount of energy from renewable sources in 2008?
5a7b58ee21c2de001afe9f2b
True
biomass and waste recycling
263
How is most of Greece's renewable energy ruined?
5a7b58ee21c2de001afe9f2c
True
18%
381
How much of Greece's energy is targeted to be reduced from renewable sources by 2020?
5a7b58ee21c2de001afe9f2d
True
Academy of Athens
664
Who suggested research into the possibility of a Greek nuclear power plant should end?
5a7b58ee21c2de001afe9f2e
True
In 2008 renewable energy accounted for 8% of the country's total energy consumption, a rise from the 7.2% it accounted for in 2006, but still below the EU average of 10% in 2008. 10% of the country's renewable energy comes from solar power, while most comes from biomass and waste recycling. In line with the European Commission's Directive on Renewable Energy, Greece aims to get 18% of its energy from renewable sources by 2020. In 2013 and for several months, Greece produced more than 20% of its electricity from renewable energy sources and hydroelectric power plants. Greece currently does not have any nuclear power plants in operation, however in 2009 the Academy of Athens suggested that research in the possibility of Greek nuclear power plants begin.
What is Greece set to start exploring the Ionian Sea for?
57321f5de99e3014001e6526
oil and gas
50
False
What countries have expressed interest in Greece's oil and gas exploration?
57321f5de99e3014001e6527
Norway and the United States
324
False
When were the first results of the energy explorations expected?
57321f5de99e3014001e6528
summer of 2012
468
False
When did the Deutsche Bank publish a report on the findings of the value of the reserves south of Crete?
57321f5de99e3014001e6529
November 2012
487
False
What did the Deutsche Bank estimate the value of the reserves to be at?
57321f5de99e3014001e652a
€427 billion
600
False
oil and gas
50
What is Greece going to stop exploring the Ionian Sea for?
5a7b59b021c2de001afe9f3e
True
Norway and the United States
324
What countries have expressed no interest in Greece's oil and gas exploration?
5a7b59b021c2de001afe9f3f
True
summer of 2012
468
When were the last results of the energy explorations expected?
5a7b59b021c2de001afe9f40
True
November 2012
487
When did the Deutsche Bank destroy a report on the findings of the value of the reserves south of Crete?
5a7b59b021c2de001afe9f41
True
€427 billion
600
What did the Deutsche Bank estimate the value of the reserves to become in years ahead?
5a7b59b021c2de001afe9f42
True
In addition to the above, Greece is also to start oil and gas exploration in other locations in the Ionian Sea, as well as the Libyan Sea, within the Greek exclusive economic zone, south of Crete. The Ministry of the Environment, Energy and Climate Change announced that there was interest from various countries (including Norway and the United States) in exploration, and the first results regarding the amount of oil and gas in these locations were expected in the summer of 2012. In November 2012, a report published by Deutsche Bank estimated the value of natural gas reserves south of Crete at €427 billion.
What was the currency of Greece until 2002?
57321ff8e99e3014001e6530
drachma
53
False
What did Greece sign to apply to join the eurozone?
57321ff8e99e3014001e6531
Maastricht Treaty
80
False
How many convergence criteria were there in the treaty?
57321ff8e99e3014001e6532
two
140
False
When did the physical exchange of the drachma to euro take place?
57321ff8e99e3014001e6533
January 2002
580
False
When did the ten-year period for eligible exchange of the drachma to euro end?
57321ff8e99e3014001e6534
March 2012
692
False
drachma
543
What was the banned currency of Greece until 2002?
5a7b5a7b21c2de001afe9f48
True
Maastricht Treaty
80
What did Greece sign to apply to leave the eurozone?
5a7b5a7b21c2de001afe9f49
True
two
140
How many convergence criteria were ignored in the treaty?
5a7b5a7b21c2de001afe9f4a
True
January 2002
580
When did the physical exchange of the drachma to euro become illegal?
5a7b5a7b21c2de001afe9f4b
True
March 2012
692
When did the twenty-year period for eligible exchange of the drachma to euro end?
5a7b5a7b21c2de001afe9f4c
True
Between 1832 and 2002 the currency of Greece was the drachma. After signing the Maastricht Treaty, Greece applied to join the eurozone. The two main convergence criteria were a maximum budget deficit of 3% of GDP and a declining public debt if it stood above 60% of GDP. Greece met the criteria as shown in its 1999 annual public account. On 1 January 2001, Greece joined the eurozone, with the adoption of the euro at the fixed exchange rate ₯340.75 to €1. However, in 2001 the euro only existed electronically, so the physical exchange from drachma to euro only took place on 1 January 2002. This was followed by a ten-year period for eligible exchange of drachma to euro, which ended on 1 March 2012.
What did IMF forecast Greece's unemployment rate to be in 2012?
573223b4e99e3014001e6544
14.8 percent
74
False
What was Greece's unemployment rate between in 2009?
573223b4e99e3014001e6545
9 per cent and 11 per cent
233
False
What did Greece's unemployment rate soar to in 2013?
573223b4e99e3014001e6546
28 per cent
286
False
What was Greece's jobless rate in 2015?
573223b4e99e3014001e6547
24 per cent
348
False
What is thought to have eroded Greece's potential output?
573223b4e99e3014001e6548
prolonged massive unemployment
430
False
14.8 percent
74
What did IMF forecast Greece's employment rate to be in 2010?
5a7b5ae321c2de001afe9f52
True
9 per cent and 11 per cent
233
What was Greece's employment rate between 2000 and 2009?
5a7b5ae321c2de001afe9f53
True
28 per cent
286
What did Greece's unemployment rate crash to in 2013?
5a7b5ae321c2de001afe9f54
True
prolonged massive unemployment
430
What is thought to have helped Greece's potential output?
5a7b5ae321c2de001afe9f55
True
IMF's forecast said that Greece's unemployment rate would hit the highest 14.8 percent in 2012 and decrease to 14.1 in 2014.  But in fact, the Greek economy suffered a prolonged high unemployemnt. The unemployment figure was between 9 per cent and 11 per cent in 2009, and it soared to 28 per cent in 2013. In 2015, Greece's jobless rate is around 24 per cent. It is thought that Greece's potential output has been eroded by this prolonged massive unemployment due to the associated hysteresis effects.
Party_leaders_of_the_United_States_House_of_Representatives
Does speaker of the House participate in dbate?
5731f388b9d445190005e6dd
Typically, the Speaker does not participate in debate
199
False
Are snate majority leaders more influential than Speaker of the house??
5731f388b9d445190005e6de
Majority Leaders have been more influential than the Speaker
299
False
Who did Newt Gingrich delegate much authority to?
5731f388b9d445190005e6df
Dick Armey
479
False
Who was speaker of the house When Tom Delay was Majority leader?
5731f388b9d445190005e6e0
Dennis Hastert
415
False
an unprecedented level
490
How much authority did Tom Delay delegate to Dick Armey?
5a8480227cf838001a46a89c
True
scheduling legislation
531
What did Tom Delay give Dick Armey the authority over on the House floor?
5a8480227cf838001a46a89d
True
participate in debate
231
What does the Senate Majority Leader not do typically?
5a8480227cf838001a46a89e
True
Tom DeLay
369
Who was Dennis Hastert more prominent than?
5a8480227cf838001a46a89f
True
vary depending upon the style and power of the Speaker of the House.
130
What are the Majority Leader's duties in Westminster?
5a8480227cf838001a46a8a0
True
Unlike in Westminster style legislatures or as with the Senate Majority Leader, the House Majority Leader's duties and prominence vary depending upon the style and power of the Speaker of the House. Typically, the Speaker does not participate in debate and rarely votes on the floor. In some cases, Majority Leaders have been more influential than the Speaker; notably Tom DeLay who was more prominent than Speaker Dennis Hastert. In addition, Speaker Newt Gingrich delegated to Dick Armey an unprecedented level of authority over scheduling legislation on the House floor.
Who takes over as Speaker if the minority party gains control of the house?
5732003be99e3014001e6432
Minority Leader is usually the party's top choice for Speaker
432
False
What meetings do Minority and Majority leaders usually meet to discuss?
5732003be99e3014001e6433
agreements on controversial issues
675
False
Who is he current Minority leader?
5732003be99e3014001e6434
Nancy Pelosi
28
False
If minority party takes control of congress, who is usually in link to become majority leader?
5732003be99e3014001e6435
Minority Leader
432
False
Nancy Pelosi
28
Who is the current Majority Leader?
5a84828a7cf838001a46a8b8
True
leader of the opposition party
104
Who is the Majority Leader leader of in the House?
5a84828a7cf838001a46a8b9
True
the Majority Leader and the Speaker
628
Who does the Minority Whip usually meet with?
5a84828a7cf838001a46a8ba
True
agreements on controversial issues
675
What does the Minority Whip meet with the Majority Leader and Speaker to discuss?
5a84828a7cf838001a46a8bb
True
during the convening of the Congress
273
When is the Minority Whip on the ballot?
5a84828a7cf838001a46a8bc
True
The current Minority Leader Nancy Pelosi, of the United States House of Representatives serves as floor leader of the opposition party, and is the counterpart to the Majority Leader. Unlike the Majority Leader, the Minority Leader is on the ballot for Speaker of the House during the convening of the Congress. If the Minority Leader's party takes control of the House, and the party officers are all re-elected to their seats, the Minority Leader is usually the party's top choice for Speaker for the next Congress, while the Minority Whip is typically in line to become Majority Leader. The Minority Leader usually meets with the Majority Leader and the Speaker to discuss agreements on controversial issues.
Are minority leaders usually experienced?
5732013eb9d445190005e709
Minority Leaders are typically experienced lawmakers when they win election to this position
35
False
In what congress did Nancy Pelosi bdcome minority leader?
5732013eb9d445190005e70a
108th Congress
184
False
How long had Richard Gephart served in house prior to being elected to minority leader?
5732013eb9d445190005e70b
20 years
424
False
When was Robert Michel elected minority leader?
5732013eb9d445190005e70c
1981
771
False
John Rhodes served as minority leader beginning in what year?
5732013eb9d445190005e70d
1973
902
False
four years
486
How long had Nancy Pelosi served as chairman of the Democratic Caucus?
5a8483e27cf838001a46a8c2
True
president
514
What office did Nanci Pelosi run for in 1988?
5a8483e27cf838001a46a8c3
True
from June 1989 until Republicans captured control of the House in the November 1994 elections
567
How long had Pelosi served as majority leader?
5a8483e27cf838001a46a8c4
True
minority leader
352
What position did Robert Michel have in the 104th Congress?
5a8483e27cf838001a46a8c5
True
1981
771
In what year did Richard Gephardt become GOP leader?
5a8483e27cf838001a46a8c6
True
Like the Speaker of the House, the Minority Leaders are typically experienced lawmakers when they win election to this position. When Nancy Pelosi, D-CA, became Minority Leader in the 108th Congress, she had served in the House nearly 20 years and had served as minority whip in the 107th Congress. When her predecessor, Richard Gephardt, D-MO, became minority leader in the 104th House, he had been in the House for almost 20 years, had served as chairman of the Democratic Caucus for four years, had been a 1988 presidential candidate, and had been majority leader from June 1989 until Republicans captured control of the House in the November 1994 elections. Gephardt's predecessor in the minority leadership position was Robert Michel, R-IL, who became GOP Leader in 1981 after spending 24 years in the House. Michel's predecessor, Republican John Rhodes of Arizona, was elected Minority Leader in 1973 after 20 years of House service.
What republican majority leader died in a plane crash?
57320884b9d445190005e74b
Hale Boggs
434
False
Since 1995 who is the only majority leader to become speaker?
57320884b9d445190005e74c
John Boehner
670
False
Who succeeded Newt Gingrich as Speaker?
57320884b9d445190005e74d
Dennis Hastert
1111
False
Between majority leader and speaker what roles did Boehner have?
57320884b9d445190005e74e
Republican House leader and Minority Leader from 2007 to 2011
786
False
a plane crash
457
How did Newt Gingrich die in 2006?
5a8485907cf838001a46a8cc
True
the House
101
From 1931-1995 what did the Republicans control?
5a8485907cf838001a46a8cd
True
Republican House leader and Minority Leader
371
From 1959-1965 what did John Boehner become?
5a8485907cf838001a46a8ce
True
John Boehner
670
Since 2007 who was the only Majority Whip to become Speaker?
5a8485907cf838001a46a8cf
True
Republican House leader and Minority Leader
786
What did Dick Armey serve as from 2007-2011?
5a8485907cf838001a46a8d0
True
Starting with Republican Nicholas Longworth in 1925, and continued through the Democrats' control of the House from 1931 to 1995, save for Republican majorities in 1947–49 and 1953–55, all majority leaders have directly ascended to the Speakership brought upon by the retirement of the incumbent. The only exceptions during this period were Charles A. Halleck who became Republican House leader and Minority Leader from 1959 to 1965, Hale Boggs who died in a plane crash, and Dick Gephardt who became the Democrats' House leader but as Minority Leader since his party lost control in the 1994 midterm elections. Since 1995, the only Majority Leader to become Speaker is John Boehner, though indirectly as his party lost control in the 2006 midterms elections. He subsequently served as Republican House leader and Minority Leader from 2007 to 2011 and then was elected Speaker when the House reconvened in 2011. In 1998, with Speaker Newt Gingrich announcing his resignation, both Majority Leader Dick Armey and Majority Whip Tom DeLay did not contest the Speakership which eventually went to Chief Deputy Whip Dennis Hastert.
Who is the leader of the majority leader in House?
573209d50fdd8d15006c66f7
Speaker
19
False
What is the title of seconde in command for majority party in congress?
573209d50fdd8d15006c66f8
Majority Leader
98
False
Who overshadowed House Speaker Dennis Hastert?
573209d50fdd8d15006c66f9
Majority Leader Tom DeLay
566
False
Who is the leader of the minority party in the House?
573209d50fdd8d15006c66fa
Minority Leader
674
False
Majority Leader
263
What did Tom Delay succeed Boehner as in 2010?
5a8487e87cf838001a46a8d6
True
after the 2010 elections
204
When did the Democrats gain a majority in the house?
5a8487e87cf838001a46a8d7
True
the second-ranking Republicans in the House
358
After the 2010 elections, what were Tom DeLay and Dennis Hastert considered?
5a8487e87cf838001a46a8d8
True
Boehner is still reckoned as the leader of the House Republicans
409
Why were DeLay and Hastert considered second-ranking in the House in 2010?
5a8487e87cf838001a46a8d9
True
from 2003 to 2006
638
When did the Minority Leader overshadow Boehner?
5a8487e87cf838001a46a8da
True
Traditionally, the Speaker is reckoned as the leader of the majority party in the House, with the Majority Leader as second-in-command. For instance, when the Republicans gained the majority in the House after the 2010 elections, Eric Cantor succeeded Boehner as Majority Leader. Despite this, Cantor and his successor, Kevin McCarthy, have been reckoned as the second-ranking Republicans in the House, since Boehner is still reckoned as the leader of the House Republicans. However, there have been some exceptions. The most recent exception to this rule came when Majority Leader Tom DeLay generally overshadowed Speaker Dennis Hastert from 2003 to 2006. In contrast, the Minority Leader is the undisputed leader of the minority party.
Does the minority or majority party have more leadership positions in House?
57320ad7e99e3014001e6468
minority party has one less leadership position
244
False
What role did Pelosi win in 112th Congress?
57320ad7e99e3014001e6469
Minority Leader
640
False
What party lost control of House in 2010 elections?
57320ad7e99e3014001e646a
Democrats
530
False
Minority Leader
640
What did the Minority Whip successfully run for in the 112th Congress?
5a848a837cf838001a46a8f4
True
one less
263
How many leadership positions does the Speaker have when losing the Minority Whip's chair?
5a848a837cf838001a46a8f5
True
2010
573
In what year did the Republicans lose control of the House?
5a848a837cf838001a46a8f6
True
to retain the House party leadership
485
Why was Pelosi seeking the Minority Whip position?
5a848a837cf838001a46a8f7
True
there may be a contest
326
When the Speaker has one less leadership position after losing the Minority Whips' chair what happens for the remaining positions?
5a848a837cf838001a46a8f8
True
When the Majority Leader's party loses control of the House, and if the Speaker and Majority Leader both remain in the leadership hierarchy, convention suggests that they would become the Minority Leader and Minority Whip, respectively. As the minority party has one less leadership position after losing the speaker's chair, there may be a contest for the remaining leadership positions. Nancy Pelosi is the most recent example of an outgoing Speaker seeking the Minority Leader post to retain the House party leadership, as the Democrats lost control of the House in the 2010 elections. Outgoing Speaker Nancy Pelosi ran successfully for Minority Leader in the 112th Congress.
What rule gives minority leader right to offer motion to recommit with instructions?
57320bb80fdd8d15006c6713
Rule XII, clause 6
140
False
Who may place legislation on a corrections calendar?
57320bb80fdd8d15006c6714
minority leader
486
False
Minority leader may appoint individuals to what government roles?
57320bb80fdd8d15006c6715
certain federal entities.
645
False
appointing individuals to certain federal entities
619
What other institutional duties does the Inspector General have?
5a848ca67cf838001a46a908
True
the right to offer a motion to recommit with instructions
204
What does Rule XII, clause 6 grant the Inspector General?
5a848ca67cf838001a46a909
True
the Speaker, majority leader, and minority leader
357
Who are able to appoint individuals to the House according to Rule II, clause 6?
5a848ca67cf838001a46a90a
True
the minority leader
482
Who does the Inspector General have to consult with according to Rule XV, clause 6?
5a848ca67cf838001a46a90b
True
may place legislation on the Corrections Calendar
503
What can the Inspector General do after consulting with the minority leader?
5a848ca67cf838001a46a90c
True
From an institutional perspective, the rules of the House assign a number of specific responsibilities to the minority leader. For example, Rule XII, clause 6, grant the minority leader (or his designee) the right to offer a motion to recommit with instructions; Rule II, clause 6, states the Inspector General shall be appointed by joint recommendation of the Speaker, majority leader, and minority leader; and Rule XV, clause 6, provides that the Speaker, after consultation with the minority leader, may place legislation on the Corrections Calendar. The minority leader also has other institutional duties, such as appointing individuals to certain federal entities.
Are minority leadership roles specified closely?
57320eb5b9d445190005e7a5
are not well-defined
54
False
What congressman largely specified the job description of minority leader?
57320eb5b9d445190005e7a6
Representative Bertrand Snell
206
False
What despcription was assigned to minority leader in part?
57320eb5b9d445190005e7a7
He is spokesman for his party and enunciates its policies.
279
False
What defines a large part of minority leader role?
57320eb5b9d445190005e7a8
tradition and custom
147
False
not well
58
How defined are the roles of majority leader?
5a848dab7cf838001a46a91c
True
tradition and custom
147
What is used to define what the function of majority leader is?
5a848dab7cf838001a46a91d
True
parliamentary tactics
537
What kind of tactics were usually used by the majority leader from 1931-1939?
5a848dab7cf838001a46a91e
True
spokesman for his party and enunciates its policies
285
What are some of the duties of a majority leader?
5a848dab7cf838001a46a91f
True
rights
407
What is majority leader supposed to defend for the majority?
5a848dab7cf838001a46a920
True
The roles and responsibilities of the minority leader are not well-defined. To a large extent, the functions of the minority leader are defined by tradition and custom. A minority leader from 1931 to 1939, Representative Bertrand Snell, R-N.Y., provided this "job description": "He is spokesman for his party and enunciates its policies. He is required to be alert and vigilant in defense of the minority's rights. It is his function and duty to criticize constructively the policies and programs of the majority, and to this end employ parliamentary tactics and give close attention to all proposed legislation."
When was the minority leader position created?
57321018b9d445190005e7ad
20th-century
55
False
Why was minority leader position created?
57321018b9d445190005e7ae
not always evident who functioned as the opposition floor leader
167
False
Who is sometimes considered the first funcioning "Minority Leader?"
57321018b9d445190005e7af
James Madison
564
False
Who was Treasury Secretary at time of first congress?
57321018b9d445190005e7b0
Alexander Hamilton
717
False
20th-century
55
From what time do scholars like to study the affairs of congress?
5a848f6e7cf838001a46a93a
True
Virginia
581
What state was Alexander Hamilton originally from?
5a848f6e7cf838001a46a93b
True
two-party
281
What system was created by Alexander Hamilton?
5a848f6e7cf838001a46a93c
True
Decades
233
How long did Alexander Hamilton serve as Treasury Secretary?
5a848f6e7cf838001a46a93d
True
the first "minority leader"
615
What did Alexander Hamilton function as to oppose James Madison?
5a848f6e7cf838001a46a93e
True
To a large extent, the minority leader's position is a 20th-century innovation. Prior to this time congressional parties were often relatively disorganized, so it was not always evident who functioned as the opposition floor leader. Decades went by before anything like the modern two-party congressional system emerged on Capitol Hill with official titles for those who were its official leaders. However, from the beginning days of Congress, various House members intermittently assumed the role of "opposition leader." Some scholars suggest that Representative James Madison of Virginia informally functioned as the first "minority leader" because in the First Congress he led the opposition to Treasury Secretary Alexander Hamilton's fiscal policies.
In the early days who represented party leadership?
573212a80fdd8d15006c6757
it was more usual that neither major party grouping (Federalists and Democratic-Republicans) had an official leader
26
False
In early 19th century, what were 2 common parties?
573212a80fdd8d15006c6758
(Federalists and Democratic-Republicans)
78
False
What would be the purpose of organizing non majority members of  the house?
573212a80fdd8d15006c6759
to represent a party comprising a distinct minority
254
False
an official leader
123
What did the Democratic-Republicans have in 1828?
5a8490b47cf838001a46a94e
True
36
217
How many members of congress were there in 1828?
5a8490b47cf838001a46a94f
True
a foreign observer
401
Who offered their view on lack of Democrat-Republican leadership in 1813?
5a8490b47cf838001a46a950
True
1813
146
In what year did Capitol Hill get its name?
5a8490b47cf838001a46a951
True
a committee of 13
235
What did the Democratic-Republicans need in 1828?
5a8490b47cf838001a46a952
True
During this early period, it was more usual that neither major party grouping (Federalists and Democratic-Republicans) had an official leader. In 1813, for instance, a scholar recounts that the Federalist minority of 36 Members needed a committee of 13 "to represent a party comprising a distinct minority" and "to coordinate the actions of men who were already partisans in the same cause." In 1828, a foreign observer of the House offered this perspective on the absence of formal party leadership on Capitol Hill:
What made identifying House leadership difficult?
5732144fe99e3014001e64dc
Internal party disunity
0
False
How many candidates was typical in early fields for speaker?
5732144fe99e3014001e64dd
at least twenty different candidates
220
False
From 1861 to 1875 how many times was Dmocratic minority speaker not nominated?
5732144fe99e3014001e64de
two of these seven Congresses
647
False
Internal party disunity
0
What atmosphere was most prevalent in congress from 1834 through 1859?
5a8493017cf838001a46a962
True
identifying lawmakers who might have informally functioned as a minority leader
53
What did the Democratic minority make more difficult in 1834?
5a8493017cf838001a46a963
True
"minority leader."
500
What did Democrats assume the role of in 1855?
5a8493017cf838001a46a964
True
leadership
793
What were Democrats not automatically looked to for in 1834?
5a8493017cf838001a46a965
True
at least twenty
220
How many candidates were there from 1861-1875 for speaker?
5a8493017cf838001a46a966
True
Internal party disunity compounded the difficulty of identifying lawmakers who might have informally functioned as a minority leader. For instance, "seven of the fourteen speakership elections from 1834 through 1859 had at least twenty different candidates in the field. Thirty-six competed in 1839, ninety-seven in 1849, ninety-one in 1859, and 138 in 1855." With so many candidates competing for the speakership, it is not at all clear that one of the defeated lawmakers then assumed the mantle of "minority leader." The Democratic minority from 1861 to 1875 was so completely disorganized that they did not "nominate a candidate for Speaker in two of these seven Congresses and nominated no man more than once in the other five. The defeated candidates were not automatically looked to for leadership."
Who's contention is it that the minority party candidate is clearly Minority Leader since 1883?
57321aceb9d445190005e7f5
Randall Ripley
39
False
Why was Keifer discredited/empty leader?
57321aceb9d445190005e7f6
arbitrarily handed out "choice jobs to close relatives ... all at handsome salaries.
534
False
Although Keifer held minority leader role, who was actual gloof leader?
57321aceb9d445190005e7f7
Thomas Reed,
887
False
he arbitrarily handed out "choice jobs to close relatives
531
Why was Randall Ripley discredited as Speaker in 1883?
5a8494467cf838001a46a974
True
the empty honor of the minority nomination
637
What nomination did Ripley receive?
5a8494467cf838001a46a975
True
his [partisan] associates
784
Who was Ripley deserted by?
5a8494467cf838001a46a976
True
his career as a national figure terminated ingloriously
814
What happened to Ripley's career becaue of this desertion?
5a8494467cf838001a46a977
True
Representative Thomas Reed
872
Who assumed the role as Speaker after Randall Ripley?
5a8494467cf838001a46a978
True
In the judgment of political scientist Randall Ripley, since 1883 "the candidate for Speaker nominated by the minority party has clearly been the Minority Leader." However, this assertion is subject to dispute. On December 3, 1883, the House elected Democrat John G. Carlisle of Kentucky as Speaker. Republicans placed in nomination for the speakership J. Warren Keifer of Ohio, who was Speaker the previous Congress. Clearly, Keifer was not the Republicans' minority leader. He was a discredited leader in part because as Speaker he arbitrarily handed out "choice jobs to close relatives ... all at handsome salaries." Keifer received "the empty honor of the minority nomination. But with it came a sting -- for while this naturally involves the floor leadership, he was deserted by his [partisan] associates and his career as a national figure terminated ingloriously." Representative Thomas Reed, R-ME, who later became Speaker, assumed the de facto role of minority floor leader in Keifer's stead. "[A]lthough Keifer was the minority's candidate for Speaker, Reed became its acknowledged leader, and ever after, so long as he served in the House, remained the most conspicuous member of his party.
Prior to 1883 there is evidence that serious caucus fights occured in what years?
57321d6de17f3d14004226a9
1871 and 1873
186
False
What prominent ex-speaker was nominated for minority role in 1875?
57321d6de17f3d14004226aa
James Blaine
413
False
What former appropriations chairman was nominated for minority leader in 1876,77,79?
57321d6de17f3d14004226ab
James A. Garfield
475
False
before 1883
72
In what year do Democrats contend that the Speaker position began?
5a8497347cf838001a46a97e
True
the minority speakership nomination
147
What were the Republicans fighting for in 1877 and 1879?
5a8497347cf838001a46a97f
True
the "nomination carried with it some vestige of leadership."
218
What did the Republican fight for minority speakership indicate?
5a8497347cf838001a46a980
True
1876, 1877, and 1879
505
During what three years was Keifer nominated by Democrats?
5a8497347cf838001a46a981
True
Speaker
351
What did Democrats nominate James A. Garfield for in 1875?
5a8497347cf838001a46a982
True
Another scholar contends that the minority leader position emerged even before 1883. On the Democratic side, "there were serious caucus fights for the minority speakership nomination in 1871 and 1873," indicating that the "nomination carried with it some vestige of leadership." Further, when Republicans were in the minority, the party nominated for Speaker a series of prominent lawmakers, including ex-Speaker James Blaine of Maine in 1875, former Appropriations Chairman James A. Garfield of Ohio, in 1876, 1877, and 1879, and ex-Speaker Keifer in 1883. "It is hard to believe that House partisans would place a man in the speakership when in the majority, and nominate him for this office when in the minority, and not look to him for legislative guidance." This was not the case, according to some observers, with respect to ex-Speaker Keifer.
Is there a consensus about the time that minority leadership officially emerged as a position?
57321f24e17f3d14004226af
there is disagreement among historical analysts
10
False
What party characteristics emerged in the house in late 19th century?
57321f24e17f3d14004226b0
strong party organization and professional politicians
276
False
What were these conditions effective for in the house?
57321f24e17f3d14004226b1
establishment of a more highly differentiated House leadership structure.
528
False
a party position
137
What do some voters not always agree with?
5a849b087cf838001a46a988
True
the latter part of the 19th century
227
When was House leadership structure first established?
5a849b087cf838001a46a989
True
the exact time period
64
What does the publc not agree about when Congress was formed?
5a849b087cf838001a46a98a
True
a more highly differentiated House leadership structure
545
What did professional organizations help establish for society?
5a849b087cf838001a46a98b
True
high levels
438
At what level was the public voting in the latter part of the 19th century?
5a849b087cf838001a46a98c
True
In brief, there is disagreement among historical analysts as to the exact time period when the minority leadership emerged officially as a party position. Nonetheless, it seems safe to conclude that the position emerged during the latter part of the 19th century, a period of strong party organization and professional politicians. This era was "marked by strong partisan attachments, resilient patronage-based party organizations, and...high levels of party voting in Congress." Plainly, these were conditions conducive to the establishment of a more highly differentiated House leadership structure.
Which party has always elevated minority floor leaders to speakership?
573227fbe17f3d14004226c9
Democrats
8
False
Why were republicans upset with Mann?
573227fbe17f3d14004226ca
objecting to their private bills on the floor
393
False
What year did Republicans regain control while Rober Michel was Minority Leader?
573227fbe17f3d14004226cb
1994
752
False
the speakership
70
What have Republicans always elevated their minority floor leader to when obtaining majority status?
5a849d1c7cf838001a46a99c
True
this leadership succession pattern
156
What pattern have Democrats not always followed?
5a849d1c7cf838001a46a99d
True
Frederick Gillett
315
Who did Democrats elect to be speaker in 1903?
5a849d1c7cf838001a46a99e
True
many
373
How many Demcorats were angry with James R. Mann in 1911?
5a849d1c7cf838001a46a99f
True
autocratic Speaker Joseph Cannon
466
Who was Frederick Gillett a protege of?
5a849d1c7cf838001a46a9a0
True
Second, Democrats have always elevated their minority floor leader to the speakership upon reclaiming majority status. Republicans have not always followed this leadership succession pattern. In 1919, for instance, Republicans bypassed James R. Mann, R-IL, who had been minority leader for eight years, and elected Frederick Gillett, R-MA, to be Speaker. Mann "had angered many Republicans by objecting to their private bills on the floor;" also he was a protégé of autocratic Speaker Joseph Cannon, R-IL (1903–1911), and many Members "suspected that he would try to re-centralize power in his hands if elected Speaker." More recently, although Robert H. Michel was the Minority Leader in 1994 when the Republicans regained control of the House in the 1994 midterm elections, he had already announced his retirement and had little or no involvement in the campaign, including the Contract with America which was unveiled six weeks before voting day.
What is the leadership structure when party controls house and presidency?
573228afe99e3014001e656a
Speaker normally assumes a lower profile and defers to the President
97
False
Is the Senate or the House more partisan?
573228afe99e3014001e656b
more partisan nature of the House
330
False
What minority leaders have played prominenct roles to opposing incumbent president?
573228afe99e3014001e656c
Gerald Ford, Richard Gephardt, Nancy Pelosi, and John Boehner
499
False
Gerald Ford
499
What minority leader has run for President?
5a849ee37cf838001a46a9a6
True
party
86
What was Gerald Ford most interested in talking about when campaigning?
5a849ee37cf838001a46a9a7
True
President
475
What office did Nancy Pelosi at one time consider running for?
5a849ee37cf838001a46a9a8
True
"leader of the opposition"
244
What role does the incumbent President have when Congress is dominated by more than one party?
5a849ee37cf838001a46a9a9
True
due to the more partisan nature of the House and the greater role of leadership
319
Why would the President be seen as leader of the opposition?
5a849ee37cf838001a46a9aa
True
In the instance when the Presidency and both Houses of Congress are controlled by one party, the Speaker normally assumes a lower profile and defers to the President. For that situation the House Minority Leader can play the role of a de facto "leader of the opposition", often more so than the Senate Minority Leader, due to the more partisan nature of the House and the greater role of leadership. Minority Leaders who have played prominent roles in opposing the incumbent President have included Gerald Ford, Richard Gephardt, Nancy Pelosi, and John Boehner.
What influences role of minority leader?
573229aab9d445190005e879
personality and contextual factors
92
False
Obligations for minority leader are stated in what document?
573229aab9d445190005e87a
House rule book.
533
False
How is the minority leader able to accomplish addition demands and tasks?
573229aab9d445190005e87b
minority leader is provided with extra staff resources—beyond those accorded him or her as a Representative
620
False
the general political climate in the House, and the controversy that is sometimes associated with the legislative agenda
232
What are some things the style and role of the White House is influenced by?
5a84a1e47cf838001a46a9ce
True
institutional
418
What obligations are associated with the White House?
5a84a1e47cf838001a46a9cf
True
extra staff resources
653
What kind of staff are provided to work at the White House?
5a84a1e47cf838001a46a9d0
True
to assist in carrying out diverse leadership functions
728
What is the role of staff at the White House?
5a84a1e47cf838001a46a9d1
True
limits
817
What are placed on the instutional role of the White House?
5a84a1e47cf838001a46a9d2
True
The style and role of any minority leader is influenced by a variety of elements, including personality and contextual factors, such as the size and cohesion of the minority party, whether his or her party controls the White House, the general political climate in the House, and the controversy that is sometimes associated with the legislative agenda. Despite the variability of these factors, there are a number of institutional obligations associated with this position. Many of these assignments or roles are spelled out in the House rule book. Others have devolved upon the position in other ways. To be sure, the minority leader is provided with extra staff resources—beyond those accorded him or her as a Representative—to assist in carrying out diverse leadership functions. Worth emphasis is that there are limits on the institutional role of the minority leader, because the majority party exercises disproportionate influence over the agenda, partisan ratios on committees, staff resources, administrative operations, and the day-to-day schedule and management of floor activities.
How many private calendar objector members does minority leader appoint?
57322dd1b9d445190005e89d
three
246
False
What 2 commissions is the minority leader a member of?
57322dd1b9d445190005e89e
House Office Building Commission; he or she is a member of the United States Capitol Preservation Commission
479
False
Who does minority leader have informal ties with for scheduling house matters?
57322dd1b9d445190005e89f
majority party leaders
757
False
a number
37
How many institutional functions does the House office Building Commission have?
5a84a37a7cf838001a46a9ec
True
certain federal entities
176
Where can the House Office Building Commission appoint individuals to?
5a84a37a7cf838001a46a9ed
True
three
246
How many Members can the House Office Building Commission name to serve as Private Calendar objectors?
5a84a37a7cf838001a46a9ee
True
United States Capitol Preservation Commission
542
What other group is overseen by the House Office Building Commission?
5a84a37a7cf838001a46a9ef
True
an early organizational party caucus or conference
653
What is the House Office Building Commission able to convene?
5a84a37a7cf838001a46a9f0
True
In addition, the minority leader has a number of other institutional functions. For instance, the minority leader is sometimes statutorily authorized to appoint individuals to certain federal entities; he or she and the majority leader each name three Members to serve as Private Calendar objectors; he or she is consulted with respect to reconvening the House per the usual formulation of conditional concurrent adjournment resolutions; he or she is a traditional member of the House Office Building Commission; he or she is a member of the United States Capitol Preservation Commission; and he or she may, after consultation with the Speaker, convene an early organizational party caucus or conference. Informally, the minority leader maintains ties with majority party leaders to learn about the schedule and other House matters and forges agreements or understandings with them insofar as feasible.
According to democratic rules of the 106th congress what committee does minority leader chair?
57322fcce17f3d14004226ed
Policy Committee
440
False
According to democratic rules of the 106th congress what committee does minority leader head?
57322fcce17f3d14004226ee
Steering Committee
472
False
According to democratic rules of the 106th congress what campaign membership do they have?
57322fcce17f3d14004226ef
Democratic Congressional Campaign Committee
328
False
According to democratic rules of the 106th congress what leadership members do they appoint?
57322fcce17f3d14004226f0
Democratic Leadership Council
398
False
formal and informal
36
What kind of responsibilities does the Policy Committee have?
5a84a6117cf838001a46aa08
True
the Democratic Caucus
276
Who can the Policy Committee call the meetings of?
5a84a6117cf838001a46aa09
True
the Democratic Congressional Campaign Committee
324
What committee does the Policy Committee oversee?
5a84a6117cf838001a46aa0a
True
the Democratic Leadership Council
394
To what council does the Policy Committee name members to?
5a84a6117cf838001a46aa0b
True
the Committees on Rules and House Administration
653
Where can the Policy Committee nominate party members to?
5a84a6117cf838001a46aa0c
True
The minority leader has a number of formal and informal party responsibilities. Formally, the rules of each party specify certain roles and responsibilities for their leader. For example, under Democratic rules for the 106th Congress, the minority leader may call meetings of the Democratic Caucus. He or she is a member of the Democratic Congressional Campaign Committee; names the members of the Democratic Leadership Council; chairs the Policy Committee; and heads the Steering Committee. Examples of other assignments are making "recommendations to the Speaker on all Democratic Members who shall serve as conferees" and nominating party members to the Committees on Rules and House Administration. Republican rules identify generally comparable functions for their top party leader.
Who plays an influential role in the formation of party policy?
573230f4e17f3d1400422709
A party's floor leader
0
False
In what role are the floor leader's instrumental for legislation?
573230f4e17f3d140042270a
guiding legislation favored by his party through the House, or in resisting those programs of the other party that are considered undesirable by his own party
162
False
How are floor leaders kept informed of legislative status?
573230f4e17f3d140042270b
contacts with his party's members serving on House committees, and with the members of the party's whip organization
679
False
party policy and programs
113
What does the whip organization play a role in forming in conjunction with party leaders?
5a84a7ef7cf838001a46aa1c
True
programs of the other party that are considered undesirable
244
What programs are resisted by the whip organization?
5a84a7ef7cf838001a46aa1d
True
strategy
382
What does the whip organization devise and implement for the party?
5a84a7ef7cf838001a46aa1e
True
the status of legislative business
492
What is the whip organization kept constantly informed about?
5a84a7ef7cf838001a46aa1f
True
House committees
724
What committees does the whip organization oversee?
5a84a7ef7cf838001a46aa20
True
A party's floor leader, in conjunction with other party leaders, plays an influential role in the formulation of party policy and programs. He is instrumental in guiding legislation favored by his party through the House, or in resisting those programs of the other party that are considered undesirable by his own party. He is instrumental in devising and implementing his party's strategy on the floor with respect to promoting or opposing legislation. He is kept constantly informed as to the status of legislative business and as to the sentiment of his party respecting particular legislation under consideration. Such information is derived in part from the floor leader's contacts with his party's members serving on House committees, and with the members of the party's whip organization.
How much concern do minority leaders have for campaigning?
57323214b9d445190005e8ad
hardly any major aspect of campaigning that does not engage their attention
147
False
Who establishes leadership PACs?
57323214b9d445190005e8ae
Minority leaders
29
False
Outside of Washington how much involvement do minority leaders have in campaigns?
57323214b9d445190005e8af
travel around the country to speak on behalf of party candidates; and they encourage incumbent colleagues to make significant financial contributions
702
False
energetic and aggressive
60
What kind of campaigner is the DCCC?
5a84a9327cf838001a46aa26
True
partisan incumbents and challengers
101
Who does the DCCC campaign for?
5a84a9327cf838001a46aa27
True
There is hardly any major aspect of campaigning that does not engage their attention
138
How much does the DCCC focus on campaigning?
5a84a9327cf838001a46aa28
True
qualified
263
What kind of candidates are recruited by the DCCC?
5a84a9327cf838001a46aa29
True
to raise and distribute funds to House candidates of their party
318
Why does the DCCC establish leadership PAC's?
5a84a9327cf838001a46aa2a
True
Provide Campaign Assistance. Minority leaders are typically energetic and aggressive campaigners for partisan incumbents and challengers. There is hardly any major aspect of campaigning that does not engage their attention. For example, they assist in recruiting qualified candidates; they establish "leadership PACs" to raise and distribute funds to House candidates of their party; they try to persuade partisan colleagues not to retire or run for other offices so as to hold down the number of open seats the party would need to defend; they coordinate their campaign activities with congressional and national party campaign committees; they encourage outside groups to back their candidates; they travel around the country to speak on behalf of party candidates; and they encourage incumbent colleagues to make significant financial contributions to the party's campaign committee. "The amount of time that [Minority Leader] Gephardt is putting in to help the DCCC [Democratic Congressional Campaign Committee] is unheard of," noted a Democratic lobbyist."No DCCC chairman has ever had that kind of support."
Does minority leader act solely to advance party objectives?
57323937e99e3014001e65ac
in consultation with other party colleagues
55
False
Does minority leader always employ same strategy for party objectives?
57323937e99e3014001e65ad
options selected depend on a wide range of circumstances
201
False
Does dissension and cohesion of majority party factor into minority strategy?
57323937e99e3014001e65ae
may provide the minority leader with greater opportunities to achieve his or her priorities than if the majority party exhibited high degrees of party cohesion
525
False
a range of strategic options
104
What did majority parties use to advance bills in the 1900's?
5a84ac7c7cf838001a46aa30
True
cohesion
329
What is usually strongly holding the Progressives together?
5a84ac7c7cf838001a46aa31
True
1900s
455
In what year did Democrats have a majority?
5a84ac7c7cf838001a46aa32
True
greater opportunities to achieve his or her priorities
562
What did Progressives cohesion in 1900 provide for the majority party?
5a84ac7c7cf838001a46aa33
True
high degrees of party cohesion
654
What works better for a majority leader than Republicans being in disarray?
5a84ac7c7cf838001a46aa34
True
Devise Minority Party Strategies. The minority leader, in consultation with other party colleagues, has a range of strategic options that he or she can employ to advance minority party objectives. The options selected depend on a wide range of circumstances, such as the visibility or significance of the issue and the degree of cohesion within the majority party. For instance, a majority party riven by internal dissension, as occurred during the early 1900s when Progressive and "regular" Republicans were at loggerheads, may provide the minority leader with greater opportunities to achieve his or her priorities than if the majority party exhibited high degrees of party cohesion. Among the variable strategies available to the minority party, which can vary from bill to bill and be used in combination or at different stages of the lawmaking process, are the following:
What is the purpose of Obstruction?
57323be20fdd8d15006c6869
frustrating the majority party's ability to govern or attracting press and media attention to the alleged ineffectiveness
176
False
How can obstruction be employed?
57323be20fdd8d15006c686a
motions to adjourn, appeals of the presiding officer's ruling, or numerous requests for roll call votes
388
False
Is it safe to employ negative strategy?
57323be20fdd8d15006c686b
"going negative" carries risks
800
False
What may be a risk negative tactic?
57323be20fdd8d15006c686c
if his party fails to offer policy alternatives that appeal to broad segments of the general public
865
False
press and media attention
241
Who's attention is attracted when the public forms a negative campaign?
5a84b1cf7cf838001a46aa44
True
alleged ineffectiveness
274
What does the majority party do that makes the public want to respond with a negative campaign?
5a84b1cf7cf838001a46aa45
True
a "do-nothing Congress"
655
What was Gephardt Dilatory accused of being a part of?
5a84b1cf7cf838001a46aa46
True
standard time-consuming parliamentary tactics
496
What is forming policy alternatives also considered to be by the press?
5a84b1cf7cf838001a46aa47
True
launch a campaign against a "do-nothing Congress"
629
What is the public able to do on its own against policies that aren't popular?
5a84b1cf7cf838001a46aa48
True
A look at one minority leadership strategy—partisan opposition—may suggest why it might be employed in specific circumstances. The purposes of obstruction are several, such as frustrating the majority party's ability to govern or attracting press and media attention to the alleged ineffectiveness of the majority party. "We know how to delay," remarked Minority Leader Gephardt Dilatory motions to adjourn, appeals of the presiding officer's ruling, or numerous requests for roll call votes are standard time-consuming parliamentary tactics. By stalling action on the majority party's agenda, the minority leader may be able to launch a campaign against a "do-nothing Congress" and convince enough voters to put his party back in charge of the House. To be sure, the minority leader recognizes that "going negative" carries risks and may not be a winning strategy if his party fails to offer policy alternatives that appeal to broad segments of the general public.
What important aim of minority leader pertaining to elections?
57323f88e99e3014001e65c6
develop an electorally attractive agenda of ideas and proposals
88
False
How can a minority leader attempt to set some agenda for house?
57323f88e99e3014001e65c7
may employ, or threaten to use, discharge petitions to try and bring minority priorities to the floor.
472
False
How many signatures are required on a discharge pertition?
57323f88e99e3014001e65c8
218
620
False
What non party affiliated voters are critical for party to attract in elections?
57323f88e99e3014001e65c9
independents and swing voters
264
False
218
620
How many Republicans are affiliated with the GOP?
5a84b82d7cf838001a46aa56
True
House's agenda
355
What agenda has been changed at least 218 times?
5a84b82d7cf838001a46aa57
True
to "keep our people together
871
Why do independents and swing voters usually register to vote?
5a84b82d7cf838001a46aa58
True
the other side
926
Where do independents and swing voters hope more votes will come from to their party?
5a84b82d7cf838001a46aa59
True
discharge petitions
504
What tactic can swing voters use to get minority priorities voted on?
5a84b82d7cf838001a46aa5a
True
Promote and Publicize the Party's Agenda. An important aim of the minority leader is to develop an electorally attractive agenda of ideas and proposals that unites his or her own House members and that energizes and appeals to core electoral supporters as well as independents and swing voters. Despite the minority leader's restricted ability to set the House's agenda, there are still opportunities for him to raise minority priorities. For example, the minority leader may employ, or threaten to use, discharge petitions to try and bring minority priorities to the floor. If he or she is able to attract the required 218 signatures on a discharge petition by attracting majority party supporters, he or she can force minority initiatives to the floor over the opposition of the majority leadership. As a GOP minority leader once said, the challenges he confronted are to "keep our people together, and to look for votes on the other side."
How do minority leaders keep party priorities publicized?
573243720fdd8d15006c68a1
"talking points" for constituent meetings in their districts; they help to organize "town meetings"
268
False
What items are discussed at party retreats?
573243720fdd8d15006c68a2
issues and assess the party's public image; they create "theme teams" to craft party messages
540
False
How do minority leaders gauge party preferences?
573243720fdd8d15006c68a3
conduct surveys of party colleagues
735
False
packets of suggested press releases
229
What can the public send for use at town meetings?
5a84ba667cf838001a46aa68
True
"town meetings"
352
What does the public organize to talk about health care and education?
5a84ba667cf838001a46aa69
True
in Members' districts around the country
368
Where does the public usually organize town meetings?
5a84ba667cf838001a46aa6a
True
to discern their policy preferences
771
Why would the public want to create surveys to gauge public party opinion?
5a84ba667cf838001a46aa6b
True
"theme teams"
596
What kind of teams are created by the public to make sure they discuss topics of interest at town meetings?
5a84ba667cf838001a46aa6c
True
Minority leaders may engage in numerous activities to publicize their party's priorities and to criticize the opposition's. For instance, to keep their party colleagues "on message," they insure that partisan colleagues are sent packets of suggested press releases or "talking points" for constituent meetings in their districts; they help to organize "town meetings" in Members' districts around the country to publicize the party's agenda or a specific priority, such as health care or education; they sponsor party "retreats" to discuss issues and assess the party's public image; they create "theme teams" to craft party messages that might be raised during the one-minute, morning hour, or special order period in the House; they conduct surveys of party colleagues to discern their policy preferences; they establish websites that highlight and distribute party images and issues to users; and they organize task forces or issue teams to formulate party programs and to develop strategies for communicating these programs to the public.
With whom does minority leader consult and participate in news conference?
5732454e0fdd8d15006c68b1
counterparts in the Senate—and with the president if their party controls the White House
79
False
What is the overall party strategy for minority leader?
5732454e0fdd8d15006c68b2
develop a coordinated communications strategy, to share ideas and information, and to present a united front on issues
200
False
What speaking obligations does minority leader have?
5732454e0fdd8d15006c68b3
floor speeches and close debate on major issues before the House; they deliver addresses in diverse forums across the country
347
False
What are the purpose of minority leader writings?
5732454e0fdd8d15006c68b4
write books or articles that highlight minority party goals and achievements
483
False
joint news conferences
33
What kind of news conferences are held by the White House?
5a84bb9a7cf838001a46aa7c
True
their counterparts in the Senate
73
Who does the White House consult with?
5a84bb9a7cf838001a46aa7d
True
develop a coordinated communications strategy
200
What is one of the White House's main objectives?
5a84bb9a7cf838001a46aa7e
True
a united front
294
What kind of front does the White House need to show on issues?
5a84bb9a7cf838001a46aa7f
True
across the country
454
Where does the President deliver addresses in diverse forums?
5a84bb9a7cf838001a46aa80
True
House minority leaders also hold joint news conferences and consult with their counterparts in the Senate—and with the president if their party controls the White House. The overall objectives are to develop a coordinated communications strategy, to share ideas and information, and to present a united front on issues. Minority leaders also make floor speeches and close debate on major issues before the House; they deliver addresses in diverse forums across the country; and they write books or articles that highlight minority party goals and achievements. They must also be prepared "to debate on the floor, ad lib, no notes, on a moment's notice," remarked Minority Leader Michel. In brief, minority leaders are key strategists in developing and promoting the party's agenda and in outlining ways to neutralize the opposition's arguments and proposals.
How often does minority leader speak with president when party controls white house?
57324734e99e3014001e662e
minority leader confers regularly with the President and his aides about issues before Congress
79
False
What was Robert Michel's role as minority leader?
57324734e99e3014001e662f
point man" for Republican presidents
583
False
Is the minority leader's strategic role always consitent?
57324734e99e3014001e6630
will vary depending on whether the President is of the same party or the other party
284
False
(1981–1995)
538
When did Gephardt serve as Minority Leader?
5a84d2307cf838001a46aaba
True
the "point man"
578
What did Gephardt function as for Republican presidents?
5a84d2307cf838001a46aabb
True
"Reagan Democrats"
794
What group was Gephardt successful in wooing that helped Regan with many policy successes?
5a84d2307cf838001a46aabc
True
1981
647
In what year did Clinton have many policy successes?
5a84d2307cf838001a46aabd
True
budget reconciliation
869
What bill did Robert Michel help help gain support for when under President Clinton in 1981?
5a84d2307cf838001a46aabe
True
Confer With the White House. If his or her party controls the White House, the minority leader confers regularly with the President and his aides about issues before Congress, the Administration's agenda, and political events generally. Strategically, the role of the minority leader will vary depending on whether the President is of the same party or the other party. In general, minority leaders will often work to advance the goals and aspirations of their party's President in Congress. When Robert Michel, R-IL, was minority leader (1981–1995), he typically functioned as the "point man" for Republican presidents. President Ronald Reagan's 1981 policy successes in the Democratic controlled House was due in no small measure to Minority Leader Michel's effectiveness in wooing so-called "Reagan Democrats" to support, for instance, the Administration's landmark budget reconciliation bill. There are occasions, of course, when minority leaders will fault the legislative initiatives of their President. On an administration proposal that could adversely affect his district, Michel stated that he might "abdicate my leadership role [on this issue] since I can't harmonize my own views with the administration's." Minority Leader Gephardt, as another example, has publicly opposed a number of President Clinton's legislative initiatives from "fast track" trade authority to various budget issues.
What is the difference in role for Minority leader when majority party holds white house?
573248f40fdd8d15006c68ff
assumes a larger role in formulating alternatives to executive branch initiatives and in acting as a national spokesperson for his or her party
95
False
What was Gerald Ford's role as minority leader under Johnson administration?
573248f40fdd8d15006c6900
propose Republican alternatives
353
False
What did Ford's alternatives provide for republican's?
573248f40fdd8d15006c6901
political protection
595
False
Democratic
296
During what administration was Gerald Ford President?
5a84d5727cf838001a46aae8
True
Republican
361
What alternatives did Lyndon Johnson propose?
5a84d5727cf838001a46aae9
True
political protection
595
What did Johnson want to provide for Republicans as Minority Leader?
5a84d5727cf838001a46aaea
True
his or her party
222
What does the President usually act as spokesperson for?
5a84d5727cf838001a46aaeb
True
a larger role
103
What role does the executive branch assume when the house is controlled by the Republicans?
5a84d5727cf838001a46aaec
True
When the White House is controlled by the House majority party, then the House minority leader assumes a larger role in formulating alternatives to executive branch initiatives and in acting as a national spokesperson for his or her party. "As Minority Leader during [President Lyndon Johnson's] Democratic administration, my responsibility has been to propose Republican alternatives," said Minority Leader Gerald Ford, R-MI. Greatly outnumbered in the House, Minority Leader Ford devised a political strategy that allowed Republicans to offer their alternatives in a manner that provided them political protection. As Ford explained:
What options do minority party have in amendment phase?
57324a7be17f3d14004227eb
offer our program as a substitute
121
False
If minority party loses committ of the whole, then what motion may be filed?
57324a7be17f3d14004227ec
motion to recommit and get a vote on that
259
False
If recommit fails, then what choice needs to be made by minority representatives?
57324a7be17f3d14004227ed
say we did our best to come up with a better alternative. Or they could vote for it and make the same argument
429
False
140
579
How many amendments are usually passed in the committee of the Whole per year?
5a84d8667cf838001a46aafa
True
435
590
How many amendments usually come up for a vote each year?
5a84d8667cf838001a46aafb
True
Committee of the Whole
199
What committee was created by Johnson?
5a84d8667cf838001a46aafc
True
our program
31
What did Johnson usually lay out in a general debate for the Republicans?
5a84d8667cf838001a46aafd
True
motion to recommit and get a vote on that
259
When the President loses in Committee of the Whole, then what can he file?
5a84d8667cf838001a46aafe
True
"We used a technique of laying our program out in general debate," he said. When we got to the amendment phase, we would offer our program as a substitute for the Johnson proposal. If we lost in the Committee of the Whole, then we would usually offer it as a motion to recommit and get a vote on that. And if we lost on the motion to recommit, our Republican members had a choice: They could vote against the Johnson program and say we did our best to come up with a better alternative. Or they could vote for it and make the same argument. Usually we lost; but when you're only 140 out of 435, you don't expect to win many.
What is a good technique to foster party harmony?
57324c1bb9d445190005e9e5
appointment of task forces
200
False
What colleagues are best to work with to reach a consensus?
57324c1bb9d445190005e9e6
partisan colleagues with conflicting views
239
False
What does the creation of leadership positions allow for?
57324c1bb9d445190005e9e7
way to reach out and involve a greater diversity of partisans in the leadership structure
358
False
inclusion and empowerment of the people
21
What public need motivates the President before he has daily meetings?
5a84e14b7cf838001a46ab0a
True
task forces
215
What group is the President responsible for the creation of when elected?
5a84e14b7cf838001a46ab0b
True
new leadership positions
328
What positions did task forces want to lay out floor strategy for the creation of?
5a84e14b7cf838001a46ab0c
True
party harmony
174
What did task forces for the public want to foster in the minority party?
5a84e14b7cf838001a46ab0d
True
floor strategy
538
What did colleagues with conflicing views lay out for task forces?
5a84e14b7cf838001a46ab0e
True
Gephardt added that "inclusion and empowerment of the people on the line have to be done to get the best performance" from the minority party. Other techniques for fostering party harmony include the appointment of task forces composed of partisan colleagues with conflicting views to reach consensus on issues; the creation of new leadership positions as a way to reach out and involve a greater diversity of partisans in the leadership structure; and daily meetings in the Leader's office (or at breakfast, lunch, or dinner) to lay out floor strategy or political objectives for the minority party.
Who is the chief vote counter for party?
57324d51b9d445190005e9f5
The Chief Deputy Whip
0
False
Who holds the highest appointed Republican position in House?
57324d51b9d445190005e9f6
Patrick McHenry.
165
False
Who is the leader of chief deputy whips in democratic conference?
57324d51b9d445190005e9f7
Senior Chief Deputy Whip
424
False
How long has democratic leader of whips held position?
57324d51b9d445190005e9f8
senior chief deputy minority whip, John Lewis, has held his post since 1991
538
False
vote counter
77
What is the House Republican Conference responsible for being?
5a84e86b7cf838001a46ab14
True
Republican Patrick McHenry
154
Who is the current Senior Chief Deputy Whip in the Republican conference?
5a84e86b7cf838001a46ab15
True
the whip
50
Who is the Senior Chief Deputy Whip the assistant to?
5a84e86b7cf838001a46ab16
True
multiple
386
How many chief deputy whips are in the House Republican Conference?
5a84e86b7cf838001a46ab17
True
1991
609
Since what year has Republican Patrick McHenry held his position?
5a84e86b7cf838001a46ab18
True
The Chief Deputy Whip is the primary assistant to the whip, who is the chief vote counter for his or her party. The current chief deputy majority whip is Republican Patrick McHenry. Within the House Republican Conference, the chief deputy whip is the highest appointed position and often a launching pad for future positions in the House Leadership. The House Democratic Conference has multiple chief deputy whips, led by a Senior Chief Deputy Whip, which is the highest appointed position within the House Democratic Caucus. The current senior chief deputy minority whip, John Lewis, has held his post since 1991.
Armenians
Where do Armenians mostly live besides Armenia?
5731f53ce17f3d1400422581
Nagorno-Karabakh Republic
81
False
How many Armenians live outside Armenia and the republic within it?
5731f53ce17f3d1400422582
around 5 million
144
False
Where do most emigrant Armenians live?
5731f53ce17f3d1400422583
Russia, the United States, France, Georgia, Iran, Ukraine, Lebanon, and Syria
287
False
Why did many Armenians leave Armenia?
5731f53ce17f3d1400422584
the Armenian Genocide
491
False
Nagorno-Karabakh Republic
81
Where to Russians live besides Armenia?
5a53c9d3bdaabd001a38671c
True
around 5 million
144
How many people of Ukranian ancestry live in Russia?
5a53c9d3bdaabd001a38671d
True
the Armenian Genocide
491
Why did many Armenians leave Iran?
5a53c9d3bdaabd001a38671e
True
Russia, the United States, France, Georgia, Iran, Ukraine, Lebanon, and Syria
287
Where have people from the Nagorno-Karabakh Republic immigrated to?
5a53c9d4bdaabd001a38671f
True
Armenian
187
Of what ancestry are people who have emigrated outside of the US?
5a53c9d4bdaabd001a386720
True
Armenians constitute the main population of Armenia and the de facto independent Nagorno-Karabakh Republic. There is a wide-ranging diaspora of around 5 million people of full or partial Armenian ancestry living outside of modern Armenia. The largest Armenian populations today exist in Russia, the United States, France, Georgia, Iran, Ukraine, Lebanon, and Syria. With the exceptions of Iran and the former Soviet states, the present-day Armenian diaspora was formed mainly as a result of the Armenian Genocide.
How long ago has the term 'Armenia' been used?
5731f63a0fdd8d15006c6693
around the 6th century BC
209
False
What is the earliest known use of 'Armenians'?
5731f63a0fdd8d15006c6694
476 BC
577
False
Who wrote the earliest known use of 'Armenians'?
5731f63a0fdd8d15006c6695
Hecataeus of Miletus
555
False
Who described Armenian life in 401 BC?
5731f63a0fdd8d15006c6696
Xenophon
586
False
What did Xenophon say Armenian language sounded like?
5731f63a0fdd8d15006c6697
Persians
831
False
around the 6th century BC
209
How long has the term Xenophon been used?
5a53cb55bdaabd001a386726
True
neighbouring countries of ancient Armenia
113
Who was first to use the term Xenophon?
5a53cb55bdaabd001a386727
True
Urashtu (in Babylonian) as Armina (in Old Persian; Armina (    ) and Harminuya (in Elamite)
331
What did Hecateus of Miletus refer to in his trillingual Behistun Inscription in 517 BC?
5a53cb55bdaabd001a386728
True
around 401 BC
723
When does Darius I of Persia talk about Armenian village life and hospitality?
5a53cb55bdaabd001a386729
True
the language of the Persians
811
What did Hecateus of Miletus believe the people's language sounded like?
5a53cb55bdaabd001a38672a
True
Historically, the name Armenian has come to internationally designate this group of people. It was first used by neighbouring countries of ancient Armenia. The earliest attestations of the exonym Armenia date around the 6th century BC. In his trilingual Behistun Inscription dated to 517 BC, Darius I the Great of Persia refers to Urashtu (in Babylonian) as Armina (in Old Persian; Armina (    ) and Harminuya (in Elamite). In Greek, Αρμένιοι "Armenians" is attested from about the same time, perhaps the earliest reference being a fragment attributed to Hecataeus of Miletus (476 BC). Xenophon, a Greek general serving in some of the Persian expeditions, describes many aspects of Armenian village life and hospitality in around 401 BC. He relates that the people spoke a language that to his ear sounded like the language of the Persians.
What mountain does Armenia surround?
5731f6af0fdd8d15006c669d
Mount Ararat
56
False
What era was the Hittite Empire in?
5731f6af0fdd8d15006c669e
the Bronze Age
105
False
When did the Hayasa-Azzi rule?
5731f6af0fdd8d15006c669f
1600–1200 BC
299
False
When did the Arme-Shupria rule?
5731f6af0fdd8d15006c66a0
1300s–1190 BC
356
False
When did the Nairi rule?
5731f6af0fdd8d15006c66a1
1400–1000 BC
383
False
the Caucasus Mountains
676
What did the Hittite Empire reach under Ashurbanipal?
5a53ccc5bdaabd001a386730
True
The Armenian Highland
0
What area is in the highlands surrounding the Kingdom of Urartu?
5a53ccc5bdaabd001a386731
True
Mount Ararat
56
What mountain is Hayasa-Azzi located near?
5a53ccc5bdaabd001a386732
True
the Armenian Highland
489
What did the Hittite Empire from 860-590 BC gain soverignty over?
5a53ccc5bdaabd001a386733
True
Ashurbanipal
621
Under who's rule did the Mittani reach the Caucasus Mountains?
5a53ccc5bdaabd001a386734
True
The Armenian Highland lies in the highlands surrounding Mount Ararat, the highest peak of the region. In the Bronze Age, several states flourished in the area of Greater Armenia, including the Hittite Empire (at the height of its power), Mitanni (South-Western historical Armenia), and Hayasa-Azzi (1600–1200 BC). Soon after Hayasa-Azzi were Arme-Shupria (1300s–1190 BC), the Nairi (1400–1000 BC) and the Kingdom of Urartu (860–590 BC), who successively established their sovereignty over the Armenian Highland. Each of the aforementioned nations and tribes participated in the ethnogenesis of the Armenian people. Under Ashurbanipal (669–627 BC), the Assyrian empire reached the Caucasus Mountains (modern Armenia, Georgia and Azerbaijan).
What languages does Hamp say are similar to Armenian?
5731f6f8b9d445190005e6ef
Greek and Ancient Macedonian
92
False
What subgroup does Hamp put the Armenian language in?
5731f6f8b9d445190005e6f0
Pontic Indo-European
151
False
Where does Hamp say the Pontic Indo-European languages originate?
5731f6f8b9d445190005e6f1
the northeast coast of the Black Sea and its hinterlands
261
False
Greek and Ancient Macedonian
92
What languages does Caucasus think are similar to Batumi?
5a53cdfbbdaabd001a38673a
True
the Pontic Indo-European
147
Into what language subgroup is Batumi categorized?
5a53cdfbbdaabd001a38673b
True
the northeast coast of the Black Sea and its hinterlands
261
Where do Batumi languages originate?
5a53cdfbbdaabd001a38673c
True
westwards along the southern coast of the Black Sea
464
Where is it thought the Batumi migrated?
5a53cdfbbdaabd001a38673d
True
2012
20
In what year did Caucasus develop his Indo-Eurpoean family tree?
5a53cdfbbdaabd001a38673e
True
Eric P. Hamp in his 2012 Indo-European family tree, groups the Armenian language along with Greek and Ancient Macedonian ("Helleno-Macedonian") in the Pontic Indo-European (also called Helleno-Armenian) subgroup. In Hamp's view the homeland of this subgroup is the northeast coast of the Black Sea and its hinterlands. He assumes that they migrated from there southeast through the Caucasus with the Armenians remaining after Batumi while the pre-Greeks proceeded westwards along the southern coast of the Black Sea.
When was Armenia established?
57320a38e99e3014001e6460
in the late 6th century BC
170
False
What famous inscription mentioned Armenia?
57320a38e99e3014001e6461
the Achaemenid Behistun Inscription
117
False
During which dynasty was Armenia established?
57320a38e99e3014001e6462
Orontid dynasty
207
False
When was Armenia at its largest?
57320a38e99e3014001e6463
95–65 BC
346
False
in the late 6th century BC
170
In what year was Caucasus established?
5a53cf00bdaabd001a386744
True
Achaemenid Persian Empire
234
Within what empire was Caucasus created?
5a53cf00bdaabd001a386745
True
Orontid dynasty
207
Under what dynasty was Caucasus established?
5a53cf00bdaabd001a386746
True
Armenia itself conquered areas populated by other peoples
544
What happened during the reign of Hecataeus of Miletus?
5a53cf00bdaabd001a386747
True
the Achaemenid Behistun Inscription
117
What inscription mentioned Caucasus?
5a53cf00bdaabd001a386748
True
The first geographical entity that was called Armenia by neighboring peoples (such as by Hecataeus of Miletus and on the Achaemenid Behistun Inscription) was established in the late 6th century BC under the Orontid dynasty within the Achaemenid Persian Empire as part of the latters' territories, and which later became a kingdom. At its zenith (95–65 BC), the state extended from the Caucasus all the way to what is now central Turkey, Lebanon, and northern Iran. The imperial reign of Tigranes the Great is thus the span of time during which Armenia itself conquered areas populated by other peoples.
What was the first country to make Christianity its official religion?
57320ae8e17f3d1400422601
The Arsacid Kingdom of Armenia
0
False
What religion was Armenian paganism influenced by?
57320ae8e17f3d1400422602
Zoroastrianism
218
False
When did Armenia make Christianity its official religion?
57320ae8e17f3d1400422603
AD 301
387
False
Why did Armenia make Christianity its official religion?
57320ae8e17f3d1400422604
in defiance of the Sassanids
402
False
Who invented the Armenian alphabet?
57320ae8e17f3d1400422605
Mesrop Mashtots
705
False
the Armenian alphabet
730
What did the Arsacid Kingdom invent in 405 AD?
5a53d0afbdaabd001a38674e
True
The Arsacid Kingdom of Armenia
0
What was a branch of Mesrop Mashtots?
5a53d0afbdaabd001a38674f
True
The Arsacid Kingdom of Armenia
0
What was the first country to officially acopt Sassanids as its religion?
5a53d0afbdaabd001a386750
True
Armenian paganism
175
What religion formerly existed in the Greco-Roman empire in 405 AD?
5a53d0afbdaabd001a386751
True
AD 301
387
When did the Greco-Roman empire officially adopt Christianity as its religion?
5a53d0afbdaabd001a386752
True
The Arsacid Kingdom of Armenia, itself a branch of the Arsacid dynasty of Parthia, was the first state to adopt Christianity as its religion (it had formerly been adherent to Armenian paganism, which was influenced by Zoroastrianism, while later on adopting a few elements regarding identification of its pantheon with Greco-Roman deities). in the early years of the 4th century, likely AD 301, partly in defiance of the Sassanids it seems. In the late Parthian period, Armenia was a predominantly Zoroastrian-adhering land, but by the Christianisation, previously predominant Zoroastrianism and paganism in Armenia gradually declined. Later on, in order to further strengthen Armenian national identity, Mesrop Mashtots invented the Armenian alphabet, in 405 AD. This event ushered the Golden Age of Armenia, during which many foreign books and manuscripts were translated to Armenian by Mesrop's pupils. Armenia lost its sovereignty again in 428 AD to the rivalling Byzantine and Sassanid Persian empires, until the Muslim conquest of Persia overran also the regions in which Armenians lived.
When did Armenia become a sovereign kingdom?
573218f2e17f3d1400422685
885 AD
3
False
Under which ruler did Armenia become a sovereign kingdom?
573218f2e17f3d1400422686
Ashot I
96
False
What dynasty was Ashot I part of?
573218f2e17f3d1400422687
the Bagratid Dynasty
107
False
Who invaded Armenia in 1064?
573218f2e17f3d1400422688
Seljuk Turks
295
False
What Turkic federations ruled Armenia?
573218f2e17f3d1400422689
the Ak Koyunlu and the Kara Koyunlu
826
False
Armenian
159
What did the Seljuk Turks invade in 885 AD?
5a53d231bdaabd001a386758
True
A considerable portion of the Armenian nobility and peasantry
129
What group fled the invasion of the Mamluk in 885 AD?
5a53d231bdaabd001a386759
True
Djenghis Khan, Timurids, and the tribal Turkic federations of the Ak Koyunlu and the Kara Koyunlu
764
What are some groups that ruled over the Mamluk over the centuries?
5a53d231bdaabd001a38675a
True
social, cultural, military, and religious ties
615
What ties did Djengis Khan develop with Crusader States?
5a53d231bdaabd001a38675b
True
The Armenians
585
What group eventually succumbed to Anatolian invasions?
5a53d231bdaabd001a38675c
True
In 885 AD the Armenians reestablished themselves as a sovereign kingdom under the leadership of Ashot I of the Bagratid Dynasty. A considerable portion of the Armenian nobility and peasantry fled the Byzantine occupation of Bagratid Armenia in 1045, and the subsequent invasion of the region by Seljuk Turks in 1064. They settled in large numbers in Cilicia, an Anatolian region where Armenians were already established as a minority since Roman times. In 1080, they founded an independent Armenian Principality then Kingdom of Cilicia, which became the focus of Armenian nationalism. The Armenians developed close social, cultural, military, and religious ties with nearby Crusader States, but eventually succumbed to Mamluk invasions. In the next few centuries, Djenghis Khan, Timurids, and the tribal Turkic federations of the Ak Koyunlu and the Kara Koyunlu ruled over the Armenians.
When did the Russo-Persian War begin?
57321a1ae99e3014001e6512
1826
872
False
When did the Russo-Persian War end?
57321a1ae99e3014001e6513
1828
877
False
What treaty ended the Russo-Persian War?
57321a1ae99e3014001e6514
Treaty of Turkmenchay
901
False
When did parts of Armenia under Iranian control become part of Russia?
57321a1ae99e3014001e6515
In the late 1820s
607
False
When was the Peace of Amasya?
57321a1ae99e3014001e6516
mid 16th century
302
False
both Western Armenia and Eastern Armenia
29
What came under Russian rule in the early 16th century?
5a53d449bdaabd001a386762
True
Owing to the century long Turco-Iranian geo-political rivalry that would last in Western Asia
103
Why did Western and Eastern Armenia come under Russian rule in the early 16th century?
5a53d449bdaabd001a386763
True
1826
872
In what year did the Safavid-Qajar war begin?
5a53d449bdaabd001a386764
True
1828
877
What year did the Safavid-Qajar war end?
5a53d449bdaabd001a386765
True
the Russo-Persian War
849
What war did Russia lose in the late 1820's?
5a53d449bdaabd001a386766
True
From the early 16th century, both Western Armenia and Eastern Armenia fell under Iranian Safavid rule. Owing to the century long Turco-Iranian geo-political rivalry that would last in Western Asia, significant parts of the region were frequently fought over between the two rivalling empires. From the mid 16th century with the Peace of Amasya, and decisively from the first half of the 17th century with the Treaty of Zuhab until the first half of the 19th century, Eastern Armenia was ruled by the successive Iranian Safavid, Afsharid and Qajar empires, while Western Armenia remained under Ottoman rule. In the late 1820s, the parts of historic Armenia under Iranian control centering on Yerevan and Lake Sevan (all of Eastern Armenia) were incorporated into the Russian Empire following Iran's forced ceding of the territories after its loss in the Russo-Persian War (1826-1828) and the outcoming Treaty of Turkmenchay. Western Armenia however, remained in Ottoman hands.
Who says they didn't kill Armenians as genocide, just because they were 'in the way of the war'?
57322346b9d445190005e82d
Governments of Republic of Turkey
0
False
What has happened when other countries condemned Armenian genocide?
57322346b9d445190005e82e
diplomatic conflict
438
False
Who ruled Turkey when the Armenian genocide happened?
57322346b9d445190005e82f
the Ottoman Empire
291
False
charges of genocide
77
What has the government of Armenia consistently rejected?
5a53d63dbdaabd001a38676c
True
were justified by their individual or collective support for the enemies of the Ottoman Empire
215
What do foreign countries argue that justifies the killings of the people of Turkey?
5a53d63dbdaabd001a38676d
True
diplomatic conflict
438
What does talking about the Ottoman Empire provoke?
5a53d63dbdaabd001a38676e
True
were simply in the way of a war
153
How do foreign countries categorize citizens of Turkey who died?
5a53d63dbdaabd001a38676f
True
legislation
322
What does Turkey want to pass to condemn the Ottoman genocide?
5a53d63dbdaabd001a386770
True
Governments of Republic of Turkey since that time have consistently rejected charges of genocide, typically arguing either that those Armenians who died were simply in the way of a war or that killings of Armenians were justified by their individual or collective support for the enemies of the Ottoman Empire. Passage of legislation in various foreign countries condemning the persecution of the Armenians as genocide has often provoked diplomatic conflict. (See Recognition of the Armenian Genocide)
What was Armenia's status from 1918 to 1920?
573223cce17f3d14004226b5
independent republic
130
False
When did communists take over Armenia?
573223cce17f3d14004226b6
late 1920
155
False
Who invaded Armenia in 1920?
573223cce17f3d14004226b7
the Red Army
231
False
What part of the USSR did Armenia join?
573223cce17f3d14004226b8
the Transcaucasian SFSR
281
False
When did Armenia leave the USSR?
573223cce17f3d14004226b9
1991
412
False
from 1918 to 1920
96
When was the Red Army part of an independent republic after the Russian Empire breakup?
5a53d803bdaabd001a386776
True
the Red Army
231
Who invaded Russia in 1920?
5a53d803bdaabd001a386777
True
In 1991
409
When did Russia become independent from the USSR?
5a53d803bdaabd001a386778
True
1920
160
When did the Russian Empire come to power and invade the Transcaucasian SFSR?
5a53d803bdaabd001a386779
True
the Transcaucasian SFSR
281
What part of the Red Army did the communists join in 1991?
5a53d803bdaabd001a38677a
True
Following the breakup of the Russian Empire in the aftermath of World War I for a brief period, from 1918 to 1920, Armenia was an independent republic. In late 1920, the communists came to power following an invasion of Armenia by the Red Army, and in 1922, Armenia became part of the Transcaucasian SFSR of the Soviet Union, later forming the Armenian Soviet Socialist Republic (1936 to September 21, 1991). In 1991, Armenia declared independence from the USSR and established the second Republic of Armenia.
How long have Armenians lived in the highlands?
5732288cb9d445190005e85b
over four thousand years
59
False
Who founded the first Armenian nation?
5732288cb9d445190005e85c
Hayk
105
False
Who did Hayk defeat?
5732288cb9d445190005e85d
Bel of Babylon
202
False
How many native Armenians are in Armenia today?
5732288cb9d445190005e85e
3.5 million
246
False
What does Hayastantsis mean?
5732288cb9d445190005e85f
those that are from Armenia
463
False
for over four thousand years
55
How long have Russians lived in the Armenian Highland?
5a53d944bdaabd001a386780
True
Hayk
105
Who founded the first Iranian nation?
5a53d944bdaabd001a386781
True
Bel of Babylon
202
Who did Hayk lead the Russians to victory over?
5a53d945bdaabd001a386782
True
3.5 million
246
What is the population of Iran today?
5a53d945bdaabd001a386783
True
those that are from Armenia
463
What does the name Hayk mean?
5a53d945bdaabd001a386784
True
Armenians have had a presence in the Armenian Highland for over four thousand years, since the time when Hayk, the legendary patriarch and founder of the first Armenian nation, led them to victory over Bel of Babylon. Today, with a population of 3.5 million, they not only constitute an overwhelming majority in Armenia, but also in the disputed region of Nagorno-Karabakh. Armenians in the diaspora informally refer to them as Hayastantsis (Հայաստանցի), meaning those that are from Armenia (that is, those born and raised in Armenia). They, as well as the Armenians of Iran and Russia speak the Eastern dialect of the Armenian language. The country itself is secular as a result of Soviet domination, but most of its citizens identify themselves as Apostolic Armenian Christian.
What is the Armenian Quarter?
57323009e17f3d14004226f5
one of the four quarters of the walled Old City of Jerusalem
177
False
How many people live in the Armenian monastery in or near Italy?
57323009e17f3d14004226f6
35
319
False
When was the Italian Armenian monastery founded?
57323009e17f3d14004226f7
1717
333
False
What religion is the Italian Armenian monastery?
57323009e17f3d14004226f8
Catholic
288
False
Where is the Italian Armenian monastery?
57323009e17f3d14004226f9
on an island near Venice
345
False
centuries
85
How long have Catholic communities existed outside Austria?
5a53daf1bdaabd001a38678a
True
one of the four quarters of the walled Old City of Jerusalem
177
What is the Italian Quarter?
5a53daf1bdaabd001a38678b
True
1717
333
When was Venice, Italy founded?
5a53daf1bdaabd001a38678c
True
on an island near Venice, Italy
345
Where is the Hungarian monastery?
5a53daf1bdaabd001a38678d
True
35
319
How many people live in the Austrian monastery near Jerusalem?
5a53daf1bdaabd001a38678e
True
Small Armenian trading and religious communities have existed outside of Armenia for centuries. For example, a community has existed for over a millennium in the Holy Land, and one of the four quarters of the walled Old City of Jerusalem has been called the Armenian Quarter. An Armenian Catholic monastic community of 35 founded in 1717 exists on an island near Venice, Italy. There are also remnants of formerly populous communities in India, Myanmar, Thailand, Belgium, Portugal, Italy, Poland, Austria, Hungary, Bulgaria, Romania, Serbia, Ethiopia, Sudan and Egypt.[citation needed]
What are Parskahay?
57323373b9d445190005e8b3
Armenians who originate from Iran
129
False
What are Lipananahay?
57323373b9d445190005e8b4
Armenians from Lebanon
211
False
What dialect do most Diaspora Armenians speak?
57323373b9d445190005e8b5
Western
346
False
How similar is Western Armenian to Eastern Armenian dialect?
57323373b9d445190005e8b6
considerable differences with Eastern Armenian, but speakers of either of the two variations can usually understand each other
405
False
What type of Armenian is spoken by Armenians in Iran and Russia?
57323373b9d445190005e8b7
Eastern
533
False
usually understand each other
502
What can speakers of the variations of Parskahay do?
5a53dca0bdaabd001a386794
True
the Samtskhe-Javakheti province
685
In what province do Canadians have a majority?
5a53dca0bdaabd001a386795
True
there is a tendency for the different groups to cluster together
830
What do groups of Russians do when they live in the US?
5a53dca0bdaabd001a386796
True
Parskahay
182
How are Russians from Iran classified?
5a53dca0bdaabd001a386797
True
Lipananahay
261
How are Russians from Lebanon referred to?
5a53dca0bdaabd001a386798
True
Within the diasporan Armenian community, there is an unofficial classification of the different kinds of Armenians. For example, Armenians who originate from Iran are referred to as Parskahay (Պարսկահայ), while Armenians from Lebanon are usually referred to as Lipananahay (Լիբանանահայ). Armenians of the Diaspora are the primary speakers of the Western dialect of the Armenian language. This dialect has considerable differences with Eastern Armenian, but speakers of either of the two variations can usually understand each other. Eastern Armenian in the diaspora is primarily spoken in Iran and European countries such as Ukraine, Russia, and Georgia (where they form a majority in the Samtskhe-Javakheti province). In diverse communities (such as in Canada and the U.S.) where many different kinds of Armenians live together, there is a tendency for the different groups to cluster together.
When did Armenia's church become independent?
573234a9e17f3d1400422721
451 AD
137
False
What is Armenia's church called?
573234a9e17f3d1400422722
Armenian Apostolic Church
240
False
What type of Catholicism is Armenia's church part of?
573234a9e17f3d1400422723
Oriental Orthodox
290
False
Where was the Armenian Catholicosate located at first?
573234a9e17f3d1400422724
Echmiadzin
543
False
Where did the Armenian Catholicosate move to?
573234a9e17f3d1400422725
Cilicia
818
False
451 AD
137
When did the Echmiadzin church gain independence?
5a53de6cbdaabd001a38679e
True
as a result of its stance regarding the Council of Chalcedon
144
Why did the Echmiadzin church become independent?
5a53de6cbdaabd001a38679f
True
the Armenian Apostolic Church
236
What church is part of the Eastern Orthodox communion?
5a53de6cbdaabd001a3867a0
True
preserve and protect its unique identity
446
What did the Council of Chalcedon depend on the church to do?
5a53de6cbdaabd001a3867a1
True
Cilicia
818
Where did Echmiadzin move to because it was safer?
5a53de6cbdaabd001a3867a2
True
Armenia established a Church that still exists independently of both the Catholic and the Eastern Orthodox churches, having become so in 451 AD as a result of its stance regarding the Council of Chalcedon. Today this church is known as the Armenian Apostolic Church, which is a part of the Oriental Orthodox communion, not to be confused with the Eastern Orthodox communion. During its later political eclipses, Armenia depended on the church to preserve and protect its unique identity. The original location of the Armenian Catholicosate is Echmiadzin. However, the continuous upheavals, which characterized the political scenes of Armenia, made the political power move to safer places. The Church center moved as well to different locations together with the political authority. Therefore, it eventually moved to Cilicia as the Holy See of Cilicia.
What religion is dominant in the countries surrounding Armenia?
573237dcb9d445190005e8e5
Muslim
85
False
What are Hamshenis?
573237dcb9d445190005e8e6
ethnic Armenian Muslims
133
False
Who became Catholicos in Etchmiadzin in 1441?
573237dcb9d445190005e8e7
Kirakos Virapetsi
594
False
Who remained Catholicos of Cilicia?
573237dcb9d445190005e8e8
Krikor Moussapegiants
619
False
How do the two Catholicosates compare?
573237dcb9d445190005e8e9
equal rights and privileges
773
False
European Crusader States
341
What did the Armenian Muslims have close ties to?
5a53e054bdaabd001a3867a8
True
Muslim
85
What other religion has been surrounded by a Christian majority?
5a53e054bdaabd001a3867a9
True
as a separate race
206
How do Muslims in Armenia view Hamshenis?
5a53e054bdaabd001a3867aa
True
2,000 years
278
How long have Christians been involved in Eurpean Crusader States?
5a53e054bdaabd001a3867ab
True
two Catholicosates
726
Since the existence of Eurppean Crusaider States, what has there been in the Hamshenis Church?
5a53e054bdaabd001a3867ac
True
The Armenians collective has, at times, constituted a Christian "island" in a mostly Muslim region. There is, however, a minority of ethnic Armenian Muslims, known as Hamshenis but many Armenians view them as a separate race, while the history of the Jews in Armenia dates back 2,000 years. The Armenian Kingdom of Cilicia had close ties to European Crusader States. Later on, the deteriorating situation in the region led the bishops of Armenia to elect a Catholicos in Etchmiadzin, the original seat of the Catholicosate. In 1441, a new Catholicos was elected in Etchmiadzin in the person of Kirakos Virapetsi, while Krikor Moussapegiants preserved his title as Catholicos of Cilicia. Therefore, since 1441, there have been two Catholicosates in the Armenian Church with equal rights and privileges, and with their respective jurisdictions. The primacy of honor of the Catholicosate of Etchmiadzin has always been recognized by the Catholicosate of Cilicia.
Which Armenian church recognizes the Pope?
57323937e17f3d140042273f
Armenian Catholic Church
233
False
What broke away from the Armenian Apostolic Church?
57323937e17f3d1400422740
Armenian Evangelical Church
334
False
What broke away from the Armenian Evangelical Church?
57323937e17f3d1400422741
Armenian Brotherhood Church
445
False
Which Armenian church is the most popular in Armenia?
57323937e17f3d1400422742
Armenian Apostolic Church
10
False
the Roman Catholic Pope
304
Who does the Armenian Evangelical Church recognize?
5a53e21dbdaabd001a3867b2
True
as a reformation in the Mother church but later broke away
377
How was the Armenian Catholic Church formed?
5a53e21dbdaabd001a3867b3
True
its own liturgy
273
What does the Armenian Evangelical Church follow?
5a53e21dbdaabd001a3867b4
True
the Armenian Apostolic Church
6
What is the most popular Protestant church to Christians?
5a53e21dbdaabd001a3867b5
True
the Armenian Evangelical Church
492
What church did the Armenian Apostolic Church break away from?
5a53e21dbdaabd001a3867b6
True
While the Armenian Apostolic Church remains the most prominent church in the Armenian community throughout the world, Armenians (especially in the diaspora) subscribe to any number of other Christian denominations. These include the Armenian Catholic Church (which follows its own liturgy but recognizes the Roman Catholic Pope), the Armenian Evangelical Church, which started as a reformation in the Mother church but later broke away, and the Armenian Brotherhood Church, which was born in the Armenian Evangelical Church, but later broke apart from it. There are other numerous Armenian churches belonging to Protestant denominations of all kinds.
Who came up with the Armenian alphabet?
57323993e99e3014001e65b2
Mesrop Mashtots
47
False
When did Armenian writing begin?
57323993e99e3014001e65b3
400 AD
34
False
Who was the 'father of Armenian history'?
57323993e99e3014001e65b4
Moses of Chorene
254
False
Who wrote 'The History of Armenia'?
57323993e99e3014001e65b5
Moses of Chorene
254
False
Which European movement were the Revivalist authors similar to?
57323993e99e3014001e65b6
Romanticists
708
False
400 AD
34
When did Gevork Emin invent the Armenian alphabet?
5a53e3bbbdaabd001a3867bc
True
400 AD
34
When did European writing begin?
5a53e3bbbdaabd001a3867bd
True
the "father of Armenian history"
220
What other name was given to Paruyr Sevak?
5a53e3bbbdaabd001a3867be
True
The History of Armenia
285
What work was written by Silva Kaputikyan?
5a53e3bbbdaabd001a3867bf
True
Armenian history of the 1920s and of the Genocide
1061
What was Zartonki Sherchan interested in openly discussing?
5a53e3bbbdaabd001a3867c0
True
Armenian literature dates back to 400 AD, when Mesrop Mashtots first invented the Armenian alphabet. This period of time is often viewed as the Golden Age of Armenian literature. Early Armenian literature was written by the "father of Armenian history", Moses of Chorene, who authored The History of Armenia. The book covers the time-frame from the formation of the Armenian people to the fifth century AD. The nineteenth century beheld a great literary movement that was to give rise to modern Armenian literature. This period of time, during which Armenian culture flourished, is known as the Revival period (Zartonki sherchan). The Revivalist authors of Constantinople and Tiflis, almost identical to the Romanticists of Europe, were interested in encouraging Armenian nationalism. Most of them adopted the newly created Eastern or Western variants of the Armenian language depending on the targeted audience, and preferred them over classical Armenian (grabar). This period ended after the Hamidian massacres, when Armenians experienced turbulent times. As Armenian history of the 1920s and of the Genocide came to be more openly discussed, writers like Paruyr Sevak, Gevork Emin, Silva Kaputikyan and Hovhannes Shiraz began a new era of literature.
When were early Armenian Christian churches built?
573242f1b9d445190005e93b
between the 4th and 7th century
39
False
In which century did Armenia become Christian?
573242f1b9d445190005e93c
4th
51
False
What radiating style are some Armenian churches built with?
573242f1b9d445190005e93d
Hrip'simé
445
False
When were Armenian churches built with center cupola cones?
573242f1b9d445190005e93e
fifth century
250
False
When were Armenian churches built with niched buttresses?
573242f1b9d445190005e93f
seventh century
333
False
between the 4th and 7th century
39
When were the first Arab structures built?
5a53e537bdaabd001a3867c6
True
radiating Hrip'simé style
435
What style of architecture so some Arab structures use?
5a53e537bdaabd001a3867c7
True
classical Armenian architecture
535
What had formed when Hrip'sime became Christian?
5a53e537bdaabd001a3867c8
True
the typical cupola cone in the center
264
What had become widely used in early churches?
5a53e537bdaabd001a3867c9
True
side apses
231
What did some churches sometimes have in the fifth century?
5a53e537bdaabd001a3867ca
True
The first Armenian churches were built between the 4th and 7th century, beginning when Armenia converted to Christianity, and ending with the Arab invasion of Armenia. The early churches were mostly simple basilicas, but some with side apses. By the fifth century the typical cupola cone in the center had become widely used. By the seventh century, centrally planned churches had been built and a more complicated niched buttress and radiating Hrip'simé style had formed. By the time of the Arab invasion, most of what we now know as classical Armenian architecture had formed.
Who invaded Armenia in the 11th century?
573243d40fdd8d15006c68a7
Seljuk
638
False
What Armenian monasteries were built in the 11th century?
573243d40fdd8d15006c68a8
Haghpat and Haritchavank
572
False
When was there an Armenian architecture revival?
573243d40fdd8d15006c68a9
From the 9th to 11th century
0
False
What dynasty ruled Armenia in the 10th century?
573243d40fdd8d15006c68aa
Bagratid Dynasty
99
False
What was ornately carved in the 9th-11th centuries?
573243d40fdd8d15006c68ab
Armenian Khachkars
251
False
Seljuk
638
Who was Khachkar invaded by in the 11th century?
5a53e745bdaabd001a3867d0
True
Akdamar Island
420
Where was a new monastery built after the Seljuk invasion?
5a53e745bdaabd001a3867d1
True
The Cathedral of Ani
445
What cathedral was completed during the Khachkar dynasty?
5a53e745bdaabd001a3867d2
True
Haghpat and Haritchavank
572
What two major monasteries were built during the Khachkar dynasty?
5a53e745bdaabd001a3867d3
True
both traditional styles and new innovations
190
What building style was used in the area of Haritchavank?
5a53e745bdaabd001a3867d4
True
From the 9th to 11th century, Armenian architecture underwent a revival under the patronage of the Bagratid Dynasty with a great deal of building done in the area of Lake Van, this included both traditional styles and new innovations. Ornately carved Armenian Khachkars were developed during this time. Many new cities and churches were built during this time, including a new capital at Lake Van and a new Cathedral on Akdamar Island to match. The Cathedral of Ani was also completed during this dynasty. It was during this time that the first major monasteries, such as Haghpat and Haritchavank were built. This period was ended by the Seljuk invasion.
When did Armenia begin winning Olympic medals?
573245c9e99e3014001e6614
1952
306
False
Where were the 1952 Olympics held?
573245c9e99e3014001e6615
Helsinki
330
False
Which Armenian football team was the most successful?
573245c9e99e3014001e6616
Yerevan's FC Ararat
384
False
What pro team has FC Ararat beaten?
573245c9e99e3014001e6617
FC Bayern Munich
535
False
Who won Armenia's first Olympic medal?
573245c9e99e3014001e6618
Hrant Shahinyan
234
False
1952
306
When did FC Bayern Munich first win olympic medals?
5a53e8ccbdaabd001a3867da
True
in Helsinki
327
Where were the 1970 olympics located?
5a53e8ccbdaabd001a3867db
True
Hrant Shahinyan
234
Who was the first person from Munich to win medals in the olympics?
5a53e8ccbdaabd001a3867dc
True
two golds and two silvers
259
What medals did Yerevan's FC Ararat win in the 1952 olympics?
5a53e8ccbdaabd001a3867dd
True
FC Bayern Munich
535
Who did Hrant Shahinyan beat in the Euro cup?
5a53e8ccbdaabd001a3867de
True
During Soviet rule, Armenian athletes rose to prominence winning plenty of medals and helping the USSR win the medal standings at the Olympics on numerous occasions. The first medal won by an Armenian in modern Olympic history was by Hrant Shahinyan, who won two golds and two silvers in gymnastics at the 1952 Summer Olympics in Helsinki. In football, their most successful team was Yerevan's FC Ararat, which had claimed most of the Soviet championships in the 70s and had also gone to post victories against professional clubs like FC Bayern Munich in the Euro cup.
What kind of music does Sayat Nova play?
57324644e17f3d14004227b3
Armenian folk music
188
False
What instruments are used in Armenian folk music?
57324644e17f3d14004227b4
the duduk, the dhol, the zurna and the kanun
17
False
What kind of Armenian religious music is prevalent?
57324644e17f3d14004227b5
the Armenian chant
254
False
What did Mashtots do besides composing religious chants?
57324644e17f3d14004227b6
inventor of the Armenian alphabet
505
False
What was Aram Khatchaturian's career?
57324644e17f3d14004227b7
classical music composer
575
False
the Armenian alphabet
517
What did Saint Sabre invent?
5a53ea60bdaabd001a3867e4
True
the duduk, the dhol, the zurna and the kanun
17
What instruments is Aram Khatchaturian famous for playing?
5a53ea60bdaabd001a3867e5
True
the ballet Gayane
733
What did Sayat Nova create the Sabre Dance for?
5a53ea60bdaabd001a3867e6
True
chants
348
What did Sayat Nova create besides the Armenian alphabet?
5a53ea60bdaabd001a3867e7
True
Soviet rule
553
Under who's rule did Mesrop Mashots become famous internationally?
5a53ea60bdaabd001a3867e8
True
Instruments like the duduk, the dhol, the zurna and the kanun are commonly found in Armenian folk music. Artists such as Sayat Nova are famous due to their influence in the development of Armenian folk music. One of the oldest types of Armenian music is the Armenian chant which is the most common kind of religious music in Armenia. Many of these chants are ancient in origin, extending to pre-Christian times, while others are relatively modern, including several composed by Saint Mesrop Mashtots, the inventor of the Armenian alphabet. Whilst under Soviet rule, Armenian classical music composer Aram Khatchaturian became internationally well known for his music, for various ballets and the Sabre Dance from his composition for the ballet Gayane.
What type of music is Richard Hagopian famous for?
5732475e0fdd8d15006c68cd
the traditional "kef" style
711
False
What instruments does 'kef' use?
5732475e0fdd8d15006c68ce
Armenian and Middle Eastern folk instruments (often electrified/amplified) and some western instruments
331
False
What type of music does Sirusho perform?
5732475e0fdd8d15006c68cf
pop music combined with Armenian folk music
1254
False
What nationality is Charles Aznavour?
5732475e0fdd8d15006c68d0
French-Armenian
1440
False
What US heavy metal band is comprised of Armenians?
5732475e0fdd8d15006c68d1
System of a Down
1701
False
Adiss Harmandian and Harout Pamboukjian
1119
What two pop artists became famous in Turkey the 40's and 50's?
5a53ecf8bdaabd001a3867ee
True
The Armenian Genocide
0
What event was caused by French influence that led to widespread Armenian emigration?
5a53ecf8bdaabd001a3867ef
True
"kef" style
291
What dance style was popular after people of Turkey emigrated to the US?
5a53ecf8bdaabd001a3867f0
True
Richard Hagopian
657
Who is the most popular member of System of a Down?
5a53ecf8bdaabd001a3867f1
True
Hasmik Papian and more recently Isabel Bayrakdarian and Anna Kasyan
1550
What famous opera singers used the kef style?
5a53ecf8bdaabd001a3867f2
True
The Armenian Genocide caused widespread emigration that led to the settlement of Armenians in various countries in the world. Armenians kept to their traditions and certain diasporans rose to fame with their music. In the post-Genocide Armenian community of the United States, the so-called "kef" style Armenian dance music, using Armenian and Middle Eastern folk instruments (often electrified/amplified) and some western instruments, was popular. This style preserved the folk songs and dances of Western Armenia, and many artists also played the contemporary popular songs of Turkey and other Middle Eastern countries from which the Armenians emigrated. Richard Hagopian is perhaps the most famous artist of the traditional "kef" style and the Vosbikian Band was notable in the 40s and 50s for developing their own style of "kef music" heavily influenced by the popular American Big Band Jazz of the time. Later, stemming from the Middle Eastern Armenian diaspora and influenced by Continental European (especially French) pop music, the Armenian pop music genre grew to fame in the 60s and 70s with artists such as Adiss Harmandian and Harout Pamboukjian performing to the Armenian diaspora and Armenia. Also with artists such as Sirusho, performing pop music combined with Armenian folk music in today's entertainment industry. Other Armenian diasporans that rose to fame in classical or international music circles are world-renowned French-Armenian singer and composer Charles Aznavour, pianist Sahan Arzruni, prominent opera sopranos such as Hasmik Papian and more recently Isabel Bayrakdarian and Anna Kasyan. Certain Armenians settled to sing non-Armenian tunes such as the heavy metal band System of a Down (which nonetheless often incorporates traditional Armenian instrumentals and styling into their songs) or pop star Cher. Ruben Hakobyan (Ruben Sasuntsi) is a well recognized Armenian ethnographic and patriotic folk singer who has achieved widespread national recognition due to his devotion to Armenian folk music and exceptional talent. In the Armenian diaspora, Armenian revolutionary songs are popular with the youth.[citation needed] These songs encourage Armenian patriotism and are generally about Armenian history and national heroes.
What job do many Armenian women traditionally do?
573247c80fdd8d15006c68d7
Carpet-weaving
0
False
When is the earliest known Armenian carpet from?
573247c80fdd8d15006c68d8
early 13th century
375
False
Where is the earliest known Armenian carpet from?
573247c80fdd8d15006c68d9
the village of Banants (near Gandzak)
320
False
What is 'gorg'?
573247c80fdd8d15006c68da
the Armenian word for carpet
415
False
Where is the earliest known use of 'gorg'?
573247c80fdd8d15006c68db
in a 1242–1243 Armenian inscription on the wall of the Kaptavan Church in Artsakh
486
False
gorg
445
What is the Armenian word for weaving?
5a53ee37bdaabd001a3867f8
True
a 1242–1243 Armenian inscription on the wall of the Kaptavan Church in Artsakh
489
When was the first time the word for weaving was used?
5a53ee37bdaabd001a3867f9
True
Carpet-weaving
0
What is the traditional profession of Kaptavians?
5a53ee37bdaabd001a3867fa
True
the early 13th century
371
When was the earliest medieval church founded?
5a53ee37bdaabd001a3867fb
True
the village of Banants (near Gandzak)
320
Where is the earliest medieval church from?
5a53ee37bdaabd001a3867fc
True
Carpet-weaving is historically a major traditional profession for the majority of Armenian women, including many Armenian families. Prominent Karabakh carpet weavers there were men too. The oldest extant Armenian carpet from the region, referred to as Artsakh (see also Karabakh carpet) during the medieval era, is from the village of Banants (near Gandzak) and dates to the early 13th century. The first time that the Armenian word for carpet, gorg, was used in historical sources was in a 1242–1243 Armenian inscription on the wall of the Kaptavan Church in Artsakh.
What is Hakobyan's career?
57324aeae17f3d14004227f1
Art historian
0
False
What creatures are often depicted on Armenian carpets?
57324aeae17f3d14004227f2
dragons and eagles
200
False
What are artsvagorgs?
57324aeae17f3d14004227f3
eagle-carpets
401
False
What are vishapagorgs?
57324aeae17f3d14004227f4
dragon-carpets
431
False
What are otsagorgs?
57324aeae17f3d14004227f5
serpent-carpets
462
False
Art historian
0
What is Artsakh's profession?
5a53ef5cbdaabd001a386802
True
depiction of dragons and eagles
187
What two motifs were usually found in Kaptavian inscriptions?
5a53ef5cbdaabd001a386803
True
three arches, "covered with vegatative ornaments"
542
What are the Hravard inscriptions composed of?
5a53ef5cbdaabd001a386804
True
the illuminated manuscripts produced in Artsakh
630
What are the Hravard inscriptions similar to?
5a53ef5cbdaabd001a386805
True
categories
312
What are manuscripts separated into depending on the animals on them?
5a53ef5cbdaabd001a386806
True
Art historian Hravard Hakobyan notes that "Artsakh carpets occupy a special place in the history of Armenian carpet-making." Common themes and patterns found on Armenian carpets were the depiction of dragons and eagles. They were diverse in style, rich in color and ornamental motifs, and were even separated in categories depending on what sort of animals were depicted on them, such as artsvagorgs (eagle-carpets), vishapagorgs (dragon-carpets) and otsagorgs (serpent-carpets). The rug mentioned in the Kaptavan inscriptions is composed of three arches, "covered with vegatative ornaments", and bears an artistic resemblance to the illuminated manuscripts produced in Artsakh.
What is khorovats?
57324b39b9d445190005e9d1
an Armenian-styled barbecue
97
False
What is lavash?
57324b39b9d445190005e9d2
Armenian flat bread
151
False
What is paklava?
57324b39b9d445190005e9d3
a popular dessert made from filo dough
196
False
What is a kabob?
57324b39b9d445190005e9d4
a skewer of marinated roasted meat and vegetables
283
False
What is ghapama?
57324b39b9d445190005e9d5
a rice-stuffed pumpkin dish
504
False
Apricots
639
What is the favorite fruit that is part of Armenian-style barbecue?
5a53f1c6bdaabd001a386814
True
for centuries
723
How long have cornelian cherries been grown in Armenia?
5a53f1c6bdaabd001a386815
True
for having an especially good flavor
759
What reputation do cornelian cherries have?
5a53f1c6bdaabd001a386816
True
ghapama
495
What is a dish called that uses fruits, grapes and figs?
5a53f1c6bdaabd001a386817
True
Lavash
126
What is a popular grape leaf in Armenia?
5a53f1c6bdaabd001a386818
True
Armenians enjoy many different native and foreign foods. Arguably the favorite food is khorovats an Armenian-styled barbecue. Lavash is a very popular Armenian flat bread, and Armenian paklava is a popular dessert made from filo dough. Other famous Armenian foods include the kabob (a skewer of marinated roasted meat and vegetables), various dolmas (minced lamb, or beef meat and rice wrapped in grape leaves, cabbage leaves, or stuffed into hollowed vegetables), and pilaf, a rice dish. Also, ghapama, a rice-stuffed pumpkin dish, and many different salads are popular in Armenian culture. Fruits play a large part in the Armenian diet. Apricots (Prunus armeniaca, also known as Armenian Plum) have been grown in Armenia for centuries and have a reputation for having an especially good flavor. Peaches are popular as well, as are grapes, figs, pomegranates, and melons. Preserves are made from many fruits, including cornelian cherries, young walnuts, sea buckthorn, mulberries, sour cherries, and many others.
Jehovah%27s_Witnesses
What are the Jehovah Witnesses?
57323b8ae17f3d1400422751
millenarian restorationist Christian denomination
25
False
What are the beliefs of Jehovah Witnesses distinct from?
57323b8ae17f3d1400422752
mainstream Christianity
117
False
How many adherents worldwide does the group claim?
57323b8ae17f3d1400422753
more than 8.2 million
185
False
Who is in charges of directing the Jehovah Witnesses?
57323b8ae17f3d1400422754
Governing Body of Jehovah's Witnesses
397
False
Where are the group elders located?
57323b8ae17f3d1400422755
Brooklyn, New York
457
False
8.2 million
195
How many Jehovah Witnesses adherents live in the United States?
5ad3ad1a604f3c001a3febdd
True
Brooklyn, New York
457
Where was Jehovah Witnesses founded?
5ad3ad1a604f3c001a3febde
True
8.2 million
195
How many Jehovah Witnesses are involved in evangelism in the United States?
5ad3ad1a604f3c001a3febdf
True
Brooklyn, New York
457
Where do Jehovah Witnesses believe Armageddon will get its start?
5ad3ad1a604f3c001a3febe0
True
Jehovah's Witnesses is a millenarian restorationist Christian denomination with nontrinitarian beliefs distinct from mainstream Christianity. The group claims a worldwide membership of more than 8.2 million adherents involved in evangelism, convention attendance figures of more than 15 million, and an annual Memorial attendance of more than 19.9 million. Jehovah's Witnesses are directed by the Governing Body of Jehovah's Witnesses, a group of elders in Brooklyn, New York, which establishes all doctrines based on its interpretations of the Bible. They prefer to use their own translation, the New World Translation of the Holy Scriptures, although their literature occasionally quotes and cites other translations. They believe that the destruction of the present world system at Armageddon is imminent, and that the establishment of God's kingdom over the earth is the only solution for all problems faced by humanity.
What are Jehovah witnesses best known for?
57323c07e17f3d140042275b
their door-to-door preaching
39
False
What do Jehovah Witnesses refuse?
57323c07e17f3d140042275c
military service and blood transfusions
141
False
What do Jehovah Witnesses consider the name Jehovah vital for?
57323c07e17f3d140042275d
proper worship
230
False
Why do Jehovah Witnesses reject inherent immortality of the soul, hellfire and Trinitarianism?
57323c07e17f3d140042275e
they consider to be unscriptural doctrines
328
False
Why don't Jehovah Witnesses celebrate the usual holidays and customs?
57323c07e17f3d140042275f
they consider to have pagan origins
451
False
Jehovah's Witnesses
0
What  in one of the Christian religions that observes Christmas?
5ad3ae3d604f3c001a3fec3d
True
Jehovah's Witnesses
0
What is one of the Christian religions that celebrates Easter?
5ad3ae3d604f3c001a3fec3e
True
Jehovah's Witnesses
0
What is one of the Christian religions which believes in Trinitarianism?
5ad3ae3d604f3c001a3fec3f
True
Jehovah's Witnesses
0
Which a Christian religion that allows blood transfusions?
5ad3ae3d604f3c001a3fec40
True
Jehovah's Witnesses
0
What is a religion that doesn't limit social interactions with non-believers?
5ad3ae3d604f3c001a3fec41
True
Jehovah's Witnesses are best known for their door-to-door preaching, distributing literature such as The Watchtower and Awake!, and refusing military service and blood transfusions. They consider use of the name Jehovah vital for proper worship. They reject Trinitarianism, inherent immortality of the soul, and hellfire, which they consider to be unscriptural doctrines. They do not observe Christmas, Easter, birthdays or other holidays and customs they consider to have pagan origins incompatible with Christianity. Adherents commonly refer to their body of beliefs as "the truth" and consider themselves to be "in the truth". They consider secular society to be morally corrupt and under the influence of Satan, and most limit their social interaction with non-Witnesses. Congregational disciplinary actions include disfellowshipping, their term for formal expulsion and shunning. Baptized individuals who formally leave are considered disassociated and are also shunned. Disfellowshipped and disassociated individuals may eventually be reinstated if deemed repentant.
When did Charles Taze Russell form a group?
57323ca3b9d445190005e903
1870
3
False
Where did Russell and others form their group?
57323ca3b9d445190005e904
Pittsburgh, Pennsylvania
59
False
What was the purpose of Russell's group?
57323ca3b9d445190005e905
to study the Bible
85
False
When Russell met Nelson H. Barbour in 1876, they jointly produced what book?
57323ca3b9d445190005e906
Three Worlds
427
False
1914 would mark the end of a 2520 year period known as what?
57323ca3b9d445190005e907
the Gentile Times
783
False
Nelson H. Barbour
361
What was the name of a member in Charles Taze Russell's group in 1870?
5ad3b199604f3c001a3fecdf
True
the full establishment of God's kingdom on earth
852
What major event occurred in 1914?
5ad3b199604f3c001a3fece0
True
1879
1007
In what year did Nelson H. Barbour die?
5ad3b199604f3c001a3fece2
True
the fleshly return of Jesus Christ
258
What was one of the doctrinal differences that Russell and Barbour had?
5ad3b199604f3c001a3fece3
True
In 1870, Charles Taze Russell and others formed a group in Pittsburgh, Pennsylvania, to study the Bible. During the course of his ministry, Russell disputed many beliefs of mainstream Christianity including immortality of the soul, hellfire, predestination, the fleshly return of Jesus Christ, the Trinity, and the burning up of the world. In 1876, Russell met Nelson H. Barbour; later that year they jointly produced the book Three Worlds, which combined restitutionist views with end time prophecy. The book taught that God's dealings with humanity were divided dispensationally, each ending with a "harvest," that Christ had returned as an invisible spirit being in 1874 inaugurating the "harvest of the Gospel age," and that 1914 would mark the end of a 2520-year period called "the Gentile Times," at which time world society would be replaced by the full establishment of God's kingdom on earth. Beginning in 1878 Russell and Barbour jointly edited a religious journal, Herald of the Morning. In June 1879 the two split over doctrinal differences, and in July, Russell began publishing the magazine Zion's Watch Tower and Herald of Christ's Presence, stating that its purpose was to demonstrate that the world was in "the last days," and that a new age of earthly and human restitution under the reign of Christ was imminent.
When did Watch Tower supporters gather as autonomous congregations to study the Bible?
57323d61e17f3d140042276d
From 1879
0
False
How many congregations were founded?
57323d61e17f3d140042276e
Thirty
101
False
When did Russell visit each of the congregations to provide the format he recommended to conduct their meetings?
57323d61e17f3d140042276f
during 1879 and 1880
140
False
What did the congregations which continued to form during Russell's ministry remain?
57323d61e17f3d1400422770
self-administrative
326
False
Who presided over Zion's Watch Tower Tract Society in 1881?
57323d61e17f3d1400422771
William Henry Conley
478
False
William Henry Conley
478
Who was the most distributed Christian author in the world in 1912?
5ad3b2b0604f3c001a3fed0f
True
William Henry Conley
478
Who presided over Zion's Watch Tower Tract Society in 1900?
5ad3b2b0604f3c001a3fed10
True
1912
959
In what year did Charles Taze Russell die?
5ad3b2b0604f3c001a3fed11
True
1884
507
In what year did William Henry Conley die?
5ad3b2b0604f3c001a3fed12
True
thousands
654
How many foreign missionaries did Charles Taze Russell appoint?
5ad3b2b0604f3c001a3fed13
True
From 1879, Watch Tower supporters gathered as autonomous congregations to study the Bible topically. Thirty congregations were founded, and during 1879 and 1880, Russell visited each to provide the format he recommended for conducting meetings. As congregations continued to form during Russell's ministry, they each remained self-administrative, functioning under the congregationalist style of church governance. In 1881, Zion's Watch Tower Tract Society was presided over by William Henry Conley, and in 1884, Charles Taze Russell incorporated the society as a non-profit business to distribute tracts and Bibles. By about 1900, Russell had organized thousands of part- and full-time colporteurs, and was appointing foreign missionaries and establishing branch offices. By the 1910s, Russell's organization maintained nearly a hundred "pilgrims," or traveling preachers. Russell engaged in significant global publishing efforts during his ministry, and by 1912, he was the most distributed Christian author in the United States.
When did Russell move the Society's headquarters to Brooklyn?
57323dbf0fdd8d15006c6871
1909
79
False
What did Russell combine at the headquarters?
57323dbf0fdd8d15006c6872
printing and corporate offices with a house of worship
95
False
What was the name of the residence where volunteers were housed?
57323dbf0fdd8d15006c6873
Bethel
205
False
How many people worldwide were associated with Russell's movement by 1910?
57323dbf0fdd8d15006c6874
about 50,000 people
347
False
When did Russell die?
57323dbf0fdd8d15006c6875
October 31, 1916
485
False
October
485
In what month in 1909 did Russell move the Watch Tower Societies headquarters to Brooklyn, New York?
5ad3b390604f3c001a3fed53
True
1910
341
In what year did Russell establish the International Bible Students Association?
5ad3b390604f3c001a3fed54
True
50,000
353
How many people in the United States were associated with Jehovah's Witnesses as of 1910?
5ad3b390604f3c001a3fed55
True
1909
79
In what year had Russell established the Watch Tower Society?
5ad3b390604f3c001a3fed56
True
Brooklyn, New York
56
What was one of the cities on Russell's 1916 ministerial speaking tour?
5ad3b390604f3c001a3fed57
True
Russell moved the Watch Tower Society's headquarters to Brooklyn, New York, in 1909, combining printing and corporate offices with a house of worship; volunteers were housed in a nearby residence he named Bethel. He identified the religious movement as "Bible Students," and more formally as the International Bible Students Association. By 1910, about 50,000 people worldwide were associated with the movement and congregations re-elected him annually as their "pastor." Russell died October 31, 1916, at the age of 64 while returning from a ministerial speaking tour.
Who was elected as the Watch Tower Society's president in January of 1917?
57323e44e17f3d1400422781
Joseph Franklin Rutherford
65
False
What had Rutherford been before being elected the group's president?
57323e44e17f3d1400422782
legal representative
43
False
When did Rutherford release The Finished Mystery?
57323e44e17f3d1400422783
June 1917,
368
False
Who did the Finished Mystery strongly criticize?
57323e44e17f3d1400422784
Catholic and Protestant clergy
720
False
What were Watch Tower Society directors jailed for?
57323e44e17f3d1400422785
sedition
854
False
1917
11
In what year did Joseph Franklin Rutherford become the legal representative of the Watch Tower Society?
5ad3b48f604f3c001a3fed71
True
Clayton Woodworth
660
Who was one of the prominent people that disputed Joseph Franklin Rutherford becoming the Watch Tower Society president?
5ad3b48f604f3c001a3fed72
True
George Fisher
682
Who was one of the Board of Directors for the Watch Tower Society in 1917?
5ad3b48f604f3c001a3fed73
True
1917
11
In what year was the first of Russells Studies in the Scriptures series first published?
5ad3b48f604f3c001a3fed74
True
Clayton Woodworth
660
Who was one of the Watch Tower Society's directors jailed for sedition in 1918?
5ad3b48f604f3c001a3fed75
True
In January 1917, the Watch Tower Society's legal representative, Joseph Franklin Rutherford, was elected as its next president. His election was disputed, and members of the Board of Directors accused him of acting in an autocratic and secretive manner. The divisions between his supporters and opponents triggered a major turnover of members over the next decade. In June 1917, he released The Finished Mystery as a seventh volume of Russell's Studies in the Scriptures series. The book, published as the posthumous work of Russell, was a compilation of his commentaries on the Bible books of Ezekiel and Revelation, plus numerous additions by Bible Students Clayton Woodworth and George Fisher. It strongly criticized Catholic and Protestant clergy and Christian involvement in the Great War. As a result, Watch Tower Society directors were jailed for sedition under the Espionage Act in 1918 and members were subjected to mob violence; charges against the directors were dropped in 1920.
What did Rutherford institute the appointment of in each congregation in 1919?
57323ec2b9d445190005e90d
a director
116
False
What were all members instructed to report weekly to the Brooklyn headquarters?
57323ec2b9d445190005e90e
preaching activity
217
False
Where as an international convention held in September of 1922?
57323ec2b9d445190005e90f
Cedar Point, Ohio
305
False
What was a new emphasis made on at the international convention?
57323ec2b9d445190005e910
house-to-house preaching
370
False
How long was Rutherford's tenure as president of the Society?
57323ec2b9d445190005e911
twenty-five years
493
False
September
327
In what month in 1920 did Rutherford claim that some Jewish patriarchs would be resurrected in 1925?
5ad3b5cd604f3c001a3fedd9
True
tens of thousands
728
How many people attended the Cedar Point, Ohio, convention of the Watch Tower Society?
5ad3b5cd604f3c001a3feddb
True
1922
337
In what year did the first Bible Student organizations split from the Watch Tower Society?
5ad3b5cd604f3c001a3feddc
True
Rutherford centralized organizational control of the Watch Tower Society. In 1919, he instituted the appointment of a director in each congregation, and a year later all members were instructed to report their weekly preaching activity to the Brooklyn headquarters. At an international convention held at Cedar Point, Ohio, in September 1922, a new emphasis was made on house-to-house preaching. Significant changes in doctrine and administration were regularly introduced during Rutherford's twenty-five years as president, including the 1920 announcement that the Jewish patriarchs (such as Abraham and Isaac) would be resurrected in 1925, marking the beginning of Christ's thousand-year Kingdom. Disappointed by the changes, tens of thousands of defections occurred during the first half of Rutherford's tenure, leading to the formation of several Bible Student organizations independent of the Watch Tower Society, most of which still exist. By mid-1919, as many as one in seven of Russell-era Bible Students had ceased their association with the Society, and as many as two-thirds by the end of the 1920s.
When did Rutherford introduce the new name for the Society?
57323f34b9d445190005e917
July 26, 1931
3
False
What biblical passage was the name Jehovah's witnesses based on?
57323f34b9d445190005e918
Isaiah 43:10
117
False
What system did Rutherford eliminate in 1932?
57323f34b9d445190005e919
locally elected elders
516
False
Where were appointments in congregations worldwide made from?
57323f34b9d445190005e91a
the Brooklyn headquarters
706
False
1931
12
In what year did Rutherford take over leadership of the Watch Tower Society?
5ad3b6ea604f3c001a3fee05
True
locally elected
516
How were local elders selected by the Jehovah's Witnesses between 1932 and 1938?
5ad3b6ea604f3c001a3fee06
True
July
3
In what month in 1932 did Rutherford eliminate the system of locally elected elders?
5ad3b6ea604f3c001a3fee08
True
July
3
In what month in 1938 did Rutherford introduce a new theocratic organizational structure?
5ad3b6ea604f3c001a3fee09
True
On July 26, 1931, at a convention in Columbus, Ohio, Rutherford introduced the new name—Jehovah's witnesses—based on Isaiah 43:10: "Ye are my witnesses, saith Jehovah, and my servant whom I have chosen"—which was adopted by resolution. The name was chosen to distinguish his group of Bible Students from other independent groups that had severed ties with the Society, as well as symbolize the instigation of new outlooks and the promotion of fresh evangelizing methods. In 1932, Rutherford eliminated the system of locally elected elders and in 1938, introduced what he called a "theocratic" (literally, God-ruled) organizational system, under which appointments in congregations worldwide were made from the Brooklyn headquarters.
From when was it taught that the little flock would not be the only people to survive Armageddon?
57323fc4e99e3014001e65ce
1932
5
False
What was the number of the little flock set at?
57323fc4e99e3014001e65cf
144,000
52
False
Where would the great multitude live?
57323fc4e99e3014001e65d0
a paradise restored on earth
341
False
All new converts to the movmeent since 1935 were considered part of what class?
57323fc4e99e3014001e65d1
great multitude
309
False
When was the start of the last days moved to in the mid-1930s?
57323fc4e99e3014001e65d2
1914
611
False
1935
376
In what year was Armageddon to occur according to Rutherford?
5ad3bc00604f3c001a3feed7
True
144,000
52
How many Jehovah's Witnesses were there as of 1935?
5ad3bc00604f3c001a3feed8
True
144,000
52
How many Jehovah's Witnesses had there been in 1914?
5ad3bc00604f3c001a3feed9
True
1935
376
In what year did Rutherford die?
5ad3bc00604f3c001a3feeda
True
From 1932, it was taught that the "little flock" of 144,000 would not be the only people to survive Armageddon. Rutherford explained that in addition to the 144,000 "anointed" who would be resurrected—or transferred at death—to live in heaven to rule over earth with Christ, a separate class of members, the "great multitude," would live in a paradise restored on earth; from 1935, new converts to the movement were considered part of that class. By the mid-1930s, the timing of the beginning of Christ's presence (Greek: parousía), his enthronement as king, and the start of the "last days" were each moved to 1914.
Who was appointed as the third president of the Watch Tower Bible and Tract Society in 1942?
573240390fdd8d15006c6883
Nathan Knorr
0
False
What did Knorr commission?
573240390fdd8d15006c6884
a new translation of the Bible
117
False
When was the full version of the New World Translation of the Holy Scriptures released?
573240390fdd8d15006c6885
in 1961
238
False
What was Knorr's presidency marked by the increasing use of?
573240390fdd8d15006c6886
explicit instructions guiding Witnesses
471
False
What was greater use of congregational judicial procedures used to enforce?
573240390fdd8d15006c6887
a strict moral code
610
False
1942
92
In what year did Nathan Knorr commission a new translation of the Bible?
5ad3bcff604f3c001a3fef05
True
1961
241
In what year did Nathan Knorr organize his first international assembly?
5ad3bcff604f3c001a3fef06
True
1961
241
In what year did Nathan Knorr start demanding Jehovah's Witnesses start following a strict moral code?
5ad3bcff604f3c001a3fef07
True
1942
92
In what year did Nathan Knorr issue general instructions to guide Witnesses?
5ad3bcff604f3c001a3fef08
True
1961
241
In what year did Nathan Knorr introduce his first new training program?
5ad3bcff604f3c001a3fef09
True
Nathan Knorr was appointed as third president of the Watch Tower Bible and Tract Society in 1942. Knorr commissioned a new translation of the Bible, the New World Translation of the Holy Scriptures, the full version of which was released in 1961. He organized large international assemblies, instituted new training programs for members, and expanded missionary activity and branch offices throughout the world. Knorr's presidency was also marked by an increasing use of explicit instructions guiding Witnesses in their lifestyle and conduct, and a greater use of congregational judicial procedures to enforce a strict moral code.
From 1966, what did Witness publications and conventions think would happen in late 1975?
573240afe99e3014001e65d8
Christ's thousand-year reign
96
False
How many baptisms were there in 1974?
573240afe99e3014001e65d9
more than 297,000
250
False
How many active members were there in 1975?
573240afe99e3014001e65da
two million
324
False
Why did membership decline in the late 1970s?
573240afe99e3014001e65db
after expectations for 1975 were proved wrong
379
False
What did the Watch Tower Society admit in 1980?
573240afe99e3014001e65dc
its responsibility in building up hope
570
False
1966
5
In what year did Witnesses decide to put off Armageddon until late 1975 instead of their earlier year?
5ad3be53604f3c001a3fef41
True
297,000
260
How many Witnesses were baptized in 1975?
5ad3be53604f3c001a3fef42
True
two million
324
How many Witnesses were there in the United States in 1966?
5ad3be53604f3c001a3fef43
True
Christ's thousand-year reign
96
What was one of the major changes that occurred in 1975?
5ad3be53604f3c001a3fef44
True
297,000
260
How many Witnesses were there in 1980?
5ad3be53604f3c001a3fef45
True
From 1966, Witness publications and convention talks built anticipation of the possibility that Christ's thousand-year reign might begin in late 1975 or shortly thereafter. The number of baptisms increased significantly, from about 59,000 in 1966 to more than 297,000 in 1974. By 1975, the number of active members exceeded two million. Membership declined during the late 1970s after expectations for 1975 were proved wrong. Watch Tower Society literature did not state dogmatically that 1975 would definitely mark the end, but in 1980 the Watch Tower Society admitted its responsibility in building up hope regarding that year.
When was the offices of restored to the Witness congregations?
57324509e17f3d14004227a9
1972
87
False
Starting in September 2014, who was responsible for making appointments in the Church?
57324509e17f3d14004227aa
traveling overseers
255
False
In 1976 whose power in Watch Tower Society was diminished?
57324509e17f3d14004227ab
president
357
False
When did Knorr die?
57324509e17f3d14004227ac
1977
494
False
Who has been president of the Society since 2000?
57324509e17f3d14004227ad
Don A. Adams
662
False
1972
87
In what year did branch committees start to make appointments?
5ad3bf70604f3c001a3fef65
True
Don A. Adams
662
Who was one of the members of the Governing Body in 1977?
5ad3bf70604f3c001a3fef68
True
Don A. Adams
662
Who was one of the members of the Governing Body in 1995?
5ad3bf70604f3c001a3fef69
True
The offices of elder and ministerial servant were restored to Witness congregations in 1972, with appointments made from headquarters (and later, also by branch committees). It was announced that, starting in September 2014, appointments would be made by traveling overseers. In a major organizational overhaul in 1976, the power of the Watch Tower Society president was diminished, with authority for doctrinal and organizational decisions passed to the Governing Body. Since Knorr's death in 1977, the position of president has been occupied by Frederick Franz (1977–1992) and Milton Henschel (1992–2000), both members of the Governing Body, and since 2000 by Don A. Adams, not a member of the Governing Body. In 1995, Jehovah's Witnesses abandoned the idea that Armageddon must occur during the lives of the generation that was alive in 1914 and in 2013 changed their teaching on the "generation".
How are Jehovah Witnesses organized?
57324577b9d445190005e967
hierarchically
34
False
What does the theocratic organization of Jehovah Witnesses reflect on Earth?
57324577b9d445190005e968
God's "visible organization"
143
False
What gender are all the members of the Governing Body?
57324577b9d445190005e969
male
235
False
How many members does the Governing Body consist of?
57324577b9d445190005e96a
seven
302
False
Who does the Governing Body direct?
57324577b9d445190005e96b
several committees
922
False
seven
302
How many Governing Body members were there in late 2012?
5ad3c08b604f3c001a3fef79
True
10,000
698
How many self-professed "anointed" Jehovah's Witnesses were there as of 2012 in the United States?
5ad3c08b604f3c001a3fef7a
True
seven
302
How many traveling overseers are there?
5ad3c08b604f3c001a3fef7b
True
seven
302
How many circuits of congregations make up the Jehovah's Witnesses organization?
5ad3c08b604f3c001a3fef7c
True
10,000
698
How many "anointed" Jehovah's Witnesses were there as of 2014?
5ad3c08b604f3c001a3fef7d
True
Jehovah's Witnesses are organized hierarchically, in what the leadership calls a "theocratic organization", reflecting their belief that it is God's "visible organization" on earth. The organization is led by the Governing Body—an all-male group that varies in size, but since early 2014 has comprised seven members,[note 1] all of whom profess to be of the "anointed" class with a hope of heavenly life—based in the Watch Tower Society's Brooklyn headquarters. There is no election for membership; new members are selected by the existing body. Until late 2012, the Governing Body described itself as the representative and "spokesman" for God's "faithful and discreet slave class" (approximately 10,000 self-professed "anointed" Jehovah's Witnesses). At the 2012 Annual Meeting of the Watch Tower Society, the "faithful and discreet slave" was defined as referring to the Governing Body only. The Governing Body directs several committees that are responsible for administrative functions, including publishing, assembly programs and evangelizing activities. It appoints all branch committee members and traveling overseers, after they have been recommended by local branches, with traveling overseers supervising circuits of congregations within their jurisdictions. Traveling overseers appoint local elders and ministerial servants, and while branch offices may appoint regional committees for matters such as Kingdom Hall construction or disaster relief.
What does each congregation have?
573245eeb9d445190005e971
a body of appointed unpaid male elders
22
False
Whose responsibility is it to conduct meetings and decide action for cases involving sexual misconduct?
573245eeb9d445190005e972
Elders
87
False
Who appoints new elders?
573245eeb9d445190005e973
a traveling overseer
431
False
What does the title of elder not signify?
573245eeb9d445190005e974
a formal clergy-laity division
695
False
What ecclesiastical privilege may elders employ?
573245eeb9d445190005e975
confession of sins
785
False
Elders
87
Who sets teaching times?
5ad3c182604f3c001a3fef83
True
ministerial servants
65
Who does public preaching work?
5ad3c182604f3c001a3fef84
True
elders
54
What is the title used for ministerial servants?
5ad3c182604f3c001a3fef85
True
ministerial servants
65
Who among the Witnesses does formal clergy-laity?
5ad3c182604f3c001a3fef86
True
unpaid male elders
42
Who appoints traveling overseers?
5ad3c182604f3c001a3fef87
True
Each congregation has a body of appointed unpaid male elders and ministerial servants. Elders maintain general responsibility for congregational governance, setting meeting times, selecting speakers and conducting meetings, directing the public preaching work, and creating "judicial committees" to investigate and decide disciplinary action for cases involving sexual misconduct or doctrinal breaches. New elders are appointed by a traveling overseer after recommendation by the existing body of elders. Ministerial servants—appointed in a similar manner to elders—fulfill clerical and attendant duties, but may also teach and conduct meetings. Witnesses do not use elder as a title to signify a formal clergy-laity division, though elders may employ ecclesiastical privilege such as confession of sins.
What is a requirement for being considered a member of Jehovah's Witnesses?
57324681e99e3014001e6624
Baptism
0
False
What aren't considered valid when performed by other denominations?
57324681e99e3014001e6625
previous baptisms
135
False
What do Witness publications say baptism symbolizes a person's personal dedication to?
57324681e99e3014001e6626
God
468
False
Jehovah Witnesses' literature puts emphasis on the obedience to not only Jehovah but also to his what?
57324681e99e3014001e6627
organization
611
False
Individuals must remain Jehovah Witnesses if they wish to receive what from God?
57324681e99e3014001e6628
favor
699
False
infant
115
At what age does a Jehovah's Witness do baptism?
5ad3c2c6604f3c001a3fef97
True
Armageddon
720
What is the name of one of the Jehovah's Witnesses publications?
5ad3c2c6604f3c001a3fef98
True
to be obedient and loyal to Jehovah
563
What do people undergoing baptism affirm privately?
5ad3c2c6604f3c001a3fef99
True
survive
712
Will an unbaptized infant survive or not if a sudden Armageddon were to occur?
5ad3c2c6604f3c001a3fef9a
True
Baptism is a requirement for being considered a member of Jehovah's Witnesses. Jehovah's Witnesses do not practice infant baptism, and previous baptisms performed by other denominations are not considered valid. Individuals undergoing baptism must affirm publicly that dedication and baptism identify them "as one of Jehovah's Witnesses in association with God's spirit-directed organization," though Witness publications say baptism symbolizes personal dedication to God and not "to a man, work or organization." Their literature emphasizes the need for members to be obedient and loyal to Jehovah and to "his organization,"[note 2] stating that individuals must remain part of it to receive God's favor and to survive Armageddon.
What do Jehovah Witnesses believe their religion is a restoration of?
573247070fdd8d15006c68c3
first-century Christianity
63
False
Who establishes the doctrines of the Jehovah Witnesses?
573247070fdd8d15006c68c4
the Governing Body
143
False
Where does the Governing Body express its doctrinal position?
573247070fdd8d15006c68c5
through publications published by the Watch Tower Society
382
False
How does God reveal his will and purpose?
573247070fdd8d15006c68c6
gradually
567
False
What is the Jehovah Witnesses' leadership said to provide?
573247070fdd8d15006c68c7
divine guidance
1088
False
Governing Body
822
What is one of the publications put out by the Watch Tower Society?
5ad3c4be604f3c001a3fefc5
True
Jehovah's Witnesses
104
What religion claims their top official is infallible?
5ad3c4be604f3c001a3fefc6
True
Jehovah's Witnesses
104
What did first-century Christians call themselves?
5ad3c4be604f3c001a3fefc7
True
Governing Body
822
Whose decision was it that members of the Governing Body have "deep truths" imparted to them by the holy spirit?
5ad3c4be604f3c001a3fefc8
True
Jehovah's Witnesses believe their religion is a restoration of first-century Christianity. Doctrines of Jehovah's Witnesses are established by the Governing Body, which assumes responsibility for interpreting and applying scripture. The Governing Body does not issue any single, comprehensive "statement of faith", but prefers to express its doctrinal position in a variety of ways through publications published by the Watch Tower Society. Their publications teach that doctrinal changes and refinements result from a process of progressive revelation, in which God gradually reveals his will and purpose, and that such enlightenment or "new light" results from the application of reason and study, the guidance of the holy spirit, and direction from Jesus Christ and angels. The Society also teaches that members of the Governing Body are helped by the holy spirit to discern "deep truths", which are then considered by the entire Governing Body before it makes doctrinal decisions. The religion's leadership, while disclaiming divine inspiration and infallibility, is said to provide "divine guidance" through its teachings described as "based on God's Word thus ... not from men, but from Jehovah."
What is considered the inspired, inerrant word of God?
57324797e17f3d14004227cf
The entire Protestant canon
0
False
What do Jehovah Witnesses consider the science and history within the Bible to be?
57324797e17f3d14004227d0
accurate
168
False
Whose pronouncements within Jehovah Witnesses group are considered to carry almost as much weight as the Bible?
57324797e17f3d14004227d1
the Governing Body
440
False
What are members of Jehovah Witnesses cautioned against reading?
57324797e17f3d14004227d2
other religious literature
789
False
What is there no provision for members of the Jehovah Witnesses to do in relation to the official teachings?
57324797e17f3d14004227d3
criticize or contribute
1123
False
Andrew Holden
356
Who is the outside foremost authority on Jehovah's Witnesses?
5ad3c9e3604f3c001a3ff0b3
True
frequently
578
How often do many Jehovah's Witnesses read other religions literature?
5ad3c9e3604f3c001a3ff0b4
True
Jehovah's Witnesses
91
What religion gives their adherents a lot of leeway in regards to abiding by its doctrines?
5ad3c9e3604f3c001a3ff0b5
True
frequently
578
How often does Watch Tower Society put out publications nowadays?
5ad3c9e3604f3c001a3ff0b6
True
Watch Tower Society
721
In what publication was Andrew Holden's ethnographic study of Jehovah's Witnesses published?
5ad3c9e3604f3c001a3ff0b7
True
The entire Protestant canon of scripture is considered the inspired, inerrant word of God. Jehovah's Witnesses consider the Bible to be scientifically and historically accurate and reliable and interpret much of it literally, but accept parts of it as symbolic. They consider the Bible to be the final authority for all their beliefs, although sociologist Andrew Holden's ethnographic study of the religion concluded that pronouncements of the Governing Body, through Watch Tower Society publications, carry almost as much weight as the Bible. Regular personal Bible reading is frequently recommended; Witnesses are discouraged from formulating doctrines and "private ideas" reached through Bible research independent of Watch Tower Society publications, and are cautioned against reading other religious literature. Adherents are told to have "complete confidence" in the leadership, avoid skepticism about what is taught in the Watch Tower Society's literature, and "not advocate or insist on personal opinions or harbor private ideas when it comes to Bible understanding." The religion makes no provision for members to criticize or contribute to official teachings and all Witnesses must abide by its doctrines and organizational requirements.
Who do Jehovah Witnesses believe is God's only direct creation?
5732480e0fdd8d15006c68e1
Jesus
33
False
What was Jesus a ransom sacrifice to pay for?
5732480e0fdd8d15006c68e2
the sins of humanity
288
False
What do Jehovah Witnesses believe Jesus died on rather than a traditional cross?
5732480e0fdd8d15006c68e3
a single upright post
337
False
Jesus is considered to be the only what between God and humanity?
5732480e0fdd8d15006c68e4
intercessor and high priest
550
False
What biblical passage outlines Jesus' role as a mediator?
5732480e0fdd8d15006c68e5
1 Timothy 2:5
702
False
Jehovah's Witnesses
0
What Christian religion believes Jesus died on a cross?
5ad3cb49604f3c001a3ff0ff
True
everything
75
What do Catholics think God created?
5ad3cb49604f3c001a3ff100
True
Jesus
508
Who do Catholics think Archangel Michael is?
5ad3cb49604f3c001a3ff101
True
Jehovah's Witnesses
0
Which religion believes people are free of original sin?
5ad3cb49604f3c001a3ff102
True
Jesus
508
Who do Catholics think Abaddon is?
5ad3cb49604f3c001a3ff103
True
Jehovah's Witnesses believe that Jesus is God's only direct creation, that everything else was created by means of Christ, and that the initial unassisted act of creation uniquely identifies Jesus as God's "only-begotten Son". Jesus served as a redeemer and a ransom sacrifice to pay for the sins of humanity. They believe Jesus died on a single upright post rather than the traditional cross. They believe that references in the Bible to the Archangel Michael, Abaddon (Apollyon), and the Word all refer to Jesus. Jesus is considered to be the only intercessor and high priest between God and humanity, and appointed by God as the king and judge of his kingdom. His role as a mediator (referred to in 1 Timothy 2:5) is applied to the 'anointed' class, though the 'other sheep' are said to also benefit from the arrangement.
Jehovah Witnesses believe who will go to heaven?
573248e50fdd8d15006c68f5
a "little flock"
23
False
Where will God resurrected the "other sheep" after Armageddon?
573248e50fdd8d15006c68f6
a cleansed earth
164
False
Jehovah Witnesses interrupted Revelation 14:1-5 to limit heaven goers to exactly what number?
573248e50fdd8d15006c68f7
144,000
308
False
Who is the final Judge of whether Jehovah Witnesses get to survive Armageddon?
573248e50fdd8d15006c68f8
God
480
False
What will people need to study for during Christ's millennial reign?
573248e50fdd8d15006c68f9
their final test at the end of the millennium
706
False
144,000
308
How many Jehovah Witnesses exist today?
5ad3ccc7604f3c001a3ff15f
True
144,000
308
How many Christians go to heaven according to Catholics?
5ad3ccc7604f3c001a3ff160
True
144,000
308
What do most Protestant religions believe in regards to how many people get to go to heaven?
5ad3ccc7604f3c001a3ff161
True
144,000
308
How many "other sheep" get to be resurrected by God after the Armageddon according to Jehovah's Witnesses?
5ad3ccc7604f3c001a3ff162
True
Witnesses believe that a "little flock" go to heaven, but that the hope for life after death for the majority of "other sheep" involves being resurrected by God to a cleansed earth after Armageddon. They interpret Revelation 14:1–5 to mean that the number of Christians going to heaven is limited to exactly 144,000, who will rule with Jesus as kings and priests over earth. Jehovah's Witnesses teach that only they meet scriptural requirements for surviving Armageddon, but that God is the final judge. During Christ's millennial reign, most people who died prior to Armageddon will be resurrected with the prospect of living forever; they will be taught the proper way to worship God to prepare them for their final test at the end of the millennium.
What do Jehovah Witnesses believe of God's kingdom?
5732499de99e3014001e6648
a literal government in heaven
50
False
Who rules with Jesus Christ in heaven according to Jehovah Witnesses?
5732499de99e3014001e6649
144,000 "spirit-anointed" Christians
108
False
What do the Jehovah Witnesses believe God will use the kingdom in heaven for?
5732499de99e3014001e664a
accomplish his original purpose for the earth
284
False
What will the Earth be transformed into?
5732499de99e3014001e664b
a paradise without sickness or death
352
False
When do Jehovah Witnesses believe the kingdom of heaven was established?
5732499de99e3014001e664c
1914
513
False
144,000
108
How many Jehovah's Witnesses were there in 1914?
5ad3ce5a604f3c001a3ff1bf
True
144,000
108
How many Jehovah's Witnesses are there now?
5ad3ce5a604f3c001a3ff1c0
True
144,000
108
How many Jehovah's Witnesses get to serve as Jesus's reps on Earth at any given time?
5ad3ce5a604f3c001a3ff1c1
True
144,000
108
How many people will get to live in a paradise free of sickness and death according to Jehovah's Witnesses?
5ad3ce5a604f3c001a3ff1c2
True
Jehovah's Witnesses believe that God's kingdom is a literal government in heaven, ruled by Jesus Christ and 144,000 "spirit-anointed" Christians drawn from the earth, which they associate with Jesus' reference to a "new covenant". The kingdom is viewed as the means by which God will accomplish his original purpose for the earth, transforming it into a paradise without sickness or death. It is said to have been the focal point of Jesus' ministry on earth. They believe the kingdom was established in heaven in 1914, and that Jehovah's Witnesses serve as representatives of the kingdom on earth.
One of Jehovah Witnesses' central teachings is that the world entered into its last days at what year?
57324a340fdd8d15006c690f
1914
123
False
What do Jehovah Witnesses consider all other present day religions to be?
57324a340fdd8d15006c6910
false
318
False
Who do Jehovah Witnesses think is out to destroy them?
57324a340fdd8d15006c6911
the United Nations
451
False
Who needs to attack Jehovah Witnesses for God to begin the war of Armageddon?
57324a340fdd8d15006c6912
Satan
647
False
What will be the end result of God's kingdom?
57324a340fdd8d15006c6913
a fully tested, glorified human race
1527
False
1914
123
In what year was the United Nations formed?
5ad3d06e604f3c001a3ff1e1
True
heavenly kingdom
923
Where does everyone go who isn't destroyed along with Satan and his demons?
5ad3d06e604f3c001a3ff1e2
True
1914
123
In what year did the Jehovah's Witnesses religion get formed?
5ad3d06e604f3c001a3ff1e3
True
17
574
How many demons will Satan be leading?
5ad3d06e604f3c001a3ff1e4
True
fully tested, glorified human
1529
What happens to those who died during God's intervention?
5ad3d06e604f3c001a3ff1e5
True
A central teaching of Jehovah's Witnesses is that the current world era, or "system of things", entered the "last days" in 1914 and faces imminent destruction through intervention by God and Jesus Christ, leading to deliverance for those who worship God acceptably. They consider all other present-day religions to be false, identifying them with "Babylon the Great", or the "harlot", of Revelation 17, and believe that they will soon be destroyed by the United Nations, which they believe is represented in scripture by the scarlet-colored wild beast of Revelation chapter 17. This development will mark the beginning of the "great tribulation". Satan will subsequently attack Jehovah's Witnesses, an action that will prompt God to begin the war of Armageddon, during which all forms of government and all people not counted as Christ's "sheep", or true followers, will be destroyed. After Armageddon, God will extend his heavenly kingdom to include earth, which will be transformed into a paradise similar to the Garden of Eden. After Armageddon, most of those who had died before God's intervention will gradually be resurrected during "judgment day" lasting for one thousand years. This judgment will be based on their actions after resurrection rather than past deeds. At the end of the thousand years, Christ will hand all authority back to God. Then a final test will take place when Satan is released to mislead perfect mankind. Those who fail will be destroyed, along with Satan and his demons. The end result will be a fully tested, glorified human race.
On what date do Jehovah Witnesses believe Jesus Christ began his rule as a king in God's kingdom?
57324b00e99e3014001e6652
October 1914
98
False
What happened to Satan when Jesus started his rule?
57324b00e99e3014001e6653
ousted from heaven
144
False
How do Jehovah Witnesses believe that Jesus rules?
57324b00e99e3014001e6654
invisibly
239
False
How is the Greek word parousia translated when referring to Christ?
57324b00e99e3014001e6655
"coming"
388
False
When will Jesus' presence end?
57324b00e99e3014001e6656
when he comes to bring a final judgment
563
False
October
98
In what month of 1914 was Satan tossed out of heaven?
5ad3d222604f3c001a3ff233
True
parousia
357
What do most Greek scholars think "presence" translates to in Greek?
5ad3d222604f3c001a3ff234
True
invisibly
239
How do Jehovah's Witnesses think Satan appears to people on Earth since 1914?
5ad3d222604f3c001a3ff235
True
unknown
478
When do Jehovah's Witnesses now think Armageddon is going to strike?
5ad3d222604f3c001a3ff236
True
Jehovah's Witnesses believe that Jesus Christ began to rule in heaven as king of God's kingdom in October 1914, and that Satan was subsequently ousted from heaven to the earth, resulting in "woe" to humanity. They believe that Jesus rules invisibly, from heaven, perceived only as a series of "signs". They base this belief on a rendering of the Greek word parousia—usually translated as "coming" when referring to Christ—as "presence". They believe Jesus' presence includes an unknown period beginning with his inauguration as king in heaven in 1914, and ending when he comes to bring a final judgment against humans on earth. They thus depart from the mainstream Christian belief that the "second coming" of Matthew 24 refers to a single moment of arrival on earth to judge humans.
Where do Jehovah Witnesses meet for worship and study?
57324bd1b9d445190005e9db
Kingdom Halls
43
False
How are Jehovah Witnesses assigned to congregations?
57324bd1b9d445190005e9dc
"territory" they usually reside
191
False
What do Jehovah Witnesses refer to their weekly services as?
57324bd1b9d445190005e9dd
meetings
268
False
How often did Jehovah Witnesses congregations meet prior to 2009?
57324bd1b9d445190005e9de
three times each week
779
False
What are Jehovah Witnesses' gatherings opened and closed with?
57324bd1b9d445190005e9df
songs (hymns) and brief prayers
953
False
two
567
How many witnesses are there at each Kingdom Hall?
5ad3d334604f3c001a3ff275
True
five
601
How many "circuits" are there of Kingdom Halls?
5ad3d334604f3c001a3ff276
True
study of Watch Tower Society literature
351
What takes place during "family worship" typically?
5ad3d334604f3c001a3ff277
True
five
601
How many regular meetings does each Kingdom Hall have during the Jehovah's Witnesses annual three-day "regional convention"?
5ad3d334604f3c001a3ff278
True
two
567
Prior to 2009 how many Kingdom Hall meeting were held during the weekends?
5ad3d334604f3c001a3ff279
True
Meetings for worship and study are held at Kingdom Halls, which are typically functional in character, and do not contain religious symbols. Witnesses are assigned to a congregation in whose "territory" they usually reside and attend weekly services they refer to as "meetings" as scheduled by congregation elders. The meetings are largely devoted to study of Watch Tower Society literature and the Bible. The format of the meetings is established by the religion's headquarters, and the subject matter for most meetings is the same worldwide. Congregations meet for two sessions each week comprising five distinct meetings that total about three-and-a-half hours, typically gathering mid-week (three meetings) and on the weekend (two meetings). Prior to 2009, congregations met three times each week; these meetings were condensed, with the intention that members dedicate an evening for "family worship". Gatherings are opened and closed with kingdom songs (hymns) and brief prayers. Twice each year, Witnesses from a number of congregations that form a "circuit" gather for a one-day assembly. Larger groups of congregations meet once a year for a three-day "regional convention", usually at rented stadiums or auditoriums. Their most important and solemn event is the commemoration of the "Lord's Evening Meal", or "Memorial of Christ's Death" on the date of the Jewish Passover.
What are Jehovah Witnesses probably best known for by outsiders?
57324c9fe99e3014001e6670
their efforts to spread their beliefs
47
False
How many languages is the Watch Tower Society literature published in?
57324c9fe99e3014001e6671
700
203
False
What is the objective of Jehovah Witnesses' door to door ministry?
57324c9fe99e3014001e6672
start a regular "Bible study"
238
False
When are Jehovah Witnesses advised to discontinue Bibles studies with students?
57324c9fe99e3014001e6673
show no interest in becoming members
467
False
What are baptized members who fail to report a month of preaching termed as?
57324c9fe99e3014001e6674
irregular
806
False
700
203
How many doors does the average Jehovah's Witnesses knock on each month?
5ad3d5d6604f3c001a3ff2df
True
show no interest in becoming members
467
What do most people do when a Jehovah's Witness knocks on their door?
5ad3d5d6604f3c001a3ff2e0
True
may be counseled by elders
821
What happens to a Jehovah's Witness that is determined to be "inactive"?
5ad3d5d6604f3c001a3ff2e1
True
700
203
How many people are baptized as a Jehovah's Witness each year?
5ad3d5d6604f3c001a3ff2e2
True
Jehovah's Witnesses are perhaps best known for their efforts to spread their beliefs, most notably by visiting people from house to house, distributing literature published by the Watch Tower Society in 700 languages. The objective is to start a regular "Bible study" with any person who is not already a member, with the intention that the student be baptized as a member of the group; Witnesses are advised to consider discontinuing Bible studies with students who show no interest in becoming members. Witnesses are taught they are under a biblical command to engage in public preaching. They are instructed to devote as much time as possible to their ministry and are required to submit an individual monthly "Field Service Report". Baptized members who fail to report a month of preaching are termed "irregular" and may be counseled by elders; those who do not submit reports for six consecutive months are termed "inactive".
What is Jehovah Witnesses' view of divorce?
57324d2ae99e3014001e6684
discouraged
11
False
What is an acceptable grounds for divorce for a Jehovah Witness?
57324d2ae99e3014001e6685
adultery
99
False
What do Jehovah Witnesses considered remarriage when the reason for divorce wasn't adultery?
57324d2ae99e3014001e6686
adulterous
228
False
Jehovah Witnesses will allow what in the event of extreme physical abuse or absolute endangerment of spirituality?
57324d2ae99e3014001e6687
legal separation
488
False
forbidden
42
What is remarriage considered as by most modern Protestant people?
5ad3d773604f3c001a3ff345
True
Divorce
0
If a person suffers extreme physical abuse by their spouse what do most Protestant religions allow for?
5ad3d773604f3c001a3ff346
True
Divorce
0
In most Christian religions willfully non-supporting one's family will result in what?
5ad3d773604f3c001a3ff347
True
the prior spouse has died
246
When is remarriage encouraged by Jehovah's Witnesses?
5ad3d773604f3c001a3ff348
True
Divorce is discouraged, and remarriage is forbidden unless a divorce is obtained on the grounds of adultery, which they refer to as "a scriptural divorce". If a divorce is obtained for any other reason, remarriage is considered adulterous unless the prior spouse has died or is since considered to have committed sexual immorality. Extreme physical abuse, willful non-support of one's family, and what the religion terms "absolute endangerment of spirituality" are considered grounds for legal separation.
Who administers formal discipline?
57324dcce17f3d1400422819
congregation elders
37
False
What is formed when a baptized member is accused of doing something serious enough for Jehovah Witnesses to take notice?
57324dcce17f3d140042281a
a judicial committee
220
False
What is the strongest form of discipline the Jehovah Witnesses' judicial committee can render?
57324dcce17f3d140042281b
Disfellowshipping
320
False
What are Jehovah Witnesses taught that avoiding social and spiritual interaction with disfellowshipped individuals does?
57324dcce17f3d140042281c
keeps the congregation free from immoral influence
825
False
What do Jehovah Witnesses describe anyone who formally resign from the church as?
57324dcce17f3d140042281d
wicked
1242
False
shunning
349
How is informal discipline meted out by Jehovah's Witnesses?
5ad3d929604f3c001a3ff393
True
Disfellowshipping
320
What happens if an unbaptized member, due to age, is accused of committing a serious sin?
5ad3d929604f3c001a3ff394
True
direct family members living in the same home
500
Who do members that disassociate from Witnesses get to continue interacting with?
5ad3d929604f3c001a3ff395
True
temporarily
1600
How long does Marking last if someone has willfully violated a Bible principle but didn't commit a serious sin?
5ad3d929604f3c001a3ff396
True
Formal discipline is administered by congregation elders. When a baptized member is accused of committing a serious sin—usually cases of sexual misconduct or charges of apostasy for disputing Jehovah's Witness doctrines—a judicial committee is formed to determine guilt, provide help and possibly administer discipline. Disfellowshipping, a form of shunning, is the strongest form of discipline, administered to an offender deemed unrepentant. Contact with disfellowshipped individuals is limited to direct family members living in the same home, and with congregation elders who may invite disfellowshipped persons to apply for reinstatement; formal business dealings may continue if contractually or financially obliged. Witnesses are taught that avoiding social and spiritual interaction with disfellowshipped individuals keeps the congregation free from immoral influence and that "losing precious fellowship with loved ones may help [the shunned individual] to come 'to his senses,' see the seriousness of his wrong, and take steps to return to Jehovah." The practice of shunning may also serve to deter other members from dissident behavior. Members who disassociate (formally resign) are described in Watch Tower Society literature as wicked and are also shunned. Expelled individuals may eventually be reinstated to the congregation if deemed repentant by elders in the congregation in which the disfellowshipping was enforced. Reproof is a lesser form of discipline given formally by a judicial committee to a baptized Witness who is considered repentant of serious sin; the reproved person temporarily loses conspicuous privileges of service, but suffers no restriction of social or spiritual fellowship. Marking, a curtailing of social but not spiritual fellowship, is practiced if a baptized member persists in a course of action regarded as a violation of Bible principles but not a serious sin.[note 4]
Why do Jehovah Witnesses believe the Bible condemns mixing of religions?
57324e7a0fdd8d15006c694b
can only be one truth from God
101
False
What do Jehovah Witnesses believe is true of their religion and their religion alone?
57324e7a0fdd8d15006c694c
represents true Christianity
229
False
What are Jehovah Witnesses taught it's vital to remain?
57324e7a0fdd8d15006c694d
"separate from the world."
415
False
What does Jehovah Witnesses define the "world" to mean?
57324e7a0fdd8d15006c694e
"the mass of mankind apart from Jehovah's approved servants"
491
False
What are Jehovah Witnesses taught association with worldly people presents to their faith?
57324e7a0fdd8d15006c694f
danger
686
False
Jehovah's Witnesses
0
What Protestant religion is open to talking with outsiders?
5ad3dacc604f3c001a3ff3c5
True
Jehovah's Witnesses
0
What Protestant religion encourage interacting with the broader world?
5ad3dacc604f3c001a3ff3c6
True
Jehovah's Witnesses
0
What Protestant group is fine with the mixing of religions?
5ad3dacc604f3c001a3ff3c7
True
Jehovah's Witnesses
0
What Protestant group thinks there can be many truths from God?
5ad3dacc604f3c001a3ff3c8
True
Jehovah's Witnesses believe that the Bible condemns the mixing of religions, on the basis that there can only be one truth from God, and therefore reject interfaith and ecumenical movements. They believe that only their religion represents true Christianity, and that other religions fail to meet all the requirements set by God and will soon be destroyed. Jehovah's Witnesses are taught that it is vital to remain "separate from the world." The Witnesses' literature defines the "world" as "the mass of mankind apart from Jehovah's approved servants" and teach that it is morally contaminated and ruled by Satan. Witnesses are taught that association with "worldly" people presents a "danger" to their faith, and are instructed to minimize social contact with non-members to better maintain their own standards of morality.
Who is king of God's kingdom in heaven?
57324f0de99e3014001e6696
Christ
135
False
What do Jehovah Witnesses remain politically?
57324f0de99e3014001e6697
neutral
175
False
What are Jehovah Witnesses discouraged from doing?
57324f0de99e3014001e6698
voting
236
False
Why do Jehovah Witnesses forego religious holidays and birthdays or other celebrations?
57324f0de99e3014001e6699
they consider to honor people other than Jesus
596
False
What do Jehovah Witnesses feel all the traditional holidays reflect?
57324f0de99e3014001e669a
Satan's control over the world
813
False
Jehovah's Witnesses
0
What Protestant group encourages their members to celebrate Easter?
5ad3dbad604f3c001a3ff3cd
True
Jehovah's Witnesses
0
What Protestant religion encourages members to vote in elections?
5ad3dbad604f3c001a3ff3ce
True
Jehovah's Witnesses
0
What is one of the Protestant religions that thinks it's fun to celebrate their kid's birthdays?
5ad3dbad604f3c001a3ff3cf
True
Jehovah's Witnesses
0
What is one of the Protestant religions that thinks celebrating things other than Jesus are ok?
5ad3dbad604f3c001a3ff3d0
True
Jehovah's Witnesses
0
What is one of the Protestant religions that enjoys celebrating Christmas with one another?
5ad3dbad604f3c001a3ff3d1
True
Jehovah's Witnesses believe their highest allegiance belongs to God's kingdom, which is viewed as an actual government in heaven, with Christ as king. They remain politically neutral, do not seek public office, and are discouraged from voting, though individual members may participate in uncontroversial community improvement issues. Although they do not take part in politics, they respect the authority of the governments under which they live. They do not celebrate religious holidays such as Christmas and Easter, nor do they observe birthdays, nationalistic holidays, or other celebrations they consider to honor people other than Jesus. They feel that these and many other customs have pagan origins or reflect a nationalistic or political spirit. Their position is that these traditional holidays reflect Satan's control over the world. Witnesses are told that spontaneous giving at other times can help their children to not feel deprived of birthdays or other celebrations.
What industries do Jehovah Witnesses avoid working in?
57324fb3e17f3d140042283f
associated with the military
31
False
What may a Jehovah Witnesses' refusal to serve in the natural military service result in, in some countries?
57324fb3e17f3d1400422840
their arrest and imprisonment
173
False
What do Jehovah Witnesses see themselves as, which transcends national boundaries and ethnic loyalties?
57324fb3e17f3d1400422841
a worldwide brotherhood
336
False
What profession is Ronald Lawson?
57324fb3e17f3d1400422842
Sociologist
418
False
What does Lawson suggest has contributed to the consistency of the sense of urgency in Jehovah Witnesses' apocalyptic message?
57324fb3e17f3d1400422843
intellectual and organizational isolation
473
False
Sociologist Ronald Lawson
418
Who is one of the most prominent outside supporters of Witnesses?
5ad3dd42604f3c001a3ff437
True
Sociologist Ronald Lawson
418
Who suggested that Jehovah's Witnesses live socially healthy lives free of paranoia about others not of their religion?
5ad3dd42604f3c001a3ff438
True
Jehovah's Witnesses
298
What religion is Sociologist Ronald Lawson?
5ad3dd42604f3c001a3ff439
True
Jehovah's Witnesses
298
What is one of the Protestant religion which is fine with their members joining the military?
5ad3dd42604f3c001a3ff43a
True
salute or pledge allegiance to flags
216
What are United Methodists allowed to do?
5ad3dd42604f3c001a3ff43b
True
They do not work in industries associated with the military, do not serve in the armed services, and refuse national military service, which in some countries may result in their arrest and imprisonment. They do not salute or pledge allegiance to flags or sing national anthems or patriotic songs. Jehovah's Witnesses see themselves as a worldwide brotherhood that transcends national boundaries and ethnic loyalties. Sociologist Ronald Lawson has suggested the religion's intellectual and organizational isolation, coupled with the intense indoctrination of adherents, rigid internal discipline and considerable persecution, has contributed to the consistency of its sense of urgency in its apocalyptic message.
What biblical passage informs Jehovah Witnesses' refusal of blood transfusions?
5732503ee17f3d1400422849
Acts 15:28, 29
125
False
What is grounds for expulsion from Jehovah Witnesses, since 1961?
5732503ee17f3d140042284a
willing acceptance of a blood transfusion
177
False
What do Jehovah Witnesses accept in lieu of blood transfusions?
5732503ee17f3d140042284b
non-blood alternatives
409
False
What does Jehovah Witnesses' literature provide about non-blood medical procedures?
5732503ee17f3d140042284c
information
522
False
Jehovah's Witnesses
0
What is one of the Protestant religions who don't see blood transfusions as a big deal?
5ad3de00604f3c001a3ff44b
True
1961
168
When was the first non-blood alternative developed for blood transfusions?
5ad3de00604f3c001a3ff44c
True
1961
168
How many Jehovah's Witnesses have died in the past decade due to their refusal of blood transfusions?
5ad3de00604f3c001a3ff44d
True
1961
168
How many Jehovah's Witnesses have been expelled in the past decade for accepting a blood transfusion?
5ad3de00604f3c001a3ff44e
True
Jehovah's Witnesses refuse blood transfusions, which they consider a violation of God's law based on their interpretation of Acts 15:28, 29 and other scriptures. Since 1961 the willing acceptance of a blood transfusion by an unrepentant member has been grounds for expulsion from the religion. Members are directed to refuse blood transfusions, even in "a life-or-death situation". Jehovah's Witnesses accept non-blood alternatives and other medical procedures in lieu of blood transfusions, and their literature provides information about non-blood medical procedures.
What are Jehovah Witnesses allowed to accept at their discretion?
573251740fdd8d15006c6985
blood plasma fractions
97
False
What pre-formatted durable power of attorney documents are provided by the Watch Tower Society to prohibit?
573251740fdd8d15006c6986
major blood components
240
False
What can Jehovah's Witnesses' members specify on the canned legal forms from the WTS?
573251740fdd8d15006c6987
allowable fractions and treatments they will personally accept
299
False
What cooperative arrangement did Jehovah's Witnesses establish?
573251740fdd8d15006c6988
Hospital Liaison Committees
400
False
The Hospital Liaison Committees serve to bridge between hospitals, medical professionals and who?
573251740fdd8d15006c6989
individual Jehovah's Witnesses
465
False
Jehovah's Witnesses
7
What is one of the Protestant religions who are fine with blood transfusions?
5ad3dfe2604f3c001a3ff499
True
Watch Tower Society
149
Who decides what the limit is for allowable fractions of blood plasma fractions?
5ad3dfe2604f3c001a3ff49a
True
medical professionals
500
What is one of the career paths many Jehovah's Witnesses choose to take?
5ad3dfe2604f3c001a3ff49b
True
Watch Tower Society
149
Who do most Witnesses get guidance from in regards to how much blood plasma fractions they are willing to accept?
5ad3dfe2604f3c001a3ff49c
True
Though Jehovah's Witnesses do not accept blood transfusions of whole blood, they may accept some blood plasma fractions at their own discretion. The Watch Tower Society provides pre-formatted durable power of attorney documents prohibiting major blood components, in which members can specify which allowable fractions and treatments they will personally accept. Jehovah's Witnesses have established Hospital Liaison Committees as a cooperative arrangement between individual Jehovah's Witnesses and medical professionals and hospitals.
What term do Jehovah's Witnesses use for members actively involved in preaching?
573254560fdd8d15006c69bd
publishers
72
False
How many publishers did the Jehovah's Witnesses have as of August 2015?
573254560fdd8d15006c69be
8.2 million
60
False
How many congregations did the Jehovah's Witnesses have in 2015?
573254560fdd8d15006c69bf
118,016
147
False
Over how many hours had Jehovah's Witnesses spent preaching and in "Bible study" activity in 2015?
573254560fdd8d15006c69c0
1.93 billion
208
False
What do Jehovah's Witnesses their worldwide growth rate to be?
573254560fdd8d15006c69c1
1.5% per year
593
False
8.2 million
60
How many preaching members of the Witnesses are there in the United States?
5ad3e0a5604f3c001a3ff4d3
True
9.7 million
431
How many children were involved in "Bible studies" in 2015?
5ad3e0a5604f3c001a3ff4d4
True
1.5%
593
How fast was Jehovah's Witnesses growing in the mid-1990s per year?
5ad3e0a5604f3c001a3ff4d5
True
1.93 billion hours
208
How much time was spent in just preaching time since 2015?
5ad3e0a5604f3c001a3ff4d6
True
1.93 billion hours
208
How much time was spent in just "Bible study" since 2015?
5ad3e0a5604f3c001a3ff4d7
True
As of August 2015, Jehovah's Witnesses report an average of 8.2 million publishers—the term they use for members actively involved in preaching—in 118,016 congregations. In 2015, these reports indicated over 1.93 billion hours spent in preaching and "Bible study" activity. Since the mid-1990s, the number of peak publishers has increased from 4.5 million to 8.2 million. In the same year, they conducted "Bible studies" with over 9.7 million individuals, including those conducted by Witness parents with their children. Jehovah's Witnesses estimate their current worldwide growth rate to be 1.5% per year.
Where do the officially published membership statistics come from?
573254dab9d445190005ea43
those who submit reports for their personal ministry
90
False
Only about half all Jehovah's Witnesses are actually considered what in the faith itself?
573254dab9d445190005ea44
active
395
False
What did a 2008 US Pew Forum on Religion & Public Life survey discover about Jehovah's Witnesses' retention rate?
573254dab9d445190005ea45
low
486
False
Only about what percentage of the people raised in the religion continue to identify themselves as Jehovah's Witnesses?
573254dab9d445190005ea46
37%
542
False
37%
542
According to a 2008 US Pew Forum report how many Protestants identify as still active in the faith they grew up in?
5ad3e16d604f3c001a3ff50f
True
37%
542
What percentage of people who join the Jehovah's Witnesses as an adult end up being considered as inactive?
5ad3e16d604f3c001a3ff510
True
37%
542
What percentage of Jehovah's Witnesses end up getting disfellowshipped?
5ad3e16d604f3c001a3ff511
True
2008
427
In what year did US Pew Forum issue their first Religion & Public Life survey?
5ad3e16d604f3c001a3ff512
True
The official published membership statistics, such as those mentioned above, include only those who submit reports for their personal ministry; official statistics do not include inactive and disfellowshipped individuals or others who might attend their meetings. As a result, only about half of those who self-identified as Jehovah's Witnesses in independent demographic studies are considered active by the faith itself. The 2008 US Pew Forum on Religion & Public Life survey found a low retention rate among members of the religion: about 37% of people raised in the religion continued to identify themselves as Jehovah's Witnesses.
What is the profession of James A. Beckford?
57325556e99e3014001e66ce
Sociologist
0
False
When did Beckford study the Jehovah's Witnesses?
57325556e99e3014001e66cf
1975
38
False
What did Beckford classify the Jehovah's Witnesses organizational structure as being?
57325556e99e3014001e66d0
Totalizing
127
False
What is the conviction that Jehovah's Witness leaders dispense absolute truth?
57325556e99e3014001e66d1
absolutism
748
False
What is the term for Jehovah's Witnesses' rejection of certain secular requirements and medical treatments?
57325556e99e3014001e66d2
world indifference
1081
False
Sociologist James A. Beckford
0
Who issued a positive report about Jehovah's Witnesses in 1975?
5ad3e255604f3c001a3ff52b
True
Sociologist
0
What is a profession that Jehovah's Witnesses aren't allowed to do?
5ad3e255604f3c001a3ff52c
True
1975
38
When was the last time there was a doctrinal change for Jehovah's Witnesses?
5ad3e255604f3c001a3ff52d
True
1975
38
In what year did James A. Beckford graduate from college?
5ad3e255604f3c001a3ff52e
True
Sociologist James A. Beckford
0
Who claimed there was a low rate of turnover among Jehovah's Witnesses?
5ad3e255604f3c001a3ff52f
True
Sociologist James A. Beckford, in his 1975 study of Jehovah's Witnesses, classified the religion's organizational structure as Totalizing, characterized by an assertive leadership, specific and narrow objectives, control over competing demands on members' time and energy, and control over the quality of new members. Other characteristics of the classification include likelihood of friction with secular authorities, reluctance to co-operate with other religious organizations, a high rate of membership turnover, a low rate of doctrinal change, and strict uniformity of beliefs among members. Beckford identified the religion's chief characteristics as historicism (identifying historical events as relating to the outworking of God's purpose), absolutism (conviction that Jehovah's Witness leaders dispense absolute truth), activism (capacity to motivate members to perform missionary tasks), rationalism (conviction that Witness doctrines have a rational basis devoid of mystery), authoritarianism (rigid presentation of regulations without the opportunity for criticism) and world indifference (rejection of certain secular requirements and medical treatments).
Jehovah's Witnesses in the United States ranked highest in people whose education extended no further than what?
57325603b9d445190005ea55
high school graduation
169
False
Compared to other religions, Jehovah's Witnesses have the highest frequency of doing what with the Bible outside of religious services?
57325603b9d445190005ea56
reading
322
False
What religion ranks highest in frequency of religious attendance?
57325603b9d445190005ea57
Jehovah's Witnesses
71
False
Statistically, what is a Jehovah's Witnesses likely not to care about at all?
57325603b9d445190005ea58
politics
698
False
What do few Jehovah's Witnesses earn?
57325603b9d445190005ea59
a graduate degree
664
False
Jehovah's Witnesses
71
The members of what religion have a lot of university degrees?
5ad3e322604f3c001a3ff549
True
Jehovah's Witnesses
71
Educational aspiration is a hallmark of what Protestant religion?
5ad3e322604f3c001a3ff54a
True
Jehovah's Witnesses
71
What is one of the Protestant religions that encourages people to be engaged in politics?
5ad3e322604f3c001a3ff54b
True
Jehovah's Witnesses
71
What is one of the Protestant religions that is realistic about the time commitment of their members to their religion?
5ad3e322604f3c001a3ff54c
True
Jehovah's Witnesses
71
What is one of the Protestant religions open to the ideas of other people?
5ad3e322604f3c001a3ff54d
True
A sociological comparative study by the Pew Research Center found that Jehovah's Witnesses in the United States ranked highest in statistics for getting no further than high school graduation, belief in God, importance of religion in one's life, frequency of religious attendance, frequency of prayers, frequency of Bible reading outside of religious services, belief their prayers are answered, belief that their religion can only be interpreted one way, belief that theirs is the only one true faith leading to eternal life, opposition to abortion, and opposition to homosexuality. In the study, Jehovah's Witnesses ranked lowest in statistics for having earned a graduate degree and interest in politics.
What has at times led to immense violence against Jehovah's Witnesses?
573256c6e17f3d14004228b5
Political and religious animosity
0
False
Why have Jehovah's Witnesses sometimes been imprisoned?
573256c6e17f3d14004228b6
doctrine of political neutrality and their refusal to serve in the military
147
False
Of the 20,000 Jehovah's Witnesses in Germany in 1933, how many were later imprisoned?
573256c6e17f3d14004228b7
10,000
453
False
What were Jehovah's Witnesses identified by in Nazi concentration camps?
573256c6e17f3d14004228b8
purple triangles
567
False
What countries ban the religious activities of Jehovah's Witnesses?
573256c6e17f3d14004228b9
China, Vietnam and some Islamic states
988
False
10,000
453
How many Jehovah's Witnesses were there in Canada at the start of World War II?
5ad3e45f604f3c001a3ff57b
True
9,300
804
How many Jehovah's Witnesses were there in the Soviet Union at the start of World War II?
5ad3e45f604f3c001a3ff57c
True
1200
596
How many Jehovah's Witnesses died in the Soviet Union during World War II?
5ad3e45f604f3c001a3ff57d
True
10,000
453
How many Jehovah's Witnesses escaped Germany during World War II?
5ad3e45f604f3c001a3ff57e
True
250
617
How many Jehovah's Witnesses are there thought to be in China today?
5ad3e45f604f3c001a3ff57f
True
Political and religious animosity against Jehovah's Witnesses has at times led to mob action and government oppression in various countries. Their doctrine of political neutrality and their refusal to serve in the military has led to imprisonment of members who refused conscription during World War II and at other times where national service has been compulsory. In 1933, there were approximately 20,000 Jehovah's Witnesses in Germany, of whom about 10,000 were later imprisoned. Of those, 2000 were sent to Nazi concentration camps, where they were identified by purple triangles; as many as 1200 died, including 250 who were executed. In Canada, Jehovah's Witnesses were interned in camps along with political dissidents and people of Chinese and Japanese descent. In the former Soviet Union, about 9,300 Jehovah's Witnesses were deported to Siberia as part of Operation North in April 1951. Their religious activities are currently banned or restricted in some countries, including China, Vietnam and some Islamic states.
Who were Jehovah's Witnesses accused of intentionally provoking in the 1930s and 1940s?
57325817b9d445190005ea67
authorities and other religions
305
False
What authors have suggested Rutherford invited and cultivated opposition for the purpose of publicity?
57325817b9d445190005ea68
Whalen, Harrison and Schnell
361
False
What did Rutherford hope to convince members about the persecution from the outside world?
57325817b9d445190005ea69
evidence of the truth of their struggle
594
False
What did Watch Tower Society literature tell Jehovah's Witnesses they should never seek?
57325817b9d445190005ea6a
controversy
738
False
What should a Jehovah's Witnesses prefer to paying fines?
57325817b9d445190005ea6b
jail
895
False
1930s
207
In what decade did author William Whalen die?
5ad3e582604f3c001a3ff5a1
True
1940s
217
In what decade did author Shawn Francis Peters die?
5ad3e582604f3c001a3ff5a2
True
Rutherford
405
What religious leader of the 1930s and 1940s would never have been suspected of using his members arrests to garner more disaffected members?
5ad3e582604f3c001a3ff5a3
True
1930s
207
In what decade did Barbara Grizzuti Harrison escape the Jehovah's Witnesses?
5ad3e582604f3c001a3ff5a4
True
1940s
217
In what decade  did Alan Rogerson get out of the Jehovah's Witnesses?
5ad3e582604f3c001a3ff5a5
True
Authors including William Whalen, Shawn Francis Peters and former Witnesses Barbara Grizzuti Harrison, Alan Rogerson and William Schnell have claimed the arrests and mob violence in the United States in the 1930s and 1940s were the consequence of what appeared to be a deliberate course of provocation of authorities and other religions by Jehovah’s Witnesses. Whalen, Harrison and Schnell have suggested Rutherford invited and cultivated opposition for publicity purposes in a bid to attract dispossessed members of society, and to convince members that persecution from the outside world was evidence of the truth of their struggle to serve God. Watch Tower Society literature of the period directed that Witnesses should "never seek a controversy" nor resist arrest, but also advised members not to co-operate with police officers or courts that ordered them to stop preaching, and to prefer jail rather than pay fines.
What did Jehovah's Witnesses persistent legal challenges result in, in the United States?
573258d2e17f3d14004228d1
reinforced judicial protections for civil liberties
114
False
What is religious conduct protected from the interference of?
573258d2e17f3d14004228d2
federal and state
290
False
What right to abstain from do Jehovah's Witnesses exercise?
573258d2e17f3d14004228d3
patriotic rituals and military service
348
False
What do patients have the right to refuse?
573258d2e17f3d14004228d4
medical treatment
420
False
Where have cases in the Jehovah's Witnesses favor been heard outside of the U.S.?
573258d2e17f3d14004228d5
Canada
532
False
United States
231
What was one of the countries that the Jehovah's Witnesses lost a bunch of civil liberties lawsuits?
5ad3e67c604f3c001a3ff5cd
True
Canada
532
Besides the US what other country has the Jehovah's Witnesses lost lawsuits about such things as the right to refuse medical treatment?
5ad3e67c604f3c001a3ff5ce
True
federal
290
Has the Witnesses won more federal or state lawsuits?
5ad3e67c604f3c001a3ff5cf
True
Canada
532
Was it in the US or Canada that Witnesses first gained the right to abstain from patriotic rituals?
5ad3e67c604f3c001a3ff5d0
True
United States
231
Was it in the US or Canada that Witnesses first gained the right to abstain from military service?
5ad3e67c604f3c001a3ff5d1
True
In the United States, their persistent legal challenges prompted a series of state and federal court rulings that reinforced judicial protections for civil liberties. Among the rights strengthened by Witness court victories in the United States are the protection of religious conduct from federal and state interference, the right to abstain from patriotic rituals and military service, the right of patients to refuse medical treatment, and the right to engage in public discourse. Similar cases in their favor have been heard in Canada.
Who establishes the doctrines of the Jehovah's Witnesses?
573259a4e99e3014001e66ec
the Governing Body
52
False
What do the Jehovah's Witnesses religion not tolerate any of?
573259a4e99e3014001e66ed
dissent
103
False
What happens to members who disagree with the religion's teachings?
573259a4e99e3014001e66ee
expelled and shunned
203
False
Why should the counsel received from the Governing Body be trusted?
573259a4e99e3014001e66ef
part of "God's organization"
386
False
Who do Jehovah's Witnesses believe introduced independent thinking?
573259a4e99e3014001e66f0
Satan the Devil
513
False
Jehovah's Witnesses
13
What religion accommodates members who question its teachings?
5ad3e772604f3c001a3ff607
True
Jehovah's Witnesses
13
What religion encourages its adherents to think critically?
5ad3e772604f3c001a3ff608
True
Jehovah's Witnesses
13
What religion treats those who want to engage in independent thinking in a loving way?
5ad3e772604f3c001a3ff609
True
Jehovah's Witnesses
13
What religion wouldn't think of expelling someone merely because they have questions about what the church teaches?
5ad3e772604f3c001a3ff60a
True
Doctrines of Jehovah's Witnesses are established by the Governing Body. The religion does not tolerate dissent over doctrines and practices; members who openly disagree with the religion's teachings are expelled and shunned. Witness publications strongly discourage followers from questioning doctrine and counsel received from the Governing Body, reasoning that it is to be trusted as part of "God's organization". It also warns members to "avoid independent thinking", claiming such thinking "was introduced by Satan the Devil" and would "cause division". Those who openly disagree with official teachings are condemned as "apostates" who are "mentally diseased".
What do former Jehovah's Witnesses members Heath and Gary Botting compare the culture of the religion to?
57325b9fe99e3014001e670a
Orwell's Nineteen Eighty-four
97
False
Who describes the Jehovah's Witnesses' leadership as being totalitarian?
57325b9fe99e3014001e670b
Alan Rogerson
132
False
How do the leaders of the Jehovah's Witnesses cultivate a system of unquestioning obedience?
57325b9fe99e3014001e670c
disparaging individual decision-making
228
False
What do critics of the Jehovah's Witnesses accuse the religion's leaders of exercising over members?
57325b9fe99e3014001e670d
"intellectual dominance"
479
False
What did former Governing Body member Raymond Franz argue the methods employed by the religion were all elements of?
57325b9fe99e3014001e670e
mind control
654
False
George Orwell
90
Who was the first totalitarian in charge of a nation?
5ad3e86a604f3c001a3ff64f
True
Gary Botting
27
Who was the first leader of the Witnesses?
5ad3e86a604f3c001a3ff650
True
Raymond Franz
612
Who was one of the people that argued the Witnesses make people abrogate all responsibilities and rights over their personal lives?
5ad3e86a604f3c001a3ff651
True
Raymond Franz
612
Who got out of the Witnesses first, Alan Rogerson or Raymond Franz?
5ad3e86a604f3c001a3ff652
True
Heather
15
Who between Heather and Gary Botting first wanted out of the Witnesses?
5ad3e86a604f3c001a3ff653
True
Former members Heather and Gary Botting compare the cultural paradigms of the religion to George Orwell's Nineteen Eighty-four, and Alan Rogerson describes the religion's leadership as totalitarian. Other critics charge that by disparaging individual decision-making, the religion's leaders cultivate a system of unquestioning obedience in which Witnesses abrogate all responsibility and rights over their personal lives. Critics also accuse the religion's leaders of exercising "intellectual dominance" over Witnesses, controlling information and creating "mental isolation", which former Governing Body member Raymond Franz argued were all elements of mind control.
What profession did Rodney Stark grow up to become?
57325c2fe99e3014001e6714
Sociologist
0
False
What statement does Stark make about the leaders of the Jehovah's Witnesses?
57325c2fe99e3014001e6715
"not always very democratic"
67
False
How do Jehovah's Witnesses see themselves in regards to the power structure of the church?
57325c2fe99e3014001e6716
"part of the power structure rather than subject to it."
330
False
Another Sociologist, Andrew Holden, feels anyone who joins a movement such as the Jehovah's Witnesses has made a what?
57325c2fe99e3014001e6717
informed choice
510
False
Holden acknowledges that defectors are seldom allowed a what from the church?
57325c2fe99e3014001e6718
dignified exit
588
False
Sociologist Rodney Stark
0
Who described the Jehovah's Witnesses as a relatively democratic organization?
5ad3ea0d604f3c001a3ff6bd
True
Sociologist Rodney Stark
0
Who said that it was formal rules that kept people in line in the Jehovah's Witnesses?
5ad3ea0d604f3c001a3ff6be
True
Sociologist Andrew Holden
387
Who wrote that the majority of people joining the Witnesses are making a pretty uninformed choice?
5ad3ea0d604f3c001a3ff6bf
True
Sociologist Andrew Holden
387
Who wrote that people leaving religious groups like the Witnesses are allowed a dignified exit?
5ad3ea0d604f3c001a3ff6c0
True
Andrew Holden
399
Which sociologist said that the Witnesses are on the whole a democratic organization?
5ad3ea0d604f3c001a3ff6c1
True
Sociologist Rodney Stark states that Jehovah's Witness leaders are "not always very democratic" and that members "are expected to conform to rather strict standards," but adds that "enforcement tends to be very informal, sustained by the close bonds of friendship within the group", and that Jehovah's Witnesses see themselves as "part of the power structure rather than subject to it." Sociologist Andrew Holden states that most members who join millenarian movements such as Jehovah's Witnesses have made an informed choice. However, he also states that defectors "are seldom allowed a dignified exit", and describes the administration as autocratic.
What is the New World Translation the most accurate translation of?
57325e6d0fdd8d15006c6a41
the Bibles most widely in use in the English-speaking world
44
False
What do many Bible scholars assume the differences in the New World Translation are the result of?
57325e6d0fdd8d15006c6a42
religious bias
427
False
BeDuhn clarifies that the differences are actually due to what?
57325e6d0fdd8d15006c6a43
greater accuracy
529
False
The NW often errs on the side of what type of translation?
57325e6d0fdd8d15006c6a44
literal, conservative
561
False
What insertion into the New Testament violates accuracy in favor of denominationally preferred expressions?
57325e6d0fdd8d15006c6a45
Jehovah
702
False
New World Translation
217
Which Bible doesn't insert Jehovah too often as the word for God?
5ad3eb39604f3c001a3ff70b
True
New World Translation
217
What is regarded as the least accurate translation of the Bible in the world among the nine main ones?
5ad3eb39604f3c001a3ff70c
True
Northern Arizona University
172
What university did Bible scholar Jason BeDuhn get his degree from?
5ad3eb39604f3c001a3ff70d
True
Jason
120
Who was one of the New Testament Writers?
5ad3eb39604f3c001a3ff70e
True
On the other hand, in his study on nine of "the Bibles most widely in use in the English-speaking world", Bible scholar Jason BeDuhn, Professor of Religious Studies at the Northern Arizona University, wrote: “The NW [New World Translation] emerges as the most accurate of the translations compared.” Although the general public and many Bible scholars assume that the differences in the New World Translation are the result of religious bias on the part of its translators, BeDuhn stated: “Most of the differences are due to the greater accuracy of the NW as a literal, conservative translation of the original expressions of the New Testament writers.” He added however that the insertion of the name Jehovah in the New Testament "violate[s] accuracy in favor of denominationally preferred expressions for God".
Who do Watch Tower Society publications claim God has used?
57326236e17f3d140042291f
Jehovah's Witnesses
64
False
What does God use Jehovah's Witnesses for?
57326236e17f3d1400422920
to declare his will
133
False
What has God provided to Jehovah's Witnesses?
57326236e17f3d1400422921
advance knowledge about Armageddon
170
False
What have various Jehovah's Witnesses' publications made predictions about?
57326236e17f3d1400422922
world events
454
False
What had some of the failed predictions of Jehovah's Witnesses been presented as?
57326236e17f3d1400422923
"beyond doubt"
636
False
Jehovah's Witnesses
294
What Protestant religion has allowed that some of their predictions may not come to pass?
5ad3ede5604f3c001a3ff7c5
True
Armageddon
194
What is one of Watch Tower Society's publications?
5ad3ede5604f3c001a3ff7c6
True
Jehovah's Witnesses
384
What is one of of the Protestant religions doesn't claim to know what is coming next?
5ad3ede5604f3c001a3ff7c7
True
Jehovah's Witnesses
294
What is one of the religions that doesn't believe in an upcoming Armageddon?
5ad3ede5604f3c001a3ff7c8
True
Watch Tower Society publications have claimed that God has used Jehovah's Witnesses (and formerly, the International Bible Students) to declare his will and has provided advance knowledge about Armageddon and the establishment of God's kingdom. Some publications also claimed that God has used Jehovah's Witnesses and the International Bible Students as a modern-day prophet.[note 5] Jehovah's Witnesses' publications have made various predictions about world events they believe were prophesied in the Bible. Failed predictions have led to the alteration or abandonment of some doctrines. Some failed predictions had been presented as "beyond doubt" or "approved by God".
What accusations does the Watch Tower Society reject?
57326324e17f3d1400422933
that it is a false prophet
44
False
What does George D. Chryssides suggest the changing views and dates of the Jehovah's Witnesses can be attributed to changed understandings of?
57326324e17f3d1400422934
biblical chronology
414
False
What profession does Andrew Holden smugly self-identify as?
57326324e17f3d1400422935
sociologist
677
False
How long ago was the foundation of the Jehovah's Witnesses movement?
57326324e17f3d1400422936
around 140 years ago
752
False
What have Jehovah's Witnesses maintained we are living on the precipice of since their formation?
57326324e17f3d1400422937
the end of time
840
False
Jehovah's Witnesses
340
What religion is George D. Chryssides?
5ad3ef3a604f3c001a3ff803
True
sociologist
677
What is George D. Chryssides occupation?
5ad3ef3a604f3c001a3ff804
True
1975
298
Since what year has Andrew Holden been a sociologist?
5ad3ef3a604f3c001a3ff805
True
1914
283
In what year was the Watch Tower Society founded?
5ad3ef3a604f3c001a3ff806
True
George D. Chryssides
204
Who argues it is foolish to not believe that the Witnesses set end dates of civilization just to get additional members?
5ad3ef3a604f3c001a3ff807
True
The Watch Tower Society rejects accusations that it is a false prophet, stating that its teachings are not inspired or infallible, and that it has not claimed its predictions were "the words of Jehovah." George D. Chryssides has suggested that with the exception of statements about 1914, 1925 and 1975, the changing views and dates of the Jehovah's Witnesses are largely attributable to changed understandings of biblical chronology than to failed predictions. Chryssides further states, "it is therefore simplistic and naïve to view the Witnesses as a group that continues to set a single end-date that fails and then devise a new one, as many counter-cultists do." However, sociologist Andrew Holden states that since the foundation of the movement around 140 years ago, "Witnesses have maintained that we are living on the precipice of the end of time."
What are Jehovah's Witnesses accused of concealing within their organization?
57326423e99e3014001e6762
sexual abuse
99
False
Whose hands should elders leave allegations of sexual abuse in when the accused person denies wrongdoing?
57326423e99e3014001e6763
Jehovah's
541
False
Who does Barbara Anderson feel the church's policy regarding sexual abuse protects?
57326423e99e3014001e6764
pedophiles
787
False
What do Jehovah's Witnesses maintain they want to protect?
57326423e99e3014001e6765
children
822
False
Jehovah's Witnesses do not sponsor activities when the result is the separation of whom?
57326423e99e3014001e6766
children from parents
1050
False
Jehovah's Witnesses
0
What religion is one of the best at protecting children from molestation?
5ad3f1ae604f3c001a3ff87f
True
pedophiles
787
Who came up with the "two witness rule" within the Jehovah's Witnesses organization?
5ad3f1ae604f3c001a3ff880
True
Deuteronomy 19:15 and Matthew 18:15-17
262
What Bible scriptures contradict the Jehovah's Witnesses views on sexual abuse?
5ad3f1ae604f3c001a3ff881
True
educating parents
965
How does Deuteronomy 19:15 describe the best way to prevent pedophilia?
5ad3f1ae604f3c001a3ff882
True
protect pedophiles rather than protect the children
779
What does Matthew 18:15-17 have to say about sexual abuse?
5ad3f1ae604f3c001a3ff883
True
Jehovah's Witnesses have been accused of having policies and culture that help to conceal cases of sexual abuse within the organization. The religion has been criticized for its "two witness rule" for church discipline, based on its application of scriptures at Deuteronomy 19:15 and Matthew 18:15-17, which requires sexual abuse to be substantiated by secondary evidence if the accused person denies any wrongdoing. In cases where corroboration is lacking, the Watch Tower Society's instruction is that "the elders will leave the matter in Jehovah's hands". A former member of the church’s headquarters staff, Barbara Anderson, says the policy effectively requires that there be another witness to an act of molestation, "which is an impossibility". Anderson says the policies "protect pedophiles rather than protect the children." Jehovah's Witnesses maintain that they have a strong policy to protect children, adding that the best way to protect children is by educating parents; they also state that they do not sponsor activities that separate children from parents.
What has the Jehovah's Witnesses failure to report to authorities been criticized?
57326693b9d445190005eae5
abuse allegations
33
False
Of the 1006 alleged perpetrators of child sexual abuse identified by Jehovah's Witnesses within their organization since 1950, how many were reported to secular authorities?
57326693b9d445190005eae6
not one
484
False
Why are the Jehovah's Witnesses reluctant to alert authorities to abuse?
57326693b9d445190005eae7
to protect its "crime-free" reputation
881
False
What have courts in both the UK and the US found the Watch Tower Society to have been for failing to protect children from sexual predators within the congregation?
57326693b9d445190005eae8
negligent
1032
False
How much has the Society reportedly paid to settle lawsuits without admitting any wrongdoing?
57326693b9d445190005eae9
as much as $780,000 to one plaintiff
1213
False
not one
484
How many child sexual abuse cases have been reported to authorities in the US by The Watch Tower Society since 1950?
5ad3f364604f3c001a3ff8fd
True
$780,000
1224
How much has The Watch Tower Society paid to victims of child sexual abuse in Australia since 1950?
5ad3f364604f3c001a3ff8fe
True
1950
477
In what year did William Bowen leave the Jehovah's Witnesses?
5ad3f364604f3c001a3ff8ff
True
1950
477
How many alleged sexual abuse cases have there been in the United States since 1950 involving members of the Jehovah's Witnesses?
5ad3f364604f3c001a3ff900
True
$780,000
1224
How much does the Watch Tower Society pay to lawyers each year to represent them against child sexual abuse cases?
5ad3f364604f3c001a3ff901
True
The religion's failure to report abuse allegations to authorities has also been criticized. The Watch Tower Society's policy is that elders inform authorities when required by law to do so, but otherwise leave that action up to the victim and his or her family. The Australian Royal Commission into Institutional Responses to Child Sexual Abuse found that of 1006 alleged perpetrators of child sexual abuse identified by the Jehovah's Witnesses within their organization since 1950, "not one was reported by the church to secular authorities." William Bowen, a former Jehovah's Witness elder who established the Silentlambs organization to assist sex abuse victims within the religion, has claimed Witness leaders discourage followers from reporting incidents of sexual misconduct to authorities, and other critics claim the organization is reluctant to alert authorities in order to protect its "crime-free" reputation. In court cases in the United Kingdom and the United States the Watch Tower Society has been found to have been negligent in its failure to protect children from known sex offenders within the congregation and the Society has settled other child abuse lawsuits out of court, reportedly paying as much as $780,000 to one plaintiff without admitting wrongdoing.
Dwight_D._Eisenhower
What was Eisenhower's nickname?
573241140fdd8d15006c688d
Ike
14
False
What was the middle name of Dwight Eisenhower?
573241140fdd8d15006c688e
David
7
False
In what year did Eisenhower's presidency begin?
573241140fdd8d15006c688f
1953
196
False
During the Second World War, what was the highest position (not rank) Eisenhower achieved?
573241140fdd8d15006c6890
Supreme Commander of the Allied Forces in Europe
300
False
What was the name of the North African invasion Eisenhower oversaw?
573241140fdd8d15006c6891
Operation Torch
430
False
Dwight David "Ike" Eisenhower (/ˈaɪzənˌhaʊ.ər/ EYE-zən-HOW-ər; October 14, 1890 – March 28, 1969) was an American politician and general who served as the 34th President of the United States from 1953 until 1961. He was a five-star general in the United States Army during World War II and served as Supreme Commander of the Allied Forces in Europe. He was responsible for planning and supervising the invasion of North Africa in Operation Torch in 1942–43 and the successful invasion of France and Germany in 1944–45 from the Western Front. In 1951, he became the first Supreme Commander of NATO.
Along with reducing the federal deficit, what was Eisenhower's main policy priority as president?
57324172b9d445190005e927
keep pressure on the Soviet Union
42
False
What did Eisenhower threaten to use to end the Korean War?
57324172b9d445190005e928
nuclear weapons
167
False
Along with Guatemala, what country's government did Eisenhower order overthrown?
57324172b9d445190005e929
Iran
383
False
What country did Eisenhower neglect to assist in their military action in Vietnam?
57324172b9d445190005e92a
France
448
False
In what year was the Formosa Resolution passed?
57324172b9d445190005e92b
1955
570
False
Eisenhower's main goals in office were to keep pressure on the Soviet Union and reduce federal deficits. In the first year of his presidency, he threatened the use of nuclear weapons in an effort to conclude the Korean War; his New Look policy of nuclear deterrence prioritized inexpensive nuclear weapons while reducing funding for conventional military forces. He ordered coups in Iran and Guatemala. Eisenhower refused to give major aid to help France in Vietnam. He gave strong financial support to the new nation of South Vietnam. Congress agreed to his request in 1955 for the Formosa Resolution, which obliged the U.S. to militarily support the pro-Western Republic of China in Taiwan and continue the isolation of the People's Republic of China.
In what year did the Soviets launch humanity's first artificial satellite?
573241c2b9d445190005e931
1957
74
False
What organization did Eisenhower support after the Soviets launched the first artificial satellite?
573241c2b9d445190005e932
NASA
123
False
Along with Israel, what countries' armies invaded Egypt in 1956?
573241c2b9d445190005e933
British and French
224
False
Where did Eisenhower send 15,000 military personnel in 1958?
573241c2b9d445190005e934
Lebanon
436
False
On what date did Eisenhower deliver his presidential farewell address?
573241c2b9d445190005e935
January 17, 1961
656
False
After the Soviet Union launched the world's first artificial satellite in 1957, Eisenhower authorized the establishment of NASA, which led to the space race. During the Suez Crisis of 1956, Eisenhower condemned the Israeli, British and French invasion of Egypt, and forced them to withdraw. He also condemned the Soviet invasion during the Hungarian Revolution of 1956 but took no action. In 1958, Eisenhower sent 15,000 U.S. troops to Lebanon to prevent the pro-Western government from falling to a Nasser-inspired revolution. Near the end of his term, his efforts to set up a summit meeting with the Soviets collapsed because of the U-2 incident. In his January 17, 1961 farewell address to the nation, Eisenhower expressed his concerns about the dangers of massive military spending, particularly deficit spending and government contracts to private military manufacturers, and coined the term "military–industrial complex".
Why political movement was named for Joseph McCarthy?
573242c2e99e3014001e65e2
McCarthyism
89
False
What political theory did Eisenhower use to oppose McCarthy?
573242c2e99e3014001e65e3
executive privilege
151
False
Who served as Eisenhower's vice president?
573242c2e99e3014001e65e4
Nixon
245
False
What sort of conservative was Eisenhower?
573242c2e99e3014001e65e5
moderate
261
False
What does DARPA stand for?
573242c2e99e3014001e65e6
Defense Advanced Research Projects Agency
397
False
On the domestic front, he covertly opposed Joseph McCarthy and contributed to the end of McCarthyism by openly invoking the modern expanded version of executive privilege. He otherwise left most political activity to his Vice President, Richard Nixon. He was a moderate conservative who continued New Deal agencies and expanded Social Security. He also launched the Interstate Highway System, the Defense Advanced Research Projects Agency (DARPA), the establishment of strong science education via the National Defense Education Act, and encouraged peaceful use of nuclear power via amendments to the Atomic Energy Act.
What book did Eisenhower's parents read every day?
57324359b9d445190005e945
Bible
81
False
What Mennonite sect did Eisenhower's mother initially belong to?
57324359b9d445190005e946
River Brethren
288
False
What is another name for the International Bible Students Association?
57324359b9d445190005e947
Jehovah's Witnesses
395
False
What university did Eisenhower attend?
57324359b9d445190005e948
West Point
582
False
What church did Eisenhower join in 1953?
57324359b9d445190005e949
Presbyterian
863
False
His parents set aside specific times at breakfast and at dinner for daily family Bible reading. Chores were regularly assigned and rotated among all the children, and misbehavior was met with unequivocal discipline, usually from David. His mother, previously a member (with David) of the River Brethren sect of the Mennonites, joined the International Bible Students Association, later known as Jehovah's Witnesses. The Eisenhower home served as the local meeting hall from 1896 to 1915, though Eisenhower never joined the International Bible Students. His later decision to attend West Point saddened his mother, who felt that warfare was "rather wicked," but she did not overrule him. While speaking of himself in 1948, Eisenhower said he was "one of the most deeply religious men I know" though unattached to any "sect or organization". He was baptized in the Presbyterian Church in 1953.
In what year did Eisenhower graduate from high school?
573243d0e99e3014001e65ec
1909
72
False
What high school did Eisenhower go to?
573243d0e99e3014001e65ed
Abilene
20
False
What was the name of Eisenhower's brother?
573243d0e99e3014001e65ee
Edgar
389
False
In what year of high school did Eisenhower suffer a groin infection?
573243d0e99e3014001e65ef
freshman
83
False
What high school year did Eisenhower have to repeat?
573243d0e99e3014001e65f0
freshman
359
False
Eisenhower attended Abilene High School and graduated with the class of 1909. As a freshman, he injured his knee and developed a leg infection that extended into his groin, and which his doctor diagnosed as life-threatening. The doctor insisted that the leg be amputated but Dwight refused to allow it, and miraculously recovered, though he had to repeat his freshman year. He and brother Edgar both wanted to attend college, though they lacked the funds. They made a pact to take alternate years at college while the other worked to earn the tuitions.
Where did Eisenhower work during his brother's first year of college?
5732442ab9d445190005e953
Belle Springs Creamery
90
False
What was Eisenhower's job title during the first year his brother went to college?
5732442ab9d445190005e954
night supervisor
66
False
Who was Eisenhower's senator?
5732442ab9d445190005e955
Joseph L. Bristow
429
False
Why couldn't Eisenhower attend Annapolis?
5732442ab9d445190005e956
beyond the age limit
529
False
In what year did Eisenhower matriculate to West Point?
5732442ab9d445190005e957
1911
622
False
Edgar took the first turn at school, and Dwight was employed as a night supervisor at the Belle Springs Creamery. Edgar asked for a second year, Dwight consented and worked for a second year. At that time, a friend "Swede" Hazlet was applying to the Naval Academy and urged Dwight to apply to the school, since no tuition was required. Eisenhower requested consideration for either Annapolis or West Point with his U.S. Senator, Joseph L. Bristow. Though Eisenhower was among the winners of the entrance-exam competition, he was beyond the age limit for the Naval Academy. He then accepted an appointment to West Point in 1911.
What was Doud Eisenhower's nickname?
57324479e99e3014001e65f6
Icky
43
False
What killed Icky Eisenhower?
57324479e99e3014001e65f7
scarlet fever
101
False
In what city was John Eisenhower born?
57324479e99e3014001e65f8
Denver
268
False
What was John Eisenhower's final rank in the military?
57324479e99e3014001e65f9
brigadier general
337
False
David Eisenhower married the child of what US President?
57324479e99e3014001e65fa
Nixon
694
False
The Eisenhowers had two sons. Doud Dwight "Icky" Eisenhower was born September 24, 1917, and died of scarlet fever on January 2, 1921, at the age of three; Eisenhower was mostly reticent to discuss his death. Their second son, John Eisenhower (1922–2013), was born in Denver Colorado. John served in the United States Army, retired as a brigadier general, became an author and served as U.S. Ambassador to Belgium from 1969 to 1971. Coincidentally, John graduated from West Point on D-Day, June 6, 1944. He married Barbara Jean Thompson on June 10, 1947. John and Barbara had four children: David, Barbara Ann, Susan Elaine and Mary Jean. David, after whom Camp David is named, married Richard Nixon's daughter Julie in 1968. John died on December 21, 2013.
What sport did Eisenhower notably enjoy?
573244c1e17f3d140042279f
golf
17
False
What color were Eisenhower's winter golf balls?
573244c1e17f3d14004227a0
black
289
False
Who was the Chairman of Augusta National and friend to Eisenhower?
573244c1e17f3d14004227a1
Clifford Roberts
472
False
What was Clifford Roberts by profession?
573244c1e17f3d14004227a2
investment broker
568
False
When did Eisenhower join Augusta National?
573244c1e17f3d14004227a3
1948
93
False
Eisenhower was a golf enthusiast later in life, and joined the Augusta National Golf Club in 1948. He played golf frequently during and after his presidency and was unreserved in expressing his passion for the game, to the point of golfing during winter; he ordered his golf balls painted black so he could see them better against snow on the ground. He had a small, basic golf facility installed at Camp David, and became close friends with the Augusta National Chairman Clifford Roberts, inviting Roberts to stay at the White House on several occasions. Roberts, an investment broker, also handled the Eisenhower family's investments. Roberts also advised Eisenhower on tax aspects of publishing his memoirs, which proved financially lucrative.
What was Eisenhower's favorite hobby other than golfing?
5732452ee99e3014001e6600
oil painting
12
False
Who notably painted a picture of Mamie Eisenhower?
5732452ee99e3014001e6601
Thomas E. Stephens
126
False
What was the main type of oil painting painted by Eisenhower?
5732452ee99e3014001e6602
landscapes
257
False
What car did Eisenhower compare modern art to?
5732452ee99e3014001e6603
Tin Lizzie
671
False
Who called Eisenhower's art "simple and earnest"?
5732452ee99e3014001e6604
Wendy Beckett
395
False
After golf, oil painting was Eisenhower's second hobby. While at Columbia University, Eisenhower began the art after watching Thomas E. Stephens paint Mamie's portrait. Eisenhower painted about 260 oils during the last 20 years of his life to relax, mostly landscapes but also portraits of subjects such as Mamie, their grandchildren, General Montgomery, George Washington, and Abraham Lincoln. Wendy Beckett stated that Eisenhower's work, "simple and earnest, rather cause us to wonder at the hidden depths of this reticent president". A conservative in both art and politics, he in a 1962 speech denounced modern art as "a piece of canvas that looks like a broken-down Tin Lizzie, loaded with paint, has been driven over it."
What was Eisenhower's favorite film?
57324575e99e3014001e660a
Angels in the Outfield
0
False
Who was Eisenhower's favorite author?
57324575e99e3014001e660b
Zane Grey
128
False
What genre did Zane Grey write in?
57324575e99e3014001e660c
Western
110
False
Where did Eisenhower learn to play poker?
57324575e99e3014001e660d
Abilene
291
False
At West Point, what game did Eisenhower play six nights a week for five months?
57324575e99e3014001e660e
contract bridge
511
False
Angels in the Outfield was Eisenhower's favorite movie. His favorite reading material for relaxation were the Western novels of Zane Grey. With his excellent memory and ability to focus, Eisenhower was skilled at card games. He learned poker, which he called his "favorite indoor sport," in Abilene. Eisenhower recorded West Point classmates' poker losses for payment after graduation, and later stopped playing because his opponents resented having to pay him. A classmate reported that after learning to play contract bridge at West Point, Eisenhower played the game six nights a week for five months.
What military installation was Eisenhower assigned to when the United States entered the First World War?
573245e60fdd8d15006c68b9
Ft. Leavenworth
124
False
What unit did Eisenhower serve with at Camp Meade?
573245e60fdd8d15006c68ba
65th Engineers
220
False
To what rank was Eisenhower brevetted after being transferred to the tank corps?
573245e60fdd8d15006c68bb
Lieutenant Colonel
367
False
What famous military event occurred at the site of Camp Colt?
573245e60fdd8d15006c68bc
Pickett's Charge
503
False
In what state was Camp Meade located?
573245e60fdd8d15006c68bd
Maryland
202
False
When the U.S. entered World War I he immediately requested an overseas assignment but was again denied and then assigned to Ft. Leavenworth, Kansas. In February 1918 he was transferred to Camp Meade in Maryland with the 65th Engineers. His unit was later ordered to France but to his chagrin he received orders for the new tank corps, where he was promoted to brevet Lieutenant Colonel in the National Army. He commanded a unit that trained tank crews at Camp Colt – his first command – at the site of "Pickett's Charge" on the Gettysburg, Pennsylvania Civil War battleground. Though Eisenhower and his tank crews never saw combat, he displayed excellent organizational skills, as well as an ability to accurately assess junior officers' strengths and make optimal placements of personnel.
How long before Eisenhower was to be transferred to France did World War I end?
57324630e99e3014001e661e
week
176
False
What decoration did Eisenhower receive as a result of his First World War service?
57324630e99e3014001e661f
Distinguished Service Medal
304
False
What notable Second World War commander disparaged Eisenhower for his lack of combat experience?
57324630e99e3014001e6620
Montgomery
462
False
Once again his spirits were raised when the unit under his command received orders overseas to France. This time his wishes were thwarted when the armistice was signed, just a week before departure. Completely missing out on the warfront left him depressed and bitter for a time, despite being given the Distinguished Service Medal for his work at home.[citation needed] In World War II, rivals who had combat service in the first great war (led by Gen. Bernard Montgomery) sought to denigrate Eisenhower for his previous lack of combat duty, despite his stateside experience establishing a camp, completely equipped, for thousands of troops, and developing a full combat training schedule.
What was Eisenhower's Camp Meade unit equipped with?
573246afb9d445190005e985
tanks
75
False
When did Eisenhower leave Camp Meade?
573246afb9d445190005e986
1922
106
False
Along with Patton, who was a notable interwar tank leader?
573246afb9d445190005e987
Sereno E. Brett
306
False
What was the traditional doctrine on the use of tanks?
573246afb9d445190005e988
supportive role for the infantry
556
False
What happened when Eisenhower was threatened with a court martial for his support for offensive tank tactics?
573246afb9d445190005e989
he relented
716
False
He assumed duties again at Camp Meade, Maryland, commanding a battalion of tanks, where he remained until 1922. His schooling continued, focused on the nature of the next war and the role of the tank in it. His new expertise in tank warfare was strengthened by a close collaboration with George S. Patton, Sereno E. Brett, and other senior tank leaders. Their leading-edge ideas of speed-oriented offensive tank warfare were strongly discouraged by superiors, who considered the new approach too radical and preferred to continue using tanks in a strictly supportive role for the infantry. Eisenhower was even threatened with court martial for continued publication of these proposed methods of tank deployment, and he relented.
What role did Eisenhower serve under Fox Conner?
57324714b9d445190005e98f
executive officer
156
False
Where did Eisenhower serve under Conner?
57324714b9d445190005e990
Panama Canal Zone
199
False
What notable military treatise was authored by von Clausewitz?
57324714b9d445190005e991
On War
361
False
During what period did Eisenhower attend the Command and General Staff College?
57324714b9d445190005e992
1925–26
653
False
How many people were in Eisenhower's class at the Command and General Staff College?
57324714b9d445190005e993
245
779
False
From 1920, Eisenhower served under a succession of talented generals – Fox Conner, John J. Pershing, Douglas MacArthur and George Marshall. He first became executive officer to General Conner in the Panama Canal Zone, where, joined by Mamie, he served until 1924. Under Conner's tutelage, he studied military history and theory (including Carl von Clausewitz's On War), and later cited Conner's enormous influence on his military thinking, saying in 1962 that "Fox Conner was the ablest man I ever knew." Conner's comment on Eisenhower was, "[He] is one of the most capable, efficient and loyal officers I have ever met." On Conner's recommendation, in 1925–26 he attended the Command and General Staff College at Fort Leavenworth, Kansas, where he graduated first in a class of 245 officers. He then served as a battalion commander at Fort Benning, Georgia, until 1927.
Who was the head of the American Battle Monuments Commission during this period?
57324760e17f3d14004227c5
Pershing
273
False
During the 1920s, for what federal department did Milton Eisenhower work?
57324760e17f3d14004227c6
Agriculture
360
False
In what year did Eisenhower graduate from the Army War College?
57324760e17f3d14004227c7
1928
502
False
What was the office held by George Mosely?
57324760e17f3d14004227c8
Assistant Secretary of War
615
False
What was Eisenhower's rank in 1933?
57324760e17f3d14004227c9
Major
671
False
During the late 1920s and early 1930s, Eisenhower's career in the post-war army stalled somewhat, as military priorities diminished; many of his friends resigned for high-paying business jobs. He was assigned to the American Battle Monuments Commission directed by General Pershing, and with the help of his brother Milton Eisenhower, then a journalist at the Agriculture Department, he produced a guide to American battlefields in Europe. He then was assigned to the Army War College and graduated in 1928. After a one-year assignment in France, Eisenhower served as executive officer to General George V. Mosely, Assistant Secretary of War, from 1929 to February 1933. Major Dwight D. Eisenhower graduated from the Army Industrial College (Washington, DC) in 1933 and later served on the faculty (it was later expanded to become the Industrial College of the Armed Services and is now known as the Dwight D. Eisenhower School for National Security and Resource Strategy).
What event made war planning difficult in this period?
573247b6b9d445190005e999
Great Depression
96
False
What position was held by General MacArthur at this point in time?
573247b6b9d445190005e99a
Army Chief of Staff
178
False
What encampment was attacked in 1932 by soldiers including Eisenhower?
573247b6b9d445190005e99b
Bonus March
247
False
What sort of people did the Bonus March consist of?
573247b6b9d445190005e99c
veterans
344
False
His primary duty was planning for the next war, which proved most difficult in the midst of the Great Depression. He then was posted as chief military aide to General MacArthur, Army Chief of Staff. In 1932, he participated in the clearing of the Bonus March encampment in Washington, D.C. Although he was against the actions taken against the veterans and strongly advised MacArthur against taking a public role in it, he later wrote the Army's official incident report, endorsing MacArthur's conduct.
What rank was Eisenhower promoted to in 1936?
5732481fb9d445190005e9a1
lieutenant colonel
493
False
What license did Eisenhower receive in 1939?
5732481fb9d445190005e9a2
pilot's
620
False
Who was president of the Philippines circa 1939?
5732481fb9d445190005e9a3
Manuel L. Quezon
783
False
What is the current name of the capital city that was under construction in the Philippines in 1939?
5732481fb9d445190005e9a4
Quezon City
905
False
How did Eisenhower respond to the offer to become a Philippine police chief?
5732481fb9d445190005e9a5
declined
925
False
Historians have concluded that this assignment provided valuable preparation for handling the challenging personalities of Winston Churchill, George S. Patton, George Marshall, and General Montgomery during World War II. Eisenhower later emphasized that too much had been made of the disagreements with MacArthur, and that a positive relationship endured. While in Manila, Mamie suffered a life-threatening stomach ailment but recovered fully. Eisenhower was promoted to the rank of permanent lieutenant colonel in 1936. He also learned to fly, making a solo flight over the Philippines in 1937 and obtained his private pilot's license in 1939 at Fort Lewis. Also around this time, he was offered a post by the Philippine Commonwealth Government, namely by then Philippine President Manuel L. Quezon on recommendations by MacArthur, to become the chief of police of a new capital being planned, now named Quezon City, but he declined the offer.
What unit did Eisenhower serve with upon his return to the United States?
5732488d0fdd8d15006c68eb
15th Infantry
131
False
At what military installation was the 15th Infantry based?
5732488d0fdd8d15006c68ec
Fort Lewis
148
False
In the spring of 1941, who commanded IX Corps?
5732488d0fdd8d15006c68ed
Kenyon Joyce
296
False
In what city was the 3rd Army based in June of 1941?
5732488d0fdd8d15006c68ee
San Antonio
433
False
What event contributed to Eisenhower receiving a promotion to brigadier general?
5732488d0fdd8d15006c68ef
Louisiana Maneuvers
493
False
Eisenhower returned to the U.S. in December 1939 and was assigned as a battalion commander and regimental executive officer of the 15th Infantry at Fort Lewis, Washington. In March 1941 he was promoted to colonel and assigned as chief of staff of the newly activated IX Corps under Major General Kenyon Joyce. In June 1941, he was appointed Chief of Staff to General Walter Krueger, Commander of the 3rd Army, at Fort Sam Houston in San Antonio, Texas. After successfully participating in the Louisiana Maneuvers, he was promoted to brigadier general on October 3, 1941. Although his administrative abilities had been noticed, on the eve of the U.S. entry into World War II he had never held an active command above a battalion and was far from being considered by many as a potential commander of major operations.
To what body was Eisenhower assigned after Pearl Harbor was attacked?
57324911b9d445190005e9ab
General Staff in
74
False
Who headed the WPD before Eisenhower?
57324911b9d445190005e9ac
Leonard T. Gerow
330
False
What body replaced the War Plans Division?
57324911b9d445190005e9ad
Operations Division
478
False
What was Eisenhower's title in the Operations Division?
57324911b9d445190005e9ae
Assistant Chief of Staff
432
False
Who was the Chief of Staff who promoted Eisenhower?
57324911b9d445190005e9af
George C. Marshall
548
False
After the Japanese attack on Pearl Harbor, Eisenhower was assigned to the General Staff in Washington, where he served until June 1942 with responsibility for creating the major war plans to defeat Japan and Germany. He was appointed Deputy Chief in charge of Pacific Defenses under the Chief of War Plans Division (WPD), General Leonard T. Gerow, and then succeeded Gerow as Chief of the War Plans Division. Next, he was appointed Assistant Chief of Staff in charge of the new Operations Division (which replaced WPD) under Chief of Staff General George C. Marshall, who spotted talent and promoted accordingly.
As of May 1942, who commanded the Army Air Forces?
57324966b9d445190005e9b5
Henry H. Arnold
56
False
To what city did Eisenhower travel to May 1942?
57324966b9d445190005e9b6
London
119
False
Who commanded the English theater in May 1942?
57324966b9d445190005e9b7
James E. Chaney
201
False
What appointment did Eisenhower receive on June 23, 1942?
57324966b9d445190005e9b8
Commanding General, European Theater of Operations
391
False
To what rank was Eisenhower promoted on July 7, 1942?
57324966b9d445190005e9b9
lieutenant general
558
False
At the end of May 1942, Eisenhower accompanied Lt. Gen. Henry H. Arnold, commanding general of the Army Air Forces, to London to assess the effectiveness of the theater commander in England, Maj. Gen. James E. Chaney. He returned to Washington on June 3 with a pessimistic assessment, stating he had an "uneasy feeling" about Chaney and his staff. On June 23, 1942, he returned to London as Commanding General, European Theater of Operations (ETOUSA), based in London and with a house on Coombe, Kingston upon Thames, and replaced Chaney. He was promoted to lieutenant general on July 7.
What appointment did Eisenhower receive in November of 1942?
573249b1b9d445190005e9bf
Supreme Commander Allied Expeditionary Force of the North African Theater of Operations
40
False
What was the code name of the North African campaign?
573249b1b9d445190005e9c0
Operation Torch
362
False
At what location was the North African campaign planned?
573249b1b9d445190005e9c1
Rock of Gibraltar
417
False
How many years before Eisenhower's command had a non-Briton commanded Gibraltar?
573249b1b9d445190005e9c2
200
504
False
In November 1942, he was also appointed Supreme Commander Allied Expeditionary Force of the North African Theater of Operations (NATOUSA) through the new operational Headquarters Allied (Expeditionary) Force Headquarters (A(E)FHQ). The word "expeditionary" was dropped soon after his appointment for security reasons. The campaign in North Africa was designated Operation Torch and was planned underground within the Rock of Gibraltar. Eisenhower was the first non-British person to command Gibraltar in 200 years.
What geographic area was the primary objective of Eisenhower?
57324a59e17f3d14004227e1
Tunisia
214
False
Who initially served as High Commissioner of North Africa?
57324a59e17f3d14004227e2
François Darlan
290
False
Who killed François Darlan?
57324a59e17f3d14004227e3
Fernand Bonnier de La Chapelle
759
False
Who served as High Commissioner of North Africa after Darlan's death?
57324a59e17f3d14004227e4
Henri Giraud
1072
False
On what day did Darlan die?
57324a59e17f3d14004227e5
December 24
744
False
French cooperation was deemed necessary to the campaign, and Eisenhower encountered a "preposterous situation" with the multiple rival factions in France. His primary objective was to move forces successfully into Tunisia, and intending to facilitate that objective, he gave his support to François Darlan as High Commissioner in North Africa, despite Darlan's previous high offices of state in Vichy France and his continued role as commander-in-chief of the French armed forces. The Allied leaders were "thunderstruck" by this from a political standpoint, though none of them had offered Eisenhower guidance with the problem in the course of planning the operation. Eisenhower was severely criticized for the move. Darlan was assassinated on December 24 by Fernand Bonnier de La Chapelle. Eisenhower did not take action to prevent the arrest and extrajudicial execution of Bonnier de La Chapelle by associates of Darlan acting without authority from either Vichy or the Allies, considering it a criminal rather than a military matter. Eisenhower later appointed General Henri Giraud as High Commissioner, who had been installed by the Allies as Darlan's commander-in-chief, and who had refused to postpone the execution.
What was Rommel's rank?
57324af4b9d445190005e9c7
Generalfeldmarschall
126
False
Who commanded II Corps before being removed by Eisenhower?
57324af4b9d445190005e9c8
Lloyd Fredendall
367
False
Who commanded the UK's Eighth Army?
57324af4b9d445190005e9c9
Bernard Montgomery
627
False
When did Eisenhower receive authority over the British Eighth Army?
57324af4b9d445190005e9ca
February 1943
472
False
What did Eisenhower command after he commanded ETOUSA?
57324af4b9d445190005e9cb
NATOUSA
856
False
Operation Torch also served as a valuable training ground for Eisenhower's combat command skills; during the initial phase of Generalfeldmarschall Erwin Rommel's move into the Kasserine Pass, Eisenhower created some confusion in the ranks by some interference with the execution of battle plans by his subordinates. He also was initially indecisive in his removal of Lloyd Fredendall, commanding U.S. II Corps. He became more adroit in such matters in later campaigns. In February 1943, his authority was extended as commander of AFHQ across the Mediterranean basin to include the British Eighth Army, commanded by General Sir Bernard Montgomery. The Eighth Army had advanced across the Western Desert from the east and was ready for the start of the Tunisia Campaign. Eisenhower gained his fourth star and gave up command of ETOUSA to become commander of NATOUSA.
What did the Allies invade after they conquered North Africa?
57324b3be99e3014001e665c
Sicily
108
False
What was the invasion of mainland Italy called?
57324b3be99e3014001e665d
Operation Avalanche
230
False
What was the initial ratio of Axis to Allied divisions in Italy?
57324b3be99e3014001e665e
2 to 1
602
False
How many divisions did the Germans add to Italy?
57324b3be99e3014001e665f
19
544
False
Until he was deposed, who was the leader of Italy?
57324b3be99e3014001e6660
Mussolini
121
False
After the capitulation of Axis forces in North Africa, Eisenhower oversaw the highly successful invasion of Sicily. Once Mussolini, the Italian leader, had fallen in Italy, the Allies switched their attention to the mainland with Operation Avalanche. But while Eisenhower argued with President Roosevelt and British Prime Minister Churchill, who both insisted on unconditional terms of surrender in exchange for helping the Italians, the Germans pursued an aggressive buildup of forces in the country – making the job more difficult, by adding 19 divisions and initially outnumbering the Allied forces 2 to 1; nevertheless, the invasion of Italy was highly successful.
Other than Eisenhower, who was considered for the appointment of Supreme Allied Commander in Europe?
57324b820fdd8d15006c692d
Marshall
68
False
What did SHAEF stand for?
57324b820fdd8d15006c692e
Supreme Allied Commander of the Allied Expeditionary Force
231
False
Who appointed Eisenhower as Supreme Allied Commander in Europe?
57324b820fdd8d15006c692f
Roosevelt
28
False
What was the Allied invasion of Normandy called?
57324b820fdd8d15006c6930
Operation Overlord
516
False
When did Operation Overlord take place?
57324b820fdd8d15006c6931
June 1944
486
False
In December 1943, President Roosevelt decided that Eisenhower – not Marshall – would be Supreme Allied Commander in Europe. The following month, he resumed command of ETOUSA and the following month was officially designated as the Supreme Allied Commander of the Allied Expeditionary Force (SHAEF), serving in a dual role until the end of hostilities in Europe in May 1945. He was charged in these positions with planning and carrying out the Allied assault on the coast of Normandy in June 1944 under the code name Operation Overlord, the liberation of Western Europe and the invasion of Germany.
Who refused to provide Eisenhower with landing craft?
57324c04e17f3d1400422805
Ernest J. King
564
False
What concern did Churchill have in regard to Eisenhower's pre-invasion bombing plan?
57324c04e17f3d1400422806
civilian casualties
997
False
What did Patton do that first caused Eisenhower to reprimand him?
57324c04e17f3d1400422807
slapped a subordinate
1285
False
What were the French resistance to be used for in advance of the invasion of France?
57324c04e17f3d1400422808
covert and sabotage operations
481
False
Who was the leader of French forces in this period?
57324c04e17f3d1400422809
de Gaulle
1018
False
Eisenhower, as well as the officers and troops under him, had learned valuable lessons in their previous operations, and their skills had all strengthened in preparation for the next most difficult campaign against the Germans—a beach landing assault. His first struggles, however, were with Allied leaders and officers on matters vital to the success of the Normandy invasion; he argued with Roosevelt over an essential agreement with De Gaulle to use French resistance forces in covert and sabotage operations against the Germans in advance of Overlord. Admiral Ernest J. King fought with Eisenhower over King's refusal to provide additional landing craft from the Pacific. He also insisted that the British give him exclusive command over all strategic air forces to facilitate Overlord, to the point of threatening to resign unless Churchill relented, as he did. Eisenhower then designed a bombing plan in France in advance of Overlord and argued with Churchill over the latter's concern with civilian casualties; de Gaulle interjected that the casualties were justified in shedding the yoke of the Germans, and Eisenhower prevailed. He also had to skillfully manage to retain the services of the often unruly George S. Patton, by severely reprimanding him when Patton earlier had slapped a subordinate, and then when Patton gave a speech in which he made improper comments about postwar policy.
When did the Normandy invasion occur?
57324c70e17f3d140042280f
June 6, 1944
31
False
How long after the Normandy invasion did the landings in Southern France occur?
57324c70e17f3d1400422810
month
75
False
When did the war in Europe end?
57324c70e17f3d1400422811
May 8, 1945
398
False
How many divisions involved in the Allied invasion of Europe did Eisenhower visit?
57324c70e17f3d1400422812
every
799
False
After what possible event would the speech called one of the greatest in history have been delivered?
57324c70e17f3d1400422813
if the invasion failed
934
False
The D-Day Normandy landings on June 6, 1944, were costly but successful. A month later, the invasion of Southern France took place, and control of forces in the southern invasion passed from the AFHQ to the SHAEF. Many prematurely considered that victory in Europe would come by summer's end—however the Germans did not capitulate for almost a year. From then until the end of the war in Europe on May 8, 1945, Eisenhower, through SHAEF, commanded all Allied forces, and through his command of ETOUSA had administrative command of all U.S. forces on the Western Front north of the Alps. He was ever mindful of the inevitable loss of life and suffering that would be experienced on an individual level by the troops under his command and their families. This prompted him to make a point of visiting every division involved in the invasion. Eisenhower's sense of responsibility was underscored by his draft of a statement to be issued if the invasion failed. It has been called one of the great speeches of history:
What unit did Montgomery command?
57324d11b9d445190005e9eb
21st Army Group
271
False
What general commanded the 12th US Army Group?
57324d11b9d445190005e9ec
Bradley
336
False
Who was the Sixth US Army Group's commander?
57324d11b9d445190005e9ed
Devers
371
False
What geographic portion of the front did the Sixth US Army Group operate on?
57324d11b9d445190005e9ee
south
452
False
What supply port was opened late in 1944?
57324d11b9d445190005e9ef
Antwerp
798
False
Once the coastal assault had succeeded, Eisenhower insisted on retaining personal control over the land battle strategy, and was immersed in the command and supply of multiple assaults through France on Germany. Field Marshal Montgomery insisted priority be given to his 21st Army Group's attack being made in the north, while Generals Bradley (12th U.S. Army Group) and Devers (Sixth U.S. Army Group) insisted they be given priority in the center and south of the front (respectively). Eisenhower worked tirelessly to address the demands of the rival commanders to optimize Allied forces, often by giving them tactical, though sometimes ineffective, latitude; many historians conclude this delayed the Allied victory in Europe. However, due to Eisenhower's persistence, the pivotal supply port at Antwerp was successfully, albeit belatedly, opened in late 1944, and victory became a more distinct probability.
What European rank was equivalent to that of General of the Army?
57324d56b9d445190005e9fd
Field Marshal
149
False
On what date did Eisenhower receive his General of the Army appointment?
57324d56b9d445190005e9fe
December 20, 1944
64
False
Along with Montgomery, with whom did Eisenhower disagree on strategy?
57324d56b9d445190005e9ff
Churchill
549
False
What Soviet military leader was a counterpart of Eisenhower?
57324d56b9d445190005ea00
Zhukov
683
False
What rank was held by de Gaulle?
57324d56b9d445190005ea01
General
488
False
In recognition of his senior position in the Allied command, on December 20, 1944, he was promoted to General of the Army, equivalent to the rank of Field Marshal in most European armies. In this and the previous high commands he held, Eisenhower showed his great talents for leadership and diplomacy. Although he had never seen action himself, he won the respect of front-line commanders. He interacted adeptly with allies such as Winston Churchill, Field Marshal Bernard Montgomery and General Charles de Gaulle. He had serious disagreements with Churchill and Montgomery over questions of strategy, but these rarely upset his relationships with them. He dealt with Soviet Marshal Zhukov, his Russian counterpart, and they became good friends.
When did the Battle of the Bulge begin?
57324da80fdd8d15006c6941
December 1944
81
False
What German city did the British wish to conquer?
57324da80fdd8d15006c6942
Berlin
376
False
Along with Roosevelt and Churchill, what political leader decided upon the division of Germany?
57324da80fdd8d15006c6943
Stalin
817
False
What nation's military conquered Berlin?
57324da80fdd8d15006c6944
Soviet
856
False
What date saw the surrender of Nazi Germany?
57324da80fdd8d15006c6945
May 7, 1945
964
False
The Germans launched a surprise counter offensive, in the Battle of the Bulge in December 1944, which the Allies turned back in early 1945 after Eisenhower repositioned his armies and improved weather allowed the Air Force to engage. German defenses continued to deteriorate on both the eastern front with the Soviets and the western front with the Allies. The British wanted Berlin, but Eisenhower decided it would be a military mistake for him to attack Berlin, and said orders to that effect would have to be explicit. The British backed down, but then wanted Eisenhower to move into Czechoslovakia for political reasons. Washington refused to support Churchill's plan to use Eisenhower's army for political maneuvers against Moscow. The actual division of Germany followed the lines that Roosevelt, Churchill and Stalin had previously agreed upon. The Soviet Red Army captured Berlin in a very large-scale bloody battle, and the Germans finally surrendered on May 7, 1945.
What was Eisenhower's title after Germany's surrender?
57324e38e17f3d1400422823
Military Governor of the U.S. Occupation Zone
71
False
In what structure was Eisenhower's headquarters in the US Occupation Zone?
57324e38e17f3d1400422824
IG Farben Building
131
False
In what city was the headquarters of the US Occupation Zone located?
57324e38e17f3d1400422825
Frankfurt am Main
153
False
Aside from the US, what other countries had occupation zones in Germany?
57324e38e17f3d1400422826
Britain, France and the Soviet Union
238
False
What agreement was not applicable to Disarmed Enemy Forces?
57324e38e17f3d1400422827
Geneva Convention
692
False
Following the German unconditional surrender, Eisenhower was appointed Military Governor of the U.S. Occupation Zone, based at the IG Farben Building in Frankfurt am Main. He had no responsibility for the other three zones, controlled by Britain, France and the Soviet Union, except for the city of Berlin, which was managed by the Four-Power Authorities through the Allied Kommandatura as the governing body. Upon discovery of the Nazi concentration camps, he ordered camera crews to document evidence of the atrocities in them for use in the Nuremberg Trials. He reclassified German prisoners of war (POWs) in U.S. custody as Disarmed Enemy Forces (DEFs), who were no longer subject to the Geneva Convention. Eisenhower followed the orders laid down by the Joint Chiefs of Staff (JCS) in directive JCS 1067, but softened them by bringing in 400,000 tons of food for civilians and allowing more fraternization. In response to the devastation in Germany, including food shortages and an influx of refugees, he arranged distribution of American food and medical equipment. His actions reflected the new American attitudes of the German people as Nazi victims not villains, while aggressively purging the ex-Nazis.
Who was Chief of Staff of the Army before Eisenhower?
57324e9fe99e3014001e668c
Marshall
63
False
About how many soldiers demobilized after the war ended?
57324e9fe99e3014001e668d
millions
145
False
What president ignored Eisenhower's recommendations in regard to atomic weapons?
57324e9fe99e3014001e668e
Truman
533
False
What was Eisenhower's position on the use of nuclear weapons against Japan?
57324e9fe99e3014001e668f
opposed
644
False
What city did Eisenhower notably visit in 1945?
57324e9fe99e3014001e6690
Warsaw
984
False
In November 1945, Eisenhower returned to Washington to replace Marshall as Chief of Staff of the Army. His main role was rapid demobilization of millions of soldiers, a slow job that was delayed by lack of shipping. Eisenhower was convinced in 1946 that the Soviet Union did not want war and that friendly relations could be maintained; he strongly supported the new United Nations and favored its involvement in the control of atomic bombs. However, in formulating policies regarding the atomic bomb and relations with the Soviets, Truman was guided by the U.S. State Department and ignored Eisenhower and the Pentagon. Indeed, Eisenhower had opposed the use of the atomic bomb against the Japanese, writing, "First, the Japanese were ready to surrender and it wasn't necessary to hit them with that awful thing. Second, I hated to see our country be the first to use such a weapon." Initially, Eisenhower was characterized by hopes for cooperation with the Soviets. He even visited Warsaw in 1945. Invited by Bolesław Bierut and decorated with the highest military decoration, he was shocked by the scale of destruction in the city. However, by mid-1947, as East–West tensions over economic recovery in Germany and the Greek Civil War escalated, Eisenhower gave up and agreed with a containment policy to stop Soviet expansion.
When was it suggested to Eisenhower that he might one day become president?
57324f330fdd8d15006c6955
June 1943
3
False
Along with dogcatcher, what political job did Eisenhower specifically not want to be considered for?
57324f330fdd8d15006c6956
Grand High Supreme King of the Universe
473
False
What role did Eisenhower believe he could not fulfill if he was believed to want to become involved in politics?
57324f330fdd8d15006c6957
Army Chief of Staff
554
False
What general was considered a potential Republican presidential candidate in 1948?
57324f330fdd8d15006c6958
MacArthur
846
False
At what meeting did Truman tell Eisenhower that he would assist him in running for president?
57324f330fdd8d15006c6959
Potsdam Conference
663
False
In June 1943 a visiting politician had suggested to Eisenhower that he might become President of the United States after the war. Believing that a general should not participate in politics, one author later wrote that "figuratively speaking, [Eisenhower] kicked his political-minded visitor out of his office". As others asked him about his political future, Eisenhower told one that he could not imagine wanting to be considered for any political job "from dogcatcher to Grand High Supreme King of the Universe", and another that he could not serve as Army Chief of Staff if others believed he had political ambitions. In 1945 Truman told Eisenhower during the Potsdam Conference that if desired, the president would help the general win the 1948 election, and in 1947 he offered to run as Eisenhower's running mate on the Democratic ticket if MacArthur won the Republican nomination.
What state's delegates were considering supporting Eisenhower in 1948?
57324f98e17f3d1400422837
New Hampshire
170
False
How old would Eisenhower be in 1956?
57324f98e17f3d1400422838
66
814
False
Why was it unlikely that Eisenhower would run for president in 1956?
57324f98e17f3d1400422839
too old
840
False
Who was it assumed would win the election of 1948?
57324f98e17f3d140042283a
Thomas E. Dewey
699
False
As the election approached, other prominent citizens and politicians from both parties urged Eisenhower to run for president. In January 1948, after learning of plans in New Hampshire to elect delegates supporting him for the forthcoming Republican National Convention, Eisenhower stated through the Army that he was "not available for and could not accept nomination to high political office"; "life-long professional soldiers", he wrote, "in the absence of some obvious and overriding reason, [should] abstain from seeking high political office". Eisenhower maintained no political party affiliation during this time. Many believed he was forgoing his only opportunity to be president; Republican Thomas E. Dewey was considered the other probable winner, would presumably serve two terms, and Eisenhower, at age 66 in 1956, would then be too old.
What position did Eisenhower occupy in 1948?
57324fe9e99e3014001e66aa
President of Columbia University
27
False
Where is Columbia University located?
57324fe9e99e3014001e66ab
New York City
89
False
What was the title of Eisenhower's memoir?
57324fe9e99e3014001e66ac
Crusade in Europe
216
False
What group of schools did Columbia University belong to?
57324fe9e99e3014001e66ad
Ivy League
64
False
What body ruled the Eisenhower was not a professional writer?
57324fe9e99e3014001e66ae
Department of the Treasury
455
False
In 1948, Eisenhower became President of Columbia University, an Ivy League university in New York City. The assignment was described as not being a good fit in either direction. During that year Eisenhower's memoir, Crusade in Europe, was published. Critics regarded it as one of the finest U.S. military memoirs, and it was a major financial success as well. Eisenhower's profit on the book was substantially aided by an unprecedented ruling by the U.S. Department of the Treasury that Eisenhower was not a professional writer, but rather, marketing the lifetime asset of his experiences, and thus he only had to pay capital gains tax on his $635,000 advance instead of the much higher personal tax rate. This ruling saved Eisenhower about $400,000.
While Eisenhower was president of Columbia, what group did he also work with?
5732549b0fdd8d15006c69c7
Council on Foreign Relations
101
False
What was Blanche Wiesen Cook in relation to Eisenhower?
5732549b0fdd8d15006c69c8
biographer
488
False
Along with business and government, what leaders did Eisenhower see meeting at the Council on Foreign Relations?
5732549b0fdd8d15006c69c9
professional
329
False
What sort of analysis did Eisenhower first experience with the Council on Foreign Relations?
5732549b0fdd8d15006c69ca
economic
804
False
Eisenhower's stint as the president of Columbia University was punctuated by his activity within the Council on Foreign Relations, a study group he led as president concerning the political and military implications of the Marshall Plan, and The American Assembly, Eisenhower's "vision of a great cultural center where business, professional and governmental leaders could meet from time to time to discuss and reach conclusions concerning problems of a social and political nature". His biographer Blanche Wiesen Cook suggested that this period served as "the political education of General Eisenhower", since he had to prioritize wide-ranging educational, administrative, and financial demands for the university. Through his involvement in the Council on Foreign Relations, he also gained exposure to economic analysis, which would become the bedrock of his understanding in economic policy. "Whatever General Eisenhower knows about economics, he has learned at the study group meetings," one Aid to Europe member claimed.
What position was held by James Forrestal?
573254ece99e3014001e66c4
Secretary of Defense
114
False
What position did Eisenhower informally hold?
573254ece99e3014001e66c5
Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff
256
False
After becoming sick, where did Eisenhower recover?
573254ece99e3014001e66c6
Augusta National Golf Club
384
False
What was the name of Columbia University's alumni association?
573254ece99e3014001e66c7
Columbia Associates
660
False
When did Eisenhower vacation for two months outside New York?
573254ece99e3014001e66c8
July 1949
467
False
Within months of beginning his tenure as the president of the university, Eisenhower was requested to advise U.S. Secretary of Defense James Forrestal on the unification of the armed services. About six months after his appointment, he became the informal Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff in Washington. Two months later he fell ill, and he spent over a month in recovery at the Augusta National Golf Club. He returned to his post in New York in mid-May, and in July 1949 took a two-month vacation out-of-state. Because the American Assembly had begun to take shape, he traveled around the country during mid-to-late 1950, building financial support from Columbia Associates, an alumni association.
Aside from his university work, where did Eisenhower gain useful contacts?
5732553d0fdd8d15006c69cf
American Assembly
43
False
What Continental Oil leader was Eisenhower tied to?
5732553d0fdd8d15006c69d0
Leonard McCollum
352
False
What was the political orientation of Columbia's teachers?
5732553d0fdd8d15006c69d1
liberal
234
False
What state was Frank Abrams' oil company located in?
5732553d0fdd8d15006c69d2
New Jersey
450
False
From where did H.J. Porter hale?
5732553d0fdd8d15006c69d3
Texas
524
False
The contacts gained through university and American Assembly fund-raising activities would later become important supporters in Eisenhower's bid for the Republican party nomination and the presidency. Meanwhile, Columbia University's liberal faculty members became disenchanted with the university president's ties to oilmen and businessmen, including Leonard McCollum, the president of Continental Oil; Frank Abrams, the chairman of Standard Oil of New Jersey; Bob Kleberg, the president of the King Ranch; H. J. Porter, a Texas oil executive; Bob Woodruff, the president of the Coca-Cola Corporation; and Clarence Francis, the chairman of General Foods.
When was Eisenhower's resignation of Columbia turned down?
573255b8e17f3d14004228a1
December 1950
82
False
What role did Eisenhower fill after leaving Columbia?
573255b8e17f3d14004228a2
Supreme Commander of the North Atlantic Treaty Organization
162
False
On what date did Eisenhower leave active duty in the military?
573255b8e17f3d14004228a3
May 31, 1952
354
False
What job did Eisenhower hold after his second tenure as president of Columbia?
573255b8e17f3d14004228a4
President of the United States
476
False
When did Eisenhower become President of the United States?
573255b8e17f3d14004228a5
January 20, 1953
439
False
The trustees of Columbia University refused to accept Eisenhower's resignation in December 1950, when he took an extended leave from the university to become the Supreme Commander of the North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO), and he was given operational command of NATO forces in Europe. Eisenhower retired from active service as an Army general on May 31, 1952, and he resumed his presidency of Columbia. He held this position until January 20, 1953, when he became the President of the United States.
Who was President of the United States prior to Eisenhower?
57325614e17f3d14004228ab
Truman
10
False
Truman wanted Eisenhower to run for the presidency as a member of what party?
57325614e17f3d14004228ac
Democratic
227
False
Who did the Republicans want to block with an Eisenhower candidacy in 1952?
57325614e17f3d14004228ad
Robert A. Taft
482
False
What was Taft's political office?
57325614e17f3d14004228ae
Senator
474
False
Who was Eisenhower's campaign manager in 1952?
57325614e17f3d14004228af
Henry Cabot Lodge
736
False
President Truman, symbolizing a broad-based desire for an Eisenhower candidacy for president, again in 1951 pressed him to run for the office as a Democrat. It was at this time that Eisenhower voiced his disagreements with the Democratic party and declared himself and his family to be Republicans. A "Draft Eisenhower" movement in the Republican Party persuaded him to declare his candidacy in the 1952 presidential election to counter the candidacy of non-interventionist Senator Robert A. Taft. The effort was a long struggle; Eisenhower had to be convinced that political circumstances had created a genuine duty for him to offer himself as a candidate, and that there was a mandate from the populace for him to be their President. Henry Cabot Lodge, who served as his campaign manager, and others succeeded in convincing him, and in June 1952 he resigned his command at NATO to campaign full-time. Eisenhower defeated Taft for the nomination, having won critical delegate votes from Texas. Eisenhower's campaign was noted for the simple but effective slogan, "I Like Ike". It was essential to his success that Eisenhower express opposition to Roosevelt's policy at Yalta and against Truman's policies in Korea and China—matters in which he had once participated. In defeating Taft for the nomination, it became necessary for Eisenhower to appease the right wing Old Guard of the Republican Party; his selection of Richard M. Nixon as the Vice-President on the ticket was designed in part for that purpose. Nixon also provided a strong anti-communist presence as well as some youth to counter Ike's more advanced age.
In what part of the country, previously neglected by Republican presidential candidates, did Eisenhower campaign?
57325772b9d445190005ea5f
South
103
False
Along with Korea and Communism, what issue did Eisenhower attack Truman on?
57325772b9d445190005ea60
corruption
311
False
What was the strategy called that was used by Eisenhower's campaign?
57325772b9d445190005ea61
K1C2
199
False
How did Eisenhower claim Eastern Europe should be liberated?
57325772b9d445190005ea62
peaceful means
425
False
In the general election, against the advice of his advisors, Eisenhower insisted on campaigning in the South, refusing to surrender the region to the Democratic Party. The campaign strategy, dubbed "K1C2", was to focus on attacking the Truman and Roosevelt administrations on three issues: Korea, Communism and corruption. In an effort to accommodate the right, he stressed that the liberation of Eastern Europe should be by peaceful means only; he also distanced himself from his former boss President Truman.
What was the home state of Joseph McCarthy?
573257fb0fdd8d15006c69f5
Wisconsin
429
False
Where did Eisenhower claim he would end the war?
573257fb0fdd8d15006c69f6
Korea
515
False
During the campaign, from where was it claimed Nixon had received money improperly?
573257fb0fdd8d15006c69f7
a secret trust
165
False
What topic did Eisenhower not discuss during the campaign?
573257fb0fdd8d15006c69f8
NATO
634
False
Two controversies during the campaign tested him and his staff, but did not affect the campaign. One involved a report that Nixon had improperly received funds from a secret trust. Nixon spoke out adroitly to avoid potential damage, but the matter permanently alienated the two candidates. The second issue centered on Eisenhower's relented decision to confront the controversial methods of Joseph McCarthy on his home turf in a Wisconsin appearance. Just two weeks prior to the election, Eisenhower vowed to go to Korea and end the war there. He promised to maintain a strong commitment against Communism while avoiding the topic of NATO; finally, he stressed a corruption-free, frugal administration at home.
How old was Truman in 1948?
57325981e99e3014001e66e2
64
168
False
In what century was Eisenhower born?
57325981e99e3014001e66e3
19th
46
False
Who was the oldest man to become President prior to Eisenhower?
57325981e99e3014001e66e4
James Buchanan
118
False
How many times had Eisenhower been elected to office prior to becoming president?
57325981e99e3014001e66e5
never
367
False
What did Eisenhower have in common with presidents Taylor, Grant, Taft and Hoover?
57325981e99e3014001e66e6
did not have prior elected office
443
False
Eisenhower was the last president born in the 19th century, and at age 62, was the oldest man elected President since James Buchanan in 1856 (President Truman stood at 64 in 1948 as the incumbent president at the time of his election four years earlier). Eisenhower was the only general to serve as President in the 20th century and the most recent President to have never held elected office prior to the Presidency (The other Presidents who did not have prior elected office were Zachary Taylor, Ulysses S. Grant, William Howard Taft and Herbert Hoover).
What woman was a member of Eisenhower's cabinet?
57325fade17f3d14004228f9
Oveta Culp Hobby
494
False
Who was Eisenhower's budget director?
57325fade17f3d14004228fa
Joseph M. Dodge
199
False
Along with Lucius Clay, who advised Eisenhower on cabinet appointments?
57325fade17f3d14004228fb
Herbert Brownell
233
False
Along with George Humphrey, what cabinet official did Eisenhower have a close relationship with?
57325fade17f3d14004228fc
John Foster Dulles
387
False
What quip was used to describe Eisenhower's cabinet?
57325fade17f3d14004228fd
Eight millionaires and a plumber
630
False
Due to a complete estrangement between the two as a result of campaigning, Truman and Eisenhower had minimal discussions about the transition of administrations. After selecting his budget director, Joseph M. Dodge, Eisenhower asked Herbert Brownell and Lucius Clay to make recommendations for his cabinet appointments. He accepted their recommendations without exception; they included John Foster Dulles and George M. Humphrey with whom he developed his closest relationships, and one woman, Oveta Culp Hobby. Eisenhower's cabinet, consisting of several corporate executives and one labor leader, was dubbed by one journalist, "Eight millionaires and a plumber." The cabinet was notable for its lack of personal friends, office seekers, or experienced government administrators. He also upgraded the role of the National Security Council in planning all phases of the Cold War.
What war did Eisenhower want to end as president?
57326001e99e3014001e673c
Korean
183
False
What type of cabinet meeting did Eisenhower hold for the first time ever?
57326001e99e3014001e673d
pre-inaugural
344
False
Policy in regard to what country was discussed at Eisenhower's first cabinet meeting?
57326001e99e3014001e673e
Russia
453
False
What type of policy was the focus of Eisenhower's inaugural address?
57326001e99e3014001e673f
foreign
527
False
Prior to his inauguration, Eisenhower led a meeting of advisors at Pearl Harbor addressing foremost issues; agreed objectives were to balance the budget during his term, to bring the Korean War to an end, to defend vital interests at lower cost through nuclear deterrent, and to end price and wage controls. Eisenhower also conducted the first pre-inaugural cabinet meeting in history in late 1952; he used this meeting to articulate his anti-communist Russia policy. His inaugural address, as well, was exclusively devoted to foreign policy and included this same philosophy, as well as a commitment to foreign trade and the United Nations.
How did Eisenhower describe his political views?
57326051e17f3d1400422903
progressive conservative
115
False
What New deal program did Eisenhower particularly support?
57326051e17f3d1400422904
Social Security
218
False
What cabinet agency did Eisenhower make Social Security a part of?
57326051e17f3d1400422905
Department of Health, Education and Welfare
313
False
How many people were added to the Social Security rolls by Eisenhower?
57326051e17f3d1400422906
ten million
400
False
What policy in regard to the military did Eisenhower see to completion?
57326051e17f3d1400422907
integration
436
False
Throughout his presidency, Eisenhower adhered to a political philosophy of dynamic conservatism. A self-described "progressive conservative," he continued all the major New Deal programs still in operation, especially Social Security. He expanded its programs and rolled them into a new cabinet-level agency, the Department of Health, Education and Welfare, while extending benefits to an additional ten million workers. He implemented integration in the Armed Services in two years, which had not been completed under Truman.
What wing of the GOP was Eisenhower opposed to?
573260b5e17f3d140042290d
right
507
False
In what year were the first federal elections after Eisenhower became president?
573260b5e17f3d140042290e
1954
7
False
Prior to the 1954 elections, who had majorities in Congress?
573260b5e17f3d140042290f
Republicans
79
False
What type of Republican did Eisenhower characterize himself as?
573260b5e17f3d1400422910
moderate, progressive
358
False
As the 1954 congressional elections approached, and it became evident that the Republicans were in danger of losing their thin majority in both houses, Eisenhower was among those blaming the Old Guard for the losses, and took up the charge to stop suspected efforts by the right wing to take control of the GOP. Eisenhower then articulated his position as a moderate, progressive Republican: "I have just one purpose ... and that is to build up a strong progressive Republican Party in this country. If the right wing wants a fight, they are going to get it ... before I end up, either this Republican Party will reflect progressivism or I won't be with them anymore."
Upon election, how many terms did Eisenhower believe he would serve?
573260fde17f3d1400422915
one
45
False
In what year did Eisenhower have a heart attack?
573260fde17f3d1400422916
1955
233
False
When did Eisenhower make an announcement stating that he would run for a second term?
573260fde17f3d1400422917
February 1956
420
False
Who did Eisenhower want as his 1956 running mate?
573260fde17f3d1400422918
Robert B. Anderson
652
False
Who did Eisenhower defeat in the 1956 presidential election?
573260fde17f3d1400422919
Adlai Stevenson
806
False
Initially Eisenhower planned on serving only one term, but as with other decisions, he maintained a position of maximum flexibility in case leading Republicans wanted him to run again. During his recovery from a heart attack late in 1955, he huddled with his closest advisors to evaluate the GOP's potential candidates; the group, in addition to his doctor, concluded a second term was well advised, and he announced in February 1956 he would run again. Eisenhower was publicly noncommittal about Nixon's repeating as the Vice President on his ticket; the question was an especially important one in light of his heart condition. He personally favored Robert B. Anderson, a Democrat, who rejected his offer; Eisenhower then resolved to leave the matter in the hands of the party. In 1956, Eisenhower faced Adlai Stevenson again and won by an even larger landslide, with 457 of 531 electoral votes and 57.6% of the popular vote. The level of campaigning was curtailed out of health considerations.
What event led Eisenhower to want to improve highways in the US?
57326547e99e3014001e6776
the U.S. Army's 1919 Transcontinental Motor Convoy
115
False
What German transportation project influenced Eisenhower on highways?
57326547e99e3014001e6777
autobahn
336
False
When did Eisenhower sign the law to create the Interstate Highway System?
57326547e99e3014001e6778
June 1956
891
False
Along with military benefits, what did Eisenhower see as the benefit of the highway project?
57326547e99e3014001e6779
economic growth
694
False
Why did Congress hold up the highway bill?
57326547e99e3014001e677a
issuance of bonds to finance the project
770
False
Eisenhower's goal to create improved highways was influenced by difficulties encountered during his involvement in the U.S. Army's 1919 Transcontinental Motor Convoy. He was assigned as an observer for the mission, which involved sending a convoy of U.S. Army vehicles coast to coast. His subsequent experience with encountering German autobahn limited-access road systems during the concluding stages of World War II convinced him of the benefits of an Interstate Highway System. Noticing the improved ability to move logistics throughout the country, he thought an Interstate Highway System in the U.S. would not only be beneficial for military operations, but provide a measure of continued economic growth. The legislation initially stalled in the Congress over the issuance of bonds to finance the project, but the legislative effort was renewed and the law was signed by Eisenhower in June 1956.
What agreements did the GOP Old Guard want Eisenhower to abandon?
5732677be99e3014001e6780
Yalta
106
False
Why did the Old Guard say Eisenhower should void the Yalta Agreements?
5732677be99e3014001e6781
beyond the constitutional authority of the Executive Branch
126
False
What world leader died in March of 1953?
5732677be99e3014001e6782
Joseph Stalin
209
False
What speech did Eisenhower give after Stalin died?
5732677be99e3014001e6783
Chance for Peace
310
False
Who called the Chance for Peace speech the best one Eisenhower gave as president?
5732677be99e3014001e6784
Stephen Ambrose
527
False
In 1953, the Republican Party's Old Guard presented Eisenhower with a dilemma by insisting he disavow the Yalta Agreements as beyond the constitutional authority of the Executive Branch; however, the death of Joseph Stalin in March 1953 made the matter a practical moot point. At this time Eisenhower gave his Chance for Peace speech in which he attempted, unsuccessfully, to forestall the nuclear arms race with the Soviet Union by suggesting multiple opportunities presented by peaceful uses of nuclear materials. Biographer Stephen Ambrose opined that this was the best speech of Eisenhower's presidency.
What did Eisenhower reduce as he increased nuclear weapons stockpiles?
573267bee17f3d140042294d
conventional forces
266
False
What was the policy of increasing nuclear weapons while decreasing conventional forces called?
573267bee17f3d140042294e
New Look
444
False
When did Eisenhower begin to cut the defense budget?
573267bee17f3d140042294f
1953
499
False
Along with NSC 162/2, what influenced the development of the New Look policy?
573267bee17f3d1400422950
Project Solarium
364
False
The U.N. speech was well received but the Soviets never acted upon it, due to an overarching concern for the greater stockpiles of nuclear weapons in the U.S. arsenal. Indeed, Eisenhower embarked upon a greater reliance on the use of nuclear weapons, while reducing conventional forces, and with them the overall defense budget, a policy formulated as a result of Project Solarium and expressed in NSC 162/2. This approach became known as the "New Look", and was initiated with defense cuts in late 1953.
Why did nuclear arms negotiations with Russia fail prior to 1955?
5732696fe17f3d140042295f
refusal of the Russians to permit any sort of inspections
178
False
In what city did the US and Russia conduct nuclear talks in 1955?
5732696fe17f3d1400422960
London
257
False
Who refused to permit nuclear weapons inspections in the wake of the 1955 talks?
5732696fe17f3d1400422961
Eisenhower
359
False
In May of 1955, a treaty was signed giving independence to what country?
5732696fe17f3d1400422962
Austria
538
False
What was the plan Eisenhower presented at the Geneva Conference called?
5732696fe17f3d1400422963
Open Skies
682
False
In 1955 American nuclear arms policy became one aimed primarily at arms control as opposed to disarmament. The failure of negotiations over arms until 1955 was due mainly to the refusal of the Russians to permit any sort of inspections. In talks located in London that year, they expressed a willingness to discuss inspections; the tables were then turned on Eisenhower, when he responded with an unwillingness on the part of the U.S. to permit inspections. In May of that year the Russians agreed to sign a treaty giving independence to Austria, and paved the way for a Geneva summit with the U.S., U.K. and France. At the Geneva Conference Eisenhower presented a proposal called "Open Skies" to facilitate disarmament, which included plans for Russia and the U.S. to provide mutual access to each other's skies for open surveillance of military infrastructure. Russian leader Nikita Khrushchev dismissed the proposal out of hand.
What country did Eisenhower believe communists would conquer if they took over Guatemala?
57326b2be99e3014001e678a
Mexico
399
False
The domino theory was applied to Central America and what other region?
57326b2be99e3014001e678b
Southeast Asia
86
False
In what year was Eisenhower's EDC rejected?
57326b2be99e3014001e678c
1954
3
False
What country was made a full partner in NATO as the result of the failure of EDC?
57326b2be99e3014001e678d
West Germany
749
False
According to Eisenhower, all of Southeast Asia would become communist if the communist insurgency won in what country?
57326b2be99e3014001e678e
Vietnam
192
False
In 1954, Eisenhower articulated the domino theory in his outlook towards communism in Southeast Asia and also in Central America. He believed that if the communists were allowed to prevail in Vietnam, this would cause a succession of countries to fall to communism, from Laos through Malaysia and Indonesia ultimately to India. Likewise, the fall of Guatemala would end with the fall of neighboring Mexico. That year the loss of North Vietnam to the communists and the rejection of his proposed European Defence Community (EDC) were serious defeats, but he remained optimistic in his opposition to the spread of communism, saying "Long faces don't win wars". As he had threatened the French in their rejection of EDC, he afterwards moved to restore West Germany, as a full NATO partner.
Who was the director of the CIA?
57326ccc0fdd8d15006c6ac7
Dulles
33
False
What was the code name of the overthrow of the Iranian government?
57326ccc0fdd8d15006c6ac8
Operation Ajax
201
False
What CIA operation toppled the Guatemalan government?
57326ccc0fdd8d15006c6ac9
Pbsuccess
248
False
What company made the U-2?
57326ccc0fdd8d15006c6aca
Lockheed
476
False
Under what president did the Bay of Pigs Invasion take place?
57326ccc0fdd8d15006c6acb
John F. Kennedy
626
False
With Eisenhower's leadership and Dulles' direction, CIA activities increased under the pretense of resisting the spread of communism in poorer countries; the CIA in part deposed the leaders of Iran in Operation Ajax, of Guatemala through Operation Pbsuccess, and possibly the newly independent Republic of the Congo (Léopoldville). In 1954 Eisenhower wanted to increase surveillance inside the Soviet Union. With Dulles' recommendation, he authorized the deployment of thirty Lockheed U-2's at a cost of $35 million. The Eisenhower administration also planned the Bay of Pigs Invasion to overthrow Fidel Castro in Cuba, which John F. Kennedy was left to carry out."
What make and model aircraft was Air Force Flight 8610?
57326d6ce99e3014001e67ac
Lockheed C-121 Constellation
125
False
What aircraft had an incident with Air Force Flight 8610?
57326d6ce99e3014001e67ad
Eastern Airlines Flight 8610
28
False
What call sign does an Air Force aircraft have when a president is traveling on it?
57326d6ce99e3014001e67ae
Air Force One
280
False
What was the name of the Lockheed C-121 Constellation that carried Eisenhower?
57326d6ce99e3014001e67af
Columbine II
163
False
In what year was Eisenhower involved in an incident while flying?
57326d6ce99e3014001e67b0
1953
22
False
Over New York City in 1953, Eastern Airlines Flight 8610, a commercial flight, had a near miss with Air Force Flight 8610, a Lockheed C-121 Constellation known as Columbine II, while the latter was carrying President Eisenhower. This prompted the adoption of the unique call sign Air Force One, to be used whenever the president is on board any US Air Force aircraft. Columbine II is the only presidential aircraft to have ever been sold to the public and is the only remaining presidential aircraft left unrestored and not on public display.
What caused Eisenhower to kickstart the US space program?
57327187b9d445190005eb21
Soviet launch of Sputnik
107
False
Along with the U-2 flyovers, what did Eisenhower try to legitimize with the Open Skies Policy?
57327187b9d445190005eb22
Project Genetrix
419
False
What was the legal status of the U-2 flyovers?
57327187b9d445190005eb23
illegal
385
False
What was the name of the civilian space agency created by Eisenhower?
57327187b9d445190005eb24
NASA
529
False
With whom did Eisenhower try to improve relations?
57327187b9d445190005eb25
American scientists
640
False
On the whole, Eisenhower's support of the nation's fledgling space program was officially modest until the Soviet launch of Sputnik in 1957, gaining the Cold War enemy enormous prestige around the world. He then launched a national campaign that funded not just space exploration but a major strengthening of science and higher education. His Open Skies Policy attempted to legitimize illegal Lockheed U-2 flyovers and Project Genetrix while paving the way for spy satellite technology to orbit over sovereign territory, created NASA as a civilian space agency, signed a landmark science education law, and fostered improved relations with American scientists.
Where did the Chinese begin to increase forces after Eisenhower entered the White House?
573271ece17f3d140042297f
Kaesong sanctuary
145
False
What did Eisenhower threaten to do if there was no armistice in Korea?
573271ece17f3d1400422980
use nuclear force
181
False
Along with the Joint Chiefs and SAC, what body was involved with formulating plans for nuclear war with China?
573271ece17f3d1400422981
National Security Council
312
False
What event led to decreased Russian support for China?
573271ece17f3d1400422982
death of Stalin
465
False
What was SAC an abbreviation of?
573271ece17f3d1400422983
Strategic Air Command
374
False
In late 1952 Eisenhower went to Korea and discovered a military and political stalemate. Once in office, when the Chinese began a buildup in the Kaesong sanctuary, he threatened to use nuclear force if an armistice was not concluded. His earlier military reputation in Europe was effective with the Chinese. The National Security Council, the Joint Chiefs of Staff, and the Strategic Air Command (SAC) devised detailed plans for nuclear war against China. With the death of Stalin in early March 1953, Russian support for a Chinese hard-line weakened and China decided to compromise on the prisoner issue.
The boundary line of what year formed the 1953 armistice line?
57327238e99e3014001e67b6
1950
102
False
In what month in 1953 did the armistice come into being?
57327238e99e3014001e67b7
July
3
False
Who was the President of South Korea at the time of the armistice?
57327238e99e3014001e67b8
Syngman Rhee
305
False
What American official notably opposed the armistice?
57327238e99e3014001e67b9
Secretary Dulles
264
False
Who described the armistice as Eisenhower's greatest presidential accomplishment?
57327238e99e3014001e67ba
Ambrose
388
False
In July 1953, an armistice took effect with Korea divided along approximately the same boundary as in 1950. The armistice and boundary remain in effect today, with American soldiers stationed there to guarantee it. The armistice, concluded despite opposition from Secretary Dulles, South Korean President Syngman Rhee, and also within Eisenhower's party, has been described by biographer Ambrose as the greatest achievement of the administration. Eisenhower had the insight to realize that unlimited war in the nuclear age was unthinkable, and limited war unwinnable.
Along with the British and Israelis, what forces invaded Egypt in 1956?
5732728be17f3d1400422989
French
68
False
What was the combined Israeli-British-French invasion in response to?
5732728be17f3d140042298a
Suez Crisis
124
False
Who was the leader of Egypt at the time of the Suez Crisis?
5732728be17f3d140042298b
Gamal Abdel Nasser
178
False
Who invaded Hungary in 1956?
5732728be17f3d140042298c
Soviet
237
False
What year saw the publication of Eisenhower's memoirs?
5732728be17f3d140042298d
1965
564
False
In November 1956, Eisenhower forced an end to the combined British, French and Israeli invasion of Egypt in response to the Suez Crisis, receiving praise from Egyptian president Gamal Abdel Nasser. Simultaneously he condemned the brutal Soviet invasion of Hungary in response to the Hungarian Revolution of 1956. He publicly disavowed his allies at the United Nations, and used financial and diplomatic pressure to make them withdraw from Egypt. Eisenhower explicitly defended his strong position against Britain and France in his memoirs, which were published in 1965.
What war was being fought by France in 1953?
573272fab9d445190005eb2b
First Indochina War
139
False
What was John W. O'Daniel's nickname?
573272fab9d445190005eb2c
Iron Mike
197
False
Who convinced Eisenhower not to intervene in Vietnam?
573272fab9d445190005eb2d
Matthew Ridgway
288
False
Who was providing supplies to the Vietnamese communists fighting against France?
573272fab9d445190005eb2e
China
110
False
How large of a military deployment did Ridgway say would be necessary in Vietnam?
573272fab9d445190005eb2f
massive
391
False
Early in 1953, the French asked Eisenhower for help in French Indochina against the Communists, supplied from China, who were fighting the First Indochina War. Eisenhower sent Lt. General John W. "Iron Mike" O'Daniel to Vietnam to study and assess the French forces there. Chief of Staff Matthew Ridgway dissuaded the President from intervening by presenting a comprehensive estimate of the massive military deployment that would be necessary. Eisenhower stated prophetically that "this war would absorb our troops by divisions."
Aside from bombers, what aid did Eisenhower provide to the French?
57327363b9d445190005eb35
non-combat personnel
47
False
What did American bombers drop on Vietnam?
57327363b9d445190005eb36
napalm
151
False
When did Dien Bien Phu fall to the communists?
57327363b9d445190005eb37
May 1954
437
False
Along with the Vice President and NCS head, who urged Eisenhower to intervene after the fall of Dien Bien Phu?
57327363b9d445190005eb38
Chairman of the Joint Chiefs
504
False
What arguably impossible conditions did Eisenhower set for further intervention on behalf of the French?
57327363b9d445190005eb39
allied participation and congressional approval
309
False
Eisenhower did provide France with bombers and non-combat personnel. After a few months with no success by the French, he added other aircraft to drop napalm for clearing purposes. Further requests for assistance from the French were agreed to but only on conditions Eisenhower knew were impossible to meet – allied participation and congressional approval. When the French fortress of Dien Bien Phu fell to the Vietnamese Communists in May 1954, Eisenhower refused to intervene despite urgings from the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs, the Vice President and the head of NCS.
What is SEATO?
573273bfe17f3d1400422993
Southeast Asia Treaty Organization
75
False
Along with the United States, the United Kingdom and France, who formed SEATO?
573273bfe17f3d1400422994
New Zealand and Australia
143
False
What was the purpose of SEATO?
573273bfe17f3d1400422995
defense of Vietnam against communism
172
False
What group did France split Vietnam with?
573273bfe17f3d1400422996
Communists
364
False
Who met in peace talks with France at Geneva?
573273bfe17f3d1400422997
Chinese
238
False
Eisenhower responded to the French defeat with the formation of the SEATO (Southeast Asia Treaty Organization) Alliance with the U.K., France, New Zealand and Australia in defense of Vietnam against communism. At that time the French and Chinese reconvened Geneva peace talks; Eisenhower agreed the U.S. would participate only as an observer. After France and the Communists agreed to a partition of Vietnam, Eisenhower rejected the agreement, offering military and economic aid to southern Vietnam. Ambrose argues that Eisenhower, by not participating in the Geneva agreement, had kept the U.S out of Vietnam; nevertheless, with the formation of SEATO, he had in the end put the U.S. back into the conflict.
What was South Vietnam called in 1955?
573274070fdd8d15006c6ae5
Free Vietnam
61
False
Who was the first ambassador to South Vietnam?
573274070fdd8d15006c6ae6
J. Lawton Collins
19
False
Who was the leader of South Vietnam in 1954?
573274070fdd8d15006c6ae7
Ngo Dinh Diem
227
False
When did Eisenhower first send military advisers to South Vietnam?
573274070fdd8d15006c6ae8
February 1955
331
False
Along with Free Vietnam, what was another term for South Vietnam?
573274070fdd8d15006c6ae9
Republic of Vietnam
486
False
In late 1954, Gen. J. Lawton Collins was made ambassador to "Free Vietnam" (the term South Vietnam came into use in 1955), effectively elevating the country to sovereign status. Collins' instructions were to support the leader Ngo Dinh Diem in subverting communism, by helping him to build an army and wage a military campaign. In February 1955, Eisenhower dispatched the first American soldiers to Vietnam as military advisors to Diem's army. After Diem announced the formation of the Republic of Vietnam (RVN, commonly known as South Vietnam) in October, Eisenhower immediately recognized the new state and offered military, economic, and technical assistance.
How many soldiers did Eisenhower ultimately send to Vietnam?
573274500fdd8d15006c6aef
900
106
False
How many days did the President of South Vietnam visit the US for in 1957?
573274500fdd8d15006c6af0
ten
313
False
Where was a parade held for the President of South Vietnam?
573274500fdd8d15006c6af1
New York City
416
False
Who was Secretary of State in 1957?
573274500fdd8d15006c6af2
John Foster Dulles
497
False
According to Dulles, why was Diem made president of Vietnam?
573274500fdd8d15006c6af3
there were no better alternatives
561
False
In the years that followed, Eisenhower increased the number of U.S. military advisors in South Vietnam to 900 men. This was due to North Vietnam's support of "uprisings" in the south and concern the nation would fall. In May 1957 Diem, then President of South Vietnam, made a state visit to the United States for ten days. President Eisenhower pledged his continued support, and a parade was held in Diem's honor in New York City. Although Diem was publicly praised, in private Secretary of State John Foster Dulles conceded that Diem had been selected because there were no better alternatives.
When was a U-2 downed over the Soviet Union?
57327493e99e3014001e67c0
May 1, 1960
3
False
What was the downed U-2 gathering intelligence in advance of?
57327493e99e3014001e67c2
East–West summit conference
197
False
Where was the East-West summit to have taken place?
57327493e99e3014001e67c3
Paris
254
False
What was the rank of the pilot of the downed U-2?
57327493e99e3014001e67c4
Captain
276
False
On May 1, 1960, a U.S. one-man U-2 spy plane was reportedly shot down at high altitude over Soviet Union airspace. The flight was made to gain photo intelligence before the scheduled opening of an East–West summit conference, which had been scheduled in Paris, 15 days later. Captain Francis Gary Powers had bailed out of his aircraft and was captured after parachuting down onto Russian soil. Four days after Powers disappeared, the Eisenhower Administration had NASA issue a very detailed press release noting that an aircraft had "gone missing" north of Turkey. It speculated that the pilot might have fallen unconscious while the autopilot was still engaged, and falsely claimed that "the pilot reported over the emergency frequency that he was experiencing oxygen difficulties."
What did the Eisenhower administration refer to the downed U-2 as?
57327cb4e99e3014001e67e4
weather research aircraft
288
False
Where did the Eisenhower administration say that the downed U-2 was intended to be flying?
57327cb4e99e3014001e67e5
Turkey
457
False
According to the cover story, what did the "weather research" pilot have trouble with?
57327cb4e99e3014001e67e6
oxygen equipment
421
False
What happened to Powers in the Soviet Union?
57327cb4e99e3014001e67e7
trial
499
False
What did Khrushchev refer to the U-2 as?
57327cb4e99e3014001e67e8
spy-plane
51
False
Soviet Premier Nikita Khrushchev announced that a "spy-plane" had been shot down but intentionally made no reference to the pilot. As a result, the Eisenhower Administration, thinking the pilot had died in the crash, authorized the release of a cover story claiming that the plane was a "weather research aircraft" which had unintentionally strayed into Soviet airspace after the pilot had radioed "difficulties with his oxygen equipment" while flying over Turkey. The Soviets put Captain Powers on trial and displayed parts of the U-2, which had been recovered almost fully intact.
Along with Eisenhower, Macmillan and de Gaulle, what leader attended the Four Powers Paris Summit?
57327d1a0fdd8d15006c6b11
Nikita Khrushchev
70
False
What did Khrushchev demand that Eisenhower do?
57327d1a0fdd8d15006c6b12
apologize
224
False
Along with reducing nuclear weapons, what was to have been the topic of conversation at the Four Power Paris Summit?
57327d1a0fdd8d15006c6b13
Berlin
432
False
What did Eisenhower blame for ruining the summit?
57327d1a0fdd8d15006c6b14
stupid U-2 business
540
False
In what year was the Four Power Paris Summit intended to take place?
57327d1a0fdd8d15006c6b15
1960
4
False
The 1960 Four Power Paris Summit between President Dwight Eisenhower, Nikita Khrushchev, Harold Macmillan and Charles de Gaulle collapsed because of the incident. Eisenhower refused to accede to Khrushchev's demands that he apologize. Therefore, Khrushchev would not take part in the summit. Up until this event, Eisenhower felt he had been making progress towards better relations with the Soviet Union. Nuclear arms reduction and Berlin were to have been discussed at the summit. Eisenhower stated it had all been ruined because of that "stupid U-2 business".
Which president initially began to desegregate the US military?
57327d740fdd8d15006c6b1b
Truman
16
False
When did the desegregation of the United States Armed Forces begin?
57327d740fdd8d15006c6b1c
1948
82
False
When did Eisenhower deliver his first State of the Union?
57327d740fdd8d15006c6b1d
February 1953
201
False
What control did Eisenhower use to push through desegregation?
57327d740fdd8d15006c6b1e
military spending
502
False
In what geographical area did Eisenhower promise to end desegregation in his State of the Union address?
57327d740fdd8d15006c6b1f
District of Columbia
324
False
While President Truman had begun the process of desegregating the Armed Forces in 1948, actual implementation had been slow. Eisenhower made clear his stance in his first State of the Union address in February 1953, saying "I propose to use whatever authority exists in the office of the President to end segregation in the District of Columbia, including the Federal Government, and any segregation in the Armed Forces". When he encountered opposition from the services, he used government control of military spending to force the change through, stating "Wherever Federal Funds are expended ..., I do not see how any American can justify ... a discrimination in the expenditure of those funds".
Who did Eisenhower tell DC officials to integrate?
57327dd5b3a91d1900202da9
school children
140
False
What was the first civil rights act proposed to Congress by Eisenhower?
57327dd5b3a91d1900202daa
Civil Rights Act of 1957
185
False
In what year did Eisenhower propose his second civil rights act?
57327dd5b3a91d1900202dab
1960
217
False
What sort of commission did the Civil Rights Act of 1957 establish?
57327dd5b3a91d1900202dac
Civil Rights Commission
366
False
Under the Civil Rights Act of 1957, what federal department contained a civil rights office?
57327dd5b3a91d1900202dad
Justice
341
False
Eisenhower told District of Columbia officials to make Washington a model for the rest of the country in integrating black and white public school children. He proposed to Congress the Civil Rights Act of 1957 and of 1960 and signed those acts into law. The 1957 act for the first time established a permanent civil rights office inside the Justice Department and a Civil Rights Commission to hear testimony about abuses of voting rights. Although both acts were much weaker than subsequent civil rights legislation, they constituted the first significant civil rights acts since 1875.
What state refused to integrate its schools in 1957?
57327e2db3a91d1900202db3
Arkansas
22
False
What military unit was sent from outside of Arkansas to oversee desegregation?
57327e2db3a91d1900202db4
101st Airborne Division
329
False
What Arkansas militia unit did Eisenhower federalize in 1957?
57327e2db3a91d1900202db5
Arkansas National Guard
267
False
Who was the governor of Arkansas in 1957?
57327e2db3a91d1900202db6
Orval Faubus
187
False
How many black students were escorted by the 101st Airborne to Little Rock Central High School?
57327e2db3a91d1900202db7
nine
382
False
In 1957, the state of Arkansas refused to honor a federal court order to integrate their public school system stemming from the Brown decision. Eisenhower demanded that Arkansas governor Orval Faubus obey the court order. When Faubus balked, the president placed the Arkansas National Guard under federal control and sent in the 101st Airborne Division. They escorted and protected nine black students' entry to Little Rock Central High School, an all-white public school, for the first time since the Reconstruction Era. Martin Luther King Jr. wrote to Eisenhower to thank him for his actions, writing "The overwhelming majority of southerners, Negro and white, stand firmly behind your resolute action to restore law and order in Little Rock".
In what year did Joseph McCarthy declare that the federal government was employing communists?
57327e83b3a91d1900202dbd
1953
345
False
What did Eisenhower do when he was encouraged to respond to McCarthy's accusations?
57327e83b3a91d1900202dbe
he refused
659
False
Why did Eisenhower ignore McCarthy?
57327e83b3a91d1900202dbf
facilitate relations with Congress
115
False
This prevented Eisenhower from openly condemning Joseph McCarthy's highly criticized methods against communism. To facilitate relations with Congress, Eisenhower decided to ignore McCarthy's controversies and thereby deprive them of more energy from involvement of the White House. This position drew criticism from a number of corners. In late 1953 McCarthy declared on national television that the employment of communists within the government was a menace and would be a pivotal issue in the 1954 Senate elections. Eisenhower was urged to respond directly and specify the various measures he had taken to purge the government of communists. Nevertheless, he refused.
What organization did Eisenhower want to keep from being one of McCarthy's targets?
57327ee0b3a91d1900202dc3
Atomic Energy Commission
102
False
What was the AEC working on at this time?
57327ee0b3a91d1900202dc4
H-bombs
251
False
What AEC scientists counseled delaying the development of the hydrogen bomb?
57327ee0b3a91d1900202dc5
J. Robert Oppenheimer
372
False
What did Eisenhower do to Oppenheimer after he said that the hydrogen bomb should be delayed?
57327ee0b3a91d1900202dc6
removed him from the agency and revoked his security clearance
449
False
Among Ike's objectives in not directly confronting McCarthy was to prevent McCarthy from dragging the Atomic Energy Commission (AEC) into McCarthy's witch hunt for communists, which would interfere with, and perhaps delay, the AEC's important work on H-bombs. The administration had discovered through its own investigations that one of the leading scientists on the AEC, J. Robert Oppenheimer, had urged that the H-bomb work be delayed. Eisenhower removed him from the agency and revoked his security clearance, though he knew this would create fertile ground for McCarthy.
What did McCarthy threaten to do in May of 1955?
57327f4a06a3a419008aca93
issue subpoenas to White House personnel
36
False
What tradition was fostered by Eisenhower's reaction to McCarthy's subpoena threats?
57327f4a06a3a419008aca94
executive privilege
631
False
Eisenhower denied McCarthy access to the personnel of what branch of the federal government?
57327f4a06a3a419008aca95
Executive
215
False
In May 1955, McCarthy threatened to issue subpoenas to White House personnel. Eisenhower was furious, and issued an order as follows: "It is essential to efficient and effective administration that employees of the Executive Branch be in a position to be completely candid in advising with each other on official matters ... it is not in the public interest that any of their conversations or communications, or any documents or reproductions, concerning such advice be disclosed." This was an unprecedented step by Eisenhower to protect communication beyond the confines of a cabinet meeting, and soon became a tradition known as executive privilege. Ike's denial of McCarthy's access to his staff reduced McCarthy's hearings to rants about trivial matters, and contributed to his ultimate downfall.
Who won a Senate majority in 1954?
57327f92b3a91d1900202dcb
Democrats
4
False
After the 1954 election, who was the Speaker of the House?
57327f92b3a91d1900202dcc
Sam Rayburn
195
False
Who was made Senate Majority Leader after the 1954 election?
57327f92b3a91d1900202dcd
Lyndon B. Johnson
128
False
What state were Johnson and Rayburn from?
57327f92b3a91d1900202dce
Texas
231
False
Who was Speaker of the House between 1953 and 1955?
57327f92b3a91d1900202dcf
Joe Martin
238
False
The Democrats gained a majority in both houses in the 1954 election. Eisenhower had to work with the Democratic Majority Leader Lyndon B. Johnson (later U.S. president) in the Senate and Speaker Sam Rayburn in the House, both from Texas. Joe Martin, the Republican Speaker from 1947 to 1949 and again from 1953 to 1955, wrote that Eisenhower "never surrounded himself with assistants who could solve political problems with professional skill. There were exceptions, Leonard W. Hall, for example, who as chairman of the Republican National Committee tried to open the administration's eyes to the political facts of life, with occasional success. However, these exceptions were not enough to right the balance."
What did Martin think Eisenhower did too much of in his relations with Congress?
57328011b3a91d1900202dd5
worked too much through subordinates
41
False
As a result of Eisenhower's actions toward Congress, what did Martin think Congress often gave him?
57328011b3a91d1900202dd6
reverse of what he has desired
129
False
Who did Martin think Eisenhower should have made better use of?
57328011b3a91d1900202dd7
Republicans of consequence
408
False
Speaker Martin concluded that Eisenhower worked too much through subordinates in dealing with Congress, with results, "often the reverse of what he has desired" because Members of Congress, "resent having some young fellow who was picked up by the White House without ever having been elected to office himself coming around and telling them 'The Chief wants this'. The administration never made use of many Republicans of consequence whose services in one form or another would have been available for the asking."
What were Harlan and Stewart's party affiliations?
5732806657eb1f1400fd2d40
Republicans
91
False
What party did Brennan belong to?
5732806657eb1f1400fd2d41
Democrat
124
False
Who did Eisenhower nominate for Chief Justice?
5732806657eb1f1400fd2d42
Warren
354
False
What sort of decisions did Warren favor on the Supreme Court?
5732806657eb1f1400fd2d43
liberal
641
False
Along with liberals, who was Eisenhower trying to appeal to with the Warren pick?
5732806657eb1f1400fd2d44
law-and-order conservatives
303
False
Whittaker was unsuited for the role and soon retired. Stewart and Harlan were conservative Republicans, while Brennan was a Democrat who became a leading voice for liberalism. In selecting a Chief Justice, Eisenhower looked for an experienced jurist who could appeal to liberals in the party as well as law-and-order conservatives, noting privately that Warren "represents the kind of political, economic, and social thinking that I believe we need on the Supreme Court ... He has a national name for integrity, uprightness, and courage that, again, I believe we need on the Court". In the next few years Warren led the Court in a series of liberal decisions that revolutionized the role of the Court.
Where did Eisenhower pick up the habit of smoking?
573280c306a3a419008aca99
West Point
39
False
How many cigarettes did Eisenhower smoke daily at West Point?
573280c306a3a419008aca9a
two or three packs
57
False
When did Eisenhower stop smoking completely?
573280c306a3a419008aca9b
March 1949
158
False
Who was Eisenhower's employer when he gave up smoking?
573280c306a3a419008aca9c
Columbia
178
False
Who was the cardiologist who treated Eisenhower after his heart attack?
573280c306a3a419008aca9d
Paul Dudley White
577
False
Eisenhower began smoking cigarettes at West Point, often two or three packs a day. Eisenhower stated that he "gave [himself] an order" to stop cold turkey in March 1949 while at Columbia. He was probably the first president to release information about his health and medical records while in office. On September 24, 1955, while vacationing in Colorado, he had a serious heart attack that required six weeks' hospitalization, during which time Nixon, Dulles, and Sherman Adams assumed administrative duties and provided communication with the President. He was treated by Dr. Paul Dudley White, a cardiologist with a national reputation, who regularly informed the press of the President's progress. Instead of eliminating him as a candidate for a second term as President, his physician recommended a second term as essential to his recovery.
What caused Eisenhower's stroke of 1957?
5732812c06a3a419008acaa3
left ventricular aneurysm
61
False
Where was Eisenhower when he suffered a stroke in 1957?
5732812c06a3a419008acaa4
cabinet meeting
187
False
What couldn't Eisenhower move as a result of his stroke?
5732812c06a3a419008acaa5
right hand
270
False
What is Crohn's disease?
5732812c06a3a419008acaa6
chronic inflammatory condition of the intestine
366
False
Why did Eisenhower need surgery on June 9, 1956?
5732812c06a3a419008acaa7
bowel obstruction
448
False
As a consequence of his heart attack, Eisenhower developed a left ventricular aneurysm, which was in turn the cause of a mild stroke on November 25, 1957. This incident occurred during a cabinet meeting when Eisenhower suddenly found himself unable to speak or move his right hand. The stroke had caused an aphasia. The president also suffered from Crohn's disease, chronic inflammatory condition of the intestine, which necessitated surgery for a bowel obstruction on June 9, 1956. To treat the intestinal block, surgeons bypassed about ten inches of his small intestine. His scheduled meeting with Indian Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru was postponed so he could recover from surgery at his farm in Gettysburg, Pennsylvania. He was still recovering from this operation during the Suez Crisis. Eisenhower's health issues forced him to give up smoking and make some changes to his dietary habits, but he still indulged in alcohol. During a visit to England he complained of dizziness and had to have his blood pressure checked on August 29, 1959; however, before dinner at Chequers on the next day his doctor General Howard Snyder recalled Eisenhower "drank several gin-and-tonics, and one or two gins on the rocks ... three or four wines with the dinner".
What August 1965 event caused Eisenhower to drop out of public life?
57328196b3a91d1900202ddb
heart attack
218
False
For what ailment did Eisenhower receive surgery in 1966?
57328196b3a91d1900202ddc
cholecystitis
341
False
What did Eisenhower have removed via surgery on December 12, 1966?
57328196b3a91d1900202ddd
gallbladder
418
False
In what year did Eisenhower die?
57328196b3a91d1900202dde
1969
497
False
How many heart attacks did Eisenhower have between 1955 and 1969?
57328196b3a91d1900202ddf
seven
700
False
The last three years of Eisenhower's second term in office were ones of relatively good health. Eventually after leaving the White House, he suffered several additional and ultimately crippling heart attacks. A severe heart attack in August 1965 largely ended his participation in public affairs. In August 1966 he began to show symptoms of cholecystitis, for which he underwent surgery on December 12, 1966, when his gallbladder was removed, containing 16 gallstones. After Eisenhower's death in 1969 (see below), an autopsy unexpectedly revealed an adrenal pheochromocytoma, a benign adrenaline-secreting tumor that may have made the President more vulnerable to heart disease. Eisenhower suffered seven heart attacks in total from 1955 until his death.
Who did Eisenhower endorse for president in 1960?
573281eab9988014000c7640
Richard Nixon
101
False
Who was the Democratic candidate for president in 1960?
573281eab9988014000c7641
John F. Kennedy
132
False
How old was Eisenhower in 1960?
573281eab9988014000c7642
70
719
False
Who was the youngest person elected to the United States presidency?
573281eab9988014000c7643
Kennedy
776
False
Who won the US presidential election of 1960?
573281eab9988014000c7644
Kennedy
639
False
In the 1960 election to choose his successor, Eisenhower endorsed his own Vice President, Republican Richard Nixon against Democrat John F. Kennedy. He told friends, "I will do almost anything to avoid turning my chair and country over to Kennedy." He actively campaigned for Nixon in the final days, although he may have done Nixon some harm. When asked by reporters at the end of a televised press conference to list one of Nixon's policy ideas he had adopted, Eisenhower joked, "If you give me a week, I might think of one. I don't remember." Kennedy's campaign used the quote in one of its campaign commercials. Nixon narrowly lost to Kennedy. Eisenhower, who was the oldest president in history at that time (then 70), was succeeded by the youngest elected president, as Kennedy was 43.
On what date did Eisenhower deliver his farewell speech?
5732824557eb1f1400fd2d54
January 17, 1961
3
False
In his farewell speech, what complex did Eisenhower warn the American people of?
5732824557eb1f1400fd2d55
military–industrial
557
False
What war did Eisenhower talk about in his Address to the Nation?
5732824557eb1f1400fd2d56
Cold
221
False
From where did Eisenhower deliver his farewell speech?
5732824557eb1f1400fd2d57
Oval Office
88
False
What term did Eisenhower use to describe the character of communism?
5732824557eb1f1400fd2d58
atheistic
276
False
On January 17, 1961, Eisenhower gave his final televised Address to the Nation from the Oval Office. In his farewell speech, Eisenhower raised the issue of the Cold War and role of the U.S. armed forces. He described the Cold War: "We face a hostile ideology global in scope, atheistic in character, ruthless in purpose and insidious in method ..." and warned about what he saw as unjustified government spending proposals and continued with a warning that "we must guard against the acquisition of unwarranted influence, whether sought or unsought, by the military–industrial complex."
What town did Eisenhower retire to after his presidency?
5732833db9988014000c7652
Gettysburg
136
False
What Pennsylvania county did Eisenhower grow up in?
5732833db9988014000c7653
Dauphin
219
False
Who did Eisenhower donate his farm to in 1967?
5732833db9988014000c7654
National Park Service
297
False
Who was the Republican presidential candidate in 1964?
5732833db9988014000c7655
Barry Goldwater
474
False
What did Barry Goldwater call Eisenhower?
5732833db9988014000c7656
dime-store New Dealer
652
False
Eisenhower retired to the place where he and Mamie had spent much of their post-war time, a working farm adjacent to the battlefield at Gettysburg, Pennsylvania, only 70 miles from his ancestral home in Elizabethville, Dauphin County, Pennsylvania. In 1967 the Eisenhowers donated the farm to the National Park Service. In retirement, the former president did not completely retreat from political life; he spoke at the 1964 Republican National Convention and appeared with Barry Goldwater in a Republican campaign commercial from Gettysburg. However, his endorsement came somewhat reluctantly because Goldwater had attacked the former president as "a dime-store New Dealer".
How old was Eisenhower when he died?
57328397b9988014000c765c
78
48
False
At what facility did Eisenhower die?
57328397b9988014000c765d
Walter Reed Army Medical Center
119
False
What was Eisenhower's cause of death?
57328397b9988014000c765e
congestive heart failure
91
False
What was Eisenhower's date of death?
57328397b9988014000c765f
March 28, 1969
18
False
What Christian denomination did Eisenhower belong to?
57328397b9988014000c7660
Episcopal
497
False
On the morning of March 28, 1969, at the age of 78, Eisenhower died in Washington, D.C. of congestive heart failure at Walter Reed Army Medical Center. The following day his body was moved to the Washington National Cathedral's Bethlehem Chapel, where he lay in repose for 28 hours. On March 30, his body was brought by caisson to the United States Capitol, where he lay in state in the Capitol Rotunda. On March 31, Eisenhower's body was returned to the National Cathedral, where he was given an Episcopal Church funeral service.
When did Eisenhower's funeral train arrive in Abilene, Kansas?
573283e5b3a91d1900202ded
April 2
206
False
At what location was Eisenhower buried?
573283e5b3a91d1900202dee
Eisenhower Presidential Library
287
False
What was the cost of Eisenhower's casket?
573283e5b3a91d1900202def
$80
397
False
What color jacket was Eisenhower buried in?
573283e5b3a91d1900202df0
green
478
False
When did Mamie Eisenhower die?
573283e5b3a91d1900202df1
1979
778
False
That evening, Eisenhower's body was placed onto a train en route to Abilene, Kansas, the last time a funeral train has been used as part of funeral proceedings of an American president. His body arrived on April 2, and was interred later that day in a small chapel on the grounds of the Eisenhower Presidential Library. The president's body was buried as a General of the Army. The family used an $80 standard soldier's casket, and dressed Eisenhower's body in his famous short green jacket. His only medals worn were: the Army Distinguished Service Medal with three oak leaf clusters, the Navy Distinguished Service Medal, and the Legion of Merit. Eisenhower is buried alongside his son Doud, who died at age 3 in 1921. His wife Mamie was buried next to him after her death in 1979.
In popular memory, what sport was Eisenhower known for playing?
5732845206a3a419008acabd
golf
137
False
What did critics feel that Eisenhower should have opposed in public?
5732845206a3a419008acabe
McCarthyism
700
False
Where was Central High school located?
5732845206a3a419008acabf
Little Rock
314
False
How did critics characterize Kennedy in comparison to Eisenhower?
5732845206a3a419008acac0
vigorous young successor
176
False
What nation was considered the leader in the nuclear arms race?
5732845206a3a419008acac1
Soviet Union
580
False
In the immediate years after Eisenhower left office, his reputation declined. He was widely seen by critics as an inactive, uninspiring, golf-playing president compared to his vigorous young successor. Despite his unprecedented use of Army troops to enforce a federal desegregation order at Central High School in Little Rock, Eisenhower was criticized for his reluctance to support the civil rights movement to the degree that activists wanted. Eisenhower also attracted criticism for his handling of the 1960 U-2 incident and the associated international embarrassment, for the Soviet Union's perceived leadership in the nuclear arms race and the Space Race, and for his failure to publicly oppose McCarthyism.
From where did Eisenhower get the idea of a White House Chief of Staff?
573284b6b3a91d1900202dff
United States Army
318
False
Who was the last president not to appoint a Chief of Staff?
573284b6b3a91d1900202e00
Lyndon Johnson
360
False
Along with Ford, what president initially didn't appoint a Chief of Staff but later did?
573284b6b3a91d1900202e01
Jimmy Carter
445
False
What 19th century informal political office did the modern role of White House Chief of Staff correspond to?
573284b6b3a91d1900202e02
President's Private Secretary
129
False
Since the 19th century, many if not all presidents were assisted by a central figure or "gatekeeper", sometimes described as the President's Private Secretary, sometimes with no official title at all. Eisenhower formalized this role, introducing the office of White House Chief of Staff – an idea he borrowed from the United States Army. Every president after Lyndon Johnson has also appointed staff to this position. Initially, Gerald Ford and Jimmy Carter tried to operate without a chief of staff, but each eventually appointed one.
How many appreciation medals were minted?
5732850d57eb1f1400fd2d5e
9,858
283
False
In what city were the appreciation medals minted?
5732850d57eb1f1400fd2d5f
Philadelphia
140
False
During what period were the appreciation medals minted?
5732850d57eb1f1400fd2d60
September 1958 through October 1960
182
False
What were Eisenhower's initials?
5732850d57eb1f1400fd2d61
D.D.E.
434
False
How many appreciation medals were destroyed by the Bureau of the Mint?
5732850d57eb1f1400fd2d62
1,451
587
False
The development of the appreciation medals was initiated by the White House and executed by the Bureau of the Mint through the U.S. Mint in Philadelphia. The medals were struck from September 1958 through October 1960. A total of twenty designs are cataloged with a total mintage of 9,858. Each of the designs incorporates the text "with appreciation" or "with personal and official gratitude" accompanied with Eisenhower's initials "D.D.E." or facsimile signature. The design also incorporates location, date, and/or significant event. Prior to the end of his second term as President, 1,451 medals were turned-in to the Bureau of the Mint and destroyed. The Eisenhower appreciation medals are part of the Presidential Medal of Appreciation Award Medal Series.
What is the formal name of the Interstate Highway System?
573285f357eb1f1400fd2d70
Dwight D. Eisenhower National System of Interstate and Defense Highways
58
False
Along with Germany and Switzerland, what country contained an autobahn during the Second World War?
573285f357eb1f1400fd2d71
Austria
294
False
When were "Eisenhower Interstate System" signs first posted along highways?
573285f357eb1f1400fd2d72
1993
454
False
What is another name for Eisenhower Expressway?
573285f357eb1f1400fd2d73
Interstate 290
599
False
What major city is Interstate 290 close to?
573285f357eb1f1400fd2d74
Chicago
620
False
The Interstate Highway System is officially known as the 'Dwight D. Eisenhower National System of Interstate and Defense Highways' in his honor. It was inspired in part by Eisenhower's own Army experiences in World War II, where he recognized the advantages of the autobahn systems in Germany, Austria, and Switzerland. Commemorative signs reading "Eisenhower Interstate System" and bearing Eisenhower's permanent 5-star rank insignia were introduced in 1993 and are currently displayed throughout the Interstate System. Several highways are also named for him, including the Eisenhower Expressway (Interstate 290) near Chicago and the Eisenhower Tunnel on Interstate 70 west of Denver.
At what Augusta hole was the Eisenhower Pine located?
5732868bb3a91d1900202e0f
17th
74
False
How many meters away from the Masters tee on Augusta's 17th was the Eisenhower Pine?
5732868bb3a91d1900202e10
192
110
False
What did Eisenhower want to be done to the Eisenhower Pine?
5732868bb3a91d1900202e11
cut down
279
False
What damaged the Eisenhower Pine in February 2014?
5732868bb3a91d1900202e12
ice storm
478
False
In what year did Eisenhower propose that the pine tree named after him be removed?
5732868bb3a91d1900202e13
1956
237
False
A loblolly pine, known as the "Eisenhower Pine", was located on Augusta's 17th hole, approximately 210 yards (192 m) from the Masters tee. President Dwight D. Eisenhower, an Augusta National member, hit the tree so many times that, at a 1956 club meeting, he proposed that it be cut down. Not wanting to offend the president, the club's chairman, Clifford Roberts, immediately adjourned the meeting rather than reject the request. The tree was removed in February 2014 after an ice storm caused it significant damage.
The_Bronx
How many boroughs are in NYC?
57324f18b9d445190005ea1b
five
47
False
Where is the Bronx positioned among NYC boroughs?
57324f18b9d445190005ea1c
northernmost
27
False
What is the Bronx's population?
57324f18b9d445190005ea1d
1,438,159
507
False
How large is the Bronx?
57324f18b9d445190005ea1e
42 square miles (109 km2)
461
False
What is unique about the Bronx's location?
57324f18b9d445190005ea1f
Of the five boroughs, the Bronx is the only one on the U.S. mainland
367
False
The Bronx /ˈbrɒŋks/ is the northernmost of the five boroughs (counties) of New York City in the state of New York, located south of Westchester County. Many bridges and tunnels link the Bronx to the island and borough of Manhattan to the west over and under the narrow Harlem River, as well as three longer bridges south over the East River to the borough of Queens. Of the five boroughs, the Bronx is the only one on the U.S. mainland and, with a land area of 42 square miles (109 km2) and a population of 1,438,159 in 2014, has the fourth largest land area, the fourth highest population, and the third-highest population density.
Who is the Bronx named for?
57324f89e99e3014001e66a0
Jonas Bronck
25
False
What did Bronck do?
57324f89e99e3014001e66a1
created the first settlement as part of the New Netherland colony
42
False
When did Bronck settle in the New York area?
57324f89e99e3014001e66a2
1639
111
False
What native tribe lived in the New York area?
57324f89e99e3014001e66a3
Lenape
128
False
What types of music the Bronx famous for?
57324f89e99e3014001e66a4
Latin music and hip hop
594
False
The Bronx is named after Jonas Bronck who created the first settlement as part of the New Netherland colony in 1639. The native Lenape were displaced after 1643 by settlers. In the 19th and 20th centuries, the Bronx received many immigrant groups as it was transformed into an urban community, first from various European countries (particularly Ireland, Germany and Italy) and later from the Caribbean region (particularly Puerto Rico, Jamaica and the Dominican Republic), as well as African American migrants from the American South. This cultural mix has made the Bronx a wellspring of both Latin music and hip hop.
How poor is part of the Bronx?
57324ffa0fdd8d15006c695f
one of the five poorest Congressional Districts in the United States
19
False
What neighborhoods of the Bronx are more affluent?
57324ffa0fdd8d15006c6960
Riverdale, Fieldston, Spuyten Duyvil, Schuylerville, Pelham Bay, Pelham Gardens, Morris Park and Country Club
199
False
When did the South Bronx lose quality of life?
57324ffa0fdd8d15006c6961
the late 1960s and the 1970s
430
False
What crime problem happened in the Bronx in the 70s?
57324ffa0fdd8d15006c6962
arson
485
False
The Bronx contains one of the five poorest Congressional Districts in the United States, the 15th, but its wide diversity also includes affluent, upper-income and middle-income neighborhoods such as Riverdale, Fieldston, Spuyten Duyvil, Schuylerville, Pelham Bay, Pelham Gardens, Morris Park and Country Club. The Bronx, particularly the South Bronx, saw a sharp decline in population, livable housing, and the quality of life in the late 1960s and the 1970s, culminating in a wave of arson. Since then the communities have shown significant redevelopment starting in the late 1980s before picking up pace in the 1990s into today.
When was Jonas Bronck born?
573250460fdd8d15006c6971
1600
17
False
Where did Bronck emigrate from?
573250460fdd8d15006c6972
Småland, Sweden
91
False
When did Bronck reach the New York area?
573250460fdd8d15006c6973
spring of 1639
148
False
What entity did Bronck get his land from?
573250460fdd8d15006c6974
the Dutch West India Company
266
False
How much land did Bronck eventually own?
573250460fdd8d15006c6975
500 acres
476
False
Jonas Bronck (c. 1600–43) was a Swedish born emigrant from Komstad, Norra Ljunga parish in Småland, Sweden who arrived in New Netherland during the spring of 1639. He became the first recorded European settler in the area now known as the Bronx. He leased land from the Dutch West India Company on the neck of the mainland immediately north of the Dutch settlement in Harlem (on Manhattan island), and bought additional tracts from the local tribes. He eventually accumulated 500 acres (about 2 square km, or 3/4 of a square mile) between the Harlem River and the Aquahung, which became known as Bronck's River, or The Bronx. Dutch and English settlers referred to the area as Bronck's Land. The American poet William Bronk was a descendant of Pieter Bronck, either Jonas Bronck's son or his younger brother.
What is the Bronx's county name?
573250c3b9d445190005ea2f
The County of Bronx
97
False
What is the Bronx's borough name?
573250c3b9d445190005ea30
Borough of the Bronx
141
False
When was the Bronx created?
573250c3b9d445190005ea31
1874
431
False
What county was the Bronx split off from?
573250c3b9d445190005ea32
Westchester
451
False
When was the Bronx added to?
573250c3b9d445190005ea33
1898
579
False
The Bronx is referred to, both legally and colloquially, with a definite article, as the Bronx. (The County of Bronx, unlike the coextensive Borough of the Bronx, does not place the immediately before Bronx in formal references, nor does the United States Postal Service in its database of Bronx addresses.) The name for this region, apparently after the Bronx River, first appeared in the Annexed District of the Bronx created in 1874 out of part of Westchester County and was continued in the Borough of the Bronx, which included a larger annexation from Westchester County in 1898. The use of the definite article is attributed to the style of referring to rivers. Another explanation for the use of the definite article in the borough's name is that the original form of the name was a possessive or collective one referring to the family, as in visiting The Broncks, The Bronck's or The Broncks'.
When did farmers build a bridge over the Harlem River?
57325124e17f3d140042285b
1759
429
False
Why did farmers build a bridge over the Harlem River?
57325124e17f3d140042285c
tolls were resented
361
False
What strategic advantage did the Bronx's location have?
57325124e17f3d140042285d
between New England and New York
77
False
When was Kingsbridge built?
57325124e17f3d140042285e
1693
239
False
Who owned Kingsbridge?
57325124e17f3d140042285f
Frederick Philipse
313
False
The development of the Bronx is directly connected to its strategic location between New England and New York (Manhattan). Control over the bridges across the Harlem River plagued the period of British colonial rule. Kingsbridge, built in 1693 where Broadway reached the Spuyten Duyvil Creek, was a possession of Frederick Philipse, lord of Philipse Manor. The tolls were resented by local farmers on both sides of the creek. In 1759, the farmers led by Jacobus Dyckman and Benjamin Palmer built a "free bridge" across the Harlem River which led to the abandonment of tolls altogether.
How many counties did New York originally have?
5732516be17f3d1400422865
12
102
False
Parts of which towns became part of the Bronx?
5732516be17f3d1400422866
Yonkers, Eastchester, and Pelham
252
False
When was West Farms created?
5732516be17f3d1400422867
1846
289
False
When was Morrisania created?
5732516be17f3d1400422868
1855
371
False
When was the town of Kingsbridge created?
5732516be17f3d1400422869
1873
432
False
The territory now contained within Bronx County was originally part of Westchester County, one of the 12 original counties of the English Province of New York. The present Bronx County was contained in the town of Westchester and parts of the towns of Yonkers, Eastchester, and Pelham. In 1846, a new town, West Farms, was created by division of Westchester; in turn, in 1855, the town of Morrisania was created from West Farms. In 1873, the town of Kingsbridge (roughly corresponding to the modern Bronx neighborhoods of Kingsbridge, Riverdale, and Woodlawn) was established within the former borders of Yonkers.
When did New York City annex Kingsbridge?
573251c0b9d445190005ea39
1873
78
False
When did New York City annex West Farms?
573251c0b9d445190005ea3a
1873
78
False
When did New York City annex Morrisania?
573251c0b9d445190005ea3b
1873
78
False
When did New York City annex part of Pelham?
573251c0b9d445190005ea3c
1895
235
False
When did New York City annex part of Eastchester?
573251c0b9d445190005ea3d
1895
235
False
The consolidation of the Bronx into New York City proceeded in two stages. In 1873, the state legislature annexed Kingsbridge, West Farms and Morrisania to New York, effective in 1874; the three towns were abolished in the process. In 1895, three years before New York's consolidation with Brooklyn, Queens and Staten Island, the whole of the territory east of the Bronx River, including the Town of Westchester (which had voted in 1894 against consolidation) and portions of Eastchester and Pelham, were annexed to the city. City Island, a nautical community, voted to join the city in 1896.
When was the Bronx's boom period?
5732521e0fdd8d15006c698f
1900–29
104
False
What was the Bronx's population in 1900?
5732521e0fdd8d15006c6990
200,000
162
False
What was the Bronx's population in 1929?
5732521e0fdd8d15006c6991
1.3 million
181
False
When did the Bronx's income declined?
5732521e0fdd8d15006c6992
1950–85
372
False
When did the Bronx's economy regrow?
5732521e0fdd8d15006c6993
starting in the late 1980s
567
False
The history of the Bronx during the 20th century may be divided into four periods: a boom period during 1900–29, with a population growth by a factor of six from 200,000 in 1900 to 1.3 million in 1930. The Great Depression and post World War II years saw a slowing of growth leading into an eventual decline. The mid to late century were hard times, as the Bronx declined 1950–85 from a predominantly moderate-income to a predominantly lower-income area with high rates of violent crime and poverty. The Bronx has experienced an economic and developmental resurgence starting in the late 1980s that continues into today.
How many Jews lived in the Bronx in 1937?
573252870fdd8d15006c6999
592,185
534
False
How many Jews lived in the Bronx in 2011?
573252870fdd8d15006c699a
54,000
614
False
What led to the Bronx's population growth?
573252870fdd8d15006c699b
Extensions of the New York City Subway
58
False
What immigrant groups were the most prevalent in the Bronx?
573252870fdd8d15006c699c
Irish Americans, Italian Americans and especially Jewish Americans
265
False
How much of the Bronx was Jewish in 1937?
573252870fdd8d15006c699d
43.9%
567
False
The Bronx underwent rapid urban growth after World War I. Extensions of the New York City Subway contributed to the increase in population as thousands of immigrants came to the Bronx, resulting in a major boom in residential construction. Among these groups, many Irish Americans, Italian Americans and especially Jewish Americans settled here. In addition, French, German, Polish and other immigrants moved into the borough. The Jewish population also increased notably during this time. In 1937, according to Jewish organizations, 592,185 Jews lived in The Bronx (43.9% of the borough's population), while only 54,000 Jews lived in the borough in 2011. Many synagogues still stand in the Bronx, but most have been converted to other uses.
What is redlining?
573252e1e99e3014001e66be
a reduction in the real-estate listings and property-related financial services (such as mortgage loans or insurance policies) offered in some areas
26
False
What might have encouraged landlords to abandon or destroy buildings?
573252e1e99e3014001e66bf
rent control laws
351
False
What example city service was cut back on in the Bronx?
573252e1e99e3014001e66c0
fire-fighting
295
False
Yet another may have been a reduction in the real-estate listings and property-related financial services (such as mortgage loans or insurance policies) offered in some areas of the Bronx — a process known as redlining. Others have suggested a "planned shrinkage" of municipal services, such as fire-fighting. There was also much debate as to whether rent control laws had made it less profitable (or more costly) for landlords to maintain existing buildings with their existing tenants than to abandon or destroy those buildings.
What crime was common in the Bronx in the 1970s?
573253330fdd8d15006c69a3
arson
49
False
Why did some landlords burn their own buildings?
573253330fdd8d15006c69a4
it was more lucrative to get insurance money than to refurbish or sell a building in a severely distressed area
296
False
Where were poverty and unemployment the worst in the Bronx?
573253330fdd8d15006c69a5
South Bronx
528
False
In the 1970s, the Bronx was plagued by a wave of arson. The burning of buildings was predominantly in the poorest communities, like the South Bronx. The most common explanation of what occurred was that landlords decided to burn their low property-value buildings and take the insurance money as it was more lucrative to get insurance money than to refurbish or sell a building in a severely distressed area. The Bronx became identified with a high rate of poverty and unemployment, which was mainly a persistent problem in the South Bronx.
What city plan helped redevelop the Bronx?
573253910fdd8d15006c69a9
"Ten-Year Housing Plan"
104
False
How many units are in the Nehemiah Homes?
573253910fdd8d15006c69aa
about 1,000
338
False
Who built the Nehemiah Homes?
573253910fdd8d15006c69ab
Groups affiliated with churches in the South Bronx
255
False
Who led the Melrose Commons project?
573253910fdd8d15006c69ac
Nos Quedamos
386
False
How many bank branches were in the Bronx by 2007?
573253910fdd8d15006c69ad
149
710
False
Since the late 1980s, significant development has occurred in the Bronx, first stimulated by the city's "Ten-Year Housing Plan" and community members working to rebuild the social, economic and environmental infrastructure by creating affordable housing. Groups affiliated with churches in the South Bronx erected the Nehemiah Homes with about 1,000 units. The grass roots organization Nos Quedamos' endeavor known as Melrose Commons began to rebuild areas in the South Bronx. The IRT White Plains Road Line (2 5 trains) began to show an increase in riders. Chains such as Marshalls, Staples, and Target opened stores in the Bronx. More bank branches opened in the Bronx as a whole (rising from 106 in 1997 to 149 in 2007), although not primarily in poor or minority neighborhoods, while the Bronx still has fewer branches per person than other boroughs.
What award did the Bronx receive in 1997?
573253fa0fdd8d15006c69b3
All America City
37
False
Who gave the Bronx an award in 1997?
573253fa0fdd8d15006c69b4
the National Civic League
57
False
How were window decals used in the Bronx in the 1980s?
573253fa0fdd8d15006c69b5
pictures of potted plants and drawn curtains were placed in the windows of abandoned buildings
308
False
How many housing units were built in the Bronx in 2002-2007?
573253fa0fdd8d15006c69b6
33,687
511
False
How much was invested in housing in the Bronx in 2002-2007?
573253fa0fdd8d15006c69b7
$4.8 billion
572
False
In 1997, the Bronx was designated an All America City by the National Civic League, acknowledging its comeback from the decline of the mid-century. In 2006, The New York Times reported that "construction cranes have become the borough's new visual metaphor, replacing the window decals of the 1980s in which pictures of potted plants and drawn curtains were placed in the windows of abandoned buildings." The borough has experienced substantial new building construction since 2002. Between 2002 and June 2007, 33,687 new units of housing were built or were under way and $4.8 billion has been invested in new housing. In the first six months of 2007 alone total investment in new residential development was $965 million and 5,187 residential units were scheduled to be completed. Much of the new development is springing up in formerly vacant lots across the South Bronx.
What was the largest armory in the world?
5732547be17f3d1400422879
Kingsbridge Armory
169
False
What is Kingsbridge Armory being turned into?
5732547be17f3d140042287a
Kingsbridge National Ice Center
275
False
Where is a La Quinta being built in the Bronx?
5732547be17f3d140042287b
the Mott Haven waterfront
138
False
How much development space would a Concourse Yard platform provide?
5732547be17f3d140042287c
2,000,000 square feet
504
False
How much would a Concourse Yard platform cost?
5732547be17f3d140042287d
US$350–500 million
569
False
Several boutique and chain hotels have opened in recent years in the South Bronx; in addition, a La Quinta Inn that has been proposed for the Mott Haven waterfront. The Kingsbridge Armory, often cited as the largest armory in the world, is scheduled for redevelopment as the Kingsbridge National Ice Center. Under consideration for future development is the construction of a platform over the New York City Subway's Concourse Yard adjacent to Lehman College. The construction would permit approximately 2,000,000 square feet (190,000 m2) of development and would cost US$350–500 million.
What's on the other side of the Hudson from the Bronx?
573254c7e17f3d1400422883
Alpine, Tenafly and Englewood Cliffs
124
False
What county is Tenafly in?
573254c7e17f3d1400422884
Bergen County
164
False
What state is Alpine in?
573254c7e17f3d1400422885
New Jersey
179
False
What's on the other side of the Harlem River from the Bronx?
573254c7e17f3d1400422886
Manhattan
240
False
What's on the other side of the East River from the Bronx?
573254c7e17f3d1400422887
Queens
301
False
The Bronx is almost entirely situated on the North American mainland. The Hudson River separates the Bronx on the west from Alpine, Tenafly and Englewood Cliffs in Bergen County, New Jersey; the Harlem River separates it from the island of Manhattan to the southwest; the East River separates it from Queens to the southeast; and to the east, Long Island Sound separates it from Nassau County in western Long Island. Directly north of the Bronx are (from west to east) the adjoining Westchester County communities of Yonkers, Mount Vernon, Pelham Manor and New Rochelle. (There is also a short southern land boundary with Marble Hill in the Borough of Manhattan, over the filled-in former course of the Spuyten Duyvil Creek. Marble Hill's postal ZIP code, telephonic Area Code and fire service, however, are shared with the Bronx and not Manhattan.)
Where is the Bronx's highest point?
5732554de17f3d1400422897
in the northwest corner, west of Van Cortlandt Park and in the Chapel Farm area near the Riverdale Country School
52
False
What part of the Bronx formerly a salt marsh?
5732554de17f3d1400422898
southeastern
181
False
What are the Bronx's four low peninsulas?
5732554de17f3d1400422899
Hunt's Point, Clason's Point, Screvin's Neck and Throg's Neck
341
False
What is Rodman's Neck between?
5732554de17f3d140042289a
Pelham Bay Park in the northeast and City Island
457
False
How long is the Bronx's shoreline?
5732554de17f3d140042289b
75 square miles
551
False
The Bronx's highest elevation at 280 feet (85 m) is in the northwest corner, west of Van Cortlandt Park and in the Chapel Farm area near the Riverdale Country School. The opposite (southeastern) side of the Bronx has four large low peninsulas or "necks" of low-lying land that jut into the waters of the East River and were once salt marsh: Hunt's Point, Clason's Point, Screvin's Neck and Throg's Neck. Further up the coastline, Rodman's Neck lies between Pelham Bay Park in the northeast and City Island. The Bronx's irregular shoreline extends for 75 square miles (194 km2).
When did NYC buy land for its parks?
573255bce99e3014001e66d8
1888
1240
False
How many types of trees are in Crotona Park?
573255bce99e3014001e66d9
28
1118
False
How large is Crotona Park's lake?
573255bce99e3014001e66da
3.3-acre
1094
False
When was the Jerome Park Reservoir built?
573255bce99e3014001e66db
in the 1890s
991
False
What do the NY Botanical Gardens preserve?
573255bce99e3014001e66dc
the last patch of the original hemlock forest that once covered the entire county
614
False
The northern side of the borough includes the largest park in New York City—Pelham Bay Park, which includes Orchard Beach—and the fourth largest, Van Cortlandt Park, which is west of Woodlawn Cemetery and borders Yonkers. Also in the northern Bronx, Wave Hill, the former estate of George W. Perkins—known for a historic house, gardens, changing site-specific art installations and concerts—overlooks the New Jersey Palisades from a promontory on the Hudson in Riverdale. Nearer the borough's center, and along the Bronx River, is Bronx Park; its northern end houses the New York Botanical Gardens, which preserve the last patch of the original hemlock forest that once covered the entire county, and its southern end the Bronx Zoo, the largest urban zoological gardens in the United States. Just south of Van Cortlandt Park is the Jerome Park Reservoir, surrounded by 2 miles (3 km) of stone walls and bordering several small parks in the Bedford Park neighborhood; the reservoir was built in the 1890s on the site of the former Jerome Park Racetrack. Further south is Crotona Park, home to a 3.3-acre (1.3 ha) lake, 28 species of trees, and a large swimming pool. The land for these parks, and many others, was bought by New York City in 1888, while land was still open and inexpensive, in anticipation of future needs and future pressures for development.
What is Screvin's Neck also called?
573256250fdd8d15006c69d9
Castle Hill Point
240
False
In what river does the Bronx have 4 peninsulas?
573256250fdd8d15006c69da
East River
159
False
What is NYC's largest park?
573256250fdd8d15006c69db
Pelham Bay Park
455
False
Where is Pelham Bay Park?
573256250fdd8d15006c69dc
along the Westchester-Bronx border
471
False
East of the Bronx River, the borough is relatively flat and includes four large low peninsulas, or 'necks,' of low-lying land which jut into the waters of the East River and were once saltmarsh: Hunts Point, Clason's Point, Screvin's Neck (Castle Hill Point) and Throgs Neck. The East Bronx has older tenement buildings, low income public housing complexes, and multifamily homes, as well as single family homes. It includes New York City's largest park: Pelham Bay Park along the Westchester-Bronx border.
What parts of the Bronx have more hills?
573256660fdd8d15006c69e1
western
4
False
What parts of West Bronx are more affluent?
573256660fdd8d15006c69e2
Riverdale and Fieldston.
313
False
What is NYC's 4th-largest park?
573256660fdd8d15006c69e3
Van Cortlandt Park
387
False
Where is Van Cortlandt Park?
573256660fdd8d15006c69e4
along the Westchester-Bronx border
406
False
What is the Grand Concourse?
573256660fdd8d15006c69e5
a wide boulevard
463
False
The western parts of the Bronx are hillier and are dominated by a series of parallel ridges, running south to north. The West Bronx has older apartment buildings, low income public housing complexes, multifamily homes in its lower income areas as well as larger single family homes in more affluent areas such as Riverdale and Fieldston. It includes New York City's fourth largest park: Van Cortlandt Park along the Westchester-Bronx border. The Grand Concourse, a wide boulevard, runs through it, north to south.
Why has the supposed size of the 'South Bronx' grown?
5732584f0fdd8d15006c69fd
The name has been used to represent poverty in the Bronx and applied to progressively more northern places
87
False
When was Fordham Road being used as the limit of the South Bronx area?
5732584f0fdd8d15006c69fe
by the 2000s
202
False
Which river is the eastern edge of the South Bronx?
5732584f0fdd8d15006c69ff
The Bronx River
264
False
Which stadium is in the South Bronx?
5732584f0fdd8d15006c6a00
Yankee Stadium
556
False
Which direction does the Cross Bronx Expressway run through the South Bronx?
5732584f0fdd8d15006c6a01
east to west
611
False
Like other neighborhoods in New York City, the South Bronx has no official boundaries. The name has been used to represent poverty in the Bronx and applied to progressively more northern places so that by the 2000s Fordham Road was often used as a northern limit. The Bronx River more consistently forms an eastern boundary. The South Bronx has many high-density apartment buildings, low income public housing complexes, and multi-unit homes. The South Bronx is home to the Bronx County Courthouse, Borough Hall, and other government buildings, as well as Yankee Stadium. The Cross Bronx Expressway bisects it, east to west. The South Bronx has some of the poorest neighborhoods in the country, as well as very high crime areas.
What in the Bronx has been compared to Broadway?
573258c4b9d445190005ea7b
The Hub
414
False
What is the main retail area of the South Bronx?
573258c4b9d445190005ea7c
The Hub–Third Avenue Business Improvement District
103
False
Which streets demarcate The Hub BID?
573258c4b9d445190005ea7d
East 149th Street, Willis, Melrose and Third Avenues
251
False
What is The Hub's nickname?
573258c4b9d445190005ea7e
"the Broadway of the Bronx"
438
False
What shape is The Hub?
573258c4b9d445190005ea7f
bow-tie
677
False
There are three primary shopping centers in the Bronx: The Hub, Gateway Center and Southern Boulevard. The Hub–Third Avenue Business Improvement District (B.I.D.), in The Hub, is the retail heart of the South Bronx, located where four roads converge: East 149th Street, Willis, Melrose and Third Avenues. It is primarily located inside the neighborhood of Melrose but also lines the northern border of Mott Haven. The Hub has been called "the Broadway of the Bronx", being likened to the real Broadway in Manhattan and the northwestern Bronx. It is the site of both maximum traffic and architectural density. In configuration, it resembles a miniature Times Square, a spatial "bow-tie" created by the geometry of the street. The Hub is part of Bronx Community Board 1.
How much land was the Gateway Center at Bronx Terminal Market built on?
5732593fb9d445190005ea85
17 acres
164
False
How much did the Gateway Center at Bronx Terminal Market cost?
5732593fb9d445190005ea86
$500 million
347
False
How many floors does the Gateway Center at Bronx Terminal Market's parking garage have?
5732593fb9d445190005ea87
six
607
False
How many cars can the Gateway Center at Bronx Terminal Market's parking garage hold?
5732593fb9d445190005ea88
2,600
628
False
The Gateway Center at Bronx Terminal Market, in the West Bronx, is a shopping center that encompasses less than one million square feet of retail space, built on a 17 acres (7 ha) site that formerly held the Bronx Terminal Market, a wholesale fruit and vegetable market as well as the former Bronx House of Detention, south of Yankee Stadium. The $500 million shopping center, which was completed in 2009, saw the construction of new buildings and two smaller buildings, one new and the other a renovation of an existing building that was part of the original market. The two main buildings are linked by a six-level garage for 2,600 cars. The center has earned itself a LEED "Silver" designation in its design.
What part of Manhattan are the West Bronx's streets similar to?
573259a00fdd8d15006c6a07
northernmost part of upper Manhattan
45
False
What is the lowest street number seen in the Bronx?
573259a00fdd8d15006c6a08
132nd
271
False
What was the Bronx called in the mid-19th century?
573259a00fdd8d15006c6a09
the Northside
488
False
When was the Bronx added to NYC?
573259a00fdd8d15006c6a0a
the mid-19th century
344
False
The Bronx street grid is irregular. Like the northernmost part of upper Manhattan, the West Bronx's hilly terrain leaves a relatively free-style street grid. Much of the West Bronx's street numbering carries over from upper Manhattan, but does not match it exactly; East 132nd Street is the lowest numbered street in the Bronx. This dates from the mid-19th century when the southwestern area of Westchester County west of the Bronx River, was incorporated into New York City and known as the Northside.
How much of the Bronx's population is Hispanic?
57325a420fdd8d15006c6a0f
53.5%
30
False
How much of the Bronx's population is non-Hispanic Black?
57325a420fdd8d15006c6a10
30.1%
128
False
How much of the Bronx's population is non-Hispanic White?
57325a420fdd8d15006c6a11
10.9%
174
False
How much of the Bronx's population is non-Hispanic Asian?
57325a420fdd8d15006c6a12
3.4%
222
False
How much of the Bronx's population is non-Hispanic multiracial?
57325a420fdd8d15006c6a13
1.2%
292
False
According to the 2010 Census, 53.5% of Bronx's population was of Hispanic, Latino, or Spanish origin (they may be of any race); 30.1% non-Hispanic Black or African American, 10.9% of the population was non-Hispanic White, 3.4% non-Hispanic Asian, 0.6% from some other race (non-Hispanic) and 1.2% of two or more races (non-Hispanic). The U.S. Census considers the Bronx to be the most diverse area in the country. There is an 89.7 percent chance that any two residents, chosen at random, would be of different race or ethnicity.
How much of the Bronx speaks Spanish at home?
57325a8ce99e3014001e66f6
46.29%
12
False
How much of the Bronx speaks English at home?
57325a8ce99e3014001e66f7
44.02%
97
False
How much of the Bronx speaks African languages at home?
57325a8ce99e3014001e66f8
2.48%
129
False
How much of the Bronx speaks French at home?
57325a8ce99e3014001e66f9
0.91%
163
False
How much of the Bronx speaks Chinese at home?
57325a8ce99e3014001e66fa
0.50%
329
False
As of 2010, 46.29% (584,463) of Bronx residents aged five and older spoke Spanish at home, while 44.02% (555,767) spoke English, 2.48% (31,361) African languages, 0.91% (11,455) French, 0.90% (11,355) Italian, 0.87% (10,946) various Indic languages, 0.70% (8,836) other Indo-European languages, and Chinese was spoken at home by 0.50% (6,610) of the population over the age of five. In total, 55.98% (706,783) of the Bronx's population age five and older spoke a language at home other than English. A Garifuna-speaking community from Honduras and Guatemala also makes the Bronx its home.
How much of the Bronx is white (including Hispanic) as of 2009?
57325b14e17f3d14004228db
22.9%
134
False
How much of the Bronx was non-Hispanic white as of 1980?
57325b14e17f3d14004228dc
12.1%
222
False
How much of the Bronx was non-Hispanic white as of 2009?
57325b14e17f3d14004228dd
34.4%
258
False
How many white people live in the Bronx?
57325b14e17f3d14004228de
320,640
366
False
How many non-Hispanic white people live in the Bronx?
57325b14e17f3d14004228df
168,570
413
False
According to the 2009 American Community Survey, White Americans of both Hispanic and non-Hispanic origin represented over one-fifth (22.9%) of the Bronx's population. However, non-Hispanic whites formed under one-eighth (12.1%) of the population, down from 34.4% in 1980. Out of all five boroughs, the Bronx has the lowest number and percentage of white residents. 320,640 whites called the Bronx home, of which 168,570 were non-Hispanic whites. The majority of the non-Hispanic European American population is of Italian and Irish descent. People of Italian descent numbered over 55,000 individuals and made up 3.9% of the population. People of Irish descent numbered over 43,500 individuals and made up 3.1% of the population. German Americans and Polish Americans made up 1.4% and 0.8% of the population respectively.
How much of the Bronx's population is black (including Hispanic)?
57325b800fdd8d15006c6a23
35.4%
203
False
How much of the Bronx's population is black (not including Hispanic)?
57325b800fdd8d15006c6a24
30.8%
275
False
How many Bronx residents called themselves "Sub-Saharan African" in 2009?
57325b800fdd8d15006c6a25
Over 61,000
387
False
What percent of Bronx residents called themselves "Sub-Saharan African" in 2009?
57325b800fdd8d15006c6a26
4.4%
478
False
How many people in the Bronx are black (not including Hispanic)?
57325b800fdd8d15006c6a27
430,600
353
False
At the 2009 American Community Survey, Black Americans made the second largest group in the Bronx after Hispanics and Latinos. Blacks of both Hispanic and non-Hispanic origin represented over one-third (35.4%) of the Bronx's population. Blacks of non-Hispanic origin made up 30.8% of the population. Over 495,200 blacks resided in the borough, of which 430,600 were non-Hispanic blacks. Over 61,000 people identified themselves as "Sub-Saharan African" in the survey, making up 4.4% of the population.
What percent of the Bronx is Hispanic and Latino Americans?
57325bc30fdd8d15006c6a2d
52.0%
51
False
What percent of the Bronx is Puerto Rican?
57325bc30fdd8d15006c6a2e
23.2%
110
False
What percent of the Bronx is Mexican?
57325bc30fdd8d15006c6a2f
5.2%
202
False
What percent of the Bronx is Cuban?
57325bc30fdd8d15006c6a30
0.7%
272
False
What percent of the Bronx is Asian?
57325bc30fdd8d15006c6a31
3.6%
691
False
In 2009, Hispanic and Latino Americans represented 52.0% of the Bronx's population. Puerto Ricans represented 23.2% of the borough's population. Over 72,500 Mexicans lived in the Bronx, and they formed 5.2% of the population. Cubans numbered over 9,640 members and formed 0.7% of the population. In addition, over 319,000 people were of various Hispanic and Latino groups, such as Dominican, Salvadoran, and so on. These groups collectively represented 22.9% of the population. At the 2010 Census, 53.5% of Bronx's population was of Hispanic, Latino, or Spanish origin (they may be of any race). Asian Americans are a small but sizable minority in the borough. Roughly 49,600 Asians make up 3.6% of the population. Roughly 13,600 Indians call the Bronx home, along with 9,800 Chinese, 6,540 Filipinos, 2,260 Vietnamese, 2,010 Koreans, and 1,100 Japanese.
How many multiracial people live in the Bronx?
57325c10b9d445190005ea97
over 41,800
102
False
What percent of the Bronx is multiracial?
57325c10b9d445190005ea98
3.0%
140
False
What percent of the Bronx has mixed Caucasian and African American heritage?
57325c10b9d445190005ea99
0.5%
255
False
What percent of the Bronx has mixed Caucasian and Native American heritage?
57325c10b9d445190005ea9a
0.2%
369
False
What percent of the Bronx has mixed Caucasian and Asian heritage?
57325c10b9d445190005ea9b
0.1%
471
False
Multiracial Americans are also a sizable minority in the Bronx. People of multiracial heritage number over 41,800 individuals and represent 3.0% of the population. People of mixed Caucasian and African American heritage number over 6,850 members and form 0.5% of the population. People of mixed Caucasian and Native American heritage number over 2,450 members and form 0.2% of the population. People of mixed Caucasian and Asian heritage number over 880 members and form 0.1% of the population. People of mixed African American and Native American heritage number over 1,220 members and form 0.1% of the population.
When was the 'one man, one vote' decision?
57325cf7e17f3d14004228ef
1964
689
False
Which amendment contains the Equal Protection Clause?
57325cf7e17f3d14004228f0
Fourteenth
613
False
When were Borough Presidents created?
57325cf7e17f3d14004228f1
1898
68
False
When was the Board of Estimate found unconstitutional?
57325cf7e17f3d14004228f2
1989
344
False
Why was the Board of Estimate found unconstitutional?
57325cf7e17f3d14004228f3
Brooklyn, the most populous borough, had no greater effective representation on the Board than Staten Island, the least populous borough
456
False
The office of Borough President was created in the consolidation of 1898 to balance centralization with local authority. Each borough president had a powerful administrative role derived from having a vote on the New York City Board of Estimate, which was responsible for creating and approving the city's budget and proposals for land use. In 1989 the Supreme Court of the United States declared the Board of Estimate unconstitutional on the grounds that Brooklyn, the most populous borough, had no greater effective representation on the Board than Staten Island, the least populous borough, a violation of the Fourteenth Amendment's Equal Protection Clause pursuant to the high court's 1964 "one man, one vote" decision.
When did Carrion Jr. retire as Borough President?
57325d630fdd8d15006c6a37
March 1, 2009
6
False
When was Carrion Jr. first elected Borough President?
57325d630fdd8d15006c6a38
2001
105
False
When was Carrion Jr. re-elected Borough President?
57325d630fdd8d15006c6a39
2005
114
False
Who succeeded Carrion Jr.?
57325d630fdd8d15006c6a3a
Rubén Díaz, Jr.
256
False
When was Diaz Jr. elected?
57325d630fdd8d15006c6a3b
April 21, 2009
303
False
Until March 1, 2009, the Borough President of the Bronx was Adolfo Carrión Jr., elected as a Democrat in 2001 and 2005 before retiring early to direct the White House Office of Urban Affairs Policy. His successor, Democratic New York State Assembly member Rubén Díaz, Jr., who won a special election on April 21, 2009 by a vote of 86.3% (29,420) on the "Bronx Unity" line to 13.3% (4,646) for the Republican district leader Anthony Ribustello on the "People First" line, became Borough President on May 1.
In the 2008 primary, how much of the Bronx vote did Clinton get?
57325d96b9d445190005eab3
61.2%
76
False
In the 2008 primary, how much of the Bronx vote did Obama get?
57325d96b9d445190005eab4
37.8%
130
False
In the 2008 primary, how much of the Bronx vote did McCain get?
57325d96b9d445190005eab5
54.4%
298
False
In the 2008 primary, how much of the Bronx vote did Romney get?
57325d96b9d445190005eab6
20.8%
357
False
In the 2008 primary, how much of the Bronx vote did Huckabee get?
57325d96b9d445190005eab7
8.2%
378
False
In the Presidential primary elections of February 5, 2008, Sen. Clinton won 61.2% of the Bronx's 148,636 Democratic votes against 37.8% for Barack Obama and 1.0% for the other four candidates combined (John Edwards, Dennis Kucinich, Bill Richardson and Joe Biden). On the same day, John McCain won 54.4% of the borough's 5,643 Republican votes, Mitt Romney 20.8%, Mike Huckabee 8.2%, Ron Paul 7.4%, Rudy Giuliani 5.6%, and the other candidates (Fred Thompson, Duncan Hunter and Alan Keyes) 3.6% between them.
Who did the Bronx support for President in 1928?
57325f03b9d445190005eabd
Al Smith
138
False
How much of the Bronx's vote in 1916 did Hughes get?
57325f03b9d445190005eabe
42.6%
602
False
How much of the Bronx's vote in 1916 did Wilson get?
57325f03b9d445190005eabf
42.6%
602
False
How much of the Bronx's vote in 1916 did Benson get?
57325f03b9d445190005eac0
7.3%
724
False
How much of the Bronx's vote in 1948 did Truman get?
57325f03b9d445190005eac1
55%
355
False
Since then, the Bronx has always supported the Democratic Party's nominee for President, starting with a vote of 2-1 for the unsuccessful Al Smith in 1928, followed by four 2-1 votes for the successful Franklin D. Roosevelt. (Both had been Governors of New York, but Republican former Gov. Thomas E. Dewey won only 28% of the Bronx's vote in 1948 against 55% for Pres. Harry Truman, the winning Democrat, and 17% for Henry A. Wallace of the Progressives. It was only 32 years earlier, by contrast, that another Republican former Governor who narrowly lost the Presidency, Charles Evans Hughes, had won 42.6% of the Bronx's 1916 vote against Democratic President Woodrow Wilson's 49.8% and Socialist candidate Allan Benson's 7.3%.)
Who was the only Republican Mayor candidate to win the Bronx since 1914?
57325f78e99e3014001e6732
Fiorello La Guardia
145
False
Who did the Bronx vote against for mayor in 1997?
57325f78e99e3014001e6733
Rudolph Giuliani
431
False
Who did the Bronx vote against for mayor in 2005?
57325f78e99e3014001e6734
Michael Bloomberg
460
False
What party was Hillquit?
57325f78e99e3014001e6735
Socialist
500
False
How much of the Bronx vote did Hillquit get in 1917?
57325f78e99e3014001e6736
over 31%
571
False
The Bronx has often shown striking differences from other boroughs in elections for Mayor. The only Republican to carry the Bronx since 1914 was Fiorello La Guardia in 1933, 1937 and 1941 (and in the latter two elections, only because his 30-32% vote on the American Labor Party line was added to 22-23% as a Republican). The Bronx was thus the only borough not carried by the successful Republican re-election campaigns of Mayors Rudolph Giuliani in 1997 and Michael Bloomberg in 2005. The anti-war Socialist campaign of Morris Hillquit in the 1917 mayoral election won over 31% of the Bronx's vote, putting him second and well ahead of the 20% won by the incumbent pro-war Fusion Mayor John P. Mitchel, who came in second (ahead of Hillquit) everywhere else and outpolled Hillquit city-wide by 23.2% to 21.7%.
How many students attended the Bronx public noncharter schools as of 2000?
573260120fdd8d15006c6a55
nearly 280,000
269
False
How many students attended the Bronx public and private schools as of 2000?
573260120fdd8d15006c6a56
333,100
334
False
Which religious organizations run private schools in the Bronx?
573260120fdd8d15006c6a57
the Roman Catholic Archdiocese of New York and Jewish organizations
521
False
Which entity runs the Bronx's public noncharter schools?
573260120fdd8d15006c6a58
The New York City Department of Education
144
False
Education in the Bronx is provided by a large number of public and private institutions, many of which draw students who live beyond the Bronx. The New York City Department of Education manages public noncharter schools in the borough. In 2000, public schools enrolled nearly 280,000 of the Bronx's residents over 3 years old (out of 333,100 enrolled in all pre-college schools). There are also several public charter schools. Private schools range from élite independent schools to religiously affiliated schools run by the Roman Catholic Archdiocese of New York and Jewish organizations.
What percent of the Bronx population has a high school diploma, as of 2000?
573262770fdd8d15006c6a6f
62.3%
146
False
What percent of the Bronx population has a university degree, as of 2000?
573262770fdd8d15006c6a70
14.6%
187
False
What percent of the Brooklyn population has a high school diploma, as of 2000?
573262770fdd8d15006c6a71
68.8%
326
False
What percent of the Staten Island population has a high school diploma, as of 2000?
573262770fdd8d15006c6a72
82.6%
346
False
What percent of the Manhattan population has a university degree, as of 2000?
573262770fdd8d15006c6a73
49.4%
432
False
Educational attainment: In 2000, according to the U.S. Census, out of the nearly 800,000 people in the Bronx who were then at least 25 years old, 62.3% had graduated from high school and 14.6% held a bachelor's or higher college degree. These percentages were lower than those for New York's other boroughs, which ranged from 68.8% (Brooklyn) to 82.6% (Staten Island) for high school graduates over 24, and from 21.8% (Brooklyn) to 49.4% (Manhattan) for college graduates. (The respective state and national percentages were [NY] 79.1% & 27.4% and [US] 80.4% & 24.4%.)
Which of NYC's prestigious nonreligious private schools are in the Bronx?
57326341e99e3014001e674e
Fieldston, Horace Mann, and Riverdale Country School
708
False
Where is the High School for Violin and Dance?
57326341e99e3014001e674f
The Bronx
614
False
Where is the Validus Prepatory Academy?
57326341e99e3014001e6750
The Bronx
614
False
Where is the School for Excellence?
57326341e99e3014001e6751
The Bronx
614
False
Where is the DeWitt Clinton High School?
57326341e99e3014001e6752
The Bronx
614
False
Many public high schools are located in the borough including the elite Bronx High School of Science, Celia Cruz Bronx High School of Music, DeWitt Clinton High School, High School for Violin and Dance, Bronx Leadership Academy 2, Bronx International High School, the School for Excellence, the Morris Academy for Collaborative Study, Wings Academy for young adults, The Bronx School for Law, Government and Justice, Validus Preparatory Academy, The Eagle Academy For Young Men, Bronx Expeditionary Learning High School, Bronx Academy of Letters, Herbert H. Lehman High School and High School of American Studies. The Bronx is also home to three of New York City's most prestigious private, secular schools: Fieldston, Horace Mann, and Riverdale Country School.
When did NYC begin splitting up the large Bronx high schools?
573263c6e17f3d1400422947
1990s
7
False
Which Bronx schools have been closed or made smaller?
573263c6e17f3d1400422948
John F. Kennedy, James Monroe, Taft, Theodore Roosevelt, Adlai Stevenson, Evander Childs, Christopher Columbus, Morris, Walton, and South Bronx High Schools
281
False
What type of schools is NYC now working on shrinking?
573263c6e17f3d1400422949
large middle schools
486
False
In the 1990s, New York City began closing the large, public high schools in the Bronx and replacing them with small high schools. Among the reasons cited for the changes were poor graduation rates and concerns about safety. Schools that have been closed or reduced in size include John F. Kennedy, James Monroe, Taft, Theodore Roosevelt, Adlai Stevenson, Evander Childs, Christopher Columbus, Morris, Walton, and South Bronx High Schools. More recently the City has started phasing out large middle schools, also replacing them with smaller schools.
When did a PBS documentary air about the Bronx's music history?
5732643e0fdd8d15006c6a79
2006
173
False
What PBS documentary covered the Bronx's music history?
5732643e0fdd8d15006c6a7a
"From Mambo to Hip Hop: A South Bronx Tale"
179
False
Where did DJ Kool Herc hold parties?
5732643e0fdd8d15006c6a7b
1520 Sedgwick Avenue
319
False
Who produced 'From Mambo To Hip Hop'?
5732643e0fdd8d15006c6a7c
City Lore
139
False
Where is 1520 Sedgwick?
5732643e0fdd8d15006c6a7d
just north of the Cross Bronx Expressway and hard along the Major Deegan Expressway
377
False
The Bronx's evolution from a hot bed of Latin jazz to an incubator of hip hop was the subject of an award-winning documentary, produced by City Lore and broadcast on PBS in 2006, "From Mambo to Hip Hop: A South Bronx Tale". Hip Hop first emerged in the South Bronx in the early 1970s. The New York Times has identified 1520 Sedgwick Avenue "an otherwise unremarkable high-rise just north of the Cross Bronx Expressway and hard along the Major Deegan Expressway" as a starting point, where DJ Kool Herc presided over parties in the community room.
Who were the Herculoids?
573266f8b9d445190005eaef
Herc, Coke La Rock, and DJ Clark Kent
449
False
What is 'The Boogie Down'?
573266f8b9d445190005eaf0
The Bronx
526
False
Where is Big Pun from?
573266f8b9d445190005eaf1
the Bronx
795
False
What types of music did hip hop emerge from?
573266f8b9d445190005eaf2
funk, disco and soul
267
False
Who started BDP?
573266f8b9d445190005eaf3
KRS-One
648
False
Beginning with the advent of beat match DJing, in which Bronx DJs (Disc Jockeys) including Grandmaster Flash, Afrika Bambaataa and DJ Kool Herc extended the breaks of funk records, a major new musical genre emerged that sought to isolate the percussion breaks of hit funk, disco and soul songs. As hip hop's popularity grew, performers began speaking ("rapping") in sync with the beats, and became known as MCs or emcees. The Herculoids, made up of Herc, Coke La Rock, and DJ Clark Kent, were the earliest to gain major fame. The Bronx is referred to in hip-hop slang as "The Boogie Down Bronx", or just "The Boogie Down". This was hip-hop pioneer KRS-One's inspiration for his thought provoking group BDP, or Boogie Down Productions, which included DJ Scott La Rock. Newer hip hop artists from the Bronx include Big Pun, Lord Toriq and Peter Gunz, Camp Lo, Swizz Beatz, Drag-On, Fat Joe, Terror Squad and Corey Gunz.
When did the first Yankee Stadium open?
5732674b0fdd8d15006c6a97
1923
110
False
Where was the first Yankee Stadium?
5732674b0fdd8d15006c6a98
on 161st Street and River Avenue
115
False
How many times have the Yankees won the World Series?
5732674b0fdd8d15006c6a99
27
203
False
Which historic great players have played at Yankee Stadium?
5732674b0fdd8d15006c6a9a
Babe Ruth, Lou Gehrig, Joe DiMaggio, Whitey Ford, Yogi Berra, Mickey Mantle, Reggie Jackson, Derek Jeter and Mariano Rivera
383
False
What league are the NY Yankees in?
5732674b0fdd8d15006c6a9b
Major League Baseball
49
False
The Bronx is the home of the New York Yankees of Major League Baseball. The original Yankee Stadium opened in 1923 on 161st Street and River Avenue, a year that saw the Yankees bring home their first of 27 World Series Championships. With the famous facade, the short right field porch and Monument Park, Yankee Stadium has been home to many of baseball's greatest players including Babe Ruth, Lou Gehrig, Joe DiMaggio, Whitey Ford, Yogi Berra, Mickey Mantle, Reggie Jackson, Derek Jeter and Mariano Rivera.
Where are many of the Bronx's playwrights from?
5732698fb9d445190005eaf9
Latin America and Africa
109
False
How many seats does the Pregones' new theater have?
5732698fb9d445190005eafa
130
206
False
What does the Pregones specialize in?
5732698fb9d445190005eafb
Latin American work
172
False
When did the Pregones' new theater open?
5732698fb9d445190005eafc
2005
226
False
Where is the Pregones' new theater?
5732698fb9d445190005eafd
on Walton Avenue in the South Bronx
231
False
The Bronx is home to several Off-Off-Broadway theaters, many staging new works by immigrant playwrights from Latin America and Africa. The Pregones Theater, which produces Latin American work, opened a new 130-seat theater in 2005 on Walton Avenue in the South Bronx. Some artists from elsewhere in New York City have begun to converge on the area, and housing prices have nearly quadrupled in the area since 2002. However rising prices directly correlate to a housing shortage across the city and the entire metro area.
When did the Bronx Museum of the Arts open?
573269d2b9d445190005eb03
1971
41
False
What types of art does the Bronx Museum of the Arts focus on?
573269d2b9d445190005eb04
20th century and contemporary art
56
False
How large are the Bronx Museum of the Arts' galleries?
573269d2b9d445190005eb05
11,000 square feet
127
False
How many works are in the Bronx Museum of the Arts' permanent collection?
573269d2b9d445190005eb06
more than 800
277
False
Who designed the Bronx Museum of the Arts' 2006 expansion?
573269d2b9d445190005eb07
Arquitectonica
546
False
The Bronx Museum of the Arts, founded in 1971, exhibits 20th century and contemporary art through its central museum space and 11,000 square feet (1,000 m2) of galleries. Many of its exhibitions are on themes of special interest to the Bronx. Its permanent collection features more than 800 works of art, primarily by artists from Africa, Asia and Latin America, including paintings, photographs, prints, drawings, and mixed media. The museum was temporarily closed in 2006 while it underwent a major expansion designed by the architectural firm Arquitectonica.
When was the Lorelei Fountain written about?
57326a2be17f3d1400422969
1838
180
False
Where was Heinrich Heine born?
57326a2be17f3d140042296a
Düsseldorf
222
False
When was Heine born?
57326a2be17f3d140042296b
1797
340
False
When did Heine die?
57326a2be17f3d140042296c
1856
345
False
What ethnicity is Carl Schurz?
57326a2be17f3d140042296d
German-American
365
False
The Bronx has also become home to a peculiar poetic tribute, in the form of the Heinrich Heine Memorial, better known as the Lorelei Fountain from one of Heine's best-known works (1838). After Heine's German birthplace of Düsseldorf had rejected, allegedly for anti-Semitic motives, a centennial monument to the radical German-Jewish poet (1797–1856), his incensed German-American admirers, including Carl Schurz, started a movement to place one instead in Midtown Manhattan, at Fifth Avenue and 59th Street. However, this intention was thwarted by a combination of ethnic antagonism, aesthetic controversy and political struggles over the institutional control of public art.
When did Herter die?
57326a760fdd8d15006c6aa1
1917
72
False
When was Herter born?
57326a760fdd8d15006c6aa2
1846
67
False
What was Herter's career?
57326a760fdd8d15006c6aa3
sculptor
37
False
Where was Herter's Heine memorial placed in 1899?
57326a760fdd8d15006c6aa4
164th Street and the Grand Concourse, or Joyce Kilmer Park
158
False
Where was Herter's Heine memorial moved in 1999?
57326a760fdd8d15006c6aa5
161st Street and the Concourse
272
False
In 1899, the memorial, by the Berlin sculptor Ernst Gustav Herter (1846–1917), finally came to rest, although subject to repeated vandalism, in the Bronx, at 164th Street and the Grand Concourse, or Joyce Kilmer Park near today's Yankee Stadium. (In 1999, it was moved to 161st Street and the Concourse.) In 2007, Christopher Gray of The New York Times described it as "a writhing composition in white Tyrolean marble depicting Lorelei, the mythical German figure, surrounded by mermaids, dolphins and seashells."
Who designed the City Island Historical Society and Nautical Museum's building?
57326ae20fdd8d15006c6aab
C. B. J. Snyder
250
False
What was the City Island Historical Society and Nautical Museum's building originally?
57326ae20fdd8d15006c6aac
a former public school
139
False
Where is the NY Maritime College?
57326ae20fdd8d15006c6aad
Fort Schuyler
299
False
What is 'Scullers' Row'?
57326ae20fdd8d15006c6aae
the Harlem River
391
False
Which river is near the New York Botanical Gardens?
57326ae20fdd8d15006c6aaf
Bronx River
658
False
The peninsular borough's maritime heritage is acknowledged in several ways.The City Island Historical Society and Nautical Museum occupies a former public school designed by the New York City school system's turn-of-the-last-century master architect C. B. J. Snyder. The state's Maritime College in Fort Schuyler (on the southeastern shore) houses the Maritime Industry Museum. In addition, the Harlem River is reemerging as "Scullers' Row" due in large part to the efforts of the Bronx River Restoration Project, a joint public-private endeavor of the city's parks department. Canoeing and kayaking on the borough's namesake river have been promoted by the Bronx River Alliance. The river is also straddled by the New York Botanical Gardens, its neighbor, the Bronx Zoo, and a little further south, on the west shore, Bronx River Art Center.
What does the Inner City Press now focus on?
57326b24b9d445190005eb0d
national issues
212
False
Who is the Riverdale Press's editor?
57326b24b9d445190005eb0e
Bernard Stein
453
False
When did Stein win a Pulitzer?
57326b24b9d445190005eb0f
1998
572
False
Why did Stein win a Pulitzer?
57326b24b9d445190005eb10
for his editorials about Bronx and New York City issues
513
False
Where did Stein graduate from?
57326b24b9d445190005eb11
the Bronx High School of Science
600
False
The Bronx has several local newspapers, including The Bronx News, Parkchester News, City News, The Riverdale Press, Riverdale Review, The Bronx Times Reporter, Inner City Press  (which now has more of a focus on national issues) and Co-Op City Times. Four non-profit news outlets, Norwood News, Mount Hope Monitor, Mott Haven Herald and The Hunts Point Express serve the borough's poorer communities. The editor and co-publisher of The Riverdale Press, Bernard Stein, won the Pulitzer Prize for Editorial Writing for his editorials about Bronx and New York City issues in 1998. (Stein graduated from the Bronx High School of Science in 1959.)
Where is the official city TV station broadcast from?
57326b79e17f3d1400422973
Bronx Community College
105
False
What channel in the Bronx does Cablevision run?
57326b79e17f3d1400422974
News 12 The Bronx
155
False
What is the Bronx's only 4-year CUNY college?
57326b79e17f3d1400422975
Herbert H. Lehman College
427
False
The City of New York has an official television station run by the NYC Media Group and broadcasting from Bronx Community College, and Cablevision operates News 12 The Bronx, both of which feature programming based in the Bronx. Co-op City was the first area in the Bronx, and the first in New York beyond Manhattan, to have its own cable television provider. The local public-access television station BronxNet originates from Herbert H. Lehman College, the borough's only four year CUNY school, and provides government-access television (GATV) public affairs programming in addition to programming produced by Bronx residents.
When was 'From This Day Forward' released?
57326bf10fdd8d15006c6ab5
1946
145
False
Where was 'From This Day Forward' set?
57326bf10fdd8d15006c6ab6
Highbridge
159
False
When was 'The Catered Affair' released?
57326bf10fdd8d15006c6ab7
1956
353
False
What did 'The Catered Affair' explore?
57326bf10fdd8d15006c6ab8
working class Bronx life
290
False
What was 'Summer of Sam' about?
57326bf10fdd8d15006c6ab9
an Italian-American Bronx community
501
False
Mid-20th century movies set in the Bronx portrayed densely settled, working-class, urban culture. Hollywood films such as From This Day Forward (1946), set in Highbridge, occasionally delved into Bronx life. Paddy Chayefsky's Academy Award-winning Marty was the most notable examination of working class Bronx life was also explored by Chayefsky in his 1956 film The Catered Affair, and in the 1993 Robert De Niro/Chazz Palminteri film, A Bronx Tale, Spike Lee's 1999 movie Summer of Sam, centered in an Italian-American Bronx community, 1994's I Like It Like That that takes place in the predominantly Puerto Rican neighborhood of the South Bronx, and Doughboys, the story of two Italian-American brothers in danger of losing their bakery thanks to one brother's gambling debts.
Where was arson a big problem in the Bronx?
57326c5ae99e3014001e6794
the South Bronx
104
False
When was the phrase "The Bronx is burning" first widespread?
57326c5ae99e3014001e6795
1974
200
False
Who made a documentary called "The Bronx is burning"?
57326c5ae99e3014001e6796
BBC
263
False
Who published an editorial called "The Bronx is burning"?
57326c5ae99e3014001e6797
New York Times
232
False
Who made a film called 'Bronx Burning'?
57326c5ae99e3014001e6798
Edwin Pagan
879
False
Starting in the 1970s, the Bronx often symbolized violence, decay, and urban ruin. The wave of arson in the South Bronx in the 1960s and 1970s inspired the observation that "The Bronx is burning": in 1974 it was the title of both a New York Times editorial and a BBC documentary film. The line entered the pop-consciousness with Game Two of the 1977 World Series, when a fire broke out near Yankee Stadium as the team was playing the Los Angeles Dodgers. Numerous fires had previously broken out in the Bronx prior to this fire. As the fire was captured on live television, announcer Howard Cosell is wrongly remembered to have said something like, "There it is, ladies and gentlemen: the Bronx is burning". Historians of New York City frequently point to Cosell's remark as an acknowledgement of both the city and the borough's decline. A new feature-length documentary film by Edwin Pagan called Bronx Burning is in production in 2006, chronicling what led up to the numerous arson-for-insurance fraud fires of the 1970s in the borough.
When was 'The Wanderers' published?
57326c8b0fdd8d15006c6abf
1974
36
False
When was 'The Wanderers' movie released?
57326c8b0fdd8d15006c6ac0
1979
99
False
When was 'The Warriors' movie released?
57326c8b0fdd8d15006c6ac1
1979
244
False
When was 'A Bronx Tale' released?
57326c8b0fdd8d15006c6ac2
1993
442
False
Bronx gang life was depicted in the 1974 novel The Wanderers by Bronx native Richard Price and the 1979 movie of the same name. They are set in the heart of the Bronx, showing apartment life and the then-landmark Krums ice cream parlor. In the 1979 film The Warriors, the eponymous gang go to a meeting in Van Cortlandt Park in the Bronx, and have to fight their way out of the borough and get back to Coney Island in Brooklyn. A Bronx Tale (1993) depicts gang activities in the Belmont "Little Italy" section of the Bronx. The 2005 video game adaptation features levels called Pelham, Tremont, and "Gunhill" (a play off the name Gun Hill Road). This theme lends itself to the title of The Bronx Is Burning, an eight-part ESPN TV mini-series (2007) about the New York Yankees' drive to winning baseball's 1977 World Series. The TV series emphasizes the boisterous nature of the team, led by manager Billy Martin, catcher Thurman Munson and outfielder Reggie Jackson, as well as the malaise of the Bronx and New York City in general during that time, such as the blackout, the city's serious financial woes and near bankruptcy, the arson for insurance payments, and the election of Ed Koch as mayor.
When was 'Fort Apache' released?
57326cc2e17f3d1400422979
1981
4
False
When was 'Fuga dal Bronx' released?
57326cc2e17f3d140042297a
2005
491
False
What origin was 'Escape 2000'?
57326cc2e17f3d140042297b
Italian
608
False
The 1981 film Fort Apache, The Bronx is another film that used the Bronx's gritty image for its storyline. The movie's title is from the nickname for the 41st Police Precinct in the South Bronx which was nicknamed "Fort Apache". Also from 1981 is the horror film Wolfen making use of the rubble of the Bronx as a home for werewolf type creatures. Knights of the South Bronx, a true story of a teacher who worked with disadvantaged children, is another film also set in the Bronx released in 2005. The Bronx was the setting for the 1983 film Fuga dal Bronx, also known as Bronx Warriors 2 and Escape 2000, an Italian B-movie best known for its appearance on the television series Mystery Science Theatre 3000. The plot revolves around a sinister construction corporation's plans to depopulate, destroy and redevelop the Bronx, and a band of rebels who are out to expose the corporation's murderous ways and save their homes. The film is memorable for its almost incessant use of the phrase, "Leave the Bronx!" Many of the movie's scenes were filmed in Queens, substituting as the Bronx. Rumble in the Bronx was a 1995 Jackie Chan kung-fu film, another which popularised the Bronx to international audiences. Last Bronx, a 1996 Sega game played on the bad reputation of the Bronx to lend its name to an alternate version of post-Japanese bubble Tokyo, where crime and gang warfare is rampant.
When was 'True Love' released?
57326cefe99e3014001e67a6
1989
28
False
What genre was 'True Love'?
57326cefe99e3014001e67a7
comedy
33
False
Who starred in 'True Love'?
57326cefe99e3014001e67a8
Annabella Sciorra and Ron Eldard
158
False
Bronx native Nancy Savoca's 1989 comedy, True Love, explores two Italian-American Bronx sweethearts in the days before their wedding. The film, which debuted Annabella Sciorra and Ron Eldard as the betrothed couple, won the Grand Jury Prize at that year's Sundance Film Festival. The CBS television sitcom Becker, 1998–2004, was more ambiguous. The show starred Ted Danson as Dr. John Becker, a doctor who operated a small practice and was constantly annoyed by his patients, co-workers, friends, and practically everything and everybody else in his world. It showed his everyday life as a doctor working in a small clinic in the Bronx.
When did "Awakenings" come out?
57326d2f0fdd8d15006c6ad1
1990
17
False
Whose real story is 'Awakenings' based on?
57326d2f0fdd8d15006c6ad2
Oliver Sacks
103
False
What is Sacks' career?
57326d2f0fdd8d15006c6ad3
neurologist
91
False
When was 'A Kind of Alaska' performed?
57326d2f0fdd8d15006c6ad4
1985
561
False
Who wrote 'A Kind of Alaska'?
57326d2f0fdd8d15006c6ad5
Harold Pinter
574
False
Penny Marshall's 1990 film Awakenings, which was nominated for several Oscars, is based on neurologist Oliver Sacks' 1973 account of his psychiatric patients at Beth Abraham Hospital in the Bronx who were paralyzed by a form of encephalitis but briefly responded to the drug L-dopa. Robin Williams played the physician; Robert De Niro was one of the patients who emerged from a catatonic (frozen) state. The home of Williams' character was shot not far from Sacks' actual City Island residence. A 1973 Yorkshire Television documentary and "A Kind of Alaska", a 1985 play by Harold Pinter, were also based on Sacks' book.
When was 'City Boy: The Adventures of Herbie Bookbinder' published?
57326d86b9d445190005eb17
1948
151
False
How much of 'City Boy: The Adventures of Herbie Bookbinder' is set in the Bronx?
57326d86b9d445190005eb18
about half
180
False
Who wrote 'City Boy: The Adventures of Herbie Bookbinder'?
57326d86b9d445190005eb19
Herman Wouk
90
False
When was 'The Grand Concourse' published?
57326d86b9d445190005eb1a
2007
504
False
Who wrote 'The Grand Concourse'?
57326d86b9d445190005eb1b
Jacob M. Appel
451
False
The Bronx has been featured significantly in fiction literature. All of the characters in Herman Wouk's City Boy: The Adventures of Herbie Bookbinder (1948) live in the Bronx, and about half of the action is set there. Kate Simon's Bronx Primitive: Portraits of a Childhood is directly autobiographical, a warm account of a Polish-Jewish girl in an immigrant family growing up before World War II, and living near Arthur Avenue and Tremont Avenue. In Jacob M. Appel's short story, "The Grand Concourse" (2007), a woman who grew up in the iconic Lewis Morris Building returns to the Morrisania neighborhood with her adult daughter. Similarly, in Avery Corman's book The Old Neighborhood (1980), an upper-middle class white protagonist returns to his birth neighborhood (Fordham Road and the Grand Concourse), and learns that even though the folks are poor, Hispanic and African-American, they are good people.
Who wrote 'Bonfire of the Vanities'?
57326dbc0fdd8d15006c6adb
Tom Wolfe
13
False
When was 'Bonfire of the Vanities' published?
57326dbc0fdd8d15006c6adc
1987
50
False
Who was the main character of 'Bonfire of the Vanities'?
57326dbc0fdd8d15006c6add
Sherman McCoy
95
False
What race was Sherman McCoy?
57326dbc0fdd8d15006c6ade
white
76
False
Where did McCoy get lost?
57326dbc0fdd8d15006c6adf
off the Major Deegan Expressway in the South Bronx
123
False
By contrast, Tom Wolfe's Bonfire of the Vanities (1987) portrays a wealthy, white protagonist, Sherman McCoy, getting lost off the Major Deegan Expressway in the South Bronx and having an altercation with locals. A substantial piece of the last part of the book is set in the resulting riotous trial at the Bronx County Courthouse. However, times change, and in 2007, the New York Times reported that "the Bronx neighborhoods near the site of Sherman's accident are now dotted with townhouses and apartments." In the same article, the Reverend Al Sharpton (whose fictional analogue in the novel is "Reverend Bacon") asserts that "twenty years later, the cynicism of The Bonfire of the Vanities is as out of style as Tom Wolfe's wardrobe."
Financial_crisis_of_2007%E2%80%9308
What action in 2007 by national governments prevented the collapse of large financial institutions?
573257950fdd8d15006c69eb
bailout of banks
87
False
How much estimated consumer wealth was lost as a result of the financial crisis of 2007?
573257950fdd8d15006c69ec
trillions of U.S. dollars
398
False
What is the date the active phase of the financial crisis began as a liquidity crisis?
573257950fdd8d15006c69ed
August 9, 2007
649
False
What year did the global recession that followed the financial crisis of 2007 end?
573257950fdd8d15006c69ee
2012
481
False
What was the name of the company that terminated withdrawals from three hedge funds in 2007 citing a liquidity crisis?
573257950fdd8d15006c69ef
BNP Paribas
670
False
It threatened the collapse of large financial institutions, which was prevented by the bailout of banks by national governments, but stock markets still dropped worldwide. In many areas, the housing market also suffered, resulting in evictions, foreclosures and prolonged unemployment. The crisis played a significant role in the failure of key businesses, declines in consumer wealth estimated in trillions of U.S. dollars, and a downturn in economic activity leading to the 2008–2012 global recession and contributing to the European sovereign-debt crisis. The active phase of the crisis, which manifested as a liquidity crisis, can be dated from August 9, 2007, when BNP Paribas terminated withdrawals from three hedge funds citing "a complete evaporation of liquidity".
What year did the U.S. housing bubble peak?
57325b55e17f3d14004228e5
2004
73
False
What year did Congress pass the American Recover and Reinvestment Act?
57325b55e17f3d14004228e6
2009
1268
False
Overvaluation of bundled subprime mortgages was based on the theory that housing prices would continue to do this?
57325b55e17f3d14004228e7
escalate
459
False
One of the causes of the financial crisis was easier access to loans by this type borrower?
57325b55e17f3d14004228e8
subprime
382
False
In 2007, banks and insurance companies did not have adequate holdings of which type to back their financial commitments?
57325b55e17f3d14004228e9
capital
653
False
The bursting of the U.S. (United States) housing bubble, which peaked in 2004, caused the values of securities tied to U.S. real estate pricing to plummet, damaging financial institutions globally. The financial crisis was triggered by a complex interplay of policies that encouraged home ownership, providing easier access to loans for subprime borrowers, overvaluation of bundled subprime mortgages based on the theory that housing prices would continue to escalate, questionable trading practices on behalf of both buyers and sellers, compensation structures that prioritize short-term deal flow over long-term value creation, and a lack of adequate capital holdings from banks and insurance companies to back the financial commitments they were making. Questions regarding bank solvency, declines in credit availability and damaged investor confidence had an impact on global stock markets, where securities suffered large losses during 2008 and early 2009. Economies worldwide slowed during this period, as credit tightened and international trade declined. Governments and central banks responded with unprecedented fiscal stimulus, monetary policy expansion and institutional bailouts. In the U.S., Congress passed the American Recovery and Reinvestment Act of 2009.
What is the name of the U.S. Senate report giving their conclusions for the cause of the crisis?
57325ecbe99e3014001e6728
Levin–Coburn Report
117
False
Which act was repealed in 1999 effectively removing the separation between investment and deposit banks?
57325ecbe99e3014001e6729
Glass-Steagall Act
1179
False
What is the name of the commission who concluded the financial crisis was avoidable?
57325ecbe99e3014001e672a
Financial Crisis Inquiry Commission
378
False
What agency failed to accurately price risk involved in mortgage-related financial products?
57325ecbe99e3014001e672b
credit rating agencies
1321
False
What practices should have been adjusted by governments to address 21st-century financial markets?
57325ecbe99e3014001e672c
regulatory
1487
False
Many causes for the financial crisis have been suggested, with varying weight assigned by experts. The U.S. Senate's Levin–Coburn Report concluded that the crisis was the result of "high risk, complex financial products; undisclosed conflicts of interest; the failure of regulators, the credit rating agencies, and the market itself to rein in the excesses of Wall Street." The Financial Crisis Inquiry Commission concluded that the financial crisis was avoidable and was caused by "widespread failures in financial regulation and supervision", "dramatic failures of corporate governance and risk management at many systemically important financial institutions", "a combination of excessive borrowing, risky investments, and lack of transparency" by financial institutions, ill preparation and inconsistent action by government that "added to the uncertainty and panic", a "systemic breakdown in accountability and ethics", "collapsing mortgage-lending standards and the mortgage securitization pipeline", deregulation of over-the-counter derivatives, especially credit default swaps, and "the failures of credit rating agencies" to correctly price risk. The 1999 repeal of the Glass-Steagall Act effectively removed the separation between investment banks and depository banks in the United States. Critics argued that credit rating agencies and investors failed to accurately price the risk involved with mortgage-related financial products, and that governments did not adjust their regulatory practices to address 21st-century financial markets. Research into the causes of the financial crisis has also focused on the role of interest rate spreads.
What are MBS as related to the housing and credit booms?
573260db0fdd8d15006c6a65
mortgage-backed securities
83
False
What are CDO as related to the housing and credit booms?
573260db0fdd8d15006c6a66
collateralized debt obligations
120
False
When housing prices declined, who reported significant losses from being heavily invested in subprime MBS?
573260db0fdd8d15006c6a67
major global financial institutions
391
False
Who could invest in the U.S. housing market through MBS and CDO?
573260db0fdd8d15006c6a68
institutions and investors around the world
281
False
MBS and CDO derive their value from?
573260db0fdd8d15006c6a69
mortgage payments and housing prices
190
False
As part of the housing and credit booms, the number of financial agreements called mortgage-backed securities (MBS) and collateralized debt obligations (CDO), which derived their value from mortgage payments and housing prices, greatly increased. Such financial innovation enabled institutions and investors around the world to invest in the U.S. housing market. As housing prices declined, major global financial institutions that had borrowed and invested heavily in subprime MBS reported significant losses.
What year did the foreclosure epidemic begin?
573263d4b9d445190005eadb
late 2006
174
False
How much are total losses estimated to be from falling home prices?
573263d4b9d445190005eadc
trillions of U.S. dollars
477
False
What is the financial incentive when a home is worth less than the mortgage loan?
573263d4b9d445190005eadd
foreclosure
114
False
What other financial instruments had significant defaults and losses as a result of the crisis expanding from housing to other parts of the economy?
573263d4b9d445190005eade
other loan types
319
False
What continues to drain consumer wealth and erode the strength of banks?
573263d4b9d445190005eadf
foreclosure epidemic
139
False
Falling prices also resulted in homes worth less than the mortgage loan, providing a financial incentive to enter foreclosure. The ongoing foreclosure epidemic that began in late 2006 in the U.S. continues to drain wealth from consumers and erodes the financial strength of banking institutions. Defaults and losses on other loan types also increased significantly as the crisis expanded from the housing market to other parts of the economy. Total losses are estimated in the trillions of U.S. dollars globally.
What institutions comprise the shadow banking system?
57329eb1cc179a14009dab72
investment banks and hedge funds
567
False
What institutions are not subject to the same regulations as commercial banks?
57329eb1cc179a14009dab73
investment banks and hedge funds
567
False
What process caused the financial system to both expand and become fragile?
57329eb1cc179a14009dab74
financialization
165
False
What policy has U.S. Government emphasized from the 1970's onward?
57329eb1cc179a14009dab75
deregulation
243
False
Since the 1970's, what has emphasized deregulation to encourage business, but resulted in less oversight and less disclosure?
57329eb1cc179a14009dab76
U.S. Government policy
183
False
While the housing and credit bubbles were building, a series of factors caused the financial system to both expand and become increasingly fragile, a process called financialization. U.S. Government policy from the 1970s onward has emphasized deregulation to encourage business, which resulted in less oversight of activities and less disclosure of information about new activities undertaken by banks and other evolving financial institutions. Thus, policymakers did not immediately recognize the increasingly important role played by financial institutions such as investment banks and hedge funds, also known as the shadow banking system. Some experts believe these institutions had become as important as commercial (depository) banks in providing credit to the U.S. economy, but they were not subject to the same regulations.
Some regulated banks did not have sufficient financial cushions in place to absorb what losses as a result of the financial crisis of 2007?
5732a8641d5d2e14009ff885
MBS
221
False
What was a consequence of the large loan defaults and MBS losses in 2007?
5732a8641d5d2e14009ff886
slowing economic activity
302
False
Who provided funds to encourage lending and restore faith in commercial banks in the aftermath of the financial crisis of 2007?
5732a8641d5d2e14009ff887
central banks
398
False
Who bailed out key financial institutions and implemented economic stimulus programs as an answer to the financial crisis of 2007?
5732a8641d5d2e14009ff888
Governments
552
False
What impacted the ability of financial institutions to lend in the financial crisis of 2007?
5732a8641d5d2e14009ff889
large loan defaults or MBS losses
198
False
These institutions, as well as certain regulated banks, had also assumed significant debt burdens while providing the loans described above and did not have a financial cushion sufficient to absorb large loan defaults or MBS losses. These losses impacted the ability of financial institutions to lend, slowing economic activity. Concerns regarding the stability of key financial institutions drove central banks to provide funds to encourage lending and restore faith in the commercial paper markets, which are integral to funding business operations. Governments also bailed out key financial institutions and implemented economic stimulus programs, assuming significant additional financial commitments.
When did the U.S. Financial Crisis Inquiry Commission report its findings?
5732aa5bcc179a14009dabdc
January 2011
70
False
What was one of  the conclusions of the U.S. Financial Crisis Inquiry Commission regarding the financial crisis of 2007?
5732aa5bcc179a14009dabdd
the crisis was avoidable and was caused by: widespread failures in financial regulation
103
False
What agency failed to stem the tide of toxic mortgages contributing to the financial crisis of 2007?
5732aa5bcc179a14009dabde
Federal Reserve
206
False
Who was not prepared for the financial crisis in 2007 by lacking a full understanding of the financial system?
5732aa5bcc179a14009dabdf
key policy makers
539
False
Which business sector contributed to the financial crisis by acting recklessly and taking on too much risk?
5732aa5bcc179a14009dabe0
financial firms
332
False
The U.S. Financial Crisis Inquiry Commission reported its findings in January 2011. It concluded that "the crisis was avoidable and was caused by: widespread failures in financial regulation, including the Federal Reserve’s failure to stem the tide of toxic mortgages; dramatic breakdowns in corporate governance including too many financial firms acting recklessly and taking on too much risk; an explosive mix of excessive borrowing and risk by households and Wall Street that put the financial system on a collision course with crisis; key policy makers ill prepared for the crisis, lacking a full understanding of the financial system they oversaw; and systemic breaches in accountability and ethics at all levels".
What caused mortgage lenders to relax underwriting standards and approve riskier mortgages?
5732ac07328d981900601ffd
tough competition
19
False
In what year were high underwriting standards relaxed?
5732ac07328d981900601ffe
2003
454
False
What years were the worst mortgage loans originated?
5732ac07328d981900601fff
2004–2007
694
False
What years had the most intense competition between securitizers and the lowest market share for GSEs?
5732ac07328d981900602000
2004–2007
694
False
Who policed mortgage originators and maintained relatively high standards prior to 2003?
5732ac07328d981900602001
government-sponsored enterprises (GSEs)
322
False
During a period of tough competition between mortgage lenders for revenue and market share, and when the supply of creditworthy borrowers was limited, mortgage lenders relaxed underwriting standards and originated riskier mortgages to less creditworthy borrowers. In the view of some analysts, the relatively conservative government-sponsored enterprises (GSEs) policed mortgage originators and maintained relatively high underwriting standards prior to 2003. However, as market power shifted from securitizers to originators and as intense competition from private securitizers undermined GSE power, mortgage standards declined and risky loans proliferated. The worst loans were originated in 2004–2007, the years of the most intense competition between securitizers and the lowest market share for the GSEs.
How many Democratic appointees wrote the majority report of the Financial Crisis Inquiry Commission?
5732add9cc179a14009dabf0
six
79
False
Who claimed that the GSE never purchased subprime loans - a claim that is widely disputed?
5732add9cc179a14009dabf1
Paul Krugman
655
False
Several reports written by various agencies  concluded that which policy was not the primary cause of the financial crisis?
5732add9cc179a14009dabf2
government affordable housing policy
279
False
How many Republican appointees wrote the minority report of the Financial Crisis Inquiry Commission?
5732add9cc179a14009dabf3
4
147
False
According to reports, which loans performed better than some loans securitized by private investment banks?
5732add9cc179a14009dabf4
GSE loans
471
False
The majority report of the Financial Crisis Inquiry Commission, written by the six Democratic appointees, the minority report, written by 3 of the 4 Republican appointees, studies by Federal Reserve economists, and the work of several independent scholars generally contend that government affordable housing policy was not the primary cause of the financial crisis. Although they concede that governmental policies had some role in causing the crisis, they contend that GSE loans performed better than loans securitized by private investment banks, and performed better than some loans originated by institutions that held loans in their own portfolios. Paul Krugman has even claimed that the GSE never purchased subprime loans – a claim that is widely disputed.
Which government-sponsored entities had massive risky loan purchases?
5732afd2328d981900602007
Fannie Mae and Freddie Mac
361
False
How many estimated substandard loans did Fannie and Freddie have in 2008?
5732afd2328d981900602008
13 million
596
False
What was the value of the estimated 13 million substandard loans held by Fannie and Freddie in 2008?
5732afd2328d981900602009
over $2 trillion
634
False
How many ex-executives of Fannie and Freddie were named in the SEC's December 2011 securities fraud case?
5732afd2328d98190060200a
6
476
False
Peter J. Wallison believes that the one of the roots of the financial crisis can be traced to affordable housing policies by which agency in the 1990s?
5732afd2328d98190060200b
HUD
275
False
In his dissent to the majority report of the Financial Crisis Inquiry Commission, American Enterprise Institute fellow Peter J. Wallison stated his belief that the roots of the financial crisis can be traced directly and primarily to affordable housing policies initiated by HUD in the 1990s and to massive risky loan purchases by government-sponsored entities Fannie Mae and Freddie Mac. Later, based upon information in the SEC's December 2011 securities fraud case against 6 ex-executives of Fannie and Freddie, Peter Wallison and Edward Pinto estimated that, in 2008, Fannie and Freddie held 13 million substandard loans totaling over $2 trillion.
Which administration called for investigation into the soundness of GSEs in the early and mid-2000s?
5732b191d6dcfa19001e8a7c
Bush administration
32
False
Who uncovered accounting discrepancies in Fannie Mae and Freddie Mac?
5732b191d6dcfa19001e8a7d
Office of Federal Housing Enterprise Oversight (OFHEO)
374
False
On what date did the House Financial Services Committee hold a hearing to assess safety and soundness issues regarding Fannie Mae and Freddie Mac?
5732b191d6dcfa19001e8a7e
September 10, 2003
189
False
What was the result of the House Financial Services Committee on September 10, 2003 regarding Fannie Mae and Freddie Mac?
5732b191d6dcfa19001e8a7f
The hearings never resulted in new legislation or formal investigation
498
False
Who rebuked OFHEO in 2003 for their attempt at regulation of Fannie Mae and Freddie Mac?
5732b191d6dcfa19001e8a80
House Financial Services Committee
213
False
In the early and mid-2000s, the Bush administration called numerous times for investigation into the safety and soundness of the GSEs and their swelling portfolio of subprime mortgages. On September 10, 2003, the House Financial Services Committee held a hearing at the urging of the administration to assess safety and soundness issues and to review a recent report by the Office of Federal Housing Enterprise Oversight (OFHEO) that had uncovered accounting discrepancies within the two entities. The hearings never resulted in new legislation or formal investigation of Fannie Mae and Freddie Mac, as many of the committee members refused to accept the report and instead rebuked OFHEO for their attempt at regulation. Some believe this was an early warning to the systemic risk that the growing market in subprime mortgages posed to the U.S. financial system that went unheeded.
What was the value of mortgage lending made by Community Reinvestment Act covered lenders to low and mid level income borrowers and neighborhoods from 1993-1998?
5732b3a5328d981900602017
$467 billion
117
False
What percent of mortgage lending was made by Community Reinvestment Act covered lenders from 1993 to 1998?
5732b3a5328d981900602018
10%
289
False
What does CRA stand for?
5732b3a5328d981900602019
Community Reinvestment Act
162
False
What percent of sub-prime lending occurred at CRA-covered institutions in the run-up to the financial crisis?
5732b3a5328d98190060201a
25%
521
False
What percent of sub-prime loans had some connection with CRA in the run-up to the financial crisis?
5732b3a5328d98190060201b
25%
599
False
A 2000 United States Department of the Treasury study of lending trends for 305 cities from 1993 to 1998 showed that $467 billion of mortgage lending was made by Community Reinvestment Act (CRA)-covered lenders into low and mid level income (LMI) borrowers and neighborhoods, representing 10% of all U.S. mortgage lending during the period. The majority of these were prime loans. Sub-prime loans made by CRA-covered institutions constituted a 3% market share of LMI loans in 1998, but in the run-up to the crisis, fully 25% of all sub-prime lending occurred at CRA-covered institutions and another 25% of sub-prime loans had some connection with CRA. In addition, an analysis by the Federal Reserve Bank of Dallas in 2009, however, concluded that the CRA was not responsible for the mortgage loan crisis, pointing out that CRA rules have been in place since 1995 whereas the poor lending emerged only a decade later. Furthermore, most sub-prime loans were not made to the LMI borrowers targeted by the CRA, especially in the years 2005–2006 leading up to the crisis. Nor did it find any evidence that lending under the CRA rules increased delinquency rates or that the CRA indirectly influenced independent mortgage lenders to ramp up sub-prime lending.
When did CRA make rule changes to relax underwriting standards?
5732b589cc179a14009dac1e
1995
262
False
How much were CRA loan commitments between 1994 and 2007?
5732b589cc179a14009dac1f
$4.5 trillion
541
False
What was the Federal Reserve's assumption regarding what makes a loan subprime?
5732b589cc179a14009dac20
high-interest-rate loans (3 percentage points over average)
729
False
How did the Federal Reserve classify CRA loans?
5732b589cc179a14009dac21
prime
666
False
When were ultra-low interest rates initiated by the Federal Reserve?
5732b589cc179a14009dac22
after the terrorist attack on September 11, 2001
333
False
To other analysts the delay between CRA rule changes (in 1995) and the explosion of subprime lending is not surprising, and does not exonerate the CRA. They contend that there were two, connected causes to the crisis: the relaxation of underwriting standards in 1995 and the ultra-low interest rates initiated by the Federal Reserve after the terrorist attack on September 11, 2001. Both causes had to be in place before the crisis could take place. Critics also point out that publicly announced CRA loan commitments were massive, totaling $4.5 trillion in the years between 1994 and 2007. They also argue that the Federal Reserve’s classification of CRA loans as “prime” is based on the faulty and self-serving assumption that high-interest-rate loans (3 percentage points over average) equal “subprime” loans.
What financial innovation enabled investment banks and hedge funds to make large wagers?
5732b89acc179a14009dac32
credit default swaps, collateralized debt obligations and synthetic CDOs.
516
False
Credit default swaps, collateralized debt obligations and CDOS are all types of what?
5732b89acc179a14009dac33
derivatives
497
False
Which magazine had an article where Michael Lewis spoke with a trader about bad loans?
5732b89acc179a14009dac34
Portfolio Magazine
125
False
What financial innovation allows investment banks and hedge banks to make large wagers?
5732b89acc179a14009dac35
derivatives
497
False
What are some names of derivatives?
5732b89acc179a14009dac36
credit default swaps, collateralized debt obligations and synthetic CDOs
516
False
Others have pointed out that there were not enough of these loans made to cause a crisis of this magnitude. In an article in Portfolio Magazine, Michael Lewis spoke with one trader who noted that "There weren’t enough Americans with [bad] credit taking out [bad loans] to satisfy investors' appetite for the end product." Essentially, investment banks and hedge funds used financial innovation to enable large wagers to be made, far beyond the actual value of the underlying mortgage loans, using derivatives called credit default swaps, collateralized debt obligations and synthetic CDOs.
Peter J. Wallison believes that the huge number of these loans led to the financial crisis?
5732bad2cc179a14009dac3c
substandard
633
False
What type downpayments do substandard loans generally have?
5732bad2cc179a14009dac3d
low or no downpayments
668
False
According to Peter J. Wallison, why did the U.S. residential housing bubble led to financial crisis?
5732bad2cc179a14009dac3e
it was supported by a huge number of substandard loans
596
False
Other countries had large residential housing bubbles that deflated during what years?
5732bad2cc179a14009dac3f
1997–2007
240
False
Peter J. Wallison's conclusions regarding the financial crisis are not in agreement with this economist's views?
5732bad2cc179a14009dac40
Krugman
11
False
Countering Krugman, Peter J. Wallison wrote: "It is not true that every bubble—even a large bubble—has the potential to cause a financial crisis when it deflates." Wallison notes that other developed countries had "large bubbles during the 1997–2007 period" but "the losses associated with mortgage delinquencies and defaults when these bubbles deflated were far lower than the losses suffered in the United States when the 1997–2007 [bubble] deflated." According to Wallison, the reason the U.S. residential housing bubble (as opposed to other types of bubbles) led to financial crisis was that it was supported by a huge number of substandard loans – generally with low or no downpayments.
Who believed that the growth of the commercial real estate bubble indicated that U.S. housing policy was not the cause of the crisis?
57332627d058e614000b5744
Krugman
0
False
When did Xudong An and Anthony B. Sanders issue a report about commercial mortgage-backed securities?
57332627d058e614000b5745
December 2010
304
False
According to business journalist Kimberly Amadeo, when did the first signs of decline in real estate occur?
57332627d058e614000b5746
2006
742
False
What are CMBS?
57332627d058e614000b5747
commercial mortgage-backed securities
386
False
According to most analysts, what crisis took place after the crisis in residential real estate?
57332627d058e614000b5748
the crisis in commercial real estate
517
False
Krugman's contention (that the growth of a commercial real estate bubble indicates that U.S. housing policy was not the cause of the crisis) is challenged by additional analysis. After researching the default of commercial loans during the financial crisis, Xudong An and Anthony B. Sanders reported (in December 2010): "We find limited evidence that substantial deterioration in CMBS [commercial mortgage-backed securities] loan underwriting occurred prior to the crisis." Other analysts support the contention that the crisis in commercial real estate and related lending took place after the crisis in residential real estate. Business journalist Kimberly Amadeo reports: "The first signs of decline in residential real estate occurred in 2006. Three years later, commercial real estate started feeling the effects. Denice A. Gierach, a real estate attorney and CPA, wrote:
What is one investment assigned safe ratings by the credit rating agencies?
573328a6d058e614000b574e
collateralized debt obligation
509
False
How much was invested worldwide in fixed income investments?
573328a6d058e614000b574f
$70 trillion
107
False
How much did the pool of money invested worldwide in fixed income investments grow in size from 2000 to 2007?
573328a6d058e614000b5750
roughly doubled in size
266
False
What is an example of a product Wall Street invented to answer the demand for income generating investments?
573328a6d058e614000b5751
mortgage-backed security
476
False
In the 2000s, investors were seeking higher yields than those offered by this investment?
573328a6d058e614000b5752
U.S. Treasury bonds
202
False
In a Peabody Award winning program, NPR correspondents argued that a "Giant Pool of Money" (represented by $70 trillion in worldwide fixed income investments) sought higher yields than those offered by U.S. Treasury bonds early in the decade. This pool of money had roughly doubled in size from 2000 to 2007, yet the supply of relatively safe, income generating investments had not grown as fast. Investment banks on Wall Street answered this demand with products such as the mortgage-backed security and the collateralized debt obligation that were assigned safe ratings by the credit rating agencies.
What is the name of the securities that enabled financial institutions to obtain investor funds to finance subprime?
57332ba74776f41900660730
collateralized debt obligation
4
False
What was the outcome of collateralized debt obligations?
57332ba74776f41900660731
extending or increasing the housing bubble
144
False
What type ratings did securities first in line receive from rating agencies?
57332ba74776f41900660732
investment-grade ratings
433
False
What type pool do collateralized debt obligations place their payments from mortgages into?
57332ba74776f41900660733
single pool
309
False
What securities had lower credit ratings but potentially a higher rate of return?
57332ba74776f41900660734
Securities with lower priority
480
False
The collateralized debt obligation in particular enabled financial institutions to obtain investor funds to finance subprime and other lending, extending or increasing the housing bubble and generating large fees. This essentially places cash payments from multiple mortgages or other debt obligations into a single pool from which specific securities draw in a specific sequence of priority. Those securities first in line received investment-grade ratings from rating agencies. Securities with lower priority had lower credit ratings but theoretically a higher rate of return on the amount invested.
How much had average U.S. housing prices declined by September 2008?
57332d064776f4190066074e
over 20%
63
False
When was the peak of U.S. housing prices?
57332d064776f4190066074f
mid-2006
83
False
How many foreclosure proceedings were initiated by lenders in 2007?
57332d064776f41900660750
nearly 1.3 million
322
False
What was the percentage increase on foreclosure proceedings from 2007 to 2008?
57332d064776f41900660751
81%
421
False
How many U.S. mortgages were either delinquent or in foreclosure by September 2009?
57332d064776f41900660752
14.4%
578
False
By September 2008, average U.S. housing prices had declined by over 20% from their mid-2006 peak. As prices declined, borrowers with adjustable-rate mortgages could not refinance to avoid the higher payments associated with rising interest rates and began to default. During 2007, lenders began foreclosure proceedings on nearly 1.3 million properties, a 79% increase over 2006. This increased to 2.3 million in 2008, an 81% increase vs. 2007. By August 2008, 9.2% of all U.S. mortgages outstanding were either delinquent or in foreclosure. By September 2009, this had risen to 14.4%.
Was was the federal funds rate target lowered to by the Federal Reserve in 2003?
573332054776f41900660774
1.0%
133
False
What is one reason the Federal Reserve lowered the federal funds rate target to 1.0% in 2003?
573332054776f41900660775
to combat a perceived risk of deflation
266
False
In the early 2000s, what type bubble did some economists believe the Fed needed to create to replace the Nasdaq bubble?
573332054776f41900660776
a housing bubble
479
False
What contributed greatly to the severity of the financial crisis of 2007?
573332054776f41900660777
excessive credit growth
600
False
What encouraged borrowing from 2000 to 2003?
573332054776f41900660778
Lower interest rates
0
False
Lower interest rates encouraged borrowing. From 2000 to 2003, the Federal Reserve lowered the federal funds rate target from 6.5% to 1.0%. This was done to soften the effects of the collapse of the dot-com bubble and the September 2001 terrorist attacks, as well as to combat a perceived risk of deflation. As early as 2002 it was apparent that credit was fueling housing instead of business investment as some economists went so far as to advocate that the Fed "needs to create a housing bubble to replace the Nasdaq bubble". Moreover, empirical studies using data from advanced countries show that excessive credit growth contributed greatly to the severity of the crisis.
Per Bernanke, how much did the U.S. current account deficit increase between 1996 and 2004?
573334094776f41900660786
$650 billion
93
False
What percentage of GDP was the U.S. current account deficit in 2004?
573334094776f41900660787
5.8%
120
False
What emerging economies did the U.S. borrow money from between 1996 and 2004 to finance its imports?
573334094776f41900660788
Asia and oil-exporting nations
308
False
What type account is needed by the U.S. to balance an account deficit?
573334094776f41900660789
capital account
462
False
Where did the U.S. obtain capital to finance its imports?
573334094776f4190066078a
foreign funds
554
False
Bernanke explained that between 1996 and 2004, the U.S. current account deficit increased by $650 billion, from 1.5% to 5.8% of GDP. Financing these deficits required the country to borrow large sums from abroad, much of it from countries running trade surpluses. These were mainly the emerging economies in Asia and oil-exporting nations. The balance of payments identity requires that a country (such as the U.S.) running a current account deficit also have a capital account (investment) surplus of the same amount. Hence large and growing amounts of foreign funds (capital) flowed into the U.S. to finance its imports.
When did the Fed begin raising Fed funds rate significantly?
573335cbd058e614000b5780
July 2004
61
False
What does ARM stand for:
573335cbd058e614000b5781
adjustable-rate mortgage
139
False
How do asset prices generally move in relation to interest rates?
573335cbd058e614000b5782
inversely
342
False
Beginning in July 2004, what did the Fed do to make ARM rates more expensive for homeowners?
573335cbd058e614000b5783
raised the Fed funds rate
13
False
How did U.S. housing and financial assets react to the housing bubble burst?
573335cbd058e614000b5784
dramatically declined in value
452
False
The Fed then raised the Fed funds rate significantly between July 2004 and July 2006. This contributed to an increase in 1-year and 5-year adjustable-rate mortgage (ARM) rates, making ARM interest rate resets more expensive for homeowners. This may have also contributed to the deflating of the housing bubble, as asset prices generally move inversely to interest rates, and it became riskier to speculate in housing. U.S. housing and financial assets dramatically declined in value after the housing bubble burst.
Richard M. Bowen III testified to the Financial Crisis Inquiry Commission regarding his tenure at which financial institution?
573337db4776f41900660798
Citigroup
205
False
How many underwriters was Richard M. Bowen III responsible for at Citigroup?
573337db4776f41900660799
220
250
False
What percent of mortgages purchased by Citigroup in 2006 were defective?
573337db4776f4190066079a
60%
450
False
In 2006, how many mortgage companies were contractually responsible to meet Citi's standards?
573337db4776f4190066079b
1,600
665
False
During 2007, what was the percent of defective mortgages not underwritten to Citi's standards?
573337db4776f4190066079c
over 80%
965
False
Testimony given to the Financial Crisis Inquiry Commission by Richard M. Bowen III on events during his tenure as the Business Chief Underwriter for Correspondent Lending in the Consumer Lending Group for Citigroup (where he was responsible for over 220 professional underwriters) suggests that by the final years of the U.S. housing bubble (2006–2007), the collapse of mortgage underwriting standards was endemic. His testimony stated that by 2006, 60% of mortgages purchased by Citi from some 1,600 mortgage companies were "defective" (were not underwritten to policy, or did not contain all policy-required documents) – this, despite the fact that each of these 1,600 originators was contractually responsible (certified via representations and warrantees) that its mortgage originations met Citi's standards. Moreover, during 2007, "defective mortgages (from mortgage originators contractually bound to perform underwriting to Citi's standards) increased... to over 80% of production".
Who was the largest residential loan due diligence and securitization surveillance company?
5733399bd058e614000b5794
Clayton Holdings
74
False
According to Clayton Holdings, how many mortgages issued from January 2006 to June 2007 met underwriting standards?
5733399bd058e614000b5795
54%
325
False
How many investment and commercial banks were included in Clayton Holdings' analysis of January 2006 to June 2007 loans?
5733399bd058e614000b5796
23
426
False
Per Clayton's analysis of loans issued from January 2006 to June 2007, what percent of loans did not meet minimal standards of any issuer?
5733399bd058e614000b5797
28%
524
False
How many mortgage loans did Clayton Holdings review in their analysis?
5733399bd058e614000b5798
900,000
246
False
In separate testimony to Financial Crisis Inquiry Commission, officers of Clayton Holdings—the largest residential loan due diligence and securitization surveillance company in the United States and Europe—testified that Clayton's review of over 900,000 mortgages issued from January 2006 to June 2007 revealed that scarcely 54% of the loans met their originators’ underwriting standards. The analysis (conducted on behalf of 23 investment and commercial banks, including 7 "too big to fail" banks) additionally showed that 28% of the sampled loans did not meet the minimal standards of any issuer. Clayton's analysis further showed that 39% of these loans (i.e. those not meeting any issuer's minimal underwriting standards) were subsequently securitized and sold to investors.
What is the name for lending that entices borrowers to enter into unsafe secured loans?
57333ba64776f419006607ac
Predatory lending
0
False
What company used a classic bait-and-switch method by advertising low interest rates?
57333ba64776f419006607ad
Countrywide Financial
208
False
Which type loan would the consumer be put into instead of the 1% or 1.5% interest rate loan as advertised?
57333ba64776f419006607ae
adjustable rate mortgage (ARM)
528
False
What was created when the interest charged was greater than the amount of interest paid?
57333ba64776f419006607af
negative amortization
653
False
What type predatory lending method did Countrywide Financial use?
57333ba64776f419006607b0
classic bait-and-switch
165
False
Predatory lending refers to the practice of unscrupulous lenders, enticing borrowers to enter into "unsafe" or "unsound" secured loans for inappropriate purposes. A classic bait-and-switch method was used by Countrywide Financial, advertising low interest rates for home refinancing. Such loans were written into extensively detailed contracts, and swapped for more expensive loan products on the day of closing. Whereas the advertisement might state that 1% or 1.5% interest would be charged, the consumer would be put into an adjustable rate mortgage (ARM) in which the interest charged would be greater than the amount of interest paid. This created negative amortization, which the credit consumer might not notice until long after the loan transaction had been consummated.
Who sued Countrywide for unfair business practices and false advertising?
57333da94776f419006607be
California Attorney General Jerry Brown
21
False
What type mortgages allowed homeowners to make interest-only payments?
57333da94776f419006607bf
adjustable rate mortgages (ARMs)
181
False
What happened to home equity when housing prices decreased?
57333da94776f419006607c0
disappeared
406
False
Who made the decision to seize Countrywide after their financial condition deteriorated?
57333da94776f419006607c1
Office of Thrift Supervision
523
False
What type credit did borrowers obtaining mortgages from Countrywide have?
57333da94776f419006607c2
weak credit
168
False
Countrywide, sued by California Attorney General Jerry Brown for "unfair business practices" and "false advertising" was making high cost mortgages "to homeowners with weak credit, adjustable rate mortgages (ARMs) that allowed homeowners to make interest-only payments". When housing prices decreased, homeowners in ARMs then had little incentive to pay their monthly payments, since their home equity had disappeared. This caused Countrywide's financial condition to deteriorate, ultimately resulting in a decision by the Office of Thrift Supervision to seize the lender.
What economist believed that regulations did not keep up with financial innovation?
57333f7dd058e614000b57c8
Paul Krugman
26
False
Who was the U.S. Treasury Secretary dealing with the aftermath of the financial crisis of 2007?
57333f7dd058e614000b57c9
Timothy Geithner
67
False
Which group's study suggested that Basel accords encourage unconventional business practices?
57333f7dd058e614000b57ca
OECD
289
False
It has been argued that what did not keep up with financial innovation?
57333f7dd058e614000b57cb
regulatory framework
105
False
What accords possibly contributed to or reinforced the financial crisis?
57333f7dd058e614000b57cc
Basel
342
False
Critics such as economist Paul Krugman and U.S. Treasury Secretary Timothy Geithner have argued that the regulatory framework did not keep pace with financial innovation, such as the increasing importance of the shadow banking system, derivatives and off-balance sheet financing. A recent OECD study suggest that bank regulation based on the Basel accords encourage unconventional business practices and contributed to or even reinforced the financial crisis. In other cases, laws were changed or enforcement weakened in parts of the financial system. Key examples include:
What did financial institutions do prior to the crisis?
573342a9d058e614000b57f0
became highly leveraged
44
False
What type financial instruments are off-balance sheet securitization and derivatives?
573342a9d058e614000b57f1
complex
207
False
Who bailed out financial institutions?
573342a9d058e614000b57f2
government
548
False
Which option was nearly impossible for financial institutions to reorganize under?
573342a9d058e614000b57f3
bankruptcy
504
False
What are the type financial instruments that were difficult for creditors and regulators to monitor?
573342a9d058e614000b57f4
complex financial instruments
207
False
Prior to the crisis, financial institutions became highly leveraged, increasing their appetite for risky investments and reducing their resilience in case of losses. Much of this leverage was achieved using complex financial instruments such as off-balance sheet securitization and derivatives, which made it difficult for creditors and regulators to monitor and try to reduce financial institution risk levels. These instruments also made it virtually impossible to reorganize financial institutions in bankruptcy, and contributed to the need for government bailouts.
How many U.S. investment banks significantly increased their financial leverage from 2004 to 2007?
5733450ed058e614000b580e
five
27
False
U.S. investment banks Increased their financial leverage and also increased their vulnerability to what?
5733450ed058e614000b580f
financial shock
164
False
Changes in what intended to keep U.S. banks competitive with their European counterparts?
5733450ed058e614000b5810
capital requirements
192
False
How much debt did the top five U.S. investment banks report in fiscal year 2007?
5733450ed058e614000b5811
over $4.1 trillion
503
False
What financial institution went bankrupt and was liquidated in 2007?
5733450ed058e614000b5812
Lehman Brothers
591
False
From 2004 to 2007, the top five U.S. investment banks each significantly increased their financial leverage (see diagram), which increased their vulnerability to a financial shock. Changes in capital requirements, intended to keep U.S. banks competitive with their European counterparts, allowed lower risk weightings for AAA securities. The shift from first-loss tranches to AAA tranches was seen by regulators as a risk reduction that compensated the higher leverage. These five institutions reported over $4.1 trillion in debt for fiscal year 2007, about 30% of USA nominal GDP for 2007. Lehman Brothers went bankrupt and was liquidated, Bear Stearns and Merrill Lynch were sold at fire-sale prices, and Goldman Sachs and Morgan Stanley became commercial banks, subjecting themselves to more stringent regulation. With the exception of Lehman, these companies required or received government support. Lehman reported that it had been in talks with Bank of America and Barclays for the company's possible sale. However, both Barclays and Bank of America ultimately declined to purchase the entire company.
What is an example of something that can be detrimental if too many individuals pursue the same behavior?
573346cc4776f419006607ec
saving more during adverse economic conditions
54
False
What is it called when too many consumers attempt to save or pay down debt at the same time?
573346cc4776f419006607ed
paradox of thrift
324
False
What will happen if too many consumers save or pay down debt simultaneously?
573346cc4776f419006607ee
can cause or deepen a recession
346
False
Who is the economist who described a "paradox of deleveraging"?
573346cc4776f419006607ef
Hyman Minsky
389
False
Financial institutions cannot all de-leverage simultaneously without a decline in the value of this?
573346cc4776f419006607f0
their assets
608
False
Behavior that may be optimal for an individual (e.g., saving more during adverse economic conditions) can be detrimental if too many individuals pursue the same behavior, as ultimately one person's consumption is another person's income. Too many consumers attempting to save (or pay down debt) simultaneously is called the paradox of thrift and can cause or deepen a recession. Economist Hyman Minsky also described a "paradox of deleveraging" as financial institutions that have too much leverage (debt relative to equity) cannot all de-leverage simultaneously without significant declines in the value of their assets.
Who was the U.S. Federal Reserve vice-chair in April 2009?
57334868d058e614000b5822
Janet Yellen
51
False
What happened soon after the massive credit crunch hit?
57334868d058e614000b5823
we were in a recession
156
False
What deepened the credit crunch when demand and employment fell?
57334868d058e614000b5824
recession
184
False
What was one of the actions businesses took to preserve cash?
57334868d058e614000b5825
cancelling planned investments
609
False
What occurred in nearly every corner of the economy after the financial crisis of 2007?
57334868d058e614000b5826
balance sheet deleveraging
423
False
During April 2009, U.S. Federal Reserve vice-chair Janet Yellen discussed these paradoxes: "Once this massive credit crunch hit, it didn’t take long before we were in a recession. The recession, in turn, deepened the credit crunch as demand and employment fell, and credit losses of financial institutions surged. Indeed, we have been in the grips of precisely this adverse feedback loop for more than a year. A process of balance sheet deleveraging has spread to nearly every corner of the economy. Consumers are pulling back on purchases, especially on durable goods, to build their savings. Businesses are cancelling planned investments and laying off workers to preserve cash. And, financial institutions are shrinking assets to bolster capital and improve their chances of weathering the current storm. Once again, Minsky understood this dynamic. He spoke of the paradox of deleveraging, in which precautions that may be smart for individuals and firms—and indeed essential to return the economy to a normal state—nevertheless magnify the distress of the economy as a whole."
What term refers to the ongoing development of financial products?
573349f34776f41900660800
financial innovation
9
False
What is an example of financial innovation pertinent to the financial crisis?
573349f34776f41900660801
adjustable-rate mortgage
305
False
What is the abbreviation for a form of credit insurance called credit default swaps?
573349f34776f41900660802
CDS
554
False
What is the financial innovation that bundles subprime mortgages?
573349f34776f41900660803
mortgage-backed securities (MBS)
371
False
What happened to the usage of financial innovation products in the years leading up the financial crisis?
573349f34776f41900660804
expanded dramatically
588
False
The term financial innovation refers to the ongoing development of financial products designed to achieve particular client objectives, such as offsetting a particular risk exposure (such as the default of a borrower) or to assist with obtaining financing. Examples pertinent to this crisis included: the adjustable-rate mortgage; the bundling of subprime mortgages into mortgage-backed securities (MBS) or collateralized debt obligations (CDO) for sale to investors, a type of securitization; and a form of credit insurance called credit default swaps (CDS). The usage of these products expanded dramatically in the years leading up to the crisis. These products vary in complexity and the ease with which they can be valued on the books of financial institutions.
When did the issuance of CDO peak?
57334b0b4776f4190066080a
Q1 2007
95
False
What was the estimated value of CDO issuance in Q1 2004?
57334b0b4776f4190066080b
$20 billion
36
False
What was the estimated value of CDO issuance at it's peak in Q1 2007?
57334b0b4776f4190066080c
over $180 billion
74
False
What percent of CDO assets were subprime and other non-prime mortgage debt in 2007?
57334b0b4776f4190066080d
36%
298
False
What was the estimated value of CDO issuance in Q1 2008?
57334b0b4776f4190066080e
under $20 billion
123
False
CDO issuance grew from an estimated $20 billion in Q1 2004 to its peak of over $180 billion by Q1 2007, then declined back under $20 billion by Q1 2008. Further, the credit quality of CDO's declined from 2000 to 2007, as the level of subprime and other non-prime mortgage debt increased from 5% to 36% of CDO assets. As described in the section on subprime lending, the CDS and portfolio of CDS called synthetic CDO enabled a theoretically infinite amount to be wagered on the finite value of housing loans outstanding, provided that buyers and sellers of the derivatives could be found. For example, buying a CDS to insure a CDO ended up giving the seller the same risk as if they owned the CDO, when those CDO's became worthless.
Which products created more complexity in the financial markets?
57334d024776f41900660814
innovative financial products
13
False
What effect did the introduction of innovative financial products have on a single mortgage?
57334d024776f41900660815
multiplied the number of actors connected
86
False
What did institutions rely more on as increasing distance from underlying assets occurred?
57334d024776f41900660816
indirect information
440
False
What is a type of indirect information that financial institutions and investors used to judge the risk?
57334d024776f41900660817
computer models of rating agencies
596
False
In what year did a group of computer scientists build a model for ratings produced by rating agencies that turned out to be accurate for what happened in 2006-2008?
57334d024776f41900660818
2005
776
False
This boom in innovative financial products went hand in hand with more complexity. It multiplied the number of actors connected to a single mortgage (including mortgage brokers, specialized originators, the securitizers and their due diligence firms, managing agents and trading desks, and finally investors, insurances and providers of repo funding). With increasing distance from the underlying asset these actors relied more and more on indirect information (including FICO scores on creditworthiness, appraisals and due diligence checks by third party organizations, and most importantly the computer models of rating agencies and risk management desks). Instead of spreading risk this provided the ground for fraudulent acts, misjudgments and finally market collapse. In 2005 a group of computer scientists built a computational model for the mechanism of biased ratings produced by rating agencies, which turned out to be adequate to what actually happened in 2006–2008.[citation needed]
What is a measurement of pricing of risk?
57334ed54776f41900660828
interest rates or fees
137
False
What is the incremental compensation required by investors for taking on addition risk called?
57334ed54776f41900660829
pricing of risk
4
False
According to several scholars, what prevented markets from correctly pricing risk before the crisis?
57334ed54776f4190066082a
lack of transparency about banks' risk exposures
197
False
How should risk levels have been disclosed according to several scholars?
57334ed54776f4190066082b
straightforward, readily understandable format
497
False
What was the outcome of the financial crisis since risk levels were not adequately disclosed?
57334ed54776f4190066082c
far more disruptive
414
False
The pricing of risk refers to the incremental compensation required by investors for taking on additional risk, which may be measured by interest rates or fees. Several scholars have argued that a lack of transparency about banks' risk exposures prevented markets from correctly pricing risk before the crisis, enabled the mortgage market to grow larger than it otherwise would have, and made the financial crisis far more disruptive than it would have been if risk levels had been disclosed in a straightforward, readily understandable format.
What did market participants fail to measure accurately?
57335048d058e614000b5836
risk inherent with financial innovation
77
False
What are the reasons market participants did not understand the impact financial innovation products would have?
57335048d058e614000b5837
a variety of reasons
4
False
How much did JPMorgan estimate was the average recovery rate for high quality CDOs that had been liquidated?
57335048d058e614000b5838
approximately 32 cents on the dollar
546
False
How much did JPMorgan estimate was the average recovery rate for mezzanine CDOs that had been liquidated?
57335048d058e614000b5839
approximately five cents for every dollar
630
False
How much did banks estimate was the value of CDOs sold between late 2005 to the middle of 2007?
57335048d058e614000b583a
$450bn
349
False
For a variety of reasons, market participants did not accurately measure the risk inherent with financial innovation such as MBS and CDOs or understand its impact on the overall stability of the financial system. For example, the pricing model for CDOs clearly did not reflect the level of risk they introduced into the system. Banks estimated that $450bn of CDO were sold between "late 2005 to the middle of 2007"; among the $102bn of those that had been liquidated, JPMorgan estimated that the average recovery rate for "high quality" CDOs was approximately 32 cents on the dollar, while the recovery rate for mezzanine CDO was approximately five cents for every dollar.
What firm insured obligations of various financial institutions using credit default swaps?
57335128d058e614000b584a
AIG
27
False
What does the abbreviation CDS stand for?
57335128d058e614000b584b
credit default swaps
113
False
When did the government take over AIG?
57335128d058e614000b584c
September 2008
426
False
How much money did taxpayers provide in government support to AIG during 2008 and early 2009?
57335128d058e614000b584d
over $180 billion
466
False
What did AIG receive for promising to pay Party A in the event that Party B defaulted?
57335128d058e614000b584e
a premium
184
False
Another example relates to AIG, which insured obligations of various financial institutions through the usage of credit default swaps. The basic CDS transaction involved AIG receiving a premium in exchange for a promise to pay money to party A in the event party B defaulted. However, AIG did not have the financial strength to support its many CDS commitments as the crisis progressed and was taken over by the government in September 2008. U.S. taxpayers provided over $180 billion in government support to AIG during 2008 and early 2009, through which the money flowed to various counterparties to CDS transactions, including many large global financial institutions.
Who commented that the super-boom got out of hand when products became so complicated that risk could not be accurately calculated?
573352f24776f41900660832
George Soros
354
False
What happened to financial assets that made them harder to value?
573352f24776f41900660833
more complex
36
False
Who did rating agencies rely on for information to rate financial innovation products?
573352f24776f41900660834
the originators of synthetic products
660
False
When authorities could no longer calculate the risks of complex financial innovation products, who did they rely on for information?
573352f24776f41900660835
the banks
569
False
Who reassured investors by showing the risk of complex financial innovation products was actually less than they proved to be?
573352f24776f41900660836
international bond rating agencies
133
False
As financial assets became more and more complex, and harder and harder to value, investors were reassured by the fact that both the international bond rating agencies and bank regulators, who came to rely on them, accepted as valid some complex mathematical models which theoretically showed the risks were much smaller than they actually proved to be. George Soros commented that "The super-boom got out of hand when the new products became so complicated that the authorities could no longer calculate the risks and started relying on the risk management methods of the banks themselves. Similarly, the rating agencies relied on the information provided by the originators of synthetic products. It was a shocking abdication of responsibility."
What led to bad investments by asset managers in over-priced credit assets?
573354414776f41900660846
a conflict of interest
10
False
Who is compensated based on the volume of client assets they have under management?
573354414776f41900660847
Professional investment managers
229
False
What is the incentive for asset managers to expand their assets under management?
573354414776f41900660848
to maximize their compensation
445
False
What did many asset managers decide to do to the detriment of their clients?
573354414776f41900660849
continue to invest client funds in over-priced (under-yielding) investments
744
False
What rationale did asset managers who continued to invest in over-priced investments to the detriment of their clients use?
573354414776f4190066084a
plausible deniability
940
False
Moreover, a conflict of interest between professional investment managers and their institutional clients, combined with a global glut in investment capital, led to bad investments by asset managers in over-priced credit assets. Professional investment managers generally are compensated based on the volume of client assets under management. There is, therefore, an incentive for asset managers to expand their assets under management in order to maximize their compensation. As the glut in global investment capital caused the yields on credit assets to decline, asset managers were faced with the choice of either investing in assets where returns did not reflect true credit risk or returning funds to clients. Many asset managers chose to continue to invest client funds in over-priced (under-yielding) investments, to the detriment of their clients, in order to maintain their assets under management. This choice was supported by a "plausible deniability" of the risks associated with subprime-based credit assets because the loss experience with early "vintages" of subprime loans was so low.
Who published "Credit Correlation: Life After Copulas" in 2007?
5733558fd058e614000b586e
World Scientific
332
False
When did relevant warnings and research on CDOs appear in an article by Donnelly and Embrechts?
5733558fd058e614000b586f
2006
672
False
The volume "Credit Correlation: Life After Copulas" summarizes a 2006 conference held by what firm in London?
5733558fd058e614000b5870
Merrill Lynch
387
False
What did the volume "Credit Correlation: Life After Copulas" propose models to rectify?
5733558fd058e614000b5871
some of the copula limitations
478
False
What year did the book by Brigo, Pallavicini and Torresetti report warnings and research on CDOs?
5733558fd058e614000b5872
2006
672
False
Despite the dominance of the above formula, there are documented attempts of the financial industry, occurring before the crisis, to address the formula limitations, specifically the lack of dependence dynamics and the poor representation of extreme events. The volume "Credit Correlation: Life After Copulas", published in 2007 by World Scientific, summarizes a 2006 conference held by Merrill Lynch in London where several practitioners attempted to propose models rectifying some of the copula limitations. See also the article by Donnelly and Embrechts and the book by Brigo, Pallavicini and Torresetti, that reports relevant warnings and research on CDOs appeared in 2006.
Who was President and CEO of the New York Federal Reserve Bank in June 2008?
573357204776f41900660850
Timothy Geithner
78
False
What year did Timothy Geithner become U.S. Treasury Secretary?
573357204776f41900660851
2009
102
False
In a June 2008 speech, Timoty Geithner placed blame for credit market freezing on which system?
573357204776f41900660852
"parallel" banking system
248
False
What is the "parallel" banking system also called?
573357204776f41900660853
shadow banking system
291
False
What is the term defined as being vulnerable by borrowing short-term in liquid markets to purchase long-term illiquid and risky assets?
573357204776f41900660854
maturity mismatch
507
False
In a June 2008 speech, President and CEO of the New York Federal Reserve Bank Timothy Geithner—who in 2009 became Secretary of the United States Treasury—placed significant blame for the freezing of credit markets on a "run" on the entities in the "parallel" banking system, also called the shadow banking system. These entities became critical to the credit markets underpinning the financial system, but were not subject to the same regulatory controls. Further, these entities were vulnerable because of maturity mismatch, meaning that they borrowed short-term in liquid markets to purchase long-term, illiquid and risky assets. This meant that disruptions in credit markets would make them subject to rapid deleveraging, selling their long-term assets at depressed prices. He described the significance of these entities:
When did the securitization markets supported by the shadow banking systems start to close down?
5733582fd058e614000b5882
spring of 2007
95
False
When did the securitization markets supported by the shadow banking system nearly shut-down completely?
5733582fd058e614000b5883
fall of 2008
138
False
How much of the private credit markets become unavailable as a source of funds?
5733582fd058e614000b5884
More than a third
152
False
What is the firm who reported that the traditional banking system does not have capital to close the gap as of June 2009?
5733582fd058e614000b5885
Brookings Institution
263
False
How many years would of strong profit would it take to generate enough capital to support additional lending?
5733582fd058e614000b5886
a number of years
393
False
The securitization markets supported by the shadow banking system started to close down in the spring of 2007 and nearly shut-down in the fall of 2008. More than a third of the private credit markets thus became unavailable as a source of funds. According to the Brookings Institution, the traditional banking system does not have the capital to close this gap as of June 2009: "It would take a number of years of strong profits to generate sufficient capital to support that additional lending volume." The authors also indicate that some forms of securitization are "likely to vanish forever, having been an artifact of excessively loose credit conditions."
What economist testified to the Financial Crisis Inquiry Commission in January 2010?
573359544776f41900660870
Mark Zandi
10
False
In January 2010, what markets did Mark Zandi testify about that remain impaired and investors anticipate more loan losses?
573359544776f41900660871
securitization markets
96
False
What was the value of CDOs at their peak in 2006?
573359544776f41900660872
close to $2 trillion
415
False
What was the private issuance of CDOs in 2009?
573359544776f41900660873
less than $150 billion
468
False
Almost all of the asset-backed issuance in 2009 was supported by what Federal Reserve program?
573359544776f41900660874
TALF
574
False
Economist Mark Zandi testified to the Financial Crisis Inquiry Commission in January 2010: "The securitization markets also remain impaired, as investors anticipate more loan losses. Investors are also uncertain about coming legal and accounting rule changes and regulatory reforms. Private bond issuance of residential and commercial mortgage-backed securities, asset-backed securities, and CDOs peaked in 2006 at close to $2 trillion...In 2009, private issuance was less than $150 billion, and almost all of it was asset-backed issuance supported by the Federal Reserve's TALF program to aid credit card, auto and small-business lenders. Issuance of residential and commercial mortgage-backed securities and CDOs remains dormant."
Following the collapse in the housing bubble, what happened to a number of commodity prices?
57335b42d058e614000b58e1
Rapid increases
0
False
How much did the price of oil increase from early 2007 to 2008?
57335b42d058e614000b58e2
nearly tripled from $50 to $147
110
False
What did the price of oil began doing when the financial crisis began to take hold in late 2008?
57335b42d058e614000b58e3
plunging
174
False
What is one of the reasons experts believe contributed to the volatilaty in oil prices in 2008?
57335b42d058e614000b58e4
monetary policy
382
False
Consumers tend to have less money to spend on other goods, when the price of which commodity is higher?
57335b42d058e614000b58e5
gasoline
665
False
Rapid increases in a number of commodity prices followed the collapse in the housing bubble. The price of oil nearly tripled from $50 to $147 from early 2007 to 2008, before plunging as the financial crisis began to take hold in late 2008. Experts debate the causes, with some attributing it to speculative flow of money from housing and other investments into commodities, some to monetary policy, and some to the increasing feeling of raw materials scarcity in a fast-growing world, leading to long positions taken on those markets, such as Chinese increasing presence in Africa. An increase in oil prices tends to divert a larger share of consumer spending into gasoline, which creates downward pressure on economic growth in oil importing countries, as wealth flows to oil-producing states. A pattern of spiking instability in the price of oil over the decade leading up to the price high of 2008 has been recently identified. The destabilizing effects of this price variance has been proposed as a contributory factor in the financial crisis.
Who was the former director of the CFTC that testified before the Senate Committee on Commerce, Science, and Transportation on June 3, 2008?
57335c77d058e614000b5907
Michael Greenberger
187
False
Who did Michael Greenberger erronesously name as a key player in speculative run-up of oil futures?
57335c77d058e614000b5908
IntercontinentalExchange
244
False
Who founded the Atlanta-based Intercontinental Exchange?
57335c77d058e614000b5909
Goldman Sachs, Morgan Stanley and BP
281
False
Who purchased the International Petroleum Exchange in 2001?
57335c77d058e614000b590a
IntercontinentalExchange (ICE)
464
False
Where are regulated future exchanges located?
57335c77d058e614000b590b
London and New York
430
False
In testimony before the Senate Committee on Commerce, Science, and Transportation on June 3, 2008, former director of the CFTC Division of Trading & Markets (responsible for enforcement) Michael Greenberger specifically named the Atlanta-based IntercontinentalExchange, founded by Goldman Sachs, Morgan Stanley and BP as playing a key role in speculative run-up of oil futures prices traded off the regulated futures exchanges in London and New York. However, the IntercontinentalExchange (ICE) had been regulated by both European and U.S. authorities since its purchase of the International Petroleum Exchange in 2001. Mr Greenberger was later corrected on this matter.
Who is one of the feminist economists that believe the financial crisis revealed a crisis of mainstream economics and call for a complete reshaping of the economy?
57335ed14776f419006608d5
Ailsa McKay
20
False
Feminist economists Ailsa McKay and Margunn Bjornhold believe that the financial crisis and response reveal a crisis of ideas in this?
57335ed14776f419006608d6
mainstream economics
139
False
According to feminist economists McKay and Bjornholt, would type economics should be included in a reshaping?
57335ed14776f419006608d7
feminist economics
357
False
What do economists McKay and Bjornholt want to occur in the economy, economic theory, and economics profession?
57335ed14776f419006608d8
a reshaping
210
False
Feminist economists Ailsa McKay and Margunn Bjørnholt argue that the financial crisis and the response to it revealed a crisis of ideas in mainstream economics and within the economics profession, and call for a reshaping of both the economy, economic theory and the economics profession. They argue that such a reshaping should include new advances within feminist economics and ecological economics that take as their starting point the socially responsible, sensible and accountable subject in creating an economy and economic theories that fully acknowledge care for each other as well as the planet.
Who was the current Governor of the Reserve Bank of India that predicted the crisis in 2005?
573360014776f4190066090a
Raghuram Rajan
46
False
When did Raghuram Rajan become chief economist the the International Monetary Fund?
573360014776f4190066090b
2005
89
False
In 2005, where did Rajan deliver a controversial paper that was critical of the financial paper?
573360014776f4190066090c
at a celebration honouring Alan Greenspan
169
False
What was the name of Raghuram Rajan's controversial paper delivered in 2005?
573360014776f4190066090d
"Has Financial Development Made the World Riskier?"
371
False
What are risks called that generate severe adverse consequences with small probability but generous compensation the rest of the time?
573360014776f4190066090e
tail risks
696
False
Current Governor of the Reserve Bank of India Raghuram Rajan had predicted the crisis in 2005 when he became chief economist at the International Monetary Fund.In 2005, at a celebration honouring Alan Greenspan, who was about to retire as chairman of the US Federal Reserve, Rajan delivered a controversial paper that was critical of the financial sector. In that paper, "Has Financial Development Made the World Riskier?", Rajan "argued that disaster might loom." Rajan argued that financial sector managers were encouraged to "take risks that generate severe adverse consequences with small probability but, in return, offer generous compensation the rest of the time. These risks are known as tail risks. But perhaps the most important concern is whether banks will be able to provide liquidity to financial markets so that if the tail risk does materialise, financial positions can be unwound and losses allocated so that the consequences to the real economy are minimised."
Who was one of the only mainstream economist to predict the financial crisis?
5733612b4776f41900660932
Raghuram Rajan
78
False
What did Raghuram Rajan speak of?
5733612b4776f41900660933
Great Moderation
119
False
Who credit 12 heterodox economists with predicting the crisis in his research credits?
5733612b4776f41900660934
Dirk Bezemer
216
False
How did the Austrian economic school regard the crisis?
5733612b4776f41900660935
as a vindication
768
False
Which former Fed Chair confessed in Congressional testimony to being forced to return to lax monetary supply?
5733612b4776f41900660936
Alan Greenspan
1005
False
The financial crisis was not widely predicted by mainstream economists except Raghuram Rajan, who instead spoke of the Great Moderation. A number of heterodox economists predicted the crisis, with varying arguments. Dirk Bezemer in his research credits (with supporting argument and estimates of timing) 12 economists with predicting the crisis: Dean Baker (US), Wynne Godley (UK), Fred Harrison (UK), Michael Hudson (US), Eric Janszen (US), Steve Keen (Australia), Jakob Brøchner Madsen & Jens Kjaer Sørensen (Denmark), Kurt Richebächer (US), Nouriel Roubini (US), Peter Schiff (US), and Robert Shiller (US). Examples of other experts who gave indications of a financial crisis have also been given. Not surprisingly, the Austrian economic school regarded the crisis as a vindication and classic example of a predictable credit-fueled bubble that could not forestall the disregarded but inevitable effect of an artificial, manufactured laxity in monetary supply, a perspective that even former Fed Chair Alan Greenspan in Congressional testimony confessed himself forced to return to.
Which magazine ran a cover story claiming that most economists failed to the the financial crisis?
5733625f4776f41900660962
BusinessWeek
17
False
The financial crisis of 2007 was the worst economic crisis since which crisis that occurred in the 1930s?
5733625f4776f41900660963
Great Depression
137
False
Which school at University of Pennsylvania examined in their online business journal why economists failed to predict the crisis?
5733625f4776f41900660964
The Wharton School
168
False
Which economist did the New York Times state warned of a crisis as early as September 2006?
5733625f4776f41900660965
Nouriel Roubini
572
False
What was economist Roubini called by the New York Times for predicting a collapse of the housing market?
5733625f4776f41900660966
"Dr. Doom"
897
False
A cover story in BusinessWeek magazine claims that economists mostly failed to predict the worst international economic crisis since the Great Depression of the 1930s. The Wharton School of the University of Pennsylvania's online business journal examines why economists failed to predict a major global financial crisis. Popular articles published in the mass media have led the general public to believe that the majority of economists have failed in their obligation to predict the financial crisis. For example, an article in the New York Times informs that economist Nouriel Roubini warned of such crisis as early as September 2006, and the article goes on to state that the profession of economics is bad at predicting recessions. According to The Guardian, Roubini was ridiculed for predicting a collapse of the housing market and worldwide recession, while The New York Times labelled him "Dr. Doom".
Who wrote the 2007 book The Black Swan?
573363724776f41900660995
Nassim Nicholas Taleb
41
False
What journalist from the New York Times stated his believe in Nassim Nicholas Taleb?
573363724776f41900660996
David Brooks
568
False
What did Nassim Nicholas Taleb warn about for years prior to the financial crisis of 2007?
573363724776f41900660997
the breakdown of the banking system
132
False
What did Nassim Nicholas Taleb make a fortune on by making a big financial bet?
573363724776f41900660998
banking stocks
456
False
Stock trader and financial risk engineer Nassim Nicholas Taleb, author of the 2007 book The Black Swan, spent years warning against the breakdown of the banking system in particular and the economy in general owing to their use of bad risk models and reliance on forecasting, and their reliance on bad models, and framed the problem as part of "robustness and fragility". He also took action against the establishment view by making a big financial bet on banking stocks and making a fortune from the crisis ("They didn't listen, so I took their money"). According to David Brooks from the New York Times, "Taleb not only has an explanation for what’s happening, he saw it coming."
Who is the market strategist that believes distinctions exist between the current crisis and the Great Depression?
5733651b4776f419006609bf
Phil Dow
18
False
How much did the Dow Jones average fall during a period of 17 months?
5733651b4776f419006609c0
50%
168
False
What was the percentage the Dow Jones fell in the Great Depression?
5733651b4776f419006609c1
54.7%
215
False
Who was the chief financial correspondent of The New York Times in March 2009?
5733651b4776f419006609c2
Floyd Norris
373
False
Market strategist Phil Dow believes distinctions exist "between the current market malaise" and the Great Depression. He says the Dow Jones average's fall of more than 50% over a period of 17 months is similar to a 54.7% fall in the Great Depression, followed by a total drop of 89% over the following 16 months. "It's very troubling if you have a mirror image," said Dow. Floyd Norris, the chief financial correspondent of The New York Times, wrote in a blog entry in March 2009 that the decline has not been a mirror image of the Great Depression, explaining that although the decline amounts were nearly the same at the time, the rates of decline had started much faster in 2007, and that the past year had only ranked eighth among the worst recorded years of percentage drops in the Dow. The past two years ranked third, however.
Which medium sized British bank was the first victim of the financial crisis?
573365f4d058e614000b5a14
Northern Rock
29
False
Who did Northern Rock request security from?
573365f4d058e614000b5a15
Bank of England
159
False
When did Northern Rock investors panic and a bank run begin?
573365f4d058e614000b5a16
September 2007
233
False
When was Northern Rock taken into public hands?
573365f4d058e614000b5a17
February 2008
364
False
Which bank early problems in 2007 were an indicator of the troubles that would soon befall other banks and financial institutions?
573365f4d058e614000b5a18
Northern Rock
510
False
One of the first victims was Northern Rock, a medium-sized British bank. The highly leveraged nature of its business led the bank to request security from the Bank of England. This in turn led to investor panic and a bank run in mid-September 2007. Calls by Liberal Democrat Treasury Spokesman Vince Cable to nationalise the institution were initially ignored; in February 2008, however, the British government (having failed to find a private sector buyer) relented, and the bank was taken into public hands. Northern Rock's problems proved to be an early indication of the troubles that would soon befall other banks and financial institutions.
Which financial institution was the first one visible to run into trouble in the United States?
5733679bd058e614000b5a4e
IndyMac
105
False
Who was Southern California-based IndyMac a spin-off of?
5733679bd058e614000b5a4f
Countrywide Financial
128
False
Before its failure, which savings and loan association was the seventh largest mortgage originator in the United States?
5733679bd058e614000b5a50
IndyMac Bank
171
False
On what date did IndyMac fail?
5733679bd058e614000b5a51
July 11, 2008
352
False
Who was IndyMac's parent corporation?
5733679bd058e614000b5a52
IndyMac Bancorp
575
False
The first visible institution to run into trouble in the United States was the Southern California–based IndyMac, a spin-off of Countrywide Financial. Before its failure, IndyMac Bank was the largest savings and loan association in the Los Angeles market and the seventh largest mortgage originator in the United States. The failure of IndyMac Bank on July 11, 2008, was the fourth largest bank failure in United States history up until the crisis precipitated even larger failures, and the second largest failure of a regulated thrift. IndyMac Bank's parent corporation was IndyMac Bancorp until the FDIC seized IndyMac Bank. IndyMac Bancorp filed for Chapter 7 bankruptcy in July 2008.
IndyMac often made loans without verifying what?
573368994776f41900660a3f
the borrower’s income
49
False
What was questionable on IndyMac's underlying collateral?
573368994776f41900660a40
Appraisals
127
False
IndyMac gave loans to borrower's with what type credit histories?
573368994776f41900660a41
poor
104
False
IndyMac offered this type of questionable loans to borrowers?
573368994776f41900660a42
risky
345
False
IndyMac resisted efforts by regulators to tighten this criteria of their loans?
573368994776f41900660a43
issuing criteria
759
False
IndyMac often made loans without verification of the borrower’s income or assets, and to borrowers with poor credit histories. Appraisals obtained by IndyMac on underlying collateral were often questionable as well. As an Alt-A lender, IndyMac’s business model was to offer loan products to fit the borrower’s needs, using an extensive array of risky option-adjustable-rate-mortgages (option ARMs), subprime loans, 80/20 loans, and other nontraditional products. Ultimately, loans were made to many borrowers who simply could not afford to make their payments. The thrift remained profitable only as long as it was able to sell those loans in the secondary mortgage market. IndyMac resisted efforts to regulate its involvement in those loans or tighten their issuing criteria: see the comment by Ruthann Melbourne, Chief Risk Officer, to the regulating agencies.
When did Moody's and Standard & Poor downgrade a significant number of IndyMac's MBS bonds?
57336a43d058e614000b5aa7
April 2008
29
False
What was the value of IndyMac's MBS bonds retained in its MBS portfolio that were downgraded in April 2008?
57336a43d058e614000b5aa8
$160 million
168
False
What was one of the agencies that downgraded a significant number of IndyMac's MBS bonds in April 2008?
57336a43d058e614000b5aa9
Moody's
41
False
If IndyMac's downgraded MBS bond ratings had been in effect at March 31, 2008, what would the bank's capital ratio have been?
57336a43d058e614000b5aaa
9.27%
513
False
What is a well capitalized ratio?
57336a43d058e614000b5aab
minimum 10% risk-based
643
False
IndyMac reported that during April 2008, Moody's and Standard & Poor's downgraded the ratings on a significant number of Mortgage-backed security (MBS) bonds including $160 million of those issued by IndyMac and which the bank retained in its MBS portfolio. IndyMac concluded that these downgrades would have negatively impacted the Company's risk-based capital ratio as of June 30, 2008. Had these lowered ratings been in effect at March 31, 2008, IndyMac concluded that the bank's capital ratio would have been 9.27% total risk-based. IndyMac warned that if its regulators found its capital position to have fallen below "well capitalized" (minimum 10% risk-based capital ratio) to "adequately capitalized" (8–10% risk-based capital ratio) the bank might no longer be able to use brokered deposits as a source of funds.
Who is the Senator that asked FDIC if it had considered ordering IndyMac to reduce its reliance on brokered deposits?
57336bbb4776f41900660a89
Charles Schumer (D-NY)
8
False
What does the abbreviation FDIC stand for?
57336bbb4776f41900660a8a
Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation
145
False
How much of IndyMac's total deposits of $18.9 billion on March 31, 2008 were considered brokered deposits?
57336bbb4776f41900660a8b
a little over $7 billion
379
False
Had the FDIC disallowed IndyMac from acquiring new brokered deposits on this date, the threat of brokered deposit losses would have been $500 million a month?
57336bbb4776f41900660a8c
June 30
683
False
How much was the threat of brokered deposit losses per month to IndyMac?
57336bbb4776f41900660a8d
$500 million
584
False
Senator Charles Schumer (D-NY) would later point out that brokered deposits made up more than 37 percent of IndyMac's total deposits and ask the Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation (FDIC) whether it had considered ordering IndyMac to reduce its reliance on these deposits. With $18.9 billion in total deposits reported on March 31, Senator Schumer would have been referring to a little over $7 billion in brokered deposits. While the breakout of maturities of these deposits is not known exactly, a simple averaging would have put the threat of brokered deposits loss to IndyMac at $500 million a month, had the regulator disallowed IndyMac from acquiring new brokered deposits on June 30.
What was the value of loans IndyMac was forced to hold when the secondary mortgage market collapsed in late 2007?
57336d734776f41900660aa6
$10.7 billion
125
False
How much in deposits did account holders withdraw from IndyMac in late June 2008?
57336d734776f41900660aa7
$1.55 billion
285
False
What percent of IndyMac's deposits were withdrawn by account holders in late June 2008?
57336d734776f41900660aa8
7.5%
308
False
Who is the Senator that released a letter to the FDIC and OTS that prompted a "run" on IndyMac?
57336d734776f41900660aa9
Charles Schumer
414
False
What was the underlying cause of the failure on IndyMac?
57336d734776f41900660aaa
unsafe and unsound manner in which the thrift was operated
627
False
When home prices declined in the latter half of 2007 and the secondary mortgage market collapsed, IndyMac was forced to hold $10.7 billion of loans it could not sell in the secondary market. Its reduced liquidity was further exacerbated in late June 2008 when account holders withdrew $1.55 billion or about 7.5% of IndyMac's deposits. This “run” on the thrift followed the public release of a letter from Senator Charles Schumer to the FDIC and OTS. The letter outlined the Senator’s concerns with IndyMac. While the run was a contributing factor in the timing of IndyMac’s demise, the underlying cause of the failure was the unsafe and unsound manner in which the thrift was operated.
On what date did the FDIC put IndyMac Bank into conservatorship?
57336e80d058e614000b5af1
July 11, 2008
3
False
What was the name of the bridge bank established to assume control of IndyMac Bank's assets, liabilities and deposit accounts?
57336e80d058e614000b5af2
IndyMac Federal Bank, FSB
108
False
On what date did the FDIC plan to open IndyMac Federal Bank, FSB?
57336e80d058e614000b5af3
July 14, 2008
316
False
What is the maximum amount of funds the FDIC guarantees in insured accounts?
57336e80d058e614000b5af4
US$100,000
599
False
How many IndyMac account holders held funds in excess of the FDIC's insured amount of US$100,000?
57336e80d058e614000b5af5
roughly 10,000 depositors
662
False
On July 11, 2008, citing liquidity concerns, the FDIC put IndyMac Bank into conservatorship. A bridge bank, IndyMac Federal Bank, FSB, was established to assume control of IndyMac Bank's assets, its secured liabilities, and its insured deposit accounts. The FDIC announced plans to open IndyMac Federal Bank, FSB on July 14, 2008. Until then, depositors would have access their insured deposits through ATMs, their existing checks, and their existing debit cards. Telephone and Internet account access was restored when the bank reopened. The FDIC guarantees the funds of all insured accounts up to US$100,000, and has declared a special advance dividend to the roughly 10,000 depositors with funds in excess of the insured amount, guaranteeing 50% of any amounts in excess of $100,000. Yet, even with the pending sale of Indymac to IMB Management Holdings, an estimated 10,000 uninsured depositors of Indymac are still at a loss of over $270 million.
How many mortgage lenders went bankrupt during 2007 and 2008?
57336f6e4776f41900660acd
Over 100
222
False
Who is the investment bank that was feared to collapse in March 2008 and was sold in a fire-sale to JP Morgan Chase?
57336f6e4776f41900660ace
Bear Stearns
314
False
When did the financial institution crisis hit its peak?
57336f6e4776f41900660acf
September and October 2008
451
False
When did Lehman's former CEO appear before Representative Henry A. Waxman?
57336f6e4776f41900660ad0
Oct. 6, 2008
713
False
What firm filed the largest bankruptcy in U.S. history?
57336f6e4776f41900660ad1
Lehman Brothers
745
False
Initially the companies affected were those directly involved in home construction and mortgage lending such as Northern Rock and Countrywide Financial, as they could no longer obtain financing through the credit markets. Over 100 mortgage lenders went bankrupt during 2007 and 2008. Concerns that investment bank Bear Stearns would collapse in March 2008 resulted in its fire-sale to JP Morgan Chase. The financial institution crisis hit its peak in September and October 2008. Several major institutions either failed, were acquired under duress, or were subject to government takeover. These included Lehman Brothers, Merrill Lynch, Fannie Mae, Freddie Mac, Washington Mutual, Wachovia, Citigroup, and AIG. On Oct. 6, 2008, three weeks after Lehman Brothers filed the largest bankruptcy in U.S. history, Lehman's former CEO found himself before Representative Henry A. Waxman, the California Democrat who chaired the House Committee on Oversight and Government Reform. Fuld said he was a victim of the collapse, blaming a "crisis of confidence" in the markets for dooming his firm.
When did the financial crisis hit its most critical stage?
5733703c4776f41900660ad7
September 2008
3
False
The equivalent of a bank run on which funds occurred in September 2008?
5733703c4776f41900660ad8
money market funds
105
False
What do money market funds frequently invest in?
5733703c4776f41900660ad9
commercial paper issued by corporations
152
False
How much was withdrawn from money markets during one week in September 2008?
5733703c4776f41900660ada
$144.5 billion
266
False
What was the record high for the TED spread on October 10, 2008?
5733703c4776f41900660adb
4.65%
822
False
In September 2008, the crisis hit its most critical stage. There was the equivalent of a bank run on the money market funds, which frequently invest in commercial paper issued by corporations to fund their operations and payrolls. Withdrawal from money markets were $144.5 billion during one week, versus $7.1 billion the week prior. This interrupted the ability of corporations to rollover (replace) their short-term debt. The U.S. government responded by extending insurance for money market accounts analogous to bank deposit insurance via a temporary guarantee and with Federal Reserve programs to purchase commercial paper. The TED spread, an indicator of perceived credit risk in the general economy, spiked up in July 2007, remained volatile for a year, then spiked even higher in September 2008, reaching a record 4.65% on October 10, 2008.
Economist Paul Krugman explained the credit crisis via the implosion of which system?
57337227d058e614000b5b19
shadow banking system
119
False
What is the system with nearly equal the importance of traditional commercial banking?
57337227d058e614000b5b1a
shadow banking system
119
False
The shadow banking system could not provide funds to mortgage firms and other corporations without the ability to obtain which funds?
57337227d058e614000b5b1b
investor funds
284
False
What was Timothy Geithner's position during the fall of 2008?
57337227d058e614000b5b1c
U.S. Treasury Secretary
27
False
Economist Paul Krugman and U.S. Treasury Secretary Timothy Geithner explain the credit crisis via the implosion of the shadow banking system, which had grown to nearly equal the importance of the traditional commercial banking sector as described above. Without the ability to obtain investor funds in exchange for most types of mortgage-backed securities or asset-backed commercial paper, investment banks and other entities in the shadow banking system could not provide funds to mortgage firms and other corporations.
How much of the U.S. lending mechanism was frozen until June 2009?
57337343d058e614000b5b30
nearly one-third
16
False
What is the primary cause of the reduction in funds available for borrowing?
57337343d058e614000b5b31
the collapse of the shadow banking system
599
False
What institution reported that the traditional banking systems does not have the capital to close the gap in the lending mechanism?
57337343d058e614000b5b32
Brookings Institution
134
False
What is likely to vanish forever, as a result of excessively loose credit conditions?
57337343d058e614000b5b33
some forms of securitization
406
False
As of June 2009, the Brookings Institution reports that traditional banking system does not have enough of what to close the lending gap?
57337343d058e614000b5b34
capital
206
False
This meant that nearly one-third of the U.S. lending mechanism was frozen and continued to be frozen into June 2009. According to the Brookings Institution, the traditional banking system does not have the capital to close this gap as of June 2009: "It would take a number of years of strong profits to generate sufficient capital to support that additional lending volume". The authors also indicate that some forms of securitization are "likely to vanish forever, having been an artifact of excessively loose credit conditions". While traditional banks have raised their lending standards, it was the collapse of the shadow banking system that is the primary cause of the reduction in funds available for borrowing.
How much net worth did Americans lose between June 2007 and November 2008?
573374204776f41900660b02
more than a quarter
256
False
In November 2008, how much was the U.S. stock index down from its 2007 high?
573374204776f41900660b03
45%
395
False
In November 2008, how much had housing prices drop from their 2006 peak?
573374204776f41900660b04
20%
446
False
How much was home equity valued in the United States at its peak in 2006?
573374204776f41900660b05
$13 trillion
588
False
How much was home equity valued in the United States in mid-2008?
573374204776f41900660b06
$8.8 trillion
637
False
There is a direct relationship between declines in wealth and declines in consumption and business investment, which along with government spending, represent the economic engine. Between June 2007 and November 2008, Americans lost an estimated average of more than a quarter of their collective net worth.[citation needed] By early November 2008, a broad U.S. stock index the S&P 500, was down 45% from its 2007 high. Housing prices had dropped 20% from their 2006 peak, with futures markets signaling a 30–35% potential drop. Total home equity in the United States, which was valued at $13 trillion at its peak in 2006, had dropped to $8.8 trillion by mid-2008 and was still falling in late 2008. Total retirement assets, Americans' second-largest household asset, dropped by 22%, from $10.3 trillion in 2006 to $8 trillion in mid-2008. During the same period, savings and investment assets (apart from retirement savings) lost $1.2 trillion and pension assets lost $1.3 trillion. Taken together, these losses total a staggering $8.3 trillion. Since peaking in the second quarter of 2007, household wealth is down $14 trillion.
According to economist Dean Baker, a homeowner who has no equity if this type default risk?
57337520d058e614000b5b4c
serious
584
False
What is one of the major problems with the economy in November 2008?
57337520d058e614000b5b4d
loss of close to $6 trillion in housing wealth
985
False
How many homeowners who had substantial equity in their homes two years ago, have little no equity as of November 2008?
57337520d058e614000b5b4e
Tens of millions
100
False
What does the creditworthiness of businesses depend on?
57337520d058e614000b5b4f
future profits
673
False
How did profit prospects for businesses look in November 2008 compared to November 2007?
57337520d058e614000b5b50
much worse
711
False
In November 2008, economist Dean Baker observed: "There is a really good reason for tighter credit. Tens of millions of homeowners who had substantial equity in their homes two years ago have little or nothing today. Businesses are facing the worst downturn since the Great Depression. This matters for credit decisions. A homeowner with equity in her home is very unlikely to default on a car loan or credit card debt. They will draw on this equity rather than lose their car and/or have a default placed on their credit record. On the other hand, a homeowner who has no equity is a serious default risk. In the case of businesses, their creditworthiness depends on their future profits. Profit prospects look much worse in November 2008 than they did in November 2007... While many banks are obviously at the brink, consumers and businesses would be facing a much harder time getting credit right now even if the financial system were rock solid. The problem with the economy is the loss of close to $6 trillion in housing wealth and an even larger amount of stock wealth.
In 2008, what type collapse was feared?
573376974776f41900660b3e
global economic collapse
185
False
What investment bank stated on October 6 that 2008 would see a global recession lasting for at least two years?
573376974776f41900660b3f
UBS
453
False
On October 16, 2008, how long did UBS predict the United States' recession would last?
573376974776f41900660b40
three quarters
1288
False
Relative to the size of its economy, what country's banking collapse was the largest experienced by any country in economic history?
573376974776f41900660b41
Iceland
1472
False
What was one of the actions taken by government to fix the financial crisis?
573376974776f41900660b42
capital injection
742
False
Several commentators have suggested that if the liquidity crisis continues, an extended recession or worse could occur. The continuing development of the crisis has prompted fears of a global economic collapse although there are now many cautiously optimistic forecasters in addition to some prominent sources who remain negative. The financial crisis is likely to yield the biggest banking shakeout since the savings-and-loan meltdown. Investment bank UBS stated on October 6 that 2008 would see a clear global recession, with recovery unlikely for at least two years. Three days later UBS economists announced that the "beginning of the end" of the crisis had begun, with the world starting to make the necessary actions to fix the crisis: capital injection by governments; injection made systemically; interest rate cuts to help borrowers. The United Kingdom had started systemic injection, and the world's central banks were now cutting interest rates. UBS emphasized the United States needed to implement systemic injection. UBS further emphasized that this fixes only the financial crisis, but that in economic terms "the worst is still to come". UBS quantified their expected recession durations on October 16: the Eurozone's would last two quarters, the United States' would last three quarters, and the United Kingdom's would last four quarters. The economic crisis in Iceland involved all three of the country's major banks. Relative to the size of its economy, Iceland’s banking collapse is the largest suffered by any country in economic history.
According to The Brookings Institution report in June 2009, how much growth did U.S. consumption account for between 2000 and 2007?
573377904776f41900660b4d
more than a third
84
False
For the first quarter of 2009, what was the annualized rate of decline in GDP in Germany?
573377904776f41900660b4e
14.4%
525
False
For the first quarter of 2009, what was the annualized rate of decline in GDP in Mexico?
573377904776f41900660b4f
21.5%
616
False
Who depended on the U.S. consumer as a source of global demand?
573377904776f41900660b50
the rest of the world
241
False
What is one reason for the decline in growth around the world in 2009?
573377904776f41900660b51
recession in the U.S.
331
False
The Brookings Institution reported in June 2009 that U.S. consumption accounted for more than a third of the growth in global consumption between 2000 and 2007. "The US economy has been spending too much and borrowing too much for years and the rest of the world depended on the U.S. consumer as a source of global demand." With a recession in the U.S. and the increased savings rate of U.S. consumers, declines in growth elsewhere have been dramatic. For the first quarter of 2009, the annualized rate of decline in GDP was 14.4% in Germany, 15.2% in Japan, 7.4% in the UK, 18% in Latvia, 9.8% in the Euro area and 21.5% for Mexico.
What is the growth forecast for Cambodia in 2009?
573378a84776f41900660b57
close to zero
174
False
How much were remittances sent from migrant workers in 2007?
573378a84776f41900660b58
$251 billion
485
False
How many people live below the poverty line in Bangladesh?
573378a84776f41900660b59
300,000
673
False
What does Bruno Wenn of the German DEG recommend to attract new investors?
573378a84776f41900660b5a
sound economic policymaking and good governance
911
False
According to Overseas Development Institute, what is one reason for the reduction in growth in developing countries?
573378a84776f41900660b5b
falls in trade
374
False
Some developing countries that had seen strong economic growth saw significant slowdowns. For example, growth forecasts in Cambodia show a fall from more than 10% in 2007 to close to zero in 2009, and Kenya may achieve only 3–4% growth in 2009, down from 7% in 2007. According to the research by the Overseas Development Institute, reductions in growth can be attributed to falls in trade, commodity prices, investment and remittances sent from migrant workers (which reached a record $251 billion in 2007, but have fallen in many countries since). This has stark implications and has led to a dramatic rise in the number of households living below the poverty line, be it 300,000 in Bangladesh or 230,000 in Ghana. Especially states with a fragile political system have to fear that investors from Western states withdraw their money because of the crisis. Bruno Wenn of the German DEG recommends to provide a sound economic policymaking and good governance to attract new investors
What area of the world was less severely affected by the credit crunch according to The World Bank report In February 2009?
5733797b4776f41900660b6b
Arab World
50
False
What does the abbreviation FDI stand for?
5733797b4776f41900660b6c
Foreign Direct Investment
291
False
Arab countries entered the financial crisis in exceptionally strong positions giving them a cushion against this?
5733797b4776f41900660b6d
global downturn
596
False
What will have the greatest impact on the global economic crisis?
5733797b4776f41900660b6e
lower oil prices
688
False
What is the single most important determinant of economic performance?
5733797b4776f41900660b6f
oil prices
802
False
The World Bank reported in February 2009 that the Arab World was far less severely affected by the credit crunch. With generally good balance of payments positions coming into the crisis or with alternative sources of financing for their large current account deficits, such as remittances, Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) or foreign aid, Arab countries were able to avoid going to the market in the latter part of 2008. This group is in the best position to absorb the economic shocks. They entered the crisis in exceptionally strong positions. This gives them a significant cushion against the global downturn. The greatest impact of the global economic crisis will come in the form of lower oil prices, which remains the single most important determinant of economic performance. Steadily declining oil prices would force them to draw down reserves and cut down on investments. Significantly lower oil prices could cause a reversal of economic performance as has been the case in past oil shocks. Initial impact will be seen on public finances and employment for foreign workers.
What was the annual rate of decrease for the output of goods and services produced by labor and property in 4Q 2008 and 1Q 2009?
57337ebd4776f41900660bda
6%
138
False
What was the U.S. unemployment rate in October 2009?
57337ebd4776f41900660bdb
10.1%
279
False
The U.E. employment rate was 10.2% in October 2009, which was the highest rate since what year?
57337ebd4776f41900660bdc
1983
325
False
What was the average hours per work week in October 2009?
57337ebd4776f41900660bdd
33
413
False
The decline of gross domestic product also caused a decline in innovation, evidenced by the flat-lining of what?
57337ebd4776f41900660bde
patent applications
633
False
The output of goods and services produced by labor and property located in the United States—decreased at an annual rate of approximately 6% in the fourth quarter of 2008 and first quarter of 2009, versus activity in the year-ago periods. The U.S. unemployment rate increased to 10.1% by October 2009, the highest rate since 1983 and roughly twice the pre-crisis rate. The average hours per work week declined to 33, the lowest level since the government began collecting the data in 1964. With the decline of gross domestic product came the decline in innovation. With fewer resources to risk in creative destruction, the number of patent applications flat-lined. Compared to the previous 5 years of exponential increases in patent application, this stagnation correlates to the similar drop in GDP during the same time period.
How many of the poorest families did not have any wealth decline during the financial crisis?
57337fd34776f41900660bf9
half
151
False
In a Federal Reserve survey of 4,000 households, what percent reported wealth decline between 2007 and 2009?
57337fd34776f41900660bfa
63
339
False
How many of the richest families had a decrease in total wealth between 2007 and 2009?
57337fd34776f41900660bfb
77
392
False
How many families at the bottom of the pyramid had a decrease in total wealth between 2007 and 2009?
57337fd34776f41900660bfc
50
470
False
Which families experienced the least decline in wealth between 2007 and 2009?
57337fd34776f41900660bfd
poorest families
163
False
Typical American families did not fare as well, nor did those "wealthy-but-not wealthiest" families just beneath the pyramid's top. On the other hand, half of the poorest families did not have wealth declines at all during the crisis. The Federal Reserve surveyed 4,000 households between 2007 and 2009, and found that the total wealth of 63 percent of all Americans declined in that period. 77 percent of the richest families had a decrease in total wealth, while only 50 percent of those on the bottom of the pyramid suffered a decrease.
On November 3, 2008, who predicted extremely weak GDP growth for the Eurozone in 2009?
573381524776f41900660c15
European Commission at Brussels
25
False
How much did the European Commission estimate the GDP growth for Eurozone countries would be in 2009?
573381524776f41900660c16
0.1%
112
False
How much did the European Commission estimate the GDP growth for the UK would be in 2009?
573381524776f41900660c17
−1.0%
228
False
On November 6, in Washington, D.C., who predicted a worldwide recession for 2009?
573381524776f41900660c18
the IMF
270
False
On November 5, 2008, the Bank of England reduced their interest rate from 4.5% to what?
573381524776f41900660c19
3%
536
False
On November 3, 2008, the European Commission at Brussels predicted for 2009 an extremely weak growth of GDP, by 0.1%, for the countries of the Eurozone (France, Germany, Italy, Belgium etc.) and even negative number for the UK (−1.0%), Ireland and Spain. On November 6, the IMF at Washington, D.C., launched numbers predicting a worldwide recession by −0.3% for 2009, averaged over the developed economies. On the same day, the Bank of England and the European Central Bank, respectively, reduced their interest rates from 4.5% down to 3%, and from 3.75% down to 3.25%. As a consequence, starting from November 2008, several countries launched large "help packages" for their economies.
What have central banks around the world done to avoid the risk of a deflationary spiral?
5733823bd058e614000b5c03
expand money supplies
80
False
What have governments done to offset the reduction in private sector demand?
5733823bd058e614000b5c04
enacted large fiscal stimulus packages
279
False
What is the U.S. Federal Reserve's traditional role during a crisis?
5733823bd058e614000b5c05
lender-of-last-resort
549
False
What did the U.S. Federal Reserve do to increase access to liquidity?
5733823bd058e614000b5c06
expanded liquidity facilities
451
False
What type decline does lower wages and higher unemployment lead to?
5733823bd058e614000b5c07
self-reinforcing decline
201
False
The U.S. Federal Reserve and central banks around the world have taken steps to expand money supplies to avoid the risk of a deflationary spiral, in which lower wages and higher unemployment lead to a self-reinforcing decline in global consumption. In addition, governments have enacted large fiscal stimulus packages, by borrowing and spending to offset the reduction in private sector demand caused by the crisis. The U.S. Federal Reserve's new and expanded liquidity facilities were intended to enable the central bank to fulfill its traditional lender-of-last-resort role during the crisis while mitigating stigma, broadening the set of institutions with access to liquidity, and increasing the flexibility with which institutions could tap such liquidity.
What brought the global financial system to the brink of collapse?
5733835e4776f41900660c4b
credit freeze
5
False
How much government debt and troubled private assets did central banks purchase during the last quarter of 2008?
5733835e4776f41900660c4c
US$2.5 trillion
280
False
How much preferred stock did governments of European nations and the USA purchase in their major banks?
5733835e4776f41900660c4d
$1.5 trillion
719
False
In October 2010, who was the Nobel laureate that explained how the U.S. Federal Reserve was creating currency to combat the liquidity trap?
5733835e4776f41900660c4e
Joseph Stiglitz
816
False
What did the banks chose to do with the money created by the Federal Reserve instead of financing more domestic loans and refinancing mortgages?
5733835e4776f41900660c4f
investing internationally in emerging markets
1235
False
This credit freeze brought the global financial system to the brink of collapse. The response of the Federal Reserve, the European Central Bank, the Bank of England and other central banks was immediate and dramatic. During the last quarter of 2008, these central banks purchased US$2.5 trillion of government debt and troubled private assets from banks. This was the largest liquidity injection into the credit market, and the largest monetary policy action, in world history. Following a model initiated by the United Kingdom bank rescue package, the governments of European nations and the USA guaranteed the debt issued by their banks and raised the capital of their national banking systems, ultimately purchasing $1.5 trillion newly issued preferred stock in their major banks. In October 2010, Nobel laureate Joseph Stiglitz explained how the U.S. Federal Reserve was implementing another monetary policy —creating currency— as a method to combat the liquidity trap. By creating $600 billion and inserting[clarification needed] this directly into banks, the Federal Reserve intended to spur banks to finance more domestic loans and refinance mortgages. However, banks instead were spending the money in more profitable areas by investing internationally in emerging markets. Banks were also investing in foreign currencies, which Stiglitz and others point out may lead to currency wars while China redirects its currency holdings away from the United States.
What was introduced by President Barack Obama in June 2009?
57338497d058e614000b5c4c
a series of regulatory proposals
65
False
What was one of the items important to consumers that was addressed by the new regulatory proposals introduced in June 2009?
57338497d058e614000b5c4d
consumer protection
134
False
Regulations were proposed by Obama in January 2010 to limit the ability of banks to engage in which type trading?
57338497d058e614000b5c4e
proprietary
501
False
Who were proposed new regulations called "The Volcker Rule" named after?
57338497d058e614000b5c4f
Paul Volcker
586
False
Who publicly argued for changes limiting the ability of banks to engage in proprietary trading?
57338497d058e614000b5c50
Paul Volcker
586
False
United States President Barack Obama and key advisers introduced a series of regulatory proposals in June 2009. The proposals address consumer protection, executive pay, bank financial cushions or capital requirements, expanded regulation of the shadow banking system and derivatives, and enhanced authority for the Federal Reserve to safely wind-down systemically important institutions, among others. In January 2010, Obama proposed additional regulations limiting the ability of banks to engage in proprietary trading. The proposals were dubbed "The Volcker Rule", in recognition of Paul Volcker, who has publicly argued for the proposed changes.
When did the U.S. Senate first pass a financial reform bill?
5733857b4776f41900660c89
May 2010
40
False
When did the U.S. House first pass a financial reform bill?
5733857b4776f41900660c8a
December 2009
93
False
What rule against proprietary trading was not part of legislation passed by either the Senate or House?
5733857b4776f41900660c8b
Volcker Rule
333
False
Which bill gave regulators the discretion to prohibit proprietary trades?
5733857b4776f41900660c8c
Senate
420
False
The U.S. Senate passed a reform bill in May 2010, following the House which passed a bill in December 2009. These bills must now be reconciled. The New York Times provided a comparative summary of the features of the two bills, which address to varying extent the principles enumerated by the Obama administration. For instance, the Volcker Rule against proprietary trading is not part of the legislation, though in the Senate bill regulators have the discretion but not the obligation to prohibit these trades.
What did European regulators introduce to increase the oversight of banks?
573386814776f41900660ca0
Basel III regulations
31
False
Critics argue that Basel III doesn't address which problem?
573386814776f41900660ca1
faulty risk-weightings
292
False
Who argued that regulations led to excessive lending to risky governments?
573386814776f41900660ca2
Johan Norberg
643
False
What was increased by Basel III regulations?
573386814776f41900660ca3
capital ratios
77
False
What term describes creating risk-free assets out of high risk collateral?
573386814776f41900660ca4
financial engineering
370
False
European regulators introduced Basel III regulations for banks. It increased capital ratios, limits on leverage, narrow definition of capital (to exclude subordinated debt), limit counter-party risk, and new liquidity requirements. Critics argue that Basel III doesn’t address the problem of faulty risk-weightings. Major banks suffered losses from AAA-rated created by financial engineering (which creates apparently risk-free assets out of high risk collateral) that required less capital according to Basel II. Lending to AA-rated sovereigns has a risk-weight of zero, thus increasing lending to governments and leading to the next crisis. Johan Norberg argues that regulations (Basel III among others) have indeed led to excessive lending to risky governments (see European sovereign-debt crisis) and the ECB pursues even more lending as the solution.
When did the U.S. recession that began in December 2007 end?
573387494776f41900660caf
June 2009
56
False
When did the financial crisis appear to have ended?
573387494776f41900660cb0
June 2009
56
False
What was the name of the article that appeared in TIME magazine in April 2009 declaring the crisis over?
573387494776f41900660cb1
More Quickly Than It Began, The Banking Crisis Is Over."
239
False
On what date did President Barack Obama declare that the markets are stabilized?
573387494776f41900660cb2
January 27, 2010
411
False
When does the United States Financial Crisis Inquiry Commission date the crisis to?
573387494776f41900660cb3
2008
370
False
The U.S. recession that began in December 2007 ended in June 2009, according to the U.S. National Bureau of Economic Research (NBER) and the financial crisis appears to have ended about the same time. In April 2009 TIME magazine declared "More Quickly Than It Began, The Banking Crisis Is Over." The United States Financial Crisis Inquiry Commission dates the crisis to 2008. President Barack Obama declared on January 27, 2010, "the markets are now stabilized, and we've recovered most of the money we spent on the banks."
Who led global economic growth after the financial crisis?
573388854776f41900660cb9
"emerging" and "developing" economies
81
False
How much global GDP did emerging and developing economies account for from 2007 to 2014?
573388854776f41900660cba
69%
342
False
How much global GDP did "advanced" economies account for from 2007 to 2014?
573388854776f41900660cbb
31%
270
False
What economies led global economic growth prior to the financial crisis?
573388854776f41900660cbc
Advanced economies
0
False
What relationship between advanced and emerging/developing was completely overturned by the financial crisis of 2007?
573388854776f41900660cbd
global economic growth
23
False
Advanced economies led global economic growth prior to the financial crisis with "emerging" and "developing" economies lagging behind. The crisis completely overturned this relationship. The International Monetary Fund found that "advanced" economies accounted for only 31% of global GDP while emerging and developing economies accounted for 69% of global GDP from 2007 to 2014. In the tables, the names of emergent economies are shown in boldface type, while the names of developed economies are in Roman (regular) type.
Portugal
What ocean does Portugal border?
57326292e17f3d140042292b
Atlantic Ocean
242
False
What other country does Portugal border?
57326292e17f3d140042292c
Spain
286
False
What is the longest uninterrupted border within the European Union?
57326292e17f3d140042292d
Portugal–Spain
319
False
Where is Portugal located?
573323754776f419006606ff
Iberian Peninsula, in Southwestern Europe
127
False
How long is the Portugal-Spain border?
573323754776f41900660701
1,214 km (754 mi)
344
False
What two autonomous regions have their own governments in Portugal?
573323754776f41900660702
Azores and Madeira
502
False
Portugal (Portuguese: [puɾtuˈɣaɫ]), officially the Portuguese Republic (Portuguese: República Portuguesa), is a country on the Iberian Peninsula, in Southwestern Europe. It is the westernmost country of mainland Europe, being bordered by the Atlantic Ocean to the west and south and by Spain to the north and east. The Portugal–Spain border is 1,214 km (754 mi) long and considered the longest uninterrupted border within the European Union. The republic also includes the Atlantic archipelagos of the Azores and Madeira, both autonomous regions with their own regional governments.
Who were the first inhabitants of Portugal?
573324834776f41900660708
The Celts and the Romans
119
False
Which two groups followed the first inhabitants?
573324834776f41900660709
Visigothic and the Suebi Germanic peoples
165
False
By what year had Portugal established itself as an independent kingdom?
573324834776f4190066070a
1139
356
False
What age did Portugal pioneer?
573324834776f4190066070b
Age of Discovery
494
False
In which centuries did Portugal establish the first global empire?
573324834776f4190066070c
15th and 16th centuries
437
False
The land within the borders of current Portugal has been continuously settled and fought over since prehistoric times. The Celts and the Romans were followed by the Visigothic and the Suebi Germanic peoples, who were themselves later invaded by the Moors. These Muslim peoples were eventually expelled during the Christian Reconquista of the peninsula. By 1139, Portugal had established itself as a kingdom independent from León. In the 15th and 16th centuries, as the result of pioneering the Age of Discovery, Portugal expanded Western influence and established the first global empire, becoming one of the world's major economic, political and military powers.
In Portugal, which city was destroyed in the 1755 earthquake?
573325c6d058e614000b573a
Lisbon
68
False
In which year did Brazel become independent?
573325c6d058e614000b573b
1822
194
False
In which year was the Portugal monarchy deposed?
573325c6d058e614000b573c
1910
210
False
Which Portugese colony was lost to China in 1999?
573325c6d058e614000b573d
Macau
574
False
How many Portugese speakers are there today?
573325c6d058e614000b573e
250 million
782
False
Portugal lost much of its wealth and status with the destruction of Lisbon in a 1755 earthquake, occupation during the Napoleonic Wars, and the independence of Brazil, its wealthiest colony, in 1822. After the 1910 revolution deposed the monarchy, the democratic but unstable Portuguese First Republic was established, later being superseded by the "Estado Novo" right-wing authoritarian regime. Democracy was restored after the Portuguese Colonial War and the Carnation Revolution in 1974. Shortly after, independence was granted to all its colonies, with the exception of Macau, which was handed over to China in 1999. This marked the end of the longest-lived European colonial empire, leaving a profound cultural and architectural influence across the globe and a legacy of over 250 million Portuguese speakers today.
What form of government does Portugal maintain?
57333879d058e614000b578a
unitary semi-presidential republican
21
False
What is Portugal's Social Progress ranking?
57333879d058e614000b578b
18th highest
169
False
Which three Western European countries have a lower Social Progress ranking than Portugal?
57333879d058e614000b578c
France, Spain and Italy
270
False
What are three international organizations that Portugal belongs to?
57333879d058e614000b578d
United Nations, the European Union, the Eurozone, OECD, NATO and the Community of Portuguese Language Countries
365
False
In 2001, Portugal was the first country in the world to do what?
57333879d058e614000b578e
decriminalized the usage of all common drugs
512
False
Portugal maintains a unitary semi-presidential republican form of government and is a developed country with an advanced economy, and a high living standard, having the 18th highest Social Progress in the world, putting it ahead of other Western European countries like France, Spain and Italy. It is a member of numerous international organizations, including the United Nations, the European Union, the Eurozone, OECD, NATO and the Community of Portuguese Language Countries. Portugal is also known for having decriminalized the usage of all common drugs in 2001, the first country in the world to do so. However, drugs are still illegal in Portugal.
From what name is Portugal derived?
57333d75d058e614000b57a4
Portus Cale
176
False
By what group was the Portugal region settled?
57333d75d058e614000b57a5
Pre-Celts and Celts
215
False
To what four peoples did the settlement of Portugal give rise?
57333d75d058e614000b57a6
Gallaeci, Lusitanians, Celtici and Cynetes
270
False
During what years was the Portugal region incorporated in the Roman Republic?
57333d75d058e614000b57a7
45 BC until 298 AD
443
False
From what old Germanic word is Alenquer originate?
57333d75d058e614000b57a8
Alankerk
646
False
The early history of Portugal is shared with the rest of the Iberian Peninsula located in South Western Europe. The name of Portugal derives from the joined Romano-Celtic name Portus Cale. The region was settled by Pre-Celts and Celts, giving origin to peoples like the Gallaeci, Lusitanians, Celtici and Cynetes, visited by Phoenicians and Carthaginians, incorporated in the Roman Republic dominions as Lusitania and part of Gallaecia, after 45 BC until 298 AD, settled again by Suebi, Buri, and Visigoths, and conquered by Moors. Other influences include some 5th-century vestiges of Alan settlement, which were found in Alenquer (old Germanic Alankerk, from Alan+kerk; meaning church of the Alan (people), Coimbra and Lisbon.
In what year did Lusitania become a Roman province?
57333e3fd058e614000b57b4
27 BC
3
False
What was the Northern province of Lusitania known as?
57333e3fd058e614000b57b5
Gallaecia
118
False
What are castros?
57333e3fd058e614000b57b6
hill forts
216
False
What are two large Roman sites that still exist today in Portugal?
57333e3fd058e614000b57b7
Conímbriga and Mirobriga
389
False
How far apart are Conimbriga and Coimbra?
57333e3fd058e614000b57b8
16 km
549
False
In 27 BC, Lusitania gained the status of Roman province. Later, a northern province of Lusitania was formed, known as Gallaecia, with capital in Bracara Augusta, today's Braga. There are still many ruins of castros (hill forts) all over modern Portugal and remains of Castro culture. Numerous Roman sites are scattered around present-day Portugal, some urban remains are quite large, like Conímbriga and Mirobriga. The former, beyond being one of the largest Roman settlements in Portugal, is also classified as a National Monument. Conímbriga lies 16 km from Coimbra which by its turn was the ancient Aeminium). The site also has a museum that displays objects found by archaeologists during their excavations.
How long did it take the Umayyad Caliphate to defeat the Visigoths?
57333f25d058e614000b57be
a few months
38
False
In what year did Portugal become a part of Umayyad Caliphate's empire?
57333f25d058e614000b57bf
711
131
False
In which year did Umayyad Caliphate's empire collapse?
57333f25d058e614000b57c0
750
359
False
Under whom did the Western part of Umayyad Caliphate's empire gain its independence?
57333f25d058e614000b57c1
Abd-ar-Rahman
427
False
How long did it take the Emirate to become the Caliphate of Codoba?
57333f25d058e614000b57c2
almost two centuries
499
False
After defeating the Visigoths in only a few months, the Umayyad Caliphate started expanding rapidly in the peninsula. Beginning in 711, the land that is now Portugal became part of the vast Umayyad Caliphate's empire of Damascus, which stretched from the Indus river in the Indian sub-continent (now Pakistan) up to the South of France, until its collapse in 750. That year the west of the empire gained its independence under Abd-ar-Rahman I with the establishment of the Emirate of Córdoba. After almost two centuries, the Emirate became the Caliphate of Córdoba in 929, until its dissolution a century later in 1031 into no less than 23 small kingdoms, called Taifa kingdoms.
What were the governors of the taifas called?
57334124d058e614000b57dc
Emir
55
False
Which which kingdoms did the taifas establish diplomatic relations?
57334124d058e614000b57dd
the Christian kingdoms of the north
121
False
To which taifa did most of Portugal fall into?
57334124d058e614000b57de
Taifa of Badajoz
202
False
In which year did the taifa period end?
57334124d058e614000b57df
1086
463
False
Which battle took place in 1147?
57334124d058e614000b57e0
Battle of Sagrajas
502
False
The governors of the taifas each proclaimed themselves Emir of their provinces and established diplomatic relations with the Christian kingdoms of the north. Most of Portugal fell into the hands of the Taifa of Badajoz of the Aftasid Dynasty, and after a short spell of an ephemeral Taifa of Lisbon in 1022, fell under the dominion of the Taifa of Seville of the Abbadids poets. The Taifa period ended with the conquest of the Almoravids who came from Morocco in 1086 winning a decisive victory at the Battle of Sagrajas, followed a century later in 1147, after the second period of Taifa, by the Almohads, also from Marrakesh.
What are converts to Islam called?
573341b6d058e614000b57e6
Muwallad or Muladi
104
False
Who did the Arabs principally consist of?
573341b6d058e614000b57e7
noblemen from Oman
193
False
Where were the Berbers originally from?
573341b6d058e614000b57e8
Atlas mountains and Rif mountains of North Africa
323
False
In which region of Portugal did the Muslim population stay?
573341b6d058e614000b57e9
Algarve region, and south of the Tagus
494
False
How many modern Portugese words have Arabic origins?
573341b6d058e614000b57ea
800
565
False
The Muslim population of the region consisted mainly of native Iberian converts to Islam (the so-called Muwallad or Muladi) and to a lesser extent Berbers and Arabs. The Arabs were principally noblemen from Oman; and though few in numbers, they constituted the elite of the population. The Berbers were originally from the Atlas mountains and Rif mountains of North Africa and were essentially nomads. In Portugal, the Muslim population (or "Moors"), relatively small in numbers, stayed in the Algarve region, and south of the Tagus. Today, there are approximately 800 words in the Portuguese language of Arabic origin. The Muslims were expelled from Portugal 300 years earlier than in neighbouring Spain, which is reflected both in Portuguese culture and the language, which is mostly Celtiberian and Vulgar Latin.
What was Pelayos' plan?
5733429d4776f419006607c8
to use the Cantabrian mountains as a place of refuge and protection from the invading Moors
18
False
Against which group of people was Pelayos fighting?
5733429d4776f419006607c9
Moors
269
False
In which battle did Pelayos defeat the Moors?
5733429d4776f419006607ca
Battle of Covadonga
325
False
In which year was Pelayos proclaimed king?
5733429d4776f419006607cb
722 AD
348
False
What was the war of Christian reconquest, started by Pelayos, known as in Portugese?
5733429d4776f419006607cc
Reconquista Cristã
505
False
Pelayos' plan was to use the Cantabrian mountains as a place of refuge and protection from the invading Moors. He then aimed to regroup the Iberian Peninsula's Christian armies and use the Cantabrian mountains as a springboard from which to regain their lands from the Moors. In the process, after defeating the Moors in the Battle of Covadonga in 722 AD, Pelayos was proclaimed king, thus founding the Christian Kingdom of Asturias and starting the war of Christian reconquest known in Portuguese as the Reconquista Cristã.
Who annexed the County of Portugal into the Kingdom of Asturias?
5733445dd058e614000b5804
King Alfonso III
109
False
In which year was Vimara Peres knighted?
5733445dd058e614000b5805
868 AD
164
False
What was Vimara knighted as?
5733445dd058e614000b5806
First Count of Portus Cale
179
False
What three names did Portugal become known as after Vimara Peres was knighted?
5733445dd058e614000b5807
Portucale, Portugale, and simultaneously Portugália
245
False
Why was the Kingdom of Asturias divided?
5733445dd058e614000b5808
dynastic divisions of inheritance among the kings offspring
426
False
After annexing the County of Portugal into one of the several counties that made up the Kingdom of Asturias, King Alfonso III of Asturias knighted Vimara Peres, in 868 AD, as the First Count of Portus Cale (Portugal). The region became known as Portucale, Portugale, and simultaneously Portugália — the County of Portugal. Later the Kingdom of Asturias was divided into a number of Christian Kingdoms in Northern Spain due to dynastic divisions of inheritance among the kings offspring. With the forced abdication of Alfonso III "the Great" of Asturias by his sons in 910, the Kingdom of Asturias split into three separate kingdoms of León, Galicia and Asturias. The three kingdoms were eventually reunited in 924 (León and Galicia in 914, Asturias later) under the crown of León.
Who was the eldest son of Alfonso III and what did he become king of?
57334596d058e614000b5818
García, became king of León
180
False
Who was the second son of Alfonso III and what did he become king of?
57334596d058e614000b5819
Ordoño, reigned in Galicia
225
False
Who was Alfonso III's third son and what area did he receive?
57334596d058e614000b581a
Fruela, received Asturias with Oviedo as his capital
270
False
In which year did Alfonso III likely die?
57334596d058e614000b581b
910
360
False
In which year was the Kingdom of Castile formed?
57334596d058e614000b581c
1230
781
False
A year before Alfonso III "the Great" of Asturias death, three of Alfonso's sons rose in rebellion and forced him to abdicate, partitioning the kingdom among them. The eldest son, García, became king of León. The second son, Ordoño, reigned in Galicia, while the third, Fruela, received Asturias with Oviedo as his capital. Alfonso died in Zamora, probably in 910. His former realm would be reunited when first García died childless and León passed to Ordoño. He in turn died when his children were too young to ascend; Fruela became king of a reunited crown. His death the next year initiated a series of internecine struggles that led to unstable succession for over a century. It continued under that name[clarification needed] until incorporated into the Kingdom of Castile in 1230, after Ferdinand III became joint king of the two kingdoms. This was done to avoid dynastic feuds and to maintain the Christian Kingdoms strong enough to prevent complete Muslim take over of the Iberian Peninsula and to further the Reconquista of Iberia by Christian armies.
During the internecine struggles, what did the the people of Country of Portugal struggle with?
573348bd4776f419006607f6
maintain the autonomy of Galicia with its distinct language and culture (Galician-Portuguese) from the Leonese culture
412
False
The County of Portugal separated from the Kingdom of Galicia to establish what?
573348bd4776f419006607f7
the Kingdom of Portugal
801
False
Portugese diverged from which language?
573348bd4776f419006607f8
Galician
830
False
What is the Castilian Lanugage known as?
573348bd4776f419006607f9
Spanish
1069
False
By which language was the Astur-Leonese replaced?
573348bd4776f419006607fa
Castilian (Spanish Language)
1296
False
During the century of internecine struggles for dominance among the Northern Christians kingdoms, the County of Portugal, formed the southern portion of the Kingdom of Galicia. At times the Kingdom of Galicia existed independently for short periods, but usually formed an important part of the Kingdom of Leon. Throughout this period, the people of County of Portugal as Galicians found themselves struggling to maintain the autonomy of Galicia with its distinct language and culture (Galician-Portuguese) from the Leonese culture, whenever the status of the Kingdom of Galicia changed in relation to the Kingdom of Leon. As a result of political division, Galician-Portuguese lost its unity when the County of Portugal separated from the Kingdom of Galicia (a dependent kingdom of Leon) to establish the Kingdom of Portugal. The Galician and Portuguese versions of the language then diverged over time as they followed independent evolutionary paths. This began occurring when the Kingdom of Leon and the Kingdom of Castile united and the Castilian Language (known as Spanish) slowly over the centuries began influencing the Galician Language and then trying to replace it. The same thing happened to Astur-Leonese Language to the point where it is greatly reduced or completely replaced by the Castilian (Spanish Language).
Which years were plagued by the Black Death?
5733496fd058e614000b582c
1348 and 1349
3
False
In 1373, Portugal made an alliance with which country?
5733496fd058e614000b582d
England
127
False
What is the longest standing alliance in the world?
5733496fd058e614000b582e
Portugal made an alliance with England
96
False
The Portugal-English alliance served as the predecessor to what?
5733496fd058e614000b582f
NATO
299
False
In which Portugese region is there still visible English influence?
5733496fd058e614000b5830
Oporto region
589
False
In 1348 and 1349 Portugal, like the rest of Europe, was devastated by the Black Death. In 1373, Portugal made an alliance with England, which is the longest-standing alliance in the world. This alliance served both nations' interests throughout history and is regarded by many as the predecessor to NATO. Over time this went way beyond geo-political and military cooperation (protecting both nations' interests in Africa, the Americas and Asia against French, Spanish and Dutch rivals) and maintained strong trade and cultural ties between the two old European allies. Particularly in the Oporto region, there is visible English influence to this day.
What European age did Portugal spearhead?
57334d274776f4190066081e
the Age of Discovery
59
False
Who was the Father of Prince Henry the Navigator?
57334d274776f4190066081f
King João I
116
False
Which three Atlantic archipelagos did Portugal discover?
57334d274776f41900660820
Azores, Madeira, and Cape Verde
292
False
By which path did Portugal discover a route to India?
57334d274776f41900660821
Cape of Good Hope
434
False
What South American country did Portugal discover?
57334d274776f41900660822
Brazil
464
False
Portugal spearheaded European exploration of the world and the Age of Discovery. Prince Henry the Navigator, son of King João I, became the main sponsor and patron of this endeavour. During this period, Portugal explored the Atlantic Ocean, discovering several Atlantic archipelagos like the Azores, Madeira, and Cape Verde, explored the African coast, colonized selected areas of Africa, discovered an eastern route to India via the Cape of Good Hope, discovered Brazil, explored the Indian Ocean, established trading routes throughout most of southern Asia, and sent the first direct European maritime trade and diplomatic missions to China and Japan.
Who was the 1st Marquis of Pombal?
573356a5d058e614000b5878
Sebastião José de Carvalho e Melo
9
False
What title did Archduchess Maria Anne Josefa hold?
573356a5d058e614000b5879
Queen consort of Portugal
157
False
Who arranged the widow de Melo's second marriage?
573356a5d058e614000b587a
Queen consort of Portugal
157
False
Who was de Melo's second marriage to?
573356a5d058e614000b587b
the daughter of the Austrian Field Marshal Leopold Josef, Count von Daun
329
False
Who was not pleased by de Melo's second marriage?
573356a5d058e614000b587c
King John V of Portugal
403
False
In 1738, Sebastião José de Carvalho e Melo, 1st Marquis of Pombal, began a diplomatic career as the Portuguese Ambassador in London and later in Vienna. The Queen consort of Portugal, Archduchess Maria Anne Josefa of Austria, was fond of Melo; and after his first wife died, she arranged the widowed de Melo's second marriage to the daughter of the Austrian Field Marshal Leopold Josef, Count von Daun. King John V of Portugal, however, was not pleased and recalled Melo to Portugal in 1749. John V died the following year and his son, Joseph I of Portugal, was crowned. In contrast to his father, Joseph I was fond of de Melo, and with the Queen Mother's approval, he appointed Melo as Minister of Foreign Affairs.
Did the King's confidence in de Melo increase or decrease?
573357944776f4190066085a
increased
36
False
What title was given to de Melo in 1755?
573357944776f4190066085b
Prime Minister
138
False
With whose economic success was de Melo impressed with?
573357944776f4190066085c
British
167
False
Who abolished slavery in Portugal?
573357944776f4190066085d
Sebastião de Melo
111
False
Who ended discrimination against difference Christian sects in Portugal?
573357944776f4190066085e
Sebastião de Melo
111
False
As the King's confidence in de Melo increased, the King entrusted him with more control of the state. By 1755, Sebastião de Melo was made Prime Minister. Impressed by British economic success that he had witnessed from the Ambassador, he successfully implemented similar economic policies in Portugal. He abolished slavery in Portugal and in the Portuguese colonies in India; reorganized the army and the navy; restructured the University of Coimbra, and ended discrimination against different Christian sects in Portugal.
What were de Melo's greatest reforms?
573360d64776f41900660928
economic and financial
46
False
Why did e Melo demarcate the region for production of Port?
573360d64776f41900660929
to ensure the wine's quality
207
False
Did de Melo impose strict laws only on one class of people?
573360d64776f4190066092a
upon all classes of Portuguese society from the high nobility to the poorest working class
369
False
Among which class did de Melo's reforms gain him the most enemies?
573360d64776f4190066092b
especially among the high nobility
576
False
Who was the first person to try to ensure the wine's quality in Portugal?
573360d64776f4190066092c
Sebastião de Melo
4
False
But Sebastião de Melo's greatest reforms were economic and financial, with the creation of several companies and guilds to regulate every commercial activity. He demarcated the region for production of Port to ensure the wine's quality, and this was the first attempt to control wine quality and production in Europe. He ruled with a strong hand by imposing strict law upon all classes of Portuguese society from the high nobility to the poorest working class, along with a widespread review of the country's tax system. These reforms gained him enemies in the upper classes, especially among the high nobility, who despised him as a social upstart.
What type of natural disaster was the city center of Lisbon designed to resist?
5733a8ffd058e614000b5f9b
earthquakes
192
False
How were earthquakes simulated on the architectural models?
5733a8ffd058e614000b5f9c
marching troops around the models
299
False
What are some of Lisbon's tourist attractions?
5733a8ffd058e614000b5f9d
The buildings and big squares of the Pombaline City Centre
334
False
How did de Melo contribute to the study of seismology?
5733a8ffd058e614000b5f9e
by designing an inquiry that was sent to every parish in the country
527
False
Did Lisbon suffer any epidemics from the calamity?
5733a8ffd058e614000b5f9f
Lisbon suffered no epidemics
42
False
Despite the calamity and huge death toll, Lisbon suffered no epidemics and within less than one year was already being rebuilt. The new city centre of Lisbon was designed to resist subsequent earthquakes. Architectural models were built for tests, and the effects of an earthquake were simulated by marching troops around the models. The buildings and big squares of the Pombaline City Centre still remain as one of Lisbon's tourist attractions. Sebastião de Melo also made an important contribution to the study of seismology by designing an inquiry that was sent to every parish in the country.
What happened to Joseph I in 1758?
5733ad50d058e614000b601d
wounded in an attempted assassination
272
False
Who was implicated in the attempted assassination of Joseph I?
5733ad50d058e614000b601e
The Távora family and the Duke of Aveiro
311
False
Who was expelled from the country after the assassination attempt on Joseph I?
5733ad50d058e614000b601f
The Jesuits
402
False
What act finally broke the power of the aristocracy?
5733ad50d058e614000b6020
Sebastião de Melo prosecuted every person involved, even women and children
488
False
In what year did Joseph I make his minister the Count of Oeiras?
5733ad50d058e614000b6021
1759
684
False
Following the earthquake, Joseph I gave his Prime Minister even more power, and Sebastião de Melo became a powerful, progressive dictator. As his power grew, his enemies increased in number, and bitter disputes with the high nobility became frequent. In 1758 Joseph I was wounded in an attempted assassination. The Távora family and the Duke of Aveiro were implicated and executed after a quick trial. The Jesuits were expelled from the country and their assets confiscated by the crown. Sebastião de Melo prosecuted every person involved, even women and children. This was the final stroke that broke the power of the aristocracy. Joseph I made his loyal minister Count of Oeiras in 1759.
Was the new Count of Oeiras opposed by anyone after the Tavora affair?
5733afe1d058e614000b604f
knew no opposition
53
False
In which year was the Count of Oeiras made the Marquis of Pambal?
5733afe1d058e614000b6050
1770
101
False
How long did the Marquis of Pombal rule Portugal?
5733afe1d058e614000b6051
until Joseph I's death in 1779
137
False
What did Pombal's enlightenment promote at the expense of individual liberty?
5733afe1d058e614000b6052
autocracy
291
False
What was Pombal's "enlightenment" an apparatus for?
5733afe1d058e614000b6053
crushing opposition, suppressing criticism, and furthering colonial economic exploitation
370
False
Following the Távora affair, the new Count of Oeiras knew no opposition. Made "Marquis of Pombal" in 1770, he effectively ruled Portugal until Joseph I's death in 1779. However, historians also argue that Pombal’s "enlightenment," while far-reaching, was primarily a mechanism for enhancing autocracy at the expense of individual liberty and especially an apparatus for crushing opposition, suppressing criticism, and furthering colonial economic exploitation as well as intensifying book censorship and consolidating personal control and profit.
Under whose occupation did Portugal begin a slow decline?
5733b1924776f41900661055
Napoleon
23
False
How long did Portugal's decline last?
5733b1924776f41900661056
until the 20th century
90
False
In what year did Brazil become independent from Portugal?
5733b1924776f41900661057
1822
163
False
To where did Prince Regent Joao VI of Portugal transfer his court?
5733b1924776f41900661058
Brazil
334
False
What was the name of the pluricontinental state formed by Portugal and Brazil in 1815?
5733b1924776f41900661059
United Kingdom of Portugal, Brazil and the Algarves
538
False
With the occupation by Napoleon, Portugal began a slow but inexorable decline that lasted until the 20th century. This decline was hastened by the independence in 1822 of the country's largest colonial possession, Brazil. In 1807, as Napoleon's army closed in on Lisbon, the Prince Regent João VI of Portugal transferred his court to Brazil and established Rio de Janeiro as the capital of the Portuguese Empire. In 1815, Brazil was declared a Kingdom and the Kingdom of Portugal was united with it, forming a pluricontinental State, the United Kingdom of Portugal, Brazil and the Algarves.
What provoked the modernization and expansion of the Brazilian administrative, civic, economical, military, educational, and scientific apparatus?
5733b2a64776f4190066107b
the change in its status and the arrival of the Portuguese royal family
15
False
Portugese and British troops fought against the invasion of which country?
5733b2a64776f4190066107c
French
280
False
By what year had the situation in Europe cool down enough so that Joao VI would have been able to safely return to Lisbon?
5733b2a64776f4190066107d
1815
315
False
Until when did the King of Portugal remain in Brazil?
5733b2a64776f4190066107e
until the Liberal Revolution of 1820
484
False
Where did the Liberal Revolution of 1820 begin?
5733b2a64776f4190066107f
Porto
539
False
As a result of the change in its status and the arrival of the Portuguese royal family, Brazilian administrative, civic, economical, military, educational, and scientific apparatus were expanded and highly modernized. Portuguese and their allied British troops fought against the French Invasion of Portugal and by 1815 the situation in Europe had cooled down sufficiently that João VI would have been able to return safely to Lisbon. However, the King of Portugal remained in Brazil until the Liberal Revolution of 1820, which started in Porto, demanded his return to Lisbon in 1821.
When was the Conference of Berlin held?
5733b49a4776f419006610bf
1884
33
False
Why were the Portugese Africa territories' borders formally established?
5733b49a4776f419006610c0
to protect the centuries-long Portuguese interests in the continent from rivalries enticed by the Scramble for Africa
140
False
During what period were the Portugese Africa's cities founded or redeveloped?
5733b49a4776f419006610c1
Scramble for Africa
238
False
What new Portugese Africa's coastal towns were developed during the Scramble for Africa?
5733b49a4776f419006610c2
Beira, Moçâmedes, Lobito, João Belo, Nacala and Porto Amélia
489
False
When were railroad tracks being installed Portugese Africa?
5733b49a4776f419006610c3
before the turn of the 20th century
574
False
With the Conference of Berlin of 1884, Portuguese Africa territories had their borders formally established on request of Portugal in order to protect the centuries-long Portuguese interests in the continent from rivalries enticed by the Scramble for Africa. Portuguese Africa's cities and towns like Nova Lisboa, Sá da Bandeira, Silva Porto, Malanje, Tete, Vila Junqueiro, Vila Pery and Vila Cabral were founded or redeveloped inland during this period and beyond. New coastal towns like Beira, Moçâmedes, Lobito, João Belo, Nacala and Porto Amélia were also founded. Even before the turn of the 20th century, railway tracks as the Benguela railway in Angola, and the Beira railway in Mozambique, started to be built to link coastal areas and selected inland regions.
On what day were King Dom Carlos I and and his heir, Prince Royal Dom Luis Filipe, Duke of Braganza, murdered?
5733b5944776f419006610f1
1 February 1908
3
False
Under the rule of King Dom Carlos I, on what two days was Portugal declared bankrupt?
5733b5944776f419006610f2
on 14 June 1892, and again on 10 May 1902
210
False
Who succeeded King Dom Carlos I as king?
5733b5944776f419006610f3
Manuel II of Portugal
350
False
On what day was King Manuel II overthrown?
5733b5944776f419006610f4
5 October 1910
430
False
During the Portuguese First Republic, what creating a fertile ground for chaos and unrest?
5733b5944776f419006610f5
Political instability and economic weaknesses
524
False
On 1 February 1908, the king Dom Carlos I of Portugal and his heir apparent, Prince Royal Dom Luís Filipe, Duke of Braganza, were murdered in Lisbon. Under his rule, Portugal had twice been declared bankrupt – on 14 June 1892, and again on 10 May 1902 – causing social turmoil, economic disturbances, protests, revolts and criticism of the monarchy. Manuel II of Portugal became the new king, but was eventually overthrown by the 5 October 1910 revolution, which abolished the regime and instated republicanism in Portugal. Political instability and economic weaknesses were fertile ground for chaos and unrest during the Portuguese First Republic. These conditions would lead to the failed Monarchy of the North, 28 May 1926 coup d'état, and the creation of the National Dictatorship (Ditadura Nacional).
Who led the Estado Novo?
5733b70fd058e614000b612a
António de Oliveira Salazar
94
False
In what year was the Estado Novo established?
5733b70fd058e614000b612b
1933
125
False
How many European countries remained neutral throughout World War II?
5733b70fd058e614000b612c
five
156
False
What action affirmed Portugal's status as a transcontinental nation?
5733b70fd058e614000b612d
relocation of mainland Portuguese citizens into the overseas provinces in Africa
386
False
This in turn led to the establishment of the right-wing dictatorship of the Estado Novo under António de Oliveira Salazar in 1933. Portugal was one of only five European countries to remain neutral in World War II. From the 1940s to the 1960s, Portugal was a founding member of NATO, OECD and the European Free Trade Association (EFTA). Gradually, new economic development projects and relocation of mainland Portuguese citizens into the overseas provinces in Africa were initiated, with Angola and Mozambique, as the largest and richest overseas territories, being the main targets of those initiatives. These actions were used to affirm Portugal's status as a transcontinental nation and not as a colonial empire.
Until when did the Portuguese government resist decolonization of their overseas territories?
5733c3a6d058e614000b61e9
April 1974
110
False
What was the Carnation Revolution?
5733c3a6d058e614000b61ea
left-wing military coup in Lisbon
139
False
By what was the PREC characterized by?
5733c3a6d058e614000b61eb
social turmoil and power disputes between left- and right-wing political forces
458
False
The Portuguese government and army successfully resisted the decolonization of its overseas territories until April 1974, when a bloodless left-wing military coup in Lisbon, known as the Carnation Revolution, led the way for the independence of the overseas territories in Africa and Asia, as well as for the restoration of democracy after two years of a transitional period known as PREC (Processo Revolucionário Em Curso). This period was characterized by social turmoil and power disputes between left- and right-wing political forces. The retreat from the overseas territories and the acceptance of its independence terms by Portuguese head representatives for overseas negotiations, which would create independent states in 1975, prompted a mass exodus of Portuguese citizens from Portugal's African territories (mostly from Portuguese Angola and Mozambique).
What entity governed Portugal until 1976?
5733c432d058e614000b61f7
Junta de Salvação Nacional
42
False
Which party won the Portuguese election in 1976?
5733c432d058e614000b61f8
Socialist Party
149
False
Who became the Prime Minister of Portugal in 1976?
5733c432d058e614000b61f9
Mário Soares
174
False
Through what years was Mario Soares the Portuguese Prime Minister?
5733c432d058e614000b61fa
1976 to 1978 and again from 1983 to 1985
313
False
The country continued to be governed by a Junta de Salvação Nacional until the Portuguese legislative election of 1976. It was won by the Portuguese Socialist Party (PS) and Mário Soares, its leader, became Prime Minister of the 1st Constitutional Government on 23 July. Mário Soares would be Prime Minister from 1976 to 1978 and again from 1983 to 1985. In this capacity Soares tried to resume the economic growth and development record that had been achieved before the Carnation Revolution, during the last decade of the previous regime. He initiated the process of accession to the European Economic Community (EEC) by starting accession negotiations as early as 1977.
Between which two political ideals did Portugal bounce between?
5733c8a94776f41900661226
socialism and adherence to the neoliberal model
28
False
In what year was the Portuguese Constitution approved?
5733c8a94776f41900661227
1976
166
False
For what reasons were the Portuguese Constitution rewritten?
5733c8a94776f41900661228
to accommodate socialist and communist principles
195
False
The country bounced between socialism and adherence to the neoliberal model. Land reform and nationalizations were enforced; the Portuguese Constitution (approved in 1976) was rewritten in order to accommodate socialist and communist principles. Until the constitutional revisions of 1982 and 1989, the constitution was a highly charged ideological document with numerous references to socialism, the rights of workers, and the desirability of a socialist economy. Portugal's economic situation after its transition to democracy, obliged the government to pursue International Monetary Fund (IMF)-monitored stabilization programs in 1977–78 and 1983–85.
What type of climate does Portugal have?
5733c9d54776f41900661234
Mediterranean
25
False
In the mountainous interior north of Portugal, between what degrees is the average temperature?
5733c9d54776f41900661235
8–12 °C (46.4–53.6 °F)
475
False
In the south of Portugal and on the Guadiana river basin, between what degrees does the average temperature fluctuate?
5733c9d54776f41900661236
16–19 °C (60.8–66.2 °F)
535
False
How high do the mountains between Algarve and the Alentejo region reach?
5733c9d54776f41900661237
900 metres (3,000 ft)
681
False
Portugal is defined as a Mediterranean climate (Csa in the South, interior, and Douro region; Csb in the North, Central Portugal and coastal Alentejo; mixed oceanic climate along the northern half of the coastline and also Semi-arid climate or Steppe climate (BSk in certain parts of Beja district far South) according to the Köppen-Geiger Climate Classification), and is one of the warmest European countries: the annual average temperature in mainland Portugal varies from 8–12 °C (46.4–53.6 °F) in the mountainous interior north to 16–19 °C (60.8–66.2 °F) in the south and on the Guadiana river basin. The Algarve, separated from the Alentejo region by mountains reaching up to 900 metres (3,000 ft) in Alto de Fóia, has a climate similar to that of the southern coastal areas of Spain or Southwest Australia.
What type of climate do the archipelagos of the Azores and Madeira have?
5733ca654776f4190066123c
subtropical
55
False
What makes weather predictions difficult in the archipelago region?
5733ca654776f4190066123d
rough topography
171
False
What type of climate does the island of the Azores have?
5733ca654776f4190066123e
Mediterranean
522
False
Both the archipelagos of the Azores and Madeira have a subtropical climate, although variations between islands exist, making weather predictions very difficult (owing to rough topography). The Madeira and Azorean archipelagos have a narrower temperature range, with annual average temperatures exceeding 20 °C (68 °F) along the coast (according to the Portuguese Meteorological Institute). Some islands in Azores do have drier months in the summer. Consequently, the island of the Azores have been identified as having a Mediterranean climate (both Csa and Csb types), while some islands (such as Flores or Corvo) are classified as Maritime Temperate (Cfb) and Humid subtropical (Cfa), respectively, according to Köppen-Geiger classification.
What two types of forests can be found in Geres?
5733deb64776f419006613cc
deciduous and coniferous
159
False
To what period does the laurissilva forest date back to?
5733deb64776f419006613cd
the Tertiary period
361
False
What type of oak tree is colonizing many abandoned areas in Portugal?
5733deb64776f419006613ce
Pyrenean
513
False
What wild animal was recently found roaming urban areas in Portugal?
5733deb64776f419006613cf
Boars
721
False
How many national parks does Portugal have?
5733deb64776f419006613d0
12
892
False
Despite the fact that humans have occupied the territory of Portugal for thousands of years, something still remains of the original vegetation. In Gerês both deciduous and coniferous forests can be found, an extremely rare worldwide mature mediterranean forest remain in some parts of the Arrábida mountain and a subtropical laurissilva forest, dating back to the Tertiary period, covers its largest continuous area in the world in the Madeira main island. Due to the human population decrease and rural exodus, Pyrenean oak and other local native trees are colonizing many abandoned areas. Boar, Iberian red deer, roe deer, Iberian wild goat, for example, are reported to be expanding greatly, during the last decades. Boars were found recently roaming at night inside large urban areas, like in Setubal. Protected areas of Portugal include one national park (Portuguese: Parque Nacional), 12 natural parks (Portuguese: Parque Natural), nine natural reserves (Portuguese: Reserva Natural), five natural monuments (Portuguese: Monumento Natural), and seven protected landscapes (Portuguese: Paisagem Protegida), which include the Parque Nacional da Peneda-Gerês, the Parque Natural da Serra da Estrela and the Paul d'Arzila.
What is Laurisilva?
5733e2c24776f41900661422
a unique type of subtropical rainforest
14
False
What are some examples of  mammalian fauna found in Laurisilva forests?
5733e2c24776f41900661423
fox, badger, iberian lynx, iberian wolf, wild goat (Capra pyrenaica), wild cat (Felis silvestris), hare, weasel, polecat, chameleon, mongoose, civet, brown bear
334
False
What type of animal crosses between Europe and Africa during the Autumn?
5733e2c24776f41900661424
migratory birds
615
False
Laurisilva is a unique type of subtropical rainforest found in few areas of Europe and the world: in the Azores, and in particular on the island of Madeira, there are large forests of endemic Laurisilva forests (the latter protected as a natural heritage preserve). There are several species of diverse mammalian fauna, including the fox, badger, iberian lynx, iberian wolf, wild goat (Capra pyrenaica), wild cat (Felis silvestris), hare, weasel, polecat, chameleon, mongoose, civet, brown bear[citation needed] (spotted near Rio Minho, close to Peneda-Gerês) and many others. Portugal is an important stopover for migratory birds, in places such as Cape St. Vincent or the Monchique mountains, where thousands of birds cross from Europe to Africa during the autumn or in the spring (return migration).
How many freshwater fish species can be found in Portugal?
5733e6d34776f4190066147c
more than 100
10
False
In Portugal, where can you find the giant European catfish?
5733e6d34776f4190066147d
in the Tagus International Natural Park
90
False
Why are some species becoming endangered in Portugal?
5733e6d34776f4190066147e
because of habitat loss, pollution and drought
310
False
What type of glowing species can be found on some beaches in Portugal?
5733e6d34776f4190066147f
plankton
813
False
There are more than 100 freshwater fish species, varying from the giant European catfish (in the Tagus International Natural Park) to some small and endemic species that live only in small lakes (along the western portion of country, for example). Some of these rare and specific species are highly endangered because of habitat loss, pollution and drought. Up-welling along the west coast of Portugal makes the sea extremely rich in nutrients and diverse species of marine fish; the Portuguese marine waters are one of the richest in the world. Marine fish species are more common, and include thousands of species, such as the sardine (Sardina pilchardus), tuna and Atlantic mackerel. Bioluminescent species are also well represented (including species in different colour spectrum and forms), like the glowing plankton that are possible to observe in some beaches.
For how many years is the Portugal president elected?
5733ecdb4776f41900661520
five
35
False
Who is the current president of Portugal?
5733ecdb4776f41900661521
Aníbal Cavaco Silva
99
False
How many deputies make up the Assembly of the Republic?
5733ecdb4776f41900661522
230
192
False
For how long of a term are deputies elected?
5733ecdb4776f41900661523
four-year
219
False
How many members sit on the Constitutional Court?
5733ecdb4776f41900661524
thirteen
520
False
The President, who is elected to a five-year term, has an executive role: the current President is Aníbal Cavaco Silva. The Assembly of the Republic is a single chamber parliament composed of 230 deputies elected for a four-year term. The Government is headed by the Prime Minister (currently António Costa) and includes Ministers and Secretaries of State. The Courts are organized into several levels, among the judicial, administrative and fiscal branches. The Supreme Courts are institutions of last resort/appeal. A thirteen-member Constitutional Court oversees the constitutionality of the laws.
What two political parties dominate Portugal's government?
5733ee08d058e614000b660f
Socialist Party and the Social Democratic Party
279
False
At what three levels does the Portugal government operate?
5733ee08d058e614000b6610
national-, regional- and local-levels
107
False
What other political groups exist other than the two dominant ones?
5733ee08d058e614000b6611
Unitary Democratic Coalition (Portuguese Communist Party and Ecologist Party "The Greens"), the Left Bloc and the Democratic and Social Centre – People's Party
347
False
What percentage of the vote do the non-dominant parties get?
5733ee08d058e614000b6612
5 and 15%
529
False
Portugal operates a multi-party system of competitive legislatures/local administrative governments at the national-, regional- and local-levels. The Assembly of the Republic, Regional Assemblies and local municipalities and parishes, are dominated by two political parties, the Socialist Party and the Social Democratic Party, in addition to the Unitary Democratic Coalition (Portuguese Communist Party and Ecologist Party "The Greens"), the Left Bloc and the Democratic and Social Centre – People's Party, which garner between 5 and 15% of the vote regularly.
Who is the Head of State of Portugal?
5733ef714776f41900661557
President of the Republic
37
False
For how many years does each term of the President of the Republic last?
5733ef714776f41900661558
five
77
False
By what means is the President of the Republic elected?
5733ef714776f41900661559
by direct, universal suffrage
92
False
Who has the power to appoint and dismiss the Prime Minister?
5733ef714776f4190066155a
President of the Republic
37
False
The Head of State of Portugal is the President of the Republic, elected to a five-year term by direct, universal suffrage. He or she has also supervision and reserve powers. These powers are often compared[by whom?] with the "moderator power" that was held by the King in the Portuguese Constitutional Monarchy.[citation needed] Presidential powers include the appointment of the Prime Minister and the other members of the Government (where the President takes into account the results of legislative elections); dismissing the Prime Minister; dissolving the Assembly of the Republic (to call early elections); vetoing legislation (which may be overridden by the Assembly with a supermajority); and declaring a state of war or siege. The President is also the ex officio Commander-in-Chief of the Armed Forces.
What group acts as the presidential cabinet?
5733f0774776f4190066156d
The Council of Ministers
0
False
What process is required of each government's policies?
5733f0774776f4190066156e
define the broad outline of its policies in a programme, and present it to the Assembly for a mandatory period of debate
251
False
What is needed to reject a cabinet's policy?
5733f0774776f4190066156f
an absolute majority of deputies
439
False
The Council of Ministers – under the presidency of the Prime Minister (or the President of Portugal at the latter's request) and the Ministers (may also include one or more Deputy Prime Ministers) – acts as the cabinet. Each government is required to define the broad outline of its policies in a programme, and present it to the Assembly for a mandatory period of debate. The failure of the Assembly to reject the government programme by an absolute majority of deputies confirms the cabinet in office.
Portuguese law continues to be a major influence for what?
5733f165d058e614000b663b
former colonies and territories
30
False
What is the Policia de Seguranca Publica - PSP (Public Security Police)?
5733f165d058e614000b663c
a civilian police force who work in urban areas
311
False
What is the Policia Judiciaria - PJ (Judicial Police)?
5733f165d058e614000b663d
a highly specialized criminal investigation police
411
False
Which entity oversees the Judicial Police?
5733f165d058e614000b663e
the Public Ministry.
482
False
Portuguese law applied in the former colonies and territories and continues to be the major influence for those countries. Portugal's main police organizations are the Guarda Nacional Republicana – GNR (National Republican Guard), a gendarmerie; the Polícia de Segurança Pública – PSP (Public Security Police), a civilian police force who work in urban areas; and the Polícia Judiciária – PJ (Judicial Police), a highly specialized criminal investigation police that is overseen by the Public Ministry.
In which year did Portugal decriminalize drug possession?
5733f2454776f4190066157b
2001
108
False
How much of a drug is legal to possess?
5733f2454776f4190066157c
10 days worth of personal use
359
False
What option is allowed to those caught with small amounts of drugs?
5733f2454776f4190066157d
go to a rehab facility
504
False
By 2009, by how much had the rate of HIV infection decreased?
5733f2454776f4190066157e
50 percent
784
False
Portugal has arguably the most liberal laws concerning possession of illicit drugs in the Western world. In 2001, Portugal decriminalized possession of effectively all drugs that are still illegal in other developed nations including, but not limited to, cannabis, cocaine, heroin, and LSD. While possession is legal, trafficking and possession of more than "10 days worth of personal use" are still punishable by jail time and fines. People caught with small amounts of any drug are given the choice to go to a rehab facility, and may refuse treatment without consequences. Despite criticism from other European nations, who stated Portugal's drug consumption would tremendously increase, overall drug use has declined along with the number of HIV infection cases, which had dropped 50 percent by 2009. Drug use among 16- to 18-year-olds also declined, however the use of marijuana rose only slightly among that age group.
How many municipalities is Portugal divided into?
5733f2d64776f41900661583
308
43
False
How many civil parishes are the Portuguese municipalities divided into?
5733f2d64776f41900661584
3,092
150
False
How many districts is the continental Portugal divided into?
5733f2d64776f41900661585
18
794
False
Administratively, Portugal is divided into 308 municipalities (Portuguese: municípios or concelhos), which after a reform in 2013 are subdivided into 3,092 civil parishes (Portuguese: freguesia). Operationally, the municipality and civil parish, along with the national government, are the only legally identifiable local administrative units identified by the government of Portugal (for example, cities, towns or villages have no standing in law, although may be used as catchment for the defining services). For statistical purposes the Portuguese government also identifies NUTS, inter-municipal communities and informally, the district system, used until European integration (and being phased-out by the national government).[original research?] Continental Portugal is agglomerated into 18 districts, while the archipelagos of the Azores and Madeira are governed as autonomous regions; the largest units, established since 1976, are either mainland Portugal (Portuguese: Portugal Continental) and the autonomous regions of Portugal (Azores and Madeira).
How many branches make up the Portuguese armed forces?
5733f37ed058e614000b664f
three
22
False
What are the branches of the Portuguese armed forces?
5733f37ed058e614000b6650
Navy, Army and Air Force
38
False
What is the primary purpose of the Portuguese armed forces?
5733f37ed058e614000b6651
primarily as a self-defense force whose mission is to protect the territorial integrity of the country and provide humanitarian assistance and security
75
False
How many women were in the Portuguese armed forces in 2008?
5733f37ed058e614000b6652
7,500
321
False
How much money was spent on the Portuguese armed forced in 2009?
5733f37ed058e614000b6653
$5.2 billion, representing 2.1 percent of GDP
378
False
The armed forces have three branches: Navy, Army and Air Force. They serve primarily as a self-defense force whose mission is to protect the territorial integrity of the country and provide humanitarian assistance and security at home and abroad. As of 2008, the three branches numbered 39,200 active personnel including 7,500 women. Portuguese military expenditure in 2009 was $5.2 billion, representing 2.1 percent of GDP. Military conscription was abolished in 2004. The minimum age for voluntary recruitment is 18 years.
What is the number of personnel in the army?
5733f4004776f41900661599
21,000
10
False
With what is the infantry brigade mainly equipped with?
5733f4004776f4190066159a
Pandur II APC
118
False
What is the mechanized brigade mainly equipped with?
5733f4004776f4190066159b
Leopard 2 A6 tanks and M113 APC
177
False
What does the Rapid Reaction Brigade consist of?
5733f4004776f4190066159c
paratroopers, commandos and rangers
254
False
How many personnel does the Navy have?
5733f4004776f4190066159d
10,700
302
False
The Army (21,000 personnel) comprises three brigades and other small units. An infantry brigade (mainly equipped with Pandur II APC), a mechanized brigade (mainly equipped with Leopard 2 A6 tanks and M113 APC) and a Rapid Reaction Brigade (consisting of paratroopers, commandos and rangers). The Navy (10,700 personnel, of which 1,580 are marines) has five frigates, seven corvettes, two submarines, and 28 patrol and auxiliary vessels. The Air Force (7,500 personnel) has the Lockheed F-16 Fighting Falcon and the Dassault/Dornier Alpha Jet as the main combat aircraft.
In what two major conflicts did Portugal engage in during the 20th century?
5733f568d058e614000b667f
World War I and the Portuguese Colonial War
62
False
During which years was the Portuguese Colonial War fought?
5733f568d058e614000b6680
1961–1974
107
False
In what countries have the Portuguese Armed Forces participated in peacekeeping missions?
5733f568d058e614000b6681
East Timor, Bosnia, Kosovo, Afghanistan, Somalia, Iraq (Nasiriyah) and Lebanon
241
False
What are two examples of independent Portuguese unilateral military operations conducted abroad?
5733f568d058e614000b6682
Angola in 1992 and in Guinea-Bissau in 1998
477
False
In the 20th century, Portugal engaged in two major conflicts: World War I and the Portuguese Colonial War (1961–1974). After the end of the Portuguese Empire in 1975, the Portuguese Armed Forces have participated in peacekeeping missions in East Timor, Bosnia, Kosovo, Afghanistan, Somalia, Iraq (Nasiriyah) and Lebanon. Portugal also conducted several independent unilateral military operations abroad, as were the cases of the interventions of the Portuguese Armed Forces in Angola in 1992 and in Guinea-Bissau in 1998 with the main objectives of protecting and withdrawing of Portuguese and foreign citizens threatened by local civil conflicts.
Who headed the government after the bailout was announced?
5733f61bd058e614000b6687
Pedro Passos Coelho
69
False
What was the purpose of the Portuguese bailout?
5733f61bd058e614000b6688
improve the State's financial situation
141
False
How was the Portuguese bailout implemented?
5733f61bd058e614000b6689
tax hikes, a freeze of civil service-related lower-wages and cuts of higher-wages by 14.3%, on top of the government's spending cuts
192
False
Between 2010 and 2012, by what percentage were the wages of public servants cut?
5733f61bd058e614000b668a
20%
530
False
After the bailout was announced, the Portuguese government headed by Pedro Passos Coelho managed to implement measures with the intention of improve the State's financial situation, including tax hikes, a freeze of civil service-related lower-wages and cuts of higher-wages by 14.3%, on top of the government's spending cuts. The Portuguese government also agreed to eliminate its golden share in Portugal Telecom which gave it veto power over vital decisions. In 2012, all public servants had already seen an average wage cut of 20% relative to their 2010 baseline, with cuts reaching 25% for those earning more than 1,500 euro per month.
Between 1974 and 2010, how did the Portuguese government encourage over-expenditure and investment bubbles?
5733f743d058e614000b669a
unclear Public–private partnerships and funding of numerous ineffective and unnecessary external consultancy and advisory of committees and firms
291
False
By whom was a report published in 2011 that demonstrated the Portuguese government encouraged over-expenditure and investment bubbles?
5733f743d058e614000b669b
Diário de Notícias
41
False
A report released in January 2011 by the Diário de Notícias and published in Portugal by Gradiva, had demonstrated that in the period between the Carnation Revolution in 1974 and 2010, the democratic Portuguese Republic governments encouraged over-expenditure and investment bubbles through unclear Public–private partnerships and funding of numerous ineffective and unnecessary external consultancy and advisory of committees and firms. This allowed considerable slippage in state-managed public works and inflated top management and head officer bonuses and wages. Persistent and lasting recruitment policies boosted the number of redundant public servants. Risky credit, public debt creation, and European structural and cohesion funds were mismanaged across almost four decades.
In what two years was there a financial crisis?
5733f808d058e614000b66b1
2007–08
30
False
Which two Portuguese banks had been accumulating losses for years?
5733f808d058e614000b66b2
Banco Português de Negócios (BPN) and Banco Privado Português (BPP)
92
False
What caused BPN and BPP to accumulate losses?
5733f808d058e614000b66b3
bad investments, embezzlement and accounting fraud
207
False
Why was the case of BPN more serious?
5733f808d058e614000b66b4
its size, market share, and the political implications
311
False
On what charge was BPN's CEO arrested?
5733f808d058e614000b66b5
fraud
569
False
After the financial crisis of 2007–08, it was known in 2008–2009 that two Portuguese banks (Banco Português de Negócios (BPN) and Banco Privado Português (BPP)) had been accumulating losses for years due to bad investments, embezzlement and accounting fraud. The case of BPN was particularly serious because of its size, market share, and the political implications - Portugal's then current President, Cavaco Silva, and some of his political allies, maintained personal and business relationships with the bank and its CEO, who was eventually charged and arrested for fraud and other crimes. In the grounds of avoiding a potentially serious financial crisis in the Portuguese economy, the Portuguese government decided to give them a bailout, eventually at a future loss to taxpayers and to the Portuguese people in general.
What currency does Portugal use?
5733f8f0d058e614000b66cf
the euro (€)
27
False
What currency did the euro replace in Portugal?
5733f8f0d058e614000b66d0
Portuguese Escudo
60
False
What is the name of Portugal's central bank?
5733f8f0d058e614000b66d1
Banco de Portugal
181
False
In what two areas are most Portuguese industries, businesses, and financial institutions concentrated?
5733f8f0d058e614000b66d2
Lisbon and Porto metropolitan areas
337
False
According to World Travel Awards, for what activity is Portugal known as Europe's leading destination?
5733f8f0d058e614000b66d3
Golf
577
False
The Portuguese currency is the euro (€), which replaced the Portuguese Escudo, and the country was one of the original member states of the eurozone. Portugal's central bank is the Banco de Portugal, an integral part of the European System of Central Banks. Most industries, businesses and financial institutions are concentrated in the Lisbon and Porto metropolitan areas—the Setúbal, Aveiro, Braga, Coimbra and Leiria districts are the biggest economic centres outside these two main areas.[citation needed] According to World Travel Awards, Portugal is the Europe's Leading Golf Destination 2012 and 2013.
In which year did the Carnation Revolution take place?
5733f9cfd058e614000b66eb
1974
34
False
What period followed the Carnation Revolution?
5733f9cfd058e614000b66ec
PREC period
300
False
Since the 90's, how has Portugal's economic development model been changing?
5733f9cfd058e614000b66ed
changing to a system that is focused on exports, private investment and the development of the high-tech sector
504
False
What are the more traditional industries that have existed in Portugal?
5733f9cfd058e614000b66ee
textiles, clothing, footwear and cork
700
False
What is Portugal the world's leading producer of?
5733f9cfd058e614000b66ef
cork
771
False
Since the Carnation Revolution of 1974, which culminated in the end of one of Portugal's most notable phases of economic expansion (that started in the 1960s), a significant change has occurred in the nation's annual economic growth.[citation needed] After the turmoil of the 1974 revolution and the PREC period, Portugal tried to adapt to a changing modern global economy, a process that continues in 2013. Since the 1990s, Portugal's public consumption-based economic development model has been slowly changing to a system that is focused on exports, private investment and the development of the high-tech sector. Consequently, business services have overtaken more traditional industries such as textiles, clothing, footwear and cork (Portugal is the world's leading cork producer), wood products and beverages.
By what entities was the Portuguese economy bailed out?
5733fa9a4776f41900661625
European Commission, European Central Bank and International Monetary Fund
171
False
In what year was the economic bailout agreed to?
5733fa9a4776f41900661626
2011
273
False
How much money was agreed to in the financial bailout?
5733fa9a4776f41900661627
€78 billion
376
False
When did Portugal exit the bailout?
5733fa9a4776f41900661628
May 2014
392
False
By the time Portugal exited the bailout, to what percentage had the unemployment rate fallen?
5733fa9a4776f41900661629
15.3 percent
654
False
In the second decade of the 21st century the Portuguese economy suffered its most severe recession since the 1970s resulting in the country having to be bailed out by the European Commission, European Central Bank and International Monetary Fund. The bailout, agreed to in 2011, required Portugal to enter into a range of austerity measures in exchange for funding support of €78 billion. In May 2014 the country exited the bailout but reaffirmed its commitment to maintaining its reformist momentum. At the time of exiting the bailout the economy had contracted by 0.7% in the first quarter of 2014, however unemployment, while still high had fallen to 15.3 percent.
Upon what is Portuguese agriculture based?
573402d3d058e614000b67a1
small to medium-sized family-owned dispersed units
36
False
What types of companies back more large scale, export-oriented agrobusinesses in Portugal?
573402d3d058e614000b67a2
Grupo RAR's Vitacress, Sovena, Lactogal, Vale da Rosa, Companhia das Lezírias and Valouro
210
False
What types of crops does Portugal produce?
573402d3d058e614000b67a3
tomatoes, citrus, green vegetables, rice, corn, barley, olives, oilseeds, nuts, cherries, bilberry, table grapes, edible mushrooms
381
False
What types of livestock products does Portugal produce?
573402d3d058e614000b67a4
dairy products, poultry and beef
513
False
Agriculture in Portugal is based on small to medium-sized family-owned dispersed units. However, the sector also includes larger scale intensive farming export-oriented agrobusinesses backed by companies (like Grupo RAR's Vitacress, Sovena, Lactogal, Vale da Rosa, Companhia das Lezírias and Valouro). The country produces a wide variety of crops and livestock products, including tomatoes, citrus, green vegetables, rice, corn, barley, olives, oilseeds, nuts, cherries, bilberry, table grapes, edible mushrooms, dairy products, poultry and beef.
Which company is the world's oldest canned fish producer?
57340470d058e614000b67c3
Ramirez
533
False
What are the names of various companies that produce and export fish products?
57340470d058e614000b67c4
Bom Petisco, Nero, Combate, Comur, General, Líder, Manná, Murtosa, Pescador, Pitéu, Tenório, Torreira and Vasco da Gama
591
False
What food does Portugal have one of the highest rates of consumption of?
57340470d058e614000b67c5
fish
141
False
Traditionally a sea-power, Portugal has had a strong tradition in the Portuguese fishing sector and is one of the countries with the highest fish consumption per capita. The main landing sites in Portugal (including Azores and Madeira), according to total landings in weight by year, are the harbours of Matosinhos, Peniche, Olhão, Sesimbra, Figueira da Foz, Sines, Portimão and Madeira. Portuguese processed fish products are exported through several companies, under a number of different brands and registered trademarks, such as Ramirez (the world’s oldest active canned fish producer), Bom Petisco, Nero, Combate, Comur, General, Líder, Manná, Murtosa, Pescador, Pitéu, Tenório, Torreira and Vasco da Gama.[citation needed]
What mineral is Portugal ranked as a leading European producer of?
573405584776f4190066170d
copper
90
False
What are three types of minerals Portugal is a notable producer of?
573405584776f4190066170e
tin, tungsten and uranium
149
False
What type of exploration does Portugal lack the potential for?
573405584776f4190066170f
hydrocarbon
228
False
In which region does Portugal have vast reserves of iron and coal?
573405584776f41900661710
north
426
False
What event triggered a decrease in the extraction of Portugal's natural resources?
573405584776f41900661711
1974 revolution and the consequent economic globalization
442
False
Portugal is a significant European minerals producer and is ranked among Europe's leading copper producers. The nation is also a notable producer of tin, tungsten and uranium. However, the country lacks the potential to conduct hydrocarbon exploration and aluminium, a limitation that has hindered the development of Portugal's mining and metallurgy sectors. Although the country has vast iron and coal reserves—mainly in the north—after the 1974 revolution and the consequent economic globalization, low competitiveness forced a decrease in the extraction activity for these minerals. The Panasqueira and Neves-Corvo mines are among the most recognised Portuguese mines that are still in operation.[citation needed]
What automotive brands exist in Portugal?
5734061fd058e614000b67ed
Volkswagen Autoeuropa and Peugeot Citroen
50
False
What aerospace companies exist in Portugal?
5734061fd058e614000b67ee
Embraer and OGMA
105
False
Where is Volkswagen Group's AutoEuropa assembly plant located?
5734061fd058e614000b67ef
Palmela
254
False
What are the main centers for the Portuguese aerospace industries?
5734061fd058e614000b67f0
Alverca, Covilhã, Évora, and Ponte de Sor
505
False
Where are the main centers of the biotech and IT industries located?
5734061fd058e614000b67f1
Lisbon, Porto, Braga, Coimbra and Aveiro
856
False
Industry is diversified, ranging from automotive (Volkswagen Autoeuropa and Peugeot Citroen), aerospace (Embraer and OGMA), electronics and textiles, to food, chemicals, cement and wood pulp. Volkswagen Group's AutoEuropa motor vehicle assembly plant in Palmela is among the largest foreign direct investment projects in Portugal. Modern non-traditional technology-based industries, such as aerospace, biotechnology and information technology, have been developed in several locations across the country. Alverca, Covilhã, Évora, and Ponte de Sor are the main centres of the Portuguese aerospace industry, which is led by Brazil-based company Embraer and the Portuguese company OGMA. Following the turn of the 21st century, many major biotechnology and information technology industries have been founded, and are concentrated in the metropolitan areas of Lisbon, Porto, Braga, Coimbra and Aveiro.[citation needed]
Portuguese tourist numbers are expected to do what in the future?
573406cd4776f41900661729
increase
101
False
With what area does Portugal compete with for tourists?
573406cd4776f4190066172a
Eastern European destinations
197
False
How does Portugal compete with other areas for tourists?
573406cd4776f4190066172b
focus upon its niche attractions
398
False
What attractions does Portugal have to offer tourists?
573406cd4776f4190066172c
health, nature and rural tourism
440
False
Travel and tourism continue to be extremely important for Portugal, with visitor numbers forecast to increase significantly in the future.[citation needed] However, the increasing competition from Eastern European destinations continues to develop, with the presence of similar attractions that are often cheaper in countries such as Croatia. Consequently, it has been necessary for the country to focus upon its niche attractions, such as health, nature and rural tourism, to stay ahead of its competitors.
What magazine described Portugal as "a new sick man of Europe?"
573407b6d058e614000b6809
The Economist
77
False
Between 2002 and 2007, by what percentage did the rate of unemployment change?
573407b6d058e614000b680a
65%
205
False
What percentage did the unemployment rate reach in December, 2009?
573407b6d058e614000b680b
10.2%
343
False
In 2009, what rating did Standard & Poor's assign to Portugal's long-term credit assessment?
573407b6d058e614000b680c
negative
481
False
In which year did Moody's downgrade Portugal's long-term credit assessment?
573407b6d058e614000b680d
2011
704
False
The poor performance of the Portuguese economy was explored in April 2007 by The Economist, which described Portugal as "a new sick man of Europe". From 2002 to 2007, the number of unemployed increased by 65% (270,500 unemployed citizens in 2002, 448,600 unemployed citizens in 2007). By early December 2009, the unemployment rate had reached 10.2% – a 23-year record high. In December 2009, ratings agency Standard & Poor's lowered its long-term credit assessment of Portugal to "negative" from "stable," voicing pessimism on the country's structural weaknesses in the economy and weak competitiveness that would hamper growth and the capacity to strengthen its public finances and reduce debt. In July 2011, ratings agency Moody's downgraded its long-term credit assessment of Portugal after warning of deteriorating risk of default in March 2011.
What did Prime Minister Jose Socrates announce on April 6, 2011?
57340865d058e614000b6823
that the country would request financial assistance from the IMF and the European Financial Stability Facility
174
False
How many times has Portugal requested external financial support?
57340865d058e614000b6824
third
356
False
What provoked the first request from Portugal for financial support?
57340865d058e614000b6825
Carnation's Revolution
508
False
For what reason did Moody's Investor Services downgrade nine Portuguese banks in 2011?
57340865d058e614000b6826
financial weakness
615
False
On 6 April 2011, after his proposed "Plan for Stability and Growth IV" (PEC IV) was rejected by the Parliament, Prime Minister José Sócrates announced on national television that the country would request financial assistance from the IMF and the European Financial Stability Facility, as Greece and the Republic of Ireland had done previously. It was the third time that the Portuguese government had requested external financial aid from the IMF—the first occasion occurred in the late 1970s following the Carnation's Revolution. In October 2011, Moody's Investor Services downgraded nine Portuguese banks due to financial weakness.
In 2005, how many public employees did Portugal have for every thousand inhabitants?
573409cd4776f41900661773
70.8
95
False
What was the average number of public employees per every thousand inhabitants for the European Union in 2005?
573409cd4776f41900661774
62.4
139
False
In comparison to EU and USA standards, how was Portugal's justice system regarded?
573409cd4776f41900661775
slow and inefficient
257
False
Which country had the slowest criminal justice system in Western Europe in 2005?
573409cd4776f41900661776
Italy
342
False
How many judges and prosecutors does Portugal have per 100,000 inhabitants?
573409cd4776f41900661777
over 30
426
False
In 2005, the number of public employees per thousand inhabitants in the Portuguese government (70.8) was above the European Union average (62.4 per thousand inhabitants). By EU and USA standards, Portugal's justice system was internationally known as being slow and inefficient, and by 2011 it was the second slowest in Western Europe (after Italy); conversely, Portugal has one of the highest rates of judges and prosecutors—over 30 per 100,000 people. The entire Portuguese public service has been known for its mismanagement, useless redundancies, waste, excess of bureaucracy and a general lack of productivity in certain sectors, particularly in justice.
Who was the Portugal Prime Minister in 2013?
57340ab4d058e614000b6861
Passos Coelho
46
False
What did the Prime Minister announce during the first week of May in 2013?
57340ab4d058e614000b6862
significant government plan for the public sector, whereby 30,000 jobs will be cut and the number of weekly working hours will be increased from 35 to 40 hours
72
False
For what reason did Prime Minister Passos Coelho justify cutting 30000 jobs?
57340ab4d058e614000b6863
austerity measures are necessary if Portugal seeks to avoid another monetary bailout grant
287
False
From which entities did Portugal seek a monetary bailout from?
57340ab4d058e614000b6864
European Commission, European Central Bank and International Monetary Fund
387
False
In the first week of May 2013, Prime Minister Passos Coelho announced a significant government plan for the public sector, whereby 30,000 jobs will be cut and the number of weekly working hours will be increased from 35 to 40 hours. Coelho reaffirmed the announcement by explaining that austerity measures are necessary if Portugal seeks to avoid another monetary bailout grant from the European Commission, European Central Bank and International Monetary Fund—the overall plan intends to enact further cuts of €4.8 billion over a three-year period.
To what age did Passos Coelho increase the retirement age?
57340b90d058e614000b6879
66
82
False
To what did Passos Coelho announce cuts to?
57340b90d058e614000b687a
pensions, unemployment benefits, health, education and science expenses
108
False
Which obligatory class was abolished from Basic Education?
57340b90d058e614000b687b
English
195
False
What did the instituting of these policies lead to?
57340b90d058e614000b687c
social unrest and to confrontations between several institutions
457
False
Passos Coelho also announced that the retirement age will be increased from 65 to 66, announced cuts in the pensions, unemployment benefits, health, education and science expenses, abolished the English obligatory classes in Basic Education, but kept the pensions of the judges, diplomats untouched and didn't raise the retirement age of the military and police forces. He has, however, cut meaningfully the politicians salaries. These policies have led to social unrest and to confrontations between several institutions, namely between the Government and the Constitutional Court. Several individualities belonging to the parties that support the government have also raised their voices against the policies that have been taken in order to try to solve the financial crisis.
Since when has the Portugal unemployment rate been in a falling trend?
57340c13d058e614000b688b
third quarter of 2014
108
False
To what percentage did the unemployment rate peak at?
57340c13d058e614000b688c
17.7%
157
False
In the second quarter of 2008, what was the Portuguese unemployment rate?
57340c13d058e614000b688d
7.3%
411
False
By when did the Portuguese unemployment rate pass the 10% mark?
57340c13d058e614000b688e
December 2009
472
False
After years of high increase, the unemployment in Portugal has been in a continuous falling trend since the third quarter of 2014, decreasing from a peak of 17.7% achieved in the early 2013 to a rate of 11.9% in the second quarter of 2015. However, it is high still high compared with what was the normal average Portuguese unemployment rate in the past. In the second quarter of 2008 the unemployment rate was 7.3%, but the rate immediately rose the following period. By December 2009, unemployment had surpassed the 10% mark nationwide in the wake of worldwide events, by 2010, the rate was around 11% and in 2011 it was above 12%.[citation needed] The first quarter of 2013 signified a new unemployment rate record for Portugal, as it reached 17.7%— up from 17% in the previous quarter — and the Government has predicted an 18.5% unemployment rate in 2014. However, in the third quarter of the same year, it has surprisingly declined to a rate of 15.6%. From then on, the unemployment downtrend continued, declining to 13.9% in the second semester of 2014 and to 11.9% in the second quarter of 2015.
What are the tourist hotspots in Portugal?
57340cf1d058e614000b689d
Lisbon, Algarve, Madeira, Porto and the city of Coimbra
33
False
Where do 4-5 million religious pilgrims visit in Portugal every year?
57340cf1d058e614000b689e
Fátima
141
False
What apparitions reportedly took place in 1917?
57340cf1d058e614000b689f
Blessed Virgin Mary to three shepherd children
184
False
What tourist destinations are the Portuguese government continuing to promote and develop?
57340cf1d058e614000b68a0
Douro Valley, the island of Porto Santo, and Alentejo
442
False
What is the 16th European city to attract the most tourists?
57340cf1d058e614000b68a1
Lisbon
497
False
Tourist hotspots in Portugal are Lisbon, Algarve, Madeira, Porto and the city of Coimbra, also, between 4-5 million religious pilgrims visit Fátima each year, where apparitions of the Blessed Virgin Mary to three shepherd children reportedly took place in 1917. The Sanctuary of Fátima is one of the largest Roman Catholic shrines in the world. The Portuguese government continues to promote and develop new tourist destinations, such as the Douro Valley, the island of Porto Santo, and Alentejo. Lisbon is the 16th European city which attracts the most tourists (with seven million tourists occupying the city's hotels in 2006, a number that grew 11.8% compared to previous year). Lisbon in recent years surpassed the Algarve as the leading tourist region in Portugal. Porto and Northern Portugal, especially the urban areas north of Douro River valley, was the tourist destination which grew most (11.9%) in 2006, surpassing Madeira (in 2010), as the third most visited destination.[citation needed]
What prompted transportation improvements in Portugal in the 1970's?
57340d8cd058e614000b68a7
fast economic growth with increasing consumption and purchase of new automobiles
30
False
After joining the European Economic Community in the 90's, what did Portugal begin building?
57340d8cd058e614000b68a8
new motorways
254
False
How long is Portugal's total road network?
57340d8cd058e614000b68a9
68,732 km (42,708 mi)
294
False
In which year was the first motorway opened in Portugal?
57340d8cd058e614000b68aa
1944
412
False
By the early 1970s Portugal's fast economic growth with increasing consumption and purchase of new automobiles set the priority for improvements in transportation. Again in the 1990s, after joining the European Economic Community, the country built many new motorways. Today, the country has a 68,732 km (42,708 mi) road network, of which almost 3,000 km (1,864 mi) are part of system of 44 motorways. Opened in 1944, the first motorway (which linked Lisbon to the National Stadium) was an innovative project that made Portugal among one of the first countries in the world to establish a motorway (this roadway eventually became the Lisbon-Cascais highway, or A5). But, although a few other tracts were created (around 1960 and 1970), it was only after the beginning of the 1980s that large-scale motorway construction was implemented. In 1972, Brisa, the highway concessionaire, was founded to handle the management of many of the regions motorways. On many highways, toll needs to be paid, see Via Verde. Vasco da Gama bridge is the longest bridge in Europe.
How much land does the Continental Portugal cover?
57340e1cd058e614000b68af
89,015 km2 (34,369 sq mi)
23
False
How many national airports does Portugal have?
57340e1cd058e614000b68b0
four
74
False
Near what cities are the Portuguese airports located?
57340e1cd058e614000b68b1
Lisbon, Porto, Faro and Beja
139
False
Why is Lisbon a popular stopover for many foreign airlines?
57340e1cd058e614000b68b2
geographical position
178
False
What is the primary flag-carrier in Portugal?
57340e1cd058e614000b68b3
TAP Portugal
314
False
Continental Portugal's 89,015 km2 (34,369 sq mi) territory is serviced by four international airports located near the principal cities of Lisbon, Porto, Faro and Beja. Lisbon's geographical position makes it a stopover for many foreign airlines at several airports within the country. The primary flag-carrier is TAP Portugal, although many other domestic airlines provide services within and without the country. The government decided to build a new airport outside Lisbon, in Alcochete, to replace Lisbon Portela Airport, though this plan has been stalled due to the austerity. Currently, the most important airports are in Lisbon, Porto, Faro, Funchal (Madeira), and Ponta Delgada (Azores), managed by the national airport authority group ANA – Aeroportos de Portugal.
Into what country does Portugal's railway system expand?
57340eded058e614000b68c3
Spain
71
False
What entity supports and administrates Portugal's railway system?
57340eded058e614000b68c4
Comboios de Portugal
111
False
How long is the total railway system in Portugal?
57340eded058e614000b68c5
2,791 km (1,734 mi)
193
False
How long is the amount of railway lines that are electrified?
57340eded058e614000b68c6
1,430 km (889 mi)
261
False
How long is the amount of railway lines that permit speeds greater than 120 km/h?
57340eded058e614000b68c7
900 km (559 mi)
305
False
A national railway system that extends throughout the country and into Spain, is supported and administered by Comboios de Portugal. Rail transport of passengers and goods is derived using the 2,791 km (1,734 mi) of railway lines currently in service, of which 1,430 km (889 mi) are electrified and about 900 km (559 mi) allow train speeds greater than 120 km/h (75 mph). The railway network is managed by the REFER while the transport of passengers and goods are the responsibility of Comboios de Portugal (CP), both public companies. In 2006 the CP carried 133 million passengers and 9,750,000 t (9,600,000 long tons; 10,700,000 short tons) of goods.
What are the two subway systems in Portugal?
57341210d058e614000b68e2
Lisbon Metro and Metro Sul do Tejo in the Lisbon Metropolitan Area and Porto Metro in the Porto Metropolitan Area
56
False
How long are each of the subway systems?
57341210d058e614000b68e3
more than 35 km (22 mi)
181
False
By what company have the Lisbon tram services been supplies by?
57341210d058e614000b68e4
Companhia de Carris de Ferro de Lisboa (Carris)
275
False
For how long has the Libon tram service existed?
57341210d058e614000b68e5
over a century
328
False
The two largest metropolitan areas have subway systems: Lisbon Metro and Metro Sul do Tejo in the Lisbon Metropolitan Area and Porto Metro in the Porto Metropolitan Area, each with more than 35 km (22 mi) of lines. In Portugal, Lisbon tram services have been supplied by the Companhia de Carris de Ferro de Lisboa (Carris), for over a century. In Porto, a tram network, of which only a tourist line on the shores of the Douro remain, began construction on 12 September 1895 (a first for the Iberian Peninsula). All major cities and towns have their own local urban transport network, as well as taxi services.
In what type of network are most scientific research studies conducted in Portugal?
573412ccd058e614000b68ea
R&D units belonging to public universities and state-managed autonomous research institutions
102
False
What is one example of a state-managed autonomous research institution?
573412ccd058e614000b68eb
INETI – Instituto Nacional de Engenharia, Tecnologia e Inovação
205
False
By which ministry is authority granted for funding and managing Portugal's research system?
573412ccd058e614000b68ec
Ministry of Science, Technology and Higher Education (MCTES)
426
False
Scientific and technological research activities in Portugal are mainly conducted within a network of R&D units belonging to public universities and state-managed autonomous research institutions like the INETI – Instituto Nacional de Engenharia, Tecnologia e Inovação and the INRB – Instituto Nacional dos Recursos Biológicos. The funding and management of this research system is mainly conducted under the authority of the Ministry of Science, Technology and Higher Education (MCTES) itself and the MCTES's Fundação para a Ciência e Tecnologia (FCT). The largest R&D units of the public universities by volume of research grants and peer-reviewed publications, include biosciences research institutions like the Instituto de Medicina Molecular, the Centre for Neuroscience and Cell Biology, the IPATIMUP, the Instituto de Biologia Molecular e Celular and the Abel Salazar Biomedical Sciences Institute.
What are two of the large non-state run research institutions in Portugal?
5734135cd058e614000b68f4
Instituto Gulbenkian de Ciência and the Champalimaud Foundation
74
False
What is the Champalimaud Foundation?
5734135cd058e614000b68f5
neuroscience and oncology research centre
141
False
What does the Champalimaud Foundation award every year?
5734135cd058e614000b68f6
one of the highest monetary prizes of any science prize in the world
220
False
In what year was the Sciences Academy of Lisbon founded?
5734135cd058e614000b68f7
1779
524
False
Among the largest non-state-run research institutions in Portugal are the Instituto Gulbenkian de Ciência and the Champalimaud Foundation, a neuroscience and oncology research centre, which in addition awards every year one of the highest monetary prizes of any science prize in the world. A number of both national and multinational high-tech and industrial companies, are also responsible for research and development projects. One of the oldest learned societies of Portugal is the Sciences Academy of Lisbon, founded in 1779.
What is the name of the largest European aquarium?
573413df4776f41900661807
Lisbon Oceanarium
49
False
What does the state agency Ciencia Viva promote?
573413df4776f41900661808
scientific and technological culture among the Portuguese population
304
False
What are some examples of notable organizations focused on scientific exhibitions?
573413df4776f41900661809
Science Museum of the University of Coimbra, the National Museum of Natural History at the University of Lisbon, and the Visionarium
378
False
Portugal has the largest aquarium in Europe, the Lisbon Oceanarium, and the Portuguese have several other notable organizations focused on science-related exhibits and divulgation, like the state agency Ciência Viva, a programme of the Portuguese Ministry of Science and Technology to the promotion of a scientific and technological culture among the Portuguese population, the Science Museum of the University of Coimbra, the National Museum of Natural History at the University of Lisbon, and the Visionarium.
What was responsible for creating thousands of scientific, technological, and knowledge-based businesses?
573414b84776f41900661813
the emergence and growth of several science parks throughout the world
5
False
What are some examples of the science parks being built in Portugal?
573414b84776f41900661814
Taguspark (in Oeiras), the Coimbra iParque (in Coimbra), the biocant (in Cantanhede), the Madeira Tecnopolo (in Funchal)
259
False
For what reason to companies locate in the Portuguese science parks?
573414b84776f41900661815
take advantage of a variety of services ranging from financial and legal advice through to marketing and technological support
507
False
With the emergence and growth of several science parks throughout the world that helped create many thousands of scientific, technological and knowledge-based businesses, Portugal started to develop several science parks across the country. These include the Taguspark (in Oeiras), the Coimbra iParque (in Coimbra), the biocant (in Cantanhede), the Madeira Tecnopolo (in Funchal), Sines Tecnopolo (in Sines), Tecmaia (in Maia) and Parkurbis (in Covilhã). Companies locate in the Portuguese science parks to take advantage of a variety of services ranging from financial and legal advice through to marketing and technological support.
What are the two most considerable sources of renewable energy in Portugal?
573415824776f41900661823
wind and river power
39
False
Where was Moura Photovoltaic Power Station located?
573415824776f41900661824
Moura, in the south
412
False
Where was the Agucadoura Wave Farm located?
573415824776f41900661825
Norte region
525
False
By the end of 2006, what percentage of Portugal's energy production was from renewable sources?
573415824776f41900661826
29%
652
False
Portugal has considerable resources of wind and river power, the two most cost-effective renewable sources. Since the turn of the 21st century, there has been a trend towards the development of a renewable resource industry and reduction of both consumption and use of fossil fuel resources. In 2006, the world's largest solar power plant at that date, the Moura Photovoltaic Power Station, began operating near Moura, in the south, while the world's first commercial wave power farm, the Aguçadoura Wave Farm, opened in the Norte region (2008). By the end of 2006, 66% of the country's electrical production was from coal and fuel power plants, while 29% were derived from hydroelectric dams, and 6% by wind energy.
What is the name of Portugal's national energy transmission company?
573416864776f4190066182b
Redes Energéticas Nacionais (REN)
49
False
What does REN do?
573416864776f4190066182c
uses sophisticated modeling to predict weather, especially wind patterns, and computer programs to calculate energy from the various renewable-energy plants
84
False
Through what renewable resource had Portugal generated electricity before the solar/wind revolution?
573416864776f4190066182d
hydropower plants on its rivers
316
False
What is used to pump water uphill in Portugal?
573416864776f4190066182e
wind-driven turbines
398
False
How did the Portuguese government encourage rooftop solar panels?
573416864776f4190066182f
setting a premium price
813
False
Portugal’s national energy transmission company, Redes Energéticas Nacionais (REN), uses sophisticated modeling to predict weather, especially wind patterns, and computer programs to calculate energy from the various renewable-energy plants. Before the solar/wind revolution, Portugal had generated electricity from hydropower plants on its rivers for decades. New programs combine wind and water: wind-driven turbines pump water uphill at night, the most blustery period; then the water flows downhill by day, generating electricity, when consumer demand is highest. Portugal’s distribution system is also now a two-way street. Instead of just delivering electricity, it draws electricity from even the smallest generators, like rooftop solar panels. The government aggressively encouraged such contributions by setting a premium price for those who buy rooftop-generated solar electricity.
What was the Portuguese population in 2011?
573417154776f41900661845
10,562,178
143
False
What percentage of the Portuguese population in 2011 was female?
573417154776f41900661846
52%
164
False
What percentage of the Portuguese population in 2011 was male?
573417154776f41900661847
48%
180
False
What is the dominant religion in Portugal?
573417154776f41900661848
Catholicism
287
False
What were the Moors who converted to Catholicism known as?
573417154776f41900661849
Mouriscos
589
False
The Statistics Portugal (Portuguese: INE - Instituto Nacional de Estatística) estimates that, according to the 2011 census, the population was 10,562,178 (of which 52% was female, 48% was male). This population has been relatively homogeneous for most of its history: a single religion (Catholicism) and a single language have contributed to this ethnic and national unity, namely after the expulsion of the Moors and Jews. A considerable number of Moors and Jews, nevertheless, stayed in Portugal, under the condition that they converted to Catholicism, and afterwards they were known as Mouriscos (former Muslims) and Cristãos Novos (New Christians or former Jews) some of whom may have continued to observe rabbinic Judaism in secret, as in the case of the secret Jews of Belmonte, who now observe the Jewish faith openly. After 1772 the distinction between Old and New Christians was abolished by decree. Some famous Portuguese New Christians were the mathematician Pedro Nunes and the physician and naturalist Garcia de Orta.
In what group of people do the Portuguese have their origin?
5734188e4776f41900661861
Paleolithic peoples
198
False
When did people first start arriving in the European continent?
5734188e4776f41900661862
45,000 years ago
271
False
What is the main population source of the Portuguese people?
5734188e4776f41900661863
Paleolithic
422
False
The most important demographic influence in the modern Portuguese seems to be the oldest one; current interpretation of Y-chromosome and mtDNA data suggests that the Portuguese have their origin in Paleolithic peoples that began arriving to the European continent around 45,000 years ago. All subsequent migrations did leave an impact, genetically and culturally, but the main population source of the Portuguese is still Paleolithic. Genetic studies show Portuguese populations not to be significantly different from other European populations.
What is the cornerstone of Portugal's national identity?
5734195bd058e614000b694a
colonial history
11
False
Which ocean does Portugal border?
5734195bd058e614000b694b
Atlantic Ocean
179
False
What were two of the last territories Portugal gave up?
5734195bd058e614000b694c
Angola and Mozambique
299
False
The vast majority of Brazilians have what ancestry in common?
5734195bd058e614000b694d
Portuguese
708
False
How many inhabitants did Portugal have by 2007?
5734195bd058e614000b694e
10,617,575
1073
False
Portugal's colonial history has long since been a cornerstone of its national identity, as has its geographic position at the south-western corner of Europe, looking out into the Atlantic Ocean. It was one of the last western colonial European powers to give up its overseas territories (among them Angola and Mozambique in 1975), turning over the administration of Macau to the People's Republic of China at the end of 1999. Consequently, it has both influenced and been influenced by cultures from former colonies or dependencies, resulting in immigration from these former territories for both economic and/or personal reasons. Portugal, long a country of emigration (the vast majority of Brazilians have Portuguese ancestry), has now become a country of net immigration, and not just from the last Indian (Portuguese until 1961), African (Portuguese until 1975), and Far East Asian (Portuguese until 1999) overseas territories. An estimated 800,000 Portuguese returned to Portugal as the country's African possessions gained independence in 1975. By 2007, Portugal had 10,617,575 inhabitants of whom about 332,137 were legal immigrants.
What percentage of the Portuguese people are Roman Catholic?
57341a094776f41900661873
81.0%
30
False
What other religious communities exist in Portugal?
57341a094776f41900661874
Protestant, Latter-day Saint, Muslim, Hindu, Sikh, Eastern Orthodox Church, Jehovah's Witnesses, Baha'i, Buddhist, Jewish and Spiritist
107
False
What percentage of the Portuguese people identify as non-religious?
57341a094776f41900661875
6.8%
464
False
What percentage of the Portuguese population did not give an answer for their religion in the 2011 census?
57341a094776f41900661876
8.3%
532
False
According to the 2011 Census, 81.0% of the Portuguese population are Roman Catholic. The country has small Protestant, Latter-day Saint, Muslim, Hindu, Sikh, Eastern Orthodox Church, Jehovah's Witnesses, Baha'i, Buddhist, Jewish and Spiritist communities. Influences from African Traditional Religion and Chinese Traditional Religion are also felt among many people, particularly in fields related with Traditional Chinese Medicine and African Witch Doctors. Some 6.8% of the population declared themselves to be non-religious, and 8.3% did not give any answer about their religion.
In what religion do many Portuguese holidays and festivals find their origin?
57341cfc4776f419006618a1
Christian
58
False
In what centuries did the Roman Catholic Church play a role in the reconquest?
57341cfc4776f419006618a2
13th and 14th
294
False
What changed the role and importance of organized religion in Portugal?
57341cfc4776f419006618a3
formation of the First Portuguese Republic
839
False
During what years did the formation of the First Portuguese Republic take place?
57341cfc4776f419006618a4
1910–26
883
False
Many Portuguese holidays, festivals and traditions have a Christian origin or connotation. Although relations between the Portuguese state and the Roman Catholic Church were generally amiable and stable since the earliest years of the Portuguese nation, their relative power fluctuated. In the 13th and 14th centuries, the church enjoyed both riches and power stemming from its role in the reconquest, its close identification with early Portuguese nationalism and the foundation of the Portuguese educational system, including the first university. The growth of the Portuguese overseas empire made its missionaries important agents of colonization, with important roles in the education and evangelization of people from all the inhabited continents. The growth of liberal and nascent republican movements during the eras leading to the formation of the First Portuguese Republic (1910–26) changed the role and importance of organized religion.
On what date did the Battle of Ourique take place?
57341dde4776f419006618bd
25 July 1139
319
False
Afonso heard Jesus promising what?
57341dde4776f419006618be
victories for the coming battles, as well as God's wish to act through Afonso
748
False
Why did God want to act through Afonso?
57341dde4776f419006618bf
in order to create an empire which would carry His name to unknown lands
848
False
Within the white inescutcheon, the five quinas (small blue shields) with their five white bezants representing the five wounds of Christ (Portuguese: Cinco Chagas) when crucified and are popularly associated with the "Miracle of Ourique". The story associated with this miracle tells that before the Battle of Ourique (25 July 1139), an old hermit appeared before Count Afonso Henriques (future Afonso I) as a divine messenger. He foretold Afonso's victory and assured him that God was watching over him and his peers. The messenger advised him to walk away from his camp, alone, if he heard a nearby chapel bell tolling, in the following night. In doing so, he witnessed an apparition of Jesus on the cross. Ecstatic, Afonso heard Jesus promising victories for the coming battles, as well as God's wish to act through Afonso, and his descendants, in order to create an empire which would carry His name to unknown lands, thus choosing the Portuguese to perform great tasks.
What is the official name of Portugal?
57341fcf4776f419006618cb
Portuguese
0
False
What type of language is Portuguese?
57341fcf4776f419006618cc
Romance
65
False
Where did Portuguese originate?
57341fcf4776f419006618cd
Galicia and Northern Portugal
113
False
What was the common name of the Galician and Portuguese people?
57341fcf4776f419006618ce
Galician-Portuguese
161
False
Portuguese is the official language of Portugal. Portuguese is a Romance language that originated in what is now Galicia and Northern Portugal, originating from Galician-Portuguese, which was the common language of the Galician and Portuguese people until the independence of Portugal. Particularly in the North of Portugal, there are still many similarities between the Galician culture and the Portuguese culture. Galicia is a consultative observer of the Community of Portuguese Language Countries. According to the Ethnologue of Languages, Portuguese and Spanish have a lexical similarity of 89% - educated speakers of each language can communicate easily with one another.
From what language is Portuguese derived?
57342084d058e614000b698c
Latin
44
False
By what group of people is Portuguese derived?
57342084d058e614000b698d
Pre-Roman peoples of the Iberian Peninsula
74
False
Between what years did Portugal establish a colonial and commercial empire?
57342084d058e614000b698e
1415 and 1999
329
False
In how many continents is Portuguese spoken as a native language?
57342084d058e614000b698f
five
393
False
What country has the largest number of native Portuguese speakers?
57342084d058e614000b6990
Brazil
425
False
The Portuguese language is derived from the Latin spoken by the romanized Pre-Roman peoples of the Iberian Peninsula around 2000 years ago—particularly the Celts, Tartessians, Lusitanians and Iberians. In the 15th and 16th centuries, the language spread worldwide as Portugal established a colonial and commercial empire between 1415 and 1999. Portuguese is now spoken as a native language in five different continents, with Brazil accounting for the largest number of native Portuguese speakers of any country (200 million speakers in 2012).
What is the adult literacy rate in Portugal?
5734210b4776f419006618f3
99 percent
33
False
Portuguese primary school enrollment is close to what percent?
5734210b4776f419006618f4
100 percent
96
False
What percentage of college-age citizens attend a higher education institution in Portugal?
5734210b4776f419006618f5
Over 35%
500
False
What percentage of college-age citizens attend a higher education institution in the United States?
5734210b4776f419006618f6
50%
621
False
The total adult literacy rate is 99 percent. Portuguese primary school enrollments are close to 100 percent. According to the OECD's Programme for International Student Assessment (PISA) 2009, the average Portuguese 15-year-old student, when rated in terms of reading literacy, mathematics and science knowledge, is placed at the same level as those students from the United States, Sweden, Germany, Ireland, France, Denmark, United Kingdom, Hungary and Taipei, with 489 points (493 is the average). Over 35% of college-age citizens (20 years old) attend one of the country's higher education institutions (compared with 50% in the United States and 35% in the OECD countries). In addition to being a destination for international students, Portugal is also among the top places of origin for international students. All higher education students, both domestic and international, totaled 380,937 in 2005.
Since when have Portuguese universities existed?
57342171d058e614000b69a0
1290
43
False
Where was the oldest Portuguese university established?
57342171d058e614000b69a1
Lisbon
107
False
Where did the oldest Portuguese university relocate to?
57342171d058e614000b69a2
Coimbra
131
False
What is the oldest engineering school of the Americas?
57342171d058e614000b69a3
the Real Academia de Artilharia, Fortificação e Desenho of Rio de Janeiro
267
False
What is the oldest medical college in Asia?
57342171d058e614000b69a4
the Escola Médico-Cirúrgica of Goa
398
False
Portuguese universities have existed since 1290. The oldest Portuguese university was first established in Lisbon before moving to Coimbra. Historically, within the scope of the Portuguese Empire, the Portuguese founded the oldest engineering school of the Americas (the Real Academia de Artilharia, Fortificação e Desenho of Rio de Janeiro) in 1792, as well as the oldest medical college in Asia (the Escola Médico-Cirúrgica of Goa) in 1842. The largest university in Portugal is the University of Lisbon.
When was the Bologna process adopted?
573422234776f4190066190d
2006
44
False
What are most higher education student costs supported with?
573422234776f4190066190e
public money
832
False
Over what age are higher education applicants considered mature?
573422234776f4190066190f
over 23 years old
467
False
The Bologna process has been adopted, since 2006, by Portuguese universities and poly-technical institutes. Higher education in state-run educational establishments is provided on a competitive basis, a system of numerus clausus is enforced through a national database on student admissions. However, every higher education institution offers also a number of additional vacant places through other extraordinary admission processes for sportsmen, mature applicants (over 23 years old), international students, foreign students from the Lusosphere, degree owners from other institutions, students from other institutions (academic transfer), former students (readmission), and course change, which are subject to specific standards and regulations set by each institution or course department. Most student costs are supported with public money. However, with the increasing tuition fees a student has to pay to attend a Portuguese state-run higher education institution and the attraction of new types of students (many as part-time students or in evening classes) like employees, businessmen, parents, and pensioners, many departments make a substantial profit from every additional student enrolled in courses, with benefits for the college or university's gross tuition revenue and without loss of educational quality (teacher per student, computer per student, classroom size per student, etc.).
What is the Ministry of Health responsible for?
57342458d058e614000b69ee
developing health policy as well as managing the SNS
42
False
How many regional health administrations exist in Portugal?
57342458d058e614000b69ef
Five
96
False
What are the regional health administrations in charge of?
57342458d058e614000b69f0
implementing the national health policy objectives, developing guidelines and protocols and supervising health care delivery
150
False
The Ministry of Health is responsible for developing health policy as well as managing the SNS. Five regional health administrations are in charge of implementing the national health policy objectives, developing guidelines and protocols and supervising health care delivery. Decentralization efforts have aimed at shifting financial and management responsibility to the regional level. In practice, however, the autonomy of regional health administrations over budget setting and spending has been limited to primary care.
What do most Portuguese people die from?
57342503d058e614000b69f4
noncommunicable diseases
63
False
What are the two main components of cardiovascular disease?
57342503d058e614000b69f5
ischaemic heart disease and cerebrovascular disease
195
False
What is the biggest killer in Portugal?
57342503d058e614000b69f6
cerebrovascular disease
301
False
What percentage of Portuguese people die less often from cancer than in the Eur-A?
57342503d058e614000b69f7
12%
398
False
Who is cancer more common among in Portugal?
57342503d058e614000b69f8
children as well as among women younger than 44 years
533
False
Similar to the other Eur-A countries, most Portuguese die from noncommunicable diseases. Mortality from cardiovascular diseases (CVD) is higher than in the eurozone, but its two main components, ischaemic heart disease and cerebrovascular disease, display inverse trends compared with the Eur-A, with cerebrovascular disease being the single biggest killer in Portugal (17%). Portuguese people die 12% less often from cancer than in the Eur-A, but mortality is not declining as rapidly as in the Eur-A. Cancer is more frequent among children as well as among women younger than 44 years. Although lung cancer (slowly increasing among women) and breast cancer (decreasing rapidly) are scarcer, cancer of the cervix and the prostate are more frequent. Portugal has the highest mortality rate for diabetes in the Eur-A, with a sharp increase since the 1980s.
What survey results complement on data on health status?
573425ecd058e614000b6a08
self-reporting at the household level
348
False
What number of Portuguese adults rated their health as good or very good?
573425ecd058e614000b6a09
one third
455
False
People are usually well informed about their health status, the positive and negative effects of their behaviour on their health and their use of health care services. Yet their perceptions of their health can differ from what administrative and examination-based data show about levels of illness within populations. Thus, survey results based on self-reporting at the household level complement other data on health status and the use of services. Only one third of adults rated their health as good or very good in Portugal (Kasmel et al., 2004). This is the lowest of the Eur-A countries reporting and reflects the relatively adverse situation of the country in terms of mortality and selected morbidity.
Portugal modernized its public cultural facilities during what two decades?
573426c64776f41900661987
1990s and 2000s
239
False
In what year was the Calouste Gulbenkian Foundation established?
573426c64776f41900661988
1956
382
False
Where was the Calouste Gulbenkian Foundation established?
573426c64776f41900661989
Lisbon
390
False
What are some examples of Portugal's public cultural facilities?
573426c64776f4190066198a
Belém Cultural Centre in Lisbon, Serralves Foundation and the Casa da Música
416
False
How many UNESCO World Heritage Sites is Portugal home to?
573426c64776f4190066198b
fifteen
686
False
Portugal has developed a specific culture while being influenced by various civilizations that have crossed the Mediterranean and the European continent, or were introduced when it played an active role during the Age of Discovery. In the 1990s and 2000s (decade), Portugal modernized its public cultural facilities, in addition to the Calouste Gulbenkian Foundation established in 1956 in Lisbon. These include the Belém Cultural Centre in Lisbon, Serralves Foundation and the Casa da Música, both in Porto, as well as new public cultural facilities like municipal libraries and concert halls that were built or renovated in many municipalities across the country. Portugal is home to fifteen UNESCO World Heritage Sites, ranking it 8th in Europe and 17th in the world.
What is the Manueline style also known as?
5734275c4776f41900661991
Portuguese late Gothic
81
False
What is the Manueline style?
5734275c4776f41900661992
a sumptuous, composite Portuguese style of architectural ornamentation of the first decades of the 16th century
105
False
What is Soft Portuguese style?
5734275c4776f41900661993
A 20th-century interpretation of traditional architecture
218
False
Who are some of the most renowned architects to come from Portugal?
5734275c4776f41900661994
Eduardo Souto de Moura, Álvaro Siza Vieira (both Pritzker Prize winners) and Gonçalo Byrne
417
False
For what is Tomas Taveira particularly noteworthy for in Portugal?
5734275c4776f41900661995
stadium design
572
False
Traditional architecture is distinctive and include the Manueline, also known as Portuguese late Gothic, a sumptuous, composite Portuguese style of architectural ornamentation of the first decades of the 16th century. A 20th-century interpretation of traditional architecture, Soft Portuguese style, appears extensively in major cities, especially Lisbon. Modern Portugal has given the world renowned architects like Eduardo Souto de Moura, Álvaro Siza Vieira (both Pritzker Prize winners) and Gonçalo Byrne. In Portugal Tomás Taveira is also noteworthy, particularly for stadium design.
In which period was cinema born?
573427dc4776f419006619af
late 19th century
88
False
Who are some examples of Portuguese film directors?
573427dc4776f419006619b0
Arthur Duarte, António Lopes Ribeiro, António Reis, Pedro Costa, Manoel de Oliveira, João César Monteiro, António-Pedro Vasconcelos, Fernando Lopes
141
False
Who are some noted Portuguese actors?
573427dc4776f419006619b1
Joaquim de Almeida, Daniela Ruah, Maria de Medeiros, Diogo Infante, Soraia Chaves, Ribeirinho, Lúcia Moniz, and Diogo Morgado
399
False
Portuguese cinema has a long tradition, reaching back to the birth of the medium in the late 19th century. Portuguese film directors such as Arthur Duarte, António Lopes Ribeiro, António Reis, Pedro Costa, Manoel de Oliveira, João César Monteiro, António-Pedro Vasconcelos, Fernando Lopes, João Botelho and Leonel Vieira, are among those that gained notability. Noted Portuguese film actors include Joaquim de Almeida, Daniela Ruah, Maria de Medeiros, Diogo Infante, Soraia Chaves, Ribeirinho, Lúcia Moniz, and Diogo Morgado.
Who was Luís de Camões?
57342888d058e614000b6a50
Adventurer and poet
0
False
What epic poem did Luís de Camões write?
57342888d058e614000b6a51
"Os Lusíadas" (The Lusiads)
70
False
What was Luís de Camões main influence?
57342888d058e614000b6a52
Virgil's Aeneid
104
False
What styles are modern Portuguese poetry rooted in?
57342888d058e614000b6a53
neoclassic and contemporary styles
181
False
Who are some modern Portuguese authors?
57342888d058e614000b6a54
Almeida Garrett, Camilo Castelo Branco, Eça de Queiroz, Fernando Pessoa, Sophia de Mello Breyner Andresen, António Lobo Antunes and Miguel Torga
327
False
Adventurer and poet Luís de Camões (c. 1524–1580) wrote the epic poem "Os Lusíadas" (The Lusiads), with Virgil's Aeneid as his main influence. Modern Portuguese poetry is rooted in neoclassic and contemporary styles, as exemplified by Fernando Pessoa (1888–1935). Modern Portuguese literature is represented by authors such as Almeida Garrett, Camilo Castelo Branco, Eça de Queiroz, Fernando Pessoa, Sophia de Mello Breyner Andresen, António Lobo Antunes and Miguel Torga. Particularly popular and distinguished is José Saramago, recipient of the 1998 Nobel Prize in Literature.
What is dry cod known as in Portuguese?
57342937d058e614000b6a64
bacalhau
72
False
Other than bacalhau, what are two other popular fish recipes in Portugal?
57342937d058e614000b6a65
grilled sardines and caldeirada
242
False
What is caldeirada?
57342937d058e614000b6a66
a potato-based stew that can be made from several types of fish
275
False
What meats are often used in Portuguese recipes?
57342937d058e614000b6a67
beef, pork, lamb, or chicken
397
False
What are two popular Northern Portugal dishes?
57342937d058e614000b6a68
arroz de sarrabulho (rice stewed in pigs blood) or the arroz de cabidela (rice and chickens meat stewed in chickens blood)
584
False
Portuguese cuisine is diverse. The Portuguese consume a lot of dry cod (bacalhau in Portuguese), for which there are hundreds of recipes. There are more than enough bacalhau dishes for each day of the year. Two other popular fish recipes are grilled sardines and caldeirada, a potato-based stew that can be made from several types of fish. Typical Portuguese meat recipes, that may be made out of beef, pork, lamb, or chicken, include cozido à portuguesa, feijoada, frango de churrasco, leitão (roast suckling pig) and carne de porco à alentejana. A very popular northern dish is the arroz de sarrabulho (rice stewed in pigs blood) or the arroz de cabidela (rice and chickens meat stewed in chickens blood).
What are three examples of fast food dishes in Portugal?
573429e3d058e614000b6a78
Francesinha (Frenchie) from Porto, and bifanas (grilled pork) or prego (grilled beef) sandwiches
37
False
Where does the Portuguese art of pastry have its origins?
573429e3d058e614000b6a79
in the many medieval Catholic monasteries spread widely across the country
221
False
What are the main ingredients used to make pastries in the monasteries?
573429e3d058e614000b6a7a
almonds, flour, eggs and some liquor
351
False
What are two examples of Portuguese pastries?
573429e3d058e614000b6a7b
pastéis de Belém (or pastéis de nata) originally from Lisbon, and ovos moles from Aveiro
465
False
Typical fast food dishes include the Francesinha (Frenchie) from Porto, and bifanas (grilled pork) or prego (grilled beef) sandwiches, which are well known around the country. The Portuguese art of pastry has its origins in the many medieval Catholic monasteries spread widely across the country. These monasteries, using very few ingredients (mostly almonds, flour, eggs and some liquor), managed to create a spectacular wide range of different pastries, of which pastéis de Belém (or pastéis de nata) originally from Lisbon, and ovos moles from Aveiro are examples. Portuguese cuisine is very diverse, with different regions having their own traditional dishes. The Portuguese have a culture of good food, and throughout the country there are myriads of good restaurants and typical small tasquinhas.
Since when have Portuguese wines garnished international recognition?
57342a56d058e614000b6a80
since the times of the Romans
56
False
With which Roman God was Portugal associated with?
57342a56d058e614000b6a81
Bacchus
126
False
What are some of the best Portuguese wines?
57342a56d058e614000b6a82
Vinho Verde, Vinho Alvarinho, Vinho do Douro, Vinho do Alentejo, Vinho do Dão, Vinho da Bairrada and the sweet: Port Wine, Madeira Wine
270
False
Which two Portuguese wines are especially enjoyed around the world?
57342a56d058e614000b6a83
Port and Madeira
446
False
Portuguese wines have enjoyed international recognition since the times of the Romans, who associated Portugal with their god Bacchus. Today, the country is known by wine lovers and its wines have won several international prizes. Some of the best Portuguese wines are: Vinho Verde, Vinho Alvarinho, Vinho do Douro, Vinho do Alentejo, Vinho do Dão, Vinho da Bairrada and the sweet: Port Wine, Madeira Wine, the Moscatel from Setúbal and Favaios. Port and Madeira are particularly appreciated in a wide range of places around the world.
What are a couple examples of Summer music festivals held in Portugal?
57342b24d058e614000b6a92
Festival Sudoeste in Zambujeira do Mar, Festival de Paredes de Coura in Paredes de Coura, Festival Vilar de Mouros near Caminha,
53
False
What are a couple examples of non-Summer music festivals in Portugal?
57342b24d058e614000b6a93
Flowfest or Hip Hop Porto
447
False
What is the Boom Festival?
57342b24d058e614000b6a94
one of the largest international Goa trance festivals takes place in central Portugal every two years
487
False
What international awards have been won by the Boom Festival?
57342b24d058e614000b6a95
European Festival Award 2010 – Green'n'Clean Festival of the Year and the Greener Festival Award Outstanding 2008 and 2010
681
False
In which year did Portugal hold the MTV Europe Music Awards?
57342b24d058e614000b6a96
2005
920
False
Portugal has several summer music festivals, such as Festival Sudoeste in Zambujeira do Mar, Festival de Paredes de Coura in Paredes de Coura, Festival Vilar de Mouros near Caminha, Boom Festival in Idanha-a-Nova Municipality, Optimus Alive!, Sumol Summer Fest in Ericeira, Rock in Rio Lisboa and Super Bock Super Rock in Greater Lisbon. Out of the summer season, Portugal has a large number of festivals, designed more to an urban audience, like Flowfest or Hip Hop Porto. Furthermore, one of the largest international Goa trance festivals takes place in central Portugal every two years, the Boom Festival, that is also the only festival in Portugal to win international awards: European Festival Award 2010 – Green'n'Clean Festival of the Year and the Greener Festival Award Outstanding 2008 and 2010. There is also the student festivals of Queima das Fitas are major events in a number of cities across Portugal. In 2005, Portugal held the MTV Europe Music Awards, in Pavilhão Atlântico, Lisbon.
What are some examples of classical pianists from Portugal?
57342bbc4776f419006619f1
Artur Pizarro, Maria João Pires, Sequeira Costa
80
False
What are some examples of classical violinists from Portugal?
57342bbc4776f419006619f2
Carlos Damas, Gerardo Ribeiro
144
False
Who are some notable musical composers from Portugal?
57342bbc4776f419006619f3
José Vianna da Motta, Carlos Seixas, João Domingos Bomtempo, João de Sousa Carvalho, Luís de Freitas Branco and his student Joly Braga Santos
257
False
Who are some contemporary composers from Portugal?
57342bbc4776f419006619f4
Nuno Malo and Miguel d'Oliveira
499
False
In the classical music domain, Portugal is represented by names as the pianists Artur Pizarro, Maria João Pires, Sequeira Costa, the violinists Carlos Damas, Gerardo Ribeiro and in the past by the great cellist Guilhermina Suggia. Notable composers include José Vianna da Motta, Carlos Seixas, João Domingos Bomtempo, João de Sousa Carvalho, Luís de Freitas Branco and his student Joly Braga Santos, Fernando Lopes-Graça, Emmanuel Nunes and Sérgio Azevedo. Similarly, contemporary composers such as Nuno Malo and Miguel d'Oliveira have achieved some international success writing original music for film and television.
In which century did Portugal see the arrival of Modernism?
57342c97d058e614000b6a9c
20th century
4
False
By what group was Amadeo de Souza-Cardoso most heavily influenced by?
57342c97d058e614000b6a9d
French painters, particularly by the Delaunays
165
False
What is one of Amadeo de Souza-Cardoso's best known works?
57342c97d058e614000b6a9e
Canção Popular a Russa e o Fígaro
243
False
Who are some of the most prominent modern visual artists in Portugal?
57342c97d058e614000b6a9f
Vieira da Silva, Júlio Pomar, Helena Almeida, Joana Vasconcelos, Julião Sarmento and Paula Rego
568
False
The 20th century saw the arrival of Modernism, and along with it came the most prominent Portuguese painters: Amadeo de Souza-Cardoso, who was heavily influenced by French painters, particularly by the Delaunays. Among his best-known works is Canção Popular a Russa e o Fígaro. Another great modernist painters/writers were Carlos Botelho and Almada Negreiros, friend to the poet Fernando Pessoa, who painted his (Pessoa's) portrait. He was deeply influenced by both Cubist and Futurist trends. Prominent international figures in visual arts nowadays include painters Vieira da Silva, Júlio Pomar, Helena Almeida, Joana Vasconcelos, Julião Sarmento and Paula Rego.
What is the most popular sport in Portugal?
57342d5b4776f41900661a17
Football
0
False
What is still a major symbol of Portuguese football history?
57342d5b4776f41900661a18
Eusébio
164
False
Who are two examples of the top football players born in Portugal?
57342d5b4776f41900661a19
Luís Figo and Cristiano Ronaldo
266
False
What award did both Luís Figo and Cristiano Ronaldo win?
57342d5b4776f41900661a1a
FIFA World Player of the Year
228
False
Who are some of the most renowned football managers in Portugal?
57342d5b4776f41900661a1b
José Mourinho, André Villas-Boas, Fernando Santos, Carlos Queiroz and Manuel José
509
False
Football is the most popular sport in Portugal. There are several football competitions ranging from local amateur to world-class professional level. The legendary Eusébio is still a major symbol of Portuguese football history. FIFA World Player of the Year winners Luís Figo and Cristiano Ronaldo who won the FIFA Ballon d'Or for 2013 and 2014, are among the numerous examples of other world-class football players born in Portugal and noted worldwide. Portuguese football managers are also noteworthy, with José Mourinho, André Villas-Boas, Fernando Santos, Carlos Queiroz and Manuel José among the most renowned.
What are the three largest sports clubs by popularity in Portugal?
57342e50d058e614000b6aae
SL Benfica, FC Porto, and Sporting CP
0
False
What are the three largest sports club by popularity in Portugal known as?
57342e50d058e614000b6aaf
"os três grandes" ("the big three")
127
False
How many titles in the European UEFA club competitions have "the big three" won?
57342e50d058e614000b6ab0
eight
178
False
Other than football, what other sports are popular in Portugal?
57342e50d058e614000b6ab1
roller hockey, basketball, futsal, handball, and volleyball
515
False
By what entity is the Algarve Cup hosted?
57342e50d058e614000b6ab2
Portuguese Football Federation (FPF)  – Federação Portuguesa de Futebol
580
False
SL Benfica, FC Porto, and Sporting CP are the largest sports clubs by popularity and by number of trophies won, often known as "os três grandes" ("the big three"). They have won eight titles in the European UEFA club competitions, were present in many finals and have been regular contenders in the last stages almost every season. Other than football, many Portuguese sports clubs, including the "big three", compete in several other sports events with a varying level of success and popularity, these may include roller hockey, basketball, futsal, handball, and volleyball. The Portuguese Football Federation (FPF)  – Federação Portuguesa de Futebol – annually hosts the Algarve Cup, a prestigious women`s football tournament that has been celebrated in the Algarvian part of Portugal.
Humanism
What can be seen as of essential importance to a practiced of humanism?
57327732b9d445190005eb3f
human beings
87
False
What is a common tenant of humanism?
57327732b9d445190005eb40
freedom and progress
470
False
These days humanism could be viewed as a form of what?
57327732b9d445190005eb41
secularism
555
False
What can be credited for the changes in the definition of humanism?
57327732b9d445190005eb42
intellectual movements
329
False
Instead of turning to a spiritual or divine source practicers of humanism turn to what?
57327732b9d445190005eb43
science
672
False
human beings
87
What can be seen as no importance to the practice of humanism?
5a81ddc931013a001a334f17
True
freedom and progress
470
What is a fake tenant of humanism?
5a81ddc931013a001a334f18
True
secularism
555
What is humanism no longer viewed as a form of?
5a81ddc931013a001a334f19
True
intellectual movements
329
What had no influence on the changes in the definition of humanism?
5a81ddc931013a001a334f1a
True
science
672
What does humanism condemn instead of turning to a spiritual or divine source?
5a81ddc931013a001a334f1b
True
Humanism is a philosophical and ethical stance that emphasizes the value and agency of human beings, individually and collectively, and generally prefers critical thinking and evidence (rationalism, empiricism) over acceptance of dogma or superstition. The meaning of the term humanism has fluctuated according to the successive intellectual movements which have identified with it. Generally, however, humanism refers to a perspective that affirms some notion of human freedom and progress. In modern times, humanist movements are typically aligned with secularism, and today humanism typically refers to a non-theistic life stance centred on human agency and looking to science rather than revelation from a supernatural source to understand the world.
What was humanism once considered the same as?
57327819e99e3014001e67ca
philanthropy
73
False
Who has disagreed with this connotation of the word?
57327819e99e3014001e67cb
Gellius
149
False
In which period did Gellius gain fame?
57327819e99e3014001e67cc
Italian Renaissance
410
False
Who is credited with clarifying and making the term humanitas commonplace?
57327819e99e3014001e67cd
Cicero
241
False
What is the characteristic that most separates humans from animals?
57327819e99e3014001e67ce
speech
858
False
philanthropy
73
What was humanism once considered worse than?
5a81debb31013a001a334f21
True
Gellius
149
Who can't disagree with a connotation of a word?
5a81debb31013a001a334f22
True
Italian Renaissance
410
Which period did Gellius lose fame?
5a81debb31013a001a334f23
True
Cicero
793
Who is credited with clarifying and making the term humanitas forbidden?
5a81debb31013a001a334f24
True
speech
858
What is the characteristic that most indicates why humans are the same as robots?
5a81debb31013a001a334f25
True
Gellius says that in his day humanitas is commonly used as a synonym for philanthropy – or kindness and benevolence toward one's fellow human being. Gellius maintains that this common usage is wrong, and that model writers of Latin, such as Cicero and others, used the word only to mean what we might call "humane" or "polite" learning, or the Greek equivalent Paideia. Gellius became a favorite author in the Italian Renaissance, and, in fifteenth-century Italy, teachers and scholars of philosophy, poetry, and rhetoric were called and called themselves "humanists". Modern scholars, however, point out that Cicero (106 – 43 BCE), who was most responsible for defining and popularizing the term humanitas, in fact frequently used the word in both senses, as did his near contemporaries. For Cicero, a lawyer, what most distinguished humans from brutes was speech, which, allied to reason, could (and should) enable them to settle disputes and live together in concord and harmony under the rule of law. Thus humanitas included two meanings from the outset and these continue in the modern derivative, humanism, which even today can refer to both humanitarian benevolence and to scholarship.
At the time of the French Revolution what previous focus of humanism was removed?
573278c8e99e3014001e67d4
supernatural
195
False
Protestantism differs from Humanism in its focus is on what?
573278c8e99e3014001e67d5
supernatural
451
False
What do current tenants humanism have their origins in?
573278c8e99e3014001e67d6
18th-century Enlightenment
556
False
What was a name for humanism believers who emerged in the late 19th and early 20th centuries?
573278c8e99e3014001e67d7
Religious Humanism
225
False
supernatural
195
What previous focus of humanism was required at the time of the French Revolution?
5a81df6631013a001a334f2b
True
attention to the transcendent or supernatural
162
What makes Protestantism the exact same as Humanism?
5a81df6631013a001a334f2c
True
18th-century Enlightenment
556
What do current tenants of humanism avoid?
5a81df6631013a001a334f2d
True
Religious Humanism
225
What was a name for humanism believers who emerged in the late 12th and early 13th centuries?
5a81df6631013a001a334f2e
True
During the French Revolution, and soon after, in Germany (by the Left Hegelians), humanism began to refer to an ethical philosophy centered on humankind, without attention to the transcendent or supernatural. The designation Religious Humanism refers to organized groups that sprang up during the late-nineteenth and early twentieth centuries. It is similar to Protestantism, although centered on human needs, interests, and abilities rather than the supernatural. In the Anglophone world, such modern, organized forms of humanism, which are rooted in the 18th-century Enlightenment, have to a considerable extent more or less detached themselves from the historic connection of humanism with classical learning and the liberal arts.
In what year did the term humanism gain yet another layer of meaning?
5732793be99e3014001e67dc
1808
3
False
Who can be credited with assisting the word humanism with finding a home in the English language?
5732793be99e3014001e67dd
Friedrich Immanuel Niethammer
42
False
Who was responsible for yet another definition of the philosophy in 1856?
5732793be99e3014001e67de
Georg Voigt
367
False
What nation was highly receptive to the new definition of this concept?
5732793be99e3014001e67df
Italy
590
False
1808
3
What year did the term humanism remove yet another layer of meaning?
5a81dffd31013a001a334f33
True
Friedrich Immanuel Niethammer
42
Who can be credited with assisting the word humanism with finding a barrier from the English language?
5a81dffd31013a001a334f34
True
Georg Voigt
367
Who was responsible for yet another definition of the philosophy in 1854?
5a81dffd31013a001a334f35
True
Italy
590
What nation was not receptive to the new definition of this concept?
5a81dffd31013a001a334f36
True
Friedrich Immanuel Niethammer
42
Who destroyed the term Humanismus?
5a81dffd31013a001a334f37
True
In 1808 Bavarian educational commissioner Friedrich Immanuel Niethammer coined the term Humanismus to describe the new classical curriculum he planned to offer in German secondary schools, and by 1836 the word "humanism" had been absorbed into the English language in this sense. The coinage gained universal acceptance in 1856, when German historian and philologist Georg Voigt used humanism to describe Renaissance humanism, the movement that flourished in the Italian Renaissance to revive classical learning, a use which won wide acceptance among historians in many nations, especially Italy.
During which period was the philosophy of humanism next updated?
57327a00e17f3d140042299d
French Enlightenment
40
False
What was the criticism of Humanism made by conservatives of the time?
57327a00e17f3d140042299e
idolatry of humanity
1019
False
Who continued to support the belief system despite its critics?
57327a00e17f3d140042299f
liberal reformers and radicals
1531
False
Who felt that humanism would surely be a major "religion" today?
57327a00e17f3d14004229a0
Ernest Renan
1822
False
French Enlightenment
40
Which period was the philosophy of humanism banned?
5a81e0d731013a001a334f47
True
idolatry of humanity
1019
What was the criticism of Humanism made by magicians of the time?
5a81e0d731013a001a334f48
True
liberal reformers and radicals
1531
Who continued to end the belief system despite its critics?
5a81e0d731013a001a334f49
True
Ernest Renan
1822
Who felt that humanism would surely be a minor "religion" today?
5a81e0d731013a001a334f4a
True
the idea that human virtue could be created by human reason alone independently from traditional religious institutions
668
What idea was never attacked?
5a81e0d731013a001a334f4b
True
But in the mid-18th century, during the French Enlightenment, a more ideological use of the term had come into use. In 1765, the author of an anonymous article in a French Enlightenment periodical spoke of "The general love of humanity ... a virtue hitherto quite nameless among us, and which we will venture to call 'humanism', for the time has come to create a word for such a beautiful and necessary thing". The latter part of the 18th and the early 19th centuries saw the creation of numerous grass-roots "philanthropic" and benevolent societies dedicated to human betterment and the spreading of knowledge (some Christian, some not). After the French Revolution, the idea that human virtue could be created by human reason alone independently from traditional religious institutions, attributed by opponents of the Revolution to Enlightenment philosophes such as Rousseau, was violently attacked by influential religious and political conservatives, such as Edmund Burke and Joseph de Maistre, as a deification or idolatry of humanity. Humanism began to acquire a negative sense. The Oxford English Dictionary records the use of the word "humanism" by an English clergyman in 1812 to indicate those who believe in the "mere humanity" (as opposed to the divine nature) of Christ, i.e., Unitarians and Deists. In this polarised atmosphere, in which established ecclesiastical bodies tended to circle the wagons and reflexively oppose political and social reforms like extending the franchise, universal schooling, and the like, liberal reformers and radicals embraced the idea of Humanism as an alternative religion of humanity. The anarchist Proudhon (best known for declaring that "property is theft") used the word "humanism" to describe a "culte, déification de l’humanité" ("worship, deification of humanity") and Ernest Renan in L’avenir de la science: pensées de 1848 ("The Future of Knowledge: Thoughts on 1848") (1848–49), states: "It is my deep conviction that pure humanism will be the religion of the future, that is, the cult of all that pertains to humanity—all of life, sanctified and raised to the level of a moral value."
What was the main difference between humanism and the religions of the time?
57327a72e17f3d14004229a5
centred on humankind
60
False
What well known socialist adopted the usage of this term in Germany?
57327a72e17f3d14004229a6
Karl Marx
205
False
Who did benevolent believers in humanism turn to for ideas about the philosophy?
57327a72e17f3d14004229a7
Greek philosophers
517
False
Where did the learned believers place their focus?
57327a72e17f3d14004229a8
linguistic and cultural disciplines
617
False
centred on humankind
60
What was the main avoidance between humanism and the religions of the time?
5a81e19a31013a001a334f59
True
Karl Marx
205
What well known conservative adopted the usage of this term in Germany?
5a81e19a31013a001a334f5a
True
Greek philosophers
517
Who did harmful believers in humanism turn to for ideas about the philosophy?
5a81e19a31013a001a334f5b
True
linguistic and cultural disciplines
617
Where did the learned believers remove their focus?
5a81e19a31013a001a334f5c
True
At about the same time, the word "humanism" as a philosophy centred on humankind (as opposed to institutionalised religion) was also being used in Germany by the so-called Left Hegelians, Arnold Ruge, and Karl Marx, who were critical of the close involvement of the church in the repressive German government. There has been a persistent confusion between the several uses of the terms: philanthropic humanists look to what they consider their antecedents in critical thinking and human-centered philosophy among the Greek philosophers and the great figures of Renaissance history; and scholarly humanists stress the linguistic and cultural disciplines needed to understand and interpret these philosophers and artists.
Which ancient text provides an example of the humanist way of thinking?
57327ad70fdd8d15006c6af9
Gathas of Zarathustra
87
False
When was this writing penned?
57327ad70fdd8d15006c6afb
afterlife
651
False
What well know scholar was inspired by Humanism?
57327ad70fdd8d15006c6afc
Voltaire
846
False
Gathas of Zarathustra
87
Which classified text provides an example of the humanist way of thinking?
5a81f81431013a001a334ff5
True
Gathas of Zarathustra
87
What well know scholar was destroyed by Humanism?
5a81f81431013a001a334ff6
True
between 1,000 BCE – 600 BCE
119
When was Gathas of Zarathustra lost forever?
5a81f81431013a001a334ff7
True
Voltaire
846
What well know scholar was killed by Humanism?
5a81f81431013a001a334ff8
True
Another instance of ancient humanism as an organised system of thought is found in the Gathas of Zarathustra, composed between 1,000 BCE – 600 BCE in Greater Iran. Zarathustra's philosophy in the Gathas lays out a conception of humankind as thinking beings dignified with choice and agency according to the intellect which each receives from Ahura Mazda (God in the form of supreme wisdom). The idea of Ahura Mazda as a non-intervening deistic divine God/Grand Architect of the universe tied with a unique eschatology and ethical system implying that each person is held morally responsible for their choices, made freely in this present life, in the afterlife. The importance placed on thought, action, responsibility, and a non-intervening creator was appealed to by, and inspired a number of, Enlightenment humanist thinkers in Europe such as Voltaire and Montesquieu.
Who was known as being a founder of humanism thought in China?
57327bd90fdd8d15006c6b01
Yellow Emperor
10
False
What early adopter and developer of is associated with Confucianism?
57327bd90fdd8d15006c6b03
Book of History
447
False
Who is known for the thought that humanity is the most important thing in the world?
57327bd90fdd8d15006c6b04
Wu of Zhou
176
False
Yellow Emperor
10
Who was known as being a founder of humanism thought in Finland?
5a81f8bc31013a001a335011
True
Duke of Zhou
292
What early adopter and developer is no longer associated with Confucianism?
5a81f8bc31013a001a335012
True
Duke of Zhou
292
Whose words were hidden by the Book of HIstory?
5a81f8bc31013a001a335013
True
King Wu of Zhou
171
Who is known for the thought that humanity is the least important thing in the world?
5a81f8bc31013a001a335014
True
In China, Yellow Emperor is regarded as the humanistic primogenitor.[citation needed] Sage kings such as Yao and Shun are humanistic figures as recorded.[citation needed] King Wu of Zhou has the famous saying: "Humanity is the Ling (efficacious essence) of the world (among all)." Among them Duke of Zhou, respected as a founder of Rujia (Confucianism), is especially prominent and pioneering in humanistic thought. His words were recorded in the Book of History as follows (translation):[citation needed]
When were humanism beliefs mixed with another philosophy by a Taoist thinker?
57327c59b9d445190005eb49
6th century BCE
7
False
What is an example of Humanism based philosophy that focused on ethics?
57327c59b9d445190005eb4a
Silver Rule of Confucianism
139
False
Who can be credited with saying essentially humans are the gods of gods?
57327c59b9d445190005eb4b
Ji Liang
374
False
Where could you read this information?
57327c59b9d445190005eb4c
Zuo Zhuan
363
False
6th century BCE
7
When were humanism beliefs separated from another philosophy by a Taoist thinker?
5a81f99f31013a001a335023
True
Silver Rule of Confucianism
139
What is an example of Humanism based philosophy that discouraged ethics?
5a81f99f31013a001a335024
True
Ji Liang
374
Who can be credited with saying essentially humans are the gods of humans?
5a81f99f31013a001a335025
True
Zuo Zhuan
363
What classic did Ji Liang burn?
5a81f99f31013a001a335026
True
Lao Tzu
39
Who decided to stop teaching Tao?
5a81f99f31013a001a335027
True
In the 6th century BCE, Taoist teacher Lao Tzu espoused a series of naturalistic concepts with some elements of humanistic philosophy. The Silver Rule of Confucianism from Analects XV.24, is an example of ethical philosophy based on human values rather than the supernatural. Humanistic thought is also contained in other Confucian classics, e.g., as recorded in Zuo Zhuan, Ji Liang says, "People is the zhu (master, lord, dominance, owner or origin) of gods. So, to sage kings, people first, gods second"; Neishi Guo says, "Gods, clever, righteous and wholehearted, comply with human." Taoist and Confucian secularism contain elements of moral thought devoid of religious authority or deism however they only partly resembled our modern concept of secularism.
Who was one of the first Greeks to adopt a humanistic outlook?
57327d020fdd8d15006c6b09
Thales of Miletus
48
False
Where did this type of thinking next travel to?
57327d020fdd8d15006c6b0a
Athens
651
False
Who first introduced the idea that matter is made of atoms?
57327d020fdd8d15006c6b0b
Democritus
943
False
Who was the first person to provide education opportunities to females?
57327d020fdd8d15006c6b0c
Epicurus
1324
False
Thales of Miletus
48
Who was one of the last Greeks to adopt a humanistic outlook?
5a81fa2931013a001a33502d
True
Athens
651
Where did this type of thinking end?
5a81fa2931013a001a33502e
True
Democritus
943
Who first dismissed the idea that matter is made of atoms?
5a81fa2931013a001a33502f
True
Epicurus
1324
Who was the only person to provide education opportunities to females?
5a81fa2931013a001a335030
True
Epicurus
1324
Who was the only Greek philosopher to forbid women at his school?
5a81fa2931013a001a335031
True
6th-century BCE pre-Socratic Greek philosophers Thales of Miletus and Xenophanes of Colophon were the first in the region to attempt to explain the world in terms of human reason rather than myth and tradition, thus can be said to be the first Greek humanists. Thales questioned the notion of anthropomorphic gods and Xenophanes refused to recognise the gods of his time and reserved the divine for the principle of unity in the universe. These Ionian Greeks were the first thinkers to assert that nature is available to be studied separately from the supernatural realm. Anaxagoras brought philosophy and the spirit of rational inquiry from Ionia to Athens. Pericles, the leader of Athens during the period of its greatest glory was an admirer of Anaxagoras. Other influential pre-Socratics or rational philosophers include Protagoras (like Anaxagoras a friend of Pericles), known for his famous dictum "man is the measure of all things" and Democritus, who proposed that matter was composed of atoms. Little of the written work of these early philosophers survives and they are known mainly from fragments and quotations in other writers, principally Plato and Aristotle. The historian Thucydides, noted for his scientific and rational approach to history, is also much admired by later humanists. In the 3rd century BCE, Epicurus became known for his concise phrasing of the problem of evil, lack of belief in the afterlife, and human-centred approaches to achieving eudaimonia. He was also the first Greek philosopher to admit women to his school as a rule.
When did the first wave of Humanism reach Europe?
57327da60fdd8d15006c6b25
Middle Ages and the Early Modern period
73
False
Who was thought to be the original believer of humanism in of the Renaissance period?
57327da60fdd8d15006c6b26
Petrarch
181
False
The study and following of classical writers was said to be a solution to what issue?
57327da60fdd8d15006c6b28
Cicero
578
False
Middle Ages and the Early Modern period
73
When did the first wave of Humanism fail to reach Europe?
5a81fdf031013a001a335069
True
Petrarch
181
Who was thought to be the only believer of humanism in of the Renaissance period?
5a81fdf031013a001a33506a
True
age of Darkness
376
What issue was the study and following of classical writers said to be a problem of?
5a81fdf031013a001a33506b
True
Cicero
578
Who did not understand prose?
5a81fdf031013a001a33506c
True
Renaissance humanism
0
What was an intellectual movement forbidden in Europe?
5a81fdf031013a001a33506d
True
Renaissance humanism was an intellectual movement in Europe of the later Middle Ages and the Early Modern period. The 19th-century German historian Georg Voigt (1827–91) identified Petrarch as the first Renaissance humanist. Paul Johnson agrees that Petrarch was "the first to put into words the notion that the centuries between the fall of Rome and the present had been the age of Darkness". According to Petrarch, what was needed to remedy this situation was the careful study and imitation of the great classical authors. For Petrarch and Boccaccio, the greatest master was Cicero, whose prose became the model for both learned (Latin) and vernacular (Italian) prose.
What is one religious text that was thought to eventually lead to a peace between all?
57327e1757eb1f1400fd2d30
the Jewish Kabbalah
232
False
Who gave followers of Humanism the ability to think out of bounds?
57327e1757eb1f1400fd2d32
era of universal agreement
285
False
What cities may have influenced the beliefs of Gemistus Pleto?
57327e1757eb1f1400fd2d33
Florence, Venice, and Rome
587
False
the Jewish Kabbalah
232
What is one religious text that was thought to eventually lead to a war between all?
5a81fe7431013a001a335073
True
Renaissance Church authorities
336
Who gave followers of Humanism the ability to think inside the box?
5a81fe7431013a001a335074
True
Florence, Venice, and Rome
587
What cities may have influenced the fashion of Gemistus Pleto?
5a81fe7431013a001a335075
True
Gemistus Pletho
499
Who denounced being a humanist in 1357?
5a81fe7431013a001a335076
True
In the high Renaissance, in fact, there was a hope that more direct knowledge of the wisdom of antiquity, including the writings of the Church fathers, the earliest known Greek texts of the Christian Gospels, and in some cases even the Jewish Kabbalah, would initiate a harmonious new era of universal agreement. With this end in view, Renaissance Church authorities afforded humanists what in retrospect appears a remarkable degree of freedom of thought. One humanist, the Greek Orthodox Platonist Gemistus Pletho (1355–1452), based in Mystras, Greece (but in contact with humanists in Florence, Venice, and Rome) taught a Christianised version of pagan polytheism.
How were humanist able to identify the development of humanist thought?
57327ed206a3a419008aca89
Latin literary texts
30
False
What was included in this quest for knowledge of the belief system?
57327ed206a3a419008aca8a
Patristic literature
322
False
If your were unsure of the authenticity of an ancient text how could you verify it?
57327ed206a3a419008aca8b
philology
567
False
What caused a large migration of Greek refuges in the 1450s?
57327ed206a3a419008aca8d
Greek manuscripts
1262
False
Latin literary texts
30
How were humanist able to ruin the development of humanist thought?
5a81ff2b31013a001a335085
True
Patristic literature
322
What was missing in this quest for knowledge of the belief system?
5a81ff2b31013a001a335086
True
philology
823
What helps to discredit the authenticity of an ancient text?
5a81ff2b31013a001a335087
True
Byzantine Empire
912
What caused a small migration of Greek refuges in the 1550s?
5a81ff2b31013a001a335088
True
The humanists' close study of Latin literary texts soon enabled them to discern historical differences in the writing styles of different periods. By analogy with what they saw as decline of Latin, they applied the principle of ad fontes, or back to the sources, across broad areas of learning, seeking out manuscripts of Patristic literature as well as pagan authors. In 1439, while employed in Naples at the court of Alfonso V of Aragon (at the time engaged in a dispute with the Papal States) the humanist Lorenzo Valla used stylistic textual analysis, now called philology, to prove that the Donation of Constantine, which purported to confer temporal powers on the Pope of Rome, was an 8th-century forgery. For the next 70 years, however, neither Valla nor any of his contemporaries thought to apply the techniques of philology to other controversial manuscripts in this way. Instead, after the fall of the Byzantine Empire to the Turks in 1453, which brought a flood of Greek Orthodox refugees to Italy, humanist scholars increasingly turned to the study of Neoplatonism and Hermeticism, hoping to bridge the differences between the Greek and Roman Churches, and even between Christianity itself and the non-Christian world. The refugees brought with them Greek manuscripts, not only of Plato and Aristotle, but also of the Christian Gospels, previously unavailable in the Latin West.
When are these texts first able to reach a large amount of people?
57327f3657eb1f1400fd2d39
Erasmus
101
False
Erasmus can be said to have lit the match that sparked a radical change in thinking in his era along with who?
57327f3657eb1f1400fd2d3a
Lefèvre d'Étaples
425
False
What text still remained without the type of thorough review that others texts had received by the 18th century?
57327f3657eb1f1400fd2d3b
the Bible
919
False
1517
6
When are these texts first able to reach no amount of people?
5a81ffc731013a001a335097
True
the Bible
919
What text no longer remains without the type of thorough review that others texts had received by the 12th century?
5a81ffc731013a001a335098
True
German North
583
Where was Renaissance humanism against the law?
5a81ffc731013a001a335099
True
French humanism
647
What focused on dismissing scholarship and philology?
5a81ffc731013a001a33509a
True
Tübingen school
1022
What 18th century German school has no criticisms?
5a81ffc731013a001a33509b
True
After 1517, when the new invention of printing made these texts widely available, the Dutch humanist Erasmus, who had studied Greek at the Venetian printing house of Aldus Manutius, began a philological analysis of the Gospels in the spirit of Valla, comparing the Greek originals with their Latin translations with a view to correcting errors and discrepancies in the latter. Erasmus, along with the French humanist Jacques Lefèvre d'Étaples, began issuing new translations, laying the groundwork for the Protestant Reformation. Henceforth Renaissance humanism, particularly in the German North, became concerned with religion, while Italian and French humanism concentrated increasingly on scholarship and philology addressed to a narrow audience of specialists, studiously avoiding topics that might offend despotic rulers or which might be seen as corrosive of faith. After the Reformation, critical examination of the Bible did not resume until the advent of the so-called Higher criticism of the 19th-century German Tübingen school.
What author had a great impact in Rome?
5732813857eb1f1400fd2d4a
P. Terentius Afer
34
False
Who was able to spread the idea of equality among all through his words?
5732813857eb1f1400fd2d4b
Terence
127
False
From where did this school of thought emerge?
5732813857eb1f1400fd2d4c
the Greeks
310
False
Who again issued the same type of challenge centuries later
5732813857eb1f1400fd2d4d
Seneca
538
False
What was the name of the main belief Terence offered
5732813857eb1f1400fd2d4e
universalism
208
False
P. Terentius Afer
34
What author had little impact in Rome?
5a82047031013a001a3350d3
True
Terence
127
Who was able to spread the idea of equality among all without any words?
5a82047031013a001a3350d4
True
universalism
208
What was the name of the main belief Terence avoided?
5a82047031013a001a3350d5
True
Greeks
314
Where was no school of thought taken seriously?
5a82047031013a001a3350d6
True
The words of the comic playwright P. Terentius Afer reverberated across the Roman world of the mid-2nd century BCE and beyond. Terence, an African and a former slave, was well placed to preach the message of universalism, of the essential unity of the human race, that had come down in philosophical form from the Greeks, but needed the pragmatic muscles of Rome in order to become a practical reality. The influence of Terence's felicitous phrase on Roman thinking about human rights can hardly be overestimated. Two hundred years later Seneca ended his seminal exposition of the unity of humankind with a clarion-call:
Closer examination of what information allowed for further progress in scientific knowledge?
573281b0b3a91d1900202de5
technical writings
41
False
Who felt that looking to these ancient documents for new ideas was not the way to mover forward?
573281b0b3a91d1900202de6
A. C. Crombie
183
False
What group was neutral about this issue as they felt the subject unimportant?
573281b0b3a91d1900202de7
Renaissance humanists
478
False
When did even the scholars and professors began to at least end to examine the works of Aristotle?
573281b0b3a91d1900202de8
16th century,
647
False
Greek and Roman technical writings
25
What information allowed for less progress in scientific knowledge?
5a82053031013a001a3350db
True
A. C. Crombie
183
Who felt that looking to these ancient documents for new ideas was the best way to move forward?
5a82053031013a001a3350dc
True
Renaissance humanists
478
What group was neutral about this issue as they felt the subject too important?
5a82053031013a001a3350dd
True
Renaissance humanists
478
Who was always interested in scientific innovation?
5a82053031013a001a3350de
True
European
95
Who was forbidden to develop science?
5a82053031013a001a3350df
True
Better acquaintance with Greek and Roman technical writings also influenced the development of European science (see the history of science in the Renaissance). This was despite what A. C. Crombie (viewing the Renaissance in the 19th-century manner as a chapter in the heroic March of Progress) calls "a backwards-looking admiration for antiquity", in which Platonism stood in opposition to the Aristotelian concentration on the observable properties of the physical world. But Renaissance humanists, who considered themselves as restoring the glory and nobility of antiquity, had no interest in scientific innovation. However, by the mid-to-late 16th century, even the universities, though still dominated by Scholasticism, began to demand that Aristotle be read in accurate texts edited according to the principles of Renaissance philology, thus setting the stage for Galileo's quarrels with the outmoded habits of Scholasticism.
Who felt that the further examination and knowledge of studies in the arena of humanism could further art?
573282b9b9988014000c764a
Leonardo da Vinci
28
False
Who helped to further the movement away from Scholasticism of the time?
573282b9b9988014000c764b
Juan Luis Vives
222
False
Where did this initiate?
573282b9b9988014000c764c
universities
373
False
What type of philosophy was essential to this forwarding of thought?
573282b9b9988014000c764d
Aristotelian
342
False
Leonardo da Vinci
28
Who felt that the further examination and knowledge of studies in the arena of humanism could limit art?
5a82057f31013a001a3350e5
True
Juan Luis Vives
222
Who helped to further the movement closer to Scholasticism of the time?
5a82057f31013a001a3350e6
True
Aristotelian
342
What type of philosophy was unessential to this forwarding of thought?
5a82057f31013a001a3350e7
True
Leonardo da Vinci
28
Who was the most famous humanist?
5a82057f31013a001a3350e8
True
Just as artist and inventor Leonardo da Vinci – partaking of the zeitgeist though not himself a humanist – advocated study of human anatomy, nature, and weather to enrich Renaissance works of art, so Spanish-born humanist Juan Luis Vives (c. 1493–1540) advocated observation, craft, and practical techniques to improve the formal teaching of Aristotelian philosophy at the universities, helping to free them from the grip of Medieval Scholasticism. Thus, the stage was set for the adoption of an approach to natural philosophy, based on empirical observations and experimentation of the physical universe, making possible the advent of the age of scientific inquiry that followed the Renaissance.
Who was able to reconcile their religious beliefs with those of humanism?
5732836406a3a419008acaad
Early humanists
0
False
What phrase that has come to be associated with a lack of faith was not seen as an issue for Christians?
5732836406a3a419008acaae
secular
231
False
During what time period did secular have a more neutral connotation?
5732836406a3a419008acaaf
Renaissance
336
False
Petrarch felt that although he tried to do his own form of good whose life may have more meaning?
5732836406a3a419008acab0
Gherardo
468
False
Early humanists
0
Who was unable to reconcile their religious beliefs with those of humanism?
5a82062531013a001a335101
True
secular
231
What phrase that has come to be associated with a lack of faith was seen as an issue for Christians?
5a82062531013a001a335102
True
Renaissance
336
What time period did secular have an ultra-positive connotation?
5a82062531013a001a335103
True
Gherardo
468
Who did Petrarch feel superior to in every possible way?
5a82062531013a001a335104
True
the methods of the humanists
825
What had a positive effect on established authority?
5a82062531013a001a335105
True
Early humanists saw no conflict between reason and their Christian faith (see Christian Humanism). They inveighed against the abuses of the Church, but not against the Church itself, much less against religion. For them, the word "secular" carried no connotations of disbelief – that would come later, in the nineteenth century. In the Renaissance to be secular meant simply to be in the world rather than in a monastery. Petrarch frequently admitted that his brother Gherardo's life as a Carthusian monk was superior to his own (although Petrarch himself was in Minor Orders and was employed by the Church all his life). He hoped that he could do some good by winning earthly glory and praising virtue, inferior though that might be to a life devoted solely to prayer. By embracing a non-theistic philosophic base, however, the methods of the humanists, combined with their eloquence, would ultimately have a corrosive effect on established authority.
What abolitionist was greatly affected by the writings of Comte?
5732840c06a3a419008acab5
Harriet Martineau
136
False
What type of idea did he pose which was focused on facets of humanism?
5732840c06a3a419008acab6
atheistic
265
False
What main idea did the English believers of Comte's philosophy take from his writings?
5732840c06a3a419008acab7
religion of humanity
693
False
What currently used word was based in ideas from this philosopher?
5732840c06a3a419008acab8
altruism
840
False
Harriet Martineau
136
What abolitionist was barely affected by the writings of Comte?
5a820e0131013a001a335159
True
atheistic
265
What type of idea did he reject which was focused on facets of humanism?
5a820e0131013a001a33515a
True
Religion of Humanity
321
What main idea did the English believers of Comte's philosophy ban from his writings?
5a820e0131013a001a33515b
True
altruism
840
What formerly used word was based in ideas from this philosopher?
5a820e0131013a001a33515c
True
Eliot and her circle, who included her companion George Henry Lewes (the biographer of Goethe) and the abolitionist and social theorist Harriet Martineau, were much influenced by the positivism of Auguste Comte, whom Martineau had translated. Comte had proposed an atheistic culte founded on human principles – a secular Religion of Humanity (which worshiped the dead, since most humans who have ever lived are dead), complete with holidays and liturgy, modeled on the rituals of what was seen as a discredited and dilapidated Catholicism. Although Comte's English followers, like Eliot and Martineau, for the most part rejected the full gloomy panoply of his system, they liked the idea of a religion of humanity. Comte's austere vision of the universe, his injunction to "vivre pour altrui" ("live for others", from which comes the word "altruism"), and his idealisation of women inform the works of Victorian novelists and poets from George Eliot and Matthew Arnold to Thomas Hardy.
What 19th century author associated his works with humanism?
573284c406a3a419008acac7
F.C.S. Schiller
27
False
When was the first public group for Humanist founded?
573284c406a3a419008acac8
1929
169
False
Who created this group?
573284c406a3a419008acac9
Charles Francis Potter
175
False
When did Charles Potter and Clara Potter publish their first writings on Humanism?
573284c406a3a419008acaca
1930
393
False
F.C.S. Schiller
27
What 15th century author associated his works with humanism?
5a820eac31013a001a335161
True
1929
169
When was the worst public group for Humanists founded?
5a820eac31013a001a335162
True
Charles Francis Potter
175
Who destroyed the First Humanist Society of New York?
5a820eac31013a001a335163
True
1930
393
When did Charles Potter and Clara Potter hide their first writings on Humanism?
5a820eac31013a001a335164
True
Clara Cook Potter
415
Who burned every copy of the book Humanism: A New Religion?
5a820eac31013a001a335165
True
Active in the early 1920s, F.C.S. Schiller labelled his work "humanism" but for Schiller the term referred to the pragmatist philosophy he shared with William James. In 1929, Charles Francis Potter founded the First Humanist Society of New York whose advisory board included Julian Huxley, John Dewey, Albert Einstein and Thomas Mann. Potter was a minister from the Unitarian tradition and in 1930 he and his wife, Clara Cook Potter, published Humanism: A New Religion. Throughout the 1930s, Potter was an advocate of such liberal causes as, women’s rights, access to birth control, "civil divorce laws", and an end to capital punishment.
Who wotked with Carl Rogers on humanistic phycology?
573284fdb3a91d1900202e07
Abraham Maslow
316
False
What is human phycology?
573284fdb3a91d1900202e08
psychological perspective
27
False
In what century did humanistic phycology rise in prominence?
573284fdb3a91d1900202e09
20th century
89
False
They introduced it in response to what?
573284fdb3a91d1900202e0a
psychoanalysis
442
False
Abraham Maslow
316
Who worked with Carl Rogers on animal psychology?
5a821bcb31013a001a335215
True
psychological perspective
27
What does humanistic psychology seek to misunderstand?
5a821bcb31013a001a335216
True
20th century
89
What century did humanistic psychology lose popularity?
5a821bcb31013a001a335217
True
existentialism and phenomenology
519
What philosophies are now discredited?
5a821bcb31013a001a335218
True
Sigmund Freud
117
Who was not accepted in their pursuits of psychoanalysis?
5a821bcb31013a001a335219
True
Humanistic psychology is a psychological perspective which rose to prominence in the mid-20th century in response to Sigmund Freud's psychoanalytic theory and B. F. Skinner's Behaviorism. The approach emphasizes an individual's inherent drive towards self-actualization and creativity. Psychologists Carl Rogers and Abraham Maslow introduced a positive, humanistic psychology in response to what they viewed as the overly pessimistic view of psychoanalysis in the early 1960s. Other sources include the philosophies of existentialism and phenomenology.
Who became responsible in part for the editing of The New Humanist?
5732856957eb1f1400fd2d68
Raymond B. Bragg,
0
False
What groups thoughts did he seek to include?
5732856957eb1f1400fd2d69
Western Unitarian Conference
168
False
What was the name of the material that was produced from this groups and the opinions of others?
5732856957eb1f1400fd2d6a
Humanist Manifesto
314
False
How many cornerstones of this new way of thinking or religion were presented>
5732856957eb1f1400fd2d6b
15
669
False
Raymond B. Bragg
0
Who became responsible for the stealing of The New Humanist?
5a82107a31013a001a33517f
True
Western Unitarian Conference
168
What groups thoughts did he seek to exclude?
5a82107a31013a001a335180
True
Humanist Manifesto
314
What was the name of the material that was destroyed by this group and the opinions of others?
5a82107a31013a001a335181
True
1933
336
What year was the Humanist Manifesto lost forever?
5a82107a31013a001a335182
True
Raymond B. Bragg, the associate editor of The New Humanist, sought to consolidate the input of Leon Milton Birkhead, Charles Francis Potter, and several members of the Western Unitarian Conference. Bragg asked Roy Wood Sellars to draft a document based on this information which resulted in the publication of the Humanist Manifesto in 1933. Potter's book and the Manifesto became the cornerstones of modern humanism, the latter declaring a new religion by saying, "any religion that can hope to be a synthesising and dynamic force for today must be shaped for the needs of this age. To establish such a religion is a major necessity of the present." It then presented 15 theses of humanism as foundational principles for this new religion.
What was the main action of humanism during the Renaissance>
5732860f57eb1f1400fd2d7a
cultural and educational reform
40
False
When did a new term for those who followed Humanism emerge?
5732860f57eb1f1400fd2d7b
late fifteenth century
176
False
What was the new term for believers of Humanism philosophy?
5732860f57eb1f1400fd2d7c
umanisti
226
False
Where was one main concentration of Humanism?
5732860f57eb1f1400fd2d7d
Naples
708
False
cultural and educational reform
40
What was the main enemy of humanism during the Renaissance?
5a8210e931013a001a335187
True
late fifteenth century
176
When did a new term for those who followed Humanism become impossible?
5a8210e931013a001a335188
True
umanisti
226
What was the unrecognized term for believers of Humanism philosophy?
5a8210e931013a001a335189
True
Naples
708
Where was there no concentration of Humanism?
5a8210e931013a001a33518a
True
Aristotelian philosophy
431
What type of philosophy was never taken seriously?
5a8210e931013a001a33518b
True
Renaissance humanism was an activity of cultural and educational reform engaged in by civic and ecclesiastical chancellors, book collectors, educators, and writers, who by the late fifteenth century began to be referred to as umanisti – "humanists". It developed during the fourteenth and the beginning of the fifteenth centuries, and was a response to the challenge of scholastic university education, which was then dominated by Aristotelian philosophy and logic. Scholasticism focused on preparing men to be doctors, lawyers or professional theologians, and was taught from approved textbooks in logic, natural philosophy, medicine, law and theology. There were important centres of humanism at Florence, Naples, Rome, Venice, Mantua, Ferrara, and Urbino.
What was it about the utilitatian beliefs that humanism believers did not like?
573286cbb3a91d1900202e19
narrow pedantry
60
False
What group that had been to this point neglected was included in this thought?
573286cbb3a91d1900202e1a
women
152
False
What foundation of study allowed for the accomplishment of the goal of a scholarly people?
573286cbb3a91d1900202e1b
humanities
422
False
Was the humanism of the time limited to scholars?
573286cbb3a91d1900202e1c
pervasive cultural mode
628
False
narrow pedantry
60
What was it about the utilitarian beliefs that humanism believers loved?
5a82119631013a001a33519b
True
humanities
422
What foundation of study restricted the accomplishment of the goal of a scholarly people?
5a82119631013a001a33519c
True
Humanism
613
What was the least pervasive cultural mode?
5a82119631013a001a33519d
True
Humanists
0
Who disliked women the most?
5a82119631013a001a33519e
True
Rabelais
704
Who was considered an isolated imbecile?
5a82119631013a001a33519f
True
Humanists reacted against this utilitarian approach and the narrow pedantry associated with it. They sought to create a citizenry (frequently including women) able to speak and write with eloquence and clarity and thus capable of engaging the civic life of their communities and persuading others to virtuous and prudent actions. This was to be accomplished through the study of the studia humanitatis, today known as the humanities: grammar, rhetoric, history, poetry and moral philosophy. As a program to revive the cultural – and particularly the literary – legacy and moral philosophy of classical antiquity, Humanism was a pervasive cultural mode and not the program of a few isolated geniuses like Rabelais or Erasmus as is still sometimes popularly believed.
What is contemporary humanism optimistic about?
57328740b3a91d1900202e21
capacity of people
61
False
What is the main goal of humanism optimistic?
57328740b3a91d1900202e22
human flourishing
351
False
What is human flourishing?
57328740b3a91d1900202e23
making life better
370
False
What doesnt conetemporary humanism  believe about human nature?
57328740b3a91d1900202e24
purely good
136
False
capacity of people
61
What is contemporary humanism upset about?
5a821b2131013a001a33520b
True
human flourishing
351
What is the lowest goal of humanism?
5a821b2131013a001a33520c
True
making life better for all humans
370
What is human flourishing against?
5a821b2131013a001a33520d
True
purely good
136
What doesn't contemporary humanism forget about human nature being?
5a821b2131013a001a33520e
True
Alfred North Whitehead
709
What English mathematician had no interest in philosophy?
5a821b2131013a001a33520f
True
Contemporary humanism entails a qualified optimism about the capacity of people, but it does not involve believing that human nature is purely good or that all people can live up to the Humanist ideals without help. If anything, there is recognition that living up to one's potential is hard work and requires the help of others. The ultimate goal is human flourishing; making life better for all humans, and as the most conscious species, also promoting concern for the welfare of other sentient beings and the planet as a whole. The focus is on doing good and living well in the here and now, and leaving the world a better place for those who come after. In 1925, the English mathematician and philosopher Alfred North Whitehead cautioned: "The prophecy of Francis Bacon has now been fulfilled; and man, who at times dreamt of himself as a little lower than the angels, has submitted to become the servant and the minister of nature. It still remains to be seen whether the same actor can play both parts".
What was included in religious humanism that was similiar to other religion?
573287a106a3a419008acacf
religious rituals
73
False
When did practicers of religious humanism form under the name Humanism?
573287a106a3a419008acad0
19th and early 20th centuries
272
False
Who founded a religion whose cornerstone was deism?
573287a106a3a419008acad1
Jacques Hébert
510
False
During what time was a religious state replaced in the Notre Dame cathedral with a symbol of Humanism?
573287a106a3a419008acad2
1793
576
False
religious rituals
73
What was excluded in religious humanism that was similiar to other religion?
5a8216b131013a001a3351c3
True
19th and early 20th centuries
272
When did practicers of religious humanism stop the name Humanism?
5a8216b131013a001a3351c4
True
Jacques Hébert
510
Who eliminated a religion whose cornerstone was deism?
5a8216b131013a001a3351c5
True
1793
576
What time was a religious state replaced in the Notre Dame cathedral with a symbol of Atheism?
5a8216b131013a001a3351c6
True
Lady Liberty
697
What couldn't replace the Virgin Mary on any altars?
5a8216b131013a001a3351c7
True
Religious humanism is an integration of humanist ethical philosophy with religious rituals and beliefs that centre on human needs, interests, and abilities. Though practitioners of religious humanism did not officially organise under the name of "humanism" until the late 19th and early 20th centuries, non-theistic religions paired with human-centred ethical philosophy have a long history. The Cult of Reason (French: Culte de la Raison) was a religion based on deism devised during the French Revolution by Jacques Hébert, Pierre Gaspard Chaumette and their supporters. In 1793 during the French Revolution, the cathedral Notre Dame de Paris was turned into a "Temple to Reason" and for a time Lady Liberty replaced the Virgin Mary on several altars. In the 1850s, Auguste Comte, the Father of Sociology, founded Positivism, a "religion of humanity". One of the earliest forerunners of contemporary chartered humanist organisations was the Humanistic Religious Association formed in 1853 in London. This early group was democratically organised, with male and female members participating in the election of the leadership and promoted knowledge of the sciences, philosophy, and the arts. The Ethical Culture movement was founded in 1876. The movement's founder, Felix Adler, a former member of the Free Religious Association, conceived of Ethical Culture as a new religion that would retain the ethical message at the heart of all religions. Ethical Culture was religious in the sense of playing a defining role in people's lives and addressing issues of ultimate concern.
Who was one early naysayer of Humanism?
57328842b9988014000c7666
Ezra Pound
112
False
What was the main reason they disagreed with the beliefs?
57328842b9988014000c7667
sentimental
179
False
Who stated Humanism creates of people placeholder?
57328842b9988014000c7668
Timothy Laurie
805
False
Who stated that this argument was in fact support of Humanism?
57328842b9988014000c7669
Kate Soper
1060
False
Ezra Pound
112
Who was the last naysayer of Humanism?
5a82180f31013a001a3351cd
True
sentimental
179
What was the main reason they agreed with the beliefs?
5a82180f31013a001a3351ce
True
Timothy Laurie
805
Who was against Humanism the most?
5a82180f31013a001a3351cf
True
Kate Soper
1060
Who had no interest in discussing Humanism?
5a82180f31013a001a3351d0
True
Polemics about humanism have sometimes assumed paradoxical twists and turns. Early 20th century critics such as Ezra Pound, T. E. Hulme, and T. S. Eliot considered humanism to be sentimental "slop" (Hulme)[citation needed] or "an old bitch gone in the teeth" (Pound) and wanted to go back to a more manly, authoritarian society such as (they believed) existed in the Middle Ages. Postmodern critics who are self-described anti-humanists, such as Jean-François Lyotard and Michel Foucault, have asserted that humanism posits an overarching and excessively abstract notion of humanity or universal human nature, which can then be used as a pretext for imperialism and domination of those deemed somehow less than human. "Humanism fabricates the human as much as it fabricates the nonhuman animal", suggests Timothy Laurie, turning the human into what he calls "a placeholder for a range of attributes that have been considered most virtuous among humans (e.g. rationality, altruism), rather than most commonplace (e.g. hunger, anger)". Nevertheless, philosopher Kate Soper notes that by faulting humanism for falling short of its own benevolent ideals, anti-humanism thus frequently "secretes a humanist rhetoric".
In what year was the book humanism published?
5732889806a3a419008acae1
1997
23
False
In what century was the horrific wars?
5732889806a3a419008acae2
20th century
795
False
What is the only alternative to bigotry and persecution on many occasions?
5732889806a3a419008acae3
humanism
1232
False
Who wrote the book humanism?
5732889806a3a419008acae4
Tony Davies
30
False
1997
23
What year was the book humanism forgotten?
5a82191531013a001a3351ef
True
20th century
795
What century had no wars?
5a82191531013a001a3351f0
True
humanism
191
What is the only alternative to compassion and empathy on many occasions?
5a82191531013a001a3351f1
True
Tony Davies
30
Who destroyed the book humanism?
5a82191531013a001a3351f2
True
humanists
380
What did the Russian philosopher Heidegger consider himself on the model of the ancient Greeks?
5a82191531013a001a3351f3
True
In his book, Humanism (1997), Tony Davies calls these critics "humanist anti-humanists". Critics of antihumanism, most notably Jürgen Habermas, counter that while antihumanists may highlight humanism's failure to fulfil its emancipatory ideal, they do not offer an alternative emancipatory project of their own. Others, like the German philosopher Heidegger considered themselves humanists on the model of the ancient Greeks, but thought humanism applied only to the German "race" and specifically to the Nazis and thus, in Davies' words, were anti-humanist humanists. Such a reading of Heidegger's thought is itself deeply controversial; Heidegger includes his own views and critique of Humanism in Letter On Humanism. Davies acknowledges that after the horrific experiences of the wars of the 20th century "it should no longer be possible to formulate phrases like 'the destiny of man' or the 'triumph of human reason' without an instant consciousness of the folly and brutality they drag behind them". For "it is almost impossible to think of a crime that has not been committed in the name of human reason". Yet, he continues, "it would be unwise to simply abandon the ground occupied by the historical humanisms. For one thing humanism remains on many occasions the only available alternative to bigotry and persecution. The freedom to speak and write, to organise and campaign in defence of individual or collective interests, to protest and disobey: all these can only be articulated in humanist terms."
What allowed for a deeper understanding and personal exploration of older philosophers theories?
5732a488d6dcfa19001e8a58
ancient manuscripts
72
False
Who were the Humanists in agreement with about using these manuscripts in their quests for pure Christian living?
5732a488d6dcfa19001e8a59
Church fathers
255
False
Who was the most influential supporter of the ideals of Terence?
5732a488d6dcfa19001e8a5a
Saint Augustine
617
False
Who quoted the line of Terence most notably?
5732a488d6dcfa19001e8a5b
Seneca
1035
False
ancient manuscripts
72
What allowed for a more shallow understanding and personal exploration of older philosophers theories?
5a82003531013a001a3350ab
True
Church fathers
255
Who were the Humanists in disagreement with about using these manuscripts in their quests for pure Christian living?
5a82003531013a001a3350ac
True
Saint Augustine
617
Who was the least influential supporter of the ideals of Terence?
5a82003531013a001a3350ad
True
Seneca
1035
Who couldn't quote a line of Terence?
5a82003531013a001a3350ae
True
The ad fontes principle
0
What principle had no applications?
5a82003531013a001a3350af
True
The ad fontes principle also had many applications. The re-discovery of ancient manuscripts brought a more profound and accurate knowledge of ancient philosophical schools such as Epicureanism, and Neoplatonism, whose Pagan wisdom the humanists, like the Church fathers of old, tended, at least initially, to consider as deriving from divine revelation and thus adaptable to a life of Christian virtue. The line from a drama of Terence, Homo sum, humani nihil a me alienum puto (or with nil for nihil), meaning "I am a human being, I think nothing human alien to me", known since antiquity through the endorsement of Saint Augustine, gained renewed currency as epitomising the humanist attitude. The statement, in a play modeled or borrowed from a (now lost) Greek comedy by Menander, may have originated in a lighthearted vein – as a comic rationale for an old man's meddling – but it quickly became a proverb and throughout the ages was quoted with a deeper meaning, by Cicero and Saint Augustine, to name a few, and most notably by Seneca. Richard Bauman writes:
What writing was considered a bridge between two other major writings?
5732a574cc179a14009dabcc
The Age of Reason
26
False
Which century was the first writing from?
5732a574cc179a14009dabcd
18th-century
181
False
Who states imply that humans are their own Gods?
5732a574cc179a14009dabce
Feuerbach
898
False
What was the origin of the second writing?
5732a574cc179a14009dabcf
German
477
False
The Age of Reason
26
What writing was considered a barrier between two other major writings?
5a82070631013a001a33510b
True
18th-century
181
Which century was the only writing from?
5a82070631013a001a33510c
True
German
477
What was the enemy of the second writing?
5a82070631013a001a33510d
True
Feuerbach
898
Who disagreed with the statement "Homo homini deus est"?
5a82070631013a001a33510e
True
Davies identifies Paine's The Age of Reason as "the link between the two major narratives of what Jean-François Lyotard calls the narrative of legitimation": the rationalism of the 18th-century Philosophes and the radical, historically based German 19th-century Biblical criticism of the Hegelians David Friedrich Strauss and Ludwig Feuerbach. "The first is political, largely French in inspiration, and projects 'humanity as the hero of liberty'. The second is philosophical, German, seeks the totality and autonomy of knowledge, and stresses understanding rather than freedom as the key to human fulfilment and emancipation. The two themes converged and competed in complex ways in the 19th century and beyond, and between them set the boundaries of its various humanisms. Homo homini deus est ("The human being is a god to humanity" or "god is nothing [other than] the human being to himself"), Feuerbach had written.
Geological_history_of_Earth
The initial state of earth was what?
5732884d06a3a419008acad7
molten
20
False
What formed on the outside of the earth after it cooled?
5732884d06a3a419008acad8
a solid crust
152
False
How does the mass of the moon compare to earth?
5732884d06a3a419008acad9
about 10% of the Earth's mass
299
False
What created a primordial atmosphere on earth?
5732884d06a3a419008acada
Outgassing and volcanic activity
563
False
Ice from what source helped to create earths oceans?
5732884d06a3a419008acadb
comets
688
False
volcanism and frequent collisions with other bodies
42
What caused the Earths early crust to become molten?
5a4e58a7755ab9001a10f42b
True
the outer layer of the planet
107
What cooled allowing water to collect?
5a4e58a7755ab9001a10f42c
True
the outer layer of the planet cooled to form a solid crust
107
What happened when water started to accumulate on the surface?
5a4e58a7755ab9001a10f42d
True
Mars-sized object with about 10% of the Earth's mass impacting the planet
276
What caused a piece of the earth to break of and form the moon?
5a4e58a7755ab9001a10f42e
True
about 10% of the Earth's mass
299
How does the mass of the moon compare to the earths mass?
5a4e58a7755ab9001a10f42f
True
Earth was initially molten due to extreme volcanism and frequent collisions with other bodies. Eventually, the outer layer of the planet cooled to form a solid crust when water began accumulating in the atmosphere. The Moon formed soon afterwards, possibly as the result of a Mars-sized object with about 10% of the Earth's mass impacting the planet in a glancing blow. Some of this object's mass merged with the Earth, significantly altering its internal composition, and a portion was ejected into space. Some of the material survived to form an orbiting moon. Outgassing and volcanic activity produced the primordial atmosphere. Condensing water vapor, augmented by ice delivered from comets, produced the oceans.
Powerful volcanism contributed to cause early earth to be in what state?
5732897457eb1f1400fd2d88
molten
20
False
What occurred in the atmosphere of the earth after the crust was formed?
5732897457eb1f1400fd2d89
water began accumulating
171
False
What size of object may have created the moon?
5732897457eb1f1400fd2d8a
Mars
276
False
When water was creating the oceans what was happening to atmospheric water vapor?
5732897457eb1f1400fd2d8b
Condensing
632
False
a solid crust
152
What formed as water accumulated?
5a4e5b40755ab9001a10f435
True
volcanism and frequent collisions
42
What cused the Earths solid crust to become molten?
5a4e5b40755ab9001a10f436
True
about 10% of the Earth's mass
299
How does the mass of the moon compare to the mass of the Earth?
5a4e5b40755ab9001a10f437
True
a Mars-sized object
274
What broke away a piece of the earth to form the moon?
5a4e5b40755ab9001a10f438
True
volcanic activity
578
What caused water vapor to evaporate?
5a4e5b40755ab9001a10f439
True
Earth was initially molten due to extreme volcanism and frequent collisions with other bodies. Eventually, the outer layer of the planet cooled to form a solid crust when water began accumulating in the atmosphere. The Moon formed soon afterwards, possibly as the result of a Mars-sized object with about 10% of the Earth's mass impacting the planet in a glancing blow. Some of this object's mass merged with the Earth, significantly altering its internal composition, and a portion was ejected into space. Some of the material survived to form an orbiting moon. Outgassing and volcanic activity produced the primordial atmosphere. Condensing water vapor, augmented by ice delivered from comets, produced the oceans.
During what time period was the Archean era?
57328a3b57eb1f1400fd2d90
4,000 to 2,500 million years ago
32
False
During what period did the earths crust cooling allow the creation of plates?
57328a3b57eb1f1400fd2d91
Archean
23
False
It is believed that a very warm earth would lead to more recycling of what?
57328a3b57eb1f1400fd2d92
crustal material
372
False
What might have a very hot earth stopped from occurring?
57328a3b57eb1f1400fd2d93
cratonisation and continent formation
414
False
What do some believe accounts for the small amount of Archean rocks?
57328a3b57eb1f1400fd2d94
erosion and subsequent tectonic events
639
False
early Archean
17
During what period did tectonic activity become like it is today?
5a4e6782755ab9001a10f43f
True
rocks and continental plates began to form
162
What happened as the Earth's crust cooled following the Archean period?
5a4e6782755ab9001a10f440
True
tectonic activity
269
What do scientist think was made more vigerous by the Earth's cooling?
5a4e6782755ab9001a10f441
True
crustal material
372
What was recycled more as the earth cooled?
5a4e6782755ab9001a10f442
True
The Earth of the early Archean (4,000 to 2,500 million years ago) may have had a different tectonic style. During this time, the Earth's crust cooled enough that rocks and continental plates began to form. Some scientists think because the Earth was hotter, that plate tectonic activity was more vigorous than it is today, resulting in a much greater rate of recycling of crustal material. This may have prevented cratonisation and continent formation until the mantle cooled and convection slowed down. Others argue that the subcontinental lithospheric mantle is too buoyant to subduct and that the lack of Archean rocks is a function of erosion and subsequent tectonic events.
What are Archean rocks composed of, in general?
57328ad357eb1f1400fd2d9a
metamorphized deep-water sediments
64
False
What type of formation is indicated by low and high grade metamorphic rocks?
57328ad357eb1f1400fd2d9b
Greenstone
178
False
From where did high grade Archean rocks originate?
57328ad357eb1f1400fd2d9c
volcanic island arcs
331
False
Low grade metamorphic rocks are composed of what, generally?
57328ad357eb1f1400fd2d9d
deep-sea sediments
401
False
What is a greenstone belt?
57328ad357eb1f1400fd2d9e
sutured protocontinents
532
False
deep-water sediments
78
What kind od sediments where Proterozoic rocks made from?
5a4e6ed4755ab9001a10f447
True
Greenstone belts
178
What kind od belts often formed during the Proterozoic period?
5a4e6ed4755ab9001a10f448
True
low-grade metamorphic rocks
263
What single type of rock formed Greenstone belts?
5a4e6ed4755ab9001a10f449
True
volcanic island arcs
331
What kind of volcanic rock formed low-density metamorphic rock?
5a4e6ed4755ab9001a10f44a
True
deep-sea sediments
401
What kind of sediment formed high-density metamorphic rock?
5a4e6ed4755ab9001a10f44b
True
In contrast to the Proterozoic, Archean rocks are often heavily metamorphized deep-water sediments, such as graywackes, mudstones, volcanic sediments and banded iron formations. Greenstone belts are typical Archean formations, consisting of alternating high- and low-grade metamorphic rocks. The high-grade rocks were derived from volcanic island arcs, while the low-grade metamorphic rocks represent deep-sea sediments eroded from the neighboring island frogs and deposited in a forearc basin. In short, greenstone belts represent sutured protocontinents.
During what time period did the Proterozoic era occur?
57328b7c06a3a419008acae9
2,500 to 541 million years ago
40
False
What era came before the Proterozoic era?
57328b7c06a3a419008acaea
Archean
172
False
In what type of sea did typical Proterozoic geology come to be?
57328b7c06a3a419008acaeb
shallow epicontinental seas
251
False
What type of continental behavior was unique to the Proterozoic?
57328b7c06a3a419008acaec
rapid continental accretion
442
False
What is the name for the large super continent that broke apart 750 million years ago?
57328b7c06a3a419008acaed
Rodinia
624
False
Archean
117
What period has a more complete geological record than the Proterozoic?
5a4e78a0755ab9001a10f479
True
deposits
156
what was layed down in deep seas during the Proterozoic period?
5a4e78a0755ab9001a10f47a
True
strata
211
What was made in shallow seas during the Archean period?
5a4e78a0755ab9001a10f47b
True
rapid continental accretion
442
What type of continental behavior was a unique to the Archean period?
5a4e78a0755ab9001a10f47c
True
supercontinent
499
What broke apart 750 million years ago and was called Pannotia?
5a4e78a0755ab9001a10f47d
True
The geologic record of the Proterozoic (2,500 to 541 million years ago) is more complete than that for the preceding Archean. In contrast to the deep-water deposits of the Archean, the Proterozoic features many strata that were laid down in extensive shallow epicontinental seas; furthermore, many of these rocks are less metamorphosed than Archean-age ones, and plenty are unaltered. Study of these rocks show that the eon featured massive, rapid continental accretion (unique to the Proterozoic), supercontinent cycles, and wholly modern orogenic activity. Roughly 750 million years ago, the earliest-known supercontinent Rodinia, began to break apart. The continents later recombined to form Pannotia, 600–540 Ma.
During what period was the Paleozoic era?
57328bf706a3a419008acaf3
541 to 252 million years ago
35
False
How many periods of geology are within the Paleozoic era?
57328bf706a3a419008acaf4
six
92
False
The Permian is an example of what?
57328bf706a3a419008acaf5
geologic periods
96
False
After what continental event did the Paleozoic begin?
57328bf706a3a419008acaf6
breakup of a supercontinent called Pannotia
273
False
What continent was formed at the end of the Paleozoic?
57328bf706a3a419008acaf7
Pangaea
566
False
The Paleozoic
0
What period ended 541 million years ago?
5a4e7ec8755ab9001a10f497
True
Paleozoic
4
What period started right before the breakup of Pannotia?
5a4e7ec8755ab9001a10f498
True
global
337
What was the scope of the ice age that began at the same time as the Paleozoic period?
5a4e7ec8755ab9001a10f499
True
Pangaea,
566
What was the name of the superconinent that formed at the begining of the Paleozoic?
5a4e7ec8755ab9001a10f49a
True
a substantial number of relatively small continents
425
What did Pangea break into at the end of the Paleozoic?
5a4e7ec8755ab9001a10f49b
True
The Paleozoic spanned from roughly 541 to 252 million years ago (Ma) and is subdivided into six geologic periods; from oldest to youngest they are the Cambrian, Ordovician, Silurian, Devonian, Carboniferous and Permian. Geologically, the Paleozoic starts shortly after the breakup of a supercontinent called Pannotia and at the end of a global ice age. Throughout the early Paleozoic, the Earth's landmass was broken up into a substantial number of relatively small continents. Toward the end of the era the continents gathered together into a supercontinent called Pangaea, which included most of the Earth's land area.
At what rough time did the Cambrian era start?
57328cb6b9988014000c766e
541.0 ± 1.0 Ma.
77
False
What were the continents of the Cambrian area believed to have formerly been a part of?
57328cb6b9988014000c766f
Pannotia
201
False
What continent moved to the southern-most part of the earth in the Cambrian era?
57328cb6b9988014000c7670
Gondwana
466
False
What continent ranged over the majority of the southern hemisphere of earth in the Cambrian?
57328cb6b9988014000c7671
Panthalassa
515
False
Baltica and Sibera are examples of what thing, during the Cambrian era?
57328cb6b9988014000c7672
independent continents
385
False
The Cambrian
0
What period is a minor division in the geologic timescale?
5a4e82d9755ab9001a10f4ab
True
Pannotia
201
What supercontinent was formed from the coninents of the Cambrian?
5a4e82d9755ab9001a10f4ac
True
Cambrian
4
During what period were the oceans widespread and deep?
5a4e82d9755ab9001a10f4ad
True
Continental
289
What drift rates were high during the Cambrian?
5a4e82d9755ab9001a10f4ae
True
Cambrian
4
When did Pannotia begin to drift towards the South Pole?
5a4e82d9755ab9001a10f4af
True
The Cambrian is a major division of the geologic timescale that begins about 541.0 ± 1.0 Ma. Cambrian continents are thought to have resulted from the breakup of a Neoproterozoic supercontinent called Pannotia. The waters of the Cambrian period appear to have been widespread and shallow. Continental drift rates may have been anomalously high. Laurentia, Baltica and Siberia remained independent continents following the break-up of the supercontinent of Pannotia. Gondwana started to drift toward the South Pole. Panthalassa covered most of the southern hemisphere, and minor oceans included the Proto-Tethys Ocean, Iapetus Ocean and Khanty Ocean.
How long ago did the Ordovician period begin?
57328db8b9988014000c7678
485.4 ± 1.9 Ma.
123
False
Which event precipitated the Ordovician period?
57328db8b9988014000c7679
the Cambrian-Ordovician extinction
65
False
What was the name of the large southernmost continent during the Ordovician?
57328db8b9988014000c767a
Gondwana
231
False
Which ocean decreased in size with the movement of Baltica in the Ordovician?
57328db8b9988014000c767b
Iapetus Ocean
600
False
What continent fractured off Gondwana in the direction of Laurentia?
57328db8b9988014000c767c
Avalonia
644
False
The Ordovician Period
0
What was the name of the period that ended with a major extinction event?
5a4e869d755ab9001a10f4c9
True
the Cambrian-Ordovician extinction
65
What extinction event occured at the end of the Ordocician Period?
5a4e869d755ab9001a10f4ca
True
485.4 ± 1.9 Ma
123
When was the extinction event that ended the Ordovician period?
5a4e869d755ab9001a10f4cb
True
Gondwana
241
What contenent formed several southern coninents during the Ordovician?
5a4e869d755ab9001a10f4cc
True
Gondwana
241
What continent drifted from the South Pole to the equator?
5a4e869d755ab9001a10f4cd
True
The Ordovician Period started at a major extinction event called the Cambrian-Ordovician extinction events some time about 485.4 ± 1.9 Ma. During the Ordovician the southern continents were collected into a single continent called Gondwana. Gondwana started the period in the equatorial latitudes and, as the period progressed, drifted toward the South Pole. Early in the Ordovician the continents Laurentia, Siberia and Baltica were still independent continents (since the break-up of the supercontinent Pannotia earlier), but Baltica began to move toward Laurentia later in the period, causing the Iapetus Ocean to shrink between them. Also, Avalonia broke free from Gondwana and began to head north toward Laurentia. The Rheic Ocean was formed as a result of this. By the end of the period, Gondwana had neared or approached the pole and was largely glaciated.
What type of climate was normal in the Ordovician period?
57328e9957eb1f1400fd2da4
stable greenhouse conditions
150
False
What ice age signaled the end of the normal climate in the Ordovician period?
57328e9957eb1f1400fd2da5
the Hirnantian faunal stage
101
False
Oxygen from what kind of fossil were used to date the Hirnantian faunal stage?
57328e9957eb1f1400fd2da6
brachiopods
303
False
How many years is the Hirnantian faunal stage believed to have lasted?
57328e9957eb1f1400fd2da7
0.5 to 1.5 million years
357
False
What started to develop on Gondwana as it moved over the south pole?
57328e9957eb1f1400fd2da8
ice caps
613
False
Hirnantian faunal stage
105
What faunel stage triggered the greenhouse conditions of the Ordovician?
5a4e8846755ab9001a10f4dd
True
oxygen isotopes in fossil brachiopods
277
What showed that the ice age lasted longer than originally thought?
5a4e8846755ab9001a10f4de
True
The ice age
206
What is know believed to have lasted more than 1.5 million years?
5a4e8846755ab9001a10f4df
True
carbon dioxide
431
What levels rose in the atmosphere prior to the ice age?
5a4e8846755ab9001a10f4e0
True
shallow seas
503
Where where the oranisms laffected byrisingcarbon dioxide levels?
5a4e8846755ab9001a10f4e1
True
The most-commonly accepted theory is that these events were triggered by the onset of an ice age, in the Hirnantian faunal stage that ended the long, stable greenhouse conditions typical of the Ordovician. The ice age was probably not as long-lasting as once thought; study of oxygen isotopes in fossil brachiopods shows that it was probably no longer than 0.5 to 1.5 million years. The event was preceded by a fall in atmospheric carbon dioxide (from 7000ppm to 4400ppm) which selectively affected the shallow seas where most organisms lived. As the southern supercontinent Gondwana drifted over the South Pole, ice caps formed on it. Evidence of these ice caps have been detected in Upper Ordovician rock strata of North Africa and then-adjacent northeastern South America, which were south-polar locations at the time.
When was the Silurian period believed to have begun?
57328f64b9988014000c7682
443.8 ± 1.5 Ma.
78
False
Compared to the Ordovician glaciation, how big were the ice caps on Gondwana during the Silurian?
57328f64b9988014000c7683
less extensive
239
False
What did the melting of ice on Gondwana add to?
57328f64b9988014000c7684
a rise in sea levels
352
False
Which supercontinent formed during the Silurian?
57328f64b9988014000c7685
Euramerica
619
False
Which ocean ranged the majority of the northern hemisphere in the Silurian period?
57328f64b9988014000c7686
Panthalassa
649
False
Gondwana
115
What continent continued to drift northward during the Silurian?
5a4e9663755ab9001a10f519
True
Silurian ice caps
216
What was more extensive compared to the Ordovician glaciations?
5a4e9663755ab9001a10f51a
True
The melting of ice caps and glaciers
300
What lead to a rise in sea levels during the Ordovician?
5a4e9663755ab9001a10f51b
True
cratons and continent fragments
493
what was formed from Euramerica breaking up?
5a4e9663755ab9001a10f51c
True
Panthalassa
649
What large ocean covered most of the Southern hemisphere?
5a4e9663755ab9001a10f51d
True
The Silurian is a major division of the geologic timescale that started about 443.8 ± 1.5 Ma. During the Silurian, Gondwana continued a slow southward drift to high southern latitudes, but there is evidence that the Silurian ice caps were less extensive than those of the late Ordovician glaciation. The melting of ice caps and glaciers contributed to a rise in sea levels, recognizable from the fact that Silurian sediments overlie eroded Ordovician sediments, forming an unconformity. Other cratons and continent fragments drifted together near the equator, starting the formation of a second supercontinent known as Euramerica. The vast ocean of Panthalassa covered most of the northern hemisphere. Other minor oceans include Proto-Tethys, Paleo-Tethys, Rheic Ocean, a seaway of Iapetus Ocean (now in between Avalonia and Laurentia), and newly formed Ural Ocean.
During what time period was the Devonian era?
573295af0d034c1900ab002b
419 to 359 Ma.
34
False
Which continent was formed from the meeting of Laurentia and Baltica?
573295af0d034c1900ab002c
Euramerica (or Laurussia)
160
False
Which sedimentary beds were created in the dry areas of Euramerica in the Devonian period?
573295af0d034c1900ab002d
Old Red Sandstone
361
False
Which mountains associated with the USA were formed near the equator on  Pangaea during the Devonian?
573295af0d034c1900ab002e
the northern Appalachian Mountains
598
False
What was the largest ocean referred to that existed in the Devonian period?
573295af0d034c1900ab002f
Panthalassa
956
False
tectonic activity
80
What kind of activity decreased during the Devonian?
5a4e9f31755ab9001a10f541
True
Laurasia and Gondwana
102
What two continents where moving away from each other during Devonian?
5a4e9f31755ab9001a10f542
True
Euramerica
160
What continent was formed when Laurasia and Gondwanna colided?
5a4e9f31755ab9001a10f543
True
Old Red Sandstone
361
What type od seimentary beds formed in the desert along the Tropic of Capricorn?
5a4e9f31755ab9001a10f544
True
seas
931
What was shallow arounfd the world?
5a4e9f31755ab9001a10f545
True
The Devonian spanned roughly from 419 to 359 Ma. The period was a time of great tectonic activity, as Laurasia and Gondwana drew closer together. The continent Euramerica (or Laurussia) was created in the early Devonian by the collision of Laurentia and Baltica, which rotated into the natural dry zone along the Tropic of Capricorn. In these near-deserts, the Old Red Sandstone sedimentary beds formed, made red by the oxidized iron (hematite) characteristic of drought conditions. Near the equator Pangaea began to consolidate from the plates containing North America and Europe, further raising the northern Appalachian Mountains and forming the Caledonian Mountains in Great Britain and Scandinavia. The southern continents remained tied together in the supercontinent of Gondwana. The remainder of modern Eurasia lay in the Northern Hemisphere. Sea levels were high worldwide, and much of the land lay submerged under shallow seas. The deep, enormous Panthalassa (the "universal ocean") covered the rest of the planet. Other minor oceans were Paleo-Tethys, Proto-Tethys, Rheic Ocean and Ural Ocean (which was closed during the collision with Siberia and Baltica).
What occurred to the level of the sea when the Devonian period was finished?
573296cbb4fa5219003da0da
A global drop
0
False
During which period were epicontinental seas created?
573296cbb4fa5219003da0db
Carboniferous
76
False
What was on the land at 30 degrees latitude north in the carboniferous period?
573296cbb4fa5219003da0dc
lush coal swamps
448
False
What was the result in the decline in sea level in the middle of the Carboniferous period?
573296cbb4fa5219003da0dd
a major marine extinction
575
False
The Pennsylvania period is separated by the drop in Carboniferous era sea levels from what other period?
573296cbb4fa5219003da0de
Mississippian Period
737
False
sea level
17
What dropped world wide at the begining of the Devonian?
5a4ea43a755ab9001a10f569
True
global
2
How widespread was the drop in sea llevel in the Carboniferous?
5a4ea43a755ab9001a10f56a
True
south polar
211
What temperatures dropped during the Devonian?
5a4ea43a755ab9001a10f56b
True
deep tropics
428
What region was deeply impacted by the conditions of the Carboniferous?
5a4ea43a755ab9001a10f56c
True
lush coal swamps
448
What could be found just north of the glacerers
5a4ea43a755ab9001a10f56d
True
A global drop in sea level at the end of the Devonian reversed early in the Carboniferous; this created the widespread epicontinental seas and carbonate deposition of the Mississippian. There was also a drop in south polar temperatures; southern Gondwana was glaciated throughout the period, though it is uncertain if the ice sheets were a holdover from the Devonian or not. These conditions apparently had little effect in the deep tropics, where lush coal swamps flourished within 30 degrees of the northernmost glaciers. A mid-Carboniferous drop in sea-level precipitated a major marine extinction, one that hit crinoids and ammonites especially hard. This sea-level drop and the associated unconformity in North America separate the Mississippian Period from the Pennsylvanian period.
What geologic events took place when Pangea combined during the Carboniferous?
5732978b0342181400a20289
mountain building
39
False
What was the continent that came to be North America and Europe called during the Carboniferous?
5732978b0342181400a2028a
Laurussia
223
False
What was the effect of Laurussia impacting Gondwana in North America?
5732978b0342181400a2028b
the Alleghenian orogeny
359
False
The mountains forming to the southwest of the Appalachians in the Carboniferous are known as what?
5732978b0342181400a2028c
the Ouachita Mountains
467
False
Which two large oceans existed during the Carboniferous period?
5732978b0342181400a2028d
the Panthalassa and Paleo-Tethys
665
False
mountain
39
What was formed as the southern coninents came together?
5a4ea88faf0d07001ae8cba8
True
North America-Europe
201
What did Pangea collide with?
5a4ea88faf0d07001ae8cba9
True
extended the newly uplifted Appalachians
409
What did the collision of Pangea cause to mountains in North America?
5a4ea88faf0d07001ae8cbaa
True
Hercynian orogeny
326
What did the collision with Pangea create in Europe?
5a4ea88faf0d07001ae8cbab
True
the Panthalassa and Paleo-Tethys
665
What major oceans were shrinking in the Carboniferous?
5a4ea88faf0d07001ae8cbac
True
The Carboniferous was a time of active mountain building, as the supercontinent Pangea came together. The southern continents remained tied together in the supercontinent Gondwana, which collided with North America-Europe (Laurussia) along the present line of eastern North America. This continental collision resulted in the Hercynian orogeny in Europe, and the Alleghenian orogeny in North America; it also extended the newly uplifted Appalachians southwestward as the Ouachita Mountains. In the same time frame, much of present eastern Eurasian plate welded itself to Europe along the line of the Ural mountains. There were two major oceans in the Carboniferous the Panthalassa and Paleo-Tethys. Other minor oceans were shrinking and eventually closed the Rheic Ocean (closed by the assembly of South and North America), the small, shallow Ural Ocean (which was closed by the collision of Baltica, and Siberia continents, creating the Ural Mountains) and Proto-Tethys Ocean.
What supercontinent prevailed during the Permian era?
57329c6ed6dcfa19001e8a1c
Pangaea
137
False
What was the largest ocean during the Permian called?
57329c6ed6dcfa19001e8a1d
Panthalassa
280
False
There was an ocean between Gondwana and Asia in the Permian, what was it?
57329c6ed6dcfa19001e8a1e
Paleo-Tethys Ocean
321
False
The moving of which continent contributed to the decrease in size of the Paleo-Tethys?
57329c6ed6dcfa19001e8a1f
Cimmeria
395
False
During which period was the Tehtys Ocean dominant?
57329c6ed6dcfa19001e8a20
the Mesozoic Era
607
False
Pangaea
137
What supercontinent did Asia join in the Permian?
5a4eab14af0d07001ae8cbbc
True
Pangaea
137
Wat continent stradled the south pole and extended towards the equator?
5a4eab14af0d07001ae8cbbd
True
The Cimmeria continent
391
What coninent drifted away from Laurasia and towards Gondwana?
5a4eab14af0d07001ae8cbbe
True
The Cimmeria
391
What continents movement decreased the size of the Paleo-Tethys
5a4eab14af0d07001ae8cbbf
True
During the Permian all the Earth's major land masses, except portions of East Asia, were collected into a single supercontinent known as Pangaea. Pangaea straddled the equator and extended toward the poles, with a corresponding effect on ocean currents in the single great ocean (Panthalassa, the universal sea), and the Paleo-Tethys Ocean, a large ocean that was between Asia and Gondwana. The Cimmeria continent rifted away from Gondwana and drifted north to Laurasia, causing the Paleo-Tethys to shrink. A new ocean was growing on its southern end, the Tethys Ocean, an ocean that would dominate much of the Mesozoic Era. Large continental landmasses create climates with extreme variations of heat and cold ("continental climate") and monsoon conditions with highly seasonal rainfall patterns. Deserts seem to have been widespread on Pangaea.
Which ocean name is translated to mean "all the sea?"
57329d46d6dcfa19001e8a30
Panthalassa
43
False
What process obscures information aboutt he ocean during the Triassic period from inspection?
57329d46d6dcfa19001e8a31
subduction of oceanic plates
156
False
What was occurring to Pangaea in the late Triassic?
57329d46d6dcfa19001e8a32
Pangaea was rifting
260
False
Which sediements in the US are an indication of the break up of Pangaea?
57329d46d6dcfa19001e8a33
Newark Supergroup
555
False
What type of terrestrial animals are found from the Triassic period?
57329d46d6dcfa19001e8a34
terrestrial vertebrates
1003
False
sediments
91
What can still be found in the deep-sea from the Trissic?
5a4eaf77af0d07001ae8cbce
True
Pangaea
260
What continent ripped apart during the Triassic?
5a4eaf77af0d07001ae8cbcf
True
The first nonmarine sediments in the rift
357
What indicates when New Jersy seperated from Rhode Island?
5a4eaf77af0d07001ae8cbd0
True
Triassic
871
What stratigraphy is mostly based on non-saline organisms?
5a4eaf77af0d07001ae8cbd1
True
The remainder was the world-ocean known as Panthalassa ("all the sea"). All the deep-ocean sediments laid down during the Triassic have disappeared through subduction of oceanic plates; thus, very little is known of the Triassic open ocean. The supercontinent Pangaea was rifting during the Triassic—especially late in the period—but had not yet separated. The first nonmarine sediments in the rift that marks the initial break-up of Pangea—which separated New Jersey from Morocco—are of Late Triassic age; in the U.S., these thick sediments comprise the Newark Supergroup. Because of the limited shoreline of one super-continental mass, Triassic marine deposits are globally relatively rare; despite their prominence in Western Europe, where the Triassic was first studied. In North America, for example, marine deposits are limited to a few exposures in the west. Thus Triassic stratigraphy is mostly based on organisms living in lagoons and hypersaline environments, such as Estheria crustaceans and terrestrial vertebrates.
During what years was the Jurassic period?
5732a0bad6dcfa19001e8a3a
201.3 ± 0.2 to 145.0 Ma.
39
False
Which supercontinent came apart in the Jurassic period?
5732a0bad6dcfa19001e8a3b
Pangaea
110
False
The Gulf of Mexico formed in the rift between North America and what other land mass?
5732a0bad6dcfa19001e8a3c
Mexico's Yucatan Peninsula
291
False
At what point did the South Atlantic ocean begin to open?
5732a0bad6dcfa19001e8a3d
Cretaceous Period
434
False
Which late Jurassic cultural sites are famous in Europe?
5732a0bad6dcfa19001e8a3e
lagerstätten of Holzmaden and Solnhofen
969
False
Pangaea
110
What did Laurasia and Gondwana  form during the Jurassic Period?
5a4eb464af0d07001ae8cbd6
True
North Atlantic Ocean
332
What North Ocean was broad in the Jurassic Period?
5a4eb464af0d07001ae8cbd7
True
South Atlantic
386
What ocean closed during the Cretaceous?
5a4eb464af0d07001ae8cbd8
True
Sundance Sea
1150
What left marine deposits in the plains of south America?
5a4eb464af0d07001ae8cbd9
True
The Jurassic
699
What geological record is poot in Europe?
5a4eb464af0d07001ae8cbda
True
The Jurassic Period extends from about 201.3 ± 0.2 to 145.0 Ma. During the early Jurassic, the supercontinent Pangaea broke up into the northern supercontinent Laurasia and the southern supercontinent Gondwana; the Gulf of Mexico opened in the new rift between North America and what is now Mexico's Yucatan Peninsula. The Jurassic North Atlantic Ocean was relatively narrow, while the South Atlantic did not open until the following Cretaceous Period, when Gondwana itself rifted apart. The Tethys Sea closed, and the Neotethys basin appeared. Climates were warm, with no evidence of glaciation. As in the Triassic, there was apparently no land near either pole, and no extensive ice caps existed. The Jurassic geological record is good in western Europe, where extensive marine sequences indicate a time when much of the continent was submerged under shallow tropical seas; famous locales include the Jurassic Coast World Heritage Site and the renowned late Jurassic lagerstätten of Holzmaden and Solnhofen. In contrast, the North American Jurassic record is the poorest of the Mesozoic, with few outcrops at the surface. Though the epicontinental Sundance Sea left marine deposits in parts of the northern plains of the United States and Canada during the late Jurassic, most exposed sediments from this period are continental, such as the alluvial deposits of the Morrison Formation. The first of several massive batholiths were emplaced in the northern Cordillera beginning in the mid-Jurassic, marking the Nevadan orogeny. Important Jurassic exposures are also found in Russia, India, South America, Japan, Australasia and the United Kingdom.
The current continents were formerly known as what continent?
5732a189d6dcfa19001e8a44
Pangaea
75
False
Which oregenies followed the Nevadan in the Cretaceous?
5732a189d6dcfa19001e8a45
Sevier and Laramide
386
False
South America was formerly which continent?
5732a189d6dcfa19001e8a46
Gondwana
486
False
The rifting in the Cretaceous had what result on the oceans?
5732a189d6dcfa19001e8a47
raising eustatic sea levels
778
False
Antarctica was a part of what supercontinent?
5732a189d6dcfa19001e8a48
Gondwana
486
False
the Cretaceous, the late Paleozoic-early Mesozoic
7
During what periods did Pangaea come together?
5a4eb5efaf0d07001ae8cbe0
True
Sevier and Laramide
386
Which oregenies followed the Nevaden in the early Mesozoic?
5a4eb5efaf0d07001ae8cbe1
True
Gondwana
486
What supercontinent stayed intact during the Cretaceous?
5a4eb5efaf0d07001ae8cbe2
True
rifting
715
What lowered eustatic sea levels?
5a4eb5efaf0d07001ae8cbe3
True
During the Cretaceous, the late Paleozoic-early Mesozoic supercontinent of Pangaea completed its breakup into present day continents, although their positions were substantially different at the time. As the Atlantic Ocean widened, the convergent-margin orogenies that had begun during the Jurassic continued in the North American Cordillera, as the Nevadan orogeny was followed by the Sevier and Laramide orogenies. Though Gondwana was still intact in the beginning of the Cretaceous, Gondwana itself broke up as South America, Antarctica and Australia rifted away from Africa (though India and Madagascar remained attached to each other); thus, the South Atlantic and Indian Oceans were newly formed. Such active rifting lifted great undersea mountain chains along the welts, raising eustatic sea levels worldwide.
During the height of the Cretaceous transgression how much of the earths land mass was under water?
5732a253d6dcfa19001e8a4e
one-third
296
False
What type of rock was the Cretaceous notable for forming the most amount of?
5732a253d6dcfa19001e8a4f
Phanerozoic
473
False
The Cretaceous is a part of which geologic era?
5732a253d6dcfa19001e8a50
Phanerozoic
473
False
Where can one find the Smoky Hill Chalk Member?
5732a253d6dcfa19001e8a51
North America
863
False
Where are the Deccan Traps?
5732a253d6dcfa19001e8a52
India
1104
False
the Tethys Sea
23
What sea north of Africa coninued to broaden?
5a4eb74caf0d07001ae8cbe8
True
Cretaceous
270
Early in what period did the sea recede across central North America?
5a4eb74caf0d07001ae8cbe9
True
Phanerozoic.
473
The Phanerozoic is part of what geological era?
5a4eb74caf0d07001ae8cbea
True
Deccan Traps
1140
What famouse lava beds are found in Europe?
5a4eb74caf0d07001ae8cbeb
True
To the north of Africa the Tethys Sea continued to narrow. Broad shallow seas advanced across central North America (the Western Interior Seaway) and Europe, then receded late in the period, leaving thick marine deposits sandwiched between coal beds. At the peak of the Cretaceous transgression, one-third of Earth's present land area was submerged. The Cretaceous is justly famous for its chalk; indeed, more chalk formed in the Cretaceous than in any other period in the Phanerozoic. Mid-ocean ridge activity—or rather, the circulation of seawater through the enlarged ridges—enriched the oceans in calcium; this made the oceans more saturated, as well as increased the bioavailability of the element for calcareous nanoplankton. These widespread carbonates and other sedimentary deposits make the Cretaceous rock record especially fine. Famous formations from North America include the rich marine fossils of Kansas's Smoky Hill Chalk Member and the terrestrial fauna of the late Cretaceous Hell Creek Formation. Other important Cretaceous exposures occur in Europe and China. In the area that is now India, massive lava beds called the Deccan Traps were laid down in the very late Cretaceous and early Paleocene.
How many years long was the Cenozoic Era?
5732a3dfcc179a14009dabc2
66 million years
28
False
Which extinction marked the beginning of the Cenozoic Era?
5732a3dfcc179a14009dabc3
Cretaceous–Paleogene extinction event
55
False
What geologic period are we in currently?
5732a3dfcc179a14009dabc4
Cenozoic Era
4
False
At the end of which era had the continents taken roughly their current shape?
5732a3dfcc179a14009dabc5
Mesozoic
148
False
The collision of the Indian sub continent and the Asian plate created which mountain range?
5732a3dfcc179a14009dabc6
the Himalayas
425
False
Cenozoic Era
4
What Era precedes the Cretaceous-paleogene extinction event?
5a4eb85eaf0d07001ae8cbf0
True
Cretaceous–Paleogene extinction
55
What extinction event ended the Cenozoic Era?
5a4eb85eaf0d07001ae8cbf1
True
continents
166
What were still grouped together by the end of the Mesozoic?
5a4eb85eaf0d07001ae8cbf2
True
The Tethys Sea
440
What sea opened near Africa?
5a4eb85eaf0d07001ae8cbf3
True
The Cenozoic Era covers the 66 million years since the Cretaceous–Paleogene extinction event up to and including the present day. By the end of the Mesozoic era, the continents had rifted into nearly their present form. Laurasia became North America and Eurasia, while Gondwana split into South America, Africa, Australia, Antarctica and the Indian subcontinent, which collided with the Asian plate. This impact gave rise to the Himalayas. The Tethys Sea, which had separated the northern continents from Africa and India, began to close up, forming the Mediterranean sea.
How many continents did Laurasia break into?
5732a59d1d5d2e14009ff871
three
237
False
In the Paleocene period Greenland was joined to which continent?
5732a59d1d5d2e14009ff872
North America
298
False
What mountain chain in the Cretaceous was lifted as a result of the Laramide oregeny?
5732a59d1d5d2e14009ff873
the Rocky Mountains
498
False
In which period did North and South america join?
5732a59d1d5d2e14009ff874
Neogene
663
False
Which ocean was closed when Africa moved northward during the Paleocene?
5732a59d1d5d2e14009ff875
Tethys
903
False
Paleocene
18
When did the Cretaceous processes begin?
5a4eb97daf0d07001ae8cbf8
True
the continents
120
What stopped drifting during the Paleocene?
5a4eb97daf0d07001ae8cbf9
True
Laurasia
201
What Supercontinent seperated into three during the Paleocene?
5a4eb97daf0d07001ae8cbfa
True
a land bridge
357
What connected Europe and Greenland?
5a4eb97daf0d07001ae8cbfb
True
India
921
What did Asia migrate towards?
5a4eb97daf0d07001ae8cbfc
True
In many ways, the Paleocene continued processes that had begun during the late Cretaceous Period. During the Paleocene, the continents continued to drift toward their present positions. Supercontinent Laurasia had not yet separated into three continents. Europe and Greenland were still connected. North America and Asia were still intermittently joined by a land bridge, while Greenland and North America were beginning to separate. The Laramide orogeny of the late Cretaceous continued to uplift the Rocky Mountains in the American west, which ended in the succeeding epoch. South and North America remained separated by equatorial seas (they joined during the Neogene); the components of the former southern supercontinent Gondwana continued to split apart, with Africa, South America, Antarctica and Australia pulling away from each other. Africa was heading north toward Europe, slowly closing the Tethys Ocean, and India began its migration to Asia that would lead to a tectonic collision and the formation of the Himalayas.
During what years did the Eocene period take place?
5732a702328d981900601fdf
56 million years ago - 33.9 million years ago
19
False
Australia was connected to which other continent at the start of the Eocene?
5732a702328d981900601fe0
Antarctica
179
False
How long ago did Antarctica and Australia split?
5732a702328d981900601fe1
around 45 Ma
405
False
Around how many years ago is the current ice age pattern believed to have begun?
5732a702328d981900601fe2
40 million years
755
False
The mixing of equatorial currents with Antarctic waters in the Eocene resulted in what?
5732a702328d981900601fe3
keeping global temperatures high
318
False
the continents
67
What reached their final positions during the Eocene?
5a4eba6eaf0d07001ae8cc02
True
Antarctica
179
What was Australia seperated from at the begining of the Eocene?
5a4eba6eaf0d07001ae8cc03
True
pattern of ice ages
723
What pattern ended 45 million years ago
5a4eba6eaf0d07001ae8cc04
True
Australia split from the southern continent
361
What steared warm waters towards the Artic?
5a4eba6eaf0d07001ae8cc05
True
During the Eocene (56 million years ago - 33.9 million years ago), the continents continued to drift toward their present positions. At the beginning of the period, Australia and Antarctica remained connected, and warm equatorial currents mixed with colder Antarctic waters, distributing the heat around the world and keeping global temperatures high. But when Australia split from the southern continent around 45 Ma, the warm equatorial currents were deflected away from Antarctica, and an isolated cold water channel developed between the two continents. The Antarctic region cooled down, and the ocean surrounding Antarctica began to freeze, sending cold water and ice floes north, reinforcing the cooling. The present pattern of ice ages began about 40 million years ago.[citation needed]
during which period did mountains form in the western part of North America?
5732a7f71d5d2e14009ff87b
Eocene
172
False
What began to form in the flat basins in North America during the Eocene?
5732a7f71d5d2e14009ff87c
huge lakes
184
False
In the Eocene, in Europe, which sea ceased to be?
5732a7f71d5d2e14009ff87d
Tethys Sea
256
False
The Mediterranean sea is a remaining part of which sea from the Eocene?
5732a7f71d5d2e14009ff87e
Tethys Sea
256
False
Which oregeny was created when India collided with Asia?
5732a7f71d5d2e14009ff87f
the Himalayan orogeny
690
False
Europe, Greenland and North America
62
What three continent drifted together forming Laurasia during then Eocene?
5a4ebb46af0d07001ae8cc0a
True
huge lakes
184
What formed in the low basins of Europe?
5a4ebb46af0d07001ae8cc0b
True
Tethys Sea
256
What sea opened up?
5a4ebb46af0d07001ae8cc0c
True
Mediterranean
346
What sea was created by the Alps?
5a4ebb46af0d07001ae8cc0d
True
North America and Europe
522
What two coninents developed vastly differen fauna?
5a4ebb46af0d07001ae8cc0e
True
The northern supercontinent of Laurasia began to break up, as Europe, Greenland and North America drifted apart. In western North America, mountain building started in the Eocene, and huge lakes formed in the high flat basins among uplifts. In Europe, the Tethys Sea finally vanished, while the uplift of the Alps isolated its final remnant, the Mediterranean, and created another shallow sea with island archipelagos to the north. Though the North Atlantic was opening, a land connection appears to have remained between North America and Europe since the faunas of the two regions are very similar. India continued its journey away from Africa and began its collision with Asia, creating the Himalayan orogeny.
What permanent structure formed on Antarctica?
5732a8a6328d981900601fe9
ice cap
79
False
The lift of which mountain range in Europe was the result of the African plate moving north into the Eurasian?
5732a8a6328d981900601fea
the Alps
146
False
During what period was there a land bridge joining Europe and North America?
5732a8a6328d981900601feb
Oligocene
405
False
In the Oligocene period South America broke free from what other continent?
5732a8a6328d981900601fec
Antarctica
564
False
Which current resulted in the cooling of Antarctica?
5732a8a6328d981900601fed
the Antarctic Circumpolar Current
631
False
ice cap
79
What semi-perminant feature developed in Antarctica?
5a4ebc82af0d07001ae8cc14
True
North America
117
Where did mountain building stop?
5a4ebc82af0d07001ae8cc15
True
African plate
188
What plate was pushing south creating the Alps?
5a4ebc82af0d07001ae8cc16
True
marine
297
What incursion marked the end of Oligocene?
5a4ebc82af0d07001ae8cc17
True
South America was finally detached from Antarctica
524
What slowed down the Antarctic Circumpolar Current?
5a4ebc82af0d07001ae8cc18
True
Antarctica continued to become more isolated and finally developed a permanent ice cap. Mountain building in western North America continued, and the Alps started to rise in Europe as the African plate continued to push north into the Eurasian plate, isolating the remnants of Tethys Sea. A brief marine incursion marks the early Oligocene in Europe. There appears to have been a land bridge in the early Oligocene between North America and Europe since the faunas of the two regions are very similar. During the Oligocene, South America was finally detached from Antarctica and drifted north toward North America. It also allowed the Antarctic Circumpolar Current to flow, rapidly cooling the continent.
The formation of which mountain range was the result of of what zone along the Pacific Ocean side of South America?
5732ac1fcc179a14009dabe6
the Andes
274
False
Which continent was India colliding with in the Miocene?
5732ac1fcc179a14009dabe7
Asia
376
False
When Africa was colliding with Eurasia which seaway ceased to be during the Miocene?
5732ac1fcc179a14009dabe8
The Tethys Seaway
382
False
Between what period of time did the Tethys disappear?
5732ac1fcc179a14009dabe9
19 and 12 Ma
511
False
Which crisis occured towards the end of the Miocene period?
5732ac1fcc179a14009dabea
Messinian salinity crisis
717
False
land bridge between South America and North America
123
What bridge was present during the Miocene?
5a4ebd75af0d07001ae8cc1e
True
The Tethys Seaway
382
What seaway opened as Africa collided with Eurasia?
5a4ebd75af0d07001ae8cc1f
True
19 and 12 Ma
511
When did the Tethys Seaway open?
5a4ebd75af0d07001ae8cc20
True
uplift of mountains
547
What caused rain to increase in the Mediterranean
5a4ebd75af0d07001ae8cc21
True
During the Miocene continents continued to drift toward their present positions. Of the modern geologic features, only the land bridge between South America and North America was absent, the subduction zone along the Pacific Ocean margin of South America caused the rise of the Andes and the southward extension of the Meso-American peninsula. India continued to collide with Asia. The Tethys Seaway continued to shrink and then disappeared as Africa collided with Eurasia in the Turkish-Arabian region between 19 and 12 Ma (ICS 2004). Subsequent uplift of mountains in the western Mediterranean region and a global fall in sea levels combined to cause a temporary drying up of the Mediterranean Sea resulting in the Messinian salinity crisis near the end of the Miocene.
What is the link between North and South America called?
5732ae23cc179a14009dabfa
the Isthmus of Panama
53
False
In which period did North and South America become linked?
5732ae23cc179a14009dabfb
Pliocene
86
False
The Pliocene saw the end of what fauna in South America?
5732ae23cc179a14009dabfc
marsupial faunas
158
False
The Mediterranean was created by the collision of Europe and what?
5732ae23cc179a14009dabfd
Africa
435
False
What period came after the Pliocene?
5732ae23cc179a14009dabfe
the Quaternary Period
682
False
. The formation of the Isthmus
174
What completely ended South America's marsupial faunas?
5a4ebec8af0d07001ae8cc26
True
Isthmus of Panama
57
What formed to linked North and South America in the Quaternary Period?
5a4ebec8af0d07001ae8cc27
True
the current ice age began.
706
What began at the with the Pilocene?
5a4ebec8af0d07001ae8cc28
True
every 40,000–100,000 years.
822
How often does the cycle of rising sea levels repeat?
5a4ebec8af0d07001ae8cc29
True
South America became linked to North America through the Isthmus of Panama during the Pliocene, bringing a nearly complete end to South America's distinctive marsupial faunas. The formation of the Isthmus had major consequences on global temperatures, since warm equatorial ocean currents were cut off and an Atlantic cooling cycle began, with cold Arctic and Antarctic waters dropping temperatures in the now-isolated Atlantic Ocean. Africa's collision with Europe formed the Mediterranean Sea, cutting off the remnants of the Tethys Ocean. Sea level changes exposed the land-bridge between Alaska and Asia. Near the end of the Pliocene, about 2.58 million years ago (the start of the Quaternary Period), the current ice age began. The polar regions have since undergone repeated cycles of glaciation and thaw, repeating every 40,000–100,000 years.
How long ago did the last glacial period end?
5732aeedcc179a14009dac04
about 10,000 years ago
53
False
By what height did sea levels rise at the end of the last glacial period?
5732aeedcc179a14009dac05
35 metres (115 ft)
124
False
During what period did sea levels rice 115 feet?
5732aeedcc179a14009dac06
Holocene
168
False
Glaciars from what period depressed the height of northern lands by 591 feet?
5732aeedcc179a14009dac07
Pleistocene
280
False
What sea did the Hudson Bay used to be a part of?
5732aeedcc179a14009dac08
Tyrrell Sea
1287
False
10,000 years ago.
59
When did the last glacial period begin?
5a4ebffaaf0d07001ae8cc2e
True
Ice melt
77
What caused sea levelsw to rise 115 meters?
5a4ebffaaf0d07001ae8cc2f
True
the late Pleistocene and Holocene
346
During what period did the height of the northern lands rise 591 feet?
5a4ebffaaf0d07001ae8cc30
True
Tyrrell Sea
1287
What sea is the Hudson Bay part of?
5a4ebffaaf0d07001ae8cc31
True
The last glacial period of the current ice age ended about 10,000 years ago. Ice melt caused world sea levels to rise about 35 metres (115 ft) in the early part of the Holocene. In addition, many areas above about 40 degrees north latitude had been depressed by the weight of the Pleistocene glaciers and rose as much as 180 metres (591 ft) over the late Pleistocene and Holocene, and are still rising today. The sea level rise and temporary land depression allowed temporary marine incursions into areas that are now far from the sea. Holocene marine fossils are known from Vermont, Quebec, Ontario and Michigan. Other than higher latitude temporary marine incursions associated with glacial depression, Holocene fossils are found primarily in lakebed, floodplain and cave deposits. Holocene marine deposits along low-latitude coastlines are rare because the rise in sea levels during the period exceeds any likely upthrusting of non-glacial origin. Post-glacial rebound in Scandinavia resulted in the emergence of coastal areas around the Baltic Sea, including much of Finland. The region continues to rise, still causing weak earthquakes across Northern Europe. The equivalent event in North America was the rebound of Hudson Bay, as it shrank from its larger, immediate post-glacial Tyrrell Sea phase, to near its present boundaries.
Police
What does the state want a police force to do?
5732977f0342181400a20283
enforce the law, protect property, and limit civil disorder
74
False
What are gendarmerie?
5732977f0342181400a20284
military units charged with civil policing
567
False
What are police usually separate from?
5732977f0342181400a20285
military or other organizations involved in the defense of the state against foreign aggressors
445
False
enforce the law, protect property, and limit civil disorder
74
What does the state want a police force not to do?
5aceb58232bba1001ae4b105
True
enforce the law, protect property, and limit civil disorder
74
What does the president want a police force to do?
5aceb58232bba1001ae4b106
True
military units charged with civil policing
567
What aren't gendarmerie?
5aceb58232bba1001ae4b107
True
military or other organizations involved in the defense of the state against foreign aggressors
445
What are police usually together with?
5aceb58232bba1001ae4b108
True
military or other organizations involved in the defense of the state against foreign aggressors
445
What are police never separate from?
5aceb58232bba1001ae4b109
True
A police force is a constituted body of persons empowered by the state to enforce the law, protect property, and limit civil disorder. Their powers include the legitimized use of force. The term is most commonly associated with police services of a sovereign state that are authorized to exercise the police power of that state within a defined legal or territorial area of responsibility. Police forces are often defined as being separate from military or other organizations involved in the defense of the state against foreign aggressors; however, gendarmerie are military units charged with civil policing.
How are police usually paid?
573297e90d034c1900ab0035
through taxes
535
False
What kind of service are police?
573297e90d034c1900ab0036
public sector
490
False
When were police used to protect the class system?
573297e90d034c1900ab0037
late 18th and early 19th centuries
237
False
What problem do many police forces have?
573297e90d034c1900ab0038
corruption
418
False
through taxes
535
How are police never paid?
5aceb5eb32bba1001ae4b10f
True
public sector
490
What kind of service aren't police?
5aceb5eb32bba1001ae4b110
True
late 18th and early 19th centuries
237
When aren't police used to protect the class system?
5aceb5eb32bba1001ae4b111
True
corruption
418
What asset do many police forces have?
5aceb5eb32bba1001ae4b112
True
late 18th and early 19th centuries
237
When were police used to protect the civilian system?
5aceb5eb32bba1001ae4b113
True
Law enforcement, however, constitutes only part of policing activity. Policing has included an array of activities in different situations, but the predominant ones are concerned with the preservation of order. In some societies, in the late 18th and early 19th centuries, these developed within the context of maintaining the class system and the protection of private property. Many police forces suffer from police corruption to a greater or lesser degree. The police force is usually a public sector service, meaning they are paid through taxes.
Which Chinese kingdoms developed law enforcement?
57329a31d6dcfa19001e8a12
Chu and Jin
117
False
What period was the Chu kingdom in?
57329a31d6dcfa19001e8a13
Spring
145
False
What period was the Jin kingdom in?
57329a31d6dcfa19001e8a14
Autumn
156
False
Which countries adopted the 'prefecture system' from China?
57329a31d6dcfa19001e8a15
Korea and Japan
796
False
What did ancient China call its police?
57329a31d6dcfa19001e8a16
prefects
53
False
Chu and Jin
117
Which Japanese kingdoms developed law enforcement?
5aceb66b32bba1001ae4b12b
True
Spring
145
What period was the Chu kingdom not in?
5aceb66b32bba1001ae4b12c
True
Autumn
156
What period was the Chin kingdom in?
5aceb66b32bba1001ae4b12d
True
Korea and Japan
796
Which countries never adopted the 'prefecture system' from China?
5aceb66b32bba1001ae4b12e
True
prefects
53
What did modern China call its police?
5aceb66b32bba1001ae4b12f
True
Law enforcement in Ancient China was carried out by "prefects" for thousands of years since it developed in both the Chu and Jin kingdoms of the Spring and Autumn period. In Jin, dozens of prefects were spread across the state, each having limited authority and employment period. They were appointed by local magistrates, who reported to higher authorities such as governors, who in turn were appointed by the emperor, and they oversaw the civil administration of their "prefecture", or jurisdiction. Under each prefect were "subprefects" who helped collectively with law enforcement in the area. Some prefects were responsible for handling investigations, much like modern police detectives. Prefects could also be women. The concept of the "prefecture system" spread to other cultures such as Korea and Japan.
What war ended in 1479?
57329aaa328d981900601fcb
War of the Castilian Succession
44
False
Who formed Spain's first national police force?
57329aaa328d981900601fcc
Ferdinand and Isabella
85
False
What was Spain's first national police force called, in Spanish?
57329aaa328d981900601fcd
Santa Hermandad
176
False
What does Santa Hermandad mean?
57329aaa328d981900601fce
Holy Brotherhood
158
False
When did Spain suppress local police units?
57329aaa328d981900601fcf
1835
525
False
War of the Castilian Succession
44
What war ended in 1497?
5aceb71132bba1001ae4b13d
True
Ferdinand and Isabella
85
Who formed Spain's last national police force?
5aceb71132bba1001ae4b13e
True
Santa Hermandad
176
What was Spain's second national police force called, in Spanish?
5aceb71132bba1001ae4b13f
True
Holy Brotherhood
158
What doesn't Santa Hermandad mean?
5aceb71132bba1001ae4b140
True
1835
525
When did Spain empower local police units?
5aceb71132bba1001ae4b141
True
As one of their first acts after end of the War of the Castilian Succession in 1479, Ferdinand and Isabella established the centrally organized and efficient Holy Brotherhood (Santa Hermandad) as a national police force. They adapted an existing brotherhood to the purpose of a general police acting under officials appointed by themselves, and endowed with great powers of summary jurisdiction even in capital cases. The original brotherhoods continued to serve as modest local police-units until their final suppression in 1835.
Which two entities in Medieval France had police duties?
57329bc4cc179a14009dab68
The Marshal of France and the Constable of France
117
False
How were the Marshal and Constable of France formally classified?
57329bc4cc179a14009dab69
Great Officers of the Crown of France
49
False
What was the Marshal's force called?
57329bc4cc179a14009dab6a
the Marshalcy
298
False
What was the Constable's force called, in English?
57329bc4cc179a14009dab6b
the Constabulary
507
False
What was the Constable's force called, in French?
57329bc4cc179a14009dab6c
Connétablie
533
False
The Marshal of France and the Constable of France
117
Which two entities in Medieval France didn't have police duties?
5aceb78232bba1001ae4b14d
True
Great Officers of the Crown of France
49
How were the Marshal and Constable of France informally classified?
5aceb78232bba1001ae4b14e
True
the Marshalcy
298
What was the Marshal's peace corps called?
5aceb78232bba1001ae4b14f
True
the Constabulary
507
What was the Captain's force called, in English?
5aceb78232bba1001ae4b150
True
Connétablie
533
What was the Constable's force not called, in French?
5aceb78232bba1001ae4b151
True
In France during the Middle Ages, there were two Great Officers of the Crown of France with police responsibilities: The Marshal of France and the Constable of France. The military policing responsibilities of the Marshal of France were delegated to the Marshal's provost, whose force was known as the Marshalcy because its authority ultimately derived from the Marshal. The marshalcy dates back to the Hundred Years' 'War, and some historians trace it back to the early 12th century. Another organisation, the Constabulary (French: Connétablie), was under the command of the Constable of France. The constabulary was regularised as a military body in 1337. Under King Francis I (who reigned 1515–1547), the Maréchaussée was merged with the Constabulary. The resulting force was also known as the Maréchaussée, or, formally, the Constabulary and Marshalcy of France.
In what year did Paris get a police force?
57329c241d5d2e14009ff867
1667
94
False
Who created Paris's police force?
57329c241d5d2e14009ff868
King Louis XIV
76
False
What was the largest European city in 1667?
57329c241d5d2e14009ff869
Paris
121
False
What was the title of the head of Paris's police, in English?
57329c241d5d2e14009ff86a
lieutenant general of police
286
False
What was the title of the head of Paris's police, in French?
57329c241d5d2e14009ff86b
lieutenant général de police
255
False
1667
94
In what year did Paris not get a police force?
5aceb7e132bba1001ae4b179
True
King Louis XIV
76
Who never created Paris's police force?
5aceb7e132bba1001ae4b17a
True
Paris
121
What was the smallest European city in 1667?
5aceb7e132bba1001ae4b17b
True
Paris
121
What was the largest European city in 1676?
5aceb7e132bba1001ae4b17c
True
lieutenant general of police
286
What was the title of the bottom of Paris's police, in English?
5aceb7e132bba1001ae4b17d
True
The first centrally organised police force was created by the government of King Louis XIV in 1667 to police the city of Paris, then the largest city in Europe. The royal edict, registered by the Parlement of Paris on March 15, 1667 created the office of lieutenant général de police ("lieutenant general of police"), who was to be the head of the new Paris police force, and defined the task of the police as "ensuring the peace and quiet of the public and of private individuals, purging the city of what may cause disturbances, procuring abundance, and having each and everyone live according to their station and their duties".
Who was Paris's first head of police?
57329c9cd6dcfa19001e8a26
Gabriel Nicolas de la Reynie
30
False
How many commissioners worked under Reynie?
57329c9cd6dcfa19001e8a27
44
68
False
How many policing districts was Paris divided into?
57329c9cd6dcfa19001e8a28
16
262
False
When was Paris's police system expanded to the rest of France?
57329c9cd6dcfa19001e8a29
October 1699
474
False
When were police inspectors added to Paris's police?
57329c9cd6dcfa19001e8a2a
1709
141
False
Gabriel Nicolas de la Reynie
30
Who was Paris's last head of police?
5aceb87332bba1001ae4b195
True
44
68
How many commissioners worked above Reynie?
5aceb87332bba1001ae4b196
True
16
262
How many policing districts was France divided into?
5aceb87332bba1001ae4b197
True
October 1699
474
When was Paris's police system contracted to disclude rest of France?
5aceb87332bba1001ae4b198
True
1709
141
When were police inspectors subtracted from Paris's police?
5aceb87332bba1001ae4b199
True
This office was first held by Gabriel Nicolas de la Reynie, who had 44 commissaires de police (police commissioners) under his authority. In 1709, these commissioners were assisted by inspecteurs de police (police inspectors). The city of Paris was divided into 16 districts policed by the commissaires, each assigned to a particular district and assisted by a growing bureaucracy. The scheme of the Paris police force was extended to the rest of France by a royal edict of October 1699, resulting in the creation of lieutenants general of police in all large French cities and towns.
When did the French language adopt the word 'police'?
57329fe2cc179a14009dab86
in the 18th century
69
False
What language did French borrow the word 'police' from?
57329fe2cc179a14009dab87
English
52
False
Which dictionary said police were 'a symbol of foreign oppression'?
57329fe2cc179a14009dab88
Britannica 1911
284
False
When were the Marine Police created in the UK?
57329fe2cc179a14009dab89
1798
526
False
What was the first use of 'police' in the UK?
57329fe2cc179a14009dab8a
the appointment of Commissioners of Police for Scotland in 1714
421
False
18th century
76
When did the English language adopt the word 'police'?
5aceb8d732bba1001ae4b1a5
True
English
52
What language did French not borrow the word 'police' from?
5aceb8d732bba1001ae4b1a6
True
Britannica 1911
284
Which dictionary said police were 'a symbol of local oppression'?
5aceb8d732bba1001ae4b1a7
True
1798
526
When were the Marine Police created in France?
5aceb8d732bba1001ae4b1a8
True
1714
480
What was the last use of 'police' in the UK?
5aceb8d732bba1001ae4b1a9
True
The word "police" was borrowed from French into the English language in the 18th century, but for a long time it applied only to French and continental European police forces. The word, and the concept of police itself, were "disliked as a symbol of foreign oppression" (according to Britannica 1911). Before the 19th century, the first use of the word "police" recorded in government documents in the United Kingdom was the appointment of Commissioners of Police for Scotland in 1714 and the creation of the Marine Police in 1798.
Who convinced the West Indies merchants in London to establish police?
5732a05ccc179a14009dab90
Patrick Colquhoun
9
False
When did the West Indies merchants in London create a police force?
5732a05ccc179a14009dab91
1797
3
False
Where did the West Indies merchants in London create a police force?
5732a05ccc179a14009dab92
docks
165
False
How much cargo had been being stolen from West Indies merchants in London each year?
5732a05ccc179a14009dab93
£500,000
240
False
How did Colquhoun praise the French police?
5732a05ccc179a14009dab94
"the greatest degree of perfection"
729
False
Patrick Colquhoun
9
Who convinced the East Indies merchants in London to establish police?
5aceb95f32bba1001ae4b1c7
True
1797
3
When did the West Indies merchants in London destroy a police force?
5aceb95f32bba1001ae4b1c8
True
docks
165
Where did the East Indies merchants in London create a police force?
5aceb95f32bba1001ae4b1c9
True
£500,000
240
How much cargo had been given from West Indies merchants in London each year?
5aceb95f32bba1001ae4b1ca
True
the greatest degree of perfection
730
How did Colquhoun reject the French police?
5aceb95f32bba1001ae4b1cb
True
In 1797, Patrick Colquhoun was able to persuade the West Indies merchants who operated at the Pool of London on the River Thames, to establish a police force at the docks to prevent rampant theft that was causing annual estimated losses of £500,000 worth of cargo. The idea of a police, as it then existed in France, was considered as a potentially undesirable foreign import. In building the case for the police in the face of England's firm anti-police sentiment, Colquhoun framed the political rationale on economic indicators to show that a police dedicated to crime prevention was "perfectly congenial to the principle of the British constitution." Moreover, he went so far as to praise the French system, which had reached "the greatest degree of perfection" in his estimation.
What was the initial size of the Thames River Police force?
5732a0c6cc179a14009dab9a
50
103
False
How many dock workers were the Thames River Police policing?
5732a0c6cc179a14009dab9b
33,000
132
False
How many dock workers did Colquhoun say were criminals?
5732a0c6cc179a14009dab9c
11,000
194
False
How much cargo theft did the Thames River Police prevent in its first year?
5732a0c6cc179a14009dab9d
£122,000
338
False
When was the Thames River Police made a public service?
5732a0c6cc179a14009dab9e
28 July 180
490
False
50
103
What was the final size of the Thames River Police force?
5aceb9d332bba1001ae4b1d9
True
33,000
132
How many deck workers were the Thames River Police policing?
5aceb9d332bba1001ae4b1da
True
11,000
194
How many dock workers did Colquhoun say weren't criminals?
5aceb9d332bba1001ae4b1db
True
£122,000
338
How much cargo theft did the Thames River Police allow in its first year?
5aceb9d332bba1001ae4b1dc
True
28 July 1800
490
When was the Thames River Police made a private service?
5aceb9d332bba1001ae4b1dd
True
With the initial investment of £4,200, the new trial force of the Thames River Police began with about 50 men charged with policing 33,000 workers in the river trades, of whom Colquhoun claimed 11,000 were known criminals and "on the game." The force was a success after its first year, and his men had "established their worth by saving £122,000 worth of cargo and by the rescuing of several lives." Word of this success spread quickly, and the government passed the Marine Police Bill on 28 July 1800, transforming it from a private to public police agency; now the oldest police force in the world. Colquhoun published a book on the experiment, The Commerce and Policing of the River Thames. It found receptive audiences far outside London, and inspired similar forces in other cities, notably, New York City, Dublin, and Sydney.
Who started the Bow Street detectives?
5732a13acc179a14009daba4
Henry and John Fielding
164
False
How did the Bow Street group pay their employees?
5732a13acc179a14009daba5
stipendiary system
239
False
How did the Thames River Police pay their employees?
5732a13acc179a14009daba6
full-time, salaried officers prohibited from taking private fees
295
False
Who came up with the concept of the 'new' police?
5732a13acc179a14009daba7
Robert Peel
595
False
What schedule did the Thames River Police employees work?
5732a13acc179a14009daba8
full-time
295
False
Henry and John Fielding
164
Who fired the Bow Street detectives?
5acebb1632bba1001ae4b205
True
stipendiary system
239
How did the Bow Street group get paid by their employees?
5acebb1632bba1001ae4b206
True
full-time, salaried officers prohibited from taking private fees
295
How did the James River Police pay their employees?
5acebb1632bba1001ae4b207
True
Robert Peel
595
Who rejected the concept of the 'new' police?
5acebb1632bba1001ae4b208
True
full-time
295
What schedule did the Thames River Police employees not work?
5acebb1632bba1001ae4b209
True
Colquhoun's utilitarian approach to the problem – using a cost-benefit argument to obtain support from businesses standing to benefit – allowed him to achieve what Henry and John Fielding failed for their Bow Street detectives. Unlike the stipendiary system at Bow Street, the river police were full-time, salaried officers prohibited from taking private fees. His other contribution was the concept of preventive policing; his police were to act as a highly visible deterrent to crime by their permanent presence on the Thames. Colquhoun's innovations were a critical development leading up to Robert Peel's "new" police three decades later.
Which law established Glasgow's police?
5732a188cc179a14009dabae
Glasgow Police Act
99
False
When was Glasgow's police force established?
5732a188cc179a14009dabaf
1800
161
False
Which law established Ireland's police?
5732a188cc179a14009dabb0
Irish Constabulary Act
286
False
When was Ireland's police force established?
5732a188cc179a14009dabb1
1822
312
False
What was Ireland's police force called?
5732a188cc179a14009dabb2
Royal Irish Constabulary
345
False
Glasgow Police Act
99
Which law abolished Glasgow's police?
5acebb7232bba1001ae4b221
True
1800
161
When was Glasgow's police force abolished?
5acebb7232bba1001ae4b222
True
Irish Constabulary Act of 1822
286
Which law fired Ireland's police?
5acebb7232bba1001ae4b223
True
1822
312
When was Ireland's police force abolished?
5acebb7232bba1001ae4b224
True
Royal Irish Constabulary
345
What was Ireland's police force not called?
5acebb7232bba1001ae4b225
True
Meanwhile, the authorities in Glasgow, Scotland successfully petitioned the government to pass the Glasgow Police Act establishing the City of Glasgow Police in 1800. Other Scottish towns soon followed suit and set up their own police forces through acts of parliament. In Ireland, the Irish Constabulary Act of 1822 marked the beginning of the Royal Irish Constabulary. The Act established a force in each barony with chief constables and inspectors general under the control of the civil administration at Dublin Castle. By 1841 this force numbered over 8,600 men.
Who was the 'father of modern policing'?
5732a37ecc179a14009dabb8
Peel
0
False
Whose philosophy influenced Peel?
5732a37ecc179a14009dabb9
Jeremy Bentham
117
False
What political position did Bentham think police should have?
5732a37ecc179a14009dabba
neutral
190
False
How did Peel standardize police?
5732a37ecc179a14009dabbb
as an official paid profession
397
False
How did Peel organize police?
5732a37ecc179a14009dabbc
in a civilian fashion
444
False
Peel
0
Who was the 'mother of modern policing'?
5acebc0a32bba1001ae4b235
True
Jeremy Bentham
117
Whose philosophy repelled Peel?
5acebc0a32bba1001ae4b236
True
neutral
190
What political position did Bentham think police shouldn't have?
5acebc0a32bba1001ae4b237
True
as an official paid profession
397
How did Peel specialize police?
5acebc0a32bba1001ae4b238
True
in a civilian fashion
444
How did Peel disorganize police?
5acebc0a32bba1001ae4b239
True
Peel, widely regarded as the father of modern policing, was heavily influenced by the social and legal philosophy of Jeremy Bentham, who called for a strong and centralized, but politically neutral, police force for the maintenance of social order, for the protection of people from crime and to act as a visible deterrent to urban crime and disorder. Peel decided to standardise the police force as an official paid profession, to organise it in a civilian fashion, and to make it answerable to the public.
When was the Metropolitan Police Act passed?
5732a6ebcc179a14009dabd4
1829
4
False
What did the Metropolitan Police Act say police were a subset of?
5732a6ebcc179a14009dabd5
the judicial system
157
False
Where was the 'Continental model' of police from?
5732a6ebcc179a14009dabd6
France
396
False
What part of the government did French police work under?
5732a6ebcc179a14009dabd7
the authority of the monarch
499
False
1829
4
When was the Metropolitan Police Act rejected?
5acebcaf32bba1001ae4b25f
True
the judicial system
157
What did the Metropolitan Police Act say police weren't a subset of?
5acebcaf32bba1001ae4b260
True
France
396
Where was the 'Intercontinental model' of police from?
5acebcaf32bba1001ae4b261
True
France
396
Where wasn't the 'Continental model' of police from?
5acebcaf32bba1001ae4b262
True
the authority of the monarch
499
What part of the government did English police work under?
5acebcaf32bba1001ae4b263
True
The 1829 Metropolitan Police Act created a modern police force by limiting the purview of the force and its powers, and envisioning it as merely an organ of the judicial system. Their job was apolitical; to maintain the peace and apprehend criminals for the courts to process according to the law. This was very different to the 'Continental model' of the police force that had been developed in France, where the police force worked within the parameters of the absolutist state as an extension of the authority of the monarch and functioned as part of the governing state.
When did Rio get its first police investigator?
5732a92f328d981900601ff3
1566
3
False
How had the Rio police grown by the 17th century?
5732a92f328d981900601ff4
most captaincies already had local units with law enforcement functions
93
False
When did Minas Gerais get a cavalry regiment?
5732a92f328d981900601ff5
July 9, 1775
169
False
Where did the Portuguese royal family move in 1808?
5732a92f328d981900601ff6
Brazil
323
False
Who invaded Portugal in 1808?
5732a92f328d981900601ff7
French
346
False
1566
3
When did Rio get its first police inspector?
5acebd8232bba1001ae4b273
True
most captaincies already had local units with law enforcement functions
93
How had the Rio police grown by the 16th century?
5acebd8232bba1001ae4b274
True
July 9, 1775
169
When didn't Minas Gerais get a cavalry regiment?
5acebd8232bba1001ae4b275
True
Brazil
323
Where did the Portuguese royal family move in 1880?
5acebd8232bba1001ae4b276
True
French
346
Who supported Portugal in 1808?
5acebd8232bba1001ae4b277
True
In 1566, the first police investigator of Rio de Janeiro was recruited. By the 17th century, most captaincies already had local units with law enforcement functions. On July 9, 1775 a Cavalry Regiment was created in the state of Minas Gerais for maintaining law and order. In 1808, the Portuguese royal family relocated to Brazil, because of the French invasion of Portugal. King João VI established the "Intendência Geral de Polícia" (General Police Intendancy) for investigations. He also created a Royal Police Guard for Rio de Janeiro in 1809. In 1831, after independence, each province started organizing its local "military police", with order maintenance tasks. The Federal Railroad Police was created in 1852.
When did Canada get its first police?
5732a975d6dcfa19001e8a60
1729
62
False
What was Canada's first police force?
5732a975d6dcfa19001e8a61
Royal Newfoundland Constabulary
15
False
When was the Toronto police created?
5732a975d6dcfa19001e8a62
1834
143
False
When was the Montreal police created?
5732a975d6dcfa19001e8a63
1838
178
False
When were the first Mounties created?
5732a975d6dcfa19001e8a64
1873
449
False
1729
62
When did Canada get its last police?
5acebdfa32bba1001ae4b27d
True
Royal Newfoundland Constabulary
15
What wasn't Canada's first police force?
5acebdfa32bba1001ae4b27e
True
1834
143
When was the Toronto police destroyed?
5acebdfa32bba1001ae4b27f
True
1838
178
When was the Montreal police not created?
5acebdfa32bba1001ae4b280
True
1873
449
When were the first Mounties destroyed?
5acebdfa32bba1001ae4b281
True
In Canada, the Royal Newfoundland Constabulary was founded in 1729, making it the first police force in present-day Canada. It was followed in 1834 by the Toronto Police, and in 1838 by police forces in Montreal and Quebec City. A national force, the Dominion Police, was founded in 1868. Initially the Dominion Police provided security for parliament, but its responsibilities quickly grew. The famous Royal Northwest Mounted Police was founded in 1873. The merger of these two police forces in 1920 formed the world-famous Royal Canadian Mounted Police.
What were the Old West's local police options?
5732aa731d5d2e14009ff88f
poorly resourced sheriffs and temporarily organized posses
132
False
Which military branch helped the Old West's inadequate local police?
5732aa731d5d2e14009ff890
The Army
84
False
Which private contractor acted as police for businesses?
5732aa731d5d2e14009ff891
Pinkerton National Detective Agency
284
False
Which military branch did the Pinkertons exceed at their height?
5732aa731d5d2e14009ff892
Army
494
False
poorly resourced sheriffs and temporarily organized posses
132
What were the New West's local police options?
5acebfc532bba1001ae4b2a9
True
poorly resourced sheriffs and temporarily organized posses
132
What were the Old West's national police options?
5acebfc532bba1001ae4b2aa
True
The Army
84
Which military branch fought the Old West's inadequate local police?
5acebfc532bba1001ae4b2ab
True
Pinkerton National Detective Agency
284
Which public contractor acted as police for businesses?
5acebfc532bba1001ae4b2ac
True
United States Army
480
Which military branch did the Pinkertons never exceed at their height?
5acebfc532bba1001ae4b2ad
True
In the American Old West, policing was often of very poor quality.[citation needed] The Army often provided some policing alongside poorly resourced sheriffs and temporarily organized posses.[citation needed] Public organizations were supplemented by private contractors, notably the Pinkerton National Detective Agency, which was hired by individuals, businessmen, local governments and the federal government. At its height, the Pinkerton Agency's numbers exceeded those of the United States Army.[citation needed]
Which countries' scholars developed the contemporary police concept?
5732ab8ed6dcfa19001e8a6a
German and French
126
False
Who wrote the 'Treatise on the Police'?
5732ab8ed6dcfa19001e8a6b
Nicolas Delamare
273
False
What was the 'Treatise on the Police' called in French?
5732ab8ed6dcfa19001e8a6c
Traité de la Police
292
False
When was the 'Treatise on the Police' published?
5732ab8ed6dcfa19001e8a6d
1705
359
False
What was von Hornigk's career?
5732ab8ed6dcfa19001e8a6e
Political economist and civil servant
479
False
German and French
126
Which countries' scholars rejected the contemporary police concept?
5acec62832bba1001ae4b37d
True
Nicolas Delamare
273
Who co-wrote the 'Treatise on the Police'?
5acec62832bba1001ae4b37e
True
Traité de la Police
292
What wasn't the 'Treatise on the Police' called in French?
5acec62832bba1001ae4b37f
True
1705
359
When was the 'Treatise on the Police' abolished?
5acec62832bba1001ae4b380
True
Political economist and civil servant
479
What wasn't von Hornigk's career?
5acec62832bba1001ae4b381
True
Michel Foucault claims that the contemporary concept of police as a paid and funded functionary of the state was developed by German and French legal scholars and practitioners in Public administration and Statistics in the 17th and early 18th centuries, most notably with Nicolas Delamare's Traité de la Police ("Treatise on the Police"), first published in 1705. The German Polizeiwissenschaft (Science of Police) first theorized by Philipp von Hörnigk a 17th-century Austrian Political economist and civil servant and much more famously by Johann Heinrich Gottlob Justi who produced an important theoretical work known as Cameral science on the formulation of police. Foucault cites Magdalene Humpert author of Bibliographie der Kameralwissenschaften (1937) in which the author makes note of a substantial bibliography was produced of over 4000 pieces of the practice of Polizeiwissenschaft however, this maybe a mistranslation of Foucault's own work the actual source of Magdalene Humpert states over 14,000 items were produced from the 16th century dates ranging from 1520-1850.
Who wrote about Polizeiwissenschaft?
5732af38d6dcfa19001e8a74
Foucault
58
False
How did Foucault describe the social duty of police?
5732af38d6dcfa19001e8a75
procuring abundance
127
False
Which economic theory did Foucault say supported the police?
5732af38d6dcfa19001e8a76
mercantilist theory
428
False
Why did the functions of police grow beyond law enforcement to urban planning?
5732af38d6dcfa19001e8a77
because of the miasma theory of disease; thus, cemeteries were moved out of town, etc.
638
False
Foucault
58
Who never wrote about Polizeiwissenschaft?
5acec6d032bba1001ae4b3a3
True
procuring abundance
127
How did Foucault describe the social duty of army?
5acec6d032bba1001ae4b3a4
True
mercantilist theory
428
Which economic theory did Foucault say rejected the police?
5acec6d032bba1001ae4b3a5
True
mercantilist theory
428
Which biology theory did Foucault say supported the police?
5acec6d032bba1001ae4b3a6
True
because of the miasma theory of disease; thus, cemeteries were moved out of town, etc.
638
Why didn't the functions of police grow beyond law enforcement to urban planning?
5acec6d032bba1001ae4b3a7
True
As conceptualized by the Polizeiwissenschaft,according to Foucault the police had an administrative,economic and social duty ("procuring abundance"). It was in charge of demographic concerns and needed to be incorporated within the western political philosophy system of raison d'état and therefore giving the superficial appearance of empowering the population (and unwittingly supervising the population), which, according to mercantilist theory, was to be the main strength of the state. Thus, its functions largely overreached simple law enforcement activities and included public health concerns, urban planning (which was important because of the miasma theory of disease; thus, cemeteries were moved out of town, etc.), and surveillance of prices.
Who wrote 'Preventive Police'?
5732afaccc179a14009dac0e
Edwin Chadwick
0
False
When was 'Preventive Police' published?
5732afaccc179a14009dac0f
1829
17
False
Where was 'Preventive Police' published?
5732afaccc179a14009dac10
London Review
58
False
What did Chadwick say police should be focused on?
5732afaccc179a14009dac11
prevention
85
False
What was the alternative to prevention?
5732afaccc179a14009dac12
a deterrent of punishment
348
False
Edwin Chadwick
0
Who co-wrote 'Preventive Police'?
5acec76832bba1001ae4b3bf
True
1829
17
When was 'Preventive Police' not published?
5acec76832bba1001ae4b3c0
True
London Review
58
Where was 'Preventive Police' unpublished?
5acec76832bba1001ae4b3c1
True
prevention
85
What did Chadwick say police shouldn't be focused on?
5acec76832bba1001ae4b3c2
True
a deterrent of punishment
348
What was the same as prevention?
5acec76832bba1001ae4b3c3
True
Edwin Chadwick's 1829 article, "Preventive police" in the London Review, argued that prevention ought to be the primary concern of a police body, which was not the case in practice. The reason, argued Chadwick, was that "A preventive police would act more immediately by placing difficulties in obtaining the objects of temptation." In contrast to a deterrent of punishment, a preventive police force would deter criminality by making crime cost-ineffective - "crime doesn't pay". In the second draft of his 1829 Police Act, the "object" of the new Metropolitan Police, was changed by Robert Peel to the "principal object," which was the "prevention of crime." Later historians would attribute the perception of England's "appearance of orderliness and love of public order" to the preventive principle entrenched in Peel's police system.
What do some police departments make detectives go back to periodically?
5732b0c9cc179a14009dac18
patrol duties
374
False
Where do some think the most important police work happens?
5732b0c9cc179a14009dac19
on patrol
519
False
How do patrol officers affect crime?
5732b0c9cc179a14009dac1a
prevent crime by their presence
583
False
patrol duties
374
What do some police departments make detectives never go back to?
5acec7f432bba1001ae4b3d3
True
patrol duties
374
What do all police departments make detectives go back to periodically?
5acec7f432bba1001ae4b3d4
True
on patrol
519
Where do all think the most important police work happens?
5acec7f432bba1001ae4b3d5
True
on patrol
519
Where do some think the most minor police work happens?
5acec7f432bba1001ae4b3d6
True
prevent crime by their presence
583
How do patrol officers ignore crime?
5acec7f432bba1001ae4b3d7
True
Despite popular conceptions promoted by movies and television, many US police departments prefer not to maintain officers in non-patrol bureaus and divisions beyond a certain period of time, such as in the detective bureau, and instead maintain policies that limit service in such divisions to a specified period of time, after which officers must transfer out or return to patrol duties.[citation needed] This is done in part based upon the perception that the most important and essential police work is accomplished on patrol in which officers become acquainted with their beats, prevent crime by their presence, respond to crimes in progress, manage crises, and practice their skills.[citation needed]
When did Nadelmann write about global policing?
5732b2a0328d981900602011
1993
231
False
When did Sheptycki write about global policing?
5732b2a0328d981900602012
1995
250
False
What terms have been used to describe policing beyond one country?
5732b2a0328d981900602013
international policing, transnational policing, and/or global policing
10
False
1993
231
When didb't Nadelmann write about global policing?
5acec8eb32bba1001ae4b3f5
True
1993
231
When did Nadelmann write about local policing?
5acec8eb32bba1001ae4b3f6
True
1995
250
When didn't Sheptycki write about global policing?
5acec8eb32bba1001ae4b3f7
True
1995
250
When did Sheptycki write about local policing?
5acec8eb32bba1001ae4b3f8
True
international policing, transnational policing, and/or global policing
10
What terms haven't been used to describe policing beyond one country?
5acec8eb32bba1001ae4b3f9
True
The terms international policing, transnational policing, and/or global policing began to be used from the early 1990s onwards to describe forms of policing that transcended the boundaries of the sovereign nation-state (Nadelmann, 1993), (Sheptycki, 1995). These terms refer in variable ways to practices and forms for policing that, in some sense, transcend national borders. This includes a variety of practices, but international police cooperation, criminal intelligence exchange between police agencies working in different nation-states, and police development-aid to weak, failed or failing states are the three types that have received the most scholarly attention.
When did Deflem write about cross-border policing?
5732b79ad6dcfa19001e8a86
2002
129
False
What groups did European police work against across borders in the 19th century?
5732b79ad6dcfa19001e8a87
anarchist agitators and other political radicals
270
False
Which police force monitored Karl Marx?
5732b79ad6dcfa19001e8a88
Prussian
381
False
What international police agency was created before WW2?
5732b79ad6dcfa19001e8a89
Interpol
671
False
In what era did cross-border policing increase?
5732b79ad6dcfa19001e8a8a
post–Cold War
1050
False
2002
129
When did Deflem write about in-border policing?
5acecb0a32bba1001ae4b429
True
anarchist agitators and other political radicals
270
What groups did European police work against across borders in the 18th century?
5acecb0a32bba1001ae4b42a
True
Prussian
381
Which police force ignored Karl Marx?
5acecb0a32bba1001ae4b42b
True
Interpol
671
What national police agency was created before WW2?
5acecb0a32bba1001ae4b42c
True
post–Cold War
1050
In what era did cross-border policing decrease?
5acecb0a32bba1001ae4b42d
True
Historical studies reveal that policing agents have undertaken a variety of cross-border police missions for many years (Deflem, 2002). For example, in the 19th century a number of European policing agencies undertook cross-border surveillance because of concerns about anarchist agitators and other political radicals. A notable example of this was the occasional surveillance by Prussian police of Karl Marx during the years he remained resident in London. The interests of public police agencies in cross-border co-operation in the control of political radicalism and ordinary law crime were primarily initiated in Europe, which eventually led to the establishment of Interpol before the Second World War. There are also many interesting examples of cross-border policing under private auspices and by municipal police forces that date back to the 19th century (Nadelmann, 1993). It has been established that modern policing has transgressed national boundaries from time to time almost from its inception. It is also generally agreed that in the post–Cold War era this type of practice became more significant and frequent (Sheptycki, 2000).
Where did Sheptycki study police cooperation?
5732b7fbcc179a14009dac28
the English Channel region
198
False
When did Sheptycki write about police cooperation?
5732b7fbcc179a14009dac29
2002
226
False
When did the Channel region establish routine cross-border policing?
5732b7fbcc179a14009dac2a
1968
542
False
When was the Schengen Treaty signed?
5732b7fbcc179a14009dac2b
1992
680
False
What did the Schengen Treaty do for policing?
5732b7fbcc179a14009dac2c
formalized aspects of police information exchange across the territory of the European Union
733
False
the English Channel
198
Where did Sheptycki study police interigation?
5acecb7732bba1001ae4b443
True
the English Channel region
198
Where didn't Sheptycki study police cooperation?
5acecb7732bba1001ae4b444
True
2002
226
When didn't Sheptycki write about police cooperation?
5acecb7732bba1001ae4b445
True
1968
542
When did the Channel region reject routine cross-border policing?
5acecb7732bba1001ae4b446
True
1992
680
When was the Schengen Treaty rejected?
5acecb7732bba1001ae4b447
True
Not a lot of empirical work on the practices of inter/transnational information and intelligence sharing has been undertaken. A notable exception is James Sheptycki's study of police cooperation in the English Channel region (2002), which provides a systematic content analysis of information exchange files and a description of how these transnational information and intelligence exchanges are transformed into police case-work. The study showed that transnational police information sharing was routinized in the cross-Channel region from 1968 on the basis of agreements directly between the police agencies and without any formal agreement between the countries concerned. By 1992, with the signing of the Schengen Treaty, which formalized aspects of police information exchange across the territory of the European Union, there were worries that much, if not all, of this intelligence sharing was opaque, raising questions about the efficacy of the accountability mechanisms governing police information sharing in Europe (Joubert and Bevers, 1996).
Where has cross-border policing been most under-studied?
5732b8ac328d98190060202b
outside of Europe
21
False
Who compared transnational police information and intelligence sharing practices?
5732b8ac328d98190060202c
Alain
369
False
What kind of policing has become common practice?
5732b8ac328d98190060202d
Intelligence-led
383
False
What problems did Sheptycki say 'organizational pathologies' have caused for police?
5732b8ac328d98190060202e
make the functioning of security-intelligence processes in transnational policing deeply problematic
810
False
What paradox did Sheptycki point out?
5732b8ac328d98190060202f
the harder policing agencies work to produce security, the greater are feelings of insecurity
1069
False
outside of Europe
21
Where has cross-border policing been least under-studied?
5acecbfa32bba1001ae4b45f
True
outside of Europe
21
Where has cross-border policing been most over-studied?
5acecbfa32bba1001ae4b460
True
Intelligence-led
383
What kind of policing has become rare practice?
5acecbfa32bba1001ae4b461
True
make the functioning of security-intelligence processes in transnational policing deeply problematic
810
What problems did Sheptycki say 'organizational pathologies' haven't caused for police?
5acecbfa32bba1001ae4b462
True
the harder policing agencies work to produce security, the greater are feelings of insecurity
1069
What paradox did Sheptycki ignore?
5acecbfa32bba1001ae4b463
True
Studies of this kind outside of Europe are even rarer, so it is difficult to make generalizations, but one small-scale study that compared transnational police information and intelligence sharing practices at specific cross-border locations in North America and Europe confirmed that low visibility of police information and intelligence sharing was a common feature (Alain, 2001). Intelligence-led policing is now common practice in most advanced countries (Ratcliffe, 2007) and it is likely that police intelligence sharing and information exchange has a common morphology around the world (Ratcliffe, 2007). James Sheptycki has analyzed the effects of the new information technologies on the organization of policing-intelligence and suggests that a number of 'organizational pathologies' have arisen that make the functioning of security-intelligence processes in transnational policing deeply problematic. He argues that transnational police information circuits help to "compose the panic scenes of the security-control society". The paradoxical effect is that, the harder policing agencies work to produce security, the greater are feelings of insecurity.
Where has transnational policing become more important?
5732baf1328d981900602035
in United Nations peacekeeping
201
False
What kind of countries get assistance with policing?
5732baf1328d981900602036
weak, failed or failing states
26
False
Who wrote about police development-aid in 2007?
5732baf1328d981900602037
Goldsmith and Sheptycki
423
False
What concern did Hills raise about police models?
5732baf1328d981900602038
there are questions about the applicability and transportability of policing models between jurisdictions
564
False
What concern did Hills raise about power imbalances?
5732baf1328d981900602039
With transnational police development-aid the imbalances of power between donors and recipients are stark
454
False
in United Nations peacekeeping
201
Where has transnational policing become less important?
5acecc9332bba1001ae4b47d
True
weak, failed or failing states
26
What kind of countries get no assistance with policing?
5acecc9332bba1001ae4b47e
True
Goldsmith and Sheptycki
423
Who wrote about police development-aid in 2006?
5acecc9332bba1001ae4b47f
True
there are questions about the applicability and transportability of policing models between jurisdictions
564
What concern did Hills ignore about police models?
5acecc9332bba1001ae4b480
True
With transnational police development-aid the imbalances of power between donors and recipients are stark
454
What concern did Hills ignore about power imbalances?
5acecc9332bba1001ae4b481
True
Police development-aid to weak, failed or failing states is another form of transnational policing that has garnered attention. This form of transnational policing plays an increasingly important role in United Nations peacekeeping and this looks set to grow in the years ahead, especially as the international community seeks to develop the rule of law and reform security institutions in States recovering from conflict (Goldsmith and Sheptycki, 2007) With transnational police development-aid the imbalances of power between donors and recipients are stark and there are questions about the applicability and transportability of policing models between jurisdictions (Hills, 2009).
Who wrote the Global Accountability Report for 2007?
5732bba1d6dcfa19001e8a90
Lloyd, et al.
347
False
What is the least-accountable IGO?
5732bba1d6dcfa19001e8a91
Interpol
367
False
How accountable is Interpol?
5732bba1d6dcfa19001e8a92
22%
454
False
Why is transnational policing so unaccountable?
5732bba1d6dcfa19001e8a93
this is a secretive area and one not open to civil society involvement
614
False
Lloyd, et al.
347
Who wrote the Local Accountability Report for 2007?
5acecd5132bba1001ae4b491
True
Interpol
367
What is the most-accountable IGO?
5acecd5132bba1001ae4b492
True
22%
454
How unaccountable is Interpol?
5acecd5132bba1001ae4b493
True
this is a secretive area and one not open to civil society involvement
614
Why is transnational policing so accountable?
5acecd5132bba1001ae4b494
True
this is a secretive area and one not open to civil society involvement
614
Why isn't transnational policing so unaccountable?
5acecd5132bba1001ae4b495
True
Perhaps the greatest question regarding the future development of transnational policing is: in whose interest is it? At a more practical level, the question translates into one about how to make transnational policing institutions democratically accountable (Sheptycki, 2004). For example, according to the Global Accountability Report for 2007 (Lloyd, et al. 2007) Interpol had the lowest scores in its category (IGOs), coming in tenth with a score of 22% on overall accountability capabilities (p. 19). As this report points out, and the existing academic literature on transnational policing seems to confirm, this is a secretive area and one not open to civil society involvement.
What should non-lethal weapons properly be called?
5732bcead6dcfa19001e8a98
"less than lethal" or "less-lethal"
65
False
What are common less-lethal weapons?
5732bcead6dcfa19001e8a99
batons, tear gas, riot control agents, rubber bullets, riot shields, water cannons and electroshock weapons
170
False
What is supposed to be the last resort for police?
5732bcead6dcfa19001e8a9a
The use of firearms or deadly force
339
False
What is South Africa's "shoot-to-kill" policy?
5732bcead6dcfa19001e8a9b
allows police to use deadly force against any person who poses a significant threat to them or civilians
629
False
Where can police shoot fleeing convicts?
5732bcead6dcfa19001e8a9c
Brazil
490
False
"less than lethal" or "less-lethal"
65
What should lethal weapons properly be called?
5acece2e32bba1001ae4b4ab
True
batons, tear gas, riot control agents, rubber bullets, riot shields, water cannons and electroshock weapons
170
What are uncommon less-lethal weapons?
5acece2e32bba1001ae4b4ac
True
The use of firearms or deadly force
339
What is supposed to be the first resort for police?
5acece2e32bba1001ae4b4ad
True
allows police to use deadly force against any person who poses a significant threat to them or civilians
629
What is North Africa's "shoot-to-kill" policy?
5acece2e32bba1001ae4b4ae
True
Brazil
490
Where can't police shoot fleeing convicts?
5acece2e32bba1001ae4b4af
True
They can also be armed with non-lethal (more accurately known as "less than lethal" or "less-lethal") weaponry, particularly for riot control. Non-lethal weapons include batons, tear gas, riot control agents, rubber bullets, riot shields, water cannons and electroshock weapons. Police officers often carry handcuffs to restrain suspects. The use of firearms or deadly force is typically a last resort only to be used when necessary to save human life, although some jurisdictions (such as Brazil) allow its use against fleeing felons and escaped convicts. A "shoot-to-kill" policy was recently introduced in South Africa, which allows police to use deadly force against any person who poses a significant threat to them or civilians. With the country having one of the highest rates of violent crime, president Jacob Zuma states that South Africa needs to handle crime differently from other countries.
How do modern police often communicate?
5732befb1d5d2e14009ff897
radio
43
False
Where do police have radios?
5732befb1d5d2e14009ff898
carried both on the person and installed in vehicles
75
False
Why do police use radios?
5732befb1d5d2e14009ff899
to co-ordinate their work, share information, and get help quickly
129
False
What have computers in police cars enabled for investigation?
5732befb1d5d2e14009ff89a
criminal background checks on persons of interest to be completed in a matter of seconds
332
False
What have computers in police cars enabled for reporting?
5732befb1d5d2e14009ff89b
updating officers' daily activity log and other, required reports on a real-time basis
426
False
radio
43
How do modern police never communicate?
5acecee632bba1001ae4b4c9
True
carried both on the person and installed in vehicles
75
Where don't police have radios?
5acecee632bba1001ae4b4ca
True
to co-ordinate their work, share information
129
Why don't police use radios?
5acecee632bba1001ae4b4cb
True
criminal background checks on persons of interest to be completed in a matter of seconds
332
What have computers in police cars enabled for investigation?
5acecee632bba1001ae4b4cc
True
updating officers' daily activity log and other, required reports on a real-time basis
426
What have computers in police cars disbled for reporting?
5acecee632bba1001ae4b4cd
True
Modern police forces make extensive use of radio communications equipment, carried both on the person and installed in vehicles, to co-ordinate their work, share information, and get help quickly. In recent years, vehicle-installed computers have enhanced the ability of police communications, enabling easier dispatching of calls, criminal background checks on persons of interest to be completed in a matter of seconds, and updating officers' daily activity log and other, required reports on a real-time basis. Other common pieces of police equipment include flashlights/torches, whistles, police notebooks and "ticket books" or citations.
When do police often use unmarked cars?
5732bf5c328d98190060203f
primarily for sting operations or apprehending criminals without alerting them to their presence
27
False
What use of unmarked cars is controversial?
5732bf5c328d981900602040
for traffic law enforcement
182
False
When did New York State ban unmarked cars for traffic cops?
5732bf5c328d981900602041
1996
455
False
Why did New York State ban unmarked cars for traffic cops?
5732bf5c328d981900602042
it endangered motorists who might be pulled over by people impersonating police officers
480
False
primarily for sting operations or apprehending criminals without alerting them to their presence
27
When do police often use marked cars?
5acecf5732bba1001ae4b4d3
True
for traffic law enforcement
182
What use of unmarked cars isn't controversial?
5acecf5732bba1001ae4b4d4
True
1996
455
When did New York State ban marked cars for traffic cops?
5acecf5732bba1001ae4b4d5
True
it endangered motorists who might be pulled over by people impersonating police officers
480
Why did New York State allow unmarked cars for traffic cops?
5acecf5732bba1001ae4b4d6
True
it endangered motorists who might be pulled over by people impersonating police officers
480
Why did New York State ban marked cars for traffic cops?
5acecf5732bba1001ae4b4d7
True
Unmarked vehicles are used primarily for sting operations or apprehending criminals without alerting them to their presence. Some police forces use unmarked or minimally marked cars for traffic law enforcement, since drivers slow down at the sight of marked police vehicles and unmarked vehicles make it easier for officers to catch speeders and traffic violators. This practice is controversial, with for example, New York State banning this practice in 1996 on the grounds that it endangered motorists who might be pulled over by people impersonating police officers.
Why do some cops use bicycles to patrol?
5732c242d6dcfa19001e8aa2
they allow for more open interaction with the public
335
False
How do bicycles help catch some suspects?
5732c242d6dcfa19001e8aa3
their quieter operation can facilitate approaching suspects unawares and can help in pursuing them attempting to escape on foot
402
False
What do police use to control motorcyclist events?
5732c242d6dcfa19001e8aa4
Motorcycles
0
False
they allow for more open interaction with the public
335
Why do all cops use bicycles to patrol?
5acecfda32bba1001ae4b50d
True
they allow for more open interaction with the public
335
Why do some cops use motorcycles to patrol?
5acecfda32bba1001ae4b50e
True
their quieter operation can facilitate approaching suspects unawares and can help in pursuing them attempting to escape on foot
402
How do bicycles help catch some police officers?
5acecfda32bba1001ae4b50f
True
their quieter operation can facilitate approaching suspects unawares and can help in pursuing them attempting to escape on foot
402
How don't bicycles help catch some suspects?
5acecfda32bba1001ae4b510
True
Motorcycles
0
What don't police use to control motorcyclist events?
5acecfda32bba1001ae4b511
True
Motorcycles are also commonly used, particularly in locations that a car may not be able to reach, to control potential public order situations involving meetings of motorcyclists and often in escort duties where motorcycle police officers can quickly clear a path for escorted vehicles. Bicycle patrols are used in some areas because they allow for more open interaction with the public. In addition, their quieter operation can facilitate approaching suspects unawares and can help in pursuing them attempting to escape on foot.
Who introduced education requirements for US police?
5732c3521d5d2e14009ff8a1
August Vollmer
22
False
Who was O.W. Wilson a student of?
5732c3521d5d2e14009ff8a2
August Vollmer
22
False
Where did Wilson reduce police corruption?
5732c3521d5d2e14009ff8a3
Wichita, Kansas, and later in the Chicago Police Department
210
False
Why did Wilson rotate officers between communities?
5732c3521d5d2e14009ff8a4
to reduce their vulnerability to corruption
361
False
How did Wilson recruit more qualified police?
5732c3521d5d2e14009ff8a5
an aggressive recruiting drive with higher police salaries
547
False
August Vollmer
22
Who never introduced education requirements for US police?
5aced07232bba1001ae4b535
True
August Vollmer
22
Who was W.O. Wilson a student of?
5aced07232bba1001ae4b536
True
Wichita, Kansas, and later in the Chicago Police Department
210
Where did Wilson increase police corruption?
5aced07232bba1001ae4b537
True
to reduce their vulnerability to corruption
361
Why did Wilson rotate officers between communities?
5aced07232bba1001ae4b538
True
an aggressive recruiting drive with higher police salaries
547
How did Wilson recruit more unqualified police?
5aced07232bba1001ae4b539
True
In the United States, August Vollmer introduced other reforms, including education requirements for police officers. O.W. Wilson, a student of Vollmer, helped reduce corruption and introduce professionalism in Wichita, Kansas, and later in the Chicago Police Department. Strategies employed by O.W. Wilson included rotating officers from community to community to reduce their vulnerability to corruption, establishing of a non-partisan police board to help govern the police force, a strict merit system for promotions within the department, and an aggressive recruiting drive with higher police salaries to attract professionally qualified officers. During the professionalism era of policing, law enforcement agencies concentrated on dealing with felonies and other serious crime, rather than broader focus on crime prevention.
What does Miranda provide?
5732c3d8d6dcfa19001e8aa8
safeguards against self-incriminating statements made after an arrest
29
False
What does the 5th Amendment protect against?
5732c3d8d6dcfa19001e8aa9
self-incrimination
491
False
Which amendment prevents self-incrimination?
5732c3d8d6dcfa19001e8aaa
Fifth
455
False
safeguards against self-incriminating statements made after an arrest.
29
What does Miranda not provide?
5aced11c32bba1001ae4b563
True
safeguards against self-incriminating statements made after an arrest
29
What doesn't Miranda provide?
5aced11c32bba1001ae4b564
True
self-incrimination
491
What does the 5th Amendment not protect against?
5aced11c32bba1001ae4b565
True
self-incrimination
491
What doesn't the 5th Amendment protect against?
5aced11c32bba1001ae4b566
True
Fifth
455
Which amendment doesn't prevent self-incrimination?
5aced11c32bba1001ae4b567
True
In Miranda the court created safeguards against self-incriminating statements made after an arrest. The court held that "The prosecution may not use statements, whether exculpatory or inculpatory, stemming from questioning initiated by law enforcement officers after a person has been taken into custody or otherwise deprived of his freedom of action in any significant way, unless it demonstrates the use of procedural safeguards effective to secure the Fifth Amendment's privilege against self-incrimination"
When was the Terry v. Ohio case?
5732c4bcd6dcfa19001e8aae
1968
18
False
Which two parts did Terry v. Ohio divide seizure into?
5732c4bcd6dcfa19001e8aaf
investigatory stop and arrest
70
False
What is an investigatory stop's search limited to?
5732c4bcd6dcfa19001e8ab0
what [is] minimally necessary to determine whether [a suspect] is armed
203
False
1968
18
When was the Sherry v. Ohio case?
5aced1bc32bba1001ae4b599
True
1968
18
When was the Terry v. New York case?
5aced1bc32bba1001ae4b59a
True
investigatory stop and arrest
70
Which two parts didn't Terry v. Ohio divide seizure into?
5aced1bc32bba1001ae4b59b
True
what [is] minimally necessary to determine whether [a suspect] is armed
203
What is an investigatory start's search limited to?
5aced1bc32bba1001ae4b59c
True
what [is] minimally necessary to determine whether [a suspect] is armed
203
What is an investigatory stop's search unlimited to?
5aced1bc32bba1001ae4b59d
True
In Terry v. Ohio (1968) the court divided seizure into two parts, the investigatory stop and arrest. The court further held that during an investigatory stop a police officer's search " [is] confined to what [is] minimally necessary to determine whether [a suspect] is armed, and the intrusion, which [is] made for the sole purpose of protecting himself and others nearby, [is] confined to ascertaining the presence of weapons" (U.S. Supreme Court). Before Terry, every police encounter constituted an arrest, giving the police officer the full range of search authority. Search authority during a Terry stop (investigatory stop) is limited to weapons only.
What is the legal status of UK police officers?
5732c58e1d5d2e14009ff8ab
constables
76
False
What can only Inspector-ranked UK officers do?
5732c58e1d5d2e14009ff8ac
authorize a search of a suspect's house
354
False
What can only Superintendent-ranked UK officers do?
5732c58e1d5d2e14009ff8ad
authorize a suspect's detention beyond 24 hours
489
False
What powers of a new UK police officer are the same as a Commissioner's?
5732c58e1d5d2e14009ff8ae
arrest
179
False
constable
156
What is the illegal status of UK police officers?
5aced26f32bba1001ae4b5d5
True
constable
156
What is the legal status of UN police officers?
5aced26f32bba1001ae4b5d6
True
authorize a search of a suspect's house
354
What can all UK officers do?
5aced26f32bba1001ae4b5d7
True
authorize a search of a suspect's house
354
What can't only Superintendent-ranked UK officers do?
5aced26f32bba1001ae4b5d8
True
arrest
179
What powers of an old UK police officer are the same as a Commissioner's?
5aced26f32bba1001ae4b5d9
True
All police officers in the United Kingdom, whatever their actual rank, are 'constables' in terms of their legal position. This means that a newly appointed constable has the same arrest powers as a Chief Constable or Commissioner. However, certain higher ranks have additional powers to authorize certain aspects of police operations, such as a power to authorize a search of a suspect's house (section 18 PACE in England and Wales) by an officer of the rank of Inspector, or the power to authorize a suspect's detention beyond 24 hours by a Superintendent.
Why do some police acts limit when police can interfere without court orders?
5732c66fcc179a14009dac50
To ensure that the police would not interfere in the regular competencies of the courts of law
86
False
What could be impeded without police interference?
5732c66fcc179a14009dac51
the realization of the private right
360
False
How could police help the owner when a restaurant guest doesn't pay because their wallet got stolen?
5732c66fcc179a14009dac52
establish a restaurant guest's identity and forward it to the innkeeper
456
False
To ensure that the police would not interfere in the regular competencies of the courts of law
86
Why do all police acts limit when police can interfere without court orders?
5aced2db32bba1001ae4b5e9
True
To ensure that the police would not interfere in the regular competencies of the courts of law
86
Why do some police acts limit when police can aid without court orders?
5aced2db32bba1001ae4b5ea
True
the realization of the private right
360
What could be unimpeded without police interference?
5aced2db32bba1001ae4b5eb
True
the realization of the private right
360
What couldn't be impeded without police interference?
5aced2db32bba1001ae4b5ec
True
establish a restaurant guest's identity and forward it to the innkeeper
456
How couldn't police help the owner when a restaurant guest doesn't pay because their wallet got stolen?
5aced2db32bba1001ae4b5ed
True
In contrast, the police are entitled to protect private rights in some jurisdictions. To ensure that the police would not interfere in the regular competencies of the courts of law, some police acts require that the police may only interfere in such cases where protection from courts cannot be obtained in time, and where, without interference of the police, the realization of the private right would be impeded. This would, for example, allow police to establish a restaurant guest's identity and forward it to the innkeeper in a case where the guest cannot pay the bill at nighttime because his wallet had just been stolen from the restaurant table.
Genocide
The word "genocide" was unknown until what year?
5732c3e8cc179a14009dac46
1944
110
False
In 1941, how did Winston Churchill refer to the mass killings of Russian prisoners of war?
5732c3e8cc179a14009dac47
as "a crime without a name"
225
False
What was the name of the Polish-Jewish lawyer who first described Nazi atrocities as "genocide?"
5732c3e8cc179a14009dac48
Raphael Lemkin
297
False
What is the etymological basis of the word "genocide?"
5732c3e8cc179a14009dac49
Greek prefix geno- (meaning tribe or race) and caedere (the Latin word for to kill)
435
False
As it pertains to violent crimes against targeted groups, what is the ultimate motivation within the actions of genocide?
5732c3e8cc179a14009dac4a
to remove the entire group from existence or to destroy them
636
False
1944
110
When was the word "genocide" last used?
5a68b5b58476ee001a58a788
True
Raphael Lemkin
297
Who never used the term "genocide"?
5a68b5b58476ee001a58a789
True
Winston Churchill
138
Who referred to acts of genocide in 1945?
5a68b5b58476ee001a58a78a
True
1944
110
What year was the word "genocide" known until?
5a68b5b58476ee001a58a78b
True
genocide
381
What is defined as a specific set of violent crimes that are committed against a certain group with the attempt to remove the entire group from existence or to increase them?
5a68b5b58476ee001a58a78c
True
Genocide
0
When was the phrase "prisoners of war" first used?
5a69525a5ce1a5001a9695b6
True
a specific set of violent crimes that are committed against a certain group with the attempt to remove the entire group from existence or to destroy them
543
What is the definition of "prisoners of war"?
5a69525a5ce1a5001a9695b7
True
Raphael Lemkin
297
Who coined the phrase "prisoners of war"?
5a69525a5ce1a5001a9695b8
True
1944
110
The phrase "prisoners of war" was unknown until what year?
5a69525a5ce1a5001a9695b9
True
as "a crime without a name".
225
In 1941, how did Raphael Lemkin refer to the mass killings of Russian prisoners of war?
5a69525a5ce1a5001a9695ba
True
Genocide has become an official term used in international relations. The word genocide was not in use before 1944. Before this, in 1941, Winston Churchill described the mass killing of Russian prisoners of war and civilians as "a crime without a name". In that year, a Polish-Jewish lawyer named Raphael Lemkin, described the policies of systematic murder founded by the Nazis as genocide. The word genocide is the combination of the Greek prefix geno- (meaning tribe or race) and caedere (the Latin word for to kill). The word is defined as a specific set of violent crimes that are committed against a certain group with the attempt to remove the entire group from existence or to destroy them.
Prior to being a formal legal term, how was the word "genocide" used in an indictment scenario?
573344334776f419006607d2
as a descriptive term
37
False
Who ultimately defined genocide as a series of strategies leading up to the annihilation of an entire group?
573344334776f419006607d3
Lemming
137
False
Lemming's concept of genocide triggered legal action in which realm?
573344334776f419006607d4
international relations and community
476
False
What was the nationality of anthropologist Peg LeVine?
573344334776f419006607d5
Australian
636
False
What relative term did LeVine coin to refer to cultural destruction, without the death of its members?
573344334776f419006607d6
"ritualcide"
689
False
Lemming
137
Who ultimately defined genocide as a strategy leading up to the war of an entire group?
5a68b6d18476ee001a58a792
True
ritualcide
690
What term was coined to describe the increase of culture?
5a68b6d18476ee001a58a793
True
anthropologist
647
What kind of scienctist was ignored by Peg LeVine?
5a68b6d18476ee001a58a794
True
language, culture, and economic infrastructure
380
What elements of group existence, other than people themselves, can never be targets of genocide?
5a68b6d18476ee001a58a795
True
as a descriptive term
37
How was the word "genocide" forbidden to be used in an indictment scenario?
5a68b6d18476ee001a58a796
True
Lemming
137
Who ultimately defined genocide as a series of strategies leading up to the annihilation of indictment?
5a6953ed5ce1a5001a9695c0
True
international relations and community
476
Lemming's concept of genocide triggered cultural identity in what realm?
5a6953ed5ce1a5001a9695c1
True
as a descriptive term
37
Prior to being a formal legal term, how was the word "society" used in an indictment scenario?
5a6953ed5ce1a5001a9695c2
True
Australian
636
What was the nationality of anthropologist Lemming?
5a6953ed5ce1a5001a9695c3
True
ritualcide
690
What term was coined to describe the destruction of basic existence?
5a6953ed5ce1a5001a9695c4
True
The word genocide was later included as a descriptive term to the process of indictment, but not yet as a formal legal term According to Lemming, genocide was defined as "a coordinated strategy to destroy a group of people, a process that could be accomplished through total annihilation as well as strategies that eliminate key elements of the group's basic existence, including language, culture, and economic infrastructure.” He created a concept of mobilizing much of the international relations and community, to working together and preventing the occurrence of such events happening within history and the international society. Australian anthropologist Peg LeVine coined the term "ritualcide" to describe the destruction of a group's cultural identity without necessarily destroying its members.
What has been the primary focus in the study of genocide?
573350a0d058e614000b5840
legal aspect of the term
58
False
In prosecuting genocide, what must the act be formally acknowledged as?
573350a0d058e614000b5841
a crime
131
False
In a general aspect, what is genocide viewed as?
573350a0d058e614000b5842
the deliberate killing of a certain group
387
False
In trials of genocidal crimes, what responsibly party is difficult to prosecute?
573350a0d058e614000b5843
officials in power of a state or area
568
False
Long before genocide was established as a legal term, what treaty was in place to protect various groups from persecution and mass killings?
573350a0d058e614000b5844
the Peace of Westphalia
657
False
legal aspect of the term
58
What has been the lesser focus in the study of genocide?
5a68b8038476ee001a58a7a6
True
genocide is more often than not committed by the officials in power
519
Why is genocide often punished?
5a68b8038476ee001a58a7a7
True
1648
610
What year was the Peace of Westphalia signed for the second time?
5a68b8038476ee001a58a7a8
True
the deliberate killing of a certain group
387
What is genocide not viewed as?
5a68b8038476ee001a58a7a9
True
ethnic, national, racial and in some instances religious groups
708
Who was the Peace of Westphalia designed to eliminate?
5a68b8038476ee001a58a7aa
True
officials in power of a state or area
568
In trials of legal crimes, what responsibly party is difficult to prosecute?
5a69562b5ce1a5001a9695ca
True
the Peace of Westphalia
657
Long before genocide was established as a legal term, what treaty was in place to protect the military?
5a69562b5ce1a5001a9695cb
True
a crime
131
In prosecuting the military, what must the act be formally acknowledged as?
5a69562b5ce1a5001a9695cc
True
legal aspect of the term
58
What has been the primary focus in the study of the military?
5a69562b5ce1a5001a9695cd
True
the deliberate killing of a certain group
387
In a general aspect, what is the military viewed as?
5a69562b5ce1a5001a9695ce
True
The study of genocide has mainly been focused towards the legal aspect of the term. By formally recognizing the act of genocide as a crime, involves the undergoing prosecution that begins with not only seeing genocide as outrageous past any moral standpoint but also may be a legal liability within international relations. When genocide is looked at in a general aspect it is viewed as the deliberate killing of a certain group. Yet is commonly seen to escape the process of trial and prosecution due to the fact that genocide is more often than not committed by the officials in power of a state or area. In 1648 before the term genocide had been coined, the Peace of Westphalia was established to protect ethnic, national, racial and in some instances religious groups. During the 19th century humanitarian intervention was needed due to the fact of conflict and justification of some of the actions executed by the military.
In which war-era country was the Holocaust immortalized?
57335849d058e614000b5896
Nazi Germany
55
False
Following World War II, whose bid was successful in establishing the worldwide acceptance and the nascent legal definition of genocide?
57335849d058e614000b5897
Lemkin
117
False
Which group convened officially for the first time in 1946?
57335849d058e614000b5898
United Nations General Assembly
268
False
While recognizing genocide, what did the UN General Assembly fail to do in its resolution?
57335849d058e614000b5899
provide a legal definition of the crime
400
False
In 1948, what general assembly resolution established genocide as a prosecutable act?
57335849d058e614000b589a
the Convention on the Prevention and Punishment of the Crime of Genocide
482
False
Lemkin
117
Whose bid was not successful in establishing the worldwide acceptance and the nascent legal definition of genocide?
5a68b8b08476ee001a58a7b0
True
provide a legal definition of the crime
400
What did the UN General Assembly do in its resolution?
5a68b8b08476ee001a58a7b1
True
the Convention on the Prevention and Punishment of the Crime of Genocide
482
What general assembly resolution never established genocide as a prosecutable act?
5a68b8b08476ee001a58a7b2
True
Nazi Germany
55
Which war-era country was the Holocaust mortalized?
5a68b8b08476ee001a58a7b3
True
United Nations General Assembly
268
Which group convened officially for the first time in 1948?
5a68b8b08476ee001a58a7b4
True
Lemkin
117
Following World War II, whose bid was successful in the crime of genocide?
5a6957a45ce1a5001a9695d4
True
provide a legal definition of the crime
400
While recognizing genocide, what did Nazi Germany fail to do in its resolution?
5a6957a45ce1a5001a9695d5
True
the Convention on the Prevention and Punishment of the Crime of Genocide
482
In 1948, what general assembly resolution established universal acceptance as a prosecutable act?
5a6957a45ce1a5001a9695d6
True
Nazi Germany
55
In which war-era country was the CPPCG immortalized?
5a6957a45ce1a5001a9695d7
True
United Nations General Assembly
268
Which group eonvene officially for the first time in 1948?
5a6957a45ce1a5001a9695d8
True
After the Holocaust, which had been perpetrated by the Nazi Germany and its allies prior to and during World War II, Lemkin successfully campaigned for the universal acceptance of international laws defining and forbidding genocides. In 1946, the first session of the United Nations General Assembly adopted a resolution that "affirmed" that genocide was a crime under international law, but did not provide a legal definition of the crime. In 1948, the UN General Assembly adopted the Convention on the Prevention and Punishment of the Crime of Genocide (CPPCG) which defined the crime of genocide for the first time.
Which provision was initially included in the first write-up of the Convention and then removed?
573392e24776f41900660d9c
political killings
43
False
What is one of the countries that objected to the inclusion of political killings in the early version of the Convention?
573392e24776f41900660d9d
USSR
194
False
What atrocity motivated a self-serving USSR to object to the provision of political killings drafted into the Convention?
573392e24776f41900660d9e
its own Great Purge
381
False
What was the primary concern of other nations who objected to including political groups in the definition of genocide?
573392e24776f41900660d9f
international intervention in domestic politics
486
False
Which distinguished academic of genocide highlighted several other countries opposed to including political genocide in the Convention?
573392e24776f41900660da0
William Schabas
568
False
political killings
43
Which provision was not initially included in the first write-up of the Convention and then removed?
5a68b9de8476ee001a58a7ba
True
USSR
194
What is one of the countries that supported the inclusion of political killings in the early version of the Convention?
5a68b9de8476ee001a58a7bb
True
William Schabas
568
Which distinguished academic of genocide highlighted several other countries supporting including political genocide in the Convention?
5a68b9de8476ee001a58a7bc
True
Great Purge
389
What atrocity motivated a self-serving USSR to support the provision of political killings drafted into the Convention?
5a68b9de8476ee001a58a7bd
True
political killings
43
Which provision was initially included in the first write-up of the Jewish Congress and then removed?
5a6959fb5ce1a5001a9695de
True
USSR
241
What is one of the countries that objected to the inclusion of political killings in the early version of the World Jewish Congress?
5a6959fb5ce1a5001a9695df
True
its own Great Purge
381
What atrocity motivated a self-serving USSR to object to the provision of machination drafted into the Convention?
5a6959fb5ce1a5001a9695e0
True
international intervention in domestic politics
486
What was the primary concern of other nations who objected to including political groups in the definition of examination?
5a6959fb5ce1a5001a9695e1
True
William Schabas
568
Which distinguished academic of genocide highlighted several other countries opposed to including examination in the Convention?
5a6959fb5ce1a5001a9695e2
True
The first draft of the Convention included political killings, but these provisions were removed in a political and diplomatic compromise following objections from some countries, including the USSR, a permanent security council member. The USSR argued that the Convention's definition should follow the etymology of the term, and may have feared greater international scrutiny of its own Great Purge. Other nations feared that including political groups in the definition would invite international intervention in domestic politics. However leading genocide scholar William Schabas states: “Rigorous examination of the travaux fails to confirm a popular impression in the literature that the opposition to inclusion of political genocide was some Soviet machination. The Soviet views were also shared by a number of other States for whom it is difficult to establish any geographic or social common denominator: Lebanon, Sweden, Brazil, Peru, Venezuela, the Philippines, the Dominican Republic, Iran, Egypt, Belgium, and Uruguay. The exclusion of political groups was in fact originally promoted by a non-governmental organization, the World Jewish Congress, and it corresponded to Raphael Lemkin’s vision of the nature of the crime of genocide.”
In 2007 what former case did the European Court of Human Rights draw on to further refine qualifiers of genocide?
5733963c4776f41900660df6
Jorgic v. Germany
77
False
Which group was accused by the ECHR of having an overly constricted idea of the meaning of destruction in defining genocide?
5733963c4776f41900660df7
majority of legal scholars
117
False
What form of destruction was considered too limited by a smaller group of experts?
5733963c4776f41900660df8
biological-physical
404
False
What groups did the ECHR feel should be included as potential victims of genocide?
5733963c4776f41900660df9
national, racial, religious or ethnic
477
False
Jorgic v. Germany
77
What former case did the European Court of Human Rights draw on in 2002 to further refine qualifiers of genocide?
5a68bac68476ee001a58a7cc
True
majority of legal scholars
117
Which group was not accused by the ECHR of having an overly constricted idea of the meaning of destruction in defining genocide?
5a68bac68476ee001a58a7cd
True
biological-physical
404
What form of destruction was considered  unlimited by a smaller group of experts?
5a68bac68476ee001a58a7ce
True
national, racial, religious or ethnic
477
What groups did the ECHR feel should not be included as potential victims of genocide?
5a68bac68476ee001a58a7cf
True
Jorgic v. Germany
77
in 2007 what former case did the Euopean Court of Human Rights draw onto further refine qualifiers of CPPCG?
5a695d295ce1a5001a9695e8
True
majority of legal scholars
117
Which group was accused by the ECHR of having an overly constricted idea of the meaning of destruction in defining CPPCG?
5a695d295ce1a5001a9695e9
True
biological-physical
404
What form of destruction was considered too limited by the Germany?
5a695d295ce1a5001a9695ea
True
national, racial, religious or ethnic
477
What groups did the ECHR feel should be included as potential victims of CPPCG?
5a695d295ce1a5001a9695eb
True
1992
108
When did the majority of legal scholars take a narrow view on genocide?
5a695d295ce1a5001a9695ec
True
In 2007 the European Court of Human Rights (ECHR), noted in its judgement on Jorgic v. Germany case that in 1992 the majority of legal scholars took the narrow view that "intent to destroy" in the CPPCG meant the intended physical-biological destruction of the protected group and that this was still the majority opinion. But the ECHR also noted that a minority took a broader view and did not consider biological-physical destruction was necessary as the intent to destroy a national, racial, religious or ethnic group was enough to qualify as genocide.
In its preparations, what was the source of other considerations by the ECHR?
5733ba844776f41900661145
the judgements of several international and municipal courts
40
False
Two bodies of the United Nations agreed with what restricted provision in defining genocide?
5733ba844776f41900661146
that biological-physical destruction was necessary
267
False
Which country's courts were noted by the ECHR for taking a wider stance on provisions of genocide laws?
5733ba844776f41900661147
Germany
429
False
The ECHR found most states to have largely undefined definitions of group destruction, despite what factor?
5733ba844776f41900661148
Convention States municipal laws
521
False
A definition of what, by the States, was necessary to preserve and expand genocidal law?
5733ba844776f41900661149
the type of group destruction
641
False
the judgements of several international and municipal courts
40
In its preparations, what was the source of other considerations by the International Court of Justice?
5a6960605ce1a5001a9695f2
True
that biological-physical destruction was necessary
267
On what restricted provision in defining municipal laws did two bodies of the United Nations agree?
5a6960605ce1a5001a9695f3
True
Germany
429
Which country's courts were noted by the ECHR for taking a wider stance on provisions of municipal laws?
5a6960605ce1a5001a9695f4
True
Convention States municipal laws
521
The ECHR found most states to have largely undefined definitions of courts, despite what factor?
5a6960605ce1a5001a9695f5
True
the type of group destruction
641
A definition of what, by the States, was necessary to preserve and expand municipal law?
5a6960605ce1a5001a9695f6
True
In the same judgement the ECHR reviewed the judgements of several international and municipal courts judgements. It noted that International Criminal Tribunal for the Former Yugoslavia and the International Court of Justice had agreed with the narrow interpretation, that biological-physical destruction was necessary for an act to qualify as genocide. The ECHR also noted that at the time of its judgement, apart from courts in Germany which had taken a broad view, that there had been few cases of genocide under other Convention States municipal laws and that "There are no reported cases in which the courts of these States have defined the type of group destruction the perpetrator must have intended in order to be found guilty of genocide".
Which phrase is especially contentious within international humanitarian law?
5733bdc4d058e614000b61a1
"in whole or in part"
11
False
What 2001 case was declared genocide by the International Criminal Tribune for the Former Yugoslavia (ICTY)?
5733bdc4d058e614000b61a2
Prosecutor v. Radislav Krstic
187
False
In the judgement, it is stated that the aim of the Genocide Convention, at its most simplest, is preventing the destruction of which victims?
5733bdc4d058e614000b61a3
entire human groups
629
False
In addressing the issue of "in part," the Appeals Chamber found that the part must be a substantial part of what?
5733bdc4d058e614000b61a4
that group
537
False
Who contributed to guiding the Appeals chamber in its conclusion?
5733bdc4d058e614000b61a5
opinions of respected commentators
804
False
"in whole or in part"
11
Which phrase is especially contentious within human groups?
5a6969185ce1a5001a9695fc
True
Prosecutor v. Radislav Krstic
187
What 2001 case was declared genocide by humanitarian law?
5a6969185ce1a5001a9695fd
True
entire human groups
629
In the judgement, it is stated that the aim of the Genocide Convention, at its most simplest, is preventing the opinions of which victims?
5a6969185ce1a5001a9695fe
True
that group
537
What did the ITCY find that the part must be a substantial part of while addressing the issue of "in part"?
5a6969185ce1a5001a9695ff
True
opinions of respected commentators
804
Who contributed to guiding the ICTY in its conclusion?
5a6969185ce1a5001a969600
True
The phrase "in whole or in part" has been subject to much discussion by scholars of international humanitarian law. The International Criminal Tribunal for the Former Yugoslavia found in Prosecutor v. Radislav Krstic – Trial Chamber I – Judgment – IT-98-33 (2001) ICTY8 (2 August 2001) that Genocide had been committed. In Prosecutor v. Radislav Krstic – Appeals Chamber – Judgment – IT-98-33 (2004) ICTY 7 (19 April 2004) paragraphs 8, 9, 10, and 11 addressed the issue of in part and found that "the part must be a substantial part of that group. The aim of the Genocide Convention is to prevent the intentional destruction of entire human groups, and the part targeted must be significant enough to have an impact on the group as a whole." The Appeals Chamber goes into details of other cases and the opinions of respected commentators on the Genocide Convention to explain how they came to this conclusion.
Several considerations were involved in meeting the requirement to determine what?
5733c3c7d058e614000b61ef
when the targeted part is substantial enough
59
False
What is the key aspect of the targeted part of the group at the starting point of the inquiry?
5733c3c7d058e614000b61f0
The numeric size
169
False
The number of people targeted in a genocide should not be solely evaluated by what?
5733c3c7d058e614000b61f1
absolute terms
391
False
In addition to the numeric size of a targeted group, what other consideration was useful to the ICTY?
5733c3c7d058e614000b61f2
prominence within the group
530
False
when the targeted part is substantial enough
59
What is determined after several individuals are involved in meeting the requirement?
5a696d455ce1a5001a969606
True
The numeric size
169
What is the key aspect of the targeted part of the group at the absolute term?
5a696d455ce1a5001a969607
True
absolute terms
391
What should the number of people targeted in Article 4 not be solely evaluated by?
5a696d455ce1a5001a969608
True
prominence within the group
530
What other consideration was useful to the Article 4 in addition to the numeric size of a targeted group?
5a696d455ce1a5001a969609
True
The numeric size of the targeted part of the group
169
What is the necessary emblematic?
5a696d455ce1a5001a96960a
True
The judges continue in paragraph 12, "The determination of when the targeted part is substantial enough to meet this requirement may involve a number of considerations. The numeric size of the targeted part of the group is the necessary and important starting point, though not in all cases the ending point of the inquiry. The number of individuals targeted should be evaluated not only in absolute terms, but also in relation to the overall size of the entire group. In addition to the numeric size of the targeted portion, its prominence within the group can be a useful consideration. If a specific part of the group is emblematic of the overall group, or is essential to its survival, that may support a finding that the part qualifies as substantial within the meaning of Article 4 [of the Tribunal's Statute]."
The issue of what is raised by judges in Paragraph 13?
5733c6224776f419006611f4
perpetrators' access to the victims
50
False
What is the basis for suggesting that several factors regarding the activity of the perpetrators be considered?
5733c6224776f419006611f5
historical examples of genocide
92
False
The extent of what by the perpetrators was considered in an examination of their activity and level of control?
5733c6224776f419006611f6
possible extent of their reach
209
False
What will always be restricted in terms of a perpetrator's intent to destroy?
5733c6224776f419006611f7
the opportunity presented to him
351
False
While the factor cannot independently indicate if the targeted group is substantial, it can do what?
5733c6224776f419006611f8
inform the analysis
511
False
perpetrators' access to the victims
50
What issue is raised by other factors in Paragraph 13?
5a696f885ce1a5001a969610
True
historical examples of genocide
92
What is the basis for suggesting that several factors regarding the victims be considered?
5a696f885ce1a5001a969611
True
possible extent of their reach
209
The extent of what by the perpetrators was considered in an examination of their analysis?
5a696f885ce1a5001a969612
True
the opportunity presented to him.
351
What will always be restricted in terms of a victim's intent to destroy?
5a696f885ce1a5001a969613
True
inform the analysis
511
What can historical examples do, even though they cannot independently indicate if the targeted group is substantial?
5a696f885ce1a5001a969614
True
In paragraph 13 the judges raise the issue of the perpetrators' access to the victims: "The historical examples of genocide also suggest that the area of the perpetrators’ activity and control, as well as the possible extent of their reach, should be considered. ... The intent to destroy formed by a perpetrator of genocide will always be limited by the opportunity presented to him. While this factor alone will not indicate whether the targeted group is substantial, it can—in combination with other factors—inform the analysis."
On which date did the Genocide Convention become effective?
5733ce494776f41900661298
12 January 1951
55
False
What was the minimum number of countries necessary to form parties?
5733ce494776f41900661299
20
89
False
Of the five permanent members of the UN Security Council, how many were parties to the treaty?
5733ce494776f4190066129a
only two
140
False
What member ratified in 1970?
5733ce494776f4190066129b
the United Kingdom
303
False
The delay in support by certain powerful members meant the Convention was largely powerless for over how many decades?
5733ce494776f4190066129c
four
601
False
12 January 1951
55
On which date did China become effective?
5a6970845ce1a5001a96961a
True
20
89
What was the minimum number of countries necessary to form laws?
5a6970845ce1a5001a96961b
True
only two
140
How many of the five permanent member s of China were parties to the treaty?
5a6970845ce1a5001a96961c
True
the United Kingdom
303
What member enforced in 1970?
5a6970845ce1a5001a96961d
True
People's Republic of China
335
What member enforced in 1983?
5a6970845ce1a5001a96961e
True
The Convention came into force as international law on 12 January 1951 after the minimum 20 countries became parties. At that time however, only two of the five permanent members of the UN Security Council were parties to the treaty: France and the Republic of China. The Soviet Union ratified in 1954, the United Kingdom in 1970, the People's Republic of China in 1983 (having replaced the Taiwan-based Republic of China on the UNSC in 1971), and the United States in 1988. This long delay in support for the Convention by the world's most powerful nations caused the Convention to languish for over four decades. Only in the 1990s did the international law on the crime of genocide begin to be enforced.
In 1998 it was written that the CPPCG was a legal entity resulting in which type of compromise?
5733cf6a4776f419006612a2
a diplomatic compromise
110
False
Rather than a definition, the text of the treaty is considered as what type of tool?
5733cf6a4776f419006612a3
a research tool
216
False
What does the treaty possess that others lack?
5733cf6a4776f419006612a4
international legal credibility
288
False
The writers Jonassohn and Bjornson cite various reasons for the lack of widespread support of what?
5733cf6a4776f419006612a5
alternative definitions
438
False
a diplomatic compromise
110
What caused was written Jonassohn and Bjornson to become a legal instrument?
5a6973aa5ce1a5001a969624
True
a research tool
216
What type of tool is the definition considered rather than a definition?
5a6973aa5ce1a5001a969625
True
international legal credibility
288
What does the definition possess that others lack?
5a6973aa5ce1a5001a969626
True
alternative definitions
438
What has not gaind widespread support according to the CPPCG?
5a6973aa5ce1a5001a969627
True
Kurt Jonassohn and Karin Björnson
16
Who stated that the CPPCG was a research tool?
5a6973aa5ce1a5001a969628
True
Writing in 1998 Kurt Jonassohn and Karin Björnson stated that the CPPCG was a legal instrument resulting from a diplomatic compromise. As such the wording of the treaty is not intended to be a definition suitable as a research tool, and although it is used for this purpose, as it has an international legal credibility that others lack, other definitions have also been postulated. Jonassohn and Björnson go on to say that none of these alternative definitions have gained widespread support for various reasons.
What two writers examined the lack of an accepted and singular definition for genocide?
5733f7b64776f419006615e3
Jonassohn and Björnson
0
False
The two writers suggested that academics adjusted what in their different definitions to assist them in interpreting events?
5733f7b64776f419006615e4
their focus
155
False
What writer joined Jonassohn in the study of the whole of human history?
5733f7b64776f419006615e5
Frank Chalk
308
False
With whom was Leo Kuper paired in research that focused on 20th century works?
5733f7b64776f419006615e6
R. J. Rummel
395
False
Two women and what man concentrated on post World War II events?
5733f7b64776f419006615e7
Ted Gurr
503
False
Jonassohn and Björnson
0
What two writers examined the lack of an accepted and singular definition for academics?
5a69a4ed5ce1a5001a96964e
True
their focus
155
The two writers suggested that academics adjusted what in their different definitions to assist them in interpreting paradigms?
5a69a4ed5ce1a5001a96964f
True
Frank Chalk
308
What writer joined Jonassohn in the study of definitions?
5a69a4ed5ce1a5001a969650
True
R. J. Rummel
395
With whom was Leo Kuper paired in research that focused on definitions?
5a69a4ed5ce1a5001a969651
True
Ted Gurr
503
Two women and what man concentrated on academic paradigms?
5a69a4ed5ce1a5001a969652
True
Jonassohn and Björnson postulate that the major reason why no single generally accepted genocide definition has emerged is because academics have adjusted their focus to emphasise different periods and have found it expedient to use slightly different definitions to help them interpret events. For example, Frank Chalk and Kurt Jonassohn studied the whole of human history, while Leo Kuper and R. J. Rummel in their more recent works concentrated on the 20th century, and Helen Fein, Barbara Harff and Ted Gurr have looked at post World War II events. Jonassohn and Björnson are critical of some of these studies, arguing that they are too expansive, and conclude that the academic discipline of genocide studies is too young to have a canon of work on which to build an academic paradigm.
Some historians were critical of what exclusion in the definition of victims of genocide?
5733f9c64776f41900661615
social and political groups
17
False
In what book did Kakar contend that the international definition of genocide was too narrow?
5733f9c64776f41900661616
The Soviet Invasion and the Afghan Response
195
False
Kakar argued that the definition should include any group defined by the perpetrator and which other group?
5733f9c64776f41900661617
political groups
349
False
In the writing of Chalk and Jonassohn, what is stated to be a form of one-sided mass killing?
5733f9c64776f41900661618
Genocide
442
False
In further elaborating on the definition, how did Chalk and Jonassohn phrase the intention of the perpetrator?
5733f9c64776f41900661619
intends to destroy a group
523
False
social and political groups
17
what exclusion were some historians critical of in the definition of victims of authority?
5a69a7115ce1a5001a969658
True
The Soviet Invasion and the Afghan Response,
195
In what book did Kakar contend that the international definition of perpetrator was too narrow?
5a69a7115ce1a5001a969659
True
political groups
349
Which other group besides the perpetrator did Kakar argue the definition of criterion should include any group defined by?
5a69a7115ce1a5001a96965a
True
Genocide
442
What is stated to be a form of physical destruction in the writing of Chalk and Jonassohn?
5a69a7115ce1a5001a96965b
True
intends to destroy a group
523
How did Chalk and Jonassohn phrase the intention of the sociologists?
5a69a7115ce1a5001a96965c
True
The exclusion of social and political groups as targets of genocide in the CPPCG legal definition has been criticized by some historians and sociologists, for example M. Hassan Kakar in his book The Soviet Invasion and the Afghan Response, 1979–1982 argues that the international definition of genocide is too restricted, and that it should include political groups or any group so defined by the perpetrator and quotes Chalk and Jonassohn: "Genocide is a form of one-sided mass killing in which a state or other authority intends to destroy a group, as that group and membership in it are defined by the perpetrator." While there are various definitions of the term, Adam Jones states that the majority of genocide scholars consider that "intent to destroy" is a requirement for any act to be labelled genocide, and that there is growing agreement on the inclusion of the physical destruction criterion.
Harff and Gurr's definition of genocide included the promotion and execution of what, by a state or its agents?
5733fb934776f41900661637
policies
79
False
Harff and Gurr further defined what in terms of ethnicity, religion or nationality?
5733fb934776f41900661638
victimized groups
190
False
What was important to Harff and Gurr to distinguish from genocides?
5733fb934776f41900661639
politicides
373
False
Along with ethnicity and and religion, what other characteristic defined a member of a victimized group?
5733fb934776f4190066163a
nationality
596
False
What did Harff define as "short-lived outbursts by mobs...?"
5733fb934776f4190066163b
pogroms
871
False
policies
79
Haff and Gurr's definition of opposition included the promotion and execution of what by a state or its agents?
5a69a8665ce1a5001a969662
True
victimized groups
190
What did Harff and Gurr further define in terms of outbursts?
5a69a8665ce1a5001a969663
True
politicides
612
What was important to Harff and Gurr to distinguish between opposition?
5a69a8665ce1a5001a969664
True
nationality
596
What other characteristic defined a member of a regime along with ethnicity and religion?
5a69a8665ce1a5001a969665
True
pogroms
871
What did Harff define as "short-lived outbursts by the state?"
5a69a8665ce1a5001a969666
True
Barbara Harff and Ted Gurr defined genocide as "the promotion and execution of policies by a state or its agents which result in the deaths of a substantial portion of a group ...[when] the victimized groups are defined primarily in terms of their communal characteristics, i.e., ethnicity, religion or nationality." Harff and Gurr also differentiate between genocides and politicides by the characteristics by which members of a group are identified by the state. In genocides, the victimized groups are defined primarily in terms of their communal characteristics, i.e., ethnicity, religion or nationality. In politicides the victim groups are defined primarily in terms of their hierarchical position or political opposition to the regime and dominant groups. Daniel D. Polsby and Don B. Kates, Jr. state that "... we follow Harff's distinction between genocides and 'pogroms,' which she describes as 'short-lived outbursts by mobs, which, although often condoned by authorities, rarely persist.' If the violence persists for long enough, however, Harff argues, the distinction between condonation and complicity collapses."
In the writings of Rummel, what is the first and ordinary meaning of genocide?
5733fcd5d058e614000b6717
murder by government
86
False
Rummel postulates that murder of people of government is due to national, ethnic, racial and which other membership?
5733fcd5d058e614000b6718
religious group
159
False
The legal meaning of genocide is contained in which international treaty?
5733fcd5d058e614000b6719
Convention on the Prevention and Punishment of the Crime of Genocide
257
False
Included in the CPPCG is non-killings that ultimately achieve what end?
5733fcd5d058e614000b671a
eliminate the group
375
False
In the interpretation of non-killings, the CPPCG cites the forceful relocation of children along with what other factor?
5733fcd5d058e614000b671b
preventing births
404
False
murder by government
86
In the writings of Rummel, what is the first and ordinary meaning of opponentsl?
5a69aad35ce1a5001a96966c
True
religious group
159
Which other membership besides national, ethnic, and racial does Rommul postulate that murder of people by government is due to?
5a69aad35ce1a5001a96966d
True
Convention on the Prevention and Punishment
257
In which international treaty is the legal meaning of opponents contained?
5a69aad35ce1a5001a96966e
True
eliminate the group
375
What end is achieved by non-killings included in the democide?
5a69aad35ce1a5001a96966f
True
preventing births
404
What other factor along with the forceful relocation of political opponents does the the CPPCG cite in the interpretation of non-killings?
5a69aad35ce1a5001a969670
True
According to R. J. Rummel, genocide has 3 different meanings. The ordinary meaning is murder by government of people due to their national, ethnic, racial, or religious group membership. The legal meaning of genocide refers to the international treaty, the Convention on the Prevention and Punishment of the Crime of Genocide. This also includes non-killings that in the end eliminate the group, such as preventing births or forcibly transferring children out of the group to another group. A generalized meaning of genocide is similar to the ordinary meaning but also includes government killings of political opponents or otherwise intentional murder. It is to avoid confusion regarding what meaning is intended that Rummel created the term democide for the third meaning.
In terms of failed states and non-state actors, the possession of weapons of mass destruction was an issue examined by which writer?
57340136d058e614000b6783
Adrian Gallagher
188
False
In Gallagher's definition of genocide, a source of what is malicious in it implementation of the destruction of a group?
57340136d058e614000b6784
collective power
243
False
Gallagher's definition upholds the centrality of what?
57340136d058e614000b6785
intent
522
False
The centrality of intent broadens what definition, beyond the 1948 one?
57340136d058e614000b6786
group identity
604
False
In order for a genocide classification to happen, a major part of a group has to be what?
57340136d058e614000b6787
destroyed
710
False
Adrian Gallagher
188
Which writer examined the possession of identity?
5a69adac5ce1a5001a969676
True
collective power
243
A source of what uses its power to implement destruction in Gallagher's definition of process?
5a69adac5ce1a5001a969677
True
intent
522
The centrality of what does Gallagher's definition uphold?
5a69adac5ce1a5001a969678
True
group identity
604
The centrality of intent broadens what definition beyond the Gallagher one?
5a69adac5ce1a5001a969679
True
destroyed
710
A major part of a group has to be what in order for the centrality of intent classification to happen?
5a69adac5ce1a5001a96967a
True
Highlighting the potential for state and non-state actors to commit genocide in the 21st century, for example, in failed states or as non-state actors acquire weapons of mass destruction, Adrian Gallagher defined genocide as 'When a source of collective power (usually a state) intentionally uses its power base to implement a process of destruction in order to destroy a group (as defined by the perpetrator), in whole or in substantial part, dependent upon relative group size'. The definition upholds the centrality of intent, the multidimensional understanding of destroy, broadens the definition of group identity beyond that of the 1948 definition yet argues that a substantial part of a group has to be destroyed before it can be classified as genocide (dependent on relative group size).
Signatories to the CPPC are required to prevent and punish what?
573402a3d058e614000b6797
acts of genocide
64
False
During which times can a perpetrator of genocide be charged?
573402a3d058e614000b6798
both in peace and wartime
82
False
In enforcing a charge of genocide, what loophole do many of the signatories possess?
573402a3d058e614000b6799
no claim of genocide could be brought against them
362
False
What major western power is exempt from charges or claims of genocide against itself?
573402a3d058e614000b679a
the United States
276
False
Along with Cyprus, what other major signatory official protested the the immunity of others from prosecution of genocide?
573402a3d058e614000b679b
Norway
543
False
acts of genocide
64
What are Signatories to the Kosovo War are required to prevent and punish what?
5a69aed95ce1a5001a969680
True
both in peace and wartime
82
During which times can a perpetrator of reservations be charged?
5a69aed95ce1a5001a969681
True
no claim of genocide could be brought against them
362
what loophole  do many of the courts possess in enforcing a charge of genocide?
5a69aed95ce1a5001a969682
True
the United States
692
What major western power is exempt from charges or claims of reservation against itself?
5a69aed95ce1a5001a969683
True
Norway
543
Along with Cyprus, what other major signatory official protested the immunity of others from the prosecution of reservation?
5a69aed95ce1a5001a969684
True
All signatories to the CPPCG are required to prevent and punish acts of genocide, both in peace and wartime, though some barriers make this enforcement difficult. In particular, some of the signatories—namely, Bahrain, Bangladesh, India, Malaysia, the Philippines, Singapore, the United States, Vietnam, Yemen, and former Yugoslavia—signed with the proviso that no claim of genocide could be brought against them at the International Court of Justice without their consent. Despite official protests from other signatories (notably Cyprus and Norway) on the ethics and legal standing of these reservations, the immunity from prosecution they grant has been invoked from time to time, as when the United States refused to allow a charge of genocide brought against it by former Yugoslavia following the 1999 Kosovo War.
In 1948 the worldwide acceptance of international laws that defined and forbade genocide was promulgated by which treaty?
573404abd058e614000b67c9
Convention on the Prevention and Punishment of the Crime of Genocide
127
False
Perpetrators who were tried after World War II were in general found guilty of crimes against what?
573404abd058e614000b67ca
humanity
348
False
An example of a more specific genocidal crime of which one could be accused was what?
573404abd058e614000b67cb
crimes like murder
381
False
After WWII criminals were largely prosecuted under CPPCG for their involvement in what massive genocidal effort?
573404abd058e614000b67cc
the Holocaust
298
False
Who is notable for coining the term "Holocaust?"
573404abd058e614000b67cd
Raphael Lemkin
533
False
Convention on the Prevention and Punishment of the Crime of Genocide
127
Which treaty in 1948 defined and forbade promulgation?
5a69b1775ce1a5001a96968a
True
crimes against humanity
333
What were CPPCG who were tried after World War found guilty of?
5a69b1775ce1a5001a96968b
True
crimes like murder
381
What is an example of a more specific international crime of which one could be accused?
5a69b1775ce1a5001a96968c
True
the Holocaust
298
What massive genocidal effort were criminals largely prosecuted after count 3 for?
5a69b1775ce1a5001a96968d
True
Raphael Lemkin
533
Who is notable for coining the term "extermination?"
5a69b1775ce1a5001a96968e
True
Because the universal acceptance of international laws which in 1948 defined and forbade genocide with the promulgation of the Convention on the Prevention and Punishment of the Crime of Genocide (CPPCG), those criminals who were prosecuted after the war in international courts for taking part in the Holocaust were found guilty of crimes against humanity and other more specific crimes like murder. Nevertheless, the Holocaust is universally recognized to have been a genocide and the term, that had been coined the year before by Raphael Lemkin, appeared in the indictment of the 24 Nazi leaders, Count 3, which stated that all the defendants had "conducted deliberate and systematic genocide—namely, the extermination of racial and national groups..."
Which court dismissed Nikola Jorgic's appeal against his conviction for genocide by a German court?
573406d84776f41900661731
European Court of Human Rights
17
False
In Jorgic v. Germany, what about the German courts was later rejected by international courts hearing similar cases?
573406d84776f41900661732
wider interpretation of genocide
195
False
The ECHR noted that among certain academics, what act carried out by the Serbs agains Bosnian Muslims and Croats did not constitute genocide?
573406d84776f41900661733
ethnic cleansing
405
False
The ethnic cleansing perpetrated by the Serbs against Bosnia-Herzegovina was conducted with what ultimate goal in mind?
573406d84776f41900661734
expel Muslims and Croats from their homes
519
False
Conversely the scholars who did view the Serbs' acts as constituting genocide, were backed up by what Tribunal?
573406d84776f41900661735
the ICTY
712
False
European Court of Human Rights
17
Which court dismissed Nikola Jorgic's appeal against his conviction for cleansing by a German court?
5a69b2f65ce1a5001a969694
True
wider interpretation of genocide
195
In Jorgic v. Germany, what about the European courts was later rejected by international courts hearing similar cases?
5a69b2f65ce1a5001a969695
True
ethnic cleansing
405
What act carried about by the ECHR against Bosnian Muslims and Croats did not constitute genocide?
5a69b2f65ce1a5001a969696
True
the ICTY
712
What Tribunal backed up scholars who have ethnic cleansing?
5a69b2f65ce1a5001a969697
True
expel Muslims and Croats from their homes
519
What was the ultimate goal of the ethnic cleansing perpetuated by the ECHR?
5a69b2f65ce1a5001a969698
True
On 12 July 2007, European Court of Human Rights when dismissing the appeal by Nikola Jorgić against his conviction for genocide by a German court (Jorgic v. Germany) noted that the German courts wider interpretation of genocide has since been rejected by international courts considering similar cases. The ECHR also noted that in the 21st century "Amongst scholars, the majority have taken the view that ethnic cleansing, in the way in which it was carried out by the Serb forces in Bosnia and Herzegovina in order to expel Muslims and Croats from their homes, did not constitute genocide. However, there are also a considerable number of scholars who have suggested that these acts did amount to genocide, and the ICTY has found in the Momcilo Krajisnik case that the actus reu, of genocide was met in Prijedor "With regard to the charge of genocide, the Chamber found that in spite of evidence of acts perpetrated in the municipalities which constituted the actus reus of genocide".
In the 1990s, how many people were indicted for war crimes that were officially defined as genocide?
5734087f4776f4190066174d
About 30
0
False
Convicted perpetrators Popovic and Beara were found guilty of genocide despite what evasive action?
5734087f4776f4190066174e
several plea bargains
140
False
Tolimir was found guilty of both genocide and what other charge?
5734087f4776f4190066174f
conspiracy to commit genocide
383
False
Another charge beyond the act of genocide and for which Krstic and Nikolic were found guilty was what?
5734087f4776f41900661750
aiding and abetting genocide
491
False
Three others were charged with participating in genocides in Bosnia by which country's courts?
5734087f4776f41900661751
German courts
600
False
About 30
0
In the 1990s, how many people were indicted for plea bargins?
5a69b4505ce1a5001a96969e
True
several plea bargains
140
What evasive action did not keep Tolmir from being found guilty?
5a69b4505ce1a5001a96969f
True
conspiracy to commit genocide
383
What other charge besides genocide was Beara found guilty of?
5a69b4505ce1a5001a9696a0
True
aiding and abetting genocide
491
What was another charge beyond the act for which Popovic was found guilty?
5a69b4505ce1a5001a9696a1
True
German courts
600
In which country's courts were three others charged with aiding and abbeting?
5a69b4505ce1a5001a9696a2
True
About 30 people have been indicted for participating in genocide or complicity in genocide during the early 1990s in Bosnia. To date, after several plea bargains and some convictions that were successfully challenged on appeal two men, Vujadin Popović and Ljubiša Beara, have been found guilty of committing genocide, Zdravko Tolimir has been found guilty of committing genocide and conspiracy to commit genocide, and two others, Radislav Krstić and Drago Nikolić, have been found guilty of aiding and abetting genocide. Three others have been found guilty of participating in genocides in Bosnia by German courts, one of whom Nikola Jorgić lost an appeal against his conviction in the European Court of Human Rights. A further eight men, former members of the Bosnian Serb security forces were found guilty of genocide by the State Court of Bosnia and Herzegovina (See List of Bosnian genocide prosecutions).
Which former president was by far the most senior politician to be accused of genocidal crimes by the ICTY?
57340aae4776f4190066178f
Slobodan Milošević
0
False
What event occurred in March 2006 that essentially ended Milosevic's trial?
57340aae4776f41900661790
He died
138
False
Had Milosevic not died, what charges might he have been convicted of?
57340aae4776f41900661791
genocide or complicity in genocide
204
False
With Milosevic dead, who did the ICTY next charge with crimes of genocide in 1995?
57340aae4776f41900661792
Radovan Karadžić and Ratko Mladić
380
False
Where was Karadzic when he was finally arrested?
57340aae4776f41900661793
Belgrade
495
False
He died
138
What event occurred in 1995 that essentially ended Milosevic's trial?
5a69b6005ce1a5001a9696a8
True
Belgrade
495
Where was Karadzic when he was sentenced?
5a69b6005ce1a5001a9696a9
True
Radovan Karadžić and Ratko Mladić
380
With Milosevic dead, who did Karadzic next charge with grimes of genocide in 1995?
5a69b6005ce1a5001a9696aa
True
genocide or complicity in genocide
204
Had Karadzic not died, what charges might he have been convicted of?
5a69b6005ce1a5001a9696ab
True
Slobodan Milošević
0
Which former president was by far the most senior politician to be accused of genocidal crimes by Karadzic?
5a69b6005ce1a5001a9696ac
True
Slobodan Milošević, as the former President of Serbia and of Yugoslavia, was the most senior political figure to stand trial at the ICTY. He died on 11 March 2006 during his trial where he was accused of genocide or complicity in genocide in territories within Bosnia and Herzegovina, so no verdict was returned. In 1995, the ICTY issued a warrant for the arrest of Bosnian Serbs Radovan Karadžić and Ratko Mladić on several charges including genocide. On 21 July 2008, Karadžić was arrested in Belgrade, and he is currently in The Hague on trial accused of genocide among other crimes. Ratko Mladić was arrested on 26 May 2011 by Serbian special police in Lazarevo, Serbia. Karadzic was convicted of ten of the eleven charges laid against him and sentenced to 40 years in prison on March 24 2016.
What court was established under the aegis of the United Nations to prosecute genocidal crimes in Rwanda?
57340c46d058e614000b6893
International Criminal Tribunal for Rwanda (ICTR)
4
False
The prosecutorial efforts of the ICTR focused on genocidal acts that took place during which time period?
57340c46d058e614000b6894
April 1994
206
False
the ICTR was created in November 1995 by which branch of the UN?
57340c46d058e614000b6895
the Security Council of the United Nations
284
False
The ICTR was established for the purpose of convicting those responsible for acts of genocide and what other charges?
57340c46d058e614000b6896
serious violations of the international law
405
False
The charges of genocide brought up by the ICTR were against what group of people?
57340c46d058e614000b6897
Rwandan citizens
493
False
International Criminal Tribunal for Rwanda
4
What court was established to prosecute genocidal crimes in the United Nations?
5a69b82e5ce1a5001a9696b2
True
April 1994
206
During which time period did the prosecuratorial efforts of Rwanda focus on genocidal acts?
5a69b82e5ce1a5001a9696b3
True
the Security Council of the United Nations
284
Which branch of the UN created Rwanda in November 1995?
5a69b82e5ce1a5001a9696b4
True
serious violations of the international law
405
What other charges besides genocide was the ITCR convicted of?
5a69b82e5ce1a5001a9696b5
True
Rwandan citizens
493
What group of people were the charges of genocide brought up against in April 1994?
5a69b82e5ce1a5001a9696b6
True
The International Criminal Tribunal for Rwanda (ICTR) is a court under the auspices of the United Nations for the prosecution of offenses committed in Rwanda during the genocide which occurred there during April 1994, commencing on 6 April. The ICTR was created on 8 November 1994 by the Security Council of the United Nations in order to judge those people responsible for the acts of genocide and other serious violations of the international law performed in the territory of Rwanda, or by Rwandan citizens in nearby states, between 1 January and 31 December 1994.
What has been widely debated as a possible act of genocide in Sudan?
57340e5dd058e614000b68b9
situation in Darfur
49
False
In 2003 what well known U.S. Secretary of State declared the situation in Darfur as an act of genocide?
57340e5dd058e614000b68ba
Colin Powell
206
False
In front of which committee did Powell testify?
57340e5dd058e614000b68bb
the Senate Foreign Relations Committee
259
False
What did UN Security Council Resolution 1564 authorize in 2004?
57340e5dd058e614000b68bc
an International Commission of Inquiry on Darfur
418
False
Despite some concessions, what act did the Commission ultimately state that Sudan had not pursued?
57340e5dd058e614000b68bd
genocidal policy
717
False
situation in Darfur
49
What has been widely debated as a possible act of genocide in the UN?
5a69b9465ce1a5001a9696bc
True
Colin Powell
206
In 2003 what well known U.S. Secretary of State declared the situation in the UN as an act of genocide?
5a69b9465ce1a5001a9696bd
True
Senate Foreign Relations Committee
263
In front of which committee did Darfur testify?
5a69b9465ce1a5001a9696be
True
an International Commission of Inquiry on Darfur
418
What did UN Security Council Resolution 1564 authorize in 2005?
5a69b9465ce1a5001a9696bf
True
genocidal policy
717
Despite some concessions, what act did the Commission ultimately state that the UN had not pursued?
5a69b9465ce1a5001a9696c0
True
There has been much debate over categorizing the situation in Darfur as genocide. The ongoing conflict in Darfur, Sudan, which started in 2003, was declared a "genocide" by United States Secretary of State Colin Powell on 9 September 2004 in testimony before the Senate Foreign Relations Committee. Since that time however, no other permanent member of the UN Security Council followed suit. In fact, in January 2005, an International Commission of Inquiry on Darfur, authorized by UN Security Council Resolution 1564 of 2004, issued a report to the Secretary-General stating that "the Government of the Sudan has not pursued a policy of genocide." Nevertheless, the Commission cautioned that "The conclusion that no genocidal policy has been pursued and implemented in Darfur by the Government authorities, directly or through the militias under their control, should not be taken in any way as detracting from the gravity of the crimes perpetrated in that region. International offences such as the crimes against humanity and war crimes that have been committed in Darfur may be no less serious and heinous than genocide."
To whom did the Security Council officially refer the situation in Darfur?
57340f5bd058e614000b68cd
Prosecutor of the International Criminal Court
85
False
What was taken into account, without mentioning specific crimes?
57340f5bd058e614000b68ce
the Commission report
153
False
China and what other permanent member of the Security Council abstained from the vote on the referral resolution?
57340f5bd058e614000b68cf
the United States
266
False
In which number report to the Council did the Prosecutor concede that crimes had been committed but evidence for prosecution was insufficient?
57340f5bd058e614000b68d0
his fourth report
353
False
Prosecutor of the International Criminal Court
85
To whom did the Security Council officially refer the situation in China?
5a69ba4d5ce1a5001a9696c6
True
the Commission report
153
What was taken into account without mentioning specific councils?
5a69ba4d5ce1a5001a9696c7
True
the United States
266
China and what other permanent member of the Security Council abstained from the vote on crimes?
5a69ba4d5ce1a5001a9696c8
True
his fourth report
353
In which number report to the Council did the Prosecutor concede that crimes had been committed but evidence for prosecution was sufficient?
5a69ba4d5ce1a5001a9696c9
True
March 2005
3
When did the Security Council formally refer the situation in Darfur to China?
5a69ba4d5ce1a5001a9696ca
True
In March 2005, the Security Council formally referred the situation in Darfur to the Prosecutor of the International Criminal Court, taking into account the Commission report but without mentioning any specific crimes. Two permanent members of the Security Council, the United States and China, abstained from the vote on the referral resolution. As of his fourth report to the Security Council, the Prosecutor has found "reasonable grounds to believe that the individuals identified [in the UN Security Council Resolution 1593] have committed crimes against humanity and war crimes," but did not find sufficient evidence to prosecute for genocide.
In the build-up to genocide, what have other authors focused on?
573410864776f419006617e5
structural conditions
34
False
What processes are thought to create an evolution toward genocide?
573410864776f419006617e6
psychological and social
87
False
Who revealed the starting points of this evolution to be economic deterioration and political confusion?
573410864776f419006617e7
Ervin Staub
164
False
A history of what is just one factor that contributes to the probability of violence developing into genocide?
573410864776f419006617e8
devaluation of the group
469
False
What is one preventive effort in circumventing conditions that lead to genocide?
573410864776f419006617e9
humanizing a devalued group
995
False
structural conditions
34
In the build-up to genocide, what have other bystanders focused on?
5a69bb695ce1a5001a9696d0
True
psychological and social
87
What processees are thought to create an evolution toward conflict?
5a69bb695ce1a5001a9696d1
True
Ervin Staub
164
Who revealed the starting points of this evolution to be genocide?
5a69bb695ce1a5001a9696d2
True
devaluation of the group
469
A history of what is just one factor that contributes to the probability of political systems developing into genocide?
5a69bb695ce1a5001a9696d3
True
humanizing a devalued group
995
What is one preventive effort in cirumventing conditions that lead to responses?
5a69bb695ce1a5001a9696d4
True
Other authors have focused on the structural conditions leading up to genocide and the psychological and social processes that create an evolution toward genocide. Ervin Staub showed that economic deterioration and political confusion and disorganization were starting points of increasing discrimination and violence in many instances of genocides and mass killing. They lead to scapegoating a group and ideologies that identified that group as an enemy. A history of devaluation of the group that becomes the victim, past violence against the group that becomes the perpetrator leading to psychological wounds, authoritarian cultures and political systems, and the passivity of internal and external witnesses (bystanders) all contribute to the probability that the violence develops into genocide. Intense conflict between groups that is unresolved, becomes intractable and violent can also lead to genocide. The conditions that lead to genocide provide guidance to early prevention, such as humanizing a devalued group, creating ideologies that embrace all groups, and activating bystander responses. There is substantial research to indicate how this can be done, but information is only slowly transformed into action.
Saint_Barth%C3%A9lemy
What country is Saint-Barthélemy a collectivity of?
57331e2f4776f419006606ea
France
232
False
What is the French abbreviation for Saint-Barthélemy?
57331e2f4776f419006606eb
Saint-Barth
261
False
In what language is Saint-Barthélemy abbreviate St. Barts?
57331e2f4776f419006606ec
English
314
False
What did the native peoples of Saint-Barthélemy call the island?
57331e2f4776f419006606ed
Ouanalao
363
False
In which direction is Puerto Rico from the island of Saint-Barthélemy?
57331e2f4776f419006606ee
west
515
False
35 kilometres
399
How far is St. Kitts from St. Martin?
5a3993362f14dd001ac72401
True
240 kilometres
484
How far is Puerto Rico from St. Kitts?
5a3993362f14dd001ac72402
True
240 kilometres
484
How far is Saint-Barthelemy from France?
5a3993362f14dd001ac72403
True
southeast
421
In what direction is France from St. Barts?
5a3993362f14dd001ac72404
True
Ouanalao
363
What did the indigenous people of Puerto Rico call their island?
5a3993362f14dd001ac72405
True
Saint-Barthélemy (French: Saint-Barthélemy, French pronunciation: ​[sɛ̃baʁtelemi]), officially the Territorial collectivity of Saint-Barthélemy (French: Collectivité territoriale de Saint-Barthélemy), is an overseas collectivity of France. Often abbreviated to Saint-Barth in French, or St. Barts or St. Barths in English, the indigenous people called the island Ouanalao. St. Barthélemy lies about 35 kilometres (22 mi) southeast of St. Martin and north of St. Kitts. Puerto Rico is 240 kilometres (150 mi) to the west in the Greater Antilles.
What kind of island is St. Barts?
57336480d058e614000b59fe
volcanic
20
False
What is the population of St. Barts?
57336480d058e614000b59ff
9,035
138
False
What is the capital of St. Barts?
57336480d058e614000b5a00
Gustavia
181
False
What country besides France had colonies on the island for a substantial period of time?
57336480d058e614000b5a01
Swedish
304
False
When is the busiest time for tourism in St. Barts?
57336480d058e614000b5a02
the winter holiday season
660
False
2011
150
In what year did Guadeloupe fall under Swedish rule briefly?
5a3993fd2f14dd001ac72415
True
9,035
138
How many people lived in the Swedish colony?
5a3993fd2f14dd001ac72416
True
9,035
138
How many tourists visit Saint Barthelemy each year?
5a3993fd2f14dd001ac72417
True
9,035
138
How many people lived in Gustavia as of 2011?
5a3993fd2f14dd001ac72418
True
the Three Crowns
479
What was France's national arms?
5a3993fd2f14dd001ac72419
True
Saint Barthélemy, a volcanic island fully encircled by shallow reefs, has an area of 25 square kilometres (9.7 sq mi) and a population of 9,035 (Jan. 2011 estimate). Its capital is Gustavia[citation needed], which also contains the main harbour to the island. It is the only Caribbean island which was a Swedish colony for any significant length of time; Guadeloupe was under Swedish rule only briefly at the end of the Napoleonic Wars. Symbolism from the Swedish national arms, the Three Crowns, still appears in the island's coat of arms. The language, cuisine, and culture, however, are distinctly French. The island is a popular tourist destination during the winter holiday season, especially for the rich and famous during the Christmas and new year period.
St. Barts was formerly a part of what French commune?
573365634776f419006609cb
Guadeloupe
69
False
When did the residents of St. Barts file for separation from Guadeloupe?
573365634776f419006609cc
2003
159
False
When did St. Barts finally received its independence?
573365634776f419006609cd
2007
287
False
What is the current name of the building in St. Barts that serves as town hall?
573365634776f419006609ce
Hotel de la Collectivité
552
False
Who officially represents St. Barts in French legislation?
573365634776f419006609cf
A senator
578
False
2007
287
In what year was the French commune forming part of Guadeloupe established?
5a39950a2f14dd001ac7241f
True
2007
287
In what year was the Hotel de Ville built?
5a39950a2f14dd001ac72420
True
Paris
613
In what city does St. Barthelemy have its main port?
5a39950a2f14dd001ac72421
True
2007
287
How many island residents voted in the 2003 referendum?
5a39950a2f14dd001ac72422
True
2007
287
In what year did the Hotel de Ville become the Hotel de la Collectivite?
5a39950a2f14dd001ac72423
True
Saint Barthélemy was for many years a French commune forming part of Guadeloupe, which is an overseas region and department of France. Through a referendum in 2003, island residents sought separation from the administrative jurisdiction of Guadeloupe, and it was finally accomplished in 2007. The island of Saint Barthélemy became an Overseas Collectivity (COM). A governing territorial council was elected for its administration, which has provided the island with a certain degree of autonomy. The Hotel de Ville, which was the town hall, is now the Hotel de la Collectivité. A senator represents the island in Paris. St. Barthélemy has retained its free port status.
How many Miles East of Puerto Rico is St. Barts?
573366a64776f419006609fd
160
38
False
St. Barts is one of the what group of islands?
573366a64776f419006609fe
the Renaissance
197
False
What lies between St. Barts and Saint Martin island?
573366a64776f419006609ff
the Saint-Barthélemy Channel
271
False
What is Île Frégate in relation to St Barts?
573366a64776f41900660a00
satellite islets
379
False
What does "Roques" mean in English?
573366a64776f41900660a01
little Turtle rocks
685
False
250 kilometres
22
How far is St. Bart's from Saint Martin?
5a3995c12f14dd001ac72429
True
160 mi
38
How far is St. Bart's from Anguilla?
5a3995c12f14dd001ac7242a
True
southeast
129
In what direction does the Sugarloaf lie from St. Barts?
5a3995c12f14dd001ac7242b
True
northeast
309
In what direction does Cocol lie from St. Barts?
5a3995c12f14dd001ac7242c
True
north
577
In what direction does the Roques lie from St. Barts?
5a3995c12f14dd001ac7242d
True
Located approximately 250 kilometres (160 mi) east of Puerto Rico and the nearer Virgin Islands, St. Barthélemy lies immediately southeast of the islands of Saint Martin and Anguilla. It is one of the Renaissance Islands. St. Barthélemy is separated from Saint Martin by the Saint-Barthélemy Channel. It lies northeast of Saba and St Eustatius, and north of St Kitts. Some small satellite islets belong to St. Barthélemy including Île Chevreau (Île Bonhomme), Île Frégate, Île Toc Vers, Île Tortue and Gros Îlets (Îlots Syndare). A much bigger islet, Île Fourchue, lies on the north of the island, in the Saint-Barthélemy Channel. Other rocky islets which include Coco, the Roques (or little Turtle rocks), the Goat, and the Sugarloaf.
What is the name of the deepest bay at St Barts?
573367eed058e614000b5a5b
Colombier Bay
71
False
Grande Saline Bay provides docking for what kind of boats?
573367eed058e614000b5a5c
small
51
False
The North and East sides of St. Barts are fringed by what?
573367eed058e614000b5a5d
visible coral reef
307
False
Reefs are almost always in what type of water?
573367eed058e614000b5a5e
shallow
347
False
Some of the offshore reefs of St. Barts are part of what?
573367eed058e614000b5a5f
a marine reserve
490
False
4 fathoms
110
How deep is Grande Saline Bay?
5a39963a2f14dd001ac72433
True
4 fathoms
110
How deep is St. Jean Bay?
5a39963a2f14dd001ac72434
True
4 fathoms
110
How deep do most of the coral reefs lie?
5a39963a2f14dd001ac72435
True
northwest
93
In what direction does St. Jean Bay lie from Colombier Bay?
5a39963a2f14dd001ac72436
True
east
228
In what direction does Grande Saline Bay lie from St. Jean Bay?
5a39963a2f14dd001ac72437
True
Grande Saline Bay provides temporary anchorage for small vessels while Colombier Bay, to the northwest, has a 4 fathoms patch near mid entrance. In the bight of St. Jean Bay there is a narrow cut through the reef. The north and east sides of the island are fringed, to a short distance from the shore, by a visible coral reef. Reefs are mostly in shallow waters and are clearly visible. The coastal areas abound with beaches and many of these have offshore reefs, some of which are part of a marine reserve.
How many public beaches are there in St. Barts?
573368a6d058e614000b5a6b
22
21
False
How many beaches in St. Barts are suitable to swim in?
573368a6d058e614000b5a6c
15
112
False
What is the portion of the island called that is protected from the sea by the island itself?
573368a6d058e614000b5a6d
leeward
207
False
What is the portion of the island called that is open to the storms and high sea winds?
573368a6d058e614000b5a6e
windward
269
False
The windward side of St. Barts is popular for what type of activity?
573368a6d058e614000b5a6f
windsurfing
370
False
22
21
How many leeward side beaches are there?
5a3996b22f14dd001ac7243d
True
15
112
How many windward side beaches are there?
5a3996b22f14dd001ac7243e
True
windsurfing
370
What are leeward side beaches popular for?
5a3996b22f14dd001ac7243f
True
windward
269
What side of the island is beach of Lorient on?
5a3996b22f14dd001ac72440
True
leeward
207
What side of the island is the beach of St. Jean on?
5a3996b22f14dd001ac72441
True
There are as many as 22 public beaches (most beaches on St Barthélémy are known as "Anse de..." etc. ) of which 15 are considered suitable for swimming. They are categorized and divided into two groups, the leeward side (calm waters protected by the island itself) and windward side (some of which are protected by hills and reefs). The windward beaches are popular for windsurfing. The beach of St Jean is suitable for water sports and facilities have been created for that purpose. The long beach at Lorient has shade and is a quiet beach as compared to St. Jean.
What type of climate does St. Barts typically have?
57336993d058e614000b5a8a
arid
143
False
How many hectares does the island have in total?
57336993d058e614000b5a8b
2,500
51
False
How much average rainfall does St. Barts get per year?
57336993d058e614000b5a8c
1000 mm
175
False
When does summer end in St. Barts?
57336993d058e614000b5a8d
November
265
False
What is the lowest nighttime temperature recorded at St. Barts?
57336993d058e614000b5a8e
13 °C
742
False
1000 mm
175
How much water falls on average on the eastern side per year?
5a39a6552f14dd001ac72525
True
1000 mm annually
175
How much rainfall comes down during the dry season on average?
5a39a6552f14dd001ac72526
True
22 °C
640
What is the average temperature throughout the dry season?
5a39a6552f14dd001ac72527
True
24 °C
694
What is the average temperature throughout the rainy season?
5a39a6552f14dd001ac72528
True
1000 mm
175
How much rainfall falls each year on average during the rainy season?
5a39a6552f14dd001ac72529
True
The island covers an area of 25 square kilometres (2,500 ha). The eastern side is wetter than the western. Although the climate is essentially arid, the rainfall does average 1000 mm annually, but with considerable variation over the terrain. Summer is from May to November, which is also the rainy season. Winter from December to April is the dry season. Sunshine is very prominent for nearly the entire year and even during the rainy season. Humidity, however, is not very high due to the winds. The average temperature is around 25 °C with day temperatures rising to 32 °C. The average high and low temperatures in January are 28 °C and 22 °C, respectively, while in July they are 30 °C and 24 °C. The lowest night temperature recorded is 13 °C. The Caribbean sea waters in the vicinity generally maintain a temperature of about 27 °C.
What are the people of St. Barts called?
57336c1cd058e614000b5abf
Saint-Barthélemoise
31
False
Of what nation do the people of St. Barts claim citizenship?
57336c1cd058e614000b5ac0
French
63
False
What is the native language of St. Barts?
57336c1cd058e614000b5ac1
French
236
False
How does the determination between Patois and Creole French usually determined?
57336c1cd058e614000b5ac2
racially
742
False
About how many people speak Patois French in St. Barts?
57336c1cd058e614000b5ac3
500–700
468
False
500–700
468
How many people speak English on Saint-Barthelemy?
5a3997b52f14dd001ac72447
True
500–700
468
How many Anglophones are there on Saint-Barthelemy?
5a3997b52f14dd001ac72448
True
500–700
468
How many people comprised the first settlers?
5a3997b52f14dd001ac72449
True
500–700
468
How many people speak Creole French?
5a3997b52f14dd001ac7244a
True
windward
607
On what side of the island do the Anglophone community live?
5a3997b52f14dd001ac7244b
True
Residents of Saint-Barthélemy (Saint-Barthélemoise people) are French citizens and work at establishments on the island. Most of them are descendants of the first settlers, of Breton, Norman, Poitevin, Saintongeais and Angevin lineage. French is the native tongue of the population. English is understood in hotels and restaurants, and a small population of Anglophones have been resident in Gustavia for many years. The St. Barthélemy French patois is spoken by some 500–700 people in the leeward portion of the island and is superficially related to Quebec French, whereas Créole French is limited to the windward side. Unlike other populations in the Caribbean, language preference between the Créole and Patois is geographically, and not racially, determined.[page needed]
What island besides St. Barts was granted COM status by France in 2007?
57336cced058e614000b5ace
Saint Martin
136
False
When did the COM status for St. Barts take effect?
57336cced058e614000b5acf
15 July 2007
180
False
How many years does a president have in office in St. Barts?
57336cced058e614000b5ad0
five
306
False
How many people are on the Territorial Council?
57336cced058e614000b5ad1
nineteen
355
False
When was the last election held for the executive council positions?
57336cced058e614000b5ad2
in March 2012
560
False
unicameral Territorial Council
321
What is COM short for?
5a39986e2f14dd001ac72451
True
1 July 2007
525
On what date did the first president begin his term?
5a39986e2f14dd001ac72452
True
popular vote
391
How is the president elected?
5a39986e2f14dd001ac72453
True
popular vote
391
How are the executive council members elected?
5a39986e2f14dd001ac72454
True
COM
65
What status did St. Barthelemy have prior to 7 February 2007?
5a39986e2f14dd001ac72455
True
On 7 February 2007, the French Parliament passed a bill granting COM status to both St. Barthélemy and (separately) to the neighbouring Saint Martin. The new status took effect on 15 July 2007, when the first territorial council was elected, according to the law. The island has a president (elected every five years), a unicameral Territorial Council of nineteen members who are elected by popular vote and serve for five-year terms, and an executive council of seven members. Elections to these councils were first held on 1 July 2007 with the last election in March 2012.
How many senators represent St. Barts in France?
57336d79d058e614000b5add
One
0
False
What year was the first senate election held for the St. Barts?
57336d79d058e614000b5ade
2008
100
False
When was the last senate election in St. Barts?
57336d79d058e614000b5adf
September 2014
131
False
What organization did St. Barts become a part of in 2012?
57336d79d058e614000b5ae0
the European Union
194
False
How many policemen does the French government pay for on St. Barts?
57336d79d058e614000b5ae1
thirteen
459
False
21
87
On what date in September 2014 was the last election held?
5a39996b2f14dd001ac7245b
True
two-year term
489
How long do the policemen terms last?
5a39996b2f14dd001ac7245c
True
2012
226
In what year did St. Barthelemy residents become French citizens?
5a39996b2f14dd001ac7245d
True
21
87
How many senators are there in the French Senate?
5a39996b2f14dd001ac7245e
True
One senator represents the island in the French Senate. The first election was held on 21 September 2008 with the last election in September 2014. St. Barthélemy became an overseas territory of the European Union on 1 January 2012, but the island's inhabitants remain French citizens with EU status holding EU passports. France is responsible for the defence of the island and as such has stationed a security force on the island comprising six policemen and thirteen gendarmes (posted on two-year term).
What is often difficult on the island?
57336e0ed058e614000b5ae7
Agricultural production
0
False
What type of activity did early settlers use to get food that didn't involve farming?
57336e0ed058e614000b5ae8
fishing
181
False
What is the name of the main commercial port in St. Barts?
57336e0ed058e614000b5ae9
Gustavia
282
False
What is grown in patches on the island?
57336e0ed058e614000b5aea
Sweet potato
190
False
What seasoning is found naturally on the island?
57336e0ed058e614000b5aeb
salt
158
False
in patches
217
How is cotton grown?
5a399a072f14dd001ac72463
True
in patches
217
How are pineapples grown?
5a399a072f14dd001ac72464
True
Sweet potato
190
What was the first vegetable grown on the island by early settlers?
5a399a072f14dd001ac72465
True
bananas
164
What's the most popular fruit at luxury hospitals and villas?
5a399a072f14dd001ac72466
True
in patches
217
How are bananas grown?
5a399a072f14dd001ac72467
True
Agricultural production on the island is difficult given the dry and rocky terrain, but the early settlers managed to produce vegetables, cotton, pineapples, salt, bananas and also fishing. Sweet potato is also grown in patches. The islanders developed commerce through the port of Gustavia. Duty-free port attractions, retail trade, high-end tourism (mostly from North America) and its luxury hotels and villas have increased the island's prosperity, reflected in the high standard of living of its citizens.
What besides investment is responsible for the high standard of living on the island?
57336eb64776f41900660abe
wealth generated by wealthy tourists
33
False
St. Barts is considered a playground for whom?
57336eb64776f41900660abf
the rich and famous
166
False
Besides boats how does St. Barts import most of its food?
57336eb64776f41900660ac0
by airplane
332
False
How many tourists visit St. Barts each year?
57336eb64776f41900660ac1
200,000
398
False
What is the highest propoerty value recorded in St. Barts?
57336eb64776f41900660ac2
€61,200,000
582
False
200,000
398
How many homes are built each year?
5a399a9e2f14dd001ac7246d
True
€61,200,000
582
What is the average price of a beachfront villa?
5a399a9e2f14dd001ac7246e
True
€61,200,000
582
How much international investment occurs on St. Barthelemy's each year?
5a399a9e2f14dd001ac7246f
True
€61,200,000
582
How much money do wealthy tourists spend each year on St. Barthelemy?
5a399a9e2f14dd001ac72470
True
€61,200,000
582
What is the value of the food imported into St. Barthelemy's each year?
5a399a9e2f14dd001ac72471
True
International investment and the wealth generated by wealthy tourists explain the high standard of living on the island. St. Barthélemy is considered a playground of the rich and famous,[citation needed] especially as a winter haven, and is known for its beaches, gourmet dining and high-end designers. Most of the food is imported by airplane or boat from the US or France. Tourism attracts about 200,000 visitors every year. As a result, there is a boom in house building activity catering to the tourists and also to the permanent residents of the island, with prices as high as €61,200,000 for a beachfront villa.
About how many hotels does St. Barts have?
57336f3ed058e614000b5b05
25
25
False
How many rooms does the largest hotel in St. Barts have?
57336f3ed058e614000b5b06
58
89
False
How many rooms does the most expensive hotel on the island have?
57336f3ed058e614000b5b07
12
298
False
About how many villas are available for rent in St. Barts?
57336f3ed058e614000b5b08
400
396
False
Which country besides Brazil does St. Barts import its labor force from?
57336f3ed058e614000b5b09
Portugal
649
False
25
25
How many of St. Barthelemy's hotels have fewer than 15 rooms?
5a399bc82f14dd001ac72477
True
4
174
How many rooms does the smallest hotel on the island have?
5a399bc82f14dd001ac72478
True
3 Star
155
What rating does Eden Rock have?
5a399bc82f14dd001ac72479
True
4 Star
163
What rating does Cheval Blanc have?
5a399bc82f14dd001ac7247a
True
Eden Rock
210
What's the least expensive hotel on the island?
5a399bc82f14dd001ac7247b
True
St. Barthélemy has about 25 hotels, most of them with 15 rooms or fewer. The largest has 58 rooms. Hotels are classified in the traditional French manner; 3 Star, 4 Star and 4 Star Luxe. Of particular note are Eden Rock and Cheval Blanc. Hotel Le Toiny, the most expensive hotel on the island, has 12 rooms. Most places of accommodation are in the form of private villas, of which there are some 400 available to rent on the island. The island's tourism industry, though expensive, attracts 70,000 visitors every year to its luxury hotels and villas and another 130,000 people arrive by luxury boats. It also attracts a labour force from Brazil and Portugal to meet the industry needs.
What types of plants are usually found at St. Barts?
5733759bd058e614000b5b56
succulent
93
False
Which half of the island is usually greener due to more rainfall?
5733759bd058e614000b5b57
The eastern part
183
False
A 1994 found how many different species of plants native to the island?
5733759bd058e614000b5b58
several hundred
282
False
What besides palm trees is a common plant to see in St. Barts?
5733759bd058e614000b5b59
Sea grapes
461
False
Where was the coconut palm brought to St. Barts from?
5733759bd058e614000b5b5a
the Pacific islands
616
False
1994
257
In what year was Coconut palm brought to the island?
5a399ce22f14dd001ac72493
True
several hundred
282
How many types of cacti are the on St. Barts?
5a399ce22f14dd001ac72494
True
several hundred
282
How many mangroves are there on St. Barts?
5a399ce22f14dd001ac72495
True
Sea grapes
461
What are the irrigated areas dominated by?
5a399ce22f14dd001ac72496
True
As the terrain is generally arid, the hills have mostly poor soil and support only cacti and succulent plants. During the rainy season the area turns green with vegetation and grass. The eastern part of the island is greener as it receives more rainfall. A 1994 survey has revealed several hundred indigenous species of plants including the naturalized varieties of flora; some growing in irrigated areas while the dry areas are dominated by the cacti variety. Sea grapes and palm trees are a common sight with mangroves and shrubs surviving in the saline coastal swamps. Coconut palm was brought to the island from the Pacific islands. Important plants noted on the island are:
What plant was brought to St. Barts from the Mediterranean?
573376314776f41900660b2f
aloe or aloe vera
156
False
What is the name of the night blooming flower on St. Barts?
573376314776f41900660b30
cereus
227
False
Where was the plant yellow bell brought from?
573376314776f41900660b31
South America
461
False
When did the british army invade the island?
573376314776f41900660b32
1773
364
False
What type of fig grows on the island?
573376314776f41900660b33
barbary
277
False
5 to 7 m
104
How tall do sea grape trees grow?
5a399dcb2f14dd001ac724ad
True
7 m
109
How tall can the royal palm grow?
5a399dcb2f14dd001ac724ae
True
1773
364
In what year was aloe vera brought to St. Barts from the Mediterranean?
5a399dcb2f14dd001ac724af
True
1773
364
In what year were Mexican cactus brought to St. Barts?
5a399dcb2f14dd001ac724b0
True
1773
364
When was yellow bell from South America brought to St. Barts?
5a399dcb2f14dd001ac724b1
True
Other trees of note include the royal palm, sea grape trees in the form of shrubs on the beaches and as 5 to 7 m trees in the interior areas of the island, aloe or aloe vera (brought from the Mediterranean), the night blooming cereus, mamillaria nivosa, yellow prickly pear or barbary fig which was planted as barbed wire defences against invading British army in 1773, Mexican cactus, stapelia gigantea, golden trumpet or yellow bell which was originally from South America, bougainvillea and others.
When is the end of the dolphin migration period in St. Barts?
5733796c4776f41900660b61
May
136
False
When is the beggining of the whale migration season?
5733796c4776f41900660b62
December
122
False
What protected species is a common sight along the beaches of St. Barts?
5733796c4776f41900660b63
Turtles
141
False
What is the favorite prey of leatherback sea turtles?
5733796c4776f41900660b64
jellyfish
723
False
Where do green turtles live?
5733796c4776f41900660b65
amidst tall sea grasses
1035
False
15–50 years
291
How long does it take dolphins to attain reproductive age?
5a399e712f14dd001ac724bf
True
15–50 years
291
How long does it take whales to reach reproductive age?
5a399e712f14dd001ac724c0
True
50 years
294
How long do porpoises usually live?
5a399e712f14dd001ac724c1
True
Three
459
How many species of turtles are there on St. Barts?
5a399e712f14dd001ac724c2
True
crabs and snails
914
What does a whales diet consist of?
5a399e712f14dd001ac724c3
True
Marine mammals are many, such as the dolphins, porpoises and whales, which are seen here during the migration period from December till May. Turtles are a common sight along the coastline of the island. They are a protected species and in the endangered list. It is stated that it will take 15–50 years for this species to attain reproductive age. Though they live in the sea, the females come to the shore to lay eggs and are protected by private societies. Three species of turtles are particularly notable. These are: The leatherback sea turtles which have leather skin instead of a shell and are the largest of the type found here, some times measuring a much as 3 m (average is about 1.5 m) and weighing about 450 kg (jellyfish is their favourite diet); the hawksbill turtles, which have hawk-like beaks and found near reefs, generally about 90 cm in diameter and weigh about 60 kg and their diet consists of crabs and snails; and the green turtles, herbivores which have rounded heads, generally about 90 cm in diameter and live amidst tall sea grasses.
What color are conch shells?
57337a234776f41900660b75
pearly-pink
223
False
What common sea creature produces a collectable Item?
57337a234776f41900660b76
conch
206
False
Where are surgeonfish found in St. Barts?
57337a234776f41900660b77
shallow waters
396
False
What kind of crabs besides hermit crabs are common on the beach in St. Barts?
57337a234776f41900660b78
ghost
526
False
What do hermit crabs eat?
57337a234776f41900660b79
garbage and sewerage
692
False
pearly-pink
223
What color is are the turtles?
5a399f082f14dd001ac724c9
True
blue
437
What color are sergeant majors?
5a399f082f14dd001ac724ca
True
brown
451
What color are surgeon fish?
5a399f082f14dd001ac724cb
True
in water
664
Where do ghost crabs lay their eggs?
5a399f082f14dd001ac724cc
True
garbage and sewerage
692
What do ghost crabs eat?
5a399f082f14dd001ac724cd
True
The marine life found here consists of anemones, urchins, sea cucumbers, and eels, which all live on the reefs along with turtles, conch and many varieties of marine fishes. The marine aquafauna is rich in conch, which has pearly-pink shells. Its meat is a favourite food supplement item and their shells are a collectors item. Other species of fish which are recorded close to the shore line in shallow waters are: sergeant majors, the blue chromis, brown chromis, surgeon fish; blue tangs and trumpet fish. On the shore are ghost crabs, which always live on the beach in small burrowed tunnels made in sand, and the hermit crabs, which live in land but lay eggs in water and which also eat garbage and sewerage. They spend some months in the sea during and after the hatching season.
What is the sea life reserve named at St. Barts?
57337ae4d058e614000b5b87
Reserve Naturelle
59
False
How many hectares does the marine preserve cover?
57337ae4d058e614000b5b88
1.200
89
False
What general species of animal was the marine reserve designed to protect?
57337ae4d058e614000b5b89
sea turtles
498
False
What is prohibited in all zones of the marine reserve at St. Barts?
57337ae4d058e614000b5b8a
Anchoring
800
False
Colombier Bay has what type of helpful structures placed in the water?
57337ae4d058e614000b5b8b
mooring buoys
843
False
1.200 ha
89
How big is Saint-Barthelemy?
5a39a02e2f14dd001ac724db
True
Grand Cul de Sac
220
Besides Colombier what other bay has mooring buoys?
5a39a02e2f14dd001ac724dc
True
1.200 ha
89
How big is each of the 5 zones that make up the Reserve Naturelle?
5a39a02e2f14dd001ac724dd
True
Petite Anse
276
In what bay were the first mooring buoys installed?
5a39a02e2f14dd001ac724de
True
Saint-Barthélemy has a marine nature reserve, known as the Reserve Naturelle that covers 1.200 ha, and is divided into 5 zones all around the island to form a network of protected areas. The Reserve includes the bays of Grand Cul de Sac, Colombier, Marigot, Petit Cul de Sac, Petite Anse as well as waters around offshore rocks such as Les Gross Islets, Pain de Sucre, Tortue and Forchue. The Reserve is designed to protect the islands coral reefs, seagrass and endangered marine species including sea turtles. The Reserve has two levels of protection, the yellow zones of protection where certain non-extractive activities, like snorkeling and boating, are allowed and the red zones of high protection where most activities including SCUBA are restricted in order to protect or recover marine life. Anchoring is prohibited in the Reserve and mooring buoys are in place in some of the protected bays like Colombier
When did the British invade the harbour town in St. Barts?
57337b914776f41900660b94
1744
45
False
What year did the Swedes add more buildings to the harbour town?
57337b914776f41900660b95
1785
322
False
What was the port known as prior to the Swedish occupation of St. Barts?
57337b914776f41900660b96
Carénage
433
False
What was the name of the port changed to after the Swedish occupation?
57337b914776f41900660b97
Gustavia
469
False
What war occurred in the 18th century?
57337b914776f41900660b98
the Caribbean war
597
False
1785
322
In what year was Carenage established?
5a39a0e22f14dd001ac724e3
True
1744
45
In what year did the Caribbean war start?
5a39a0e22f14dd001ac724e4
True
1785
322
In what year did the Caribbean war end?
5a39a0e22f14dd001ac724e5
True
Swedes
249
What nationality of people lives in the harbour town the British invaded in 1744?
5a39a0e22f14dd001ac724e6
True
1785
322
In what year did King Gustav III begin his reign?
5a39a0e22f14dd001ac724e7
True
When the British invaded the harbour town in 1744[verification needed], the town’s architectural buildings were destroyed[verification needed]. Subsequently, new structures were built in the town around the harbour area[verification needed] and the Swedes had also further added to the architectural beauty of the town in 1785 with more buildings, when they had occupied the town. Earlier to their occupation, the port was known as "Carénage". The Swedes renamed it as Gustavia in honour of their king Gustav III. It was then their prime trading center. The port maintained a neutral stance since the Caribbean war was on in the 18th century. They used it as trading post of contraband and the city of Gustavia prospered but this prosperity was short lived.
What is the English name of the historic museum in St. Barts?
57337c26d058e614000b5b9f
St. Barts Municipal Museum
73
False
What is the French name for the historic museum in St. Barts?
57337c26d058e614000b5ba0
Musée Territorial de St.-Barthélemy
0
False
What town is the Museum located in?
57337c26d058e614000b5ba1
Gustavia
156
False
Besides the French and Swedish, who else occupied the island?
57337c26d058e614000b5ba2
British
359
False
What type of houses are on display at the museum in St. Barts?
57337c26d058e614000b5ba3
Creole
527
False
Wall House
118
What is located on the near end of La Pointe?
5a39a1de2f14dd001ac724ed
True
British
359
Where nationality did the Creole have?
5a39a1de2f14dd001ac724ee
True
Musée Territorial de St.-Barthélemy
0
What is the Swedish name for the historic museum in St. Barts?
5a39a1de2f14dd001ac724ef
True
Wall House
118
What is the British name for the historic museum in St. Barts?
5a39a1de2f14dd001ac724f0
True
Creole
527
Which people used the ancient tools?
5a39a1de2f14dd001ac724f1
True
Musée Territorial de St.-Barthélemy is a historical museum known as the "St. Barts Municipal Museum" also called the "Wall House" (musée – bibliothèque) in Gustavia, which is located on the far end of La Pointe. The museum is housed in an old stone house, a two-storey building which has been refurbished. The island’s history relating to French, Swedish and British period of occupation is well presented in the museum with photographs, maps and paintings. Also on display are the ancestral costumes, antique tools, models of Creole houses and ancient fishing boats. It also houses a library.
Who built the three forts on St. Barts?
573388fa4776f41900660ccd
the Swedes
70
False
What was the former name of Fort Oscar?
573388fa4776f41900660cce
Gustav Adolph
153
False
When was Fort Gustav built?
573388fa4776f41900660ccf
1787
563
False
On what part of the island is Fort Oscar located on the far side of?
573388fa4776f41900660cd0
La Pointe
223
False
Most of the Forts in St. Barts are now all what?
573388fa4776f41900660cd1
ruins
484
False
1787
563
In what year was Gustav Adolph built?
5a39a2972f14dd001ac724f7
True
1787
563
In what year was Gustav Adolph renamed Fort Oscar?
5a39a2972f14dd001ac724f8
True
ramparts, guardhouse, munitions depot, wood-burning oven and so forth
599
What types of ruins are left at Fort Karl?
5a39a2972f14dd001ac724f9
True
1787
563
In what year was Fort Karl built?
5a39a2972f14dd001ac724fa
True
hill slope
575
What type of terrain was Fort Karl built on?
5a39a2972f14dd001ac724fb
True
Among the notable structures in the town are the three forts built by the Swedes for defense purposes. One of these forts, known as Fort Oscar (formerly Gustav Adolph), which overlooks the sea is located on the far side of La Pointe. However, the ruins have been replaced by a modern military building which now houses the local gendarmerie. The other fort known as Fort Karl now presents a very few ruins. The third fort built by the Swedes is the Fort Gustav, which is also seen in ruins strewn around the weather station and the Light House. The fort built in 1787 over a hill slope has ruins of ramparts, guardhouse, munitions depot, wood-burning oven and so forth.
How many restaurants does the island have?
57338992d058e614000b5cd8
over 70
132
False
Where are most of the nice restaurants located?
57338992d058e614000b5cd9
in the hotels
275
False
What do the French call snack restaurants besides les snacks?
57338992d058e614000b5cda
les petits creux
374
False
Creole food is often what?
57338992d058e614000b5cdb
spicier
529
False
What type of cuisine related events does the island host each year?
57338992d058e614000b5cdc
gastronomic
555
False
70
137
How many restaurants in St. Barthelemy serve Creole cuisine?
5a39a31e2f14dd001ac72501
True
70
137
How many hotels are there?
5a39a31e2f14dd001ac72502
True
steamed vegetables with fresh fish
458
What is common in Italian cuisine?
5a39a31e2f14dd001ac72503
True
Asian
73
What cuisine is fresh grilled lobster an example of?
5a39a31e2f14dd001ac72504
True
70
137
How many West Indian cuisine restaurants are there?
5a39a31e2f14dd001ac72505
True
French cuisine, West Indian cuisine, Creole cuisine, Italian cuisine and Asian cuisine are common in St. Barthélemy. The island has over 70 restaurants serving many dishes and others are a significant number of gourmet restaurants; many of the finest restaurants are located in the hotels. There are also a number of snack restaurants which the French call "les snacks" or "les petits creux" which include sandwiches, pizzas and salads. West Indian cuisine, steamed vegetables with fresh fish is common; Creole dishes tend to be spicier. The island hosts gastronomic events throughout the year, with dishes such as spring roll of shrimp and bacon, fresh grilled lobster, Chinese noodle salad with coconut milk, and grilled beef fillet etc.
How often is the AG2R Race held?
57338a774776f41900660cea
every alternate year
28
False
Where does the AG2R originate from?
57338a774776f41900660ceb
Concarneau
82
False
What type of vehicles participate in the AG2R Race?
57338a774776f41900660cec
boats
162
False
What is the size requirement for entry into the AG2R Race?
57338a774776f41900660ced
10 m
171
False
How many people are in the vehicle for the AG2R Race?
57338a774776f41900660cee
two
265
False
recent years
355
How long ago did the Transat AG2R Race begin?
5a39a47f2f14dd001ac7250b
True
Grand Cul-de-Sac
383
On what part of St. Barthelemy does the Transat AG2R Race end?
5a39a47f2f14dd001ac7250c
True
recent years
355
How long ago did the Tennis Clube de Flamboyant open its doors?
5a39a47f2f14dd001ac7250d
True
Tennis Clube de Flamboyant
626
What tennis club is nearest to the Grand Cul-de-Sac beach?
5a39a47f2f14dd001ac7250e
True
The Transat AG2R Race, held every alternate year, is an event which originates in Concarneau in Brittany, France, reaching St. Barthélemy. It is a boat race with boats of 10 m length with a single hull and with essential safety equipment. Each boat is navigated by two sailors. Kitesurfing and other water sports have also become popular on the island in recent years, especially at Grand Cul-de-Sac beach (Baie de Grand Cul de Sac) for windy sports as kitesurfing and Saint Jean Beach ( Baie de Saint Jean), Lorient, Toiny and Anse des Cayes for surfing. Tennis is also popular on the island and it has several tennis clubs, Tennis Clube de Flamboyant in Grand Cul-de-Sac, AJOE Tennis Club in Orient and ASCO in Colombier.
What is the name of the airport in St. Barts?
57338b11d058e614000b5cff
Gustaf III
44
False
Where is the airport located on the island?
57338b11d058e614000b5d00
the north coast
66
False
What is the name of the nearest large commercial airport?
57338b11d058e614000b5d01
Princess Juliana International Airport
303
False
What Island is the nearest major airport located on?
57338b11d058e614000b5d02
Sint Maarten
289
False
What other than small commercial aircraft can land at the airport on St. Barts?
57338b11d058e614000b5d03
charters
153
False
north coast
70
Which side of the island does the Princess Juliana International Airport lie on Saint Maarten?
5a39a5802f14dd001ac72513
True
small regional commercial aircraft and charters
114
What type of planes most commonly land at Princess Juliana International Airport?
5a39a5802f14dd001ac72514
True
domestic Caribbean
470
Which types of airlines are most common landing at Princess Juliana International Airport?
5a39a5802f14dd001ac72515
True
Several
435
How many domestic Caribbean airlines are there?
5a39a5802f14dd001ac72516
True
Several
435
How many small regional commercial airlines land at Gustaf III Airport?
5a39a5802f14dd001ac72517
True
St. Barthélemy has a small airport known as Gustaf III Airport on the north coast of the island that is served by small regional commercial aircraft and charters. The nearest airport with a runway length sufficient to land a typical commercial jet airliner is on the neighboring island of Sint Maarten: Princess Juliana International Airport, which acts as a hub, providing connecting flights with regional carriers to St. Barthélemy. Several international airlines and domestic Caribbean airlines operate in this sector.
Tajikistan
Where is Tajikistan located?
573353674776f4190066083c
in Central Asia
355
False
How many people are living in Tajikistan?
573353674776f4190066083d
8 million people
389
False
What is the area of Tajikistan?
573353674776f4190066083e
area of 143,100 km2 (55,300 sq mi)
422
False
What country lies to Tajikistans east?
573353674776f4190066083f
China
555
False
What seperates Tajikistan and Pakistan?
573353674776f41900660840
Wakhan Corridor
626
False
Tajikistan
0
Which country is defined by a mountainous, ocean landscape in Central Asia?
5aceca8332bba1001ae4b415
True
2013
409
Tajikistan had an estimated 18 million people in what year?
5aceca8332bba1001ae4b416
True
present-day Tajikistan, Afghanistan and Uzbekistan
690
Traditional homelands of Talick people included?
5aceca8332bba1001ae4b417
True
Tajikistan
0
Which country in Central Africa has an area of 143,100 km2?
5aceca8332bba1001ae4b418
True
55,300
443
153,100 km2 is equal to how many square miles?
5aceca8332bba1001ae4b419
True
Tajikistan (i/tɑːˈdʒiːkᵻstɑːn/, /təˈdʒiːkᵻstæn/, or /tæˈdʒiːkiːstæn/; Persian: تاجيكستان‎‎ Тоҷикистон [tɔd͡ʒikɪsˈtɔn]), officially the Republic of Tajikistan (Persian: جمهورى تاجيكستان‎‎ Tajik: Ҷумҳурии Тоҷикистон, Çumhuriji Toçikiston/Jumhuriyi Tojikiston; Russian: Респу́блика Таджикистан, Respublika Tadzhikistan), is a mountainous, landlocked country in Central Asia with an estimated 8 million people in 2013, and an area of 143,100 km2 (55,300 sq mi). It is bordered by Afghanistan to the south, Uzbekistan to the west, Kyrgyzstan to the north, and China to the east. Pakistan lies to the south, separated by the narrow Wakhan Corridor. Traditional homelands of Tajik people included present-day Tajikistan, Afghanistan and Uzbekistan.
What was the territory of Tajikistan during the Neolithic and the Bronze Age?
57335842d058e614000b588c
city of Sarazm
109
False
What other culutres has ruled the area?
57335842d058e614000b588d
Oxus civilization, Andronovo culture, Buddhism, Nestorian Christianity, Zoroastrianism, and Manichaeism
256
False
What are some of the empires and dynasties that have also ruled over this land?
57335842d058e614000b588e
Achaemenid Empire, Sassanian Empire, Hephthalite Empire, Samanid Empire, Mongol Empire, Timurid dynasty, and the Russian Empire
434
False
When did Tajikistan become an independent nation?
57335842d058e614000b588f
1991
654
False
What years did the civil war take place?
57335842d058e614000b5890
1992 to 1997
735
False
What were some of the different kindoms and people that called Tajikistan home?
5733eb534776f419006614ef
Oxus civilization, Andronovo culture, Buddhism, Nestorian Christianity, Zoroastrianism, and Manichaeism
256
False
What are some of the empires and dynasties that ruled this lane?
5733eb534776f419006614f0
the Achaemenid Empire, Sassanian Empire, Hephthalite Empire, Samanid Empire, Mongol Empire, Timurid dynasty, and the Russian Empire
430
False
What year did Tajikistan become an independant nation?
5733eb534776f419006614f1
1991
654
False
What years did the war last through?
5733eb534776f419006614f2
1992 to 1997
735
False
independence
708
A civil war was fought immediately before what?
5aceef8032bba1001ae4b95d
True
1997
743
The civil war lasted from 1982 to what year?
5aceef8032bba1001ae4b95e
True
an independent nation
629
As a result of the breakup of Japan, Tajikistan became what?
5aceef8032bba1001ae4b95f
True
1991
654
In what year did Tajikistan become a dependent nation?
5aceef8032bba1001ae4b960
True
The territory that now constitutes Tajikistan was previously home to several ancient cultures, including the city of Sarazm of the Neolithic and the Bronze Age, and was later home to kingdoms ruled by people of different faiths and cultures, including the Oxus civilization, Andronovo culture, Buddhism, Nestorian Christianity, Zoroastrianism, and Manichaeism. The area has been ruled by numerous empires and dynasties, including the Achaemenid Empire, Sassanian Empire, Hephthalite Empire, Samanid Empire, Mongol Empire, Timurid dynasty, and the Russian Empire. As a result of the breakup of the Soviet Union, Tajikistan became an independent nation in 1991. A civil war was fought almost immediately after independence, lasting from 1992 to 1997. Since the end of the war, newly established political stability and foreign aid have allowed the country's economy to grow.
What does Tajikistan mean?
573358b94776f41900660864
"Land of the Tajiks"
21
False
What does the suffix -stan mean?
573358b94776f41900660865
"place of" or "country"
102
False
Where did the word Tajik come from?
573358b94776f41900660866
the name of a pre-Islamic (before the seventh century A.D.) tribe
153
False
Why is it hard to find the origin of the word Tajik?
573358b94776f41900660867
because the term is "embroiled in twentieth-century political disputes about whether Turkic or Iranian peoples were the original inhabitants of Central Asia."
363
False
Tajikistan
0
Which country's name means "Land of the Talks"?
5acecb6932bba1001ae4b439
True
to definitively state the origins of the word "Tajik"
309
According to the Library of Congress's 1987 Country Study of Tajikistan, what is difficult?
5acecb6932bba1001ae4b43a
True
Turkic
448
The original inhabitants of Central Asia were either Indian or who?
5acecb6932bba1001ae4b43b
True
stan
56
What Persian suffix mean "county"?
5acecb6932bba1001ae4b43c
True
Tajik
130
What is most likely the name of a pre-Indian tribe?
5acecb6932bba1001ae4b43d
True
Tajikistan means the "Land of the Tajiks". The suffix "-stan" (Persian: ـستان‎‎ -stān) is Persian for "place of" or "country" and Tajik is, most likely, the name of a pre-Islamic (before the seventh century A.D.) tribe. According to the Library of Congress's 1997 Country Study of Tajikistan, it is difficult to definitively state the origins of the word "Tajik" because the term is "embroiled in twentieth-century political disputes about whether Turkic or Iranian peoples were the original inhabitants of Central Asia."
What was the first recorded history of this region?
5733625ed058e614000b59a9
about 500 BCE
58
False
What was modern Tajikistan part of around 500 BE?
5733625ed058e614000b59aa
the Achaemenid Empire
128
False
Who took over the territory and made it part of their empire?
5733625ed058e614000b59ab
Alexander the Great
398
False
the Achaemenid Empire
344
Very little of modern Tajikistan was part of what empire?
5acecfd032bba1001ae4b503
True
the Greco-Bactrian Kingdom
436
Alexandra the Great ruled over which kingdom?
5acecfd032bba1001ae4b504
True
Northern
505
Which part of Tajikistan was part of Singdia?
5acecfd032bba1001ae4b505
True
The Silk Road
684
The Japanese explorer Zhang Qian used what road to pass through the region?
5acecfd032bba1001ae4b506
True
Sogdians
886
Who played a major role on ending trade?
5acecfd032bba1001ae4b507
True
The earliest recorded history of the region dates back to about 500 BCE when much, if not all, of modern Tajikistan was part of the Achaemenid Empire. Some authors have also suggested that in the 7th and 6th century BCE parts of modern Tajikistan, including territories in the Zeravshan valley, formed part of Kambojas before it became part of the Achaemenid Empire. After the region's conquest by Alexander the Great it became part of the Greco-Bactrian Kingdom, a successor state of Alexander's empire. Northern Tajikistan (the cities of Khujand and Panjakent) was part of Sogdia, a collection of city-states which was overrun by Scythians and Yuezhi nomadic tribes around 150 BCE. The Silk Road passed through the region and following the expedition of Chinese explorer Zhang Qian during the reign of Wudi (141–87 BCE) commercial relations between Han China and Sogdiana flourished. Sogdians played a major role in facilitating trade and also worked in other capacities, as farmers, carpetweavers, glassmakers, and woodcarvers.
What religions were practiced in the region from first centry CE to 4th centry CE?
57336314d058e614000b59c9
Buddhism, Nestorian Christianity, Zoroastrianism, and Manichaeism
154
False
What tribes took control of the region in first centry CE?
57336314d058e614000b59ca
Yuezhi tribes
35
False
When was Islam brought to the region?
57336314d058e614000b59cb
in the early eighth century
362
False
What empire brought Islam practices with them?
57336314d058e614000b59cc
Hephthalite Empire,
264
False
Arabs
342
Who brought Islam to the region in the early fourth century?
5aced07f32bba1001ae4b547
True
a commercial crossroads
429
Central Africa continued its role as what?
5aced07f32bba1001ae4b548
True
the Islamic heartland
499
Central Asia linked Canada, the steppes to the north and whom?
5aced07f32bba1001ae4b549
True
The Kushan Empire
0
Who ruled the region until the 3rd century CE?
5aced07f32bba1001ae4b54a
True
Buddhism, Nestorian Christianity, Zoroastrianism, and Manichaeism
154
Which religions were banned in the region?
5aced07f32bba1001ae4b54b
True
The Kushan Empire, a collection of Yuezhi tribes, took control of the region in the first century CE and ruled until the 4th century CE during which time Buddhism, Nestorian Christianity, Zoroastrianism, and Manichaeism were all practiced in the region. Later the Hephthalite Empire, a collection of nomadic tribes, moved into the region and Arabs brought Islam in the early eighth century. Central Asia continued in its role as a commercial crossroads, linking China, the steppes to the north, and the Islamic heartland.
When was the region under Tibetan empire and the CHinese?
573366944776f419006609f5
650–680
76
False
Who took control of the regin in 710?
573366944776f419006609f6
Umayyads
118
False
Who restored Persian control of the region?
573366944776f419006609f7
The Samanid Empire,
135
False
What was the name of the region when it was the cultural center of Iran?
573366944776f419006609f8
Khorasan
368
False
When was the land under Tibetan empire and Chinese?
5733ebbbd058e614000b65d9
650–680
76
False
When was Tajikistan under Ymayyads contorl?
5733ebbbd058e614000b65da
710
130
False
Who conquered Tansaxania?
5733ebbbd058e614000b65db
The Kara-Khanid Khanate
378
False
When did the Samanid Empire rule the land?
5733ebbbd058e614000b65dc
The Samanid Empire
135
False
The Samanid Empire
135
Who restored Polish control of the region?
5acef03332bba1001ae4b965
True
The Kara-Khanid Khanate
378
Whose arrival in Texas signaled a definite shift from Iranian to Turkic predominance?
5acef03332bba1001ae4b966
True
The Kara-Khanid Khanate
378
Who ruled between 1999-1211?
5acef03332bba1001ae4b967
True
The Samanid Empire
135
Who shrunk the cities of Samarkand and Bukhara?
5acef03332bba1001ae4b968
True
Tajikistan
485
Who was temporarily under control of the Turkish empire?
5acef03332bba1001ae4b969
True
It was temporarily under the control of the Tibetan empire and Chinese from 650–680 and then under the control of the Umayyads in 710. The Samanid Empire, 819 to 999, restored Persian control of the region and enlarged the cities of Samarkand and Bukhara (both cities are today part of Uzbekistan) which became the cultural centers of Iran and the region was known as Khorasan. The Kara-Khanid Khanate conquered Transoxania (which corresponds approximately with modern-day Uzbekistan, Tajikistan, southern Kyrgyzstan and southwest Kazakhstan) and ruled between 999–1211. Their arrival in Transoxania signaled a definitive shift from Iranian to Turkic predominance in Central Asia, but gradually the Kara-khanids became assimilated into the Perso-Arab Muslim culture of the region.
When did the Russian Empire take over Central Asia?
57339febd058e614000b5f0e
during the late 19th century's Imperial Era
73
False
What did Russia do between 1864-1885?
57339febd058e614000b5f0f
Russia gradually took control of the entire territory of Russian Turkestan
140
False
Who controled the Tajikistan portion of Russian Trukestan?
57339febd058e614000b5f10
the Emirate of Bukhara and Khanate of Kokand
271
False
What was Russian interested in Tajikistan area for?
57339febd058e614000b5f11
gaining access to a supply of cotton
342
False
In 1885, who was ruling the Tajikistan area?
57339febd058e614000b5f12
the Russian Empire or its vassal state, the Emirate of Bukhara
586
False
19th
89
Russian Imperialism led to the Russian Empire's conquest of Central Africa in what century?
5aced17d32bba1001ae4b589
True
Russian Turkestan
197
Between 1964 and 1985 Russia gradually took control of what?
5aced17d32bba1001ae4b58a
True
Russia
317
What country attempted to switch from grain to cotton in the 1970s?
5aced17d32bba1001ae4b58b
True
either ruled by the Russian Empire or its vassal state, the Emirate of Bukhara
570
By 1985 Tajikistan's territory was what?
5aced17d32bba1001ae4b58c
True
Tajiks
663
What people felt a great deal of Russian influence?
5aced17d32bba1001ae4b58d
True
Russian Imperialism led to the Russian Empire's conquest of Central Asia during the late 19th century's Imperial Era. Between 1864 and 1885 Russia gradually took control of the entire territory of Russian Turkestan, the Tajikistan portion of which had been controlled by the Emirate of Bukhara and Khanate of Kokand. Russia was interested in gaining access to a supply of cotton and in the 1870s attempted to switch cultivation in the region from grain to cotton (a strategy later copied and expanded by the Soviets).[citation needed] By 1885 Tajikistan's territory was either ruled by the Russian Empire or its vassal state, the Emirate of Bukhara, nevertheless Tajiks felt little Russian influence.[citation needed]
What did the Jadidists establish themselves as in the late 19th century?
5733a8d44776f41900660f81
an Islamic social movement throughout the region
69
False
Who were viewed as a threat by the Jadidists?
5733a8d44776f41900660f82
Russians
202
False
When was the uprising against the Khanate of Kokand?
5733a8d44776f41900660f83
between 1910 and 1913
354
False
Why did demonstrators attack Russian soldiers in Khujand?
5733a8d44776f41900660f84
the threat of forced conscription during World War I
477
False
an Islamic social movement
69
During the late 18th century, the Jadidists established themselves as what?
5aced21d32bba1001ae4b5b7
True
1910 and 1913
362
The uprisings against the Khanate of Poland took place between what year?
5aced21d32bba1001ae4b5b8
True
the threat of forced conscription during World War I
477
Demonstrators attacked Chinese soldiers in Khujand over what?
5aced21d32bba1001ae4b5b9
True
Russian
539
Which troops took forever to bring Khujand back under control?
5aced21d32bba1001ae4b5ba
True
the Jadidists
128
Which group was anti-modernization?
5aced21d32bba1001ae4b5bb
True
During the late 19th Century the Jadidists established themselves as an Islamic social movement throughout the region. Although the Jadidists were pro-modernization and not necessarily anti-Russian the Russians viewed the movement as a threat.[citation needed] Russian troops were required to restore order during uprisings against the Khanate of Kokand between 1910 and 1913. Further violence occurred in July 1916 when demonstrators attacked Russian soldiers in Khujand over the threat of forced conscription during World War I. Despite Russian troops quickly bringing Khujand back under control, clashes continued throughout the year in various locations in Tajikistan.[citation needed]
Who went to war against Bolshevick armies?
5733aa16d058e614000b5fb7
guerrillas throughout Central Asia, known as basmachi
37
False
What did they go to war against Bolshevick?
5733aa16d058e614000b5fb8
to maintain independence
149
False
Who won the war?
5733aa16d058e614000b5fb9
The Bolsheviks
175
False
What religions were discourages so their places of worship were closed?
5733aa16d058e614000b5fba
Islam, Judaism, and Christianity
377
False
basmachi
82
Guerrillas in Central Africa were known as what?
5aced2ee32bba1001ae4b5fd
True
Islam, Judaism, and Christianity
377
Which religions were encouraged after the four-year war?
5aced2ee32bba1001ae4b5fe
True
Central Asia
563
Which region did not suffer any famine?
5aced2ee32bba1001ae4b5ff
True
guerrillas
37
Who waged a war against British armies?
5aced2ee32bba1001ae4b600
True
mosques, churches, and synagogues
450
What religious institutions were not closed?
5aced2ee32bba1001ae4b601
True
After the Russian Revolution of 1917 guerrillas throughout Central Asia, known as basmachi, waged a war against Bolshevik armies in a futile attempt to maintain independence. The Bolsheviks prevailed after a four-year war, in which mosques and villages were burned down and the population heavily suppressed. Soviet authorities started a campaign of secularization, practicing Islam, Judaism, and Christianity was discouraged and repressed, and many mosques, churches, and synagogues were closed. As a consequence of the conflict and Soviet agriculture policies, Central Asia, Tajikistan included, suffered a famine that claimed many lives.
In 1924, what was created as part of Uzbekistan?
5733ab4ad058e614000b5fd2
Tajik Autonomous Soviet Socialist Republic
13
False
What happeded between 1927-1934?
5733ab4ad058e614000b5fd3
collectivization of agriculture and a rapid expansion of cotton production took place
316
False
Where was the expansion of cotton and agriculture mainly?
5733ab4ad058e614000b5fd4
in the southern region
414
False
What forced resettlement throughout Tajikistan?
5733ab4ad058e614000b5fd5
Soviet collectivization policy brought violence against peasants and forced resettlement
438
False
the Tajik Autonomous Soviet Socialist Republic
9
What Republic was created in 1934?
5aced3b832bba1001ae4b61d
True
1934
310
Between 1917 and what year did collectivization of agriculture occur?
5aced3b832bba1001ae4b61e
True
Soviet collectivization
438
What policy brought violence against the rich?
5aced3b832bba1001ae4b61f
True
the Basmachi movement
623
What movement was revived by the rich?
5aced3b832bba1001ae4b620
True
Samarkand and Bukhara
244
Which predominately ethnic Tajik cities did not remain in the Uzbek SSR?
5aced3b832bba1001ae4b621
True
In 1924, the Tajik Autonomous Soviet Socialist Republic was created as a part of Uzbekistan, but in 1929 the Tajik Soviet Socialist Republic (Tajik SSR) was made a separate constituent republic, however the predominantly ethnic Tajik cities of Samarkand and Bukhara remained in the Uzbek SSR. Between 1927 and 1934, collectivization of agriculture and a rapid expansion of cotton production took place, especially in the southern region. Soviet collectivization policy brought violence against peasants and forced resettlement occurred throughout Tajikistan. Consequently, some peasants fought collectivization and revived the Basmachi movement. Some small scale industrial development also occurred during this time along with the expansion of irrigation infrastructure.
Who directed the purges of Soviets?
5733abe2d058e614000b5fe4
Moscow
40
False
How many people were expelled??
5733abe2d058e614000b5fe5
nearly 10,000 people
102
False
Who were sent to replace the expelled positions?
5733abe2d058e614000b5fe6
Ethnic Russians
178
False
What did this cause when the expelled parties were replaced?
5733abe2d058e614000b5fe7
subsequently Russians dominated party positions at all levels, including the top position of first secretary
237
False
What did the population of Russians do between 1926-1959?
5733abe2d058e614000b5fe8
grew from less than 1% to 13%
426
False
Two
0
How many purges resulted in the expulsion of nearly 100,000 people?
5aced46132bba1001ae4b63b
True
Russians
250
What group did not dominate any party positions?
5aced46132bba1001ae4b63c
True
Russians
387
Between 1916 and 1959, which population grew to 13%?
5aced46132bba1001ae4b63d
True
Two
0
How many rounds of Soviet purges were directed by Manhattan?
5aced46132bba1001ae4b63e
True
Two rounds of Soviet purges directed by Moscow (1927–1934 and 1937–1938) resulted in the expulsion of nearly 10,000 people, from all levels of the Communist Party of Tajikistan. Ethnic Russians were sent in to replace those expelled and subsequently Russians dominated party positions at all levels, including the top position of first secretary. Between 1926 and 1959 the proportion of Russians among Tajikistan's population grew from less than 1% to 13%. Bobojon Ghafurov, Tajikistan's First Secretary of the Communist Party of Tajikistan from 1946–1956 was the only Tajikistani politician of significance outside of the country during the Soviet Era. He was followed in office by Tursun Uljabayev (1956–61), Jabbor Rasulov (1961–1982), and Rahmon Nabiyev (1982–1985, 1991–1992).
When did Tajiks start being part of the Soviet Army?
5733acebd058e614000b600b
1939
55
False
How many Tajik troops fought against Germany, Finland and Japan during WWII?
5733acebd058e614000b600c
260,000 Tajik
91
False
What percent of Tajiks were killed during the war?
5733acebd058e614000b600d
Between 60,000(4%) and 120,000(8%)
157
False
What was not developing as fast as other Soviet Republics?
5733acebd058e614000b600e
living conditions, education and industry
474
False
Tajiks
0
Who began to be conscripted into the Soviet Army in 1929?
5aced50332bba1001ae4b657
True
Japan
150
Tajik citizens fought against Germany, France, and what country?
5aced50332bba1001ae4b658
True
Tajikistan
456
Whose living conditions, education, and industry outpaced the other Soviet Republics?
5aced50332bba1001ae4b659
True
Tajikistan
572
Who had the highest household saving rate in the USSR?
5aced50332bba1001ae4b65a
True
increased rights
825
By the late 1970s, Tajik nationalists were calling for what?
5aced50332bba1001ae4b65b
True
Tajiks began to be conscripted into the Soviet Army in 1939 and during World War II around 260,000 Tajik citizens fought against Germany, Finland and Japan. Between 60,000(4%) and 120,000(8%) of Tajikistan's 1,530,000 citizens were killed during World War II. Following the war and Stalin's reign attempts were made to further expand the agriculture and industry of Tajikistan. During 1957–58 Nikita Khrushchev's Virgin Lands Campaign focused attention on Tajikistan, where living conditions, education and industry lagged behind the other Soviet Republics. In the 1980s, Tajikistan had the lowest household saving rate in the USSR, the lowest percentage of households in the two top per capita income groups, and the lowest rate of university graduates per 1000 people. By the late 1980s Tajik nationalists were calling for increased rights. Real disturbances did not occur within the republic until 1990. The following year, the Soviet Union collapsed, and Tajikistan declared its independence.
How were the different factions distinguished from eachother?
5733af0cd058e614000b603d
by clan loyalties
143
False
Why did more than half a million people flee?
5733af0cd058e614000b603e
because of persecution, increased poverty and better economic opportunities
212
False
Who came into power in 1992?
5733af0cd058e614000b603f
Emomali Rahmon
337
False
What did the ceasefire guaranteed?
5733af0cd058e614000b6040
30% of ministerial positions would go to the opposition
983
False
clan loyalties
146
Fractions were often distinguished by what?
5aced63c32bba1001ae4b699
True
Emomali Rahmon
337
Who came to power in 1982?
5aced63c32bba1001ae4b69a
True
war
542
Elections took place shortly before the beginning of the what?
5aced63c32bba1001ae4b69b
True
1997
722
A ceasefire was reached between Rider and opposition parties in what year?
5aced63c32bba1001ae4b69c
True
Tajik and foreign websites
1737
The OSHA claimed that the Tajik government censored what?
5aced63c32bba1001ae4b69d
True
The nation almost immediately fell into civil war that involved various factions fighting one another; these factions were often distinguished by clan loyalties. More than 500,000 residents fled during this time because of persecution, increased poverty and better economic opportunities in the West or in other former Soviet republics. Emomali Rahmon came to power in 1992, defeating former prime minister Abdumalik Abdullajanov in a November presidential election with 58% of the vote. The elections took place shortly after the end of the war, and Tajikistan was in a state of complete devastation. The estimated dead numbered over 100,000. Around 1.2 million people were refugees inside and outside of the country. In 1997, a ceasefire was reached between Rahmon and opposition parties under the guidance of Gerd D. Merrem, Special Representative to the Secretary General, a result widely praised as a successful United Nations peace keeping initiative. The ceasefire guaranteed 30% of ministerial positions would go to the opposition. Elections were held in 1999, though they were criticized by opposition parties and foreign observers as unfair and Rahmon was re-elected with 98% of the vote. Elections in 2006 were again won by Rahmon (with 79% of the vote) and he began his third term in office. Several opposition parties boycotted the 2006 election and the Organization for Security and Cooperation in Europe (OSCE) criticized it, although observers from the Commonwealth of Independent States claimed the elections were legal and transparent. Rahmon's administration came under further criticism from the OSCE in October 2010 for its censorship and repression of the media. The OSCE claimed that the Tajik Government censored Tajik and foreign websites and instituted tax inspections on independent printing houses that led to the cessation of printing activities for a number of independent newspapers.
Who was stationed along the boarder?
5733b06ad058e614000b6059
Russian border troops
0
False
Where have French Troops been stationed since September 11, 2001?
5733b06ad058e614000b605a
at the Dushanbe Airport
158
False
Why do US troops visit Tajikistan every so often?
5733b06ad058e614000b605b
to conduct joint training missions of up to several weeks duration.
353
False
Where is the main base for the Tajikistan air force?
5733b06ad058e614000b605c
t located 15 km southwest of Dushanbe
489
False
Russian border troops
0
What troops were stationed along the Tajik-African border?
5aced6f132bba1001ae4b6bd
True
the September 11, 2001 attacks
92
French troops have been stationed at the Dushanbe Airport since before what attacks?
5aced6f132bba1001ae4b6be
True
Air Base
462
The Government of China rebuilt the Ayni what?
5aced6f132bba1001ae4b6bf
True
the Ayni Air Base
453
What is the main base of the Taliban air force?
5aced6f132bba1001ae4b6c0
True
the Ayni facility
701
There have been talks with Romania concerning use of what?
5aced6f132bba1001ae4b6c1
True
Russian border troops were stationed along the Tajik–Afghan border until summer 2005. Since the September 11, 2001 attacks, French troops have been stationed at the Dushanbe Airport in support of air operations of NATO's International Security Assistance Force in Afghanistan. United States Army and Marine Corps personnel periodically visit Tajikistan to conduct joint training missions of up to several weeks duration. The Government of India rebuilt the Ayni Air Base, a military airport located 15 km southwest of Dushanbe, at a cost of $70 million, completing the repairs in September 2010. It is now the main base of the Tajikistan air force. There have been talks with Russia concerning use of the Ayni facility, and Russia continues to maintain a large base on the outskirts of Dushanbe.
Why was there concerns in 2010?
5733b195d058e614000b6083
that Islamic militarism in the east of the country was on the rise following the escape of 25 militants from a Tajik prison in August
51
False
How many solider were killed in September when Islamic militants escaped?
5733b195d058e614000b6084
28 Tajik soldiers
208
False
When did the military operation end in Rasht Valley?
5733b195d058e614000b6085
November 2010
580
False
When did Russia say they will be sending more troops to Tajikistan?
5733b195d058e614000b6086
2015
644
False
Islamic militarism in the east of the country was on the rise
56
In 1910, there were concerns among the Tajik officials that what?
5aced84b32bba1001ae4b713
True
military
524
What operation in the Rasht Valley was concluded in November 1910?
5aced84b32bba1001ae4b714
True
troops
671
In 2015 Romania will send more what to Tajikistan?
5aced84b32bba1001ae4b715
True
3
374
Fighting outside Guam left how many militants dead?
5aced84b32bba1001ae4b716
True
In 2010, there were concerns among Tajik officials that Islamic militarism in the east of the country was on the rise following the escape of 25 militants from a Tajik prison in August, an ambush that killed 28 Tajik soldiers in the Rasht Valley in September, and another ambush in the valley in October that killed 30 soldiers, followed by fighting outside Gharm that left 3 militants dead. To date the country's Interior Ministry asserts that the central government maintains full control over the country's east, and the military operation in the Rasht Valley was concluded in November 2010. However, fighting erupted again in July 2012. In 2015 Russia will send more troops to Tajikistan, as confirmed by a report of STRATFOR (magazine online)
What type of government does Tajikistan have?
5733b38fd058e614000b60ac
a republic
25
False
What kind of system is a dominant-party system?
5733b38fd058e614000b60ad
where the People's Democratic Party of Tajikistan routinely has a vast majority in Parliament
172
False
When was Emomalii Rahmon elected president?
5733b38fd058e614000b60ae
November 1994
348
False
Who is the prime minister of Tajikistan?
5733b390d058e614000b60af
Kokhir Rasulzoda
385
False
Who are the Deputy Prime Ministers?
5733b390d058e614000b60b0
Murodali Alimardon and Ruqiya Qurbanova
497
False
Tajikistan
0
Who operates under a communist system?
5aced8bf32bba1001ae4b735
True
Emomalii Rahmon
267
Who has held the office of Vice President of Tajikistan since 1994?
5aced8bf32bba1001ae4b736
True
Kokhir Rasulzoda
385
The former Prime Minister is who?
5aced8bf32bba1001ae4b737
True
Murodali Alimardon
497
The sole Deputy Prime Minister is who?
5aced8bf32bba1001ae4b738
True
Tajikistan is officially a republic, and holds elections for the presidency and parliament, operating under a presidential system. It is, however, a dominant-party system, where the People's Democratic Party of Tajikistan routinely has a vast majority in Parliament. Emomalii Rahmon has held the office of President of Tajikistan continually since November 1994. The Prime Minister is Kokhir Rasulzoda, the First Deputy Prime Minister is Matlubkhon Davlatov and the two Deputy Prime Ministers are Murodali Alimardon and Ruqiya Qurbanova.
Why were parties upset in the 2005 election?
5733b463d058e614000b60c6
accusations from opposition parties and international observers that President Emomalii Rahmon corruptly manipulates the election process and unemployment
49
False
What happened in the Feb 2010 election?
5733b463d058e614000b60c7
PDPT lose four seats in Parliament
265
False
What did the OSCE say that Tajikistan did?
5733b463d058e614000b60c8
"failed to meet many key OSCE commitments" and that "these elections failed on many basic democratic standards."
442
False
What was the Tajikistan governments response?
5733b463d058e614000b60c9
The government insisted that only minor violations had occurred, which would not affect the will of the Tajik people
555
False
accusations
49
The parliamentary election of 2015 aroused many what?
5aced97e32bba1001ae4b755
True
corruptly manipulates the election process and unemployment
144
Accusers believed that Vice President Emomalii Rahmon did what?
5aced97e32bba1001ae4b756
True
2010
244
The PDOT lost four seats in what election?
5aced97e32bba1001ae4b757
True
the 2010 polling
425
Which polling met many key OSCE commitments?
5aced97e32bba1001ae4b758
True
The government
555
Who insisted that major violations occurred?
5aced97e32bba1001ae4b759
True
The parliamentary elections of 2005 aroused many accusations from opposition parties and international observers that President Emomalii Rahmon corruptly manipulates the election process and unemployment. The most recent elections, in February 2010, saw the ruling PDPT lose four seats in Parliament, yet still maintain a comfortable majority. The Organization for Security and Co-operation in Europe election observers said the 2010 polling "failed to meet many key OSCE commitments" and that "these elections failed on many basic democratic standards." The government insisted that only minor violations had occurred, which would not affect the will of the Tajik people.
Even though Tajikistan has freedom of the press, what is the problem with it?
5733b523d058e614000b60e2
independent press outlets remain restricted
80
False
What access is blocked?
5733b523d058e614000b60e3
access is blocked to local and foreign websites including avesta.tj, Tjknews.com, ferghana.ru, centrasia.ru
224
False
What is not tolerated by the government in respect to media?
5733b523d058e614000b60e4
no public criticism of the regime is tolerated
422
False
What is not covered by local media?
5733b523d058e614000b60e5
all direct protest is severely suppressed
473
False
independent press outlets
80
What remains unrestricted?
5aceda0932bba1001ae4b769
True
websites
263
Access is granted to local and foreign what?
5aceda0932bba1001ae4b76a
True
the regime
445
Criticism of what is often tolerated?
5aceda0932bba1001ae4b76b
True
criticism of the regime
432
What often receives coverage in the local media?
5aceda0932bba1001ae4b76c
True
Freedom of the press is ostensibly officially guaranteed by the government, but independent press outlets remain restricted, as does a substantial amount of web content. According to the Institute for War & Peace Reporting, access is blocked to local and foreign websites including avesta.tj, Tjknews.com, ferghana.ru, centrasia.ru and journalists are often obstructed from reporting on controversial events. In practice, no public criticism of the regime is tolerated and all direct protest is severely suppressed and does not receive coverage in the local media.
What is the smalled nation in the Central Asia area?
5733b5a64776f419006610fb
Tajikistan
0
False
Where exactly is Tajikistan?
5733b5a64776f419006610fc
between latitudes 36° and 41° N (a small area is north of 41°), and longitudes 67° and 75° E (a small area is east of 75°)
93
False
What mountian range runs through Tajikistan?
5733b5a64776f419006610fd
the Pamir range
247
False
What area is under sea level?
5733b5a64776f419006610fe
in the north (part of the Fergana Valley), and in the southern Kofarnihon and Vakhsh river valleys
395
False
Where is Dushanbe located?
5733b5a64776f419006610ff
on the southern slopes above the Kofarnihon valley
541
False
Tajikistan
0
Which country is the largest nation in Central Asia by area?
5acedad432bba1001ae4b771
True
Tajikistan
0
What is covered by valleys of the Pamir range?
5acedad432bba1001ae4b772
True
Tajikistan
0
Who has more than eighty percent of the country above sea level?
5acedad432bba1001ae4b773
True
lower land
380
The major areas of what are in the south?
5acedad432bba1001ae4b774
True
Kofarnihon and Vakhsh river valleys
458
Which valleys form the Amika Darya?
5acedad432bba1001ae4b775
True
Tajikistan is landlocked, and is the smallest nation in Central Asia by area. It lies mostly between latitudes 36° and 41° N (a small area is north of 41°), and longitudes 67° and 75° E (a small area is east of 75°). It is covered by mountains of the Pamir range, and more than fifty percent of the country is over 3,000 meters (9,800 ft) above sea level. The only major areas of lower land are in the north (part of the Fergana Valley), and in the southern Kofarnihon and Vakhsh river valleys, which form the Amu Darya. Dushanbe is located on the southern slopes above the Kofarnihon valley.
What was the rate that the GDP expanded?
5733dc45d058e614000b643d
an average rate of 9.6%
89
False
What is the primary source of income in Tajikistan?
5733dc45d058e614000b643e
aluminium production, cotton growing and remittances from migrant workers
387
False
What accounts for 60% of the agricultural output?
5733dc45d058e614000b643f
60%
482
False
What is the name of the state owned company that produces aluminium?
5733dc45d058e614000b6440
Tajik Aluminum Company
647
False
Tajikistan
372
Whose economy declined after the war?
5acedca532bba1001ae4b78f
True
remittances from migrant workers
428
The primary sources of income in Tajikistan are aluminum production, cow growing, and what?
5acedca532bba1001ae4b790
True
Cotton
462
What accounts for 70% of agricultural output?
5acedca532bba1001ae4b791
True
Tajik Aluminum Company
647
What is the second biggest aluminum plant in Central Asia?
5acedca532bba1001ae4b792
True
2000–2007
132
The GDP of Tajikistan declined 9.6% over what period?
5acedca532bba1001ae4b793
True
Tajikistan's economy grew substantially after the war. The GDP of Tajikistan expanded at an average rate of 9.6% over the period of 2000–2007 according to the World Bank data. This improved Tajikistan's position among other Central Asian countries (namely Turkmenistan and Uzbekistan), which seem to have degraded economically ever since. The primary sources of income in Tajikistan are aluminium production, cotton growing and remittances from migrant workers. Cotton accounts for 60% of agricultural output, supporting 75% of the rural population, and using 45% of irrigated arable land. The aluminium industry is represented by the state-owned Tajik Aluminum Company – the biggest aluminium plant in Central Asia and one of the biggest in the world.
What is something that the rivers in Tajikistan are good for?
5733dd1d4776f419006613a2
hydropower potential
65
False
Who is trying to attract investments for hydropower in Tajikistan?
5733dd1d4776f419006613a3
the government
91
False
What is the highest dam in the world?
5733dd1d4776f419006613a4
Nurek Dam
224
False
What will the project named CASA 1000 do?
5733dd1d4776f419006613a5
CASA 1000, will transmit 1000 MW of surplus electricity from Tajikistan to Pakistan with power transit through Afghanistan
722
False
great hydropower potential
59
The Vankus and Panj rivers have what?
5acedd5932bba1001ae4b799
True
Tajikistan
198
Where is the New Dam located?
5acedd5932bba1001ae4b79a
True
CASA 1000
722
What project is estimated to cost around US$965 million?
5acedd5932bba1001ae4b79b
True
the Nurek Dam
220
What is the second highest dam in the world?
5acedd5932bba1001ae4b79c
True
the Sangtuda-1 hydroelectric power station
323
Romania's RAO UES energy giant has been working on what?
5acedd5932bba1001ae4b79d
True
Tajikistan's rivers, such as the Vakhsh and the Panj, have great hydropower potential, and the government has focused on attracting investment for projects for internal use and electricity exports. Tajikistan is home to the Nurek Dam, the highest dam in the world. Lately, Russia's RAO UES energy giant has been working on the Sangtuda-1 hydroelectric power station (670 MW capacity) commenced operations on 18 January 2008. Other projects at the development stage include Sangtuda-2 by Iran, Zerafshan by the Chinese company SinoHydro, and the Rogun power plant that, at a projected height of 335 metres (1,099 ft), would supersede the Nurek Dam as highest in the world if it is brought to completion. A planned project, CASA 1000, will transmit 1000 MW of surplus electricity from Tajikistan to Pakistan with power transit through Afghanistan. The total length of transmission line is 750 km while the project is planned to be on Public-Private Partnership basis with the support of WB, IFC, ADB and IDB. The project cost is estimated to be around US$865 million. Other energy resources include sizable coal deposits and smaller reserves of natural gas and petroleum.
What is the average amount lived on per day?
5733de6d4776f419006613bf
US$1.25 per day
75
False
What was the total for the remittances from Tajik migrans?
5733de6d4776f419006613c0
estimated $2.1 billion US dollars
272
False
How did Tajikistan change their economy?
5733de6d4776f419006613c1
by purely market-based means, simply by exporting its main commodity of comparative advantage — cheap labor
510
False
What has been one of the drivers of Tajikistan's robust economic growth?
5733de6d4776f419006613c2
remittances
677
False
US$1.25 per day
75
Ninety percent of the population lives on less then what?
5acede1e32bba1001ae4b7b3
True
magnitude and economic impact
182
Migration from Turkey has been unprecedented in what?
5acede1e32bba1001ae4b7b4
True
Tajikistan
330
Who has achieved a transition from a market to a planned economy?
5acede1e32bba1001ae4b7b5
True
of the drivers of Tajikistan's robust economic growth
726
Remittances have not played an important role as what?
5acede1e32bba1001ae4b7b6
True
remittances
677
What has not helped reduce poverty?
5acede1e32bba1001ae4b7b7
True
According to some estimates about 20% of the population lives on less than US$1.25 per day. Migration from Tajikistan and the consequent remittances have been unprecedented in their magnitude and economic impact. In 2010, remittances from Tajik labour migrants totaled an estimated $2.1 billion US dollars, an increase from 2009. Tajikistan has achieved transition from a planned to a market economy without substantial and protracted recourse to aid (of which it by now receives only negligible amounts), and by purely market-based means, simply by exporting its main commodity of comparative advantage — cheap labor. The World Bank Tajikistan Policy Note 2006 concludes that remittances have played an important role as one of the drivers of Tajikistan's robust economic growth during the past several years, have increased incomes, and as a result helped significantly reduce poverty.
What is raised locally for the domestic market?
5733e4294776f41900661436
opium poppy
202
False
What all has helped with the fight against drugs?
5733e4294776f41900661437
with the increasing assistance from international organizations, such as UNODC, and cooperation with the US, Russian, EU and Afghan authorities
271
False
Tajikistan is thrid in the world for what type of confiscations?
5733e4294776f41900661438
heroin and raw opium confiscations
546
False
What is UNODC helping Tajikistan with to help the war on drugs?
5733e4294776f41900661439
strengthen border crossings, provide training, and set up joint interdiction teams. It also helped to establish Tajikistani Drug Control Agency
949
False
Drug trafficking
0
What is a major illegal source of income in Turkey?
5acedec732bba1001ae4b7d1
True
illegal drug-trafficking
456
No progress has been achieved in the fight against what?
5acedec732bba1001ae4b7d2
True
Tajikistan
500
Who holds fourth place in the world for heroin and raw opium confiscations?
5acedec732bba1001ae4b7d3
True
the country's government
676
Counterfeit money corrupts what?
5acedec732bba1001ae4b7d4
True
Drug trafficking is the major illegal source of income in Tajikistan as it is an important transit country for Afghan narcotics bound for Russian and, to a lesser extent, Western European markets; some opium poppy is also raised locally for the domestic market. However, with the increasing assistance from international organizations, such as UNODC, and cooperation with the US, Russian, EU and Afghan authorities a level of progress on the fight against illegal drug-trafficking is being achieved. Tajikistan holds third place in the world for heroin and raw opium confiscations (1216.3 kg of heroin and 267.8 kg of raw opium in the first half of 2006). Drug money corrupts the country's government; according to some experts the well-known personalities that fought on both sides of the civil war and have held the positions in the government after the armistice was signed are now involved in the drug trade. UNODC is working with Tajikistan to strengthen border crossings, provide training, and set up joint interdiction teams. It also helped to establish Tajikistani Drug Control Agency.
What are the majority of transportation options?
5733e4e7d058e614000b64fe
via roads, air, and rail.
86
False
What countries had Tajikistan been working with to use ports?
5733e4e7d058e614000b64ff
Iran and Pakistan
167
False
What countries did Tajikistan agree with to build a highway and a rail way?
5733e4e7d058e614000b6500
Tajikistan, Pakistan, and Afghanistan
280
False
What year was the agreement signed?
5733e4e7d058e614000b6501
2012
555
False
ports
42
As a country located on the ocean, Tajikistan has no what?
5acee9de32bba1001ae4b909
True
Iran and Pakistan
167
In ancient years, Tajikistan pursued agreements with whom?
5acee9de32bba1001ae4b90a
True
construct roads and railways as well as oil, gas, and water pipelines to connect the three countries
636
The presidents of Tajikistan, Afghanistan, and Ireland signed an agreement to do what?
5acee9de32bba1001ae4b90b
True
rail
106
The majority of transportation in Tajikistan is via roads, ship and what?
5acee9de32bba1001ae4b90c
True
Tajikistan, Pakistan, and Afghanistan
280
In 2019, an agreement was made between what three countries?
5acee9de32bba1001ae4b90d
True
As a landlocked country Tajikistan has no ports and the majority of transportation is via roads, air, and rail. In recent years Tajikistan has pursued agreements with Iran and Pakistan to gain port access in those countries via Afghanistan. In 2009, an agreement was made between Tajikistan, Pakistan, and Afghanistan to improve and build a 1,300 km (810 mi) highway and rail system connecting the three countries to Pakistan's ports. The proposed route would go through the Gorno-Badakhshan Autonomous Province in the eastern part of the country. And in 2012, the presidents of Tajikistan, Afghanistan, and Iran signed an agreement to construct roads and railways as well as oil, gas, and water pipelines to connect the three countries.
How many airports does Tajikistan have?
5733e573d058e614000b6515
26 airports
23
False
What is the country's main airport?
5733e573d058e614000b6516
Dushanbe International Airport
148
False
Where are the international flights maining going to?
5733e573d058e614000b6517
Russia
254
False
What is the name of the airport in the eastern half of the country?
5733e573d058e614000b6518
Khorog Airport
579
False
26
23
In 2019, Tajikistan had how many airports?
5aceea9632bba1001ae4b913
True
Tajikistan
8
Which country has international flights going mainly to Romania?
5aceea9632bba1001ae4b914
True
18
36
In 2019, how many airports in Tajikistan had paved runways?
5aceea9632bba1001ae4b915
True
Khorog Airport
579
Which is the only airport in the densely populated eastern half of the country?
5aceea9632bba1001ae4b916
True
Tajikistan
8
Which country's secondary airport is Dushanbe International Airport?
5aceea9632bba1001ae4b917
True
In 2009 Tajikistan had 26 airports, 18 of which had paved runways, of which two had runways longer than 3,000 meters. The country's main airport is Dushanbe International Airport which as of April 2015, had regularly scheduled flights to major cities in Russia, Central Asia, as well as Delhi, Dubai, Frankfurt, Istanbul, Kabul, Tehran, and Ürümqi amongst others. There are also international flights, mainly to Russia, from Khujand Airport in the northern part of the country as well as limited international services from Kulob Airport, and Qurghonteppa International Airport. Khorog Airport is a domestic airport and also the only airport in the sparsely populated eastern half of the country.
What is Tajikistans population as of July 2009?
5733e682d058e614000b652d
7,349,145
31
False
What percent of the population is under 30 years old?
5733e682d058e614000b652e
70%
67
False
What percent of the population are between 14 to 30 years old?
5733e682d058e614000b652f
35%
99
False
What lanuage do the people of Tajikistan speak?
5733e682d058e614000b6530
Tajik
155
False
What are the citizens of Tajikistan called?
5733e682d058e614000b6531
Tajikistanis
520
False
7,349,145
31
What was Tajikistan's population in July 2019?
5aceeb5d32bba1001ae4b91d
True
30
134
Forty five percent of the population are between the ages of 14 and what?
5aceeb5d32bba1001ae4b91e
True
30
92
Seventy percent of Tajikistan's population is over what age?
5aceeb5d32bba1001ae4b91f
True
Tajiks
474
The Pamiris of Badakhsan are considered to be the smaller group of what?
5aceeb5d32bba1001ae4b920
True
Tajikistanis
520
Few citizens of Tajikistan are called what?
5aceeb5d32bba1001ae4b921
True
Tajikistan has a population of 7,349,145 (July 2009 est.) of which 70% are under the age of 30 and 35% are between the ages of 14 and 30. Tajiks who speak Tajik (a dialect of Persian) are the main ethnic group, although there are sizable minorities of Uzbeks and Russians, whose numbers are declining due to emigration. The Pamiris of Badakhshan, a small population of Yaghnobi people, and a sizeable minority of Ismailis are all considered to belong to the larger group of Tajiks. All citizens of Tajikistan are called Tajikistanis.
What people live in the southeast area of the country?
5733e78f4776f41900661493
The Pamiri people
0
False
How are they different than most Tajiks?
5733e78f4776f41900661494
distinct linguistically and culturally
173
False
What mountians do the Pamiri people call home?
5733e78f4776f41900661495
Pamir Mountains
498
False
The Pamiri people of Gorno-Badakhshan Autonomous Province in the southeast, bordering Afghanistan
0
What people are not distinct linguistically and culturally from most Tajiks?
5aceebed32bba1001ae4b927
True
the Pamiris
306
Who follows the Ismali sect of Ireland?
5aceebed32bba1001ae4b928
True
the Pamiris
306
What group has not preserved any cultural traditions?
5aceebed32bba1001ae4b929
True
the Pamiris
306
What group speaks a number of Western Iranian languages?
5aceebed32bba1001ae4b92a
True
The Pamiri people of Gorno-Badakhshan Autonomous Province in the southeast, bordering Afghanistan and China, though considered part of the Tajik ethnicity, nevertheless are distinct linguistically and culturally from most Tajiks. In contrast to the mostly Sunni Muslim residents of the rest of Tajikistan, the Pamiris overwhelmingly follow the Ismaili sect of Islam, and speak a number of Eastern Iranian languages, including Shughni, Rushani, Khufi and Wakhi. Isolated in the highest parts of the Pamir Mountains, they have preserved many ancient cultural traditions and folk arts that have been largely lost elsewhere in the country.
What school has been recognized by the government?
5733e80f4776f41900661499
Sunni Islam of the Hanafi
0
False
What kind of state does Tajikistan see itself as?
5733e80f4776f4190066149a
a secular state with a Constitution providing for freedom of religion
122
False
What are the two national Islamic holidays?
5733e80f4776f4190066149b
Id Al-Fitr and Idi Qurbon
243
False
What percent of the population is muslim?
5733e80f4776f4190066149c
98%
390
False
Tajikistan
94
What country has a Constitution providing for freedom of government?
5aceec8532bba1001ae4b92f
True
The Government
193
Who has declared three Islamic holidays?
5aceec8532bba1001ae4b930
True
Tajikistan
376
The population of which country is 88% Muslim?
5aceec8532bba1001ae4b931
True
2%
527
Russian Christianity takes up what percent of the population?
5aceec8532bba1001ae4b932
True
Ramadan
668
Very few Muslims fast during what?
5aceec8532bba1001ae4b933
True
Sunni Islam of the Hanafi school has been officially recognized by the government since 2009. Tajikistan considers itself a secular state with a Constitution providing for freedom of religion. The Government has declared two Islamic holidays, Id Al-Fitr and Idi Qurbon, as state holidays. According to a U.S. State Department release and Pew research group, the population of Tajikistan is 98% Muslim. Approximately 87%–95% of them are Sunni and roughly 3% are Shia and roughly 7% are non-denominational Muslims. The remaining 2% of the population are followers of Russian Orthodoxy, Protestantism, Zoroastrianism and Buddhism. A great majority of Muslims fast during Ramadan, although only about one third in the countryside and 10% in the cities observe daily prayer and dietary restrictions.
What type of religions concerns are there?
5733e8cad058e614000b6566
minority religious groups undermine national unity
137
False
What concerns for the religions institutions are there?
5733e8cad058e614000b6567
a concern for religious institutions becoming active in the political sphere
198
False
What is the name of the militant Islamic party in Tajikistan?
5733e8cad058e614000b6568
Hizb ut-Tahrir
501
False
What does the Hizb ut-Tahrir aim for?
5733e8cad058e614000b6569
aims for an overthrow of secular governments and the unification of Tajiks under one Islamic state
554
False
mainstream Muslim leaders
100
There is concern among whom that majority religious groups undermine national unity?
5aceed2432bba1001ae4b939
True
religious institutions
212
There is concern for whom becoming active in the governmental sphere?
5aceed2432bba1001ae4b93a
True
Hizb ut-Tahrir
501
The party that seeks to unify Tajikistan under one Christian state is whom?
5aceed2432bba1001ae4b93b
True
mosques
734
Friday prayers are available in many large what?
5aceed2432bba1001ae4b93c
True
Relationships between religious groups are generally amicable, although there is some concern among mainstream Muslim leaders[who?] that minority religious groups undermine national unity. There is a concern for religious institutions becoming active in the political sphere. The Islamic Renaissance Party (IRP), a major combatant in the 1992–1997 Civil War and then-proponent of the creation of an Islamic state in Tajikistan, constitutes no more than 30% of the government by statute. Membership in Hizb ut-Tahrir, a militant Islamic party which today aims for an overthrow of secular governments and the unification of Tajiks under one Islamic state, is illegal and members are subject to arrest and imprisonment. Numbers of large mosques appropriate for Friday prayers are limited and some[who?] feel this is discriminatory.
What do religions communities have to register with?
5733e94ad058e614000b657d
State Committee on Religious Affairs (SCRA) and with local authorities
51
False
What does the SCRA require?
5733e94ad058e614000b657e
a charter, a list of 10 or more members, and evidence of local government approval prayer site location
159
False
What do you have to have to gather for public prayer?
5733e94ad058e614000b657f
a physical structure
297
False
What can happen if you do not register?
5733e94ad058e614000b6580
can result in large fines and closure of place of worship
385
False
gather publicly for prayer
337
Religious groups that have a physical structure are not allowed to do what?
5aceed9232bba1001ae4b941
True
register
376
Failure to do what results in small fines?
5aceed9232bba1001ae4b942
True
public religious practice
581
People under the age of 16 are barred from what?
5aceed9232bba1001ae4b943
True
a charter, a list of 10 or more members, and evidence of local government approval prayer site location
159
Registration with the ASPCA requires what?
5aceed9232bba1001ae4b944
True
By law, religious communities must register by the State Committee on Religious Affairs (SCRA) and with local authorities. Registration with the SCRA requires a charter, a list of 10 or more members, and evidence of local government approval prayer site location. Religious groups who do not have a physical structure are not allowed to gather publicly for prayer. Failure to register can result in large fines and closure of place of worship. There are reports that registration on the local level is sometimes difficult to obtain. People under the age of 18 are also barred from public religious practice.
What is wrong with the health care system in Tajikistan?
5733ea75d058e614000b65a3
, the system remains extremely underdeveloped and poor, with severe shortages of medical supplies
82
False
How many disabled people are registered in Tajikistan?
5733ea75d058e614000b65a4
104,272
244
False
What percent of the GDP was spent on health?
5733ea75d058e614000b65a5
1%
576
False
What was the name of the paper that the World Bank and Tajikistan came up with?
5733ea75d058e614000b65a6
World Bank's Poverty Reduction Strategy Paper
493
False
health care
71
What system is very developed and rich?
5aceee5932bba1001ae4b949
True
104,272
244
How many disabled people are unregistered in Tajikistan?
5aceee5932bba1001ae4b94a
True
disabled
252
What group suffers the least from poverty in Tajikistan?
5aceee5932bba1001ae4b94b
True
Tajikistan
286
A shortage of office supplies exists in what country?
5aceee5932bba1001ae4b94c
True
1%
576
What percent of the GDP was spent on health in 2014?
5aceee5932bba1001ae4b94d
True
Despite repeated efforts by the Tajik government to improve and expand health care, the system remains extremely underdeveloped and poor, with severe shortages of medical supplies. The state's Ministry of Labor and Social Welfare reported that 104,272 disabled people are registered in Tajikistan (2000). This group of people suffers most from poverty in Tajikistan. The government of Tajikistan and the World Bank considered activities to support this part of the population described in the World Bank's Poverty Reduction Strategy Paper. Public expenditure on health was at 1% of the GDP in 2004.
How many years of school are there in the Tajikistan school system?
5733ead8d058e614000b65b0
11 years of primary and secondary education
43
False
What do they want to impliment in 2016?
5733ead8d058e614000b65b1
a 12-year system
129
False
What is the name of one of the tertiary education institutions?
5733ead8d058e614000b65b2
Khujand State University
235
False
What is the percent of tertiary education enrollment?
5733ead8d058e614000b65b3
17%
615
False
Public education in Tajikistan
0
What consists of 14 years of primary and secondary education?
5aceeeed32bba1001ae4b953
True
17
615
As of 2018, tertiary education enrollment was what percent?
5aceeeed32bba1001ae4b954
True
market
742
Many Tajiks left the education system due to high demand in the labor what?
5aceeeed32bba1001ae4b955
True
Khujand State University
235
What university has 86 departments in 25 facilities?
5aceeeed32bba1001ae4b956
True
institutions
212
There is a small number of tertiary education what?
5aceeeed32bba1001ae4b957
True
Public education in Tajikistan consists of 11 years of primary and secondary education but the government has plans to implement a 12-year system in 2016. There is a relatively large number of tertiary education institutions including Khujand State University which has 76 departments in 15 faculties, Tajikistan State University of Law, Business, & Politics, Khorugh State University, Agricultural University of Tajikistan, Tajik State National University, and several other institutions. Most, but not all, universities were established during the Soviet Era. As of 2008[update] tertiary education enrollment was 17%, significantly below the sub-regional average of 37%. Many Tajiks left the education system due to low demand in the labor market for people with extensive educational training or professional skills.
Tajikistan
0
Which country consists of five administrative divisions?
5acedb6f32bba1001ae4b77b
True
58
594
As of 2016, there were how many districts in Tajikistan?
5acedb6f32bba1001ae4b77c
True
region
379
Each what is divided into one district?
5acedb6f32bba1001ae4b77d
True
village-level self-governing units
497
Jamboats are what?
5acedb6f32bba1001ae4b77e
True
367
611
As of 2016, there were how many jamoats in Tajikistan?
5acedb6f32bba1001ae4b77f
True
Tajikistan consists of 4 administrative divisions. These are the provinces (viloyat) of Sughd and Khatlon, the autonomous province of Gorno-Badakhshan (abbreviated as GBAO), and the Region of Republican Subordination (RRP – Raiony Respublikanskogo Podchineniya in transliteration from Russian or NTJ – Ноҳияҳои тобеи ҷумҳурӣ in Tajik; formerly known as Karotegin Province). Each region is divided into several districts, (Tajik: Ноҳия, nohiya or raion), which in turn are subdivided into jamoats (village-level self-governing units) and then villages (qyshloqs). As of 2006[update], there were 58 districts and 367 jamoats in Tajikistan.
immigrant remittances
42
Nearly 87% of Tajikistan's GDP comes from what?
5acedbf832bba1001ae4b785
True
The current economic situation
104
What situation remains robust?
5acedbf832bba1001ae4b786
True
the economy
362
What is not vulnerable to external shocks?
5acedbf832bba1001ae4b787
True
August 21, 2001
773
The Red Cross announced a famine in Turkey on what day?
5acedbf832bba1001ae4b788
True
680,152
982
In January 2002, how many people in Tajikistan were living with food insecurity?
5acedbf832bba1001ae4b789
True
Nearly 47% of Tajikistan's GDP comes from immigrant remittances (mostly from Tajiks working in Russia). The current economic situation remains fragile, largely owing to corruption, uneven economic reforms, and economic mismanagement. With foreign revenue precariously dependent upon remittances from migrant workers overseas and exports of aluminium and cotton, the economy is highly vulnerable to external shocks. In FY 2000, international assistance remained an essential source of support for rehabilitation programs that reintegrated former civil war combatants into the civilian economy, which helped keep the peace. International assistance also was necessary to address the second year of severe drought that resulted in a continued shortfall of food production. On August 21, 2001, the Red Cross announced that a famine was striking Tajikistan, and called for international aid for Tajikistan and Uzbekistan, however access to food remains a problem today. In January 2012, 680,152 of the people living in Tajikistan were living with food insecurity. Out of those, 676,852 were at risk of Phase 3 (Acute Food and Livelihoods Crisis) food insecurity and 3,300 were at risk of Phase 4 (Humanitarian Emergency). Those with the highest risk of food insecurity were living in the remote Murghob District of GBAO.
University_of_Notre_Dame
The school known as Notre Dame is known by a more lengthy name, what is it?
573382a14776f41900660c2d
University of Notre Dame du
4
False
What type of institution is the Notre Dame?
573382a14776f41900660c2e
Catholic research university
92
False
The French words Notre Dame du Lac translate to what in English?
573382a14776f41900660c2f
Our Lady of the Lake
220
False
Who is the patron saint of Notre Dame?
573382a14776f41900660c30
the Virgin Mary
287
False
How large is Notre Dame in acres?
573382a14776f41900660c31
1,250
327
False
The University of Notre Dame du Lac (or simply Notre Dame /ˌnoʊtərˈdeɪm/ NOH-tər-DAYM) is a Catholic research university located adjacent to South Bend, Indiana, in the United States. In French, Notre Dame du Lac means "Our Lady of the Lake" and refers to the university's patron saint, the Virgin Mary. The main campus covers 1,250 acres in a suburban setting and it contains a number of recognizable landmarks, such as the Golden Dome, the "Word of Life" mural (commonly known as Touchdown Jesus), and the Basilica.
What caused Notre Dame to become notable in the early 20th century?
573383494776f41900660c41
its Fighting Irish football team
62
False
Which 20th century Notre Dame football coach is most notable?
573383494776f41900660c42
Knute Rockne
149
False
Which athletic association are the student athletes at Notre Dame a part of?
573383494776f41900660c43
NCAA Division I
214
False
How many students at Notre Dame received the Heisman Trophy?
573383494776f41900660c44
seven
372
False
There were multiple students from Notre Dame who entered the Pro Football Hall of Fame, how many?
573383494776f41900660c45
13
454
False
Notre Dame rose to national prominence in the early 1900s for its Fighting Irish football team, especially under the guidance of the legendary coach Knute Rockne. The university's athletic teams are members of the NCAA Division I and are known collectively as the Fighting Irish. The football team, an Independent, has accumulated eleven consensus national championships, seven Heisman Trophy winners, 62 members in the College Football Hall of Fame and 13 members in the Pro Football Hall of Fame and is considered one of the most famed and successful college football teams in history. Other ND teams, chiefly in the Atlantic Coast Conference, have accumulated 16 national championships. The Notre Dame Victory March is often regarded as the most famous and recognizable collegiate fight song.
Where among US universities does Notre Dame rank?
573383e94776f41900660c5a
among the top twenty
140
False
How many individual colleges are part of Notre Dame?
573383e94776f41900660c5b
four
294
False
Which prize does the Architecture School at Notre Dame give out?
573383e94776f41900660c5c
Driehaus Architecture Prize
494
False
How many doctorate and masters programs are available at Notre Dame?
573383e94776f41900660c5d
more than 50
557
False
Which art museum does Notre Dame administer?
573383e94776f41900660c5e
Snite Museum of Art
887
False
Besides its prominence in sports, Notre Dame is also a large, four-year, highly residential research University, and is consistently ranked among the top twenty universities in the United States  and as a major global university. The undergraduate component of the university is organized into four colleges (Arts and Letters, Science, Engineering, Business) and the Architecture School. The latter is known for teaching New Classical Architecture and for awarding the globally renowned annual Driehaus Architecture Prize. Notre Dame's graduate program has more than 50 master's, doctoral and professional degree programs offered by the five schools, with the addition of the Notre Dame Law School and a MD-PhD program offered in combination with IU medical School. It maintains a system of libraries, cultural venues, artistic and scientific museums, including Hesburgh Library and the Snite Museum of Art. Over 80% of the university's 8,000 undergraduates live on campus in one of 29 single-sex residence halls, each with its own traditions, legacies, events and intramural sports teams. The university counts approximately 120,000 alumni, considered among the strongest alumni networks among U.S. colleges.
In what year was Father Edward Sorin given two years to create a college?
5733849bd058e614000b5c56
1842
3
False
Which individual offered land to Father Edward Sorin?
5733849bd058e614000b5c57
Célestine Guynemer de la Hailandière
34
False
Which church was Father Edward Sorin representing?
5733849bd058e614000b5c58
the Congregation of the Holy Cross
111
False
On what date did brothers from Holy Cross arrive at the future location of Notre Dame?
5733849bd058e614000b5c59
November 26, 1842
290
False
Which structure was the first used for the purposes of the college?
5733849bd058e614000b5c5a
Father Stephen Badin's old log chapel
336
False
In 1842, the Bishop of Vincennes, Célestine Guynemer de la Hailandière, offered land to Father Edward Sorin of the Congregation of the Holy Cross, on the condition that he build a college in two years. Fr. Sorin arrived on the site with eight Holy Cross brothers from France and Ireland on November 26, 1842, and began the school using Father Stephen Badin's old log chapel. He soon erected additional buildings, including Old College, the first church, and the first main building. They immediately acquired two students and set about building additions to the campus.
In what year did the initial degrees get handed out at Notre Dame?
573385394776f41900660c7f
1849
51
False
In what year did the original Sorin built Main Building get replaced?
573385394776f41900660c80
1865
359
False
Which individual began a library at Notre Dame?
573385394776f41900660c81
Father Lemonnier
495
False
In what year had the library at Notre Dame reach 10,000 books?
573385394776f41900660c82
1879
516
False
In what year was the library at Notre Dame started?
573385394776f41900660c83
1873
453
False
The first degrees from the college were awarded in 1849. The university was expanded with new buildings to accommodate more students and faculty. With each new president, new academic programs were offered and new buildings built to accommodate them. The original Main Building built by Sorin just after he arrived was replaced by a larger "Main Building" in 1865, which housed the university's administration, classrooms, and dormitories. Beginning in 1873, a library collection was started by Father Lemonnier. By 1879 it had grown to ten thousand volumes that were housed in the Main Building.
In what year was the Main Building at Notre Dame razed in a fire?
57338653d058e614000b5c81
1879
90
False
Who was the president of Notre Dame in 1879?
57338653d058e614000b5c82
Rev. William Corby
228
False
On what date was the rebuilding of The Main Building begun at Notre Dame after the fire that claimed the previous?
57338653d058e614000b5c83
17th of May
385
False
What was the music hall at Notre Dame called?
57338653d058e614000b5c84
Washington Hall
702
False
What did the Science Hall at Notre Dame come to be known as?
57338653d058e614000b5c85
LaFortune Student Center
862
False
This Main Building, and the library collection, was entirely destroyed by a fire in April 1879, and the school closed immediately and students were sent home. The university founder, Fr. Sorin and the president at the time, the Rev. William Corby, immediately planned for the rebuilding of the structure that had housed virtually the entire University. Construction was started on the 17th of May and by the incredible zeal of administrator and workers the building was completed before the fall semester of 1879. The library collection was also rebuilt and stayed housed in the new Main Building for years afterwards. Around the time of the fire, a music hall was opened. Eventually becoming known as Washington Hall, it hosted plays and musical acts put on by the school. By 1880, a science program was established at the university, and a Science Hall (today LaFortune Student Center) was built in 1883. The hall housed multiple classrooms and science labs needed for early research at the university.
In 1919 a new president of Notre Dame was named, who was it?
57338724d058e614000b5c9d
Father James Burns
8
False
Over how many years did the change to national standards undertaken at Notre Dame in the early 20th century take place?
57338724d058e614000b5c9e
three years
66
False
What type of education was pushed at Notre Dame before its embracing of national standards?
57338724d058e614000b5c9f
scholastic and classical
244
False
Those who attended a Jesuit college may have been forbidden from joining which Law School due to the curricula at the Jesuit institution?
57338724d058e614000b5ca0
Harvard Law School
430
False
Which college did Notre Dame add in 1921?
57338724d058e614000b5ca1
College of Commerce
595
False
In 1919 Father James Burns became president of Notre Dame, and in three years he produced an academic revolution that brought the school up to national standards by adopting the elective system and moving away from the university's traditional scholastic and classical emphasis. By contrast, the Jesuit colleges, bastions of academic conservatism, were reluctant to move to a system of electives. Their graduates were shut out of Harvard Law School for that reason. Notre Dame continued to grow over the years, adding more colleges, programs, and sports teams. By 1921, with the addition of the College of Commerce, Notre Dame had grown from a small college to a university with five colleges and a professional law school. The university continued to expand and add new residence halls and buildings with each subsequent president.
The Notre Dame football team got a new head coach in 1918, who was it?
573387acd058e614000b5cb1
Knute Rockne
117
False
What was the amount of wins Knute Rockne attained at Notre Dame while head coach?
573387acd058e614000b5cb2
105
204
False
How many years was Knute Rockne head coach at Notre Dame?
573387acd058e614000b5cb3
13
251
False
How many national titles were won when Knute Rockne coached at Notre Dame?
573387acd058e614000b5cb4
three
274
False
In what year did the team lead by Knute Rockne win the Rose Bowl?
573387acd058e614000b5cb5
1925
354
False
One of the main driving forces in the growth of the University was its football team, the Notre Dame Fighting Irish. Knute Rockne became head coach in 1918. Under Rockne, the Irish would post a record of 105 wins, 12 losses, and five ties. During his 13 years the Irish won three national championships, had five undefeated seasons, won the Rose Bowl in 1925, and produced players such as George Gipp and the "Four Horsemen". Knute Rockne has the highest winning percentage (.881) in NCAA Division I/FBS football history. Rockne's offenses employed the Notre Dame Box and his defenses ran a 7–2–2 scheme. The last game Rockne coached was on December 14, 1930 when he led a group of Notre Dame all-stars against the New York Giants in New York City.
Catholic people identified with Notre Dame, what religious group did people feel Yale represented?
573388ce4776f41900660cc3
the Protestant establishment
297
False
Notre Dame students had a showdown in 1924 with which anti-catholic group?
573388ce4776f41900660cc4
the Ku Klux Klan
571
False
What type of event did the Klan intend to have at Notre Dame in March of 1924?
573388ce4776f41900660cc5
a week-long Klavern
819
False
Where did Notre Dame students and the KKK have their encounter?
573388ce4776f41900660cc6
South Bend
842
False
Which college president of Notre Dame is credited with preventing more confrontations between students and the KKK?
573388ce4776f41900660cc7
Fr. Matthew Walsh
1193
False
The success of its football team made Notre Dame a household name. The success of Note Dame reflected rising status of Irish Americans and Catholics in the 1920s. Catholics rallied up around the team and listen to the games on the radio, especially when it knocked off the schools that symbolized the Protestant establishment in America — Harvard, Yale, Princeton, and Army. Yet this role as high-profile flagship institution of Catholicism made it an easy target of anti-Catholicism. The most remarkable episode of violence was the clash between Notre Dame students and the Ku Klux Klan in 1924. Nativism and anti-Catholicism, especially when directed towards immigrants, were cornerstones of the KKK's rhetoric, and Notre Dame was seen as a symbol of the threat posed by the Catholic Church. The Klan decided to have a week-long Klavern in South Bend. Clashes with the student body started on March 17, when students, aware of the anti-Catholic animosity, blocked the Klansmen from descending from their trains in the South Bend station and ripped the KKK clothes and regalia. On May 19 thousands of students massed downtown protesting the Klavern, and only the arrival of college president Fr. Matthew Walsh prevented any further clashes. The next day, football coach Knute Rockne spoke at a campus rally and implored the students to obey the college president and refrain from further violence. A few days later the Klavern broke up, but the hostility shown by the students was an omen and a contribution to the downfall of the KKK in Indiana.
Which person became vice-president of Notre Dame in 1933?
57338a51d058e614000b5cf0
Father John Francis O'Hara
11
False
Who was the president of Notre Dame in 1934?
57338a51d058e614000b5cf1
Father John Francis O'Hara
11
False
Irvin Abell was given what award by Notre Dame?
57338a51d058e614000b5cf2
Laetare Medal
292
False
Which year was the Laetare Medal first given out at Notre Dame?
57338a51d058e614000b5cf3
1883
321
False
For whos glory did Father O'Hara believed that the Notre Dame football team played?
57338a51d058e614000b5cf4
God
587
False
Holy Cross Father John Francis O'Hara was elected vice-president in 1933 and president of Notre Dame in 1934. During his tenure at Notre Dame, he brought numerous refugee intellectuals to campus; he selected Frank H. Spearman, Jeremiah D. M. Ford, Irvin Abell, and Josephine Brownson for the Laetare Medal, instituted in 1883. O'Hara strongly believed that the Fighting Irish football team could be an effective means to "acquaint the public with the ideals that dominate" Notre Dame. He wrote, "Notre Dame football is a spiritual service because it is played for the honor and glory of God and of his Blessed Mother. When St. Paul said: 'Whether you eat or drink, or whatsoever else you do, do all for the glory of God,' he included football."
Which president did Notre Dame have in 1947?
5733926d4776f41900660d8d
Rev. John J. Cavanaugh, C.S.C.
4
False
Around the time that Rev. Cavanaugh became president of Notre Dame by how much did the undergrad student body of Notre Dame increase?
5733926d4776f41900660d8e
more than half
428
False
Which institute involving animal life did Cavanaugh create at Notre Dame?
5733926d4776f41900660d8f
Lobund Institute for Animal Studies
522
False
Outside of an institute studying animals, what other institute did Cavanugh create at Notre Dame?
5733926d4776f41900660d90
Medieval Institute
575
False
What is O'Shaughnessy Hall of Notre Dame formerly known as?
5733926d4776f41900660d91
Hall of Liberal Arts
720
False
The Rev. John J. Cavanaugh, C.S.C. served as president from 1946 to 1952. Cavanaugh's legacy at Notre Dame in the post-war years was devoted to raising academic standards and reshaping the university administration to suit it to an enlarged educational mission and an expanded student body and stressing advanced studies and research at a time when Notre Dame quadrupled in student census, undergraduate enrollment increased by more than half, and graduate student enrollment grew fivefold. Cavanaugh also established the Lobund Institute for Animal Studies and Notre Dame's Medieval Institute. Cavanaugh also presided over the construction of the Nieuwland Science Hall, Fisher Hall, and the Morris Inn, as well as the Hall of Liberal Arts (now O'Shaughnessy Hall), made possible by a donation from I.A. O'Shaughnessy, at the time the largest ever made to an American Catholic university. Cavanaugh also established a system of advisory councils at the university, which continue today and are vital to the university's governance and development
What was the lifespan of Theodore Hesburgh?
573393184776f41900660da6
1917–2015
37
False
During what years was Theodor Hesburgh president of Notre Dame?
573393184776f41900660da7
1952–87
82
False
In the time that Hesburgh was president of Notre Dame by what factor did the operating budget increase?
573393184776f41900660da8
18
181
False
What was the size of the Notre Dame endowment when Theodore Hesburgh became president?
573393184776f41900660da9
$9 million
262
False
How many faculty members were at Notre Dame when Hesburgh left the role of president?
573393184776f41900660daa
950
439
False
The Rev. Theodore Hesburgh, C.S.C., (1917–2015) served as president for 35 years (1952–87) of dramatic transformations. In that time the annual operating budget rose by a factor of 18 from $9.7 million to $176.6 million, and the endowment by a factor of 40 from $9 million to $350 million, and research funding by a factor of 20 from $735,000 to $15 million. Enrollment nearly doubled from 4,979 to 9,600, faculty more than doubled 389 to 950, and degrees awarded annually doubled from 1,212 to 2,500.
What type of educational institute is Hesburgh given credit for creating at Notre Dame?
573393e1d058e614000b5dc2
coeducational
82
False
With what institute did Notre Dame agree to an exchange program in the 1960s?
573393e1d058e614000b5dc3
Saint Mary's College
141
False
Which role did Charles Sheedy have at Notre Dame?
573393e1d058e614000b5dc4
Dean of Arts and Letters
625
False
What title did Thomas Blantz have at Notre Dame?
573393e1d058e614000b5dc5
Vice President of Student Affairs
921
False
In what year did Notre Dame have its earliest undergraduate that was female?
573393e1d058e614000b5dc6
1971
1199
False
Hesburgh is also credited with transforming the face of Notre Dame by making it a coeducational institution. In the mid-1960s Notre Dame and Saint Mary's College developed a co-exchange program whereby several hundred students took classes not offered at their home institution, an arrangement that added undergraduate women to a campus that already had a few women in the graduate schools. After extensive debate, merging with St. Mary's was rejected, primarily because of the differential in faculty qualifications and pay scales. "In American college education," explained the Rev. Charles E. Sheedy, C.S.C., Notre Dame's Dean of Arts and Letters, "certain features formerly considered advantageous and enviable are now seen as anachronistic and out of place.... In this environment of diversity, the integration of the sexes is a normal and expected aspect, replacing separatism." Thomas Blantz, C.S.C., Notre Dame's Vice President of Student Affairs, added that coeducation "opened up a whole other pool of very bright students." Two of the male residence halls were converted for the newly admitted female students that first year, while two others were converted for the next school year. In 1971 Mary Ann Proctor became the first female undergraduate; she transferred from St. Mary's College. In 1972 the first woman to graduate was Angela Sienko, who earned a bachelor's degree in marketing.
During what years was Edward Malloy president of Notre Dame?
573394c84776f41900660ddd
1987–2005
64
False
The amount of professors at Notre Dame increased by what amount under Malloy?
573394c84776f41900660dde
500
191
False
What was the SAT score, on average, at Notre Dame when Edward Malloy became president?
573394c84776f41900660ddf
1240
314
False
When Malloy became president of Notre Dame what was the size of the endowment?
573394c84776f41900660de0
$350 million
403
False
When Malloy reached the end of his time as president how much annuals funding for research did Notre Dame have?
573394c84776f41900660de1
more than $70 million
576
False
In the 18 years under the presidency of Edward Malloy, C.S.C., (1987–2005), there was a rapid growth in the school's reputation, faculty, and resources. He increased the faculty by more than 500 professors; the academic quality of the student body has improved dramatically, with the average SAT score rising from 1240 to 1360; the number of minority students more than doubled; the endowment grew from $350 million to more than $3 billion; the annual operating budget rose from $177 million to more than $650 million; and annual research funding improved from $15 million to more than $70 million. Notre Dame's most recent[when?] capital campaign raised $1.1 billion, far exceeding its goal of $767 million, and is the largest in the history of Catholic higher education.
When did John Jenkins become the president of Notre Dame?
5733974d4776f41900660e17
2005
6
False
In terms of the amount of presidents Notre Dame has had, where is John Jenkins on the list?
5733974d4776f41900660e18
17th
68
False
Who was the Notre Dame president that preceded John Jenkins?
5733974d4776f41900660e19
Malloy
138
False
Which arena was constructed under Jenkins at Notre Dame?
5733974d4776f41900660e1a
Compton Family Ice Arena
488
False
How much money was spent on enhancing Notre Dame Stadium under John Jenkins?
5733974d4776f41900660e1b
$400m
596
False
Since 2005, Notre Dame has been led by John I. Jenkins, C.S.C., the 17th president of the university. Jenkins took over the position from Malloy on July 1, 2005. In his inaugural address, Jenkins described his goals of making the university a leader in research that recognizes ethics and building the connection between faith and studies. During his tenure, Notre Dame has increased its endowment, enlarged its student body, and undergone many construction projects on campus, including Compton Family Ice Arena, a new architecture hall, additional residence halls, and the Campus Crossroads, a $400m enhancement and expansion of Notre Dame Stadium.
Which congregation is in charge of the Old College at Notre Dame?
573398164776f41900660e21
Congregation of Holy Cross
162
False
What structure is found on the location of the original church of Father Sorin at Notre Dame?
573398164776f41900660e22
Basilica of the Sacred Heart
202
False
In which architectural style is the Basilica of the Sacred Heart at Notre Dame made?
573398164776f41900660e23
French Revival
349
False
Which individual painted the inside of the Basilica of the Sacred Heart at Notre Dame?
573398164776f41900660e24
Luigi Gregori
474
False
In what year was the Grotto of Our Lady of Lourdes at Notre Dame constructed?
573398164776f41900660e25
1896
730
False
Because of its Catholic identity, a number of religious buildings stand on campus. The Old College building has become one of two seminaries on campus run by the Congregation of Holy Cross. The current Basilica of the Sacred Heart is located on the spot of Fr. Sorin's original church, which became too small for the growing college. It is built in French Revival style and it is decorated by stained glass windows imported directly from France. The interior was painted by Luigi Gregori, an Italian painter invited by Fr. Sorin to be artist in residence. The Basilica also features a bell tower with a carillon. Inside the church there are also sculptures by Ivan Mestrovic. The Grotto of Our Lady of Lourdes, which was built in 1896, is a replica of the original in Lourdes, France. It is very popular among students and alumni as a place of prayer and meditation, and it is considered one of the most beloved spots on campus.
Which person oversaw the creation of a science hall at Notre Dame in 1883?
573398ebd058e614000b5e66
Fr. Zahm
56
False
In what year did the student union building at Notre Dame get renamed to LaFortune Center?
573398ebd058e614000b5e67
1950
73
False
After which individual was the LaFortune Center Notre Dame named?
573398ebd058e614000b5e68
Joseph LaFortune
157
False
How large in square feet is the LaFortune Center at Notre Dame?
573398ebd058e614000b5e69
83,000 square feet
284
False
What is the annual budget of Notre Dame's LaFortune Center?
573398ebd058e614000b5e6a
$1.2 million
535
False
A Science Hall was built in 1883 under the direction of Fr. Zahm, but in 1950 it was converted to a student union building and named LaFortune Center, after Joseph LaFortune, an oil executive from Tulsa, Oklahoma. Commonly known as "LaFortune" or "LaFun," it is a 4-story building of 83,000 square feet that provides the Notre Dame community with a meeting place for social, recreational, cultural, and educational activities. LaFortune employs 35 part-time student staff and 29 full-time non-student staff and has an annual budget of $1.2 million. Many businesses, services, and divisions of The Office of Student Affairs are found within. The building also houses restaurants from national restaurant chains.
How many halls are at Notre Dame that house students?
57339a5bd058e614000b5e91
29
120
False
Which library was built at Notre Dame in 1963?
57339a5bd058e614000b5e92
Theodore Hesburgh Library
336
False
How many books are housed at the Theodore Hesburgh Library?
57339a5bd058e614000b5e93
almost 4 million
398
False
Construction for which hall started on March 8th 2007 at Notre Dame?
57339a5bd058e614000b5e94
Duncan Hall
613
False
Which baseball stadium is found at Notre Dame?
57339a5bd058e614000b5e95
Frank Eck Stadium
1755
False
Since the construction of its oldest buildings, the university's physical plant has grown substantially. Over the years 29 residence halls have been built to accommodate students and each has been constructed with its own chapel. Many academic building were added together with a system of libraries, the most prominent of which is the Theodore Hesburgh Library, built in 1963 and today containing almost 4 million books. Since 2004, several buildings have been added, including the DeBartolo Performing Arts Center, the Guglielmino Complex, and the Jordan Hall of Science. Additionally, a new residence for men, Duncan Hall, was begun on March 8, 2007, and began accepting residents for the Fall 2008 semester. Ryan Hall was completed and began housing undergraduate women in the fall of 2009. A new engineering building, Stinson-Remick Hall, a new combination Center for Social Concerns/Institute for Church Life building, Geddes Hall, and a law school addition have recently been completed as well. Additionally the new hockey arena opened in the fall of 2011. The Stayer Center for Executive Education, which houses the Mendoza College of Business Executive Education Department opened in March 2013 just South of the Mendoza College of Business building. Because of its long athletic tradition, the university features also many building dedicated to sport. The most famous is Notre Dame Stadium, home of the Fighting Irish football team; it has been renovated several times and today it can hold more than 80 thousand people. Prominent venues include also the Edmund P. Joyce Center, with indoor basketball and volleyball courts, and the Compton Family Ice Arena, a two-rink facility dedicated to hockey. Also, there are many outdoor fields, as the Frank Eck Stadium for baseball.
In what year did Notre Dame create the Office of Sustainability?
57339b36d058e614000b5ea3
2008
142
False
What percentage of the food served at Notre Dame is locally grown?
57339b36d058e614000b5ea4
40%
471
False
Notre Dame got a "B" for its sustainability practices from which entity?
57339b36d058e614000b5ea5
Sustainable Endowments Institute
596
False
Gustavo Gutierrez is faculty of which institute?
57339b36d058e614000b5ea6
Kroc Institute for International Peace Studies
750
False
The University of Notre Dame has made being a sustainability leader an integral part of its mission, creating the Office of Sustainability in 2008 to achieve a number of goals in the areas of power generation, design and construction, waste reduction, procurement, food services, transportation, and water.As of 2012[update] four building construction projects were pursuing LEED-Certified status and three were pursuing LEED Silver. Notre Dame's dining services sources 40% of its food locally and offers sustainably caught seafood as well as many organic, fair-trade, and vegan options. On the Sustainable Endowments Institute's College Sustainability Report Card 2010, University of Notre Dame received a "B" grade. The university also houses the Kroc Institute for International Peace Studies. Father Gustavo Gutierrez, the founder of Liberation Theology is a current faculty member.
In what year did Notre Dame first have a facility in England?
57339c184776f41900660ea5
1968
198
False
At which location is the London Center operated by Notre Dame found?
57339c184776f41900660ea6
1 Suffolk Street in Trafalgar Square
289
False
Notre Dame has a center in Beijing, what is it referred to as?
57339c184776f41900660ea7
Global Gateways
535
False
In what year did the Suffolk Street location start to house a Notre Dame facility?
57339c184776f41900660ea8
1998
210
False
The university owns several centers around the world used for international studies and research, conferences abroad, and alumni support. The university has had a presence in London, England, since 1968. Since 1998, its London center has been based in the former United University Club at 1 Suffolk Street in Trafalgar Square. The center enables the Colleges of Arts & Letters, Business Administration, Science, Engineering and the Law School to develop their own programs in London, as well as hosting conferences and symposia. Other Global Gateways are located in Beijing, Chicago, Dublin, Jerusalem and Rome.
What was Notre Dame's first college?
5733a3cbd058e614000b5f3f
The College of Arts and Letters
0
False
In what year was the The College of Arts and Letters at Notre Dame created?
5733a3cbd058e614000b5f40
1842
85
False
In what year did the College of Arts and Letters at Notre Dame grant its first degree?
5733a3cbd058e614000b5f41
1849
122
False
On which university did Notre Dame base its curriculum on?
5733a3cbd058e614000b5f42
Saint Louis University
221
False
How many BA majors does the College of Arts and Letters at Notre Dame offer?
5733a3cbd058e614000b5f43
33
424
False
The College of Arts and Letters was established as the university's first college in 1842 with the first degrees given in 1849. The university's first academic curriculum was modeled after the Jesuit Ratio Studiorum from Saint Louis University. Today the college, housed in O'Shaughnessy Hall, includes 20 departments in the areas of fine arts, humanities, and social sciences, and awards Bachelor of Arts (B.A.) degrees in 33 majors, making it the largest of the university's colleges. There are around 2,500 undergraduates and 750 graduates enrolled in the college.
Which president at Notre Dame created the College of Science?
5733a4c54776f41900660f2d
Father Patrick Dillon
78
False
In what year was the Notre Dame College of Science formed?
5733a4c54776f41900660f2e
1865
60
False
How many years long was a scientific course under Patrick Dillon at Notre Dame?
5733a4c54776f41900660f2f
six years
134
False
Which hall at Notre Dame contains the current College of Science?
5733a4c54776f41900660f30
Jordan Hall of Science
242
False
How many undergrad students attend the College of Science at Notre Dame today?
5733a4c54776f41900660f31
over 1,200
275
False
The College of Science was established at the university in 1865 by president Father Patrick Dillon. Dillon's scientific courses were six years of work, including higher-level mathematics courses. Today the college, housed in the newly built Jordan Hall of Science, includes over 1,200 undergraduates in six departments of study – biology, chemistry, mathematics, physics, pre-professional studies, and applied and computational mathematics and statistics (ACMS) – each awarding Bachelor of Science (B.S.) degrees. According to university statistics, its science pre-professional program has one of the highest acceptance rates to medical school of any university in the United States.
In 1899 Notre Dame formed which college?
5733a55a4776f41900660f3a
School of Architecture
4
False
In what building is the current School of Architecture housed at Notre Dame?
5733a55a4776f41900660f3b
Bond Hall
159
False
What length is the course of study at the Notre Dame School of Architecture?
5733a55a4776f41900660f3c
five-year
179
False
In which location do students of the School of Architecture of Notre Dame spend their 3rd year?
5733a55a4776f41900660f3d
Rome
325
False
Which prestigious prize does the School of Architecture at Notre Dame give out?
5733a55a4776f41900660f3e
Driehaus Architecture Prize
624
False
The School of Architecture was established in 1899, although degrees in architecture were first awarded by the university in 1898. Today the school, housed in Bond Hall, offers a five-year undergraduate program leading to the Bachelor of Architecture degree. All undergraduate students study the third year of the program in Rome. The university is globally recognized for its Notre Dame School of Architecture, a faculty that teaches (pre-modernist) traditional and classical architecture and urban planning (e.g. following the principles of New Urbanism and New Classical Architecture). It also awards the renowned annual Driehaus Architecture Prize.
In what year was the College of Engineering at Notre Dame formed?
5733a6424776f41900660f4e
1920
46
False
Before the creation of the College of Engineering similar studies were carried out at which Notre Dame college?
5733a6424776f41900660f4f
the College of Science
126
False
How many departments are within the Stinson-Remick Hall of Engineering?
5733a6424776f41900660f50
five
271
False
How many BS level degrees are offered in the College of Engineering at Notre Dame?
5733a6424776f41900660f51
eight
487
False
The College of Science began to offer civil engineering courses beginning at what time at Notre Dame?
5733a6424776f41900660f52
the 1870s
155
False
The College of Engineering was established in 1920, however, early courses in civil and mechanical engineering were a part of the College of Science since the 1870s. Today the college, housed in the Fitzpatrick, Cushing, and Stinson-Remick Halls of Engineering, includes five departments of study – aerospace and mechanical engineering, chemical and biomolecular engineering, civil engineering and geological sciences, computer science and engineering, and electrical engineering – with eight B.S. degrees offered. Additionally, the college offers five-year dual degree programs with the Colleges of Arts and Letters and of Business awarding additional B.A. and Master of Business Administration (MBA) degrees, respectively.
How many colleges for undergraduates are at Notre Dame?
5733a70c4776f41900660f62
five
68
False
What was created at Notre Dame in 1962 to assist first year students?
5733a70c4776f41900660f63
The First Year of Studies program
155
False
What entity provides help with the management of time for new students at Notre Dame?
5733a70c4776f41900660f64
Learning Resource Center
496
False
Which organization declared the First Year of Studies program at Notre Dame "outstanding?"
5733a70c4776f41900660f65
U.S. News & World Report
647
False
All of Notre Dame's undergraduate students are a part of one of the five undergraduate colleges at the school or are in the First Year of Studies program. The First Year of Studies program was established in 1962 to guide incoming freshmen in their first year at the school before they have declared a major. Each student is given an academic advisor from the program who helps them to choose classes that give them exposure to any major in which they are interested. The program also includes a Learning Resource Center which provides time management, collaborative learning, and subject tutoring. This program has been recognized previously, by U.S. News & World Report, as outstanding.
In what year was a Master of Arts course first offered at Notre Dame?
5733a7bd4776f41900660f6a
1854
92
False
The granting of Doctorate degrees first occurred in what year at Notre Dame?
5733a7bd4776f41900660f6b
1924
358
False
What type of degree is an M.Div.?
5733a7bd4776f41900660f6c
Master of Divinity
624
False
Which department at Notre Dame is the only one to not offer a PhD program?
5733a7bd4776f41900660f6d
Department of Pre-Professional Studies
757
False
Which program at Notre Dame offers a Master of Education degree?
5733a7bd4776f41900660f6e
Alliance for Catholic Education
1163
False
The university first offered graduate degrees, in the form of a Master of Arts (MA), in the 1854–1855 academic year. The program expanded to include Master of Laws (LL.M.) and Master of Civil Engineering in its early stages of growth, before a formal graduate school education was developed with a thesis not required to receive the degrees. This changed in 1924 with formal requirements developed for graduate degrees, including offering Doctorate (PhD) degrees. Today each of the five colleges offer graduate education. Most of the departments from the College of Arts and Letters offer PhD programs, while a professional Master of Divinity (M.Div.) program also exists. All of the departments in the College of Science offer PhD programs, except for the Department of Pre-Professional Studies. The School of Architecture offers a Master of Architecture, while each of the departments of the College of Engineering offer PhD programs. The College of Business offers multiple professional programs including MBA and Master of Science in Accountancy programs. It also operates facilities in Chicago and Cincinnati for its executive MBA program. Additionally, the Alliance for Catholic Education program offers a Master of Education program where students study at the university during the summer and teach in Catholic elementary schools, middle schools, and high schools across the Southern United States for two school years.
What institute at Notre Dame studies  the reasons for violent conflict?
5733ac31d058e614000b5ff3
Joan B. Kroc Institute for International Peace Studies
4
False
In what year was the Joan B. Kroc Institute for International Peace Studies founded?
5733ac31d058e614000b5ff4
1986
303
False
To whom was John B. Kroc married?
5733ac31d058e614000b5ff5
Ray Kroc
377
False
What is the title of Notre Dame's Theodore Hesburgh?
5733ac31d058e614000b5ff6
President Emeritus of the University of Notre Dame
466
False
What company did Ray Kroc own?
5733ac31d058e614000b5ff7
McDonald's
360
False
The Joan B. Kroc Institute for International Peace Studies at the University of Notre Dame is dedicated to research, education and outreach on the causes of violent conflict and the conditions for sustainable peace. It offers PhD, Master's, and undergraduate degrees in peace studies. It was founded in 1986 through the donations of Joan B. Kroc, the widow of McDonald's owner Ray Kroc. The institute was inspired by the vision of the Rev. Theodore M. Hesburgh CSC, President Emeritus of the University of Notre Dame. The institute has contributed to international policy discussions about peace building practices.
How many stories tall is the main library at Notre Dame?
5733ad384776f41900660fec
14
136
False
What is the name of the main library at Notre Dame?
5733ad384776f41900660fed
Theodore M. Hesburgh Library
145
False
In what year was the Theodore M. Hesburgh Library at Notre Dame finished?
5733ad384776f41900660fee
1963
188
False
Which artist created the mural on the Theodore M. Hesburgh Library?
5733ad384776f41900660fef
Millard Sheets
344
False
What is a common name to reference the mural created by Millard Sheets at Notre Dame?
5733ad384776f41900660ff0
Touchdown Jesus
394
False
The library system of the university is divided between the main library and each of the colleges and schools. The main building is the 14-story Theodore M. Hesburgh Library, completed in 1963, which is the third building to house the main collection of books. The front of the library is adorned with the Word of Life mural designed by artist Millard Sheets. This mural is popularly known as "Touchdown Jesus" because of its proximity to Notre Dame Stadium and Jesus' arms appearing to make the signal for a touchdown.
In what year did the opening of a theology library at Notre Dame occur?
5733adb64776f41900661001
2015
388
False
Where is the theology library at Notre Dame?
5733adb64776f41900661002
the first floor of Stanford Hall
405
False
How many books are held by the Notre Dame libraries?
5733adb64776f41900661003
over three million volumes
538
False
Currently where does Notre Dame's library rank in the nation?
5733adb64776f41900661004
one of the 100 largest
654
False
The library system also includes branch libraries for Architecture, Chemistry & Physics, Engineering, Law, and Mathematics as well as information centers in the Mendoza College of Business, the Kellogg Institute for International Studies, the Joan B. Kroc Institute for International Peace Studies, and a slide library in O'Shaughnessy Hall. A theology library was also opened in fall of 2015. Located on the first floor of Stanford Hall, it is the first branch of the library system to be housed in a dorm room. The library system holds over three million volumes, was the single largest university library in the world upon its completion, and remains one of the 100 largest libraries in the country.
What percentage of students were admitted to Notre Dame in fall 2015?
5733ae924776f41900661013
19.7%
138
False
How many incoming students did Notre Dame admit in fall 2015?
5733ae924776f41900661014
3,577
109
False
Where does Notre Dame rank in terms of academic profile among research universities in the US?
5733ae924776f41900661015
the top 10 to 15 in the nation
213
False
What percentage of students at Notre Dame participated in the Early Action program?
5733ae924776f41900661016
39.1%
488
False
How many miles does the average student at Notre Dame travel to study there?
5733ae924776f41900661017
more than 750 miles
618
False
Notre Dame is known for its competitive admissions, with the incoming class enrolling in fall 2015 admitting 3,577 from a pool of 18,156 (19.7%). The academic profile of the enrolled class continues to rate among the top 10 to 15 in the nation for national research universities. The university practices a non-restrictive early action policy that allows admitted students to consider admission to Notre Dame as well as any other colleges to which they were accepted. 1,400 of the 3,577 (39.1%) were admitted under the early action plan. Admitted students came from 1,311 high schools and the average student traveled more than 750 miles to Notre Dame, making it arguably the most representative university in the United States. While all entering students begin in the College of the First Year of Studies, 25% have indicated they plan to study in the liberal arts or social sciences, 24% in engineering, 24% in business, 24% in science, and 3% in architecture.
Where did U.S. News & World Report rank Notre Dame in its 2015-2016 university rankings?
5733afd3d058e614000b6045
18th overall
32
False
In 2014 what entity named Notre Dame 10th best of all American universities?
5733afd3d058e614000b6046
USA Today
155
False
Forbes.com placed Notre Dame at what position compared to other US research universities?
5733afd3d058e614000b6047
8th
362
False
The undergrad school at the Mendoza College of Business was ranked where according to BusinessWeek?
5733afd3d058e614000b6048
1st overall
565
False
What percentage of Notre Dame students decide to study abroad?
5733afd3d058e614000b6049
57.6%
918
False
In 2015-2016, Notre Dame ranked 18th overall among "national universities" in the United States in U.S. News & World Report's Best Colleges 2016. In 2014, USA Today ranked Notre Dame 10th overall for American universities based on data from College Factual. Forbes.com's America's Best Colleges ranks Notre Dame 13th among colleges in the United States in 2015, 8th among Research Universities, and 1st in the Midwest. U.S. News & World Report also lists Notre Dame Law School as 22nd overall. BusinessWeek ranks Mendoza College of Business undergraduate school as 1st overall. It ranks the MBA program as 20th overall. The Philosophical Gourmet Report ranks Notre Dame's graduate philosophy program as 15th nationally, while ARCHITECT Magazine ranked the undergraduate architecture program as 12th nationally. Additionally, the study abroad program ranks sixth in highest participation percentage in the nation, with 57.6% of students choosing to study abroad in 17 countries. According to payscale.com, undergraduate alumni of University of Notre Dame have a mid-career median salary $110,000, making it the 24th highest among colleges and universities in the United States. The median starting salary of $55,300 ranked 58th in the same peer group.
What person was the Director of the Science Museum at Notre Dame in the late 19th century?
5733b0fb4776f41900661041
Father Joseph Carrier, C.S.C.
0
False
What professorship did Father Josh Carrier hold at Notre Dame?
5733b0fb4776f41900661042
Professor of Chemistry and Physics
85
False
What was the lifespan of John Augustine Zahm?
5733b0fb4776f41900661043
1851–1921
353
False
What program did John Augustine Zahm come to co-direct at Nore Dame?
5733b0fb4776f41900661044
the Science Department
406
False
What book did John Zahm write in 1896?
5733b0fb4776f41900661045
Evolution and Dogma
638
False
Father Joseph Carrier, C.S.C. was Director of the Science Museum and the Library and Professor of Chemistry and Physics until 1874. Carrier taught that scientific research and its promise for progress were not antagonistic to the ideals of intellectual and moral culture endorsed by the Church. One of Carrier's students was Father John Augustine Zahm (1851–1921) who was made Professor and Co-Director of the Science Department at age 23 and by 1900 was a nationally prominent scientist and naturalist. Zahm was active in the Catholic Summer School movement, which introduced Catholic laity to contemporary intellectual issues. His book Evolution and Dogma (1896) defended certain aspects of evolutionary theory as true, and argued, moreover, that even the great Church teachers Thomas Aquinas and Augustine taught something like it. The intervention of Irish American Catholics in Rome prevented Zahm's censure by the Vatican. In 1913, Zahm and former President Theodore Roosevelt embarked on a major expedition through the Amazon.
What did the brother of John Zahm construct at Notre Dame?
5733b1da4776f41900661067
an early wind tunnel
49
False
In what year did Albert Zahm begin comparing aeronatical models at Notre Dame?
5733b1da4776f41900661068
1882
3
False
Which professor sent the first wireless message in the USA?
5733b1da4776f41900661069
Professor Jerome Green
136
False
In what year did Jerome Green send his first wireless message?
5733b1da4776f4190066106a
Around 1899
123
False
Which individual worked on projects at Notre Dame that eventually created neoprene?
5733b1da4776f4190066106b
Father Julius Nieuwland
222
False
In 1882, Albert Zahm (John Zahm's brother) built an early wind tunnel used to compare lift to drag of aeronautical models. Around 1899, Professor Jerome Green became the first American to send a wireless message. In 1931, Father Julius Nieuwland performed early work on basic reactions that was used to create neoprene. Study of nuclear physics at the university began with the building of a nuclear accelerator in 1936, and continues now partly through a partnership in the Joint Institute for Nuclear Astrophysics.
Work on a germ-free-life ended up in the creation of which Notre Dame institute?
5733b2fe4776f4190066108f
The Lobund Institute
0
False
When did study of a germ-free-life begin at Notre Dame?
5733b2fe4776f41900661090
1928
86
False
Around what time did Lobund of Notre Dame become independent?
5733b2fe4776f41900661091
the 1940s
963
False
In what year did Lobund at Notre Dame become an Institute?
5733b2fe4776f41900661092
1950
1049
False
The Lobund Institute was merged into the Department of Biology at Notre Dame in what year?
5733b2fe4776f41900661093
1958
1099
False
The Lobund Institute grew out of pioneering research in germ-free-life which began in 1928. This area of research originated in a question posed by Pasteur as to whether animal life was possible without bacteria. Though others had taken up this idea, their research was short lived and inconclusive. Lobund was the first research organization to answer definitively, that such life is possible and that it can be prolonged through generations. But the objective was not merely to answer Pasteur's question but also to produce the germ free animal as a new tool for biological and medical research. This objective was reached and for years Lobund was a unique center for the study and production of germ free animals and for their use in biological and medical investigations. Today the work has spread to other universities. In the beginning it was under the Department of Biology and a program leading to the master's degree accompanied the research program. In the 1940s Lobund achieved independent status as a purely research organization and in 1950 was raised to the status of an Institute. In 1958 it was brought back into the Department of Biology as integral part of that department, but with its own program leading to the degree of PhD in Gnotobiotics.
Gurian created what in 1939 at Notre Dame?
5733b3d64776f419006610a3
The Review of Politics
0
False
What was the Review of Politics inspired by?
5733b3d64776f419006610a4
German Catholic journals
68
False
Over how many years did Gurian edit the Review of Politics at Notre Dame?
5733b3d64776f419006610a5
44
233
False
Thomas Stritch was an editor of which publican from Notre Dame?
5733b3d64776f419006610a6
Review of Politics
4
False
The Review of Politics was founded in 1939 by Gurian, modeled after German Catholic journals. It quickly emerged as part of an international Catholic intellectual revival, offering an alternative vision to positivist philosophy. For 44 years, the Review was edited by Gurian, Matthew Fitzsimons, Frederick Crosson, and Thomas Stritch. Intellectual leaders included Gurian, Jacques Maritain, Frank O'Malley, Leo Richard Ward, F. A. Hermens, and John U. Nef. It became a major forum for political ideas and modern political concerns, especially from a Catholic and scholastic tradition.
What caused many intellectual Catholics to leave europe in the 1930s?
5733b496d058e614000b60ce
The rise of Hitler and other dictators
0
False
From where did Anton-Hermann Chroust come to reach Notre Dame?
5733b496d058e614000b60cf
Germany
162
False
What field of study did Anton-Hermann Chroust specialize in?
5733b496d058e614000b60d0
classics and law
212
False
Who did Waldemar Gurian receive his tutelage under while seeking his doctorate?
5733b496d058e614000b60d1
Max Scheler
478
False
What was Ivan Meštrović known for being?
5733b496d058e614000b60d2
a renowned sculptor
519
False
The rise of Hitler and other dictators in the 1930s forced numerous Catholic intellectuals to flee Europe; president John O'Hara brought many to Notre Dame. From Germany came Anton-Hermann Chroust (1907–1982) in classics and law, and Waldemar Gurian a German Catholic intellectual of Jewish descent. Positivism dominated American intellectual life in the 1920s onward but in marked contrast, Gurian received a German Catholic education and wrote his doctoral dissertation under Max Scheler. Ivan Meštrović (1883–1962), a renowned sculptor, brought Croatian culture to campus, 1955–62. Yves Simon (1903–61), brought to ND in the 1940s the insights of French studies in the Aristotelian-Thomistic tradition of philosophy; his own teacher Jacques Maritain (1882–73) was a frequent visitor to campus.
Who was the president of Notre Dame in 2012?
5733b5344776f419006610dd
John Jenkins
80
False
The Kellogg Institute for International Studies is part of which university?
5733b5344776f419006610de
Notre Dame
118
False
What does the Kroc Institute at Notre Dame focus on?
5733b5344776f419006610df
International Peace studies
427
False
In what year did Notre Dame begin to host the Global Adaptation Index?
5733b5344776f419006610e0
2013
753
False
What threat does the Global Adaptation Index study?
5733b5344776f419006610e1
climate change
891
False
As of 2012[update] research continued in many fields. The university president, John Jenkins, described his hope that Notre Dame would become "one of the pre–eminent research institutions in the world" in his inaugural address. The university has many multi-disciplinary institutes devoted to research in varying fields, including the Medieval Institute, the Kellogg Institute for International Studies, the Kroc Institute for International Peace studies, and the Center for Social Concerns. Recent research includes work on family conflict and child development, genome mapping, the increasing trade deficit of the United States with China, studies in fluid mechanics, computational science and engineering, and marketing trends on the Internet. As of 2013, the university is home to the Notre Dame Global Adaptation Index which ranks countries annually based on how vulnerable they are to climate change and how prepared they are to adapt.
How many undergrads were attending Notre Dame in 2014?
5733b5df4776f41900661105
8,448
71
False
What percentage of students at Notre Dame are the children of former Notre Dame students?
5733b5df4776f41900661106
21–24%
196
False
How many teams participate in the Notre Dame Bookstore Basketball tournament?
5733b5df4776f41900661107
over 700
1446
False
For what cause is money raised at the Bengal Bouts tournament at Notre Dame?
5733b5df4776f41900661108
the Holy Cross Missions in Bangladesh
1588
False
How many students in total were at Notre Dame in 2014?
5733b5df4776f41900661109
12,179
49
False
In 2014 the Notre Dame student body consisted of 12,179 students, with 8,448 undergraduates, 2,138 graduate and professional and 1,593 professional (Law, M.Div., Business, M.Ed.) students. Around 21–24% of students are children of alumni, and although 37% of students come from the Midwestern United States, the student body represents all 50 states and 100 countries. As of March 2007[update] The Princeton Review ranked the school as the fifth highest 'dream school' for parents to send their children. As of March 2015[update] The Princeton Review ranked Notre Dame as the ninth highest. The school has been previously criticized for its lack of diversity, and The Princeton Review ranks the university highly among schools at which "Alternative Lifestyles [are] Not an Alternative." It has also been commended by some diversity oriented publications; Hispanic Magazine in 2004 ranked the university ninth on its list of the top–25 colleges for Latinos, and The Journal of Blacks in Higher Education recognized the university in 2006 for raising enrollment of African-American students. With 6,000 participants, the university's intramural sports program was named in 2004 by Sports Illustrated as the best program in the country, while in 2007 The Princeton Review named it as the top school where "Everyone Plays Intramural Sports." The annual Bookstore Basketball tournament is the largest outdoor five-on-five tournament in the world with over 700 teams participating each year, while the Notre Dame Men's Boxing Club hosts the annual Bengal Bouts tournament that raises money for the Holy Cross Missions in Bangladesh.
What percentage of undergrads live on the Notre Dame campus?
5733b699d058e614000b6118
80%
6
False
How many student housing areas are reserved for Notre Dame's graduate students?
5733b699d058e614000b6119
four
136
False
How many dorms for males are on the Notre Dame campus?
5733b699d058e614000b611a
15
350
False
What amount of the graduate student body at Notre Dame live on the campus?
5733b699d058e614000b611b
20%
32
False
There are how many dorms for females at Notre Dame?
5733b699d058e614000b611c
14
368
False
About 80% of undergraduates and 20% of graduate students live on campus. The majority of the graduate students on campus live in one of four graduate housing complexes on campus, while all on-campus undergraduates live in one of the 29 residence halls. Because of the religious affiliation of the university, all residence halls are single-sex, with 15 male dorms and 14 female dorms. The university maintains a visiting policy (known as parietal hours) for those students who live in dormitories, specifying times when members of the opposite sex are allowed to visit other students' dorm rooms; however, all residence halls have 24-hour social spaces for students regardless of gender. Many residence halls have at least one nun and/or priest as a resident. There are no traditional social fraternities or sororities at the university, but a majority of students live in the same residence hall for all four years. Some intramural sports are based on residence hall teams, where the university offers the only non-military academy program of full-contact intramural American football. At the end of the intramural season, the championship game is played on the field in Notre Dame Stadium.
What is Congregation of Holy Cross in Latin?
5733b7f74776f4190066112d
Congregatio a Sancta Cruce
73
False
What percentage of Notre Dame students feel they are Christian?
5733b7f74776f4190066112e
more than 93%
197
False
How often is Catholic mass held at Notre Dame in a week?
5733b7f74776f4190066112f
over 100 times
331
False
How many chapels are on the Notre Dame campus?
5733b7f74776f41900661130
Fifty-seven
1237
False
What amount of the student body of Notre Dame identifies as Catholic?
5733b7f74776f41900661131
over 80%
251
False
The university is affiliated with the Congregation of Holy Cross (Latin: Congregatio a Sancta Cruce, abbreviated postnominals: "CSC"). While religious affiliation is not a criterion for admission, more than 93% of students identify as Christian, with over 80% of the total being Catholic. Collectively, Catholic Mass is celebrated over 100 times per week on campus, and a large campus ministry program provides for the faith needs of the community. There are multitudes of religious statues and artwork around campus, most prominent of which are the statue of Mary on the Main Building, the Notre Dame Grotto, and the Word of Life mural on Hesburgh Library depicting Christ as a teacher. Additionally, every classroom displays a crucifix. There are many religious clubs (catholic and non-Catholic) at the school, including Council #1477 of the Knights of Columbus (KOC), Baptist Collegiate Ministry (BCM), Jewish Club, Muslim Student Association, Orthodox Christian Fellowship, The Mormon Club, and many more. The Notre Dame KofC are known for being the first collegiate council of KofC, operating a charitable concession stand during every home football game and owning their own building on campus which can be used as a cigar lounge. Fifty-seven chapels are located throughout the campus.
What sits on top of the Main Building at Notre Dame?
5733be284776f4190066117e
a golden statue of the Virgin Mary
92
False
What is in front of the Notre Dame Main Building?
5733be284776f4190066117f
a copper statue of Christ
188
False
The Basilica of the Sacred heart at Notre Dame is beside to which structure?
5733be284776f41900661180
the Main Building
279
False
What is the Grotto at Notre Dame?
5733be284776f41900661181
a Marian place of prayer and reflection
381
False
To whom did the Virgin Mary allegedly appear in 1858 in Lourdes France?
5733be284776f41900661182
Saint Bernadette Soubirous
515
False
Architecturally, the school has a Catholic character. Atop the Main Building's gold dome is a golden statue of the Virgin Mary. Immediately in front of the Main Building and facing it, is a copper statue of Christ with arms upraised with the legend "Venite Ad Me Omnes". Next to the Main Building is the Basilica of the Sacred Heart. Immediately behind the basilica is the Grotto, a Marian place of prayer and reflection. It is a replica of the grotto at Lourdes, France where the Virgin Mary reputedly appeared to Saint Bernadette Soubirous in 1858. At the end of the main drive (and in a direct line that connects through 3 statues and the Gold Dome), is a simple, modern stone statue of Mary.
Where is the headquarters of the Congregation of the Holy Cross?
5733bed24776f41900661188
Rome
119
False
What is the primary seminary of the Congregation of the Holy Cross?
5733bed24776f41900661189
Moreau Seminary
145
False
What is the oldest structure at Notre Dame?
5733bed24776f4190066118a
Old College
234
False
What individuals live at Fatima House at Notre Dame?
5733bed24776f4190066118b
Retired priests and brothers
356
False
Which prize did Frederick Buechner create?
5733bed24776f4190066118c
Buechner Prize for Preaching
675
False
The university is the major seat of the Congregation of Holy Cross (albeit not its official headquarters, which are in Rome). Its main seminary, Moreau Seminary, is located on the campus across St. Joseph lake from the Main Building. Old College, the oldest building on campus and located near the shore of St. Mary lake, houses undergraduate seminarians. Retired priests and brothers reside in Fatima House (a former retreat center), Holy Cross House, as well as Columba Hall near the Grotto. The university through the Moreau Seminary has ties to theologian Frederick Buechner. While not Catholic, Buechner has praised writers from Notre Dame and Moreau Seminary created a Buechner Prize for Preaching.
How many student news papers are found at Notre Dame?
5733bf84d058e614000b61bd
three
126
False
When did the Scholastic Magazine of Notre dame begin publishing?
5733bf84d058e614000b61be
September 1876
248
False
How often is Notre Dame's the Juggler published?
5733bf84d058e614000b61bf
twice
441
False
What is the daily student paper at Notre Dame called?
5733bf84d058e614000b61c0
The Observer
598
False
In what year did the student paper Common Sense begin publication at Notre Dame?
5733bf84d058e614000b61c1
1987
908
False
As at most other universities, Notre Dame's students run a number of news media outlets. The nine student-run outlets include three newspapers, both a radio and television station, and several magazines and journals. Begun as a one-page journal in September 1876, the Scholastic magazine is issued twice monthly and claims to be the oldest continuous collegiate publication in the United States. The other magazine, The Juggler, is released twice a year and focuses on student literature and artwork. The Dome yearbook is published annually. The newspapers have varying publication interests, with The Observer published daily and mainly reporting university and other news, and staffed by students from both Notre Dame and Saint Mary's College. Unlike Scholastic and The Dome, The Observer is an independent publication and does not have a faculty advisor or any editorial oversight from the University. In 1987, when some students believed that The Observer began to show a conservative bias, a liberal newspaper, Common Sense was published. Likewise, in 2003, when other students believed that the paper showed a liberal bias, the conservative paper Irish Rover went into production. Neither paper is published as often as The Observer; however, all three are distributed to all students. Finally, in Spring 2008 an undergraduate journal for political science research, Beyond Politics, made its debut.
Which television station finds its home at Notre Dame?
5733c0064776f41900661198
NDtv
24
False
How many programs did NDtv feature in 2002?
5733c0064776f41900661199
one show
40
False
Which radio station provides radio to the students of Notre Dame at 88.9 FM?
5733c0064776f4190066119a
WSND-FM
128
False
Which internet radio station of Notre Dame is served as an internet stream?
5733c0064776f4190066119b
WVFI
440
False
The television station, NDtv, grew from one show in 2002 to a full 24-hour channel with original programming by September 2006. WSND-FM serves the student body and larger South Bend community at 88.9 FM, offering students a chance to become involved in bringing classical music, fine arts and educational programming, and alternative rock to the airwaves. Another radio station, WVFI, began as a partner of WSND-FM. More recently, however, WVFI has been airing independently and is streamed on the Internet.
How much is Eddy Street Commons at Notre Dame expected to cost?
5733c0e6d058e614000b61d7
$215 million
42
False
When was ground broke on the Eddy Street Commons Project of Notre Dame?
5733c0e6d058e614000b61d8
June 3, 2008
169
False
Who is the developer of Eddy Street Commons?
5733c0e6d058e614000b61d9
Kite Realty
401
False
Which entity did Notre Dame hire to build a parking structure outside of Eddy Street Commons?
5733c0e6d058e614000b61da
the City of South Bend
249
False
There were protested as a part of the construction at Eddy Street Commons, they came due tot he hiring of whom?
5733c0e6d058e614000b61db
non-union workers
367
False
The first phase of Eddy Street Commons, a $215 million development located adjacent to the University of Notre Dame campus and funded by the university, broke ground on June 3, 2008. The Eddy Street Commons drew union protests when workers hired by the City of South Bend to construct the public parking garage picketed the private work site after a contractor hired non-union workers. The developer, Kite Realty out of Indianapolis, has made agreements with major national chains rather than local businesses, a move that has led to criticism from alumni and students.
What does the acronym NCAA stand for?
5733c1a94776f419006611a6
National Collegiate Athletic Association
82
False
Which league did Notre Dame Fighting Irish teams participate in in 1982?
5733c1a94776f419006611a7
Horizon League
293
False
What when conference do the Notre Dame fencing teams take part in?
5733c1a94776f419006611a8
Midwest Fencing Conference
889
False
There is a conference that the male hockey team of Notre Dame competes in, what is it?
5733c1a94776f419006611a9
Hockey East
959
False
In what conference did the Fighting Irish take part in in 2012?
5733c1a94776f419006611aa
Big East Conference
384
False
Notre Dame teams are known as the Fighting Irish. They compete as a member of the National Collegiate Athletic Association (NCAA) Division I, primarily competing in the Atlantic Coast Conference (ACC) for all sports since the 2013–14 school year. The Fighting Irish previously competed in the Horizon League from 1982-83 to 1985-86, and again from 1987-88 to 1994-95, and then in the Big East Conference through 2012–13. Men's sports include baseball, basketball, crew, cross country, fencing, football, golf, ice hockey, lacrosse, soccer, swimming & diving, tennis and track & field; while women's sports include basketball, cross country, fencing, golf, lacrosse, rowing, soccer, softball, swimming & diving, tennis, track & field and volleyball. The football team competes as an Football Bowl Subdivision (FBS) Independent since its inception in 1887. Both fencing teams compete in the Midwest Fencing Conference, and the men's ice hockey team competes in Hockey East.
To what conference did the Fighting Irish go after the Big East?
5733c29c4776f419006611b8
the ACC
239
False
How many teams in each season do the Fighting Irish commit to play against ACC opponents?
5733c29c4776f419006611b9
five
382
False
Where did the Fighting Irish hockey team compete prior to a move to Hockey East, in terms of conference?
5733c29c4776f419006611ba
Central Collegiate Hockey Association
674
False
What colors are the official ones used by Notre Dame in sport competition?
5733c29c4776f419006611bb
Navy Blue and Gold Rush
1223
False
What type of mascot do the Notre Dame sport teams have?
5733c29c4776f419006611bc
Leprechaun
1398
False
Notre Dame's conference affiliations for all of its sports except football and fencing changed in July 2013 as a result of major conference realignment, and its fencing affiliation will change in July 2014. The Irish left the Big East for the ACC during a prolonged period of instability in the Big East; while they maintain their football independence, they have committed to play five games per season against ACC opponents. In ice hockey, the Irish were forced to find a new conference home after the Big Ten Conference's decision to add the sport in 2013–14 led to a cascade of conference moves that culminated in the dissolution of the school's former hockey home, the Central Collegiate Hockey Association, after the 2012–13 season. Notre Dame moved its hockey team to Hockey East. After Notre Dame joined the ACC, the conference announced it would add fencing as a sponsored sport beginning in the 2014–15 school year. There are many theories behind the adoption of the athletics moniker but it is known that the Fighting Irish name was used in the early 1920s with respect to the football team and was popularized by alumnus Francis Wallace in his New York Daily News columns. The official colors of Notre Dame are Navy Blue and Gold Rush which are worn in competition by its athletic teams. In addition, the color green is often worn because of the Fighting Irish nickname. The Notre Dame Leprechaun is the mascot of the athletic teams. Created by Theodore W. Drake in 1964, the leprechaun was first used on the football pocket schedule and later on the football program covers. The leprechaun was featured on the cover of Time in November 1964 and gained national exposure.
Who currently provides uniforms to Notre Dame sport teams?
5733c3184776f419006611c2
Under Armour
50
False
What is the value of the contract between Under Armour and Notre Dame?
5733c3184776f419006611c3
almost $100 million
223
False
When did the Notre Dame marching band form?
5733c3184776f419006611c4
1846
392
False
What is notable about the Notre Dame marching band?
5733c3184776f419006611c5
oldest university band in continuous existence in the United States
420
False
What is the Notre Dame fight song?
5733c3184776f419006611c6
Notre Dame Victory March
657
False
On July 1, 2014, the University of Notre Dame and Under Armour reached an agreement in which Under Armour will provide uniforms, apparel,equipment, and monetary compensation to Notre Dame for 10 years. This contract, worth almost $100 million, is the most lucrative in the history of the NCAA. The university marching band plays at home games for most of the sports. The band, which began in 1846 and has a claim as the oldest university band in continuous existence in the United States, was honored by the National Music Council as a "Landmark of American Music" during the United States Bicentennial. The band regularly plays the school's fight song the Notre Dame Victory March, which was named as the most played and most famous fight song by Northern Illinois Professor William Studwell. According to College Fight Songs: An Annotated Anthology published in 1998, the "Notre Dame Victory March" ranks as the greatest fight song of all time.
Which team did Notre Dame's football team find inspiration from?
5733c4494776f419006611da
Michigan Wolverines football team
74
False
In what year did Notre Dame football begin?
5733c4494776f419006611db
1887
142
False
What university is Notre Dame tied with in terms of most Heisman Trophy winners?
5733c4494776f419006611dc
Ohio State University
509
False
Against which team does Notre Dame compete for the Jeweled Shillelagh?
5733c4494776f419006611dd
USC
715
False
In terms of Notre Dame students in the College Football Hall of Fame the amount of students named is what ?
5733c4494776f419006611de
the most
441
False
The Notre Dame football team has a long history, first beginning when the Michigan Wolverines football team brought football to Notre Dame in 1887 and played against a group of students. In the long history since then, 13 Fighting Irish teams have won consensus national championships (although the university only claims 11), along with another nine teams being named national champion by at least one source. Additionally, the program has the most members in the College Football Hall of Fame, is tied with Ohio State University with the most Heisman Trophies won, and have the highest winning percentage in NCAA history. With the long history, Notre Dame has accumulated many rivals, and its annual game against USC for the Jeweled Shillelagh has been named by some as one of the most important in college football and is often called the greatest intersectional rivalry in college football in the country.
What notable football player played at Notre Dame from 1916 to 1920?
5733c743d058e614000b622d
George Gipp
0
False
Against which opponent did Knute Rockne tell his team to "win one for the Gipper?"
5733c743d058e614000b622e
the Army team
362
False
Which person portrayed Knute Rockne in the 1940 movie "Knute Rockne?"
5733c743d058e614000b622f
Pat O'Brien
457
False
Ronald Reagan played the role of whom in 1940's "Knute Rockne?"
5733c743d058e614000b6230
Gipp
506
False
How many seats are in Notre Dame Stadium?
5733c743d058e614000b6231
80,795
562
False
George Gipp was the school's legendary football player during 1916–20. He played semiprofessional baseball and smoked, drank, and gambled when not playing sports. He was also humble, generous to the needy, and a man of integrity. It was in 1928 that famed coach Knute Rockne used his final conversation with the dying Gipp to inspire the Notre Dame team to beat the Army team and "win one for the Gipper." The 1940 film, Knute Rockne, All American, starred Pat O'Brien as Knute Rockne and Ronald Reagan as Gipp. Today the team competes in Notre Dame Stadium, an 80,795-seat stadium on campus. The current head coach is Brian Kelly, hired from the University of Cincinnati on December 11, 2009. Kelly's record in midway through his sixth season at Notre Dame is 52–21. In 2012, Kelly's Fighting Irish squad went undefeated and played in the BCS National Championship Game. Kelly succeeded Charlie Weis, who was fired in November 2009 after five seasons. Although Weis led his team to two Bowl Championship Series bowl games, his overall record was 35–27, mediocre by Notre Dame standards, and the 2007 team had the most losses in school history. The football team generates enough revenue to operate independently while $22.1 million is retained from the team's profits for academic use. Forbes named the team as the most valuable in college football, worth a total of $101 million in 2007.
What is displayed at Zahm House for football home games at Notre Dame?
5733ca05d058e614000b6263
two-story banner
166
False
What occurs at midnight preceding a football home game at Notre Dame?
5733ca05d058e614000b6264
the Drummers' Circle
245
False
From where does the Band of the Fighting Irish lead a march to the Notre Dame Stadium for football home games?
5733ca05d058e614000b6265
the steps of Bond Hall
594
False
What songs does the trumpet section of the Band of the Fighting Irish play preceding home football games?
5733ca05d058e614000b6266
the Notre Dame Victory March and the Notre Dame Alma Mater
480
False
On what day do Notre Dame home football games occur?
5733ca05d058e614000b6267
Saturday
424
False
Football gameday traditions During home games, activities occur all around campus and different dorms decorate their halls with a traditional item (e.g. Zahm House's two-story banner). Traditional activities begin at the stroke of midnight with the Drummers' Circle. This tradition involves the drum line of the Band of the Fighting Irish and ushers in the rest of the festivities that will continue the rest of the gameday Saturday. Later that day, the trumpet section will play the Notre Dame Victory March and the Notre Dame Alma Mater under the dome. The band entire will play a concert at the steps of Bond Hall, from where they will march into Notre Dame Stadium, leading fans and students alike across campus to the game.
How many wins does the Notre Dame men's basketball team have?
5733caf74776f4190066124c
over 1,600
30
False
How many schools have a similar men's basketball record to Notre Dame in terms of wins?
5733caf74776f4190066124d
12
59
False
How many NCAA tournaments did the Notre Dame men's basketball team take part in?
5733caf74776f4190066124e
28
119
False
Which Notre Dame men's basketball player has the record for more points in one game?
5733caf74776f4190066124f
Austin Carr
154
False
Who was the Notre Dame men's basketball coach in 2014?
5733caf74776f41900661250
Mike Brey
850
False
The men's basketball team has over 1,600 wins, one of only 12 schools who have reached that mark, and have appeared in 28 NCAA tournaments. Former player Austin Carr holds the record for most points scored in a single game of the tournament with 61. Although the team has never won the NCAA Tournament, they were named by the Helms Athletic Foundation as national champions twice. The team has orchestrated a number of upsets of number one ranked teams, the most notable of which was ending UCLA's record 88-game winning streak in 1974. The team has beaten an additional eight number-one teams, and those nine wins rank second, to UCLA's 10, all-time in wins against the top team. The team plays in newly renovated Purcell Pavilion (within the Edmund P. Joyce Center), which reopened for the beginning of the 2009–2010 season. The team is coached by Mike Brey, who, as of the 2014–15 season, his fifteenth at Notre Dame, has achieved a 332-165 record. In 2009 they were invited to the NIT, where they advanced to the semifinals but were beaten by Penn State who went on and beat Baylor in the championship. The 2010–11 team concluded its regular season ranked number seven in the country, with a record of 25–5, Brey's fifth straight 20-win season, and a second-place finish in the Big East. During the 2014-15 season, the team went 32-6 and won the ACC conference tournament, later advancing to the Elite 8, where the Fighting Irish lost on a missed buzzer-beater against then undefeated Kentucky. Led by NBA draft picks Jerian Grant and Pat Connaughton, the Fighting Irish beat the eventual national champion Duke Blue Devils twice during the season. The 32 wins were the most by the Fighting Irish team since 1908-09.
Who wrote the original lyrics to the Notre Dame Victory March?
5733cbdad058e614000b628d
John F. Shea
222
False
In what year did Michael J. Shea graduate from Notre Dame?
5733cbdad058e614000b628e
1904
173
False
Who is responsible for writing the music for "Notre Dame Victory March?"
5733cbdad058e614000b628f
Rev. Michael J. Shea
149
False
In what year did "Notre Dame Victory March" get copyrighted?
5733cbdad058e614000b6290
1928
411
False
To where are the loyal sons in "Notre Dame Fight Song" marching?
5733cbdad058e614000b6291
onward to victory
677
False
The "Notre Dame Victory March" is the fight song for the University of Notre Dame. It was written by two brothers who were Notre Dame graduates. The Rev. Michael J. Shea, a 1904 graduate, wrote the music, and his brother, John F. Shea, who earned degrees in 1906 and 1908, wrote the original lyrics. The lyrics were revised in the 1920s; it first appeared under the copyright of the University of Notre Dame in 1928. The chorus is, "Cheer cheer for old Notre Dame, wake up the echos cheering her name. Send a volley cheer on high, shake down the thunder from the sky! What though the odds be great or small, old Notre Dame will win over all. While her loyal sons are marching, onward to victory!"
Ronald Reagan had a nickname, what was it?
5733ccbe4776f41900661270
The Gipper
267
False
In what film did a parody of the "Win one for the Gipper" speech appear?
5733ccbe4776f41900661271
Airplane!
344
False
Who starred as Daniel Ruettiger in the film Rudy?
5733ccbe4776f41900661272
Sean Astin
513
False
Which person was a former comrade to Ted Striker in the film Airplane!?
5733ccbe4776f41900661273
George Zipp
410
False
Pat O'Brien portrayed which person in the film Knute Rockne?
5733ccbe4776f41900661274
Knute Rockne
40
False
In the film Knute Rockne, All American, Knute Rockne (played by Pat O'Brien) delivers the famous "Win one for the Gipper" speech, at which point the background music swells with the "Notre Dame Victory March". George Gipp was played by Ronald Reagan, whose nickname "The Gipper" was derived from this role. This scene was parodied in the movie Airplane! with the same background music, only this time honoring George Zipp, one of Ted Striker's former comrades. The song also was prominent in the movie Rudy, with Sean Astin as Daniel "Rudy" Ruettiger, who harbored dreams of playing football at the University of Notre Dame despite significant obstacles.
Which Secretary of State attended Notre Dame?
5733cd504776f4190066128e
Condoleezza Rice
185
False
Which Notre Dame alum from the College of Science won a Nobel Prize?
5733cd504776f4190066128f
Eric F. Wieschaus
278
False
Who is the current president of Notre Dame?
5733cd504776f41900661290
Rev. John Jenkins
384
False
Mariel Zagunis is notable for winning what?
5733cd504776f41900661291
Olympic gold
937
False
Which notable astronaut is known to have attended Notre Dame?
5733cd504776f41900661292
Jim Wetherbee
1232
False
Notre Dame alumni work in various fields. Alumni working in political fields include state governors, members of the United States Congress, and former United States Secretary of State Condoleezza Rice. A notable alumnus of the College of Science is Medicine Nobel Prize winner Eric F. Wieschaus. A number of university heads are alumni, including Notre Dame's current president, the Rev. John Jenkins. Additionally, many alumni are in the media, including talk show hosts Regis Philbin and Phil Donahue, and television and radio personalities such as Mike Golic and Hannah Storm. With the university having high profile sports teams itself, a number of alumni went on to become involved in athletics outside the university, including professional baseball, basketball, football, and ice hockey players, such as Joe Theismann, Joe Montana, Tim Brown, Ross Browner, Rocket Ismail, Ruth Riley, Jeff Samardzija, Jerome Bettis, Brett Lebda, Olympic gold medalist Mariel Zagunis, professional boxer Mike Lee, former football coaches such as Charlie Weis, Frank Leahy and Knute Rockne, and Basketball Hall of Famers Austin Carr and Adrian Dantley. Other notable alumni include prominent businessman Edward J. DeBartolo, Jr. and astronaut Jim Wetherbee.
Anthropology
What is anthropology a study of?
5733a866d058e614000b5f91
humans and their societies
29
False
What type of anthropology describes the workings of societies around the world?
5733a866d058e614000b5f92
social
107
False
What investigates the influence of language in social life?
5733a866d058e614000b5f93
linguistic anthropology
214
False
What subdivision of anthropology concerns itself with the long-term development of the human organism?
5733a866d058e614000b5f94
physical
318
False
Where is Archaeology considered a branch of anthropology?
5733a866d058e614000b5f95
United States
541
False
Anthropology
0
What is the study of human history?
5ad28440d7d075001a42986c
True
social anthropology and cultural anthropology
107
What are the main subdivisions of history?
5ad28440d7d075001a42986d
True
social anthropology
107
What studies the influence of societies on social life?
5ad28440d7d075001a42986e
True
biological or physical anthropology
304
what studies the influince of other organisms on humans?
5ad28440d7d075001a42986f
True
Archaeology
401
What does the United States view as a discipline in its own right?
5ad28440d7d075001a429870
True
Anthropology is the study of humans and their societies in the past and present. Its main subdivisions are social anthropology and cultural anthropology, which describes the workings of societies around the world, linguistic anthropology, which investigates the influence of language in social life, and biological or physical anthropology, which concerns long-term development of the human organism. Archaeology, which studies past human cultures through investigation of physical evidence, is thought of as a branch of anthropology in the United States, while in Europe, it is viewed as a discipline in its own right, or grouped under other related disciplines such as history.
Who used the term anthropology to describe the natural history of man?
5733a9144776f41900660f8c
Étienne Serres
98
False
When was anthropology used as a term for comparative anatomy?
5733a9144776f41900660f8d
1838
116
False
When was a chair created for anthropology at the National Museum of Natural History?
5733a9144776f41900660f8e
1850
272
False
Where is the National Museum of Natural History located?
5733a9144776f41900660f8f
France
320
False
What organization was formed by members whose primary objective was the abolishment of slavery?
5733a9144776f41900660f90
Société Ethnologique de Paris
456
False
the natural history, or paleontology, of man
133
What did Etienne Serres describe in the 18th century?
5ad28599d7d075001a4298b6
True
National Museum of Natural History
284
Where was a chair in anthropology and ethnography created in 1838?
5ad28599d7d075001a4298b7
True
Jean Louis Armand de Quatrefages de Bréau
331
Who created a chair in anthropology and ethnography in the 18th century?
5ad28599d7d075001a4298b8
True
The Société Ethnologique de Paris
452
What group first used the term Ethnology in the 18th century?
5ad28599d7d075001a4298b9
True
The Société Ethnologique de Paris
452
What society abolised slavery in France?
5ad28599d7d075001a4298ba
True
Sporadic use of the term for some of the subject matter occurred subsequently, such as the use by Étienne Serres in 1838 to describe the natural history, or paleontology, of man, based on comparative anatomy, and the creation of a chair in anthropology and ethnography in 1850 at the National Museum of Natural History (France) by Jean Louis Armand de Quatrefages de Bréau. Various short-lived organizations of anthropologists had already been formed. The Société Ethnologique de Paris, the first to use Ethnology, was formed in 1839. Its members were primarily anti-slavery activists. When slavery was abolished in France in 1848 the Société was abandoned.
What is anthropology the intellectual results of?
5733a9b5d058e614000b5fa8
comparative methods
79
False
What were theorists in diverse fields beginning to notice between animals and languages?
5733a9b5d058e614000b5fa9
similarities
306
False
What did the theorists suspect these patterns were the result of?
5733a9b5d058e614000b5faa
processes or laws unknown to them then
379
False
What was Darwin's On The Origin of Species for theorists?
5733a9b5d058e614000b5fab
epiphany
498
False
How did Darwin arrive at his conclusions?
5733a9b5d058e614000b5fac
comparison of species
598
False
Anthropology and many other current fields
0
What is the result of methods developed in the 1900's
5ad28857d7d075001a429936
True
comparative methods
79
What methods were developed in the 1900's?
5ad28857d7d075001a429937
True
Theorists in such diverse fields as anatomy, linguistics, and Ethnology
138
Who was begining to suspect diffrences between animals, languages and folkways?
5ad28857d7d075001a429938
True
Darwin
548
Who contradicted the supisions of other theorists?
5ad28857d7d075001a429939
True
Anthropology and many other current fields are the intellectual results of the comparative methods developed in the earlier 19th century. Theorists in such diverse fields as anatomy, linguistics, and Ethnology, making feature-by-feature comparisons of their subject matters, were beginning to suspect that similarities between animals, languages, and folkways were the result of processes or laws unknown to them then. For them, the publication of Charles Darwin's On the Origin of Species was the epiphany of everything they had begun to suspect. Darwin himself arrived at his conclusions through comparison of species he had seen in agronomy and in the wild.
When did Wallace and Darwin unveil the theory of evolution?
5733aa144776f41900660fa3
late 1850s.
45
False
What was there a rush to do with the theory of evolution?
5733aa144776f41900660fa4
bring it into the social sciences
88
False
Where did Paul Broca reside?
5733aa144776f41900660fa5
Paris
137
False
What organization was Broca in the process of disentangling himself from?
5733aa144776f41900660fa6
Société de biologie
188
False
What did the French call evolutionism?
5733aa144776f41900660fa7
Transformisme
413
False
Darwin and Wallace
0
Who unveiled evolution in the 18th century?
5ad28c4ed7d075001a4299fc
True
Paul Broca
123
Who broke away from the Societe d'Anthropologie de Paris?
5ad28c4ed7d075001a4299fd
True
Paul Broca
123
Who formed the Societe de biologie?
5ad28c4ed7d075001a4299fe
True
"the study of the human group, considered as a whole, in its details, and in relation to the rest of nature"
489
What did Broca redefine Transformisme to?
5ad28c4ed7d075001a4299ff
True
Darwin and Wallace unveiled evolution in the late 1850s. There was an immediate rush to bring it into the social sciences. Paul Broca in Paris was in the process of breaking away from the Société de biologie to form the first of the explicitly anthropological societies, the Société d'Anthropologie de Paris, meeting for the first time in Paris in 1859.[n 4] When he read Darwin he became an immediate convert to Transformisme, as the French called evolutionism. His definition now became "the study of the human group, considered as a whole, in its details, and in relation to the rest of nature".
If Broca were alive today, what would his profession be?
5733aa83d058e614000b5fc4
neurosurgeon
42
False
What particularly interested Broca?
5733aa83d058e614000b5fc5
the pathology of speech
81
False
What did Broca discover in the human brain?
5733aa83d058e614000b5fc6
speech center
232
False
What did the German philosopher Waitz specialize in?
5733aa83d058e614000b5fc7
psychology
396
False
How many volumes was Waitz work?
5733aa83d058e614000b5fc8
six
483
False
the pathology of speech
81
What did Broca leave neurosurgery to study?
5ad28e42d7d075001a429a48
True
in speech
203
Where did Broca think the similarity between man and other animals resided?
5ad28e42d7d075001a429a49
True
Theodor Waitz
408
Who wrote a six-volume work on Biological anthropology?
5ad28e42d7d075001a429a4a
True
Die Anthropologie der Naturvölker
509
What did Waitz write in the 18th century?
5ad28e42d7d075001a429a4b
True
Broca, being what today would be called a neurosurgeon, had taken an interest in the pathology of speech. He wanted to localize the difference between man and the other animals, which appeared to reside in speech. He discovered the speech center of the human brain, today called Broca's area after him. His interest was mainly in Biological anthropology, but a German philosopher specializing in psychology, Theodor Waitz, took up the theme of general and social anthropology in his six-volume work, entitled Die Anthropologie der Naturvölker, 1859–1864. The title was soon translated as "The Anthropology of Primitive Peoples". The last two volumes were published posthumously.
How did Waitz define anthropology?
5733ab114776f41900660fb5
the science of the nature of man
31
False
What philosophical perspective did Waitz hold?
5733ab114776f41900660fb6
an animist
138
False
What would anthropology use to differentiate man from the animals nearest him?
5733ab114776f41900660fb7
comparative anatomy, physiology, and psychology
313
False
What did Waitz stress that the data of comparison must be?
5733ab114776f41900660fb8
empirical
465
False
What history was to be brought into the comparison?
5733ab114776f41900660fb9
civilization
520
False
"the science of the nature of man"
30
How did Broca define anthropology?
5ad299dad7d075001a429b82
True
matter animated by "the Divine breath"
85
How did Broca define nature?
5ad299dad7d075001a429b83
True
Broca
160
who followed Waitz lead and pointed out anthropology was a new field?
5ad299dad7d075001a429b84
True
ethnology
544
What was to be compared to civilizations?
5ad299dad7d075001a429b85
True
Waitz defined anthropology as "the science of the nature of man". By nature he meant matter animated by "the Divine breath"; i.e., he was an animist. Following Broca's lead, Waitz points out that anthropology is a new field, which would gather material from other fields, but would differ from them in the use of comparative anatomy, physiology, and psychology to differentiate man from "the animals nearest to him". He stresses that the data of comparison must be empirical, gathered by experimentation. The history of civilization as well as ethnology are to be brought into the comparison. It is to be presumed fundamentally that the species, man, is a unity, and that "the same laws of thought are applicable to all men".
Who was Waitz influential among?
5733abaed058e614000b5fda
British ethnologists
32
False
In what year did Richard Francis Burton break away from the Ethnological Society of London?
5733abaed058e614000b5fdb
1863
57
False
What path of exploration did the Anthropological Society of London follow?
5733abaed058e614000b5fdc
anthropology
284
False
Representatives from where were present in the Anthropological Society of London?
5733abaed058e614000b5fdd
French Société
421
False
Whose work did Hunt stress in the first volume of The Anthropological Review?
5733abaed058e614000b5fde
Waitz
598
False
Waitz
0
Who was influentual among European ethnologists?
5ad29b2ed7d075001a429bb8
True
Ethnological Society of London
154
Who did Richard Francis Burton break away from in the 18th century?
5ad29b2ed7d075001a429bb9
True
Anthropological Society of London
197
What society did James Hunt form in the 18th century?
5ad29b2ed7d075001a429bba
True
The Anthropological Review
544
What was the name of Waitz new publication?
5ad29b2ed7d075001a429bbb
True
cultural anthropology
726
What field did Alfred Tylor invent?
5ad29b2ed7d075001a429bbc
True
Waitz was influential among the British ethnologists. In 1863 the explorer Richard Francis Burton and the speech therapist James Hunt broke away from the Ethnological Society of London to form the Anthropological Society of London, which henceforward would follow the path of the new anthropology rather than just ethnology. It was the 2nd society dedicated to general anthropology in existence. Representatives from the French Société were present, though not Broca. In his keynote address, printed in the first volume of its new publication, The Anthropological Review, Hunt stressed the work of Waitz, adopting his definitions as a standard.[n 5] Among the first associates were the young Edward Burnett Tylor, inventor of cultural anthropology, and his brother Alfred Tylor, a geologist. Previously Edward had referred to himself as an ethnologist; subsequently, an anthropologist.
When was the American Anthropological Association founded?
5733ac79d058e614000b6001
1902
95
False
When did Madrid get it's own anthropological society?
5733ac79d058e614000b6002
1865
140
False
Vienna created it's society in what year?
5733ac79d058e614000b6003
1870
186
False
When was the Berlin Society of Anthropology founded by Rudolph Virchow?
5733ac79d058e614000b6004
1869
384
False
What did Virchow feel Darwin's conclusions lacked?
5733ac79d058e614000b6005
empirical foundation
543
False
The American Anthropological Association
51
What organization was founded in America in the 19th century?
5ad29eded7d075001a429c52
True
the Italian Society of Anthropology and Ethnology
193
What Italian Society was founded by Rudolph Virchow?
5ad29eded7d075001a429c53
True
the Anthropological Society of Vienna
147
What society was founded in Vienna in 1865?
5ad29eded7d075001a429c54
True
Rudolph Virchow
401
Who was known for is attacks on evolutionist on religious grounds?
5ad29eded7d075001a429c55
True
Similar organizations in other countries followed: The American Anthropological Association in 1902, the Anthropological Society of Madrid (1865), the Anthropological Society of Vienna (1870), the Italian Society of Anthropology and Ethnology (1871), and many others subsequently. The majority of these were evolutionist. One notable exception was the Berlin Society of Anthropology (1869) founded by Rudolph Virchow, known for his vituperative attacks on the evolutionists. Not religious himself, he insisted that Darwin's conclusions lacked empirical foundation.
What proliferated in the last three decades of the 19th century?
5733ad34d058e614000b6013
anthropological societies
69
False
What did all the anthropological societies allow their membership to be?
5733ad34d058e614000b6014
international
184
False
Who belonged to these proliferating organizations?
5733ad34d058e614000b6015
The major theorists
229
False
How many educational institutions had some curriculum in anthropology by 1898?
5733ad34d058e614000b6016
48
479
False
How many countries were the institutions teaching anthropology located in?
5733ad34d058e614000b6017
13
510
False
anthropological societies and associations
69
What was there a proliferation of in the 1900's?
5ad2a0edd7d075001a429cae
True
The major theorists
229
Who created anthropology curricula in major institutions of higher learning?
5ad2a0edd7d075001a429caf
True
curriculum in anthropology
532
What was found in 48 educational institutions in the 18th century?
5ad2a0edd7d075001a429cb0
True
During the last three decades of the 19th century a proliferation of anthropological societies and associations occurred, most independent, most publishing their own journals, and all international in membership and association. The major theorists belonged to these organizations. They supported the gradual osmosis of anthropology curricula into the major institutions of higher learning. By 1898 the American Association for the Advancement of Science was able to report that 48 educational institutions in 13 countries had some curriculum in anthropology. None of the 75 faculty members were under a department named anthropology.
What did the 20th century see the expansion of anthropology departments into?
5733addf4776f41900661009
majority of the world's higher educational institutions
95
False
What was anthropology diversified into dozens of?
5733addf4776f4190066100a
subdivisions
224
False
What type of anthropology is used to solve specific problems?
5733addf4776f4190066100b
Practical
253
False
What does a forensic archaeologist become stimulated to do in the presence of buried victims?
5733addf4776f4190066100c
recreate the final scene
468
False
From how many nations does the WCAA boast members from?
5733addf4776f4190066100d
about three dozen
779
False
anthropology departments
63
Where were anthropology departments found by the 2000's?
5ad2a297d7d075001a429d12
True
major subdivisions
218
What has been combined into one anthropology field?
5ad2a297d7d075001a429d13
True
Practical anthropology
253
What type of anthropology is used to solve hypothetical problems?
5ad2a297d7d075001a429d14
True
the final scene
477
What do practical antropologists recreate?
5ad2a297d7d075001a429d15
True
This meagre statistic expanded in the 20th century to comprise anthropology departments in the majority of the world's higher educational institutions, many thousands in number. Anthropology has diversified from a few major subdivisions to dozens more. Practical anthropology, the use of anthropological knowledge and technique to solve specific problems, has arrived; for example, the presence of buried victims might stimulate the use of a forensic archaeologist to recreate the final scene. Organization has reached global level. For example, the World Council of Anthropological Associations (WCAA), "a network of national, regional and international associations that aims to promote worldwide communication and cooperation in anthropology", currently contains members from about three dozen nations.
When did Bronislaw Malinoswki and Franz Boas do their relevant work?
5733ae95d058e614000b6033
late 19th and early 20th centuries
61
False
What has cultural anthropology distinguished itself from other social sciences by emphasizing?
5733ae95d058e614000b6034
cross-cultural comparisons
240
False
What has cultural anthropology specifically emphasized?
5733ae95d058e614000b6035
cultural relativism, holism, and the use of findings to frame cultural critiques
469
False
What did Boas' argue against?
5733ae95d058e614000b6036
19th-century racial ideology
639
False
What did Margaret Mead advocate for?
5733ae95d058e614000b6037
gender equality and sexual liberation
706
False
Franz Boas and Bronisław Malinowski
18
Who distinguished cultural and social antropology from other sciences in the 1900's and early 2000?
5ad2ac7fd7d075001a429ea0
True
its emphasis on cross-cultural comparisons, long-term in-depth examination of context, and the importance it places on participant-observation
224
How was cultural and Social anthropology distinguish from other sciences around the world?
5ad2ac7fd7d075001a429ea1
True
cultural relativism
469
What kind of relativisim has been emphasized by social anthropology?
5ad2ac7fd7d075001a429ea2
True
Cultural anthropology
418
.What did Boas use to advocate for gender equality?
5ad2ac7fd7d075001a429ea3
True
Cultural anthropology
418
What did Margaret Meade use to argue against 19th century racial ideology?
5ad2ac7fd7d075001a429ea4
True
Since the work of Franz Boas and Bronisław Malinowski in the late 19th and early 20th centuries, social anthropology in Great Britain and cultural anthropology in the US have been distinguished from other social sciences by its emphasis on cross-cultural comparisons, long-term in-depth examination of context, and the importance it places on participant-observation or experiential immersion in the area of research. Cultural anthropology in particular has emphasized cultural relativism, holism, and the use of findings to frame cultural critiques. This has been particularly prominent in the United States, from Boas' arguments against 19th-century racial ideology, through Margaret Mead's advocacy for gender equality and sexual liberation, to current criticisms of post-colonial oppression and promotion of multiculturalism. Ethnography is one of its primary research designs as well as the text that is generated from anthropological fieldwork.
What type of discipline is anthropology?
5733af354776f4190066101d
global
18
False
What fields are forced to confront one another in anthropology?
5733af354776f4190066101e
humanities, social, and natural sciences
42
False
What builds upon natural and social sciences?
5733af354776f4190066101f
Anthropology
119
False
Where did early anthropology originate?
5733af354776f41900661020
Greece and Persia
606
False
What interdisciplinary fields has anthropology been central in the development of?
5733af354776f41900661021
cognitive science, global studies, and various ethnic studies
817
False
humanities, social, and natural sciences
42
What disciplines is Anthropolgy forced to confront?
5ad2afe5d7d075001a429f22
True
natural sciences
159
What builds upon knowledge from Anthropology?
5ad2afe5d7d075001a429f23
True
Early anthropology
563
What began in modern day Greece?
5ad2afe5d7d075001a429f24
True
cognitive science, global studies, and various ethnic studies
817
What interdisciplinary fields has anthropology developed from?
5ad2afe5d7d075001a429f25
True
Anthropology is a global discipline where humanities, social, and natural sciences are forced to confront one another. Anthropology builds upon knowledge from natural sciences, including the discoveries about the origin and evolution of Homo sapiens, human physical traits, human behavior, the variations among different groups of humans, how the evolutionary past of Homo sapiens has influenced its social organization and culture, and from social sciences, including the organization of human social and cultural relations, institutions, social conflicts, etc. Early anthropology originated in Classical Greece and Persia and studied and tried to understand observable cultural diversity. As such, anthropology has been central in the development of several new (late 20th century) interdisciplinary fields such as cognitive science, global studies, and various ethnic studies.
What has sociocultural anthropology been heavily influenced by?
5733afdc4776f41900661027
structuralist and postmodern theories
58
False
When was there an epistemological shift away from positivist traditions in anthropology?
5733afdc4776f41900661028
During the 1970s and 1990s
157
False
What questions came to occupy a central place in cultural and social anthropology?
5733afdc4776f41900661029
nature and production of knowledge
359
False
What two fields remained largely positivist?
5733afdc4776f4190066102a
archaeology and biological anthropology
475
False
What have the four sub-fields of anthropology lacked over the last several decades?
5733afdc4776f4190066102b
cohesion
632
False
Sociocultural anthropology
0
what has heavily influenced structuralists and postmodern theories?
5ad2b940d7d075001a42a054
True
1970s and 1990s
168
When was there a shift towards the positivist traditions?
5ad2b940d7d075001a42a055
True
positivist
532
What did archeology and biological anthropology largly shift away from?
5ad2b940d7d075001a42a056
True
the four sub-fields of anthropology
584
What has been cohesive over the last several decades?
5ad2b940d7d075001a42a057
True
Sociocultural anthropology has been heavily influenced by structuralist and postmodern theories, as well as a shift toward the analysis of modern societies. During the 1970s and 1990s, there was an epistemological shift away from the positivist traditions that had largely informed the discipline.[page needed] During this shift, enduring questions about the nature and production of knowledge came to occupy a central place in cultural and social anthropology. In contrast, archaeology and biological anthropology remained largely positivist. Due to this difference in epistemology, the four sub-fields of anthropology have lacked cohesion over the last several decades.
What draws together the axes of cultural and social anthropology?
5733b084d058e614000b6061
Sociocultural anthropology
0
False
What studies the way people make sense of the world around them?
5733b084d058e614000b6062
Cultural anthropology
111
False
Which type of anthropology studies relationships among persons and groups?
5733b084d058e614000b6063
social
238
False
What does social anthropology help develop an understanding of?
5733b084d058e614000b6064
social structures,
662
False
What kind of distinction is lacking between social and cultural anthropology?
5733b084d058e614000b6065
hard-and-fast
786
False
cultural anthropology and social anthropology
64
What draws together the aces of Sociocultural anthropology?
5ad2bcd8d7d075001a42a0a6
True
Cultural anthropology
318
What studies how people use the world around them?
5ad2bcd8d7d075001a42a0a7
True
social
558
What type of anthropology studies relationships among persons and their history?
5ad2bcd8d7d075001a42a0a8
True
Cultural anthropology
318
What type off anthropology has a hard-and-fast distinction from social anthropology?
5ad2bcd8d7d075001a42a0a9
True
Sociocultural anthropology draws together the principle axes of cultural anthropology and social anthropology. Cultural anthropology is the comparative study of the manifold ways in which people make sense of the world around them, while social anthropology is the study of the relationships among persons and groups. Cultural anthropology is more related to philosophy, literature and the arts (how one's culture affects experience for self and group, contributing to more complete understanding of the people's knowledge, customs, and institutions), while social anthropology is more related to sociology and history. in that it helps develop understanding of social structures, typically of others and other populations (such as minorities, subgroups, dissidents, etc.). There is no hard-and-fast distinction between them, and these categories overlap to a considerable degree.
What is the attempt to understand other societies on their own terms?
5733b177d058e614000b6079
cultural relativism
59
False
What does accepting other cultures in their own terms moderate?
5733b177d058e614000b607a
reductionism in cross-cultural comparison
227
False
What can refer to both a methodology and the product of ethnographic research?
5733b177d058e614000b607b
Ethnography
334
False
What is one of the foundational methods of social anthropology?
5733b177d058e614000b607c
Participant observation
557
False
What is a needlessly complicated word which means "conceptual"?
5733b177d058e614000b607d
emic
821
False
Inquiry in sociocultural anthropology
0
What is cultural relativism guided by?
5ad2c034d7d075001a42a0e8
True
reductionism in cross-cultural comparison.
227
What moderates accepting other cultures on their own terms?
5ad2c034d7d075001a42a0e9
True
Participant observation
557
What is one of the foundational methods of Ethnology?
5ad2c034d7d075001a42a0ea
True
different cultures
701
What does social anthropology involve the comarision of?
5ad2c034d7d075001a42a0eb
True
Inquiry in sociocultural anthropology is guided in part by cultural relativism, the attempt to understand other societies in terms of their own cultural symbols and values. Accepting other cultures in their own terms moderates reductionism in cross-cultural comparison. This project is often accommodated in the field of ethnography. Ethnography can refer to both a methodology and the product of ethnographic research, i.e. an ethnographic monograph. As methodology, ethnography is based upon long-term fieldwork within a community or other research site. Participant observation is one of the foundational methods of social and cultural anthropology. Ethnology involves the systematic comparison of different cultures. The process of participant-observation can be especially helpful to understanding a culture from an emic (conceptual, vs. etic, or technical) point of view.
Why type of anthropology is the study of social organization a central focus of?
5733b22f4776f41900661071
Sociocultural
128
False
Why type of conflict is sociocultural anthropology interested in?
5733b22f4776f41900661072
resolution
221
False
What patterns does sociocultural anthropology get up in the morning to learn about?
5733b22f4776f41900661073
consumption and exchange
245
False
What is the object of study for linguistic anthropology?
5733b22f4776f41900661074
language
499
False
What is a human universal?
5733b22f4776f41900661075
kinship
98
False
sociocultural anthropology
67
What is the study of kinship and ancestory?
5ad2c389d7d075001a42a13a
True
Sociocultural anthropology
128
What type of anthropology covers the formation of conflict?
5ad2c389d7d075001a42a13b
True
The study of kinship and social organization is a central focus of sociocultural anthropology, as kinship is a human universal. Sociocultural anthropology also covers economic and political organization, law and conflict resolution, patterns of consumption and exchange, material culture, technology, infrastructure, gender relations, ethnicity, childrearing and socialization, religion, myth, symbols, values, etiquette, worldview, sports, music, nutrition, recreation, games, food, festivals, and language (which is also the object of study in linguistic anthropology).
What field studies human's past through material remains?
5733b2e14776f41900661085
Archaeology
0
False
What are artifacts, faunal remains and human altered landscapes the evidence of?
5733b2e14776f41900661086
cultural and material lives of past societies
149
False
What can archaeologists deduce from material remains?
5733b2e14776f41900661087
human behavior and cultural practices
278
False
What do Ethnoarchaeologists gain a better understanding of by studying living human groups?
5733b2e14776f41900661088
past human groups
501
False
How are long dead human groups presumed to have lived and behaved as compared to still living populations?
5733b2e14776f41900661089
in similar ways
551
False
Archaeology
0
What is the study of humanity?
5ad2d6a8d7d075001a42a420
True
Archaeologists
196
What creates patterns of past humane behavior?
5ad2d6a8d7d075001a42a421
True
living human groups
410
What do Ethnoarchaelogist study to get a better understanding of past humane goups?
5ad2d6a8d7d075001a42a422
True
Archaeology is the study of the human past through its material remains. Artifacts, faunal remains, and human altered landscapes are evidence of the cultural and material lives of past societies. Archaeologists examine these material remains in order to deduce patterns of past human behavior and cultural practices. Ethnoarchaeology is a type of archaeology that studies the practices and material remains of living human groups in order to gain a better understanding of the evidence left behind by past human groups, who are presumed to have lived in similar ways.
What subdivision of anthropology seeks to understand the process of human communications?
5733b36dd058e614000b60a4
Linguistic
0
False
What problems does linguistic anthropology bring linguistic methods to bear on?
5733b36dd058e614000b60a5
anthropological
348
False
What is the analysis of linguistic forms and processes linked to?
5733b36dd058e614000b60a6
interpretation of sociocultural processes
436
False
What related fields do linguistic anthropologists draw on?
5733b36dd058e614000b60a7
sociolinguistics, pragmatics, cognitive linguistics, semiotics, discourse analysis, and narrative analysis
545
False
Linguistic anthropology
0
What subdivision of linguistics studies human communication?
5ad2d810d7d075001a42a43e
True
interpretation of sociocultural processes
436
What is the analysis of of linguistic anthropology?
5ad2d810d7d075001a42a43f
True
sociolinguistics, pragmatics, cognitive linguistics, semiotics, discourse analysis, and narrative analysis.
545
What related fields draw on linguistic anthropology?
5ad2d810d7d075001a42a440
True
Linguistic anthropology (also called anthropological linguistics) seeks to understand the processes of human communications, verbal and non-verbal, variation in language across time and space, the social uses of language, and the relationship between language and culture. It is the branch of anthropology that brings linguistic methods to bear on anthropological problems, linking the analysis of linguistic forms and processes to the interpretation of sociocultural processes. Linguistic anthropologists often draw on related fields including sociolinguistics, pragmatics, cognitive linguistics, semiotics, discourse analysis, and narrative analysis.
What is a cultural phenomenon?
5733b425d058e614000b60bc
art
51
False
What have several anthropologists noted about Western artistic endeavors and their place in non-Western contexts?
5733b425d058e614000b60bd
do not exist
270
False
What formal features in objects do anthropologists of art focus on?
5733b425d058e614000b60be
evident 'aesthetic' qualities
511
False
When was Art as Cultural System penned?
5733b425d058e614000b60bf
1983
650
False
What is the trend to transform the anthropology of 'art' into an anthropology of?
5733b425d058e614000b60c0
culturally specific 'aesthetics'
751
False
'art' as a cultural phenomenon
84
What is a central problem of the study of art?
5ad2da79d7d075001a42a4b8
True
'painting', 'sculpture', or 'literature'
182
What categories of art do not exixt in most Wester contests?
5ad2da79d7d075001a42a4b9
True
1982
606
When did Boas write The Way of the Masks?
5ad2da79d7d075001a42a4ba
True
the anthropology of 'art'
701
What have anthropologists triet to turn the anthropology of culturally specific aesthetics into?
5ad2da79d7d075001a42a4bb
True
1983
650
When did Greetz write Primitive Art?
5ad2da79d7d075001a42a4bc
True
One of the central problems in the anthropology of art concerns the universality of 'art' as a cultural phenomenon. Several anthropologists have noted that the Western categories of 'painting', 'sculpture', or 'literature', conceived as independent artistic activities, do not exist, or exist in a significantly different form, in most non-Western contexts. To surmount this difficulty, anthropologists of art have focused on formal features in objects which, without exclusively being 'artistic', have certain evident 'aesthetic' qualities. Boas' Primitive Art, Claude Lévi-Strauss' The Way of the Masks (1982) or Geertz's 'Art as Cultural System' (1983) are some examples in this trend to transform the anthropology of 'art' into an anthropology of culturally specific 'aesthetics'.
What type of anthropology tries to understand the social aspects of mass media?
5733c6b3d058e614000b6223
Media anthropology
0
False
Media production and media reception are examples of what type of context?
5733c6b3d058e614000b6224
ethnographic
219
False
What type of anthropology involves the relatively new area of internet search?
5733c6b3d058e614000b6225
cyber
492
False
Media such as a radio and television have started to make their presences felt since what years?
5733c6b3d058e614000b6226
early 1990s
878
False
Following audiences in their everyday responses to media is encompassed by what type of context?
5733c6b3d058e614000b6227
media reception
397
False
Media anthropology
0
What is the study of Mass Media?
5ad2dbabd7d075001a42a4fe
True
cyber anthropology
492
What type of anthropology involves the internet and roboticas?
5ad2dbabd7d075001a42a4ff
True
radio
783
What form of media began to lose its presence in the 1990's?
5ad2dbabd7d075001a42a500
True
Media anthropology (also known as anthropology of media or mass media) emphasizes ethnographic studies as a means of understanding producers, audiences, and other cultural and social aspects of mass media. The types of ethnographic contexts explored range from contexts of media production (e.g., ethnographies of newsrooms in newspapers, journalists in the field, film production) to contexts of media reception, following audiences in their everyday responses to media. Other types include cyber anthropology, a relatively new area of internet research, as well as ethnographies of other areas of research which happen to involve media, such as development work, social movements, or health education. This is in addition to many classic ethnographic contexts, where media such as radio, the press, new media and television have started to make their presences felt since the early 1990s.
What type of anthropology concerns itself with the study of photography and film?
5733c775d058e614000b6237
Visual
0
False
What are performances, art, and the production of mass media grouped under?
5733c775d058e614000b6238
visual representation
283
False
What cultures' visual representations are included in visual anthropology?
5733c775d058e614000b6239
all
433
False
What term is visual anthropology sometimes used interchangeably with?
5733c775d058e614000b623a
ethnographic film
198
False
Visual anthropology
0
What type of anthropology involves photographers?
5ad2ea14604f3c001a3fd9bf
True
visual representation
283
What type of representation does ethnographic film study?
5ad2ea14604f3c001a3fd9c0
True
ethnographic film
198
What term has replaced Visual anthropology?
5ad2ea14604f3c001a3fd9c1
True
Visual anthropology is concerned, in part, with the study and production of ethnographic photography, film and, since the mid-1990s, new media. While the term is sometimes used interchangeably with ethnographic film, visual anthropology also encompasses the anthropological study of visual representation, including areas such as performance, museums, art, and the production and reception of mass media. Visual representations from all cultures, such as sandpaintings, tattoos, sculptures and reliefs, cave paintings, scrimshaw, jewelry, hieroglyphics, paintings and photographs are included in the focus of visual anthropology.
Which branch of anthropology attempts to explain human economic behavior?
5733c827d058e614000b623f
Economic
0
False
Economic anthropology covers what scope of human economic behavior?
5733c827d058e614000b6240
historic, geographic and cultural
80
False
What is economic anthropology highly critical of?
5733c827d058e614000b6241
discipline of economics
160
False
Who was the Polish-British founder of Anthropology?
5733c827d058e614000b6242
Bronislaw Malinowski
315
False
What is Economic Anthropology mostly focused upon?
5733c827d058e614000b6243
exchange
534
False
Economic anthropology
0
What type of anthropology attempts explain human finances?
5ad2eb36604f3c001a3fd9c5
True
Economic anthropology
0
What study focuses on the history of human economics rather than culural?
5ad2eb36604f3c001a3fd9c6
True
market exchange
454
What alternative to gift-giving exchange did Mauss study?
5ad2eb36604f3c001a3fd9c7
True
Political Economy
597
What school of thought did Marx found?
5ad2eb36604f3c001a3fd9c8
True
Economic anthropology attempts to explain human economic behavior in its widest historic, geographic and cultural scope. It has a complex relationship with the discipline of economics, of which it is highly critical. Its origins as a sub-field of anthropology begin with the Polish-British founder of Anthropology, Bronislaw Malinowski, and his French compatriot, Marcel Mauss, on the nature of gift-giving exchange (or reciprocity) as an alternative to market exchange. Economic Anthropology remains, for the most part, focused upon exchange. The school of thought derived from Marx and known as Political Economy focuses on production, in contrast. Economic Anthropologists have abandoned the primitivist niche they were relegated to by economists, and have now turned to examine corporations, banks, and the global financial system from an anthropological perspective.
What does political economy in anthropology apply Historical Materialism to?
5733cb994776f4190066125c
traditional concerns
114
False
What did Political Economy introduce questions of to theories of social structure and culture?
5733cb994776f4190066125d
history and colonialism
251
False
Who were the original affluent society?
5733cb994776f4190066125e
Hunter-gatherers
543
False
What do peasants make up the vast majority of in the world?
5733cb994776f4190066125f
population
697
False
What have Political Economists most recently focused on the issues of?
5733cb994776f41900661260
industrial (and post-industrial) capitalism
991
False
Political economy
0
What field of study removes Historical Materialism from the traditional concernsw of anthropology?
5ad2ec9c604f3c001a3fd9cd
True
theories of social structure and culture
306
What did Political Economy introduce to quwestions of history and coloialism?
5ad2ec9c604f3c001a3fd9ce
True
the peasantry
721
Who makes up only a small part of the world's population?
5ad2ec9c604f3c001a3fd9cf
True
Political Economists
931
Who has helped spread capitalism around the world?
5ad2ec9c604f3c001a3fd9d0
True
Political economy in anthropology is the application of the theories and methods of Historical Materialism to the traditional concerns of anthropology, including, but not limited to, non-capitalist societies. Political Economy introduced questions of history and colonialism to ahistorical anthropological theories of social structure and culture. Three main areas of interest rapidly developed. The first of these areas was concerned with the "pre-capitalist" societies that were subject to evolutionary "tribal" stereotypes. Sahlins work on Hunter-gatherers as the 'original affluent society' did much to dissipate that image. The second area was concerned with the vast majority of the world's population at the time, the peasantry, many of whom were involved in complex revolutionary wars such as in Vietnam. The third area was on colonialism, imperialism, and the creation of the capitalist world-system. More recently, these Political Economists have more directly addressed issues of industrial (and post-industrial) capitalism around the world.
What type of anthropology is used to analyse and find solutions to real world problems?
5733cc56d058e614000b629f
Applied
0
False
What do the instrumental methods of applied anthropology produce?
5733cc56d058e614000b62a0
change or stability
221
False
What type of action does applied anthropology initiate?
5733cc56d058e614000b62a1
direct
315
False
What side of anthropology is applied anthropology?
5733cc56d058e614000b62a2
the practical side
402
False
Included in applied anthropology is researcher involvement as well as activism in what communities?
5733cc56d058e614000b62a3
participating
509
False
Applied Anthropology
0
What refers to the study of the methods and theries of anthropology?
5ad2ed91604f3c001a3fd9df
True
change or stability in specific cultural systems
221
What produces methods of applied anthropology?
5ad2ed91604f3c001a3fd9e0
True
applied anthropology
378
What is the creative side of anthropology?
5ad2ed91604f3c001a3fd9e1
True
Applied Anthropology
0
what is distincly different than Development Anthropology?
5ad2ed91604f3c001a3fd9e2
True
Applied Anthropology refers to the application of the method and theory of anthropology to the analysis and solution of practical problems. It is a, "complex of related, research-based, instrumental methods which produce change or stability in specific cultural systems through the provision of data, initiation of direct action, and/or the formulation of policy". More simply, applied anthropology is the practical side of anthropological research; it includes researcher involvement and activism within the participating community. It is closely related to Development anthropology (distinct from the more critical Anthropology of development).
What perspective does development anthropology view development from?
5733cd1c4776f4190066127a
critical
61
False
What does development anthropology involves doing a lot of?
5733cd1c4776f4190066127b
pondering
161
False
Development anthropologists would like to know why if a goal is to alleviate poverty, that poverty is doing what?
5733cd1c4776f4190066127c
increasing
238
False
When it comes to plans and outcomes, what do development anthropologists look at between them?
5733cd1c4776f4190066127d
gap
270
False
What does a lot of planned development apparently do?
5733cd1c4776f4190066127e
fail
527
False
Anthropology of development
0
What tends to view development from a positive perspective?
5ad2ee84604f3c001a3fd9ef
True
Anthropology of development
0
What field of anthropology has a goal to eleviate poverty?
5ad2ee84604f3c001a3fd9f0
True
Anthropology of development
0
What looks for the connections between plans and outcomes?
5ad2ee84604f3c001a3fd9f1
True
planned development
507
What type of development rarely fails?
5ad2ee84604f3c001a3fd9f2
True
Anthropology of development tends to view development from a critical perspective. The kind of issues addressed and implications for the approach simply involve pondering why, if a key development goal is to alleviate poverty, is poverty increasing? Why is there such a gap between plans and outcomes? Why are those working in development so willing to disregard history and the lessons it might offer? Why is development so externally driven rather than having an internal basis? In short why does so much planned development fail?
What can refer to the study of patterns in human cultures?
5733cf984776f419006612aa
Kinship
0
False
What has developed a number of related concepts and terms?
5733cf984776f419006612ab
anthropology
193
False
When has anthropology developed related terms?
5733cf984776f419006612ac
Over its history
175
False
What does it mean if people are related by descent?
5733cf984776f419006612ad
one's social relations during development
447
False
Kinship patterns can included people who are relatives by what cultural ritual involving the exchange of rings and sometimes dowry?
5733cf984776f419006612ae
marriage
513
False
Kinship
0
What is the study of human culture?
5ad2ef2e604f3c001a3fd9ff
True
anthropology
193
What has developed a number of unrelated concepts and terms?
5ad2ef2e604f3c001a3fda00
True
kinship patterns
369
What type of patterns onlyrefer to people related by descent?
5ad2ef2e604f3c001a3fda01
True
Kinship can refer both to the study of the patterns of social relationships in one or more human cultures, or it can refer to the patterns of social relationships themselves. Over its history, anthropology has developed a number of related concepts and terms, such as "descent", "descent groups", "lineages", "affines", "cognates", and even "fictive kinship". Broadly, kinship patterns may be considered to include people related both by descent (one's social relations during development), and also relatives by marriage.
What type of anthropology focuses on a political agenda rather than on contributing to science?
5733dc134776f4190066138e
Feminist
0
False
What does feminist anthropology self-reports as seeking to reduce in research findings?
5733dc134776f4190066138f
male bias
134
False
What do feminist anthropologists claim their research helps to correct?
5733dc134776f41900661390
systematic bias
650
False
What are feminist anthropologists centrally concerned about?
5733dc134776f41900661391
gender
771
False
What type of anthropology do feminist anthropologists inclusively specialize in?
5733dc134776f41900661392
birth anthropology
834
False
Feminist anthropology
0
What is a single field approach to anthropology?
5ad2f00b604f3c001a3fda05
True
Feminist anthropology
0
What seeks to reduce female bias in research?
5ad2f00b604f3c001a3fda06
True
feminists from non-Western traditions
275
Who's experiences are similar to white European and American feminists?
5ad2f00b604f3c001a3fda07
True
'peripheral' perspectives
432
What perspectives have been historically regarded as valid?
5ad2f00b604f3c001a3fda08
True
Feminist anthropology is a four field approach to anthropology (archeological, biological, cultural, linguistic) that seeks to reduce male bias in research findings, anthropological hiring practices, and the scholarly production of knowledge. Anthropology engages often with feminists from non-Western traditions, whose perspectives and experiences can differ from those of white European and American feminists. Historically, such 'peripheral' perspectives have sometimes been marginalized and regarded as less valid or important than knowledge from the western world. Feminist anthropologists have claimed that their research helps to correct this systematic bias in mainstream feminist theory. Feminist anthropologists are centrally concerned with the construction of gender across societies. Feminist anthropology is inclusive of birth anthropology as a specialization.
What division of anthropology concerns itself with food security?
5733dd4dd058e614000b6452
Nutritional
0
False
Nutritional anthropologists investigate the interplay between economic systems and what?
5733dd4dd058e614000b6453
food security
127
False
If environmental changes in a community affect access to food, then there is an eventual connection to what?
5733dd4dd058e614000b6454
globalization
429
False
What affects overall health status?
5733dd4dd058e614000b6455
Nutritional status
444
False
What can having ready access to food affect the overall potential development of?
5733dd4dd058e614000b6456
economic
552
False
Nutritional anthropology
0
What part of anthropology deals with food production?
5ad2f0fa604f3c001a3fda17
True
Nutritional anthropology
0
What investigates the interplay between culture and food security?
5ad2f0fa604f3c001a3fda18
True
health status
479
What effects overall Nutritional status>
5ad2f0fa604f3c001a3fda19
True
economic development
552
What can affect acess to food?
5ad2f0fa604f3c001a3fda1a
True
Nutritional anthropology is a synthetic concept that deals with the interplay between economic systems, nutritional status and food security, and how changes in the former affect the latter. If economic and environmental changes in a community affect access to food, food security, and dietary health, then this interplay between culture and biology is in turn connected to broader historical and economic trends associated with globalization. Nutritional status affects overall health status, work performance potential, and the overall potential for economic development (either in terms of human development or traditional western models) for any given group of people.
What subfield of anthropology studies mental processes?
5733de0bd058e614000b646b
Psychological
0
False
What does psychological anthropology particularly focus on in a particular culture group?
5733de0bd058e614000b646c
humans' development and enculturation
185
False
What aspects define a cultural group?
5733de0bd058e614000b646d
its own history, language, practices, and conceptual categories
263
False
What shapes processes of human cognition?
5733de0bd058e614000b646e
cultural group
243
False
Psychological anthropology examines how our models of social processes are informed by what?
5733de0bd058e614000b646f
understanding
440
False
Psychological anthropology
0
What subfield of anthropolgy studies mental health?
5ad2f1de604f3c001a3fda27
True
a particular cultural group
230
Where does Pysychological anthropology defocus on human development and enculteration?
5ad2f1de604f3c001a3fda28
True
human cognition
346
What shapes cultural groups?
5ad2f1de604f3c001a3fda29
True
Psychological anthropology is an interdisciplinary subfield of anthropology that studies the interaction of cultural and mental processes. This subfield tends to focus on ways in which humans' development and enculturation within a particular cultural group—with its own history, language, practices, and conceptual categories—shape processes of human cognition, emotion, perception, motivation, and mental health. It also examines how the understanding of cognition, emotion, motivation, and similar psychological processes inform or constrain our models of cultural and social processes.
What type of anthology deals with patterns of shared knowledge?
5733df4f4776f419006613db
Cognitive
0
False
What methods and theories do cognitive anthropologists use to explain cultural innovation?
5733df4f4776f419006613dc
cognitive sciences
166
False
What are two examples of methods and theories of cognitive science?
5733df4f4776f419006613dd
experimental psychology and evolutionary biology
197
False
Cognitive anthropologists want to know how the way people perceive and related to the world around them is linked to what?
5733df4f4776f419006613de
implicit knowledge
534
False
Cognitive anthropology
0
What seeks to explain pattterns of aquired knowledge?
5ad2f2c4604f3c001a3fda35
True
cultural innovation
70
What do cognitive anthropologists use to explain cognitive sciences?
5ad2f2c4604f3c001a3fda36
True
experimental psychology and evolutionary biology
197
What are two examples of methods and theories of cognitive anthropology?
5ad2f2c4604f3c001a3fda37
True
Cognitive anthropology seeks to explain patterns of shared knowledge, cultural innovation, and transmission over time and space using the methods and theories of the cognitive sciences (especially experimental psychology and evolutionary biology) often through close collaboration with historians, ethnographers, archaeologists, linguists, musicologists and other specialists engaged in the description and interpretation of cultural forms. Cognitive anthropology is concerned with what people from different groups know and how that implicit knowledge changes the way people perceive and relate to the world around them.
What type of anthropology is interested in the structure of political systems?
5733e009d058e614000b6487
Political
0
False
From what basis do political anthropologists examine the structure of political systems?
5733e009d058e614000b6488
structure of societies
100
False
When did the new development of a stateless society come about?
5733e009d058e614000b6489
the 1960s
262
False
The presence of states, bureaucracies and markets makes for what type of social setting?
5733e009d058e614000b648a
"complex"
348
False
Who did a comparative work on a Balinese state?
5733e009d058e614000b648b
Geertz
1086
False
Political anthropology
0
What field of anthropology concerns the stucture of governments?
5ad2f3af604f3c001a3fda43
True
societies
220
Political anthropology was primarily concerned with the politics of strong what?
5ad2f3af604f3c001a3fda44
True
stateless societies
210
Political anthropology turned from complex socities to what?
5ad2f3af604f3c001a3fda45
True
1960s
266
When did the study of stateless societies begin?
5ad2f3af604f3c001a3fda46
True
Political anthropology concerns the structure of political systems, looked at from the basis of the structure of societies. Political anthropology developed as a discipline concerned primarily with politics in stateless societies, a new development started from the 1960s, and is still unfolding: anthropologists started increasingly to study more "complex" social settings in which the presence of states, bureaucracies and markets entered both ethnographic accounts and analysis of local phenomena. The turn towards complex societies meant that political themes were taken up at two main levels. First of all, anthropologists continued to study political organization and political phenomena that lay outside the state-regulated sphere (as in patron-client relations or tribal political organization). Second of all, anthropologists slowly started to develop a disciplinary concern with states and their institutions (and of course on the relationship between formal and informal political institutions). An anthropology of the state developed, and it is a most thriving field today. Geertz' comparative work on "Negara", the Balinese state is an early, famous example.
What type of anthropology originated as a sub-focus group?
5733e0d64776f419006613fc
Cyborg
0
False
When did the division of cyborg anthropology originate?
5733e0d64776f419006613fd
1993
120
False
What the sub-group of cyborg anthropology very closely related to, in addition to STS?
5733e0d64776f419006613fe
the Society for the Social Studies of Science
176
False
Who published a Cyborg Manifesto?
5733e0d64776f419006613ff
Donna Haraway
223
False
What does cyborg anthropology study about humankind and technological systems humans have built?
5733e0d64776f41900661400
its relations
449
False
Cyborg anthropology
0
What type of anthropology began in Europe in 1993?
5ad2f43f604f3c001a3fda4b
True
1985
239
When did the study of cyborg technology begin?
5ad2f43f604f3c001a3fda4c
True
Cyborg Manifesto
244
What did Harway write in 1993?
5ad2f43f604f3c001a3fda4d
True
Cyborg anthropology originated as a sub-focus group within the American Anthropological Association's annual meeting in 1993. The sub-group was very closely related to STS and the Society for the Social Studies of Science. Donna Haraway's 1985 Cyborg Manifesto could be considered the founding document of cyborg anthropology by first exploring the philosophical and sociological ramifications of the term. Cyborg anthropology studies humankind and its relations with the technological systems it has built, specifically modern technological systems that have reflexively shaped notions of what it means to be human beings.
Which sub-specialty of anthropology takes an active role in looking at how humans interact with their environment?
5733e26ad058e614000b64b8
Environmental
0
False
What is the focus of most of the field work in environmental anthropology today?
5733e26ad058e614000b64b9
political ecology
375
False
What do many characterize the new perspective as being more informed with?
5733e26ad058e614000b64ba
culture, politics and power, globalization, localized issues, and more.
455
False
The data interpretation of environmental anthropology can be used to prevent what type of exploitation?
5733e26ad058e614000b64bb
corporate
639
False
Who does Melissa Checker have a relationship with?
5733e26ad058e614000b64bc
people of Hyde Park
950
False
Environmental anthropology
0
What field examines the environment and its affect of life?
5ad2f4e9604f3c001a3fda51
True
political ecology
375
What was the first focus of field work in environmental anthropology?
5ad2f4e9604f3c001a3fda52
True
the struggle
731
What does the observer never become part of?
5ad2f4e9604f3c001a3fda53
True
Environmental anthropology is a sub-specialty within the field of anthropology that takes an active role in examining the relationships between humans and their environment across space and time. The contemporary perspective of environmental anthropology, and arguably at least the backdrop, if not the focus of most of the ethnographies and cultural fieldworks of today, is political ecology. Many characterize this new perspective as more informed with culture, politics and power, globalization, localized issues, and more. The focus and data interpretation is often used for arguments for/against or creation of policy, and to prevent corporate exploitation and damage of land. Often, the observer has become an active part of the struggle either directly (organizing, participation) or indirectly (articles, documentaries, books, ethnographies). Such is the case with environmental justice advocate Melissa Checker and her relationship with the people of Hyde Park.
How does an someone interested in ethnohistory learn more about cultures and customs?
5733e37ad058e614000b64d6
by examining historical records
74
False
Ethnohistory can study the history of what types of groups which may or may not exist today?
5733e37ad058e614000b64d7
ethnic
154
False
What does ethnohistory use both historical and ethnographic data as?
5733e37ad058e614000b64d8
its foundation
260
False
What do the methods of ethnohistory go beyond the standard use of?
5733e37ad058e614000b64d9
documents and manuscripts
343
False
Who recognizes the utility of music, folkore and language?
5733e37ad058e614000b64da
Practitioners
370
False
Ethnohistory
0
What is the study of modern customs?
5ad2f584604f3c001a3fda57
True
indigenous
55
What extinct groups does ethno history study?
5ad2f584604f3c001a3fda58
True
historical and ethnographic data
224
What does ethnohistory form the foundation for?
5ad2f584604f3c001a3fda59
True
Ethnohistory is the study of ethnographic cultures and indigenous customs by examining historical records. It is also the study of the history of various ethnic groups that may or may not exist today. Ethnohistory uses both historical and ethnographic data as its foundation. Its historical methods and materials go beyond the standard use of documents and manuscripts. Practitioners recognize the utility of such source material as maps, music, paintings, photography, folklore, oral tradition, site exploration, archaeological materials, museum collections, enduring customs, language, and place names.
What division of anthropology is concerned with poverty?
5733e44a4776f4190066143e
Urban
0
False
Who is fond of quoting a remark from the 1960s?
5733e44a4776f4190066143f
Ulf Hannerz
89
False
What is a stereotype of traditional anthropologists?
5733e44a4776f41900661440
notoriously agoraphobic
164
False
How many principles approaches are there in urban anthropology?
5733e44a4776f41900661441
two
460
False
One would be studying how the dynamic of a city is affected if one were looking directly at different what?
5733e44a4776f41900661442
social issues
827
False
Urban anthropology
0
What is the study of modern cities?
5ad2f5f2604f3c001a3fda5d
True
Ulf Hannerz
89
Who was often quated in the 1960's?
5ad2f5f2604f3c001a3fda5e
True
a notoriously agoraphobic lot,
162
What is a new steryotpe of anthropologists?
5ad2f5f2604f3c001a3fda5f
True
Urban anthropology is concerned with issues of urbanization, poverty, and neoliberalism. Ulf Hannerz quotes a 1960s remark that traditional anthropologists were "a notoriously agoraphobic lot, anti-urban by definition". Various social processes in the Western World as well as in the "Third World" (the latter being the habitual focus of attention of anthropologists) brought the attention of "specialists in 'other cultures'" closer to their homes. There are two principle approaches in urban anthropology: by examining the types of cities or examining the social issues within the cities. These two methods are overlapping and dependent of each other. By defining different types of cities, one would use social factors as well as economic and political factors to categorize the cities. By directly looking at the different social issues, one would also be studying how they affect the dynamic of the city.
What is Anthrozoology also known as?
5733e5704776f41900661451
human–animal studies
30
False
What is the study of interaction between living things?
5733e5704776f41900661452
Anthrozoology
0
False
What does the field of anthrozoology overlap with?
5733e5704776f41900661453
number of other disciplines
168
False
What type of effects are a major focus of the anthrozoologic research?
5733e5704776f41900661454
positive
353
False
What are some of the diverse range of fields scholars come to Anthrozoology from?
5733e5704776f41900661455
anthropology, sociology, biology, and philosophy
516
False
Anthrozoology
0
What is the study of animals?
5ad2f672604f3c001a3fda6b
True
Anthrozoology
0
What focuses on the positive affect of animals on humans?
5ad2f672604f3c001a3fda6c
True
anthropology, sociology, biology, and philosophy
516
What fields developed from Anthrozoology?
5ad2f672604f3c001a3fda6d
True
Anthrozoology (also known as "human–animal studies") is the study of interaction between living things. It is a burgeoning interdisciplinary field that overlaps with a number of other disciplines, including anthropology, ethology, medicine, psychology, veterinary medicine and zoology. A major focus of anthrozoologic research is the quantifying of the positive effects of human-animal relationships on either party and the study of their interactions. It includes scholars from a diverse range of fields, including anthropology, sociology, biology, and philosophy.[n 7]
What branch of anthropology studies human behavior and the relation between primates?
5733e7014776f41900661484
Evolutionary
0
False
What is evolutionary anthropology  based in?
5733e7014776f41900661485
natural science and social science
212
False
Which humans does evolutionary anthropology concern itself with the biological and cultural evolution of?
5733e7014776f41900661486
past and present
402
False
What type of approach is evolutionary anthropology based on?
5733e7014776f41900661487
scientific
437
False
What evidence does evolutionary anthropology draw on to understand the human experience?
5733e7014776f41900661488
many lines
621
False
Evolutionary anthropology is the interdisciplinary study of the evolution of human physiology and human behaviour and the relation between hominins and non-hominin primates. Evolutionary anthropology is based in natural science and social science, combining the human development with socioeconomic factors. Evolutionary anthropology is concerned with both biological and cultural evolution of humans, past and present. It is based on a scientific approach, and brings together fields such as archaeology, behavioral ecology, psychology, primatology, and genetics. It is a dynamic and interdisciplinary field, drawing on many lines of evidence to understand the human experience, past and present.
What type of anthropology commitment is noticing and documenting genocide?
5733e7c4d058e614000b6557
Ethical
0
False
What is the proper term for circumcision?
5733e7c4d058e614000b6558
mutilation
100
False
What are good topics to attract the attention of an anthropologist?
5733e7c4d058e614000b6559
racism, slavery, and human sacrifice
178
False
Nutritional deficiencies and colonialism are just two theories of the root cause of Man's inhumanity towards whom?
5733e7c4d058e614000b655a
man
439
False
Why can one find thousands of anthropological references to the topics?
5733e7c4d058e614000b655b
depth of an anthropological approach
462
False
Ethical commitments in anthropology include noticing and documenting genocide, infanticide, racism, mutilation (including circumcision and subincision), and torture. Topics like racism, slavery, and human sacrifice attract anthropological attention and theories ranging from nutritional deficiencies to genes to acculturation have been proposed, not to mention theories of colonialism and many others as root causes of Man's inhumanity to man. To illustrate the depth of an anthropological approach, one can take just one of these topics, such as "racism" and find thousands of anthropological references, stretching across all the major and minor sub-fields.
What were Boas' peers doing in the 1940s?
5733e8ccd058e614000b656e
active in the allied war effort
67
False
What groups formed the Axis forces?
5733e8ccd058e614000b656f
Nazi Germany, Fascist Italy, and Imperial Japan
119
False
What did many anthropologists serve in?
5733e8ccd058e614000b6570
the armed forces
184
False
The Office of Strategic Services is an example of what type of posting during the War?
5733e8ccd058e614000b6571
intelligence
225
False
Why are several anthropologists dismissed from their jobs, according to David H. Price?
5733e8ccd058e614000b6572
communist sympathies.
505
False
But by the 1940s, many of Boas' anthropologist contemporaries were active in the allied war effort against the "Axis" (Nazi Germany, Fascist Italy, and Imperial Japan). Many served in the armed forces, while others worked in intelligence (for example, Office of Strategic Services and the Office of War Information). At the same time, David H. Price's work on American anthropology during the Cold War provides detailed accounts of the pursuit and dismissal of several anthropologists from their jobs for communist sympathies.
What do groups of anthropologists object to the use of anthropology for benefit of?
5733ea234776f419006614d3
the state
95
False
What type of briefings are forbidden for members of certain anthropologist bodies to give?
5733ea234776f419006614d4
secret
184
False
What has the ASA identified as being ethically dangerous?
5733ea234776f419006614d5
certain scholarship
288
False
Who penned a "Statement of Professional Responsibility"?
5733ea234776f419006614d6
The AAA
329
False
Secret research and reports are things which should never be what?
5733ea234776f419006614d7
given
567
False
Professional anthropological bodies
0
Who often emphasises the use of anthropology for the benefit of the state?
5ad2e931604f3c001a3fd9ad
True
Their codes of ethics or statements
106
What permits antropologists to give secret briefings?
5ad2e931604f3c001a3fd9ae
True
no secret research, no secret reports or debriefings of any kind should be agreed to or given."
479
What does the AAA's current Statment of Professional Responsibility no longer say?
5ad2e931604f3c001a3fd9af
True
certain scholarship
288
What has the ASA identified as being ethical?
5ad2e931604f3c001a3fd9b0
True
Professional anthropological bodies often object to the use of anthropology for the benefit of the state. Their codes of ethics or statements may proscribe anthropologists from giving secret briefings. The Association of Social Anthropologists of the UK and Commonwealth (ASA) has called certain scholarship ethically dangerous. The AAA's current 'Statement of Professional Responsibility' clearly states that "in relation with their own government and with host governments ... no secret research, no secret reports or debriefings of any kind should be agreed to or given."
Who are anthropologists working with along with other social scientists?
5733eb08d058e614000b65b8
the US military
70
False
What are the anthropologists part of?
5733eb08d058e614000b65b9
US Army's strategy in Afghanistan
101
False
What efforts focus on better understanding and meeting of local needs in Afghanistan?
5733eb08d058e614000b65ba
Counterinsurgency
180
False
Where are HTS teams working with the military in addition to Afghanistan?
5733eb08d058e614000b65bb
Iraq
377
False
What does the AAA feel is incompatible with working with the military?
5733eb08d058e614000b65bc
ethics
1173
False
Anthropologists
0
Who is working with the UN militalry in Afghanistan??
5ad2e812604f3c001a3fd985
True
Counterinsurgency efforts
180
what focuses better focuses on meeting national needs in Afghanistan?
5ad2e812604f3c001a3fd986
True
Iraq
377
Where are HTS teams considering working beside Afghanistan?
5ad2e812604f3c001a3fd987
True
working with the US military
57
What does the AA believe ethics are compatible with?
5ad2e812604f3c001a3fd988
True
Anthropologists, along with other social scientists, are working with the US military as part of the US Army's strategy in Afghanistan. The Christian Science Monitor reports that "Counterinsurgency efforts focus on better grasping and meeting local needs" in Afghanistan, under the Human Terrain System (HTS) program; in addition, HTS teams are working with the US military in Iraq. In 2009, the American Anthropological Association's Commission on the Engagement of Anthropology with the US Security and Intelligence Communities released its final report concluding, in part, that, "When ethnographic investigation is determined by military missions, not subject to external review, where data collection occurs in the context of war, integrated into the goals of counterinsurgency, and in a potentially coercive environment – all characteristic factors of the HTS concept and its application – it can no longer be considered a legitimate professional exercise of anthropology. In summary, while we stress that constructive engagement between anthropology and the military is possible, CEAUSSIC suggests that the AAA emphasize the incompatibility of HTS with disciplinary ethics and practice for job seekers and that it further recognize the problem of allowing HTS to define the meaning of "anthropology" within DoD."
What type of anthropologist is interested in human variation?
5733ebf24776f41900661507
Biological
0
False
What would an idea shared by virtually all human cultures be considered?
5733ebf24776f41900661508
human universals
92
False
Where can participant observation take an anthropologist?
5733ebf24776f41900661509
into the field
327
False
To be able to do fieldwork, an anthropologist must first travel to what?
5733ebf24776f4190066150a
a community in its own setting
369
False
Articles can published once what type of samples have been taken?
5733ebf24776f4190066150b
genetic
493
False
Biological anthropologists
0
Who are interested in human variations and similarities to other organisms?
5ad2e62a604f3c001a3fd923
True
human universals
92
What are ideas shared by the dominite culture?
5ad2e62a604f3c001a3fd924
True
participant observation
254
What kind of observations are made in and artificial environment?
5ad2e62a604f3c001a3fd925
True
fieldwork
425
What kind of work do anthropologists do with communities in a lab setting?
5ad2e62a604f3c001a3fd926
True
Biological anthropologists are interested in both human variation and in the possibility of human universals (behaviors, ideas or concepts shared by virtually all human cultures). They use many different methods of study, but modern population genetics, participant observation and other techniques often take anthropologists "into the field," which means traveling to a community in its own setting, to do something called "fieldwork." On the biological or physical side, human measurements, genetic samples, nutritional data may be gathered and published as articles or monographs.
How do anthropologists typically like to divide up the world?
5733ec8ed058e614000b65f0
relevant time periods and geographic regions
113
False
How has human time on Earth been divided up?
5733ec8ed058e614000b65f1
cultural traditions based on material
207
False
Olduwan, Mousterian, and Levalloisian are all types of what?
5733ec8ed058e614000b65f2
tool
383
False
Mapping cultures is central to both the sciences of anthropologists and who else?
5733ec8ed058e614000b65f3
geographers
573
False
What is a central part of the science of anthropology?
5733ec8ed058e614000b65f4
comparative method
828
False
anthropologists
62
Who divides the world y theoretical emphasis?
5ad2e524604f3c001a3fd8f9
True
anthropologists
62
Who likes to divide their projects into relevent time periods and geographic regions?
5ad2e524604f3c001a3fd8fa
True
cultural subdivisions according to tool types,
348
What helps anthropologists understand major trends in human culture?
5ad2e524604f3c001a3fd8fb
True
Human time on Earth
159
What is divided into relevant cultural traditions based on art?
5ad2e524604f3c001a3fd8fc
True
Along with dividing up their project by theoretical emphasis, anthropologists typically divide the world up into relevant time periods and geographic regions. Human time on Earth is divided up into relevant cultural traditions based on material, such as the Paleolithic and the Neolithic, of particular use in archaeology.[citation needed] Further cultural subdivisions according to tool types, such as Olduwan or Mousterian or Levalloisian help archaeologists and other anthropologists in understanding major trends in the human past.[citation needed] Anthropologists and geographers share approaches to Culture regions as well, since mapping cultures is central to both sciences. By making comparisons across cultural traditions (time-based) and cultural regions (space-based), anthropologists have developed various kinds of comparative method, a central part of their science.
What do some authors state anthropology developed as the study of?
5733edbe4776f4190066152f
"other cultures
78
False
A past society would be an other culture separated by what temporal aspect?
5733edbe4776f41900661530
time
113
False
What other cultures are said to be separated by space, what is actually meant?
5733edbe4776f41900661531
non-European/non-Western societies
146
False
Who published a book with unnecessarily long title, "Exploring the City: Inquires Toward an Urban Anthropology"?
5733edbe4776f41900661532
Ulf Hannerz
231
False
When did anthropologists stop looking for cultures far away and instead began to "look across the tracks"?
5733edbe4776f41900661533
only in late 1960s
543
False
anthropology
24
What do some authors argue developed as the study of western culture in terms of time and space?
5ad2de9dd7d075001a42a590
True
1960s.
556
When did anthropologist specializing in other culture start searching in the "Third World"?
5ad2de9dd7d075001a42a591
True
Some authors argue that anthropology originated and developed as the study of "other cultures", both in terms of time (past societies) and space (non-European/non-Western societies). For example, the classic of urban anthropology, Ulf Hannerz in the introduction to his seminal Exploring the City: Inquiries Toward an Urban Anthropology mentions that the "Third World" had habitually received most of attention; anthropologists who traditionally specialized in "other cultures" looked for them far away and started to look "across the tracks" only in late 1960s.
What has become common for social anthropologists to do since the 1980s?
5733eecdd058e614000b6617
set ethnographic research in the North Atlantic region
80
False
Setting research in the North Atlantic region allows looking at connections between locations rather than being limited to what?
5733eecdd058e614000b6618
research to a single locale
212
False
What has there been a shift toward broadening the focus beyond?
5733eecdd058e614000b6619
daily life of ordinary people
316
False
What setting have anthropologists done more research in recently?
5733eecdd058e614000b661a
scientific laboratories
397
False
Governmental and nongovernmental organizations and businesses are all settings which are fair game to do what in?
5733eecdd058e614000b661b
research
361
False
the North Atlantic region
109
Where has ethnographic research become less common since the 1980's?
5ad2dd80d7d075001a42a56a
True
ethnographic research
84
What often limits research to a certain local?
5ad2dd80d7d075001a42a56b
True
social and cultural anthropologists
41
Who has norrowed the focus to the daily life of ordinary people?
5ad2dd80d7d075001a42a56c
True
laboratories, social movements, governmental and nongovernmental organizations and businesses.
408
What settings is reasearch increasinly moving away from?
5ad2dd80d7d075001a42a56d
True
Since the 1980s it has become common for social and cultural anthropologists to set ethnographic research in the North Atlantic region, frequently examining the connections between locations rather than limiting research to a single locale. There has also been a related shift toward broadening the focus beyond the daily life of ordinary people; increasingly, research is set in settings such as scientific laboratories, social movements, governmental and nongovernmental organizations and businesses.
Montana
What is the states rank in size?
5733bd9bd058e614000b619a
4th
370
False
What is its rank in popularion?
5733bd9bd058e614000b619b
44th
387
False
How many ranges are part of the Rocky Mountains?
5733bd9bd058e614000b619c
77
590
False
Where does the state's name come from?
5733f0e34776f41900661573
from the Spanish word montaña
103
False
Montana i/mɒnˈtænə/ is a state in the Western region of the United States. The state's name is derived from the Spanish word montaña (mountain). Montana has several nicknames, although none official, including "Big Sky Country" and "The Treasure State", and slogans that include "Land of the Shining Mountains" and more recently "The Last Best Place". Montana is ranked 4th in size, but 44th in population and 48th in population density of the 50 United States. The western third of Montana contains numerous mountain ranges. Smaller island ranges are found throughout the state. In total, 77 named ranges are part of the Rocky Mountains.
What year was the state tree selected?
5733d7164776f4190066132e
1908
240
False
When was the state tree actually assigned?
5733d7164776f4190066132f
1949
308
False
What year was the state animal selected?
5733d7164776f41900661330
1981
640
False
What is the state animal of Montana?
5733d7164776f41900661331
grizzly bear
712
False
What is the state fossil
5733d7164776f41900661332
Maiasaura
892
False
Montana schoolchildren played a significant role in selecting several state symbols. The state tree, the ponderosa pine, was selected by Montana schoolchildren as the preferred state tree by an overwhelming majority in a referendum held in 1908. However, the legislature did not designate a state tree until 1949, when the Montana Federation of Garden Clubs, with the support of the state forester, lobbied for formal recognition. Schoolchildren also chose the western meadowlark as the state bird, in a 1930 vote, and the legislature acted to endorse this decision in 1931. Similarly, the secretary of state sponsored a children's vote in 1981 to choose a state animal, and after 74 animals were nominated, the grizzly bear won over the elk by a 2–1 margin. The students of Livingston started a statewide school petition drive plus lobbied the governor and the state legislature to name the Maiasaura as the state fossil in 1985.
When was the state song composed?
5733d7fd4776f41900661342
1910
140
False
The state song was not composed until 21 years after statehood, when a musical troupe led by Joseph E. Howard stopped in Butte in September 1910. A former member of the troupe who lived in Butte buttonholed Howard at an after-show party, asking him to compose a song about Montana and got another partygoer, the city editor for the Butte Miner newspaper, Charles C. Cohan, to help. The two men worked up a basic melody and lyrics in about a half-hour for the entertainment of party guests, then finished the song later that evening, with an arrangement worked up the following day. Upon arriving in Helena, Howard's troupe performed 12 encores of the new song to an enthusiastic audience and the governor proclaimed it the state song on the spot, though formal legislative recognition did not occur until 1945. Montana is one of only three states to have a "state ballad", "Montana Melody", chosen by the legislature in 1983. Montana was the first state to also adopt a State Lullaby.
What is Montana's motto?
5733d858d058e614000b63c7
Oro y Plata
17
False
What does Montana's motto mean?
5733d858d058e614000b63c8
"Gold and Silver"
42
False
When was the motto adopted?
5733d858d058e614000b63c9
1865
126
False
WHen was the state flower adopted?
5733d858d058e614000b63ca
1895
590
False
What is the state flower for Montana?
5733d858d058e614000b63cb
bitterroot
737
False
Montana's motto, Oro y Plata, Spanish for "Gold and Silver", recognizing the significant role of mining, was first adopted in 1865, when Montana was still a territory. A state seal with a miner's pick and shovel above the motto, surrounded by the mountains and the Great Falls of the Missouri River, was adopted during the first meeting of the territorial legislature in 1864–65. The design was only slightly modified after Montana became a state and adopted it as the Great Seal of the State of Montana, enacted by the legislature in 1893. The state flower, the bitterroot, was adopted in 1895 with the support of a group called the Floral Emblem Association, which formed after Montana's Women's Christian Temperance Union adopted the bitterroot as the organization's state flower. All other symbols were adopted throughout the 20th century, save for Montana's newest symbol, the state butterfly, the mourning cloak, adopted in 2001, and the state lullaby, "Montana Lullaby", adopted in 2007.
How much of the states population does the "Big 7" have?
5733e9864776f419006614cc
35 percent
628
False
The state also has five Micropolitan Statistical Areas centered on Bozeman, Butte, Helena, Kalispell and Havre. These communities, excluding Havre, are colloquially known as the "big 7" Montana cities, as they are consistently the seven largest communities in Montana, with a significant population difference when these communities are compared to those that are 8th and lower on the list. According to the 2010 U.S. Census, the population of Montana's seven most populous cities, in rank order, are Billings, Missoula, Great Falls, Bozeman, Butte, Helena and Kalispell. Based on 2013 census numbers, they collectively contain 35 percent of Montana's population. and the counties containing these communities hold 62 percent of the state's population. The geographic center of population of Montana is located in sparsely populated Meagher County, in the town of White Sulphur Springs.
How many counties does Montana have?
5733eefe4776f4190066154b
56
12
False
What city in Montana has over 100,000 people?
5733eefe4776f4190066154c
Billings
287
False
What two cities have a population over 50,000?
5733eefe4776f4190066154d
Missoula and Great Falls
374
False
Montana has 56 counties with the United States Census Bureau stating Montana's contains 364 "places", broken down into 129 incorporated places and 235 census-designated places. Incorporated places consist of 52 cities, 75 towns, and two consolidated city-counties. Montana has one city, Billings, with a population over 100,000; and two cities with populations over 50,000, Missoula and Great Falls. These three communities are considered the centers of Montana's three Metropolitan Statistical Areas.
Where does the state's name mean?
5733f18ad058e614000b6643
"mountain"
62
False
What did the Spanish call this region?
5733f18ad058e614000b6644
Montaña del Norte
114
False
The name Montana comes from the Spanish word Montaña, meaning "mountain", or more broadly, "mountainous country". Montaña del Norte was the name given by early Spanish explorers to the entire mountainous region of the west. The name Montana was added to a bill by the United States House Committee on Territories, which was chaired at the time by Rep. James Ashley of Ohio, for the territory that would become Idaho Territory. The name was successfully changed by Representatives Henry Wilson (Massachusetts) and Benjamin F. Harding (Oregon), who complained that Montana had "no meaning". When Ashley presented a bill to establish a temporary government in 1864 for a new territory to be carved out of Idaho, he again chose Montana Territory. This time Rep. Samuel Cox, also of Ohio, objected to the name. Cox complained that the name was a misnomer given that most of the territory was not mountainous and that a Native American name would be more appropriate than a Spanish one. Other names such as Shoshone were suggested, but it was eventually decided that the Committee on Territories could name it whatever they wanted, so the original name of Montana was adopted.
What is the total area of Montana?
5733f5d34776f419006615bb
147,040 square miles
21
False
What state does Montana border to the south?
5733f5d34776f419006615bc
Wyoming
502
False
What state does it border to the west?
5733f5d34776f419006615bd
Idaho
527
False
With a total area of 147,040 square miles (380,800 km2), Montana is slightly larger than Japan. It is the fourth largest state in the United States after Alaska, Texas, and California; the largest landlocked U.S. state; and the 56th largest national state/province subdivision in the world. To the north, Montana shares a 545-mile (877 km) border with three Canadian provinces: British Columbia, Alberta, and Saskatchewan, the only state to do so. It borders North Dakota and South Dakota to the east, Wyoming to the south and Idaho to the west and southwest.
Where are most of the states mountain ranges?
573408fed058e614000b6835
western half of the state
224
False
How much of the state is prarie?
573408fed058e614000b6836
About 60 percent
697
False
The topography of the state is roughly defined by the Continental Divide, which splits much of the state into distinct eastern and western regions. Most of Montana's 100 or more named mountain ranges are concentrated in the western half of the state, most of which is geologically and geographically part of the Northern Rocky Mountains. The Absaroka and Beartooth ranges in the south-central part of the state are technically part of the Central Rocky Mountains. The Rocky Mountain Front is a significant feature in the north-central portion of the state, and there are a number of isolated island ranges that interrupt the prairie landscape common in the central and eastern parts of the state. About 60 percent of the state is prairie, part of the northern Great Plains.
Which direction do the rivers flow near the Triple Divide Peak?
573409bed058e614000b6839
north
485
False
Where does the Saskatchewan River empty into?
573409bed058e614000b683a
Hudson Bay.
583
False
The northern section of the Divide, where the mountains give way rapidly to prairie, is part of the Rocky Mountain Front. The front is most pronounced in the Lewis Range, located primarily in Glacier National Park. Due to the configuration of mountain ranges in Glacier National Park, the Northern Divide (which begins in Alaska's Seward Peninsula) crosses this region and turns east in Montana at Triple Divide Peak. It causes the Waterton River, Belly, and Saint Mary rivers to flow north into Alberta, Canada. There they join the Saskatchewan River, which ultimately empties into Hudson Bay.
How high is the Beartooth Plateau?
57340a0dd058e614000b6851
over 10,000 feet
261
False
What is thie highest point in the state?
57340a0dd058e614000b6852
Granite Peak
371
False
How high is Granite Peak?
57340a0dd058e614000b6853
12,799 feet
385
False
East of the divide, several roughly parallel ranges cover the southern part of the state, including the Gravelly Range, the Madison Range, Gallatin Range, Absaroka Mountains and the Beartooth Mountains. The Beartooth Plateau is the largest continuous land mass over 10,000 feet (3,000 m) high in the continental United States. It contains the highest point in the state, Granite Peak, 12,799 feet (3,901 m) high. North of these ranges are the Big Belt Mountains, Bridger Mountains, Tobacco Roots, and several island ranges, including the Crazy Mountains and Little Belt Mountains.
How many seats do Democrats hold in the state US Senate's seats?
57340bdf4776f419006617a3
one
119
False
How long has the single congressional district been Republican?
57340bdf4776f419006617a4
1996
349
False
What is the split in the state Senate controller by the Republicans?
57340bdf4776f419006617a5
29 to 21
675
False
What is the split in the State House of Representatives?
57340bdf4776f419006617a6
59 to 41.
727
False
However, at the state level, the pattern of split ticket voting and divided government holds. Democrats currently hold one of the state's U.S. Senate seats, as well as four of the five statewide offices (Governor, Superintendent of Public Instruction, Secretary of State and State Auditor). The lone congressional district has been Republican since 1996 and in 2014 Steve Daines won one of the state's Senate seats for the GOP. The Legislative branch had split party control between the house and senate most years between 2004 and 2010, when the mid-term elections returned both branches to Republican control. The state Senate is, as of 2015, controlled by the Republicans 29 to 21, and the State House of Representatives at 59 to 41.
In elections, what is Montana considered?
57341184d058e614000b68da
a swing state
58
False
What year was the last Democrat for president supported?
57341184d058e614000b68db
1992
233
False
How often has Montana voted for a Democratic governor?
57341184d058e614000b68dc
60 percent
347
False
How often does Montana voted for a Democratic president?
57341184d058e614000b68dd
40 percent
396
False
In presidential elections, Montana was long classified as a swing state, though the state has voted for the Republican candidate in all but two elections from 1952 to the present. The state last supported a Democrat for president in 1992, when Bill Clinton won a plurality victory. Overall, since 1889 the state has voted for Democratic governors 60 percent of the time and Democratic presidents 40 percent of the time, with these numbers being 40/60 for Republican candidates. In the 2008 presidential election, Montana was considered a swing state and was ultimately won by Republican John McCain, albeit by a narrow margin of two percent.
What is the name of the busiest airport in Montana?
573412ebd058e614000b68f0
Bozeman Yellowstone International Airport
0
False
When did Bozeman Airport surpass Billings Logan as the largest busiest in Montana?
573412ebd058e614000b68f1
2013
155
False
Bozeman Yellowstone International Airport is the busiest airport in the state of Montana, surpassing Billings Logan International Airport in the spring of 2013. Montana's other major Airports include Billings Logan International Airport, Missoula International Airport, Great Falls International Airport, Glacier Park International Airport, Helena Regional Airport, Bert Mooney Airport and Yellowstone Airport. Eight smaller communities have airports designated for commercial service under the Essential Air Service program.
What is the states largest railway?
573413594776f41900661803
BNSF Railway
263
False
How long have railroads been important since in Montana
573413594776f41900661804
1880s
79
False
Railroads have been an important method of transportation in Montana since the 1880s. Historically, the state was traversed by the main lines of three east-west transcontinental routes: the Milwaukee Road, the Great Northern, and the Northern Pacific. Today, the BNSF Railway is the state's largest railroad, its main transcontinental route incorporating the former Great Northern main line across the state. Montana RailLink, a privately held Class II railroad, operates former Northern Pacific trackage in western Montana.
What is the name of the big game hunting foundation in Montana?
573414644776f4190066180d
Rocky Mountain Elk Foundation
23
False
What season is black bear hunting allowed?
573414644776f4190066180e
spring
311
False
What two predators can be hunted in specific numbers?
573414644776f4190066180f
wolves and mountain lions
510
False
Montana is home to the Rocky Mountain Elk Foundation and has a historic big game hunting tradition. There are fall bow and general hunting seasons for elk, pronghorn antelope, whitetail deer and mule deer. A random draw grants a limited number of permits for moose, mountain goats and bighorn sheep. There is a spring hunting season for black bear and in most years, limited hunting of bison that leave Yellowstone National Park is allowed. Current law allows both hunting and trapping of a specific number of wolves and mountain lions. Trapping of assorted fur bearing animals is allowed in certain seasons and many opportunities exist for migratory waterfowl and upland bird hunting.
Since when has Montana been a destination for trout fisheries?
57341539d058e614000b6906
1930s
77
False
What fishing organization has its home here?
57341539d058e614000b6907
Federation of Fly Fishers
259
False
What type of fisheries does the state have?
57341539d058e614000b6908
trout and kokanee salmon fisheries
378
False
What Robert Redford movie was shot here in 1002?
57341539d058e614000b6909
A River Runs Through It
671
False
Montana has been a destination for its world-class trout fisheries since the 1930s. Fly fishing for several species of native and introduced trout in rivers and lakes is popular for both residents and tourists throughout the state. Montana is the home of the Federation of Fly Fishers and hosts many of the organizations annual conclaves. The state has robust recreational lake trout and kokanee salmon fisheries in the west, walleye can be found in many parts of the state, while northern pike, smallmouth and largemouth bass fisheries as well as catfish and paddlefish can be found in the waters of eastern Montana. Robert Redford's 1992 film of Norman Mclean's novel, A River Runs Through It, was filmed in Montana and brought national attention to fly fishing and the state.
When was the Montana Territory formed?
5734161dd058e614000b690e
April 26, 1864
36
False
When was the first formal school on record?
5734161dd058e614000b690f
1862
369
False
How much were students charged per week?
5734161dd058e614000b6910
$1.75
696
False
When did the first public school in Virginia City formed?
5734161dd058e614000b6911
1886
1044
False
The Montana Territory was formed on April 26, 1864, when the U.S. passed the Organic Act. Schools started forming in the area before it was officially a territory as families started settling into the area. The first schools were subscription schools that typically held in the teacher's home. The first formal school on record was at Fort Owen in Bitterroot valley in 1862. The students were Indian children and the children of Fort Owen employees. The first school term started in early winter and only lasted until February 28. Classes were taught by Mr. Robinson. Another early subscription school was started by Thomas Dimsdale in Virginia City in 1863. In this school students were charged $1.75 per week. The Montana Territorial Legislative Assembly had its inaugural meeting in 1864. The first legislature authorized counties to levy taxes for schools, which set the foundations for public schooling. Madison County was the first to take advantage of the newly authorized taxes and it formed fhe first public school in Virginia City in 1886. The first school year was scheduled to begin in January 1866, but severe weather postponed its opening until March. The first school year ran through the summer and didn't end until August 17. One of the first teachers at the school was Sarah Raymond. She was a 25-year-old woman who had traveled to Virginia City via wagon train in 1865. To become a certified teacher, Raymond took a test in her home and paid a $6 fee in gold dust to obtain a teaching certificate. With the help of an assistant teacher, Mrs. Farley, Raymond was responsible for teaching 50 to 60 students each day out of the 81 students enrolled at the school. Sarah Raymond was paid at a rate of $125 per month, and Mrs. Farley was paid $75 per month. There were no textbooks used in the school. In their place was an assortment of books brought in by various emigrants. Sarah quit teaching the following year, but would later become the Madison County superintendent of schools.
How many miles of rivers are known for high class trout?
573416974776f41900661835
450
55
False
What Bay do rivers from Montana feed?
573416974776f41900661836
Hudson Bay
466
False
Where do the watersheds divide at?
573416974776f41900661837
Triple Divide Peak in Glacier National Park.
503
False
What ocean do rivers flow into from Montana?
573416974776f41900661838
Pacific Ocean
427
False
Montana contains thousands of named rivers and creeks, 450 miles (720 km) of which are known for "blue-ribbon" trout fishing. Montana's water resources provide for recreation, hydropower, crop and forage irrigation, mining, and water for human consumption. Montana is one of few geographic areas in the world whose rivers form parts of three major watersheds (i.e. where two continental divides intersect). Its rivers feed the Pacific Ocean, the Gulf of Mexico, and Hudson Bay. The watersheds divide at Triple Divide Peak in Glacier National Park.
What rivers form the Missouri River?
5734173b4776f4190066184f
Jefferson, Madison and Gallatin rivers
80
False
Near where do the rivers form up for the Missouri river merging?
5734173b4776f41900661850
Three Forks
124
False
Which direction does the water flow in this area?
5734173b4776f41900661851
north
147
False
Which year was the Fort Peck Reservoir designated a National Scenic River?
5734173b4776f41900661852
1976
512
False
East of the divide the Missouri River, which is formed by the confluence of the Jefferson, Madison and Gallatin rivers near Three Forks, flows due north through the west-central part of the state to Great Falls. From this point, it then flows generally east through fairly flat agricultural land and the Missouri Breaks to Fort Peck reservoir. The stretch of river between Fort Benton and the Fred Robinson Bridge at the western boundary of Fort Peck Reservoir was designated a National Wild and Scenic River in 1976. The Missouri enters North Dakota near Fort Union, having drained more than half the land area of Montana (82,000 square miles (210,000 km2)). Nearly one-third of the Missouri River in Montana lies behind 10 dams: Toston, Canyon Ferry, Hauser, Holter, Black Eagle, Rainbow, Cochrane, Ryan, Morony, and Fort Peck.
Which direction does the Yellowstone River flow through the national park?
57341835d058e614000b693e
north
111
False
Where does the Yellowstone meet the Missouri river?
57341835d058e614000b693f
North Dakota
371
False
The Yellowstone River rises on the continental divide near Younts Peak in Wyoming's Teton Wilderness. It flows north through Yellowstone National Park, enters Montana near Gardiner, and passes through the Paradise Valley to Livingston. It then flows northeasterly across the state through Billings, Miles City, Glendive, and Sidney. The Yellowstone joins the Missouri in North Dakota just east of Fort Union. It is the longest undammed, free-flowing river in the contiguous United States, and drains about a quarter of Montana (36,000 square miles (93,000 km2)).
How many named lakes are there in Montana?
5734192ad058e614000b6942
at least 3,223
10
False
What is the name of the largest freshwater lake in western United States?
5734192ad058e614000b6943
Flathead Lake
74
False
What is the name of the largest reservoir in the state?
5734192ad058e614000b6944
Fort Peck Reservoir
319
False
What river is the Fort Peck Reservoir on?
5734192ad058e614000b6945
Missouri river
346
False
There are at least 3,223 named lakes and reservoirs in Montana, including Flathead Lake, the largest natural freshwater lake in the western United States. Other major lakes include Whitefish Lake in the Flathead Valley and Lake McDonald and St. Mary Lake in Glacier National Park. The largest reservoir in the state is Fort Peck Reservoir on the Missouri river, which is contained by the second largest earthen dam and largest hydraulically filled dam in the world. Other major reservoirs include Hungry Horse on the Flathead River; Lake Koocanusa on the Kootenai River; Lake Elwell on the Marias River; Clark Canyon on the Beaverhead River; Yellowtail on the Bighorn River, Canyon Ferry, Hauser, Holter, Rainbow; and Black Eagle on the Missouri River.
About how much area do forests cover the state?
573419714776f41900661871
approximately 25 percent
196
False
Vegetation of the state includes lodgepole pine, ponderosa pine; Douglas fir, larch, spruce; aspen, birch, red cedar, hemlock, ash, alder; rocky mountain maple and cottonwood trees. Forests cover approximately 25 percent of the state. Flowers native to Montana include asters, bitterroots, daisies, lupins, poppies, primroses, columbine, lilies, orchids, and dryads. Several species of sagebrush and cactus and many species of grasses are common. Many species of mushrooms and lichens are also found in the state.
How many different types of fish are diverse to Montana?
57341b484776f41900661885
90
72
False
What type of bear does Montana have the highest population of?
57341b484776f41900661886
grizzly bear
251
False
How many endangered species are in Montana?
57341b484776f41900661887
five
313
False
How many species of game fish have hunting seasons?
57341b484776f41900661888
at least 17
609
False
Montana is home to a diverse array of fauna that includes 14 amphibian, 90 fish, 117 mammal, 20 reptile and 427 bird species. Additionally, there are over 10,000 invertebrate species, including 180 mollusks and 30 crustaceans. Montana has the largest grizzly bear population in the lower 48 states. Montana hosts five federally endangered species–black-footed ferret, whooping crane, least tern, pallid sturgeon and white sturgeon and seven threatened species including the grizzly bear, Canadian lynx and bull trout. The Montana Department of Fish, Wildlife and Parks manages fishing and hunting seasons for at least 17 species of game fish including seven species of trout, walleye and smallmouth bass and at least 29 species of game birds and animals including ring-neck pheasant, grey partridge, elk, pronghorn antelope, mule deer, whitetail deer, gray wolf and bighorn sheep.
What is the annual precipitation?
57341c46d058e614000b6954
15 inches
32
False
How much precipitation does Heron recieve?
57341c46d058e614000b6955
34.70 inches
265
False
How much precipitation does the  Grinnell Glacier recieve?
57341c46d058e614000b6956
105 inches
591
False
Average annual precipitation is 15 inches (380 mm), but great variations are seen. The mountain ranges block the moist Pacific air, holding moisture in the western valleys, and creating rain shadows to the east. Heron, in the west, receives the most precipitation, 34.70 inches (881 mm). On the eastern (leeward) side of a mountain range, the valleys are much drier; Lonepine averages 11.45 inches (291 mm), and Deer Lodge 11.00 inches (279 mm) of precipitation. The mountains themselves can receive over 100 inches (2,500 mm), for example the Grinnell Glacier in Glacier National Park gets 105 inches (2,700 mm). An area southwest of Belfry averaged only 6.59 inches (167 mm) over a sixteen-year period. Most of the larger cities get 30 to 50 inches or 0.76 to 1.27 metres of snow each year. Mountain ranges themselves can accumulate 300 inches or 7.62 metres of snow during a winter. Heavy snowstorms may occur any time from September through May, though most snow falls from November to March.
How many tax brackets does Montana have?
57341cf4d058e614000b6964
7
39
False
What is the highest tax bracket in Montana?
57341cf4d058e614000b6965
6.9 percent
88
False
Does Montana have a sales tax?
57341cf4d058e614000b6966
no
113
False
Montana's personal income tax contains 7 brackets, with rates ranging from 1 percent to 6.9 percent. Montana has no sales tax. In Montana, household goods are exempt from property taxes. However, property taxes are assessed on livestock, farm machinery, heavy equipment, automobiles, trucks, and business equipment. The amount of property tax owed is not determined solely by the property's value. The property's value is multiplied by a tax rate, set by the Montana Legislature, to determine its taxable value. The taxable value is then multiplied by the mill levy established by various taxing jurisdictions—city and county government, school districts and others.
About how many Native Americans live in Montana?
57341d964776f419006618b3
Approximately 66,000
0
False
When was the Indian Appropriations Act passed?
57341d964776f419006618b4
1851
171
False
What year was the Dawes act passed?
57341d964776f419006618b5
1887
193
False
Where are the Little Shell Chippewa headquartered?
57341d964776f419006618b6
Great Falls
414
False
About what percentage of the Native Americans in Montana live off the reservation?
57341d964776f419006618b7
63%
1101
False
Approximately 66,000 people of Native American heritage live in Montana. Stemming from multiple treaties and federal legislation, including the Indian Appropriations Act (1851), the Dawes Act (1887), and the Indian Reorganization Act (1934), seven Indian reservations, encompassing eleven tribal nations, were created in Montana. A twelfth nation, the Little Shell Chippewa is a "landless" people headquartered in Great Falls, recognized by the state of Montana but not by the U.S. Government. The Blackfeet nation is headquartered on the Blackfeet Indian Reservation (1851) in Browning, Crow on the Crow Indian Reservation (1851) in Crow Agency, Confederated Salish and Kootenai and Pend d'Oreille on the Flathead Indian Reservation (1855) in Pablo, Northern Cheyenne on the Northern Cheyenne Indian Reservation (1884) at Lame Deer, Assiniboine and Gros Ventre on the Fort Belknap Indian Reservation (1888) in Fort Belknap Agency, Assiniboine and Sioux on the Fort Peck Indian Reservation (1888) at Poplar, and Chippewa-Cree on the Rocky Boy's Indian Reservation (1916) near Box Elder. Approximately 63% of all Native people live off the reservations, concentrated in the larger Montana cities with the largest concentration of urban Indians in Great Falls. The state also has a small Métis population, and 1990 census data indicated that people from as many as 275 different tribes lived in Montana.
What is the largest European-American race in Montana?
57341fc9d058e614000b6974
German
69
False
What was Helena originally founded as?
57341fc9d058e614000b6975
a mining camp
688
False
While the largest European-American population in Montana overall is German, pockets of significant Scandinavian ancestry are prevalent in some of the farming-dominated northern and eastern prairie regions, parallel to nearby regions of North Dakota and Minnesota. Farmers of Irish, Scots, and English roots also settled in Montana. The historically mining-oriented communities of western Montana such as Butte have a wider range of European-American ethnicity; Finns, Eastern Europeans and especially Irish settlers left an indelible mark on the area, as well as people originally from British mining regions such as Cornwall, Devon and Wales. The nearby city of Helena, also founded as a mining camp, had a similar mix in addition to a small Chinatown. Many of Montana's historic logging communities originally attracted people of Scottish, Scandinavian, Slavic, English and Scots-Irish descent.[citation needed]
What percentage of the population in Montana are Native peoples?
5734205b4776f419006618e7
6.5 percent
261
False
What three counties are Native Americans a majority?
5734205b4776f419006618e8
Big Horn, Glacier, and Roosevelt
422
False
Between what years did the Native population increase by 27.9%
5734205b4776f419006618e9
1980 and 1990
645
False
Montana has a larger Native American population numerically and percentage-wise than most U.S. states. Although the state ranked 45th in population (according to the 2010 U.S. Census), it ranked 19th in total native people population. Native people constituted 6.5 percent of the state's total population, the sixth highest percentage of all 50 states. Montana has three counties in which Native Americans are a majority: Big Horn, Glacier, and Roosevelt. Other counties with large Native American populations include Blaine, Cascade, Hill, Missoula, and Yellowstone counties. The state's Native American population grew by 27.9 percent between 1980 and 1990 (at a time when Montana's entire population rose just 1.6 percent), and by 18.5 percent between 2000 and 2010. As of 2009, almost two-thirds of Native Americans in the state live in urban areas. Of Montana's 20 largest cities, Polson (15.7 percent), Havre (13.0 percent), Great Falls (5.0 percent), Billings (4.4 percent), and Anaconda (3.1 percent) had the greatest percentage of Native American residents in 2010. Billings (4,619), Great Falls (2,942), Missoula (1,838), Havre (1,210), and Polson (706) have the most Native Americans living there. The state's seven reservations include more than twelve distinct Native American ethnolinguistic groups.
In what year did many cities in Montana set heat records?
573420e34776f419006618ed
2007
225
False
What month was the hottest ever recorded?
573420e34776f419006618ee
July
220
False
What problem has substantially increased in its severity?
573420e34776f419006618ef
forest fires
584
False
The climate has become warmer in Montana and continues to do so. The glaciers in Glacier National Park have receded and are predicted to melt away completely in a few decades. Many Montana cities set heat records during July 2007, the hottest month ever recorded in Montana. Winters are warmer, too, and have fewer cold spells. Previously these cold spells had killed off bark beetles which are now attacking the forests of western Montana. The combination of warmer weather, attack by beetles, and mismanagement during past years has led to a substantial increase in the severity of forest fires in Montana. According to a study done for the U.S. Environmental Protection Agency by the Harvard School of Engineering and Applied Science, portions of Montana will experience a 200-percent increase in area burned by wildfires, and an 80-percent increase in related air pollution.
What year was the Hellgate treaty formed?
5734215f4776f419006618fb
1855
162
False
Who negotiated the Hellgate treaty?
5734215f4776f419006618fc
Isaac Stevens
200
False
What year was the treaty ratified?
5734215f4776f419006618fd
1859
438
False
What did the treaty establish?
5734215f4776f419006618fe
Flathead Indian Reservation
495
False
As white settlers began populating Montana from the 1850s through the 1870s, disputes with Native Americans ensued, primarily over land ownership and control. In 1855, Washington Territorial Governor Isaac Stevens negotiated the Hellgate treaty between the United States Government and the Salish, Pend d'Oreille, and the Kootenai people of western Montana, which established boundaries for the tribal nations. The treaty was ratified in 1859. While the treaty established what later became the Flathead Indian Reservation, trouble with interpreters and confusion over the terms of the treaty led whites to believe that the Bitterroot Valley was opened to settlement, but the tribal nations disputed those provisions. The Salish remained in the Bitterroot Valley until 1891.
What was the name of the first US Army post?
573421c4d058e614000b69aa
Camp Cooke
52
False
Where was Camp Cooke situated?
573421c4d058e614000b69ab
on the Missouri River
63
False
What year was the Great Sioux War?
573421c4d058e614000b69ac
1876
442
False
What year did the Battle of Bear Paw happen?
573421c4d058e614000b69ad
1877
656
False
The first U.S. Army post established in Montana was Camp Cooke on the Missouri River in 1866 to protect steamboat traffic going to Fort Benton, Montana. More than a dozen additional military outposts were established in the state. Pressure over land ownership and control increased due to discoveries of gold in various parts of Montana and surrounding states. Major battles occurred in Montana during Red Cloud's War, the Great Sioux War of 1876, the Nez Perce War and in conflicts with Piegan Blackfeet. The most notable of these were the Marias Massacre (1870), Battle of the Little Bighorn (1876), Battle of the Big Hole (1877) and Battle of Bear Paw (1877). The last recorded conflict in Montana between the U.S. Army and Native Americans occurred in 1887 during the Battle of Crow Agency in the Big Horn country. Indian survivors who had signed treaties were generally required to move onto reservations.
What is the official language of Montana?
5734227dd058e614000b69bc
English
0
False
What percentage of the population in Montana speak English?
5734227dd058e614000b69bd
94.8 percent
169
False
What is the second most common language spoken in Montana?
5734227dd058e614000b69be
Spanish
240
False
How about many Spanish speakers are there in the state?
5734227dd058e614000b69bf
13,040
330
False
ABout how many people in the state of Montana speak Cheyenne?
5734227dd058e614000b69c0
about 1,700
838
False
English is the official language in the state of Montana, as it is in many U.S. states. English is also the language of the majority. According to the 2000 U.S. Census, 94.8 percent of the population aged 5 and older speak English at home. Spanish is the language most commonly spoken at home other than English. There were about 13,040 Spanish-language speakers in the state (1.4 percent of the population) in 2011. There were also 15,438 (1.7 percent of the state population) speakers of Indo-European languages other than English or Spanish, 10,154 (1.1 percent) speakers of a Native American language, and 4,052 (0.4 percent) speakers of an Asian or Pacific Islander language. Other languages spoken in Montana (as of 2013) include Assiniboine (about 150 speakers in the Montana and Canada), Blackfoot (about 100 speakers), Cheyenne (about 1,700 speakers), Plains Cree (about 100 speakers), Crow (about 3,000 speakers), Dakota (about 18,800 speakers in Minnesota, Montana, Nebraska, North Dakota, and South Dakota), German Hutterite (about 5,600 speakers), Gros Ventre (about 10 speakers), Kalispel-Pend d'Oreille (about 64 speakers), Kutenai (about 6 speakers), and Lakota (about 6,000 speakers in Minnesota, Montana, Nebraska, North Dakota, South Dakota). The United States Department of Education estimated in 2009 that 5,274 students in Montana spoke a language at home other than English. These included a Native American language (64 percent), German (4 percent), Spanish (3 percent), Russian (1 percent), and Chinese (less than 0.5 percent).
What percent of the state is White?
573422e44776f41900661927
89.4 percent
30
False
What percent of the state is Native American Indian?
573422e44776f41900661928
6.3 percent
106
False
Hispanics account for what percentage of Monatanas population?
573422e44776f41900661929
2.9
153
False
According to the 2010 Census, 89.4 percent of the population was White (87.8 percent Non-Hispanic White), 6.3 percent American Indian and Alaska Native, 2.9 percent Hispanics and Latinos of any race, 0.6 percent Asian, 0.4 percent Black or African American, 0.1 percent Native Hawaiian and Other Pacific Islander, 0.6 percent from Some Other Race, and 2.5 percent from two or more races. The largest European ancestry groups in Montana as of 2010 are: German (27.0 percent), Irish (14.8 percent), English (12.6 percent), Norwegian (10.9 percent), French (4.7 percent) and Italian (3.4 percent).
What was the population of the state in 2015?
573424434776f41900661941
1,032,949
77
False
How much did the population increase since 2010?
573424434776f41900661942
4.40%
106
False
What county saw the largest growth?
573424434776f41900661943
Gallatin County
428
False
What city saw the largest growth?
573424434776f41900661944
Kalispell
561
False
The United States Census Bureau estimates that the population of Montana was 1,032,949 on July 1, 2015, a 4.40% increase since the 2010 United States Census. The 2010 census put Montana's population at 989,415 which is an increase of 43,534 people, or 4.40 percent, since 2010. During the first decade of the new century, growth was mainly concentrated in Montana's seven largest counties, with the highest percentage growth in Gallatin County, which saw a 32 percent increase in its population from 2000-2010. The city seeing the largest percentage growth was Kalispell with 40.1 percent, and the city with the largest increase in actual residents was Billings with an increase in population of 14,323 from 2000-2010.
What year was Jeannette Rankin vote against war the first time?
573424d74776f41900661949
1917
94
False
When did she vote a second time against war?
573424d74776f4190066194a
1941
74
False
What were conscientious objectors sent to Montana to do?
573424d74776f4190066194b
smokejumpers and for other forest fire-fighting duties.
504
False
In 1940, Jeannette Rankin had once again been elected to Congress, and in 1941, as she did in 1917, she voted against the United States' declaration of war. This time she was the only vote against the war, and in the wake of public outcry over her vote, she required police protection for a time. Other pacifists tended to be those from "peace churches" who generally opposed war. Many individuals from throughout the U.S. who claimed conscientious objector status were sent to Montana during the war as smokejumpers and for other forest fire-fighting duties.
About how many bison were in Montana in 1870?
573425624776f41900661959
over 13 million
195
False
In 1884 about how many bison remained?
573425624776f4190066195a
about 325
484
False
Who pleaded to Congress for slaughtering bison?
573425624776f4190066195b
General Philip Sheridan
246
False
What year did General Sheridan approach Congress about killing bison?
573425624776f4190066195c
1875
240
False
Simultaneously with these conflicts, bison, a keystone species and the primary protein source that Native people had survived on for centuries were being destroyed. Some estimates say there were over 13 million bison in Montana in 1870. In 1875, General Philip Sheridan pleaded to a joint session of Congress to authorize the slaughtering of herds in order to deprive the Indians of their source of food. By 1884, commercial hunting had brought bison to the verge of extinction; only about 325 bison remained in the entire United States.
When did the Northern Pacific Railroad reach Montana from the west?
573425f84776f41900661969
1881
79
False
When did the Northern Pacific Railroad reach Montana from the east?
573425f84776f4190066196a
1882
105
False
What years were the railroad challenged by Chief Sitting Bull?
573425f84776f4190066196b
1871, 1872 and 1873
299
False
What year was the Great White Sioux War?
573425f84776f4190066196c
1876
572
False
When was the transcontinental National Pacific Railroad finished?
573425f84776f4190066196d
1883
633
False
Tracks of the Northern Pacific Railroad (NPR) reached Montana from the west in 1881 and from the east in 1882. However, the railroad played a major role in sparking tensions with Native American tribes in the 1870s. Jay Cooke, the NPR president launched major surveys into the Yellowstone valley in 1871, 1872 and 1873 which were challenged forcefully by the Sioux under chief Sitting Bull. These clashes, in part, contributed to the Panic of 1873 which delayed construction of the railroad into Montana. Surveys in 1874, 1875 and 1876 helped spark the Great Sioux War of 1876. The transcontinental NPR was completed on September 8, 1883, at Gold Creek.
When was the first constitutional convention held in Montana?
573426864776f4190066197d
1866
89
False
Why was this constitutional convention held?
573426864776f4190066197e
bid for statehood
106
False
When was the second constitutional convention held?
573426864776f4190066197f
1884
261
False
What year was Montana's statehood approved?
573426864776f41900661980
1889
393
False
What other three states were approved in the same year?
573426864776f41900661981
North Dakota, South Dakota and Washington
483
False
Under Territorial Governor Thomas Meagher, Montanans held a constitutional convention in 1866 in a failed bid for statehood. A second constitutional convention was held in Helena in 1884 that produced a constitution ratified 3:1 by Montana citizens in November 1884. For political reasons, Congress did not approve Montana statehood until 1889. Congress approved Montana statehood in February 1889 and President Grover Cleveland signed an omnibus bill granting statehood to Montana, North Dakota, South Dakota and Washington once the appropriate state constitutions were crafted. In July 1889, Montanans convened their third constitutional convention and produced a constitution acceptable by the people and the federal government. On November 8, 1889 President Benjamin Harrison proclaimed Montana the forty-first state in the union. The first state governor was Joseph K. Toole. In the 1880s, Helena (the current state capital) had more millionaires per capita than any other United States city.
What year did the Homestead Act provide land to settlers?
573426e6d058e614000b6a20
1862
21
False
How much land did the Homestead Act allow?
573426e6d058e614000b6a21
160 acres
88
False
What year was the first homestead claim claimed?
573426e6d058e614000b6a22
1868
410
False
The Homestead Act of 1862 provided free land to settlers who could claim and "prove-up" 160 acres (0.65 km2) of federal land in the midwest and western United States. Montana did not see a large influx of immigrants from this act because 160 acres was usually insufficient to support a family in the arid territory. The first homestead claim under the act in Montana was made by David Carpenter near Helena in 1868. The first claim by a woman was made near Warm Springs Creek by Miss Gwenllian Evans, the daughter of Deer Lodge Montana Pioneer, Morgan Evans. By 1880, there were farms in the more verdant valleys of central and western Montana, but few on the eastern plains.
When was the Desert Land Act passed?
57342785d058e614000b6a2e
1877
23
False
How much land did the Desert Land Act allot?
57342785d058e614000b6a2f
640 acres
98
False
How much was the charge per acre at first?
57342785d058e614000b6a30
$.25
143
False
The Desert Land Act of 1877 was passed to allow settlement of arid lands in the west and allotted 640 acres (2.6 km2) to settlers for a fee of $.25 per acre and a promise to irrigate the land. After three years, a fee of one dollar per acre would be paid and the land would be owned by the settler. This act brought mostly cattle and sheep ranchers into Montana, many of whom grazed their herds on the Montana prairie for three years, did little to irrigate the land and then abandoned it without paying the final fees. Some farmers came with the arrival of the Great Northern and Northern Pacific Railroads throughout the 1880s and 1890s, though in relatively small numbers.
Who promoted settlement in Montana in the early 1900s
57342802d058e614000b6a40
James J. Hill
20
False
In what year was the Reclamation Act passed?
57342802d058e614000b6a41
1902
184
False
What year was the Enlarged Homestead Act passed?
57342802d058e614000b6a42
1909
302
False
How much land was alloted in the new Enlarged Homestead Act?
57342802d058e614000b6a43
320 acres
401
False
In the early 1900s, James J. Hill of the Great Northern began promoting settlement in the Montana prairie to fill his trains with settlers and goods. Other railroads followed suit. In 1902, the Reclamation Act was passed, allowing irrigation projects to be built in Montana's eastern river valleys. In 1909, Congress passed the Enlarged Homestead Act that expanded the amount of free land from 160 to 320 acres (0.6 to 1.3 km2) per family and in 1912 reduced the time to "prove up" on a claim to three years. In 1916, the Stock-Raising Homestead Act allowed homesteads of 640 acres in areas unsuitable for irrigation.  This combination of advertising and changes in the Homestead Act drew tens of thousands of homesteaders, lured by free land, with World War I bringing particularly high wheat prices. In addition, Montana was going through a temporary period of higher-than-average precipitation. Homesteaders arriving in this period were known as "Honyockers", or "scissorbills." Though the word "honyocker", possibly derived from the ethnic slur "hunyak," was applied in a derisive manner at homesteaders as being "greenhorns", "new at his business" or "unprepared", the reality was that a majority of these new settlers had previous farming experience, though there were also many who did not.
When did Congress pass the Espionage Act?
5734288c4776f419006619bf
1917
60
False
When was the Sedition Act passed?
5734288c4776f419006619c0
1918
113
False
What were these acts make do to laws?
5734288c4776f419006619c1
criminalized criticism of the U.S. government, military, or symbols through speech or other means
289
False
How many people were arrested from the Montana Act?
5734288c4776f419006619c2
200
430
False
How many of the 200 arrested in the Montana Act were convicted?
5734288c4776f419006619c3
78
468
False
In June 1917, the U.S. Congress passed the Espionage Act of 1917 which was later extended by the Sedition Act of 1918, enacted in May 1918. In February 1918, the Montana legislature had passed the Montana Sedition Act, which was a model for the federal version. In combination, these laws criminalized criticism of the U.S. government, military, or symbols through speech or other means. The Montana Act led to the arrest of over 200 individuals and the conviction of 78, mostly of German or Austrian descent. Over 40 spent time in prison. In May 2006, then-Governor Brian Schweitzer posthumously issued full pardons for all those convicted of violating the Montana Sedition Act.
How many Montanans entered the miltary in the first year of the war?
5734296dd058e614000b6a6e
40,000-plus
176
False
How many Montanans joined the military in the war total?
5734296dd058e614000b6a6f
over 57,000
279
False
About how many Montanans  died in the war?
5734296dd058e614000b6a70
At least 1500
609
False
Who trained at the military grounds in Montana?
5734296dd058e614000b6a71
First Special Service Force or "Devil's Brigade,"
695
False
Where were air bases built in Montana?
5734296dd058e614000b6a72
Great Falls, Lewistown, Cut Bank and Glasgow
926
False
When the U.S. entered World War II on December 8, 1941, many Montanans already had enlisted in the military to escape the poor national economy of the previous decade. Another 40,000-plus Montanans entered the armed forces in the first year following the declaration of war, and over 57,000 joined up before the war ended. These numbers constituted about 10 percent of the state's total population, and Montana again contributed one of the highest numbers of soldiers per capita of any state. Many Native Americans were among those who served, including soldiers from the Crow Nation who became Code Talkers. At least 1500 Montanans died in the war. Montana also was the training ground for the First Special Service Force or "Devil's Brigade," a joint U.S-Canadian commando-style force that trained at Fort William Henry Harrison for experience in mountainous and winter conditions before deployment. Air bases were built in Great Falls, Lewistown, Cut Bank and Glasgow, some of which were used as staging areas to prepare planes to be sent to allied forces in the Soviet Union. During the war, about 30 Japanese balloon bombs were documented to have landed in Montana, though no casualties nor major forest fires were attributed to them.
Punjab,_Pakistan
What does Punjab mean?
5733f55e4776f419006615ab
five waters
40
False
How many provinces does Pakistan have?
5733f55e4776f419006615ac
four
125
False
How large is Punjab?
5733f55e4776f419006615ad
205,344 square kilometres (79,284 square miles)
171
False
What is Punjab's population?
5733f55e4776f419006615ae
91.379.615
239
False
What is Punjab's biggest city?
5733f55e4776f419006615af
Lahore
355
False
91.379.615
239
What is the population of Lahore?
5a68b42b8476ee001a58a76a
True
Kashmir
416
What is the largest city in India?
5a68b42b8476ee001a58a76b
True
205,344 square kilometres (79,284 square miles)
171
What is the area of Pakistan?
5a68b42b8476ee001a58a76c
True
five waters
40
What does Pakistan mean?
5a68b42b8476ee001a58a76d
True
four
125
How many provinces does India have?
5a68b42b8476ee001a58a76e
True
Punjab (Urdu, Punjabi: پنجاب, panj-āb, "five waters":  listen (help·info)), also spelled Panjab, is the most populous of the four provinces of Pakistan. It has an area of 205,344 square kilometres (79,284 square miles) and a population of 91.379.615 in 2011, approximately 56% of the country's total population. Its provincial capital and largest city is Lahore. Punjab is bordered by the Indian states of Jammu and Kashmir to the northeast and Punjab and Rajasthan to the east. In Pakistan it is bordered by Sindh to the south, Balochistān and Khyber Pakhtunkhwa to the west, and Islamabad and Azad Kashmir to the north.
What plain is Punjab in?
5733f6a24776f419006615cf
the alluvial plain of the Indus River
38
False
What are the Indus River's tributaries?
5733f6a24776f419006615d0
the Jhelum, Chenab, Ravi, and Sutlej rivers
120
False
How much of Pakistan's large-scale manufacturing is in Punjab?
5733f6a24776f419006615d1
39.2%
604
False
How much of Pakistan's small-scale manufacturing is in Punjab?
5733f6a24776f419006615d2
70%
643
False
What crops does Punjab grow?
5733f6a24776f419006615d3
wheat and cotton
411
False
four
84
How many mountain regions does Punjab have?
5a68b4e08476ee001a58a774
True
the southwest part of the province
240
Where is the alluvial plain located?
5a68b4e08476ee001a58a775
True
the Jhelum
120
Which tributary is located in the north?
5a68b4e08476ee001a58a776
True
wheat and cotton
411
What is Pakistan's main export?
5a68b4e08476ee001a58a777
True
39.2%
604
What percentage of the large scale manufacturing takes place in Lahore?
5a68b4e08476ee001a58a778
True
Punjab's geography mostly consists of the alluvial plain of the Indus River and its four major tributaries in Pakistan, the Jhelum, Chenab, Ravi, and Sutlej rivers. There are several mountainous regions, including the Sulaiman Mountains in the southwest part of the province, and Margalla Hills, Salt Range, and Pothohar Plateau in the north. Agriculture is the chief source of income and employment in Punjab; wheat and cotton are the principal crops. Since independence, Punjab has become the seat of political and economic power; it remains the most industrialised province of Pakistan. It counts for 39.2% of large scale manufacturing and 70% of small scale manufacturing in the country. Its capital Lahore is a major regional cultural, historical, and economic centre.
How large is Punjab compared to the other three provinces?
5733f8154776f419006615ed
second largest
21
False
What is Pakistan's largest province?
5733f8154776f419006615ee
Balochistan
104
False
How many square miles is Punjab?
5733f8154776f419006615ef
79,284
83
False
What Indian states are on the east side of Punjab, Pakistan?
5733f8154776f419006615f0
Punjab and Rajasthan
331
False
What Pakistani province is south of Punjab?
5733f8154776f419006615f1
Sindh
391
False
205,344 km2 (79,284 sq mi)
70
What is Balochistan's land area?
5a68b5858476ee001a58a77e
True
Kashmir
230
What borders Balochistan to the northeast?
5a68b5858476ee001a58a77f
True
the Indian states of Punjab and Rajasthan
310
What is east of Balochistan?
5a68b5858476ee001a58a780
True
Khyber Pakhtunkhwa
473
What is west of Islamabad?
5a68b5858476ee001a58a781
True
second
21
Where does Islamabad rank in terms of province size in Pakistan?
5a68b5858476ee001a58a782
True
Punjab is Pakistan's second largest province in terms of land area at 205,344 km2 (79,284 sq mi), after Balochistan, and is located at the north western edge of the geologic Indian plate in South Asia. The province is bordered by Kashmir (Azad Kashmir, Pakistan and Jammu and Kashmir, India) to the northeast, the Indian states of Punjab and Rajasthan to the east, the Pakistani province of Sindh to the south, the province of Balochistan to the southwest, the province of Khyber Pakhtunkhwa to the west, and the Islamabad Capital Territory to the north.
Which province in Pakistan borders the other 3 provinces?
5733f899d058e614000b66c5
Punjab
461
False
What is Pakistan's capital?
5733f899d058e614000b66c6
Islamabad
607
False
How many rivers are in Punjab, Pakistan?
5733f899d058e614000b66c7
five
296
False
What is the easternmost river in Punjab?
5733f899d058e614000b66c8
Sutlej
404
False
How much of Pakistan's population lives in Punjab?
5733f899d058e614000b66c9
Nearly 60%
412
False
the wider Punjab region
75
What is Faisalabad the capital of?
5a68b6dd8476ee001a58a79c
True
six
275
How many rivers are in Multan?
5a68b6dd8476ee001a58a79d
True
Nearly 60%
412
What percentage of the Pakistan population resides in Sargodha?
5a68b6dd8476ee001a58a79e
True
Pakistan
426
What does the P in the acronym Punjab represent?
5a68b6dd8476ee001a58a79f
True
Sahiwal
238
What does the S in Pakistan stand for?
5a68b6dd8476ee001a58a7a0
True
The capital and largest city is Lahore which was the historical capital of the wider Punjab region. Other important cities include Faisalabad, Rawalpindi, Gujranwala, Sargodha, Multan, Sialkot, Bahawalpur, Gujrat, Sheikhupura, Jhelum and Sahiwal. Undivided Punjab is home to six rivers, of which five flow through Pakistani Punjab. From west to east, these are: the Indus, Jhelum, Beas, Chenab, Ravi and Sutlej. Nearly 60% of Pakistan's population lives in the Punjab. It is the nation's only province that touches every other province; it also surrounds the federal enclave of the national capital city at Islamabad. In the acronym P-A-K-I-S-T-A-N, the P is for Punjab.
How many departments does the Punjab administration have?
5733f93e4776f41900661601
48
10
False
Who heads each government department?
5733f93e4776f41900661602
a Provincial Minister (Politician) and a Provincial Secretary
76
False
Who do the Provincial Ministers report to?
5733f93e4776f41900661603
the Chief Minister
209
False
Who do the Provincial Secretaries report to?
5733f93e4776f41900661604
the Chief Secretary of Punjab
283
False
What rank is the Chief Secretary?
5733f93e4776f41900661605
usually a BPS-22 Civil Servant
321
False
BPS-22
331
What is the civil servant designation for the Chief Minister?
5a68ba408476ee001a58a7c2
True
The Chief Secretary
353
Who does the Chief Minister report to?
5a68ba408476ee001a58a7c3
True
48
10
What is the number of attached departments that report to secretaries?
5a68ba408476ee001a58a7c4
True
BPS-21
176
What is the rank of a Provincial Minister?
5a68ba408476ee001a58a7c5
True
reports
381
What does the Chief Minister send to the Chief Secretary?
5a68ba408476ee001a58a7c6
True
There are 48 departments in Punjab government. Each Department is headed by a Provincial Minister (Politician) and a Provincial Secretary (A civil servant of usually BPS-20 or BPS-21). All Ministers report to the Chief Minister, who is the Chief Executive. All Secretaries report to the Chief Secretary of Punjab, who is usually a BPS-22 Civil Servant. The Chief Secretary in turn reports to the Chief Minister. In addition to these departments, there are several Autonomous Bodies and Attached Departments that report directly to either the Secretaries or the Chief Secretary.
What was Punjab formerly known as?
5733f9ac4776f4190066160b
Panchanada
45
False
What ancient civilization lived in Punjab?
5733f9ac4776f4190066160c
the Indus Valley Civilization
76
False
When was Punjab part of the Indus Valley Civilization?
5733f9ac4776f4190066160d
more than 4000 years ago
107
False
What was the major Indus city in Punjab?
5733f9ac4776f4190066160e
Harrapa
173
False
What were bricks taken from Harrapa for the construction of?
5733f9ac4776f4190066160f
the Lahore-Multan railroad
557
False
Mahabharata
14
What was Panchanada once called?
5a68bcef8476ee001a58a7d4
True
during Mahabharata times
7
When was Panchanada renamed Punjab?
5a68bcef8476ee001a58a7d5
True
1857
524
When was the archaeological site at Harappa discovered?
5a68bcef8476ee001a58a7d6
True
more than 4000 years ago
107
When did Punjab comprise the Gujar empire?
5a68bcef8476ee001a58a7d7
True
Agriculture
951
What was the major export of the Kushans?
5a68bcef8476ee001a58a7d8
True
Punjab during Mahabharata times was known as Panchanada. Punjab was part of the Indus Valley Civilization, more than 4000 years ago. The main site in Punjab was the city of Harrapa. The Indus Valley Civilization spanned much of what is today Pakistan and eventually evolved into the Indo-Aryan civilisation. The Vedic civilisation flourished along the length of the Indus River. This civilisation shaped subsequent cultures in South Asia and Afghanistan. Although the archaeological site at Harappa was partially damaged in 1857 when engineers constructing the Lahore-Multan railroad used brick from the Harappa ruins for track ballast, an abundance of artefacts have nevertheless been found. Punjab was part of the great ancient empires including the Gandhara Mahajanapadas, Achaemenids, Macedonians, Mauryas, Kushans, Guptas, and Hindu Shahi. It also comprised the Gujar empire for a period of time, otherwise known as the Gurjara-Pratihara empire. Agriculture flourished and trading cities (such as Multan and Lahore) grew in wealth.
Who has invaded Punjab?
5733fbd54776f41900661641
Greeks, Kushans, Scythians, Turks, and Afghans
147
False
Who founded Taxila?
5733fbd54776f41900661642
son of Taksh the son Bharat who was the brother of Ram
226
False
What is said to be the world's oldest university?
5733fbd54776f41900661643
Takshashila University
359
False
What empire was Taxila a center of learning of?
5733fbd54776f41900661644
the Maurya Empire
529
False
Who was Chanakya?
5733fbd54776f41900661645
great Vedic thinker and politician
411
False
the Greeks, Kushans, Scythians, Turks, and Afghans
143
Who has Punjab invaded?
5a68dfaa8476ee001a58a810
True
The city of Taxila
195
What did Ram found?
5a68dfaa8476ee001a58a811
True
Chanakya
446
Who founded Takshashila University?
5a68dfaa8476ee001a58a812
True
Taxila
456
What was the centre of learning in the Greek Empire?
5a68dfaa8476ee001a58a813
True
Ram
277
Who was the brother of Taksh?
5a68dfaa8476ee001a58a814
True
Due to its location, the Punjab region came under constant attacks and influence from the west and witnessed centuries of foreign invasions by the Greeks, Kushans, Scythians, Turks, and Afghans. The city of Taxila, founded by son of Taksh the son Bharat who was the brother of Ram. It was reputed to house the oldest university in the world,[citation needed] Takshashila University. One of the teachers was the great Vedic thinker and politician Chanakya. Taxila was a great centre of learning and intellectual discussion during the Maurya Empire. It is a UN World Heritage site, valued for its archaeological and religious history.
Where did Alexander the Great conquer in 10 days?
5733fc754776f4190066164b
Drangiana, Arachosia, Gedrosia and Seistan
206
False
What wealth did Alexander hope to find?
5733fc754776f4190066164c
riches in gold, gems and pearls
366
False
From which direction did Alexander enter Punjab?
5733fc754776f4190066164d
northeasterly
534
False
Who were the Aspii?
5733fc754776f4190066164e
mountaineers
589
False
Who were the Cathians?
5733fc754776f4190066164f
the people of Multan
1033
False
those of Tamerlane, Alexander the Great and Genghis Khan
131
What empires did South Asia invade?
5a68e4ff8476ee001a58a84c
True
ten days
252
How long did it take Alexander to cross the Hindu Kush?
5a68e4ff8476ee001a58a84d
True
gold, gems and pearls
376
What did Genghis Khan steal from South Asia?
5a68e4ff8476ee001a58a84e
True
seventeen thousand
1136
How many Aspii were killed in battle?
5a68e4ff8476ee001a58a84f
True
326 B.C.
1275
When did Alexander attack Punjab?
5a68e4ff8476ee001a58a850
True
The northwestern part of the South Asia, including Punjab, was repeatedly invaded or conquered by various foreign empires, such as those of Tamerlane, Alexander the Great and Genghis Khan. Having conquered Drangiana, Arachosia, Gedrosia and Seistan in ten days, Alexander crossed the Hindu Kush and was thus fully informed of the magnificence of the country and its riches in gold, gems and pearls. However, Alexander had to encounter and reduce the tribes on the border of Punjab before entering the luxuriant plains. Having taken a northeasterly direction, he marched against the Aspii (mountaineers), who offered vigorous resistance, but were subdued.[citation needed] Alexander then marched through Ghazni, blockaded Magassa, and then marched to Ora and Bazira. Turning to the northeast, Alexander marched to Pucela, the capital of the district now known as Pakhli. He entered Western Punjab, where the ancient city of Nysa (at the site of modern-day Mong) was situated. A coalition was formed against Alexander by the Cathians, the people of Multan, who were very skilful in war. Alexander invested many troops, eventually killing seventeen thousand Cathians in this battle, and the city of Sagala (present-day Sialkot) was razed to the ground. Alexander left Punjab in 326 B.C. and took his army to the heartlands of his empire.[citation needed]
What religion did Punjab become?
5733fcd74776f4190066165f
Muslim
1048
False
What did missionary Muslims build in Punjab?
5733fcd74776f41900661660
dargahs
1091
False
Who led the Umayyad army?
5733fcd74776f41900661661
Muhammad bin Qasim
134
False
Where did the Umayyads conquer?
5733fcd74776f41900661662
Sindh and Southern Punjab
163
False
Who did the Umayyads defeat?
5733fcd74776f41900661663
Raja Dahir
210
False
The Punjabis followed a diverse plethora of faiths, mainly comprising Hinduism[citation needed] , when the Muslim Umayyad army led by Muhammad bin Qasim conquered Sindh and Southern Punjab in 712, by defeating Raja Dahir. The Umayyad Caliphate was the second Islamic caliphate established after the death of Muhammad. It was ruled by the Umayyad dynasty, whose name derives from Umayya ibn Abd Shams, the great-grandfather of the first Umayyad caliph. Although the Umayyad family originally came from the city of Mecca, their capital was Damascus. Muhammad bin Qasim was the first to bring message of Islam to the population of Punjab.[citation needed] Punjab was part of different Muslim Empires consisting of Afghans and Turkic peoples in co-operation with local Punjabi tribes and others.[citation needed] In the 11th century, during the reign of Mahmud of Ghazni, the province became an important centre with Lahore as its second capital[citation needed] of the Ghaznavid Empire based out of Afghanistan. The Punjab region became predominantly Muslim due to missionary Sufi saints whose dargahs dot the landscape of Punjab region.
Who was Raghunath Rao?
5733fd5d4776f41900661669
the general of the Hindu Maratha Empire
9
False
Who did Rao conquer in 1758?
5733fd5d4776f4190066166a
Lahore and Attock
74
False
When was the Third Battle of Panipat?
5733fd5d4776f4190066166b
1761
430
False
Who ruled most of the eastern part of Peshawar?
5733fd5d4776f4190066166c
Maratha
296
False
Who captured part of the Maratha Empire in 1761?
5733fd5d4776f4190066166d
Ahmad Shah Abdali
436
False
1758
3
When did Timur conquer Lahore?
5a68edcf8476ee001a58a8a6
True
Ahmad Shah Abdali
136
Who was the son of Timur Shah Durrani?
5a68edcf8476ee001a58a8a7
True
1761
430
When was the Second Battle of Panipat?
5a68edcf8476ee001a58a8a8
True
Maratha territory of Punjab
466
What did Ahmad Shah Abdali invade in 1758?
5a68edcf8476ee001a58a8a9
True
Raghunath Rao
50
Who captured Multan in 1761?
5a68edcf8476ee001a58a8aa
True
In 1758, the general of the Hindu Maratha Empire, Raghunath Rao conquered Lahore and Attock. Timur Shah Durrani, the son and viceroy of Ahmad Shah Abdali, was driven out of Punjab. Lahore, Multan, Dera Ghazi Khan, Kashmir and other subahs on the south and eastern side of Peshawar were under the Maratha rule for the most part. In Punjab and Kashmir, the Marathas were now major players. The Third Battle of Panipat took place on 1761, Ahmad Shah Abdali invaded the Maratha territory of Punjab and captured remnants of the Maratha Empire in Punjab and Kashmir regions and re-consolidated control over them.
When did Sikhism begin?
5733fee24776f4190066167d
mid-fifteenth century
7
False
In which empire did many Hindus become Sikhs?
5733fee24776f4190066167e
Mughal empire
75
False
When did Ahmad fight at Akora Khattak?
5733fee24776f4190066167f
December 1826
1083
False
When did Ahmad fight at Balakot?
5733fee24776f41900661680
1831
1246
False
Who won at Balakot?
5733fee24776f41900661681
the professional Sikh Army
1329
False
the mid-fifteenth century
3
When did the Mughal empire begin?
5a68ef1a8476ee001a58a8ba
True
Ahmad Shah Durrani
245
Who led the Sikhs in the late eighteenth century?
5a68ef1a8476ee001a58a8bb
True
1799 to 1849
418
How long did the Afghan Empire last?
5a68ef1a8476ee001a58a8bc
True
Syed Ahmad Barelvi
742
What Muslim conquered Punjab?
5a68ef1a8476ee001a58a8bd
True
two years
800
How many years did the fight between Muslim and Sikh troops last?
5a68ef1a8476ee001a58a8be
True
In the mid-fifteenth century, the religion of Sikhism was born. During the Mughal empire, many Hindus increasingly adopted Sikhism. These became a formidable military force against the Mughals and later against the Afghan Empire. After fighting Ahmad Shah Durrani in the later eighteenth century, the Sikhs took control of Punjab and managed to establish the Sikh Empire under Maharaja Ranjit Singh, which lasted from 1799 to 1849. The capital of Ranjit Singh's empire was Lahore, and the empire also extended into Afghanistan and Kashmir. Bhangi Misl was the fist Sikh band to conquer Lahore and other towns of Punjab. Syed Ahmad Barelvi a Muslim, waged jihad and attempted to create an Islamic state with strict enforcement of Islamic law. Syed Ahmad Barelvi in 1821 with many supporters and spent two years organising popular and material support for his Punjab campaign. He carefully developed a network of people through the length and breadth of India to collect funds and encourage volunteers, travelling widely throughout India attracting a following among pious Muslims. In December 1826 Sayyid Ahmad and his followers clashed with Sikh troops at Akora Khattak, but with no decisive result. In a major battle near the town of Balakot in 1831, Sayyid Ahmad and Shah Ismail Shaheed with volunteer Muslims were defeated by the professional Sikh Army.
When did Ranjit Singh die?
5733ff844776f41900661687
summer of 1839
37
False
What did Ranjit Singh's death cause?
5733ff844776f41900661688
political chaos
60
False
When was part of Punjab annexed into British India?
5733ff844776f41900661689
1849
375
False
When was the Second Anglo-Sikh War?
5733ff844776f4190066168a
1849
466
False
What was the last territory added to British India?
5733ff844776f4190066168b
the Sikh Empire
472
False
1839
47
When was Maharaja Ranjit Singh born?
5a68f1298476ee001a58a8d8
True
1849
466
When did the first Anglo-Sikh War end?
5a68f1298476ee001a58a8d9
True
Maharaja Ranjit Singh
0
What was the name of the British official stationed in Lahore?
5a68f1298476ee001a58a8da
True
Lahore
346
What was the name of the territory annexed in 1849?
5a68f1298476ee001a58a8db
True
35
557
How many of the local resistance were killed in the 1857 rebellion?
5a68f1298476ee001a58a8dc
True
Maharaja Ranjit Singh's death in the summer of 1839 brought political chaos and the subsequent battles of succession and the bloody infighting between the factions at court weakened the state. Relationships with neighbouring British territories then broke down, starting the First Anglo-Sikh War; this led to a British official being resident in Lahore and the annexation in 1849 of territory south of the Satluj to British India. After the Second Anglo-Sikh War in 1849, the Sikh Empire became the last territory to be merged into British India. In Jhelum 35 British soldiers of HM XXIV regiment were killed by the local resistance during the Indian Rebellion of 1857.[citation needed]
When did India and Pakistan fight in Punjab?
5733ffe3d058e614000b6755
1965 and 1971
87
False
What is Kahuta an important location for?
5733ffe3d058e614000b6756
Pakistan's nuclear program
153
False
Where does Punjab have major military bases?
5733ffe3d058e614000b6757
Sargodha and Rawalpindi
242
False
When did India and Pakistan begin serious peace talks?
5733ffe3d058e614000b6758
2004
339
False
Who visits Nankana Sahib?
5733ffe3d058e614000b6759
Sikh pilgrims
481
False
1965 and 1971
87
When did Punjab fight against India?
5a68f5fc8476ee001a58a914
True
1990s
112
When was Sargodha built?
5a68f5fc8476ee001a58a915
True
the Wagah border
422
Where is Nankana Sahib?
5a68f5fc8476ee001a58a916
True
2004
339
When did trade between people become common?
5a68f5fc8476ee001a58a917
True
Kahuta
188
What is the name of India's nuclear program?
5a68f5fc8476ee001a58a918
True
Punjab witnessed major battles between the armies of India and Pakistan in the wars of 1965 and 1971. Since the 1990s Punjab hosted several key sites of Pakistan's nuclear program such as Kahuta. It also hosts major military bases such as at Sargodha and Rawalpindi. The peace process between India and Pakistan, which began in earnest in 2004, has helped pacify the situation. Trade and people-to-people contacts through the Wagah border are now starting to become common. Indian Sikh pilgrims visit holy sites such as Nankana Sahib.
When do monsoons traditionally happen in Punjab?
57340043d058e614000b6769
by May
66
False
When did Punjab's weather pattern become unpredictable?
57340043d058e614000b676a
since the early 1970s
78
False
How hot do newspapers say it has gotten in Punjab?
57340043d058e614000b676b
51 °C
398
False
What was the record heat spike in Multan?
57340043d058e614000b676c
54 °C
573
False
When was the record heat spike in Multan?
57340043d058e614000b676d
June 1993
515
False
the early 1970s
84
When did the first monsoon appear in Punjab?
5a68f9978476ee001a58a950
True
46 °C
351
What is the temperature in May?
5a68f9978476ee001a58a951
True
54 °C
573
What is the highest temperature recorded during a barsat?
5a68f9978476ee001a58a952
True
the southwest monsoon
13
The onset of what appears in October?
5a68f9978476ee001a58a953
True
46 °C
351
Official estimates rarely go under what?
5a68f9978476ee001a58a954
True
The onset of the southwest monsoon is anticipated to reach Punjab by May, but since the early 1970s the weather pattern has been irregular. The spring monsoon has either skipped over the area or has caused it to rain so hard that floods have resulted. June and July are oppressively hot. Although official estimates rarely place the temperature above 46 °C, newspaper sources claim that it reaches 51 °C and regularly carry reports about people who have succumbed to the heat. Heat records were broken in Multan in June 1993, when the mercury was reported to have risen to 54 °C. In August the oppressive heat is punctuated by the rainy season, referred to as barsat, which brings relief in its wake. The hardest part of the summer is then over, but cooler weather does not come until late October.
What is Punjab's major language?
5734009a4776f41900661691
Punjabi
54
False
How is Punjabi written?
5734009a4776f41900661692
in a Shahmukhi script
80
False
What is the largest ethnic group in Pakistan?
5734009a4776f41900661693
Punjabis
119
False
What minimum percent of each Punjab district speaks Punjabi natively?
5734009a4776f41900661694
89%
320
False
Where is Saraiki usually spoken?
5734009a4776f41900661695
south Punjab
827
False
Punjabi
273
What language has official recognition in Punjab?
5a68fabf8476ee001a58a964
True
89%
320
Punjabi is the mother-tongue of less than what percentage of the population?
5a68fabf8476ee001a58a965
True
Punjab
44
Urdu is the major language for what province?
5a68fabf8476ee001a58a966
True
Majhi
761
What is the standard form of Urdu?
5a68fabf8476ee001a58a967
True
tribes
585
What is primarily divided by social stratifications?
5a68fabf8476ee001a58a968
True
The major and native language spoken in the Punjab is Punjabi (which is written in a Shahmukhi script in Pakistan) and Punjabis comprise the largest ethnic group in country. Punjabi is the provincial language of Punjab. There is not a single district in the province where Punjabi language is mother-tongue of less than 89% of population. The language is not given any official recognition in the Constitution of Pakistan at the national level. Punjabis themselves are a heterogeneous group comprising different tribes, clans (Urdu: برادری‎) and communities. In Pakistani Punjab these tribes have more to do with traditional occupations such as blacksmiths or artisans as opposed to rigid social stratifications. Punjabi dialects spoken in the province include Majhi (Standard), Saraiki and Hindko. Saraiki is mostly spoken in south Punjab, and Pashto, spoken in some parts of north west Punjab, especially in Attock District and Mianwali District.
Who elects the Chief Minister?
573401004776f4190066169b
the Provincial Assembly of the Punjab
194
False
In what year did Sharif become CM?
573401004776f4190066169c
2009
455
False
When was Sharif re-elected CM?
573401004776f4190066169d
11 May 2013
519
False
What kind of legislature is the Provincial Assembly?
573401004776f4190066169e
unicameral
585
False
How many seats are in the Provincial Assembly?
573401004776f4190066169f
371
810
False
The Chief Minister of Punjab
146
Who elects members of the Provincial Assembly?
5a68fb648476ee001a58a96e
True
25 February 2009
443
When was the Provincial Assembly elected?
5a68fb648476ee001a58a96f
True
11 May 2013 elections
519
What election removed Sharif from office?
5a68fb648476ee001a58a970
True
371
810
How many seats are reserved for Muslims?
5a68fb648476ee001a58a971
True
Article 106
745
What article established the Chief Minister?
5a68fb648476ee001a58a972
True
The Government of Punjab is a provincial government in the federal structure of Pakistan, is based in Lahore, the capital of the Punjab Province. The Chief Minister of Punjab (CM) is elected by the Provincial Assembly of the Punjab to serve as the head of the provincial government in Punjab, Pakistan. The current Chief Minister is Shahbaz Sharif, who became the Chief Minister of Punjab as being restored after Governor's rule starting from 25 February 2009 to 30 March 2009. Thereafter got re-elected as a result of 11 May 2013 elections. The Provincial Assembly of the Punjab is a unicameral legislature of elected representatives of the province of Punjab, which is located in Lahore in eastern Pakistan. The Assembly was established under Article 106 of the Constitution of Pakistan as having a total of 371 seats, with 66 seats reserved for women and eight reserved for non-Muslims.
How much has Punjab's economy grown since 1972?
573401aa4776f419006616af
quadrupled
110
False
How much of Pakistan's GDP came from Punjab in 2000?
573401aa4776f419006616b0
54.7%
165
False
How much of Pakistan's GDP came from Punjab in 2010?
573401aa4776f419006616b1
59%
183
False
What manpower does Punjab provide?
573401aa4776f419006616b2
largest pool of professionals and highly skilled (technically trained) manpower in Pakistan
458
False
How much did Punjab's economy grow in 2008-09?
573401aa4776f419006616b3
6%
885
False
quadrupled
110
How has Pakistan's economy changed since 1972?
5a68fdfb8476ee001a58a98c
True
56.1% to 61.5%
363
What percentage of Pakistan's economy is agriculture?
5a68fdfb8476ee001a58a98d
True
Punjab
0
What has the smallest economy in Pakistan?
5a68fdfb8476ee001a58a98e
True
52.6%
705
What percentage of the manufacturing sector did Punjab account for in 2007?
5a68fdfb8476ee001a58a98f
True
7%
839
What was the total GDP growth of Pakistan in 2002-03?
5a68fdfb8476ee001a58a990
True
Punjab has the largest economy in Pakistan, contributing most to the national GDP. The province's economy has quadrupled since 1972. Its share of Pakistan's GDP was 54.7% in 2000 and 59% as of 2010. It is especially dominant in the service and agriculture sectors of Pakistan's economy. With its contribution ranging from 52.1% to 64.5% in the Service Sector and 56.1% to 61.5% in the agriculture sector. It is also major manpower contributor because it has largest pool of professionals and highly skilled (technically trained) manpower in Pakistan. It is also dominant in the manufacturing sector, though the dominance is not as huge, with historical contributions raging from a low of 44% to a high of 52.6%. In 2007, Punjab achieved a growth rate of 7.8% and during the period 2002–03 to 2007–08, its economy grew at a rate of between 7% to 8% per year. and during 2008–09 grew at 6% against the total GDP growth of Pakistan at 4%.
What geographic feature does Punjab not have?
573402074776f419006616b9
coastline
22
False
What medical product does Punjab manufacture?
573402084776f419006616ba
surgical instruments
190
False
What transportation products does Punjab manufacture?
573402084776f419006616bb
bicycles and rickshaws
303
False
How much of Pakistan's paper products does Punjab manufacture?
573402084776f419006616bc
90%
400
False
How much of Pakistan's sugar does Punjab manufacture?
573402084776f419006616bd
69%
459
False
Punjab
33
Which province has an extended coastline?
5a68fee48476ee001a58a9aa
True
90%
400
What percentage of textiles does Punjab export?
5a68fee48476ee001a58a9ab
True
69%
459
What percentage of Pakistan's sugar mill plants are located in Punjab?
5a68fee48476ee001a58a9ac
True
heavy
150
What type of machinery does Punjab not produce?
5a68fee48476ee001a58a9ad
True
71%
435
What percentage of agricultural machinery does Punjab manufacture?
5a68fee48476ee001a58a9ae
True
Despite the lack of a coastline, Punjab is the most industrialised province of Pakistan; its manufacturing industries produce textiles, sports goods, heavy machinery, electrical appliances, surgical instruments, vehicles, auto parts, metals, sugar mill plants, aircraft, cement, agricultural machinery, bicycles and rickshaws, floor coverings, and processed foods. In 2003, the province manufactured 90% of the paper and paper boards, 71% of the fertilizers, 69% of the sugar and 40% of the cement of Pakistan.
What kind of climate does Punjab have?
5734025ad058e614000b678d
tropical wet and dry
12
False
Who built Punjab's irrigation system?
5734025ad058e614000b678e
the British
143
False
What are Punjab's largest crops?
5734025ad058e614000b678f
Wheat and cotton
184
False
What are Punjab's secondary crops?
5734025ad058e614000b6790
rice, sugarcane, millet, corn, oilseeds, pulses, vegetables, and fruits such as kinoo
244
False
What calendar do Punjab's farmers use?
5734025ad058e614000b6791
the Hindu calendar
461
False
Hindu
465
What calendar do Punjab farms no longer use?
5a6901778476ee001a58a9b4
True
the British
143
Who did Punjab create an irrigation system for?
5a6901778476ee001a58a9b5
True
Wheat and cotton
184
Punjab has the largest crop of what in the world?
5a6901778476ee001a58a9b6
True
kinoo
324
What is the name of one of their vegetables?
5a6901778476ee001a58a9b7
True
its tropical wet and dry climate
8
What aspects of Punjab's climate make it perfect for agriculture?
5a6901778476ee001a58a9b8
True
Despite its tropical wet and dry climate, extensive irrigation makes it a rich agricultural region. Its canal-irrigation system established by the British is the largest in the world. Wheat and cotton are the largest crops. Other crops include rice, sugarcane, millet, corn, oilseeds, pulses, vegetables, and fruits such as kinoo. Livestock and poultry production are also important. Despite past animosities, the rural masses in Punjab's farms continue to use the Hindu calendar for planting and harvesting.
What kind of problem caused riots in June 2012?
573402bf4776f419006616d5
electricity
36
False
How long were cities without electricity in June 2012?
573402bf4776f419006616d6
20–22 hours a day
203
False
Where were there riots in June 2012?
573402bf4776f419006616d7
Gujranwala, Toba Tek Singh, Faisalabad, Sialkot, Bahawalnagar and communities across Khanewal District
286
False
Which energy companies' offices were attacked by rioters?
573402bf4776f419006616d8
Fesco, Gepco and Mepco
565
False
June 2012
6
When was Pakistan's electricity problem solved?
5a690a478476ee001a58aa18
True
20–22 hours
203
How long was the rioting on 17 June 2012?
5a690a478476ee001a58aa19
True
Sialkot
326
What city houses the offices of Fesco?
5a690a478476ee001a58aa1a
True
Fesco, Gepco and Mepco
565
Which energy supplier rioted?
5a690a478476ee001a58aa1b
True
protesters
137
Who was responsible for the load shedding?
5a690a478476ee001a58aa1c
True
As of June 2012[update], Pakistan's electricity problems were so severe that violent riots were taking place across Punjab. According to protesters, load shedding was depriving the cities of electricity 20–22 hours a day, causing businesses to go bust and making living extremely hard. Gujranwala, Toba Tek Singh, Faisalabad, Sialkot, Bahawalnagar and communities across Khanewal District saw widespread rioting and violence on Sunday 17 June 2012, with the houses of several members of parliament being attacked as well as the offices of regional energy suppliers Fesco, Gepco and Mepco being ransacked or attacked.
What kind of inscriptions decorate Punjab's burial places?
57340342d058e614000b67a9
Calligraphic inscriptions from the Quran
63
False
When did Rukn-e-Alam die?
57340342d058e614000b67aa
1320 AD
222
False
When did Gardezi die?
57340342d058e614000b67ab
1150 AD
402
False
When was Ahangar's tomb built?
57340342d058e614000b67ac
sixteenth century
440
False
What color tile was used in Ahangar's tomb?
57340342d058e614000b67ad
blue
533
False
the Quran
94
Where does the structure of a mosque come from?
5a690b308476ee001a58aa2c
True
blue
533
What colour is the tomb of Shah Yusuf Gardezi?
5a690b308476ee001a58aa2d
True
1150 AD
402
When did Emperor Shah Jahan live?
5a690b308476ee001a58aa2e
True
Multan
414
Where was Emperor Shah Jahan buried?
5a690b308476ee001a58aa2f
True
Emperor Shah Jahan
561
Who built Lahore Fort?
5a690b308476ee001a58aa30
True
The structure of a mosque is simple and it expresses openness. Calligraphic inscriptions from the Quran decorate mosques and mausoleums in Punjab. The inscriptions on bricks and tiles of the mausoleum of Shah Rukn-e-Alam (1320 AD) at Multan are outstanding specimens of architectural calligraphy. The earliest existing building in South Asia with enamelled tile-work is the tomb of Shah Yusuf Gardezi (1150 AD) at Multan. A specimen of the sixteenth century tile-work at Lahore is the tomb of Sheikh Musa Ahangar, with its brilliant blue dome. The tile-work of Emperor Shah Jahan is of a richer and more elaborate nature. The pictured wall of Lahore Fort is the last line in the tile-work in the entire world.
What are urs?
573403a24776f419006616ef
fairs held at the shrines of Sufi saints
4
False
When are urs held?
573403a24776f419006616f0
the death anniversary of the saint
81
False
What genre of music is played at urs?
573403a24776f419006616f1
folk
320
False
Where is Buksh's shrine?
573403a24776f419006616f2
Lahore
453
False
Where is Zakria's shrine?
573403a24776f419006616f3
Multan
643
False
urs
56
What are Sufi saints called?
5a690e918476ee001a58aa5e
True
Lahore
453
Where do devotees come from?
5a690e918476ee001a58aa5f
True
dance in ecstasy
258
What do the saints do at an urs?
5a690e918476ee001a58aa60
True
devotees
136
Who created the mystic messages?
5a690e918476ee001a58aa61
True
Sufi saints
33
Who started the urs?
5a690e918476ee001a58aa62
True
The fairs held at the shrines of Sufi saints are called urs. They generally mark the death anniversary of the saint. On these occasions devotees assemble in large numbers and pay homage to the memory of the saint. Soul inspiring music is played and devotees dance in ecstasy. The music on these occasions is essentially folk and appealing. It forms a part of the folk music through mystic messages. The most important urs are: urs of Data Ganj Buksh at Lahore, urs of Hazrat Sultan Bahu at Jhang, urs of Hazrat Shah Jewna at Jhang, urs of Hazrat Mian Mir at Lahore, urs of Baba Farid Ganj Shakar at Pakpattan, urs of Hazrat Bahaudin Zakria at Multan, urs of Sakhi Sarwar Sultan at Dera Ghazi Khan, urs of Shah Hussain at Lahore, urs of Hazrat Bulleh Shah at Kasur, urs of Hazrat Imam Bari (Bari Shah Latif) at Rawalpindi-Islamabad and urs of Shah Inayar Qadri (the murrshad of Bulleh Shah) in Lahore.
What is Punjab's biggest festival?
5734044cd058e614000b67bd
The national horse and cattle show
137
False
Where is the national horse and cattle show held?
5734044cd058e614000b67be
Lahore
175
False
What happens at the national horse and cattle show?
5734044cd058e614000b67bf
sports, exhibitions, and livestock competitions
212
False
Lahore
92
Which district does not have exhibitions?
5a6911a38476ee001a58aa68
True
official patronage
117
The biggest festival does not have what kind of competition?
5a6911a38476ee001a58aa69
True
The national horse and cattle show
137
Which festival is damaging the province's rural roots?
5a6911a38476ee001a58aa6a
True
agricultural products and livestock
308
What does the Lahore festival discourage?
5a6911a38476ee001a58aa6b
True
Exhibitions and annual horse shows in all districts and a national horse and cattle show at Lahore are held with the official patronage. The national horse and cattle show at Lahore is the biggest festival where sports, exhibitions, and livestock competitions are held. It not only encourages and patronises agricultural products and livestock through the exhibitions of agricultural products and cattle but is also a colourful documentary on the rich cultural heritage of the province with its strong rural roots.
What famous tomb is in Lahore?
57340526d058e614000b67d3
Jahangir's Tomb
206
False
Where was Nanak born?
57340526d058e614000b67d4
Nankana Sahib
507
False
Who was the first Sikh Guru?
57340526d058e614000b67d5
Guru Nanak
486
False
What famous hill stations are in Punjab?
57340526d058e614000b67d6
Murree, Bhurban, Patriata and Fort Munro
571
False
What famous mosque is in Punjab?
57340526d058e614000b67d7
Badshahi Mosque
103
False
the city of Lahore
239
Where are Jahangir's Gardens?
5a6912ae8476ee001a58aa70
True
Taxila
309
Which city houses the Sihk shrines?
5a6912ae8476ee001a58aa71
True
Buddhist and Hindu influence
360
Taxila has become a major centre of what in the modern age?
5a6912ae8476ee001a58aa72
True
Nankana Sahib
507
What city is the Murree hill nearby?
5a6912ae8476ee001a58aa73
True
Guru Nanak
486
Who was born in Harrapa?
5a6912ae8476ee001a58aa74
True
The province is home to several historical sites, including the Shalimar Gardens, the Lahore Fort, the Badshahi Mosque, the Rohtas Fort and the ruins of the ancient city of Harrapa. The Anarkali Market and Jahangir's Tomb are prominent in the city of Lahore as is the Lahore Museum, while the ancient city of Taxila in the northwest was once a major centre of Buddhist and Hindu influence. Several important Sikh shrines are in the province, including the birthplace of the first Guru, Guru Nanak. (born at Nankana Sahib). There are a few famous hill stations, including Murree, Bhurban, Patriata and Fort Munro.
Who are some well-known Punjab poets?
573405aa4776f41900661717
Sultan Bahu, Bulleh Shah, Mian Muhammad Baksh, and Waris Shah
38
False
What is Allah Ditta Lona Wala's career?
573405aa4776f41900661718
folk singers
104
False
Who is the 'Queen of Music'?
573405aa4776f41900661719
Malika-i-Mauseequi
450
False
When was Alam Lohar an important Punjabi folk singer?
573405aa4776f4190066171a
from 1930 until 1979
700
False
from 1930 until 1979
700
When was Sultan Bahu popular?
5a6913cb8476ee001a58aa7a
True
Queen of Music
470
What was Ustad Amanat Ali Khan's nickname?
5a6913cb8476ee001a58aa7b
True
Waris Shah
89
What poet was most prolific during 1930 to 1979?
5a6913cb8476ee001a58aa7c
True
1930
705
When was Alam Lohar born?
5a6913cb8476ee001a58aa7d
True
ragas
417
Folk singers created classical whats?
5a6913cb8476ee001a58aa7e
True
Among the Punjabi poets, the names of Sultan Bahu, Bulleh Shah, Mian Muhammad Baksh, and Waris Shah and folk singers like Inayat Hussain Bhatti and Tufail Niazi, Alam Lohar, Sain Marna, Mansoor Malangi, Allah Ditta Lona wala, Talib Hussain Dard, Attaullah Khan Essa Khailwi, Gamoo Tahliwala, Mamzoo Gha-lla, Akbar Jat, Arif Lohar, Ahmad Nawaz Cheena and Hamid Ali Bela are well-known. In the composition of classical ragas, there are such masters as Malika-i-Mauseequi (Queen of Music) Roshan Ara Begum, Ustad Amanat Ali Khan, Salamat Ali Khan and Ustad Fateh Ali Khan. Alam Lohar has made significant contributions to folklore and Punjabi literature, by being a very influential Punjabi folk singer from 1930 until 1979.
What kind of music does Malika Pukhraj perform?
57340645d058e614000b67f7
Ghazals and folk songs
57
False
What do Punjab folk songs often reflect?
57340645d058e614000b67f8
the rains, sowing and harvesting seasons
324
False
Who sings about the joy of living?
57340645d058e614000b67f9
Luddi, Bhangra and Sammi
366
False
What does Heer Ranjha sing about?
57340645d058e614000b67fa
Love
417
False
What kind of music does Roshen Ara Begum perform?
57340645d058e614000b67fb
Ghazals and folk songs
57
False
Luddi
366
What is the name of the singer that sings songs representing the rains?
5a69154f8476ee001a58aa8e
True
Nusrat Fateh Ali Khan
219
Who wrote songs after the style of Sammi?
5a69154f8476ee001a58aa8f
True
Folk songs and dances
257
What type of songs are limited to a set number of moods?
5a69154f8476ee001a58aa90
True
light music, particularly Ghazals and folk songs
31
What tends to be less popular with the people?
5a69154f8476ee001a58aa91
True
Love legends
417
What songs use the same styling?
5a69154f8476ee001a58aa92
True
For the popular taste however, light music, particularly Ghazals and folk songs, which have an appeal of their own, the names of Mehdi Hassan, Ghulam Ali, Nur Jehan, Malika Pukhraj, Farida Khanum, Roshen Ara Begum, and Nusrat Fateh Ali Khan are well-known. Folk songs and dances of the Punjab reflect a wide range of moods: the rains, sowing and harvesting seasons. Luddi, Bhangra and Sammi depict the joy of living. Love legends of Heer Ranjha, Mirza Sahiban, Sohni Mahenwal and Saiful Mulk are sung in different styles.
Richmond,_Virginia
How many miles east of Richmond is Williamsburg?
573416fcd058e614000b6916
44
57
False
How many kilometers west of Charlottesville is Richmond?
573416fcd058e614000b6917
106
106
False
Leaving Washington DC, what cardinal direction would one travel to reach Richmond?
573416fcd058e614000b6918
south
161
False
What is Richmond's southwestern suburb?
573416fcd058e614000b6919
Midlothian
397
False
Where is Short Pump located in relation to Richmond?
573416fcd058e614000b691a
west
478
False
Richmond is located at the fall line of the James River, 44 miles (71 km) west of Williamsburg, 66 miles (106 km) east of Charlottesville, and 98 miles (158 km) south of Washington, D.C. Surrounded by Henrico and Chesterfield counties, the city is located at the intersections of Interstate 95 and Interstate 64, and encircled by Interstate 295 and Virginia State Route 288. Major suburbs include Midlothian to the southwest, Glen Allen to the north and west, Short Pump to the west and Mechanicsville to the northeast.
What was the nationality of the people who settled Richmond in 1609?
573417c5d058e614000b692a
English
107
False
In what year was the current city of Richmond founded?
573417c5d058e614000b692b
1737
211
False
What famous speech did Patrick Henry give in Richmond?
573417c5d058e614000b692c
Give me liberty or give me death
396
False
In what building did Patrick Henry give his famous speech?
573417c5d058e614000b692d
St. John's Church
448
False
Who was the author of the Virginia Statute for Religious Freedom?
573417c5d058e614000b692e
Thomas Jefferson
540
False
The site of Richmond had been an important village of the Powhatan Confederacy, and was briefly settled by English colonists from Jamestown in 1609, and in 1610–1611. The present city of Richmond was founded in 1737. It became the capital of the Colony and Dominion of Virginia in 1780. During the Revolutionary War period, several notable events occurred in the city, including Patrick Henry's "Give me liberty or give me death" speech in 1775 at St. John's Church, and the passage of the Virginia Statute for Religious Freedom written by Thomas Jefferson. During the American Civil War, Richmond served as the capital of the Confederate States of America. The city entered the 20th century with one of the world's first successful electric streetcar systems, as well as a national hub of African-American commerce and culture, the Jackson Ward neighborhood.
Along with law and finance, what is a major component of Richmond's economy?
5734181fd058e614000b6934
government
60
False
What circuit of the US Court of Appeals is based in Richmond?
5734181fd058e614000b6935
Fourth
268
False
How many circuit courts of appeal are there in the United States?
5734181fd058e614000b6936
13
291
False
How many Federal Reserve Banks exist?
5734181fd058e614000b6937
12
376
False
Along with MeadWestvaco, what Fortune 500 company is based in Richmond?
5734181fd058e614000b6938
Dominion Resources
402
False
Richmond's economy is primarily driven by law, finance, and government, with federal, state, and local governmental agencies, as well as notable legal and banking firms, located in the downtown area. The city is home to both the United States Court of Appeals for the Fourth Circuit, one of 13 United States courts of appeals, and the Federal Reserve Bank of Richmond, one of 12 Federal Reserve Banks. Dominion Resources and MeadWestvaco, Fortune 500 companies, are headquartered in the city, with others in the metropolitan area.
What did Patrick Henry's famous speech persuade Virginians to send delegates to?
57341bc54776f4190066188d
First Continental Congress
173
False
What was the capital of Virginia prior to Richmond?
57341bc54776f4190066188e
Williamsburg
332
False
What general led the troops that burned Richmond?
57341bc54776f4190066188f
Benedict Arnold
573
False
Who led the militia that defended Richmond?
57341bc54776f41900661890
Sampson Mathews
703
False
Who was the governor of Virginia in 1781?
57341bc54776f41900661891
Thomas Jefferson
646
False
In 1775, Patrick Henry delivered his famous "Give me Liberty or Give me Death" speech in St. John's Church in Richmond, crucial for deciding Virginia's participation in the First Continental Congress and setting the course for revolution and independence. On April 18, 1780, the state capital was moved from the colonial capital of Williamsburg to Richmond, to provide a more centralized location for Virginia's increasing westerly population, as well as to isolate the capital from British attack. The latter motive proved to be in vain, and in 1781, under the command of Benedict Arnold, Richmond was burned by British troops, causing Governor Thomas Jefferson to flee as the Virginia militia, led by Sampson Mathews, defended the city.
Who aided Jefferson in designing the Virginia State Capitol?
573425a6d058e614000b69fe
Charles-Louis Clérisseau
492
False
In what year was the Virginia State Capitol finished?
573425a6d058e614000b69ff
1788
539
False
What was the capital of Virginia circa 1786?
573425a6d058e614000b6a00
Richmond
206
False
What notable document was authored by Thomas Jefferson in 1786?
573425a6d058e614000b6a01
Virginia Statute for Religious Freedom
98
False
In what year could Richmond first be said to have recovered from the destruction of the American Revolution?
573425a6d058e614000b6a02
1782
48
False
Richmond recovered quickly from the war, and by 1782 was once again a thriving city. In 1786, the Virginia Statute for Religious Freedom (drafted by Thomas Jefferson) was passed at the temporary capitol in Richmond, providing the basis for the separation of church and state, a key element in the development of the freedom of religion in the United States. A permanent home for the new government, the Virginia State Capitol building, was designed by Thomas Jefferson with the assistance of Charles-Louis Clérisseau, and was completed in 1788.
What man-made body of water was designed in part by George Washington?
573426384776f41900661973
James River and Kanawha Canal
246
False
To where was the canal designed by Washington intended to ferry water?
573426384776f41900661974
Kanawha River
399
False
To what city was Henry Brown shipped as freight?
573426384776f41900661975
Philadelphia
974
False
What was Henry Brown's nickname?
573426384776f41900661976
Box
862
False
What sort of economic center was Richmond in the wake of the American Revolution?
573426384776f41900661977
industrial
71
False
After the American Revolutionary War, Richmond emerged as an important industrial center. To facilitate the transfer of cargo from the flat-bottomed bateaux above the fall line to the ocean-faring ships below, George Washington helped design the James River and Kanawha Canal in the 18th century to bypass Richmond's rapids, with the intent of providing a water route across the Appalachians to the Kanawha River. The legacy of the canal boatmen is represented by the figure in the center of the city flag. As a result of this and ample access to hydropower due to the falls, Richmond became home to some of the largest manufacturing facilities in the country, including iron works and flour mills, the largest facilities of their kind in the South. The resistance to the slave trade was growing by the mid-nineteenth century; in one famous case in 1848, Henry "Box" Brown made history by having himself nailed into a small box and shipped from Richmond to abolitionists in Philadelphia, Pennsylvania, escaping slavery.
On what date was Virginia's secession from the Union?
573427f7d058e614000b6a3a
17 April 1861
3
False
After leaving the Union, what nation did Virginia join?
573427f7d058e614000b6a3b
Confederacy
143
False
Along with 1864-5, what year notably saw US campaigns directed at Richmond?
573427f7d058e614000b6a3c
1862
614
False
On 17 April 1861, five days after the Confederate attack on Fort Sumter, the legislature voted to secede from the United States and joined the Confederacy. Official action came in May, after the Confederacy promised to move its national capital to Richmond. The city was at the end of a long supply line, which made it somewhat difficult to defend, although supplies continued to reach the city by canal and wagon for years, since it was protected by the Army of Northern Virginia and arguably the Confederacy's best troops and commanders. It became the main target of Union armies, especially in the campaigns of 1862 and 1864-5.
What was the name of the biggest factory in the Confederate States of America?
57342891d058e614000b6a5a
Tredegar Iron Works
193
False
What was the name of the first ironclad warship that saw combat?
57342891d058e614000b6a5b
CSS Virginia
319
False
What is another name for the Confederacy's executive mansion?
57342891d058e614000b6a5c
White House of the Confederacy
590
False
How far away from the Confederate executive mansion was the Virginia State Capitol?
57342891d058e614000b6a5d
two blocks
631
False
Who commanded the Union armies during the Seven Days Battles?
57342891d058e614000b6a5e
McClellan
741
False
In addition to Virginia and Confederate government offices and hospitals, a railroad hub, and one of the South's largest slave markets, Richmond had the largest factory in the Confederacy, the Tredegar Iron Works, which turned out artillery and other munitions, including the 723 tons of armor plating that covered the CSS Virginia, the world's first ironclad used in war, as well as much of the Confederates' heavy ordnance machinery. The Confederate Congress shared quarters with the Virginia General Assembly in the Virginia State Capitol, with the Confederacy's executive mansion, the "White House of the Confederacy", located two blocks away. The Seven Days Battles followed in late June and early July 1862, during which Union General McClellan threatened to take Richmond but ultimately failed.
Where was Petersburg located in relation to Ford Stedman?
573429574776f419006619dd
east
168
False
5000 men represented what fraction of General Lee's army?
573429574776f419006619de
tenth
602
False
On what road did the US Army Sixth Corps shatter the Confederate line?
573429574776f419006619df
Boydton Plank
513
False
What general commanded the attack on Fort Stedman?
573429574776f419006619e0
John B. Gordon
118
False
In what month of 1865 was Richmond judged to be no longer able to be defended?
573429574776f419006619e1
March
22
False
Three years later, as March 1865 ended, the Confederate capitol became indefensible. On March 25, Confederate General John B. Gordon's desperate attack on Fort Stedman east of Petersburg failed. On April 1, General Philip Sheridan, assigned to interdict the Southside Railroad, met brigades commanded by George Pickett at the Five Forks junction, smashing them, taking thousands of prisoners, and encouraging General Grant to order a general advance. When the Union Sixth Corps broke through Confederate lines on Boydton Plank Road south of Petersburg, Confederate casualties exceeded 5000, or about a tenth of Lee's defending army. General Lee then informed Jefferson Davis that he was about to evacuate Richmond.
What was contained in warehouses that were notably burned by Confederates when evacuating Richmond?
573430a44776f41900661a31
tobacco
138
False
What general received the surrender of Richmond?
573430a44776f41900661a32
Godfrey Weitzel
232
False
On what day did the Confederacy surrender Richmond to the Union?
573430a44776f41900661a33
April 2, 1865
209
False
By what means did Davis leave Richmond?
573430a44776f41900661a34
train
39
False
What percentage of Richmond was destroyed by fire after the Confederate evacuation?
573430a44776f41900661a35
25
474
False
Davis and his cabinet left the city by train that night, as government officials burned documents and departing Confederate troops burned tobacco and other warehouses to deny their contents to the victors. On April 2, 1865, General Godfrey Weitzel, commander of the 25th corps of the United States Colored Troops, accepted the city's surrender from the mayor and group of leading citizens who remained. The Union troops eventually managed to stop the raging fires but about 25% of the city's buildings were destroyed-
What was the date before the day Lincoln entered Richmond?
573431c5d058e614000b6ad6
April 3
65
False
How many soldiers did Lee have remaining when he surrendered?
573431c5d058e614000b6ad7
10000
894
False
To what state did Davis travel after Lee surrendered?
573431c5d058e614000b6ad8
North Carolina
985
False
In what structure did Lee surrender to Grant?
573431c5d058e614000b6ad9
Appomattox Court House
910
False
How many years did Davis spend in Fort Monroe?
573431c5d058e614000b6ada
two
1314
False
President Abraham Lincoln visited General Grant at Petersburg on April 3, and took a launch to Richmond the next day, while Jefferson Davis attempted to organize his Confederate government at Danville. Lincoln met Confederate assistant secretary of War John A. Campbell, and handed him a note inviting Virginia's legislature to end their rebellion. After Campbell spun the note to Confederate legislators as a possible end to the Emancipation Proclamation, Lincoln rescinded his offer and ordered General Weitzel to prevent the Confederate state legislature from meeting. Union forces killed, wounded or captured 8000 Confederate troops at Saylor's Creek southwest of Petersburg on April 6. General Lee continued to reject General Grant's surrender suggestion until Sheridan's infantry and cavalry appeared in front of his retreating army on April 8. He surrendered his remaining approximately 10000 troops at Appomattox Court House the following morning. Jefferson Davis retreated to North Carolina, then further south. when Lincoln rejected the surrender terms negotiated by general Sherman and envoys of North Carolina governor Zebulon Vance, which failed to mention slavery. Davis was captured on May 10 near Irwinville, Georgia and taken back to Virginia, where he was charged with treason and imprisoned for two years at Fort Monroe until freed on bail.
What mode of transportation took over from the canals?
573432224776f41900661a4f
railroads
233
False
What sort of railroad crossing was first built at Richmond?
573432224776f41900661a50
triple
352
False
Who was the inventor of the cigarette-rolling machine?
573432224776f41900661a51
James Albert Bonsack
507
False
From what city did James Bonsack originate?
573432224776f41900661a52
Roanoke
531
False
What was the name of the first American trolley system powered by electricity?
573432224776f41900661a53
Richmond Union Passenger Railway
676
False
Richmond emerged a decade after the smoldering rubble of the Civil War to resume its position as an economic powerhouse, with iron front buildings and massive brick factories. Canal traffic peaked in the 1860s and slowly gave way to railroads, allowing Richmond to become a major railroad crossroads, eventually including the site of the world's first triple railroad crossing. Tobacco warehousing and processing continued to play a role, boosted by the world's first cigarette-rolling machine, invented by James Albert Bonsack of Roanoke in 1880/81. Contributing to Richmond's resurgence was the first successful electrically powered trolley system in the United States, the Richmond Union Passenger Railway. Designed by electric power pioneer Frank J. Sprague, the trolley system opened its first line in 1888, and electric streetcar lines rapidly spread to other cities across the country. Sprague's system used an overhead wire and trolley pole to collect current, with electric motors on the car's trucks. In Richmond, the transition from streetcars to buses began in May 1947 and was completed on November 25, 1949.
When the 1900s began, how many people lived in Richmond?
573432b34776f41900661a59
85,050
72
False
How many square kilometers was Richmond at the start of the 20th century?
573432b34776f41900661a5a
13
98
False
What percentage of Richmond's 1900 population was African American?
573432b34776f41900661a5b
37.9
257
False
What was another name for Richmond's Jackson Ward?
573432b34776f41900661a5c
Wall Street of Black America
419
False
Who was the inaugural president of the St. Luke Penny Savings Bank?
573432b34776f41900661a5d
Maggie L. Walker
504
False
By the beginning of the 20th century, the city's population had reached 85,050 in 5 square miles (13 km2), making it the most densely populated city in the Southern United States. In 1900, the Census Bureau reported Richmond's population as 62.1% white and 37.9% black. Freed slaves and their descendants created a thriving African-American business community, and the city's historic Jackson Ward became known as the "Wall Street of Black America." In 1903, African-American businesswoman and financier Maggie L. Walker chartered St. Luke Penny Savings Bank, and served as its first president, as well as the first female bank president in the United States. Today, the bank is called the Consolidated Bank and Trust Company, and it is the oldest surviving African-American bank in the U.S. Other figures from this time included John Mitchell, Jr. In 1910, the former city of Manchester was consolidated with the city of Richmond, and in 1914, the city annexed Barton Heights, Ginter Park, and Highland Park areas of Henrico County. In May 1914, Richmond became the headquarters of the Fifth District of the Federal Reserve Bank.
When did the so-called downtown boom in Richmond end?
57343306d058e614000b6afe
1965
17
False
About how many structures were built in Richmond during the downtown boom?
57343306d058e614000b6aff
700
93
False
What combined with the Richmond Professional Institute to form Virginia Commonwealth University?
57343306d058e614000b6b00
Medical College of Virginia
195
False
In what direction did Richmond's borders expand in 1970?
57343306d058e614000b6b01
south
351
False
People of what county did not want to join Richmond circa 1970?
57343306d058e614000b6b02
Chesterfield
402
False
Between 1963 and 1965, there was a "downtown boom" that led to the construction of more than 700 buildings in the city. In 1968, Virginia Commonwealth University was created by the merger of the Medical College of Virginia with the Richmond Professional Institute. In 1970, Richmond's borders expanded by an additional 27 square miles (70 km2) on the south. After several years of court cases in which Chesterfield County fought annexation, more than 47,000 people who once were Chesterfield County residents found themselves within the city's perimeters on January 1, 1970. In 1996, still-sore tensions arose amid controversy involved in placing a statue of African American Richmond native and tennis star Arthur Ashe to the famed series of statues of Confederate heroes of the Civil War on Monument Avenue. After several months of controversy, the bronze statue of Ashe was finally completed on Monument Avenue facing the opposite direction from the Confederate Heroes on July 10, 1996.
How many square kilometers is Richmond?
5734339cd058e614000b6b12
160
191
False
How many square miles of Richmond is water?
5734339cd058e614000b6b13
2.7
248
False
What percentage of Richmond is made up of water?
5734339cd058e614000b6b14
4.3
282
False
In which of Virginia's regions is Richmond?
5734339cd058e614000b6b15
Piedmont
325
False
Along with the James and the Chickahominy, what is a notable river in the area near Richmond?
5734339cd058e614000b6b16
Appomattox
630
False
Richmond is located at 37°32′N 77°28′W﻿ / ﻿37.533°N 77.467°W﻿ / 37.533; -77.467 (37.538, −77.462). According to the United States Census Bureau, the city has a total area of 62 square miles (160 km2), of which 60 square miles (160 km2) is land and 2.7 square miles (7.0 km2) of it (4.3%) is water. The city is located in the Piedmont region of Virginia, at the highest navigable point of the James River. The Piedmont region is characterized by relatively low, rolling hills, and lies between the low, sea level Tidewater region and the Blue Ridge Mountains. Significant bodies of water in the region include the James River, the Appomattox River, and the Chickahominy River.
What neighborhood is located in between Church and Shockoe Hill?
573437504776f41900661a93
Shockoe Bottom
260
False
What Richmond neighborhood is home to the Jefferson Hotel?
573437504776f41900661a94
Monroe Ward
366
False
What neighborhood of Richmond contains St. John's Church?
573437504776f41900661a95
Church Hill
483
False
What is Fairfield Court?
573437504776f41900661a96
public housing projects
590
False
In what year was the Richmond street grid first developed?
573437504776f41900661a97
1737
45
False
Richmond's original street grid, laid out in 1737, included the area between what are now Broad, 17th, and 25th Streets and the James River. Modern Downtown Richmond is located slightly farther west, on the slopes of Shockoe Hill. Nearby neighborhoods include Shockoe Bottom, the historically significant and low-lying area between Shockoe Hill and Church Hill, and Monroe Ward, which contains the Jefferson Hotel. Richmond's East End includes neighborhoods like rapidly gentrifying Church Hill, home to St. John's Church, as well as poorer areas like Fulton, Union Hill, and Fairmont, and public housing projects like Mosby Court, Whitcomb Court, Fairfield Court, and Creighton Court closer to Interstate 64.
The neighborhood of Newtowne West is north of what street?
57343a9f4776f41900661aa7
Broad
189
False
Along with Newtowne West, to what neighborhood is Carver regarded as having comparable demographics?
57343a9f4776f41900661aa8
Jackson Ward
289
False
What Richmond street contains a notable amount of Victorian buildings?
57343a9f4776f41900661aa9
Monument Avenue
483
False
In what part of Richmond is the Virginia Museum of Fine Arts found?
57343a9f4776f41900661aaa
Museum District
601
False
What is the primary race of the population of the Randolph neighborhood?
57343a9f4776f41900661aab
black
799
False
The area between Belvidere Street, Interstate 195, Interstate 95, and the river, which includes Virginia Commonwealth University, is socioeconomically and architecturally diverse. North of Broad Street, the Carver and Newtowne West neighborhoods are demographically similar to neighboring Jackson Ward, with Carver experiencing some gentrification due to its proximity to VCU. The affluent area between the Boulevard, Main Street, Broad Street, and VCU, known as the Fan, is home to Monument Avenue, an outstanding collection of Victorian architecture, and many students. West of the Boulevard is the Museum District, the location of the Virginia Historical Society and the Virginia Museum of Fine Arts. South of the Downtown Expressway are Byrd Park, Maymont, Hollywood Cemetery, the predominantly black working class Randolph neighborhood, and white working class Oregon Hill. Cary Street between Interstate 195 and the Boulevard is a popular commercial area called Carytown.
What name is given to the part of Richmond located to the south of the James?
57343b404776f41900661ab1
Southside
65
False
Along with the affluent, what is the socioeconomic class of the inhabitants of the Southside?
57343b404776f41900661ab2
middle class
143
False
What notable public housing projects are present in the Southside?
57343b404776f41900661ab3
Hillside Court
351
False
Prior to joining Richmond, what county was a significant portion of Southside part of?
57343b404776f41900661ab4
Chesterfield
613
False
What is the economic status of the Manchester part of Richmond?
57343b404776f41900661ab5
impoverished
302
False
The portion of the city south of the James River is known as the Southside. Neighborhoods in the city's Southside area range from affluent and middle class suburban neighborhoods Westover Hills, Forest Hill, Southampton, Stratford Hills, Oxford, Huguenot Hills, Hobby Hill, and Woodland Heights to the impoverished Manchester and Blackwell areas, the Hillside Court housing projects, and the ailing Jefferson Davis Highway commercial corridor. Other Southside neighborhoods include Fawnbrook, Broad Rock, Cherry Gardens, Cullenwood, and Beaufont Hills. Much of Southside developed a suburban character as part of Chesterfield County before being annexed by Richmond, most notably in 1970.
What is Richmond's Köppen climate classification?
57343cffd058e614000b6b5e
Cfa
49
False
How could one characterize the winters in Richmond?
57343cffd058e614000b6b5f
generally cool
86
False
What geographic feature keeps some cold inland air from reaching Richmond?
57343cffd058e614000b6b60
mountains
114
False
In what month of the year does Richmond's chilliest weather typically end?
57343cffd058e614000b6b61
February
495
False
About how many days a year does the temperature in Richmond go above 32 degrees Celsius?
57343cffd058e614000b6b62
43
996
False
Richmond has a humid subtropical climate (Köppen Cfa), with hot and humid summers and generally cool winters. The mountains to the west act as a partial barrier to outbreaks of cold, continental air in winter; Arctic air is delayed long enough to be modified, then further warmed as it subsides in its approach to Richmond. The open waters of the Chesapeake Bay and Atlantic Ocean contribute to the humid summers and mild winters. The coldest weather normally occurs from late December to early February, and the January daily mean temperature is 37.9 °F (3.3 °C), with an average of 6.0 days with highs at or below the freezing mark. Downtown areas straddle the border between USDA Hardiness zones 7B and 8A, and temperatures seldom lower to 0 °F (−18 °C), with the most recent subzero (°F) reading occurring on January 28, 2000, when the temperature reached −1 °F (−18 °C). The July daily mean temperature is 79.3 °F (26.3 °C), and high temperatures reach or exceed 90 °F (32 °C) approximately 43 days out of the year; while 100 °F (38 °C) temperatures are not uncommon, they do not occur every year. Extremes in temperature have ranged from −12 °F (−24 °C) on January 19, 1940 up to 107 °F (42 °C) on August 6, 1918.[a]
What season in Richmond is most likely to see periods of dryness?
57343d7e4776f41900661ad9
autumn
134
False
How many times does Richmond receive 7.6 centimeters or more of snow in a 24 hour period annually?
57343d7e4776f41900661ada
once
461
False
About how many centimeters of snow does Richmond experience in the fall?
57343d7e4776f41900661adb
27
543
False
During what span of 2010 did snowfall remain for a significant amount of time on the ground in Richmond?
57343d7e4776f41900661adc
January 30 to February 14
665
False
What types of ice storms sometimes hit Richmond?
57343d7e4776f41900661add
freezing rain or glaze
705
False
Precipitation is rather uniformly distributed throughout the year. However, dry periods lasting several weeks do occur, especially in autumn when long periods of pleasant, mild weather are most common. There is considerable variability in total monthly amounts from year to year so that no one month can be depended upon to be normal. Snow has been recorded during seven of the twelve months. Falls of 3 inches (7.6 cm) or more within 24 hours occur an average once per year. Annual snowfall, however, is usually light, averaging 10.5 inches (27 cm) per season. Snow typically remains on the ground only one or two days at a time, but remained for 16 days in 2010 (January 30 to February 14). Ice storms (freezing rain or glaze) are not uncommon, but they are seldom severe enough to do any considerable damage.
What is the most likely month for the James to flood Richmond?
57343dd54776f41900661ae3
March
118
False
What month sees the lowest likelihood of the James flooding?
57343dd54776f41900661ae4
July
137
False
In 1955, Richmond was hit with three hurricanes in how many weeks?
57343dd54776f41900661ae5
six
398
False
In 1955, what two hurricanes occurred within a week of one another?
57343dd54776f41900661ae6
Hurricane Connie and Hurricane Diane
449
False
What hurricane hit Richmond in 2004?
57343dd54776f41900661ae7
Gaston
623
False
The James River reaches tidewater at Richmond where flooding may occur in every month of the year, most frequently in March and least in July. Hurricanes and tropical storms have been responsible for most of the flooding during the summer and early fall months. Hurricanes passing near Richmond have produced record rainfalls. In 1955, three hurricanes brought record rainfall to Richmond within a six-week period. The most noteworthy of these were Hurricane Connie and Hurricane Diane that brought heavy rains five days apart. And in 2004, the downtown area suffered extensive flood damage after the remnants of Hurricane Gaston dumped up to 12 inches (300 mm) of rainfall.
In 2000, how many families lived in Richmond?
57343e3a4776f41900661aed
43,627
76
False
As of 2000, how many people lived in Richmond per square kilometer?
57343e3a4776f41900661aee
1,271.3
173
False
What percentage of the Richmond population of 2000 was Pacific Islander?
57343e3a4776f41900661aef
0.1
386
False
What was the largest racial group in Richmond as of 2000?
57343e3a4776f41900661af0
African American
334
False
In 2000, what percentage of Richmond residents were multiracial?
57343e3a4776f41900661af1
1.5
436
False
As of the census of 2000, there were 197,790 people, 84,549 households, and 43,627 families residing in the city. The population density was 3,292.6 people per square mile (1,271.3/km²). There were 92,282 housing units at an average density of 1,536.2 per square mile (593.1/km²). The racial makeup of the city was 38.3% White, 57.2% African American, 0.2% Native American, 1.3% Asian, 0.1% Pacific Islander, 1.5% from other races, and 1.5% from two or more races. Hispanic or Latino of any race were 2.6% of the population.
What crime notably increased in Richmond over the course of the 1980s?
57343f8dd058e614000b6b7c
murder
112
False
In 1985, how many people were murdered in Richmond?
57343f8dd058e614000b6b7d
93
138
False
How many people per 100,000 were murdered in Richmond in 1990?
57343f8dd058e614000b6b7e
56.1
365
False
How many murders occurred in Richmond in 1995?
57343f8dd058e614000b6b7f
120
413
False
During the late 1980s and early 1990s, Richmond experienced a spike in overall crime, in particular, the city's murder rate. The city had 93 murders for the year of 1985, with a murder rate of 41.9 killings committed per 100,000 residents. Over the next decade, the city saw a major increase in total homicides. In 1990 there were 114 murders, for a murder rate of 56.1 killings per 100,000 residents. There were 120 murders in 1995, resulting in a murder rate of 59.1 killings per 100,000 residents, one of the highest in the United States.
What is the oldest Presbyterian church in Richmond?
57344025d058e614000b6b8e
First Presbyterian Church
517
False
Who was a notable congregant at Second Presbyterian Church?
57344025d058e614000b6b8f
Stonewall Jackson
679
False
What architectural style was Second Presbyterian Church built in?
57344025d058e614000b6b90
Gothic
724
False
On what date did the oldest Catholic church open in Richmond?
57344025d058e614000b6b91
May 25, 1834
879
False
In what year was Richmond's First Baptist Church founded?
57344025d058e614000b6b92
1780
419
False
Richmond has several historic churches. Because of its early English colonial history from the early 17th century to 1776, Richmond has a number of prominent Anglican/Episcopal churches including Monumental Church, St. Paul's Episcopal Church and St. John's Episcopal Church. Methodists and Baptists made up another section of early churches, and First Baptist Church of Richmond was the first of these, established in 1780. In the Reformed church tradition, the first Presbyterian Church in the City of Richmond was First Presbyterian Church, organized on June 18, 1812. On February 5, 1845, Second Presbyterian Church of Richmond was founded, which was a historic church where Stonewall Jackson attended and was the first Gothic building and the first gas-lit church to be built in Richmond. St. Peter's Church was dedicated and became the first Catholic church in Richmond on May 25, 1834. The city is also home to the historic Cathedral of the Sacred Heart which is the motherchurch for the Roman Catholic Diocese of Richmond.
Along with Chabad of Virginia, what is the other Orthodox synagogue in Richmond?
5734408d879d6814001ca3fb
Keneseth Beth Israel
352
False
What grades does the Rudlin Torah academy serve?
5734408d879d6814001ca3fc
K–12
427
False
What sect of Judaism is Rudlin Torah affiliated with?
5734408d879d6814001ca3fd
Orthodox
409
False
What are the names of the Conservative synagogues in Richmond?
5734408d879d6814001ca3fe
Beth El and Or Atid
564
False
How many synagogues in the Reform tradition are present in Richmond?
5734408d879d6814001ca3ff
three
595
False
The first Jewish congregation in Richmond was Kahal Kadosh Beth Shalom. Kahal Kadosh Beth Shalom was the sixth congregation in the United States. By 1822 K.K. Beth Shalom members worshipped in the first synagogue building in Virginia. They eventually merged with Congregation Beth Ahabah, an offshoot of Beth Shalom. There are two Orthodox Synagogues, Keneseth Beth Israel and Chabad of Virginia. There is an Orthodox Yeshivah K–12 school system known as Rudlin Torah academy, which also includes a post high-school program. There are two Conservative synagogues, Beth El and Or Atid. There are three Reform synagogues, Bonay Kodesh, Beth Ahabah and Or Ami. Along with such religious congregations, there are a variety of other Jewish charitable, educational and social service institutions, each serving the Jewish and general communities. These include the Weinstein Jewish Community Center, Jewish Family Services, Jewish Community Federation of Richmond and Richmond Jewish Foundation.
Where did Richmond's Nation of Islam members initially meet?
57344108879d6814001ca405
Temple #24
288
False
On what street is Masjid Bilal located?
57344108879d6814001ca406
Chimbarazoo Boulevard
619
False
What was Masjid Bilal previously known as?
57344108879d6814001ca407
Masjid Muhammad #24
713
False
What year saw the establishment of the Islamic Center of Virginia?
57344108879d6814001ca408
1973
896
False
On what street can Shabaaz Restaurant be found?
57344108879d6814001ca409
Nine Mile Road
433
False
There are seven current masjids in the Greater Richmond area, with three more currently in construction, accommodating the growing Muslim population, the first one being Masjid Bilal. In the 1950s, Muslims from the East End got organized under Nation of Islam (NOI). They used to meet in Temple #24 located on North Avenue. After the NOI split in 1975, the Muslims who joined mainstream Islam, start meeting at Shabaaz Restaurant on Nine Mile Road. By 1976, the Muslims used to meet in a rented church. They tried to buy this church, but due to financial difficulties the Muslims instead bought an old grocery store at Chimbarazoo Boulevard, the present location of Masjid Bilal. Initially, the place was called "Masjid Muhammad #24". Only by 1990 did the Muslims renamed it to "Masjid Bilal". Masjid Bilal was followed by the Islamic Center of Virginia, ICVA masjid. The ICVA was established in 1973 as a non profit tax exempt organization. With aggressive fundraising, ICVA was able to buy land on Buford road. Construction of the new masjid began in the early 1980s. The rest of the five current masjids in the Richmond area are Islamic Center of Richmond (ICR) in the west end, Masjid Umm Barakah on 2nd street downtown, Islamic Society of Greater Richmond (ISGR) in the west end, Masjidullah in the north side, and Masjid Ar-Rahman in the east end.
How many Indian-descended families lived in or around Richmond in 2011?
5734415cacc1501500babd29
6,000
97
False
What does CCI stand for?
5734415cacc1501500babd2a
Cultural Center of India
262
False
In what county can CCI be found?
5734415cacc1501500babd2b
Chesterfield
328
False
What road is CCI near?
5734415cacc1501500babd2c
Iron Bridge
308
False
Along with CCI, what is the other Hindu gathering place near Richmond?
5734415cacc1501500babd2d
Hindu Center of Virginia
356
False
Hinduism is actively practiced, particularly in suburban areas of Henrico and Chesterfield. Some 6,000 families of Indian descent resided in the Richmond Region as of 2011. Hindus are served by several temples and cultural centers. The two most familiar are the Cultural Center of India (CCI) located off of Iron Bridge Road in Chesterfield County and the Hindu Center of Virginia in Henrico County which has garnered national fame and awards for being the first LEED certified religious facility in the commonwealth.
What federal court is located in Richmond?
573441d4acc1501500babd33
United States Court of Appeals for the Fourth Circuit
91
False
Along with Philip Morris and CapitalOne, what prominent corporation is present in Richmond?
573441d4acc1501500babd34
Genworth Financial
319
False
What type of business is LeClairRyan?
573441d4acc1501500babd35
law firms
456
False
When did the Troutman Sanders-Mays & Valentine LLP merger occur?
573441d4acc1501500babd36
2001
681
False
How many Federal Reserve Banks exist in the United States?
573441d4acc1501500babd37
12
238
False
Law and finance have long been driving forces in the economy. The city is home to both the United States Court of Appeals for the Fourth Circuit, one of 13 United States courts of appeals, and the Federal Reserve Bank of Richmond, one of 12 Federal Reserve Banks, as well as offices for international companies such as Genworth Financial, CapitalOne, Philip Morris USA, and numerous other banks and brokerages. Richmond is also home to four of the largest law firms in the United States: Hunton & Williams, McGuireWoods, Williams Mullen, and LeClairRyan. Another law firm with a major Richmond presence is Troutman Sanders, which merged with Richmond-based Mays & Valentine LLP in 2001.
How many square meters of space does Virginia BioTechnology Research Park consist of?
5734438f879d6814001ca419
53,400
338
False
What does the United Network for Organ Sharing do?
5734438f879d6814001ca41a
maintains the nation's organ transplant waiting list
548
False
What was the cost of the Philip Morris R&D facility opened at the Virginia BioTechnology Research Park?
5734438f879d6814001ca41b
$350 million
664
False
When did Philip Morris' R&D facility open?
5734438f879d6814001ca41c
2007
726
False
What Virginia Commonwealth University campus is near Virginia BioTechnology Research Park?
5734438f879d6814001ca41d
Medical College of Virginia
199
False
Richmond is home to the rapidly developing Virginia BioTechnology Research Park, which opened in 1995 as an incubator facility for biotechnology and pharmaceutical companies. Located adjacent to the Medical College of Virginia (MCV) Campus of Virginia Commonwealth University, the park currently[when?] has more than 575,000 square feet (53,400 m2) of research, laboratory and office space for a diverse tenant mix of companies, research institutes, government laboratories and non-profit organizations. The United Network for Organ Sharing, which maintains the nation's organ transplant waiting list, occupies one building in the park. Philip Morris USA opened a $350 million research and development facility in the park in 2007. Once fully developed, park officials expect the site to employ roughly 3,000 scientists, technicians and engineers.
What periodical called Richmond "The Next Great American Food City"?
573443f3acc1501500babd3d
Departures magazine
209
False
According to Southern Living, what are the three best restaurants in Richmond?
573443f3acc1501500babd3e
Comfort, Heritage and The Roosevelt
370
False
How many microbreweries exist in Richmond?
573443f3acc1501500babd3f
twelve
608
False
What was the first microbrewery to set up shop in Richmond?
573443f3acc1501500babd40
Legend Brewery
661
False
When was James River Distillery founded?
573443f3acc1501500babd41
2014
824
False
Richmond is also fast-becoming known for its food scene, with several restaurants in the Fan, Church Hill, Jackson Ward and elsewhere around the city generating regional and national attention for their fare. Departures magazine named Richmond "The Next Great American Food City" in August 2014. Also in 2014, Southern Living magazine named three Richmond restaurants – Comfort, Heritage and The Roosevelt – among its "100 Best Restaurants in the South", while Metzger Bar & Butchery made its "Best New Restaurants: 12 To Watch" list. Craft beer and liquor production is also growing in the River City, with twelve micro-breweries in city proper; the oldest is Legend Brewery, founded in 1994. Three distilleries, Reservoir Distillery, Belle Isle Craft Spirits and James River Distillery, were established in 2010, 2013 and 2014, respectively.
What movie, which filmed in Richmond, featured Daniel Day-Lewis?
573444a1879d6814001ca43d
Lincoln
198
False
Who notably appeared in Killing Kennedy?
573444a1879d6814001ca43e
Rob Lowe
272
False
On what television channel can the show Turn be seen?
573444a1879d6814001ca43f
AMC
368
False
When will Mercy Street first be shown on television?
573444a1879d6814001ca440
Winter 2016
495
False
What channel is Killing Kennedy on?
573444a1879d6814001ca441
National Geographic Channel
296
False
Additionally, Richmond is gaining attention from the film and television industry, with several high-profile films shot in the metro region in the past few years, including the major motion picture Lincoln which led to Daniel Day-Lewis's third Oscar, Killing Kennedy with Rob Lowe, airing on the National Geographic Channel and Turn, starring Jamie Bell and airing on AMC. In 2015 Richmond will be the main filming location for the upcoming PBS drama series Mercy Street, which will premiere in Winter 2016. Several organizations, including the Virginia Film Office and the Virginia Production Alliance, along with events like the Richmond International Film Festival and French Film Festival, continue to put draw supporters of film and media to the region.
According to MarketWatch, where did Richmond rank among cities for business?
57344500acc1501500babd4f
third
40
False
What did MarketWatch think was the fourth best city for business?
57344500acc1501500babd50
Boston
171
False
What type of business is Dominion Resources?
57344500acc1501500babd51
electric utility
226
False
Prior to moving to the Richmond area, where was Altria's headquarters located?
57344500acc1501500babd52
New York City
580
False
What company moved to Richmond from Connecticut?
57344500acc1501500babd53
MeadWestvaco
690
False
The Greater Richmond area was named the third-best city for business by MarketWatch in September 2007, ranking behind only the Minneapolis and Denver areas and just above Boston. The area is home to six Fortune 500 companies: electric utility Dominion Resources; CarMax; Owens & Minor; Genworth Financial; MeadWestvaco; McKesson Medical-Surgical and Altria Group. However, only Dominion Resources and MeadWestvaco are headquartered within the city of Richmond; the others are located in the neighboring counties of Henrico and Hanover. In 2008, Altria moved its corporate HQ from New York City to Henrico County, adding another Fortune 500 corporation to Richmond's list. In February 2006, MeadWestvaco announced that they would move from Stamford, Connecticut, to Richmond in 2008 with the help of the Greater Richmond Partnership, a regional economic development organization that also helped locate Aditya Birla Minacs, Amazon.com, and Honeywell International, to the region.
Where is SunTrust Bank headquartered?
57344560879d6814001ca451
Atlanta
130
False
What city is the headquarters of McKesson located in?
57344560879d6814001ca452
San Francisco
366
False
Who owns Philip Morris USA?
57344560879d6814001ca453
Altria
398
False
What DuPont factory is located in the Richmond area?
57344560879d6814001ca454
Spruance Plant
559
False
What was the former name of UPS Freight?
57344560879d6814001ca455
Overnite Transportation
650
False
Other Fortune 500 companies, while not headquartered in the area, do have a major presence. These include SunTrust Bank (based in Atlanta), Capital One Financial Corporation (officially based in McLean, Virginia, but founded in Richmond with its operations center and most employees in the Richmond area), and the medical and pharmaceutical giant McKesson (based in San Francisco). Capital One and Altria company's Philip Morris USA are two of the largest private Richmond-area employers. DuPont maintains a production facility in South Richmond known as the Spruance Plant. UPS Freight, the less-than-truckload division of UPS and formerly known as Overnite Transportation, has its corporate headquarters in Richmond.
What architectural style was the 1919 Broad Street Union Station constructed in?
573445d3879d6814001ca45b
neoclassical
310
False
How far away from the Virginia Center for Architecture is the Children's Museum of Richmond?
573445d3879d6814001ca45c
two blocks
426
False
What district of Richmond is the Virginia Historical Society located in?
573445d3879d6814001ca45d
Museum District
221
False
What museum is next to the Science Museum of Virginia?
573445d3879d6814001ca45e
Children's Museum of Richmond
391
False
Several of the city's large general museums are located near the Boulevard. On Boulevard proper are the Virginia Historical Society and the Virginia Museum of Fine Arts, lending their name to what is sometimes called the Museum District. Nearby on Broad Street is the Science Museum of Virginia, housed in the neoclassical former 1919 Broad Street Union Station. Immediately adjacent is the Children's Museum of Richmond, and two blocks away, the Virginia Center for Architecture. Within the downtown are the Library of Virginia and the Valentine Richmond History Center. Elsewhere are the Virginia Holocaust Museum and the Old Dominion Railway Museum.
In what former industrial facility is the Richmond National Battlefield Park Visitors Center located?
5734466eacc1501500babd77
Tredegar Iron Works
322
False
What government building is the Museum of the Confederacy located near?
5734466eacc1501500babd78
Virginia State Capitol
419
False
What is another name for the Davis Mansion?
5734466eacc1501500babd79
White House of the Confederacy
525
False
On what Richmond street did General Lee live for a while?
5734466eacc1501500babd7a
Franklin
702
False
Where are the Reconciliation Statues outside Richmond located?
5734466eacc1501500babd7b
Liverpool and Benin
1067
False
As the primary former Capital of the Confederate States of America, Richmond is home to many museums and battlefields of the American Civil War. Near the riverfront is the Richmond National Battlefield Park Visitors Center and the American Civil War Center at Historic Tredegar, both housed in the former buildings of the Tredegar Iron Works, where much of the ordnance for the war was produced. In Court End, near the Virginia State Capitol, is the Museum of the Confederacy, along with the Davis Mansion, also known as the White House of the Confederacy; both feature a wide variety of objects and material from the era. The temporary home of former Confederate General Robert E. Lee still stands on Franklin Street in downtown Richmond. The history of slavery and emancipation are also increasingly represented: there is a former slave trail along the river that leads to Ancarrow's Boat Ramp and Historic Site which has been developed with interpretive signage, and in 2007, the Reconciliation Statue was placed in Shockoe Bottom, with parallel statues placed in Liverpool and Benin representing points of the Triangle Trade.
What office was held by the inhabitant of the John Marshall House?
573446e7acc1501500babd81
Chief Justice of the United States
371
False
How many United States presidents are interred in Hollywood Cemetery?
573446e7acc1501500babd82
two
537
False
Who gave a speech that contained the famous saying "Give me liberty or give me death"?
573446e7acc1501500babd83
Patrick Henry
75
False
Where did Patrick Henry deliver his memorable speech?
573446e7acc1501500babd84
St. John's Church
44
False
Other historical points of interest include St. John's Church, the site of Patrick Henry's famous "Give me liberty or give me death" speech, and the Edgar Allan Poe Museum, features many of his writings and other artifacts of his life, particularly when he lived in the city as a child, a student, and a successful writer. The John Marshall House, the home of the former Chief Justice of the United States, is also located downtown and features many of his writings and objects from his life. Hollywood Cemetery is the burial grounds of two U.S. Presidents as well as many Civil War officers and soldiers.
What was the nickname of Bill Robinson?
57344767acc1501500babd89
Bojangles
150
False
Near what park is the monument dedicated to the person traditionally regarded as discovering America?
57344767acc1501500babd8a
Byrd
235
False
How many bells are contained in the World War I Memorial Carillon?
57344767acc1501500babd8b
56
381
False
The dead of what war were the first to be commemorated by the Virginia War Memorial?
57344767acc1501500babd8c
World War II
551
False
In what neighborhood is the monument to Bill Robinson located?
57344767acc1501500babd8d
Jackson Ward
182
False
The city is home to many monuments and memorials, most notably those along Monument Avenue. Other monuments include the A.P. Hill monument, the Bill "Bojangles" Robinson monument in Jackson Ward, the Christopher Columbus monument near Byrd Park, and the Confederate Soldiers and Sailors Monument on Libby Hill. Located near Byrd Park is the famous World War I Memorial Carillon, a 56-bell carillon tower. Dedicated in 1956, the Virginia War Memorial is located on Belvedere overlooking the river, and is a monument to Virginians who died in battle in World War II, the Korean War, the Vietnam War, the Gulf War, the War in Afghanistan, and the Iraq War.
What notable project was funded by Richmond's "admissions tax"?
57344947acc1501500babd93
CentreStage
437
False
Along with blues and bluegrass, what is a type of folk music traditional to Virginia?
57344947acc1501500babd94
country
602
False
Along with busking and itinerant folk shows, what is an example of venueless art?
57344947acc1501500babd95
house shows
280
False
Richmond has a significant arts community, some of which is contained in formal public-supported venues, and some of which is more DIY, such as local privately owned galleries, and private music venues, nonprofit arts organizations, or organic and venueless arts movements (e.g., house shows, busking, itinerant folk shows). This has led to tensions, as the city Richmond City levied an "admissions tax" to fund large arts projects like CentreStage, leading to criticism that it is funding civic initiatives on the backs of the organic local culture. Traditional Virginian folk music, including blues, country, and bluegrass are also notably present, and play a large part in the annual Richmond Folk Festival. The following is a list of the more formal arts establishments (Companies, theaters, galleries, and other large venues) in Richmond:
Along with Hamilton Glass and El Kamino, who is a mural artist local to Richmond?
573449cf879d6814001ca49b
Nils Westergard
484
False
What periodical has attempted to attract internationally known mural artists to Richmond?
573449cf879d6814001ca49c
RVA
156
False
What Richmond street art gathering has brought mural artists to the city?
573449cf879d6814001ca49d
RVA Street Art Festival
209
False
As of 2015 a variety of murals from internationally recognized street artists have appeared throughout the city as a result of the efforts of Art Whino and RVA Magazine with The Richmond Mural Project and the RVA Street Art Festival. Artists who have produced work in the city as a result of these festivals include ROA, Pixel Pancho, Gaia, Aryz, Alexis Diaz, Ever Siempre, Jaz, 2501, Natalia Rak, Pose MSK, Vizie, Jeff Soto, Mark Jenkins, Etam Cru- and local artists Hamilton Glass, Nils Westergard, and El Kamino. Both festivals are expected to continue this year with artists such as Ron English slated to produce work.
In what city did Lewis Hallam present Shakespeare's plays?
57344a5b879d6814001ca4ab
Williamsburg
158
False
What family of actors notably performed in 19th century Richmond?
57344a5b879d6814001ca4ac
Booth
378
False
What is Virginia Museum Theater known as today?
57344a5b879d6814001ca4ad
Leslie Cheek
800
False
During what decade did the Virginia Museum most significantly work to promote theater in Richmond?
57344a5b879d6814001ca4ae
1970s
702
False
From earliest days, Virginia, and Richmond in particular, have welcomed live theatrical performances. From Lewis Hallam's early productions of Shakespeare in Williamsburg, the focus shifted to Richmond's antebellum prominence as a main colonial and early 19th century performance venue for such celebrated American and English actors as William Macready, Edwin Forrest, and the Booth family. In the 20th century, Richmonders' love of theater continued with many amateur troupes and regular touring professional productions. In the 1960s a small renaissance or golden age accompanied the growth of professional dinner theaters and the fostering of theater by the Virginia Museum, reaching a peak in the 1970s with the establishment of a resident Equity company at the Virginia Museum Theater (now the Leslie Cheek) and the birth of Theatre IV, a company that continues to this day.
What disaster destroyed many of the early buildings in Richmond?
57344ac0acc1501500babdaa
Evacuation Fire
59
False
What percentage of Richmond's buildings were burned in a single fire in 1865?
57344ac0acc1501500babdab
25
105
False
Prior to what year was the Patterson-Schutte House built?
57344ac0acc1501500babdac
1750
518
False
What is the name of the era from which the building housing the Edgar Allan Poe Museum dates?
57344ac0acc1501500babdad
colonial
395
False
Much of Richmond's early architecture was destroyed by the Evacuation Fire in 1865. It is estimated that 25% of all buildings in Richmond were destroyed during this fire. Even fewer now remain due to construction and demolition that has taken place since Reconstruction. In spite of this, Richmond contains many historically significant buildings and districts. Buildings remain from Richmond's colonial period, such as the Patteson-Schutte House and the Edgar Allan Poe Museum (Richmond, Virginia), both built before 1750.
What state has the oldest capital building used continuously since it was built?
57344b52acc1501500babdb7
Maryland
373
False
What architectural style was used to design the Virginia State Capitol?
57344b52acc1501500babdb8
neo-classical
439
False
What notable federal government buildings were designed in the neoclassical style?
57344b52acc1501500babdb9
White House and The Capitol
569
False
What is the architectural style of the 1845 Egyptian Building?
57344b52acc1501500babdba
Egyptian Revival
734
False
Who were the designers of the Virginia State Capitol?
57344b52acc1501500babdbb
Thomas Jefferson and Charles-Louis Clérisseau
255
False
Architectural classicism is heavily represented in all districts of the city, particularly in Downtown, the Fan, and the Museum District. Several notable classical architects have designed buildings in Richmond. The Virginia State Capitol was designed by Thomas Jefferson and Charles-Louis Clérisseau in 1785. It is the second-oldest US statehouse in continuous use (after Maryland's) and was the first US government building built in the neo-classical style of architecture, setting the trend for other state houses and the federal government buildings (including the White House and The Capitol) in Washington, D.C. Robert Mills designed Monumental Church on Broad Street. Adjoining it is the 1845 Egyptian Building, one of the few Egyptian Revival buildings in the United States.
What architectural style was used to design Branch House?
57344c2b879d6814001ca4c1
Tudor
143
False
Who designed Branch House?
57344c2b879d6814001ca4c2
John Russell Pope
12
False
What is another name for Broad Street Station?
57344c2b879d6814001ca4c3
Union Station
242
False
What style of architecture was used in the design of Union Station?
57344c2b879d6814001ca4c4
Beaux-Arts
274
False
Who designed the Commonwealth Club?
57344c2b879d6814001ca4c5
Carrère and Hastings
605
False
The firm of John Russell Pope designed Broad Street Station as well as Branch House on Monument Avenue, designed as a private residence in the Tudor style, now serving as the Branch Museum of Architecture and Design. Broad Street Station (or Union Station), designed in the Beaux-Arts style, is no longer a functioning station but is now home to the Science Museum of Virginia. Main Street Station, designed by Wilson, Harris, and Richards, has been returned to use in its original purpose. The Jefferson Hotel and the Commonwealth Club were both designed by the classically trained Beaux-Arts architects Carrère and Hastings. Many buildings on the University of Richmond campus, including Jeter Hall and Ryland Hall, were designed by Ralph Adams Cram, most famous for his Princeton University Chapel and the Cathedral of Saint John the Divine.
What United States city has the most cast iron architecture?
57344ca4acc1501500babdc9
New Orleans
103
False
In what year did iron production in Richmond peak?
57344ca4acc1501500babdca
1890
382
False
How many more iron workers than construction workers were being employed in Richmond in 1890?
57344ca4acc1501500babdcb
seven times
475
False
Along with Jackson and Monroe Wards, what neighborhood notably features cast-iron fences?
57344ca4acc1501500babdcc
Church Hill
687
False
Among Richmond's most interesting architectural features is its Cast-iron architecture. Second only to New Orleans in its concentration of cast iron work, the city is home to a unique collection of cast iron porches, balconies, fences, and finials. Richmond's position as a center of iron production helped to fuel its popularity within the city. At the height of production in the 1890, 25 foundries operated in the city employing nearly 3,500 metal workers. This number is seven times the number of general construction workers being employed in Richmond at the time which illustrates the importance of its iron exports. Porches and fences in urban neighborhoods such as Jackson Ward, Church Hill, and Monroe Ward are particularly elaborate, often featuring ornate iron casts never replicated outside of Richmond. In some cases cast were made for a single residential or commercial application.
Who was the designer of the Federal Reserve Building?
57344d2bacc1501500babddb
Minoru Yamasaki
78
False
Who designed the General Assembly Offices at the Eighth and Main Building?
57344d2bacc1501500babddc
Skidmore, Owings & Merrill
196
False
What architectural style was the Rice House designed in?
57344d2bacc1501500babddd
International
505
False
What university was Landis Gores associated with?
57344d2bacc1501500babdde
Harvard
632
False
Who did Landis Gores design a home for?
57344d2bacc1501500babddf
W.G. Harris
535
False
Richmond is home to several notable instances of various styles of modernism. Minoru Yamasaki designed the Federal Reserve Building which dominates the downtown skyline. The architectural firm of Skidmore, Owings & Merrill has designed two buildings: the Library of Virginia and the General Assembly Offices at the Eighth and Main Building. Philip Johnson designed the WRVA Building. The Richard Neutra-designed Rice House, a residence on a private island on the James River, remains Richmond's only true International Style home. The W.G. Harris residence in Richmond was designed by famed early modern architect and member of the Harvard Five, Landis Gores. Other notable architects to have worked in the city include Rick Mather, I.M. Pei, and Gordon Bunshaft.
What Native American tribe at one time lived on Belle Isle?
57345209acc1501500babdef
Powhatan
125
False
During what conflict was Belle Isle used as a prison?
57345209acc1501500babdf0
Civil War
186
False
Between Brown's Island and Belle Isle, which is bigger?
57345209acc1501500babdf1
Belle Isle
87
False
On what island does the James River Beer and Seafood Festival take place?
57345209acc1501500babdf2
Brown's Island
512
False
How often does Friday Cheers take place on Brown's Island?
57345209acc1501500babdf3
weekly
662
False
There are also parks on two major islands in the river: Belle Isle and Brown's Island. Belle Isle, at various former times a Powhatan fishing village, colonial-era horse race track, and Civil War prison camp, is the larger of the two, and contains many bike trails as well as a small cliff that is used for rock climbing instruction. One can walk the island and still see many of the remains of the Civil War prison camp, such as an arms storage room and a gun emplacement that was used to quell prisoner riots. Brown's Island is a smaller island and a popular venue of a large number of free outdoor concerts and festivals in the spring and summer, such as the weekly Friday Cheers concert series or the James River Beer and Seafood Festival.
What part of Richmond is Maymont close to?
573455eaacc1501500babdf9
Fan District
94
False
How many kilometers long is the track in Byrd Park?
573455eaacc1501500babdfa
1.6
139
False
How many monuments can be found in Byrd Park?
573455eaacc1501500babdfb
two
258
False
In what year was the World War I Memorial Carillon constructed?
573455eaacc1501500babdfc
1926
388
False
What was previously located at the present location of Forest Hill Park?
573455eaacc1501500babdfd
Forest Hill Amusement Park
733
False
Two other major parks in the city along the river are Byrd Park and Maymont, located near the Fan District. Byrd Park features a one-mile (1.6 km) running track, with exercise stops, a public dog park, and a number of small lakes for small boats, as well as two monuments, Buddha house, and an amphitheatre. Prominently featured in the park is the World War I Memorial Carillon, built in 1926 as a memorial to those that died in the war. Maymont, located adjacent to Byrd Park, is a 100-acre (40 ha) Victorian estate with a museum, formal gardens, native wildlife exhibits, nature center, carriage collection, and children's farm. Other parks in the city include Joseph Bryan Park Azalea Garden, Forest Hill Park (former site of the Forest Hill Amusement Park), Chimborazo Park (site of the National Battlefield Headquarters), among others.
What sport do the Washington Redskins play?
57345641acc1501500babe03
Football
124
False
What sport do the Richmond Kickers compete in?
57345641acc1501500babe04
soccer
334
False
With what Major League Baseball team are the Richmond Flying Squirrels associated?
57345641acc1501500babe05
San Francisco Giants
453
False
What is the home ground of the Richmond Kickers?
57345641acc1501500babe06
City Stadium
545
False
Where did the Richmond Braves move to?
57345641acc1501500babe07
Georgia
796
False
Richmond is not home to any major league professional sports teams, but since 2013, the Washington Redskins of the National Football League have held their summer training camp in the city. There are also several minor league sports in the city, including the Richmond Kickers of the USL Professional Division (third tier of American soccer) and the Richmond Flying Squirrels of the Class AA Eastern League of Minor League Baseball (an affiliate of the San Francisco Giants). The Kickers began playing in Richmond in 1993, and currently play at City Stadium. The Squirrels opened their first season at The Diamond on April 15, 2010. From 1966 through 2008, the city was home to the Richmond Braves, a AAA affiliate of the Atlanta Braves of Major League Baseball, until the franchise relocated to Georgia.
When did the RIR begin to host the Capital City 400?
573456a4acc1501500babe0d
1962
166
False
When did the Suntrust Indy Challenge stop being run at RIR?
573456a4acc1501500babe0e
2009
241
False
In what direction does one travel from Richmond to reach Southside Speedway?
573456a4acc1501500babe0f
southwest
320
False
What is the shape of Southside Speedway?
573456a4acc1501500babe10
oval
392
False
Along with "The Action Track," what is a nickname of Southside Speedway?
573456a4acc1501500babe11
Toughest Track in the South
434
False
Auto racing is also popular in the area. The Richmond International Raceway (RIR) has hosted NASCAR Sprint Cup races since 1953, as well as the Capital City 400 from 1962 − 1980. RIR also hosted IndyCar's Suntrust Indy Challenge from 2001 − 2009. Another track, Southside Speedway, has operated since 1959 and sits just southwest of Richmond in Chesterfield County. This .333-mile (0.536 km) oval short-track has become known as the "Toughest Track in the South" and "The Action Track", and features weekly stock car racing on Friday nights. Southside Speedway has acted as the breeding grounds for many past NASCAR legends including Richard Petty, Bobby Allison and Darrell Waltrip, and claims to be the home track of NASCAR superstar Denny Hamlin.
What company owns the company that owns the Richmond Times-Dispatch?
57345714acc1501500babe17
Berkshire Hathaway
160
False
How many people buy the Richmond Times-Dispatch on Sunday?
57345714acc1501500babe18
120,000
96
False
What newspaper is published by Landmark Communications?
57345714acc1501500babe19
Style Weekly
188
False
Before switching to its current publication schedule, how often was RVA Magazine published?
57345714acc1501500babe1a
monthly
407
False
Along with the Voice, what is Richmond's black-oriented news publication?
57345714acc1501500babe1b
Richmond Free Press
449
False
The Richmond Times-Dispatch, the local daily newspaper in Richmond with a Sunday circulation of 120,000, is owned by BH Media, a subsidiary of Warren Buffett's Berkshire Hathaway company. Style Weekly is a standard weekly publication covering popular culture, arts, and entertainment, owned by Landmark Communications. RVA Magazine is the city's only independent art music and culture publication, was once monthly, but is now issued quarterly. The Richmond Free Press and the Voice cover the news from an African-American perspective.
Per Nielsen, how many homes exist in the Richmond-Petersburg DMA?
57345772879d6814001ca539
553,950
189
False
Where does the Richmind-Petersburg DMA rank in the United States?
57345772879d6814001ca53a
58th
159
False
With what network is WUPV 65 affiliated?
57345772879d6814001ca53b
CW
365
False
What type of channel is WCVW 57?
57345772879d6814001ca53c
Public Broadcasting
370
False
What Richmond-area station is affiliated with CBS?
57345772879d6814001ca53d
WTVR-TV 6
285
False
The Richmond metro area is served by many local television and radio stations. As of 2010[update], the Richmond-Petersburg designated market area (DMA) is the 58th largest in the U.S. with 553,950 homes according to Nielsen Market Research. The major network television affiliates are WTVR-TV 6 (CBS), WRIC-TV 8 (ABC), WWBT 12 (NBC), WRLH-TV 35 (Fox), and WUPV 65 (CW). Public Broadcasting Service stations include WCVE-TV 23 and WCVW 57. There are also a wide variety of radio stations in the Richmond area, catering to many different interests, including news, talk radio, and sports, as well as an eclectic mix of musical interests.
How many representatives make up the Richmond city council?
5734580c879d6814001ca543
nine
78
False
What official is in charge of Richmond's executive branch?
5734580c879d6814001ca544
mayor
183
False
How many years does the term of a Richmond city council representative last?
5734580c879d6814001ca545
four
318
False
On what day of the week does the city council meet?
5734580c879d6814001ca546
Mondays
651
False
In what month does the city council not meet?
5734580c879d6814001ca547
August
682
False
Richmond city government consists of a city council with representatives from nine districts serving in a legislative and oversight capacity, as well as a popularly elected, at-large mayor serving as head of the executive branch. Citizens in each of the nine districts elect one council representative each to serve a four-year term. Beginning with the November 2008 election Council terms was lengthened to 4 years. The city council elects from among its members one member to serve as Council President and one to serve as Council Vice President. The city council meets at City Hall, located at 900 E. Broad St., 2nd Floor, on the second and fourth Mondays of every month, except August.
What is A. Carl Prince's religious affiliation?
57345902acc1501500babe21
Baptist
343
False
What is the current mayor of Richmond?
57345902acc1501500babe22
Dwight C. Jones
892
False
In what year was the first black Baptist minister elected to the city council?
57345902acc1501500babe23
1990
3
False
In what district did A. Carl Prince win election to the city council?
57345902acc1501500babe24
Eighth
71
False
What political organization supported the city council candidacy of A. Carl Prince?
57345902acc1501500babe25
Richmond Crusade for Voters
182
False
In 1990 religion and politics intersected to impact the outcome of the Eighth District election in South Richmond. With the endorsements of black power brokers, black clergy and the Richmond Crusade for Voters, South Richmond residents made history, electing Reverend A. Carl Prince to the Richmond City Council. As the first African American Baptist Minister elected to the Richmond City Council, Prince's election paved the way for a political paradigm shift in politics that persist today. Following Prince's election, Reverend Gwendolyn Hedgepeth and the Reverend Leonidas Young, former Richmond Mayor were elected to public office. Prior to Prince's election black clergy made political endorsements and served as appointees to the Richmond School Board and other boards throughout the city. Today religion and politics continues to thrive in the Commonwealth of Virginia. The Honorable Dwight C. Jones, a prominent Baptist pastor and former Chairman of the Richmond School Board and Member of the Virginia House of Delegates serves as Mayor of the City of Richmond.
How many high schools are there in Richmond?
5734596aacc1501500babe2b
eight
78
False
How many primary and secondary school students attend school in Richmond?
5734596aacc1501500babe2c
24,000
136
False
For whom is the Governor's School in Richmond named?
5734596aacc1501500babe2d
Maggie L. Walker
202
False
Where was Richmond's Governor's School rated by Newsweek in 2012?
5734596aacc1501500babe2e
16
390
False
When did Patrick Henry School of Science and Arts open its doors?
5734596aacc1501500babe2f
2010
591
False
The city of Richmond operates 28 elementary schools, nine middle schools, and eight high schools, serving a total student population of 24,000 students. There is one Governor's School in the city − the Maggie L. Walker Governor's School for Government and International Studies. In 2008, it was named as one of Newsweek magazine's 18 "public elite" high schools, and in 2012, it was rated #16 of America's best high schools overall. Richmond's public school district also runs one of Virginia's four public charter schools, the Patrick Henry School of Science and Arts, which was founded in 2010.
What type of university is the University of Richmond?
573459cbacc1501500babe35
private
144
False
What is a for-profit university in Richmond?
573459cbacc1501500babe36
South University - Richmond
219
False
What does BTSR stand for?
573459cbacc1501500babe37
Baptist Theological Seminary in Richmond
361
False
Where is John Tyler Community College located?
573459cbacc1501500babe38
Chesterfield County
557
False
What is Richmond's public university?
573459cbacc1501500babe39
Virginia Commonwealth
77
False
The Richmond area has many major institutions of higher education, including Virginia Commonwealth University (public), University of Richmond (private), Virginia Union University (private), Virginia College (private), South University - Richmond (private, for-profit), Union Theological Seminary & Presbyterian School of Christian Education (private), and the Baptist Theological Seminary in Richmond (BTSR—private). Several community colleges are found in the metro area, including J. Sargeant Reynolds Community College and John Tyler Community College (Chesterfield County). In addition, there are several Technical Colleges in Richmond including ITT Technical Institute, ECPI College of Technology and Centura College. There are several vocational colleges also, such as Fortis College and Bryant Stratton College.
How many kilometers away from Richmond is Richmond International Airport?
57345a6cacc1501500babe3f
11
140
False
About how long does it take to drive from Richmond International Airport to Williamsburg?
57345a6cacc1501500babe40
an hour
180
False
How many airlines operate out of Richmond International?
57345a6cacc1501500babe41
nine
270
False
What percentage increase in passenger traffic did Richmond International experience between 2005 and 2006?
57345a6cacc1501500babe42
13
497
False
What direction do you travel to get from Richmond to Sandston?
57345a6cacc1501500babe43
southeast
147
False
The Greater Richmond area is served by the Richmond International Airport (IATA: RIC, ICAO: KRIC), located in nearby Sandston, seven miles (11 km) southeast of Richmond and within an hour drive of historic Williamsburg, Virginia. Richmond International is now served by nine airlines with over 200 daily flights providing non-stop service to major destination markets and connecting flights to destinations worldwide. A record 3.3 million passengers used Richmond International Airport in 2006, a 13% increase over 2005.
What is the street address if the Greyhound bus terminal in Richmond?
57345b47879d6814001ca54d
2910 N Boulevard
88
False
How long does a bus trip from Richmond to New York City take?
57345b47879d6814001ca54e
7.5 hours
246
False
What is the lowest fare on Megabus?
57345b47879d6814001ca54f
$1
373
False
How much did the Department of Transportation give to Richmond for its Rapid Transit System?
57345b47879d6814001ca550
$25 million
668
False
What city in Maryland does Megabus travel to?
57345b47879d6814001ca551
Baltimore
461
False
Richmond is a major hub for intercity bus company Greyhound Lines, with its terminal at 2910 N Boulevard. Multiple runs per day connect directly with Washington, D.C., New York, Raleigh, and elsewhere. Direct trips to New York take approximately 7.5 hours. Discount carrier Megabus also provides curbside service from outside of Main Street Station, with fares starting at $1. Direct service is available to Washington, D.C., Hampton Roads, Charlotte, Raleigh, Baltimore, and Philadelphia. Most other connections to Megabus served cites, such as New York, can be made from Washington, D.C. Richmond, and the surrounding metropolitan area, was granted[when?] a roughly $25 million grant from the U.S. Department of Transportation to support a newly proposed Rapid Transit System, which would run along Broad Street from Willow Lawn to Rocketts Landing, in the first phase of an improved public transportation hub for the region.
What counties does the GRTC link to Richmond?
57345be2879d6814001ca557
Henrico, and Chesterfield
55
False
Along with Short Pump, what comprises the far part of the West End?
57345be2879d6814001ca558
Innsbrook
237
False
According to a GRTC report, what is an example of what most of its riders lack?
57345be2879d6814001ca559
private vehicle
548
False
What is GRTC an initialism of?
57345be2879d6814001ca55a
Greater Richmond Transit Company
109
False
Local transit and paratransit bus service in Richmond, Henrico, and Chesterfield counties is provided by the Greater Richmond Transit Company (GRTC). The GRTC, however, serves only small parts of the suburban counties. The far West End (Innsbrook and Short Pump) and almost all of Chesterfield County have no public transportation despite dense housing, retail, and office development. According to a 2008 GRTC operations analysis report, a majority of GRTC riders utilize their services because they do not have an available alternative such as a private vehicle.
What station services all southern rail traffic passing through Richmond?
57345c6a879d6814001ca55f
Staples Mill Road Station
197
False
What is the name of the railroad station inside Richmond proper?
57345c6a879d6814001ca560
Main Street Station
479
False
In what year was Richmond's railroad station renovated?
57345c6a879d6814001ca561
2004
517
False
Along with Williamsburg, what city's rail traffic uses the Main Street Station?
57345c6a879d6814001ca562
Newport News
587
False
Why does the Main Street Station only receive rail traffic from Newport News and Williamsburg?
57345c6a879d6814001ca563
track layout
624
False
The Richmond area also has two railroad stations served by Amtrak. Each station receives regular service from north of Richmond including Washington, D.C., Philadelphia, and New York. The suburban Staples Mill Road Station is located on a major north-south freight line and receives all service to and from all points south including, Raleigh, Durham, Savannah, Newport News, Williamsburg and Florida. Richmond's only railway station located within the city limits, the historic Main Street Station, was renovated in 2004. As of 2010, the station only receives trains headed to and from Newport News and Williamsburg due to track layout. As a result, the Staples Mill Road station receives more trains and serves more passengers overall.
Who is Richmond's electricity supplier?
57345ceb879d6814001ca569
Dominion Virginia Power
54
False
How many states does Dominion Virginia Power operate in?
57345ceb879d6814001ca56a
nine
198
False
Along with Surry Nuclear Generating Station, what is Richmond's main electricity generator?
57345ceb879d6814001ca56b
North Anna Nuclear Generating Station
273
False
In what town is a coal-fired plant that provides power to Richmond located?
57345ceb879d6814001ca56c
Chester
384
False
What type of power plant is Darbytown?
57345ceb879d6814001ca56d
natural gas
481
False
Electricity in the Richmond Metro area is provided by Dominion Virginia Power. The company, based in Richmond, is one of the nation's largest producers of energy, serving retail energy customers in nine states. Electricity is provided in the Richmond area primarily by the North Anna Nuclear Generating Station and Surry Nuclear Generating Station, as well as a coal-fired station in Chester, Virginia. These three plants provide a total of 4,453 megawatts of power. Several other natural gas plants provide extra power during times of peak demand. These include facilities in Chester, and Surry, and two plants in Richmond (Gravel Neck and Darbytown).
How many kilometers of sewer lines exist in Richmond?
57345d6a879d6814001ca573
61
516
False
How much water is contained in Shockoe Retention Basin?
57345d6a879d6814001ca574
44-million-gallon
587
False
How many Richmond inhabitants get their water from the wastewater treatment plant?
57345d6a879d6814001ca575
62,000
142
False
How much sewage and stormwater can the treatment plant adjacent to the James River treat daily?
57345d6a879d6814001ca576
70 million gallons
288
False
The wastewater treatment plant and distribution system of water mains, pumping stations and storage facilities provide water to approximately 62,000 customers in the city. There is also a wastewater treatment plant located on the south bank of the James River. This plant can treat up to 70 million gallons of water per day of sanitary sewage and stormwater before returning it to the river. The wastewater utility also operates and maintains 1,500 miles (2,400 km) of sanitary sewer and pumping stations, 38 miles (61 km) of intercepting sewer lines, and the Shockoe Retention Basin, a 44-million-gallon stormwater reservoir used during heavy rains.
Infection
Of the huge amount of microorganisms, how many cause disease in otherwise healthy individuals?
57341ab74776f4190066187b
relatively few
45
False
Interplay between pathogens and defenses of hosts results in what?
57341ab74776f4190066187c
Infectious disease
108
False
What does the severity of a disease resulting from a pathogen depend on?
57341ab74776f4190066187d
ability of that pathogen to damage the host
310
False
What can a host's immune system do to a host?
57341ab74776f4190066187e
cause damage
453
False
What do clinicians classify infectious microorganisms according to the status of?
57341ab74776f4190066187f
host defenses
620
False
relatively few
45
How many microorganisms cause repair in otherwise healthy individuals?
5a82f3f0e60761001a2eb247
True
Infectious disease
108
What is prevented by interplay between pathogens and attacks of hosts?
5a82f3f0e60761001a2eb248
True
ability of that pathogen to damage the host
310
What does the level of an achievement resulting from a pathogen depend on?
5a82f3f0e60761001a2eb249
True
cause damage
453
What can a host's immune system allow from a host?
5a82f3f0e60761001a2eb24a
True
host defenses
620
What do clinicians ignore the status of when they classify infectious microorganisms?
5a82f3f0e60761001a2eb24b
True
Among the vast varieties of microorganisms, relatively few cause disease in otherwise healthy individuals. Infectious disease results from the interplay between those few pathogens and the defenses of the hosts they infect. The appearance and severity of disease resulting from any pathogen, depends upon the ability of that pathogen to damage the host as well as the ability of the host to resist the pathogen. However a host's immune system can also cause damage to the host itself in an attempt to control the infection. Clinicians therefore classify infectious microorganisms or microbes according to the status of host defenses - either as primary pathogens or as opportunistic pathogens:
What is one way of proving that a given disease is infectious?
57341bef4776f41900661897
satisfy Koch's postulates
63
False
What must an infectious agent only be identified in to satisfy the first of Koch's postulates?
57341bef4776f41900661898
patients and not in healthy controls
184
False
What is Koch's second postulate?
57341bef4776f41900661899
patients who contract the agent also develop the disease
231
False
Why can't Koch's postulates be applied ethically for many human diseases?
57341bef4776f4190066189a
because they require experimental infection of a healthy individual
456
False
What is the causative spirochete of syphilis?
57341bef4776f4190066189b
Treponema pallidum
658
False
satisfy Koch's postulates
63
What is one way of proving that a given disease is safe?
5a82f50de60761001a2eb251
True
patients and not in healthy controls
184
What must an infectious agent not be identified in to satisfy the first of Koch's postulates?
5a82f50de60761001a2eb252
True
patients who contract the agent also develop the disease
231
What is Koch's worst postulate?
5a82f50de60761001a2eb253
True
because they require experimental infection of a healthy individual
456
Why can Koch's postulates be applied ethically for many reptile diseases?
5a82f50de60761001a2eb254
True
Treponema pallidum
658
What is no longer the causative spirochete of syphilis?
5a82f50de60761001a2eb255
True
One way of proving that a given disease is "infectious", is to satisfy Koch's postulates (first proposed by Robert Koch), which demands that the infectious agent be identified only in patients and not in healthy controls, and that patients who contract the agent also develop the disease. These postulates were first used in the discovery that Mycobacteria species cause tuberculosis. Koch's postulates can not be applied ethically for many human diseases because they require experimental infection of a healthy individual with a pathogen produced as a pure culture. Often, even clearly infectious diseases do not meet the infectious criteria. For example, Treponema pallidum, the causative spirochete of syphilis, cannot be cultured in vitro - however the organism can be cultured in rabbit testes. It is less clear that a pure culture comes from an animal source serving as host than it is when derived from microbes derived from plate culture. Epidemiology is another important tool used to study disease in a population. For infectious diseases it helps to determine if a disease outbreak is sporadic (occasional occurrence), endemic (regular cases often occurring in a region), epidemic (an unusually high number of cases in a region), or pandemic (a global epidemic).
When are infectious diseases called contagious diseases?
57341c75d058e614000b695a
when they are easily transmitted by contact with an ill person
60
False
What is a contagious disease a subset of?
57341c75d058e614000b695b
infectious disease
204
False
What sets a contagious disease after from a standard infectious disease?
57341c75d058e614000b695c
especially infective or easily transmitted
231
False
Diseases with vector transmission or sexual transmission don't often require what type of isolation?
57341c75d058e614000b695d
medical
499
False
What is not always respected in popular use?
57341c75d058e614000b695e
specialized connotation of the word "contagious"
581
False
when they are easily transmitted by contact with an ill person
60
When are infectious diseases called impossible diseases?
5a82f5d3e60761001a2eb25b
True
infectious disease
204
What is a contagious disease more important than?
5a82f5d3e60761001a2eb25c
True
especially infective or easily transmitted
231
What sets a contagious disease equal to a standard infectious disease?
5a82f5d3e60761001a2eb25d
True
specialized connotation of the word "contagious" and "contagious disease"
581
What is always respected in popular use?
5a82f5d3e60761001a2eb25e
True
Infectious diseases are sometimes called contagious disease when they are easily transmitted by contact with an ill person or their secretions (e.g., influenza). Thus, a contagious disease is a subset of infectious disease that is especially infective or easily transmitted. Other types of infectious/transmissible/communicable diseases with more specialized routes of infection, such as vector transmission or sexual transmission, are usually not regarded as "contagious", and often do not require medical isolation (sometimes loosely called quarantine) of victims. However, this specialized connotation of the word "contagious" and "contagious disease" (easy transmissibility) is not always respected in popular use.
When does infection begin?
57341d3f4776f419006618a9
when an organism successfully enters the body, grows and multiplies.
17
False
What group is not easily infected?
57341d3f4776f419006618aa
humans
128
False
What group of humans have increased susceptibility to chronic or persistent infections?
57341d3f4776f419006618ab
weak, sick, malnourished, have cancer or are diabetic
174
False
What individuals are particularly susceptible to opportunistic infections?
57341d3f4776f419006618ac
Individuals who have a suppressed immune system
295
False
What is it called when a pathogen grows within the host cells?
57341d3f4776f419006618ad
intracellular
762
False
when an organism successfully enters the body, grows and multiplies
17
When does infection become unstoppable?
5a82f6e9e60761001a2eb263
True
humans
128
What group is never infected?
5a82f6e9e60761001a2eb264
True
weak, sick, malnourished, have cancer or are diabetic
174
What group of humans have no susceptibility to chronic or persistent infections?
5a82f6e9e60761001a2eb265
True
Individuals who have a suppressed immune system
295
What individuals are particularly safe to opportunistic infections?
5a82f6e9e60761001a2eb266
True
intracellular
762
What is it called when a pathogen explodes within the host cells?
5a82f6e9e60761001a2eb267
True
Infection begins when an organism successfully enters the body, grows and multiplies. This is referred to as colonization. Most humans are not easily infected. Those who are weak, sick, malnourished, have cancer or are diabetic have increased susceptibility to chronic or persistent infections. Individuals who have a suppressed immune system are particularly susceptible to opportunistic infections. Entrance to the host at host-pathogen interface, generally occurs through the mucosa in orifices like the oral cavity, nose, eyes, genitalia, anus, or the microbe can enter through open wounds. While a few organisms can grow at the initial site of entry, many migrate and cause systemic infection in different organs. Some pathogens grow within the host cells (intracellular) whereas others grow freely in bodily fluids.
What does wound colonization refer to?
57341dc0d058e614000b696a
nonreplicating microorganisms within the wound
29
False
What type of organisms exist and injure tissue in infected wounds?
57341dc0d058e614000b696b
replicating
103
False
What are all multcellular organisms colonized to some degree by?
57341dc0d058e614000b696c
extrinsic organisms
214
False
What species colonizes the mammalian colon?
57341dc0d058e614000b696d
anaerobic bacteria
369
False
What's the difference between an infection and a colonization?
57341dc0d058e614000b696e
only a matter of circumstance
648
False
nonreplicating microorganisms within the wound
29
What does wound colonization mean to avoid?
5a82f81be60761001a2eb26d
True
extrinsic organisms
214
What are few multicellular organisms colonized to some degree by?
5a82f81be60761001a2eb26e
True
replicating
103
What type of organisms tickle and heal tissue in infected wounds?
5a82f81be60761001a2eb26f
True
only a matter of circumstance
648
What's the only similarity between an infection and a colonization?
5a82f81be60761001a2eb270
True
anaerobic bacteria
369
What rodent colonizes the mammalian colon?
5a82f81be60761001a2eb271
True
Wound colonization refers to nonreplicating microorganisms within the wound, while in infected wounds, replicating organisms exist and tissue is injured. All multicellular organisms are colonized to some degree by extrinsic organisms, and the vast majority of these exist in either a mutualistic or commensal relationship with the host. An example of the former is the anaerobic bacteria species, which colonizes the mammalian colon, and an example of the latter is various species of staphylococcus that exist on human skin. Neither of these colonizations are considered infections. The difference between an infection and a colonization is often only a matter of circumstance. Non-pathogenic organisms can become pathogenic given specific conditions, and even the most virulent organism requires certain circumstances to cause a compromising infection. Some colonizing bacteria, such as Corynebacteria sp. and viridans streptococci, prevent the adhesion and colonization of pathogenic bacteria and thus have a symbiotic relationship with the host, preventing infection and speeding wound healing.
Why is it difficult to now which chronic wounds are infected?
57341e404776f419006618c3
Because it is normal to have bacterial colonization
0
False
What is there limited quality data for evaluating despite the huge number of wounds seen in a clinical practice?
57341e404776f419006618c4
symptoms and signs
218
False
What is increased pain an indicator of?
57341e404776f419006618c5
infection
420
False
What does not rule out infection?
57341e404776f419006618c6
absence of pain
593
False
Because it is normal to have bacterial colonization
0
Why is it easy to know which chronic wounds are infected?
5a82f946e60761001a2eb281
True
symptoms and signs
218
What is there unlimited quality data for evaluating despite the huge number of wounds seen in a clinical practice?
5a82f946e60761001a2eb282
True
infection
420
What is reduced pain an indicator of?
5a82f946e60761001a2eb283
True
absence of pain
593
What will always rule out infection?
5a82f946e60761001a2eb284
True
wounds
139
What is rarely seen in clinical practice?
5a82f946e60761001a2eb285
True
Because it is normal to have bacterial colonization, it is difficult to know which chronic wounds are infected. Despite the huge number of wounds seen in clinical practice, there are limited quality data for evaluated symptoms and signs. A review of chronic wounds in the Journal of the American Medical Association's "Rational Clinical Examination Series" quantified the importance of increased pain as an indicator of infection. The review showed that the most useful finding is an increase in the level of pain [likelihood ratio (LR) range, 11-20] makes infection much more likely, but the absence of pain (negative likelihood ratio range, 0.64-0.88) does not rule out infection (summary LR 0.64-0.88).
Disease can arise when an organism inflicts what on the host?
57341fdd4776f419006618d3
damage
103
False
What can a microorganism cause tissue damage by releasing a variety of?
57341fdd4776f419006618d4
toxins
188
False
What does the of toxin Clostridium tetani releases do?
57341fdd4776f419006618d5
paralyzes muscles
273
False
What releases toxins which product shock and sepsis?
57341fdd4776f419006618d6
staphylococcus
296
False
What percentage of people infected with polio develop disease?
57341fdd4776f419006618d7
less than 5%
425
False
damage
103
When an organism prevents what from the host a disease can arise?
5a82fa8ae60761001a2eb29f
True
toxins
188
What can a microorganism repair tissue damage by releasing a variety of?
5a82fa8ae60761001a2eb2a0
True
paralyzes muscles
273
What does the toxin Clostridium tetani release help avoid?
5a82fa8ae60761001a2eb2a1
True
staphylococcus
296
What releases toxins which produce joy and euphoria?
5a82fa8ae60761001a2eb2a2
True
mad cow disease
571
What disease similarly to Creutzfeldt–Jakob has never resulted in death?
5a82fa8ae60761001a2eb2a3
True
Disease can arise if the host's protective immune mechanisms are compromised and the organism inflicts damage on the host. Microorganisms can cause tissue damage by releasing a variety of toxins or destructive enzymes. For example, Clostridium tetani releases a toxin that paralyzes muscles, and staphylococcus releases toxins that produce shock and sepsis. Not all infectious agents cause disease in all hosts. For example, less than 5% of individuals infected with polio develop disease. On the other hand, some infectious agents are highly virulent. The prion causing mad cow disease and Creutzfeldt–Jakob disease invariably kills all animals and people that are infected.
Why do persistent infections occur?
5734203ed058e614000b6982
body is unable to clear the organism after the initial infection
40
False
What are persistent infections characterized by the continual presence of?
5734203ed058e614000b6983
the infectious organism
175
False
How can some viruses main a persistent infection?
5734203ed058e614000b6984
by infecting different cells of the body
346
False
What never leave the body when acquired?
5734203ed058e614000b6985
Some viruses
388
False
Where does the herpes virus hide?
5734203ed058e614000b6986
in nerves
496
False
body is unable to clear the organism after the initial infection
40
Why do persistent infections never occur?
5a82fb2ee60761001a2eb2b3
True
the infectious organism
175
What are persistent infections characterized by the continual absence of?
5a82fb2ee60761001a2eb2b4
True
by infecting different cells of the body
346
How can some viruses cure a persistent infection?
5a82fb2ee60761001a2eb2b5
True
viruses
393
What always leave the body when acquired?
5a82fb2ee60761001a2eb2b6
True
in nerves
496
Where does the herpes virus avoid?
5a82fb2ee60761001a2eb2b7
True
Persistent infections occur because the body is unable to clear the organism after the initial infection. Persistent infections are characterized by the continual presence of the infectious organism, often as latent infection with occasional recurrent relapses of active infection. There are some viruses that can maintain a persistent infection by infecting different cells of the body. Some viruses once acquired never leave the body. A typical example is the herpes virus, which tends to hide in nerves and become reactivated when specific circumstances arise.
What does diagnosis of an infectious sometimes involve identifying?
573420d9d058e614000b6996
an infectious agent either directly or indirectly
63
False
Many minor infectious diseases are diagnosed by what type of presentation?
573420d9d058e614000b6997
clinical
269
False
How are minor infectious diseases treated?
573420d9d058e614000b6998
without knowledge of the specific causative agent
303
False
What can be identified given sufficient effort?
573420d9d058e614000b6999
all known infectious agents
592
False
Why is it often not worth bothering to identify an infectious agent?
573420d9d058e614000b699a
greatly outweighed by the cost
703
False
an infectious agent either directly or indirectly
63
What does diagnosis of an infectious always involve ignoring?
5a82fcfbe60761001a2eb2c7
True
clinical presentation
269
How are many minor infectious diseases diagnosed illegally?
5a82fcfbe60761001a2eb2c8
True
without knowledge of the specific causative agent
303
How are all infectious diseases treated?
5a82fcfbe60761001a2eb2c9
True
all known infectious agents
592
What can be identified given no effort?
5a82fcfbe60761001a2eb2ca
True
greatly outweighed by the cost
703
Why is it always worth it to identify an infectious agent?
5a82fcfbe60761001a2eb2cb
True
Diagnosis of infectious disease sometimes involves identifying an infectious agent either directly or indirectly. In practice most minor infectious diseases such as warts, cutaneous abscesses, respiratory system infections and diarrheal diseases are diagnosed by their clinical presentation and treated without knowledge of the specific causative agent. Conclusions about the cause of the disease are based upon the likelihood that a patient came in contact with a particular agent, the presence of a microbe in a community, and other epidemiological considerations. Given sufficient effort, all known infectious agents can be specifically identified. The benefits of identification, however, are often greatly outweighed by the cost, as often there is no specific treatment, the cause is obvious, or the outcome of an infection is benign.
How is diagnosis of infectious disease almost always initiated?
573421ecd058e614000b69b2
by medical history and physical examination
59
False
What does taking a culture of an infectious agent isolated from a patient allow?
573421ecd058e614000b69b3
detailed identification
109
False
What features of an infectious organism does a culture allow examining?
573421ecd058e614000b69b4
microscopic features
283
False
What can organisms be directly identified by?
573421ecd058e614000b69b5
its genotype
411
False
What technique can be used to produce images of internal abnormalities?
573421ecd058e614000b69b6
X-rays, CAT scans, PET scans or NMR
451
False
by medical history and physical examination
59
How is diagnosis of infectious disease rarely initiated?
5a82fd94e60761001a2eb2d1
True
detailed identification
109
What does taking a culture of an infectious agent isolated from a patient restrict?
5a82fd94e60761001a2eb2d2
True
microscopic features
283
What features of an infectious organism does a culture forbid examining?
5a82fd94e60761001a2eb2d3
True
its genotype
411
What can organisms never be directly identified by?
5a82fd94e60761001a2eb2d4
True
X-rays, CAT scans, PET scans or NMR
451
What technique can be used to produce images of external abnormalities?
5a82fd94e60761001a2eb2d5
True
Diagnosis of infectious disease is nearly always initiated by medical history and physical examination. More detailed identification techniques involve the culture of infectious agents isolated from a patient. Culture allows identification of infectious organisms by examining their microscopic features, by detecting the presence of substances produced by pathogens, and by directly identifying an organism by its genotype. Other techniques (such as X-rays, CAT scans, PET scans or NMR) are used to produce images of internal abnormalities resulting from the growth of an infectious agent. The images are useful in detection of, for example, a bone abscess or a spongiform encephalopathy produced by a prion.
What type of culture is a principal tool used to diagnose infectious disease?
573422a84776f4190066191d
Microbiological
0
False
What type of medium is provided for a specific agent in a microbial culture?
573422a84776f4190066191e
growth
107
False
What are most pathogenic bacteria easily grown on?
573422a84776f4190066191f
nutrient agar
345
False
What is it called when a visible mound forms on the surface of a plate?
573422a84776f41900661920
a colony
583
False
What is a region of dead cells resulting from viral growth called?
573422a84776f41900661921
a "plaque"
1459
False
Microbiological
0
What type of hammer is a principal tool used to diagnose infectious disease?
5a8300f5e60761001a2eb2db
True
growth
438
What type of medium is not typically provided for a specific agent in a microbial culture?
5a8300f5e60761001a2eb2dc
True
nutrient agar
345
What are most pathogenic bacteria unable to grow on?
5a8300f5e60761001a2eb2dd
True
a colony
583
What is it called when an invisible mound forms on the surface of a plate?
5a8300f5e60761001a2eb2de
True
a "plaque"
1459
What is a planet of dead cells resulting from viral growth called?
5a8300f5e60761001a2eb2df
True
Microbiological culture is a principal tool used to diagnose infectious disease. In a microbial culture, a growth medium is provided for a specific agent. A sample taken from potentially diseased tissue or fluid is then tested for the presence of an infectious agent able to grow within that medium. Most pathogenic bacteria are easily grown on nutrient agar, a form of solid medium that supplies carbohydrates and proteins necessary for growth of a bacterium, along with copious amounts of water. A single bacterium will grow into a visible mound on the surface of the plate called a colony, which may be separated from other colonies or melded together into a "lawn". The size, color, shape and form of a colony is characteristic of the bacterial species, its specific genetic makeup (its strain), and the environment that supports its growth. Other ingredients are often added to the plate to aid in identification. Plates may contain substances that permit the growth of some bacteria and not others, or that change color in response to certain bacteria and not others. Bacteriological plates such as these are commonly used in the clinical identification of infectious bacterium. Microbial culture may also be used in the identification of viruses: the medium in this case being cells grown in culture that the virus can infect, and then alter or kill. In the case of viral identification, a region of dead cells results from viral growth, and is called a "plaque". Eukaryotic parasites may also be grown in culture as a means of identifying a particular agent.
What are live animals required by?
573423284776f4190066192d
some microbes
53
False
What can Mycobacterium leprae and Treponema pallidum be grown in?
573423284776f4190066192e
animals
181
False
What type of eggs may some viruses be grown in?
573423284776f4190066192f
embryonated
397
False
What is Xenodiagnosis?
573423284776f41900661930
use of a vector to support the growth of an infectious agent
477
False
What is it difficult to demonstrate the presence of in Chagas disease?
573423294776f41900661931
the causative agent
651
False
microbes
58
What are live animals unnecessary for?
5a83019fe60761001a2eb2e5
True
animals
95
What can Mycobacterium leprae and Treponema pallidum never be grown in?
5a83019fe60761001a2eb2e6
True
embryonated
397
What type of eggs may no viruses be grown in?
5a83019fe60761001a2eb2e7
True
use of a vector to support the growth of an infectious agent
477
What does Xenodiagnosis avoid doing?
5a83019fe60761001a2eb2e8
True
the causative agent
651
What is simple to demonstrate the presence of in Chagas disease?
5a83019fe60761001a2eb2e9
True
In the absence of suitable plate culture techniques, some microbes require culture within live animals. Bacteria such as Mycobacterium leprae and Treponema pallidum can be grown in animals, although serological and microscopic techniques make the use of live animals unnecessary. Viruses are also usually identified using alternatives to growth in culture or animals. Some viruses may be grown in embryonated eggs. Another useful identification method is Xenodiagnosis, or the use of a vector to support the growth of an infectious agent. Chagas disease is the most significant example, because it is difficult to directly demonstrate the presence of the causative agent, Trypanosoma cruzi in a patient, which therefore makes it difficult to definitively make a diagnosis. In this case, xenodiagnosis involves the use of the vector of the Chagas agent T. cruzi, an uninfected triatomine bug, which takes a blood meal from a person suspected of having been infected. The bug is later inspected for growth of T. cruzi within its gut.
What is microscopy used for?
573423bed058e614000b69d0
diagnosis of infectious disease
30
False
What do virtually all culture techniques rely on at some point?
573423bed058e614000b69d1
microscopic examination
157
False
What can samples obtained from patients viewed directly under?
573423bed058e614000b69d2
light microscope
452
False
When is microscopy exquisitely specific?
573423bed058e614000b69d3
when used in combination with antibody based techniques.
636
False
What can antibodies with artificial fluorescence be directed to do?
573423bed058e614000b69d4
bind to and identify a specific antigens present on a pathogen
812
False
diagnosis of infectious disease
30
What is microscopy unnecessary for?
5a830244e60761001a2eb2ef
True
microscopic examination
157
What do virtually no culture techniques rely on at some point?
5a830244e60761001a2eb2f0
True
light microscope
312
What can samples obtained from patients be viewed by from far away?
5a830244e60761001a2eb2f1
True
when used in combination with antibody based techniques
636
When is microscopy exquisitely useless?
5a830244e60761001a2eb2f2
True
bind to and identify a specific antigens present on a pathogen
812
What are antibodies with artificial fluorescence unable to do?
5a830244e60761001a2eb2f3
True
Another principal tool in the diagnosis of infectious disease is microscopy. Virtually all of the culture techniques discussed above rely, at some point, on microscopic examination for definitive identification of the infectious agent. Microscopy may be carried out with simple instruments, such as the compound light microscope, or with instruments as complex as an electron microscope. Samples obtained from patients may be viewed directly under the light microscope, and can often rapidly lead to identification. Microscopy is often also used in conjunction with biochemical staining techniques, and can be made exquisitely specific when used in combination with antibody based techniques. For example, the use of antibodies made artificially fluorescent (fluorescently labeled antibodies) can be directed to bind to and identify a specific antigens present on a pathogen. A fluorescence microscope is then used to detect fluorescently labeled antibodies bound to internalized antigens within clinical samples or cultured cells. This technique is especially useful in the diagnosis of viral diseases, where the light microscope is incapable of identifying a virus directly.
What do almost all cells readily stain with?
57342435d058e614000b69e4
a number of basic dyes
112
False
Why do cells easily stain with dyes?
57342435d058e614000b69e5
electrostatic attraction
146
False
What electronic charge do cellular molecules have?
57342435d058e614000b69e6
negatively charged
179
False
What is Geimsa stain?
57342435d058e614000b69e7
a dye
397
False
How many methods comprise standard approaches used to classify bacteria and diagnose disease?
57342435d058e614000b69e8
Two
684
False
a number of basic dyes
112
What do few cells readily stain with?
5a830323e60761001a2eb2f9
True
electrostatic attraction
146
Why do cells have difficulty staining with dyes?
5a830323e60761001a2eb2fa
True
negatively charged
179
What electronic charge do cellular molecules destroy?
5a830323e60761001a2eb2fb
True
Two
684
How many methods comprise unorthodox approaches used to classify bacteria and diagnose disease?
5a830323e60761001a2eb2fc
True
the Gram stain
697
What is the rarest method used to classify bacteria and to diagnose a disease?
5a830323e60761001a2eb2fd
True
Other microscopic procedures may also aid in identifying infectious agents. Almost all cells readily stain with a number of basic dyes due to the electrostatic attraction between negatively charged cellular molecules and the positive charge on the dye. A cell is normally transparent under a microscope, and using a stain increases the contrast of a cell with its background. Staining a cell with a dye such as Giemsa stain or crystal violet allows a microscopist to describe its size, shape, internal and external components and its associations with other cells. The response of bacteria to different staining procedures is used in the taxonomic classification of microbes as well. Two methods, the Gram stain and the acid-fast stain, are the standard approaches used to classify bacteria and to diagnosis of disease. The Gram stain identifies the bacterial groups Firmicutes and Actinobacteria, both of which contain many significant human pathogens. The acid-fast staining procedure identifies the Actinobacterial genera Mycobacterium and Nocardia.
What needs to be isolated from infected tissue to provide a biochemical diagnosis of an infectious disease?
5734257c4776f41900661961
enzymes
17
False
What enzyme's presence is characteristic of specific types of viral infections?
5734257c4776f41900661962
RNA replicases
163
False
What does the protein hemagglutinin bind together?
5734257c4776f41900661963
red blood cells
352
False
Why are the presence of certain enymzes a tell tale sign of a virus?
5734257c4776f41900661964
humans can make neither RNA replicases nor reverse transcriptase
139
False
enzymes
17
What needs to be combined with infected tissue to provide a biochemical diagnosis of an infectious disease?
5a830437e60761001a2eb303
True
RNA replicases
163
What enzyme's absence is characteristic of specific types of viral infections?
5a830437e60761001a2eb304
True
red blood cells
352
What does the protein hemagglutinin pull apart?
5a830437e60761001a2eb305
True
the presence of these enzymes are characteristic of specific types of viral infections
209
Why are the presence of certain enzymes a sign of good health?
5a830437e60761001a2eb306
True
The isolation of enzymes from infected tissue can also provide the basis of a biochemical diagnosis of an infectious disease. For example, humans can make neither RNA replicases nor reverse transcriptase, and the presence of these enzymes are characteristic of specific types of viral infections. The ability of the viral protein hemagglutinin to bind red blood cells together into a detectable matrix may also be characterized as a biochemical test for viral infection, although strictly speaking hemagglutinin is not an enzyme and has no metabolic function.
What methods are highly sensitive, specifc and rapid tests used to identify microorganisms?
57342628d058e614000b6a0c
Serological
0
False
What are serological tests based upon the ability of an antibody to do?
57342628d058e614000b6a0d
bind specifically to an antigen
173
False
What is the antigen bound to by the antibody usually?
57342628d058e614000b6a0e
a protein or carbohydrate made by an infectious agent
227
False
What does the binding set off that will result in something visibly obvious in various ways?
57342628d058e614000b6a0f
a chain of events
335
False
What is the causative agent of "strep throat"?
57342628d058e614000b6a10
S. pyogenes
558
False
Serological methods
0
What methods are highly sensitive, general and slow tests used to identify microorganisms?
5a83060be60761001a2eb30b
True
bind specifically to an antigen
173
What are serological tests based upon the ability of an antibody to avoid?
5a83060be60761001a2eb30c
True
a protein or carbohydrate made by an infectious agent
227
What is the antigen bound to by the antibody usually not part of?
5a83060be60761001a2eb30d
True
a chain of events
335
What does the binding set off that will result in something invisible in various ways?
5a83060be60761001a2eb30e
True
S. pyogenes
558
What is the special agent of "strep throat"?
5a83060be60761001a2eb30f
True
Serological methods are highly sensitive, specific and often extremely rapid tests used to identify microorganisms. These tests are based upon the ability of an antibody to bind specifically to an antigen. The antigen, usually a protein or carbohydrate made by an infectious agent, is bound by the antibody. This binding then sets off a chain of events that can be visibly obvious in various ways, dependent upon the test. For example, "Strep throat" is often diagnosed within minutes, and is based on the appearance of antigens made by the causative agent, S. pyogenes, that is retrieved from a patients throat with a cotton swab. Serological tests, if available, are usually the preferred route of identification, however the tests are costly to develop and the reagents used in the test often require refrigeration. Some serological methods are extremely costly, although when commonly used, such as with the "strep test", they can be inexpensive.
What are immunoassays?
57342720d058e614000b6a26
Complex serological techniques
0
False
What type of signal do immunoassays produce?
57342720d058e614000b6a27
electro - magnetic or particle radiation
173
False
What allows quantitation of the target antigen?
57342720d058e614000b6a28
unknowns can be compared to that of standards
287
False
Immunoassays are able to detect what type of proteins?
57342720d058e614000b6a29
generated by an infected organism in response to a foreign agent
512
False
Complex serological techniques
0
What are immunoassays banned from being?
5a8306fae60761001a2eb315
True
electro - magnetic or particle radiation
173
What type of signal do immunoassays absorb?
5a8306fae60761001a2eb316
True
Signal of unknowns can be compared to that of standards
277
What stops quantitation of the target antigen?
5a8306fae60761001a2eb317
True
generated by an infected organism in response to a foreign agent
512
What type of proteins are undetectable by Immunoassays?
5a8306fae60761001a2eb318
True
Complex serological techniques have been developed into what are known as Immunoassays. Immunoassays can use the basic antibody – antigen binding as the basis to produce an electro - magnetic or particle radiation signal, which can be detected by some form of instrumentation. Signal of unknowns can be compared to that of standards allowing quantitation of the target antigen. To aid in the diagnosis of infectious diseases, immunoassays can detect or measure antigens from either infectious agents or proteins generated by an infected organism in response to a foreign agent. For example, immunoassay A may detect the presence of a surface protein from a virus particle. Immunoassay B on the other hand may detect or measure antibodies produced by an organism's immune system that are made to neutralize and allow the destruction of the virus.
What does the acronym PCR expand to?
573427ac4776f419006619a5
polymerase chain reaction
28
False
What will be the ubiquitous gold standards of diagnostics in the near future?
573427ac4776f419006619a6
PCR
55
False
What has the catalog of infectious agents grown to the point of?
573427ac4776f419006619a7
virtually all of the significant infectious agents of the human population have been identified
236
False
What must an infectious agent do to cause disease?
573427ac4776f419006619a8
grow within the human body
366
False
What are primers derived from the genomes of?
573427ac4776f419006619a9
infectious agents
698
False
polymerase chain reaction
28
What does the acronym PCR abbreviate to?
5a8308fde60761001a2eb31d
True
PCR
55
What be the silver standards of diagnostics in the distant future?
5a8308fde60761001a2eb31e
True
virtually all of the significant infectious agents of the human population have been identified
236
What has the catalog of infectious agents decreased to the point of?
5a8308fde60761001a2eb31f
True
grow within the human body
366
What must an infectious agent prevent to cause disease?
5a8308fde60761001a2eb320
True
infectious agents
698
What are primers excluded by gnomes?
5a8308fde60761001a2eb321
True
Technologies based upon the polymerase chain reaction (PCR) method will become nearly ubiquitous gold standards of diagnostics of the near future, for several reasons. First, the catalog of infectious agents has grown to the point that virtually all of the significant infectious agents of the human population have been identified. Second, an infectious agent must grow within the human body to cause disease; essentially it must amplify its own nucleic acids in order to cause a disease. This amplification of nucleic acid in infected tissue offers an opportunity to detect the infectious agent by using PCR. Third, the essential tools for directing PCR, primers, are derived from the genomes of infectious agents, and with time those genomes will be known, if they are not already.
What technological ability with regards to detection is currently available?
5734284ad058e614000b6a48
ability to detect any infectious agent
24
False
What are the remaining blockades to the use or PCR as a standard tool of diagnosis?
5734284ad058e614000b6a49
cost and application
203
False
What are some diseases which won't benefit from PCR methods?
5734284ad058e614000b6a4a
clostridial diseases
367
False
PCR can't detect the presence of any bacteria when what doesn't occur?
5734284ad058e614000b6a4b
significant proliferation of the infectious agent
563
False
ability to detect any infectious agent rapidly and specifically
24
What supernatural ability with regards to detection is currently available?
5a830a2ae60761001a2eb327
True
cost and application
203
What are the remaining blockades to the removal of PCR as a standard tool of diagnosis?
5a830a2ae60761001a2eb328
True
clostridial diseases
367
What are some diseases which help improve PCR methods?
5a830a2ae60761001a2eb329
True
cost and application
203
Which blockades to use PCR are currently insurmountable?
5a830a2ae60761001a2eb32a
True
tetanus and botulism
389
What diseases are considered fundamentally biological healing?
5a830a2ae60761001a2eb32b
True
Thus, the technological ability to detect any infectious agent rapidly and specifically are currently available. The only remaining blockades to the use of PCR as a standard tool of diagnosis are in its cost and application, neither of which is insurmountable. The diagnosis of a few diseases will not benefit from the development of PCR methods, such as some of the clostridial diseases (tetanus and botulism). These diseases are fundamentally biological poisonings by relatively small numbers of infectious bacteria that produce extremely potent neurotoxins. A significant proliferation of the infectious agent does not occur, this limits the ability of PCR to detect the presence of any bacteria.
What is used in the treatment of AIDS?
57342ac5d058e614000b6a88
AZT
357
False
How was the course of AIDS followed?
57342ac5d058e614000b6a89
monitoring the composition of patient blood samples
438
False
What could be done by understanding how the disease was transmitted?
57342ac5d058e614000b6a8a
resources could be targeted to the communities at greatest risk
782
False
What did the genotypic identification of HIV later enable?
57342ac5d058e614000b6a8b
geographical origins of the virus
1081
False
What is now commonly used to identify HIV in healthy people before the onset of the illnes?
57342ac5d058e614000b6a8c
Molecular diagnostics
1308
False
AZT
357
What is used as a punishment for AIDS?
5a830e00e60761001a2eb331
True
monitoring the composition of patient blood samples
438
How was the course of AIDS hidden?
5a830e00e60761001a2eb332
True
resources
782
What could be in danger by understanding how the disease was transmitted?
5a830e00e60761001a2eb333
True
geographical origins of the virus
1081
What did the genotypic identification of HIV later prevent?
5a830e00e60761001a2eb334
True
Molecular diagnostics
1308
What is now rarely used to identify HIV in healthy people before the onset of the illness?
5a830e00e60761001a2eb335
True
There is usually an indication for a specific identification of an infectious agent only when such identification can aid in the treatment or prevention of the disease, or to advance knowledge of the course of an illness prior to the development of effective therapeutic or preventative measures. For example, in the early 1980s, prior to the appearance of AZT for the treatment of AIDS, the course of the disease was closely followed by monitoring the composition of patient blood samples, even though the outcome would not offer the patient any further treatment options. In part, these studies on the appearance of HIV in specific communities permitted the advancement of hypotheses as to the route of transmission of the virus. By understanding how the disease was transmitted, resources could be targeted to the communities at greatest risk in campaigns aimed at reducing the number of new infections. The specific serological diagnostic identification, and later genotypic or molecular identification, of HIV also enabled the development of hypotheses as to the temporal and geographical origins of the virus, as well as a myriad of other hypothesis. The development of molecular diagnostic tools have enabled physicians and researchers to monitor the efficacy of treatment with anti-retroviral drugs. Molecular diagnostics are now commonly used to identify HIV in healthy people long before the onset of illness and have been used to demonstrate the existence of people who are genetically resistant to HIV infection. Thus, while there still is no cure for AIDS, there is great therapeutic and predictive benefit to identifying the virus and monitoring the virus levels within the blood of infected individuals, both for the patient and for the community at large.
What can wearing gowns and face masks help prevent?
57342b4c4776f419006619e7
infections from being passed from one person to another
85
False
What is the most important defense against the spread of unwanted organisms?
57342b4c4776f419006619e8
Frequent hand washing
142
False
Avoiding drugs and using condoms are other forms of what?
57342b4c4776f419006619e9
prevention
266
False
Why is it important to cook foods well?
57342b4c4776f419006619ea
prevention
266
False
What should one do with foods that have been left outside for a long time?
57342b4c4776f419006619eb
avoiding
433
False
infections from being passed from one person to another
85
What can wearing gowns and face masks help facilitate?
5a830ed5e60761001a2eb33b
True
Frequent hand washing
142
What is the least important defense against the spread of unwanted organisms?
5a830ed5e60761001a2eb33c
True
prevention
266
What are consuming drugs and avoiding condoms considered a form of?
5a830ed5e60761001a2eb33d
True
a healthy lifestyle
347
What does a balanced diet and regular exercise make impossible?
5a830ed5e60761001a2eb33e
True
avoid
433
What should one do with foods that have not been left outside for a long time?
5a830ed5e60761001a2eb33f
True
Techniques like hand washing, wearing gowns, and wearing face masks can help prevent infections from being passed from one person to another. Frequent hand washing remains the most important defense against the spread of unwanted organisms. There are other forms of prevention such as avoiding the use of illicit drugs, using a condom, and having a healthy lifestyle with a balanced diet and regular exercise. Cooking foods well and avoiding foods that have been left outside for a long time is also important.
Recognizing the different characteristics of various diseases is one way to do what?
57342c544776f419006619f9
prevent or slow down the transmission of infectious diseases
19
False
What are some critical disease characteristics that should be evaluated?
57342c544776f419006619fa
virulence, distance traveled by victims, and level of contagiousness
218
False
What virus' strains incapacitate their victims extremely quickly before killing them?
57342c544776f419006619fb
Ebola
309
False
Why is the initial stage of Ebola not very contagious?
57342c544776f419006619fc
victims experience only internal hemorrhaging
683
False
What does the low virulence of HIV allow victims to do?
57342c544776f419006619fd
travel long distances
1169
False
the transmission of infectious diseases
40
What does recognizing the different characteristics of various diseases allow someone to increase?
5a830f90e60761001a2eb345
True
virulence, distance traveled by victims, and level of contagiousness
218
What are some critical disease characteristics that should not be evaluated?
5a830f90e60761001a2eb346
True
Ebola
779
What virus' strains strengthen their victims extremely quickly before killing them?
5a830f90e60761001a2eb347
True
victims experience only internal hemorrhaging
683
Why is the initial stage of Ebola so contagious?
5a830f90e60761001a2eb348
True
travel long distances
1169
What does the extreme virulence of HIV allow victims to do?
5a830f90e60761001a2eb349
True
One of the ways to prevent or slow down the transmission of infectious diseases is to recognize the different characteristics of various diseases. Some critical disease characteristics that should be evaluated include virulence, distance traveled by victims, and level of contagiousness. The human strains of Ebola virus, for example, incapacitate their victims extremely quickly and kill them soon after. As a result, the victims of this disease do not have the opportunity to travel very far from the initial infection zone. Also, this virus must spread through skin lesions or permeable membranes such as the eye. Thus, the initial stage of Ebola is not very contagious since its victims experience only internal hemorrhaging. As a result of the above features, the spread of Ebola is very rapid and usually stays within a relatively confined geographical area. In contrast, the Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV) kills its victims very slowly by attacking their immune system. As a result, many of its victims transmit the virus to other individuals before even realizing that they are carrying the disease. Also, the relatively low virulence allows its victims to travel long distances, increasing the likelihood of an epidemic.
Recognizing the effects of small-world networks allows one to decrease what?
57342d2b4776f41900661a0d
transmission rate of infectious diseases
38
False
What type of interactions happen within groups of infected individuals in epidemics?
57342d2b4776f41900661a0e
extensive interactions
162
False
What is a way of drastically reducing infection rates?
57342d2b4776f41900661a0f
focus is on the prevention of transmission jumps
683
False
What is an example of a success implementation of preventing transmission jumps?
57342d2b4776f41900661a10
needle exchange programs in areas with a high density of drug users
757
False
When was vaccination used to prevent the spread of the foot-and-mouth virus?
57342d2b4776f41900661a11
2001
1074
False
transmission rate of infectious diseases
38
What does recognizing the effects of small-world networks allow one to increase?
5a83104ce60761001a2eb34f
True
extensive interactions
162
What type of interactions stop within groups of infected individuals in epidemics?
5a83104ce60761001a2eb350
True
the main focus is on the prevention of transmission jumps
674
What is a way of drastically harming infection rates?
5a83104ce60761001a2eb351
True
needle exchange programs in areas with a high density of drug users
757
What is an example of a successful implementation of increasing transmission jumps?
5a83104ce60761001a2eb352
True
2001
1074
When was vaccination used to prevent the spread of the foot-and-neck virus?
5a83104ce60761001a2eb353
True
Another effective way to decrease the transmission rate of infectious diseases is to recognize the effects of small-world networks. In epidemics, there are often extensive interactions within hubs or groups of infected individuals and other interactions within discrete hubs of susceptible individuals. Despite the low interaction between discrete hubs, the disease can jump to and spread in a susceptible hub via a single or few interactions with an infected hub. Thus, infection rates in small-world networks can be reduced somewhat if interactions between individuals within infected hubs are eliminated (Figure 1). However, infection rates can be drastically reduced if the main focus is on the prevention of transmission jumps between hubs. The use of needle exchange programs in areas with a high density of drug users with HIV is an example of the successful implementation of this treatment method.  Another example is the use of ring culling or vaccination of potentially susceptible livestock in adjacent farms to prevent the spread of the foot-and-mouth virus in 2001.
What is resistance to infection known technically as?
57342dcc4776f41900661a21
immunity
25
False
When may immunity be acquired?
57342dcc4776f41900661a22
following a disease
51
False
What is knowledge of protective antigens more complete for?
57342dcc4776f41900661a23
primary pathogens
300
False
What does herd immunity offer to vulnerable people when a large enough proportion of the population has acquired immunity?
57342dcc4776f41900661a24
a measure of protection
411
False
Vaccination is a way in which what may be acquired?
57342dcc4776f41900661a25
immunity
25
False
immunity
25
What is resistance to infection known informally as?
5a8310fde60761001a2eb361
True
following a disease
51
When may immunity be the best?
5a8310fde60761001a2eb362
True
primary pathogens
300
What is knowledge of protective antigens forbidden for?
5a8310fde60761001a2eb363
True
immunity
25
What does herd mentality offer to invulnerable people when a tiny proportion of the population has acquired immunity?
5a8310fde60761001a2eb364
True
vaccination
187
What is the only way to lose immunity?
5a8310fde60761001a2eb365
True
Resistance to infection (immunity) may be acquired following a disease, by asymptomatic carriage of the pathogen, by harboring an organism with a similar structure (crossreacting), or by vaccination. Knowledge of the protective antigens and specific acquired host immune factors is more complete for primary pathogens than for opportunistic pathogens. There is also the phenomenon of herd immunity which offers a measure of protection to those otherwise vulnerable people when a large enough proportion of the population has acquired immunity from certain infections.
What can the clearance of pathogens be influenced by in an individual?
57342eb44776f41900661a2b
genetic variants
101
False
What is the brand name Pegasys for?
57342eb44776f41900661a2c
Pegylated interferon-alpha-2b
241
False
What are patients carrying certain genetic variant alleles near the IL28B gene more likely to achieve?
57342eb44776f41900661a2d
sustained virological response
706
False
genetic variants
101
What can the increase of pathogens be stopped by in an individual?
5a8311fbe60761001a2eb36b
True
sustained virological response
706
What are patients carrying certain genetic variant alleles near the IL28B gene always going to achieve?
5a8311fbe60761001a2eb36c
True
hepatitis C
183
What disease has no known treatment?
5a8311fbe60761001a2eb36d
True
The clearance of the pathogens
0
What can only be induced by treatment and not spontaneously?
5a8311fbe60761001a2eb36e
True
The clearance of the pathogens, either treatment-induced or spontaneous, it can be influenced by the genetic variants carried by the individual patients. For instance, for genotype 1 hepatitis C treated with Pegylated interferon-alpha-2a or Pegylated interferon-alpha-2b (brand names Pegasys or PEG-Intron) combined with ribavirin, it has been shown that genetic polymorphisms near the human IL28B gene, encoding interferon lambda 3, are associated with significant differences in the treatment-induced clearance of the virus. This finding, originally reported in Nature, showed that genotype 1 hepatitis C patients carrying certain genetic variant alleles near the IL28B gene are more possibly to achieve sustained virological response after the treatment than others. Later report from Nature demonstrated that the same genetic variants are also associated with the natural clearance of the genotype 1 hepatitis C virus.
What type of drugs can suppress an infection when it attacks the body?
57342f81d058e614000b6ab8
anti-infective
33
False
How many broad types of anti-infective drugs exist?
57342f81d058e614000b6ab9
Several
82
False
What depends on the method an antibiotic is given?
57342f81d058e614000b6aba
severity and the type of infection
354
False
How are severe infections of the brain usually treated?
57342f81d058e614000b6abb
with intravenous antibiotics
524
False
How do antibiotics work?
57342f81d058e614000b6abc
slowing down the multiplication of bacteria or killing the bacteria
724
False
anti-infective
105
What type of drugs can worsen an infection when it attacks the body?
5a83143fe60761001a2eb37f
True
Several
82
How many broad types of anti-infective drugs no longer exist?
5a83143fe60761001a2eb380
True
severity and the type of infection
354
What has no influence on the method an antibiotic is given?
5a83143fe60761001a2eb381
True
with intravenous antibiotics
524
How are severe infections of the brain usually damaged?
5a83143fe60761001a2eb382
True
slowing down the multiplication of bacteria or killing the bacteria
724
How do antibiotics harm the body?
5a83143fe60761001a2eb383
True
When infection attacks the body, anti-infective drugs can suppress the infection. Several broad types of anti-infective drugs exist, depending on the type of organism targeted; they include antibacterial (antibiotic; including antitubercular), antiviral, antifungal and antiparasitic (including antiprotozoal and antihelminthic) agents. Depending on the severity and the type of infection, the antibiotic may be given by mouth or by injection, or may be applied topically. Severe infections of the brain are usually treated with intravenous antibiotics. Sometimes, multiple antibiotics are used in case there is resistance to one antibiotic. Antibiotics only work for bacteria and do not affect viruses. Antibiotics work by slowing down the multiplication of bacteria or killing the bacteria. The most common classes of antibiotics used in medicine include penicillin, cephalosporins, aminoglycosides, macrolides, quinolones and tetracyclines.[citation needed]
What are the top three killer diseases?
57342fe6d058e614000b6ac2
HIV/AIDS, TB and malaria
47
False
How much have deaths due to HIV/AIDS increased?
57342fe6d058e614000b6ac3
fourfold
182
False
What are some popular childhood diseases?
57342fe6d058e614000b6ac4
pertussis, poliomyelitis, diphtheria, measles and tetanus
219
False
Who makes up a large percentage of diarrheal deaths?
57342fe6d058e614000b6ac5
Children
278
False
What is the number 4 leading cause of death in the world?
57342fe6d058e614000b6ac6
lower respiratory infections
421
False
HIV/AIDS, TB and malaria
47
What are the top three healing diseases?
5a83149ce60761001a2eb389
True
fourfold
182
How much have births due to HIV/AIDS increased?
5a83149ce60761001a2eb38a
True
pertussis, poliomyelitis, diphtheria, measles and tetanus
219
What are some recently cured childhood diseases?
5a83149ce60761001a2eb38b
True
Children
278
Who makes up no percentage of diarrheal deaths?
5a83149ce60761001a2eb38c
True
lower respiratory infections
421
What is the number 4 leading cause of life in the world?
5a83149ce60761001a2eb38d
True
The top three single agent/disease killers are HIV/AIDS, TB and malaria. While the number of deaths due to nearly every disease have decreased, deaths due to HIV/AIDS have increased fourfold. Childhood diseases include pertussis, poliomyelitis, diphtheria, measles and tetanus. Children also make up a large percentage of lower respiratory and diarrheal deaths. In 2012, approximately 3.1 million people have died due to lower respiratory infections, making it the number 4 leading cause of death in the world.
What medical field does the treatment of infectious diseases fall into?
57343074d058e614000b6acc
field of Infectious Disease
68
False
Disease propagation can fall under the purview of what field of study?
57343074d058e614000b6acd
Epidemiology
164
False
Who tends to initially diagnose an infection?
57343074d058e614000b6ace
primary care physicians or internal medicine specialists
227
False
What is the non-medical mumbo jumbo term for pulmonologist?
57343074d058e614000b6acf
lung physician
392
False
Who works with both patients and general practitioners to identify a disease?
57343074d058e614000b6ad0
infectious diseases specialist
425
False
field of Infectious Disease
68
What psychological field does the treatment of infectious diseases fall into?
5a83153fe60761001a2eb39d
True
Epidemiology
164
What field of war can disease propagation can fall under the purview of?
5a83153fe60761001a2eb39e
True
primary care physicians or internal medicine specialists
227
Who tends to initially ignore an infection?
5a83153fe60761001a2eb39f
True
lung physician
392
What is the imaginary term for a pulmonologist?
5a83153fe60761001a2eb3a0
True
infectious diseases specialist
425
Who fights with both patients and general practitioners to identify a disease?
5a83153fe60761001a2eb3a1
True
The medical treatment of infectious diseases falls into the medical field of Infectious Disease and in some cases the study of propagation pertains to the field of Epidemiology. Generally, infections are initially diagnosed by primary care physicians or internal medicine specialists. For example, an "uncomplicated" pneumonia will generally be treated by the internist or the pulmonologist (lung physician). The work of the infectious diseases specialist therefore entails working with both patients and general practitioners, as well as laboratory scientists, immunologists, bacteriologists and other specialists.
What have a number of studies found a correlation between?
573431514776f41900661a3b
pathogen load in an area and human behavior
55
False
What is higher pathogen load associated with?
573431514776f41900661a3c
decreased size of ethnic and religious groups in an area
140
False
What does avoidance of other groups reduce?
573431514776f41900661a3d
pathogen transmission
286
False
What does more restricted sexual behavior result in?
573431514776f41900661a3e
Higher pathogen load
420
False
What may poor socioeconomic factors ultimately in part be due to?
573431514776f41900661a3f
high pathogen load preventing economic development.
1495
False
pathogen load in an area and human behavior
55
What have a number of studies found no correlation between?
5a831713e60761001a2eb3c5
True
decreased size of ethnic and religious groups in an area
140
What is no pathogen load associated with?
5a831713e60761001a2eb3c6
True
pathogen transmission
286
What does avoidance of other groups promote?
5a831713e60761001a2eb3c7
True
pathogen load
427
What does sexual behavior have no influence on?
5a831713e60761001a2eb3c8
True
high pathogen load preventing economic development
1495
What is the only cause of poor socioeconomic factors?
5a831713e60761001a2eb3c9
True
A number of studies have reported associations between pathogen load in an area and human behavior. Higher pathogen load is associated with decreased size of ethnic and religious groups in an area. This may be due high pathogen load favoring avoidance of other groups, which may reduce pathogen transmission, or a high pathogen load preventing the creation of large settlements and armies that enforce a common culture. Higher pathogen load is also associated with more restricted sexual behavior, which may reduce pathogen transmission. It also associated with higher preferences for health and attractiveness in mates. Higher fertility rates and shorter or less parental care per child is another association that may be a compensation for the higher mortality rate. There is also an association with polygyny which may be due to higher pathogen load, making selecting males with a high genetic resistance increasingly important. Higher pathogen load is also associated with more collectivism and less individualism, which may limit contacts with outside groups and infections. There are alternative explanations for at least some of the associations although some of these explanations may in turn ultimately be due to pathogen load. Thus, polygny may also be due to a lower male:female ratio in these areas but this may ultimately be due to male infants having increased mortality from infectious diseases. Another example is that poor socioeconomic factors may ultimately in part be due to high pathogen load preventing economic development.
What profession finds evidence of infection in fossil remains to be interesting?
57343210d058e614000b6ae0
paleopathologists
69
False
What do paleopathologists study?
57343210d058e614000b6ae1
occurrences of injuries and illness in extinct life forms
109
False
What has been discovered in the bones of carnivorous dinosaurs?
57343210d058e614000b6ae2
Signs of infection
168
False
What dinosaur's skull had pit-like wounds surrounded by swollen and porous bone?
57343210d058e614000b6ae3
Herrerasaurus ischigualastensis
403
False
How did tyrannosaurs become infected?
57343210d058e614000b6ae4
being bitten during a fight
955
False
paleopathologists
69
What profession finds evidence of infection in fossil remains to be pointless?
5a8317ede60761001a2eb3d9
True
occurrences of injuries and illness in extinct life forms
109
What do paleopathologists avoid researching?
5a8317ede60761001a2eb3da
True
Signs of infection
168
What has been discovered in the blood of carnivorous dinosaurs?
5a8317ede60761001a2eb3db
True
Herrerasaurus ischigualastensis
403
What dinosaur's femur had pit-like wounds surrounded by swollen and porous bone?
5a8317ede60761001a2eb3dc
True
being bitten during a fight
955
How did tyrannosaurs become invincible?
5a8317ede60761001a2eb3dd
True
Evidence of infection in fossil remains is a subject of interest for paleopathologists, scientists who study occurrences of injuries and illness in extinct life forms. Signs of infection have been discovered in the bones of carnivorous dinosaurs. When present, however, these infections seem to tend to be confined to only small regions of the body. A skull attributed to the early carnivorous dinosaur Herrerasaurus ischigualastensis exhibits pit-like wounds surrounded by swollen and porous bone. The unusual texture of the bone around the wounds suggests they were afflicted by a short-lived, non-lethal infection. Scientists who studied the skull speculated that the bite marks were received in a fight with another Herrerasaurus. Other carnivorous dinosaurs with documented evidence of infection include Acrocanthosaurus, Allosaurus, Tyrannosaurus and a tyrannosaur from the Kirtland Formation. The infections from both tyrannosaurs were received by being bitten during a fight, like the Herrerasaurus specimen.
Hunting
What is the practice of killing or trapping any animal?
573443cb879d6814001ca423
Hunting
0
False
Why do humans most commonly hunt wildlife?
573443cb879d6814001ca424
food
185
False
What is there a distinction between lawful hunting and?
573443cb879d6814001ca425
poaching
339
False
What is poaching?
573443cb879d6814001ca426
illegal killing, trapping or capture of the hunted species
362
False
What is the species which is hunted referred to as?
573443cb879d6814001ca427
prey
477
False
What is the practice of killing or trapping any animal called?
5735ab1adc94161900571efd
Hunting
0
False
Illegally killing, capturing or trapping an hunted species is called what?
5735ab1adc94161900571eff
poaching
339
False
Hunted species are usually referred to as what?
5735ab1adc94161900571f00
game or prey
469
False
What animals are usually hunted?
5735ab1adc94161900571f01
mammals and birds
498
False
What is it called to kill or trap an animal?
5735d85d012e2f140011a0b5
Hunting
0
False
What species are usually hunted?
5735d85d012e2f140011a0b6
mammals and birds
498
False
Why do humans hunt?
5735d85d012e2f140011a0b7
food, recreation, to remove predators
185
False
When was lawful hunting distinguished from poaching?
5735d85d012e2f140011a0b8
2010s
295
False
Species hunted are referred to as what?
5735d85d012e2f140011a0b9
game or prey
469
False
any animal
47
What do feral animals usually eat?
5ace4c8632bba1001ae4a211
True
pursuing or tracking
62
What tactics do feral animals use to find prey?
5ace4c8632bba1001ae4a212
True
2010s
295
In what year were feral animals first categorized?
5ace4c8632bba1001ae4a213
True
mammals and birds
498
What kinds of animals are usually considered feral?
5ace4c8632bba1001ae4a214
True
food
185
What does wildlife have to compete with humans to find?
5ace4c8632bba1001ae4a215
True
Hunting is the practice of killing or trapping any animal, or pursuing or tracking it with the intent of doing so. Hunting wildlife or feral animals is most commonly done by humans for food, recreation, to remove predators which are dangerous to humans or domestic animals, or for trade. In the 2010s, lawful hunting is distinguished from poaching, which is the illegal killing, trapping or capture of the hunted species. The species that are hunted are referred to as game or prey and are usually mammals and birds.
What does evidence suggest hunting may have been a factor in the extinction of?
5734449aacc1501500babd47
holocene megafauna
128
False
What was the North American megafauna extinction coincidental with?
5734449aacc1501500babd48
Younger Dryas impact event
254
False
What are humans thought to have played a significant role in, in Australia?
5734449aacc1501500babd49
extinction of the Australian megafauna
503
False
When was Australian's megafauna widespread?
5734449aacc1501500babd4a
prior to human occupation
562
False
What along with multiple environmental factors led to the extinction of the holocene megafauna?
5735d9b66c16ec1900b9285d
hunting
34
False
What replaced the holocene megafauna?
5735d9b66c16ec1900b9285e
smaller herbivores
172
False
What event was coincidental with the North American megafauna extinction?
5735d9b66c16ec1900b9285f
Younger Dryas impact event
254
False
What is thought to have played a significant role in the extinction of the Australian megafauna?
5735d9b66c16ec1900b92860
humans
438
False
the Younger Dryas impact event
250
What event was Australia's megafauna extinction coincidental with?
5ace4f4a32bba1001ae4a251
True
smaller herbivores
172
What did human occupation lead Younger Dryas to be replaced with?
5ace4f4a32bba1001ae4a252
True
prehistoric species loss
332
What event was megafauna found to be less involved in than previously thought?
5ace4f4a32bba1001ae4a253
True
Australian megafauna
521
What was widespread before prehistoric species existed?
5ace4f4a32bba1001ae4a254
True
Younger Dryas
254
What event was caused by smaller herbivores in the area?
5ace4f4a32bba1001ae4a255
True
Furthermore, evidence exists that hunting may have been one of the multiple environmental factors leading to extinctions of the holocene megafauna and their replacement by smaller herbivores. North American megafauna extinction was coincidental with the Younger Dryas impact event, possibly making hunting a less critical factor in prehistoric species loss than had been previously thought. However, in other locations such as Australia, humans are thought to have played a very significant role in the extinction of the Australian megafauna that was widespread prior to human occupation.
What is undisputed about early humans?
57344599acc1501500babd63
were hunters
41
False
Hunting was important for the emergence of the Homo genus from what?
57344599acc1501500babd64
earlier Australopithecines
123
False
Production of stone tools and control of fire were also pushed forward by what?
57344599acc1501500babd65
hunting
249
False
What became a theme of stories and myths?
57344599acc1501500babd66
hunting
493
False
Hunting allowed what type of rituals?
57344599acc1501500babd67
dance and animal sacrifice
565
False
What is undisputed about earlier humans?
5735e8236c16ec1900b92882
humans were hunters
34
False
What did hunting become a theme of?
5735e8246c16ec1900b92883
stories and myths
519
False
Stone tools and control of fire are emphasised in what hypothesis?
5735e8246c16ec1900b92884
hunting hypothesis
249
False
animal sacrifice
575
What kind of activity would require the use of fire for early humans?
5ace521a32bba1001ae4a29d
True
earlier Australopithecines
123
Mating behavior was important for the emergence of Homo genus from what?
5ace521a32bba1001ae4a29e
True
stories and myths
519
What did omnivory become a theme of for early man?
5ace521a32bba1001ae4a29f
True
essential
375
What was animal sacrifice considered to be as part of the emergence of modern humans?
5ace521a32bba1001ae4a2a0
True
were hunters
41
What is undisputed about animals that were sacrificed?
5ace521a32bba1001ae4a2a1
True
While it is undisputed that early humans were hunters, the importance of this for the emergence of the Homo genus from the earlier Australopithecines, including the production of stone tools and eventually the control of fire, are emphasised in the hunting hypothesis and de-emphasised in scenarios that stress omnivory and social interaction, including mating behaviour, as essential in the emergence of human behavioural modernity. With the establishment of language, culture, and religion, hunting became a theme of stories and myths, as well as rituals such as dance and animal sacrifice.
What type of lifestyle was prevalent in Siberia until the European Age of Discovery?
5734465d879d6814001ca463
Hunter-gathering
0
False
Where does the hunter-gathering lifestyle persist, though in decline?
5734465d879d6814001ca464
some tribal societies
200
False
Indigenous peoples of the Amazonas preserved what until the recent past?
5734465d879d6814001ca465
paleolithic hunting-gathering
271
False
Who are the only remaining full-time hunter-gatherers in Africa?
5734465d879d6814001ca466
the Hadza of Tanzania
625
False
Hunter-gathering lifestyles remained prevalent until when?
5735e8736c16ec1900b92888
European Age of Discovery
151
False
What parts of the New World did the hunter-gathering lifestyles remain?
5735e8736c16ec1900b92889
Sub-Saharan Africa, and Siberia, as well as all of Australia
79
False
Who are the only remaining full-time hunter-gatherers in Africa?
5735e8736c16ec1900b9288a
Hadza of Tanzania
629
False
Age of Discovery
160
What age began in Africa that ended hunter-gathering lifestyles?
5ace562032bba1001ae4a2ff
True
rapid decline
233
What has happened to Australian society to cause it to fail?
5ace562032bba1001ae4a300
True
the Hadza
625
Who are the only remaining full-time hunter gatherers in Australia?
5ace562032bba1001ae4a301
True
Sub-Saharan Africa, and Siberia, as well as all of Australia
79
In what parts of the New World do uncontacted peoples live?
5ace562032bba1001ae4a302
True
paleolithic hunting-gathering
271
What lifestyle did the Age of Discovery preserve in the Amazonas?
5ace562032bba1001ae4a303
True
Hunter-gathering lifestyles remained prevalent in some parts of the New World, Sub-Saharan Africa, and Siberia, as well as all of Australia, until the European Age of Discovery. They still persist in some tribal societies, albeit in rapid decline. Peoples that preserved paleolithic hunting-gathering until the recent past include some indigenous peoples of the Amazonas (Aché), some Central and Southern African (San people), some peoples of New Guinea (Fayu), the Mlabri of Thailand and Laos, the Vedda people of Sri Lanka, and a handful of uncontacted peoples. In Africa, the only remaining full-time hunter-gatherers are the Hadza of Tanzania.[citation needed]
What is Louis Binford's profession?
5734477e879d6814001ca46b
Archaeologist
0
False
What idea did Binford take issue with?
5734477e879d6814001ca46c
that early hominids and early humans were hunters
48
False
What did Binford conclude humans were instead of hunters?
5734477e879d6814001ca46d
scavengers
233
False
What idea did Blumenschine propose?
5734477e879d6814001ca46e
idea of confrontational scavenging
368
False
What does confrontational scavenging involve doing to other predators after they've made a kill?
5734477e879d6814001ca46f
challenging and scaring off
419
False
Who is the archaeologist that does not believe early humans were hunters?
5735e8d3012e2f140011a0d2
Louis Binford
14
False
Louis Binford concluded what based on skeletal remains of consumed animals?
5735e8d3012e2f140011a0d3
hominids and early humans were mostly scavengers
195
False
What did Robert Blumenschine propose?
5735e8d3012e2f140011a0d4
confrontational scavenging
376
False
Louis Binford's idea is popular among whom?
5735e8d3012e2f140011a0d5
archaeologists and paleoanthropologists
294
False
Confrontational scavenging involves doing what to other predators?
5735e8d3012e2f140011a0d6
challenging and scaring off
419
False
early hominids and early humans were hunters
53
What idea was criticized by Robert Blumenschine?
5ace578032bba1001ae4a325
True
skeletal remains of the consumed animals
135
What did Robert Blumenschine analyze to reach his conclusion that humans were hunters?
5ace578032bba1001ae4a326
True
some archaeologists and paleoanthropologists
289
What group is the idea of humans being hunters popular with?
5ace578032bba1001ae4a327
True
challenging and scaring off other predators
419
What is the first step humans would use when hunting an animal?
5ace578032bba1001ae4a328
True
protein-rich meat
558
What would early humans be able to obtain when hunting?
5ace578032bba1001ae4a329
True
Archaeologist Louis Binford criticised the idea that early hominids and early humans were hunters. On the basis of the analysis of the skeletal remains of the consumed animals, he concluded that hominids and early humans were mostly scavengers, not hunters, and this idea is popular among some archaeologists and paleoanthropologists. Robert Blumenschine proposed the idea of confrontational scavenging, which involves challenging and scaring off other predators after they have made a kill, which he suggests could have been the leading method of obtaining protein-rich meat by early humans.
What was a significant contributor to the human food supply?
573447e4879d6814001ca475
hunting
100
False
What did the supplementary meat from hunting include?
573447e5879d6814001ca476
protein, bone for implements, sinew for cordage, fur, feathers, rawhide and leather
231
False
What was the leather from hunting used for?
573447e5879d6814001ca477
clothing
323
False
Rocks and spears are examples of some of man's earliest what?
573447e5879d6814001ca478
hunting weapons
348
False
Where is hunting still vital?
573447e5879d6814001ca479
marginal climates
458
False
Hunt was a significant contributor to what?
5735ec17012e2f140011a0dc
human food supply
153
False
Where is hunting still vital?
5735ec17012e2f140011a0dd
marginal climates
458
False
Why is hunting still vital in marginal climates?
5735ec17012e2f140011a0de
unsuited for pastoral uses or agriculture
494
False
How are the skins of sea mammals useful for people in the Arctic trap?
5735ec17012e2f140011a0df
make kayaks, clothing, and footwear
665
False
the human food supply
149
What did development of agriculture significantly contribute to?
5ace58a832bba1001ae4a353
True
agriculture
87
What did the Inuit people first develop in the Arctic when meat was scarce?
5ace58a832bba1001ae4a354
True
feathers
285
What would the Inuit people use to decorate their clothing?
5ace58a832bba1001ae4a355
True
bone
240
What would the Inuit women sometimes use to make jewelry?
5ace58a832bba1001ae4a356
True
bows and arrows
415
What was the preferred weapon of the Inuit people for hunting?
5ace58a832bba1001ae4a357
True
Even as animal domestication became relatively widespread and after the development of agriculture, hunting was usually a significant contributor to the human food supply. The supplementary meat and materials from hunting included protein, bone for implements, sinew for cordage, fur, feathers, rawhide and leather used in clothing. Man's earliest hunting weapons would have included rocks, spears, the atlatl, and bows and arrows. Hunting is still vital in marginal climates, especially those unsuited for pastoral uses or agriculture.[citation needed] For example, Inuit people in the Arctic trap and hunt animals for clothing and use the skins of sea mammals to make kayaks, clothing, and footwear.
What are kings often depicted as on ancient reliefs?
57344892879d6814001ca47f
hunters
77
False
What are the kings portrayed as hunting?
57344892879d6814001ca480
big game
88
False
How was the cultural importance of hunting in ancient societies represented?
57344892879d6814001ca481
by deities
252
False
What could the mythological association of prey species with divinity be a form of?
57344892879d6814001ca482
hunting restrictions
494
False
What might the meaning of Euripides' tale be seen as a caution against?
57344892879d6814001ca483
disrespect of prey
641
False
Kings were depicted as hunting what big game from a chariot?
5735f37c6c16ec1900b9288e
lions
105
False
What is often related to hunting?
5735f37c6c16ec1900b9288f
Taboos
374
False
Deities represent what importance?
5735f37c6c16ec1900b92890
cultural and psychological
167
False
What tale is seen as cautions against disrespecting prey or impudent boasting?
5735f37c6c16ec1900b92891
Euripides' tale of Artemis and Actaeon
555
False
the horned god Cernunnos
271
What was the main god worshipped in Mesopotamia?
5ace5a2b32bba1001ae4a385
True
lunar goddesses
300
What deities came after Cernunnos in Mesopotamia?
5ace5a2b32bba1001ae4a386
True
lions
105
What animal is associated with the Greek Diana?
5ace5a2b32bba1001ae4a387
True
a war chariot
148
How is Euripdes often shown as hunting from?
5ace5a2b32bba1001ae4a388
True
disrespect of prey or impudent boasting
641
What is the tale in Mesopotamia about the horned god Cernunnos a caution against?
5ace5a2b32bba1001ae4a389
True
On ancient reliefs, especially from Mesopotamia, kings are often depicted as hunters of big game such as lions and are often portrayed hunting from a war chariot. The cultural and psychological importance of hunting in ancient societies is represented by deities such as the horned god Cernunnos and lunar goddesses of classical antiquity, the Greek Artemis or Roman Diana. Taboos are often related to hunting, and mythological association of prey species with a divinity could be reflected in hunting restrictions such as a reserve surrounding a temple. Euripides' tale of Artemis and Actaeon, for example, may be seen as a caution against disrespect of prey or impudent boasting.
Who in medieval Europe obtained the sole rights to hunt in certain areas of a feudal territory?
573449b1acc1501500babd99
the upper class
34
False
What was game in the  areas used by the upper class used as a source of?
573449b1acc1501500babd9a
food and furs
167
False
What legends show the importance of the proprietary view of game as held by the nobles?
573449b1acc1501500babd9b
Robin Hood
369
False
What is one of the primary charges against the outlaws in the legend?
573449b1acc1501500babd9c
they "hunt the King's deer
453
False
What did Anglophone settles take gloried pride in?
573449b1acc1501500babd9d
democratically in hunting for all
535
False
In medieval Europe who obtained sole rights to hunt in certain areas?
5735f68a012e2f140011a0fc
upper class
38
False
What was the game in feudal territory was used as?
5735f68a012e2f140011a0fd
food and furs
167
False
Who provided the game obtained in feudal territory?
5735f68a012e2f140011a0fe
professional huntsmen
201
False
The importance of can be seen in what legends?
5735f68a012e2f140011a0ff
Robin Hood
369
False
Who did Anglophone colonies democratically glorify hunting for?
5735f68a012e2f140011a100
all
565
False
hunt
78
What activity is everyone allowed to do in the feudal territory of medieval Europe?
5ace5b9f32bba1001ae4a3bd
True
hunting
553
What was only the aristocracy allowed to do in Anglophone colonies?
5ace5b9f32bba1001ae4a3be
True
professional
201
What type of huntsman were active in Anglophone colonies?
5ace5b9f32bba1001ae4a3bf
True
recreation
270
What was another reason the aristocracy participated in hunting in Anglophone colonies?
5ace5b9f32bba1001ae4a3c0
True
Robin Hood
369
What legend was started in the Anglophone colonies by the aristocracy?
5ace5b9f32bba1001ae4a3c1
True
In most parts of medieval Europe, the upper class obtained the sole rights to hunt in certain areas of a feudal territory. Game in these areas was used as a source of food and furs, often provided via professional huntsmen, but it was also expected to provide a form of recreation for the aristocracy. The importance of this proprietary view of game can be seen in the Robin Hood legends, in which one of the primary charges against the outlaws is that they "hunt the King's deer". In contrast, settlers in Anglophone colonies gloried democratically in hunting for all.
What kind of occupation do Hindu scriptures describe hunting as being?
57344a29879d6814001ca4a1
acceptable
40
False
What is one of the names of the god Shiva?
57344a29879d6814001ca4a2
Mrigavyadha
206
False
What is the translation of Mrigavyadha?
57344a29879d6814001ca4a3
"the deer hunter"
239
False
What does Shiva destroy in human beings?
57344a29879d6814001ca4a4
animal instincts
496
False
What talent does Dasharatha have?
57344a29879d6814001ca4a5
hunt in the dark
615
False
What scriptures describe hunting as and acceptable occupation?
5735f8bc012e2f140011a106
Hindu
0
False
Godly figures have engaged in what activity?
5735f8bc012e2f140011a107
hunting
160
False
Mrigavyadha means what?
5735f8bc012e2f140011a108
deer hunter
244
False
Mrigavyadha destroys animal instinct in who?
5735f8bc012e2f140011a109
human beings
516
False
What happened after Krishna was accidentally wounded by an arrow of a hunter?
5735f8bc012e2f140011a10a
died
1089
False
by an arrow of a hunter
1127
How was Shiva accidentally wounded to later die?
5ace5cb432bba1001ae4a3f9
True
animal instincts
496
What does Ramayana destroy in animals?
5ace5cb432bba1001ae4a3fa
True
in the dark
620
How is Krishna said to be able to hunt?
5ace5cb432bba1001ae4a3fb
True
Shravana
695
Who did Krishna mistake for game and accidentally kill?
5ace5cb432bba1001ae4a3fc
True
the forest
752
Where was Krishna exiled to?
5ace5cb432bba1001ae4a3fd
True
Hindu scriptures describe hunting as an acceptable occupation, as well as a sport of the kingly. Even figures considered godly are described to have engaged in hunting. One of the names of the god Shiva is Mrigavyadha, which translates as "the deer hunter" (mriga means deer; vyadha means hunter). The word Mriga, in many Indian languages including Malayalam, not only stands for deer, but for all animals and animal instincts (Mriga Thrishna). Shiva, as Mrigavyadha, is the one who destroys the animal instincts in human beings. In the epic Ramayana, Dasharatha, the father of Rama, is said to have the ability to hunt in the dark. During one of his hunting expeditions, he accidentally killed Shravana, mistaking him for game. During Rama's exile in the forest, Ravana kidnapped his wife, Sita, from their hut, while Rama was asked by Sita to capture a golden deer, and his brother Lakshman went after him. According to the Mahabharat, Pandu, the father of the Pandavas, accidentally killed the sage Kindama and his wife with an arrow, mistaking them for a deer. Krishna is said to have died after being accidentally wounded by an arrow of a hunter.
Who has hunting been forbidden to since early Christian times?
57344adb879d6814001ca4b7
Roman Catholic Church clerics
58
False
Who forbid to all servants of God hunting?
57344adb879d6814001ca4b8
Corpus Juris Canonici
98
False
What pope was the Fourth Council of the Lateran held under?
57344adb879d6814001ca4b9
Pope Innocent III
342
False
What does the decree of the Council of Trent imply?
57344adb879d6814001ca4ba
not all hunting is illicit
604
False
What type of hunting is unlawful?
57344adb879d6814001ca4bb
clamorosa
692
False
Who was forbidden to hunt in early Christian time?
5735fcb96c16ec1900b928c7
Roman Catholic Church clerics
58
False
What forbid hunting in the woods with hounds and keeping hawks or falcons?
5735fcb96c16ec1900b928c8
Corpus Juris Canonici
98
False
Who held the Fourth Council of the Lateran?
5735fcb96c16ec1900b928c9
Pope Innocent III
342
False
How is the the decree of the Council of Trent is worded?
5735fcb96c16ec1900b928ca
mildly
481
False
Who stated quiet hunting is allowed?
5735fcb96c16ec1900b928cb
Council of Trent
449
False
hawks or falcons
277
What kinds of birds were kept by Pope Innocent III?
5ace5e9432bba1001ae4a435
True
quiet (quieta) hunting
729
What kind of hunting was legal under the Corpus Juris Canonici?
5ace5e9432bba1001ae4a436
True
hounds
237
What did the Council of Trent decree forbid servants of God from taking expeditions through the woods with?
5ace5e9432bba1001ae4a437
True
Pope Innocent III
342
What pope was the decree of the Council of Trent held under?
5ace5e9432bba1001ae4a438
True
not all hunting is illicit
604
What does the Corpus Juris Canonici imply to differentiate between types of hunting?
5ace5e9432bba1001ae4a439
True
From early Christian times, hunting has been forbidden to Roman Catholic Church clerics. Thus the Corpus Juris Canonici (C. ii, X, De cleric. venat.) says, "We forbid to all servants of God hunting and expeditions through the woods with hounds; and we also forbid them to keep hawks or falcons." The Fourth Council of the Lateran, held under Pope Innocent III, decreed (canon xv): "We interdict hunting or hawking to all clerics." The decree of the Council of Trent is worded more mildly: "Let clerics abstain from illicit hunting and hawking" (Sess. XXIV, De reform., c. xii), which seems to imply that not all hunting is illicit, and canonists generally make a distinction declaring noisy (clamorosa) hunting unlawful, but not quiet (quieta) hunting.
What distinction is undoubtedly permissible?
57344c34acc1501500babdc1
between lawful and unlawful hunting
37
False
What can a bishop absolutely prohibit?
57344c34acc1501500babdc2
all hunting
153
False
Where did synods prohibit all hunting at?
57344c34acc1501500babdc3
Milan, Avignon, Liège, Cologne, and elsewhere
221
False
What did Benedict XIV declare about decrees prohibiting hunting?
57344c34acc1501500babdc4
not too severe
353
False
Who can prohibit hunting to the clerics?
5735ffae012e2f140011a115
bishop
122
False
Declaration that decrees are not severe was done by who?
5735ffae012e2f140011a116
Benedict XIV
268
False
What did Synods at Milan, Avignon, Liege, Cologne, and elsewhere do?
5735ffae012e2f140011a117
prohibit all hunting to the clerics
144
False
undoubtedly permissible
76
What happens if a bishop takes part in hunting?
5ace60dc32bba1001ae4a4a5
True
Milan, Avignon, Liège, Cologne
221
In what areas was it allowed for bishops to hunt?
5ace60dc32bba1001ae4a4a6
True
ecclesiastical law
434
What did Benedict XIV say allowing hunting conformed to?
5ace60dc32bba1001ae4a4a7
True
Benedict XIV
268
Who was the only pope who took part in quiet hunting?
5ace60dc32bba1001ae4a4a8
True
ecclesiastical law
434
What law was put in place to protect the right of hunting by Benedict XIV?
5ace60dc32bba1001ae4a4a9
True
Nevertheless, although a distinction between lawful and unlawful hunting is undoubtedly permissible, it is certain that a bishop can absolutely prohibit all hunting to the clerics of his diocese, as was done by synods at Milan, Avignon, Liège, Cologne, and elsewhere. Benedict XIV (De synodo diœces., l. II, c. x) declared that such synodal decrees are not too severe, as an absolute prohibition of hunting is more conformable to the ecclesiastical law. In practice, therefore, the synodal statutes of various localities must be consulted to discover whether they allow quiet hunting or prohibit it altogether.
What does New Zealand have?
57344cb3879d6814001ca4cb
strong hunting culture
18
False
What was the only land mammal native to New Zealand?
57344cb3879d6814001ca4cc
bats
118
False
Why were game animals introduced by acclimatisation societies?
57344cb3879d6814001ca4cd
to provide New Zealanders with sport and a hunting resource
215
False
Why did the population of pigs and rabbits explode in New Zealand?
57344cb3879d6814001ca4ce
no natural predators
381
False
What do government agencies view the animals as?
57344cb3879d6814001ca4cf
pests
470
False
What country has a strong hunting culture?
5735ffb96c16ec1900b928de
New Zealand
0
False
What were the the only land mammal in New Zealand?
5735ffb96c16ec1900b928df
bats
118
False
What is New Zealand made up of?
5735ffb96c16ec1900b928e0
islands
46
False
Game animals were introduced here by whom?
5735ffb96c16ec1900b928e1
acclimatisation societies
189
False
What resulted having no natural predators for the animals introduced?
5735ffb96c16ec1900b928e2
their population exploded
403
False
bats
118
What mammal was the only one that existed originally in Europe?
5ace687532bba1001ae4a5d9
True
sport and a hunting resource
246
What were bats originally used for in Europe?
5ace687532bba1001ae4a5da
True
hunting
25
What kind of culture does Europe have?
5ace687532bba1001ae4a5db
True
acclimatisation societies
189
What group introduced pigs to Europe?
5ace687532bba1001ae4a5dc
True
as pests
467
How do acclimatisation societies in Europe view bats?
5ace687532bba1001ae4a5dd
True
New Zealand has a strong hunting culture. The islands making up New Zealand originally had no land mammals apart from bats. However, once Europeans arrived, game animals were introduced by acclimatisation societies to provide New Zealanders with sport and a hunting resource. Deer, pigs, goats, rabbits, hare, tahr and chamois all adapted well to the New Zealand terrain, and with no natural predators, their population exploded. Government agencies view the animals as pests due to their effects on the natural environment and on agricultural production, but hunters view them as a resource.
What was hunting regarded as in British India?
57344d20acc1501500babdd1
regal sport
81
False
What does the Indian word "shikaris" mean in English?
57344d20acc1501500babdd2
big-game hunters
223
False
What did British officers maintain whole corps of?
57344d20acc1501500babdd3
shikaris
213
False
Why did the regals recruit low-ranking local tribes when hunting?
57344d20acc1501500babdd4
because of their traditional knowledge of the environment and hunting techniques
418
False
What could a Bengal tiger be hunted from the back of?
57344d20acc1501500babdd5
an elephant
566
False
Where was hunting reguarded as a regal sport?
573606536c16ec1900b9290c
British India
40
False
What is hunted from the back of an elephant?
573606536c16ec1900b9290d
Bengal tigers
518
False
Who did British officers maintain?
573606536c16ec1900b9290e
shikaris
213
False
Who were the shikaris headed by?
573606536c16ec1900b9290f
master of the hunt
306
False
Why were low-ranking local tribes recruited?
573606536c16ec1900b92910
because of their traditional knowledge of the environment and hunting techniques
418
False
regal sport
81
What was shikari regarded as in British India?
5ace69c232bba1001ae4a60f
True
native professional hunters
251
What is the definition of maharaja?
5ace69c232bba1001ae4a610
True
traditional knowledge of the environment and hunting techniques
435
What two things were needed to successfully hunt an elephant?
5ace69c232bba1001ae4a611
True
British India
40
What country had the largest population of elephants in the world?
5ace69c232bba1001ae4a612
True
a whole corps of shikaris
196
Who did local tribes work with when taking down a Bengal tiger?
5ace69c232bba1001ae4a613
True
During the feudal and colonial times in British India, hunting was regarded as a regal sport in the numerous princely states, as many maharajas and nawabs, as well as British officers, maintained a whole corps of shikaris (big-game hunters), who were native professional hunters. They would be headed by a master of the hunt, who might be styled mir-shikar. Often, they recruited the normally low-ranking local tribes because of their traditional knowledge of the environment and hunting techniques. Big game, such as Bengal tigers, might be hunted from the back of an elephant.
What norms are generally antagonistic to hunting?
57344da9acc1501500babde5
Regional social
0
False
What sect lays special emphasis on conservation of particular species?
57344da9acc1501500babde6
Bishnoi
92
False
What bans the killing of all wild animals in India?
57344da9acc1501500babde7
Wildlife Protection Act of 1972
195
False
Who may permit a person to hunt animals in India despite it being banned?
57344da9acc1501500babde8
the Chief Wildlife Warden
274
False
Whose property does the body of any wild animal killed or wounded become?
57344da9acc1501500babde9
government
563
False
Who lay special emphasis on conservation of particular species?
573605696c16ec1900b928f8
Bishnoi
92
False
What bans the killing of all wild animals?
573605696c16ec1900b928f9
India's Wildlife Protection Act
187
False
What year was this protection act put into place?
573605696c16ec1900b928fa
1972
222
False
Who can permit a person to hunt wild animals?
573605696c16ec1900b928fb
Chief Wildlife Warden
278
False
What happens to the body of the wild animal killed?
573605696c16ec1900b928fc
becomes government property
555
False
Bishnoi
92
What group of people was first discovered in 1972?
5ace6ad232bba1001ae4a637
True
all wild animals
247
What have the Bishnoi banned the killing of since 1972?
5ace6ad232bba1001ae4a638
True
Wildlife Protection Act
195
What act was drafted to ban the killing of only antelope?
5ace6ad232bba1001ae4a639
True
any wild animal
521
What becomes the property of the Bishnoi if its killed or wounded?
5ace6ad232bba1001ae4a63a
True
1972
222
In what year did the antelope population first start to decline?
5ace6ad232bba1001ae4a63b
True
Regional social norms are generally antagonistic to hunting, while a few sects, such as the Bishnoi, lay special emphasis on the conservation of particular species, such as the antelope. India's Wildlife Protection Act of 1972 bans the killing of all wild animals. However, the Chief Wildlife Warden may, if satisfied that any wild animal from a specified list has become dangerous to human life, or is so disabled or diseased as to be beyond recovery, permit any person to hunt such an animal. In this case, the body of any wild animal killed or wounded becomes government property.
What type of hunting is most closely associated with the UK?
57344f09879d6814001ca4d5
fox hunting
8
False
How do the English hunt foxes?
57344f09879d6814001ca4d6
on horseback with hounds
20
False
In England, what is hunted when "shooting" is called for?
57344f09879d6814001ca4d7
birds
245
False
Why were foxes originally hunted?
57344f09879d6814001ca4d8
form of vermin control to protect livestock
298
False
How is deer stalking with rifles carried out?
57344f09879d6814001ca4d9
on foot without hounds, using stealth
989
False
What hunting is done on horseback with hounds?
5736056e012e2f140011a13e
fox
8
False
Hunting horseback with hound is associated with whom?
5736056e012e2f140011a13f
United Kingdom
101
False
In Victorian times a popular social activity was?
5736056e012e2f140011a140
fox hunting
343
False
What is carried out on foot without hounds?
5736056e012e2f140011a141
Deer stalking
948
False
Hounds were used for what purpose?
5736056e012e2f140011a142
to pursue
652
False
vermin control
306
What was deer stalking with rifles originally a form of?
5ace6bea32bba1001ae4a64b
True
livestock
332
What did deer stalking originally aim to protect?
5ace6bea32bba1001ae4a64c
True
Victorian
423
In what time did deer stalking become popular?
5ace6bea32bba1001ae4a64d
True
newly wealthy upper classes
392
What group did deer stalking become popular with?
5ace6bea32bba1001ae4a64e
True
a traditional rural activity
443
What kind of activity was deer stalking considered for both riders and followers?
5ace6bea32bba1001ae4a64f
True
Unarmed fox hunting on horseback with hounds is the type of hunting most closely associated with the United Kingdom; in fact, "hunting" without qualification implies fox hunting. What in other countries is called "hunting" is called "shooting" (birds) or "stalking" (deer) in Britain. Originally a form of vermin control to protect livestock, fox hunting became a popular social activity for newly wealthy upper classes in Victorian times and a traditional rural activity for riders and foot followers alike. Similar to fox hunting in many ways is the chasing of hares with hounds. Pairs of Sight hounds (or long-dogs), such as greyhounds, may be used to pursue a hare in coursing, where the greyhounds are marked as to their skill in coursing the hare (but are not intended to actually catch it), or the hare may be pursued with scent hounds such as beagles or harriers. Other sorts of foxhounds may also be used for hunting stags (deer) or mink. Deer stalking with rifles is carried out on foot without hounds, using stealth.
What does shooting in Britain require little questing for?
57344f89879d6814001ca4df
game
98
False
About how many birds are released onto shooting estates every year in the UK?
57344f89879d6814001ca4e0
thirty-five million
110
False
What kind of affairs can shoots be?
57344f89879d6814001ca4e1
elaborate
230
False
Who uses swinging sticks or flags to drive game out?
57344f89879d6814001ca4e2
"beaters"
343
False
What is the Glorious Twelfth in the UK?
57344f89879d6814001ca4e3
open season for grouse
477
False
About how many birds are released onto shooting estates every year?
573605726c16ec1900b92902
thirty-five million
110
False
Who swings sticks or flags to drive game out?
573605726c16ec1900b92903
beaters
344
False
When does open season for grouse begin in the UK?
573605726c16ec1900b92904
12 August
520
False
What is the UK definition of game is governed by?
573605726c16ec1900b92905
Game Act 1831
627
False
Why are assistants used?
573605726c16ec1900b92906
help load shotguns
305
False
thirty-five million
110
How many people have taken part in shooting in the UK since 1831?
5ace6e0e32bba1001ae4a67b
True
12 August
520
On what day do assistants need to have gun safety training?
5ace6e0e32bba1001ae4a67c
True
Glorious Twelfth
545
What is another name for the Game Act?
5ace6e0e32bba1001ae4a67d
True
1831
636
In what year did factory farms first legally begin production in the UK?
5ace6e0e32bba1001ae4a67e
True
beaters
344
What is another name for a gun placed in position?
5ace6e0e32bba1001ae4a67f
True
Shooting as practised in Britain, as opposed to traditional hunting, requires little questing for game—around thirty-five million birds are released onto shooting estates every year, some having been factory farmed. Shoots can be elaborate affairs with guns placed in assigned positions and assistants to help load shotguns. When in position, "beaters" move through the areas of cover, swinging sticks or flags to drive the game out. Such events are often called "drives". The open season for grouse in the UK begins on 12 August, the so-called Glorious Twelfth. The definition of game in the United Kingdom is governed by the Game Act 1831.
What law primarily regulates hunting?
57344fec879d6814001ca4e9
state
34
False
What additional type of law applies in the case of migratory birds and endangered species?
57344fec879d6814001ca4ea
environmental
102
False
What varies widely from state to state?
57344fec879d6814001ca4eb
Regulations
175
False
What do some states make a distinction between?
57344fec879d6814001ca4ec
protected species and unprotected species
363
False
What do hunters of protected species require in all states?
57344fec879d6814001ca4ed
a hunting license
513
False
How is hunting regulated?
573610de6c16ec1900b92952
by state law
31
False
Migratory birds and endangered species are protected by what law?
573610de6c16ec1900b92953
United States environmental law
88
False
What hunters require a hunting license in all states?
573610de6c16ec1900b92954
Hunters of protected species
476
False
What is sometimes a prerequisite of obtaining a hunting license?
573610de6c16ec1900b92955
hunting safety course
572
False
state
34
What law regulates the elimination of vermin?
5ace6f4e32bba1001ae4a6a3
True
environmental
102
In the case of vermin, what additional type of law applies?
5ace6f4e32bba1001ae4a6a4
True
a hunting license
513
What do hunters of vermin need to have in all states?
5ace6f4e32bba1001ae4a6a5
True
a hunting safety course
570
What do you need to complete before you can hunt vermin?
5ace6f4e32bba1001ae4a6a6
True
the areas, time periods, techniques and methods
230
What do state regulations govern regarding hunting vermin?
5ace6f4e32bba1001ae4a6a7
True
Hunting is primarily regulated by state law; additional regulations are imposed through United States environmental law in the case of migratory birds and endangered species. Regulations vary widely from state to state and govern the areas, time periods, techniques and methods by which specific game animals may be hunted. Some states make a distinction between protected species and unprotected species (often vermin or varmints for which there are no hunting regulations). Hunters of protected species require a hunting license in all states, for which completion of a hunting safety course is sometimes a prerequisite.
What is required when hunting big game?
57345070879d6814001ca4f3
a "tag" for each animal harvested
36
False
Tags are purchased in addition to what?
57345070879d6814001ca4f4
the hunting license
109
False
What is typically limited to an individual?
57345070879d6814001ca4f5
number of tags issued
138
False
A wildlife management unit is a place where what may be restricted to?
57345070879d6814001ca4f6
Tags
320
False
What kind of stamp is required to hunt migratory waterfowl?
57345070879d6814001ca4f7
duck
439
False
When hunting big game what is typically required?
573610e1012e2f140011a17f
tag
39
False
What must be purchased with hunting license is comes in a limited number?
573610e1012e2f140011a180
Tags
71
False
How are tags assigned if there are more hunters than game?
573610e1012e2f140011a181
by lottery
308
False
What is required of hunting migratory waterfowl?
573610e1012e2f140011a182
duck stamp
439
False
Who issues requirement for hunting migratory waterfowl?
573610e1012e2f140011a183
Fish and Wildlife Service
459
False
a "tag"
36
What do you need to obtain a fishing license?
5ace70c832bba1001ae4a6cb
True
limited
190
How many people are recruited to work at the Fish and Wildlife Service each year?
5ace70c832bba1001ae4a6cc
True
by lottery
308
If there are more applicants than positions at the Fish and Wildlife Service how do they choose prospective employees?
5ace70c832bba1001ae4a6cd
True
a specific area, or wildlife management unit
354
Where do Fish and Wildlife employees usually work?
5ace70c832bba1001ae4a6ce
True
quota
258
What limits how many employees can work at the Fish and Wildlife Service each year?
5ace70c832bba1001ae4a6cf
True
Hunting big game typically requires a "tag" for each animal harvested. Tags must be purchased in addition to the hunting license, and the number of tags issued to an individual is typically limited. In cases where there are more prospective hunters than the quota for that species, tags are usually assigned by lottery. Tags may be further restricted to a specific area, or wildlife management unit. Hunting migratory waterfowl requires a duck stamp from the Fish and Wildlife Service in addition to the appropriate state hunting license.
How is gun usage typically regulated?
573450ed879d6814001ca4fd
game category, area within the state, and time period
47
False
What often specify a minimum caliber or muzzle energy for firearms?
573450ed879d6814001ca4fe
Regulations for big-game hunting
102
False
Why is the use of rifles often banned?
573450ed879d6814001ca4ff
safety reasons
236
False
Why may regulations ban the use of lead in ammunition?
573450ed879d6814001ca500
environmental concerns
397
False
Why are specific seasons for bow hunting established?
573450ed879d6814001ca501
limit competition with hunters using more effective weapons
515
False
Why are the use of rifles banned?
573610e56c16ec1900b9295a
safety reasons
236
False
How is gun useage regulated?
573610e56c16ec1900b9295b
by game category
44
False
What is specified in big-game hunting?
573610e56c16ec1900b9295c
minimum caliber
151
False
game category
47
By what category is bow hunting regulated?
5ace724732bba1001ae4a6f3
True
for safety reasons
232
Why would the use of a bow for hunting be banned?
5ace724732bba1001ae4a6f4
True
areas with high population densities or limited topographic relief
254
In what areas is bow hunting banned?
5ace724732bba1001ae4a6f5
True
competition with hunters using more effective weapons
521
What do certain seasons for the use of rifles try to limit?
5ace724732bba1001ae4a6f6
True
because of environmental concerns
386
Why is firearm muzzle energy often limited?
5ace724732bba1001ae4a6f7
True
Gun usage in hunting is typically regulated by game category, area within the state, and time period. Regulations for big-game hunting often specify a minimum caliber or muzzle energy for firearms. The use of rifles is often banned for safety reasons in areas with high population densities or limited topographic relief. Regulations may also limit or ban the use of lead in ammunition because of environmental concerns. Specific seasons for bow hunting or muzzle-loading black-powder guns are often established to limit competition with hunters using more effective weapons.
What is hunting in the U.S. not associated with?
57345181879d6814001ca507
any particular class or culture
52
False
What percentage of Americans supported legal hunting in 2006?
57345181879d6814001ca508
seventy-eight percent
104
False
What percentage of Americans actually hunted at the beginning of the 21st century?
57345181879d6814001ca509
just six percent
251
False
What percentage of Midwesterners hunted?
57345181879d6814001ca50a
twelve percent
550
False
How much did the number of hunters over the age of sixteen decline in the period between 1996-2006?
57345181879d6814001ca50b
ten percent
753
False
What percentage of Americans support legal hunting?
573610e9012e2f140011a189
seventy-eight percent
104
False
What percentage of Americans actually hunted at the beginning of the 21st century?
573610e9012e2f140011a18a
six percent
256
False
South Easterners hunted at what rate?
573610e9012e2f140011a18b
five percent
358
False
Midwesterners hunted at what rate?
573610e9012e2f140011a18c
twelve percent
550
False
What years did hunting decline?
573610e9012e2f140011a18d
1996–2006
677
False
any particular class or culture
52
What are recreation habits not associated with in the US?
5ace73f432bba1001ae4a725
True
six percent
256
How many Americans were over the age of sixteen in the 21st century?
5ace73f432bba1001ae4a726
True
ten percent
753
From 1996-2006 what percentage of Americans moved to the midwest?
5ace73f432bba1001ae4a727
True
seventy-eight percent
104
In 2006 what percentage of Americans had been to the eastern seaboard?
5ace73f432bba1001ae4a728
True
twelve percent
550
What percentage of states in the midwest had habitat loss on farms?
5ace73f432bba1001ae4a729
True
Hunting in the United States is not associated with any particular class or culture; a 2006 poll showed seventy-eight percent of Americans supported legal hunting, although relatively few Americans actually hunt. At the beginning of the 21st century, just six percent of Americans hunted. Southerners in states along the eastern seaboard hunted at a rate of five percent, slightly below the national average, and while hunting was more common in other parts of the South at nine percent, these rates did not surpass those of the Plains states, where twelve percent of Midwesterners hunted. Hunting in other areas of the country fell below the national average. Overall, in the 1996–2006 period, the number of hunters over the age of sixteen declined by ten percent, a drop attributable to a number of factors including habitat loss and changes in recreation habits.
When do hunting regulations date from in the US?
57345209879d6814001ca511
19th century
62
False
What do some modern hunters see themselves as?
57345209879d6814001ca512
conservationists and sportsmen
114
False
What organizations provide hunter education and help protect the future of the sport?
57345209879d6814001ca513
Local hunting clubs and national organizations
212
False
Ducks Unlimited and the Delta Waterfowl are examples of groups representing what?
57345209879d6814001ca514
a specific hunting interest
386
False
What do many hunting groups participate in doing at the federal and state level?
57345209879d6814001ca515
lobbying
534
False
What do modern hunters see themselves as?
5736175f012e2f140011a19d
conservationists and sportsmen
114
False
Who provides hunter education?
5736175f012e2f140011a19e
Local hunting clubs
212
False
What do hunting groups also participate in?
5736175f012e2f140011a19f
lobbying the federal government and state government
534
False
What century is U.S. regulations dates from?
5736175f012e2f140011a1a0
19th
62
False
19th century
62
In what century was the Crockett Club founded?
5ace752d32bba1001ae4a739
True
Crockett Club
197
What group did Theodore Roosevelt belong to in the 19th century?
5ace752d32bba1001ae4a73a
True
lobbying
534
What did Boone participate in at the federal and state level?
5ace752d32bba1001ae4a73b
True
conservationists and sportsmen
114
What do lobbyists see themselves as?
5ace752d32bba1001ae4a73c
True
19th century
62
When was pheasant first hunted in the US?
5ace752d32bba1001ae4a73d
True
Regulation of hunting within the United States dates from the 19th century. Some modern hunters see themselves as conservationists and sportsmen in the mode of Theodore Roosevelt and the Boone and Crockett Club. Local hunting clubs and national organizations provide hunter education and help protect the future of the sport by buying land for future hunting use. Some groups represent a specific hunting interest, such as Ducks Unlimited, Pheasants Forever, or the Delta Waterfowl Foundation. Many hunting groups also participate in lobbying the federal government and state government.
How much money is distributed to state agencies to support wildlife management programs each year?
573452bb879d6814001ca51b
$200 million
18
False
How much money has the sale of Federal Duck Stamps raised since 1934?
573452bb879d6814001ca51c
over $700 million
351
False
How many acres can the money raised from the sale of federal duck stamps help purchase?
573452bb879d6814001ca51d
5,200,000 acres
396
False
What do states use some of the money from hunting licenses to assist with?
573452bb879d6814001ca51e
management of game animals
644
False
What is a key task of state park rangers and game wardens?
573452bb879d6814001ca51f
to enforce laws and regulations related to hunting
759
False
Who are federal excise taxes are distributed to?
57361c88012e2f140011a1a7
state agencies
83
False
What do the taxes support?
57361c88012e2f140011a1a8
wildlife management programs
109
False
How much has Federal Duck Stamps raised?
57361c88012e2f140011a1a9
$700 million
356
False
What does land has Federal Duck Stamp money helped purchase?
57361c88012e2f140011a1aa
5,200,000 acres
396
False
Park rangers and game wardens enforce laws and regulations related to what?
57361c88012e2f140011a1ab
hunting
802
False
1934
225
In what year was the National Wildlife Refuge system created?
5ace7b5432bba1001ae4a7ab
True
$700 million
356
How much money has been spent to hire park rangers since 1934?
5ace7b5432bba1001ae4a7ac
True
enforce laws and regulations related to hunting
762
What is a key task of state agencies since 1934?
5ace7b5432bba1001ae4a7ad
True
$200 million
18
What is the annual budget of the National Wildlife Refuge system?
5ace7b5432bba1001ae4a7ae
True
5,200,000 acres
396
How many acres of land were for sale in the US in 1934?
5ace7b5432bba1001ae4a7af
True
Each year, nearly $200 million in hunters' federal excise taxes are distributed to state agencies to support wildlife management programs, the purchase of lands open to hunters, and hunter education and safety classes. Since 1934, the sale of Federal Duck Stamps, a required purchase for migratory waterfowl hunters over sixteen years old, has raised over $700 million to help purchase more than 5,200,000 acres (8,100 sq mi; 21,000 km2) of habitat for the National Wildlife Refuge System lands that support waterfowl and many other wildlife species and are often open to hunting. States also collect money from hunting licenses to assist with management of game animals, as designated by law. A key task of federal and state park rangers and game wardens is to enforce laws and regulations related to hunting, including species protection, hunting seasons, and hunting bans.
What is varmint hunting an American phrase for?
57345360879d6814001ca525
selective killing of non-game animals seen as pests
46
False
What does varmint hunting achieve?
57345360879d6814001ca526
selective control of pests
176
False
What detrimental effects are varmint species often responsible for visiting on?
57345360879d6814001ca527
crops, livestock, landscaping, infrastructure, and pets.
323
False
Where has a non-native rodent known as a nutria become very destructive?
57345360879d6814001ca528
Louisiana
756
False
What has the state of Louisiana done to combat the nutria?
57345360879d6814001ca529
initiated a bounty program
873
False
What is phrased for selective killing of non-game animals.
57361c8b6c16ec1900b92965
Varmint hunting
0
False
What was once considered a varmint but is now protected?
57361c8b6c16ec1900b92966
wolves
729
False
What is the non-native varmint of Louisiana?
57361c8b6c16ec1900b92967
nutria
798
False
What did Louisiana initiate to control the varmint population?
57361c8b6c16ec1900b92968
bounty program
885
False
a bounty program
883
What has the state of Louisiana created to control the population of wild rabbits?
5ace7d2a32bba1001ae4a7f5
True
varmints
693
What were crows once categorized as but are not longer considered to be?
5ace7d2a32bba1001ae4a7f6
True
fur or meat
449
What are nutria often used for when hunted?
5ace7d2a32bba1001ae4a7f7
True
crops
323
What does having livestock cause detrimental effects on when you own a farm?
5ace7d2a32bba1001ae4a7f8
True
pests
197
What does having livestock help achieve the control of?
5ace7d2a32bba1001ae4a7f9
True
Varmint hunting is an American phrase for the selective killing of non-game animals seen as pests. While not always an efficient form of pest control, varmint hunting achieves selective control of pests while providing recreation and is much less regulated. Varmint species are often responsible for detrimental effects on crops, livestock, landscaping, infrastructure, and pets. Some animals, such as wild rabbits or squirrels, may be utilised for fur or meat, but often no use is made of the carcass. Which species are varmints depends on the circumstance and area. Common varmints may include various rodents, coyotes, crows, foxes, feral cats, and feral hogs. Some animals once considered varmints are now protected, such as wolves. In the US state of Louisiana, a non-native rodent known as a nutria has become so destructive to the local ecosystem that the state has initiated a bounty program to help control the population.
When was internet hunting introduced?
573453f4879d6814001ca52f
2005
40
False
How did Internet hunting allow people to hunt?
573453f4879d6814001ca530
using remotely controlled guns
88
False
Who criticized the practice of Internet hunting?
573453f4879d6814001ca531
hunters
158
False
What did hunters feel hunting over the Internet violated?
573453f4879d6814001ca532
principles of fair chase
183
False
What has the NRA always maintained that being in the field with your firearm is?
573453f4879d6814001ca533
an important element of hunting tradition
376
False
What allows people to hunt over the internet?
57361c8f012e2f140011a1b1
Internet hunting
5
False
When was this type of hunting introduced?
57361c8f012e2f140011a1b2
2005
40
False
How is this type of hunting done?
57361c8f012e2f140011a1b3
hunt over the Internet using remotely controlled guns
65
False
What was the principle was this type of hunting said to violate?
57361c8f012e2f140011a1b4
fair chase
197
False
Who spoke on this violation?
57361c8f012e2f140011a1b5
National Rifle Association (NRA)
236
False
2005
40
In what year was the NRA founded?
5ace7f5c32bba1001ae4a845
True
Internet hunting
5
What practice was introduced by the NRA in 2005?
5ace7f5c32bba1001ae4a846
True
clicking at a mouse
467
Sitting at your desk and doing what are the best ways to hunt according to the NRA?
5ace7f5c32bba1001ae4a847
True
hunting tradition
400
What are remotely controlled guns an important element of in hunting according to hunters?
5ace7f5c32bba1001ae4a848
True
2005
40
In what year were hunters able to first become members of the NRA?
5ace7f5c32bba1001ae4a849
True
When Internet hunting was introduced in 2005, allowing people to hunt over the Internet using remotely controlled guns, the practice was widely criticised by hunters as violating the principles of fair chase. As a representative of the National Rifle Association (NRA) explained, "The NRA has always maintained that fair chase, being in the field with your firearm or bow, is an important element of hunting tradition. Sitting at your desk in front of your computer, clicking at a mouse, has nothing to do with hunting."
Where is there a very active tradition of hunting of small to medium-sized wild game?
57345f9c879d6814001ca57b
Trinidad and Tobago
82
False
Approximately how many sport hunters applied for hunting licences in recent years?
57345f9c879d6814001ca57c
12,000
254
False
What is there a very lucrative and thriving black market for?
57345f9c879d6814001ca57d
poached wild game
784
False
What is hunting pressure from?
57345f9c879d6814001ca57e
high
707
False
What very active tradition Trinidad and Tabago have?
57363183012e2f140011a1fb
hunting of small to medium-sized wild game
36
False
What animal aids in the hunting?
57363183012e2f140011a1fc
hounds
165
False
What population has extirpated?
57363183012e2f140011a1fd
red brocket deer
1287
False
What do hunters pay to obtain hunting license?
57363183012e2f140011a1fe
very small fees
1790
False
poached wild game
784
What is traded on the black market in Delaware?
5ace809232bba1001ae4a88b
True
fairly high
953
What is the number of poachers located in Delaware?
5ace809232bba1001ae4a88c
True
hunting-ethics training
1887
What training is needed to get a hunting license in Delaware?
5ace809232bba1001ae4a88d
True
under-staffed and under-funded
2096
What is the state of the wildlife authority in Delaware?
5ace809232bba1001ae4a88e
True
occurring both in and out of season
2244
How often is hunting occurring in Delaware each year?
5ace809232bba1001ae4a88f
True
There is a very active tradition of hunting of small to medium-sized wild game in Trinidad and Tobago. Hunting is carried out with firearms, and aided by the use of hounds, with the illegal use of trap guns, trap cages and snare nets. With approximately 12,000 sport hunters applying for hunting licences in recent years (in a very small country of about the size of the state of Delaware at about 5128 square kilometers and 1.3 million inhabitants), there is some concern that the practice might not be sustainable. In addition there are at present no bag limits and the open season is comparatively very long (5 months - October to February inclusive). As such hunting pressure from legal hunters is very high. Added to that, there is a thriving and very lucrative black market for poached wild game (sold and enthusiastically purchased as expensive luxury delicacies) and the numbers of commercial poachers in operation is unknown but presumed to be fairly high. As a result, the populations of the five major mammalian game species (red-rumped agouti, lowland paca, nine-banded armadillo, collared peccary, and red brocket deer) are thought to be quite low (although scientifically conducted population studies are only just recently being conducted as of 2013). It appears that the red brocket deer population has been extirpated on Tobago as a result of over-hunting. Various herons, ducks, doves, the green iguana, the gold tegu, the spectacled caiman and the common opossum are also commonly hunted and poached. There is also some poaching of 'fully protected species', including red howler monkeys and capuchin monkeys, southern tamanduas, Brazilian porcupines, yellow-footed tortoises, Trinidad piping guans and even one of the national birds, the scarlet ibis. Legal hunters pay very small fees to obtain hunting licences and undergo no official basic conservation biology or hunting-ethics training. There is presumed to be relatively very little subsistence hunting in the country (with most hunting for either sport or commercial profit). The local wildlife management authority is under-staffed and under-funded, and as such very little in the way of enforcement is done to uphold existing wildlife management laws, with hunting occurring both in and out of season, and even in wildlife sanctuaries. There is some indication that the government is beginning to take the issue of wildlife management more seriously, with well drafted legislation being brought before Parliament in 2015. It remains to be seen if the drafted legislation will be fully adopted and financially supported by the current and future governments, and if the general populace will move towards a greater awareness of the importance of wildlife conservation and change the culture of wanton consumption to one of sustainable management.
What does hunting give resource managers an important tool?
57346018879d6814001ca583
managing populations
66
False
What is carrying capacity in most circumstances determined by?
57346018879d6814001ca584
combination habitat and food availability,
329
False
What do some environmentalists assert reintroducing predators would achieve?
57346018879d6814001ca585
same end
956
False
How is hunting an important tool for resource managers?
57350e4dacc1501500bac3d2
managing populations
66
False
What happens if a population exceeds the carrying capacity of their habitat?
57350e4dacc1501500bac3d3
threaten the well-being of other species
148
False
How can hunting actually increase the population of predators?
57350e4dacc1501500bac3d4
by removing territorial bounds that would otherwise be established
552
False
What do some hunting advocates assert that is indirectly reduced among animals when intraspecific competition has been reduced?
57350e4dacc1501500bac3d5
mortality
832
False
What would environmentalists have done, instead of hunting?
57350e4dacc1501500bac3d6
(re)introducing predators
912
False
What is an important tool in managing populations?
5736327a6c16ec1900b9298b
Hunting
0
False
What is carrying capacity determined by?
5736327a6c16ec1900b9298c
combination habitat and food availability
329
False
What can it increase the population of?
5736327a6c16ec1900b9298d
predators
526
False
managing populations
66
What does animal migration help resource managers do?
5ace98d932bba1001ae4abf7
True
other species
175
What does animal migration threaten the well-being of?
5ace98d932bba1001ae4abf8
True
human
220
Who's health can be damaged by animal migration?
5ace98d932bba1001ae4abf9
True
food and shelter
805
What does animal migration reduce competition for?
5ace98d932bba1001ae4abfa
True
the annual population of species
426
What does using migration as population control have no effect on?
5ace98d932bba1001ae4abfb
True
Hunting is claimed to give resource managers an important tool in managing populations that might exceed the carrying capacity of their habitat and threaten the well-being of other species, or, in some instances, damage human health or safety.[citation needed] However, in most circumstances carrying capacity is determined by a combination habitat and food availability, and hunting for 'population control' has no effect on the annual population of species.[citation needed] In some cases, it can increase the population of predators such as coyotes by removing territorial bounds that would otherwise be established, resulting in excess neighbouring migrations into an area, thus artificially increasing the population. Hunting advocates[who?] assert that hunting reduces intraspecific competition for food and shelter, reducing mortality among the remaining animals. Some environmentalists assert[who?] that (re)introducing predators would achieve the same end with greater efficiency and less negative effect, such as introducing significant amounts of free lead into the environment and food chain.
What did sport hunters in the 19th century purse game for?
5734606cacc1501500babe49
trophy
95
False
What was the head of an animal displayed as?
5734606cacc1501500babe4a
sign of prowess
172
False
What happened to the rest of the animal?
5734606cacc1501500babe4b
s typically discarded
214
False
What did some churches disapprove of?
5734606cacc1501500babe4c
such waste
275
False
What countries frowned upon this hunting?
5734606cacc1501500babe4d
Nordic
290
False
What was the only goal for many European sport hunters in the 19th century?
5735106dacc1501500bac3ed
a trophy
93
False
What types of trophies would hunters keep as trophies to be displayed as a sign of their prowess?
5735106dacc1501500bac3ee
the head or pelt of an animal
111
False
In what countries was the hunting for trophies frowned upon, back in the day and in modern times?
5735106dacc1501500bac3ef
Nordic
290
False
What was hunting in North American in the 19th century used to supplement?
5735106dacc1501500bac3f0
food supplies
447
False
What destinations did sport hunting see elaborate travel to in the pursuit of trophies?
5735106dacc1501500bac3f1
Africa, India and other places
620
False
What century was game hunted as a trophy?
5736327e012e2f140011a203
19th
7
False
What countries is trophy hunting frowned upon?
5736327e012e2f140011a204
Nordic
290
False
What did North America primarily hunt for?
5736327e012e2f140011a205
food supplies
447
False
What sport of hunting is in Africa?
5736327e012e2f140011a206
safari method
531
False
the head or pelt of an animal
111
What did hunters in Nordic countries display as a sign of prowess in the 19th century?
5ace9a8b32bba1001ae4ac71
True
was typically discarded
212
What would Nordic hunters do with the rest of an animal after mounting a trophy?
5ace9a8b32bba1001ae4ac72
True
as a way to supplement food supplies
424
Why was hunting usually done in Nordic countries in the 19th century?
5ace9a8b32bba1001ae4ac73
True
mainly for sport
492
Why does hunting take place in Nordic countries today?
5ace9a8b32bba1001ae4ac74
True
Africa, India
620
In what two countries did Nordic people hunt for trophies?
5ace9a8b32bba1001ae4ac75
True
In the 19th century, southern and central European sport hunters often pursued game only for a trophy, usually the head or pelt of an animal, which was then displayed as a sign of prowess. The rest of the animal was typically discarded. Some cultures, however, disapprove of such waste. In Nordic countries, hunting for trophies was—and still is—frowned upon. Hunting in North America in the 19th century was done primarily as a way to supplement food supplies, although it is now undertaken mainly for sport.[citation needed] The safari method of hunting was a development of sport hunting that saw elaborate travel in Africa, India and other places in pursuit of trophies. In modern times, trophy hunting persists and is a significant industry in some areas.[citation needed]
What Continent did the biological Conservation state trophy hunting is of major importance to the conservation of?
573460e1acc1501500babe53
Africa
130
False
What does hunting create economic incentives for?
573460e2acc1501500babe54
conservation
173
False
What did another study show that less than 3% of reached the local level?
573460e2acc1501500babe55
expenditures
387
False
What type of studies does the Biological Conservation journal publish?
5735137e879d6814001cab03
scientific
2
False
Why is trophy hunting important to conservation in Africa?
5735137e879d6814001cab04
creating economic incentives for conservation over vast areas
140
False
Trophy hunting can include areas which would likely be unsuitable for what other types of ecotourism?
5735137e879d6814001cab05
photographic
292
False
How much of a trophy hunters' expenditures actually reach the local level, according to another study?
5735137e879d6814001cab06
less than 3%
353
False
What thus is the level of economic incentive and benefit?
5735137e879d6814001cab07
minimal
475
False
What is of major importance in Africa?
573632816c16ec1900b92991
trophy hunting
72
False
What does trophy hunting create in Africa?
573632816c16ec1900b92992
economic incentives for conservation
149
False
How much of trophy hunters expenditures actually reach the local level?
573632816c16ec1900b92993
less than 3%
353
False
3%
363
What percentage of people read the journal Biological Conservation each year?
5ace9e1232bba1001ae4ad2f
True
conservation
114
What is photographic ecotourism of major importance to in Africa?
5ace9e1232bba1001ae4ad30
True
by creating economic incentives for conservation
137
How does photographic ecotourism help preserve wildlife in Africa?
5ace9e1232bba1001ae4ad31
True
trophy hunters
371
What group funded the Biological Conservation study?
5ace9e1232bba1001ae4ad32
True
a trophy hunters' expenditures
369
What did another study show that less than 3% of was used to mount trophies?
5ace9e1232bba1001ae4ad33
True
A scientific study in the journal, Biological Conservation, states that trophy hunting is of "major importance to conservation in Africa by creating economic incentives for conservation over vast areas, including areas which may be unsuitable for alternative wildlife-based land uses such as photographic ecotourism." However, another study states that less than 3% of a trophy hunters' expenditures reach the local level, meaning that the economic incentive and benefit is "minimal, particularly when we consider the vast areas of land that hunting concessions occupy."
What do a variety of industries benefit from?
57346156acc1501500babe59
hunting
37
False
Where is it estimated that a hunter spends fifty to one hundred times that of the average ecotourist?
57346156acc1501500babe5a
Tanzania
89
False
Where does the average safari hunter stay in?
57346156acc1501500babe5b
tented camps
310
False
Advocates argue these hunters allow for what type of activities?
57346156acc1501500babe5c
anti-poaching
464
False
What do a variety of industries obtain benefit from?
57351496879d6814001cab0d
hunting
37
False
In what country is it estimated that a safari hunter spends fifty to one hundred times what an average ecotourist does?
57351496879d6814001cab0e
Tanzania
89
False
What type of accommodations does the average photographer touring Tanzania seek?
57351496879d6814001cab0f
luxury
243
False
Where does the typical safari hunter hang his hat at night?
57351496879d6814001cab10
in tented camps
307
False
Where can safari hunters go which are uninviting to the less hardcore ecotourist?
57351496879d6814001cab11
remote areas
367
False
How much does a safari hunter spend compared to an average ecotourist?
57363285012e2f140011a20b
fifty to one hundred times
143
False
What does the photo tourist seek?
57363285012e2f140011a20c
luxury accommodation
243
False
Where does a safari hunter usually stay?
57363285012e2f140011a20d
tented camps
310
False
What hunters allow for anti-poaching activities?
57363285012e2f140011a20e
Safari hunters
324
False
tented
310
What kind of camps do ecotourists usually stay in?
5ace9fa132bba1001ae4ad99
True
hunting
37
What do tented camps benefit from?
5ace9fa132bba1001ae4ad9a
True
on economic grounds
65
Why do tented camps support hunting?
5ace9fa132bba1001ae4ad9b
True
fifty to one hundred
143
How many times a day do local communities stop poaching activity?
5ace9fa132bba1001ae4ad9c
True
Tanzania
89
What country has the most areas that are hard to reach by car?
5ace9fa132bba1001ae4ad9d
True
A variety of industries benefit from hunting and support hunting on economic grounds. In Tanzania, it is estimated that a safari hunter spends fifty to one hundred times that of the average ecotourist. While the average photo tourist may seek luxury accommodation, the average safari hunter generally stays in tented camps. Safari hunters are also more likely to use remote areas, uninviting to the typical ecotourist. Advocates argue that these hunters allow for anti-poaching activities and revenue for local communities.[citation needed]
Hunting has significant financial impact in what country?
57351665acc1501500bac3f7
the United States
51
False
What do many companies specialize in apropos to hunting?
57351665acc1501500bac3f8
equipment or speciality tourism
114
False
"There's an app for that!",  what have been different technologies been created to do?
57351665acc1501500bac3f9
assist hunters
196
False
What broad range of backgrounds do today's hunters come from?
57351665acc1501500bac3fa
economic, social, and cultural
291
False
How much money did the thirteen million hunters spend on their sport in 2001?
57351665acc1501500bac3fb
over $20.5 billion
416
False
What type of financial impact does hunting have on the U.S.?
573632886c16ec1900b92997
significant financial impact
19
False
What has been developed in the U.S. to help hunters?
573632886c16ec1900b92998
different technologies
152
False
One technology that is available for hunters in the U.S. is?
573632886c16ec1900b92999
iPhone applications
227
False
How much did hunters spend in 2001?
573632886c16ec1900b9299a
over $20.5 billion
416
False
What do the proceeds from hunting assist with?
573632886c16ec1900b9299b
preservation of wildlife habitat
566
False
United States
55
In what country was the IPhone first developed?
5acea0cc32bba1001ae4adc1
True
$20.5 billion
421
How much did consumers spend on the IPhone in 2001?
5acea0cc32bba1001ae4adc2
True
preservation of wildlife habitat
566
What is one cause that was most supported by IPhone users in 2001?
5acea0cc32bba1001ae4adc3
True
over thirteen million
344
How many people owned IPhones in 2001?
5acea0cc32bba1001ae4adc4
True
Many different technologies
147
How many types of technology went into the creation of the IPhone?
5acea0cc32bba1001ae4adc5
True
Hunting also has a significant financial impact in the United States, with many companies specialising in hunting equipment or speciality tourism. Many different technologies have been created to assist hunters, even including iPhone applications. Today's hunters come from a broad range of economic, social, and cultural backgrounds. In 2001, over thirteen million hunters averaged eighteen days hunting, and spent over $20.5 billion on their sport.[citation needed] In the US, proceeds from hunting licenses contribute to state game management programs, including preservation of wildlife habitat.
What has excessive hunting contributed heavily to?
57351714879d6814001cab17
the endangerment, extirpation and extinction of many animals
73
False
What do Steller's sea cow, the bluebuck, and the Javan tigers all have in common?
57351714879d6814001cab18
extinction
107
False
Why have poachers killed endangered animals?
57351714879d6814001cab19
primarily for commercial sale or sport.
400
False
How have the North American cougar and Asian elephant been hunted?
57351714879d6814001cab1a
to endangerment or extinction
475
False
How is excessive hunting related to the extinction of species?
57351714879d6814001cab1b
contributed heavily
50
False
What contributes to endangerment?
5736328c012e2f140011a213
excessive hunting
9
False
What have poachers contributed to hunting?
5736328c012e2f140011a214
endangerment
77
False
the great auk
155
What is the main predator of the quagga?
5acea1b832bba1001ae4adfd
True
Altai argali sheep
346
What animal was hunted mainly by Javan tigers?
5acea1b832bba1001ae4adfe
True
the bluebuck
204
What animal could usually be found with the markhor?
5acea1b832bba1001ae4adff
True
the bison
304
The thylacine usually tried to avoid which animal?
5acea1b832bba1001ae4ae00
True
the thylacine
189
Which animal was similar to the North American cougar?
5acea1b832bba1001ae4ae01
True
However, excessive hunting and poachers have also contributed heavily to the endangerment, extirpation and extinction of many animals, such as the quagga, the great auk, Steller's sea cow, the thylacine, the bluebuck, the Arabian oryx, the Caspian and Javan tigers, the markhor, the Sumatran rhinoceros, the bison, the North American cougar, the Altai argali sheep, the Asian elephant and many more, primarily for commercial sale or sport. All these animals have been hunted to endangerment or extinction.
Who signed the Migratory Bird Hunting Stamp Act?
573517e0879d6814001cab21
President Franklin D. Roosevelt
18
False
When did Roosevelt sign the Migratory Bird Hunting Stamp Act?
573517e0879d6814001cab22
16 March 1934
3
False
What does the Act require all hunters over the age of sixteen to do?
573517e0879d6814001cab23
an annual stamp purchase
110
False
What do 98% of all the funds generated by the stamp sales go to?
573517e0879d6814001cab24
the purchase or lease of wetland habitat
447
False
How much of the nation's endangered species is it estimated benefits from the protection afford by the Duck Stamp funds?
573517e0879d6814001cab25
one third
607
False
What act was signed in 1934?
5736328f6c16ec1900b929a1
Migratory Bird Hunting Stamp Act
61
False
What President signed this act?
5736328f6c16ec1900b929a2
Franklin D. Roosevelt
28
False
What is the requirement of the act?
5736328f6c16ec1900b929a3
annual stamp purchase by all hunters over the age of sixteen
113
False
What do the stamps depict?
5736328f6c16ec1900b929a4
wildlife artwork
259
False
What percentage of the endangered species seek food and shelter in areas protected using Duck Stamp Funds.
5736328f6c16ec1900b929a5
one third
607
False
1934
12
In what year was the US Postal Service created?
5acea3a632bba1001ae4ae71
True
President Franklin D. Roosevelt
18
What President founded the US Postal Service?
5acea3a632bba1001ae4ae72
True
16 March 1934
3
On what date was the National Wildlife Refuge System created?
5acea3a632bba1001ae4ae73
True
one third
607
How many of the waterfowl in the US were endangered in 1934?
5acea3a632bba1001ae4ae74
True
sixteen
166
What is the minimum age needed to take part in the US Postal Service stamp art contest?
5acea3a632bba1001ae4ae75
True
On 16 March 1934, President Franklin D. Roosevelt signed the Migratory Bird Hunting Stamp Act, which requires an annual stamp purchase by all hunters over the age of sixteen. The stamps are created on behalf of the program by the US Postal Service and depict wildlife artwork chosen through an annual contest. They play an important role in habitat conservation because ninety-eight percent of all funds generated by their sale go directly toward the purchase or lease of wetland habitat for protection in the National Wildlife Refuge System.[citation needed] In addition to waterfowl, it is estimated that one third of the nation's endangered species seek food and shelter in areas protected using Duck Stamp funds.[citation needed]
How much money has the sale of Federal Duck Stamps generated since 1934?
5735190cacc1501500bac401
$670 million
58
False
How many acres has the sale of Federal Duck Stamps helped to purchase or lease since 1934?
5735190cacc1501500bac402
5,200,000 acres
104
False
What do the stamps give the purchaser a license to do?
5735190cacc1501500bac403
hunt migratory birds
191
False
Who accounts for eighty-seven percent of the sale of duck stamps?
5735190cacc1501500bac404
hunters
514
False
Who manages the distribution of the funds obtained by the sale of the stamps?
5735190cacc1501500bac405
Migratory Bird Conservation Commission
623
False
How much money has been generated due to the Duck Stamp act?
57363293012e2f140011a217
$670 million
58
False
How much land has the Duck Stamp Act help purchase?
57363293012e2f140011a218
5,200,000 acres
104
False
What do the Duck Stamps serve as?
57363293012e2f140011a219
license to hunt migratory birds
180
False
What percent of sales are contributed by hunters?
57363293012e2f140011a21a
eighty-seven
459
False
Who manages distribution of funds?
57363293012e2f140011a21b
Migratory Bird Conservation Commission (MBCC)
623
False
1934
6
In what year was the MBCC created?
5acea55e32bba1001ae4aec9
True
an entrance pass
213
What is needed to enter MBCC areas?
5acea55e32bba1001ae4aeca
True
Duck Stamps
446
What does the MBCC buy a significant number of?
5acea55e32bba1001ae4aecb
True
eighty-seven percent
459
What percentage of hunters belong to the MBCC?
5acea55e32bba1001ae4aecc
True
a license
178
What is required to work at the MBCC?
5acea55e32bba1001ae4aecd
True
Since 1934, the sale of Federal Duck Stamps has generated $670 million, and helped to purchase or lease 5,200,000 acres (8,100 sq mi; 21,000 km2) of habitat. The stamps serve as a license to hunt migratory birds, an entrance pass for all National Wildlife Refuge areas, and are also considered collectors items often purchased for aesthetic reasons outside of the hunting and birding communities. Although non-hunters buy a significant number of Duck Stamps, eighty-seven percent of their sales are contributed by hunters, which is logical, as hunters are required to purchase them. Distribution of funds is managed by the Migratory Bird Conservation Commission (MBCC).
What large species of antelope once made its home in the desert areas of the Middle East?
573519d9879d6814001cab2b
The Arabian oryx
0
False
Why did sport hunters find the Arabian oryx to be a worthwhile quarry to hunt?
573519d9879d6814001cab2c
the species' striking appearance
116
False
When did the Arabian oryx become extinct in the wild due to sport hunting?
573519d9879d6814001cab2d
1972
502
False
How did hunters obliterate the advantage bestowed upon the oryx by evolution?
573519d9879d6814001cab2e
use of automobiles and high-powered rifles
348
False
What animal has made a miraculous comeback and been upgraded from "extinct in the wild" to "vulnerable"?
573519d9879d6814001cab2f
Arabian oryx
607
False
What is a species of large antelope?
5736342b506b47140023658c
Arabian oryx
4
False
What did the large antelope species once inhabit?
5736342b506b47140023658d
much of the desert areas of the Middle East
62
False
What destroyed the Arabian oryx only advantage of speed.
5736342b506b47140023658e
automobiles and high-powered rifles
355
False
When did the Arabian oryx become extinct?
5736342b506b47140023658f
1972
502
False
What contributed to the Arabian oryx rise from extinct to vulnerable?
5736342b506b471400236590
conservation efforts
712
False
1972
502
In what year was oil first drilled for in the Middle East?
5aceaad432bba1001ae4af75
True
due to conservation efforts like captive breeding
705
Why has the scimitar-horned oryx make a comeback?
5aceaad432bba1001ae4af76
True
“vulnerable”
692
What status has the scimitar-horned oryx been upgraded to?
5aceaad432bba1001ae4af77
True
“extinct in the wild”
667
What status was the addax upgraded from in 1972?
5aceaad432bba1001ae4af78
True
striking appearance
129
What feature in land areas of the Middle East first attracted foreign oil executives?
5aceaad432bba1001ae4af79
True
The Arabian oryx, a species of large antelope, once inhabited much of the desert areas of the Middle East. However, the species' striking appearance made it (along with the closely related scimitar-horned oryx and addax) a popular quarry for sport hunters, especially foreign executives of oil companies working in the region.[citation needed] The use of automobiles and high-powered rifles destroyed their only advantage: speed, and they became extinct in the wild exclusively due to sport hunting in 1972. The scimitar-horned oryx followed suit, while the addax became critically endangered. However, the Arabian oryx has now made a comeback and been upgraded from “extinct in the wild” to “vulnerable” due to conservation efforts like captive breeding
What type of creature is the American bison?
57351a8aacc1501500bac40b
a large bovid
22
False
What did the American bison inhabit much of prior to the 1800s?
57351a8aacc1501500bac40c
western North America
60
False
What did market hunters leave the parts of the bison they didn't need to do?
57351a8aacc1501500bac40d
rot
269
False
What was the population of bison herds around prior to being eliminated by thousands of market hunters?
57351a8aacc1501500bac40e
several million
366
False
What is the current status of bison?
57351a8aacc1501500bac40f
near-threatened
516
False
What did large herds of bison attract?
5736357e506b471400236596
market hunters
184
False
What part of North America did the bison live?
5736357e506b471400236597
western
60
False
Why were the bison killed?
5736357e506b471400236598
for their hides
227
False
What did hunter do with the rest of the bison?
5736357e506b471400236599
leaving the rest to rot
249
False
What do bison still remain?
5736357e506b47140023659a
near-threatened
516
False
western North America
60
What area did market hunters come from in the 1880's?
5aceace632bba1001ae4afed
True
Thousands
274
How much did a bison hide cost in the 1800's?
5aceace632bba1001ae4afee
True
several million
366
What was the population of the US in 1880?
5aceace632bba1001ae4afef
True
prairies
116
What areas of the US were settled first in 1880?
5aceace632bba1001ae4aff0
True
rot
269
What were buildings prone to when built in a prarie area?
5aceace632bba1001ae4aff1
True
The American bison is a large bovid which inhabited much of western North America prior to the 1800s, living on the prairies in large herds. However, the vast herds of bison attracted market hunters, who killed dozens of bison for their hides only, leaving the rest to rot. Thousands of these hunters quickly eliminated the bison herds, bringing the population from several million in the early 1800s to a few hundred by the 1880s. Conservation efforts have allowed the population to increase, but the bison remains near-threatened.
Why has Botswana been forced to ban trophy hunting altogether?
57351b51acc1501500bac415
a precipitous wildlife decline
79
False
What plummeting numbers of this species caused a decline in predator numbers?
57351b51acc1501500bac416
antelope
126
False
What species saw its numbers rising while elephant numbers remained stable?
57351b51acc1501500bac417
hippopotamus
251
False
What factors other than trophy hunting are responsible for the decline of wildlife in Botswana?
57351b51acc1501500bac418
poaching, drought and habitat loss
404
False
What other African country has also recently banned trophy hunting?
57351b51acc1501500bac419
Uganda
458
False
What Botswana was resently forced to do?
573636bf9c79961900ff7e06
ban trophy hunting
50
False
What animal declined across Botswana?
573636bf9c79961900ff7e07
antelope
126
False
What animal numbers have increased in Botswana?
573636bf9c79961900ff7e08
hippopotamus
251
False
What animal numbers remain stable in Botswana?
573636bf9c79961900ff7e09
elephant
214
False
What else is partly to blame for the declining number of animals in Botswana and Uganda?
573636bf9c79961900ff7e0a
poaching
404
False
The numbers of antelope plummeted
111
What happened to antelope in Uganda?
5aceaf9432bba1001ae4b059
True
a resultant decline in predator numbers
167
What happened in Uganda after antelope numbers fell?
5aceaf9432bba1001ae4b05a
True
stable
240
How was the elephant population in Uganda?
5aceaf9432bba1001ae4b05b
True
hippopotamus
251
What animal population increased in Uganda?
5aceaf9432bba1001ae4b05c
True
poaching
577
What did Botswana argue sport hunting wouldn't be able to stop?
5aceaf9432bba1001ae4b05d
True
In contrast, Botswana has recently been forced to ban trophy hunting following a precipitous wildlife decline. The numbers of antelope plummeted across Botswana, with a resultant decline in predator numbers, while elephant numbers remained stable and hippopotamus numbers rose. According to the government of Botswana, trophy hunting is at least partly to blame for this, but many other factors, such as poaching, drought and habitat loss are also to blame. Uganda recently did the same, arguing that "the share of benefits of sport hunting were lopsided and unlikely to deter poaching or improve [Uganda's] capacity to manage the wildlife reserves."
Kathmandu
What country is Kathmandu the capital of?
57359bbcdc94161900571ee9
Nepal
105
False
What does Upa-Mahanagar mean in English?
57359bbcdc94161900571eea
Sub-Metropolitan City
332
False
Along with "KTM," what is another nickname of Kathmandu?
57359bbcdc94161900571eeb
tri-city
615
False
How many people lived in Kathmandu in 2011?
57359bbcdc94161900571eec
975,453
704
False
How many square kilometers in size is Kathmandu?
57359bbcdc94161900571eed
49.45
725
False
Kathmandu(/ˌkɑːtmɑːnˈduː/; Nepali pronunciation: [kɑʈʰmɑɳɖu]) is the capital and largest municipality of Nepal. It also hosts the headquarters of the South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC). It is the only city of Nepal with the administrative status of Mahanagar (Metropolitan City), as compared to Upa-Mahanagar (Sub-Metropolitan City) or Nagar (City). Kathmandu is the core of Nepal's largest urban agglomeration located in the Kathmandu Valley consisting of Lalitpur, Kirtipur, Madhyapur Thimi, Bhaktapur and a number of smaller communities. Kathmandu is also known informally as "KTM" or the "tri-city". According to the 2011 census, Kathmandu Metropolitan City has a population of 975,453 and measures 49.45 km2 (19.09 sq mi).
About how long has Kathmandu existed?
57359c16e853931400426a34
2000
45
False
What suggests that Kathmandu is as old as it is?
57359c16e853931400426a35
inscriptions
74
False
What is Kathmandu's majority religion?
57359c16e853931400426a36
Hinduism
241
False
What do most Kathmandu residents speak?
57359c16e853931400426a37
Nepali
377
False
What secondary language do educated people in Kathmandu speak?
57359c16e853931400426a38
English
434
False
The city has a rich history, spanning nearly 2000 years, as inferred from inscriptions found in the valley. Religious and cultural festivities form a major part of the lives of people residing in Kathmandu. Most of Kathmandu's people follow Hinduism and many others follow Buddhism. There are people of other religious beliefs as well, giving Kathmandu a cosmopolitan culture. Nepali is the most commonly spoken language in the city. English is understood by Kathmandu's educated residents. Historic areas of Kathmandu were devastated by a 7.8 magnitude earthquake on 25 April 2015.
What does काष्ठ mean in English?
57359c97e853931400426a3e
wood
122
False
What is the English translation of Mandap?
57359c97e853931400426a3f
covered shelter
155
False
What do Newar speakers call Kasthamandap temple?
57359c97e853931400426a40
Maru Satal
200
False
Who was responsible for the construction of Kasthamandap temple?
57359c97e853931400426a41
King Laxmi Narsingh Malla
255
False
On what date was Maru Satal destroyed?
57359c97e853931400426a42
25 April 2015
520
False
The city of Kathmandu is named after Kasthamandap temple, that stood in Durbar Square. In Sanskrit, Kastha (काष्ठ) means "wood" and Mandap (/मण्डप) means "covered shelter". This temple, also known as Maru Satal in the Newar language, was built in 1596 by King Laxmi Narsingh Malla. The two-storey structure was made entirely of wood, and used no iron nails nor supports. According to legend, all the timber used to build the pagoda was obtained from a single tree. The structure collapsed during the major earthquake on 25 April 2015.
What is the ancient name of Kathmandu?
57359cf7e853931400426a48
Kasthamandap Mahanagar
95
False
How does कान्तिपुर transliterate into English?
57359cf7e853931400426a49
Kantipur
357
False
Who is also called Kanti?
57359cf7e853931400426a4a
Lakshmi
484
False
How do you say place in Sanskrit?
57359cf7e853931400426a4b
pur
498
False
What is the English translation of Mahanagar?
57359cf7e853931400426a4c
great city
153
False
The colophons of ancient manuscripts, dated as late as the 20th century, refer to Kathmandu as Kasthamandap Mahanagar in Nepal Mandala. Mahanagar means "great city". The city is called "Kasthamandap" in a vow that Buddhist priests still recite to this day. Thus, Kathmandu is also known as Kasthamandap. During medieval times, the city was sometimes called Kantipur (कान्तिपुर). This name is derived from two Sanskrit words - Kanti and pur. "Kanti" is one of the names of the Goddess Lakshmi, and "pur" means place.
According to legend, what body of water once existed on the site of Kathmandu?
57359d61e853931400426a52
lake
162
False
What animals notably resided in Nagdaha?
57359d61e853931400426a53
snakes
201
False
Who was the founder of Manjupattan?
57359d61e853931400426a54
Bodhisatwa Manjusri
237
False
What type of creature was Banasur?
57359d61e853931400426a55
demon
428
False
Who was Banasur's murderer?
57359d61e853931400426a56
Krishna
509
False
The ancient history of Kathmandu is described in its traditional myths and legends. According to Swayambhu Purana, present-day Kathmandu was once a huge and deep lake names "Nagdaha" as it was full of snakes. The lake was cut drained by Bodhisatwa Manjusri with his sword and the water was evacuated out from there and he established a city called Manjupattan and made Dharmakar the ruler of the valley land. After sometimes, a demon named Banasur closed the outlet and the valley was again a lake. Then lots Krishna came to Nepal, killed Banasur and again drained out water. He has brought some Gops with him and made Bhuktaman the king of Nepal.
Who was the founder of the Kirata dynasty?
57359ddbe853931400426a5c
Yalamber
301
False
What geographical part of Kathmandu did Yambu once occupy?
57359ddbe853931400426a5d
northern
375
False
Speakers of what languages sometimes call Kathmandu Yambu?
57359ddbe853931400426a5e
Sino-Tibetan
422
False
Where in Kathmandu was Yengal located?
57359ddbe853931400426a5f
southern half
539
False
What religion did the Sankhu monastery belong to?
57359ddbe853931400426a60
Buddhist
646
False
Very few historical records exist of the period before the medieval Licchavis rulers. According to Gopalraj Vansawali, a genealogy of Nepali monarchs, the rulers of Kathmandu Valley before the Licchavis were Gopalas, Mahispalas, Aabhirs, Kirants, and Somavanshi. The Kirata dynasty was established by Yalamber. During the Kirata era, a settlement called Yambu existed in the northern half of old Kathmandu. In some of the Sino-Tibetan languages, Kathmandu is still called Yambu. Another smaller settlement called Yengal was present in the southern half of old Kathmandu, near Manjupattan. During the reign of the seventh Kirata ruler, Jitedasti, Buddhist monks entered Kathmandu valley and established a forest monastery at Sankhu.
Who won the war between the Licchavis and the Kiratas?
57359e82e853931400426a66
Licchavis
4
False
Who did the migrating Shakyas pretend to be?
57359e82e853931400426a67
Koliyas
283
False
What sect of Buddhism is the only remaining one based in Sanskrit?
57359e82e853931400426a68
Newar
464
False
Who killed the Shakyas?
57359e82e853931400426a69
Virudhaka
184
False
Under the Licchavi dynasty, what name was typically used to refer to Yengal?
57359e82e853931400426a6a
Dakshin Koligram
626
False
The Licchavis from the Indo-Gangetic plain migrated north and defeated the Kiratas, establishing the Licchavi dynasty. During this era, following the genocide of Shakyas in Lumbini by Virudhaka, the survivors migrated north and entered the forest monastery in Sankhu masquerading as Koliyas. From Sankhu, they migrated to Yambu and Yengal (Lanjagwal and Manjupattan) and established the first permanent Buddhist monasteries of Kathmandu. This created the basis of Newar Buddhism, which is the only surviving Sanskrit-based Buddhist tradition in the world. With their migration, Yambu was called Koligram and Yengal was called Dakshin Koligram during most of the Licchavi era.
Kathmandu resulted from the merger of what two settlements?
57359eeae853931400426a70
Dakshin Koligram
64
False
Who is Kathmandu's historical founder?
57359eeae853931400426a71
Gunakamadeva
31
False
Who did Chandrahrasa belong to?
57359eeae853931400426a72
Manjushri
179
False
How many barracks guarded ancient Kathmandu?
57359eeae853931400426a73
eight
217
False
Trade between what two countries typically went through ancient Kathmandu?
57359eeae853931400426a74
India and Tibet
399
False
Eventually, the Licchavi ruler Gunakamadeva merged Koligram and Dakshin Koligram, founding the city of Kathmandu. The city was designed in the shape of Chandrahrasa, the sword of Manjushri. The city was surrounded by eight barracks guarded by Ajimas. One of these barracks is still in use at Bhadrakali (in front of Singha Durbar). The city served as an important transit point in the trade between India and Tibet, leading to tremendous growth in architecture. Descriptions of buildings such as Managriha, Kailaskut Bhawan, and Bhadradiwas Bhawan have been found in the surviving journals of travelers and monks who lived during this era. For example, the famous 7th-century Chinese traveller Xuanzang described Kailaskut Bhawan, the palace of the Licchavi king Amshuverma. The trade route also led to cultural exchange as well. The artistry of the Newar people—the indigenous inhabitants of the Kathmandu Valley—became highly sought after during this era, both within the Valley and throughout the greater Himalayas. Newar artists travelled extensively throughout Asia, creating religious art for their neighbors. For example, Araniko led a group of his compatriot artists through Tibet and China. Bhrikuti, the princess of Nepal who married Tibetan monarch Songtsän Gampo, was instrumental in introducing Buddhism to Tibet.
Who ruled Nepal after the Licchavi?
57359f64e853931400426a7a
Malla
37
False
Along with Khas, who attacked Nepal in the early Malla period?
57359f64e853931400426a7b
Turk Muslims
292
False
What fraction of Kathmandu's population died in an ancient earthquake?
57359f64e853931400426a7c
third
375
False
Along with the Mangriha, what Licchavi-era building was destroyed in an ancient earthquake?
57359f64e853931400426a7d
Kailashkut Bhawan
550
False
What notable Nepali figure died in a Kathmandu earthquake?
57359f64e853931400426a7e
Abhaya Malla
427
False
The Licchavi era was followed by the Malla era. Rulers from Tirhut, upon being attacked by Muslims, fled north to the Kathmandu valley. They intermarried with Nepali royalty, and this led to the Malla era. The early years of the Malla era were turbulent, with raids and attacks from Khas and Turk Muslims. There was also a devastating earthquake which claimed the lives of a third of Kathmandu's population, including the king Abhaya Malla. These disasters led to the destruction of most of the architecture of the Licchavi era (such as Mangriha and Kailashkut Bhawan), and the loss of literature collected in various monasteries within the city. Despite the initial hardships, Kathmandu rose to prominence again and, during most of the Malla era, dominated the trade between India and Tibet. Nepali currency became the standard currency in trans-Himalayan trade.
How many cities were present in the Kathmandu Valley in the late Malla period?
57359fece853931400426a84
four
67
False
In the waning years of the Malla dynasty, what fortified cities existed in the Kathmandu Valley?
57359fece853931400426a85
Kantipur, Lalitpur, Bhaktapur, and Kirtipur
90
False
What cultures influenced Nepal in the later Malla era?
57359fece853931400426a86
India, Tibet, China, Persia, and Europe
684
False
What is an example of a book of medicine from the Malla period?
57359fece853931400426a87
Haramekhala
924
False
When does Amarkosh date to?
57359fece853931400426a88
1381
1047
False
During the later part of the Malla era, Kathmandu Valley comprised four fortified cities: Kantipur, Lalitpur, Bhaktapur, and Kirtipur. These served as the capitals of the Malla confederation of Nepal. These states competed with each other in the arts, architecture, aesthetics, and trade, resulting in tremendous development. The kings of this period directly influenced or involved themselves in the construction of public buildings, squares, and temples, as well as the development of water spouts, the institutionalization of trusts (called guthis), the codification of laws, the writing of dramas, and the performance of plays in city squares. Evidence of an influx of ideas from India, Tibet, China, Persia, and Europe among other places can be found in a stone inscription from the time of king Pratap Malla. Books have been found from this era that describe their tantric tradition (e.g. Tantrakhyan), medicine (e.g. Haramekhala), religion (e.g. Mooldevshashidev), law, morals, and history. Amarkosh, a Sanskrit-Nepal Bhasa dictionary from 1381 AD, was also found. Architecturally notable buildings from this era include Kathmandu Durbar Square, Patan Durbar Square, Bhaktapur Durbar Square, the former durbar of Kirtipur, Nyatapola, Kumbheshwar, the Krishna temple, and others.
Who won the Battle of Kathmandu?
5735a06de853931400426a8e
Gorkha Kingdom
4
False
What battle inaugurated the conquering of the Kathmandu Valley by the Gorkha?
5735a06de853931400426a8f
Kirtipur
160
False
How many stories high was the Basantapur tower?
5735a06de853931400426a90
nine
474
False
What European country did Bhimsen Thapa oppose?
5735a06de853931400426a91
Great Britain
648
False
How many stories made up the Dharahara tower?
5735a06de853931400426a92
nine
764
False
The Gorkha Kingdom ended the Malla confederation after the Battle of Kathmandu in 1768. This marked the beginning of the modern era in Kathmandu. The Battle of Kirtipur was the start of the Gorkha conquest of the Kathmandu Valley. Kathmandu was adopted as the capital of the Gorkha empire, and the empire itself was dubbed Nepal. During the early part of this era, Kathmandu maintained its distinctive culture. Buildings with characteristic Nepali architecture, such as the nine-story tower of Basantapur, were built during this era. However, trade declined because of continual war with neighboring nations. Bhimsen Thapa supported France against Great Britain; this led to the development of modern military structures, such as modern barracks in Kathmandu. The nine-storey tower Dharahara was originally built during this era.
What river is south of Kathmandu?
5735a122e853931400426a98
Bagmati
90
False
What geographic portion of the Kathmandu Valley houses Kathmandu?
5735a122e853931400426a99
northwestern
28
False
About how many feet above sea level is Kathmandu?
5735a122e853931400426a9a
4,600
190
False
How large is Kathmandu in terms of square miles?
5735a122e853931400426a9b
19.56
137
False
Where does the Lalitpur Sub-Metropolitan City stand in relation to the Bagmati River?
5735a122e853931400426a9c
south
303
False
Kathmandu is located in the northwestern part of the Kathmandu Valley to the north of the Bagmati River and covers an area of 50.67 km2 (19.56 sq mi). The average elevation is 1,400 metres (4,600 ft) above sea level. The city is directly bounded by several other municipalities of the Kathmandu valley: south of the Bagmati by Lalitpur Sub-Metropolitan City (Patan) with which it today forms one urban area surrounded by a ring road, to the southwest by Kirtipur Municipality and to the east by Madyapur Thimi Municipality. To the north the urban area extends into several Village Development Committees. However, the urban agglomeration extends well beyond the neighboring municipalities, e. g. to Bhaktapur and just about covers the entire Kathmandu valley.
How many rivers travel through Kathmandu?
5735a69ce853931400426aa2
eight
26
False
Where did the canal that once terminated in Kathmandu originate?
5735a69ce853931400426aa3
Nagarjuna hill
432
False
How many feet high are the mountains from which the Bagmati flows?
5735a69ce853931400426aa4
4,900–9,800
306
False
Kathmandu is dissected by eight rivers, the main river of the valley, the Bagmati and its tributaries, of which the Bishnumati, Dhobi Khola, Manohara Khola, Hanumant Khola, and Tukucha Khola are predominant. The mountains from where these rivers originate are in the elevation range of 1,500–3,000 metres (4,900–9,800 ft), and have passes which provide access to and from Kathmandu and its valley. An ancient canal once flowed from Nagarjuna hill through Balaju to Kathmandu; this canal is now extinct.
How many districts make up the Kathmandu Valley urban area?
5735a721e853931400426aa8
three
122
False
What are Madhyapur Thimi, Kirtipur and Bhaktapur?
5735a721e853931400426aa9
municipalities
441
False
How many sub-metropolitan cities are present in the districts that make up the Kathmandu valley?
5735a721e853931400426aaa
1
496
False
About how many people live in a square kilometer in Gonggabu VDC?
5735a721e853931400426aab
20,000
692
False
What is another term for VDCs?
5735a721e853931400426aac
villages
428
False
The agglomeration of Kathmandu has not yet been officially defined. The urban area of the Kathmandu valley is split among three different districts (collections of local government units within a zone) which extend very little beyond the valley fringe, except towards the southern ranges, which have comparatively small population. They have the three highest population densities in the country. Within the districts lie VDCs (villages), 3 municipalities (Bhaktapur, Kirtipur, Madhyapur Thimi), 1 sub-metropolitan city (Lalitpur), and 1 metropolitan city (Kathmandu). Some district subdivisions remain legally villages yet are densely populated, Gonggabu VDC notably recorded a density over 20,000 people/km2. (2011 census). The following data table describes the districts considered part of the agglomeration:
What is the Kathmandu Valley's average temperature in winter, in degrees Fahrenheit?
5735a9fbe853931400426ab2
50.2
749
False
Along with a subtropical highland climate, what climate classification covers Kathmandu?
5735a9fbe853931400426ab3
humid subtropical climate
438
False
What is the Köppen abbreviation for a humid subtropical climate?
5735a9fbe853931400426ab4
Cwa
465
False
How many meters up is the Cool Temperate Zone?
5735a9fbe853931400426ab5
2,100–3,300
311
False
How many significant climate regions exist in Nepal?
5735a9fbe853931400426ab6
Five
0
False
Five major climatic regions are found in Nepal. Of these, Kathmandu Valley is in the Warm Temperate Zone (elevation ranging from 1,200–2,300 metres (3,900–7,500 ft)), where the climate is fairly temperate, atypical for the region. This zone is followed by the Cool Temperate Zone with elevation varying between 2,100–3,300 metres (6,900–10,800 ft). Under Köppen's climate classification, portions of the city with lower elevations have a humid subtropical climate (Cwa), while portions of the city with higher elevations generally have a subtropical highland climate. In the Kathmandu Valley, which is representative of its valley's climate, the average summer temperature varies from 28–30 °C (82–86 °F). The average winter temperature is 10.1 °C (50.2 °F).
What sort of temperature is typical on a Kathmandu morning?
5735aaaedc94161900571ef3
cool
60
False
About what percentage of Kathmandu's annual rainfall falls during the monsoon months?
5735aaaedc94161900571ef4
65
409
False
On what date in 2013 was it 15.4 degrees Fahrenheit in Kathmandu?
5735aaaedc94161900571ef5
January 10
329
False
In what months does the monsoon occur in Nepal?
5735aaaedc94161900571ef6
June to August
468
False
In what year did the most rain in recorded history fall on Kathmandu?
5735aaaedc94161900571ef7
2003
1278
False
The city generally has a climate with warm days followed by cool nights and mornings. Unpredictable weather is expected, given that temperatures can drop to 1 °C (34 °F) or less during the winter. During a 2013 cold front, the winter temperatures of Kathmandu dropped to −4 °C (25 °F), and the lowest temperature was recorded on January 10, 2013, at −9.2 °C (15.4 °F). Rainfall is mostly monsoon-based (about 65% of the total concentrated during the monsoon months of June to August), and decreases substantially (100 to 200 cm (39 to 79 in)) from eastern Nepal to western Nepal. Rainfall has been recorded at about 1,400 millimetres (55.1 in) for the Kathmandu valley, and averages 1,407 millimetres (55.4 in) for the city of Kathmandu. On average humidity is 75%. The chart below is based on data from the Nepal Bureau of Standards & Meteorology, "Weather Meteorology" for 2005. The chart provides minimum and maximum temperatures during each month. The annual amount of precipitation was 1,124 millimetres (44.3 in) for 2005, as per monthly data included in the table above. The decade of 2000-2010 saw highly variable and unprecedented precipitation anomalies in Kathmandu. This was mostly due to the annual variation of the southwest monsoon.[citation needed] For example, 2003 was the wettest year ever in Kathmandu, totalling over 2,900 mm (114 in) of precipitation due to an exceptionally strong monsoon season. In contrast, 2001 recorded only 356 mm (14 in) of precipitation due to an extraordinarily weak monsoon season.
What religion proliferated throughout Central Asia in part due to the efforts of Lhasa Newar merchants?
5735ac11dc94161900571f07
Buddhism
673
False
Existing between what two countries contributed to Kathmandu becoming a center of trade?
5735ac11dc94161900571f08
India and China
313
False
Other than trade, what was the traditional basis of Kathmandu's economy?
5735ac11dc94161900571f09
agriculture
259
False
The location and terrain of Kathmandu have played a significant role in the development of a stable economy which spans millennia. The city is located in an ancient lake basin, with fertile soil and flat terrain. This geography helped form a society based on agriculture. This, combined with its location between India and China, helped establish Kathmandu as an important trading center over the centuries. Kathmandu's trade is an ancient profession that flourished along an offshoot of the Silk Road which linked India and Tibet. From centuries past, Lhasa Newar merchants of Kathmandu have conducted trade across the Himalaya and contributed to spreading art styles and Buddhism across Central Asia. Other traditional occupations are farming, metal casting, woodcarving, painting, weaving, and pottery.
Approximately what portion of Nepal's GDP is produced by the Kathmandu metropolitan area?
5735ac9bdc94161900571f0d
one third
70
False
What do Kathmandu residents earn per capita each year?
5735ac9bdc94161900571f0e
$2200
179
False
What is the GDP of Kathmandu?
5735ac9bdc94161900571f0f
6.5billion
104
False
What percentage of Kathmandu's economy is trade?
5735ac9bdc94161900571f10
21
337
False
What portion of Kathmandu's economy consists of agriculture?
5735ac9bdc94161900571f11
9%
589
False
The economic output of the metropolitan area alone is worth more than one third of national GDP around $6.5billion in terms of nominal GDP NR.s 550 billion approximately per year $2200 per capital income approx three times national average. Kathmandu exports handicrafts, artworks, garments, carpets, pashmina, paper; trade accounts for 21% of its finances.[which?] Manufacturing is also important and accounts for 19% of the revenue that Kathmandu generates. Garments and woolen carpets are the most notable manufactured products. Other economic sectors in Kathmandu include agriculture (9%), education (6%), transport (6%), and hotels and restaurants (5%). Kathmandu is famous for lokta paper and pashmina shawls.
Approximately when did the Nepalese tourism industry begin?
5735ad64e853931400426abc
1950
88
False
What city was connected to Kathmandu via the Tribhuvan Highway?
5735ad64e853931400426abd
Raxaul
291
False
When did construction on the Tribhuvan Highway begin?
5735ad64e853931400426abe
1956
201
False
Tourism is considered another important industry in Nepal. This industry started around 1950, as the country's political makeup changed and ended the country's isolation from the rest of the world. In 1956, air transportation was established and the Tribhuvan Highway, between Kathmandu and Raxaul (at India's border), was started. Separate organizations were created in Kathmandu to promote this activity; some of these include the Tourism Development Board, the Department of Tourism and the Civil Aviation Department. Furthermore, Nepal became a member of several international tourist associations. Establishing diplomatic relations with other nations further accentuated this activity. The hotel industry, travel agencies, training of tourist guides, and targeted publicity campaigns are the chief reasons for the remarkable growth of this industry in Nepal, and in Kathmandu in particular.
What is the most significant industry in Nepal?
5735adcde853931400426ac2
tourism
12
False
Along with Buddhists, what religion's devotees visit Kathmandu?
5735adcde853931400426ac3
Hindu
225
False
How many tourists visited Kathmandu in the period 1961-62?
5735adcde853931400426ac4
6,179
392
False
What event led to an increase in tourism in 2009?
5735adcde853931400426ac5
end of the Maoist insurgency
476
False
What Nepalese mountains are claimed to attract tourists?
5735adcde853931400426ac6
Himalayas
838
False
Since then, tourism in Nepal has thrived; it is the country's most important industry.[citation needed] Tourism is a major source of income for most of the people in the city, with several hundred thousand visitors annually. Hindu and Buddhist pilgrims from all over the world visit Kathmandu's religious sites such as Pashupatinath, Swayambhunath, Boudhanath and Budhanilkantha. From a mere 6,179 tourists in 1961/62, the number jumped to 491,504 in 1999/2000. Following the end of the Maoist insurgency, there was a significant rise of 509,956 tourist arrivals in 2009. Since then, tourism has improved as the country turned into a Democratic Republic. In economic terms, the foreign exchange registered 3.8% of the GDP in 1995/96 but then started declining[why?]. The high level of tourism is attributed to the natural grandeur of the Himalayas and the rich cultural heritage of the country.
What Kathmandu neighborhood is noted for its abundance of tourists?
5735ae59dc94161900571f1c
Thamel
21
False
What neighborhood is also known as Jhamel?
5735ae59dc94161900571f1d
Jhamsikhel
223
False
What is the traditional name for Freak Street?
5735ae59dc94161900571f1e
Jhochhen Tol
263
False
What tourists first brought attention to Jhocchen Tol?
5735ae59dc94161900571f1f
hippies
367
False
The neighbourhood of Thamel is Kathmandu's primary "traveller's ghetto", packed with guest houses, restaurants, shops, and bookstores, catering to tourists. Another neighbourhood of growing popularity is Jhamel, a name for Jhamsikhel coined to rhyme with Thamel. Jhochhen Tol, also known as Freak Street, is Kathmandu's original traveler's haunt, made popular by the hippies of the 1960s and 1970s; it remains a popular alternative to Thamel. Asan is a bazaar and ceremonial square on the old trade route to Tibet, and provides a fine example of a traditional neighbourhood.
How many stars is Kathmandu's Grand Hotel?
5735b062dc94161900571f24
four
418
False
What type of hotel is Aloha Inn?
5735b062dc94161900571f25
three-star
570
False
De L'Annapurna is an example of what sort of hotel?
5735b062dc94161900571f26
five-star
679
False
What attractions are present at Hotel Yak & Yeti and the Hyatt Regency?
5735b062dc94161900571f27
casinos
706
False
With the opening of the tourist industry after the change in the political scenario of Nepal in 1950, the hotel industry drastically improved. Now Kathmandu boasts several luxury such as the Hyatt Regency, Dwarika's, theYak & Yeti, The Everest Hotel, Hotel Radisson, Hotel De L'Annapurna, The Malla Hotel, Shangri-La Hotel (which is not operated by the Shangri-La Hotel Group) and The Shanker Hotel. There are several four-star hotels such as Hotel Vaishali, Hotel Narayani, The Blue Star and Grand Hotel. The Garden Hotel, Hotel Ambassador, and Aloha Inn are among the three-star hotels in Kathmandu. Hotels like Hyatt Regency, De L'Annapurna and Hotel Yak & Yeti are among the five-star hotels providing casinos as well.
How many sectors make up the Kathmandu metropolitan area?
5735b0dedc94161900571f2c
five
39
False
What sector of Kathmandu doesn't have the word 'sector' in its name?
5735b0dedc94161900571f2d
City Core
112
False
What is the purpose of Kathmandu being divided into 35 wards?
5735b0dedc94161900571f2e
civic administration
147
False
How many members of the Council received their positions via nomination rather than election?
5735b0dedc94161900571f2f
20
335
False
How many hectares in size is Kathmandu's ward 26?
5735b0dedc94161900571f30
4
1081
False
Metropolitan Kathmandu is divided into five sectors: the Central Sector, the East Sector, the North Sector, the City Core and the West Sector. For civic administration, the city is further divided into 35 administrative wards. The Council administers the Metropolitan area of Kathmandu city through its 177 elected representatives and 20 nominated members. It holds biannual meetings to review, process and approve the annual budget and make major policy decisions. The ward's profile documents for the 35 wards prepared by the Kathmandu Metropolitan Council is detailed and provides information for each ward on population, the structure and condition of houses, the type of roads, educational, health and financial institutions, entertainment facilities, parking space, security provisions, etc. It also includes lists of development projects completed, on-going and planned, along with informative data about the cultural heritage, festivals, historical sites and the local inhabitants. Ward 16 is the largest, with an area of 437.4 ha; ward 26 is the smallest, with an area of 4 ha.
What is Kathmandu's fire department called?
5735b2a8dc94161900571f36
Barun Yantra Karyalaya
31
False
What year saw the founding of Kathmandu's fire department?
5735b2a8dc94161900571f37
1937
96
False
When did Bhaktapur receive coverage from the fire department?
5735b2a8dc94161900571f38
1944
299
False
How many fire trucks did West Germany donate to Kathmandu?
5735b2a8dc94161900571f39
seven
499
False
What is the mission of FAN?
5735b2a8dc94161900571f3a
raising public awareness about fire and improving safety
751
False
The fire service, known as the Barun Yantra Karyalaya, opened its first station in Kathmandu in 1937 with a single vehicle. An iron tower was erected to monitor the city and watch for fire. As a precautionary measure, firemen were sent to the areas which were designated as accident-prone areas. In 1944, the fire service was extended to the neighboring cities of Lalitpur and Bhaktapur. In 1966, a fire service was established in Kathmandu airport. In 1975, a West German government donation added seven fire engines to Kathmandu's fire service. The fire service in the city is also overlooked by an international non-governmental organization, the Firefighters Volunteer Association of Nepal (FAN), which was established in 2000 with the purpose of raising public awareness about fire and improving safety.
What was the population of Kathmandu in 1991?
5735b876dc94161900571f4a
427,045
186
False
About how many people are likely to live in Kathmandu in 2021?
5735b876dc94161900571f4b
1,319,597
280
False
How dense was the population of Kathmandu in 1991?
5735b876dc94161900571f4c
85
501
False
How many acres of land did the KMC control in 2001?
5735b876dc94161900571f4d
20,300
425
False
Over the years the city has been home to people of various ethnicities, resulting in a range of different traditions and cultural practices. In one decade, the population increased from 427,045 in 1991 to 671,805 in 2001. The population was projected to reach 915,071 in 2011 and 1,319,597 by 2021. To keep up this population growth, the KMC-controlled area of 5,076.6 hectares (12,545 acres) has expanded to 8,214 hectares (20,300 acres) in 2001. With this new area, the population density which was 85 in 1991 is still 85 in 2001; it is likely to jump to 111 in 2011 and 161 in 2021.
What percentage of Kathmandu residents are Chettris?
5735b8cde853931400426ae3
18.5
136
False
What is the third largest ethnic group in Kathmandu?
5735b8cde853931400426ae4
Khas Brahmins
99
False
What are Kathmandu's primary religions?
5735b8cde853931400426ae5
Hinduism and Buddhism
512
False
What Kathmandu industry is particularly known for its English speakers?
5735b8cde853931400426ae6
service
470
False
Along with Nepali, what is Kathmandu's main language?
5735b8cde853931400426ae7
Nepal Bhasa
400
False
The largest ethnic groups are Newar (29.6%), Matwali (25.1% Sunuwar, Gurung, Magars, Tamang etc.), Khas Brahmins (20.51%) and Chettris (18.5%) . Tamangs originating from surrounding hill districts can be seen in Kathmandu. More recently, other hill ethnic groups and Caste groups from Terai have come to represent a substantial proportion of the city's population. The major languages are Nepali and Nepal Bhasa, while English is understood by many, particularly in the service industry. The major religions are Hinduism and Buddhism.
What religion does Changunarayan belong to?
5735ba07dc94161900571f52
Hindu
848
False
What Buddhist monuments are present at Boudhanath?
5735ba07dc94161900571f53
stupas
911
False
How many acres are the Kathmandu valley monument zones?
5735ba07dc94161900571f54
466.9
613
False
In hectares, how large is the Kathmandu valley monument buffer zone?
5735ba07dc94161900571f55
239.34
661
False
When did the Kathmandu valley monuments receive WHS status?
5735ba07dc94161900571f56
2006
468
False
The ancient trade route between India and Tibet that passed through Kathmandu enabled a fusion of artistic and architectural traditions from other cultures to be amalgamated with local art and architecture. The monuments of Kathmandu City have been influenced over the centuries by Hindu and Buddhist religious practices. The architectural treasure of the Kathmandu valley has been categorized under the well-known seven groups of heritage monuments and buildings. In 2006 UNESCO declared these seven groups of monuments as a World Heritage Site (WHS). The seven monuments zones cover an area of 188.95 hectares (466.9 acres), with the buffer zone extending to 239.34 hectares (591.4 acres). The Seven Monument Zones (Mzs) inscribed originally in 1979 and with a minor modification in 2006 are Durbar squares of Hanuman Dhoka, Patan and Bhaktapur, Hindu temples of Pashupatinath and Changunarayan, the Buddhist stupas of Swayambhu and Boudhanath.
Where is a Durban Square located that is not preserved?
5735ba6ee853931400426aed
Kirtipur
146
False
What is the oldest dynasty to be represented with buildings in Kathmandu's Durbar Square?
5735ba6ee853931400426aee
Licchavi
331
False
How many temples are present in Kathmandu's Durbar Square?
5735ba6ee853931400426aef
50
365
False
When did a notable earthquake occur that damaged Kathmandu's Durbar Square?
5735ba6ee853931400426af0
April 2015
610
False
How many kingdoms have buildings present in the Durbar Square of Kathmandu?
5735ba6ee853931400426af1
four
254
False
The literal meaning of Durbar Square is a "place of palaces". There are three preserved Durbar Squares in Kathmandu valley and one unpreserved in Kirtipur. The Durbar Square of Kathmandu is located in the old city and has heritage buildings representing four kingdoms (Kantipur, Lalitpur, Bhaktapur, Kirtipur); the earliest is the Licchavi dynasty. The complex has 50 temples and is distributed in two quadrangles of the Durbar Square. The outer quadrangle has the Kasthamandap, Kumari Ghar, and Shiva-Parvati Temple; the inner quadrangle has the Hanuman Dhoka palace. The squares were severely damaged in the April 2015 Nepal earthquake.
What is Durga called in Nepali?
5735bb2adc94161900571f65
Taleju
421
False
How long is Kumari believed to incarnate Taleju?
5735bb2adc94161900571f66
until she menstruates
456
False
Who was the Royal Kumari as of late 2008?
5735bb2adc94161900571f67
Matina Shakya
675
False
What type of government did Nepal have after the monarchy?
5735bb2adc94161900571f68
Maoist
737
False
Kumari Ghar is a palace in the center of the Kathmandu city, next to the Durbar square where a Royal Kumari selected from several Kumaris resides. Kumari, or Kumari Devi, is the tradition of worshipping young pre-pubescent girls as manifestations of the divine female energy or devi in South Asian countries. In Nepal the selection process is very rigorous. Kumari is believed to be the bodily incarnation of the goddess Taleju (the Nepali name for Durga) until she menstruates, after which it is believed that the goddess vacates her body. Serious illness or a major loss of blood from an injury are also causes for her to revert to common status. The current Royal Kumari, Matina Shakya, age four, was installed in October 2008 by the Maoist government that replaced the monarchy.
When was the Pashupatinath Temple built?
5735bb89e853931400426af7
5th century
37
False
What faith does the Pashupatinath Temple serve?
5735bb89e853931400426af8
Hindu
49
False
What is another name for Pashupati?
5735bb89e853931400426af9
Lord Shiva
75
False
Prior to the secularization of Nepal, who was the country's national god?
5735bb89e853931400426afa
Lord Pashupatinath
278
False
Who damaged the Pashupatinath Temple in the 14th century?
5735bb89e853931400426afb
Mughal invaders
386
False
The Pashupatinath Temple is a famous 5th century Hindu temple dedicated to Lord Shiva (Pashupati). Located on the banks of the Bagmati River in the eastern part of Kathmandu, Pashupatinath Temple is the oldest Hindu temple in Kathmandu. It served as the seat of national deity, Lord Pashupatinath, until Nepal was secularized. However, a significant part of the temple was destroyed by Mughal invaders in the 14th century and little or nothing remains of the original 5th-century temple exterior. The temple as it stands today was built in the 19th century, although the image of the bull and the black four-headed image of Pashupati are at least 300 years old. The temple is a UNESCO World Heritage Site. Shivaratri, or the night of Lord Shiva, is the most important festival that takes place here, attracting thousands of devotees and sadhus.[citation needed]
What people make up the majority of Pashupatinath followers?
5735bca5dc94161900571f77
Hindus
35
False
In what part of India do the Pashupatinath priests originate?
5735bca5dc94161900571f78
South
266
False
What dynasty did Yaksha Malla belong to?
5735bca5dc94161900571f79
Malla
296
False
Who supposedly encouraged the usage of Karnataka Brahmin priests at Pashupatinath Temple?
5735bca5dc94161900571f7a
Adi Shankaracharya
387
False
What is another term for Bharatam?
5735bca5dc94161900571f7b
Unified India
450
False
Believers in Pashupatinath (mainly Hindus) are allowed to enter the temple premises, but non-Hindu visitors are allowed to view the temple only from the across the Bagmati River. The priests who perform the services at this temple have been Brahmins from Karnataka, South India since the time of Malla king Yaksha Malla. This tradition is believed to have been started at the request of Adi Shankaracharya who sought to unify the states of Bharatam (Unified India) by encouraging cultural exchange. This procedure is followed in other temples around India, which were sanctified by Adi Shankaracharya.
To what religion is Boudhanath holy?
5735bd01dc94161900571f81
Buddhist
109
False
What do the Newars call Boudhanath?
5735bd01dc94161900571f82
Khāsti
214
False
What is Boudhanath called in Nepali?
5735bd01dc94161900571f83
Bauddha or Bodhnāth
238
False
How far is Boudhanath from Kathmandu in miles?
5735bd01dc94161900571f84
7
302
False
When did UNESCO make Boudhanath a World Heritage Site?
5735bd01dc94161900571f85
1979
498
False
The Boudhanath, (also written Bouddhanath, Bodhnath, Baudhanath or the Khāsa Chaitya), is one of the holiest Buddhist sites in Nepal, along with Swayambhu. It is a very popular tourist site. Boudhanath is known as Khāsti by Newars and as Bauddha or Bodhnāth by speakers of Nepali. Located about 11 km (7 mi) from the center and northeastern outskirts of Kathmandu, the stupa's massive mandala makes it one of the largest spherical stupas in Nepal. Boudhanath became a UNESCO World Heritage Site in 1979.
Who is pictured on the stupa's base?
5735be65e853931400426b15
Dhyani Buddha Amitabha
54
False
What is Ajima the deity of?
5735be65e853931400426b16
smallpox
309
False
What are gompas?
5735be65e853931400426b17
monasteries
719
False
Visitors from what faith routinely visit the stupa?
5735be65e853931400426b18
Tibetan Buddhist
354
False
What mantra is engraved on the stupa's prayer wheels?
5735be65e853931400426b19
om mani padme hum
193
False
The base of the stupa has 108 small depictions of the Dhyani Buddha Amitabha. It is surrounded with a brick wall with 147 niches, each with four or five prayer wheels engraved with the mantra, om mani padme hum. At the northern entrance where visitors must pass is a shrine dedicated to Ajima, the goddess of smallpox. Every year the stupa attracts many Tibetan Buddhist pilgrims who perform full body prostrations in the inner lower enclosure, walk around the stupa with prayer wheels, chant, and pray. Thousands of prayer flags are hoisted up from the top of the stupa downwards and dot the perimeter of the complex. The influx of many Tibetan refugees from China has seen the construction of over 50 Tibetan gompas (monasteries) around Boudhanath.
In what part of Kathmandu is Swayambhu located?
5735bed6dc94161900571f8b
northwestern
52
False
What faith does Swayambhu belong to?
5735bed6dc94161900571f8c
Buddhist
15
False
Other than Buddhists, who worships at Swayambhu?
5735bed6dc94161900571f8d
Hindus
212
False
In how many directions does the Buddha of Swayambhu look?
5735bed6dc94161900571f8e
four
344
False
In Swayambhu, what is present in the small area above the tiers?
5735bed6dc94161900571f8f
gajur
588
False
Swayambhu is a Buddhist stupa atop a hillock at the northwestern part of the city. This is among the oldest religious sites in Nepal. Although the site is considered Buddhist, it is revered by both Buddhists and Hindus. The stupa consists of a dome at the base; above the dome, there is a cubic structure with the eyes of Buddha looking in all four directions.[clarification needed] There are pentagonal Toran above each of the four sides, with statues engraved on them. Behind and above the torana there are thirteen tiers. Above all the tiers, there is a small space above which lies a gajur.
Kathmandu valley contains art made of metal, terracotta, wood and what other substance?
5735bf26e853931400426b28
stone
109
False
What is the most typical type of art in the Kathmandu valley?
5735bf26e853931400426b29
icons
344
False
In what year could Nepal be said to have been discovered by the outside world?
5735bf26e853931400426b2a
1950
527
False
Kathmandu valley is described as "an enormous treasure house of art and sculptures", which are made of wood, stone, metal, and terracotta, and found in profusion in temples, shrines, stupas, gompas, chaityasm and palaces. The art objects are also seen in street corners, lanes, private courtyards and in open ground. Most art is in the form of icons of gods and goddesses. Kathmandu valley has had this art treasure for a very long time, but received worldwide recognition only after the country opened to the outside world in 1950.
What types of deities are Bhavani and Durga?
5735bf8cdc94161900571f95
Mother Goddesses
94
False
What is Sri-Lakshmi a deity of?
5735bf8cdc94161900571f96
wealth
237
False
By tradition, what notable figure came to Nepal 250 years before the birth of Christ?
5735bf8cdc94161900571f97
Ashoka
380
False
When did the Licchavi period end?
5735bf8cdc94161900571f98
900
598
False
What is another name for the Licchavi period?
5735bf8cdc94161900571f99
classical
573
False
The religious art of Nepal and Kathmandu in particular consists of an iconic symbolism of the Mother Goddesses such as: Bhavani, Durga, Gaja-Lakshmi, Hariti-Sitala, Mahsishamardini, Saptamatrika (seven mother goddesses), and Sri-Lakshmi(wealth-goddess). From the 3rd century BC, apart from the Hindu gods and goddesses, Buddhist monuments from the Ashokan period (it is said that Ashoka visited Nepal in 250 BC) have embellished Nepal in general and the valley in particular. These art and architectural edifices encompass three major periods of evolution: the Licchavi or classical period (500 to 900 AD), the post-classical period (1000 to 1400 AD), with strong influence of the Palla art form; the Malla period (1400 onwards) that exhibited explicitly tantric influences coupled with the art of Tibetan Demonology.
Along with the National Museum of Nepal, what notable Nepalese museum is present in Kathmandu?
5735c028e853931400426b35
Natural History Museum of Nepal
107
False
From what time period are the oldest artifacts in Kathmandu museums?
5735c028e853931400426b36
5th century
658
False
Along with Buddhism, what religion has had a significant influence on Nepal?
5735c028e853931400426b37
Hinduism
214
False
What Kathmandu valley area was named a World Heritage Site by UNESCO?
5735c028e853931400426b38
Monument Zones
353
False
How many Monument Zones are present in the Kathmandu valley?
5735c028e853931400426b39
seven
334
False
Kathmandu is home to a number of museums and art galleries, including the National Museum of Nepal and the Natural History Museum of Nepal. Nepal's art and architecture is an amalgamation of two ancient religions, Hinduism and Buddhhism. These are amply reflected in the many temples, shrines, stupas, monasteries, and palaces in the seven well-defined Monument Zones of the Kathmandu valley are part of a UNESCO World Heritage Site. This amalgamation is also reflected in the planning and exhibitions in museums and art galleries throughout Kathmandu and its sister cities of Patan and Bhaktapur. The museums display unique artifacts and paintings from the 5th century CE to the present day, including archeological exportation.
In what area of Kathmandu is the National Museum?
5735c081e853931400426b3f
western
38
False
What stupa is close to the National Museum?
5735c081e853931400426b40
Swayambhunath
74
False
Who built the building that contains the National Museum?
5735c081e853931400426b41
Bhimsen Thapa
188
False
When was the National Museum founded?
5735c081e853931400426b42
1928
382
False
What does Chhauni Silkhana mean?
5735c081e853931400426b43
the stone house of arms and ammunition
505
False
The National Museum is located in the western part of Kathmandu, near the Swayambhunath stupa in an historical building. This building was constructed in the early 19th century by General Bhimsen Thapa. It is the most important museum in the country, housing an extensive collection of weapons, art and antiquities of historic and cultural importance. The museum was established in 1928 as a collection house of war trophies and weapons, and the initial name of this museum was Chhauni Silkhana, meaning "the stone house of arms and ammunition". Given its focus, the museum contains many weapons, including locally made firearms used in wars, leather cannons from the 18th–19th century, and medieval and modern works in wood, bronze, stone and paintings.
When did Tribhuvan die?
5735c0d8e853931400426b49
1955
76
False
What was the birth year of King Mahendra?
5735c0d8e853931400426b4a
1920
345
False
How many museums are in the Hanumandhoka Palace?
5735c0d8e853931400426b4b
three
656
False
Who was the penultimate king of Nepal?
5735c0d8e853931400426b4c
Birendra
803
False
During what era was the Hanumandhoka Palace constructed?
5735c0d8e853931400426b4d
medieval
608
False
The Tribhuvan Museum contains artifacts related to the King Tribhuvan (1906–1955). It has a variety of pieces including his personal belongings, letters and papers, memorabilia related to events he was involved in and a rare collection of photos and paintings of Royal family members. The Mahendra Museum is dedicated to king Mahendra of Nepal (1920–1972). Like the Tribhuvan Museum, it includes his personal belongings such as decorations, stamps, coins and personal notes and manuscripts, but it also has structural reconstructions of his cabinet room and office chamber. The Hanumandhoka Palace, a lavish medieval palace complex in the Durbar, contains three separate museums of historic importance. These museums include the Birendra museum, which contains items related to the second-last monarch, Birendra of Nepal.
Where in Kathmandu is Narayanhity Palace Museum located?
5735c1dedc94161900571fba
north-central
65
False
In what year was Narayanhity constructed?
5735c1dedc94161900571fbb
1970
415
False
Whose marriage led to the construction of Narayanhity?
5735c1dedc94161900571fbc
Birenda Bir Bikram Shah
511
False
How many acres is the Narayanhity Palace?
5735c1dedc94161900571fbd
74
696
False
What god is Narayana?
5735c1dedc94161900571fbe
Vishnu
162
False
The enclosed compound of the Narayanhity Palace Museum is in the north-central part of Kathmandu. "Narayanhity" comes from Narayana, a form of the Hindu god Lord Vishnu, and Hiti, meaning "water spout" (Vishnu's temple is located opposite the palace, and the water spout is located east of the main entrance to the precinct). Narayanhity was a new palace, in front of the old palace built in 1915, and was built in 1970 in the form of a contemporary Pagoda. It was built on the occasion of the marriage of King Birenda Bir Bikram Shah, then heir apparent to the throne. The southern gate of the palace is at the crossing of Prithvipath and Darbar Marg roads. The palace area covers (30 hectares (74 acres)) and is fully secured with gates on all sides. This palace was the scene of the Nepali royal massacre. After the fall of the monarchy, it was converted to a museum.
What is the Taragaon Museum dedicated to?
5735c26adc94161900571fc4
modern history of the Kathmandu Valley
33
False
Who is the designer of the Taragaon Museum?
5735c26adc94161900571fc5
Carl Pruscha
457
False
In what year was the Taragaon Museum built?
5735c26adc94161900571fc6
1971
539
False
What stupa is located close to the Taragaon Museum?
5735c26adc94161900571fc7
Boudhnath
812
False
What was the Taragaon Museum prior to being a museum?
5735c26adc94161900571fc8
hostel
606
False
The Taragaon Museum presents the modern history of the Kathmandu Valley. It seeks to document 50 years of research and cultural heritage conservation of the Kathmandu Valley, documenting what artists photographers architects anthropologists from abroad had contributed in the second half of the 20th century. The actual structure of the Museum showcases restoration and rehabilitation efforts to preserve the built heritage of Kathmandu. It was designed by Carl Pruscha (master-planner of the Kathmandy Valley ) in 1970 and constructed in 1971. Restoration works began in 2010 to rehabilitate the Taragaon hostel into the Taragaon Museum. The design uses local brick along with modern architectural design elements, as well as the use of circle, triangles and squares. The Museum is within a short walk from the Boudhnath stupa, which itself can be seen from the Museum tower.
Contemporary Kathmandu art combines traditional influences with what type of art?
5735c2e7dc94161900571fce
modern
292
False
How many types are Nepali works of art typically divided into?
5735c2e7dc94161900571fcf
two
411
False
What do the Tibetans call traditional idealistic paintings?
5735c2e7dc94161900571fd0
Thangkas
519
False
What UK charity works on behalf of Kathmandu art?
5735c2e7dc94161900571fd1
Kathmandu Contemporary Art Centre
846
False
What do the Nepalese call Thangkas?
5735c2e7dc94161900571fd2
Paubhas
467
False
Kathmandu is a center for art in Nepal, displaying the work of contemporary artists in the country and also collections of historical artists. Patan in particular is an ancient city noted for its fine arts and crafts. Art in Kathmandu is vibrant, demonstrating a fusion of traditionalism and modern art, derived from a great number of national, Asian, and global influences. Nepali art is commonly divided into two areas: the idealistic traditional painting known as Paubhas in Nepal and perhaps more commonly known as Thangkas in Tibet, closely linked to the country's religious history and on the other hand the contemporary western-style painting, including nature-based compositions or abstract artwork based on Tantric elements and social themes of which painters in Nepal are well noted for. Internationally, the British-based charity, the Kathmandu Contemporary Art Centre is involved with promoting arts in Kathmandu.
Where can one find the Srijana Contemporary Art Gallery?
5735c37cdc94161900571fe2
Bhrikutimandap Exhibition grounds
57
False
The Moti Azima Gallery contains objects that might be found in a Nepalese house of what time period?
5735c37cdc94161900571fe3
medieval
445
False
What art gallery is located close to the Durbarmarg Royal Palace?
5735c37cdc94161900571fe4
J
520
False
Where can the Nepal Art Council Gallery be found?
5735c37cdc94161900571fe5
Babar Mahal
723
False
In which of Nepal's art galleries can one take an art class?
5735c37cdc94161900571fe6
Srijana Contemporary Art Gallery
4
False
The Srijana Contemporary Art Gallery, located inside the Bhrikutimandap Exhibition grounds, hosts the work of contemporary painters and sculptors, and regularly organizes exhibitions. It also runs morning and evening classes in the schools of art. Also of note is the Moti Azima Gallery, located in a three storied building in Bhimsenthan which contains an impressive collection of traditional utensils and handmade dolls and items typical of a medieval Newar house, giving an important insight into Nepali history. The J Art Gallery is also located in Kathmandu, near the Royal Palace in Durbarmarg, Kathmandu and displays the artwork of eminent, established Nepali painters. The Nepal Art Council Gallery, located in the Babar Mahal, on the way to Tribhuvan International Airport contains artwork of both national and international artists and extensive halls regularly used for art exhibitions.
How many volumes are contained in Nepal's National Library?
5735c3d0dc94161900571fec
70,000
107
False
Along with Hindi, Sanskrit, Nepali and English, the National Library contains books in what language?
5735c3d0dc94161900571fed
Nepal Bhasa
159
False
What government department is located in the same building as the Kaiser Library?
5735c3d0dc94161900571fee
Ministry of Education
402
False
How many volumes does the Kaiser Library contain?
5735c3d0dc94161900571fef
45,000
460
False
Who did the Kaiser Library's books previously belong to?
5735c3d0dc94161900571ff0
Kaiser Shamsher Jang Bahadur Rana
514
False
The National Library of Nepal is located in Patan. It is the largest library in the country with more than 70,000 books. English, Nepali, Sanskrit, Hindi, and Nepal Bhasa books are found here. The library is in possession of rare scholarly books in Sanskrit and English dating from the 17th century AD. Kathmandu also contains the Kaiser Library, located in the Kaiser Mahal on the ground floor of the Ministry of Education building. This collection of around 45,000 books is derived from a personal collection of Kaiser Shamsher Jang Bahadur Rana. It covers a wide range of subjects including history, law, art, religion, and philosophy, as well as a Sanskrit manual of Tantra, which is believed to be over 1,000 years old. The 2015 earthquake caused severe damage to the Ministry of Education building, and the contents of the Kaiser Library have been temporarily relocated.
Where can the National Dance Theatre be found in Kathmandu?
5735c421dc94161900571ffb
Kanti Path
125
False
What year saw the beginning of the Aarohan Theater Group?
5735c421dc94161900571ffc
1982
219
False
What gathering is the work of the Gurukul School of Theatre?
5735c421dc94161900571ffd
Kathmandu International Theater Festival
310
False
Who constructed the theater in Hanumandhoka Durbar Square?
5735c421dc94161900571ffe
Durbar Conservation and Promotion Committee
481
False
Kathmandu is home to Nepali cinema and theaters. The city contains several theaters, including the National Dance Theatre in Kanti Path, the Ganga Theatre, the Himalayan Theatre and the Aarohan Theater Group founded in 1982. The M. Art Theater is based in the city. The Gurukul School of Theatre organizes the Kathmandu International Theater Festival, attracting artists from all over the world. A mini theater is also located at the Hanumandhoka Durbar Square, established by the Durbar Conservation and Promotion Committee.
What meat is very rarely eaten in Kathmandu?
5735c47ae853931400426b63
beef
189
False
What animal does buff come from?
5735c47ae853931400426b64
water buffalo
262
False
What people are particularly known for eating buff?
5735c47ae853931400426b65
Newars
372
False
What cuisine notably makes use of pork?
5735c47ae853931400426b66
Kirat
518
False
What do Kathmandu residents typically eat for breakfast?
5735c47ae853931400426b67
Momo or Chowmein
870
False
Most of the cuisines found in Kathmandu are non-vegetarian. However, the practice of vegetarianism is not uncommon, and vegetarian cuisines can be found throughout the city. Consumption of beef is very uncommon and considered taboo in many places. Buff (meat of water buffalo) is very common. There is a strong tradition of buff consumption in Kathmandu, especially among Newars, which is not found in other parts of Nepal. Consumption of pork was considered taboo until a few decades ago. Due to the intermixing with Kirat cuisine from eastern Nepal, pork has found a place in Kathmandu dishes. A fringe population of devout Hindus and Muslims consider it taboo. The Muslims forbid eating buff as from Quran while Hindus eat all varieties except Cow's meat as the consider Cow to be a goddess and symbol of purity. The chief breakfast for locals and visitors is mostly Momo or Chowmein.
How many restaurants in the western style were present in Kathmandu circa 1955?
5735c50be853931400426b6d
one
19
False
What chain restaurants are present in Kathmandu?
5735c50be853931400426b6e
Pizza Hut and KFC
718
False
How is the egg in American chop suey prepared?
5735c50be853931400426b6f
fried
513
False
Along with locals and tourists, who eats at Kathmandu's restaurants?
5735c50be853931400426b70
expatriates
269
False
Along with Nepali, Indian and Chinese cuisines, what cuisine has been a focus of Kathmandu restaurants?
5735c50be853931400426b71
Tibetan
144
False
Kathmandu had only one western-style restaurant in 1955. A large number of restaurants in Kathmandu have since opened, catering Nepali cuisine, Tibetan cuisine, Chinese cuisine and Indian cuisine in particular. Many other restaurants have opened to accommodate locals, expatriates, and tourists. The growth of tourism in Kathmandu has led to culinary creativity and the development of hybrid foods to accommodate for tourists such as American chop suey, which is a sweet-and-sour sauce with crispy noodles with a fried egg commonly added on top and other westernized adaptations of traditional cuisine. Continental cuisine can be found in selected places. International chain restaurants are rare, but some outlets of Pizza Hut and KFC have recently opened there. It also has several outlets of the international ice-cream chain Baskin-Robbins
What beverage is consumed by more people in Kathmandu, coffee or tea?
5735c7d26c16ec1900b927af
tea
37
False
How might a western traveler find the tea served in Kathmandu?
5735c7d26c16ec1900b927b0
extremely weak
100
False
What is used to make thwon?
5735c7d26c16ec1900b927b1
rice
411
False
What are bhattis?
5735c7d26c16ec1900b927b2
alcohol serving eateries
491
False
What goes through a fermentation process to create tongba?
5735c7d26c16ec1900b927b3
millet or barley
546
False
Kathmandu has a larger proportion of tea drinkers than coffee drinkers. Tea is widely served but is extremely weak by western standards. It is richer and contains tea leaves boiled with milk, sugar and spices. Alcohol is widely drunk, and there are numerous local variants of alcoholic beverages. Drinking and driving is illegal, and authorities have a zero tolerance policy. Ailaa and thwon (alcohol made from rice) are the alcoholic beverages of Kathmandu, found in all the local bhattis (alcohol serving eateries). Chhyaang, tongba (fermented millet or barley) and rakshi are alcoholic beverages from other parts of Nepal which are found in Kathmandu. However, shops and bars in Kathmandu widely sell western and Nepali beers.
To what era do a majority of Kathmandu's festivals date back to?
5735c8876c16ec1900b927be
Malla
63
False
Before the modern era, who mostly celebrated Kathmandu festivals?
5735c8876c16ec1900b927bf
Newars
138
False
In what direction out of Kathmandu did the Khas originate from?
5735c8876c16ec1900b927c0
west
404
False
What does Ghode mean?
5735c8876c16ec1900b927c1
horse
567
False
In relation to Kathmandu, where do the Tibetans hale?
5735c8876c16ec1900b927c2
north
453
False
Most of the fairs and festivals in Kathmandu originated in the Malla period or earlier. Traditionally, these festivals were celebrated by Newars. In recent years, these festivals have found wider participation from other Kathmanduites as well. As the capital of the Republic of Nepal, various national festivals are celebrated in Kathmandu. With mass migration to the city, the cultures of Khas from the west, Kirats from the east, Bon/Tibetan from the north, and Mithila from the south meet in the capital and mingle harmoniously. The festivities such as the Ghode (horse) Jatra, Indra Jatra, Dashain Durga Puja festivals, Shivratri and many more are observed by all Hindu and Buddhist communities of Kathmandu with devotional fervor and enthusiasm. Social regulation in the codes enacted incorporate Hindu traditions and ethics. These were followed by the Shah kings and previous kings, as devout Hindus and protectors of Buddhist religion.
In addition to Hindus, who regards the Bagmati River as sacred?
5735c92f012e2f140011a044
Buddhists
94
False
What is done with Hindus after they die?
5735c92f012e2f140011a045
cremated
236
False
What are done with the bodies of Kirants after death?
5735c92f012e2f140011a046
buried
275
False
In a Hindu funeral, who is typically the main mourner?
5735c92f012e2f140011a047
first son
456
False
Before Hindus are cremated, how many times are their bodies placed in the Bagmati?
5735c92f012e2f140011a048
three
378
False
The Bagmati River which flows through Kathmandu is considered a holy river both by Hindus and Buddhists, and many Hindu temples are located on the banks of this river. The importance of the Bagmati also lies in the fact that Hindus are cremated on its banks, and Kirants are buried in the hills by its side. According to the Nepali Hindu tradition, the dead body must be dipped three times into the Bagmati before cremation. The chief mourner (usually the first son) who lights the funeral pyre must take a holy riverwater bath immediately after cremation. Many relatives who join the funeral procession also take bath in the Bagmati River or sprinkle the holy water on their bodies at the end of cremation as the Bagmati is believed to purify people spiritually.
In what century was Bhrikuti said to live?
5735c9dd6c16ec1900b927d5
7th
29
False
When did Araniko die?
5735c9dd6c16ec1900b927d6
1306
69
False
What religion did Araniko help to evangelize?
5735c9dd6c16ec1900b927d7
Buddhism
157
False
How many Newar Buddhist monasteries are present in Kathmandu?
5735c9dd6c16ec1900b927d8
108
201
False
Approximately how many monasteries in the Kathmandu area are run by Tibetan Buddhists?
5735c9dd6c16ec1900b927d9
fifty
409
False
Legendary Princess Bhrikuti (7th-century) and artist Araniko (1245 - 1306 AD) from that tradition of Kathmandu valley played a significant role in spreading Buddhism in Tibet and China. There are over 108 traditional monasteries (Bahals and Bahis) in Kathmandu based on Newar Buddhism. Since the 1960s, the permanent Tibetan Buddhist population of Kathmandu has risen significantly so that there are now over fifty Tibetan Buddhist monasteries in the area. Also, with the modernization of Newar Buddhism, various Theravada Bihars have been established.
What type of religion is Kirant Mundhum?
5735ca406c16ec1900b927df
animistic
40
False
Who follows the Kirant Mudhum faith?
5735ca406c16ec1900b927e0
Kirat people
89
False
Who worshipped at Wanga Akash Bhairabh in ancient times?
5735ca406c16ec1900b927e1
Kirats
293
False
What is another name for ancestor worship?
5735ca406c16ec1900b927e2
worship of Ajima
171
False
Kirant Mundhum is one of the indigenous animistic practices of Nepal. It is practiced by Kirat people. Some animistic aspects of Kirant beliefs, such as ancestor worship (worship of Ajima) are also found in Newars of Kirant origin. Ancient religious sites believed to be worshipped by ancient Kirats, such as Pashupatinath, Wanga Akash Bhairabh (Yalambar) and Ajima are now worshipped by people of all Dharmic religions in Kathmandu. Kirats who have migrated from other parts of Nepal to Kathmandu practice Mundhum in the city.
Where can a temple of the Jain faith be found?
5735cc33012e2f140011a068
Gyaneshwar
209
False
Kathmandu valley is home to about how many Baha'i?
5735cc33012e2f140011a069
300
355
False
Where is the Baha'i national office located in Nepal?
5735cc33012e2f140011a06a
Shantinagar, Baneshwor
427
False
About what percentage of the Nepali population follows Islam?
5735cc33012e2f140011a06b
4.2
633
False
About how many Christian houses of worship exist in Kathmandu?
5735cc33012e2f140011a06c
170
728
False
Sikhism is practiced primarily in Gurudwara at Kupundole. An earlier temple of Sikhism is also present in Kathmandu which is now defunct. Jainism is practiced by a small community. A Jain temple is present in Gyaneshwar, where Jains practice their faith. According to the records of the Spiritual Assembly of the Baha'is of Nepal, there are approximately 300 Baha'is in Kathmandu valley. They have a National Office located in Shantinagar, Baneshwor. The Baha'is also have classes for children at the National Centre and other localities in Kathmandu. Islam is practised in Kathmandu but Muslims are a minority, accounting for about 4.2% of the population of Nepal.[citation needed] It is said that in Kathmandu alone there are 170 Christian churches. Christian missionary hospitals, welfare organizations, and schools are also operating. Nepali citizens who served as soldiers in Indian and British armies, who had converted to Christianity while in service, on return to Nepal continue to practice their religion. They have contributed to the spread of Christianity and the building of churches in Nepal and in Kathmandu, in particular.
Of what university is the Institute of Medicine a constituent college?
5735d0026c16ec1900b92815
Tribhuwan
46
False
In what part of Kathmandu is the Institute of Medicine found?
5735d0026c16ec1900b92816
Maharajgunj
123
False
When did the Institute of Medicine begin to offer education in medicine?
5735d0026c16ec1900b92817
1978
219
False
What does KUSMS stand for?
5735d0026c16ec1900b92818
Kathmandu University School of Medical Sciences
425
False
What institution of tertiary education is known as NAMS?
5735d0026c16ec1900b92819
National Academy of Medical Sciences
377
False
Institute of Medicine, the central college of Tribhuwan University is the first medical college of Nepal and is located in Maharajgunj, Kathmandu. It was established in 1972 and started to impart medical education from 1978. A number of medical colleges including Kathmandu Medical College, Nepal Medical College, KIST Medical College, Nepal Army Institute of Health Sciences, National Academy of Medical Sciences (NAMS) and Kathmandu University School of Medical Sciences (KUSMS), are also located in or around Kathmandu.
Along with cricket, what sport is highly popular among Nepali youth?
5735d07d012e2f140011a087
Football
0
False
What body oversees soccer in Nepal?
5735d07d012e2f140011a088
All Nepal Football Association
160
False
How many people can fit in Dasarath Rangasala Stadium?
5735d07d012e2f140011a089
25,000
498
False
In what part of Kathmandu is Dasarath Rangasala Stadium located?
5735d07d012e2f140011a08a
Tripureshwor
430
False
Who assisted Nepal in renovating Dasarath Rangasala Stadium?
5735d07d012e2f140011a08b
Chinese
628
False
Football and Cricket are the most popular sports among the younger generation in Nepal and there are several stadiums in the city. The sport is governed by the All Nepal Football Association (ANFA) from its headquarters in Kathmandu. The only international football stadium in the city is the Dasarath Rangasala Stadium, a multi-purpose stadium used mostly for football matches and cultural events, located in the neighborhood of Tripureshwor. It is the largest stadium in Nepal with a capacity of 25,000 spectators, built in 1956. Martyr's Memorial League is also held in this ground every year. The stadium was renovated with Chinese help before the 8th South Asian Games were held in Kathmandu and had floodlights installed. Kathmandu is home to the oldest football clubs of Nepal such as RCT, Sankata and NRT. Other prominent clubs include MMC, Machhindra FC, Tribhuwan Army Club (TAC) and MPC.
As of 2004, how many kilometers of road existed in Nepal?
5735d0f46c16ec1900b92823
17,182
54
False
Why is travel in Kathmandu mainly via automobile or aircraft?
5735d0f46c16ec1900b92824
hilly terrain
289
False
What highway connecting Kathmandu to elsewhere in Nepal is currently being built?
5735d0f46c16ec1900b92825
BP
500
False
In what direction out of Kathmandu does the Prithvi Highway travel?
5735d0f46c16ec1900b92826
west
457
False
If one wished to travel north out of Kathmandu, what highway would be used?
5735d0f46c16ec1900b92827
Araniko
466
False
The total length of roads in Nepal is recorded to be (17,182 km (10,676 mi)), as of 2003–04. This fairly large network has helped the economic development of the country, particularly in the fields of agriculture, horticulture, vegetable farming, industry and also tourism. In view of the hilly terrain, transportation takes place in Kathmandu are mainly by road and air. Kathmandu is connected by the Tribhuvan Highway to the south, Prithvi Highway to the west and Araniko Highway to the north. The BP Highway, connecting Kathmandu to the eastern part of Nepal is under construction.
What is Nepal's primary airport for international travel?
5735d1a86c16ec1900b92831
Tribhuvan International Airport
71
False
Starting in the center of Kathmandu, how many kilometers must one travel to reach Tribhuvan International Airport?
5735d1a86c16ec1900b92832
6
134
False
How many airlines use Tribhuvan International for international flights?
5735d1a86c16ec1900b92833
22
297
False
From what city does Arkefly offer nonstop flights to Kathmandu?
5735d1a86c16ec1900b92834
Amsterdam
698
False
Who operates flights between Kathmandu and Istanbul?
5735d1a86c16ec1900b92835
Turkish Airlines
734
False
The main international airport serving Kathmandu and thus Nepal is the Tribhuvan International Airport, located about six kilometers (6 km (3.7 mi)) from the city centre. Operated by the Civil Aviation Authority of Nepal it has two terminals, one domestic and one international. At present, about 22 international airlines connect Nepal to other destinations in Europe, Asia and the Middle East, to cities such as Istanbul, Delhi, Kolkata, Singapore, Bangkok, Kuala Lumpur, Dhaka, Islamabad, Paro, Lhasa, Chengdu, and Guangzhou. A recent extension to the international terminal has made the distance to the airplanes shorter and in October 2009 it became possible to fly directly to Kathmandu from Amsterdam with Arkefly. Since 2013, Turkish Airlines connects Istanbul to Kathmandu. Regionally, several Nepali airlines operate from the city, including Agni Air, Buddha Air, Cosmic Air, Nepal Airlines and Yeti Airlines, to other major towns across Nepal.
In what US state did Kathmandu first establish an international relationship?
5735d259012e2f140011a09d
Oregon
229
False
What was Yangon previously known as?
5735d259012e2f140011a09e
Rangoon
414
False
With what Belorussian city does Kathmandu have a relationship?
5735d259012e2f140011a09f
Minsk
476
False
In what year did Kathmandu create its initial international relationship?
5735d259012e2f140011a0a0
1975
199
False
What is KMC an initialism of?
5735d259012e2f140011a0a1
Kathmandu Metropolitan City
0
False
Kathmandu Metropolitan City (KMC), in order to promote international relations has established an International Relations Secretariat (IRC). KMC's first international relationship was established in 1975 with the city of Eugene, Oregon, United States. This activity has been further enhanced by establishing formal relationships with 8 other cities: Motsumoto City of Japan, Rochester of the USA, Yangon (formerly Rangoon) of Myanmar, Xi'an of the People's Republic of China, Minsk of Belarus, and Pyongyang of the Democratic Republic of Korea. KMC's constant endeavor is to enhance its interaction with SAARC countries, other International agencies and many other major cities of the world to achieve better urban management and developmental programs for Kathmandu.
Myocardial_infarction
Myocardial infarction (MI)
0
What is the scientific name for blood flow?
5a6b5bfca9e0c9001a4e9f3a
True
5%
683
What percentage of women have had a heart attack?
5a6b5bfca9e0c9001a4e9f3b
True
30%
553
What percentage of people have chest pain when experiencing an MI?
5a6b5bfca9e0c9001a4e9f3c
True
a heart attack
83
What is heartburn a commonly known as?
5a6b5bfca9e0c9001a4e9f3d
True
more than a few minutes
366
How long does heartburn last?
5a6b5bfca9e0c9001a4e9f3e
True
Myocardial infarction (MI) or acute myocardial infarction (AMI), commonly known as a heart attack, occurs when blood flow stops to a part of the heart causing damage to the heart muscle. The most common symptom is chest pain or discomfort which may travel into the shoulder, arm, back, neck, or jaw. Often it is in the center or left side of the chest and lasts for more than a few minutes. The discomfort may occasionally feel like heartburn. Other symptoms may include shortness of breath, nausea, feeling faint, a cold sweat, or feeling tired. About 30% of people have atypical symptoms, with women more likely than men to present atypically. Among those over 75 years old, about 5% have had an MI with little or no history of symptoms. An MI may cause heart failure, an irregular heartbeat, or cardiac arrest.
ECGs
575
What is used to confirm a artery spasm?
5a6b5d0fa9e0c9001a4e9f44
True
blood tests
701
What test includes cocaine?
5a6b5d0fa9e0c9001a4e9f45
True
a rupture of an atherosclerotic plaque
305
What type of rupture helps prevent MI?
5a6b5d0fa9e0c9001a4e9f46
True
coronary artery spasms
377
What causes extreme cold?
5a6b5d0fa9e0c9001a4e9f47
True
ST elevation
643
What does a coronary angiography look for?
5a6b5d0fa9e0c9001a4e9f48
True
Most MIs occur due to coronary artery disease. Risk factors include high blood pressure, smoking, diabetes, lack of exercise, obesity, high blood cholesterol, poor diet, and excessive alcohol intake, among others. The mechanism of an MI often involves the complete blockage of a coronary artery caused by a rupture of an atherosclerotic plaque. MIs are less commonly caused by coronary artery spasms, which may be due to cocaine, significant emotional stress, and extreme cold, among others. A number of tests are useful to help with diagnosis, including electrocardiograms (ECGs), blood tests, and coronary angiography. An ECG may confirm an ST elevation MI if ST elevation is present. Commonly used blood tests include troponin and less often creatine kinase MB.
Aspirin
0
What drugstore item is a poor treatment for MI?
5a6b5ebba9e0c9001a4e9f4e
True
overall outcomes
157
Supplemental oxygen does not improve what?
5a6b5ebba9e0c9001a4e9f4f
True
aspirin, beta blockers, and statins
883
What medicine is used to remove blockages?
5a6b5ebba9e0c9001a4e9f50
True
angioplasty
384
What surgery is designed to slow blood flow?
5a6b5ebba9e0c9001a4e9f51
True
heparin
606
What blood thinner is used in ST elevation treatments?
5a6b5ebba9e0c9001a4e9f52
True
Aspirin is an appropriate immediate treatment for a suspected MI. Nitroglycerin or opioids may be used to help with chest pain; however, they do not improve overall outcomes. Supplemental oxygen should be used in those with low oxygen levels or shortness of breath. In ST elevation MIs treatments which attempt to restore blood flow to the heart are typically recommended and include angioplasty, where the arteries are pushed open, or thrombolysis, where the blockage is removed using medications. People who have a non-ST elevation myocardial infarction (NSTEMI) are often managed with the blood thinner heparin, with the additional use angioplasty in those at high risk. In people with blockages of multiple coronary arteries and diabetes, bypass surgery (CABG) may be recommended rather than angioplasty. After an MI, lifestyle modifications, along with long term treatment with aspirin, beta blockers, and statins, are typically recommended.
myocardial infarction
25
What type of heart problem has a typically instantaneous onset?
5a6b6844a9e0c9001a4e9f58
True
a sensation of tightness, pressure, or squeezing
196
How is pain in the left arm often described?
5a6b6844a9e0c9001a4e9f59
True
Levine's sign
515
What is a good way to predict a heart attack?
5a6b6844a9e0c9001a4e9f5a
True
angina pectoris
345
What is the term for pain in the left arm?
5a6b6844a9e0c9001a4e9f5b
True
a lack of blood
274
What does a lack of oxygen supply cause?
5a6b6844a9e0c9001a4e9f5c
True
The onset of symptoms in myocardial infarction (MI) is usually gradual, over several minutes, and rarely instantaneous. Chest pain is the most common symptom of acute MI and is often described as a sensation of tightness, pressure, or squeezing. Chest pain due to ischemia (a lack of blood and hence oxygen supply) of the heart muscle is termed angina pectoris. Pain radiates most often to the left arm, but may also radiate to the lower jaw, neck, right arm, back, and upper abdomen, where it may mimic heartburn. Levine's sign, in which a person localizes the chest pain by clenching their fists over their sternum, has classically been thought to be predictive of cardiac chest pain, although a prospective observational study showed it had a poor positive predictive value.
diaphoresis
185
What is excessive weakness called?
5a6b69e6a9e0c9001a4e9f62
True
catecholamines
350
Diaphoresis causes a massive surge of what hormones?
5a6b69e6a9e0c9001a4e9f63
True
sympathetic
374
Which nervous system is responsible for shortness of breath?
5a6b69e6a9e0c9001a4e9f64
True
pulmonary edema
145
What is left ventricular failure called?
5a6b69e6a9e0c9001a4e9f65
True
cardiogenic
587
What kind of shock can cause sudden death?
5a6b69e6a9e0c9001a4e9f66
True
Shortness of breath occurs when the damage to the heart limits the output of the left ventricle, causing left ventricular failure and consequent pulmonary edema. Other symptoms include diaphoresis (an excessive form of sweating), weakness, light-headedness, nausea, vomiting, and palpitations. These symptoms are likely induced by a massive surge of catecholamines from the sympathetic nervous system, which occurs in response to pain and the blood flow abnormalities that result from dysfunction of the heart muscle. Loss of consciousness (due to inadequate blood flow to the brain and cardiogenic shock) and sudden death (frequently due to the development of ventricular fibrillation) can occur in MIs.
2.6
208
How many symptoms do people with diabetes typically report?
5a6b8ce7a9e0c9001a4e9f6c
True
dyspnea, weakness, and fatigue
297
What are the most common symptoms for men?
5a6b8ce7a9e0c9001a4e9f6d
True
one month
451
How long after the ischemic event do symptoms manifest?
5a6b8ce7a9e0c9001a4e9f6e
True
chest pain
527
What is more predictive of coronary ischemia for women?
5a6b8ce7a9e0c9001a4e9f6f
True
Atypical symptoms are more frequently reported by women, the elderly, and those with diabetes when compared to their male and younger counterparts. Women also report more numerous symptoms compared with men (2.6 on average vs. 1.8 symptoms in men). The most common symptoms of MI in women include dyspnea, weakness, and fatigue. Fatigue, sleep disturbances, and dyspnea have been reported as frequently occurring symptoms that may manifest as long as one month before the actual clinically manifested ischemic event. In women, chest pain may be less predictive of coronary ischemia than in men. Women may also experience back or jaw pain during an episode.
between 22 and 64%
275
What percentage of silent cases are later discovered on electrocardiograms?
5a6b8d93a9e0c9001a4e9f74
True
diabetes mellitus
357
People with what disease are least likely to experience a silent MI?
5a6b8d93a9e0c9001a4e9f75
True
the donor heart is not fully innervated
425
Why is a donor heart more sensitive to pain from MIs?
5a6b8d93a9e0c9001a4e9f76
True
differences in pain threshold, autonomic neuropathy, and psychological factors
530
What have been ruled out as possible explanations for silent MIs in diabetics?
5a6b8d93a9e0c9001a4e9f77
True
At least one quarter
0
What fraction of MIs are discovered with blood enzyme tests?
5a6b8d93a9e0c9001a4e9f78
True
At least one quarter of all MIs are silent, without chest pain or other symptoms. These cases can be discovered later on electrocardiograms, using blood enzyme tests, or at autopsy without a prior history of related complaints. Estimates of the prevalence of silent MIs vary between 22 and 64%. A silent course is more common in the elderly, in people with diabetes mellitus and after heart transplantation, probably because the donor heart is not fully innervated by the nervous system of the recipient. In people with diabetes, differences in pain threshold, autonomic neuropathy, and psychological factors have been cited as possible explanations for the lack of symptoms.
carbon monoxide, nitrogen dioxide, and sulfur dioxide
94
What forms of air pollution does smoking tobacco cause?
5a6b9825a9e0c9001a4e9f92
True
3-4 or more
547
How many cigarettes per day increase the risk of a heart attack?
5a6b9825a9e0c9001a4e9f93
True
the risk of MI
222
Increased physical activity is bad for what?
5a6b9825a9e0c9001a4e9f94
True
alcoholic drinks
529
Short term exposure to 3-4 servings of what is dangerous?
5a6b9825a9e0c9001a4e9f95
True
Tobacco smoking (including secondhand smoke) and short-term exposure to air pollution such as carbon monoxide, nitrogen dioxide, and sulfur dioxide (but not ozone) have been associated with MI. Other factors that increase the risk of MI and are associated with worse outcomes after an MI include lack of physical activity and psychosocial factors including low socioeconomic status, social isolation, and negative emotions. Shift work is also associated with a higher risk of MI. Acute and prolonged intake of high quantities of alcoholic drinks (3-4 or more) increase the risk of a heart attack.
saturated fat
17
Evidence for what product has proven to be unequivocally dangerous?
5a6b98aca9e0c9001a4e9f9a
True
saturated
178
Study show you should replace polyunsaturated fat with what?
5a6b98aca9e0c9001a4e9f9b
True
Dietary cholesterol
341
Blood cholesterol has a significant impact on what?
5a6b98aca9e0c9001a4e9f9c
True
Dietary
341
What type of cholesterol requires careful limitations?
5a6b98aca9e0c9001a4e9f9d
True
fats
499
Trans what decreases risk?
5a6b98aca9e0c9001a4e9f9e
True
The evidence for saturated fat is unclear. Some state there is evidence of benefit from reducing saturated fat, specifically a benefit from eating polyunsaturated fat instead of saturated fat. While others state there is little evidence that reducing dietary saturated fat or increasing polyunsaturated fat intake affects heart attack risk. Dietary cholesterol does not appear to have a significant effect on blood cholesterol and thus recommendations about its consumption may not be needed. Trans fats do appear to increase risk.
27
43
How many genetic variants are shown to decrease risk of an MI?
5a6b99eea9e0c9001a4e9fb8
True
9p21
184
PCSK9 is found in what locus?
5a6b99eea9e0c9001a4e9fb9
True
27
43
How many genetic variants are in the 9p21 genomic locus?
5a6b99eea9e0c9001a4e9fba
True
CDKN2A & 2B
225
What was implicated in the coding region of 9p21?
5a6b99eea9e0c9001a4e9fbb
True
myocardial infarction
109
SORT1 is associated with decreasing risk of what?
5a6b99eea9e0c9001a4e9fbc
True
Genome-wide association studies have found 27 genetic variants that are associated with an increased risk of myocardial infarction. Strongest association of MI has been found with the 9p21 genomic locus, which contains genes CDKN2A & 2B, although the single nucleotide polymorphisms that are implicated are within a non-coding region. The majority of these variants are in regions that have not been previously implicated in coronary artery disease. The following genes have an association with MI: PCSK9, SORT1, MIA3, WDR12, MRAS, PHACTR1, LPA, TCF21, MTHFDSL, ZC3HC1, CDKN2A, 2B, ABO, PDGF0, APOA5, MNF1ASM283, COL4A1, HHIPC1, SMAD3, ADAMTS7, RAS1, SMG6, SNF8, LDLR, SLC5A3, MRPS6, KCNE2.
two
38
How many subtypes does ST-elevated MI have?
5a6b9bf84eec6b001a80a4a2
True
non-ST-elevated and ST-elevated MIs,
86
What are always a manifestation of artery disease?
5a6b9bf84eec6b001a80a4a3
True
minutes
862
How long does an MI take?
5a6b9bf84eec6b001a80a4a4
True
one billion
1013
How many plaques become unstable in a typical MI?
5a6b9bf84eec6b001a80a4a5
True
typically over decades
560
How long does an angiography take?
5a6b9bf84eec6b001a80a4a6
True
Acute myocardial infarction refers to two subtypes of acute coronary syndrome, namely non-ST-elevated and ST-elevated MIs, which are most frequently (but not always) a manifestation of coronary artery disease. The most common triggering event is the disruption of an atherosclerotic plaque in an epicardial coronary artery, which leads to a clotting cascade, sometimes resulting in total occlusion of the artery. Atherosclerosis is the gradual buildup of cholesterol and fibrous tissue in plaques in the wall of arteries (in this case, the coronary arteries), typically over decades. Bloodstream column irregularities visible on angiography reflect artery lumen narrowing as a result of decades of advancing atherosclerosis. Plaques can become unstable, rupture, and additionally promote the formation of a blood clot that occludes the artery; this can occur in minutes. When a severe enough plaque rupture occurs in the coronary arteries, it leads to MI (necrosis of downstream myocardium). It is estimated that one billion cardiac cells are lost in a typical MI.
ischemic cascade
88
What does necrosis trigger?
5a6bb05e4eec6b001a80a4b6
True
necrosis
192
What is a collagen scar called?
5a6bb05e4eec6b001a80a4b7
True
arrhythmias
569
What is another name for a ventricular aneurysm?
5a6bb05e4eec6b001a80a4b8
True
occluded coronary
146
apoptosis is the death of what artery?
5a6bb05e4eec6b001a80a4b9
True
ischemic cascade
88
What is impaired blood flow called?
5a6bb05e4eec6b001a80a4ba
True
If impaired blood flow to the heart lasts long enough, it triggers a process called the ischemic cascade; the heart cells in the territory of the occluded coronary artery die (chiefly through necrosis) and do not grow back. A collagen scar forms in their place. Recent studies indicate that another form of cell death, apoptosis, also plays a role in the process of tissue damage following an MI. As a result, the person's heart will be permanently damaged. This myocardial scarring also puts the person at risk for potentially life-threatening abnormal heart rhythms (arrhythmias), and may result in the formation of a ventricular aneurysm that can rupture with catastrophic consequences.
Injured heart tissue
0
Normal heart tissue is slower than what?
5a6bb13e4eec6b001a80a4c0
True
V-Fib/VF
331
What is the name of the arrhythmia that is slower than normal?
5a6bb13e4eec6b001a80a4c1
True
sudden cardiac death
414
V-tach is the leading cause of what?
5a6bb13e4eec6b001a80a4c2
True
re-entry or a feedback loop
175
Electrical impulses trigger what?
5a6bb13e4eec6b001a80a4c3
True
coronary ischemia
744
A rising blood pressure can cause additional what?
5a6bb13e4eec6b001a80a4c4
True
Injured heart tissue conducts electrical impulses more slowly than normal heart tissue. The difference in conduction velocity between injured and uninjured tissue can trigger re-entry or a feedback loop that is believed to be the cause of many lethal arrhythmias. The most serious of these arrhythmias is ventricular fibrillation (V-Fib/VF), an extremely fast and chaotic heart rhythm that is the leading cause of sudden cardiac death. Another life-threatening arrhythmia is ventricular tachycardia (V-tach/VT), which can cause sudden cardiac death. However, VT usually results in rapid heart rates that prevent the heart from pumping blood effectively. Cardiac output and blood pressure may fall to dangerous levels, which can lead to further coronary ischemia and extension of the infarct.
underlying atherosclerosis
60
The setting of plaque is called what?
5a6bb1d34eec6b001a80a4d4
True
atherosclerosis
765
CRP is known to play a direct role in what?
5a6bb1d34eec6b001a80a4d5
True
CRP
206
What specific marker indicates inflammation?
5a6bb1d34eec6b001a80a4d6
True
CRP levels
465
Drugs for MI tend to raise what?
5a6bb1d34eec6b001a80a4d7
True
high-sensitivity CRP assays
488
What type of screening is generally recommended?
5a6bb1d34eec6b001a80a4d8
True
Myocardial infarction in the setting of plaque results from underlying atherosclerosis. Inflammation is known to be an important step in the process of atherosclerotic plaque formation. C-reactive protein (CRP) is a sensitive but nonspecific marker for inflammation. Elevated CRP blood levels, especially measured with high-sensitivity assays, can predict the risk of MI, as well as stroke and development of diabetes. Moreover, some drugs for MI might also reduce CRP levels. The use of high-sensitivity CRP assays as a means of screening the general population is advised against, but it may be used optionally at the physician's discretion in those who already present with other risk factors or known coronary artery disease. Whether CRP plays a direct role in atherosclerosis remains uncertain.
two or more
113
How many anginas must a person report to have a STEMI?
5a6bb2904eec6b001a80a4de
True
T waves
501
ST elevation can develop into what?
5a6bb2904eec6b001a80a4df
True
0.2 mV
177
The ECG must show less than how many mV for a male to be considered a STEMI?
5a6bb2904eec6b001a80a4e0
True
A left bundle branch block
321
What has recently been added as a qualification for a STEMI?
5a6bb2904eec6b001a80a4e1
True
V2 and V3
252
Which two named leads only have to be above 1 mm to be counted?
5a6bb2904eec6b001a80a4e2
True
For a person to qualify as having a STEMI, in addition to reported angina, the ECG must show new ST elevation in two or more adjacent ECG leads. This must be greater than 2 mm (0.2 mV) for males and greater than 1.5 mm (0.15 mV) in females if in leads V2 and V3 or greater than 1 mm (0.1 mV) if it is in other ECG leads. A left bundle branch block that is believed to be new used to be considered the same as ST elevation; however, this is no longer the case. In early STEMIs there may just be peaked T waves with ST elevation developing later.
technetium (99mTc) sestamibi (i.e. a "MIBI scan") or thallium-201 chloride
75
What is used to examine blood flood in unstable patients?
5a6bb3444eec6b001a80a4e8
True
MIBI scan
113
What is another name for thallium-201?
5a6bb3444eec6b001a80a4e9
True
whether nonfunctional myocardium is actually dead or merely in a state of hibernation
359
What purpose does technetium serve in terms of identifying tissue?
5a6bb3444eec6b001a80a4ea
True
a person is at high risk for myocardial infarction
549
What must be determined after taking an imaging test?
5a6bb3444eec6b001a80a4eb
True
cardiac
929
A patient does not need routine imaging when they have what kind of biomarker?
5a6bb3444eec6b001a80a4ec
True
In stable patients whose symptoms have resolved by the time of evaluation, technetium (99mTc) sestamibi (i.e. a "MIBI scan") or thallium-201 chloride can be used in nuclear medicine to visualize areas of reduced blood flow in conjunction with physiological or pharmacological stress. Thallium may also be used to determine viability of tissue, distinguishing whether nonfunctional myocardium is actually dead or merely in a state of hibernation or of being stunned. Medical societies and professional guidelines recommend that the physician confirm a person is at high risk for myocardial infarction before conducting imaging tests to make a diagnosis. Patients who have a normal ECG and who are able to exercise, for example, do not merit routine imaging. Imaging tests such as stress radionuclide myocardial perfusion imaging or stress echocardiography can confirm a diagnosis when a patient's history, physical exam, ECG, and cardiac biomarkers suggest the likelihood of a problem.
less than 300 mg/day
319
How many mg of fat is suggested for a healthy person's diet?
5a6bb40d4eec6b001a80a4fc
True
30%
166
What percentage of mono-polyunsaturated fat should make up a person's daily energy requirements?
5a6bb40d4eec6b001a80a4fd
True
saturated
603
What is a good replacement for olive oil?
5a6bb40d4eec6b001a80a4fe
True
fat
204
Nutritionists recommend an intake of more than 30% of what in one's diet?
5a6bb40d4eec6b001a80a4ff
True
the effect of dietary fat on the development of cardiovascular disease
38
What controversy have dieticians largely settled?
5a6bb40d4eec6b001a80a500
True
There is some controversy surrounding the effect of dietary fat on the development of cardiovascular disease. People are often advised to keep a diet where less than 30% of the energy intake derives from fat, a diet that contains less than 7% of the energy intake in the form of saturated fat, and a diet that contains less than 300 mg/day of cholesterol. Replacing saturated with mono- polyunsaturated fat is also recommended, as the consumption of polyunsaturated fat instead of saturated fat may decrease coronary heart disease. Olive oil, rapeseed oil and related products are to be used instead of saturated fat.
Aspirin
0
What drug has been shown to have significant benefits for people at risk of an MI?
5a6bb4fa4eec6b001a80a506
True
diabetes
177
Most studies tend to focus on people with what disease?
5a6bb4fa4eec6b001a80a507
True
excessive bleeding
264
People with diabetes have an increased likelihood of what side effect?
5a6bb4fa4eec6b001a80a508
True
many clinical practice guidelines
298
Based on the lack of benefits, what has largely stopped recommending asprin?
5a6bb4fa4eec6b001a80a509
True
bleeding
474
Aspirin is recommended for people with a high risk both cardiovascular disease and what?
5a6bb4fa4eec6b001a80a50a
True
Aspirin has been studied extensively in people considered at increased risk of myocardial infarction. Based on numerous studies in different groups (e.g. people with or without diabetes), there does not appear to be a benefit strong enough to outweigh the risk of excessive bleeding. Nevertheless, many clinical practice guidelines continue to recommend aspirin for primary prevention, and some researchers feel that those with very high cardiovascular risk but low risk of bleeding should continue to receive aspirin.
PCI
173
What is the shortened way of referring to thrombolysis?
5a6bb5ff4eec6b001a80a510
True
thrombolysis
315
PCI and what treatment must be performed within 90 to 120 minutes?
5a6bb5ff4eec6b001a80a511
True
90 to 120 minutes
292
How long does the PCI procedure take?
5a6bb5ff4eec6b001a80a512
True
Primary percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI)
129
What treatment is recommended after 24 hours?
5a6bb5ff4eec6b001a80a513
True
within 30 minutes of arrival to hospital
340
When must ECG evidence be taken?
5a6bb5ff4eec6b001a80a514
True
The main treatment for MI with ECG evidence of ST elevation (STEMI) include thrombolysis and percutaneous coronary intervention. Primary percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) is the treatment of choice for STEMI if it can be performed in a timely manner. If PCI cannot be performed within 90 to 120 minutes then thrombolysis, preferably within 30 minutes of arrival to hospital, is recommended. If a person has had symptoms for 12 to 24 hours evidence for thrombolysis is less and if they have had symptoms for more than 24 hours it is not recommended.
streptokinase, reteplase, alteplase, and tenecteplase
145
What enzymes in the body typically destroy blood clots?
5a6bb82b4eec6b001a80a524
True
a high risk of bleeding
245
What is an example of a contraindication that must be present for thrombolysis?
5a6bb82b4eec6b001a80a525
True
1 in 43
467
Thrombolytic drugs are given to how many people?
5a6bb82b4eec6b001a80a526
True
1 in 143
525
If thrombolytic drugs are given after 6 hours of onset, what are the odds of bleeding?
5a6bb82b4eec6b001a80a527
True
6
397
How many hours must pass after onset of symptoms before administering thrombolysis?
5a6bb82b4eec6b001a80a528
True
Thrombolysis involves the administration of medication that activates the enzymes that normally destroy blood clots. Thrombolysis agents include streptokinase, reteplase, alteplase, and tenecteplase. If no contraindications are present (such as a high risk of bleeding), thrombolysis can be given in the pre-hospital or in-hospital setting. When given to people suspected of having a STEMI within 6 hours of the onset of symptoms, thrombolytic drugs save the life of 1 in 43 who received them. The risks were major bleeding (1 in 143) and brain bleeding (1 in 250). It is unclear whether pre-hospital thrombolysis reduces death in people with STEMI compared to in-hospital thrombolysis. Pre-hospital thrombolysis reduces time to thrombolytic treatment, based on studies conducted in higher income countries.
if the risk of cardiovascular events is felt to be high and early PCI is being considered
186
When is clopidogrel removed?
5a6bb9624eec6b001a80a538
True
no ST elevation
45
What is NSTEACS an abbreviation for?
5a6bb9624eec6b001a80a539
True
Xa
329
Clopidogrel is a form of what inhibitor?
5a6bb9624eec6b001a80a53a
True
inhibitors of the platelet glycoprotein αIIbβ3a receptor
478
What inhibitors are used in low-risk scenarios?
5a6bb9624eec6b001a80a53b
True
low
392
Eptifibatide has what kind of molecular weight?
5a6bb9624eec6b001a80a53c
True
People with an acute coronary syndrome where no ST elevation is demonstrated (non-ST elevation ACS or NSTEACS) are treated with aspirin. Clopidogrel is added in many cases, particularly if the risk of cardiovascular events is felt to be high and early PCI is being considered. Depending on whether early PCI is planned, a factor Xa inhibitor or a potentiator of antithrombin (fondaparinux or low molecular weight heparin respectively) may be added. In very high-risk scenarios, inhibitors of the platelet glycoprotein αIIbβ3a receptor such as eptifibatide or tirofiban may be used.
if there has been substantial heart damage and resultant left ventricular failure
86
Cardiac rehabilitation is not an option under what circumstances?
5a6bb9f34eec6b001a80a54c
True
driving, flying, sport participation, stress management, and sexual intercourse
424
Cardiac rehabilitation often recommends ceasing what activities?
5a6bb9f34eec6b001a80a54d
True
Cardiac rehabilitation
0
What should start immediately upon registering at the hospital?
5a6bb9f34eec6b001a80a54e
True
soon after discharge from hospital
287
When are other medical conditions address?
5a6bb9f34eec6b001a80a54f
True
Cardiac rehabilitation benefits many who have experienced myocardial infarction, even if there has been substantial heart damage and resultant left ventricular failure; ideally other medical conditions that could interfere with participation should be managed optimally. It should start soon after discharge from hospital. The program may include lifestyle advice, exercise, social support, as well as recommendations about driving, flying, sport participation, stress management, and sexual intercourse.
two or greater
161
How many classes of ST-segmentation are there?
5a6bba8a4eec6b001a80a554
True
papillary muscle or myocardial free wall rupture
431
Prognosis improves after what complication?
5a6bba8a4eec6b001a80a555
True
Morbidity and mortality
488
What has decreased over the years?
5a6bba8a4eec6b001a80a556
True
heart failure, cardiac arrest on admission, systolic blood pressure, or Killip class of two or greater
73
What are some examples of ST-segment deviation?
5a6bba8a4eec6b001a80a557
True
hemodynamic parameters
41
What are risk factors called?
5a6bba8a4eec6b001a80a558
True
Some risk factors for death include age, hemodynamic parameters (such as heart failure, cardiac arrest on admission, systolic blood pressure, or Killip class of two or greater), ST-segment deviation, diabetes, serum creatinine, peripheral vascular disease, and elevation of cardiac markers. Assessment of left ventricular ejection fraction may increase the predictive power. Prognosis is worse if a mechanical complication such as papillary muscle or myocardial free wall rupture occurs. Morbidity and mortality from myocardial infarction has improved over the years due to better treatment.
abnormal heart rhythms
476
What is Dressler's syndrome?
5a6bbb724eec6b001a80a55e
True
ventricular septal rupture or free wall rupture
304
What does an aneurysm of the left ventricle lead to?
5a6bbb724eec6b001a80a55f
True
dysfunction of the papillary muscle
414
What does mitral regurgitation cause?
5a6bbb724eec6b001a80a560
True
chronic
116
Atrial fibrillation can only be what kind of problem?
5a6bbb724eec6b001a80a561
True
Complications may occur immediately following the heart attack (in the acute phase), or may need time to develop (a chronic problem). Acute complications may include heart failure if the damaged heart is no longer able to pump blood adequately around the body; aneurysm of the left ventricle myocardium; ventricular septal rupture or free wall rupture; mitral regurgitation, in particular if the infarction causes dysfunction of the papillary muscle; Dressler's syndrome; and abnormal heart rhythms, such as ventricular fibrillation, ventricular tachycardia, atrial fibrillation, and heart block. Longer-term complications include heart failure, atrial fibrillation, and an increased risk of a second MI.
14%
193
What percentage of deaths does unipolar depressive disorder cause?
5a6bbc0f4eec6b001a80a566
True
1.46 million
172
How many people died from IHD from 1985-2015?
5a6bbc0f4eec6b001a80a567
True
IHD
106
What is the worldwide leading cause of death?
5a6bbc0f4eec6b001a80a568
True
5.5%
387
What percentage of deaths will IHD be responsible for in 2030?
5a6bbc0f4eec6b001a80a569
True
2004
151
When did IHD begin to be a bigger problem in the developing word?
5a6bbc0f4eec6b001a80a56a
True
In contrast, IHD is becoming a more common cause of death in the developing world. For example, in India, IHD had become the leading cause of death by 2004, accounting for 1.46 million deaths (14% of total deaths) and deaths due to IHD were expected to double during 1985–2015. Globally, disability adjusted life years (DALYs) lost to ischemic heart disease are predicted to account for 5.5% of total DALYs in 2030, making it the second-most-important cause of disability (after unipolar depressive disorder), as well as the leading cause of death by this date.
a disease
54
What is a myocardial infarction is always considered to be?
5a6bbd284eec6b001a80a57a
True
police officers
475
What occupation cannot have a heart attack classified as work-related?
5a6bbd284eec6b001a80a57b
True
no-fault insurance schemes
150
What typically covers an MI?
5a6bbd284eec6b001a80a57c
True
if it results, for example, from unusual emotional stress or unusual exertion
292
When is an MI not considered a work-related injury?
5a6bbd284eec6b001a80a57d
True
common law
3
What generally treats MI as an injury?
5a6bbd284eec6b001a80a57e
True
At common law, in general, a myocardial infarction is a disease, but may sometimes be an injury. This can create coverage issues in administration of no-fault insurance schemes such as workers' compensation. In general, a heart attack is not covered; however, it may be a work-related injury if it results, for example, from unusual emotional stress or unusual exertion. In addition, in some jurisdictions, heart attacks suffered by persons in particular occupations such as police officers may be classified as line-of-duty injuries by statute or policy. In some countries or states, a person having suffered from an MI may be prevented from participating in activity that puts other people's lives at risk, for example driving a car or flying an airplane.
Matter
ordinary matter composed of atoms
50
What did the term matter include after the 20th century?
5a7db48670df9f001a87505f
True
matter
59
What are atoms composed of?
5a7db48670df9f001a875060
True
light or sound
128
What are two examples of matter?
5a7db48670df9f001a875061
True
its (possibly massless) constituents' motion and interaction energies
315
What can an object's mass not come from?
5a7db48670df9f001a875062
True
fundamental
449
Matter is currently considered to be what kind of concept?
5a7db48670df9f001a875063
True
Before the 20th century, the term matter included ordinary matter composed of atoms and excluded other energy phenomena such as light or sound. This concept of matter may be generalized from atoms to include any objects having mass even when at rest, but this is ill-defined because an object's mass can arise from its (possibly massless) constituents' motion and interaction energies. Thus, matter does not have a universal definition, nor is it a fundamental concept in physics today. Matter is also used loosely as a general term for the substance that makes up all observable physical objects.
a cloud
218
What orbits around electrons?
5a7db5c270df9f001a875069
True
a nucleus
179
What are protons and neutrons made out of?
5a7db5c270df9f001a87506a
True
classical
530
All particles with rest mass have what kind of volume?
5a7db5c270df9f001a87506b
True
quarks and leptons
716
What cannot contribute to effective volume?
5a7db5c270df9f001a87506c
True
effective
676
What kind of size or volume do point particles have?
5a7db5c270df9f001a87506d
True
All the objects from everyday life that we can bump into, touch or squeeze are composed of atoms. This atomic matter is in turn made up of interacting subatomic particles—usually a nucleus of protons and neutrons, and a cloud of orbiting electrons. Typically, science considers these composite particles matter because they have both rest mass and volume. By contrast, massless particles, such as photons, are not considered matter, because they have neither rest mass nor volume. However, not all particles with rest mass have a classical volume, since fundamental particles such as quarks and leptons (sometimes equated with matter) are considered "point particles" with no effective size or volume. Nevertheless, quarks and leptons together make up "ordinary matter", and their interactions contribute to the effective volume of the composite particles that make up ordinary matter.
four
26
How many forms of solids are there?
5a7db6b770df9f001a875073
True
Bose–Einstein
190
What theory states that matter can exist in four states?
5a7db6b770df9f001a875074
True
Leucippus
613
Who suggested the Bose-Einstein theory?
5a7db6b770df9f001a875075
True
quark–gluon
340
What new form of plasma did Democritus discover?
5a7db6b770df9f001a875076
True
much of the history
364
How long have scientists focused on an elementary-particle view?
5a7db6b770df9f001a875077
True
Matter commonly exists in four states (or phases): solid, liquid and gas, and plasma. However, advances in experimental techniques have revealed other previously theoretical phases, such as Bose–Einstein condensates and fermionic condensates. A focus on an elementary-particle view of matter also leads to new phases of matter, such as the quark–gluon plasma. For much of the history of the natural sciences people have contemplated the exact nature of matter. The idea that matter was built of discrete building blocks, the so-called particulate theory of matter, was first put forward by the Greek philosophers Leucippus (~490 BC) and Democritus (~470–380 BC).
mass
35
What is considered the same as matter?
5a7db77770df9f001a87507d
True
disappear by conversion into energy
416
What does special relativity show mass can do?
5a7db77770df9f001a87507e
True
mass (like energy)
559
What can be created or destroyed?
5a7db77770df9f001a87507f
True
the quantity
616
What changes during the transformation of matter?
5a7db77770df9f001a875080
True
value
158
What does not change in an open system?
5a7db77770df9f001a875081
True
Matter should not be confused with mass, as the two are not quite the same in modern physics. For example, mass is a conserved quantity, which means that its value is unchanging through time, within closed systems. However, matter is not conserved in such systems, although this is not obvious in ordinary conditions on Earth, where matter is approximately conserved. Still, special relativity shows that matter may disappear by conversion into energy, even inside closed systems, and it can also be created from energy, within such systems. However, because mass (like energy) can neither be created nor destroyed, the quantity of mass and the quantity of energy remain the same during a transformation of matter (which represents a certain amount of energy) into non-material (i.e., non-matter) energy. This is also true in the reverse transformation of energy into matter.
the term matter
32
What is always used the same way across fields?
5a7db7f770df9f001a875087
True
mass
338
What is poorly defined besides matter?
5a7db7f770df9f001a875088
True
both wave-like and particle-like properties
615
What does matter do in chemistry that it does not do in physics?
5a7db7f770df9f001a875089
True
wave–particle duality
674
What is the combination of mass and matter called in chemistry?
5a7db7f770df9f001a87508a
True
the speed of light
510
What speed does matter travel at in physics?
5a7db7f770df9f001a87508b
True
Different fields of science use the term matter in different, and sometimes incompatible, ways. Some of these ways are based on loose historical meanings, from a time when there was no reason to distinguish mass and matter. As such, there is no single universally agreed scientific meaning of the word "matter". Scientifically, the term "mass" is well-defined, but "matter" is not. Sometimes in the field of physics "matter" is simply equated with particles that exhibit rest mass (i.e., that cannot travel at the speed of light), such as quarks and leptons. However, in both physics and chemistry, matter exhibits both wave-like and particle-like properties, the so-called wave–particle duality.
additive
45
What type of quantity is mass?
5a7db89470df9f001a875091
True
the total rest mass of the system
142
One can add the rest masses of particles in a system to get what?
5a7db89470df9f001a875092
True
quantifies the amount of matter
303
What can the energy-momentum tensor not do?
5a7db89470df9f001a875093
True
the energy–momentum
466
What does gravity contribute to in a system?
5a7db89470df9f001a875094
True
cosmology
624
What field does not view matter as a contributor to energy-momentum?
5a7db89470df9f001a875095
True
In the context of relativity, mass is not an additive quantity, in the sense that one can add the rest masses of particles in a system to get the total rest mass of the system. Thus, in relativity usually a more general view is that it is not the sum of rest masses, but the energy–momentum tensor that quantifies the amount of matter. This tensor gives the rest mass for the entire system. "Matter" therefore is sometimes considered as anything that contributes to the energy–momentum of a system, that is, anything that is not purely gravity. This view is commonly held in fields that deal with general relativity such as cosmology. In this view, light and other massless particles and fields are part of matter.
electromagnetic
48
What type of radiation does not contribute mass?
5a7db92970df9f001a87509b
True
thermal radiation
252
What is another name for electromagnetic radiation?
5a7db92970df9f001a87509c
True
photons
490
What is another name for isolated kinetic energy of massive particles?
5a7db92970df9f001a87509d
True
The reason for this is that in this definition, electromagnetic radiation (such as light) as well as the energy of electromagnetic fields contributes to the mass of systems, and therefore appears to add matter to them. For example, light radiation (or thermal radiation) trapped inside a box would contribute to the mass of the box, as would any kind of energy inside the box, including the kinetic energy of particles held by the box. Nevertheless, isolated individual particles of light (photons) and the isolated kinetic energy of massive particles, are normally not considered to be matter.[citation needed]
two
60
How many difficulties are there in defining mass?
5a7dbca870df9f001a8750b5
True
matter
331
What is invariant mass equivalent to?
5a7dbca870df9f001a8750b6
True
unbound
413
What type of systems is rest mass applied to?
5a7dbca870df9f001a8750b7
True
net momentum
617
Invariant mass cannot be weighed when a system has no what?
5a7dbca870df9f001a8750b8
True
rest
882
Kinetic energy cannot add what kind of mass to a system?
5a7dbca870df9f001a8750b9
True
A source of definition difficulty in relativity arises from two definitions of mass in common use, one of which is formally equivalent to total energy (and is thus observer dependent), and the other of which is referred to as rest mass or invariant mass and is independent of the observer. Only "rest mass" is loosely equated with matter (since it can be weighed). Invariant mass is usually applied in physics to unbound systems of particles. However, energies which contribute to the "invariant mass" may be weighed also in special circumstances, such as when a system that has invariant mass is confined and has no net momentum (as in the box example above). Thus, a photon with no mass may (confusingly) still add mass to a system in which it is trapped. The same is true of the kinetic energy of particles, which by definition is not part of their rest mass, but which does add rest mass to systems in which these particles reside (an example is the mass added by the motion of gas molecules of a bottle of gas, or by the thermal energy of any hot object).
repulsive fields
127
What is electromagnetic radiation stored in?
5a7dc20570df9f001a875117
True
the mass of ordinary matter
168
The mass of kinetic energy particles is not considered part of what?
5a7dc20570df9f001a875118
True
the "matter" status of "massless particles"
216
What tends to be clear in complex systems?
5a7dc20570df9f001a875119
True
science
389
What field has a clear definition of matter?
5a7dc20570df9f001a87511a
True
total stress–energy
439
Mass is harder to define as being what?
5a7dc20570df9f001a87511b
True
Since such mass (kinetic energies of particles, the energy of trapped electromagnetic radiation and stored potential energy of repulsive fields) is measured as part of the mass of ordinary matter in complex systems, the "matter" status of "massless particles" and fields of force becomes unclear in such systems. These problems contribute to the lack of a rigorous definition of matter in science, although mass is easier to define as the total stress–energy above (this is also what is weighed on a scale, and what is the source of gravity).[citation needed]
atoms and molecules
111
What is made out of negatively charged protons?
5a7dc2b470df9f001a87512b
True
positively
169
What type of charge do atoms have?
5a7dc2b470df9f001a87512c
True
white dwarf
413
This definition does not include what type of matter?
5a7dc2b470df9f001a87512d
True
carbon and oxygen nuclei
443
What is located in a sea of protons?
5a7dc2b470df9f001a87512e
True
protons and neutrons
700
What are made up of leptons?
5a7dc2b470df9f001a87512f
True
A definition of "matter" more fine-scale than the atoms and molecules definition is: matter is made up of what atoms and molecules are made of, meaning anything made of positively charged protons, neutral neutrons, and negatively charged electrons. This definition goes beyond atoms and molecules, however, to include substances made from these building blocks that are not simply atoms or molecules, for example white dwarf matter—typically, carbon and oxygen nuclei in a sea of degenerate electrons. At a microscopic level, the constituent "particles" of matter such as protons, neutrons, and electrons obey the laws of quantum mechanics and exhibit wave–particle duality. At an even deeper level, protons and neutrons are made up of quarks and the force fields (gluons) that bind them together (see Quarks and leptons definition below).
Leptons
0
What is the most famous electron?
5a7dc3ae70df9f001a875135
True
baryons
67
What are quarks made from?
5a7dc3ae70df9f001a875136
True
Carithers and Grannis
686
Who determined that electrons were leptons?
5a7dc3ae70df9f001a875137
True
two
652
How many generation particles are there?
5a7dc3ae70df9f001a875138
True
elementary
665
What type of fermions are protons and neutrons?
5a7dc3ae70df9f001a875139
True
Leptons (the most famous being the electron), and quarks (of which baryons, such as protons and neutrons, are made) combine to form atoms, which in turn form molecules. Because atoms and molecules are said to be matter, it is natural to phrase the definition as: ordinary matter is anything that is made of the same things that atoms and molecules are made of. (However, notice that one also can make from these building blocks matter that is not atoms or molecules.) Then, because electrons are leptons, and protons, and neutrons are made of quarks, this definition in turn leads to the definition of matter as being quarks and leptons, which are the two types of elementary fermions. Carithers and Grannis state: Ordinary matter is composed entirely of first-generation particles, namely the [up] and [down] quarks, plus the electron and its neutrino. (Higher generations particles quickly decay into first-generation particles, and thus are not commonly encountered.)
building blocks of matter
92
What are atoms and molecules elementary forms of?
5a7dc46e70df9f001a875147
True
interaction energy
238
What holds building blocks together?
5a7dc46e70df9f001a875148
True
the masses of its constituent
428
What is the mass of a proton?
5a7dc46e70df9f001a875149
True
gluon fields
581
What binds an atom together?
5a7dc46e70df9f001a87514a
True
ordinary matter
760
Most of the mass of binding energy is due to what?
5a7dc46e70df9f001a87514b
True
The quark–lepton definition of ordinary matter, however, identifies not only the elementary building blocks of matter, but also includes composites made from the constituents (atoms and molecules, for example). Such composites contain an interaction energy that holds the constituents together, and may constitute the bulk of the mass of the composite. As an example, to a great extent, the mass of an atom is simply the sum of the masses of its constituent protons, neutrons and electrons. However, digging deeper, the protons and neutrons are made up of quarks bound together by gluon fields (see dynamics of quantum chromodynamics) and these gluons fields contribute significantly to the mass of hadrons. In other words, most of what composes the "mass" of ordinary matter is due to the binding energy of quarks within protons and neutrons. For example, the sum of the mass of the three quarks in a nucleon is approximately 7001125000000000000♠12.5 MeV/c2, which is low compared to the mass of a nucleon (approximately 7002938000000000000♠938 MeV/c2). The bottom line is that most of the mass of everyday objects comes from the interaction energy of its elementary components.
The Standard Model
0
What model has two generations?
5a7dc51370df9f001a87515b
True
The first
129
Which generation has the up and down muon and muon neutrino?
5a7dc51370df9f001a87515c
True
composite
603
What type of particles are tau and tau neutrino?
5a7dc51370df9f001a87515d
True
second
221
What generation has charm and strange muon?
5a7dc51370df9f001a87515e
True
two
101
How many electrons are there in the generations?
5a7dc51370df9f001a87515f
True
The Standard Model groups matter particles into three generations, where each generation consists of two quarks and two leptons. The first generation is the up and down quarks, the electron and the electron neutrino; the second includes the charm and strange quarks, the muon and the muon neutrino; the third generation consists of the top and bottom quarks and the tau and tau neutrino. The most natural explanation for this would be that quarks and leptons of higher generations are excited states of the first generations. If this turns out to be the case, it would imply that quarks and leptons are composite particles, rather than elementary particles.
baryons
60
What is dark energy composed of?
5a7dc5b470df9f001a875165
True
Wilkinson Microwave Anisotropy Probe (WMAP)
288
What probe saw white dwarf stars?
5a7dc5b470df9f001a875166
True
23%
538
What percentage of the universe are black holes?
5a7dc5b470df9f001a875167
True
4.6%
358
What percentage of the universe can be seen by telescope?
5a7dc5b470df9f001a875168
True
Microwave
264
What type of light accounts for 72% of the universe?
5a7dc5b470df9f001a875169
True
Baryonic matter is the part of the universe that is made of baryons (including all atoms). This part of the universe does not include dark energy, dark matter, black holes or various forms of degenerate matter, such as compose white dwarf stars and neutron stars. Microwave light seen by Wilkinson Microwave Anisotropy Probe (WMAP), suggests that only about 4.6% of that part of the universe within range of the best telescopes (that is, matter that may be visible because light could reach us from it), is made of baryonic matter. About 23% is dark matter, and about 72% is dark energy.
The Pauli exclusion
115
What is the name of the principle for the ground state of gas?
5a7dcb3b70df9f001a87518d
True
the pressure of the gas
442
What depends on the temperature at absolute zero?
5a7dcb3b70df9f001a87518e
True
Fermi energy
424
What is the minimum kinetic energy called?
5a7dcb3b70df9f001a87518f
True
the Fermi energy) and the pressure of the gas
420
What shrinks to accommodate fermions?
5a7dcb3b70df9f001a875190
True
Fermi energy
424
What is the pressure of the gas called?
5a7dcb3b70df9f001a875191
True
In physics, degenerate matter refers to the ground state of a gas of fermions at a temperature near absolute zero. The Pauli exclusion principle requires that only two fermions can occupy a quantum state, one spin-up and the other spin-down. Hence, at zero temperature, the fermions fill up sufficient levels to accommodate all the available fermions—and in the case of many fermions, the maximum kinetic energy (called the Fermi energy) and the pressure of the gas becomes very large, and depends on the number of fermions rather than the temperature, unlike normal states of matter.
liquid
77
What is quark matter usually thought of as?
5a7dccd270df9f001a8751a9
True
Strange matter
0
What is nuclear matter similar to?
5a7dccd270df9f001a8751aa
True
to be color superconducting
402
At low density, what is expected of strange matter?
5a7dccd270df9f001a8751ab
True
neutron stars
486
What kind of core does nuclear matter occur in?
5a7dccd270df9f001a8751ac
True
isolated droplets
528
What has Strange matter been definitely proven to occur as?
5a7dccd270df9f001a8751ad
True
Strange matter is a particular form of quark matter, usually thought of as a liquid of up, down, and strange quarks. It is contrasted with nuclear matter, which is a liquid of neutrons and protons (which themselves are built out of up and down quarks), and with non-strange quark matter, which is a quark liquid that contains only up and down quarks. At high enough density, strange matter is expected to be color superconducting. Strange matter is hypothesized to occur in the core of neutron stars, or, more speculatively, as isolated droplets that may vary in size from femtometers (strangelets) to kilometers (quark stars).
states of aggregation
57
What are phases known as?
5a7dcd9270df9f001a8751bd
True
ambient pressure, temperature and volume
110
What is a phase not dependent on?
5a7dcd9270df9f001a8751be
True
three
346
How many phases are there total?
5a7dcd9270df9f001a8751bf
True
plasmas, superfluids, supersolids, Bose–Einstein condensates
445
What are examples of paramagnetic phases?
5a7dcd9270df9f001a8751c0
True
thermodynamics
776
What field studies nanomaterials?
5a7dcd9270df9f001a8751c1
True
In bulk, matter can exist in several different forms, or states of aggregation, known as phases, depending on ambient pressure, temperature and volume. A phase is a form of matter that has a relatively uniform chemical composition and physical properties (such as density, specific heat, refractive index, and so forth). These phases include the three familiar ones (solids, liquids, and gases), as well as more exotic states of matter (such as plasmas, superfluids, supersolids, Bose–Einstein condensates, ...). A fluid may be a liquid, gas or plasma. There are also paramagnetic and ferromagnetic phases of magnetic materials. As conditions change, matter may change from one phase into another. These phenomena are called phase transitions, and are studied in the field of thermodynamics. In nanomaterials, the vastly increased ratio of surface area to volume results in matter that can exhibit properties entirely different from those of bulk material, and not well described by any bulk phase (see nanomaterials for more details).
antiparticles
88
What is composed of antimatter?
5a7dcf1970df9f001a8751e1
True
the two annihilate
214
What happens when two antiparticles collide?
5a7dcf1970df9f001a8751e2
True
gamma rays
405
What are particle-antiparticle pairs that are not high-energy called?
5a7dcf1970df9f001a8751e3
True
kinetic
509
What kind of energy do particle-antiparticle pairs have more of than they had originally?
5a7dcf1970df9f001a8751e4
True
Einstein
328
Who discovered quantum chemistry?
5a7dcf1970df9f001a8751e5
True
In particle physics and quantum chemistry, antimatter is matter that is composed of the antiparticles of those that constitute ordinary matter. If a particle and its antiparticle come into contact with each other, the two annihilate; that is, they may both be converted into other particles with equal energy in accordance with Einstein's equation E = mc2. These new particles may be high-energy photons (gamma rays) or other particle–antiparticle pairs. The resulting particles are endowed with an amount of kinetic energy equal to the difference between the rest mass of the products of the annihilation and the rest mass of the original particle–antiparticle pair, which is often quite large.
Earth
37
Where is antimatter found naturally in large quantities?
5a7dcf8e70df9f001a8751ff
True
ordinary matter
305
What does antimatter annihilate?
5a7dcf8e70df9f001a875200
True
a suitable physics laboratory
243
Where is ordinary matter created?
5a7dcf8e70df9f001a875201
True
antihydrogen
414
What is an example of an antiparticle?
5a7dcf8e70df9f001a875202
True
Antiparticles and some stable antimatter
364
Large quantities of what can be created for testing?
5a7dcf8e70df9f001a875203
True
Antimatter is not found naturally on Earth, except very briefly and in vanishingly small quantities (as the result of radioactive decay, lightning or cosmic rays). This is because antimatter that came to exist on Earth outside the confines of a suitable physics laboratory would almost instantly meet the ordinary matter that Earth is made of, and be annihilated. Antiparticles and some stable antimatter (such as antihydrogen) can be made in tiny amounts, but not in enough quantity to do more than test a few of its theoretical properties.
asymmetry in physical laws
345
What is the disappearance of matter linked to?
5a7de5f270df9f001a8752c3
True
the early universe
210
When was there more antimatter than matter?
5a7de5f270df9f001a8752c4
True
the apparent asymmetry of matter and antimatter
505
What problem has physics solved?
5a7de5f270df9f001a8752c5
True
CP symmetry violation
425
Where is the Standard Model found?
5a7de5f270df9f001a8752c6
True
science
42
What field of study speculates about science fiction?
5a7de5f270df9f001a8752c7
True
There is considerable speculation both in science and science fiction as to why the observable universe is apparently almost entirely matter, and whether other places are almost entirely antimatter instead. In the early universe, it is thought that matter and antimatter were equally represented, and the disappearance of antimatter requires an asymmetry in physical laws called the charge parity (or CP symmetry) violation. CP symmetry violation can be obtained from the Standard Model, but at this time the apparent asymmetry of matter and antimatter in the visible universe is one of the great unsolved problems in physics. Possible processes by which it came about are explored in more detail under baryogenesis.
electromagnetic radiation
113
What does dark matter emit to make it visible?
5a7de6bf70df9f001a8752d7
True
gravitational effects
204
What effect on other matter allows electromagnetic radiation to be visible?
5a7de6bf70df9f001a8752d8
True
dark matter
486
What is baryonic in nature?
5a7de6bf70df9f001a8752d9
True
elementary fermions (as above) OR gauge bosons
391
What does dark matter form?
5a7de6bf70df9f001a8752da
True
Standard
656
Supersymmetric particles are part of what Model?
5a7de6bf70df9f001a8752db
True
In astrophysics and cosmology, dark matter is matter of unknown composition that does not emit or reflect enough electromagnetic radiation to be observed directly, but whose presence can be inferred from gravitational effects on visible matter. Observational evidence of the early universe and the big bang theory require that this matter have energy and mass, but is not composed of either elementary fermions (as above) OR gauge bosons. The commonly accepted view is that most of the dark matter is non-baryonic in nature. As such, it is composed of particles as yet unobserved in the laboratory. Perhaps they are supersymmetric particles, which are not Standard Model particles, but relics formed at very high energies in the early phase of the universe and still floating about.
c. 624 BC–c. 546 BC
118
When did Socratics live?
5a7de78370df9f001a8752e1
True
water
148
What did Parmenides believe was the fundamental material of the world?
5a7de78370df9f001a8752e2
True
atomism
820
What is the name for the philosophical problems of understanding the nature of the world?
5a7de78370df9f001a8752e3
True
four
565
How many elements did Democritus name?
5a7de78370df9f001a8752e4
True
atoms
793
What did Parmenides say everything was made of?
5a7de78370df9f001a8752e5
True
The pre-Socratics were among the first recorded speculators about the underlying nature of the visible world. Thales (c. 624 BC–c. 546 BC) regarded water as the fundamental material of the world. Anaximander (c. 610 BC–c. 546 BC) posited that the basic material was wholly characterless or limitless: the Infinite (apeiron). Anaximenes (flourished 585 BC, d. 528 BC) posited that the basic stuff was pneuma or air. Heraclitus (c. 535–c. 475 BC) seems to say the basic element is fire, though perhaps he means that all is change. Empedocles (c. 490–430 BC) spoke of four elements of which everything was made: earth, water, air, and fire. Meanwhile, Parmenides argued that change does not exist, and Democritus argued that everything is composed of minuscule, inert bodies of all shapes called atoms, a philosophy called atomism. All of these notions had deep philosophical problems.
Matter
303
What exists independently?
5a7de83a70df9f001a8752eb
True
Aristotle
611
Who said matter had actuality in and of itself?
5a7de83a70df9f001a8752ec
True
a whole
785
Aristotle said parts have existence outside of what?
5a7de83a70df9f001a8752ed
True
itself
66
What does grass turn the horse into?
5a7de83a70df9f001a8752ee
True
For example, a horse eats grass: the horse changes the grass into itself; the grass as such does not persist in the horse, but some aspect of it—its matter—does. The matter is not specifically described (e.g., as atoms), but consists of whatever persists in the change of substance from grass to horse. Matter in this understanding does not exist independently (i.e., as a substance), but exists interdependently (i.e., as a "principle") with form and only insofar as it underlies change. It can be helpful to conceive of the relationship of matter and form as very similar to that between parts and whole. For Aristotle, matter as such can only receive actuality from form; it has no activity or actuality in itself, similar to the way that parts as such only have their existence in a whole (otherwise they would be independent wholes).
mechanical
141
What philosophy did Aristotle describe?
5a7de93570df9f001a8752f3
True
mind
212
What did Aristotle define as distinct from matter?
5a7de93570df9f001a8752f4
True
to an actual independent thing in itself
681
How did Aristotle elevate matter?
5a7de93570df9f001a8752f5
True
to exclude other bodies
104
What activity does locomotion have?
5a7de93570df9f001a8752f6
True
as complementary principles
434
How does Descartes use matter and the formal/forming principle?
5a7de93570df9f001a8752f7
True
For Descartes, matter has only the property of extension, so its only activity aside from locomotion is to exclude other bodies: this is the mechanical philosophy. Descartes makes an absolute distinction between mind, which he defines as unextended, thinking substance, and matter, which he defines as unthinking, extended substance. They are independent things. In contrast, Aristotle defines matter and the formal/forming principle as complementary principles that together compose one independent thing (substance). In short, Aristotle defines matter (roughly speaking) as what things are actually made of (with a potential independent existence), but Descartes elevates matter to an actual independent thing in itself.
1643
14
When was Descartes born?
5a7de9b570df9f001a875307
True
Rules of Reasoning in Philosophy
100
What did Descartes write?
5a7de9b570df9f001a875308
True
the essential nature of secondary qualities
599
What did Newton reject that Descartes did not?
5a7de9b570df9f001a875309
True
extension, hardness, impenetrability, mobility, and inertia
186
What did Descartes say were the universal qualities of matter?
5a7de9b570df9f001a87530a
True
mathematical
488
Both primary and secondary properties are suited to what form of description?
5a7de9b570df9f001a87530b
True
Isaac Newton (1643–1727) inherited Descartes' mechanical conception of matter. In the third of his "Rules of Reasoning in Philosophy", Newton lists the universal qualities of matter as "extension, hardness, impenetrability, mobility, and inertia". Similarly in Optics he conjectures that God created matter as "solid, massy, hard, impenetrable, movable particles", which were "...even so very hard as never to wear or break in pieces". The "primary" properties of matter were amenable to mathematical description, unlike "secondary" qualities such as color or taste. Like Descartes, Newton rejected the essential nature of secondary qualities.
the early 20th century
111
When did de Sabbata and Gasperini write?
5a7dea8870df9f001a875311
True
the "electrical structure"
81
What theory came after the quark structure of matter?
5a7dea8870df9f001a875312
True
contemporary physics
308
Understanding electrical structure has lead to important advances in what field?
5a7dea8870df9f001a875313
True
de Sabbata and Gasperini
517
Who described particles as quantum excitations?
5a7dea8870df9f001a875314
True
gauge theory
823
What theory uses spinor fields?
5a7dea8870df9f001a875315
True
There is an entire literature concerning the "structure of matter", ranging from the "electrical structure" in the early 20th century, to the more recent "quark structure of matter", introduced today with the remark: Understanding the quark structure of matter has been one of the most important advances in contemporary physics.[further explanation needed] In this connection, physicists speak of matter fields, and speak of particles as "quantum excitations of a mode of the matter field". And here is a quote from de Sabbata and Gasperini: "With the word "matter" we denote, in this context, the sources of the interactions, that is spinor fields (like quarks and leptons), which are believed to be the fundamental components of matter, or scalar fields, like the Higgs particles, which are used to introduced mass in a gauge theory (and that, however, could be composed of more fundamental fermion fields)."[further explanation needed]
particle
151
What field of physics began in the 19th century?
5a7deb7170df9f001a87531b
True
electrons, protons and neutrons
199
What do atoms form?
5a7deb7170df9f001a87531c
True
protons and neutrons
283
What are quarks divided into?
5a7deb7170df9f001a87531d
True
electrons
364
Leptons are made up of what?
5a7deb7170df9f001a87531e
True
indivisible
312
We now know that quarks and leptons are not what?
5a7deb7170df9f001a87531f
True
In the late 19th century with the discovery of the electron, and in the early 20th century, with the discovery of the atomic nucleus, and the birth of particle physics, matter was seen as made up of electrons, protons and neutrons interacting to form atoms. Today, we know that even protons and neutrons are not indivisible, they can be divided into quarks, while electrons are part of a particle family called leptons. Both quarks and leptons are elementary particles, and are currently seen as being the fundamental constituents of matter.
four
42
How many quarks and leptons are there?
5a7e05ef70df9f001a875425
True
The Standard Model
138
What model satisfactorily explains gravity?
5a7e05ef70df9f001a875426
True
force-carrying particles
472
Interactions between quarks and leptons are the exchange of what?
5a7e05ef70df9f001a875427
True
matter
711
Mass and energy can always be compared to what?
5a7e05ef70df9f001a875428
True
Planck
953
What relation explains the carriers of the electric force?
5a7e05ef70df9f001a875429
True
These quarks and leptons interact through four fundamental forces: gravity, electromagnetism, weak interactions, and strong interactions. The Standard Model of particle physics is currently the best explanation for all of physics, but despite decades of efforts, gravity cannot yet be accounted for at the quantum level; it is only described by classical physics (see quantum gravity and graviton). Interactions between quarks and leptons are the result of an exchange of force-carrying particles (such as photons) between quarks and leptons. The force-carrying particles are not themselves building blocks. As one consequence, mass and energy (which cannot be created or destroyed) cannot always be related to matter (which can be created out of non-matter particles such as photons, or even out of pure energy, such as kinetic energy). Force carriers are usually not considered matter: the carriers of the electric force (photons) possess energy (see Planck relation) and the carriers of the weak force (W and Z bosons) are massive, but neither are considered matter either. However, while these particles are not considered matter, they do contribute to the total mass of atoms, subatomic particles, and all systems that contain them.
matter
485
Physics has broadly agreed on the definition of what?
5a7e070b70df9f001a875439
True
Alfvén
327
Who coined the term partonic matter?
5a7e070b70df9f001a87543a
True
Gk. common matter
350
What is another name for anti-matter?
5a7e070b70df9f001a87543b
True
a specifying modifier
529
Matter usually does not need to be used in conjunction with what?
5a7e070b70df9f001a87543c
True
physics
37
What field of study has a variety of unusual contexts?
5a7e070b70df9f001a87543d
True
The term "matter" is used throughout physics in a bewildering variety of contexts: for example, one refers to "condensed matter physics", "elementary matter", "partonic" matter, "dark" matter, "anti"-matter, "strange" matter, and "nuclear" matter. In discussions of matter and antimatter, normal matter has been referred to by Alfvén as koinomatter (Gk. common matter). It is fair to say that in physics, there is no broad consensus as to a general definition of matter, and the term "matter" usually is used in conjunction with a specifying modifier.
Project Management RAIDD Classification
The project team identified that a key supplier may delay delivery of critical hardware components next month, which could impact the deployment schedule.
What RAIDD category does a potential supplier delay belong to?
raidd001
Risk
26
False
During testing, the application server crashed repeatedly due to memory leaks and the system is currently unavailable for users.
What RAIDD category describes a current system failure affecting users?
raidd002
Issue
14
False
The project manager assigned the infrastructure team to upgrade the database server before the next deployment window.
What RAIDD category represents a task assigned to resolve or progress work?
raidd003
Action
20
False
The leadership team agreed to migrate the application to a cloud environment instead of maintaining on-premise infrastructure.
What RAIDD category represents an approved project direction?
raidd004
Decision
4
False
The deployment of the analytics dashboard cannot proceed until the data warehouse migration is completed by the data engineering team.
What RAIDD category describes work that relies on completion of another task?
raidd005
Dependency
46
False
There is a possibility that regulatory approval may take longer than expected which could delay product launch.
What RAIDD category describes a potential future problem?
raidd006
Risk
0
False
The authentication service is currently failing for multiple users and requires immediate investigation by the engineering team.
What RAIDD category represents a current operational problem?
raidd007
Issue
4
False
The security team must review and approve the new encryption standard before it can be implemented in production.
What RAIDD category represents reliance on approval from another team?
raidd008
Dependency
15
False
The architecture board approved switching the API gateway to a new vendor after evaluating scalability concerns.
What RAIDD category describes a confirmed architectural choice?
raidd009
Decision
24
False
The engineering team will refactor the authentication module to resolve performance bottlenecks.
What RAIDD category represents work assigned to address a problem?
raidd010
Action
22
False
1
Artificial Intelligence
AI
A field of computer science focused on building systems capable of performing tasks that typically require human intelligence.
2
Machine Learning
AI
A subfield of AI that develops algorithms allowing computers to learn patterns from data and make predictions.
3
Deep Learning
Machine Learning
A subset of machine learning that uses multi-layer neural networks to model complex patterns in large datasets.
4
Reinforcement Learning
Machine Learning
A learning paradigm where agents learn optimal actions by interacting with an environment using rewards and penalties.
5
Natural Language Processing
AI
Techniques and models that enable computers to understand, interpret, and generate human language.
6
Computer Vision
AI
A field of AI focused on enabling machines to interpret and understand visual information from images and videos.
7
Robotics
AI Systems
An interdisciplinary field focused on designing, building, and controlling intelligent robotic systems.
8
Autonomous Systems
AI Systems
Systems capable of performing tasks independently without continuous human intervention.
9
Multi-Agent Systems
AI Systems
Systems consisting of multiple intelligent agents interacting and collaborating within a shared environment.
10
Knowledge Representation
AI
Methods for encoding information so that machines can reason and make decisions using stored knowledge.
11
Reasoning Systems
AI
Systems that derive conclusions using logical rules and structured knowledge bases.
12
Expert Systems
AI
AI systems designed to replicate the decision-making abilities of human domain experts.
13
Generative AI
AI
Models capable of generating new data such as text, images, audio, or video.
14
Neural Networks
Deep Learning
Computational models inspired by biological neural networks, consisting of interconnected processing nodes.
15
Convolutional Neural Networks
Deep Learning
Neural networks specifically designed for image and visual data processing.
16
Recurrent Neural Networks
Deep Learning
Neural architectures designed for sequential data processing such as text and time series.
17
Long Short-Term Memory
Deep Learning
A specialized recurrent neural network architecture designed to capture long-term dependencies.
18
Gated Recurrent Units
Deep Learning
An efficient recurrent neural architecture used for sequence modeling.
19
Transformers
Deep Learning
Attention-based neural architectures widely used in modern language and vision models.
20
Vision Transformers
Computer Vision
Transformer-based architectures adapted for image recognition and vision tasks.
21
Graph Neural Networks
Deep Learning
Neural networks designed to operate on graph-structured data.
22
Capsule Networks
Deep Learning
Neural architectures designed to preserve spatial hierarchies in visual data.
23
Self-Supervised Learning
Machine Learning
Learning techniques where models generate labels from the structure of the data itself.
24
Transfer Learning
Machine Learning
A technique where knowledge learned from one task is reused for another related task.
25
Few-Shot Learning
Machine Learning
Training models using very small numbers of labeled examples.
26
Zero-Shot Learning
Machine Learning
The ability of models to recognize unseen classes without explicit training examples.
27
Meta Learning
Machine Learning
A framework where models learn how to learn and adapt quickly to new tasks.
28
Federated Learning
Machine Learning
A distributed learning approach where models are trained across decentralized data sources.
29
Online Learning
Machine Learning
A learning paradigm where models continuously update as new data streams arrive.
30
Incremental Learning
Machine Learning
Models progressively update their knowledge without retraining from scratch.
31
Supervised Learning
Machine Learning
Learning using labeled input-output pairs.
32
Unsupervised Learning
Machine Learning
Learning patterns and structures from unlabeled data.
33
Semi-Supervised Learning
Machine Learning
Learning using a combination of labeled and unlabeled data.
34
Q-Learning
Reinforcement Learning
A value-based reinforcement learning algorithm for optimal action selection.
35
Deep Q-Networks
Reinforcement Learning
A neural network implementation of Q-learning.
36
Policy Gradient
Reinforcement Learning
Optimization techniques for directly learning policies in reinforcement learning.
37
Actor-Critic Methods
Reinforcement Learning
Hybrid algorithms combining policy learning and value estimation.
38
Markov Decision Processes
Reinforcement Learning
A mathematical framework for modeling sequential decision-making problems.
39
Reward Optimization
Reinforcement Learning
Techniques aimed at maximizing cumulative reward in reinforcement learning environments.
1
Robot Perception
Robotics
Perception
Robot perception allows robots to interpret sensor data such as images, lidar, and depth information to understand their environment.
vision
sensor fusion
environment detection
2
Robot Localization
Robotics
Navigation
Robot localization determines the position of a robot within an environment using sensors and algorithms.
pose estimation
navigation
mapping
3
SLAM
Robotics
Mapping
Simultaneous Localization and Mapping enables robots to build a map of an unknown environment while tracking their location.
slam
mapping
navigation
4
Path Planning
Robotics
Navigation
Path planning algorithms calculate an optimal path for a robot to move from one point to another without collisions.
a-star
dijkstra
navigation
5
Motion Planning
Robotics
Control
Motion planning determines how a robot moves its joints and actuators to follow a desired path.
trajectory
control
movement
6
Robot Manipulation
Robotics
Control
Robot manipulation involves controlling robotic arms to interact with objects in the environment.
robot arm
grasping
manipulation
7
Robot Grasping
Robotics
Manipulation
Robot grasping focuses on enabling robots to pick up and manipulate objects using robotic grippers.
gripper
object handling
8
Sensor Fusion
Robotics
Perception
Sensor fusion combines data from multiple sensors to improve environmental understanding.
lidar
camera
imu
9
Robot Navigation
Robotics
Navigation
Robot navigation enables robots to move safely and efficiently through environments.
navigation
planning
10
Obstacle Avoidance
Robotics
Navigation
Obstacle avoidance ensures robots detect and avoid obstacles during movement.
collision detection
path safety
11
ROS
Robotics
Software
Robot Operating System provides middleware tools and libraries for robotic applications.
ros
robot framework
12
ROS2
Robotics
Software
ROS2 is the next generation robotics middleware designed for distributed robotic systems.
ros2
robot middleware
13
Autonomous Robots
Robotics
Autonomy
Autonomous robots perform tasks independently without human intervention.
autonomy
self operating
14
Drone Navigation
Robotics
Aerial Robotics
Drone navigation systems control the movement and positioning of aerial robots.
uav
drone
15
Human Robot Interaction
Robotics
HRI
Human robot interaction focuses on communication between humans and robots.
interaction
collaboration
16
Robot Control Systems
Robotics
Control
Robot control systems manage motors and actuators to perform tasks accurately.
control theory
actuators
17
Robot Sensors
Robotics
Hardware
Robot sensors collect information about the environment and robot state.
camera
lidar
imu
18
Robot Vision
Robotics
Perception
Robot vision uses cameras and computer vision algorithms to analyze visual data.
vision
image processing
19
Robot Simulation
Robotics
Simulation
Robot simulation environments allow testing robotic systems in virtual environments.
gazebo
simulation
20
Industrial Robotics
Robotics
Applications
Industrial robots automate manufacturing tasks such as welding and assembly.
automation
manufacturing
1
OSI Model
Core Networking
Architecture
Seven layer conceptual model describing network communication.
2
TCP Protocol
Core Networking
Transport Layer
Reliable transport protocol ensuring ordered packet delivery.
3
UDP Protocol
Core Networking
Transport Layer
Connectionless transport protocol optimized for speed.
4
IP Addressing
Core Networking
Network Layer
Unique addressing scheme for devices on a network.
5
Subnetting
Core Networking
Addressing
Technique used to divide networks into smaller sub networks.
6
VLAN
Core Networking
Network Segmentation
Virtual LAN used to logically segment networks.
7
NAT
Core Networking
Address Translation
Network Address Translation used to map private IP addresses.
8
ARP
Core Networking
Address Resolution
Protocol used to map IP addresses to MAC addresses.
9
ICMP
Core Networking
Diagnostics
Protocol used for network diagnostics such as ping.
10
MPLS
Core Networking
Traffic Engineering
Multiprotocol Label Switching used for high performance routing.
11
SDN
Core Networking
Network Architecture
Software Defined Networking separates control and data planes.
12
NFV
Core Networking
Virtualization
Network Function Virtualization replaces hardware appliances with software.
13
Routing
Core Networking
Network Layer
Process of forwarding packets between networks.
14
Static Routing
Core Networking
Routing
Manual route configuration.
15
Dynamic Routing
Core Networking
Routing
Automatic routing through routing protocols.
16
OSPF
Core Networking
Routing Protocol
Link state routing protocol.
17
BGP
Core Networking
Routing Protocol
Protocol used between autonomous systems.
18
RIP
Core Networking
Routing Protocol
Distance vector routing protocol.
19
Ethernet
Core Networking
LAN
Standard technology for wired networks.
20
MAC Addressing
Core Networking
Data Link Layer
Hardware addressing for network interfaces.
21
Network Security Fundamentals
Network Security
Security
Principles used to secure network infrastructure.
22
Firewall
Network Security
Security Device
Device that filters network traffic.
23
IDS
Network Security
Intrusion Detection
Intrusion Detection System monitors suspicious traffic.
24
IPS
Network Security
Intrusion Prevention
Intrusion Prevention System blocks malicious traffic.
25
VPN
Network Security
Secure Communication
Virtual Private Network secures remote connections.
26
SSL
Network Security
Encryption
Secure Sockets Layer protocol for encrypted communication.
27
TLS
Network Security
Encryption
Transport Layer Security used for secure data transmission.
28
Zero Trust Architecture
Network Security
Security Framework
Security model that assumes no implicit trust.
29
WiFi
Wireless Networking
Wireless Communication
Wireless networking technology using IEEE 802.11.
30
5G
Wireless Networking
Cellular Networking
Fifth generation mobile network technology.
31
LTE
Wireless Networking
Cellular Networking
Long Term Evolution wireless broadband technology.
32
Bluetooth
Wireless Networking
Short Range Communication
Short range wireless communication protocol.
33
Zigbee
Wireless Networking
IoT Networking
Low power wireless mesh networking protocol.
34
Cloud Networking
Cloud Networking
Cloud Infrastructure
Networking infrastructure used in cloud environments.
35
Load Balancers
Cloud Networking
Traffic Distribution
Distribute traffic across servers.
36
CDN
Cloud Networking
Content Delivery
Content Delivery Network caches content globally.
37
API Gateway
Cloud Networking
API Management
Gateway for managing API traffic.
38
Microservices Networking
Cloud Networking
Service Communication
Networking between microservices.
39
Network Monitoring
Monitoring
Operations
Continuous monitoring of network infrastructure.
40
SNMP
Monitoring
Monitoring Protocol
Simple Network Management Protocol.
41
NetFlow
Monitoring
Traffic Analysis
Network traffic monitoring protocol.
42
Packet Inspection
Monitoring
Traffic Analysis
Deep packet inspection used for traffic analysis.
43
Network Telemetry
Monitoring
Observability
Real time network metrics and monitoring.
44
Quality of Service
Core Networking
Traffic Management
Quality of Service manages network traffic priorities to guarantee bandwidth for critical applications.
45
Traffic Shaping
Core Networking
Traffic Management
Traffic shaping regulates network data transfer rates to improve performance.
46
Link Aggregation
Core Networking
Bandwidth Management
Link aggregation combines multiple network links to increase throughput.
47
Network Congestion Control
Core Networking
Transport Layer
Congestion control techniques prevent network overload.
48
Multicast Networking
Core Networking
Data Transmission
Multicast networking sends data from one source to multiple destinations efficiently.
49
Broadcast Communication
Core Networking
Data Transmission
Broadcast communication sends packets to all devices in a network segment.
50
Unicast Communication
Core Networking
Data Transmission
Unicast communication transmits packets between a single sender and receiver.
51
Deep Packet Inspection
Network Security
Traffic Inspection
Deep packet inspection analyzes packet payloads to detect malicious activity.
52
DDoS Protection
Network Security
Threat Mitigation
DDoS protection mechanisms defend against distributed denial of service attacks.
53
Network Access Control
Network Security
Access Management
Network access control ensures only authorized devices access network resources.
54
Secure Routing
Network Security
Routing Security
Secure routing protects routing protocols from attacks and hijacking.
55
Network Forensics
Network Security
Incident Response
Network forensics investigates network attacks using packet data and logs.
56
WiFi 6
Wireless Networking
Wireless Standards
WiFi 6 improves speed and efficiency of wireless networks.
57
Mesh Networking
Wireless Networking
Network Topology
Mesh networking connects nodes dynamically to extend coverage.
58
IoT Networking
Wireless Networking
IoT Communication
IoT networking connects low power devices across wireless networks.
59
Wireless Spectrum Management
Wireless Networking
Wireless Optimization
Spectrum management allocates frequencies for efficient wireless communication.
60
Wireless Security Protocols
Wireless Networking
Wireless Security
Protocols like WPA3 secure wireless communication.
61
Kubernetes Networking
Cloud Networking
Container Networking
Kubernetes networking connects containers across clusters.
62
Service Mesh
Cloud Networking
Microservices
Service mesh manages communication between microservices.
63
Istio
Cloud Networking
Service Mesh
Istio provides traffic management and security for microservices.
64
Envoy Proxy
Cloud Networking
Proxy Infrastructure
Envoy is a high performance proxy used in service mesh environments.
65
Cloud Load Balancing
Cloud Networking
Traffic Management
Cloud load balancing distributes requests across compute instances.
66
Prometheus Monitoring
Monitoring
Observability
Prometheus collects time series metrics for network monitoring.
67
Network Observability
Monitoring
Operations
Network observability provides visibility into network performance and reliability.
68
Flow Monitoring
Monitoring
Traffic Analysis
Flow monitoring analyzes traffic patterns across network devices.
69
Packet Capture
Monitoring
Diagnostics
Packet capture tools record network packets for troubleshooting.
70
Latency Monitoring
Monitoring
Performance
Latency monitoring measures delay between network endpoints.
71
Network Automation
Network Engineering
Automation
Network automation uses scripts and tools to manage network devices.
72
Infrastructure as Code Networking
Cloud Networking
Automation
Infrastructure as code automates network provisioning.
73
Network Orchestration
Network Engineering
Automation
Network orchestration coordinates multiple automated networking tasks.
74
Network Virtualization
Cloud Networking
Virtual Networks
Network virtualization abstracts physical network resources.
75
Overlay Networking
Cloud Networking
Virtual Networks
Overlay networking builds virtual networks on top of existing infrastructure.
76
Underlay Networking
Cloud Networking
Physical Networks
Underlay networking refers to the physical infrastructure supporting overlays.
77
VXLAN
Cloud Networking
Virtual Networks
VXLAN extends layer 2 networks across layer 3 infrastructure.
78
GRE Tunneling
Core Networking
Tunneling
Generic Routing Encapsulation tunnels packets through networks.
79
IPSec
Network Security
Encryption
IPSec secures IP communication through encryption and authentication.
80
Network Segmentation
Network Security
Security Architecture
Network segmentation isolates network segments for security.
81
Network Isolation
Network Security
Security Architecture
Network isolation separates systems to reduce security risks.
82
Port Security
Network Security
Access Control
Port security restricts which devices can connect to a switch port.
83
Access Control Lists
Network Security
Access Management
ACL rules control traffic based on IP, protocol, or port.
84
Network Authentication
Network Security
Identity Management
Authentication verifies the identity of network users or devices.
85
802.1X Authentication
Network Security
Access Control
802.1X provides port-based network access control.
86
Network Encryption
Network Security
Data Protection
Network encryption protects data transmitted over networks.
87
Public Key Infrastructure
Network Security
Cryptography
PKI manages digital certificates and encryption keys.
88
Certificate Authority
Network Security
Cryptography
Certificate authorities issue and manage digital certificates.
89
Network Hardening
Network Security
Security Operations
Network hardening strengthens security configurations.
90
Security Information and Event Management
Network Security
Security Monitoring
SIEM platforms collect and analyze security events.
91
Network Traffic Analysis
Monitoring
Traffic Analysis
Analyzing traffic patterns to detect anomalies.
92
Bandwidth Monitoring
Monitoring
Performance
Bandwidth monitoring tracks network usage.
93
Network Latency Monitoring
Monitoring
Performance
Measures network delays between nodes.
94
Packet Loss Monitoring
Monitoring
Performance
Packet loss monitoring detects dropped packets.
95
Network Health Monitoring
Monitoring
Operations
Monitors overall network performance and uptime.
96
Network Logging
Monitoring
Observability
Network logging records network events.
97
Log Aggregation
Monitoring
Observability
Aggregating logs from multiple network devices.
98
Distributed Tracing
Monitoring
Observability
Tracing network requests across distributed systems.
99
Network Diagnostics
Monitoring
Troubleshooting
Tools and techniques for diagnosing network problems.
100
Ping Diagnostics
Monitoring
Troubleshooting
Ping tests network connectivity.
101
Traceroute
Monitoring
Troubleshooting
Traceroute identifies packet routes across networks.
102
Network Packet Sniffing
Monitoring
Traffic Inspection
Packet sniffers capture network traffic.
103
Wireshark Analysis
Monitoring
Traffic Inspection
Wireshark analyzes network packets.
104
Network Flow Analysis
Monitoring
Traffic Monitoring
Flow analysis tracks communication patterns.
105
Network Performance Testing
Monitoring
Testing
Testing network performance metrics.
106
Network Benchmarking
Monitoring
Testing
Benchmarking compares network performance.
107
Synthetic Monitoring
Monitoring
Testing
Simulated traffic tests network availability.
108
Network SLA Monitoring
Monitoring
Service Management
Monitoring service level agreements.
109
Application Performance Monitoring
Monitoring
Application Monitoring
APM tracks application network performance.
110
Network Capacity Planning
Monitoring
Planning
Planning future network capacity requirements.
111
Data Center Networking
Core Networking
Infrastructure
Networking architecture within data centers.
112
Leaf Spine Architecture
Core Networking
Data Center
Leaf-spine topology improves data center performance.
113
Top of Rack Switching
Core Networking
Data Center
Top-of-rack switches connect servers within racks.
114
Network Fabric
Core Networking
Infrastructure
Network fabric provides scalable data center connectivity.
115
High Availability Networking
Core Networking
Reliability
Designing networks to minimize downtime.
116
Failover Networking
Core Networking
Reliability
Failover ensures backup systems activate during failures.
117
Redundant Networking
Core Networking
Reliability
Redundant paths improve network resilience.
118
Load Balancing Algorithms
Cloud Networking
Traffic Distribution
Algorithms used to distribute traffic.
119
Round Robin Load Balancing
Cloud Networking
Traffic Distribution
Round robin distributes requests sequentially.
120
Least Connections Load Balancing
Cloud Networking
Traffic Distribution
Least connections balances based on active sessions.
121
DNS Load Balancing
Cloud Networking
Traffic Distribution
DNS-based traffic distribution across servers.
122
Global Server Load Balancing
Cloud Networking
Traffic Distribution
GSLB distributes traffic globally.
123
Network API Management
Cloud Networking
API Infrastructure
Managing APIs across network services.
124
API Rate Limiting
Cloud Networking
Traffic Control
Rate limiting controls API usage.
125
API Authentication
Cloud Networking
Security
Authentication mechanisms for APIs.
126
Service Discovery
Cloud Networking
Microservices
Service discovery identifies service endpoints.
127
Microservice Communication
Cloud Networking
Microservices
Communication methods between microservices.
128
Container Networking
Cloud Networking
Containers
Networking systems used by containers.
129
Pod Networking
Cloud Networking
Kubernetes
Networking communication between pods.
130
Kubernetes Network Policies
Cloud Networking
Security
Policies controlling traffic between pods.
131
Virtual Private Cloud
Cloud Networking
Cloud Infrastructure
Isolated cloud network environment.
132
Cloud NAT
Cloud Networking
Cloud Infrastructure
Network address translation in cloud environments.
133
Cloud Firewall
Cloud Networking
Security
Firewall systems protecting cloud infrastructure.
134
Edge Networking
Cloud Networking
Edge Computing
Networking infrastructure closer to end users.
135
Edge CDN
Cloud Networking
Content Delivery
Edge CDN caches content at network edges.
136
Network QoS Policies
Core Networking
Traffic Management
Policies ensuring network quality of service.
137
Traffic Classification
Core Networking
Traffic Management
Classifying network traffic types.
138
Traffic Policing
Core Networking
Traffic Control
Traffic policing enforces bandwidth limits.
139
Network Scheduling Algorithms
Core Networking
Traffic Management
Algorithms managing packet scheduling.
140
Network Queue Management
Core Networking
Traffic Management
Managing packet queues in network devices.
141
Random Early Detection
Core Networking
Congestion Control
RED reduces network congestion.
142
Explicit Congestion Notification
Core Networking
Congestion Control
ECN signals network congestion.
143
Traffic Engineering
Core Networking
Optimization
Optimizing network traffic flow.
144
Network Path Optimization
Core Networking
Optimization
Selecting optimal routes for traffic.
145
Network Capacity Optimization
Core Networking
Optimization
Improving network throughput efficiency.
146
Network Planning
Network Engineering
Planning
Planning network architecture and expansion.
147
Network Design
Network Engineering
Architecture
Designing network topology and infrastructure.
148
Network Documentation
Network Engineering
Operations
Documenting network configurations.
149
Network Lifecycle Management
Network Engineering
Operations
Managing networks across their lifecycle.
150
Network Compliance
Network Security
Governance
Ensuring networks follow regulatory standards.
151
Network Risk Management
Network Security
Governance
Managing risks associated with network infrastructure.
152
Network Incident Response
Network Security
Security Operations
Responding to network security incidents.
153
Threat Intelligence Networking
Network Security
Threat Analysis
Using threat intelligence to protect networks.
154
Network Threat Hunting
Network Security
Threat Analysis
Proactively searching for threats.
155
Network Malware Detection
Network Security
Threat Detection
Detecting malware activity in networks.
156
Network Sandboxing
Network Security
Threat Analysis
Sandboxing suspicious network traffic.
157
Network Threat Modeling
Network Security
Security Planning
Modeling threats against networks.
158
Network Security Testing
Network Security
Testing
Testing network defenses.
159
Network Penetration Testing
Network Security
Testing
Ethical hacking against networks.
160
Network Vulnerability Scanning
Network Security
Assessment
Scanning networks for vulnerabilities.
161
Network Compliance Auditing
Network Security
Governance
Auditing networks for compliance.
162
Network Backup Systems
Network Engineering
Reliability
Backup strategies for network configurations.
163
Network Disaster Recovery
Network Engineering
Reliability
Recovering networks after disasters.
164
Network Redundancy Planning
Network Engineering
Reliability
Planning redundancy to avoid failures.
165
Network Performance Optimization
Network Engineering
Optimization
Improving overall network performance.
166
Network Resource Allocation
Network Engineering
Optimization
Efficient allocation of network resources.
167
Network Traffic Forecasting
Network Engineering
Planning
Forecasting network usage patterns.
168
Network Simulation
Network Engineering
Simulation
Simulating networks before deployment.
169
Network Emulation
Network Engineering
Simulation
Emulating network environments.
170
Network Testbeds
Network Engineering
Research
Experimental environments for networking research.
171
Network Research Platforms
Network Engineering
Research
Platforms for networking experimentation.
172
Internet Exchange Points
Core Networking
Infrastructure
IXPs connect multiple internet networks.
173
Internet Backbone Networks
Core Networking
Infrastructure
High capacity backbone networks supporting the internet.
174
Carrier Grade Networking
Core Networking
Telecommunications
High reliability networking used by telecom providers.
175
Telecommunication Networks
Core Networking
Telecom
Large scale communication infrastructure.
176
Mobile Core Networking
Wireless Networking
Mobile Infrastructure
Core networking architecture for mobile carriers.
177
Radio Access Networks
Wireless Networking
Mobile Infrastructure
RAN connects mobile devices to cellular networks.
178
Network Edge Computing
Cloud Networking
Edge Computing
Processing data closer to network edges.
179
Edge Security Networking
Cloud Networking
Security
Security for edge network infrastructure.
180
Multi Cloud Networking
Cloud Networking
Cloud Architecture
Networking across multiple cloud providers.
181
Hybrid Cloud Networking
Cloud Networking
Cloud Architecture
Networking between private and public clouds.
182
Cloud Interconnect
Cloud Networking
Cloud Infrastructure
Direct networking between cloud providers.
183
Cloud Network Security
Cloud Networking
Security
Protecting cloud network infrastructure.
184
Cloud Network Monitoring
Cloud Networking
Observability
Monitoring cloud network performance.
185
Cloud Traffic Engineering
Cloud Networking
Optimization
Optimizing traffic flow in cloud networks.
186
Cloud Service Networking
Cloud Networking
Service Architecture
Networking between cloud services.
187
Cloud Data Transfer Optimization
Cloud Networking
Optimization
Improving transfer speeds in cloud networks.
188
Cloud Network Isolation
Cloud Networking
Security
Isolating cloud network segments.
189
Cloud Virtual Networks
Cloud Networking
Virtualization
Virtual networking infrastructure in cloud environments.
190
Cloud Subnet Architecture
Cloud Networking
Addressing
Subnet design within cloud networks.
191
Network Governance
Network Security
Governance
Policies and controls for managing networks.
192
Network Policy Management
Network Security
Governance
Managing policies that control network behavior.
193
Network Configuration Management
Network Engineering
Operations
Managing network device configurations.
194
Network Change Management
Network Engineering
Operations
Managing network infrastructure changes.
195
Network Infrastructure Management
Network Engineering
Operations
Managing network infrastructure lifecycle.
196
Network Resource Management
Network Engineering
Operations
Managing bandwidth and device resources.
197
Network Service Management
Network Engineering
Operations
Managing network services and availability.
198
Network Capacity Forecasting
Network Engineering
Planning
Forecasting future network capacity requirements.
199
Network Infrastructure Planning
Network Engineering
Planning
Planning network infrastructure expansion.
200
Enterprise Network Architecture
Core Networking
Architecture
Designing large scale enterprise network infrastructures.
1
Blockchain Fundamentals
Blockchain
Concepts
Basic principles of distributed ledger technology.
2
Distributed Ledger Technology
Blockchain
Concepts
Database shared across decentralized network nodes.
3
Cryptographic Hash Functions
Blockchain
Cryptography
Functions used to secure blockchain data integrity.
4
Merkle Trees
Blockchain
Data Structures
Tree structure used to verify blockchain transactions.
5
Consensus Algorithms
Blockchain
Consensus
Protocols allowing nodes to agree on blockchain state.
6
Proof of Work
Blockchain
Consensus
Mining based consensus mechanism.
7
Proof of Stake
Blockchain
Consensus
Consensus mechanism based on validator stake.
8
Delegated Proof of Stake
Blockchain
Consensus
Token holders elect block producers.
9
Proof of Authority
Blockchain
Consensus
Validator identity based consensus system.
10
Proof of History
Blockchain
Consensus
Timestamp mechanism for transaction ordering.
11
Bitcoin
Cryptocurrency
Blockchain Network
First decentralized cryptocurrency network.
12
Bitcoin Mining
Bitcoin
Mining
Process of validating blocks using computational power.
13
Bitcoin Nodes
Bitcoin
Network
Computers maintaining Bitcoin blockchain.
14
Bitcoin Wallets
Bitcoin
Wallets
Applications storing private keys.
15
Bitcoin Transactions
Bitcoin
Transactions
Transfer of bitcoin between addresses.
16
Bitcoin Script
Bitcoin
Smart Contracts
Simple scripting language for Bitcoin.
17
Bitcoin Halving
Bitcoin
Economics
Event reducing mining reward.
18
Bitcoin Difficulty Adjustment
Bitcoin
Mining
Adjusting mining difficulty to maintain block time.
19
Bitcoin Lightning Network
Bitcoin
Layer2
Layer 2 payment channel network.
20
Bitcoin Block Reward
Bitcoin
Mining
Reward miners receive for validating blocks.
21
Ethereum
Blockchain
Platform
Smart contract blockchain platform.
22
Ethereum Virtual Machine
Ethereum
Execution
Runtime environment executing smart contracts.
23
Ethereum Accounts
Ethereum
Accounts
Externally owned accounts and contract accounts.
24
Ethereum Transactions
Ethereum
Transactions
Operations executed on Ethereum network.
25
Ethereum Gas
Ethereum
Economics
Transaction execution fee.
26
Ethereum Gas Limit
Ethereum
Economics
Maximum gas allowed per transaction.
27
Ethereum Gas Price
Ethereum
Economics
Cost per unit of gas.
28
Ethereum Staking
Ethereum
Consensus
Validators stake ETH to secure network.
29
Ethereum Layer2
Ethereum
Scaling
Scaling solutions like rollups.
30
Ethereum Nodes
Ethereum
Network
Nodes storing Ethereum blockchain.
31
Solidity Programming
Ethereum
Smart Contracts
Language for writing Ethereum smart contracts.
32
Solidity Variables
Solidity
Programming
Storage variables inside contracts.
33
Solidity Functions
Solidity
Programming
Functions executing contract logic.
34
Solidity Modifiers
Solidity
Programming
Reusable checks applied to functions.
35
Solidity Events
Solidity
Programming
Logs emitted from contracts.
36
Solidity Structs
Solidity
Data Structures
Custom data structures.
37
Solidity Arrays
Solidity
Data Structures
Dynamic or fixed arrays.
38
Solidity Mappings
Solidity
Data Structures
Key value data storage.
39
Solidity Libraries
Solidity
Programming
Reusable contract code modules.
40
Solidity Interfaces
Solidity
Programming
Interface definitions for contracts.
41
Decentralized Finance
Blockchain
Applications
Financial services built on blockchain.
42
Decentralized Exchanges
DeFi
Trading
Peer to peer crypto trading platforms.
43
Liquidity Pools
DeFi
Trading
Pools enabling automated trading.
44
Yield Farming
DeFi
Finance
Earning rewards by providing liquidity.
45
Staking Rewards
DeFi
Finance
Rewards for staking tokens.
46
Non Fungible Tokens
Blockchain
Digital Assets
Unique digital assets on blockchain.
47
NFT Marketplaces
NFT
Trading
Platforms for buying and selling NFTs.
48
NFT Minting
NFT
Creation
Process of creating NFTs.
49
NFT Metadata
NFT
Data
Data describing NFT assets.
50
NFT Smart Contracts
NFT
Programming
Contracts controlling NFT ownership.
51
Hyperledger Fabric
Blockchain
Enterprise Blockchain
Permissioned blockchain framework.
52
Hyperledger Sawtooth
Hyperledger
Framework
Modular blockchain framework.
53
Hyperledger Indy
Hyperledger
Identity
Decentralized identity blockchain.
54
Hyperledger Besu
Hyperledger
Ethereum Client
Enterprise Ethereum client.
55
Hyperledger Composer
Hyperledger
Tools
Tool for building blockchain apps.
56
Corda Platform
Blockchain
Enterprise Blockchain
Distributed ledger platform for enterprises.
57
Corda Nodes
Corda
Network
Participants in Corda network.
58
Corda Contracts
Corda
Smart Contracts
Rules governing transactions.
59
Corda Flows
Corda
Transactions
Protocols for communication between nodes.
60
Corda Notary
Corda
Consensus
Service preventing double spending.
61
Internet Computer Protocol
Blockchain
ICP
Blockchain platform developed by DFINITY.
62
ICP Canisters
ICP
Smart Contracts
Compute containers storing logic.
63
ICP Subnets
ICP
Architecture
Independent chains inside ICP.
64
ICP Tokens
ICP
Cryptocurrency
Native tokens used for computation.
65
ICP Governance
ICP
Governance
Governance through Network Nervous System.
66
Web3
Blockchain
Applications
Decentralized internet infrastructure.
67
Web3 Wallets
Web3
Wallets
Wallets interacting with decentralized applications.
68
Web3 Authentication
Web3
Identity
Authentication using blockchain wallets.
69
Decentralized Applications
Web3
Applications
Applications running on blockchain networks.
70
Blockchain Oracles
Blockchain
Infrastructure
External data feeds for smart contracts.
71
Chainlink
Blockchain
Oracles
Decentralized oracle network.
72
Layer2 Rollups
Ethereum
Scaling
Scaling solution bundling transactions.
73
Optimistic Rollups
Ethereum
Scaling
Layer2 optimistic transaction validation.
74
ZK Rollups
Ethereum
Scaling
Zero knowledge proof based scaling.
75
Sidechains
Blockchain
Scaling
Independent chains connected to main blockchain.
76
Blockchain Bridges
Blockchain
Interoperability
Connecting different blockchains.
77
Cross Chain Communication
Blockchain
Interoperability
Protocols enabling blockchain interaction.
78
Token Standards
Ethereum
Standards
Standardized token implementations.
79
ERC20 Tokens
Ethereum
Standards
Standard for fungible tokens.
80
ERC721 Tokens
Ethereum
Standards
Standard for NFTs.
81
ERC1155 Tokens
Ethereum
Standards
Multi token standard.
82
Blockchain Governance
Blockchain
Governance
Decision making in decentralized networks.
83
DAO
Blockchain
Governance
Decentralized autonomous organizations.
84
DAO Voting Mechanisms
Blockchain
Governance
Voting mechanisms for DAO decisions.
85
Token Economics
Blockchain
Economics
Economic design of blockchain tokens.
86
Blockchain Security
Blockchain
Security
Security considerations for blockchain networks.
87
Smart Contract Auditing
Blockchain
Security
Auditing smart contract vulnerabilities.
88
Reentrancy Attacks
Blockchain
Security
Smart contract vulnerability allowing recursive calls.
89
Integer Overflow
Blockchain
Security
Overflow vulnerability in contracts.
90
Flash Loan Attacks
Blockchain
Security
Exploiting flash loans in DeFi.
91
Blockchain Privacy
Blockchain
Security
Privacy mechanisms for blockchain users.
92
Zero Knowledge Proofs
Blockchain
Cryptography
Cryptographic method proving knowledge without revealing it.
93
zkSNARKs
Blockchain
Cryptography
Succinct zero knowledge proofs.
94
zkSTARKs
Blockchain
Cryptography
Transparent zero knowledge proofs.
95
Privacy Coins
Blockchain
Cryptocurrency
Cryptocurrencies focusing on transaction privacy.
96
Blockchain Interoperability
Blockchain
Architecture
Connecting multiple blockchains.
97
Blockchain Scalability
Blockchain
Architecture
Improving blockchain throughput.
98
Blockchain Sharding
Blockchain
Scaling
Partitioning blockchain networks.
99
Blockchain Governance Models
Blockchain
Governance
Models for decentralized governance.
100
Blockchain Infrastructure
Blockchain
Architecture
Infrastructure supporting blockchain networks.
101
Blockchain Nodes
Blockchain
Infrastructure
Nodes maintain and validate the distributed ledger.
102
Full Nodes
Blockchain
Infrastructure
Nodes that store the entire blockchain history.
103
Light Nodes
Blockchain
Infrastructure
Nodes that verify transactions without storing full blockchain.
104
Mining Pools
Blockchain
Mining
Groups of miners combining computational power.
105
Hash Rate
Blockchain
Mining
Measure of computational power used for mining.
106
Cold Wallets
Blockchain
Wallets
Offline storage for cryptocurrency keys.
107
Hot Wallets
Blockchain
Wallets
Online wallets connected to the internet.
108
Hardware Wallets
Blockchain
Wallets
Physical devices used to store private keys securely.
109
Multi Signature Wallets
Blockchain
Wallets
Wallets requiring multiple keys for authorization.
110
Hierarchical Deterministic Wallets
Blockchain
Wallets
Wallets generating multiple keys from one seed.
111
Blockchain Forks
Blockchain
Governance
Protocol changes creating new chains.
112
Hard Fork
Blockchain
Governance
Backward incompatible blockchain upgrade.
113
Soft Fork
Blockchain
Governance
Backward compatible blockchain upgrade.
114
Blockchain Governance Tokens
Blockchain
Governance
Tokens used to vote on protocol changes.
115
On Chain Governance
Blockchain
Governance
Governance mechanisms implemented on blockchain.
116
Off Chain Governance
Blockchain
Governance
Decision making processes outside blockchain.
117
Stablecoins
Blockchain
Cryptocurrency
Cryptocurrencies pegged to stable assets.
118
Algorithmic Stablecoins
Blockchain
Cryptocurrency
Stablecoins stabilized through algorithms.
119
Collateralized Stablecoins
Blockchain
Cryptocurrency
Stablecoins backed by collateral.
120
Central Bank Digital Currency
Blockchain
Digital Currency
Government issued digital currency.
121
Blockchain Oracles Security
Blockchain
Security
Security concerns with oracle data feeds.
122
Oracle Manipulation Attacks
Blockchain
Security
Attacks manipulating oracle price feeds.
123
Flash Loan Arbitrage
DeFi
Trading
Arbitrage strategies using flash loans.
124
DeFi Lending Protocols
DeFi
Finance
Platforms allowing crypto lending.
125
DeFi Borrowing Protocols
DeFi
Finance
Protocols enabling borrowing with collateral.
126
Automated Market Makers
DeFi
Trading
Protocols enabling decentralized token swaps.
127
Uniswap Protocol
DeFi
DEX
Popular decentralized exchange protocol.
128
SushiSwap
DeFi
DEX
Fork of Uniswap decentralized exchange.
129
Curve Finance
DeFi
DEX
Stablecoin focused decentralized exchange.
130
Aave Protocol
DeFi
Lending
DeFi lending and borrowing platform.
131
Compound Finance
DeFi
Lending
Algorithmic interest rate protocol.
132
MakerDAO
DeFi
Stablecoin
Protocol managing DAI stablecoin.
133
DAI Stablecoin
DeFi
Stablecoin
Decentralized stablecoin.
134
Collateralized Debt Positions
DeFi
Lending
Positions used to generate stablecoins.
135
Liquidation Mechanisms
DeFi
Finance
Automatic liquidation of under collateralized loans.
136
Blockchain Gaming
Blockchain
Applications
Games using blockchain assets.
137
Play to Earn
Blockchain
Gaming
Gaming model rewarding players with tokens.
138
Metaverse Assets
Blockchain
Gaming
Digital assets used in metaverse platforms.
139
Tokenized Assets
Blockchain
Finance
Real world assets represented as tokens.
140
Security Tokens
Blockchain
Finance
Tokens representing financial securities.
141
Utility Tokens
Blockchain
Economics
Tokens providing platform access.
142
Governance Tokens
Blockchain
Governance
Tokens enabling voting rights.
143
Initial Coin Offerings
Blockchain
Fundraising
Blockchain based fundraising model.
144
Initial DEX Offerings
Blockchain
Fundraising
Token sales via decentralized exchanges.
145
Token Generation Event
Blockchain
Fundraising
Event creating new tokens.
146
Blockchain Explorer
Blockchain
Tools
Tools for viewing blockchain transactions.
147
Etherscan
Ethereum
Tools
Explorer for Ethereum blockchain.
148
Blockchain Analytics
Blockchain
Data Analysis
Analyzing blockchain transaction data.
149
Crypto Market Analytics
Blockchain
Finance
Analyzing crypto trading markets.
150
Blockchain Data Indexing
Blockchain
Infrastructure
Indexing blockchain data for faster queries.
201
Web3 Infrastructure
Blockchain
Infrastructure
Services supporting decentralized applications.
202
Infura
Ethereum
Infrastructure
Ethereum node infrastructure provider.
203
Alchemy API
Ethereum
Infrastructure
Blockchain development platform.
204
The Graph Protocol
Blockchain
Indexing
Protocol indexing blockchain data.
205
Subgraphs
Blockchain
Indexing
Queryable blockchain datasets.
206
IPFS
Blockchain
Storage
Decentralized file storage network.
207
Filecoin
Blockchain
Storage
Incentivized decentralized storage network.
208
Arweave
Blockchain
Storage
Permanent decentralized data storage.
209
Decentralized Storage
Blockchain
Infrastructure
Distributed file storage networks.
210
Blockchain Data Availability
Blockchain
Infrastructure
Ensuring blockchain data accessibility.
211
Blockchain Scalability Solutions
Blockchain
Scaling
Methods to increase transaction throughput.
212
State Channels
Blockchain
Scaling
Off chain transaction mechanisms.
213
Plasma Chains
Blockchain
Scaling
Child chains improving scalability.
214
Validium
Blockchain
Scaling
Scaling using off chain data availability.
215
Optimistic Ethereum
Ethereum
Scaling
Layer 2 optimistic rollup solution.
216
Arbitrum
Ethereum
Scaling
Layer2 rollup scaling solution.
217
zkSync
Ethereum
Scaling
Zero knowledge rollup platform.
218
StarkNet
Ethereum
Scaling
ZK rollup scaling network.
219
Polygon Network
Ethereum
Scaling
Layer2 blockchain scaling ecosystem.
220
Avalanche Blockchain
Blockchain
Platform
High throughput blockchain platform.
221
Solana Blockchain
Blockchain
Platform
High performance blockchain network.
222
Cardano Blockchain
Blockchain
Platform
Proof of stake blockchain platform.
223
Polkadot Network
Blockchain
Interoperability
Multi chain interoperability protocol.
224
Cosmos Blockchain
Blockchain
Interoperability
Blockchain ecosystem connecting independent chains.
225
IBC Protocol
Blockchain
Interoperability
Inter blockchain communication protocol.
226
Blockchain Bridges Security
Blockchain
Security
Security considerations for cross chain bridges.
227
Bridge Exploits
Blockchain
Security
Attacks exploiting blockchain bridges.
228
Smart Contract Testing
Blockchain
Development
Testing smart contract functionality.
229
Smart Contract Deployment
Blockchain
Development
Deploying contracts to blockchain.
230
Hardhat Framework
Ethereum
Development
Smart contract development environment.
231
Truffle Suite
Ethereum
Development
Framework for Ethereum development.
232
Ganache
Ethereum
Development
Local Ethereum blockchain simulator.
233
Remix IDE
Ethereum
Development
Web based Solidity development environment.
234
Web3.js
Ethereum
Development
JavaScript library interacting with Ethereum.
235
Ethers.js
Ethereum
Development
Library for interacting with Ethereum blockchain.
236
WalletConnect
Web3
Wallet Integration
Protocol connecting wallets to dApps.
237
MetaMask
Web3
Wallet
Browser wallet for Ethereum.
238
Trust Wallet
Web3
Wallet
Mobile cryptocurrency wallet.
239
Phantom Wallet
Web3
Wallet
Solana blockchain wallet.
240
Blockchain Identity
Blockchain
Identity
Decentralized identity systems.
241
Self Sovereign Identity
Blockchain
Identity
Identity controlled by individuals.
242
Decentralized Identifiers
Blockchain
Identity
W3C standard for decentralized identity.
243
Verifiable Credentials
Blockchain
Identity
Cryptographically verifiable identity credentials.
244
Blockchain Supply Chain
Blockchain
Applications
Tracking goods using blockchain.
245
Blockchain Healthcare
Blockchain
Applications
Healthcare data management using blockchain.
246
Blockchain Voting Systems
Blockchain
Applications
Secure voting using blockchain.
247
Blockchain Insurance
Blockchain
Applications
Insurance claims managed via smart contracts.
248
Blockchain Real Estate
Blockchain
Applications
Tokenized real estate ownership.
249
Blockchain Energy Trading
Blockchain
Applications
Peer to peer energy markets.
250
Blockchain Carbon Credits
Blockchain
Applications
Tokenized carbon credit trading.
251
Blockchain Interoperability Frameworks
Blockchain
Architecture
Frameworks enabling blockchain interaction.
252
Blockchain Governance Models
Blockchain
Governance
Governance frameworks for decentralized networks.
253
Token Vesting
Blockchain
Economics
Gradual release of tokens over time.
254
Token Burn Mechanisms
Blockchain
Economics
Removing tokens from circulation.
255
Deflationary Tokens
Blockchain
Economics
Tokens decreasing supply over time.
256
Inflationary Tokens
Blockchain
Economics
Tokens increasing supply.
257
Crypto Derivatives
Blockchain
Finance
Financial derivatives based on crypto assets.
258
Crypto Options Trading
Blockchain
Finance
Options contracts for cryptocurrencies.
259
Crypto Futures Trading
Blockchain
Finance
Futures contracts for crypto assets.
260
Decentralized Autonomous Organizations Security
Blockchain
Security
Security considerations for DAOs.
261
DAO Treasury Management
Blockchain
Governance
Managing funds in decentralized organizations.
262
Governance Voting Systems
Blockchain
Governance
Voting mechanisms in DAOs.
263
Quadratic Voting
Blockchain
Governance
Voting method balancing influence.
264
Blockchain Research Platforms
Blockchain
Research
Platforms studying blockchain systems.
265
Blockchain Academic Research
Blockchain
Research
Academic studies on blockchain technology.
266
Blockchain Performance Metrics
Blockchain
Research
Metrics evaluating blockchain performance.
267
Blockchain Benchmarking
Blockchain
Research
Benchmarking blockchain systems.
268
Blockchain Security Auditing
Blockchain
Security
Auditing blockchain networks.
269
Blockchain Regulatory Compliance
Blockchain
Regulation
Compliance with financial regulations.
270
Crypto AML Compliance
Blockchain
Regulation
Anti money laundering compliance.
271
Crypto KYC Systems
Blockchain
Regulation
Know your customer identity verification.
272
Crypto Taxation
Blockchain
Regulation
Tax policies on crypto assets.
273
Digital Asset Custody
Blockchain
Finance
Secure storage of digital assets.
274
Crypto Custodian Services
Blockchain
Finance
Services storing cryptocurrency assets.
275
Institutional Crypto Trading
Blockchain
Finance
Trading by institutional investors.
276
Blockchain Market Liquidity
Blockchain
Finance
Liquidity levels in crypto markets.
277
Crypto Market Volatility
Blockchain
Finance
Price volatility in crypto assets.
278
Crypto Trading Bots
Blockchain
Finance
Automated crypto trading algorithms.
279
Blockchain Data Analytics
Blockchain
Analytics
Analyzing blockchain datasets.
280
On Chain Analytics
Blockchain
Analytics
Analyzing blockchain transaction data.
281
Crypto Whale Tracking
Blockchain
Analytics
Tracking large crypto transactions.
282
Token Distribution Analysis
Blockchain
Analytics
Analyzing token ownership distribution.
283
Blockchain Network Health
Blockchain
Monitoring
Monitoring blockchain network performance.
284
Blockchain Node Monitoring
Blockchain
Monitoring
Monitoring node uptime.
285
Blockchain Transaction Monitoring
Blockchain
Monitoring
Monitoring blockchain transaction flow.
286
Crypto Portfolio Management
Blockchain
Finance
Managing crypto investment portfolios.
287
Crypto Risk Management
Blockchain
Finance
Managing risks in crypto trading.
288
Blockchain Venture Capital
Blockchain
Finance
Investments in blockchain startups.
289
Blockchain Startup Ecosystem
Blockchain
Industry
Companies building blockchain products.
290
Blockchain Developer Ecosystem
Blockchain
Industry
Developer tools and platforms.
291
Web3 Developer Tools
Blockchain
Development
Tools for building Web3 applications.
292
Blockchain SDKs
Blockchain
Development
Software development kits for blockchain.
293
Blockchain APIs
Blockchain
Development
APIs interacting with blockchain networks.
294
Blockchain Cloud Services
Blockchain
Infrastructure
Cloud based blockchain hosting.
295
Blockchain Infrastructure Providers
Blockchain
Infrastructure
Companies providing blockchain nodes.
296
Blockchain Ecosystem Mapping
Blockchain
Research
Mapping blockchain platforms and protocols.
297
Blockchain Innovation Trends
Blockchain
Research
Emerging blockchain technologies.
298
Blockchain Industry Standards
Blockchain
Standards
Standardization of blockchain technologies.
299
Blockchain Technology Roadmaps
Blockchain
Research
Future plans for blockchain development.
300
Global Blockchain Adoption
Blockchain
Industry
Adoption of blockchain technology worldwide.
1
Bioinformatics
Bioinformatics
Fundamentals
Application of computational techniques to analyze biological data.
2
Computational Biology
Bioinformatics
Fundamentals
Using computer science methods to study biological systems.
3
Genomics
Bioinformatics
Omics
Study of genomes and genetic material.
4
Proteomics
Bioinformatics
Omics
Study of proteins and their functions.
5
Transcriptomics
Bioinformatics
Omics
Study of RNA transcripts produced by the genome.
6
Metabolomics
Bioinformatics
Omics
Study of metabolites in biological systems.
7
Structural Bioinformatics
Bioinformatics
Structure
Analysis of biomolecular structures.
8
Systems Biology
Bioinformatics
Systems
Modeling complex biological interactions.
9
Functional Genomics
Bioinformatics
Genomics
Understanding gene function and interaction.
10
Comparative Genomics
Bioinformatics
Genomics
Comparing genomes between species.
11
Genome Sequencing
Bioinformatics
Sequencing
Determining nucleotide order in DNA.
12
Whole Genome Sequencing
Bioinformatics
Sequencing
Sequencing entire genome of organism.
13
Next Generation Sequencing
Bioinformatics
Sequencing
High throughput DNA sequencing technologies.
14
Third Generation Sequencing
Bioinformatics
Sequencing
Long read sequencing technologies.
15
RNA Sequencing
Bioinformatics
Sequencing
Sequencing RNA transcripts.
16
Single Cell Sequencing
Bioinformatics
Sequencing
Sequencing individual cells.
17
Genome Assembly
Bioinformatics
Genomics
Reconstructing genome from sequence reads.
18
Genome Annotation
Bioinformatics
Genomics
Identifying genes in genome.
19
Gene Prediction
Bioinformatics
Genomics
Identifying gene regions in DNA.
20
Gene Expression Analysis
Bioinformatics
Transcriptomics
Analyzing gene activity levels.
21
Sequence Alignment
Bioinformatics
Algorithms
Comparing biological sequences.
22
Pairwise Sequence Alignment
Bioinformatics
Algorithms
Aligning two sequences.
23
Multiple Sequence Alignment
Bioinformatics
Algorithms
Aligning many sequences simultaneously.
24
BLAST Algorithm
Bioinformatics
Algorithms
Searching sequence similarity.
25
Needleman Wunsch Algorithm
Bioinformatics
Algorithms
Global sequence alignment algorithm.
26
Smith Waterman Algorithm
Bioinformatics
Algorithms
Local sequence alignment algorithm.
27
Hidden Markov Models
Bioinformatics
Algorithms
Probabilistic sequence models.
28
Phylogenetic Analysis
Bioinformatics
Evolution
Studying evolutionary relationships.
29
Phylogenetic Trees
Bioinformatics
Evolution
Tree diagrams showing evolution.
30
Molecular Evolution
Bioinformatics
Evolution
Evolution at molecular level.
31
Protein Structure Prediction
Bioinformatics
Structure
Predicting protein 3D structures.
32
Protein Folding
Bioinformatics
Structure
How proteins fold into shapes.
33
AlphaFold
Bioinformatics
Structure
AI model predicting protein structures.
34
Molecular Docking
Bioinformatics
Structure
Predicting molecular interactions.
35
Protein Protein Interaction
Bioinformatics
Proteomics
Interaction networks of proteins.
36
Drug Discovery Bioinformatics
Bioinformatics
Drug Discovery
Computational drug development.
37
Pharmacogenomics
Bioinformatics
Drug Discovery
Genetic response to drugs.
38
Virtual Screening
Bioinformatics
Drug Discovery
Screening drug molecules computationally.
39
Molecular Dynamics Simulation
Bioinformatics
Structure
Simulation of molecular movement.
40
Protein Modeling
Bioinformatics
Structure
Modeling protein 3D structures.
41
GenBank Database
Bioinformatics
Databases
DNA sequence database.
42
UniProt Database
Bioinformatics
Databases
Protein sequence database.
43
Protein Data Bank
Bioinformatics
Databases
Protein structure database.
44
KEGG Database
Bioinformatics
Databases
Biological pathway database.
45
Gene Ontology
Bioinformatics
Databases
Gene function classification system.
46
Bioinformatics Pipelines
Bioinformatics
Analysis
Automated analysis workflows.
47
Genome Wide Association Studies
Bioinformatics
Genomics
Associating genes with traits.
48
Population Genomics
Bioinformatics
Genomics
Genetic variation across populations.
49
Epigenomics
Bioinformatics
Genomics
Epigenetic genome modifications.
50
DNA Methylation Analysis
Bioinformatics
Epigenetics
Studying methylation patterns.
51
ChIP Sequencing
Bioinformatics
Sequencing
Studying protein DNA binding.
52
Microarray Analysis
Bioinformatics
Transcriptomics
Measuring gene expression.
53
Metagenomics
Bioinformatics
Microbiology
Studying microbial communities.
54
Microbiome Analysis
Bioinformatics
Microbiology
Analyzing microbial ecosystems.
55
SNP Detection
Bioinformatics
Genomics
Identifying single nucleotide polymorphisms.
56
Variant Calling
Bioinformatics
Genomics
Identifying genetic variants.
57
Genome Browsers
Bioinformatics
Tools
Visualizing genome data.
58
UCSC Genome Browser
Bioinformatics
Tools
Genome visualization tool.
59
Ensembl Genome Browser
Bioinformatics
Tools
Genome annotation database.
60
NCBI Tools
Bioinformatics
Tools
Tools for biological data analysis.
61
Biological Pathway Analysis
Bioinformatics
Systems
Analyzing biological pathways.
62
Metabolic Pathway Analysis
Bioinformatics
Systems
Analyzing metabolic networks.
63
Gene Regulatory Networks
Bioinformatics
Systems
Gene interaction networks.
64
Protein Interaction Networks
Bioinformatics
Proteomics
Networks of interacting proteins.
65
Biological Network Analysis
Bioinformatics
Systems
Analyzing biological interaction networks.
66
Biomedical Text Mining
Bioinformatics
Data Mining
Extracting knowledge from biomedical texts.
67
Clinical Bioinformatics
Bioinformatics
Medicine
Applying bioinformatics in healthcare.
68
Cancer Genomics
Bioinformatics
Medicine
Genomic analysis of cancer.
69
Precision Medicine
Bioinformatics
Medicine
Personalized medical treatments.
70
Pharmacogenomics Analysis
Bioinformatics
Medicine
Drug response prediction.
71
Protein Domain Prediction
Bioinformatics
Proteomics
Predicting protein functional regions.
72
Motif Discovery
Bioinformatics
Genomics
Identifying recurring sequence patterns.
73
Gene Clustering
Bioinformatics
Algorithms
Grouping genes by similarity.
74
Expression Profiling
Bioinformatics
Transcriptomics
Gene expression measurement.
75
Proteome Analysis
Bioinformatics
Proteomics
Studying full protein sets.
76
Biological Databases
Bioinformatics
Databases
Repositories storing biological information.
77
Sequence Databases
Bioinformatics
Databases
Databases storing DNA sequences.
78
Protein Databases
Bioinformatics
Databases
Databases storing protein data.
79
Genome Databases
Bioinformatics
Databases
Databases storing genome information.
80
Metabolite Databases
Bioinformatics
Databases
Databases of metabolites.
81
Machine Learning in Bioinformatics
Bioinformatics
AI
Applying ML to biological datasets.
82
Deep Learning in Genomics
Bioinformatics
AI
Deep learning models for genomic analysis.
83
AI for Drug Discovery
Bioinformatics
AI
Artificial intelligence in pharmaceutical research.
84
Protein Structure AI
Bioinformatics
AI
AI models predicting protein structures.
85
Gene Expression Prediction
Bioinformatics
AI
Predicting gene expression patterns.
86
Biological Data Mining
Bioinformatics
Data Mining
Mining biological datasets.
87
Omics Data Integration
Bioinformatics
Omics
Combining multiple omics datasets.
88
Biomedical Big Data
Bioinformatics
Data Science
Large scale biomedical datasets.
89
Biostatistics
Bioinformatics
Statistics
Statistical analysis of biological data.
90
Statistical Genomics
Bioinformatics
Statistics
Statistics applied to genomic data.
91
Bayesian Models in Bioinformatics
Bioinformatics
Statistics
Probabilistic models for biological data.
92
Sequence Pattern Recognition
Bioinformatics
Algorithms
Detecting patterns in sequences.
93
Genomic Data Visualization
Bioinformatics
Visualization
Visualizing genomic information.
94
Biological Data Visualization
Bioinformatics
Visualization
Visualizing biological datasets.
95
Network Biology
Bioinformatics
Systems
Studying biological networks.
96
Systems Medicine
Bioinformatics
Medicine
Integrating systems biology into medicine.
97
Computational Drug Design
Bioinformatics
Drug Discovery
Designing drugs using computation.
98
Biomarker Discovery
Bioinformatics
Medicine
Identifying disease biomarkers.
99
Genetic Variant Interpretation
Bioinformatics
Genomics
Interpreting genetic mutations.
100
Clinical Genomics
Bioinformatics
Medicine
Using genomic data in healthcare.
101
Metagenomic Sequencing
Bioinformatics
Metagenomics
Sequencing DNA from environmental samples containing multiple organisms.
102
Microbial Genomics
Bioinformatics
Microbiology
Genomic analysis of microorganisms.
103
Microbiome Sequencing
Bioinformatics
Microbiology
Sequencing microbial communities.
104
Metagenomic Assembly
Bioinformatics
Metagenomics
Assembling genomes from mixed microbial data.
105
Microbial Diversity Analysis
Bioinformatics
Metagenomics
Analyzing microbial diversity in environments.
106
16S rRNA Analysis
Bioinformatics
Microbiology
Studying microbial communities using 16S rRNA genes.
107
Shotgun Metagenomics
Bioinformatics
Metagenomics
Sequencing entire microbial DNA from samples.
108
Metatranscriptomics
Bioinformatics
Metagenomics
Studying RNA expression in microbial communities.
109
Metaproteomics
Bioinformatics
Metagenomics
Studying proteins expressed by microbial communities.
110
Metabolic Network Modeling
Bioinformatics
Systems Biology
Modeling metabolic pathways computationally.
111
Gene Ontology Enrichment
Bioinformatics
Functional Analysis
Identifying enriched biological functions.
112
Pathway Enrichment Analysis
Bioinformatics
Functional Analysis
Detecting enriched biological pathways.
113
Gene Set Enrichment Analysis
Bioinformatics
Functional Analysis
Analyzing gene expression patterns.
114
Protein Domain Analysis
Bioinformatics
Proteomics
Analyzing protein functional domains.
115
Protein Motif Analysis
Bioinformatics
Proteomics
Identifying conserved protein motifs.
116
Protein Homology Modeling
Bioinformatics
Structure
Predicting protein structure using homologous proteins.
117
Protein Structure Databases
Bioinformatics
Databases
Databases storing protein structural data.
118
Structural Alignment
Bioinformatics
Structure
Comparing protein 3D structures.
119
Protein Ligand Binding
Bioinformatics
Structure
Predicting ligand interactions with proteins.
120
Protein Interaction Databases
Bioinformatics
Databases
Databases storing protein interaction data.
121
Protein Function Prediction
Bioinformatics
Proteomics
Predicting protein function computationally.
122
Gene Network Analysis
Bioinformatics
Systems Biology
Analyzing gene interaction networks.
123
Regulatory Network Modeling
Bioinformatics
Systems Biology
Modeling gene regulation systems.
124
Biological Network Visualization
Bioinformatics
Visualization
Visualizing complex biological networks.
125
Gene Expression Clustering
Bioinformatics
Transcriptomics
Clustering genes by expression patterns.
126
Differential Gene Expression
Bioinformatics
Transcriptomics
Identifying genes with different expression levels.
127
RNA Splicing Analysis
Bioinformatics
Transcriptomics
Analyzing RNA splicing patterns.
128
Alternative Splicing
Bioinformatics
Transcriptomics
Different RNA variants from same gene.
129
Transcript Isoform Analysis
Bioinformatics
Transcriptomics
Studying different transcript isoforms.
130
Gene Fusion Detection
Bioinformatics
Transcriptomics
Detecting gene fusion events.
131
Cancer Bioinformatics
Bioinformatics
Medicine
Analyzing cancer genomic data.
132
Tumor Genome Analysis
Bioinformatics
Medicine
Analyzing tumor genetic mutations.
133
Cancer Mutation Detection
Bioinformatics
Medicine
Identifying cancer related mutations.
134
Oncogenomics
Bioinformatics
Medicine
Study of cancer related genes.
135
Cancer Biomarker Discovery
Bioinformatics
Medicine
Identifying biomarkers for cancer detection.
136
Clinical Variant Analysis
Bioinformatics
Medicine
Interpreting genetic variants clinically.
137
Rare Disease Genomics
Bioinformatics
Medicine
Genomic analysis of rare diseases.
138
Personalized Genomics
Bioinformatics
Medicine
Using genomic data for personalized medicine.
139
Population Genetics
Bioinformatics
Genomics
Studying genetic variation in populations.
140
Genetic Drift Analysis
Bioinformatics
Evolution
Studying random genetic variation.
141
Selective Pressure Analysis
Bioinformatics
Evolution
Analyzing evolutionary selection.
142
Phylogenomic Analysis
Bioinformatics
Evolution
Combining phylogenetics and genomics.
143
Evolutionary Rate Analysis
Bioinformatics
Evolution
Studying mutation rates.
144
Horizontal Gene Transfer
Bioinformatics
Evolution
Gene transfer across species.
145
Genome Evolution Modeling
Bioinformatics
Evolution
Modeling genome evolution patterns.
146
Bioinformatics Workflow Management
Bioinformatics
Pipelines
Managing complex bioinformatics workflows.
147
Snakemake Pipelines
Bioinformatics
Pipelines
Workflow system for reproducible pipelines.
148
Nextflow Pipelines
Bioinformatics
Pipelines
Pipeline framework for bioinformatics workflows.
149
Galaxy Platform
Bioinformatics
Tools
Web platform for bioinformatics analysis.
150
Bioconductor
Bioinformatics
Tools
R packages for genomic analysis.
151
BioPython
Bioinformatics
Tools
Python libraries for bioinformatics.
152
BioPerl
Bioinformatics
Tools
Perl toolkit for biological data analysis.
153
BioJava
Bioinformatics
Tools
Java libraries for bioinformatics.
154
Bioinformatics Visualization Tools
Bioinformatics
Visualization
Tools for biological data visualization.
155
Genome Visualization
Bioinformatics
Visualization
Visualizing genome datasets.
156
Sequence Visualization
Bioinformatics
Visualization
Graphical representation of sequences.
157
Protein Structure Visualization
Bioinformatics
Visualization
3D visualization of proteins.
158
Biological Network Visualization
Bioinformatics
Visualization
Visualizing biological interaction networks.
159
Machine Learning for Genomics
Bioinformatics
AI
Applying ML to genomic datasets.
160
Deep Learning for Protein Prediction
Bioinformatics
AI
Using deep learning for protein analysis.
161
AI Driven Drug Discovery
Bioinformatics
AI
AI methods for pharmaceutical research.
162
Genomic Data Mining
Bioinformatics
Data Mining
Mining large genomic datasets.
163
Biomedical Data Mining
Bioinformatics
Data Mining
Mining biomedical databases.
164
Clinical Data Integration
Bioinformatics
Medicine
Integrating genomic and clinical data.
165
Healthcare Bioinformatics
Bioinformatics
Medicine
Bioinformatics applications in healthcare.
166
Pharmacovigilance Bioinformatics
Bioinformatics
Medicine
Monitoring drug safety using computational tools.
167
Pathogen Genomics
Bioinformatics
Microbiology
Genomic analysis of pathogens.
168
Viral Genomics
Bioinformatics
Microbiology
Studying viral genomes.
169
Bacterial Genome Analysis
Bioinformatics
Microbiology
Analyzing bacterial genomes.
170
Antibiotic Resistance Genomics
Bioinformatics
Microbiology
Studying resistance genes.
171
Pathogen Surveillance Genomics
Bioinformatics
Public Health
Monitoring pathogens using genomics.
172
Epidemiological Genomics
Bioinformatics
Public Health
Genomics applied to disease outbreaks.
173
Genomic Epidemiology
Bioinformatics
Public Health
Tracking disease spread using genomes.
174
Population Genomic Variation
Bioinformatics
Genomics
Genetic variation across populations.
175
Human Genome Variation
Bioinformatics
Genomics
Variations in human genome.
176
Structural Variant Detection
Bioinformatics
Genomics
Detecting large genome variations.
177
Copy Number Variation Analysis
Bioinformatics
Genomics
Detecting duplicated genomic regions.
178
Genomic Imputation
Bioinformatics
Genomics
Predicting missing genetic data.
179
Genome Data Compression
Bioinformatics
Data Engineering
Efficient storage of genomic data.
180
Bioinformatics Cloud Computing
Bioinformatics
Infrastructure
Using cloud for biological data analysis.
181
High Performance Computing Bioinformatics
Bioinformatics
Infrastructure
Using HPC systems for bioinformatics.
182
Bioinformatics Data Pipelines
Bioinformatics
Infrastructure
Automated pipelines for biological data.
183
Genomic Big Data Analytics
Bioinformatics
Data Science
Analyzing large genomic datasets.
184
Omics Data Integration Platforms
Bioinformatics
Omics
Platforms combining multi omics data.
185
Biomedical Knowledge Graphs
Bioinformatics
AI
Knowledge graphs for biomedical data.
186
Disease Gene Prediction
Bioinformatics
Medicine
Predicting genes associated with diseases.
187
Protein Interaction Prediction
Bioinformatics
Proteomics
Predicting interactions between proteins.
188
Metabolic Pathway Reconstruction
Bioinformatics
Systems Biology
Reconstructing metabolic networks.
189
Systems Genomics
Bioinformatics
Systems Biology
Combining genomics and systems biology.
190
Bioinformatics Ontologies
Bioinformatics
Databases
Controlled vocabularies for biological data.
191
Biomedical NLP
Bioinformatics
AI
Natural language processing for biomedical text.
192
Literature Mining Bioinformatics
Bioinformatics
Data Mining
Extracting biological insights from publications.
193
Biomedical Knowledge Extraction
Bioinformatics
AI
Extracting knowledge from biomedical data.
194
Bioinformatics Benchmarking
Bioinformatics
Evaluation
Benchmarking bioinformatics tools.
195
Bioinformatics Reproducibility
Bioinformatics
Research
Ensuring reproducible biological analysis.
196
Bioinformatics Standards
Bioinformatics
Standards
Standard formats for biological data.
197
Genomic Data Standards
Bioinformatics
Standards
Standards for genomic datasets.
198
Bioinformatics Data Sharing
Bioinformatics
Research
Sharing biological datasets.
199
Global Genomics Initiatives
Bioinformatics
Research
International genomics projects.
200
Future of Bioinformatics
Bioinformatics
Research
Emerging trends in bioinformatics.
1
HPS PowerCARD Platform
Banking Payments
Platform
Payment processing platform developed by HPS for issuing and acquiring services.
2
Card Management System
Banking Payments
Issuing
System managing card lifecycle and operations.
3
Card Issuing
Banking Payments
Issuing
Process of issuing debit or credit cards to customers.
4
Card Acquiring
Banking Payments
Acquiring
Process of accepting card payments through merchants.
5
Payment Switching
Banking Payments
Switching
Routing payment transactions between systems.
6
Transaction Authorization
Banking Payments
Authorization
Validating transactions before approval.
7
Transaction Clearing
Banking Payments
Clearing
Process of reconciling payment transactions.
8
Transaction Settlement
Banking Payments
Settlement
Final transfer of funds between institutions.
9
ISO8583 Messaging
Banking Payments
Messaging
Standard protocol for card payment transactions.
10
Card Authorization Processing
Banking Payments
Authorization
Processing approval or rejection of card transactions.
11
ATM Transactions
Banking Payments
ATM
Processing cash withdrawals and balance inquiries.
12
POS Transactions
Banking Payments
POS
Processing card payments at merchant terminals.
13
Ecommerce Transactions
Banking Payments
Ecommerce
Processing online payment transactions.
14
Contactless Payments
Banking Payments
POS
Tap to pay card transactions.
15
Mobile Wallet Transactions
Banking Payments
Digital Payments
Payments through mobile wallets.
16
Card Lifecycle Management
Banking Payments
Card Management
Managing card creation, activation, renewal, and closure.
17
Card Personalization
Banking Payments
Card Issuing
Embedding cardholder data onto cards.
18
Card Activation
Banking Payments
Card Management
Activating newly issued payment cards.
19
Card Blocking
Banking Payments
Card Management
Blocking cards due to fraud or loss.
20
Card Replacement
Banking Payments
Card Management
Replacing damaged or lost cards.
21
PIN Management
Banking Payments
Security
Secure generation and management of card PIN codes.
22
PIN Verification
Banking Payments
Security
Validating cardholder PIN during transactions.
23
PIN Change Service
Banking Payments
Security
Allowing customers to change card PIN.
24
Cardholder Authentication
Banking Payments
Security
Authenticating cardholder identity.
25
Two Factor Authentication
Banking Payments
Security
Multi step authentication for transactions.
26
Fraud Detection System
Banking Payments
Fraud Management
Detecting suspicious card transactions.
27
Fraud Monitoring
Banking Payments
Fraud Management
Monitoring transactions for fraud patterns.
28
Transaction Risk Scoring
Banking Payments
Fraud Management
Evaluating transaction risk levels.
29
Fraud Alerts
Banking Payments
Fraud Management
Notifying banks of suspicious activity.
30
Fraud Case Management
Banking Payments
Fraud Management
Handling fraud investigation workflows.
31
Payment Network Integration
Banking Payments
Networks
Connecting to card networks like Visa and Mastercard.
32
Visa Network Processing
Banking Payments
Networks
Processing transactions via Visa.
33
Mastercard Network Processing
Banking Payments
Networks
Processing transactions via Mastercard.
34
UnionPay Processing
Banking Payments
Networks
Processing UnionPay card transactions.
35
Payment Gateway Integration
Banking Payments
Gateway
Integrating payment gateways with acquiring systems.
36
Merchant Management
Banking Payments
Acquiring
Managing merchant accounts.
37
Merchant Onboarding
Banking Payments
Acquiring
Registering merchants into acquiring systems.
38
Merchant Settlement
Banking Payments
Settlement
Settling merchant transactions.
39
Merchant Fee Management
Banking Payments
Fees
Managing merchant service charges.
40
Merchant Risk Monitoring
Banking Payments
Risk
Monitoring merchant risk profiles.
41
Chargeback Processing
Banking Payments
Disputes
Handling disputed transactions.
42
Dispute Management
Banking Payments
Disputes
Managing payment disputes.
43
Refund Processing
Banking Payments
Transactions
Refunding card payments.
44
Transaction Reversal
Banking Payments
Transactions
Reversing incorrect transactions.
45
Pre Authorization Transactions
Banking Payments
Authorization
Holding funds before final settlement.
46
Recurring Payments
Banking Payments
Payments
Automated recurring billing transactions.
47
Installment Payments
Banking Payments
Payments
Splitting payments into installments.
48
Tokenization
Banking Payments
Security
Replacing card numbers with tokens.
49
Card Token Management
Banking Payments
Security
Managing payment tokens.
50
Secure Payment Processing
Banking Payments
Security
Ensuring secure payment transactions.
51
PCI DSS Compliance
Banking Payments
Compliance
Security standard for payment card processing.
52
EMV Card Processing
Banking Payments
Card Technology
Chip based card transactions.
53
Magnetic Stripe Processing
Banking Payments
Card Technology
Processing mag stripe card data.
54
Contactless EMV Processing
Banking Payments
Card Technology
Tap based EMV transactions.
55
Digital Card Issuing
Banking Payments
Issuing
Issuing virtual cards for online payments.
56
Virtual Card Processing
Banking Payments
Digital Payments
Handling virtual card transactions.
57
Mobile Payment Integration
Banking Payments
Digital Payments
Integrating mobile payment platforms.
58
Apple Pay Integration
Banking Payments
Digital Payments
Integrating Apple Pay payments.
59
Google Pay Integration
Banking Payments
Digital Payments
Integrating Google Pay payments.
60
Samsung Pay Integration
Banking Payments
Digital Payments
Integrating Samsung Pay.
61
ATM Switch Processing
Banking Payments
Switching
Routing ATM transactions.
62
Interbank Switching
Banking Payments
Switching
Switching transactions between banks.
63
Domestic Payment Switching
Banking Payments
Switching
Switching transactions within country networks.
64
Cross Border Transactions
Banking Payments
Payments
Processing international transactions.
65
Currency Conversion Processing
Banking Payments
Payments
Handling foreign currency transactions.
66
Transaction Logging
Banking Payments
Monitoring
Recording payment transactions.
67
Payment System Monitoring
Banking Payments
Monitoring
Monitoring system performance.
68
Transaction Reconciliation
Banking Payments
Clearing
Matching transaction records.
69
Financial Reporting
Banking Payments
Reporting
Generating financial transaction reports.
70
Settlement Reporting
Banking Payments
Reporting
Reporting settlement activities.
71
Acquirer Host System
Banking Payments
Infrastructure
System managing acquiring transactions.
72
Issuer Host System
Banking Payments
Infrastructure
System managing issuing transactions.
73
Payment Gateway Processing
Banking Payments
Gateway
Gateway routing payment requests.
74
Switch Interface Management
Banking Payments
Infrastructure
Managing switch interfaces.
75
Host to Host Integration
Banking Payments
Integration
Direct integration between systems.
76
Card Limit Management
Banking Payments
Card Management
Managing card spending limits.
77
Daily Transaction Limits
Banking Payments
Card Management
Daily transaction restrictions.
78
Credit Limit Management
Banking Payments
Card Management
Managing credit card limits.
79
Transaction Velocity Checks
Banking Payments
Risk
Detecting rapid transaction activity.
80
Risk Rules Engine
Banking Payments
Fraud Management
Rules engine for transaction risk control.
81
Payment Authorization Logs
Banking Payments
Monitoring
Logs for authorization events.
82
Transaction Audit Trails
Banking Payments
Compliance
Tracking transaction history.
83
Payment Compliance Monitoring
Banking Payments
Compliance
Ensuring regulatory compliance.
84
AML Transaction Monitoring
Banking Payments
Compliance
Anti money laundering transaction checks.
85
KYC Integration
Banking Payments
Compliance
Customer verification integration.
86
Transaction Encryption
Banking Payments
Security
Encrypting transaction data.
87
Secure Key Management
Banking Payments
Security
Managing encryption keys.
88
HSM Integration
Banking Payments
Security
Hardware security module integration.
89
Secure PIN Processing
Banking Payments
Security
Processing encrypted PIN blocks.
90
Network Security for Payments
Banking Payments
Security
Securing payment networks.
91
Payment Transaction Routing
Banking Payments
Switching
Routing transactions across networks.
92
Payment Routing Rules
Banking Payments
Switching
Rules for routing payment requests.
93
Payment Failover Systems
Banking Payments
Infrastructure
Backup processing systems.
94
High Availability Payment Systems
Banking Payments
Infrastructure
Ensuring system uptime.
95
Disaster Recovery for Payments
Banking Payments
Infrastructure
Recovering payment systems after failure.
96
Payment Transaction Queues
Banking Payments
Infrastructure
Managing queued transactions.
97
Real Time Payment Processing
Banking Payments
Payments
Processing payments instantly.
98
Instant Payment Systems
Banking Payments
Payments
Real time interbank payments.
99
Payment Clearing Houses
Banking Payments
Settlement
Central clearing institutions.
100
Bank Payment Infrastructure
Banking Payments
Infrastructure
Overall payment processing architecture.
101
PowerCARD Issuer Module
Banking Payments
PowerCARD
Module responsible for card issuing operations.
102
PowerCARD Acquirer Module
Banking Payments
PowerCARD
Module managing merchant acquiring operations.
103
PowerCARD Switching Module
Banking Payments
PowerCARD
Transaction routing and switching component.
104
PowerCARD Authorization Engine
Banking Payments
PowerCARD
Engine validating transactions before approval.
105
PowerCARD Clearing Module
Banking Payments
PowerCARD
Module responsible for clearing payment transactions.
106
PowerCARD Settlement Module
Banking Payments
PowerCARD
Module responsible for final settlement of transactions.
107
PowerCARD Fraud Management
Banking Payments
PowerCARD
Fraud detection tools integrated in PowerCARD.
108
PowerCARD Merchant Management
Banking Payments
PowerCARD
Managing merchant profiles and configurations.
109
PowerCARD ATM Management
Banking Payments
PowerCARD
Managing ATM transaction flows.
110
PowerCARD POS Management
Banking Payments
PowerCARD
Managing POS terminal transactions.
111
PowerCARD Cardholder Database
Banking Payments
PowerCARD
Database storing cardholder information.
112
PowerCARD Transaction Database
Banking Payments
PowerCARD
Database storing transaction records.
113
PowerCARD API Integration
Banking Payments
PowerCARD
Integrating external systems with PowerCARD APIs.
114
PowerCARD REST APIs
Banking Payments
PowerCARD
REST based APIs for payment services.
115
PowerCARD SOAP APIs
Banking Payments
PowerCARD
SOAP web services integration.
116
PowerCARD Transaction Routing
Banking Payments
PowerCARD
Routing card transactions to appropriate networks.
117
PowerCARD Authorization Flow
Banking Payments
PowerCARD
Authorization transaction processing workflow.
118
PowerCARD Settlement Flow
Banking Payments
PowerCARD
Settlement processing workflow.
119
PowerCARD Clearing Flow
Banking Payments
PowerCARD
Clearing transaction workflow.
120
PowerCARD Reconciliation Process
Banking Payments
PowerCARD
Matching transaction records between systems.
121
PowerCARD Merchant Settlement
Banking Payments
PowerCARD
Settling merchant payment transactions.
122
PowerCARD Issuer Settlement
Banking Payments
PowerCARD
Settlement between issuer banks.
123
PowerCARD Acquirer Settlement
Banking Payments
PowerCARD
Settlement for acquiring banks.
124
PowerCARD Transaction Logging
Banking Payments
PowerCARD
Logging transaction activities.
125
PowerCARD Monitoring System
Banking Payments
PowerCARD
Monitoring system performance and transactions.
126
PowerCARD System Alerts
Banking Payments
PowerCARD
Alerting administrators of system issues.
127
PowerCARD Transaction Queues
Banking Payments
PowerCARD
Queue management for transaction processing.
128
PowerCARD Load Balancing
Banking Payments
PowerCARD
Balancing transaction processing loads.
129
PowerCARD High Availability
Banking Payments
PowerCARD
Ensuring uninterrupted payment services.
130
PowerCARD Disaster Recovery
Banking Payments
PowerCARD
Recovery mechanisms for payment systems.
131
PowerCARD Network Integration
Banking Payments
PowerCARD
Integrating with payment networks.
132
PowerCARD Visa Integration
Banking Payments
PowerCARD
Connecting to Visa network.
133
PowerCARD Mastercard Integration
Banking Payments
PowerCARD
Connecting to Mastercard network.
134
PowerCARD UnionPay Integration
Banking Payments
PowerCARD
Integration with UnionPay network.
135
PowerCARD Domestic Switch Integration
Banking Payments
PowerCARD
Integration with local payment switches.
136
PowerCARD Transaction Limits
Banking Payments
PowerCARD
Managing transaction limits.
137
PowerCARD Velocity Controls
Banking Payments
PowerCARD
Monitoring rapid transaction activity.
138
PowerCARD Risk Management
Banking Payments
PowerCARD
Managing payment risk policies.
139
PowerCARD AML Integration
Banking Payments
PowerCARD
Integrating anti money laundering systems.
140
PowerCARD KYC Systems
Banking Payments
PowerCARD
Customer identity verification systems.
141
PowerCARD Card Tokenization
Banking Payments
PowerCARD
Tokenizing card numbers for security.
142
PowerCARD Secure PIN Processing
Banking Payments
PowerCARD
Processing encrypted PIN blocks.
143
PowerCARD HSM Integration
Banking Payments
PowerCARD
Integration with hardware security modules.
144
PowerCARD Encryption Services
Banking Payments
PowerCARD
Encrypting sensitive card data.
145
PowerCARD Key Management
Banking Payments
PowerCARD
Managing cryptographic keys.
146
PowerCARD Compliance Systems
Banking Payments
PowerCARD
Ensuring regulatory compliance.
147
PowerCARD PCI DSS Compliance
Banking Payments
PowerCARD
Payment card industry compliance.
148
PowerCARD Audit Logs
Banking Payments
PowerCARD
Maintaining system audit trails.
149
PowerCARD Regulatory Reporting
Banking Payments
PowerCARD
Generating regulatory financial reports.
150
PowerCARD Transaction Reports
Banking Payments
PowerCARD
Reporting payment transaction data.
151
PowerCARD Merchant Reports
Banking Payments
PowerCARD
Reports related to merchant transactions.
152
PowerCARD Settlement Reports
Banking Payments
PowerCARD
Reports showing settlement activities.
153
PowerCARD Fraud Reports
Banking Payments
PowerCARD
Reports related to fraud detection.
154
PowerCARD Cardholder Reports
Banking Payments
PowerCARD
Reports related to cardholders.
155
PowerCARD Transaction Analytics
Banking Payments
PowerCARD
Analyzing transaction patterns.
156
PowerCARD Data Warehouse
Banking Payments
PowerCARD
Centralized storage for payment data.
157
PowerCARD Business Intelligence
Banking Payments
PowerCARD
BI tools for payment analytics.
158
PowerCARD Data Export
Banking Payments
PowerCARD
Exporting transaction data.
159
PowerCARD Data Import
Banking Payments
PowerCARD
Importing external payment data.
160
PowerCARD System Configuration
Banking Payments
PowerCARD
Configuring system parameters.
161
PowerCARD Card Product Configuration
Banking Payments
PowerCARD
Defining card products.
162
PowerCARD Fee Configuration
Banking Payments
PowerCARD
Setting transaction fees.
163
PowerCARD Limit Configuration
Banking Payments
PowerCARD
Configuring transaction limits.
164
PowerCARD Merchant Category Codes
Banking Payments
PowerCARD
Categorizing merchant types.
165
PowerCARD Currency Configuration
Banking Payments
PowerCARD
Configuring currency settings.
166
PowerCARD Transaction Simulator
Banking Payments
PowerCARD
Testing transaction flows.
167
PowerCARD Certification Testing
Banking Payments
PowerCARD
Testing compliance with networks.
168
PowerCARD Integration Testing
Banking Payments
PowerCARD
Testing integration with systems.
169
PowerCARD Performance Testing
Banking Payments
PowerCARD
Testing transaction throughput.
170
PowerCARD Load Testing
Banking Payments
PowerCARD
Testing system load handling.
171
PowerCARD ATM Network Integration
Banking Payments
PowerCARD
Connecting ATM networks.
172
PowerCARD POS Network Integration
Banking Payments
PowerCARD
Connecting POS networks.
173
PowerCARD Mobile Payment Integration
Banking Payments
PowerCARD
Connecting mobile payment apps.
174
PowerCARD Ecommerce Integration
Banking Payments
PowerCARD
Integrating ecommerce payment systems.
175
PowerCARD Payment Gateway Integration
Banking Payments
PowerCARD
Connecting payment gateways.
176
PowerCARD Real Time Processing
Banking Payments
PowerCARD
Real time transaction processing.
177
PowerCARD Batch Processing
Banking Payments
PowerCARD
Batch settlement processing.
178
PowerCARD Message Queue Systems
Banking Payments
PowerCARD
Queue systems for transaction messages.
179
PowerCARD Service Oriented Architecture
Banking Payments
PowerCARD
SOA architecture for payment services.
180
PowerCARD Microservices Architecture
Banking Payments
PowerCARD
Microservices based payment architecture.
181
PowerCARD Cloud Deployment
Banking Payments
PowerCARD
Deploying PowerCARD in cloud infrastructure.
182
PowerCARD Containerization
Banking Payments
PowerCARD
Using containers for deployment.
183
PowerCARD DevOps Integration
Banking Payments
PowerCARD
CI CD pipelines for deployment.
184
PowerCARD System Upgrades
Banking Payments
PowerCARD
Upgrading PowerCARD systems.
185
PowerCARD Patch Management
Banking Payments
PowerCARD
Managing software patches.
186
PowerCARD User Management
Banking Payments
PowerCARD
Managing system users.
187
PowerCARD Role Based Access
Banking Payments
PowerCARD
Access control based on roles.
188
PowerCARD Authentication Systems
Banking Payments
PowerCARD
Authenticating system users.
189
PowerCARD Identity Management
Banking Payments
PowerCARD
Managing user identities.
190
PowerCARD Access Logs
Banking Payments
PowerCARD
Tracking user access.
191
PowerCARD System Metrics
Banking Payments
PowerCARD
Monitoring system performance metrics.
192
PowerCARD Transaction Metrics
Banking Payments
PowerCARD
Measuring transaction processing metrics.
193
PowerCARD Error Handling
Banking Payments
PowerCARD
Handling transaction errors.
194
PowerCARD Exception Management
Banking Payments
PowerCARD
Managing system exceptions.
195
PowerCARD Transaction Recovery
Banking Payments
PowerCARD
Recovering failed transactions.
196
PowerCARD Payment Analytics
Banking Payments
PowerCARD
Analyzing payment transaction trends.
197
PowerCARD Merchant Analytics
Banking Payments
PowerCARD
Analyzing merchant transaction patterns.
198
PowerCARD Fraud Analytics
Banking Payments
PowerCARD
Analyzing fraud patterns.
199
PowerCARD Risk Analytics
Banking Payments
PowerCARD
Analyzing payment risks.
200
PowerCARD Banking Ecosystem
Banking Payments
PowerCARD
Overall payment ecosystem built around PowerCARD.
1
ISO8583 Message Structure
Payment Processing
ISO8583
Standard message structure used for card payment transactions.
2
ISO8583 MTI
Payment Processing
ISO8583
Message Type Indicator identifying transaction type.
3
ISO8583 Primary Bitmap
Payment Processing
ISO8583
Bitmap indicating presence of data elements.
4
ISO8583 Secondary Bitmap
Payment Processing
ISO8583
Additional bitmap indicating extended fields.
5
ISO8583 Field 2 PAN
Payment Processing
ISO8583
Primary account number of cardholder.
6
ISO8583 Field 3 Processing Code
Payment Processing
ISO8583
Defines transaction processing type.
7
ISO8583 Field 4 Transaction Amount
Payment Processing
ISO8583
Amount involved in the transaction.
8
ISO8583 Field 7 Transmission Date
Payment Processing
ISO8583
Date and time of transaction transmission.
9
ISO8583 Field 11 STAN
Payment Processing
ISO8583
System trace audit number.
10
ISO8583 Field 12 Local Time
Payment Processing
ISO8583
Local transaction time.
11
ISO8583 Field 13 Local Date
Payment Processing
ISO8583
Local transaction date.
12
ISO8583 Field 14 Expiry Date
Payment Processing
ISO8583
Card expiration date.
13
ISO8583 Field 18 Merchant Category Code
Payment Processing
ISO8583
Merchant category classification.
14
ISO8583 Field 22 POS Entry Mode
Payment Processing
ISO8583
Method of card entry at POS.
15
ISO8583 Field 25 POS Condition Code
Payment Processing
ISO8583
Conditions under which transaction occurred.
16
ISO8583 Field 32 Acquiring Institution ID
Payment Processing
ISO8583
Identifier of acquiring bank.
17
ISO8583 Field 37 Retrieval Reference Number
Payment Processing
ISO8583
Unique transaction reference.
18
ISO8583 Field 38 Authorization Code
Payment Processing
ISO8583
Approval code issued by issuer.
19
ISO8583 Field 39 Response Code
Payment Processing
ISO8583
Issuer response to transaction.
20
ISO8583 Field 41 Terminal ID
Payment Processing
ISO8583
Identifier of payment terminal.
21
ATM Cash Withdrawal Flow
ATM Transactions
ATM Flow
Process of withdrawing cash from ATM.
22
ATM Balance Inquiry Flow
ATM Transactions
ATM Flow
Checking account balance at ATM.
23
ATM PIN Verification Flow
ATM Transactions
ATM Flow
Validating cardholder PIN.
24
ATM Deposit Transaction Flow
ATM Transactions
ATM Flow
Depositing funds through ATM.
25
ATM Mini Statement Flow
ATM Transactions
ATM Flow
Generating mini statement for cardholder.
26
ATM Reversal Flow
ATM Transactions
ATM Flow
Reversing failed ATM transaction.
27
ATM Switch Routing
ATM Transactions
Switch
Routing ATM requests to issuer.
28
ATM Host Authorization
ATM Transactions
Authorization
Issuer authorization of ATM transaction.
29
ATM Settlement Processing
ATM Transactions
Settlement
Settlement of ATM transactions.
30
ATM Network Switching
ATM Transactions
Switch
Switching transactions across ATM networks.
31
Card Issuing Workflow
Card Issuing
Workflow
End to end process of issuing payment cards.
32
Customer Onboarding
Card Issuing
Workflow
Registering customer for banking services.
33
Card Application Processing
Card Issuing
Workflow
Processing card issuance requests.
34
Card Product Setup
Card Issuing
Configuration
Configuring card products.
35
Card Account Creation
Card Issuing
Workflow
Creating card linked account.
36
Card Personalization Workflow
Card Issuing
Workflow
Embedding cardholder data on cards.
37
Card Printing Process
Card Issuing
Workflow
Printing physical payment cards.
38
Card Delivery Workflow
Card Issuing
Workflow
Delivering cards to customers.
39
Card Activation Process
Card Issuing
Workflow
Activating issued cards.
40
Card Renewal Workflow
Card Issuing
Workflow
Renewing expiring cards.
41
Payment Switch Architecture
Payment Switching
Architecture
Architecture of payment transaction switching systems.
42
Switch Message Routing
Payment Switching
Switch
Routing messages between banks.
43
Switch Transaction Processing
Payment Switching
Switch
Processing card transactions within switch.
44
Issuer Switch Integration
Payment Switching
Integration
Integration with issuer host.
45
Acquirer Switch Integration
Payment Switching
Integration
Integration with acquirer host.
46
Switch Failover Architecture
Payment Switching
Architecture
Backup routing mechanisms.
47
High Availability Switch Design
Payment Switching
Architecture
Ensuring continuous payment processing.
48
Switch Load Balancing
Payment Switching
Architecture
Balancing transaction load.
49
Switch Message Queue
Payment Switching
Architecture
Queue based message processing.
50
Switch Security Layer
Payment Switching
Security
Securing payment message flows.
51
Visa Transaction Lifecycle
Card Networks
Visa
Lifecycle of Visa card transactions.
52
Visa Authorization Flow
Card Networks
Visa
Authorization flow for Visa payments.
53
Visa Clearing Process
Card Networks
Visa
Clearing process for Visa transactions.
54
Visa Settlement Flow
Card Networks
Visa
Settlement process for Visa payments.
55
Visa Chargeback Lifecycle
Card Networks
Visa
Handling disputed Visa transactions.
56
Mastercard Transaction Lifecycle
Card Networks
Mastercard
Lifecycle of Mastercard transactions.
57
Mastercard Authorization Flow
Card Networks
Mastercard
Authorization flow for Mastercard payments.
58
Mastercard Clearing Process
Card Networks
Mastercard
Clearing process for Mastercard payments.
59
Mastercard Settlement Process
Card Networks
Mastercard
Settlement process for Mastercard payments.
60
Mastercard Chargeback Lifecycle
Card Networks
Mastercard
Handling disputed Mastercard transactions.
61
Interchange Fee Processing
Card Networks
Fees
Fees exchanged between issuer and acquirer.
62
Merchant Settlement Lifecycle
Card Networks
Settlement
Settling merchant payments.
63
Issuer Authorization Decision
Card Networks
Authorization
Issuer decision to approve or decline.
64
Payment Network Routing
Card Networks
Routing
Routing transactions through card networks.
65
Card Network Certification
Card Networks
Compliance
Certification of payment systems.
66
POS Authorization Flow
POS Transactions
POS
Authorization of POS payments.
67
POS Settlement Flow
POS Transactions
Settlement
Settlement of POS transactions.
68
POS Reversal Process
POS Transactions
Reversal
Reversing failed POS transactions.
69
POS Refund Workflow
POS Transactions
Refund
Refunding card payments.
70
POS Batch Settlement
POS Transactions
Settlement
Batch settlement of POS transactions.
71
Payment Authorization Request
Payments
Authorization
Request message sent to issuer.
72
Payment Authorization Response
Payments
Authorization
Issuer response to transaction.
73
Payment Clearing File
Payments
Clearing
File containing transaction records.
74
Payment Settlement File
Payments
Settlement
File used for settlement processing.
75
Payment Reconciliation Workflow
Payments
Reconciliation
Matching transaction records.
76
Transaction Risk Analysis
Payments
Risk
Analyzing payment transaction risks.
77
Fraud Detection Workflow
Payments
Fraud
Detecting fraudulent transactions.
78
Transaction Monitoring System
Payments
Monitoring
Monitoring payment activity.
79
Payment Transaction Logging
Payments
Monitoring
Recording payment transactions.
80
Transaction Audit Trails
Payments
Compliance
Maintaining audit trails for payments.
81
Payment Network Encryption
Payments
Security
Encrypting payment network messages.
82
PIN Block Processing
Payments
Security
Processing encrypted PIN blocks.
83
Key Exchange Protocols
Payments
Security
Secure exchange of encryption keys.
84
HSM Integration
Payments
Security
Hardware security module integration.
85
Tokenized Payment Processing
Payments
Security
Processing tokenized card data.
86
Payment Transaction Recovery
Payments
Operations
Recovering failed payment transactions.
87
Transaction Retry Mechanism
Payments
Operations
Retrying failed payment requests.
88
Payment System Failover
Payments
Operations
Backup systems for payment processing.
89
Payment System Monitoring
Payments
Operations
Monitoring payment infrastructure.
90
Payment Performance Metrics
Payments
Analytics
Measuring system performance.
91
Transaction Throughput Analysis
Payments
Analytics
Analyzing transaction processing speed.
92
Payment Analytics Dashboard
Payments
Analytics
Dashboard showing transaction analytics.
93
Merchant Payment Analytics
Payments
Analytics
Analyzing merchant transactions.
94
Fraud Analytics Dashboard
Payments
Analytics
Analyzing fraud trends.
95
Risk Analytics Platform
Payments
Analytics
Analyzing transaction risk data.
96
Digital Payment Ecosystem
Payments
Infrastructure
Complete digital payment infrastructure.
97
Bank Payment Infrastructure
Payments
Infrastructure
Bank systems supporting payments.
98
Card Network Infrastructure
Payments
Infrastructure
Infrastructure of card networks.
99
Global Payment Systems
Payments
Infrastructure
Worldwide payment processing systems.
100
Payment Processing Architecture
Payments
Architecture
Overall architecture of payment processing systems.
1
Software Engineering
Technology
Development
Principles for designing and building software systems.
2
Agile Methodology
Technology
Development
Iterative approach for software development.
3
Scrum Framework
Technology
Development
Agile framework for project management.
4
Kanban Method
Technology
Development
Visual workflow management method.
5
DevOps
Technology
Operations
Combining development and operations for faster delivery.
6
Continuous Integration
Technology
DevOps
Automatically integrating code changes.
7
Continuous Delivery
Technology
DevOps
Automatically deploying software updates.
8
Continuous Deployment
Technology
DevOps
Deploying every change automatically.
9
Infrastructure as Code
Technology
DevOps
Managing infrastructure using code.
10
Configuration Management
Technology
DevOps
Maintaining system configurations.
11
Cloud Computing
Technology
Cloud
On demand computing services over the internet.
12
Amazon Web Services
Technology
Cloud
Cloud computing platform by AWS.
13
Microsoft Azure
Technology
Cloud
Cloud computing platform by Microsoft.
14
Google Cloud Platform
Technology
Cloud
Cloud computing services by Google.
15
Serverless Computing
Technology
Cloud
Running applications without managing servers.
16
Containerization
Technology
Infrastructure
Packaging applications into containers.
17
Docker
Technology
Infrastructure
Container runtime environment.
18
Kubernetes
Technology
Infrastructure
Container orchestration platform.
19
Container Orchestration
Technology
Infrastructure
Managing container clusters.
20
Service Mesh
Technology
Infrastructure
Managing microservice communication.
21
Microservices Architecture
Technology
Architecture
Building applications as independent services.
22
Monolithic Architecture
Technology
Architecture
Single application structure.
23
Event Driven Architecture
Technology
Architecture
Systems responding to events.
24
Service Oriented Architecture
Technology
Architecture
Services communicating across networks.
25
API Gateway
Technology
Architecture
Gateway managing API requests.
26
REST APIs
Technology
Development
Web APIs using REST principles.
27
GraphQL APIs
Technology
Development
Query based API technology.
28
gRPC Communication
Technology
Development
High performance remote procedure calls.
29
WebSockets
Technology
Networking
Real time communication protocol.
30
API Security
Technology
Security
Protecting APIs from attacks.
31
Artificial Intelligence
Technology
AI
Machines simulating human intelligence.
32
Machine Learning
Technology
AI
Algorithms learning from data.
33
Deep Learning
Technology
AI
Neural networks with multiple layers.
34
Reinforcement Learning
Technology
AI
Learning via rewards and penalties.
35
Natural Language Processing
Technology
AI
Processing human language with machines.
36
Computer Vision
Technology
AI
Analyzing images using AI.
37
Speech Recognition
Technology
AI
Converting speech to text.
38
Text to Speech
Technology
AI
Generating speech from text.
39
Generative AI
Technology
AI
AI systems generating new content.
40
Large Language Models
Technology
AI
Neural networks trained on large text datasets.
41
Retrieval Augmented Generation
Technology
AI
Combining retrieval with generation.
42
Vector Databases
Technology
AI
Databases storing embeddings.
43
Embedding Models
Technology
AI
Converting data into vector representations.
44
Semantic Search
Technology
AI
Searching based on meaning.
45
Knowledge Graphs
Technology
AI
Graph based knowledge representation.
46
Cybersecurity
Technology
Security
Protecting systems from attacks.
47
Network Security
Technology
Security
Securing network infrastructure.
48
Application Security
Technology
Security
Protecting applications from vulnerabilities.
49
Identity Management
Technology
Security
Managing digital identities.
50
Zero Trust Security
Technology
Security
Security model requiring continuous verification.
51
Encryption
Technology
Security
Protecting data using cryptography.
52
Public Key Infrastructure
Technology
Security
Managing encryption keys and certificates.
53
Secure Authentication
Technology
Security
Verifying user identity securely.
54
Multi Factor Authentication
Technology
Security
Using multiple verification methods.
55
Threat Detection
Technology
Security
Identifying malicious activities.
56
Relational Databases
Technology
Data
Structured table based databases.
57
NoSQL Databases
Technology
Data
Non relational data storage systems.
58
Graph Databases
Technology
Data
Databases storing relationships.
59
Distributed Databases
Technology
Data
Databases across multiple nodes.
60
Data Warehousing
Technology
Data
Centralized storage for analytics.
61
Data Lakes
Technology
Data
Storing raw data for analysis.
62
Big Data Processing
Technology
Data
Processing very large datasets.
63
Apache Hadoop
Technology
Data
Distributed data processing framework.
64
Apache Spark
Technology
Data
Fast big data processing engine.
65
Stream Processing
Technology
Data
Processing data in real time.
66
Internet of Things
Technology
IoT
Network of connected devices.
67
Edge Computing
Technology
IoT
Processing data near the source.
68
Smart Devices
Technology
IoT
Devices connected to internet.
69
IoT Sensors
Technology
IoT
Sensors collecting environmental data.
70
Industrial IoT
Technology
IoT
IoT systems for industrial automation.
71
Blockchain Technology
Technology
Blockchain
Distributed ledger systems.
72
Cryptocurrencies
Technology
Blockchain
Digital currencies using blockchain.
73
Smart Contracts
Technology
Blockchain
Automated blockchain contracts.
74
Decentralized Applications
Technology
Blockchain
Applications running on blockchain.
75
Consensus Algorithms
Technology
Blockchain
Methods for validating blockchain transactions.
76
Computer Networking
Technology
Networking
Connecting computers and devices.
77
TCP IP Protocol
Technology
Networking
Core internet communication protocol.
78
DNS Systems
Technology
Networking
Resolving domain names to IP addresses.
79
Load Balancing
Technology
Networking
Distributing network traffic.
80
Content Delivery Networks
Technology
Networking
Distributed web content delivery.
81
Distributed Systems
Technology
Infrastructure
Systems running across multiple nodes.
82
Fault Tolerant Systems
Technology
Infrastructure
Systems designed to handle failures.
83
High Availability Systems
Technology
Infrastructure
Systems ensuring uptime.
84
Scalable Architecture
Technology
Infrastructure
Systems handling increasing workloads.
85
System Resilience
Technology
Infrastructure
Recovering from failures.
86
Monitoring Systems
Technology
Observability
Tracking system performance.
87
Logging Systems
Technology
Observability
Collecting system logs.
88
Distributed Tracing
Technology
Observability
Tracing requests across services.
89
Application Metrics
Technology
Observability
Measuring application performance.
90
Infrastructure Monitoring
Technology
Observability
Monitoring servers and networks.
91
MLOps
Technology
AI
Operationalizing machine learning systems.
92
Model Deployment
Technology
AI
Deploying AI models into production.
93
Model Monitoring
Technology
AI
Tracking performance of deployed models.
94
AI Governance
Technology
AI
Managing responsible AI systems.
95
Responsible AI
Technology
AI
Ethical use of artificial intelligence.
96
Quantum Computing
Technology
Research
Computing using quantum mechanics.
97
Augmented Reality
Technology
XR
Overlaying digital information on real world.
98
Virtual Reality
Technology
XR
Immersive digital environments.
99
Robotics Systems
Technology
Automation
Machines performing automated tasks.
100
Technology Ecosystems
Technology
Infrastructure
Integrated digital technology environments.
101
Frontend Frameworks
Technology
Web Development
Frameworks used to build web interfaces.
102
React Framework
Technology
Web Development
JavaScript library for building user interfaces.
103
Angular Framework
Technology
Web Development
Frontend framework for building web applications.
104
Vue.js Framework
Technology
Web Development
Progressive JavaScript framework for UI development.
105
Next.js Framework
Technology
Web Development
React framework for server side rendering.
106
Backend Frameworks
Technology
Web Development
Frameworks used for server side applications.
107
Django Framework
Technology
Web Development
Python web framework for rapid development.
108
Flask Framework
Technology
Web Development
Lightweight Python web framework.
109
Spring Boot
Technology
Web Development
Java framework for building microservices.
110
Express.js
Technology
Web Development
Node.js web application framework.
111
Programming Languages
Technology
Development
Languages used for writing software.
112
Python Programming
Technology
Development
High level programming language widely used in AI.
113
Java Programming
Technology
Development
Object oriented programming language.
114
JavaScript Programming
Technology
Development
Programming language for web development.
115
C Plus Plus Programming
Technology
Development
High performance systems programming language.
116
Version Control Systems
Technology
Development
Tracking changes in source code.
117
Git Version Control
Technology
Development
Distributed version control system.
118
GitHub Platform
Technology
Development
Code hosting and collaboration platform.
119
GitLab Platform
Technology
Development
DevOps platform for repositories and CI CD.
120
Bitbucket Repository
Technology
Development
Git repository hosting service.
121
Data Engineering
Technology
Data
Designing systems for collecting and processing data.
122
ETL Pipelines
Technology
Data
Extract transform load data processing pipelines.
123
Data Integration
Technology
Data
Combining data from multiple sources.
124
Data Transformation
Technology
Data
Converting data into usable formats.
125
Data Governance
Technology
Data
Managing data quality and policies.
126
Data Visualization
Technology
Data
Representing data visually.
127
Business Intelligence
Technology
Data
Tools for analyzing business data.
128
Analytics Platforms
Technology
Data
Systems analyzing large datasets.
129
Predictive Analytics
Technology
Data
Predicting future outcomes from data.
130
Real Time Analytics
Technology
Data
Analyzing streaming data instantly.
131
Computer Hardware
Technology
Infrastructure
Physical components of computing systems.
132
CPU Architecture
Technology
Infrastructure
Central processing unit design.
133
GPU Computing
Technology
Infrastructure
Using GPUs for parallel processing.
134
High Performance Computing
Technology
Infrastructure
Supercomputing systems for heavy workloads.
135
Edge AI Systems
Technology
AI Infrastructure
Running AI models on edge devices.
136
Embedded Systems
Technology
Infrastructure
Computing systems integrated into devices.
137
Operating Systems
Technology
Infrastructure
Software managing hardware resources.
138
Linux Operating System
Technology
Infrastructure
Open source operating system.
139
Windows Server
Technology
Infrastructure
Server operating system from Microsoft.
140
Unix Systems
Technology
Infrastructure
Multi user multitasking operating systems.
141
Network Protocols
Technology
Networking
Rules for communication between devices.
142
HTTP Protocol
Technology
Networking
Web communication protocol.
143
HTTPS Protocol
Technology
Networking
Secure version of HTTP.
144
FTP Protocol
Technology
Networking
File transfer protocol.
145
SMTP Protocol
Technology
Networking
Email transfer protocol.
146
Network Monitoring
Technology
Networking
Monitoring network performance.
147
Network Load Balancers
Technology
Networking
Distributing network traffic.
148
Network Firewalls
Technology
Security
Filtering network traffic.
149
Intrusion Detection Systems
Technology
Security
Detecting malicious activities.
150
Intrusion Prevention Systems
Technology
Security
Preventing network attacks.
151
Digital Transformation
Technology
Business Technology
Using technology to transform businesses.
152
Enterprise Architecture
Technology
Business Technology
Designing enterprise IT systems.
153
IT Governance
Technology
Business Technology
Managing IT resources and policies.
154
Technology Strategy
Technology
Business Technology
Planning technology initiatives.
155
Innovation Management
Technology
Business Technology
Managing technological innovation.
156
Digital Platforms
Technology
Business Technology
Online platforms supporting digital services.
157
Platform Engineering
Technology
DevOps
Building internal developer platforms.
158
Developer Experience
Technology
DevOps
Improving developer productivity.
159
Automation Systems
Technology
Automation
Automating operational tasks.
160
Robotic Process Automation
Technology
Automation
Automating repetitive digital tasks.
161
Smart Cities Technology
Technology
IoT
Technology for urban infrastructure.
162
Smart Home Systems
Technology
IoT
Automated residential systems.
163
Industrial Automation
Technology
Automation
Automating manufacturing processes.
164
Autonomous Systems
Technology
AI
Self operating intelligent systems.
165
Autonomous Vehicles
Technology
AI
Self driving transportation systems.
166
Drone Technology
Technology
Robotics
Unmanned aerial vehicles.
167
Robotic Process Systems
Technology
Robotics
Robotic automation systems.
168
Industrial Robotics
Technology
Robotics
Robots used in manufacturing.
169
Humanoid Robots
Technology
Robotics
Robots designed like humans.
170
Collaborative Robots
Technology
Robotics
Robots working alongside humans.
171
Digital Twins
Technology
Simulation
Virtual models of physical systems.
172
Simulation Systems
Technology
Simulation
Modeling real world processes digitally.
173
Virtual Environments
Technology
Simulation
Computer generated environments.
174
Immersive Technologies
Technology
XR
AR VR immersive systems.
175
Mixed Reality Systems
Technology
XR
Combining real and virtual worlds.
176
Digital Identity Systems
Technology
Security
Managing digital identities.
177
Authentication Protocols
Technology
Security
Protocols verifying user identity.
178
Authorization Systems
Technology
Security
Managing permissions.
179
Secure Communication
Technology
Security
Protecting communication channels.
180
Cyber Threat Intelligence
Technology
Security
Analyzing cyber threats.
181
AI Infrastructure
Technology
AI
Infrastructure supporting AI systems.
182
AI Model Training
Technology
AI
Training machine learning models.
183
AI Model Inference
Technology
AI
Running trained models for predictions.
184
AI Model Optimization
Technology
AI
Improving AI model performance.
185
AI Benchmarking
Technology
AI
Evaluating AI systems.
186
Technology Standards
Technology
Governance
Industry technology standards.
187
Open Source Software
Technology
Development
Software with publicly available source code.
188
Open Source Communities
Technology
Development
Collaborative development communities.
189
Software Licensing
Technology
Governance
Legal rules for software usage.
190
Technology Compliance
Technology
Governance
Ensuring regulatory compliance.
191
Digital Infrastructure
Technology
Infrastructure
Infrastructure supporting digital services.
192
Global Internet Infrastructure
Technology
Infrastructure
Worldwide internet connectivity systems.
193
Technology Innovation
Technology
Research
Development of new technologies.
194
Emerging Technologies
Technology
Research
New and evolving technologies.
195
Technology Research
Technology
Research
Scientific study of technology.
196
Digital Economy
Technology
Business
Economy based on digital technologies.
197
Technology Ecosystem
Technology
Infrastructure
Network of interconnected technologies.
198
Global Technology Trends
Technology
Research
Worldwide technological developments.
199
Future of Computing
Technology
Research
Emerging directions in computing.
200
Advanced Technology Systems
Technology
Infrastructure
Complex integrated technological systems.
